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Title 29: Labor</TITLE>
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<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 2, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="1" NODE="29:1" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 1</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Office of the Secretary of Labor</E>
</SUBJECT>
<PG>0


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle A" NODE="29:1.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle A—Office of the Secretary of Labor
</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="0" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 0—ETHICS AND CONDUCT OF DEPARTMENT OF LABOR EMPLOYEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 18 U.S.C. 207 (1988); E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306; 5 CFR part 2634, part 2635, part 2640. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>33 FR 10432, July 20, 1968, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Standards of Conduct for Current Department of Labor Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.735-1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.735-1   Cross-references to employee ethical conduct standards, financial disclosure regulations and other ethics regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Employees of the Department of Labor (Department) are subject to the executive branch-wide standards of ethical conduct at 5 CFR part 2635, the Department's regulations at 5 CFR part 5201 which supplement the executive branch-wide standards, the executive branch financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634, the conflicts of interest regulations at 5 CFR part 2640, and the post employment regulations at 5 CFR part 2641.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 73853, Dec. 30, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Post Employment Conflict of Interest</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 11944, Mar. 22, 1983, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 61 FR 57287, Nov. 6, 1996.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart is applicable to any former employee of the Department of Labor leaving Government service on or after July 1, 1979 and prior to January 1, 1991.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 73853, Dec. 30, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-2   Appointment of alternate officials.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, the Secretary of Labor is authorized to perform any of the functions otherwise assigned in this subpart to the Under Secretary in any proceeding. The Secretary is also authorized to appoint as an alternate official any other officer or employee of the Department of Labor to perform functions otherwise assigned in this subpart to the Under Secretary or the Solicitor of Labor in any proceeding; except that: 
</P>
<P>(a) The functions otherwise assigned in this subpart to the Under Secretary and the Solicitor shall not both be performed by the same alternate official in the same proceeding, and 
</P>
<P>(b) The same individual shall not be appointed as both an Examiner under § 0.737-5 and an alternate official under this section in the same proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-3   Initiation of administrative disciplinary hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may, in writing, report an apparent violation of 18 U.S.C. 207(a), (b) or (c) or the regulations of the Office of Personnel Management at 5 CFR part 737 by a former employee described in § 0.737-1 to the Solicitor of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) On receipt of information regarding a possible violation of 18 U.S.C. 207, and after determining that such information appears to be substantiated, the Solicitor shall expeditiously provide such information, along with any comments or agency regulations, to the Office of the Inspector General, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics and to the Criminal Division, Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the Solicitor has determined after appropriate review that there is reasonable cause to believe that a former employee described in § 0.737-1 has violated 18 U.S.C. 207(a), (b) or (c) or the regulations of the Office of Personnel Management at 5 CFR part 737, the Solicitor may initiate an administrative disciplinary proceeding by providing the former employee with a notice of alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(d) The notice of alleged violation shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of allegations (and the basis thereof) sufficiently detailed to enable the former employee to prepare an adequate defense;
</P>
<P>(2) Notification of the right to a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of the method by which a hearing may be requested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-4   Request for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any former employee who is the subject of a notice of alleged violation issued by the Solicitor under § 0.737-3 may within 15 days from the date of such notice request a hearing by writing to: The Office of the Under Secretary, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) If the former employee fails to request a hearing in accordance with paragraph (a), the Under Secretary may then render a final administrative decision in the matter and, if appropriate, impose the sanctions specified in § 0.737-10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-5   Appointment of Examiner.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a notice of alleged violation has been issued and a hearing requested, the Under Secretary shall provide for the selection of a Department of Labor Administrative Law Judge, appointed in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 3105, to act as the Examiner with respect to the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-6   Time, date and place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any hearing shall be conducted at a reasonable time, date and place as determined by the Examiner.
</P>
<P>(b) In setting a hearing date the Examiner shall give due regard to the former employee's need for:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate time to prepare a defense properly, and
</P>
<P>(2) An expeditious resolution of allegations that may be damaging to his or her reputation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-7   Hearing rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following rights shall be afforded at a hearing conducted before the Examiner:
</P>
<P>(1) To represent oneself or to be represented by counsel,
</P>
<P>(2) To introduce and examine witnesses and to submit physical evidence,
</P>
<P>(3) To confront and cross-examine adverse witnesses,
</P>
<P>(4) To present oral argument; and
</P>
<P>(5) To obtain a transcript or recording of proceedings, on request.
</P>
<P>(b) In a hearing under this subpart, the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure and Evidence do not apply. However, the Examiner may make orders and determinations regarding discovery, admissability of evidence, conduct of examination and cross-examination, and similar matters as the Examiner deems necessary or appropriate to ensure orderliness of the proceedings and fundamental fairness to the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) In any proceeding under this subpart, the Department must establish any violation by a preponderance of the evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-8   Hearing decision and exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Examiner shall make a determination exclusively on matters of record in the proceeding, and shall set forth in the hearing decision all findings of fact and conclusions of law relevant to the matters at issue. The hearing decision of the Examiner shall be considered final agency administrative action unless either party files exceptions in writing to the Under Secretary, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, Washington, DC 20210 within 30 days from the date of such hearing decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-9   Decision on exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of exceptions, the Under Secretary may afford both parties an opportunity to submit briefs or other appropriate statements in support of their respective positions.
</P>
<P>(b) The Under Secretary shall issue a decision based solely on the record of the proceedings or those portions thereof cited by the parties to limit the issues.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Under Secretary modifies or reverses the initial hearing decision of the Examiner, he or she shall specify such findings of fact and conclusions of law as are different from those of the Examiner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-10   Administrative sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>The Examiner (or the Under Secretary in any matter in which exceptions are filed or which is decided in accordance with § 0.737-4(b)) may take appropriate action in the case of any individual found in violation of 18 U.S.C. 207(a), (b) or (c) or of the regulations at 5 CFR part 737 upon final administrative decisions by:
</P>
<P>(a) Prohibiting the individual from making, on behalf of any other person (except the United States), any formal or informal appearance before, or, with the intent to influence, any oral or written communication to the Department of Labor on any matter of business for a period not to exceed five years, which may be accomplished by directing agency employees to refuse to participate in any such appearance or to accept any such communications; or
</P>
<P>(b) Taking other appropriate disciplinary action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 0.737-11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.1.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 0.737-11   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Any person found to have participated in a violation of 18 U.S.C. 207(a), (b), or (c) or the regulations at 5 CFR part 737 may seek judicial review of the administrative determination in an appropriate United States district court.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1—PROCEDURES FOR PREDETERMINATION OF WAGE RATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950, 5 U.S.C. appendix; 40 U.S.C. 3141 <I>et seq.;</I> 40 U.S.C. 3145; 40 U.S.C. 3148; Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2014, 79 FR 77527; and the laws referenced by 29 CFR 5.1.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 19533, Apr. 29, 1983, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1 appear at 61 FR 19984, May 3, 1996.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedural rules in this part apply under the Davis-Bacon Act (46 Stat. 1494, as amended; 40 U.S.C. 3141 <I>et seq.</I>), and any laws now existing or subsequently enacted, which require the payment of minimum wages, including fringe benefits, to laborers and mechanics engaged in construction activity under contracts entered into or financed by or with the assistance of agencies of the United States or the District of Columbia, based on determinations by the Secretary of Labor of the wage rates and fringe benefits prevailing for the corresponding classes of laborers and mechanics employed on projects similar to the contract work in the local areas where such work is to be performed.
</P>
<P>(1) A listing of laws requiring the payment of wages at rates predetermined by the Secretary of Labor under the Davis-Bacon Act can be found at <I>www.dol.gov/agencies/whd/government-contracts</I> or its successor website.
</P>
<P>(2) Functions of the Secretary of Labor under these statutes and under Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950 (15 FR 3176, effective May 24, 1950, reprinted as amended in 5 U.S.C. app. 1 and in 64 Stat. 1267), except for functions assigned to the Office of Administrative Law Judges (<I>see</I> part 6 of this subtitle) and appellate functions assigned to the Administrative Review Board (<I>see</I> part 7 of this subtitle) or reserved by the Secretary of Labor (<I>see</I> Secretary's Order 01-2020 (Feb. 21, 2020)), have been delegated to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division and authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part set forth the procedures for making and applying such determinations of prevailing wage rates and fringe benefits pursuant to the Davis-Bacon Act and any laws now existing or subsequently enacted providing for determinations of such wages by the Secretary of Labor in accordance with the provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act.

 
</P>
<P>(c) Procedures set forth in this part are applicable, unless otherwise indicated, both to general wage determinations for contracts in specified localities, and to project wage determinations for use on contract work to be performed on a specific project. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 19533, Apr. 29, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 49823, Dec. 4, 1985; 88 FR 57722, Aug. 23, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Administrator.</I> The term “Administrator” means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or authorized representative.
</P>
<P><I>Agency.</I> The term “agency” means any Federal, State, or local agency or instrumentality, or other similar entity, that enters into a contract or provides assistance through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, to a project subject to the Davis-Bacon labor standards, as defined in § 5.2 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Federal agency.</I> The term “Federal agency” means an agency or instrumentality of the United States or the District of Columbia, as defined in this section, that enters into a contract or provides assistance through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, to a project subject to the Davis-Bacon labor standards.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Area.</I> The term “area” means the city, town, village, county or other civil subdivision of the State in which the work is to be performed.
</P>
<P>(1) For highway projects, the area may be State department of transportation highway districts or other similar State geographic subdivisions.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a project requires work in multiple counties, the area may include all counties in which the work will be performed.
</P>
<P><I>Department of Labor-approved website for wage determinations (DOL-approved website).</I> The term “Department of Labor-approved website for wage determinations” means the government website for both Davis-Bacon Act and Service Contract Act wage determinations. In addition, the DOL-approved website provides compliance assistance information. The term will also apply to any other website or electronic means that the Department of Labor may approve for these purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Employed.</I> Every person performing the duties of a laborer or mechanic in the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of a public building or public work, or building or work financed in whole or in part by assistance from the United States through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, is employed regardless of any contractual relationship alleged to exist between the contractor and such person.
</P>
<P><I>Prevailing wage.</I> The term “prevailing wage” means:
</P>
<P>(1) The wage paid to the majority (more than 50 percent) of the laborers or mechanics in the classification on similar projects in the area during the period in question;
</P>
<P>(2) If the same wage is not paid to a majority of those employed in the classification, the prevailing wage will be the wage paid to the greatest number, <I>provided</I> that such greatest number constitutes at least 30 percent of those employed; or
</P>
<P>(3) If no wage rate is paid to 30 percent or more of those so employed, the prevailing wage will be the average of the wages paid to those employed in the classification, weighted by the total employed in the classification.
</P>
<P><I>Type of construction (or construction type).</I> The term “type of construction (or construction type)” means the general category of construction, as established by the Administrator, for the publication of general wage determinations. Types of construction may include, but are not limited to, building, residential, heavy, and highway. As used in this part, the terms “type of construction” and “construction type” are synonymous and interchangeable.
</P>
<P><I>United States or the District of Columbia.</I> The term “United States or the District of Columbia” means the United States, the District of Columbia, and all executive departments, independent establishments, administrative agencies, and instrumentalities of the United States and of the District of Columbia, and any corporation for which all or substantially all of the stock of which is beneficially owned by the United States, by the District of Columbia, or any of the foregoing departments, establishments, agencies, and instrumentalities.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57723, Aug. 23, 2023]




















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.3   Obtaining and compiling wage rate information.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of making wage determinations, the Administrator will conduct a continuing program for the obtaining and compiling of wage rate information. In determining the prevailing wages at the time of issuance of a wage determination, the Administrator will be guided by the definition of prevailing wage in § 1.2 and will consider the types of information listed in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The Administrator will encourage the voluntary submission of wage rate data by contractors, contractors' associations, labor organizations, public officials and other interested parties, reflecting wage rates paid to laborers and mechanics on various types of construction in the area. The Administrator may also obtain data from agencies on wage rates paid on construction projects under their jurisdiction. The information submitted should reflect the wage rates paid to workers employed in a particular classification in an area, the type or types of construction on which such rate or rates are paid, and whether or not such wage rates were paid on Federal or federally assisted projects subject to Davis-Bacon prevailing wage requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) The following types of information may be considered in making wage rate determinations:
</P>
<P>(1) Statements showing wage rates paid on projects, including the names and addresses of contractors, including subcontractors; the locations, approximate costs, dates of construction and types of projects, as well as whether or not the projects are Federal or federally assisted projects subject to Davis-Bacon prevailing wage requirements; and the number of workers employed in each classification on each project and the respective wage rates paid such workers.
</P>
<P>(2) Signed collective bargaining agreements, for which the Administrator may request that the parties to such agreements submit statements certifying to their scope and application.
</P>
<P>(3) Wage rates determined for public construction by State and local officials pursuant to State and local prevailing wage legislation.
</P>
<P>(4) Wage rate data submitted to the Department of Labor by contracting agencies pursuant to § 5.5(a)(1)(iii) of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(5) For Federal-aid highway projects under 23 U.S.C. 113, information obtained from the highway department(s) of the State(s) in which the project is to be performed. For such projects, the Administrator must consult the relevant State highway department and give due regard to the information thus obtained.
</P>
<P>(6) Any other information pertinent to the determination of prevailing wage rates.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator may initially obtain or supplement such information obtained on a voluntary basis by such means, including the holding of hearings, and from any sources determined to be necessary. All information of the types described in paragraph (b) of this section, pertinent to the determination of the wages prevailing at the time of issuance of the wage determination, will be evaluated in light of the definition of prevailing wage in § 1.2.
</P>
<P>(d) In compiling wage rate data for building and residential wage determinations, the Administrator will not use data from Federal or federally assisted projects subject to Davis-Bacon prevailing wage requirements unless it is determined that there is insufficient wage data to determine the prevailing wages in the absence of such data. Data from Federal or federally assisted projects will be used in compiling wage rate data for heavy and highway wage determinations.
</P>
<P>(e) In determining the prevailing wage, the Administrator may treat variable wage rates paid by a contractor or contractors to workers within the same classification as the same wage where the pay rates are functionally equivalent, as explained by one or more collective bargaining agreements or written policies otherwise maintained by a contractor or contractors.
</P>
<P>(f) If the Administrator determines that there is insufficient wage survey data to determine the prevailing wage for a classification for which conformance requests are regularly submitted pursuant to § 5.5(a)(1)(iii) of this subtitle, the Administrator may list the classification and wage and fringe benefit rates for the classification on the wage determination, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The work performed by the classification is not performed by a classification in the wage determination;
</P>
<P>(2) The classification is used in the area by the construction industry; and
</P>
<P>(3) The wage rate for the classification bears a reasonable relationship to the wage rates contained in the wage determination.
</P>
<P>(g) Under the circumstances described in paragraph (h) of this section, the Administrator may make a wage determination by adopting, with or without modification, one or more prevailing wage rates determined for public construction by State and/or local officials. Provided that the conditions in paragraph (h) are met, the Administrator may do so even if the methods and criteria used by State or local officials differ in some respects from those that the Administrator would otherwise use under the Davis-Bacon Act and the regulations in this part. Such differences may include, but are not limited to, a definition of prevailing wage under a State or local prevailing wage law or regulation that differs from the definition in § 1.2, a geographic area or scope that differs from the standards in § 1.7, and/or the restrictions on data use in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) The Administrator may adopt a State or local wage rate as described in paragraph (g) of this section if the Administrator, after reviewing the rate and the processes used to derive the rate, determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The State or local government sets wage rates, and collects relevant data, using a survey or other process that is open to full participation by all interested parties;
</P>
<P>(2) The wage rate reflects both a basic hourly rate of pay as well as any prevailing fringe benefits, each of which can be calculated separately;
</P>
<P>(3) The State or local government classifies laborers and mechanics in a manner that is recognized within the field of construction; and
</P>
<P>(4) The State or local government's criteria for setting prevailing wage rates are substantially similar to those the Administrator uses in making wage determinations under this part. This determination will be based on the totality of the circumstances, including, but not limited to, the State or local government's definition of prevailing wage; the types of fringe benefits it accepts; the information it solicits from interested parties; its classification of construction projects, laborers, and mechanics; and its method for determining the appropriate geographic area(s).
</P>
<P>(i) In order to adopt wage rates of a State or local government entity pursuant to paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section, the Administrator must obtain the wage rates and any relevant supporting documentation and data from the State or local government entity. Such information may be submitted via email to <I>dba.statelocalwagerates@dol.gov</I>, via mail to U.S. Department of Labor, Wage and Hour Division, Branch of Wage Surveys, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210, or through other means directed by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(j) Nothing in paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section precludes the Administrator from otherwise considering State or local prevailing wage rates, consistent with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, or from giving due regard to information obtained from State highway departments, consistent with paragraph (b)(4) of this section, as part of the Administrator's process of making prevailing wage determinations under this part.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57723, Aug. 23, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.4   Report of agency construction programs.</HEAD>
<P>On an annual basis, each Federal agency using wage determinations under the Davis-Bacon Act or any of the laws referenced by § 5.1 of this subtitle, must furnish the Administrator with a report that contains a general outline of its proposed construction programs for the upcoming 3 fiscal years based on information in the Federal agency's possession at the time it furnishes its report. This report must include a list of proposed projects (including those for which options to extend the contract term of an existing construction contract are expected during the period covered by the report); the estimated start date of construction; the anticipated type or types of construction; the estimated cost of construction; the location or locations of construction; and any other project-specific information that the Administrator requests. The report must also include notification of any significant changes to previously reported construction programs, such as the delay or cancellation of previously reported projects. Reports must be submitted no later than April 10 of each year by email to <I>DavisBaconFedPlan@dol.gov</I>, and must include the name, telephone number, and email address of the official responsible for coordinating the submission.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57724, Aug. 23, 2023]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.5   Publication of general wage determinations and procedure for requesting project wage determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General wage determinations.</I> A “general wage determination” contains, among other information, a list of wage and fringe benefit rates determined to be prevailing for various classifications of laborers or mechanics for specified type(s) of construction in a given area. The Department of Labor publishes “general wage determinations” under the Davis-Bacon Act on the DOL-approved website.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Project wage determinations.</I> (1) A “project wage determination” is specific to a particular project. An agency may request a “project wage determination” for an individual project under any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The project involves work in more than one county and will employ workers who may work in more than one county;
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no general wage determination in effect for the relevant area and type(s) of construction for an upcoming project, or
</P>
<P>(iii) All or virtually all of the work on a contract will be performed by a classification that is not listed in the general wage determination that would otherwise apply, and contract award (or bid opening, in contracts entered into using sealed bidding procedures) has not yet taken place.
</P>
<P>(2) To request a project wage determination, the agency must submit Standard Form (SF) 308, Request for Wage Determination and Response to Request, to the Department of Labor, either by mailing the form to U.S. Department of Labor, Wage and Hour Division, Branch of Construction Wage Determinations, Washington, DC 20210, or by submitting the form through other means directed by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(3) In completing Form SF-308, the agency must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A sufficiently detailed description of the work to indicate the type(s) of construction involved, as well as any additional description or separate attachment, if necessary, for identification of the type(s) of work to be performed. If the project involves multiple types of construction, the requesting agency must attach information indicating the expected cost breakdown by type of construction.
</P>
<P>(ii) The location (city, county, state, zip code) or locations in which the proposed project is located.
</P>
<P>(iii) The classifications needed for the project. The agency must identify only those classifications that will be needed in the performance of the work. Inserting a note such as “entire schedule” or “all applicable classifications” is not sufficient. Additional classifications needed that are not on the form may be typed in the blank spaces or on a separate list and attached to the form.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other information requested in Form SF-308.
</P>
<P>(4) A request for a project wage determination must be accompanied by any pertinent wage information that may be available. When the requesting agency is a State highway department under the Federal-Aid Highway Acts as codified in 23 U.S.C. 113, such agency must also include its recommendations as to the wages which are prevailing for each classification of laborers and mechanics on similar construction in the area.
</P>
<P>(5) The time required for processing requests for project wage determinations varies according to the facts and circumstances in each case. An agency should anticipate that such processing by the Department of Labor will take at least 30 days.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57724, Aug. 23, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.6   Use and effectiveness of wage determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application, validity, and expiration of wage determinations</I>—(1) <I>Application of incorporated wage determinations.</I> Once a wage determination is incorporated into a contract (or once construction has started when there is no contract award), the wage determination generally applies for the duration of the contract or project, except as specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General wage determinations.</I> (i) “General wage determinations” published on the DOL-approved website contain no expiration date. Once issued, a general wage determination remains valid until revised, superseded, or canceled.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a current general wage determination applicable to a project, an agency may use it without notifying the Administrator, <I>Provided</I> that questions concerning its use are referred to the Administrator in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a wage determination is revised, superseded, or canceled, it becomes inactive. Inactive wage determinations may be accessed on the DOL-approved website for informational purposes only. Contracting officers may not use such an inactive wage determination in a contract action unless the inactive wage determination is the appropriate wage determination that must be incorporated to give retroactive effect to the post-award incorporation of a contract clause under § 5.6(a)(1)(ii) of this subtitle or a wage determination under paragraph (f) of this section. Under such circumstances, the agency must provide prior notice to the Administrator of its intent to incorporate an inactive wage determination and may not incorporate it if the Administrator instructs otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Project wage determinations.</I> (i) “Project wage determinations” initially issued will be effective for 180 calendar days from the date of such determinations. If a project wage determination is not incorporated into a contract (or, if there is no contract award, if construction has not started) in the period of its effectiveness it is void.
</P>
<P>(ii) Accordingly, if it appears that a project wage determination may expire between bid opening and contract award (or between initial endorsement under the National Housing Act or the execution of an agreement to enter into a housing assistance payments contract under section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937, and the start of construction) the agency must request a new project wage determination sufficiently in advance of the bid opening to assure receipt prior thereto.
</P>
<P>(iii) However, when due to unavoidable circumstances a project wage determination expires before award but after bid opening (or before the start of construction, but after initial endorsement under the National Housing Act, or before the start of construction but after the execution of an agreement to enter into a housing assistance payments contract under section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937), the head of the agency or the agency head's designee may request the Administrator to extend the expiration date of the project wage determination in the bid specifications instead of issuing a new project wage determination. Such request must be supported by a written finding, which must include a brief statement of factual support, that the extension of the expiration date of the project wage determination is necessary and proper in the public interest to prevent injustice or undue hardship or to avoid serious impairment in the conduct of Government business. The Administrator will either grant or deny the request for an extension after consideration of all of the circumstances, including an examination to determine if the previously issued rates remain prevailing. If the request for extension is denied, the Administrator will proceed to issue a new wage determination for the project.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identifying and incorporating appropriate wage determinations.</I> (1) Contracting agencies are responsible for making the initial determination of the appropriate wage determination(s) for a project and for ensuring that the appropriate wage determination(s) are incorporated in bid solicitations and contract specifications and that inapplicable wage determinations are not incorporated. When a contract involves construction in more than one area, and no multi-county project wage determination has been obtained, the solicitation and contract must incorporate the applicable wage determination for each area. When a contract involves more than one type of construction, the solicitation and contract must incorporate the applicable wage determination for each type of construction involved that is anticipated to be substantial. The contracting agency is responsible for designating the specific work to which each incorporated wage determination applies.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor or subcontractor has an affirmative obligation to ensure that its pay practices are in compliance with the Davis-Bacon Act labor standards.
</P>
<P>(3) Any question regarding application of wage rate schedules or wage determinations must be referred to the Administrator for resolution. The Administrator should consider any relevant factors when resolving such questions, including, but not limited to, relevant area practice information.
</P>
<P>(c)<I> Revisions to wage determinations.</I> (1) General and project wage determinations may be revised from time to time to keep them current. A revised wage determination replaces the previous wage determination. “Revisions,” as used in this section, refers both to modifications of some or all of the rates in a wage determination, such as periodic updates to reflect current rates, and to instances where a wage determination is re-issued entirely, such as after a new wage survey is conducted. Revisions include adjustments to non-collectively bargained prevailing wage and fringe benefit rates on general wage determinations, with the adjustments based on U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics Employment Cost Index (ECI) data or its successor data. Such rates may be adjusted based on ECI data no more frequently than once every 3 years, and no sooner than 3 years after the date of the rate's publication. Such periodic revisions to wage determinations are distinguished from the circumstances described in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Whether a revised wage determination is effective with respect to a particular contract or project generally depends on the date on which the revised wage determination is issued. The date on which a revised wage determination is “issued,” as used in this section, means the date that a revised general wage determination is published on the DOL-approved website or the date that the contracting agency receives actual written notice of a revised project wage determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a revised wage determination is issued before contract award (or the start of construction when there is no award), it is effective with respect to the project, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For contracts entered into pursuant to sealed bidding procedures, a revised wage determination issued at least 10 calendar days before the opening of bids is effective with respect to the solicitation and contract. If a revised wage determination is issued less than 10 calendar days before the opening of bids, it is effective with respect to the solicitation and contract unless the agency finds that there is not a reasonable time still available before bid opening to notify bidders of the revision and a report of the finding is inserted in the contract file. A copy of such report must be made available to the Administrator upon request. No such report is required if the revision is issued after bid opening.
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of projects assisted under the National Housing Act, a revised wage determination is effective with respect to the project if it is issued prior to the beginning of construction or the date the mortgage is initially endorsed, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of projects to receive housing assistance payments under section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937, a revised wage determination is effective with respect to the project if it is issued prior to the beginning of construction or the date the agreement to enter into a housing assistance payments contract is signed, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(D) If, in the case of a contract entered into pursuant to sealed bidding procedures under paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section the contract has not been awarded within 90 days after bid opening, or if, in the case of projects assisted under the National Housing Act or receiving housing assistance payments section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937 under paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) or (C) of this section, construction has not begun within 90 days after initial endorsement or the signing of the agreement to enter into a housing assistance payments contract, any revised general wage determination issued prior to award of the contract or the beginning of construction, as appropriate, is effective with respect to that contract unless the head of the agency or the agency head's designee requests and obtains an extension of the 90-day period from the Administrator. Such request must be supported by a written finding, which includes a brief statement of the factual support, that the extension is necessary and proper in the public interest to prevent injustice or undue hardship or to avoid serious impairment in the conduct of Government business. The Administrator will either grant or deny the request for an extension after consideration of all the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a revised wage determination is issued after contract award (or after the beginning of construction where there is no contract award), it is not effective with respect to that project, except under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) Where a contract or order is changed to include additional, substantial construction, alteration, and/or repair work not within the scope of work of the original contract or order, or to require the contractor to perform work for an additional time period not originally obligated, including where an option to extend the term of a contract is exercised, the contracting agency must include the most recent revision of any wage determination(s) at the time the contract is changed or the option is exercised. This does not apply where the contractor is simply given additional time to complete its original commitment or where the additional construction, alteration, and/or repair work in the modification is merely incidental.
</P>
<P>(B) Some contracts call for construction, alteration, and/or repair work over a period of time that is not tied to the completion of any particular project. Examples of such contracts include, but are not limited to, indefinite-delivery-indefinite-quantity construction contracts to perform any necessary repairs to a Federal facility over a period of time; long-term operations-and-maintenance contracts that may include construction, alteration, and/or repair work covered by Davis-Bacon labor standards; or schedule contracts or blanket purchase agreements in which a contractor agrees to provide certain construction work at agreed-upon prices to Federal agencies. These types of contracts often involve a general commitment to perform necessary construction as the need arises, but do not necessarily specify the exact construction to be performed. For the types of contracts described here, the contracting agency must incorporate into the contract the most recent revision(s) of any applicable wage determination(s) on each anniversary date of the contract's award (or each anniversary date of the beginning of construction when there is no award) unless the agency has sought and received prior written approval from the Department for an alternative process. The Department may grant such an exception when it is necessary and proper in the public interest or to prevent injustice and undue hardship. Such revised wage determination(s) will apply to any construction work that begins or is obligated under such a contract during the 12 months following that anniversary date until such construction work is completed, even if the completion of that work extends beyond the twelve-month period. Where such contracts have task orders, purchase orders, or other similar contract instruments awarded under the master contract, the master contract must specify that the applicable updated wage determination must be included in such task orders, purchase orders, or other similar contract instrument, and the ordering agency must so incorporate the applicable updated wage determinations into their orders. Once the applicable updated wage determination revision has been incorporated into such task orders, purchase orders, or other similar contract instruments, that wage determination revision remains applicable for the duration of such order, unless the order is changed to include additional, substantial construction, alteration, and/or repair work not within the scope of work, when the wage determination must be updated as set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, or the order itself includes the exercise of options. Where such orders do include the exercise of options, updated applicable wage determination revision, as incorporated into the master contract must be included when an option is exercised on such an order.
</P>
<P>(C) For contracts to which both paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section apply, updated wage determinations must be incorporated pursuant to the requirements of both paragraphs. For example, if a contract calls for construction, alteration, and/or repair work over a period of time that is not tied to the completion of any particular project and also has an option provision to extend the contract's term, the most recent revision(s) of any applicable wage determination(s) must be incorporated any time an option is exercised, as described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, and on the contract anniversary date, as described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section. However, when a contract has been changed as described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, including by the exercise of an option, the date of that modification will be considered the contract anniversary date for the purpose of annually updating the wage determination(s) in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section for that year and any subsequent years of contract performance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Corrections for clerical errors.</I> Upon the Administrator's own initiative or at the request of an agency, the Administrator may correct any wage determination, without regard to paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, whenever the Administrator finds that it contains clerical errors. Such corrections must be included in any solicitations, bidding documents, or ongoing contracts containing the wage determination in question, and such inclusion, and application of the correction(s), must be retroactive to the start of construction if construction has begun.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Pre-award determinations that a wage determination may not be used.</I> A wage determination may not be used for a contract, without regard to whether bid opening (or initial endorsement or the signing of a housing assistance payments contract) has occurred, if, prior to the award of a contract (or the start of construction under the National Housing Act, under section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937, or where there is no contract award), the Administrator provides written notice that:
</P>
<P>(1) The wrong wage determination or the wrong schedule was included in the bidding documents or solicitation; or
</P>
<P>(2) A wage determination included in the bidding documents or solicitation was withdrawn by the Department of Labor as a result of a decision by the Administrative Review Board.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Post-award determinations and procedures.</I> (1) If a contract subject to the labor standards provisions of the laws referenced by § 5.1 of this subtitle is entered into without the correct wage determination(s), the agency must, upon the request of the Administrator or upon its own initiative, incorporate the correct wage determination into the contract or require its incorporation. Where the agency is not entering directly into such a contract but instead is providing Federal financial assistance, the agency must ensure that the recipient or sub-recipient of the Federal assistance similarly incorporates the correct wage determination(s) into its contracts.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrator may require the agency to incorporate a wage determination after contract award or after the beginning of construction if the agency has failed to incorporate a wage determination in a contract required to contain prevailing wage rates determined in accordance with the Davis-Bacon Act or has used a wage determination which by its terms or the provisions of this part clearly does not apply to the contract. Further, the Administrator may require the application of the correct wage determination to a contract after contract award or after the beginning of construction when it is found that the wrong wage determination has been incorporated in the contract because of an inaccurate description of the project or its location in the agency's request for the wage determination.
</P>
<P>(3) Under any of the circumstances described in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section, the agency must either terminate and resolicit the contract with the correct wage determination or incorporate the correct wage determination into the contract (or ensure it is so incorporated) through supplemental agreement, change order, or any other authority that may be needed. The method of incorporation of the correct wage determination, and adjustment in contract price, where appropriate, should be in accordance with applicable law. Additionally, the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Unless the Administrator directs otherwise, the incorporation of the correct wage determination(s) must be retroactive to the date of contract award or start of construction if there is no award.
</P>
<P>(ii) If incorporation occurs as the result of a request from the Administrator, the incorporation must take place within 30 days of the date of that request, unless the agency has obtained an extension from the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(iii) Before the agency requires incorporation upon its own initiative, it must provide notice to the Administrator of the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(iv) The contractor must be compensated for any increases in wages resulting from incorporation of a missing wage determination.
</P>
<P>(v) If a recipient or sub-recipient of Federal assistance under any of the applicable laws referenced by § 5.1 of this subtitle refuses to incorporate the wage determination as required, the agency must make no further payment, advance, grant, loan, or guarantee of funds in connection with the contract until the recipient incorporates the required wage determination into its contract, and must promptly refer the dispute to the Administrator for further proceedings under § 5.13 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(vi) Before terminating a contract pursuant to this section, the agency must withhold or cross-withhold sufficient funds to remedy any back-wage liability resulting from the failure to incorporate the correct wage determination or otherwise identify and obligate sufficient funds through a termination settlement agreement, bond, or other satisfactory mechanism.
</P>
<P>(4) Under any of the above circumstances, notwithstanding the requirement to incorporate the correct wage determination(s) within 30 days, the correct wage determination(s) will be effective by operation of law, retroactive to the date of award or the beginning of construction (under the National Housing Act, under section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937, or where there is no contract award), in accordance with § 5.5(e) of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Approval of Davis-Bacon Related Act Federal funding or assistance after contract award.</I> If Federal funding or assistance under a statute requiring payment of wages determined in accordance with the Davis-Bacon Act is not approved prior to contract award (or the beginning of construction where there is no contract award), the applicable wage determination must be incorporated based upon the wages and fringe benefits found to be prevailing on the date of award or the beginning of construction (under the National Housing Act, under section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937, or where there is no contract award), as appropriate, and must be incorporated in the contract specifications retroactively to that date, <I>Provided</I> that upon the request of the head of the Federal agency providing the Federal funding or assistance, in individual cases the Administrator may direct incorporation of the wage determination to be effective on the date of approval of Federal funds or assistance whenever the Administrator finds that it is necessary and proper in the public interest to prevent injustice or undue hardship, <I>Provided further</I> that the Administrator finds no evidence of intent to apply for Federal funding or assistance prior to contract award or the start of construction, as appropriate.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57725, Aug. 23, 2023]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.7   Scope of consideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In making a wage determination, the “area” from which wage data will be drawn will normally be the county unless sufficient current wage data (data on wages paid on current projects or, where necessary, projects under construction no more than 1 year prior to the beginning of the survey or the request for a wage determination, as appropriate) is unavailable to make a wage determination.
</P>
<P>(b) If sufficient current wage data is not available from projects within the county to make a wage determination, wages paid on similar construction in surrounding counties may be considered.
</P>
<P>(c) If sufficient current wage data is not available in surrounding counties, the Administrator may consider wage data from similar construction in comparable counties or groups of counties in the State, and, if necessary, overall statewide data.
</P>
<P>(d) If sufficient current statewide wage data is not available, wages paid on projects completed more than 1 year prior to the beginning of the survey or the request for a wage determination, as appropriate, may be considered.
</P>
<P>(e) The use of “helpers and apprentices” is permitted in accordance with part 5 of this subtitle.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57728, Aug. 23, 2023]


















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.8   Reconsideration by the Administrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested party may seek reconsideration of a wage determination issued under this part or of a decision of the Administrator regarding application of a wage determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Such a request for reconsideration must be in writing, accompanied by a full statement of the interested party's views and any supporting wage data or other pertinent information. Requests must be submitted via email to <I>dba.reconsideration@dol.gov</I>; by mail to Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave., NW, Washington, DC 20210; or through other means directed by the Administrator. The Administrator will respond within 30 days of receipt thereof, or will notify the requestor within the 30-day period that additional time is necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) If the decision for which reconsideration is sought was made by an authorized representative of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, the interested party seeking reconsideration may request further reconsideration by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division. Such a request must be submitted within 30 days from the date the decision is issued; this time may be extended for good cause at the discretion of the Administrator upon a request by the interested party. The procedures in paragraph (b) of this section apply to any such reconsideration requests.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57728, Aug. 23, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.9   Review by Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person may appeal to the Administrative Review Board for a review of a wage determination or its application made under this part, after reconsideration by the Administrator has been sought pursuant to § 1.8 and denied. Any such appeal may, in the discretion of the Administrative Review Board, be received, accepted, and decided in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR part 7 and such other procedures as the Board may establish. 








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.2.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.10   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part are separate and severable and operate independently from one another. If any provision of this part is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision is to be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding is one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision is severable from this part and will not affect the remaining provisions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57728, Aug. 23, 2023]












</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2—GENERAL REGULATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; E.O. 13198, 66 FR 8497, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 750; E.O. 13279, 67 FR 77141, 3 CFR, 2002 Comp., p. 258; E.O. 13559, 75 FR 71319, 3 CFR, 2010 Comp., p. 273; E.O. 14015, 86 FR 10007, 3 CFR, 2021 Comp., p. 517.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>32 FR 11035, July 28, 1967, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1   Employees attached to regional offices.</HEAD>
<P>No person who has been an employee of the Department and attached to a Regional office of any bureau, board, division, or other agency thereof, shall be permitted to practice, appear, or act as attorney, agent, or representative before the Department or any branch or agent thereof in connection with any case or administrative proceeding which was pending before such Regional office during the time of his employment with the Department, unless he shall first obtain the written consent thereto of the Secretary of Labor or his duly authorized representative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.2   Employees attached to Washington office.</HEAD>
<P>No person who has been an employee of the Department and attached to the Washington office of any bureau, board, division, or other agency thereof, shall be permitted to practice, appear, or act as attorney, agent, or representative before the Department or any branch or agent thereof, in connection with any case or administrative proceeding pending before such bureau, board, division, or other agency during the time of his employment with the Department, unless he shall first obtain the written consent thereto of the Secretary of Labor or his duly authorized representative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.3   Consent of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The consent of the Secretary or his duly authorized representative may be obtained as follows: 
</P>
<P>The applicant shall file an application in the form of an affidavit. Such application, directed to the Secretary should: 
</P>
<P>(a) State the former connection of the applicant with the Department; 
</P>
<P>(b) Identify the matter in which the applicant desires to appear, and 
</P>
<P>(c) Contain a statement to the effect that the applicant gave no personal consideration to such matter while he was an employee of the Department. 
</P>
<FP>The application will be denied if the statements contained therein are disproved by an examination of the files, records, and circumstances pertaining to the matter, or if, in the opinion of the Secretary or his duly authorized representative, the public interest so requires. If the Secretary or his duly authorized representative is satisfied that the applicant gave no personal consideration to the matter in question while employed by the Department, and if he is satisfied that it is lawful and consistent with the public interest to do so, he may grant his consent, in writing, to the request of the applicant, subject to such conditions, if any, as he deems necessary and desirable. Any function of the Secretary under this section may be performed by the Under Secretary of Labor. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.6   Claims collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority of Department; incorporation by reference.</I> The regulations in this section are issued under section 3 of the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, 31 U.S.C. 952. They incorporate herein and supplement as necessary for Department operation all provisions of the Joint Regulations of the Attorney General and the Comptroller General set forth in 4 CFR chap. II, which prescribe standards for administrative collection of civil claims by the Government for money or property, for the compromise, termination, or suspension of collection action, with respect to claims not exceeding $20,000, exclusive of interest, and for the referral of civil claims by the Government to the Government Accountability Office, and to the Department of Justice for litigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation.</I> The Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, and such heads of the Administrations and Offices of the Department of Labor as he may designate for such purpose, is authorized to perform all of the duties and exercise all of the authority of the Secretary under the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, the aforementioned Joint Regulations of the Attorney General and the Comptroller General, and the regulations in this section. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 3, 80 Stat. 309; 31 U.S.C. 952) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 9122, June 10, 1969, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.7   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.8   Final agency decisions.</HEAD>
<P>Final agency decisions issued under the statutory authority of the U.S. Department of Labor may be issued by the Secretary of Labor, or by his or her designee under a written delegation of authority. The Administrative Review Board, an organizational entity within the Office of the Secretary, has been delegated authority to issue final agency decisions under the statutes, executive orders, and regulations according to, and except as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 30616, May 20, 2020]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Audiovisual Coverage of Administrative Hearings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 5631, Mar. 2, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.10   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart defines the scope of audiovisual coverage of departmental administrative hearings. It describes the types of proceedings where such coverage is encouraged, defines areas where such coverage is prohibited (as in certain enforcement proceedings or where witnesses object) and areas where a decision concerning coverage is made after weighing the values involved in permitting coverage against the reasons for not permitting it. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.11   General principles.</HEAD>
<P>The following general principles will be observed in granting or denying requests for permission to cover hearings audiovisually: 
</P>
<P>(a) Notice and comment and on-the-record rule making proceedings may involve administrative hearings. If such administrative hearings are held, we encourage their audiovisual coverage. 
</P>
<P>(b) Audiovisual coverage shall be excluded in adjudicatory proceedings involving the rights or status of individuals (including those of small corporations likely to be indistinguishable in the public mind from one or a few individuals) in which an individual's past culpable conduct or other aspect of personal life is a primary subject of adjudication, and where the person in question objects to coverage. 
</P>
<P>(c) Certain proceedings involve balancing of conflicting values in order to determine whether audiovisual coverage should be allowed. Where audiovisual coverage is restricted, the reasons for the restriction shall be stated in the record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.12   Audiovisual coverage permitted.</HEAD>
<P>The following are the types of hearings where the Department encourages audiovisual coverage: 
</P>
<P>(a) All hearings involving notice and comment and on-the-record rule making proceedings. The Administrative Procedure Act provides for notice of proposed rule making with provision for participation by interested parties through submission of written data, views, or arguments, with or without opportunity for oral presentation (5 U.S.C. 553). (In many cases the Department follows the above procedure in matters exempted from these requirements of 5 U.S.C. 553.) On-the-record rule making proceedings under 5 U.S.C. 556 and 557 are also hearings where audiovisual coverage of hearings is encouraged. Examples of hearings encompassed by this paragraph are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Hearings to establish or amend safety or health standards under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 651. 
</P>
<P>(2) Hearings to determine the adequacy of State laws under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970. 
</P>
<P>(b) Hearings to collect or review wage data upon which to base minimum wage rates determined under various laws, such as the Davis-Bacon Act (40 U.S.C. 276a) and related statutes and the Service Contract Act of 1965 (41 U.S.C. 353, as amended by Pub. L. 92-473 approved October 9, 1972). 
</P>
<P>(c) Hearings under section 4(c) of the Service Contract Act of 1965 (41 U.S.C. 353, subsection (c) added by Pub. L. 92-473 approved October 9, 1972) to determine if negotiated rates are substantially at variance with those which prevail in the locality for services of a character similar. 
</P>
<P>(d) Hearings before the Administrative Review Board (parts 1, 3, 5, and 7 of this chapter). 
</P>
<P>(e) Hearings held at the request of a Federal agency to resolve disputes under the Davis-Bacon and related Acts, involving prevailing wage rates or proper classification which involve significant sums of money, large groups of employees or novel or unusual situations. 
</P>
<P>(f) Hearings of special industry committees held pursuant to the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) for the purpose of recommending minimum wage rates to be paid in Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa. 
</P>
<P>(g) Hearings pursuant to section 13(a) of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act (29 U.S.C. 308d) to determine whether a bond in excess of $500,000 may be prescribed. 
</P>
<P>(h) Hearings where the Department is requesting information needed for its administrative use in determining what our position should be (e.g., our hearings on the 4-day, 40-hour workweek). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 5631, Mar. 2, 1973, as amended at 61 FR 19984, May 3, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.13   Audiovisual coverage prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>The Department shall not permit audiovisual coverage of the following types of hearings if any party objects: 
</P>
<P>(a) Hearings to determine whether applications for individual variances should be issued under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970. 
</P>
<P>(b) Hearings (both formal and informal) involving alleged violations of various laws such as the Davis-Bacon Act (40 U.S.C. 276a, <I>et seq.</I>) and related Acts, the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 327 <I>et seq.</I>), the Service Contract Act (41 U.S.C. 351 <I>et seq.</I>), the Walsh Healey Act (41 U.S.C. 35 <I>et seq.</I>), under section 41 of the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 941 <I>et seq.</I>), the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>), and any informal hearings or conferences under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>) which are not within the jurisdiction of the Occupational Safety and Health Commission. 
</P>
<P>(c) Adversary hearings under the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 901 <I>et seq.</I>) and related Acts, which determine an employee's right to compensation. 
</P>
<P>(d) Hearings which determine an employee's right to compensation under the Federal Employees' Compensation Act (5 U.S.C. 8101 <I>et seq.</I>). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.14   Proceedings in which the Department balances conflicting values.</HEAD>
<P>In proceedings not covered by §§ 2.12 and 2.13, the Department should determine whether the public's right to know outbalances the individual's right to privacy. When audiovisual coverage is restricted or excluded, the record shall state fully the reasons for such restriction or exclusion. For example, there would be included in this category hearings before the Board of Contract Appeals involving appeals from contracting officer decisions involving claims for extra costs for extra work, extra costs for delay in completion caused by the Government or for changes in the work, conformity hearings arising under State unemployment insurance laws, etc. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.15   Protection of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>A witness has the right, prior to or during his testimony, to exclude audiovisual coverage of his testimony in any hearing being covered audiovisually. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.16   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer at each hearing which is audiovisually covered is authorized to take any steps he deems necessary to preserve the dignity of the hearing or prevent its disruption by persons setting up or using equipment needed for its audiovisual coverage. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Employees Served With Subpoenas</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301 and Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950, 15 FR 3174, 64 Stat. 1263.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 49543, Oct. 6, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.20   Purpose, scope and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures to be followed whenever a subpoena, order, or other demand (hereinafter referred to as a <I>demand</I>) of a court or other authority, in connection with a proceeding to which the U.S. Department of Labor is not a party, is issued for the production or disclosure of (1) any material contained in the files of the Department, (2) any information relating to material contained in the files of the Department, or (3) any information or material acquired by any person while such person was an employee of the Department as a part of the performance of his official duties or because of his official status.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this subpart, the term <I>employee of the Department</I> includes all officers and employees of the United States Department of Labor appointed by, or subject to the supervision, jurisdiction, or control of the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) For purposes of this subpart, the term <I>appropriate Deputy Solicitor of Labor</I> means the Deputy Solicitor of Labor for National Operations when the person served with a demand is either employed by the National Office of the Labor Department, or who is a former Labor Department employee and is served with a demand in Washington, DC. In all other cases, the term <I>appropriate Deputy Solicitor of Labor</I> means the Deputy Solicitor of Labor for Regional Operations.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this subpart, the term <I>appropriate Office of the Solicitor</I> means that Office of the Associate Solicitor of Labor (in Washington, DC) serving as counsel to the program to which the demand relates, where the person served with a demand is employed by the National Office of the Labor Department, or who is a former Labor Department employee and is served with a demand in Washington, DC. In all other cases, the term <I>appropriate Office of the Solicitor</I> means that Regional Solicitor's Office or Associate Regional Solicitor's Office serving the locality in which the employee or former employee is served with a demand.
</P>
<P>(d) This subpart is intended to provide instructions regarding the internal operations of the Department of Labor, and is not intended, and does not, and may not, be relied upon to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.21   Procedure in the event of a demand for production or disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever an employee or former employee of the Department receives a demand for the production of material or the disclosure of information described in § 2.20(a), he shall immediately notify the appropriate Office of the Solicitor. The appropriate Office of the Solicitor shall be furnished by the party causing the subpoena to be issued with a written summary of the information sought and its relevance to the proceeding in connection with which it was served. The Associate Solicitor, Regional Solicitor, or Associate Regional Solicitor, whichever is appropriate, may waive the requirement that a written summary be furnished where he or she deems it to be unnecessary. The election to waive the requirement of a written summary in no way constitutes a waiver of any other requirement set forth in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.22   Production or disclosure prohibited unless approved by the appropriate Deputy Solicitor of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>In terms of instructing an employee or former employee of the manner in which to respond to a demand, the Associate Solicitor, Regional Solicitor, or Associate Regional Solicitor, whichever is applicable, shall follow the instructions of the appropriate Deputy Solicitor of Labor. No employee or former employee of the Department of Labor shall, in response to a demand of a court or other authority, produce any material contained in the files of the Department or disclose any information relating to material contained in the files of the Department, or disclose any information or produce any material acquired as part of the performance of his official duties or because of his official status without approval of the appropriate Deputy Solicitor of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.23   Procedure where a decision concerning a demand is not made prior to the time a response to the demand is required.</HEAD>
<P>If the response to the demand is required before the instructions from the appropriate Deputy Solicitor of Labor are received, a Department attorney or other government attorney designated for the purpose shall appear with the employee or former employee of the Department upon whom the demand has been made, and shall furnish the court or other authority with a copy of the regulations contained in this subpart and inform the court or other authority that the demand has been, or is being, as the case may be, referred for the prompt consideration of the appropriate Deputy Solicitor of Labor and shall respectfully request the court or other authority to stay the demand pending receipt of the requested instructions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.24   Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.</HEAD>
<P>If the court or other authority declines to stay the effect of the demand in response to a request made in accordance with § 2.23 pending receipt of instructions, or if the court or other authority rules that the demand must be complied with irrespective of instructions not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the employee or former employee upon whom the demand has been made shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand, <I>“United States ex rel Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,”</I> 340 US. 462.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.25   Subpoenas served upon employees of the Office of the Inspector General.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding the requirements set forth in §§ 2.20 through 2.24, this subpart is applicable to demands served on employees or former employees of the Office of the Inspector General (OIG), except that wherever in §§ 2.21 through 2.24 there appear the phrases <I>appropriate Office of the Solicitor, Associate Solicitor, Regional Solicitor, or Associate Regional Solicitor,</I> and <I>appropriate Deputy Solicitor of Labor,</I> there shall be substituted in lieu thereof <I>the Inspector General or Deputy Inspector General.</I> In addition, the first sentence of § 2.22 shall not be applicable to subpoenas served upon employees or former employees of the Office of the Inspector General. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Equal Treatment in Department of Labor Programs for Faith-Based and Community Organizations; Protection of Religious Liberty of Department of Labor Social Service Providers and Beneficiaries</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 41891, July 12, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.30   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of the regulations in this subpart is to ensure that DOL-supported social service programs are open to all qualified organizations, regardless of the organizations' religious character, and to establish clearly the permissible uses to which DOL support for social service programs may be put, and the conditions for receipt of such support. In addition, this proposed rule is designed to ensure that the Department's social service programs are implemented in a manner consistent with the requirements of the Constitution, including the Religion Clauses of the First Amendment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.31   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the regulations in this subpart:




</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>Federal financial assistance</I> means assistance that non-Federal entities receive or administer in the form of grants, contracts, loans, loan guarantees, property, cooperative agreements, food commodities, direct appropriations, or other assistance, but does not include a tax credit, a deduction, or an exemption. Federal financial assistance may be <I>direct</I> or <I>indirect.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>direct Federal financial assistance</I> or <I>Federal financial assistance provided directly</I> means that the Government or a DOL social service intermediary provider under this part selects the provider and either purchases services from that provider (<I>e.g.,</I> via a contract) or awards funds to that provider to carry out a service (<I>e.g.,</I> via a grant or cooperative agreement). In general, Federal financial assistance shall be treated as direct, unless it meets the definition of <I>indirect Federal financial assistance</I> or <I>Federal financial assistance provided indirectly.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>indirect Federal financial assistance</I> or <I>Federal financial assistance provided indirectly</I> means that the choice of the service provider is placed in the hands of the beneficiary, and the cost of that service is paid through a voucher, certificate, or other similar means of Government-funded payment. Federal financial assistance provided to an organization is indirect when:
</P>
<P>(i) The Government program through which the beneficiary receives the voucher, certificate, or other similar means of Government-funded payment is neutral toward religion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The organization receives the assistance wholly as a result of a genuine and independent private choice of the beneficiary, not a choice of the Government. The availability of adequate secular alternatives is a significant factor in determining whether a program affords a genuinely independent and private choice.
</P>
<P>(3) The recipient of sub-awards received through programs administered by States or other intermediaries that are themselves recipients of Federal financial assistance (<I>e.g.,</I> local areas that receive within-state allocations to provide workforce services under title I of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act) are not considered recipients of <I>indirect Federal financial assistance</I> or recipients of <I>Federal financial assistance provided indirectly</I> as those terms are used in Executive Order 13559. These recipients of sub-awards are considered recipients of direct Federal financial assistance.


</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>social service program</I> means a program that is administered or supported by the Federal Government, or by a State or local government using Federal financial assistance, and that provides services directed at reducing poverty, improving opportunities for low-income children, revitalizing low-income communities, empowering low-income families and low-income individuals to become self-sufficient, or otherwise helping people in need. Such programs include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Child care services and services to meet the special needs of children, older individuals, and individuals with disabilities (including physical, mental, or emotional disabilities);
</P>
<P>(2) Job training and related services, and employment services;
</P>
<P>(3) Information, referral, and counseling services;
</P>
<P>(4) Literacy and mentoring programs; and
</P>
<P>(5) Services for the prevention and treatment of juvenile delinquency and substance abuse, services for the prevention of crime and the provision of assistance to the victims and the families of criminal offenders, and services related to intervention in, and prevention of domestic violence.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>DOL</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>DOL-supported social service program, DOL social service program,</I> or <I>DOL program</I> means a social service program, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, that is administered by or for DOL with DOL support. Such programs include, but are not limited to, the one-stop delivery system, Job Corps, and other programs supported through the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>DOL social service provider</I> means any non-Federal organization, other than a State or local government, that seeks or receives DOL support as defined in paragraph (g) of this section, or participates in DOL programs other than as the ultimate beneficiary of such programs.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>DOL social service intermediary provider</I> means any DOL social service provider, including a non-governmental organization, that, as part of its duties, selects subgrantees to receive DOL support or subcontractors to provide DOL-supported services, or has the same duties under this part as a governmental entity.
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>DOL support</I> means Federal financial assistance, as well as procurement funding provided to a non-Federal organization, including a State or local government, to support the organization's administration of or participation in a DOL social service program as defined in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>religious exercise</I> has the meaning given to the term in 42 U.S.C. 2000cc-5(7)(A).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 41891, July 12, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 19421, Apr. 4, 2016; 85 FR 82140, Dec. 17, 2020; 89 FR 15715, Mar. 4, 2024]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.32   Equal participation of faith-based organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Faith-based organizations are eligible, on the same basis as any other organization, to seek DOL support or participate in DOL programs for which they are otherwise eligible. DOL and DOL social service intermediary providers, as well as State and local governments administering DOL support, must not discriminate for or against an organization on the basis of the organization's religious character, motives, or affiliation, or lack thereof, or on the basis of conduct that would not be considered grounds to favor or disfavor a similarly situated secular organization.
</P>
<P>(2) Notices and announcements of award opportunities, and notices of awards and contracts, shall include language substantially similar to that in appendices A and B to this subpart, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A grant document, contract or other agreement, covenant, memorandum of understanding, policy, or regulation that is used by DOL, a State or local government administering DOL support, or a DOL social service intermediary provider must not require faith-based organizations to provide assurances or notices where they are not required of non-faith-based organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) No grant document, contract or other agreement, covenant, memorandum of understanding, policy, or regulation that is used by DOL, a State or local government, or a DOL social service intermediary provider in administering a DOL social service program shall disqualify faith-based or religious organizations from receiving DOL support or participating in DOL programs on the basis of the organization's religious character, motives, or affiliation, or lack thereof, or on the basis of conduct that would not be considered grounds to disqualify a similarly situated secular organization.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A faith-based organization that is a DOL social service provider retains its autonomy; right of expression; religious character; and independence from Federal, State, and local governments and must be permitted to continue to carry out its mission, including the definition, development, practice, and expression of its religious beliefs, provided that it does not use direct Federal financial assistance, whether received through a prime award or sub-award, to support or engage in any explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction, or proselytization).
</P>
<P>(2) Among other things, a faith-based organization must be permitted to:
</P>
<P>(i) Use its facilities to provide DOL-supported social services without concealing, removing, or altering religious art, icons, scriptures, or other religious symbols from those facilities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Retain its authority over its internal governance, including retaining religious terms in its name, selecting its board members on the basis of their acceptance of or adherence to the religious requirements or standards of the organization, and including religious references in its mission statements and other governing documents.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Any restrictions on the use of financial assistance under a grant shall apply equally to faith-based and non-faith-based organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) All organizations, including religious ones, that are DOL social service providers must carry out DOL-supported activities in accordance with all program requirements, including those prohibiting the use of direct Federal financial assistance for explicitly religious activities (including worship, religious instruction, or proselytization).
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to preclude DOL from making an accommodation, including for religious exercise, with respect to one or more program requirements on a case-by-case basis in accordance with the Constitution and laws of the United States, including Federal civil rights laws.
</P>
<P>(2) DOL shall not disqualify an organization from participating in any DOL program for which it is eligible on the basis of the organization's indication that it may request an accommodation with respect to one or more program requirements, unless the organization has made clear that the accommodation is necessary to its participation and DOL has determined that it would deny the accommodation.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15716, Mar. 4, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.33   Responsibilities of DOL, DOL social service providers, and State and local governments administering DOL support.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any organization that participates in a program funded by Federal financial assistance shall not, in providing services supported in whole or in part with Federal financial assistance, or in conducting outreach activities related to such services, discriminate against a current or prospective program beneficiary on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice. However, an organization that participates in a program funded by indirect Federal financial assistance need not modify its program activities to accommodate a beneficiary who chooses to expend the indirect aid on the organization's program. This requirement does not preclude DOL, DOL social service intermediary providers, or State or local governments administering DOL support from accommodating religion in a manner consistent with the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment to the Constitution.


</P>
<P>(b)(1) Organizations that receive direct Federal financial assistance may not engage in explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction, or proselytization) as part of the programs or services funded with direct Federal financial assistance. If an organization conducts such explicitly religious activities, the activities must be offered separately, in time or location, from the programs or services funded with direct Federal financial assistance, and participation must be voluntary for beneficiaries of the programs and services funded with such assistance.


</P>
<P>(2) This regulation is not intended to and does not restrict the exercise of rights or duties guaranteed by the Constitution. For example, program officials must not impermissibly restrict the ability of program beneficiaries or DOL social service providers to freely express their views and to exercise their right to religious freedom. Additionally, subject to reasonable and permissible time, place and manner restrictions, residential facilities that receive DOL support must permit residents to engage in voluntary religious activities, including holding religious services, at these facilities.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and to the extent otherwise permitted by Federal law (including constitutional requirements), direct DOL support may be used to support explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction, or proselytization), and such activities need not be provided separately in time or location from other DOL-supported activities, under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Where DOL support is provided to chaplains to work with inmates in prisons, detention facilities, or community correction centers through social service programs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where DOL support is provided to social service programs in prisons, detention facilities, or community correction centers, in which social service organizations assist chaplains in carrying out their duties; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Where DOL-supported social service programs involve such a degree of government control over the program environment that religious exercise would be significantly burdened absent affirmative steps by DOL or its social service providers.
</P>
<P>(c) If a DOL social service intermediary provider, acting under a contract, grant, or other agreement with the Federal Government or with a State or local government that is administering a program supported by Federal financial assistance, is given the authority under the contract, grant, or agreement to select non-governmental organizations to provide services funded by the Federal Government, the DOL social service intermediary provider must ensure the recipient's compliance with the provisions of Executive Order 13279, as amended by Executive Order 13559, and any implementing rules or guidance. If the DOL social service intermediary provider is a non-governmental organization, it retains all other rights of a non-governmental organization under the program's statutory and regulatory provisions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 41891, July 12, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 19421, Apr. 4, 2016; 85 FR 82141, Dec. 17, 2020; 89 FR 15716, Mar. 4, 2024]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.34" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.34   Written notice to beneficiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to beneficiaries of programs supported by direct Federal financial assistance.</I> Organizations providing social services to beneficiaries under programs supported by direct Federal financial assistance from DOL must give the written notice described in paragraph (c) of this section to beneficiaries and prospective beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to beneficiaries of programs supported by indirect Federal financial assistance.</I> The entity responsible for disbursing Federal funds as part of a program of indirect Federal financial assistance administered by DOL must give the written notice described in paragraph (c) of this section to beneficiaries and prospective beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of the notice.</I> The required language for the written notice to beneficiaries and prospective beneficiaries is set forth in appendix C to this subpart. The notice includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The organization may not discriminate against beneficiaries or prospective beneficiaries on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice;
</P>
<P>(2) The organization may not require beneficiaries or prospective beneficiaries to attend or participate in any explicitly religious activities that are offered by the organization, and any participation by beneficiaries in such activities must be purely voluntary;
</P>
<P>(3) The organization must separate in time or location any privately funded explicitly religious activities from activities supported by direct Federal financial assistance;
</P>
<P>(4) Beneficiaries and prospective beneficiaries may report an organization's violation of these protections, including any denials of services or benefits by an organization, by contacting or filing a written complaint with DOL's Civil Rights Center, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-4123, Washington, DC 20210, or by email to <I>CRCExternalComplaints@dol.gov;</I> and
</P>
<P>(5) Beneficiaries and potential beneficiaries may seek information about whether there are any other federally funded organizations that provide these kinds of services in their area by calling DOL's US2-JOBS helpline toll-free at 1-877-US2-JOBS (1-877-872-5627) or TTY 1-877-889-5627.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing.</I> The written notice set forth in appendix C to this subpart must be given to prospective beneficiaries before they enroll in the program or receive services from the program. The written notice may be incorporated into materials that are otherwise provided to prospective beneficiaries. When the nature of the service provided or exigent circumstances make it impracticable to provide such written notice in advance of the actual service, organizations must advise beneficiaries of their protections at the earliest available opportunity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15716, Mar. 4, 2024]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.35" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.35   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.36" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.36   Application to State and local funds.</HEAD>
<P>If a State or local government voluntarily contributes its own funds to supplement activities carried out under the applicable programs, the State or local government has the option to separate out the Federal funds or commingle them. If the funds are commingled, then the provisions of this subpart apply to all of the commingled funds in the same manner, and to the same extent, as the provisions apply to the Federal assistance. State funds that are contributed pursuant to the requirements of a matching or grant agreement are considered to be commingled funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 41891, July 12, 2004. Redesignated at 81 FR 19423, Apr. 4, 2016]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.37" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.37   Effect of DOL support on Title VII employment nondiscrimination requirements and on other existing statutes.</HEAD>
<P>A religious organization's exemption from the Federal prohibition on employment discrimination on the basis of religion, set forth in section 702(a) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-1, is not forfeited when the organization receives direct or indirect Federal financial assistance from DOL. Some DOL programs, however, were established through Federal statutes containing independent statutory provisions requiring that recipients refrain from discriminating on the basis of religion. In this case, to determine the scope of any applicable requirements, recipients and potential recipients should consult with the appropriate DOL program office or with the Civil Rights Center, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-4123, Washington, DC 20210, (202) 693-6500. If you are deaf, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability, please dial 7-1-1 to reach the number in the preceding sentence through telecommunications relay services.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15717, Mar. 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.38" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.38   Status of nonprofit organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In general, DOL does not require that an organization, including a religious organization, obtain tax-exempt status under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code in order to be eligible for Federal financial assistance under DOL social service programs. Many such programs, however, do require an organization to be a “nonprofit organization” in order to be eligible for such support. Individual solicitations that require organizations to have nonprofit status must specifically so indicate in the eligibility section of the solicitation. In addition, any solicitation for a program that requires an organization to maintain tax-exempt status must expressly state the statutory authority for requiring such status. For assistance with questions about a particular solicitation, applicants should contact the DOL program office that issued the solicitation.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise provided by statute, in DOL programs in which an applicant must show that it is a nonprofit organization, the applicant must be permitted to do so by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) Proof that the Internal Revenue Service currently recognizes the applicant as tax exempt under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement from a State taxing body or the State Secretary of State certifying that:
</P>
<P>(i) The organization is a nonprofit organization operating within the State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) No part of its net earnings may lawfully benefit any private shareholder or individual;






</P>
<P>(3) A certified copy of the applicant's certificate of incorporation or similar document that clearly establishes the nonprofit status of the applicant; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any item described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, if that item applies to a State or national parent organization, together with a statement by the State or national parent organization that the applicant is a local nonprofit affiliate of the organization.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 41891, July 12, 2004. Redesignated at 81 FR 19423, Apr. 4, 2016; 85 FR 82141, Dec. 17, 2020; 89 FR 15717, Mar. 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.39" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.39   Political or religious affiliation.</HEAD>
<P>Decisions about awards of Federal financial assistance must be free from political interference or even the appearance of such interference and must be made on the basis of merit, not on the basis of the religious affiliation of a recipient organization or lack thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 19423, Apr. 4, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 82141, Dec. 17, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.40   Nondiscrimination among faith-based organizations.</HEAD>
<P>Neither DOL nor any State or local government or other entity receiving financial assistance under any DOL program or service shall construe the provisions of this part in such a way as to advantage or disadvantage faith-based organizations affiliated with historic or well-established religions or sects in comparison with other religions or sects.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82141, Dec. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.41" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.41   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>Should a court of competent jurisdiction hold any provision(s) of this subpart to be invalid, such action will not affect any other provision of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82141, Dec. 17, 2020]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.13.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart D of Part 2—Notice or Announcement of Award Opportunities
</HEAD>
<P>(a) Faith-based organizations may apply for this award on the same basis as any other organization, subject to the protections and requirements of this subpart and any applicable constitutional and statutory requirements, including 42 U.S.C. 2000bb <I>et seq.</I> DOL will not, in the selection of recipients, discriminate for or against an organization on the basis of the organization's religious character, motives, or affiliation, or lack thereof, or on the basis of conduct that would not be considered grounds to favor or disfavor a similarly situated secular organization.
</P>
<P>(b) A faith-based organization that participates in this program will retain its independence from the Government and may continue to carry out its mission consistent with religious freedom and conscience protections in Federal law.
</P>
<P>(c) A faith-based organization may not use direct Federal financial assistance to support or engage in any explicitly religious activities except where consistent with the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment and any other applicable requirements. An organization receiving Federal financial assistance also may not, in providing services funded by DOL, or in conducting outreach activities related to such services, discriminate against a program beneficiary or prospective program beneficiary on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15717, Mar. 4, 2024]










</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.13.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart D of Part 2—Notice of Award or Contract
</HEAD>
<P>(a) A faith-based organization that participates in this program retains its independence from the Government and may continue to carry out its mission consistent with religious freedom and conscience protections in Federal law.
</P>
<P>(b) A faith-based organization may not use direct Federal financial assistance to support or engage in any explicitly religious activities except where consistent with the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment and any other applicable requirements. An organization receiving Federal financial assistance also may not, in providing services funded by DOL, or in conducting outreach activities related to such services, discriminate against a program beneficiary or prospective program beneficiary on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15717, Mar. 4, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.3.4.1.13.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart D of Part 2—Written Notice of Beneficiary Protections
</HEAD>
<P>Name of Organization:
</P>
<P>Name of Program:
</P>
<P>Type of Federal Financial Assistance: [specify DIRECT Federal financial assistance or INDIRECT Federal financial assistance]
</P>
<P>Contact Information for Program Staff: [provide name, phone number, and email address, if appropriate]
</P>
<P>Because this program is supported in whole or in part by financial assistance from the Federal Government, we are required to let you know that:
</P>
<P>(1) We may not discriminate against you on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice;
</P>
<P>(2) We may not require you to attend or participate in any explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction, or proselytization) that are offered by our organization, and any participation by you in such activities must be purely voluntary;
</P>
<P>(3) We must separate in time or location any privately funded explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction, or proselytization) from activities supported with direct Federal financial assistance;
</P>
<P>(4) You may report violations of these protections, including any denials of services or benefits by an organization, by contacting or filing a written complaint with the U.S. Department of Labor's Civil Rights Center, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-4123, Washington, DC 20210, or by email to <I>CRCExternalComplaints@dol.gov;</I> and
</P>
<P>(5) If you would like to seek information about whether there are any other federally funded organizations that provide these kinds of services in your area, please call toll-free 1-877-US2-JOBS (1-877-872-5627) or TTY 1-877-889-5627.
</P>
<P>This written notice must be given to you before you enroll in the program or receive services from the program, unless the nature of the service provided or exigent circumstances make it impracticable to provide such notice before we provide the actual service. In such an instance, this notice must be given to you at the earliest available opportunity.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15717, Mar. 4, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 3—CONTRACTORS AND SUBCONTRACTORS ON PUBLIC BUILDING OR PUBLIC WORK FINANCED IN WHOLE OR IN PART BY LOANS OR GRANTS FROM THE UNITED STATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>R.S. 161, sec. 2, 48 Stat. 848; Reorg. Plan No. 14 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1267; 5 U.S.C. 301; 40 U.S.C. 3145; Secretary's Order 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>29 FR 97, Jan. 4, 1964, unless otherwise noted. 










</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes “anti-kickback” regulations under section 2 of the Act of June 13, 1934, as amended (40 U.S.C. 3145), popularly known as the Copeland Act. This part applies to any contract which is subject to Federal wage standards and which is for the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of public buildings, public works or buildings or works financed in whole or in part by loans or grants from the United States. The part is intended to aid in the enforcement of the minimum wage provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act and the various statutes dealing with federally assisted construction that contain similar minimum wage provisions, including those provisions which are not subject to Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950 (<I>e.g.,</I> the College Housing Act of 1950, the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, and the Housing Act of 1959), and in the enforcement of the overtime provisions of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act whenever they are applicable to construction work. The part details the obligation of contractors and subcontractors relative to the weekly submission of statements regarding the wages paid on work covered thereby; sets forth the circumstances and procedures governing the making of payroll deductions from the wages of those employed on such work; and delineates the methods of payment permissible on such work.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57728, Aug. 23, 2023] 








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the regulations in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated person.</I> The term “affiliated person” includes a spouse, child, parent, or other close relative of the contractor or subcontractor; a partner or officer of the contractor or subcontractor; a corporation closely connected with the contractor or subcontractor as parent, subsidiary, or otherwise, and an officer or agent of such corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Agency.</I> The term “agency” means any Federal, State, or local government agency or instrumentality, or other similar entity, that enters into a contract or provides assistance through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, for a project subject to the Davis-Bacon labor standards, as defined in § 5.2 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Federal agency.</I> The term “Federal agency” means an agency or instrumentality of the United States or the District of Columbia, as defined in this section, that enters into a contract or provides assistance through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, to a project subject to the Davis-Bacon labor standards.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Building or work.</I> The term “building or work” generally includes construction activity of all types, as distinguished from manufacturing, furnishing of materials, or servicing and maintenance work. The term includes, without limitation, buildings, structures, and improvements of all types, such as bridges, dams, solar panels, wind turbines, broadband installation, installation of electric car chargers, plants, highways, parkways, streets, subways, tunnels, sewers, mains, powerlines, pumping stations, heavy generators, railways, airports, terminals, docks, piers, wharves, ways, lighthouses, buoys, jetties, breakwaters, levees, and canals; dredging, shoring, rehabilitation and reactivation of plants, scaffolding, drilling, blasting, excavating, clearing, and landscaping. The term “building or work” also includes a portion of a building or work, or the installation (where appropriate) of equipment or components into a building or work.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Building or work financed in whole or in part by loans or grants from the United States.</I> The term “building or work financed in whole or in part by loans or grants from the United States” includes any building or work for which construction, prosecution, completion, or repair, as defined in this section, payment or part payment is made directly or indirectly from funds provided by loans or grants by a Federal agency. The term includes any building or work for which the Federal assistance granted is in the form of loan guarantees or insurance.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Construction, prosecution, completion, or repair.</I> The term “construction, prosecution, completion, or repair” mean all types of work done on a particular building or work at the site thereof as specified in § 5.2 of this subtitle, including, without limitation, altering, remodeling, painting and decorating, installation on the site of the work of items fabricated offsite, covered transportation as reflected in § 5.2, demolition and/or removal as reflected in § 5.2, and the manufacturing or furnishing of materials, articles, supplies, or equipment on the site of the building or work, performed by laborers and mechanics at the site.
</P>
<P><I>Employed (and wages).</I> Every person paid by a contractor or subcontractor in any manner for their labor in the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of a public building or public work or building or work financed in whole or in part by assistance from the United States through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, is “employed” and receiving “wages”, regardless of any contractual relationship alleged to exist between the contractor and such person.
</P>
<P><I>Public building (or public work).</I> The term “public building (or public work)” includes a building or work the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of which, as defined in this section, is carried on directly by authority of or with funds of a Federal agency to serve the general public regardless of whether title thereof is in a Federal agency. The construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of a portion of a building or work, or the installation (where appropriate) of equipment or components into a building or work, may still be considered a public building or work, even where the entire building or work is not owned, leased by, or to be used by the Federal agency, as long as the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of that portion of the building or work, or the installation (where appropriate) of equipment or components into that building or work, is carried on by authority of or with funds of a Federal agency to serve the interest of the general public.
</P>
<P><I>United States or the District of Columbia.</I> The term “United States or the District of Columbia” means the United States, the District of Columbia, and all executive departments, independent establishments, administrative agencies, and instrumentalities of the United States and of the District of Columbia, and any corporation for which all or substantially all of the stock of which is beneficially owned by the United States, by the District of Columbia, or any of the foregoing departments, establishments, agencies, and instrumentalities.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57729, Aug. 23, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.3   Certified payrolls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Each contractor or subcontractor engaged in the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of any public building or public work, or building or work financed in whole or in part by loans or grants from the United States, each week must provide a copy of its weekly payroll for all laborers and mechanics engaged on work covered by this part and part 5 of this chapter during the preceding weekly payroll period, accompanied by a statement of compliance certifying the accuracy of the weekly payroll information. This statement must be executed by the contractor or subcontractor or by an authorized officer or employee of the contractor or subcontractor who supervises the payment of wages, and must be on the back of Form WH-347, “Payroll (For Contractors Optional Use)” or on any form with identical wording. Copies of WH-347 may be obtained from the contracting or sponsoring agency or from the Wage and Hour Division website at <I>https://www.dol.gov/agencies/whd/government-contracts/construction/forms</I> or its successor site. The signature by the contractor, subcontractor, or the authorized officer or employee must be an original handwritten signature or a legally valid electronic signature.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this section do not apply to any contract of $2,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon a written finding by the head of a Federal agency, the Secretary of Labor may provide reasonable limitations, variations, tolerances, and exemptions from the requirements of this section subject to such conditions as the Secretary of Labor may specify.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57729, Aug. 23, 2023]






















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.4   Submission of certified payroll and the preservation and inspection of weekly payroll records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certified payroll.</I> Each certified payroll required under § 3.3 must be delivered by the contractor or subcontractor, within 7 days after the regular payment date of the payroll period, to a representative at the site of the building or work of the agency contracting for or financing the work, or, if there is no representative of the agency at the site of the building or work, the statement must be delivered by mail or by any other means normally assuring delivery by the contractor or subcontractor, within that 7 day time period, to the agency contracting for or financing the building or work. After the certified payrolls have been reviewed in accordance with the contracting or sponsoring agency's procedures, such certified payrolls must be preserved by the agency for a period of 3 years after all the work on the prime contract is completed and must be produced for inspection, copying, and transcription by the Department of Labor upon request. The certified payrolls must also be transmitted together with a report of any violation, in accordance with applicable procedures prescribed by the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Each contractor or subcontractor must preserve the regular payroll records for a period of 3 years after all the work on the prime contract is completed. The regular payroll records must set out accurately and completely the name; Social Security number; last known address, telephone number, and email address of each laborer and mechanic; each worker's correct classification(s) of work actually performed; hourly rates of wages paid (including rates of contributions or costs anticipated for bona fide fringe benefits or cash equivalents thereof); daily and weekly number of hours actually worked in total and on each covered contract; deductions made; and actual wages paid. The contractor or subcontractor must make such regular payroll records, as well as copies of the certified payrolls provided to the contracting or sponsoring agency, available at all times for inspection, copying, and transcription by the contracting officer or their authorized representative, and by authorized representatives of the Department of Labor.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57730, Aug. 23, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.5   Payroll deductions permissible without application to or approval of the Secretary of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>Deductions made under the circumstances or in the situations described in the paragraphs of this section may be made without application to and approval of the Secretary of Labor:
</P>
<P>(a) Any deduction made in compliance with the requirements of Federal, State, or local law, such as Federal or State withholding income taxes and Federal social security taxes.
</P>
<P>(b) Any deduction of sums previously paid to the laborer or mechanic as a bona fide prepayment of wages when such prepayment is made without discount or interest. A bona fide prepayment of wages is considered to have been made only when cash or its equivalent has been advanced to the person employed in such manner as to give him complete freedom of disposition of the advanced funds.
</P>
<P>(c) Any deduction of amounts required by court process to be paid to another, unless the deduction is in favor of the contractor, subcontractor, or any affiliated person, or when collusion or collaboration exists.
</P>
<P>(d) Any deduction constituting a contribution on behalf of the laborer or mechanic employed to funds established by the contractor or representatives of the laborers or mechanics, or both, for the purpose of providing either from principal or income, or both, medical or hospital care, pensions or annuities on retirement, death benefits, compensation for injuries, illness, accidents, sickness, or disability, or for insurance to provide any of the foregoing, or unemployment benefits, vacation pay, savings accounts, or similar payments for the benefit of the laborers or mechanics, their families and dependents: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the following standards are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The deduction is not otherwise prohibited by law;
</P>
<P>(2) It is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Voluntarily consented to by the laborer or mechanic in writing and in advance of the period in which the work is to be done and such consent is not a condition either for the obtaining of or for the continuation of employment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided for in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement between the contractor or subcontractor and representatives of its laborers or mechanics;
</P>
<P>(3) No profit or other benefit is otherwise obtained, directly or indirectly, by the contractor or subcontractor or any affiliated person in the form of commission, dividend, or otherwise; and
</P>
<P>(4) The deductions must serve the convenience and interest of the laborer or mechanic.
</P>
<P>(e) Any deduction requested by the laborer or mechanic to enable him or her to repay loans to or to purchase shares in credit unions organized and operated in accordance with Federal and State credit union statutes.
</P>
<P>(f) Any deduction voluntarily authorized by the laborer or mechanic for the making of contributions to governmental or quasi-governmental agencies, such as the American Red Cross.
</P>
<P>(g) Any deduction voluntarily authorized by the laborer or mechanic for the making of contributions to charitable organizations as defined by 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(h) Any deductions to pay regular union initiation fees and membership dues, not including fines or special assessments: <I>Provided, however,</I> That a collective bargaining agreement between the contractor or subcontractor and representatives of its laborers or mechanics provides for such deductions and the deductions are not otherwise prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(i) Any deduction not more than for the “reasonable cost” of board, lodging, or other facilities meeting the requirements of section 3(m) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, and 29 CFR part 531. When such a deduction is made the additional records required under 29 CFR 516.25(a) must be kept.
</P>
<P>(j) Any deduction for the cost of safety equipment of nominal value purchased by the laborer or mechanic as their own property for their personal protection in their work, such as safety shoes, safety glasses, safety gloves, and hard hats, if such equipment is not required by law to be furnished by the contractor, if such deduction does not violate the Fair Labor Standards Act or any other law, if the cost on which the deduction is based does not exceed the actual cost to the contractor where the equipment is purchased from the contractor and does not include any direct or indirect monetary return to the contractor where the equipment is purchased from a third person, and if the deduction is either:
</P>
<P>(1) Voluntarily consented to by the laborer or mechanic in writing and in advance of the period in which the work is to be done and such consent is not a condition either for the obtaining of employment or its continuance; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provided for in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement between the contractor or subcontractor and representatives of its laborers and mechanics.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57730, Aug. 23, 2023]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.6   Payroll deductions permissible with the approval of the Secretary of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>Any contractor or subcontractor may apply to the Secretary of Labor for permission to make any deduction not permitted under § 3.5. The Secretary may grant permission whenever he finds that: 
</P>
<P>(a) The contractor, subcontractor, or any affiliated person does not make a profit or benefit directly or indirectly from the deduction either in the form of a commission, dividend, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(b) The deduction is not otherwise prohibited by law; 
</P>
<P>(c) The deduction is either (1) voluntarily consented to by the employee in writing and in advance of the period in which the work is to be done and such consent is not a condition either for the obtaining of employment or its continuance, or (2) provided for in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement between the contractor or subcontractor and representatives of its employees; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The deduction serves the convenience and interest of the employee. 








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.7   Applications for the approval of the Secretary of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>Any application for the making of payroll deductions under § 3.6 must comply with the requirements prescribed in the following paragraphs of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The application must be in writing and addressed to the Secretary of Labor. The application must be submitted by email to <I>dbadeductions@dol.gov</I>, by mail to the United States Department of Labor, Wage and Hour Division, Director, Division of Government Contracts Enforcement, 200 Constitution Ave., NW, Room S-3502, Washington, DC 20210, or by any other means normally assuring delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) The application need not identify the contract or contracts under which the work in question is to be performed. Permission will be given for deductions on all current and future contracts of the applicant for a period of 1 year. A renewal of permission to make such payroll deduction will be granted upon the submission of an application which makes reference to the original application, recites the date of the Secretary of Labor's approval of such deductions, states affirmatively that there is continued compliance with the standards set forth in the provisions of § 3.6, and specifies any conditions which have changed in regard to the payroll deductions.
</P>
<P>(c) The application must state affirmatively that there is compliance with the standards set forth in the provisions of § 3.6. The affirmation must be accompanied by a full statement of the facts indicating such compliance.
</P>
<P>(d) The application must include a description of the proposed deduction, the purpose of the deduction, and the classes of laborers or mechanics from whose wages the proposed deduction would be made.
</P>
<P>(e) The application must state the name and business of any third person to whom any funds obtained from the proposed deductions are to be transmitted and the affiliation of such person, if any, with the applicant.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57731, Aug. 23, 2023]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.8   Action by the Secretary of Labor upon applications.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Labor will decide whether or not the requested deduction is permissible under provisions of § 3.6; and will notify the applicant in writing of the decision.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57731, Aug. 23, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.9   Prohibited payroll deductions.</HEAD>
<P>Deductions not elsewhere provided for by this part and which are not found to be permissible under § 3.6 are prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.10   Methods of payment of wages.</HEAD>
<P>The payment of wages shall be by cash, negotiable instruments payable on demand, or the additional forms of compensation for which deductions are permissible under this part. No other methods of payment shall be recognized on work subject to the Copeland Act. 
















</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.4.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.11   Regulations part of contract.</HEAD>
<P>All contracts made with respect to the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of any public building or public work or building or work financed in whole or in part by loans or grants from the United States covered by the regulations in this part must expressly bind the contractor or subcontractor to comply with such of the regulations in this part as may be applicable. In this regard, see § 5.5(a) of this subtitle. However, these requirements will be considered to be effective by operation of law, whether or not they are incorporated into such contracts, as set forth in § 5.5(e) of this subtitle.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57731, Aug. 23, 2023] 








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4—LABOR STANDARDS FOR FEDERAL SERVICE CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>41 U.S.C. 351 <I>et seq.;</I> 41 U.S.C. 38 and 39; 5 U.S.C. 301; Pub. L. 104-188, 2105(b); Pub. L. 110-28, 121 Stat. 112; Secretary's Order 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 4 appear at 61 FR 19984, May 3, 1996.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Service Contract Labor Standards Provisions and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the Department of Labor's rules relating to the administration of the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act of 1965, as amended, referred to hereinafter as the Act. Rules of practice for administrative proceedings under the Act and for the review of wage determinations are contained in parts 6 and 8 of this chapter. See part 1925 of this title for the safety and health standards applicable under the Service Contract Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.1a" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.1a   Definitions and use of terms.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless otherwise indicated by the context—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act, Service Contract Act,</I> McNamara-O'Hara Act, or <I>Service Contract Act of 1965</I> shall mean the Service Contract Act of 1965 as amended by Public Law 92-473, 86 Stat. 789, effective October 9, 1972, Public Law 93-57, 87 Stat. 140, effective July 6, 1973, and Public Law 94-489, 90 Stat. 2358, effective October 13, 1976 and any subsequent amendments thereto. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secretary</I> includes the Secretary of Labor or their authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Wage and Hour Division</I> means the organizational unit of the Department of Labor to which is assigned the performance of functions of the Secretary under the Service Contract Act of 1965, as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, or authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contract</I> includes any contract subject wholly or in part to the provisions of the Service Contract Act of 1965 as amended, and any subcontract of any tier thereunder. (See §§ 4.10-4.134.) 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contractor</I> includes a subcontractor whose subcontract is subject to provisions of the Act. Also, the term <I>employer</I> means, and is used interchangeably with, the terms <I>contractor</I> and <I>subcontractor</I> in various sections in this part. The U.S. Government, its agencies, and instrumentalities are not contractors, subcontractors, employers or joint employers for purposes of compliance with the provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Affiliate</I> or <I>affiliated person</I> includes a spouse, child, parent, or other close relative of the contractor or subcontractor; a partner or officer of the contractor or subcontractor; a corporation closely connected with a contractor or subcontractor as a parent, subsidiary, or otherwise; and an officer or agent of such corporation. An affiliation is also deemed to exist where, directly or indirectly, one business concern or individual controls or has the power to control the other or where a third party controls or has the power to control both.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Wage determination</I> includes any determination of minimum wage rates or fringe benefits made pursuant to the provisions of sections 2(a) and/or 4(c) of the Act for application to the employment in a locality of any class or classes of service employees in the performance of any contract in excess of $2,500 which is subject to the provisions of the Service Contract Act of 1965. A wage determination is effective upon its publication on the WDOL Web site or when a Federal agency receives a response from the Department of Labor to an e98.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Wage Determinations OnLine (WDOL)</I> means the Government Internet Web site for both Davis-Bacon Act and Service Contract Act wage determinations available at <I>http://www.wdol.gov.</I> In addition, WDOL provides compliance assistance information and a link to submit an e98 or any electronic means the Department of Labor may approve for this purpose. The term will also apply to any other Internet Web site or electronic means that the Department of Labor may approve for these purposes.
</P>
<P>(j) The <I>e98</I> means a Department of Labor approved electronic application (<I>http://www.wdol.gov</I>), whereby a contracting officer submits pertinent information to the Department of Labor and requests a wage determination directly from the Wage and Hour Division. The term will also apply to any other process or system the Department of Labor may establish for this purpose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 70 FR 50895, Aug. 26, 2005; 81 FR 2224, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.1b" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.1b   Payment of minimum compensation based on collectively bargained wage rates and fringe benefits applicable to employment under predecessor contract.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 4(c) of the Service Contract Act of 1965 as amended provides special minimum wage and fringe benefit requirements applicable to every contractor and subcontractor under a contract which succeeds a contract subject to the Act and under which substantially the same services as under the predecessor contract are furnished in the same locality. Section 4(c) provides that no such contractor or subcontractor shall pay any service employee employed on the contract work less than the wages and fringe benefits provided for in a collective bargaining agreement as a result of arms-length negotiations, to which such service employees would have been entitled if they were employed under the predecessor contract, including accrued wages and fringe benefits and any prospective increases in wages and fringe benefits provided for in such collective bargaining agreement. If, however, the Secretary finds after a hearing in accordance with the regulations set forth in § 4.10 of this subpart and parts 6 and 8 of this title that in any of the foregoing circumstances such wages and fringe benefits are substantially at variance with those which prevail for service of a character similar in the locality, those wages and/or fringe benefits in such collective bargaining agreement which are found to be substantially at variance shall not apply, and a new wage determination shall be issued. If the contract has been awarded and work begun prior to a finding that the wages and/or fringe benefits in a collective bargaining agreement are substantially at variance with those prevailing in the locality, the payment obligation of such contractor or subcontractor with respect to the wages and fringe benefits contained in the new wage determination shall be applicable as of the date of the Administrative Law Judge's decision or, where the decision is reviewed by the Administrative Review Board, the date of the decision of the Administrative Review Board. (See also § 4.163(c).) 
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act, the application of section 4(c) is made subject to the following variation in the circumstances and under the conditions described: The wage rates and fringe benefits provided for in any collective bargaining agreement applicable to the performance of work under the predecessor contract which is consummated during the period of performance of such contract shall not be effective for purposes of the successor contract under the provisions of section 4(c) of the Act or under any wage determination implementing such section issued pursuant to section 2(a) of the Act, if—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a successor contract for which bids have been invited by formal advertising, notice of the terms of such new or changed collective bargaining agreement is received by the contracting agency less than 10 days before the date set for opening of bids, provided that the contracting agency finds that there is not reasonable time still available to notify bidders; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notice of the terms of a new or changed collective bargaining agreement is received by the agency after award of a successor contract to be entered into pursuant to negotiations or as a result of the execution of a renewal option or an extension of the initial contract term, provided that the contract start of performance is within 30 days of such award or renewal option or extension. If the contract does not specify a start of performance date which is within 30 days from the award, and/or performance of such procurement does not commence within this 30-day period, any notice of the terms of a new or changed collective bargaining agreement received by the agency not less than 10 days before commencement of the contract will be effective for purposes of the successor contract under section 4(c); and
</P>
<P>(3) The limitations in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section shall apply only if the contracting officer has given both the incumbent (predecessor) contractor and his employees' collective bargaining representative written notification at least 30 days in advance of all applicable estimated procurement dates, including issue of bid solicitation, bid opening, date of award, commencement of negotiations, receipt of proposals, or the commencement date of a contract resulting from a negotiation, option, or extension, as the case may be.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.2   Payment of minimum wage specified in section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 under all service contracts.</HEAD>
<P>Section 2(b)(1) of the Service Contract Act of 1965 provides in effect that, regardless of contract amount, no contractor or subcontractor performing work under any Federal contract the principal purpose of which is to furnish services through the use of service employees shall pay any employees engaged in such work less than the minimum wage specified in section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68663, Dec. 30, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.3   Wage determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits for service employees which the Act requires to be specified in contracts and bid solicitations subject to section 2(a) thereof will be set forth in wage determinations issued by the Administrator. Wage determinations shall be issued as soon as administratively feasible for all contracts subject to section 2(a) of the Act, and will be issued for all contracts entered into under which more than 5 service employees are to be employed.
</P>
<P>(b) As described in subpart B of this part—Wage Determination Procedures, two types of wage determinations are issued under the Act: <I>Prevailing in the locality</I> or <I>Collective Bargaining Agreement (Successorship)</I> wage determinations. The facts related to a specific solicitation and contract will determine the type of wage determination applicable to that procurement. In addition, different types of prevailing wage determinations may be issued depending upon the nature of the contract. While prevailing wage determinations based upon cross-industry survey data are applicable to most contracts covered by the Act, in some cases the Department of Labor may issue industry specific wage determinations for application to specific types of service contracts. In addition, the geographic scope of contracts is often different and the geographic scope of the underlying survey data for the wage determinations applicable to those contracts may be different.
</P>
<P>(c) Such wage determinations will set forth for the various classes of service employees to be employed in furnishing services under such contracts in the appropriate localities, minimum monetary wage rates to be paid and minimum fringe benefits to be furnished them during the periods when they are engaged in the performance of such contracts, including, where appropriate under the Act, provisions for adjustments in such minimum rates and benefits to be placed in effect under such contracts at specified future times. The wage rates and fringe benefits set forth in such wage determinations shall be determined in accordance with the provisions of sections 2(a)(1), (2), and (5), 4(c) and 4(d) of the Act from those prevailing in the locality for such employees, with due consideration of the rates that would be paid for direct Federal employment of any classes of such employees whose wages, if Federally employed, would be determined as provided in 5 U.S.C. 5341 or 5 U.S.C. 5332, or from pertinent collective bargaining agreements with respect to the implementation of section 4(c). The wage rates and fringe benefits so determined for any class of service employees to be engaged in furnishing covered contract services in a locality shall be made applicable by contract to all service employees of such class employed to perform such services in the locality under any contract subject to section 2(a) of the Act which is entered into thereafter and before such determination has been rendered obsolete by a withdrawal, modification, revision, or supersedure.
</P>
<P>(d) Generally, wage determinations issued for solicitations or negotiations for any contract where the place of performance is unknown will contain minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits for the various geographic localities where the work may be performed which were identified in the initial solicitation. (See § 4.4(a)(3)(i).)
</P>
<P>(e) Wage determinations will be available for public inspection during business hours at the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC, and copies will be made available upon request at Regional Offices of the Wage and Hour Division. In addition, most prevailing wage determinations are available online from WDOL. Archived versions of SCA wage determinations that are no longer current may be accessed in the “Archived SCA WD” database of WDOL for information purposes only. Contracting officers should not use an archived wage determination in a contract action without prior approval of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 70 FR 50895, Aug. 26, 2005; 82 FR 2224, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.4   Obtaining a wage determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Sections 2(a)(1) and (2) of the Act require that every contract and any bid specification therefore in excess of $2,500 contain a wage determination specifying the minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits to be paid to service employees performing work on the contract. The contracting agency, therefore, must obtain a wage determination prior to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any invitation for bids;
</P>
<P>(ii) Request for proposals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Commencement of negotiations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Exercise of option or contract extension;
</P>
<P>(v) Annual anniversary date of a multi-year contract subject to annual fiscal appropriations of the Congress; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Each biennial anniversary date of a multi-year contract not subject to such annual appropriations, if so authorized by the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(2) As described in § 4.4(b), wage determinations may be obtained from the Department of Labor by electronically submitting an e98 describing the proposed contract and the occupations expected to be employed on the contract. Based upon the information provided on the e98, the Department of Labor will respond with the wage determination or wage determinations that the contracting agency may rely upon as the correct wage determination(s) for the contract described in the e98. Alternatively, contracting agencies may select and obtain a wage determination using WDOL. (See § 4.4(c).) Although the WDOL Web site provides assistance to the agency to select the correct wage determination for the contract, the agency remains responsible for the wage determination selected.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Where the place of performance of a contract for services subject to the Act is unknown at the time of solicitation, the solicitation need not initially contain a wage determination. The contracting agency, upon identification of firms participating in the procurement in response to an initial solicitation, shall obtain a wage determination for each location where the work may be performed as indicated by participating firms. An applicable wage determination must be obtained for each firm participating in the bidding for the location in which it would perform the contract. The appropriate wage determination shall be incorporated in the resultant contract documents and shall be applicable to all work performed thereunder (regardless of whether the successful contractor subsequently changes the place(s) of contract performance).
</P>
<P>(ii) There may be unusual situations, as determined by the Department of Labor upon consultation with a contracting agency, where the procedure in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section is not practicable in a particular situation. In these situations, the Department may authorize a modified procedure that may result in the subsequent issuance of wage determinations for one or more composite localities.
</P>
<P>(4) In no event may a contract subject to the Act on which more than five (5) service employees are contemplated to be employed be awarded without an appropriate wage determination. (See section 10 of the Act.)
</P>
<P>(b) e98 process—
</P>
<P>(1) The e98 is an electronic application used by contracting agencies to request wage determinations directly from the Wage and Hour Division. The Division uses computers to analyze information provided on the e98 and to provide a response while the requester is online, if the analysis determines that an existing wage determination is currently applicable to the procurement. The response will assign a unique serial number to the e98 and the response will provide a link to an electronic copy of the applicable wage determination(s). If the initial computer analysis cannot identify the applicable wage determination for the request, an online response will be provided indicating that the request has been referred to an analyst. Again, the online response will assign a unique serial number to the e98. After an analyst has reviewed the request, a further response will be sent to the email address identified on the e98. In most cases, the further response will provide an attachment with a copy of the applicable wage determination(s). In some cases, however, additional information may be required and the additional information will be requested via email. After an applicable wage determination is sent in response to an e98, the e98 system continues to monitor the request and if the applicable wage determination is revised in time to affect the procurement, an amended response will be sent to the email address identified on the e98.
</P>
<P>(2) When completing an e98, it is important that all information requested be completed accurately and fully. However, several sections are particularly important. Since most responses are provided via email, a correct email address is critically important. Accurate procurement dates are essential for the follow-up response system to operate effectively. An accurate estimate of the number of service employees to be employed under the contract is also important because section 10 of the Act requires that a wage determination be issued for all contracts that involve more than five service employees.
</P>
<P>(3) Since the e98 system automatically provides an amended response if the applicable wage determination is revised, the email address listed on the e98 must be monitored during the full solicitation stage of the procurement. Communications sent to the email address provided are deemed to be received by the contracting agency. A contracting agency must update the email address through the “help” process identified on the e98, if the agency no longer intends to monitor the email address.
</P>
<P>(4) For invitations to bid, if the bid opening date is delayed by more than sixty (60) days, or if contract commencement is delayed by more than sixty (60) days for all other contract actions, the contracting agency shall submit a revised e98.
</P>
<P>(5) If the services to be furnished under the proposed contract will be substantially the same as services being furnished in the same locality by an incumbent contractor whose contract the proposed contract will succeed, and if such incumbent contractor is furnishing such services through the use of service employees whose wage rates and fringe benefits are the subject of one or more collective bargaining agreements, the contracting agency shall reference the union and the collective bargaining agreement on the e98. The requester will receive an e-mail response giving instructions for submitting a copy of each such collective bargaining agreement together with any related documents specifying the wage rates and fringe benefits currently or prospectively payable under such agreement. After receipt of the collective bargaining agreement, the Wage and Hour Division will provide a further e-mail response attaching a copy of the wage determination based upon the collective bargaining agreement. If the place of contract performance is unknown, the contracting agency will submit the collective bargaining agreement of the incumbent contractor for incorporation into a wage determination applicable to a potential bidder located in the same locality as the predecessor contractor. If such services are being furnished at more than one locality and the collectively bargained wage rates and fringe benefits are different at different localities or do not apply to one or more localities, the agency shall identify the localities to which such agreements have application. If the collective bargaining agreement does not apply to all service employees under the contract, the agency shall identify the employees and/or work subject to the collective bargaining agreement. In the event the agency has reason to believe that any such collective bargaining agreement was not entered into as a result of arm's-length negotiations, a full statement of the facts so indicating shall be transmitted with the copy of such agreement. (See § 4.11.) If the agency has information indicating that any such collectively bargained wage rates and fringe benefits are substantially at variance with those prevailing for services of a similar character in the locality, the agency shall so advise the Wage and Hour Division and, if it believes a hearing thereon pursuant to section 4(c) of the Act is warranted, shall file its request for such hearing pursuant to § 4.10 at the time of filing the e98.
</P>
<P>(6) If the proposed contract is for a multi-year period subject to other than annual appropriations, the contracting agency shall provide a statement in the comments section of the e98 concerning the type of funding and the contemplated term of the proposed contract. Unless otherwise advised by the Wage and Hour Division that a wage determination must be obtained on the annual anniversary date, a new wage determination shall be obtained on each biennial anniversary date of the proposed multi-year contract in the event its term is for a period in excess of two years.
</P>
<P>(c) WDOL process—
</P>
<P>(1) Contracting agencies may use the WDOL Web site to select the applicable prevailing wage determination for the procurement. The WDOL site provides assistance to the agency in the selection of the correct wage determination. The contracting agency, however, is fully responsible for selecting the correct wage determination. If the Department of Labor subsequently determines that an incorrect wage determination was applied to a specific contract, the contracting agency, in accordance with § 4.5, shall amend the contract to incorporate the correct wage determination as determined by the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicable prevailing wage determination is not available on the WDOL site, the contracting agency must submit an e98 in accordance with § 4.4(b).
</P>
<P>(3) The contracting agency shall monitor the WDOL site to determine whether the applicable wage determination has been revised. Revisions published on the WDOL site or otherwise communicated to the contracting officer within the timeframes prescribed in § 4.5(a)(2) are applicable and must be included in the resulting contract.
</P>
<P>(4) If the services to be furnished under the proposed contract will be substantially the same as services being furnished in the same locality by an incumbent contractor whose contract the proposed contract will succeed, and if such incumbent contractor is furnishing such services through the use of service employees whose wage rates and fringe benefits are the subject of one or more collective bargaining agreements, the contracting agency may prepare a wage determination that references the collective bargaining agreement by incorporating that wage determination, with a complete copy of the collective bargaining agreement attached thereto, into the successor contract action. It need not submit a copy of the collective bargaining agreement to the Department of Labor unless requested to do so. If the place of contract performance is unknown, the contracting agency will prepare a wage determination on WDOL and attach the collective bargaining agreement of the incumbent contractor and make both the wage determination and collective bargaining agreement applicable to a potential bidder located in the same locality as the predecessor contractor. (See section 4.4(a)(3).) If such services are being furnished at more than one locality and the collectively bargained wage rates and fringe benefits are different at different localities or do not apply to one or more localities, the agency shall identify the localities to which such agreements have application. If the collective bargaining agreement does not apply to all service employees under the contract, the agency shall identify the employees and/or work subject to the collective bargaining agreement. In the event the agency has reason to believe that any such collective bargaining agreement was not entered into as a result of arm's-length negotiations, a full statement of the facts so indicating shall be transmitted to the Wage and Hour Division with the copy of such agreement. (See § 4.11.) If the agency has information indicating that any such collectively bargained wage rates and fringe benefits are substantially at variance with those prevailing for services of a similar character in the locality, the agency shall so advise the Wage and Hour Division and, if it believes a hearing thereon pursuant to section 4(c) of the Act is warranted, shall file its request for such hearing pursuant to § 4.10. A wage determination based upon the collective bargaining agreement must be included in the contract until a hearing or a final ruling of the Administrator determines that the collective bargaining agreement was not reached as the result of arm's-length negotiations or was substantially at variance with locally prevailing rates. Any questions regarding timeliness or applicability of collective bargaining agreements must be referred to the Department of Labor for resolution.
</P>
<P>(5) If the proposed contract is for a multi-year period subject to other than annual appropriations, the contracting agency shall, unless otherwise advised by the Wage and Hour Division, obtain a new wage determination on each biennial anniversary date of the proposed multi-year contract in the event its term is for a period in excess of two years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 50896, Aug. 26, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.5   Contract specification of determined minimum wages and fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any contract in excess of $2,500 shall contain, as an attachment, the applicable, currently effective wage determination specifying the minimum wages and fringe benefits for service employees to be employed thereunder, including any information referred to in paragraphs (a)(1) or (2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(1) Any wage determination from the Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor, responsive to the contracting agency's submission of an e98 or obtained through WDOL under § 4.4; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any revision of a wage determination issued prior to the award of the contract or contracts which specifies minimum wage rates or fringe benefits for classes of service employees whose wages or fringe benefits were not previously covered by wage determinations, or which changes previously determined minimum wage rates and fringe benefits for service employees employed on covered contracts in the locality.
</P>
<P>(i) However, revisions received by the Federal agency later than 10 days before the opening of bids, in the case of contracts entered into pursuant to competitive bidding procedures, shall not be effective if the Federal agency finds that there is not a reasonable time still available to notify bidders of the revision.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of procurements entered into pursuant to negotiations (or in the case of the execution of an option or an extension of the initial contract term), revisions received by the agency after award (or execution of an option or extension of term, as the case may be) of the contract shall not be effective provided that the contract start of performance is within 30 days of such award (or execution of an option or extension of term). Any notice of a revision received by the agency not less than 10 days before commencement of the contract shall be effective, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The contract does not specify a start of performance date which is within 30 days from the award; and/or
</P>
<P>(B) Performance of such procurement does not commence within this 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(iii) In situations arising under section 4(c) of the Act, the provisions in § 4.1b(b) apply.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of using WDOL databases containing prevailing wage determinations, the date of receipt by the contracting agency will be the date of publication on the WDOL Web site or on the date the agency receives actual notice of an initial or revised wage determination from the Department of Labor through the e98 process, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The following exemption from the compensation requirements of section 2(a) of the Act applies, subject to the limitations set forth in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and (4) of this section: To avoid serious impairment of the conduct of Government business it has been found necessary and proper to provide exemption from the determined wage and fringe benefits section of the Act (section 2(a)(1), (2)) but not the minimum wage specified under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (section 2(b) of this Act), of contracts under which five or less service employees are to be employed, and for which no such wage or fringe benefit determination has been issued;
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, which was adopted pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act prior to its amendment by Public Law 92-473, does not extend to undetermined wages or fringe benefits in contracts for which one or more, but not all, classes of service employees are the subject of an applicable wage determination. The procedure for determination of wage rates and fringe benefits for any classes of service employees engaged in performing such contracts whose wages and fringe benefits are not specified in the applicable wage determination is set forth in § 4.6(b).
</P>
<P>(3) The exemption provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not exempt any contract from the application of the provisions of section 4(c) of the Act as amended, concerning successor contracts. 
</P>
<P>(4) The exemption provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to any contract for which section 10 of the Act as amended requires an applicable wage determination.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the Department of Labor discovers and determines, whether before or subsequent to a contract award, that a contracting agency made an erroneous determination that the Service Contract Act did not apply to a particular procurement and/or failed to include an appropriate wage determination in a covered contract, the contracting agency, within 30 days of notification by the Department of Labor, shall include in the contract the stipulations contained in § 4.6 and any applicable wage determination issued by the Administrator or his authorized representative through the exercise of any and all authority that may be needed (including, where necessary, its authority to negotiate or amend, its authority to pay any necessary additional costs, and its authority under any contract provision authorizing changes, cancellation, and termination). With respect to any contract subject to section 10 of the Act, the Administrator may require retroactive application of such wage determination. (See 53 Comp. Gen. 412, (1973); <I>Curtiss-Wright Corp.</I> v. <I>McLucas</I>, 381 F. Supp. 657 (D NJ 1974); <I>Marine Engineers Beneficial Assn., District 2</I> v. <I>Military Sealift Command</I>, 86 CCH Labor Cases ¶ 33,782 (D DC 1979); <I>Brinks, Inc.</I> v. <I>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System</I>, 466 F. Supp. 112 (D DC 1979), 466 F. Supp. 116 (D DC 1979).) (See also 32 CFR 1-403.)
</P>
<P>(d) In cases where the contracting agency has filed an e98 and has not received a response from the Department of Labor, the contracting agency shall, with respect to any contract for which section 10 to the Act and § 4.3 for this part mandate the inclusion of an applicable wage determination, contact the Wage and Hour Division by e-mail or telephone for guidance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 70 FR 50897, Aug. 26, 2005; 82 FR 2224, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.6   Labor standards clauses for Federal service contracts exceeding $2,500.</HEAD>
<P>The clauses set forth in the following paragraphs shall be included in full by the contracting agency in every contract entered into by the United States or the District of Columbia, in excess of $2,500, or in an indefinite amount, the principal purpose of which is to furnish services through the use of service employees: 
</P>
<P>(a) Service Contract Act of 1965, as amended: This contract is subject to the Service Contract Act of 1965, as amended (41 U.S.C. 351 <I>et seq.</I>) and is subject to the following provisions and to all other applicable provisions of the Act and regulations of the Secretary of Labor issued thereunder (29 CFR part 4). 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each service employee employed in the performance of this contract by the contractor or any subcontractor shall be paid not less than the minimum monetary wages and shall be furnished fringe benefits in accordance with the wages and fringe benefits determined by the Secretary of Labor or authorized representative, as specified in any wage determination attached to this contract. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If there is such a wage determination attached to this contract, the contracting officer shall require that any class of service employee which is not listed therein and which is to be employed under the contract (i.e., the work to be performed is not performed by any classification listed in the wage determination), be classified by the contractor so as to provide a reasonable relationship (i.e., appropriate level of skill comparison) between such unlisted classifications and the classifications listed in the wage determination. Such conformed class of employees shall be paid the monetary wages and furnished the fringe benefits as are determined pursuant to the procedures in this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Such conforming procedure shall be initiated by the contractor prior to the performance of contract work by such unlisted class of employee. A written report of the proposed conforming action, including information regarding the agreement or disagreement of the authorized representative of the employees involved or, where there is no authorized representative, the employees themselves, shall be submitted by the contractor to the contracting officer no later than 30 days after such unlisted class of employees performs any contract work. The contracting officer shall review the proposed action and promptly submit a report of the action, together with the agency's recommendation and all pertinent information including the position of the contractor and the employees, to the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, for review. The Wage and Hour Division will approve, modify, or disapprove the action or render a final determination in the event of disagreement within 30 days of receipt or will notify the contracting officer within 30 days of receipt that additional time is necessary.
</P>
<P>(iii) The final determination of the conformance action by the Wage and Hour Division shall be transmitted to the contracting officer who shall promptly notify the contractor of the action taken. Each affected employee shall be furnished by the contractor with a written copy of such determination or it shall be posted as a part of the wage determination.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) The process of establishing wage and fringe benefit rates that bear a reasonable relationship to those listed in a wage determination cannot be reduced to any single formula. The approach used may vary from wage determination to wage determination depending on the circumstances. Standard wage and salary administration practices which rank various job classifications by pay grade pursuant to point schemes or other job factors may, for example, be relied upon. Guidance may also be obtained from the way different jobs are rated under Federal pay systems (Federal Wage Board Pay System and the General Schedule) or from other wage determinations issued in the same locality. Basic to the establishment of any conformable wage rate(s) is the concept that a pay relationship should be maintained between job classifications based on the skill required and the duties performed. 
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a contract modification, an exercise of an option or extension of an existing contract, or in any other case where a contractor succeeds a contract under which the classification in question was previously conformed pursuant to this section, a new conformed wage rate and fringe benefits may be assigned to such conformed classification by indexing (i.e., adjusting) the previous conformed rate and fringe benefits by an amount equal to the average (mean) percentage increase (or decrease, where appropriate) between the wages and fringe benefits specified for all classifications to be used on the contract which are listed in the current wage determination, and those specified for the corresponding classifications in the previously applicable wage determination. Where conforming actions are accomplished in accordance with this paragraph prior to the performance of contract work by the unlisted class of employees, the contractor shall advise the contracting officer of the action taken but the other procedures in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section need not be followed.
</P>
<P>(C) No employee engaged in performing work on this contract shall in any event be paid less than the currently applicable minimum wage specified under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended.
</P>
<P>(v) The wage rate and fringe benefits finally determined pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section shall be paid to all employees performing in the classification from the first day on which contract work is performed by them in the classification. Failure to pay such unlisted employees the compensation agreed upon by the interested parties and/or finally determined by the Wage and Hour Division retroactive to the date such class of employees commenced contract work shall be a violation of the Act and this contract. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Upon discovery of failure to comply with paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) of this section, the Wage and Hour Division shall make a final determination of conformed classification, wage rate, and/or fringe benefits which shall be retroactive to the date such class of employees commenced contract work.
</P>
<P>(3) If, as authorized pursuant to section 4(d) of the Service Contract Act of 1965 as amended, the term of this contract is more than 1 year, the minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits required to be paid or furnished thereunder to service employees shall be subject to adjustment after 1 year and not less often than once every 2 years, pursuant to wage determinations to be issued by the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor as provided in such Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The contractor or subcontractor may discharge the obligation to furnish fringe benefits specified in the attachment or determined conformably thereto by furnishing any equivalent combinations of bona fide fringe benefits, or by making equivalent or differential payments in cash in accordance with the applicable rules set forth in subpart D of 29 CFR part 4, and not otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) In the absence of a minimum wage attachment for this contract, neither the contractor nor any subcontractor under this contract shall pay any person performing work under the contract (regardless of whether they are service employees) less than the minimum wage specified by section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938. Nothing in this provision shall relieve the contractor or any subcontractor of any other obligation under law or contract for the payment of a higher wage to any employee. 
</P>
<P>(2) If this contract succeeds a contract, subject to the Service Contract Act of 1965 as amended, under which substantially the same services were furnished in the same locality and service employees were paid wages and fringe benefits provided for in a collective bargaining agreement, in the absence of the minimum wage attachment for this contract setting forth such collectively bargained wage rates and fringe benefits, neither the contractor nor any subcontractor under this contract shall pay any service employee performing any of the contract work (regardless of whether or not such employee was employed under the predecessor contract), less than the wages and fringe benefits provided for in such collective bargaining agreements, to which such employee would have been entitled if employed under the predecessor contract, including accrued wages and fringe benefits and any prospective increases in wages and fringe benefits provided for under such agreement. No contractor or subcontractor under this contract may be relieved of the foregoing obligation unless the limitations of § 4.1b(b) of 29 CFR part 4 apply or unless the Secretary of Labor or his authorized representative finds, after a hearing as provided in § 4.10 of 29 CFR part 4 that the wages and/or fringe benefits provided for in such agreement are substantially at variance with those which prevail for services of a character similar in the locality, or determines, as provided in § 4.11 of 29 CFR part 4, that the collective bargaining agreement applicable to service employees employed under the predecessor contract was not entered into as a result of arm's-length negotiations. Where it is found in accordance with the review procedures provided in 29 CFR 4.10 and/or 4.11 and parts 6 and 8 that some or all of the wages and/or fringe benefits contained in a predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement are substantially at variance with those which prevail for services of a character similar in the locality, and/or that the collective bargaining agreement applicable to service employees employed under the predecessor contract was not entered into as a result of arm's-length negotiations, the Department will issue a new or revised wage determination setting forth the applicable wage rates and fringe benefits. Such determination shall be made part of the contract or subcontract, in accordance with the decision of the Administrator, the Administrative Law Judge, or the Administrative Review Board, as the case may be, irrespective of whether such issuance occurs prior to or after the award of a contract or subcontract. 53 Comp. Gen. 401 (1973). In the case of a wage determnation issued solely as a result of a finding of substantial variance, such determination shall be effective as of the date of the final administrative decision.
</P>
<P>(e) The contractor and any subcontractor under this contract shall notify each service employee commencing work on this contract of the minimum monetary wage and any fringe benefits required to be paid pursuant to this contract, or shall post the wage determination attached to this contract. The poster provided by the Department of Labor (Publication WH 1313) shall be posted in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite. Failure to comply with this requirement is a violation of section 2(a)(4) of the Act and of this contract. 
</P>
<P>(f) The contractor or subcontractor shall not permit any part of the services called for by this contract to be performed in buildings or surroundings or under working conditions provided by or under the control or supervision of the contractor or subcontractor which are unsanitary or hazardous or dangerous to the health or safety of service employees engaged to furnish these services, and the contractor or subcontractor shall comply with the safety and health standards applied under 29 CFR part 1925. 
</P>
<P>(g)(1) The contractor and each subcontractor performing work subject to the Act shall make and maintain for 3 years from the completion of the work records containing the information specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section for each employee subject to the Act and shall make them available for inspection and transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor:
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address and social security number of each employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The correct work classification or classifications, rate or rates of monetary wages paid and fringe benefits provided, rate or rates of fringe benefit payments in lieu thereof, and total daily and weekly compensation of each employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of daily and weekly hours so worked by each employee.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any deductions, rebates, or refunds from the total daily or weekly compensation of each employee.
</P>
<P>(v) A list of monetary wages and fringe benefits for those classes of service employees not included in the wage determination attached to this contract but for which such wage rates or fringe benefits have been determined by the interested parties or by the Administrator or authorized representative pursuant to the labor standards clause in paragraph (b) of this section. A copy of the report required by the clause in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section shall be deemed to be such a list.
</P>
<P>(vi) Any list of the predecessor contractor's employees which had been furnished to the contractor pursuant to § 4.6(l)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor shall also make available a copy of this contract for inspection or transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to make and maintain or to make available such records for inspection and transcription shall be a violation of the regulations and this contract, and in the case of failure to produce such records, the contracting officer, upon direction of the Department of Labor and notification of the contractor, shall take action to cause suspension of any further payment or advance of funds until such violation ceases. 
</P>
<P>(4) The contractor shall permit authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division to conduct interviews with employees at the worksite during normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(h) The contractor shall unconditionally pay to each employee subject to the Act all wages due free and clear and without subsequent deduction (except as otherwise provided by law or Regulations, 29 CFR part 4), rebate, or kickback on any account. Such payments shall be made no later than one pay period following the end of the regular pay period in which such wages were earned or accrued. A pay period under this Act may not be of any duration longer than semi-monthly. 
</P>
<P>(i) The contracting officer shall withhold or cause to be withheld from the Government prime contractor under this or any other Government contract with the prime contractor such sums as an appropriate official of the Department of Labor requests or such sums as the contracting officer decides may be necessary to pay underpaid employees employed by the contractor or subcontractor. In the event of failure to pay any employees subject to the Act all or part of the wages or fringe benefits due under the Act, the agency may, after authorization or by direction of the Department of Labor and written notification to the contractor, take action to cause suspension of any further payment or advance of funds until such violations have ceased. Additionally, any failure to comply with the requirements of these clauses relating to the Service Contract Act of 1965, may be grounds for termination of the right to proceed with the contract work. In such event, the Government may enter into other contracts or arrangements for completion of the work, charging the contractor in default with any additional cost. 
</P>
<P>(j) The contractor agrees to insert these clauses in this section relating to the Service Contract Act of 1965 in all subcontracts subject to the Act. The term <I>contractor</I> as used in these clauses in any subcontract, shall be deemed to refer to the subcontractor, except in the term <I>Government prime contractor.</I> 
</P>
<P>(k)(1) As used in these clauses, the term <I>service employee</I> means any person engaged in the performance of this contract other than any person employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, as those terms are defined in part 541 of title 29, Code of Federal Regulations, as of July 30, 1976, and any subsequent revision of those regulations. The term <I>service employee</I> includes all such persons regardless of any contractual relationship that may be alleged to exist between a contractor or subcontractor and such persons. 
</P>
<P>(2) The following statement is included in contracts pursuant to section 2(a)(5) of the Act and is for <I>informational purposes only:</I> 
</P>
<P>The following classes of service employees expected to be employed under the contract with the Government would be subject, if employed by the contracting agency, to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 5341 or 5 U.S.C. 5332 and would, if so employed, be paid not less than the following rates of wages and fringe benefits:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Employee class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monetary wage-fringe benefits
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(l)(1) If wages to be paid or fringe benefits to be furnished any service employees employed by the Government prime contractor or any subcontractor under the contract are provided for in a collective bargaining agreement which is or will be effective during any period in which the contract is being performed, the Government prime contractor shall report such fact to the contracting officer, together with full information as to the application and accrual of such wages and fringe benefits, including any prospective increases, to service employees engaged in work on the contract, and a copy of the collective bargaining agreement. Such report shall be made upon commencing performance of the contract, in the case of collective bargaining agreements effective at such time, and in the case of such agreements or provisions or amendments thereof effective at a later time during the period of contract performance, such agreements shall be reported promptly after negotiation thereof. 
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than 10 days prior to completion of any contract being performed at a Federal facility where service employees may be retained in the performance of the succeeding contract and subject to a wage determination which contains vacation or other benefit provisions based upon length of service with a contractor (predecessor) or successor (§ 4.173 of Regulations, 29 CFR part 4), the incumbent prime contractor shall furnish to the contracting officer a certified list of the names of all service employees on the contractor's or subcontractor's payroll during the last month of contract performance. Such list shall also contain anniversary dates of employment on the contract either with the current or predecessor contractors of each such service employee. The contracting officer shall turn over such list to the successor contractor at the commencement of the succeeding contract. 
</P>
<P>(m) Rulings and interpretations of the Service Contract Act of 1965, as amended, are contained in Regulations, 29 CFR part 4. 
</P>
<P>(n)(1) By entering into this contract, the contractor (and officials thereof) certifies that neither it (nor he or she) nor any person or firm who has a substantial interest in the contractor's firm is a person or firm ineligible to be awarded Government contracts by virtue of the sanctions imposed pursuant to section 5 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) No part of this contract shall be subcontracted to any person or firm ineligible for award of a Government contract pursuant to section 5 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) The penalty for making false statements is prescribed in the U.S. Criminal Code, 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<P>(o) Notwithstanding any of the clauses in paragraphs (b) through (m) of this section relating to the Service Contract Act of 1965, the following employees may be employed in accordance with the following variations, tolerances, and exemptions, which the Secretary of Labor, pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act prior to its amendment by Public Law 92-473, found to be necessary and proper in the public interest or to avoid serious impairment of the conduct of Government business: 
</P>
<P>(1) Apprentices, student-learners, and workers whose earning capacity is impaired by age, physical, or mental deficiency or injury may be employed at wages lower than the minimum wages otherwise required by section 2(a)(1) or 2(b)(1) of the Service Contract Act without diminishing any fringe benefits or cash payments in lieu thereof required under section 2(a)(2) of that Act, in accordance with the conditions and procedures prescribed for the employment of apprentices, student-learners, handicapped persons, and handicapped clients of sheltered workshops under section 14 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, in the regulations issued by the Administrator (29 CFR parts 520, 521, 524, and 525).
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrator will issue certificates under the Service Contract Act for the employment of apprentices, student-learners, handicapped persons, or handicapped clients of sheltered workshops not subject to the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, or subject to different minimum rates of pay under the two acts, authorizing appropriate rates of minimum wages (but without changing requirements concerning fringe benefits or supplementary cash payments in lieu thereof), applying procedures prescribed by the applicable regulations issued under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 CFR parts 520, 521, 524, and 525).
</P>
<P>(3) The Administrator will also withdraw, annul, or cancel such certificates in accordance with the regulations in parts 525 and 528 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(p) Apprentices will be permitted to work at less than the predetermined rate for the work they perform when they are employed and individually registered in a bona fide apprenticeship program registered with a State Apprenticeship Agency which is recognized by the U.S. Department of Labor, or if no such recognized agency exists in a State, under a program registered with the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, Employment and Training Administration, U.S. Department of Labor. Any employee who is not registered as an apprentice in an approved program shall be paid the wage rate and fringe benefits contained in the applicable wage determination for the journeyman classification of work actually performed. The wage rates paid apprentices shall not be less than the wage rate for their level of progress set forth in the registered program, expressed as the appropriate percentage of the journeyman's rate contained in the applicable wage determination. The allowable ratio of apprentices to journeymen employed on the contract work in any craft classification shall not be greater than the ratio permitted to the contractor as to his entire work force under the registered program. 
</P>
<P>(q) Where an employee engaged in an occupation in which he or she customarily and regularly receives more than $30 a month in tips, the amount of tips received by the employee may be credited by the employer against the minimum wage required by Section 2(a)(1) or 2(b)(1) of the Act to the extent permitted by section 3(m) of the Fair Labor Standards Act and Regulations, 29 CFR part 531. To utilize this proviso: 
</P>
<P>(1) The employer must inform tipped employees about this tip credit allowance before the credit is utilized; 
</P>
<P>(2) The employees must be allowed to retain all tips (individually or through a pooling arrangement and regardless of whether the employer elects to take a credit for tips received);
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must be able to show by records that the employee receives at least the applicable Service Contract Act minimum wage through the combination of direct wages and tip credit;
</P>
<P>(4) The use of such tip credit must have been permitted under any predecessor collective bargaining agreement applicable by virtue of section 4(c) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Disputes concerning labor standards.</I> Disputes arising out of the labor standards provisions of this contract shall not be subject to the general disputes clause of this contract. Such disputes shall be resolved in accordance with the procedures of the Department of Labor set forth in 29 CFR parts 4, 6, and 8. Disputes within the meaning of this clause include disputes between the contractor (or any of its subcontractors) and the contracting agency, the U.S. Department of Labor, or the employees or their representatives.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements contained in this section have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the following numbers: 
</APPRO>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Paragraph
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB
<br/>Control No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b)(2)(i)-(iv)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(g)(1)(i)-(iv)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(g)(1)(v)-(vi)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(l)(1), (2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(q)(3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0007</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983; 48 FR 50529, Nov. 2, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 68663, Dec. 30, 1996; 82 FR 2224, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.7-4.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.7-4.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.10   Substantial variance proceedings under section 4(c) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provision.</I> Under section 4(c) of the Act, and under corresponding wage determinations made as provided in section 2(a)(1) and (2) of the Act, contractors and subcontractors performing contracts subject to the Act generally are obliged to pay to service employees employed on the contract work wages and fringe benefits not less than those to which they would have been entitled under a collective bargaining agreement if they were employed on like work under a predecessor contract in the same locality. (See §§ 4.1b, 4.3, 4.6(d)(2).) Section 4(c) of the Act provides, however, that “such obligations shall not apply if the Secretary finds after a hearing in accordance with regulations adopted by the Secretary that such wages and fringe benefits are substantially at variance with those which prevail for services of a character similar in the locality”. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prerequisites for hearing.</I> (1)(i) A request for a hearing under this section may be made by the contracting agency or other person affected or interested, including contractors or prospective contractors and associations of contractors, representatives of employees, and other interested Governmental agencies. Such a request shall be submitted in writing to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, and shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of any wage determination at issue, the name of the contracting agency whose contract is involved, and a brief description of the services to be performed under the contract; 
</P>
<P>(B) A statement regarding the status of the procurement and any estimated procurement dates, such as bid opening, contract award, commencement date of the contract or its follow-up option period; 
</P>
<P>(C) A statement of the applicant's case, setting forth in detail the reasons why the applicant believes that a substantial variance exists with respect to some or all of the wages and/or fringe benefits, attaching available data concerning wages and/or fringe benefits prevailing in the locality; 
</P>
<P>(D) Names and addresses (to the extent known) of interested parties. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the information in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section is not submitted with the request, the Administrator may deny the request or request supplementary information, at his/her discretion. No particular form is prescribed for submission of a request under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrator will respond to the party requesting a hearing within 30 days after receipt, granting or denying the request or advising that additional time is necessary for a decision. No hearing will be provided pursuant to this section and section 4(c) of the Act unless the Administrator determines from information available or submitted with a request for such a hearing that there may be a substantial variance between some or all of the wage rates and/or fringe benefits provided for in a collective bargaining agreement to which the service employees would otherwise be entitled by virtue of the provisions of section 4(c) of the Act, and those which prevail for services of a character similar in the locality. 
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act, requests for a hearing shall not be considered unless received as specified below, except in those situations where the Administrator determines that extraordinary circumstances exist: 
</P>
<P>(i) For advertised contracts, prior to ten days before the award of the contract; 
</P>
<P>(ii) For negotiated contracts and for contracts with provisions extending the initial term by option, prior to the commencement date of the contract or the follow-up option period, as the case may be. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referral to the Chief Administrative Law Judge.</I> When the Administrator determines from the information available or submitted with a request for a hearing that there may be a substantial variance, the Administrator on his/her own motion or on application of any interested person will by order refer the issue to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge who shall conduct such a fact finding hearing as may be necessary to render a decision solely on the issue of whether the wages and/or fringe benefits contained in the collective bargaining agreement which was the basis for the wage determination at issue are substantially at variance with those which prevail for services of a character similar in the locality. However, in situations where there is also a question as to whether the collective bargaining agreement was reached as a result of “arm's-length negotiations” (see § 4.11), the referral shall include both issues for resolution in one proceeding. No authority is delegated under this section to hear and/or decide any other issues pertaining to the Service Contract Act. As provided in section 4(a) of the Act, the provisions of section 4 and 5 of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (41 U.S.C. 38, 39) shall be applicable to such proceeding, which shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth at 29 CFR part 6. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator shall be an interested party and shall have the opportunity to participate in the proceeding to the degree he/she considers appropriate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2225, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.11   Arm's length proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provision.</I> Under section 4(c) of the Act, the wages and fringe benefits provided in the predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement must be reached “as a result of arm's-length negotiations.” This provision precludes arrangements by parties to a collective bargaining agreement who, either separately or together, act with an intent to take advantage of the wage determination scheme provided for in sections 2(a) and 4(c) of the Act. See <I>Trinity Services, Inc.</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> 593 F.2d 1250 (D.C. Cir. 1978). A finding as to whether a collective bargaining agreement or particular wages and fringe benefits therein are reached as a result of arm's-length negotiations may be made through investigation, hearing or otherwise pursuant to the Secretary's authority under section 4(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prerequisites for hearing.</I> (1) A request for a determination under this section may be made by a contracting agency or other person affected or interested, including contractors or prospective contractors and associations of contractors, representatives of employees, and interested Governmental agencies. Such a request shall be submitted in writing to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. Although no particular form is prescribed for submission of a request under this section, such request shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the applicant's case setting forth in detail the reasons why the applicant believes that the wages and fringe benefits contained in the collective bargaining agreement were not reached as a result of arm's-length negotiations;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement regarding the status of the procurement and any estimated procurement dates, such as bid opening, contract award, commencement date of the contract or its follow-up option period;
</P>
<P>(iii) Names and addresses (to the extent known) of interested parties.
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act, requests for a hearing shall not be considered unless received as specified below except in those situations where the Administrator determines that extraordinary circumstances exist:
</P>
<P>(i) For advertised contracts, prior to ten days before the award of the contract;
</P>
<P>(ii) For negotiated contracts and for contracts with provisions extending the term by option, prior to the commencement date of the contract or the follow-up option period, as the case may be. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Administrator, on his/her own motion or after receipt of a request for a determination, may make a finding on the issue of arm's-length negotiations.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Administrator determines that there may not have been arm's-length negotiations, but finds that there is insufficient evidence to render a final decision thereon, the Administrator may refer the issue to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) If the Administrator finds that the collective bargaining agreement or wages and fringe benefits at issue were reached as a result of arm's-length negotiations or that arm's-length negotiations did not take place, the interested parties, including the parties to the collective bargaining agreement, will be notified of the Administrator's findings, which shall include the reasons therefor, and such parties shall be afforded an opportunity to request that a hearing be held to render a decision on the issue of arm's-length negotiations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such parties shall have 20 days from the date of the Administrator's ruling to request a hearing. A detailed statement of the reasons why the Administrator's ruling is in error, including facts alleged to be in dispute, if any, shall be submitted with the request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(iii) If no hearing is requested within the time mentioned in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, the Administrator's ruling shall be final, and, in the case of a finding that arm's-length negotiations did not take place, a new wage determination will be issued for the contract. If a hearing is requested, the decision of the Administrator shall be inoperative. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Referral to the Chief Administrative Law Judge.</I> The Administrator on his/her own motion, under paragraph (c)(2) of this section or upon a request for a hearing under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section where the Administrator determines that material facts are in dispute, shall by order refer the issue to the Chief Administrative Law Judge for designation of an Administrative Law Judge, who shall conduct such hearings as may be necessary to render a decision solely on the issue of arm's-length negotiations. However, in situations where there is also a question as to whether some or all of the collectively bargained wage rates and/or fringe benefits are substantially at variance (see § 4.10), the referral shall include both issues for resolution in one proceeding. As provided in section 4(a) of the Act, the provisions of sections 4 and 5 of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (41 U.S.C. 38, 39) shall be applicable to such proceeding, which shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth at 29 CFR part 6.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Referral to the Administrative Review Board.</I> When a party requests a hearing under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section and the Administrator determines that no material facts are in dispute, the Administrator shall refer the issue and the record compiled thereon to the Administrative Review Board to render a decision solely on the issue of arm's-length negotiations. Such proceeding shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth at 29 CFR part 8. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2225, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.1.14.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.12   Substantial interest proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provision.</I> Under section 5(a) of the Act, no contract of the United States (or the District of Columbia) shall be awarded to the persons or firms appearing on the list distributed by the Comptroller General giving the names of persons or firms who have been found to have violated the Act until 3 years have elapsed from the date of publication of the list. Section 5(a) further states that “no contract of the United States shall be awarded * * * to any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such persons or firms have a substantial interest * * * .” A finding as to whether persons or firms whose names appear on the debarred bidders list have a substantial interest in any other firm, corporation, partnership, or association may be made through investigation, hearing, or otherwise pursuant to the Secretary's authority under section 4(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ineligibility.</I> See § 4.188 of this part for the Secretary's rulings and interpretations with respect to substantial interest.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A request for a determination under this section may be made by any interested party, including contractors or prospective contractors, and associations of contractors, representatives of employees, and interested Government agencies. Such a request shall be submitted in writing to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(2) The request shall include a statement setting forth in detail why the petitioner believes that a person or firm whose name appears on the debarred bidders list has a substantial interest in any firm, corporation, partnership, or association which is seeking or has been awarded a contract of the United States or the District of Columbia. No particular form is prescribed for the submission of a request under this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The Administrator, on his/her own motion or after receipt of a request for a determination, may make a finding on the issue of substantial interest. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the Administrator determines that there may be a substantial interest, but finds that there is insufficient evidence to render a final ruling thereon, the Administrator may refer the issue to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Administrator finds that no substantial interest exists, or that there is not sufficient information to warrant the initiation of an investigation, the requesting party, if any, will be so notified and no further action taken.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) If the Administrator finds that a substantial interest exists, the person or firm affected will be notified of the Administrator's finding, which shall include the reasons therefor, and such person or firm shall be afforded an opportunity to request that a hearing be held to render a decision on the issue of substantial interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such person or firm shall have 20 days from the date of the Administrator's ruling to request a hearing. A detailed statement of the reasons why the Administrator's ruling is in error, including facts alleged to be in dispute, if any, shall be submitted with the request for a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If no hearing is requested within the time mentioned in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section, the Administrator's finding shall be final and the Administrator shall so notify the Comptroller General. If a hearing is requested, the decision of the Administrator shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Law Judge or the Administrative Review Board issues an order that there is a substantial interest.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Referral to the Chief Administrative Law Judge.</I> The Administrator on his/her own motion, or upon a request for a hearing where the Administrator determines that relevant facts are in dispute, shall by order refer the issue to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge who shall conduct such hearings as may be necessary to render a decision solely on the issue of substantial interest. As provided in section 4(a) of the Act, the provisions of sections 4 and 5 of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (41 U.S.C. 38, 39) shall be applicable to such proceedings, which shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth at 29 CFR part 6.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Referral to the Administrative Review Board.</I> When the person or firm requests a hearing and the Administrator determines that relevant facts are not in dispute, the Administrator will refer the issue and the record compiled thereon to the Administrative Review Board to render a decision solely on the issue of substantial interest. Such proceeding shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth at 29 CFR part 8. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2225, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Wage Determination Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.2.14.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.50   Types of wage and fringe benefit determinations.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator specifies the minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits to be paid as required under the Act in two types of determinations:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Prevailing in the locality.</I> (1) Determinations that set forth minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits determined to be prevailing for various classes of service employees in the locality (sections 2(a)(1) and 2(a)(2) of the Act) after giving “due consideration” to the rates applicable to such service employees if directly hired by the Federal Government (section 2(a)(5) of the Act).
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing wage determinations applicable to most contracts covered by the Act are based upon cross-industry survey data. However, in some cases the Department of Labor may issue industry specific wage determinations for application to specific types of service contracts. In addition, the geographic scope of contracts is often different and the geographic scope of the underlying survey data for the wage determinations applicable to those contracts may be different. Therefore, a variety of different prevailing wage determinations may be applicable in a particular locality. The application of these different prevailing wage determinations will depend upon the nature of the contracts to which they are applied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collective Bargaining Agreement—(Successorship).</I> Determinations that set forth the wage rates and fringe benefits, including accrued and prospective increases, contained in a collective bargaining agreement applicable to the service employees who performed on a predecessor contract in the same locality. (See sections 2(a)(1) and (2) as well as 4(c) of the Act.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 50898, Aug. 26, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.2.14.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.51   Prevailing in the locality determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information considered.</I> The minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits set forth in determinations of the Secretary are based on all available pertinent information as to wage rates and fringe benefits being paid at the time the determination is made. Such information is most frequently derived from area surveys made by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Department of Labor, or other Labor Department personnel. Information may also be obtained from Government contracting officers and from other available sources, including employees and their representatives and employers and their associations. The determinations may be based on the wage rates and fringe benefits contained in collective bargaining agreements where they have been determined to prevail in a locality for specified occupational class(es) of employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of prevailing rates.</I> Where a single rate is paid to a majority (50 percent or more) of the workers in a class of service employees engaged in similar work in a particular locality, that rate is determined to prevail. The wage rates and fringe benefits in a collective bargaining agreement covering 2,001 janitors in a locality, for example, prevail if it is determined that no more than 4,000 workers are engaged in such janitorial work in that locality. In the case of information developed from surveys, statistical measurements of central tendency such as a median (a point in a distribution of wage rates where 50 percent of the surveyed workers receive that or a higher rate and an equal number receive a lesser rate) or the mean (average) are considered reliable indicators of the prevailing rate. Which of these statistical measurements will be applied in a given case will be determined after a careful analysis of the overall survey, separate classification data, patterns existing between survey periods, and the way the separate classification data interrelate. Use of the median is the general rule. However, the mean (average) rate may be used in situations where, after analysis, it is determined that the median is not a reliable indicator. Examples where the mean may be used include situations where:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of workers studied for the job classification constitutes a relatively small sample and the computed median results in an actual rate that is paid to few of the studied workers in the class;
</P>
<P>(2) Statistical deviation such as a skewed (bimodal or multimodal) frequency distribution biases the median rate due to large concentrations of workers toward either end of the distribution curve and the computed median results in an actual rate that is paid to few of the studied workers in the class; or
</P>
<P>(3) The computed median rate distorts historic wage relationships between job levels within a classification family (i.e., Electronic Technician Classes A, B, and C levels within the Electronic technician classification family), between classifications of different skill levels (i.e., a maintenance electrician as compared with a maintenance carpenter), or, for example, yields a wage movement inconsistent with the pattern shown by the survey overall or with related and/or similarly skilled job classifications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Slotting wage rates.</I> In some instances, a wage survey for a particular locality may result in insufficient data for one or more job classifications that are required in the performance of a contract. Establishment of a prevailing wage rate for certain such classifications may be accomplished through a “slotting” procedure, such as that used under the Federal pay system. Under this procedure, wage rates are derived for a classification based on a comparison of equivalent or similar job duty and skill characteristics between the classifications studied and those for which no survey data is available. As an example, a wage rate found prevailing for the janitorial classification may be adopted for the classification of mess attendant if the skill and duties attributed to each classification are known to be rated similarly under pay classification schemes. (Both classifications are assigned the same wage grade under the Coordinated Federal Wage System and are paid at the Wage Board grade 2 when hired directly by a Federal agency.)
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Due consideration.</I> In making wage and fringe benefit determinations, section 2(a)(5) of the Act requires that due consideration be given to the rates that would be paid by the Federal agency to the various classes of service employees if section 5341 or section 5332 of title 5 U.S.C., were applicable to them. Section 5341 refers to the Wage Board or Coordinated Federal Wage System for “blue collar” workers and section 5332 refers to the General Schedule pay system for “white collar” workers. The term <I>due consideration</I> implies the exercise of discretion on the basis of the facts and circumstances surrounding each determination, recognizing the legislative objective of narrowing the gap between the wage rates and fringe benefits prevailing for service employees and those established for Federal employees. Each wage determination is based on a survey or other information on the wage rates and fringe benefits being paid in a particular locality and also takes into account those wage rates and fringe benefits which would be paid under Federal pay systems. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.2.14.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.52   Fringe benefit determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wage determinations issued pursuant to the Service Contract Act ordinarily contain provisions for vacation and holiday benefits prevailing in the locality. In addition, wage determinations contain a prescribed minimum rate for all other benefits, such as insurance, pension, etc., which are not required as a matter of law (i.e., excluding Social Security, unemployment insurance, and workers' compensation payments and similar statutory benefits), based upon the sum of the benefits contained in the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Employment Cost Index (ECI), for all employees in private industry, nationwide (and excluding ECI components for supplemental pay, such as shift differential, which are considered wages rather than fringe benefits under SCA). Pursuant to Section 4(b) of the Act and § 4.123, the Secretary has determined that it is necessary and proper in the public interest, and in accord with remedial purposes of the Act to protect prevailing labor standards, to issue a variation from the Act's requirement that fringe benefits be determined for various classes of service employees in the locality. 
</P>
<P>(b) The minimum rate for all benefits (other than holidays and vacation) which are not legally required, as prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section, shall be phased in over a four-year period beginning June 1, 1997. The first year the rate will be $.90 per hour plus one-fourth of the difference between $.90 per hour and the rate prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section; the second year the rate will be increased by one-third of the difference between the rate set the first year and the rate prescribed; the third year the rate will be increased by one-half of the difference between the rate set in the second year and the rate prescribed; and the fourth year and thereafter the rate will be the rate prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where it is determined pursuant to § 4.51(b) that a single fringe benefit rate is paid with respect to a majority of the workers in a class of service employees engaged in similar work in a locality, that rate will be determined to prevail notwithstanding the rate which would otherwise be prescribed pursuant to this section. Ordinarily, it will be found that a majority of workers receive fringe benefits at a single level where those workers are subject to a collective bargaining agreement whose provisions have been found to prevail in the locality. 
</P>
<P>(d) A significant number of contracts contain a prevailing fringe benefit rate of $2.56 per hour. Generally, these contracts are large base support contracts, contracts requiring competition from large corporations, contracts requiring highly technical services, and contracts solicited pursuant to A-76 procedures (displacement of Federal employees), as well as successor contracts thereto. The $2.56 benefit rate shall continue to be issued for all contracts containing the $2.56 benefit rate, as well as resolicitations and other successor contracts for substantially the same services, until the fringe benefit rate determined in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section equals or exceeds $2.56 per hour. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Variance procedure.</I> (1) The Department will consider variations requested by contracting agencies pursuant to Section 4(b) of the Act and § 4.123, from the methodology described in paragraph (a) of this section for determining prevailing fringe benefit rates. This variation procedure will not be utilized to routinely permit separate fringe benefit packages for classes of employees and industries, but rather will be limited to the narrow circumstances set forth herein where special needs of contracting agencies require this procedure. Such variations will be considered where the agency demonstrates that because of the special circumstances of the particular industry, the variation is necessary and proper in the public interest or to avoid the serious impairment of government business. Such a demonstration might be made, for example, where an agency is unable to obtain contractors willing to bid on a contract because the service will be performed at the contractor's facility by employees performing work for the Government and other customers, and as a result, paying the required SCA fringe benefits would cause undue disruption to the contractor's own work force and pay practices. 
</P>
<P>(2) It will also be necessary for the agency to demonstrate that a variance is in accordance with the remedial purpose of the Act to protect prevailing labor standards, by providing comprehensive data from a valid survey demonstrating the prevailing fringe benefits for the specific industry. If the agency does not continue to provide current data in subsequent years, the variance will be withdrawn and the rate prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section will be issued for the contract. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68664, Dec. 30, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.2.14.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.53   Collective bargaining agreement (successorship) determinations.</HEAD>
<P>Determinations based on the collective bargaining agreement of a predecessor contractor set forth by job classification each provision relating to wages (such as the established straight time hourly or salary rate, cost-of-living allowance, and any shift, hazardous, and other similar pay differentials) and to fringe benefits (such as holiday pay, vacation pay, sick leave pay, life, accidental death, disability, medical, and dental insurance plans, retirement or pension plans, severance pay, supplemental unemployment benefits, saving and thrift plans, stock-option plans, funeral leave, jury/witness leave, or military leave) contained in the predecessor's collective bargaining agreement, as well as conditions governing the payment of such wages and fringe benefits. Accrued wages and fringe benefits and prospective increases therein are also included. Each wage determination is limited in application to a specific contract succeeding a contract which had been performed in the same locality by a contractor with a collective bargaining agreement, and contains a notice to prospective bidders regarding their obligations under section 4(c) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983. Redesignated at 61 FR 68664, Dec. 30, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.2.14.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.54   Locality basis of wage and fringe benefit determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 2(a) of the Act, the Secretary or his authorized representative is given the authority to determine the minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits prevailing for various classes of service employees “in the locality”. Although the term <I>locality</I> has reference to a geographic area, it has an elastic and variable meaning and contemplates consideration of the existing wage structures which are pertinent to the employment of particular classes of service employees on the varied kinds of service contracts. Because wage structures are extremely varied, there can be no precise single formula which would define the geographic limits of a “locality” that would be relevant or appropriate for the determination of prevailing wage rates and prevailing fringe benefits in all situations under the Act. The locality within which a wage or fringe benefit determination is applicable is, therefore, defined in each such determination upon the basis of all the facts and circumstances pertaining to that determination. Locality is ordinarily limited geographically to a particular county or cluster of counties comprising a metropolitan area. For example, a survey by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Baltimore, Maryland Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area includes the counties of Baltimore, Harford, Howard, Anne Arundel, and the City of Baltimore. A wage determination based on such information would define locality as the same geographic area included within the scope of the survey. Locality may also be defined as, for example, a city, a State, or, under rare circumstances, a region, depending on the actual place or places of contract performance, the geographical scope of the data on which the determination was based, the nature of the services being contracted for, and the procurement method used. In addition, in <I>Southern Packaging &amp; Storage Co.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 618 F.2d 1088 (4th Cir. 1980), the court held that a nationwide wage determination normally is not permissible under the Act, but postulated that “there may be the rare and unforeseen service contract which might be performed at locations throughout the country and which would generate truly nationwide competition”. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the services are to be performed for a Federal agency at the site of the successful bidder, in contrast to services to be performed at a specific Federal facility or installation, or in the locality of such installation, the location where the work will be performed often cannot be ascertained at the time of bid advertisement or solicitation. In such instances, wage determinations will generally be issued for the various localities identified by the agency as set forth in § 4.4(a)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(c) Where the wage rates and fringe benefits contained in a collective bargaining agreement applicable to the predecessor contract are set forth in a determination, locality in such a determination is typically described as the geographic area in which the predecessor contract was performed. The determination applies to any successor contractor which performs the contract in the same locality. However, see § 4.163(i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983. Redesignated at 61 FR 68664, Dec. 30, 1996, and amended at 70 FR 50898, Aug. 26, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.55" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.2.14.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.55   Issuance and revision of wage determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Determinations will be reviewed periodically and where prevailing wage rates or fringe benefits have changed, such changes will be reflected in revised determinations. For example, in a locality where it is determined that the wage rate which prevails for a particular class of service employees is the rate specified in a collective bargaining agreement(s) applicable in that locality, and such agreement(s) specifies increases in such rates to be effective on specific dates, the determinations would be revised to reflect such changes as they become effective. Revised determinations shall be applicable to contracts in accordance with the provisions of § 4.5(a) of subpart A.
</P>
<P>(b) Determinations issued by the Wage and Hour Division with respect to particular contracts are required to be incorporated in the invitations for bids or requests for proposals or quotations issued by the contracting agencies, and are to be incorporated in the contract specifications in accordance with § 4.5 of subpart A. In this manner, prospective contractors and subcontractors are advised of the minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits required under the most recently applicable determination to be paid the service employees who perform the contract work. These requirements are the same for all bidders so none will be placed at a competitive disadvantage.
</P>
<P>(c) Determinations issued by the Wage and Hour Division with respect to particular contracts are required to be incorporated in the invitations for bids or requests for proposals or quotations issued by the contracting agencies, and are to be incorporated in the contract specifications in accordance with § 4.5 of subpart A. In this manner, prospective contractors and subcontractors are advised of the minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits required under the most recently applicable determination to be paid the service employees who perform the contract work. These requirements are, of course, the same for all bidders so none will be placed at a competitive disadvantage. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983. Redesignated at 61 FR 68664, Dec. 30, 1996; 70 FR 50898, Aug. 26, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.56" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.2.14.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.56   Review and reconsideration of wage determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review by the Administrator.</I> (1) Any interested party affected by a wage determination issued under section 2(a) of the Act may request review and reconsideration by the Administrator. A request for review and reconsideration may be made by the contracting agency or other interested party, including contractors or prospective contractors and associations of contractors, representatives of employees, and other interested Governmental agencies. Any such request must be accompanied by supporting evidence. In no event shall the Administrator review a wage determination or its applicability after the opening of bids in the case of a competitively advertised procurement, or, later than 10 days before commencement of a contract in the case of a negotiated procurement, exercise of a contract option or extension. This limitation is necessary in order to ensure competitive equality and an orderly procurement process.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrator shall, upon receipt of a request for reconsideration, review the data sources relied upon as a basis for the wage determination, the evidence furnished by the party requesting review or reconsideration, and, if necessary to resolve the matter, any additional information found to be relevant to determining prevailing wage rates and fringe benefits in a particular locality. The Administrator, pursuant to a review of available information, may issue a new wage determination, may cause the wage determination to be revised, or may affirm the wage determination issued, and will notify the requesting party in writing of the action taken. The Administrator will render a decision within 30 days of receipt of the request or will notify the requesting party in writing within 30 days of receipt that additional time is necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review by the Administrative Review Board.</I> Any decision of the Administrator under paragraph (a) of this section may be appealed to the Administrative Review Board within 20 days of issuance of the Administrator's decision. Any such appeal shall be in accordance with the provisions of part 8 of this title. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983. Redesignated at 61 FR 68664, Dec. 30, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Application of the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.101" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.14.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.101   Official rulings and interpretations in this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this subpart is to provide, pursuant to the authority cited in § 4.102, official rulings and interpretations with respect to the application of the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act for the guidance of the agencies of the United States and the District of Columbia which may enter into and administer contracts subject to its provisions, the persons desiring to enter into such contracts with these agencies, and the contractors, subcontractors, and employees who perform work under such contracts.
</P>
<P>(b) These rulings and interpretations are intended to indicate the construction of the law and regulations which the Department of Labor believes to be correct and which will be followed in the administration of the Act unless and until directed otherwise by Act of Congress or by authoritative ruling of the courts, or if it is concluded upon reexamination of an interpretation that it is incorrect. See for example, <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134 (1944); <I>Roland Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657 (1946); <I>Endicott Johnson Corp.</I> v. <I>Perkins,</I> 317 U.S. 501, 507-509 (1943); <I>Perkins</I> v. <I>Lukens Steel Co.,</I> 310 U.S. 113, 128 (1940); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Western Pacific Railroad Co.,</I> 352 U.S. 59 (1956). The Department of Labor (and not the contracting agencies) has the primary and final authority and responsibility for administering and interpreting the Act, including making determinations of coverage. See <I>Woodside Village</I> v. <I>Secretary of Labor,</I> 611 F. 2d 312 (9th Cir. 1980); <I>Nello L. Teer Co.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 348 F.2d 533, 539-540 (Ct. Cl. 1965), cert. denied, 383 U.S. 934; <I>North Georgia Building &amp; Construction Trades Council</I> v. <I>U.S. Department of Transportation,</I> 399 F. Supp. 58, 63 (N.D. Ga. 1975) (Davis-Bacon Act); <I>Curtiss-Wright Corp.</I> v. <I>McLucas,</I> 364 F. Supp. 750, 769-72 (D.N.J. 1973); and 43 Atty. Gen. Ops. __ (March 9, 1979); 53 Comp. Gen. 647, 649-51 (1974); 57 Comp. Gen. 501, 506 (1978).
</P>
<P>(c) Court decisions arising under the Act (as well as under related remedial labor standards laws such as the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, the Davis-Bacon Act, the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, and the Fair Labor Standards Act) which support policies and interpretations contained in this part are cited where it is believed that they may be helpful. On matters which have not been authoritatively determined by the courts, it is necessary for the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator to reach conclusions as to the meaning and the application of provisions of the law in order to carry out their responsibilities of administration and enforcement (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134 (1944)). In order that these positions may be made known to persons who may be affected by them, official interpretations and rulings are issued by the Administrator with the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, as authorized by the Secretary (Secretary's Order No. 16-75, Nov. 21, 1975, 40 FR 55913; Employment Standards Order No. 2-76, Feb. 23, 1976, 41 FR 9016). These interpretations are a proper exercise of the Secretary's authority. <I>Idaho Sheet Metal Works</I> v. <I>Wirtz,</I> 383 U.S. 190, 208 (1966), reh. den. 383 U.S. 963 (1966). References to pertinent legislative history, decisions of the Comptroller General and of the Attorney General, and Administrative Law Judges' decisions are also made in this part where it appears they will contribute to a better understanding of the stated interpretations and policies.
</P>
<P>(d) The interpretations of the law contained in this part are official interpretations which may be relied upon. The Supreme Court has recognized that such interpretations of the Act “provide a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it” and “constitute a body of experience and informed judgment to which courts and litigants may properly resort for guidance” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134 (1944)). Interpretations of the agency charged with administering an Act are generally afforded deference by the courts. (<I>Griggs</I> v. <I>Duke Power Co.,</I> 401 U.S. 424, 433-34 (1971); <I>Udall</I> v. <I>Tallman,</I> 380 U.S. 1 (1965).) Some of the interpretations in this part relating to the application of the Act are interpretations of provisions which appeared in the original Act before its amendments in 1972 and 1976. Accordingly, the Department of Labor considers these interpretations to be correct, since there were no amendments of the statutory provisions which they interpret. (<I>United States</I> v. <I>Davison Fuel &amp; Dock Co.,</I> 371 F.2d 705, 711-12 (C.A. 4, 1967).)
</P>
<P>(e) The interpretations contained herein shall be in effect until they are modified, rescinded, or withdrawn. This part supersedes and replaces certain interpretations previously published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and Code of Federal Regulations as part 4 of this chapter. Prior opinions, rulings, and interpretations and prior enforcement policies which are not inconsistent with the interpretations in this part or with the Act as amended are continued in effect; all other opinions, rulings, interpretations, and enforcement policies on the subjects discussed in the interpretations in this part, to the extent they are inconsistent with the rules herein stated, are superseded, rescinded, and withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(f) Principles governing the application of the Act as set forth in this subpart are clarified or amplified in particular instances by illustrations and examples based on specific fact situations. Since such illustrations and examples cannot and are not intended to be exhaustive, or to provide guidance on every problem which may arise under the Act, no inference should be drawn from the fact that a subject or illustration is omitted.
</P>
<P>(g) It should not be assumed that the lack of discussion of a particular subject in this subpart indicates the adoption of any particular position by the Department of Labor with respect to such matter or to constitute an interpretation, practice, or enforcement policy. If doubt arises or a question exists, inquiries with respect to matters other than safety and health standards should be directed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or any regional office of the Wage and Hour Division. Safety and health inquiries should be addressed to the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or to any OSHA regional office. A full description of the facts and any relevant documents should be submitted if an official ruling is desired.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2225, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.102" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.14.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.102   Administration of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>As provided by section 4 of the Act and under provisions of sections 4 and 5 of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (49 Stat. 2036, 41 U.S.C. 38, 39), which are made expressly applicable for the purpose, the Secretary of Labor is authorized and directed to administer and enforce the provisions of the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act, to make rules and regulations, issue orders, make decisions, and take other appropriate action under the Act. The Secretary is also authorized to make reasonable limitations and to make rules and regulations allowing reasonable variations, tolerances, and exemptions to and from provisions of the Act (except section 10), but only in special circumstances where it is determined that such action is necessary and proper in the public interest or to avoid serious impairment of the conduct of Government business and is in accord with the remedial purposes of the Act to protect prevailing labor standards. The authority and enforcement powers of the Secretary under the Act are coextensive with the authority and powers under the Walsh-Healey Act. <I>Curtiss Wright Corp.</I> v. <I>McLucas</I> 364 F. Supp. 750, 769 (D NJ 1973). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.103" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.14.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.103   The Act.</HEAD>
<P>The McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act of 1965 (Pub. L. 89-286, 79 Stat. 1034, 41 U.S.C. 351 <I>et seq.</I>), hereinafter referred to as the Act, was approved by the President on October 22, 1965 (1 Weekly Compilation of Presidential Documents 428). It establishes standards for minimum compensation and safety and health protection of employees performing work for contractors and subcontractors on service contracts entered into with the Federal Government and the District of Columbia. It applies to contracts entered into pursuant to negotiations concluded or invitations for bids issued on or after January 20, 1966. It has been amended by Public Law 92-473, 86 Stat. 798; by Public Law 93-57, 87 Stat. 140; and by Public Law 94-489, 90 Stat. 2358. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.104" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.14.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.104   What the Act provides, generally.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the Act apply to contracts, whether negotiated or advertised, the principal purpose of which is to furnish services in the United States through the use of service employees. Under its provisions, every contract subject to the Act (and any bid specification therefor) entered into by the United States or the District of Columbia in excess of $2,500 must contain stipulations as set forth in § 4.6 of this part requiring: (a) That specified minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits determined by the Secretary of Labor (based on wage rates and fringe benefits prevailing in the locality or, in specified circumstances, the wage rates and fringe benefits contained in a collective bargaining agreement applicable to employees who performed on a predecessor contract) be paid to service employees employed by the contractor or any subcontractor in performing the services contracted for; (b) that working conditions of such employees which are under the control of the contractor or subcontractor meet safety and health standards; and (c) that notice be given to such employees of the compensation due them under the minimum wage and fringe benefits provisions of the contract. Contractors performing work subject to the Act thus enter into competition to obtain Government business on terms of which they are fairly forewarned by inclusion in the contract. (<I>Endicott Johnson Corp.</I> v. <I>Perkins,</I> 317 U.S. 501, 507 (1943).) The Act's purpose is to impose obligations upon those favored with Government business by precluding the use of the purchasing power of the Federal Government in the unfair depression of wages and standards of employment. (See H.R. Rep. No. 948, 89th Cong., 1st Sess. 2-3 (1965); S. Rep. No. 798, 89th Cong., 1st Sess. 3-4 (1965).) The Act does not permit the monetary wage rates specified in such a contract to be less than the minimum wage specified under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended (29 U.S.C. 206(a)(1)). In addition, it is a violation of the Act for any contractor or subcontractor under a Federal contract subject to the Act, regardless of the amount of the contract, to pay any of his employees engaged in performing work on the contract less than such Fair Labor Standards Act minimum wage. Contracts of $2,500 or less are not, however, required to contain the stipulations described above. These provisions of the Service Contract Act are implemented by the regulations contained in this part 4 and are discussed in more detail in subsequent sections of subparts C, D, and E.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.14.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.105   The Act as amended.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of the Act (see §§ 4.102-4.103) were amended, effective October 9, 1972, by Public Law 92-473, signed into law by the President on that date. By virtue of amendments made to paragraphs (1) and (2) of section 2(a) and the addition to section 4 of a new subsection (c), the compensation standards of the Act (see §§ 4.159-4.179) were revised to impose on successor contractors certain requirements (see § 4.1b) with respect to payment of wage rates and fringe benefits based on those agreed upon for substantially the same services in the same locality in collective bargaining agreements entered into by their predecessor contractors (unless such agreed compensation is substantially at variance with that locally prevailing or the agreement was not negotiated at arm's length). The Secretary of Labor is to give effect to the provisions of such collective bargaining agreements in his wage determinations under section 2 of the Act. A new paragraph (5) added to section 2(a) of the Act requires a statement in the government service contract of the rates that would be paid by the contracting agency in the event of its direct employment of those classes of service employees to be employed on the contract work who, if directly employed by the agency, would receive wages determined as provided in 5 U.S.C. 5341. The Secretary of Labor is directed to give due consideration to such rates in determining prevailing monetary wages and fringe benefits under the Act's provisions. Other provisions of the 1972 amendments include the addition of a new section 10 to the Act to insure that wage determinations are issued by the Secretary for substantially all service contracts subject to section 2(a) of the Act at the earliest administratively feasible time; an amendment to section 4(b) of the Act to provide, in addition to the conditions previously specified for issuance of administrative limitations, variations, tolerances, and exemptions (see § 4.123), that administrative action in this regard shall be taken only in special circumstances where the Secretary determines that it is in accord with the remedial purpose of the Act to protect prevailing labor standards; and a new subsection (d) added to section 4 of the Act providing for the award of service contracts for terms not more than 5 years with provision for periodic adjustment of minimum wage rates and fringe benefits payable thereunder by the issuance of wage determinations by the Secretary of Labor during the term of the contract. A further amendment to section 5(a) of the Act requires the names of contractors found to have violated the Act to be submitted for the debarment list (see § 4.188) not later than 90 days after the hearing examiner's finding of violation unless the Secretary recommends relief, and provides that such recommendations shall be made only because of unusual circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of the Act were amended by Public Law 93-57, 87 Stat. 140, effective July 6, 1973, to extend the Act's coverage to Canton Island. 
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of the Act were amended by Public Law 94-489, 90 Stat. 2358, approved October 13, 1976, to extend the Act's coverage to white collar workers. Accordingly, the minimum wage protection of the Act now extends to all workers, both blue collar and white collar, other than persons employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity as those terms are used in the Fair Labor Standards Act and in part 541 of title 29. Public Law 94-489 accomplished this change by adding to section 2(a)(5) of the Act a reference to 5 U.S.C. 5332, which deals with white collar workers, and by amending the definition of service contract employee in section 8(b) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) Included in this part 4 and in parts 6 and 8 of this subtitle are provisions to give effect to the amendments mentioned in this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.106" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.14.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.106   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Agencies Whose Contracts May Be Covered</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.107" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.15.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.107   Federal contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 2(a) of the Act covers contracts (and any bid specification therefor) “entered into by the United States” and section 2(b) applies to contracts entered into “with the Federal Government.” Within the meaning of these provisions, contracts entered into by the United States and contracts with the Federal Government include generally all contracts to which any agency or instrumentality of the U.S. Government becomes a party pursuant to authority derived from the Constitution and laws of the United States. The Act does not authorize any distinction in this respect between such agencies and instrumentalities on the basis of their inclusion in or independence from the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of the Government, the fact that they may be corporate in form, or the fact that payment for the contract services is not made from appropriated funds. Thus, contracts of wholly owned Government corporations, such as the Postal Service, and those of nonappropriated fund instrumentalities under the jurisdiction of the Armed Forces, or of other Federal agencies, such as Federal Reserve Banks, are included among those subject to the general coverage of the Act. (<I>Brinks, Inc.</I> v. <I>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System,</I> 466 F. Supp. 116 (D DC 1979); 43 Atty. Gen. Ops. ___ (September 26, 1978).) Contracts with the Federal Government and contracts entered into “by the United States” within the meaning of the Act do not, however, include contracts for services entered into on their own behalf by agencies or instrumentalities of other Governments within the United States, such as those of the several States and their political subdivisions, or of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, or American Samoa. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where a Federal agency exercises its contracting authority to procure services desired by the Government, the method of procurement utilized by the contracting agency is not controlling in determining coverage of the contract as one entered into by the United States. Such contracts may be entered into by the United States either through a direct award by a Federal agency or through the exercise by another agency (whether governmental or private) of authority granted to it to procure services for or on behalf of a Federal agency. Thus, sometimes authority to enter into service contracts of the character described in the Act for and on behalf of the Government and on a cost-reimbursable basis may be delegated, for the convenience of the contracting agency, to a prime contractor which has the responsibility for all work to be done in connection with the operation and management of a Federal plant, installation, facility, or program, together with the legal authority to act as agency for and on behalf of the Government and to obligate Government funds in the procurement of all services and supplies necessary to carry out the entire program of operation. The contracts entered into by such a prime contractor with secondary contractors for and on behalf of the Federal agency pursuant to such delegated authority, which have such services as their principal purpose, are deemed to be contracts entered into by the United States and contracts with the Federal Government within the meaning of the Act. However, service contracts entered into by State or local public bodies with purveyors of services are not deemed to be entered into by the United States merely because such services are paid for with funds of the public body which have been received from the Federal Government as a grant under a Federal program. For example, a contract entered into by a municipal housing authority for tree trimming, tree removal, and landscaping for an urban renewal project financed by Federal funds is not a contract entered into by the United States and is not covered by the Service Contract Act. Similarly, contracts let under the Medicaid program which are financed by federally-assisted grants to the States, and contracts which provide for insurance benefits to a third party under the Medicare program are not subject to the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.108" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.15.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.108   District of Columbia contracts.</HEAD>
<P>Section 2(a) of the Act covers contracts (and any bid specification therefor) in excess of $2,500 which are “entered into by the * * * District of Columbia.” The contracts of all agencies and instrumentalities which procure contract services for or on behalf of the District or under the authority of the District Government are contracts entered into by the District of Columbia within the meaning of this provision. Such contracts are also considered contracts entered into with the Federal Government or the United States within the meaning of section 2(b), section 5, and the other provisions of the Act. The legislative history indicates no intent to distinguish District of Columbia contracts from the other contracts made subject to the Act, and traditionally, under other statutes, District Government contracts have been made subject to the same labor standards provisions as contracts of agencies and instrumentalities of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983; 48 FR 50529, Nov. 2, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.109" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.15.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.16" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Covered Contracts Generally</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.110   What contracts are covered.</HEAD>
<P>The Act covers service contracts of the Federal agencies described in §§ 4.107-4.108. Except as otherwise specifically provided (see §§ 4.115 <I>et seq.</I>), all such contracts, the principal purpose of which is to furnish services in the United States through the use of service employees, are subject to its terms. This is true of contracts entered into by such agencies with States or their political subdivisions, as well as such contracts entered into with private employers. Contracts between a Federal or District of Columbia agency and another such agency are not within the purview of the Act; however, “subcontracts” awarded under “prime contracts” between the Small Business Administration and another Federal agency pursuant to various preferential set-aside programs, such as the 8(a) program, are covered by the Act. It makes no difference in the coverage of a contract whether the contract services are procured through negotiation or through advertising for bids. Also, the mere fact that an agreement is not reduced to writing does not mean that the contract is not within the coverage of the Act. The amount of the contract is not determinative of the Act's coverage, although the requirements are different for contracts in excess of $2,500 and for contracts of a lesser amount. The Act is applicable to the contract if the principal purpose of the contract is to furnish services, if such services are to be furnished in the United States, and if service employees will be used in providing such services. These elements of coverage will be discussed separately in the following sections. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.111" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.111   Contracts “to furnish services.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>“Principal purpose” as criterion.</I> Under its terms, the Act applies to a “contract * * * the principal purpose of which is to furnish services * * *.” If the principal purpose is to provide something other than services of the character contemplated by the Act and any such services which may be performed are only incidental to the performance of a contract for another purpose, the Act does not apply. However, as will be seen by examining the illustrative examples of covered contracts in §§ 4.130 <I>et seq.,</I> no hard and fast rule can be laid down as to the precise meaning of the term <I>principal purpose.</I> This remedial Act is intended to be applied to a wide variety of contracts, and the Act does not define or limit the types of services which may be contracted for under a contract the principal purpose of which is to furnish services. Further, the nomenclature, type, or particular form of contract used by procurement agencies is not determinative of coverage. Whether the principal purpose of a particular contract is the furnishing of services through the use of service employees is largely a question to be determined on the basis of all the facts in each particular case. Even where tangible items of substantial value are important elements of the subject matter of the contract, the facts may show that they are of secondary import to the furnishing of services in the particular case. This principle is illustrated by the examples set forth in § 4.131.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining whether a contract is for “services”, generally.</I> Except indirectly through the definition of <I>service employee</I> the Act does not define, or limit, the types of <I>services</I> which may be contracted for under a contract “the principal purpose of which is to furnish services”. As stated in the congressional committee reports on the legislation, the types of service contracts covered by its provisions are varied. Among the examples cited are contracts for laundry and dry cleaning, for transportation of the mail, for custodial, janitorial, or guard service, for packing and crating, for food service, and for miscellaneous housekeeping services. Covered contracts for services would also include those for other types of services which may be performed through the use of the various classes of service employees included in the definition in section 8(b) of the Act (see § 4.113). Examples of some such contracts are set forth in §§ 4.130 <I>et seq.</I> In determining questions of contract coverage, due regard must be given to the apparent legislative intent to include generally as contracts for <I>services</I> those contracts which have as their principal purpose the procurement of something other than the construction activity described in the Davis-Bacon Act or the materials, supplies, articles, and equipment described in the Walsh-Healey Act. The Committee reports in both the House and Senate, and statements made on the floor of the House, took note of the labor standards protections afforded by these two Acts to employees engaged in the performance of construction and supply contracts and observed: “The service contract is now the only remaining category of Federal contracts to which no labor standards protections apply” (H. Rept. 948, 89th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 1; see also S. Rept. 798, 89th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 1; daily Congressional Record, Sept. 20, 1965, p. 23497). A similar understanding of contracts principally for <I>services</I> as embracing contracts other than those for construction or supplies is reflected in the statement of President Johnson upon signing the Act (1 Weekly Compilation of Presidential Documents, p. 428). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.112" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.112   Contracts to furnish services “in the United States.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act and the provisions of this part apply to contract services furnished “in the United States,” including any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Outer Continental Shelf lands as defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Wake Island, and Johnston Island. The definition expressly excludes any other territory under the jurisdiction of the United States and any United States base or possession within a foreign country. Services to be performed exclusively on a vessel operating in international waters outside the geographic areas named in this paragraph would not be services furnished “in the United States” within the meaning of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) A service contract to be performed in its entirety outside the geographical limits of the United States as thus defined is not covered and is not subject to the labor standards of the Act. However, if a service contract is to be performed in part within and in part outside these geographic limits, the stipulations required by § 4.6 or § 4.7, as appropriate, must be included in the invitation for bids or negotiation documents and in the contract, and the labor standards must be observed with respect to that part of the contract services that is performed within these geographic limits. In such a case the requirements of the Act and of the contract clauses will not be applicable to the services furnished outside the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68664, Dec. 30, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.113" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.113   Contracts to furnish services “through the use of service employees.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of “service employees” in a contract performance.</I> (1) As indicated in § 4.110, the Act covers service contracts only where “service employees” will be used in performing the services which it is the purpose of the contract to procure. A contract principally for services ordinarily will meet this condition if any of the services will be furnished through the use of any service employee or employees. Where it is contemplated that the services (of the kind performed by service employees) will be performed individually by the contractor, and the contracting officer knows when advertising for bids or concluding negotiations that service employees will in no event be used by the contractor in providing the contract services, the Act will not be deemed applicable to the contract and the contract clauses required by § 4.6 or § 4.7 may be omitted. The fact that the required services will be performed by municipal employees or employees of a State would not remove the contract from the purview of the Act, as this Act does not contain any exemption for contracts performed by such employees. Also, as discussed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, where the services the Government wants under the contract are of a type that will require the use of service employees as defined in section 8(b) of the Act, the contract is not taken out of the purview of the Act by the fact that the manner in which the services of such employees are performed will be subject to the continuing overall supervision of bona fide executive, administrative, or professional personnel to whom the Act does not apply.
</P>
<P>(2) The coverage of the Act does not extend to contracts for services to be performed exclusively by persons who are not service employees, i.e., persons who are bona fide executive, administrative or professional personnel as defined in part 541 of this title (see paragraph (b) of this section). A contract for medical services furnished by professional personnel is an example of such a contract. 
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, the Department does not require application of the Act to any contract for services which is performed essentially by bona fide executive, administrative, or professional employees, with the use of service employees being only a minor factor in the performance of the contract. However, the Act would apply to a contract for services which may involve the use of service employees to a significant or substantial extent even though there is some use of bona fide executive, administrative, or professional employees in the performance of the contract. For example, contracts for drafting or data processing services are often performed by drafters, computer operators, or other service employees and are subject to the Act even though the work of such employees may be performed under the direction and supervision of bona fide professional employees.
</P>
<P>(4) In close cases involving a decision as to whether a contract will involve a significant use of service employees, the Department of Labor should be consulted, since such situations require consideration of other factors such as the nature of the contract work, the type of work performed by service employees, how necessary the work is to contract performance, the amount of contract work performed by service employees vis-a-vis professional employees, and the total number of service employees employed on the contract.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“Service employees” defined.</I> In determining whether or not any of the contract services will be performed by service employees, the definition of <I>service employee</I> in section 8(b) of the Act is controlling. It provides:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The term <I>service employee</I> means any person engaged in the performance of a contract entered into by the United States and not exempted under section 7, whether negotiated or advertised, the principal purpose of which is to furnish services in the United States (other than any person employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, as those terms are defined in part 541 of title 29, Code of Federal Regulations, as of July 30, 1976, and any subsequent revision of those regulations); and shall include all such persons regardless of any contractual relationship that may be alleged to exist between a contractor or subcontractor and such persons.
</P>
<FP>It will be noted that the definition expressly excludes those employees who are employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity as defined in part 541 of this title and as discussed further in § 4.156. Some of the specific types of service employees who may be employed on service contracts are noted in other sections which discuss the application of the Act to employees.</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983; 48 FR 50529, Nov. 2, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.114" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.114   Subcontracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>“Contractor” as including “subcontractor.”</I> Except where otherwise noted or where the term <I>Government prime contractor</I> is used, the term <I>contractor</I> as used in this part 4 shall be deemed to include a subcontractor. The term <I>contractor</I> as used in the contract clauses required by subpart A in any subcontract under a covered contract shall be deemed to refer to the subcontractor, or, if in a subcontract entered into by such a subcontractor, shall be deemed to refer to the lower level subcontractor. (See § 4.1a(f).)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liability of prime contractor.</I> When a contractor undertakes a contract subject to the Act, the contractor agrees to assume the obligation that the Act's labor standards will be observed in furnishing the required services. This obligation may not be relieved by shifting all or part of the work to another, and the prime contractor is jointly and severally liable with any subcontractor for any underpayments on the part of a subcontractor which would constitute a violation of the prime contract. The prime contractor is required to include the prescribed contract clauses (§§ 4.6-4.7) and applicable wage determination in all subcontracts. The appropriate enforcement sanctions provided under the Act may be invoked against both the prime contractor and the subcontractor in the event of failure to comply with any of the Act's requirements where appropriate under the circumstances of the case. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Specific Exclusions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.115" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.115   Exemptions and exceptions, generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act, in section 7, specifically excludes from its coverage certain contracts and work which might otherwise come within its terms as procurements the principal purpose of which is to furnish services through the use of service employees. 
</P>
<P>(b) The statutory exemptions in section 7 of the Act are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any contract of the United States or District of Columbia for construction, alteration, and/or repair, including painting and decorating of public buildings or public works; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any work required to be done in accordance with the provisions of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (49 Stat. 2036); 
</P>
<P>(3) Any contract for the carriage of freight or personnel by vessel, airplane, bus, truck, express, railway line, or oil or gas pipeline where published tariff rates are in effect; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any contract for the furnishing of services by radio, telephone, telegraph, or cable companies, subject to the Communications Act of 1934; 
</P>
<P>(5) Any contract for public utility services, including electric light and power, water, steam, and gas; 
</P>
<P>(6) Any employment contract providing for direct services to a Federal agency by an individual or individuals; 
</P>
<P>(7) Any contract with the Post Office Department, (now the U.S. Postal Service) the principal purpose of which is the operation of postal contract stations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.116" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.116   Contracts for construction activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General scope of exemption.</I> The Act, in paragraph (1) of section 7, exempts from its provisions “any contract of the United States or District of Columbia for construction, alteration and/or repair, including painting and decorating of public buildings or public works.” This language corresponds to the language used in the Davis-Bacon Act to describe its coverage (40 U.S.C. 276a). The legislative history of the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act indicates that the purpose of the provision is to avoid overlapping coverage of the two acts by excluding from the application of the McNamara-O'Hara Act those contracts to which the Davis-Bacon Act is applicable and in the performance of which the labor standards of that Act are intended to govern the compensation payable to the employees of contractors and subcontractors on the work. (See H. Rept. 798, pp. 2, 5, and H. Rept. 948, pp. 1, 5, also Hearing, Special Subcommittee on Labor, House Committee on Education and Labor, p. 9 (89th Cong., 1st sess.).) The intent of section 7(1) is simply to exclude from the provisions of the Act those construction contracts which involve the employment of persons whose wage rates and fringe benefits are determinable under the Davis-Bacon Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contracts not within exemption.</I> Section 7(1) does not exempt contracts which, for purposes of the Davis-Bacon Act, are not considered to be of the character described by the corresponding language in that Act, and to which the provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act are therefore not applied. Such contracts are accordingly subject to the McNamara-O'Hara Act where their principal purpose is to furnish services in the United States through the use of service employees. For example, a contract for clearing timber or brush from land or for the demolition or dismantling of buildings or other structures located thereon may be a contract for construction activity subject to the Davis-Bacon Act where it appears that the clearing of the site is to be followed by the construction of a public building or public work at the same location. If, however, no further construction activity at the site is contemplated the Davis-Bacon Act is considered inapplicable to such clearing, demolition, or dismantling work. In such event, the exemption in section 7(1) of the McNamara-O'Hara Act has no application and the contract may be subject to the Act in accordance with its general coverage provisions. It should be noted that the fact that a contract may be labeled as one for the sale and removal of property, such as salvage material, does not negate coverage under the Act even though title to the removable property passes to the contractor. While the value of the property being sold in relation to the services performed under the contract is a factor to be considered in determining coverage, where the facts show that the principal purpose of removal, dismantling, and demolition contracts is to furnish services through the use of service employees, these contracts are subject to the Act. (See also § 4.131.) 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partially exempt contracts.</I> (1) Instances may arise in which, for the convenience of the Government, instead of awarding separate contracts for construction work subject to the Davis-Bacon Act and for services of a different type to be performed by service employees, the contracting officer may include separate specifications for each type of work in a single contract calling for the performance of both types of work. For example, a contracting agency may invite bids for the installation of a plumbing system or for the installation of a security alarm system in a public building and for the maintenance of the system for one year. In such a case, if the contract is principally for services, the exemption provided by section 7(1) will be deemed applicable only to that portion of the contract which calls for construction activity subject to the Davis-Bacon Act. The contract documents are required to contain the clauses prescribed by § 4.6 for application to the contract obligation to furnish services through the use of service employees, and the provisions of the McNamara-O'Hara Act will apply to that portion of the contract.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service or maintenance contracts involving construction work.</I> The provisions of both the Davis-Bacon Act and the Service Contract Act would generally apply to contracts involving construction and service work where such contracts are principally for services. The Davis-Bacon Act, and thus the exemption provided by section 7(1) of the Act, would be applicable to construction contract work in such hybrid contracts where:
</P>
<P>(i) The contract contains specific requirements for substantial amounts of construction, reconstruction, alteration, or repair work (hereinafter referred to as construction) or it is ascertainable that a substantial amount of construction work will be necessary for the performance of the contract (the word “substantial” relates to the type and quantity of construction work to be performed and not merely to the total value of construction work (whether in absolute dollars or cost percentages) as compared to the total value of the contract); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The construction work is physically or functionally separate from, and as a practical matter is capable of being performed on a segregated basis from, the other work called for by the contract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983; 48 FR 50529, Nov. 2, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.117" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.117   Work subject to requirements of Walsh-Healey Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act, in paragraph (2) of section 7, exempts from its provisions “any work required to be done in accordance with the provision of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act” (49 Stat. 2036, 41 U.S.C. 35 <I>et seq.</I>). It will be noted that like the similar provision in the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 329(b)), this is an exemption for “work”, i.e., specifications or requirements, rather than for “contracts” subject to the Walsh-Healey Act. The purpose of the exemption was to eliminate possible overlapping of the differing labor standards of the two Acts, which otherwise might be applied to employees performing work on a contract covered by the Service Contract Act if such contract and their work under it should also be deemed to be covered by the Walsh-Healey Act. The Walsh-Healey Act applies to contracts in excess of $10,000 for the manufacture or furnishing of materials, supplies, articles or equipment. Thus, there is no overlap if the principal purpose of the contract is the manufacture or furnishing of such materials etc., rather than the furnishing of services of the character referred to in the Service Contract Act, for such a contract is not within the general coverage of the Service Contract Act. In such cases the exemption in section 7(2) is not pertinent. See, for example, the discussion in §§ 4.131 and 4.132.
</P>
<P>(b) Further, contracts principally for remanufacturing of equipment which is so extensive as to be equivalent to manufacturing are subject to the Walsh-Healey Act. Remanufacturing shall be deemed to be manufacturing when the criteria in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(1) Major overhaul of an item, piece of equipment, or materiel which is degraded or inoperable, and under which all of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(i) The item or equipment is required to be completely or substantially torn down into individual components parts; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Substantially all of the parts are reworked, rehabilitated, altered and/or replaced; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The parts are reassembled so as to furnish a totally rebuilt item or piece of equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Manufacturing processes similar to those which were used in the manufacturing of the item or piece of equipment are utilized; and
</P>
<P>(v) The disassembled componets, if usable (except for situations where the number of items or pieces of equipment involved are too few to make it practicable) are commingled with existing inventory and, as such, lose their identification with respect to a particular piece of equipment; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The items or equipment overhauled are restored to original life expectancy, or nearly so; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Such work is performed in a facility owned or operated by the contractor.
</P>
<P>(2) Major modification of an item, piece of equipment, or materiel which is wholly or partially obsolete, and under which all of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(i) The item or equipment is required to be completely or substantially torn down; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Outmoded parts are replaced; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The item or equipment is rebuilt or reassembled; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The contract work results in the furnishing of a substantially modified item in a usable and serviceable condition; and
</P>
<P>(v) The work is performed in a facility owned or operated by the contractor.
</P>
<P>(3) Remanufacturing does not include the repair of damaged or broken equipment which does not require a complete teardown, overhaul, and rebuild as described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, or the periodic and routine maintenance, preservation, care, adjustment, upkeep, or servicing of equipment to keep it in usable, serviceable, working order. Such contracts typically are billed on an hourly rate (labor plus materials and parts) basis. Any contract principally for the work described in this paragraph (b)(3) is subject to the Service Contract Act. Examples of such work include:
</P>
<P>(i) Repair of an automobile, truck, or other vehicle, construction equipment, tractor, crane, aerospace, air conditioning and refrigeration equipment, electric motors, and ground powered industrial or vehicular equipment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Repair of typewriters and other office equipment (see § 4.123(e));
</P>
<P>(iii) Repair of appliances, radios television, calculators, and other electronic equipment;
</P>
<P>(iv) Inspecting, testing, calibration, painting, packaging, lubrication, tune-up, or replacement of internal parts of equipment listed in paragraphs (b)(3)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Reupholstering, reconditioning, repair, and refinishing of furniture.
</P>
<P>(4) Application of the Service Contract Act or the Walsh-Healey Act to any similar type of contract not decided above will be decided on a case-by-case basis by the Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.118" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.118   Contracts for carriage subject to published tariff rates.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in paragraph (3) of section 7, exempts from its provisions “any contract for the carriage of freight or personnel by vessel, airplane, bus, truck, express, railway line or oil or gas pipeline where published tariff rates are in effect”. In order for this exemption to be applicable, the contract must be for such carriage by a common carrier described by the terms used. It does not, for example, apply to contracts for taxicab or ambulance service, because taxicab and ambulance companies are not among the common carriers specified by the statute. Also, a contract for transportation service does not come within this exemption unless the service contracted for is actually governed by published tariff rates in effect pursuant to State or Federal law for such carriage. The contracts excluded from the reach of the Act by this exemption are typically those where there is on file with the Interstate Commerce Commission or an appropriate State or local regulatory body a tariff rate applicable to the transportation involved, and the transportation contract between the Government and the carrier is evidenced by a Government bill of lading citing the published tariff rate. An administrative exemption has been provided for certain contracts where such carriage is subject to rates covered by section 10721 of the Interstate Commerce Act and is in accordance with applicable regulations governing such rates. See § 4.123(d). However, only contracts principally for the carriage of “freight or personnel” are exempt. Thus, the exemption cannot apply where the principal purpose of the contract is packing, crating, handling, loading, and/or storage of goods prior to or following line-haul transportation. The fact that substantial local drayage to and from the contractor's establishment (such as a warehouse) may be required in such contracts does not alter the fact that their principal purpose is other than the carriage of freight. Also, this exemption does not exclude any contracts for the transportation of mail from the application of the Act, because the term <I>freight</I> does not include the mail. (For an administrative exemption of certain contracts with common carriers for carriage of mail, see § 4.123(d).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.119" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.119   Contracts for services of communications companies.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in paragraph (4) of section 7, exempts from its provisions “any contract for the furnishing of services by radio, telephone, telegraph, or cable companies, subject to the Communications Act of 1934.” This exemption is applicable to contracts with such companies for communication services regulated under the Communications Act. It does not exempt from the Act any contracts with such companies to furnish any other kinds of services through the use of service employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.120" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.120   Contracts for public utility services.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in paragraph (5) of section 7, exempts from its provisions “any contract for public utility services, including electric light and power, water, steam, and gas.” This exemption is applicable to contracts for such services with companies whose rates therefor are regulated under State, local, or Federal law governing operations of public utility enterprises. Contracts entered into with public utility companies to furnish services through the use of service employees, other than those subject to such rate regulation, are not exempt from the Act. Among the contracts included in the exemption would be those between Federal electric power marketing agencies and investor-owned electric utilities, Rural Electrification Administration cooperatives, municipalities and State agencies engaged in the transmission and sale of electric power and energy.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(See H. Rept. No. 948, 89th Cong., 1st sess., p. 4) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.121" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.121   Contracts for individual services.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in paragraph (6) of section 7, exempts from its provisions “any employment contract providing for direct services to a Federal agency by an individual or individuals.” This exemption, which applies only to an “employment contract” for “direct services,” makes it clear that the Act's application to Federal contracts for services is intended to be limited to service contracts entered into with independent contractors. If a contract to furnish services (to be performed by a service employee as defined in the Act) provides that they will be furnished directly to the Federal agency by the individual under conditions or circumstances which will make him an employee of the agency in providing the contract service, the exemption applies and the contract will not be subject to the Act's provisions. The exemption does not exclude from the Act any contract for services of the kind performed by service employees which is entered into with an independent contractor whose individual services will be used in performing the contract, but as noted earlier in § 4.113, such a contract would be outside the general coverage of the Act if only the contractor's individual services would be furnished and no service employee would in any event be used in its performance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.122" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.122   Contracts for operation of postal contract stations.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in paragraph (7) of section 7, exempts from its provisions “any contract with the Post Office Department, [now the U.S. Postal Service], the principal purpose of which is the operation of postal contract stations.” The exemption is limited to postal service contracts having the operation of such stations as their principal purpose. A provision of the legislation which would also have exempted contracts with the U.S. Postal Service having as their principal purpose the transportation, handling, or delivery of the mails was eliminated from the bill during its consideration by the House Committee on Education and Labor (H. Rept. 948, 89th Cong., 1st sess., p. 1). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.123" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.123   Administrative limitations, variances, tolerances, and exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority of the Secretary.</I> Section 4(b) of the Act as amended in 1972 authorizes the Secretary to “provide such reasonable limitations” and to “make such rules and regulations allowing reasonable variations, tolerances, and exemptions to and from any or all provisions of this Act (other than § 10), but only in special circumstances where he determines that such limitation, variation, tolerance, or exemption is necessary and proper in the public interest or to avoid the serious impairment of Government business, and is in accord with the remedial purpose of this Act to protect prevailing labor standards.” This authority is similar to that vested in the Secretary under section 6 of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (41 U.S.C. 40) and under section 105 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 331).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative action under section 4(b) of the Act.</I> The authority conferred on the Secretary by section 4(b) of the Act will be exercised with due regard to the remedial purpose of the statute to protect prevailing labor standards and to avoid the undercutting of such standards which could result from the award of Government work to contractors who will not observe such standards, and whose saving in labor cost therefrom enables them to offer a lower price to the Government than can be offered by the fair employers who maintain the prevailing standards. Administrative action consistent with this statutory purpose may be taken under section 4(b) with or without a request therefor, when found necessary and proper in accordance with the statutory standards. No formal procedures have been prescribed for requesting such action. However, a request for exemption from the Act's provisions will be granted only upon a strong and affirmative showing that it is necessary and proper in the public interest or to avoid serious impairment of Government business, and is in accord with the remedial purpose of the Act to protect prevailing labor standards. If the request for administrative action under section 4(b) is not made by the headquarters office of the contracting agency to which the contract services are to be provided, the views of such office on the matter should be obtained and submitted with the request or the contracting officer may forward such a request through channels to the agency headquarters for submission with the latter's views to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor, whenever any wage payment issues are involved. Any request relating to an occupational safety or health issue shall be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health, Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation of official action under section 4(b).</I> All papers and documents made a part of the official record of administrative action pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act are available for public inspection in accordance with the regulations in 29 CFR part 70. Limitations, variations, tolerances and exemptions of general applicability and legal effect promulgated pursuant to such authority are published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and made a part of the rules incorporated in this part 4. For convenience in use of the rules, they are generally set forth in the sections of this part covering the subject matter to which they relate. (See, for example, §§ 4.5(b), 4.6(o), 4.112 and 4.113.) Any rules that are promulgated under section 4(b) of the Act relating to subject matter not dealt with elsewhere in this part 4 will be set forth immediately following this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the statutory exemptions in section 7 of the Act (see § 4.115(b)), the following types of contracts have been exempted from all the provisions of the Service Contract Act of 1965, pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act, prior to its amendment by Public Law 92-473, which exemptions the Secretary of Labor found to be necessary and proper in the public interest or to avoid serious impairment of the conduct of Government business:
</P>
<P>(1) Contracts entered into by the United States with common carriers for the carriage of mail by rail, air (except air star routes), bus, and ocean vessel, where such carriage is performed on regularly scheduled runs of the trains, airplanes, buses, and vessels over regularly established routes and accounts for an insubstantial portion of the revenue therefrom;
</P>
<P>(2) Any contract entered into by the U.S. Postal Service with an individual owner-operator for mail service where it is not contemplated at the time the contract is made that such owner-operator will hire any service employee to perform the services under the contract except for short periods of vacation time or for unexpected contingencies or emergency situations such as illness, or accident; and
</P>
<P>(3) Contracts for the carriage of freight or personnel where such carriage is subject to rates covered by section 10721 of the Interstate Commerce Act.
</P>
<P>(e) The following types of contracts have been exempted from all the provisions of the Service Contract Act of 1965, pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act, which exemptions the Secretary of Labor found are necessary and proper in the public interest or to avoid serious impairment of the conduct of Government business, and are in accord with the remedial purpose of the Act to protect prevailing labor standards: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Prime contracts or subcontracts principally for the maintenance, calibration, and/or repair of: 
</P>
<P>(A) Automated data processing equipment and office information/word processing systems; 
</P>
<P>(B) Scientific equipment and medical apparatus or equipment where the application of microelectronic circuitry or other technology of at least similar sophistication is an essential element (for example, Federal Supply Classification (FSC) Group 65, Class 6515, “Medical Diagnostic Equipment”; Class 6525, “X-Ray Equipment”; FSC Group 66, Class 6630, “Chemical Analysis Instruments”; Class 6665, “Geographical and Astronomical Instruments”, are largely composed of the types of equipment exempted under this paragraph); 
</P>
<P>(C) Office/business machines not otherwise exempt pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(i)(A) of this section, where such services are performed by the manufacturer or supplier of the equipment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The exemptions set forth in this paragraph (e)(1) shall apply only under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(A) The items of equipment are commercial items which are used regularly for other than Government purposes, and are sold or traded by the contractor (or subcontractor in the case of an exempt subcontract) in substantial quantities to the general public in the course of normal business operations; 
</P>
<P>(B) The prime contract or subcontract services are furnished at prices which are, or are based on, established catalog or market prices for the maintenance, calibration, and/or repair of such commercial items. An “established catalog price” is a price included in a catalog, price list, schedule, or other form that is regularly maintained by the manufacturer or the contractor, is either published or otherwise available for inspection by customers, and states prices at which sales currently, or were last, made to a significant number of buyers constituting the general public. An “established market price” is a current price, established in the usual course of trade between buyers and sellers free to bargain, which can be substantiated from sources independent of the manufacturer or contractor; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The contractor utilizes the same compensation (wage and fringe benefits) plan for all service employees performing work under the contract as the contractor uses for these employees and equivalent employees servicing the same equipment of commercial customers; 
</P>
<P>(D) The contractor certifies to the provisions in this paragraph (e)(1)(ii). Certification by the prime contractor as to its compliance with respect to the prime contract also constitutes its certification as to compliance by its subcontractor if it subcontracts out the exempt services. The certification shall be included in the prime contract or subcontract. 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Determinations of the applicability of this exemption to prime contracts shall be made in the first instance by the contracting officer on or before contract award. In making a judgment that the exemption applies, the contracting officer shall consider all factors and make an affirmative determination that all of the conditions in paragraph (e)(1) of this section have been met. 
</P>
<P>(B) Determinations of the applicability of this exemption to subcontracts shall be made by the prime contractor on or before subcontract award. In making a judgment that the exemption applies, the prime contractor shall consider all factors and make an affirmative determination that all of the conditions in paragraph (e)(1) have been met. 
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) If the Administrator determines after award of the prime contract that any of the requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section for exemption has not been met, the exemption will be deemed inapplicable, and the contract shall become subject to the Service Contract Act, effective as of the date of the Administrator's determination. In such case, the corrective procedures in § 4.5(c) shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(B) The prime contractor is responsible for compliance with the requirements of the Service Contract Act by its subcontractors, including compliance with all of the requirements of this exemption (see § 4.114(b)). If the Administrator determines that any of the requirements in paragraph (e)(1) for exemption has not been met with respect to a subcontract, the exemption will be deemed inapplicable, and the prime contractor may be responsible for compliance with the Act effective as of the date of contract award. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Prime contracts or subcontracts principally for the following services where the services under the contract or subcontract meet all of the criteria set forth in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section and are not excluded by paragraph (e)(2)(iii): 
</P>
<P>(A) Automobile or other vehicle (<I>e.g.,</I> aircraft) maintenance services (other than contracts to operate a Government motor pool or similar facility); 
</P>
<P>(B) Financial services involving the issuance and servicing of cards (including credit cards, debit cards, purchase cards, smart cards, and similar card services); 
</P>
<P>(C) Contracts with hotels/motels for conferences, including lodging and/or meals which are part of the contract for the conference (which shall not include ongoing contracts for lodging on an as needed or continuing basis); 
</P>
<P>(D) Maintenance, calibration, repair and/or installation (where the installation is not subject to the Davis-Bacon Act, as provided in § 4.116(c)(2)) services for all types of equipment where the services are obtained from the manufacturer or supplier of the equipment under a contract awarded on a sole source basis;
</P>
<P>(E) Transportation by common carrier of persons by air, motor vehicle, rail, or marine vessel on regularly scheduled routes or via standard commercial services (not including charter services); 
</P>
<P>(F) Real estate services, including real property appraisal services, related to housing federal agencies or disposing of real property owned by the Federal Government; and 
</P>
<P>(G) Relocation services, including services of real estate brokers and appraisers, to assist federal employees or military personnel in buying and selling homes (which shall not include actual moving or storage of household goods and related services). 
</P>
<P>(ii) The exemption set forth in this paragraph (e)(2) shall apply to the services listed in paragraph (e)(2)(i) only when all of the following criteria are met: 
</P>
<P>(A) The services under the prime contract or subcontract are commercial—<I>i.e.,</I> they are offered and sold regularly to non-Governmental customers, and are provided by the contractor (or subcontractor in the case of an exempt subcontract) to the general public in substantial quantities in the course of normal business operations. 
</P>
<P>(B) The prime contract or subcontract will be awarded on a sole source basis or the contractor or subcontractor will be selected for award on the basis of other factors in addition to price. In such cases, price must be equal to or less important than the combination of other non-price or cost factors in selecting the contractor. 
</P>
<P>(C) The prime contract or subcontract services are furnished at prices which are, or are based on, established catalog or market prices. An established price is a price included in a catalog, price list, schedule, or other form that is regularly maintained by the contractor or subcontractor, is either published or otherwise available for inspection by customers, and states prices at which sales are currently, or were last, made to a significant number of buyers constituting the general public. An established market price is a current price, established in the usual course of trade between buyers and sellers free to bargain, which can be substantiated from sources independent of the manufacturer or contractor. 
</P>
<P>(D) Each service employee who will perform services under the Government contract or subcontract will spend only a small portion of his or her time (a monthly average of less than 20 percent of the available hours on an annualized basis, or less than 20 percent of available hours during the contract period if the contract period is less than a month) servicing the government contract or subcontract. 
</P>
<P>(E) The contractor utilizes the same compensation (wage and fringe benefits) plan for all service employees performing work under the contract or subcontract as the contractor uses for these employees and for equivalent employees servicing commercial customers. 
</P>
<P>(F) The contracting officer (or prime contractor with respect to a subcontract) determines in advance, based on the nature of the contract requirements and knowledge of the practices of likely offerors, that all or nearly all offerors will meet the requirements in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section. Where the services are currently being performed under contract, the contracting officer or prime contractor shall consider the practices of the existing contractor in making a determination regarding the requirements in paragraph (e)(2)(ii). If upon receipt of offers, the contracting officer finds that he or she did not correctly determine that all or nearly all offerors would meet the requirements, the Service Contract Act shall apply to the procurement, even if the successful offeror has certified in accordance with paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(G) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(G) The contractor certifies in the prime contract or subcontract, as applicable, to the provisions in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(A) and (C) through (E) of this section. Certification by the prime contractor as to its compliance with respect to the prime contract also constitutes its certification as to compliance by its subcontractor if it subcontracts out the exempt services. If the contracting officer or prime contractor has reason to doubt the validity of the certification, SCA stipulations shall be included in the prime contract or subcontract. 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) If the Administrator determines after award of the prime contract that any of the requirements in paragraph (e)(2) of this section for exemption has not been met, the exemption will be deemed inapplicable, and the contract shall become subject to the Service Contract Act. In such case, the corrective procedures in § 4.5(c) shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(B) The prime contractor is responsible for compliance with the requirements of the Service Contract Act by its subcontractors, including compliance with all of the requirements of this exemption (see § 4.114(b)). If the Department of Labor determines that any of the requirements in paragraph (e)(2) for exemption has not been met with respect to a subcontract, the exemption will be deemed inapplicable, and the prime contractor may be responsible for compliance with the Act, as of the date of contract award. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The exemption set forth in this paragraph (e)(2) does not apply to solicitations and contracts: 
</P>
<P>(A) Entered into under the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act, 41 U.S.C. 47; 
</P>
<P>(B) For the operation of a Government facility or portion thereof (but may be applicable to subcontracts for services set forth in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) that meet all of the criteria of paragraph (e)(2)(ii)); or 
</P>
<P>(C) Subject to section 4(c) of the Service Contract Act, as well as any options or extensions under such contract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended 66 FR 5134, Jan. 18, 2001; 70 FR 50899, Aug. 26, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.124-4.129" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.17.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.124-4.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Particular Application of Contract Coverage Principles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.130" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.18.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.130   Types of covered service contracts illustrated.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The types of contracts, the principal purpose of which is to furnish services through the use of service employees, are too numerous and varied to permit an exhaustive listing. The following list is illustrative, however, of the types of services called for by such contracts that have been found to come within the coverage of the Act. Other examples of covered contracts are discussed in other sections of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) Aerial spraying.
</P>
<P>(2) Aerial reconnaissance for fire detection.
</P>
<P>(3) Ambulance service.
</P>
<P>(4) Barber and beauty shop services.
</P>
<P>(5) Cafeteria and food service.
</P>
<P>(6) Carpet laying (other than part of construction) and cleaning.
</P>
<P>(7) Cataloging services.
</P>
<P>(8) Chemical testing and analysis.
</P>
<P>(9) Clothing alteration and repair.
</P>
<P>(10) Computer services.
</P>
<P>(11) Concessionaire services.
</P>
<P>(12) Custodial, janitorial, and housekeeping services.
</P>
<P>(13) Data collection, processing, and/or analysis services.
</P>
<P>(14) Drafting and illustrating.
</P>
<P>(15) Electronic equipment maintenance and operation and engineering support services.
</P>
<P>(16) Exploratory drilling (other than part of construction).
</P>
<P>(17) Film processing.
</P>
<P>(18) Fire fighting and protection.
</P>
<P>(19) Fueling services.
</P>
<P>(20) Furniture repair and rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(21) Geological field surveys and testing.
</P>
<P>(22) Grounds maintenance.
</P>
<P>(23) Guard and watchman security service.
</P>
<P>(24) Inventory services.
</P>
<P>(25) Keypunching and keyverifying contracts.
</P>
<P>(26) Laboratory analysis services.
</P>
<P>(27) Landscaping (other than part of construction).
</P>
<P>(28) Laundry and dry cleaning.
</P>
<P>(29) Linen supply services.
</P>
<P>(30) Lodging and/or meals.
</P>
<P>(31) Mail hauling.
</P>
<P>(32) Mailing and addressing services.
</P>
<P>(33) Maintenance and repair of all types of equipment, e.g., aircraft, engines, electrical motors, vehicles, and electronic, telecommunications, office and related business, and construction equipment (See § 4.123(e).).
</P>
<P>(34) Mess attendant services.
</P>
<P>(35) Mortuary services.
</P>
<P>(36) Motor pool operation.
</P>
<P>(37) Nursing home services.
</P>
<P>(38) Operation, maintenance, or logistic support of a Federal facility.
</P>
<P>(39) Packing and crating.
</P>
<P>(40) Parking services.
</P>
<P>(41) Pest control.
</P>
<P>(42) Property management.
</P>
<P>(43) Snow removal.
</P>
<P>(44) Stenographic reporting.
</P>
<P>(45) Support services at military installations.
</P>
<P>(46) Surveying and mapping services (not directly related to construction).
</P>
<P>(47) Taxicab services.
</P>
<P>(48) Telephone and field interview services.
</P>
<P>(49) Tire and tube repairs.
</P>
<P>(50) Transporting property or personnel (except as explained in § 4.118).
</P>
<P>(51) Trash and garbage removal.
</P>
<P>(52) Tree planting and thinning, clearing timber or brush, etc. (See also §§ 4.116(b) and 4.131(f).). 
</P>
<P>(53) Vending machine services. 
</P>
<P>(54) Visual and graphic arts.
</P>
<P>(55) Warehousing or storage. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.131" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.18.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.131   Furnishing services involving more than use of labor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the principal purpose of a contract is to furnish services in the performance of which service employees will be used, the Act will apply to the contract, in the absence of an exemption, even though the use or furnishing of nonlabor items may be an important element in the furnishing of the services called for by its terms. The Act is concerned with protecting the labor standards of workers engaged in performing such contracts, and is applicable if the statutory coverage test is met, regardless of the form in which the contract is drafted. The proportion of the labor cost to the total cost of the contract and the necessity of furnishing or receiving tangible nonlabor items in performing the contract obligations will be considered but are not necessarily determinative. A procurement that requires tangible items to be supplied to the Government or the contractor as a part of the service furnished is covered by the Act so long as the facts show that the contract is chiefly for services, and that the furnishing of tangible items is of secondary importance.
</P>
<P>(b) Some examples of covered contracts illustrating these principles may be helpful. One such example is a contract for the maintenance and repair of typewriters. Such a contract may require the contractor to furnish typewriter parts, as the need arises, in performing the contract services. Since this does not change the principal purpose of the contract, which is to furnish the maintenance and repair services through the use of service employees, the contract remains subject to the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Another example of the application of the above principle is a contract for the recurrent supply to a Government agency of freshly laundered items on a rental basis. It is plain from the legislative history that such a contract is typical of those intended to be covered by the Act. S. Rept. 798, 89th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 2; H. Rept. 948, 89th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 2. Although tangible items owned by the contractor are provided on a rental basis for the use of the Government, the service furnished by the contractor in making them available for such use when and where they are needed, through the use of service employees who launder and deliver them, is the principal purpose of the contract.
</P>
<P>(d) Similarly, a contract in the form of rental of equipment with operators for the plowing and reseeding of a park area is a service contract. The Act applies to it because its principal purpose is the service of plowing and reseeding, which will be performed by service employees, although as a necessary incident the contractor is required to furnish equipment. For like reasons the contracts for aerial spraying and aerial reconnaissance listed in § 4.130 are covered, even though the use of airplanes, an expensive item of equipment, is essential in performing such services. In general, contracts under which the contractor agrees to provide the Government with vehicles or equipment on a rental basis with drivers or operators for the purpose of furnishing services are covered by the Act. Such contracts are not considered contracts for furnishing equipment within the meaning of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act. On the other hand, contracts under which the contractor provides equipment with operators for the purpose of construction of a public building or public work, such as road resurfacing or dike repair, even where the work is performed under the supervision of Government employees, would be within the exemption in section 7(1) of the Act as contracts for construction subject to the Davis-Bacon Act. (See § 4.116.)
</P>
<P>(e) Contracts for data collection, surveys, computer services, and the like are within the general coverage of the Act even though the contractor may be required to furnish such tangible items as written reports or computer printouts, since items of this nature are considered to be of secondary importance to the services which it is the principal purpose of the contract to procure.
</P>
<P>(f) Contracts under which the contractor receives tangible items from the Government in return for furnishing services (which items are in lieu of or in addition to monetary consideration granted by either party) are covered by the Act where the facts show that the furnishing of such services is the principal purpose of the contracts. For example, property removal or disposal contracts which involve demolition of buildings or other structures are subject to the Act when their principal purpose is dismantling and removal (and no further construction activity at the site is contemplated). However, removal or dismantling contracts whose principal purpose is sales are not covered. So-called “timber sales” contracts generally are not subject to the Act because normally the services provided under such contracts are incidental to the principal purpose of the contracts. (See also §§ 4.111(a) and 4.116(b).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.132" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.18.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.132   Services and other items to be furnished under a single contract.</HEAD>
<P>If the principal purpose of a contract is to furnish services through the use of service employees within the meaning of the Act, the contract to furnish such services is not removed from the Act's coverage merely because, as a matter of convenience in procurement, the service specifications are combined in a single contract document with specifications for the procurement of different or unrelated items. In such case, the Act would apply to service specifications but would not apply to any specifications subject to the Walsh-Healey Act or to the Davis-Bacon Act. With respect to contracts which contain separate specifications for the furnishing of services and construction activity, see § 4.116(c). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.133" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.18.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.133   Beneficiary of contract services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act does not say to whom the services under a covered contract must be furnished. So far as its language is concerned, it is enough if the contract is “entered into” by and with the Government and if its principal purpose is “to furnish services in the United States through the use of service employees”. It is clear that Congress intended to cover at least contracts for services of direct benefit to the Government, its property, or its civilian or military personnel for whose needs it is necessary or desirable for the Government to make provision for such services. For example, the legislative history makes specific reference to such contracts as those for furnishing food service and laundry and dry cleaning service for personnel at military installations. Furthermore, there is no limitation in the Act regarding the beneficiary of the services, nor is there any indication that only contracts for services of direct benefit to the Government, as distinguished from the general public, are subject to the Act. Therefore, where the principal purpose of the Government contract is to provide services through the use of service employees, the contract is covered by the Act, regardless of the direct beneficiary of the services or the source of the funds from which the contractor is paid for the service, and irrespective of whether the contractor performs the work in its own establishment, on a Government installation, or elsewhere. The fact that the contract requires or permits the contractor to provide the services directly to individual personnel as a concessionaire, rather than through the contracting agency, does not negate coverage by the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Labor, pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act, exempts from the provisions of the Act certain kinds of concession contracts providing services to the general public, as provided herein. Specifically, concession contracts (such as those entered into by the National Park Service) principally for the furnishing of food, lodging, automobile fuel, souvenirs, newspaper stands, and recreational equipment to the general public, as distinguished from the United States Government or its personnel, are exempt. This exemption is necessary and proper in the public interest and is in accord with the remedial purpose of the Act. Where concession contracts, however, include substantial requirements for services other than those stated, those services are not exempt. The exemption provided does not affect a concession contractor's obligation to comply with the labor standards provisions of any other statutes such as the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 327 <I>et seq.</I>), the Davis-Bacon Act (40 U.S.C. 276a <I>et seq.;</I> see part 5 of this title) and the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.134" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.18.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.134   Contracts outside the Act's coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contracts entered into by agencies other than those of the Federal Government or the District of Columbia as described in §§ 4.107-4.108 are not within the purview of the Act. Thus, the Act does not cover service contracts entered into with any agencies of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, or Guam acting in behalf of their respective local governments. Similarly, it does not cover service contracts entered into by agencies of States or local public bodies, not acting as agents for or on behalf of the United States or the District of Columbia, even though Federal financial assistance may be provided for such contracts under Federal law or the terms and conditions specified in Federal law may govern the award and operation of the contract.
</P>
<P>(b) Further, as already noted in §§ 4.111 through 4.113, the Act does not apply to Government contracts which do not have as their principal purpose the furnishing of services, or which call for no services to be furnished within the United States or through the use of service employees as those terms are defined in the Act. Clearly outside the Act's coverage for these reasons are such contracts as those for the purchase of tangible products which the Government needs (e.g. vehicles, office equipment, and supplies), for the logistic support of an air base in a foreign country, or for the services of a lawyer to examine the title to land. Similarly, where the Government contracts for a lease of building space for Government occupancy and the building owner furnishes general janitorial and other building services on an incidental basis through the use of service employees, the leasing of the space rather than the furnishing of the building services is the principal purpose of the contract, and the Act does not apply. Another type of contract which is outside the coverage of the Act because it is not for the principal purpose of furnishing services may be illustrated by a contract for the rental of parking space under which the Government agency is simply given a lease or license to use the contractor's real property. Such a contract is to be distinguished from contracts for the storage of vehicles which are delivered into the possession or custody of the contractor, who will provide the required services including the parking or retrieval of the vehicles.
</P>
<P>(c) There are a number of types of contracts which, while outside the Act's coverage in the usual case, may be subject to its provisions under the conditions and circumstances of a particular procurement, because these may be such as to require a different view of the principal purpose of the contract. Thus, the ordinary contract for the recapping of tires would have as its principal purpose the manufacture and furnishing of rebuilt tires for the Government rather than the furnishing of services through the use of service employees, and thus would be outside the Act's coverage. Similarly, contracts calling for printing, reproduction, and duplicating ordinarily would appear to have as their principal purpose the furnishing in quantity of printed, reproduced or duplicated written materials rather than the furnishing of reproduction services through the use of service employees. However, in a particular case, the terms, conditions, and circumstances of the procurement may be such that the facts would show its purpose to be chiefly the furnishing of services (e.g. repair services, typesetting, photocopying, editing, etc.), and where such services require the use of service employees the contract would be subject to the Act unless excluded therefrom for some other reason. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.135-4.139" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.18.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.135-4.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Determining Amount of Contract</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.140" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.19.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.140   Significance of contract amount.</HEAD>
<P>As set forth in § 4.104 and in the requirements of §§ 4.6-4.7, the obligations of a contractor with respect to labor standards differ in the case of a covered and nonexempt contract, depending on whether the contract is or is not in excess of $2,500. Rules for resolving questions that may arise as to whether a contract is or is not in excess of this figure are set forth in the following sections. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.141" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.19.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.141   General criteria for measuring amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In general, the contract amount is measured by the consideration agreed to be paid, whether in money or other valuable consideration, in return for the obligations assumed under the contract. Thus, even though a contractor, such as a wrecker entering into a contract with the Government to raze a building on a site which will remain vacant, may not be entitled to receive any money from the Government for such work under his contract or may even agree to pay the Government in return for the right to dispose of the salvaged materials, the contract will be deemed one in excess of $2,500 if the value of the property obtained by the contractor, less anything he might pay the Government, is in excess of such amount. In addition, concession contracts are considered to be contracts in excess of $2,500 if the contractor's gross receipts under the contract may exceed $2,500. 
</P>
<P>(b) All bids from the same person on the same invitation for bids will constitute a single offer, and the total award to such person will determine the amount involved for purposes of the Act. Where the procurement is made without formal advertising, in arriving at the aggregate amount involved, there must be included all property and services which would properly be grouped together in a single transaction and which would be included in a single advertisement for bids if the procurement were being effected by formal advertising. Therefore, if an agency procures continuing services through the issuance of monthly purchase orders, the amount of the contract for purposes of application of the Act is not measured by the amount of an individual purchase order. In such cases, if the continuing services were procured through formal advertising, the contract term would typically be for one year, and the monthly purchase orders must be grouped together to determine whether the yearly amount may exceed $2,500. However, a purchase order for services which are not continuing but are performed on a one-time or sporadic basis and which are not performed under a requirements contract or under the terms of a basic ordering agreement or similar agreement need not be equated to a yearly amount. (See § 4.142(b).) In addition, where an invitation is for services in an amount in excess of $2,500 and bidders are permitted to bid on a portion of the services not amounting to more than $2,500, the amounts of the contracts awarded separately to individual and unrelated bidders will be measured by the portions of the services covered by their respective contracts. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where a contract is issued in an amount in excess of $2,500 this amount will govern for purposes of application of the Act even though penalty deductions, deductions for prompt payment, and similar deductions may reduce the amount actually expended by the Government to $2,500 or less. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.142" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.19.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.142   Contracts in an indefinite amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every contract subject to this Act which is indefinite in amount is required to contain the clauses prescribed in § 4.6 for contracts in excess of $2,500, unless the contracting officer has definite knowledge in advance that the contract will not exceed $2,500 in any event. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where contracts or agreements between a Government agency and prospective purveyors of services are negotiated which provide terms and conditions under which services will be furnished through the use of service employees in response to individual purchase orders or calls, if any, which may be issued by the agency during the life of the agreement, these agreements would ordinarily constitute contracts within the intendment of the Act under principles judicially established in <I>United Biscuit Co.</I> v. <I>Wirtz</I>, 17 WH Cases 146 (C.A.D.C.), a case arising under the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act. Such a contract, which may be in the nature of a bilateral option contract or basic ordering agreement and not obligate the Government to order any services or the contractor to furnish any, nevertheless governs any procurement of services that may be made through purchase orders or calls issued under its terms. Since the amount of the contract is indefinite, it is subject to the rule stated in paragraph (a) of this section. The amount of the contract is not determined by the amount of any individual call or purchase order. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Changes in Contract Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.143" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.20.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.143   Effects of changes or extensions of contracts, generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sometimes an existing service contract is modified, amended, or extended in such a manner that the changed contract is considered to be a new contract for purposes of the application of the Act's provisions. The general rule with respect to such contracts is that, whenever changes affecting the labor requirements are made in the terms of the contract, the provisions of the Act and the regulations thereunder will apply to the changed contract in the same manner and to the same extent as they would to a wholly new contract. However, contract modifications or amendments (other than contract extensions) that are unrelated to the labor requirements of a contract will not be deemed to create a new contract for purposes of the Act. In addition, only significant changes related to labor requirements will be considered as creating new contracts. This limitation on the application of the Act has been found to be in accordance with the provisions of section 4(b) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Also, whenever the term of an existing contract is extended, pursuant to an option clause or otherwise, so that the contractor furnishes services over an extended period of time, rather than being granted extra time to fulfill his original commitment, the contract extension is considered to be a new contract for purposes of the application of the Act's provisions. All such “new” contracts as discussed above require the insertion of a new or revised wage determination in the contract as provided in § 4.5. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.144" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.20.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.144   Contract modifications affecting amount.</HEAD>
<P>Where a contract that was originally issued in an amount not in excess of $2,500 is later modified so that its amount may exceed that figure, all the provisions of section 2(a) of the Act, and the regulations thereunder, are applicable from the date of modification to the date of contract completion. In the event of such modification, the contracting officer shall immediately obtain a wage determination from the Department of Labor using the e98 application or directly from WDOL, and insert the required contract clauses and any wage determination issued into the contract. In the event that a contract for services subject to the Act in excess of $2,500 is modified so that it cannot exceed $2,500, compliance with the provisions of section 2(a) of the Act and the contract clauses required thereunder ceases to be an obligation of the contractor when such modification becomes effective.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 50899, Aug. 26, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.145" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.20.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.145   Extended term contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sometimes service contracts are entered into for an extended term exceeding one year; however, their continuation in effect is subject to the appropriation by Congress of funds for each new fiscal year. In such event, for purposes of this Act, a contract shall be deemed entered into upon the contract anniversary date which occurs in each new fiscal year during which the terms of the original contract are made effective by an appropriation for that purpose. In other cases a service contract, entered into for a specified term by a Government agency, may contain a provision such as an option clause under which the agency may unilaterally extend the contract for a period of the same length or other stipulated period. Since the exercise of the option results in the rendition of services for a new or different period not included in the term for which the contractor is obligated to furnish services or for which the Government is obligated to pay under the original contract in the absence of such action to extend it, the contract for the additional period is a wholly new contract with respect to application of the Act's provisions and the regulations thereunder (see § 4.143(b)). 
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to multi-year service contracts which are not subject to annual appropriations (for example, concession contracts which are funded through the concessionaire's sales, certain operations and maintenance contracts which are funded with so-called “no year money” or contracts awarded by instrumentalities of the United States, such as the Federal Reserve Banks, which do not receive appropriated funds), section 4(d) of the Act allows such contracts to be awarded for a period of up to five years on the condition that the multi-year contracts will be amended no less often than once every two years to incorporate any new Service Contract Act wage determination which may be applicable. Accordingly, unless the contracting agency is notified to the contrary (see § 4.4(d)), such contracts are treated as wholly new contracts for purposes of the application of the Act's provisions and regulations thereunder at the end of the second year and again at the end of the fourth year, etc. The two-year period is considered to begin on the date that the contractor commences performance on the contract (i.e., anniversary date) rather than on the date of contract award. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Period of Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.146" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.21.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.146   Contract obligations after award, generally.</HEAD>
<P>A contractor's obligation to observe the provisions of the Act arises on the date the contractor is informed that award of the contract has been made, and not necessarily on the date of formal execution. However, the contractor is required to comply with the provisions of the Act and regulations thereunder only while the employees are performing on the contract, provided the contractor's records make clear the period of such performance. (See also § 4.179.) If employees of the contractor are required by the contract to complete certain preliminary training or testing prior to the commencement of the contract services, or if there is a phase-in period which allows the new contractor's employees to familiarize themselves with the contract work so as to provide a smooth transition between contractors, the time spent by employees undertaking such training or phase-in work is considered to be hours worked on the contract and must be compensated for even though the principal contract services may not commence until a later date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.147-4.149" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.21.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.147-4.149   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employees Covered by the Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.150" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.150   Employee coverage, generally.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in section 2(b), makes it clear that its provisions apply generally to all service employees engaged in performing work on a covered contract entered into by the contractor with the Federal Government, regardless of whether they are the contractor's employees or those of any subcontractor under such contract. All service employees who, on or after the date of award, are engaged in working on or in connection with the contract, either in performing the specific services called for by its terms or in performing other duties necessary to the performance of the contract, are thus subject to the Act unless a specific exemption (see §§ 4.115 <I>et seq.</I>) is applicable. All such employees must be paid wages at a rate not less than the minimum wage specified under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 206(a)(1)), as amended. Payment of a higher minimum monetary wage and the furnishing of fringe benefits may be required under the contract, pursuant to the provisions of sections 2 (a)(1), (2), and 4(c) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.151" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.151   Employees covered by provisions of section 2(a).</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of sections 2(a) and 4(c) of the Act prescribe labor standards requirements applicable, except as otherwise specifically provided, to every contract in excess of $2,500 which is entered into by the United States or the District of Columbia for the principal purpose of furnishing services in the United States through the use of service employees. These provisions apply to all service employees engaged in the performance of such a contract or any subcontract thereunder. The Act, in section 8(b) defines the term <I>service employee.</I> The general scope of the definition is considered in § 4.113(b) of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.152" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.152   Employees subject to prevailing compensation provisions of sections 2(a)(1) and (2) and 4(c).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under sections 2(a)(1) and (2) and 4(c) of the Act, minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits to be paid or furnished the various classes of service employees performing such contract work are determined by the Secretary of Labor or his authorized representative in accordance with prevailing rates and fringe benefits for such employees in the locality or in accordance with the rates contained in a predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement, as appropriate, and are required to be specified in such contracts and subcontracts thereunder. All service employees of the classes who actually perform the specific services called for by the contract (e.g., janitors performing on a contract for office cleaning; stenographers performing on a contract for stenographic reporting) are covered by the provisions specifying such minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits for such classes of service employees and must be paid not less than the applicable rate established for the classification(s) of work performed. Pursuant to section 4.6(b)(2), conforming procedures are required to be observed for all such classes of service employees not listed in the wage determination incorporated in the contract.
</P>
<P>(b) The duties which an employee actually performs govern the classification and the rate of pay to which the employee is entitled under the applicable wage determination. Some job classifications listed in an applicable wage determination are descriptive by title and have commonly understood meanings (e.g., janitors, security guards, pilots, etc.). In such situations, detailed position descriptions may not be included in the wage determination. However, in cases where additional descriptive information is needed to inform users of the scope of duties included in the classification, the wage determination will generally contain detailed position descriptions based on the data source relied upon for the issuance of the wage determination.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Some wage determinations will list a series of classes within a job classification family, e.g., Computer Operators, Class A, B, and C, or Electronic Technicians, Class A, B, and C, or Clerk Typist, Class A and B. Generally, the lowest level listed for a job classification family is considered to be the entry level and establishment of a lower level through conformance (§ 4.6(b)(2)) is not permissible. Further, trainee classifications cannot be conformed. Helpers in skilled maintenance trades (e.g., electricians, machinists, automobile mechanics, etc.) whose duties constitute, in fact, separate and distinct jobs, may also be used if listed on the wage determination, but cannot be conformed. Conformance may not be used to artificially split or subdivide classifications listed in the wage determination. However, conforming procedures may be used if the work which an employee performs under the contract is not within the scope of any classification listed on the wage determination, regardless of job title.
</P>
<P>(2) Subminimum rates for apprentices, student learners, and handicapped workers are permissible under the conditions discussed in § 4.6 (o) and (p). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.153" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.153   Inapplicability of prevailing compensation provisions to some employees.</HEAD>
<P>There may be employees used by a contractor or subcontractor in performing a service contract in excess of $2,500 which is subject to the Act, whose services, although necessary to the performance of the contract, are not subject to minimum monetary wage or fringe benefit provisions contained in the contract pursuant to section 2(a) because such employees are not directly engaged in performing the specified contract services. An example might be a laundry contractor's billing clerk performing billing work with respect to the items laundered. In all such situations, the employees who are necessary to the performance of the contract but not directly engaged in the performance of the specified contract services, are nevertheless subject to the minimum wage provision of section 2(b) (see § 4.150) requiring payment of not less than the minimum wage specified under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act to all employees working on a covered contract, unless specifically exempt. However, in situations where minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits for a particular class or classes of service employees actually performing the services called for by the contract have not been specified in the contract because the wage and fringe benefit determination applicable to the contract has been made only for other classes of service employees who will perform the contract work, the employer will be required to pay the monetary wages and fringe benefits which may be specified for such classes of employees pursuant to the conformance procedures provided in § 4.6(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.154" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.154   Employees covered by sections 2(a)(3) and (4).</HEAD>
<P>The safety and health standards of section 2(a)(3) and the notice requirements of section 2(a)(4) of the Act (see § 4.183) are applicable, in the absence of a specific exemption, to every service employee engaged by a contractor or subcontractor to furnish services under a contract subject to section 2(a) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.155" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.155   Employee coverage does not depend on form of employment contract.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in section 8(b), makes it plain that the coverage of service employees depends on whether their work for the contractor or subcontractor on a covered contract is that of a service employee as defined in section 8(b) and not on any contractual relationship that may be alleged to exist between the contractor or subcontractor and such persons. In other words, any person, except those discussed in § 4.156 below, who performs work called for by a contract or that portion of a contract subject to the Act is, per se, a service employee. Thus, for example, a person's status as an “owner-operator” or an “independent contractor” is immaterial in determining coverage under the Act and all such persons performing the work of service employees must be compensated in accordance with the Act's requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.156" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.156   Employees in bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>service employee</I> as defined in section 8(b) of the Act does not include persons employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity as those terms are defined in 29 CFR part 541. Employees within the definition of service employee who are employed in an executive, administrative, or professional capacity are not excluded from coverage, however, even though they are highly paid, if they fail to meet the tests set forth in 29 CFR part 541. Thus, such employees as laboratory technicians, draftsmen, and air ambulance pilots, though they require a high level of skill to perform their duties and may meet the salary requirements of the regulations in part 541 of this title, are ordinarily covered by the Act's provisions because they do not typically meet the other requirements of those regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.157-4.158" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.3.22.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.157-4.158   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Compensation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.159" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.159   General minimum wage.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in section 2(b)(1), provides generally that no contractor or subcontractor under any Federal contract subject to the Act shall pay any employee engaged in performing work on such a contract less than the minimum wage specified under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. Section 2(a)(1) provides that the minimum monetary wage specified in any such contract exceeding $2,500 shall in no case be lower than this Fair Labor Standards Act minimum wage. Section 2(b)(1) is a statutory provision which applies to the contractor or subcontractor without regard to whether it is incorporated in the contract; however, §§ 4.6 and 4.7 provide for inclusion of its requirements in covered contracts and subcontracts. Because this statutory requirement specifies no fixed monetary wage rate and refers only to the minimum wage specified under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, and because its application does not depend on provisions of the contract, any increase in such Fair Labor Standards Act minimum wage during the life of the contract is, on its effective date, also effective to increase the minimum wage payable under section 2(b)(1) to employees engaged in performing work on the contract. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 76 FR 18854, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.160" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.160   Effect of section 6(e) of the Fair Labor Standards Act.</HEAD>
<P>Contractors and subcontractors performing work on contracts subject to the Service Contract Act are required to pay all employees, including those employees who are not performing work on or in connection with such contracts, not less than the general minimum wage standard provided in section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended (Pub. L. 95-151). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.161" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.161   Minimum monetary wages under contracts exceeding $2,500.</HEAD>
<P>The standards established pursuant to the Act for minimum monetary wages to be paid by contractors and subcontractors under service contracts in excess of $2,500 to service employees engaged in performance of the contract or subcontract are required to be specified in the contract and in all subcontracts (see § 4.6). Pursuant to the statutory scheme provided by sections 2(a)(1) and 4(c) of the Act, every covered contract (and any bid specification therefor) which is in excess of $2,500 shall contain a provision specifying the minimum monetary wages to be paid the various classes of service employees engaged in the performance of the contract or any subcontract thereunder, as determined by the Secretary or his authorized representative in accordance with prevailing rates for such employees in the locality, or, where a collective bargaining agreement applied to the employees of a predecessor contractor in the same locality, in accordance with the rates for such employees provided for in such agreement, including prospective wage increases as provided in such agreement as a result of arm's-length negotiations. In no case may such wages be lower than the minimum wage specified under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. (For a detailed discussion of the application of section 4(c) of the Act, see § 4.163.) If some or all of the determined wages in a contract fall below the level of the Fair Labor Standards Act minimum by reason of a change in that rate by amendment of the law, these rates become obsolete and the employer is obligated under section 2(b)(1) of the Service Contract Act to pay the minimum wage rate established by the amendment as of the date it becomes effective. A change in the Fair Labor Standards Act minimum by operation of law would also have the same effect on advertised specifications or negotiations for covered service contracts, i.e., it would make ineffective and would supplant any lower rate or rates included in such specifications or negotiations whether or not determined. However, unless affected by such a change in the Fair Labor Standards Act minimum wage, by contract changes necessitating the insertion of new wage provisions (see §§ 4.5(c) and 4.143-4.145) or by the requirements of section 4(c) of the Act (see § 4.163), the minimum monetary wage rate specified in the contract for each of the classes of service employees for which wage determinations have been made under section 2(a)(1) will continue to apply throughout the period of contract performance. No change in the obligation of the contractor or subcontractor with respect to minimum monetary wages will result from the mere fact that higher or lower wage rates may be determined to be prevailing for such employees in the locality after the award and before completion of the contract. Such wage determinations are effective for contracts not yet awarded, as provided in § 4.5(a). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.162" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.162   Fringe benefits under contracts exceeding $2,500.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to the statutory scheme provided by sections 2(a)(2) and 4(c) of the Act, every covered contract in excess of $2,500 shall contain a provision specifying the fringe benefits to be furnished the various classes of service employees, engaged in the performance of the contract or any subcontract thereunder, as determined by the Secretary or his authorized representative to be prevailing for such employees in the locality or, where a collective bargaining agreement applied to the employees of a predecessor contractor in the same locality, the various classes of service employees engaged in the performance of the contract or any subcontract must be provided the fringe benefits, including prospective or accrued fringe benefit increases, provided for in such agreement as a result of arm's-length negotiations. (For a detailed discussion of section 4(c) of the Act, see § 4.163.) As provided by section 2(a)(2) of the Act, fringe benefits include medical or hospital care, pensions on retirement or death, compensation for injuries or illness resulting from occupational activity, or insurance to provide any of the foregoing, unemployment benefits, life insurance, disability and sickness insurance, accident insurance, vacation and holiday pay, costs of apprenticeship or other similar programs and other bona fide fringe benefits not otherwise required by Federal, State, or local law to be provided by the contractor or subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(b) Under this provision, the fringe benefits, if any, which the contractor or subcontractor is required to furnish the service employees engaged in the performance of the contract are specified in the contract documents (see § 4.6). How the contractor may satisfy this obligation is dealt with in §§ 4.170 through 4.177 of this part. A change in the fringe benefits required by the contract provision will not result from the mere fact that other or additional fringe benefits are determined to be prevailing for such employees in the locality at a time subsequent to the award but before completion of the contract. Such fringe benefit determinations are effective for contracts not yet awarded (see § 4.5(a)), or in the event that changes in an existing contract requiring their insertion for prospective application have occurred (see §§ 4.143 through 4.145). However, none of the provisions of this paragraph may be construed as altering a successor contractor's obligations under section 4(c) of the Act. (See § 4.163.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.163" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.163   Section 4(c) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 4(c) of the Act provides that no “contractor or subcontractor under a contract, which succeeds a contract subject to this Act and under which substantially the same services are furnished, shall pay any service employee under such contract less than the wages and fringe benefits, including accrued wages and fringe benefits, and any prospective increases in wages and fringe benefits provided for in a collective-bargaining agreement as a result of arm's-length negotiations, to which such service employees would have been entitled if they were employed under the predecessor contract: <I>Provided,</I> That in any of the foregoing circumstances such obligations shall not apply if the Secretary finds after a hearing in accordance with regulations adopted by the Secretary that such wages and fringe benefits are substantially at variance with those which prevail for services of a character similar in the locality.” Under this provision, the successor contractor's sole obligation is to insure that all service employees are paid no less than the wages and fringe benefits to which such employees would have been entitled if employed under the predecessor's collective bargaining agreement (i.e., irrespective of whether the successor's employees were or were not employed by the predecessor contractor). The obligation of the successor contractor is limited to the wage and fringe benefit requirements of the predecessor's collective bargaining agreement and does not extend to other items such as seniority, grievance procedures, work rules, overtime, etc. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Section 4(c) is self-executing.</I> Under section 4(c), a successor contractor in the same locality as the predecessor contractor is statutorily obligated to pay no less than the wage rates and fringe benefits which were contained in the predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement. This is a direct statutory obligation and requirement placed on the successor contractor by section 4(c) and is not contingent or dependent upon the issuance or incorporation in the contract of a wage determination based on the predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement. Pursuant to section 4(b) of the Act, a variation has been granted which limits the self-executing application of section 4(c) in the circumstances and under the conditions described in § 4.1b(b) of this part. It must be emphasized, however, that the variation in § 4.1b(b) is applicable only if the contracting officer has given both the incumbent (predecessor) contractor and the employees' collective bargaining representative notification at least 30 days in advance of any estimated procurement date. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Variance hearings.</I> The regulations and procedures for hearings pursuant to section 4(c) of the Act are contained in § 4.10 of subpart A and parts 6 and 8 of this title. If, as the result of such hearing, some or all of the wage rate and/or fringe benefit provisions of a predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement are found to be substantially at variance with the wage rates and/or fringe benefits prevailing in the locality, the Administrator will cause a new wage determination to be issued in accordance with the decision of the Administrative Law Judge or the Administrative Review Board, as appropriate. Since “it was the clear intent of Congress that any revised wage determinations resulting from a section 4(c) proceeding were to have validity with respect to the procurement involved” (53 Comp. Gen. 401, 402, 1973), the solicitation, or the contract if already awarded, must be amended to incorporate the newly issued wage determination. Such new wage determination shall be made applicable to the contract as of the date of the Administrative Law Judge's decision or, where the decision is reviewed by the Administrative Review Board, the date of that decision. The legislative history of the 1972 Amendments makes clear that the collectively bargained “wages and fringe benefits shall continue to be honored * * * unless and until the Secretary finds, after a hearing, that such wages and fringe benefits are substantially at variance with those prevailing in the locality for like services” (S. Rept. 92-1131, 92nd Cong., 2d Sess. 5). Thus, variance decisions do not have application retroactive to the commencement of the contract. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sections 2(a) and 4(c) must be read in conjunction.</I> The Senate report accompanying the bill which amended the Act in 1972 states that “Sections 2(a)(1), 2(a)(2), and 4(c) must be read in harmony to reflect the statutory scheme.” (S. Rept. 92-1131, 92nd Cong., 2nd Sess. 4.) Therefore, since section 4(c) refers only to the predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement, the reference to collective bargaining agreements in sections 2(a)(1) and 2(a)(2) can only be read to mean a predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement. The fact that a successor contractor may have its own collective bargaining agreement does not negate the clear mandate of the statute that the wages and fringe benefits called for by the predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement shall be the minimum payable under a new (successor) contract nor does it negate the application of a prevailing wage determination issued pursuant to section 2(a) where there was no applicable predecessor collective bargaining agreement. 48 Comp. Gen. 22, 23-24 (1968). In addition, because section 2(a) only applies to covered contracts in excess of $2,500, the requirements of section 4(c) likewise apply only to successor contracts which may be in excess of $2,500. However, if the successor contract is in excess of $2,500, section 4(c) applies regardless of the amount of the predecessor contract. (See §§ 4.141-4.142 for determining contract amount.) 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>The operative words of section 4(c) refer to “contract” not “contractor”.</I> Section 4(c) begins with the language, “[n]o contractor or subcontractor under a <I>contract, which succeeds a contract</I> subject to this Act” (emphasis supplied). Thus, the statute is applicable by its terms to a successor contract without regard to whether the successor contractor was also the predecessor contractor. A contractor may become its own successor because it was the successful bidder on a recompetition of an existing contract, or because the contracting agency exercises an option or otherwise extends the term of the existing contract, etc. (See §§ 4.143-4.145.) Further, since sections 2(a) and 4(c) must be read in harmony to reflect the statutory scheme, it is clear that the provisions of section 4(c) apply whenever the Act or the regulations require that a new wage determination be incorporated into the contract (53 Comp. Gen. 401, 404-6 (1973)). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Collective bargaining agreement must be applicable to work performed on the predecessor contract.</I> Section 4(c) will be operative only if the employees who worked on the predecessor contract were actually paid in accordance with the wage and fringe benefit provisions of a predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement. Thus, for example, section 4(c) would not apply if the predecessor contractor entered into a collective bargaining agreement for the first time, which did not become effective until after the expiration of the predecessor contract. Likewise, the requirements of section 4(c) would not apply if the predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement applied only to other employees of the firm and not to the employees working on the contract. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contract reconfigurations.</I> As a result of changing priorities, mission requirements, or other considerations, contracting agencies may decide to restructure their support contracts. Thus, specific contract requirements from one contract may be broken out and placed in a new contract or combined with requirements from other contracts into a consolidated contract. The protections afforded service employees under section 4(c) are not lost or negated because of such contract reconfigurations, and the predecessor contractor's collectively bargained rates follow identifiable contract work requirements into new or consolidated contracts, provided that the new or consolidated contract is for services which were furnished in the same locality under a predecessor contract. See § 4.163(i). However, where there is more than one predecessor contract to the new or consolidated contract, and where the predecessor contracts involve the same or similar function(s) of work, using substantially the same job classifications, the predecessor contract which covers the greater portion of the work in such function(s) shall be deemed to be the predecessor contract for purposes of section 4(c), and the collectively bargained wages and fringe benefits under that contract, if any, shall be applicable to such function(s). This limitation on the application of section 4(c) is necessary and proper in the public interest and is in accord with the remedial purpose of the Act to protect prevailing labor standards.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Interruption of contract services.</I> Other than the requirement that substantially the same services be furnished, the requirement for arm's-length negotiations and the provision for variance hearings, the Act does not impose any other restrictions on the application of section 4(c). Thus, the application of section 4(c) is not negated because the contracting authority may change and the successor contract is awarded by a different contracting agency. Also, there is no requirement that the successor contract commence immediately after the completion or termination of the predecessor contract, and an interruption of contract services does not negate the application of section 4(c). Contract services may be interrupted because the Government facility is temporarily closed for renovation, or because a predecessor defaulted on the contract or because a bid protest has halted a contract award requiring the Government to perform the services with its own employees. In all such cases, the requirements of section 4(c) would apply to any successor contract which may be awarded after the temporary interruption or hiatus. The basic principle in all of the preceding examples is that successorship provisions of section 4(c) apply to the full term successor contract. Therefore, temporary interim contracts, which allow a contracting agency sufficient time to solicit bids for a full term contract, also do not negate the application of section 4(c) to a full term successor contract. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Place of performance.</I> The successorship requirements of section 4(c) apply to all contracts for substantially the same services as were furnished under a predecessor contract in the same locality. As stated in § 4.4(a)(2), a wage determination incorporated in the contract shall be applicable thereto regardless of whether the successful contractor subsequently changes the place(s) of contract performance. Similarly, the application of section 4(c) (and any wage determination issued pursuant to section 4(c) and included in the contract) is not negated by the fact that a successor prime contractor subsequently changes the place(s) of contract performance or subcontracts any part of the contract work to a firm which performs the work in a different locality.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Interpretation of wage and fringe benefit provisions of wage determinations issued pursuant to sections 2(a) and 4(c).</I> Wage determinations which are issued for successor contracts subject to section 4(c) are intended to accurately reflect the rates and fringe benefits set forth in the predecessor's collective bargaining agreement. However, failure to include in the wage determination any job classification, wage rate, or fringe benefit encompassed in the collective bargaining agreement does not relieve the successor contractor of the statutory requirement to comply at a minimum with the terms of the collective bargaining agreement insofar as wages and fringe benefits are concerned. Since the successor's obligations are governed by the terms of the collective bargaining agreement, any interpretation of the wage and fringe benefit provisions of the collective bargaining agreement where its provisions are unclear must be based on the intent of the parties to the collective bargaining agreement, provided that such interpretation is not violative of law. Therefore, some of the principles discussed in §§ 4.170 through 4.177 regarding specific interpretations of the fringe benefit provisions of prevailing wage determinations may not be applicable to wage determinations issued pursuant to section 4(c). As provided in section 2(a)(2), a contractor may satisfy its fringe benefit obligations under any wage determination “by furnishing any equivalent combinations of fringe benefits or by making equivalent or differential payments in cash” in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in § 4.177 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(k) No provision of this section shall be construed as permitting a successor contractor to pay its employees less than the wages and fringe benefits to which such employees would have been entitled under the predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement. Thus, some of the principles discussed in § 4.167 may not be applicable in section 4(c) successorship situations. For example, unless the predecessor contractor's collective bargaining agreement allowed the deduction from employees' wages of the reasonable cost or fair value for providing board, lodging, or other facilities, the successor may not include such costs as part of the applicable minimum wage specified in the wage determination. Likewise, unless the predecessor contractor's agreement allowed a tip credit (§ 4.6(q)), the successor contractor may not take a tip credit toward satisfying the minimum wage requirements under sections 2(a)(1) and 4(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.164" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.164   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Compliance with Compensation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.165" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.165   Wage payments and fringe benefits—in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Monetary wages specified under the Act shall be paid to the employees to whom they are due promptly and in no event later than one pay period following the end of the pay period in which they are earned. No deduction, rebate, or refund is permitted, except as hereinafter stated. The same rules apply to cash payments authorized to be paid with the statutory monetary wages as equivalents of determined fringe benefits (see § 4.177). 
</P>
<P>(2) The Act makes no distinction, with respect to its compensation provisions, between temporary, part-time, and full-time employees, and the wage and fringe benefit determinations apply, in the absence of an express limitation, equally to all such service employees engaged in work subject to the Act's provisions. (See § 4.176 regarding fringe benefit payments to temporary and part-time employees.) 
</P>
<P>(b) The Act does not prescribe the length of the pay period. However, for purposes of administration of the Act, and to conform with practices required under other statutes that may be applicable to the employment, wages and hours worked must be calculated on the basis of a fixed and regularly recurring workweek of seven consecutive 24-hour workday periods, and the records must be kept on this basis. It is appropriate to use this workweek for the pay period. A bi-weekly or semimonthly, pay period may, however, be used if advance notification is given to the affected employees. A pay period longer than semimonthly is not recognized as appropriate for service employees and wage payments at greater intervals will not be considered as constituting proper payments in compliance with the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) The prevailing rate established by a wage determination under the Act is a minimum rate. A contractor is not precluded from paying wage rates in excess of those determined to be prevailing in the particular locality. Nor does the Act affect or require the changing of any provisions of union contracts specifying higher monetary wages or fringe benefits than those contained in an applicable determination. However, if an applicable wage determination contains a wage or fringe benefit provision for a class of service employees which is higher than that specified in an existing union agreement, the determination's provision must be observed for any work performed on a contract subject to that determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.166" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.166   Wage payments—unit of payment.</HEAD>
<P>The standard by which monetary wage payments are measured under the Act is the wage rate per hour. An hourly wage rate is not, however, the only unit for payment of wages that may be used for employees subject to the Act. Employees may be paid on a daily, weekly, or other time basis, or by piece or task rates, so long as the measure of work and compensation used, when translated or reduced by computation to an hourly basis each workweek, will provide a rate per hour that will fulfill the statutory requirement. Whatever system of payment is used, however, must ensure that each hour of work in performance of the contract is compensated at not less than the required minimum rate. Failure to pay for certain hours at the required rate cannot be transformed into compliance with the Act by reallocating portions of payments made for other hours which are in excess of the specified minimum. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.167" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.167   Wage payments—medium of payment.</HEAD>
<P>The wage payment requirements under the Act for monetary wages specified under its provisions will be satisfied by the timely payment of such wages to the employee either in cash or negotiable instrument payable at par. Such payment must be made finally and unconditionally and “free and clear.” Scrip, tokens, credit cards, “dope checks”, coupons, salvage material, and similar devices which permit the employer to retain and prevent the employee from acquiring control of money due for the work until some time after the pay day for the period in which it was earned, are not proper mediums of payment under the Act. If, as is permissible, they are used as a convenient device for measuring earnings or allowable deductions during a single pay period, the employee cannot be charged with the loss or destruction of any of them and the employer may not, because the employee has not actually redeemed them, credit itself with any which remain outstanding on the pay day in determining whether it has met the requirements of the Act. The employer may not include the cost of fringe benefits or equivalents furnished as required under section 2(a)(2) of the Act, as a credit toward the monetary wages it is required to pay under section 2(a)(1) or 2(b) of the Act (see § 4.170). However, the employer may generally include, as a part of the applicable minimum wage which it is required to pay under the Act, the reasonable cost or fair value, as determined by the Administrator, of furnishing an employee with “board, lodging, or other facilities,” as defined in part 531 of this title, in situations where such facilities are customarily furnished to employees, for the convenience of the employees, not primarily for the benefit of the employer, and the employees' acceptance of them is voluntary and uncoerced. (See also § 4.163(k).) The determination of reasonable cost or fair value will be in accordance with the Administrator's regulations under the Fair Labor Standards Act, contained in such part 531 of this title. While employment on contracts subject to the Act would not ordinarily involve situations in which service employees would receive tips from third persons, the treatment of tips for wage purposes in the situations where this may occur should be understood. For purposes of this Act, tips may generally be included in wages in accordance with the regulations under the Fair Labor Standards Act, contained in part 531. (See also § 4.6(q) and § 4.163(k).) The general rule under that Act provides, when determining the wage an employer is required to pay a tipped employee, the maximum allowable hourly tip credit is limited to the difference between $2.13 and the applicable minimum wage specified in section 6(a)(1) of that Act. (<I>See</I> § 4.163(k) for exceptions in section 4(c) situations.) In no event shall the sum credited as tips exceed the value of tips actually received by the employee. The tip credit is not available to an employer unless the employer has informed the employee of the tip credit provisions and all tips received by the employee have been retained by the employee (other than as part of a valid tip pooling arrangement among employees who customarily and regularly receive tips; <I>see</I> section 3(m) of the Fair Labor Standards Act).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983; 48 FR 50529, Nov. 2, 1983, as amended at 76 FR 18854, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.168" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.168   Wage payments—deductions from wages paid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The wage requirements of the Act will not be met where unauthorized deductions, rebates, or refunds reduce the wage payment made to the employee below the minimum amounts required under the provisions of the Act and the regulations thereunder, or where the employee fails to receive such amounts free and clear because he “kicks back” directly or indirectly to the employer or to another person for the employer's benefit the whole or part of the wage delivered to him. Authorized deductions are limited to those required by law, such as taxes payable by employees required to be withheld by the employer and amounts due employees which the employer is required by court order to pay to another; deductions allowable for the reasonable cost or fair value of board, lodging, and facilities furnished as set forth in § 4.167; and deductions of amounts which are authorized to be paid to third persons for the employee's account and benefit pursuant to his voluntary assignment or order or a collective bargaining agreement with bona fide representatives of employees which is applicable to the employer. Deductions for amounts paid to third persons on the employee's account which are not so authorized or are contrary to law or from which the contractor, subcontractor or any affiliated person derives any payment, rebate, commission, profit, or benefit directly or indirectly, may not be made if they cut into the wage required to be paid under the Act. The principles applied in determining the permissibility of deductions for payments made to third persons are explained in more detail in §§ 531.38-531.40 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cost of maintaining and furnishing uniforms.</I> (1) If the employees are required to wear uniforms either by the employer, the nature of the job, or the Government contract, then the cost of furnishing and maintaining the uniforms is deemed to be a business expense of the employer and such cost may not be borne by the employees to the extent that to do so would reduce the employees' compensation below that required by the Act. Since it may be administratively difficult and burdensome for employers to determine the actual cost incurred by all employees for maintaining their own uniforms, payment in accordance with the following standards is considered sufficient for the contractor to satisfy its wage obligations under the Act:
</P>
<P>(i) The contractor furnishes all employees with an adequate number of uniforms without cost to the employees or reimburses employees for the actual cost of the uniforms. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where uniform cleaning and maintenance is made the responsibility of the employee, the contractor reimburses all employees for such cleaning and maintenance at the rate of $3.35 a week (or 67 cents a day). Since employees are generally required to wear a clean uniform each day regardless of the number of hours the employee may work that day, the preceding weekly amount generally may be reduced to the stated daily equivalent but not to an hourly equivalent. A contractor may reimburse employees at a different rate if the contractor furnishes affirmative proof as to the actual cost to the employees of maintaining their uniforms or if a different rate is provided for in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement covering the employees working on the contract.
</P>
<P>(2) However, there generally is no requirement that employees be reimbursed for uniform maintenance costs in those instances where the uniforms furnished are made of “wash and wear” materials which may be routinely washed and dried with other personal garments, and do not generally require daily washing, dry cleaning, commercial laundering, or any other special treatment because of heavy soiling in work usage or in order to meet the cleanliness or appearance standards set by the terms of the Government contract, by the contractor, by law, or by the nature of the work. This limitation does not apply where a different provision has been set forth on the applicable wage determination. In the case of wage determinations issued under section 4(c) of the Act for successor contracts, the amount established by the parties to the predecessor collective bargaining agreement is deemed to be the cost of laundering wash and wear uniforms.
</P>
<P>(c) Stipends, allowances or other payments made directly to an employee by a party other than the employer (such as a stipend for training paid by the Veterans Administration) are not part of “wages” and the employer may not claim credit for such payments toward its monetary obligations under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.169" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.169   Wage payments—work subject to different rates.</HEAD>
<P>If an employee during a workweek works in different capacities in the performance of the contract and two or more rates of compensation under section 2 of the Act are applicable to the classes of work which he or she performs, the employee must be paid the highest of such rates for all hours worked in the workweek unless it appears from the employer's records or other affirmative proof which of such hours were included in the periods spent in each class of work. The rule is the same where such an employee is employed for a portion of the workweek in work not subject to the Act, for which compensation at a lower rate would be proper if the employer by his records or other affirmative proof, segregated the worktime thus spent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.170" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.170   Furnishing fringe benefits or equivalents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Fringe benefits required under the Act shall be furnished, separate from and in addition to the specified monetary wages, by the contractor or subcontractor to the employees engaged in performance of the contract, as specified in the determination of the Secretary or his authorized representative and prescribed in the contract documents. Section 2(a)(2) of the Act provides that the obligation to furnish the specified benefits “may be discharged by furnishing any equivalent combinations of fringe benefits or by making equivalent or differential payments in cash under rules and regulations established by the Secretary.” The governing rules and regulations for furnishing such equivalents are set forth in § 4.177 of this subpart. An employer cannot offset an amount of monetary wages paid in excess of the wages required under the determination in order to satisfy his fringe benefit obligations under the Act, and must keep appropriate records separately showing amounts paid for wages and amounts paid for fringe benefits. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Meeting the requirement, in general.</I> The various fringe benefits listed in the Act and in § 4.162(a) are illustrative of those which may be found to be prevailing for service employees in a particular locality. The benefits which an employer will be required to furnish employees performing on a particular contract will be specified in the contract documents. A contractor may dispose of certain of the fringe benefit obligations which may be required by an applicable fringe benefit determination, such as pension, retirement, or health insurance, by irrevocably paying the specified contributions for fringe benefits to an independent trustee or other third person pursuant to an existing “bona fide” fund, plan, or program on behalf of employees engaged in work subject to the Act's provisions. Where such a plan or fund does not exist, a contractor must discharge his obligation relating to fringe benefits by furnishing either an equivalent combination of “bona fide” fringe benefits or by making equivalent payments in cash to the employee, in accordance with the regulations in § 4.177.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.171" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.171   “Bona fide” fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be considered a “bona fide” fringe benefit for purposes of the Act, a fringe benefit plan, fund, or program must constitute a legally enforceable obligation which meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of a plan, fund, or program adopted by the contractor, or by contract as a result of collective bargaining, must be specified in writing, and must be communicated in writing to the affected employees. Contributions must be made pursuant to the terms of such plan, fund, or program. The plan may be either contractor-financed or a joint contractor-employee contributory plan. For example, employer contributions to Individual Retirement Accounts (IRAs) approved by IRS are permissible. However, any contributions made by employees must be voluntary, and if such contributions are made through payroll deductions, such deductions must be made in accordance with § 4.168. No contribution toward fringe benefits made by the employees themselves, or fringe benefits provided from monies deducted from the employee's wages may be included or used by an employer in satisfying any part of any fringe benefit obligation under the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) The primary purpose of the plan must be to provide systematically for the payment of benefits to employees on account of death, disability, advanced age, retirement, illness, medical expenses, hospitalization, supplemental unemployment benefits, and the like.
</P>
<P>(3) The plan must contain a definite formula for determining the amount to be contributed by the contractor and a definite formula for determining the benefits for each of the employees participating in the plan.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided in paragraph (b), the contractor's contributions must be paid irrevocably to a trustee or third person pursuant to an insurance agreement, trust or other funded arrangement. The trustee must assume the usual fiduciary responsibilities imposed upon trustees by applicable law. The trust or fund must be set up in such a way that the contractor will not be able to recapture any of the contributions paid in nor in any way divert the funds to its own use or benefit. 
</P>
<P>(5) Benefit plans or trusts of the types listed in 26 U.S.C. 401(a) which are disapproved by the Internal Revenue Service as not satisfying the requirements of section 401(a) of the Internal Revenue Code or which do not meet the requirements of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, 29 U.S.C. 1001, <I>et seq.</I> and regulations thereunder, are not deemed to be “bona fide” plans for purposes of the Service Contract Act.
</P>
<P>(6) It should also be noted that such plans must meet certain other criteria as set forth in § 778.215 of 29 CFR part 778 in order for any contributions to be excluded from computation of the regular rate of pay for overtime purposes under the Fair Labor Standards Act (§§ 4.180-4.182).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Unfunded self-insured fringe benefit plans (other than fringe benefits such as vacations and holidays which by their nature are normally unfunded) under which contractors allegedly make “out of pocket” payments to provide benefits as expenses may arise, rather than making irrevocable contributions to a trust or other funded arrangement as required under § 4.171(a)(4), are not normally considered “bona fide” plans or equivalent benefits for purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor may request approval by the Administrator of an unfunded self-insured plan in order to allow credit for payments under the plan to meet the fringe benefit requirements of the Act. In considering whether such a plan is bona fide, the Administrator will consider such factors as whether it could be reasonably anticipated to provide the prescribed benefits, whether it represents a legally enforceable commitment to provide such benefits, whether it is carried out under a financially responsible program, and whether the plan has been communicated to the employees in writing. The Administrator in his/her discretion may direct that assets be set aside and preserved in an escrow account or that other protections be afforded to meet the plan's future obligation.
</P>
<P>(c) No benefit required by any other Federal law or by any State or local law, such as unemployment compensation, workers' compensation, or social security, is a fringe benefit for purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) The furnishing to an employee of board, lodging, or other facilities under the circumstances described in § 4.167, the cost or value of which is creditable toward the monetary wages specified under the Act, may not be used to offset any fringe benefit obligations, as such items and facilities are not fringe benefits or equivalent benefits for purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) The furnishing of facilities which are primarily for the benefit or convenience of the contractor or the cost of which is properly a business expense of the contractor is not the furnishing of a “bona fide” fringe benefit or equivalent benefit or the payment of wages. This would be true of such items, for example, as relocation expenses, travel and transportation expenses incident to employment, incentive or suggestion awards, and recruitment bonuses, as well as tools and other materials and services incidental to the employer's performance of the contract and the carrying on of his business, and the cost of furnishing, laundering, and maintaining uniforms and/or related apparel or equipment where employees are required by the contractor, by the contractor's Government contract, by law, or by the nature of the work to wear such items. See also § 4.168.
</P>
<P>(f) Contributions by contractors for such items as social functions or parties for employees, flowers, cards, or gifts on employee birthdays, anniversaries, etc. (sunshine funds), employee rest or recreation rooms, paid coffee breaks, magazine subscriptions, and professional association or club dues, may not be used to offset any wages or fringe benefits specified in the contract, as such items are not “bona fide” wages or fringe benefits or equivalent benefits for purposes of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.172" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.172   Meeting requirements for particular fringe benefits—in general.</HEAD>
<P>Where a fringe benefit determination specifies the amount of the employer's contribution to provide the benefit, the amount specified is the actual minimum cash amount that must be provided by the employer for the employee. No deduction from the specified amount may be made to cover any administrative costs which may be incurred by the contractor in providing the benefits, as such costs are properly a business expense of the employer. If prevailing fringe benefits for insurance or retirement are determined in a stated amount, and the employer provides such benefits through contribution in a lesser amount, he will be required to furnish the employee with the difference between the amount stated in the determination and the actual cost of the benefits which he provides. Unless otherwise specified in the particular wage determination, such as one reflecting collectively bargained fringe benefit requirements, issued pursuant to section 4(c) of the Act, every employee performing on a covered contract must be furnished the fringe benefits required by that determination for all hours spent working on that contract up to a maximum of 40 hours per week and 2,080 (i.e., 52 weeks of 40 hours each) per year, as these are the typical number of nonovertime hours of work in a week, and in a year, respectively. Since the Act's fringe benefit requirements are applicable on a contract-by-contract basis, employees performing on more than one contract subject to the Act must be furnished the full amount of fringe benefits to which they are entitled under each contract and applicable wage determination. Where a fringe benefit determination has been made requiring employer contributions for a specified fringe benefit in a stated amount per hour, a contractor employing employees part of the time on contract work and part of the time on other work, may only credit against the hourly amount required for the hours spent on the contract work, the corresponding proportionate part of a weekly, monthly, or other amount contributed by him for such fringe benefits or equivalent benefits for such employees. If, for example, the determination requires health and welfare benefits in the amount of 30 cents an hour and the employer provides hospitalization insurance for such employees at a cost of $10.00 a week, the employer may credit 25 cents an hour ($10.00 ÷ 40) toward his fringe benefit obligation for such employees. If an employee works 25 hours on the contract work and 15 hours on other work, the employer cannot allocate the entire $10.00 to the 25 hours spent on contract work and take credit for 30 cents per hour in that manner, but must spread the cost over the full forty hours.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.173" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.173   Meeting requirements for vacation fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determining length of service for vacation eligibility.</I> It has been found that for many types of service contracts performed at Federal facilities a successor contractor will utilize the employees of the previous contractor in the performance of the contract. The employees typically work at the same location providing the same services to the same clientele over a period of years, with periodic, often annual, changes of employer. The incumbent contractor, when bidding on a contract, must consider his liability for vacation benefits for those workers in his employ. If prospective contractors who plan to employ the same personnel were not required to furnish these employees with the same prevailing vacation benefits, it would place the incumbent contractor at a distinct competitive disadvantage as well as denying such employees entitlement to prevailing vacation benefits.
</P>
<P>(1) Accordingly, most vacation fringe benefit determinations issued under the Act require an employer to furnish to employees working on the contract a specified amount of paid vacation upon completion of a specified length of service with a contractor or successor. This requirement may be stated in the determination, for example, as “one week paid vacation after one year of service with a contractor or successor” or by a determination which calls for “one week's paid vacation after one year of service”. Unless specified otherwise in an applicable fringe benefit determination, an employer must take the following two factors into consideration in determining when an employee has completed the required length of service to be eligible for vacation benefits: 
</P>
<P>(i) The total length of time spent by an employee in any capacity in the continuous service of the present (successor) contractor, including both the time spent in performing on regular commercial work and the time spent in performing on the Government contract itself, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where applicable, the total length of time spent in any capacity as an employee in the continuous service of any predecessor contractor(s) who carried out similar contract functions at the same Federal facility.
</P>
<P>(2) The application of these principles may be illustrated by the example given above of a fringe benefit determination calling for “one week paid vacation after one year of service with a contractor or successor”. In that example, if a contractor has an employee who has worked for him for 18 months on regular commercial work and only for 6 months on a Government service contract, that employee would be eligible for the one week vacation since his total service with the employer adds up to more than 1 year. Similarly, if a contractor has an employee who worked for 16 months under a janitorial service contract at a particular Federal base for two different predecessor contractors, and only 8 months with the present employer, that employee would also be considered as meeting the “after one year of service” test and would thus be eligible for the specified vacation.
</P>
<P>(3) The “contractor or successor” requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is not affected by the fact that a different contracting agency may have contracted for the services previously or by the agency's dividing and/or combining the contract services. However, prior service as a Federal employee is not counted toward an employee's eligibility for vacation benefits under fringe benefit determinations issued pursuant to the Act.
</P>
<P>(4) Some fringe benefit determinations may require an employer to furnish a specified amount of paid vacation upon completion of a specified length of service <I>with the employer,</I> for example, “one week paid vacation after one year of service with an employer”. Under such determinations, only the time spent in performing on commercial work and on Government contract work in the employment of the present contractor need be considered in computing the length of service for purposes of determining vacation eligibility.
</P>
<P>(5) Whether or not the predecessor contract(s) was covered by a fringe benefit determination is immaterial in determining whether the one year of service test has been met. This qualification refers to work performed before, as well as after, an applicable fringe benefit determination is incorporated into a contract. Also, the fact that the labor standards in predecessor service contract(s) were only those required under the Fair Labor Standards Act has no effect on the applicable fringe benefit determination contained in a current contract. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility requirement—continuous service.</I> Under the principles set forth above, if an employee's total length of service adds up to at least one year, the employee is eligible for vacation with pay. However, such service must have been rendered continuously for a period of not less than one year for vacation eligibility. The term “continuous service” does not require the combination of two entirely separate periods of employment. Whether or not there is a break in the continuity of service so as to make an employee ineligible for a vacation benefit is dependent upon all the facts in the particular case. No fixed time period has been established for determining whether an employee has a break in service. Rather, as illustrated below, the reason(s) for an employee's absence from work is the primary factor in determining whether a break in service occurred. 
</P>
<P>(1) In cases where employees have been granted leave with or without pay by their employer, or are otherwise absent with permission for such reasons as sickness or injury, or otherwise perform no work on the contract because of reasons beyond their control, there would not be a break in service. Likewise, the absence from work for a few days, with or without notice, does not constitute a break in service, without a formal termination of employment. The following specific examples are illustrative situations where it has been determined that a break in service did not occur: 
</P>
<P>(i) An employee absent for five months due to illness but employed continuously for three years. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A strike after which employees returned to work. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An interim period of three months between contracts caused by delays in the procurement process during which time personnel hired directly by the Government performed the necessary services. However, the successor contractor in this case was not held liable for vacation benefits for those employees who had anniversary dates of employment during the interim period because no employment relationship existed during such period. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A mess hall closed three months for renovation. Contractor employees were considered to be on temporary layoff during the renovation period and did not have a break in service. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where an employee quits, is fired for cause, or is otherwise terminated (except for temporary layoffs), there would be a break in service even if the employee were rehired at a later date. However, an employee may not be discharged and rehired as a subterfuge to evade the vacation requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vesting and payment of vacation benefits.</I> (1) In the example given in paragraph (a)(1) of this section of a fringe benefit determination calling for “one week paid vacation after 1 year of service with a contractor or successor”, an employee who renders the “one year of service” continuously becomes eligible for the “one week paid vacation” (i.e., 40 hours of paid vacation, unless otherwise specified in an applicable wage determination) upon his anniversary date of employment and upon each succeeding anniversary date thereafter. However, there is no accrual or vesting of vacation eligibility before the employee's anniversary date of employment, and no segment of time smaller than one year need be considered in computing the employer's vacation liability, unless specifically provided for in a particular fringe benefit determination. For example, an employee who has worked 13 months for an employer subject to such stipulations and is separated without receiving any vacation benefit is entitled only to one full week's (40 hours) paid vacation. He would not be entitled to the additional fraction of one-twelfth of one week's paid vacation for the month he worked in the second year unless otherwise stated in the applicable wage determination. An employee who has not met the “one year of service” requirement would not be entitled to any portion of the “one week paid vacation”. 
</P>
<P>(2) Eligibility for vacation benefits specified in a particular wage determination is based on completion of the stated period of past service. The individual employee's anniversary date (and each annual anniversary date of employment thereafter) is the reference point for vesting of vacation eligibility, but does not necessarily mean that the employee must be given the vacation or paid for it on the date on which it is vested. The vacation may be scheduled according to a reasonable plan mutually agreed to and communicated to the employees. A “reasonable” plan may be interpreted to be a plan which allows the employer to maintain uninterrupted contract services but allows the employee some choice, by seniority or similar factor, in the scheduling of vacations. However, the required vacation must be given or payment made in lieu thereof before the next anniversary date, before completion of the current contract, or before the employee terminates employment, whichever occurs first. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contractor liability for vacation benefits.</I> (1) The liability for an employee's vacation is not prorated among contractors unless specifically provided for under a particular fringe benefit determination. The contractor by whom a person is employed at the time the vacation right vests, i.e., on the employee's anniversary date of employment, must provide the full benefit required by the determination which is applicable on that date. For example, an employee, who had not previously performed similar contract work at the same facility, was first hired by a predecessor contractor on July 1, 1978. July 1 is the employee's anniversary date. The predecessor's contract ended June 30, 1979, but the employee continued working on the contract for the successor. Since the employee did not have an anniversary date of employment during the predecessor's contract, the predecessor would not have any vacation liability with respect to this employee. However, on July 1, 1979 the employee's entitlement to the full vacation benefit vested and the successor contractor would be liable for the full amount of the employee's vacation benefit. 
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements for furnishing data relative to employee hiring dates in situations where such employees worked for “predecessor” contractors are set forth in § 4.6. However, a contractor is not relieved from any obligation to provide vacation benefits because of any difficulty in obtaining such data. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rate applicable to computation of vacation benefits.</I> (1) If an applicable wage determination requires that the hourly wage rate be increased during the period of the contract, the rate applicable to the computation of any required vacation benefits is the hourly rate in effect in the workweek in which the actual paid vacation is provided or the equivalent is paid, as the case may be, and would not be the average of the two hourly rates. This rule would not apply to situations where a wage determination specified the method of computation and the rate to be used. 
</P>
<P>(2) As set forth in § 4.172, unless specified otherwise in an applicable fringe benefit determination, service employees must be furnished the required amount of fringe benefits for all hours paid for up to a maximum of 40 hours per week and 2,080 hours per year. Thus, an employee on paid vacation leave would accrue and must be compensated for any other applicable fringe benefits specified in the fringe benefit determination, and if any of the other benefits are furnished in the form of cash equivalents, such equivalents must be included with the applicable hourly wage rate in computing vacation benefits or a cash equivalent therefor. The rules and regulations for computing cash equivalents are set forth in § 4.177. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.174" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.174   Meeting requirements for holiday fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determining eligibility for holiday benefits—in general.</I> (1) Most fringe benefit determinations list a specific number of named holidays for which payment is required. Unless specified otherwise in an applicable determination, an employee who performs any work during the workweek in which a named holiday occurs is entitled to the holiday benefit, regardless of whether the named holiday falls on a Sunday, another day during the workweek on which the employee is not normally scheduled to work, or on the employee's day off. In addition, holiday benefits cannot be denied because the employee has not been employed by the contractor for a designated period prior to the named holiday or because the employee did not work the day before or the day after the holiday, unless such qualifications are specifically included in the determination. 
</P>
<P>(2) An employee who performs no work during the workweek in which a named holiday occurs is generally not entitled to the holiday benefit. However, an employee who performs no work during the workweek because he is on paid vacation or sick leave in accordance with the terms of the applicable fringe benefit determination is entitled to holiday pay or another day off with pay to substitute for the named holiday. In addition, an employee who performs no work during the workweek because of a layoff does not forfeit his entitlement to holiday benefits if the layoff is merely a subterfuge by the contractor to avoid the payment of such benefits. 
</P>
<P>(3) The obligation to furnish holiday pay for the named holiday may be discharged if the contractor furnishes another day off with pay in accordance with a plan communicated to the employees involved. However, in such instances the holidays named in the fringe benefit determination are the reference points for determining whether an employee is eligible to receive holiday benefits. In other words, if an employee worked in a workweek in which a listed holiday occurred, the employee is entitled to pay for that holiday. Some determinations may provide for a specific number of holidays without naming them. In such instances the contractor is free to select the holidays to be taken in accordance with a plan communicated to the employees involved, and the agreed-upon holidays are the reference points for determining whether an employee is eligible to receive holiday benefits. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining eligibility for holiday benefits—newly hired employees.</I> The contractor generally is not required to compensate a newly hired employee for the holiday occurring prior to the hiring of the employee. However, in the one situation where a named holiday falls in the first week of a contract, all employees who work during the first week would be entitled to holiday pay for that day. For example, if a contract to provide services for the period January 1 through December 31 contained a fringe benefit determination listing New Year's Day as a named holiday, and if New Year's Day were officially celebrated on January 2 in the year in question because January 1 fell on a Sunday, employees hired to begin work on January 3 would be entitled to holiday pay for New Year's Day. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment of holiday benefits.</I> (1) A full-time employee who is eligible to receive payment for a named holiday must receive a full day's pay up to 8 hours unless a different standard is used in the fringe benefit determination, such as one reflecting collectively bargained holiday benefit requirements issued pursuant to section 4(c) of the Act or a different historic practice in an industry or locality. Thus, for example, a contractor must furnish 7 hours of holiday pay to a full-time employee whose scheduled workday consists of 7 hours. An employee whose scheduled workday is 10 hours would be entitled to a holiday payment of 8 hours unless a different standard is used in the determination. As discussed in § 4.172, such holiday pay must include the full amount of other fringe benefits to which the employee is entitled. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless a different standard is used in the wage determination, a full-time employee who works on the day designated as a holiday must be paid, in addition to the amount he ordinarily would be entitled to for that day's work, the cash equivalent of a full-day's pay up to 8 hours or be furnished another day off with pay. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the fringe benefit determination lists the employee's birthday as a paid holiday and that day coincides with another listed holiday, the contractor may discharge his obligation to furnish payment for the second holiday by either substituting another day off with pay with the consent of the employee, furnishing holiday benefits of an extra day's pay, or if the employee works on the holiday in question, furnish holiday benefits of two extra days' pay. 
</P>
<P>(4) As stated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an employee's entitlement to holiday pay fully vests by working in the workweek in which the named holiday occurs. Accordingly, any employee who is terminated before receiving the full amount of holiday benefits due him must be paid the holiday benefits as a final cash payment. 
</P>
<P>(5) The rules and regulations for furnishing holiday pay to temporary and part-time employees are discussed in § 4.176. 
</P>
<P>(6) The rules and regulations for furnishing equivalent fringe benefits or cash equivalents in lieu of holiday pay are discussed in § 4.177. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.175" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.175   Meeting requirements for health, welfare, and/or pension benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determining the required amount of benefits.</I> (1) Most fringe benefit determinations containing health and welfare and/or pension requirements specify a fixed payment per hour on behalf of each service employee. These payments are usually also stated as weekly or monthly amounts. As set forth in § 4.172, unless specified otherwise in the applicable determination such payments are due for all hours paid for, including paid vacation, sick leave, and holiday hours, up to a maximum of 40 hours per week and 2,080 hours per year on each contract. The application of this rule can be illustrated by the following examples: 
</P>
<P>(i) An employee who works 4 days a week, 10 hours a day is entitled to 40 hours of health and welfare and/or pension fringe benefits. If an employee works 3 days a week, 12 hours a day, then such employee is entitled to 36 hours of these benefits. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee who works 32 hours in a workweek and also receives 8 hours of holiday pay is entitled to the maximum of 40 hours of health and welfare and/or pension payments in that workweek. If the employee works more than 32 hours and also received 8 hours of holiday pay, the employee is still only entitled to the maximum of 40 hours of health and welfare and/or pension payments. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If an employee is off work for two weeks on vacation and received 80 hours of vacation pay, the employee must also receive payment for the 80 hours of health and welfare and/or pension benefits which accrue during the vacation period. 
</P>
<P>(iv) An employee entitled to two weeks paid vacation who instead works the full 52 weeks in the year, receiving the full 2,080 hours worth of health and welfare and/or pension benefits, would be due an extra 80 hours of vacation pay in lieu of actually taking the vacation; however, such an employee would not be entitled to have an additional 80 hours of health and welfare and/or pension benefits included in his vacation pay. 
</P>
<P>(2) A fringe benefit determination calling for a specified benefit such as health insurance contemplates a fixed and definite contribution to a “bona fide” plan (as that term is defined in § 4.171) by an employer on behalf of each employee, based on the monetary cost to the employer rather than on the level of benefits provided. Therefore, in determining compliance with an applicable fringe benefit determination, the amount of the employer's contribution on behalf of each individual employee governs. Thus, as set forth in § 4.172, if a determination should require a contribution to a plan providing a specified fringe benefit and that benefit can be obtained for less than the required contribution, it would be necessary for the employer to make up the difference in cash to the employee, or furnish equivalent benefits, or a combination thereof. The following illustrates the application of this principle: A fringe benefit determination requires a rate of $36.40 per month per employee for a health insurance plan. The employer obtains the health insurance coverage specified at a rate of $20.45 per month for a single employee, $30.60 for an employee with spouse, and $40.90 for an employee with a family. The employer is required to make up the difference in cash or equivalent benefits to the first two classes of employees in order to satisfy the determination, notwithstanding that coverage for an employee would be automatically changed by the employer if the employee's status should change (e.g., single to married) and notwithstanding that the employer's average contribution per employee may be equal to or in excess of $36.40 per month. 
</P>
<P>(3) In determining eligibility for benefits under certain wage determinations containing hours or length of service requirements (such as having to work 40 hours in the preceding month), the contractor must take into account time spent by employees on commercial work as well as time spent on the Government contract.
</P>
<P>(b) Some fringe benefit determinations specifically provide for health and welfare and/or pension benefits in terms of average cost. Under this concept, a contractor's contributions per employee to a “bona fide” fringe benefit plan are permitted to vary depending upon the individual employee's marital or employment status. However, the firm's total contributions for all service employees enrolled in the plan must average at least the fringe benefit determination requirement per hour per service employee. If the contractor's contributions average less than the amount required by the determination, then the firm must make up the deficiency by making cash equivalent payments or equivalent fringe benefit payments to all service employees in the plan who worked on the contract during the payment period. Where such deficiencies are made up by means of cash equivalent payments, the payments must be made promptly on the following payday. The following illustrates the application of this principle: The determination requires an average contribution of $0.84 an hour. The contractor makes payments to bona fide fringe benefit plans on a monthly basis. During a month the firm contributes $15,000 for the service employees employed on the contract who are enrolled in the plan, and a total of 20,000 man-hours had been worked by all service employees during the month. Accordingly, the firm's average cost would have been $15,000÷20,000 hours or $0.75 per hour, resulting in a deficiency of $0.09 per hour. Therefore, the contractor owes the service employees in the plan who worked on the contract during the month an additional $0.09 an hour for each hour worked on the contract, payable on the next regular payday for wages. Unless otherwise provided in the applicable wage determination, contributions made by the employer for non-service employees may not be credited toward meeting Service Contract Act fringe benefit obligations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees not enrolled in or excluded from participating in fringe benefit plans.</I> (1) Some health and welfare and pension plans contain eligibility exclusions for certain employees. For example, temporary and part-time employees may be excluded from participating in such plans. Also, employees receiving benefits through participation in plans of an employer other than the Government contractor or by a spouse's employer may be prevented from receiving benefits from the contractor's plan because of prohibitions against “double coverage”. While such exclusions do not invalidate an otherwise bona fide insurance plan, employer contributions to such a plan cannot be considered to be made on behalf of the excluded employees. Accordingly, under fringe benefit determination requirements as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the employees excluded from participation in the health insurance plan must be furnished equivalent bona fide fringe benefits or be paid a cash equivalent payment during the period that they are not eligible to participate in the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) It is not required that all employees participating in a fringe benefit plan be entitled to receive benefits from that plan at all times. For example, under some plans, newly hired employees who are eligible to participate in an insurance plan from their first day of employment may be prohibited from receiving benefits from the plan during a specified “waiting period”. Contributions made on behalf of such employees would serve to discharge the contractor's obligation to furnish the fringe benefit. However, if no contributions are made for such employees, no credit may be taken toward the contractor's fringe benefit obligations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment of health and welfare and pension benefits.</I> (1) Health and welfare and/or pension payments to a “bona fide” insurance plan or trust program may be made on a periodic payment basis which is not less often than quarterly. However, where fringe benefit determinations contemplate a fixed contribution on behalf of each employee, and a contractor exercises his option to make hourly cash equivalent or differential payments, such payments must be made promptly on the regular payday for wages. (See § 4.165.) 
</P>
<P>(2) The rules and regulations for furnishing health and welfare and pension benefits to temporary and part-time employees are discussed in § 4.176. 
</P>
<P>(3) The rules and regulations for furnishing equivalent fringe benefits or cash equivalents in lieu of health and welfare and pension benefits are discussed in § 4.177. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.176" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.176   Payment of fringe benefits to temporary and part-time employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As set forth in § 4.165(a)(2), the Act makes no distinction, with respect to its compensation provisions, between temporary, part-time, and full-time employees. Accordingly, in the absence of express limitations, the provisions of an applicable fringe benefit determination apply to all temporary and part-time service employees engaged in covered work. However, in general, such temporary and part-time employees are only entitled to an amount of the fringe benefits specified in an applicable determination which is proportionate to the amount of time spent in covered work. The application of these principles may be illustrated by the following examples: 
</P>
<P>(1) Assuming the paid vacation for full-time employees is one week of 40 hours, a part-time employee working a regularly scheduled workweek of 16 hours is entitled to 16 hours of paid vacation time or its equivalent each year, if all other qualifications are met. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of holidays, a part-time employee working a regularly scheduled workweek of 16 hours would be entitled to two-fifths of the holiday pay due full-time employees. It is immaterial whether or not the holiday falls on a normal workday of the part-time employee. Except as provided in § 4.174(b), a temporary or casual employee hired during a holiday week, but after the holiday, would be due no holiday benefits for that week. 
</P>
<P>(3) Holiday or vacation pay obligations to temporary and part-time employees working an irregular schedule of hours may be discharged by paying such employees a proportion of the holiday or vacation benefits due full-time employees based on the number of hours each such employee worked in the workweek prior to the workweek in which the holiday occurs or, with respect to vacations, the number of hours which the employee worked in the year preceding the employee's anniversary date of employment. For example:
</P>
<P>(i) An employee works 10 hours during the week preceding July 4, a designated holiday. The employee is entitled to 10/40 of the holiday pay to which a full-time employee is entitled (i.e., 10/40 times 8 = 2 hours holiday pay). 
</P>
<P>(ii) A part-time employee works 520 hours during the 12 months preceding the employee's anniversary date. Since the typical number of nonovertime hours in a year of work is 2,080, if a full-time employee would be entitled to one week (40 hours) paid vacation under the applicable fringe benefit determination, then the part-time employee would be entitled to 520/2,080 times 40 = 10 hours paid vacation. 
</P>
<P>(4) A part-time employee working a regularly scheduled workweek of 20 hours would be entitled to one-half of the health and welfare and/or pension benefits specified in the applicable fringe benefit determination. Thus, if the determination requires $36.40 per month for health insurance, the contractor could discharge his obligation towards the employee in question by providing a health insurance policy costing $18.20 per month. 
</P>
<P>(b) A contractor's obligation to furnish the specified fringe benefits to temporary and part-time employees may be discharged by furnishing equivalent benefits, cash equivalents, or a combination thereof in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in § 4.177. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.177" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.177   Discharging fringe benefit obligations by equivalent means.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Section 2(a)(2) of the Act, which provides for fringe benefits that are separate from and in addition to the monetary compensation required under section 2(a)(1), permits an employer to discharge his obligation to furnish the fringe benefits specified in an applicable fringe benefit determination by furnishing any equivalent combinations of “bona fide” fringe benefits or by making equivalent or differential payments in cash. However, credit for such payments is limited to the employer's fringe benefit obligations under section 2(a)(2), since the Act does not authorize any part of the monetary wage required by section 2(a)(1) and specified in the wage determination and the contract, to be offset by the fringe benefit payments or equivalents which are furnished or paid pursuant to section 2(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) When a contractor substitutes fringe benefits not specified in the fringe benefit determination contained in the contract for fringe benefits which are so specified, the substituted fringe benefits, like those for which the contract provisions are prescribed, must be “bona fide” fringe benefits, as that term is defined in § 4.171.
</P>
<P>(3) When a contractor discharges his fringe benefit obligation by furnishing, in lieu of those benefits specified in the applicable fringe benefit determination, other “bona fide” fringe benefits, cash payments, or a combination thereof, the substituted fringe benefits and/or cash payments must be “equivalent” to the benefits specified in the determination. As used in this subpart, the terms <I>equivalent fringe benefit</I> and <I>cash equivalent</I> mean equal in terms of monetary cost to the contractor. Thus, as set forth in § 4.172, if an applicable fringe benefit determination calls for a particular fringe benefit in a stated amount and the contractor furnished this benefit through contributions in a lesser amount, the contractor must furnish the employee with the difference between the amount stated in the determination and the actual cost of the benefit which the contractor provides. This principle may be illustrated by the example given in § 4.175(a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Furnishing equivalent fringe benefits.</I> (1) A contractor's obligation to furnish fringe benefits which are stated in a specified cash amount may be discharged by furnishing any combination of “bona fide” fringe benefits costing an equal amount. Thus, if an applicable determination specifies that 20 cents per hour is to be paid into a pension fund, this fringe benefit obligation will be deemed to be met if, instead, hospitalization benefits costing not less than 20 cents per hour are provided. The same obligation will be met if hospitalization benefits costing 10 cents an hour and life insurance benefits costing 10 cents an hour are provided. As set forth in § 4.171(c), no benefit required to be furnished the employee by any other law, such as workers' compensation, may be credited toward satisfying the fringe benefit requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor who wishes to furnish equivalent fringe benefits in lieu of those benefits which are not stated in a specified cash amount, such as “one week paid vacation”, must first determine the equivalent cash value of such benefits in accordance with the rules set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Furnishing cash equivalents.</I> (1) Fringe benefit obligations may be discharged by paying to the employee on his regular payday, in addition to the monetary wage required, a cash amount per hour in lieu of the specified fringe benefits, provided such amount is equivalent to the cost of the fringe benefits required. If, for example, an employee's monetary rate under an applicable determination is $4.50 an hour, and the fringe benefits to be furnished are hospitalization benefits costing 20 cents an hour and retirement benefits costing 20 cents an hour, the fringe benefit obligation is discharged if instead of furnishing the required fringe benefits, the employer pays the employee, in cash, 40 cents per hour as the cash equivalent of the fringe benefits in addition to the $4.50 per hour wage rate required under the applicable wage determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The hourly cash equivalent of those fringe benefits which are not stated in the applicable determination in terms of hourly cash amounts may be obtained by mathematical computation through the use of pertinent factors such as the monetary wages paid the employee and the hours of work attributable to the period, if any, by which fringe benefits are measured in the determination. If the employee's regular rate of pay is greater than the minimum monetary wage specified in the wage determination and the contract, the former must be used for this computation, and if the fringe benefit determination does not specify any daily or weekly hours of work by which benefits are to be measured, a standard 8-hour day and 40-hour week will be considered applicable. The application of these rules in typical situations is illustrated in paragraphs (c)(3) through (7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Where fringe benefits are stated as a percentage of the monetary rate, the hourly cash equivalent is determined by multiplying the stated percentage by the employees' regular or basic (i.e., wage determination) rate of pay, whichever is greater. For example, if the determination calls for a 5 percent pension fund payment and the employee is paid a monetary rate of $4.50 an hour, or if the employee earns $4.50 an hour on a piece-work basis in a particular workweek, the cash equivalent of that payment would be 22
<FR>1/2</FR> cents an hour. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the determination lists a particular fringe benefit in such terms as $8 a week, the hourly cash equivalent is determined by dividing the amount stated in the determination by the number of working hours to which the amount is attributable. For example, if a determination lists a fringe benefit as “pension—$8 a week”, and does not specify weekly hours, the hourly cash equivalent is 20 cents per hour, i.e., $8 divided by 40, the standard number of non-overtime working hours in a week.
</P>
<P>(5) In determining the hourly cash equivalent of those fringe benefits which are not stated in the determination in terms of a cash amount, but are stated, for example, as “nine paid holidays per year” or “1 week paid vacation after one year of service”, the employee's hourly monetary rate of pay is multiplied by the number of hours making up the paid holidays or vacation. Unless the hours contemplated in the fringe benefit are specified in the determination, a standard 8-hour day and 40-hour week is considered applicable. The total annual cost so determined is divided by 2,080, the standard number of non-overtime hours in a year of work, to arrive at the hourly cash equivalent. This principle may be illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<P>(i) If a particular determination lists as a fringe benefit “nine holidays per year” and the employee's hourly rate of pay is $4.50, the $4.50 is multiplied by 72 (9 days of 8 hours each) and the result, $324, is then divided by 2,080 to arrive at the hourly cash equivalent, $0.1557 an hour. See § 4.174(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(ii) If the determination requires “one week paid vacation after one year of service”, and the employee's hourly rate of pay is $4.50, the $4.50 is multiplied by 40 and the result, $180.00, is then divided by 2,080 to arrive at the hourly cash equivalent, $0.0865 an hour.
</P>
<P>(6) Where an employer elects to pay an hourly cash equivalent in lieu of a paid vacation, which is computed in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section, such payments need commence only after the employee has satisfied the “after one year of service” requirement. However, should the employee terminate employment for any reason before receiving the full amount of vested vacation benefits due, the employee must be paid the full amount of any difference remaining as the final cash payment. For example, an employee becomes eligible for a week's vacation pay on March 1. The employer elects to pay this employee an hourly cash equivalent beginning that date; the employee terminates employment on March 31. Accordingly, as this employee has received only 
<FR>1/12</FR> of the vacation pay to which he/she is entitled, the employee is due the remaining 
<FR>11/12</FR> upon termination. As set forth in § 4.173(e), the rate applicable to the computation of cash equivalents for vacation benefits is the hourly wage rate in effect at the time such equivalent payments are actually made.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Furnishing a combination of equivalent fringe benefits and cash payments.</I> Fringe benefit obligations may be discharged by furnishing any combination of cash or fringe benefits as illustrated in the preceding paragraphs of this section, in monetary amounts the total of which is equivalent, under the rules therein stated, to the determined fringe benefits specified in the contract. For example, if an applicable determination specifies that 20 cents per hour is to be paid into a pension fund, this fringe benefit obligation will be deemed to be met if instead, hospitalization benefits costing 15 cents an hour and a cash equivalent payment of 5 cents an hour are provided.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of equivalents in computing overtime pay.</I> Section 6 of the Act excludes from the regular or basic hourly rate of an employee, for purposes of determining the overtime pay to which the employee is entitled under any other Federal law, those fringe benefit payments computed under the Act which are excluded from the regular rate under the Fair Labor Standards Act by provisions of section 7(e) (formerly designated as section 7(d)) of that Act (29 U.S.C. 207(e)). Fringe benefit payments which qualify for such exclusion are described in subpart C of Regulations, 29 CFR part 778. When such fringe benefits are required to be furnished to service employees engaged in contract performance, the right to compute overtime pay in accordance with the above rule is not lost to a contractor or subcontractor because it discharges its obligation under this Act to furnish such fringe benefits through alternative equivalents as provided in this section. If it furnishes equivalent benefits or makes cash payments, or both, to such an employee as authorized herein, the amounts thereof, which discharge the employer's obligation to furnish such specified fringe benefits, may be excluded pursuant to this Act from the employee's regular or basic rate of pay in computing any overtime pay due the employee under any other Federal law. No such exclusion can operate, however, to reduce an employee's regular or basic rate of pay below the monetary wage rate specified as the applicable minimum wage rates under sections 2(a)(1), 2(b), or 4(c) of this Act or under other law or an employment contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.178" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.178   Computation of hours worked.</HEAD>
<P>Since employees subject to the Act are entitled to the minimum compensation specified under its provisions for each hour worked in performance of a covered contract, a computation of their hours worked in each workweek when such work under the contract is performed is essential. Determinations of hours worked will be made in accordance with the principles applied under the Fair Labor Standards Act as set forth in part 785 of this title which is incorporated herein by reference. In general, the hours worked by an employee include all periods in which the employee is suffered or permitted to work whether or not required to do so, and all time during which the employee is required to be on duty or to be on the employer's premises or to be at a prescribed workplace. The hours worked which are subject to the compensation provisions of the Act are those in which the employee is engaged in performing work on contracts subject to the Act. However, unless such hours are adequately segregated, as indicated in § 4.179, compensation in accordance with the Act will be required for all hours of work in any workweek in which the employee performs any work in connection with the contract, in the absence of affirmative proof to the contrary that such work did not continue throughout the workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.179" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.23.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.179   Identification of contract work.</HEAD>
<P>Contractors and subcontractors under contracts subject to the Act are required to comply with its compensation requirements throughout the period of performance on the contract and to do so with respect to all employees who in any workweek are engaged in performing work on such contracts. If such a contractor during any workweek is not exclusively engaged in performing such contracts, or if while so engaged it has employees who spend a portion but not all of their worktime in the workweek in performing work on such contracts, it is necessary for the contractor to identify accurately in its records, or by other means, those periods in each such workweek when the contractor and each such employee performed work on such contracts. In cases where contractors are not exclusively engaged in Government contract work, and there are adequate records segregating the periods in which work was performed on contracts subject to the Act from periods in which other work was performed, the compensation specified under the Act need not be paid for hours spent on non-contract work. However, in the absence of records adequately segregating non-covered work from the work performed on or in connection with the contract, all employees working in the establishment or department where such covered work is performed shall be presumed to have worked on or in connection with the contract during the period of its performance, unless affirmative proof establishing the contrary is presented. Similarly, in the absence of such records, an employee performing any work on or in connection with the contract in a workweek shall be presumed to have continued to perform such work throughout the workweek, unless affirmative proof establishing the contrary is presented. Even where a contractor can segregate Government from non-Government work, it is necessary that the contractor comply with the requirements of section 6(e) of the FLSA discussed in § 4.160. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Overtime Pay of Covered Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.180" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.24.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.180   Overtime pay—in general.</HEAD>
<P>The Act does not provide for compensation of covered employees at premium rates for overtime hours of work. Section 6 recognizes, however, that other Federal laws may require such compensation to be paid to employees working on or in connection with contracts subject to the Act (see § 4.181) and prescribes, for purposes of such laws, the manner in which fringe benefits furnished pursuant to the Act shall be treated in computing such overtime compensation as follows: “In determining any overtime pay to which such service employees are entitled under any Federal law, the regular or basic hourly rate of such an employee shall not include any fringe benefit payments computed hereunder which are excluded from the regular rate under the Fair Labor Standards Act by provisions of section 7(d) [now section 7(e)] thereof.” Fringe benefit payments which qualify for such exclusion are described in part 778, subpart C of this title. The interpretations there set forth will be applied in determining the overtime pay to which covered service employees are entitled under other Federal statutes. The effect of section 6 of the Act in situations where equivalent fringe benefits or cash payments are provided in lieu of the specified fringe benefits is stated in § 4.177(e) of this part, and illustrated in § 4.182. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.181" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.24.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.181   Overtime pay provisions of other Acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fair Labor Standards Act.</I> Although provision has not been made for insertion in Government contracts of stipulations requiring compliance with the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act, contractors and subcontractors performing contracts subject to the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act may be required to compensate their employees working on or in connection with such contracts for overtime work pursuant to the overtime pay standards of the Fair Labor Standards Act. This is true with respect to employees engaged in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce (including occupations and processes closely related and directly essential to such production) and employees employed in enterprises which are so engaged, subject to the definitions and exceptions provided in such Act. Such employees, except as otherwise specifically provided in such Act, must receive overtime compensation at a rate of not less than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times their regular rate of pay for all hours worked in excess of the applicable standard in a workweek. See part 778 of this title. However, the Fair Labor Standards Act provides no overtime pay requirements for employees, not within such interstate commerce coverage of the Act, who are subject to its minimum wage provisions only by virtue of the provisions of section 6(e), as explained in § 4.180. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act.</I> (1) The Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 327-332) applies generally to Government contracts, including service contracts in excess of $100,000, which may require or involve the employment of laborers and mechanics. Guards, watchmen, and many other classes of service employees are laborers or mechanics within the meaning of such Act. However, employees rendering only professional services, seamen, and as a general rule those whose work is only clerical or supervisory or nonmanual in nature, are not deemed laborers or mechanics for purposes of the Act. The wages of every laborer and mechanic for performance of work on such contracts must include compensation at a rate not less than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times the employees' basic rate of pay for all hours worked in any workweek in excess of 40. Exemptions are provided for certain transportation and communications contracts, contracts for the purchase of supplies ordinarily available in the open market, and work, required to be done in accordance with the provisions of the Walsh-Healey Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Regulations concerning this Act are contained in 29 CFR part 5 which permit overtime pay to be computed in the same manner as under the Fair Labor Standards Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act.</I> As pointed out in § 4.117, while some Government contracts may be subject both to the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act and to the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, the employees performing work on the contract which is subject to the latter Act are, when so engaged, exempt from the provisions of the former. They are, however, subject to the overtime provisions of the Walsh-Healey Act if, in any workweek, any of the work performed for the employer is subject to such Act and if, in such workweek, the total hours worked by the employee for the employer (whether wholly or only partly on such work) exceed 40 hours in the workweek. In any such workweek the Walsh-Healey Act requires payment of overtime compensation at a rate not less than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times the employee's basic rate for such weekly overtime hours. The overtime pay provisions of the Walsh-Healey Act are discussed in greater detail in 41 CFR part 50-201. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 51 FR 12265, Apr. 9, 1986; 61 FR 40716, Aug. 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.182" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.24.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.182   Overtime pay of service employees entitled to fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>Reference is made in § 4.180 to the rules prescribed by section 6 of the Act which permit exclusion of certain fringe benefits and equivalents provided pursuant to section 2(a)(2) of the Act from the regular or basic rate of pay when computing overtime compensation of a service employee under the provisions of any other Federal law. As provided in § 4.177, not only those fringe benefits excludable under section 6 as benefits determined and specified under section 2(a)(2), but also equivalent fringe benefits and cash payments furnished in lieu of the specified benefits may be excluded from the regular or basic rate of such an employee. The application of this rule may be illustrated by the following examples: 
</P>
<P>(a) The A company pays a service employee $4.50 an hour in cash under a wage determination which requires a monetary rate of not less than $4 and a fringe benefit contribution of 50 cents which would qualify for exclusion from the regular rate under section 7(e) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. The contractor pays the 50 cents in cash because he made no contributions for fringe benefits specified in the determination and the contract. Overtime compensation in this case would be computed on a regular or basic rate of $4 an hour. 
</P>
<P>(b) The B company has for some time been paying $4.25 an hour to a service employee as his basic cash wage plus 25 cents an hour as a contribution to a welfare and pension plan, which contribution qualifies for exclusion from the regular rate under the Fair Labor Standards Act. For performance of work under a contract subject to the Act a monetary rate of $4 and a fringe benefit contribution of 50 cents (also qualifying for such exclusion) are specified because they are found to be prevailing for such employees in the locality. The contractor may credit the 25 cent welfare and pension contribution toward the discharge of his fringe benefit obligation under the contract but must also make an additional contribution of 25 cents for the specified or equivalent fringe benefits or pay the employee an additional 25 cents in cash. These contributions or equivalent payments may be excluded from the employee's regular rate which remains $4.25, the rate agreed upon as the basic cash wage. 
</P>
<P>(c) The C company has been paying $4 an hour as its basic cash wage on which the firm has been computing overtime compensation. For performance of work on a contract subject to the Act the same rate of monetary wages and a fringe benefit contribution of 50 cents an hour (qualifying for exclusion from the regular rate under the Fair Labor Standards Act) are specified in accordance with a determination that these are the monetary wages and fringe benefits prevailing for such employees in the locality. The contractor is required to continue to pay at least $4 an hour in monetary wages and at least this amount must be included in the employee's regular or basic rate for overtime purposes under applicable Federal law. The fringe benefit obligation under the contract would be discharged if 50 cents of the contributions for fringe benefits were for the fringe benefits specified in the contract or equivalent benefits as defined in § 4.177. The company may exclude such fringe benefit contributions from the regular or basic rate of pay of the service employee in computing overtime pay due. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Notice to Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.183" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.25.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.183   Employees must be notified of compensation required.</HEAD>
<P>The Act, in section 2(a)(4), and the regulations thereunder in § 4.6(e), require all contracts subject to the Act which are in excess of $2,500 to contain a clause requiring the contractor or subcontractor to notify each employee commencing work on a contract to which the Act applies of the compensation required to be paid such employee under section 2(a)(1) and the fringe benefits required to be furnished under section 2(a)(2). A notice form (WH Publication 1313 and any applicable wage determination) provided by the Wage and Hour Division is to be used for this purpose. It may be delivered to the employee or posted as stated in § 4.184. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.184" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.25.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.184   Posting of notice.</HEAD>
<P>Posting of the notice provided by the Wage and Hour Division shall be in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite, as required by § 4.6(e). The display of the notice in a place where it may be seen by employees performing on the contract will satisfy the requirement that it be in a “prominent and accessible place”. Should display be necessary at more than one site, in order to assure that it is seen by such employees, additional copies of the poster may be obtained without cost from the Division. The contractor or subcontractor is required to notify each employee of the compensation due or attach to the poster any applicable wage determination specified in the contract listing all minimum monetary wages and fringe benefits to be paid or furnished to the classes of service employees performing on the contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.185" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.26.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.185   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The records which a contractor or subcontractor is required to keep concerning employment of employees subject to the Act are specified in § 4.6(g) of subpart A of this part. They are required to be maintained for 3 years from the completion of the work, and must be made available for inspection and transcription by authorized representatives of the Administrator. Such records must be kept for each service employee performing work under the contract, for each workweek during the performance of the contract. If the required records are not separately kept for the service employees performing on the contract, it will be presumed, in the absence of affirmative proof to the contrary, that all service employees in the department or establishment where the contract was performed were engaged in covered work during the period of performance. (See § 4.179.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.186" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.4.26.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.186   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.187" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.187   Recovery of underpayments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act, in section 3(a), provides that any violations of any of the contract stipulations required by sections 2(a)(1), 2(a)(2), or 2(b) of the Act, shall render the party responsible liable for the amount of any deductions, rebates, refunds, or underpayments (which includes non-payment) of compensation due to any employee engaged in the performance of the contract. So much of the accrued payments due either on the contract or on any other contract (whether subject to the Service Contract Act or not) between the same contractor and the Government may be withheld in a deposit fund as is necessary to pay the employees. In the case of requirements-type contracts, it is the contracting agency, and not the using agencies, which has the responsibility for complying with a withholding request by the Secretary or authorized representative. The Act further provides that on order of the Secretary (or authorized representatives), any compensation which the head of the Federal agency or the Secretary has found to be due shall be paid directly to the underpaid employees from any accrued payments withheld. In order to effectuate the efficient administration of this provision of the Act, such withheld funds shall be transferred to the Department of Labor for disbursement to the underpaid employees on order of the Secretary or his or her authorized representatives, an Administrative Law Judge, or the Administrative Review Board, and are not paid directly to such employees by the contracting agency without the express prior consent of the Department of Labor. (See Decision of the Comptroller General, B-170784, February 17, 1971.) It is mandatory for a contracting officer to adhere to a request from the Department of Labor to withhold funds where such funds are available. (See Decision of the Comptroller General, B-109257, October 14, 1952, arising under the Walsh-Healey Act.) Contract funds which are or may become due a contractor under any contract with the United States may be withheld prior to the institution of administrative proceedings by the Secretary. (<I>McCasland</I> v. <I>U.S. Postal Service,</I> 82 CCH Labor Cases ¶ 33,607 (N.D. N.Y. 1977); <I>G &amp; H Machinery Co.</I> v. <I>Donovan,</I> 96 CCH Labor Cases ¶ 34,354 (S.D. Ill. 1982).)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Priority to withheld funds.</I> The Comptroller General has afforded employee wage claims priority over an Internal Revenue Service levy for unpaid taxes. (See Decisions of the Comptroller General, B-170784, February 17, 1971; B-189137, August 1, 1977; 56 Comp. Gen. 499 (1977); 55 Comp. Gen. 744 (1976), arising under the Davis-Bacon Act; B-178198, August 30, 1973; B-161460, May 25, 1967.)
</P>
<P>(1) As the Comptroller General has stated, “[t]he legislative histories of these labor statutes [Service Contract Act and Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, 41 U.S.C. 327, <I>et seq.</I>] disclose a progressive tendency to extend a more liberal interpretation and construction in successive enactments with regard to worker's benefits, recovery and repayment of wage underpayments. Further, as remedial legislation, it is axiomatic that they are to be liberally construed”. (Decision of the Comptroller General, B-170784, February 17, 1971.) 
</P>
<P>(2) Since section 3(a) of the Act provides that accrued contract funds withheld to pay employees wages must be held in a deposit fund, it is the position of the Department of Labor that monies so held may not be used or set aside for agency reprocurement costs. To hold otherwise would be inequitable and contrary to public policy, since the employees have performed work from which the Government has received the benefit (see <I>National Surety Corporation</I> v. <I>U.S.,</I> 132 Ct. Cl. 724, 728, 135 F. Supp. 381 (1955), cert. denied, 350 U.S. 902), and to give contracting agency reprocurement claims priority would be to require employees to pay for the breach of contract between the employer and the agency. The Comptroller General has sanctioned priority being afforded wage underpayments over the reprocurement costs of the contracting agency following a contractor's default or termination for cause. Decision of the Comptroller General, B-167000, June 26, 1969; B-178198, August 30, 1973; and B-189137, August 1, 1977.
</P>
<P>(3) Wage claims have priority over reprocurement costs and tax liens without regard to when the competing claims were raised. See Decisions of the Comptroller General, B-161460, May 25, 1967; B-189137, August 1, 1977.
</P>
<P>(4) Wages due workers underpaid on the contract have priority over any assignee of the contractor, including assignments made under the Assignment of Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 203, 41 U.S.C. 15, to funds withheld under the contract, since an assignee can acquire no greater rights to withheld funds than the assignor has in the absence of an assignment. See <I>Modern Industrial Bank</I> v. <I>U.S.,</I> 101 Ct. Cl. 808 (1944); <I>Royal Indemnity Co.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 178 Ct. Cl. 46, 371 F. 2d 462 (1967), cert. denied, 389 U.S. 833; <I>Newark Insurance Co.</I> v. <I>U.S.,</I> 149 Ct. Cl. 170, 181 F. Supp. 246 (1960); <I>Henningsen</I> v. <I>United States Fidelity and Guaranty Company,</I> 208 U.S. 404 (1908). Where employees have been underpaid, the assignor has no right to assign funds since the assignor has no property rights to amounts withheld from the contract to cover underpayments of workers which constitute a violation of the law and the terms, conditions, and obligations under the contract. (Decision of the Comptroller General, B-164881, August 14, 1968; B-178198, August 30, 1973; 56 Comp. Gen. 499 (1977); 55 Comp. Gen. 744 (1976); <I>The National City Bank of Evansville</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 143 Ct. Cl. 154, 163 F. Supp. 846 (1958); <I>National Surety Corporation</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 132 Ct. Cl. 724, 135 F. Supp. 381 (1955), cert. denied, 350 U.S. 902.)
</P>
<P>(5) The Comptroller General, recognizing that unpaid laborers have an equitable right to be paid from contract retainages, has also held that wage underpayments under the Act have priority over any claim by the trustee in bankruptcy. 56 Comp. Gen. 499 (1977), citing <I>Pearlman</I> v. <I>Reliance Insurance Company,</I> 371 U.S. 132 (1962); <I>Hadden</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 132 Ct. Cl. 529 (1955), in which the courts gave priority to sureties who had paid unpaid laborers over the trustee in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5(b) of the Act provides that if the accrued payments withheld under the terms of the contract are insufficient to reimburse all service employees with respect to whom there has been a failure to pay the compensation required pursuant to the Act, the United States may bring action against the contractor, subcontractor, or any sureties in any court of competent jurisdiction to recover the remaining amount of underpayments. The Service Contract Act is not subject to the statute of limitations in the Portal to Portal Act, 29 U.S.C. 255, and contains no prescribed period within which such an action must be instituted; it has therefore been held that the general period of six years prescribed by 28 U.S.C. 2415 applies to such actions, <I>United States of America</I> v. <I>Deluxe Cleaners and Laundry, Inc.,</I> 511 F. 2d 929 (C.A. 4, 1975). Any sums thus recovered by the United States shall be held in the deposit fund and shall be paid, on the order of the Secretary, directly to the underpaid employees. Any sum not paid to an employee because of inability to do so within 3 years shall be covered into the Treasury of the United States as miscellaneous receipts. 
</P>
<P>(d) Releases or waivers executed by employees for unpaid wages and fringe benefits due them are without legal effect. As stated by the Supreme Court in <I>Brooklyn Savings Bank</I> v. <I>O'Neil,</I> 324 U.S. 697, 704, (1945), arising under the Fair Labor Standards Act:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Where a private right is granted in the public interest to effectuate a legislative policy, waiver of a right so charged or colored with the public interest will not be allowed where it would thwart the legislative policy which it was designed to effectuate.”</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>See also <I>Schulte, Inc.</I> v. <I>Gangi,</I> 328 U.S. 108 (1946); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Morley Construction Company,</I> 98 F. 2d 781 (C.A. 2, 1938), cert. denied, 305 U.S. 651.
</FP>
<FP>Further, as noted above, monies not paid to employees to whom they are due because of violation are covered into the U.S. Treasury as provided by section 5(b) of the Act.
</FP>
<P>(e)(1) The term <I>party responsible</I> for violations in section 3(a) of the Act is the same term as contained in the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, and therefore, the same principles are applied under both Acts. An officer of a corporation who actively directs and supervises the contract performance, including employment policies and practices and the work of the employees working on the contract, is a party responsible and liable for the violations, individually and jointly with the company (<I>S &amp; G Coal Sales, Inc.,</I> Decision of the Hearing Examiner, PC-946, January 21, 1965, affirmed by the Administrator June 8, 1965; <I>Tennessee Processing Co., Inc.,</I> Decision of the Hearing Examiner, PC-790, September 28, 1965).
</P>
<P>(2) The failure to perform a statutory public duty under the Service Contract Act is not only a corporate liability but also the personal liability of each officer charged by reason of his or her corporate office while performing that duty. <I>United States</I> v. <I>Sancolmar Industries, Inc.,</I> 347 F. Supp. 404, 408 (E.D. N.Y. 1972). Accordingly, it has been held by administrative decisions and by the courts that the term <I>party responsible,</I> as used in section 3(a) of the Act, imposes personal liability for violations of any of the contract stipulations required by sections 2(a)(1) and (2) and 2(b) of the Act on corporate officers who control, or are responsible for control of, the corporate entity, as they, individually, have an obligation to assure compliance with the requirements of the Act, the regulations, and the contracts. See, for example, <I>Waite, Inc.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 530-566, October 19, 1976, <I>Spruce-Up Corp.,</I> Decision of the Administrator SCA 368-370, August 19, 1976, <I>Ventilation and Cleaning Engineers, Inc.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 176, August 23, 1973, Assistant Secretary, May 17, 1974, Secretary, September 27, 1974; <I>Fred Van Elk,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 254-58, May 28, 1974, Administrator, November 25, 1974; <I>Murcole, Inc.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 195-198, April 11, 1974; <I>Emile J. Bouchet,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 38, February 24, 1970; <I>Darwyn L. Grover,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 485, August 15, 1976; <I>United States</I> v. <I>Islip Machine Works, Inc.,</I> 179 F. Supp. 585 (E.D. N.Y. 1959); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Sancolmar Industries, Inc.,</I> 347 F. Supp. 404 (E.D. N.Y. 1972).
</P>
<P>(3) In essence, individual liability attaches to the corporate official who is responsible for, and therefore causes or permits, the violation of the contract stipulations required by the Act, i.e., corporate officers who control the day-to-day operations and management policy are personally liable for underpayments because they cause or permit violations of the Act.
</P>
<P>(4) It has also been held that the personal responsibility and liability of individuals for violations of the Act is not limited to the officers of a contracting firm or to signatories to the Government contract who are bound by and accept responsibility for compliance with the Act and imposition of its sanctions set forth in the contract clauses in § 4.6, but includes all persons, irrespective of proprietary interest, who exercise control, supervision, or management over the performance of the contract, including the labor policy or employment conditions regarding the employees engaged in contract performance, and who, by action or inaction, cause or permit a contract to be breached. <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Islip Machine Works, Inc.,</I> 179 F. Supp. 585 (E.D. N.Y. 1959); <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Sancolmar Industries, Inc.,</I> 347 F. Supp. 404 (E.D. N.Y. 1972); <I>Oscar Hestrom Corp.,</I> Decision of the Administrator, PC-257, May 7, 1946, affirmed, <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Hedstrom,</I> 8 Wage Hour Cases 302 (N.D. Ill. 1948); <I>Craddock-Terry Shoe Corp.,</I> Decision of the Administrator, PC-330, October 3, 1947; <I>Reynolds Research Corp.,</I> Decision of the Administrator, PC-381, October 24, 1951; <I>Etowah Garment Co., Inc.,</I> Decision of the Hearing Examiner, PC-632, August 9, 1957, Decision of the Administrator, April 29, 1958; <I>Cardinal Fuel and Supply Co.,</I> Decision of the Hearing Examiner, PC-890, June 17, 1963.
</P>
<P>(5) Reliance on advice from contracting agency officials (or Department of Labor officials without the authority to issue rulings under the Act) is not a defense against a contractor's liability for back wages under the Act. <I>Standard Fabrication Ltd.,</I> Decision of the Secretary, PC-297, August 3, 1948; <I>Airport Machining Corp.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, PC-1177, June 15, 1973; <I>James D. West,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 397-398, November 17, 1975; <I>Metropolitan Rehabilitation Corp.,</I> WAB Case No. 78-25, August 2, 1979; <I>Fry Brothers Corp.,</I> WAB Case No. 76-6, June 14, 1977.
</P>
<P>(f) The procedures for a contractor or subcontractor to dispute findings regarding violations of the Act, including back wage liability or the disposition of funds withheld by the agency for such liability, are contained in parts 6 and 8 of this title. Appeals in such matters have not been delegated to the contracting agencies and such matters cannot be appealed under the disputes clause in the contractor's contract. 
</P>
<P>(g) While the Act provides that action may be brought against a surety to recover underpayments of compensation, there is no statutory provision requiring that contractors furnish either payment or performance bonds before an award can be made. The courts have held, however, that when such a bond has been given, including one denominated as a performance rather than payment bond, and such a bond guarantees that the principal shall fulfill “all the undertakings, covenants, terms, conditions, and agreements” of the contract, or similar words to the same effect, the surety-guarantor is jointly liable for underpayments by the contractor of the wages and fringe benefits required by the Act up to the amount of the bond. <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Powers Building Maintenance Co.,</I> 366 F. Supp. 819 (W.D. Okla. 1972); <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Gillespie,</I> 72 CCH Labor Cases ¶ 33,986 (C.D. Cal. 1973) <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Glens Falls Insurance Co.,</I> 279 F. Supp. 236 (E.D. Tenn. 1967); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Hudgins-Dize Co.,</I> 83 F. Supp. 593 (E.D. Va. 1949); <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Continental Casualty Company,</I> 85 F. Supp. 573 (E.D. Pa. 1949), affirmed per curiam, 182 F.2d 941 (3rd Cir. 1950). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.188" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.5.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.188   Ineligibility for further contracts when violations occur.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 5 of the Act provides that any person or firm found by the Secretary or the Federal agencies to have violated the Act shall be declared ineligible to receive further Federal contracts unless the Secretary recommends otherwise because of unusual circumstances. It also directs the Comptroller General to distribute a list to all agencies of the Government giving the names of persons or firms that have been declared ineligible. No contract of the United States or the District of Columbia (whether or not subject to the Act) shall be awarded to the persons or firms appearing on this list or to any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such persons or firms have a substantial interest until 3 years have elapsed from the date of publication of the list containing the names of such persons or firms. This prohibition against the award of a contract to an ineligible contractor applies to the contractor in its capacity as either a prime contractor or a subcontractor. Because the Act contains no provision authorizing removal from the list of the names of such persons or firms prior to the expiration of the three-year statutory period, the Secretary is without authority to accomplish such removal (other than in situations involving mistake or legal error). On the other hand, there may be situations in which persons or firms already on the list are found in a subsequent administrative proceeding to have again violated the Act and their debarment ordered. In such circumstances, a new, three-year debarment term will commence with the republication of such names on the list. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The term <I>unusual circumstances</I> is not defined in the Act. Accordingly, the determination must be made on a case-by-case basis in accordance with the particular facts present. It is clear, however, that the effect of the 1972 Amendments is to limit the Secretary's discretion to relieve violators from the debarred list (H. Rept. 92-1251, 92d Cong., 2d Sess. 5; S. Rept. 92-1131, 92d Cong., 2d Sess. 3-4) and that the violator of the Act has the burden of establishing the existence of unusual circumstances to warrant relief from the debarment sanction, <I>Ventilation and Cleaning Engineers, Inc.,</I> SCA-176, Administrative Law Judge, August 23, 1973, Assistant Secretary, May 22, 1974, Secretary, October 2, 1974. It is also clear that unusual circumstances do not include any circumstances which would have been insufficient to relieve a contractor from the ineligible list prior to the 1972 amendments, or those circumstances which commonly exist in cases where violations are found, such as negligent or willful disregard of the contract requirements and of the Act and regulations, including a contractor's plea of ignorance of the Act's requirements where the obligation to comply with the Act is plain from the contract, failure to keep necessary records and the like. <I>Emerald Maintenance Inc.,</I> Supplemental Decision of the ALJ, SCA-153, April 5, 1973. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Subcommittee report following the oversight hearings conducted just prior to the 1972 amendments makes it plain that the limitation of the Secretary's discretion through the unusual circumstances language was designed in part to prevent the Secretary from relieving a contractor from the ineligible list provisions merely because the contractor paid what he was required by his contract to pay in the first place and promised to comply with the Act in the future. See, House Committee on Education and Labor, Special Subcommittee on Labor, The Plight of Service Workers under Government Contracts 12-13 (Comm. Print 1971). As Congressman O'Hara stated: “Restoration * * * [of wages and benefits] is not in and of itself a penalty. The penalty for violation is the suspension from the right to bid on Government contracts * * *. The authority [to relieve from blacklisting] was intended to be used in situations where the violation was a minor one, or an inadvertent one, or one in which disbarment * * * would have been wholly disproportionate to the offense.” House Committee on Education and Labor, Special Subcommittee on Labor, Hearings on H.R. 6244 and H.R. 6245, 92d Cong., 1st Sess. 3 (1971). 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The Department of Labor has developed criteria for determining when there are unusual circumstances within the meaning of the Act. See, e.g., <I>Washington Moving &amp; Storage Co.,</I> Decision of the Assistant Secretary, SCA 68, August 16, 1973, Secretary, March 12, 1974; <I>Quality Maintenance Co.,</I> Decision of the Assistant Secretary, SCA 119, January 11, 1974. Thus, where the respondent's conduct in causing or permitting violations of the Service Contract Act provisions of the contract is willful, deliberate or of an aggravated nature or where the violations are a result of culpable conduct such as culpable neglect to ascertain whether practices are in violation, culpable disregard of whether they were in violation or not, or culpable failure to comply with recordkeeping requirements (such as falsification of records), relief from the debarment sanction cannot be in order. Furthermore, relief from debarment cannot be in order where a contractor has a history of similar violations, where a contractor has repeatedly violated the provisions of the Act, or where previous violations were serious in nature. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A good compliance history, cooperation in the investigation, repayment of moneys due, and sufficient assurances of future compliance are generally prerequisites to relief. Where these prerequisites are present and none of the aggravated circumstances in the preceding paragraph exist, a variety of factors must still be considered, including whether the contractor has previously been investigated for violations of the Act, whether the contractor has committed recordkeeping violations which impeded the investigation, whether liability was dependent upon resolution of a bona fide legal issue of doubtful certainty, the contractor's efforts to ensure compliance, the nature, extent, and seriousness of any past or present violations, including the impact of violations on unpaid employees, and whether the sums due were promptly paid. 
</P>
<P>(4) A contractor has an affirmative obligation to ensure that its pay practices are in compliance with the Act, and cannot itself resolve questions which arise, but rather must seek advice from the Department of Labor. <I>Murcole, Inc.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 195-198, April 10, 1974; <I>McLaughlin Storage, Inc.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 362-365, November 5, 1975, Administrator, March 25, 1976; <I>Able Building &amp; Maintenance &amp; Service Co.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 389-390, May 29, 1975, Assistant Secretary, January 13, 1976; <I>Aarid Van Lines, Inc.,</I> Decision of the Administrator, SCA 423-425, May 13, 1977. 
</P>
<P>(5) Furthermore, a contractor cannot be relieved from debarment by attempting to shift his/her responsibility to subordinate employees. <I>Security Systems, Inc.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 774-775, April 10, 1978; <I>Ventilation &amp; Cleaning Engineers, Inc.,</I> Decision of the Secretary, SCA 176, September 27, 1974; <I>Ernest Roman,</I> Decision of the Secretary, SCA 275, May 6, 1977. As the Comptroller General has stated in considering debarment under the Davis-Bacon Act, “[n]egligence of the employer to instruct his employees as to the proper method of performing his work or to see that the employee obeys his instructions renders the employer liable for injuries to third parties resulting therefrom. * * * The employer will be liable for acts of his employee within the scope of the employment regardless of whether the acts were expressly or impliedly authorized. * * * Willful and malicious acts of the employee are imputable to the employer under the doctrine of respondeat superior although they might not have been consented to or expressly authorized or ratified by the employer.” (Decision of the Comptroller General, B-145608, August 1, 1961.) 
</P>
<P>(6) Negligence per se does not constitute unusual circumstances. Relief on no basis other than negligence would render the effect of section 5(a) a nullity, since it was intended that only responsible bidders be awarded Government contracts. <I>Greenwood's Transfer &amp; Storage, Inc.,</I> Decision of the Secretary, SCA 321-326, June 1, 1976; <I>Ventilation &amp; Cleaning Engineers, Inc.,</I> Decision of the Secretary, SCA 176, September 27, 1974. 
</P>
<P>(c) Similarly, the term <I>substantial interest</I> is not defined in the Act. Accordingly, this determination, too, must be made on a case-by-case basis in light of the particular facts, and cognizant of the legislative intent “to provide to service employees safeguards similar to those given to employees covered by the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act”. <I>Federal Food Services, Inc.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, SCA 585-592, November 22, 1977. Thus, guidance can be obtained from cases arising under the Walsh-Healey Act, which uses the concept “controlling interest”. See <I>Regal Mfg. Co.,</I> Decision of the Administrator, PC-245, March 1, 1946; <I>Acme Sportswear Co.,</I> Decision of the Hearing Examiner, PC-275, May 8, 1946; <I>Gearcraft, Inc.,</I> Decision of the ALJ, PCX-1, May 3, 1972. In a supplemental decision of February 23, 1979, in <I>Federal Food Services, Inc.</I> the Judge ruled as a matter of law that the term “does not preclude every employment or financial relationship between a party under sanction and another * * * [and that] it is necessary to look behind titles, payments, and arrangements and examine the existing circumstances before reaching a conclusion in this matter.” 
</P>
<P>(1) Where a person or firm has a direct or beneficial ownership or control of more than 5 percent of any firm, corporation, partnership, or association, a “substantial interest” will be deemed to exist. Similarly, where a person is an officer or director in a firm or the debarred firm shares common management with another firm, a “substantial interest” will be deemed to exist. Furthermore, wherever a firm is an affiliate as defined in § 4.1a(g) of subpart A, a “substantial interest” will be deemed to exist, or where a debarred person forms or participates in another firm in which he/she has comparable authority, he/she will be deemed to have a “substantial interest” in the new firm and such new firm would also be debarred (<I>Etowah Garment Co., Inc.,</I> Decision of the Hearing Examiner, PC-632, August 9, 1957). 
</P>
<P>(2) Nor is interest determined by ownership alone. A debarred person will also be deemed to have a “substantial interest” in a firm if such person has participated in contract negotiations, is a signatory to a contract, or has the authority to establish, control, or manage the contract performance and/or the labor policies of a firm. A “substantial interest” may also be deemed to exist, in other circumstances, after consideration of the facts of the individual case. Factors to be examined include, among others, sharing of common premises or facilities, occupying any position such as manager, supervisor, or consultant to, any such entity, whether compensated on a salary, bonus, fee, dividend, profit-sharing, or other basis of remuneration, including indirect compensation by virtue of family relationships or otherwise. A firm will be particularly closely examined where there has been an attempt to sever an association with a debarred firm or where the firm was formed by a person previously affiliated with the debarred firm or a relative of the debarred person. 
</P>
<P>(3) Firms with such identity of interest with a debarred person or firm will be placed on the debarred bidders list after the determination is made pursuant to procedures in § 4.12 and parts 6 and 8 of this title. Where a determination of such “substantial interest” is made after the initiation of the debarment period, contracting agencies are to terminate any contract with such firm entered into after the initiation of the original debarment period since all persons or firms in which the debarred person or firm has a substantial interest were also ineligible to receive Government contracts from the date of publication of the violating person's or firm's name on the debarred bidders list.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.189" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.5.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.189   Administrative proceedings relating to enforcement of labor standards.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary is authorized pursuant to the provisions of section 4(a) of the Act to hold hearings and make decisions based upon findings of fact as are deemed to be necessary to enforce the provisions of the Act. Pursuant to section 4(a) of the Act, the Secretary's findings of fact after notice and hearing are conclusive upon all agencies of the United States and, if supported by the preponderance of the evidence, conclusive in any court of the United States, without a trial de novo. <I>United States</I> v. <I>Powers Building Maintenance Co.,</I> 336 F. Supp. 819 (W.D. Okla. 1972). Rules of practice for administrative proceedings are set forth in parts 6 and 8 of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.190" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.5.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.190   Contract cancellation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As provided in section 3 of the Act, where a violation is found of any contract stipulation, the contract is subject upon written notice to cancellation by the contracting agency, whereupon the United States may enter into other contracts or arrangements for the completion of the original contract, charging any additional cost to the original contractor.
</P>
<P>(b) Every contractor shall certify pursuant to § 4.6(n) of subpart A that it is not disqualified for the award of a contract by virtue of its name appearing on the debarred bidders list or because any such currently listed person or firm has a substantial interest in said contractor, as described in § 4.188. Upon discovery of such false certification or determination of substantial interest in a firm performing on a Government contract, as the case may be, the contract is similarly subject upon written notice to immediate cancellation by the contracting agency and any additional cost for the completion of the contract charged to the original contractor as specified in paragraph (a). Such contract is without warrant of law and has no force and effect and is void ab initio, 33 Comp Gen. 63; Decision of the Comptroller General, B-115051, August 6, 1953. Furthermore, any profit derived from said illegal contract is forfeited (<I>Paisner</I> v. <I>U.S.,</I> 138 Ct. Cl. 420, 150 F. Supp. 835 (1957), cert. denied, 355 U.S. 941).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.191" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.5.5.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.191   Complaints and compliance assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employer, employee, labor or trade organization, contracting agency, or other interested person or organization may report to any office of the Wage and Hour Division (or to any office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, in instances involving the safety and health provisions), a violation, or apparent violation, of the Act, or of any of the rules or regulations prescribed thereunder. Such offices are also available to assist or provide information to contractors or subcontractors desiring to insure that their practices are in compliance with the Act. Information furnished is treated confidentially. It is the policy of the Department of Labor to protect the identity of its confidential sources and to prevent an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Accordingly, the identity of an employee who makes a confidential written or oral statement as a complaint or in the course of an investigation, as well as portions of the statement which would reveal his identity, will not be disclosed without the prior consent of the employee. Disclosure of employee statements shall be governed by the provisions of the “Freedom of Information Act” (5 U.S.C. 552, see 29 CFR part 70) and the “Privacy Act of 1974” (5 U.S.C. 552a). 
</P>
<P>(b) A report of breach or violation relating solely to safety and health requirements may be in writing and addressed to the Regional Administrator of an Occupational Safety and Health Administration Regional Office, U.S. Department of Labor, or to the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any other report of breach or violation may be in writing and addressed to the Assistant Regional Administrator of a Wage and Hour Division's regional office, U.S. Department of Labor, or to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. 
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that an Assistant Regional Administrator for the Wage and Hour Division, is notified of a breach or violation which also involves safety and health standards, the Regional Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division shall notify the appropriate Regional Administrator of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration who shall with respect to the safety and health violations take action commensurate with his responsibilities pertaining to safety and health standards.
</P>
<P>(e) Any report should contain the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The full name and address of the person or organization reporting the breach or violations. 
</P>
<P>(2) The full name and address of the person against whom the report is made. 
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and concise statement of the facts constituting the alleged breach or violation of any of the provisions of the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act, or of any of the rules or regulations prescribed thereunder. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 49762, Oct. 27, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2225, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 5—LABOR STANDARDS PROVISIONS APPLICABLE TO CONTRACTS COVERING FEDERALLY FINANCED AND ASSISTED CONSTRUCTION (ALSO LABOR STANDARDS PROVISIONS APPLICABLE TO NONCONSTRUCTION CONTRACTS SUBJECT TO THE CONTRACT WORK HOURS AND SAFETY STANDARDS ACT)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950, 5 U.S.C. appendix; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 40 U.S.C. 3141 <I>et seq.;</I> 40 U.S.C. 3145; 40 U.S.C. 3148; 40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> Secretary's Order No. 01-2014, 79 FR 77527; and the laws referenced by § 5.1(a).




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 19541, Apr. 29, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Davis-Bacon and Related Acts Provisions and Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 19540, Apr. 29, 1983, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to subpart A of part 5 appear at 61 FR 19984, May 3, 1996.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 5.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations contained in this part are promulgated under the authority conferred upon the Secretary of Labor by Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950 (64 Stat. 1267, as amended, 5 U.S.C. appendix) and the Copeland Act (48 Stat. 948; 18 U.S.C. 874; 40 U.S.C. 3145) in order to coordinate the administration and enforcement of labor standards provisions contained in the Davis-Bacon Act (46 Stat. 1494, as amended; 40 U.S.C. 3141 <I>et seq.</I>) and its related statutes (“Related Acts”).
</P>
<P>(1) A listing of laws requiring Davis-Bacon labor standards provisions can be found at <I>www.dol.gov/agencies/whd/government-contracts</I> or its successor website.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Part 1 of this subtitle contains the Department's procedural rules governing requests for wage determinations and the issuance and use of such wage determinations under the Davis-Bacon Act and its Related Acts.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57731, Aug. 23, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Administrator.</I> The term “Administrator” means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or authorized representative.
</P>
<P><I>Agency.</I> The term “agency” means any Federal, State, or local government agency or instrumentality, or other similar entity, that enters into a contract or provides assistance through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, to a project subject to the Davis-Bacon labor standards, as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Federal agency.</I> The term “Federal agency” means an agency or instrumentality of the United States or the District of Columbia, as defined in this section, that enters into a contract or provides assistance through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, to a project subject to the Davis-Bacon labor standards.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Agency Head.</I> The term “Agency Head” means the principal official of an agency and includes those persons duly authorized to act on behalf of the Agency Head.
</P>
<P><I>Apprentice</I> and <I>helper.</I> The terms “apprentice” and “helper” are defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) “Apprentice” means:
</P>
<P>(i) A person employed and individually registered in a bona fide apprenticeship program registered with the U.S. Department of Labor, Employment and Training Administration, Office of Apprenticeship, or with a State Apprenticeship Agency recognized by the Office of Apprenticeship; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A person in the first 90 days of probationary employment as an apprentice in such an apprenticeship program, who is not individually registered in the program, but who has been certified by the Office of Apprenticeship or a State Apprenticeship Agency (where appropriate) to be eligible for probationary employment as an apprentice;
</P>
<P>(2) These provisions do not apply to apprentices and trainees employed on projects subject to 23 U.S.C. 113 who are enrolled in programs which have been certified by the Secretary of Transportation in accordance with 23 U.S.C. 113(c).
</P>
<P>(3) A distinct classification of helper will be issued in wage determinations applicable to work performed on construction projects covered by the labor standards provisions of the Davis-Bacon and Related Acts only where:
</P>
<P>(i) The duties of the helper are clearly defined and distinct from those of any other classification on the wage determination;
</P>
<P>(ii) The use of such helpers is an established prevailing practice in the area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The helper is not employed as a trainee in an informal training program. A “helper” classification will be added to wage determinations pursuant to § 5.5(a)(1)(iii)(A) only where, in addition, the work to be performed by the helper is not performed by a classification in the wage determination.
</P>
<P><I>Building or work.</I> The term “building or work” generally includes construction activities of all types, as distinguished from manufacturing, furnishing of materials, or servicing and maintenance work. The term includes, without limitation, buildings, structures, and improvements of all types, such as bridges, dams, solar panels, wind turbines, broadband installation, installation of electric car chargers, plants, highways, parkways, streets, subways, tunnels, sewers, mains, power lines, pumping stations, heavy generators, railways, airports, terminals, docks, piers, wharves, ways, lighthouses, buoys, jetties, breakwaters, levees, canals, dredging, shoring, rehabilitation and reactivation of plants, scaffolding, drilling, blasting, excavating, clearing, and landscaping. The term “building or work” also includes a portion of a building or work, or the installation (where appropriate) of equipment or components into a building or work.
</P>
<P><I>Construction, prosecution, completion, or repair.</I> The term “construction, prosecution, completion, or repair<I>”</I> means the following:
</P>
<P>(1) These terms include all types of work done—
</P>
<P>(i) On a particular building or work at the site of the work, as defined in this section, by laborers and mechanics employed by a contractor or subcontractor, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the construction or development of a project under a development statute.
</P>
<P>(2) These terms include, without limitation (except as specified in this definition):
</P>
<P>(i) Altering, remodeling, installation (where appropriate) on the site of the work of items fabricated offsite;
</P>
<P>(ii) Painting and decorating;
</P>
<P>(iii) Manufacturing or furnishing of materials, articles, supplies or equipment, but only if such work is done by laborers or mechanics
</P>
<P>(A) Employed by a contractor or subcontractor, as defined in this section, on the site of the work, as defined in this section, or
</P>
<P>(B) In the construction or development of a project under a development statute;
</P>
<P>(iv) “Covered transportation,” defined as any of the following activities:
</P>
<P>(A) Transportation that takes place entirely within a location meeting the definition of “site of the work” in this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Transportation of one or more “significant portion(s)” of the building or work between a “secondary construction site” as defined in this section and a “primary construction site” as defined in this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Transportation between an “adjacent or virtually adjacent dedicated support site” as defined in this section and a “primary construction site” or “secondary construction site” as defined in this section;
</P>
<P>(D) “Onsite activities essential or incidental to offsite transportation,” defined as activities conducted by a truck driver or truck driver's assistant on the site of the work that are essential or incidental to the transportation of materials or supplies to or from the site of the work, such as loading, unloading, or waiting for materials to be loaded or unloaded, but only where the driver or driver's assistant's time spent on the site of the work is not <I>de minimis;</I> and
</P>
<P>(E) Any transportation and related activities, whether on or off the site of the work, by laborers and mechanics employed in the construction or development of the project under a development statute.
</P>
<P>(v) Demolition and/or removal, under any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) Where the demolition and/or removal activities themselves constitute construction, alteration, and/or repair of an existing building or work. Examples of such activities include the removal of asbestos, paint, components, systems, or parts from a facility that will not be demolished; as well as contracts for hazardous waste removal, land recycling, or reclamation that involve substantial earth moving, removal of contaminated soil, re-contouring surfaces, and/or habitat restoration.
</P>
<P>(B) Where subsequent construction covered in whole or in part by the labor standards in this part is contemplated at the site of the demolition or removal, either as part of the same contract or as part of a future contract. In determining whether covered construction is contemplated within the meaning of this provision, relevant factors include, but are not limited to, the existence of engineering or architectural plans or surveys of the site; the allocation of, or an application for, Federal funds; contract negotiations or bid solicitations; the stated intent of the relevant government officials; and the disposition of the site after demolition.
</P>
<P>(C) Where otherwise required by statute.
</P>
<P>(3) Except for transportation that constitutes “covered transportation” as defined in this section, construction, prosecution, completion, or repair does not include the transportation of materials or supplies to or from the site of the work.
</P>
<P><I>Contract.</I> The term “contract” means any prime contract which is subject wholly or in part to the labor standards provisions of any of the laws referenced by § 5.1 and any subcontract of any tier thereunder, let under the prime contract. With the exception of work performed under a development statute, the terms contract and subcontract do not include agreements with employers that meet the definition of a material supplier under this section.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting officer.</I> The term “contracting officer” means the individual, a duly appointed successor, or authorized representative who is designated and authorized to enter into contracts on behalf of an agency, sponsor, owner, applicant, or other similar entity.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor.</I> The term “contractor” means any individual or other legal entity that enters into or is awarded a contract that is subject wholly or in part to the labor standards provisions of any of the laws referenced by § 5.1, including any prime contract or subcontract of any tier under a covered prime contract. In addition, the term contractor includes any surety that is completing performance for a defaulted contractor pursuant to a performance bond. The U.S. Government, its agencies, and instrumentalities are not contractors, subcontractors, employers or joint employers for purposes of the labor standards provisions of any of the laws referenced by § 5.1. A State or local government is not regarded as a contractor or subcontractor under statutes providing loans, grants, or other Federal assistance in situations where construction is performed by its own employees. However, under development statutes or other statutes requiring payment of prevailing wages to all laborers and mechanics employed on the assisted project, such as the U.S. Housing Act of 1937, State and local recipients of Federal-aid must pay these workers according to Davis-Bacon labor standards. The term “contractor” does not include an entity that is a material supplier, except if the entity is performing work under a development statute.
</P>
<P><I>Davis-Bacon labor standards.</I> The term “Davis-Bacon labor standards” as used in this part means the requirements of the Davis-Bacon Act, the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (other than those relating to safety and health), the Copeland Act, and the prevailing wage provisions of the other statutes referenced in § 5.1, and the regulations in this part and in parts 1 and 3 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P><I>Development statute.</I> The term “development statute” includes the United States Housing Act of 1937; the Housing Act of 1949; and the Native American Housing Assistance and Self-Determination Act of 1996, and any other Davis-Bacon Related Act that requires payment of prevailing wages under the Davis-Bacon labor standards to all laborers and mechanics employed in the development of a project and for which the Administrator determines that the statute's language and/or legislative history reflected clear congressional intent to apply a coverage standard different from the Davis-Bacon Act itself.
</P>
<P><I>Employed.</I> Every person performing the duties of a laborer or mechanic in the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of a public building or public work, or building or work financed in whole or in part by assistance from the United States through loan, grant, loan guarantee or insurance, or otherwise, is “employed” regardless of any contractual relationship alleged to exist between the contractor and such person.
</P>
<P><I>Laborer</I> or <I>mechanic.</I> The term “laborer or mechanic” includes at least those workers whose duties are manual or physical in nature (including those workers who use tools or who are performing the work of a trade), as distinguished from mental or managerial. The term “laborer” or “mechanic” includes apprentices, helpers, and, in the case of contracts subject to the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, watchpersons or guards. The term does not apply to workers whose duties are primarily administrative, executive, or clerical, rather than manual. Persons employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity as defined in 29 CFR part 541 are not deemed to be laborers or mechanics. Forepersons who devote more than 20 percent of their time during a workweek to mechanic or laborer duties, and who do not meet the criteria of part 541, are laborers and mechanics for the time so spent.
</P>
<P><I>Material supplier.</I> The term “material supplier” is defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A material supplier is an entity meeting all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Its only obligations for work on the contract or project are the delivery of materials, articles, supplies, or equipment, which may include pickup of the same in addition to, but not exclusive of, delivery, and which may also include activities incidental to such delivery and pickup, such as loading, unloading, or waiting for materials to be loaded or unloaded; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its facility or facilities that manufactures the materials, articles, supplies, or equipment used for the contract or project:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not located on, or does not itself constitute, the project or contract's primary construction site or secondary construction site as defined in this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Either was established before opening of bids on the contract or project, or is not dedicated exclusively, or nearly so, to the performance of the contract or project.
</P>
<P>(2) If an entity, in addition to being engaged in the activities specified in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, also engages in other construction, prosecution, completion, or repair work at the site of the work, it is not a material supplier.
</P>
<P><I>Prime contractor.</I> The term “prime contractor” means any person or entity that enters into a contract with an agency. For the purposes of the labor standards provisions of any of the laws referenced by § 5.1, the term prime contractor also includes the controlling shareholders or members of any entity holding a prime contract, the joint venturers or partners in any joint venture or partnership holding a prime contract, and any contractor (<I>e.g.,</I> a general contractor) that has been delegated the responsibility for overseeing all or substantially all of the construction anticipated by the prime contract. For the purposes of the provisions in §§ 5.5 and 5.9, any such related entities holding different prime contracts are considered to be the same prime contractor.
</P>
<P><I>Public building</I> or <I>public work.</I> The term “public building or public work” includes a building or work, the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of which, as defined in this section, is carried on directly by authority of or with funds of a Federal agency to serve the interest of the general public regardless of whether title thereof is in a Federal agency. The construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of a portion of a building or work, or the installation (where appropriate) of equipment or components into a building or work, may still be considered a public building or work, even where the entire building or work is not owned, leased by, or to be used by a Federal agency, as long as the construction, prosecution, completion, or repair of that portion of the building or work, or the installation (where appropriate) of equipment or components into that building or work, is carried on by authority of or with funds of a Federal agency to serve the interest of the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary.</I> The term “Secretary” includes the Secretary of Labor, and their authorized representative.
</P>
<P><I>Site of the work.</I> The term “site of the work” is defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) “Site of the work” includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The primary construction site(s), defined as the physical place or places where the building or work called for in the contract will remain.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any secondary construction site(s), defined as any other site(s) where a significant portion of the building or work is constructed, <I>provided</I> that such construction is for specific use in that building or work and does not simply reflect the manufacture or construction of a product made available to the general public, and <I>provided further</I> that the site is either established specifically for the performance of the contract or project, or is dedicated exclusively, or nearly so, to the performance of the contract or project for a specific period of time. A “significant portion” of a building or work means one or more entire portion(s) or module(s) of the building or work, such as a completed room or structure, with minimal construction work remaining other than the installation and/or final assembly of the portions or modules at the place where the building or work will remain. A “significant portion” does not include materials or prefabricated component parts such as prefabricated housing components. A “specific period of time” means a period of weeks, months, or more, and does not include circumstances where a site at which multiple projects are in progress is shifted exclusively or nearly so to a single project for a few hours or days in order to meet a deadline.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any adjacent or virtually adjacent dedicated support sites, defined as:
</P>
<P>(A) Job headquarters, tool yards, batch plants, borrow pits, and similar facilities of a contractor or subcontractor that are dedicated exclusively, or nearly so, to performance of the contract or project, <I>and</I> adjacent or virtually adjacent to either a primary construction site or a secondary construction site, and
</P>
<P>(B) Locations adjacent or virtually adjacent to a primary construction site at which workers perform activities associated with directing vehicular or pedestrian traffic around or away from the primary construction site.
</P>
<P>(2) With the exception of locations that are on, or that themselves constitute, primary or secondary construction sites as defined in paragraphs (1)(i) and (ii) of this definition, site of the work does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Permanent home offices, branch plant establishments, fabrication plants, tool yards, etc., of a contractor or subcontractor whose location and continuance in operation are determined wholly without regard to a particular Federal or federally assisted contract or project; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Fabrication plants, batch plants, borrow pits, job headquarters, tool yards, etc., of a material supplier, which are established by a material supplier for the project before opening of bids and not on the primary construction site or a secondary construction site, even where the operations for a period of time may be dedicated exclusively, or nearly so, to the performance of a contract.
</P>
<P><I>Subcontractor.</I> The term “subcontractor” means any contractor that agrees to perform or be responsible for the performance of any part of a contract that is subject wholly or in part to the labor standards provisions of any of the laws referenced in § 5.1. The term subcontractor includes subcontractors of any tier.
</P>
<P><I>United States or the District of Columbia.</I> The term “United States or the District of Columbia” means the United States, the District of Columbia, and all executive departments, independent establishments, administrative agencies, and instrumentalities of the United States and of the District of Columbia, including non-appropriated fund instrumentalities and any corporation for which all or substantially all of its stock is beneficially owned by the United States or by the foregoing departments, establishments, agencies, or instrumentalities.
</P>
<P><I>Wages.</I> The term “wages” means the basic hourly rate of pay; any contribution irrevocably made by a contractor or subcontractor to a trustee or to a third person pursuant to a bona fide fringe benefit fund, plan, or program; and the rate of costs to the contractor or subcontractor which may be reasonably anticipated in providing bona fide fringe benefits to laborers and mechanics pursuant to an enforceable commitment to carry out a financially responsible plan or program, which was communicated in writing to the laborers and mechanics affected. The fringe benefits enumerated in the Davis-Bacon Act include medical or hospital care, pensions on retirement or death, compensation for injuries or illness resulting from occupational activity, or insurance to provide any of the foregoing; unemployment benefits; life insurance, disability insurance, sickness insurance, or accident insurance; vacation or holiday pay; defraying costs of apprenticeship or other similar programs; or other bona fide fringe benefits. Fringe benefits do not include benefits required by other Federal, State, or local law.
</P>
<P><I>Wage determination.</I> The term “wage determination” includes the original decision and any subsequent decisions revising, modifying, superseding, correcting, or otherwise changing the provisions of the original decision. The application of the wage determination must be in accordance with the provisions of § 1.6 of this subtitle.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57731, Aug. 23, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 5.3-5.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 5.3-5.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.5   Contract provisions and related matters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required contract clauses.</I> The Agency head will cause or require the contracting officer to require the contracting officer to insert in full, or (for contracts covered by the Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR chapter 1)) by reference, in any contract in excess of $2,000 which is entered into for the actual construction, alteration and/or repair, including painting and decorating, of a public building or public work, or building or work financed in whole or in part from Federal funds or in accordance with guarantees of a Federal agency or financed from funds obtained by pledge of any contract of a Federal agency to make a loan, grant or annual contribution (except where a different meaning is expressly indicated), and which is subject to the labor standards provisions of any of the laws referenced by § 5.1, the following clauses (or any modifications thereof to meet the particular needs of the agency, <I>Provided,</I> That such modifications are first approved by the Department of Labor):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Minimum wages</I>—(i) <I>Wage rates and fringe benefits.</I> All laborers and mechanics employed or working upon the site of the work (or otherwise working in construction or development of the project under a development statute), will be paid unconditionally and not less often than once a week, and without subsequent deduction or rebate on any account (except such payroll deductions as are permitted by regulations issued by the Secretary of Labor under the Copeland Act (29 CFR part 3)), the full amount of basic hourly wages and bona fide fringe benefits (or cash equivalents thereof) due at time of payment computed at rates not less than those contained in the wage determination of the Secretary of Labor which is attached hereto and made a part hereof, regardless of any contractual relationship which may be alleged to exist between the contractor and such laborers and mechanics. As provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, the appropriate wage determinations are effective by operation of law even if they have not been attached to the contract. Contributions made or costs reasonably anticipated for bona fide fringe benefits under the Davis-Bacon Act (40 U.S.C. 3141(2)(B)) on behalf of laborers or mechanics are considered wages paid to such laborers or mechanics, subject to the provisions of paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section; also, regular contributions made or costs incurred for more than a weekly period (but not less often than quarterly) under plans, funds, or programs which cover the particular weekly period, are deemed to be constructively made or incurred during such weekly period. Such laborers and mechanics must be paid the appropriate wage rate and fringe benefits on the wage determination for the classification(s) of work actually performed, without regard to skill, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. Laborers or mechanics performing work in more than one classification may be compensated at the rate specified for each classification for the time actually worked therein: <I>Provided,</I> That the employer's payroll records accurately set forth the time spent in each classification in which work is performed. The wage determination (including any additional classifications and wage rates conformed under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section) and the Davis-Bacon poster (WH-1321) must be posted at all times by the contractor and its subcontractors at the site of the work in a prominent and accessible place where it can be easily seen by the workers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Frequently recurring classifications.</I> (A) In addition to wage and fringe benefit rates that have been determined to be prevailing under the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 1, a wage determination may contain, pursuant to § 1.3(f), wage and fringe benefit rates for classifications of laborers and mechanics for which conformance requests are regularly submitted pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The work performed by the classification is not performed by a classification in the wage determination for which a prevailing wage rate has been determined;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The classification is used in the area by the construction industry; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The wage rate for the classification bears a reasonable relationship to the prevailing wage rates contained in the wage determination.
</P>
<P>(B) The Administrator will establish wage rates for such classifications in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section. Work performed in such a classification must be paid at no less than the wage and fringe benefit rate listed on the wage determination for such classification.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Conformance.</I> (A) The contracting officer must require that any class of laborers or mechanics, including helpers, which is not listed in the wage determination and which is to be employed under the contract be classified in conformance with the wage determination. Conformance of an additional classification and wage rate and fringe benefits is appropriate only when the following criteria have been met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The work to be performed by the classification requested is not performed by a classification in the wage determination; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The classification is used in the area by the construction industry; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The proposed wage rate, including any bona fide fringe benefits, bears a reasonable relationship to the wage rates contained in the wage determination.
</P>
<P>(B) The conformance process may not be used to split, subdivide, or otherwise avoid application of classifications listed in the wage determination.
</P>
<P>(C) If the contractor and the laborers and mechanics to be employed in the classification (if known), or their representatives, and the contracting officer agree on the classification and wage rate (including the amount designated for fringe benefits where appropriate), a report of the action taken will be sent by the contracting officer by email to <I>DBAconformance@dol.gov</I>. The Administrator, or an authorized representative, will approve, modify, or disapprove every additional classification action within 30 days of receipt and so advise the contracting officer or will notify the contracting officer within the 30-day period that additional time is necessary.
</P>
<P>(D) In the event the contractor, the laborers or mechanics to be employed in the classification or their representatives, and the contracting officer do not agree on the proposed classification and wage rate (including the amount designated for fringe benefits, where appropriate), the contracting officer will, by email to <I>DBAconformance@dol.gov</I><I>,</I> refer the questions, including the views of all interested parties and the recommendation of the contracting officer, to the Administrator for determination. The Administrator, or an authorized representative, will issue a determination within 30 days of receipt and so advise the contracting officer or will notify the contracting officer within the 30-day period that additional time is necessary.
</P>
<P>(E) The contracting officer must promptly notify the contractor of the action taken by the Wage and Hour Division under paragraphs (a)(1)(iii)(C) and (D) of this section. The contractor must furnish a written copy of such determination to each affected worker or it must be posted as a part of the wage determination. The wage rate (including fringe benefits where appropriate) determined pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(C) or (D) of this section must be paid to all workers performing work in the classification under this contract from the first day on which work is performed in the classification.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Fringe benefits not expressed as an hourly rate.</I> Whenever the minimum wage rate prescribed in the contract for a class of laborers or mechanics includes a fringe benefit which is not expressed as an hourly rate, the contractor may either pay the benefit as stated in the wage determination or may pay another bona fide fringe benefit or an hourly cash equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Unfunded plans.</I> If the contractor does not make payments to a trustee or other third person, the contractor may consider as part of the wages of any laborer or mechanic the amount of any costs reasonably anticipated in providing bona fide fringe benefits under a plan or program, <I>Provided,</I> That the Secretary of Labor has found, upon the written request of the contractor, in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 5.28, that the applicable standards of the Davis-Bacon Act have been met. The Secretary of Labor may require the contractor to set aside in a separate account assets for the meeting of obligations under the plan or program.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Interest.</I> In the event of a failure to pay all or part of the wages required by the contract, the contractor will be required to pay interest on any underpayment of wages.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Withholding</I>—(i) <I>Withholding requirements.</I> The [write in name of Federal agency or the recipient of Federal assistance] may, upon its own action, or must, upon written request of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, withhold or cause to be withheld from the contractor so much of the accrued payments or advances as may be considered necessary to satisfy the liabilities of the prime contractor or any subcontractor for the full amount of wages and monetary relief, including interest, required by the clauses set forth in paragraph (a) of this section for violations of this contract, or to satisfy any such liabilities required by any other Federal contract, or federally assisted contract subject to Davis-Bacon labor standards, that is held by the same prime contractor (as defined in § 5.2). The necessary funds may be withheld from the contractor under this contract, any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, or any other federally assisted contract that is subject to Davis-Bacon labor standards requirements and is held by the same prime contractor, regardless of whether the other contract was awarded or assisted by the same agency, and such funds may be used to satisfy the contractor liability for which the funds were withheld. In the event of a contractor's failure to pay any laborer or mechanic, including any apprentice or helper working on the site of the work (or otherwise working in construction or development of the project under a development statute) all or part of the wages required by the contract, or upon the contractor's failure to submit the required records as discussed in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section, the [Agency] may on its own initiative and after written notice to the contractor, sponsor, applicant, owner, or other entity, as the case may be, take such action as may be necessary to cause the suspension of any further payment, advance, or guarantee of funds until such violations have ceased.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Priority to withheld funds.</I> The Department has priority to funds withheld or to be withheld in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (b)(3)(i) of this section, or both, over claims to those funds by:
</P>
<P>(A) A contractor's surety(ies), including without limitation performance bond sureties and payment bond sureties;
</P>
<P>(B) A contracting agency for its reprocurement costs;
</P>
<P>(C) A trustee(s) (either a court-appointed trustee or a U.S. trustee, or both) in bankruptcy of a contractor, or a contractor's bankruptcy estate;
</P>
<P>(D) A contractor's assignee(s);
</P>
<P>(E) A contractor's successor(s); or
</P>
<P>(F) A claim asserted under the Prompt Payment Act, 31 U.S.C. 3901-3907.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Records and certified payrolls</I>—(i) <I>Basic record requirements</I>—(A) <I>Length of record retention.</I> All regular payrolls and other basic records must be maintained by the contractor and any subcontractor during the course of the work and preserved for all laborers and mechanics working at the site of the work (or otherwise working in construction or development of the project under a development statute) for a period of at least 3 years after all the work on the prime contract is completed.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Information required.</I> Such records must contain the name; Social Security number; last known address, telephone number, and email address of each such worker; each worker's correct classification(s) of work actually performed; hourly rates of wages paid (including rates of contributions or costs anticipated for bona fide fringe benefits or cash equivalents thereof of the types described in 40 U.S.C. 3141(2)(B) of the Davis-Bacon Act); daily and weekly number of hours actually worked in total and on each covered contract; deductions made; and actual wages paid.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Additional records relating to fringe benefits.</I> Whenever the Secretary of Labor has found under paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section that the wages of any laborer or mechanic include the amount of any costs reasonably anticipated in providing benefits under a plan or program described in 40 U.S.C. 3141(2)(B) of the Davis-Bacon Act, the contractor must maintain records which show that the commitment to provide such benefits is enforceable, that the plan or program is financially responsible, and that the plan or program has been communicated in writing to the laborers or mechanics affected, and records which show the costs anticipated or the actual cost incurred in providing such benefits.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Additional records relating to apprenticeship.</I> Contractors with apprentices working under approved programs must maintain written evidence of the registration of apprenticeship programs, the registration of the apprentices, and the ratios and wage rates prescribed in the applicable programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Certified payroll requirements</I>—(A) <I>Frequency and method of submission.</I> The contractor or subcontractor must submit weekly, for each week in which any DBA- or Related Acts-covered work is performed, certified payrolls to the [write in name of appropriate Federal agency] if the agency is a party to the contract, but if the agency is not such a party, the contractor will submit the certified payrolls to the applicant, sponsor, owner, or other entity, as the case may be, that maintains such records, for transmission to the [write in name of agency]. The prime contractor is responsible for the submission of all certified payrolls by all subcontractors. A contracting agency or prime contractor may permit or require contractors to submit certified payrolls through an electronic system, as long as the electronic system requires a legally valid electronic signature; the system allows the contractor, the contracting agency, and the Department of Labor to access the certified payrolls upon request for at least 3 years after the work on the prime contract has been completed; and the contracting agency or prime contractor permits other methods of submission in situations where the contractor is unable or limited in its ability to use or access the electronic system.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Information required.</I> The certified payrolls submitted must set out accurately and completely all of the information required to be maintained under paragraph (a)(3)(i)(B) of this section, except that full Social Security numbers and last known addresses, telephone numbers, and email addresses must not be included on weekly transmittals. Instead, the certified payrolls need only include an individually identifying number for each worker (<I>e.g.,</I> the last four digits of the worker's Social Security number). The required weekly certified payroll information may be submitted using Optional Form WH-347 or in any other format desired. Optional Form WH-347 is available for this purpose from the Wage and Hour Division website at <I>https://www.dol.gov/sites/dolgov/files/WHD/legacy/files/wh347/.pdf</I> or its successor website. It is not a violation of this section for a prime contractor to require a subcontractor to provide full Social Security numbers and last known addresses, telephone numbers, and email addresses to the prime contractor for its own records, without weekly submission by the subcontractor to the sponsoring government agency (or the applicant, sponsor, owner, or other entity, as the case may be, that maintains such records).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Statement of Compliance.</I> Each certified payroll submitted must be accompanied by a “Statement of Compliance,” signed by the contractor or subcontractor, or the contractor's or subcontractor's agent who pays or supervises the payment of the persons working on the contract, and must certify the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That the certified payroll for the payroll period contains the information required to be provided under paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, the appropriate information and basic records are being maintained under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, and such information and records are correct and complete;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That each laborer or mechanic (including each helper and apprentice) working on the contract during the payroll period has been paid the full weekly wages earned, without rebate, either directly or indirectly, and that no deductions have been made either directly or indirectly from the full wages earned, other than permissible deductions as set forth in 29 CFR part 3; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) That each laborer or mechanic has been paid not less than the applicable wage rates and fringe benefits or cash equivalents for the classification(s) of work actually performed, as specified in the applicable wage determination incorporated into the contract.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Use of Optional Form WH-347.</I> The weekly submission of a properly executed certification set forth on the reverse side of Optional Form WH-347 will satisfy the requirement for submission of the “Statement of Compliance” required by paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Signature.</I> The signature by the contractor, subcontractor, or the contractor's or subcontractor's agent must be an original handwritten signature or a legally valid electronic signature.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Falsification.</I> The falsification of any of the above certifications may subject the contractor or subcontractor to civil or criminal prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 31 U.S.C. 3729.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Length of certified payroll retention.</I> The contractor or subcontractor must preserve all certified payrolls during the course of the work and for a period of 3 years after all the work on the prime contract is completed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Contracts, subcontracts, and related documents.</I> The contractor or subcontractor must maintain this contract or subcontract and related documents including, without limitation, bids, proposals, amendments, modifications, and extensions. The contractor or subcontractor must preserve these contracts, subcontracts, and related documents during the course of the work and for a period of 3 years after all the work on the prime contract is completed.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Required disclosures and access</I>—(A) <I>Required record disclosures and access to workers.</I> The contractor or subcontractor must make the records required under paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, and any other documents that the [write the name of the agency] or the Department of Labor deems necessary to determine compliance with the labor standards provisions of any of the applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1, available for inspection, copying, or transcription by authorized representatives of the [write the name of the agency] or the Department of Labor, and must permit such representatives to interview workers during working hours on the job.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Sanctions for non-compliance with records and worker access requirements.</I> If the contractor or subcontractor fails to submit the required records or to make them available, or refuses to permit worker interviews during working hours on the job, the Federal agency may, after written notice to the contractor, sponsor, applicant, owner, or other entity, as the case may be, that maintains such records or that employs such workers, take such action as may be necessary to cause the suspension of any further payment, advance, or guarantee of funds. Furthermore, failure to submit the required records upon request or to make such records available, or to permit worker interviews during working hours on the job, may be grounds for debarment action pursuant to § 5.12. In addition, any contractor or other person that fails to submit the required records or make those records available to WHD within the time WHD requests that the records be produced will be precluded from introducing as evidence in an administrative proceeding under 29 CFR part 6 any of the required records that were not provided or made available to WHD. WHD will take into consideration a reasonable request from the contractor or person for an extension of the time for submission of records. WHD will determine the reasonableness of the request and may consider, among other things, the location of the records and the volume of production.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Required information disclosures.</I> Contractors and subcontractors must maintain the full Social Security number and last known address, telephone number, and email address of each covered worker, and must provide them upon request to the [write in name of appropriate Federal agency] if the agency is a party to the contract, or to the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor. If the Federal agency is not such a party to the contract, the contractor, subcontractor, or both, must, upon request, provide the full Social Security number and last known address, telephone number, and email address of each covered worker to the applicant, sponsor, owner, or other entity, as the case may be, that maintains such records, for transmission to the [write in name of agency], the contractor, or the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor for purposes of an investigation or other compliance action.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Apprentices and equal employment opportunity</I>—(i) <I>Apprentices</I>—(A) <I>Rate of pay.</I> Apprentices will be permitted to work at less than the predetermined rate for the work they perform when they are employed pursuant to and individually registered in a bona fide apprenticeship program registered with the U.S. Department of Labor, Employment and Training Administration, Office of Apprenticeship (OA), or with a State Apprenticeship Agency recognized by the OA. A person who is not individually registered in the program, but who has been certified by the OA or a State Apprenticeship Agency (where appropriate) to be eligible for probationary employment as an apprentice, will be permitted to work at less than the predetermined rate for the work they perform in the first 90 days of probationary employment as an apprentice in such a program. In the event the OA or a State Apprenticeship Agency recognized by the OA withdraws approval of an apprenticeship program, the contractor will no longer be permitted to use apprentices at less than the applicable predetermined rate for the work performed until an acceptable program is approved.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Fringe benefits.</I> Apprentices must be paid fringe benefits in accordance with the provisions of the apprenticeship program. If the apprenticeship program does not specify fringe benefits, apprentices must be paid the full amount of fringe benefits listed on the wage determination for the applicable classification. If the Administrator determines that a different practice prevails for the applicable apprentice classification, fringe benefits must be paid in accordance with that determination.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Apprenticeship ratio.</I> The allowable ratio of apprentices to journeyworkers on the job site in any craft classification must not be greater than the ratio permitted to the contractor as to the entire work force under the registered program or the ratio applicable to the locality of the project pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(i)(D) of this section. Any worker listed on a payroll at an apprentice wage rate, who is not registered or otherwise employed as stated in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A) of this section, must be paid not less than the applicable wage rate on the wage determination for the classification of work actually performed. In addition, any apprentice performing work on the job site in excess of the ratio permitted under this section must be paid not less than the applicable wage rate on the wage determination for the work actually performed.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Reciprocity of ratios and wage rates.</I> Where a contractor is performing construction on a project in a locality other than the locality in which its program is registered, the ratios and wage rates (expressed in percentages of the journeyworker's hourly rate) applicable within the locality in which the construction is being performed must be observed. If there is no applicable ratio or wage rate for the locality of the project, the ratio and wage rate specified in the contractor's registered program must be observed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Equal employment opportunity.</I> The use of apprentices and journeyworkers under this part must be in conformity with the equal employment opportunity requirements of Executive Order 11246, as amended, and 29 CFR part 30.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Compliance with Copeland Act requirements.</I> The contractor shall comply with the requirements of 29 CFR part 3, which are incorporated by reference in this contract.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Subcontracts.</I> The contractor or subcontractor must insert in any subcontracts the clauses contained in paragraphs (a)(1) through (11) of this section, along with the applicable wage determination(s) and such other clauses or contract modifications as the [write in the name of the Federal agency] may by appropriate instructions require, and a clause requiring the subcontractors to include these clauses and wage determination(s) in any lower tier subcontracts. The prime contractor is responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower tier subcontractor with all the contract clauses in this section. In the event of any violations of these clauses, the prime contractor and any subcontractor(s) responsible will be liable for any unpaid wages and monetary relief, including interest from the date of the underpayment or loss, due to any workers of lower-tier subcontractors, and may be subject to debarment, as appropriate.










</P>
<P>(7) <I>Contract termination: debarment.</I> A breach of the contract clauses in 29 CFR 5.5 may be grounds for termination of the contract, and for debarment as a contractor and a subcontractor as provided in 29 CFR 5.12.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Compliance with Davis-Bacon and Related Act requirements.</I> All rulings and interpretations of the Davis-Bacon and Related Acts contained in 29 CFR parts 1, 3, and 5 are herein incorporated by reference in this contract.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Disputes concerning labor standards.</I> Disputes arising out of the labor standards provisions of this contract shall not be subject to the general disputes clause of this contract. Such disputes shall be resolved in accordance with the procedures of the Department of Labor set forth in 29 CFR parts 5, 6, and 7. Disputes within the meaning of this clause include disputes between the contractor (or any of its subcontractors) and the contracting agency, the U.S. Department of Labor, or the employees or their representatives.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Certification of eligibility.</I> (i) By entering into this contract, the contractor certifies that neither it nor any person or firm who has an interest in the contractor's firm is a person or firm ineligible to be awarded Government contracts by virtue of 40 U.S.C. 3144(b) or § 5.12(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) No part of this contract shall be subcontracted to any person or firm ineligible for award of a Government contract by virtue of 40 U.S.C. 3144(b) or § 5.12(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) The penalty for making false statements is prescribed in the U.S. Code, Title 18 Crimes and Criminal Procedure, 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Anti-retaliation.</I> It is unlawful for any person to discharge, demote, intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, harass, or in any other manner discriminate against, or to cause any person to discharge, demote, intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, harass, or in any other manner discriminate against, any worker or job applicant for:
</P>
<P>(i) Notifying any contractor of any conduct which the worker reasonably believes constitutes a violation of the DBA, Related Acts, this part, or 29 CFR part 1 or 3;
</P>
<P>(ii) Filing any complaint, initiating or causing to be initiated any proceeding, or otherwise asserting or seeking to assert on behalf of themselves or others any right or protection under the DBA, Related Acts, this part, or 29 CFR part 1 or 3;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cooperating in any investigation or other compliance action, or testifying in any proceeding under the DBA, Related Acts, this part, or 29 CFR part 1 or 3; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Informing any other person about their rights under the DBA, Related Acts, this part, or 29 CFR part 1 or 3.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (CWHSSA).</I> The Agency Head must cause or require the contracting officer to insert the following clauses set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section in full, or (for contracts covered by the Federal Acquisition Regulation) by reference, in any contract in an amount in excess of $100,000 and subject to the overtime provisions of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act. These clauses must be inserted in addition to the clauses required by paragraph (a) of this section or 29 CFR 4.6. As used in this paragraph (b), the terms “laborers and mechanics” include watchpersons and guards.


</P>
<P>(1) <I>Overtime requirements.</I> No contractor or subcontractor contracting for any part of the conract work which may require or involve the employment of laborers or mechanics shall require or permit any such laborer or mechanic in any workweek in which he or she is employed on such work to work in excess of forty hours in such workweek unless such laborer or mechanic receives compensation at a rate not less than one and one-half times the basic rate of pay for all hours worked in excess of forty hours in such workweek. 


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Violation; liability for unpaid wages; liquidated damages.</I> In the event of any violation of the clause set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section the contractor and any subcontractor responsible therefor shall be liable for the unpaid wages and interest from the date of the underpayment. In addition, such contractor and subcontractor shall be liable to the United States (in the case of work done under contract for the District of Columbia or a territory, to such District or to such territory), for liquidated damages. Such liquidated damages shall be computed with respect to each individual laborer or mechanic, including watchpersons and guards, employed in violation of the clause set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, in the sum of $33 for each calendar day on which such individual was required or permitted to work in excess of the standard workweek of forty hours without payment of the overtime wages required by the clause set forth in paragraph (b)(1).


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Withholding for unpaid wages and liquidated damages</I>—(i) <I>Withholding process.</I> The [write in the name of the Federal agency or the recipient of Federal assistance] may, upon its own action, or must, upon written request of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, withhold or cause to be withheld from the contractor so much of the accrued payments or advances as may be considered necessary to satisfy the liabilities of the prime contractor or any subcontractor for any unpaid wages; monetary relief, including interest; and liquidated damages required by the clauses set forth in this paragraph (b) on this contract, any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, or any other federally assisted contract subject to the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act that is held by the same prime contractor (as defined in § 5.2). The necessary funds may be withheld from the contractor under this contract, any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, or any other federally assisted contract that is subject to the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act and is held by the same prime contractor, regardless of whether the other contract was awarded or assisted by the same agency, and such funds may be used to satisfy the contractor liability for which the funds were withheld.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Priority to withheld funds.</I> The Department has priority to funds withheld or to be withheld in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (b)(3)(i) of this section, or both, over claims to those funds by:
</P>
<P>(A) A contractor's surety(ies), including without limitation performance bond sureties and payment bond sureties;
</P>
<P>(B) A contracting agency for its reprocurement costs;
</P>
<P>(C) A trustee(s) (either a court-appointed trustee or a U.S. trustee, or both) in bankruptcy of a contractor, or a contractor's bankruptcy estate;
</P>
<P>(D) A contractor's assignee(s);
</P>
<P>(E) A contractor's successor(s); or
</P>
<P>(F) A claim asserted under the Prompt Payment Act, 31 U.S.C. 3901-3907.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subcontracts.</I> The contractor or subcontractor must insert in any subcontracts the clauses set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section and a clause requiring the subcontractors to include these clauses in any lower tier subcontracts. The prime contractor is responsible for compliance by any subcontractor or lower tier subcontractor with the clauses set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5). In the event of any violations of these clauses, the prime contractor and any subcontractor(s) responsible will be liable for any unpaid wages and monetary relief, including interest from the date of the underpayment or loss, due to any workers of lower-tier subcontractors, and associated liquidated damages and may be subject to debarment, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Anti-retaliation.</I> It is unlawful for any person to discharge, demote, intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, harass, or in any other manner discriminate against, or to cause any person to discharge, demote, intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, harass, or in any other manner discriminate against, any worker or job applicant for:
</P>
<P>(i) Notifying any contractor of any conduct which the worker reasonably believes constitutes a violation of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (CWHSSA) or its implementing regulations in this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Filing any complaint, initiating or causing to be initiated any proceeding, or otherwise asserting or seeking to assert on behalf of themselves or others any right or protection under CWHSSA or this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cooperating in any investigation or other compliance action, or testifying in any proceeding under CWHSSA or this part; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Informing any other person about their rights under CWHSSA or this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CWHSSA required records clause.</I> In addition to the clauses contained in paragraph (b) of this section, in any contract subject only to the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act and not to any of the other laws referenced by § 5.1, the Agency Head must cause or require the contracting officer to insert a clause requiring that the contractor or subcontractor must maintain regular payrolls and other basic records during the course of the work and must preserve them for a period of 3 years after all the work on the prime contract is completed for all laborers and mechanics, including guards and watchpersons, working on the contract. Such records must contain the name; last known address, telephone number, and email address; and social security number of each such worker; each worker's correct classification(s) of work actually performed; hourly rates of wages paid; daily and weekly number of hours actually worked; deductions made; and actual wages paid. Further, the Agency Head must cause or require the contracting officer to insert in any such contract a clause providing that the records to be maintained under this paragraph must be made available by the contractor or subcontractor for inspection, copying, or transcription by authorized representatives of the (write the name of agency) and the Department of Labor, and the contractor or subcontractor will permit such representatives to interview workers during working hours on the job.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Incorporation of contract clauses and wage determinations by reference.</I> Although agencies are required to insert the contract clauses set forth in this section, along with appropriate wage determinations, in full into covered contracts, and contractors and subcontractors are required to insert them in any lower-tier subcontracts, the incorporation by reference of the required contract clauses and appropriate wage determinations will be given the same force and effect as if they were inserted in full text.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Incorporation by operation of law.</I> The contract clauses set forth in this section (or their equivalent under the Federal Acquisition Regulation), along with the correct wage determinations, will be considered to be a part of every prime contract required by the applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1 to include such clauses, and will be effective by operation of law, whether or not they are included or incorporated by reference into such contract, unless the Administrator grants a variance, tolerance, or exemption from the application of this paragraph. Where the clauses and applicable wage determinations are effective by operation of law under this paragraph, the prime contractor must be compensated for any resulting increase in wages in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements contained in the following paragraphs of this section were approved by the Office of Management and Budget: 
</APPRO>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Paragraph
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB
<br/>Control No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a)(1)(ii)(B)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a)(1)(ii)(C)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a)(1)(iv)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a)(3)(i)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a)(3)(ii)(A)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0008
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0023</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 19540, Apr. 29, 1983, as amended at 51 FR 12265, Apr. 9, 1986; 55 FR 50150, Dec. 4, 1990; 57 FR 28776, June 26, 1992; 58 FR 58955, Nov. 5, 1993; 61 FR 40716, Aug. 5, 1996; 65 FR 69693, Nov. 20, 2000; 73 FR 77511, Dec. 19, 2008; 81 FR 43450, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 2225, 2226, Jan. 9, 2017; 83 FR 12, Jan 2, 2018; 84 FR 218, Jan. 23, 2019; 87 FR 2334, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2215, Jan. 13, 2023; 88 FR 57734, Aug. 23, 2023; 89 FR 1815, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1859, Jan. 10, 2025]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.6   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency responsibilities.</I> (1)(i) The Federal agency has the initial responsibility to ascertain whether the clauses required by § 5.5 and the appropriate wage determination(s) have been incorporated into the contracts subject to the labor standards provisions of the laws referenced by § 5.1. Additionally, a Federal agency that provides Federal financial assistance that is subject to the labor standards provisions of the Act must promulgate the necessary regulations or procedures to require the recipient or sub-recipient of the Federal assistance to insert in its contracts the provisions of § 5.5. No payment, advance, grant, loan, or guarantee of funds will be approved by the Federal agency unless it ensures that the clauses required by § 5.5 and the appropriate wage determination(s) are incorporated into such contracts. Furthermore, no payment, advance, grant, loan, or guarantee of funds will be approved by the Federal agency after the beginning of construction unless there is on file with the Federal agency a certification by the contractor that the contractor and its subcontractors have complied with the provisions of § 5.5 or unless there is on file with the Federal agency a certification by the contractor that there is a substantial dispute with respect to the required provisions.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a contract subject to the labor standards provisions of the applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1 is entered into without the incorporation of the clauses required by § 5.5, the agency must, upon the request of the Administrator or upon its own initiative, either terminate and resolicit the contract with the required contract clauses, or incorporate the required clauses into the contract (or ensure they are so incorporated) through supplemental agreement, change order, or any and all authority that may be needed. Where an agency has not entered directly into such a contract but instead has provided Federal financial assistance, the agency must ensure that the recipient or sub-recipient of the Federal assistance similarly incorporates the clauses required into its contracts. The method of incorporation of the correct wage determination, and adjustment in contract price, where appropriate, should be in accordance with applicable law. Additionally, the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(A) Unless the Administrator directs otherwise, the incorporation of the clauses required by § 5.5 must be retroactive to the date of contract award or start of construction if there is no award.
</P>
<P>(B) If this incorporation occurs as the result of a request from the Administrator, the incorporation must take place within 30 days of the date of that request, unless the agency has obtained an extension from the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(C) The contractor must be compensated for any increases in wages resulting from incorporation of a missing contract clause.
</P>
<P>(D) If the recipient refuses to incorporate the clauses as required, the agency must make no further payment, advance, grant, loan, or guarantee of funds in connection with the contract until the recipient incorporates the required clauses into its contract, and must promptly refer the dispute to the Administrator for further proceedings under § 5.13.
</P>
<P>(E) Before terminating a contract pursuant to this section, the agency must withhold or cross-withhold sufficient funds to remedy any back wage liability resulting from the failure to incorporate the correct wage determination or otherwise identify and obligate sufficient funds through a termination settlement agreement, bond, or other satisfactory mechanism.
</P>
<P>(F) Notwithstanding the requirement to incorporate the contract clauses and correct wage determination within 30 days, the contract clauses and correct wage determination will be effective by operation of law, retroactive to the beginning of construction, in accordance with § 5.5(e).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Certified payrolls submitted pursuant to § 5.5(a)(3)(ii) must be preserved by the Federal agency for a period of 3 years after all the work on the prime contract is completed, and must be produced at the request of the Department of Labor at any time during the 3-year period, regardless of whether the Department of Labor has initiated an investigation or other compliance action.
</P>
<P>(ii) In situations where the Federal agency does not itself maintain certified payrolls required to be submitted pursuant to § 5.5(a)(3)(ii), upon the request of the Department of Labor the Federal agency must ensure that such certified payrolls are provided to the Department of Labor. Such certified payrolls may be provided by the applicant, sponsor, owner, or other entity, as the case may be, directly to the Department of Labor, or to the Federal agency which, in turn, must provide those records to the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal agency will cause such investigations to be made as may be necessary to assure compliance with the labor standards clauses required by § 5.5 and the applicable statutes referenced in § 5.1. Investigations will be made of all contracts with such frequency as may be necessary to assure compliance. Such investigations will include interviews with workers, which must be taken in confidence, and examinations of certified payrolls, regular payrolls, and other basic records required to be maintained under § 5.5(a)(3). In making such examinations, particular care must be taken to determine the correctness of classification(s) of work actually performed, and to determine whether there is a disproportionate amount of work by laborers and of apprentices registered in approved programs. Such investigations must also include evidence of fringe benefit plans and payments thereunder. Federal agencies must give priority to complaints of alleged violations.
</P>
<P>(4) In accordance with normal operating procedures, the contracting agency may be furnished various investigatory material from the investigation files of the Department of Labor. None of the material, other than computations of back wages, liquidated damages, and monetary relief for violations of § 5.5(a)(11) or (b)(5), and the summary of back wages due, may be disclosed in any manner to anyone other than Federal officials charged with administering the contract or program providing Federal assistance to the contract, without requesting the permission and views of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department of Labor investigations and other compliance actions.</I> (1) The Administrator will investigate and conduct other compliance actions as deemed necessary in order to obtain compliance with the labor standards provisions of the applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1, or to affirm or reject the recommendations by the Agency Head with respect to labor standards matters arising under the statutes referenced by § 5.1.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal agencies, contractors, subcontractors, sponsors, applicants, owners, or other entities, as the case may be, must cooperate with any authorized representative of the Department of Labor in the inspection of records, in interviews with workers, and in all other aspects of the investigations or other compliance actions.
</P>
<P>(3) The findings of such an investigation or other compliance action, including amounts found due, may not be altered or reduced without the approval of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the underpayments disclosed by such an investigation or other compliance action total $1,000 or more, where there is reason to believe that the contractor or subcontractor has disregarded its obligations to workers or subcontractors, or where liquidated damages may be assessed under CWHSSA, the Department of Labor will furnish the Federal agency an enforcement report detailing the labor standards violations disclosed by the investigation or other compliance action and any action taken by the contractor or subcontractor to correct the violations, including any payment of back wages or any other relief provided workers or remedial actions taken for violations of § 5.5(a)(11) or (b)(5). In other circumstances, the Department of Labor will furnish the Federal agency a notification summarizing the findings of the investigation or other compliance action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidentiality requirements.</I> It is the policy of the Department of Labor to protect from disclosure the identity of its confidential sources and to prevent an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Accordingly, the identity of a worker or other informant who makes a written or oral statement as a complaint or in the course of an investigation or other compliance action, as well as portions of the statement which would tend to reveal the identity of the informant, will not be disclosed in any manner to anyone other than Federal officials without the prior consent of the informant. Disclosure of such statements is also governed by the provisions of the “Freedom of Information Act” (5 U.S.C. 552, see part 70 of this subtitle) and the “Privacy Act of 1974” (5 U.S.C. 552a, see part 71 of this subtitle).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57739, Aug. 23, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.7   Reports to the Secretary of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement reports.</I> (1) Where underpayments by a contractor or subcontractor total less than $1,000, where there is no reason to believe that the contractor or subcontractor has disregarded its obligations to workers or subcontractors, and where restitution has been effected and future compliance assured, the Federal agency need not submit its investigative findings and recommendations to the Administrator, unless the investigation or other compliance action was made at the request of the Department of Labor. In the latter case, the Federal agency will submit a factual summary report detailing any violations including any data on the amount of restitution paid, the number of workers who received restitution, liquidated damages assessed under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, corrective measures taken (such as “letters of notice” or remedial action taken for violations of § 5.5(a)(11) or (b)(5)), and any information that may be necessary to review any recommendations for an appropriate adjustment in liquidated damages under § 5.8.
</P>
<P>(2) Where underpayments by a contractor or subcontractor total $1,000 or more, or where there is reason to believe that the contractor or subcontractor has disregarded its obligations to workers or subcontractors, the Federal agency will furnish within 60 days after completion of its investigation, a detailed enforcement report to the Administrator.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Semi-annual enforcement reports.</I> To assist the Secretary in fulfilling the responsibilities under Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950, Federal agencies shall furnish to the Administrator by April 30 and October 31 of each calendar year semi-annual reports on compliance with and enforcement of the labor standards provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act and its related acts covering the periods of October 1 through March 31 and April 1 through September 30, respectively. Such reports shall be prepared in the manner prescribed in memoranda issued to Federal agencies by the Administrator. This report has been cleared in accordance with FPMR 101-11.11 and assigned interagency report control number 1482-DOL-SA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information.</I> Upon request, the Agency Head shall transmit to the Administrator such information available to the Agency with respect to contractors and subcontractors, their contracts, and the nature of the contract work as the Administrator may find necessary for the performance of his or her duties with respect to the labor standards provisions referred to in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contract termination.</I> Where a contract is terminated by reason of violations of the labor standards provisions of the statutes listed in § 5.1, a report shall be submitted promptly to the Administrator and to the Comptroller General (if the contract is subject to the Davis-Bacon Act), giving the name and address of the contractor or subcontractor whose right to proceed has been terminated, and the name and address of the contractor or subcontractor, if any, who is to complete the work, the amount and number of the contract, and the description of the work to be performed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 19540, Apr. 29, 1983, as amended at 88 FR 57734, Aug. 23, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.8   Liquidated damages under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act requires that laborers or mechanics shall be paid wages at a rate not less than one and one-half times the basic rate of pay for all hours worked in excess of forty hours in any workweek. In the event of violation of this provision, the contractor and any subcontractor shall be liable for the unpaid wages and in addition for liquidated damages, computed with respect to each laborer or mechanic employed in violation of the Act in the amount of $33 for each calendar day in the workweek on which such individual was required or permitted to work in excess of forty hours without payment of required overtime wages. Any contractor of subcontractor aggrieved by the withholding of liquidated damages shall have the right to appeal to the head of the agency of the United States (or the territory of District of Columbia, as appropriate) for which the contract work was performed or for which financial assistance was provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Findings and recommendations of the Agency Head.</I> The Agency Head has the authority to review the administrative determination of liquidated damages and to issue a final order affirming the determination. It is not necessary to seek the concurrence of the Administrator but the Administrator shall be advised of the action taken. Whenever the Agency Head finds that a sum of liquidated damages administratively determined to be due is incorrect or that the contractor or subcontractor violated inadvertently the provisions of the Act notwithstanding the exercise of due care upon the part of the contractor or subcontractor involved, and the amount of the liquidated damages computed for the contract is in excess of $500, the Agency Head may make recommendations to the Secretary that an appropriate adjustment in liquidated damages be made or that the contractor or subcontractor be relieved of liability for such liquidated damages. Such findings with respect to liquidated damages shall include findings with respect to any wage underpayments for which the liquidated damages are determined.
</P>
<P>(c) The recommendations of the Agency Head for adjustment or relief from liquidated damages under paragraph (a) of this section shall be reviewed by the Administrator or an authorized representative who shall issue an order concurring in the recommendations, partially concurring in the recommendations, or rejecting the recommendations, and the reasons therefor. The order shall be the final decision of the Department of Labor, unless a petition for review is filed pursuant to part 7 of this title, and the Administrative Review Board in its discretion reviews such decision and order; or, with respect to contracts subject to the Service Contract Act, unless petition for review is filed pursuant to part 8 of this title, and the Administrative Review Board in its discretion reviews such decision and order.
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever the Agency Head finds that a sum of liquidated damages administratively determined to be due under section 104(a) of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act for a contract is $500 or less and the Agency Head finds that the sum of liquidated damages is incorrect or that the contractor or subcontractor violated inadvertently the provisions of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act notwithstanding the exercise of due care upon the part of the contractor or subcontractor involved, an appropriate adjustment may be made in such liquidated damages or the contractor or subcontractor may be relieved of liability for such liquidated damages without submitting recommendations to this effect or a report to the Department of Labor. This delegation of authority is made under section 105 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act and has been found to be necessary and proper in the public interest to prevent undue hardship and to avoid serious impairment of the conduct of Government business.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 19541, Apr. 29, 1983, as amended at 51 FR 12265, Apr. 9, 1986; 51 FR 13496, Apr. 21, 1986; 81 FR 43450, July 1, 2016; 83 FR 12, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 218, Jan. 23, 2019; 87 FR 2334, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2215, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1815, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1859, Jan. 10, 2025]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.9   Suspension of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspension and withholding.</I> In the event of failure or refusal of the contractor or any subcontractor to comply with the applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1 and the labor standards clauses contained in § 5.5, whether incorporated into the contract physically, by reference, or by operation of law, the Federal agency (and any other agency), may, upon its own action, or must, upon written request of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, take such action as may be necessary to cause the suspension of the payment, advance, or guarantee of funds until such time as the violations are discontinued and/or until sufficient funds are withheld as may be considered necessary to compensate workers for the full amount of wages and monetary relief to which they are entitled, and to cover any liquidated damages and pre-judgment or post-judgment interest which may be due.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cross-withholding.</I> To satisfy a contractor's liability for back wages on a contract, in addition to the suspension and withholding of funds from the contract(s) under which the violation(s) occurred, the necessary funds also may be withheld under any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, or any other federally assisted contract that is subject to Davis-Bacon labor standards and/or the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act and is held by the same prime contractor, regardless of whether the other contract was awarded or assisted by the same agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cross-withholding from different legal entities.</I> Cross-withholding of funds may be requested from contracts held by other entities that may be considered to be the same prime contractor as that term is defined in § 5.2. Such cross-withholding is appropriate where the separate legal entities have independently consented to it by entering into contracts containing the withholding provisions at § 5.5(a)(2) and (b)(3). Cross-withholding from a contract held by a different legal entity is not appropriate unless the withholding provisions were incorporated in full or by reference in that different legal entity's contract. Absent exceptional circumstances, cross-withholding is not permitted from a contract held by a different legal entity where the Davis-Bacon labor standards were incorporated only by operation of law into that contract.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57740, Aug. 23, 2023]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.10   Restitution, criminal action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In cases other than those forwarded to the Attorney General of the United States under paragraph (b) of this section where violations of the labor standards clauses contained in § 5.5 and the applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1 result in underpayment of wages to workers or monetary damages caused by violations of § 5.5(a)(11) or (b)(5), the Federal agency or an authorized representative of the Department of Labor will request that restitution be made to such workers or on their behalf to plans, funds, or programs for any type of bona fide fringe benefits within the meaning of 40 U.S.C. 3141(2)(B), including interest from the date of the underpayment or loss. Interest on any back wages or monetary relief provided for in this part will be calculated using the percentage established for the underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases where the Agency Head or the Administrator finds substantial evidence that such violations are willful and in violation of a criminal statute, the matter will be forwarded to the Attorney General of the United States for prosecution if the facts warrant. In all such cases the Administrator will be informed simultaneously of the action taken.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57741, Aug. 23, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.11   Disputes concerning payment of wages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section sets forth the procedure for resolution of disputes of fact or law concerning payment of prevailing wage rates, overtime pay, proper classification, or monetary relief for violations of § 5.5(a)(11) or (b)(5). The procedures in this section may be initiated upon the Administrator's own motion, upon referral of the dispute by a Federal agency pursuant to § 5.5(a)(9), or upon request of the contractor or subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In the event of a dispute described in paragraph (a) of this section in which it appears that relevant facts are at issue, the Administrator will notify the affected contractor and subcontractor, if any, by registered or certified mail to the last known address or by any other means normally assuring delivery, of the investigation findings. If the Administrator determines that there is reasonable cause to believe that either the contractor, the subcontractor, or both, should also be subject to debarment under the Davis-Bacon Act or any of the other applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1, the notification will so indicate.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor or subcontractor desiring a hearing concerning the Administrator's investigation findings must request such a hearing by letter or by any other means normally assuring delivery, sent within 30 days of the date of the Administrator's notification. The request must set forth those findings which are in dispute and the reasons therefor, including any affirmative defenses.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing, the Administrator will refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, with an attached copy of the notification from the Administrator and the response of the contractor or subcontractor, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to resolve the disputed matters. The hearings will be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in part 6 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In the event of a dispute described in paragraph (a) of this section in which it appears that there are no relevant facts at issue, and where there is not at that time reasonable cause to institute debarment proceedings under § 5.12, the Administrator will notify the contractor and subcontractor, if any, by registered or certified mail to the last known address or by any other means normally assuring delivery, of the investigation findings, and will issue a ruling on any issues of law known to be in dispute.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If the contractor or subcontractor disagrees with the factual findings of the Administrator or believes that there are relevant facts in dispute, the contractor or subcontractor must advise the Administrator by letter or by any other means normally assuring delivery, sent within 30 days of the date of the Administrator's notification. In the response, the contractor or subcontractor must explain in detail the facts alleged to be in dispute and attach any supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of a response under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section alleging the existence of a factual dispute, the Administrator will examine the information submitted. If the Administrator determines that there is a relevant issue of fact, the Administrator will refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section. If the Administrator determines that there is no relevant issue of fact, the Administrator will so rule and advise the contractor and subcontractor, if any, accordingly.
</P>
<P>(3) If the contractor or subcontractor desires review of the ruling issued by the Administrator under paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, the contractor or subcontractor must file a petition for review thereof with the Administrative Review Board within 30 days of the date of the ruling, with a copy thereof to the Administrator. The petition for review must be filed in accordance with part 7 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(d) If a timely response to the Administrator's findings or ruling is not made or a timely petition for review is not filed, the Administrator's findings or ruling will be final, except that with respect to debarment under the Davis-Bacon Act, the Administrator will advise the Comptroller General of the Administrator's recommendation in accordance with § 5.12(a)(2). If a timely response or petition for review is filed, the findings or ruling of the Administrator will be inoperative unless and until the decision is upheld by the Administrative Law Judge or the Administrative Review Board.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57741, Aug. 23, 2023]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.12   Debarment proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Debarment standard and ineligible list.</I> (1) Whenever any contractor or subcontractor is found by the Secretary of Labor to have disregarded their obligations to workers or subcontractors under the Davis-Bacon Act, any of the other applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1, this part, or part 3 of this subtitle, such contractor or subcontractor and their responsible officers, if any, and any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such contractor, subcontractor, or responsible officer has an interest will be ineligible for a period of 3 years to be awarded any contract or subcontract of the United States or the District of Columbia and any contract or subcontract subject to the labor standards provisions of any of the statutes referenced by § 5.1.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases arising under contracts covered by the Davis-Bacon Act, the Administrator will transmit to the Comptroller General the name(s) of the contractors or subcontractors and their responsible officers, if any, and any firms, corporations, partnerships, or associations in which the contractors, subcontractors, or responsible officers are known to have an interest, who have been found to have disregarded their obligations to workers or subcontractors, and the recommendation of the Secretary of Labor or authorized representative regarding debarment. In cases arising under contracts covered by any of the applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1 other than the Davis-Bacon Act, the Administrator determines the name(s) of the contractors or subcontractors and their responsible officers, if any, and any firms, corporations, partnerships, or associations in which the contractors, subcontractors, or responsible officers are known to have an interest, to be debarred. The names of such ineligible persons or firms will be published on SAM or its successor website, and an ineligible person or firm will be ineligible for a period of 3 years from the date of publication of their name on the ineligible list, to be awarded any contract or subcontract of the United States or the District of Columbia and any contract or subcontract subject to the labor standards provisions of any of the statutes referenced by § 5.1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> (1) In addition to cases under which debarment action is initiated pursuant to § 5.11, whenever as a result of an investigation conducted by the Federal agency or the Department of Labor, and where the Administrator finds reasonable cause to believe that a contractor or subcontractor has committed violations which constitute a disregard of its obligations to workers or subcontractors under the Davis-Bacon Act, the labor standards provisions of any of the other applicable statutes referenced by § 5.1, this part, or part 3 of this subtitle, the Administrator will notify by registered or certified mail to the last known address or by any other means normally assuring delivery, the contractor or subcontractor and responsible officers, if any, and any firms, corporations, partnerships, or associations in which the contractors, subcontractors, or responsible officers are known to have an interest of the finding.
</P>
<P>(i) The Administrator will afford such contractor, subcontractor, responsible officer, and any other parties notified an opportunity for a hearing as to whether debarment action should be taken under paragraph (a) of this section. The Administrator will furnish to those notified a summary of the investigative findings.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the contractor, subcontractor, responsible officer, or any other parties notified wish to request a hearing as to whether debarment action should be taken, such a request must be made by letter or by any other means normally assuring delivery, sent within 30 days of the date of the notification from the Administrator, and must set forth any findings which are in dispute and the basis for such disputed findings, including any affirmative defenses to be raised.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon timely receipt of such request for a hearing, the Administrator will refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, with an attached copy of the notification from the Administrator and the responses of the contractor, subcontractor, responsible officers, or any other parties notified, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to determine the matters in dispute.
</P>
<P>(iv) In considering debarment under any of the statutes referenced by § 5.1 other than the Davis-Bacon Act, the Administrative Law Judge will issue an order concerning whether the contractor, subcontractor, responsible officer, or any other party notified is to be debarred in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. In considering debarment under the Davis-Bacon Act, the Administrative Law Judge will issue a recommendation as to whether the contractor, subcontractor, responsible officers, or any other party notified should be debarred under 40 U.S.C. 3144(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Hearings under this section will be conducted in accordance with part 6 of this subtitle. If no hearing is requested within 30 days of the date of the notification from the Administrator, the Administrator's findings will be final, except with respect to recommendations regarding debarment under the Davis-Bacon Act, as set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interests of debarred parties.</I> (1) A finding as to whether persons or firms whose names appear on the ineligible list have an interest under 40 U.S.C. 3144(b) or paragraph (a) of this section in any other firm, corporation, partnership, or association, may be made through investigation, hearing, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The Administrator, on their own motion or after receipt of a request for a determination pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section, may make a finding on the issue of interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Administrator determines that there may be an interest but finds that there is insufficient evidence to render a final ruling thereon, the Administrator may refer the issue to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Administrator finds that no interest exists, or that there is not sufficient information to warrant the initiation of an investigation, the requesting party, if any, will be so notified and no further action taken.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) If the Administrator finds that an interest exists, the person or firm affected will be notified of the Administrator's finding (by certified mail to the last known address or by any other means normally assuring delivery), which will include the reasons therefore, and such person or firm will be afforded an opportunity to request that a hearing be held to decide the issue.
</P>
<P>(B) Such person or firm will have 20 days from the date of the Administrator's ruling to request a hearing. A person or firm desiring a hearing must request it by letter or by any other means normally assuring delivery, sent within 20 days of the date of the Administrator's notification. A detailed statement of the reasons why the Administrator's ruling is in error, including facts alleged to be in dispute, if any, must be submitted with the request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(C) If no hearing is requested within the time mentioned in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, the Administrator's finding will be final and the Administrator will notify the Comptroller General in cases arising under the DBA. If a hearing is requested, the ruling of the Administrator will be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Law Judge or the Administrative Review Board issues an order that there is an interest.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A request for a determination of interest may be made by any interested party, including contractors or prospective contractors and associations of contractors, representatives of workers, and interested agencies. Such a request must be submitted in writing to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(ii) The request must include a statement setting forth in detail why the petitioner believes that a person or firm whose name appears on the ineligible list has an interest in any firm, corporation, partnership, or association that is seeking or has been awarded a contract or subcontract of the United States or the District of Columbia, or a contract or subcontract that is subject to the labor standards provisions of any of the statutes referenced by § 5.1. No particular form is prescribed for the submission of a request under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The Administrator, on their own motion under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section or upon a request for hearing where the Administrator determines that relevant facts are in dispute, will by order refer the issue to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge who will conduct such hearings as may be necessary to render a decision solely on the issue of interest. Such proceedings must be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in part 6 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(5) If the person or firm affected requests a hearing and the Administrator determines that relevant facts are not in dispute, the Administrator will refer the issue and the record compiled thereon to the Administrative Review Board to render a decision solely on the issue of interest. Such proceeding must be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in part 7 of this subtitle.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57741, Aug. 23, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.13   Rulings and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All questions relating to the application and interpretation of wage determinations (including the classifications therein) issued pursuant to part 1 of this subtitle, of the rules contained in this part and in parts 1 and 3 of this subtitle, and of the labor standards provisions of any of the laws referenced in § 5.1 must be referred to the Administrator for appropriate ruling or interpretation. These rulings and interpretations are authoritative and those under the Davis-Bacon Act may be relied upon as provided for in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947 (29 U.S.C. 259). Requests for such rulings and interpretations should be submitted via email to <I>dgceinquiries@dol.gov</I>; by mail to Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave., NW, Washington, DC 20210; or through other means directed by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) If any such ruling or interpretation is made by an authorized representative of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, any interested party may seek reconsideration of the ruling or interpretation by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division. The procedures and time limits set out in § 1.8 of this subtitle apply to any such request for reconsideration.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57743, Aug. 23, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.14   Variations, tolerances, and exemptions from parts 1 and 3 of this subtitle and this part.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Labor may make variations, tolerances, and exemptions from the regulatory requirements of this part and those of parts 1 and 3 of this subtitle whenever the Secretary finds that such action is necessary and proper in the public interest or to prevent injustice and undue hardship. Variations, tolerances, and exemptions may not be made from the statutory requirements of any of the statutes listed in § 5.1 unless the statute specifically provides such authority. 








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.15   Limitations, variations, tolerances, and exemptions under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Upon his or her own initiative or upon the request of any Federal agency, the Secretary of Labor may provide under section 105 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act reasonable limitations and allow variations, tolerances, and exemptions to and from any or all provisions of that Act whenever the Secretary finds such action to be necessary and proper in the public interest to prevent injustice, or undue hardship, or to avoid serious impairment of the conduct of Government business. Any request for such action by the Secretary shall be submitted in writing, and shall set forth the reasons for which the request is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> Pursuant to section 105 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, the following classes of contracts are found exempt from all provisions of that Act in order to prevent injustice, undue hardship, or serious impairment of Government business: 
</P>
<P>(1) Contract work performed in a workplace within a foreign country or within territory under the jurisdiction of the United States other than the following: A State of the United States; the District of Columbia; Puerto Rico; the Virgin Islands; Outer Continental Shelf lands defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (ch. 345, 67 Stat. 462); American Samoa; Guam; Wake Island; Eniwetok Atoll; Kwajalein Atoll; and Johnston Island. 
</P>
<P>(2) Agreements entered into by or on behalf of the Commodity Credit Corporation providing for the storing in or handling by commercial warehouses of wheat, corn, oats, barley, rye, grain sorghums, soybeans, flaxseed, rice, naval stores, tobacco, peanuts, dry beans, seeds, cotton, and wool. 
</P>
<P>(3) Sales of surplus power by the Tennessee Valley Authority to States, counties, municipalities, cooperative organization of citizens or farmers, corporations and other individuals pursuant to section 10 of the Tennessee Valley Authority Act of 1933 (16 U.S.C. 8311). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tolerances.</I> (1) The “basic rate of pay” under section 102 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act may be computed as an hourly equivalent to the rate on which time-and-one-half overtime compensation may be computed and paid under section 7 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (29 U.S.C. 207), as interpreted in part 778 of this title. This tolerance is found to be necessary and proper in the public interest in order to prevent undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(2) Concerning the tolerance provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the provisions of section 7(d)(2) of the Fair Labor Standards Act and § 778.7 of this title should be noted. Under these provisions, payments for occasional periods when no work is performed, due to vacations, and similar causes are excludable from the “regular rate” under the Fair Labor Standards Act. Such payments, therefore, are also excludable from the “basic rate” under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act.
</P>
<P>(3) See § 5.8(c) providing a tolerance subdelegating authority to the heads of agencies to make appropriate adjustments in the assessment of liquidated damages totaling $500 or less under specified circumstances.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Time spent in an organized program of related, supplemental instruction by laborers or mechanics employed under bona fide apprenticeship programs may be excluded from working time if the criteria prescribed in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) The apprentice comes within the definition contained in § 5.2.
</P>
<P>(iii) The time in question does not involve productive work or performance of the apprentice's regular duties.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Variations.</I> (1) In the event of failure or refusal of the contractor or any subcontractor to comply with overtime pay requirements of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, if the funds withheld by Federal agencies for the violations are not sufficient to pay fully the unpaid wages and any back pay or other monetary relief due laborers and mechanics, with interest, and the liquidated damages due the United States, the available funds will be used first to compensate the laborers and mechanics for the wages to which they are entitled (or an equitable portion thereof when the funds are not adequate for this purpose); and the balance, if any, will be used for the payment of liquidated damages.


</P>
<P>(2) In the performance of any contract entered into pursuant to the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 620 to provide nursing home care of veterans, no contractor or subcontractor under such contract shall be deemed in violation of section 102 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act by virtue of failure to pay the overtime wages required by such section for work in excess of 40 hours in the workweek to any individual employed by an establishment which is an institution primarily engaged in the care of the sick, the aged, or the mentally ill or defective who reside on the premises if, pursuant to an agreement or understanding arrived at between the employer and the employee before performance of the work, a work period of 14 consecutive days is accepted in lieu of the workweek of 7 consecutive days for the purpose of overtime compensation and if such individual receives compensation for employment in excess of 8 hours in any workday and in excess of 80 hours in such 14-day period at a rate not less than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times the regular rate at which the individual is employed, computed in accordance with the requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any contractor or subcontractor performing on a government contract the principal purpose of which is the furnishing of fire fighting or suppression and related services, shall not be deemed to be in violation of section 102 of the Contract Work Hour and Safety Standards Act for failing to pay the overtime compensation required by section 102 of the Act in accordance with the basic rate of pay as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, to any pilot or copilot of a fixed-wing or rotary-wing aircraft employed on such contract if:
</P>
<P>(i) Pursuant to a written employment agreement between the contractor and the employee which is arrived at before performance of the work. 
</P>
<P>(A) The employee receives gross wages of not less than $300 per week regardless of the total number of hours worked in any workweek, and 
</P>
<P>(B) Within any workweek the total wages which an employee receives are not less than the wages to which the employee would have been entitled in that workweek if the employee were paid the minimum hourly wage required under the contract pursuant to the provisions of the Service Contract Act of 1965 and any applicable wage determination issued thereunder for all hours worked, plus an additional premium payment of one-half times such minimum hourly wage for all hours worked in excess of 40 hours in the workweek;
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractor maintains accurate records of the total daily and weekly hours of work performed by such employee on the government contract. In the event these conditions for the exemption are not met, the requirements of section 102 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act shall be applicable to the contract from the date the contractor or subcontractor fails to satisfy the conditions until completion of the contract.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Reporting and recordkeeping requirements in paragraph (d)(2) have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control numbers 1235-0023 and 1235-0018. Reporting and recordkeeping requirements in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0018)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 19541, Apr. 29, 1983, as amended at 51 FR 12265, Apr. 9, 1986; 61 FR 40716, Aug. 5, 1996; 82 FR 2226, Jan. 9, 2017; 88 FR 57743, Aug. 23, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.16   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.17   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.1.27.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.18   Remedies for retaliation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrator request to remedy violation.</I> When the Administrator finds that any person has discriminated in any way against any worker or job applicant in violation of § 5.5(a)(11) or (b)(5), or caused any person to discriminate in any way against any worker or job applicant in violation of § 5.5(a)(11) or (b)(5), the Administrator will notify the person, any contractors for whom the person worked or on whose behalf the person acted, and any upper tier contractors, as well as the relevant contracting agency(ies) of the discrimination and request that the person and any contractors for whom the person worked or on whose behalf the person acted remedy the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrator directive to remedy violation and provide make-whole relief.</I> If the person and any contractors for whom the person worked or on whose behalf the person acted do not remedy the violation, the Administrator in the notification of violation findings issued under § 5.11 or § 5.12 will direct the person and any contractors for whom the person worked or on whose behalf the person acted to provide appropriate make-whole relief to affected worker(s) and job applicant(s) or take appropriate remedial action, or both, to correct the violation, and will specify the particular relief and remedial actions to be taken.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of available make-whole relief and remedial actions.</I> Such relief and remedial actions may include, but are not limited to, employment, reinstatement, front pay in lieu of reinstatement, and promotion, together with back pay and interest; compensatory damages; restoration of the terms, conditions, and privileges of the worker's employment or former employment; the expungement of warnings, reprimands, or derogatory references; the provision of a neutral employment reference; and the posting of a notice to workers that the contractor or subcontractor agrees to comply with the Davis-Bacon Act and Related Acts anti-retaliation requirements.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57743, Aug. 23, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Interpretation of the Fringe Benefits Provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>29 FR 13465, Sept. 30, 1964, unless otherwise noted. 














</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 5.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.20   Scope and significance of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The 1964 amendments (Pub. L. 88-349) to the Davis-Bacon Act require, among other things, that the prevailing wage determined for Federal and federally assisted construction include the basic hourly rate of pay and the amount contributed by the contractor or subcontractor for certain fringe benefits (or the cost to them of such benefits). The purpose of this subpart is to explain the provisions of these amendments and make available in one place official interpretations of the fringe benefits provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act. These interpretations will guide the Department of Labor in carrying out its responsibilities under these provisions. These interpretations are intended also to provide guidance to contractors and their associations; laborers and mechanics and their organizations; and local, State, and Federal agencies. The interpretations contained in this subpart are authoritative and may be relied upon as provided for in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947 (29 U.S.C. 259). The omission to discuss a particular problem in this subpart or in interpretations supplementing it should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Secretary of Labor with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation, practice, or enforcement policy. Questions on matters not fully covered by this subpart may be referred to the Secretary for interpretation as provided in § 5.13.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57743, Aug. 23, 2023]

 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.21   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.22   Effect of the Davis-Bacon fringe benefits provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The Davis-Bacon Act and the prevailing wage provisions of the statutes referenced in § 1.1 of this subtitle confer upon the Secretary of Labor the authority to predetermine, as minimum wages, those wage rates found to be prevailing for corresponding classes of laborers and mechanics employed on projects of a character similar to the contract work in the area in which the work is to be performed. See the definitions of the terms “prevailing wage” and “area” in § 1.2 of this subtitle. The fringe benefits amendments enlarge the scope of this authority by including certain bona fide fringe benefits within the meaning of the terms “wages”, “scale of wages”, “wage rates”, “minimum wages”, and “prevailing wages”, as used in the Davis-Bacon Act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57744, Aug. 23, 2023]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.23   The statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to the Davis-Bacon Act, as amended and codified at 40 U.S.C. 3141(2), the term “prevailing wages” and similar terms include the basic hourly rate of pay and, for the listed fringe benefits and other bona fide fringe benefits not required by other law, the contributions irrevocably made by a contractor or subcontractor to a trustee or third party pursuant to a bona fide fringe benefit fund, plan, or program, and the costs to the contractor or subcontractor that may be reasonably anticipated in providing bona fide fringe benefits pursuant to an enforceable commitment to carry out a financially responsible plan or program, which was communicated in writing to the affected laborers and mechanics. Section 5.29 discusses specific fringe benefits that may be considered to be bona fide.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57744, Aug. 23, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.24   The basic hourly rate of pay.</HEAD>
<P>“The basic hourly rate of pay” is that part of a laborer's or mechanic's wages which the Secretary of Labor would have found and included in wage determinations prior to the 1964 amendments. The Secretary of Labor is required to continue to make a separate finding of this portion of the wage. In general, this portion of the wage is the cash payment made directly to the laborer or mechanic. It does not include fringe benefits. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.25   Rate of contribution or cost for fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the amendments, the Secretary is obligated to make a separate finding of the rate of contribution or cost of fringe benefits. Only the amount of contributions or costs for fringe benefits which meet the requirements of the act will be considered by the Secretary. These requirements are discussed in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) The rate of contribution or cost is ordinarily an hourly rate, and will be reflected in the wage determination as such. In some cases, however, the contribution or cost for certain fringe benefits may be expressed in a formula or method of payment other than an hourly rate. In such cases, the Secretary may in his discretion express in the wage determination the rate of contribution or cost used in the formula or method or may convert it to an hourly rate of pay whenever he finds that such action would facilitate the administration of the Act. See § 5.5(a)(1)(i) and (iii). 
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in this section, contractors must “annualize” all contributions to fringe benefit plans (or the reasonably anticipated costs of an unfunded benefit plan) to determine the hourly equivalent for which they may take credit against their fringe benefit obligation. The “annualization” principle reflects that DBRA credit for contributions made to bona fide fringe benefit plans (or the reasonably anticipated costs of an unfunded benefit plan) is allowed based on the effective rate of contributions or costs incurred for total hours worked during the year (or a shorter time period) by a laborer or mechanic.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Method of computation.</I> To annualize the cost of providing a fringe benefit, a contractor must divide the total cost of the fringe benefit contribution (or the reasonably anticipated costs of an unfunded benefit plan) by the total number of hours worked on both private (non-DBRA) work and work covered by the Davis-Bacon Act and/or Davis-Bacon Related Acts (DBRA-covered work) during the time period to which the cost is attributable to determine the rate of contribution per hour. If the amount of contribution varies per worker, credit must be determined separately for the amount contributed on behalf of each worker.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception requests.</I> Contractors, plans, and other interested parties may request an exception from the annualization requirement by submitting a request to the WHD Administrator. A request for an exception may be granted only if each of the requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied. Contributions to defined contribution pension plans (DCPPs) are excepted from the annualization requirement, and exception requests therefore are not required in connection with DCPPs, provided that each of the requirements of paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied and the DCPP provides for immediate participation and essentially immediate vesting (<I>i.e.,</I> the benefit vests within the first 500 hours worked). Requests must be submitted in writing to the Division of Government Contracts Enforcement by email to <I>DBAannualization@dol.gov</I> or by mail to Director, Division of Government Contracts Enforcement, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave. NW, Room S-3502, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception requirements.</I> Contributions to a bona fide fringe benefit plan (or the reasonably anticipated costs of an unfunded benefit plan) are excepted from the annualization requirement if all of the following criteria are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) The benefit provided is not continuous in nature. A benefit is not continuous in nature when it is not available to a participant without penalty throughout the year or other time period to which the cost of the benefit is attributable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The benefit does not compensate both private work and DBRA-covered work. A benefit does not compensate both private and DBRA-covered work if any benefits attributable to periods of private work are wholly paid for by compensation for private work.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 13465, Sept. 30, 1964, as amended at 88 FR 57744, Aug. 23, 2023]


















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.26   “* * * contribution irrevocably made * * * to a trustee or to a third person”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> The following requirements apply to any fringe benefit contributions made to a trustee or to a third person pursuant to a fund, plan, or program:
</P>
<P>(1) Such contributions must be made irrevocably;
</P>
<P>(2) The trustee or third person may not be affiliated with the contractor or subcontractor;
</P>
<P>(3) A trustee must adhere to any fiduciary responsibilities applicable under law; and
</P>
<P>(4) The trust or fund must not permit the contractor or subcontractor to recapture any of the contributions paid in or any way divert the funds to its own use or benefit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Excess payments.</I> Notwithstanding the above, a contractor or subcontractor may recover sums which it had paid to a trustee or third person in excess of the contributions actually called for by the plan, such as excess payments made in error or in order to cover the estimated cost of contributions at a time when the exact amount of the necessary contributions is not yet known. For example, a benefit plan may provide for definite insurance benefits for employees in the event of contingencies such as death, sickness, or accident, with the cost of such definite benefits borne by the contractor or subcontractor. In such a case, if the insurance company returns the amount that the contractor or subcontractor paid in excess of the amount required to provide the benefits, this will not be deemed a recapture or diversion by the employer of contributions made pursuant to the plan. (<I>See</I> Report of the Senate Committee on Labor and Public Welfare, S. Rep. No. 963, 88th Cong., 2d Sess., p. 5.)


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57744, Aug. 23, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.27" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.27   “* * * fund, plan, or program”.</HEAD>
<P>The contributions for fringe benefits must be made pursuant to a fund, plan or program (sec. 1(b)(2)(A) of the act). The phrase “fund, plan, or program” is merely intended to recognize the various types of arrangements commonly used to provide fringe benefits through employer contributions. The phrase is identical with language contained in section 3(1) of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act. In interpreting this phrase, the Secretary will be guided by the experience of the Department in administering the latter statute. (See Report of Senate Committee on Labor and Public Welfare, S. Rep. No. 963, 88th Cong., 2d Sess., p. 5.) 












</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.28" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.28   Unfunded plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The costs to a contractor or subcontractor which may be reasonably anticipated in providing benefits of the types described in the Act, pursuant to an enforceable commitment to carry out a financially responsible plan or program, are considered fringe benefits within the meaning of the Act (<I>see</I> 40 U.S.C. 3141(2)(B)(ii)). The legislative history suggests that these provisions were intended to permit the consideration of fringe benefits meeting these requirements, among others, and which are provided from the general assets of a contractor or subcontractor. (Report of the House Committee on Education and Labor, H. Rep. No. 308, 88th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 4; <I>see also</I> S. Rep. No. 963, p. 6.)
</P>
<P>(b) Such a benefit plan or program, commonly referred to as an unfunded plan, may not constitute a fringe benefit within the meaning of the Act unless:
</P>
<P>(1) It could be reasonably anticipated to provide the benefits described in the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) It represents a commitment that can be legally enforced;
</P>
<P>(3) It is carried out under a financially responsible plan or program;
</P>
<P>(4) The plan or program providing the benefits has been communicated in writing to the laborers and mechanics affected; and
</P>
<P>(5) The contractor or subcontractor requests and receives approval of the plan or program from the Secretary, as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) To receive approval of an unfunded plan or program, a contractor or subcontractor must demonstrate in its request to the Secretary that the unfunded plan or program, and the benefits provided under such plan or program, are “bona fide,” meet the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section, and are otherwise consistent with the Act. The request must include sufficient documentation to enable the Secretary to evaluate these criteria. Contractors and subcontractors may request approval of an unfunded plan or program by submitting a written request in one of the following manners:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail to the United States Department of Labor, Wage and Hour Division, Director, Division of Government Contracts Enforcement, 200 Constitution Ave. NW, Room S-3502, Washington, DC 20210;
</P>
<P>(2) By email to <I>unfunded@dol.gov</I> (or its successor email address); or
</P>
<P>(3) By any other means directed by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(d) Unfunded plans or programs may not be used as a means of avoiding the Act's requirements. The words “reasonably anticipated” require that any unfunded plan or program be able to withstand a test of actuarial soundness. Moreover, as in the case of other fringe benefits payable under the Act, an unfunded plan or program must be “bona fide” and not a mere simulation or sham for avoiding compliance with the Act. To prevent these provisions from being used to avoid compliance with the Act, the Secretary may direct a contractor or subcontractor to set aside in an account assets which, under sound actuarial principles, will be sufficient to meet future obligations under the plan. Such an account must be preserved for the purpose intended. (S. Rep. No. 963, p. 6.)


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57744, Aug. 23, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.29" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.29   Specific fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The act lists all types of fringe benefits which the Congress considered to be common in the construction industry as a whole. These include the following: Medical or hospital care, pensions on retirement or death, compensation for injuries or illness resulting from occupational activity, or insurance to provide any of the foregoing, unemployment benefits, life insurance, disability and sickness insurance, or accident insurance, vacation and holiday pay, defrayment of costs of apprenticeship or other similar programs, or other bona fide fringe benefits, but only where the contractor or subcontractor is not required by other Federal, State, or local law to provide any of such benefits. 
</P>
<P>(b) The legislative history indicates that it was not the intent of the Congress to impose specific standards relating to administration of fringe benefits. It was assumed that the majority of fringe benefits arrangements of this nature will be those which are administered in accordance with requirements of section 302(c)(5) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended (S. Rep. No. 963, p. 5). 
</P>
<P>(c) The term “other bona fide fringe benefits” is the so-called “open end” provision. This was included so that new fringe benefits may be recognized by the Secretary as they become prevailing. It was pointed out that a particular fringe benefit need not be recognized beyond a particular area in order for the Secretary to find that it is prevailing in that area. (S. Rep. No. 963, p. 6). 
</P>
<P>(d) The legislative reports indicate that, to insure against considering and giving credit to any and all fringe benefits, some of which might be illusory or not genuine, the qualification was included that such fringe benefits must be “bona fide” (H. Rep. No. 308, p. 4; S. Rep. No. 963, p. 6). No difficulty is anticipated in determining whether a particular fringe benefit is “bona fide” in the ordinary case where the benefits are those common in the construction industry and which are established under a usual fund, plan, or program. This would be typically the case of those fringe benefits listed in paragraph (a) of this section which are funded under a trust or insurance program. Contractors may take credit for contributions made under such conventional plans without requesting the approval of the Secretary of Labor under § 5.5(a)(1)(iv). 
</P>
<P>(e) Where the plan is not of the conventional type described in paragraph (d) of this section, the Secretary must examine the facts and circumstances to determine whether fringe benefits under the plan are “bona fide” in accordance with requirements of the Act. This is particularly true with respect to unfunded plans discussed in § 5.28. Contractors or subcontractors seeking credit under the Act for costs incurred for such plans must request specific approval from the Secretary under § 5.5(a)(1)(iv).








</P>
<P>(f) The act excludes fringe benefits which a contractor or subcontractor is obligated to provide under other Federal, State, or local law. No credit may be taken under the act for the payments made for such benefits. For example, payment for workmen's compensation insurance under either a compulsory or elective State statute are not considered payments for fringe benefits under the Act. While each situation must be separately considered on its own merits, payments made for travel, subsistence or to industry promotion funds are not normally payments for fringe benefits under the Act. The omission in the Act of any express reference to these payments, which are common in the construction industry, suggests that these payments should not normally be regarded as bona fide fringe benefits under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(g) For a contractor or subcontractor to take credit for the costs of an apprenticeship program, the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The program, in addition to meeting all other relevant requirements for fringe benefits in this subpart, must be registered with the Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration, Office of Apprenticeship (“OA”), or with a State Apprenticeship Agency recognized by the OA.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor or subcontractor may only take credit for amounts reasonably related to the costs of the apprenticeship benefits actually provided to the contractor's employees, such as instruction, books, and tools or materials. It may not take credit for voluntary contributions beyond such costs. Amounts the employer is required to contribute by a collective bargaining agreement or by a bona fide apprenticeship plan will be presumed to be reasonably related to such costs in the absence of evidence to the contrary.
</P>
<P>(3) Costs incurred for the apprenticeship for one classification of laborer or mechanic may not be used to offset costs incurred for another classification.
</P>
<P>(4) In applying the annualization principle to compute the allowable fringe benefit credit pursuant to § 5.25, the total number of working hours of employees to which the cost of an apprenticeship program is attributable is limited to the total number of hours worked by laborers and mechanics in the apprentice's classification. For example, if a contractor enrolls an employee in an apprenticeship program for carpenters, the permissible hourly Davis-Bacon credit is determined by dividing the cost of the program by the total number of hours worked by the contractor's carpenters and carpenters' apprentices on covered and non-covered projects during the time period to which the cost is attributable, and such credit may only be applied against the contractor's prevailing wage obligations for all carpenters and carpenters' apprentices for each hour worked on the covered project.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 13465, Sept. 30, 1964, as amended at 88 FR 57745, Aug. 23, 2023]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.30   Types of wage determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When fringe benefits are prevailing for various classes of laborers and mechanics in the area of proposed construction, such benefits are includable in any Davis-Bacon wage determination. The examples contained in paragraph (c) of this section demonstrate how fringe benefits may be listed on wage determinations in such cases.
</P>
<P>(b) Wage determinations do not include fringe benefits for various classes of laborers and mechanics whenever such benefits do not prevail in the area of proposed construction. When this occurs, the wage determination will contain only the basic hourly rates of pay which are prevailing for the various classes of laborers and mechanics. An illustration of this situation is contained in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The following illustrates examples of the situations discussed in paragraph (a) and (b) of this section:
</P>
<HD1>Figure 1 to Paragraph (c)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er23au23.002.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57745, Aug. 23, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.31   Meeting wage determination obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A contractor or subcontractor performing work subject to a Davis-Bacon wage determination may discharge their minimum wage obligations for the payment of both straight time wages and fringe benefits by paying in cash, making payments or incurring costs for “bona fide” fringe benefits of the types listed in the applicable wage determination or otherwise found prevailing by the Secretary of Labor, or by a combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) A contractor or subcontractor may discharge their obligations for the payment of the basic hourly rates and the fringe benefits where both are contained in a wage determination applicable to their laborers or mechanics in the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) By paying not less than the basic hourly rate to the laborers or mechanics and by making contributions for “bona fide” fringe benefits in a total amount not less than the total of the fringe benefits required by the wage determination. For example, the obligations for “Laborer: common or general” in § 5.30, figure 1 to paragraph (c), will be met by the payment of a straight time hourly rate of not less than $21.93 and by contributions of not less than a total of $6.27 an hour for “bona fide” fringe benefits; or
</P>
<P>(2) By paying in cash directly to laborers or mechanics for the basic hourly rate and by making an additional cash payment in lieu of the required benefits. For example, where an employer does not make payments or incur costs for fringe benefits, they would meet their obligations for “Laborer: common or general” in § 5.30, figure 1 to paragraph (c), by paying directly to the laborers a straight time hourly rate of not less than $28.60 ($21.93 basic hourly rate plus $6.27 for fringe benefits); or
</P>
<P>(3) As stated in paragraph (a) of this section, the contractor or subcontractor may discharge their minimum wage obligations for the payment of straight time wages and fringe benefits by a combination of the methods illustrated in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section. Thus, for example, their obligations for “Laborer: common or general” may be met by an hourly rate, partly in cash and partly in payments or costs for fringe benefits which total not less than $28.60 ($21.93 basic hourly rate plus $6.27 for fringe benefits).




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57746, Aug. 23, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.32   Overtime payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The act excludes amounts paid by a contractor or subcontractor for fringe benefits in the computation of overtime under the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, and the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act whenever the overtime provisions of any of these statutes apply concurrently with the Davis-Bacon Act or its related prevailing wage statutes. It is clear from the legislative history that in no event can the regular or basic rate upon which premium pay for overtime is calculated under the aforementioned Federal statutes be less than the amount determined by the Secretary of Labor as the basic hourly rate (i.e. cash rate) under section 1(b)(1) of the Davis-Bacon Act. (See S. Rep. No. 963, p. 7.) Contributions by employees are not excluded from the regular or basic rate upon which overtime is computed under these statutes; that is, an employee's regular or basic straight-time rate is computed on his earnings before any deductions are made for the employee's contributions to fringe benefits. The contractor's contributions or costs for fringe benefits may be excluded in computing such rate so long as the exclusions do not reduce the regular or basic rate below the basic hourly rate contained in the wage determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) The legislative report notes that the phrase “contributions irrevocably made by a contractor or subcontractor to a trustee or to a third person pursuant to a fund, plan, or program” was added to the bill in Committee. This language in essence conforms to the overtime provisions of section 7(d)(4) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended. The intent of the committee was to prevent any avoidance of overtime requirements under existing law. See H. Rep. No. 308, p. 5. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The act permits a contractor or subcontractor to pay a cash equivalent of any fringe benefits found prevailing by the Secretary of Labor. Such a cash equivalent would also be excludable in computing the regular or basic rate under the Federal overtime laws mentioned in paragraph (a). For example, the W construction contractor pays his laborers or mechanics $3.50 in cash under a wage determination of the Secretary of Labor which requires a basic hourly rate of $3 and a fringe benefit contribution of 50 cents. The contractor pays the 50 cents in cash because he made no payments and incurred no costs for fringe benefits. Overtime compensation in this case would be computed on a regular or basic rate of $3.00 an hour. However, in some cases a question of fact may be presented in ascertaining whether or not a cash payment made to laborers or mechanics is actually in lieu of a fringe benefit or is simply part of their straight time cash wage. In the latter situation, the cash payment is not excludable in computing overtime compensation. Consider the examples set forth in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The X construction contractor has for some time been paying $3.25 an hour to a mechanic as his basic cash wage plus 50 cents an hour as a contribution to a welfare and pension plan. The Secretary of Labor determines that a basic hourly rate of $3 an hour and a fringe benefit contribution of 50 cents are prevailing. The basic hourly rate or regular rate for overtime purposes would be $3.25, the rate actually paid as a basic cash wage for the employee of X, rather than the $3 rate determined as prevailing by the Secretary of Labor. 
</P>
<P>(3) Under the same prevailing wage determination, discussed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Y construction contractor who has been paying $3 an hour as his basic cash wage on which he has been computing overtime compensation reduces the cash wage to $2.75 an hour but computes his costs of benefits under section 1(b)(2)(B) as $1 an hour. In this example the regular or basic hourly rate would continue to be $3 an hour. See S. Rep. No. 963, p. 7.












</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.2.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.33   Administrative expenses of a contractor or subcontractor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Creditable costs.</I> The costs incurred by a contractor's insurance carrier, third-party trust fund, or other third-party administrator that are directly related to the administration and delivery of bona fide fringe benefits to the contractor's laborers and mechanics can be credited towards the contractor's obligations under a Davis-Bacon wage determination. Thus, for example, a contractor may take credit for the premiums it pays to an insurance carrier or the contributions it makes to a third-party trust fund that both administers and delivers bona fide fringe benefits under a plan, where the insurance carrier or third-party trust fund uses those monies to pay for bona fide fringe benefits and for the administration and delivery of such benefits, including evaluating benefit claims, deciding whether they should be paid, approving referrals to specialists, and other reasonable costs of administering the plan. Similarly, a contractor may also take credit for monies paid to a third-party administrator to perform tasks that are directly related to the administration and delivery of bona fide fringe benefits, including under an unfunded plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Noncreditable costs.</I> A contractor's own administrative expenses incurred in connection with the provision of fringe benefits are considered business expenses of the firm and are therefore not creditable towards the contractor's prevailing wage obligations, including when the contractor pays a third party to perform such tasks in whole or in part. For example, a contractor may not take credit for the costs of office employees who perform tasks such as filling out medical insurance claim forms for submission to an insurance carrier, paying and tracking invoices from insurance carriers or plan administrators, updating the contractor's personnel records when workers are hired or separate from employment, sending lists of new hires and separations to insurance carriers or plan administrators, or sending out tax documents to the contractor's workers, nor can the contractor take credit for the cost of paying a third-party entity to perform these tasks. Additionally, recordkeeping costs associated with ensuring the contractor's compliance with the Davis-Bacon fringe benefit requirements, such as the cost of tracking the amount of a contractor's fringe benefit contributions or making sure contributions cover the fringe benefit amount claimed, are considered a contractor's own administrative expenses and are not considered directly related to the administration and delivery of bona fide fringe benefits. Thus, such costs are not creditable whether the contractor performs those tasks itself or whether it pays a third party a fee to perform those tasks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Questions regarding administrative expenses.</I> Any questions regarding whether a particular cost or expense is creditable towards a contractor's prevailing wage obligations should be referred to the Administrator for resolution prior to any such credit being claimed.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57747, Aug. 23, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Severability</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 57747, Aug. 23, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 5.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.6.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.40   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part are separate and severable and operate independently from one another. If any provision of this part is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision is to be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding is one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision is severable from this part and will not affect the remaining provisions.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 6—RULES OF PRACTICE FOR ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEEDINGS ENFORCING LABOR STANDARDS IN FEDERAL AND FEDERALLY ASSISTED CONSTRUCTION CONTRACTS AND FEDERAL SERVICE CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4 and 5, 79 Stat. 1034, 1035 as amended by 86 Stat. 789, 790, 41 U.S.C. 353 and 354; 5 U.S.C. 301; Reorg. Plan No. 14 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1267, 5 U.S.C. Appendix; 46 Stat. 1494, as amended by 49 Stat. 1011, 78 Stat. 238, 40 U.S.C. 276a-276a-7; 76 Stat. 357-359, 40 U.S.C. 327-332; 48 Stat. 948, as amended by 63 Stat. 108, 72 Stat. 967, 40 U.S.C. 276c.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 10627, Mar. 21, 1984, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 6 appear at 61 FR 19984, May 3, 1996.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.1   Applicability of rules.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides the rules of practice for administrative proceedings under the Service Contract Act, the Davis-Bacon Act and related statutes listed in § 5.1 of part 5 of this title which require payment of wages determined in accordance with the Davis-Bacon Act, the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, and the Copeland Act. See parts 4 and 5 of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Associate Solicitor</I> means the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chief Administrative Law Judge</I> means the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington DC 20001-8002.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Respondent</I> means the contractor, subcontractor, person alleged to be responsible under the contract or subcontract, and/or any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such person or firm is alleged to have a substantial interest (or interest, if the proceeding is under the Davis-Bacon Act) against whom the proceedings are brought.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 10627, Mar. 21, 1984, as amended at 56 FR 54708, Oct. 22, 1991; 82 FR 2226, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.3   Service; copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Manner of service.</I> Service upon any party shall be made by the party filing the pleading or document by delivering a copy or mailing a copy to the last known address. When a party is represented by an attorney, the service should be upon the attorney. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate of the person serving the pleading or other document by personal delivery or by mailing, setting forth the manner of said service shall be proof of the service. Where service is made by mail, service shall be complete upon mailing. However, documents are not deemed filed until received by the Chief Clerk at the Office of Administrative Law Judges and where documents are filed by mail 5 days shall be added to the prescribed period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service upon Department, number of copies of pleading or other documents.</I> An original and three copies of all pleadings and other documents shall be filed with the Department of Labor: The original and one copy with the Administrative Law Judge before whom the case is pending, one copy with the attorney representing the Department during the hearing, and one copy with the Associate Solicitor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.4   Subpoenas (Service Contract Act).</HEAD>
<P>All applications under the Service Contract Act for subpoenas ad testificandum and subpoenas duces tecum shall be made in writing to the Administrative Law Judge. Application for subpoenas duces tecum shall specify as exactly as possible the documents to be produced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.5   Production of documents and witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>The parties, who shall be deemed to be the Department of Labor and the respondent(s), may serve on any other party a request to produce documents or witnesses in the control of the party served, setting forth with particularity the documents or witnesses requested. The party served shall have 15 days to respond or object thereto unless a shorter or longer time is ordered by the Administrative Law Judge. The parties shall produce documents and witnesses to which no privilege attaches which are in the control of the party, if so ordered by the Administrative Law Judge upon motion therefor by a party. If a privilege is claimed, it must be specifically claimed in writing prior to the hearing or orally at the hearing or deposition, including the reasons therefor. In no event shall a statement taken in confidence by the Department of Labor or other Federal agency be ordered to be produced prior to the date of testimony at trial of the person whose statement is at issue unless the consent of such person has been obtained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.6   Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Equal Access to Justice Act.</I> Proceedings under this part are not subject to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act (Pub. L. 96-481). In any hearing conducted pursuant to the provisions of this part 6, Administrative Law Judges shall have no power or authority to award attorney fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contumacious conduct: failure or refusal of a witness to appear or answer.</I> Contumacious conduct at any hearing before an Administrative Law Judge shall be ground for exclusion from the hearing., In cases arising under the Service Contract Act, the failure or refusal of a witness to appear at any hearing or at a deposition when so ordered by the Administrative Law Judge, or to answer any question which has been ruled to be proper, shall be ground for the action provided in section 5 of the Act of June 30, 1936 (41 U.S.C. 39) and, in the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge, for striking out all or part of the testimony which may have been given by such witness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.7   Appearances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Representation.</I> The parties may appear in person, by counsel, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to appear.</I> In the event that a party appears at the hearing and no party appears for the opposing side, the presiding Administrative Law Judge is authorized, if such party fails to show good cause for such failure to appear, to dismiss the case or to find the facts as alleged in the complaint and to enter a default judgment containing such findings, conclusions and order as are appropriate. Only where a petition for review of such default judgment cites alleged procedural irregularities in the proceeding below and not the merits of the case shall a non-appearing party be permitted to file such a petition for review. Failure to appear at a hearing shall not be deemed to be a waiver of the right to be served with a copy of the Administrative Law Judge's decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.1.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.8   Transmission of record.</HEAD>
<P>If a petition for review of the Administrative Law Judge's decision is filed with the Administrative Review Board, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly transmit the record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>If a petition for review is not filed within the time prescribed in this part, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall so advise the Administrator. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enforcement Proceedings Under the Service Contract Act (and Under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act for Contracts Subject to the Service Contract Act)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.15   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Enforcement proceedings under the Service Contract Act and under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act for contracts subject to the Service Contract Act, may be instituted by the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards or a Regional Solicitor by issuing a complaint and causing the complaint to be served upon the respondent.
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint shall contain a clear and concise factual statement of the grounds for relief and the relief requested.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrative Law Judge shall notify the parties of the time and place for a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.16   Answers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after the service of the complaint the respondent shall file an answer with the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The answer shall be signed by the respondent or his/her attorney.
</P>
<P>(b) The answer shall (1) contain a statement of the facts which constitute the grounds of defense, and shall specifically admit, explain, or deny each of the allegations of the complaint unless the respondent is without knowledge, in which case the answer shall so state; or (2) state that the respondent admits all of the allegations of the complaint. The answer may contain a waiver of hearing. Failure to file an answer to or plead specifically to any allegation of the complaint shall constitute an admission of such allegation.
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to file an answer shall constitute grounds for waiver of hearing and entry of a default judgment unless respondent shows good cause for such failure to file. In preparing the decision of default judgment the Administrative Law Judge shall adopt as findings of fact the material facts alleged in the complaint and shall order the appropriate relief and/or sanctions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.17   Amendments to pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>At any time prior to the close of the hearing record, the complaint or answer may be amended with the permission of the Administrative Law Judge and on such terms as he/she may approve. When issues not raised by the pleadings are reasonably within the scope of the original complaint and are tried by express or implied consent of the parties, they shall be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the pleadings, and such amendments may be made as necessary to make them conform to the evidence. Such amendments shall be allowed when justice and the presentation of the merits are served thereby, provided there is no prejudice to the objecting party's presentation on the merits. A continuance in the hearing may be granted or the record left open to enable the new allegations to be addressed. The presiding Administrative Law Judge may, upon reasonable notice and upon such terms as are just, permit supplemental pleadings setting forth transactions, occurrences or events which have happened since the data of the pleadings and which are relevant to any of the issues involved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.18   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the receipt of evidence or, at the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge, prior to the issuance of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge, the parties may enter into consent findings and an order disposing of the processings in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding in whole or in part shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the complaint and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the Administrative Law Judge and Administrative Review Board regarding those matters which are the subject of the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings and order. If such agreement disposes of only a part of the disputed matter, a hearing shall be conducted on the matters remaining in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.19   Decision of the Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within 20 days of filing of the transcript of the testimony or such additional time as the Administrative Law Judge may allow each party may file with the Administrative Law Judge proposed findings of fact, conclusion of law, and order, together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and brief shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the Administrative Law Judge.</I> (1) Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within 30 days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall make his/her decision. If any aggrieved party desires review of the decision, a petition for review thereof shall be filed as provided in § 6.20 of this title, and such decision and order shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Review Board issues an order affirming the decision. The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, with reasons and bases therefor, upon each material issue of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record. The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be based upon a consideration of the whole record, including any admissions made under §§ 6.16, 6.17 and 6.18 of this title. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. Such decision shall be in accordance with the regulations and rulings contained in parts 4 and 5 and other pertinent parts of this title.
</P>
<P>(2) If the respondent is found to have violated the Service Contract Act, the Administrative Law Judge shall include in his/her decision an order as to whether the respondent is to be relieved from the ineligible list as provided in section 5(a) of the Act, and, if relief is ordered, findings of the unusual circumstance, within the meaning of section 5(a) of the Act, which are the basis therefor. If respondent is found to have violated the provisions of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue an order as to whether the respondent is to be subject to the ineligible list as provided in § 5.12(a)(1) of part 4 of this title, including findings regarding the existence of aggravated or willful violations. If wages and/or fringe benefits are found due under the Service Contract Act and/or the Contract Work Safety Standards Act and are unpaid, no relief from the ineligible list shall be ordered except on condition that such wages and/or fringe benefits are paid. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Administrative Law Judge shall make no findings regarding liquidated damages under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.20   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>Within 40 days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge (or such additional time as is granted by the Administrative Review Board), any party aggrieved thereby who desires review thereof shall file a petition for review of the decision with supporting reasons. Such party shall transmit the petition in writing to the Administrative Review Board pursuant to 29 CFR part 8, with a copy thereof to the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The petition shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order at issue. A petition concerning the decision on the ineligibility list shall also state the unusual circumstances or lack thereof under the Service Contract Act, and/or the aggravated or willful violations of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act or lack thereof, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.21   Ineligible list.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the final decision of the Administrative Law Judge or Administrative Review Board, as appropriate, the Administrator shall within 90 days forward to the Comptroller General the name of any respondent found in violation of the Service Contract Act, including the name of any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which the respondent has a substantial interest, unless such decision orders relief from the ineligible list because of unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the final decision of the Administrative Law Judge or the Administrative Review Board, as appropriate, the Administrator promptly shall forward to the Comptroller General the name of any respondent found to be in aggravated or willful violation of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, and the name of any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which the respondent has a substantial interest.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Enforcement Proceedings Under the Davis-Bacon Act and Related Prevailing Wage Statutes, the Copeland Act, and the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (Except Under Contracts Subject to the Service Contract Act)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.30   Referral to Chief Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon timely receipt of a request for a hearing under § 5.11 (where the Administrator has determined that relevant facts are in dispute) or § 5.12 of part 5 of this title, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the notification letter to the respondent from the Administrator and response thereto, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to decide the disputed matters. A copy of the Order of Reference and attachments thereto shall be served upon the respondent.
</P>
<P>(b) The notification letter from the Administrator and response thereto shall be given the effect of a complaint and answer, respectively, for purposes of the administrative proceedings. The notification letter and response shall be in accordance with the provisions of § 5.11 or § 5.12(b)(1) of part 5 of this title, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.31   Amendments to pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>At any time prior to the closing of the hearing record, the complaint (notification letter) or answer (response) may be amended with the permission of the Administrative Law Judge and upon such terms as he/she may approve. For proceedings pursuant to § 5.11 of part 5 of this title, such an amendment may include a statement that debarment action is warranted under § 5.12(a)(1) of part 5 of this title or under section 3(a) of the Davis-Bacon Act. Such amendments shall be allowed when justice and the presentation of the merits are served thereby, provided there is no prejudice to the objecting party's presentation on the merits. When issues not raised by the pleadings are reasonably within the scope of the original complaint and are tried by express or implied consent of the parties, they shall be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the pleadings, and such amendments may be made as necessary to make them conform to the evidence. The presiding Administrative Law Judge may, upon reasonable notice and upon such terms as are just, permit supplemental pleadings setting forth transactions, occurrences or events which have happened since the date of the pleadings and which are relevant to any of the issues involved. A continuance in the hearing may be granted or the record left open to enable the new allegations to be addressed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.32   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the receipt of evidence or, at the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge, prior to the issuance of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge, the parties may enter into consent findings and an order disposing of the proceeding in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding in whole or in part shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the complaint and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) That any order concerning debarment under the Davis-Bacon Act (but not under any of the other statutes listed in § 5.1 of part 5 of this title) shall constitute a recommendation to the Comptroller General;
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the Administrative Law Judge and the Administrative Review Board regarding those matters which are the subject of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(5) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings and order. If such agreement disposes of only a part of the disputed matter, a hearing shall be conducted on the matters remaining in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.33   Decision of the Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within 20 days of filing of the transcript of the testimony or such additional time as the Administrative Law Judge may allow, each party may file with the Administrative Law Judge proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and brief shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the Administrative Law Judge.</I> (1) Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within 30 days of receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall make his/her decision. If any aggrieved party desires review of the decision, a petition for review thereof shall be filed as provided in § 6.34 of this title, and such decision and order shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Review Board either declines to review the decision or issues an order affirming the decision. The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, with reasons and bases therefor, upon each material issue of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record. Such decision shall be in accordance with the regulations and rulings contained in part 5 and other pertinent parts of this title. The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be based upon a consideration of the whole record, including any admissions made in the respondent's answer (response) and § 6.32 of this title. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the respondent is found to have violated the labor standards provisions of any of the statutes listed in § 5.1 of part 5 of this title other than the Davis-Bacon Act, and if debarment action was requested pursuant to the complaint (notification letter) or any amendment thereto, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue an order as to whether the respondent is to be subject to the ineligible list as provided in § 5.12(a)(1) of this title, including any findings of aggravated or willful violations. If the respondent is found to have violated the Davis-Bacon Act, and if debarment action was requested, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue as a part of the order a recommendation as to whether respondent should be subject to the ineligible list pursuant to section 3(a) of the Act, including any findings regarding respondent's disregard of obligations to employees and subcontractors. If wages are found due and are unpaid, no relief from the ineligible list shall be ordered or recommended except on condition that such wages are paid.
</P>
<P>(3) The Administrative Law Judge shall make no findings regarding liquidated damages under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.34" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.34   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>Within 40 days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law judge (or such additional time as is granted by the Administrative Review Board). any party aggrieved thereby who desires review thereof shall file a petition for review of the decision with supporting reasons. Such party shall transmit the petition in writing to the Administrative Review Board, pursuant to part 7 of this title, with a copy thereof to the Chief Administrative Law judge. The petition shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order at issue. A petition concerning the decision on debarment shall also state the aggravated or willful violations and/or disregard of obligations to employees and subcontractors, or lack thereof, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.35" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.35   Ineligible lists.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the final decision of the Administrative Law Judge or Administrative Review Board, as appropriate, regarding violations of any statute listed in § 5.1 of part 5 of this title other than the Davis-Bacon Act, the Administrator promptly shall foward to the Comptroller General the name of any respondent found to have committed aggravated or willful violations of the labor standards provisions of such statute, and the name of any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such respondent has a substantial interest. Upon the final decision of the Administrative Law Judge or Administrative Review Board, as appropriate, regarding violations of the Davis-Bacon Act, the Administrator promptly shall forward to the Comptroller General any recommendation regarding debarment action against a respondent, and the name of any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such respondent has an interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Substantial Interest Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.40   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart supplements the procedures contained in § 4.12 of part 4 and § 5.12(d) of part 5 of this title, and states the rules of practice applicable to hearings to determine whether persons of firms whose names appear on the ineligible list pursuant to section 5(a) of the Service Contract Act or § 5.12(a)(1) of part 5 of this title have a substantial interest in any firm, corporation, partnership, or association other than those listed on the ineligible list; and/or to determine whether persons or firms whose names appear on the ineligible list pursuant to section 3(a) of the Davis-Bacon Act have an interest in any firm, corporation, partnership, or association other than those listed on the ineligible list.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.41" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.41   Referral to Chief Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon timely receipt of a request for a hearing under § 4.12 of part 4 or § 5.12 of part 5 of this title, where the Administrator has determined that relevant facts are in dispute, or on his/her own motion, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of any findings of the Administrator and response thereto, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to decide the disputed matters. A copy of the Order of Reference and attachments thereto shall be served upon the person or firm requesting the hearing, if any and upon the respondents.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings of the Administrator and response thereto shall be given the effect of a complaint and answer, respectively, for purposes of the administrative proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.42" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.42   Amendments to pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>At any time prior to the closing of the hearing record, the complaint (Administrator's findings) or answer (response) may be amended with the permission of the Administrative Law Judge and upon such terms as he/she may approve. Such amendments shall be allowed when justice and the presentation of the merits are served thereby, provided there is no prejudice to the objecting party's presentation on the merits. When issues not raised by the pleadings are reasonably within the scope of the original complaint and are tried by express or implied consent of the parties, they shall be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the pleadings, and such amendments may be made as necessary to make them conform to the evidence. The presiding Administative Law Judge may, upon such terms as are just, permit supplemental pleadings setting forth transactions, occurrences or events which have happened a since the data of the pleadings and which are relevant to any of the issues involved. A continuance in the hearing may be granted or the record left open to enable the new allegations to be addressed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.43" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.43   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the receipt of evidence or, at the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge, prior to the issuance of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge, the parties may enter into consent findings and an order disposing of the proceeding in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding in whole or in part shall provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing:
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the complaint and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the Administrative Law Judge and the Administrative Review Board, as appropriate, regarding those matters which are the subject of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings and order. If a such agreement disposes of only a part of the disputed matter, a hearing shall be conducted on the matters remaining in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.44   Decision of the Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within 30 days of filing of the transcript of the testimony, each party may file with the Administrative Law Judge proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and brief shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the Administrative Law Judge.</I> Within 60 days after the time allowed for filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within 30 days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall make his/her decision. If any aggrieved party desires review of the decision a petition for review thereof shall be filed as provided in § 6.45 of this title, and such decision and order shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Review Board issues an order affirming the decision. The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, with reasons and bases therefor, upon each material issue of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record. Such decision shall be in accordance with the regulations and rulings contained in parts 4 and 5 and other pertinent parts of this title. The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be based upon a consideration of the whole record, including any admissions made in the respondents' answer (response) and § 6.43 of this title. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.45" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.4.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.45   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge, any party aggrieved thereby who desires review thereof shall file a petition for review of the decision with supporting reasons. Such party shall transmit the petition in writing to the Administrative Review Board pursuant to 29 CFR part 8 if the proceeding was under the Service Contract Act, or to the Administrative Review Board pursuant to 29 CFR part 7 if the proceeding was under § 5.12(a)(1) of part 5 of this title or under section 3(a) of the Davis-Bacon Act, with a copy thereof to the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The petition for review shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order at issue.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.46" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.4.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.46   Ineligible list.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the final decision of the Administrative Law Judge, Administrative Review Board, as appropriate, the Administrator promptly shall forward to the Comptroller General the names of any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which a person or firm debarred pursuant to section 5(a) of the Service Contract Act or § 5.12(a) of part 5 of this title has a substantial interest; and/or the name of any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which a person or firm debarred pursuant to section 3(a) of the Davis-Bacon Act has an interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Substantial Variance and Arm's Length Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.50   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart supplements the procedures contained in §§ 4.10 and 4.11 of part 4 of this title and states the rules of practice applicable to hearings under section 4(c) of the Act to determine whether the collectively bargained wages and/or fringe benefits otherwise required to be paid under that section and sections 2(a)(1) and (2) of the Act are substantially at variance with those which prevail for services of a character similar in the locality, and/or to determine whether the wages and/or fringe benefits provided in the collective bargaining agreement were reached as a result of arm's-length negotiations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.51   Referral to Chief Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Referral pursuant to § 4.10 or § 4.11 of part 4 of this title will be by an Order of Reference from the Administrator to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, to which will be attached the material submitted by the applicant or any other material the Administrator considers relevant and, for proceedings pursuant to § 4.11 of this title, a copy of any findings of the Administrator. A copy of the Order of Reference and all attachments will be sent by mail to the following parties: The agency whose contract is involved, the parties to the collective bargaining agreement, any contractor or subcontractor performing on the contract, any contractor or subcontractor known to be desirous of bidding thereon or performing services thereunder who is known or believed to be interested in the determination of the issue, any unions or other authorized representatives of service employees employed or who may be expected to be employed by such contractor or subcontractor on the contract work, and any other affected parties known to be interested in the determination of the issue. The Order of Reference will have attached a certificate of service naming all interested parties who have been served.
</P>
<P>(b) Accompanying the Order of Reference and attachments will be a notice advising that any interested party, including the applicant, who intends to participate in the proceeding shall submit a written response to the Chief Administrative Law Judge within 20 days of the date on which the certificate of service indicates the Order of Reference was mailed. The notice will state that such a response shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the interested party's case;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of witnesses the interested party will present, a summary of the testimony each is expected to give, and copies of all exhibits proposed to be proffered;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of persons who have knowledge of the facts for whom the interested party requests that subpoenas be issued and a brief statement of the purpose of their testimony; and
</P>
<P>(4) A certificate of service in accordance with § 6.3 of this title on all interested parties, including the Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.52   Appointment of Administrative Law Judge and notification of prehearing conference and hearing date.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt from the Administrator of an Order of Reference, notice to the parties, attachments and certificate of service, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall appoint an Administrative Law Judge to hear the case. The Administrative Law Judge shall promptly notify all interested parties of the time and place of a prehearing conference and of the hearing which shall be held immediately upon the completion of prehearing conference. The date of the prehearing conference and hearing shall be not more than 60 days from the date on which the certificate of service indicates the Order of Reference was mailed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.53   Prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the prehearing conference the Administrative Law Judge shall attempt to determine the exact areas of agreement and disagreement raised by the Administrator's Order of Reference and replies thereto, so that the evidence and arguments presented at the hearing will be relevant, complete, and as brief and concise as possible. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any interested party desiring to file proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law shall submit them to the Administrative Law Judge at the prehearing conference. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the parties agree that no hearing is necessary to supplement the written evidence and the views and arguments that have been presented, the Administrative Law Judge shall forthwith render his/her final decision. The Administrative Law Judge with the agreement of the parties may permit submission of additional written evidence or argument, such as data accompanied by affidavits attesting to its validity or depositions, within ten days of commencement of the prehearing conference. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.54   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 6.53(c) of this title, the hearing shall commence immediately upon the close of the prehearing conference. All matters remaining in controversy, including the presentation of additional evidence, shall be considered at the hearing. There shall be a minimum of formality in the proceeding consistent with orderly procedure. 
</P>
<P>(b) To expedite the proceeding the Administrative Law Judge shall, after consultation with the parties, set reasonable guidelines and limitations for the presentations to be made at the hearing. The Administrative Law Judge may limit cross-examination and may question witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(c) Under no circumstances shall source data obtained by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Department of Labor, or the names of establishments contacted by the Bureau be submitted into evidence or otherwise disclosed. Where the Bureau has conducted a survey, the published summary of the data may be submitted into evidence. 
</P>
<P>(d) Affidavits or depositions may be admitted at the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge. The Administrative Law Judge may also require that unduly repetitious testimony be submitted as affidavits. Such affidavits shall be submitted within three days of the conclusions of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) Counsel for the Administrator shall participate in the proceeding to the degree he/she deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) An expedited transcript shall be made of the hearing and of the prehearing conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.55" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.55   Closing of record.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrative Law Judge shall close the record promptly and not later than 10 days after the date of commencement of the prehearing conference. Post-hearing briefs may be permitted, but the filing of briefs shall not delay issuance of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge pursuant to § 6.56 of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.56" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.56   Decision of the Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days of receipt of the transcript, the Administrative Law Judge shall render his/her decision containing findings of fact and conclusions of law. The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be based upon consideration of the whole record, and shall be in accordance with the regulations and rulings contained in part 4 and other pertinent parts of this title. If any party desires review of the decision, a petition for review thereof shall be filed as provided in § 6.57 of this title, and such decision and order shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Review Board issues an order affirming the decision. If a petition has not been filed within 10 days of issuance of the Administrative Law Judge's decision, the Administrator shall promptly issue any wage determination which may be required as a result of the decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.57" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.7.5.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.57   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>Within 10 days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge, any interested party who participated in the proceedings before the Administrative Law Judge and desires review of the decision shall file a petition for review by the Administrative Review Board pursuant to 29 CFR part 8. The petition shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order excepted to and the specific pages of transcript relevant to the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 7—PRACTICE BEFORE THE ADMINISTRATIVE REVIEW BOARD WITH REGARD TO FEDERAL AND FEDERALLY ASSISTED CONSTRUCTION CONTRACTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Reorg. Plan No. 14 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1267; 5 U.S.C. 301, 3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 1007; sec. 2, 48 Stat. 948 as amended; 40 U.S.C. 276c; secs. 104, 105, 76 Stat. 358, 359; 40 U.S.C. 330, 331; 65 Stat. 290; 36 FR 306, 8755; Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 10863, June 4, 1971, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 7 appear at 61 FR 19985, May 3, 1996.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purpose and Scope</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains the rules of practice of the Administrative Review Board when it is exercising its jurisdiction described in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board has jurisdiction to hear and decide in its discretion appeals concerning questions of law and fact from final decisions under parts 1, 3, and 5 of this subtitle including decisions as to the following: (1) Wage determinations issued under the Davis-Bacon Act and its related minimum wage statutes; (2) debarment cases arising under part 5 of this subtitle; (3) controversies concerning the payment of prevailing wage rates or proper classifications which involve significant sums of money, large groups of employees, or novel or unusual situations; and (4) recommendations of a Federal agency for appropriate adjustment of liquidated damages which are assessed under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) In exercising its discretion to hear and decide appeals, the Board shall consider, among other things, timeliness, the nature of the relief sought, matters of undue hardship or injustice, or the public interest. 


</P>
<P>(d) In considering the matters within the scope of its jurisdiction the Board shall act as the authorized representative of the Secretary of Labor. The Board shall act as fully and finally as might the Secretary of Labor concerning such matters, except as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) The Board is an essentially appellate agency. It will not hear matters de novo except upon a showing of extraordinary circumstances. It may remand under appropriate instructions any case for the taking of additional evidence and the making of new or modified findings by reason of the additional evidence. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 10863, June 4, 1971, as amended at 61 FR 19985, May 3, 1996; 85 FR 13031, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 30616, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Review of Wage Determinations.</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2   Who may file petitions for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person who is seeking a modification or other change in a wage determination under part 1 of this subtitle and who has requested the administrative officer authorized to make such modification or other change under part 1 and the request has been denied, after appropriate reconsideration shall have a right to petition for review of the action taken by that officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purpose of this section, the term <I>interested person</I> is considered to include, without limitation: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any contractor, or an association representing a contractor, who is likely to seek or to work under a contract containing a particular wage determination, or any laborer or mechanic, or any labor organization which represents a laborer or mechanic, who is likely to be employed or to seek employment under a contract containing a particular wage determination, and 
</P>
<P>(2) any Federal, State, or local agency concerned with the administration of a proposed contract or a contract containing a particular wage determination issued pursuant to the Davis-Bacon Act or any of its related statutes. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.3   Where to file.</HEAD>
<P>The petition accompanied by a statement of service shall be filed with the Administrative Review Board, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. In addition, copies of the petition shall be served upon each of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The Federal, State, or local agency, or agencies involved;
</P>
<P>(b) The officer issuing the wage determination; and
</P>
<P>(c) Any other person (or the authorized representatives of such persons) known, or reasonably expected, to be interested in the subject matter of the petition.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1780, Jan. 11, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4   When to file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for review of wage determinations must be timely made. Timeliness is dependent upon the pertinent facts and circumstances involved, including without limitation the contract schedule of the administering agency, the nature of the work involved, and its location. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall under no circumstances request any administering agency to postpone any contract action because of the filing of a petition. This is a matter which must be resolved directly with the administering agency by the petitioner or other interested person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5   Contents of petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for the review of a wage determination shall: (1) Be in writing and signed by the petitioner or his counsel (or other authorized representative); (2) be described as a petition for review by the Administrative Review Board; (3) identify clearly the wage determination, location of the project or projects in question, and the agency concerned; (4) state that the petitioner has requested reconsideration of the wage determination in question and describe briefly the action taken in response to the request; (5) contain a short and plain statement of the grounds for review; and (6) be accompanied by supporting data, views, or arguments. 
</P>
<P>(b) A petition shall indicate whether or not the petitioner consents to the disposition of the questions involved by a single member of the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.6   Filing of wage determination record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In representing the officer issuing the wage determination the Solicitor shall, among other things, file promptly with the Board a record supporting his findings and conclusions, after receipt of service of the petition. 
</P>
<P>(b) In representing the officer issuing the wage determination the Solicitor shall file with the Board a statement of the position of the officer issuing the wage determination concerning any findings challenged in the petition; and shall make service on the petitioner and any other interested persons. 








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.7   Presentations of other interested persons.</HEAD>
<P>Interested persons other than the petitioner shall have a reasonable opportunity as specified by the Board in particular cases to submit to the Board written data, views, or arguments relating to the petition. Such matter should be filed with the Administrative Review Board, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. Copies of any such matter shall be served on the petitioner and other interested persons.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1780, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.8   Disposition by the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board may decline review of any case whenever in its judgement a review would be inappropriate or because of lack of timeliness, the nature of the relief sought, or other reasons. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall decide the case upon the basis of all relevant matter contained in the entire record before it. The Board shall notify interested persons participating in the proceeding of its decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) Decisions of the Board shall be by majority vote. A case will be reviewed upon the affirmative vote of one member. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Review of Other Proceedings and Related Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.9   Review of decisions in other proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party or aggrieved person shall have a right to file a petition for review with the Board within a reasonable time from any final decision in any agency action under part 1, 3, or 5 of this subtitle.

 
</P>
<P>(b) The petition shall state concisely the points relied upon, and shall be accompanied by a statement setting forth supporting reasons. Further, the petition shall indicate whether or not the petitioner consents to the disposition of the questions involved by a single member. 
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of the presentation shall be served upon the officer who issued the decision, and upon any other party or known interested person, as the case may be. In representing the officer who issued the final decision in any agency action under parts 1, 3, or 5 of the subtitle, the Solicitor shall, among other things, file promptly with the Board a record supporting the officer's decision, including any findings upon which the decision is based, after receipt of service of the petition. 
</P>
<P>(d) In representing the officer issuing a final decision in any agency action under parts 1, 3, and 5 of this subtitle, the Solicitor shall file with the Board a statement of the position of the officer who issued the final decision at issue, concerning the decision challenged; and shall make service on the petitioner and any other interested persons. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Board shall afford any other parties or known interested persons a reasonable opportunity to respond to the petition. Copies of any such response shall be served upon the officer issuing the decision below and upon the petitioner. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Board shall pass upon the points raised in the petition upon the basis of the entire record before it, and shall notify the parties to the proceeding of its decision. In any remand of a case as provided in § 7.1(e), the Board shall include any appropriate instructions. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 10863, June 4, 1971, as amended at 86 FR 1780, Jan. 11, 2021]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Some General Procedural Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.11   Right to counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Each interested person or party shall have the right to appear in person or by or with counsel or other qualified representative in any proceeding before the Board. 








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.12   Intervention; other participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For good cause shown, the Board may permit any interested person or party to intervene or otherwise participate in any proceeding held by the Board. Except when requested orally before the Board, a petition to intervene or otherwise participate shall be in writing and shall state with precision and particularity:
</P>
<P>(1) The petitioner's relationship to the matters involved in the proceedings; and
</P>
<P>(2) The nature of the presentation which he would make.
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of the petition shall be served to all parties or interested persons known to participate in the proceeding, who may respond to the petition. Appropriate service shall be made of any response.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1780, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.13   Consolidations.</HEAD>
<P>Upon its own initiative or upon motion of any interested person or party, the Board may consolidate in any proceeding or concurrently consider two or more appeals which involve substantially the same persons or parties, or issues which are the same or closely related, if it finds that such consolidation or concurrent review will contribute to a proper dispatch of its business and to the ends of justice, and it will not unduly delay consideration of any such appeals. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.14   Oral proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to any proceeding before it, the Board may upon its own initiative or upon request of any interested person or party direct the interested persons or parties to appear before the Board or its designee at a specified time and place in order to simplify the issues presented or to take up any other matters which may tend to expedite or facilitate the disposition of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) In its discretion, the Board, or a single presiding member, may permit oral argument in any proceeding. The Board or the presiding member, shall prescribe the time and place for argument and the time allotted for argument. A petitioner wishing to make oral argument should make the request therefor in his petition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.15   Public information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the provisions of §§ 1.15, 5.6, and part 70 of this subtitle, all papers and documents made a part of the official record in the proceedings of the Board and decisions of the Board shall be made available for public inspection during usual business hours at the office of the Administrative Review Board, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. 
</P>
<P>(b) Facsimile copies of such papers, documents and decisions shall be furnished upon request. There shall be a charge of 25 cents for each facsimile page reproduction except for copies of materials duplicated for distribution for no charge as provided in paragraph (c) of this section. Postal fees in excess of domestic first class postal rates as are necessary for transmittal of copies will be added to the per-page fee specified unless stamps or stamped envelopes are furnished with the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) No charge need to be made for furnishing: 
</P>
<P>(1) Unauthenticated copies of any rules, regulations, or decisions of general import, 
</P>
<P>(2) Copies to agencies which will aid in the administration of the Davis-Bacon and related acts, 
</P>
<P>(3) Copies to contractor associations and labor organizations for general dissemination of the information contained therein, and 
</P>
<P>(4) Only occasionally unauthenticated copies of papers and documents. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.16   Filing and service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> All papers submitted to the Board under this part shall be filed with the Clerk of the Appellate Boards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of service.</I> Service under this part shall be by the filing party or interested person and in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. Service by mail is complete on mailing.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> Papers filed with the Board shall contain an acknowledgement of service by the person served or proof of service in the form of a statement of the date and the manner of service and the names of the person or persons served, certified by the person who made service. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 10863, June 4, 1971, as amended at 86 FR 1780, Jan. 11, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.17   Variations in procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Upon reasonable notice to the parties or interested persons, the Board may vary the procedures specified in this part in particular cases. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.8.4.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.18   Motions; extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this part, any application for an order or other relief shall be made by motion for such order or relief. Except when made orally before the Board, motions shall be in writing and shall be accompanied by proof of service on all other parties or interested persons. If a motion is supported by briefs, affidavits, or other papers, they shall be served and filed with the motion. Any party or interested person, as the case may be, may respond to the motion within such time as may be provided by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for extensions of time in any proceeding as to the filing of papers or oral presentations shall be in the form of a motion under paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 8—PRACTICE BEFORE THE ADMINISTRATIVE REVIEW BOARD WITH REGARD TO FEDERAL SERVICE CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4 and 5, 79 Stat. 1034, 1035, as amended by 86 Stat. 789, 790, 41 U.S.C. 353, 354; 5 U.S.C. 301; Reorg. Plan No. 14 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1267, 5 U.S.C. Appendix; 76 Stat. 357-359, 40 U.S.C. 327-332; Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 10637, Mar. 21, 1984, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 8 appear at 61 FR 19985, May 3, 1996.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purpose and Scope</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains the rules of practice of the Administrative Review Board when it is exercising its jurisdiction described in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board has jurisdiction to hear and decide in its discretion appeals concerning questions of law and fact from final decisions of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division or authorized representative, and from decisions of Administrative Law Judges under subparts B, D, and E of part 6 of this title, arising under the Service Contract Act and the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act where the contract is also subject to the Service Contract Act. The Board shall not have jurisdiction to pass on the validity of any portion of the Code of Federal Regulations which has been duly promulgated through notice and comment by the Department of Labor and shall observe the provisions thereof, where pertinent, in its decisions. The jurisdiction of the Board includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Wage determinations issued under the Service Contract Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Substantial variance proceedings or arm's-length negotiations proceedings pursuant to section 4(c) of the Service Contract Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Debarment or other enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(4) Proceedings to determine substantial interest of debarred persons or firms;
</P>
<P>(5) Decisions of the Wage-Hour Administrator or authorized representative regarding recommendations of a Federal agency for adjustment or waiver of liquidated damages assessed under the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act;
</P>
<P>(6) Other final actions of the Wage-Hour Administrator or authorized representative (e.g., additional classification actions and rulings with respect to application of the Act(s), or the regulations, or of wage determinations issued thereunder).
</P>
<P>(7) Other matters specifically referred to the Board by the Secretary of Labor.




</P>
<P>(c) In considering the matters within the scope of its jurisdiction the Board shall act as the authorized representative of the Secretary of Labor and shall act as fully and finally as might the Secretary of Labor concerning such matters, except as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).


</P>
<P>(d) The Board is an appellate body and shall decide cases properly brought before it on the basis of all relevant matter contained in the entire record before it. Decisions by the Board shall be based upon the preponderance of the evidence before it. It may remand with appropriate instructions any case for the taking of additional evidence and the making of new or modified findings by reason of the additional evidence. However, unless the petition for review cities alleged procedural irregularities in the proceeding below and not the merits of a case, the Board shall not consider a petition for review filed by any party against whom default judgment has been entered pursuant to the provisions of part 6 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 10637, Mar. 21, 1984, as amended at 61 FR 19985, May 3, 1996; 85 FR 13031, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 30616, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Review of Wage Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.2   Who may file petitions of review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested party who is seeking a modification of other change in a wage determination under the Service Contract Act and who has requested the Wage-Hour Administrator or authorized representative to make such modification or other change under § 4.55 of part 4 of this title, and the request has been denied, shall have a right to petition of review of the action taken by that officer.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this subpart, the term <I>interested party</I> shall mean:
</P>
<P>(1) Any employee or any labor organization which represents an employee who is likely to be employed or to seek employment under a contract containing a particular wage determination, or any contractor or an association representing a contractor who is likely to seek a contract or to work under a contract containing a particular wage determination;
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal agency(s) which will administer a proposed contract containing a particular wage determination issued pursuant to the Service Contract Act; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any other party whom the Board finds to have a sufficient interest in the wage determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.3   When to file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for review of wage determinations must be filed within 20 days of issuance of the Wage-Hour Administrator's decision denying a request to make a change in the wage determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall under no circumstances request any administering agency to postpone any contract action because of the filing of a petition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.4   Contents of petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for review of a wage determination shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing and signed by the petitioner or his/her counsel (or other authorized representative);
</P>
<P>(2) Be addressed to the Administrative Review Board;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify clearly the wage determination, location where the contract will be performed, if known, and the agency concerned;
</P>
<P>(4) State that the petitioner has requested reconsideration of the wage determination in question pursuant to 29 CFR 4.55 and describe briefly the action taken in response to the request;
</P>
<P>(5) Contain a short and plain statement of the grounds for review;
</P>
<P>(6) Be accompanied by supporting data, views, or arguments; and
</P>
<P>(7) Contain a statement that all data or other evidence submitted have previously been submitted to the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) A petition shall indicate whether or not the petitioner consents to the disposition of the questions involved by a single member of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.5   Filing of wage determination record.</HEAD>
<P>The Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards shall, promptly after service of the petition, file with the Board the record upon which the wage determination was based. Under no circumstances shall source data obtained by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Department of Labor, or the names of establishments contacted by the Bureau be filed with the Board or otherwise disclosed. Where the Bureau has conducted a survey, the published summary of the data may be filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.6   Disposition by the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board may decline review of any case whenever in its judgment review would be inappropriate because of lack of timeliness, the nature of the relief sought, the case involves only settled issues of law, the appeal is frivolous on its face, or other reasons. A case will be reviewed upon the affirmative vote of one member.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the Board will not review a wage determination after award, exercise of option, or extension of a contract, unless such procurement action was taken without the wage determination required pursuant to §§ 4.4 and 4.5 of part 4 of this title.
</P>
<P>(c) A wage determination may be reviewed after award, exercise of option, or extension of a contract if it is issued after a finding by an Administrative Law Judge or the Board that a substantial variance exists between collectively bargained wage rates and/or fringe benefits otherwise required to be paid pursuant to section 4(c) of the Act and those prevailing for services of a character similar in the locality, or after a finding that such collective bargaining agreement was not reached as a result of arm's length negotiations.
</P>
<P>(d) Where a petition for review of a wage determination is filed prior to award, exercise of option, or extension of a contract, the Board may review the wage determination after such award, exercise of option, or extension of a contract if the issue is a significant issue of general applicability. The Board's decision shall not affect the contract after such award, exercise of option, or extension.
</P>
<P>(e) In issuing its decision the Board will act expeditiously, taking into consideration procurement deadlines. The Board shall decide the case upon the basis of all relevant matters contained in the entire record before it and shall not consider any data not submitted to the Wage-Hour Administrator with the request for reconsideration. The Board in its decision affirming, modifying, or setting aside the wage determination, shall include a statement of reasons or bases for the actions taken. In any remand of a case as provided in § 8.1(d) of this title, the Board shall include appropriate instructions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Review of Other Proceedings and Related Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.7   Review of decisions in other proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for review of a decision of an Administrative Law Judge pursuant to subparts B, D or E of part 6 of this title may be filed by any aggrieved party in accordance with the provisions therein. 
</P>
<P>(b) A petition for review of a final written decision (other than a wage determination) of the Administrator or authorized representative may be filed by any aggrieved party within 60 days of the date of the decision of which review is sought. Where a case has been referred directly to the Board pursuant to § 4.11 or § 4.12 of this title, no petition for review shall be necessary; a brief in support of the aggrieved party's position shall be filed within 30 days of filing of the administrative record by the Administrator. 
</P>
<P>(c) A petition shall state concisely the points relied upon, and shall be accompanied by a statement setting forth supporting reasons. The petition shall also indicate whether or not the petitioner consents to the disposition of the questions involved by a single member. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.8   Filing of administrative record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a petition for review has been filed concerning a decision pursuant to part 6 of this title, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly forward the record of the proceeding before the Administrative Law Judge to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a petition for review has been filed concerning a final decision of the Wage-Hour Administrator or authorized representative, the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards shall promptly file with the Board a record upon which the decision was based. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.9   Disposition by the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board may decline review of any case whenever in its judgment review would be inappropriate because of lack of timeliness, the nature of the relief sought, the case involves only settled issues of law, the appeal is frivolous on its face, or other reasons. A case will be reviewed upon the affirmative vote of one member.
</P>
<P>(b) In issuing its decision the Board will take into consideration procurement deadlines where appropriate. The Board shall pass upon the points raised in the petition upon the basis of the entire record before it. The Board may affirm, modify or set aside, in whole or in part, the decision under review and shall issue a decision including a statement of reasons or bases for the actions taken. The Board shall modify or set aside findings of fact only when it determines that those findings are not supported by a preponderance of the evidence. In any remand of a case as provided in § 8.1(e) of this title, the Board shall include any appropriate instructions. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—General Procedural Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.10   Filing and service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> All papers submitted to the Board under this part shall be filed with the Clerk of the Appellate Boards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of service.</I> Service under this part shall be in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. Service by mail is complete on mailing. For purposes of this part, filing is accomplished upon the day of service, by mail or otherwise.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> Papers filed with the Board shall contain an acknowledgement of service by the person served or proof of service in the form of a statement of the date and the manner of service and the names of the person or persons served, certified by the person who made service. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service upon the Department of Labor and other interested parties.</I> A copy of all documents filed with the Board shall be served upon the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210; the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210; the Federal contracting agency involved; and all other interested parties.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 10637, Mar. 21, 1984, as amended at 86 FR 1780, Jan. 11, 2021]
</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.11   Presentations of other interested persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a petition has been filed for review of a wage determination or other final decision of the Administrator or authorized representative, the Board shall notify the parties known or believed to be interested in the case. The Associate Solicitor and any other parties interested in presenting their views shall file a statement within 30 days of the filing of the petition (or such other time as is specified by the Board, with consideration of procurement deadlines, as appropriate).
</P>
<P>(b) Where a petition has been filed for review of a decision issued pursuant to subparts B, D or E of part 6 of this title, any other parties to the proceeding interested in presenting their views shall file a statement within 30 days of the filing of the petition (or such other time as is specified by the Board, with consideration of procurement deadlines, as appropriate).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.12   Intervention; other participation.</HEAD>
<P>For good cause shown, the Board may permit any interested party to intervene or otherwise participate in any proceeding held by the Board.Except when requested orally before the Board, a petition to intervene or otherwise participate shall be in writing and shall state with precision and particularity: 
</P>
<P>(a) The petitioner's relationship to the matters involved in the proceedings, and 
</P>
<P>(b) The nature of the presentation which the peititioner would make.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 10637, Mar. 21, 1984, as amended at 86 FR 1780, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.13   Right to counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Each interested party shall have the right to appear in person or by counsel or other representative in any proceeding before the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.14   Consolidations.</HEAD>
<P>Upon its own initative or upon motion of any interested party, the Board may consolidate any proceeding or concurrently consider two or more appeals which involve substantially the same parties, or issues which are the same or closely related, if it finds that such consolidation or concurrent review will contribute to a proper dispatch of its business and to the ends of justice, and it will not unduly delay consideration of any such appeals. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.15   Motions; extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this part, any application for an order or other relief shall be made by motion. Except when made orally before the Board, motions shall be in writing and shall be accompanied by proof of service on all other parties. If a motion is supported by briefs, affidavits, or other papers, they shall be served and filed with the motion. Any party may respond to the motion within such time as may be provided by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for extension of time as to the filing of papers or oral presentation shall be in the form of a motion under paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.16   Oral proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to any proceedings before it, the Board may upon its own initative or upon request of any interested party direct the interested parties to appear before the Board or its designee at a specified time and place in order to simplify the issues persented or to take up any other matters which may tend to expedite or facilitate the disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) In its discretion, the Board or a single presiding member may permit oral argument in any proceeding. The Board or the presiding member shall prescribe the time and place for argument and the time allocated for argument. A petitioner wishing to make oral argument should make the request therefore in the petition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.17   Decision of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the petitioner consents to disposition by a single member, decisions of the Board shall be by majority vote.
</P>
<P>(b) Where petitioner consents to disposition by a single member, other interested parties shall have an opportunity to oppose such disposition, and such opposition shall be taken into consideration by the Board in determining whether the decision shall be by a single member or majority vote. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.18   Public information.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the provisions of part 70 of this title, all papers and documents made a part of the official record in the proceedings of the Board and decisions of the Board shall be made available for public inspection during usual business hours at the Office of the Administrative Review Board, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.9.4.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.19   Equal Access to Justice Act.</HEAD>
<P>Proceedings under the Service Contract Act and the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act are not subject to the Equal Access to Justice Act (Pub. L. 96-481). Accordingly, in any proceeding conducted pursuant to the provisions of this part 8, the Board shall have no power or authority to award attorney fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the Equal Access to Justice Act.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 9 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 10—ESTABLISHING A MINIMUM WAGE FOR CONTRACTORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; section 4, E.O. 13658, 79 FR 9851, 3 CFR, 2014 Comp., p. 219; section 4, E.O. 14026, 86 FR 22835; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 01-2014, 79 FR 77527.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 60721, Oct. 7, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part contains the Department of Labor's rules relating to the administration of Executive Order 13658 (Executive Order or the Order), “Establishing a Minimum Wage for Contractors,” and implements the enforcement provisions of the Executive Order. The Executive Order assigns responsibility for investigating potential violations of and obtaining compliance with the Executive Order to the Department of Labor. The Executive Order states that the Federal Government's procurement interests in economy and efficiency are promoted when the Federal Government contracts with sources that adequately compensate their workers. There is evidence that raising the pay of low-wage workers can increase their morale and productivity and the quality of their work, lower turnover and its accompanying costs, and reduce supervisory costs. The Executive Order thus states that cost savings and quality improvements in the work performed by parties who contract with the Federal Government will lead to improved economy and efficiency in Government procurement. Executive Order 13658 therefore generally requires that the hourly minimum wage paid by contractors to workers performing on or in connection with covered contracts with the Federal Government shall be at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $10.10 per hour, beginning January 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(2) An amount determined by the Secretary of Labor, beginning January 1, 2016, and annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> Executive Order 13658 sets forth a general position of the Federal Government that increasing the hourly minimum wage paid by Federal contractors to $10.10 will increase efficiency and cost savings for the Federal Government. The Executive Order therefore establishes a minimum wage requirement for Federal contractors and subcontractors. The Order provides that executive departments and agencies shall, to the extent permitted by law, ensure that new covered contracts, contract-like instruments, and solicitations (collectively referred to as “contracts”) include a clause, which the contractor and any subcontractors shall incorporate into lower-tier subcontracts, specifying, as a condition of payment, that the minimum wage to be paid to workers, including workers whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c), in the performance of the contract or any subcontract thereunder, shall be at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $10.10 per hour beginning January 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2016, and annually thereafter, an amount determined by the Secretary pursuant to the Order. Nothing in Executive Order 13658 or this part shall excuse noncompliance with any applicable Federal or State prevailing wage law or any applicable law or municipal ordinance establishing a minimum wage higher than the minimum wage established under the Order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Neither Executive Order 13658 nor this part creates or changes any rights under the Contract Disputes Act or any private right of action. The Executive Order provides that disputes regarding whether a contractor has paid the minimum wages prescribed by the Order, to the extent permitted by law, shall be disposed of only as provided by the Secretary in regulations issued under the Order. However, nothing in the Order or this part is intended to limit or preclude a civil action under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3730, or criminal prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 1001. The Order similarly does not preclude judicial review of final decisions by the Secretary in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relation to Executive Order 14026.</I> As of January 30, 2022, Executive Order 13658 is superseded to the extent that it is inconsistent with Executive Order 14026 of April 27, 2021, “Increasing the Minimum Wage for Federal Contractors,” and its implementing regulations at 29 CFR part 23. A covered contract that is entered into on or after January 30, 2022, or that is renewed or extended (pursuant to an option or otherwise) on or after January 30, 2022, is generally subject to the higher minimum wage rate established by Executive Order 14026 and its regulations at 29 CFR part 23.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 60721, Oct. 7, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 67224, Nov. 24, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Review Board</I> (ARB or Board) means the Administrative Review Board, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division and includes any official of the Wage and Hour Division authorized to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Agency head</I> means the Secretary, Attorney General, Administrator, Governor, Chairperson, or other chief official of an executive agency, unless otherwise indicated, including any deputy or assistant chief official of an executive agency or any persons authorized to act on behalf of the agency head.
</P>
<P><I>Concessions contract</I> or <I>contract for concessions</I> means a contract under which the Federal Government grants a right to use Federal property, including land or facilities, for furnishing services. The term <I>concessions contract</I> includes but is not limited to a contract the principal purpose of which is to furnish food, lodging, automobile fuel, souvenirs, newspaper stands, and/or recreational equipment, regardless of whether the services are of direct benefit to the Government, its personnel, or the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> or <I>contract-like instrument</I> means an agreement between two or more parties creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognizable at law. This definition includes, but is not limited to, a mutually binding legal relationship obligating one party to furnish services (including construction) and another party to pay for them. The term <I>contract</I> includes all contracts and any subcontracts of any tier thereunder, whether negotiated or advertised, including any procurement actions, lease agreements, cooperative agreements, provider agreements, intergovernmental service agreements, service agreements, licenses, permits, or any other type of agreement, regardless of nomenclature, type, or particular form, and whether entered into verbally or in writing. The term <I>contract</I> shall be interpreted broadly as to include, but not be limited to, any contract that may be consistent with the definition provided in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) or applicable Federal statutes. This definition includes, but is not limited to, any contract that may be covered under any Federal procurement statute. Contracts may be the result of competitive bidding or awarded to a single source under applicable authority to do so. In addition to bilateral instruments, contracts include, but are not limited to, awards and notices of awards; job orders or task letters issued under basic ordering agreements; letter contracts; orders, such as purchase orders, under which the contract becomes effective by written acceptance or performance; and bilateral contract modifications. The term <I>contract</I> includes contracts covered by the Service Contract Act, contracts covered by the Davis-Bacon Act, concessions contracts not otherwise subject to the Service Contract Act, and contracts in connection with Federal property or land and related to offering services for Federal employees, their dependents, or the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting officer</I> means a person with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate contracts and make related determinations and findings. This term includes certain authorized representatives of the contracting officer acting within the limits of their authority as delegated by the contracting officer.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any individual or other legal entity that is awarded a Federal Government contract or subcontract under a Federal Government contract. The term <I>contractor</I> refers to both a prime contractor and all of its subcontractors of any tier on a contract with the Federal Government. The term <I>contractor</I> includes lessors and lessees, as well as employers of workers performing on covered Federal contracts whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c). The term <I>employer</I> is used interchangeably with the terms <I>contractor</I> and <I>subcontractor</I> in various sections of this part. The U.S. Government, its agencies, and instrumentalities are not contractors, subcontractors, employers, or joint employers for purposes of compliance with the provisions of the Executive Order.
</P>
<P><I>Davis-Bacon Act</I> means the Davis-Bacon Act of 1931, as amended, 40 U.S.C. 3141 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Executive departments and agencies</I> means executive departments, military departments, or any independent establishments within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 101, 102, and 104(1), respectively, and any wholly owned Government corporation within the meaning of 31 U.S.C. 9101.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Order minimum wage</I> means, for purposes of Executive Order 13658, a wage that is at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $10.10 per hour beginning January 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2016, and annually thereafter, an amount determined by the Secretary pursuant to section 2 of the Executive Order.
</P>
<P><I>Fair Labor Standards Act</I> (FLSA) means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Government</I> means an agency or instrumentality of the United States that enters into a contract pursuant to authority derived from the Constitution or the laws of the United States. For purposes of the Executive Order and this part, this definition does not include the District of Columbia, any Territory or possession of the United States, or any independent regulatory agency within the meaning of 44 U.S.C. 3502(5).
</P>
<P><I>Independent agencies</I> means independent regulatory agencies within the meaning of 44 U.S.C. 3502(5).


</P>
<P><I>New contract</I> means a contract that results from a solicitation issued on or between January 1, 2015 and January 29, 2022, or a contract that is awarded outside the solicitation process on or between January 1, 2015 and January 29, 2022. This term includes both new contracts and replacements for expiring contracts. It does not apply to the unilateral exercise of a pre-negotiated option to renew an existing contract by the Federal Government. For purposes of the Executive Order, a contract that is entered into prior to January 1, 2015 will constitute a new contract if, through bilateral negotiation, on or between January 1, 2015 and January 29, 2022:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract is renewed;
</P>
<P>(2) The contract is extended, unless the extension is made pursuant to a term in the contract as of December 31, 2014, providing for a short-term limited extension; or
</P>
<P>(3) The contract is amended pursuant to a modification that is outside the scope of the contract.


</P>
<P><I>Office of Administrative Law Judges</I> means the Office of Administrative Law Judges, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Option</I> means a unilateral right in a contract by which, for a specified time, the Government may elect to purchase additional supplies or services called for by the contract, or may elect to extend the term of the contract.
</P>
<P><I>Procurement contract for construction</I> means a procurement contract for the construction, alteration, or repair (including painting and decorating) of public buildings or public works and which requires or involves the employment of mechanics or laborers, and any subcontract of any tier thereunder. The term <I>procurement contract for construction</I> includes any contract subject to the provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act, as amended, and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Procurement contract for services</I> means a procurement contract the principal purpose of which is to furnish services in the United States through the use of service employees, and any subcontract of any tier thereunder. The term <I>procurement contract for services</I> includes any contract subject to the provisions of the Service Contract Act, as amended, and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Service Contract Act</I> means the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act of 1965, as amended, 41 U.S.C. 6701 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Solicitation</I> means any request to submit offers, bids, or quotations to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Tipped employee</I> means any employee engaged in an occupation in which he or she customarily and regularly receives more than $30 a month in tips. For purposes of the Executive Order, a worker performing on or in connection with a contract covered by the Executive Order who meets this definition is a tipped employee.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the United States and all executive departments, independent establishments, administrative agencies, and instrumentalities of the United States, including corporations of which all or substantially all of the stock is owned by the United States, by the foregoing departments, establishments, agencies, instrumentalities, and including nonappropriated fund instrumentalities. When used in a geographic sense, the <I>United States</I> means the 50 States and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Wage and Hour Division</I> means the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Wage determination</I> includes any determination of minimum hourly wage rates or fringe benefits made by the Secretary of Labor pursuant to the provisions of the Service Contract Act or the Davis-Bacon Act. This term includes the original determination and any subsequent determinations modifying, superseding, correcting, or otherwise changing the provisions of the original determination.
</P>
<P><I>Worker</I> means any person engaged in performing work on or in connection with a contract covered by the Executive Order, and whose wages under such contract are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Service Contract Act, or the Davis-Bacon Act, other than individuals employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, as those terms are defined in 29 CFR part 541, regardless of the contractual relationship alleged to exist between the individual and the employer. The term <I>worker</I> includes workers performing on or in connection with a covered contract whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c), as well as any person working on or in connection with a covered contract and individually registered in a bona fide apprenticeship or training program registered with the U.S. Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration, Office of Apprenticeship, or with a State Apprenticeship Agency recognized by the Office of Apprenticeship.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 60721, Oct. 7, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 67224, Nov. 24, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.3   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to any new contract with the Federal Government, unless excluded by § 10.4, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) It is a procurement contract for construction covered by the Davis-Bacon Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is a contract for services covered by the Service Contract Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) It is a contract for concessions, including any concessions contract excluded from coverage under the Service Contract Act by Department of Labor regulations at 29 CFR 4.133(b); or
</P>
<P>(iv) It is a contract entered into with the Federal Government in connection with Federal property or lands and related to offering services for Federal employees, their dependents, or the general public; and
</P>
<P>(2) The wages of workers under such contract are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Service Contract Act, or the Davis-Bacon Act.
</P>
<P>(b) For contracts covered by the Service Contract Act or the Davis-Bacon Act, this part applies to prime contracts only at the thresholds specified in those statutes. For procurement contracts where workers' wages are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, this part applies when the prime contract exceeds the micro-purchase threshold, as defined in 41 U.S.C. 1902(a).
</P>
<P>(c) This part only applies to contracts with the Federal Government requiring performance in whole or in part within the United States. If a contract with the Federal Government is to be performed in part within and in part outside the United States and is otherwise covered by the Executive Order and this part, the minimum wage requirements of the Order and this part would apply with respect to that part of the contract that is performed within the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to contracts for the manufacturing or furnishing of materials, supplies, articles, or equipment to the Federal Government that are subject to the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, 41 U.S.C. 6501 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.4   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grants.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to grants within the meaning of the Federal Grant and Cooperative Agreement Act, as amended, 31 U.S.C. 6301 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contracts and agreements with and grants to Indian Tribes.</I> This part does not apply to contracts and agreements with and grants to Indian Tribes under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act, as amended, 25 U.S.C. 450 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procurement contracts for construction that are excluded from coverage of the Davis-Bacon Act.</I> Procurement contracts for construction that are not covered by the Davis-Bacon Act are not subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contracts for services that are exempted from coverage under the Service Contract Act.</I> Service contracts, except for those expressly covered by § 10.3(a)(1)(iii) or (iv), that are exempt from coverage of the Service Contract Act pursuant to its statutory language at 41 U.S.C. 6702(b) or its implementing regulations, including those at 29 CFR 4.115 through 4.122 and 29 CFR 4.123(d) and(e), are not subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employees who are exempt from the minimum wage requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act under 29 U.S.C. 213(a) and 214(a)-(b).</I> Except for workers who are otherwise covered by the Davis-Bacon Act or the Service Contract Act, this part does not apply to employees who are not entitled to the minimum wage set forth at 29 U.S.C. 206(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 213(a) and 214(a)-(b). Pursuant to this exclusion, individuals that are not subject to the requirements of this part include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Learners, apprentices, or messengers.</I> This part does not apply to learners, apprentices, or messengers whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Students.</I> This part does not apply to student workers whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Individuals employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity.</I> This part does not apply to workers who are employed by Federal contractors in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, as those terms are defined and delimited in 29 CFR part 541.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FLSA-covered workers performing in connection with covered contracts for less than 20 percent of their work hours in a given workweek.</I> This part does not apply to FLSA-covered workers performing in connection with covered contracts, <I>i.e.,</I> those workers who perform work duties necessary to the performance of the contract but who are not directly engaged in performing the specific work called for by the contract, that spend less than 20 percent of their hours worked in a particular workweek performing in connection with such contracts. This exclusion is inapplicable to covered workers performing on covered contracts, <I>i.e.,</I> those workers directly engaged in performing the specific work called for by the contract.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 60721, Oct. 7, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 48542, Sept. 26, 2018; 86 FR 67224, Nov. 24, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.5   Minimum wage for Federal contractors and subcontractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pursuant to Executive Order 13658, the minimum hourly wage rate required to be paid to workers performing on or in connection with covered contracts with the Federal Government is at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $10.10 per hour beginning January 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2016, and annually thereafter, an amount determined by the Secretary pursuant to section 2 of Executive Order 13658. In accordance with section 2 of the Order, the Secretary will determine the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers on covered contracts on an annual basis beginning at least 90 days before any new minimum wage is to take effect.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method for determining the applicable Executive Order minimum wage for workers.</I> The minimum wage to be paid to workers, including workers whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c), in the performance of a covered contract shall be at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $10.10 per hour beginning January 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(2) An amount determined by the Secretary, beginning January 1, 2016, and annually thereafter. The applicable minimum wage determined for each calendar year by the Secretary shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Not less than the amount in effect on the date of such determination;
</P>
<P>(ii) Increased from such amount by the annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (United States city average, all items, not seasonally adjusted), or its successor publication, as determined by the Bureau of Labor Statistics; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Rounded to the nearest multiple of $0.05. In calculating the annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for purposes of this section, the Secretary shall compare such Consumer Price Index for the most recent year available with the Consumer Price Index for the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to other laws.</I> Nothing in the Executive Order or this part shall excuse noncompliance with any applicable Federal or State prevailing wage law or any applicable law or municipal ordinance establishing a minimum wage higher than the minimum wage established under the Executive Order and this part. A covered contract that is entered into on or after January 30, 2022, or that is renewed or extended (pursuant to an option or otherwise) on or after January 30, 2022, is generally subject to the higher minimum wage rate established by Executive Order 14026 of April 27, 2021, “Increasing the Minimum Wage for Federal Contractors,” and its regulations at 29 CFR part 23.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 60721, Oct. 7, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 67224, Nov. 24, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.6   Antiretaliation.</HEAD>
<P>It shall be unlawful for any person to discharge or in any other manner discriminate against any worker because such worker has filed any complaint or instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to Executive Order 13658 or this part, or has testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.1.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.7   Waiver of rights.</HEAD>
<P>Workers cannot waive, nor may contractors induce workers to waive, their rights under Executive Order 13658 or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Federal Government Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.11   Contracting agency requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contract clause.</I> The contracting agency shall include the Executive Order minimum wage contract clause set forth in appendix A of this part in all covered contracts and solicitations for such contracts, as described in § 10.3, except for procurement contracts subject to the FAR. The required contract clause directs, as a condition of payment, that all workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts must be paid the applicable, currently effective minimum wage under Executive Order 13658 and § 10.5. For procurement contracts subject to the FAR, contracting agencies must use the clause set forth in the FAR developed to implement this rule. Such clause will accomplish the same purposes as the clause set forth in Appendix A and be consistent with the requirements set forth in this rule.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to include the contract clause.</I> Where the Department or the contracting agency discovers or determines, whether before or subsequent to a contract award, that a contracting agency made an erroneous determination that Executive Order 13658 or this part did not apply to a particular contract and/or failed to include the applicable contract clause in a contract to which the Executive Order applies, the contracting agency, on its own initiative or within 15 calendar days of notification by an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, shall incorporate the contract clause in the contract retroactive to commencement of performance under the contract through the exercise of any and all authority that may be needed (including, where necessary, its authority to negotiate or amend, its authority to pay any necessary additional costs, and its authority under any contract provision authorizing changes, cancellation and termination).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Withholding.</I> A contracting officer shall upon his or her own action or upon written request of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor withhold or cause to be withheld from the prime contractor under the covered contract or any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, so much of the accrued payments or advances as may be considered necessary to pay workers the full amount of wages required by the Executive Order. In the event of failure to pay any covered workers all or part of the wages due under Executive Order 13658, the agency may, after authorization or by direction of the Department of Labor and written notification to the contractor, take action to cause suspension of any further payment or advance of funds until such violations have ceased. Additionally, any failure to comply with the requirements of Executive Order 13658 may be grounds for termination of the right to proceed with the contract work. In such event, the contracting agency may enter into other contracts or arrangements for completion of the work, charging the contractor in default with any additional cost.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Actions on complaints</I>—(1) <I>Reporting</I>—(i) <I>Reporting time frame.</I> The contracting agency shall forward all information listed in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section to the Branch of Government Contracts Enforcement, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210 within 14 calendar days of receipt of a complaint alleging contractor noncompliance with the Executive Order or this part or within 14 calendar days of being contacted by the Wage and Hour Division regarding any such complaint.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Report contents.</I> The contracting agency shall forward to the Branch of Government Contracts Enforcement, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210 any:
</P>
<P>(A) Complaint of contractor noncompliance with Executive Order 13658 or this part;
</P>
<P>(B) Available statements by the worker, contractor, or any other person regarding the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(C) Evidence that the Executive Order minimum wage contract clause was included in the contract;
</P>
<P>(D) Information concerning known settlement negotiations between the parties, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any other relevant facts known to the contracting agency or other information requested by the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.12   Department of Labor requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Executive Order minimum wage applicable from January 1, 2015 through December 31, 2015 is $10.10 per hour. The Secretary will determine the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis, beginning January 1, 2016.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method for determining the applicable Executive Order minimum wage.</I> The Secretary will determine the applicable minimum wage under the Executive Order, beginning January 1, 2016, by using the methodology set forth in § 10.5(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice.</I> (1) The Administrator will notify the public of the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis at least 90 days before any new minimum wage is to take effect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of notification</I>—(i) <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Administrator will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis at least 90 days before any new minimum wage is to take effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Wage Determinations OnLine Web site.</I> The Administrator will publish and maintain on Wage Determinations OnLine (WDOL), <I>http://www.wdol.gov,</I> or any successor site, the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Wage Determinations.</I> The Administrator will publish a prominent general notice on all wage determinations issued under the Davis-Bacon Act and the Service Contract Act stating the Executive Order minimum wage and that the Executive Order minimum wage applies to all workers performing on or in connection with such contracts whose wages are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Davis-Bacon Act, and the Service Contract Act. The Administrator will update this general notice on all such wage determinations annually.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other means as appropriate.</I> The Administrator may publish the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis at least 90 days before any such new minimum wage is to take effect in any other media that the Administrator deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification to a contractor of the withholding of funds.</I> If the Administrator requests that a contracting agency withhold funds from a contractor pursuant to § 10.11(c), the Administrator and/or contracting agency shall notify the affected prime contractor of the Administrator's withholding request to the contracting agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Contractor Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.21   Contract clause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contract clause.</I> The contractor, as a condition of payment, shall abide by the terms of the applicable Executive Order minimum wage contract clause referred to in § 10.11(a).
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor and any subcontractors shall include in any covered subcontracts the Executive Order minimum wage contract clause referred to in § 10.11(a) and shall require, as a condition of payment, that the subcontractor include the minimum wage contract clause in any lower-tier subcontracts. The prime contractor and any upper-tier contractor shall be responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower-tier subcontractor with the Executive Order minimum wage requirements, whether or not the contract clause was included in the subcontract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.22   Rate of pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The contractor must pay each worker performing work on or in connection with a covered contract no less than the applicable Executive Order minimum wage for all hours worked on or in connection with the covered contract, unless such worker is exempt under § 10.4 of this part. In determining whether a worker is performing within the scope of a covered contract, all workers who, on or after the date of award, are engaged in working on or in connection with the contract, either in performing the specific services called for by its terms or in performing other duties necessary to the performance of the contract, are thus subject to the Executive Order and this part unless a specific exemption is applicable. Nothing in the Executive Order or these regulations shall excuse noncompliance with any applicable Federal or State prevailing wage law or any applicable law or municipal ordinance establishing a minimum wage higher than the minimum wage established under Executive Order 13658.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Workers who receive fringe benefits.</I> The contractor may not discharge any part of its minimum wage obligation under the Executive Order by furnishing fringe benefits or, with respect to workers whose wages are governed by the Service Contract Act, the cash equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tipped employees.</I> The contractor may satisfy the wage payment obligation to a tipped employee under the Executive Order through a combination of an hourly cash wage and a credit based on tips received by such employee pursuant to the provisions in § 10.28.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.23   Deductions.</HEAD>
<P>The contractor may make deductions that reduce a worker's wages below the Executive Order minimum wage rate only if such deduction qualifies as a:
</P>
<P>(a) Deduction required by Federal, State, or local law, such as Federal or State withholding of income taxes;
</P>
<P>(b) Deduction for payments made to third parties pursuant to court order;
</P>
<P>(c) Deduction directed by a voluntary assignment of the worker or his or her authorized representative; or
</P>
<P>(d) Deduction for the reasonable cost or fair value, as determined by the Administrator, of furnishing such worker with “board, lodging, or other facilities,” as defined in 29 U.S.C. 203(m) and part 531 of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.24   Overtime payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Fair Labor Standards Act and the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act require overtime payment of not less than one and one-half times the regular rate of pay or basic rate of pay for all hours worked over 40 hours in a workweek to covered workers. The regular rate of pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act is generally determined by dividing the worker's total earnings in any workweek by the total number of hours actually worked by the worker in that workweek for which such compensation was paid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tipped employees.</I> When overtime is worked by tipped employees who are entitled to overtime pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act and/or the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, the employees' regular rate of pay includes both the cash wages paid by the employer (<I>see</I> §§ 10.22(a) and 10.28(a)(1)) and the amount of any tip credit taken (<I>see</I> § 10.28(a)(2)). (<I>See</I> part 778 of this title for a detailed discussion of overtime compensation under the Fair Labor Standards Act.) Any tips received by the employee in excess of the tip credit are not included in the regular rate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.25   Frequency of pay.</HEAD>
<P>Wage payments to workers shall be made no later than one pay period following the end of the regular pay period in which such wages were earned or accrued. A pay period under Executive Order 13658 may not be of any duration longer than semi-monthly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.26   Records to be kept by contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor and each subcontractor performing work subject to Executive Order 13658 shall make and maintain, for three years, records containing the information specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section for each worker and shall make them available for inspection and transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, address, and social security number of each worker;
</P>
<P>(2) The worker's occupation(s) or classification(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The rate or rates of wages paid;
</P>
<P>(4) The number of daily and weekly hours worked by each worker;
</P>
<P>(5) Any deductions made; and
</P>
<P>(6) The total wages paid.
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor shall permit authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division to conduct interviews with workers at the worksite during normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part limits or otherwise modifies the contractor's recordkeeping obligations, if any, under the Davis-Bacon Act, the Service Contract Act, or the Fair Labor Standards Act, or their implementing regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.27" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.27   Anti-kickback.</HEAD>
<P>All wages paid to workers performing on or in connection with covered contracts must be paid free and clear and without subsequent deduction (except as set forth in § 10.23), rebate, or kickback on any account. Kickbacks directly or indirectly to the employer or to another person for the employer's benefit for the whole or part of the wage are prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.28" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.28   Tipped employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of wages to tipped employees.</I> With respect to workers who are tipped employees as defined in § 10.2 and this section, the amount of wages paid to such employee by the employee's employer shall be equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) An hourly cash wage of at least:
</P>
<P>(i) $4.90 an hour beginning on January 1, 2015;
</P>
<P>(ii) For each succeeding 1-year period until the hourly cash wage equals 70 percent of the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order, the hourly cash wage applicable in the prior year, increased by the lesser of $0.95 or the amount necessary for the hourly cash wage to equal 70 percent of the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order;
</P>
<P>(iii) For each subsequent year, 70 percent of the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order for such year rounded to the nearest multiple of $0.05; and
</P>
<P>(2) An additional amount on account of the tips received by such employee (tip credit) which amount is equal to the difference between the hourly cash wage in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order. Where tipped employees do not receive a sufficient amount of tips in the workweek to equal the amount of the tip credit, the employer must increase the cash wage paid for the workweek under paragraph (a)(1) of this section so that the amount of the cash wage paid and the tips received by the employee equal the minimum wage under section 2 of the Executive Order.
</P>
<P>(3) An employer may pay a higher cash wage than required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section and take a lower tip credit but may not pay a lower cash wage than required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section and take a greater tip credit. In order for the employer to claim a tip credit, the employer must demonstrate that the worker received at least the amount of the credit claimed in actual tips. If the worker received less than the claimed tip credit amount in tips during the workweek, the employer is required to pay the balance on the regular payday so that the worker receives the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order with the defined combination of wages and tips.
</P>
<P>(4) If the wage required to be paid under the Service Contract Act, 41 U.S.C. 6701 <I>et seq.,</I> or any other applicable law or regulation is higher than the wage required by section 2 of the Executive Order, the employer shall pay additional cash wages equal to the difference between the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order and the highest wage required to be paid.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tipped employees.</I> (1) As provided in § 10.2, a covered worker employed in an occupation in which he or she receives tips is a “tipped employee” when he or she customarily and regularly receives more than $30 a month in tips. Only tips actually retained by the employee after any tip pooling may be counted in determining whether the person is a “tipped employee” and in applying the provisions of section 3 of the Executive Order. An employee may be a “tipped employee” regardless of whether the employee is employed full time or part time so long as the employee customarily and regularly receives more than $30 a month in tips. An employee who does not receive more than $30 a month in tips customarily and regularly is not a tipped employee for purposes of the Executive Order and must receive the full minimum wage in section 2 of the Executive Order without any credit for tips received under the provisions of section 3.










</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dual jobs.</I> In some situations an employee is employed in dual jobs, as, for example, where a maintenance person in a hotel also works as a server. In such a situation the employee, if the employee customarily and regularly receives at least $30 a month in tips for the work as a server, is engaged in a tipped occupation only when employed as a server. The employee is employed in two occupations, and no tip credit can be taken for the employee's hours of employment in the occupation of maintenance person.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Engaged in a tipped occupation.</I> An employee is engaged in a tipped occupation when the employee performs work that is part of the tipped occupation. An employer may only take a tip credit for work performed by a tipped employee that is part of the employee's tipped occupation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Work that is part of the tipped occupation.</I> Work that is part of the tipped occupation is:
</P>
<P>(A) Work that produces tips; and
</P>
<P>(B) Work that directly supports the tip-producing work, if the directly supporting work is not performed for a substantial amount of time.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Tip-producing work.</I> (A) Tip-producing work is any work performed by a tipped employee that provides service to customers for which the tipped employee receives tips.
</P>
<P>(B) Examples: The following examples illustrate <I>tip-producing work</I> performed by a tipped employee that provides service to customers for which the tipped employee receives tips. A tipped employee's tip-producing work includes all aspects of the service to customers for which the tipped employee receives tips; this list is illustrative and is not exhaustive. A server's tip-producing work includes providing table service, such as taking orders, making recommendations, and serving food and drink. A bartender's tip-producing work includes making and serving drinks, talking to customers at the bar and, if the bar includes food service, serving food to customers. A nail technician's tip-producing work includes performing manicures and pedicures and assisting the patron to select the type of service. A busser's tip-producing work includes assisting servers with their tip-producing work for customers, such as table service, including filling water glasses, clearing dishes from tables, fetching and delivering items to and from tables, and bussing tables, including changing linens and setting tables. A parking attendant's tip-producing work includes parking and retrieving cars and moving cars in order to retrieve a car at the request of customer. A service bartender's tip-producing work includes preparing drinks for table service. A hotel housekeeper's tip-producing work includes cleaning hotel rooms. A hotel bellhop's tip-producing work includes assisting customers with their luggage. The tip-producing work of a tipped employee who both prepares and serves food to customers, such as a counterperson, includes preparing and serving food.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Directly supporting work.</I> (A) Directly supporting work is work performed by a tipped employee in preparation of or to otherwise assist tip-producing customer service work.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Examples:</I> The following examples illustrate tasks that are <I>directly supporting work</I> when they are performed in preparation of or to otherwise assist tip-producing customer service work and when they do not provide service to customers. This list is illustrative and is not exhaustive: A server's directly supporting work includes dining room prep work, such as refilling salt and pepper shakers and ketchup bottles, rolling silverware, folding napkins, sweeping or vacuuming under tables in the dining area, and setting and bussing tables. A busser's directly supporting work includes pre- and post-table service prep work such as folding napkins and rolling silverware, stocking the busser station, and vacuuming the dining room, as well as wiping down soda machines, ice dispensers, food warmers, and other equipment in the service alley. A bartender's directly supporting work includes work such as slicing and pitting fruit for drinks, wiping down the bar or tables in the bar area, cleaning bar glasses, arranging bottles in the bar, fetching liquor and supplies, vacuuming under tables in the bar area, cleaning ice coolers and bar mats, making drink mixes, and filling up dispensers with drink mixes. A nail technician's directly supporting work includes cleaning pedicure baths between customers, cleaning and sterilizing private salon rooms between customers, and cleaning tools and the floor of the salon. A parking attendant's directly supporting work includes cleaning the valet stand and parking area, and moving cars around the parking lot or garage to facilitate the parking of patrons' cars. A service bartender's directly supporting work includes slicing and pitting fruit for drinks, cleaning bar glasses, arranging bottles, and fetching liquor or supplies. A hotel housekeeper's directly supporting work includes stocking the housekeeping cart. A hotel bellhop's directly supporting work includes rearranging the luggage storage area and maintaining clean lobbies and entrance areas of the hotel.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Substantial amount of time.</I> An employer can take a tip credit for the time a tipped employee spends performing work that is not tip-producing, but directly supports tip-producing work, provided that the employee does not perform that work for a substantial amount of time. For the purposes of this section, an employee has performed directly supporting work for a substantial amount of time if:
</P>
<P>(A) The directly supporting work exceeds a 20 percent workweek tolerance, which is calculated by determining 20 percent of the hours in the workweek for which the employer has taken a tip credit. The employer cannot take a tip credit for any time spent on directly supporting work that exceeds the 20 percent tolerance. Time for which an employer does not take a tip credit is excluded in calculating the 20 percent tolerance; or
</P>
<P>(B) For any continuous period of time, the directly supporting work exceeds 30 minutes. If a tipped employee performs directly supporting work for a continuous period of time that exceeds 30 minutes, the employer cannot take a tip credit for any time that exceeds 30 minutes. Time in excess of the 30 minutes, for which an employer may not take a tip credit, is excluded in calculating the 20 percent tolerance in paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Work that is not part of the tipped occupation.</I> (A) Work that is not part of the tipped occupation is any work that does not provide service to customers for which tipped employees receive tips, and does not directly support tip-producing work. If a tipped employee is required to perform work that is not part of the employee's tipped occupation, the employer may not take a tip credit for that time.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Examples:</I> The following examples illustrate <I>work that is not part of the tipped occupation</I> because the work does not provide service to customers for which tipped employees receive tips, and does not directly support tip-producing work. This list is illustrative and is not exhaustive. Preparing food, including salads, and cleaning the kitchen or bathrooms, is not part of the tipped occupation of a server. Cleaning the dining room or bathroom is not part of the tipped occupation of a bartender. Ordering supplies for the salon is not part of the tipped occupation of a nail technician. Servicing vehicles is not part of the tipped occupation of a parking attendant. Cleaning the dining room and bathrooms is not part of the tipped occupation of a service bartender. Cleaning non-residential parts of a hotel, such as the exercise room, restaurant, and meeting rooms, is not part of the tipped occupation of a hotel housekeeper. Cleaning the kitchen or bathrooms is not part of the tipped occupation of a busser. Retrieving room service trays from guest rooms is not part of the tipped occupation of a hotel bellhop.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Characteristics of tips.</I> A tip is a sum presented by a customer as a gift or gratuity in recognition of some service performed for the customer. It is to be distinguished from payment of a fixed charge, if any, made for the service. Whether a tip is to be given, and its amount, are matters determined solely by the customer. Customers may present cash tips directly to the employee or may designate a tip amount to be added to their bill when paying with a credit card or by other electronic means. Special gifts in forms other than money or its equivalent such as theater tickets, passes, or merchandise, are not counted as tips received by the employee for purposes of determining wages paid under the Executive order.






</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service charges.</I> (1) A compulsory charge for service, such as 15 percent of the amount of the bill, imposed on a customer by an employer's establishment, is not a tip and, even if distributed by the employer to its workers, cannot be counted as a tip for purposes of determining if the worker is a tipped employee. Similarly, where negotiations between a hotel and a customer for banquet facilities include amounts for distribution to workers of the hotel, the amounts so distributed are not tips.
</P>
<P>(2) As stated above, service charges and other similar sums are considered to be part of the employer's gross receipts and are not tips for the purposes of the Executive Order. Where such sums are distributed by the employer to its workers, however, they may be used in their entirety to satisfy the wage payment requirements of the Executive Order.






</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tip pooling.</I> Where tipped employees share tips through a tip pool, only the amounts retained by the tipped employees after any redistribution through a tip pool are considered tips in applying the provisions of FLSA section 3(t) and the wage payment provisions of section 3 of the Executive order. There is no maximum contribution percentage on mandatory tip pools. However, an employer must notify its employees of any required tip pool contribution amount, may only take a tip credit for the amount of tips each employee ultimately receives, and may not retain any of the employees' tips for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice.</I> An employer is not eligible to take the tip credit unless it has informed its tipped employees in advance of the employer's use of the tip credit. The employer must inform the tipped employee of the amount of the cash wage that is to be paid by the employer, which cannot be lower than the cash wage required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section; the additional amount by which the wages of the tipped employee will be considered increased on account of the tip credit claimed by the employer, which amount may not exceed the value of the tips actually received by the employee; that all tips received by the tipped employee must be retained by the employee except for a tip pooling arrangement; and that the tip credit shall not apply to any worker who has not been informed of the requirements in this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 60721, Oct. 7, 2014, as amended at 85 FR 86788, Dec. 30, 2020; 86 FR 60156, Oct. 29, 2021; 86 FR 71829, Dec. 20, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.29" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.3.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.29   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor must notify all workers performing work on or in connection with a covered contract of the applicable minimum wage rate under the Executive Order. With respect to service employees on contracts covered by the Service Contract Act and laborers and mechanics on contracts covered by the Davis-Bacon Act, the contractor may meet this requirement by posting, in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite, the applicable wage determination under those statutes.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to workers performing work on or in connection with a covered contract whose wages are governed by the FLSA, the contractor must post a notice provided by the Department of Labor in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite so it may be readily seen by workers.
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors that customarily post notices to workers electronically may post the notice electronically, provided such electronic posting is displayed prominently on any Web site that is maintained by the contractor, whether external or internal, and customarily used for notices to workers about terms and conditions of employment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.41" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.41   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any worker, contractor, labor organization, trade organization, contracting agency, or other person or entity that believes a violation of the Executive Order or this part has occurred may file a complaint with any office of the Wage and Hour Division. No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, the Wage and Hour Division will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the policy of the Department of Labor to protect the identity of its confidential sources and to prevent an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Accordingly, the identity of any individual who makes a written or oral statement as a complaint or in the course of an investigation, as well as portions of the statement which would reveal the individual's identity, shall not be disclosed in any manner to anyone other than Federal officials without the prior consent of the individual. Disclosure of such statements shall be governed by the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552, <I>see</I> 29 CFR part 70) and the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.42" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.42   Wage and Hour Division conciliation.</HEAD>
<P>After receipt of a complaint, the Administrator may seek to resolve the matter through conciliation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.43" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.43   Wage and Hour Division investigation.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may investigate possible violations of the Executive Order or this part either as the result of a complaint or at any time on his or her own initiative. As part of the investigation, the Administrator may conduct interviews with the relevant contractor, as well as the contractor's workers at the worksite during normal work hours; inspect the relevant contractor's records (including contract documents and payrolls, if applicable); make copies and transcriptions of such records; and require the production of any documentary or other evidence the Administrator deems necessary to determine whether a violation, including conduct warranting imposition of debarment, has occurred. Federal agencies and contractors shall cooperate with any authorized representative of the Department of Labor in the inspection of records, in interviews with workers, and in all aspects of investigations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.44   Remedies and sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unpaid wages.</I> When the Administrator determines a contractor has failed to pay the applicable Executive Order minimum wage to workers, the Administrator will notify the contractor and the applicable contracting agency of the unpaid wage violation and request the contractor to remedy the violation. If the contractor does not remedy the violation of the Executive Order or this part, the Administrator shall direct the contractor to pay all unpaid wages to the affected workers in the investigative findings letter it issues pursuant to § 10.51. The Administrator may additionally direct that payments due on the contract or any other contract between the contractor and the Government be withheld as necessary to pay unpaid wages. Upon the final order of the Secretary that unpaid wages are due, the Administrator may direct the relevant contracting agency to transfer the withheld funds to the Department of Labor for disbursement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Antiretaliation.</I> When the Administrator determines that any person has discharged or in any other manner retaliated against any worker because such worker filed any complaint or instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to the Executive Order or this part, or because such worker testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding, the Administrator may provide for any relief to the worker as may be appropriate, including employment, reinstatement, promotion, and the payment of lost wages.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Debarment.</I> Whenever a contractor is found by the Secretary of Labor to have disregarded its obligations under the Executive Order, or this part, such contractor and its responsible officers, and any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which the contractor or responsible officers have an interest, shall be ineligible to be awarded any contract or subcontract subject to the Executive Order for a period of up to three years from the date of publication of the name of the contractor or responsible officer on the ineligible list. Neither an order for debarment of any contractor or its responsible officers from further Government contracts nor the inclusion of a contractor or its responsible officers on a published list of noncomplying contractors under this section shall be carried out without affording the contractor or responsible officers an opportunity for a hearing before an Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Civil action to recover greater underpayments than those withheld.</I> If the payments withheld under § 10.11(c) are insufficient to reimburse all workers' lost wages, or if there are no payments to withhold, the Department of Labor, following a final order of the Secretary, may bring action against the contractor in any court of competent jurisdiction to recover the remaining amount of underpayments. The Department of Labor shall, to the extent possible, pay any sums it recovers in this manner directly to the underpaid workers. Any sum not paid to a worker because of inability to do so within three years shall be transferred into the Treasury of the United States as miscellaneous receipts.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retroactive inclusion of contract clause.</I> If a contracting agency fails to include the applicable contract clause in a contract to which the Executive Order applies, the contracting agency, on its own initiative or within 15 calendar days of notification by an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, shall incorporate the contract clause in the contract retroactive to commencement of performance under the contract through the exercise of any and all authority that may be needed (including, where necessary, its authority to negotiate or amend, its authority to pay any necessary additional costs, and its authority under any contract provision authorizing changes, cancellation and termination).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.51   Disputes concerning contractor compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section sets forth the procedure for resolution of disputes of fact or law concerning a contractor's compliance with subpart C of this part. The procedures in this section may be initiated upon the Administrator's own motion or upon request of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In the event of a dispute described in paragraph (a) of this section in which it appears that relevant facts are at issue, the Administrator will notify the affected contractor(s) and the prime contractor (if different) of the investigative findings by certified mail to the last known address.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor desiring a hearing concerning the Administrator's investigative findings letter shall request such a hearing by letter postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the Administrator's letter. The request shall set forth those findings which are in dispute with respect to the violations and/or debarment, as appropriate, and explain how the findings are in dispute, including by making reference to any affirmative defenses.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto, for designation to an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to resolve the disputed matters. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 6.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In the event of a dispute described in paragraph (a) of this section in which it appears that there are no relevant facts at issue, and where there is not at that time reasonable cause to institute debarment proceedings under § 10.52, the Administrator shall notify the contractor(s) of the investigation findings by certified mail to the last known address, and shall issue a ruling in the investigative findings letter on any issues of law known to be in dispute.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If the contractor disagrees with the factual findings of the Administrator or believes that there are relevant facts in dispute, the contractor shall so advise the Administrator by letter postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the Administrator's letter. In the response, the contractor shall explain in detail the facts alleged to be in dispute and attach any supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of a timely response under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section alleging the existence of a factual dispute, the Administrator shall examine the information submitted. If the Administrator determines that there is a relevant issue of fact, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section. If the Administrator determines that there is no relevant issue of fact, the Administrator shall so rule and advise the contractor accordingly.
</P>
<P>(3) If the contractor desires review of the ruling issued by the Administrator under paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the contractor shall file a petition for review thereof with the Administrative Review Board postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the ruling, with a copy thereof to the Administrator. The petition for review shall be filed in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 7.
</P>
<P>(d) If a timely response to the Administrator's investigative findings letter is not made or a timely petition for review is not filed, the Administrator's investigative findings letter shall become the final order of the Secretary. If a timely response or petition for review is filed, the Administrator's letter shall be inoperative unless and until the decision is upheld by the Administrative Law Judge or the Administrative Review Board, or otherwise becomes a final order of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.52   Debarment proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever any contractor is found by the Secretary of Labor to have disregarded its obligations to workers or subcontractors under Executive Order 13658 or this part, such contractor and its responsible officers, and any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such contractor or responsible officers have an interest, shall be ineligible for a period of up to three years to receive any contracts or subcontracts subject to Executive Order 13658 from the date of publication of the name or names of the contractor or persons on the ineligible list.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Whenever the Administrator finds reasonable cause to believe that a contractor has committed a violation of Executive Order 13658 or this part which constitutes a disregard of its obligations to workers or subcontractors, the Administrator shall notify by certified mail to the last known address, the contractor and its responsible officers (and any firms, corporations, partnerships, or associations in which the contractor or responsible officers are known to have an interest), of the finding. The Administrator shall afford such contractor and any other parties notified an opportunity for a hearing as to whether debarment action should be taken under Executive Order 13658 or this part. The Administrator shall furnish to those notified a summary of the investigative findings. If the contractor or any other parties notified wish to request a hearing as to whether debarment action should be taken, such a request shall be made by letter to the Administrator postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator, and shall set forth any findings which are in dispute and the reasons therefor, including any affirmative defenses to be raised. Upon receipt of such timely request for a hearing, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and the response thereto, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to determine the matters in dispute.
</P>
<P>(2) Hearings under this section shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 6. If no hearing is requested within 30 calendar days of the letter from the Administrator, the Administrator's findings shall become the final order of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.53   Referral to Chief Administrative Law Judge; amendment of pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing under § 10.51 (where the Administrator has determined that relevant facts are in dispute) or § 10.52 (debarment), the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to decide the disputed matters. A copy of the Order of Reference and attachments thereto shall be served upon the respondent. The investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto shall be given the effect of a complaint and answer, respectively, for purposes of the administrative proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) At any time prior to the closing of the hearing record, the complaint (investigative findings letter) or answer (response) may be amended with the permission of the Administrative Law Judge and upon such terms as he/she may approve. For proceedings pursuant to § 10.51, such an amendment may include a statement that debarment action is warranted under § 10.52. Such amendments shall be allowed when justice and the presentation of the merits are served thereby, provided there is no prejudice to the objecting party's presentation on the merits. When issues not raised by the pleadings are reasonably within the scope of the original complaint and are tried by express or implied consent of the parties, they shall be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the pleadings, and such amendments may be made as necessary to make them conform to the evidence. The presiding Administrative Law Judge may, upon reasonable notice and upon such terms as are just, permit supplemental pleadings setting forth transactions, occurrences or events which have happened since the date of the pleadings and which are relevant to any of the issues involved. A continuance in the hearing may be granted or the record left open to enable the new allegations to be addressed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.54   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the receipt of evidence or, at the Administrative Law Judge's discretion prior to the issuance of the Administrative Law Judge's decision, the parties may enter into consent findings and an order disposing of the proceeding in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding in whole or in part shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the Administrator's findings letter and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the Administrative Law Judge and the Administrative Review Board regarding those matters which are the subject of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 calendar days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings and order. If such agreement disposes of only a part of the disputed matter, a hearing shall be conducted on the matters remaining in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.55" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.55   Proceedings of the Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of Administrative Law Judges has jurisdiction to hear and decide appeals concerning questions of law and fact from the Administrator's investigative findings letters issued under §§ 10.51 and 10.52. Any party may, when requesting an appeal or during the pendency of a proceeding on appeal, timely move an Administrative Law Judge to consolidate a proceeding initiated hereunder with a proceeding initiated under the Service Contract Act or the Davis-Bacon Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within 20 calendar days of filing of the transcript of the testimony or such additional time as the Administrative Law Judge may allow, each party may file with the Administrative Law Judge proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and a proposed order, together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Each party shall serve such proposals and brief on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision.</I> (1) Within a reasonable period of time after the time allowed for filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within 30 calendar days of receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue a decision. The decision shall contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order, and be served upon all parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If the respondent is found to have violated Executive Order 13658 or this part, and if the Administrator requested debarment, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue an order as to whether the respondent is to be subject to the ineligible list, including findings that the contractor disregarded its obligations to workers or subcontractors under the Executive Order or this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limit on scope of review.</I> The Equal Access to Justice Act, as amended, does not apply to proceedings under this part. Accordingly, Administrative Law Judges shall have no authority to award attorney's fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act for any proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Orders.</I> If the Administrative Law Judge concludes a violation occurred, the final order shall mandate action to remedy the violation, including, but not limited to, monetary relief for unpaid wages. Where the Administrator has sought imposition of debarment, the Administrative Law Judge shall determine whether an order imposing debarment is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Finality.</I> The Administrative Law Judge's decision shall become the final order of the Secretary, unless a timely petition for review is filed with the Administrative Review Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.56" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.56   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 calendar days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge (or such additional time as is granted by the Administrative Review Board), any party aggrieved thereby who desires review thereof shall file a petition for review of the decision with supporting reasons. Such party shall transmit the petition in writing to the Administrative Review Board with a copy thereof to the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The petition shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order at issue. A petition concerning the decision on debarment shall also state the disregard of obligations to workers and/or subcontractors, or lack thereof, as appropriate. A party must serve the petition for review, and all briefs, on all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. It must also timely serve copies of the petition and all briefs on the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of filing.</I> If a party files a timely petition for review, the Administrative Law Judge's decision shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Review Board issues an order affirming the letter or decision, or the letter or decision otherwise becomes a final order of the Secretary. If a petition for review concerns only the imposition of debarment, however, the remainder of the decision shall be effective immediately. No judicial review shall be available unless a timely petition for review to the Administrative Review Board is first filed.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.57" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.57   Administrative Review Board proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Administrative Review Board has jurisdiction to hear and decide in its discretion appeals concerning questions of law and fact from investigative findings letters of the Administrator issued under § 10.51(c)(1) or (2), Administrator's rulings issued under § 10.58, and decisions of Administrative Law Judges issued under § 10.55.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limit on scope of review.</I> (i) The Board shall not have jurisdiction to pass on the validity of any provision of this part. The Board is an appellate body and shall decide cases properly before it on the basis of substantial evidence contained in the entire record before it. The Board shall not receive new evidence into the record.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Equal Access to Justice Act, as amended, does not apply to proceedings under this part. Accordingly, the Administrative Review Board shall have no authority to award attorney's fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act for any proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decisions.</I> The Board's decision shall be issued within a reasonable period of time following receipt of the petition for review and shall be served upon all parties by mail to the last known address and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge (in cases involving an appeal from an Administrative Law Judge's decision).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Orders.</I> If the Board concludes a violation occurred, an order shall be issued mandating action to remedy the violation, including, but not limited to, monetary relief for unpaid wages. Where the Administrator has sought imposition of debarment, the Board shall determine whether an order imposing debarment is appropriate. The ARB's order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 30617, May 20, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.58" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.58   Administrator ruling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Questions regarding the application and interpretation of the rules contained in this part may be referred to the Administrator, who shall issue an appropriate ruling. Requests for such rulings should be addressed to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) Any interested party may appeal to the Administrative Review Board for review of a final ruling of the Administrator issued under paragraph (a) of this section. The petition for review shall be filed with the Administrative Review Board within 30 calendar days of the date of the ruling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.11.5.27.9.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to 29 CFR Part 10—Contract Clause
</HEAD>
<P>The following clause shall be included by the contracting agency in every contract, contract-like instrument, and solicitation to which Executive Order 13658 applies, except for procurement contracts subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR):
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Executive Order 13658.</I> This contract is subject to Executive Order 13658, the regulations issued by the Secretary of Labor in 29 CFR part 10 pursuant to the Executive Order, and the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum Wages.</I> (1) Each worker (as defined in 29 CFR 10.2) engaged in the performance of this contract by the prime contractor or any subcontractor, regardless of any contractual relationship which may be alleged to exist between the contractor and worker, shall be paid not less than the applicable minimum wage under Executive Order 13658.
</P>
<P>(2) The minimum wage required to be paid to each worker performing work on or in connection with this contract between January 1, 2015 and December 31, 2015 shall be $10.10 per hour. The minimum wage shall be adjusted each time the Secretary of Labor's annual determination of the applicable minimum wage under section 2(a)(ii) of Executive Order 13658 results in a higher minimum wage. Adjustments to the Executive Order minimum wage under section 2(a)(ii) of Executive Order 13658 will be effective for all workers subject to the Executive Order beginning January 1 of the following year. If appropriate, the contracting officer, or other agency official overseeing this contract shall ensure the contractor is compensated only for the increase in labor costs resulting from the annual inflation increases in the Executive Order 13658 minimum wage beginning on January 1, 2016. The Secretary of Labor will publish annual determinations in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> no later than 90 days before such new wage is to take effect. The Secretary will also publish the applicable minimum wage on <I>www.wdol.gov</I> (or any successor Web site). The applicable published minimum wage is incorporated by reference into this contract.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor shall pay unconditionally to each worker all wages due free and clear and without subsequent deduction (except as otherwise provided by 29 CFR 10.23), rebate, or kickback on any account. Such payments shall be made no later than one pay period following the end of the regular pay period in which such wages were earned or accrued. A pay period under this Executive Order may not be of any duration longer than semi-monthly.
</P>
<P>(4) The prime contractor and any upper-tier subcontractor shall be responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower-tier subcontractor with the Executive Order minimum wage requirements. In the event of any violation of the minimum wage obligation of this clause, the contractor and any subcontractor(s) responsible therefore shall be liable for the unpaid wages.
</P>
<P>(5) If the commensurate wage rate paid to a worker on a covered contract whose wages are calculated pursuant to a special certificate issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c), whether hourly or piece rate, is less than the Executive Order minimum wage, the contractor must pay the Executive Order minimum wage rate to achieve compliance with the Order. If the commensurate wage due under the certificate is greater than the Executive Order minimum wage, the contractor must pay the 14(c) worker the greater commensurate wage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Withholding.</I> The agency head shall upon its own action or upon written request of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor withhold or cause to be withheld from the prime contractor under this or any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, so much of the accrued payments or advances as may be considered necessary to pay workers the full amount of wages required by Executive Order 13658.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contract Suspension/Contract Termination/Contractor Debarment.</I> In the event of a failure to pay any worker all or part of the wages due under Executive Order 13658 or 29 CFR part 10, or a failure to comply with any other term or condition of Executive Order 13658 or 29 CFR part 10, the contracting agency may on its own action or after authorization or by direction of the Department of Labor and written notification to the contractor, take action to cause suspension of any further payment, advance or guarantee of funds until such violations have ceased. Additionally, any failure to comply with the requirements of this clause may be grounds for termination of the right to proceed with the contract work. In such event, the Government may enter into other contracts or arrangements for completion of the work, charging the contractor in default with any additional cost. A breach of the contract clause may be grounds for debarment as a contractor and subcontractor as provided in 29 CFR 10.52.
</P>
<P>(e) The contractor may not discharge any part of its minimum wage obligation under Executive Order 13658 by furnishing fringe benefits or, with respect to workers whose wages are governed by the Service Contract Act, the cash equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing herein shall relieve the contractor of any other obligation under Federal, State or local law, or under contract, for the payment of a higher wage to any worker, nor shall a lower prevailing wage under any such Federal, State, or local law, or under contract, entitle a contractor to pay less than $10.10 (or the minimum wage as established each January thereafter) to any worker.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Payroll Records.</I> (1) The contractor shall make and maintain for three years records containing the information specified in paragraphs (g)(1) (i) through (vi) of this section for each worker and shall make the records available for inspection and transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and social security number.
</P>
<P>(ii) The worker's occupation(s) or classification(s)
</P>
<P>(iii) The rate or rates of wages paid.
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of daily and weekly hours worked by each worker.
</P>
<P>(v) Any deductions made; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Total wages paid.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor shall also make available a copy of the contract, as applicable, for inspection or transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to make and maintain or to make available such records for inspection and transcription shall be a violation of 29 CFR part 10 and this contract, and in the case of failure to produce such records, the contracting officer, upon direction of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, or under its own action, shall take such action as may be necessary to cause suspension of any further payment or advance of funds until such time as the violations are discontinued.
</P>
<P>(4) The contractor shall permit authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division to conduct investigations, including interviewing workers at the worksite during normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in this clause limits or otherwise modifies the contractor's payroll and recordkeeping obligations, if any, under the Davis-Bacon Act, as amended, and its implementing regulations; the Service Contract Act, as amended, and its implementing regulations; the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, and its implementing regulations; or any other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(h) The contractor (as defined in 29 CFR 10.2) shall insert this clause in all of its covered subcontracts and shall require its subcontractors to include this clause in any covered lower-tier subcontracts. The prime contractor and any upper-tier subcontractor shall be responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower-tier subcontractor with this contract clause.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Certification of Eligibility.</I> (1) By entering into this contract, the contractor (and officials thereof) certifies that neither it (nor he or she) nor any person or firm who has an interest in the contractor's firm is a person or firm ineligible to be awarded Government contracts by virtue of the sanctions imposed pursuant to section 5 of the Service Contract Act, section 3(a) of the Davis-Bacon Act, or 29 CFR 5.12(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) No part of this contract shall be subcontracted to any person or firm whose name appears on the list of persons or firms ineligible to receive Federal contracts.
</P>
<P>(3) The penalty for making false statements is prescribed in the U.S. Criminal Code, 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Tipped employees.</I> In paying wages to a tipped employee as defined in section 3(t) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 203(t), the contractor may take a partial credit against the wage payment obligation (tip credit) to the extent permitted under section 3(a) of Executive Order 13658. In order to take such a tip credit, the employee must receive an amount of tips at least equal to the amount of the credit taken; where the tipped employee does not receive sufficient tips to equal the amount of the tip credit the contractor must increase the cash wage paid for the workweek so that the amount of cash wage paid and the tips received by the employee equal the applicable minimum wage under Executive Order 13658. To utilize this proviso:
</P>
<P>(1) The employer must inform the tipped employee in advance of the use of the tip credit;
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must inform the tipped employee of the amount of cash wage that will be paid and the additional amount by which the employee's wages will be considered increased on account of the tip credit;
</P>
<P>(3) The employees must be allowed to retain all tips (individually or through a pooling arrangement and regardless of whether the employer elects to take a credit for tips received); and
</P>
<P>(4) The employer must be able to show by records that the tipped employee receives at least the applicable Executive Order minimum wage through the combination of direct wages and tip credit.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Antiretaliation.</I> It shall be unlawful for any person to discharge or in any other manner discriminate against any worker because such worker has filed any complaint or instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to Executive Order 13658 or 29 CFR part 10, or has testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Disputes concerning labor standards.</I> Disputes related to the application of Executive Order 13658 to this contract shall not be subject to the general disputes clause of the contract. Such disputes shall be resolved in accordance with the procedures of the Department of Labor set forth in 29 CFR part 10. Disputes within the meaning of this contract clause include disputes between the contractor (or any of its subcontractors) and the contracting agency, the U.S. Department of Labor, or the workers or their representatives.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Notice.</I> The contractor must notify all workers performing work on or in connection with a covered contract of the applicable minimum wage rate under the Executive Order. With respect to service employees on contracts covered by the Service Contract Act and laborers and mechanics on contracts covered by the Davis-Bacon Act, the contractor may meet this requirement by posting, in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite, the applicable wage determination under those statutes. With respect to workers performing work on or in connection with a covered contract whose wages are governed by the FLSA, the contractor must post a notice provided by the Department of Labor in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite so it may be readily seen by workers. Contractors that customarily post notices to workers electronically may post the notice electronically provided such electronic posting is displayed prominently on any Web site that is maintained by the contractor, whether external or internal, and customarily used for notices to workers about terms and conditions of employment.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 11—DEPARTMENT OF LABOR NATIONAL ENVIRONMENTAL POLICY ACT (NEPA) COMPLIANCE PROCEDURES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>NEPA, (42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I>), Executive Order 11514, Protection and Enhancement of Environmental Quality (March 5, 1970, as amended by Executive Order 11991, May 24, 1977) and Council on Environmental Quality Regulations (National Environmental Policy Act, Implementation of Procedural Provisions) 40 CFR parts 1500-1508 (43 FR 55978). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 51188, Aug. 1, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I>) directs that, “to the fullest extent possible, * * * the policies, regulations and public laws of the United States shall be interpreted and administered in accordance with the policies set forth” in the Act for the preservation of the environment. As a means for achieving this objective, Executive Order 11991 of May 24, 1977 (amending E.O. 11514 of March 5, 1970) directed the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) to issue uniform regulations for implementation of NEPA by all Federal agencies. These regulations were published in final form on November 29, 1978 (43 FR 55978) as 40 CFR parts 1500-1508. The CEQ's NEPA regulations require that each Federal agency adopt implementing procedures to supplement their regulations (40 CFR 1507.3). Accordingly, the purpose of this part is to prescribe procedures to be followed by Department of Labor agencies when such agencies are contemplating actions which may be subject to the requirements of NEPA. These regulations do not replace 40 CFR parts 1500-1508; rather they are to be read together with, and as a supplement to, the CEQ's regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is the responsibility of each agency to comply with the policies set forth in NEPA to the fullest extent possible and consistent with its statutory authority. Each agency shall comply with all applicable requirements of this part except where compliance would be inconsistent with other statutory requirements. However, no trivial violation of, or noncompliance with, these procedures shall give rise to an independent cause of action (cf. 40 CFR 1500.3 and 1507.3(b)). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Although all Department of Labor agencies are subject to NEPA, only three of its agencies routinely propose or consider actions which may require the preparation of environment assessments or environmental impact statements. These are the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), which acts pursuant to the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651, <I>et seq.</I>); the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA), which acts pursuant to the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 801, <I>et seq.</I>); and the Office of Job Corps which purchases and leases land and constructs Job Corps centers pursuant to the Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (29 U.S.C. 2801, <I>et seq.</I>). Therefore, these procedures have been designed primarily with the duties and rulemaking processes of these agencies in mind. If and when other Department of Labor agencies propose actions requiring environmental impact analyses, they shall use these procedures, to the extent that they are applicable, in performing such analyses. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 51188, Aug. 1, 1980, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.3   Responsible agency officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary for Policy shall be responsible for the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Overall review of Department of Labor agency compliance with the requirements of NEPA, the CEQ's regulations and these Departmental procedures; 
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining contacts with CEQ and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) as the Departmental NEPA liaison; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Preparing and coordinating Departmental comments in response to environmental impact statements prepared by other Federal agencies which have been submitted to the Department for review, as required by 40 CFR 1503.2. 
</P>
<P>(b) Assistant Secretaries of Labor and other officials of equivalent rank or responsibility (hereinafter “agency heads”) shall be responsible for their agencies' compliance with NEPA. 
</P>
<P>(1) These responsibilities shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Assuring that the agencies under their control observe the requirements of 40 CFR 1507.2 on compliance capability; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Preparing environmental impact assessments and statements in accordance with the requirements of these regulations and 40 CFR parts 1501 and 1502, and advising private applicants, or other non-Federal entities, of the possible need for information foreseeably required for later Federal action pursuant to 40 CFR 1501.2(d); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assuring public participation in the NEPA process in accordance with 40 CFR parts 1503 and 1506; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Commenting on environmental impact statements prepared by other agencies, when their agencies have jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to any environmental impacts connected with a proposed action, as required by 40 CFR part 1503; 
</P>
<P>(v) Assuring that environmental documents prepared by their agencies accompany proposed actions through existing agency review processes, and that, along with other relevant materials, and consistent with 40 CFR 1505.1(e), the full range of alternatives discussed in these documents are considered in the planning of agency actions and in the making of decisions and that the alternatives considered are encompassed by those discussed in the documents; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Assuring, where possible, the mitigation of adverse environmental effects of agency actions. 
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with 40 CFR 1506.5(c), agency heads will also be responsible for assuring the quality of environmental impact statements prepared by their agencies. Where environmental impact statements will be prepared by a contractor, the agency heads will assure that their agencies furnish guidance to the contractor, participate in the document's preparation, independently evaluate the statement prior to approval and take responsibility for the scope and contents. 
</P>
<P>(c) Agency heads may designate program offices or individuals as NEPA contacts for their agencies. The name and address of the NEPA contact shall be included on the cover sheet of each environmental document published by the agency, or if no cover sheet is provided, the name and address of this office or individual shall be included with any instructions to the public on obtaining further information or submitting comments on the document. 
</P>
<P>(1) It shall be the duty of an agency's NEPA contact to know the status of all environmental documents being prepared by the agency or in cooperation with another agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) The NEPA contact shall receive and respond to inquiries concerning the status of all environmental documents being prepared within the agency or in cooperation with another agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 51188, Aug. 1, 1980, as amended at 71 FR 16665, Apr. 3, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.10   Identification of agency actions.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to the CEQ definition of “major Federal action” (40 CFR 1508.18) and 40 CFR 1507.3(b)(2), the following paragraphs identify and classify Department of Labor actions which: normally will not require preparation of an environmental document (i.e. an environmental assessment or an environmental impact statement); or usually will require preparation of an environmental document. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>OSHA/MSHA actions.</I> Actions of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) are classified as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Categorically excluded actions.</I> OSHA/MSHA actions listed in the following Table will normally qualify for categorical exclusion from NEPA requirements: i.e., such actions do not require preparation of either an environmental assessment or an environmental impact statement, because they do not have a significant impact on the quality of the human environment. Classification as a categorical exclusion, however, does not prohibit OSHA or MSHA from preparing an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement on any of the following actions when OSHA or MSHA determines it to be appropriate. Also, in extraordinary circumstances where a normally excluded action is found to have a potentially significant environmental effect, OSHA or MSHA shall prepare an environmental assessment and/or an environmental impact statement as required. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">OSHA/MSHA Categorical Exclusions 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of action 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reason for exclusion 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Promulgation, modification or revocation of any safety standard. Examples of these actions are: Machine guarding requirements, safety lines, warning signals, etc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safety standards promote injury avoidance by means of mechanical applications or work practices, the effects of which do not impact on air, water or soil quality, plant or animal life, the use of land or other aspects of the human environment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Approval of petitions for variances from MSHA/OSHA safety standards or OSHA health standards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variances are taken from existing standards. Thus environmental documents, as appropriate, will already have been prepared. In terms of worker health and safety, any variance must be at least as effective as the original standard. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Agency legislative requests for appropriations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exempted by 40 CFR 1508.17. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Recordkeeping and reporting requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No possibility of significant environmental impact. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Routine agency personnel actions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Such actions typically involve small numbers of individuals and have no possibility of significant environmental impact. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) Training of employers, employees, agency personnel and others in the recognition, avoidance or abatement of occupational hazards. Providing consultative services to industry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">These actions involve educational activities which have no possibility of significant environmental impact. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) Enforcement proceedings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exempted by 40 CFR 1508.18. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) Equipment approvals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No possibility of significant environmental impact. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) State grants under Sec. 503 of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">These grants assist States in developing and implementing laws to improve mine safety and health and to promote coordination between State and Federal governments. They have no possibility of significant environmental impact. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) Certification or qualification proceedings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No possibility of significant environmental impact.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Actions requiring environmental assessment.</I> Several classes of OSHA/MSHA actions normally require the preparation of an environmental assessment prior to determining whether either a finding of no significant impact or an environmental impact statement must be prepared. (However, OSHA or MSHA may proceed to prepare an environmental impact statement, without first preparing an environmental assessment, if it determines such action to be appropriate or necessary, as provided by 40 CFR 1501.3(a)). Actions in this classification include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Promulgation, modification or revocation of a health standard; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Approval or revocation of State plans for the enforcement of safety and health standards (not applicable to MSHA). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Actions requiring preparation of an environmental impact statement.</I> Preparation of an environmental impact statement will always be required for proposals for promulgation, modification or revocation of health standards which will significantly affect air, water or soil quality, plant or animal life, the use of land or other aspects of the human environment. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Emergency temporary standards.</I> Situations requiring the issuance of emergency temporary standards (issued for a period of up to six months, pursuant to section 6(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, and for a period of up to nine months, pursuant to section 101(b) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977) are of such nature that the provisions of 40 CFR parts 1500 <I>et seq.</I> may not be strictly observable. Pursuant to 40 CFR 1506.11, however, OSHA and MSHA will consult with the Council on Environmental Quality in connection with such situations, and will, in any event, prepare environmental assessments or environmental impact statements, as appropriate, on any proposed permanent regulation to be promulgated for the purpose of replacing the temporary action. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Real property actions.</I> Actions that will involve construction, or the purchase or lease of property, in connection with the establishment or substantial alteration of a Job Corps center, of any similar Job Corps facility, or other property actions of a similar character by another agency, will normally require the preparation of an environmental assessment prior to determining whether either a finding of no significant impact or an environmental impact statement must be prepared. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other Departmental actions.</I> Certain actions taken to implement other Department of Labor programs will normally qualify for categorical exclusion from NEPA requirements. These matters are excluded because the possibility of environmental impact is remote. However, classification as a categorical exclusion does not prohibit or release an agency from preparing an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement when the agency determines it to be appropriate. These actions include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Office of Workforce Investment activities and related placement, counseling, recruitment, information, testing, certification and associated actions; 
</P>
<P>(2) Apprenticeship activities and related certification and technical assistance actions; 
</P>
<P>(3) Training activities, other than Job Corps, including work experience, classroom training and public service employment; 
</P>
<P>(4) Unemployment insurance, trade adjustment assistance, workers' compensation programs, retirement programs, employee protection programs, and related employees benefit programs or activities involving the replacement or regulation of employee wages; 
</P>
<P>(5) Wage and hour programs to protect low-income workers, eliminate discriminatory employment practices, prevent curtailment of employment and earnings for certain groups of workers, minimize loss of income due to indebtedness, protect farm and migrant labor and related activities;
</P>
<P>(6) Contract compliance programs to ensure equal employment opportunity and related actions;
</P>
<P>(7) Labor-management relations activities and activities of labor organizations, employers and their officers or representatives;
</P>
<P>(8) Research, evaluation, development and information collection projects related to any of the aforementioned activities;
</P>
<P>(9) Labor statistics programs; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Matters involving personnel policy, procurement policy, freedom of information and privacy policy, and related matters of Departmental management.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 51188, Aug. 1, 1980, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.11   Development of environmental analyses and documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potential environmental effects of agency actions shall begin to be examined at the time a topic for potential action is submitted to the agency staff for research, proposal development, or other consideration. During this stage the agency shall determine whether the type of action which may be proposed may be categorically excluded from NEPA environmental analysis requirements pursuant to § 11.10. If the type of action being considered is not categorically excluded, or is an extraordinary case of a normally excluded action which may have significant environmental impacts, development of the information needed to make an environmental assessment shall begin. Actions described in § 11.10(b) shall be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management at this point, pursuant to applicable Departmental procedures, for appropriate review, including a determination with respect to whether or not the action is located in or near a floodplain or wetlands area in connection with the requirements of Executive Orders 11988 and 11990.
</P>
<P>(b) When information gathered during the early stages of proposal development indicates that preparation of an environmental impact statement will be required, the agency shall begin preparation of such a document by initiating the scoping process in accordance with 40 CFR 1501.7. However, if the information is not clearly indicative of the need for preparation of an environmental impact statement, an environmental assessment shall be prepared.
</P>
<P>(c) Agencies are encouraged, in developing environmental assessments, to explore all factors which it may become necessary to examine should it be determined that preparation of an environmental impact statement is necessary, even though some of those factors, such as economic and social effects, “are not intended by themselves to require preparation of an environmental impact statement” (40 CFR 1508.14). Thus in making environmental assessments of real property actions described in § 11.10(b), agencies are encouraged to consider the following factors, among others:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and degree of any former use of a proposed facility and the number of individuals the facility formerly served, as compared with its use and population to be served under the new proposal;
</P>
<P>(2) The population of the area (numbers, density and makeup);
</P>
<P>(3) Community facilities and services, taking into consideration capacity and present and former use, including: Health services (hospitals, physicians), business and community development policy, recreational facilities (parks, theaters), fire and police protection, schools, energy resources, waste disposal, water, traffic and roadway systems, sewage systems, communications, and public transportation; 
</P>
<P>(4) The proximity of the facility to residential areas;
</P>
<P>(5) The potential impact on the quality of drinking water, air quality, noise levels, designated scenic areas, land use, soil quality (including drainage or erosion problems), buildings valued for their design or which are otherwise locally significant, the listing or eligibility for listing of a site in the National Register for Historic places, consistent with the requirements of 20 CFR 684.24a where applicable, neighborhood character, and health and safety of residents;
</P>
<P>(6) The potential impact on natural systems and resources including rivers and streams, forests, wetlands, floodplains, wilderness areas or places, and species designated for preservation, including species of plants and animals and their critical habitats as identified in regulations published by the Secretary of the Interior (50 CFR chapter I, part 17), and by the Secretary of Commerce (50 CFR chapter II, parts 217, 222.23, 223, and 227.4); and
</P>
<P>(7) Other considerations appropriate in light of the nature and size of the project.
</P>
<P>(d) If an agency determines, on the basis of an environmental assessment, that preparation of an environmental impact statement is not required, notice of a finding of no significant impact and the availability of the environmental assessment shall be prepared and published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In the case of proposed rulemaking, the notice of a finding of no significant impact may be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at any time prior to the publication of the proposed action, or it may be included in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of proposed rulemaking. Issuance of a finding of no significant impact at the proposal stage of rulemaking shall not foreclose further consideration of environmental issues during the rulemaking proceedings. Therefore the Department of Labor notes that, consistent with 40 CFR 1500.3, the finding shall not be considered final until promulgation of the rule involved (the action affecting the environment).
</P>
<P>(1) If it is determined that preparation of an environmental impact statement is not required for an action, but that action is one which would normally require the preparation of an environmental impact statement, an action closely similar to one which would normally require the preparation of an environmental impact statement, or an action without precedent in this regard, the agency shall make a preliminary finding of no significant impact available for public review and comment. In accordance with 40 CFR 1501.4(e)(2), this finding shall be made available for at least 30 days before a final determination is made as to whether an environmental impact statement will be prepared, and before any public record may be closed and the proposed action may become effective.
</P>
<P>(2) Although not required by 40 CFR 1501.4(e)(2), an agency may use the procedure described in § 11.11(d)(1) whenever the agency determines it to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) If it is determined on the basis of an environmental assessment, prepared in connection with an action described in § 11.10(b), that preparation of an environmental impact statement is required, or that public review is required in connection with actions in floodplains or wetlands that do not require environmental impact statements under E.O. 11988 or E.O. 11990, the agency shall consider altering the proposed action or changing the site of the proposed project, and shall proceed with preparation of an environmental impact statement or appropriate public review actions only after obtaining written authorization from the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management.
</P>
<P>(f) Filing of any draft environmental impact statement with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), pursuant to 40 CFR 1506.9, and circulation to the public, will ordinarily coincide with publication of the proposed agency action, which is the subject of that document, in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In any event, the statement will be made available for public comment for at least a 45-day period.
</P>
<P>(g) The final decision on the proposed action shall be made not earlier than 90 days following publication of EPA's notice of the filing of the draft environmental impact statement, and, except as provided below, not earlier than 30 days following publication of EPA's notice of the filing of the final environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(1) In accordance with 40 CFR 1506.10, an agency engaged in rulemaking under the Administrative Procedure Act or other statute, for the purpose of protecting the public health or safety, may waive the 30-day time period noted above and publish a decision on a final rule simultaneously with publication of the notice of the availability of the final environmental impact statement. Therefore, Departmental agencies (such as OSHA and MSHA) meeting these requirements, may file and circulate the final environmental impact statement at the same time a notice of decision is being published, provided that the final rule or action may not become effective for at least 30 days from the date of publication of the EPA's notice of filing of the final environmental impact statement. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a supplement to a final environmental impact statement is prepared, it shall be incorporated into the rulemaking record. If the supplement is prepared following the close of the rulemaking record and is based on, or introduces, new data or major new alternatives or analyses, the rulemaking record will be reopened for at least 30 days to receive public comments. The final action may not become effective for at least 30 days following EPA publication of the filing of the supplemental statement. 
</P>
<P>(h) In accordance with 40 CFR 1505.2, when an agency prepares a final environmental impact statement, the agency shall prepare a concise public record of decision detailing what the decision was, what alternatives were considered (specifying the environmentally preferable alternative), how those considerations entered into the decision, and whether all practicable means to avoid or minimize environmental harm from the alternative selected have been adopted, and if not, the reason they were not. This record may be contained in, or integrated with, the preamble to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of final action or in any other public document considered appropriate by the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.12   Content and format of environmental documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An environmental assessment may be prepared in any format considered effective by the agency involved. When such a document is prepared in connection with a proposed action, it must be made readily available to the public either by placement into the public record (with public notice provided in accordance with 40 CFR part 1506) or by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The preamble to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of proposed rulemaking may be considered the environmental assessment provided that the document contains the elements required by 40 CFR 1508.9(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) A finding of no significant impact (40 CFR 1508.13) may be prepared in any format considered to be effective or necessary by the agency involved in the proposed action. 
</P>
<P>(c) The finding of no significant impact, and the environmental assessment on which it was based, as well as any comments received in response to these documents shall be included in the public record of the proposed action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Department of Labor agencies shall comply with the format requirements for environmental impact statements as set forth at 40 CFR 1502.10, except when an agency determines that there is a compelling reason to do otherwise, such as more effective communication or reduced duplication of effort and paperwork (40 CFR 1506.4). For example, in OSHA/MSHA informal rulemaking proceedings, environmental documents may be combined with the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of proposed or final rulemaking. Filing and circulation of the combined preamble/environmental document shall be in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR 1506.9. 
</P>
<P>(e) The final environmental impact statement shall contain any changes in information or supplemental information received since the filing and circulation of the draft environmental impact statement, as well as a summary, or copies of the substantive comments received in response to the draft environmental impact statement. If such changes and comments are minor, an agency may circulate only the changes and comments, including responses to the comments, rather than the entire impact statement, to the extent permitted by 40 CFR 1502.19. However, the entire document, with a new cover sheet, shall be filed with EPA and placed in the rulemaking record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.13   Public participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an agency has determined that preparation of an environmental impact statement is required, the agency shall publish a notice of intent to prepare an environmental impact statement in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall invite public participation in the agency's scoping process as required by 40 CFR 1501.7. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the draft environmental impact statement has been prepared and filed with the EPA pursuant to § 11.11(f), comments on the document shall be solicited from appropriate Federal, State and local agencies, Indian tribes, and other persons or organizations who may be interested or affected, as required by 40 CFR 1503.1.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of an action with effects primarily of local concern, agencies shall consider the use of clearinghouses, newspapers and other public media likely to generate local participation in the agency process as ways of supplementing the notices otherwise specified in this part. The use of such public media does not, however, require or authorized the use of paid advertising. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.12.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.14   Legislation.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any provisions of this part, environmental assessments or impact statements prepared in connection with requests for new legislation or modification of existing statutes shall be handled in accordance with applicable OMB and Department of Labor procedures on the preparation and submission of legislative proposals and the requirements of 40 CFR 1506.8. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 12—UNIFORM RELOCATION ASSISTANCE AND REAL PROPERTY ACQUISITION FOR FEDERAL AND FEDERALLY ASSISTED PROGRAMS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 213, Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, Public Law 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894 (42 U.S.C. 4601) as amended by the Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987. title IV of Public Law 100-17, 101 Stat. 246-256 (42 U.S.C. 4601 note). 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 12.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.13.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.1   Uniform relocation assistance and real property acquisition.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations and procedures for complying with the Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970 (Pub. L 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894, 42 U.S.C. 4601), as amended by the Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987 (title IV of Pub. L. 100-17, 101 Stat. 246-255, 42 U.S.C. 4601 note) are set forth in 49 CFR part 24.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48020, Dec. 17, 1987, and 54 FR 8912, Mar. 2, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 13—ESTABLISHING PAID SICK LEAVE FOR FEDERAL CONTRACTORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; E.O. 13706, 80 FR 54697, 3 CFR, 2016 Comp., p. 367; Secretary's Order 01-2014, 79 FR 77527.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 67709, Sept. 30, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part contains the Department of Labor's rules relating to the administration and enforcement of Executive Order 13706 (Executive Order or the Order), “Establishing Paid Sick Leave for Federal Contractors.” The Order states that providing paid sick leave to employees will improve the health and performance of employees of Federal contractors and will bring benefits packages offered by Federal contractors in line with model employers, ensuring they remain competitive in the search for dedicated and talented employees. The Executive Order concludes that providing paid sick leave will result in savings and quality improvements in the work performed by parties who contract with the Federal Government that will in turn lead to improved economy and efficiency in Government procurement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> Executive Order 13706 sets forth the general position of the Federal Government that providing access to paid sick leave on Federal contracts will increase efficiency and cost savings for the Federal Government. The Order therefore provides that executive departments and agencies shall, to the extent permitted by law, ensure that new covered contracts, contract-like instruments, and solicitations (collectively referred to as “contracts”) include a clause, which the contractor and any subcontractors shall incorporate into lower-tier subcontracts, specifying, as a condition of payment, that employees will earn not less than 1 hour of paid sick leave for every 30 hours worked on or in connection with covered contracts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Neither Executive Order 13706 nor this part creates or changes any rights under the Contract Disputes Act or creates any private right of action. The Executive Order provides that disputes regarding whether a contractor has provided paid sick leave as prescribed by the Order, to the extent permitted by law, shall be disposed of only as provided in this part. However, nothing in the Order or this part is intended to limit or preclude a civil action under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3730, or criminal prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 1001. The Order and this part similarly do not preclude judicial review of final decisions by the Secretary of Labor in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accrual year</I> means the 12-month period during which a contractor may limit an employee's accrual of paid sick leave to no less than 56 hours.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Review Board</I> (ARB or Board) means the Administrative Review Board, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division and includes any official of the Wage and Hour Division authorized to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part.
</P>
<P><I>As soon as is practicable</I> means as soon as both possible and practical, taking into account all of the facts and circumstances of the individual case.
</P>
<P><I>Certification issued by a health care provider</I> means any type of written document created or signed by a health care provider (or by a representative of the health care provider) that contains information verifying that the physical or mental illness, injury, medical condition, or need for diagnosis, care, or preventive care or other need for care referred to in § 13.5(c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) exists. The health care provider (or representative) need not have seen the employee or the individual for whom the employee is caring in person to create a valid certification.
</P>
<P><I>Child</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A biological, adopted, step, or foster son or daughter of the employee;
</P>
<P>(2) A person who is a legal ward or was a legal ward of the employee when that individual was a minor or required a legal guardian;
</P>
<P>(3) A person for whom the employee stands <I>in loco parentis</I> or stood <I>in</I> <I>loco parentis</I> when that individual was a minor or required someone to stand <I>in loco parentis;</I> or
</P>
<P>(4) A child, as described in paragraphs (1) through (3) of this definition, of an employee's spouse or domestic partner.
</P>
<P><I>Concessions contract</I> or <I>contract for concessions</I> means a contract under which the Federal Government grants a right to use Federal property, including land or facilities, for furnishing services. The term <I>concessions contract</I> includes, but is not limited to, a contract the principal purpose of which is to furnish food, lodging, automobile fuel, souvenirs, newspaper stands, and/or recreational equipment, regardless of whether the services are of direct benefit to the Government, its personnel, or the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> or <I>contract-like instrument</I> means an agreement between two or more parties creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognizable at law. This definition includes, but is not limited to, a mutually binding legal relationship obligating one party to furnish services (including construction) and another party to pay for them. The term <I>contract</I> includes all contracts and any subcontracts of any tier thereunder, whether negotiated or advertised, including any procurement actions, lease agreements, cooperative agreements, provider agreements, intergovernmental service agreements, service agreements, licenses, permits, or any other type of agreement, regardless of nomenclature, type, or particular form, and whether entered into verbally or in writing. The term <I>contract</I> shall be interpreted broadly to include, but not be limited to, any contract that may be consistent with the definition provided in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) or applicable Federal statutes. This definition includes, but is not limited to, any contract that may be covered under any Federal procurement statute. Contracts may be the result of competitive bidding or awarded to a single source under applicable authority to do so. In addition to bilateral instruments, contracts include, but are not limited to, awards and notices of awards; job orders or task letters issued under basic ordering agreements; letter contracts; orders, such as purchase orders, under which the contract becomes effective by written acceptance or performance; and bilateral contract modifications. The term <I>contract</I> includes contracts covered by the Service Contract Act, contracts covered by the Davis-Bacon Act, concessions contracts not subject to the Service Contract Act, and contracts in connection with Federal property or land and related to offering services for Federal employees, their dependents, or the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting officer</I> means a representative of an executive department or agency with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate contracts and make related determinations and findings. This term includes certain authorized representatives of the contracting officer acting within the limits of their authority as delegated by the contracting officer.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any individual or other legal entity that is awarded a Federal Government contract or subcontract under a Federal Government contract. The term <I>contractor</I> refers to both a prime contractor and all of its subcontractors of any tier on a contract with the Federal Government. The term <I>contractor</I> includes lessors and lessees. The term <I>employer</I> is used interchangeably with the terms <I>contractor</I> and <I>subcontractor</I> in various sections of this part. The U.S. Government, its agencies, and instrumentalities are not contractors, subcontractors, employers, or joint employers for purposes of compliance with the provisions of the Executive Order.
</P>
<P><I>Davis-Bacon Act</I> (DBA) means the Davis-Bacon Act of 1931, as amended, 40 U.S.C. 3141 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic partner</I> means an adult in a committed relationship with another adult. A committed relationship is one in which the employee and the domestic partner of the employee are each other's sole domestic partner (and are not married to or domestic partners with anyone else) and share responsibility for a significant measure of each other's common welfare and financial obligations. This includes, but is not limited to, any relationship between two individuals of the same or opposite sex that is granted legal recognition by a State or by the District of Columbia as a marriage or analogous relationship (including, but not limited to, a civil union).
</P>
<P><I>Domestic violence</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Felony or misdemeanor crimes of violence (including threats or attempts) committed:
</P>
<P>(i) By a current or former spouse, domestic partner, or intimate partner of the victim;
</P>
<P>(ii) By a person with whom the victim shares a child in common;
</P>
<P>(iii) By a person who is cohabitating with or has cohabitated with the victim as a spouse, domestic partner, or intimate partner;
</P>
<P>(iv) By a person similarly situated to a spouse of the victim under civil or criminal domestic or family violence laws of the jurisdiction in which the victim resides or the events occurred; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other adult person against a victim who is protected from that person's acts under the civil or criminal domestic or family violence laws of the jurisdiction in which the victim resides or the events occurred.
</P>
<P>(2) Domestic violence also includes any crime of violence considered to be an act of domestic violence under the civil or criminal domestic or family violence laws of the jurisdiction in which the victim resides or the events occurred.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any person engaged in performing work on or in connection with a contract covered by the Executive Order, and whose wages under such contract are governed by the Service Contract Act, the Davis-Bacon Act, or the Fair Labor Standards Act, including employees who qualify for an exemption from the Fair Labor Standards Act's minimum wage and overtime provisions, regardless of the contractual relationship alleged to exist between the individual and the employer. The term <I>employee</I> includes any person performing work on or in connection with a covered contract and individually registered in a bona fide apprenticeship or training program registered with the U.S. Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration, Office of Apprenticeship, or with a State Apprenticeship Agency recognized by the Office of Apprenticeship. An employee performs “on” a contract if the employee directly performs the specific services called for by the contract. An employee performs “in connection with” a contract if the employee's work activities are necessary to the performance of a contract but are not the specific services called for by the contract.
</P>
<P><I>Executive departments and agencies</I> means executive departments within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 101, military departments within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 102, or any independent establishments within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 104(1) or 39 U.S.C. 201, and any wholly owned Government corporation within the meaning of 31 U.S.C. 9101.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Order 13495</I> or <I>Nondisplacement Executive Order</I> means Executive Order 13495 of January 30, 2009, Nondisplacement of Qualified Workers Under Service Contracts, 74 FR 6103 (Feb. 4, 2009), and its implementing regulations at 29 CFR part 9.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Order 13658</I> or <I>Minimum Wage Executive Order</I> means Executive Order 13658 of February 12, 2014, Establishing a Minimum Wage for Contractors, 79 FR 9851 (Feb. 20, 2014), and its implementing regulations at 29 CFR part 10.
</P>
<P><I>Fair Labor Standards Act</I> (FLSA) means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Family and Medical Leave Act</I> (FMLA) means the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Family violence</I> means any act or threatened act of violence, including any forceful detention of an individual that results or threatens to result in physical injury and is committed by a person against another individual (including an elderly individual) to or with whom such person is related by blood, is or was related by marriage or is or was otherwise legally related, or is or was lawfully residing.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Government</I> means an agency or instrumentality of the United States that enters into a contract pursuant to authority derived from the Constitution or the laws of the United States. For purposes of the Executive Order and this part, this definition does not include the District of Columbia, any Territory or possession of the United States, or any independent regulatory agency within the meaning of 44 U.S.C. 3502(5).
</P>
<P><I>Health care provider</I> means any practitioner who is licensed or certified under Federal or State law to provide the health-related service in question or any practitioner recognized by an employer or the employer's group health plan. The term includes, but is not limited to, doctors of medicine or osteopathy, podiatrists, dentists, psychologists, optometrists, chiropractors, nurse practitioners, nurse-midwives, clinical social workers, physician assistants, physical therapists, and Christian Science Practitioners listed with the First Church of Christ, Scientist in Boston, Massachusetts.
</P>
<P><I>Independent agencies</I> means independent regulatory agencies within the meaning of 44 U.S.C. 3502(5).
</P>
<P><I>Individual related by blood or affinity whose close association with the employee is the equivalent of a family relationship</I> means any person with whom the employee has a significant personal bond that is or is like a family relationship, regardless of biological or legal relationship.
</P>
<P><I>Intimate partner</I> means a person who is or has been in a social relationship of a romantic or intimate nature with the victim, where the existence of such a relationship shall be determined based on a consideration of the length of the relationship; the type of relationship; and the frequency of interaction between the persons involved in the relationship.
</P>
<P><I>Multiemployer plan</I> means a plan to which more than one employer is required to contribute and which is maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements between one or more employee organizations and more than one employer.
</P>
<P><I>New contract</I> means a contract that results from a solicitation issued on or after January 1, 2017, or a contract that is awarded outside the solicitation process on or after January 1, 2017. This term includes both new contracts and replacements for expiring contracts. It does not apply to the unilateral exercise of a pre-negotiated option to renew an existing contract by the Federal Government. For purposes of the Executive Order, a contract that is entered into prior to January 1, 2017 will constitute a <I>new contract</I> if, through bilateral negotiation, on or after January 1, 2017:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract is renewed;
</P>
<P>(2) The contract is extended, unless the extension is made pursuant to a term in the contract as of December 31, 2016 providing for a short-term limited extension; or
</P>
<P>(3) The contract is amended pursuant to a modification that is outside the scope of the contract.
</P>
<P><I>Obtain additional counseling, seek relocation, seek assistance from a victim services organization, or take related legal action,</I> used in reference to domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, means to spend time arranging, preparing for, or executing acts related to addressing physical injuries or mental or emotional impacts resulting from being a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking. Such acts include finding and using services of a counselor or victim services organization intended to assist a victim to respond to or prevent future incidents of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking; identifying and moving to a different residence to avoid being a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking; or a victim's pursuing any related legal action.
</P>
<P><I>Obtaining diagnosis, care, or preventive care from a health care provider</I> means receiving services from a health care provider, whether to identify, treat, or otherwise address an existing condition or to prevent potential conditions from arising. The term includes time spent traveling to and from the location at which such services are provided or recovering from receiving such services.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Administrative Law Judges</I> means the Office of Administrative Law Judges, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Option</I> means a unilateral right in a contract by which, for a specified time, the Government may elect to purchase additional supplies or services called for by the contract, or may elect to extend the term of the contract.
</P>
<P><I>Paid sick leave</I> means compensated absence from employment that is required by Executive Order 13706 and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Parent</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A biological, adoptive, step, or foster parent of the employee, or a person who was a foster parent of the employee when the employee was a minor;
</P>
<P>(2) A person who is the legal guardian of the employee or was the legal guardian of the employee when the employee was a minor or required a legal guardian;
</P>
<P>(3) A person who stands <I>in loco parentis</I> to the employee or stood <I>in loco parentis</I> to the employee when the employee was a minor or required someone to stand <I>in loco parentis;</I> or
</P>
<P>(4) A parent, as described in paragraphs (1) through (3) of this definition, of an employee's spouse or domestic partner.
</P>
<P><I>Physical or mental illness, injury, or medical condition</I> means any disease, sickness, disorder, or impairment of, or any trauma to, the body or mind.
</P>
<P><I>Procurement contract for construction</I> means a procurement contract for the construction, alteration, or repair (including painting and decorating) of public buildings or public works and which requires or involves the employment of mechanics or laborers, and any subcontract of any tier thereunder. The term <I>procurement contract for construction</I> includes any contract subject to the Davis-Bacon Act.
</P>
<P><I>Procurement contract for services</I> means a contract the principal purpose of which is to furnish services in the United States through the use of service employees, and any subcontract of any tier thereunder. The term <I>procurement contract for services</I> includes any contract subject to the Service Contract Act.
</P>
<P><I>Related legal action</I> or <I>related civil or criminal legal proceeding,</I> used in reference to domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, means any type of legal action, in any forum, that relates to the domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, including, but not limited to, family, tribal, territorial, immigration, employment, administrative agency, housing matters, campus administrative or protection or stay-away order proceedings, and other similar matters; and criminal justice investigations, prosecutions, and post-trial matters (including sentencing, parole, and probation) that impact the victim's safety and privacy.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor and includes any official of the U.S. Department of Labor authorized to perform any of the functions of the Secretary of Labor under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Service Contract Act</I> (SCA) means the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act of 1965, as amended, 41 U.S.C. 6701 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Sexual assault</I> means any nonconsensual sexual act proscribed by Federal, tribal, or State law, including when the victim lacks capacity to consent.
</P>
<P><I>Solicitation</I> means any request to submit offers, bids, or quotations to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Spouse</I> means the other person with whom an individual entered into marriage as defined or recognized under State law for purposes of marriage in the State in which the marriage was entered into or, in the case of a marriage entered into outside of any State, if the marriage is valid in the place where entered into and could have been entered into in at least one State. This definition includes an individual in a common law marriage that was entered into in a State that recognizes such marriages or, if entered into outside of any State, is valid in the place where entered into and could have been entered into in at least one State.
</P>
<P><I>Stalking</I> means engaging in a course of conduct directed at a specific person that would cause a reasonable person to fear for his or her safety or the safety of others or suffer substantial emotional distress.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the United States and all executive departments, independent establishments, administrative agencies, and instrumentalities of the United States, including corporations of which all or substantially all of the stock is owned by the United States, by the foregoing departments, establishments, agencies, and instrumentalities, including nonappropriated fund instrumentalities. When used in a geographic sense, the <I>United States</I> means the 50 States and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Victim services organization</I> means a nonprofit, nongovernmental, or tribal organization or rape crisis center, including a State or tribal coalition, that assists or advocates for victims of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, including domestic violence shelters, faith-based organizations, and other organizations, with a documented history of effective work concerning domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking.
</P>
<P><I>Violence Against Women Act</I> (VAWA) means the Violence Against Women Act of 1994, 42 U.S.C. 13925 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Wage and Hour Division</I> means the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.3   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to any new contract with the Federal Government, unless excluded by § 13.4, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) It is a procurement contract for construction covered by the Davis-Bacon Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is a contract for services covered by the Service Contract Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) It is a contract for concessions, including any concessions contract excluded from coverage under the Service Contract Act by Department of Labor regulations at § 4.133(b); or
</P>
<P>(iv) It is a contract in connection with Federal property or lands and related to offering services for Federal employees, their dependents, or the general public; and
</P>
<P>(2) The wages of employees performing on or in connection with such contract are governed by the Davis-Bacon Act, the Service Contract Act, or the Fair Labor Standards Act, including employees who qualify for an exemption from the Fair Labor Standards Act's minimum wage and overtime provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) For contracts covered by the Service Contract Act or the Davis-Bacon Act, this part applies to prime contracts only at the thresholds specified in those statutes. For procurement contracts where employees' wages are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, this part applies when the prime contract exceeds the micro-purchase threshold, as defined in 41 U.S.C. 1902(a). For all other prime contracts covered by Executive Order 13706 and this part and for all subcontracts awarded under prime contracts covered by Executive Order 13706 and this part, this part applies regardless of the value of the contract.
</P>
<P>(c) This part only applies to contracts with the Federal Government requiring performance in whole or in part within the United States. If a contract with the Federal Government is to be performed in part within and in part outside the United States and is otherwise covered by the Executive Order and this part, the requirements of the Order and this part would apply with respect to that part of the contract that is performed within the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to contracts for the manufacturing or furnishing of materials, supplies, articles, or equipment to the Federal Government, including those that are subject to the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, 41 U.S.C. 6501 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.4   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grants.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to grants within the meaning of the Federal Grant and Cooperative Agreement Act, as amended, 31 U.S.C. 6301 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contracts and agreements with and grants to Indian Tribes.</I> This part does not apply to contracts and agreements with and grants to Indian Tribes under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act, as amended, 25 U.S.C. 450 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procurement contracts for construction that are excluded from coverage of the Davis-Bacon Act.</I> Procurement contracts for construction that are not covered by the Davis-Bacon Act are not subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contracts for services that are exempted from coverage under the Service Contract Act.</I> Service contracts, except for those expressly covered by § 13.3(a)(1)(iii) or (iv), that are exempt from coverage of the Service Contract Act pursuant to its statutory language at 41 U.S.C. 6702(b) or its implementing regulations, including those at § 4.115 through 4.122 and § 4.123(d) and (e), are not subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employees performing in connection with covered contracts for less than 20 percent of their work hours in a given workweek.</I> The accrual requirements of this part do not apply to employees performing in connection with covered contracts, <I>i.e.,</I> those employees who perform work duties necessary to the performance of the contract but who are not directly engaged in performing the specific work called for by the contract, who spend less than 20 percent of their hours worked in a particular workweek performing in connection with such contracts. This exclusion is inapplicable to employees performing on covered contracts, <I>i.e.,</I> those employees directly engaged in performing the specific work called for by the contract, at any point during the workweek. This exclusion is also inapplicable to employees performing in connection with covered contracts with respect to any workweek in which the employees spend 20 percent or more of their hours worked performing in connection with a covered contract.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employees whose covered work is governed by a collective bargaining agreement that already provides 56 hours of paid sick time.</I> If a collective bargaining agreement ratified before September 30, 2016 applies to an employee's work performed on or in connection with a covered contract and provides the employee with at least 56 hours (or 7 days, if the agreement refers to days rather than hours) of paid sick time (or paid time off that may be used for reasons related to sickness or health care) each year, the requirements of the Executive Order and this part do not apply to the employee until the earlier of the date the agreement terminates or January 1, 2020. If a collective bargaining agreement ratified before September 30, 2016 applies to an employee's work performed on or in connection with a covered contract and provides the employee with paid sick time (or paid time off that may be used for reasons related to sickness or health care) each year, but the amount of such leave provided under the agreement is less than 56 hours (or 7 days, if the agreement refers to days rather than hours), the requirements of the Executive Order and this part do not apply to the employee until the earlier of the date the agreement terminates or January 1, 2020, <I>provided that</I> each year the contractor provides covered employees with the difference between 56 hours (or 7 days) and the amount provided under the existing agreement in a manner consistent with either the Executive Order and this part or the terms and conditions of the collective bargaining agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.5   Paid sick leave for Federal contractors and subcontractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accrual.</I> (1) A contractor shall permit an employee to accrue not less than 1 hour of paid sick leave for every 30 hours worked on or in connection with a covered contract. A contractor shall aggregate an employee's hours worked on or in connection with all covered contracts for that contractor for purposes of paid sick leave accrual.
</P>
<P>(i) Hours worked has the same meaning for purposes of Executive Order 13706 and this part as it does under the Fair Labor Standards Act, as set forth in 29 CFR part 785. To properly exclude time spent on non-covered work from an employee's hours worked that count toward the accrual of paid sick leave, a contractor must accurately identify in its records the employee's covered and non-covered hours worked, or, if the employee performs work in connection with rather than on covered contracts, a contractor may estimate the portion of an employee's hours worked spent in connection with covered contracts provided the estimate is reasonable and based on verifiable information.
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractor shall calculate an employee's accrual of paid sick leave no less frequently than at the conclusion of each pay period or each month, whichever interval is shorter. A contractor need not allow an employee to accrue paid sick leave in increments smaller than 1 hour for completion of any fraction of 30 hours worked. Any such fraction of hours worked shall be added to hours worked for the same contractor in subsequent pay periods to reach the next 30 hours worked provided that the next pay period in which the employee performs on or in connection with a covered contract occurs within the same accrual year.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a contractor is not obligated by the Service Contract Act, Davis-Bacon Act, or Fair Labor Standards Act to keep records of an employee's hours worked, such as because the employee is employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity as those terms are defined in 29 CFR part 541, the contractor may, as to that employee, calculate paid sick leave accrual by tracking the employee's actual hours worked or by using the assumption that the employee works 40 hours on or in connection with a covered contract in each workweek. If such an employee regularly works fewer than 40 hours per week on or in connection with covered contracts, whether because the employee's time is split between covered and non-covered contracts or because the employee has a part-time schedule, the contractor may allow the employee to accrue paid sick leave based on the employee's typical number of hours worked on or in connection with covered contracts per workweek provided the contractor has probative evidence to support the number it uses or, if the employee performs work in connection with rather than on covered contracts, a contractor may estimate the employee's typical number of hours worked in connection with covered contracts per workweek provided the estimate is reasonable and based on verifiable information.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor shall inform an employee, in writing, of the amount of paid sick leave that the employee has accrued but not used no less than once each pay period or each month, whichever interval is shorter, as well as upon a separation from employment and upon reinstatement of paid sick leave pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section. A contractor's existing procedure for informing employees of their available leave, such as notification accompanying each paycheck or an online system an employee can check at any time, may be used to satisfy or partially satisfy these requirements provided it is written (including electronically, if the contractor customarily corresponds with or makes information available to its employees by electronic means).
</P>
<P>(3) A contractor may choose to provide an employee with at least 56 hours of paid sick leave at the beginning of each accrual year rather than allowing the employee to accrue such leave based on hours worked over time.
</P>
<P>(i) If a contractor chooses to use the option described in this paragraph, the contractor need not comply with the accrual requirements described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The contractor must, however, allow carryover of paid sick leave as required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and although the contractor may limit the amount of paid sick leave an employee may carry over to no less than 56 hours, the contractor may not limit the amount of paid sick leave an employee has available for use at any point as is otherwise permitted by paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a contractor chooses to use the option described in this paragraph and the contractor hires an employee or newly assigns the employee to work on or in connection with a covered contract after the beginning of the accrual year, the contractor may provide the employee with a prorated amount of paid sick leave based on the number of pay periods remaining in the accrual year.
</P>
<P>(iii) A contractor may use the option described in this paragraph as to any or all of its employees in any or all accrual years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum accrual, carryover, reinstatement, and payment for unused leave.</I> (1) A contractor may limit the amount of paid sick leave an employee is permitted to accrue to not less than 56 hours in each accrual year. An accrual year is a 12-month period beginning on the date an employee's work on or in connection with a covered contract began or any other fixed date chosen by the contractor, such as the date a covered contract began, the date the contractor's fiscal year begins, a date relevant under State law, or the date a contractor uses for determining employees' leave entitlements under the FMLA pursuant to § 825.200 of this title. A contractor may choose its accrual year but must use a consistent option for all, or across similarly situated groups of, employees and may not select or change any employee's accrual year in order to avoid the paid sick leave requirements of Executive Order 13706 and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Paid sick leave shall carry over from one accrual year to the next. Paid sick leave carried over from the previous accrual year shall not count toward any limit the contractor sets on annual accrual.
</P>
<P>(3) A contractor may limit the amount of paid sick leave an employee is permitted to have available for use at any point to not less than 56 hours. Accordingly, even if an employee has accrued fewer than 56 hours of paid sick leave since the beginning of the accrual year, the employee need only be permitted to accrue additional paid sick leave if the employee has fewer than 56 hours available for use.
</P>
<P>(4) Paid sick leave shall be reinstated for employees rehired by the same contractor within 12 months after a job separation. This reinstatement requirement applies whether the employee leaves and returns to a job on or in connection with a single covered contract or works for a single contractor on or in connection with more than one covered contract, regardless of whether the employee remains employed by the contractor in between periods of working on covered contracts.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in Executive Order 13706 or this part shall require a contractor to make a financial payment to an employee for accrued paid sick leave that has not been used upon a separation from employment. If a contractor nevertheless makes such a payment in an amount equal to or greater than the value of the pay and benefits the employee would have received pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section had the employee used the paid sick leave, the contractor is relieved of the obligation to reinstate an employee's accrued paid sick leave upon rehiring the employee within 12 months of the separation pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use.</I> (1) Subject to the conditions described in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section and the amount of paid sick leave the employee has available for use, a contractor must permit an employee to use paid sick leave to be absent from work for that contractor during time the employee would have been performing work on or in connection with a covered contract or, if the contractor estimates the employee's hours worked in connection with such contracts for purposes of accrual, during any work time because of:
</P>
<P>(i) A physical or mental illness, injury, or medical condition of the employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtaining diagnosis, care, or preventive care from a health care provider by the employee;
</P>
<P>(iii) Caring for the employee's child, parent, spouse, domestic partner, or any other individual related by blood or affinity whose close association with the employee is the equivalent of a family relationship who has any of the conditions or needs for diagnosis, care, or preventive care referred to in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section or is otherwise in need of care; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, if the time absent from work is for the purposes otherwise described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section or to obtain additional counseling, seek relocation, seek assistance from a victim services organization, take related legal action, including preparation for or participation in any related civil or criminal legal proceeding, or assist an individual related to the employee as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section in engaging in any of these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor shall account for an employee's use of paid sick leave in increments of no greater than 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(i) A contractor may not reduce an employee's accrued paid sick leave by more than the amount of time the employee is actually absent from work, and a contractor may not require an employee to use more leave than is necessary to address the circumstances that precipitated the need for the leave, provided that the leave is counted using an increment of no greater than 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of paid sick leave used may not exceed the hours an employee would have worked if the need for leave had not arisen.
</P>
<P>(iii) If it is physically impossible for an employee using paid sick leave to commence or end work mid-way through a shift, such as if a flight attendant or a railroad conductor is scheduled to work aboard an airplane or train, or a laboratory employee is unable to enter or leave a sealed “clean room” during a certain period of time, and no equivalent position is available, the entire period that the employee is forced to be absent constitutes paid sick leave. The period of the physical impossibility is limited to the period during which the contractor is unable to permit the employee to work prior to the use of paid sick leave or return the employee to the same or an equivalent position due to the physical impossibility after the use of paid sick leave.
</P>
<P>(3) A contractor shall provide to an employee using paid sick leave the same regular pay and benefits the employee would have received had the employee not been absent from work. Regular pay means payments that would be included in the calculation of the employee's regular rate for hours worked under the Fair Labor Standards Act as set forth in 29 CFR part 778.
</P>
<P>(4) A contractor may not limit the amount of paid sick leave an employee may use per year or at once on any basis other than the amount of paid sick leave an employee has available.
</P>
<P>(5) An employee is encouraged to make a reasonable effort to schedule preventive care or another foreseeable need to use paid sick leave to suit the needs of both the contractor and employee, and a contractor may ask an employee to make a reasonable effort to schedule foreseeable paid sick leave so as to not disrupt unduly the contractor's operations, but a contractor may not make an employee's use of paid sick leave contingent on the employee's finding a replacement worker to cover any work time to be missed or on the fulfillment of the contractor's operational needs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for leave.</I> (1) A contractor shall permit an employee to use any or all of the employee's available paid sick leave upon the oral or written request of an employee that includes information sufficient to inform the contractor that the employee is seeking to be absent from work for a purpose described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and, to the extent reasonably feasible, the anticipated duration of the leave.
</P>
<P>(i) An employee's request to use paid sick leave need not include a specific reference to the Executive Order or this part or even use the words “sick leave” or “paid sick leave,” and a contractor may not require an employee to provide extensive or detailed information about the need to be absent from work or the employee's family or family-like relationship with an individual for whom the employee is requesting to care.
</P>
<P>(ii) Although an employee shall make a good faith effort to provide a reasonable estimate of the length of the requested absence from work, a contractor shall permit the employee to return to work earlier, or continue to use available paid sick leave for longer, than anticipated.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's request shall be directed to the appropriate personnel pursuant to a contractor's policy or, in the absence of a formal policy, any personnel who typically receive requests for other types of leave or otherwise address scheduling issues on behalf of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(iv) The contractor shall maintain the confidentiality of any medical or other personal information contained in an employee's request to use paid sick leave as required by § 13.25(d).
</P>
<P>(2) If the need for leave is foreseeable, the employee's request shall be made at least 7 calendar days in advance. If the employee is unable to request paid sick leave at least 7 calendar days in advance, the request shall be made as soon as is practicable. When an employee becomes aware of a need to use paid sick leave less than 7 calendar days in advance, it should typically be practicable for the employee to make a request for leave either the day the employee becomes aware of the need to use paid sick leave or the next business day. In all cases, however, the determination of when an employee could practicably make a request must take into account the individual facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A contractor may communicate its grant of a request to use paid sick leave either orally or in writing (including electronically, if the contractor customarily corresponds with or makes information available to its employees by such means).
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractor shall communicate any denial of a request to use paid sick leave in writing (including electronically, if the contractor customarily corresponds with or makes information available to its employees by such means), with an explanation for the denial. Denial is appropriate if, for example, the employee did not provide sufficient information about the need for paid sick leave; the reason given is not consistent with the uses of paid sick leave described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; the employee did not indicate when the need would arise; the employee has not accrued, and will not have accrued by the date of leave anticipated in the request, a sufficient amount of paid sick leave to cover the request (in which case, if the employee will have any paid sick leave available for use, only a partial denial is appropriate); or the request is to use paid sick leave during time the employee is scheduled to be performing non-covered work. If the denial is based on insufficient information provided in the request, such as if the employee did not state the time of an appointment with a health care provider, the contractor must permit the employee to submit a new, corrected request. If the denial is based on an employee's request to use paid sick leave during time she is scheduled to be performing non-covered work, the denial must be supported by records adequately segregating the employee's time spent on covered and non-covered contracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) A contractor shall respond to any request to use paid sick leave as soon as is practicable after the request is made. Although the determination of when it is practicable for a contractor to provide a response will take into account the individual facts and circumstances, it should in many circumstances be practicable for the contractor to respond to a request immediately or within a few hours. In some instances, however, such as if it is unclear at the time of the request whether the employee will be working on or in connection with a covered or non-covered contract at the time for which paid sick leave is requested, as soon as practicable could mean within a day or no longer than within a few days.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification or documentation for leave of 3 or more consecutive full workdays.</I> (1)(i) A contractor may require certification issued by a health care provider to verify the need for paid sick leave used for a purpose described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section only if the employee is absent for 3 or more consecutive full workdays. The contractor shall protect the confidentiality of any certification as required by § 13.25(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractor may only require documentation from an appropriate individual or organization to verify the need for paid sick leave used for a purpose described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section only if the employee is absent for 3 or more consecutive full workdays. The source of such documentation may be any person involved in providing or assisting with the care, counseling, relocation, assistance of a victim services organization, or related legal action, such as, but not limited to, a health care provider, counselor, representative of a victim services organization, attorney, clergy member, family member, or close friend. Self-certification is also permitted. The contractor may only require that such documentation contain the minimum necessary information establishing a need for the employee to be absent from work. The contractor shall not disclose any verification information and shall maintain confidentiality about the domestic abuse, sexual assault, or stalking, as required by § 13.25(d).
</P>
<P>(2) If certification or documentation is to verify the illness, injury, or condition, need for diagnosis, care, or preventive care, or activity related to domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking of an individual related to the employee as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, a contractor may also require the employee to provide reasonable documentation or a statement of the family or family-like relationship. This documentation may take the form of a simple written statement from the employee or could be a legal or other document proving the relationship, such as a birth certificate or court order.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A contractor may only require certification or documentation if the contractor informs an employee before the employee returns to work that certification or documentation will be required to verify the use of paid sick leave if the employee is absent for 3 or more consecutive full workdays. The contractor may inform an employee of this requirement each time the employee requests to use or does use paid sick leave, or the contractor may inform employees of a general policy to require certification or documentation for absences of 3 or more consecutive full workdays if it does so in a manner reasonably calculated to provide actual notice of the requirement to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractor may require the employee to provide certification or documentation within 30 days of the first day of the 3 or more consecutive full workdays of paid sick leave but may not set a shorter deadline for its submission.
</P>
<P>(iii) While a contractor is waiting for or reviewing certification or documentation, it must treat the employee's otherwise proper request for 3 or more consecutive full workdays of paid sick leave as valid. If the employee provides certification or documentation that is insufficient to verify the employee's need for paid sick leave, the contractor shall notify the employee of the deficiency and allow the employee at least 5 days to provide new or supplemental certification or documentation. If after 30 days the employee has not provided any certification or documentation, or if after the 5 or more days allowed for resubmission the employee has either provided no new or supplemental certification or documentation or the new certification or documentation is still insufficient to verify the employee's need for paid sick leave, the contractor may, within 10 calendar days of the employee's deadline for providing sufficient certification or documentation, retroactively deny the employee's request to use paid sick leave. In such circumstances, the contractor may recover the value of the pay and benefits the employee received but to which the employee was not entitled, including through deduction from any sums due to the employee (<I>e.g.,</I> unpaid wages, vacation pay, profit sharing, etc.), provided such deductions do not otherwise violate applicable Federal, State, or local wage payment or other laws.
</P>
<P>(4) A contractor may contact the health care provider or other individual who created or signed the certification or documentation only for purposes of authenticating the document or clarifying its contents. The contractor may not request additional details about the medical or other condition referenced, seek a second opinion, or otherwise question the substance of the certification. To make such contact, the contractor must use a human resources professional, a leave administrator, or a management official. The employee's direct supervisor may not contact the employee's health care provider unless there is no other appropriate individual who can do so. The requirements of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule, set forth at 45 CFR parts 160 and 164, must be satisfied when individually identifiable health information of an employee is shared with a contractor by a HIPAA-covered health care provider.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Interaction with other laws and paid time off policies.</I> (1) <I>General.</I> Nothing in Executive Order 13706 or this part shall excuse noncompliance with or supersede any applicable Federal or State law, any applicable law or municipal ordinance, or a collective bargaining agreement requiring greater paid sick leave or leave rights than those established under the Executive Order and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SCA and DBA requirements.</I> (i) Paid sick leave required by Executive Order 13706 and this part is in addition to a contractor's obligations under the Service Contract Act and Davis-Bacon Act. A contractor may not receive credit toward its prevailing wage or fringe benefit obligations under those Acts for any paid sick leave provided in satisfaction of the requirements of Executive Order 13706 and this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractor may count the value of any paid sick time provided in excess of the requirements of Executive Order 13706 and this part (and any other law) toward its obligations under the Service Contract Act or Davis-Bacon Act in keeping with the requirements of those Acts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>FMLA.</I> A contractor's obligations under the Executive Order and this part have no effect on its obligations to comply with, or ability to act pursuant to, the Family and Medical Leave Act. Paid sick leave may be substituted for (that is, may run concurrently with) unpaid FMLA leave under the same conditions as other paid time off pursuant to § 825.207 of this title. As to time off that is designated as FMLA leave and for which an employee uses paid sick leave, all notices and certifications that satisfy the FMLA requirements set forth at § 825.300 through 300.308 of this title will satisfy the request for leave and certification requirements of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>State and local paid sick time laws.</I> A contractor's compliance with a State or local law requiring that employees be provided with paid sick time does not excuse the contractor from compliance with any of its obligations under the Executive Order 13706 or this part. A contractor may, however, satisfy its obligations under the Order and this part by providing paid sick time that fulfills the requirements of a State or local law provided that the paid sick time is accrued and may be used in a manner that meets or exceeds all of the requirements of the Order and this part including but not limited to the accrual and use requirements in this section and the prohibitions on interference and discrimination in § 13.6. Where the requirements of an applicable State or local law and the Order and this part differ, satisfying both will require a contractor to comply with the requirement that is more generous to employees.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Paid time off policies.</I> (i) The paid sick leave requirements of Executive Order 13706 and this part need not have any effect on a contractor's voluntary paid time off policy, whether provided pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractor's existing paid time off policy (if provided in addition to the fulfillment of Service Contract Act or Davis-Bacon Act obligations, if applicable) will satisfy the requirements of the Executive Order and this part if the paid time off is made available to all employees described in § 13.3(a)(2) (other than those excluded by § 13.4(e)); may be used for at least all of the purposes described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; is provided in a manner and an amount sufficient to comply with the rules and restrictions regarding the accrual of paid sick leave set forth in paragraph (a) of this section and regarding maximum accrual, carryover, reinstatement, and payment for unused leave set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; is provided pursuant to policies sufficient to comply with the rules and restrictions regarding use of paid sick leave set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, regarding requests for leave set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, and regarding certification and documentation set forth in paragraph (e) of this section, at least with respect to any paid time off used for the purposes described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and is protected by the prohibitions against interference, discrimination, and recordkeeping violations described in § 13.6 and the prohibition against waiver of rights described in § 13.7, at least with respect to any paid time off used for the purposes described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A contractor satisfying the requirements of the Executive Order and this part with a paid time off policy that provides more than 56 hours of leave per accrual year may choose to either provide all paid time off as described in paragraph (f)(5)(ii) of this section or track, and make and maintain records reflecting, the amount of paid time off an employee uses for the purposes described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, in which case the contractor need only provide, for each accrual year, up to 56 hours of paid time off the employee requests to use for such purposes in compliance with the Order and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.6   Prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interference.</I> (1) A contractor may not in any manner interfere with an employee's accrual or use of paid sick leave as required by Executive Order 13706 or this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Interference includes, but is not limited to, miscalculating the amount of paid sick leave an employee has accrued, denying or unreasonably delaying a response to a proper request to use paid sick leave, discouraging an employee from using paid sick leave, reducing an employee's accrued paid sick leave by more than the amount of such leave used, transferring the employee to work on non-covered contracts to prevent the accrual or use of paid sick leave, disclosing confidential information contained in certification or other documentation provided to verify the need to use paid sick leave, or making the use of paid sick leave contingent on the employee's finding a replacement worker or the fulfillment of the contractor's operational needs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discrimination.</I> (1) A contractor may not discharge or in any other manner discriminate against any employee for:
</P>
<P>(i) Using, or attempting to use, paid sick leave as provided for under Executive Order 13706 and this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Filing any complaint, initiating any proceeding, or otherwise asserting any right or claim under Executive Order 13706 or this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cooperating in any investigation or testifying in any proceeding under Executive Order 13706 or this part; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Informing any other person about his or her rights under Executive Order 13706 or this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Discrimination includes, but is not limited to, a contractor's considering any of the activities described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section as a negative factor in employment actions, such as hiring, promotions, or disciplinary actions, or a contractor's counting paid sick leave under a no fault attendance policy.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> A contractor's failure to make and maintain or to make available to authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division records for inspection, copying, and transcription as required by § 13.25, or any other failure to comply with the requirements of § 13.25, constitutes a violation of Executive Order 13706, this part, and the underlying contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.7   Waiver of rights.</HEAD>
<P>Employees cannot waive, nor may contractors induce employees to waive, their rights under Executive Order 13706 or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.1.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.8   Multiemployer plans or other funds, plans, or programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A contractor may fulfill its obligations under Executive Order 13706 and this part jointly with other contractors—that is, as though all of the contractors are a single contractor—through a multiemployer plan that provides paid sick leave in compliance with the rules and requirements of Executive Order 13706 and this part. Regardless of what functions the plan performs, each contractor remains responsible for any violation of the Order or this part that occurs during its employment of the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part prohibits a contractor from providing paid sick leave through a fund, plan, or program. Regardless of the manner in which a contractor provides paid sick leave or what functions any fund, plan, or program performs, the contractor remains responsible for any violation of the Order or this part with respect to any of its employees.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Federal Government Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.11   Contracting agency requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contract clause.</I> The contracting agency shall include the Executive Order paid sick leave contract clause set forth in Appendix A of this part in all covered contracts and solicitations for such contracts, as described in § 13.3, except for procurement contracts subject to the FAR. The required contract clause directs, as a condition of payment, that all employees performing work on or in connection with covered contracts shall be provided paid sick leave as required by Executive Order 13706 and this part. For procurement contracts subject to the FAR, contracting agencies must use the clause set forth in the FAR developed to implement this rule. Such clause will accomplish the same purposes as the clause set forth in Appendix A and be consistent with the requirements set forth in this rule.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to include the contract clause.</I> Where the Department of Labor or the contracting agency discovers or determines, whether before or subsequent to a contract award, that a contracting agency made an erroneous determination that Executive Order 13706 and this part did not apply to a particular contract and/or failed to include the applicable contract clause in a contract to which the Executive Order and this part apply, the contracting agency, on its own initiative or within 15 calendar days of notification by an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, shall incorporate the contract clause in the contract retroactive to commencement of performance under the contract through the exercise of any and all authority that may be needed (including, where necessary, its authority to negotiate or amend, its authority to pay any necessary additional costs, and its authority under any contract provision authorizing changes, cancellation, and termination).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Withholding.</I> A contracting officer shall, upon his or her own action or upon written request of the Administrator, withhold or cause to be withheld from the prime contractor under the covered contract or any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, so much of the accrued payments or advances as may be considered necessary to pay employees the full amount owed to compensate for any violation of Executive Order 13706 or this part. In the event of any such violation, the agency may, after authorization or by direction of the Administrator and written notification to the contractor, take action to cause suspension of any further payment, advance, or guarantee of funds until such violations have ceased. Additionally, any failure to comply with the requirements of Executive Order 13706 or this part may be grounds for termination of the right to proceed with the contract work. In such event, the contracting agency may enter into other contracts or arrangements for completion of the work, charging the contractor in default with any additional cost.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspending payment.</I> A contracting officer shall, upon his or her own action or upon the direction of the Administrator and notification of the contractor, take action to cause suspension of any further payment, advance, or guarantee of funds to a contractor that has failed to make available for inspection, copying, and transcription any of the records identified in § 13.25.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Actions on complaints</I>—(1) <I>Reporting time frame.</I> The contracting agency shall forward all information listed in paragraph (e)(2) of this section to the Office of Government Contracts Enforcement, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210 within 14 calendar days of receipt of a complaint alleging contractor noncompliance with Executive Order 13706 or this part or within 14 calendar days of being contacted by the Wage and Hour Division regarding any such complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Report contents.</I> The contracting agency shall forward to the Office of Government Contracts Enforcement, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210 any:
</P>
<P>(i) Complaint of contractor noncompliance with Executive Order 13706 or this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Available statements by the worker, contractor, or any other person regarding the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence that the Executive Order paid sick leave contract clause was included in the contract;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information concerning known settlement negotiations between the parties, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any other relevant facts known to the contracting agency or other information requested by the Wage and Hour Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.12   Department of Labor requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice</I>—(1) <I>Wage Determinations OnLine Web site.</I> The Administrator will publish and maintain on Wage Determinations OnLine (WDOL), <I>http://www.wdol.gov</I>, or any successor site, a notice that Executive Order 13706 creates a requirement to allow employees performing work on or in connection with contracts covered by Executive Order 13706 and this part to accrue and use paid sick leave, as well as an indication of where to find more complete information about that requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wage determinations.</I> The Administrator will publish on all wage determinations issued under the Davis-Bacon Act and the Service Contract Act a notice that Executive Order 13706 creates a requirement to allow employees performing work on or in connection with contracts covered by Executive Order 13706 and this part to accrue and use paid sick leave, as well as an indication of where to find more complete information about that requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification to a contractor of the withholding of funds.</I> If the Administrator requests that a contracting agency withhold funds from a contractor pursuant to § 13.11(c), or suspend payment, advance, or guarantee of funds pursuant to § 13.11(d), the Administrator and/or contracting agency shall notify the affected prime contractor of the Administrator's request to the contracting agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Contractor Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.21   Contract clause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor, as a condition of payment, shall abide by the terms of the applicable Executive Order paid sick leave contract clause referred to in § 13.11(a).
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor shall include in any covered subcontracts the applicable Executive Order paid sick leave contract clause referred to in § 13.11(a) and shall require, as a condition of payment, that the subcontractor include the contract clause in any lower-tier subcontracts. The prime contractor and any upper-tier contractor shall be responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower-tier subcontractor with the requirements of Executive Order 13706 and this part, whether or not the contract clause was included in the subcontract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.22   Paid sick leave.</HEAD>
<P>The contractor shall allow all employees performing work on or in connection with a covered contract to accrue and use paid sick leave as required by Executive Order 13706 and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.23   Deductions.</HEAD>
<P>The contractor may make deductions from the pay and benefits of an employee who is using paid sick leave only if such deduction qualifies as a:
</P>
<P>(a) Deduction required by Federal, State, or local law, such as Federal or State withholding of income taxes;
</P>
<P>(b) Deduction for payments made to third parties pursuant to court order;
</P>
<P>(c) Deduction directed by a voluntary assignment of the employee or his or her authorized representative;
</P>
<P>(d) Deduction for the reasonable cost or fair value, as determined by the Administrator, of furnishing such employee with “board, lodging, or other facilities,” as defined in 29 U.S.C. 203(m) and 29 CFR part 531;
</P>
<P>(e) Deduction, to the extent permitted by law, for the purpose of recouping pay and benefits provided for paid sick leave as to which the contractor retroactively denied the employee's request pursuant to § 13.5(e)(3)(iii) or because the contractor approved the use of the paid sick leave based on a fraudulent request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.24   Anti-kickback.</HEAD>
<P>All paid sick leave used by employees performing on or in connection with covered contracts must be paid free and clear and without subsequent deduction (except as set forth in § 13.23), rebate, or kickback on any account. Kickbacks directly or indirectly to the contractor or to another person for the contractor's benefit for the whole or part of the paid sick leave are prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.25   Records to be kept by contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor and each subcontractor performing work subject to Executive Order 13706 and this part shall make and maintain during the course of the covered contract, and preserve for no less than 3 years thereafter, records containing the information specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (15) of this section for each employee and shall make them available for inspection, copying, and transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, address, and Social Security number of each employee;
</P>
<P>(2) The employee's occupation(s) or classification(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The rate or rates of wages paid (including all pay and benefits provided);
</P>
<P>(4) The number of daily and weekly hours worked;
</P>
<P>(5) Any deductions made;
</P>
<P>(6) The total wages paid (including all pay and benefits provided) each pay period;
</P>
<P>(7) A copy of notifications to employees of the amount of paid sick leave the employees have accrued as required under § 13.5(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(8) A copy of employees' requests to use paid sick leave, if in writing, or, if not in writing, any other records reflecting such employee requests;
</P>
<P>(9) Dates and amounts of paid sick leave used by employees (unless a contractor's paid time off policy satisfies the requirements of Executive Order 13706 and this part as described in § 13.5(f)(5), leave must be designated in records as paid sick leave pursuant to Executive Order 13706);
</P>
<P>(10) A copy of any written responses to employees' requests to use paid sick leave, including explanations for any denials of such requests, as required under § 13.5(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(11) Any records relating to the certification and documentation a contractor may require an employee to provide under § 13.5(e), including copies of any certification or documentation provided by an employee;
</P>
<P>(12) Any other records showing any tracking of or calculations related to an employee's accrual and/or use of paid sick leave;
</P>
<P>(13) The relevant covered contract;
</P>
<P>(14) The regular pay and benefits provided to an employee for each use of paid sick leave; and
</P>
<P>(15) Any financial payment made for unused paid sick leave upon a separation from employment intended, pursuant to § 13.5(b)(5), to relieve a contractor from the obligation to reinstate such paid sick leave as otherwise required by § 13.5(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Segregation of time.</I> (1) If a contractor wishes to distinguish between an employee's covered and non-covered work (such as time spent performing work on or in connection with a covered contract versus time spent performing work on or in connection with non-covered contracts or time spent performing work on or in connection with a covered contract in the United States versus time spent performing work outside the United States, or to establish that time spent performing solely in connection with covered contracts constituted less than 20 percent of an employee's hours worked during a particular workweek), the contractor must keep records or other proof reflecting such distinctions. Only if the contractor adequately segregates the employee's time will time spent on non-covered work be excluded from hours worked counted toward the accrual of paid sick leave. Similarly, only if that contractor adequately segregates the employee's time may a contractor properly deny an employee's request to take leave under § 13.5(d) on the ground that the employee was scheduled to perform non-covered work during the time she asked to use paid sick leave.
</P>
<P>(2) If a contractor estimates covered hours worked by an employee who performs work in connection with covered contracts pursuant to § 13.5(a)(1)(i) or (iii), the contractor must keep records or other proof of the verifiable information on which such estimates are reasonably based. Only if the contractor relies on an estimate that is reasonable and based on verifiable information will an employee's time spent in connection with non-covered contracts be excluded from hours worked counted toward the accrual of paid sick leave. If a contractor estimates the amount of time an employee spends performing in connection with covered contracts, the contractor must permit the employee to use her paid sick leave during any work time for the contractor.
</P>
<P>(c) If a contractor is not obligated by the Service Contract Act, Davis-Bacon Act, or Fair Labor Standards Act to keep records of an employee's hours worked, such as because the employee is employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity as those terms are defined in 29 CFR part 541, and the contractor chooses to use the assumption permitted by § 13.5(a)(1)(iii), the contractor is excused from the requirement in paragraph (a)(4) of this section to keep records of the employee's number of daily and weekly hours worked.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Records relating to medical histories or domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, created by or provided to a contractor for purposes of Executive Order 13706, whether of an employee or an employee's child, parent, spouse, domestic partner, or other individual related by blood or affinity whose close association with the employee is the equivalent of a family relationship, shall be maintained as confidential records in separate files/records from the usual personnel files.
</P>
<P>(2) If the confidentiality requirements of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA), section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and/or the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) apply to medical information contained in records or documents that the contractor created or received in connection with compliance with the recordkeeping or other requirements of this part, the records and documents must also be maintained in compliance with the confidentiality requirements of the GINA, section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and/or ADA as described in § 1635.9 of this title, 41 CFR 60-741.23(d), and § 1630.14(c)(1) of this title, respectively.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor shall not disclose any documentation used to verify the need to use 3 or more consecutive days of paid sick leave for the purposes listed in § 13.5(c)(1)(iv) (as described in § 13.5(d)(2)) and shall maintain confidentiality about any domestic abuse, sexual assault, or stalking, unless the employee consents or when disclosure is required by law.
</P>
<P>(e) The contractor shall permit authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division to conduct interviews with employees at the worksite during normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this part limits or otherwise modifies the contractor's recordkeeping obligations, if any, under the Davis-Bacon Act, the Service Contract Act, the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Family and Medical Leave Act, Executive Order 13658, their implementing regulations, or other applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.26   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor must notify all employees performing work on or in connection with a covered contract of the paid sick leave requirements of Executive Order 13706 and this part by posting a notice provided by the Department of Labor in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite so it may be readily seen by employees.
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors that customarily post notices to employees electronically may post the notice electronically, provided such electronic posting is displayed prominently on any Web site that is maintained by the contractor, whether external or internal, and customarily used for notices to employees about terms and conditions of employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.27" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.27   Timing of pay.</HEAD>
<P>The contractor shall compensate an employee for time during which the employee used paid sick leave no later than one pay period following the end of the regular pay period in which the paid sick leave was used.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.41" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.41   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employee, contractor, labor organization, trade organization, contracting agency, or other person or entity that believes a violation of the Executive Order or this part has occurred may file a complaint with any office of the Wage and Hour Division. No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, the Wage and Hour Division will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the policy of the Department of Labor to protect the identity of its confidential sources and to prevent an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Accordingly, the identity of any individual who makes a written or oral statement as a complaint or in the course of an investigation, as well as portions of the statement which would reveal the individual's identity, shall not be disclosed in any manner to anyone other than Federal officials without the prior consent of the individual. Disclosure of such statements shall be governed by the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, 29 CFR part 70, and the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.42" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.42   Wage and Hour Division conciliation.</HEAD>
<P>After receipt of a complaint, the Administrator may seek to resolve the matter through conciliation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.43" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.43   Wage and Hour Division investigation.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may investigate possible violations of the Executive Order or this part either as the result of a complaint or at any time on his or her own initiative. As part of the investigation, the Administrator may conduct interviews with the relevant contractor, as well as the contractor's employees at the worksite during normal work hours; inspect the relevant contractor's records (including contract documents and payrolls, if applicable); make copies and transcriptions of such records; and require the production of any documentary or other evidence the Administrator deems necessary to determine whether a violation, including conduct warranting imposition of debarment, has occurred. Federal agencies and contractors shall cooperate with any authorized representative of the Department of Labor in the inspection of records, in interviews with employees, and in all aspects of investigations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.44   Remedies and sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interference.</I> When the Administrator determines that a contractor has interfered with an employee's accrual or use of paid sick leave in violation of § 13.6(a), the Administrator will notify the contractor and the relevant contracting agency of the interference and request that the contractor remedy the violation. If the contractor does not remedy the violation, the Administrator shall direct the contractor to provide any appropriate relief to the affected employee(s) in the investigative findings letter issued pursuant to § 13.51. Such relief may include any pay and/or benefits denied or lost by reason of the violation; other actual monetary losses sustained as a direct result of the violation; or appropriate equitable or other relief. Payment of liquidated damages in an amount equaling any monetary relief may also be directed unless such amount is reduced by the Administrator because the violation was in good faith and the contractor had reasonable grounds for believing it had not violated the Order or this part. The Administrator may additionally direct that payments due on the contract or any other contract between the contractor and the Federal Government be withheld as may be necessary to provide any appropriate monetary relief. Upon the final order of the Secretary that monetary relief is due, the Administrator may direct the relevant contracting agency to transfer the withheld funds to the Department of Labor for disbursement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discrimination.</I> When the Administrator determines that a contractor has discriminated against an employee in violation of § 13.6(b), the Administrator will notify the contractor and the relevant contracting agency of the discrimination and request that the contractor remedy the violation. If the contractor does not remedy the violation, the Administrator shall direct the contractor to provide appropriate relief to the affected employee(s) in the investigative findings letter issued pursuant to § 13.51. Such relief may include, but is not limited to, employment, reinstatement, promotion, restoration of leave, or lost pay and/or benefits. Payment of liquidated damages in an amount equaling any monetary relief may also be directed unless such amount is reduced by the Administrator because the violation was in good faith and the contractor had reasonable grounds for believing the contractor had not violated the Order or this part. The Administrator may additionally direct that payments due on the contract or any other contract between the contractor and the Federal Government be withheld as may be necessary to provide any appropriate monetary relief. Upon the final order of the Secretary that monetary relief is due, the Administrator may direct the relevant contracting agency to transfer the withheld funds to the Department of Labor for disbursement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> When a contractor fails to comply with the requirements of § 13.25 in violation of § 13.6(c), the Administrator will request that the contractor remedy the violation. If the contractor fails to produce required records upon request, the contracting officer, upon direction of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, or under its own action, shall take such action as may be necessary to cause suspension of any further payment, advance, or guarantee of funds on the contract until such time as the violations are discontinued.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Debarment.</I> Whenever a contractor is found by the Secretary to have disregarded its obligations under the Executive Order or this part, such contractor and its responsible officers, and any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which the contractor or responsible officers have an interest, shall be ineligible to be awarded any contract or subcontract subject to the Executive Order for a period of up to 3 years from the date of publication of the name of the contractor or responsible officer on the excluded parties list currently maintained on the System for Award Management Web site, <I>http://www.SAM.gov</I>. Neither an order of debarment of any contractor or its responsible officers from further Government contracts nor the inclusion of a contractor or its responsible officers on a published list of noncomplying contractors under this section shall be carried out without affording the contractor or responsible officers an opportunity for a hearing before an Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Civil actions to recover greater underpayments than those withheld.</I> If the payments withheld under § 13.11(c) are insufficient to reimburse all monetary relief due, or if there are no payments to withhold, the Department of Labor, following a final order of the Secretary, may bring an action against the contractor in any court of competent jurisdiction to recover the remaining amount. The Department of Labor shall, to the extent possible, pay any sums it recovers in this manner directly to the employees who suffered the violation(s) of § 13.6(a) or (b). Any sum not paid to an employee because of inability to do so within 3 years shall be transferred into the Treasury of the United States as miscellaneous receipts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retroactive inclusion of contract clause.</I> If a contracting agency fails to include the applicable contract clause in a contract to which the Executive Order applies, the contracting agency, on its own initiative or within 15 calendar days of notification by an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, shall incorporate the contract clause in the contract retroactive to commencement of performance under the contract through the exercise of any and all authority that may be needed (including, where necessary, its authority to negotiate or amend, its authority to pay any necessary additional costs, and its authority under any contract provision authorizing changes, cancellation, and termination).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.51   Disputes concerning contractor compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section sets forth the procedures for resolution of disputes of fact or law concerning a contractor's compliance with this part. The procedures in this section may be initiated upon the Administrator's own motion or upon request of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In the event of a dispute described in paragraph (a) of this section in which it appears that relevant facts are at issue, the Administrator will notify the affected contractor(s) and the prime contractor (if different) of the investigative findings by certified mail to the last known address.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor desiring a hearing concerning the Administrator's investigative findings letter shall request such a hearing by letter postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the Administrator's letter. The request shall set forth those findings that are in dispute with respect to the violations and/or debarment, as appropriate, explain how the findings are in dispute including by making reference to any affirmative defenses.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto, for designation to an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to resolve the disputed matters. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 6.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In the event of a dispute described in paragraph (a) of this section in which it appears that there are no relevant facts at issue, and where there is not at that time reasonable cause to institute debarment proceedings under § 13.52, the Administrator shall notify the contractor(s) of the investigative findings by certified mail to the last known address, and shall issue a ruling in the investigative findings letter on any issues of law known to be in dispute.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If the contractor disagrees with the factual findings of the Administrator or believes that there are relevant facts in dispute, the contractor shall so advise the Administrator by letter postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the Administrator's letter. In the response, the contractor shall explain in detail the facts alleged to be in dispute and attach any supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of a timely response under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section alleging the existence of a factual dispute, the Administrator shall examine the information submitted. If the Administrator determines that there is a relevant issue of fact, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section. If the Administrator determines that there is no relevant issue of fact, the Administrator shall so rule and advise the contractor accordingly.
</P>
<P>(3) If the contractor desires review of the ruling issued by the Administrator under paragraph (c)(1) or the final sentence of (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the contractor shall file a petition for review thereof with the Administrative Review Board postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the ruling, with a copy thereof to the Administrator. The petition for review shall be filed in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 7.
</P>
<P>(d) If a timely response to the Administrator's investigative findings letter is not made or a timely petition for review is not filed, the Administrator's investigative findings letter shall become the final order of the Secretary. If a timely response or petition for review is filed, the Administrator's letter shall be inoperative unless and until the decision is upheld by an Administrative Law Judge or the Administrative Review Board or otherwise becomes a final order of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.52   Debarment proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever any contractor is found by the Secretary of Labor to have disregarded its obligations to employees or subcontractors under Executive Order 13706 or this part, such contractor and its responsible officers, and any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such contractor or responsible officers have an interest, shall be ineligible for a period up to 3 years to receive any contracts or subcontracts subject to Executive Order 13706 from the date of publication of the name or names of the contractor or persons on the excluded parties list currently maintained on the System for Award Management Web site, <I>http://www.SAM.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Whenever the Administrator finds reasonable cause to believe that a contractor has committed a violation of Executive Order 13706 or this part which constitutes a disregard of its obligations to employees or subcontractors, the Administrator shall notify by certified mail to the last known address or by personal delivery, the contractor and its responsible officers (and any firms, corporations, partnerships, or associations in which the contractor or responsible officers are known to have an interest), of the finding. The Administrator shall afford such contractor and any other parties notified an opportunity for a hearing as to whether debarment action should be taken under Executive Order 13706 or this part. The Administrator shall furnish to those notified a summary of the investigative findings. If the contractor or any other parties notified wish to request a hearing as to whether debarment action should be taken, such a request shall be made by letter to the Administrator postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator, and shall set forth any findings which are in dispute and the reasons therefor, including any affirmative defenses to be raised. Upon receipt of such timely request for a hearing, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and the response thereto, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to determine the matters in dispute.
</P>
<P>(2) Hearings under this section shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 6. If no hearing is requested within 30 calendar days of the letter from the Administrator, the Administrator's findings shall become the final order of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.53   Referral to Chief Administrative Law Judge; amendment of pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing under § 13.51 (where the Administrator has determined that relevant facts are in dispute) or § 13.52 (debarment), the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to decide the disputed matters. A copy of the Order of Reference and attachments thereto shall be served upon the respondent. The investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto shall be given the effect of a complaint and answer, respectively, for purposes of the administrative proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) At any time prior to the closing of the hearing record, the complaint (investigative findings letter) or answer (response) may be amended with the permission of the Administrative Law Judge and upon such terms as the Administrative Law Judge may approve. For proceedings pursuant to § 13.51, such an amendment may include a statement that debarment action is warranted under § 13.52. Such amendments shall be allowed when justice and the presentation of the merits are served thereby, provided there is no prejudice to the objecting party's presentation on the merits. When issues not raised by the pleadings are reasonably within the scope of the original complaint and are tried by express or implied consent of the parties, they shall be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the pleadings, and such amendments may be made as necessary to make them conform to the evidence. The presiding Administrative Law Judge may, upon reasonable notice and upon such terms as are just, permit supplemental pleadings setting forth transactions, occurrences, or events that have happened since the date of the pleadings and that are relevant to any of the issues involved. A continuance in the hearing may be granted or the record left open to enable the new allegations to be addressed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.54   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the receipt of evidence or, at the Administrative Law Judge's discretion prior to the issuance of the Administrative Law Judge's decision, the parties may enter into consent findings and an order disposing of the proceeding in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding in whole or in part shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the Administrator's findings letter and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the Administrative Law Judge and the Administrative Review Board regarding those matters which are the subject of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 calendar days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings and order. If such agreement disposes of only a part of the disputed matter, a hearing shall be conducted on the matters remaining in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.55" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.55   Administrative Law Judge proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> The Office of Administrative Law Judges has jurisdiction to hear and decide appeals concerning questions of law and fact from the Administrator's investigative findings letters issued under §§ 13.51 and 13.52.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within 20 calendar days of filing of the transcript of the testimony or such additional time as the Administrative Law Judge may allow, each party may file with the Administrative Law Judge proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and a proposed order, together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Each party shall serve such proposals and brief on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision.</I> (1) Within a reasonable period of time after the time allowed for filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within 30 calendar days of receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue a decision. The decision shall contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order, and be served upon all parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If the respondent is found to have violated Executive Order 13706 or this part, and if the Administrator requested debarment, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue an order as to whether the respondent is to be subject to the excluded parties list, including findings that the contractor disregarded its obligations to employees or subcontractors under the Executive Order or this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limit on scope of review.</I> The Equal Access to Justice Act, as amended, does not apply to proceedings under this part. Accordingly, Administrative Law Judges shall have no authority to award attorney's fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act for any proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Orders.</I> If the Administrative Law Judge concludes a violation occurred, the final order shall mandate action to remedy the violation, including any monetary or equitable relief described in § 13.44. Where the Administrator has sought imposition of debarment, the Administrative Law Judge shall determine whether an order imposing debarment is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Finality.</I> The Administrative Law Judge's decision shall become the final order of the Secretary, unless a timely petition for review is filed with the Administrative Review Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.56" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.56   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge (or such additional time as is granted by the Administrative Review Board), any party aggrieved thereby who desires review thereof shall file a petition for review of the decision with supporting reasons. Such party shall transmit the petition in writing to the Administrative Review Board with a copy thereof to the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The petition shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order at issue. A petition concerning the decision on debarment shall also state the disregard of obligations to employees and/or subcontractors, or lack thereof, as appropriate. A party must serve the petition for review, and all briefs, on all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. It must also timely serve copies of the petition and all briefs on the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of filing.</I> If a party files a timely petition for review, the Administrative Law Judge's decision shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Review Board issues an order affirming the decision, or the decision otherwise becomes a final order of the Secretary. If a petition for review concerns only the imposition of debarment, however, the remainder of the decision shall be effective immediately. No judicial review shall be available unless a timely petition for review to the Administrative Review Board is first filed.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.57" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.57   Administrative Review Board proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Administrative Review Board has jurisdiction to hear and decide in its discretion appeals concerning questions of law and fact from investigative findings letters of the Administrator issued under § 13.51(c)(1) or the final sentence of § 13.51(c)(2)(ii), Administrator's rulings issued under § 13.58, and decisions of Administrative Law Judges issued under § 13.55.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limit on scope of review.</I> (i) The Administrative Review Board shall not have jurisdiction to pass on the validity of any provision of this part. The Administrative Review Board is an appellate body and shall decide cases properly before it on the basis of substantial evidence contained in the entire record before it. The Administrative Review Board shall not receive new evidence into the record.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Equal Access to Justice Act, as amended, does not apply to proceedings under this part. Accordingly, the Administrative Review Board shall have no authority to award attorney's fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act for any proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decisions.</I> The Administrative Review Board's decision shall be issued within a reasonable period of time following receipt of the petition for review and shall be served upon all parties by mail to the last known address and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge (in cases involving an appeal from an Administrative Law Judge's decision).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Orders.</I> If the Board concludes a violation occurred, an order shall be issued mandating action to remedy the violation, including, but not limited to, any monetary or equitable relief described in § 13.44. Where the Administrator has sought imposition of debarment, the Administrative Review Board shall determine whether an order imposing debarment is appropriate. The ARB's order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 30617, May 20, 2020]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.58" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.58   Administrator ruling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Questions regarding the application and interpretation of the rules contained in this part may be referred to the Administrator, who shall issue an appropriate ruling. Requests for such rulings should be addressed to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) Any interested party may appeal to the Administrative Review Board for review of a final ruling of the Administrator issued under paragraph (a) of this section. The petition for review shall be filed with the Administrative Review Board within 30 calendar days of the date of the ruling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.14.5.27.9.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 13—Contract Clause
</HEAD>
<P>The following clause shall be included by the contracting agency in every contract, contract-like instrument, and solicitation to which Executive Order 13706 applies, except for procurement contracts subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR):
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Executive Order 13706.</I> This contract is subject to Executive Order 13706, the regulations issued by the Secretary of Labor in 29 CFR part 13 pursuant to the Executive Order, and the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Paid Sick Leave.</I> (1) The contractor shall permit each employee (as defined in 29 CFR 13.2) engaged in the performance of this contract by the prime contractor or any subcontractor, regardless of any contractual relationship that may be alleged to exist between the contractor and employee, to earn not less than 1 hour of paid sick leave for every 30 hours worked. The contractor shall additionally allow accrual and use of paid sick leave as required by Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13. The contractor shall in particular comply with the accrual, use, and other requirements set forth in 29 CFR 13.5 and 13.6, which are incorporated by reference in this contract.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor shall provide paid sick leave to all employees when due free and clear and without subsequent deduction (except as otherwise provided by 29 CFR 13.24), rebate, or kickback on any account. The contractor shall provide pay and benefits for paid sick leave used no later than one pay period following the end of the regular pay period in which the paid sick leave was taken.
</P>
<P>(3) The prime contractor and any upper-tier subcontractor shall be responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower-tier subcontractor with the requirements of Executive Order 13706, 29 CFR part 13, and this clause.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Withholding.</I> The contracting officer shall, upon its own action or upon written request of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, withhold or cause to be withheld from the prime contractor under this or any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, so much of the accrued payments or advances as may be considered necessary to pay employees the full amount owed to compensate for any violation of the requirements of Executive Order 13706, 29 CFR part 13, or this clause, including any pay and/or benefits denied or lost by reason of the violation; other actual monetary losses sustained as a direct result of the violation, and liquidated damages.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contract Suspension/Contract Termination/Contractor Debarment.</I> In the event of a failure to comply with Executive Order 13706, 29 CFR part 13, or this clause, the contracting agency may on its own action or after authorization or by direction of the Department of Labor and written notification to the contractor, take action to cause suspension of any further payment, advance, or guarantee of funds until such violations have ceased. Additionally, any failure to comply with the requirements of this clause may be grounds for termination of the right to proceed with the contract work. In such event, the Government may enter into other contracts or arrangements for completion of the work, charging the contractor in default with any additional cost. A breach of the contract clause may be grounds for debarment as a contractor and subcontractor as provided in 29 CFR 13.52.
</P>
<P>(e) The paid sick leave required by Executive Order 13706, 29 CFR part 13, and this clause is in addition to a contractor's obligations under the Service Contract Act and Davis-Bacon Act, and a contractor may not receive credit toward its prevailing wage or fringe benefit obligations under those Acts for any paid sick leave provided in satisfaction of the requirements of Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in Executive Order 13706 or 29 CFR part 13 shall excuse noncompliance with or supersede any applicable Federal or State law, any applicable law or municipal ordinance, or a collective bargaining agreement requiring greater paid sick leave or leave rights than those established under Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) Any contractor performing work subject to Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13 must make and maintain, for no less than three (3) years from the completion of the work on the contract, records containing the information specified in paragraphs (i) through (xv) of this section for each employee and shall make them available for inspection, copying, and transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and Social Security number of each employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's occupation(s) or classification(s);
</P>
<P>(iii) The rate or rates of wages paid (including all pay and benefits provided);
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of daily and weekly hours worked;
</P>
<P>(v) Any deductions made;
</P>
<P>(vi) The total wages paid (including all pay and benefits provided) each pay period;
</P>
<P>(vii) A copy of notifications to employees of the amount of paid sick leave the employee has accrued, as required under 29 CFR 13.5(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(viii) A copy of employees' requests to use paid sick leave, if in writing, or, if not in writing, any other records reflecting such employee requests;
</P>
<P>(ix) Dates and amounts of paid sick leave taken by employees (unless a contractor's paid time off policy satisfies the requirements of Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13 as described in § 13.5(f)(5), leave must be designated in records as paid sick leave pursuant to Executive Order 13706);
</P>
<P>(x) A copy of any written responses to employees' requests to use paid sick leave, including explanations for any denials of such requests, as required under 29 CFR 13.5(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(xi) Any records reflecting the certification and documentation a contractor may require an employee to provide under 29 CFR 13.5(e), including copies of any certification or documentation provided by an employee;
</P>
<P>(xii) Any other records showing any tracking of or calculations related to an employee's accrual or use of paid sick leave;
</P>
<P>(xiii) The relevant covered contract;
</P>
<P>(xiv) The regular pay and benefits provided to an employee for each use of paid sick leave; and
</P>
<P>(xv) Any financial payment made for unused paid sick leave upon a separation from employment intended, pursuant to 29 CFR 13.5(b)(5), to relieve a contractor from the obligation to reinstate such paid sick leave as otherwise required by 29 CFR 13.5(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If a contractor wishes to distinguish between an employee's covered and non-covered work, the contractor must keep records or other proof reflecting such distinctions. Only if the contractor adequately segregates the employee's time will time spent on non-covered work be excluded from hours worked counted toward the accrual of paid sick leave. Similarly, only if that contractor adequately segregates the employee's time may a contractor properly refuse an employee's request to use paid sick leave on the ground that the employee was scheduled to perform non-covered work during the time she asked to use paid sick leave.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a contractor estimates covered hours worked by an employee who performs work in connection with covered contracts pursuant to 29 CFR 13.5(a)(i) or (iii), the contractor must keep records or other proof of the verifiable information on which such estimates are reasonably based. Only if the contractor relies on an estimate that is reasonable and based on verifiable information will an employee's time spent in connection with non-covered work be excluded from hours worked counted toward the accrual of paid sick leave. If a contractor estimates the amount of time an employee spends performing in connection with covered contracts, the contractor must permit the employee to use her paid sick leave during any work time for the contractor.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event a contractor is not obligated by the Service Contract Act, the Davis-Bacon Act, or the Fair Labor Standards Act to keep records of an employee's hours worked, such as because the employee is exempt from the FLSA's minimum wage and overtime requirements, and the contractor chooses to use the assumption permitted by 29 CFR 13.5(a)(1)(iii), the contractor is excused from the requirement in paragraph (1)(d) of this section to keep records of the employee's number of daily and weekly hours worked.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Records relating to medical histories or domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, created for purposes of Executive Order 13706, whether of an employee or an employee's child, parent, spouse, domestic partner, or other individual related by blood or affinity whose close association with the employee is the equivalent of a family relationship, shall be maintained as confidential records in separate files/records from the usual personnel files.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the confidentiality requirements of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA), section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and/or the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) apply to records or documents created to comply with the recordkeeping requirements in this contract clause, the records and documents must also be maintained in compliance with the confidentiality requirements of the GINA, section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and/or ADA as described in 29 CFR 1635.9, 41 CFR 60-741.23(d), and 29 CFR 1630.14(c)(1), respectively.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor shall not disclose any documentation used to verify the need to use 3 or more consecutive days of paid sick leave for the purposes listed in 29 CFR 13.5(c)(1)(iv) (as described in 29 CFR 13.5(e)(1)(ii)) and shall maintain confidentiality about any domestic abuse, sexual assault, or stalking, unless the employee consents or when disclosure is required by law.
</P>
<P>(5) The contractor shall permit authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division to conduct interviews with employees at the worksite during normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(6) Nothing in this contract clause limits or otherwise modifies the contractor's recordkeeping obligations, if any, under the Davis-Bacon Act, the Service Contract Act, the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Family and Medical Leave Act, Executive Order 13658, their respective implementing regulations, or any other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(h) The contractor (as defined in 29 CFR 13.2) shall insert this clause in all of its covered subcontracts and shall require its subcontractors to include this clause in any covered lower-tier subcontracts.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Certification of Eligibility.</I> (1) By entering into this contract, the contractor (and officials thereof) certifies that neither it (nor he or she) nor any person or firm who has an interest in the contractor's firm is a person or firm ineligible to be awarded Government contracts by virtue of the sanctions imposed pursuant to section 5 of the Service Contract Act, section 3(a) of the Davis-Bacon Act, or 29 CFR 5.12(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) No part of this contract shall be subcontracted to any person or firm whose name appears on the list of persons or firms ineligible to receive Federal contracts currently maintained on the System for Award Management Web site, <I>http://www.SAM.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) The penalty for making false statements is prescribed in the U.S. Criminal Code, 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Interference/Discrimination.</I> (1) A contractor may not in any manner interfere with an employee's accrual or use of paid sick leave as required by Executive Order 13706 or 29 CFR part 13. Interference includes, but is not limited to, miscalculating the amount of paid sick leave an employee has accrued, denying or unreasonably delaying a response to a proper request to use paid sick leave, discouraging an employee from using paid sick leave, reducing an employee's accrued paid sick leave by more than the amount of such leave used, transferring an employee to work on non-covered contracts to prevent the accrual or use of paid sick leave, disclosing confidential information contained in certification or other documentation provided to verify the need to use paid sick leave, or making the use of paid sick leave contingent on the employee's finding a replacement worker or the fulfillment of the contractor's operational needs.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor may not discharge or in any other manner discriminate against any employee for:
</P>
<P>(i) Using, or attempting to use, paid sick leave as provided for under Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13;
</P>
<P>(ii) Filing any complaint, initiating any proceeding, or otherwise asserting any right or claim under Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cooperating in any investigation or testifying in any proceeding under Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Informing any other person about his or her rights under Executive Order 13706 and 29 CFR part 13.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Waiver.</I> Employees cannot waive, nor may contractors induce employees to waive, their rights under Executive Order 13706, 29 CFR part 13, or this clause.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Notice.</I> The contractor must notify all employees performing work on or in connection with a covered contract of the paid sick leave requirements of Executive Order 13706, 29 CFR part 13, and this clause by posting a notice provided by the Department of Labor in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite so it may be readily seen by employees. Contractors that customarily post notices to employees electronically may post the notice electronically, provided such electronic posting is displayed prominently on any Web site that is maintained by the contractor, whether external or internal, and customarily used for notices to employees about terms and conditions of employment.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Disputes concerning labor standards.</I> Disputes related to the application of Executive Order 13706 to this contract shall not be subject to the general disputes clause of the contract. Such disputes shall be resolved in accordance with the procedures of the Department of Labor set forth in 29 CFR part 13. Disputes within the meaning of this contract clause include disputes between the contractor (or any of its subcontractors) and the contracting agency, the U.S. Department of Labor, or the employees or their representatives.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 14—SECURITY REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12356 of April 2, 1982 (47 FR 14874).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 51391, Dec. 17, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction to Security Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations implement Executive Order 12356, entitled National Security Information, dated April 2, 1982, and directives issued pursuant to that Order through the National Security Council and the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The interests of the United States and its citizens are best served when information regarding the affairs of Government is readily available to the public. Provisions for such an informed citizenry are reflected in the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and in the current public information policies of the executive branch.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Safeguarding national security information.</I> Some official information within the Federal Government is directly concerned with matters of national defense and the conduct of foreign relations. This information must, therefore, be subject to security constraints, and limited in term of its distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption from public disclosure.</I> Official information of a sensitive nature, hereinafter referred to as national security information, is expressly exempted from compulsory public disclosure by Section 552(b)(1) of title 5 U.S.C. Persons wrongfully disclosing such information are subject to prosecution under United States criminal laws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> To ensure that national security information is protected, but only to the extent and for such a period as is necessary, these regulations:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify information to be protected.
</P>
<P>(2) Prescribe procedures on classification, declassification, downgrading, and safeguarding of information.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish a monitoring system to ensure the effectiveness of the Department of Labor (DOL) security program and regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitation.</I> The need to safeguard national security information in no way implies an indiscriminate license to withhold information from the public. It is important that the citizens of the United States have access, consistent with national security, to information concerning the policies and programs of their Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.3   DOL Classification Review Committee.</HEAD>
<P>A DOL Classification Review Committee is hereby established.
</P>
<P>(a) Composition of committee. The members of this Committee are:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Chairperson—Deputy Assistant Secretary for Security and Emergency Management, OASAM.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Member—Administrative Officer, Office of the Solicitor.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Member—Director, Office of Foreign Relations, Bureau of International Labor Affairs.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Advisor—DOL Document Security Officer.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities.</I> The Committee is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Acting on all suggestions and complaints arising with respect to the DOL's information security program.
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing all requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, when a proposed denial is based on classification under Executive Order 12356 to determine if such classification is current.
</P>
<P>(3) Recommending to the Secretary of Labor appropriate administrative actions to correct abuses or violations of any provision of Executive Order 12356 or directives thereunder. Recommended administrative actions may include notification by warning letter, formal reprimand, and, to the extent permitted by law, suspension without pay and removal. Upon receipt of any such recommendation, the Secretary shall immediately advise the Committee of the action taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 51391, Dec. 17, 1985, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply under these regulations:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Primary organization unit</I>—refers to an agency headed by an official reporting to the Secretary or Deputy Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classify</I>—to assign information to one of the classification categories after determining that the information requires protection in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Courier</I>—an individual designated by appropriate authority to protect classified and administratively controlled information in transit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Custodian</I>—the person who has custody or is responsible for the custody of classified information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Declassify</I>—the authorized removal of an assigned classification.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Document</I>—any recorded information regardless of its physical form or characteristics, including (but not limited to):
</P>
<P>(1) Written material—(whether handwritten, printed or typed).
</P>
<P>(2) Painted, drawn, or engraved material.
</P>
<P>(3) Sound or voice recordings.
</P>
<P>(4) Printed photographs and exposed or printed films (either still or motion picture).
</P>
<P>(5) Reproductions of the foregoing, by whatever process.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Downgrade</I>—to assign lower classfication than that previously assigned.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Derivative classification</I>—a determination that information is in substance the same as information that is currently classified. It is to incorporate, paraphrase, restate or generate in new form information that is already classified (usually by another Federal agency).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO)</I>—an office located in the National Archives and Records Administration (GSA) that monitors the implementation of E.O. 12356.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Marking</I>—the physical act of indicating the assigned security classification on national security information.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Material</I>—any document, product, or substance on or in which information is recorded or embodied.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Nonrecord material</I>—extra copies and duplicates, the use of which is temporary, including shorthand notes, used carbon paper, preliminary drafts, and other material of similar nature.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Paraphrasing</I>—a restatement of the text without alteration of its meaning.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Product and substance</I>—any item of material (other than a document) in all stages of development, processing, or construction and including elements, ingredients, components, accessories, fixtures, dies, models, and mockup associated with such items.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Record material</I>—all books, papers, maps, photographs, or other documentary materials, regardless of physical form or characteristics, made or received by the U.S. Government in connection with the transaction of public business; this includes material preserved by an agency or its legitimate successor as evidence of its organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, or other activities, or because of the informational data contained herein.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>True reading</I>—the paraphrased literal text.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Upgraded</I>—to assign a higher classification than that previously assigned. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 51391, Dec. 17, 1985, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Review of Classified Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.10   Mandatory review for declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of review.</I> The mandatory review procedures apply to information originally classified by the DOL when it had such authority, i.e., before December 1, 1978. Requests may come from members of the public or a government employee or agency. The procedures do not apply to information originated by other agencies and merely held in possession of the DOL. Requests for disclosure submitted under provisions of the Freedom of Information Act are to be processed in accordance with provisions of that Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where requests should be directed.</I> Requests for mandatory review for declassification should be directed to the Department of Labor, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management (OASAM), Washington, DC 20210. Requests should be in writing and should reasonably describe the classified information to allow identification. Whenever a request does not reasonably describe the information sought, the requestor will be notified that unless additional information is provided or the scope of the request is narrowed, no further action will be undertaken.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing.</I> The OASAM will assign the request for information to the appropriate DOL office for declassification consideration. A decision will be made within 60 days as to whether the requested information may be declassified and, if so, made available to the requestor. If the information may not be released in whole or in part, the requestor will be given a brief statement as to the reasons for denial, and a notice of the right to appeal the determination to the DOL Classification Review Committee, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, Washington, DC 20210. The requestor is to be told that such an appeal must be filed with the DOL within 60 days.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeals procedure.</I> The DOL Classification Review Committee will review and act within 30 days on all applications and appeals for the declassification of information. The Committee is authorized to overrule on behalf of the Secretary, Agency determinations in whole or in part, when it decides that continued protection is not required. It will notify the requestor of the declassification and provide the information. If the Committee determines that continued classification is required, it will promply notify the requestor and provide the reasons for the determination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Burden of proof.</I> In evaluating requests for declassification the DOL Classification Review Committee will require the DOL office having jurisdiction over the document to prove that continued classification is warranted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fees.</I> If the request requires a service for which fair and equitable fees may be charged pursuant to title 5 of the Independent Office Appropriation Act, 31 U.S.C. 483a (1976), the requestor will be notified and charged.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Transmission of Classified Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.20   Dissemination to individuals and firms outside the executive branch.</HEAD>
<P>Request for classified information received from sources outside the executive branch of the Federal Government, provided the information has been originated by the DOL, will be honored in accordance with the following guidelines:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Top Secret information.</I> All requests for Top Secret information by an individual or firm outside the executive branch must be referred promptly to the OASAM for consideration on an individual basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secret and Confidential information.</I> Subject to the restrictions below, Secret or Confidential information may be furnished to an individual or firm outside the executive branch if the action furthers the official program of the organization unit in which the information originated. The official furnishing such information must ensure that the individuals to whom the information is to be furnished have the appropriate DOL clearance, or at least clearance for the same or higher classification for another Federal department, or outside agency whose security clearances are acceptable to the DOL. The official must also ensure that the person to whom the classified information is being furnished possess the proper facilities for safeguarding such information. No Secret or Confidential information may be furnished to an individual or firm outside the executive branch without written concurrence from the primary organizational unit head or the Security Officer of that unit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unauthorized knowledge of classified information.</I> Upon receipt of a request for classified information which raised a suspicion that an individual or organization outside the executive branch has unauthorized knowledge of the existence of Confidential, Secret, or Top Secret information, a report providing all available details must be immediately submitted to the DOL Document Security Officer for appropriate action and disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests from outside the United States.</I> All requests from outside the United States for Top Secret, Secret or Confidential information, except those received from foreign offices of the primary organizational unit or from U.S. embassies or similar missions, will be referred to the Deputy Under Secretary for International Labor Affairs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access by historical researchers.</I> Individuals outside the executive branch engaged in historical research may be authorized access to classified information over which the DOL has jurisdiction provided:
</P>
<P>(1) The research and need for access conform to the requirements of section 4-3 of Executive Order 12356.
</P>
<P>(2) The information requested is reasonably accessible and can be located and compiled with a reasonable amount of effort.
</P>
<P>(3) The researcher agrees to safeguard the information in a manner consistent with E.O. 12356 and directives thereunder.
</P>
<P>(4) The researcher agrees to a review of the notes and manuscript to determine that no classified information is contained therein.
</P>
<FP>Authorization for access is valid for the period required but no longer than two years from the date of issuance unless it is renewed under the conditions and regulations governing its original authorization.
</FP>
<P>(f) <I>Access by former presidential appointees.</I> Individuals who have previously occupied policymaking positions to which they were appointed by the President may be authorized access to classified information which they originated, reviewed, signed, or received while in public office. Upon request, information identified by such individuals will be reviewed for declassification in accordance with the provisions of these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 51391, Dec. 17, 1985, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.21   Release of classified information to foreign governments.</HEAD>
<P>National security information will be released to foreign governments in accordance with the criteria and procedures stated in the President's Directive entitled “Basic Policy Governing the Release of Classified Defense Information to Foreign Governments” dated September 25, 1958. All requests for the release of such information will be referred to the Deputy Under Secretary for International Labor Affairs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 51391, Dec. 17, 1985, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.15.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.22   Availability of classified information to persons not employed by the Department of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval for access.</I> Access to classified information in the possession or custody of the primary organizational units of the Department by individuals who are not employees of the executive branch shall be approved in advance by the DOL Document Security Officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access to Top Secret material.</I> Access to Top Secret Information within the primary organizational units of the DOL by employees of other Federal agencies must be approved in advance by the Top Secret Control Officer of the primary organizational unit. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to Secret and Confidential information.</I> Secret and Confidential information may be made available to properly cleared employees of other Federal departments or outside agencies if authorized by the primary organizational units having custody of the information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 15—ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS UNDER THE FEDERAL TORT CLAIMS ACT AND RELATED CLAIMS STATUTES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>28 U.S.C. 2672; 28 CFR § 14.11; 31 U.S.C. 3721; 29 U.S.C. 2897(b).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 22207, Apr. 13, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.1   What is the scope and purpose of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part provide procedures to be followed for claims asserted against the Department of Labor under the Federal Tort Claims Act, 28 U.S.C. 2671, <I>et seq.,</I> under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act of 1964, 31 U.S.C. 3721, and for claims arising out of the operation of Job Corps Centers under the Workforce Investment Act of 1998, 29 U.S.C. 2897(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of this part provides the procedures followed in processing claims asserted under the Federal Tort Claims Act, as amended, for money damages against the United States for injury to or loss of property or personal injury or death caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of an officer or employee of the Department of Labor while acting within the scope of his or her office or employment. This subpart is issued subject to and consistent with applicable regulations on administrative claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act issued by the Attorney General (28 CFR part 14).
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart C of this part provides the procedures for processing claims filed by or on behalf of employees of the Department of Labor for loss of or damage to personal property incident to their service with the Department under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act of 1964.
</P>
<P>(d) Subpart D of this part provides the procedures used in processing claims relating to damage to persons or property arising out of the operation of Job Corps, pursuant to the Workforce Investment Act, including damages under the Federal Tort Claims Act, damage to personal property of Job Corps students, and claims which the Secretary of Labor finds to be a proper charge against the United States but which are not cognizable under the Federal Tort Claims Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.2   What definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Organizational unit</I> means the jurisdictional area of each Assistant Secretary and each office head within the Department reporting directly to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Counsel for Claims and Compensation</I> means the Department's deciding official in the Office of the Solicitor for certain administrative claims under this part. The address for the Counsel for Claims and Compensation is U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Suite S4325, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone and fax numbers for this official may be found on the Department's Web site at <I>www.dol.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Regional Solicitor</I> means the head of the appropriate Regional Office (Regional Solicitor) or Branch Office (Associate Regional Solicitor) of the Office of Solicitor with jurisdiction to handle certain claims under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FTCA</I> means the Federal Tort Claims Act, as amended, 28 U.S.C. 1346(b), 28 U.S.C. 2671, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) <I>MPCECA</I> means the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act of 1964, 31 U.S.C. 3721.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>WIA</I> means the Workforce Investment Act of 1998, 29 U.S.C. 2897(b).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Claims Against the Government Under the Federal Tort Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.100" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.100   What claims against the Department are covered by the FTCA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FTCA is a limited waiver of sovereign immunity that allows claims for money damages against the Department for negligent acts or omissions of its employees acting within the course and scope of their employment. Subject to the exception set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, all such claims against the Department should be handled under the procedures in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) In instances where a third party has agreed to insure the Federal government, such as under a U.S. Government Car Rental Agreement, claimants are required to pursue those claims in accordance with such agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.101" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.101   Who may file an administrative claim under the FTCA against the Department?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim for the injury to or loss of property may be presented by the owner of the property, his or her duly authorized agent, or his or her legal representative.
</P>
<P>(b) A claim for personal injury may be presented by the injured person, his or her duly authorized agent, or his or her legal representative.
</P>
<P>(c) A claim for death may be presented by the executor or administrator of the decedent's estate or by any other person legally entitled to assert such a claim in accordance with applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(d) A claim presented by an agent or legal representative shall be presented in the name of the claimant, be signed by the agent or representative, show the title or legal capacity of the person signing and be accompanied by evidence of his or her authority to present a claim on behalf of the claimant as agent, executor, administrator, parent, guardian, or legal representative.
</P>
<P>(e) Only claims involving alleged acts or omissions of Department employees (including Job Corps students) should be presented to the Department.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.102" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.102   May an insurance company file an FTCA administrative claim on behalf of a claimant?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim for loss wholly compensated by an insurance company may be presented by that company.
</P>
<P>(b) A claim for loss partially compensated by an insurance company may be presented by the company or the insured individually, in accordance with their respective interests or jointly. It should be noted, however, that if the insurance company claims only part of the insured's interests, an acceptance of that claim may bar any additional claim by the insured for damages beyond that claimed by the insurance company as such acceptance would be in full and final settlement of all such claims arising out the incident that gave rise to the claim as described in § 15.110(b).
</P>
<P>(c) If the claimant is directly compensated by the Department for medical bills under this subpart, the claimant may be required to reimburse his or her insurance company in accordance with the terms of his or her insurance policy if the company has already paid those bills.
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever an insurance company presents a claim on behalf of the insured (such as a claim for an auto loss that includes the deductible), it shall present with its claim appropriate evidence that it has the rights of a subrogee, such as a copy of the signed policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.103" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.103   May an agent or legal representative file an FTCA administrative claim on behalf of a claimant?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An agent or legal representative may file a claim on behalf of a claimant.
</P>
<P>(b) Representative's fees are limited to not more than 20 percent of the amount paid for a claim settled in an administrative claim, and to not more than 25 percent of a judgment or settlement award after litigation is initiated. 28 U.S.C. 2678.
</P>
<P>(c) If a representative is dismissed from representing a claimant before the claim is resolved, the representative may not place a lien on the claimant's recoveries under the claim.
</P>
<P>(d) Any purported representative of a minor must provide documentation that he or she is the legal agent of that minor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.104" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.104   Where should the FTCA administrative claim be filed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only claims involving alleged acts or omissions of Department employees should be presented to the Department. For the purposes of this subpart, an FTCA claim shall be deemed to have been presented when the Department receives, at a place designated in paragraph (b) of this section, a properly executed “Claim for Damage, Injury, or Death” on Standard Form 95, or other written notification of an incident accompanied by a claim for money damages in a sum certain for injury to or loss of property or personal injury or death by reason of the incident.
</P>
<P>(b) In any FTCA case where the claim seeks damages for an incident resulting in aggregate claims in excess of $25,000 or which involves an alleged act or omission of an employee of the Department whose official duty station is in Washington, DC, the claimant shall mail or deliver the claim for money damages for injury to or loss of property or personal injury or death caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of any employee of the Department while acting within the scope of office or employment to the Counsel for Claims and Compensation, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Suite S4325, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(c) In all other cases, the claimant shall submit his or her claim to the official duty station of the employee whose act or omission forms the basis of the complaint, which should be immediately forwarded to the appropriate Regional Office of the Office of the Solicitor with all currently available documentation (such as a Standard Form 91, Motor Vehicle Accident Report).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.105   What information and evidence should be provided to DOL to substantiate an FTCA administrative claim?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personal injury.</I> In support of a claim for personal injury, including pain and suffering, the claimant is required to submit the following evidence or information:
</P>
<P>(1) A written report by the attending physician or dentist setting forth the nature and extent of the injury, nature and extent of treatment, any degree of temporary or permanent impairment, the prognosis, period of hospitalization, if any, and any diminished earning capacity. In addition, the claimant may be required to submit to a physical or mental examination by a physician employed or designated by the Department or another Federal agency. A copy of the report of the examining physician shall be made available to the claimant upon the claimant's written request.
</P>
<P>(2) Itemized bills for medical, dental and hospital, or any other, expenses incurred or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(3) If the prognosis reveals the necessity for future treatment, a statement of expected expenses for such treatment.
</P>
<P>(4) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the personal injury or the damages claimed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Death.</I> In support of a claim based on death, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information:
</P>
<P>(1) An authenticated death certificate, an autopsy report and or other competent evidence that includes cause or causes of death, date of death, and age of the decedent.
</P>
<P>(2) Decedent's employment or occupation at the time of death, including his or her monthly or yearly salary or earnings (if any), and the duration of his or her last employment or occupation.
</P>
<P>(3) Full name, address, birth date, kinship and marital status of the decedent's survivors, including identification of those survivors who were dependent for support upon the decedent at the time of his or her death.
</P>
<P>(4) Degree of support afforded by the decedent to each survivor dependent upon him or her for support at the time of his or her death.
</P>
<P>(5) Decedent's general physical and mental condition before his or her death.
</P>
<P>(6) Itemized bills for medical and burial expenses incurred by reason of the incident causing death, or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(7) If damages for pain and suffering prior to death are claimed, a physician's detailed statement specifying the injuries suffered, duration of pain and suffering, any drugs administered for pain, and the decedent's physical condition in the interval between injury and death.
</P>
<P>(8) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the death or damages claimed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Property damages.</I> In support of a claim for injury to or loss of property, real or personal, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information with respect to each item of property:
</P>
<P>(1) Proof of ownership.
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed statement of the amount claimed.
</P>
<P>(3) An itemized receipt of payment for necessary repairs or itemized written estimates of the cost of such repairs.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement listing date of purchase, purchase price, and salvage value where repair is not economical.
</P>
<P>(5) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the injury to or loss of property or the damages claimed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loss of income.</I> In support of a claim based on loss of income, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information:
</P>
<P>(1) A written statement from his or her employer showing actual time lost from employment, whether he or she is a full or part-time employee, and wages or salary actually lost.
</P>
<P>(2) If the claimant is self-employed, documentary evidence showing the amount of earnings lost such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Income tax returns for several years prior to the injury in question and the year in which the injury occurred may be used to indicate or measure lost income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the actual or projected cost for the claimant to hire someone else to do the same work he or she was doing at the time of injury.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the personal injury or the damages claimed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.106" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.106   How is the administrative claim processed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investigation.</I> When an organizational unit learns of an incident that reasonably can be expected to result in an allegation of harm caused to an individual or organization by an alleged negligent act or omission by an employee of that organizational unit or when it learns of an administrative claim or of litigation alleging such harm, it has the responsibility to fully investigate the incident and to take all actions necessary to preserve all relevant documents and other evidence. Each organizational unit should institute appropriate procedures to ensure that notification of such incidents are reported to the office responsible for ensuring that evidence is preserved and investigation undertaken.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification.</I> Upon receipt of an administrative claim under the Act or of notice of litigation seeking damages for an alleged negligent act or omission of an employee of the Department acting within the scope of his or her employment, the Office of the Solicitor shall notify the organizational unit responsible for the activity which gave rise to the claim or litigation and shall provide a copy of the administrative claim or the claim filed in the litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FTCA Contact.</I> Each organizational unit will establish an FTCA contact, unless this requirement is waived by the Counsel for Claims and Compensation. The FTCA contact will coordinate and oversee the preservation of documents related to the circumstances of all claims arising from his or her organizational unit. The FTCA contact will arrange for the preparation and submission of the Administrative Report relating to each claim within 30 days after notification of receipt of an administrative claim, unless the Office of the Solicitor grants additional time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Litigation.</I> During the course of any litigation, organizational units are responsible for providing assistance to the Office of the Solicitor in responding to discovery requests such as interrogatories and requests to produce documents, for providing assistance in analyzing factual and program issues, for providing witnesses for depositions and trials, and for assistance in producing affidavits and exhibits for use in the litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.107" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.107   What must be provided in the administrative report?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative report shall be in the form of a single memorandum in narrative form with attachments. It should contain all of the following elements, unless permission is obtained from the Office of the Solicitor to dispense with a particular element:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief explanation of the organization and operation of the program involved including statutory authority and applicable regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) A complete description of the events that gave rise to the claim or litigation, including a specific response to every allegation in the claim or litigation;
</P>
<P>(3) Any information available regarding the questions of whether the claimant or plaintiff actually suffered the harm alleged in the claim or litigation and what individual or organization caused any harm which appears to have occurred;
</P>
<P>(4) Any information available regarding the damages claimed;
</P>
<P>(5) Any policy reasons which the organizational unit wishes to advance for or against settlement of the claim or litigation; and
</P>
<P>(6) Details of any claims the Department may have against the claimant or plaintiff, whether or not they appear to be related to the subject matter of the claim or litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of all documents relevant to the issues involved in the claim or litigation should be attached to each copy of the Administrative Report. Original records should not be forwarded to the Office of the Solicitor unless specifically requested. They should be preserved, however, and remain available for litigation if necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) Organizational units should ensure that all Administrative Reports are either prepared or reviewed by an official of the organizational unit who was not personally involved in the incident in question prior to filing of the claim or suit.
</P>
<P>(d) The Office of the Solicitor may waive the requirement of an Administrative Report. If the Administrative Report is waived, the organizational unit or units involved in the circumstances of the claim or litigation shall provide certification from the supervisor of the employee whose alleged negligent act or omission gave rise to the claim, certifying that the employee was acting within the scope of his or her employment at the time of the alleged negligent act or omission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.108" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.108   Who is authorized to decide an administrative claim?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Counsel for Claims and Compensation shall have the authority to consider, ascertain, adjust, determine, compromise and settle claims pursuant to the Federal Tort Claims Act which involve an alleged negligent or wrongful act or omission of an employee whose official duty station is the Department's national office in Washington, DC, or which involve aggregate claims in excess of $25,000, or which involve a new point of law or a question of policy.
</P>
<P>(b) Regional Solicitors and the Associate Regional Solicitors are authorized to consider, ascertain, adjust, determine, compromise and settle claims arising in their respective jurisdictions pursuant to the Federal Tort Claims Act where the aggregate claimed does not exceed $25,000 in amount and which do not involve a new point of law or a question of policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.109" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.109   What if the claim is denied?</HEAD>
<P>Denial of an administrative claim under this subpart shall be in writing, and notification of denial shall be sent to the claimant, or his or her attorney or legal representative by certified or registered mail. The notification of final denial shall include a statement of the reasons for the denial and shall include a statement that, if the claimant is dissatisfied with the Department's action, that claimant may file suit in an appropriate U.S. District Court not later than 6 months after the date of mailing of the notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.110   What must a claimant do if the administrative claim is approved?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Payment of a claim approved under this subpart is contingent upon claimant's execution of the appropriate forms, such as the SF-194, SF-196, or SF-197, in accordance with instructions by the Department of Justice and/or the Judgment Fund. When a claimant is represented by an attorney, the voucher for payment shall designate the claimant as payee (as the beneficial interest holder), and the check shall be delivered to the attorney whose address appears on the voucher.
</P>
<P>(b) Acceptance by the claimant, or his or her agent or legal representative, of an award, compromise, or settlement under 28 U.S.C. 2672 or 28 U.S.C. 2677 is final and conclusive on the claimant, his or her agent or legal representative, and any other person on whose behalf or for whose benefit the claim has been presented and constitutes a complete release of any claim against the United States and against any officer or employee of the Government whose act or omission gave rise to the claim by reason of the same subject matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.111" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.2.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.111   If the administrative claim is approved, how is the award paid?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any award, compromise, or settlement in the amount of $2,500 or less made pursuant to this section shall be paid by the Secretary of Labor out of appropriations available to the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) Payment of an award, compromise, or settlement in an amount in excess of $2,500 made pursuant to this subpart shall be made in accordance with 28 CFR 14.10.
</P>
<P>(c) An award, compromise or settlement of a claim under 28 U.S.C. 2672 and this subpart in excess of $25,000 may be effected only with the prior written approval of the Attorney General or his designee. For the purpose of this subpart, a principal claim and any derivative or subrogated claim shall be treated as a single claim.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Claims Under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act of 1964</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.200" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.200   What is a claim under the MPCECA and who may file such a claim?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim under the MPCECA for damage or loss is allowable only if the property involved was being used incident to service with the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) A claim may be made under this subpart by an employee of the Department or by a spouse or authorized agent, or legal representative on behalf of the employee. If the employee is deceased, the claim may be filed by a survivor in the following order of preference: Spouse, children, parent, brother or sister or the authorized agent or legal representative of such person or persons.
</P>
<P>(c) An MPCECA claim may not be made by or for the benefit of an insurance company, subrogee, assignee, conditional vendor or other third party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.201" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.201   Where should the MPCECA claim be filed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the claimant's official duty station is at the Department's national office in Washington, DC, or if the claim is for an amount in excess of $25,000, the claim should be filed with the Counsel for Claims and Compensation, Office of the Solicitor of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, Suite S4325, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC, 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) In all other cases, the claimant shall address the claim to the regional or branch office of the Office of the Solicitor servicing the claimant's official duty station.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.202" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.202   How is a claim filed under the MPCECA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim under this subpart must be presented in writing. A sample claim, located on the Department's Office of the Solicitor, Federal Employees' and Energy Workers' Compensation Division Web site at <I>www.dol.gov,</I> is provided as an example for convenience of filing. The SF-95 for FTCA claims is not an appropriate form for a MPCECA claim.
</P>
<P>(b) The claimant is responsible for substantiating ownership or possession, the facts surrounding the loss or damage, and the value of the property. Any claim filed must be accompanied by the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A written statement, signed by the claimant or his or her authorized agent, setting forth the circumstances under which the damage or loss occurred. This statement may also include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the type, design, model number or other identification of the property.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of purchase or acquisition and the original cost of the property.
</P>
<P>(iii) The location of the property when the loss or damage occurred.
</P>
<P>(iv) The value of the property when lost or damaged.
</P>
<P>(v) The actual or estimated cost of the repair of any damaged item.
</P>
<P>(vi) The purpose of and authority for travel, if the loss or damage occurred incident to transportation or to the use of a motor vehicle.
</P>
<P>(vii) Any and all available information as to the party responsible for the loss or damage, if such party is someone other than the claimant, and all information as to insurance contracts, whether held by the claimant or by the party responsible.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of all available and appropriate documents such as bills of sale, estimates of repairs, or travel orders. In the case of an automobile, the claimant must file two estimates of repair or a certified paid bill showing the damage incurred and the cost of all parts, labor and other items necessary to the repair of the vehicle or a statement from an authorized dealer or repair garage showing that the cost of such repairs exceeds the value of the vehicle. The Office of the Solicitor may waive the requirement of two estimates of repair.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the power of attorney or other authorization if someone other than the employee files the claim.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement from the employee's immediate supervisor confirming that possession of the property was reasonable, useful or proper under the circumstances and that the damage or loss was incident to service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.203" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.203   When should a claim under the MPCECA be filed?</HEAD>
<P>A claim under this subpart may be allowed only if it is filed in writing within 2 years after accrual of the claim. For the purpose of this part, a claim accrues at the later of:
</P>
<P>(a) The time of the accident or incident causing the loss or damage;
</P>
<P>(b) Such time as the loss or damage should have been discovered by the claimant by the exercise of due diligence; or
</P>
<P>(c) Such time as cause preventing filing no longer exists or as war or armed conflict ends, whichever is earlier, if a claim otherwise accrues during war or an armed conflict or has accrued within 2 years before war or an armed conflict begins, and for cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.204" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.204   Are there limits on claims under the MPCECA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The maximum amount that can be paid for any claim under the MPCECA is $40,000, or, if the claim arises from emergency evacuation or extraordinary circumstances, up to $100,000, and property may be replaced in kind at the option of the Government. 31 U.S.C. 3721(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) The Department is not an insurer and does not underwrite all personal property losses that an employee may sustain. Employees are encouraged to carry private insurance to the maximum extent practicable to avoid losses, which may not be recoverable from the Department.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.205" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.205   What types of claims for property damage are allowed under the MPCECA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims for property damage are allowed under the MPCECA only if the property involved was being used incident to service with the Department and:
</P>
<P>(l) The damage or loss was not caused wholly or partly by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of the claimant, his or her agent, the members of his or her family, or his or her private employee (the standard to be applied is that of reasonable care under the circumstances); and
</P>
<P>(2) The possession of the property lost or damaged and the quantity and the quality possessed is determined by the claimant's supervisor to have been reasonable, useful or proper under the circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(3) The claim is substantiated by proper and convincing evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims otherwise allowable under this subpart shall not be disallowed solely because the claimant was not the legal owner of the property for which the claim is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.206" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.206   What claims arising at a residence or Telework location may be covered under the MPCECA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims arising at a residence, Telework center or other flexiplace location may be covered under the MPCECA.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this subpart, residence means a house, apartment or other location that is a Department employee's principal abode.
</P>
<P>(c) Claims for property damage at an alternative work location at which the employee is performing duties pursuant to an approved Telework agreement may be covered by the MPCECA if the property was being used incident to service with the Department, as, for the purposes of this subpart, that location is considered to be an official duty station. Under most circumstances, property damage will only be allowed if it occurs at or in connection with the employee's workstation.
</P>
<P>(d) Claims under the MPCECA at a residence not covered by paragraph (c) of this section may be allowable for damage to, or loss of, property arising from fire, flood, hurricane, other natural disaster, theft, or other unusual occurrence, if the property was being used incident to service with the Department, while such property is located at:
</P>
<P>(1) Residences within the 50 States or the District of Columbia that were assigned to the claimant or otherwise provided in kind by the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) Residences outside the 50 States and the District of Columbia that were occupied by the claimant, whether or not they were assigned or otherwise provided in kind by the United States, except when the claimant is a civilian employee who is a local inhabitant; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any warehouse, office, working area or other place (except residences) authorized or apparently authorized for the reception or storage of property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.207" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.207   What are examples of claims allowed under the MPCECA?</HEAD>
<P>The following are examples of the principal types of allowable claims, but these examples are not exclusive; other claims may be allowed, unless hereinafter excluded:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Transportation or travel losses.</I> Claims may be allowed for damage to, or loss of, property incident to transportation or storage pursuant to order or in connection with travel under orders, including property in the custody of a carrier, an agent or agency of the Government, or the claimant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enemy action or public service.</I> Claims may be allowed for damage to, or loss of, property as a direct consequence of:
</P>
<P>(1) Enemy action or threat thereof, or terrorism, combat, guerrilla, brigandage, or other belligerent activity, or unjust confiscation by a foreign power or its nationals.
</P>
<P>(2) Action by the claimant to quiet a civil disturbance or to alleviate a public disaster.
</P>
<P>(3) Efforts by the claimant to save human life or Government property.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Property used for the benefit of the Government.</I> Claims may be allowed for damage to, or loss, of property when used for the benefit of the Government at the request of, or with the knowledge and consent of superior authority.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronics and cellular phones.</I> Claims may be allowed for loss of, or damage to, cellular phones, personal data assistants and similar communication and electronic devices subject to the limitations in § 15.209(e).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Clothing and accessories.</I> Claims may be allowed for damage to, or loss of, clothing and accessories customarily worn on the person, such as eyeglasses, hearing aids, or dentures subject to the limitations in § 15.209(e).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Expenses incident to repair.</I> Claimants may be reimbursed for the payment of any sales tax incurred in connection with repairs to an item. The costs of obtaining estimates of repair (subject to the limitations set forth in § 15.208(c)) are also allowable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.208" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.208   What are the restrictions on otherwise allowable claims?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Money or currency.</I> Claims may be allowed for loss of money or currency (which includes coin collections) only when lost incident to fire, flood, hurricane, other natural disaster, or by theft from residence (as limited by § 15.206). In incidents of theft from a residence, it must be conclusively shown that the residence was locked at the time of the theft. Reimbursement for loss of money or currency is limited to an amount, which is determined to have been reasonable for the claimant to have had in his or her possession at the time of the loss.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Government property.</I> Claims may only be allowed for property owned by the United States for which the claimant is financially responsible to an agency of the Government other than the Department.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Estimate fees.</I> Claims may include fees paid to obtain estimates of repairs only when it is clear that an estimate could not have been obtained without paying a fee. In that case, the fee may be allowed only in an amount determined to be reasonable in relation to the value of the property or the cost of the repairs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Automobiles and motor vehicles.</I> Claims may only be allowed for damage to, or loss of automobiles and other motor vehicles if:
</P>
<P>(1) Such motor vehicles were required to be used for official Government business (official Government business, as used here, does not include travel, or parking incident thereto, between residence and office, or use of vehicles for the convenience of the owner. However, it does include travel, and parking incident thereto, between a residence and an assigned place of duty specifically authorized or otherwise shown to be permitted by the employee's supervisor as being more advantageous to the Government); or
</P>
<P>(2) Shipment of such motor vehicles was being furnished or provided by the Government, subject to the provisions of § 15.210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.209" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.209   What claims are not allowed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unassigned residences in United States.</I> Property loss or damage in quarters occupied by the claimant within the 50 States or the District of Columbia that were not assigned to him or otherwise provided in kind by the United States or part of an approved Telework agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Business property.</I> Property used for business or profit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unserviceable property.</I> Wornout or unserviceable property.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Illegal possession.</I> Property acquired, possessed or transferred in violation of the law or in violation of applicable regulations or directives.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Articles of extraordinary value.</I> Valuable articles, such as watches, jewelry, furs, clothes, electronics or other articles of extraordinary value. This prohibition does not apply to articles in the personal custody of the claimant or articles properly checked, if the claimant has taken reasonable protection or security measures.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Intangible property.</I> Loss of property that has no extrinsic and marketable value but is merely representative or evidence of value (such as a non-negotiable stock certificate or warehouse receipt) is not compensable. Intangible value is not compensable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Incidental expenses and consequential damage</I>s. The MPCECA and this subpart authorize payment for loss of or damage to personal property only. Except as provided in § 15.207(f), consequential damages or other types of loss or incidental expenses (such as loss of use, interest, carrying charges, cost of lodging or food while awaiting arrival of shipment, attorney fees, telephone calls, cost of transporting claimant or family members, inconvenience, time spent in preparation of claim, or cost of insurance premiums) are not compensable.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Real property.</I> Damage to real property is not compensable. In determining whether an item is considered to be an item of personal property, as opposed to real property, normally, any movable item is considered personal property even if physically joined to the land.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commercial property.</I> Articles acquired or held for sale or disposition by other commercial transactions on more than an occasional basis, or for use in a private profession or business enterprise.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Commercial storage.</I> Property stored at a commercial facility for the convenience of the claimant and at his or her expense.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Minimum amount.</I> Loss or damage amounting to less than $40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.210" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.210   What affect does insurance have on a claim under the MPCECA?</HEAD>
<P>In the event the property, which is the subject of the claim, was lost or damaged while in the possession of a commercial carrier or was insured, the following procedures will apply:
</P>
<P>(a) Whenever property is damaged, lost or destroyed while being shipped pursuant to authorized travel orders, the owner must file a written claim for reimbursement with the last commercial carrier known or believed to have handled the goods, or the carrier known to be in possession of the property when the damage or loss occurred, according to the terms of its bill of lading or contract, before submitting a claim against the Government under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever property is damaged, lost or destroyed incident to the claimant's service and is insured in whole or in part, the claimant should make demand in writing against the insurer for reimbursement under the terms and conditions of the insurance coverage, prior to the filing of the claim against the Government, unless, in the subsequent determination of the deciding official, the filing of such a demand was impracticable or inequitable. For example, if the value of a claim is $535 and the insurance deductible is $500, the deciding official may determine that no claim need be made against the insurer.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the deciding official determines that no demand should have been or need be made, failure to make a demand on a carrier or insurer or to make all reasonable efforts to protect and prosecute rights available against a carrier or insurer and to collect the amount recoverable from the carrier or insurer may result in reducing the amount recoverable from the Government by the maximum amount which would have been recoverable from the carrier or insurer had the claim been timely or diligently prosecuted.
</P>
<P>(d) Following the submission of the claim against the carrier or insurer, the claimant may immediately submit his claim against the Government in accordance with the provisions of this subpart, without waiting until either final approval or denial of the claim is made by the carrier or insurer.
</P>
<P>(1) Upon submitting his or her claim, the claimant shall certify in the claim that he or she has or has not gained any recovery from a carrier or insurer, and enclose all correspondence pertinent thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) If final action has not been taken by the carrier or insurer on the claim, the claimant shall immediately notify them to address all correspondence in regard to the claim to the appropriate Office of the Solicitor of Labor.
</P>
<P>(3) The claimant shall advise the appropriate Office of the Solicitor of any action taken by the carrier or insurer on the claim and, upon request, shall furnish all correspondence, documents, and other evidence pertinent to the matter.
</P>
<P>(e) The claimant shall assign to the United States, to the extent of any payment on the claim accepted by him or her, all rights, title and interest in any claim he or she may have against any carrier, insurer, or other party arising out of the incident on which the claim against the United States is based. After payment of the claim by the United States, the claimant shall, upon receipt of any payment from a carrier or insurer, pay the proceeds to the United States to the extent of the payment received by him or her from the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) Where a claimant recovers for the loss from the carrier or insurer before his or her claim under this subpart is settled, the amount of recovery shall be applied to the claim as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) When the amount recovered from a carrier, insurer, or other third party is greater than or equal to the claimant's total loss as determined under this part, no compensation is allowable under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) When the amount recovered is less than such total loss, the allowable amount is determined by deducting the recovery from the amount of such total loss.
</P>
<P>(3) For this purpose, the claimant's total loss is to be determined without regard to the maximum payment limitations set forth in § 15.204. However, if the resulting amount, after making this deduction exceeds the maximum payment limitations, the claimant shall be allowed only the maximum amount set forth in § 15.204.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.211" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.211   How is a claim under this subpart processed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Counsel for Claims and Compensation, the Regional Solicitors, and the Associate Regional Solicitors are authorized to consider, ascertain, adjust, determine, compromise and settle claims filed under this subpart that arise within their respective jurisdictions, except that any claim for an amount in excess of $25,000 shall fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the Counsel for Claims and Compensation.
</P>
<P>(b) Any writing received by the Office of the Solicitor within the time limits set forth in § 15.203 will be accepted and considered a claim under the MPCECA if it constitutes a demand for compensation from the Department. A sample claim, located on the Department's Office of the Solicitor, Federal Employees' and Energy Workers' Compensation Division Web site at <I>www.dol.gov,</I> is provided for convenience of filing. The SF-95 form used to file a claim under the FTCA is not an appropriate form for a claim under the MPCECA claim.
</P>
<P>(c) A demand is not required to be for a specific sum of money.
</P>
<P>(d) The determination upon the claim shall be provided to the claimant in writing by the deciding official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.212" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.212   How is the amount of the award under this subpart calculated?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amount allowable for damage to or loss of any item of property may not exceed the lowest of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount requested by the claimant for the item as a result of its loss, damage or the cost of its repair;
</P>
<P>(2) The actual or estimated cost of its repair; or
</P>
<P>(3) The actual value at the time of its loss, damage, or destruction. The actual value is determined by using the current replacement cost or the depreciated value of the item since its acquisition, whichever is lower, less any salvage value of the item in question.
</P>
<P>(b) Depreciation in value is determined by considering the type of article involved, its cost, its condition when damaged or lost, and the time elapsed between the date of acquisition and the date of damage or loss.
</P>
<P>(c) Current replacement cost and depreciated value are determined by use of publicly available adjustment rates or through use of other reasonable methods at the discretion of the official authorized to issue a determination upon the claim in question.
</P>
<P>(d) Replacement of lost or damaged property may be made in kind wherever appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) At the discretion of the official authorized to issue the determination upon the claim in question, a claimant may be required to turn over an item alleged to have been damaged beyond economical repair to the United States, in which case no deduction for salvage value will be made in the calculation of actual value.
</P>
<P>(f) Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, settlement of claims under the MPCECA is final and conclusive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.213" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.213   Are there limits to representatives' fees for claims under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>Yes. No more than 10 percent of the amount in settlement of each individual claim submitted and settled under this subpart shall be paid or delivered to or received by any agent or attorney on account of services rendered in connection with that claim. 31 U.S.C. 3721(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.214" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.3.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.214   How may a decision under this subpart be reconsidered?</HEAD>
<P>(a) While there is no appeal from the decision of the deciding official in regard to claims under the MPCECA, the deciding official may always reconsider his or her determination of a claim.
</P>
<P>(b) A claimant may request reconsideration from the deciding official by directing a written request for reconsideration to the deciding official within 60 days of the date of the original determination. The claimant must clearly state the factual or legal basis upon which he or she rests the request for a more favorable determination.
</P>
<P>(c) The determination upon the reconsideration will be provided to the claimant in writing by the deciding official.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Claims Arising Out of the Operation of the Job Corps</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.300" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.300   How are claims involving the Job Corps initiated?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims involving the Job Corps, including claims against Job Corps Centers run by other Federal agencies, claims by third parties involving the acts or omissions of students of Job Corps, and claims involving the loss of personal property of students of Job Corps should be submitted to the appropriate Job Corps Regional Office. Claims under the MPCECA for non-Department Federal employees should be sent to and must be handled by their respective Federal employer, subject to that employer's procedures. FTCA claims over $25,000 should be sent to and must be handled by the Counsel for Claims and Compensation under subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Job Corps Regional Office shall investigate all facts of the claim, including accident and medical reports, interview witnesses, and, where necessary, prepare the appropriate administrative reports.
</P>
<P>(c) Following the investigation, the Job Corps Regional Office will determine the appropriate reviewing official and if necessary forward the claim to the appropriate office immediately with all currently available documentation, as described in § 15.301.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.301" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.301   What office is responsible for determining liability in claims arising out of the Job Corps?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of the appropriate Job Corps Regional Office is responsible for claims not cognizable under the FTCA pursuant to the WIA arising out of the operation of the Job Corps involving loss or damage to persons or personal property of students of Job Corps Centers that do not exceed $300.
</P>
<P>(b) The Regional Solicitor is responsible for claims not cognizable under the FTCA pursuant to the WIA arising out of the operation of the Job Corps involving loss or damage to persons or personal property of students of Job Corps Centers for claims exceeding $300.
</P>
<P>(c) The Regional Solicitor is responsible for all FTCA claims involving damage to persons or property arising out of an act or omission of a Job Corps student or Federal employee that do not exceed $25,000 and do not involve a new point of law or a question of policy.
</P>
<P>(d) All remaining claims with aggregate damages of $25,000 or more are the responsibility of the Counsel for Claims and Compensation.
</P>
<P>(e) The Job Corps Regional Office Director, the Regional Solicitors and the Associate Regional Solicitors are authorized to consider, determine and settle claims filed under this subpart that arose within their respective jurisdictions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.302" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.302   What procedures apply to these claims?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims involving the negligent acts or omissions of Job Corps students or Federal employees are claims under the FTCA and are determined under the procedures in subpart B of this part. FTCA claims must be forwarded to and decided by the responsible Solicitor's Office.
</P>
<P>(b) Claims involving loss or damage to persons or the personal property of Job Corps students are covered by the WIA, 29 U.S.C. 2897(b), which provides that the Secretary of Labor may adjust or settle claims for damages to a person or property of up to $1,500 if those claims are found to be a proper charge against the United States and are not cognizable under the FTCA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.303" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.303   How does a Job Corps student file a claim for loss of or damages to personal property under the WIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A WIA claim under this subpart must be in writing and signed by the claimant or by an authorized representative. In order to be a proper claim, a WIA claim must fully describe the property and the circumstances that gave rise to the loss or damage.
</P>
<P>(b) All WIA claims under this subpart must be filed with the appropriate Job Corps Regional Office within 2 years of the date upon which the claim accrued. The Job Corps Regional Office may consult with the Regional Solicitor and/or Counsel for Claims and Compensation as necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) The determination upon the claim shall be provided to the claimant in writing by the appropriate deciding official.
</P>
<P>(d) Reconsideration of a determination under this subpart shall be available upon written request received within 60 days by the appropriate deciding official. The deciding official will provide a written response to the claimant within 60 days of such request. No further review of the matter will be permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.304" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.16.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.304   Are there limits to claims for loss of or damages to personal property under the WIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only claims involving damage or loss to personal property that occurred while at the Job Corps Center or while on authorized travel, training or other authorized activities may be considered under the WIA.
</P>
<P>(b) The Job Corps will only reimburse up to $300.00 per item for claims for loss or damage of personal property under the WIA, up to a maximum of $1,500 per occurrence.
</P>
<P>(c) If the property in question is not of a type that the student is authorized to bring to the Job Corps Center, no compensation will be made under this subpart. For example, if the Job Corps Center has explicit written rules imposing limitations on the type of electronic equipment or other personal items such as jewelry that may be brought to the center, no compensation will be awarded for the loss or damage of such property.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 16—EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 96-481, 94 Stat. 2327 (5 U.S.C. 504).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 63021, Dec. 29, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.101" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.101   Purpose of these rules.</HEAD>
<P>Section 203(a)(1) of the Equal Access to Justice Act amends section 504 of the Administrative Procedure Act to provide for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings before the Department of Labor. An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over an agency, unless the agency's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. The rules in this part describe the parties eligible for awards, the proceedings that are covered, how to apply for awards, and the standards under which awards will be granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.102" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>The Act</I> means section 504 of title 5 U.S.C., as amended by section 203(a)(1) of the Equal Access to Justice Act, Public Law No. 96-481.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adversary adjudication</I> means an adjudication under 5 U.S.C. 554 or other proceeding required by statute to be determined on the record after an opportunity for an agency hearing, but excludes an adjudication for the purpose of establishing or fixing a rate or for the purpose of granting or renewing a license.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjudicative officer</I> means the official who presides at the adversary adjudication, without regard to whether the official is designated as an administrative law judge, a hearing officer or examiner, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Department</I> refers to the cognizant departmental component which is participating in the adversary adjudication, (e.g., Occupational Safety and Health Administration, Mine Safety and Health Administration, and Employment Standards Administration).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Proceeding</I> means an adversary adjudication as defined in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.103" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.103   When the Act applies.</HEAD>
<P>The Act applies to any adversary adjudication pending before the Department at any time between October 1, 1981 and September 30, 1984. This includes proceedings begun before October 1, 1981 if final agency action has not been taken before that date, and proceedings pending on September 30, 1984, regardless of when they were initiated or when final agency action occurs, except that it shall not apply in any case pending on October 1, 1981 in which a decision has been issued, but final agency action has not been taken by reason of an abatement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.104" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.104   Proceedings covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act applies in adversary adjudications in which the position of the Department or another agency of the United States is presented by an attorney or other representative who enters an appearance and participates in the proceeding in an adversarial capacity. Any proceeding which prescribes a lawful present or future rate or is primarily rule-making is not covered. Proceedings to grant or renew licenses are also excluded, but proceedings to modify, suspend or revoke licenses are covered if they are otherwise adversary adjudications. The following types of proceedings are deemed to be adversarial adjudications which will be covered by the Act, when all other conditions in the Act and in these rules are met:
</P>
<P>(1) Hearings conducted by the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission under the authority of 29 U.S.C. 661 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act; and hearings conducted by the Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission under the authority of 30 U.S.C. 823 of the Mine Safety and Health Act. In these proceedings, the rules of the respective Commissions rather than the instant rules will be applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Wage and Hour Division, Employment Standards Administration:
</P>
<P>(i) Civil money penalties under the child labor provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act at 29 U.S.C. 216(e) and 29 CFR part 579.
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations and debarment in Federal contracts under the Walsh-Healey Act at 41 U.S.C. 39 and 41 CFR 50-203.1.
</P>
<P>(iii) Revocation, modification and suspension of licenses under the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act at 7 U.S.C. 2045(b) and 29 CFR 40.101.
</P>
<P>(iv) Civil money penalties under the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act at 7 U.S.C. 2048(b)(2) and 29 CFR 40.101.
</P>
<P>(v) Revocation and suspension of certificates under the Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act at 29 U.S.C. 1813(b) and 29 CFR 500.200.
</P>
<P>(vi) Civil money penalties under the Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act at 29 U.S.C. 1853(b) and 29 CFR 500.200. 
</P>
<P>(3) Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Employment Standards Administration hearings prior to the denial, withholding, termination or suspension of a government contract or any portion of a contract under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, at 42 U.S.C. 2000e-17 and 41 CFR part 60-30.
</P>
<P>(4) Civil Rights Center:
</P>
<P>(i) Fund termination under title VI of the Civil Rights Act at 42 U.S.C. 2000d2 and 29 CFR part 31.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fund termination under the Age Discrimination in Federally Assisted Programs Act of 1975 at 42 U.S.C. 6104(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) Fund termination or refusal to grant because of discrimination under 20 U.S.C. 1682.
</P>
<P>(5) Employment and Training Administration:
</P>
<P>(i) Proceedings under the Workforce Investment Act at 29 U.S.C. 2936, where the Department determines that a recipient of WIA funds is failing to comply with the requirements of the Act and the implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conformity and compliance under the Federal Unemployment Tax Act at 26 U.S.C. 3303(b) and 3304(c).
</P>
<P>(iii) Proceedings under section 303(b) of the Social Security Act of 1935, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 503(b).
</P>
<P>(6) Mine Safety and Health Administration:
</P>
<P>(i) Petitions for modification of a mandatory safety standard under the Mine Safety and Health Act at 30 U.S.C. 811(c) and 30 CFR 44.20.
</P>
<P>(7) Occupational Safety and Health Administration:
</P>
<P>(i) Exemptions, tolerances and variances under the Occupational Safety and Health Act at 29 U.S.C. 655 and 29 CFR 1905.3.
</P>
<P>(b) If a proceeding includes both matters covered by the Act and matters specifically excluded from coverage, any award made will include only fees and expenses related to the covered issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 63021, Dec. 29, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 43322, Sept. 23, 1983; 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.105   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under the Act, the applicant must be a party, as that term is defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3), to an adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award; the applicant must prevail; and must meet all the conditions of eligibility set out in this subpart and subpart B.
</P>
<P>(b) To be eligible for an award, the applicant must be:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $1 million;
</P>
<P>(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business which has a net worth of not more than $5 million, including both personal and business interests, and not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(3) A charitable or other tax exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $5 million and not more than 500 employees. A unit of state or local government is not a public organization within the meaning of this provision.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the proceeding was initiated.
</P>
<P>(d) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered as an <I>individual</I> rather than a <I>sole owner of an unincorporated business</I> if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests.
</P>
<P>(e) The employees of an applicant include all persons who perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included.
</P>
<P>(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual, corporation or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares of another business, or controls, <I>in any manner,</I> the election of a majority of that business' board of directors, trustees or other persons exercising similar functions, shall be considered an affiliate for purposes of this part, unless the adjudicative officer determines that such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, the adjudicative officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(g) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 63021, Dec. 29, 1981, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.106" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.106   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prevailing applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in connection with a proceeding, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, unless the position of the Department as a party over which the applicant has prevailed was substantially justified or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust. No presumption arises that the Department's position was not substantially justified simply because the Department did not prevail.
</P>
<P>(b) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.107" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.107   Allowable fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following fees and other expenses are allowable under the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Reasonable expenses of expert witnesses;
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, or project necessary for the preparation of the party's case;
</P>
<P>(3) Reasonable attorney or agent fees;
</P>
<P>(b) Awards will be based on the prevailing market rates for the kind and quality of services furnished not to exceed the rates set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) No award under these rules for the fee of an attorney or agent may exceed $125.00 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed $24.09 per hour.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought, the adjudicative officer shall consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily performs services;
</P>
<P>(2) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(3) The difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services performed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 63021, Dec. 29, 1981, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.108" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.1.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.108   Awards against other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>If an applicant is entitled to an award because it prevails over another agency of the United States that participates in a proceeding before the Department of Labor and the other agency takes a position that is not substantially justified, the award or an appropriate portion of the award shall be made against that agency by the adjudicative officer for the Department of Labor. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Information Required From Applicants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.201" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.201   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act shall identify the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought. The application shall show that the applicant has prevailed and identify the position of an agency or agencies in the proceeding that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application shall also state the number of employees of the applicant at the time the proceeding was instituted and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall also include a statement that the applicant's net worth at the time the formal proceedings were instituted did not exceed $1 million (if an individual) or $5 million (for all other applicants, including their affiliates). However, an applicant may omit this statement if:
</P>
<P>(1) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such section; or
</P>
<P>(2) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)).
</P>
<P>(c) If the applicant is a partnership, corporation, association, or organization, or a sole owner of an unincorporated business, the application shall certify that it did not have more than 500 employees at the time the formal proceedings were initiated, giving the number of its employees and describing briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
</P>
<P>(d) The application shall state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought.
</P>
<P>(e) The application may also include any other matters that the applicant wishes the adjudicative officer to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
</P>
<P>(f) The application shall be signed by the applicant with respect to the eligibility of the applicant and by the attorney of the applicant with respect to fees and expenses sought. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1225-0013) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 63021, Dec. 29, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 14696, Apr. 6, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.202" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.202   Net worth exhibit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant except a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates (as defined in § 16.105(f) of this part) as of the date when the proceeding was initiated, i.e. the date the complaint was filed. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The adjudicative officer may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.
</P>
<P>(b) The net worth exhibit shall be included in the public record of the proceeding in which an award is sought.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1225-0013) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 63021, Dec. 29, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 14696, Apr. 6, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.203" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.203   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses, including the cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter, for which an award is sought.
</P>
<P>(b) The document shall include an affidavit from each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided.
</P>
<P>(1) The affidavit shall itemize in detail the services performed by the date, number of hours per date and the services performed during those hours. In order to establish the hourly rate, the affidavit shall state the hourly rate which is billed and paid by the majority of clients during the relevant time periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If no hourly rate is paid by the majority of clients because, for instance, the attorney or agent represents most clients on a contingency basis, the attorney or agent shall provide affidavits from two attorneys or agents with similar experience, who perform similar work, stating the hourly rate which they bill and are paid by the majority of their clients during a comparable time period.
</P>
<P>(c) The documentation shall also include a description of any expenses for which reimbursement is sought and a statement of the amounts paid and payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided.
</P>
<P>(d) The adjudicative officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1225-0013) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 63021, Dec. 29, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 14696, Apr. 6, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.204" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.204   When an application may be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be filed whenever the applicant has prevailed in the proceeding or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, but in no case later than 30 days after the agency's final disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) If review or reconsideration is sought or taken of a decision as to which an applicant believes it has prevailed, matters related to the consideration of an award of fees and expenses shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this rule final disposition means the later of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The date on which an initial decision or other recommended disposition of the merits of the proceeding by an adjudicative officer or intermediate review board becomes administratively final; 
</P>
<P>(2) Issuance of an order disposing of any petitions for reconsideration of this agency's final order in the proceeding; (3) if no petition for reconsideration is filed, the last date on which such a petition could have been filed; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Issuance of a final order or any other final resolution of a proceeding, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, which is not subject to a petition for reconsideration, or, in the case of an abatement, the end of the abatement period or the date on which an order is issued terminating the abatement period.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1225-0013) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 63021, Dec. 29, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 14696, Apr. 6, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Considering Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.301" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.301   Filing and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Any application for an award or other pleading or document related to an application shall be filed with the adjudicative officer and served on all parties to the proceeding in the same manner as other pleadings in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.302" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.302   Answer to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, counsel representing the agency against which an award is sought may file an answer to the application. Unless agency counsel requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of this section, failure to file an answer within the 30 day period may be treated as a consent to the award requested.
</P>
<P>(b) If agency counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the adjudicative officer upon request by agency counsel and the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of agency counsel's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, agency counsel shall include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 16.304.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.303" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.303   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and agency counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying proceeding, or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded, in accordance with the agency's standard settlement procedure. If a prevailing party and agency counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.304" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.304   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or agency counsel, or on his or her own initiative, the adjudicative officer may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application, and shall be conducted as promptly as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) A request that the adjudicative officer order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.305" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.305   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>The adjudicative officer shall issue a recommended decision on the application which shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decisions shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the agency's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. If the applicant has sought an award against more than one agency, the decision shall allocate responsibility for payment of any award made among the agencies, and shall explain the reasons for the allocation made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.306" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.306   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, for purposes of this subsection, means the Secretary of Labor or a person, board or other organizational unit authorized to perform the review function. Either the applicant or agency counsel may seek review of the recommended decision on the fee application, or the Secretary may decide to review the decision on his or her own initiative, in accordance with the Department of Labor's regular review procedures. If neither the applicant nor agency counsel seeks review and the Secretary does not take review on his or her own initiative, the adjudicative officer's decision on the application shall become a final decision of the Department 45 days after it is issued. If review is taken, the Secretary will issue a final decision on the application or remand the application to the adjudicative officer for further proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.307" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.307   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Judicial review of final agency decisions on awards may be sought as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.308" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.17.3.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.308   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit to the Comptroller for the Department of Labor a copy of the final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts. The request for payment shall be addressed to: Comptroller, U.S. Department of Labor, Frances S. Perkins Building, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 17—INTERGOVERNMENTAL REVIEW OF DEPARTMENT OF LABOR PROGRAMS AND ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12372, July 14, 1982 (47 FR 30959), as amended April 8, 1983 (48 FR 15887): sec. 401 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968, as amended (31 U.S.C. 6506).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 29258, June 24, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 17.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.1   What is the purpose of these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part implement E.O. 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs,” issued July 14, 1982 and amended on April 8, 1983. These regulations also implement applicable provisions of section 401 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968. 
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations are intended to foster an intergovernmental partnership and a strengthened Federalism by relying on state processes and on state, areawide, regional and local coordination for review of proposed Federal financial assistance and direct Federal development.
</P>
<P>(c) These regulations are intended to aid the internal management of the Department, and are not intended to create any right or benefit enforceable at law by a party against the Department or its officers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.2   What definitions apply to these regulations?</HEAD>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means E.O. 12372, issued July 14, 1982, and amended April 8, 1983 and titled “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs.”
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Labor or an official or employee of the Department acting for the Secretary under a delegation of authority.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the 50 states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, American Samoa, the U.S. Virgin Islands, or the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.3   What programs and activities of the Department are subject to these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary publishes in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a list of the Department's programs and activities that are subject to these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.4   What are the Secretary's general responsibilities under the Order?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary provides opportunities for consultation by elected officials of those state and local governments that would provide the non-Federal funds for, or that would be directly affected by, proposed Federal financial assistance from, or direct Federal development by, the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) If a state adopts a process under the Order to review and coordinate proposed Federal financial assistance and direct Federal development, the Secretary, to the extent permitted by law:
</P>
<P>(1) Uses the state process to determine official views of state and local elected officials;
</P>
<P>(2) Communicates with state and local elected officials as early in a program planning cycle as is reasonably feasible to explain specific plans and actions;
</P>
<P>(3) Makes efforts to accommodate state and local elected officials' concerns with proposed Federal financial assistance and direct Federal development that are communicated through the state process;
</P>
<P>(4) Allows the states to simplify and consolidate existing federally required state plan submissions;
</P>
<P>(5) Where state planning and budgeting systems are sufficient and where permitted by law, encourages the substitution of state plans for federally required state plans;
</P>
<P>(6) Seeks the coordination of views of affected state and local elected officials in one state with those of another state when proposed Federal financial assistance or direct Federal development has an impact on interstate metropolitan urban centers or other interstate areas; and
</P>
<P>(7) Supports state and local governments by discouraging the reauthorization or creation of any planning organization which is federally-funded, which has a limited purpose, and which is not adequately representative of, or accountable to, state or local elected officials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.5   What is the Secretary's obligation with respect to Federal interagency coordination?</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, to the extent practicable, consults with and seeks advice from all other substantially affected Federal departments and agencies in an effort to assure full coordination between such agencies and the Department regarding programs and activities covered under these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.6   What procedures apply to the selection of programs and activities under these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A state may select any program or activity published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 17.3 of this part for intergovernmental review under these regulations. Each state, before selecting programs and activities shall consult with local elected officials.
</P>
<P>(b) Each state that adopts a process shall notify the Secretary of the Department's programs and activities selected for that process.
</P>
<P>(c) A state may notify the Secretary of changes in its selections at any time. For each change, the state shall submit to the Secretary an assurance that the state has consulted with elected local officials regarding the change. The Department may establish deadlines by which states are required to inform the Secretary of changes in their program selections.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary uses a state's process as soon as feasible, depending on individual programs and activities, after the Secretary is notified of its selections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.7   How does the Secretary communicate with state and local officials concerning the Department's programs and activities?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For those programs and activities covered by a state process under § 17.6, the Secretary, to the extent permitted by law:
</P>
<P>(1) Uses the official state process to determine views of state and local elected officials; and,
</P>
<P>(2) Communicates with state and local elected officials, through the official state process, as early in a program planning cycle as is reasonably feasible to explain specific plans and actions.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary provides notice to directly affected state, areawide, regional, and local entities in a state of proposed Federal financial assistance if:
</P>
<P>(1) The state has not adopted a process under the Order; or
</P>
<P>(2) The assistance involves a program or activity not selected for the state process.
</P>
<FP>This notice may be made by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or other appropriate means, which the Department in its discretion deems appropriate.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.8   How does the Secretary provide states an opportunity to comment on proposal Federal financial assistance?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in unusual circumstances, the Secretary gives state processes or directly affected state, areawide, regional and local officials and entities:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 30 days from the date established by the Secretary to comment on proposed Federal financial assistance in the form of noncompeting continuation awards; and
</P>
<P>(2) At least 60 days from the date established by the Secretary to comment on proposed Federal financial assistance other than noncompeting continuation awards.
</P>
<P>(b) This section also applies to comments in cases in which the review, coordination, and communication with the Department have been delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.9   How does the Secretary receive and respond to comments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary follows the procedures in § 17.10 if:
</P>
<P>(1) A state office or official is designated to act as a single point of contact between a state process and all Federal agencies, and
</P>
<P>(2) That office or official transmits a state process recommendation for a program selected under § 17.6.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The single point of contact is not obligated to transmit comments from state, areawide, regional or local officials and entities where there is no state process recommendation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a state process recommendation is transmitted by a single point of contact, all comments from state, areawide, regional, and local officials and entities that differ from it must also be transmitted.
</P>
<P>(c) If a state has not established a process, or is unable to submit a state process recommendation, state, areawide, regional and local officials and entities may submit comments to the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) If a program or activity is not selected for a state process, state, areawide, regional and local officials and entities may submit comments to the Department. In addition, if a state process recommendation for a nonselected program or activity is transmitted to the Department by the single point of contact, the Secretary follows the procedures of § 17.10 of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary considers comments which do not constitute a state process recommendation submitted under these regulations and for which the Secretary is not required to apply the procedures of § 17.10 of this part, when such comments are provided by a single point of contact, or directly to the Department by a commenting party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.10   How does the Secretary make efforts to accommodate intergovernmental concerns?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a state process provides a state process recommendation to the Department through its single point of contact, the Secretary either—
</P>
<P>(1) Accepts the recommendation;
</P>
<P>(2) Reaches a mutually agreeable solution with the state process; or
</P>
<P>(3) Provides the single point of contact with such written explanation of the decision, as the Secretary in his or her discretion deems appropriate. The Secretary may also supplement the written explanation by providing the explanation to the single point of contact by telephone, other telecommunication, or other means.
</P>
<P>(b) In any explanation under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Secretary informs the single point of contact that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department will not implement its decision for at least ten days after the single point of contact receives the explanation; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary has reviewed the decision and determined that, because of unusual circumstances, the waiting period of at least ten days is not feasible. 
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of computing the waiting period under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a single point of contact is presumed to have received written notification 5 days after the date of mailing of such notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.11   What are the Secretary's obligations in interstate situations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying proposed Federal financial assistance that have an impact on interstate areas;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifying appropriate officials and entities in states which have adopted a process and which select the Department's program or activity.
</P>
<P>(3) Making efforts to identify and notify the affected state, areawide, regional, and local officials and entities in those states that have not adopted a process under the Order or do not select the Department's program or activity;
</P>
<P>(4) Responding pursuant to § 17.10 of this part if the Secretary receives a recommendation from a designated areawide agency transmitted by a single point of contact, in cases in which the review, coordination, and communication with the Department have been delegated.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary uses the procedures in § 17.10 if a state process provides a state process recommendation to the Department through a single point of contact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.12   How may a state simplify, consolidate, or substitute federally required state plans?</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Simplify</I> means that a state may develop its own format, choose its own submission date, and select the planning period for a state plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consolidate</I> means that a state may meet statutory and regulatory requirements by combining two or more plans into one document and that the state can select the format, submission date, and planning period for the consolidated plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substitute</I> means that a state may use a plan or other document that it has developed for its own purposes to meet Federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) If not consistent with law, a state may decide to try to simplify, consolidate, or substitute federally required state plans without prior approval by the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary reviews each state plan that a state has simplified, consolidated, or substituted and accepts the plan only if its contents meet Federal requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.18.0.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.13   May the Secretary waive any provision of these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>In an emergency, the Secretary may waive any provision of these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 18—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE FOR ADMINISTRATIVE HEARINGS BEFORE THE OFFICE OF ADMINISTRATIVE LAW JUDGES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 5 U.S.C. 551-553; 5 U.S.C. 571 note; E.O. 12778; 57 FR 7292. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 32538, July 15, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 28785, May 19, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="47" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.10   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> These rules govern the procedure in proceedings before the United States Department of Labor, Office of Administrative Law Judges. They should be construed and administered to secure the just, speedy, and inexpensive determination of every proceeding. To the extent that these rules may be inconsistent with a governing statute, regulation, or executive order, the latter controls. If a specific Department of Labor regulation governs a proceeding, the provisions of that regulation apply, and these rules apply to situations not addressed in the governing regulation. The Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP) apply in any situation not provided for or controlled by these rules, or a governing statute, regulation, or executive order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Type of proceeding.</I> Unless the governing statute, regulation, or executive order prescribes a different procedure, proceedings follow the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 551 through 559.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver, modification, and suspension.</I> Upon notice to all parties, the presiding judge may waive, modify, or suspend any rule under this subpart when doing so will not prejudice a party and will serve the ends of justice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.11   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of these rules, these definitions supplement the definitions in the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 551.
</P>
<P><I>Calendar call</I> means a meeting in which the judge calls cases awaiting hearings, determines case status, and assigns a hearing date and time.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Judge</I> means the Chief Administrative Law Judge of the United States Department of Labor Office of Administrative Law Judges and judges to whom the Chief Judge delegates authority.
</P>
<P><I>Docket clerk</I> means the Chief Docket Clerk at the Office of Administrative Law Judges in Washington, DC. But once a case is assigned to a judge in a district office, <I>docket clerk</I> means the docket staff in that office.






</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> means that part of a proceeding consisting of a session to decide issues of fact or law that is recorded and transcribed and provides the opportunity to present evidence or argument.
</P>
<P><I>Judge</I> means an administrative law judge appointed under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105.
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means the judge's disposition of one or more procedural or substantive issues, or of the entire matter.
</P>
<P><I>Proceeding</I> means an action before the Office of Administrative Law Judges that creates a record leading to an adjudication or order.




</P>
<P><I>Representative</I> means any person permitted to represent another in a proceeding before the Office of Administrative Law Judges.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.12   Proceedings before administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation.</I> The Chief Judge designates the presiding judge for all proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> In all proceedings under this part, the judge has all powers necessary to conduct fair and impartial proceedings, including those described in the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 556. Among them is the power to:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulate the course of proceedings in accordance with applicable statute, regulation or executive order;
</P>
<P>(2) Administer oaths and affirmations and examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(3) Compel the production of documents and appearance of witnesses within a party's control;
</P>
<P>(4) Issue subpoenas authorized by law;
</P>
<P>(5) Rule on offers of proof and receive relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(6) Dispose of procedural requests and similar matters;
</P>
<P>(7) Terminate proceedings through dismissal or remand when not inconsistent with statute, regulation, or executive order;
</P>
<P>(8) Issue decisions and orders;
</P>
<P>(9) Exercise powers vested in the Secretary of Labor that relate to proceedings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges; and
</P>
<P>(10) Where applicable take any appropriate action authorized by the FRCP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.13   Settlement judge procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How initiated.</I> The Office of Administrative Law Judges provides settlement judges to aid the parties in resolving the matter that is the subject of the controversy. Upon a joint request by the parties or upon referral by the judge when no party objects, the Chief Judge may appoint a settlement judge. A settlement judge will not be appointed when settlement proceedings would be inconsistent with a statute, regulation, or executive order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appointment.</I> The Chief Judge has discretion to appoint a settlement judge, who must be an active or retired judge. The settlement judge will not be appointed to hear and decide the case or approve the settlement without the parties' consent and the approval of the Chief Judge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of settlement proceeding.</I> Unless the Chief Judge directs otherwise, settlement negotiations under this section must be completed within 60 days from the date of the settlement judge's appointment. The settlement judge may request that the Chief Judge extend the appointment. The negotiations will be terminated if a party withdraws from participation, or if the settlement judge determines that further negotiations would be unproductive or inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Powers of the settlement judge.</I> The settlement judge may convene settlement conferences; require the parties or their representatives to attend with full authority to settle any disputes; and impose other reasonable requirements to expedite an amicable resolution of the case.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stay of proceedings before presiding judge.</I> The appointment of a settlement judge does not stay any aspect of the proceeding before the presiding judge. Any motion to stay must be directed to the presiding judge.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Settlement conferences.</I> Settlement conferences may be conducted by telephone, videoconference or in person at the discretion of the settlement judge after considering the nature of the case, location of the participants, availability of technology, and efficiency of administration.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Confidentiality.</I> All discussions with the settlement judge are confidential; none may be recorded or transcribed. The settlement judge must not disclose any confidential communications made during settlement proceedings, except as required by statute, executive order, or court order. The settlement judge may not be subpoenaed or called as a witness in any hearing of the case or any subsequent administrative proceedings before the Department to testify to statements made or conduct during the settlement discussions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Report.</I> The parties must promptly inform the presiding judge of the outcome of the settlement negotiations. If a settlement is reached, the parties must submit the required documents to the presiding judge within 14 days of the conclusion of settlement discussions unless the presiding judge orders otherwise.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-reviewable decisions.</I> Whether a settlement judge should be appointed, the selection of a particular settlement judge, and the termination of proceedings under this section are matters not subject to review by Department officials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.14   Ex parte communication.</HEAD>
<P>The parties, their representatives, or other interested persons must not engage in ex parte communications on the merits of a case with the judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.15   Substitution of administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Substitution during hearing.</I> If the judge is unable to complete a hearing, a successor judge designated pursuant to § 18.12 may proceed upon certifying familiarity with the record and determining that the case may be completed without prejudice to the parties. The successor judge must, at a party's request, recall any witness whose testimony is material and disputed and who is available to testify again without undue burden. The successor judge may also recall any other witness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substitution following hearing.</I> If the judge is unable to proceed after the hearing is concluded, the successor judge appointed pursuant to § 18.12 may issue a decision and order based upon the existing record after notifying the parties and giving them an opportunity to respond. Within 14 days of receipt of the judge's notice, a party may file an objection to the judge issuing a decision based on the existing record. If no objection is filed, the objection is considered waived. Upon good cause shown, the judge may order supplemental proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.16   Disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disqualification on judge's initiative.</I> A judge must withdraw from a proceeding whenever he or she considers himself or herself disqualified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for disqualification.</I> A party may file a motion to disqualify the judge. The motion must allege grounds for disqualification, and include any appropriate supporting affidavits, declarations or other documents. The presiding judge must rule on the motion in a written order that states the grounds for the ruling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.47.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.17   Legal assistance.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Administrative Law Judges does not appoint representatives, refer parties to representatives, or provide legal assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="48" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.48" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Parties and Representatives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.48.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.20   Parties to a proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>A party seeking original relief or action is designated a complainant, claimant or plaintiff, as appropriate. A party against whom relief or other action is sought is designated a respondent or defendant, as appropriate. When participating in a proceeding, the applicable Department of Labor's agency is a party or party-in-interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.48.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.21   Party appearance and participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A party may appear and participate in the proceeding in person or through a representative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver of participation.</I> By filing notice with the judge, a party may waive the right to participate in the hearing or the entire proceeding. When all parties waive the right to participate in the hearing, the judge may issue a decision and order based on the pleadings, evidence, and briefs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to appear.</I> When a party has not waived the right to participate in a hearing, conference or proceeding but fails to appear at a scheduled hearing or conference, the judge may, after notice and an opportunity to be heard, dismiss the proceeding or enter a decision and order without further proceedings if the party fails to establish good cause for its failure to appear.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.48.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.22   Representatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> When first making an appearance, each representative must file a notice of appearance that indicates on whose behalf the appearance is made and the proceeding name and docket number. Any attorney representative must include in the notice of appearance the license registration number(s) assigned to the attorney.
</P>
<P>(b) <I> Categories of representation; admission standards</I>—(1) <I>Attorney representative.</I> Under these rules, “attorney” or “attorney representative” means an individual who has been admitted to the bar of the highest court of a State, Commonwealth, or Territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Attorney in good standing.</I> An attorney who is in good standing in his or her licensing jurisdiction may represent a party or subpoenaed witness before the Office of Administrative Law Judges. The filing of the Notice of Appearance required in paragraph (a) of this section constitutes an attestation that:
</P>
<P>(A) The attorney is a member of a bar in good standing of the highest court of a State, Commonwealth, or Territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia where the attorney has been licensed to practice law; and
</P>
<P>(B) No disciplinary proceeding is pending against the attorney in any jurisdiction where the attorney is licensed to practice law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Attorney not in good standing.</I> An attorney who is not in good standing in his or her licensing jurisdiction may not represent a party or subpoenaed witness before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, unless he or she obtains the judge's approval. Such an attorney must file a written statement that establishes why the failure to maintain good standing is not disqualifying. The judge may deny approval for the appearance of such an attorney after providing notice and an opportunity to be heard.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Disclosure of discipline.</I> An attorney representative must promptly disclose to the judge any action suspending, enjoining, restraining, disbarring, or otherwise currently restricting the attorney in the practice of law in any jurisdiction where the attorney is licensed to practice law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-attorney representative.</I> An individual who is not an attorney as defined by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may represent a party or subpoenaed witness upon the judge's approval. The individual must file a written request to serve as a non-attorney representative that sets forth the name of the party or subpoenaed witness represented and certifies that the party or subpoenaed witness desires the representation. The judge may require that the representative establish that he or she is subject to the laws of the United States and possesses communication skills, knowledge, character, thoroughness and preparation reasonably necessary to render appropriate assistance. The judge may inquire as to the qualification or ability of a non-attorney representative to render assistance at any time. The judge may deny the request to serve as non-attorney representative after providing the party or subpoenaed witness with notice and an opportunity to be heard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duties.</I> A representative must be diligent, prompt, and forthright when dealing with parties, representatives and the judge, and act in a manner that furthers the efficient, fair and orderly conduct of the proceeding. An attorney representative must adhere to the applicable rules of conduct for the jurisdiction(s) in which the attorney is admitted to practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited actions.</I> A representative must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Threaten, coerce, intimidate, deceive or knowingly mislead a party, representative, witness, potential witness, judge, or anyone participating in the proceeding regarding any matter related to the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Knowingly make or present false or misleading statements, assertions or representations about a material fact or law related to the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Unreasonably delay, or cause to be delayed without good cause, any proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(4) Engage in any other action or behavior prejudicial to the fair and orderly conduct of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withdrawal of appearance.</I> A representative who desires to withdraw after filing a notice of appearance or a party desiring to withdraw the appearance of a representative must file a motion with the judge. The motion must state that notice of the withdrawal has been given to the party, client or representative. The judge may deny a representative's motion to withdraw when necessary to avoid undue delay or prejudice to the rights of a party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.48.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.23   Disqualification of representatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disqualification</I>—(1) <I>Grounds for disqualification.</I> Representatives qualified under § 18.22 may be disqualified for:
</P>
<P>(i) Suspension of a license to practice law or disbarment from the practice of law by any court or agency of the United States, highest court of a State, Commonwealth, or Territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia;
</P>
<P>(ii) Disbarment from the practice of law on consent or resignation from the bar of a court or agency while an investigation into an allegation of misconduct is pending; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Committing an act, omission, or contumacious conduct that violates these rules, an applicable statute, an applicable regulation, or the judge's order(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disqualification procedure.</I> The Chief Judge must provide notice and an opportunity to be heard as to why the representative should not be disqualified from practice before the Office of Administrative Law Judges. The notice will include a copy of the document that provides the grounds for the disqualification. Unless otherwise directed, any response must be filed within 21 days of service of the notice. The Chief Judge's determination must be based on the reliable, probative and substantial evidence of record, including the notice and response.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of disqualification action.</I> When an attorney representative is disqualified, the Chief Judge will notify the jurisdiction(s) in which the attorney is licensed to practice and the National Lawyer Regulatory Data Bank maintained by the American Bar Association Standing Committee on Professional Discipline, by providing a copy of the decision and order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application for reinstatement.</I> A representative disqualified under this section may be reinstated by the Chief Judge upon application. At the discretion of the Chief Judge, consideration of an application for reinstatement may be limited to written submissions or may be referred for further proceedings before the Chief Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.48.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.24   Briefs from amicus curiae.</HEAD>
<P>The United States or an officer or agency thereof, or a State, Territory, Commonwealth, or the District of Columbia may file an amicus brief without the consent of the parties or leave of the judge. Any other amicus curiae may file a brief only by leave of the judge, upon the judge's request, or if the brief states that all parties have consented to its filing. A request for leave to file an amicus brief must be made by written motion that states the interest of the movant in the proceeding. The deadline for submission of an amicus brief will be set by the presiding judge.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="49" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.49" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Service, Format, and Timing of Filings and Other Papers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.49.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.30   Service and filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service on parties</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Unless these rules provide otherwise, all papers filed with OALJ or with the judge must be served on every party.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service: how made</I>—(i) <I>Serving a party's representative.</I> If a party is represented, service under this section must be made on the representative. The judge also may order service on the party.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Service in general.</I> A paper is served under this section by:
</P>
<P>(A) Handing it to the person;
</P>
<P>(B) Leaving it;
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) At the person's office with a clerk or other person in charge or, if no one is in charge, in a conspicuous place in the office; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the person has no office or the office is closed, at the person's dwelling or usual place of abode with someone of suitable age and discretion who resides there.
</P>
<P>(C) Mailing it to the person's last known address—in which event service is complete upon mailing;
</P>
<P>(D) Leaving it with the docket clerk if the person has no known address;
</P>
<P>(E) Sending it by electronic means if the person consented in writing—in which event service is complete upon transmission, but is not effective if the serving party learns that it did not reach the person to be served; or








</P>
<P>(F) Delivering it by any other means that the person consented to in writing—in which event service is complete when the person making service delivers it to the agency designated to make delivery.






</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certificate of service.</I> A certificate of service is a signed written statement that the paper was served on all parties. The statement must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The title of the document;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and address of each person or representative being served;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the party filing the paper and the party's representative, if any;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date of service; and
</P>
<P>(v) How the paper was served.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing with Office of Administrative Law Judges</I>—(1) <I>Required filings.</I> Any paper that is required to be served must be filed within a reasonable time after service with a certificate of service. But disclosures under § 18.50(c) and the following discovery requests and responses must not be filed until they are used in the proceeding or the judge orders filing:
</P>
<P>(i) Notices of deposition,
</P>
<P>(ii) Depositions,
</P>
<P>(iii) Interrogatories,
</P>
<P>(iv) Requests for documents or tangible things or to permit entry onto land;
</P>
<P>(v) Requests for admission, and
</P>
<P>(vi) The notice (and the related copy of the subpoena) that must be served on the parties under rule 18.56(b)(1) before a “documents only” subpoena may be served on the person commended to produce the material.






</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing: when made—in general.</I> A paper is filed when received by the docket clerk or the judge during a hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Filing how made.</I> A paper may be filed by mail, courier service, hand delivery, facsimile or electronic delivery.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Filing by facsimile</I>—(A) <I>When permitted.</I> A party may file by facsimile only as directed or permitted by the judge. If a party cannot obtain prior permission because the judge is unavailable, a party may file by facsimile up to 12 pages, including a statement of the circumstances precluding filing by delivery or mail. Based on the statement, the judge may later accept the document as properly filed at the time transmitted.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Cover sheet.</I> Filings by facsimile must include a cover sheet that identifies the sender, the total number of pages transmitted, and the matter's docket number and the document's title.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Retention of the original document.</I> The original signed document will not be substituted into the record unless required by law or the judge.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any party filing a facsimile of a document must maintain the original document and transmission record until the case is final. A transmission record is a paper printed by the transmitting facsimile machine that states the telephone number of the receiving machine, the number of pages sent, the transmission time and an indication that no error in transmission occurred.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon a party's request or judge's order, the filing party must provide for review the original transmitted document from which the facsimile was produced.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic filing, signing, or verification.</I> A judge may allow papers to be filed, signed, or verified by electronic means.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.49.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.31   Privacy protection for filings and exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Redacted filings and exhibits.</I> Unless the judge orders otherwise, in an electronic or paper filing or exhibit that contains an individual's social-security number, taxpayer-identification number, or birth date, the name of an individual known to be a minor, or a financial-account number, the party or nonparty making the filing must redact all such information, except:
</P>
<P>(1) The last four digits of the social-security number and taxpayer-identification number;
</P>
<P>(2) The year of the individual's birth;
</P>
<P>(3) The minor's initials; and
</P>
<P>(4) The last four digits of the financial-account number.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions from the redaction requirement.</I> The redaction requirement does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The record of an administrative or agency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) The official record of a state-court proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) The record of a court or tribunal, if that record was not subject to the redaction requirement when originally filed; and
</P>
<P>(4) A filing or exhibit covered by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Option for filing a reference list.</I> A filing that contains redacted information may be filed together with a reference list that identifies each item of redacted information and specifies an appropriate identifier that uniquely corresponds to each item listed. The reference list must be filed under seal and may be amended as of right. Any reference in the case to a listed identifier will be construed to refer to the corresponding item of information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver of protection of identifiers.</I> A person waives the protection of paragraph (a) of this section as to the person's own information by filing or offering it without redaction and not under seal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protection of material.</I> For good cause, the judge may order protection of material pursuant to §§ 18.85 and 18.52.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.49.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.32   Computing and extending time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Computing time.</I> The following rules apply in computing any time period specified in these rules, a judge's order, or in any statute, regulation, or executive order that does not specify a method of computing time.
</P>
<P>(1) When the period is stated in days or a longer unit of time:
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude the day of the event that triggers the period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Count every day, including intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the last day of the period, but if the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, the period continues to run until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>“Last day” defined.</I> Unless a different time is set by a statute, regulation, executive order, or judge's order, the “last day” ends at 4:30 p.m. local time where the event is to occur.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>“Next day” defined.</I> The “next day” is determined by continuing to count forward when the period is measured after an event and backward when measured before an event.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>“Legal holiday” defined.</I> “Legal holiday” means the day set aside by statute for observing New Year's Day, Martin Luther King Jr.'s Birthday, Washington's Birthday, Memorial Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Columbus Day, Veterans' Day, Thanksgiving Day, or Christmas Day; and any day on which the district office in which the document is to be filed is closed or otherwise inaccessible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extending time.</I> When an act may or must be done within a specified time, the judge may, for good cause, extend the time:
</P>
<P>(1) With or without motion or notice if the judge acts, or if a request is made, before the original time or its extension expires; or
</P>
<P>(2) On motion made after the time has expired if the party failed to act because of excusable neglect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional time after certain kinds of service.</I> When a party may or must act within a specified time after service and service is made under § 18.30(a)(2)(ii)(C) or (D), 3 days are added after the period would otherwise expire under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28785, May 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 37539, July 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.49.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.33   Motions and other papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A request for an order must be made by motion. The motion must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing, unless made during a hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) State with particularity the grounds for seeking the order;
</P>
<P>(3) State the relief sought;
</P>
<P>(4) Unless the relief sought has been agreed to by all parties, be accompanied by affidavits, declarations, or other evidence; and
</P>
<P>(5) If required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section, include a memorandum of points and authority supporting the movant's position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form.</I> The rules governing captions and other matters of form apply to motions and other requests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written motion before hearing.</I> (1) A written motion before a hearing must be served with supporting papers, at least 21 days before the time specified for the hearing, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) When the motion may be heard ex parte;
</P>
<P>(ii) When these rules or an appropriate statute, regulation, or executive order set a different time; or
</P>
<P>(iii) When an order sets a different time.
</P>
<P>(2) A written motion served within 21 days before the hearing must state why the motion was not made earlier.
</P>
<P>(3) A written motion before hearing must state that counsel conferred, or attempted to confer, with opposing counsel in a good faith effort to resolve the motion's subject matter, and whether the motion is opposed or unopposed. A statement of consultation is not required with pro se litigants or with the following motions:
</P>
<P>(i) To dismiss;
</P>
<P>(ii) For summary decision; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any motion filed as “joint,” “agreed,” or “unopposed.”
</P>
<P>(4) Unless the motion is unopposed, the supporting papers must include affidavits, declarations or other proof to establish the factual basis for the relief. For a dispositive motion and a motion relating to discovery, a memorandum of points and authority must also be submitted. A judge may direct the parties file additional documents in support of any motion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Opposition or other response to a motion filed prior to hearing.</I> A party to the proceeding may file an opposition or other response to the motion within 14 days after the motion is served. The opposition or response may be accompanied by affidavits, declarations, or other evidence, and a memorandum of the points and authorities supporting the party's position. Failure to file an opposition or response within 14 days after the motion is served may result in the requested relief being granted. Unless the judge directs otherwise, no further reply is permitted and no oral argument will be heard prior to hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Motions made at hearing.</I> A motion made at a hearing may be stated orally unless the judge determines that a written motion or response would best serve the ends of justice.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Renewed or repeated motions.</I> A motion seeking the same or substantially similar relief previously denied, in whole or in part, must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The earlier motion(s),
</P>
<P>(2) When the respective motion was made,
</P>
<P>(3) The judge to whom the motion was made,
</P>
<P>(4) The earlier ruling(s), and
</P>
<P>(5) The basis for the current motion.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Motion hearing.</I> The judge may order a hearing to take evidence or oral argument on a motion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28785, May 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 37539, July 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.34" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.49.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.34   Format of papers filed.</HEAD>
<P>Every paper filed must be printed in black ink on 8.5 × 11-inch opaque white paper and begin with a caption that includes:
</P>
<P>(a) The parties' names,
</P>
<P>(b) A title that describes the paper's purpose, and
</P>
<P>(c) The docket number assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges. If the Office has not assigned a docket number, the paper must bear the case number assigned by the Department of Labor agency where the matter originated. If the case number is an individual's Social Security number then only the last four digits may be used. <I>See</I> § 18.31(a)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.35" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.49.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.35   Signing motions and other papers; representations to the judge; sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Date and signature.</I> Every written motion and other paper filed with OALJ must be dated and signed by at least one representative of record in the representative's name—or by a party personally if the party is unrepresented. The paper must state the signer's address, telephone number, facsimile number and email address, if any. The judge must strike an unsigned paper unless the omission is promptly corrected after being called to the representative's or party's attention.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Representations to the judge.</I> By presenting to the judge a written motion or other paper—whether by signing, filing, submitting, or later advocating it—the representative or unrepresented party certifies that to the best of the person's knowledge, information, and belief, formed after an inquiry reasonable under the circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) It is not being presented for any improper purpose, such as to harass, cause unnecessary delay, or needlessly increase the cost of the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(2) The claims, defenses, and other legal contentions are warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for extending, modifying, or reversing existing law or for establishing new law;
</P>
<P>(3) The factual contentions have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, will likely have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; and
</P>
<P>(4) The denials of factual contentions are warranted on the evidence or, if specifically so identified, are reasonably based on belief or a lack of information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sanctions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If, after notice and a reasonable opportunity to respond, the judge determines that paragraph (b) of this section has been violated, the judge may impose an appropriate sanction on any representative, law firm, or party that violated the rule or is responsible for the violation. Absent exceptional circumstances, a law firm must be held jointly responsible for a violation committed by its partner, associate, or employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Motion for sanctions.</I> A motion for sanctions must be made separately from any other motion and must describe the specific conduct that allegedly violates paragraph (b) of this section. The motion must be served under § 18.30(a), but it must not be filed or be presented to the judge if the challenged paper, claim, defense, contention, or denial is withdrawn or appropriately corrected within 21 days after service or within another time the judge sets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>On the judge's initiative.</I> On his or her own, the judge may order a representative, law firm, or party to show cause why conduct specifically described in the order has not violated paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nature of a sanction.</I> A sanction imposed under this section may include, but is not limited to, striking part or all of the offending document, forbidding the filing of any further documents, excluding related evidence, admonishment, referral of counsel misconduct to the appropriate licensing authority, and including the sanctioned activity in assessing the quality of representation when determining an appropriate hourly rate and billable hours when adjudicating attorney fees.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requirements for an order.</I> An order imposing a sanction must describe the sanctioned conduct and explain the basis for the sanction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inapplicability to discovery.</I> This section does not apply to disclosures and discovery requests, responses, objections, and motions under §§ 18.50 through 18.65.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.36" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.49.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.36   Amendments after referral to the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</HEAD>
<P>The judge may allow parties to amend and supplement their filings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.50" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Prehearing Procedure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.50.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.40   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except when the hearing is scheduled by calendar call, the judge must notify the parties of the hearing's date, time, and place at least 14 days before the hearing. The notice is sent by regular, first-class mail, unless the judge determines that circumstances require service by certified mail or other means. The parties may agree to waive the 14-day notice for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Date, time, and place.</I> The judge must consider the convenience and necessity of the parties and the witnesses in selecting the date, time, and place of the hearing.










</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.41" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.50.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.41   Continuances and changes in place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By the judge.</I> Upon reasonable notice to the parties, the judge may change the time, date, and place of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By a party's motion.</I> A request by a party to continue a hearing or to change the place of the hearing must be made by motion.








</P>
<P>(1) <I>Continuances.</I> A motion for continuance must be filed promptly after the party becomes aware of the circumstances supporting the continuance. In exceptional circumstances, a party may orally request a continuance and must immediately notify the other parties of the continuance request. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in place of hearing.</I> A motion to change the place of a hearing must be filed promptly.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.42" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.50.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.42   Expedited proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>A party may move to expedite the proceeding. The motion must demonstrate the specific harm that would result if the proceeding is not expedited. If the motion is granted, the formal hearing ordinarily will not be scheduled with less than 7 days notice to the parties, unless all parties consent to an earlier hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.43" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.50.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.43   Consolidation; separate hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> If separate proceedings before the Office of the Administrative Law Judges involve a common question of law or fact, a judge may:
</P>
<P>(1) Join for hearing any or all matters at issue in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(2) Consolidate the proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(3) Issue any other orders to avoid unnecessary cost or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separate hearings.</I> For convenience, to avoid prejudice, or to expedite and economize, the judge may order a separate hearing of one or more issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.50.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.44   Prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The judge, with or without a motion, may order one or more prehearing conferences for such purposes as:
</P>
<P>(1) Expediting disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Establishing early and continuing control so that the case will not be protracted because of lack of management;
</P>
<P>(3) Discouraging wasteful prehearing activities;
</P>
<P>(4) Improving the quality of the hearing through more thorough preparation; and
</P>
<P>(5) Facilitating settlement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scheduling.</I> Prehearing conferences may be conducted in person, by telephone, or other means after reasonable notice of time, place and manner of conference has been given.








</P>
<P>(c) <I>Participation.</I> All parties must participate in prehearing conferences as directed by the judge. A represented party must authorize at least one of its attorneys or representatives to make stipulations and admissions about all matters that can reasonably be anticipated for discussion at the prehearing conference, including possible settlement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Matters for consideration.</I> At the conference, the judge may consider and take appropriate actions on the following matters:
</P>
<P>(1) Formulating and simplifying the issues, and eliminating frivolous claims or defenses;
</P>
<P>(2) Amending the papers that had framed the issues before the matter was referred for hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) Obtaining admissions and stipulations about facts and documents to avoid unnecessary proof, and ruling in advance on the admissibility of evidence;
</P>
<P>(4) Avoiding unnecessary proof and cumulative evidence, and limiting the number of expert or other witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Determining the appropriateness and timing of dispositive motions under §§ 18.70 and 18.72;
</P>
<P>(6) Controlling and scheduling discovery, including orders affecting disclosures and discovery under §§ 18.50 through 18.65;
</P>
<P>(7) Identifying witnesses and documents, scheduling the filing and exchange of any exhibits and prehearing submissions, and setting dates for further conferences and for the hearing;
</P>
<P>(8) Referring matters to a special master;
</P>
<P>(9) Settling the case and using special procedures to assist in resolving the dispute such as the settlement judge procedure under § 18.13, private mediation, and other means authorized by statute or regulation;
</P>
<P>(10) Determining the form and content of prehearing orders;
</P>
<P>(11) Disposing of pending motions;
</P>
<P>(12) Adopting special procedures for managing potentially difficult or protracted proceedings that may involve complex issues, multiple parties, difficult legal questions, or unusual proof problems;
</P>
<P>(13) Consolidating or ordering separate hearings under § 18.43;
</P>
<P>(14) Ordering the presentation of evidence early in the proceeding on a manageable issue that might, on the evidence, be the basis for disposing of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(15) Establishing a reasonable limit on the time allowed to present evidence; and
</P>
<P>(16) Facilitating in other ways the just, speedy, and inexpensive disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting.</I> The judge may direct that the prehearing conference be recorded and transcribed. If the conference is not recorded, the judge should summarize the conference proceedings on the record at the hearing or by separate prehearing notice or order.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosure and Discovery</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.50   General provisions governing disclosure and discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing and sequence of discovery</I>—(1) <I>Timing.</I> A party may seek discovery at any time after a judge issues an initial notice or order. But if the judge orders the parties to confer under paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The time to respond to any pending discovery requests is extended until the time agreed in the discovery plan, or that the judge sets in resolving disputes about the discovery plan, and
</P>
<P>(ii) No party may seek additional discovery from any source before the parties have conferred as required by paragraph (b) of this section, except by stipulation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sequence.</I> Unless, on motion, the judge orders otherwise for the parties' and witnesses' convenience and in the interests of justice:
</P>
<P>(i) Methods of discovery may be used in any sequence; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Discovery by one party does not require any other party to delay its discovery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conference of the parties; planning for discovery</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The judge may order the parties to confer on the matters described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conference content; parties' responsibilities.</I> In conferring, the parties must consider the nature and basis of their claims and defenses and the possibilities for promptly settling or resolving the case; make or arrange for the disclosures required by paragraph (c) of this section; discuss any issues about preserving discoverable information; and develop a proposed discovery plan. The representatives of record and all unrepresented parties that have appeared in the case are jointly responsible for arranging the conference, for attempting in good faith to agree on the proposed discovery plan, and for submitting to the judge within 14 days after the conference a written report outlining the plan. The judge may order the parties or representatives to attend the conference in person.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discovery plan.</I> A discovery plan must state the parties' views and proposals on:
</P>
<P>(i) What changes should be made in the timing, form, or requirement for disclosures under paragraph (c) of this section, including a statement of when initial disclosures were made or will be made;
</P>
<P>(ii) The subjects on which discovery may be needed, when discovery should be completed, and whether discovery should be conducted in phases or be limited to or focused on particular issues;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any issues about disclosure or discovery of electronically stored information, including the form or forms in which it should be produced;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any issues about claims of privilege or of protection as hearing-preparation materials, including—if the parties agree on a procedure to assert these claims after production—whether to ask the judge to include their agreement in an order;
</P>
<P>(v) What changes should be made in the limitations on discovery imposed under these rules and what other limitations should be imposed; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other orders that the judge should issue under § 18.52 or § 18.44.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Initial disclosure</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as exempted by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section or otherwise ordered by the judge, a party must, without awaiting a discovery request, provide to the other parties:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and, if known, the address and telephone number of each individual likely to have discoverable information—along with the subjects of that information—that the disclosing party may use to support its claims or defenses, unless the use would be solely for impeachment;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy—or a description by category and location—of all documents, electronically stored information, and tangible things that the disclosing party has in its possession, custody, or control and may use to support its claims or defenses, unless the use would be solely for impeachment; and
</P>
<P>(C) A computation of each category of damages claimed by the disclosing party—who must also make available for inspection and copying as under § 18.61 the documents or other evidentiary material, unless privileged or protected from disclosure, on which each computation is based, including materials bearing on the nature and extent of injuries suffered.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Proceedings exempt from initial disclosure.</I> The following proceedings are exempt from initial disclosure:
</P>
<P>(A) A proceeding under 29 CFR part 20 for review of an agency determination regarding the existence or amount of a debt, or the repayment schedule proposed by the agency;
</P>
<P>(B) A proceeding before the Board of Alien Labor Certification Appeals under the Immigration and Nationality Act; and
</P>
<P>(C) A proceeding under the regulations governing certification of H-2 non-immigrant temporary agricultural employment at 20 CFR part 655, subpart B;
</P>
<P>(D) A rulemaking proceeding under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970; and
</P>
<P>(E) A proceeding for civil penalty assessments under Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, 29 U.S.C. 1132.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Parties exempt from initial disclosure.</I> The following parties are exempt from initial disclosure:
</P>
<P>(A) In a Black Lung benefits proceeding under 30 U.S.C. 901 <I>et seq.,</I> the representative of the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs of the Department of Labor, if an employer has been identified as the Responsible Operator and is a party to the proceeding, <I>see</I> 20 CFR 725.418(d); and
</P>
<P>(B) In a proceeding under the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, 33 U.S.C. 901-950, or an associated statute such as the Defense Base Act, 42 U.S.C. 1651-1654, the representative of the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs of the Department of Labor, unless the Solicitor of Labor or the Solicitor's designee has elected to participate in the proceeding under 20 CFR 702.333(b), or unless an employer or carrier has applied for relief under the special fund, as defined in 33 U.S.C. 908(f).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Time for initial disclosures—in general.</I> A party must make the initial disclosures required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section within 21 days after an initial notice or order is entered acknowledging that the proceeding has been docketed at the OALJ unless a different time is set by stipulation or a judge's order, or a party objects during the conference that initial disclosures are not appropriate in the proceeding and states the objection in the proposed discovery plan. In ruling on the objection, the judge must determine what disclosures, if any, are to be made and must set the time for disclosure.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Time for initial disclosures—for parties served or joined later.</I> A party that is first served or otherwise joined later in the proceeding must make the initial disclosures within 21 days after being served or joined, unless a different time is set by stipulation or the judge's order. Copies of all prior disclosures must be served on a newly served or joined party within 21 days of the service or joinder.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Basis for initial disclosure; unacceptable excuses.</I> A party must make its initial disclosures based on the information then reasonably available to it. A party is not excused from making its disclosures because it has not fully investigated the case or because it challenges the sufficiency of another party's disclosures or because another party has not made its disclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure of expert testimony</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A party must disclose to the other parties the identity of any witness who may testify at hearing, either live or by deposition. The judge should set the time for the disclosure by prehearing order.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Witnesses who must provide a written report.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated or ordered by the judge, this disclosure must be accompanied by a written report—prepared and signed by the witness—if the witness is one retained or specially employed to provide expert testimony in the case or one whose duties as the party's employee regularly involve giving expert testimony. The report must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) A complete statement of all opinions the witness will express and the basis and reasons for them;
</P>
<P>(B) The facts or data considered by the witness in forming them;
</P>
<P>(C) Any exhibits that will be used to summarize or support them;
</P>
<P>(D) The witness's qualifications, including a list of all publications authored in the previous 10 years;
</P>
<P>(E) A list of all other cases in which, during the previous 4 years, the witness testified as an expert at trial, a hearing, or by deposition; and
</P>
<P>(F) A statement of the compensation to be paid for the study and testimony in the case.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Witnesses who do not provide a written report.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated or ordered by the judge that the witness is not required to provide a written report, this disclosure must state:
</P>
<P>(A) The subject matter on which the witness is expected to present expert opinion evidence; and
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of the facts and opinions to which the witness is expected to testify.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Supplementing the disclosure.</I> The parties must supplement these disclosures when required under § 18.53.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prehearing disclosures.</I> In addition to the disclosures required by paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, a party must provide to the other parties and promptly file the prehearing disclosures described in § 18.80.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Unless the judge orders otherwise, all disclosures under this paragraph (c) must be in writing, signed, and served.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signing disclosures and discovery requests, responses, and objections</I>—(1) <I>Signature required; effect of signature.</I> Every disclosure under paragraph (c) of this section and every discovery request, response, or objection must be signed by at least one of the party's representatives in the representative's own name, or by the party personally if unrepresented, and must state the signer's address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address, if any. By signing, a representative or party certifies that to the best of the person's knowledge, information, and belief formed after a reasonable inquiry:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to a disclosure, it is complete and correct as of the time it is made; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a discovery request, response, or objection, it is:
</P>
<P>(A) Consistent with these rules and warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for extending, modifying, or reversing existing law, or for establishing new law;
</P>
<P>(B) Not interposed for any improper purpose, such as to harass, cause unnecessary delay, or needlessly increase the cost of litigation; and
</P>
<P>(C) Neither unreasonable nor unduly burdensome or expensive, considering the needs of the case, prior discovery in the case, the amount in controversy, and the importance of the issues at stake in the action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to sign.</I> Other parties have no duty to act on an unsigned disclosure, request, response, or objection until it is signed, and the judge must strike it unless a signature is promptly supplied after the omission is called to the representative's or party's attention.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sanction for improper certification.</I> If a certification violates this section without substantial justification, the judge, on motion or on his or her own, must impose an appropriate sanction, as provided in § 18.57, on the signer, the party on whose behalf the signer was acting, or both.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.51   Discovery scope and limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope in general.</I> Unless otherwise limited by a judge's order, the scope of discovery is as follows: Parties may obtain discovery regarding any nonprivileged matter that is relevant to any party's claim or defense—including the existence, description, nature, custody, condition, and location of any documents or other tangible things and the identity and location of persons who know of any discoverable matter. For good cause, the judge may order discovery of any matter relevant to the subject matter involved in the proceeding. Relevant information need not be admissible at the hearing if the discovery appears reasonably calculated to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence. All discovery is subject to the limitations imposed by paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on frequency and extent</I>—(1) <I>When permitted.</I> By order, the judge may alter the limits in these rules on the number of depositions and interrogatories or on the length of depositions under § 18.64. The judge's order may also limit the number of requests under § 18.63.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific limitations on electronically stored information.</I> A party need not provide discovery of electronically stored information from sources that the party identifies as not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost. On motion to compel discovery or for a protective order, the party from whom discovery is sought must show that the information is not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost. If that showing is made, the judge may nonetheless order discovery from such sources if the requesting party shows good cause, considering the limitations of paragraph (b)(4) of this section. The judge may specify conditions for the discovery.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inadvertently disclosed privileged or protected information.</I> By requesting electronically stored information, a party consents to the application of Federal Rule of Evidence 502 with regard to inadvertently disclosed privileged or protected information.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>When required.</I> On motion or on his or her own, the judge must limit the frequency or extent of discovery otherwise allowed by these rules when:
</P>
<P>(i) The discovery sought is unreasonably cumulative or duplicative, or can be obtained from some other source that is more convenient, less burdensome, or less expensive;
</P>
<P>(ii) The party seeking discovery has had ample opportunity to obtain the information by discovery in the action; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The burden or expense of the proposed discovery outweighs its likely benefit, considering the needs of the case, the amount in controversy, the parties' resources, the importance of the issues at stake in the action, and the importance of the discovery in resolving the issues.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing preparation: Materials</I>—(1) <I>Documents and tangible things.</I> Ordinarily, a party may not discover documents and tangible things that are prepared in anticipation of litigation or for hearing by or for another party or its representative (including the other party's attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or agent). But, subject to paragraph (d) of this section, those materials may be discovered if:
</P>
<P>(i) They are otherwise discoverable under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The party shows that it has substantial need for the materials to prepare its case and cannot, without undue hardship, obtain their substantial equivalent by other means.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection against disclosure.</I> A judge who orders discovery of those materials must protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of a party's representative concerning the litigation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Previous statement.</I> Any party or other person may, on request and without the required showing, obtain the person's own previous statement about the action or its subject matter. If the request is refused, the person may move for a judge's order. A previous statement is either:
</P>
<P>(i) A written statement that the person has signed or otherwise adopted or approved; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contemporaneous stenographic, mechanical, electrical, or other recording—or a transcription of it—that recites substantially verbatim the person's oral statement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing preparation: Experts</I>—(1) <I>Deposition of an expert who may testify.</I> A party may depose any person who has been identified as an expert whose opinions may be presented at trial. If § 18.50(c)(2)(ii) requires a report from the expert the deposition may be conducted only after the report is provided, unless the parties stipulate otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearing-preparation protection for draft reports or disclosures.</I> Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section protect drafts of any report or disclosure required under § 18.50(c)(2), regardless of the form in which the draft is recorded.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hearing-preparation protection for communications between a party's representative and expert witnesses.</I> Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) under this section protect communications between the party's representative and any witness required to provide a report under § 18.50(c)(2)(ii), regardless of the form of the communications, except to the extent that the communications:
</P>
<P>(i) Relate to compensation for the expert's study or testimony;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify facts or data that the party's representative provided and that the expert considered in forming the opinions to be expressed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify assumptions that the party's representative provided and that the expert relied on in forming the opinions to be expressed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expert employed only for hearing preparation.</I> Ordinarily, a party may not, by interrogatories or deposition, discover facts known or opinions held by an expert who has been retained or specially employed by another party in anticipation of litigation or to prepare for hearing and whose testimony is not anticipated to be used at the hearing. But a party may do so only:
</P>
<P>(i) As provided in § 18.62(c); or
</P>
<P>(ii) On showing exceptional circumstances under which it is impracticable for the party to obtain facts or opinions on the same subject by other means.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claiming privilege or protecting hearing-preparation materials</I>—(1) <I>Information withheld.</I> When a party withholds information otherwise discoverable by claiming that the information is privileged or subject to protection as hearing-preparation material, the party must:
</P>
<P>(i) Expressly make the claim; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the nature of the documents, communications, or tangible things not produced or disclosed—and do so in a manner that, without revealing information itself privileged or protected, will enable other parties to assess the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information produced.</I> If information produced in discovery is subject to a claim of privilege or of protection as hearing-preparation material, the party making the claim must notify any party that received the information of the claim and the basis for it. After being notified, a party must promptly return, sequester, or destroy the specified information and any copies it has; must not use or disclose the information until the claim is resolved; must take reasonable steps to retrieve the information if the party disclosed it before being notified; and may promptly present the information to the judge for an <I>in camera</I> determination of the claim. The producing party must preserve the information until the claim is resolved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28785, May 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 37539, July 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.52   Protective orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A party or any person from whom discovery is sought may file a written motion for a protective order. The motion must include a certification that the movant has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with other affected parties in an effort to resolve the dispute without the judge's action. The judge may, for good cause, issue an order to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense, including one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Forbidding the disclosure or discovery;
</P>
<P>(2) Specifying terms, including time and place, for the disclosure or discovery;
</P>
<P>(3) Prescribing a discovery method other than the one selected by the party seeking discovery;
</P>
<P>(4) Forbidding inquiry into certain matters, or limiting the scope of disclosure or discovery to certain matters;
</P>
<P>(5) Designating the persons who may be present while the discovery is conducted;
</P>
<P>(6) Requiring that a deposition be sealed and opened only on the judge's order;
</P>
<P>(7) Requiring that a trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information not be revealed or be revealed only in a specified way;
</P>
<P>and
</P>
<P>(8) Requiring that the parties simultaneously file specified documents or information in sealed envelopes, to be opened as the judge directs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ordering discovery.</I> If a motion for a protective order is wholly or partly denied, the judge may, on just terms, order that any party or person provide or permit discovery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.53   Supplementing disclosures and responses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A party who has made a disclosure under § 18.50(c)—or who has responded to an interrogatory, request for production, or request for admission—must supplement or correct its disclosure or response:
</P>
<P>(1) In a timely manner if the party learns that in some material respect the disclosure or response is incomplete or incorrect, and if the additional or corrective information has not otherwise been made known to the other parties during the discovery process or in writing; or
</P>
<P>(2) As ordered by the judge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expert witness.</I> For an expert whose report must be disclosed under § 18.50(c)(2)(ii), the party's duty to supplement extends both to information included in the report and to information given during the expert's deposition. Any additions or changes to this information must be disclosed by the time the party's prehearing disclosures under § 18.50(c)(3) are due.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28785, May 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 37540, July 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.54   Stipulations about discovery procedure.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the judge orders otherwise, the parties may stipulate that:
</P>
<P>(a) A deposition may be taken before any person, at any time or place, on any notice, and in the manner specified—in which event it may be used in the same way as any other deposition; and
</P>
<P>(b) Other procedures governing or limiting discovery be modified— but a stipulation extending the time for any form of discovery must have the judge's approval if it would interfere with the time set for completing discovery, for hearing a motion, or for hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.55" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.55   Using depositions at hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Using depositions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If there is no objection, all or part of a deposition may be used at a hearing to the extent it would be admissible under the applicable rules of evidence as if the deponent were present and testifying.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Over objection.</I> Notwithstanding any objection, all or part of a deposition may be used at a hearing against a party on these conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The party was present or represented at the taking of the deposition or had reasonable notice of it;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is used to the extent it would be admissible under the applicable rules of evidence if the deponent were present and testifying; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The use is allowed by paragraphs (a)(3) through (9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Impeachment and other uses.</I> Any party may use a deposition to contradict or impeach the testimony given by the deponent as a witness, or for any other purpose allowed by the applicable rules of evidence.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Deposition of party, agent, or designee.</I> An adverse party may use for any purpose the deposition of a party or anyone who, when deposed, was the party's officer, director, managing agent, or designee under § 18.64(b)(6) or § 18.65(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Deposition of expert, treating physician, or examining physician.</I> A party may use for any purpose the deposition of an expert witness, treating physician or examining physician.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Unavailable witness.</I> A party may use for any purpose the deposition of a witness, whether or not a party, if the judge finds:
</P>
<P>(i) That the witness is dead;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the witness is more than 100 miles from the place of hearing or is outside the United States, unless it appears that the witness's absence was procured by the party offering the deposition;
</P>
<P>(iii) That the witness cannot attend or testify because of age, illness, infirmity, or imprisonment;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the party offering the deposition could not procure the witness's attendance by subpoena; or
</P>
<P>(v) on motion and notice, that exceptional circumstances make it desirable—in the interests of justice and with due regard to the importance of live testimony in an open hearing—to permit the deposition to be used.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Limitations on use</I>—(i) <I>Deposition taken on short notice.</I> A deposition must not be used against a party who, having received less than 14 days' notice of the deposition, promptly moved for a protective order under § 18.52(a)(2) requesting that it not be taken or be taken at a different time or place—and this motion was still pending when the deposition was taken.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unavailable deponent; party could not obtain a representative.</I> A deposition taken without leave of the judge under the unavailability provision of § 18.64(a)(2)(i)(C) must not be used against a party who shows that, when served with the notice, it could not, despite diligent efforts, obtain a representative to represent it at the deposition.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Using part of a deposition.</I> If a party offers in evidence only part of a deposition, an adverse party may require the offeror to introduce other parts that in fairness should be considered with the part introduced, and any party may itself introduce any other parts.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Deposition taken in an earlier action.</I> A deposition lawfully taken may be used in a later action involving the same subject matter between the same parties, or their representatives or successors in interest, to the same extent as if taken in the later action. A deposition previously taken may also be used as allowed by the applicable rules of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to admissibility.</I> Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, an objection may be made at a hearing to the admission of any deposition testimony that would be inadmissible if the witness were present and testifying.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of presentation.</I> Unless the judge orders otherwise, a party must provide a transcript of any deposition testimony the party offers, but the judge may receive the testimony in nontranscript form as well.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver of objections</I>—(1) <I>To the notice.</I> An objection to an error or irregularity in a deposition notice is waived unless promptly served in writing on the party giving the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>To the officer's qualification.</I> An objection based on disqualification of the officer before whom a deposition is to be taken is waived if not made:
</P>
<P>(i) Before the deposition begins; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly after the basis for disqualification becomes known or, with reasonable diligence, could have been known.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>To the taking of the deposition</I>—(i) <I>Objection to competence, relevance, or materiality.</I> An objection to a deponent's competence—or to the competence, relevance, or materiality of testimony—is not waived by a failure to make the objection before or during the deposition, unless the ground for it might have been corrected at that time.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Objection to an error or irregularity.</I> An objection to an error or irregularity at an oral examination is waived if:
</P>
<P>(A) It relates to the manner of taking the deposition, the form of a question or answer, the oath or affirmation, a party's conduct, or other matters that might have been corrected at that time; and
</P>
<P>(B) It is not timely made during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Objection to a written question.</I> An objection to the form of a written question under § 18.65 is waived if not served in writing on the party submitting the question within the time for serving responsive questions or, if the question is a recross-question, within 7 days after being served with it.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>To completing and returning the deposition.</I> An objection to how the officer transcribed the testimony—or prepared, signed, certified, sealed, endorsed, sent, or otherwise dealt with the deposition—is waived unless a motion to suppress is made promptly after the error or irregularity becomes known or, with reasonable diligence, could have been known.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.56" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.56   Subpoena.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Upon written application of a party the judge may issue a subpoena authorized by statute or law that requires a witness to attend and to produce relevant papers, books, documents, or tangible things in the witness' possession or under the witness' control.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form and contents</I>—(i) <I>Requirements—in general.</I> Every subpoena must:
</P>
<P>(A) State the title of the matter and show the case number assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges or the Office of Worker's Compensation Programs. In the event that the case number is an individual's Social Security number only the last four numbers may be used. <I>See</I> § 18.31(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(B) Bear the signature of the issuing judge;
</P>
<P>(C) Command each person to whom it is directed to do the following at a specified time and place: attend and testify; produce designated documents, electronically stored information, or tangible things in that person's possession, custody, or control; or permit the inspection of premises; and
</P>
<P>(D) Set out the text of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Command to attend a deposition—notice of the recording method.</I> A subpoena commanding attendance at a deposition must state the method for recording the testimony.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Combining or separating a command to produce or to permit inspection; specifying the form for electronically stored information.</I> A command to produce documents, electronically stored information, or tangible things or to permit the inspection of premises may be included in a subpoena commanding attendance at a deposition or hearing, or may be set out in a separate subpoena. A subpoena may specify the form or forms in which electronically stored information is to be produced.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Command to produce; included obligations.</I> A command in a subpoena to produce documents, electronically stored information, or tangible things requires the responding party to permit inspection, copying, testing, or sampling of the materials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service</I>—(1) <I>By whom; tendering fees; serving a copy of certain subpoenas.</I> Any person who is at least 18 years old and not a party may serve a subpoena. Serving a subpoena requires delivering a copy to the named person and, if the subpoena requires that person's attendance, tendering with it the fees for 1 day's attendance and the mileage allowed by law. Service may also be made by certified mail with return receipt. Fees and mileage need not be tendered when the subpoena issues on behalf of the United States or any of its officers or agencies. If the subpoena commands the production of documents, electronically stored information, or tangible things or the inspection of premises before the formal hearing, then before it is served on the person to whom it is directed, a notice and copy of the subpoena must be served on each party.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service in the United States.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(3)(i)(B) of this section, a subpoena may be served at any place within a State, Commonwealth, or Territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service in a foreign country.</I> 28 U.S.C. 1783 governs issuing and serving a subpoena directed to a United States national or resident who is in a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Proof of service.</I> Proving service, when necessary, requires filing with the judge a statement showing the date and manner of service and the names of the persons served. The statement must be certified by the server.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protecting a person subject to a subpoena</I>—(1) <I>Avoiding undue burden; sanctions.</I> A party or representative responsible for requesting, issuing, or serving a subpoena must take reasonable steps to avoid imposing undue burden on a person subject to the subpoena. The judge must enforce this duty and impose an appropriate sanction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Command to produce materials or permit inspection</I>—(i) <I>Appearance not required.</I> A person commanded to produce documents, electronically stored information, or tangible things, or to permit the inspection of premises, need not appear in person at the place of production or inspection unless also commanded to appear for a deposition or hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Objections.</I> A person commanded to produce documents or tangible things or to permit inspection may serve on the party or representative designated in the subpoena a written objection to inspecting, copying, testing or sampling any or all of the materials or to inspecting the premises—or to producing electronically stored information in the form or forms requested. The objection must be served before the earlier of the time specified for compliance or 14 days after the subpoena is served. If an objection is made, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(A) At any time, on notice to the commanded person, the serving party may move the judge for an order compelling production or inspection.
</P>
<P>(B) These acts may be required only as directed in the order, and the order must protect a person who is neither a party nor a party's officer from significant expense resulting from compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quashing or modifying a subpoena</I>—(i) <I>When required.</I> On timely motion, the judge must quash or modify a subpoena that:
</P>
<P>(A) Fails to allow a reasonable time to comply;
</P>
<P>(B) Requires a person who is neither a party nor a party's officer to travel more than 100 miles from where that person resides, is employed, or regularly transacts business in person—except that, subject to paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, the person may be commanded to attend the formal hearing;
</P>
<P>(C) Requires disclosure of privileged or other protected matter, if no exception or waiver applies; or
</P>
<P>(D) Subjects a person to undue burden.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>When permitted.</I> To protect a person subject to or otherwise affected by a subpoena, the judge may, on motion, quash or modify the subpoena if it requires:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosing a trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information;
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosing an unretained expert's opinion or information that does not describe specific occurrences in dispute and results from the expert's study that was not requested by a party; or
</P>
<P>(C) A person who is neither a party nor a party's officer to incur substantial expense to travel more than 100 miles to attend the formal hearing.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Specifying conditions as an alternative.</I> In the circumstances described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, the judge may, instead of quashing or modifying a subpoena, order appearance or production under specified conditions if the serving party:
</P>
<P>(A) Shows a substantial need for the testimony or material that cannot be otherwise met without undue hardship; and
</P>
<P>(B) Ensures that the subpoenaed person will be reasonably compensated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duties in responding to a subpoena</I>—(1) <I>Producing documents or electronically stored information.</I> These procedures apply to producing documents or electronically stored information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Documents.</I> A person responding to a subpoena to produce documents must produce them as they are kept in the ordinary course of business or must organize and label them to correspond to the categories in the demand.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Form for producing electronically stored information not specified.</I> If a subpoena does not specify a form for producing electronically stored information, the person responding must produce it in a form or forms in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form or forms.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Electronically stored information produced in only one form.</I> The person responding need not produce the same electronically stored information in more than one form.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Inaccessible electronically stored information.</I> The person responding need not provide discovery of electronically stored information from sources that the person identifies as not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost. On motion to compel discovery or for a protective order, the person responding must show that the information is not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost. If that showing is made, the judge may nonetheless order discovery from such sources if the requesting party shows good cause, considering the limitations of § 18.51(b)(4)(iii). The judge may specify conditions for the discovery.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Claiming privilege or protection</I>—(i) <I>Information withheld.</I> A person withholding subpoenaed information under a claim that it is privileged or subject to protection as hearing-preparation material must:
</P>
<P>(A) Expressly make the claim; and
</P>
<P>(B) Describe the nature of the withheld documents, communications, or tangible things in a manner that, without revealing information itself privileged or protected, will enable the parties to assess the claim.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information produced.</I> If information produced in response to a subpoena is subject to a claim of privilege or of protection as hearing-preparation material, the person making the claim may notify any party that received the information of the claim and the basis for it. After being notified, a party must promptly return, sequester, or destroy the specified information and any copies it has; must not use or disclose the information until the claim is resolved; must take reasonable steps to retrieve the information if the party disclosed it before being notified; and may promptly present the information to the judge <I>in camera</I> for a determination of the claim. The person who produced the information must preserve the information until the claim is resolved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to obey.</I> When a person fails to obey a subpoena, the party adversely affected by the failure may, when authorized by statute or by law, apply to the appropriate district court to enforce the subpoena.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.57" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.51.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.57   Failure to make disclosures or to cooperate in discovery; sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motion for an order compelling disclosure or discovery</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> On notice to other parties and all affected persons, a party may move for an order compelling disclosure or discovery. The motion must include a certification that the movant has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with the person or party failing to make disclosure or discovery in an effort to obtain it without the judge's action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific motions</I>—(i) <I>To compel disclosure.</I> If a party fails to make a disclosure required by § 18.50(c), any other party may move to compel disclosure and for appropriate sanctions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>To compel a discovery response.</I> A party seeking discovery may move for an order compelling an answer, designation, production, or inspection. This motion may be made if:
</P>
<P>(A) A deponent fails to answer a question asked under §§ 18.64 and 18.65;
</P>
<P>(B) A corporation or other entity fails to make a designation under §§ 18.64(b)(6) and 18.65(a)(4);
</P>
<P>(C) A party fails to answer an interrogatory submitted under § 18.60; or
</P>
<P>(D) A party fails to respond that inspection will be permitted—or fails to permit inspection—as requested under § 18.61.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Related to a deposition.</I> When taking an oral deposition, the party asking a question may complete or adjourn the examination before moving for an order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Evasive or incomplete disclosure, answer, or response.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, an evasive or incomplete disclosure, answer, or response must be treated as a failure to disclose, answer, or respond.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply with a judge's order</I>—(1) <I>For not obeying a discovery order.</I> If a party or a party's officer, director, or managing agent—or a witness designated under §§ 18.64(b)(6) and 18.65(a)(4)—fails to obey an order to provide or permit discovery, including an order under § 18.50(b) or paragraph (a) of this section, the judge may issue further just orders. They may include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Directing that the matters embraced in the order or other designated facts be taken as established for purposes of the proceeding, as the prevailing party claims;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibiting the disobedient party from supporting or opposing designated claims or defenses, or from introducing designated matters in evidence;
</P>
<P>(iii) Striking claims or defenses in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(iv) Staying further proceedings until the order is obeyed;
</P>
<P>(v) Dismissing the proceeding in whole or in part; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Rendering a default decision and order against the disobedient party;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For not producing a person for examination.</I> If a party fails to comply with an order under § 18.62 requiring it to produce another person for examination, the judge may issue any of the orders listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, unless the disobedient party shows that it cannot produce the other person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to disclose, to supplement an earlier response, or to admit.</I> If a party fails to provide information or identify a witness as required by §§ 18.50(c) and 18.53, or if a party fails to admit what is requested under § 18.63(a) and the requesting party later proves a document to be genuine or the matter true, the party is not allowed to use that information or witness to supply evidence on a motion or at a hearing, unless the failure was substantially justified or is harmless. In addition to or instead of this sanction, the judge, on motion and after giving an opportunity to be heard may impose other appropriate sanctions, including any of the orders listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Party's failure to attend its own deposition, serve answers to interrogatories, or respond to a request for inspection</I>—(1) <I>In general</I>—(i) <I>Motion; grounds for sanctions.</I> The judge may, on motion, order sanctions if:
</P>
<P>(A) A party or a party's officer, director, or managing agent—or a person designated under §§ 18.64(b)(6) and 18.65(a)(4)—fails, after being served with proper notice, to appear for that person's deposition; or
</P>
<P>(B) A party, after being properly served with interrogatories under § 18.60 or a request for inspection under § 18.61, fails to serve its answers, objections, or written response.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Certification.</I> A motion for sanctions for failing to answer or respond must include a certification that the movant has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with the party failing to act in an effort to obtain the answer or response without the judge's action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unacceptable excuse for failing to act.</I> A failure described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section is not excused on the ground that the discovery sought was objectionable, unless the party failing to act has a pending motion for a protective order under § 18.52(a).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of sanctions.</I> Sanctions may include any of the orders listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to provide electronically stored information.</I> Absent exceptional circumstances, a judge may not impose sanctions under these rules on a party for failing to provide electronically stored information lost as a result of the routine, good-faith operation of an electronic information system.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedure.</I> A judge may impose sanctions under this section upon:
</P>
<P>(1) A separately filed motion; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notice from the judge followed by a reasonable opportunity to be heard.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.52" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Types of Discovery</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.60" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.52.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.60   Interrogatories to parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I> In general</I>—(1) <I>Number.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated or ordered by the judge, a party may serve on any other party no more than 25 written interrogatories, including all discrete subparts. Leave to serve additional interrogatories may be granted to the extent consistent with § 18.51.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> An interrogatory may relate to any matter that may be inquired into under § 18.51. An interrogatory is not objectionable merely because it asks for an opinion or contention that relates to fact or the application of law to fact, but the judge may order that the interrogatory need not be answered until designated discovery is complete, or until a prehearing conference or some other time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Answers and objections</I>—(1) <I>Responding party.</I> The interrogatories must be answered:
</P>
<P>(i) By the party to whom they are directed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If that party is a public or private corporation, a partnership, an association, or a governmental agency, by any officer or agent, who must furnish the information available to the party.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time to respond.</I> The responding party must serve its answers and any objections within 30 days after being served with the interrogatories. A shorter or longer time may be stipulated to under § 18.54 or be ordered by the judge.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Answering each interrogatory.</I> Each interrogatory must, to the extent it is not objected to, be answered separately and fully in writing under oath.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Objections.</I> The grounds for objecting to an interrogatory must be stated with specificity. Any ground not stated in a timely objection is waived unless the judge, for good cause, excuses the failure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Signature.</I> The person who makes the answers must sign them, and the attorney or non-attorney representative who objects must sign any objections.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use.</I> An answer to an interrogatory may be used to the extent allowed by the applicable rules of evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Option to produce business records.</I> If the answer to an interrogatory may be determined by examining, auditing, compiling, abstracting, or summarizing a party's business records (including electronically stored information), and if the burden of deriving or ascertaining the answer will be substantially the same for either party, the responding party may answer by:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifying the records that must be reviewed, in sufficient detail to enable the interrogating party to locate and identify them as readily as the responding party could; and
</P>
<P>(2) Giving the interrogating party a reasonable opportunity to examine and audit the records and to make copies, compilations, abstracts, or summaries.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.61" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.52.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.61   Producing documents, electronically stored information, and tangible things, or entering onto land, for inspection and other purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A party may serve on any other party a request within the scope of § 18.51:
</P>
<P>(1) To produce and permit the requesting party or its representative to inspect, copy, test, or sample the following items in the responding party's possession, custody, or control:
</P>
<P>(i) Any designated documents or electronically stored information—including writings, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, sound recordings, images, and other data or data compilations—stored in any medium from which information can be obtained either directly or, if necessary, after translation by the responding party into a reasonably usable form; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any designated tangible things; or
</P>
<P>(2) To permit entry onto designated land or other property possessed or controlled by the responding party, so that the requesting party may inspect, measure, survey, photograph, test, or sample the property or any designated object or operation on it.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Contents of the request.</I> The request:
</P>
<P>(i) Must describe with reasonable particularity each item or category of items to be inspected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for the inspection and for performing the related acts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) May specify the form or forms in which electronically stored information is to be produced.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responses and objections</I>—(i) <I>Time to respond.</I> The party to whom the request is directed must respond in writing within 30 days after being served. A shorter or longer time may be stipulated to under § 18.54 or be ordered by the judge.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Responding to each item.</I> For each item or category, the response must either state that inspection and related activities will be permitted as requested or state an objection to the request, including the reasons.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Objections.</I> An objection to part of a request must specify the part and permit inspection of the rest.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Responding to a request for production of electronically stored information.</I> The response may state an objection to a requested form for producing electronically stored information. If the responding party objects to a requested form—or if no form was specified in the request—the party must state the form or forms it intends to use.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Producing the documents or electronically stored information.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated or ordered by the judge, these procedures apply to producing documents or electronically stored information:
</P>
<P>(A) A party must produce documents as they are kept in the usual course of business or must organize and label them to correspond to the categories in the request;
</P>
<P>(B) If a request does not specify a form for producing electronically stored information, a party must produce it in a form or forms in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form or forms; and
</P>
<P>(C) A party need not produce the same electronically stored information in more than one form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonparties.</I> As provided in § 18.56, a nonparty may be compelled to produce documents and tangible things or to permit an inspection.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.62" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.52.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.62   Physical and mental examinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Examination by notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A party may serve upon another party whose mental or physical condition is in controversy a notice to attend and submit to an examination by a suitably licensed or certified examiner.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of the notice.</I> The notice must specify:
</P>
<P>(i) The legal basis for the examination;
</P>
<P>(ii) The time, place, manner, conditions, and scope of the examination, as well as the person or persons who will perform it; and
</P>
<P>(iii) How the reasonable transportation expenses were calculated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service of notice.</I> Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the notice must be served no fewer than 30 days before the examination date.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Objection.</I> The person to be examined must serve any objection to the notice no later than 14 days after the notice is served. The objection must be stated with particularity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examination by motion.</I> Upon objection by the person to be examined the requesting party may file a motion to compel a physical or mental examination. The motion must include the elements required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examiner's report</I>—(1) <I>Delivery of the report.</I> The party who initiated the examination must deliver a complete copy of the examination report to the party examined no later than seven days after it receives the report, together with like reports of all earlier examinations of the same condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents.</I> The examiner's report must be in writing and must set out in detail the examiner's findings, including diagnoses, conclusions, and the results of any tests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.63" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.52.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.63   Requests for admission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and procedure</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> A party may serve on any other party a written request to admit, for purposes of the pending action only, the truth of any matters within the scope of § 18.51 relating to:
</P>
<P>(i) Facts, the application of law to fact, or opinions about either; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The genuineness of any described documents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form; copy of a document.</I> Each matter must be separately stated. A request to admit the genuineness of a document must be accompanied by a copy of the document unless it is, or has been, otherwise furnished or made available for inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time to respond; effect of not responding.</I> A matter is admitted unless, within 30 days after being served, the party to whom the request is directed serves on the requesting party a written answer or objection addressed to the matter and signed by the party or its attorney. A shorter or longer time for responding may be stipulated to under § 18.54 or be ordered by the judge.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Answer.</I> If a matter is not admitted, the answer must specifically deny it or state in detail why the answering party cannot truthfully admit or deny it. A denial must fairly respond to the substance of the matter; and when good faith requires that a party qualify an answer or deny only a part of a matter, the answer must specify the part admitted and qualify or deny the rest. The answering party may assert lack of knowledge or information as a reason for failing to admit or deny only if the party states that it has made reasonable inquiry and that the information it knows or can readily obtain is insufficient to enable it to admit or deny.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Objections.</I> The grounds for objecting to a request must be stated. A party must not object solely on the ground that the request presents a genuine issue for hearing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Motion regarding the sufficiency of an answer or objection.</I> The requesting party may move to determine the sufficiency of an answer or objection. Unless the judge finds an objection justified, the judge must order that an answer be served. On finding that an answer does not comply with this section, the judge may order either that the matter is admitted or that an amended answer be served. The judge may defer final decision until a prehearing conference or a specified time before the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of an admission; withdrawing or amending it.</I> A matter admitted under this section is conclusively established unless the judge, on motion, permits the admission to be withdrawn or amended. The judge may permit withdrawal or amendment if it would promote the presentation of the merits of the action and if the judge is not persuaded that it would prejudice the requesting party in maintaining or defending the action on the merits. An admission under this section is not an admission for any other purpose and cannot be used against the party in any other proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.64" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.52.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.64   Depositions by oral examination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When a deposition may be taken</I>—(1) <I>Without leave.</I> A party may, by oral questions, depose any person, including a party, without leave of the judge except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The deponent's attendance may be compelled by subpoena under § 18.56.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>With leave.</I> A party must obtain leave of the judge, and the judge must grant leave to the extent consistent with § 18.51(b):
</P>
<P>(i) If the parties have not stipulated to the deposition and:
</P>
<P>(A) The deposition would result in more than 10 depositions being taken under this section or § 18.65 by one of the parties;
</P>
<P>(B) The deponent has already been deposed in the case; or
</P>
<P>(C) The party seeks to take the deposition before the time specified in § 18.50(a), unless the party certifies in the notice, with supporting facts, that the deponent is expected to leave the United States and be unavailable for examination in this country after that time; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the deponent is confined in prison.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of the deposition; other formal requirements</I>—(1) <I>Notice in general.</I> Except as stipulated or otherwise ordered by the judge, a party who wants to depose a person by oral questions must give reasonable written notice to every other party of no fewer than 14 days. The notice must state the time and place of the deposition and, if known, the deponent's name and address. If the name is unknown, the notice must provide a general description sufficient to identify the person or the particular class or group to which the person belongs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Producing documents.</I> If a subpoena duces tecum is to be served on the deponent, the materials designated for production, as set out in the subpoena, must be listed in the notice or in an attachment. If the notice to a party deponent is accompanied by a request for production under § 18.61, the notice must comply with the requirements of § 18.61(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Method of recording</I>—(i) <I>Method stated in the notice.</I> The party who notices the deposition must state in the notice the method for recording the testimony. Unless the judge orders otherwise, testimony may be recorded by audio, audiovisual, or stenographic means. The noticing party bears the recording costs. Any party may arrange to transcribe a deposition.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional method.</I> With prior notice to the deponent and other parties, any party may designate another method for recording the testimony in addition to that specified in the original notice. That party bears the expense of the additional record or transcript unless the judge orders otherwise.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>By remote means.</I> The parties may stipulate—or the judge may on motion order—that a deposition be taken by telephone or other remote means. For the purpose of this section, the deposition takes place where the deponent answers the questions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Deposition officer's duties</I>—(i) <I>Before the deposition.</I> Unless the parties stipulate otherwise, a deposition must be conducted before a person having power to administer oaths. The officer must begin the deposition with an on-the-record statement that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) The officer's name and business address;
</P>
<P>(B) The date, time, and place of the deposition;
</P>
<P>(C) The deponent's name;
</P>
<P>(D) The officer's administration of the oath or affirmation to the deponent;
</P>
<P>(E) The identity of all persons present; and
</P>
<P>(F) The date and method of service of the notice of deposition.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conducting the deposition; avoiding distortion.</I> If the deposition is recorded nonstenographically, the officer must repeat the items in paragraphs (b)(5)(i)(A) and (B) of this section at the beginning of each unit of the recording medium. The deponent's and attorneys' appearance or demeanor must not be distorted through recording techniques.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>After the deposition.</I> At the end of a deposition, the officer must state on the record that the deposition is complete and must set out any stipulations made by the attorneys about custody of the transcript or recording and of the exhibits, or about any other pertinent matters.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notice or subpoena directed to an organization.</I> In its notice or subpoena, a party may name as the deponent a public or private corporation, a partnership, an association, a governmental agency, or other entity and must describe with reasonable particularity the matters for examination. The named organization must then designate one or more officers, directors, or managing agents, or designate other persons who consent to testify on its behalf; and it may set out the matters on which each person designated will testify. A subpoena must advise a nonparty organization of its duty to make this designation. The persons designated must testify about information known or reasonably available to the organization. This paragraph (b)(6) does not preclude a deposition by any other procedure allowed by these rules.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examination and cross-examination; record of the examination; objections; written questions</I>—(1) <I>Examination and cross-examination.</I> The examination and cross-examination of a deponent proceed as they would at the hearing under the applicable rules of evidence. After putting the deponent under oath or affirmation, the officer must record the testimony by the method designated under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. The testimony must be recorded by the officer personally or by a person acting in the presence and under the direction of the officer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objections.</I> An objection at the time of the examination—whether to evidence, to a party's conduct, to the officer's qualifications, to the manner of taking the deposition, or to any other aspect of the deposition—must be noted on the record, but the examination still proceeds; the testimony is taken subject to any objection. An objection must be stated concisely in a nonargumentative and nonsuggestive manner. A person may instruct a deponent not to answer only when necessary to preserve a privilege, to enforce a limitation ordered by the judge, or to present a motion under paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Participating through written questions.</I> Instead of participating in the oral examination, a party may serve written questions in a sealed envelope on the party noticing the deposition, who must deliver them to the officer. The officer must ask the deponent those questions and record the answers verbatim.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration; sanction; motion to terminate or limit</I>—(1) <I>Duration.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated or ordered by the judge, a deposition is limited to 1 day of 7 hours. The judge must allow additional time consistent with § 18.51(b) if needed to fairly examine the deponent or if the deponent, another person, or any other circumstance impedes or delays the examination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sanction.</I> The judge may impose an appropriate sanction, in accordance with § 18.57, on a person who impedes, delays, or frustrates the fair examination of the deponent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Motion to terminate or limit</I>—(i) <I>Grounds.</I> At any time during a deposition, the deponent or a party may move to terminate or limit it on the ground that it is being conducted in bad faith or in a manner that unreasonably annoys, embarrasses, or oppresses the deponent or party. If the objecting deponent or party so demands, the deposition must be suspended for the time necessary to obtain an order.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Order.</I> The judge may order that the deposition be terminated or may limit its scope and manner as provided in § 18.52. If terminated, the deposition may be resumed only by the judge's order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review by the witness; changes</I>—(1) <I>Review; statement of changes.</I> On request by the deponent or a party before the deposition is completed, the deponent must be allowed 30 days after being notified by the officer that the transcript or recording is available in which:
</P>
<P>(i) To review the transcript or recording; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If there are changes in form or substance, to sign a statement listing the changes and the reasons for making them.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes indicated in the officer's certificate.</I> The officer must note in the certificate prescribed by paragraph (f)(1) of this section whether a review was requested and, if so, must attach any changes the deponent makes during the 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Certification and delivery; exhibits; copies of the transcript or recording; filing</I>—(1) <I>Certification and delivery.</I> The officer must certify in writing that the witness was duly sworn and that the deposition accurately records the witness's testimony. The certificate must accompany the record of the deposition. Unless the judge orders otherwise, the officer must seal the deposition in an envelope or package bearing the title of the action and marked “Deposition of [witness's name]” and must promptly send it to the party or the party's representative who arranged for the transcript or recording. The party or the party's representative must store it under conditions that will protect it against loss, destruction, tampering, or deterioration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documents and tangible things</I>—(i) <I>Originals and copies.</I> Documents and tangible things produced for inspection during a deposition must, on a party's request, be marked for identification and attached to the deposition. Any party may inspect and copy them. But if the person who produced them wants to keep the originals, the person may:
</P>
<P>(A) Offer copies to be marked, attached to the deposition, and then used as originals—after giving all parties a fair opportunity to verify the copies by comparing them with the originals; or
</P>
<P>(B) Give all parties a fair opportunity to inspect and copy the originals after they are marked—in which event the originals may be used as if attached to the deposition.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Order regarding the originals.</I> Any party may move for an order that the originals be attached to the deposition pending final disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Copies of the transcript or recording.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated or ordered by the judge, the officer must retain the stenographic notes of a deposition taken stenographically or a copy of the recording of a deposition taken by another method. When paid reasonable charges, the officer must furnish a copy of the transcript or recording to any party or the deponent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of filing.</I> A party who files the deposition must promptly notify all other parties of the filing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Failure to attend a deposition or serve a subpoena.</I> A judge may order sanctions, in accordance with § 18.57, if a party who, expecting a deposition to be taken, attends in person or by an attorney, and the noticing party failed to:
</P>
<P>(1) Attend and proceed with the deposition; or
</P>
<P>(2) Serve a subpoena on a nonparty deponent, who consequently did not attend.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.65" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.52.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.65   Depositions by written questions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When a deposition may be taken</I>—(1) <I>Without leave.</I> A party may, by written questions, depose any person, including a party, without leave of the judge except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The deponent's attendance may be compelled by subpoena under § 18.56.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>With leave.</I> A party must obtain leave of the judge, and the judge must grant leave to the extent consistent with § 18.51(b):
</P>
<P>(i) If the parties have not stipulated to the deposition and:
</P>
<P>(A) The deposition would result in more than 10 depositions being taken under this section or § 18.64 by a party;
</P>
<P>(B) The deponent has already been deposed in the case; or
</P>
<P>(C) The party seeks to take a deposition before the time specified in § 18.50(a); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the deponent is confined in prison.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service; required notice.</I> A party who wants to depose a person by written questions must serve them on every other party, with a notice stating, if known, the deponent's name and address. If the name is unknown, the notice must provide a general description sufficient to identify the person or the particular class or group to which the person belongs. The notice must also state the name or descriptive title and the address of the officer before whom the deposition will be taken.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Questions directed to an organization.</I> A public or private corporation, a partnership, an association, or a governmental agency may be deposed by written questions in accordance with § 18.64(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Questions from other parties.</I> Any questions to the deponent from other parties must be served on all parties as follows: cross-questions, within 14 days after being served with the notice and direct questions; redirect questions, within 7 days after being served with cross-questions; and recross-questions, within 7 days after being served with redirect questions. The judge may, for good cause, extend or shorten these times.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delivery to the deposition officer; officer's duties.</I> Unless a different procedure is ordered by the judge, the party who noticed the deposition must deliver to the officer a copy of all the questions served and of the notice. The officer must promptly proceed in the manner provided in § 18.64(c), (e), and (f) to:
</P>
<P>(1) Take the deponent's testimony in response to the questions;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare and certify the deposition; and
</P>
<P>(3) Send it to the party, attaching a copy of the questions and of the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of completion or filing</I>—(1) <I>Completion.</I> The party who noticed the deposition must notify all other parties when it is completed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing.</I> A party who files the deposition must promptly notify all other parties of the filing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.53" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disposition Without Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.70" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.53.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.70   Motions for dispositive action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> When consistent with statute, regulation or executive order, any party may move under § 18.33 for disposition of the pending proceeding. If the judge determines at any time that subject matter jurisdiction is lacking, the judge must dismiss the matter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to remand.</I> A party may move to remand the matter to the referring agency. A remand order must include any terms or conditions and should state the reason for the remand.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motion to dismiss.</I> A party may move to dismiss part or all of the matter for reasons recognized under controlling law, such as lack of subject matter jurisdiction, failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted, or untimeliness. If the opposing party fails to respond, the judge may consider the motion unopposed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motion for decision on the record.</I> When the parties agree that an evidentiary hearing is not needed, they may move for a decision based on stipulations of fact or a stipulated record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.71" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.53.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.71   Approval of settlement or consent findings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motion for approval of settlement agreement.</I> When the applicable statute or regulation requires it, the parties must submit a settlement agreement for the judge's review and approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion for consent findings and order.</I> Parties may file a motion to accept and adopt consent findings. Any agreement that contains consent findings and an order that disposes of all or part of a matter must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the order has the same effect as one made after a full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the order is based on a record that consists of the paper that began the proceeding (such as a complaint, order of reference, or notice of administrative determination), as it may have been amended, and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the judge; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the order entered into in accordance with the agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.72" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.53.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.72   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motion for summary decision or partial summary decision.</I> A party may move for summary decision, identifying each claim or defense—or the part of each claim or defense—on which summary decision is sought. The judge shall grant summary decision if the movant shows that there is no genuine dispute as to any material fact and the movant is entitled to decision as a matter of law. The judge should state on the record the reasons for granting or denying the motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time to file a motion.</I> Unless the judge orders otherwise, a party may file a motion for summary decision at any time until 30 days before the date fixed for the formal hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Supporting factual positions.</I> A party asserting that a fact cannot be or is genuinely disputed must support the assertion by:
</P>
<P>(i) Citing to particular parts of materials in the record, including depositions, documents, electronically stored information, affidavits or declarations, stipulations (including those made for purposes of the motion only), admissions, interrogatory answers, or other materials; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Showing that the materials cited do not establish the absence or presence of a genuine dispute, or that an adverse party cannot produce admissible evidence to support the fact.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objection that a fact is not supported by admissible evidence.</I> A party may object that the material cited to support or dispute a fact cannot be presented in a form that would be admissible in evidence.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Materials not cited.</I> The judge need consider only the cited materials, but the judge may consider other materials in the record.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Affidavits or declarations.</I> An affidavit or declaration used to support or oppose a motion must be made on personal knowledge, set out facts that would be admissible in evidence, and show that the affiant or declarant is competent to testify on the matters stated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When facts are unavailable to the nonmovant.</I> If a nonmovant shows by affidavit or declaration that, for specified reasons, it cannot present facts essential to justify its opposition, the judge may:
</P>
<P>(1) Defer considering the motion or deny it;
</P>
<P>(2) Allow time to obtain affidavits or declarations or to take discovery; or
</P>
<P>(3) Issue any other appropriate order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failing to properly support or address a fact.</I> If a party fails to properly support an assertion of fact or fails to properly address another party's assertion of fact as required by paragraph (c) of this section, the judge may:
</P>
<P>(1) Give an opportunity to properly support or address the fact;
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the fact undisputed for purposes of the motion;
</P>
<P>(3) Grant summary decision if the motion and supporting materials—including the facts considered undisputed—show that the movant is entitled to it; or
</P>
<P>(4) Issue any other appropriate order.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decision independent of the motion.</I> After giving notice and a reasonable time to respond, the judge may:
</P>
<P>(1) Grant summary decision for a nonmovant;
</P>
<P>(2) Grant the motion on grounds not raised by a party; or
</P>
<P>(3) Consider summary decision on the judge's own after identifying for the parties material facts that may not be genuinely in dispute.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Failing to grant all the requested relief.</I> If the judge does not grant all the relief requested by the motion, the judge may enter an order stating any material fact—including an item of damages or other relief—that is not genuinely in dispute and treating the fact as established in the case.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Affidavit or declaration submitted in bad faith.</I> If satisfied that an affidavit or declaration under this section is submitted in bad faith or solely for delay, the judge—after notice and a reasonable time to respond—may order sanctions or other relief as authorized by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.80" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.80   Prehearing statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time for filing.</I> Unless the judge orders otherwise, at least 21 days before the hearing, each participating party must file a prehearing statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required conference.</I> Before filing a prehearing statement, the party must confer with all other parties in good faith to:
</P>
<P>(1) Stipulate to the facts to the fullest extent possible; and
</P>
<P>(2) Revise exhibit lists, eliminate duplicative exhibits, prepare joint exhibits, and attempt to resolve any objections to exhibits.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> Unless ordered otherwise, the prehearing statement must state:
</P>
<P>(1) The party's name;
</P>
<P>(2) The issues of law to be determined with reference to the appropriate statute, regulation, or case law;
</P>
<P>(3) A precise statement of the relief sought;
</P>
<P>(4) The stipulated facts that require no proof;
</P>
<P>(5) The facts disputed by the parties;
</P>
<P>(6) A list of witnesses the party expects to call;
</P>
<P>(7) A list of the joint exhibits;
</P>
<P>(8) A list of the party's exhibits;
</P>
<P>(9) An estimate of the time required for the party to present its case-in-chief; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any additional information that may aid the parties' preparation for the hearing or the disposition of the proceeding, such as the need for specialized equipment at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Joint prehearing statement.</I> The judge may require the parties to file a joint prehearing statement rather than individual prehearing statements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Signature.</I> The prehearing statement must be in writing and signed. By signing, an attorney, representative, or party makes the certifications described in § 18.50(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.81" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.81   Formal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public.</I> Hearings are open to the public. But, when authorized by law and only to the minimum extent necessary, the judge may order a hearing or any part of a hearing closed to the public, including anticipated witnesses. The order closing all or part of the hearing must state findings and explain why the reasons for closure outweigh the presumption of public access. The order and any objection must be part of the record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Taking testimony.</I> Unless a closure order is issued under paragraph (a) of this section, the witnesses' testimony must be taken in an open hearing. For good cause and with appropriate safeguards, the judge may permit testimony in an open hearing by contemporaneous transmission from a different location.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Party participation.</I> For good cause and with appropriate safeguards, the judge may permit a party to participate in an open hearing by contemporaneous transmission from a different location.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.82" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.82   Exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification.</I> All exhibits offered in evidence must be marked with a designation identifying the party offering the exhibit and must be numbered and paginated as the judge orders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic data.</I> By order the judge may prescribe the format for the submission of data that is in electronic form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exchange of exhibits.</I> When written exhibits are offered in evidence, one copy must be furnished to the judge and to each of the parties at the hearing, unless copies were previously furnished with the list of proposed exhibits or the judge directs otherwise. If the judge does not fix a date for the exchange of exhibits, the parties must exchange copies of exhibits at the earliest practicable time before the hearing begins.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authenticity.</I> The authenticity of a document identified in a pre-hearing exhibit list is admitted unless a party files a written objection to authenticity at least 7 days before the hearing. The judge may permit a party to challenge a document's authenticity if the party establishes good cause for its failure to file a timely written objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Substitution of copies for original exhibits.</I> The judge may permit a party to withdraw original documents offered in evidence and substitute accurate copies of the originals.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Designation of parts of documents.</I> When only a portion of a document contains relevant matter, the offering party must exclude the irrelevant parts to the greatest extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Records in other proceedings.</I> Portions of the record of other administrative proceedings, civil actions or criminal prosecutions may be received in evidence, when the offering party shows the copies are accurate.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.83" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.83   Stipulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties may stipulate to any facts in writing at any stage of the proceeding or orally on the record at a deposition or at a hearing. These stipulations bind the parties unless the judge disapproves them.
</P>
<P>(b) Every stipulation that requests or requires a judge's action must be written and signed by all affected parties or their representatives. Any stipulation to extend time must state the reason for the date change.
</P>
<P>(c) A proposed form of order may be submitted with the stipulation; it may consist of an endorsement on the stipulation of the words, “Pursuant to stipulation, it is so ordered,” with spaces designated for the date and the signature of the judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.84" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.84   Official notice.</HEAD>
<P>On motion of a party or on the judge's own, official notice may be taken of any adjudicative fact or other matter subject to judicial notice. The parties must be given an adequate opportunity to show the contrary of the matter noticed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.85" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.85   Privileged, sensitive, or classified material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exclusion.</I> On motion of any interested person or the judge's own, the judge may limit the introduction of material into the record or issue orders to protect against undue disclosure of privileged communications, or sensitive or classified matters. The judge may admit into the record a summary or extract that omits the privileged, sensitive or classified material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sealing the record.</I> (1) On motion of any interested person or the judge's own, the judge may order any material that is in the record to be sealed from public access. The motion must propose the fewest redactions possible that will protect the interest offered as the basis for the motion. A redacted copy or summary of any material sealed must be made part of the public record unless the necessary redactions would be so extensive that the public version would be meaningless, or making even a redacted version or summary available would defeat the reason the original is sealed.
</P>
<P>(2) An order that seals material must state findings and explain why the reasons to seal adjudicatory records outweigh the presumption of public access. Sealed materials must be placed in a clearly marked, separate part of the record. Notwithstanding the judge's order, all parts of the record remain subject to statutes and regulations pertaining to public access to agency records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.86" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.86   Hearing room conduct.</HEAD>
<P>Participants must conduct themselves in an orderly manner. The consumption of food or beverage, and rearranging courtroom furniture are prohibited, unless specifically authorized by the judge. Electronic devices must be silenced and must not disrupt the proceedings. Parties, witnesses and spectators are prohibited from using video or audio recording devices to record hearings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.87" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.87   Standards of conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> All persons appearing in proceedings must act with integrity and in an ethical manner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion for misconduct.</I> During the course of a proceeding, the judge may exclude any person—including a party or a party's attorney or non-attorney representative—for contumacious conduct such as refusal to comply with directions, continued use of dilatory tactics, refusal to adhere to reasonable standards of orderly or ethical conduct, failure to act in good faith, or violation of the prohibition against ex parte communications. The judge must state the basis for the exclusion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of representative's exclusion.</I> Any representative excluded from a proceeding may appeal to the Chief Judge for reinstatement within 7 days of the exclusion. The exclusion order is reviewed for abuse of discretion. The proceeding from which the representative was excluded will not be delayed or suspended pending review by the Chief Judge, except for a reasonable delay to enable the party to obtain another representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.88" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.54.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.88   Transcript of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearing transcript.</I> All hearings must be recorded and transcribed. The parties and the public may obtain copies of the transcript from the official reporter at rates not to exceed the applicable rates fixed by the contract with the reporter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corrections to the transcript.</I> A party may file a motion to correct the official transcript. Motions for correction must be filed within 14 days of the receipt of the transcript unless the judge permits additional time. The judge may grant the motion in whole or part if the corrections involve substantive errors. At any time before issuing a decision and upon notice to the parties, the judge may correct errors in the transcript.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="55" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.55" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Post Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.90" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.55.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.90   Closing the record; subsequent motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The record of a hearing closes when the hearing concludes, unless the judge directs otherwise. If any party waives a hearing, the record closes on the date the judge sets for the filing of the parties' submissions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to reopen the record.</I> (1) A motion to reopen the record must be made promptly after the additional evidence is discovered. No additional evidence may be admitted unless the offering party shows that new and material evidence has become available that could not have been discovered with reasonable diligence before the record closed. Each new item must be designated as an exhibit under § 18.82(a) and accompanied by proof that copies have been served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(2) If the record is reopened, the other parties must have an opportunity to offer responsive evidence, and a new evidentiary hearing may be set.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motions after the decision.</I> After the decision and order is issued, the judge retains jurisdiction to dispose of appropriate motions, such as a motion to award attorney's fees and expenses, a motion to correct the transcript, or a motion for reconsideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.91" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.55.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.91   Post-hearing brief.</HEAD>
<P>The judge may grant a party time to file a post-hearing brief with proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the specific relief sought. The brief must refer to all portions of the record and authorities relied upon in support of each assertion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.92" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.55.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.92   Decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>At the conclusion of the proceeding, the judge must issue a written decision and order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.93" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.55.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.93   Motion for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>A motion for reconsideration of a decision and order must be filed no later than 10 days after service of the decision on the moving party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.94" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.55.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.94   Indicative ruling on a motion for relief that is barred by a pending petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relief pending review.</I> If a timely motion is made for relief that the judge lacks authority to grant because a petition for review has been docketed and is pending, the judge may:
</P>
<P>(1) Defer considering the motion;
</P>
<P>(2) Deny the motion; or
</P>
<P>(3) State either that the judge would grant the motion if the reviewing body remands for that purpose or that the motion raises a substantial issue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to reviewing body.</I> The movant must promptly notify the clerk of the reviewing body if the judge states that he or she would grant the motion or that the motion raises a substantial issue.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remand.</I> The judge may decide the motion if the reviewing body remands for that purpose.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.95" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.1.55.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.95   Review of decision and review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review.</I> The statute or regulation that conferred hearing jurisdiction provides the procedure for review of a judge's decision. If the statute or regulation does not provide a procedure, the judge's decision becomes the Secretary's final administrative decision, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Finality.</I> A decision of the Board of Alien Labor Certification Appeals (BALCA) shall constitute the Secretary's final administrative decision except in those cases over which the Secretary has, in accordance with this paragraph (b) and paragraph (c) of this section, assumed jurisdiction:
</P>
<P>(1) In any case for which administrative review is sought or handled in accordance with 20 CFR 655.171(a) or 20 CFR 655.461, at any point from when the BALCA receives a request for review until the passage of 10 business days after the date on which BALCA has issued its decision.
</P>
<P>(2) In any case for which a de novo hearing is sought or handled under 20 CFR 655.171(b), at any point within 15 business days after the date on which the BALCA has issued its decision.
</P>
<P>(3) In any case for which review is sought or handled in accordance with 20 CFR 656.26 and 20 CFR 656.27, at any point from when the BALCA receives a request for review until the passage of 30 business days after the BALCA has issued its decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review by the Secretary</I>—(1) <I>Transmission of information.</I> (i) Whenever the BALCA receives a request for review, it shall immediately transmit a copy of such request to the Deputy Secretary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 3 business days of when the BALCA issues a decision, the Chair of the BALCA, or his or her designee, shall transmit to the Deputy Secretary a copy of the decision and a concise recommendation as to whether the decision involves an issue or issues of such exceptional importance that review by the Secretary is warranted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review.</I> (i) The Secretary may, at any point within the time periods provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, and in his or her sole discretion, assume jurisdiction to review the decision or determination of the Certifying Officer, the Office of Foreign Labor Certification Administrator, the National Prevailing Wage Center Director, or the BALCA, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the Secretary assumes jurisdiction over a case, the Secretary shall promptly notify the BALCA. The BALCA shall promptly notify the parties to the case of such action and shall submit the Appeal File and any briefs filed to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(iii) In any case the Secretary decides, the Secretary's decision shall be stated in writing and transmitted to the BALCA, which shall promptly publish the decision and transmit it to the parties to the case. Such decision shall constitute final action by the Department and shall serve as binding precedent on all Department employees and in all Department proceedings involving the same issue or issues.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Solicitor of Labor, or his or her designee, shall have the responsibility for providing legal advice to the Secretary with respect to the Secretary's exercise of review under this section, except that no individual involved in the investigation or prosecution of a case shall advise the Secretary on the exercise of review with respect to such case or a case involving a common nucleus of operative fact.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 30617, May 20, 2020]












</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Rules of Evidence</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 13219, Apr. 9, 1990, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<HD1>General Provisions


</HD1>

<DIV8 N="§ 18.101" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>These rules govern formal adversarial adjudications of the United States Department of Labor conducted before a presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(a) Which are required by Act of Congress to be determined on the record after opportunity for an administrative agency hearing in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 554, 556 and 557, or
</P>
<P>(b) Which by United States Department of Labor regulation are conducted in conformance with the foregoing provisions, to the extent and with the exceptions stated in § 18.1101. <I>Presiding officer,</I> referred to in these rules as <I>the judge,</I> means an Administrative Law Judge, an agency head, or other officer who presides at the reception of evidence at a hearing in such an adjudication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.102" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.102   Purpose and construction.</HEAD>
<P>These rules shall be construed to secure fairness in administration, elimination of unjustifiable expense and delay, and promotion of growth and development of the law of evidence to the end that the truth may be ascertained and proceedings justly determined.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.103" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.103   Rulings on evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect of erroneous ruling.</I> Error may not be predicated upon a ruling which admits or excludes evidence unless a substantial right of the party is affected, and
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Objection.</I> In case the ruling is one admitting evidence, a timely objection or motion to strike appears of record, stating the specific ground of objection, if the specific ground was not apparent from the context; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Offer of proof.</I> In case the ruling is one excluding evidence, the substance of the evidence was made known to the judge by offer or was apparent from the context within which questions were asked. A substantial right of the party is affected unless it is more probably true than not true that the error did not materially contribute to the decision or order of the judge. Properly objected to evidence admitted in error does not affect a substantial right if explicitly not relied upon by the judge in support of the decision or order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record of offer and ruling.</I> The judge may add any other or further statement which shows the character of the evidence, the form in which it was offered, the objection made, and the ruling thereon. The judge may direct the making of an offer in question and answer form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plain error.</I> Nothing in this rule precludes taking notice of plain errors affecting substantial rights although they were not brought to the attention of the judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.104" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.104   Preliminary questions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Questions of admissibility generally.</I> Preliminary questions concerning the qualification of a person to be a witness, the existence of a privilege, or the admissibility of evidence shall be determined by the judge, subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section. In making such determination the judge is not bound by the rules of evidence except those with respect to privileges.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance conditioned on fact.</I> When the relevancy of evidence depends upon the fulfillment of a condition of fact, the judge shall admit it upon, or subject to, the introduction of evidence sufficient to support a finding of the fulfillment of the condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Weight and credibility.</I> This rule does not limit the right of a party to introduce evidence relevant to weight or credibility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.105   Limited admissibility.</HEAD>
<P>When evidence which is admissible as to one party or for one purpose but not admissible as to another party or for another purpose is admitted, the judge, upon request, shall restrict the evidence to its proper scope.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.106" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.106   Remainder of or related writings or recorded statements.</HEAD>
<P>When a writing or recorded statement or part thereof is introduced by a party, an adverse party may require the introduction at that time of any other part or any other writing or recorded statement which ought in fairness to be considered contemporaneously with it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="56" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.56" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Official Notice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.201" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.201   Official notice of adjudicative facts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of rule.</I> This rule governs only official notice of adjudicative facts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Kinds of facts.</I> An officially noticed fact must be one not subject to reasonable dispute in that it is either:
</P>
<P>(1) Generally known within the local area,
</P>
<P>(2) Capable of accurate and ready determination by resort to sources whose accuracy cannot reasonably be questioned, or
</P>
<P>(3) Derived from a not reasonably questioned scientific, medical or other technical process, technique, principle, or explanatory theory within the administrative agency's specialized field of knowledge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When discretionary.</I> A judge may take official notice, whether requested or not.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When mandatory.</I> A judge shall take official notice if requested by a party and supplied with the necessary information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to be heard.</I> A party is entitled, upon timely request, to an opportunity to be heard as to the propriety of taking official notice and the tenor of the matter noticed. In the absence of prior notification, the request may be made after official notice has been taken.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time of taking notice.</I> Official notice may be taken at any stage of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of official notice.</I> An officially noticed fact is accepted as conclusive.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="57" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.57" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Presumptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.301" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.57.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.301   Presumptions in general.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by Act of Congress, or by rules or regulations prescribed by the administrative agency pursuant to statutory authority, or pursuant to executive order, a presumption imposes on the party against whom it is directed the burden of going forward with evidence to rebut or meet the presumption, but does not shift to such party the burden of proof in the sense of the risk of nonpersuasion, which remains throughout the trial upon the party on whom it was originally cast.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.302" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.57.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.302   Applicability of state law.</HEAD>
<P>The effect of a presumption respecting a fact which is an element of a claim or defense as to which State law supplies the rule of decision is determined in accordance with State law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="58" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Relevancy and Its Limits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.401" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.401   Definition of <E T="7462">relevant evidence.</E></HEAD>
<P><I>Relevant evidence</I> means evidence having any tendency to make the existence of any fact that is of consequence to the determination of the action more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.402" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.402   Relevant evidence generally admissible; irrelevant evidence inadmissible.</HEAD>
<P>All relevant evidence is admissible, except as otherwise provided by the Constitution of the United States, by Act of Congress, pursuant to executive order, by these rules, or by other rules or regulations prescribed by the administrative agency pursuant to statutory authority. Evidence which is not relevant is not admissible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.403" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.403   Exclusion of relevant evidence on grounds of confusion or waste of time.</HEAD>
<P>Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of confusion of issues, or misleading the judge as trier of fact, or by considerations of undue delay, waste of time, or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.404" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.404   Character evidence not admissible to prove conduct; exceptions; other crimes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Character evidence generally.</I> Evidence of a person's character or a trait of character is not admissible for the purpose of proving action in conformity therewith on a particular occasion, except evidence of the character of a witness, as provided in §§ 18.607, 18.608, and 18.609.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other crimes, wrongs, or acts.</I> Evidence of other crimes, wrongs, or acts is not admissible to prove the character of a person in order to show action in conformity therewith. It may, however, be admissible for other purposes, such as proof of motive, opportunity, intent, preparation, plan, knowledge, identity, or absence of mistake or accident. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.405" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.405   Methods of proving character.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reputation of opinion.</I> In all cases in which evidence of character or a trait of character of a person is admissible, proof may be made by testimony as to reputation or by testimony in the form of an opinion. On cross-examination, inquiry is allowable into relevant specific instances of conduct.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific instances of conduct.</I> In cases in which character or a trait of character of a person is an essential element of a claim or defense, proof may also be made of specific instances of that person's conduct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.406" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.406   Habit; routine practice.</HEAD>
<P>Evidence of the habit of a person or of the routine practice of an organization, whether corroborated or not and regardless of the presence of eyewitnesses, is relevant to prove that the conduct of the person or organization on a particular occasion was in conformity with the habit or routine practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.407" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.407   Subsequent remedial measures.</HEAD>
<P>When, after an event, measures are taken which, if taken previously, would have made the event less likely to occur, evidence of the subsequent measures is not admissible to prove negligence or culpable conduct in connection with the event. This rule does not require the exclusion of evidence of subsequent measures when offered for another purpose, such as proving ownership, control, or feasibility of precautionary measures, if controverted, or impeachment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.408" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.408   Compromise and offers to compromise.</HEAD>
<P>Evidence of furnishing or offering or promising to furnish, or of accepting or offering or promising to accept, a valuable consideration in compromising or attempting to compromise a claim which was disputed as to either validity or amount, is not admissible to prove liability for or invalidity of the claim or its amount. Evidence of conduct or statements made in compromise negotiations is likewise not admissible. This rule does not require the exclusion of any evidence otherwise discoverable merely because it is presented in the course of compromise negotiations. This rule does not require exclusion when the evidence is offered for another purpose, such as proving bias or prejudice of a witness, or negativing a contention of undue delay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.409" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.409   Payment of medical and similar expenses.</HEAD>
<P>Evidence of furnishing or offering or promising to pay medical, hospital, or similar expenses occasioned by an injury is not admissible to prove liability for the injury.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.410" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.410   Inadmissibility of pleas, plea discussion, and related statements.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in this rule, evidence of the following is not admissible against the defendant who made the plea or was a participant in the plea discussions:
</P>
<P>(a) A plea of guilty which was later withdrawn;
</P>
<P>(b) A plea of nolo contendere;
</P>
<P>(c) Any statement made in the course of any proceedings under Rule 11 of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure or comparable state procedure regarding either of the foregoing pleas; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Any statement made in the course of plea discussions with an attorney for the prosecuting authority which do not result in a plea of guilty or which result in a plea of guilty later withdrawn. However, such a statement is admissible in any proceeding wherein another statement made in the course of the same plea discussions has been introduced and the statement ought in fairness be considered contemporaneously with it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.411" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.58.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.411   Liability insurance.</HEAD>
<P>Evidence that a person was or was not insured against liability is not admissible upon the issue whether the person acted negligently or otherwise wrongfully. This rule does not require the exclusion of evidence of insurance against liability when offered for another purpose, such as proof of agency, ownership, or control, or bias or prejudice of a witness.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="59" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.59" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Privileges</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.501" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.59.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.501   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise required by the Constitution of the United States, or provided by Act of Congress, or by rules or regulations prescribed by the administrative agency pursuant to statutory authority, or pursuant to executive order, the privilege of a witness, person, government, State, or political subdivision thereof shall be governed by the principles of the common law as they may be interpreted by the courts of the United States in the light of reason and experience. However with respect to an element of a claim or defense as to which State law supplies the rule of decision, the privilege of a witness, person, government, State, or political subdivision thereof shall be determined in accordance with State law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="60" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Witnesses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.601" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.601   General rule of competency.</HEAD>
<P>Every person is competent to be a witness except as otherwise provided in these rules. However with respect to an element of a claim or defense as to which State law supplies the rule of decision, the competency of a witness shall be determined in accordance with State law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.602" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.602   Lack of personal knowledge.</HEAD>
<P>A witness may not testify to a matter unless evidence is introduced sufficient to support a finding that the witness has personal knowledge of the matter. Evidence to prove personal knowledge may, but need not, consist of the witness' own testimony. This rule is subject to the provisions of § 18.703, relating to opinion testimony by expert witnesses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.603" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.603   Oath or affirmation.</HEAD>
<P>Before testifying, every witness shall be required to declare that the witness will testify truthfully, by oath or affirmation administered in a form calculated to awaken the witness' conscience and impress the witness' mind with the duty to do so.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.604" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.604   Interpreters.</HEAD>
<P>An interpreter is subject to the provisions of these rules relating to qualification as an expert and the administration of an oath or affirmation to make a true translation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.605" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.605   Competency of judge as witness.</HEAD>
<P>The judge presiding at the hearing may not testify in that hearing as a witness. No objection need be made in order to preserve the point.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.606" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.606   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.607" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.607   Who may impeach.</HEAD>
<P>The credibility of a witness may be attacked by any party, including the party calling the witness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.608" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.608   Evidence of character and conduct of witness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Opinion and reputation evidence of character.</I> The credibility of a witness may be attacked or supported by evidence in the form of opinion or reputation, but subject to these limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) The evidence may refer only to character for truthfulness or untruthfulness, and
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence of truthful character is admissible only after the character of the witness for truthfulness has been attacked by opinion or reputation evidence or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific instances of conduct.</I> Specific instances of the conduct of a witness, for the purpose of attacking or supporting the witness' credibility, other than conviction of crime as provided in § 18.609, may not be proved by extrinsic evidence. They may, however, in the discretion of the judge, if probative of truthfulness or untruthfulness, be inquired into on cross-examination of the witness, concerning the witness' character for truthfulness or untruthfulness, or concerning the character for truthfulness or untruthfulness of another witness as to which character the witness being cross-examined has testified.
</P>
<P>The giving of testimony by any witness does not operate as a waiver of the witness' privilege against self-incrimination when examined with respect to matters which relate only to credibility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.609" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.609   Impeachment by evidence of conviction of crime.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> For the purpose of attacking the credibility of a witness, evidence that the witness has been convicted of a crime shall be admitted if the crime was punishable by death or imprisonment in excess of one year under the law under which the witness was convicted, or involved dishonesty or false statement, regardless of the punishment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time limit.</I> Evidence of a conviction under this rule is not admissible if a period of more than ten years has elapsed since the date of the conviction or of the release of the witness from the confinement imposed for that conviction, whichever is the later date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of pardon, annulment, or certificate of rehabilitation.</I> Evidence of a conviction is not admissible under this rule if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The conviction has been the subject of a pardon, annulment, certificate of rehabilitation, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of the rehabilitation of the person convicted, and that person has not been convicted of a subsequent crime which was punishable by death or imprisonment in excess of one year, or
</P>
<P>(2) The conviction has been the subject of a pardon, annulment, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of innocence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Juvenile adjudications.</I> Evidence of juvenile adjudications is not admissible under this rule.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Pendency of appeal.</I> The pendency of an appeal therefrom does not render evidence of a conviction inadmissible. Evidence of the pendency of an appeal is admissible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 13219, Apr. 9, 1990; 55 FR 14033, Apr. 13, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.610" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.610   Religious beliefs or opinions.</HEAD>
<P>Evidence of the beliefs or opinions of a witness on matters of religion is not admissible for the purpose of showing that by reason of their nature the witness' credibility is impaired or enhanced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.611" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.611   Mode and order of interrogation and presentation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Control by judge.</I> The judge shall exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth,
</P>
<P>(2) Avoid needless consumption of time, and 
</P>
<P>(3) Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of cross-examination.</I> Cross-examination should be limited to the subject matter of the direct examination and matters affecting the credibility of the witness. The judge may, in the exercise of discretion, permit inquiry into additional matters as if on direct examination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Leading questions.</I> Leading questions should not be used on the direct examination of a witness except as may be necessary to develop the witness' testimony. Ordinarily leading questions should be permitted on cross-examination. When a party calls a hostile witness, an adverse party, or a witness identified with an adverse party, interrogation may be by leading questions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.612" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.612   Writing used to refresh memory.</HEAD>
<P>If a witness uses a writing to refresh memory for the purpose of testifying, either while testifying, or before testifying if the judge in the judge's discretion determines it is necessary in the interest of justice, an adverse party is entitled to have the writing produced at the hearing, to inspect it, to cross-examine the witness thereon, and to introduce in evidence those portions which relate to the testimony of the witness. If it is claimed that the writing contains matters not related to the subject matter of the testimony the judge shall examine the writing in camera, excise any portion not so related, and order delivery of the remainder to the party entitled thereto. Any portion withheld over objections shall be preserved and made available in the event of review. If a writing is not produced or delivered pursuant to order under this rule, the judge shall make any order justice requires.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.613" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.613   Prior statements of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Examining witness concerning prior statement.</I> In examining a witness concerning a prior statement made by the witness, whether written or not, the statement need not be shown nor its contents disclosed to the witness at that time, but on request the same shall be shown or disclosed to opposing counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extrinsic evidence of prior inconsistent statement of witness.</I> Extrinsic evidence of a prior inconsistent statement by a witness is not admissible unless the witness is afforded an opportunity to explain or deny the same and the opposite party is afforded an opportunity to interrogate the witness thereon, or the interests of justice otherwise require. This provision does not apply to admissions of a party-opponent as defined in § 18.801(d)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.614" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.614   Calling and interrogation of witnesses by judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calling by the judge.</I> The judge may, on the judge's own motion or at the suggestion of a party, call witnesses, and all parties are entitled to cross-examine witnesses thus called.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interrogation by the judge.</I> The judge may interrogate witnesses, whether called by the judge or by a party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Objections.</I> Objections to the calling of witnesses by the judge or to interrogation by the judge must be timely.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.615" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.60.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.615   Exclusion of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>At the request of a party the judge shall order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of other witnesses, and the judge may make the order of the judge's own motion. This rule does not authorize exclusion of a party who is a natural person, or an officer or employee of a party which is not a natural person designated as its representative by its attorney, or a person whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of the party's cause.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="61" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.61" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Opinions and Expert Testimony</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.701" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.61.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.701   Opinion testimony by lay witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>If the witness is not testifying as an expert, the witness' testimony in the form of opinions or inferences is limited to those opinions or inferences which are rationally based on the perception of the witness and helpful to a clear understanding of the witness' testimony or the determination of a fact in issue.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.702" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.61.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.702   Testimony by experts.</HEAD>
<P>If scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will assist the judge as trier of fact to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue, a witness qualified as an expert by knowledge, skill, experience, training, or education, may testify thereto in the form of an opinion or otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.703" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.61.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.703   Bases of opinion testimony by experts.</HEAD>
<P>The facts or data in the particular case upon which an expert bases an opinion or inference may be those perceived by or made known to the expert at or before the hearing. If of a type reasonably relied upon by experts in the particular field in forming opinions or inferences upon the subject, the facts or data need not be admissible in evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.704" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.61.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.704   Opinion on ultimate issue.</HEAD>
<P>Testimony in the form of an opinion or inference otherwise admissible is not objectionable because it embraces an ultimate issue to be decided by the judge as trier of fact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.705" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.61.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.705   Disclosure of facts or data underlying expert opinion.</HEAD>
<P>The expert may testify in terms of opinion or inference and give reasons therefor without prior disclosure of the underlying facts or data, unless the judge requires otherwise. The expert may in any event be required to disclose the underlying facts or data on cross-examination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.706" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.61.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.706   Judge appointed experts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appointment.</I> The judge may on the judge's own motion or on the motion of any party enter an order to show cause why expert witnesses should not be appointed, and may request the parties to submit nominations. The judge may appoint any expert witnesses agreed upon by the parties, and may appoint expert witnesses of the judge's own selection. An expert witness shall not be appointed by the judge unless the witness consents to act. A witness so appointed shall be informed of the witness' duties by the judge in writing, a copy of which shall be filed with the clerk, or at a conference in which the parties shall have an opportunity to participate. A witness so appointed shall advise the parties of the witness' findings, if any; the witness' deposition may be taken by any party; and the witness may be called to testify by the judge or any party. The witness shall be subject to cross-examination by each party, including a party calling the witness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compensation.</I> Expert witnesses so appointed are entitled to reasonable compensation in whatever sum the judge may allow. The compensation thus fixed is payable from funds which may be provided by law in hearings involving just compensation under the fifth amendment. In other hearings the compensation shall be paid by the parties in such proportion and at such time as the judge directs, and thereafter charged in like manner as other costs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parties' experts of own selection.</I> Nothing in this rule limits the parties in calling expert witnesses of their own selection.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="62" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.62" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearsay</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.801" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.62.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.801   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement.</I> A <I>statement</I> is (1) an oral or written assertion, or (2) nonverbal conduct of a person, if it is intended by the person as an assertion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Declarant.</I> A <I>declarant</I> is a person who makes a statement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearsay. Hearsay</I> is a statement, other than one made by the declarant while testifying at the hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Statements which are not hearsay.</I> A statement is not hearsay if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prior statement by witness.</I> The declarant testifies at the hearing and is subject to cross-examination concerning the statement, and the statement is—
</P>
<P>(i) Inconsistent with the declarant's testimony, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Consistent with the declarant's testimony and is offered to rebut an express or implied charge against the declarant of recent fabrication or improper influence or motive, or
</P>
<P>(iii) One of identification of a person made after perceiving the person; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Admission by party-opponent.</I> The statement is offered against a party and is—
</P>
<P>(i) The party's own statement in either an individual or a representative capacity, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of which the party has manifested an adoption or belief in its truth, or
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement by a person authorized by the party to make a statement concerning the subject, or
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement by the party's agent or servant concerning a matter within the scope of the agency or employment, made during the existence of the relationship, or
</P>
<P>(v) A statement by a co-conspirator of a party during the course and in furtherance of the conspiracy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.802" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.62.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.802   Hearsay rule.</HEAD>
<P>Hearsay is not admissible except as provided by these rules, or by rules or regulations of the administrative agency prescribed pursuant to statutory authority, or pursuant to executive order, or by Act of Congress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.803" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.62.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.803   Hearsay exceptions; availability of declarant immaterial.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following are not excluded by the hearsay rule, even though the declarant is available as a witness:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Present sense impression.</I> A statement describing or explaining an event or condition made while the declarant was perceiving the event or condition, or immediately thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excited utterance.</I> A statement relating to a startling event or condition made while the declarant was under the stress of excitement caused by the event or condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Then existing mental, emotional, or physical condition.</I> A statement of the declarant's then existing state of mind, emotion, sensation, or physical condition (such as intent, plan, motive, design, mental feeling, pain, and bodily health), but not including a statement of memory or belief to prove the fact remembered or believed unless it relates to the execution, revocation, identification, or terms of declarant's will.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Statements for purposes of medical diagnosis or treatment.</I> Statements made for purposes of medical diagnosis or treatment and describing medical history, or past or present symptoms, pain, or sensations or the inception or general character of the cause or external source thereof insofar as reasonably pertinent to diagnosis or treatment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Recorded recollection.</I> A memorandum or record concerning a matter about which a witness once had knowledge but now has insufficient recollection to enable the witness to testify fully and accurately, shown to have been made or adopted by the witness when the matter was fresh in the witness' memory and to reflect that knowledge correctly.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Records of regularly conducted activity.</I> A memorandum, report, record, or data compilation, in any form, of acts, events, conditions, opinions, or diagnoses, made at or near the time by, or from information transmitted by, a person with knowledge, if kept in the course of a regularly conducted business activity, and if it was the regular practice of that business activity to make the memorandum, report, record, or data compilation, all as shown by the testimony of the custodian or other qualified witness, unless the source of information or the method or circumstances of preparation indicate lack of trustworthiness. The term <I>business</I> as used in this paragraph includes business, institution, association, profession, occupation, and calling of every kind, whether or not conducted for profit.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Absence of entry in records kept in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (6).</I> Evidence that a matter is not included in the memoranda reports, records, or data compilations, in any form, kept in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (6), to prove the nonoccurrence or nonexistence of the matter, if the matter was of a kind of which a memorandum, report, record, or data compilation was regularly made and preserved, unless the sources of information or other circumstances indicate lack of trustworthiness.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Public records and reports.</I> Records, reports, statements, or data compilations, in any form, of public offices or agencies, setting forth—
</P>
<P>(i) The activities of the office or agency, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Matters observed pursuant to duty imposed by law as to which matters there was a duty to report, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Factual findings resulting from an investigation made pursuant to authority granted by law, unless the sources of information or other circumstances indicate lack of trustworthiness.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Records of vital statistics.</I> Records or data compilations, in any form, of births, fetal deaths, deaths, or marriages, if the report thereof was made to a public office pursuant to requirements of law.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Absence of public record or entry.</I> To prove the absence of a record, report, statement, or data compilation, in any form, or the nonoccurrence or nonexistence of a matter of which a record, report, statement, or data compilation, in any form, was regularly made and preserved by a public office or agency, evidence in the form of a certification in accordance with § 18.902, or testimony, that diligent search failed to disclose the record, report, statement, or date compilation, or entry.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Records of religious organizations.</I> Statements of births, marriages, divorces, deaths, legitimacy, ancestry, relationship by blood or marriage, or other similar facts of personal or family history, contained in a regularly kept record of a religious organization.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Marriage, baptismal, and similar certificates.</I> Statements of fact contained in a certificate that the maker performed a marriage or other ceremony or administered a sacrament, made by a clergyman, public official, or other person authorized by the rules or practices of a religious organization or by law to perform the act certified, and purporting to have been issued at the time of the act or within a reasonable time thereafter.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Family records.</I> Statements of fact concerning personal or family history contained in family Bibles, genealogies, charts, engravings on rings, inscriptions on family portraits, engravings on urns, crypts, or tombstones, or the like.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Records of documents affecting an interest in property.</I> The record of a document purporting to establish or affect an interest in property, as proof of the content of the original recorded document and its execution and delivery by each person by whom it purports to have been executed, if the record is a record of a public office and an applicable statute authorizes the recording of documents of that kind in that office.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Statements in documents affecting an interest in property.</I> A statement contained in a document purporting to establish or affect an interest in property if the matter stated was relevant to the purpose of the document, unless dealings with the property since the document was made have been inconsistent with the truth of the statement or the purport of the document.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Statements in ancient documents.</I> Statements in a document in existence twenty years or more the authenticity of which is established.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Market reports, commercial publications.</I> Market quotations, tabulations, lists, directories, or other published compilations, generally used and relied upon by the public or by persons in particular occupations. 
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Learned treatises.</I> To the extent called to the attention of an expert witness upon cross-examination or relied upon by the expert witness in direct examination, statements contained in published treatises, periodicals, or pamphlets on a subject of history, medicine, or other science or art, established as a reliable authority by the testimony or admission of the witness or by other expert testimony or by official notice.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Reputation concerning personal or family history.</I> Reputation among members of a person's family by blood, adoption, or marriage, or among a person's associates, or in the community, concerning a person's birth, adoption, marriage, divorce, death, legitimacy, relationship by blood, adoption, or marriage, ancestry, or other similar fact of personal or family history.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Reputation concerning boundaries or general history.</I> Reputation in a community, arising before the controversy, as to boundaries of or customs affecting lands in the community, and reputation as to events of general history important to the community or State or nation in which located.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Reputation as to character.</I> Reputation of a person's character among associates or in the community.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Judgment of previous conviction.</I> Evidence of a final judgment, entered after a trial or upon a plea of guilty (but not upon a plea of nolo contendere), adjudging a person guilty of a crime punishable by death or imprisonment in excess of one year, to prove any fact essential to sustain the judgment. The pendency of an appeal may be shown but does not affect admissibility.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Judgment as to personal, family, or general history, or boundaries.</I> Judgments as proof of matters of personal, family or general history, or boundaries, essential to the judgment, if the same would be provable by evidence of reputation.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Other exceptions.</I> A statement not specifically covered by any of the foregoing exceptions but having equivalent circumstantial guarantees of trustworthiness to the aforementioned hearsay exceptions, if the judge determines that (i) the statement is offered as evidence of a material fact; (ii) the statement is more probative on the point for which it is offered than any other evidence which the proponent can procure through reasonable efforts; and (iii) the general purposes of these rules and the interests of justice will best be served by admission of the statement into evidence. However, a statement may not be admitted under this exception unless the proponent of it makes known to the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to meet it, the proponent's intention to offer the statement and the particulars of it, including the name and address of the declarant.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Self-authentication.</I> The self-authentication of documents and other items as provided in § 18.902.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Bills, estimates and reports.</I> In actions involving injury, illness, disease, death, disability, or physical or mental impairment, or damage to property, the following bills, estimates, and reports as relevant to prove the value and reasonableness of the charges for services, labor and materials stated therein and, where applicable, the necessity for furnishing the same, unless the sources of information or other circumstances indicate lack of trustworthiness, provided that a copy of said bill, estimate, or report has been served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it:
</P>
<P>(i) Hospital bills on the official letterhead or billhead of the hospital, when dated and itemized.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bills of doctors and dentists, when dated and containing a statement showing the date of each visit and the charge therefor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Bills of registered nurses, licensed practical nurses and physical therapists, or other licensed health care providers when dated and containing an itemized statement of the days and hours of service and charges therefor.
</P>
<P>(iv) Bills for medicine, eyeglasses, prosthetic device, medical belts or similar items, when dated and itemized.
</P>
<P>(v) Property repair bills or estimates, when dated and itemized, setting forth the charges for labor and material. In the case of an estimate, the party intending to offer the estimate shall forward with his notice to the adverse party, together with a copy of the estimate, a statement indicating whether or not the property was repaired, and, if so, whether the estimated repairs were made in full or in part and by whom, the cost thereof, together with a copy of the bill therefore.
</P>
<P>(vi) Reports of past earnings, or of the rate of earnings and time lost from work or lost compensation, prepared by an employer on official letterhead, when dated and itemized. The adverse party may not dispute the authenticity, the value or reasonableness of such charges, the necessity therefore or the accuracy of the report, unless the adverse party files and serves written objection thereto sufficiently in advance of the hearing stating the objections, and the grounds thereof, that the adverse party will make if the bill, estimate, or reports is offered at the time of the hearing. An adverse party may call the author of the bill, estimate, or report as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Medical reports.</I> In actions involving injury, illness, disease, death, disability, or physical or mental impairment, doctor, hospital, laboratory and other medical reports, made for purposes of medical treatment, unless the sources of information or other circumstances indicate lack of trustworthiness, provided that a copy of the report has been filed and served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it. The adverse party may not object to the admissibility of the report unless the adverse party files and serves written objection thereto sufficiently in advance of the hearing stating the objections, and the grounds therefor, that the adverse party will make if the report is offered at the time of the hearing. An adverse party may call the author of the medical report as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Written reports of expert witnesses.</I> Written reports of an expert witness prepared with a view toward litigation, including but not limited to a diagnostic report of a physician, including inferences and opinions, when on official letterhead, when dated, when including a statement of the expert's qualifications, when including a summary of experience as an expert witness in litigation, when including the basic facts, data, and opinions forming the basis of the inferences or opinions, and when including the reasons for or explanation of the inferences and opinions, so far as admissible under rules of evidence applied as though the witness was then present and testifying, unless the sources of information or the method or circumstances of preparation indicate lack of trustworthiness, provided that a copy of the report has been filed and served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it. The adverse party may not object to the admissibility of the report unless the adverse party files and serves written objection thereto sufficiently in advance of the hearing stating the objections, and the grounds therefor, that the adverse party will make if the report is offered at the time of the hearing. An adverse party may call the expert as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Written statements of lay witnesses.</I> Written statements of a lay witness made under oath or affirmation and subject to the penalty of perjury, so far as admissible under the rules of evidence applied as though the witness was then present and testifying, unless the sources of information or the method or circumstances of preparation indicate lack of trustworthiness provided that (i) a copy of the written statement has been filed and served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it, and (ii) if the declarant is reasonably available as a witness, as determined by the judge, no adverse party has sufficiently in advance of the hearing filed and served upon the noticing party a written demand that the declarant be produced in person to testify at the hearing. An adverse party may call the declarant as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Deposition testimony.</I> Testimony given as a witness in a deposition taken in compliance with law in the course of the same proceeding, so far as admissible under the rules of evidence applied as though the witness was then present and testifying, if the party against whom the testimony is now offered had an opportunity and similar motive to develop the testimony by direct, cross, or redirect examination, provided that a notice of intention to offer the deposition in evidence, together with a copy thereof if not otherwise previously provided, has been served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it. An adverse party may call the deponent as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.804" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.62.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.804   Hearsay exceptions; declarant unavailable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of unavailability. Unavailability as a witness</I> includes situations in which the declarant:
</P>
<P>(1) Is exempted by ruling of the judge on the ground of privilege from testifying concerning the subject matter of the declarant's statement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Persists in refusing to testify concerning the subject matter of the declarant's statement despite an order of the judge to do so; or
</P>
<P>(3) Testifies to a lack of memory of the subject matter of the declarant's statement; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is unable to be present or to testify at the hearing because of death or then existing physical or mental illness or infirmity; or
</P>
<P>(5) Is absent from the hearing and the proponent of a statement has been unable to procure the declarant's attendance (or in the case of a hearsay exception under paragraph (b) (2), (3), or (4) of this section, the declarant's attendance or testimony) by process or other reasonable means.
</P>
<FP>A declarant is not unavailable as a witness if exemption, refusal, claim of lack of memory, inability, or absence is due to the procurement or wrongdoing of the proponent of a statement for the purpose of preventing the witness from attending or testifying.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Hearsay exceptions.</I> The following are not excluded by the hearsay rule if the declarant is unavailable as a witness:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Former testimony.</I> Testimony given as a witness at another hearing of the same or a different proceeding, or in a deposition taken in compliance with law in the course of the same or another proceeding, if the party against whom the testimony is now offered, or a predecessor in interest, had an opportunity and similar motive to develop the testimony by direct, cross, or redirect examination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statement under belief of impending death.</I> A statement made by a declarant while believing that the declarant's death was imminent, concerning the cause or circumstances of what the declarant believed to be impending death.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Statement against interest.</I> A statement which was at the time of its making so far contrary to the declarant's pecuniary or proprietary interest, or so far tended to subject the declarant to civil or criminal liability, or to render invalid a claim by the declarant against another, that a reasonable person in the declarant's position would not have made the statement unless believing it to be true.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Statement of personal or family history.</I> (i) A statement concerning the declarant's own birth, adoption, marriage, divorce, legitimacy, relationship by blood, adoption, or marriage, ancestry, or other similar fact of personal or family history, even though declarant had no means of acquiring personal knowledge of the matter stated; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement concerning the foregoing matters, and death also, of another person, if the declarant was related to the other by blood, adoption, or marriage or was so intimately associated with the other's family as to be likely to have accurate information concerning the matter declared.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other exceptions.</I> A statement not specifically covered by any of the foregoing exceptions but having equivalent circumstantial guarantees of trustworthiness to the aforementioned hearsay exceptions, if the judge determines that—
</P>
<P>(i) The statement is offered as evidence of a material fact;
</P>
<P>(ii) The statement is more probative on the point for which it is offered than any other evidence which the proponent can procure through reasonable efforts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The general purposes of these rules and the interests of justice will best be served by admission of the statement into evidence. However, a statement may not be admitted under this exception unless the proponent of it makes known to the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to meet it, the proponent's intention to offer the statement and the particulars of it, including the name and address of the declarant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.805" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.62.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.805   Hearsay within hearsay.</HEAD>
<P>Hearsay included within hearsay is not excluded under the hearsay rule if each part of the combined statements conforms with an exception to the hearsay rule provided in these rules. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.806" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.62.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.806   Attacking and supporting credibility of declarant.</HEAD>
<P>When a hearsay statement, or a statement defined in § 18.801(d)(2), (iii), (iv), or (v), has been admitted in evidence, the credibility of the declarant may be attacked, and if attacked may be supported, by any evidence which would be admissible for those purposes if declarant had testified as a witness. Evidence of a statement or conduct by the declarant at any time, inconsistent with the declarant's hearsay statement, is not subject to any requirement that the declarant may have been afforded an opportunity to deny or explain. If the party against whom a hearsay statement has been admitted calls the declarant as a witness, the party is entitled to examine the declarant on the statement as if under cross-examination. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="63" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.63" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Authentication and Identification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.901" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.63.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.901   Requirement of authentication or identification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provision.</I> The requirement of authentication or identification as a condition precedent to admissibility is satisfied by evidence sufficient to support a finding that the matter in question is what its proponent claims. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Illustrations.</I> By way of illustration only, and not by way of limitation, the following are examples of authentication or identification conforming with the requirements of this rule: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Testimony of witness with knowledge.</I> Testimony that a matter is what it is claimed to be. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonexpert opinion on handwriting.</I> Nonexpert opinion as to the genuineness of handwriting, based upon familiarity not acquired for purposes of litigation. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Comparison by judge or expert witness.</I> Comparison by the judge as trier of fact or by expert witnesses with specimens which have been authenticated. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Distinctive characteristics and the like.</I> Appearance, contents, substance, internal patterns, or other distinctive characteristics, taken in conjunction with circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Voice identification.</I> Identification of a voice, whether heard firsthand or through mechanical or electronic transmission or recording, by opinion based upon hearing the voice at any time under circumstances connecting it with the alleged speaker. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Telephone conversations.</I> Telephone conversations, by evidence that a call was made to the number assigned at the time by the telephone company to a particular person or business, if— 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a person, circumstances, including self-identification, show the person answering to be the one called, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a business, the call was made to a place of business and the conversation related to business reasonably transacted over the telephone. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Public records or reports.</I> Evidence that a writing authorized by law to be recorded or filed and in fact recorded or filed in a public office, or a purported public record, report, statement, or data compilation, in any form, is from the public office where items of this nature are kept. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Ancient documents or data compilation.</I> Evidence that a document or data compilation, in any form, 
</P>
<P>(i) Is in such condition as to create no suspicion concerning its authenticity, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Was in a place where it, if authentic, would likely be, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has been in existence 20 years or more at the time it is offered. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Process or system.</I> Evidence describing a process or system used to produce a result and showing that the process or system produces an accurate result. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Methods provided by statute or rule.</I> Any method of authentication or identification provided by Act of Congress, or by rule or regulation prescribed by the administrative agency pursuant to statutory authority, or pursuant to executive order. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.902" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.63.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.902   Self-authentication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Extrinsic evidence of authenticity as a condition precedent to admissibility is not required with respect to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Domestic public documents under seal.</I> A document bearing a seal purporting to be that of the United States, or of any State, district, Commonwealth, territory, or insular possession thereof, or the Panama Canal Zone, or the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, or of a political subdivision, department, officer, or agency thereof, and a signature purporting to be an attestation or execution. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Domestic public documents not under seal.</I> A document purporting to bear the signature in the official capacity of an officer or employee of any entity included in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, having no seal, if a public officer having a seal and having official duties in the district or political subdivision of the officer or employee certifies under seal that the signer has the official capacity and that the signature is genuine. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign public documents.</I> A document purporting to be executed or attested in an official capacity by a person authorized by the laws of a foreign country to make the execution or attestation, and accompanied by a final certification as to the genuineness of the signature and official position— 
</P>
<P>(i) Of the executing or attesting person, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Of any foreign official whose certificate of genuineness of signature and official position relates to the execution or attestation or is in a chain of certificates of genuineness of signature and official position relating to the execution or attestation. A final certification may be made by a secretary of embassy or legation, consul, vice consul, or consular agent of the United States, or a diplomatic or consular official of the foreign country assigned or accredited to the United States. If reasonable opportunity has been given to all parties to investigate the authenticity and accuracy of official documents, the judge may, for good cause shown, order that they be treated as presumptively authentic without final certification or permit them to be evidenced by an attested summary with or without final certification. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Certified copies of public records.</I> A copy of an official record or report or entry therein, or of a document authorized by law to be recorded or filed and actually recorded or filed in a public office, including data compilations in any form, certified as correct by the custodian or other person authorized to make the certification, by certificate complying with paragraph (a) (1), (2), or (3) of this section, with any Act of Congress, or with any rule or regulation prescribed by the administrative agency pursuant to statutory authority, or pursuant to executive order. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Official publications.</I> Books, pamphlets, or other publications purporting to be issued by public authority. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Newspapers and periodicals.</I> Printed materials purporting to be newspapers or periodicals. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Trade inscriptions and the like.</I> Inscriptions, signs, tags, or labels purporting to have been affixed in the course of business and indicating ownership, control, or origin.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Acknowledged documents.</I> Documents accompanied by a certificate of acknowledgment executed in the manner provided by law by a notary public or other officer authorized by law to take acknowledgments. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Commercial paper and related documents.</I> Commercial paper, signatures thereon, and documents relating thereto to the extent provided by general commercial law. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Presumptions under Acts of Congress or administrative agency rules or regulations.</I> Any signature, document, or other matter declared by Act of Congress or by rule or regulation prescribed by the administrative agency pursuant to statutory authority or pursuant to executive order to be presumptively or prima facie genuine or authentic. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Certified records of regularly conducted activity.</I> The original or a duplicate of a record of regularly conducted activity, within the scope of § 18.803(6), which the custodian thereof or another qualified individual certifies 
</P>
<P>(i) Was made, at or near the time of the occurrence of the matters set forth, by, or from information transmitted by, a person with knowledge of those matters, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is kept in the course of the regularly conducted activity, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Was made by the regularly conducted activity as a regular practice, unless the sources of information or the method or circumstances of preparation indicate lack of trustworthiness. A record so certified is not self-authenticating under this paragraph unless the proponent makes an intention to offer it known to the adverse party and makes it available for inspection sufficiently in advance of its offer in evidence to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to object or meet it. As used in this subsection, <I>certifies</I> means, with respect to a domestic record, a written declaration under oath subject to the penalty of perjury and, with respect to a foreign record, a written declaration signed in a foreign country which, if falsely made, would subject the maker to criminal penalty under the laws of that country. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Bills, estimates, and reports.</I> In actions involving injury, illness, disease, death, disability, or physical or mental impairment, or damage to property, the following bills, estimates, and reports provided that a copy of said bill, estimate, or report has been served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it: 
</P>
<P>(i) Hospital bills on the official letterhead or billhead of the hospital, when dated and itemized. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Bills of doctors and dentists, when dated and containing a statement showing the date of each visit and the charge therefor. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Bills of registered nurses, licensed practical nurses and physical therapists or other licensed health care providers, when dated and containing an itemized statement of the days and hours of service and the charges therefor. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Bills for medicine, eyeglasses, prosthetic devices, medical belts or similar items, when dated and itemized. 
</P>
<P>(v) Property repair bills or estimates, when dated and itemized, setting forth the charges for labor and material. In the case of an estimate, the party intending to offer the estimate shall forward with his notice to the adverse party, together with a copy of the estimate, a statement indicating whether or not the property was repaired, and, if so, whether the estimated repairs were made in full or in part and by whom, the cost thereof, together with a copy of the bill therefor. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Reports of past earnings, or of the rate of earnings and time lost from work or lost compensation, prepared by an employer on official letterhead, when dated and itemized. The adverse party may not dispute the authenticity, therefor, unless the adverse party files and serves written objection thereto sufficiently in advance of the hearing stating the objections, and the grounds therefor, the adverse party will make if the bill, estimate, or report is offered at the time of the hearing. An adverse party may call the authors of the bill, estimate, or report as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Medical reports.</I> In actions involving injury, illness, disease, death, disability or physical or mental impairment, doctor, hospital, laboratory and other medical reports made for purposes of medical treatment, provided that a copy of the report has been filed and served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it. The adverse party may not object to the authenticity of the report unless the adverse party files and serves written objection thereto sufficiently in advance of the hearing stating the objections, and the grounds therefor, that the adverse party will make if the report is offered at the time of the hearing. An adverse party may call the author of the medical report as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination. 
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Written reports of expert witnesses.</I> Written reports of an expert witness prepared with a view toward litigation including but not limited to a diagnostic report of a physician, including inferences and opinions, when on official letterhead, when dated, when including a statement of the experts qualifications, when including a summary of experience as an expert witness in litigation, when including the basic facts, data, and opinions forming the basis of the inferences or opinions, and when including the reasons for or explanation of the inferences or opinions, so far as admissible under the rules of evidence applied as though the witness was then present and testifying, provided that a copy of the report has been filed and served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it. The adverse party may not object to the authenticity of the report unless the adverse party files and serves written objection thereto sufficiently in advance of the hearing stating the objections, and the grounds therefor, that the adverse party will make if the report is offered at the time of the hearing. An adverse party may call the expert as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Written statements of lay witnesses.</I> Written statements of a lay witness made under oath or affirmation and subject to the penalty of perjury, so far as admissible under the rules of evidence applied as though the witness was then present and testifying, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the written statement has been filed and served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it, and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the declarant is reasonably available as a witness, as determined by the judge, no adverse party has sufficiently in advance of the hearing filed and served upon the noticing party a written demand that the declarant be produced in person to testify at the hearing. An adverse party may call the declarant as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Deposition testimony.</I> Testimony given as a witness in a deposition taken in compliance with law in the course of the same proceeding, so far as admissible under the rules of evidence applied as though the witness was then present and testifying, if the party against whom the testimony is now offered had an opportunity and similar motive to develop the testimony by direct, cross, or redirect examination, provided that a notice of intention to offer the deposition in evidence, together with a copy thereof if not otherwise previously provided, has been served upon the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to object or meet it. An adverse party may call the deponent as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.903" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.63.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.903   Subscribing witness' testimony unnecessary.</HEAD>
<P>The testimony of a subscribing witness is not necessary to authenticate a writing unless required by the laws of the jurisdiction whose laws govern the validity of the writing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="64" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Contents of Writings, Recordings, and Photographs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1001" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1001   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this article the following definitions are applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Writings and recordings. Writings</I> and <I>recordings</I> consist of letters, words, or numbers, or their equivalent, set down by handwriting, typewriting, printing, photostating, photographing, magnetic impulse, mechanical or electronic recording, or other form of data compilation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Photographs. Photographs</I> include still photographs, X-ray films, video tapes, and motion pictures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Original.</I> An <I>original</I> of a writing or recording is the writing or recording itself or any counterpart intended to have the same effect by a person executing or issuing it. An <I>original</I> of a photograph includes the negative or, other than with respect of X-ray films, any print therefrom. If data are stored in a computer or similar device, any printout or other output readable by sight, shown to reflect the data accurately, is an <I>original.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Duplicate.</I> A <I>duplicate</I> is a counterpart produced by the same impression as the original, or from the same matrix, or by means of photography, including enlargements and miniatures, or by mechanical or electronic rerecording, or by chemical reproduction, or by other equivalent techniques which accurately reproduces the original.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1002" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1002   Requirement of original.</HEAD>
<P>To prove the content of a writing, recording, or photograph, the original writing, recording, or photograph is required, except as otherwise provided in these rules, or by rule or regulation prescribed by the administrative agency pursuant to statutory authority, or pursuant to executive order, or by Act of Congress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1003" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1003   Admissibility of duplicates.</HEAD>
<P>A duplicate is admissible to the same extent as an original unless a genuine question is raised as to the authenticity of the original, or in the circumstances it would be unfair to admit the duplicate in lieu of the original.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1004" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1004   Admissibility of other evidence of contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The original is not required, and other evidence of the contents of a writing, recording, or photograph is admissible if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Originals lost or destroyed.</I> All originals are lost or have been destroyed, unless the proponent lost or destroyed them in bad faith; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Original not obtainable.</I> No original can be obtained by any available judicial process or procedure; or
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Original in possession of opponent.</I> At a time when an original was under the control of the party against whom offered, that party was put on notice, by the pleading or otherwise, that the contents would be a subject of proof at the hearing, and that party does not produce the original at the hearing; or
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral matters.</I> The writing, recording, or photograph is not closely related to a controlling issue.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1005" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1005   Public records.</HEAD>
<P>The contents of an official record, or of a document authorized to be recorded or filed and actually recorded or filed, including data compilations in any form, if otherwise admissible, may be proved by copy, certified as correct in accordance with § 18.902 or testified to be correct by a witness who has compared it with the original. If a copy which complies with the foregoing cannot be obtained by the exercise of reasonable diligence, then other evidence of the contents may be given.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1006" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1006   Summaries.</HEAD>
<P>The contents of voluminous writings, recordings, or photographs which cannot conveniently be examined at the hearing may be presented in the form of a chart, summary, or calculation. The originals, or duplicates, shall be made available for examination or copying, or both, by other parties at reasonable time and place. The judge may order that they be produced at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1007" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1007   Testimony or written admission of party.</HEAD>
<P>Contents of writings, recordings, or photographs may be proved by the testimony or deposition of the party against whom offered or by that party's written admission, without accounting for the nonproduction of the original. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1008" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.64.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1008   Functions of the judge.</HEAD>
<P>When the admissibility of other evidence of contents of writings, recordings, or photographs under these rules depends upon the fulfillment of a condition of fact, the question whether the condition has been fulfilled is ordinarily for the judge to determine in accordance with the provisions of § 18.104(a). However, when an issue is raised whether the asserted writing ever existed; or whether another writing, recording, or photograph produced at the hearing is the original; or whether other evidence of contents correctly reflects the contents, the issue is for the judge as trier of fact to determine as in the case of other issues of fact.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="65" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.65" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Applicability</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1101" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.65.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1101   Applicability of rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provision.</I> These rules govern formal adversarial adjudications conducted by the United States Department of Labor before a presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(1) Which are required by Act of Congress to be determined on the record after opportunity for an administrative agency hearing in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 554, 556 and 557, or
</P>
<P>(2) Which by United States Department of Labor regulation are conducted in conformance with the foregoing provisions. <I>Presiding officer,</I> referred to in these rules as <I>the judge,</I> means an Administrative Law Judge, an agency head, or other officer who presides at the reception of evidence at a hearing in such an adjudication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules inapplicable.</I> The rules (other than with respect to privileges) do not apply in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Preliminary questions of fact.</I> The determination of questions of fact preliminary to admissibility of evidence when the issue is to be determined by the judge under § 18.104.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Longshore, black lung, and related acts.</I> Other than with respect to §§ 18.403, 18.611(a), 18.614 and without prejudice to current practice, hearings held pursuant to the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, 33 U.S.C. 901; the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act (formerly the Federal Coal Mine Health and Safety Act) as amended by the Black Lung Benefits Act, 30 U.S.C. 901; and acts such as the Defense Base Act, 42 U.S.C. 1651; the District of Columbia Workmen's Compensation Act, 36 DC Code 501; the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act, 43 U.S.C. 1331; and the Nonappropriated Fund Instrumentalities Act, 5 U.S.C. 8171, which incorporate section 23(a) of the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act by reference.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rules inapplicable in part.</I> These rules do not apply to the extent inconsistent with, in conflict with, or to the extent a matter is otherwise specifically provided by an Act of Congress, or by a rule or regulation of specific application prescribed by the United States Department of Labor pursuant to statutory authority, or pursuant to executive order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1102" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.65.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1102   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1103" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.65.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1103   Title.</HEAD>
<P>These rules may be known as the United States Department of Labor Rules of Evidence and cited as 29 CFR 18.__ (1989).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 18.1104" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.65.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1104   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>These rules are effective thirty days after date of publication with respect to formal adversarial adjudications as specified in § 18.1101 except that with respect to hearings held following an investigation conducted by the United States Department of Labor, these rules shall be effective only where the investigation commenced thirty days after publication. 
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.19.2.66.64.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Subpart B of Part 18—Reporter's Notes
</HEAD>
<HD3>Reporter's Introductory Note
</HD3>
<P>The Rules of Evidence for the United States Department of Labor modify the Federal Rules of Evidence for application in formal adversarial adjudications conducted by the United States Department of Labor. The civil nonjury nature of the hearings and the broad underlying values and goals of the administrative process are given recognition in these rules.
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.102
</HD1>
<P>In all formal adversarial adjudications of the United States Department of Labor governed by these rules, and in particular such adjudications in which a party appears without the benefit of counsel, the judge is required to construe these rules and to exercise discretion as provided in the rules, see, e.g., § 18.403, to secure fairness in administration and elimination of unjustifiable expense and delay to the end that the truth may be ascertained and the proceedings justly determined, § 18.102. The judge shall also exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to (1) make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth, (2) avoid needless consumption of time, and (3) protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment, § 18.611(a). 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.103 
</HD1>
<P>Section 18.103(a) provides that error is not harmless, i.e., a substantial right is affected, unless on review it is determined that it is more probably true than not true that the error did not materially contribute to the decision or order of the court. The more probably true than not true test is the most liberal harmless error standard. See <I>Haddad</I> v. <I>Lockheed California Corp.,</I> 720 F.2d 1454, 1458-59 (9th Cir. 1983): 
</P>
<P>The purpose of a harmless error standard is to enable an appellate court to gauge the probability that the trier of fact was affected by the error. See R. Traynor, [The Riddle of Harmless Error] at 29-30. Perhaps the most important factor to consider in fashioning such a standard is the nature of the particular fact-finding process to which the standard is to be applied. Accordingly, a crucial first step in determining how we should gauge the probability that an error was harmless is recognizing the distinction between civil and criminal trials. See <I>Kotteakos</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 328 U.S. 750, 763, 66 S.Ct. 1239, 1247, 90 L.Ed. 1557 (1946); <I>Valle-Valdez,</I> 544 F.2d at 914-15. This distinction has two facets, each of which reflects the differing burdens of proof in civil and criminal cases. First, the lower burden of proof in civil cases implies a larger margin of error. The danger of the harmless error doctrine is that an appellate court may usurp the jury's function, by merely deleting improper evidence from the record and assessing the sufficiency of the evidence to support the verdict below. See <I>Kotteakos,</I> 328 U.S. at 764-65, 66 S.Ct. at 1247-48; R. Traynor, <I>supra,</I> at 18-22. This danger has less practical importance where, as in most civil cases, the jury verdict merely rests on a more probable than not standard of proof. 
</P>
<P>The second facet of the distinction between errors in civil and criminal trials involves the differing degrees of certainty owed to civil and criminal litigants. Whereas a criminal defendant must be found guilty beyond a reasonable doubt, a civil litigant merely has a right to a jury verdict that more probably than not corresponds to the truth. 
</P>
<FP>The term <I>materially contribute</I> was chosen as the most appropriate in preference to <I>substantially swayed, Kotteakos</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 328 U.S. 750, 66 S.Ct. 1239, 90 L.Ed 1557 (1946) or <I>material effect. Holloway</I> v. <I>Arkansas,</I> 435 U.S. 475, 98 S.Ct. 1173, 55 L.Ed.2d 426 (1978). The word <I>contribute</I> was employed in <I>Schneble</I> v. <I>Florida,</I> 405 U.S. 427, 92 S.Ct. 1056, 31 L.Ed.2d 340 (1972) and <I>United States</I> v. <I>Hastings,</I> 461 U.S. 499, 103 S.Ct. 1974, 76 L.Ed.2d 96 (1983). 
</FP>
<P>Error will not be considered in determining whether a substantial right of a party was affected if the evidence was admitted in error following a properly made objection, § 18.103(a)(1), and the judge explicitly states that he or she does not rely on such evidence in support of the decision or order. The judge must explicitly decline to rely upon the improperly admitted evidence. The alternative of simply assuming nonreliance unless the judge explicitly states reliance, goes too far toward emasculating the benefits flowing from rules of evidence. 
</P>
<P>The question addressed in <I>Richardson</I> v. <I>Perales,</I> 402 U.S. 389, 91 S.Ct. 1420, 28 L.Ed.2d 842 (1971) of whether <I>substantial evidence</I> as specified in § 556(d) of the Administrative Procedure Act requires that there be a residuum of legally admissible evidence to support an agency determination is of no concern with respect to these rules; only properly admitted evidence is to be considered in determining whether the <I>substantial evidence</I> requirement has been satisfied.
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.104 
</HD1>
<P>As to the standard on review with respect to questions of admissibility generally, section 18.104(a), <I>see In re Japanese Electronic Products Antitrust Litigation,</I> 723 F.2d 238, 265-66 (3d Cir. 1983) (“The scope of review of the trial court's trustworthiness determination depends on the basis for the ruling. When the trial court makes § 18.104(a) findings of historical fact about the manner in which a report containing findings was compiled we review by the clearly erroneous standard of Fed.R.Civ.P. 52. But a determination of untrustworthiness, if predicated on factors properly extraneous to such a determination, would be an error of law * * * * There is no discretion to rely on improper factors. Such an error of law might, of course, in a given instance be harmless within the meaning of Fed.R.Civ.P. 61. In weighing factors which we consider proper, the trial court exercises discretion and we review for abuse of discretion. Giving undue weight to trustworthiness factors of slight relevance while disregarding factors more significant, for example, might be an abuse of discretion.”). Accord, <I>United States</I> v. <I>Wilson,</I> 798 F.2d 509 (lst Cir. 1986). 
</P>
<P>As to the standard on review with respect to relevancy, conditional relevancy and the exercise of discretion, see, e.g., <I>United States</I> v. <I>Abel,</I> 469 U.S. 45, 54, 105 S.Ct. 465, 470, 83 L.Ed.2d 450 (1984) (“A district court is accorded a wide discretion in determining the admissibility of evidence under the Federal Rules. Assessing the probative value of common membership in any particular group, and weighing any factors counselling against admissibility is a matter first for the district court's sound judgment under Rules 401 and 403 and ultimately, if the evidence is admitted, for the trier of fact.”); <I>Alford</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 282 U.S. 687, 694, 51 S.Ct. 218, 220, 75 L.Ed 624 (1931) (“The extent of cross-examination with respect to an appropriate subject of inquiry is within the sound discretion of the trial court. It may exercise a reasonable judgment in determining when the subject is exhausted.”); <I>Hill</I> v. <I>Bache Halsey Stuart Shields Inc.,</I> 790 F.2d 817, 825 (10th Cir. 1986) (“We recognize that a trial court has broad discretion to determine whether evidence is relevant, and its decision will not be reversed on appeal absent a showing of clear abuse of that discretion. <I>Beacham</I> v. <I>Lee-Norse,</I> 714 F.2d 1010, 1014 (10th Cir. 1983). The same standard of review applies to a trial court's determination, under Fed.R.Evid. 403, that the probative value of the evidence is outweighed by its potential to prejudice or confuse the jury, or to lead to undue delay. <I>Id.</I>”). 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.201 
</HD1>
<P>A.P.A. section 556(e) provides that “when an agency decision rests on official notice of a material fact not appearing in the evidence in the record, a party is entitled, on timely request, to an opportunity to show the contrary.” No definition of “official notice” is provided. An administrative agency may take official notice of any adjudicative fact that could be judicially noticed by a court. In addition “the rule is now clearly emerging that an administrative agency may take official notice of any generally recognized technical or scientific facts within the agency's specialized knowledge, subject always to the proviso that the parties must be given adequate advance notice of the facts which the agency proposes to note, and given adequate opportunity to show the inaccuracy of the facts or the fallacy of the conclusions which the agency proposes tentatively to accept without proof. To satisfy this requirement, it is necessary that a statement of the facts noticed must be incorporated into the record. The source material on which the agency relies should, on request, be made available to the parties for their examination.” 1 Cooper, State Administrative Law 412-13 (1965). Accord, Uniform Law Commissioners' Model State Administrative Procedure Act section 10(4) (1961) (“Notice may be taken of judicially cognizable facts. In addition, notice may be taken of generally recognized technical or scientific facts within the agency's specialized knowledge. Parties shall be notified either before or during the hearing, or by reference in preliminary reports or otherwise, of the material noticed, including any staff memoranda or data, and they shall be afforded an opportunity to contest the material so noticed. The agency's experience, technical competence, and specialized knowledge may be utilized in the evaluation of the evidence.”); Schwartz, Administrative Law § 7.16 at 375 (2d ed. 1984) (“Clearly an agency may take notice of the same kinds of fact of which a court takes judicial notice. It has, however, been recognized that the differences between agencies and courts * * * may justify a broader approach. Under it, an agency may be permitted to take ‘official notice’ not only of facts that are obvious and notorious to the average man but also of those that are obvious and notorious to an expert in the given field.” “A commission that regulates gas companies may take notice of the fact that a well-managed gas company loses no more than 7 percent of its gas through leakage, condensation, expansion, or contraction, where its regulation of gas companies, over the years has made the amount of ‘unaccounted for gas’ without negligence obvious and notorious to it as the expert in gas regulation. A workers' compensation commission may similarly reject a claim that an inguinal hernia was traumatic in origin where the employee gave no indication of pain and continued work for a month after the alleged accident. The agency had dealt with numerous hernia cases and was as expert in diagnosing them as any doctor would be. Its experience taught it that where a hernia was traumatic in origin, there was immediate discomfort, outward evidences of pain observable to fellow employees, and at least temporary suspension from work. The agency could notice this fact based upon its knowledge as an expert and reject uncontradicted opinion testimony that its own expertise renders unpersuasive.”). Compare Uniform Law Commissioners' Model State Administrative Procedure Act section 4-212(f) (1981) (“Official notice may be taken of (i) any fact that could be judicially noticed in the courts of this State, (ii) the record of other proceedings before the agency, (iii) technical or scientific matters within the agency's specialized knowledge, and (iv) codes or standards that have been adopted by an agency of the United States, of this State or of another state, or by a nationally recognized organization or association. Parties must be notified before or during the hearing, or before the issuance of any initial or final order that is based in whole or in part on facts or materials noticed, of the specific facts or material noticed and the source thereof, including any staff memoranda and data, and be afforded an opportunity to contest and rebut the facts or materials so noticed.”). Contra Davis, Official Notice, 62 Harv. L. Rev. 537, 539 (1949) (“To limit official notice to facts which are beyond the realm of dispute would virtually emasculate the administrative process. The problem of official notice should not be one of drawing lines between disputable and indisputable facts. Nor should it even be one of weighing the importance of basing decisions upon all available information against the importance of providing full and fair hearings in the sense of permitting parties to meet all materials that influence decision. The problem is the intensely practical one of devising a procedure which will provide both informed decisions and fair hearings without undue inconvenience or expense.”). 
</P>
<P>Section 18.201 adopts the philosophy of Federal Rule of Evidence 201. The Advisory Committee's Note to Fed.R.Evid. 201 (b) states: 
</P>
<P>With respect to judicial notice of adjudicative facts, the tradition has been one of caution in requiring that the matter be beyond reasonable controversy. This tradition of circumspection appears to be soundly based, and no reason to depart from it is apparent. As Professor Davis says:
</P>
<P>“The reason we use trial-type procedure, I think, is that we make the practical judgment, on the basis of experience, that taking evidence, subject to cross-examination and rebuttal, is the best way to resolve controversies involving disputes of adjudicative facts, that is, facts pertaining to the parties. The reason we require a determination on the record is that we think fair procedure in resolving disputes of adjudicative facts calls for giving each party a chance to meet in the appropriate fashion the facts that come to the tribunal's attention, and the appropriate fashion for meeting disputed adjudicative facts includes rebuttal evidence, cross-examination, usually confrontation, and argument (either written or oral or both). The key to a fair trial is opportunity to use the appropriate weapons (rebuttal evidence, cross-examination, and argument) to meet adverse materials that come to the tribunal's attention.” A System of Judicial Notice Based on Fairness and Convenience, in Perspectives of Law 69, 93 (1964). 
</P>
<P>The rule proceeds upon the theory that these considerations call for dispensing with traditional methods of proof only in clear cases. Compare Professor Davis' conclusion that judicial notice should be a matter of convenience, subject to requirements of procedural fairness. <I>Id.,</I> 94. Section 18.201 of the Federal Rules of Evidence incorporated the Morgan position on judicial notice. The contrary position, expressed by Wigmore and Thayer, and advocated by Davis, was rejected. See McNaughton, Judicial Notice-Excerpts Relating to the Morgan-Wigmore Controversy, 14 Vand. L. Rev. 779 (1961) (“They do not differ with respect to the application of the doctrine to ‘law’. Nor do they reveal a difference with respect to so-called ‘jury notice.’ Their difference relates to judicial notice of ‘facts.’ Here Wigmore, following Thayer, insists that judicial notice is solely to save time where dispute is unlikely and that a matter judicially noticed is therefore only ‘prima facie,’ or rebuttable, if the opponent elects to dispute it. It is expressed in Thayer and implicit in Wigmore that (perhaps because the matter is rebuttable) judicial notice may be applied not only to indisputable matters but also to matters of lesser certainty. Morgan on the other hand defines judicial notice more narrowly, and his consequences follow from his definition. He limits judicial notice of fact to matters patently indisputable. And his position is that matters judicially noticed are not rebuttable. He asserts that it is wasteful to permit patently indisputable matters to be litigated by way of formal proof and furthermore that it would be absurd to permit a party to woo a jury to an obviously erroneous finding contrary to the noticed fact. Also, he objects to the Wigmorean conception on the ground that it is really a ‘presumption’ of sorts attempting to pass under a misleading name. It is, according to Morgan, a presumption with no recognized rules as to how the presumption works, what activates it, and who has the burden of doing how much to rebut it.”).
</P>
<P>Accordingly, notice that items (ii) and (iv) of the Uniform Law Commissioners' Model State Administrative Procedure Act quoted above are not included as separate items in § 18.201. However codes and standards, (iv), to the extent not subject to reasonable question fall within § 18.201(b)(2). To the extent such codes and standards do not so fall, proof should be required. Official notice of records of other proceedings before the agency would “permit an agency to notice facts contained in its files, such as the revenue statistics contained in the reports submitted to it by a regulated company.” Schwartz, <I>supra</I> at 377. Once again, to the extent such information is not capable of accurate and ready determination by resort to sources whose accuracy cannot reasonably be questioned, § 18.201(b)(2), proof should be required.
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.301
</HD1>
<P>Section 18.301 does not prevent an administrative agency by either rule, regulation, or common law development from allocating burdens of production and burdens of persuasion in an otherwise permissible manner. See <I>N.L.R.B.</I> v. <I>Transportation Management Corp.,</I> 462 U.S. 400, 403 n.7, 103 S.Ct. 2469, 2475 n.7, 76 L.Ed.2d 667 (1983) (“Respondent contends that Federal Rule of Evidence 301 requires that the burden of persuasion rest on the General Counsel. Rule 301 provides:
</P>
<P>In all civil actions and proceedings not otherwise provided for by Act of Congress or by these rules, a presumption imposes on the party against whom it is directed the burden of going forward with evidence to rebut or meet the presumption, but does not shift to such party the burden of proof in the sense of the risk of nonpersuasion, which remains throughout the trial upon the party on whom it was originally cast.
</P>
<P>The Rule merely defines the term ‘presumption.’ It in no way restricts the authority of a court or an agency to change the customary burdens of persuasion in a manner that otherwise would be permissible. Indeed, were respondent correct, we could not have assigned to the defendant the burden of persuasion on one issue in <I>Mt. Healthy City Board of Education</I> v. <I>Doyle,</I> 429 U.S. 274, 97 S.Ct. 568, 50 L.Ed.2d 471 (1977).”).
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.302
</HD1>
<P>The Advisory Committee's Note to Federal Rule of Evidence 302, 56 F.R.D. 118, 211 states:
</P>
<P>A series of Supreme Court decisions in diversity cases leaves no doubt of the relevance of <I>Erie Railroad Co.</I> v. <I>Tompkins,</I> 304 U.S. 64, 58 S.Ct. 817, 82 L.Ed. 1188 (1938), to questions of burden of proof. These decisions are <I>Cities Service Oil Co.</I> v. <I>Dunlap,</I> 308 U.S. 208, 60 S.Ct. 201, 84 L.Ed. 196 (1939), <I>Palmer</I> v. <I>Hoffman,</I> 318 U.S. 477, 87 L.Ed. 645 (1943), and <I>Dick</I> v. <I>New York Life Ins. Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 437, 79 S.Ct. 921, 3 L.Ed.2d 935 (1959). They involved burden of proof, respectively, as to status as bona fide purchaser, contributory negligence, and nonaccidental death (suicide) of an insured. In each instance the state rule was held to be applicable. It does not follow, however, that all presumptions in diversity cases are governed by state law. In each case cited, the burden of proof question had to do with a substantive element of the claim or defense. Application of the state law is called for only when the presumption operates upon such an element. Accordingly the rule does not apply state law when the presumption operates upon a lesser aspect of the case, i.e. “tactical” presumptions.
</P>
<P>The situations in which the state law is applied have been tagged for convenience in the preceding discussion as “diversity cases.” The designation is not a completely accurate one since <I>Erie</I> applies to any claim or issue having its source in state law, regardless of the basis of federal jurisdiction, and does not apply to a federal claim or issue, even though jurisdiction is based on diversity.
</P>
<P>Vestal, <I>Erie R. R.</I> v. <I>Tompkins: A Projection,</I> 48 Iowa L.Rev. 248, 257 (1963); Hart and Wechsler, <I>The Federal Courts and the Federal System,</I> 697 (1953); 1A Moore Federal Practice p. 0.305[3] (2d ed. 1965); Wright, Federal Courts, 217-218 (1963). Hence the rule employs, as appropriately descriptive, the phrase “as to which state law supplies the rule of decision.” See A.L.I. Study of the Division of Jurisdiction Between State and Federal Courts, 2344(c), p. 40, P.F.D. No. 1 (1965).
</P>
<P>It is anticipated that § 18.302 will very rarely come into play. 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.403 
</HD1>
<P>Rule 403 of the Federal Rules of Evidence provides for the exclusion of relevant evidence on the grounds of unfair prejudice. Since all effective evidence is prejudicial in the sense of being damaging to the party against whom it is offered, prejudice which calls for exclusion is given a more specialized meaning: An undue tendency to suggest decision on an improper basis, commonly but not necessarily an emotional one, such as bias, sympathy, hatred, contempt, retribution or horror. Unfair prejudice is not, however, a proper ground for the exclusive of relevant evidence under these rules. Judges have shown over the years the ability to resist deciding matters on such an improper basis. Accord <I>Gulf States Utilities Co.</I> v. <I>Ecodyne Corp.,</I> 635 F.2d 517, 519 (5th Cir. 1981). (“The exclusion of this evidence under Rule 403's weighing of probative value against prejudice was improper. This portion of Rule 403 has no logical application to bench trials. Excluding relevant evidence in a bench trial because it is cumulative or a waste of time is clearly a proper exercise of the judge's power, but excluding relevant evidence on the basis of ‘unfair prejudice’ is a useless procedure. Rule 403 assumes a trial judge is able to discern and weigh the improper inferences that a jury might draw from certain evidence, and then balance those improprieties against probative value and necessity. Certainly, in a bench trial, the same judge can also exclude those improper inferences from his mind in reaching a decision.”)
</P>
<P>While § 18.403, like Rule 403 of the Federal Rules of Evidence, does speak in terms of both confusion of the issues and misleading of the trier of fact, the distinction between such terms is unclear in the literature and in the cases. McCormick, Evidence section 185 at 546 (3d ed. 1984), refers to the probability that certain proof and the answering evidence that it provokes might unduly distract the trier of fact from the main issues. 2 Wigmore, Evidence section 443 at 528-29 (Chadbourn rev. 1979), describes the concept as follows: 
</P>
<P>In attempting to dispute or explain away the evidence thus offered, new issues will arise as to the occurrence of the instances and the similarity of conditions, new witnesses will be needed whose cross-examination and impeachment may lead to further issues; and that thus the trial will be unduly prolonged, and the multiplicity of minor issues will be such that the jury will lose sight of the main issue, and the whole evidence will be only a mass of confused data from which it will be difficult to extract the kernel of controversy. 
</P>
<P>Both commentators are clearly describing the notion of confusion of the issues. The notion of confusion of the issues of course applies as well to a reviewing body considering a record in such condition. While a trier of fact or reviewing body confused in the foregoing manner can also be said to have been misled, it is suggested that the concept of misleading refers primarily to the possibility of the trier of fact overvaluing the probative value of a particular item of evidence for any reason other than the emotional reaction associated with unfair prejudice. To illustrate, evidence of the results of a lie detector, even where an attempt is made to explain fully the significance of the results, is likely to be overvalued by the trier of fact. Similarly, the test of <I>Frye</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 293 F.1013, 1014 (D.C. Cir. 1923), imposing the requirement with respect to the admissibility of scientific evidence that the particular technique be shown to have gained “general acceptance in the particular field in which it belongs,” is an attempt to prevent decision makers from being unduly swayed by unreliable scientific evidence. Demonstrative evidence in the form of a photograph, map, model, drawing or chart which varies substantially from the fact of consequence sought to be illustrated similarly may mislead. Finally, any trier of fact may be misled by the sheer amount of time spent upon a question into believing the issue to be of major importance and accordingly into attaching too much significance to it in its determination of the factual issues involved. While clearly of less import where the judge is the trier of fact and with respect to the state of the record on review, the danger of confusion of the issues or misleading the judge as trier of fact, together with such risks on review, are each of sufficient moment especially when considered in connection with needless consumption of time to warrant inclusion in § 18.403. 
</P>
<P>Occasionally evidence is excluded not because distracting side issues will be created but rather because an unsuitable amount of time would be consumed in clarifying the situation. Concerns associated with the proper use of trial time also arise where the evidence being offered is relevant to a fact as to which substantial other evidence has already been introduced, including evidence bearing on the question of credibility, where the evidence itself possesses only minimal probative value, such as evidence admitted as background, or where evidence is thought by the court to be collateral. In recognition of the legitimate concern of the court with expenditures of time, § 18.403 provides for exclusion of evidence where its incremental probative value is substantially outweighed by considerations of undue delay, waste of time, or needless presentation of cumulative evidence. Roughly speaking undue delay can be argued to refer to delay caused by the failure of the party to be able to produce the given evidence at the appropriate time at trial but only at some later time. Waste of time may be taken to refer to the fact that the evidence possesses inadequate incremental probative value in light of the time its total exploration will consume. Cumulative refers to multiple sources of different evidence establishing the same fact of consequence as well as multiple same sources, such as ten witnesses all testifying to the same speed of the car or the same character of a witness. 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.501
</HD1>
<P>The Conference Report to Federal Rule of Evidence 501, 1975 U.S. Code Cong. &amp; Ad. News 7098, 7100 states: 
</P>
<P>Rule 501 deals with the privilege of a witness not to testify. Both the House and Senate bills provide that federal privilege law applies in criminal cases. In civil actions and proceedings, the House bill provides that state privilege law applies “to an element of a claim or defense as to which State law supplies the rule of decision.” The Senate bill provides that “in civil actions and proceedings arising under 28 U.S.C. 1332 or 28 U.S.C. 1335, or between citizens of different States and removed under 28 U.S.C. 1441(b) the privilege of a witness, person, government, State or political subdivision thereof is determined in accordance with State law unless with respect to the particular claim or defense, Federal law supplies the rule of decision.” 
</P>
<P>The wording of the House and Senate bills differs in the treatment of civil actions and proceedings. The rule in the House bill applies to evidence that relates to “an element of a claim or defense.” If an item of proof tends to support or defeat a claim or defense, or an element of a claim or defense, and if state law supplies the rule of decision for that claim or defense, then state privilege law applies to that item of proof. 
</P>
<P>Under the provision in the House bill, therefore, state privilege law will usually apply in diversity cases. There may be diversity cases, however, where a claim or defense is based upon federal law. In such instances, federal privilege law will apply to evidence relevant to the federal claim or defense. See <I>Sola Electric Co.</I> v. <I>Jefferson Electric Co.,</I> 317 U.S. 173 (1942). 
</P>
<P>In nondiversity jurisdiction civil cases, federal privilege law will generally apply. In those situations where a federal court adopts or incorporates state law to fill interstices or gaps in federal statutory phrases, the court generally will apply federal privilege law.
</P>
<P>As Justice Jackson has said:
</P>
<P>A federal court sitting in a nondiversity case such as this does not sit as a local tribunal. In some cases it may see fit for special reasons to give the law of a particular state highly persuasive or even controlling effect, but in the last analysis its decision turns upon the law of the United States, not that of any state.
</P>
<P><I>D'Oench, Duhme &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corp.,</I> 315 U.S. 447, 471 (1942) (Jackson, J., concurring). When a federal court chooses to absorb state law, it is applying the state law as a matter of federal common law. Thus, state law does not supply the rule of decision (even though the federal court may apply a rule derived from state decisions), and state privilege law would not apply. See C.A. Wright, Federal Courts 251-252 (2d ed. 1970); <I>Holmberg</I> v. <I>Armbrecht,</I> 327 U.S. 392 (1946); <I>DeSylva</I> v. <I>Ballentine,</I> 351 U.S. 570, 581 (1956); 9 Wright &amp; Miller, Federal Rules and Procedures § 2408.
</P>
<P>In civil actions and proceedings, where the rule of decision as to a claim or defense or as to an element of a claim or defense is supplied by state law, the House provision requires that state privilege law apply.
</P>
<P>The Conference adopts the House provision.
</P>
<P>It is anticipated that the proviso in § 18.501 will very rarely come into play. 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.601
</HD1>
<P>The Conference Report to Federal Rule of Evidence 601, 1975 U.S. Code Cong. &amp; Ad. News 7051, 7059 states:
</P>
<P>Rule 601 deals with competency of witnesses. Both the House and Senate bills provide that federal competency law applies in criminal cases. In civil actions and proceedings, the House bill provides that state competency law applies “to an element of a claim or defense as to which State law supplies the rule of decision.” The Senate bill provides that “in civil actions and proceedings arising under 28 U.S.C. 1332 or 28 U.S.C. 1335, or between citizens of different States and removed under 28 U.S.C. 1441(b) the competency of a witness, person, government, State or political subdivision thereof is determined in accordance with State law, unless with respect to the particular claim or defense, Federal law supplies the rule of decision.”
</P>
<P>The wording of the House and Senate bills differs in the treatment of civil actions and proceedings. The rule in the House bill applies to evidence that relates to “an element of a claim or defense.” If an item of proof tends to support or defeat a claim or defense, or an element of a claim or defense, and if state law supplies the rule of decision for that claim or defense, then state competency law applies to that item of proof.
</P>
<P>For reasons similar to those underlying its action on Rule 501, the Conference adopts the House provision.
</P>
<P>It is anticipated that the proviso to § 18.601 will very rarely come into play. 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.609
</HD1>
<P>Consistent with the position taken in § 18.403, unfair prejudice is not felt to be a proper reason of the exclusion of relevant evidence in a hearing where the judge is the trier of fact. Sections 18.609 (a) and (b) provide for the use of every prior conviction punishable by death or imprisonment in excess of one year under the law under which the witness was convicted and every prior conviction involving dishonesty or false statement, regardless of punishment, provided not more than ten years has elapsed since the date of the conviction or the release of the witness from the confinement imposed for that conviction, whichever is the later date. Convictions more than ten years old are felt to be too stale to be admitted to impeach the credibility of a witness testifying in any hearing to which these rules apply. 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.801
</HD1>
<P>Rule 801(d)(1)(A) of the Federal Rules of Evidence has been revised in § 18.801(d)(1)(A) to permit the substantive admissibility of all prior inconsistent statements. The added protection of certainty of making and circumstances conducive to trustworthiness provided by the restriction that the prior inconsistent statement be “given under oath subject to the penalty of perjury at a trial, hearing, in other proceeding, or in a deposition” were added by Congress to Federal Rule of Evidence 801(d)(1)(A) for the benefit of the criminal defendant. See Graham, <I>Employing Inconsistent Statements for Impeachment and as Substantive Evidence: A Critical Review and Proposed Amendments of Federal Rules of Evidence 801(d)(1)(A),</I> 613 and 607, 75 Mich L. Rev. 565 (1977).
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.802
</HD1>
<P>An “administrative file” is admissible as such to the extent so provided by rule or regulation of the administrative agency prescribed pursuant to statutory authority, or pursuant to executive order, or by Act of Congress. If a program provides for the creation of an “administrative file” and for the submission of an “administrative file” to the judge presiding at a formal adversarial adjudication governed by these rules, see section 18.1101, the “administrative file” would fall outside the bar of the hearsay rule. Similarly, such “administrative file” is self-authenticating, section 18.902(10).
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.803
</HD1>
<P>Section 18.803(24) provides that the “equivalent circumstantial guarantees of trustworthiness” required to satisfy the “other [reliable] hearsay” exception is that possessed solely by the “aforementioned hearsay exceptions,” i.e., §§ 18.803(1)-18.803(24). The hearsay exceptions which follow, i.e., §§ 18.803(25)-18.803(30), rely too greatly upon necessity and convenience to serve as a basis to judge “equivalent circumstantial guarantees of trustworthiness.”
</P>
<P>Section 18.803(25) provides a hearsay exception for the self-authenticating aspect of documents and other items as provided in § 18.902. Out of court statements admitted under § 18.902 for the purpose of establishing that the document or other item offered into evidence is as purported to be are received in evidence to establish the truth of the matter stated, §§ 18.801(a)-(c). Section 18.802 provides that “hearsay is not admissible except as provided by these rules * * *” Section 18.902 thus operates as a hearsay exception on the limited question of authenticity. Section 18.902 does not, however, purport to create a hearsay exception for matters asserted to be true in the self-authenticated exhibit itself. As a matter of drafting consistency, it is preferable to have a specific hearsay exception in § 18.803 for statements of self-authentication under § 18.902 than to have a hearsay exception exist in these rules not bearing an 18.800 number.
</P>
<P>Sections 18.803(26) and 18.803(27) are derived from Rules 4(e) and (f) of the Arizona Uniform Rules of Procedure for Arbitration. Section 18.803(26)(f) is derived from Illinois Supreme Court Rule 90(c)(4).
</P>
<P>Sections 18.803(27) and 18.803(28) maintain the common law distinction between a treating physician, i.e., medical treatment, and an examining or nontreating physician, i.e., medical diagnosis. A treating physician provides or acts with a view toward providing medical treatment. An examining physician is one hired with a view toward testifying on behalf of a party and not toward treating a patient. As such, written reports of the examining physician are not felt to be sufficiently trustworthy to be given the preferred treatment of § 18.803(27). Thus a report of a physician made for the purpose of medical treatment, i.e., treating physician, is admissible if the requirements of § 18.803(27) are satisfied. A report of physician prepared with a view toward litigation, i.e., examining physician, satisfying the requirements of § 18.802(28) is also admissible. The reports of a given physician may, of course, fall within either or both categories. Reports of any medical surveillance test the purpose of which is to detect actual or potential impairment of health or functional capacity and autopsy reports fall within § 18.803(28).
</P>
<P>Section 18.803(28) is derived from Rule 1613(b)(1) of the California Rules of Court. A summary of litigation experience of the expert is required to assist the evaluation of credibility.
</P>
<P>Section 18.803(29) is derived from Rule 1613(b)(2) of the California Rules of Court.
</P>
<P>Section 18.803(30) is derived from Rule 1613(b)(3) of the California Rules of Court.
</P>
<P>Sections 18.803(26)-18.803(30) each provide that the adverse party may call the declarant of the hearsay statement, if available, as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination. The proviso relating to the calling of witnesses is derived from Rule 1305(b) of the Pennsylvania Rules of Court Procedure Governing Compulsory Arbitration. See also §§ 18.902(12)-18.902(16) <I>infra.</I>
</P>
<P>These rules take no position with respect to which party must initially bear the cost of lay witness and expert witness fees nor as to the ultimate disposition of such fees. Ordinarily, however, it is anticipated that the adverse party calling the witness should initially pay statutory witness fees, mileage, etc., and reasonable compensation to an expert witness in whatever sum and at such time as the judge may allow. Such witness fees, mileage, etc., and reasonable expert witness compensation should thereafter be charged to the same extent and in like manner as other such costs. 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.902
</HD1>
<P>Section 18.902(11) is modeled upon Uniform Rule of Evidence 902(11). The requirement of a final certification with respect to a foreign record has been deleted as unnecessary in accordance with the position adopted in 18 U.S.C. 3505 which governs the self-authentication of a foreign record offered in a federal criminal proceeding. The “Comment” to Uniform Rule of Evidence 902(11) states:
</P>
<P>Subsection 11 is new and embodies a revised version of the recently enacted federal statute dealing with foreign records of regularly conducted activity, 18 U.S.C. 3505. Under the federal statute, authentication by certification is limited to foreign business records and to use in criminal proceedings. This subsection broadens the federal provision so that it includes domestic as well as foreign records and is applicable in civil as well as criminal cases. Domestic records are presumably no less trustworthy and the certification of such records can more easily be challenged if the opponent of the evidence chooses to do so. As to the federal statute's limitation to criminal matters, ordinarily the rules are more strictly applied in such cases, and the rationale of trustworthiness is equally applicable in civil matters. Moreover, the absence of confrontation concerns in civil actions militates in favor of extending the rule to the civil side as well.
</P>
<P>The rule requires that the certified record be made available for inspection by the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the offer to permit the opponent a fair opportunity to challenge it. A fair opportunity to challenge the offer may require that the proponent furnish the opponent with a copy of the record in advance of its introduction and that the opponent have an opportunity to examine, not only the record offered, but any other records or documents from which the offered record was procured or to which the offered record relates. That is a matter not addressed by the rule but left to the discretion of the trial judge.
</P>
<P>Sections 18.902 (12) and (13) are derived from Rule 4 (e) and (f) of the Arizona Uniform Rules of Procedure for Arbitration. Section 18.902(12)(f) is derived from Illinois Supreme Court Rule 90(c)(4).
</P>
<P>Section 18.902(14) is derived from Rule 1613(b)(1) of the California Rules of Court. A summary of litigation experience of the expert is required to assist the evaluation of credibility. 
</P>
<P>With respect to §§ 18.902(13) and 18.902(14) as applied to a treating or examining physician, see Reporter's Note to §§ 18.803(27) and 18.803(28) <I>supra.</I>
</P>
<P>Section 18.902(15) is derived from Rule 1613(b)(2) of the California Rules of Court.
</P>
<P>Section 18.902(16) is derived from Rule 1613(b)(3) of the California Rules of Court.
</P>
<P>Sections 18.902 (12)-(16) each provide that the adverse party may call the declarant of the hearsay statement, if available, as a witness and examine the witness as if under cross-examination. The proviso relating to the calling of witnesses is derived from Rule 1305(b) of the Pennsylvania Rules of Civil Procedure Governing Compulsory Arbitration.
</P>
<P>These rules take no position with respect to which party must initially bear the cost of lay witness and expert witness fees nor as to the ultimate disposition of such fees. Ordinarily, however, it is anticipated that the adverse party calling the witness should initially pay statutory witness fees, mileage, etc., and reasonable compensation to an expert witness in whatever sum and at such time as the judge may allow. Such witness fees, mileage, etc., and reasonable expert witness compensation should thereafter be charged to the same extent and in like manner as other such costs. See also §§ 18.803 (25)-(30) <I>supra.</I> 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.1001
</HD1>
<P>Section 18.1001(3) excludes prints made from X-ray film from the definition of an original. A print made from X-ray film is not felt to be equivalent to the X-ray film itself when employed for purposes of medical treatment or diagnosis. 
</P>
<HD1>Reporter's Note to § 18.1101 
</HD1>
<P>Section 23(a) of the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, 33 U.S.C. 922, provides as follows: 
</P>
<P>In making an investigation or inquiry or conducting a hearing the deputy commissioner or Board shall not be bound by common law or statutory rules of evidence or by technical or formal rules of procedure, except as provided by this chapter; but may make such investigation or inquiry or conduct such hearing in such manner as to best ascertain the rights of the parties. Declarations of a deceased employee concerning the injury in respect of which the investigation or inquiry is being made or the hearing conducted shall be received in evidence and shall, if corroborated by other evidence, be sufficient to establish the injury.
</P>
<FP>Other acts such as the Defense Base Act, 42 U.S.C. 1651, adopt section 23(a) of the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act by reference. In addition 20 CFR 725.455(b) provides as follows with respect to the Black Lung Benefits Act, 30 U.S.C. 901: 
</FP>
<P><I>Evidence.</I> The administrative law judge shall at the hearing inquire fully into all matters at issue, and shall not be bound by common law or statutory rules of evidence, or by technical or formal rules of procedure, except as provided by 5 U.S.C. 554 and this subpart. The administrative law judge shall receive into evidence the testimony of the witnesses and parties, the evidence submitted to the Office of Administrative Law Judges by the deputy commissioner under § 725.421, and such additional evidence as may be submitted in accordance with the provisions of this subpart. The administrative law judge may entertain the objections of any party to the evidence submitted under this section. 
</P>
<P>Section 18.1101(c) provides that these rules do not apply to the extent inconsistent with, in conflict with, or to the extent a matter is otherwise specifically provided for by an Act of Congress or by a rule or regulation of specific application prescribed by the United States Department of Labor pursuant to statutory authority. Whether section 23(a) and § 725.455(b) are in fact incompatible with these rules, while unlikely for various reasons including their lack of specificity, is nevertheless arguable. 
</P>
<P>Without regard to section 23(a) and § 725.455(b), various other considerations support the conclusion to exclude hearings under Longshore, Black Lung, and related acts from coverage of these rules at this time. Longshore, Black Lung, and related acts involve entitlements. Claimants in such hearings benefit from proceeding pursuant to the most liberal evidence rules that are consistent with the orderly administration of justice and the ascertainment of truth. Claimants in such hearings on occasion appear <I>pro se.</I> While the modifications made by these rules are clearly designed to further liberalize the already liberal Federal Rules of Evidence, it is nevertheless unclear at this time whether even conformity with minimal requirements with respect to the introduction of evidence would present a significant barrier to the successful prosecution of meritorious claims. Rather than speculate as to the impact adoption of these rules would have upon such entitlement programs, it was decided to exclude hearings involving such entitlement programs from coverage of these rules. It is anticipated that application of these rules to hearings involving such entitlement programs will be reconsidered in the future following careful study. Notice that the inapplicability of these rules in such hearings at this time is specifically stated in § 18.1101(b)(2) to be without prejudice to the continuation of current practice with respect to application of rules of evidence in such hearings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 13229, Apr. 9, 1990; 55 FR 24227, June 15, 1990] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 19—RIGHT TO FINANCIAL PRIVACY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 1108, Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978, 92 Stat. 3697 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 3401 <I>et seq.,</I> (5 U.S.C. 301); and Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 48420, Dec. 22, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 19.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.20.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this regulation, the term: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Financial institution</I> means any office of a bank, savings bank, card issuer as defined in section 103 of the Consumer Credit Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1602(n)), industrial loan company, trust company, savings and loan, building and loan, or homestead association (including cooperative banks), credit union, consumer financial institution, located in any State or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, or the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial record</I> means an original of, a copy of, or information known to have been derived from, any record held by a financial institution pertaining to a customer's relationship with the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Person</I> means an individual or a partnership of five or fewer individuals. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Customer</I> means any persons or authorized representative of that person who utilized or is utilizing any service of a financial institution, or for whom a financial institution is acting or has acted as a fiduciary, in relation to an account maintained in the person's name. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Law enforcement inquiry</I> means a lawful investigation or official proceeding inquiring into a violation of or failure to comply with any criminal or civil statute or any regulation, rule, or order issued pursuant thereto. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Departmental unit</I> means those offices, divisions bureaus, or other components of the Department of Labor authorized to conduct law enforcement inquiries. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Act</I> means the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.20.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these regulations is to authorize Departmental units to request financial records from a financial institution pursuant to the formal written request procedure authorized by section 1108 of the Act, and to set forth the conditions under which such requests may be made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.20.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.3   Authorization.</HEAD>
<P>Departmental units are hereby authorized to request financial records of any customer from a financial institution pursuant to a formal written request under the Act only if:
</P>
<P>(a) No administrative summons or subpoena authority reasonably appears to be available to the Departmental unit to obtain financial records for the purpose for which the records are sought;
</P>
<P>(b) There is reason to believe that the records sought are relevant to a legitimate law enforcement inquiry and will further that inquiry;
</P>
<P>(c) The request is issued by the Assistant Secretary or Deputy Under Secretary heading the Departmental unit requesting the records, or by a senior agency official designated by the head of the Departmental unit. Officials so designated shall not delegate this authority to others;
</P>
<P>(d) The request adheres to the requirements set forth in § 19.4; and
</P>
<P>(e) The notice requirements set forth in section 1108(4) of the Act, or the requirements pertaining to delay of notice in section 1109 of the Act are satisfied, except in situations where no notice is required (e.g., section 1113(g)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.20.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.4   Contents of request.</HEAD>
<P>The formal written request shall be in the form of a letter or memorandum to an appropriate official of the financial institution from which financial records are requested. The request shall be signed by an issuing official of the requesting Departmental unit, as specified in § 19.3(c). It shall set forth that official's name, title, business address and business phone number. The request shall also contain the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The identity of the customer or customers to whom the records pertain;
</P>
<P>(b) A reasonable description of the records sought; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any other information that the issuing official deems appropriate, e.g., the date on which the requesting Departmental unit expects to present a certificate of compliance with the applicable provisions of the Act, the name and title of the individual to whom disclosure is to be made, etc.
</P>
<P>(d) In cases where customer notice is delayed by a court order, a copy of the court order shall be attached to the formal written request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.20.0.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.5   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to obtaining the requested records pursuant to a formal written request, a senior official designated by the head of the requesting Departmental unit shall certify in writing to the financial institution that the Departmental unit has complied with the applicable provisions of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 20—FEDERAL CLAIMS COLLECTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.;</I> Subpart D is also issued under 5 U.S.C. 5514; Subpart E is also issued under 31 U.S.C. 3720A; Subpart F is also issued under 31 U.S.C. 3720D.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 5202, Feb. 6, 1985, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 20 appear at 57 FR 31451, July 16, 1992.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Disclosure of Information to Credit Reporting Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart establish procedures to implement section 3 of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365), 31 U.S.C. 3711(f). This statute, and other applicable authority, authorizes Department heads to disclose to credit reporting agencies information concerning claims owed the United States under programs administered by the Department head. This disclosure is limited to certain information and must be in accordance with procedures set forth in the Debt Collection Act and other applicable laws. This subpart specifies the agency procedures and debtor rights that will be followed in making a disclosure to a credit reporting agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart—
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>commercial debt</I> means any non-tax business debt in excess of $100, arising from loans, loan guarantees, overpayments, fines, penalties or other causes.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>consumer debt</I> means any non-tax debt of an individual in excess of $100, arising from loans—loan guarantees, overpayments, fines, penalties, or other causes.
</P>
<P>(c) A debt is considered delinquent if it has not been paid by the date specified in the agency's initial demand letter (§ 20.4), unless satisfactory payment arrangements have been made by that date, or if, at any time thereafter, the debtor fails to satisfy his obligations under a payment agreement with the Department of Labor, or any agency thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>claim</I> and <I>debt</I> are deemed synonymous and interchangeable. They refer to an amount of money or property which has been determined by an appropriate agency official to be owed to the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another federal agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.3   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As authorized by law, each Department of Labor agency may report all delinquent consumer debts to consumer credit reporting agencies and may also report all commercial debts to appropriate commercial credit reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) Information provided to a consumer credit reporting agency on delinquent consumer debts from a system of records subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, must be maintained by the Department of Labor in accordance with that Act, except as otherwise modified by law. Furthermore, no disclosure may be made until the appropriate notice of system of records has been amended in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(11).
</P>
<P>(c) The Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, shall have the responsibility for obtaining satisfactory assurances from each credit reporting agency to which information will be provided, concerning compliance by the credit reporting agency with the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>) and any other Federal law governing the provision of credit information.
</P>
<P>(d) The information disclosed to the credit reporting agency is limited to: (1) The name, address, taxpayer identification number, and other information necessary to establish the identity of the individual, (2) the amount, status, and history of the claim, and (3) the Department of Labor agency or program under which the claim arose.
</P>
<P>(e) The agency official providing information to a credit reporting agency: (1) Shall promptly disclose to each credit reporting agency to which the original disclosure was made, any substantial change in the status or amount of the claim; and (2) shall within 30 days whenever feasible, or otherwise promptly verify or correct, as appropriate, information concerning the claim upon the request of any such credit reporting agency for verification of any or all information so disclosed.
</P>
<P>(f) Each Department of Labor agency is responsible for ensuring the continued accuracy of calculations and records relating to its claims, and for the prompt notification to the credit reporting agency of any substantial change in the status or amount of the claim. The agencies shall promptly follow-up on any allegation made by a debtor that the records of the agency concerning a claim are in error. Agencies should respond promptly to communications from the debtor, within 30 days whenever feasible.
</P>
<P>(g) The agency official responsible for providing information to a consumer credit reporting agency shall take reasonable action to locate the individual owing the debt prior to disclosing any information to a consumer credit reporting agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.4   Determination of delinquency; notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency head (or designee) responsible for carrying out the provisions of this subpart with respect to the debt shall send to the debtor appropriate written demands for payment in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to cooperate. In accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer, a total of three progressively stronger written demands at not more than 30-day intervals will normally be made unless a response to the first or second demand indicates that a further demand would be futile and the debtor's response does not require rebuttal. In determining the timing of the demand letters, agencies should give due regard to the need to act promptly so that, as a general rule, if necessary to refer the debt to the Department of Justice for litigation, such referral can be made within one year of the final determination of the fact and the amount of the debt. When the agency head (or designee) deems it appropriate to protect the government's interests (for example, to prevent the statute of limitations, 28 U.S.C. 2415, from expiring), written demand may be preceded by other appropriate actions, including immediate referral for litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to disclosing information to a consumer credit reporting agency in accordance with this subpart, the agency head (or designee) responsible for administering the program under which the debt arose shall review the claim and determine that the claim is valid and overdue. In cases where the debt arises under programs of two or more Department of Labor agencies, or in such other instances as the Chief Financial Officer or his or her designee may deem appropriate, the Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, may determine which agency, or official, shall have responsibility for carrying out the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer, the agency official responsible for disclosure of the debt to a consumer credit reporting agency shall send written notice to the individual debtor informing such debtor:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the basis for the indebtedness;
</P>
<P>(2) That the payment of the claim is overdue;
</P>
<P>(3) That the agency intends to disclose to a consumer credit reporting agency, within not less than sixty days after sending such notice, that the individual is responsible for such claim;
</P>
<P>(4) Of the specific information intended to be disclosed to the credit reporting agency;
</P>
<P>(5) Of the rights of such debtor to a full explanation of the claim, to dispute any information in the records of the agency concerning the claim, and of the name of an agency employee who can provide a full explanation of the claim;
</P>
<P>(6) Of the debtor's right to administrative appeal or review with respect to the claim and how such review shall be obtained; and,
</P>
<P>(7) Of the date on which or after which the information will be reported to the consumer credit reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(d) Where the disclosure concerns a commercial debt, the responsible agency head (or designee) shall send written notice to the commercial debtor informing such debtor of the information discussed in paragraphs (c)(1), (4), (5), and (6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Agencies shall also include in their demand letters the notice provisions to debtors required by other regulations of the Labor Department, pertaining to waiver, assessment of interest, penalties and administrative costs, administrative offset, and salary offset to the extent that such inclusion is appropriate and practicable.
</P>
<P>(f) The responsible agency head (or designee) shall exercise due care to insure that demand letters are mailed or hand-delivered on the same day that they are actually dated. If evidence suggests that the debtor is no longer located at the address of record, reasonable action shall be taken to obtain a current address.
</P>
<P>(g) To the extent that the requirements under this section have been provided to the debtor in relation to the same debt under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the agency is not required to duplicate such efforts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 5202, Feb. 5, 1985; 50 FR 8608, Mar. 4, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.5   Examination of records relating to the claim; opportunity for full explanation of the claim.</HEAD>
<P>Following receipt of the notice specified in § 20.4, the debtor may request to examine and copy the information to be disclosed to the consumer credit reporting agency, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.6   Opportunity for repayment.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Labor agency responsible for collecting the claim shall afford the debtor the opportunity to repay the debt or enter into a repayment plan which is agreeable to the head of the agency and is in a written form signed by such debtor. The head of the agency (or designee) may deem a repayment plan to be abrogated if the debtor should, after the repayment plan is signed, fail to comply with the terms of the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.7   Review of the obligation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The debtor shall have the opportunity to obtain review by the responsible agency of the initial decision concerning the existence or amount of the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) The debtor seeking review shall make the request in writing to the reviewing official or employee, not more than 15 days from the date the initial demand letter was received by the debtor. The request for review shall state the basis for challenging the initial determination. If the debtor alleges that specific information to be disclosed to a credit reporting agency is not accurate, timely, relevant or complete, such debtor shall provide information or documentation to support this allegation.
</P>
<P>(c) The review shall ordinarily be based on written submissions and documentation by the debtor. However a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing shall be provided an individual debtor when the responsible agency determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) An applicable statute authorizes or requires the agency to consider waiver of the indebtedness involved, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An individual debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and the agency determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or 
</P>
<P>(3) In other situations in which the agency deems an oral hearing appropriate. Unless otherwise required by law an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary-type hearing, although the reviewing official should carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receipt of a timely request for review, the agency shall suspend its schedule for disclosure of a delinquent consumer debt to a consumer credit reporting agency until such time as a final decision is made on the request.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon completion of the review, the reviewing official shall transmit to the debtor a written notification of the decision. If appropriate, this notification shall inform the debtor of the scheduled date on or after which information concerning the debt will be provided to credit reporting agencies. The notification shall, also if appropriate, indicate any changes in the information to be disclosed to the extent such information differs from that provided in the initial notification.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this subpart shall preclude an agency, upon request of the debtor alleged by the agency to be responsible for a debt, or on its own initiative, from reviewing the obligation of such debtor, including an opportunity for reconsideration of the initial decision concerning the debt, and including the accuracy, timeliness, relevance, and completeness of the information to be disclosed to a credit reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(g) To the extent that the requirements under this section have been provided to the debtor in relation to the same debt under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the agency is not required to duplicate such efforts.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1225-0030) 


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.8   Disclosure to credit reporting agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer, the responsible Department of Labor agency shall make the disclosure of information on the debtor to the credit reporting agency. Such disclosure to consumer credit reporting agencies shall be made on or after the date specified in the § 20.4 notification to the individual owing the claim, and shall be comprised of the information set forth in the initial determination, or any modification thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) This section shall not apply to individual debtors when—
</P>
<P>(1) Such debtor has repaid or agreed to repay his or her obligation, and such agreement is still valid, as provided in § 20.6; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Such debtor has filed for review of the claim under § 20.7(b), and the reviewing official or employee has not issued a decision on the review. 
</P>
<P>(c) In addition, the agency may determine not to make a disclosure of information to a credit reporting agency when the agency, on its own initiative, is reviewing and has not concluded such review of its initial determination of the claim under § 20.7(f). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.9   Waiver of credit reporting.</HEAD>
<P>The agency head (or designee) may waive reporting a commercial debt or delinquent consumer debt to a credit reporting agency, if otherwise appropriate and if reporting the debt would not be in the best interests of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.1.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.10   Responsibilities of the Chief Financial Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, shall provide appropriate and binding, written or other guidance to Department of Labor agencies and officials in carrying out this subpart, including the issuance of guidelines and instructions, which he or she may deem appropriate. The Chief Financial Officer shall also take such administrative steps as may be appropriate to carry out the purposes and ensure the effective implementation of this regulation, including the designation of credit reporting agencies authorized to receive and disseminate information under this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.19   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart establish procedures to implement section 10 of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365), 31 U.S.C. 3716(d). Among other things, this statute authorizes the head of each agency to collect a claim arising under an agency program by means of administrative offset, except that no claim may be collected by such means if outstanding for more than 10 years after the agency's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials of the government who were charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts. This subpart specifies the agency procedures that will be followed by the Department of Labor for an administrative offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart—
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>administrative offset</I> means the withholding of money payable by the United States to or held by the United States on behalf of a person to satisfy a debt owned the United States by that person; and 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>person</I> does not include any agency of the United States, or any state or local government.
</P>
<P>(c) The terms <I>claim</I> and <I>debt</I> are deemed synonymous and interchangeable. They refer to an amount of money or property which has been determined by an appropriate agency official to be owed to the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another federal agency.
</P>
<P>(d) A debt is considered delinquent if it has not been paid by the date specified in the agency's initial demand letter (§ 20.22), unless satisfactory payment arrangements have been made by that date, or if, at any time thereafter, the debtor fails to satisfy his obligations under a payment agreement with the Department of Labor, or any agency thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.21   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Department of Labor agency which has delinquent debts owed under its program is responsible for collecting its claims by means of administrative offset, in accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer.
</P>
<P>(b) Before collecting a claim by means of administrative offset, the responsible agency must ensure that administrative offset is feasible, allowable and appropriate, and must notify the debtor of the Department's policies for collecting a claim by means of administrative offset.
</P>
<P>(c) Whether collection by administrative offset is feasible is a determination to be made by the creditor agency on a case-by-case basis, in the exercise of sound discretion. Agencies shall consider not only whether administrative offset can be accomplished, both practically and legally, but also whether offset is best suited to further and protect all of the Government's interests. In appropriate circumstances, agencies may give due consideration to the debtor's financial condition, and are not required to use offset in every instance in which there is an available source of funds. Agencies may also consider whether offset would substantially interfere with or defeat the purposes of the program authorizing the payments against which offset is contemplated. 
</P>
<P>(d) Before advising the debtor that the delinquent debt will be subject to administrative offset, the agency head (or designee) responsible for administering the program under which the debt arose shall review the claim and determine that the debt is valid and overdue. In the case where a debt arises under the programs of two or more Department of Labor agencies, or in such other instances as the Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, may deem appropriate, the Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, may determine which agency (or agencies), or official (or officials), shall have responsibility for carrying out the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) Administrative offset shall be considered by agencies only after attempting to collect a claim under Section 3(a) of the Federal Claims Collection Act, except that no claim under this Act that has been outstanding for more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued may be collected by means of administrative offset, unless facts material to the right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official of the Agency who was charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts. When the debt first accrued should be determined according to existing laws regarding the accrual of debts, such as under 28 U.S.C. 2415.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.22   Notifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency head (or designee) responsible for carrying out the provisions of this subpart with respect to the debt shall send appropriate written demands to the debtor in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to cooperate. In accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer, a total of three progressively stronger written demands at not more than 30-day intervals will normally be made unless a response to the first or second demand indicates that a further demand would be futile and the debtor's response does not require rebuttal. In determining the timing of the demand letters, agencies should give due regard to the need to act promptly so that, as a general rule, if necessary to refer the debt to the Department of Justice for litigation, such referral can be made within one year of the final determination of the fact and the amount of the debt. When the agency head (or designee) deems it appropriate to protect the government's interests (for example, to prevent the statute of limitations, 28 U.S.C. 2415, from expiring), written demand may be preceded by other appropriate actions, including immediate referral for litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer, the agency official responsible for collection of the debt shall send written notice to the debtor, informing such debtor as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the nature and amount of the indebtedness;
</P>
<P>(2) That the agency intends to collect, as appropriate, interest, penalties and administrative costs; and, in accordance with guidelines of the Chief Financial Officer, of the applicable standards for collecting such payments;
</P>
<P>(3) Of the date by which payment is to be made (which normally should be not more than 30 days from the date that the initial notification was mailed or hand-delivered);
</P>
<P>(4) Of the agency's intention to collect by administrative offset and of the debtor's rights in conjunction with such an offset;
</P>
<P>(5) Of the debtor's entitlement to waiver, where applicable, and of the debtor's rights in conjunction with waiver;
</P>
<P>(6) Of the debtor's opportunity to enter into a written agreement with the agency to repay the debt;
</P>
<P>(7) Of the rights of such debtor to a full explanation of the claim, of the opportunity to inspect and copy the agency records with respect to the claim and to dispute any information in the records of the agency concerning the claim;
</P>
<P>(8) Of the debtor's right to administrative appeal or review with respect to the claim and how such review shall be obtained; and
</P>
<P>(9) Of the date on which or after which an administrative offset will begin.
</P>
<P>(c) Agencies shall also include in their demand letters the notice provisions to debtors required by other regulations of the Labor Department, pertaining to disclosures to credit reporting agencies, salary offset, and assessment of interest, penalties and administrative costs, to the extent inclusion of such is appropriate and practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsible agency head (or designee) shall exercise due care to insure that demand letters are mailed or hand-delivered on the same day that they are actually dated. If evidence suggests that the debtor is no longer located at the address of record, reasonable action shall be taken to obtain a current address.
</P>
<P>(e) The agency responsible for collecting the claim shall, in the initial demand letter to the debtor, provide the name of an agency employee who can provide a full explanation of the claim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.23   Examination of records relating to the claim; opportunity for full explanation of the claim.</HEAD>
<P>Following receipt of the initial demand letter specified in § 20.22, the debtor may request to examine and copy agency records pertaining to the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.24   Opportunity for repayment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Labor agency responsible for collecting the claim shall afford the debtor the opportunity to repay the debt or enter into a repayment plan which is agreeable to the agency head (or designee) and is in a written form signed by such debtor. The head of the agency (or designee) may deem a repayment plan to be abrogated if the debtor should, after the repayment plan is signed, fail to comply with the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies have discretion and should exercise sound judgment in determining whether to accept a repayment agreement in lieu of offset. The determination should balance the Government's interest in collecting the debt against fairness to the debtor. If the debt is delinquent and the debtor has not disputed its existence or amount, an agency should effect an offset unless the debtor is able to establish that offset would result in undue financial hardship or would be against equity and good conscience.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.25   Review of the obligation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The debtor shall have the opportunity to obtain review by the responsible agency of the determination concerning the existence or amount of the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) The debtor seeking review shall make the request in writing to the reviewing official or employee, not more than 15 days from the date the initial demand letter was received by the debtor. The request for review shall state the basis for challenging the determination. If the debtor alleges that the agency's information relating to the debt is not accurate, timely, relevant or complete, such debtor shall provide information or documentation to support this allegation.
</P>
<P>(c) The review shall ordinarily be based on written submissions and documentation by the debtor. However a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing shall be provided an individual debtor when the responsible agency determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) An applicable statute authorizes or requires the agency to consider waiver of the indebtedness involved, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An individual debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and the agency determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or 
</P>
<P>(3) In other situations in which the agency deems an oral hearing appropriate. Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary-type hearing, although the reviewing official should carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) Agencies may effect an administrative offset against a payment to be made to a debtor prior to the completion of the due process procedures required by this subpart, if failure to take the offset would substantially prejudice the agency's ability to collect the debt; for example, if the time before the payment is to be made would not reasonably permit the completion of due process procedures. Offset prior to completion of due process procedures must be promptly followed by the completion of those procedures. Amounts recovered by offset but later found not owed to the agency should be promptly refunded.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon completion of the review, the reviewing official shall transmit to the debtor a written notification of the decision. If appropriate, this notification shall inform the debtor of the scheduled date on or after which administrative offset will begin. The notification shall also, if appropriate, indicate any changes in the information to the extent such information differs from that provided in the initial notification under § 20.22.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this subpart shall preclude an agency, upon request of the debtor alleged by the agency to be responsible for a debt, or on its own initiative, from reviewing the obligation of such debtor, including an opportunity for reconsideration of the determination concerning the debt, and including the accuracy, timeliness, relevance, and completeness of the information on which the debt is based.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1225-0030) 


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.26   Request for waiver or administrative review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the statute under which waiver or administrative review is sought is <I>mandatory,</I> that is, if it prohibits the agency from collecting the debt prior to the agency's consideration of the request for waiver or review (see <I>Califano</I> v. <I>Yamasaki,</I> 442 U.S. 682 (1979)), then collection action must be suspended until either 
</P>
<P>(1) The agency has considered the request for waiver/review, or 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicable time limit for making the waiver/review request, as prescribed in the agency's regulations, has expired and the debtor, upon proper notice, has not made such a request.
</P>
<P>(b) If the applicable waiver/review statute is <I>permissive,</I> that is, if it does not require all requests for waiver/review to be considered, and if it does not prohibit collection action pending consideration of a waiver/review request (for example, 5 U.S.C. 5584), collection action may be suspended pending agency action on a waiver/review request based upon appropriate consideration, on a case-by-case basis, as to whether:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a reasonable possibility that waiver will be granted, or that the debt (in whole or in part) will be found not owing from the debtor;
</P>
<P>(2) The Government's interests would be protected, if suspension were granted, by reasonable assurance that the debt could be recovered if the debtor does not prevail; and
</P>
<P>(3) Collection of the debt will cause undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(c) If the applicable statutes and regulations would not authorize refund by the agency to the debtor of amounts collected prior to agency consideration of the debtor's waiver/review request in the event the agency acts favorably on it, collection action should ordinarily be suspended, without regard to the factors specified in paragraph (b) of this section, unless it appears clear, based on the request and the surrounding circumstances, that the request is frivolous and was made primarily to delay collection.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.27" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.27   Cooperation with other DOL agencies and Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appropriate use should be made of the cooperative efforts of other DOL agencies and Federal agencies in effecting collection by administrative offset. Generally, agencies should comply with requests from other agencies to initiate administrative offset to collect debts owed to the United States, unless the requesting agency has not complied with the applicable regulations or the request would otherwise be contrary to law or the best interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise prohibited by law, a DOL agency may request that monies due and payable to a debtor by another DOL agency or a Federal agency outside the Department be administratively offset in order to collect debts owed the creditor DOL agency by the debtor. In requesting an administrative offset, the creditor DOL agency must provide the DOL agency or other Federal agency holding funds of the debtor with written certification stating 
</P>
<P>(1) That the debtor owes the creditor agency a debt (including the amount of debt); and 
</P>
<P>(2) That the creditor agency has complied with the applicable Federal Claims Collection Standards, including any hearing or review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.28" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.28   DOL agency as organization holding funds of the debtor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a DOL agency is holding funds of a debtor from which administrative offset is sought by another DOL agency or other Federal agency, the DOL agency holding funds should not initiate the requested offset until it has been provided by the creditor organization with an appropriate written certification that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that applicable provisions of the Federal Claims Collection Standards have been fully complied with.
</P>
<P>(b) Moreover, the DOL agency holding funds of the debtor should determine whether collection by offset would be in the best interests of the United States; for example, if the debtor is a contractor for the DOL agency holding funds, whether administrative offset would impair the contractor's ability to perform under the terms of the contract. The creditor organization should be notified promptly of the determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.29" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.29   Notice of offset.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to effecting an administrative offset, the agency holding funds of a debtor should advise the debtor of the impending offset. This notice should state that the debtor has been provided his/her rights under the Federal Claims Collection Standards, that a determination has been made that collection by administrative offset would be in the best interests of the United States, the amount of the offset, and the source of funds from which the offset will be made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.30   Multiple debts.</HEAD>
<P>When collecting multiple debts by administrative offset, agencies should apply the recovered amounts to those debts, in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, paying special attention to applicable statutes of limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.31   Administrative offset against amounts payable from Civil Service Retirement and Disability fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise prohibited by law, agencies may request that moneys which are due and payable to a debtor from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund be administratively offset in reasonable amounts in order to collect debts owed to the United States by the debtor. Such requests shall be made to the appropriate officials of the Office of Personnel Management in accordance with such regulations as may be prescribed by the Director of that Office.
</P>
<P>(b) When making a request for administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section, an agency shall include a written certification that:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor owes the United States a debt, including the amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The requesting agency has complied with all applicable statutes, regulations, and procedures of the Office of Personnel Management; and
</P>
<P>(3) The requesting agency has complied with the requirements of the applicable provisions of the Federal Claims Collection Standards, including any required hearing or review.
</P>
<P>(c) Once an agency decides to request administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section, it should make the request as soon as practical after completion of the applicable due process procedures in order that the Office of Personnel Management may identify and “flag” the debtor's account in anticipation of the time when the debtor becomes eligible and requests to receive payments from the Fund. This will satisfy any requirement that offset be initiated prior to expiration of the applicable statute of limitations. At such time as the debtor makes a claim for payments from the Fund, if at least a year has elapsed since the offset request was originally made, the debtor should be permitted to offer a satisfactory repayment plan in lieu of offset upon establishing that changed financial circumstances would render the offset unjust.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with procedures established by the Office of Personnel Management, agencies may request an offset from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund prior to completion of due process procedures. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the requesting agency collects part or all of the debt by other means before deductions are made or completed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the agency shall act promptly to modify or terminate its request for offset under paragraph (a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.32   Liquidation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>An agency holding security or collateral which may be liquidated and the proceeds applied on debts due it through the exercise of a power of sale in the security instrument or a nonjudicial foreclosure should do so by such procedures if the debtor fails to pay the debt within a reasonable time after demand, unless the cost of disposing of the collateral will be disproportionate to its value or special circumstances require judicial foreclosure. The agency should provide the debtor with reasonable notice of the sale, an accounting of any surplus proceeds, and any other procedures required by contract or law. Collection from other sources, including liquidation of security or collateral, is not a prerequisite to requiring payment by a surety or insurance concern unless such action is expressly required by statute or contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.33   Collection in installments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever feasible, and except as otherwise provided by law, debts owed to the United States, together with interest, penalties, and administrative costs should be collected in full in one lump sum. This is true whether the debt is being collected by administrative offset or by another method, including voluntary payment. However, if the debtor is financially unable to pay the indebtedness in one lump sum, payment may be accepted in regular installments. Agencies should obtain and may require financial statements from debtors who represent that they are unable to pay the debt in one lump sum. Agencies which agree to accept payment in regular installments should obtain a legally enforceable written agreement from the debtor which specifies all of the terms of the arrangement and which contains a provision accelerating the debt in the event the debtor defaults. The size and frequency of installment payments should bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the debtor's ability to pay. If possible, the installment payments should be sufficient in size and frequency to liquidate the Government's claim in not more than 3 years. Installment payment of less than $50 per month should be accepted only if justifiable on the grounds of financial hardship or for some other reasonable cause. An agency holding an unsecured claim for administrative collection should attempt to obtain an executed confess-judgment note, comparable to the Department of Justice Form USA-70a, from a debtor when the total amount of the deferred installments will exceed $750. Such notes may be sought when an unsecured obligation of a lesser amount is involved. When attempting to obtain confess-judgment notes, agencies should provide their debtors with written explanation of the consequences of signing the note, and should maintain documentation sufficient to demonstrate that the debtor has signed the note knowingly and voluntarily. Security for deferred payments other than a confess-judgment note may be accepted in appropriate cases. An agency may accept installment payments notwithstanding the refusal of a debtor to execute a confess-judgment note or to give other security, at the agency's option.
</P>
<P>(b) If the debtor owes more than one debt and designates how a voluntary installment payment is to be applied as among those debts, that designation must be followed. If the debtor does not designate the application of the payment, agencies should apply payments to the various debts in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, paying special attention to applicable statutes of limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.34" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.34   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies are not authorized by section 10 of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (31 U.S.C. 3716) to use administrative offset with respect to: (1) Debts owed by any State or local Government; (2) debts arising under or payments made under the Social Security Act, the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, or the tariff laws of the United States; or (3) any case in which collection of the type of debt involved by administrative offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute. However, unless otherwise provided by contract or law, debts or payments which are not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under the common law or other applicable statutory authority, pursuant to this paragraph or agency regulations established pursuant to such other statutory authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) This section should not be construed as prohibiting use of these authorities or requirements when collecting debts owed by persons employed by agencies administering the laws cited in the preceding paragraph unless the debt “arose under” those laws.
</P>
<P>(c) Collection by offset against a judgment obtained by a debtor against the United States shall be accomplished in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3728.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.35" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.35   Additional administrative collection action.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart is intended to preclude the utilization of any other administrative remedy which may be available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.36" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.36   Prior provision of rights with respect to debt.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that the rights of the debtor in relation to the same debt have been previously provided under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the agency is not required to duplicate those efforts before taking administrative offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.37" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.2.66.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.37   Responsibilities of the Chief Financial Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, shall provide appropriate and binding written or other guidance to Department of Labor agencies and officials in carrying out this subpart, including the issuance of guidelines and instructions, which he or she may deem appropriate. The Chief Financial Officer shall also take such administrative steps as may be appropriate to carry out the purposes and ensure the effective implementation of this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Interest, Penalties and Administrative Costs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.50   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart establish the policies and procedures to implement section 11 of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365), 31 U.S.C. 3717. Among other things, this statute authorizes the head of each agency to assess interest, penalties and administrative costs against debtors with respect to delinquent debts arising under the agency's program. This subpart establishes the standards and procedures that will be followed by the Department of Labor in assessing such charges.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.51   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3717 do not apply:
</P>
<P>(1) To debts owed by any State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2) To debts arising under contracts which were executed prior to, and were in effect on (i.e., were not completed as of), October 25, 1982;
</P>
<P>(3) To debts where an applicable statute, regulation required by statute, loan agreement, or contract either prohibits such charges or explicitly fixes the charges that apply to the debts involved; or
</P>
<P>(4) To debts arising under the Social Security Act, the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, or the tariff laws of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies are authorized to assess interest and related charges on debts which are not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 to the extent authorized under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.52   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart—
</P>
<P>(a) The terms <I>claim</I> and <I>debt</I> are deemed synonymous and interchangeable. They refer to an amount of money or property which has been determined by an appropriate agency official to be owed to the United States from any person, organization or entity, except another federal agency.
</P>
<P>(b) A debt is considered delinquent if it has not been paid by the date specified in the agency's initial demand letter (§ 20.54), unless satisfactory payment arrangements have been made by that date, or if, at any time thereafter, the debtor fails to satisfy his obligations under payment agreement with the Department of Labor, or any agency thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.53   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Labor agency responsible for administering the program under which a delinquent debt arose shall assess interest and related charges on the debt, in accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer. In the case where a debt arises under the program of two or more Department of Labor agencies, or in such other instances as the Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, may deem appropriate, the Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, may determine which agency, or official, shall have responsibility for carrying out the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Before assessing any charges on a delinquent debt, the responsible agency must notify the debtor of the Department's policies for assessing interest, penalties and administrative costs and must ensure that the debt is overdue for the respective periods specified in these regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) Each Department of Labor agency is responsible for ensuring the continued accuracy of calculations and records relating to its assessment of charges, and for the prompt notification of the debtor of any substantial change in the status or amount of the claim. As appropriate, the Agencies should promptly follow up on any allegation made by a debtor that principal or charges is in error. Agencies should respond promptly to communication from the debtor, within 30 days whenever feasible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.54   Notification of charges.</HEAD>
<P>The agency head (or designee) responsible for carrying out the provisions of this subpart shall mail or hand-deliver an initial demand for payment to the debtor. In the initial demand, the debtor shall be notified that interest on the debt will start to accrue from the date on which the notice is mailed or hand-delivered, but that payment of interest will be waived if the debt is paid by the due date, or within 30 days of the date of notice, if no due date is specified. The initial demand shall also state that administrative costs of recovering the delinquent debt will be assessed if payment is not received by the due date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.55" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.55   Second and subsequent notifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer, the responsible agency head (or designee) shall send progressively stronger second and subsequent demands for payment, if payment or other appropriate response is not received within the time specified by the initial demand. Unless a response to the first or second demand indicates that a further demand would be futile or the debtor's response does not require rebuttal, the second and subsequent demands shall generally be made at 30-day intervals from the first, and shall state that a 6 percent per annum penalty will be assessed after the debt has been delinquent 90 days, accruing from the date it became delinquent. An agency head (or designee), however, in his or her sole discretion can send second and subsequent demands at shorter intervals. The second and subsequent demands shall identify the amount of interest then accrued on the debt, as well as administrative costs thus far assessed. In determining the timing of the demand letters, agencies should give due regard to the need to act promptly so that, if necessary, the debt may be referred in a timely manner to the Department of Justice for litigation. When the agency head (or designee) deems it appropriate to protect the government's interests (for example, to prevent the statute of limitations 28 U.S.C. 2415, from expiring), written demand may be preceded by other appropriate actions, including immediate referral for litigation.


</P>
<P>(b) Agencies shall also include in their demand letters the notice provisions to debtors required by other regulations of the Labor Department, pertaining to waiver of the indebtedness, administrative offset, salary offset and disclosure of information to credit reporting agencies, to the extent that such inclusion is appropriate and practicable.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 5202, Feb. 6, 1985, as amended at 85 FR 83817, Dec. 23, 2020]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.56" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.56   Delivery of notices.</HEAD>
<P>The responsible agency head (or designee) shall exercise due care to ensure that demand letters are dated and mailed or hand-delivered on the same day that they are actually dated. If evidence suggests that the debtor is no longer located at the address of record, reasonable action shall be taken to obtain a current address. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.57" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.57   Accrual of interest.</HEAD>
<P>Interest shall accrue from the date on which notice of the debt and the interest requirements is first mailed or hand-delivered to the debtor, using the most current address that is available to the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.58" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.58   Rate of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rate of interest assessed shall be the rate of the current value of funds to the United States Treasury as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (as of the date the notice is sent), unless another rate is specified by statute, regulations or preexisting contract condition. The Office of the Chief Financial Officer will notify agencies promptly of the current Treasury rate. The responsible agency may assess a higher rate of interest if it reasonably determines that a higher rate is necessary to protect the interests of the United States, and such rate is agreed to by the Chief Financial Officer (or his designee). The rate of interest prescribed in section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code shall be sought for backwages recovered in litigation by the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) The rate of interest as initially assessed shall remain fixed for the duration of the indebtedness, except that where a debtor has defaulted on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, the agency may set a new interest rate which reflects the current value of funds to the Treasury at the time the new agreement is executed.
</P>
<P>(c) Interest shall not be assessed on interest, penalties or administrative costs required by this subpart. However, if the debtor defaults on a previous repayment agreement, charges which accrued but were not collected under the defaulted agreement shall be added to the principal to be paid under a new repayment agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.59" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.59   Assessment of administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Labor agency responsible for collecting the claim shall assess against debtors charges to cover administrative costs incurred as a result of the delinquent debt; that is, the additional costs incurred in processing and handling the debt because it became delinquent. Calculation of administrative costs shall be based on cost analyses establishing an average of actual additional costs incurred by the agency in processing and handling claims against other debtors in similar stages of delinquency.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to assessing the costs listed in the administrative cost fee schedule, the responsible agency may include the costs incurred in obtaining a credit report or in using a private debt collector, to the extent they are attributable to delinquency.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chief Financial Officer shall issue each year a schedule providing the costs associated with various common activities required to collect delinquent debts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.60" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.60   Application of partial payments to amounts owed.</HEAD>
<P>When a debt is paid in partial or installment payments, amounts received by the responsible agency should be applied first to outstanding penalty and administrative cost charges, second to accrued interest, and third to outstanding principal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.61" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.61   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Labor agency responsible for collecting the claim shall waive the collection of interest on the debt or any portion of the debt which is paid within 30 days after the date on which interest began to accrue. This 30-day period may be extended for another 30 days on a case-by-case basis, if the agency reasonably determines that such action is appropriate, and is in accordance with these regulations. Also, the responsible agency may waive charges assessed under this subpart, based on criteria specified in the Federal Claims Collection Standards relating to the compromise of claims (without regard to the amount of the debt), or if the agency determines that collection of these charges would be against equity and good conscience or not be in the best interests of the United States. Waiver under the first sentence of this paragraph is mandatory. Under the second and third sentences waiver is permissive and may be exercised only in accordance with the standards set by these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies may waive interest and other charges under appropriate circumstances, including, for example: 
</P>
<P>(1) Pending consideration of a request for reconsideration, administrative review, or waiver under a permissive statute, 
</P>
<P>(2) If the agency has accepted an installment plan, there is no fault or lack of good faith on the part of the debtor, and the amount of interest is large enough in relation to the size of the debt and the amount of the installments that the debtor can reasonably afford to pay so that the debt can never be repaid, or 
</P>
<P>(3) If repayment of the full amount of the debt is made after the date upon which interest and other charges became payable and the estimated costs of recovering the residual interest balance exceed the amount owed the Agency.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a mandatory waiver or review statute applies, interest and related charges may not be assessed for those periods during which collection action must be suspended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.62" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.3.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.62   Responsibilities of the Chief Financial Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, shall provide appropriate and binding written or other guidance to Department of Labor agencies and officials in carrying out this subpart, including the issuance of guidelines and instructions, which he or she may deem appropriate. The Chief Financial Officer shall also take such administrative steps as may be appropriate to carry out the purposes and ensure the effective implementation of this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Salary Offset</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 3772, Feb. 5, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.74" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.74   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this subpart establish procedures to implement section 5 of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365), 5 U.S.C. 5514. This statute authorizes the head of each agency to deduct from the current pay account of an employee (<I>salary offset</I>) when the employee owes money to the United States. This subpart specifies the agency procedures that will be available in a <I>salary offset</I> by the Department of Labor of an employee's current pay account.
</P>
<P>(b) Administrative offset is defined in 31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(1) as “withholding money payable by the United States Government, to or held by the Government for a person to satisfy a debt the person owes the Government.”
</P>
<FP>A salary offset is a form of administrative offset and is separately authorized and governed by 5 U.S.C. 5514. This authority is consistent with and supplemented by administrative offset regulations of subpart B of 29 CFR part 20. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.75" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.75   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies to debts owed to the United States (arising under Labor Department programs) by Labor Department employees, debts owed to the United States (arising under Labor Department programs) by employees of other Federal agencies, and debts owed the United States (arising under programs of other Federal agencies) by Labor Department employees. <I>Other agency</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An executive agency as defined in section 105 of title 5 U.S.C. (but not including the Labor Department), including the U.S. Postal Service and the U.S. Postal Rate Commission;
</P>
<P>(2) A military Department as defined in section 102 of title U.S.C.;
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or court in the judicial branch, including a court as defined in section 610 of title 28 U.S.C., the District Court for the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Judicial Panel on Multidistrict Litigation;
</P>
<P>(4) An agency of the legislative branch, including the U.S. Senate and the U.S. House of Representatives; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other independent establishments that are entities of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures contained in this subpart do not apply to debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 as amended (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq</I>), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq</I>), or the tariff laws of the United States; or to any case where collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute (e.g.) travel advances in 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses in 5 U.S.C. 4108. 
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of a salary overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 716, or in any way questioning the amount or validity of a debt by submitting a subsequent claim to the Government Accountability Office in accordance with procedures prescribed by the Government Accountability Office. Similarly, in the case of other types of debts, this subpart does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver, if waiver is available under any statutory provisions pertaining to the particular debt being collected. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 3772, Feb. 5, 1987, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.76" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.76   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, or in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld. Agencies must exclude deductions described in 5 CFR 581.105 paragraphs (b) through (f) to determine disposal pay subject to salary offset.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in this subpart, the terms <I>claim</I> and <I>debt</I> are deemed synonymous and interchangeable. A <I>debt</I> means an amount owed to the United States from sources which include loans insured or guaranteed by the United States and all other amounts due the United States from fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, overpayments, penalties, damages, interest, fines and forfeitures (except those arising under the Uniform Code of Military Justice), and all other similar sources. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee</I> means a current employee of an agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or a Reserve of the Armed Forces (Reserves).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Paying agency</I> means the agency employing the individual and authorizing the payment of his or her current account. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit agency</I> means the agency to which the debt is owed. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his or her consent. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FCCS</I> means the Federal Claims Collection Standards jointly published by the Justice Department and the Government Accountability Office at 4 CFR 101.1 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to an agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 716, 5 U.S.C. 8346(b), or any other law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 3772, Feb. 5, 1987, as amended at 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.77" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.77   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Department of Labor agency which has delinquent debts owed under its program and administrative activities is responsible for collecting its claims by means of salary offset, in accordance with guidelines established by the Chief Financial Officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before collecting a claim by means of salary offset, the responsible agency should be satisfied that salary offset is feasible, allowable and appropriate, and, as otherwise provided in these regulations, must notify the debtor of the Department's policies for collecting a claim by means of salary offset. 
</P>
<P>(c) Whether collection by salary offset is feasible is a determination to be made by the creditor agency on a case-by-case basis, in the exercise of sound discretion. Agencies shall consider not only whether salary offset can be accomplished, both practically and legally, but also whether offset is best suited to further and protect all of the Government's interests. In appropriate circumstances, agencies may give due consideration to the debtor's financial condition, and are not required to use offset of the full or partial amount of the claim in every instance in which there is an available source of funds.
</P>
<P>(d) Before advising the debtor that the delinquent debt will be subject to salary offset, the agency head (or designee) responsible for administering the program under which the debt arose shall review the claim and determine that the debt is valid and overdue. In the case where a debt arises under the programs of two or more Department of Labor agencies, or in such other instances as the Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, may deem appropriate, the Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, may determine which agency (or agencies), or official (or officials), shall have responsibility for carrying out the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) Agencies may not initiate offset to collect a debt more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official of the Agency who was charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts. When the debt first accrued should be determined according to existing laws regarding the accrual of debts, such as under 28 U.S.C. 2415.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.78" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.78   Notifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency head (or designee) of the creditor Labor Department agency shall send appropriate written demands to the debtor in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to repay claims. In accordance with guidelines as may be established by the Chief Financial Officer, a total of three progressively stronger written demands at not more than 30-day intervals will normally be made unless a response to the first or second demand indicates that a further demand would be futile and the debtor's response does not require rebuttal. In determining the timing of the demand letters, agencies should give due regard to the need to act promptly so that a debt to be collected by salary offset will be recovered during the employee's anticipated period of employment with the Government.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with guidelines as may be established by the Chief Financial Officer, the creditor Labor Department agency shall send (at least 30 days prior to any deduction) written notice to the debtor, informing such debtor as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the origin, nature and amount of the indebtedness determined by the agency to be due;
</P>
<P>(2) Of the intention of the agency to initiate proceedings to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account;
</P>
<P>(3) Of the amount, frequency, proposed beginning date, and duration of the intended deductions;
</P>
<P>(4) Unless such payments are excused in accordance with the FCCS, of the creditor agency's policy concerning assessment of interest, penalties, and administrative costs;
</P>
<P>(5) Of the employee's right to inspect and copy Government records relating to the debt or, if the employee or his or her representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive a copy of such records;
</P>
<P>(6) If not previously provided, of the opportunity (under terms agreeable to the creditor agency) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or to enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset. The agreement must be in writing, be signed by both the employee and the creditor agency, and be documented in the creditor agency's files (4 CFR 102.2(e));
</P>
<P>(7) Of the employee's right to a hearing conducted by an administrative law judge of the Department of Labor, if a petition is filed as prescribed by the Department of Labor. In the event the debtor is an employee working in the Office of Administrative Law Judges, the notification shall inform such debtor of the right to elect to have the review of the agency's determination heard and decided by a person who is not in the Office of Administrative Law Judges, and not under the supervision and control of the Secretary of Labor; in such a case, all provisions in this subpart will otherwise apply, unless stated otherwise in the notification;
</P>
<P>(8) Of the method and time period for petitioning for hearing;
</P>
<P>(9) That the timely filing of a petition for hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings, unless the creditor agency determines that § 20.81(d) applies and further informs the debtor of the basis for its determination;
</P>
<P>(10) That a final decision on the hearing (if one is requested) will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing unless the employee requests and the administrative law judge grants a delay in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(11) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under chapter 75 of title 5 U.S.C., part 752 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, sections 3729-3731 of title 31 U.S.C., or any other applicable statutory authority; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Criminal penalties under sections 286, 287, 1001 and 1002 of title 18 U.S.C., or any other applicable statutory authority; 
</P>
<P>(12) Of any other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and
</P>
<P>(13) That unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee.
</P>
<P>(c) Creditor Labor Department agencies shall also include in their demand letters the notice provisions to debtors required by other regulations of the Labor Department, pertaining to disclosures to credit reporting agencies, administrative offset from other sources of funds, and the assessment of interest, penalties and administrative costs, to the extent inclusion of such is appropriate and practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsible agency head (or designee) shall exercise due care to ensure that demand letters are mailed or hand-delivered on the same day that they are actually dated. If evidence suggests that the debtor is no longer located at the address of record, reasonable action shall be taken to obtain a current address.
</P>
<P>(e) The creditor Labor Department agency shall, in the initial demand letter to the debtor, provide the name of an agency employee who can provide a full explanation of the claim.
</P>
<P>(f) In any internal Labor Department collection, the provisions of § 20.78 paragraphs (a) through (e) need not be applied to any adjustment to pay which is not considered to be the result of collection of a debt, such as excess pay or allowances caused by: 
</P>
<P>(1) An employee's election of coverage or a change of coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated in four pay periods or less; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Ministerial adjustments in pay rates or allowances which cannot be placed into effect immediately because of normal processing delays, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated in four pay periods or less.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.79" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.79   Examination of records relating to the claim; opportunity for full explanation of the claim.</HEAD>
<P>Following receipt of the notice specified in § 20.78(b), the debtor may request to examine and copy agency records pertaining to the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.80" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.80   Opportunity for repayment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The creditor Labor Department agency shall afford the debtor the opportunity to (1) repay the debt or (2) enter into a repayment plan which is agreeable to the agency head (or designee) and is in a written form signed by such debtor and the creditor agency. The head of the agency (or designee) may deem a repayment plan to be abrogated if the debtor should, after the repayment plan is signed, fail to comply with the terms of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies have discretion and should exercise sound judgment in determining whether to accept a repayment agreement in lieu of offset. The determination should balance the Government's interest in collecting the debt against fairness to the debtor. If the debt is delinquent and the debtor has not disputed its existence or amount, an agency should effect an offset unless the debtor is able to establish that offset would result in undue financial hardship or would be against equity and good conscience, or the agency otherwise determines that offset would be contrary to sound judgment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.81" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.81   Review of the obligation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The debtor shall have the opportunity to obtain a hearing by an administrative law judge of the agency's determination concerning the existence or amount of the debt, or the repayment schedule proposed by the agency, and except as provided in § 20.75(c), review by an administrative law judge is to be the exclusive administrative review remedy on the agency's determination under these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) The debtor seeking a hearing shall make the request in writing to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, pursuant to 29 CFR part 18, not more than 15 days from the date the notice of proposed salary offset was received by the debtor. The request for hearing shall be signed by the employee and state the basis for challenging the determination. If the debtor alleges that the agency's information relating to the debt is not accurate, timely, relevant or complete, such debtor shall fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence and witnesses, if any, which the employee believes supports his or her position.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing ordinarily shall be based on written submissions and documentation by the debtor. However, an opportunity for an oral hearing shall be provided an individual debtor when the administrative law judge determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) An applicable statute authorizes or requires the agency to consider waiver of the indebtedness involved, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An individual debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and the administrative law judge determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or 
</P>
<P>(3) In other situations in which the administrative law judge deems an oral hearing appropriate. 
</P>
<FP>Unless otherwise required by law or these regulations, any oral hearing under this section shall be conducted under the procedures in 29 CFR part 18. Except as provided under § 20.79, the provisions for discovery shall not be applicable unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge. Procedural and evidentiary rules shall be relaxed by the administrative law judge to provide informality and to facilitate the hearing.
</FP>
<P>(d) Agencies may effect a salary offset against the current pay account of a debtor prior to the completion of the hearing procedures required by this subpart, if failure to initiate the offset would substantially prejudice the agency's ability to collect the debt; for example, if the employee's anticipated period of employment with the Government would not reasonably permit the completion of the hearing and recovery of the debt prior to termination of employment. Offset prior to completion of the hearing must be promptly followed by the completion of that hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) If the debtor seeking a hearing under this section makes the request for review of the obligation after the expiration of the period for filing as described in paragraph (b) of this section, the administrative law judge may accept the request for hearing if the debtor can show that the delay was because of circumstances beyond his or her control or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless otherwise aware of it).
</P>
<P>(f) Upon completion of the hearing, the administrative law judge shall transmit to the debtor a written decision. This decision shall state, at a minimum: The facts purported to evidence the nature and origin of the alleged debt; the administrative law judge's findings and conclusions, as to the employee's and/or creditor agency's grounds; the amount and validity of the alleged debt; and, where applicable, the repayment schedule. If appropriate, the notification shall also indicate any changes in the information to the extent such information differs from that provided in the notification under § 20.78(b).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1225-0038) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 3772, Feb. 5, 1987; 52 FR 13563, Apr. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.82" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.82   Cooperation with other DOL agencies and Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appropriate use should be made of the cooperative efforts of other DOL and Federal agencies in effecting collection by salary offset. Generally, paying agencies should comply with requests from other agencies to initiate salary offset to collect debts owed to the United States, unless the creditor agency has not complied with applicable regulations or the request would otherwise be contrary to law.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise prohibited by law, a DOL agency may request that the current pay account of a debtor in another DOL or Federal agency be administratively offset in order to collect debts owed the creditor DOL agency by the debtor. In requesting a salary offset, the creditor DOL agency must provide the paying DOL agency or other paying Federal agency with written certification stating: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the debtor owes the creditor agency a debt (including the basis and amount of the debt); 
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which payment was due; 
</P>
<P>(3) The date on which the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Where the paying agency is another federal agency, that the creditor agency's regulations under 5 U.S.C. 5514 have been approved by the Office of Personnel Management, and that the creditor agency has followed such regulations to the best of its information and belief.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.83" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.83   DOL agency as paying agency of the debtor.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a salary offset is sought by another DOL or Federal agency from a paying DOL agency, the paying DOL agency should not initiate the requested offset until it has been provided by the creditor organization with an appropriate written certification as described in § 20.82(b). Where the creditor agency is not another DOL agency, the creditor agency must certify that its regulations under 5 U.S.C. 5514 have been approved by the Office of Personnel Management and that it, the creditor agency, has followed such regulations to the best of its information and belief. When the creditor agency is not also the paying DOL agency, the creditor agency should also be required to certify that if an administrative or judicial order is issued directing the paying DOL agency to pay a debtor an amount previously paid to the creditor agency, the creditor agency will reimburse the paying DOL agency or pay the debtor directly within 15 days of the date of the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.84" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.84   Collections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever feasible, and except as otherwise provided by law, debts owed to the United States, together with interest, penalties, and administrative costs should be collected in full in one lump sum. This is true whether the debt is being collected by salary offset or by another method, including voluntary payment. However, if the debtor is financially unable to pay the indebtedness in one lump sum, or the amount of the debt exceeds 15 percent of disposable pay for an officially established pay interval, collection must be made in installments. Ordinarily, the size of installment deductions must bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted for any period must not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made, unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. Installment deductions must be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of active duty or employment, as the case may be except as provided in § 20.84 paragraphs (c) and (d). Where a DOL agency is the paying agency, salary offset will ordinarily begin with the salary payment made to the employee for the first full pay period following expiration of the 30 day notice period described in § 20.78(b), or if a hearing is pending under § 20.81, the first full pay period following the date of the administrative law judge's written decision.
</P>
<P>(b) If the debtor owes more than one debt and designates how a voluntary installment payment is to be applied as among those debts, that designation must be followed. If the debtor does not designate the application of the payment, agencies should apply payments to the various debts in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, paying special attention to applicable statutes of limitations.
</P>
<P>(c) If the employee retires or resigns or if his or her employment or period of active duty ends before collection of the debt is completed, under 5 U.S.C. 5514, salary offset shall be from subsequent payments of any nature (e.g., final salary payment, lump-sum leave, etc.) due the employee from the paying agency as of the date of separation to the extent necessary to liquidate the debt.
</P>
<P>(d) If the debt cannot be liquidated by salary offset from any final payment due the former employee as of the date of separation, under 5 U.S.C. 5514, administrative offset shall be from later payments of any kind due the former employee from the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.85" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.85   Notice of offset.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to effecting a salary offset, the paying DOL agency should advise the debtor of the impending offset. This notice should state that the debtor has been provided his/her rights under 5 U.S.C. 5514, that a determination has been made that collection by salary offset would be in the best interests of the United States, the amount of the offset, the date the salary offset will begin, and that the source of funds shall be from current disposable pay, except as provided by (c) and (d) of § 20.84. If evidence suggests that the debtor is no longer located at the address of record, reasonable action shall be taken to obtain a current address.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.86" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.86   Non-waiver of rights by payments.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment, of all or any portion of a debt being collected under 5 U.S.C. 5514, shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights which the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.87" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.87   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies shall promptly refund to the appropriate party amounts paid or deducted under this subpart when—
</P>
<P>(1) A debt is waived or is otherwise not owing to the United States (unless refund is expressly prohibited by statute or regulation); or 
</P>
<P>(2) The employee's paying agency is directed by an administrative or judicial order to refund amounts deducted from his or her current pay.
</P>
<P>(b) Refunds do not bear interest unless required or permitted by law or contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.88" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.88   Additional administrative collection action.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart is intended to preclude the utilization of any other administrative remedy which may be available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.89" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.89   Prior provision of rights with respect to debt.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that the rights of the debtor in relation to the same debt have been previously provided by the creditor agency under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the creditor agency is not required to duplicate those efforts before taking salary offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.90" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.4.66.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.90   Responsibilities of the Chief Financial Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Financial Officer, or his or her designee, shall provide appropriate and binding written or other guidance to Department of Labor agencies and officials in carrying out this subpart, including the issuance of guidelines and instructions, which he or she may deem appropriate. The Chief Financial Officer shall also take such administrative steps as may be appropriate to carry out the purposes and ensure the effective implementation of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Federal Income Tax Refund Offset</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 47250, Sept. 15, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.101" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.101   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart establish procedures to implement 31 U.S.C. 3720A. This statute together with implementing regulations of the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) at 26 CFR 301.6402-6, authorizes the IRS to reduce a tax refund by the amount of a past-due legally enforceable debt owed to the United States. The regulations apply to past-due legally enforceable debts owed to the Department by individuals and business entities. The regulations are not intended to limit or restrict debtor access to any judicial remedies to which he/she may otherwise be entitled.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.102" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.102   Redelegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>Authority delegated by statute or IRS regulation to the Secretary or Department is redelegated to the heads of the Department's constituent agencies. This authority may be further redelegated as necessary to ensure the efficient implementation of these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.103" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Tax refund offset</I> refers to the IRS income tax refund offset program operated under authority of 31 U.S.C. 3720A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Past-due legally enforceable debt</I> is a delinquent debt administratively determined to be valid, whereon no more than 10 years have lapsed since the date of delinquency, and which is not discharged under a bankruptcy proceeding or subject to an automatic stay under 11 U.S.C. 362.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency</I> refers to the constituent offices, administrations and bureaus of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individual</I> refers to a taxpayer identified by a social security number (SSN).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Business entity</I> refers to an entity identified by an employer identification number (EIN).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Taxpayer mailing address</I> refers to the debtor's current mailing address as obtained from IRS.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Memorandum of understanding</I> refers to the agreement between the Department and IRS outlining the duties and responsibilities of the respective parties for participation in the tax refund offset program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.104" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.104   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As authorized and required by law, each Department of Labor agency may refer past-due legally enforceable debts to IRS for collection by offset from any overpayment of income tax that may otherwise be due to be refunded to the taxpayer.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to actual referral of a past-due legally enforceable debt for tax refund offset, the DOL agency heads (or their designees) must take the actions specified in § 20.107 and, as appropriate, § 20.106 and § 20.108.
</P>
<P>(c) DOL agency heads must ensure the confidentiality of taxpayer information as required by IRS in its <I>Tax Information Security Guidelines.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.105   Minimum referral amount.</HEAD>
<P>The IRS annually establishes the minimum amount for debts otherwise eligible for referral. Minimum referral amounts are established separately for individual debts and business debts, as set forth in the memorandum of understanding. The amount referred may include the principal portion of the debt, as well as any accrued interest, penalties and/or administrative cost charges.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 41017, Aug. 11, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.106" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.106   Relation to other collection efforts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tax refund offset is intended to be an administrative collection remedy of last resort, consistent with IRS requirements for participation in the program, and the costs and benefits of pursuing alternative remedies when the tax refund offset program is readily available. To the extent practical, the requirements of the program will be met by merging IRS requirements into the Department's overall requirements for delinquent debt collection.
</P>
<P>(b) The debts of individuals of $100 or more will be reported to a consumer credit reporting agency before referral for tax refund offset.
</P>
<P>(c) Debts owed by individuals will be screened for salary and administrative offset potential using the most current information reasonably available to the Department, and will not be referred for tax refund offset where such other offset potential is found to exist.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 47250, Sept. 15, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 41017, Aug. 11, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.107" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.107   Debtor notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency head (or designee) of the creditor Labor Department agency shall send appropriate written demands to the debtor in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to repay claims. In accordance with guidelines as may be established by the Department's Chief Financial Officer, a total of three progressively stronger written demands at not more than 30-day intervals will normally be made unless a response to the first or second demand indicates that a further demand would be futile and the debtor's response does not require rebuttal. In determining the timing of demand letters, agencies should give due regard to the need to act promptly so the ability to refer a debt for tax refund offset will not be unduly delayed.
</P>
<P>(b) Before the Department refers a debt to IRS for tax refund offset, it will make a reasonable attempt to notify the debtor that:
</P>
<P>(1) The debt is past-due;
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the debt is repaid or a satisfactory repayment agreement established within 60 days thereafter, it will be referred to IRS for offset from any overpayment of tax remaining after taxpayer liabilities of greater priority have been satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor will have a minimum of 60 days from the date of notification to present evidence that all or part of the debt is not past-due or legally enforceable, and the Department will consider this evidence in a review of its determination that the debt is past-due and legally enforceable. The debtor will be advised where and to whom evidence is to be submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department will make a reasonable attempt to notify the debtor by using the most recent address information obtained from the IRS, unless written notification is received from the debtor that notices from the Department are to be sent to a different address.
</P>
<P>(d) The notification required by paragraph (b) of this section and sent to the address specified in paragraph (c) of this section may, at the option of the Department, be incorporated into demand letters required by paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.108" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.108   Agency review of the obligation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The individual responsible for collection of the debt will consider any evidence submitted by the debtor as a result of the notification required by § 20.107(b) and notify the debtor of the result. If appropriate, the debtor will also be advised where and to whom to request a review of any unresolved dispute.
</P>
<P>(b) The debtor will be granted at least 30 days from the date of the notification required by paragraph (a) of this section to request a review of the determination of the individual responsible for collection of the debt on any unresolved dispute. The debtor will be advised of the result.
</P>
<P>(c) The review required by paragraph (b) of this section will ordinarily be based on written submissions and documentation provided by the debtor. However, a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing will be provided the debtor when the reviewing official determines that any remaining dispute cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence alone. Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary-type hearing, although the reviewing official should carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.109" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.109   Prior provision of rights with respect to debt.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that the rights of the debtor in relation to the same debt have been previously provided under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the Department is not required to duplicate those efforts before referring a debt for tax refund offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.110   Referral to IRS for tax refund offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By the date and in the manner prescribed by the IRS the Department will refer for tax refund offset the following information on past-due legally enforceable debts:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the debtor is an individual or a business entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Name and taxpayer identification number (SSN or EIN) of the debtor who is responsible for the debt; 
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(4) The date on which the debt became past-due;
</P>
<P>(5) Department-level, sub-Department-level and (as appropriate) account identifiers.
</P>
<P>(b) As necessary to reflect changes in the status of debts/debtors referred for tax refund offset, the Department will submit updated information at the times and in the manner prescribed by IRS. The original submission described in paragraph (a) of this section will not be changed to increase the amount of the debt or to refer additional debtors.
</P>
<P>(c) Amounts erroneously offset will be refunded by the Department or IRS in accordance with the Memorandum of Understanding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.111" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.5.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.111   Administrative cost charges.</HEAD>
<P>Costs incurred by the Department in connection with referral of debts for tax refund offset will be added to the debt and thus increase the amount of the offset.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Administrative Wage Garnishment</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 60799, Oct. 8, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.201" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.201   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides procedures the U.S. Department of Labor may use to collect money from a debtor's disposable pay by means of administrative wage garnishment to satisfy delinquent nontax debt owed to the Department. In accordance with the procedures set forth in 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11, the Department may request that a non-Federal employer garnish the disposable pay of an individual to collect delinquent non-tax debt owed to the Department or in connection with any program administered by the Department.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.202" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.202   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies to any non-tax debt owed to the U.S. Department of Labor or in connection with any program administered by the Department and to any entity that pursues recovery of such debt. The Department can enter into arrangements with other federal agencies to carry out its responsibilities under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart shall apply notwithstanding any provision of State law.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this subpart precludes the compromise of a debt or the suspension or termination of a collection action in accordance with applicable law. See, for example, the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS), 31 CFR parts 900-904.
</P>
<P>(d) The receipt of payments pursuant to this subpart does not preclude the Department from pursuing other debt collection remedies separately or in conjunction with administrative wage garnishment, including the offset of Federal payments, to satisfy delinquent nontax debt owed to the Department.
</P>
<P>(e) This subpart does not apply to the collection of delinquent nontax debt owed to the United States from the wages of Federal employees from their Federal employment. Federal pay is subject to the Federal salary offset procedures set forth in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and other applicable laws.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this subpart requires the Department to duplicate notices or administrative proceedings required by contract, this subpart, or other laws, regulations, or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.203" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.203   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this section the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>business day</I> means Monday through Friday, not including Federal legal holidays. For purposes of computation, the last day of the period will be included unless it is a Federal legal holiday.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>day</I> means calendar day. For purposes of computation, the last day of the period will be included unless it is a Saturday, a Sunday, or a Federal legal holiday.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>debt or claim</I> means any amount of money, funds or property that has been determined by an appropriate official of the Federal Government to be owed to the Department by an individual, including debt administered by a third party as an agent for the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>debtor</I> means an individual who owes a delinquent nontax debt to the Department.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>delinquent nontax debt</I> means any nontax debt that has not been paid by the date specified in the initial written demand for payment, or applicable agreement, unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made. For purposes of this section, the terms “debt” and “claim” are synonymous and refer to delinquent nontax debt.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>disposable pay</I> means that part of the debtor's compensation (including, but not limited to, salary, bonuses, commissions, and vacation pay) from an employer remaining after the deduction of health insurance premiums and any amounts required by law to be withheld. For purposes of this subpart, “amounts required by law to be withheld” include amounts for deductions such as social security taxes and withholding taxes but do not include any amount withheld pursuant to a court order.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>employer</I> means a person or entity that employs the services of others and that pays their wages or salaries. The term employer includes, but is not limited to, State and local Governments but does not include an agency of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>evidence of service</I> means information retained by the Department indicating the nature of the document to which it pertains, the date of mailing of the document, and to whom the document is being sent. Evidence of service may be retained electronically so long as the manner of retention is sufficient for evidentiary purposes.
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>garnishment</I> means the process of withholding amounts from an employee's disposable pay and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order.
</P>
<P>(k) The term <I>hearing official</I> means any qualified individual, as determined by the Department.
</P>
<P>(l) The term <I>withholding order</I> means any order for withholding or garnishment of pay issued by the Department. For purposes of this section, the terms “wage garnishment order” and “garnishment order” have the same meaning as “withholding order.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.204" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.204   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Department determines that a delinquent debt is owed by an individual, to the Department or in connection with any program administered by the Department, the Department may initiate proceedings administratively to garnish the wages of the delinquent debtor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.205" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.205   Notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 30 days before the initiation of garnishment proceedings, the Department shall mail, by first class mail to the debtor's last known address a written notice informing the debtor of:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The intention of the Department to initiate proceedings to collect the debt through deductions from pay until the debt and all accumulated interest, penalties and administrative costs are paid in full; and
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of the debtor's rights, including those set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, and the time frame within which the debtor may exercise his or her rights.
</P>
<P>(b) The debtor shall be afforded the opportunity:
</P>
<P>(1) To inspect and copy the Department's records related to the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) To enter into a written repayment agreement with the Department under terms agreeable to the Department; and
</P>
<P>(3) For a hearing in accordance with § 20.206 before a hearing official. The debtor is not entitled to a hearing concerning the terms of the proposed repayment schedule if these terms have been established by written agreement under 20.206(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) The Department will retain evidence of service indicating the date of mailing of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.206" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.206   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for hearing.</I> If the debtor submits a written request for a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt or the terms of the repayment schedule, the Department shall provide a written or oral hearing in accordance with 31 CFR 285.11(f) before a hearing official.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Type of hearing or review.</I> (1) For purposes of this subpart, whenever the Department is required to afford a debtor a hearing, the Department shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the hearing official determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the claim turns on the issue of credibility or veracity.
</P>
<P>(2) If a hearing official determines that an oral hearing is appropriate, the time and location of the hearing, including the amount of time allotted for the hearing, shall be at the discretion of the hearing official. An oral hearing may, at the discretion of the hearing official, be conducted either in-person, by telephone conference, or by other electronic means. All travel expenses incurred by the debtor in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the debtor. All charges incurred during the hearing as a result of the use of telephone conference or other electronic means will be the responsibility of the Department.
</P>
<P>(3) In those cases when an oral hearing is not required by this section, a hearing official shall nevertheless accord the debtor a “paper hearing,” that is, a hearing official will decide the issues in dispute based upon a review of the written record. The hearing official will establish a reasonable deadline for the submission of evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of timely request.</I> Subject to § 20.206(k), if the debtor's written request is received by the Department on or before the 15th business day following the mailing of the notice described in § 20.205(a), the Department shall not issue a withholding order under § 20.207 until the debtor has been provided the requested hearing and a decision in accordance with paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section has been rendered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to timely request a hearing.</I> If the debtor's written request is received by the Department after the 15th business day following the mailing of the notice described in § 20.205(a), the Department shall provide the debtor with a hearing before a hearing official. However, the Department will not delay issuance of a withholding order unless the Department determines that the delay in filing the request was caused by factors beyond the debtor's control or the Department receives information that the Department believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedure.</I> After the debtor requests a hearing, the hearing official shall notify the debtor of:
</P>
<P>(1) The date and time of a hearing conducted by telephone conference or other electronic means;
</P>
<P>(2) The date, time, and location of an in-person oral hearing; or
</P>
<P>(3) The deadline for the submission of evidence for a written hearing.
</P>
<P><I>(f) Burden of proof.</I> (1) The agency will have the burden of going forward to prove the existence or amount of the debt. The Department can satisfy this burden by submitting a certified copy of the adjudication or other document that establishes the existence of the debt and the amount of the debt.
</P>
<P>(2) Thereafter, if the debtor disputes the existence or amount of the debt, the debtor must show by a preponderance of the evidence that no debt exists or that the amount of the debt is incorrect. In addition, the debtor may present evidence that:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the repayment schedule are unlawful;
</P>
<P>(ii) The terms would cause a financial hardship to the debtor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The collection of the debt may not be pursued due to operation of law.
</P>
<P>(3) Debts that arise under the Federal Employees Compensation Act, 5 U.S.C. 8101-8193, are subject to preclusion of administrative and judicial review, as described at 5 U.S.C. 8128(b). As a result, once the Department meets its burden of showing the existence and amount of a debt under this statute, the debtor must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that:
</P>
<P>(i) The documentation put forward by the agency to establish the debt was not authentic; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The debt was incurred by someone other than the debtor as a result of identity theft.
</P>
<P><I>(g) Record.</I> The hearing official must maintain a summary record of any hearing provided under this section.
</P>
<P><I>(h) Hearing procedure.</I> A hearing is an informal process and the hearing official is not bound by common law or statutory rules of evidence or by technical or formal rules of procedure. However, witnesses who testify in oral hearings must do so under affirmation, so that 18 U.S.C. 1001 applies.
</P>
<P><I>(i) Date of decision.</I> The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision, as soon as practicable, but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for such hearing was received. If a hearing official is unable to provide the debtor with a hearing and render a decision within 60 days after the receipt of the request for such hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department may not issue a withholding order until the hearing is held and a decision rendered; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the Department had previously issued a withholding order to the debtor's employer, the Department must suspend the withholding order beginning on the 61st day after the receipt of the hearing request and continuing until a hearing is held and a decision is rendered.
</P>
<P><I>(j) Content of decision.</I> The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the facts presented;
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any repayment schedules, if applicable.
</P>
<P><I>(k) Final agency action.</I> The hearing official's decision will be the final agency action for the purposes of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 701-706.
</P>
<P><I>(l) Failure to appear.</I> In the absence of good cause shown to the hearing official, a debtor who fails to appear at a hearing scheduled pursuant to this section will be deemed as not having timely filed a request for a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.207" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.207   Wage garnishment order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the Department receives information that the Department believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order, the Department shall send, by first class mail, a withholding order to the debtor's employer:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 30 days after the debtor fails to make a timely request for a hearing (<I>i.e.,</I> within 15 business days after the mailing of the notice described in § 20.205(a), or,
</P>
<P>(2) If a timely request for a hearing is made by the debtor, within 30 days after a final decision is made by the hearing official, or,
</P>
<P>(3) As soon as reasonably possible thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b) The withholding order sent to the employer under paragraph (a) of this section shall be in the form prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury. The withholding order shall contain the signature of, or the image of the signature of, the Secretary of Labor or his or her delegatee. The order shall contain only the information necessary for the employer to comply with the withholding order. Such information includes the debtor's name, address, and Employee Identification Number, as well as instructions for withholding and information as to where payments should be sent.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department will retain evidence of service indicating the date of mailing of the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.208" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.208   Certification by employer.</HEAD>
<P>Along with the withholding order, the agency shall send to the employer a certification in the form prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury. The employer shall complete and return the certification to the Department within the time frame prescribed in the instructions to the form. The certification will address matters such as information about the debtor's employment status and disposable pay available for withholding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.209" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.209   Amounts withheld.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After an employer receives a garnishment order, the employer must deduct from all disposable pay paid to the applicable debtor during each pay period the amount of garnishment described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the provisions in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the amount of garnishment shall be the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount indicated on the garnishment order up to 15 percent of the debtor's disposable pay; or
</P>
<P>(2) The amount set forth in 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2) (Restriction on Garnishment). The amount set forth at 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2) is the amount by which a debtor's disposable pay exceeds an amount equivalent to thirty times the minimum wage. See 29 CFR 870.10.
</P>
<P>(c) When a debtor's pay is subject to withholding orders with priority the following shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Unless otherwise provided by Federal law, withholding orders issued under this subpart shall be paid in the amounts set forth under paragraph (b) of this section and shall have priority over other withholding orders which are served later in time. However, withholding orders for family support shall have priority over withholding orders issued under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) If amounts are being withheld from a debtor's pay pursuant to a withholding order served on an employer before a withholding order issued pursuant to this subpart, or if a withholding order for family support is served on an employer at any time, the amounts withheld pursuant to the withholding order issued under this subpart shall be the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount calculated under paragraph (b) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(ii) An amount equal to 25 percent of the debtor's disposable pay less the amount(s) withheld under the withholding order(s) with priority.
</P>
<P>(3) If a debtor owes more than one debt to the Department, the Department may issue multiple withholding orders provided that the total amount garnished from the debtor's pay for such orders does not exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) An amount greater than that set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section may be withheld upon the written consent of the debtor.
</P>
<P>(e) The employer shall promptly pay to the Department all amounts withheld in accordance with the withholding order issued pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(f) An employer shall not be required to vary its normal pay and disbursement cycles in order to comply with the withholding order.
</P>
<P>(g) Any assignment or allotment by an employee of his earnings shall be void to the extent it interferes with or prohibits execution of the withholding order issued under this subpart, except for any assignment or allotment made pursuant to a family support judgment or earlier withholding order.
</P>
<P>(h) The employer shall withhold the appropriate amount from the debtor's wages for each pay period until the employer receives notification from the Department to discontinue wage withholding. The garnishment order shall indicate a reasonable period of time within which the employer is required to commence wage withholding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.210" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.210   Exclusions from garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>The Department may not garnish the wages of a debtor who it knows has been involuntarily separated from employment until the debtor has been reemployed continuously for at least 12 months. The debtor has the burden of informing the Department (or any other federal agency exercising the Department's authority under this subpart) of the circumstances surrounding an involuntary separation from employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.211" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.211   Financial hardship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A debtor whose wages are subject to a wage withholding order under this subpart, may, at any time, request a review by the Department of the amount garnished, based on materially changed circumstances such as disability, divorce, or catastrophic illness which result in financial hardship.
</P>
<P>(b) A debtor requesting a review under paragraph (a) of this section shall submit the basis for claiming that the current amount of garnishment results in a financial hardship to the debtor, along with supporting documentation. The Department shall consider any information submitted in accordance with procedures and standards established by the agency.
</P>
<P>(c) If a financial hardship is found, the Department shall downwardly and temporarily adjust the amount garnished to reflect the debtor's financial condition. The Department will notify the employer of any adjustments to the amounts to be withheld.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.212" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.212   Ending garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once the Department has fully recovered the amounts owed by the debtor, including interest, penalties, and administrative costs consistent with the FCCS, the Department shall send the debtor's employer notification to discontinue wage withholding.
</P>
<P>(b) At least annually, the Department shall review its debtors' accounts to ensure that garnishment has been terminated for accounts that have been paid in full.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.213" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.213   Actions prohibited by employer.</HEAD>
<P>An employer may not discharge, refuse to employ, or take disciplinary action against the debtor due to the issuance of a withholding order under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.214" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.214   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a hearing official, at a hearing held pursuant to § 20.206, determines that a debt is not legally due and owing to the Department, the Department shall promptly refund any amount collected by means of administrative wage garnishment.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required by Federal law or contract, refunds under this section shall not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.215" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.21.6.66.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.215   Right of action.</HEAD>
<P>The Department may sue any employer for any amount that the employer fails to withhold from wages owed and payable to an employee in accordance with §§ 20.207 and 20.209. However, a suit may not be filed before the termination of the collection action involving a particular debtor, unless earlier filing is necessary to avoid expiration of any applicable statute of limitations period. For purposes of this subpart, “termination of the collection action” occurs when the agency has terminated collection action in accordance with the FCCS or other applicable standards. In any event, termination of the collection action will have been deemed to occur if the agency has not received any payments to satisfy the debt from the particular debtor whose wages were subject to garnishment, in whole or in part, for a period of 1 year.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 21—PROTECTION OF HUMAN SUBJECTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 29 U.S.C. 551.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 7271, Jan. 19, 2017, unless otherwise noted.








</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 21.101" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.101   To what does this policy apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as detailed in § 21.104, this policy applies to all research involving human subjects conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by any Federal department or agency that takes appropriate administrative action to make the policy applicable to such research. This includes research conducted by Federal civilian employees or military personnel, except that each department or agency head may adopt such procedural modifications as may be appropriate from an administrative standpoint. It also includes research conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by the Federal Government outside the United States. Institutions that are engaged in research described in this paragraph and institutional review boards (IRBs) reviewing research that is subject to this policy must comply with this policy.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Department or agency heads retain final judgment as to whether a particular activity is covered by this policy and this judgment shall be exercised consistent with the ethical principles of the Belmont Report.
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> The National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research.- Belmont Report. Washington, DC: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. 1979.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Department or agency heads may require that specific research activities or classes of research activities conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by the Federal department or agency but not otherwise covered by this policy comply with some or all of the requirements of this policy.
</P>
<P>(e) Compliance with this policy requires compliance with pertinent federal laws or regulations that provide additional protections for human subjects.
</P>
<P>(f) This policy does not affect any state or local laws or regulations (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe) that may otherwise be applicable and that provide additional protections for human subjects.
</P>
<P>(g) This policy does not affect any foreign laws or regulations that may otherwise be applicable and that provide additional protections to human subjects of research.
</P>
<P>(h) When research covered by this policy takes place in foreign countries, procedures normally followed in the foreign countries to protect human subjects may differ from those set forth in this policy. In these circumstances, if a department or agency head determines that the procedures prescribed by the institution afford protections that are at least equivalent to those provided in this policy, the department or agency head may approve the substitution of the foreign procedures in lieu of the procedural requirements provided in this policy. Except when otherwise required by statute, Executive Order, or the department or agency head, notices of these actions as they occur will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or will be otherwise published as provided in department or agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) Unless otherwise required by law, department or agency heads may waive the applicability of some or all of the provisions of this policy to specific research activities or classes of research activities otherwise covered by this policy, provided the alternative procedures to be followed are consistent with the principles of the Belmont Report.
<SU>63</SU>
<FTREF/> Except when otherwise required by statute or Executive Order, the department or agency head shall forward advance notices of these actions to the Office for Human Research Protections, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), or any successor office, or to the equivalent office within the appropriate Federal department or agency, and shall also publish them in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or in such other manner as provided in department or agency procedures. The waiver notice must include a statement that identifies the conditions under which the waiver will be applied and a justification as to why the waiver is appropriate for the research, including how the decision is consistent with the principles of the Belmont Report.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>63</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(j) Federal guidance on the requirements of this policy shall be issued only after consultation, for the purpose of harmonization (to the extent appropriate), with other Federal departments and agencies that have adopted this policy, unless such consultation is not feasible.
</P>
<P>(k) [Reserved]




</P>
<P>(l) Compliance dates and transition provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pre-2018 Requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>pre-2018 Requirements</I> means this subpart as published in the 2016 edition of the Code of Federal Regulations.










</P>
<P>(2) <I>2018 Requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>2018 Requirements</I> means the Federal Policy for the Protection of Human Subjects requirements contained in this part. The general compliance date for the 2018 Requirements is January 21, 2019. The compliance date for § 21.114(b) (cooperative research) of the 2018 Requirements is January 20, 2020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Research subject to pre-2018 requirements.</I> The pre-2018 Requirements shall apply to the following research, unless the research is transitioning to comply with the 2018 Requirements in accordance with paragraph (l)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Research initially approved by an IRB under the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which IRB review was waived pursuant to § 21.101(i) of the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which a determination was made that the research was exempt under § 21.101(b) of the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transitioning research.</I> If, on or after July 19, 2018, an institution planning or engaged in research otherwise covered by paragraph (l)(3) of this section determines that such research instead will transition to comply with the 2018 Requirements, the institution or an IRB must document and date such determination.
</P>
<P>(i) If the determination to transition is documented between July 19, 2018, and January 20, 2019, the research shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Beginning on the date of such documentation through January 20, 2019, comply with the pre-2018 Requirements, except that the research shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Section 21.102(l) of the 2018 Requirements (definition of research) (instead of § 21.102(d) of the pre-2018 Requirements);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Section 21.103(d) of the 2018 Requirements (revised certification requirement that eliminates IRB review of application or proposal) (instead of § 21.103(f) of the pre-2018 Requirements); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Section 21.109(f)(1)(i) and (iii) of the 2018 Requirements (exceptions to mandated continuing review) (instead of § 21.103(b), as related to the requirement for continuing review, and in addition to § 21.109, of the pre-2018 Requirements); and
</P>
<P>(B) Beginning on January 21, 2019, comply with the 2018 Requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the determination to transition is documented on or after January 21, 2019, the research shall, beginning on the date of such documentation, comply with the 2018 Requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Research subject to 2018 Requirements.</I> The 2018 Requirements shall apply to the following research:
</P>
<P>(i) Research initially approved by an IRB on or after January 21, 2019;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which IRB review is waived pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section on or after January 21, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which a determination is made that the research is exempt on or after January 21, 2019.






</P>
<P>(m) Severability: Any provision of this part held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 7271, Jan. 19, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 2892, Jan. 22, 2018; 83 FR 28515, June 19, 2018]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.102" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.102   Definitions for purposes of this policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification</I> means the official notification by the institution to the supporting Federal department or agency component, in accordance with the requirements of this policy, that a research project or activity involving human subjects has been reviewed and approved by an IRB in accordance with an approved assurance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clinical trial</I> means a research study in which one or more human subjects are prospectively assigned to one or more interventions (which may include placebo or other control) to evaluate the effects of the interventions on biomedical or behavioral health-related outcomes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department or agency head</I> means the head of any Federal department or agency, for example, the Secretary of HHS, and any other officer or employee of any Federal department or agency to whom the authority provided by these regulations to the department or agency head has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal department or agency</I> refers to a federal department or agency (the department or agency itself rather than its bureaus, offices or divisions) that takes appropriate administrative action to make this policy applicable to the research involving human subjects it conducts, supports, or otherwise regulates (<I>e.g.,</I> the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, the U.S. Department of Defense, or the Central Intelligence Agency).
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Human subject</I> means a living individual about whom an investigator (whether professional or student) conducting research:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtains information or biospecimens through intervention or interaction with the individual, and uses, studies, or analyzes the information or biospecimens; or (ii) Obtains, uses, studies, analyzes, or generates identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intervention</I> includes both physical procedures by which information or biospecimens are gathered (<I>e.g.,</I> venipuncture) and manipulations of the subject or the subject's environment that are performed for research purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interaction</I> includes communication or interpersonal contact between investigator and subject.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Private information</I> includes information about behavior that occurs in a context in which an individual can reasonably expect that no observation or recording is taking place, and information that has been provided for specific purposes by an individual and that the individual can reasonably expect will not be made public (<I>e.g.,</I> a medical record).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Identifiable private information</I> is private information for which the identity of the subject is or may readily be ascertained by the investigator or associated with the information.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>An identifiable biospecimen</I> is a biospecimen for which the identity of the subject is or may readily be ascertained by the investigator or associated with the biospecimen.
</P>
<P>(7) Federal departments or agencies implementing this policy shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon consultation with appropriate experts (including experts in data matching and re-identification), reexamine the meaning of “identifiable private information,” as defined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, and “identifiable biospecimen,” as defined in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. This reexamination shall take place within 1 year and regularly thereafter (at least every 4 years). This process will be conducted by collaboration among the Federal departments and agencies implementing this policy. If appropriate and permitted by law, such Federal departments and agencies may alter the interpretation of these terms, including through the use of guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon consultation with appropriate experts, assess whether there are analytic technologies or techniques that should be considered by investigators to generate “identifiable private information,” as defined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, or an “identifiable biospecimen,” as defined in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. This assessment shall take place within 1 year and regularly thereafter (at least every 4 years). This process will be conducted by collaboration among the Federal departments and agencies implementing this policy. Any such technologies or techniques will be included on a list of technologies or techniques that produce identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens. This list will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> after notice and an opportunity for public comment. The Secretary, HHS, shall maintain the list on a publicly accessible Web site.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institution</I> means any public or private entity, or department or agency (including federal, state, and other agencies).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>IRB</I> means an institutional review board established in accord with and for the purposes expressed in this policy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>IRB approval</I> means the determination of the IRB that the research has been reviewed and may be conducted at an institution within the constraints set forth by the IRB and by other institutional and federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Legally authorized representative</I> means an individual or judicial or other body authorized under applicable law to consent on behalf of a prospective subject to the subject's participation in the procedure(s) involved in the research. If there is no applicable law addressing this issue, <I>legally authorized representative</I> means an individual recognized by institutional policy as acceptable for providing consent in the nonresearch context on behalf of the prospective subject to the subject's participation in the procedure(s) involved in the research.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Minimal risk</I> means that the probability and magnitude of harm or discomfort anticipated in the research are not greater in and of themselves than those ordinarily encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine physical or psychological examinations or tests.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Public health authority</I> means an agency or authority of the United States, a state, a territory, a political subdivision of a state or territory, an Indian tribe, or a foreign government, or a person or entity acting under a grant of authority from or contract with such public agency, including the employees or agents of such public agency or its contractors or persons or entities to whom it has granted authority, that is responsible for public health matters as part of its official mandate.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Research</I> means a systematic investigation, including research development, testing, and evaluation, designed to develop or contribute to generalizable knowledge. Activities that meet this definition constitute research for purposes of this policy, whether or not they are conducted or supported under a program that is considered research for other purposes. For example, some demonstration and service programs may include research activities. For purposes of this part, the following activities are deemed not to be research:
</P>
<P>(1) Scholarly and journalistic activities (<I>e.g.,</I> oral history, journalism, biography, literary criticism, legal research, and historical scholarship), including the collection and use of information, that focus directly on the specific individuals about whom the information is collected.
</P>
<P>(2) Public health surveillance activities, including the collection and testing of information or biospecimens, conducted, supported, requested, ordered, required, or authorized by a public health authority. Such activities are limited to those necessary to allow a public health authority to identify, monitor, assess, or investigate potential public health signals, onsets of disease outbreaks, or conditions of public health importance (including trends, signals, risk factors, patterns in diseases, or increases in injuries from using consumer products). Such activities include those associated with providing timely situational awareness and priority setting during the course of an event or crisis that threatens public health (including natural or man-made disasters).
</P>
<P>(3) Collection and analysis of information, biospecimens, or records by or for a criminal justice agency for activities authorized by law or court order solely for criminal justice or criminal investigative purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) Authorized operational activities (as determined by each agency) in support of intelligence, homeland security, defense, or other national security missions.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Written,</I> or <I>in writing,</I> for purposes of this part, refers to writing on a tangible medium (<I>e.g.,</I> paper) or in an electronic format.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.103" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.103   Assuring compliance with this policy—research conducted or supported by any Federal department or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution engaged in research that is covered by this policy, with the exception of research eligible for exemption under § 21.104, and that is conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, shall provide written assurance satisfactory to the department or agency head that it will comply with the requirements of this policy. In lieu of requiring submission of an assurance, individual department or agency heads shall accept the existence of a current assurance, appropriate for the research in question, on file with the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office, and approved for Federal-wide use by that office. When the existence of an HHS-approved assurance is accepted in lieu of requiring submission of an assurance, reports (except certification) required by this policy to be made to department and agency heads shall also be made to the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office. Federal departments and agencies will conduct or support research covered by this policy only if the institution has provided an assurance that it will comply with the requirements of this policy, as provided in this section, and only if the institution has certified to the department or agency head that the research has been reviewed and approved by an IRB (if such certification is required by § 21.103(d)).
</P>
<P>(b) The assurance shall be executed by an individual authorized to act for the institution and to assume on behalf of the institution the obligations imposed by this policy and shall be filed in such form and manner as the department or agency head prescribes.
</P>
<P>(c) The department or agency head may limit the period during which any assurance shall remain effective or otherwise condition or restrict the assurance.
</P>
<P>(d) Certification is required when the research is supported by a Federal department or agency and not otherwise waived under § 21.101(i) or exempted under § 21.104. For such research, institutions shall certify that each proposed research study covered by the assurance and this section has been reviewed and approved by the IRB. Such certification must be submitted as prescribed by the Federal department or agency component supporting the research. Under no condition shall research covered by this section be initiated prior to receipt of the certification that the research has been reviewed and approved by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(e) For nonexempt research involving human subjects covered by this policy (or exempt research for which limited IRB review takes place pursuant to § 21.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), or (d)(7) or (8)) that takes place at an institution in which IRB oversight is conducted by an IRB that is not operated by the institution, the institution and the organization operating the IRB shall document the institution's reliance on the IRB for oversight of the research and the responsibilities that each entity will undertake to ensure compliance with the requirements of this policy (<I>e.g.,</I> in a written agreement between the institution and the IRB, by implementation of an institution-wide policy directive providing the allocation of responsibilities between the institution and an IRB that is not affiliated with the institution, or as set forth in a research protocol).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.104" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.104   Exempt research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise required by law or by department or agency heads, research activities in which the only involvement of human subjects will be in one or more of the categories in paragraph (d) of this section are exempt from the requirements of this policy, except that such activities must comply with the requirements of this section and as specified in each category.
</P>
<P>(b) Use of the exemption categories for research subject to the requirements of subparts B, C, and D: Application of the exemption categories to research subject to the requirements of 45 CFR part 46, subparts B, C, and D, is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subpart B.</I> Each of the exemptions at this section may be applied to research subject to subpart B if the conditions of the exemption are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subpart C.</I> The exemptions at this section do not apply to research subject to subpart C, except for research aimed at involving a broader subject population that only incidentally includes prisoners.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subpart D.</I> The exemptions at paragraphs (d)(1), (4), (5), (6), (7), and (8) of this section may be applied to research subject to subpart D if the conditions of the exemption are met. Paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section only may apply to research subject to subpart D involving educational tests or the observation of public behavior when the investigator(s) do not participate in the activities being observed. Paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section may not be applied to research subject to subpart D.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) Except as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the following categories of human subjects research are exempt from this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Research, conducted in established or commonly accepted educational settings, that specifically involves normal educational practices that are not likely to adversely impact students' opportunity to learn required educational content or the assessment of educators who provide instruction. This includes most research on regular and special education instructional strategies, and research on the effectiveness of or the comparison among instructional techniques, curricula, or classroom management methods.
</P>
<P>(2) Research that only includes interactions involving educational tests (cognitive, diagnostic, aptitude, achievement), survey procedures, interview procedures, or observation of public behavior (including visual or auditory recording) if at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any disclosure of the human subjects' responses outside the research would not reasonably place the subjects at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to the subjects' financial standing, employability, educational advancement, or reputation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects can readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, and an IRB conducts a limited IRB review to make the determination required by § 21.111(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Research involving benign behavioral interventions in conjunction with the collection of information from an adult subject through verbal or written responses (including data entry) or audiovisual recording if the subject prospectively agrees to the intervention and information collection and at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(A) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(B) Any disclosure of the human subjects' responses outside the research would not reasonably place the subjects at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to the subjects' financial standing, employability, educational advancement, or reputation; or
</P>
<P>(C) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects can readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, and an IRB conducts a limited IRB review to make the determination required by § 21.111(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purpose of this provision, benign behavioral interventions are brief in duration, harmless, painless, not physically invasive, not likely to have a significant adverse lasting impact on the subjects, and the investigator has no reason to think the subjects will find the interventions offensive or embarrassing. Provided all such criteria are met, examples of such benign behavioral interventions would include having the subjects play an online game, having them solve puzzles under various noise conditions, or having them decide how to allocate a nominal amount of received cash between themselves and someone else.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the research involves deceiving the subjects regarding the nature or purposes of the research, this exemption is not applicable unless the subject authorizes the deception through a prospective agreement to participate in research in circumstances in which the subject is informed that he or she will be unaware of or misled regarding the nature or purposes of the research.
</P>
<P>(4) Secondary research for which consent is not required: Secondary research uses of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, if at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens are publicly available;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information, which may include information about biospecimens, is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, the investigator does not contact the subjects, and the investigator will not re-identify subjects;
</P>
<P>(iii) The research involves only information collection and analysis involving the investigator's use of identifiable health information when that use is regulated under 45 CFR parts 160 and 164, subparts A and E, for the purposes of “health care operations” or “research” as those terms are defined at 45 CFR 164.501 or for “public health activities and purposes” as described under 45 CFR 164.512(b); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The research is conducted by, or on behalf of, a Federal department or agency using government-generated or government-collected information obtained for nonresearch activities, if the research generates identifiable private information that is or will be maintained on information technology that is subject to and in compliance with section 208(b) of the E-Government Act of 2002, 44 U.S.C. 3501 note, if all of the identifiable private information collected, used, or generated as part of the activity will be maintained in systems of records subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and, if applicable, the information used in the research was collected subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) Research and demonstration projects that are conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, or otherwise subject to the approval of department or agency heads (or the approval of the heads of bureaus or other subordinate agencies that have been delegated authority to conduct the research and demonstration projects), and that are designed to study, evaluate, improve, or otherwise examine public benefit or service programs, including procedures for obtaining benefits or services under those programs, possible changes in or alternatives to those programs or procedures, or possible changes in methods or levels of payment for benefits or services under those programs. Such projects include, but are not limited to, internal studies by Federal employees, and studies under contracts or consulting arrangements, cooperative agreements, or grants. Exempt projects also include waivers of otherwise mandatory requirements using authorities such as sections 1115 and 1115A of the Social Security Act, as amended.
</P>
<P>(i) Each Federal department or agency conducting or supporting the research and demonstration projects must establish, on a publicly accessible Federal Web site or in such other manner as the department or agency head may determine, a list of the research and demonstration projects that the Federal department or agency conducts or supports under this provision. The research or demonstration project must be published on this list prior to commencing the research involving human subjects.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) Taste and food quality evaluation and consumer acceptance studies:
</P>
<P>(i) If wholesome foods without additives are consumed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If a food is consumed that contains a food ingredient at or below the level and for a use found to be safe, or agricultural chemical or environmental contaminant at or below the level found to be safe, by the Food and Drug Administration or approved by the Environmental Protection Agency or the Food Safety and Inspection Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
</P>
<P>(7) Storage or maintenance for secondary research for which broad consent is required: Storage or maintenance of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens for potential secondary research use if an IRB conducts a limited IRB review and makes the determinations required by § 21.111(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(8) Secondary research for which broad consent is required: Research involving the use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens for secondary research use, if the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens was obtained in accordance with § 21.116(a)(1) through (4), (a)(6), and (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of informed consent or waiver of documentation of consent was obtained in accordance with § 21.117;
</P>
<P>(iii) An IRB conducts a limited IRB review and makes the determination required by § 21.111(a)(7) and makes the determination that the research to be conducted is within the scope of the broad consent referenced in paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section; and (iv) The investigator does not include returning individual research results to subjects as part of the study plan. This provision does not prevent an investigator from abiding by any legal requirements to return individual research results.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 21.105-21.106" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 21.105-21.106   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.107" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.107   IRB membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each IRB shall have at least five members, with varying backgrounds to promote complete and adequate review of research activities commonly conducted by the institution. The IRB shall be sufficiently qualified through the experience and expertise of its members (professional competence), and the diversity of its members, including race, gender, and cultural backgrounds and sensitivity to such issues as community attitudes, to promote respect for its advice and counsel in safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects. The IRB shall be able to ascertain the acceptability of proposed research in terms of institutional commitments (including policies and resources) and regulations, applicable law, and standards of professional conduct and practice. The IRB shall therefore include persons knowledgeable in these areas. If an IRB regularly reviews research that involves a category of subjects that is vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, consideration shall be given to the inclusion of one or more individuals who are knowledgeable about and experienced in working with these categories of subjects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each IRB shall include at least one member whose primary concerns are in scientific areas and at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas.
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB shall include at least one member who is not otherwise affiliated with the institution and who is not part of the immediate family of a person who is affiliated with the institution.
</P>
<P>(d) No IRB may have a member participate in the IRB's initial or continuing review of any project in which the member has a conflicting interest, except to provide information requested by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB may, in its discretion, invite individuals with competence in special areas to assist in the review of issues that require expertise beyond or in addition to that available on the IRB. These individuals may not vote with the IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.108" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.108   IRB functions and operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to fulfill the requirements of this policy each IRB shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have access to meeting space and sufficient staff to support the IRB's review and recordkeeping duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare and maintain a current list of the IRB members identified by name; earned degrees; representative capacity; indications of experience such as board certifications or licenses sufficient to describe each member's chief anticipated contributions to IRB deliberations; and any employment or other relationship between each member and the institution, for example, full-time employee, part-time employee, member of governing panel or board, stockholder, paid or unpaid consultant;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and follow written procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting its initial and continuing review of research and for reporting its findings and actions to the investigator and the institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining which projects require review more often than annually and which projects need verification from sources other than the investigators that no material changes have occurred since previous IRB review; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB of proposed changes in a research activity, and for ensuring that investigators will conduct the research activity in accordance with the terms of the IRB approval until any proposed changes have been reviewed and approved by the IRB, except when necessary to eliminate apparent immediate hazards to the subject.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish and follow written procedures for ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB; appropriate institutional officials; the department or agency head; and the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office, or the equivalent office within the appropriate Federal department or agency of
</P>
<P>(i) Any unanticipated problems involving risks to subjects or others or any serious or continuing noncompliance with this policy or the requirements or determinations of the IRB; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any suspension or termination of IRB approval.
</P>
<P>(b) Except when an expedited review procedure is used (as described in § 21.110), an IRB must review proposed research at convened meetings at which a majority of the members of the IRB are present, including at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas. In order for the research to be approved, it shall receive the approval of a majority of those members present at the meeting.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.109" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.109   IRB review of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An IRB shall review and have authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove all research activities covered by this policy, including exempt research activities under § 21.104 for which limited IRB review is a condition of exemption (under § 21.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), and (d)(7), and (8)).
</P>
<P>(b) An IRB shall require that information given to subjects (or legally authorized representatives, when appropriate) as part of informed consent is in accordance with § 21.116. The IRB may require that information, in addition to that specifically mentioned in § 21.116, be given to the subjects when in the IRB's judgment the information would meaningfully add to the protection of the rights and welfare of subjects.
</P>
<P>(c) An IRB shall require documentation of informed consent or may waive documentation in accordance with § 21.117.
</P>
<P>(d) An IRB shall notify investigators and the institution in writing of its decision to approve or disapprove the proposed research activity, or of modifications required to secure IRB approval of the research activity. If the IRB decides to disapprove a research activity, it shall include in its written notification a statement of the reasons for its decision and give the investigator an opportunity to respond in person or in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB shall conduct continuing review of research requiring review by the convened IRB at intervals appropriate to the degree of risk, not less than once per year, except as described in § 21.109(f).
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Unless an IRB determines otherwise, continuing review of research is not required in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Research eligible for expedited review in accordance with § 21.110;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research reviewed by the IRB in accordance with the limited IRB review described in § 21.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), or (d)(7) or (8);
</P>
<P>(iii) Research that has progressed to the point that it involves only one or both of the following, which are part of the IRB-approved study:
</P>
<P>(A) Data analysis, including analysis of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, or
</P>
<P>(B) Accessing follow-up clinical data from procedures that subjects would undergo as part of clinical care.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) An IRB shall have authority to observe or have a third party observe the consent process and the research.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.110   Expedited review procedures for certain kinds of research involving no more than minimal risk, and for minor changes in approved research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of HHS has established, and published as a Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a list of categories of research that may be reviewed by the IRB through an expedited review procedure. The Secretary will evaluate the list at least every 8 years and amend it, as appropriate, after consultation with other federal departments and agencies and after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment. A copy of the list is available from the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An IRB may use the expedited review procedure to review the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Some or all of the research appearing on the list described in paragraph (a) of this section, unless the reviewer determines that the study involves more than minimal risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minor changes in previously approved research during the period for which approval is authorized; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which limited IRB review is a condition of exemption under § 21.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), and (d)(7) and (8).
</P>
<P>(2) Under an expedited review procedure, the review may be carried out by the IRB chairperson or by one or more experienced reviewers designated by the chairperson from among members of the IRB. In reviewing the research, the reviewers may exercise all of the authorities of the IRB except that the reviewers may not disapprove the research. A research activity may be disapproved only after review in accordance with the nonexpedited procedure set forth in § 21.108(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB that uses an expedited review procedure shall adopt a method for keeping all members advised of research proposals that have been approved under the procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) The department or agency head may restrict, suspend, terminate, or choose not to authorize an institution's or IRB's use of the expedited review procedure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.111" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.111   Criteria for IRB approval of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to approve research covered by this policy the IRB shall determine that all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Risks to subjects are minimized:
</P>
<P>(i) By using procedures that are consistent with sound research design and that do not unnecessarily expose subjects to risk, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever appropriate, by using procedures already being performed on the subjects for diagnostic or treatment purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) Risks to subjects are reasonable in relation to anticipated benefits, if any, to subjects, and the importance of the knowledge that may reasonably be expected to result. In evaluating risks and benefits, the IRB should consider only those risks and benefits that may result from the research (as distinguished from risks and benefits of therapies subjects would receive even if not participating in the research). The IRB should not consider possible long-range effects of applying knowledge gained in the research (<I>e.g.,</I> the possible effects of the research on public policy) as among those research risks that fall within the purview of its responsibility.
</P>
<P>(3) Selection of subjects is equitable. In making this assessment the IRB should take into account the purposes of the research and the setting in which the research will be conducted. The IRB should be particularly cognizant of the special problems of research that involves a category of subjects who are vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons.
</P>
<P>(4) Informed consent will be sought from each prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in accordance with, and to the extent required by, § 21.116.
</P>
<P>(5) Informed consent will be appropriately documented or appropriately waived in accordance with § 21.117.
</P>
<P>(6) When appropriate, the research plan makes adequate provision for monitoring the data collected to ensure the safety of subjects.
</P>
<P>(7) When appropriate, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary of HHS will, after consultation with the Office of Management and Budget's privacy office and other Federal departments and agencies that have adopted this policy, issue guidance to assist IRBs in assessing what provisions are adequate to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) For purposes of conducting the limited IRB review required by § 21.104(d)(7)), the IRB need not make the determinations at paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, and shall make the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(i) Broad consent for storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens is obtained in accordance with the requirements of § 21.116(a)(1)-(4), (a)(6), and (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Broad consent is appropriately documented or waiver of documentation is appropriate, in accordance with § 21.117; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If there is a change made for research purposes in the way the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens are stored or maintained, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(b) When some or all of the subjects are likely to be vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, additional safeguards have been included in the study to protect the rights and welfare of these subjects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.112" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.112   Review by Institution</HEAD>
<P>Research covered by this policy that has been approved by an IRB may be subject to further appropriate review and approval or disapproval by officials of the institution. However, those officials may not approve the research if it has not been approved by an IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.113" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.113   Suspension or Termination of IRB Approval of Research.</HEAD>
<P>An IRB shall have authority to suspend or terminate approval of research that is not being conducted in accordance with the IRB's requirements or that has been associated with unexpected serious harm to subjects. Any suspension or termination of approval shall include a statement of the reasons for the IRB's action and shall be reported promptly to the investigator, appropriate institutional officials, and the department or agency head.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.114" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.114   Cooperative Research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cooperative research projects are those projects covered by this policy that involve more than one institution. In the conduct of cooperative research projects, each institution is responsible for safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects and for complying with this policy.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any institution located in the United States that is engaged in cooperative research must rely upon approval by a single IRB for that portion of the research that is conducted in the United States. The reviewing IRB will be identified by the Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the research or proposed by the lead institution subject to the acceptance of the Federal department or agency supporting the research.
</P>
<P>(2) The following research is not subject to this provision:
</P>
<P>(i) Cooperative research for which more than single IRB review is required by law (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which any Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the research determines and documents that the use of a single IRB is not appropriate for the particular context.
</P>
<P>(c) For research not subject to paragraph (b) of this section, an institution participating in a cooperative project may enter into a joint review arrangement, rely on the review of another IRB, or make similar arrangements for avoiding duplication of effort.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.115" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.115   IRB Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An institution, or when appropriate an IRB, shall prepare and maintain adequate documentation of IRB activities, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Copies of all research proposals reviewed, scientific evaluations, if any, that accompany the proposals, approved sample consent forms, progress reports submitted by investigators, and reports of injuries to subjects.
</P>
<P>(2) Minutes of IRB meetings, which shall be in sufficient detail to show attendance at the meetings; actions taken by the IRB; the vote on these actions including the number of members voting for, against, and abstaining; the basis for requiring changes in or disapproving research; and a written summary of the discussion of controverted issues and their resolution.
</P>
<P>(3) Records of continuing review activities, including the rationale for conducting continuing review of research that otherwise would not require continuing review as described in § 21.109(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all correspondence between the IRB and the investigators.
</P>
<P>(5) A list of IRB members in the same detail as described in § 21.108(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(6) Written procedures for the IRB in the same detail as described in § 21.108(a)(3) and (4).
</P>
<P>(7) Statements of significant new findings provided to subjects, as required by § 21.116(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(8) The rationale for an expedited reviewer's determination under § 21.110(b)(1)(i) that research appearing on the expedited review list described in § 21.110(a) is more than minimal risk.
</P>
<P>(9) Documentation specifying the responsibilities that an institution and an organization operating an IRB each will undertake to ensure compliance with the requirements of this policy, as described in § 21.103(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The records required by this policy shall be retained for at least 3 years, and records relating to research that is conducted shall be retained for at least 3 years after completion of the research. The institution or IRB may maintain the records in printed form, or electronically. All records shall be accessible for inspection and copying by authorized representatives of the Federal department or agency at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.116" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.116   General Requirements for Informed Consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> General requirements for informed consent, whether written or oral, are set forth in this paragraph and apply to consent obtained in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. Broad consent may be obtained in lieu of informed consent obtained in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section only with respect to the storage, maintenance, and secondary research uses of identifiable private information and identifiable biospecimens. Waiver or alteration of consent in research involving public benefit and service programs conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local officials is described in paragraph (e) of this section. General waiver or alteration of informed consent is described in paragraph (f) of this section. Except as provided elsewhere in this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Before involving a human subject in research covered by this policy, an investigator shall obtain the legally effective informed consent of the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) An investigator shall seek informed consent only under circumstances that provide the prospective subject or the legally authorized representative sufficient opportunity to discuss and consider whether or not to participate and that minimize the possibility of coercion or undue influence.
</P>
<P>(3) The information that is given to the subject or the legally authorized representative shall be in language understandable to the subject or the legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(4) The prospective subject or the legally authorized representative must be provided with the information that a reasonable person would want to have in order to make an informed decision about whether to participate, and an opportunity to discuss that information.
</P>
<P>(5) Except for broad consent obtained in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Informed consent must begin with a concise and focused presentation of the key information that is most likely to assist a prospective subject or legally authorized representative in understanding the reasons why one might or might not want to participate in the research. This part of the informed consent must be organized and presented in a way that facilitates comprehension.
</P>
<P>(ii) Informed consent as a whole must present information in sufficient detail relating to the research, and must be organized and presented in a way that does not merely provide lists of isolated facts, but rather facilitates the prospective subject's or legally authorized representative's understanding of the reasons why one might or might not want to participate.
</P>
<P>(6) No informed consent may include any exculpatory language through which the subject or the legally authorized representative is made to waive or appear to waive any of the subject's legal rights, or releases or appears to release the investigator, the sponsor, the institution, or its agents from liability for negligence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic elements of informed consent.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section, in seeking informed consent the following information shall be provided to each subject or the legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the study involves research, an explanation of the purposes of the research and the expected duration of the subject's participation, a description of the procedures to be followed, and identification of any procedures that are experimental;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any reasonably foreseeable risks or discomforts to the subject;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any benefits to the subject or to others that may reasonably be expected from the research;
</P>
<P>(4) A disclosure of appropriate alternative procedures or courses of treatment, if any, that might be advantageous to the subject;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing the extent, if any, to which confidentiality of records identifying the subject will be maintained;
</P>
<P>(6) For research involving more than minimal risk, an explanation as to whether any compensation and an explanation as to whether any medical treatments are available if injury occurs and, if so, what they consist of, or where further information may be obtained;
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to pertinent questions about the research and research subjects' rights, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related injury to the subject;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that participation is voluntary, refusal to participate will involve no penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled, and the subject may discontinue participation at any time without penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled; and
</P>
<P>(9) One of the following statements about any research that involves the collection of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that identifiers might be removed from the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens and that, after such removal, the information or biospecimens could be used for future research studies or distributed to another investigator for future research studies without additional informed consent from the subject or the legally authorized representative, if this might be a possibility; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the subject's information or biospecimens collected as part of the research, even if identifiers are removed, will not be used or distributed for future research studies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional elements of informed consent.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section, one or more of the following elements of information, when appropriate, shall also be provided to each subject or the legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the particular treatment or procedure may involve risks to the subject (or to the embryo or fetus, if the subject is or may become pregnant) that are currently unforeseeable;
</P>
<P>(2) Anticipated circumstances under which the subject's participation may be terminated by the investigator without regard to the subject's or the legally authorized representative's consent;
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional costs to the subject that may result from participation in the research;
</P>
<P>(4) The consequences of a subject's decision to withdraw from the research and procedures for orderly termination of participation by the subject;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that significant new findings developed during the course of the research that may relate to the subject's willingness to continue participation will be provided to the subject;
</P>
<P>(6) The approximate number of subjects involved in the study;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that the subject's biospecimens (even if identifiers are removed) may be used for commercial profit and whether the subject will or will not share in this commercial profit;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement regarding whether clinically relevant research results, including individual research results, will be disclosed to subjects, and if so, under what conditions; and
</P>
<P>(9) For research involving biospecimens, whether the research will (if known) or might include whole genome sequencing (<I>i.e.,</I> sequencing of a human germline or somatic specimen with the intent to generate the genome or exome sequence of that specimen).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Elements of broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.</I> Broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens (collected for either research studies other than the proposed research or nonresearch purposes) is permitted as an alternative to the informed consent requirements in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. If the subject or the legally authorized representative is asked to provide broad consent, the following shall be provided to each subject or the subject's legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) The information required in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(5), and (b)(8) and, when appropriate, (c)(7) and (9) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the types of research that may be conducted with the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens. This description must include sufficient information such that a reasonable person would expect that the broad consent would permit the types of research conducted;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens that might be used in research, whether sharing of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens might occur, and the types of institutions or researchers that might conduct research with the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the period of time that the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens may be stored and maintained (which period of time could be indefinite), and a description of the period of time that the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens may be used for research purposes (which period of time could be indefinite);
</P>
<P>(5) Unless the subject or legally authorized representative will be provided details about specific research studies, a statement that they will not be informed of the details of any specific research studies that might be conducted using the subject's identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, including the purposes of the research, and that they might have chosen not to consent to some of those specific research studies;
</P>
<P>(6) Unless it is known that clinically relevant research results, including individual research results, will be disclosed to the subject in all circumstances, a statement that such results may not be disclosed to the subject; and
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to questions about the subject's rights and about storage and use of the subject's identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related harm.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waiver or alteration of consent in research involving public benefit and service programs conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local officials</I>—(1) <I>Waiver.</I> An IRB may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent for research under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. If an individual was asked to provide broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens in accordance with the requirements at paragraph (d) of this section, and refused to consent, an IRB cannot waive consent for the storage, maintenance, or secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alteration.</I> An IRB may approve a consent procedure that omits some, or alters some or all, of the elements of informed consent set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. An IRB may not omit or alter any of the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a broad consent procedure is used, an IRB may not omit or alter any of the elements required under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for waiver and alteration.</I> In order for an IRB to waive or alter consent as described in this subsection, the IRB must find and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The research or demonstration project is to be conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local government officials and is designed to study, evaluate, or otherwise examine:
</P>
<P>(A) Public benefit or service programs;
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for obtaining benefits or services under those programs;
</P>
<P>(C) Possible changes in or alternatives to those programs or procedures; or
</P>
<P>(D) Possible changes in methods or levels of payment for benefits or services under those programs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The research could not practicably be carried out without the waiver or alteration.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>General waiver or alteration of consent</I>—(1) <I>Waiver.</I> An IRB may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent for research under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section. If an individual was asked to provide broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens in accordance with the requirements at paragraph (d) of this section, and refused to consent, an IRB cannot waive consent for the storage, maintenance, or secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alteration.</I> An IRB may approve a consent procedure that omits some, or alters some or all, of the elements of informed consent set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section. An IRB may not omit or alter any of the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a broad consent procedure is used, an IRB may not omit or alter any of the elements required under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for waiver and alteration.</I> In order for an IRB to waive or alter consent as described in this subsection, the IRB must find and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The research involves no more than minimal risk to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(ii) The research could not practicably be carried out without the requested waiver or alteration;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the research involves using identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, the research could not practicably be carried out without using such information or biospecimens in an identifiable format;
</P>
<P>(iv) The waiver or alteration will not adversely affect the rights and welfare of the subjects; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whenever appropriate, the subjects or legally authorized representatives will be provided with additional pertinent information after participation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Screening, recruiting, or determining eligibility.</I> An IRB may approve a research proposal in which an investigator will obtain information or biospecimens for the purpose of screening, recruiting, or determining the eligibility of prospective subjects without the informed consent of the prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, if either of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The investigator will obtain information through oral or written communication with the prospective subject or legally authorized representative, or
</P>
<P>(2) The investigator will obtain identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens by accessing records or stored identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Posting of clinical trial consent form.</I> (1) For each clinical trial conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, one IRB-approved informed consent form used to enroll subjects must be posted by the awardee or the Federal department or agency component conducting the trial on a publicly available Federal Web site that will be established as a repository for such informed consent forms.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the clinical trial determines that certain information should not be made publicly available on a Federal Web site (<I>e.g.</I> confidential commercial information), such Federal department or agency may permit or require redactions to the information posted.
</P>
<P>(3) The informed consent form must be posted on the Federal Web site after the clinical trial is closed to recruitment, and no later than 60 days after the last study visit by any subject, as required by the protocol.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Preemption.</I> The informed consent requirements in this policy are not intended to preempt any applicable Federal, state, or local laws (including tribal laws passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe) that require additional information to be disclosed in order for informed consent to be legally effective.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Emergency medical care.</I> Nothing in this policy is intended to limit the authority of a physician to provide emergency medical care, to the extent the physician is permitted to do so under applicable Federal, state, or local law (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.117" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.117   Documentation of informed consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, informed consent shall be documented by the use of a written informed consent form approved by the IRB and signed (including in an electronic format) by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. A written copy shall be given to the person signing the informed consent form.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the informed consent form may be either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A written informed consent form that meets the requirements of § 21.116. The investigator shall give either the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative adequate opportunity to read the informed consent form before it is signed; alternatively, this form may be read to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) A short form written informed consent form stating that the elements of informed consent required by § 21.116 have been presented orally to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, and that the key information required by § 21.116(a)(5)(i) was presented first to the subject, before other information, if any, was provided. The IRB shall approve a written summary of what is to be said to the subject or the legally authorized representative. When this method is used, there shall be a witness to the oral presentation. Only the short form itself is to be signed by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. However, the witness shall sign both the short form and a copy of the summary, and the person actually obtaining consent shall sign a copy of the summary. A copy of the summary shall be given to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in addition to a copy of the short form.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An IRB may waive the requirement for the investigator to obtain a signed informed consent form for some or all subjects if it finds any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) That the only record linking the subject and the research would be the informed consent form and the principal risk would be potential harm resulting from a breach of confidentiality. Each subject (or legally authorized representative) will be asked whether the subject wants documentation linking the subject with the research, and the subject's wishes will govern;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and involves no procedures for which written consent is normally required outside of the research context; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the subjects or legally authorized representatives are members of a distinct cultural group or community in which signing forms is not the norm, that the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and provided there is an appropriate alternative mechanism for documenting that informed consent was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases in which the documentation requirement is waived, the IRB may require the investigator to provide subjects or legally authorized representatives with a written statement regarding the research.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.118" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.118   Applications and proposals lacking definite plans for involvement of human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Certain types of applications for grants, cooperative agreements, or contracts are submitted to Federal departments or agencies with the knowledge that subjects may be involved within the period of support, but definite plans would not normally be set forth in the application or proposal. These include activities such as institutional type grants when selection of specific projects is the institution's responsibility; research training grants in which the activities involving subjects remain to be selected; and projects in which human subjects' involvement will depend upon completion of instruments, prior animal studies, or purification of compounds. Except for research waived under § 21.101(i) or exempted under § 21.104, no human subjects may be involved in any project supported by these awards until the project has been reviewed and approved by the IRB, as provided in this policy, and certification submitted, by the institution, to the Federal department or agency component supporting the research.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.119" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.119   Research undertaken without the intention of involving human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Except for research waived under § 21.101(i) or exempted under § 21.104, in the event research is undertaken without the intention of involving human subjects, but it is later proposed to involve human subjects in the research, the research shall first be reviewed and approved by an IRB, as provided in this policy, a certification submitted by the institution to the Federal department or agency component supporting the research, and final approval given to the proposed change by the Federal department or agency component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.120" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.120   Evaluation and disposition of applications and proposals for research to be conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The department or agency head will evaluate all applications and proposals involving human subjects submitted to the Federal department or agency through such officers and employees of the Federal department or agency and such experts and consultants as the department or agency head determines to be appropriate. This evaluation will take into consideration the risks to the subjects, the adequacy of protection against these risks, the potential benefits of the research to the subjects and others, and the importance of the knowledge gained or to be gained.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of this evaluation, the department or agency head may approve or disapprove the application or proposal, or enter into negotiations to develop an approvable one.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.121" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.121   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.122" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.122   Use of Federal funds.</HEAD>
<P>Federal funds administered by a Federal department or agency may not be expended for research involving human subjects unless the requirements of this policy have been satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.123" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.123   Early termination of research support: Evaluation of applications and proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The department or agency head may require that Federal department or agency support for any project be terminated or suspended in the manner prescribed in applicable program requirements, when the department or agency head finds an institution has materially failed to comply with the terms of this policy.
</P>
<P>(b) In making decisions about supporting or approving applications or proposals covered by this policy the department or agency head may take into account, in addition to all other eligibility requirements and program criteria, factors such as whether the applicant has been subject to a termination or suspension under paragraph (a) of this section and whether the applicant or the person or persons who would direct or has/have directed the scientific and technical aspects of an activity has/have, in the judgment of the department or agency head, materially failed to discharge responsibility for the protection of the rights and welfare of human subjects (whether or not the research was subject to federal regulation).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.124" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.22.0.66.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.124   Conditions.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to any research project or any class of research projects the department or agency head of either the conducting or the supporting Federal department or agency may impose additional conditions prior to or at the time of approval when in the judgment of the department or agency head additional conditions are necessary for the protection of human subjects.










</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 22—PROGRAM FRAUD CIVIL REMEDIES ACT OF 1986
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 99-509, §§ 6101-6104, 100 Stat. 1874, 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 22.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.1   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part implements the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986, Public Law No. 99-509, sections 6101-6104, 100 Stat. 1874 (October 21, 1986), to be codified at 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812. 31 U.S.C. 3809 of the statute requires each authority head to promulgate regulations necessary to implement the provisions of the statute. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part (1) establishes administrative procedures for imposing civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit, or present, or cause to be made, submitted, or presented, false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to authorities or to their agents, and (2) specifies the hearing and appeal rights of persons subject to allegations of liability for such penalties and assessments. 








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>ALJ</I> means an Administrative Law Judge in the authority appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105 or detailed to the authority pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3344. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ARB</I> means the Administrative Review Board delegated to act as the authorized representative of the Secretary of Labor in review or on appeal of decisions and recommendations as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).






</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority</I> means the United States Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority head</I> means the Secretary of Labor or his or her designee. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Benefit</I> means, in the context of <I>statement,</I> anything of value, including but not limited to any advantage, preference, privilege, license, permit, favorable decision, ruling, status, or loan guarantee. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Claim</I> means, any request, demand, or submission— 
</P>
<P>(1) Made to the authority for property, services, or money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits); 
</P>
<P>(2) Made to a recipient of property, services, or money from the authority or to a party to a contract with the authority— 
</P>
<P>(i) For property or services if the United States— 
</P>
<P>(A) Provided such property or services; 
</P>
<P>(B) Provided any portion of the funds for the purchase of such property or services; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Will reimburse such recipient or party for the purchase of such property or services; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) For the payment of money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits) if the United States— 
</P>
<P>(A) Provided any portion of the money requested or demanded; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Will reimburse such recipient or party for any portion of the money paid on such request or demand; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Made to the authority which has the effect of decreasing an obligation to pay or account for property, services, or money. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Complaint</I> means the administrative complaint served by the reviewing official on the defendant under § 22.7. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Defendant</I> means any person alleged in a complaint under § 22.7 to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 22.3. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Government</I> means the United States Government. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Individual</I> means a natural person. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Initial decision</I> means the written decision of the ALJ required by § 22.10 or § 22.37, and includes a revised initial decision issued following a remand or a motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Investigating official</I> means the Inspector General of the Department of Labor or an officer or employee of the Office of the Inspector General designated by the Inspector General and serving in a Senior Executive Service position.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Knows or has reason to know,</I> means that a person, with respect to a claim or statement— 
</P>
<P>(1) Has actual knowledge that the claim or statement is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; 
</P>
<P>(2) Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Makes,</I> wherever it appears, shall include the terms presents, submits, and causes to be made, presented, or submitted. As the context requires, <I>making</I> or <I>made,</I> shall likewise include the corresponding forms of such terms. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or private organization, and includes the plural of that term. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Representative</I> means an attorney who is in good standing of the bar in any state, territory, or possession of the United States or of the District of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or other representative meeting the qualifications of a non-attorney representative found at 29 CFR 18.34 and designated by a party in writing. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Reviewing official</I> means the Solicitor of the Department of Labor or his designee who is— 
</P>
<P>(1) Not subject to supervision by, or required to report to, the investigating official; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Not employed in the organizational unit of the authority in which the investigating official is employed; 
</P>
<P>(3) Serving in a Senior Executive Service position.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Statement</I> means any representation, certification, affirmation, document, record, or accounting or bookkeeping entry made— 
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a claim or to obtain the approval or payment of a claim (including relating to eligibility to make a claim); or 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to (including relating to eligibility for)— 
</P>
<P>(i) A contract with, or a bid or proposal for a contract with; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A grant, loan, or benefit from,
</P>
<FP>the authority, or any State, political subdivision of a State, or other party, if the United States Government provides any portion of the money or property under such contractor for such grant, loan, or benefit, or if the Government will reimburse such State, political subdivision, or party for any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit. 
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 19985, May 3, 1996; 72 FR 37098, July 9, 2007; 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.3   Basis for civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any person who makes a claim that the person knows or has reason to know— 
</P>
<P>(i) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes or is supported by any written statement which asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes or is supported by any written statement that— 
</P>
<P>(A) Omits a material fact;
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of such omission; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Is a statement in which the person making such statement has a duty to include such material fact; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Is for payment for the provision of property or services which the person has not provided as claimed,
</P>
<FP>shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each such claim. 
</FP>
<P>(2) Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim. 
</P>
<P>(3) A claim shall be considered made to the authority, recipient, or party when such claim is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of the authority, recipient, or party. 
</P>
<P>(4) Each claim for property, services, or money is subject to a civil penalty regardless of whether such property, services, or money is actually delivered or paid. 
</P>
<P>(5) If the Government has made any payment (including transferred property or provided services) on a claim, a person subject to a civil penalty under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall also be subject to an assessment of not more than twice the amount of such claim or that portion thereof that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Such assessment shall be in lieu of damages sustained by the Government because of such claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any person who makes a written statement that— 
</P>
<P>(i) The person knows or has reason to know— 
</P>
<P>(A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent because it omits a material fact that the person making the statement has a duty to include in such statement; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each such statement. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each written representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement. 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement shall be considered made to the authority when such statement is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of the authority. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications for certain benefits.</I> (1) In the case of any claim or statement made by any individual relating to any of the benefits listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section received by such individual, such individual may be held liable for penalties and assessments under this section only if such claim or statement is made by such individual in making application for such benefits with respect to such individual's eligibility to receive such benefits. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, the term <I>benefits</I> means benefits under the Black Lung Benefits Act, which are intended for the personal use of the individual who receives the benefits or for a member of the individual's family. 
</P>
<P>(d) No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to establish liability under this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim or statement under this section, each person may be held liable for a civil penalty under this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim under this section on which the Government has made payment (including transferred property or provided services), an assessment may be imposed against any such person or jointly and severally against any combination of such persons. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.4   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an investigating official concludes that a subpoena pursuant to the authority conferred by 31 U.S.C. 3804(a) is warranted— 
</P>
<P>(1) The subpoena so issued shall notify the person to whom it is addressed of the authority under which the subpoena is issued and shall identify the records or documents sought;
</P>
<P>(2) The investigating official may designate a person to act on his or her behalf to receive the documents sought; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The person receiving such subpoena shall be required to tender to the investigating official or the person designated to receive the documents a certification that the documents sought have been produced, or that such documents are not available and the reasons therefor, or that such documents, suitably identified, have been withheld based upon the assertion of an identified privilege. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the investigating official concludes that an action under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act may be warranted, the investigating official shall submit a report containing the findings and conclusions of such investigation to the reviewing official. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall preclude or limit an investigating official's discretion to refer allegations directly to the Department of Justice for suit under the False Claims Act or other civil relief, or to defer or postpone a report or referral to the reviewing official to avoid interference with a criminal investigation or prosecution. 
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section modifies any responsibility of an investigating official to report violations of criminal law to the Attorney General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.5   Review by the reviewing official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, based on the report of the investigating official under § 22.4(b), the reviewing official determines that there is adequate evidence to believe that a person is liable under § 22.3 of this part, the reviewing official shall transmit to the Attorney General a written notice of the reviewing official's intention to issue a complaint under § 22.7. 
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice shall include— 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reviewing official's reasons for issuing a complaint; 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement specifying the evidence that supports the allegations of liability; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the claims or statements upon which the allegations of liability are based; 
</P>
<P>(4) An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of § 22.3 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claims or statements known by the reviewing official or the investigating official; and 
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.6   Prerequisites for issuing a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The reviewing official may issue a complaint under § 22.7 only if— 
</P>
<P>(1) The Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in a written statement described in 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), and 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of allegations of liability under § 22.3(a) with respect to a claim, the reviewing official determines that, with respect to such claim or a group of related claims submitted at the same time such claim is submitted (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section), the amount of money or the value of property or services demanded or requested in violation of § 22.3(a) does not exceed $150,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, a related group of claims submitted at the same time shall include only those claims arising from the same transaction (<I>e.g.,</I> grant, loan, application, or contract) that are submitted simultaneously as part of a single request, demand, or submission.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the reviewing official's authority to join in a single complaint against a person claims that are unrelated or were not submitted simultaneously, regardless of the amount of money, or the value of property or services, demanded or requested. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.7   Complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On or after the date the Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), the reviewing official may serve a complaint on the defendant, as provided in § 22.8. 
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint shall state—
</P>
<P>(1) The allegations of liability against the defendant, including the statutory basis for liability, an identification of the claims or statements that are the basis for the alleged liability, and the reasons why liability allegedly arises from such claims or statements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum amount of penalties and assessments for which the defendant may be held liable; 
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions for filing an answer to request a hearing, including a specific statement of the defendant's right to request a hearing by filing an answer and to be represented by a representative; and 
</P>
<P>(4) That failure to file an answer within 30 days of service of the complaint will result in the imposition of the maximum amount of penalties and assessments without right to appeal, as provided in § 22.10. 
</P>
<P>(c) At the same time the reviewing official serves the complaint, he or she shall serve the defendant with a copy of these regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.8   Service of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of a complaint must be made by certified or registered mail or by delivery in any manner authorized by Rule 4(d) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. Service is complete upon receipt. 
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom the complaint was served, and the manner and date of service, may be made by—
</P>
<P>(1) Affidavit of the individual serving the complaint by delivery; 
</P>
<P>(2) A United States Postal Service return receipt card acknowledging receipt; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Written acknowledgment of receipt by the defendant or his representative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.9   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The defendant may request a hearing by filing an answer with the reviewing official within 30 days of service of the complaint. An answer shall be deemed to be a request for hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the answer, the defendant—
</P>
<P>(1) Shall admit or deny each of the allegations of liability made in the complaint; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall state any defense on which the defendant intends to rely; 
</P>
<P>(3) May state any reasons why the defendant contends that the penalties and assessments should be less than the statutory maximum; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Shall state the name, address, and telephone number of the person authorized by the defendant to act as defendant's representative, if any. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant is unable to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section within the time provided, the defendant may, before the expiration of 30 days from service of the complaint, file with the reviewing official a general answer denying liability and requesting a hearing, and a request for an extension of time within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. The reviewing official shall file promptly with the ALJ the complaint, the general answer denying liability, and the request for an extension of time as provided in § 22.11. For good cause shown, the ALJ may grant the defendant up to 30 additional days within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.10   Default upon failure to file an answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the defendant does not file an answer within the time prescribed in § 22.9(a), the reviewing official may refer the complaint to the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the referral of the complaint, the ALJ shall promptly serve on defendant in the manner prescribed in § 22.8, a notice that an initial decision will be issued under this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall assume the facts alleged in the complaint to be true, and, if such facts establish liability under § 22.3, the ALJ shall issue an initial decision imposing the maximum amount of penalties and assessments allowed under the statute. 
</P>
<P>(d) Except as otherwise provided in this section, by failing to file a timely answer, the defendant waives any right to further review of the penalties and assessments imposed under paragraph (c) of this section and the initial decision shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after it is issued.
</P>
<P>(e) If, before such an initial decision becomes final, the defendant files a motion with the ALJ seeking to reopen on the grounds that extraordinary circumstances prevented the defendant from filing an answer, the initial decision shall be stayed pending the ALJ's decision on the motion. 
</P>
<P>(f) If, on such motion, the defendant can demonstrate extraordinary circumstances excusing the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ shall withdraw the initial decision in paragraph (c) of this section, if such a decision has been issued, and shall grant the defendant an opportunity to answer the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(g) A decision of the ALJ denying a defendant's motion under paragraph (e) of this section is not subject to reconsideration under § 22.38. 




</P>
<P>(h) The defendant may appeal to the ARB the decision denying a motion to reopen by filing a notice of appeal with the ARB within 15 days after the ALJ denies the motion. The timely filing of a notice of appeal shall stay the initial decision until the ARB decides the issue. 
</P>
<P>(i) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the ARB, the ALJ shall forward the record of the proceeding to the ARB. 
</P>
<P>(j) The ARB shall decide expeditiously whether extraordinary circumstances excuse the defendant's failure to file a timely answer based solely on the record before the ALJ.



 
</P>
<P>(k) If the ARB decides that extraordinary circumstances excused the defendant's failure to file a timely answer, the ARB shall remand the case to the ALJ with instructions to grant the defendant an opportunity to answer. 
</P>
<P>(l) If the ARB decides that the defendant's failure to file a timely answer is not excused, the ARB shall reinstate the initial decision of the ALJ, which shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after the ARB issues such decision and it becomes final in accordance with Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.11   Referral of complaint and answer to the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an answer, the reviewing official shall file the complaint and answer with the ALJ. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.12   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the ALJ receives the complaint and answer, the ALJ shall promptly serve a notice of hearing upon the defendant in the manner prescribed by 29 CFR part 18. At the same time, the ALJ shall send a copy of such notice to the representative for the Government.

 
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice shall include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The tentative time and place, and the nature of the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held; 
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law to be asserted; 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the procedures for the conduct of the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(5) The name, address, and telephone number of the representative of the Government and of the defendant, if any; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Such other matters as the ALJ deems appropriate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.13   Parties to the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties to the hearing shall be the defendant and the authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3730(c)(5), a private plaintiff under the False Claims Act may participate in these proceedings to the extent authorized by the provisions of that Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.14   Separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigating official, the reviewing official, and any employee or agent of the authority who takes part in investigating, preparing, or presenting a particular case may not, in such case or a factually related case— 
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in the hearing as the ALJ; 
</P>
<P>(2) Participate or advise in the initial decision or the review of the initial decision by the ARB, except as a witness or a representative in public proceedings; or


</P>
<P>(3) Make the collection of penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806. 
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ shall not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision or direction of the investigating official or the reviewing official. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the representative for the Government may be employed anywhere in the authority, including in the offices of either the investigating official or the reviewing official. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.15   Ex parte contacts.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) shall communicate in any way with the ALJ on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.16   Disqualification of reviewing official or ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A reviewing official or ALJ in a particular case may disqualify himself or herself at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) A party may file with the ALJ a motion for disqualification of a reviewing official or an ALJ. Such motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit alleging personal bias or other reason for disqualification. 
</P>
<P>(c) Such motion and affidavit shall be filed promptly upon the party's discovery of reasons requiring disqualification, or such objections shall be deemed waived. 
</P>
<P>(d) Such affidavit shall state specific facts that support the party's belief that personal bias or other reason for disqualification exists and the time and circumstances of the party's discovery of such facts. It shall be accompanied by a certificate of the representative of record that it is made in good faith. 
</P>
<P>(e) Upon the filing of such a motion and affidavit, the ALJ shall proceed no further in the case until he or she resolves the matter of disqualification in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) If the ALJ determines that a reviewing official is disqualified, the ALJ shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ disqualifies himself or herself, the case shall be reassigned promptly to another ALJ. </P>
<P>(3) If the ALJ denies a motion to disqualify, the ARB may determine the matter only as part of its review of the initial decision upon appeal, if any.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.17   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise limited by this part, all parties may— 
</P>
<P>(a) Be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative; 
</P>
<P>(b) Participate in any conference held by the ALJ; 
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct discovery; 
</P>
<P>(d) Agree to stipulations of fact or law, which shall be made part of the record; 
</P>
<P>(e) Present evidence relevant to the issues at the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(f) Present and cross-examine witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(g) Present oral arguments at the hearing as permitted by the ALJ; and 
</P>
<P>(h) Submit written briefs and proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law after the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.18   Authority of the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ has the authority to— 
</P>
<P>(1) Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties; 
</P>
<P>(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time; 
</P>
<P>(3) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations; 
</P>
<P>(5) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents at depositions or at hearings; 
</P>
<P>(6) Rule on motions and other procedural matters; 
</P>
<P>(7) Regulate the scope and timing of discovery; 
</P>
<P>(8) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties; 
</P>
<P>(9) Examine witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(10) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence; 
</P>
<P>(11) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts; 
</P>
<P>(12) Upon motion of a party, decide cases, in whole or in part, by summary judgment where there is no disputed issue of material fact; 
</P>
<P>(13) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing on motions in person or by telephone; and 
</P>
<P>(14) Exercise such other authority as is necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the ALJ under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ does not have the authority to find Federal statutes or regulations invalid. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.19   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may schedule prehearing conferences as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the motion of any party, the ALJ shall schedule at least one prehearing conference at a reasonable time in advance of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ may use prehearing conferences to discuss the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues; 
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amendments to the pleadings, including the need for a more definite statement; 
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations and admissions of fact or as to the contents and authenticity of documents; 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record; 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether a party chooses to waive appearance at an oral hearing and to submit only documentary evidence (subject to the objection of other parties) and written argument; 
</P>
<P>(6) Limitation of the number of witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(7) Scheduling dates for the exchange of witness lists and of proposed exhibits; 
</P>
<P>(8) Discovery; 
</P>
<P>(9) The time and place for the hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the fair and just disposition of the proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may issue an order containing all matters agreed upon by the parties or ordered by the ALJ at a prehearing conference. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.20   Disclosure of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant may review any relevant and material documents, transcripts, records, and other materials that relate to the allegations set out in the complaint and upon which the findings and conclusions of the investigating official under § 22.4(b) are based, unless such documents are subject to a privilege under Federal law. Upon payment of fees for duplication, the defendant may obtain copies of such documents. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant also may obtain a copy of all exculpatory information in the possession of the reviewing official or investigating official relating to the allegations in the complaint, even if it is contained in a document that would otherwise be privileged. If the document would otherwise be privileged, only that portion containing exculpatory information must be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notice sent to the Attorney General from the reviewing official as described in § 22.5 is not discoverable under any circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(d) The defendant may file a motion to compel disclosure of the documents subject to the provisions of this section. Such a motion may only be filed with the ALJ following the filing of an answer pursuant to § 22.9. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.21   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following types of discovery are authorized: 
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for production of documents for inspection and copying; 
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for admissions of the authenticity of any relevant document or of the truth of any relevant fact; 
</P>
<P>(3) Written interrogatories; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Depositions. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section and §§ 22.22 and 22.23, the term <I>documents</I> includes information, documents, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data and documentary evidence. Nothing contained herein shall be interpreted to require the creation of a document. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless mutually agreed to by the parties, discovery is available only as ordered by the ALJ. The ALJ shall regulate the timing of discovery. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions for discovery.</I> (1) A party seeking discovery may file a motion with the ALJ. Such a motion shall be accompanied by a copy of the requested discovery, or in the case of depositions, a summary of the scope of the proposed deposition. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within ten days of service, a party may file an opposition to the motion and/or a motion for protective order as provided in § 22.24. 
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ may grant a motion for discovery only if he finds that the discovery sought—
</P>
<P>(i) Is necessary for the expeditious, fair, and reasonable consideration of the issues; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not unduly costly or burdensome; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Will not unduly delay the proceeding; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not seek privileged information. 
</P>
<P>(4) The burden of showing that discovery should be allowed is on the party seeking discovery.
</P>
<P>(5) The ALJ may grant discovery subject to a protective order under § 22.24. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depositions.</I> (1) If a motion for deposition is granted, the ALJ shall issue a subpoena for the deponent, which may require the deponent to produce documents. The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the deposition will be held. 
</P>
<P>(2) The party seeking to depose shall serve the subpoena in the manner prescribed in § 22.8. 
</P>
<P>(3) The deponent may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena or a motion for a protective order within ten days of service. 
</P>
<P>(4) The party seeking to depose shall provide for the taking of a verbatim transcript of the deposition, which it shall make available to all other parties for inspection and copying. 
</P>
<P>(f) Each party shall bear its own costs of discovery. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.22   Exchange of witness lists, statements, and exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 15 days before the hearing or at such other time as may be ordered by the ALJ, the parties shall exchange witness lists, copies of prior statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including copies of any written statements that the party intends to offer in lieu of live testimony in accordance with § 22.33(b). At the time the above documents are exchanged, any party that intends to rely on the transcript of deposition testimony in lieu of live testimony at the hearing, if permitted by the ALJ, shall provide each party with a copy of the specific pages of the transcript it intends to introduce into evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a party objects, the ALJ shall not admit into evidence the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list or any exhibit not provided to the opposing party as provided above unless the ALJ finds good cause for the failure or that there is no prejudice to the objecting party. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless another party objects within the time set by the ALJ, documents exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed to be authentic for the purpose of admissibility at the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.23   Subpoenas for attendance at hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party wishing to procure the appearance and testimony of any individual at the hearing may request that the ALJ issue a subpoena. 
</P>
<P>(b) A subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of an individual may also require the individual to produce documents at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) A party seeking a subpoena shall file a written request therefor not less than 15 days before the date fixed for the hearing unless otherwise allowed by the ALJ for good cause shown. Such request shall specify any documents to be produced and shall designate the witnesses and describe the address and location thereof with sufficient particularity to permit such witnesses to be found. 
</P>
<P>(d) The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the witness is to appear and any documents the witness is to produce. 
</P>
<P>(e) The party seeking the subpoena shall serve it in the manner prescribed in § 22.8. A subpoena on a party or upon an individual under the control of a party may be served by first class mail. 
</P>
<P>(f) A party or the individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena within ten days after service or on or before the time specified in the subpoena for compliance if it is less than ten days after service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.24   Protective order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party or a prospective witness or deponent may file a motion for a protective order with respect to discovery sought by an opposing party or with respect to the hearing, seeking to limit the availability or disclosure of evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) In issuing a protective order, the ALJ may make any order which justice requires to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense, including one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the discovery not be had; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place; 
</P>
<P>(3) That the discovery may be had only through a method of discovery other than that requested; 
</P>
<P>(4) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters; 
</P>
<P>(5) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the ALJ; 
</P>
<P>(6) That the contents of discovery or evidence be sealed; 
</P>
<P>(7) That a deposition after being sealed be opened only by order of the ALJ; 
</P>
<P>(8) That a trade secret or other confidential research, development, commercial information, or facts pertaining to any criminal investigation, proceeding, or other administrative investigation not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or 
</P>
<P>(9) That the parties simultaneously file specified documents or information enclosed in sealed envelopes to be opened as directed by the ALJ. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.25   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>The party requesting a subpoena shall pay the cost of the fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage shall accompany the subpoena when served, except that when a subpoena is issued on behalf of the authority, a check for witness fees and mileage need not accompany the subpoena. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.26   Form, filing and service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> (1) Documents filed with the ALJ shall include an original and two copies. 
</P>
<P>(2) Every pleading and paper filed in the proceeding shall contain a caption setting forth the title of the action, the case number assigned by the ALJ, and a designation of the paper (e.g., motion to quash subpoena). 
</P>
<P>(3) Every pleading and paper shall be signed by, and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or the person on whose behalf the paper was filed, or his or her representative. 
</P>
<P>(4) Papers are considered filed when they are mailed. Date of mailing may be established by a certificate from the party or its representative or by proof that the document was sent by certified or registered mail. 


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> A party filing a document with the ALJ shall, at the time of filing, serve a copy of such document on every other party. Service upon any party of any document other than those required to be served as prescribed in § 22.8 shall be made in accordance with 29 CFR part 18. When a party is represented by a representative, service shall be made upon such representative in lieu of the actual party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate of the individual serving the document, setting forth the manner of service, shall be proof of service.












</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.27" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.27   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time under this part or in an order issued thereunder, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default, and includes the last day of the period, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed by the Federal government, in which event it includes the next business day. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the period of time allowed is less than seven days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays observed by the Federal government shall be excluded from the computation. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where a document has been served or issued by placing it in the mail, an additional five days will be added to the time permitted for any response. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.28" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.28   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application to the ALJ for an order or ruling shall be by motion. Motions shall state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged, and shall be filed with the ALJ and served on all other parties. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions shall be in writing. The ALJ may require that oral motions be reduced to writing. 
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 days after a written motion is served, or such other time as may be fixed by the ALJ, any party may file a response to such motion. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses thereto has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response. 
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ shall make a reasonable effort to dispose of all outstanding motions prior to the beginning of the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.29" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.29   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may sanction a person, including any party or representative for—
</P>
<P>(1) Failing to comply with an order, rule, or procedure governing the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(2) Failing to prosecute or defend an action; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Engaging in other misconduct that interferes with the speedy, orderly, or fair conduct of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any such sanction, including but not limited to those listed in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, shall reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a party fails to comply with an order, including an order for taking a deposition, the production of evidence within the party's control, or a request for admission, the ALJ may—
</P>
<P>(1) Draw an inference in favor of the requesting party with regard to the information sought; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of requests for admission, deem each matter of which an admission is requested to be admitted; 
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibit the party failing to comply with such order from introducing evidence concerning, or otherwise relying, upon testimony relating to the information; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Strike any part of the pleadings or other submissions of the party failing to comply with such request. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a party fails to prosecute or defend an action under this part commenced by service of a notice of hearing, the ALJ may dismiss the action or may issue an initial decision imposing penalties and assessments. 
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may refuse to consider any motion, request, response, brief or other document which is not filed in a timely fashion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.30   The hearing and burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall conduct a hearing on the record in order to determine whether the defendant is liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 22.3 and, if so, the appropriate amount of any such civil penalty or assessment considering any aggravating or mitigating factors. 
</P>
<P>(b) The authority shall prove defendant's liability and any aggravating factors by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(c) The defendant shall prove any affirmative defenses and any mitigating factors by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.31   Determining the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining an appropriate amount of civil penalties and assessments, the ALJ and the ARB, upon appeal, should evaluate any circumstances that mitigate or aggravate the violation and should articulate in their opinions the reasons that support the penalties and assessments they impose. Because of the intangible costs of fraud, the expense of investigating such conduct, and the need to deter others who might be similarly tempted, ordinarily double damages and a significant civil penalty should be imposed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Although not exhaustive, the following factors are among those that may influence the ALJ and the ARB in determining the amount of penalties and assessments to impose with respect to the misconduct (<I>i.e.,</I> the false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements) charged in the complaint: 
</P>
<P>(1) The number of false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made; 
</P>
<P>(3) The degree of the defendant's culpability with respect to the misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed; 
</P>
<P>(5) The value of the Government's actual loss as a result of the misconduct, including forseeable consequential damages and the costs of investigation; 
</P>
<P>(6) The relationship of the amount imposed as civil penalties to the amount of the Government's loss; 
</P>
<P>(7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon national defense, public health or safety, or public confidence in the management of Government programs and operations, including particularly the impact on the intended beneficiaries of such programs; 
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the defendant has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the defendant attempted to conceal the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(10) The degree to which the defendant has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it; 
</P>
<P>(11) Where the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the defendant, the extent to which the defendant's practices fostered or attempted to preclude such misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(12) Whether the defendant cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the defendant assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers; 
</P>
<P>(14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the defendant's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the defendant's prior participation in the program or in similar transactions; 
</P>
<P>(15) Whether the defendant has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the Government of the United States or of a State, directly or indirectly; and 
</P>
<P>(16) The need to deter the defendant and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the ALJ or the ARB from considering any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the offense for which penalties and assessments are imposed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.32   Location of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing may be held— 
</P>
<P>(1) In any judicial district of the United States in which the defendant resides or transacts business; 
</P>
<P>(2) In any judicial district of the United States in which the claim or statement in issue was made; or 
</P>
<P>(3) In such other place as may be agreed upon by the defendant and the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each party shall have the opportunity to present argument with respect to the location of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing shall be held at the place and at the time ordered by the ALJ. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.33   Witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, testimony at the hearing shall be given orally by witnesses under oath or affirmation. 
</P>
<P>(b) At the discretion of the ALJ, testimony may be admitted in the form of a written statement or deposition. Any such written statement must be provided to all other parties along with the last known address of such witness, in a manner which allows sufficient time for other parties to subpoena such witness for cross-examination at the hearing. Prior written statements of witnesses proposed to testify at the hearing and deposition transcripts shall be exchanged as provided in § 22.22(a). 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to (1) Make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth, (2) Avoid needless consumption of time, and (3) Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ shall permit the parties to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts. 
</P>
<P>(e) At the discretion of the ALJ, a witness may be cross-examined on matters relevant to the proceeding without regard to the scope of his or her direct examination. To the extent permitted by the ALJ, cross-examination on matters outside the scope of direct examination shall be conducted in the manner of direct examination and may proceed by leading questions only if the witness is a hostile witness, an adverse party, or a witness identified with an adverse party. 
</P>
<P>(f) Upon motion of any party, the ALJ shall order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of other witnesses. This rule does not authorize exclusion of— 
</P>
<P>(1) A party who is an individual; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a party that is not an individual, an officer or employee of the party appearing for the entity pro se or designated by the party's representative; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An individual whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of its case, including an individual employed by the Government engaged in assisting the representative for the Government. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.34" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.34   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall determine the admissibility of evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in this part, the ALJ shall not be bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the ALJ may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence where appropriate, e.g., to exclude unreliable evidence. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall exclude irrelevant and immaterial evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by considerations of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence. 
</P>
<P>(e) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if it is privileged under Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence concerning offers of compromise or settlement shall be inadmissible to the extent provided in Rule 408 of the Federal Rules of Evidence. 
</P>
<P>(g) The ALJ shall permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence. 
</P>
<P>(h) All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by all parties, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 22.24. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.35" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.35   The record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing will be recorded and transcribed. Transcripts may be obtained following the hearing from the ALJ at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of duplication. 
</P>
<P>(b) The transcript of testimony, exhibits, and other evidence admitted at the hearing, and all papers and requests filed in the proceeding constitute the record for the decision by the ALJ, the ARB, and the authority head.






</P>
<P>(c) The record may be inspected and copied (upon payment of a reasonable fee) by anyone, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 22.24. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.36" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.36   Post-hearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may require the parties to file post-hearing briefs. In any event, any party may file a post-hearing brief. The ALJ shall fix the time for filing such briefs, not to exceed 60 days from the date the parties receive the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ may permit the parties to file reply briefs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.37" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.37   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall issue an initial decision based only on the record, which shall contain findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the amount of any penalties and assessments imposed. 
</P>
<P>(b) The findings of fact shall include a finding on each of the following issues: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the claims or statements identified in the complaint, or any portions thereof, violate § 22.3; 
</P>
<P>(2) If the person is liable for penalties or assessments, the appropriate amount of any such penalties or assessments considering any mitigating or aggravating factors that he or she finds in the case, such as those described in § 22.31. 


</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall promptly serve the initial decision on all parties within 90 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs (if permitted) has expired. The ALJ shall at the same time serve all parties with a statement describing the right of any defendant determined to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment to file a motion for reconsideration with the ALJ or a notice of appeal with the ARB. If the ALJ fails to meet the deadline contained in this paragraph, the ALJ shall notify the parties of the reason for the delay and shall set a new deadline.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the initial decision of the ALJ is timely appealed to the ARB, or a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision is timely filed, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued by the ALJ.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.38" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.38   Reconsideration of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, any party may file a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision within 20 days of receipt of the initial decision. If service was made by mail, receipt will be presumed to be five days from the date of mailing in the absence of contrary proof. 
</P>
<P>(b) Every such motion must set forth the matters claimed to have been erroneously decided and the nature of the alleged errors. Such motion shall be accompanied by a supporting brief. 
</P>
<P>(c) Responses to such motions shall be allowed only upon request of the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(d) No party may file motion for reconsideration of an initial decision that has been revised in response to a previous motion for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may dispose of a motion for reconsideration by denying it or by issuing a revised initial decision. 


</P>
<P>(f) If the ALJ denies a motion for reconsideration, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion, unless the initial decision is timely appealed to the ARB in accordance with § 22.39.
</P>
<P>(g) If the ALJ issues a revised initial decision, that decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued, unless it is timely appealed to the ARB in accordance with § 22.39.





 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.39" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.39   Appeal to ARB.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any defendant who has filed a timely answer and who is determined in an initial decision to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment may appeal such decision to the ARB by filing a notice of appeal with the ARB in accordance with this section and with 29 CFR part 26.




</P>
<P>(b)(1) A notice of appeal may be filed at any time within 30 days after the ALJ issues an initial decision. However, if another party files a motion for reconsideration under § 22.38, consideration of the appeal shall be stayed automatically pending resolution of the motion for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a motion for reconsideration is timely filed, a notice of appeal may be filed within 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion or issues a revised initial decision, whichever applies. 


</P>
<P>(3) The ARB may extend the initial 30-day period for an additional 30 days if the defendant files with the ARB a request for an extension within the initial 30-day period and shows good cause.
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the ARB, and the time for filing motions for reconsideration under § 22.38 has expired, the ALJ shall forward the record of the proceeding to the ARB.


</P>
<P>(d) A notice of appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief specifying exceptions to the initial decision and reasons supporting the exceptions. 
</P>
<P>(e) The representative for the Government may file a brief in opposition to exceptions within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief. 
</P>
<P>(f) There is no right to appear personally before the ARB.






</P>
<P>(g) There is no right to appeal any interlocutory ruling by the ALJ.

 
</P>
<P>(h) In reviewing the initial decision, the ARB shall not consider any objection that was not raised before the ALJ unless a demonstration is made of extraordinary circumstances causing the failure to raise the objection.
</P>
<P>(i) If any party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the ARB that additional evidence not presented at such hearing is material and that there were reasonable grounds for the failure to present such evidence at such hearing, the ARB shall remand the matter to the ALJ for consideration of such additional evidence.
</P>
<P>(j) The ARB may affirm, reduce, reverse, compromise, remand, or settle any penalty or assessment, determined by the ALJ in any initial decision. The ARB's decision is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(k) The ARB shall promptly serve each party to the appeal with a copy of the decision of the ARB and a statement describing the right of any person determined to be liable for a penalty or assessment to seek judicial review.
</P>
<P>(l) Unless a petition for review is filed as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3805 after a defendant has exhausted all administrative remedies under this part and within 60 days after the date on which the authority head serves the defendant with a copy of the authority head's decision, a determination that a defendant is liable under § 22.3 is final and is not subject to judicial review.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1781, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.40   Stays ordered by the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>If at any time the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General transmits to the authority head a written finding that continuation of the administrative process described in this part with respect to a claim or statement may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to such claim or statement, the authority head shall stay the process immediately. The authority head may order the process resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.41" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.41   Stay pending appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An initial decision is stayed automatically pending disposition of a motion for reconsideration or of an appeal to the ARB.


</P>
<P>(b) No administrative stay is available following a final decision of the authority head. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48492, Dec. 22, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 1782, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.42" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.42   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3805 of title 31 U.S.C., authorizes judicial review by an appropriate United States District Court of a final decision of the authority head imposing penalties or assessments under this part and specifies the procedures for such review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.43" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.43   Collection of civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 3806 and 3808(b) of title 31 U.S.C., authorize actions for collection of civil penalties and assessments imposed under this part and specify the procedures for such actions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.44   Right to administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of any penalty or assessment which has become final, or for which a judgment has been entered under § 22.42 or § 22.43, or any amount agreed upon in a compromise or settlement under § 22.46, may be collected by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, except that an administrative offset may not be made under this subsection against a refund of an overpayment of Federal taxes, then or later owing by the United States to the defendant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.45" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.45   Deposit in Treasury of United States.</HEAD>
<P>All amounts collected pursuant to this part shall be deposited as miscellaneous receipts in the Treasury of the United States, except as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3806(g) .


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.46" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.46   Compromise or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Parties may make offers of compromise or settlement at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) The reviewing official has the exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the reviewing official is permitted to issue a complaint and before the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) The authority head has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision, except during the pendency of any review under § 22.42 or during the pendency of any action to collect penalties and assessments under § 22.43. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Attorney General has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part during the pendency of any review under § 22.42 or of any action to recover penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806. 
</P>
<P>(e) The investigating official may recommend settlement terms to the reviewing official, the authority head, or the Attorney General, as appropriate. The reviewing official may recommend settlement terms to the authority head, or the Attorney General, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(f) Any compromise or settlement must be in writing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.47" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.23.0.66.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.47   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice of hearing (under § 22.12) with respect to a claim or statement must be served in the manner specified in § 22.8 within 6 years after the date on which such claim or statement is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the defendant fails to file a timely answer, service of a notice under § 22.10(b) shall be deemed a notice of hearing for purposes of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The statute of limitations may be extended by agreement of the parties.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 23—INCREASING THE MINIMUM WAGE FOR FEDERAL CONTRACTORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; section 4, E.O. 14026, 86 FR 22835; Secretary's Order 01-2014, 79 FR 77527.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 67224, Nov. 24, 2021, unless otherwise noted.








</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.10   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part contains the Department of Labor's rules relating to the administration of Executive Order 14026 (Executive Order or the Order), “Increasing the Minimum Wage for Federal Contractors,” and implements the enforcement provisions of the Executive Order. The Executive Order assigns responsibility for investigating potential violations of and obtaining compliance with the Executive Order to the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> Executive Order 14026 states that the Federal Government's procurement interests in economy and efficiency are promoted when the Federal Government contracts with sources that adequately compensate their workers. Specifically, the Order explains that raising the minimum wage enhances worker productivity and generates higher-quality work by boosting workers' health, morale, and effort; reducing absenteeism and turnover; and lowering supervisory and training costs. Accordingly, Executive Order 14026 sets forth a general position of the Federal Government that increasing the hourly minimum wage paid by Federal contractors to $15.00 beginning January 30, 2022, (with future annual increases based on inflation) will lead to improved economy and efficiency in Federal procurement. The Order provides that executive departments and agencies, including independent establishments subject to the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act, shall, to the extent permitted by law, ensure that new covered contracts, contract-like instruments, and solicitations (collectively referred to as “contracts”) include a clause, which the contractor and any covered subcontractors shall incorporate into lower-tier subcontracts, specifying, as a condition of payment, that the minimum wage to be paid to workers, including workers whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c), performing work on or in connection with the contract or any covered subcontract thereunder, shall be at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $15.00 per hour beginning January 30, 2022; and
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2023, and annually thereafter, an amount determined by the Secretary of Labor (the Secretary) pursuant to the Order. Nothing in Executive Order 14026 or this part shall excuse noncompliance with any applicable Federal or state prevailing wage law or any applicable law or municipal ordinance establishing a minimum wage higher than the minimum wage established under the Order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Neither Executive Order 14026 nor this part creates or changes any rights under the Contract Disputes Act, 41 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.,</I> or any private right of action that may exist under other applicable laws. The Executive Order provides that disputes regarding whether a contractor has paid the minimum wages prescribed by the Order, to the extent permitted by law, shall be disposed of only as provided by the Secretary in regulations issued under the Order. However, nothing in the Order or this part is intended to limit or preclude a civil action under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3730, or criminal prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 1001. The Order similarly does not preclude judicial review of final decisions by the Secretary in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Review Board (ARB or Board)</I> means the Administrative Review Board, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division and includes any official of the Wage and Hour Division authorized to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Agency head</I> means the Secretary, Attorney General, Administrator, Governor, Chairperson, or other chief official of an executive agency, unless otherwise indicated, including any deputy or assistant chief official of an executive agency or any persons authorized to act on behalf of the agency head.
</P>
<P><I>Concessions contract</I> or <I>contract for concessions</I> means a contract under which the Federal Government grants a right to use Federal property, including land or facilities, for furnishing services. The term <I>concessions contract</I> includes but is not limited to a contract the principal purpose of which is to furnish food, lodging, automobile fuel, souvenirs, newspaper stands, and/or recreational equipment, regardless of whether the services are of direct benefit to the Government, its personnel, or the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> or <I>contract-like instrument</I> means an agreement between two or more parties creating obligations that are enforceable or otherwise recognizable at law. This definition includes, but is not limited to, a mutually binding legal relationship obligating one party to furnish services (including construction) and another party to pay for them. The term <I>contract</I> includes all contracts and any subcontracts of any tier thereunder, whether negotiated or advertised, including any procurement actions, lease agreements, cooperative agreements, provider agreements, intergovernmental service agreements, service agreements, licenses, permits, or any other type of agreement, regardless of nomenclature, type, or particular form, and whether entered into verbally or in writing. The term <I>contract</I> shall be interpreted broadly as to include, but not be limited to, any contract within the definition provided in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) at 48 CFR chapter 1 or applicable Federal statutes. This definition includes, but is not limited to, any contract that may be covered under any Federal procurement statute. Contracts may be the result of competitive bidding or awarded to a single source under applicable authority to do so. In addition to bilateral instruments, contracts include, but are not limited to, awards and notices of awards; job orders or task letters issued under basic ordering agreements; letter contracts; orders, such as purchase orders, under which the contract becomes effective by written acceptance or performance; exercised contract options; and bilateral contract modifications. The term <I>contract</I> includes contracts covered by the Service Contract Act, contracts covered by the Davis-Bacon Act, concessions contracts not otherwise subject to the Service Contract Act, and contracts in connection with Federal property or land and related to offering services for Federal employees, their dependents, or the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting officer</I> means a person with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate contracts and make related determinations and findings. This term includes certain authorized representatives of the contracting officer acting within the limits of their authority as delegated by the contracting officer.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any individual or other legal entity that is awarded a Federal Government contract or subcontract under a Federal Government contract. The term <I>contractor</I> refers to both a prime contractor and all of its subcontractors of any tier on a contract with the Federal Government. The term <I>contractor</I> includes lessors and lessees, as well as employers of workers performing on or in connection with covered Federal contracts whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c). The term <I>employer</I> is used interchangeably with the terms <I>contractor</I> and <I>subcontractor</I> in various sections of this part. The U.S. Government, its agencies, and instrumentalities are not contractors, subcontractors, employers, or joint employers for purposes of compliance with the provisions of the Executive Order.
</P>
<P><I>Davis-Bacon Act</I> means the Davis-Bacon Act of 1931, as amended, 40 U.S.C. 3141 <I>et seq.,</I> and the implementing regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Executive departments and agencies</I> means executive departments, military departments, or any independent establishments within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 101, 102, and 104(1), respectively, and any wholly owned Government corporation within the meaning of 31 U.S.C. 9101.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Order 13658</I> means Executive Order 13658 of February 12, 2014, “Establishing a Minimum Wage for Contractors,” 3 CFR, 2014 Comp., p. 219, and its implementing regulations at 29 CFR part 10.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Order 14026 minimum wage</I> means a wage that is at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $15.00 per hour beginning January 30, 2022; and
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2023, and annually thereafter, an amount determined by the Secretary pursuant to section 2 of the Executive Order.
</P>
<P><I>Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.,</I> and the implementing regulations in this title.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Government</I> means an agency or instrumentality of the United States that enters into a contract pursuant to authority derived from the Constitution or the laws of the United States. For purposes of the Executive Order and this part, this definition does not include the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>New contract</I> means a contract that is entered into on or after January 30, 2022, or a contract that is renewed or extended (pursuant to an exercised option or otherwise) on or after January 30, 2022. For purposes of the Executive Order, a contract that is entered into prior to January 30, 2022 will constitute a <I>new contract</I> if, on or after January 30, 2022:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract is renewed;
</P>
<P>(2) The contract is extended; or
</P>
<P>(3) An option on the contract is exercised.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Administrative Law Judges</I> means the Office of Administrative Law Judges, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Option</I> means a unilateral right in a contract by which, for a specified time, the Government may elect to purchase additional supplies or services called for by the contract, or may elect to extend the term of the contract.
</P>
<P><I>Procurement contract for construction</I> means a procurement contract for the construction, alteration, or repair (including painting and decorating) of public buildings or public works and which requires or involves the employment of mechanics or laborers, and any subcontract of any tier thereunder. The term <I>procurement contract for construction</I> includes any contract subject to the provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act, as amended, and the implementing regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Procurement contract for services</I> means a procurement contract the principal purpose of which is to furnish services in the United States through the use of service employees, and any subcontract of any tier thereunder. The term <I>procurement contract for services</I> includes any contract subject to the provisions of the Service Contract Act, as amended, and the implementing regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Service Contract Act</I> means the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act of 1965, as amended, 41 U.S.C. 6701 <I>et seq.,</I> and the implementing regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Solicitation</I> means any request to submit offers, bids, or quotations to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Tipped employee</I> means any employee engaged in an occupation in which the employee customarily and regularly receives more than $30 a month in tips. For purposes of the Executive Order, a worker performing on or in connection with a contract covered by the Executive Order who meets this definition is a tipped employee.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the United States and all executive departments, independent establishments, administrative agencies, and instrumentalities of the United States, including corporations of which all or substantially all of the stock is owned by the United States, by the foregoing departments, establishments, agencies, instrumentalities, and including nonappropriated fund instrumentalities. When used in a geographic sense, the <I>United States</I> means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Outer Continental Shelf lands as defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Wake Island, and Johnston Island.
</P>
<P><I>Wage and Hour Division</I> means the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Wage determination</I> includes any determination of minimum hourly wage rates or fringe benefits made by the Secretary of Labor pursuant to the provisions of the Service Contract Act or the Davis-Bacon Act. This term includes the original determination and any subsequent determinations modifying, superseding, correcting, or otherwise changing the provisions of the original determination.
</P>
<P><I>Worker</I> means any person engaged in performing work on or in connection with a contract covered by the Executive Order, and whose wages under such contract are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Service Contract Act, or the Davis-Bacon Act, other than individuals employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, as those terms are defined in 29 CFR part 541, regardless of the contractual relationship alleged to exist between the individual and the employer. The term <I>worker</I> includes workers performing on or in connection with a covered contract whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c), as well as any person working on or in connection with a covered contract and individually registered in a bona fide apprenticeship or training program registered with the U.S. Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration, Office of Apprenticeship, or with a State Apprenticeship Agency recognized by the Office of Apprenticeship. A worker performs “on” a contract if the worker directly performs the specific services called for by the contract. A worker performs “in connection with” a contract if the worker's work activities are necessary to the performance of a contract but are not the specific services called for by the contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.30   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to any new contract, as defined in § 23.20, with the Federal Government, unless excluded by § 23.40, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) It is a procurement contract for construction covered by the Davis-Bacon Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is a contract for services covered by the Service Contract Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) It is a contract for concessions, including any concessions contract excluded from coverage under the Service Contract Act by Department of Labor regulations at 29 CFR 4.133(b); or
</P>
<P>(iv) It is a contract entered into with the Federal Government in connection with Federal property or lands and related to offering services for Federal employees, their dependents, or the general public; and
</P>
<P>(2) The wages of workers under such contract are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Service Contract Act, or the Davis-Bacon Act.
</P>
<P>(b) For contracts covered by the Service Contract Act or the Davis-Bacon Act, this part applies to prime contracts only at the thresholds specified in those statutes. For procurement contracts where workers' wages are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, this part applies when the prime contract exceeds the micro-purchase threshold, as defined in 41 U.S.C. 1902(a).
</P>
<P>(c) This part only applies to contracts with the Federal Government requiring performance in whole or in part within the United States, which when used in a geographic sense in this part means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Outer Continental Shelf lands as defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Wake Island, and Johnston Island. If a contract with the Federal Government is to be performed in part within and in part outside the United States and is otherwise covered by the Executive Order and this part, the minimum wage requirements of the Order and this part would apply with respect to that part of the contract that is performed within the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to contracts for the manufacturing or furnishing of materials, supplies, articles, or equipment to the Federal Government, including those that are subject to the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, 41 U.S.C. 6501 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.40   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grants.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to grants within the meaning of the Federal Grant and Cooperative Agreement Act, as amended, 31 U.S.C. 6301 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contracts or agreements with Indian Tribes.</I> This part does not apply to contracts or agreements with Indian Tribes under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act, as amended, 25 U.S.C. 5301 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procurement contracts for construction that are excluded from coverage of the Davis-Bacon Act.</I> Procurement contracts for construction that are not covered by the Davis-Bacon Act are not subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contracts for services that are exempted from coverage under the Service Contract Act.</I> Service contracts, except for those expressly covered by § 23.30(a)(1)(iii) or (iv), that are exempt from coverage of the Service Contract Act pursuant to its statutory language at 41 U.S.C. 6702(b) or its implementing regulations, including those at 29 CFR 4.115 through 4.122 and 29 CFR 4.123(d) and (e), are not subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employees who are exempt from the minimum wage requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act under 29 U.S.C. 213(a) and 214(a)-(b).</I> Except for workers who are otherwise covered by the Davis-Bacon Act or the Service Contract Act, this part does not apply to employees who are not entitled to the minimum wage set forth at 29 U.S.C. 206(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 213(a) and 214(a)-(b). Pursuant to the exclusion in this paragraph (e), individuals that are not subject to the requirements of this part include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Learners, apprentices, or messengers.</I> This part does not apply to learners, apprentices, or messengers whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Students.</I> This part does not apply to student workers whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Individuals employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity.</I> This part does not apply to workers who are employed by Federal contractors in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, as those terms are defined and delimited in 29 CFR part 541.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FLSA-covered workers performing in connection with covered contracts for less than 20 percent of their work hours in a given workweek.</I> This part does not apply to FLSA-covered workers performing in connection with covered contracts, <I>i.e.,</I> those workers who perform work duties necessary to the performance of the contract but who are not directly engaged in performing the specific work called for by the contract, that spend less than 20 percent of their hours worked in a particular workweek performing in connection with such contracts. The exclusion in this paragraph (f) is inapplicable to covered workers performing on covered contracts, <I>i.e.,</I> those workers directly engaged in performing the specific work called for by the contract.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contracts that result from a solicitation issued before January 30, 2022, and that are entered into on or between January 30, 2022 and March 30, 2022.</I> This part does not apply to contracts that result from a solicitation issued prior to January 30, 2022 and that are entered into on or between January 30, 2022 and March 30, 2022. However, if such a contract is subsequently extended or renewed, or an option is subsequently exercised under that contract, the Executive Order and this part shall apply to that extension, renewal, or option.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.50   Minimum wage for Federal contractors and subcontractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pursuant to Executive Order 14026, the minimum hourly wage rate required to be paid to workers performing on or in connection with covered contracts with the Federal Government is at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $15.00 per hour beginning January 30, 2022; and
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2023, and annually thereafter, an amount determined by the Secretary pursuant to section 2 of Executive Order 14026. In accordance with section 2 of the Order, the Secretary will determine the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis beginning at least 90 days before any new minimum wage is to take effect.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method for determining the applicable Executive Order minimum wage for workers.</I> The minimum wage to be paid to workers, including workers whose wages are calculated pursuant to special certificates issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c), in the performance of a covered contract shall be at least:
</P>
<P>(1) $15.00 per hour beginning January 30, 2022; and
</P>
<P>(2) An amount determined by the Secretary, beginning January 1, 2023, and annually thereafter. The applicable minimum wage determined for each calendar year by the Secretary shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Not less than the amount in effect on the date of such determination;
</P>
<P>(ii) Increased from such amount by the annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (United States city average, all items, not seasonally adjusted), or its successor publication, as determined by the Bureau of Labor Statistics; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Rounded to the nearest multiple of $0.05. In calculating the annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for purposes of this section, the Secretary shall compare such Consumer Price Index for the most recent year available with the Consumer Price Index for the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to other laws.</I> Nothing in the Executive Order or this part shall excuse noncompliance with any applicable Federal or state prevailing wage law or any applicable law or municipal ordinance, or any applicable contract, establishing a minimum wage higher than the minimum wage established under the Executive Order and this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relation to Executive Order 13658.</I> As of January 30, 2022, Executive Order 13658 is superseded to the extent that it is inconsistent with Executive Order 14026 and this part. Unless otherwise excluded by § 23.40, workers performing on or in connection with a covered new contract, as defined in § 23.20, must be paid at least the minimum hourly wage rate established by Executive Order 14026 and this part rather than the lower hourly minimum wage rate established by Executive Order 13658 and its implementing regulations in 29 CFR part 10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.60" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.60   Antiretaliation.</HEAD>
<P>It shall be unlawful for any person to discharge or in any other manner discriminate against any worker because such worker has filed any complaint or instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to Executive Order 14026 or this part, or has testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.70" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.70   Waiver of rights.</HEAD>
<P>Workers cannot waive, nor may contractors induce workers to waive, their rights under Executive Order 14026 or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.80" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.1.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.80   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>If any provision of this part is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Federal Government Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.2.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.110   Contracting agency requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contract clause.</I> The contracting agency shall include the Executive Order minimum wage contract clause set forth in Appendix A of this part in all covered contracts and solicitations for such contracts, as described in § 23.30, except for procurement contracts subject to the FAR. The required contract clause directs, as a condition of payment, that all workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts must be paid the applicable, currently effective minimum wage under Executive Order 14026 and § 23.50. For procurement contracts subject to the FAR, contracting agencies must use the clause set forth in the FAR developed to implement this section. Such clause will accomplish the same purposes as the clause set forth in Appendix A of this part and be consistent with the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to include the contract clause.</I> Where the Department or the contracting agency discovers or determines, whether before or subsequent to a contract award, that a contracting agency made an erroneous determination that Executive Order 14026 or this part did not apply to a particular contract and/or failed to include the applicable contract clause in a contract to which the Executive Order applies, the contracting agency, on its own initiative or within 15 calendar days of notification by an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, shall incorporate the contract clause in the contract retroactive to commencement of performance under the contract through the exercise of any and all authority that may be needed (including, where necessary, its authority to negotiate or amend, its authority to pay any necessary additional costs, and its authority under any contract provision authorizing changes, cancellation and termination).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Withholding.</I> A contracting officer shall upon his or her own action or upon written request of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor withhold or cause to be withheld from the prime contractor under the covered contract or any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, so much of the accrued payments or advances as may be considered necessary to pay workers the full amount of wages required by the Executive Order. In the event of failure to pay any covered workers all or part of the wages due under Executive Order 14026, the agency may, after authorization or by direction of the Department of Labor and written notification to the contractor, take action to cause suspension of any further payment or advance of funds until such violations have ceased. Additionally, any failure to comply with the requirements of Executive Order 14026 may be grounds for termination of the right to proceed with the contract work. In such event, the contracting agency may enter into other contracts or arrangements for completion of the work, charging the contractor in default with any additional cost.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Actions on complaints</I>—(1) <I>Reporting</I>—(i) <I>Reporting time frame.</I> The contracting agency shall forward all information listed in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section to the Division of Government Contracts Enforcement, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210 within 14 calendar days of receipt of a complaint alleging contractor noncompliance with the Executive Order or this part or within 14 calendar days of being contacted by the Wage and Hour Division regarding any such complaint.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Report contents.</I> The contracting agency shall forward to the Division of Government Contracts Enforcement, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210 any:
</P>
<P>(A) Complaint of contractor noncompliance with Executive Order 14026 or this part;
</P>
<P>(B) Available statements by the worker, contractor, or any other person regarding the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(C) Evidence that the Executive Order minimum wage contract clause was included in the contract;
</P>
<P>(D) Information concerning known settlement negotiations between the parties, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any other relevant facts known to the contracting agency or other information requested by the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.120" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.2.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.120   Department of Labor requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Executive Order minimum wage applicable from January 30, 2022 through December 31, 2022, is $15.00 per hour. The Secretary will determine the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis, beginning January 1, 2023.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method for determining the applicable Executive Order minimum wage.</I> The Secretary will determine the applicable minimum wage under the Executive Order, beginning January 1, 2023, by using the methodology set forth in § 23.50(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice</I>—(1) <I>Timing of notification.</I> The Administrator will notify the public of the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis at least 90 days before any new minimum wage is to take effect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of notification</I>—(i) <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Administrator will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> stating the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis at least 90 days before any new minimum wage is to take effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Website.</I> The Administrator will publish and maintain on <I>https://alpha.sam.gov/content/wage-determinations,</I> or any successor site, the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Wage determinations.</I> The Administrator will publish a prominent general notice on all wage determinations issued under the Davis-Bacon Act and the Service Contract Act stating the Executive Order minimum wage and that the Executive Order minimum wage applies to all workers performing on or in connection with such contracts whose wages are governed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Davis-Bacon Act, and the Service Contract Act. The Administrator will update this general notice on all such wage determinations annually.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other means as appropriate.</I> The Administrator may publish the applicable minimum wage rate to be paid to workers performing work on or in connection with covered contracts on an annual basis at least 90 days before any such new minimum wage is to take effect in any other media that the Administrator deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification to a contractor of the withholding of funds.</I> If the Administrator requests that a contracting agency withhold funds from a contractor pursuant to § 23.110(c), the Administrator and/or contracting agency shall notify the affected prime contractor of the Administrator's withholding request to the contracting agency.
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Contractor Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.210" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.210   Contract clause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contract clause.</I> The contractor, as a condition of payment, shall abide by the terms of the applicable Executive Order minimum wage contract clause referred to in § 23.110(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Flow-down requirement.</I> The contractor and any subcontractors shall include in any covered subcontracts the Executive Order minimum wage contract clause referred to in § 23.110(a) and shall require, as a condition of payment, that the subcontractor include the minimum wage contract clause in any lower-tier subcontracts. The prime contractor and any upper-tier contractor shall be responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower-tier subcontractor with the Executive Order minimum wage requirements, whether or not the contract clause was included in the subcontract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.220" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.220   Rate of pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The contractor must pay each worker performing work on or in connection with a covered contract no less than the applicable Executive Order minimum wage for all hours worked on or in connection with the covered contract, unless such worker is exempt under § 23.40. In determining whether a worker is performing within the scope of a covered contract, all workers who are engaged in working on or in connection with the contract, either in performing the specific services called for by its terms or in performing other duties necessary to the performance of the contract, are thus subject to the Executive Order and this part unless a specific exemption is applicable. Nothing in the Executive Order or this part shall excuse noncompliance with any applicable Federal or state prevailing wage law or any applicable law or municipal ordinance establishing a minimum wage higher than the minimum wage established under Executive Order 14026.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Workers who receive fringe benefits.</I> The contractor may not discharge any part of its minimum wage obligation under the Executive Order by furnishing fringe benefits or, with respect to workers whose wages are governed by the Service Contract Act, the cash equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tipped employees.</I> The contractor may satisfy the wage payment obligation to a tipped employee under the Executive Order through a combination of an hourly cash wage and a credit based on tips received by such employee pursuant to the provisions in § 23.280.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.230" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.230   Deductions.</HEAD>
<P>The contractor may make deductions that reduce a worker's wages below the Executive Order minimum wage rate only if such deduction qualifies as a:
</P>
<P>(a) Deduction required by Federal, state, or local law, such as Federal or state withholding of income taxes;
</P>
<P>(b) Deduction for payments made to third parties pursuant to court order;
</P>
<P>(c) Deduction directed by a voluntary assignment of the worker or his or her authorized representative; or
</P>
<P>(d) Deduction for the reasonable cost or fair value, as determined by the Administrator, of furnishing such worker with “board, lodging, or other facilities,” as defined in 29 U.S.C. 203(m)(1) and part 531 of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.240" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.240   Overtime payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Fair Labor Standards Act and the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act require overtime payment of not less than one and one-half times the regular rate of pay or basic rate of pay for all hours worked over 40 hours in a workweek to covered workers. The regular rate of pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act is generally determined by dividing the worker's total earnings in any workweek by the total number of hours actually worked by the worker in that workweek for which such compensation was paid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tipped employees.</I> When overtime is worked by tipped employees who are entitled to overtime pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act and/or the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, the employees' regular rate of pay includes both the cash wages paid by the employer (<I>see</I> §§ 23.220(a) and 23.280(a)(1)) and the amount of any tip credit taken (<I>see</I> § 23.280(a)(2)). (<I>See</I> part 778 of this title for a detailed discussion of overtime compensation under the Fair Labor Standards Act.) Any tips received by the employee in excess of the tip credit are not included in the regular rate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.250" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.250   Frequency of pay.</HEAD>
<P>Wage payments to workers shall be made no later than one pay period following the end of the regular pay period in which such wages were earned or accrued. A pay period under Executive Order 14026 may not be of any duration longer than semi-monthly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.260" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.260   Records to be kept by contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records.</I> The contractor and each subcontractor performing work subject to Executive Order 14026 shall make and maintain, for three years, records containing the information specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section for each worker and shall make them available for inspection and transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, address, and social security number of each worker;
</P>
<P>(2) The worker's occupation(s) or classification(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The rate or rates of wages paid;
</P>
<P>(4) The number of daily and weekly hours worked by each worker;
</P>
<P>(5) Any deductions made; and
</P>
<P>(6) The total wages paid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interviews.</I> The contractor shall permit authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division to conduct interviews with workers at the worksite during normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other recordkeeping obligations.</I> Nothing in this part limits or otherwise modifies the contractor's recordkeeping obligations, if any, under the Davis-Bacon Act, the Service Contract Act, or the Fair Labor Standards Act, or their implementing regulations in this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.270" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.270   Anti-kickback.</HEAD>
<P>All wages paid to workers performing on or in connection with covered contracts must be paid free and clear and without subsequent deduction (except as set forth in § 23.230), rebate, or kickback on any account. Kickbacks directly or indirectly to the employer or to another person for the employer's benefit for the whole or part of the wage are prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.280" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.280   Tipped employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of wages to tipped employees.</I> With respect to workers who are tipped employees as defined in § 23.20 and this section, the amount of wages paid to such employee by the employee's employer shall be equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) An hourly cash wage of at least:
</P>
<P>(i) $10.50 an hour beginning on January 30, 2022;
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning January 1, 2023, 85 percent of the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order, rounded to the nearest multiple of $0.05;
</P>
<P>(iii) Beginning January 1, 2024, and for each subsequent year, 100 percent of the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order; and
</P>
<P>(2) An additional amount on account of the tips received by such employee (tip credit) which amount is equal to the difference between the hourly cash wage in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order. Where tipped employees do not receive a sufficient amount of tips in the workweek to equal the amount of the tip credit, the employer must increase the cash wage paid for the workweek under paragraph (a)(1) of this section so that the amount of the cash wage paid and the tips received by the employee equal the minimum wage under section 2 of the Executive Order.
</P>
<P>(3) An employer may pay a higher cash wage than required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section and take a lower tip credit but may not pay a lower cash wage than required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section and take a greater tip credit. In order for the employer to claim a tip credit, the employer must demonstrate that the worker received at least the amount of the credit claimed in actual tips. If the worker received less than the claimed tip credit amount in tips during the workweek, the employer is required to pay the balance on the regular payday so that the worker receives the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order with the defined combination of wages and tips.
</P>
<P>(4) If the cash wage required to be paid under the Service Contract Act, 41 U.S.C. 6701 <I>et seq.,</I> or any other applicable law or regulation is higher than the wage required by section 2 of the Executive Order, the employer shall pay additional cash wages equal to the difference between the wage in effect under section 2 of the Executive Order and the highest wage required to be paid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements with respect to tipped employees.</I> The definitions and requirements concerning tipped employees, the tip credit, the characteristics of tips, service charges, tip pooling, and notice set forth in 29 CFR 10.28(b) through (f) apply with respect to workers who are tipped employees, as defined in § 23.20, performing on or in connection with contracts covered under Executive Order 14026, except that the minimum required cash wage shall be the minimum required cash wage described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for the purposes of Executive 14026. For the purposes of this section, where 29 CFR 10.28(b) through (f) uses the term “Executive Order,” that term refers to Executive Order 14026.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.290" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.3.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.290   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor must notify all workers performing work on or in connection with a covered contract of the applicable minimum wage rate under the Executive Order. With respect to service employees on contracts covered by the Service Contract Act and laborers and mechanics on contracts covered by the Davis-Bacon Act, the contractor may meet the requirement in this paragraph (a) by posting, in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite, the applicable wage determination under those statutes.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to workers performing work on or in connection with a covered contract whose wages are governed by the FLSA, the contractor must post a notice provided by the Department of Labor in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite so it may be readily seen by workers.
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors that customarily post notices to workers electronically may post the notice electronically, provided such electronic posting is displayed prominently on any website that is maintained by the contractor, whether external or internal, and customarily used for notices to workers about terms and conditions of employment.
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.410" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.4.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.410   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing a complaint.</I> Any worker, contractor, labor organization, trade organization, contracting agency, or other person or entity that believes a violation of the Executive Order or this part has occurred may file a complaint with any office of the Wage and Hour Division. No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. The Wage and Hour Division will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidentiality.</I> It is the policy of the Department of Labor to protect the identity of its confidential sources and to prevent an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Accordingly, the identity of any individual who makes a written or oral statement as a complaint or in the course of an investigation, as well as portions of the statement which would reveal the individual's identity, shall not be disclosed in any manner to anyone other than Federal officials without the prior consent of the individual. Disclosure of such statements shall be governed by the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552, <I>see</I> 29 CFR part 70) and the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.420" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.4.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.420   Wage and Hour Division conciliation.</HEAD>
<P>After receipt of a complaint, the Administrator may seek to resolve the matter through conciliation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.430" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.4.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.430   Wage and Hour Division investigation.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may investigate possible violations of the Executive Order or this part either as the result of a complaint or at any time on his or her own initiative. As part of the investigation, the Administrator may conduct interviews with the relevant contractor, as well as the contractor's workers at the worksite during normal work hours; inspect the relevant contractor's records (including contract documents and payrolls, if applicable); make copies and transcriptions of such records; and require the production of any documentary or other evidence the Administrator deems necessary to determine whether a violation, including conduct warranting imposition of debarment, has occurred. Federal agencies and contractors shall cooperate with any authorized representative of the Department of Labor in the inspection of records, in interviews with workers, and in all aspects of investigations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.440" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.4.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.440   Remedies and sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unpaid wages.</I> When the Administrator determines a contractor has failed to pay the applicable Executive Order minimum wage to workers, the Administrator will notify the contractor and the applicable contracting agency of the unpaid wage violation and request the contractor to remedy the violation. If the contractor does not remedy the violation of the Executive Order or this part, the Administrator shall direct the contractor to pay all unpaid wages to the affected workers in the investigative findings letter it issues pursuant to § 23.510. The Administrator may additionally direct that payments due on the contract or any other contract between the contractor and the Government be withheld as necessary to pay unpaid wages. Upon the final order of the Secretary that unpaid wages are due, the Administrator may direct the relevant contracting agency to transfer the withheld funds to the Department of Labor for disbursement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Antiretaliation.</I> When the Administrator determines that any person has discharged or in any other manner discriminated against any worker because such worker filed any complaint or instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to the Executive Order or this part, or because such worker testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding, the Administrator may provide for any relief to the worker as may be appropriate, including employment, reinstatement, promotion, and the payment of lost wages.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Debarment.</I> Whenever a contractor is found by the Secretary of Labor to have disregarded its obligations under the Executive Order, or this part, such contractor and its responsible officers, and any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which the contractor or responsible officers have an interest, shall be ineligible to be awarded any contract or subcontract subject to the Executive Order for a period of up to three years from the date of publication of the name of the contractor or responsible officer on the ineligible list. Neither an order for debarment of any contractor or its responsible officers from further Government contracts nor the inclusion of a contractor or its responsible officers on a published list of noncomplying contractors under this section shall be carried out without affording the contractor or responsible officers an opportunity for a hearing before an Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Civil action to recover greater underpayments than those withheld.</I> If the payments withheld under § 23.110(c) are insufficient to reimburse all workers' lost wages, or if there are no payments to withhold, the Department of Labor, following a final order of the Secretary, may bring action against the contractor in any court of competent jurisdiction to recover the remaining amount of underpayments. The Department of Labor shall, to the extent possible, pay any sums it recovers in this manner directly to the underpaid workers. Any sum not paid to a worker because of inability to do so within three years shall be transferred into the Treasury of the United States as miscellaneous receipts.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retroactive inclusion of contract clause.</I> If a contracting agency fails to include the applicable contract clause in a contract to which the Executive Order applies, the contracting agency, on its own initiative or within 15 calendar days of notification by an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, shall incorporate the contract clause in the contract retroactive to commencement of performance under the contract through the exercise of any and all authority that may be needed (including, where necessary, its authority to negotiate or amend, its authority to pay any necessary additional costs, and its authority under any contract provision authorizing changes, cancellation and termination).
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.510" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.510   Disputes concerning contractor compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section sets forth the procedure for resolution of disputes of fact or law concerning a contractor's compliance with subpart C of this part. The procedures in this section may be initiated upon the Administrator's own motion or upon request of the contractor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In the event of a dispute described in paragraph (a) of this section in which it appears that relevant facts are at issue, the Administrator will notify the affected contractor(s) and the prime contractor (if different) of the investigative findings by certified mail to the last known address.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor desiring a hearing concerning the Administrator's investigative findings letter shall request such a hearing by letter postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the Administrator's letter. The request shall set forth those findings which are in dispute with respect to the violations and/or debarment, as appropriate, and explain how the findings are in dispute, including by making reference to any affirmative defenses.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto, for designation to an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to resolve the disputed matters. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 6.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In the event of a dispute described in paragraph (a) of this section in which it appears that there are no relevant facts at issue, and where there is not at that time reasonable cause to institute debarment proceedings under § 23.520, the Administrator shall notify the contractor(s) of the investigation findings by certified mail to the last known address, and shall issue a ruling in the investigative findings letter on any issues of law known to be in dispute.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If the contractor disagrees with the factual findings of the Administrator or believes that there are relevant facts in dispute, the contractor shall so advise the Administrator by letter postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the Administrator's letter. In the response, the contractor shall explain in detail the facts alleged to be in dispute and attach any supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt of a timely response under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section alleging the existence of a factual dispute, the Administrator shall examine the information submitted. If the Administrator determines that there is a relevant issue of fact, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section. If the Administrator determines that there is no relevant issue of fact, the Administrator shall so rule and advise the contractor accordingly.
</P>
<P>(3) If the contractor desires review of the ruling issued by the Administrator under paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the contractor shall file a petition for review thereof with the Administrative Review Board postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the ruling, with a copy thereof to the Administrator. The petition for review shall be filed in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 7.
</P>
<P>(d) If a timely response to the Administrator's investigative findings letter is not made or a timely petition for review is not filed, the Administrator's investigative findings letter shall become the final order of the Secretary. If a timely response or petition for review is filed, the Administrator's letter shall be inoperative unless and until the decision is upheld by the Administrative Law Judge or the Administrative Review Board, or otherwise becomes a final order of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.520" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.520   Debarment proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever any contractor is found by the Secretary of Labor to have disregarded its obligations to workers or subcontractors under Executive Order 14026 or this part, such contractor and its responsible officers, and any firm, corporation, partnership, or association in which such contractor or responsible officers have an interest, shall be ineligible for a period of up to three years to receive any contracts or subcontracts subject to Executive Order 14026 from the date of publication of the name or names of the contractor or persons on the ineligible list.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Whenever the Administrator finds reasonable cause to believe that a contractor has committed a violation of Executive Order 14026 or this part which constitutes a disregard of its obligations to workers or subcontractors, the Administrator shall notify by certified mail to the last known address, the contractor and its responsible officers (and any firms, corporations, partnerships, or associations in which the contractor or responsible officers are known to have an interest), of the finding. The Administrator shall afford such contractor and any other parties notified an opportunity for a hearing as to whether debarment action should be taken under Executive Order 14026 or this part. The Administrator shall furnish to those notified a summary of the investigative findings. If the contractor or any other parties notified wish to request a hearing as to whether debarment action should be taken, such a request shall be made by letter to the Administrator postmarked within 30 calendar days of the date of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator, and shall set forth any findings which are in dispute and the reasons therefor, including any affirmative defenses to be raised. Upon receipt of such timely request for a hearing, the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and the response thereto, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to determine the matters in dispute.
</P>
<P>(2) Hearings under this section shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 6. If no hearing is requested within 30 calendar days of the letter from the Administrator, the Administrator's findings shall become the final order of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.530" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.530   Referral to Chief Administrative Law Judge; amendment of pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing under § 23.510 (where the Administrator has determined that relevant facts are in dispute) or § 23.520 (debarment), the Administrator shall refer the case to the Chief Administrative Law Judge by Order of Reference, to which shall be attached a copy of the investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto, for designation of an Administrative Law Judge to conduct such hearings as may be necessary to decide the disputed matters. A copy of the Order of Reference and attachments thereto shall be served upon the respondent. The investigative findings letter from the Administrator and response thereto shall be given the effect of a complaint and answer, respectively, for purposes of the administrative proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) At any time prior to the closing of the hearing record, the complaint (investigative findings letter) or answer (response) may be amended with the permission of the Administrative Law Judge and upon such terms as he/she may approve. For proceedings pursuant to § 23.510, such an amendment may include a statement that debarment action is warranted under § 23.520. Such amendments shall be allowed when justice and the presentation of the merits are served thereby, provided there is no prejudice to the objecting party's presentation on the merits. When issues not raised by the pleadings are reasonably within the scope of the original complaint and are tried by express or implied consent of the parties, they shall be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the pleadings, and such amendments may be made as necessary to make them conform to the evidence. The presiding Administrative Law Judge may, upon reasonable notice and upon such terms as are just, permit supplemental pleadings setting forth transactions, occurrences or events which have happened since the date of the pleadings and which are relevant to any of the issues involved. A continuance in the hearing may be granted or the record left open to enable the new allegations to be addressed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.540" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.540   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the receipt of evidence or, at the Administrative Law Judge's discretion prior to the issuance of the Administrative Law Judge's decision, the parties may enter into consent findings and an order disposing of the proceeding in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding in whole or in part shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the Administrator's findings letter and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the Administrative Law Judge and the Administrative Review Board regarding those matters which are the subject of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 calendar days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings and order. If such agreement disposes of only a part of the disputed matter, a hearing shall be conducted on the matters remaining in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.550" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.550   Proceedings of the Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Office of Administrative Law Judges has jurisdiction to hear and decide appeals concerning questions of law and fact from the Administrator's investigative findings letters issued under §§ 23.510 and 23.520. Any party may, when requesting an appeal or during the pendency of a proceeding on appeal, timely move an Administrative Law Judge to consolidate a proceeding initiated hereunder with a proceeding initiated under the Service Contract Act or the Davis-Bacon Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within 20 calendar days of filing of the transcript of the testimony or such additional time as the Administrative Law Judge may allow, each party may file with the Administrative Law Judge proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and a proposed order, together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Each party shall serve such proposals and brief on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision.</I> (1) Within a reasonable period of time after the time allowed for filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within 30 calendar days of receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue a decision. The decision shall contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order, and be served upon all parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If the respondent is found to have violated Executive Order 14026 or this part, and if the Administrator requested debarment, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue an order as to whether the respondent is to be subject to the ineligible list, including findings that the contractor disregarded its obligations to workers or subcontractors under the Executive Order or this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limit on scope of review.</I> The Equal Access to Justice Act, as amended, does not apply to proceedings under this part. Accordingly, Administrative Law Judges shall have no authority to award attorney's fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act for any proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Orders.</I> If the Administrative Law Judge concludes a violation occurred, the final order shall mandate action to remedy the violation, including, but not limited to, monetary relief for unpaid wages. Where the Administrator has sought imposition of debarment, the Administrative Law Judge shall determine whether an order imposing debarment is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Finality.</I> The Administrative Law Judge's decision shall become the final order of the Secretary, unless a timely petition for review is filed with the Administrative Review Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.560" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.560   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing a petition for review.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge (or such additional time as is granted by the Administrative Review Board), any party aggrieved thereby who desires review thereof shall file a petition for review of the decision with supporting reasons. Such party shall transmit the petition in writing to the Administrative Review Board with a copy thereof to the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The petition shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order at issue. A petition concerning the decision on debarment shall also state the disregard of obligations to workers and/or subcontractors, or lack thereof, as appropriate. A party must serve the petition for review, and all briefs, on all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. It must also timely serve copies of the petition and all briefs on the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of filing.</I> If a party files a timely petition for review, the Administrative Law Judge's decision shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Review Board issues an order affirming the letter or decision, or the letter or decision otherwise becomes a final order of the Secretary. If a petition for review concerns only the imposition of debarment, however, the remainder of the decision shall be effective immediately. No judicial review shall be available unless a timely petition for review to the Administrative Review Board is first filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.570" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.570   Administrative Review Board proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Administrative Review Board has jurisdiction to hear and decide in its discretion appeals concerning questions of law and fact from investigative findings letters of the Administrator issued under § 23.510(c)(1) or (2), Administrator's rulings issued under § 23.580, and decisions of Administrative Law Judges issued under § 23.550.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limit on scope of review.</I> (i) The Board shall not have jurisdiction to pass on the validity of any provision of this part. The Board is an appellate body and shall decide cases properly before it on the basis of substantial evidence contained in the entire record before it. The Board shall not receive new evidence into the record.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Equal Access to Justice Act, as amended, does not apply to proceedings under this part. Accordingly, the Administrative Review Board shall have no authority to award attorney's fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act for any proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decisions.</I> The Board's final decision shall be issued within a reasonable period of time following receipt of the petition for review and shall be served upon all parties by mail to the last known address and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge (in cases involving an appeal from an Administrative Law Judge's decision).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Orders.</I> If the Board concludes a violation occurred, the final order shall mandate action to remedy the violation, including, but not limited to, monetary relief for unpaid wages. Where the Administrator has sought imposition of debarment, the Board shall determine whether an order imposing debarment is appropriate. The Board's order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finality.</I> The decision of the Administrative Review Board shall become the final order of the Secretary in accordance with Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order), which provides for discretionary review of such orders by the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.580" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.580   Administrator ruling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Questions regarding the application and interpretation of the rules contained in this part may be referred to the Administrator, who shall issue an appropriate ruling. Requests for such rulings should be addressed to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) Any interested party may appeal to the Administrative Review Board for review of a final ruling of the Administrator issued under paragraph (a) of this section. The petition for review shall be filed with the Administrative Review Board within 30 calendar days of the date of the ruling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.24.5.66.9.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 23—Contract Clause
</HEAD>
<P>The following clause shall be included by the contracting agency in every contract, contract-like instrument, and solicitation to which Executive Order 14026 applies, except for procurement contracts subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR):
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Executive Order 14026.</I> This contract is subject to Executive Order 14026, the regulations issued by the Secretary of Labor in 29 CFR part 23 pursuant to the Executive Order, and the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum wages.</I> (1) Each worker (as defined in 29 CFR 23.20) engaged in the performance of this contract by the prime contractor or any subcontractor, regardless of any contractual relationship which may be alleged to exist between the contractor and worker, shall be paid not less than the applicable minimum wage under Executive Order 14026.
</P>
<P>(2) The minimum wage required to be paid to each worker performing work on or in connection with this contract between January 30, 2022 and December 31, 2022, shall be $15.00 per hour. The minimum wage shall be adjusted each time the Secretary of Labor's annual determination of the applicable minimum wage under section 2(a)(ii) of Executive Order 14026 results in a higher minimum wage. Adjustments to the Executive Order minimum wage under section 2(a)(ii) of Executive Order 14026 will be effective for all workers subject to the Executive Order beginning January 1 of the following year. If appropriate, the contracting officer, or other agency official overseeing this contract shall ensure the contractor is compensated only for the increase in labor costs resulting from the annual inflation increases in the Executive Order 14026 minimum wage beginning on January 1, 2023. The Secretary of Labor will publish annual determinations in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> no later than 90 days before such new wage is to take effect. The Secretary will also publish the applicable minimum wage on <I>https://alpha.sam.gov/content/wage-determinations</I> (or any successor website). The applicable published minimum wage is incorporated by reference into this contract.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor shall pay unconditionally to each worker all wages due free and clear and without subsequent deduction (except as otherwise provided by 29 CFR 23.230), rebate, or kickback on any account. Such payments shall be made no later than one pay period following the end of the regular pay period in which such wages were earned or accrued. A pay period under this Executive Order may not be of any duration longer than semi-monthly.
</P>
<P>(4) The prime contractor and any upper-tier subcontractor shall be responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower-tier subcontractor with the Executive Order minimum wage requirements. In the event of any violation of the minimum wage obligation of this clause, the contractor and any subcontractor(s) responsible therefore shall be liable for the unpaid wages.
</P>
<P>(5) If the commensurate wage rate paid to a worker performing work on or in connection with a covered contract whose wages are calculated pursuant to a special certificate issued under 29 U.S.C. 214(c), whether hourly or piece rate, is less than the Executive Order minimum wage, the contractor must pay the Executive Order minimum wage rate to achieve compliance with the Order. If the commensurate wage due under the certificate is greater than the Executive Order minimum wage, the contractor must pay the worker the greater commensurate wage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Withholding.</I> The agency head shall upon its own action or upon written request of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor withhold or cause to be withheld from the prime contractor under this or any other Federal contract with the same prime contractor, so much of the accrued payments or advances as may be considered necessary to pay workers the full amount of wages required by Executive Order 14026.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contract suspension/Contract termination/Contractor debarment.</I> In the event of a failure to pay any worker all or part of the wages due under Executive Order 14026 or 29 CFR part 23, or a failure to comply with any other term or condition of Executive Order 14026 or 29 CFR part 23, the contracting agency may on its own action or after authorization or by direction of the Department of Labor and written notification to the contractor, take action to cause suspension of any further payment, advance or guarantee of funds until such violations have ceased. Additionally, any failure to comply with the requirements of this clause may be grounds for termination of the right to proceed with the contract work. In such event, the Government may enter into other contracts or arrangements for completion of the work, charging the contractor in default with any additional cost. A breach of the contract clause may be grounds for debarment as a contractor and subcontractor as provided in 29 CFR 23.520.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Workers who receive fringe benefits.</I> The contractor may not discharge any part of its minimum wage obligation under Executive Order 14026 by furnishing fringe benefits or, with respect to workers whose wages are governed by the Service Contract Act, the cash equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Relation to other laws.</I> Nothing herein shall relieve the contractor of any other obligation under Federal, state or local law, or under contract, for the payment of a higher wage to any worker, nor shall a lower prevailing wage under any such Federal, State, or local law, or under contract, entitle a contractor to pay less than $15.00 (or the minimum wage as established each January thereafter) to any worker.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Payroll records.</I> (1) The contractor shall make and maintain for three years records containing the information specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section for each worker and shall make the records available for inspection and transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, and social security number;
</P>
<P>(ii) The worker's occupation(s) or classification(s);
</P>
<P>(iii) The rate or rates of wages paid;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of daily and weekly hours worked by each worker;
</P>
<P>(v) Any deductions made; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Total wages paid.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor shall also make available a copy of the contract, as applicable, for inspection or transcription by authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to make and maintain or to make available such records for inspection and transcription shall be a violation of 29 CFR part 23 and this contract, and in the case of failure to produce such records, the contracting officer, upon direction of an authorized representative of the Department of Labor, or under its own action, shall take such action as may be necessary to cause suspension of any further payment or advance of funds until such time as the violations are discontinued.
</P>
<P>(4) The contractor shall permit authorized representatives of the Wage and Hour Division to conduct investigations, including interviewing workers at the worksite during normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in this clause limits or otherwise modifies the contractor's payroll and recordkeeping obligations, if any, under the Davis-Bacon Act, as amended, and its implementing regulations; the Service Contract Act, as amended, and its implementing regulations; the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, and its implementing regulations; or any other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Flow-down requirement.</I> The contractor (as defined in 29 CFR 23.20) shall insert this clause in all of its covered subcontracts and shall require its subcontractors to include this clause in any covered lower-tier subcontracts. Executive Order 14026 does not apply to subcontracts for the manufacturing or furnishing of materials, supplies, articles, or equipment, and this clause is not required to be inserted in such subcontracts. The prime contractor and any upper-tier subcontractor shall be responsible for the compliance by any subcontractor or lower-tier subcontractor with this contract clause.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Certification of eligibility.</I> (1) By entering into this contract, the contractor (and officials thereof) certifies that neither it (nor he or she) nor any person or firm who has an interest in the contractor's firm is a person or firm ineligible to be awarded Government contracts by virtue of the sanctions imposed pursuant to section 5 of the Service Contract Act, section 3(a) of the Davis-Bacon Act, or 29 CFR 5.12(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) No part of this contract shall be subcontracted to any person or firm whose name appears on the list of persons or firms ineligible to receive Federal contracts.
</P>
<P>(3) The penalty for making false statements is prescribed in the U.S. Criminal Code, 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Tipped employees.</I> In paying wages to a tipped employee as defined in section 3(t) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 203(t), the contractor may take a partial credit against the wage payment obligation (tip credit) to the extent permitted under section 3(a) of Executive Order 14026. In order to take such a tip credit, the employee must receive an amount of tips at least equal to the amount of the credit taken; where the tipped employee does not receive sufficient tips to equal the amount of the tip credit the contractor must increase the cash wage paid for the workweek so that the amount of cash wage paid and the tips received by the employee equal the applicable minimum wage under Executive Order 14026. To utilize this proviso:
</P>
<P>(1) The employer must inform the tipped employee in advance of the use of the tip credit;
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must inform the tipped employee of the amount of cash wage that will be paid and the additional amount by which the employee's wages will be considered increased on account of the tip credit;
</P>
<P>(3) The employees must be allowed to retain all tips (individually or through a pooling arrangement and regardless of whether the employer elects to take a credit for tips received); and
</P>
<P>(4) The employer must be able to show by records that the tipped employee receives at least the applicable Executive Order minimum wage through the combination of direct wages and tip credit.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Antiretaliation.</I> It shall be unlawful for any person to discharge or in any other manner discriminate against any worker because such worker has filed any complaint or instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to Executive Order 14026 or 29 CFR part 23, or has testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Disputes concerning labor standards.</I> Disputes related to the application of Executive Order 14026 to this contract shall not be subject to the general disputes clause of the contract. Such disputes shall be resolved in accordance with the procedures of the Department of Labor set forth in 29 CFR part 23. Disputes within the meaning of this contract clause include disputes between the contractor (or any of its subcontractors) and the contracting agency, the U.S. Department of Labor, or the workers or their representatives.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Notice.</I> The contractor must notify all workers performing work on or in connection with a covered contract of the applicable minimum wage rate under the Executive Order. With respect to service employees on contracts covered by the Service Contract Act and laborers and mechanics on contracts covered by the Davis-Bacon Act, the contractor may meet this requirement by posting, in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite, the applicable wage determination under those statutes. With respect to workers performing work on or in connection with a covered contract whose wages are governed by the FLSA, the contractor must post a notice provided by the Department of Labor in a prominent and accessible place at the worksite so it may be readily seen by workers. Contractors that customarily post notices to workers electronically may post the notice electronically provided such electronic posting is displayed prominently on any website that is maintained by the contractor, whether external or internal, and customarily used for notices to workers about terms and conditions of employment. 






</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 24—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE EMPLOYEE PROTECTION PROVISIONS OF SIX ENVIRONMENTAL STATUTES AND SECTION 211 OF THE ENERGY REORGANIZATION ACT OF 1974, AS AMENDED
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 2622; 33 U.S.C. 1367; 42 U.S.C. 300j-9(i)BVG, 5851, 6971, 7622, 9610; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 5-2007, 72 FR 31160 (June 5, 2007); Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 2820, Jan. 18, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Issuance of Findings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.100" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.1.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements procedures under the employee protection (or “whistleblower”) provisions for which the Secretary of Labor has been given responsibility pursuant to the following Federal statutes: Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. 300j-9(i); Federal Water Pollution Control Act, 33 U.S.C. 1367; Toxic Substances Control Act, 15 U.S.C. 2622; Solid Waste Disposal Act, 42 U.S.C. 6971; Clean Air Act, 42 U.S.C. 7622; Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. 5851; and Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980, 42 U.S.C. 9610.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures pursuant to the Federal statutory provisions listed in paragraph (a) of this section for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints made by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those rules codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures for submission of complaints under the Federal statutory provisions listed in paragraph (a) of this section, investigations, issuance of findings, objections to findings, litigation before administrative law judges (“ALJ”), issuance of decisions and orders, post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.101" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.1.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a).
</P>
<P><I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P><I>Complainant</I> means the employee who filed a complaint under any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P><I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means the employer named in the complaint, who is alleged to have violated any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a).
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or persons to whom authority under any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) has been delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.102" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.1.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employer subject to the provisions of any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a), or to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (AEA), 42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.,</I> may discharge or otherwise retaliate against any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee, or any person acting pursuant to the employee's request, engaged in any of the activities specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) It is a violation for any employer to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, discipline, or in any other manner retaliate against any employee because the employee has:
</P>
<P>(1) Commenced or caused to be commenced, or is about to commence or cause to be commenced, a proceeding under one of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) or a proceeding for the administration or enforcement of any requirement imposed under such statute;
</P>
<P>(2) Testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(3) Assisted or participated, or is about to assist or participate, in any manner in such a proceeding or in any other action to carry out the purposes of such statute.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the Energy Reorganization Act, and by interpretation of the Secretary under any of the other statutes listed in § 24.100(a), it is a violation for any employer to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, or in any other manner retaliate against any employee because the employee has:
</P>
<P>(1) Notified the employer of an alleged violation of such statute or the AEA of 1954;
</P>
<P>(2) Refused to engage in any practice made unlawful by such statute or the AEA of 1954, if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer; or
</P>
<P>(3) Testified or is about to testify before Congress or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of such statute or the AEA of 1954.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Every employer subject to the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, shall prominently post and keep posted in any place of employment to which the whistleblower provisions of the Act apply, a fully legible copy of the notice prepared by OSHA, printed as appendix A to this part, or a notice approved by the Assistant Secretary that contains substantially the same provisions and explains the whistleblower provisions of the Act and the regulations in this part. Copies of the notice prepared by OSHA may be obtained from the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, from local OSHA offices, or from OSHA's Web site at <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Where the notice required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section has not been posted, the requirement in § 24.103(d)(2) that a complaint be filed with the Assistant Secretary within 180 days of an alleged violation will be inoperative, unless the respondent establishes that the complainant had knowledge of the material provisions of the notice. If it is established that the notice was posted at the employee's place of employment after the alleged retaliatory action occurred or that the complainant later obtained knowledge of the provisions of the notice, the 180 days will ordinarily run from whichever of those dates is relevant.
</P>
<P>(e) This part shall have no application to any employee who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) or the AEA of 1954.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.103" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.1.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> An employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against by an employer in violation of any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of Filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If a complainant is not able to file the complaint in English, the complaint may be filed in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of Filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA Area Director responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for Filing.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, within 30 days after an alleged violation of any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) occurs (<I>i.e.,</I> when the retaliatory decision has been both made and communicated to the complainant), an employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, e-mail communication, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the Energy Reorganization Act, within 180 days after an alleged violation of the Act occurs (<I>i.e.,</I> when the retaliatory decision has been both made and communicated to the complainant), an employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of the Act may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, e-mail communication, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relationship to Section 11(c) complaints.</I> A complaint filed under any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) alleging facts that would also constitute a violation of Section 11(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, 29 U.S.C. 660(c), will be deemed to be a complaint under both Section 11(c) and the applicable statutes listed in § 24.100(a). Similarly, a complaint filed under Section 11(c) that alleges facts that would also constitute a violation of any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) will be deemed to be a complaint under both section 11(c) and the applicable statutes listed in § 24.100(a). Normal procedures and timeliness requirements under the respective statutes and regulations will be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.104" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.1.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, the Assistant Secretary will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint by providing the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) with a copy of the complaint, redacted, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, <I>et seq.,</I> and other applicable confidentiality laws. The Assistant Secretary will provide a copy of the unredacted complaint to the complainant (or complainant's legal counsel, if complainant is represented) and to the appropriate office of the Federal agency charged with the administration of the general provisions of the statute(s) under which the complaint is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to the Assistant Secretary a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with the Assistant Secretary to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) Throughout the investigation, the agency will provide to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) a copy of all of respondent's submissions to the agency that are responsive to the complainant's whistleblower complaint. Before providing such materials to the complainant, the agency will redact them, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, <I>et seq.,</I> and other applicable confidentiality laws.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Investigation under the six environmental statutes.</I> In addition to the investigative procedures set forth in §§ 24.104(a), (b), (c), and (d), this paragraph sets forth the procedures applicable to investigations under the Safe Drinking Water Act; Federal Water Pollution Control Act; Toxic Substances Control Act; Solid Waste Disposal Act; Clean Air Act; and Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act.
</P>
<P>(1) A complaint of alleged violation will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a motivating factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a motivating factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) The complainant will be considered to have met the required showing if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence sufficient to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a motivating factor in the adverse action. The required showing may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity, giving rise to the inference that it was a motivating factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(4) The complaint will be dismissed if a preponderance of the evidence shows that the respondent would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investigation under the Energy Reorganization Act.</I> In addition to the investigative procedures set forth in §§ 24.104(a), (b), (c), and (d), this paragraph sets forth special procedures applicable only to investigations under the Energy Reorganization Act.
</P>
<P>(1) A complaint of alleged violation will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected, actually or constructively, that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, an investigation of the complaint will not be conducted or will be discontinued if the respondent, pursuant to the procedures provided in this paragraph, demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected behavior or conduct.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the behavior protected by the Act, the Assistant Secretary will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.1.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.105   Issuance of findings and orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 30 days of filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a).
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, he or she shall accompany the findings with an order providing relief to the complainant. The order shall include, where appropriate, a requirement that the respondent abate the violation; reinstate the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; pay compensatory damages; and, under the Toxic Substances Control Act and the Safe Drinking Water Act, pay exemplary damages, where appropriate. At the complainant's request the order shall also assess against the respondent the complainant's costs and expenses (including attorney's fees) reasonably incurred in connection with the filing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and order will inform the parties of their right to file objections and to request a hearing and provide the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The Assistant Secretary will file a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and order with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
<P>(c) The findings and order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel) or on the compliance date set forth in the order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for a hearing has been filed as provided at § 24.106.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 2820, Jan. 18, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 1782, Jan. 11, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.106" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.2.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.106   Objections to the findings and order and request for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and order must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and order pursuant to § 24.105(b). The objection and/or request for a hearing must be in writing and state whether the objection is to the findings and/or the order. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, email communication, or electronic submission will be considered to be the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.






</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the order will be stayed. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the order, the findings and order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 2820, Jan. 18, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 1782, Jan. 11, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.107" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.2.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure and the rules of evidence for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at part 18 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to a judge who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo, on the record.






</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated, and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 2820, Jan. 18, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 1782, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.108" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.2.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, he or she may participate as a party or participate as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an administrative law judge, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of documents in all cases, whether or not the Assistant Secretary is participating in the proceeding, must be sent to the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) The Environmental Protection Agency, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, and the Department of Energy, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceedings, at the respective agency's discretion. At the request of the interested Federal agency, copies of all pleadings in a case must be sent to the Federal agency, whether or not the agency is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.109" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.2.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (c) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In cases arising under the ERA, a determination that a violation has occurred may only be made if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint. If the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases arising under the six environmental statutes listed in § 24.100(a), a determination that a violation has occurred may only be made if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that the protected activity caused or was a motivating factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint. If the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that the protected activity caused or was a motivating factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by a preponderance of the evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither the Assistant Secretary's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 24.104(e) nor the Assistant Secretary's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the order shall direct the respondent to take appropriate affirmative action to abate the violation, including reinstatement of the complainant to that person's former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions, and privileges of that employment, and compensatory damages. In cases arising under the Safe Drinking Water Act or the Toxic Substances Control Act, exemplary damages may also be awarded when appropriate. At the request of the complainant, the ALJ shall assess against the respondent, all costs and expenses (including attorney fees) reasonably incurred.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases brought under the Energy Reorganization Act, when an ALJ issues a decision that the complaint has merit and orders the relief prescribed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the relief ordered, with the exception of compensatory damages, shall be effective immediately upon receipt, whether or not a petition for review is filed with the ARB.
</P>
<P>(3) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards. Any ALJ's decision issued under any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) will be effective 10 business days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the ARB. An ALJ's order issued under the Energy Reorganization Act will be effective immediately upon receipt, except for that portion of the order awarding any compensatory damages.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.2.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.110   Decisions and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ must file a written petition for review with the ARB, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless, pursuant to this section, a timely petition for review is filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the case for review. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections will ordinarily be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 10 business days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, email communication, or electronic submission will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review and all briefs must be served on the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.




</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, and the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that an order by an ALJ issued under the Energy Reorganization Act, other than that portion of the order awarding compensatory damages, will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay the order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual findings of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The final decision of the ARB will be issued within 90 days of the filing of the complaint. The decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The final decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.




</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the order will order the respondent to take appropriate affirmative action to abate the violation, including reinstatement of the complainant to that person's former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions, and privileges of employment, and compensatory damages. In cases arising under the Safe Drinking Water Act or the Toxic Substances Control Act, exemplary damages may also be awarded when appropriate. At the request of the complainant, the ARB will assess against the respondent all costs and expenses (including attorney's fees) reasonably incurred.


</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 2820, Jan. 18, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 13032, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 30618, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1782, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.111" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.3.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.111   Withdrawal of complaints, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the findings and/or order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint under any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) by filing a written withdrawal with the Assistant Secretary. The Assistant Secretary will then determine whether to approve the withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary will notify the respondent of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement under the Energy Reorganization Act, the Clean Air Act, the Safe Drinking Water Act, or the Toxic Substances Control Act, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. Parties to settlements under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, the Solid Waste Disposal Act, and the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act are encouraged to submit their settlements for approval. After the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, a complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw his or her findings and/or order, at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 24.106, provided that no objection has yet been filed, and substitute new findings and/or a new order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings and/or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings or order become final, a party may withdraw its objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If a case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw its petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If the objections are withdrawn because of settlement under the Energy Reorganization Act, the Clean Air Act, the Safe Drinking Water Act, or the Toxic Substances Control Act, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements under the Energy Reorganization Act, the Clean Air Act, the Safe Drinking Water Act, and the Toxic Substances Control Act.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if the Assistant Secretary, the complainant and the respondent agree to a settlement. The Assistant Secretary's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates his or her consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements under the Energy Reorganization Act, the Clean Air Act, the Safe Drinking Water Act, and the Toxic Substances Control Act.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the judge, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement must be filed with the administrative law judge or the ARB, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by the Assistant Secretary, the administrative law judge, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced pursuant to § 24.113.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.112" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.3.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided under paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation. A final order of the ARB (or a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, within 120 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the Solid Waste Disposal Act, within 90 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(d) Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act, after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States district court in which the violation allegedly occurred. For purposes of judicial economy and consistency, when a final order under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act also is issued under any other statute listed in § 24.100(a), the adversely affected or aggrieved person may file a petition for review of the entire order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation. The time for filing a petition for review of an order issued under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act and any other statute listed in § 24.100(a) is determined by the time period applicable under the other statute(s).
</P>
<P>(e) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the administrative law judge, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as appropriate, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of the court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 30618, May 20, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.113" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.3.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with an order by an ALJ issued under the Energy Reorganization Act, with the exception of any award of compensatory damages, or with a final order of the Secretary, including final orders approving settlement agreements as provided under § 24.111(d), the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. Whenever any person has failed to comply with an order by an ALJ issued under the Energy Reorganization Act, with the exception of any award of compensatory damages, or with a final order of the Secretary under either the Energy Reorganization Act or the Clean Air Act, the person on whose behalf the order was issued also may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.114" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.3.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints under the Energy Reorganization Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If there is no final order of the Secretary, one year has passed since the filing of a complaint under the Energy Reorganization Act, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for <I>de novo</I> review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy.
</P>
<P>(b) Fifteen days in advance of filing a complaint in Federal court, a complainant must file with the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending upon where the proceeding is pending, a notice of his or her intention to file such complaint. The notice must be served on all parties to the proceeding. A copy of the notice must be served on the Regional Administrator, the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. The complainant shall file and serve a copy of the district court complaint on the above as soon as possible after the district court complaint has been filed with the court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.115" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.3.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of this part, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue any orders that justice or the administration of any of the statutes listed in § 24.100(a) requires.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.25.3.66.6.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 24—Your Rights Under the Energy Reorganization Act
</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er18ja11.003.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 25—RULES FOR THE NOMINATION OF ARBITRATORS UNDER SECTION 11 OF EXECUTIVE ORDER 10988
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 11, E.O. 10988, 3 CFR 1959-1963 Comp. p. 521. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>25 FR 9441, Sept. 13, 1966, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 25.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>These procedures govern the nomination of arbitrators by the Secretary to perform the advisory functions specified under section 11 of Executive Order 10988. Any arbitrators so nominated will be available for either or both of the following purposes: 
</P>
<P>(a) To investigate the facts and issue an advisory decision with respect to the appropriateness of a unit of Federal employees for the purpose of exclusive recognition and as to related issues submitted for consideration; or 
</P>
<P>(b) To determine and advise whether an employee organization represents a majority of employees in an appropriate unit by conducting or supervising an election (wherein a majority of those voting, provided there is a representative vote, cast their ballots for or against representation), or by other appropriate means. A request for a nomination will be considered as contemplating the performance of functions within the above categories if it specifies as a purpose obtaining an advisory decision on one or more questions involved in a unit determination or determination of majority status, such as an advisory decision on the eligibility of voters or the right to appear on the ballot, arising in connection with an election to be held, or on a question relating to matters affecting the results of an election which took place after the agreement to conduct the election had been entered into, provided such conduct materially affected the results of the election. Subject to compliance with these procedures, the Secretary will nominate an arbitrator whenever he is so requested by an agency or by an employee organization which is seeking recognition as the exclusive representative of Federal employees in a prima facie appropriate unit and which meets all the prerequisites for seeking such recognition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>When used in these procedures:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Order</I> means Executive Order No. 10988; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency, employee organization,</I> and <I>employee</I> have the same meaning as in the Order; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recognition</I> means recognition which is or may be accorded to an employee organization pursuant to the provisions of the Order; 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.3   Requests for nomination of arbitrators: Filing, disputes, parties, time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for nominations should be filed only where there exists a dispute or problem which cannot more appropriately be resolved through regular agency procedures. Parties, therefore, are expected to eliminate from their requests matters not necessary to the resolution of such dispute or problem and to use their best efforts to secure agreement on as many issues as possible before making the request. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for nominations may be filed either by an agency, or by an employee organization as described in § 25.1, or jointly by an agency and one or more employee organizations. Joint requests are encouraged. 
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the Secretary will entertain on its merits a request by an employee organization for nomination of an arbitrator on a question of unit determination which is made within 30 days after receipt of an agency's final unit determination or 75 days after an appropriate request for exclusive recognition and no final unit determination has been received from the agency, provided the organization has observed any reasonable time limits established by the agency for the processing of such requests within the agency. The Secretary will entertain on its merits a request by an employee organization for nomination of an arbitrator on a question of majority representation which is made within 15 days after an agency's decision with respect to a determination of majority representation. Any request by an employee organization for the nomination of an arbitrator will be considered untimely if: 
</P>
<P>(1) A written request for exclusive recognition was not made prior to the grant of such recognition to another organization provided such grant was preceded by posted notice to all employees in the unit and written notice to all organizations known to represent such employees that a request for exclusive recognition was under consideration. 
</P>
<P>(2) A written request for exclusive recognition was not made within 5 days after the agency posted appropriate notice of its intention to conduct an election to determine majority status, or more than 10 days before the date of the election. 
</P>
<P>(3) It was made less than 12 months after an agency's final unit determination with respect to such unit or subdivision thereof in a proceeding in which the organization sought exclusive recognition but failed to file a timely request for arbitration under these rules. 
</P>
<P>(4) It was made less than 12 months after a unit determination following a section 11 proceeding covering such unit or any subdivision thereof. 
</P>
<P>(5) The time limits set forth in this paragraph will be applied to all requests filed on or after October 15, 1963. 
</P>
<P>(d) No request contemplating an advisory determination as to whether an employee organization should become or continue to be recognized as the exclusive representative of employees in any unit will be entertained if the request is filed within 12 months after a prior determination of exclusive status has been made pursuant to the Order with respect to such unit unless the agency has withdrawn exclusive recognition from an employee organization by reason of its failure to maintain its compliance with sections 2 and 3(a) of the Order or with the Standards of Conduct for Employee Organizations and Code of Fair Labor Practices and the agency advises the Secretary that it has no objection to a new determination of exclusive representation being made within the 12-month period. 
</P>
<P>(e) No request contemplating an advisory determination as to whether an employee organization should become or continue to be recognized as the exclusive representative of employees in any unit will be entertained during the period within which a signed agreement between an agency and an employee organization is in force or awaiting approval at a higher management level, but not to exceed an agreement period of two years, unless (1) a request for redetermination is filed with the agency between the 90th and 60th day prior to the terminal date of such agreement or two years, whichever is earlier, or (2) unusual circumstances exist which will substantially affect the unit or the majority representation. When an agreement has been extended more than 60 days before its terminal date, such extension shall not serve as a basis for the denial of a request under this section submitted in accordance with the time limitations provided above. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 9941, Sept. 13, 1963, as amended at 29 FR 11972, Aug. 21, 1964] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.4   Contents of requests; service on other parties; answer; intervention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for nominations 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> shall be in triplicate and contain the following information: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Requests should be on forms which will be supplied by the Secretary upon request.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The name of the agency and the name and address of any office or branch of the agency below the national level that may be involved; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the unit appropriate for exclusive representation or claimed to be appropriate for such representation; 
</P>
<P>(3) The number of employees in the appropriate unit or any alleged appropriate unit; 
</P>
<P>(4) If the request is by an employee organization, the name, affiliation, if any, and address of the organization and the names, if known, of all other employee organizations claiming exclusive recognition, or having requested or attained formal or informal recognition with respect to any of the employees in the unit involved; 
</P>
<P>(5) If the request is by an agency, the names, affiliation, if any, and addresses of the employee organization or organizations claiming exclusive recognition and of any employee organization which has requested or attained formal or informal recognition with respect to any of the employees in the unit involved; 
</P>
<P>(6) A brief statement indicating specifically the matter or matters with respect to which an advisory decision or determination is sought; 
</P>
<P>(7) A brief statement of procedures followed by and before the agency prior to the request, two copies of any appropriate agency determination and two copies of all correspondence relating to the dispute or problem; 
</P>
<P>(8) If the request is made by an employee organization, an indication of the interest of such organization, including information or data such as membership lists, employee petitions or dues records showing prima facie that the organization has sufficient membership to qualify for formal recognition, and that it represents no less than 30 percent of the employees, in the appropriate unit or alleged appropriate unit; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Any other relevant facts. 
</P>
<P>(b) A party making a request shall furnish copies to all other parties or organizations listed in the request in compliance with paragraph (a) of this section; except that membership lists, employee petitions or dues records need not be furnished by the requesting employee organization to the other parties or organizations. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any employee organization claiming to have an interest in the matter or matters to be considered by an arbitrator as to the appropriateness of a unit or majority representation must have advised the agency of its position, in the manner prescribed by the agency's rules, and must have satisfied all of the requirements of section 5 of the Order and paragraph (a)(8) of this section; except that, in any employee organization which has satisfied all of the requirements of section 5 of the Order except for the 10 percent membership requirement shall be entitled to receive notice of the proceeding and to participate therein if it represents at least two members and/or is designated by at least two employees as their representative in the unit alleged to be appropriate by the employee organization seeking exclusive recognition or the unit alleged to be appropriate by the agency, provided, however, that such intervening employee organization may not request a unit different than that sought by the employee organization seeking exclusive recognition or the unit claimed to be appropriate by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(d) Within fifteen (15) days following the receipt of a copy of any request for a nomination filed with the Secretary, the agency or any employee organization may file a response thereto with the Secretary, raising any matter which is relevant to the request including the adequacy of the showing of interest and the appropriateness of the unit under terms of the Order or these procedures. A copy of any response shall be furnished to other parties and organizations listed in the request, in the manner provided in paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26.0.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.5   Action to be taken by the Secretary; nomination and selection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a request and the responses, if any, the Secretary shall make such further inquiries as may be necessary to determine his authority under the Order and these procedures; whether a timely request for nomination has been made; whether a valid question concerning representation exists in a prima facie appropriate unit; or for the purpose of obtaining a further specification of the issues or matters to be submitted for an advisory decision or determination, or assisting or advising the persons nominated or considered for nomination or otherwise facilitating submission of the matter to such person or persons in a manner that will permit an expeditious decision or determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will determine the adequacy of the showing of interest administratively, and such determination shall not be subject to collateral attack at a hearing before an arbitrator. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary shall nominate not less than three arbitrators. Within 5 days the parties may indicate their order of preference from among those nominated. The Secretary will thereafter make a selection from among the nominees listed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26.0.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.6   Time; additional time after service by mail.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by the rules of this part, the date of the act, event, or default after which the designated period of time begins to run, is not to be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday or a Federal legal holiday, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday nor a Federal legal holiday. When the period of time prescribed, or allowed, is less than 7 days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays and holidays shall be excluded from the computations. Whenever a party has the right or is required to do some act or take some other proceedings within a prescribed period after service of a notice or other paper upon the Secretary or a party and the notice is served upon him by mail, 3 days shall be added to the prescribed period: <I>Provided, however,</I> That 3 days shall not be added if any extension of such time may have been granted. 
</P>
<P>(b) When these rules require the filing of any paper, such document must be received by the Secretary or a party before the close of business of the last day of the time limit, if any, for such filing or extension of time that may have been granted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26.0.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.7   Fees; cost; expenses; decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Arbitrator's fees, per diem and travel expenses, and election expenses for notices, ballots, postage, rentals, assistance, etc., shall be borne entirely by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) The standard fee for the services of an arbitrator should be $100 per day. Travel and per diem should be paid at the maximum rate payable to Government employees under the Standardized Government Travel Regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency should provide the arbitrator with a copy of the transcript of testimony taken at the hearing, such transcript to be returned to the agency upon the issuance of the arbitrator's advisory decision. 
</P>
<P>(d) Costs involving assistance rendered by the Secretary's Office in connection with advisory decisions or determinations under section 11 of the order shall be limited to per diem, travel expenses and services on a time-worked basis. 
</P>
<P>(e) Upon request, the Secretary will make available copies of advisory decisions of arbitrators. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.26.0.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.8   Construction of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules shall be liberally construed to effectuate the purposes and provisions of the order. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 26—ADMINISTRATIVE REVIEW BOARD RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secretary's Order 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 1782, Jan. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 26.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.27.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains the rules of practice of the Administrative Review Board (ARB) when it is exercising its authority as described in paragraph (b) of this section. These rules shall govern all appeals and proceedings before the ARB except when inconsistent with a governing statute, regulation, or executive order, in which event the latter shall control.
</P>
<P>(b) The ARB has authority to act as the authorized representative of the Secretary of Labor in review or on appeal of decisions and recommendations as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order). The ARB shall act as fully and finally as the Secretary of Labor concerning such matters, except as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.27.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.2   General procedural matters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>ARB</I> means the Administrative Review Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electronic case management system</I> means the Department of Labor's electronic filing and electronic service system for adjudications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computing time.</I> (1) Unless a different time is set by statute, regulation, executive order, or judge's order, when computing a time period stated in days,
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude the day of the event that triggers the period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Count every day, including intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the last day of the period, but if the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, the period continues to run until the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless a different time is set by statute, regulation, executive order, or judge's order, the “last day” ends:
</P>
<P>(i) For electronic filing via the Department's electronic case management system or via other electronic means, at 11:59:59 Eastern Time on the due date.
</P>
<P>(ii) For non-electronic filing, at the time the office of the Clerk of the Appellate Boards is scheduled to close in Washington, DC on the due date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mailing address.</I> The mailing address for the ARB is: Administrative Review Board, Clerk of the Appellate Boards, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20210.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.27.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.3   Filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing by electronic submission (e-filing) via the Department's electronic case management system</I>—(1) <I>Attorneys and lay representatives.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, beginning on April 12, 2021, attorneys and lay representatives must file all petitions, pleadings, exhibits, and other documents with the ARB via the Department's electronic case management system. Paper copies are not required unless requested by the ARB.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Good cause exception.</I> Attorneys and lay representatives may request an exemption to e-filing for good cause shown. Such a request must include a detailed explanation why e-filing or acceptance of e-service should not be required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Self-represented persons.</I> Self-represented persons may use but are not required to use the Department's electronic case management system to file documents.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Filing—date of receipt.</I> Unless a different time is set by statute, regulation, executive order, or judge's order, a document is considered filed when received by the Clerk of the Appellate Boards. Documents filed through the Department's electronic case management system are considered received by the Clerk of the Appellate Boards as of the date and time recorded by the Department's electronic case management system.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Signing.</I> A filing made through a registered user's account on the Department's electronic case management system and authorized by that person, together with that person's name on a signature block, constitutes the person's signature.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Relief for Technical Failures.</I> A person who is adversely affected by a technical failure in connection with filing or receipt of an electronic document may seek appropriate relief from the ARB. If a technical malfunction or other issue prevents access to the Department's case management system for a protracted period, the ARB by special order may provide appropriate relief pending restoration of electronic access.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternate methods of filing.</I> Unless a different time is set by statute, regulation, executive order, or judge's order, a document filed using a method other than the Department's electronic case management system is considered filed when received by the Clerk of the Appellate Boards.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.27.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.4   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electronic service.</I> Electronic service may be completed by
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail, if consented to in writing by the person served; or
</P>
<P>(2) Sending it to a user registered with the Department's electronic case management system by filing via this system. A person who registers to use the Department's case management system is deemed to have consented to accept service through the system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-electronic service.</I> Unless otherwise provided by statute, regulation, executive order, or judge's order, non-electronic service may be completed by:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal delivery;
</P>
<P>(2) Mail; or
</P>
<P>(3) Commercial delivery.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When service is effected.</I> Unless otherwise provided by statute, regulation, executive order, or judge's order,
</P>
<P>(1) Service by personal delivery is effected on the date the document is delivered to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(2) Service by mail or commercial carrier is effected on mailing or delivery to the carrier.
</P>
<P>(3) Service by electronic means is effected on sending.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="29" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 29—LABOR STANDARDS FOR THE REGISTRATION OF APPRENTICESHIP PROGRAMS 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 50; 40 U.S.C. 3145; 5 U.S.C. 301; 5 U.S.C. App. P. 534.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 29.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The National Apprenticeship Act of 1937, section 1 (29 U.S.C. 50), authorizes and directs the Secretary of Labor “to formulate and promote the furtherance of labor standards necessary to safeguard the welfare of apprentices, to extend the application of such standards by encouraging the inclusion thereof in contracts of apprenticeship, to bring together employers and labor for the formulation of programs of apprenticeship, to cooperate with State agencies engaged in the formulation and promotion of standards of apprenticeship, and to cooperate with the Office of Education under the Department of Health, Education, and Welfare * * *.” Section 2 of the Act authorizes the Secretary of Labor to “publish information relating to existing and proposed labor standards of apprenticeship,” and to “appoint national advisory committees * * *.” (29 U.S.C. 50a).
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of this part is to set forth labor standards to safeguard the welfare of apprentices, promote apprenticeship opportunity, and to extend the application of such standards by prescribing policies and procedures concerning the registration, for certain Federal purposes, of acceptable apprenticeship programs with the U.S. Department of Labor, Employment and Training Administration, Office of Apprenticeship. These labor standards, policies and procedures cover the registration, cancellation and deregistration of apprenticeship programs and of apprenticeship agreements; the recognition of a State agency as an authorized agency for registering apprenticeship programs for certain Federal purposes; and matters relating thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 14386, Mar. 11, 2020; 87 FR 58287, Sept. 26, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Office of Apprenticeship, or any person specifically designated by the Administrator.
</P>
<P><I>Apprentice</I> means a worker at least 16 years of age, except where a higher minimum age standard is otherwise fixed by law, who is employed to learn an apprenticeable occupation as provided in § 29.4 under standards of apprenticeship fulfilling the requirements of § 29.5.
</P>
<P><I>Apprenticeship agreement</I> means a written agreement, complying with § 29.7, between an apprentice and either the apprentice's program sponsor, or an apprenticeship committee acting as agent for the program sponsor(s), which contains the terms and conditions of the employment and training of the apprentice.
</P>
<P><I>Apprenticeship committee (Committee)</I> means those persons designated by the sponsor to administer the program. A committee may be either joint or non-joint, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A joint committee is composed of an equal number of representatives of the employer(s) and of the employees represented by a bona fide collective bargaining agent(s).
</P>
<P>(2) A non-joint committee, which may also be known as a unilateral or group non-joint (which may include employees) committee, has employer representatives but does not have a bona fide collective bargaining agent as a participant.


</P>
<P><I>Apprenticeship program</I> means a plan containing all terms and conditions for the qualification, recruitment, selection, employment and training of apprentices, as required under this part and 29 CFR part 30, including such matters as the requirement for a written apprenticeship agreement.


</P>
<P><I>Cancellation</I> means the termination of the registration or approval status of a program at the request of the sponsor, or termination of an Apprenticeship Agreement at the request of the apprentice.
</P>
<P><I>Certification or certificate</I> means documentary evidence that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of Apprenticeship has approved a set of National Guidelines for Apprenticeship Standards developed by a national committee or organization, joint or unilateral, for policy or guideline use by local affiliates, as conforming to the standards of apprenticeship set forth in § 29.5;
</P>
<P>(2) A Registration Agency has established that an individual is eligible for probationary employment as an apprentice under a registered apprenticeship program;
</P>
<P>(3) A Registration Agency has registered an apprenticeship program as evidenced by a Certificate of Registration or other written indicia;
</P>
<P>(4) A Registration Agency has determined that an apprentice has successfully met the requirements to receive an interim credential; or
</P>
<P>(5) A Registration Agency has determined that an individual has successfully completed apprenticeship.
</P>
<P><I>Competency</I> means the attainment of manual, mechanical or technical skills and knowledge, as specified by an occupational standard and demonstrated by an appropriate written and hands-on proficiency measurement.
</P>
<P><I>Completion</I> rate means the percentage of an apprenticeship cohort who receive a certificate of apprenticeship completion within 1 year of the projected completion date. An apprenticeship cohort is the group of individual apprentices registered to a specific program during a 1 year time frame, except that a cohort does not include the apprentices whose apprenticeship agreement has been cancelled during the probationary period.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic media</I> means media that utilize electronics or electromechanical energy for the end user (audience) to access the content; and includes, but is not limited to, electronic storage media, transmission media, the Internet, extranet, lease lines, dial-up lines, private networks, and the physical movement of removable/transportable electronic media and/or interactive distance learning.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means any person or organization employing an apprentice whether or not such person or organization is a party to an Apprenticeship Agreement with the apprentice.
</P>
<P><I>Federal purposes</I> includes any Federal contract, grant, agreement or arrangement dealing with apprenticeship; and any Federal financial or other assistance, benefit, privilege, contribution, allowance, exemption, preference or right pertaining to apprenticeship.
</P>
<P><I>Interim credential</I> means a credential issued by the Registration Agency, upon request of the appropriate sponsor, as certification of competency attainment by an apprentice.
</P>
<P><I>Journeyworker</I> means a worker who has attained a level of skill, abilities and competencies recognized within an industry as having mastered the skills and competencies required for the occupation. (Use of the term may also refer to a mentor, technician, specialist or other skilled worker who has documented sufficient skills and knowledge of an occupation, either through formal apprenticeship or through practical on-the-job experience and formal training.)
</P>
<P><I>Office of apprenticeship</I> means the office designated by the Employment and Training Administration to administer the National Apprenticeship System or its successor organization.
</P>
<P><I>Provisional registration</I> means the 1-year initial provisional approval of newly registered programs that meet the required standards for program registration, after which program approval may be made permanent, continued as provisional, or rescinded following a review by the Registration Agency, as provided for in the criteria described in § 29.3(g) and (h).
</P>
<P><I>Quality assurance assessment</I> means a comprehensive review conducted by a Registration Agency regarding all aspects of an apprenticeship program's performance, including but not limited to, determining if apprentices are receiving: on-the-job training in all phases of the apprenticeable occupation; scheduled wage increases consistent with the registered standards; related instruction through appropriate curriculum and delivery systems; and that the registration agency is receiving notification of all new registrations, cancellations, and completions as required in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Registration agency</I> means the Office of Apprenticeship or a recognized State Apprenticeship Agency that has responsibility for registering apprenticeship programs and apprentices; providing technical assistance; conducting reviews for compliance with this part and 29 CFR part 30; and quality assurance assessments.
</P>
<P><I>Registration of an apprenticeship agreement</I> means the acceptance and recording of an apprenticeship agreement by the Office of Apprenticeship or a recognized State Apprenticeship Agency as evidence of the apprentice's participation in a particular registered apprenticeship program.
</P>
<P><I>Registration of an apprenticeship program</I> means the acceptance and recording of such program by the Office of Apprenticeship, or registration and/or approval by a recognized State Apprenticeship Agency, as meeting the basic standards and requirements of the Department for approval of such program for Federal purposes. Approval is evidenced by a Certificate of Registration or other written indicia.
</P>
<P><I>Related instruction</I> means an organized and systematic form of instruction designed to provide the apprentice with the knowledge of the theoretical and technical subjects related to the apprentice's occupation. Such instruction may be given in a classroom, through occupational or industrial courses, or by correspondence courses of equivalent value, electronic media, or other forms of self-study approved by the Registration Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or any person designated by the Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means any person, association, committee, or organization operating an apprenticeship program and in whose name the program is (or is to be) registered or approved.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the 50 States of the United States, District of Columbia, or any Territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>State Apprenticeship Agency</I> means an agency of a State government that has responsibility and accountability for apprenticeship within the State. Only a State Apprenticeship Agency may seek recognition by the Office of Apprenticeship as an agency which has been properly constituted under an acceptable law or Executive Order, and authorized by the Office of Apprenticeship to register and oversee apprenticeship programs and agreements for Federal purposes.
</P>
<P><I>State Apprenticeship Council</I> is an entity established to assist the State Apprenticeship Agency. A State Apprenticeship Council is ineligible for recognition as the State's Registration Agency. A regulatory State Apprenticeship Council may promulgate apprenticeship law at the direction of the State Apprenticeship Agency. An advisory State Apprenticeship Council provides advice and guidance to the State Apprenticeship Agency on the operation of the State's apprenticeship system.
</P>
<P><I>State office</I> means that individual office or division of State government designated as the point of contact for the State Apprenticeship Agency.


</P>
<P><I>Technical assistance</I> means guidance provided by Registration Agency staff in the development, revision, amendment, or processing of a potential or current program sponsor's Standards of Apprenticeship, Apprenticeship Agreements, or advice or consultation with a program sponsor to further compliance with this part or guidance from the Office of Apprenticeship to a State Apprenticeship Agency on how to remedy nonconformity with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer</I> means a shift of apprenticeship registration from one program to another or from one employer within a program to another employer within that same program, where there is agreement between the apprentice and the affected apprenticeship committees or program sponsors. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 14387, Mar. 11, 2020; 87 FR 58287, Sept. 26, 2022]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.3   Eligibility and procedure for registration of an apprenticeship program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eligibility for registration of an apprenticeship program for various Federal purposes is conditioned upon a program's conformity with the apprenticeship program standards published in this part. For a program to be determined by the Secretary as being in conformity with these published standards, the program must apply for registration and be registered with the Office of Apprenticeship or with a State Apprenticeship Agency recognized by the Office of Apprenticeship. The determination by the Secretary that the program meets the apprenticeship program standards is effectuated only through such registration.
</P>
<P>(b) Only an apprenticeship program or agreement that meets the following criteria is eligible for Office of Apprenticeship or State Apprenticeship Agency registration:
</P>
<P>(1) It is in conformity with the requirements of this part and the training is in an apprenticeable occupation having the characteristics set forth in § 29.4; and


</P>
<P>(2) It is in conformity with the requirements of the Department's regulation on Equal Employment Opportunity in Apprenticeship and Training in 29 CFR part 30, as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided under paragraph (d) of this section, apprentices must be individually registered under a registered program. Such individual registration may be affected:
</P>
<P>(1) By filing copies of each individual apprenticeship agreement with the Registration Agency; or
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to prior Office of Apprenticeship or recognized State Apprenticeship Agency approval, by filing a master copy of such agreement followed by a listing of the name, and other required data, of each individual when apprenticed.
</P>
<P>(d) The names of persons in probationary employment as an apprentice under an apprenticeship program registered by the Office of Apprenticeship or a recognized State Apprenticeship Agency, if not individually registered under such program, must be submitted within 45 days of employment to the Office of Apprenticeship or State Apprenticeship Agency for certification to establish the apprentice as eligible for such probationary employment.
</P>
<P>(e) The appropriate Registration Agency must be notified within 45 days of persons who have successfully completed apprenticeship programs; and of transfers, suspensions, and cancellations of apprenticeship agreements and a statement of the reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(f) Operating apprenticeship programs, when approved by the Office of Apprenticeship, are accorded registration evidenced by a Certificate of Registration. Programs approved by recognized State Apprenticeship Agencies must be accorded registration and/or approval evidenced by a similar certificate or other written indicia. When approved by the Office of Apprenticeship, National Apprenticeship Guideline Standards for policy or guidance will be accorded a certificate.


</P>
<P>(g) Applications for new programs that the Registration Agency determines meet the required standards for program registration must be given provisional approval for a period of 1 year. The Registration Agency must review all new programs for quality and for conformity with the requirements of this part at the end of the first year after registration. At that time:




</P>
<P>(1) A program that conforms with the requirements of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) May be made permanent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) May continue to be provisionally approved through the first full training cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) A program not in operation or not conforming to the regulations during the provisional approval period must be recommended for deregistration procedures.
</P>
<P>(h) The Registration Agency must review all programs for quality and for conformity with the requirements of this part at the end of the first full training cycle. A satisfactory review of a provisionally approved program will result in conversion of provisional approval to permanent registration. Subsequent reviews must be conducted no less frequently than every 5 years. Programs not in operation or not conforming to the regulations must be recommended for deregistration procedures.


</P>
<P>(i) Any sponsor proposals or applications for modification(s) or change(s) to registered programs or certified National Guidelines for Apprenticeship Standards must be submitted to the Registration Agency. The Registration Agency must make a determination on whether to approve such submissions within 90 days from the date of receipt. If approved, the modification(s) or change(s) will be recorded and acknowledged within 90 days of approval as an amendment to such program. If not approved, the sponsor must be notified of the disapproval and the reasons therefore and provided the appropriate technical assistance.
</P>
<P>(j) Under a program proposed for registration by an employer or employers' association, where the standards, collective bargaining agreement or other instrument provides for participation by a union in any manner in the operation of the substantive matters of the apprenticeship program, and such participation is exercised, written acknowledgement of union agreement or no objection to the registration is required. Where no such participation is evidenced and practiced, the employer or employers' association must simultaneously furnish to an existing union, which is the collective bargaining agent of the employees to be trained, a copy of its application for registration and of the apprenticeship program. The Registration Agency must provide for receipt of union comments, if any, within 45 days before final action on the application for registration and/or approval.
</P>
<P>(k) Where the employees to be trained have no collective bargaining agreement, an apprenticeship program may be proposed for registration by an employer or group of employers, or an employer association. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 14387, Mar. 11, 2020; 87 FR 58287, Sept. 26, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.4   Criteria for apprenticeable occupations.</HEAD>
<P>An apprenticeable occupation is one which is specified by industry and which must:
</P>
<P>(a) Involve skills that are customarily learned in a practical way through a structured, systematic program of on-the-job supervised learning;
</P>
<P>(b) Be clearly identified and commonly recognized throughout an industry;
</P>
<P>(c) Involve the progressive attainment of manual, mechanical or technical skills and knowledge which, in accordance with the industry standard for the occupation, would require the completion of at least 2,000 hours of on-the-job learning to attain; and
</P>
<P>(d) Require related instruction to supplement the on-the-job learning. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.5   Standards of apprenticeship.</HEAD>
<P>An apprenticeship program, to be eligible for approval and registration by a Registration Agency, must conform to the following standards:
</P>
<P>(a) The program must have an organized, written plan (program standards) embodying the terms and conditions of employment, training, and supervision of one or more apprentices in an apprenticeable occupation, as defined in this part, and subscribed to by a sponsor who has undertaken to carry out the apprentice training program.
</P>
<P>(b) The program standards must contain provisions that address:
</P>
<P>(1) The employment and training of the apprentice in a skilled occupation.
</P>
<P>(2) The term of apprenticeship, which for an individual apprentice may be measured either through the completion of the industry standard for on-the-job learning (at least 2,000 hours) (time-based approach), the attainment of competency (competency-based approach), or a blend of the time-based and competency-based approaches (hybrid approach).
</P>
<P>(i) The time-based approach measures skill acquisition through the individual apprentice's completion of at least 2,000 hours of on-the-job learning as described in a work process schedule.
</P>
<P>(ii) The competency-based approach measures skill acquisition through the individual apprentice's successful demonstration of acquired skills and knowledge, as verified by the program sponsor. Programs utilizing this approach must still require apprentices to complete an on-the-job learning component of Registered Apprenticeship. The program standards must address how on-the-job learning will be integrated into the program, describe competencies, and identify an appropriate means of testing and evaluation for such competencies.
</P>
<P>(iii) The hybrid approach measures the individual apprentice's skill acquisition through a combination of specified minimum number of hours of on-the-job learning and the successful demonstration of competency as described in a work process schedule.
</P>
<P>(iv) The determination of the appropriate approach for the program standards is made by the program sponsor, subject to approval by the Registration Agency of the determination as appropriate to the apprenticeable occupation for which the program standards are registered.
</P>
<P>(3) An outline of the work processes in which the apprentice will receive supervised work experience and training on the job, and the allocation of the approximate amount of time to be spent in each major process.
</P>
<P>(4) Provision for organized, related instruction in technical subjects related to the occupation. A minimum of 144 hours for each year of apprenticeship is recommended. This instruction in technical subjects may be accomplished through media such as classroom, occupational or industry courses, electronic media, or other instruction approved by the Registration Agency. Every apprenticeship instructor must:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the State Department of Education's requirements for a vocational-technical instructor in the State of registration, or be a subject matter expert, which is an individual, such as a journeyworker, who is recognized within an industry as having expertise in a specific occupation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Have training in teaching techniques and adult learning styles, which may occur before or after the apprenticeship instructor has started to provide the related technical instruction.
</P>
<P>(5) A progressively increasing schedule of wages to be paid to the apprentice consistent with the skill acquired. The entry wage must not be less than the minimum wage prescribed by the Fair Labor Standards Act, where applicable, unless a higher wage is required by other applicable Federal law, State law, respective regulations, or by collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) Periodic review and evaluation of the apprentice's performance on the job and in related instruction; and the maintenance of appropriate progress records.
</P>
<P>(7) A numeric ratio of apprentices to journeyworkers consistent with proper supervision, training, safety, and continuity of employment, and applicable provisions in collective bargaining agreements, except where such ratios are expressly prohibited by the collective bargaining agreements. The ratio language must be specific and clearly described as to its application to the job site, workforce, department or plant.
</P>
<P>(8) A probationary period reasonable in relation to the full apprenticeship term, with full credit given for such period toward completion of apprenticeship. The probationary period cannot exceed 25 percent of the length of the program, or 1 year, whichever is shorter.
</P>
<P>(9) Adequate and safe equipment and facilities for training and supervision, and safety training for apprentices on the job and in related instruction.
</P>
<P>(10) The minimum qualifications required by a sponsor for persons entering the apprenticeship program, with an eligible starting age not less than 16 years.
</P>
<P>(11) The placement of an apprentice under a written Apprenticeship Agreement that meets the requirements of § 29.7 or the State apprenticeship law of a recognized Registration Agency. The agreement must directly, or by reference, incorporate the standards of the program as part of the agreement.
</P>
<P>(12) The granting of advanced standing or credit for demonstrated competency, acquired experience, training, or skills for all applicants equally, with commensurate wages for any progression step so granted.
</P>
<P>(13) The transfer of an apprentice between apprenticeship programs and within an apprenticeship program must be based on agreement between the apprentice and the affected apprenticeship committees or program sponsors, and must comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The transferring apprentice must be provided a transcript of related instruction and on-the-job learning by the committee or program sponsor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transfer must be to the same occupation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A new apprenticeship agreement must be executed when the transfer occurs between program sponsors.
</P>
<P>(14) Assurance of qualified training personnel and adequate supervision on the job.
</P>
<P>(15) Recognition for successful completion of apprenticeship evidenced by an appropriate certificate issued by the Registration Agency.
</P>
<P>(16) Program standards that utilize the competency-based or hybrid approach for progression through an apprenticeship and that choose to issue interim credentials must clearly identify the interim credentials, demonstrate how these credentials link to the components of the apprenticeable occupation, and establish the process for assessing an individual apprentice's demonstration of competency associated with the particular interim credential. Further, interim credentials must only be issued for recognized components of an apprenticeable occupation, thereby linking interim credentials specifically to the knowledge, skills, and abilities associated with those components of the apprenticeable occupation.
</P>
<P>(17) Identification of the Registration Agency.
</P>
<P>(18) Provision for the registration, cancellation and deregistration of the program; and for the prompt submission of any program standard modification or amendment to the Registration Agency for approval.
</P>
<P>(19) Provision for registration of apprenticeship agreements, modifications, and amendments; notice to the Registration Agency of persons who have successfully completed apprenticeship programs; and notice of transfers, suspensions, and cancellations of apprenticeship agreements and a statement of the reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(20) Authority for the cancellation of an apprenticeship agreement during the probationary period by either party without stated cause; cancellation during the probationary period will not have an adverse impact on the sponsor's completion rate.
</P>
<P>(21) Compliance with 29 CFR part 30, including the equal opportunity pledge prescribed in 29 CFR 30.3(c); an affirmative action program complying with 29 CFR 30.4; and a method for the selection of apprentices complying with 29 CFR 30.10, or compliance with parallel requirements contained in a State plan for equal opportunity in apprenticeship adopted under 29 CFR part 30 and approved by the Department. The apprenticeship standards must also include a statement that the program will be conducted, operated and administered in conformity with applicable provisions of 29 CFR part 30, as amended, or if applicable, an approved State plan for equal opportunity in apprenticeship.
</P>
<P>(22) Contact information (name, address, telephone number, and e-mail address if appropriate) for the appropriate individual with authority under the program to receive, process and make disposition of complaints.
</P>
<P>(23) Recording and maintenance of all records concerning apprenticeship as may be required by the Office of Apprenticeship or recognized State Apprenticeship Agency and other applicable law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 92107, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.6   Program performance standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every registered apprenticeship program must have at least one registered apprentice, except for the following specified periods of time, which may not exceed 1 year:
</P>
<P>(1) Between the date when a program is registered and the date of registration for its first apprentice(s); or
</P>
<P>(2) Between the date that a program graduates an apprentice and the date of registration for the next apprentice(s) in the program.
</P>
<P>(b) Registration Agencies must evaluate performance of registered apprenticeship programs.
</P>
<P>(1) The tools and factors to be used must include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Quality assurance assessments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) Compliance Reviews; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Completion rates.
</P>
<P>(2) Any additional tools and factors used by the Registration Agency in evaluating program performance must adhere to the goals and policies of the Department articulated in this part and in guidance issued by the Office of Apprenticeship.




</P>
<P>(c) In order to evaluate completion rates, the Registration Agency must review a program's completion rates in comparison to the national average for completion rates. Based on the review, the Registration Agency must provide technical assistance to programs with completion rates lower than the national average.
</P>
<P>(d) Cancellation of apprenticeship agreements during the probationary period will not have an adverse impact on a sponsor's completion rate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 14387, Mar. 11, 2020; 87 FR 58287, Sept. 26, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.7   Apprenticeship agreement.</HEAD>
<P>The apprenticeship agreement must contain, explicitly or by reference:
</P>
<P>(a) Names and signatures of the contracting parties (apprentice, and the program sponsor or employer), and the signature of a parent or guardian if the apprentice is a minor.
</P>
<P>(b) The date of birth and, on a voluntary basis, Social Security number of the apprentice.
</P>
<P>(c) Contact information of the Program Sponsor and Registration Agency.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement of the occupation in which the apprentice is to be trained, and the beginning date and term (duration) of apprenticeship.
</P>
<P>(e) A statement showing:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of hours to be spent by the apprentice in work on the job in a time-based program; or a description of the skill sets to be attained by completion of a competency-based program, including the on-the-job learning component; or the minimum number of hours to be spent by the apprentice and a description of the skill sets to be attained by completion of hybrid program; and
</P>
<P>(2) The number of hours to be spent in related instruction in technical subjects related to the occupation, which is recommended to be not less than 144 hours per year.
</P>
<P>(f) A statement setting forth a schedule of the work processes in the occupation or industry divisions in which the apprentice is to be trained and the approximate time to be spent at each process.
</P>
<P>(g) A statement of the graduated scale of wages to be paid to the apprentice and whether or not the required related instruction is compensated.
</P>
<P>(h) Statements providing:
</P>
<P>(1) For a specific period of probation during which the apprenticeship agreement may be cancelled by either party to the agreement upon written notice to the registration agency, without adverse impact on the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(2) That, after the probationary period, the agreement may be:
</P>
<P>(i) Cancelled at the request of the apprentice, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Suspended or cancelled by the sponsor, for good cause, with due notice to the apprentice and a reasonable opportunity for corrective action, and with written notice to the apprentice and to the Registration Agency of the final action taken.
</P>
<P>(i) A reference incorporating as part of the agreement the standards of the apprenticeship program as they exist on the date of the agreement and as they may be amended during the period of the agreement.
</P>
<P>(j) A statement that the apprentice will be accorded equal opportunity in all phases of apprenticeship employment and training, without discrimination because of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability.
</P>
<P>(k) Contact information (name, address, phone, and e-mail if appropriate) of the appropriate authority designated under the program to receive, process and make disposition of controversies or differences arising out of the apprenticeship agreement when the controversies or differences cannot be adjusted locally or resolved in accordance with the established procedure or applicable collective bargaining provisions. 
</P>
<P>(l) A request for demographic data, including the apprentice's race, sex, and ethnicity, and disability status.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 92107, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.8   Deregistration of a registered program.</HEAD>
<P>Deregistration of a program may be effected upon the voluntary action of the sponsor by submitting a request for cancellation of the registration in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, or upon reasonable cause, by the Registration Agency instituting formal deregistration proceedings in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Deregistration at the request of the sponsor.</I> The Registration Agency may cancel the registration of an apprenticeship program by written acknowledgment of such request stating the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The registration is cancelled at the sponsor's request, and the effective date thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) That, within 15 days of the date of the acknowledgment, the sponsor will notify all apprentices of such cancellation and the effective date; that such cancellation automatically deprives the apprentice of individual registration; that the deregistration of the program removes the apprentice from coverage for Federal purposes which require the Secretary of Labor's approval of an apprenticeship program, and that all apprentices are referred to the Registration Agency for information about potential transfer to other registered apprenticeship programs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deregistration by the registration agency upon reasonable cause.</I> (1)(i) Deregistration proceedings may be undertaken when the apprenticeship program is not conducted, operated, or administered in accordance with the program's registered provisions or with the requirements of this part, including but not limited to: failure to provide on-the-job learning; failure to provide related instruction; failure to pay the apprentice a progressively increasing schedule of wages consistent with the apprentices skills acquired; or persistent and significant failure to perform successfully.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, persistent and significant failure to perform successfully occurs when a program sponsor consistently fails to register at least one apprentice, shows a pattern of poor quality assessment results over a period of several years, demonstrates an ongoing pattern of very low completion rates over a period of several years, or shows no indication of improvement in the areas identified by the Registration Agency during a review process as requiring corrective action.
</P>
<P>(2) Where it appears the program is not being operated in accordance with the registered standards or with requirements of this part, the Registration Agency must notify the program sponsor in writing.
</P>
<P>(3) The notice sent to the program sponsor's contact person must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be sent by registered or certified mail, with return receipt requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) State the shortcoming(s) and the remedy required; and
</P>
<P>(iii) State that a determination of reasonable cause for deregistration will be made unless corrective action is effected within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon request by the sponsor for good cause, the 30-day term may be extended for another 30 days. During the period for corrective action, the Registration Agency must assist the sponsor in every reasonable way to achieve conformity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the required correction is not effected within the allotted time, the Registration Agency must send a notice to the sponsor, by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, stating the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The notice is sent under this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(ii) Certain deficiencies were called to the sponsor's attention (enumerating them and the remedial measures requested, with the dates of such occasions and letters), and that the sponsor has failed or refused to effect correction;
</P>
<P>(iii) Based upon the stated deficiencies and failure to remedy them, a determination has been made that there is reasonable cause to deregister the program and the program may be deregistered unless, within 15 days of the receipt of this notice, the sponsor requests a hearing with the applicable Registration Agency; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the sponsor does not request a hearing, the entire matter will be submitted to the Administrator, Office of Apprenticeship, for a decision on the record with respect to deregistration.
</P>
<P>(6) If the sponsor does not request a hearing, the Registration Agency will transmit to the Administrator a report containing all pertinent facts and circumstances concerning the nonconformity, including the findings and recommendation for deregistration, and copies of all relevant documents and records. Statements concerning interviews, meetings and conferences will include the time, date, place, and persons present. The Administrator will make a final order on the basis of the record presented.
</P>
<P>(7) If the sponsor requests a hearing, the Registration Agency will transmit to the Administrator a report containing all the data listed in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, and the Administrator will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Law Judges. An Administrative Law Judge will convene a hearing in accordance with § 29.10, and issue a decision as required in § 29.10(c).
</P>
<P>(8) Every order of deregistration must contain a provision that the sponsor must, within 15 days of the effective date of the order, notify all registered apprentices of the deregistration of the program; the effective date thereof; that such cancellation automatically deprives the apprentice of individual registration; that the deregistration removes the apprentice from coverage for Federal purposes which require the Secretary of Labor's approval of an apprenticeship program; and that all apprentices are referred to the Registration Agency for information about potential transfer to other registered apprenticeship programs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 92108, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.9   Reinstatement of program registration.</HEAD>
<P>Any apprenticeship program deregistered under § 29.8 may be reinstated upon presentation of adequate evidence that the apprenticeship program is operating in accordance with this part. Such evidence must be presented to the Registration Agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.10   Hearings for deregistration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 10 days of receipt of a request for a hearing, the Administrator of the Office of Apprenticeship must contact the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges to request the designation of an Administrative Law Judge to preside over the hearing. The Administrative Law Judge shall give reasonable notice of such hearing to the appropriate sponsor. Such notice will include:


</P>
<P>(1) A reasonable time and place of hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the provisions of this part pursuant to which the hearing is to be held; and
</P>
<P>(3) A concise statement of the matters pursuant to which the action forming the basis of the hearing is proposed to be taken.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures contained in 29 CFR part 18 will apply to the disposition of the request for hearing except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Administrative Law Judge will receive, and make part of the record, documentary evidence offered by any party and accepted at the hearing. Copies thereof will be made available by the party submitting the documentary evidence to any party to the hearing upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) Technical rules of evidence will not apply to hearings conducted pursuant to this part, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most credible evidence available and to subject testimony to test by cross-examination will be applied, where reasonably necessary, by the Administrative Law Judge conducting the hearing. The Administrative Law Judge may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrative Law Judge should issue a written decision within 90 days of the close of the hearing record. The Administrative Law Judge's decision constitutes final agency action unless, within 15 days from receipt of the decision, a party dissatisfied with the decision files a petition for review with the Administrative Review Board in accordance with 29 CFR part 26, specifically identifying the procedure, fact, law, or policy to which exception is taken. Any exception not specifically urged is deemed to have been waived. A copy of the petition for review must be served on the opposing party at the same time in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. Thereafter, the decision of the Administrative Law Judge remains final agency action unless the Administrative Review Board, within 30 days of the filing of the petition for review, notifies the parties that it has accepted the case for review. The Administrative Review Board may set a briefing schedule or decide the matter on the record. The Administrative Review Board must issue a decision in any case it accepts for review within 180 days of the close of the record. If a decision is not so issued, the Administrative Law Judge's decision constitutes final agency action.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 13033, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 14387, Mar. 11, 2020; 85 FR 30619, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1783, Jan. 11, 2021; 87 FR 58287, Sept. 26, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.11   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part or in any apprenticeship agreement will operate to invalidate:
</P>
<P>(a) Any apprenticeship provision in any collective bargaining agreement between employers and employees establishing higher apprenticeship standards; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any special provision for veterans, minority persons, or women in the standards, apprentice qualifications or operation of the program, or in the apprenticeship agreement, which is not otherwise prohibited by law, Executive Order, or authorized regulation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 14387, Mar. 11, 2020; 87 FR 58287, Sept. 26, 2022]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.12   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section is not applicable to any complaint concerning discrimination or other equal opportunity matters; all such complaints must be submitted, processed and resolved in accordance with applicable provisions in 29 CFR part 30, or applicable provisions of a State Plan for Equal Employment Opportunity in Apprenticeship adopted pursuant to 29 CFR part 30 and approved by the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for matters described in paragraph (a) of this section, any controversy or difference arising under an apprenticeship agreement which cannot be adjusted locally and which is not covered by a collective bargaining agreement, may be submitted by an apprentice, or the apprentice's authorized representative, to the appropriate Registration Authority, either Federal or State, which has registered and/or approved the program in which the apprentice is enrolled, for review. Matters covered by a collective bargaining agreement are not subject to such review.
</P>
<P>(c) The complaint must be in writing and signed by the complainant, or authorized representative, and must be submitted within 60 days of the final local decision. It must set forth the specific matter(s) complained of, together with relevant facts and circumstances. Copies of pertinent documents and correspondence must accompany the complaint.
</P>
<P>(d) The Office of Apprenticeship or recognized State Apprenticeship Agency, as appropriate, will render an opinion within 90 days after receipt of the complaint, based upon such investigation of the matters submitted as may be found necessary, and the record before it. During the 90-day period, the Office of Apprenticeship or recognized State Apprenticeship Agency will make reasonable efforts to effect a satisfactory resolution between the parties involved. If so resolved, the parties will be notified that the case is closed. Where an opinion is rendered, copies will be sent to all interested parties.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this section precludes an apprentice from pursuing any other remedy authorized under another Federal, State, or local law.
</P>
<P>(f) A State Apprenticeship Agency may adopt a complaint review procedure differing in detail from that given in this section provided it is submitted for review and approval by the Office of Apprenticeship. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.13   Recognition of State Apprenticeship Agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recognition.</I> The Department may exercise its authority to grant recognition to a State Apprenticeship Agency. Recognition confers non-exclusive authority to determine whether an apprenticeship program conforms to the published standards and whether the program is, therefore, eligible for those Federal purposes which require such a determination by the Department. Such recognition shall be accorded upon the State's submission of, the Department's approval of, and the State's compliance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The State Apprenticeship Agency must submit a State apprenticeship law, whether instituted through statute, Executive Order, regulation, or other means, that conforms to the requirements of this part and 29 CFR part 30;
</P>
<P>(2) The State Apprenticeship Agency must establish and continue to use a State Apprenticeship Council, which operates under the direction of the State Apprenticeship Agency. The State Apprenticeship Council may be either regulatory or advisory and must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) It must be composed of persons familiar with apprenticeable occupations, and
</P>
<P>(ii) It must include an equal number of representatives of employer and of employee organizations and include public members who shall not number in excess of the number named to represent either employer or employee organizations;
</P>
<P>(3) The State Apprenticeship Agency must submit a State Plan for Equal Employment Opportunity in Apprenticeship that conforms to the requirements published in 29 CFR part 30;
</P>
<P>(4) The State Apprenticeship Agency's submission must include a description of the basic standards, criteria, and requirements for program registration and/or approval, and demonstrate linkages and coordination with the State's economic development strategies and publicly-funded workforce investment system; and
</P>
<P>(5) The State Apprenticeship Agency's submission must include a description of policies and operating procedures which depart from or impose requirements in addition to those prescribed in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic requirements.</I> In order to obtain and maintain recognition as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the State Apprenticeship Agency must conform to the requirements of this part. To accomplish this, the State must:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish and maintain an administrative entity (the State Apprenticeship Agency) that is capable of performing the functions of a Registration Agency under this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide sufficient resources to carry out the functions of a Registration Agency, including: Outreach and education; registration of programs and apprentices; provision of technical assistance, and monitoring as required to fulfill the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Clearly delineate the respective powers and duties of the State office, the State Apprenticeship Agency, and the State Apprenticeship Council;
</P>
<P>(4) Establish policies and procedures to promote equality of opportunity in apprenticeship programs pursuant to a State Plan for Equal Employment Opportunity in Apprenticeship which adopts and implements the requirements of 29 CFR part 30, and to require apprenticeship programs to operate in conformity with such State Plan and 29 CFR part 30;
</P>
<P>(5) Prescribe the contents of apprenticeship agreements, in conformity with § 29.7;
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that the registration of apprenticeship programs occurs only in apprenticeable occupations, as provided in § 29.4, including occupations in high growth and high demand industries;
</P>
<P>(7) Accord reciprocal approval for Federal purposes to apprentices, apprenticeship programs and standards that are registered in other States by the Office of Apprenticeship or a Registration Agency if such reciprocity is requested by the apprenticeship program sponsor. Program sponsors seeking reciprocal approval must meet the wage and hour provisions and apprentice ratio standards of the reciprocal State;
</P>
<P>(8) Provide for the cancellation and/or deregistration of programs, and for temporary suspension, cancellation, and/or deregistration of apprenticeship agreements; and
</P>
<P>(9) Submit all proposed modifications in legislation, regulations, policies and/or operational procedures planned or anticipated by a State Apprenticeship Agency, either at the time of application for recognition or subsequently, to the Office of Apprenticeship for review and obtain the Office of Apprenticeship's concurrence prior to implementation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application for recognition.</I> A State Apprenticeship Agency desiring new or continued recognition as a Registration Agency must submit to the Administrator of the Office of Apprenticeship the documentation specified in paragraph (a) of this section. A currently recognized State desiring continued recognition by the Office of Apprenticeship must submit to the Administrator of the Office of Apprenticeship the documentation specified in paragraph (a) of this section within 2 years of the effective date of the final rule. The recognition of a currently recognized State shall continue for up to 2 years from the effective date of this regulation and during any extension period granted by the Administrator. An extension of time within which to comply with the requirements of this part may be granted by the Administrator for good cause upon written request by the State, but the Administrator shall not extend the time for submission of the documentation required by paragraph (a) of this section. Upon approval of the State Apprenticeship Agency's application for recognition and any subsequent modifications to this application as required under paragraph (b)(9) of this section, the Administrator shall so notify the State Apprenticeship Agency in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration of recognition.</I> The recognition of a State Apprenticeship Agency shall last for 5 years from the date recognition is granted under paragraph (c) of this section. The Administrator shall notify each State Registration Agency at least 180 days prior to the expiration of the 5-year period whether the Registration Agency is in conformity with this part, based on reviews conducted by the Office of Apprenticeship, as required by paragraph (e) of this section. If the notification states that the State Apprenticeship Agency is in conformity, recognition will be renewed for an additional 5-year period. If the notification states that the State Apprenticeship Agency is not in conformity, the notification shall specify the areas of non-conformity, require corrective action, and offer technical assistance. After the Administrator determines that a State Apprenticeship Agency has corrected the identified non-conformities, recognition will be renewed for an additional 5-year period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance.</I> The Office of Apprenticeship will monitor a State Registration Agency for compliance with the recognition requirements of this part through:
</P>
<P>(1) On-site reviews conducted by Office of Apprenticeship staff.
</P>
<P>(2) Self-assessment reports, as required by the Office of Apprenticeship.
</P>
<P>(3) Review of State Apprenticeship Agency legislation, regulations, policies, and/or operating procedures required to be submitted under paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(5) and (b)(9) of this section for review and approval as required under § 29.13(a).
</P>
<P>(4) Determination whether, based on the review performed under paragraphs (e)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, the State Registration Agency is in compliance with this part. Notice to the State Registration Agency of the determination will be given within 45 days of receipt of proposed modifications to legislation, regulations, policies, and/or operational procedures required to be submitted under paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(5) and (b)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accountability/Remedies for non-conformity.</I> (1) State Registration Agencies that fail to maintain compliance with the requirements of this part, as provided under paragraph (e) of this section, will:
</P>
<P>(i) Receive technical assistance from the Office of Apprenticeship in an effort to remedy the non-conforming activity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be placed on “Conditional Recognition” for a period of 45 days during which the State Apprenticeship Agency must submit a corrective action plan to remedy the non-conforming activity to the Office of Apprenticeship. Upon request from the State Apprenticeship Agency, for good cause, the 45-day period may be extended.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to comply with these requirements will result in rescission of recognition, for Federal Purposes as provided under § 29.14.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Denial of State apprenticeship agency recognition.</I> A denial by the Office of Apprenticeship of a State Apprenticeship Agency's application for new or continued recognition must be in writing and must set forth the reasons for denial. The notice must be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested. In addition to the reasons stated for the denial, the notice must specify the remedies which must be undertaken prior to consideration of a resubmitted request, and must state that a request for administrative review of a denial of recognition may be made within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notice of denial from the Department. Such request must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge for the Department in accordance with 29 CFR part 18. Within 30 calendar days of the filing of the request for review, the Administrator must prepare an administrative record for submission to the Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
<P>(1) The procedures contained in 29 CFR part 18 will apply to the disposition of the request for review except that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Administrative Law Judge will receive, and make part of the record, documentary evidence offered by any party and accepted at the hearing. Copies thereof will be made available by the party submitting the documentary evidence to any party to the hearing upon request.
</P>
<P>(ii) Technical rules of evidence will not apply to hearings conducted under this part, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most credible evidence available and to subject testimony to test by cross-examination will be applied, where reasonably necessary, by the Administrative Law Judge conducting the hearing. The Administrative Law Judge may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrative Law Judge should submit proposed findings, a recommended decision, and a certified record of the proceedings to the Administrative Review Board within 90 calendar days after the close of the record.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 20 days of the receipt of the recommended decision, any party may file exceptions. Any party may file a response to the exceptions filed by another party within 10 days of receipt of the exceptions. All exceptions and responses must be filed with the Administrative Review Board with copies served on all parties and amici curiae in accordance with 29 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(4) After the close of the period for filing exceptions and responses, the Administrative Review Board may issue a briefing schedule or may decide the matter on the record before it. The Administrative Review Board must decide any case it accepts for review within 180 days of the close of the record. If a decision is not so issued, the Administrative Law Judge's decision constitutes final agency action.


</P>
<P>(h) <I>Withdrawal from recognition.</I> Where a State Apprenticeship Agency voluntarily relinquishes its recognition for Federal purposes, the State must:
</P>
<P>(1) Send a formal notice of intent to the Administrator of the Office of Apprenticeship;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide all apprenticeship program standards, apprenticeship agreements, completion records, cancellation and suspension records, Equal Employment Opportunity Compliance Review files and any other documents relating to the State's apprenticeship programs, to the Department; and
</P>
<P>(3) Cooperate fully during a transition period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Retention of authority.</I> Notwithstanding any grant of recognition to a State Apprenticeship Agency under this section, the Office of Apprenticeship retains the full authority to register apprenticeship programs and apprentices in all States and Territories where the Office of Apprenticeship determines that such action is necessary to further the interests of the National Apprenticeship System.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>State apprenticeship programs.</I> (1) An apprenticeship program submitted to a State Registration Agency for registration must, for Federal purposes, be in conformity with the State apprenticeship law, regulations, and with the State Plan for Equal Employment Opportunity in Apprenticeship as submitted to and approved by the Office of Apprenticeship pursuant to 29 CFR part 30.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that a State Apprenticeship Agency is not recognized by the Office of Apprenticeship for Federal purposes or that such recognition has been withdrawn, or if no State Apprenticeship Agency exists, registration with the Office of Apprenticeship may be requested. Such registration must be granted if the program is conducted, administered and operated in accordance with the requirements of this part and the equal opportunity regulation in 29 CFR part 30, as amended. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 13033, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 14387, Mar. 11, 2020; 85 FR 30619, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1784, Jan. 11, 2021; 87 FR 58287, Sept. 26, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 29.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.28.0.66.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 29.14   Derecognition of State Apprenticeship Agencies.</HEAD>
<P>The recognition for Federal purposes of a State Apprenticeship Agency may be withdrawn for the failure to fulfill, or operate in conformity with, the requirements of this part and 29 CFR part 30. Derecognition proceedings for reasonable cause will be instituted in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Derecognition proceedings for failure to adopt or properly enforce a State Plan for Equal Employment Opportunity in Apprenticeship must be processed in accordance with the procedures prescribed in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) For causes other than those under paragraph (a) of this section, the Office of Apprenticeship must notify the respondent and appropriate State sponsors in writing, by certified mail, with return receipt requested. The notice must set forth the following:
</P>
<P>(1) That reasonable cause exists to believe that the respondent has failed to fulfill or operate in conformity with the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The specific areas of nonconformity;
</P>
<P>(3) The needed remedial measures; and
</P>
<P>(4) That the Office of Apprenticeship proposes to withdraw recognition for Federal purposes unless corrective action is taken, or a hearing request mailed, within 30 days of the receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) If, within the 30-day period, the State Apprenticeship Agency:
</P>
<P>(1) Acknowledges that the State is out of conformity, specifies its proposed remedial action and commits itself to remedying the identified deficiencies, the Office of Apprenticeship will suspend the derecognition process to allow a reasonable period of time for the State Apprenticeship Agency to implement its corrective action plan.
</P>
<P>(i) If the Office of Apprenticeship determines that the State's corrective action has addressed the identified concerns, the Office of Apprenticeship must so notify the State and the derecognition proceedings shall be terminated.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Office of Apprenticeship determines that the State has not addressed or failed to remedy the identified concerns, the Administrator must notify the State, in writing, of its failure, specifying the reasons therefore, and offer the State an opportunity to request a hearing within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(2) Fails to comply or to request a hearing, the Office of Apprenticeship shall decide whether recognition should be withdrawn. If the decision is in the affirmative, the Administrator must begin the process of transferring registrations in paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requests a hearing.</I> The Administrator shall refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Law Judges. An Administrative Law Judge will convene a hearing in accordance with § 29.13(g) and submit proposed findings and a recommended decision to the Administrative Review Board. The Administrative Review Board must issue a decision in any case it accepts for review within 180 days of the close of the record. If a decision is not so issued, the Administrative Law Judge's decision constitutes final agency action.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Administrative Review Board determines to withdraw recognition for Federal purposes or if the Office of Apprenticeship has decided that recognition should be withdrawn under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Administrator must:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the registration agency and the State sponsors of such withdrawal and effect public notice of such withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the sponsors that, 30 days after the date of the order withdrawing recognition of the State's registration agency, the Department shall cease to recognize, for Federal purposes, each apprenticeship program registered with the State Apprenticeship Agency, unless within that time, the sponsor requests registration with the Office of Apprenticeship.
</P>
<P>(e) In the event that a State Apprenticeship Agency is not recognized by the Office of Apprenticeship for Federal purposes or that such recognition has been withdrawn, or if no State Apprenticeship Agency exists, apprenticeship program sponsors may request registration with the Office of Apprenticeship in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of Apprenticeship may grant the request for registration on an interim basis. Continued recognition will be contingent upon its finding that the State apprenticeship program is operating in accordance with the requirements of this part and of 29 CFR part 30.
</P>
<P>(2) The Office of Apprenticeship must make a finding on this issue within 30 days of receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(3) If the finding is in the negative, the State sponsor must be notified in writing that the interim registration with the Office of Apprenticeship has been revoked and that the program will be deregistered unless the sponsor requests a hearing within 15 days of the receipt of the notice. If a hearing is requested, the matter will be forwarded to the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a hearing in accordance with § 29.10.
</P>
<P>(4) If the finding is in the affirmative, the State sponsor must be notified in writing that the interim registration with the Office of Apprenticeship has been made permanent based upon compliance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) If the sponsor fails to request registration with the Office of Apprenticeship, the written notice to such State sponsor must further advise the recipient that any actions or benefits applicable to recognition for Federal purposes are no longer available to the participants in its apprenticeship program as of the date 30 days after the date of the order withdrawing recognition.
</P>
<P>(g) Such notice must also direct the State sponsor to notify, within 15 days, all its registered apprentices of the withdrawal of recognition for Federal purposes; the effective date thereof; and that such withdrawal removes the apprentice from coverage under any Federal provision applicable to their individual registration under a program recognized or registered by the Secretary of Labor for Federal purposes. Such notice must direct that all apprentices are referred to the Office of Apprenticeship for information about potential transfer to other registered apprenticeship programs.
</P>
<P>(h) Where a State Apprenticeship Agency's recognition for Federal purposes has been withdrawn; the State must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide all apprenticeship program standards, apprenticeship agreements, completion records, cancellation and suspension records, Equal Employment Opportunity Compliance Review files and any other documents relating to the State's apprenticeship programs, to the Department; and
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperate fully during a transition period.
</P>
<P>(i) A State Apprenticeship Agency whose recognition has been withdrawn under this part may have its recognition reinstated upon presentation of adequate evidence that it has fulfilled the requirements established in §§ 29.13(i) and 29.14(g) and (h) and is operating in conformity with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 64425, Oct. 29, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 92108, Dec. 19, 2016; 85 FR 13033, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 14388, Mar. 11, 2020; 85 FR 30619, May 20, 2020; 87 FR 58287, Sept. 26, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 30—EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY IN APPRENTICESHIP
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 1, 50 Stat. 664, as amended (29 U.S.C. 50; 40 U.S.C. 276c; 5 U.S.C. 301); Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1267, 3 CFR 1949-53 Comp. p. 1007.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 92108, Dec. 19, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 30.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.1   Purpose, applicability, and relationship to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to promote equal opportunity for apprentices and applicants for apprenticeship in registered apprenticeship programs by prohibiting discrimination based on race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, and disability. This part also prescribes affirmative action efforts sponsors must take to ensure equal opportunity for apprentices and applicants for apprenticeship. The regulations set forth the equal opportunity obligations of sponsors, the contents of affirmative action programs, procedures for the filing and processing of complaints, and enforcement procedures. These regulations also establish procedures for deregistration of an apprenticeship program in the event of noncompliance with this part and prescribe the equal opportunity requirements for recognition of State Apprenticeship Agencies (SAA) under part 29.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to all sponsors of apprenticeship programs registered with either the U.S. Department of Labor or a recognized SAA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relationship to other laws.</I> This part does not invalidate or limit the remedies, rights, and procedures under any Federal law or the law of any State or political subdivision of any State or jurisdiction that provides greater or equal protection for individuals based on race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability than are afforded by this part. It may be a defense to a charge of a violation of this part that a challenged action is required or necessitated by another Federal law or regulation, or that another Federal law or regulation prohibits an action that would otherwise be required by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Office of Apprenticeship, or any person specifically designated by the Administrator.
</P>
<P><I>Apprentice</I> means a worker at least 16 years of age, except where a higher minimum age standard is otherwise fixed by law, who is employed to learn an apprenticeable occupation as provided in § 29.4 of this chapter under standards of apprenticeship fulfilling the requirements of § 29.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Apprenticeship Committee (Committee)</I> means those persons designated by the sponsor to administer the program. A committee may be either joint or non-joint, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A joint committee is composed of an equal number of representatives of the employer(s) and of the employees represented by a bona fide collective bargaining agent(s).
</P>
<P>(2) A non-joint committee, which may also be known as a unilateral or group non-joint (which may include employees) committee, has employer representatives but does not have a bona fide collective bargaining agent as a participant.
</P>
<P><I>Apprenticeship program</I> means a plan containing all terms and conditions for the qualification, recruitment, selection, employment and training of apprentices, as required under 29 CFR parts 29 and 30, including such matters as the requirement for a written apprenticeship agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Direct threat</I> means a significant risk of substantial harm to the health or safety of the individual or others that cannot be eliminated or reduced by reasonable accommodation. The determination that an individual poses a “direct threat” must be based on an individualized assessment of the individual's present ability to safely perform the essential functions of the job. This assessment must be based on a reasonable medical judgment that relies on the most current medical knowledge and/or on the best available objective evidence. In determining whether an individual would pose a direct threat, the factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>(1) The duration of the risk;
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and severity of the potential harm;
</P>
<P>(3) The likelihood that the potential harm will occur; and
</P>
<P>(4) The imminence of the potential harm.
</P>
<P><I>Disability</I> 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> means, with respect to an individual:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The definitions for the term “disability” and other terms relevant to defining disability and disability discrimination standards, including “direct threat”, “major life activities”, “physical or mental impairment”, “qualified applicant or apprentice”, “reasonable accommodation”, and “undue hardship, are taken directly from title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), as amended, and from the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's regulations implementing the ADA at 29 CFR part 1630, to the extent that the ADA, as amended, did not provide a definition.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities of such individual;
</P>
<P>(2) A record of such an impairment; or
</P>
<P>(3) Being regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>EEO</I> means equal employment opportunity.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic media</I> means media that utilize electronics or electromechanical energy for the end user (audience) to access the content; and includes, but is not limited to, electronic storage media, transmission media, the Internet, extranet, lease lines, dial-up lines, private networks, and the physical movement of removable/transportable electronic media and/or interactive distance learning.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means any person or organization employing an apprentice whether or not such person or organization is a party to an Apprenticeship Agreement with the apprentice.
</P>
<P><I>Ethnicity,</I> for purposes of recordkeeping and affirmative action, has the same meaning as under the Office of Management and Budget's Standards for the Classification of Federal Data on Race and Ethnicity, or any successor standards. Ethnicity thus refers to the following designations:
</P>
<P>(1) Hispanic or Latino—A person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, Cuban, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race.
</P>
<P>(2) Not Hispanic or Latino
</P>
<P><I>Genetic information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Information about—
</P>
<P>(i) An individual's genetic tests;
</P>
<P>(ii) The genetic tests of that individual's family members;
</P>
<P>(iii) The manifestation of disease or disorder in family members of the individual (family medical history);
</P>
<P>(iv) An individual's request for, or receipt of, genetic services, or the participation in clinical research that includes genetic services by the individual or a family member of the individual; or
</P>
<P>(v) The genetic information of a fetus carried by an individual or by a pregnant woman who is a family member of the individual and the genetic information of any embryo legally held by the individual or family member using an assisted reproductive technology.
</P>
<P>(2) Genetic information does not include information about the sex or age of the individual, the sex or age of family members, or information about the race or ethnicity of the individual or family members that is not derived from a genetic test.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The definition of the term “genetic information” is taken directly from the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA) at 42 U.S.C. 2000ff(4) and the EEOC's implementing regulations at 29 CFR 1635.3(c).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Journeyworker</I> means a worker who has attained a level of skill, abilities and competencies recognized within an industry as having mastered the skills and competencies required for the occupation. (Use of the term may also refer to a mentor, technician, specialist or other skilled worker who has documented sufficient skills and knowledge of an occupation, either through formal apprenticeship or through practical on-the-job experience and formal training).
</P>
<P><I>Major life activities</I> include, but are not limited to: Caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, sitting, reaching, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating, interacting with others, and working. A major life activity also includes the operation of a major bodily function, including but not limited to, functions of the immune system, special sense organs and skin; normal cell growth; and digestive, genitourinary, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain, respiratory, circulatory, cardiovascular, endocrine, hemic, lymphatic, musculoskeletal, and reproductive functions. The operation of a major bodily function includes the operation of an individual organ within a body system.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Apprenticeship (OA)</I> means the office designated by the Employment and Training Administration of the U.S. Department of Labor to administer the National Registered Apprenticeship System or its successor organization.
</P>
<P><I>Physical or mental impairment</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more body systems, such as neurological, musculoskeletal, special sense organs, respiratory (including speech organs), cardiovascular, reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, immune, circulatory, hemic, lymphatic, skin, and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as intellectual disability (formerly termed “mental retardation”), organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-apprenticeship program</I> means a training model designed to assist individuals who do not currently possess the minimum requirements for selection into an apprenticeship program to meet the minimum selection criteria established in a program sponsor's apprenticeship standards required under part 29 of this chapter and which maintains at least one documented partnership with a Registered Apprenticeship program. It involves a form of structured workplace education and training in which an employer, employer group, industry association, labor union, community-based organization, or educational institution collaborates to provide formal instruction that will introduce participants to the competencies, skills, and materials used in one or more apprenticeable occupations.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified applicant or apprentice</I> is an individual who, with or without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of the apprenticeship program for which the individual applied or is enrolled.
</P>
<P><I>Race,</I> for purposes of recordkeeping and affirmative action, has the same meaning as under the Office of Management and Budget's Standards for the Classification of Federal Data on Race and Ethnicity, or any successor standards. Race thus refers to the following designations:
</P>
<P>(1) White—A person having origins in any of the original peoples of Europe, the Middle East, or North Africa.
</P>
<P>(2) Black or African American—A person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa.
</P>
<P>(3) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander—A person having origins in any of the peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands.
</P>
<P>(4) Asian—A person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian Subcontinent including, for example, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam.
</P>
<P>(5) American Indian or Alaska Native—A person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America (including Central America), and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable accommodation</I>—(1) The term <I>reasonable accommodation</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Modifications or adjustments to a job application process that enable a qualified applicant with a disability to be considered for the position such qualified applicant desires; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Modifications or adjustments to the work environment, or to the manner or circumstances under which the position held or desired is customarily performed, that enable a qualified individual with a disability to perform the essential functions of that position; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Modifications or adjustments that enable a sponsor's apprentice with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of apprenticeship as are enjoyed by its other similarly situated apprentices without disabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasonable accommodation</I> may include but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Making existing facilities used by apprentices readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Job restructuring; part-time or modified work schedules; reassignment to a vacant position; acquisition or modifications of equipment or devices; appropriate adjustment or modifications of examinations, training materials, or policies; the provision of qualified readers or interpreters; and other similar accommodations for individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(3) To determine the appropriate reasonable accommodation it may be necessary for the sponsor to initiate an informal, interactive process with the qualified individual in need of the accommodation. This process should identify the precise limitations resulting from the disability and potential reasonable accommodations that could overcome those limitations.
</P>
<P><I>Registration Agency</I> means the Office of Apprenticeship or a recognized SAA that has responsibility for registering apprenticeship programs and apprentices; providing technical assistance; conducting quality assurance assessments and reviews of registered apprenticeship programs for compliance with the requirements of part 29 and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Selection procedure</I> means any measure, combination of measures, or procedure used as a basis for any decision in apprenticeship. Selection procedures include the full range of assessment techniques from traditional paper and pencil tests, performance tests, training programs, or probationary periods and physical, educational, and work experience requirements through informal or casual interviews and unscored application forms.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means any person, association, committee or organization operating an apprenticeship program, and in whose name the program is (or is to be) registered or approved.
</P>
<P><I>State Apprenticeship Agency</I> (SAA) means an agency of a State government that has responsibility and accountability for apprenticeship within the State. Only an SAA may seek recognition from OA as an agency which has been properly constituted under an acceptable law or Executive Order (E.O.), and authorized by OA to register and oversee apprenticeship programs and agreements for Federal purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Undue hardship</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Undue hardship means, with respect to the provision of an accommodation, significant difficulty or expense incurred by a sponsor, when considered in light of the factors set forth in paragraph (b) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors to be considered.</I> In determining whether an accommodation would impose an undue hardship on a sponsor, factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature and net cost of the accommodation needed under this part, taking into consideration the availability of tax credits and deductions, and/or outside funding;
</P>
<P>(ii) The overall financial resources of the facility or facilities involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodation, the number of persons employed at such facility, and the effect on expenses and resources;
</P>
<P>(iii) The overall financial resources of the sponsor, the overall size of the registered apprenticeship program with respect to the number of apprentices, and the number, type and location of its facilities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The type of operation or operations of the sponsor, including the composition, structure and functions of the workforce of such entity, and the geographic separateness and administrative or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities in question to the sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(v) The impact of the accommodation upon the operation of the facility, including the impact on the ability of other apprentices to perform their duties and the impact on the facility's ability to conduct business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.3   Equal opportunity standards applicable to all sponsors.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Discrimination prohibited.</I> It is unlawful for a sponsor of a registered apprenticeship program to discriminate against an apprentice or applicant for apprenticeship on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability with regard to:
</P>
<P>(i) Recruitment, outreach, and selection procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hiring and/or placement, upgrading, periodic advancement, promotion, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, right of return from layoff, and rehiring;
</P>
<P>(iii) Rotation among work processes;
</P>
<P>(iv) Imposition of penalties or other disciplinary action;
</P>
<P>(v) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation and changes in compensation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Conditions of work;
</P>
<P>(vii) Hours of work and hours of training provided;
</P>
<P>(viii) Job assignments;
</P>
<P>(ix) Leaves of absence, sick leave, or any other leave; and
</P>
<P>(x) Any other benefit, term, condition, or privilege associated with apprenticeship.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discrimination standards and defenses.</I> (i) <I>Race, color, religion, national origin, sex, or sexual orientation.</I> In implementing this section, the Registration Agency will look to the legal standards and defenses applied under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I> and Executive Order 11246, as applicable, in determining whether a sponsor has engaged in a practice unlawful under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Disability.</I> With respect to discrimination based on a disability, the Registration Agency will apply the same standards, defenses, and exceptions to the definition of disability as those set forth in title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), 42 U.S.C. 12112 and 12113, as amended, and the implementing regulations promulgated by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) at 29 CFR part 1630, which include, among other things, the standards governing reasonable accommodation, medical examinations and disability-related inquiries, qualification standards, and direct threat defense. The Interpretive Guidance on title I of the ADA set out as an appendix to part 1630 issued pursuant to title I may be relied upon for guidance in complying with the nondiscrimination requirements of this part with respect to the treatment of individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Age.</I> The Registration Agency will apply the same standards and defenses for age discrimination as those set forth in the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA), 29 U.S.C. 623, and the implementing regulations promulgated by the EEOC at 29 CFR part 1625.


</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Genetic information.</I> The Registration Agency will apply the same standards and defenses for discrimination based on genetic information as those set forth in the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA), 42 U.S.C. 2000ff <I>et seq.</I> and the implementing regulations promulgated by the EEOC at 29 CFR part 1635.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General duty to engage in affirmative action.</I> For each registered apprenticeship program, a sponsor is required to take affirmative steps to provide equal opportunity in apprenticeship. These steps must include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Assignment of responsibility.</I> The sponsor will designate an individual or individuals with appropriate authority under the program, such as an apprenticeship coordinator, to be responsible and accountable for overseeing its commitment to equal opportunity in registered apprenticeship, including the development and implementation of an affirmative action program as required by § 30.4. The individual(s) must have the resources, support of, and access to the sponsor leadership to ensure effective implementation. The individual(s) will be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring all registered apprenticeship activity to ensure compliance with the nondiscrimination and affirmative action obligations required by this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintaining records required under this part; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Generating and submitting reports as may be required by the Registration Agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Internal dissemination of equal opportunity policy.</I> The sponsor must inform all applicants for apprenticeship, apprentices, and individuals connected with the administration or operation of the registered apprenticeship program of its commitment to equal opportunity and its affirmative action obligations. In addition, the sponsor must require that individuals connected with the administration or operation of the apprenticeship program take the necessary action to aid the sponsor in meeting its nondiscrimination and affirmative action obligations under this part. A sponsor, at a minimum, is required to:


</P>
<P>(i) Publish its equal opportunity pledge—set forth in paragraph (c) of this section—in the apprenticeship standards required under § 29.5(b) of this title, and in appropriate publications, such as apprentice and employee handbooks, policy manuals, newsletters, or other documents disseminated by the sponsor or that otherwise describe the nature of the sponsorship;
</P>
<P>(ii) Post its equal opportunity pledge from paragraph (c) of this section on bulletin boards, including through electronic media, such that it is accessible to all apprentices and applicants for apprenticeship;
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct orientation and periodic information sessions for individuals connected with the administration or operation of the apprenticeship program, including all apprentices and journeyworkers who regularly work with apprentices, to inform and remind such individuals of the sponsor's equal employment opportunity policy with regard to apprenticeship, and to provide the training required by paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Maintain records necessary to demonstrate compliance with these requirements and make them available to the Registration Agency upon request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Universal outreach and recruitment.</I> The sponsor will implement measures to ensure that its outreach and recruitment efforts for apprentices extend to all persons available for apprenticeship within the sponsor's relevant recruitment area without regard to race, sex, ethnicity, or disability. In furtherance of this requirement, the sponsor must:
</P>
<P>(i) Develop and update annually a list of current recruitment sources that will generate referrals from all demographic groups within the relevant recruitment area. Examples of relevant recruitment sources include: The public workforce system's One-Stop Career Centers and local workforce investment boards; community-based organizations; community colleges; vocational, career and technical schools; pre-apprenticeship programs; and Federally-funded, youth job-training programs such as YouthBuild and Job Corps or their successors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify a contact person, mailing address, telephone number, and email address for each recruitment source; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide recruitment sources advance notice, preferably 30 days, of apprenticeship openings so that the recruitment sources can notify and refer candidates. Such notification must also include documentation of the sponsor's equal opportunity pledge specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maintaining apprenticeship programs free from harassment, intimidation, and retaliation.</I> The sponsor must develop and implement procedures to ensure that its apprentices are not harassed because of their race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability and to ensure that its apprenticeship program is free from intimidation and retaliation as prohibited by § 30.17. To promote an environment in which all apprentices feel safe, welcomed, and treated fairly, the sponsor must ensure the following steps are taken:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing anti-harassment training to all individuals connected with the administration or operation of the apprenticeship program, including all apprentices and journeyworkers who regularly work with apprentices. This training must not be a mere transmittal of information, but must include participation by trainees, such as attending a training session in person or completing an interactive training online. The training content must include, at a minimum, communication of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) That harassing conduct will not be tolerated;
</P>
<P>(B) The definition of harassment and the types of conduct that constitute unlawful harassment on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, and disability; and
</P>
<P>(C) The right to file a harassment complaint under § 30.14 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Making all facilities and apprenticeship activities available without regard to race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability except that if the sponsor provides restrooms or changing facilities, the sponsor must provide separate or single-user restrooms and changing facilities to assure privacy between the sexes;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishing and implementing procedures for handling and resolving complaints about harassment and intimidation based on race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, and disability, as well as complaints about retaliation for engaging in protected activity described in § 30.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Compliance with Federal and State equal employment opportunity laws.</I> The sponsor must comply with all other applicable Federal and State laws and regulations that require equal employment opportunity without regard to race, color, religion, national origin, sex (including pregnancy and gender identity, as applicable), sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability. Failure to comply with such laws if such noncompliance is related to the equal employment opportunity of apprentices and/or graduates of such an apprenticeship programs under this part is grounds for deregistration or the imposition of other enforcement actions in accordance with § 30.15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equal opportunity pledge.</I> (1) Each sponsor of an apprenticeship program must include in its Standards of Apprenticeship and apprenticeship opportunity announcements the following equal opportunity pledge:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>[Name of sponsor] will not discriminate against apprenticeship applicants or apprentices based on race, color, religion, national origin, sex (including pregnancy and gender identity), sexual orientation, genetic information, or because they are an individual with a disability or a person 40 years old or older. [Name of sponsor] will take affirmative action to provide equal opportunity in apprenticeship and will operate the apprenticeship program as required under Title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations, part 30.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The nondiscrimination bases listed in this pledge may be broadened to conform to consistent State and local requirements. Sponsors may include additional protected bases but may not exclude any of the bases protected by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I> Compliance.</I> (1) Current sponsors: A sponsor that has a registered apprenticeship program as of the effective date of this regulation must comply with all obligations of this section within 180 days of the effective date of this rule.
</P>
<P>(2) New sponsors: A sponsor registering with a Registration Agency after the effective date of this regulation shall comply with all obligations of this section upon registration or 180 days after the effective date of this regulation, whichever is later.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 92108, Dec. 19, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 3301, Feb. 12, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.4   Affirmative action programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition and purpose.</I> As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) An affirmative action program is designed to ensure equal opportunity and prevent discrimination in apprenticeship programs. An affirmative action program is more than mere passive nondiscrimination. Such a program requires the sponsor to take affirmative steps to encourage and promote equal opportunity, to create an environment free from discrimination, and to address any barriers to equal opportunity in apprenticeship. An affirmative action program is more than a paperwork exercise. It includes those policies, practices, and procedures, including self-analyses, that the sponsor implements to ensure that all qualified applicants and apprentices are receiving an equal opportunity for recruitment, selection, advancement, retention and every other term and privilege associated with apprenticeship. An affirmative action program should be a part of the way the sponsor regularly conducts its apprenticeship program.
</P>
<P>(2) A central premise underlying affirmative action is that, absent discrimination, over time a sponsor's apprenticeship program, generally, will reflect the sex, race, ethnicity, and disability profile of the labor pools from which the sponsor recruits and selects. Consistent with this premise, affirmative action programs contain a diagnostic component which includes quantitative analyses designed to evaluate the composition of the sponsor's apprenticeship program and compare it to the composition of the relevant labor pools. If women, individuals with disabilities, or individuals from a particular minority group, for example, are not being admitted into apprenticeship at a rate to be expected given their availability in the relevant labor pool, the sponsor's affirmative action program must include specific, practical steps designed to address any barriers to equal opportunity that may be contributing to this underutilization.
</P>
<P>(3) Effective affirmative action programs include internal auditing and reporting systems as a means of measuring the sponsor's progress toward achieving an apprenticeship program that would be expected absent discrimination.
</P>
<P>(4) An affirmative action program also ensures equal opportunity in apprenticeship by incorporating the sponsor's commitment to equality in every aspect of the apprenticeship program. Therefore, as part of its affirmative action program, a sponsor must monitor and examine its employment practices, policies and decisions and evaluate the impact such practices, policies and decisions have on the recruitment, selection and advancement of apprentices. It must evaluate the impact of its employment and personnel policies on minorities, women, and persons with disabilities, and revise such policies accordingly where such policies or practices are found to create a barrier to equal opportunity.
</P>
<P>(5) The commitments contained in an affirmative action program are not intended and must not be used to discriminate against any qualified applicant or apprentice on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adoption of affirmative action programs.</I> Sponsors other than those identified in paragraph (d) of this section must develop and maintain an affirmative action program, setting forth that program in a written plan. The components of the written plan, as detailed in §§ 30.5 through 30.9, must be developed in accordance with the respective compliance dates and made available to the Registration Agency any time thereafter upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of affirmative action programs.</I> An affirmative action program must include the following components in addition to those required of all sponsors by § 30.3(a):
</P>
<P>(1) Utilization analysis for race, sex, and ethnicity, as described in § 30.5;
</P>
<P>(2) Establishment of utilization goals for race, sex, and ethnicity, as described in § 30.6;
</P>
<P>(3) Utilization goals for individuals with disabilities, as described in § 30.7;
</P>
<P>(4) Targeted outreach, recruitment, and retention, as described in § 30.8;
</P>
<P>(5) Review of personnel processes, as described in § 30.9; and
</P>
<P>(6) Invitations to self-identify, as described in § 30.11
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Programs with fewer than five apprentices.</I> A sponsor is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section if the sponsor's apprenticeship program has fewer than five apprentices registered, unless such program was adopted to circumvent the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Programs subject to approved equal employment opportunity programs.</I> A sponsor is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section if the sponsor both submits to the Registration Agency satisfactory evidence that it is in compliance with an equal employment opportunity program providing for affirmative action in apprenticeship, including the use of goals for any underrepresented group or groups of individuals, which has been approved as meeting the requirements of either title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>) and agrees to extend such program to include individuals with disabilities, or if the sponsor submits to the Registration Agency satisfactory evidence that it is in compliance with an equal employment opportunity program providing for affirmative action in apprenticeship, including the use of goals for any underrepresented group or groups of individuals, which has been approved as meeting the requirements of both Executive Order 11246, as amended, and section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act, as amended (29 U.S.C. 793), and their implementing regulations at title 41 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Chapter 60: <I>Provided,</I> That programs approved, modified or renewed subsequent to the effective date of this amendment will qualify for this exception only if the goals for any underrepresented group for the selection of apprentices provided for in such programs are likely to be equal to or greater than the goals required under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Written affirmative action plans.</I> Sponsors required to undertake an affirmative action program must create and update a written document memorializing and discussing the contents of the program set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Compliance</I>—(i) <I>Apprenticeship programs existing as of</I> January 18, 2017. The initial written affirmative action plan for such programs must be completed within two years of January 18, 2017. The written affirmative action plan for such programs must be updated every time the sponsor completes workforce analyses required by §§ 30.5(b) and 30.7(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) Apprenticeship programs registered after January 18, 2017. The initial written affirmative action plan for such programs must be completed within two years of registration. The written affirmative action plan for such programs must be updated every time the sponsor completes workforce analyses required by §§ 30.5(b) and 30.7(d)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.5   Utilization analysis for race, sex, and ethnicity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the utilization analysis is to provide sponsors with a method for assessing whether possible barriers to apprenticeship exist for particular groups of individuals by determining whether the race, sex, and ethnicity of apprentices in a sponsor's apprenticeship program is reflective of persons available for apprenticeship by race, sex, and ethnicity in the relevant recruitment area. Where significant disparity exists between availability and representation, the sponsor will be required to establish a utilization goal pursuant to § 30.6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Analysis of apprenticeship program workforce</I>—(1) <I>Process.</I> Sponsors must analyze the race, sex, and ethnic composition of their apprentice workforce. This is a two-step process. First, each sponsor must group all apprentices in its registered apprenticeship program by occupational title. Next, for each occupation represented, the sponsor must identify the race, sex, and ethnicity of its apprentices within that occupation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Schedule of analyses.</I> Each sponsor is required to conduct an apprenticeship program workforce analysis at each compliance review, and again if and when three years have passed without a compliance review. This updated workforce analysis should be compared to the utilization goal established at the sponsor's most recent compliance review to determine if the sponsor is underutilized, according to the process in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Compliance date.</I> (i) Sponsors registered with a Registration Agency as of January 18, 2017: A sponsor must conduct its first workforce analysis, pursuant to this section, no later than two years after January 18, 2017.
</P>
<P>(ii) New sponsors: A sponsor registering with a Registration Agency after the effective date of the Final Rule must conduct its initial workforce analysis pursuant to this section no later than two years after the date of registration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability analysis</I>—(1) The purpose of the availability analysis is to establish a benchmark against which the demographic composition of the sponsor's apprenticeship program can be compared in order to determine whether barriers to equal opportunity may exist with regard to the sponsor's apprenticeship program.
</P>
<P>(2) Availability is an estimate of the number of qualified individuals available for apprenticeship by race, sex, and ethnicity expressed as a percentage of all qualified persons available for apprenticeship in the sponsor's relevant recruitment area.
</P>
<P>(3) In determining availability, the following factors must be considered for each major occupation group represented in the sponsor's registered apprenticeship program standards:
</P>
<P>(i) The percentage of individuals who are eligible for enrollment in the apprenticeship program. within the sponsor's relevant recruitment area broken down by race, sex, and ethnicity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the sponsor's employees who are eligible for enrollment in the apprenticeship program broken down by race, sex, and ethnicity.
</P>
<P>(4) In determining availability, the relevant recruitment area is defined as the geographical area from which the sponsor usually seeks or reasonably could seek apprentices. The sponsor must identify the relevant recruitment area in its written affirmative action plan. The sponsor may not draw its relevant recruitment area in such a way as to have the effect of excluding individuals based on race, sex, or ethnicity from consideration, and must develop a brief rationale for selection of that recruitment area.
</P>
<P>(5) Availability will be derived from the most current and discrete statistical information available. Examples of such information include census data, data from local job service offices, and data from colleges or other training institutions.
</P>
<P>(6) Sponsors, working with the Registration Agency, will conduct availability analyses at each compliance review.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rate of utilization.</I> To determine the rate of utilization, the sponsor, working with the Registration Agency, must group each occupational title in its apprenticeship workforce by major occupation group and compare the racial, sex, and ethnic representation within each major occupation group to the racial, sex, and ethnic representation available in the relevant recruitment area, as determined in paragraph (c) of this section. When the sponsor's utilization of women, Hispanics or Latinos, or a particular racial minority group is significantly less than would be reasonably expected given the availability of such individuals for apprenticeship, the sponsor must establish a utilization goal for the affected group in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 30.6. Sponsors are not required or expected to establish goals where no significant disparity in utilization rates has been found.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.6   Establishment of utilization goals for race, sex, and ethnicity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where, pursuant to § 30.5, a sponsor is required to establish a utilization goal for a particular racial, sex, or ethnic group in a major occupation group in its apprenticeship program, the sponsor, working with the Registration Agency, must establish a percentage goal at least equal to the availability figure derived under § 30.5(c) for that major occupation group.
</P>
<P>(b) A sponsor's determination under § 30.5 that a utilization goal is required constitutes neither a finding nor an admission of discrimination.
</P>
<P>(c) Utilization goals serve as objectives or targets reasonably attainable by means of applying every good faith effort to make all aspects of the entire affirmative action program work. Utilization goals are used to measure the effectiveness of the sponsor's outreach, recruitment, and retention efforts.
</P>
<P>(d) In establishing utilization goals, the following principles apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Utilization goals may not be rigid and inflexible quotas, which must be met, nor are they to be considered either a ceiling or a floor for the selection of particular groups as apprentices. Quotas are expressly forbidden.
</P>
<P>(2) Utilization goals may not provide a sponsor with a justification to extend a preference to any individual, select an individual, or adversely affect an individual's status as an apprentice, on the basis of that person's race, sex, or ethnicity.
</P>
<P>(3) Utilization goals do not create set-asides for specific groups, nor are they intended to achieve proportional representation or equal results.
</P>
<P>(4) Utilization goals may not be used to supersede eligibility requirements for apprenticeship. Affirmative action programs prescribed by the regulations of this part do not require sponsors to select a person who lacks qualifications to participate in the apprenticeship program successfully, or select a less-qualified person in preference to a more qualified one.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.7   Utilization goals for individuals with disabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Utilization goal.</I> The Administrator of OA has established a utilization goal of 7 percent for employment of qualified individuals with disabilities as apprentices for each major occupation group within which the sponsor has an apprenticeship program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the utilization goal established in paragraph (a) of this section is to establish a benchmark against which the sponsor must measure the representation of individuals with disabilities in the sponsor's apprentice workforce by major occupation group. The goal serves as an equal opportunity objective that should be attainable by complying with all of the affirmative action requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Periodic review of goal.</I> The Administrator of OA will periodically review and update, as appropriate, the utilization goal established in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Utilization analysis</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The utilization analysis is designed to evaluate the representation of individuals with disabilities in the sponsor's apprentice workforce grouped by major occupation group. If individuals with disabilities are represented in the sponsor's apprentice workforce in any given major occupation group at a rate less than the utilization goal, the sponsor must take specific measures outlined in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Apprentice workforce analysis</I>—(i) <I>Process.</I> Sponsors are required to analyze the representation of individuals with disabilities within their apprentice workforce by occupation. This is a two-step process. First, as required in § 30.5, each sponsor must group all apprentices in its registered apprenticeship program according to the occupational titles represented in its registered apprenticeship program. Next, for each occupation represented, the sponsor must identify the number of apprentices with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Schedule of evaluation.</I> The sponsor must conduct its apprentice workforce analysis at each compliance review, and again if and when three years have passed without a compliance review. This updated workforce analysis, grouped according to major occupation group, should then be compared to the utilization goal established under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Compliance date.</I> (A) Sponsors currently registered with a Registration Agency: A sponsor must conduct its first workforce analysis, pursuant to this section, no later than two years after January 18, 2017.
</P>
<P>(B) New sponsors: A sponsor registering with a Registration Agency after January 18, 2017 must conduct its initial workforce analysis pursuant to this section no later than two years after the date of registration.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Identification of problem areas.</I> When the sponsor, working with the Registration Agency, determines that the percentage of individuals with disabilities in one or more major occupation groups within which a sponsor has apprentices is less than the utilization goal established in paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor must take steps to determine whether and/or where impediments to equal opportunity exist. When making this determination, the sponsor must look at the results of its assessment of personnel processes required by § 30.9 and the effectiveness of its outreach and recruitment efforts required by § 30.8 of this part, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Action-oriented programs.</I> The sponsor must undertake action-oriented programs, including targeted outreach, recruitment, and retention activities identified in § 30.8, designed to correct any problem areas that the sponsor identified pursuant to its review of personnel processes and outreach and recruitment efforts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Utilization goal relation to discrimination.</I> A determination that the sponsor has not attained the utilization goal established in paragraph (a) of this section in one or more major occupation groups does not constitute either a finding or admission of discrimination in violation of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Utilization goal not a quota or ceiling.</I> The utilization goal established in paragraph (a) of this section must not be used as a quota or ceiling that limits or restricts the employment of individuals with disabilities as apprentices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.8   Targeted outreach, recruitment, and retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum activities required.</I> Where a sponsor has found underutilization and established a utilization goal for a specific group or groups pursuant to § 30.6 and/or where a sponsor has determined pursuant to § 30.7(f) that there are problem areas resulting in impediments to equal employment opportunity, the sponsor must undertake targeted outreach, recruitment, and retention activities that are likely to generate an increase in applications for apprenticeship and improve retention of apprentices from the targeted group or groups and/or from individuals with disabilities, as appropriate. In furtherance of this requirement, the sponsor must:
</P>
<P>(1) Set forth in its written affirmative action plan the specific targeted outreach, recruitment, and retention activities it plans to take for the upcoming program year. Such activities must include at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Dissemination of information to organizations serving the underutilized group regarding the nature of apprenticeship, requirements for selection for apprenticeship, availability of apprenticeship opportunities, and the equal opportunity pledge of the sponsor. These organizations may include: Community-based organizations; local high schools; local community colleges; local vocational, career and technical schools; and local workforce system partners including One Stop Career Centers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Advertising openings for apprenticeship opportunities by publishing advertisements in appropriate media which have wide circulation in the relevant recruitment areas;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cooperation with local school boards and vocational education systems to develop and/or establish relationships with pre-apprenticeship programs targeting students from the underutilized group to prepare them to meet the standards and criteria required to qualify for entry into apprenticeship programs; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Establishment of linkage agreements or partnerships enlisting the assistance and support of pre-apprenticeship programs, community-based organizations, advocacy organizations, or other appropriate organizations, in recruiting qualified individuals for apprenticeship;
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluate and document after every selection cycle for registering apprentices the overall effectiveness of such activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Refine its targeted outreach, recruitment, and retention activities as needed; and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain records of its targeted outreach, recruitment, and retention activities and records related to its evaluation of these activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other activities.</I> In addition to the activities set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, as a matter of best practice, sponsors are encouraged but not required to consider other outreach, recruitment, and retention activities that may assist sponsors in addressing any barriers to equal opportunity in apprenticeship. Such activities include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Enlisting the use of journeyworkers from the underutilized group or groups to assist in the implementation of the sponsor's affirmative action program;
</P>
<P>(2) Enlisting the use of journeyworkers from the underutilized group or groups to mentor apprentices and to assist with the sponsor's targeted outreach and recruitment activities; and
</P>
<P>(3) Conducting exit interviews of each apprentice who leaves the sponsor's apprenticeship program prior to receiving a certificate of completion to understand better why the apprentice is leaving the program and to help shape the sponsor's retention activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.9   Review of personnel processes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As part of its affirmative action program, the sponsor must, for each registered apprenticeship program, engage in an annual review of its personnel processes related to the administration of the apprenticeship program to ensure that the sponsor is operating an apprenticeship program free from discrimination based on race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, and disability. This annual review is required regardless of whether the sponsor is underutilized as described in § 30.5(d). The review must be a careful, thorough, and systematic one and include review of all aspects of the apprenticeship program at the program, industry and occupation level, including, but not limited to, the qualifications for apprenticeship, application and selection procedures, wages, outreach and recruitment activities, advancement opportunities, promotions, work assignments, job performance, rotations among all work processes of the occupation, disciplinary actions, handling of requests for reasonable accommodations, and the program's accessibility to individuals with disabilities (including to the use of information and communication technology). The sponsor must make any necessary modifications to its program to ensure that its obligations under this part are met.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Compliance date.</I> (i) Current sponsors: A sponsor that has a registered apprenticeship program as of the effective date of this regulation must comply with the obligations of paragraph (a) of this section within two years of the effective date of this rule.
</P>
<P>(ii) New sponsors: A sponsor registering with a Registration Agency after the effective date of this regulation shall comply with the obligations of paragraph (a) of this section within two years after the date of registration.
</P>
<P><I>(2) [Reserved]</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The sponsor must include a description of its review in its written affirmative action plan and identify in the written plan any modifications made or to be made to the program as a result of its review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.10   Selection of apprentices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor's procedures for selection of apprentices must be included in the written plan for Standards of Apprenticeship submitted to and approved by the Registration Agency, as required under § 29.5 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Sponsors may utilize any method or combination of methods for selection of apprentices, provided that the selection method(s) used meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of the selection procedure(s) must comply with the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP) (41 CFR part 60-3), including the requirements to evaluate the impact of the selection procedure on race, sex, and ethnic groups (Hispanic or Latino/non-Hispanic or Latino) and to demonstrate job-relatedness and business necessity for those procedures that result in adverse impact in accordance with the requirements of UGESP.
</P>
<P>(2) The selection procedure(s) must be uniformly and consistently applied to all applicants and apprentices within each selection procedure utilized.
</P>
<P>(3) The selection procedure(s) must comply with title I of the ADA and EEOC's implementing regulations at part 1630. This procedure(s) must not screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities, on the basis of disability, unless the standard, test or other selection criteria, as used by the program sponsor, is shown to be job-related for the position in question and is consistent with business necessity.
</P>
<P>(4) The selection procedure(s) must be facially neutral in terms of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, and disability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.11   Invitation to self-identify as an individual with a disability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-offer.</I> (1) A sponsor adopting an affirmative action program pursuant to § 30.4 must invite applicants for apprenticeship to inform the sponsor whether the applicant believes that that he or she is an individual with a disability as defined in § 30.2. This invitation must be provided to each applicant when the applicant applies or is considered for apprenticeship. The invitation may be included with the application materials for apprenticeship, but must be separate from the application.
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor must invite an applicant to self-identify as required in paragraph (a) of this section using the language and manner prescribed by the Administrator and published on the OA Web site.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Post offer.</I> (1) At any time after acceptance into the apprenticeship program, but before the applicant begins his or her apprenticeship, the sponsor must invite the applicant to inform the sponsor whether the applicant believes that he or she is an individual with a disability as defined in § 30.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor must invite an applicant to self-identify as required in paragraph (b) of this section using the language and manner prescribed by the Administrator and published on the OA Web site.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Apprentices.</I> (1) Within the timeframe specified in paragraph (h) below, the sponsor must make a one-time invitation to each current apprentice to inform the sponsor whether he or she is an individual with a disability as defined in § 30.2. The sponsor must make this invitation using the language and manner prescribed by the Administrator and published on the OA Web site.
</P>
<P>(2) Thereafter, the sponsor must remind apprentices yearly that they may voluntarily update their disability status.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voluntary self-identification for apprentices.</I> The sponsor may not compel or coerce an individual to self-identify as an individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confidentiality.</I> The sponsor must keep all information on self-identification confidential, and must maintain it in a data analysis file (rather than the medical files of individual apprentices) as required under § 30.12(e). The sponsor must provide self-identification information to the Registration Agency upon request. Self-identification information may be used only in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Affirmative action obligations.</I> Nothing in this section may relieve the sponsor of its obligation to take affirmative action with respect to those applicants and apprentices of whose disability the sponsor has knowledge.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nondiscrimination obligations.</I> Nothing in this section may relieve the sponsor from liability for discrimination in violation of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Compliance dates.</I> (1) Sponsors currently registered with a Registration Agency: A sponsor must begin inviting applicants and apprentices to identify as individuals with disabilities, pursuant to this section, no later than two years after the January 18, 2017. A sponsor must also invite each of its current apprentices to voluntarily inform the sponsor whether the apprentice believes that he or she is an individual with a disability, as defined in § 30.2, no later than two years after January 18, 2017.
</P>
<P>(2) New sponsors: A sponsor registering with a Registration Agency after the effective date of this Final Rule must begin inviting applicants and apprentices to identify as individuals with disabilities, pursuant to this section, no later than two years after the date of registration. A sponsor covered by this subparagraph must also invite each of its current apprentices to voluntarily inform the sponsor whether the apprentice believes that he or she is an individual with a disability, as defined in § 30.2, no later than two years after the date of registration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.12   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General obligation.</I> Each sponsor must collect such data and maintain such records as the Registration Agency finds necessary to determine whether the sponsor has complied or is complying with the requirements of this part. Such records must include, but are not limited to records relating to:
</P>
<P>(1) Selection for apprenticeship, including applications, tests and test results, interview notes, bases for selection or rejection, and any other records required to be maintained under UGESP;
</P>
<P>(2) The invitation to self-identify as an individual with a disability;
</P>
<P>(3) Information relative to the operation of the apprenticeship program, including but not limited to job assignments in all components of the occupation as required under § 29.5(b)(3) of this title, promotion, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, rates of pay, other forms of compensation, conditions of work, hours of work, hours of training provided, and any other personnel records relevant to EEO complaints filed with the Registration Agency under § 30.14 or with other enforcement agencies;
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance with the requirements of § 30.3;
</P>
<P>(5) Requests for reasonable accommodation; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other records pertinent to a determination of compliance with these regulations, as may be required by the Registration Agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsor identification of record.</I> For any record the sponsor maintains pursuant to this part, the sponsor must be able to identify the race, sex, ethnicity (Hispanic or Latino/non-Hispanic or Latino), and when known, disability status of each apprentice, and where possible, the race, sex, ethnicity, and disability status of each applicant to apprenticeship and supply this information upon request to the Registration Agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affirmative action programs.</I> Each sponsor required under § 30.4 to develop and maintain an affirmative action program must retain both the written affirmative action plan and documentation of its component elements set forth in §§ 30.5, 30.6, 30.7, 30.8, 30.9, and 30.11.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> The records required by this part and any other information relevant to compliance with these regulations must be maintained for 5 years from the date of the making of the record or the personnel action involved, whichever occurs later, and must be made available upon request to the Registration Agency or other authorized representative in such form as the Registration Agency may determine is necessary to enable it to ascertain whether the sponsor has complied or is complying with this part. Failure to preserve complete and accurate records as required by paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section constitutes noncompliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confidentiality and use of medical information.</I> (1) Any information obtained pursuant to this part regarding the medical condition or history of an applicant or apprentice must be collected and maintained on separate forms and in separate medical files and treated as a confidential medical record, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding necessary restrictions on the work or duties of the applicant or apprentice and necessary accommodations;
</P>
<P>(ii) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, when appropriate, if the disability might require emergency treatment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Government officials engaged in enforcing this part, the laws administered by OFCCP, or the ADA, must be provided relevant information on request.
</P>
<P>(2) Information obtained under this part regarding the medical condition or history of any applicant or apprentice may not be used for any purpose inconsistent with this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Access to records.</I> Each sponsor must permit access during normal business hours to its places of business for the purpose of conducting on-site EEO compliance reviews and complaint investigations and inspecting and copying such books, accounts, and records, including electronic records, and any other material the Registration Agency deems relevant to the matter under investigation and pertinent to compliance with this part. The sponsor must also provide the Registration Agency access to these materials, including electronic records, off-site for purposes of conducting EEO compliance reviews and complaint investigations. Upon request, the sponsor must provide the Registration Agency information about all format(s), including specific electronic formats, in which its records and other information are available. Information obtained in this manner will be used only in connection with the administration of this part or other applicable EEO laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.13   Equal employment opportunity compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conduct of compliance reviews.</I> The Registration Agency will regularly conduct EEO compliance reviews to determine if the sponsor maintains compliance with this part, and will also conduct EEO compliance reviews when circumstances so warrant. An EEO compliance review may consist of, but is not limited to, comprehensive analyses and evaluations of each aspect of the apprenticeship program through off-site reviews, such as desk audits of records submitted to the Registration Agency, and on-site reviews conducted at the sponsor's establishment that may involve examination of records required under this part; inspection and copying of documents related to recordkeeping requirements of this part; and interviews with employees, apprentices, journeyworkers, supervisors, managers, and hiring officials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of compliance review findings.</I> Within 45 business days of completing an EEO compliance review, the Registration Agency must present a written Notice of Compliance Review Findings to the sponsor's contact person through registered or certified mail, with return receipt requested. If the compliance review indicates a failure to comply with this part, the registration agency will so inform the sponsor in the Notice and will set forth in the Notice the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The deficiency(ies) identified;
</P>
<P>(2) How to remedy the deficiency(ies);
</P>
<P>(3) The timeframe within which the deficiency(ies) must be corrected; and
</P>
<P>(4) Enforcement actions may be undertaken if compliance is not achieved within the required timeframe.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance.</I> (1) When a sponsor receives a Notice of Compliance Review Findings that indicates a failure to comply with this part, the sponsor must, within 30 business days of notification, either implement a compliance action plan and notify the Registration Agency of that plan or submit a written rebuttal to the Findings. Sponsors may also seek to extend this deadline one time by up to 30 days for good cause shown. If the Registration Agency upholds the Notice after receiving a written response, the sponsor must implement a compliance action plan within 30 days of receiving the notice from the Registration Agency upholding its Findings. The compliance action plan must include, but is not limited to, the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) A specific commitment, in writing, to correct or remediate identified deficiency(ies) and area(s) of noncompliance;
</P>
<P>(ii) The precise actions to be taken for each deficiency identified;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time period within which the cited deficiency(ies) will be remedied and any corrective program changes implemented; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The name of the individual(s) responsible for correcting each deficiency identified.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon the Registration Agency's approval of the compliance action plan, the sponsor may be considered in compliance with this part provided that the compliance action plan is implemented.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement actions.</I> Any sponsor that fails to implement its compliance action plan within the specified timeframes may be subject to an enforcement action under § 30.15.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.14   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for individuals filing complaints</I>—(1) <I>Who may file.</I> Any individual who believes that he or she has been or is being discriminated against on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability with regard to apprenticeship, or who believes he or she has been retaliated against as described in § 30.17, may, personally or through an authorized representative, file a written complaint with the Registration Agency with whom the apprenticeship program is registered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time period for filing a complaint.</I> Generally, a complaint must be filed within 300 days of the alleged discrimination or specified failure to follow the equal opportunity standards. However, for good cause shown, the Registration Agency may extend the filing time. The time period for filing is for the administrative convenience of the Registration Agency and does not create a defense for the respondent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of the complaint.</I> Each complaint must be made in writing and must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The complainant's name, address and telephone number, or other means for contacting the complainant;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of the respondent (the individual or entity that the complainant alleges is responsible for the discrimination);
</P>
<P>(iii) A short description of the events that the complainant believes were discriminatory, including but not limited to when the events took place, what occurred, and why complainant believes the actions were discriminatory (for example, because of his or her race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, national origin, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability).
</P>
<P>(iv) The complainant's signature or the signature of the complainant's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements of sponsors.</I> Sponsors must provide written notice to all applicants for apprenticeship and all apprentices of their right to file a discrimination complaint and the procedures for doing so. The notice must include the address, phone number, and other contact information for the Registration Agency that will receive and investigate complaints filed under this part. The notice must be provided in the application for apprenticeship and must also be displayed in a prominent, publicly available location where all apprentices will see the notice. The notice must contain the following specific wording:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Your Right to Equal Opportunity
</HD3>
<P>It is against the law for a sponsor of an apprenticeship program registered for Federal purposes to discriminate against an apprenticeship applicant or apprentice based on race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, age (40 years or older), genetic information, or disability. The sponsor must ensure equal opportunity with regard to all terms, conditions, and privileges associated with apprenticeship. If you think that you have been subjected to discrimination, you may file a complaint within 300 days from the date of the alleged discrimination or failure to follow the equal opportunity standards with [INSERT NAME OF REGISTRATION AGENCY, ADDRESS, PHONE NUMBER, EMAIL ADDRESS, AND CONTACT NAME OF INDIVIDUAL AT THE REGISTRATION AGENCY WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR RECEIVING COMPLAINTS]. You may also be able to file complaints directly with the EEOC, or State fair employment practices agency. If those offices have jurisdiction over the sponsor/employer, their contact information is listed below. [INSERT CONTACT INFORMATION FOR EEOC AS PROVIDED ON “EEO IS THE LAW POSTER,” AND CONTACT INFORMATION FOR STATE FEPA AS PROVIDED ON STATE FEPA POSTER, AS APPLICABLE]
</P>
<P>Each complaint filed must be made in writing and include the following information:
</P>
<P>1. Complainant's name, address and telephone number, or other means for contacting the complainant;
</P>
<P>2. The identity of the respondent (<I>i.e.</I> the name, address, and telephone number of the individual or entity that the complainant alleges is responsible for the discrimination);
</P>
<P>3. A short description of the events that the complainant believes were discriminatory, including but not limited to when the events took place, what occurred, and why the complainant believes the actions were discriminatory (for example, because of his/her race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, national origin, age (40 or older), genetic information, or disability);
</P>
<P>4. The complainant's signature or the signature of the complainant's authorized representative.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements of the Registration Agency</I>—(1) <I>Conduct investigations.</I> The investigation of a complaint filed under this part will be undertaken by the Registration Agency, and will proceed as expeditiously as possible. In conducting complaint investigations, the Registration Agency must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide written notice to the complainant acknowledging receipt of the complaint;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contact the complainant, if the complaint form is incomplete, to obtain full information necessary to initiate an investigation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Initiate an investigation upon receiving a complete complaint;
</P>
<P>(iv) Complete a thorough investigation of the allegations of the complaint and develop a complete case record that must contain, but is not limited to, the name, address, and telephone number of each person interviewed, the interview statements, copies, transcripts, or summaries (where appropriate) of pertinent documents, and a narrative report of the investigation with references to exhibits and other evidence which relate to the alleged violations; and
</P>
<P>(v) Provide written notification of the Registration Agency's findings to both the respondent and the complainant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Seek compliance.</I> Where a report of findings from a complaint investigation indicates a violation of the nondiscrimination requirements of this part, the Registration Agency should attempt to resolve the matter quickly at the Registration Agency level whenever appropriate. Where a complaint of discrimination cannot be resolved at the Registration Agency level to the satisfaction of the complainant, the Registration Agency must refer the complaint to other Federal, State or local EEO agencies, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Referrals to other EEO agencies.</I> The Registration Agency, at its discretion, may choose to refer a complaint immediately upon its receipt or any time thereafter to:
</P>
<P>(i) The EEOC;
</P>
<P>(ii) The United States Attorney General;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Department's OFCCP; or
</P>
<P>(iv) For an SAA, to its Fair Employment Practices Agency.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative complaint procedures.</I> An SAA may adopt a complaint review procedure differing in detail from that given in this section provided it is submitted for review to and receives approval by the Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.15   Enforcement actions.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Registration Agency, as a result of a compliance review, complaint investigation, or other reason, determines that the sponsor is not operating its apprenticeship program in accordance with this part, the Registration Agency must notify the sponsor in writing of the specific violation(s) identified and may:
</P>
<P>(a) Offer the sponsor technical assistance to promote compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Suspend the sponsor's right to register new apprentices if the sponsor fails to implement a compliance action plan to correct the specific violation(s) identified within 30 business days from the date the sponsor is so notified of the violation(s), or, if the sponsor submits a written response to the findings of noncompliance, fails to implement a compliance action plan within 30 days of receiving the Registration Agency's notice upholding its initial noncompliance findings. If the sponsor has not implemented a compliance action plan within 30 business days of notification of suspension, the Registration Agency may institute proceedings to deregister the program in accordance with the deregistration proceedings set forth in part 29 of this chapter, or if the Registration Agency does not institute such proceedings within 45 days of the start of the suspension, the suspension is lifted.
</P>
<P>(c) Take any other action authorized by law. These other actions may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Referral to the EEOC;
</P>
<P>(2) Referral to an appropriate State fair employment practice agency; or
</P>
<P>(3) Referral to the Department's OFCCP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.16   Reinstatement of program registration.</HEAD>
<P>An apprenticeship program that has been deregistered pursuant to this part may be reinstated by the Registration Agency upon presentation of adequate evidence that the apprenticeship program is operating in accordance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.17   Intimidation and retaliation prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant in an apprenticeship program may not be intimidated, threatened, coerced, retaliated against, or discriminated against because the individual has:
</P>
<P>(1) Filed a complaint alleging a violation of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Opposed a practice prohibited by the provisions of this part or any other Federal or State equal opportunity law;
</P>
<P>(3) Furnished information to, or assisted or participated in any manner, in any investigation, compliance review, proceeding, or hearing under this part or any Federal or State equal opportunity law; or
</P>
<P>(4) Otherwise exercised any rights and privileges under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any sponsor that permits such intimidation or retaliation in its apprenticeship program, including by participating employers, and fails to take appropriate steps to prevent such activity will be subject to enforcement action under § 30.15.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.18   State apprenticeship agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State plan.</I> (1) Within 1 year of January 18, 2017, unless an extension for good cause is sought and granted by the Administrator, an SAA that seeks to obtain or maintain recognition under § 29.13 of this title must submit to OA a State EEO plan that:
</P>
<P>(i) Includes, at a minimum, draft State apprenticeship authorizing language corresponding to the requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Requires all apprenticeship programs registered with the State for Federal purposes to comply with the requirements of the State's EEO plan within 180 days from the date that OA provides written approval of the State EEO plan submitted under this paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of the State's EEO plan, OA will review the plan to determine if the plan conforms to this part. OA will:
</P>
<P>(i) Grant the SAA continued recognition during this review period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide technical assistance to facilitate conformity, and provide written notification of the areas of nonconformity, if any; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon successful completion of the review process, notify the SAA of OA's determination that the State's EEO plan conforms to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) If the State does not submit a revised State EEO plan that addresses identified non-conformities within 90 days from the date that OA provides the SAA with written notification of the areas of nonconformity, OA will begin the process set forth in § 29.14 of this title to rescind recognition of the SAA.
</P>
<P>(4) An SAA that seeks to obtain or maintain recognition must obtain the Administrator's written concurrence in any proposed State EEO plan, as well as any subsequent modification to that plan, as provided in § 29.13(b)(9) of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recordkeeping requirements.</I> A recognized SAA must keep all records pertaining to program compliance reviews, complaint investigations, and any other records pertinent to a determination of compliance with this part. These records must be maintained for five years from the date of their creation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retention of authority.</I> As provided in § 29.13 of this chapter, OA retains the full authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct compliance reviews of all registered apprenticeship programs;
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct complaint investigations of any program sponsor to determine whether an apprenticeship program registered for Federal purposes is operating in accordance with this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Deregister for Federal purposes an apprenticeship program registered with a recognized SAA as provided in §§ 29.8(b) and 29.10 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(4) Refer any matter pertaining to paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The EEOC or the U.S. Attorney General with a recommendation for the institution of an enforcement action under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended; the ADEA; GINA, or title I of the ADA;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Department's OFCCP with a recommendation for the institution of agency action under Executive Order 11246; or section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The U.S. Attorney General for other action as authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Derecognition.</I> A recognized SAA that fails to comply with the requirements of this section will be subject to derecognition proceedings, as provided in § 29.14 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.29.0.66.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.19   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for exemption from these regulations, or any part thereof, must be made in writing to the Registration Agency and must contain a statement of reasons supporting the request. Exemptions may be granted for good cause by the Registration Agency. State Apprenticeship Agencies must receive approval to grant an exemption from the Administrator, prior to granting an exemption from these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 31—NONDISCRIMINATION IN FEDERALLY ASSISTED PROGRAMS OF THE DEPARTMENT OF LABOR—EFFECTUATION OF TITLE VI OF THE CIVIL RIGHTS ACT OF 1964
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2000d <I>et seq.,</I> 42 U.S.C. 501, 29 U.S.C. 49k, 5 U.S.C. 301; E.O. 14281, 90 FR 17537.










</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 31.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate the provisions of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to the end that no person in the United States shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Labor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>Act</I> means the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (78 Stat. 241). 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by the Secretary, or by a primary recipient, as a condition to eligibility for Federal financial assistance, and the term <I>application</I> means such application, request, or plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>Department</I> means the Department of Labor and includes each of its operating agencies and other organizational units. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>facility</I> includes all or any portion of structures, equipment, or other real or personal property or interests therein, and the provision of facilities includes the construction, expansion, renovation, remodeling, alteration or acquisition of facilities. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>Federal financial assistance</I> includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) Grants and loans of Federal funds, 
</P>
<P>(2) The grant or donation of Federal property and interests in property, 
</P>
<P>(3) The detail of Federal personnel, 
</P>
<P>(4) The sale and lease of, and the permission to use (on other than a casual or transient basis), Federal property or any interest in such property without consideration or at a nominal consideration, or at a consideration which is reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient, or in recognition of the public interest to be served by such sale or lease to the recipient, and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any Federal agreement, arrangement, or other contract which has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance. 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>primary recipient</I> means any recipient which is authorized or required to extend Federal financial assistance to another recipient. 
</P>
<P>(g) The terms <I>program or activity</I> and <I>program</I> mean all of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (g)(1) through (4) of this section, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of vocational education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(A) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(B) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (g)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>recipient</I> means any State, political subdivision of any State, or instrumentality of any State or political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or any other entity, or any individual in any State, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient, including any successor, assign, or transferee thereof, but such term does not include any ultimate beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or any person specifically designated by him to perform any function provided for under this part, except that only the Secretary personally or a hearing examiner shall conduct hearings under § 31.10. 
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>United States</I> means the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Canal Zone, and the territories and possessions of the United States, and the term <I>State</I> means any one of the foregoing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 68 FR 51366, 51367, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.3   General standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person in the United States shall, on the grounds of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under, any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific discriminatory actions prohibited.</I> (1) A recipient to which this regulation applies may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, on the ground of race, color, or national origin: 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny an individual any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided under the program; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide any service, financial aid, or other benefit to an individual which is different, or is provided in a different manner, from that provided to others under the program; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Subject an individual to segregation or separate treatment in any matter related to his receipt of any service, financial aid, or other benefit under the program; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Restrict an individual in any way in the enjoyment of any advantage or privilege enjoyed by others receiving any service, financial aid, or other benefit under the program; 
</P>
<P>(v) Treat an individual differently from others in determining whether he satisfies any admission, enrollment, quota, eligibility, membership or other requirement or condition which individuals must meet in order to be provided any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided under the program; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Deny an individual an opportunity to participate in the program through the provision of services or otherwise or afford him an opportunity to do so which is different from that afforded others under the program, or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Deny an individual an opportunity to participate in a program as an employee where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is to provide employment. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Deny a person the opportunity to participate as a member of a planning or advisory body which is an integral part of the program. 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 


</P>
<P>(3) In determining the site or location of facilities, a recipient or applicant may not make selections with the purpose of excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under any program to which this regulation applies, on the ground of race, color or national origin; or with the purpose of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the Act or this regulation.









 
</P>
<P>(4) As used in this section the services, financial aid, or other benefit provided under a program receiving Federal financial assistance shall be deemed to include any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided in or through a facility provided with the aid of Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(5) The enumeration of specific forms of prohibited discrimination in this paragraph does not limit the generality of the prohibition in paragraph (a). 
</P>
<P>(6)

[Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(7) The following will illustrate the application of the provisions of the foregoing paragraph to programs for which Federal financial assistance is furnished by this Department: 
</P>
<P>(i) In some situations even though past discriminatory practices have been abandoned, the consequences of such practices continue to impede the full availability of a benefit. If the efforts required of the applicant or recipient under § 31.5(d) to provide information as to the availability of the program or activity, and the rights of beneficiaries under this regulation, have failed to overcome these consequences, it will become necessary for such applicant or recipient to take additional steps to make the benefits fully available to racial and nationality groups previously subjected to discrimination. This action might take the form, for example, of special arrangements for obtaining referrals or making selections which will insure that groups previously subjected to discrimination are adequately served. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Even though an applicant or recipient has never used discriminatory policies, the services and benefits of the program or activity it administers may not in fact be equally available to some racial or nationality groups. In some circumstances an applicant or recipient may properly give special consideration to race, color, or national origin to make the benefits of its program more widely available to such groups not then being adequately served. For example, where an employment service office is not adequately serving members of a particular racial or nationality group, it may establish special recruitment policies to make its program better known and more readily available to such group, and take other steps to provide that group with more adequate service. 


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employment practices.</I> Where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance to a program to which this regulation applies is to provide employment, a recipient may not (directly or through contractual or other arrangements) subject an individual to discrimination on the ground of race, color, or national origin in its employment practices under such program including recruitment, examination, appointment, training, promotion, retention or any other personnel action.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17957, July 5, 1973, as amended at 68 FR 51366, 51367, Aug. 26, 2003; 68 FR 54268, Sept. 16, 2003; 91 FR 40381, July 2, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.5   Compliance information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cooperation and assistance.</I> The Secretary shall to the fullest extent practicable seek the cooperation of recipients in obtaining compliance with this part and shall provide assistance and guidance to recipients to help them comply voluntarily with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance reports.</I> Each recipient shall keep such records and submit to the Secretary timely, complete and accurate compliance reports at such times, and in such form and containing such information, as the Secretary may determine to be necessary to enable him to ascertain whether the recipient has complied or is complying with this part. In general, recipients should have available for the department racial and ethnic data showing the extent to which members of minority groups are beneficiaries of federally assisted programs. In the case in which a primary recipient extends Federal financial assistance to any other recipient, such other recipient shall also submit such compliance reports to the primary recipient as may be necessary to enable the primary recipient to carry out its obligations under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to sources of information.</I> Each recipient shall permit access by the Secretary during normal business hours to such of its books, records, accounts, and other sources of information, and its facilities as may be pertinent to ascertain compliance with this part. Where any information required of a recipient is in the exclusive possession of any other agency, institution or person and this agency, institution or person shall fail or refuse to furnish this information, the recipient shall so certify in its report and shall set forth what efforts it has made to obtain the information. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information to beneficiaries and participants.</I> Each recipient shall make available to participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the program for which the recipient receives Federal financial assistance, and make such information available to them in such manner, as the Secretary finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by the Act and this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964. Redesignated and amended at 38 FR 17956, July 5, 1973; 68 FR 51367, Aug. 26, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.6   Assurances required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Every application for Federal financial assistance to which this part applies, and every contract, subcontact, agreement or arrangement except an application to which paragraph (b) of this section applies, and every application for Federal financial assistance to provide a facility, and every contract, subcontract, agreement or arrangement to provide such a facility shall as a condition to its approval and the extension of any Federal financial assistance pursuant to the application, contract, subcontract, agreement or arrangement contain or be accompanied by an assurance that the program will be conducted or the facility operated in compliance with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part. Every award of Federal financial assistance shall require the submission of such an assurance. In the case where the Federal financial assistance is to provide or is in the form of personal property, or real property or interest therein or structures thereon, the assurance shall obligate the recipient, or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the property is used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits, or for as long as the recipient retains ownership or possession of the property, whichever is longer. In all cases the assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended to the program. In the case where the assistance is sought for the construction of a facility or part of a facility, the assurance shall in any event extend to the entire facility and to facilities operated in connection therewith. The Secretary shall specify the form of the foregoing assurances, and the extent to which like assurances will be required of subgrantees, contractors and subcontractors, transferees, successors in interest, and other participants. Any such assurance shall include provisions which give the United States a right to seek its judicial enforcement. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case where Federal assistance is provided in the form of a transfer of real property, structures, or improvements thereon, or interest therein, from the Federal Government, the instrument effecting or recording the transfer shall contain a covenant running with the land assuring nondiscrimination for the period during which the real property is used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. Where no transfer of property or interest therein from the Federal Government is involved, but property is acquired with Federal financial assistance, the recipient shall agree to include such covenant in any subsequent transfer of such property. When the property is obtained from the Federal Government, such covenant may also include a condition coupled with a right to be reserved by the Department to revert title to the property in the event of a breach of the covenant where, in the discretion of the Secretary, such a condition and right of reverter is appropriate to the statute under which the real property is obtained and to the nature of the grant and the grantee. In such event if a transferee of real property proposes to mortgage or otherwise encumber the real property as security for financing construction of new, or improvement of existing facilities on such property for the purpose for which the property was transferred, the Secretary may agree, upon request of the transferee and if necessary to accomplish such financing and upon such conditions as he deems appropriate, to subordinate such rights of reversion to the sum of such mortgage or other encumbrance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuing Federal financial assistance.</I> Every application by a State or a State agency for continuing federal financial assistance to which this part applies shall as a condition to its approval and the extension of any Federal financial assistance pursuant to the application
</P>
<P>(1) Contain or be accompanied by a statement that the program is (or, in the case of a new program, will be) conducted in compliance with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide or be accompanied by provision for such methods of administration for the program as are found by the Secretary to give reasonable guarantee that the applicant and all recipients of Federal financial assistance under such program will comply with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17957, July 5, 1973, as amended at 68 FR 51367, Aug. 26, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.7   Conduct of investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Periodic compliance reviews.</I> The Secretary shall from time to time review the practices of recipients to determine whether they are complying with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaints.</I> Any person who believes himself or any specific class of individuals to be subjected to discrmination prohibited by this part may by himself or by a representative file with the Secretary a written complaint. A complaint must be filed not later than 180 days from the date of the alleged discrimination, unless the time for filing is extended by the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investigations.</I> The Secretary will make a prompt investigation whenever a compliance review, report, complaint, or any other information indicates a possible failure to comply with this part. The investigation should include, where appropriate, a review of the pertinent practices and policies of the recipient, the circumstances under which the possible noncompliance with this part occurred, and other factors relevant to a determination as to whether the recipient has failed to comply with this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resolution of matters.</I> (1) If an investigation pursuant to paragraph (c) indicates a failure to comply with this part, the Secretary will so inform the recipient and the matter will be resolved by informal means whenever possible. If it has been determined that the matter cannot be resolved by informal means, action will be taken as provided for in § 31.8. 
</P>
<P>(2) If an investigation does not warrant action pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) the Secretary will so inform the recipient and the complainant, if any, in writing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Intimidatory or retaliatory acts prohibited.</I> No recipient or other person shall intimidate, threaten, coerce or discriminate against any individual for the purpose of interfering with any right or privilege secured by section 601 of the Act or this part, or because he has made a complaint, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this part. The identity of complainant shall be kept confidential except to the extent necessary to carry out the purposes of this part, including the conduct of any investigation, hearing, or judicial proceeding arising thereunder. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964. Redesignated and amended at 38 FR 17958, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.8   Procedure for effecting compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If there appears to be a failure or threatened failure to comply with this part, and if the noncompliance or threatened noncompliance cannot be corrected by informal means, compliance with this part may be effected by the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance, or by any other means authorized by law. Such other means may include, but are not limited to, 
</P>
<P>(1) A reference to the Department of Justice with a recommendation that appropriate proceedings be brought to enforce any rights of the United States under any law of the United States (including other titles of the Act), or any assurance or other contractual undertaking, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any applicable proceeding under State or local law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance.</I> No order suspending, terminating, or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance shall become effective until: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary has advised the applicant or recipient of his failure to comply and has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, 
</P>
<P>(2) There has been an express finding on the record, after opportunity for hearing, of a failure by the applicant or recipient to comply with a requirement imposed by or pursuant to this part, 
</P>
<P>(3) The action has been approved by the Secretary, and 
</P>
<P>(4) The expiration of 30 days after the Secretary has filed with the committee of the House and the committee of the Senate having legislative jurisdiction over the program involved, a full written report of the circumstances and the grounds for such action. Any action to suspend or terminate or to refuse to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance shall be limited to the particular political entity, or part thereof, or other applicant or recipient as to whom such a finding has been made and shall be limited in its effect to the particular program, or part thereof, in which such noncompliance has been so found. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other means authorized by law.</I> No action to effect compliance by any other means authorized by law shall be taken until: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, 
</P>
<P>(2) The action has been approved by the Secretary, 
</P>
<P>(3) The recipient or other person has been notified of its failure to comply and of the action to be taken to effect compliance, and 
</P>
<P>(4) The expiration of at least 10 days from the mailing of such notice to the recipient or other person. During this period of at least 10 days additional efforts shall be made to persuade the recipient or other person to comply with this part and to take such corrective action as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964. Redesignated at 38 FR 17958, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.9   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Opportunity for hearing.</I> Whenever an opportunity for a hearing is required by § 31.8(b), reasonable notice shall be given by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected applicant or recipient. This notice shall advise the applicant or recipient of the action proposed to be taken, the specific provision under which the proposed action against it is to be taken, and the matters of fact or law asserted as the basis for this action, and either 
</P>
<P>(1) Fix a date not less than 20 days after the date of such notice within which the applicant or recipient may request of the Secretary that the matter be scheduled for hearing, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the applicant or recipient that the matter in question has been set down for hearing at a stated place and time. The time and place so fixed shall be reasonable and shall be subject to change for cause. The complainant, if any, shall be advised of the time and place of the hearing. An applicant or recipient may waive a hearing and submit written information and argument for the record. The failure of an applicant or recipient to request a hearing under this section or to appear at a hearing under this section or to appear at a hearing for which a date has been set shall be deemed to be a waiver of the right to a hearing under section 602 of the Act and § 31.8(b) of this part and consent to the making of a decision on the basis of such information as is available. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time and place of hearing.</I> Hearings shall be held at the offices of the Department in Washington, DC, at a time fixed by the Secretary unless he determines that the convenience of the applicant or recipient or of the Department requires that another place be selected. Hearings shall be held before the Secretary or before a hearing examiner designated in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 3105 and 3344 (section 11 of the Administrative Procedure Act). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Right to counsel.</I> In all proceedings under this section, the applicant or recipient, and the Department shall have the right to be represented by counsel. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures, evidence, and record.</I> (1) The hearing, decision, and any administrative review thereof shall be conducted in conformity with 5 U.S.C. 554-557 (sections 5-8 of the Administrative Procedure Act), and in accordance with such rules of procedure as are proper (and not inconsistent with this section) relating to the conduct of the hearing, giving of notices subsequent to those provided for in paragraph (a) of this section, taking of testimony, exhibits, arguments and briefs, requests for findings, and other related matters. Both the Department and the applicant or recipient shall be entitled to introduce all relevant evidence on the issues as stated in the notice for hearing or as determined by the officer conducting the hearing at the outset of or during the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical rules of evidence shall not apply to hearings conducted pursuant to this part, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most credible evidence available and to subject testimony to test by cross-examination shall be applied where reasonably necessary by the officer conducting the hearing. The hearing officer may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence. All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by the parties and opportunity shall be given to refute facts and arguments advanced on either side of the issues. A transcript shall be made of the oral evidence except to the extent the substance thereof is stipulated for the record. All decisions shall be based upon the hearing record and written findings shall be made. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consolidated or Joint hearings.</I> In cases in which the same or related facts are asserted to constitute noncompliance with this part with respect to two or more Federal statutes, authorities, or other means by which Federal financial assistance is extended and to which this part applies or noncompliance with this part and the regulations of one or more other Federal departments or agencies issued under title VI of the Act, the Secretary may, by agreement with such other departments or agencies, where applicable, provide for the conduct of consolidated or joint hearings, and for the application to such hearings or rules of procedure not inconsistent with this part. Final decisions in such cases, insofar as this part is concerned, shall be made in accordance with § 31.10. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964. Redesignated and amended at 38 FR 17958, July 5, 1973; 68 FR 51367, Aug. 26, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.10   Decisions and notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Decision by a hearing examiner.</I> If the hearing is held by a hearing examiner such hearing examiner shall either make an initial decision, if so authorized, or certify the entire record including his recommended findings and proposed decision to the Secretary for a final decision, and a copy of such initial decision or certification shall be mailed to the applicant or recipient and the complainant. Where the initial decision is made by the hearing examiner the applicant or recipient may within 30 days of the mailing of such notice of initial decision file with the Secretary his exceptions to the initial decision, with his reasons therefor. In the absence of exceptions, the Secretary may on his own motion within 45 days after the initial decision serve on the applicant or recipient a notice that he will review the decision. Upon the filing of such exceptions or of such notice of review the Secretary shall review the initial decision and issue his own decision thereon including the reasons therefor. The decision of the Secretary shall be mailed promptly to the applicant or recipient and the complainant, if any. In the absence of either exceptions or a notice of review the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decisions on record or review by the Secretary.</I> Whenever a record is certified to the Secretary for decision or he reviews the decision of a hearing examiner pursuant to paragraph (a), or whenever the Secretary conducts the hearing, the applicant or recipient shall be given reasonable opportunity to file with him briefs or other written statements of its contentions, and a copy of the final decision of the Secretary shall be given in writing to the applicant or recipient and the complainant, if any. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on record where a hearing is waived.</I> Whenever a hearing is waived pursuant to § 31.9(a) a decision shall be made by the Secretary on the record and a copy of such decision shall be given in writing to the applicant or recipient and to the complainant, if any. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rulings required.</I> Each decision of a hearing officer or the Secretary shall set forth his ruling on each finding, conclusion, or exception presented, and shall identify the requirement or requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part with which it is found that the applicant or recipient has failed to comply. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content of orders.</I> The final decision may provide for suspension or termination of, or refusal to grant or continue Federal financial assistance, in whole or in part, to which this regulation applies, and may contain such terms, conditions, and other provisions as are consistent with and will effectuate the purposes of the Act and this part, including provisions designed to assure that no Federal financial assistance to which this regulation applies will thereafter be extended to the applicant or recipient determined by such decision to be in default in its performance of an assurance given by it pursuant to this part, or to have otherwise failed to comply with this part, unless and until it corrects its noncompliance and satisfies the Secretary that it will fully comply with this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Post-termination proceedings.</I> (1) An applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order issued under paragraph (c) of this section shall be restored to full eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance if it satisfies the terms and conditions of that order for such eligibility or if it brings itself into compliance with this regulation and provides reasonable assurance that it will fully comply with this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order entered pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section may at any time request the Secretary to restore fully its eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance. Any such request shall be supported by information showing that the applicant or recipient has met the requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section. If the Secretary determines that those requirements have been satisfied, he shall restore such eligibility. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the Secretary denies any such request, the applicant or recipient may submit a request for a hearing in writing, specifying why it believes the Secretary to have been in error. It shall thereupon be given an expeditious hearing, with a decision on the record, in accordance with rules of procedure issued by the Secretary. The applicant or recipient will be restored to such eligibility if it proves at such a hearing that it satisfied the requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section. While proceedings under this paragraph are pending, the sanctions imposed by the order issued under paragraph (e) of this section shall remain in effect. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964. Redesignated and amended at 38 FR 17958, July 5, 1973; 68 FR 51367, Aug. 26, 2003] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.11   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Action taken pursuant to section 602 of the Act is subject to judicial review as provided in section 603 of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16284, Dec. 4, 1964. Redesignated at 38 FR 17958, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.30.0.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.12   Effect on other regulations; supervision and coordination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect on other regulations.</I> All regulations, orders or like directions heretofore issued by any officer of the Department which impose requirements designed to prohibit any discrimination against individuals on the ground of race, color, or national origin under any program to which this part applies, and which authorize the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance to any applicant for or recipient of such assistance for failure to comply with such requirements, are hereby superseded to the extent that such discrimination is prohibited by this part, except that nothing in this part shall be deemed to relieve any person of any obligations assumed or imposed under any such superseded regulation, order, instruction, or like direction prior to the effective date of this part. Nothing in this part, however, shall be deemed to supersede any of the following (including future amendments thereof): 
</P>
<P>(1) Executive Orders 10925 and 11114 and regulations issued thereunder,


</P>
<P>(2) The “Standards for a Merit System of Personnel Administration,” issued jointly by the Secretaries of Defense, of Health, Education and Welfare, and of Labor, 23 FR 734, or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any other regulation or instruction insofar as it prohibits discrimination on the ground of race, color, or national origin in any program or situation to which this part is inapplicable, or prohibits discrimination on any other ground. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supervision and coordination.</I> (1) The Secretary may from time to time assign to officials of other departments or agencies of the government (with the consent of such department or agency) responsibilities in connection with the effectuation of the purposes of title VI of the Act and this part (other than responsibility for final decision as provided in § 31.11), including the achievement of effective coordination and maximum uniformity within the Department and within the executive branch of the Government in the application of title VI and this part to similar programs and in similar situations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any action taken, determination made, or requirement imposed by an official of another Department or agency acting pursuant to an assignment of responsibility under this subsection shall have the same effect as though such action had been taken by the Secretary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17958, July 5, 1973, as amended at 68 FR 51367, Aug. 26, 2003; 91 FR 40381, July 2, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 32—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 504, Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794); sec. 111(a), Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974, Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1619 (29 U.S.C. 706); secs. 119 and 122 of the Rehabilitation Comprehensive Services and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955; Executive Order 11914, 41 FR 17871. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of handicap in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance. The purpose of this part is to implement section 504 with respect to receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Labor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.2   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to each recipient of Federal financial assistance from the Department of Labor, and to every program or activity that receives such assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) A government contractor covered by the provisions of section 503 of the Act shall be deemed in compliance with the employment provisions of these regulations if it is in compliance with 41 CFR part 60-741 (as amended after publication of these regulations) with respect to Federal financial assistance from the Department of Labor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51367, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>The Act</I> means the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Public Law 93-112, as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974, Public Law 93-516, and by the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, Public Law 95-602. 
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Employment and Training Administration or his or her designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Applicant for assistance</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by a Department official or by a recipient as a condition to becoming a recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of the buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots or other real or personal property or interest in such property which are utilized in the execution of the program or activity for which Federal financial assistance is received. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any grant, loan, contract (other than a procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guarantee), or any other arrangement by which the Department provides or otherwise makes available assistance in the form of: 
</P>
<P>(a) Funds; 
</P>
<P>(b) Services of Federal personnel; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Real and personal property or any interest in or use of such property, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Transfers or leases of such property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Proceeds from a subsequent transfer or lease of such property if the Federal share of its fair market value is not returned to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the Government of the United States of America. 
</P>
<P><I>Handicap</I> means any condition or characteristic that renders a person a handicapped individual as defined in this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Handicapped individual</I> 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Handicapped individual</I> means any person who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Has a physical or mental impairment which substantially limits one or more major life activities; 
</P>
<P>(2) Has a record of such an impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Is regarded as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P>(b) As used in the proceeding paragraph of this section, the phrase: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genito-urinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes but is not limited to such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular distrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Substantially limits</I> means the degree that the impairment affects an individual becoming a beneficiary of a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance or affects an individual's employability. A handicapped individual who is likely to experience difficulty in securing or retaining benefits or in securing, or retaining, or advancing in employment would be considered substantially limited. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Major life activities</I> means functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, working, and receiving education or vocational training. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means that the individual has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more life activity.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Is regarded as having such an impairment</I> means that the individual—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but that is treated by a recipient as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section but is treated by a recipient as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Program or activity</I> means all of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this definition, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of vocational education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(A) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(B) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified handicapped individual</I> means:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to employment, an individual with a handicap who is capable of performing the essential functions of the job or jobs for which he or she is being considered with reasonable accommodation to his or her handicap;
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to services, a handicapped individual who meets eligibility requirements relevant to the receipt of services provided in the program or activity;
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to employment and to employment related training, a handicapped individual who meets both the eligibility requirements for participation in the program or activity and valid job or training qualifications with reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable accommodation</I> means the changes and modifications which can be made in the structure of a job or employment and training, or in the manner in which a job is performed or employment and training is conducted, unless it would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the recipient's program or activity. Reasonable accommodation may include:
</P>
<P>(a) Making the facilities used by the employees or participants in the area where the program or activity is conducted, including common areas used by all employees or participants such as hallways, restrooms, cafeterias and lounges, readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons, and
</P>
<P>(b) Job restructuring, part-time or modified work schedules, acquisition or modification of equipment or devices, the provision of readers or interpreters, and other similar actions.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any state or its political subdivisions, any instrumentality of a State or its political subdivisions, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any person to which Federal financial assistance is extended directly or through another recipient, including any successor, assignee, or transferee of a recipient, but excluding the ultimate beneficiary of the assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, or his or her designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Small recipient</I> means a recipient who serves fewer than 15 beneficiaries, and employs fewer than 15 employees at all times during a grant year.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the several states, the District of Columbia, the Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 19985, May 3, 1996; 68 FR 51367, 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.4   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No qualified handicapped individual shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity which receives Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discriminatory actions prohibited.</I> (1) A recipient, in providing any aid, benefit, service or training, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangments, on the basis of handicap: 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified handicapped individual the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, service or training; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified handicapped individual an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, service or training that is not equal to that afforded others; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified handicapped individual with any aid, benefit, service or training that is not as effective as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped individuals or to any class of handicapped individuals unless such action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped individuals with aid, benefits, services or training that are as effective as those provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(v) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against a qualified handicapped individual by providing significant assistance to an agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of handicap in providing any aid, benefit, service or training to beneficiaries of the recipient's program or activity; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Deny a qualified handicapped individual the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped individual in enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving any aid, benefit, service or training. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, aid, benefits, services or training, to be equally effective, are not required to produce the identical result or level of achievement for handicapped and nonhandicapped individuals, but must afford handicapped individuals equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement, in the most integrated setting appropriate to the person's needs. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient may not deny a qualified handicapped individual the opportunity to participate in its regular aid, benefits, services, or training, despite the existence of separate or different aid, benefits, services, or training for the handicapped which are established in accordance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration: 
</P>
<P>(i) That have the effect of subjecting qualified handicapped individuals to discrimination on the basis of handicap; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing accomplishment of the objectives of the recipient's program or activity with respect to handicapped individuals; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) That perpetuate the discrimination of another recipient if both recipients are subject to common administrative control or are agencies of the same state. 
</P>
<P>(5) In determining the site or location of a facility, an applicant for assistance or a recipient may not make selections. 
</P>
<P>(i) That have the effect of excluding handicapped individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or otherwise subjecting them to discrimination under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) That have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the program or activity with respect to handicapped individuals. 
</P>
<P>(6) As used in this section, the aid, benefit, service or training provided under a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance includes any aid, benefit, service or training provided in or through a facility that has been constructed, expanded, altered, leased, rented, or otherwise acquired, in whole or in part, with Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(7)(i) In providing services receiving Federal financial assistance, except for employment-related training, a recipient to which this subpart applies, except small recipients, shall ensure that no handicapped participant is denied the benefits of, excluded from participation in, or otherwise subjected to discrimination under the program or activity operated by the recipient because of the absence of auxiliary aids for participants with impaired sensory, manual or speaking skills. In employment and employment-related training, this paragraph shall apply only to the intake, assessment and referral services. A recipient shall operate each program or activity to which this subpart applies so that, when viewed in its entirety, auxiliary aids are readily available. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Auxiliary aids may include brailled and taped written materials, interpreters or other effective methods of making orally delivered information available to persons with hearing impairments, readers for persons with visual impairments, equipment adapted for use by persons with manual impairments, and other similar services and actions. Recipients need not provide attendants, individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices or services of a personal nature. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aid, benefits, services, or training limited by Federal law.</I> The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from aid, benefits, program services, or training limited by Federal statute on Executive order to handicapped individuals or the exclusion of a specific class of handicapped individuals from aid, benefits, services, or training limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of handicapped individuals is not prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Integrated setting.</I> Recipients shall administer programs or activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified handicapped individuals. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Communications with individuals with impaired vision and hearing.</I> Recipients shall take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with their applicants, employees, and beneficiaries are available to persons with impaired vision and hearing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51367, 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.5   Assurances required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assurances.</I> An applicant for Federal financial assistance to which this part applies shall submit an assurance, on a form specified by the Assistant Secretary, that the program or activity will be operated in compliance with this part. An applicant may incorporate these assurances by reference in subsequent applications to the Department. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended in the form of real property or structures on the property, the assurance will obligate the recipient or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used for the purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide personal property, the assurance will obligate the recipient for the period during which it retains ownership or possession of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases the assurance will obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended or the federally-funded program or activity is operated, whichever is longer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covenants.</I> (1) Where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of real property or interest in the property from the Department, the instrument effecting or recording this transfer shall contain a covenant running with the land to assure nondiscrimination for the period during which the real property is used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where no Federal transfer of property is involved but property is purchased or improved with Federal financial assistance, the recipient shall agree to include the covenant described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in the instrument effecting or recording any subsequent transfer of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of real property or interest in the property from the Department, the covenant shall also include a condition coupled with a right to be reserved by the Department to revert title to the property in the event of a breach of the covenant. If a transferee of real property proposes to mortgage or otherwise encumber the real property as security to finance construction of new, or improvement of existing, facilities on the property for the purposes for which the property was transferred, the Assistant Secretary may agree to forbear the exercise of such right to revert title for so long as the lien of such mortgage or other encumbrance remains effective. Such an agreement by the Assistant Secretary may be entered into only upon the request of the transferee (recipient) if it is necessary to accomplish such financing and upon such terms and conditions as the Assistant Secretary deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interagency agreements.</I> Where funds are granted by the Department to another Federal agency, and where the grant obligates the recipient agency to comply with the rules and regulations of the Department applicable to that grant the provisions of this part shall apply to programs or activities operated with such funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51367, 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.6   Remedial action, voluntary action, and self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> (1) If the Assistant Secretary finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of handicap in violation of section 504 of this part, the recipient shall take such remedial action as the Assistant Secretary deems necessary to overcome the effects of the discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where a recipient is found to have discriminated against persons on the basis of handicap in violation of section 504 or this part and where another recipient exercises control over the recipient that has discriminated, the Assistant Secretary, where appropriate, may require either or both recipients to take remedial action. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Assistant Secretary may, where necessary to overcome the effects of discrimination in violation of section 504 or this part, require a recipient to take remedial action: 
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to handicapped individuals who would have been participants in the program or activity had the discrimination not occurred; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to handicapped persons who are no longer participants in the recipient's program but who were participants in the program or activity when the discrimination occurred; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to employees and applicants for employment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voluntary action.</I> A recipient may take steps, in addition to any action that is required by this part, to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in the recipient's program or activity by qualified handicapped individuals. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> (1) A recipient shall, within one year of the effective date of this part: 
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate, with the assistance of interested persons who are selected by the recipient, including handicapped individuals or organizations representing handicapped individuals, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Modify, after consultation with interested persons who are selected by the recipient, including handicapped individuals or organizations representing handicapped individuals, any policies and practices that do not meet the requirements of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Take, after consultation with interested persons who are selected by the recipient, including handicapped individuals or organizations representing handicapped individuals, appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of any discrimination that resulted from adherence to these policies and practices. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient, other than a small recipient, shall for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, maintain on file, make available for public inspection, and provide to the Assistant Secretary upon request: 
</P>
<P>(i) A list of the interested persons consulted; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any modifications made and of any remedial steps taken. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.7   Designation of responsible employee.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient, other than a small recipient shall designate at least one person to coordinate its efforts to comply with this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.8   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient, other than a small recipient, shall take appropriate initial and continuing steps to notify participants, beneficiaries, referral sources, applicants, and employees, including those with impaired vision or hearing, and unions or professional organizations which have collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient, that it does not discriminate on the basis of handicap in violation of section 504 and of this part. The notification shall state, where appropriate, that the recipient does not discriminate in the admission or access to, or treatment or employment in, its programs or activities. The notification shall also include an identification of the responsible employee designated pursuant to § 32.7. A recipient shall make the initial notifications required by this paragraph within 90 days of the effective date of this part. Methods of initial and continuing notification may include the posting of notices, publication in newspapers and magazines, placement of notices in recipient's publications, and distribution of memoranda or other written communications. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a recipient publishes or uses recruitment materials or publications containing general information that it makes available to participants, beneficiaries, applicants, or employees, it shall include in those materials or publications a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section. A recipient may meet the requirement of this paragraph either by including appropriate inserts in existing materials and publications or by revising and reprinting the materials and publications. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.9   Administrative requirements for small recipients.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary may require any recipient that provides services to fewer than 15 beneficiaries or with fewer than 15 employees, or any class of such recipients, to comply with §§ 32.7 and 32.8, in whole or in part, when the Assistant Secretary finds a violation of this part or finds that such compliance will not significantly impair the ability of the recipient or class of recipients to provide benefits or services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.1.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.10   Effect of State or local law or other requirements and effect of employment opportunities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The obligation to comply with this part is not obviated or alleviated by the existence of any state or local law or other requirement that, on the basis of handicap, imposes prohibitions or limits upon the eligibility of qualified handicapped individuals to receive services, participate in programs or activities or practice any occupation or profession. 
</P>
<P>(b) The obligation to comply with this part is not obviated or alleviated because employment opportunities in any occupation or profession are or may be more limited for handicapped individuals than for nonhandicapped persons. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Employment Practices and Employment Related Training Participation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.2.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.12   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) No qualified handicapped individual shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity to which this part applies. This subpart is applicable to employees and applicants for employment with all recipients and to participants in employment and training under programs or activities financed in whole or in part by Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall make all decisions concerning employment or training under any program or activity to which this subpart applies in a manner which ensures that discrimination on the basis of handicap does not occur and may not limit, segregate, or classify applicants or employees or participants in any way that adversely affects their opportunities or status because of handicap. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient may not participate in a contractual or other relationship that has the effect of subjecting qualified handicapped applicants, employees or participants to discrimination prohibited by this subpart. The relationships referred to in this subparagraph include relationships with employment and referral agencies, with labor unions, with organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient, and with organizations providing training and apprenticeships. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific activities.</I> The provisions of this subpart apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment advertising, and the processing of applicants for employment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, right of return from layoff and rehiring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation and changes in compensation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, job classifications, organizational structures, position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists; 
</P>
<P>(5) Leaves of absence, sick leave, or any other leave; 
</P>
<P>(6) Fringe benefits available by virture of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient; 
</P>
<P>(7) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities, and selection for leaves of absence to pursue training; 
</P>
<P>(8) Employer-sponsored activities, including those that are social or recreational; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collective bargaining agreements.</I> Whenever a recipient's obligation to comply with this subpart and to correct discriminatory practices impacts on and/or necessitates changes in a term of a collective bargaining agreement(s) to which the recipient is a party, the recipient shall attempt to achieve compliance consistent with the provisions of § 32.17(a). However a recipient's obligation to comply with this subpart is not relieved by a term of any such collective bargaining agreement(s). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compensation.</I> In offering employment or promotions to handicapped individuals, the recipient shall not reduce the amount of compensation offered because of any disability income, pension or other benefit the applicant or employee receives from other source. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.2.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.13   Reasonable accommodation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of an otherwise qualified handicapped applicant, employee or participant unless the recipient can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) In determining pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section whether an accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of a recipient's program or activity, factors to be considered include; 
</P>
<P>(1) The overall size of the recipient's program or activity with respect to number of employees, number of participants, number and type of facilities, and size of budget; 
</P>
<P>(2) The type of the recipient's operation, including the composition and structure of the recipient's workforce, and duration and type of training; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The nature and cost of the accommodation needed. 
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient may not deny any employment or training opportunity to a qualified handicapped employee, applicant or participant if the basis for the denial is the need to make reasonable accommodation to the physical or mental limitations of the employee, applicant or participant. 
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this paragraph shall relieve a recipient of its obligation to make its program or activity accessible as required in subpart C of this part, or to provide auxiliary aids, as required by § 32.4(b)(7). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.2.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.14   Job qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The recipient shall provide for, and shall adhere to, a schedule for the review of the appropriateness of all job qualifications to ensure that to the extent job qualifications tend to exclude handicapped individuals because of their handicap, they are related to the performance of the job and are consistent with business necessity and safe performance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever a recipient applies job qualifications in the selection of applicants, employees or participants for employment or training or other change in employment status such as promotion, demotion or training, which would tend to exclude handicapped individuals because of their handicap, the qualifications shall be related to the specific job or jobs for which the individual is being considered and shall be consistent with business necessity and safe performance. The recipient shall have the burden to demonstrate that it has complied with the requirements of this paragraph. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.2.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.15   Preemployment inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a recipient may not conduct preemployment medical examinations or make preemployment inquiry of an applicant for employment or training as to whether the applicant is a handicapped person or as to the nature or the severity of a handicap. A recipient may, however, make preemployment inquiry into an applicant's ability to perform job-related functions. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a recipient is taking remedial action to correct the effects of past discrimination, when a recipient is taking voluntary action to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited paticipation in its federally-assisted program or activity, or when a recipient is taking affirmative action pursuant to section 503 of the Act, the recipient may invite applicants for employment or training to indicate whether and to what extent they are handicapped if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient states clearly on any written questionnaire used for this purpose or makes clear orally, if no written questionnaire is used, that the information requested is intended for use solely in connection with its remedial action obligations or its voluntary or affirmative action efforts. 
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient states clearly that the information is being requested on a voluntary basis, that it will be kept confidential as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, that refusal to provide it will not subject the applicant, employee or participant to any adverse treatment, and that it will be used only in accordance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) An employer who routinely requires medical examinations as part of the employment selection process must demonstrate that each of the requirements of this subsection are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The medical examination shall be performed by a physician qualified to make functional assessments of individuals in a form which will express residual capacity for work or training. Such an assessment does not require clinical determinations of disease or disability, but shall provide selecting or referring officials sufficient information regarding any functional limitations relevant to proper job placement or referral to appropriate training. Factors which may be assessed may include, for example, use of limbs and extremities, mobility and posture, endurance and energy expenditure, ability to withstand various working conditions and environments, use of senses and mental capacity; 
</P>
<P>(2) The results of the medical examination shall be specific and objective so as to be susceptible to review by independent medical evaluators and shall be transmitted to the applicant or employee at the same time as the employing official; 
</P>
<P>(3) The results of the medical examination shall not be used to screen out qualified applicants and employees but to determine proper placement and reasonable accommodation. The employing official using physical or mental information obtained pursuant to this section should be familiar with physical or mental activities involved in performing the job, and the working conditions and environment in which it is carried out. If the applicant is being considered for a variety of jobs having different requirements or skills, the employing official should make a functional assessment of the physical or mental demands of the jobs in order to match the applicant with the most suitable vacancy; 
</P>
<P>(4) All of potential employees for the jobs are subjected to the medical examination; 
</P>
<P>(5) The procedures for using medical examinations or the medical information shall be constructed in such a manner that: 
</P>
<P>(i) A conditional job offer was made or the individual was conditionally placed in a job pool or conditionally placed on an eligibility list prior to the medical examination being performed; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of the medical examination were considered by the employing official only after a conditional decision to make a job offer or the individual had been placed conditionally in a job pool or conditionally placed on an eligibility list; that is the medical results were the last factor evaluated by the employing officials before a final decision to make an offer of employment was made. 
</P>
<P>(6) Unless a conditional job offer is made prior to the medical examination, all potential employees for the job shall be informed at the time of the medical examination that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The results of the medical examination are the last factor evaluated by the employing official before a final decision to make an offer of employment is made, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The medical examination results shall be transmitted to the employing official and the applicant only after a conditional decision to make a job offer has been made. 
</P>
<P>(d) Information obtained in accordance with this section as to the medical condition or history of the applicant shall be collected and maintained on separate forms that shall be accorded confidentiality as medical records, except that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Employing officials may obtain the information after making a conditional decision to make a job offer to the applicant or the applicant was placed conditionally in a job pool or placed conditionally on an eligibility list. 
</P>
<P>(2) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding restricions on the work or duties of qualified handicapped persons and regarding necessary accommodations; 
</P>
<P>(3) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, where appropriate, if the condition might require emergency treatment; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Government officials investigating compliance with the Act shall be provided information upon request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.2.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.16   Listing of employment openings.</HEAD>
<P>Recipients should request State employment security agencies to refer qualified handicapped individuals for consideration for employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.2.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.17   Labor unions and recruiting and training agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The performance of a recipient's obligations under the nondiscrimination provisions of these regulations may necessitate a revision in a collective bargaining agreement(s). The policy of the Department of Labor is to use its best efforts, directly or through the recipients, subgrantees, local officials, vocational rehabilitation facilities, and other available instrumentalities, to cause any labor union, recruiting and training agency or other representative or workers who are or may be engaged in work under programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance to cooperate with, and to comply in the implementation of section 504. 
</P>
<P>(b) To effectuate the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the Assistant Secretary may hold hearings, public or private, with respect to the practices and policies of any such labor union or recruiting and training agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever compliance with section 504 necessitates a revision of a collective bargaining agreement or otherwise significantly affects a substantial number of employees represented by the union, the collective bargaining representatives shall be given an opportunity to present their views to the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary may notify any Federal, State, or local agency of his/her conclusions and recommendations with respect to any such labor organization or recruiting and training agency which in his/her judgment has failed to cooperate with the Department of Labor, recipients, subgrantees or applicants in carrying out the purposes of section 504. The Assistant Secretary also may notify other appropriate Federal agencies when there is reason to believe that the practices of any such labor organization or agency violates other provisions of Federal law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Accessibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.3.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.26   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified handicapped individual shall, because a recipient's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by handicapped individuals, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity to which this part applies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.27" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.3.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.27   Accessibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> A recipient shall operate each program or activity to which this part applies so that when each part is viewed in its entirety it is readily accessible to qualified handicapped individuals. This paragraph does not require a recipient to make each of its existing facilities or every part of a facility accessible to and usable by qualified handicapped individuals. However, if a particular aid, benefit, service, or training is available in only one location, that site must be made accessible or the aid, benefit, service, or training must be made available at an alternative accessible site or sites. Accessibility requires nonpersonal aids to make the program or activity accessible to mobility impaired persons. Reasonable accommodations, as defined in § 32.3, are required for particular handicapped individuals in response to the specific limitations of their handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) For the purpose of this subpart, prime sponsors under the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act and any other individual or organization which receives a grant directly from the Department to establish or operate any program or activity shall assure that the program or activity, including those involving Public Service Employment, Work Experience, Classroom Training and On-the-Job-Training, when each part is viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to qualified handicapped individuals. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Job Corps.</I> All agencies, grantees, or contractors which screen or recruit applicants for the Job Corps shall comply with the nondiscrimination provisions of this part. Each regional office of the Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration which makes the decision on the assignment of a Job Corps applicant to a particular center may, where it finds, after consultation with the qualified handicapped person seeking Job Corps services, that there is no method of complying with § 32.27(a) at a particular Job Corps Center, other than by making a significant alteration in its existing facilities or in its training, assign that individual to another Job Corps Center which is accessible in accordance with this section and which is offering comparable training. The Job Corps, and each regional office of the Employment and Training Administration, shall assure that the Job Corps Program, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to qualified handicapped individuals and that all future construction, including improvements to existing Centers, be made accessible to the handicapped. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a small recipient finds, after consultation with a qualified handicapped person seeking its services, that there is no method of complying with § 32.27(a) other than making a significant alteration in its existing facilities or facility the recipient may, as an alternative, refer the qualified handicapped person to other providers of those services that are accessible. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods.</I> A recipient may comply with the requirement of § 32.27(a) through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of classes or other services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities in conformance with the requirements of § 32.28, or any other method that results in making its program or activity accessible to handicapped individuals. A recipient is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with § 32.27(a). In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirement of § 32.27(a), a recipient shall give priority to those methods that serve handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time period.</I> A recipient shall comply with the requirements of § 32.27(a) within 60 days of the effective date of this part except that where structural changes in facilities are necessary, such changes shall be made within three years of the effective date of this part, but in any even as expeditiously as possible. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities are necessary to meet the requirement of § 32.27(a), a recipient shall develop, within six months of the effective date of this part, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The plan shall be developed with the assistance of interested persons, including qualified handicapped individuals. A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the recipient's facilities that limit the accessibility of its program or activity to qualified handicapped individuals; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve full accessibility under § 32.27(a) and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the person responsible for implementation of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice.</I> The recipient shall adopt and implement procedures to ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of services, activities, and facilities that are accessible to and usable by qualified handicapped individuals. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.28" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.3.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.28   Architectural standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Design and construction.</I> Each facility or part of a facility constructed by, on behalf of, or for the use of a recipient shall be designed and constructed in such manner that the facility or part of the facility is readily accessible to and usable by qualified handicapped individuals, if the construction was commenced after the effective date of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alteration.</I> Each facility or part of a facility which is altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of a recipient after the effective date of this part in a manner that affects or could affect the usability of the facility or part of the facility shall, to the maximum extent feasible, be altered in such manner that the altered portion of the facility is readily accessible to and usable by qualified handicapped individuals. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards for architectural accessibility.</I> Design, construction, or alteration of facilities under this subpart shall meet the most current standards for physical accessibility prescribed by the General Services Administration under the Architectural Barriers Act at 41 CFR 101-19.6. Alternative standards may be adopted when it is clearly evident that equivalent or greater access to the facility or part of the facility is thereby provided. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.4.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.44   Compliance information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cooperation and assistance.</I> The Assistant Secretary shall to the fullest extent practicable seek the cooperation of recipients in obtaining compliance with this part and shall provide assistance and guidance to recipients to help them comply voluntarily with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance reports.</I> Each recipient shall keep such records and submit to the Assistant Secretary timely, complete and accurate compliance reports at such times, and in such form and containing such information as the Assistant Secretary may determine to be necessary to enable him to ascertain whether the recipient had complied or is complying with this part. For example, recipients should have available for the Department data showing the extent to which known handicapped individuals are beneficiaries and participants in federally assisted programs or activities. In the case in which a primary recipient extends Federal financial assistance to any other recipient, such other recipient shall also submit such compliance reports to the primary recipient as may be necessary to enable the primary recipient to carry out its obligations under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to sources of information.</I> Each recipient shall permit access by the Assistant Secretary during normal business hours to such of its books, records, accounts, and other sources of information and its facilities as may be pertinent to ascertain compliance with this part. Where any information required of a recipient is in the exclusive possession of any other agency, institution or person and this agency, institution or person shall fail or refuse to furnish this information, the recipient shall so certify in its report and shall set forth what efforts it has made to obtain the information. Asserted considerations of privacy or confidentiality may not operate to bar the Department from access to or copying of records or information, or from evaluating or seeking to enforce compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Posters and information.</I> The recipient will post in prominent locations (bulletin boards, time clock areas, etc.) posters designed and furnished by DOL outlining and summarizing the nondiscrimination requirements of section 504. The recipient also will make readily available information on section 504 requirements with respect to compliance procedures, the rights of beneficiaries and employees through handbooks, pamphlets and other materials furnished by DOL.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.45" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.4.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.45   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Periodic compliance reviews.</I> The Assistant Secretary shall from time-to-time review the practices of recipients to determine whether they are complying with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adoption of grievance procedures.</I> A recipient shall adopt an internal review procedure incorporating appropriate due process standards which provides for the prompt and equitable resolution of complaints alleging any action prohibited by this part. The complainant or his or her representative shall file the complaint with the recipient for processing under those procedures. A complaint must be filed not later than 180 days from the date of the alleged discrimination, unless the time for filing is extended by the Assistant Secretary for good cause shown. The recipient shall maintain records on all complaints filed alleging violation of the Act and shall make such records available to the Assistant Secretary upon request. The complaint and all actions take thereunder shall be kept confidential by the recipient. If the complaint has not been resolved under those procedures satisfactorily to the complainant within 60 days of the filing or referral, the complainant or his or her representative may file a complaint with the Assistant Secretary within 30 days of the recipient level decision or 90 days from the date of filing the complaint, whichever is earlier. Upon such filing, the Assistant Secretary will proceed as provided in this section. Exhaustion of recipient level procedures shall be required except where:
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient has not acted within the timeframe specified in this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient's procedures are not in compliance with this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) An emergency situation is determined to exist by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complaints.</I> Where recipient level procedures have been exhausted, any person who believes he or she or any specific class of individuals has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part may (or through an authorized representative) file a written complaint with the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents of complaints.</I> Complaints must be signed by the complainant or his or her authorized representative and must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Name and address (including telephone or TTY number) of the complainant; 
</P>
<P>(2) Name and address of the recipient or sub-grantee who committed the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the act or acts considered to be a violation;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the individual is handicapped or has a history of a handicap or other documentation of impairment or was regard by the recipient as having an impairment; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other pertinent information available which will assist in the investigation and resolution of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Incomplete information.</I> Where a complaint contains incomplete information, the Assistant Secretary shall seek the needed information or any other information which indicates a possible failure to comply with this part from the complainant and shall be responsible for developing a complete record. If such information is not provided within 60 days, the complaint may be closed upon notice to the parties.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Resolution of matters.</I> Where an investigation indicates that the recipient has not complied with the requirements of the Act or this part, efforts shall be made to secure compliance through conciliation and persuasion within a reasonable time. Before the recipient or subgrantee can be found to be in compliance, it must make a specific commitment, in writing, to take corrective action to meet the requirements of the Act and this part. The commitment must indicate the precise action to be taken and dates for completion. The time period allowed should be no longer than the minimum period necessary to effect such changes. Upon approval of such commitment by the Assistant Secretary, the recipient may be considered in compliance on condition that the commitments are kept. Where the investigation indicates a violation of the Act or regulations in this part (and the matter has not been resolved by informal means), the Assistant Secretary shall afford the recipient an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with § 32.47.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Intimidatory or retaliatory acts prohibited.</I> The sanctions and penalties contained in this regulation may be exercised by the Assistant Secretary against any recipient or sub-grantee who fails to take all necessary steps to ensure that no person intimidates, threatens, coerces or discriminates against any individual for the purpose of interfering with the filing of a complaint, furnishing information, or assisting or participating in any manner in an investigation, compliance review, hearing, or any other activity related to the administration of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.46" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.4.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.46   Procedure for effecting compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If there appears to be a failure or threatened failure to comply with this regulation and if the noncompliance or threatened noncompliance cannot be corrected by informal means, the Department may suspend, terminate or refuse to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance or take any other means authorized by law. Such other means may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) A referral to the Department of Justice with a recommendation that appropriate proceedings be brought to enforce any rights of the United States under any law of the United States or any assurance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any applicable proceeding under state or local law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Noncompliance with the requirements of this part.</I> If a recipient fails or refuses to comply with a requirement imposed by or pursuant to this part, the Department may institute an administrative enforcement proceeding to compel compliance with the requirement, to seek appropriate relief, and or to terminate Federal financial assistance in accordance with the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section. The Department shall not be required to provide assistance in such a case during the pendency of the administrative proceedings under such paragraph if grants have not yet been approved or funds not yet committed to the recipient. However, the Department shall continue assistance during the pendency of such proceedings where such assistance is due and payable pursuant to an application therefor approved prior to the effective date of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance.</I> No order suspending, terminating or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance shall become effective until:
</P>
<P>(1) The Assistant Secretary has advised the applicant or recipient of its failure to comply and compliance has not been secured by voluntary means; and
</P>
<P>(2) There has been an express finding on the record, after opportunity for hearing, of a failure by the applicant or recipient to comply with a requirement imposed by or pursuant to this part. Any action to suspend or terminate or to refuse to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance shall be limited to the particular political entity, or part thereof, or other applicant or recipient as to whom such a finding has been made and shall be limited in its effect to the particular program or activity, or part thereof, in which such noncompliance has been so found.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other means authorized by law.</I> No action to effect compliance by any other means authorized by law shall be taken until:
</P>
<P>(1) The Assistant Secretary has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means;
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient or other person has been notified of its failure to comply and of the action to be taken to effect compliance; and
</P>
<P>(3) The expiration of at least 10 days from the mailing of such notice to the recipient or other person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51368, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.47" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.4.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.47   Hearing practice and procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All hearings conducted under section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, and the regulations in this part shall be governed by the Department of Labor's rules of practice for administrative proceedings to enforce title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 contained in 29 CFR part 31.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of hearings pursuant to this part 32, references in 29 CFR part 31 to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 shall mean section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Assistant Secretary from time-to-time may assign to officials of other departments or agencies of the Government or of the Department of Labor (with the consent of such department or agency) responsibilities in connection with the effectuation of the purposes of section 504 of the Act and this part (other than responsibility for final decisions as provided in § 32.46), including the achievement of effective coordination and maximum uniformity within the Department and within the executive branch of the Government in the application of section 504 and this part to similar programs or activities and in similar situations.
</P>
<P>(d) Any action taken, determination made, or requirement imposed by an official of another Department or agency acting pursuant to an assignment of responsibility under this subsection shall have the same effect as though such action had been taken by the Secretary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 66709, Oct. 7, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51369, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Auxiliary Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.48" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.5.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.48   Post-termination proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order suspending, terminating or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance shall be restored to full eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance if it satisfies the terms and conditions of that order for such eligibility, brings itself into compliance with this part and satisfies the Assistant Secretary that it will fully comply with section 504 and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order suspending, terminating or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance may request the Assistant Secretary to restore fully its eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance. Any such request shall be supported by information showing that the applicant or recipient has met the requirements of subparagraph (a) of this paragraph. If the Assistant Secretary determines that those requirements have been satisfied, the applicant's or recipient's eligibility shall be restored.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Assistant Secretary denies any such request, the applicant or recipient may submit a written request for a hearing, specifying why it believes the Assistant Secretary to have been in error. It shall thereupon be given an expeditious hearing, with a decision on the record, in accordance with rules of procedure specified in this part. The applicant or recipient will be restored to such eligibility if it proves at such hearing that it satisfied the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. While proceedings under this paragraph are pending, the sanctions imposed by the order suspending, terminating or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance shall remain in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.49" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.5.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.49   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each recipient shall maintain for a period of not less than three years records regarding complaints and actions taken thereunder, and such employment or other records as required by the Assistant Secretary or by this part and shall furnish such information in the form required by the Assistant Secretary or as the Assistant Secretary deems necessary for the administration of the Act and regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Failure to maintain and furnish complete and accurate records as required under this section is a ground for the imposition of appropriate sanctions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.5.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.50   Access to records.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall permit access and copying during normal business hours to its places of business, books, records and accounts pertinent to compliance with the Act, and all rules and regulations promulgated pursuant thereto for the purposes of investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.5.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.51   Rulings and interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Ruling under or interpretations of the Act and the regulations contained in this part 32 shall be made by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.31.5.66.5.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 32
</HEAD>
<P>Accommodations may take many forms based on the type of handicap and the needs of the individual. In developing appropriate accommodations, the individual should be consulted as to particular needs.
</P>
<P>The following is a list of possible types of accommodations provided for guidance and technical assistance. These suggestions are not mandatory, and other forms of accommodation not described herein may be required if they are appropriate to meet the needs of particular handicapped individuals.
</P>
<HD2>Accommodations for Participants and Employees
</HD2>
<P>(a) Job restructuring means the procedure which includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying the separate tasks that comprise a job or group of jobs;
</P>
<P>(2) Developing new position descriptions which retain some of the tasks of the original job; and
</P>
<P>(3) Developing a career ladder which builds upward from the new positions which contain the lesser skilled tasks to regular jobs. A restructured job can be clearly different from the original one in terms of skills, knowledge, abilities, and work experience needed to perform the work. Job restructuring is intended to maximize the abilities of the particular handicapped person and is not intended to permit a recipient to underemploy or job-stereotype that person. A restructured job, for example, could be one in which the more highly skilled but physically less demanding duties are retained, e.g. operating controls and switches in a steel mill, and less skilled, physically taxing duties, e.g. lifting, pulling, are reassigned to non-handicapped employees.
</P>
<P>(b) Modify job or program schedules, for example, by allowing for a flexible schedule a few days a week so that a participant or employee may undergo medical treatment or therapy. Work-times or participation in program activities may also be altered to permit handicapped individuals to travel to and from work during non-rush hours. For employees or participants who become unable to perform the duties of their positions because of a physical or mental condition, recipients may be required to grant liberal time off or leave without pay when paid sick leave is exhausted and when the disability is of a nature that it is likely to respond to treatment of hospitalization. See, e.g., 339 Federal Personnel Manual-1-3(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) Modify program and work procedures and training time. 
</P>
<P>(d) Relocate particular offices or jobs or program activities so that they are in facilities accessible to and usable by qualified handicapped persons. For example, an employee or participant with a respiratory ailment can be placed in a “nonsmoking” and/or well-ventilated office. 
</P>
<P>(e) Acquire or modify equipment or devices. For hearing-impaired participants or employees, this may include placing amplifiers on telephone receivers, making telephone equipment compatible with hearing aids, providing flashing lights to supplement telephone rings or installing telecommunications devices (TDD's or TTY's). For blind participants or employees, this may include providing tape recorders or dictating machines for those who cannot type. For wheelchair-users, this may include raising on blocks a desk that is otherwise too low for the employee, rather than purchasing a specially-made desk. A recipient is not obligated to acquire or modify equipment that enables a participant or employee to perform a particular job or participate in a particular program until after an employee with a need for these modifications is hired for a particular office or admitted to a program. 
</P>
<P>(f) Provide readers, interpreters, and similar assistance as needed for deaf, blind and other handicapped participants or employees. In most instances, this would not require a full-time assistant. 
</P>
<P>(g) Decrease reliance solely on one form of communication. For example, for deaf participants or employees this may include supplementing program or job orientation sessions with written manuals and other visual materials. If appropriate, a visual warning system should be installed. It may also include providing flashing lights to supplement auditory signals such as sirens and alarm bells. For blind employees, this may include making some communications available in braille, enlarged print, or on cassette recordings. A recipient should tailor the accommodations listed above to the needs of the individual participants or employees who have been admitted to a particular program or hired for a particular office. 
</P>
<P>(h) Provide human relations-sensitivity training on issues pertaining to handicapped discrimination to all recipient employees. 
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct ongoing training and planning sessions with recipient supervisors, managers, personnel, technical experts and disability rights advocates to implement and evaluate methods of reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<HD2>Accommodations for Applicants
</HD2>
<P>(a) Announce program and job vacancies in a form readily understandable by mentally handicapped persons and by persons with impaired vision or hearing, for example, by making the announcements available in braille or on cassette tapes. § 32.4(e) of DOL's proposed section 504 regulations requires recipients to insure that communications with applicants are available to persons with impaired vision or hearing. Recipients shall undertake to explain, as appropriate, program and job announcements to mentally handicapped participants or employees or applicants. For example, this might entail notifying known mentally handicapped participants or employees of openings for positions that they might be able to perform and taking specific steps to clearly explain the nature of the program or job and its benefits to that individual. 
</P>
<HD2>Handicapped Persons 
</HD2>
<P>(b) Provide readers, interpreters, and other similar assistance during the application, testing, and interview process. 
</P>
<P>(c) Appropriately adjust or modify examinations so that the test results accurately reflect the applicant's skills, aptitude or whatever other factor the test purports to measure, rather than reflecting the applicant's impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills (except where those skills are the factors that the test purports to measure). This may require the extension of traditional time deadlines or allowing, for example, a blind person to answer an examination orally. 
</P>
<P>(d) If necessary waive traditional tests and permit the applicant to demonstrate his or her skills through alternate techniques and utilization of adapted tools, aids, and devices. 


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 33—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794, as amended by sec. 103, Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 33.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.2   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management</I> (ASAM) means the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management in the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the Department of Labor. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, brailled materials, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunications devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices. Persons with manual impairments may need other specially adapted equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the actions in sufficient detail to inform the Department of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, Directorate of Civil Rights (DCR), Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, U.S. Department of Labor, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with handicaps</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes— 
</P>
<P>(1) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means that the individual has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the Department as constituting such a limitation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result or the attitudes or others toward such impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (a) of this definition but is treated by the Department as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individuals with handicaps</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to any program or activity of the Department under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the Department can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; 
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to any other Department program or activity, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity, and 
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of employment, a <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> as that term is defined in 29 CFR 1613.702(f) which is made applicable to this part by § 33.7.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955), and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 23967, June 26, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.4   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department shall, by May 11, 1988, evaluate, with the assistance of interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the Department shall proceed to make the necessary modifications. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Department shall, for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (a) of this section, maintain on file and make available for public inspection— 
</P>
<P>(1) A list of the interested persons consulted; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any modifications made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987; 52 FR 23967, June 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.5   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The Department shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the Department, and make such information available to them in such manner as the ASAM finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.6   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Department.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Department, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with handicaps with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with handicaps or to any class of individuals with handicaps than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with handicaps with aids, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with handicaps in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The Department may not deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in programs or activities despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The Department may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps .
</P>
<P>(4) The Department may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with handicaps from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Department; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(5) The provisions of paragraph (b)(4) of this section do not apply to sites or locations at which the Department owns or leases buildings on the date the regulations in this part become effective.
</P>
<P>(6) The Department, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>(7) The Department may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the Department establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap. This part does not apply to the programs or activities of non-departmental entities that are licensed or certified by the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to persons with handicaps or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with handicaps from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with handicaps is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The Department shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987; 52 FR 23967, June 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.7   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the Department. The definitions, requirements and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established in 29 CFR part 1613 (subpart G), shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987; 52 FR 23967, June 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.8   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in §§ 33.9 and 33.10 of this part, no qualified individual with handicaps shall, because the Department's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with handicaps, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987; 52 FR 23967, June 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.9   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Department shall operate such program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the Department to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps; 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the Department to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If a Department official believes that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the official shall prepare a report for the Secretary of Labor which objectively considers and evaluates these issues based on the nature of the program and all departmental resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity. In preparing the report, the Department official shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the person(s) requesting accommodation in the particular program or activity has an opportunity to provide any relevant information. The report shall specifically address any such information. Upon completion, the report and all information before the program official shall be transmitted to the Secretary for a decision to be made in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary shall decide, after considering the material submitted by the program official and all departmental resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, whether the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or result in undue financial and administrative burdens. A decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion and shall be transmitted to the person(s) requesting accommodation. This decision represents the final administrative action of the Department.
</P>
<P>(3) The Department has the burden of proving that compliance with paragraph (a) of this section would result in such alteration or undue burdens.
</P>
<P>(c) If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Department shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such a burden but would nevertheless ensure that qualified individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods.</I> The Department may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The Department is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. Alterations to existing buildings shall be made in accordance with the provisions of § 33.10 of this part. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the Department shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with handicaps in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The Department shall comply with the obligations established under this section within sixty days of the effective date of this part except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made within three years of the effective date of this part, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the Department shall develop, within six months of the effective date of this part, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The plan shall be developed with the assistance of interested persons, including individuals with handicaps and organizations representing individuals with handicaps. A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the Department's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to individuals with handicaps; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Identify the persons or groups with whose assistance the plan was prepared. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987; 52 FR 23967, June 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.10   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered after the effective date of this part by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Department shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps in accordance with the requirements of the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards adopted by the General Services Administration at 41 CFR §§ 101-19.600 to 101-19.607 (1984).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987; 52 FR 23967, June 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.11   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Department shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with handicaps an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the Department. 
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the Department shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Department need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Department communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunications devices for deaf persons (TDDs), or equally effective telecommunications systems shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Department shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Department shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its accessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) The Department shall take appropriate steps to provide individuals with handicaps with information regarding their section 504 rights under the Department's programs or activities. If the Department uses recruitment materials, informational publications, or other materials which it distributes or makes available to participants, beneficiaries, referral sources, applicants, employees, or the public, it shall include in those materials or publications a statement of the policy described in § 33.6 of this part and information as to complaint procedures. The requirements of this paragraph may be met either by including applicable inserts in existing materials and publications or by revising and reprinting such materials, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(e) This section does not require the Department to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. 
</P>
<P>(1) If a Department official believes that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the official shall prepare a report for the Secretary of Labor which objectively considers and evaluates these issues based on the nature of the program and all departmental resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity. In preparing the report, the Department official shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the person(s) requesting accommodation in the particular program or activity has an opportunity to provide any relevant information. The report shall specifically address any such information. Upon completion, the report and all information before the program official shall be transmitted to the Secretary for a decision to be made in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary shall decide, after considering the material submitted by the program official and all departmental resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, whether the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or result in undue financial and administrative burdens. A decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion and shall be transmitted to the person(s) requesting accommodation. This decision represents the final administrative action of the Department. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Department has the burden of proving that compliance with paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, as applicable, would result in such alteration or undue burdens. 
</P>
<P>(f) If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Department shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such a burden but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987; 52 FR 24367, June 30, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.12   Complaint handling procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by DOL.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment shall be processed according to the procedures established in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(2) Complaints based upon program inaccessibility in violation of section 504 will be governed by the procedures at §§ 33.9(b) and 33.11(e) of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) Responsibility for implementation and operation of this section shall be vested in the Director, Directorate of Civil Rights (DCR). Complaints may be delivered or mailed to the Director, Directorate of Civil Rights, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-4123, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(d) All complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The Director may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) Where a complaint contains insufficient information, the Director shall seek the needed information from the complainant. If the complainant is unavailable after reasonable means have been utilized to locate him or her, or the information is not furnished within 30 days of the date of such request, the complaint may be dismissed upon notice sent to the complainant's last known address.
</P>
<P>(f) If the Director receives a complaint over which the Department does not have jurisdiction, he or she shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(g) The Director shall accept and investigate all complete complaints which are timely filed, are within the Department's jurisdiction, and state an allegation(s) which, if true, would violate section 504 or its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(1) Where the Director determines that the complaint will be investigated, he or she will notify the complainant(s) and the appropriate Department official(s).
</P>
<P>(2) Such notification will advise the parties that a determination on the merits of the complaint will be issued within 180 days of the date of notification unless the matter is resolved informally prior to that time.
</P>
<P>(3) If, during the course of the investigation, the Department official states that he or she believes that resolution of the complaint would require a fundamental alteration of the program or undue financial and administrative burdens, the complaint will proceed in accordance with §§ 33.9(b) and 33.11(e) of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(h) At any time prior to the issuance of the determination the parties to the complaint may resolve the complaint on an informal basis. For this purpose, the Director shall furnish, to the extent permitted by law, a copy of the investigative file to the complainant and the appropriate Department official. If the complaint is resolved, the terms of the agreement shall be reduced to writing and entered as part of the official file by the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management (Deputy ASAM).
</P>
<P>(i) If informal resolution is not achieved, the Deputy ASAM shall issue a determination on the merits which notifies the parties to the complaint of the results of the investigation and includes—
</P>
<P>(1) The findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A remedy and/or corrective action, as appropriate, for each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal to the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management (ASAM).
</P>
<P>(j)(1) An appeal of the Deputy ASAM's determination may be filed with the ASAM by any party to the complaint. Such appeal must be filed within 30 days of receipt of the determination. The ASAM may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(2) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the ASAM. The ASAM's determination shall be based upon the written record which may include, but is not limited to, the determination made by the Deputy ASAM, the investigative file, and any other materials submitted by the parties pursuant to a request from the ASAM. 
</P>
<P>(k) The ASAM shall notify all parties of his or her determination on the appeal within 90 days of the receipt of the appeal. The ASAM's determination represents the final administrative decision by the Department. 
</P>
<P>(l) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g)(2) and (k) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(m) The Department may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated. 
</P>
<P>(n) The Director shall respond to requests by the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board for information on the status of any complaint alleging that buildings that are subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), are not readily accessible and usable to individuals with handicaps. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 11606, Apr. 9, 1987; 52 FR 23967, June 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.32.0.66.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.13   Intimidation and retaliation prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>No person may discharge, intimidate, retaliate, threaten, coerce or otherwise discriminate against any person because such person has filed a complaint, furnished information, assisted or participated in any manner in an investigation, review, hearing or any other activity related to the administration of, or exercise of authority under, or privilege secured by section 504 and the regulations in this part. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="34" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 34 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="35" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 35—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF AGE IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE FROM THE DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6101 <I>et seq.;</I> 45 CFR Part 90. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 17571, Apr. 2, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.1.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.1   What is the purpose of the Department of Labor (DOL) age discrimination regulations?</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set out the DOL rules for implementing the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended. The Act prohibits discrimination on the basis of age by recipients of Federal financial assistance and in federally assisted programs or activities, but permits the use of certain age distinctions and factors other than age that meet the requirements of the Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.1.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2   To what programs or activities do these regulations apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This part applies to any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance, directly or indirectly, from DOL.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation of application.</I> This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) An age distinction contained in that part of a Federal, State, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides persons with any benefits or assistance based on age; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes criteria for participation in age-related terms; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Describes intended beneficiaries or target groups in age-related terms.
</P>
<P>(2) Any employment practice of any employer, employment agency, labor organization, or any labor-management joint apprentice training program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.1.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.3   What definitions apply to these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Action</I> means any act, activity, policy, rule, standard, or method of administration, or the use of any policy, rule, standard, or method of administration.
</P>
<P><I>Age</I> means how old a person is, or the number of years from the date of a person's birth.
</P>
<P><I>Age distinction</I> means any action using age or an age-related term.
</P>
<P><I>Age-related term</I> means a word or words that necessarily imply a particular age or range of ages (<I>e.g.,</I> “child,” “adults,” “older persons,” but not “student”).
</P>
<P><I>Applicant for Federal financial assistance</I> means the individual or entity submitting an application, request, or plan required to be approved by a DOL official or recipient as a condition to becoming a recipient or subrecipient.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary</I> means the person(s) intended by Congress to receive benefits or services from a recipient of Federal financial assistance from DOL.
</P>
<P><I>CRC</I> means the Civil Rights Center, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of CRC.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>DOL</I> means the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any grant, entitlement, loan, cooperative agreement, contract (other than a procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guaranty), or any other arrangement by which DOL provides or otherwise makes available assistance in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) Funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Services of Federal personnel; or
</P>
<P>(3) Real and personal property or any interest in or use of property, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Transfers or leases of property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Proceeds from a subsequent transfer or lease of property if the Federal share of its fair market value is not returned to the Federal Government. <I>Program or activity</I> means all of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (1) through 
</P>
<P>(4) of this definition, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of vocational education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(A) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(B) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or its political subdivision, any instrumentality of a State or its political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any person to which Federal financial assistance from DOL is extended, directly or through another recipient, but excludes the ultimate beneficiary of the assistance. Recipient includes any subrecipient to which a recipient extends or passes on Federal financial assistance, and any successor, assignee, or transferee of a recipient.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means the individual States of the United States, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Wake Island and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standards for Determining Age Discrimination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.10   Rules against age discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>The rules stated in this section are subject to the exceptions contained in §§ 35.12 and 35.13.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> No person in the United States shall be, on the basis of age, excluded from participation in, denied the benefits of or subjected to discrimination under, any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from DOL.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific rules.</I> A recipient may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, use age distinctions or take any other actions that have the effect of, on the basis of age:
</P>
<P>(1) Excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under, a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from DOL; or
</P>
<P>(2) Denying or limiting individuals in their opportunity to participate in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from DOL.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other forms of age discrimination.</I> The listing of specific forms of age discrimination in paragraph (b) of this section is not exhaustive and does not imply that any other form of age discrimination is permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.11   Definitions of the terms “normal operation” and “statutory objective.”</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Normal operation</I> means the operation of a program or activity without significant changes that would impair the ability of the program or activity to meet its objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory objective</I> means any purpose of a program or activity expressly stated in any Federal statute, State statute, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.12   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination: normal operation or statutory objective of any program or activity.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action otherwise prohibited by § 35.10 if the action reasonably takes age into account as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity. An action reasonably takes age into account as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity if:
</P>
<P>(a) Age is used as a measure or approximation of one or more other characteristics;
</P>
<P>(b) The other characteristic(s) must be measured or approximated in order for the normal operation of the program or activity to continue, or to achieve any statutory objective of the program or activity;
</P>
<P>(c) The other characteristic(s) can reasonably be measured or approximated by the use of age; and
</P>
<P>(d) The other characteristic(s) are impractical to measure directly on an individual basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.13   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination: reasonable factors other than age.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action otherwise prohibited by § 35.10, if that action is based on a factor other than age, even though the action may have a disproportionate effect on persons of different ages. An action is based on a factor other than age only if the factor bears a direct and substantial relationship to the normal operation of the program or activity or to the achievement of a statutory objective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.14   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The recipient has the burden of proving that an age distinction or other action falls within the exceptions outlined in §§ 35.12 and 35.13.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.15   Remedial action.</HEAD>
<P>Even in the absence of a finding of discrimination, a recipient, in administering a program, may take steps to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in a limited participation on the basis of age. Nothing in this section will permit any otherwise prohibited use of age distinctions that have the effect of excluding individuals from, denying them benefits of, subjecting them to discrimination under, or limiting them in their opportunity to participate in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from DOL.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.16   Special benefits for children and the elderly.</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient is operating a program or activity that provides special benefits to the elderly or to children, the use of such age distinctions is presumed to be necessary to the normal operation of the program or activity, notwithstanding the provisions of § 35.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.2.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.17   Age distinctions in DOL regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Any age distinction in regulations issued by DOL is presumed to be necessary to the achievement of a statutory objective of the program or activity to which the regulations apply, notwithstanding the provisions of § 35.12.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Duties of DOL Recipients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.3.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.20   General responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Each DOL recipient has primary responsibility for ensuring that its programs or activities are in compliance with the Act and this part and for taking appropriate steps to correct any violations of the Act or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.3.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.21   Recipient responsibility to provide notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to other recipients.</I> Where a recipient of Federal financial assistance from DOL passes on funds to other recipients, that recipient shall notify such other recipients of their obligations under the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to beneficiaries.</I> A recipient shall notify its beneficiaries about the provisions of the Act and this part and their applicability to specific programs or activities. The notification must also identify the responsible employee designated under § 35.24 by name or title, address, and telephone number.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.3.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.22   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Keep such records as CRC determines are necessary to ascertain whether the recipient is complying with the Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request, provide CRC with such information and reports as the Director determines are necessary to ascertain whether the recipient is complying with the Act and this part; and
</P>
<P>(c) Permit reasonable access by CRC to books, records, accounts, reports, other recipient facilities and other sources of information to the extent CRC determines is necessary to ascertain whether the recipient is complying with the Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.3.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.23   Assurances required.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient or applicant for Federal financial assistance from DOL shall sign a written assurance, in a form specified by DOL, that the program or activity will be operated in compliance with the Act and this part. In subsequent applications to DOL, an applicant may incorporate this assurance by reference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.3.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.24   Designation of responsible employee.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall designate at least one employee to coordinate its compliance activities under the Act and this part, including investigation of any complaints that the recipient receives alleging any actions that are prohibited by the Act or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.3.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.25   Complaint procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall adopt and publish complaint procedures providing for prompt and equitable resolution of complaints alleging any action that would be prohibited by the Act or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.3.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.26   Recipient assessment of age distinctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to assess a recipient's compliance with the Act and this part, as part of a compliance or monitoring review, or a complaint investigation, CRC may require a recipient employing the equivalent of 15 or more full-time employees to complete a written self-evaluation, in a manner specified by CRC, of any age distinction imposed in its program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from DOL.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever such an assessment indicates a violation of the Act or this part, the recipient shall take prompt and appropriate corrective action.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Investigation, Conciliation, and Enforcement Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.30   Compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) CRC may conduct such compliance reviews, pre-award reviews, and other similar procedures as permit CRC to investigate and correct violations of the Act and this part, irrespective of whether a complaint has been filed against a recipient. Such reviews may be as comprehensive as necessary to determine whether a violation of the Act or this part has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a review conducted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section indicates a violation of the Act or this part, CRC will attempt to achieve voluntary compliance. If voluntary compliance cannot be achieved, CRC will begin enforcement proceedings, as described in § 35.36.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.31   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> Any person, whether individually, as a member of a class, or on behalf of others, may file a complaint with CRC alleging discrimination in violation of the Act or these regulations, based on an action occurring on or after July 1, 1979.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to file.</I> A complainant must file a complaint within 180 days from the date the complainant first had knowledge of the alleged act of discrimination. The Director may extend this time limit for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complaint procedure.</I> A complaint is considered to be complete on the date CRC receives all the information necessary to process it, as provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. CRC will:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept as a complete complaint any written statement that identifies the parties involved and the date the complainant first had knowledge of the alleged violation, describes generally the action or practice complained of, and is signed by the complainant;
</P>
<P>(2) Freely permit a complainant to add information to the complaint to meet the requirements of a complete complaint;
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the complainant and the recipient of their rights and obligations under the complaint procedure, including the right to have a representative at all stages of the complaint procedure; and
</P>
<P>(4) Notify the complainant and the recipient (or their representatives) of their right to contact CRC for information and assistance regarding the complaint resolution process.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No jurisdiction.</I> CRC will return to the complainant any complaint outside the jurisdiction of this part, with a statement indicating why there is no jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.32   Mediation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Referral to mediation.</I> CRC will promptly refer to the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or the mediation agency designated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under 45 CFR part 90, all complaints that:
</P>
<P>(1) Fall within the jurisdiction of the Act or this part, unless the age distinction complained of is clearly within an exception; and
</P>
<P>(2) Contain all information necessary for further processing, as provided in § 35.31(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Participation in mediation process.</I> Both the complainant and the recipient shall participate in the mediation process to the extent necessary to reach an agreement or to make an informed judgment that an agreement is not possible. The recipient and the complainant do not need to meet with the mediator at the same time, and a meeting may be conducted by telephone or other means of effective dialogue if a personal meeting between the party and the mediator is impractical.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When agreement is reached.</I> If the complainant and the recipient reach an agreement, the mediator shall prepare a written statement of the agreement, have the complainant and recipient sign it, and send a copy of the agreement to CRC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidentiality.</I> The mediator shall protect the confidentiality of all information obtained in the course of the mediation process. No mediator may testify in any adjudicative proceeding, produce any document, or otherwise disclose any information obtained in the course of the mediation process, unless the mediator has obtained prior approval of the head of the mediation agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Maximum time period for mediation.</I> The mediation shall proceed for a maximum of 60 days after a complaint is filed with CRC. This 60-day period may be extended by the mediator, with the concurrence of the Director, for not more than 30 days, if the mediator determines that agreement is likely to be reached during the extended period. In the absence of such an extension, mediation ends if:
</P>
<P>(1) Sixty days elapse from the time the complaint is filed; or
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the end of the 60-day period, either
</P>
<P>(i) An agreement is reached; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The mediator determines that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unresolved complaints.</I> The mediator shall return unresolved complaints to CRC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.33   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial investigation.</I> CRC will investigate complaints that are unresolved after mediation or reopened because the mediation agreement has been violated.
</P>
<P>(1) As part of the initial investigation, CRC will use informal fact-finding methods, including joint or separate discussions with the complainant and recipient to establish the facts and, if possible, resolve the complaint to the mutual satisfaction of the parties. CRC may seek the assistance of any involved State, local, or other Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(2) Where agreement between the parties has been reached pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the agreement shall be put in writing by DOL, and signed by the parties and an authorized official of DOL.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Formal findings, conciliation, and hearing.</I> If CRC cannot resolve the complaint during the early stages of the investigation, CRC will complete the investigation of the complaint and make formal findings. If the investigation indicates a violation of the Act or this part, CRC will attempt to achieve voluntary compliance. If CRC cannot obtain voluntary compliance, CRC will begin appropriate enforcement action, as provided in § 35.36.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.34" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.34   Effect of agreements on enforcement effort.</HEAD>
<P>An agreement reached pursuant to either § 35.32(c) or § 35.33(a) shall have no effect on the operation of any other enforcement effort of DOL, such as compliance reviews and investigations of other complaints, including those against the recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.35" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.35   Prohibition against intimidation or retaliation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may not engage in acts of intimidation or retaliation against any person who:
</P>
<P>(a) Attempts to assert a right protected by the Act or this part; or
</P>
<P>(b) Cooperates in any mediation, investigation, hearing or other part of CRC's investigation, conciliation, and enforcement process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.36" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.36   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOL may enforce the Act and this part through:
</P>
<P>(1) Termination of, or refusal to grant or continue, a recipient's Federal financial assistance from DOL under the program or activity in which the recipient has violated the Act or this part. Such enforcement action may be taken only after a recipient has had an opportunity for a hearing on the record before an administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other means authorized by law, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Referral to the Department of Justice for proceedings to enforce any rights of the United States or obligation of the recipient created by the Act or this part; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of any requirement of, or referral to, any Federal, State, or local government agency that will have the effect of correcting a violation of the Act or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any termination or refusal under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be limited to the particular recipient and to the particular program or activity found to be in violation of the Act or this part. A finding with respect to a program or activity that does not receive Federal financial assistance from DOL will not form any part of the basis for termination or refusal.
</P>
<P>(c) No action may be taken under paragraph (a) of this section until:
</P>
<P>(1) DOL has advised the recipient of its failure to comply with the Act or with this part and has determined that voluntary compliance cannot be obtained; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Thirty days have elapsed since DOL sent a written report of the circumstances and grounds of the action to the committees of Congress having jurisdiction over the program or activity involved.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deferral.</I> DOL may defer granting new Federal financial assistance to a recipient when termination proceedings under paragraph (a)(1) of this section are initiated.
</P>
<P>(1) New Federal financial assistance from DOL includes all assistance for which DOL requires an application or approval, including renewal or continuation of existing activities, or authorization of new activities, during the deferral period. New Federal financial assistance from DOL does not include increases in funding as a result of changed computation of formula awards or assistance approved prior to the initiation of a hearing under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) DOL may not defer a grant until the recipient has received notice of an opportunity for a hearing under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. A deferral may not continue for more than 60 days unless a hearing has begun within the 60-day period or the recipient and DOL have mutually agreed to extend the time for beginning the hearing. If the hearing does not result in a finding against the recipient, the deferral may not continue for more than 30 days after the close of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.37" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.37   Hearings, decisions, and post-termination proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Certain DOL procedural provisions applicable to Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 apply to DOL enforcement of these regulations. They are found at 29 CFR 31.9 through 31.11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.38" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.38   Procedure for disbursal of funds to an alternate recipient.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If funds are withheld from a recipient under this part, the Secretary may disburse the funds withheld directly to an alternate recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will require any alternate recipient to demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(1) The ability to comply with the Act and this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ability to achieve the goals of the Federal statute authorizing the Federal financial assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.39" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.39   Remedial action by recipient.</HEAD>
<P>Where CRC finds discrimination on the basis of age in violation of this Act or this part, the recipient shall take any remedial action that CRC deems necessary to overcome the effects of the discrimination. In addition, if a recipient funds or otherwise exercises control over another recipient that has discriminated, both recipients may be required to take remedial action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.40   Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complainant may file a civil action under the Act following the exhaustion of administrative remedies. Administrative remedies are exhausted if:
</P>
<P>(1) One hundred eighty days have elapsed since the complainant filed the complaint with CRC, and CRC has made no finding with regard to the complaint; or
</P>
<P>(2) CRC issues any finding in favor of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) If CRC fails to make a finding within 180 days, or issues a finding in favor of the recipient, CRC will promptly:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the complainant;
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the complainant of his or her right to bring a civil action for injunctive relief; and
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the complainant that:
</P>
<P>(i) The complainant may bring a civil action only in a United States district court for the district in which the recipient is found or transacts business;
</P>
<P>(ii) A complainant who prevails in a civil action has the right to be awarded the costs of the action, including reasonable attorney's fees, but that the complainant must demand these costs in the complaint filed with the court;
</P>
<P>(iii) Before commencing the action, the complainant must give 30 days notice by registered mail to the Secretary, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the Attorney General of the United States, and the recipient;
</P>
<P>(iv) The notice required by paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section must state the alleged violation of the Act, the relief requested, the court in which the complainant is bringing the action, and whether or not attorney's fees are demanded in the event that the complainant prevails; and
</P>
<P>(v) The complainant may not bring an action if the same alleged violation of the Act by the same recipient is the subject of a pending action in any court of the United States.



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.34.4.66.12.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 35—Age Distinctions in Statutes Affecting Financial Assistance Administered by DOL 

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Program 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statute 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Section and age distinction 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Regulation 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Employment and Training Administration</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Senior Community Service Employment Program (SCSEP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title V, Older Americans Act Amendments of 2000, Pub. L. 106-501, 42 U.S.C.3056, 3056N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 516(2) defines the term “eligible individuals” to mean “an individual who is 55 years old or older, who has a low income * * *, except that, * * *, any such individual who is 60 years of older shall have priority * * *.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR part 641. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Job Corps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title I, Subtitle C, Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (WIA), Pub. L. 105-220, 29 U.S.C. 2881-2901</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 144 of WIA (29 U.S.C. 2884) establishes eligibility criteria for the Job Corps program. These criteria require an enrollee to “be—(1) not less than age 16 and not more than age 21 on the date of enrollment, except that—(A) not more than 20 percent of the individuals enrolled in the Job Corps may be not less than age 22 and not more than age 24 on the date of enrollment; and (B) either such maximum age limitation may be waived by the Secretary, * * * in the case of an individual with a disability.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 670.400. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Indian and Native American Supplemental Youth Services</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title I, Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (WIA), Pub. L. 105-220, 29 U.S.C. 2911</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 166(d)(2)(A)(ii) of WIA (29 U.S.C. 2911(d)(2)(A)(ii)) states that funds made available under the program shall be used for “supplemental services for Indian or Native Hawaiian youth on or near Indian reservations and in Oklahoma, Alaska, or Hawaii.” Sec. 101(13) of WIA (29 U.S.C. 2801(13)) defines an eligible youth as an individual who “is not less than age 14 and not more than age 21 * * *”.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 668.430. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Migrant and Seasonal Farmworker (MSFW) Youth Program</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title I, Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (WIA), Pub. L. 105-220, 29 U.S.C. 2912</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 167 of WIA (29 U.S.C. 2912) outlines the MSFW program. WIA Sec. 127(b)(1)(A)(iii) authorizes the MSFW Youth Program. That provision states that, “the Secretary shall make available 4 percent of such portion to provide youth activities under sec. 167.” Sec. 101(13) of WIA (29 U.S.C. 2801(13)) defines an eligible youth as an individual who “is not less than age 14 and not more than age 21; * * *”.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 669.670. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Responsible Reintegration of Young Offenders (Youth Offender Demonstration Project)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title I, Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (WIA), Pub. L. 105-220, 29 U.S.C. 2916; Departments Of Labor, Health And Human Services, And Education, And Related Agencies Appropriation Bill, 2003</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Sec. 171(b)(1) of WIA (29 U.S.C. 2916(b)(1)) states that the “Secretary shall, through grants or contracts, carry out demonstration and pilot projects for the purpose of developing and implementing techniques and approaches, and demonstrating the effectiveness of specialized methods, in addressing employment and training needs. Such projects shall include the provision of direct services to individuals to enhance employment opportunities and an evaluation component * * *.” The Responsible Reintegration of Young Offenders program was established in FY 2001 by DOL, in collaboration with the Departments of Health and Human Services and Justice, pursuant to this authority.
<br/>(b) Senate Report 107-84 on bill S. 1536 (Departments of Labor, Health and Human Services, and Education, and Related Agencies Appropriation for FY 2002) noted that the Responsible Reintegration of Young Offenders initiative would “link offenders under age 35 with essential services that can help make the difference in their choices in the future * * *” (p. 25). DOL has determined, based upon the reentry needs of states and local communities, to provide services to a 14-24 year-old subset within this age limit. <E T="03">See</E> 66 FR 30754, 30755 (June 7, 2001)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 667.220. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. WIA Youth Activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title I, Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (WIA), Pub. L. 105-220, 29 U.S.C. § 2854</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIA Sec. 129 (29 U.S.C. 2854) provides the standards for WIA-financially assisted services to eligible youth. Eligible youth is defined in Sec. 101(13) as an individual who “is not less than age 14 and not more than age 21; * * *”.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 664.200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Work Opportunity Tax Credits (WOTCs)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small Business Job Protection Act of 1996, Pub. L. 104-188, 26 U.S.C. 51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WOTC is intended to assist individuals from groups with consistently high unemployment rates by providing tax credits to their employers. Sec. 1201(b) of the Act (26 U.S.C. 51(d)) defines the targeted groups, including high-risk youth (26 U.S.C. 51(d)(1)(D)), qualified summer youth employee (26 U.S.C. 51(d)(1)(F)), and qualified food stamp recipient (26 U.S.C. 51(d)(1)(G)). The definitions of “high-risk youth” and “qualified food stamp recipient” include a requirement that the individual have “attained age 18 but not age 25 on the hiring date.” 26 U.S.C. 51(d)(5)(A)(i), 51(d)(8)(A)(i). The definition of “qualified summer youth employee” includes a requirement that the individual have “attained age 16 but not 18 on the hiring date (or if later, on May 1 of the calendar year involved).” 26 U.S.C. 51(d)(2)(7)(A)(ii).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Youth Opportunity Grants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title I, Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (WIA), Pub. L. 105-220, 29 U.S.C. 2914</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 169 provides that “the Secretary shall make grants to eligible local boards and eligible entities * * * to provide activities * * * for youth to increase the long-term employment of youth who live in empowerment zones, enterprise communities, and high poverty areas and who seek assistance.” It defines “youth” as “an individual who is not less than age 14 and not more than age 21.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 664.820. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Youth Apprenticeship Program</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">29 U.S.C. 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 1 of the National Apprenticeship Act of 1937 authorizes and directs the Secretary of Labor to promote the labor standards necessary to safeguard the welfare of apprentices, encourage contracts of apprenticeship, and bring employers and labor together to form apprenticeships. An apprentice is defined in 29 CFR 29.2 of the Act's implementing regulations as “a worker at least 16 years of age, * * *, who is employed to learn a skilled trade * * * under standards of apprenticeship * * *”. The regulations also require that the “eligible starting age” of an apprenticeship program be “not less than 16 years.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">29 CFR 29.2, 29.5(b)(10). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Trade Adjustment Assistance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trade Adjustment Assistance Reform Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-210), 19 U.S.C. 2318</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 246 of the Act requires the Secretary of Labor to establish a demonstration project for alternative trade adjustment assistance (ATAA) for workers age 50 or older. Under this demonstration project, workers petitioning for certification under the Trade Adjustment Assistance (TAA) program may request certification under the ATAA program as well. Certification will be granted if a number of conditions are met, including that a significant number of workers in the affected firm are 50 or over. Once the worker group is certified, individual workers may choose the program they prefer. Additional qualifications for individual workers include an age at least 50.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR part 617; see also TAA Training and Employment Guidance Letter, 67 FR 69029 (Nov. 14, 2002). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Employment Standards Administration</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Defense Base</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Defense Base Act, Pub. L. 77-208, Act of Aug. 16, 1941, ch. 357, 55 Stat. 623, 42 U.S.C. 1651-1654</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Defense Base Act (DBA) extends the provisions of the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, 33 U.S.C. 901-950, “except as modified” in the DBA to certain persons employed at military bases outside the continental United States. DBA sec. 2(b), 42 U.S.C. 1652(b), provides that compensation for disability or death to aliens and non-nationals of the United States who are not residents of the United States or Canada under the Defense Base Act is in the same amount as residents, “except that dependents in any foreign country shall be limited to surviving wife and child or children.” The DBA does not modify the LHWCA's definition of a child and the latter is defined as a person who is under 18 years of age, or who though 18 years of age or over, is wholly dependent upon the employee and incapable of self-support by reason of mental or physical disability, or is a student.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR part 702.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act, Pub. L. 106-398, Title XXXVI, October 30, 2000, 114 Stat. 1654 42 U.S.C. 7384 <E T="03">et seq</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act (EEOICPA) provides compensation and medical benefits to nuclear weapons industry employees or their eligible survivors who have covered illnesses related to exposure to beryllium, cancers related to exposure to radiation, and chronic silicosis. Some uranium employees or their eligible survivors are also eligible for compensation under the Act. Sec. 3628(e) of EEOICPA, 42 U.S.C. 7384s(e)(1)(F)(ii), as amended by Sec. 3151 of Pub. L. 107-107, the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2002, relating to claims for radiogenic cancer, beryllium illnesses, or silicosis, provides that notwithstanding other provisions pertaining to payments in the case of deceased persons, if there is a surviving spouse and “at least one child of the covered employee who is living and a minor at the time of payment and who is not a recognized natural child or adopted child of such surviving spouse, then half of such payment shall be made to such surviving spouse, and the other half of such payment shall be made in equal shares to each child of the covered employee who is living and a minor at the time of payment.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 30.5(ee). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Sec. 3630(e) of EEOICPA, 42 U.S.C. 7384u(e)(1)(F)(ii), as amended by Sec. 3151 of Pub. L. 107-107, the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2002, relating to claims by uranium employees contains a provision identical to that described above in Sec. 3628(e).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. Federal Employees' Compensation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Federal Employees' Compensation Act, Act of Sept. 7, 1916, ch. 458, 39 Stat. 742 5 U.S.C. 8101-8151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Sec. 8101(8), 5 U.S.C. 8108(8), defines “brother” and “sister” as meaning “one who at the time of the death of the employee is under 18 years of age or over that age and incapable of self-support.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 10.405, 10.410, 10.413-.417, 10.535-.537, 25.101 and 25.202. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Sec. 8101(9), 5 U.S.C. 8108(9), defines “child” as “one who at the time of the death of the employee is under 18 years of age or over that age and incapable of self-support, and includes stepchildren, adopted children, and posthumous children, but does not include married children.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Sec. 8101(10), 5 U.S.C. 8108(10), defines “grandchild” as “one who at the time of the death of the employee is under 18 years of age or over that age and incapable of self-support.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) Sec. 8101(17), 5 U.S.C. 8108(17), defines “student” as “an individual under 23 years of age who has not completed 4 years of education beyond the high school level and who is regularly pursuing a full-time course of study or training”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) Sec. 8109, 5 U.S.C. 8109, sets forth the order of precedence for payments of scheduled awards unpaid at the time of the employee's death from a cause other than the employment-related injury. It establishes the order as, “if no child, to the widow or widower, if there are both a widow or widower and a child or children, one-half to the widow or widower and one-half to the child or children, [and] if there is no widow or widower, to the child or children.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) Sec. 8110(a), 5 U.S.C. 8110(a)(3), defines “dependent” for purposes of determining eligibility for augmented compensation for dependents as including “an unmarried child, while living with the employee or receiving regular contributions from the employee toward his support, and who is (A) under 18 years of age; or (B) over 18 years of age and incapable of self-support because of physical or mental disability.” Notwithstanding paragraph (3), compensation payable for a child that would otherwise end because the child has reached 18 years of age shall continue if he is a student as defined by section 8101 * * * at the time he reaches 18 years of age for so long as he continues to be a student or until he marries.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g) Sec. 8113(a), 5 U.S.C. 8113(a), permits the Secretary, after the time the wage-earning capacity of the individual would probably have increased but for the injury, to recompute prospectively the monetary compensation payable for disability on the basis of an assumed monthly pay corresponding to the probable increased wage-earning capacity, “if an individual (a) was a minor or employed in a learner's capacity at the time of injury and (b) was not physically or mentally handicapped before the injury.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h) Sec. 8115(a)(4), 5 U.S.C. 8115(a)(4), states that the age of an employee is one factor that shall be used in determining his wage-earning capacity for purposes of eligibility for partial disability compensation when the actual earnings of the employee do not fairly and reasonably represent his wage-earning capacity or the employee has no actual earnings 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Sec. 8122(d)(1), 5 U.S.C. 8122(d)(1), provides that the time limitations for making a claim under FECA do not begin to run against a minor until he reaches 21 years of age or has had a legal representative appointed 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j) Sec. 8133(a), 5 U.S.C. 8133(a), provides for compensation if death results from an injury sustained in the performance of duty and makes such compensation payable in accordance with a schedule that makes numerous references to children and grandchildren</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k) Sec. 8133(b)(1), 5 U.S.C. 8133(b)(1), provides that the compensation payable for death under subsection (a) terminates for a widow or widower if they die or remarry before reaching age 55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(l) Sec. 8133(b)(2), 5 U.S.C. 8133(b)(2), provides that the compensation payable for death under subsection (a) terminates for a child, a brother, a sister, or a grandchild when they die, marry, or become 18 years of age, or if over age 18 and incapable of self-support becomes capable of self-support but such compensation that would otherwise end because they reached 18 years of age shall continue if they are a student at the time they reach 18 years of age for as long as they continue to be a student or until they marry 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(m) Sec. 8135(b), 5 U.S.C. 8135(b), provides that if a widow or widower entitled to death benefits remarries before reaching age 55, they shall be paid a lump sum equal to twenty-four times the monthly compensation to which they were entitled immediately before the remarriage 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(n) Sec. 8141(a), 5 U.S.C. 8141(a), Civil Air Patrol Cadets under 18 years of age are not covered by FECA 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(o) Sec. 8141(b)(2), 5 U.S.C. 8141(b)(2), volunteer civilian members of the Civil Air Patrol, other than Civil Air Patrol Cadets under 18 years of age, are entitled to death benefits under sec. 8133 but only receive certain specified percentages of those benefits with no additional payments for a child or children in certain circumstances 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, Act of March 4, 1927, ch. 509, 44 Stat. 1424 33 U.S.C. 901-950</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (LHWCA) provides workers' compensation for maritime employees. Sec. 2(14), 33 U.S.C. 902(14), defines a child and provides that a child, grandchild, brother or sister to include only a person who is under 18 years of age, or who though 18 years of age or over, is wholly dependent upon the employee and incapable of self-support by reason of mental or physical disability, or is a student</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 702.142(a) and 702.222(a). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Sec. 2(18), 33 U.S.C. 902(18), defines a student as a person regularly pursuing a full-time course of study or training at certain specified institutions but not after he reaches the age of 23 or has completed 4 years of education beyond the high school level, except that, where his 23rd birthday occurs during a semester or other enrollment period, he shall continue to be considered a student until the end of such semester or other enrollment period. A child is deemed not a student during a period of service in the Armed Forces of the United States. A child is not deemed to have ceased to be a student during any interim between school years if certain conditions are met 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Sec. 8(d)(1), 33 U.S.C. 908(d)(1), provides a scheme of distribution for payment of unpaid scheduled permanent partial disability benefits when an employee who is receiving such benefits dies from causes other than the injury. The distribution contains numerous references to child or children 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) Sec. 9(b)-(d), 33 U.S.C. 909(b)-(d), provide for the payment of death benefits and the amount of such payments varies in part according to whether the deceased employee has a child or children 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) Sec. 9(g), 33 U.S.C. 909(g), provides that compensation for aliens who are not residents (or about to become residents) of the United States or Canada is the same as for residents, except that dependents in any foreign country shall be limited to surviving wife and child or children, or if there be no surviving wife or child or children, to surviving father or mother whom the employee has supported 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) Sec. 10(e), 33 U.S.C. 910(e), provides that in determining the average weekly wages of an employee who is injured when a minor, the fact can be considered that under normal conditions his wages should be expected to increase during the period of disability 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g) Sec. 11, 33 U.S.C. 911, permits the district director to require the appointment of a guardian or other representative for a minor or any person who is mentally incompetent to receive compensation payable to the minor or incompetent and to exercise the powers granted to or to perform the duties required of them under the LHWCA 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h) Sec. 13(c), 33 U.S.C. 913(c), establishes the time requirement for filing a claim. The usual one year time limit is not applicable if the person entitled to compensation is mentally incompetent or a minor and such person has no guardian or other authorized representative. This freeze ends for a minor when a guardian is appointed or when he becomes of age 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. War Hazards Compensation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">War Hazards Compensation Act, Act of Dec. 2, 1942, ch. 668, Title I, 56 Stat. 1028 42 U.S.C. 1701-1717</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The War Hazards Compensation Act provides that certain provisions of the FECA and the LHWCA apply to certain persons employed by government contractors outside the continental United States who sustain an injury proximately caused by a war risk hazard. Sec. 101(c), 42 U.S.C. 1701(c), provides that compensation for disability or death to aliens and non-nationals of the United States who are not residents of the United States or Canada under the Act is in the same amount as residents, “except that dependents in any foreign country shall be limited to surviving wife or husband and child or children.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 61.203. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Child Labor Restrictions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, 41 U.S.C. 35 <E T="03">et seq.</E>,</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Act contains child labor restrictions for government manufacturing and supply contracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">41 CFR part 50-201. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. Child Labor Restrictions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 201 <E T="03">et seq.</E>,</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Act contains child labor restrictions applicable to almost all employers receiving Federal financial assistance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">29 CFR part 570. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. Black Lung Benefits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Black Lung Benefits Act, 30 U.S.C. 901-945</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) 30 U.S.C. 902(a), BLBA definition of “dependent”: refers to sec. 902(g), definition of “child”
<br/>(b) 30 U.S.C. 902(g), BLBA definition of “child”: defines a child or step-child as an individual who is under 18 years of age; defines a child who is a “student” by cross-reference to 42 U.S.C. 402(d)(7) (age 19) and 5 U.S.C. 8101(17) (age 23); and defines a disabled child as one whose disability began before the age specified in 42 U.S.C. 402(d) (age 22). 30 U.S.C. 922(a)(5)(1)(A), BLBA criteria for entitlement for a minor's “brother” using same criteria applicable to “child”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR part 725, subpart B. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19. Black Lung Benefits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Black Lung Benefits Act, 30 U.S.C. 901-945</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This sec. defines who may file a benefits claim. Persons aged 18 or older may file claims on their own behalf, while persons under age 18 generally must rely on an authorized individual to file the claim (with a limited exception for certain persons between 16 and 18 years of age)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 CFR 725.301.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="36" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 36—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF SEX IN EDUCATION PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 52865, 52881, Aug. 30, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.100" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.100   Purpose and effective date.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these Title IX regulations is to effectuate Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (except sections 904 and 906 of those Amendments) (20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688), which is designed to eliminate (with certain exceptions) discrimination on the basis of sex in any education program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, whether or not such program or activity is offered or sponsored by an educational institution as defined in these Title IX regulations. The effective date of these Title IX regulations shall be September 29, 2000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in these Title IX regulations, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Administratively separate unit</I> means a school, department, or college of an educational institution (other than a local educational agency) admission to which is independent of admission to any other component of such institution. 
</P>
<P><I>Admission</I> means selection for part-time, full-time, special, associate, transfer, exchange, or any other enrollment, membership, or matriculation in or at an education program or activity operated by a recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by an official of the Federal agency that awards Federal financial assistance, or by a recipient, as a condition to becoming a recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>Designated agency official</I> means Director, Civil Rights Center. 
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means a local educational agency (LEA) as defined by 20 U.S.C. 8801(18), a preschool, a private elementary or secondary school, or an applicant or recipient that is an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education, as defined in this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any of the following, when authorized or extended under a law administered by the Federal agency that awards such assistance: 
</P>
<P>(1) A grant or loan of Federal financial assistance, including funds made available for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, construction, renovation, restoration, or repair of a building or facility or any portion thereof; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Scholarships, loans, grants, wages, or other funds extended to any entity for payment to or on behalf of students admitted to that entity, or extended directly to such students for payment to that entity. 
</P>
<P>(2) A grant of Federal real or personal property or any interest therein, including surplus property, and the proceeds of the sale or transfer of such property, if the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not, upon such sale or transfer, properly accounted for to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of the services of Federal personnel. 
</P>
<P>(4) Sale or lease of Federal property or any interest therein at nominal consideration, or at consideration reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient or in recognition of public interest to be served thereby, or permission to use Federal property or any interest therein without consideration. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other contract, agreement, or arrangement that has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance to any education program or activity, except a contract of insurance or guaranty. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of graduate higher education</I> means an institution that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Offers academic study beyond the bachelor of arts or bachelor of science degree, whether or not leading to a certificate of any higher degree in the liberal arts and sciences; 
</P>
<P>(2) Awards any degree in a professional field beyond the first professional degree (regardless of whether the first professional degree in such field is awarded by an institution of undergraduate higher education or professional education); or
</P>
<P>(3) Awards no degree and offers no further academic study, but operates ordinarily for the purpose of facilitating research by persons who have received the highest graduate degree in any field of study. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of professional education</I> means an institution (except any institution of undergraduate higher education) that offers a program of academic study that leads to a first professional degree in a field for which there is a national specialized accrediting agency recognized by the Secretary of Education. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of undergraduate higher education</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An institution offering at least two but less than four years of college-level study beyond the high school level, leading to a diploma or an associate degree, or wholly or principally creditable toward a baccalaureate degree; or
</P>
<P>(2) An institution offering academic study leading to a baccalaureate degree; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or body that certifies credentials or offers degrees, but that may or may not offer academic study. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of vocational education</I> means a school or institution (except an institution of professional or graduate or undergraduate higher education) that has as its primary purpose preparation of students to pursue a technical, skilled, or semiskilled occupation or trade, or to pursue study in a technical field, whether or not the school or institution offers certificates, diplomas, or degrees and whether or not it offers full-time study. 
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or political subdivision thereof, or any instrumentality of a State or political subdivision thereof, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or other entity, or any person, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended directly or through another recipient and that operates an education program or activity that receives such assistance, including any subunit, successor, assignee, or transferee thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Student</I> means a person who has gained admission. 
</P>
<P><I>Title IX</I> means Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, Public Law 92-318, 86 Stat. 235, 373 (codified as amended at 20 U.S.C. 1681-1688) (except sections 904 and 906 thereof), as amended by section 3 of Public Law 93-568, 88 Stat. 1855, by section 412 of the Education Amendments of 1976, Public Law 94-482, 90 Stat. 2234, and by Section 3 of Public Law 100-259, 102 Stat. 28, 28-29 (20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688). 
</P>
<P><I>Title IX regulations</I> means the provisions set forth at §§ 36.100 through 36.610. 
</P>
<P><I>Transition plan</I> means a plan subject to the approval of the Secretary of Education pursuant to section 901(a)(2) of the Education Amendments of 1972, 20 U.S.C. 1681(a)(2), under which an educational institution operates in making the transition from being an educational institution that admits only students of one sex to being one that admits students of both sexes without discrimination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.110   Remedial and affirmative action and self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> If the designated agency official finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, such recipient shall take such remedial action as the designated agency official deems necessary to overcome the effects of such discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative action.</I> In the absence of a finding of discrimination on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, a recipient may take affirmative action consistent with law to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation therein by persons of a particular sex. Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be interpreted to alter any affirmative action obligations that a recipient may have under Executive Order 11246, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339; as amended by Executive Order 11375, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684; as amended by Executive Order 11478, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 803; as amended by Executive Order 12086, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 230; as amended by Executive Order 12107, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 264. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> Each recipient education institution shall, within one year of September 29, 2000: 
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate, in terms of the requirements of these Title IX regulations, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof concerning admission of students, treatment of students, and employment of both academic and non-academic personnel working in connection with the recipient's education program or activity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Modify any of these policies and practices that do not or may not meet the requirements of these Title IX regulations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Take appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of any discrimination that resulted or may have resulted from adherence to these policies and practices. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of self-evaluation and related materials.</I> Recipients shall maintain on file for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall provide to the designated agency official upon request, a description of any modifications made pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section and of any remedial steps taken pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.115" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.115   Assurance required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Either at the application stage or the award stage, Federal agencies must ensure that applications for Federal financial assistance or awards of Federal financial assistance contain, be accompanied by, or be covered by a specifically identified assurance from the applicant or recipient, satisfactory to the designated agency official, that each education program or activity operated by the applicant or recipient and to which these Title IX regulations apply will be operated in compliance with these Title IX regulations. An assurance of compliance with these Title IX regulations shall not be satisfactory to the designated agency official if the applicant or recipient to whom such assurance applies fails to commit itself to take whatever remedial action is necessary in accordance with § 36.110(a) to eliminate existing discrimination on the basis of sex or to eliminate the effects of past discrimination whether occurring prior to or subsequent to the submission to the designated agency official of such assurance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide real property or structures thereon, such assurance shall obligate the recipient or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used to provide an education program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide personal property, such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which it retains ownership or possession of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form.</I> (1) The assurances required by paragraph (a) of this section, which may be included as part of a document that addresses other assurances or obligations, shall include that the applicant or recipient will comply with all applicable Federal statutes relating to nondiscrimination. These include but are not limited to: Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (20 U.S.C. 1681-1683, 1685-1688). 
</P>
<P>(2) The designated agency official will specify the extent to which such assurances will be required of the applicant's or recipient's subgrantees, contractors, subcontractors, transferees, or successors in interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.120" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.120   Transfers of property.</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient sells or otherwise transfers property financed in whole or in part with Federal financial assistance to a transferee that operates any education program or activity, and the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not upon such sale or transfer properly accounted for to the Federal Government, both the transferor and the transferee shall be deemed to be recipients, subject to the provisions of §§ 36.205 through 36.235(a). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.125" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.125   Effect of other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect of other Federal provisions.</I> The obligations imposed by these Title IX regulations are independent of, and do not alter, obligations not to discriminate on the basis of sex imposed by Executive Order 11246, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339; as amended by Executive Order 11375, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684; as amended by Executive Order 11478, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 803; as amended by Executive Order 12087, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 230; as amended by Executive Order 12107, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 264; sections 704 and 855 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 295m, 298b-2); Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>); the Equal Pay Act of 1963 (29 U.S.C. 206); and any other Act of Congress or Federal regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of State or local law or other requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated by any State or local law or other requirement that would render any applicant or student ineligible, or limit the eligibility of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, to practice any occupation or profession. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of rules or regulations of private organizations.</I> The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated by any rule or regulation of any organization, club, athletic or other league, or association that would render any applicant or student ineligible to participate or limit the eligibility or participation of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, in any education program or activity operated by a recipient and that receives Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.130" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.130   Effect of employment opportunities.</HEAD>
<P>The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated because employment opportunities in any occupation or profession are or may be more limited for members of one sex than for members of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.135" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.135   Designation of responsible employee and adoption of grievance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> Each recipient shall designate at least one employee to coordinate its efforts to comply with and carry out its responsibilities under these Title IX regulations, including any investigation of any complaint communicated to such recipient alleging its noncompliance with these Title IX regulations or alleging any actions that would be prohibited by these Title IX regulations. The recipient shall notify all its students and employees of the name, office address, and telephone number of the employee or employees appointed pursuant to this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint procedure of recipient.</I> A recipient shall adopt and publish grievance procedures providing for prompt and equitable resolution of student and employee complaints alleging any action that would be prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.140" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.1.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.140   Dissemination of policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of policy.</I> (1) Each recipient shall implement specific and continuing steps to notify applicants for admission and employment, students and parents of elementary and secondary school students, employees, sources of referral of applicants for admission and employment, and all unions or professional organizations holding collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient, that it does not discriminate on the basis of sex in the educational programs or activities that it operates, and that it is required by Title IX and these Title IX regulations not to discriminate in such a manner. Such notification shall contain such information, and be made in such manner, as the designated agency official finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by Title IX and these Title IX regulations, but shall state at least that the requirement not to discriminate in education programs or activities extends to employment therein, and to admission thereto unless §§ 36.300 through 36.310 do not apply to the recipient, and that inquiries concerning the application of Title IX and these Title IX regulations to such recipient may be referred to the employee designated pursuant to § 36.135, or to the designated agency official. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each recipient shall make the initial notification required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section within 90 days of September 29, 2000 or of the date these Title IX regulations first apply to such recipient, whichever comes later, which notification shall include publication in: 
</P>
<P>(i) Newspapers and magazines operated by such recipient or by student, alumnae, or alumni groups for or in connection with such recipient; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Memoranda or other written communications distributed to every student and employee of such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publications.</I> (1) Each recipient shall prominently include a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section in each announcement, bulletin, catalog, or application form that it makes available to any person of a type, described in paragraph (a) of this section, or which is otherwise used in connection with the recruitment of students or employees. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not use or distribute a publication of the type described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that suggests, by text or illustration, that such recipient treats applicants, students, or employees differently on the basis of sex except as such treatment is permitted by these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distribution.</I> Each recipient shall distribute without discrimination on the basis of sex each publication described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and shall apprise each of its admission and employment recruitment representatives of the policy of nondiscrimination described in paragraph (a) of this section, and shall require such representatives to adhere to such policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.200" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.200   Application.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 36.205 through 36.235(a), these Title IX regulations apply to every recipient and to each education program or activity operated by such recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.205" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.205   Educational institutions and other entities controlled by religious organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to any operation of an educational institution or other entity that is controlled by a religious organization to the extent that application of these Title IX regulations would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption claims.</I> An educational institution or other entity that wishes to claim the exemption set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall do so by submitting in writing to the designated agency official a statement by the highest-ranking official of the institution, identifying the provisions of these Title IX regulations that conflict with a specific tenet of the religious organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.210" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.210   Military and merchant marine educational institutions.</HEAD>
<P>These Title IX regulations do not apply to an educational institution whose primary purpose is the training of individuals for a military service of the United States or for the merchant marine. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.215" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.215   Membership practices of certain organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Social fraternities and sororities.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of social fraternities and sororities that are exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), the active membership of which consists primarily of students in attendance at institutions of higher education. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>YMCA, YWCA, Girl Scouts, Boy Scouts, and Camp Fire Girls.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of the Young Men's Christian Association (YMCA), the Young Women's Christian Association (YWCA), the Girl Scouts, the Boy Scouts, and Camp Fire Girls. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voluntary youth service organizations.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of a voluntary youth service organization that is exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), and the membership of which has been traditionally limited to members of one sex and principally to persons of less than nineteen years of age.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.220" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.220   Admissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Admissions to educational institutions prior to June 24, 1973, are not covered by these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administratively separate units.</I> For the purposes only of this section, §§ 36.225 and 36.230, and §§ 36.300 through 36.310, each administratively separate unit shall be deemed to be an educational institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of §§ 36.300 through .310.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply to each recipient. A recipient to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of §§ 36.300 through 36.310. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Educational institutions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section as to recipients that are educational institutions, §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply only to institutions of vocational education, professional education, graduate higher education, and public institutions of undergraduate higher education. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public institutions of undergraduate higher education.</I> §§ 36.300 through 36.310 do not apply to any public institution of undergraduate higher education that traditionally and continually from its establishment has had a policy of admitting students of only one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.225" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.225   Educational institutions eligible to submit transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to each educational institution to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Admitted students of only one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1972; or
</P>
<P>(2) Admitted students of only one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1965, but thereafter admitted, as regular students, students of the sex not admitted prior to June 23, 1965. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provision for transition plans.</I> An educational institution to which this section applies shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of §§ 36.300 through 36.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.230" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.230   Transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of plans.</I> An institution to which § 36.225 applies and that is composed of more than one administratively separate unit may submit either a single transition plan applicable to all such units, or a separate transition plan applicable to each such unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of plans.</I> In order to be approved by the Secretary of Education, a transition plan shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) State the name, address, and Federal Interagency Committee on Education Code of the educational institution submitting such plan, the administratively separate units to which the plan is applicable, and the name, address, and telephone number of the person to whom questions concerning the plan may be addressed. The person who submits the plan shall be the chief administrator or president of the institution, or another individual legally authorized to bind the institution to all actions set forth in the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) State whether the educational institution or administratively separate unit admits students of both sexes as regular students and, if so, when it began to do so. 
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe with respect to the educational institution or administratively separate unit any obstacles to admitting students without discrimination on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(4) Describe in detail the steps necessary to eliminate as soon as practicable each obstacle so identified and indicate the schedule for taking these steps and the individual directly responsible for their implementation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Include estimates of the number of students, by sex, expected to apply for, be admitted to, and enter each class during the period covered by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> No policy or practice of a recipient to which § 36.225 applies shall result in treatment of applicants to or students of such recipient in violation of §§ 36.300 through 36.310 unless such treatment is necessitated by an obstacle identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and a schedule for eliminating that obstacle has been provided as required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of past exclusion.</I> To overcome the effects of past exclusion of students on the basis of sex, each educational institution to which § 36.225 applies shall include in its transition plan, and shall implement, specific steps designed to encourage individuals of the previously excluded sex to apply for admission to such institution. Such steps shall include instituting recruitment programs that emphasize the institution's commitment to enrolling students of the sex previously excluded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.235" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.2.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.235   Statutory amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section, which applies to all provisions of these Title IX regulations, addresses statutory amendments to Title IX. 
</P>
<P>(b) These Title IX regulations shall not apply to or preclude: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any program or activity of the American Legion undertaken in connection with the organization or operation of any Boys State conference, Boys Nation conference, Girls State conference, or Girls Nation conference; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any program or activity of a secondary school or educational institution specifically for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The promotion of any Boys State conference, Boys Nation conference, Girls State conference, or Girls Nation conference; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The selection of students to attend any such conference; 
</P>
<P>(3) Father-son or mother-daughter activities at an educational institution or in an education program or activity, but if such activities are provided for students of one sex, opportunities for reasonably comparable activities shall be provided to students of the other sex; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any scholarship or other financial assistance awarded by an institution of higher education to an individual because such individual has received such award in a single-sex pageant based upon a combination of factors related to the individual's personal appearance, poise, and talent. The pageant, however, must comply with other nondiscrimination provisions of Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Program or activity</I> or <I>program</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) All of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance: 
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government; 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or 
</P>
<P>(B) A local educational agency (as defined in section 8801 of title 20), system of vocational education, or other school system; 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship— 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(B) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other entity that is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) <I>Program or activity</I> does not include any operation of an entity that is controlled by a religious organization if the application of 20 U.S.C. 1681 to such operation would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For example, all of the operations of a college, university, or other postsecondary institution, including but not limited to traditional educational operations, faculty and student housing, campus shuttle bus service, campus restaurants, the bookstore, and other commercial activities are part of a “program or activity” subject to these Title IX regulations if the college, university, or other institution receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be construed to require or prohibit any person, or public or private entity, to provide or pay for any benefit or service, including the use of facilities, related to an abortion. Medical procedures, benefits, services, and the use of facilities, necessary to save the life of a pregnant woman or to address complications related to an abortion are not subject to this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit a penalty to be imposed on any person or individual because such person or individual is seeking or has received any benefit or service related to a legal abortion. Accordingly, subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, no person shall be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, employment, or other educational program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance because such individual has sought or received, or is seeking, a legal abortion, or any benefit or service related to a legal abortion. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Admission and Recruitment Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.300" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.3.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.300   Admission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be denied admission, or be subjected to discrimination in admission, by any recipient to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply, except as provided in §§ 36.225 and 36.230. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> (1) In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply shall not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Give preference to one person over another on the basis of sex, by ranking applicants separately on such basis, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Apply numerical limitations upon the number or proportion of persons of either sex who may be admitted; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise treat one individual differently from another on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for admission that has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless the use of such test or criterion is shown to predict validly success in the education program or activity in question and alternative tests or criteria that do not have such a disproportionately adverse effect are shown to be unavailable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibitions relating to marital or parental status.</I> In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not apply any rule concerning the actual or potential parental, family, or marital status of a student or applicant that treats persons differently on the basis of sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not discriminate against or exclude any person on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, or establish or follow any rule or practice that so discriminates or excludes; 
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to § 36.235(d), shall treat disabilities related to pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability or physical condition; and
</P>
<P>(4) Shall not make pre-admission inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for admission, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” A recipient may make pre-admission inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for admission, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.305" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.3.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.305   Preference in admission.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply shall not give preference to applicants for admission, on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or other school or entity that admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preference has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 36.300 through 36.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.310" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.3.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.310   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment.</I> A recipient to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and admission of students. A recipient may be required to undertake additional recruitment efforts for one sex as remedial action pursuant to § 36.110(a), and may choose to undertake such efforts as affirmative action pursuant to § 36.110(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment at certain institutions.</I> A recipient to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 apply shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at educational institutions, schools, or entities that admit as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 36.300 through 36.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.400" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.400   Education programs or activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in these Title IX regulations, no person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, or other education program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. Sections 36.400 through 36.455 do not apply to actions of a recipient in connection with admission of its students to an education program or activity of a recipient to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 do not apply, or an entity, not a recipient, to which §§ 36.300 through 36.310 would not apply if the entity were a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> Except as provided in §§ 36.400 through 36.455, in providing any aid, benefit, or service to a student, a recipient shall not, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(1) Treat one person differently from another in determining whether such person satisfies any requirement or condition for the provision of such aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide different aid, benefits, or services or provide aid, benefits, or services in a different manner; 
</P>
<P>(3) Deny any person any such aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(4) Subject any person to separate or different rules of behavior, sanctions, or other treatment; 
</P>
<P>(5) Apply any rule concerning the domicile or residence of a student or applicant, including eligibility for in-state fees and tuition; 
</P>
<P>(6) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against any person by providing significant assistance to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of sex in providing any aid, benefit, or service to students or employees; 
</P>
<P>(7) Otherwise limit any person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistance administered by a recipient educational institution to study at a foreign institution.</I> A recipient educational institution may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other awards established by foreign or domestic wills, trusts, or similar legal instruments, or by acts of foreign governments and restricted to members of one sex, that are designed to provide opportunities to study abroad, and that are awarded to students who are already matriculating at or who are graduates of the recipient institution; <I>Provided,</I> that a recipient educational institution that administers or assists in the administration of such scholarships, fellowships, or other awards that are restricted to members of one sex provides, or otherwise makes available, reasonable opportunities for similar studies for members of the other sex. Such opportunities may be derived from either domestic or foreign sources. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aids, benefits or services not provided by recipient.</I> (1) This paragraph (d) applies to any recipient that requires participation by any applicant, student, or employee in any education program or activity not operated wholly by such recipient, or that facilitates, permits, or considers such participation as part of or equivalent to an education program or activity operated by such recipient, including participation in educational consortia and cooperative employment and student-teaching assignments. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such recipient: 
</P>
<P>(i) Shall develop and implement a procedure designed to assure itself that the operator or sponsor of such other education program or activity takes no action affecting any applicant, student, or employee of such recipient that these Title IX regulations would prohibit such recipient from taking; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall not facilitate, require, permit, or consider such participation if such action occurs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.405" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.405   Housing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, apply different rules or regulations, impose different fees or requirements, or offer different services or benefits related to housing, except as provided in this section (including housing provided only to married students). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Housing provided by recipient.</I> (1) A recipient may provide separate housing on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) Housing provided by a recipient to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, shall be as a whole: 
</P>
<P>(i) Proportionate in quantity to the number of students of that sex applying for such housing; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Comparable in quality and cost to the student. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other housing.</I> (1) A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, administer different policies or practices concerning occupancy by its students of housing other than that provided by such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A recipient which, through solicitation, listing, approval of housing, or otherwise, assists any agency, organization, or person in making housing available to any of its students, shall take such reasonable action as may be necessary to assure itself that such housing as is provided to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, is as a whole: 
</P>
<P>(A) Proportionate in quantity; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Comparable in quality and cost to the student. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A recipient may render such assistance to any agency, organization, or person that provides all or part of such housing to students of only one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.410" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.410   Comparable facilities.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may provide separate toilet, locker room, and shower facilities on the basis of sex, but such facilities provided for students of one sex shall be comparable to such facilities provided for students of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.415" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.415   Access to course offerings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall not provide any course or otherwise carry out any of its education program or activity separately on the basis of sex, or require or refuse participation therein by any of its students on such basis, including health, physical education, industrial, business, vocational, technical, home economics, music, and adult education courses. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) With respect to classes and activities in physical education at the elementary school level, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from September 29, 2000. With respect to physical education classes and activities at the secondary and post-secondary levels, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from September 29, 2000. 
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not prohibit grouping of students in physical education classes and activities by ability as assessed by objective standards of individual performance developed and applied without regard to sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not prohibit separation of students by sex within physical education classes or activities during participation in wrestling, boxing, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball, and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact. 
</P>
<P>(4) Where use of a single standard of measuring skill or progress in a physical education class has an adverse effect on members of one sex, the recipient shall use appropriate standards that do not have such effect. 
</P>
<P>(5) Portions of classes in elementary and secondary schools, or portions of education programs or activities, that deal exclusively with human sexuality may be conducted in separate sessions for boys and girls. 
</P>
<P>(6) Recipients may make requirements based on vocal range or quality that may result in a chorus or choruses of one or predominantly one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.420" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.420   Access to schools operated by LEAs.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient that is a local educational agency shall not, on the basis of sex, exclude any person from admission to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any institution of vocational education operated by such recipient; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any other school or educational unit operated by such recipient, unless such recipient otherwise makes available to such person, pursuant to the same policies and criteria of admission, courses, services, and facilities comparable to each course, service, and facility offered in or through such schools. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.425" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.425   Counseling and use of appraisal and counseling materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Counseling.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against any person on the basis of sex in the counseling or guidance of students or applicants for admission. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of appraisal and counseling materials.</I> A recipient that uses testing or other materials for appraising or counseling students shall not use different materials for students on the basis of their sex or use materials that permit or require different treatment of students on such basis unless such different materials cover the same occupations and interest areas and the use of such different materials is shown to be essential to eliminate sex bias. Recipients shall develop and use internal procedures for ensuring that such materials do not discriminate on the basis of sex. Where the use of a counseling test or other instrument results in a substantially disproportionate number of members of one sex in any particular course of study or classification, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination in the instrument or its application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disproportion in classes.</I> Where a recipient finds that a particular class contains a substantially disproportionate number of individuals of one sex, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination on the basis of sex in counseling or appraisal materials or by counselors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.430" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.430   Financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, in providing financial assistance to any of its students, a recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) On the basis of sex, provide different amounts or types of such assistance, limit eligibility for such assistance that is of any particular type or source, apply different criteria, or otherwise discriminate; 
</P>
<P>(2) Through solicitation, listing, approval, provision of facilities, or other services, assist any foundation, trust, agency, organization, or person that provides assistance to any of such recipient's students in a manner that discriminates on the basis of sex; or
</P>
<P>(3) Apply any rule or assist in application of any rule concerning eligibility for such assistance that treats persons of one sex differently from persons of the other sex with regard to marital or parental status. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial aid established by certain legal instruments.</I> (1) A recipient may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other forms of financial assistance established pursuant to domestic or foreign wills, trusts, bequests, or similar legal instruments or by acts of a foreign government that require that awards be made to members of a particular sex specified therein; <I>Provided,</I> that the overall effect of the award of such sex-restricted scholarships, fellowships, and other forms of financial assistance does not discriminate on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) To ensure nondiscriminatory awards of assistance as required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, recipients shall develop and use procedures under which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Students are selected for award of financial assistance on the basis of nondiscriminatory criteria and not on the basis of availability of funds restricted to members of a particular sex; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An appropriate sex-restricted scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance is allocated to each student selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No student is denied the award for which he or she was selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section because of the absence of a scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance designated for a member of that student's sex. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Athletic scholarships.</I> (1) To the extent that a recipient awards athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid, it must provide reasonable opportunities for such awards for members of each sex in proportion to the number of students of each sex participating in interscholastic or intercollegiate athletics. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may provide separate athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid for members of each sex as part of separate athletic teams for members of each sex to the extent consistent with this paragraph (c) and § 36.450. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.435" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.435   Employment assistance to students.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assistance by recipient in making available outside employment.</I> A recipient that assists any agency, organization, or person in making employment available to any of its students: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall assure itself that such employment is made available without discrimination on the basis of sex; and
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not render such services to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of sex in its employment practices. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employment of students by recipients.</I> A recipient that employs any of its students shall not do so in a manner that violates §§ 36.500 through 36.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.440" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.440   Health and insurance benefits and services.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to § 36.235(d), in providing a medical, hospital, accident, or life insurance benefit, service, policy, or plan to any of its students, a recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex, or provide such benefit, service, policy, or plan in a manner that would violate §§ 36.500 through 36.550 if it were provided to employees of the recipient. This section shall not prohibit a recipient from providing any benefit or service that may be used by a different proportion of students of one sex than of the other, including family planning services. However, any recipient that provides full coverage health service shall provide gynecological care. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.445" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.445   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Status generally.</I> A recipient shall not apply any rule concerning a student's actual or potential parental, family, or marital status that treats students differently on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy and related conditions.</I> (1) A recipient shall not discriminate against any student, or exclude any student from its education program or activity, including any class or extracurricular activity, on the basis of such student's pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, unless the student requests voluntarily to participate in a separate portion of the program or activity of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may require such a student to obtain the certification of a physician that the student is physically and emotionally able to continue participation as long as such a certification is required of all students for other physical or emotional conditions requiring the attention of a physician. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient that operates a portion of its education program or activity separately for pregnant students, admittance to which is completely voluntary on the part of the student as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall ensure that the separate portion is comparable to that offered to non-pregnant students. 
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to § 36.235(d), a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy and recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability with respect to any medical or hospital benefit, service, plan, or policy that such recipient administers, operates, offers, or participates in with respect to students admitted to the recipient's educational program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a recipient that does not maintain a leave policy for its students, or in the case of a student who does not otherwise qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence for as long a period of time as is deemed medically necessary by the student's physician, at the conclusion of which the student shall be reinstated to the status that she held when the leave began. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.450" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.450   Athletics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, be treated differently from another person, or otherwise be discriminated against in any interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics offered by a recipient, and no recipient shall provide any such athletics separately on such basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separate teams.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient may operate or sponsor separate teams for members of each sex where selection for such teams is based upon competitive skill or the activity involved is a contact sport. However, where a recipient operates or sponsors a team in a particular sport for members of one sex but operates or sponsors no such team for members of the other sex, and athletic opportunities for members of that sex have previously been limited, members of the excluded sex must be allowed to try out for the team offered unless the sport involved is a contact sport. For the purposes of these Title IX regulations, contact sports include boxing, wrestling, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball, and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equal opportunity.</I> (1) A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics shall provide equal athletic opportunity for members of both sexes. In determining whether equal opportunities are available, the designated agency official will consider, among other factors: 
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the selection of sports and levels of competition effectively accommodate the interests and abilities of members of both sexes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The provision of equipment and supplies; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Scheduling of games and practice time; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Travel and per diem allowance; 
</P>
<P>(v) Opportunity to receive coaching and academic tutoring; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Assignment and compensation of coaches and tutors; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Provision of locker rooms, practice, and competitive facilities; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Provision of medical and training facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(ix) Provision of housing and dining facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(x) Publicity. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unequal aggregate expenditures for members of each sex or unequal expenditures for male and female teams if a recipient operates or sponsors separate teams will not constitute noncompliance with this section, but the designated agency official may consider the failure to provide necessary funds for teams for one sex in assessing equality of opportunity for members of each sex. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustment period.</I> A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics at the elementary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from September 29, 2000. A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics at the secondary or postsecondary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from September 29, 2000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.455" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.4.66.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.455   Textbooks and curricular material.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be interpreted as requiring or prohibiting or abridging in any way the use of particular textbooks or curricular materials. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Employment in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.500" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.500   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination in employment, or recruitment, consideration, or selection therefor, whether full-time or part-time, under any education program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall make all employment decisions in any education program or activity operated by such recipient in a nondiscriminatory manner and shall not limit, segregate, or classify applicants or employees in any way that could adversely affect any applicant's or employee's employment opportunities or status because of sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient shall not enter into any contractual or other relationship which directly or indirectly has the effect of subjecting employees or students to discrimination prohibited by §§ 36.500 through 36.550, including relationships with employment and referral agencies, with labor unions, and with organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient shall not grant preferences to applicants for employment on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or entity that admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preferences has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> The provisions of §§ 36.500 through 36.550 apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment, advertising, and the process of application for employment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, consideration for and award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, application of nepotism policies, right of return from layoff, and rehiring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation, and changes in compensation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, classifications, and structure, including position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists; 
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of any collective bargaining agreement; 
</P>
<P>(6) Granting and return from leaves of absence, leave for pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, leave for persons of either sex to care for children or dependents, or any other leave; 
</P>
<P>(7) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient; 
</P>
<P>(8) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities, selection for tuition assistance, selection for sabbaticals and leaves of absence to pursue training; 
</P>
<P>(9) Employer-sponsored activities, including social or recreational programs; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.505" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.505   Employment criteria.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for any employment opportunity that has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless: 
</P>
<P>(a) Use of such test or other criterion is shown to predict validly successful performance in the position in question; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Alternative tests or criteria for such purpose, which do not have such disproportionately adverse effect, are shown to be unavailable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.510" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.510   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment and hiring.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and hiring of employees. Where a recipient has been found to be presently discriminating on the basis of sex in the recruitment or hiring of employees, or has been found to have so discriminated in the past, the recipient shall recruit members of the sex so discriminated against so as to overcome the effects of such past or present discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment patterns.</I> A recipient shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at entities that furnish as applicants only or predominantly members of one sex if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 36.500 through 36.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.515" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.515   Compensation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not make or enforce any policy or practice that, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(a) Makes distinctions in rates of pay or other compensation; 
</P>
<P>(b) Results in the payment of wages to employees of one sex at a rate less than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for equal work on jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, effort, and responsibility, and that are performed under similar working conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.520" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.520   Job classification and structure.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Classify a job as being for males or for females; 
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority lists, career ladders, or tenure systems based on sex; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority systems, career ladders, or tenure systems for similar jobs, position descriptions, or job requirements that classify persons on the basis of sex, unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the positions in question as set forth in § 36.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.525" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.525   Fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>“Fringe benefits” defined.</I> For purposes of these Title IX regulations, <I>fringe benefits</I> means: Any medical, hospital, accident, life insurance, or retirement benefit, service, policy or plan, any profit-sharing or bonus plan, leave, and any other benefit or service of employment not subject to the provision of § 36.515. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions.</I> A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Discriminate on the basis of sex with regard to making fringe benefits available to employees or make fringe benefits available to spouses, families, or dependents of employees differently upon the basis of the employee's sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a fringe benefit plan that does not provide for equal periodic benefits for members of each sex and for equal contributions to the plan by such recipient for members of each sex; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a pension or retirement plan that establishes different optional or compulsory retirement ages based on sex or that otherwise discriminates in benefits on the basis of sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.530" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.530   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A recipient shall not apply any policy or take any employment action: 
</P>
<P>(1) Concerning the potential marital, parental, or family status of an employee or applicant for employment that treats persons differently on the basis of sex; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Which is based upon whether an employee or applicant for employment is the head of household or principal wage earner in such employee's or applicant's family unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against or exclude from employment any employee or applicant for employment on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pregnancy as a temporary disability.</I> Subject to § 36235(d), a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, recovery therefrom, and any temporary disability resulting therefrom as any other temporary disability for all job-related purposes, including commencement, duration, and extensions of leave, payment of disability income, accrual of seniority and any other benefit or service, and reinstatement, and under any fringe benefit offered to employees by virtue of employment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pregnancy leave.</I> In the case of a recipient that does not maintain a leave policy for its employees, or in the case of an employee with insufficient leave or accrued employment time to qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence without pay for a reasonable period of time, at the conclusion of which the employee shall be reinstated to the status that she held when the leave began or to a comparable position, without decrease in rate of compensation or loss of promotional opportunities, or any other right or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.535" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.535   Effect of state or local law or other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibitory requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with §§ 36.500 through 36.550 is not obviated or alleviated by the existence of any State or local law or other requirement that imposes prohibitions or limits upon employment of members of one sex that are not imposed upon members of the other sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits.</I> A recipient that provides any compensation, service, or benefit to members of one sex pursuant to a State or local law or other requirement shall provide the same compensation, service, or benefit to members of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.540" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.540   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not in any advertising related to employment indicate preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on sex unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the particular job in question. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.545" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.545   Pre-employment inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marital status.</I> A recipient shall not make pre-employment inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for employment, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sex.</I> A recipient may make pre-employment inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for employment, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.550" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.5.66.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.550   Sex as a bona fide occupational qualification.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may take action otherwise prohibited by §§ 36.500 through 36.550 provided it is shown that sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for that action, such that consideration of sex with regard to such action is essential to successful operation of the employment function concerned. A recipient shall not take action pursuant to this section that is based upon alleged comparative employment characteristics or stereotyped characterizations of one or the other sex, or upon preference based on sex of the recipient, employees, students, or other persons, but nothing contained in this section shall prevent a recipient from considering an employee's sex in relation to employment in a locker room or toilet facility used only by members of one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.600" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.6.66.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.600   Notice of covered programs.</HEAD>
<P>Within 60 days of September 29, 2000, each Federal agency that awards Federal financial assistance shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the programs covered by these Title IX regulations. Each such Federal agency shall periodically republish the notice of covered programs to reflect changes in covered programs. Copies of this notice also shall be made available upon request to the Federal agency's office that enforces Title IX.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.605" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.6.66.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.605   Enforcement procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The investigative, compliance, and enforcement procedural provisions of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d) (“Title VI”) are hereby adopted and applied to these Title IX regulations. These procedures may be found at 29 CFR 31.5, 31.7 through 31.11.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 52881, Aug. 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.610" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.35.6.66.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.610   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="37" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 37 [RESERVED]






</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="38" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 38—IMPLEMENTATION OF THE NONDISCRIMINATION AND EQUAL OPPORTUNITY PROVISIONS OF THE WORKFORCE INNOVATION AND OPPORTUNITY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>; 42 U.S.C. 2000d <I>et seq.</I>; 29 U.S.C. 794; 42 U.S.C. 6101 <I>et seq.</I>; and 20 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 87211, Dec. 2, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA), which are contained in section 188 of WIOA (29 U.S.C. 3248). Section 188 prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or political affiliation or belief, or, for beneficiaries, applicants, and participants only, on the basis of citizenship status or participation in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity. This part clarifies the application of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and provides uniform procedures for implementing them.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any recipient, as defined in § 38.4;
</P>
<P>(2) Programs and activities that are part of the one-stop delivery system and that are operated by one-stop partners listed in section 121(b) of WIOA, to the extent that the programs and activities are being conducted as part of the one-stop delivery system; and
</P>
<P>(3) As provided in § 38.18, the employment practices of a recipient and/or one-stop partner, to the extent that the employment is in the administration of or in connection with programs and activities that are being conducted as a part of WIOA Title I or the one-stop delivery system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation of application.</I> This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Programs or activities that are financially assisted by the U.S. Department of Labor (Department) exclusively under laws other than Title I of WIOA, and that are not part of the one-stop delivery system (including programs or activities implemented under, authorized by, and/or financially assisted by the Department under the Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (WIA));
</P>
<P>(2) Contracts of insurance or guaranty;
</P>
<P>(3) The ultimate beneficiary to a program of Federal financial assistance; and
</P>
<P>(4) Federal procurement contracts, with the exception of contracts to operate or provide services to Job Corps Centers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.3   Effect on other obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient's compliance with this part will satisfy any obligation of the recipient to comply with 29 CFR part 31, the Department's regulations implementing Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (Title VI), and with subparts A, D, and E of 29 CFR part 32, the Department's regulations implementing Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (Section 504).
</P>
<P>(b) 29 CFR part 32, subparts B and C and appendix A, the Department's regulations which implement the requirements of Section 504 pertaining to employment practices and employment-related training, program accessibility, and reasonable accommodation, are hereby adopted by this part. Therefore, recipients must comply with the requirements set forth in those regulatory sections as well as the requirements listed in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not invalidate or limit the obligations, remedies, rights, and procedures under any Federal law, or the law of any State or political subdivision, that provides greater or equal protection for the rights of persons as compared to this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Recipients that are also public entities or public accommodations, as defined by Titles II and III of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA), should be aware of obligations imposed by those titles.
</P>
<P>(2) Similarly, recipients that are also employers, employment agencies, or other entities covered by Title I of the ADA should be aware of obligations imposed by that title.
</P>
<P>(d) Compliance with this part does not affect, in any way, any additional obligations that a recipient may have to comply with applicable federal laws and their implementing regulations, such as the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Executive Order 11246, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Executive Order 13160;
</P>
<P>(3) Sections 503 and 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 793 and 794);
</P>
<P>(4) The affirmative action provisions of the Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1974, as amended (38 U.S.C. 4212);
</P>
<P>(5) The Equal Pay Act of 1963, as amended (29 U.S.C. 206d);
</P>
<P>(6) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(7) The Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6101);
</P>
<P>(8) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended (29 U.S.C. 621);
</P>
<P>(9) Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (Title IX) (20 U.S.C. 1681);
</P>
<P>(10) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(11) The anti-discrimination provision of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1324b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative Law Judge</I> means a person appointed as provided in 5 U.S.C. 3105 and 5 CFR 930.203, and qualified under 5 U.S.C. 557, to preside at hearings held under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WOIA and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aid, benefit, service, or training</I> means WIOA Title I-financially assisted services, financial or other aid, training, or benefits provided by or through a recipient or its employees, or by others through contract or other arrangements with the recipient. “Aid, benefit, service, or training” includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Career Services;
</P>
<P>(2) Education or training;
</P>
<P>(3) Health, welfare, housing, social service, rehabilitation, or other supportive services;
</P>
<P>(4) Work opportunities;
</P>
<P>(5) Cash, loans, or other financial assistance to individuals; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any aid, benefits, services, or training provided in or through a facility that has been constructed, expanded, altered, leased, rented, or otherwise obtained, in whole or in part, with Federal financial assistance under Title I of WIOA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicant</I> means an individual who is interested in being considered for any WIOA Title I-financially assisted aid, benefit, service, or training by a recipient, and who has signified that interest by submitting personal information in response to a request by the recipient. <I>See also</I> the definitions of “application for benefits,” “eligible applicant/registrant,” “participant,” “participation,” and “recipient” in this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicant for employment</I> means a person or persons who make(s) an application for employment with a recipient of Federal financial assistance under WIOA Title I.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application for benefits</I> means the process by which information, including but not limited to a completed application form, is provided by applicants or eligible applicants before and as a condition of receiving any WIOA Title I-financially assisted aid, benefit, service, or training from a recipient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Auxiliary aids or services</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified interpreters on-site or through video remote interpreting (VRI) services; notetakers; real-time computer-aided transcription services; written materials; exchange of written notes; telephone handset amplifiers; assistive listening devices; assistive listening systems; telephones compatible with hearing aids; closed caption decoders; open and closed captioning, including real-time captioning; voice, text, and video-based telecommunications products and systems, including text telephones (TTYs), videophones, and captioned telephones, or equally effective telecommunications devices; videotext displays; accessible electronic and information technology; or other effective means of making aurally delivered materials available to individuals with hearing impairments;
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified readers; taped texts; audio recordings; Brailled materials and displays; screen reader software; magnification software; optical readers; secondary auditory programs (SAP); large print materials; accessible electronic and information technology; or other effective methods of making visually delivered materials available to individuals who are blind or have low vision;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquisition or modification of equipment or devices; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other similar services, devices, and actions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Babel notice</I> means a short notice included in a document or electronic medium (<I>e.g.,</I> Web site, “app,” email) in multiple languages informing the reader that the communication contains vital information, and explaining how to access language services to have the contents of the communication provided in other languages.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Beneficiary</I> means the individual or individuals intended by Congress to receive aid, benefits, services, or training from a recipient.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Citizenship</I> See “Discrimination prohibited based on citizenship status.” in § 38.11.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>CRC</I> means the Civil Rights Center, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor, including its agencies and organizational units.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Departmental grantmaking agency</I> means a grantmaking agency within the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Director</I> means the Director, Civil Rights Center, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, U.S. Department of Labor, or a designee authorized to act for the Director.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Direct threat</I> means a significant risk of substantial harm to the health or safety of others that cannot be eliminated or reduced by auxiliary aids and services, reasonable accommodations, or reasonable modifications in policies, practices and/or procedures. The determination whether an individual with a disability poses a direct threat must be based on an individualized assessment of the individual's present ability safely to either:
</P>
<P>(1) Satisfy the essential eligibility requirements of the program or activity (in the case of aid, benefits, services, or training); or
</P>
<P>(2) Perform the essential functions of the job (in the case of employment). This assessment must be based on a reasonable medical judgment that relies on the most current medical knowledge and/or on the best available objective evidence. In determining whether an individual would pose a direct threat, the factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>(i) The duration of the risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nature and severity of the potential harm;
</P>
<P>(iii) The likelihood that the potential harm will occur; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The imminence of the potential harm.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Disability</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> “Disability” means, with respect to an individual:
</P>
<P>(i) A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of such individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) A record of such an impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Being regarded as having such an impairment as described in paragraph (q)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules of construction.</I> (i) The definition of “disability” shall be construed broadly in favor of expansive coverage, to the maximum extent permitted by Federal disability nondiscrimination law and this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual may establish coverage under any one or more of the three prongs of the general definition of disability in paragraph (q)(1) of this section, the “actual disability” prong in paragraph (q)(1)(i) of this section, the “record of” prong in paragraph (q)(1)(ii) of this section, or the “regarded as” prong in paragraph (q)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where an individual is not challenging a recipient's failure to provide reasonable accommodations or reasonable modifications under § 38.14(a) or (b), it is generally unnecessary to proceed under the “actual disability” or “record of” prongs, which require a showing of an impairment that substantially limits a major life activity or a record of such an impairment. In these cases, the evaluation of coverage can be made solely under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of “disability,” which does not require a showing of an impairment that substantially limits a major life activity or a record of such an impairment. An individual may choose, however, to proceed under the “actual disability” or “record of” prong regardless of whether the individual is challenging a recipient's failure to provide reasonable accommodations, or reasonable modifications.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Physical or mental impairment.</I> (i) “Physical or mental impairment” means—
</P>
<P>(A) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more body systems, such as: Neurological, musculoskeletal, special sense organs, respiratory (including speech organs), cardiovascular, reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, immune, circulatory, hemic, lymphatic, skin, and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any mental or psychological disorder such as intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Physical or mental impairment” includes, but is not limited to, contagious and noncontagious diseases and conditions such as the following: Orthopedic, visual, speech and hearing impairments, and cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, intellectual disability, emotional illness, pregnancy-related medical conditions, dyslexia and other specific learning disabilities, Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection (whether symptomatic or asymptomatic), tuberculosis, drug addiction, and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(iii) “Physical or mental impairment” does not include homosexuality or bisexuality.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Major life activities.</I> (i) Major life activities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, sitting, reaching, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, writing, communicating, interacting with others, and working; and
</P>
<P>(B) The operation of a “major bodily function,” such as the functions of the immune system, special sense organs and skin, normal cell growth, and digestive, genitourinary, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain, respiratory, circulatory, cardiovascular, endocrine, hemic, lymphatic, musculoskeletal, and reproductive systems. The operation of a major bodily function includes the operation of an individual organ within a body system.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Rules of construction.</I> (A) In determining whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity, the term “major” shall not be interpreted strictly to create a demanding standard.
</P>
<P>(B) Whether an activity is a “major life activity” is not determined by reference to whether it is of central importance to daily life.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Substantially limits</I>—(i) <I>Rules of construction.</I> The following rules of construction apply when determining whether an impairment substantially limits an individual in a major life activity.
</P>
<P>(A) The term “substantially limits” shall be construed broadly in favor of expansive coverage, to the maximum extent permitted by Federal disability nondiscrimination law and this part. “Substantially limits” is not meant to be a demanding standard.
</P>
<P>(B) The primary object of attention in disability cases brought under WIOA Section 188 should be whether recipients have complied with their obligations and whether discrimination has occurred, not the extent to which an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity. Accordingly, the threshold issue of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity should not demand extensive analysis.
</P>
<P>(C) An impairment that substantially limits one major life activity does not need to limit other major life activities in order to be considered a substantially limiting impairment.
</P>
<P>(D) An impairment that is episodic or in remission is a disability if it would substantially limit a major life activity when active.
</P>
<P>(E) An impairment is a disability within the meaning of this section if it substantially limits the ability of an individual to perform a major life activity as compared to most people in the general population. An impairment does not need to prevent, or significantly or severely restrict, the individual from performing a major life activity in order to be considered substantially limiting. Nonetheless, not every impairment will constitute a disability within the meaning of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) The determination of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity requires an individualized assessment. However, in making this assessment, the term “substantially limits” shall be interpreted and applied to require a degree of functional limitation that is lower than the standard for “substantially limits” applied prior to the ADA Amendments Act of 2008 (ADAAA).
</P>
<P>(G) The comparison of an individual's performance of a major life activity to the performance of the same major life activity by most people in the general population usually will not require scientific, medical, or statistical evidence. Nothing in this paragraph (q)(5)(i)(G) is intended, however, to prohibit or limit the presentation of scientific, medical, or statistical evidence in making such a comparison where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(H) The determination of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity shall be made without regard to the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures. However, the ameliorative effects of ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses shall be considered in determining whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity. Ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses are lenses that are intended to fully correct visual acuity or to eliminate refractive error.
</P>
<P>(I) The six-month “transitory” part of the “transitory and minor” exception in paragraph (q)(7)(ii) of this section does not apply to the “actual disability” or “record of” prongs of the definition of “disability.” The effects of an impairment lasting or expected to last less than six months can be substantially limiting within the meaning of this paragraph (q)(5)(i) for establishing an actual disability or a record of a disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Predictable assessments.</I> (A) The principles set forth in paragraph (q)(5)(i) of this section are intended to provide for more generous coverage and application of the prohibition on discrimination through a framework that is predictable, consistent, and workable for all individuals and recipients with rights and responsibilities with respect to avoiding discrimination on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>(B) Applying these principles, the individualized assessment of some types of impairments will, in virtually all cases, result in a determination of coverage under paragraph (q)(1)(i) of this section (the “actual disability” prong) or paragraph (q)(1)(ii) (the “record of” prong). Given their inherent nature, these types of impairments will, as a factual matter, virtually always be found to impose a substantial limitation on a major life activity. Therefore, with respect to these types of impairments, the necessary individualized assessment should be particularly simple and straightforward.
</P>
<P>(C) For example, applying these principles, it should easily be concluded that the types of impairments set forth in paragraphs (q)(5)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>11</I>) of this section will, at a minimum, substantially limit the major life activities indicated. The types of impairments described in paragraphs (q)(5)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>11</I>) may substantially limit additional major life activities (including major bodily functions) not explicitly listed in paragraphs (q)(5)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>11</I>).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Deafness substantially limits hearing;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Blindness substantially limits seeing;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Intellectual disability substantially limits brain function;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Partially or completely missing limbs or mobility impairments requiring the use of a wheelchair substantially limit musculoskeletal function;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Autism substantially limits brain function;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Cancer substantially limits normal cell growth;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Cerebral palsy substantially limits brain function;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Diabetes substantially limits endocrine function;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, and multiple sclerosis each substantially limits neurological function;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection substantially limits immune function; and
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, traumatic brain injury, obsessive compulsive disorder, and schizophrenia each substantially limits brain function.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Condition, manner, or duration.</I> (A) At all times taking into account the principles in paragraph (q)(5)(i) of this section, in determining whether an individual is substantially limited in a major life activity, it may be useful in appropriate cases to consider, as compared to most people in the general population, the conditions under which the individual performs the major life activity; the manner in which the individual performs the major life activity; or the duration of time it takes the individual to perform the major life activity, or for which the individual can perform the major life activity.
</P>
<P>(B) Consideration of facts such as condition, manner or duration may include, among other things, consideration of the difficulty, effort or time required to perform a major life activity; pain experienced when performing a major life activity; the length of time a major life activity can be performed; or the way an impairment affects the operation of a major bodily function. In addition, the non-ameliorative effects of mitigating measures, such as negative side effects of medication or burdens associated with following a particular treatment regimen, may be considered when determining whether an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity.
</P>
<P>(C) In determining whether an individual has a disability under the “actual disability” or “record of” prongs of the definition of “disability,” the focus is on how a major life activity is substantially limited, and not on what outcomes an individual can achieve. For example, someone with a learning disability may achieve a high level of academic success, but may nevertheless be substantially limited in one or more major life activities, including, but not limited to, reading, writing, speaking, or learning, because of the additional time or effort the individual must spend to read, write, speak, or learn compared to most people in the general population.
</P>
<P>(D) Given the rules of construction set forth in paragraph (q)(5)(i) of this section, it may often be unnecessary to conduct an analysis involving most or all of the facts related to condition, manner, or duration. This is particularly true with respect to impairments such as those described in paragraph (q)(5)(ii)(C) of this section, which by their inherent nature should be easily found to impose a substantial limitation on a major life activity, and for which the individualized assessment should be particularly simple and straightforward.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Mitigating measures</I> include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Medication, medical supplies, equipment, appliances, low-vision devices (defined as devices that magnify, enhance, or otherwise augment a visual image, but not including ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses), prosthetics including limbs and devices, hearing aid(s) and cochlear implant(s) or other implantable hearing devices, mobility devices, and oxygen therapy equipment and supplies;
</P>
<P>(B) Use of assistive technology;
</P>
<P>(C) Reasonable modifications of policies, practices, and procedures, or auxiliary aids or services;
</P>
<P>(D) Learned behavioral or adaptive neurological modifications; or
</P>
<P>(E) Psychotherapy, behavioral therapy, or physical therapy.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Has a record of such an impairment.</I> (i) An individual has a record of such an impairment if the individual has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Broad construction.</I> Whether an individual has a record of an impairment that substantially limited a major life activity shall be construed broadly to the maximum extent permitted by Federal disability nondiscrimination law and this part and should not demand extensive analysis. An individual will be considered to fall within this prong of the definition of “disability” if the individual has a history of an impairment that substantially limited one or more major life activities when compared to most people in the general population, or was misclassified as having had such an impairment. In determining whether an impairment substantially limited a major life activity, the principles articulated in paragraph (q)(5)(i) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasonable accommodation or reasonable modification.</I> An individual with a record of a substantially limiting impairment may be entitled to a reasonable accommodation or reasonable modification if needed and related to the past disability.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Is regarded as having such an impairment.</I> The following principles apply under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of “disability” (paragraph (q)(1)(iii) of this section):
</P>
<P>(i) Except as set forth in paragraph (q)(7)(ii) of this section, an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” if the individual is subjected to an action prohibited by WIOA Section 188 and this part because of an actual or perceived physical or mental impairment, whether or not that impairment substantially limits, or is perceived to substantially limit, a major life activity, even if the recipient asserts, or may or does ultimately establish, a defense to the action prohibited by WIOA Section 188 and this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual is not “regarded as having such an impairment” if the recipient demonstrates that the impairment is, objectively, both “transitory” and “minor.” A recipient may not defeat “regarded as” coverage of an individual simply by demonstrating that it subjectively believed the impairment was transitory and minor; rather, the recipient must demonstrate that the impairment is (in the case of an actual impairment) or would be (in the case of a perceived impairment), objectively, both “transitory” and “minor.” For purposes of this section, “transitory” is defined as lasting or expected to last six months or less.
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishing that an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” does not, by itself, establish liability. Liability is established only when an individual proves that a recipient discriminated on the basis of disability within the meaning of federal nondiscrimination law and this part.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Eligible applicant/registrant</I> means an individual who has been determined eligible to participate in one or more WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Employment practices</I> of a recipient include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment or recruitment advertising;
</P>
<P>(2) Selection, placement, layoff or termination of employees;
</P>
<P>(3) Upgrading, promotion, demotion or transfer of employees;
</P>
<P>(4) Training, including employment-related training;
</P>
<P>(5) Participation in upward mobility programs;
</P>
<P>(6) Deciding rates of pay or other forms of compensation;
</P>
<P>(7) Use of facilities; or
</P>
<P>(8) Deciding other terms, conditions, benefits, and/or privileges of employment.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Employment-related training</I> means training that allows or enables an individual to obtain skills, abilities and/or knowledge that are designed to lead to employment.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Entity</I> means any person, corporation, partnership, joint venture, sole proprietorship, unincorporated association, consortium, Native American tribe or tribal organization, Native Hawaiian organization, and/or entity authorized by State or local law; any State or local government; and/or any agency, instrumentality or subdivision of such a government.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, sites, complexes, equipment, roads, walks, passageways, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property or interest in such property, including the site where the building, property, structure, or equipment is located. The phrase “real or personal property” in the preceding sentence includes indoor constructs that may or may not be permanently attached to a building or structure. Such constructs include, but are not limited to, office cubicles, computer kiosks, and similar constructs.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Federal grantmaking agency</I> means a Federal agency that provides financial assistance under any Federal statute.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Financial assistance</I> means any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any grant, subgrant, loan, or advance of funds, including funds extended to any entity for payment to or on behalf of participants admitted to that recipient for training, or extended directly to such participants for payment to that recipient;
</P>
<P>(2) Provision of the services of grantmaking agency personnel, or of other personnel at the grantmaking agency's expense;
</P>
<P>(3) A grant or donation of real or personal property or any interest in or use of such property, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Transfers or leases of property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Proceeds from a subsequent sale, transfer, or lease of such property, if the grantmaking agency's share of the fair market value of the property is not returned to the grantmaking agency; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sale, lease, or license of, and/or the permission to use (other than on a casual or transient basis), such property or any interest in such property, either:
</P>
<P>(A) Without consideration;
</P>
<P>(B) At a nominal consideration; or
</P>
<P>(C) At a consideration that is reduced or waived either for the purpose of assisting the recipient, or in recognition of the public interest to be served by such sale or lease to or use by the recipient;
</P>
<P>(4) Waiver of charges that would normally be made for the furnishing of services by the grantmaking agency; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other agreement, arrangement, contract or subcontract (other than a procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guaranty), or other instrument that has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance or benefits under the statute or policy that authorizes assistance by the grantmaking agency.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Financial assistance under Title I of WIOA</I> means any of the following, when authorized or extended under WIOA Title I:
</P>
<P>(1) Any grant, subgrant, loan, or advance of federal funds, including funds extended to any entity for payment to or on behalf of participants admitted to that recipient for training, or extended directly to such participants for payment to that recipient;
</P>
<P>(2) Provision of the services of Federal personnel, or of other personnel at Federal expense;
</P>
<P>(3) A grant or donation of Federal real or personal property or any interest in or use of such property, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Transfers or leases of property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Proceeds from a subsequent sale, transfer, or lease of such property, if the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not returned to the Federal Government; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sale, lease, or license of, and/or the permission to use (other than on a casual or transient basis), such property or any interest in such property, either:
</P>
<P>(A) Without consideration;
</P>
<P>(B) At a nominal consideration; or
</P>
<P>(C) At a consideration that is reduced or waived either for the purpose of assisting the recipient, or in recognition of the public interest to be served by such sale or lease to or use by the recipient;
</P>
<P>(4) Waiver of charges that would normally be made for the furnishing of Government services; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other agreement, arrangement, contract or subcontract (other than a Federal procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guaranty), or other instrument that has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance or benefits under WIOA Title I.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Fundamental alteration</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A change in the essential nature of a program or activity as defined in this part, including but not limited to an aid, service, benefit, or training; or
</P>
<P>(2) A cost that a recipient can demonstrate would result in an undue burden. Factors to be considered in making the determination whether the cost of a modification would result in such a burden include:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature and net cost of the modification needed, taking into consideration the availability of tax credits and deductions, and/or outside financial assistance, for the modification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The overall financial resources of the facility or facilities involved in the provision of the modification, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of persons aided, benefited, served, or trained by, or employed at, the facility or facilities; and
</P>
<P>(B) The effect the modification would have on the expenses and resources of the facility or facilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) The overall financial resources of the recipient, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The overall size of the recipient;
</P>
<P>(B) The number of persons aided, benefited, served, trained, or employed by the recipient; and
</P>
<P>(C) The number, type and location of the recipient's facilities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The type of operation or operations of the recipient, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The geographic separateness and administrative or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities in question to the recipient; and
</P>
<P>(B) Where the modification sought is employment-related, the composition, structure and functions of the recipient's workforce; and
</P>
<P>(v) The impact of the modification upon the operation of the facility or facilities, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The impact on the ability of other participants to receive aid, benefit, service, or training, or of other employees to perform their duties; and
</P>
<P>(B) The impact on the facility's ability to carry out its mission.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Governor</I> means the chief executive of a State or an outlying area, or the Governor's designee.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Grant applicant</I> means an entity that submits required documentation to the Governor, recipient, or Department, before and as a condition of receiving financial assistance under Title I of WIOA.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Grantmaking agency</I> means an entity that provides Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Guideline</I> means written informational material supplementing an agency's regulations and provided to grant applicants and recipients to provide program-specific interpretations of their responsibilities under the regulations.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Illegal use of drugs</I> means the use of drugs, the possession or distribution of which is unlawful under the Controlled Substances Act, as amended (21 U.S.C. 812). “Illegal use of drugs” does not include the use of a drug taken under supervision of a licensed health care professional, or other uses authorized by the Controlled Substances Act or other provisions of Federal law.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Individual with a disability</I> means a person who has a disability as previously defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The term “individual with a disability” does not include an individual on the basis of:
</P>
<P>(i) Transvestism, transsexualism, or gender identity disorders not resulting from physical impairments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pedophilia, exhibitionism, voyeurism, or other sexual behavior disorders;
</P>
<P>(iii) Compulsive gambling, kleptomania, or pyromania; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from current illegal use of drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “individual with a disability” does not include an individual who is currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs, when a recipient acts on the basis of such use. This limitation does not exclude as an individual with a disability an individual who:
</P>
<P>(i) Has successfully completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs, or has otherwise been rehabilitated successfully and is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is participating in a supervised rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in such use; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is erroneously regarded as engaging in such use, but is not engaging in such use, except that it is not a violation of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part for a recipient to adopt or administer reasonable policies or procedures, including but not limited to drug testing, designed to ensure that an individual described in paragraph (ff)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs.
</P>
<P>(3) With regard to employment, the term “individual with a disability” does not include any individual who:
</P>
<P>(i) Is an alcoholic if:
</P>
<P>(A) The individual's current use of alcohol prevents such individual from performing the duties of the job in question; or
</P>
<P>(B) The individual's employment, by reason of such current alcohol abuse, would constitute a direct threat to the individual or the safety of others; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a currently contagious disease or infection, if:
</P>
<P>(A) That disease or infection prevents the individual from performing the essential functions of the job in question; or
</P>
<P>(B) The individual's employment, because of that disease or infection, would constitute a direct threat to the health or safety of the individual or others.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Labor market area</I> means an economically integrated geographic area within which individuals can reside and find employment within a reasonable distance or can readily change employment without changing their place of residence. Such an area must be identified in accordance with either criteria used by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor in defining such areas, or similar criteria established by a Governor.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Limited English proficient (LEP) individual</I> means an individual whose primary language for communication is not English and who has a limited ability to read, speak, write, and/or understand English. LEP individuals may be competent in English for certain types of communication (<I>e.g.,</I> speaking or understanding), but still be LEP for other purposes (<I>e.g.,</I> reading or writing).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>LWDA (Local Workforce Development Area) grant recipient</I> means the entity that receives WIOA Title I financial assistance for a local area directly from the Governor and disburses those funds for workforce development activities.
</P>
<P>(jj) <I>National Programs</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Job Corps; and
</P>
<P>(2) Programs receiving Federal financial assistance under Title I, Subtitle D of WIOA directly from the Department. Such programs include, but are not limited to, the Migrant and Seasonal Farmworkers Programs, Native American Programs, National Dislocated Worker Grant Programs, and YouthBuild programs.
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Noncompliance</I> means a failure of a grant applicant or recipient to comply with any of the applicable requirements of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>Nondiscrimination Plan</I> means the written document and supporting documentation developed under § 38.54.
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>On-the-Job Training (OJT)</I> means training by an employer that is provided to a paid participant while the participant is engaged in productive work that:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides knowledge or skills essential to the full and adequate performance of the job;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides reimbursement to the employer of up to 50 percent of the wage rate of the participant (or up to 75 percent as provided in WIOA section 134(c)(3)(H)), for the extraordinary costs of providing the training and additional supervision related to the training; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is limited in duration as appropriate to the occupation for which the participant is being trained, taking into account the content of the training, the prior work experience of the participant, and the service strategy of the participant, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(nn) <I>Other power-driven mobility device</I> means any mobility device powered by batteries, fuel, or other engines or by similar means—whether or not designed primarily for use by individuals with mobility disabilities—that is used by individuals with mobility disabilities for the purpose of locomotion, including golf cars, electronic personal assistance mobility devices (EPAMDs), such as the Segway® PT, or any mobility device designed to operate in areas without defined pedestrian routes, but that is not a wheelchair within the meaning of this section.
</P>
<P>(oo) <I>Participant</I> means an individual who has been determined to be eligible to participate in, and who is receiving any aid, benefit, service, or training under, a program or activity financially assisted in whole or in part under Title I of WIOA. “Participant” includes, but is not limited to, individuals receiving any service(s) under State Employment Service programs, and claimants receiving any service(s) or benefits under State Unemployment Insurance programs.
</P>
<P>(pp) <I>Participation</I> is considered to commence on the first day, following determination of eligibility, on which the participant began receiving subsidized aid, benefit, service, or training provided under Title I of WIOA.
</P>
<P>(qq) <I>Parties to a hearing</I> means the Department and the grant applicant(s), recipient(s), or Governor.
</P>
<P>(rr) <I>Population eligible to be served</I> means the total population of adults and eligible youth who reside within the labor market area that is served by a particular recipient, and who are eligible to seek WIOA Title I-financially assisted aid, benefits, services, or training from that recipient. See the definition of “labor market area” in this section.
</P>
<P>(ss) <I>Program or activity,</I> see “WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity” in this section.
</P>
<P>(tt) <I>Programmatic accessibility</I> means policies, practices, and procedures providing effective and meaningful opportunity for persons with disabilities to participate in or benefit from aid, benefits, services, and training.
</P>
<P>(uu) <I>Prohibited basis</I> means any basis upon which it is illegal to discriminate under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part, <I>i.e.,</I> race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or political affiliation or belief, or, for beneficiaries, applicants, and participants only, citizenship status or participation in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity.
</P>
<P>(vv) <I>Public entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any State or local government; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any department, agency, special purpose district, workforce development board, or other instrumentality of a State or States or local government.
</P>
<P>(ww) <I>Qualified individual with a disability</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to employment, an individual who satisfies the requisite skill, experience, education, and other job-related requirements of the employment position such individual holds or desires, and who, with or without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of such position;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to aid, benefits, services, or training, an individual who, with or without auxiliary aids and services, reasonable accommodations, and/or reasonable modifications in policies, practices and procedures, meets the essential eligibility requirements for the receipt of such aid, benefits, services, or training.
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Qualified interpreter</I> means an interpreter who is able to interpret effectively, accurately, and impartially, either for individuals with disabilities or for individuals who are limited English proficient. The interpreter must be able to interpret both receptively and expressively, using any necessary specialized vocabulary, either in-person, through a telephone, a video remote interpreting (VRI) service, or via internet, video, or other technological methods.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Qualified interpreter for an individual with a disability</I> includes, for example, a sign language interpreter, oral transliterator, and cued-language transliterator. When an interpreter is provided to a person with a disability, the qualified interpreter must be able to sign or otherwise communicate effectively, accurately, and impartially, both receptively and expressively, using any necessary specialized vocabulary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualified interpreter for an individual who is limited English proficient</I> means an individual who demonstrates expertise and ability to communicate information effectively, accurately, and impartially, in both English and the other language, and identifies and employs the appropriate mode of interpreting (<I>e.g.,</I> consecutive, simultaneous, or sight translation).
</P>
<P>(yy) <I>Reasonable accommodation.</I> (1) The term “reasonable accommodation” means:
</P>
<P>(i) Modifications or adjustments to an application/registration process that enables a qualified applicant/registrant with a disability to be considered for the aid, benefits, services, training, or employment that the qualified applicant/registrant desires; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Modifications or adjustments that enable a qualified individual with a disability to perform the essential functions of a job, or to receive aid, benefits, services, or training equal to that provided to qualified individuals without disabilities. These modifications or adjustments may be made to:
</P>
<P>(A) The environment where work is performed or aid, benefits, services, or training are given; or
</P>
<P>(B) The customary manner in which, or circumstances under which, a job is performed or aid, benefits, services, or training are given; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Modifications or adjustments that enable a qualified individual with a disability to enjoy the same benefits and privileges of the aid, benefits, services, training, or employment as are enjoyed by other similarly situated individuals without disabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) “Reasonable accommodation” includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Making existing facilities used by applicants, registrants, eligible applicants/registrants, participants, applicants for employment, and employees readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Restructuring of a job or a service, or of the way in which aid, benefits, services, or training is/are provided; part-time or modified work or training schedules; acquisition or modification of equipment or devices; appropriate adjustment or modifications of examinations, training materials, or policies; the provision of readers or interpreters; and other similar accommodations for individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(3) To determine the appropriate reasonable accommodation, it may be necessary for the recipient to initiate an informal, interactive process with the qualified individual with a disability in need of the accommodation. This process should identify the precise limitations resulting from the disability and potential reasonable accommodations that could overcome those limitations.
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient is required, absent undue hardship, to provide a reasonable accommodation to an otherwise qualified individual who meets the definition of disability under the “actual disability” prong (paragraph (q)(1)(i) of this section) or the “record of” a disability prong (paragraph (q)(1)(ii) of this section), but is not required to provide a reasonable accommodation to an individual who meets the definition of disability solely under the “regarded as” prong (paragraph (q)(1)(iii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(zz) <I>Recipient</I> means entity to which financial assistance under Title I of WIOA is extended, directly from the Department or through the Governor or another recipient (including any successor, assignee, or transferee of a recipient). The term excludes any ultimate beneficiary of the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity. In instances in which a Governor operates a program or activity, either directly or through a State agency, using discretionary funds apportioned to the Governor under WIOA Title I (rather than disbursing the funds to another recipient), the Governor is also a recipient. In addition, for purposes of this part, one-stop partners, as defined in section 121(b) of WIOA, are treated as “recipients,” and are subject to the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity requirements of this part, to the extent that they participate in the one-stop delivery system. “Recipient” includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) State-level agencies that administer, or are financed in whole or in part with, WIOA Title I funds;
</P>
<P>(2) State Workforce Agencies;
</P>
<P>(3) State and Local Workforce Development Boards;
</P>
<P>(4) LWDA grant recipients;
</P>
<P>(5) One-stop operators;
</P>
<P>(6) Service providers, including eligible training providers;
</P>
<P>(7) On-the-Job Training (OJT) employers;
</P>
<P>(8) Job Corps contractors and center operators;
</P>
<P>(9) Job Corps national training contractors;
</P>
<P>(10) Outreach and admissions agencies, including Job Corps contractors that perform these functions;
</P>
<P>(11) Placement agencies, including Job Corps contractors that perform these functions;
</P>
<P>(12) Other National Program recipients.
</P>
<P>(aaa) <I>Registrant</I> means the same as “applicant” for purposes of this part. <I>See also</I> the definitions of “application for benefits,” “eligible applicant/registrant,” “participant,” “participation,” and “recipient” in this section.
</P>
<P>(bbb) <I>Respondent</I> means a grant applicant or recipient (including a Governor) against which a complaint has been filed under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(ccc) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P>(ddd) <I>Sectarian activities</I> means religious worship or ceremony, or sectarian instruction.
</P>
<P>(eee) <I>Section 504</I> means Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 794, as amended, which forbids discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities in federally-financed and conducted programs and activities.
</P>
<P>(fff) <I>Service animal</I> means any dog that is individually trained to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability, including a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability. Other species of animals, whether wild or domestic, trained or untrained, are not service animals for the purposes of this definition. The work or tasks performed by a service animal must be directly related to the individual's disability. Examples of work or tasks include, but are not limited to, assisting individuals who are blind or have low vision with navigation and other tasks, alerting individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing to the presence of people or sounds, providing non-violent protection or rescue work, pulling a wheelchair, assisting an individual during a seizure, alerting individuals to the presence of allergens, retrieving items such as medicine or the telephone, providing physical support and assistance with balance and stability to individuals with mobility disabilities, and helping persons with psychiatric and neurological disabilities by preventing or interrupting impulsive or destructive behaviors. The crime deterrent effects of an animal's presence and the provision of emotional support, well-being, comfort, or companionship, without more, do not constitute work or tasks for the purposes of this definition.
</P>
<P>(ggg) <I>Service provider</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any operator of, or provider of aid, benefits, services, or training to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any program or activity that receives WIOA Title I financial assistance from or through any State or LWDA grant recipient; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any participant through that participant's Individual Training Account (ITA); or
</P>
<P>(2) Any entity that is selected and/or certified as an eligible provider of training services to participants.
</P>
<P>(hhh) <I>Small recipient</I> means a recipient who:
</P>
<P>(1) Serves a total of fewer than 15 beneficiaries during the entire grant year; and
</P>
<P>(2) Employs fewer than 15 employees on any given day during the grant year.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Solicitor</I> means the Solicitor of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, or the Solicitor's designee.
</P>
<P>(jjj) <I>State</I> means the individual states of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Republic of the Marshall Islands, and Palau.
</P>
<P>(kkk) <I>State Programs</I> means programs financially assisted in whole or in part under Title I of WIOA in which either:
</P>
<P>(1) The Governor and/or State receives and disburses the grant to or through LWDA grant recipients; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Governor retains the grant funds and operates the programs, either directly or through a State agency.
</P>
<P>(3) “State Programs” also includes State Workforce Agencies, State Employment Service agencies, and/or State unemployment compensation agencies.
</P>
<P>(lll) <I>State Workforce Agency</I> (SWA) means the State agency that, under the State Administrator, contains both State agencies with responsibility for administering programs authorized under the Wagner-Peyser Act, and unemployment insurance programs authorized under Title III of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P>(mmm) <I>Supportive services</I> means services, such as transportation, child care, dependent care, housing, and needs-related payments, that are necessary to enable an individual to participate in WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs and activities, as consistent with the provisions of WIOA Title I.
</P>
<P>(nnn) <I>Terminee</I> means a participant whose participation in the program or employee whose employment with the program ends voluntarily or involuntarily, during the applicable program year.
</P>
<P>(ooo) <I>Title VI</I> means Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000d, <I>et seq.,</I> as amended, which forbids recipients of federal financial assistance from discriminating on the basis of race, color, or national origin.
</P>
<P>(ppp) <I>Transferee</I> means a person or entity to whom or to which real or personal property, or an interest in such property, is transferred.
</P>
<P>(qqq) <I>Ultimate beneficiary,</I> see the definition of “beneficiary” in this section.
</P>
<P>(rrr) <I>Undue burden or undue hardship</I> has different meanings, depending upon whether it is used with regard to reasonable accommodation of individuals with disabilities, or with regard to religious accommodation.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reasonable accommodation of individuals with disabilities.</I> (i) In general, “undue hardship” means significant difficulty or expense incurred by a recipient, when considered in light of the factors set forth in paragraph (rrr)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Factors to be considered in determining whether an accommodation would impose an undue hardship on a recipient include:
</P>
<P>(A) The nature and net cost of the accommodation needed, taking into consideration the availability of tax credits and deductions, and/or outside funding, for the accommodation;
</P>
<P>(B) The overall financial resources of the facility or facilities involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodation, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The number of persons aided, benefited, served, or trained by, or employed at, the facility or facilities; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The effect the accommodation would have on the expenses and resources of the facility or facilities;
</P>
<P>(C) The overall financial resources of the recipient, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The overall size of the recipient;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The number of persons aided, benefited, served, trained, or employed by the recipient; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The number, type and location of the recipient's facilities;
</P>
<P>(D) The type of operation or operations of the recipient, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The geographic separateness and administrative or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities in question to the recipient; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where the individual is seeking an employment-related accommodation, the composition, structure and functions of the recipient's workforce; and
</P>
<P>(E) The impact of the accommodation upon the operation of the facility or facilities, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The impact on the ability of other participants to receive aid, benefits, services, or training, or of other employees to perform their duties; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The impact on the facility's ability to carry out its mission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Religious accommodation.</I> For purposes of religious accommodation only, “undue hardship” means anything more than a <I>de minimis</I> cost or operational burden that a particular accommodation would impose upon a recipient.
</P>
<P>(sss) <I>Video remote interpreting (VRI) service</I> means an interpreting service that uses video conference technology over dedicated lines or wireless technology offering high-speed, wide-bandwidth video connection that delivers high-quality video images, as provided in § 38.15.
</P>
<P>(ttt) <I>Vital information</I> means information, whether written, oral or electronic, that is necessary for an individual to understand how to obtain any aid, benefit, service, and/or training; necessary for an individual to obtain any aid, benefit, service, and/or training; or required by law. Examples of documents containing vital information include, but are not limited to applications, consent and complaint forms; notices of rights and responsibilities; notices advising LEP individuals of their rights under this part, including the availability of free language assistance; rulebooks; written tests that do not assess English language competency, but rather assess competency for a particular license, job, or skill for which English proficiency is not required; and letters or notices that require a response from the beneficiary or applicant, participant, or employee.
</P>
<P>(uuu) <I>Wheelchair</I> means a manually-operated or power-driven device designed primarily for use by an individual with a mobility disability for the main purpose of indoor and/or outdoor locomotion.
</P>
<P>(vvv) <I>WIOA</I> means the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act.
</P>
<P>(www) <I>WIOA Title I financial assistance,</I> see the definition of “Financial assistance under WIOA” in this section.
</P>
<P>(xxx) <I>WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A program or activity, operated by a recipient and financially assisted, in whole or in part, under Title I of WIOA that provides either:
</P>
<P>(i) Any aid, benefit, service, or training to individuals; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilities for furnishing any aid, benefits, services, or training to individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Aid, benefit, service, or training provided in facilities that are being or were constructed with the aid of Federal financial assistance under WIOA Title I; or
</P>
<P>(3) Aid, benefit, service, or training provided with the aid of any non-WIOA Title I financial assistance, property, or other resources that are required to be expended or made available in order for the program to meet matching requirements or other conditions which must be met in order to receive the WIOA Title I financial assistance. See the definition of “aid, benefit, service, or training” in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.5   General prohibitions on discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>No individual in the United States may, on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or political affiliation or belief, or, for beneficiaries, applicants, and participants only, on the basis of citizenship or participation in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, be excluded from participation in, denied the benefits of, subjected to discrimination under, or denied employment in the administration of or in connection with any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.6   Specific discriminatory actions prohibited on bases other than disability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this section, prohibited bases for discrimination are race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, and political affiliation and belief, and, for beneficiaries, applicants, and participants only, citizenship and participation in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient must not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on a prohibited basis:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny an individual any aid, benefit, service, or training provided under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide to an individual any aid, benefit, service, or training that is different, or is provided in a different manner, from that provided to others under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(3) Subject an individual to segregation or separate treatment in any matter related to receipt of any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(4) Restrict an individual in any way in the enjoyment of any advantage or privilege enjoyed by others receiving any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(5) Treat an individual differently from others in determining whether the individual satisfies any admission, enrollment, eligibility, membership, or other requirement or condition for any aid, benefit, service, or training provided under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(6) Deny or limit an individual with respect to any opportunity to participate in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, or afford the individual an opportunity to do so that is different from the opportunity afforded others under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(7) Deny an individual the opportunity to participate as a member of a planning or advisory body that is an integral part of the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(8) Otherwise limit an individual enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving any WIOA Title I-financially assisted aid, benefit, service, or training.
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient must not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements:
</P>
<P>(1) Aid or perpetuate discrimination by providing significant assistance to an agency, organization, or person that discriminates on a basis prohibited by WIOA Section 188 or this part in providing any aid, benefit, service, or training, to registrants, applicants or participants in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(2) Refuse to accommodate an individual's religious practices or beliefs, unless to do so would result in undue hardship, as defined in § 38.4(rrr)(2).
</P>
<P>(d)(1) In making any of the determinations listed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, either directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, a recipient must not use standards, procedures, criteria, or administrative methods that have any of the following purposes or effects:
</P>
<P>(i) Subjecting individuals to discrimination on a prohibited basis; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeating or substantially impairing, on a prohibited basis, accomplishment of the objectives of either:
</P>
<P>(A) The WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(B) The nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The determinations to which this paragraph (d) applies include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The types of aid, benefit, service, training, or facilities that will be provided under any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The class of individuals to whom such aid, benefit, service, training, or facilities will be provided; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The situations in which such aid, benefit, service, training, or facilities will be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (d) of this section applies to the administration of WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs or activities providing any aid, benefit, service, training, or facilities in any manner, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Outreach and recruitment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Registration;
</P>
<P>(iii) Counseling and guidance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testing;
</P>
<P>(v) Selection, placement, appointment, and referral;
</P>
<P>(vi) Training; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Promotion and retention.
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient must not take any of the prohibited actions listed in paragraph (d) of this section either directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements.
</P>
<P>(e) In determining the site or location of facilities, a grant applicant or recipient must not make selections that have any of the following purposes or effects:
</P>
<P>(1) On a prohibited basis:
</P>
<P>(i) Excluding individuals from a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Denying them the benefits of such a program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Subjecting them to discrimination; or
</P>
<P>(2) Defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of either:
</P>
<P>(i) The WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) 29 CFR part 2, subpart D, governs the circumstances under which Department support, including under WIOA Title I financial assistance, may be used to employ or train participants in religious activities. Under that subpart, such assistance may be used for such employment or training only when the assistance is provided indirectly within the meaning of the Establishment Clause of the U.S. Constitution, and not when the assistance is provided directly. As explained in that subpart, assistance provided through an Individual Training Account is generally considered indirect, and other mechanisms may also be considered indirect. See also 20 CFR 683.255 and 683.285. 29 CFR part 2, subpart D, also contains requirements related to equal treatment of religious organizations in Department of Labor programs, and to protection of religious liberty for Department of Labor social service providers and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) Except under the circumstances described in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, a recipient must not employ participants to carry out the construction, operation, or maintenance of any part of any facility that is used, or to be used, for religious instruction or as a place for religious worship.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient may employ participants to carry out the maintenance of a facility that is not primarily or inherently devoted to religious instruction or religious worship if the organization operating the facility is part of a program or activity providing services to participants.
</P>
<P>(g) The exclusion of an individual from programs or activities limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to a certain class or classes of individuals of which the individual in question is not a member is not prohibited by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.7   Discrimination prohibited based on sex.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In providing any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, a recipient must not directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, discriminate on the basis of sex. An individual may not be excluded from participation in, denied the benefits of, or subjected to discrimination under any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity based on sex. The term sex includes, but is not limited to, pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions, transgender status, and gender identity.
</P>
<P>(b) Recipients may not make any distinction based on sex in providing any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity. Such unlawful sex-based discriminatory practices include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Making a distinction between married and unmarried persons that is not applied equally to both sexes;
</P>
<P>(2) Denying individuals of one sex who have children access to any aid, benefit, service, or training that is available to individuals of another sex who have children;
</P>
<P>(3) Adversely treating unmarried individuals of one sex, but not unmarried individuals of another sex, who become parents;
</P>
<P>(4) Distinguishing on the basis of sex in formal or informal job training and/or educational programs, other opportunities such as networking, mentoring, individual development plans, or on the job training opportunities;
</P>
<P>(5) Posting job announcements for jobs that recruit or advertise for individuals for certain jobs on the basis of sex;
</P>
<P>(6) Treating an individual adversely because the individual identifies with a gender different from that individual's sex assigned at birth, or the individual has undergone, is undergoing, or is planning to undergo, any processes or procedures designed to facilitate the individual's transition to a sex other than the individual's sex assigned at birth;
</P>
<P>(7) Denying individuals who are pregnant, who become pregnant, or who plan to become pregnant opportunities for or access to any aid, benefit, service, or training on the basis of pregnancy (see also § 38.8);
</P>
<P>(8) Making any facilities associated with WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activities available only to members of one sex, except that if the recipient provides restrooms or changing facilities, the recipient may provide separate or single-user restrooms or changing facilities; and
</P>
<P>(9) Denying individuals access to the restrooms, locker rooms, showers, or similar facilities consistent with the gender with which they identify.
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient's policies or practices that have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex and that lack a substantial legitimate justification constitute sex discrimination in violation of WIOA and this part. Such unlawful sex-based discriminatory practices include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Height or weight qualifications that lack a substantial legitimate justification and that negatively affect women substantially more than men.
</P>
<P>(2) Strength, agility, or other physical requirements that lack a substantial legitimate justification and that negatively affect women substantially more than men.
</P>
<P>(d) Discrimination on the basis of sex stereotypes, such as stereotypes about how persons of a particular sex are expected to look, speak, or act, is a form of unlawful sex discrimination. Examples of sex stereotyping include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Denying an individual access to, or otherwise subjecting the individual to adverse treatment in accessing, any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity because of that individual's failure to comply with gender norms and expectations for dress, appearance and/or behavior, including wearing jewelry, make-up, high-heeled shoes, suits, or neckties.
</P>
<P>(2) Harassment or other adverse treatment of a male applicant, participant, or beneficiary of a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity because he is considered effeminate or insufficiently masculine.
</P>
<P>(3) Adverse treatment of an applicant, participant, or beneficiary of a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity because of the individual's actual or perceived gender identity.
</P>
<P>(4) Adverse treatment of an applicant, participant, or beneficiary of a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity based on sex stereotypes about caregiver responsibilities. For example, adverse treatment of a female participant because of a sex-based assumption that she has (or will have) family caretaking responsibilities, and that those responsibilities will interfere with her ability to access any aid, benefit, service, or training, is discrimination based on sex.
</P>
<P>(5) Adverse treatment of a male applicant, participant, or beneficiary of a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity because he has taken, or is planning to take, care of his newborn or recently adopted or fostered child, based on the sex-stereotyped belief that women, and not men, should care for children.
</P>
<P>(6) Denying a woman access to, or otherwise subjecting her to adverse treatment in accessing, any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, based on the sex-stereotyped belief that women with children should not work long hours, regardless of whether the recipient is acting out of hostility or belief that it is acting in her or her children's best interest.
</P>
<P>(7) Denying an individual access to, or otherwise subjecting the individual to adverse treatment in accessing, any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, based on sex stereotyping including the belief that a victim of domestic violence would disrupt the program or activity and/or may be unable to access any aid, benefit, service, or training.
</P>
<P>(8) Adverse treatment of a woman applicant, participant, or beneficiary of a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity because she does not dress or talk in a feminine manner.
</P>
<P>(9) Denying an individual access to, failing to provide information about, or otherwise subjecting the individual to adverse treatment in accessing, any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, because the individual does not conform to a sex stereotype about individuals of a particular sex working in a specific job, sector, or industry.
</P>
<P>(10) Adverse treatment of an applicant, participant, or beneficiary of a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity based on sexual orientation where the evidence establishes that the discrimination is based on gender stereotypes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.8   Discrimination prohibited based on pregnancy.</HEAD>
<P>Discrimination on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, including childbearing capacity, is a form of sex discrimination and a violation of the nondiscrimination provisions of WIOA and this part. Recipients may not treat persons of childbearing capacity, or those affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, adversely in accessing any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity. In their covered employment practices, recipients must treat people of childbearing capacity and those affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions the same for all employment-related purposes, including receipt of benefits under fringe-benefit programs, as other persons not so affected but similar in their ability or inability to work. Related medical conditions include, but are not limited to: Lactation; disorders directly related to pregnancy, such as preeclampsia (pregnancy-induced high blood pressure), placenta previa, and gestational diabetes; symptoms such as back pain; complications requiring bed rest; and the after-effects of a delivery. A pregnancy-related medical condition may also be a disability. See § 38.4(q)(3)(ii). Examples of unlawful pregnancy discrimination may include:
</P>
<P>(a) Refusing to provide any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity to a pregnant individual or an individual of childbearing capacity, or otherwise subjecting such individuals to adverse treatment on the basis of pregnancy or childbearing capacity;
</P>
<P>(b) Limiting an individual's access to any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity based on her pregnancy, or requiring a doctor's note in order for a pregnant woman to begin or continue participation while pregnant when doctors' notes are not required for participants who are similarly situated;
</P>
<P>(c) Denying an individual access to any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity or requiring the individual to terminate participation in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity when the individual becomes pregnant or has a child; and
</P>
<P>(d) Denying reasonable accommodations or modifications of policies, practices, or procedures to a pregnant applicant or participant who is temporarily unable to participate in some portions of a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity because of pregnancy, childbirth, and/or related medical conditions, when such accommodations or modifications are provided, or are required to be provided, by a recipient's policy or by other relevant laws, to other similarly situated applicants or participants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.9   Discrimination prohibited based on national origin, including limited English proficiency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In providing any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, a recipient must not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, discriminate on the basis of national origin, including limited English proficiency. An individual must not be excluded from participation in, denied the benefits of, or otherwise subjected to discrimination under, any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity based on national origin. National origin discrimination includes treating individual beneficiaries, participants, or applicants for any aid, benefit, service, or training under any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity adversely because they (or their families or ancestors) are from a particular country or part of the world, because of ethnicity or accent (including physical, linguistic, and cultural characteristics closely associated with a national origin group), or because the recipient perceives the individual to be of a certain national origin, even if they are not.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient must take reasonable steps to ensure meaningful access to each limited English proficient (LEP) individual served or encountered so that LEP individuals are effectively informed about and/or able to participate in the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(1) Reasonable steps generally may include, but are not limited to, an assessment of an LEP individual to determine language assistance needs; providing oral interpretation or written translation of both hard copy and electronic materials, in the appropriate non-English languages, to LEP individuals; and outreach to LEP communities to improve service delivery in needed languages.
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable steps to provide meaningful access to training programs may include, but are not limited to, providing:
</P>
<P>(i) Written training materials in appropriate non-English languages by written translation or by oral interpretation or summarization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Oral training content in appropriate non-English languages through in-person interpretation or telephone interpretation.
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient should ensure that every program delivery avenue (<I>e.g.,</I> electronic, in person, telephonic) conveys in the appropriate languages how an individual may effectively learn about, participate in, and/or access any aid, benefit, service, or training that the recipient provides. As a recipient develops new methods for delivery of information or assistance, it is required to take reasonable steps to ensure that LEP individuals remain able to learn about, participate in, and/or access any aid, benefit, service, or training that the recipient provides.
</P>
<P>(d) Any language assistance services, whether oral interpretation or written translation, must be accurate, provided in a timely manner and free of charge. Language assistance will be considered timely when it is provided at a place and time that ensures equal access and avoids the delay or denial of any aid, benefit, service, or training at issue.
</P>
<P>(e) A recipient must provide adequate notice to LEP individuals of the existence of interpretation and translation services and that these language assistance services are available free of charge.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) A recipient shall not require an LEP individual to provide their own interpreter.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient also shall not rely on an LEP individual's minor child or adult family or friend(s) to interpret or facilitate communication, except:
</P>
<P>(i) An LEP individual's minor child or adult family or friend(s) may interpret or facilitate communication in emergency situations while awaiting a qualified interpreter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The accompanying adult (but not minor child) may interpret or facilitate communication when the information conveyed is of minimal importance to the services to be provided or when the LEP individual specifically requests that the accompanying adult provide language assistance, the accompanying adult agrees to provide assistance, and reliance on that adult for such assistance is appropriate under the circumstances. When the recipient permits the accompanying adult to provide such assistance, it must make and retain a record of the LEP individual's decision to use their own interpreter.
</P>
<P>(3) Where precise, complete, and accurate interpretations or translation of information and/or testimony are critical for adjudicatory or legal reasons, or where the competency of the interpreter requested by the LEP individual is not established, a recipient may decide to provide its own, independent interpreter, even if an LEP individual wants to use their own interpreter as well.
</P>
<P>(g) With regard to vital information:
</P>
<P>(1) For languages spoken by a significant number or portion of the population eligible to be served, or likely to be encountered, a recipient must translate vital information in written materials into these languages and make the translations readily available in hard copy, upon request, or electronically such as on a Web site. Written training materials offered or used within employment-related training programs as defined under § 38.4(t) are excluded from these translation requirements. However, recipients must take reasonable steps to ensure meaningful access as stated in § 38.9(b).
</P>
<P>(2) For languages not spoken by a significant number or portion of the population eligible to be served, or likely to be encountered, a recipient must take reasonable steps to meet the particularized language needs of LEP individuals who seek to learn about, participate in, and/or access the aid, benefit, service, or training that the recipient provides. Vital information may be conveyed orally if not translated.
</P>
<P>(3) Recipients must include a “Babel notice,” indicating in appropriate languages that language assistance is available, in all communications of vital information, such as hard copy letters or decisions or those communications posted on Web sites.
</P>
<P>(h) To the extent otherwise required by this part, once a recipient becomes aware of the non-English preferred language of an LEP beneficiary, participant, or applicant for aid, benefit, service, or training, the recipient must convey vital information in that language.
</P>
<P>(i) Recipients are required to take reasonable steps to provide language assistance and should develop a written language access plan to ensure that LEP individuals have meaningful access. The appendix to this section provides guidance to recipients on developing a language access plan.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix to § 38.9—Guidance to Recipients
</HD1>
<HD1>Recipient Language Assistance Plan (LEP Plan): Promising Practices
</HD1>
<P>The guidelines in this appendix are consistent with and, in large part, derived from existing federal guidance to federal financial assistance recipients to take reasonable steps to ensure meaningful access by limited English proficient (LEP) individuals.
</P>
<P>Recipients that develop, implement, and periodically revise a written language assistance plan are more likely to fulfill their obligation of taking reasonable steps to ensure access to programs and activities by LEP individuals. The guidelines set forth below provide a clear framework for developing a written plan that will ensure meaningful access to LEP individuals. Developing and implementing a written plan has many benefits, including providing the recipient with a roadmap for establishing and documenting compliance with nondiscrimination obligations and ensuring that LEP beneficiaries receive the necessary assistance to participate in the recipient's programs and activities.
</P>
<P>The elements of a successful LEP plan are not fixed. Written LEP plans must be tailored to the recipient's specific programs and activities. And, over time, plans will need to be revised to reflect new recommendations and government guidance; changes in the recipient's operations, as well as the recipient's experiences and lessons learned; changing demographics; and stakeholder and beneficiary feedback. Nonetheless, a recipient that develops an LEP plan incorporating the elements identified below will benefit greatly in accomplishing its mission and providing an equal opportunity for LEP individuals to participate in its programs and activities.
</P>
<P>A written LEP plan should identify and describe:
</P>
<FP-2>1. The process the recipient will use to determine the language needs of individuals who may or may seek to participate in the recipient's program and activities (self- or needs-assessment)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2. The results of the assessment, <I>e.g.,</I> identifying the LEP populations to be served by the recipient
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3. Timelines for implementing the written LEP plan
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4. All language services to be provided to LEP individuals
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5. The manner in which LEP individuals will be advised of available services
</FP-2>
<FP-2>6. Steps individuals should take to request language assistance
</FP-2>
<FP-2>7. The manner in which staff will provide language assistance services
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8. What steps must be taken to implement the LEP plan, <I>e.g.,</I> creating or modifying policy documents, employee manuals, employee training material, posters, Web sites, outreach material, contracts, and electronic and information technologies, applications, or adaptations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>9. The manner in which staff will be trained
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10. Steps the recipient will take to ensure quality control, including monitoring implementation, establishing a complaint process, timely addressing complaints, and obtaining feedback from stakeholders and employees
</FP-2>
<FP-2>11. The manner in which the recipient will document the provision of language assistance services
</FP-2>
<FP-2>12. The schedule for revising the LEP plan
</FP-2>
<FP-2>13. The individual(s) assigned to oversee implementation of the plan (<I>e.g.,</I> LEP Coordinator or Program Manager)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>14. Allocation of resources to implement the plan
</FP-2>
<HD1>Illustrative Applications in Recipient Programs and Activities
</HD1>
<HD2>Unemployment Insurance Program Example
</HD2>
<P>1. Unemployment insurance programs are recipients covered under this rule, and States must take reasonable steps to provide meaningful access to LEP individuals served or encountered in their unemployment insurance programs and activities. For example, given the nature and importance of unemployment insurance, if an LEP individual who speaks Urdu seeks information about unemployment insurance from a State's telephone call center that assists unemployment insurance enrollees and applicants, the State may consider the proportion of Urdu-speaking LEP individuals served or encountered by the State's unemployment insurance program; the frequency with which Urdu-speaking LEP individuals come in contact with the State's unemployment insurance program; and the resources available to the State and costs in determining how it will provide this LEP individual with language assistance. Urdu is a language that is rarely, if ever, encountered by this State's UI program. Because low-cost commercial language services, such as telephonic oral interpretation services, are widely available, the State should, at a minimum, provide the Urdu-speaking LEP individual telephonic interpretation services to ensure meaningful access to unemployment insurance because, even if Urdu is a non-frequently encountered, non-English language, low-cost commercial language services, such as telephonic oral interpretation services, are widely available.
</P>
<HD1>Population Significance as It Pertains to Vital Information
</HD1>
<P>2. Recipients have some flexibility as to the means to provide language assistance services to LEP individuals, as long as they take reasonable steps to provide meaningful access to their program or activity. For instance, if a recipient provides career services to an LEP individual who speaks Tagalog and the individual requests a translated brochure on an upcoming job fair, the recipient should consider the importance of the information in the brochure, and may consider: The proportion of Tagalog-speaking LEP individuals served or encountered; the frequency with which Tagalog-speaking LEP individuals come in contact with the recipient; and the resources available to the recipient. In this instance, the recipient would be required to provide a written translation of the brochure for the LEP individual if Tagalog were a language spoken by a significant number or proportion of the LEP persons in the eligible service population and a language frequently encountered in the career services program. But if Tagalog is not spoken by a significant number or proportion of the population eligible to be served, and was not frequently encountered by the career services program, it would be reasonable for the recipient to provide an oral summary of the brochure's contents in Tagalog.
</P>
<HD1>Training Provider Example Incorporating English Language Learning
</HD1>
<P>3. Providing English language learning opportunities may be one step that a recipient takes in order to take reasonable steps to provide an LEP individual meaningful access to its programs or activities. For example, John, a Korean-speaking LEP individual, learns through the one-stop center about available welding positions at ABC Welding, Co. He also learns through the one-stop center about upcoming welder training courses offered at XYZ Technical Institute, an eligible training provider. John decides to enroll in one of the XYZ welding courses. XYZ, which conducts its training courses in English, must take reasonable steps to provide John meaningful access to the welder training course.
</P>
<P>Recipients may work together to provide meaningful access, but remain independently obligated to take reasonable steps to provide meaningful access to programs and activities. In this regard, XYZ is not required to administer an English language learning class itself. Instead, XYZ may coordinate with the one-stop center to ensure that John receives appropriate English language learning either directly from the one-stop or from another organization that provides such English language training. The English language class would not be offered to John instead of the training program, but John could attend the English language class at the same time as or prior to the training program. Whether John takes the English class before or concurrently with the welding course will depend on many factors including an objective, individualized analysis of John's English proficiency relative to the welding course. Regardless of how the English language learning is delivered, it must be provided at no cost to John.
</P>
<P>In evaluating whether reasonable steps include oral interpretation, translation, English language learning, another language service, or some combination of these services, XYZ may work with the one-stop center to provide meaningful access to John.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.10   Harassment prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Harassment of an individual based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or political affiliation or belief, or, for beneficiaries, applicants, and participants only, based on citizenship status or participation in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, is a violation of the nondiscrimination provisions of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(a) Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, or offensive remarks about a person's race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, political affiliation or belief, or citizenship or participation, and other unwelcome verbal or physical conduct based on one or more of these protected categories constitutes unlawful harassment on that basi(e)s when:
</P>
<P>(1) Submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of accessing the aid, benefit, service, or training of, or employment in the administration of or in connection with, any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for limiting that individual's access to any aid, benefit, service, training, or employment from, or employment in the administration of or in connection with, any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's participation in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity creating an intimidating, hostile or offensive program environment.
</P>
<P>(b) Harassment because of sex includes harassment based on gender identity; harassment based on failure to comport with sex stereotypes; harassment based on pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions; and sex-based harassment that is not sexual in nature but that is because of sex or where one sex is targeted for the harassment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.11   Discrimination prohibited based on citizenship status.</HEAD>
<P>In providing any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, a recipient must not directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, discriminate on the basis of citizenship status. Individuals protected under this section include citizens and nationals of the United States, lawfully admitted permanent resident aliens, refugees, asylees, and parolees, and other immigrants authorized by the Secretary of Homeland Security or the Secretary's designee to work in the United States. Citizenship discrimination occurs when a recipient maintains and enforces policies and procedures that have the purpose or effect of discriminating against individual beneficiaries, applicants, and participants, on the basis of their status as citizens or nationals of the United States, lawfully admitted permanent resident aliens, refugees, asylees, and parolees, or other immigrants authorized by the Secretary of Homeland Security or the Secretary's designee to work in the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.12   Discrimination prohibited based on disability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In providing any aid, benefit, service, or training under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, a recipient must not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, service, or training, including meaningful opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated settings;
</P>
<P>(2) Afford a qualified individual with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefits, services, or training that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a qualified individual with a disability with any aid, benefit, service, or training that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide different, segregated, or separate aid, benefit, service, or training to individuals with disabilities, or to any class of individuals with disabilities, unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with any aid, benefit, service, or training that is as effective as those provided to others, and consistent with the requirements of the Rehabilitation Act as amended by WIOA, including those provisions that prioritize opportunities in competitive integrated employment;
</P>
<P>(5) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(6) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with a disability in enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving any aid, benefit, service, or training.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient must not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, aid or perpetuate discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities by providing significant assistance to an agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of disability in providing any aid, benefit, service, or training to registrants, applicants, or participants.
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient must not deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs or activities despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(d) A recipient must administer WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(e) A recipient must not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, use standards, procedures, criteria, or administrative methods:
</P>
<P>(1) That have the purpose or effect of subjecting qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability;
</P>
<P>(2) That have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing accomplishment of the objectives of the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities; or
</P>
<P>(3) That perpetuate the discrimination of another entity if both entities are subject to common administrative control or are agencies of the same State.
</P>
<P>(f) In determining the site or location of facilities, a grant applicant or recipient must not make selections that have any of the following purposes or effects:
</P>
<P>(1) On the basis of disability:
</P>
<P>(i) Excluding qualified individuals from a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Denying qualified individuals the benefits of such a program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Subjecting qualified individuals to discrimination; or
</P>
<P>(2) Defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the disability-related objectives of either:
</P>
<P>(i) The WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(g) A recipient, in the selection of contractors, must not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>(h) A recipient must not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may a recipient establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability. The programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by a recipient are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(i) A recipient must not impose or apply eligibility criteria that screen out or tend to screen out individuals with disabilities or any class of individuals with disabilities from fully and equally enjoying any aid, benefit, service, training, program, or activity, unless such criteria can be shown to be necessary for the provision of any aid, benefit, service, training, program, or activity being offered.
</P>
<P>(j) Nothing in this part prohibits a recipient from providing any aid, benefit, service, training, or advantages to individuals with disabilities, or to a particular class of individuals with disabilities, beyond those required by this part.
</P>
<P>(k) A recipient must not place a surcharge on a particular individual with a disability, or any group of individuals with disabilities, to cover the costs of measures, such as the provision of auxiliary aids or program accessibility, that are required to provide that individual or group with the nondiscriminatory treatment required by WIOA Title I or this part.
</P>
<P>(l) A recipient must not exclude, or otherwise deny equal aid, benefits, services, training, programs, or activities to, an individual or entity because of the known disability of an individual with whom the individual or entity is known to have a relationship or association.
</P>
<P>(m) The exclusion of an individual without a disability from the benefits of a program limited by federal law to individuals with disabilities, or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with disabilities from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to a different class of individuals with disabilities, is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(n) This part does not require a recipient to provide any of the following to individuals with disabilities:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal devices, such as wheelchairs;
</P>
<P>(2) Individually prescribed devices, such as prescription eyeglasses or hearing aids;
</P>
<P>(3) Readers for personal use or study; or
</P>
<P>(4) Services of a personal nature, including assistance in eating, toileting, or dressing.
</P>
<P>(o)(1) Nothing in this part requires an individual with a disability to accept any accommodation, aid, benefit, service, training, or opportunity provided under WIOA Title I or this part that such individual chooses not to accept.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this part authorizes the representative or guardian of an individual with a disability to decline food, water, medical treatment, or medical services for that individual.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Claims of no disability.</I> Nothing in this part provides the basis for a claim that an individual without a disability was subject to discrimination because of a lack of disability, including a claim that an individual with a disability was granted auxiliary aids or services, reasonable modifications, or reasonable accommodations that were denied to an individual without a disability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.13   Accessibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Physical accessibility.</I> No qualified individual with a disability may be excluded from participation in, or be denied the benefits of a recipient's service, program, or activity or be subjected to discrimination by any recipient because a recipient's facilities are inaccessible or unusable by individuals with disabilities. Recipients that are subject to Title II of the ADA must also ensure that new facilities or alterations of facilities that began construction after January 26, 1992, comply with the applicable federal accessible design standards, such as the ADA Standards for Accessible Design (1991 or 2010) or the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards. In addition, recipients that receive federal financial assistance must meet their accessibility obligations under Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act and the implementing regulations at 29 CFR part 32. Some recipients may be subject to additional accessibility requirements under other statutory authority, including Title III of the ADA, that is not enforced by CRC. As indicated in § 38.3(d)(10), compliance with this part does not affect a recipient's obligation to comply with the applicable ADA Standards for Accessible Design.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Programmatic accessibility.</I> All WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs and activities must be programmatically accessible, which includes providing reasonable accommodations for individuals with disabilities, making reasonable modifications to policies, practices, and procedures, administering programs in the most integrated setting appropriate, communicating with persons with disabilities as effectively as with others, and providing appropriate auxiliary aids or services, including assistive technology devices and services, where necessary to afford individuals with disabilities an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.14   Reasonable accommodations and reasonable modifications for individuals with disabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With regard to any aid, benefit, service, training, and employment, a recipient must provide reasonable accommodations to qualified individuals with disabilities who are applicants, registrants, eligible applicants/registrants, participants, employees, or applicants for employment, unless providing the accommodation would cause undue hardship. See the definitions of “reasonable accommodation” and “undue hardship” in § 38.4(rrr)(1).
</P>
<P>(1) In those circumstances where a recipient believes that the proposed accommodation would cause undue hardship, the recipient has the burden of proving that the accommodation would result in such hardship.
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient must make the decision that the accommodation would cause such hardship only after considering all factors listed in the definition of “undue hardship” in § 38.4(rrr)(1). The decision must be accompanied by a written statement of the recipient's reasons for reaching that conclusion. The recipient must provide a copy of the statement of reasons to the individual or individuals who requested the accommodation.
</P>
<P>(3) If a requested accommodation would result in undue hardship, the recipient must, after consultation with an individual with a disability (or individuals with disabilities), take any other action that would not result in such hardship, but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the aid, benefit, service, training, or employment provided by the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) With regard to any aid, benefit, service, training, and employment, a recipient must also make reasonable modifications in policies, practices, or procedures when the modifications are necessary to avoid discrimination on the basis of disability, unless making the modifications would fundamentally alter the nature of the service, program, or activity. See the definition of “fundamental alteration” in § 38.4(z).
</P>
<P>(1) In those circumstances where a recipient believes that the proposed modification would fundamentally alter the program, activity, or service, the recipient has the burden of proving that the modification would result in such an alteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient must make the decision that the modification would result in such an alteration only after considering all factors listed in the definition of “fundamental alteration” in § 38.4(z). The decision must be accompanied by a written statement of the recipient's reasons for reaching that conclusion. The recipient must provide a copy of the statement of reasons to the individual or individuals who requested the modification.
</P>
<P>(3) If a modification would result in a fundamental alteration, the recipient must take any other action that would not result in such an alteration, but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the aid, benefits, services, training, or employment provided by the recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.15   Communications with individuals with disabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Communications with individuals with disabilities.</I> (i) A recipient must take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with individuals with disabilities, such as beneficiaries, registrants, applicants, eligible applicants/registrants, participants, applicants for employment, employees, members of the public, and their companions are as effective as communications with others.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, “companion” means a family member, friend, or associate of an individual seeking access to an aid, benefit, service, training, program, or activity of a recipient, who, along with such individual, is an appropriate person with whom the recipient should communicate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Auxiliary aids and services.</I> (i) A recipient must furnish appropriate auxiliary aids and services where necessary to afford individuals with disabilities, including beneficiaries, registrants, applicants, eligible applicants/registrants, participants, members of the public, and companions, an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a WIOA Title I-financially assisted service, program, or activity of a recipient.
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of auxiliary aid or service necessary to ensure effective communication will vary in accordance with the method of communication used by the individual; the nature, length, and complexity of the communication involved; and the context in which the communication is taking place. In determining what types of auxiliary aids and services are necessary, a recipient must give primary consideration to the requests of individuals with disabilities. In order to be effective, auxiliary aids and services must be provided in accessible formats, in a timely manner, and in such a way as to protect the privacy and independence of the individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interpreters.</I> (i) A recipient must not require an individual with a disability to bring another individual to interpret for him or her.
</P>
<P>(ii) A recipient must not rely on an adult accompanying an individual with a disability to interpret or facilitate communication except—
</P>
<P>(A) In an emergency involving an imminent threat to the safety or welfare of an individual or the public where there is no interpreter available; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the individual with a disability specifically requests that an accompanying adult interpret or facilitate communication, the accompanying adult agrees to provide such assistance, and reliance on that adult for such assistance is appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(iii) A recipient must not rely on a minor child to interpret or facilitate communication, except in an emergency involving an imminent threat to the safety or welfare of an individual or the public where there is no interpreter available.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Video remote interpreting (VRI) services.</I> A recipient that chooses to provide qualified interpreters via VRI services must ensure that it provides—
</P>
<P>(i) Real-time, full-motion video and audio over a dedicated high-speed, wide-bandwidth video connection or wireless connection that delivers high-quality video images that do not produce lags, choppy, blurry, or grainy images, or irregular pauses in communication;
</P>
<P>(ii) A sharply delineated image that is large enough to display the interpreter's face, arms, hands, and fingers, and the participating individual's face, arms, hands, and fingers, regardless of the individual's body position;
</P>
<P>(iii) A clear, audible transmission of voices; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Adequate training to users of the technology and other involved individuals so that they may quickly and efficiently set up and operate the VRI.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electronic and information technology.</I> When developing, procuring, maintaining, or using electronic and information technology, a recipient must utilize electronic and information technologies, applications, or adaptations which:
</P>
<P>(i) Incorporate accessibility features for individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are consistent with modern accessibility standards, such as Section 508 Standards (36 CFR part 1194) and W3C's Web Content Accessibility Guidelines (WCAG) 2.0 AA; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide individuals with disabilities access to, and use of, information, resources, programs, and activities that are fully accessible, or ensure that the opportunities and benefits provided by the electronic and information technologies are provided to individuals with disabilities in an equally effective and equally integrated manner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Telecommunications.</I> (1) Where a recipient communicates by telephone with beneficiaries, registrants, applicants, eligible applicants/registrants, participants, applicants for employment, employees, and/or members of the public, text telephones (TTYs) or equally effective telecommunications systems must be used to communicate with individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing or have speech impairments.
</P>
<P>(2) When a recipient uses an automated-attendant system, including, but not limited to, voicemail and messaging, or an interactive voice response system, for receiving and directing incoming telephone calls, that system must provide effective real-time communication with individuals using auxiliary aids and services, including TTYs and all forms of FCC-approved telecommunications relay systems, including internet-based relay systems.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient must respond to telephone calls from a telecommunications relay service established under title IV of the Americans with Disabilities Act in the same manner that it responds to other telephone calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information and signage.</I> (1) A recipient must ensure that interested individuals, including individuals with visual or hearing impairments, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A recipient must provide signage at the public entrances to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The signage provided must meet the Standards for Accessible Design under the Americans with Disabilities Act. Alternative standards for the signage may be adopted when it is clearly evident that such alternative standards provide equivalent or greater access to the information. See 36 CFR part 1191, appendix B, section 103.
</P>
<P>(ii) The international symbol for accessibility must be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fundamental alteration.</I> This section does not require a recipient to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a WIOA Title I-financially assisted service, program, or activity.
</P>
<P>(1) In those circumstances where a recipient believes that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program, activity, or service, the recipient has the burden of proving that compliance with this section would result in such an alteration.
</P>
<P>(2) The decision that compliance would result in such an alteration must be made by the recipient after considering all resources available for use in the funding and operation of the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program, activity, or service, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the recipient's reasons for reaching that conclusion.
</P>
<P>(3) If an action required to comply with this section would result in the fundamental alteration described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the recipient must take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens, but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the benefits or services provided by the recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.16" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.16   Service animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Generally, a recipient shall modify its policies, practices, or procedures to permit the use of a service animal by an individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> A recipient may ask an individual with a disability to remove a service animal from the premises if—
</P>
<P>(1) The animal is out of control and the animal's handler does not take effective action to control it; or
</P>
<P>(2) The animal is not housebroken.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>If an animal is properly excluded.</I> If a recipient properly excludes a service animal under paragraph (b) of this section, the recipient must give the individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in the WIOA Title I-financially assisted service, program, or activity without having the service animal on the premises.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Animal under handler's control.</I> A service animal must be under the control of its handler. A service animal must have a harness, leash, or other tether, unless either the handler is unable because of a disability to use a harness, leash, or other tether, or the use of a harness, leash, or other tether would interfere with the service animal's safe, effective performance of work or tasks, in which case the service animal must be otherwise under the handler's control (<I>e.g.,</I> voice control, signals, or other effective means).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Care or supervision.</I> A recipient is not responsible for the care or supervision of a service animal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inquiries.</I> A recipient must not ask about the nature or extent of a person's disability, but may make two inquiries to determine whether an animal qualifies as a service animal. A recipient may ask if the animal is required because of a disability and what work or task the animal has been trained to perform. A recipient must not require documentation, such as proof that the animal has been certified, trained, or licensed as a service animal. Generally, a recipient may not make these inquiries about a service animal when it is readily apparent that an animal is trained to do work or perform tasks for an individual with a disability (<I>e.g.,</I> the dog is observed guiding an individual who is blind or has low vision, pulling a person's wheelchair, or providing assistance with stability or balance to an individual with an observable mobility disability).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Access to areas of a recipient's facilities.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In general.</I> Individuals with disabilities must be permitted to be accompanied by their service animals in all areas of a recipient's facilities where members of the public, participants in services, programs or activities, beneficiaries, registrants, applicants, eligible applicants/registrants, applicants for employment and employees, or invitees, as relevant, are allowed to go.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of service animals in food preparation areas.</I> An employee, applicant or beneficiary with a disability who needs to use a service animal in a food preparation area must be allowed to do so unless the employer recipient, after an individualized assessment, can demonstrate, that the presence of the service animal presents a direct threat to health or safety that cannot be eliminated or reduced by a reasonable accommodation to the employee, applicant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Surcharges.</I> A recipient must not ask or require an individual with a disability to pay a surcharge because of the individual's service animal, even if people accompanied by pets are required to pay fees, or to comply with other requirements generally not applicable to people without pets. If a recipient normally charges individuals for the damage they cause, an individual with a disability may be charged for damage caused by the individual's service animal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.17" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.17   Mobility aids and devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of wheelchairs and manually-powered mobility aids.</I> A recipient must permit individuals with mobility disabilities to use wheelchairs and manually-powered mobility aids, such as walkers, crutches, canes, braces, or other similar devices designed for use by individuals with mobility disabilities, in any areas open to pedestrian use.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Use of other power-driven mobility devices.</I> A recipient must make reasonable modifications in its policies, practices, or procedures to permit the use of other power-driven mobility devices by individuals with mobility disabilities, unless the recipient can demonstrate that the class of other power-driven mobility devices cannot be operated in accordance with legitimate safety requirements that the recipient has adopted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assessment factors.</I> In determining whether a particular other power-driven mobility device can be allowed in a specific facility as a reasonable modification under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a recipient must consider—
</P>
<P>(i) The type, size, weight, dimensions, and speed of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The facility's volume of pedestrian traffic (which may vary at different times of the day, week, month, or year);
</P>
<P>(iii) The facility's design and operational characteristics (<I>e.g.,</I> whether its WIOA Title I-financially assisted service, program, or activity is conducted indoors, its square footage, the density and placement of stationary devices, and the availability of storage for the device, if requested by the user);
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether legitimate safety requirements can be established to permit the safe operation of the other power-driven mobility device in the specific facility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the use of the other power-driven mobility device creates a substantial risk of serious harm to the immediate environment or natural or cultural resources, or poses a conflict with Federal land management laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.18   Employment practices covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employment practices covered.</I> It is an unlawful employment practice to discriminate on the basis of race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions, transgender status, and gender identity), national origin, age, disability, or political affiliation or belief in the administration of, or in connection with:
</P>
<P>(1) Any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any program or activity that is part of the one-stop delivery system and is operated by a one-stop partner listed in Section 121(b) of WIOA, to the extent that the program or activity is being conducted as part of the one-stop delivery system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employee selection procedures.</I> In implementing this section, a recipient must comply with the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, 41 CFR part 60-3, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards for employment-related investigations and reviews.</I> In any investigation or compliance review, the Director must consider Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) regulations, guidance and appropriate case law in determining whether a recipient has engaged in an unlawful employment practice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act.</I> As provided in § 38.3(b), 29 CFR part 32, subparts B and C and appendix A, which implement the requirements of Section 504 pertaining to employment practices and employment-related training, program accessibility, and reasonable accommodation, have been adopted by this part. Therefore, recipients must comply with the requirements set forth in those regulatory sections as well as the requirements listed in this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employers, employment agencies, or other entities.</I> (1) Recipients that are also employers, employment agencies, or other entities subject to or covered by Titles I and II of the ADA should be aware of obligations imposed by those titles. <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630 and 28 CFR part 35.
</P>
<P>(2) Recipients that are also employers, employment agencies, or other entities subject to or covered by Section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 793) must meet their obligations imposed by that provision.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Immigration and Nationality Act.</I> Similarly, recipients that are also employers covered by the anti-discrimination provision of the Immigration and Nationality Act should be aware of the obligations imposed by that provision. <I>See</I> 8 U.S.C. 1324b, as amended.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>State and local requirements.</I> This section does not preempt consistent State and local requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.19   Intimidation and retaliation prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient must not discharge, intimidate, retaliate, threaten, coerce or discriminate against any individual because the individual has:
</P>
<P>(1) Filed a complaint alleging a violation of Section 188 of WIOA or this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Opposed a practice prohibited by the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Furnished information to, or assisted or participated in any manner in, an investigation, review, hearing, or any other activity related to any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Administration of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Exercise of authority under those provisions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Exercise of privilege secured by those provisions; or
</P>
<P>(4) Otherwise exercised any rights and privileges under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The sanctions and penalties contained in Section 188(b) of WIOA or this part may be imposed against any recipient that engages in any such retaliation or intimidation, or fails to take appropriate steps to prevent such activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.20   Administration of this part.</HEAD>
<P>The Civil Rights Center, in the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, U.S. Department of Labor, is responsible for administering and enforcing the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part, and for developing and issuing policies, standards, guidance, and procedures for effecting compliance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.21   Interpretation of this part.</HEAD>
<P>The Director will make any rulings under, or interpretations of, the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.22   Delegation of administration and interpretation of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may from time to time assign to officials of other departments or agencies of the Federal Government (with the consent of such department or agency) responsibilities in connection with the effectuation of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part (other than responsibility for final decisions under § 38.112), including the achievement of effective coordination and maximum uniformity within the Department and within the executive branch of the Government in the application of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part to similar programs and similar situations.
</P>
<P>(b) Any action taken, determination made, or requirement imposed by an official of another department or agency acting under an assignment of responsibility under this section has the same effect as if the action had been taken by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.23   Coordination with other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a compliance review or complaint investigation under this part reveals possible violation of one or more of the laws listed in paragraph (b) of this section, or of any other Federal civil rights law, that is not also a violation of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part, the Director must attempt to notify the appropriate agency and provide it with all relevant documents and information.
</P>
<P>(b) This section applies to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Executive Order 11246, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 793);
</P>
<P>(3) The affirmative action provisions of the Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1974, as amended (38 U.S.C. 4212);
</P>
<P>(4) The Equal Pay Act of 1963, as amended (29 U.S.C. 206d);
</P>
<P>(5) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(6) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended (29 U.S.C. 621);
</P>
<P>(7) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(8) The anti-discrimination provision of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1324b); and
</P>
<P>(9) Any other Federal civil rights law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.1.73.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.24   Effect on other laws and policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect of State or local law or other requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part are not excused or reduced by any State or local law or other requirement that, on a prohibited basis, prohibits or limits an individual's eligibility to receive any aid, benefit, service, or training; to participate in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity; to be employed by any recipient; or to practice any occupation or profession.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of private organization rules.</I> The obligation to comply with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity and this part is not excused or reduced by any rule or regulation of any private organization, club, league or association that, on a prohibited basis, prohibits or limits an individual's eligibility to participate in any WIOA financially assisted program or activity to which this part applies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of possible future exclusion from employment opportunities.</I> A recipient must not exclude any individual from, or restrict any individual's participation in, any program or activity based on the recipient's belief or concern that the individual will encounter limited future employment opportunities because of the individual's race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, political affiliation or belief, citizenship status, or participation in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Recordkeeping and Other Affirmative Obligations of Recipients</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="73" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.73" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Assurances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.73.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.25   A grant applicant's obligation to provide a written assurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grant applicant's obligation to provide a written assurance.</I> (1) Each application for financial assistance, under Title I of WIOA, as defined in § 38.4, must include the following assurance:
</P>
<P>(i) As a condition to the award of financial assistance from the Department of Labor under Title I of WIOA, the grant applicant assures that it has the ability to comply with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of the following laws and will remain in compliance for the duration of the award of federal financial assistance:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 188 of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA), which prohibits discrimination against all individuals in the United States on the basis of race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions, transgender status, and gender identity), national origin (including limited English proficiency), age, disability, or political affiliation or belief, or against beneficiaries on the basis of either citizenship status or participation in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(B) Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, which prohibits discrimination on the bases of race, color and national origin;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, which prohibits discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(D) The Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, which prohibits discrimination on the basis of age; and
</P>
<P>(E) Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended, which prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in educational programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The grant applicant also assures that, as a recipient of WIOA Title I financial assistance, it will comply with 29 CFR part 38 and all other regulations implementing the laws listed above. This assurance applies to the grant applicant's operation of the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, and to all agreements the grant applicant makes to carry out the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity. The grant applicant understands that the United States has the right to seek judicial enforcement of this assurance.
</P>
<P>(2) The assurance is considered incorporated by operation of law in the grant, cooperative agreement, contract or other arrangement whereby Federal financial assistance under Title I of WIOA is made available, whether it is explicitly incorporated in such document and whether there is a written agreement between the Department and the recipient, between the Department and the Governor, between the Governor and the recipient, or between recipients. The assurance also may be incorporated in such grants, cooperative agreements, contracts, or other arrangements by reference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuing State Programs.</I> Each Strategic Four-Year State Plan submitted by a State to carry out a continuing WIOA financially assisted program or activity must provide the text of the assurance in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as a condition to the approval of the Four-Year Plan and the extension of any WIOA Title I assistance under the Plan. The State also must certify that it has developed and maintains a Nondiscrimination Plan under § 38.54.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.73.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.26   Duration and scope of the assurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the WIOA Title I financial assistance is intended to provide, or is in the form of, either personal property, real property, structures on real property, or interest in any such property or structures, the assurance will obligate the recipient, or (in the case of a subsequent transfer) the transferee, for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(1) The period during which the property is used either:
</P>
<P>(i) For a purpose for which WIOA Title I financial assistance is extended; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits; or
</P>
<P>(2) The period during which either:
</P>
<P>(i) The recipient retains ownership or possession of the property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The transferee retains ownership or possession of the property without compensating the Departmental grantmaking agency for the fair market value of that ownership or possession.
</P>
<P>(b) In all other cases, the assurance will obligate the recipient for the period during which WIOA Title I financial assistance is extended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.27" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.73.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.27   Covenants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where WIOA Title I financial assistance is provided in the form of a transfer of real property, structures, or improvements on real property or structures, or interests in real property or structures, the instrument effecting or recording the transfer must contain a covenant assuring nondiscrimination and equal opportunity for the period described in § 38.25(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) Where no Federal transfer of real property or interest therein from the Federal Government is involved, but real property or an interest therein is acquired or improved under a program of WIOA Title I financial assistance, the recipient must include the covenant described in paragraph (a) of this section in the instrument effecting or recording any subsequent transfer of such property.
</P>
<P>(c) When the property is obtained from the Federal Government, the covenant described in paragraph (a) of this section also may include a condition coupled with a right of reverter to the Department in the event of a breach of the covenant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="74" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.74" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Equal Opportunity Officers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.28" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.74.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.28   Designation of Equal Opportunity Officers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Governors.</I> Every Governor must designate an individual as a State-level Equal Opportunity Officer (State-level EO Officer), who reports directly to the Governor and is responsible for State Program-wide coordination of compliance with the equal opportunity and nondiscrimination requirements in WIOA and this part, including but not limited to §§ 38.51, 38.53, 38.54, and 38.55 for State Programs. The State-level EO Officer must have staff and resources sufficient to carry out these requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>All recipients.</I> Every recipient except small recipients and service providers, as defined in § 38.4(hhh) and (ggg), must designate a recipient-level Equal Opportunity Officer (recipient-level EO Officer), who reports directly to the individual in the highest-level position of authority for the entity that is the recipient, such as the Governor, the Administrator of the State Department of Employment Services, the Chair of the Local Workforce Development Board, the Chief Executive Officer, the Chief Operating Officer, or an equivalent official. The recipient-level EO Officer must have staff and resources sufficient to carry out the requirements of this section and § 38.31. The responsibilities of small recipients and service providers are described in §§ 38.32 and 38.33.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.29" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.74.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.29   Recipients' obligations regarding Equal Opportunity Officers.</HEAD>
<P>All recipients have the following obligations related to their EO Officers:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensuring that the EO Officer is a senior-level employee reporting directly to the individual in the highest-level position of authority for the entity that is the recipient, such as the Governor, the Administrator of the State Department of Employment Services, the Chair of the Local Workforce Development Board, the Chief Executive Officer, the Chief Operating Officer, or an equivalent official;
</P>
<P>(b) Designating an individual who can fulfill the responsibilities of an EO Officer as described in § 38.31;
</P>
<P>(c) Making the EO Officer's name, position title, address, and telephone number (voice and TDD/TTY) public;
</P>
<P>(d) Ensuring that the EO Officer's identity and contact information appear on all internal and external communications about the recipient's nondiscrimination and equal opportunity programs;
</P>
<P>(e) Assigning sufficient authority, staff, and resources to the EO Officer, and support of top management, to ensure compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part; and
</P>
<P>(f) Ensuring that the EO Officer and the EO Officer's staff are afforded the opportunity to receive (at the recipient's expense) the training necessary and appropriate to maintain competency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.30" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.74.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.30   Requisite skill and authority of Equal Opportunity Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The EO Officer must be a senior level employee of the recipient who has the knowledge, skills and abilities necessary to fulfill the responsibilities competently as described in this subpart. Depending upon the size of the recipient, the size of the recipient's WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs or activities, and the number of applicants, registrants, and participants served by the recipient, the EO Officer may, or may not, be assigned other duties. However, the EO Officer must not have other responsibilities or activities that create a conflict or the appearance of a conflict with the responsibilities of an EO Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.31" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.74.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.31   Equal Opportunity Officer responsibilities.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260623" REFID="2">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 37314, June 23, 2026.</XREF>
<P>An Equal Opportunity Officer is responsible for coordinating a recipient's obligations under this part. Those responsibilities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Serving as a recipient's liaison with CRC;
</P>
<P>(b) Monitoring and investigating the recipient's activities, and the activities of the entities that receive WIOA Title I-financial assistance from the recipient, to make sure that the recipient and its subrecipients are not violating their nondiscrimination and equal opportunity obligations under WIOA Title I and this part, which includes monitoring the collection of data required in this part to ensure compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity requirements of WIOA and this part;
</P>
<P>(c) Reviewing the recipient's written policies to make sure that those policies are nondiscriminatory;
</P>
<P>(d) Developing and publishing the recipient's procedures for processing discrimination complaints under §§ 38.72 through 38.73, including tracking the discrimination complaints filed against the recipient, developing procedures for investigating and resolving discrimination complaints filed against the recipient, making sure that those procedures are followed, and making available to the public, in appropriate languages and formats, the procedures for filing a complaint;
</P>
<P>(e) Conducting outreach and education about equal opportunity and nondiscrimination requirements consistent with § 38.40 and how an individual may file a complaint consistent with § 38.69;
</P>
<P>(f) Undergoing training (at the recipient's expense) to maintain competency of the EO Officer and staff, as required by the Director; and
</P>
<P>(g) If applicable, overseeing the development and implementation of the recipient's Nondiscrimination Plan under § 38.54.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.32" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.74.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.32   Small recipient Equal Opportunity Officer obligations.</HEAD>
<P>Although small recipients, as defined in § 38.4(hhh), do not need to designate EO Officers who have the full range of responsibilities listed in § 38.31, they must designate an individual who will be responsible for adopting and publishing complaint procedures, and processing complaints, as explained in §§ 38.72 through 38.75.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.33" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.74.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.33   Service provider Equal Opportunity Officer obligations.</HEAD>
<P>Service providers, as defined in § 38.4(ggg), are not required to designate an EO Officer. The obligation for ensuring service provider compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part rests with the Governor or LWDA grant recipient, as specified in the State's Nondiscrimination Plan.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="75" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.75" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Notice and Communication</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.34" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.75.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.34   Recipients' obligations to disseminate equal opportunity notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient must provide initial and continuing notice as defined in § 38.36 that it does not discriminate on any prohibited basis. This notice must be provided to:
</P>
<P>(1) Registrants, applicants, and eligible applicants/registrants;
</P>
<P>(2) Participants;
</P>
<P>(3) Applicants for employment and employees;
</P>
<P>(4) Unions or professional organizations that hold collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient;
</P>
<P>(5) Subrecipients that receive WIOA Title I financial assistance from the recipient; and
</P>
<P>(6) Members of the public, including those with impaired vision or hearing and those with limited English proficiency.
</P>
<P>(b) As provided in § 38.15, the recipient must take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with individuals with disabilities are as effective as communications with others and that this notice is provided in appropriate languages to ensure meaningful access for LEP individuals as described in § 38.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.35" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.75.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.35   Equal opportunity notice/poster.</HEAD>
<P>The notice must contain the following specific wording:
</P>
<FP>Equal Opportunity Is the Law
</FP>
<P>It is against the law for this recipient of Federal financial assistance to discriminate on the following bases: Against any individual in the United States, on the basis of race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions, sex stereotyping, transgender status, and gender identity), national origin (including limited English proficiency), age, disability, or political affiliation or belief, or, against any beneficiary of, applicant to, or participant in programs financially assisted under Title I of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act, on the basis of the individual's citizenship status or participation in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity.
</P>
<P>The recipient must not discriminate in any of the following areas:
</P>
<P>Deciding who will be admitted, or have access, to any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>providing opportunities in, or treating any person with regard to, such a program or activity; or
</P>
<P>making employment decisions in the administration of, or in connection with, such a program or activity.
</P>
<P>Recipients of federal financial assistance must take reasonable steps to ensure that communications with individuals with disabilities are as effective as communications with others. This means that, upon request and at no cost to the individual, recipients are required to provide appropriate auxiliary aids and services to qualified individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<HD2>What To Do If You Believe You Have Experienced Discrimination
</HD2>
<P>If you think that you have been subjected to discrimination under a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, you may file a complaint within 180 days from the date of the alleged violation with either:
</P>
<P>The recipient's Equal Opportunity Officer (or the person whom the recipient has designated for this purpose); or
</P>
<P>The Director, Civil Rights Center (CRC), U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-4123, Washington, DC 20210 or electronically as directed on the CRC Web site at <I>www.dol.gov/crc</I>.
</P>
<P>If you file your complaint with the recipient, you must wait either until the recipient issues a written Notice of Final Action, or until 90 days have passed (whichever is sooner), before filing with the Civil Rights Center (see address above).
</P>
<P>If the recipient does not give you a written Notice of Final Action within 90 days of the day on which you filed your complaint, you may file a complaint with CRC before receiving that Notice. However, you must file your CRC complaint within 30 days of the 90-day deadline (in other words, within 120 days after the day on which you filed your complaint with the recipient).
</P>
<P>If the recipient does give you a written Notice of Final Action on your complaint, but you are dissatisfied with the decision or resolution, you may file a complaint with CRC. You must file your CRC complaint within 30 days of the date on which you received the Notice of Final Action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.36" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.75.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.36   Recipients' obligations to publish equal opportunity notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At a minimum, the Equal Opportunity Notice required by §§ 38.34 and 38.35 must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Posted prominently, in reasonable numbers and places, in available and conspicuous physical locations and on the recipient's Web site pages;
</P>
<P>(2) Disseminated in internal memoranda and other written or electronic communications with staff;
</P>
<P>(3) Included in employee and participant handbooks or manuals regardless of form, including electronic and paper form if both are available; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provided to each participant and employee; the notice must be made part of each employee's and participant's file. It must be a part of both paper and electronic files, if both are maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice must be provided in appropriate formats to registrants, applicants, eligible applicants/registrants, applicants for employment and employees and participants with visual impairments. Where notice has been given in an alternate format to registrants, applicants, eligible applicants/registrants, participants, applicants for employment and employees with a visual impairment, a record that such notice has been given must be made a part of the employee's or participant's file.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice must be provided to participants in appropriate languages other than English as required in § 38.9.
</P>
<P>(d) The notice required by §§ 38.34 and 38.35 must be initially published and provided within 90 days of January 3, 2017, or of the date this part first applies to the recipient, whichever comes later.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.37" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.75.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.37   Notice requirement for service providers.</HEAD>
<P>The Governor or the LWDA grant recipient, as determined by the Governor and as provided in that State's Nondiscrimination Plan, will be responsible for meeting the notice requirement provided in §§ 38.34 and 38.35 with respect to a State's service providers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.38" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.75.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.38   Publications, broadcasts, and other communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Recipients must indicate that the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity in question is an “equal opportunity employer/program,” and that “auxiliary aids and services are available upon request to individuals with disabilities,” in recruitment brochures and other materials that are ordinarily distributed or communicated in written and/or oral form, electronically and/or on paper, to staff, clients, or the public at large, to describe programs financially assisted under Title I of WIOA or the requirements for participation by recipients and participants. Where such materials indicate that the recipient may be reached by voice telephone, the materials must also prominently provide the telephone number of the text telephone (TTY) or equally effective telecommunications system, such as a relay service, videophone, or captioned telephone used by the recipient, as required by § 38.15(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Recipients that publish or broadcast program information in the news media must ensure that such publications and broadcasts state that the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity in question is an equal opportunity employer/program (or otherwise indicate that discrimination in the WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity is prohibited by Federal law), and indicate that auxiliary aids and services are available upon request to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient must not communicate any information that suggests, by text or illustration, that the recipient treats beneficiaries, registrants, applicants, participants, employees or applicants for employment differently on any prohibited basis specified in § 38.5, except as such treatment is otherwise permitted under Federal law or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.39" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.75.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.39   Communication of notice in orientations.</HEAD>
<P>During each presentation to orient new participants, new employees, and/or the general public to its WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity, in person or over the internet or using other technology, a recipient must include a discussion of rights and responsibilities under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part, including the right to file a complaint of discrimination with the recipient or the Director. This information must be communicated in appropriate languages as required in § 38.9 and in formats accessible for individuals with disabilities as required in this part and specified in § 38.15.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.75.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.40   Affirmative outreach.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260623" REFID="3">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 37314, June 23, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Recipients must take appropriate steps to ensure that they are providing equal access to their WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs and activities. These steps should involve reasonable efforts to include members of the various groups protected by these regulations including but not limited to persons of different sexes, various racial and ethnic/national origin groups, various religions, individuals with limited English proficiency, individuals with disabilities, and individuals in different age groups. Such efforts may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Advertising the recipient's programs and/or activities in media, such as newspapers or radio programs, that specifically target various populations;
</P>
<P>(b) Sending notices about openings in the recipient's programs and/or activities to schools or community service groups that serve various populations; and
</P>
<P>(c) Consulting with appropriate community service groups about ways in which the recipient may improve its outreach and service to various populations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="76" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.76" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Data and Information Collection Maintenance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.41" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.76.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.41   Collection and maintenance of equal opportunity data and other information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director will not require submission of data that can be obtained from existing reporting requirements or sources, including those of other agencies, if the source is known and available to the Director.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each recipient must collect such data and maintain such records, in accordance with procedures prescribed by the Director, as the Director finds necessary to determine whether the recipient has complied or is complying with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part. The system and format in which the records and data are kept must be designed to allow the Governor and CRC to conduct statistical or other quantifiable data analyses to verify the recipient's compliance with section 188 of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Such records must include, but are not limited to, records on applicants, registrants, eligible applicants/registrants, participants, terminees, employees, and applicants for employment. Each recipient must record the race/ethnicity, sex, age, and where known, disability status, of every applicant, registrant, participant, terminee, applicant for employment, and employee. Beginning on January 3, 2019, each recipient must also record the limited English proficiency and preferred language of each applicant, registrant, participant, and terminee. Such information must be stored in a manner that ensures confidentiality, and must be used only for the purposes of recordkeeping and reporting; determining eligibility, where appropriate, for WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs or activities; determining the extent to which the recipient is operating its WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity in a nondiscriminatory manner; or other use authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(3) Any medical or disability-related information obtained about a particular individual, including information that could lead to the disclosure of a disability, must be collected on separate forms. All such information, whether in hard copy, electronic, or both, must be maintained in one or more separate files, apart from any other information about the individual, and treated as confidential. Whether these files are electronic or hard copy, they must be locked or otherwise secured (for example, through password protection).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Knowledge of disability status or medical condition and access to information in related files.</I> Persons in the following categories may be informed about an individual's disability or medical condition and have access to the information in related files under the following listed circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) Program staff who are responsible for documenting eligibility, where disability is an eligibility criterion for a program or activity.
</P>
<P>(B) First aid and safety personnel who need access to underlying documentation related to a participant's medical condition in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(C) Government officials engaged in enforcing this part, any other laws administered by the Department, or any other Federal laws. <I>See also</I> § 38.44.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Knowledge of disability status or medical condition only.</I> Supervisors, managers, and other necessary personnel may be informed regarding restrictions on the activities of individuals with disabilities and regarding reasonable accommodations for such individuals.
</P>
<P>(c) Each recipient must maintain, and submit to CRC upon request, a log of complaints filed with the recipient that allege discrimination on the basis(es) of race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions, transgender status, and gender identity), national origin, age, disability, political affiliation or belief, citizenship, and/or participation in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity. The log must include: The name and address of the complainant; the basis of the complaint; a description of the complaint; the date the complaint was filed; the disposition and date of disposition of the complaint; and other pertinent information. Information that could lead to identification of a particular individual as having filed a complaint must be kept confidential.
</P>
<P>(d) Where designation of individuals by race or ethnicity is required, the guidelines of the Office of Management and Budget must be used.
</P>
<P>(e) A service provider's responsibility for collecting and maintaining the information required under this section may be assumed by the Governor or LWDA grant recipient, as provided in the State's Nondiscrimination Plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.42" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.76.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.42   Information to be provided to the Civil Rights Center (CRC) by grant applicants and recipients.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the information which must be collected, maintained, and, upon request, submitted to CRC under § 38.41:
</P>
<P>(a) Each grant applicant and recipient must promptly notify the Director when any administrative enforcement actions or lawsuits are filed against it alleging discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions, transgender status, and gender identity), national origin (including limited English proficiency), age, disability, or political affiliation or belief, or, for beneficiaries, applicants, and participants only, on the basis of citizenship or participation in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity. This notification must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The names of the parties to the action or lawsuit;
</P>
<P>(2) The forum in which each case was filed; and
</P>
<P>(3) The relevant case numbers.
</P>
<P>(b) Each recipient (as part of a compliance review conducted under § 38.63, or monitoring activity carried out under § 38.65) must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of any other Federal agency that conducted a civil rights compliance review or complaint investigation, and that found the grant applicant or recipient to be in noncompliance, during the two years before the grant application was filed or CRC began its examination; and
</P>
<P>(2) Information about any administrative enforcement actions or lawsuits that alleged discrimination on any protected basis, and that were filed against the grant applicant or recipient during the two years before the application or renewal application, compliance review, or monitoring activity. This information must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The names of the parties;
</P>
<P>(ii) The forum in which each case was filed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The relevant case numbers.
</P>
<P>(c) At the discretion of the Director, grant applicants and recipients may be required to provide, in a timely manner, any information and data that the Director considers necessary to investigate complaints and conduct compliance reviews on bases prohibited under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(d) At the discretion of the Director, recipients may be required to provide, in a timely manner, the particularized information and/or to submit the periodic reports that the Director considers necessary to determine compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(e) At the discretion of the Director, grant applicants may be required to submit, in a timely manner, the particularized information that the Director considers necessary to determine whether or not the grant applicant, if financially assisted, would be able to comply with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(f) Where designation of individuals by race or ethnicity is required, the guidelines of the Office of Management and Budget must be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.43" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.76.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.43   Required maintenance of records by recipients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each recipient must maintain the following records, whether they exist in electronic form (including email) or hard copy, for a period of not less than three years from the close of the applicable program year:
</P>
<P>(1) The records of applicants, registrants, eligible applicants/registrants, participants, terminees, employees, and applicants for employment; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such other records as are required under this part or by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a discrimination complaint has been filed or compliance review initiated, every recipient that possesses or maintains any type of hard-copy or electronic record related to the complaint (including records that have any relevance to the underlying allegations in the complaint, as well as records regarding actions taken on the complaint) or to the subject of the compliance review must preserve all records, regardless whether hard-copy or electronic, that may be relevant to a complaint investigation or compliance review, and maintain those records for a period of not less than three years from the date of final action related to resolution of the complaint or compliance review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.76.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.44   CRC access to information and information sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each grant applicant and recipient must permit access by the Director or the Director's designee during its hours of operation to its premises and to its employees and participants, to the extent that such individuals are on the premises during the course of the investigation, for the purpose of conducting complaint investigations, compliance reviews, or monitoring activities associated with a State's development and implementation of a Nondiscrimination Plan, and for inspecting and copying such books, records, accounts and other materials as may be pertinent to ascertain compliance with and ensure enforcement of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Asserted considerations of privacy or confidentiality are not a basis for withholding information from CRC and will not bar CRC from evaluating or seeking to enforce compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever any information that the Director asks a grant applicant or recipient to provide is in the exclusive possession of another agency, institution, or person, and that agency, institution, or person fails or refuses to furnish the information upon request, the grant applicant or recipient must certify to CRC that it has made efforts to obtain the information and that the agency, institution, or person has failed or refused to provide it. This certification must list the name and address of the agency, institution, or person that has possession of the information and the specific efforts the grant applicant or recipient made to obtain it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.45" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.2.76.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.45   Confidentiality responsibilities of grant applicants, recipients, and the Department.</HEAD>
<P>Grant applicants, recipients and the Department must keep confidential to the extent possible, consistent with a fair determination of the issues, the identity of any individual who furnishes information relating to, or assists in, an investigation or a compliance review, including the identity of any individual who files a complaint. An individual whose identity is disclosed must be protected from retaliation (<I>See</I> § 38.19).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Governor's Responsibilities to Implement the Nondiscrimination and Equal Opportunity Requirements of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.3.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.50   Subpart application to State Programs.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to State Programs as defined in § 38.4. However, the provisions of § 38.52(b) do not apply to State Workforce Agencies (SWA), because the Governor's liability for any noncompliance on the part of a SWA cannot be waived.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.3.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.51   Governor's oversight and monitoring responsibilities for State Programs.</HEAD>
<P>The Governor is responsible for oversight and monitoring of all WIOA Title I-financially assisted State Programs. This responsibility includes:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensuring compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part, and negotiating, where appropriate, with a recipient to secure voluntary compliance when noncompliance is found under § 38.91(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Annually monitoring the compliance of recipients with WIOA section 188 and this part, including a determination as to whether each recipient is conducting its WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity in a nondiscriminatory way. At a minimum, each annual monitoring review required by this paragraph must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statistical or other quantifiable analysis of records and data kept by the recipient under § 38.41, including analyses by race/ethnicity, sex, limited English proficiency, preferred language, age, and disability status;
</P>
<P>(2) An investigation of any significant differences identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section in participation in the programs, activities, or employment provided by the recipient, to determine whether these differences appear to be caused by discrimination. This investigation must be conducted through review of the recipient's records and any other appropriate means; and
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment to determine whether the recipient has fulfilled its administrative obligations under Section 188 of WIOA or this part (for example, recordkeeping, notice and communication) and any duties assigned to it under the Nondiscrimination Plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.3.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.52   Governor's liability for actions of recipients the Governor has financially assisted under Title I of WIOA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Governor and the recipient are jointly and severally liable for all violations of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part by the recipient, unless the Governor has:
</P>
<P>(1) Established and implemented a Nondiscrimination Plan, under § 38.54, designed to give a reasonable guarantee of the recipient's compliance with such provisions;
</P>
<P>(2) Entered into a written contract with the recipient that clearly establishes the recipient's obligations regarding nondiscrimination and equal opportunity;
</P>
<P>(3) Acted with due diligence to monitor the recipient's compliance with these provisions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Taken prompt and appropriate corrective action to effect compliance.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Director determines that the Governor has demonstrated substantial compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, the Director may recommend to the Secretary that the imposition of sanctions against the Governor be waived and that sanctions be imposed only against the noncomplying recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.3.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.53   Governor's oversight responsibilities regarding recipients' recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>The Governor must ensure that recipients collect and maintain records in a manner consistent with the provisions of § 38.41 and any procedures prescribed by the Director under § 38.41(a). The Governor must further ensure that recipients are able to provide data and reports in the manner prescribed by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.3.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.54   Governor's obligations to develop and implement a Nondiscrimination Plan.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260623" REFID="4">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 37314, June 23, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a)(1) Each Governor must establish and implement a Nondiscrimination Plan for State Programs as defined in § 38.4(kkk). In those States in which one agency contains both SWA or unemployment insurance and WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs, the Governor must develop a combined Nondiscrimination Plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Nondiscrimination Plan must be designed to give a reasonable guarantee that all recipients will comply, and are complying, with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Nondiscrimination Plan must be:
</P>
<P>(1) In writing, addressing each requirement of paragraph (c) of this section with narrative and documentation;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewed and updated as required in § 38.55; and
</P>
<P>(3) Signed by the Governor.
</P>
<P>(c) At a minimum, each Nondiscrimination Plan must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe how the State Programs and recipients have satisfied the requirements of the following regulations:
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 38.25 through 38.27 (Assurances);
</P>
<P>(ii) Sections 38.28 through 38.33 (Equal Opportunity Officers);
</P>
<P>(iii) Sections 38.34 through 38.39 (Notice and Communication);
</P>
<P>(iv) Sections 38.41 through 38.45 (Data and Information Collection and Maintenance);
</P>
<P>(v) Section 38.40 (Affirmative Outreach);
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 38.53 (Governor's Oversight Responsibility Regarding Recipients' Recordkeeping);
</P>
<P>(vii) Sections 38.72 and 38.73 (Complaint Processing Procedures); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Sections 38.51 and 38.53 (Governor's Oversight and Monitoring Responsibilities for State Programs).
</P>
<P>(2) Include the following additional elements:
</P>
<P>(i) A system for determining whether a grant applicant, if financially assisted, and/or a training provider, if selected as eligible under Section 122 of WIOA, is likely to conduct its WIOA Title I-financially assisted programs or activities in a nondiscriminatory way, and to comply with the regulations in this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) A review of recipient policy issuances to ensure they are nondiscriminatory;
</P>
<P>(iii) A system for reviewing recipients' job training plans, contracts, assurances, and other similar agreements to ensure that they are both nondiscriminatory and contain the required language regarding nondiscrimination and equal opportunity;
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures for ensuring that recipients comply with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity requirements of § 38.5 regarding race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions, transgender status, and gender identity), national origin (including limited English proficiency), age, political affiliation or belief, citizenship, or participation in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity;
</P>
<P>(v) Procedures for ensuring that recipients comply with the requirements of applicable Federal disability nondiscrimination law, including Section 504; Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended, if applicable; WIOA Section 188, and this part with regard to individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(vi) A system of policy communication and training to ensure that EO Officers and members of the recipients' staffs who have been assigned responsibilities under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part are aware of and can effectively carry out these responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(vii) Procedures for obtaining prompt corrective action or, as necessary, applying sanctions when noncompliance is found; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Supporting documentation to show that the commitments made in the Nondiscrimination Plan have been and/or are being carried out. This supporting documentation includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Policy and procedural issuances concerning required elements of the Nondiscrimination Plan;
</P>
<P>(B) Copies of monitoring instruments and instructions;
</P>
<P>(C) Evidence of the extent to which nondiscrimination and equal opportunity policies have been developed and communicated as required by this part;
</P>
<P>(D) Information reflecting the extent to which equal opportunity training, including training called for by §§ 38.29(f) and 38.31(f), is planned and/or has been carried out;
</P>
<P>(E) Reports of monitoring reviews and reports of follow-up actions taken under those reviews where violations have been found, including, where appropriate, sanctions; and
</P>
<P>(F) Copies of any notices made under §§ 38.34 through 38.40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.55" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.3.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.55   Schedule of the Governor's obligations regarding the Nondiscrimination Plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 180 days of either January 3, 2017, or the date on which the Governor is required to review and update their Methods of Administration as determined by the schedule in § 37.55, whichever is later, a Governor must:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop and implement a Nondiscrimination Plan consistent with the requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Submit a copy of the Nondiscrimination Plan to the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) The Governor must promptly update the Nondiscrimination Plan whenever necessary, and submit the changes made to the Director in writing at the time that any such updates are made.
</P>
<P>(c) Every two years from the date on which the initial Nondiscrimination Plan is submitted to the Director under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the Governor must review the Nondiscrimination Plan and the manner in which it has been implemented, and determine whether any changes are necessary in order for the State to comply fully and effectively with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(1) If any such changes are necessary, the Governor must make the appropriate changes and submit them, in writing, to the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Governor determines that no such changes are necessary, the Governor must certify, in writing, to the Director that the Nondiscrimination Plan previously submitted continues in effect.
</P>
<P>(3) Submit a copy of all reports of any monitoring reviews conducted by the Governor pursuant to § 38.51(b) since the last Nondiscrimination Plan update.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Compliance Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.60" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.60   Evaluation of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>From time to time, the Director may conduct pre-approval compliance reviews of grant applicants for WIOA Title I-financial assistance to determine the ability to comply with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part and may conduct post-approval compliance reviews of recipients to determine compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part. Reviews may focus on one or more specific programs or activities, or one or more issues within a program or activity. The Director may also investigate and resolve complaints alleging violations of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.61" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.61   Authority to issue subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>Section 183(c) of WIOA authorizes the issuance of subpoenas. The subpoena may require the appearance of witnesses, and the production of documents, from any place in the United States, at any designated time and place. A subpoena may direct the individual named on the subpoena to take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(a) To appear:
</P>
<P>(1) Before a designated CRC representative;
</P>
<P>(2) At a designated time and place;
</P>
<P>(b) To give testimony; and/or
</P>
<P>(c) To produce documentary evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="77" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Compliance Reviews</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.62" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.62   Authority and procedures for pre-approval compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As appropriate and necessary to ensure compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part, the Director may review any application, or class of applications, for Federal financial assistance under Title I of WIOA, before and as a condition of their approval. The basis for such review may be the assurance specified in § 38.25, information and reports submitted by the grant applicant under this part or guidance published by the Director, and any relevant records on file with the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) When awarding financial assistance under Title I of WIOA, departmental grantmaking agencies must consult with the Director to review whether the CRC has issued a Notice to Show Cause under § 38.66(b) or a Final Determination against an applicant that has been identified as a probable awardee.
</P>
<P>(c) The grantmaking agency will consider, in consultation with the Director, the information referenced in paragraph (b) of this section, along with any other information provided by the Director in determining whether to award a grant or grants. Departmental grantmaking agencies must consider refraining from awarding new grants to applicants or must consider including special terms in the grant agreement for entities named by the Director as described in paragraph (b) of this section. Special terms will not be lifted until a compliance review has been conducted by the Director, and the Director has approved a determination that the applicant is likely to comply with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity requirements of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Where the Director determines that the grant applicant for Federal financial assistance under Title I of WIOA, if financially assisted, is not likely to comply with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity requirements of WIOA or this part, the Director must:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify, in a timely manner, the Departmental grantmaking agency and the Assistant Attorney General of the findings of the pre-approval compliance review; and
</P>
<P>(2) Issue a Letter of Findings. The Letter of Findings must advise the grant applicant, in writing, of:
</P>
<P>(i) The preliminary findings of the review;
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed remedial or corrective action under § 38.90 and the time within which the remedial or corrective action should be completed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether it will be necessary for the grant applicant to enter into a written Conciliation Agreement as described in §§ 38.91 and 38.93; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The opportunity to engage in voluntary compliance negotiations.
</P>
<P>(e) If a grant applicant has agreed to certain remedial or corrective actions in order to receive WIOA Title I financial assistance, the Department must ensure that the remedial or corrective actions have been taken, or that a Conciliation Agreement has been entered into, before approving the award of further assistance under WIOA Title I. If a grant applicant refuses or fails to take remedial or corrective actions or to enter into a Conciliation Agreement, as applicable, the Director must follow the procedures outlined in §§ 38.95 through 38.97.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.63" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.63   Authority and procedures for conducting post-approval compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may initiate a post-approval compliance review of any recipient to determine compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part. The initiation of a post-approval review may be based on, but need not be limited to, the results of routine program monitoring by other Departmental or Federal agencies, or the nature or frequency of complaints.
</P>
<P>(b) A post-approval review must be initiated by a Notification Letter, advising the recipient of:
</P>
<P>(1) The practices to be reviewed;
</P>
<P>(2) The programs to be reviewed;
</P>
<P>(3) The information, records, and/or data to be submitted by the recipient within 30 days of the receipt of the Notification Letter, unless this time frame is modified by the Director; and
</P>
<P>(4) The opportunity, at any time before receipt of the Final Determination described in §§ 38.95 and 38.96, to make a documentary or other written submission that explains, validates or otherwise addresses the practices under review.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director may conduct post-approval reviews using such techniques as desk audits and on-site reviews.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.64" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.64   Procedures for concluding post-approval compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where, as the result of a post-approval review, the Director has made a finding of noncompliance, the Director must issue a Letter of Findings. This Letter must advise the recipient, in writing, of:
</P>
<P>(1) The preliminary findings of the review;
</P>
<P>(2) Where appropriate, the proposed remedial or corrective action to be taken, and the time by which such action should be completed, as provided in § 38.90;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether it will be necessary for the recipient to enter into a written assurance or Conciliation Agreement, as provided in §§ 38.92 and 38.93; and
</P>
<P>(4) The opportunity to engage in voluntary compliance negotiations.
</P>
<P>(b) Where no violation is found, the recipient must be so informed in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.65" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.65   Authority to monitor the activities of a Governor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may periodically review the adequacy of the Nondiscrimination Plan established by a Governor, as well as the adequacy of the Governor's performance under the Nondiscrimination Plan, to determine compliance with the requirements of §§ 38.50 through 38.55. The Director may review the Nondiscrimination Plan during a compliance review under §§ 38.62 and 38.63, or at another time.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this subpart limits or precludes the Director from monitoring directly any recipient or from investigating any matter necessary to determine a recipient's compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the Director determines that the Governor has not complied with the oversight and monitoring responsibilities set forth in the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity requirements of WIOA or this part, the Director may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue a Letter of Findings. The Letter of Findings must advise the Governor, in writing, of:
</P>
<P>(i) The preliminary findings of the review;
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed remedial or corrective action under § 38. 90 and the time within which the remedial or corrective action should be completed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether it will be necessary for the Governor to enter into a conciliation agreement as described in §§ 38.91 and 38.93; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The opportunity to engage in voluntary compliance negotiations.
</P>
<P>(2) If a Governor refuses or fails to take remedial or corrective actions or to enter into a conciliation agreement, the Director may follow the procedures outlined in §§ 38.89, 38.90, and 38.91.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.66" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.66   Notice to Show Cause issued to a recipient.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may issue a Notice to Show Cause to a recipient failing to comply with the requirements of this part, where such failure results in the inability of the Director to make a finding. Such a failure includes, but is not limited to, the recipient's failure or refusal to:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit requested information, records, and/or data within the timeframe specified in a Notification Letter issued pursuant to § 38.63;
</P>
<P>(2) Submit, in a timely manner, information, records, and/or data requested during a compliance review, complaint investigation, or other action to determine a recipient's compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) Provide CRC access in a timely manner to a recipient's premises, records, or employees during a compliance review or complaint investigation, as required in § 38.42(c).
</P>
<P>(b) The Director may issue a Notice to Show Cause to a recipient after a Letter of Findings and/or an Initial Determination has been issued, and after a reasonable period of time has passed within which the recipient refuses to negotiate a conciliation agreement with the Director regarding the violation(s).
</P>
<P>(c) A Notice to Show Cause must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the violation and a citation to the pertinent nondiscrimination or equal opportunity provision(s) of WIOA and this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The corrective action necessary to achieve compliance or, as may be appropriate, the concepts and principles of acceptable corrective or remedial action and the results anticipated; and
</P>
<P>(3) A request for a written response to the findings, including commitments to corrective action or the presentation of opposing facts and evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) A Notice to Show Cause must give the recipient 30 days from receipt of the Notice to show cause why enforcement proceedings under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part should not be instituted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.67" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.67   Methods by which a recipient may show cause why enforcement proceedings should not be instituted.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may show cause why enforcement proceedings should not be instituted by, among other means:
</P>
<P>(a) Correcting the violation(s) that brought about the Notice to Show Cause and entering into a Conciliation Agreement, under §§ 38.91 and 38.93;
</P>
<P>(b) Demonstrating that CRC does not have jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(c) Demonstrating that the violation alleged by CRC did not occur.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.68" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.68   Failing to show cause.</HEAD>
<P>If the recipient fails to show cause why enforcement proceedings should not be initiated, the Director may follow the enforcement procedures outlined in § 38.95.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="78" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Complaint Processing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.69" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.69   Complaint filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person or the person's representative who believes that any of the following circumstances exist may file a written complaint:
</P>
<P>(1) A person, or any specific class of individuals, has been or is being discriminated against on the basis of race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions, transgender status, and gender identity), national origin (including limited English proficiency), age, disability, political affiliation or belief, citizenship status, or participation in any WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity as prohibited by WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Either the person, or any specific class of individuals, has been or is being retaliated against as described in § 38.19.
</P>
<P>(b) A person or the person's representative may file a complaint with either the recipient's EO Officer (or the person the recipient has designated for this purpose) or the Director. Complaints filed with the Director should be sent to the address listed in the notice or filed electronically as described in the notice in § 38.35.
</P>
<P>(c) Generally, a complaint must be filed within 180 days of the alleged discrimination or retaliation. However, for good cause shown, the Director may extend the filing time. The time period for filing is for the administrative convenience of CRC, and does not create a defense for the respondent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.70" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.70   Required contents of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>Each complaint must be filed in writing, either electronically or in hard copy, and must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The complainant's name, mailing address, and, if available, email address (or another means of contacting the complainant).
</P>
<P>(b) The identity of the respondent (the individual or entity that the complainant alleges is responsible for the discrimination).
</P>
<P>(c) A description of the complainant's allegations. This description must include enough detail to allow the Director or the recipient, as applicable, to decide whether:
</P>
<P>(1) CRC or the recipient, as applicable, has jurisdiction over the complaint;
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint was filed in time; and
</P>
<P>(3) The complaint has apparent merit; in other words, whether the complainant's allegations, if true, would indicate noncompliance with any of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The written or electronic signature of the complainant or the written or electronic signature of the complainant's representative.
</P>
<P>(e) A complainant may file a complaint by completing and submitting CRC's Complaint Information and Privacy Act Consent Forms, which may be obtained either from the recipient's EO Officer or from CRC. The forms are available electronically on CRC's Web site, and in hard copy via postal mail upon request. The latter requests may be sent to CRC at the address listed in the notice contained in § 38.35.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.71" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.71   Right to representation.</HEAD>
<P>Both the complainant and the respondent have the right to be represented by an attorney or other individual of their choice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.72" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.72   Required elements of a recipient's complaint processing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures that a recipient adopts and publishes for processing complaints permitted under this part and WIOA Section 188 must state that the recipient will issue a written Notice of Final Action on complaints within 90 days of the date on which the complaint is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) At a minimum, the procedures must include the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Initial, written notice to the complainant that contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) An acknowledgment that the recipient has received the complaint; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notice that the complainant has the right to be represented in the complaint process;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notice of rights contained in § 38.35; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Notice that the complainant has the right to request and receive, at no cost, auxiliary aids and services, language assistance services, and that this notice will be translated into the non-English languages as required in §§ 38.4(h) and (i), 38.34, and 38.36.
</P>
<P>(2) A written statement of the issue(s), provided to the complainant, that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of the issues raised in the complaint; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each such issue, a statement whether the recipient will accept the issue for investigation or reject the issue, and the reasons for each rejection.
</P>
<P>(3) A period for fact-finding or investigation of the circumstances underlying the complaint.
</P>
<P>(4) A period during which the recipient attempts to resolve the complaint. The methods available to resolve the complaint must include alternative dispute resolution (ADR), as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) A written Notice of Final Action, provided to the complainant within 90 days of the date on which the complaint was filed, that contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) For each issue raised in the complaint, a statement of either:
</P>
<P>(A) The recipient's decision on the issue and an explanation of the reasons underlying the decision; or
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the way the parties resolved the issue; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notice that the complainant has a right to file a complaint with CRC within 30 days of the date on which the Notice of Final Action is received if the complainant is dissatisfied with the recipient's final action on the complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) The procedures the recipient adopts must provide for alternative dispute resolution (ADR). The recipient's ADR procedures must provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) The complainant may attempt ADR at any time after the complainant has filed a written complaint with the recipient, but before a Notice of Final Action has been issued.
</P>
<P>(2) The choice whether to use ADR or the customary process rests with the complainant.
</P>
<P>(3) A party to any agreement reached under ADR may notify the Director in the event the agreement is breached. In such circumstances, the following rules will apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The non-breaching party may notify with the Director within 30 days of the date on which the non-breaching party learns of the alleged breach; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director must evaluate the circumstances to determine whether the agreement has been breached. If the Director determines that the agreement has been breached, the complaint will be reinstated and processed in accordance with the recipient's procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) If the parties do not reach an agreement under ADR, the complainant may file a complaint with the Director as described in §§ 38.69 through 38.71.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.73" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.73   Responsibility for developing and publishing complaint processing procedures for service providers.</HEAD>
<P>The Governor or the LWDA grant recipient, as provided in the State's Nondiscrimination Plan, must develop and publish, on behalf of its service providers, the complaint processing procedures required in § 38.72. The service providers must then follow those procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.74" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.74   Recipient's obligations when it determines that it has no jurisdiction over a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient determines that it does not have jurisdiction over a complaint, it must notify the complainant, in writing within five business days of making such determination. This Notice of Lack of Jurisdiction must include:
</P>
<P>(a) A statement of the reasons for that determination; and
</P>
<P>(b) Notice that the complainant has a right to file a complaint with CRC within 30 days of the date on which the complainant receives the Notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.75" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.75   If the complainant is dissatisfied after receiving a Notice of Final Action.</HEAD>
<P>If the recipient issues its Notice of Final Action before the 90-day period ends, but the complainant is dissatisfied with the recipient's decision on the complaint, the complainant or the complainant's representative may file a complaint with the Director within 30 days after the date on which the complainant receives the Notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.76" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.76   If a recipient fails to issue a Notice of Final Action within 90 days after the complaint was filed.</HEAD>
<P>If, by the end of 90 days from the date on which the complainant filed the complaint, the recipient has failed to issue a Notice of Final Action, the complainant or the complainant's representative may file a complaint with the Director within 30 days of the expiration of the 90-day period. In other words, the complaint must be filed with the Director within 120 days of the date on which the complaint was filed with the recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.77" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.77   Extension of deadline to file complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may extend the 30-day time limit for filing a complaint:
</P>
<P>(1) If a recipient does not include in its Notice of Final Action the required notice about the complainant's right to file with the Director, as described in § 38.72(b)(5); or
</P>
<P>(2) For other good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(b) The complainant has the burden of proving to the Director that the time limit should be extended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.78" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.78   Determinations regarding acceptance of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>The Director must decide whether CRC will accept a particular complaint for resolution. For example, a complaint need not be accepted if:
</P>
<P>(a) It has not been timely filed;
</P>
<P>(b) CRC has no jurisdiction over the complaint; or
</P>
<P>(c) CRC has previously decided the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.79" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.79   When a complaint contains insufficient information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a complaint does not contain enough information to identify the respondent or the basis of the alleged discrimination, the timeliness of the complaint, or the apparent merit of the complaint, the Director must try to get the needed information from the complainant.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director may close the complainant's file, without prejudice, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Director makes reasonable efforts to try to find the complainant, but is unable to reach him or her; or
</P>
<P>(2) The complainant does not provide the needed information to CRC within the time specified in the request for more information.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Director closes the complainant's file, the Director must send written notice to the complainant's last known address, email address (or another known method of contacting the complainant in writing).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.80" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.80   Lack of jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>If CRC does not have jurisdiction over a complaint, the Director must:
</P>
<P>(a) Notify the complainant in writing and explain why the complaint falls outside the coverage of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part; and
</P>
<P>(b) Where possible, transfer the complaint to an appropriate Federal, State or local authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.81" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.81   Complaint referral.</HEAD>
<P>The Director refers complaints to other agencies in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(a) Where the complaint alleges discrimination based on age, and the complaint falls within the jurisdiction of the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, then the Director must refer the complaint, in accordance with the provisions of 45 CFR 90.43(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) Where the only allegation in the complaint is a charge of individual employment discrimination that is covered both by WIOA or this part and by one or more of the laws listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section, then the complaint is a “joint complaint,” and the Director may refer it to the EEOC for investigation and conciliation under the procedures described in 29 CFR part 1640 or 1691, as appropriate. The relevant laws are:
</P>
<P>(1) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2000e to 2000e-17);
</P>
<P>(2) The Equal Pay Act of 1963, as amended (29 U.S.C. 206(d));
</P>
<P>(3) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1976, as amended (29 U.S.C. 621, <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(4) Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) Where the complaint alleges discrimination by an entity that operates a program or activity financially assisted by a Federal grantmaking agency other than the Department, but that participates as a partner in a one-stop delivery system, the following procedures apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the complaint alleges discrimination on a basis that is prohibited both by Section 188 of WIOA and by a civil rights law enforced by the Federal grantmaking agency, then CRC and the grantmaking agency have dual jurisdiction over the complaint, and the Director will refer the complaint to the grantmaking agency for processing. In such circumstances, the grantmaking agency's regulations will govern the processing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the complaint alleges discrimination on a basis that is prohibited by Section 188 of WIOA, but not by any civil rights laws enforced by the Federal grantmaking agency, then CRC has sole jurisdiction over the complaint, and will retain the complaint and process it pursuant to this part. Such bases generally include religion, political affiliation or belief, citizenship, and/or participation in a WIOA Title I-financially assisted program or activity.
</P>
<P>(d) Where the Director makes a referral under this section, the Director must notify the complainant and the respondent about the referral.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.82" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.82   Notice that complaint will not be accepted.</HEAD>
<P>If a complaint will not be accepted, the Director must notify the complainant, in writing, about that fact, and provide the complainant the Director's reasons for making that determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.83" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.83   Notice of complaint acceptance.</HEAD>
<P>If the Director accepts the complaint for resolution, the Director must notify in writing the complainant, the respondent, and the grantmaking agency. The notice must:
</P>
<P>(a) State that the complaint will be accepted;
</P>
<P>(b) Identify the issues over which CRC has accepted jurisdiction; and
</P>
<P>(c) Explain the reasons why any issues were rejected.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.84" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.84   Contacting CRC about a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>Both the complainant and the respondent, or their representative, may contact CRC for information about the complaint. The Director will determine what information, if any, about the complaint will be released.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.85" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.78.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.85   Alternative dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may offer the option of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) of the complaint filed with CRC. In such circumstances, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(a) ADR is voluntary; consent must be given by the complainant and respondent before the ADR process will proceed.
</P>
<P>(b) The ADR will be conducted under the guidance of the Director.
</P>
<P>(c) ADR may take place at any time after a complaint has been filed under § 38.69, as deemed appropriate by the Director.
</P>
<P>(d) CRC will not suspend its investigation and complaint processes during ADR.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="79" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Complaint Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.86" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.86   Notice at conclusion of complaint investigation.</HEAD>
<P>At the conclusion of the investigation of the complaint, the Director must take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(a) Determine whether there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has violated the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part; and
</P>
<P>(b) Notify the complainant, the respondent, and the grantmaking agency, in writing, of that determination as provided in §§ 38.87 and 38.88.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.87" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.87   Director's Initial Determination that reasonable cause exists to believe that a violation has taken place.</HEAD>
<P>If the Director finds reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has violated the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part the Director must issue an Initial Determination. The Initial Determination must include:
</P>
<P>(a) The specific findings of the investigation;
</P>
<P>(b) The corrective or remedial action that the Department proposes to the respondent, under § 38.90;
</P>
<P>(c) The time by which the respondent must complete the corrective or remedial action;
</P>
<P>(d) Whether it will be necessary for the respondent to enter into a written agreement under §§ 38.91 through 38.93; and
</P>
<P>(e) The opportunity to engage in voluntary compliance negotiations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.88" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.88   Director's Final Determination that no reasonable cause exists to believe that a violation has taken place.</HEAD>
<P>If the Director determines that there is no reasonable cause to believe that a violation has taken place, the Director must issue a Final Determination under § 38.96. The Final Determination represents the Department's final agency action on the complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.89" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.89   When the recipient fails or refuses to take the corrective action listed in the Initial Determination.</HEAD>
<P>Under such circumstances, following a complaint investigation or compliance review, the Department may take the actions described in § 38.95.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.90" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.90   Corrective or remedial action that may be imposed when the Director finds a violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Letter of Findings, Notice to Show Cause, or Initial Determination, issued under § 38.62 or § 38.64, §§ 38.66 and 38.67, or § 38.87, respectively, must include the specific steps the grant applicant or recipient, as applicable, must take within a stated period of time in order to achieve voluntary compliance.
</P>
<P>(b) Such steps may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Actions to end and/or redress the violation of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Make-whole relief where discrimination has been identified, including, as appropriate, back pay (which must not accrue from a date more than 2 years before the filing of the complaint or the initiation of a compliance review), or other monetary relief; hire or reinstatement; retroactive seniority; promotion; benefits or other services discriminatorily denied; and
</P>
<P>(3) Such other remedial or affirmative relief as the Director deems necessary, including but not limited to outreach, recruitment and training designed to ensure equal opportunity.
</P>
<P>(c) Monetary relief may not be paid from Federal funds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.91" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.91   Post-violation procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Violations at the State level.</I> Where the Director has determined that a violation of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part has occurred at the State level, the Director must notify the Governor of that State through the issuance of a Letter of Findings, Notice to Show Cause, or Initial Determination, as appropriate, under § 38.62 or § 38.64, §§ 38.66 and 38.67, or § 38.87, respectively. The Director may secure compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part through, among other means, the execution of a written assurance or Conciliation Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Violations below State level.</I> Where the Director has determined that a violation of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part has occurred below the State level, the Director must so notify the Governor and the violating recipient(s) through the issuance of a Letter of Findings, Notice to Show Cause or Initial Determination, as appropriate, under § 38.62 or § 38.64, §§ 38.66 and 38.67, or § 38.87, respectively.
</P>
<P>(1) Such issuance may:
</P>
<P>(i) Direct the Governor to initiate negotiations immediately with the violating recipient(s) to secure compliance by voluntary means.
</P>
<P>(ii) Direct the Governor to complete such negotiations within 30 days of the Governor's receipt of the Notice to Show Cause or within 45 days of the Governor's receipt of the Letter of Findings or Initial Determination, as applicable. The Director reserves the right to enter into negotiations with the recipient at any time during the period. For good cause shown, the Director may approve an extension of time to secure voluntary compliance. The total time allotted to secure voluntary compliance must not exceed 60 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) Include a determination as to whether compliance must be achieved by:
</P>
<P>(A) Immediate correction of the violation(s) and written assurance that such violations have been corrected, under § 38.92; or
</P>
<P>(B) Entering into a written Conciliation Agreement under § 38.93.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Governor determines, at any time during the period described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, that a recipient's compliance cannot be achieved by voluntary means, the Governor must so notify the Director.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Governor is able to secure voluntary compliance under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Governor must submit to the Director for approval, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Written assurance that the required action has been taken, as described in § 38.92; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the Conciliation Agreement, as described in § 38.93.
</P>
<P>(4) The Director may disapprove any written assurance or Conciliation Agreement submitted for approval under paragraph (b)(3) of this section that fails to satisfy each of the applicable requirements provided in §§ 38.92 and 38.93.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Violations in National Programs.</I> Where the Director has determined that a violation of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part has occurred in a National Program, the Director must notify the Federal grantmaking agency and the recipient by issuing a Letter of Findings, Notice to Show Cause, or Initial Determination, as appropriate, under § 38.62 or § 38.63, §§ 38.66 and 38.67, or § 38.87, respectively. The Director may secure compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunities provisions of WIOA through, among other means, the execution of a written assurance or conciliation agreement under § 38.92 or § 38.93.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.92" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.92   Written assurance.</HEAD>
<P>A written assurance is the resolution document that may be used when the Director determines that a recipient has, within fifteen business days after receipt of the Letter of Findings or Initial Determination identifying the violations, taken all corrective actions to remedy the violations specified in those documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.93" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.93   Required elements of a conciliation agreement.</HEAD>
<P>A conciliation agreement must:
</P>
<P>(a) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(b) Address the legal and contractual obligations of the recipient;
</P>
<P>(c) Address each cited violation;
</P>
<P>(d) Specify the corrective or remedial action to be taken within a stated period of time to come into compliance;
</P>
<P>(e) Provide for periodic reporting on the status of the corrective and remedial action;
</P>
<P>(f) State that the violation(s) will not recur;
</P>
<P>(g) State that nothing in the agreement will prohibit CRC from sending the agreement to the complainant, making it available to the public, or posting it on the CRC or recipient's Web site;
</P>
<P>(h) State that, in any proceeding involving an alleged violation of the conciliation agreement, CRC may seek enforcement of the agreement itself and shall not be required to present proof of the underlying violations resolved by the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(i) Provide for enforcement for a breach of the agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.94" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.94   When voluntary compliance cannot be secured.</HEAD>
<P>The Director will conclude that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(a) The Governor, grant applicant or recipient fails to or refuses to correct the violation(s) within the time period established by the Letter of Findings, Notice to Show Cause or Initial Determination; or
</P>
<P>(b) The Director has not approved an extension of time for agreement on voluntary compliance under § 38.91(b)(1)(ii) and the Director either:
</P>
<P>(1) Has not been notified under § 38.91(b)(3) that the Governor, grant applicant, or recipient has agreed to voluntary compliance;
</P>
<P>(2) Has disapproved a written assurance or Conciliation Agreement, under § 38.91(b)(4); or
</P>
<P>(3) Has received notice from the Governor, under § 38.91(b)(2), that the grant applicant or recipient will not comply voluntarily.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.95" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.95   Enforcement when voluntary compliance cannot be secured.</HEAD>
<P>If the Director concludes that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, the Director must either:
</P>
<P>(a) Issue a Final Determination;
</P>
<P>(b) Refer the matter to the Attorney General with a recommendation that an appropriate civil action be instituted; or
</P>
<P>(c) Take such other action as may be provided by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.96" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.96   Contents of a Final Determination of a violation.</HEAD>
<P>A Final Determination must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A statement of the efforts made to achieve voluntary compliance, and a statement that those efforts have been unsuccessful;
</P>
<P>(b) A statement of those matters upon which the grant applicant or recipient and CRC continue to disagree;
</P>
<P>(c) A list of any modifications to the findings of fact or conclusions that were set forth in the Initial Determination, Notice to Show Cause or Letter of Findings;
</P>
<P>(d) A statement of the grant applicant's or recipient's liability, and, if appropriate, the extent of that liability;
</P>
<P>(e) A description of the corrective or remedial actions that the grant applicant or recipient must take to come into compliance;
</P>
<P>(f) A notice that if the grant applicant or recipient fails to come into compliance within 10 days of the date on which it receives the Final Determination, one or more of the following consequences may result:
</P>
<P>(1) After the grant applicant or recipient is given the opportunity for a hearing, its WIOA Title I financial assistance may be terminated, discontinued, or withheld in whole or in part, or its application for such financial assistance may be denied, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Labor may refer the case to the Department of Justice with a request to file suit against the grant applicant or recipient; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary may take any other action against the grant applicant or recipient that is provided by law;
</P>
<P>(g) A notice of the grant applicant's or recipient's right to request a hearing under the procedures described in §§ 38.112 through 37.115; and
</P>
<P>(h) A determination of the Governor's liability, if any, under § 38.52.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.97" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.79.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.97   Notification of finding of noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>Where a compliance review or complaint investigation results in a finding of noncompliance, the Director must notify:
</P>
<P>(a) The grant applicant or recipient;
</P>
<P>(b) The grantmaking agency; and
</P>
<P>(c) The Assistant Attorney General.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="80" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.80" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Breaches of Conciliation Agreements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.98" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.80.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.98   Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When it becomes known to the Director that a Conciliation Agreement has been breached, the Director may issue a Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director must send a Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement to the Governor, the grantmaking agency, and/or other party(ies) to the Conciliation Agreement, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.99" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.80.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.99   Contents of Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement.</HEAD>
<P>A Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement must:
</P>
<P>(a) Specify any efforts made to achieve voluntary compliance, and indicate that those efforts have been unsuccessful;
</P>
<P>(b) Identify the specific provisions of the Conciliation Agreement violated;
</P>
<P>(c) Determine liability for the violation and the extent of the liability;
</P>
<P>(d) Indicate that failure of the violating party to come into compliance within 10 days of the receipt of the Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement may result, after opportunity for a hearing, in the termination or denial of the grant, or discontinuation of assistance, as appropriate, or in referral to the Department of Justice with a request from the Department to file suit;
</P>
<P>(e) Advise the violating party of the right to request a hearing, and reference the applicable procedures in § 38.111; and
</P>
<P>(f) Include a determination as to the Governor's liability, if any, in accordance with the provisions of § 38.52.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.100" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.4.80.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.100   Notification of an enforcement action based on breach of conciliation agreement.</HEAD>
<P>In such circumstances, the Director must notify:
</P>
<P>(a) The grantmaking agency; and
</P>
<P>(b) The Governor, recipient or grant applicant, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Federal Procedures for Effecting Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.5.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.110   Enforcement procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sanctions; judicial enforcement.</I> If compliance has not been achieved after issuance of a Final Determination under §§ 38.95 and 38.96, or a Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement under §§ 38.98 through 38.100, the Secretary may:
</P>
<P>(1) After opportunity for a hearing, suspend, terminate, deny or discontinue the WIOA Title I financial assistance, in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(2) Refer the matter to the Attorney General with a recommendation that an appropriate civil action be instituted; or
</P>
<P>(3) Take such action as may be provided by law, which may include seeking injunctive relief.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deferral of new grants.</I> When proceedings under § 38.111 have been initiated against a particular recipient, the Department may defer action on that recipient's applications for new WIOA Title I financial assistance until a Final Decision under § 38.112 has been rendered. Deferral is not appropriate when WIOA Title I financial assistance is due and payable under a previously approved application.
</P>
<P>(1) New WIOA Title I financial assistance includes all assistance for which an application or approval, including renewal or continuation of existing activities, or authorization of new activities, is required during the deferral period.
</P>
<P>(2) New WIOA Title I financial assistance does not include assistance approved before the beginning of proceedings under § 38.111, or increases in funding as a result of changed computations of formula awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.111" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.5.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.111   Hearing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of opportunity for hearing.</I> As part of a Final Determination, or a Notification of Breach of a Conciliation Agreement, the Director must include, and serve on the grant applicant or recipient (by certified mail, return receipt requested), a notice of opportunity for hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint; request for hearing; answer.</I> (1) In the case of noncompliance that cannot be voluntarily resolved, the Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement is considered the Department's formal complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) To request a hearing, the grant applicant or recipient must file a written answer to the Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement, and a copy of the Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement, with the Office of the Administrative Law Judges in accordance with 29 CFR part 18.




</P>
<P>(i) The answer must be filed within 30 days of the date of receipt of the Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for hearing must be set forth in a separate paragraph of the answer.
</P>
<P>(iii) The answer must specifically admit or deny each finding of fact in the Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement. Where the grant applicant or recipient does not have knowledge or information sufficient to form a belief, the answer may so state and the statement will have the effect of a denial. Findings of fact not denied are considered admitted. The answer must separately state and identify matters alleged as affirmative defenses, and must also set forth the matters of fact and law relied on by the grant applicant or recipient.
</P>
<P>(3) The grant applicant or recipient must simultaneously serve a copy of its filing on the Office of the Solicitor, Civil Rights and Labor-Management Division, Room N-2474, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The failure of a grant applicant or recipient to request a hearing under this paragraph (b), or to appear at a hearing for which a date has been set, waives the right to a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever a hearing is waived, all allegations of fact contained in the Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement are considered admitted, and the Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement becomes the Final Decision of the Secretary as of the day following the last date by which the grant applicant or recipient was required to request a hearing or was to appear at a hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time and place of hearing.</I> Hearings will be held at a time and place ordered by the Administrative Law Judge upon reasonable notice to all parties and, as appropriate, the complainant. In selecting a place for the hearing, due regard must be given to the convenience of the parties, their counsel, and witnesses, if any.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Judicial process; evidence</I>—(1) <I>Judicial process.</I> The Administrative Law Judge may use judicial process to secure the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents authorized by Section 9 of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 49).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Evidence.</I> In any hearing or administrative review conducted under this part, evidentiary matters will be governed by the standards and principles set forth in the Rules of Evidence issued by the Department of Labor's Office of Administrative Law Judges, 29 CFR part 18.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 87211, Dec. 2, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1785, Jan. 11, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.112" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.5.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.112   Initial and final decision procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial decision.</I> After the hearing, the Administrative Law Judge must issue an initial decision and order, containing findings of fact and conclusions of law. The initial decision and order must be served on all parties.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions; Final Decision</I>—(1) <I>Final Decision after a hearing.</I> The initial decision and order becomes the Final Decision and Order of the Department unless exceptions are filed by a party or, in the absence of exceptions, the Administrative Review Board serves notice that it will review the decision.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exceptions.</I> A party dissatisfied with the initial decision and order may, within 45 days of receipt, file with the Administrative Review Board and serve on the other parties to the proceedings and on the Administrative Law Judge, exceptions to the initial decision and order or any part thereof, in accordance with 29 CFR part 26.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transmittal of record and initial decision by Administrative Law Judge.</I> Upon receipt of exceptions, the Administrative Law Judge must index and forward the record and the initial decision and order to the Administrative Review Board within three days of such receipt.
</P>
<P>(iii) Specificity required when filing exceptions. A party filing exceptions must specifically identify the finding or conclusion to which exception is taken.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Reply.</I> Within 45 days of the date of filing such exceptions, a reply, which must be limited to the scope of the exceptions, may be filed and served by any other party to the proceeding in accordance with 29 CFR part 26.


</P>
<P>(v) <I>Requests for extensions.</I> Requests for extensions for the filing of exceptions or replies must be received by the Administrative Review Board no later than 3 days before the exceptions or replies are due.
</P>
<P>(vi) Review by <I>Administrative Review Board on its own motion.</I> If no exceptions are filed, the Administrative Review Board may, within 30 days of the expiration of the time for filing exceptions, on its own motion serve notice on the parties that it will review the decision.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Final Decision and Order without review by Administrative Review Board.</I> (A) Where exceptions have been filed, the initial decision and order of the Administrative Law Judge becomes the Final Decision and Order unless the Administrative Review Board, within 30 days of the expiration of the time for filing exceptions and replies, has notified the parties that the case is accepted for review.
</P>
<P>(B) Where exceptions have not been filed, the initial decision and order of the Administrative Law Judge becomes the Final Decision and Order unless the Administrative Review Board has served notice on the parties that it will review the decision, as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(vi) of this section.


</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Decision and Order after review by Administrative Review Board.</I> In any case reviewed by the Administrative Review Board under this paragraph, a decision must be issued within 180 days of the notification of such review. If the Administrative Review Board fails to issue a decision and order within the 180-day period, the initial decision and order of the Administrative Law Judge becomes the Final Decision and Order.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Final Decision where a hearing is waived.</I> (i) If, after issuance of a Final Determination under § 38.95 or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement under § 38.98, voluntary compliance has not been achieved within the time set by this part and the opportunity for a hearing has been waived as provided for in § 38.111(b)(4), the Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement becomes the Final Decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a Final Determination or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement becomes the Final Decision, the Administrative Review Board may, within 45 days, issue an order terminating or denying the grant or continuation of assistance; or imposing other appropriate sanctions for the grant applicant's, Governor's, or recipient's failure to comply with the required corrective and/or remedial actions, or the Secretary may refer the matter to the Attorney General for further enforcement action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 87211, Dec. 2, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 13033, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 30619, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1785, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.113" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.5.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.113   Suspension, termination, withholding, denial, or discontinuation of financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>Any action to suspend, terminate, deny or discontinue WIOA Title I financial assistance must be limited to the particular political entity, or part thereof, or other recipient (or grant applicant) as to which the finding has been made, and must be limited in its effect to the particular program, or part thereof, in which the noncompliance has been found. No order suspending, terminating, denying or discontinuing WIOA Title I financial assistance will become effective until:
</P>
<P>(a) The Director has issued a Final Determination under § 38.95 or Notification of Breach of Conciliation Agreement under § 38.98;
</P>
<P>(b) There has been an express finding on the record, after opportunity for a hearing, of failure by the grant applicant or recipient to comply with a requirement imposed by or under the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA or this part;
</P>
<P>(c) A decision issued by the Administrative Review Board has become final, the Administrative Law Judge's decision and order has become the Final Agency Decision, or the Final Determination or Notification of Conciliation Agreement has been deemed the Final Agency Decision, under § 38.112(b); and


</P>
<P>(d) The expiration of 30 days after the Secretary has filed, with the committees of Congress having legislative jurisdiction over the program involved, a full written report of the circumstances and grounds for such action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 87211, Dec. 2, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 13033, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 30619, May 20, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.114" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.5.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.114   Distribution of WIOA Title I financial assistance to an alternate recipient.</HEAD>
<P>When the Department withholds funds from a recipient or grant applicant under these regulations, the Secretary may disburse the withheld funds directly to an alternate recipient. In such case, the Secretary will require any alternate recipient to demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(a) The ability to comply with these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(b) The ability to achieve the goals of the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 38.115" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.37.5.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 38.115   Post-termination proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A grant applicant or recipient adversely affected by a Final Decision and Order issued under § 38.112(b) will be restored, where appropriate, to full eligibility to receive WIOA Title I financial assistance if the grant applicant or recipient satisfies the terms and conditions of the Final Decision and Order and brings itself into compliance with the nondiscrimination and equal opportunity provisions of WIOA and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A grant applicant or recipient adversely affected by a Final Decision and Order issued under § 38.112(b) may at any time petition the Director to restore its eligibility to receive WIOA Title I financial assistance. A copy of the petition must be served on the parties to the original proceeding that led to the Final Decision and Order. The petition must be supported by information showing the actions taken by the grant applicant or recipient to bring itself into compliance. The grant applicant or recipient has the burden of demonstrating that it has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. While proceedings under this section are pending, sanctions imposed by the Final Decision and Order under § 38.112(b)(1) and (2) must remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director must issue a written decision on the petition for restoration.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Director determines that the grant applicant or recipient has not brought itself into compliance, the Director must issue a decision denying the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 days of its receipt of the Director's decision, the recipient or grant applicant may file a petition for review of the decision by the Administrative Review Board, setting forth the grounds for its objection to the Director's decision.
</P>
<P>(3) The petition must be served on the Director and on the Office of the Solicitor, Civil Rights and Labor-Management Division.
</P>
<P>(4) The Director may file a response to the petition within 14 days.


</P>
<P>(5) The Administrative Review Board must issue a decision denying or granting the recipient's or grant applicant's request for restoration to eligibility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 87211, Dec. 2, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 13033, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 30619, May 20, 2020]


















</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="42" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 42—COORDINATED ENFORCEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 49, <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 651, <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 801, <I>et seq.;</I> 5 U.S.C. 301.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 39489, June 10, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 42.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.1   General statement.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations are promulgated by the Secretary of Labor to describe the coordination of the activities of the Employment Standards Administration, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and the Employment and Training Administration relating to migrant farmworkers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These regulations coordinate the activities of ESA, OSHA and ETA, and are intended to:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure effective enforcement efforts under the protective statutes—i.e., the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act (FLCRA), the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA), and the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) (<I>protective statutes</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the enforcement efforts of DOL agencies are coordinated to maximize their effectiveness, yet minimize unnecessary duplication.
</P>
<P>(3) Focus the attention of DOL agencies upon the special employment-related problems faced by migrant farmworkers. 
</P>
<P>(4) Coordinate DOL enforcement efforts with related activities of farmworker groups, federal and State agencies, and other concerned parties outside the Department of Labor whose operations are related to the employment, housing, and working conditions of migrant farmworkers.
</P>
<P>(5) Establish an information exchange which will afford the Department, farmworker groups, and other concerned parties outside the Department of Labor the opportunity to exchange information concerning wages, hours and working conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.3   National Committee.</HEAD>
<P>A National Farm Labor Coordinated Enforcement Committee (<I>National Committee</I>) is hereby established which shall be responsible for: Reviewing policies, guidelines and enforcement goals and strategies for the Department of Labor with respect to migrant farm labor-related enforcement efforts under the protective statutes; resolving policies which are in conflict between DOL agencies; advising the Secretary on legislative initiatives which would strengthen farm labor-related enforcement efforts; and providing guidance and recommendations to DOL agencies on related enforcement activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.4   Structure of the National Committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The National Committee shall consist of the Under Secretary of Labor, the Solicitor of Labor, and the Assistant Secretaries for the Employment Standards Administration (ESA), the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), and the Employment and Training Administration (ETA).
</P>
<P>(b) The Committee shall be headed by the Under Secretary, who shall assign to one of his/her Special Assistants the responsibility of directing the necessary staff work required by the Committee.
</P>
<P>(c) The National Committee shall meet on a quarterly basis to review the Department's responsibilities affecting migrant farmworkers, and at any other time as determined by the Under Secretary to be necessary to carry out the National Committee's responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(d) There shall be a National Committee staff level working group consisting of senior staff representatives from the Branch of Farm Labor Law Enforcement, the Wage and Hour Division, the U.S. Employment Service (the National MSFW Monitor Advocate), the Employment and Training Administration, the Office of Field Coordination and the Directorate of Federal Compliance and State Programs in the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and the Office of the Solicitor.
</P>
<P>(e) The Special Assistant to the Under Secretary shall be the director of the staff level working group.
</P>
<P>(f) The staff level working group shall meet monthly or more frequently as requested by the director.
</P>
<P>(g) The director, or another member of the National Committee, shall attend the annual public meeting of each of the Regional Farm Labor Coordinating Committees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.5   Policy review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The National Committee shall review the policies of OSHA, ESA and the United States Employment Service (USES), and the Office of the Solicitor and shall guide the respective agencies in improving the effectiveness of and coordination among all DOL agencies assigned responsibilities related to migrant farmworkers. These policies and guidance shall include such issues as the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The coordination of inspections, including housing inspections, reports and procedures of DOL agencies and State agencies designated by the Department to follow-up on complaints under, and to detect promptly violations of, any of the protective statutes.
</P>
<P>(2) The expedited enforcement and legal procedures to accommodate the transient and seasonal nature of migrant farmworker's problems. 
</P>
<P>(3) The development of systems for prompt and efficient referral to the appropriate federal or State agency of violations or complaints discovered by or reported to DOL agencies or appropriate State agencies, along with prompt and efficient follow-up action by the appropriate agency from the initiation of the investigation through final enforcement action. 
</P>
<P>(4) The training of all appropriate DOL personnel in order to ensure coordinated and effective enforcement. 
</P>
<P>(5) The level of enforcement achieved by the remedies or sanctions used by DOL agencies to enforce the protective statutes. 
</P>
<P>(6) The effectiveness of the Specialists Program and the Regional Farm Labor Coordinated Enforcement Committees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.6   Enforcement strategy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Regional Farm Labor Coordinated Enforcement Committee shall annually prepare, on a regional basis, a migrant farm labor enforcement strategy for each protective statute pursuant to § 42.20(c)(3). The National Committee shall review these regional strategies and make recommendations to the appropriate DOL agencies. In reviewing the enforcement strategies, the Committee shall pay particular attention to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The priorities set for the investigation and enforcement activities of compliance officers. 
</P>
<P>(2) Available data on the past and current levels of enforcement of the protective statutes in the region, including the data collected pursuant to § 42.21, infra. 
</P>
<P>(3) The level of attention given to directed activity as distinguished from complaint-initiated compliance activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) The capability of the agency to respond quickly and thoroughly under the strategy to emergencies involving violations of any of the protective statutes. 
</P>
<P>(5) The level of priority given by the Office of the Solicitor to farm labor-related enforcement activities under the respective protective statutes. 
</P>
<P>(6) The ability of agencies to respond quickly and effectively to resolve complaints. 
</P>
<P>(7) The extent to which agencies follow through with appropriate remedies and sanctions. 
</P>
<P>(8) The degree to which agencies coordinate and cooperate on a local and regional level. 
</P>
<P>(9) Other activities of DOL agencies related to migrant farmworker enforcement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.7   Complaint/directed action logs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To facilitate the Committee's review of all migrant farmworker complaints, including pre and post occupancy housing inspections and the enforcement strategies of DOL agencies, the Committee shall oversee the operation of a system of coordinated Complaint/Directed Action Logs (<I>logs</I>). The logs shall be maintained by each DOL agency and appropriate SESA and OSHA State agencies. 
</P>
<P>(b) The logs shall record both the numbers of compliance actions initiated as a result of complaints and those initiated on the basis of directed activity. They shall also include a statistical record of all original referrals both from and to other DOL agencies or federal or State authorities. 
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever a complaint is received and/or an investigation is completed by an agency, the appropriate official of that agency shall enter the matter on the log. 
</P>
<P>(2) Wherever possible, the responsible agency, upon request, shall inform the complainant of the status of the actions pending, and shall inform, when applicable, the referring agency. 
</P>
<P>(3) ESA, OSHA, USES, and the Office of the Solicitor shall be responsible for preparing the quarterly statistical summary by regions of the respective agency's compliance activity. This summary shall include all complaints and compliance actions which 
</P>
<P>(i) Were pursued to completion by the subagency during the reporting period or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Were received during the reporting period or earlier, and are pending. Each agency also shall report a summary of aging and resource allocation data. The summary shall be submitted to the National Committee and the appropriate Regional Committee. 
</P>
<P>(c) The National Committee staff shall analyze the statistical summaries and shall recommend National or Regional Committee action where problems or short-comings are identified. Pursuant to this review, the National Committee shall take steps to ensure that the responsible agencies make timely responses to complaints and conduct vigorous enforcement action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.8   Coordination plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Based upon, among other things, the regional enforcement strategies submitted under § 42.6, the National Committee shall develop an annual coordination plan concerning farm labor-related responsibilities of the Department, including migrant housing inspections, the referral of complaints, enforcement action on violations of federal or State employment-related laws subject to the jurisdiction of DOL, or regulations administered by DOL or appropriate State agencies, and assistance to stranded migrant farmworkers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The coordination plan shall describe the present program responsibilities of ESA for enforcement in the farm labor area of the Fair Labor Standards Act, and the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act. The plan shall include a statistical summary of the prior-year complaints under, and alleged violations of, FLSA and FLCRA as recorded in the logs of the ESA Wage and Hour Regional and Area Offices, and shall set forth general goals and objectives for FLSA and FLCRA enforcement activities for the following year as established by ESA. 
</P>
<P>(c) The coordination plan shall describe the present program responsibilities of OSHA for protecting the safety and health of migrant farmworkers. The plan shall include a statistical summary of prior-year complaints under, and alleged violations of, OSHA recorded in the logs of the OSHA State and area offices, and shall provide general goals for OSHA enforcement activities for the following year as established by OSHA. 
</P>
<P>(d) The plan shall include a review of the procedures developed by ETA to handle emergency situations, such as the stranding or displacement of migrants, and shall provide general goals for USES activities for the following year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.9   Farm Labor Specialist (ESA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary for ESA shall designate ESA Compliance Officers as Farm Labor Specialists (<I>Specialists</I>). The Specialists shall be assigned to area offices, or field stations under area offices, with significant numbers of agricultural worker activity as designated by ESA. These Specialists shall coordinate FLCRA and FLSA activities in agricultural employment and shall be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Conducting FLCRA/FLSA farm labor investigations;
</P>
<P>(2) Serving as staff advisors and consultants to regional and area officials on FLCRA and FLSA;
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinating FLCRA and FLSA activities with appropriate OSHA and USES activities;
</P>
<P>(4) Directing special migrant farmworker enforcement activities;
</P>
<P>(5) Monitoring the farm labor-related activities of significant crew leaders and growers in the area to ascertain that those against whom ESA has taken enforcement action are operating in compliance with FLCRA and FLSA;
</P>
<P>(6) Conducting technical assistance and public information programs regarding FLCRA and FLSA;
</P>
<P>(7) Coordinating of referrals to and from other federal and State agencies with farm labor responsibilities, such as OSHA and USES;
</P>
<P>(8) Advising regularly the Regional Committee on actual farm labor working conditions in their areas and otherwise participating in regional coordination activities as directed by the Regional Committee; and
</P>
<P>(9) Providing specialized training on FLCRA and FLSA as may be requried.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.10   Farm labor contact persons and regional coordinators (OSHA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) OSHA Area Directors shall be responsible for ensuring that: (1) Migrant farmworker complaints and referrals are evaluated, and appropriate action is taken; and (2) migrant farmworker camp inspections are scheduled promptly.
</P>
<P>(b) OSHA Area Directors shall designate OSHA compliance officers to serve in the capacity of Farm Labor Contact Persons. These Farm Labor Contact Persons shall be trained in enforcement of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (84 Stat. 1590, 29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>) and all OSHA standards affecting migrant farmworkers. These Farm Labor Contact Persons shall be designated in OSHA area offices with responsibility for conducting a significant number of migrant farmworker camp inspections.
</P>
<P>(c) The OSHA Area Directors shall assign the Farm Labor Contact Person to:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct migrant farmworker camp inspections during periods when migrant housing facilities are occupied, or when it is reasonably predictable the facilities will imminently be occupied;
</P>
<P>(2) Serve as a technical advisor on migrant farmworker-related matters;
</P>
<P>(3) Train other compliance officers to conduct migrant farmworker camp inspections; and
</P>
<P>(4) Perform other OSHA duties, including duties not related to migrant farmworker OSHA enforcement.
</P>
<P>(d) Regional Administrators for OSHA shall designate a Farm Labor Regional Coordinator to coordinate migrant farmworker activities. The Farm Labor Regional Coordinators shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Coordinate all migrant farmworker related activity within the Region's jurisdiction, i.e., enforcement, training, and public information;
</P>
<P>(2) Serve as representatives of the OSHA Regional Administrators on the Regional Farm Labor Coordinated Enforcement Committee's staff level work group; and
</P>
<P>(3) Perform other OSHA duties.
</P>
<P>(e) OSHA shall request State designees of States having approved occupational safety and health plans and responsibility for conducting a significant number of migrant farmworker camp inspections to appoint a State Farm Labor Coordinator. The State Farm Labor Coordinator shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Coordinate State OSHA migrant farmworker camp inspections and other migrant farmworker enforcement activities consistent with the objectives of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Represent the State on the Regional Farm Labor Coordinating Committee's staff level working group.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.20   Regional Farm Labor Coordinated Enforcement Committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the leadership of the ESA Regional Administrator, each region shall establish a Regional Farm Labor Coordinated Enforcement Committee (<I>Regional Committee</I>), including representatives of ESA, OSHA, ETA (the Regional MSFW Monitor Advocate), and the Office of the Regional Solicitor.
</P>
<P>(b) The Regional Committee shall be headed by the Regional Administrator of ESA.
</P>
<P>(c) The Regional Committee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Meet regularly on at least a quarterly basis;
</P>
<P>(2) Exchange information on enforcement activities, including complaint/directed action logs developed by the DOL subagencies;
</P>
<P>(3) Develop a written coordinated enforcement strategy specifying for the region all information which the Regional Committee believes will be helpful to the National Committee in formulating the annual coordination plan. This strategy shall include at a minimum all information called for by § 42.8 for the region, taking into account particular conditions in the region (e.g., the seasonality of the farm labor population). Once it is reviewed by the National Committee and appropriately revised, the regional offices of ESA, ETA, and OSHA shall follow the enforcement strategy for the year, with revisions as needed by changing circumstances during the year. The National Committee shall be advised of any such revisions;
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain contacts with State agencies, farm labor groups, growers, and other interested parties; and
</P>
<P>(5) Coordinate cross-training of enforcement personnel within the region.
</P>
<P>(d) There shall be a regional committee staff level working group in each region consisting of regional staff representatives from ESA, ETA, OSHA, the Office of the Regional Solicitor, and OSHA State Farm Labor Coordinators within that region. This working group shall meet at least monthly.
</P>
<P>(e) The designated Farm Labor Specialist (ESA), Farm Labor Regional Coordinators (OSHA), and MSFW Monitor Advocates (USES) in each region shall be available to provide staff support to the Regional Committees. 
</P>
<P>(f) To facilitate coordination with farm labor groups and growers in each region, the respective Regional Committee shall hold an annual public meeting, transcribe or recorded at the option of the Regional Committee, which shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) Publicized to all appropriate migrant farmworker and grower associations in the region; 
</P>
<P>(2) Conducted by the director of the Regional Committee with other DOL agency representatives participating as necessary; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Opened to all members of the public. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Regional Committee shall conduct and cooperate with the National Committee in order to develop, implement and ensure the uniform and effective application of coordinated enforcement efforts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 42.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.38.0.81.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 42.21   Data collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each protective statute, ESA, OSHA, and the Office of the Solicitor (<I>SOL</I>) shall regularly collect statistical data reflecting their enforcement efforts on a regional and national basis and shall submit such data quarterly to the National and Regional Committees. Fourth quarter data shall be accompanied by annual summaries. These submissions shall include at least the data items specified in this section. The data collected will provide a basis for coordination of enforcement of the protection statutes. 
</P>
<P>(b) The statistical data submitted by ESA on FLCRA enforcement shall include: (1) Total compliance actions covered by the Act, showing total farm labor contractor (FLC) actions, total farm labor contractor employee (FLCE) actions, total User actions, total concurrent FLSA actions, and total actions with noncompliance; (2) total types of assignments (JS complaint, other complaint, employers of undocumented workers); (3) total types of compliance actions (conciliation, full investigation, follow-up investigation, other); (4) total compliance hours expended; (5) total crew workers affected; (6) total violations by categories and type of violation (FLC, FLCE, User); (7) total compliance actions in which civil money penalties (CMPs) are assessed and total amount assessed; (8) total compliance actions in which CMPs are collected and total amount collected. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Wage-Hour Division shall submit the following statistical data on FLSA enforcement with respect to employees working within the categories of Agriculture, Agricultural Products, and Agricultural Services, etc., and various subcategories of each of these three major categories: (1) Total number of completed investigations; (2) total hours spent in conducting investigations; (3) number of employees found underpaid (total, under minimum wage provisions, under overtime provisions); (4) amount of underpayment found (total, under minimum wage provisions, under overtime provisions); (5) total number of employees to whom income was restored; and (6) total amount of money restored. 
</P>
<P>(d) OSHA's migrant farmworker enforcement statistical data shall be submitted for each region on a state-by-state basis, including OSHA State Plan States, and shall include: (1) Number of complaints received and number of inspections conducted in response; (2) number of referrals received and number of inspections conducted in response; (3) number of programmed or directed inspections, (4) number of violations found by type of violation (serious, willful, repeat and other than serious); (5) total number of employees affected by inspections; (6) approximate total hours spent on migrant camp inspections; (7) number of inspections for which penalties were proposed and amount proposed; (8) number of inspections for which penalties were collected and amount collected. 
</P>
<P>(e) The SOL shall submit statistical data on farm labor-related enforcement efforts under each protective statute which shall include: (1) Total cases received by SOL; (2) actions taken on cases (settled, referred to ALJ, civil actions filed, referrals to U.S. Attorney); and (3) results of cases (including injunctions and license revocations and denials). 
</P>
<P>(f) Complaint Response Data—ESA and OSHA shall submit annually a summary of aging data for their respective migrant farmworker-related activities under FLCRA, FLSA and OSHA respectively, showing aging from receipt of a complaint or completion of an investigation until referral to SOL or other final action by the enforcement agency. The Office of the Solicitor shall submit similar data showing aging of matters between receipt by SOL of a case and the completion of some responsive action on the case. Where available, OSHA shall submit data showing the average length of time between receipt of a complaint and the completion of the action taken in response to the complaint. Where available, ESA shall submit data showing complaints received, complaints on hand, and number of actions completed based on complaints. 
</P>
<P>(g) The National Committee shall review the data collection systems of ESA, OSHA and SOL, as they pertain to farm labor enforcement, and recommend any necessary changes to the subagencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 44—PROCESS FOR ELECTING STATE AGENCY EMPLOYMENT STATISTICS REPRESENTATIVES FOR CONSULTATIONS WITH DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 20 U.S.C. 9276(c); 29 U.S.C. 49 1-2. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 7195, Feb. 11, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 44.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.39.0.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the regulations of the U.S. Department of Labor establishing a process for the election of representatives of the States to participate in formal consultations with the Department of Labor for purposes of the development of an annual employment statistics plan and to address other employment statistics issues. The representatives are to be elected by and from the State employment statistics directors affiliated with the State agencies designated to carry out the employment statistics responsibilities under the revised section 15 of the Wagner-Peyser Act (29 U.S.C. 49 1-2), as amended by section 309 of the Workforce Investment Act of 1998. The revised section 15(d)(2) of the Wagner-Peyser Act requires the Secretary to establish a process for the election of such representatives from each of the 10 Federal regions of the Department of Labor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.39.0.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.2   Election cycle and tenure of representatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Election cycle.</I> The States located within each Federal region, as defined in this paragraph, shall elect one representative in accordance with the procedures specified in this part. The initial election for representatives of the States from all 10 Federal regions will be held not later than February 17, 1999. For purposes of this section, the Federal regions shall be the Standard Federal regions identified in former OMB Circular A-105 (issued April 4, 1974). This former Circular is available through the Office of the Commissioner of Labor Statistics, telephone number (202) 691-7808. For the representatives elected from the Federal regions II, IV, VII, VIII, and X, the initial term shall terminate on January 1, 2000. Subsequent elections for representatives from such regions shall be held in the last quarter of 1999 and thereafter biennially within the last calendar quarter of the year. For the representatives from the Federal regions I, III, V, VI, and IX, the initial term shall terminate on January 1, 2001. Subsequent elections for representatives from such regions shall be held within the last calendar quarter of 2000 and thereafter, biennially within the last calendar quarter of the year. After the initial election, the terms of all representatives shall terminate on January 1 of the third calendar year after the preceding scheduled election.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tenure.</I> The terms of the representatives elected in the first election shall commence upon election. The terms of representatives elected in subsequent elections shall commence January 1 of the year following the scheduled election. Representatives may serve for an unlimited number of terms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.39.0.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.3   Election process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Process.</I> The Commissioner of Labor Statistics of the U.S. Department of Labor (hereafter referred to as “the Commissioner”) or his or her designee shall conduct the elections. The Commissioner shall provide a ballot containing the names of the employment statistics directors in the appropriate region to the employment statistics director in each State who is affiliated with the State agency designated pursuant to section 15(e) of the Wagner-Peyser Act. If a State has not designated an agency, or has not provided the name of the employment statistics director to the Commissioner, the State shall not participate in the election process. Each director may vote for one director to be the regional representative. The Commissioner shall prescribe a time limit that will not be less than one week for the directors to mark and return the ballots. Only votes received by the Commissioner within the prescribed time limit will be counted. The Commissioner will tally the votes from the ballots received within the prescribed time limit and the director receiving the most votes in the region will be the representative for that region. If there is a tie after the first round of votes are counted, the Commissioner shall conduct additional rounds of voting using a ballot containing the names of the directors who tied with the most votes in the previous round until a representative is elected. The Commissioner will prescribe a time limit of not less than one week for each additional round of voting and will tally the votes received within the prescribed time limit. The director with the most votes will be the representative. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of transmission.</I> The Commissioner may distribute the ballots relating to the election under this part by electronic mail or other methods the Commissioner determines to be appropriate and may specify the methods through which votes are to be cast.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vacancies.</I> If a representative does not complete the term, the Commissioner shall conduct an election to elect a replacement for the remainder of the term using the procedures described in paragraph (a) and (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="70" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 70—PRODUCTION OR DISCLOSURE OF INFORMATION OR MATERIALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 29 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.;</I> 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended; Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950, 5 U.S.C. Appendix, 29 U.S.C. 1026 (106), 5 U.S.C. app. 11., Executive Order. 12,600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1988 Comp., p. 235. This part also implements the public information provisions of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (LMRDA), 29 U.S.C. 435, see § 70.53 below; the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1026 (106), see § 70.54 below; and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), 5 U.S.C. app. 11, see § 70.40(i) below.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 7671, Jan. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.1.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.1   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is organized as follows: Subpart A contains general information about Department of Labor policies and procedures; subpart B sets forth the procedures for obtaining access to records of the Department; subpart C contains the Department's regulations on fees; and subpart D sets forth the procedures for obtaining access to certain public records. Appendix A contains a list of all Department of Labor FOIA components from which records may be obtained.
</P>
<P>(b) This part contains the rules that the Department of Labor follows in processing requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552. The rules in this part should be read together with the text of the FOIA, which provides additional information about access to records maintained by the Department. Additionally, the Department's “Guide to Submitting Requests under the FOIA” and related documents contain helpful information about the specific procedures particular to the Department with respect to making FOIA requests, and descriptions of the types of records maintained by different components of the Department. These references are available at <I>http://www.dol.gov/dol/foia/guide6.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Requests made by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, are processed under 29 CFR part 71 as well as under this part. Information routinely provided to the public as part of a regular Department activity (for example, press releases issued by the Office of Public Affairs (OPA)) may be provided to the public without following this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) As set forth in § 70.3 of this part, the Department operates its FOIA program with a presumption of openness and withholds records or information under the FOIA only when the Department reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by a FOIA exemption or when disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(e) The Department has a decentralized system for processing requests, with each component handling requests for its own records. Each component has a FOIA Customer Service Center that can assist individuals in locating records and address questions regarding pending FOIA requests. A list of the Department's Customer Service Centers is available at <I>http://www.dol.gov/dol/foia/RequestorServiceCenters.htm.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) The Secretary has designated a Chief FOIA Officer for the Department. Contact information for the Chief FOIA Officer is available on the Department's FOIA Web site, <I>http://www.dol.gov/dol/foia/.</I> The Office of Information Services (OIS), which is located within the Office of the Solicitor, provides Department level guidance and oversight for the Department's FOIA program and supports the statutorily-based responsibilities of the DOL Chief FOIA Officer.
</P>
<P>(g) The Department has a designated FOIA Public Liaison who can assist individuals in locating records of a particular component and with resolving issues relating to the processing of a pending FOIA request. Information concerning the DOL FOIA Public Liaison is available at <I>http://www.dol.gov/sol/foia/liaison.htm.</I> The DOL FOIA Public Liaison is responsible for assisting in reducing delays in FOIA processing, increasing transparency and understanding, providing information concerning the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.1.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The terms agency, person, party, rule, order, and adjudication have the meaning attributed to these terms by the definitions in 5 U.S.C. 551.
</P>
<P>(b) Confidential commercial information means commercial or financial information received or obtained by the Department from a submitter, directly or indirectly, that arguably may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department means the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(d) FOIA Component means an official component of the Department that has authority to disclose or withhold records under the FOIA and to which requests to inspect or copy records in its custody should be addressed. Department of Labor components are listed in Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Record means any information that would be an agency record subject to the requirements of this part when maintained by an agency in any format, including an electronic format, and any information described under this part that is maintained for an agency by an entity under Government contract, for the purposes of records management.
</P>
<P>(f) Request means any written request for records made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3) and which meets the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) Requester means any person who makes a request.
</P>
<P>(h) Search means to look for, manually or by automated means, Department records for the purpose of locating them in response to a pending request.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary means the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(j) Submitter means any person or entity from whom the Department receives or obtains confidential commercial or financial information, directly or indirectly. The term submitter includes, but is not limited to, corporations, labor organizations, non-profit organizations, and local, state, and tribal and foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(k) Unusual circumstances means, to the extent reasonably necessary for the proper processing of a FOIA request:
</P>
<P>(1) The need to search for and collect the requested records from physically separate facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records that are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(3) The need for consultation, which will be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency or among two or more components of the Department having a substantial interest in the determination of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.1.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.3   Presumption of openness.</HEAD>
<P>All agency records, except those exempt from mandatory disclosure by one or more provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b) or the law enforcement exclusions in 5 U.S.C. 552(c), will be made promptly available to any person submitting a written request in accordance with the procedures of this part. The Department will withhold records under the FOIA only when the Department reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by a FOIA exemption or is prohibited by law. Whenever the Department determines that full disclosure of a requested record is not possible, the Department will consider whether partial disclosure is possible and will take reasonable steps to segregate and release nonexempt material. As set forth in Sec. 70.4, the Department proactively identifies and discloses records of interest to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.1.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.4   Proactive disclosure of Departmental records.</HEAD>
<P>Records that are required by the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format may be accessed through the Department's Web site. Each component is responsible for determining which of its records are required to be made publicly available, as well as identifying additional records of interest to the public that are appropriate for public disclosure, and for posting and indexing such records. Each component must review and update its Web site of posted records and indices on an ongoing basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.1.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.5   Compilation of new records.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in 5 U.S.C. 552 or this part requires that any agency or component create a new record in order to respond to a request for records. A component must, however, make reasonable efforts to search for records that already exist in electronic form or format, except when such efforts would significantly interfere with the operation of the component's automated information systems. The component will determine what constitutes a reasonable effort on a case-by-case basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.1.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.6   Disclosure of originals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No original record or file in the custody of the Department of Labor, or of any component or official thereof, will on any occasion be given to any agent, attorney, or other person not officially connected with the Department without the written consent of the Secretary, the Solicitor of Labor or the Inspector General.
</P>
<P>(b) The individual authorizing the release of the original record or file must ensure that a copy of the document or file is retained in the component that had custody and/or control when an original document or file is released pursuant to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 70.7-70.18" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.1.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 70.7-70.18   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Disclosure of Records Under the Freedom of Information Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.19" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.19   Requirements for making a request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> The Department of Labor has a decentralized system for responding to requests submitted under the FOIA, as explained in § 70.1 of this part. In addition to processing requests for its own records, each agency component has the ability to receive FOIA requests in writing by mail, delivery service/courier or facsimile at its designated mailing address. However, to enable proper handling, any FOIA request submitted electronically, by email, must be submitted to the Department's central FOIA mailbox at <I>foiarequests@dol.gov.</I> FOIA requests sent electronically to any other email address will not be accepted. A FOIA request submitted via email should designate the component or components to which the requester is submitting his/her request. The Department's central FOIA mailbox is regularly monitored, and requests will be assigned to the appropriate DOL FOIA component.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for records.</I> To make a request for records of the Department, whenever possible, a requester should write directly to the FOIA office of the component that maintains the records sought or, if emailing a request to the DOL central FOIA mailbox, should identify the component(s) to which the request is directed. Submitting the request directly to the FOIA office of the component that maintains the records sought, or identifying that component when sending a FOIA request via email, will facilitate the quickest response. The requester must provide a mailing address to receive correspondence, and it may facilitate processing if telephone and email contact information are provided.
</P>
<P>(1) The Department's components for the purposes of the FOIA are listed in Appendix A to this part. The function and mailing address of each Department of Labor component is available on the Department's FOIA Web site at <I>http://www.dol.gov/dol.foia.</I> This page also provides other information that is helpful in determining where to make a request.
</P>
<P>(2) Requesters who cannot determine the proper FOIA office component or who are requesting records from multiple components may also send requests to the Office of the Solicitor, Office of Information Services, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-2420, Washington, DC 20210 or by email to <I>foiarequests@dol.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 70.25(a), if a requester submits a FOIA request to the incorrect DOL FOIA component, or sends a request to the Department's central FOIA office or mailbox without identifying the component(s) to which the request is submitted, the time to respond begins to run when the request is received by the proper component, but no later than 10 working days after receipt in any component identified in Appendix A or in the Office of Information Services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Description of records sought.</I> Requesters must describe the record or records sought in sufficient detail to enable Department personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent possible, the request should provide enough identifying information to help the component identify the requested records, such as the subject of the record, the date or approximate date when the record was created, the record's title or name, case or file number, reference number, the person or office or the office location that created it, and any other pertinent identifying details. Prior to submitting the request, a requester may wish to consult the references provided in § 70.1 of this part, the relevant FOIA Requester Service Center or the FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records they are seeking and to receive assistance on how to describe the records.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deficient descriptions and revised requests.</I> If the description is insufficient, so that a knowledgeable employee who is familiar with the subject area of the request cannot identify the record with a reasonable amount of effort, the component processing the request will notify the requester and describe what additional information is needed to process the request.
</P>
<P>(1) Requesters who are attempting to modify or reformulate their requests may discuss their requests with the component's designated FOIA contact, the FOIA Public Liaison, or a representative of OIS, each of whom is available to assist the requester in reasonably describing the records sought. Every reasonable effort will be made to assist a requester in the identification and location of the records sought. If the requester fails to reasonably describe the records sought, the agency's response to the request may be delayed.
</P>
<P>(2) Any amended request must be confirmed in writing and meet the requirements for a request under this part.
</P>
<P>(3) While an agency component awaits a requester's modified FOIA request, the processing time limits described in § 70.25(a)(1) will be tolled (that is, the processing time clock will be stopped on one occasion only) until clarification is received from the requester.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.20" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.20   Responsibility for responding to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except in the instances stated in paragraph (d) of this section, the component that first receives a request for a record and maintains that record is the component responsible for responding to the request. In determining which records are responsive to a request, a component ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date that the component begins the search; if any other date is used, the component will inform the requester of that date. A record that is excluded from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), is not considered responsive to a request. When it is determined that records responsive to a request may be located in multiple components of the Department, the Office of Information Services may coordinate the Department's response. If the Office of Information Services deems a consolidated response appropriate, it will issue such a response on behalf of the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> Pursuant to relevant exemptions under 5 U.S.C. 552(b) or an exclusion under 5 U.S.C. 552(c), the head of a component, or designee, is authorized to grant or to deny any requests for records that are maintained by that component.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Re-routing of misdirected requests.</I> Where a component's FOIA office determines that a request was misdirected within the Department, the receiving component's FOIA office will work with OIS to facilitate the routing of the request to the FOIA office of the proper component(s).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consultations and referrals.</I> When a component is reviewing records in response to a request, it will determine if another component of the Department, or of the Federal Government, is better able to determine whether the record can be disclosed or is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. If the receiving component determines that it is not best able to process the record, then the receiving component will either:
</P>
<P>(1) Respond to the request after consulting with the component or agency best able to determine whether to disclose the record and with any other component or agency that has a substantial interest in the record; or
</P>
<P>(2) Refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to the component best able to determine whether to disclose it, or to another agency that originated the record (but only if that entity is subject to the FOIA). Ordinarily, the component or agency that originated the record will be presumed to be best able to determine whether to disclose it.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of referral.</I> Whenever a component refers all or any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another component or agency, the component will notify the requester of the referral and inform the requester of the name of each component or agency to which the request has been referred and provide contact information for that component or agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Classified records.</I> Any request for classified records which are in the custody of the Department of Labor will be referred to the classifying agency under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.21" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.21   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Components should, to the extent practicable, communicate with requesters using the method that is most likely to increase the speed and efficiency of the communication, including by electronic means, such as by email.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgements of requests.</I> A component will acknowledge each new request and assign it an individualized tracking number. Components will include in the acknowledgment a brief description of the records sought to allow the requesters to more easily keep track of their requests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Granting a request.</I> After a component makes a determination to grant a request in full or in part, the component will notify the requester in writing. The component will provide the record in the form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible in that form or format, provided the requester has agreed to pay and/or has paid any fees required by subpart C of this part. The component will determine on a case-by-case basis what constitutes a readily reproducible format. Each component should make reasonable efforts to maintain its records in commonly reproducible forms or formats. The component must notify the requester of the right to seek assistance from the Department's FOIA Public Liaison.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adverse determinations of requests.</I> A component making an adverse determination denying a request in any respect must notify the requester in writing. Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that: The requested record is exempt, in whole or in part, from release pursuant to one or more exemptions under the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily producible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials for requests for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content of the denial.</I> The denial notice must be signed by the component agency head or a designee and will include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reason or reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption or exemptions applied or procedural reasons relied upon by the component in denying the request;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of records or information withheld, in number of pages or in some other reasonable form of estimation. This estimate does not need to be provided if the volume is otherwise indicated through deletions on records disclosed in part, or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by the exemption under which the deletion was made;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed as described under Sec. 70.22; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement notifying the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Department's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services (within the National Archives and Records Administration). Engaging in dispute resolution services provided by OGIS is a voluntary process. If the Department agrees to participate in the mediation services provided by OGIS, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Markings on released documents.</I> Markings on released documents must be clearly visible to the requester. Records disclosed in part shall be marked to show the amount of information deleted and the exemption(s) under which the deletion was made unless doing so would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption. The location of the information deleted shall also be indicated on the records, if technically feasible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.22" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.22   Appeals from denial of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A requester may appeal to the Solicitor of Labor from any adverse determination, including but not limited to when one or more of the following has occurred: A request for access to records has been denied in whole or in part; a requester disputes a determination that records cannot be located or have been destroyed; a requester disputes a determination by a component concerning the assessment or waiver of fees; a requester disputes the denial of a request for expedited processing; or a component fails to respond to a request within the time limits set forth in the FOIA and referenced in 70.25(a). The appeal must be filed within 90 days of the date of the action being appealed.
</P>
<P>(b) The appeal must state in writing the grounds for appeal, and it may include any supporting statements or arguments, but such statements are not required. In order to facilitate processing of the appeal, the appeal should include the assigned request number (if applicable), appellant's mailing address and daytime telephone number, as well as copies of the initial request and the component's response. If mailed, the envelope and the letter of appeal should be clearly marked: “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.” Any amendment to the appeal must be in writing and received prior to a decision on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) The appeal should be addressed to the Solicitor of Labor, Office of the Solicitor, FOIA Appeals Unit, Division of Management and Administrative Legal Services, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-2420, Washington, DC 20210. Appeals also may be submitted by fax to 202-693-5538 or by email to <I>foiaappeal@dol.gov.</I> Appeals submitted to any other email address will not be accepted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.23" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.23   Action on appeals.</HEAD>
<P>The Solicitor of Labor, or designee, will review the appellant's appeal and make a determination de novo whether the action of the component was proper and in accordance with the applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.24" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.24   Form and content of action on appeals.</HEAD>
<P>The disposition of an appeal will be issued by the Solicitor of Labor or designee in writing. A decision affirming, in whole or in part, the decision below will include a brief statement of the reason or reasons for the affirmance, including the FOIA exemption or exemptions relied upon, and its relation to each record withheld. The appeal determination will advise the requester of the availability of the mediation services of the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. The appeal will also notify the requester of the statutory right to judicial review of the denial by the United States District Court for the judicial district in which the requester resides or maintains his or her principal place of business, the judicial district in which the requested records are located, or the District of Columbia. If it is determined on appeal that a record should be disclosed, the record will be provided in accordance with the decision on appeal. If it is determined that records should be denied in whole or in part, the appeal determination will include an estimate of the volume of records or information withheld, in number of pages or in some other reasonable form of estimation. This estimate does not need to be provided if the volume is otherwise indicated through deletions on records disclosed in part, or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.25" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.25   Time limits and order in which requests and appeals must be processed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time limits.</I> The FOIA establishes a 20 business day deadline for regular requests and appeals, and a 10 calendar day time limit for making determinations regarding expedited processing. Components of the Department of Labor will comply with the time limits required by the FOIA for responding to and processing requests and appeals. In instances involving misdirected requests that are re-routed pursuant to § 70.20(c) of this subpart, the response time will commence on the date that the request is received by the proper component's office that is designated to receive requests, but in any event not later than 10 working days after the request is first received by any component's office that is designated by these regulations to receive requests. A component or the designated appeal authority will notify a requester whenever they are unable to respond to or process the request or appeal within the time limits established by the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> All components must designate a specific track for requests that are granted expedited processing, in accordance with the standards set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. A component may also designate additional processing tracks that distinguish between simple and complex requests based on the estimated amount of work and/or time needed to process the request, including based on the number of pages involved and the need for consultations or referrals. Components shall advise the requesters of the track into which their request falls and, when appropriate, shall offer the requester an opportunity to limit the scope of their requests in order to qualify for faster processing within the specified limits of the component's faster track.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> (1) Where the statutory time limits for processing a request cannot be met because of “unusual circumstances,” as set forth in the FOIA at 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(i)-(iii), and the component determines to extend the time limits on that basis, the component shall, before the expiration of the 20 working day deadline to respond, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances and of the date by which processing of the request can be expected to be completed. If the component intends to extend the deadline to respond by more than ten working days, the component must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide the requester with an opportunity either to modify the request so that it may be processed within the time limits or to arrange an alternative time period with the component for processing the request or a modified request;
</P>
<P>(ii) Make available to the requester the contact information for the designated FOIA contact and the FOIA Public Liaison to assist the requester; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> Where a component reasonably believes that multiple requests submitted by a requester, or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances, and the requests involve clearly related matters, they may be aggregated. Components shall not aggregate multiple requests involving unrelated matters.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) Requests and appeals will be taken out of order and given expedited treatment whenever it is determined that they involve:
</P>
<P>(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged federal government activity, if made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information;
</P>
<P>(iii) The loss of substantial due process rights; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A matter of widespread and exceptional media interest in which there exists possible questions about the government's integrity which affect public confidence.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for expedited processing may be made at the time of the initial request for records or at any later time. For a prompt determination, a request for expedited processing must be received by the proper component. Requests based on paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section must be submitted to the component that maintains the records requested.
</P>
<P>(3) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct to the best of that person's knowledge and belief, explaining in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing. For example, a requester within the category in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, if not a full-time member of the news media, must establish that he or she is a person whose main professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be his or her sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—one that goes beyond the public's general right to know about government activity. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on a topic. As a matter of administrative discretion, a component may waive the formality of certification.
</P>
<P>(4) Within ten calendar days of its receipt of a request for expedited processing, the proper component will decide whether to grant the request and will notify the requester of the decision. If a request for expedited treatment is granted, the request will be given priority and will be processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision will be acted on expeditiously.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.26" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.26   Confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Confidential commercial information will be disclosed under the FOIA only in accordance with this section and Executive Order 12,600, “Predisclosure Notification Procedures for Confidential Commercial Information” (3 CFR 1988 Comp., p.235).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> A submitter of confidential commercial information will use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations will expire ten years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests, and provides justification for, a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to submitters.</I> A component will provide a submitter with prompt written notice of a FOIA request that seeks its confidential commercial information whenever required under paragraph (d) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, in order to give the submitter an opportunity to object in writing to disclosure of any specified portion of that information under paragraph (e) of this section. The notice will either describe the confidential commercial information requested or include copies of the requested records or record portions containing the information. When notification to a voluminous number of submitters is required, notification may be made by posting or publishing notice reasonably likely to accomplish such notification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When notice is required.</I> Notice will be given to a submitter whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) The information requested under the FOIA has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(2) A component has reason to believe that the information requested under the FOIA may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4, but has not yet determined whether the information is protected from disclosure under that exemption or any other applicable exemption.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> A component will allow a submitter a reasonable time to respond to the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section taking into account the amount of material the submitter has to review and the deadlines imposed by the FOIA or agreed to with the requester. If a submitter has any objection to disclosure, it is required to submit a detailed written statement. The statement must show why the information is a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. In the event that a submitter fails to respond to the notice within the time specified, the submitter will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. Information provided by a submitter under this paragraph may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> A component will consider a submitter's timely objections and specific grounds for non-disclosure in deciding whether to disclose confidential commercial information. Whenever a component decides to disclose confidential commercial information over the objection of a submitter, the component will give the submitter written notice, which will include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reason(s) why each of the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the confidential commercial information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which will be a reasonable time subsequent to the notice.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exceptions to notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements of paragraphs (c) and (f) of this section will not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) The component determines that the information should not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information lawfully has been published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12,600; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous or such a designation would be unsupportable—except that, in such a case, the component will, within a reasonable time prior to a specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of a FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of confidential commercial information, the component will promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Corresponding notice to requesters.</I> Whenever a component provides a submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, the component will also notify the requester(s). Whenever a component notifies a submitter of its intent to disclose requested information under paragraph (f) of this section, the component will also notify the requester(s). Whenever a submitter files a lawsuit seeking to prevent the disclosure of confidential commercial information, the component will notify the requester(s).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Notice requirements.</I> The component will fulfill the notice requirements of this section by addressing the notice to the confidential commercial submitter or its legal successor at the address indicated on the records, or the last known address. If the notice is returned, the component will make a reasonable effort to locate the confidential commercial submitter or its legal successor. Where notification of a voluminous number of submitters is required, such notification may be accomplished by posting and publishing the notice in a place reasonably calculated to accomplish notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.27" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.27   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each component will preserve all correspondence relating to the requests it receives under this part, and all records processed pursuant to such requests, until disposition or destruction of such correspondence and records is authorized by Title 44 of the United States Code or the National Archives and Records Administration's General Records Schedule 4.2. Records are not to be destroyed while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 70.28-70.37" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.2.81.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 70.28-70.37   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Costs for Production of Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.38" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.38   Definitions related to costs.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Request,</I> in this subpart, includes any request, as defined by § 70.2(f) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures which a component actually incurs in searching for and duplicating (and in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records to respond to a FOIA request. Direct costs include, for example, the salary of the Federal employee performing work (the basic rate of pay for the Federal employee plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating duplication machinery. Not included in direct costs are overhead expenses such as costs of space, heating or lighting the facility in which the records are kept.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duplication</I> means the process of making a copy of a record necessary to respond to a request. Such copy can take the form of paper, microform, audio-visual materials or electronic records (such as a CD or other media).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Search</I> means the process of looking for and retrieving records or information that are responsive to a FOIA request. It includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and also includes reasonable efforts to locate and retrieve information from records maintained in electronic form or format. FOIA components will ensure that searches are done in the most efficient and least expensive manner reasonably possible. A search does not include the review of material, as defined in paragraph (e) of this section, which is performed to determine whether material is exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review</I> means the process of examining records, including audio-visual, electronic mail, etc., located in response to a request to determine whether any portion of the located record is exempt from disclosure, and accordingly may be withheld. It also includes the act of preparing materials for disclosure, <I>i.e.,</I> doing all that is necessary to excise them and otherwise prepare them for release. Review time includes time spent contacting any submitter, and considering and responding to any objections to disclosure made by a submitter under Sec. 70.26, but does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Commercial use request</I> means a request from or on behalf of a person who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers his or her commercial, trade or profit interests, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. When considering fee issues, components will determine, whenever reasonably possible, the use to which a requester will put the requested records. When it appears that the requester will put the records to a commercial use, either because of the nature of the request itself or because a component has reasonable cause to doubt a requester's stated use, the component will provide the requester a reasonable opportunity to submit further clarification.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Educational institution</I> means an institution which:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a preschool, public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education; or
</P>
<P>(2) Operates a program or programs of scholarly research. To qualify under this definition, the program of scholarly research in connection with which the information is sought must be carried out under the auspices of the academic institution itself as opposed to the individual scholarly pursuits of persons affiliated with an institution. For example, a request from a professor predicated upon research funding granted to the institution would meet its requirements. A request from a professor seeking information that will assist in the writing of a book, independent of his or her institutional responsibilities, would not qualify under this definition.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-commercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast “news” to the public at large and publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, as well as news organizations that operate solely on the internet. Alternative media may be considered to be news media entities. These examples are not all inclusive.
</P>
<P>(1) Factors indicating status as a news media representative include press accreditation, guild membership, a history of continuing publication, business registration, and/or Federal Communication Commission licensing, among others.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, news contemplates information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public.
</P>
<P>(3) A freelance journalist will be treated as a representative of the news media if the person can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication of matters related to the requested information through a news media entity. A publication contract with a news media entity satisfies this requirement. An individual's past publication record with such organizations is also relevant in making this determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.39" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.39   Statutes specifically providing for setting of fees.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart will not apply to fees charged under any statute, other than the FOIA, that specifically requires an agency to set and collect fees for particular types of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.40" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.40   Charges assessed for the production of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Components shall charge for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and with the OMB Guidelines. In order to resolve any fee issues that arise under this section, a component may contact a requester for additional information. Components will ensure that searches, review, and duplication are conducted in the most efficient and least expensive manner. A component ordinarily will collect all applicable fees before sending copies of records to the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of charges.</I> There are three types of charges assessed in connection with the production of records in response to a request, specifically, charges for costs associated with:
</P>
<P>(1) Searching for or locating responsive records (search costs),
</P>
<P>(2) Duplicating such records (duplication costs), and
</P>
<P>(3) Reviewing records to determine whether any materials are exempt (review costs).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Types of requesters.</I> (1) There are four types of requesters:
</P>
<P>(i) Commercial use requesters,
</P>
<P>(ii) Educational and non-commercial scientific institutions,
</P>
<P>(iii) Representatives of the news media, and
</P>
<P>(iv) All other requesters.
</P>
<P>(2) Depending upon the type of requester, as set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the charges outlined in paragraph (d) of this section may be assessed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Types of charges that will be assessed for each type of request</I>—(1) <I>Commercial use request.</I> When a requester makes a commercial use request, search costs, duplication costs and review costs will be assessed in their entirety.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational or non-commercial scientific institution request.</I> When an educational or non-commercial scientific institution makes a request, only duplication costs will be assessed, excluding charges for the first 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request by representative of news media.</I> When a representative of the news media makes a request, only duplication costs will be assessed, excluding charges for the first 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>All other requesters.</I> Requesters making a request which does not fall within paragraph (d)(1), (2), or (3) of this section will be charged search costs and duplication costs, except that the first 100 pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time will be furnished without charge. Where computer searches are involved, the monetary equivalent of two hours of search time by a professional employee will be deducted from the total cost of computer processing time.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Charges for each type of activity</I>—(1) <I>Search costs.</I> (i) When a search for records is performed by a clerical employee, a rate of $5.00 per quarter hour will be applicable. When a search is performed by professional or supervisory personnel, a rate of $10.00 per quarter hour will be applicable. Components will charge for time spent searching even if they do not locate any responsive records or they withhold the records located as exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) For computer searches of records, requesters will be charged the direct costs of conducting the search, except as provided in paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duplication costs.</I> The standard copying charge for records in black and white paper copy is $0.15 per page. This charge includes the operator's time to duplicate the record. When responsive information is provided in a format other than 8
<FR>1/2</FR> x 11 or 11 x 14 inch black and white paper copy, such as computer tapes, disks and color copies, the requester may be charged the direct costs of the tape, disk, audio-visual or whatever medium is used to produce the information, as well as the direct cost of duplication, including operator time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review costs.</I> Costs associated with the review of records, as defined in § 70.38(e), will be charged for work performed by a clerical employee at a rate of $5.00 per quarter hour when applicable. When professional or supervisory personnel perform work, a rate of $10.00 per quarter hour will be charged, when applicable. Except as noted in this paragraph, charges may only be assessed for review the first time the records are analyzed to determine the applicability of specific exemptions to the particular record or portion of the record. Thus a requester would not be charged for review at the administrative appeal level with regard to the applicability of an exemption already applied at the initial level. When, however, a record has been withheld pursuant to an exemption which is subsequently determined not to apply and is reviewed again at the appellate level to determine the potential applicability of other exemptions, the costs attendant to such additional review will be assessed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limitations on charging fees.</I> If a component fails to comply with the time limits in which to respond to a request, it shall not assess certain fees except:
</P>
<P>(i) If there are unusual circumstances (as that term is defined in § 70.25(c)) and the component has provided timely written notice, the component is permitted ten additional days to respond to the request. After the expiration of the ten additional days, the component is no longer permitted to assess search fees or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in § 70.38(h) and (i), duplication fees except as described in paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there are unusual circumstances (as that term is defined in § 70.25(c)), and more than 5,000 pages of documents are necessary to respond to the request, the component may continue to charge assessable fees for as long as it takes to process the request, provided that the component has provided timely written notice and discussed with the requester via telephone, email, or written mail (or made at least three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the pending request.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined in the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(C) the agency's failure to comply with any time limits of the FOIA are excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mailing cost.</I> Where responses are sent by mail, no postage charge will be made for transmitting by regular mail a single copy of the requested record to the requester, or for mailing additional copies where the total postage cost does not exceed $5.00. However, where the volume of paper or other produced material or the requested method of transmittal requested is in excess of $5.00, the transmittal costs will be added.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Aggregating requests for purposes of assessing costs.</I> (1) Where a component reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting together is attempting to divide a request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the disclosure officer may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly.
</P>
<P>(2) Components may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been submitted in order to avoid fees. Where requests are separated by a longer period, disclosure officers will aggregate them only where a solid basis exists for determining that aggregation is warranted under all of the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interest charges.</I> Components will assess interest on an unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing until payment is received by the component. Components will follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Authentication of copies</I>—(1) <I>Fees.</I> The FOIA does not require certification or attestation under seal of copies of records provided in accordance with its provisions. Pursuant to provisions of the general user-charger statute, 31 U.S.C. 9701 and Subchapter II of title 29 U.S.C., the following charges will be made when, upon request, such services are rendered by the agency in its discretion:
</P>
<P>(i) For certification of true copies, $10.00 each certification.
</P>
<P>(ii) For attestation under the seal of the Department, $10.00 each attestation under seal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authority and form for attestation under seal.</I> Authority is hereby given to any officer or officers of the Department of Labor designated as authentication officer or officers of the Department to sign and issue attestations under the seal of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Transcripts.</I> Fees for transcripts of an agency proceeding, as defined in the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 5521(12) will be assessed in accordance with the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Privacy Act requesters.</I> A request from an individual or on behalf of an individual for a record maintained by that individual's name or other unique identifier which is contained within a component's system of records, will be treated under the fee provisions at 29 CFR 71.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.41" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.41   Waiver or reduction of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) Records responsive to a request will be furnished without charge or at a charge reduced below that established under § 70.40(e) of this subpart, where a component determines, based on all available information, that the requester has demonstrated that:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure of the information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) To determine whether the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is met, components will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The subject of the request: Whether the subject of the requested records concerns “the operations or activities of the government.” The subject of the requested records must concern identifiable operations or activities of the federal government, with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(ii) The informative value of the information to be disclosed: Whether the disclosure is “likely to contribute” to an understanding of government operations or activities. The disclosable portions of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities in order to be “likely to contribute” to an increased public understanding of those operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either a duplicative or a substantially identical form, would not be as likely to contribute to such understanding where nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contribution to an understanding of the subject by the public likely to result from disclosure: Whether disclosure of the requested information will contribute to “public understanding.” The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area and ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public will be considered. It will be presumed that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iv) The significance of the contribution to public understanding: Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute “significantly” to the public understanding of government operations or activities. The public's understanding of the subject in question must be enhanced by the disclosure to a significant extent.
</P>
<P>(3) To determine whether the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is met, components will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The existence and magnitude of a commercial interest: Whether the requester has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. The component will consider any commercial interest of the requester (with reference to the definition of “commercial use request” in § 70.38(f) of this subpart), or of any person on whose behalf the requester may be acting, that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. Requesters will be given an opportunity in the administrative process to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) The primary interest in disclosure: Whether any identified commercial interest of the requester is sufficiently large, in comparison with the public interest in disclosure, that disclosure is “primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.” A fee waiver or reduction is justified where the public interest standard is satisfied and that public interest is greater in magnitude than that of any identified commercial interest in disclosure. The component ordinarily will presume that where a news media requester has satisfied the public interest standard, the public interest will be the interest primarily served by disclosure to that requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(4) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver will be granted only for those records.
</P>
<P>(5) Requests for the waiver or reduction of fees should address the factors listed in paragraph (a) of this section, insofar as they apply to each request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission.</I> Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted to the component and should address the criteria referenced above. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester will be required to pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeal rights.</I> Requesters dissatisfied with treatment of fee waiver or reduction requests may follow the procedures for appeal under Sections 70.22 and 70.23.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.42" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.42   Consent to pay fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department will not assess or collect fees where the fee to be assessed, after deducting any free pages and/or search time, is less than $25.00. When making a request, a requester may specify a willingness to pay up to a certain amount, <I>e.g.,</I> $50.00 or $200.
</P>
<P>(b) No request will be processed if a component reasonably believes that the fees are likely to exceed the amount to which the requester has originally consented, absent supplemental written consent by the requester to proceed after being notified of this determination.
</P>
<P>(c) When a component determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed in accordance with this section will exceed $25.00, the component shall notify the requester of the actual or estimated amount of the fees, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review or duplication, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. If only a portion of the fee can be estimated readily, the component must advise the requester accordingly. Such notice may invite the requester to reformulate the request to satisfy his or her needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(d) Components must make available their FOIA contact to assist any requester in reformulating a request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.43" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.43   Payment of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>De minimis costs.</I> As noted in § 70.42(a) of this subpart, the Department has determined it will not assess or collect fees below $25.00. In these cases, the cost of collecting and processing a fee equals or exceeds the amount of the fee which would otherwise be assessed. The Department will assess fees where the costs to be assessed, after deduction of any free pages and/or search time, is $25.00 or higher.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How payment will be made.</I> Requesters will pay fees assessed by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States, and sent to the component that is processing the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advance payments and billing.</I> (1) Prior to beginning to process a request, the component will make a preliminary assessment of the amount that can properly be charged to the requester for search and review time and copying costs. Where a component determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will be more than $250.00, the component will require the requester to make an advance payment of an amount up to the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request. The component may waive the advance payment where the component receives a satisfactory assurance of full payment from a requester who has a history of prompt payment of an amount similar to the one anticipated by the request.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to any component of the Department of Labor within 30 days of the date of billing, a component will require the requester to pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest as provided in Sec. 70.40(f) and to make an advance payment of the full amount of any anticipated fee, before the component begins to process a new request or appeal or continues to process a pending request or appeal from that requester.
</P>
<P>(3) For a request other than those described in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, a component will not require the requester to make an advance payment before beginning to process a request. Payment owed for work already completed on a request pursuant to consent of the requester is not an advance payment and a component may require the requester to make a payment for such work prior to releasing any records to the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits to respond extended when advance payments are requested.</I> When a component has requested an advance payment of fees in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, the time limits prescribed in Sec. 70.25 will only begin to run after the component has received the advance payment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.44" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.44   Other rights and services.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart will be construed to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any records to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 70.45-70.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.3.81.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 70.45-70.52   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Public Records and Filings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.53" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.4.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.53   Office of Labor-Management Standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following documents in the custody of the Office of Labor-Management Standards are public information available for inspection and/or purchase of copies in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Data and information contained in any report or other document filed pursuant to sections 201, 202, 203, 211, 301 of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 (73 Stat. 524-28, 530, 79 Stat. 888, 73 Stat. 530, 29 U.S.C. 431-433, 441, 461).
</P>
<P>(2) Data and information contained in any report or other document filed pursuant to the reporting requirements of 29 CFR part 458, which are the regulations implementing the standards of conduct provisions of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978, 5 U.S.C. 7120, and the Foreign Service Act of 1980, 22 U.S.C. 4117. The reporting requirements are found in 29 CFR 458.3.
</P>
<P>(3) Data and information contained in any report or other document filed pursuant to the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1351, 109 Stat. 19.
</P>
<P>(b) The documents listed in paragraph (a) of this section are available from: U.S. Department of Labor, Office of Labor-Management Standards, Public Disclosure Room, N-1519, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210. Reports filed pursuant to section 201 of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 and pursuant to 29 CFR 458.3 implementing the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 and the Foreign Service Act of 1980 for the year 2000 and thereafter are also available at <I>http://www.union-reports.dol.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 435(c) which provides that the Secretary will by regulation provide for the furnishing of copies of the documents listed in paragraph (a) of this section, upon payment of a charge based upon the cost of the service, these documents are available at a cost of $ .15 per page for record copies furnished. Authentication of copies is available in accordance with the fee schedule established in Sec. 70.40. In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(vi), the provisions for fees, fee waivers and fee reductions in subpart C of this part do not supersede these charges for these documents.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon request of the Governor of a State for copies of any reports or documents filed pursuant to sections 201, 202, 203, or 211 of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 (73 Stat. 524-528, 79 Stat. 888; 29 U.S.C. 431-433, 441), or for information contained therein, which have been filed by any person whose principal place of business or headquarters is in such State, the Office of Labor-Management Standards will:
</P>
<P>(1) Make available without payment of a charge to the State agency designated by law or by such Governor, such requested copies of information and data, or
</P>
<P>(2) Require the person who filed such reports and documents to furnish such copies or information and data directly to the State agency thus designated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.54" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.4.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.54   Employee Benefits Security Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The annual financial reports (Form 5500) and attachments/schedules as filed by employee benefit plans under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) are in the custody of the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) at the address indicated in paragraph (b) of this section, and the right to inspect and copy such reports, as authorized under ERISA, at the fees set forth in this part, may be exercised at such office.
</P>
<P>(b) The mailing address for the documents described in this section is: U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, Public Documents Room, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.4.81.3.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 70—FOIA Components
</HEAD>
<P>The following list identifies the individual agency components of the Department of Labor for the purposes of the FOIA. Each component is responsible for making records in its custody available for inspection and copying, in accordance with the provisions of the FOIA and this part. Unless otherwise specified, the mailing addresses for the following national office components are listed below. Updated contact information for national and regional offices can be found on the DOL Web site at <I>http://www.dol.gov/dol/foia.</I>
</P>
<FP-2>U.S. Department of Labor
</FP-2>
<FP-2>200 Constitution Avenue NW.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Washington, DC 20210.
</FP-2>
<P>1. Office of the Secretary (OSEC).
</P>
<P>2. Office of the Solicitor (SOL).
</P>
<P>3. Office of Administrative Law Judges (ALJ), 800 K Street NW., Suite N-400, Washington, DC 20001-8002.
</P>
<P>4. Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management (OASAM).
</P>
<P>5. Office of the Assistant Secretary for Policy (OASP).
</P>
<P>6. Office of the Chief Financial Officer (OCFO).
</P>
<P>7. Office of Congressional and Intergovernmental Affairs (OCIA).
</P>
<P>8. Office of Disability Employment Policy (ODEP).
</P>
<P>9. Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP).
</P>
<P>10. Office of the Inspector General (OIG).
</P>
<P>11. Office of Labor Management Standards (OLMS).
</P>
<P>12. Office of Public Affairs (OPA).
</P>
<P>13. Office of Workers' Compensation Programs (OWCP).
</P>
<P>14. Bureau of International Labor Affairs (ILAB).
</P>
<P>15. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), Postal Square Building, Room 4040, 2 Massachusetts Avenue NE., Washington, DC 20212-0001.
</P>
<P>16. Employment and Training Administration (ETA). Job Corps (part of ETA).
</P>
<P>17. Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA), 201 12th Street, South, Arlington, Virginia 22202.
</P>
<P>18. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
</P>
<P>19. Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA).
</P>
<P>20. Veterans' Employment and Training Service (VETS).
</P>
<P>21. Employees' Compensation Appeals Board (ECAB).
</P>
<P>22. Administrative Review Board (ARB).
</P>
<P>23. Benefits Review Board (BRB).
</P>
<P>24. Wage and Hour Division (WHD).
</P>
<P>25. Women's Bureau (WB).


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.40.4.81.3.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 70 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="71" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 71—PROTECTION OF INDIVIDUAL PRIVACY AND ACCESS TO RECORDS UNDER THE PRIVACY ACT OF 1974
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 5 U.S.C. 552a as amended; Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950, 5 U.S.C. Appendix.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 56741, Oct. 22, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.1   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This part contains the regulations of the U.S. Department of Labor implementing the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. The regulations apply to all records which are contained in systems of records maintained by, or under the control of, the Department of Labor and which are retrieved by an individual's name or personal identifier. These regulations set forth the procedures by which an individual may seek access under the Privacy Act to records pertaining to him, may request correction or amendment of such records, or may seek an accounting of disclosures of such records by the Department. These regulations are applicable to each component of the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Government-wide systems of records.</I> (1) DOL/GOVT-1 (Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Federal Employees' Compensation Act File):
</P>
<P>(i) All records, including claim forms, medical, investigative and other reports, statements of witnesses, and other papers relating to claims for compensation filed under the Federal Employees' Compensation Act (as amended and extended), are covered by the government-wide system of records entitled DOL/GOVT-1. This system is maintained by and under the control of the Employment Standards Administration's Office of Workers' Compensation Programs (OWCP), and, as such, all records contained in the OWCP claims file, as well as all copies of such documents retained and/or maintained by the injured worker's employing agency, are official records of the OWCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) The protection, release, inspection and copying of records covered by DOL/GOVT-1 shall be accomplished in accordance with the rules, guidelines and provisions of this part, as well as with part 70 of this subtitle, and with the notice of the systems of records and routine uses published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> All questions relating to access/disclosure, and/or the amendment of FECA records maintained by the OWCP or an employing agency, are to be resolved in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) While an employing agency may establish procedures that an injured employee or beneficiary should follow in requesting access to documents it maintains, any decision issued in response to such a request must comply with the rules and regulations of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(B) Any administrative appeal taken from a denial issued by the employing agency shall be filed with the Solicitor of Labor in accordance with §§ 71.7 and 71.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) No agency other than the OWCP has authority to issue determinations in response to requests for the correction or amendment of records contained in or covered by DOL/GOVT-1. Any request for correction or amendment received by an employing agency must be referred to the OWCP for review and decision.
</P>
<P>(2) For the government-wide system of records entitled DOL/GOVT-2 (Job Corps Student Records), a system maintained by and under the control of the Employment and Training Administration, the regulations of this Department shall govern, including the procedure for requesting access to, or amendment of the records, as well as appeals therefrom, shall govern.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the following meanings:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Agency</I> has the meaning set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(f).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component</I> means each separate agency, bureau, office, board, division, commission, service, or administration of the Department of Labor, as well as each agency which possesses records covered by a DOL government-wide system of records.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Individual Data Subject</I> means the individual by whose name or identifier the subject record is retrieved.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual which is maintained by any component within a system of records and which contains the individual's name, identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a fingerprint, voiceprint, or photograph.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requester</I> means an individual who makes either a request for access, a request for correction or amendment, or a request for an accounting.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Routine use</I> has the meaning set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(7).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Statistical record</I> has the meaning set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(6).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of the Department or any component from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to that individual.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Under the control of</I> means those official records for which the agency is officially responsible and either has in its possession or exercises dominion over. This excludes those records which, although in the physical possession of agency employees and used by them in performing official functions, are not, in fact, agency records. Uncirculated personal notes, papers and records which are retained or discarded at the author's discretion and over which the agency exercises no dominion or control (e.g., personal telephone list) are not <I>agency records</I> for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>He, his,</I> and <I>him</I> include “she”, “hers” and “her”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.2" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.2   Requests for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure for making requests for access to records.</I> An individual, or legal representative acting on his behalf, may request access to a record about himself by appearing in person or by writing to the component that maintains the record. (<I>See</I> appendix A to this part which lists the components of the Department of Labor and their addresses.) A requester in need of guidance in defining his request may write to the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW, Washington, DC 20210-0002. A request should be addressed to the component that maintains the requested record. Both the envelope and the request itself should be marked: “Privacy Act Request.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of records sought.</I> A request for access to records must describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable Department personnel to locate the system of records containing the record with a reasonable amount of effort. Whenever possible, a request for access should describe the nature of the record sought, the date of the record or the period in which the record was compiled, and the name or identifying number of the system of records in which the requester believes the record is kept.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agreement to pay fees.</I> The filing of a request for access to a record under this subpart shall be deemed to constitute an agreement to pay all applicable fees charged under § 71.6 up to $25.00. The component responsible for responding to the request shall confirm this agreement in its letter of acknowledgment to the requester. When filing a request, a requester may specify a willingness to pay a greater amount, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification of identity.</I> Any individual who submits a request for access to records must verify his identity in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Any requester making a request in writing must state in his request his full name, and current address. In addition, a requester must provide with his request an example of his signature, which shall be notarized, or signed as an unsworn declaration under penalty of perjury, pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 1746. In order to facilitate the identification of the requested records, a requester may also include in his request his Social Security number.
</P>
<P>(2) Any requester submitting a request in person may provide to the component a form of official photographic identification, such as a passport, an identification badge or a driver's license which contains the photograph of the requester. If a requester is unable to produce a form of photographic identification, he may provide to the component two or more acceptable forms of identification bearing his name and address. In all cases, sufficient identification must be presented to confirm that the requester is the individual data subject.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Verification of guardianship.</I> The parent, guardian, or representative of a minor or the guardian or representative of a person judicially determined to be incompetent who submits a request for access to the records of the minor or incompetent must establish:
</P>
<P>(1) His identity, as required in paragraph (d) of this section,
</P>
<P>(2) That the requester is the parent, guardian, or representative of the subject of the record, which may be proved by providing a copy of the subject's birth certificate showing parentage or by providing a court order establishing the guardianship, and
</P>
<P>(3) That he seeks to act on behalf of the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(f) The disclosure officer may waive the requirements set forth in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section when he deems such action to be appropriate, and may substitute in lieu thereof, other reasonable means of identification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.3" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.3   Responses by components to requests for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, the component that:
</P>
<P>(1) First receives a request for access to a record, and
</P>
<P>(2) Has possession of the requested record is the component ordinarily responsible for responding to the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> The head of a component, or his designee (<I>i.e.</I> disclosure officer), is authorized to make an initial grant or denial of any request for access to a record in the possession of that component.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing of requests for access not properly addressed.</I> A request for access that is not properly addressed as specified in § 71.2 shall be forwarded to the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management, who shall forward the request to the appropriate component or components for processing. A request not addressed to the appropriate component will be deemed not to have been received by the Department until the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management has forwarded the request to the appropriate component which has the record and that component has received the request. When the component receives an improperly addressed request, it shall notify the requester of the date on which it received the request. Accordingly, a request for access shall be deemed received on the date that it is received in the appropriate component.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Date for determining responsive records.</I> In determining the extent to which records are responsive to a request for access, a component ordinarily will include only those records within the component's possession and control as of the date of its receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>First party requests.</I> A request for access by the individual data subject for his or her own records shall be processed both under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and the Privacy Act (PA).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.4" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.4   Form and content of component responses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of notice granting request for access.</I> A request by the individual data subject for access to his or her own records shall not be denied unless both a Privacy Act exemption and a Freedom of Information Act exemption apply to the requested records. A component shall make a determination within 30 days to grant or deny a request for access in whole or in part. If the request is granted in whole, the component shall so notify the requester in writing. The notice shall describe the manner in which access to the record will be granted and shall inform the requester of any fees to be charged in accordance with § 71.6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of notice denying request for access.</I> A component denying a request for access in whole or in part shall so notify the requester in writing. The notice, signed by the responsible agency official, shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reason or reasons for the denial, including the Privacy Act and FOIA exemption or exemptions which the component has relied upon in denying the request; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the denial may be appealed under § 71.7(a), and a description of the requirements of that paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record cannot be located.</I> If no records are found which are responsive to the request, the component shall so notify the requester in writing. Such notification by the component shall inform the requester that, if the requester considers this response to be a denial of their request, the requester has a right to appeal to the Solicitor of Labor, within ninety days, as set forth in § 71.7.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Medical records.</I> When an individual requests medical records concerning himself, which are not otherwise exempt from disclosure, the disclosure officer shall, if deemed necessary because of possible harm to the individual, advise the individual that the Department of Labor believes that the records should be provided to a physician designated in writing by the individual. In addition, the Department shall request the individual to designate such a physician. Upon receipt of the designation, the disclosure officer will permit the physician to review the records or to receive copies of the records by mail, upon proper verification of identity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.5" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.5   Access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Manner of access.</I> A component that has made a determination to grant a request for access shall grant the requester access to the requested record either by providing the requester with a copy of the record, or making the record available for inspection by the requester at a reasonable time and place. The component shall charge the requester only duplication costs in accordance with the provisions of § 71.6. If a component provides access to a record by making the record available for inspection by the requester, the manner of such inspection shall not unreasonably disrupt the operations of the component.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accompanying person.</I> A requester appearing in person to review his own records may be accompanied by another individual of his own choosing. The requester shall provide the Department with his or her written consent to disclose the record to the accompanying person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.6" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.6   Fees for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When charged.</I> A component shall charge fees pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 9701 and 5 U.S.C. 552a(f)(5) for the copying of records unless the component, in its discretion, waives or reduces the fees for good cause shown. A component shall charge fees at the rate of $0.15 per page. In accordance with the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, the first 100 pages of copying shall be furnished without charge. For materials other than paper copies, the component may charge the direct costs of reproduction, but only if the requester has been notified of such costs before they are incurred. Fees shall not be charged where they would amount, in the aggregate, for one request or for a series of related requests, to less than $15.00. Notwithstanding any other provision of this paragraph, the first copy of an individual's Privacy Act record shall be provided to the individual at no cost.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of estimated fees amounting to between $25 to $250.</I> When a component determines or estimates that the fees to be charged under this section may amount to between $25 to $250, the component shall notify the requester as soon as practicable of the actual or estimated amount of the fee, unless the requester has indicated in advance his willingness to pay a fee as high as that anticipated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of estimated fees in excess of $250.</I> When a component determines or estimates that the fees to be charged under this section may amount to more than $250, the component shall notify the requester as soon as practicable of the actual or estimated amount of the fee, unless the requester has indicated in advance his willingness to pay a fee as high as that estimated. If the fee is estimated to be in excess of $250, then the agency may require payment in advance. (If only a portion of the fee can be estimated readily, the component shall advise the requester that the estimated fee may be only a portion of the total fee.) Where the estimated fee exceeds $250 and a component has so notified the requester, the component will be deemed not to have received the request for access to records until the requester has paid the anticipated fee, in full or in part. A notice to a requester pursuant to this paragraph shall offer him the opportunity to confer with Department personnel with the object of reformulating his request to meet his needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of payment.</I> Requesters must pay fees by cash, check or money order payable to either the Treasury of the United States, or the U.S. Department of Labor. However, the Department shall not require advance payment in any case where the fee is under $250, except that where a requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged under this part, the requester must pay the component or the Department the full amount owed and make an advance deposit of the full amount of any estimated fee before a component shall be required to process a new or pending request for access from that requester.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.7" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.7   Appeals from denials of access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeals to the Solicitor of Labor.</I> When a component denies in whole or in part a request for access to records, the requester may appeal the denial to the Solicitor of Labor within 90 days of his receipt of the notice denying his request. An appeal to the Solicitor of Labor shall be made in writing, addressed to the Solicitor of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW, Washington, DC. 20210-0002. Both the envelope and the letter of appeal itself must be clearly marked: “Privacy Act Appeal.” An appeal not so addressed and marked shall be forwarded to the Office of the Solicitor as soon as it is identified as an appeal under the Privacy Act. An appeal that is improperly addressed shall be deemed not to have been received by the Department until the Office of the Solicitor receives the appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of action on appeal.</I> The disposition of an appeal shall be in writing. A written decision affirming in whole or in part the denial of a request for access shall include a brief statement of the reason or reasons for the affirmation, including each Privacy Act and FOIA exemption relied upon and its relation to each record withheld, and a statement that judicial review of the denial is available in the U.S. District Court for the judicial district in which the requester resides or has his principal place of business, the judicial district in which the requested records are located, or the District of Columbia. If the denial of a request for access is reversed on appeal, the requester shall be so notified and the request shall be processed promptly in accordance with the decision on appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delegation of Authority by the Solicitor of Labor.</I> The Solicitor of Labor is authorized to delegate his authority to decide appeals from any and all denials of access to other senior attorneys within the Office of the Solicitor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.8" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.8   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each component shall preserve all correspondence relating to the requests it receives under this subpart, and all records processed pursuant to such requests, until such time as the destruction of such correspondence and records is authorized pursuant to title 44 of the U.S. Code and record schedules approved by the National Archives and Records Administration, and otherwise in accordance with retention requirements as published in the agency's system of records. Under no circumstances shall records be destroyed while they are the subject of a pending request for access, appeal, or lawsuit under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.9" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.9   Request for correction or amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How made.</I> An individual may submit a request for correction or amendment of a record pertaining to him. The request must be in writing and must be addressed to the component that maintains the record. (Appendix A of this part lists the components of the Department and their addresses.) The request must identify the particular record in question, state the correction or amendment sought, and set forth the justification for the change. Both the envelope and the request itself must be clearly marked: “Privacy Act Amendment Request.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial determination.</I> Within 30 working days of receiving a request for correction or amendment, a component shall notify the requester whether his request will be granted or denied, in whole or in part. If the component grants the request in whole or in part, it shall send the requester a copy of the amended record, in releasable form, as proof of the change. If the component denies the request in whole or in part, it shall notify the requester in writing of the denial. The notice of denial shall state the reason or reasons for the denial and advise the requester of his right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeals.</I> When a request for correction or amendment is denied in whole or in part, the requester may appeal the denial to the Solicitor of Labor within 90 days of his receipt of the notice denying his request. An appeal to the Solicitor of Labor shall be made in writing, shall set forth the specific item of information sought to be corrected or amended, and shall include any documentation said to justify the change. An appeal shall be addressed to the Solicitor of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW, Washington, DC 20210-0002. Both the envelope and the letter of appeal itself must be clearly marked: “Privacy Act Amendment Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination on appeal.</I> The Solicitor of Labor shall decide all appeals from denials of requests to correct or amend records. All such appeals shall be decided within 30 working days of receipt of the appeal, unless there is good cause shown to extend this period. The appellant shall be notified if the period for decision has been extended.
</P>
<P>(1) If the denial of a request is affirmed on appeal, the requester shall be so notified in writing and advised of:
</P>
<P>(i) The reason or reasons the denial has been affirmed,
</P>
<P>(ii) The requester's right to file a Statement of Disagreement, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The requester's right to obtain judicial review of the denial in the U.S. District Court for the judicial district in which the requester resides or has its principal place of business, the judicial district in which the record is located, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(2) If the denial is reversed on appeal, the requester shall be so notified and the request for correction or amendment shall be promptly remanded to the component that denied the request for processing in accordance with the decision on appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Delegation of Authority by the Solicitor of Labor.</I> The Solicitor of Labor is authorized to delegate his or her authority to decide any and all appeals from denials of requests to correct or amend records to other senior attorneys within the Office of the Solicitor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Statements of disagreement.</I> A requester whose request or appeal under this section has been denied shall have the right to file a Statement of Disagreement with the Solicitor of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW, Washington, DC 20210-0002, within 30 days of receiving notice of denial. Statements of Disagreement may not exceed one typed page per fact disputed. Statements exceeding this limit shall be returned to the requester for condensation. Upon receipt of a Statement of Disagreement under this section, the agency shall promptly have the statement included in the record and shall have the disputed record marked so as to indicate that a Statement of Disagreement has been filed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notices of correction or amendment or disagreement.</I> Within 30 working days of the correction or amendment of a record, the component that maintains the record shall advise all components or agencies to which it previously disclosed the record that the record has been amended. Whenever an individual has filed a Statement of Disagreement, a component shall append a copy of the Statement to the disputed record whenever the record is disclosed. The component may also append to the disputed record a written statement giving the component's reasons for denying the request to correct or amend the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.10" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.10   Certain records not subject to correction.</HEAD>
<P>Certain records are not subject to correction or amendment. These include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Transcripts of testimony given under oath or written statements made under oath;
</P>
<P>(b) Transcripts or decisions of grand jury, administrative, judicial, or quasi-judicial proceedings which constitute the official record of such proceedings;
</P>
<P>(c) Records duly exempted from correction pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or 552a(k) by rulemaking promulgated under the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.</I>)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.11   Emergency disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>If the record of an individual has been disclosed to any person under compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of any person, as described in 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(8), the individual to whom the record pertains shall be notified of the disclosure at his last known address within 10 working days. The notice of such disclosure shall be in writing and shall state the nature of the information disclosed, the person or agency to whom it was disclosed, the date of disclosure, and the compelling circumstances justifying the disclosure. The officer who made or authorized the disclosure shall be responsible for providing such notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.12" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.12   Use and collection of social security numbers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each component unit that requests an individual to disclose his social security account number shall provide the individual, in writing, with the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The statute, regulation, Executive Order or other authority under which the number is solicited;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the disclosure is mandatory or voluntary; and
</P>
<P>(3) The consequences, if any, to the individual should he or she refuse or fail to disclose the number.
</P>
<P>(b) Neither the Department nor any of its component units shall, in the absence of specific federal statutory authority, deny to an individual any right, benefit or privilege provided by law solely because of such individual's refusal to disclose his social security account number.
</P>
<P>(c) The head of each component unit shall ensure that employees authorized to collect social security account numbers or tax identifying numbers, are aware of the statutory or other basis for collecting such information, of the uses to which such numbers may be put, and of the consequences, if any, that might follow if a person refuses to disclose the requested number.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.13" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.13   Employee standards of conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each component shall inform its employees of the provisions of the Privacy Act, including the Act's civil liability and criminal penalty provisions. Each component also shall notify its employees that they have a duty to:
</P>
<P>(1) Protect the security of records,
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure the accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness of records,
</P>
<P>(3) Avoid the unauthorized disclosure, either verbal or written, of records, and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the component maintains no system of records without public notice.
</P>
<P>(b) Except to the extent that the Privacy Act permits such activities, an employee of the Department of Labor shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Not collect information of a personal nature from individuals unless the employee is authorized to collect such information to perform a function or discharge a responsibility of the Department;
</P>
<P>(2) Collect from individuals only that information which is necessary to the performance of the functions or to the discharge of the responsibilities of the Department;
</P>
<P>(3) Collect information about an individual directly from that individual, whenever practicable;
</P>
<P>(4) Inform each individual from whom information is collected of:
</P>
<P>(i) The legal authority that authorizes the Department to collect such information,
</P>
<P>(ii) The principal purposes for which the Department intends to use the information,
</P>
<P>(iii) The routine uses the Department may make of the information, and
</P>
<P>(iv) The practical and legal effects upon the individual of not furnishing the information;
</P>
<P>(5) Maintain all records which are used by the agency in making any determination about any individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as to ensure fairness to the individual in the determination;
</P>
<P>(6) Maintain no record describing how any individual exercises rights guaranteed by the First Amendment to the United States Constitution, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual has volunteered such information for his own benefit,
</P>
<P>(ii) A statute expressly authorizes the Department to collect, maintain, use, or disseminate the information, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual's beliefs, activities, or membership are pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity;
</P>
<P>(7) Notify the head of the component of the existence or development of any system of records that has not been disclosed to the public;
</P>
<P>(8) Disclose no record to anyone, for any use, unless authorized by the Act;
</P>
<P>(9) Maintain and use records with care to prevent the inadvertent disclosure of a record to anyone; and
</P>
<P>(10) Notify the head of the component of any record that contains information that the Act or the foregoing provisions of this paragraph do not permit the Department to maintain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.14" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.14   Use of nonpublic information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> (1) An employee shall not engage in a financial transaction using nonpublic information, nor allow the improper use of nonpublic information to further his own private interest or that of another, whether through advice or recommendations, or by knowing unauthorized disclosure. <I>See</I> 5 CFR 2635.703.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonpublic information is information that an employee gains by reason of Federal employment that he knows or reasonably should know has not been made available to the general public. Nonpublic information includes information contained in a Privacy Act system of records which an individual knew or should have known:
</P>
<P>(i) Is normally exempt from disclosure under Exemptions 6 or 7(C) of the Freedom of Information Act, or is otherwise protected from disclosure by statute, Executive Order or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has not actually been disseminated to the general public and is not authorized to be made available to the public upon request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any DOL employee who willfully discloses any information or records from any file that contains individually-identifiable information to any person or agency not entitled to receive it, and the disclosure of which is prohibited by the Privacy Act or by rules or regulations established thereunder, and who, knowing the disclosure of the specific material is so prohibited, will be subject to disciplinary action, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public disclosures by third parties of DOL Privacy Act records.</I> When Labor Department records subject to the Privacy Act are disclosed to third parties, and as a condition of the disclosure of such records, the person or entity to whom the records are furnished is expressly prohibited from further disseminating the information, any further dissemination of the information so furnished to such person or entity may be subject to the penalties set forth in 18 U.S.C. 641.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.15" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.1.81.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.15   Training.</HEAD>
<P>All DOL systems managers, disclosure officers, and employees with responsibilities under the Privacy Act shall periodically attend training offered by the Department on the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemption of Records Systems Under the Privacy Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.50" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.2.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.50   General exemptions pursuant to subsection (j) of the Privacy Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following systems of records are eligible for exemption under 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) because they are maintained by a component of the agency or subcomponent which performs as its principal function the enforcement of criminal laws, and they contain investigatory material compiled for criminal law enforcement purposes. Accordingly, these systems of records are exempt from the following subsections of 552a of title 5 U.S. Code: (c)(3) and (4), (d), (e)(1), (2), and (3), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), (e)(5) and (8), (f) and (g).
</P>
<P>(1) DOL/ESA-45 (Investigative Files of the Office of Labor-Management Standards), a system of records maintained by the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
</P>
<P>(2) DOL/OIG-1 (General Investigative Files, and Subject Title Index, USDOL/OIG), a system of records maintained by the Office of the Inspector General (OIG).
</P>
<P>(3) DOL/OIG-2 (Freedom of Information/Privacy Acts Records), a system of records maintained by the OIG.
</P>
<P>(4) DOL/OIG-3 (Case Development Records), a system of records maintained by the OIG.
</P>
<P>(5) DOL/OIG-5 (Investigative Case Tracking Systems/Audit Information Reporting Systems, USDOL/OIG), a system of records maintained by the OIG.
</P>
<P>(6) DOL/MSHA-20 (Civil/Criminal Investigations), a system of records maintained by the Mine Safety and Health Administration.
</P>
<P>(7) DOL/EBSA-2 (Office of Enforcement Index Cards and Investigation Files), a system of records maintained by the Employee Benefits Security Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) This exemption applies to the extent that information in these systems of records is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) These systems are exempted for the reasons set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (12) of this section, from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subsection (c)(3).</I> The release of the disclosure accounting would present a serious impediment to law enforcement by permitting the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal violation to determine whether he is the subject of investigation, or to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation and the information obtained, or to identify witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsection (c)(4).</I> Since an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d) f the Act (Access to Records), this subsection is inapplicable to the extent that these systems of records are exempted from subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsection (d).</I> Access to records contained in these systems would inform the subject of an actual or potential criminal investigation of the existence of that investigation, of the nature and scope of the investigation, of the information and evidence obtained as to his or her activities, and of the identity of witnesses or informants. Such access would, accordingly, provide information that could enable the subject to avoid detection, apprehension, and prosecution. This result, therefore, would constitute a serious impediment to effective law enforcement not only because it would prevent the successful completion of the investigation but also because it could endanger the physical safety of witnesses or informants, lead to the improper influencing of witnesses, the destruction of evidence, or the fabrication of testimony. Amendment of the records would interfere with ongoing criminal law enforcement proceedings and imposes an impossible administrative burden by requiring criminal investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> In the course of criminal and related law enforcement investigations, cases, and matters, the agency will occasionally obtain information concerning actual or potential violations of law that may not be technically within its statutory or other authority, or it may compile information in the course of an investigation which may not be relevant to a specific prosecution. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary to retain some or all of such information since it can aid in establishing patterns of criminal activity and can provide valuable leads for Federal and other law enforcement agencies. Moreover, it is difficult to know during the course of an investigation what is relevant and necessary. In this connection, facts or evidence may not seem relevant at first, but later in the investigation, their relevance is borne out.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Subsection (e)(2).</I> To collect information to the greatest extent practicable from the subject individual of a criminal investigation or prosecution would present a serious impediment to law enforcement because the subject of the investigation or prosecution would be placed on notice as to the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection or apprehension, improperly influence witnesses, destroy evidence, or fabricate testimony.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Subsection (e)(3).</I> To provide individuals supplying information with a form which includes the information required by subsection (e)(3) would constitute a serious impediment to law enforcement, i.e., it could compromise the existence of a confidential investigation or reveal the identity of witnesses or confidential informants.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> These subsections are inapplicable to the extent that these systems are exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d) and the rules provisions of subsection (f).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> The categories of sources of the records in these systems have been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in broad generic terms in the belief that this is all that subsection (e)(4)(I) of the Act requires. In the event, however, that this subsection should be interpreted to require more detail as to the identity of sources of the records in this system, exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of the sources of criminal and related law enforcement information. Such exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Subsection (e)(5).</I> In the collection of information for criminal enforcement purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With the passage of time, seemingly irrelevant or untimely information may acquire new significance as further investigation brings new details to light. Furthermore, the accuracy of such information can often only be determined in a court of law. The restrictions of subsection (e)(5) would inhibit the ability of government attorneys in exercising their judgment in reporting on information and investigations and impede the development of criminal information and related data necessary for effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Subsection (e)(8).</I> The individual notice requirements of subsection (e)(8) could present a serious impediment to law enforcement as this could interfere with the ability to issue warrants or subpoenas and could reveal investigative techniques, procedures, or evidence.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Subsection (f).</I> Procedures for notice to an individual pursuant to subsection (f)(1) as to existence of records pertaining to the individual dealing with an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory investigation or prosecution must be exempted because such notice to an individual would be detrimental to the successful conduct and/or completion of an investigation or case, pending or future. In addition, mere notice of the fact of an investigation could inform the subject or others that their activities are under investigation or may become the subject of an investigation and could enable the subjects to avoid detection, to influence witnesses improperly, to destroy evidence, or to fabricate testimony. Since an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d) of the Act (Access to Records) the rules required pursuant to subsections (f)(2) through (5) are inapplicable to these systems of records to the extent that these systems of records are exempted from subsection (d).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Subsection (g).</I> Since an exemption is being claimed for subsections (d) (Access to Records) and (f) (Agency Rules) this section is inapplicable, and is exempted for the reasons set forth for those subsections, to the extent that these systems of records are exempted from subsections (d) and (f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 56741, Oct. 22, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 16399, Apr. 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.51" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.2.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.51   Specific exemptions pursuant to subsection (k)(2) of the Privacy Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following systems of records are eligible for exemption under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) because they contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of subsection (j)(2) of 5 U.S.C. 552a. Provided however, that if any individual is denied any right, privilege or benefit to which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law, or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such material, such material shall be provided to such individual, except to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or prior to January 1, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. Accordingly the following systems of records are exempt from (c)(3), (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), (d)(4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(I) and (f) of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(1) DOL/GOVT-1 (Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Federal Employees' Compensation Act File), a system of records maintained by the Employment Standards Administration (ESA).
</P>
<P>(2) DOL/OASAM-17 (Equal Employment Opportunity Complaint Files), a system of records maintained by the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management (OASAM).
</P>
<P>(3) DOL/OASAM-19 (Negotiated Grievance Procedure and Unfair Labor Practice Files), a system of records maintained by OASAM.
</P>
<P>(4) DOL/OASAM-20 (Personnel Investigation Records), a system of records maintained by OASAM.
</P>
<P>(5) DOL/OASAM-22 (Civil Rights Center Discrimination Complaint Case Files), a system of records maintained by OASAM.
</P>
<P>(6) DOL/OASAM-29 (OASAM Employee Administrative Investigation File), a system of records maintained by OASAM.
</P>
<P>(7) DOL/BLS-7 (BLS Employee Conduct Investigation), a system of records maintained by the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS).
</P>
<P>(8) DOL/ESA-2 (Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Complaint Files), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(9) DOL/ESA-25 (Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Management Information Systems (OFCCP/MIS), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(10) DOL/ESA-26 (Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act Investigation Files), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(11) DOL/ESA-27 (Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Longshore Act Claimant Representatives), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(12) DOL/ESA-28 (Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Physicians and Health Care Providers Excluded under the Longshore Act), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(13) DOL/ESA-29 (Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Physicians and Health Care Providers Excluded under the Federal Employees' Compensation Act), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(14) DOL/ESA-32 (ESA, Complaint and Employee Conduct Investigations), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(15) DOL/ESA-36 (ESA, Wage and Hour Division, MSPA/FLCRA Civil Money Penalty Record Files), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(16) DOL/ESA-40 (ESA, Wage and Hour Division, MSPA/FLCRA Tracer List), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(17) DOL/ESA-41 (ESA, Wage and Hour Division, MSPA/FLCRA Certificate Action Record Files), a system of records maintained by ESA.
</P>
<P>(18) DOL/ESA-45 (Investigative Files of the Office of Labor-Management Standards), a system maintained by the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
</P>
<P>(19) DOL/ETA-16 (Employment and Training Administration Investigatory File), a system of records maintained by the Employment and Training Administration (ETA).
</P>
<P>(20) DOL/ETA-22 (ETA Employee Conduct Investigations), a system of records maintained by ETA.
</P>
<P>(21) DOL/OIG-1 (General Investigative Files, and Subject Title Index, USDOL/OIG), a system of records maintained by the Office of the Inspector General (OIG).
</P>
<P>(22) DOL/OIG-2 (Freedom of Information/Privacy Acts Records), a system of records maintained by the OIG.
</P>
<P>(23) DOL/OIG-3 (Case Development Records), a system of records maintained by OIG.
</P>
<P>(24) DOL/OIG-5 (Investigative Case Tracking Systems/Audit Information Reporting Systems, USDOL/OIG), a system of records maintained by OIG.
</P>
<P>(25) DOL/MSHA-10 (Discrimination Investigations), a system of records maintained by the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA).
</P>
<P>(26) DOL/MSHA-19 (Employee Conduct Investigations), a system of records maintained by MSHA.
</P>
<P>(27) DOL/MSHA-20 (Civil/Criminal Investigations), a system of records maintained by MSHA.
</P>
<P>(28) DOL/OSHA-1 (Discrimination Complaint File), a system of records maintained by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
</P>
<P>(29) DOL/OSHA-12 (Employee Conduct Investigations), a system of records maintained by OSHA.
</P>
<P>(30) DOL/EBSA-2 (Office of Enforcement Index Cards and Investigation Files), a system of records maintained by the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA).
</P>
<P>(31) DOL/EBSA-7 (EBSA Employee Conduct Investigations), a system of records maintained by EBSA.
</P>
<P>(32) DOL/SOL-8 (Special Litigation Files), a system of records maintained by the Office of the Solicitor (SOL).
</P>
<P>(33) DOL/SOL-9 (Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Appeals Files), a system of records maintained by SOL.
</P>
<P>(34) DOL/SOL-11 (Division of Civil Rights and Labor Management Defensive Litigation Files), a system of records maintained by SOL.
</P>
<P>(35) DOL/SOL-12 (Third-party Recovery Files), a system of records maintained by SOL.
</P>
<P>(36) DOL/SOL-13 (SOL Employee Conduct Investigations), a system of records maintained by SOL.
</P>
<P>(37) DOL/SOL-15 (Solicitor's Office Litigation Files), a system of records maintained by SOL.
</P>
<P>(38) DOL/VETS-1 (Veterans' Reemployment Complaint File—VETS-1), a system of records maintained by the Veterans' Employment and Training Service (VETS).
</P>
<P>(39) DOL/VETS-2 (Veterans' Preference Complaint File), a system of records maintained by VETS.
</P>
<P>(b) This exemption applies to the extent that information in these systems is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) The systems of records listed under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(39) of this section are exempted for the reasons set forth in paragraphs (c) (1) through (6) of this section, from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subsection (c)(3).</I> The release of the disclosure accounting, for disclosures made pursuant to subsection (b) of the Act, including those permitted under the routine uses published for these systems of records, would enable the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential civil case to determine whether he or she is the subject of investigation, to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation and the information obtained, and to determine the identity of witnesses or informants. Such access to investigative information would, accordingly, present a serious impediment to law enforcement. In addition, disclosure of the accounting would constitute notice to the individual of the existence of a record even though such notice requirement under subsection (f)(1) is specifically exempted for this system of records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsections (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), and (d)(4).</I> Access to the records contained in these systems would inform the subject of an actual or potential civil investigation of the existence of that investigation, of the nature and scope of the information and evidence obtained as to his or her activities, and of the identity of witnesses or informants. Such access would, accordingly, provide information that could enable the subject to avoid detection. This result, therefore, would constitute a serious impediment to effective law enforcement not only because it would prevent the successful completion of the investigation but also because it could endanger the physical safety of witnesses or informants, lead to the improper influencing of witnesses, the destruction of evidence, or the fabrication of testimony.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> The notices for these systems of records published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> set forth the basic statutory or related authority for maintenance of these systems. However, in the course of civil and related law enforcement investigations, cases and matters, the agency will occasionally obtain information concerning actual or potential violations of law that are not strictly or technically within its statutory or other authority or may compile information in the course of an investigation which may not be relevant to a specific case. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is necessary to retain some or all of such information in this system of records since it can aid in establishing patterns of compliance and can provide valuable leads for Federal and other law enforcement agencies. Moreover, it is difficult to know during the course of an investigation what is relevant and necessary. In this connection, facts or evidence may not seem relevant at first, but later in the investigation, their relevance is borne out.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subsections (e)(4) (G) and (H).</I> Since an exemption is being claimed for subsections (f) (Agency Rules) and (d) (Access to Records) of the Act, these subsections are inapplicable to the extent that these systems of records are exempted from subsections (f) and (d).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> The categories of sources of the records in these systems have been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in broad generic terms in the belief that this is all that subsection (e)(4)(I) of the Act requires. In the event, however, that this subsection should be interpreted to require more detail as to the identity of sources of the records in this system, exemption from this provision is necessary in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of civil law enforcement information. Such exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Subsection (f).</I> Procedures for notice to an individual pursuant to subsection (f)(1) as to existence of records pertaining to the individual dealing with an actual or potential criminal, civil, or regulatory investigation or prosecution must be exempted because such notice to an individual would be detrimental to the successful conduct and/or completion of an investigation or case, pending or future. In addition, mere notice of the fact of an investigation could inform the subject or others that their activities are under or may become the subject of an investigation and could enable the subjects to avoid detection, to influence witnesses improperly, to destroy evidence, or to fabricate testimony. Since an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d) of the Act (Access to Records), the rules required pursuant to subsections (f)(2) through (5) are inapplicable to these systems of records to the extent that these systems of records are exempted from subsection (d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 56741, Oct. 22, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 16399, Apr. 3, 2003; 72 FR 37099, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.52" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.2.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.52   Specific exemptions pursuant to subsection (k)(5) of the Privacy Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following systems of records are eligible for exemption under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) because they contain investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to January 1, 1975 , under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. Accordingly, these systems of records are exempt from (c)(3), (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), (d)(4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(I) and (f) of 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(1) DOL/OASAM-20 (Personnel Investigation Records), a system of records maintained by the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management (OASAM).
</P>
<P>(2) DOL/OIG-1 (General Investigative Files, and Subject Title Index, USDOL/OIG), a system of records maintained by the Office of the Inspector General (OIG).
</P>
<P>(3) DOL/OIG-2 (Freedom of Information/Privacy Acts Records), a system of records maintained by the OIG.
</P>
<P>(4) DOL/OIG-3 (Case Development Records), a system of records maintained by the OIG.
</P>
<P>(5) DOL/OIG-5 (Investigative Case Tracking Systems/Audit Information Reporting Systems, USDOL/OIG), a system of records maintained by the OIG.
</P>
<P>(b) This exemption applies to the extent that information in these systems is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).
</P>
<P>(c) The systems of records listed under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section are exempted for the reasons set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (6) of this section, from the following subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subsection (c)(3).</I> The release of the disclosure accounting, for disclosures made pursuant to subsection (b) of the Act, including those permitted under the routine uses published for this system of records, would enable the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential civil case to determine whether he or she is the subject of investigation, to obtain valuable information concerning the nature of that investigation and the information obtained, and to determine the identity of witnesses or informants. Such access to investigative information would, accordingly, present a serious impediment to the investigation. In addition, disclosure of the accounting would constitute notice to the individual of the existence of a record even though such notice requirement under subsection (f)(1) is specifically exempted for this system of records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsections (d)(1), (d)(2), (d)(3), and (d)(4).</I> Access to the records contained in these systems would inform the subject of an actual or potential investigation of the existence of that investigation, of the nature and scope of the information and evidence obtained as to his or her activities, and of the identity of witnesses or informants. Such access would, accordingly, provide information that could enable the subject to avoid detection. This result, therefore, would constitute a serious impediment to effective investigation not only because it would prevent the successful completion of the investigation but also because it could endanger the physical safety of witnesses or informants, lead to the improper influencing of witnesses, the destruction of evidence, or the fabrication of testimony.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsection (e)(1).</I> The notices for these systems of records published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> set forth the basic statutory or related authority for maintenance of this system. However, in the course of civil and related investigations, cases and matters, the agency will occasionally obtain information concerning actual or potential violations of law that are not strictly or technically within its statutory or other authority or may compile information in the course of an investigation which may not be relevant to a specific case. In the interests of effective investigation, it is necessary to retain some or all of such information in these systems of records since it can aid in establishing patterns of compliance and can provide valuable leads for Federal and other law enforcement agencies. Moreover, it is difficult to know during the course of an investigation what is relevant and necessary. In this connection, facts or evidence may not seem relevant at first, but later in the investigation, their relevance is borne out.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H).</I> Since an exemption is being claimed for subsections (f) (Agency Rules) and (d) (Access to Records) of the Act, these subsections are inapplicable to the extent that these systems of records are exempted from subsections (f) and (d).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Subsection (e)(4)(I).</I> The categories of sources of the records in these systems have been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in broad generic terms in the belief that this is all that subsection (e)(4)(I) of the Act requires. In the event, however, that this subsection should be interpreted to require more detail as to the identity of sources of the records in this system, exemption from this provision is necessary in order to protect the confidentiality of the sources of investigatory information. Such exemption is further necessary to protect the privacy and physical safety of witnesses and informants.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Subsection (f).</I> Procedures for notice to an individual pursuant to subsection (f)(1) as to existence of records pertaining to the individual dealing with an actual or potential investigation must be exempted because such notice to an individual would be detrimental to the successful conduct and/or completion of an investigation or case, pending or future. In addition, mere notice of the fact of an investigation could inform the subject or others that their activities are under or may become the subject of an investigation and could enable the subjects to avoid detection, to influence witnesses improperly, to destroy evidence, or to fabricate testimony. Since an exemption is being claimed for subsection (d) of the Act (Access to Records), the rules required pursuant to subsections (f)(2) through (5) are inapplicable to these systems of records to the extent that these systems of records are exempted from subsection (d).
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.41.2.81.4.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 71—Responsible Officials
</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The titles of the responsible officials of the various independent agencies in the Department of Labor are listed below. This list is provided for information and to assist requesters in locating the office most likely to have responsive records. The officials may be changed by appropriate designation. Unless otherwise specified, the mailing addresses of the officials shall be: U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210-0002. When addressing communications to an office or division within a Department of Labor agency, include the agency and sub-agency name.
</P>
<HD2>Administrative Review Board (ARB)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Chairperson
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Policy (OASP)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Policy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<HD2>Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Commissioner
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Associate Commissioner, Office of Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The mailing address for responsible officials in the Bureau of Labor Statistics is: Rm. 4040—Postal Square Bldg., 2 Massachusetts Ave., NE., Washington, DC 20212-0001.
</FP-1>
<HD2>Benefits Review Board (BRB)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Chief Administrative Appeals Judge
</FP-1>
<HD2>Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Participant Assistance
</FP-1>
<HD2>Employees' Compensation Appeals Board (ECAB)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Chairperson
</FP-1>
<HD2>Employment Standards Administration (ESA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Employment Standards
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Equal Employment Opportunity Unit
</FP-1>
<HD1>Office of Management, Administration and Planning
</HD1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Management, Administration and Planning
</FP-1>
<HD1>Office of Workers' Compensation Programs
</HD1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Workers' Compensation Programs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Director, Office of Workers' Compensation Programs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Special Assistant to the Director
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director for Division of Planning, Policy, and Standards
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director for Federal Employees' Compensation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director for Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director for Coal Mine Workers' Compensation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director for Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation
</FP-1>
<HD1>Wage and Hour Division
</HD1>
<FP-1>Administrator
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Administrator
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy National Office Program Administrator
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Enforcement Policy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Director, Office of Enforcement Policy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Planning and Analysis
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Wage Determinations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of External Affairs
</FP-1>
<HD1>Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
</HD1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Federal Contract Compliance Programs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Director, Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Division of Policy, Planning and Program Development
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Director, Division of Policy, Planning and Program Development
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Division of Program Operations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Director, Division of Program Operations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Division of Management and Administrative Programs
</FP-1>
<HD1>Office of Labor-Management Standards
</HD1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Labor-Management Standards
</FP-1>
<HD2>Employment and Training Administration (ETA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary of Labor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary, Workforce Investment System
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of Workforce Investment
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of Workforce Security
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of National Response
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Division of Trade Adjustment Assistance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of Field Operations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Boston
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Philadelphia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Atlanta
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Dallas
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Chicago
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, San Francisco
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary, Administration &amp; National Activity
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of Foreign Labor Certification
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of Apprenticeship
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Office of Apprenticeship, Boston
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Office of Apprenticeship, Philadelphia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Office of Apprenticeship, Atlanta
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Office of Apprenticeship, Dallas
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Office of Apprenticeship, Chicago
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Office of Apprenticeship, San Francisco
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of Policy Development &amp; Research
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of Financial &amp; Administrative Management
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Financial and Administrative Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Grants and Contracts Management
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chief, Division of Contract Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chief, Division of Federal Assistance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Human Resources
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Equal Employment Opportunity
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Special Program &amp; Emergency Preparedness
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administrator, Office of Performance &amp; Technology
</FP-1>
<HD2>Bureau of International Labor Affairs (ILAB)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Deputy Undersecretary, Office of the Deputy Undersecretary
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of Job Corps (OJC)
</HD2>
<FP-1>National Director
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Boston
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Philadelphia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Atlanta
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Chicago
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Dallas
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, San Francisco
</FP-1>
<HD2>Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Director of Office of Standards, Regulations, and Standards
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The mailing address for the responsible official in the Mine Safety and Health Administration is: 1100 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, Virginia 22209.
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of the Administrative Law Judges (OALJ)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Chief Administrative Law Judge
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Legal Counsel
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The mailing address for the Office of Administrative Law Judges is: Chief, Office of Administrative Law Judges, 800 K Street, NW., Suite N-400, Washington, DC 20001-8002.
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of Adjudicatory Services (OAS)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Executive Director
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management (OASAM)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Operations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Budget and Performance Planning
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Security and Emergency Management
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Business Operations Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Civil Rights Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Human Resources Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Information Technology Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Departmental Budget Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Center for Program Planning and Results
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of the Chief Financial Officer (OCFO)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Chief Financial Officer
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Associate Deputy Secretary for Adjudication
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of Congressional and Intergovernmental Affairs (OCIA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of Disability Employment Policy (ODEP)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Policy and Research
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Operations
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of the Inspector General (OIG)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Disclosure Officer
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of Public Affairs (OPA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of the Secretary of Labor (OSEC)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Secretary of Labor, Attention: Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of Small Business Programs (OSBP)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Director
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of the Solicitor of Labor (SOL)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Deputy Solicitor
</FP-1>
<HD2>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary (2)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Communications
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Equal Employment Opportunity
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Administrative Programs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Construction
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Cooperative and State Programs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Enforcement Programs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Evaluation and Analysis
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Information Technology
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Science, Technology and Medicine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Standards and Guidance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Directorate of Training and Education
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The mailing address for OSHA's Directorate of Training and Education is 2020 South Arlington Heights Road, Arlington Heights, Illinois 60005-4102.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Boston
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, New York
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Philadelphia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Atlanta
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Chicago
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Dallas
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Kansas City
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Denver
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, San Francisco
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator, Seattle
</FP-1>
<HD2>Veterans' Employment and Training Service (VETS)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Deputy Assistant Secretary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Director, Office of Agency, Management and Budget
</FP-1>
<HD2>Women's Bureau
</HD2>
<FP-1>Director
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Office Coordinator
</FP-1>
<P>(2) The titles of the responsible officials in the <I>regional offices</I> of the various independent agencies are listed below. Unless otherwise specified, the mailing address for these officials by region, shall be:
</P>
<HD1>Region I
</HD1>
<FP-1>U.S. Department of Labor, John F. Kennedy Federal Building, Boston, Massachusetts 02203
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region II
</HD1>
<FP-1>201 Varick Street, New York, New York 10014
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region III
</HD1>
<FP-1>Gateway Building, 3535 Market Street, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19104
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curtis Center, 170 South Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, PA 19106-3305 (BLS only) This also is an OSHA address.
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region IV
</HD1>
<FP-1>U.S. Department of Labor, Atlanta Federal Center, 61 Forsyth Street, SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region V
</HD1>
<FP-1>Kluczynski Federal Building, 230 South Dearborn Street, Chicago, Illinois 60604
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1240 East Ninth Street, Room 851, Cleveland, Ohio 44199 (FEC only)
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region VI
</HD1>
<FP-1>525 Griffin Square Building, Griffin &amp; Young Streets, Dallas, Texas 75202
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region VII
</HD1>
<FP-1>City Center Square Building, 1100 Main Street, Kansas City, Missouri 64105-2112 (For BLS only: contact Region VI.)
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region VIII
</HD1>
<FP-1>1999 Broadway Street, Denver, Colorado 80202 (For BLS only: contact Region VI.)
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region IX
</HD1>
<FP-1>San Francisco Federal Building, 90-7th Street, San Francisco, California 94103
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region X
</HD1>
<FP-1>1111 Third Avenue, Seattle, Washington 98101-3212 (For BLS only: contact Region IX.)
</FP-1>
<HD2>Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Regional Director or District Supervisor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, J.F.K. Federal Bldg., Room 575, Boston, Massachusetts 02203
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, 33 Whitehall Street, Suite 1200, New York, NY 10004
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, The Curtis Center, 170 S. Independence Mall West, Suite 870 West, Philadelphia, PA 19106
</FP-1>
<FP-1>District Supervisor, 1335 East-West Highway, Suite 200, Silver Spring, MD 20910
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, 61 Forsyth Street, S.W., Room 7B54, Atlanta, Georgia 30303
</FP-1>
<FP-1>District Supervisor, 8040 Peters Road, Building H, Suite 104, Plantation, Florida 33324
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, 1885 Dixie Highway, Suite 210, Ft. Wright, Kentucky 41011
</FP-1>
<FP-1>District Supervisor, 211 West Fort Street, Suite 1310, Detroit, Michigan 48226-3211
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, 200 West Adams Street, Suite 1600, Chicago, Illinois 60606
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, Two Pershing Square Building, 2300 Main Street, Suite 1100, Kansas City, MO 64108
</FP-1>
<FP-1>District Supervisor, Young Federal Building, 1222 Spruce Street, Room 6310, St. Louis, MO 63103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, 525 Griffin Street, Room 900, Dallas, Texas 75202
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, 90 7th Street, Suite 11-300, San Francisco, CA 94103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>District Director, 1111 Third Avenue, Room 860, Seattle, Washington 98101-3212
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Director, 1055 E. Colorado Boulevard, Suite 200, Pasadena, CA 91106
</FP-1>
<HD2>Employment Standards Administration (ESA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator for Wage and Hour, Regional Director for Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Regional Director for the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, District Director, Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Employment Standards Administration
</FP-1>
<HD1>Wage and Hour Division, ESA
</HD1>
<HD3>Northeast Region
</HD3>
<FP-1>The Curtis Center, Suite 850, 170 S. Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, PA 19106
</FP-1>
<HD3>Southeast Region
</HD3>
<FP-1>U.S. Department of Labor, Atlanta Federal Center, Room 7M40, 61 Forsyth Street, SW., Atlanta, GA, 30303
</FP-1>
<HD3>Midwest Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>230 South Dearborn Street, Suite 530, Chicago, Illinois 60604
</FP-1>
<HD3>Southwest Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>525 Griffin Street, Suite 800, Dallas, TX 75202
</FP-1>
<HD3>Western Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>71 Stevenson Street, Suite 930, San Francisco, California 94105
</FP-1>
<HD1>Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, ESA
</HD1>
<FP-1>JFK Federal Building, Room E-235, Boston, Massachusetts 02203
</FP-1>
<FP-1>201 Varick Street, Room 750, New York, New York 10014
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curtis Center Suite 750 West, 170 S. Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, PA 19106
</FP-1>
<FP-1>61 Forsyth Street, SW, Suite 7B75, Atlanta, Georgia 30303
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Klucynski Federal Building, Room 570, 230 South Dearborn Street, Chicago, Illinois 60604
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Building, Room 840, 525 South Griffin Street, Dallas, Texas 75202
</FP-1>
<FP-1>71 Stevenson Street, Suite 1700, San Francisco, California 94105-2614
</FP-1>
<HD1>Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, District Directors
</HD1>
<HD3>National Office 
</HD3>
<FP-1>800 North Capitol Street NW., Room 800, Washington, DC 20211 (FECA Only)
</FP-1>
<HD3>FAB Offices 
</HD3>
<FP-1>800 N. Capitol Street, Room 565, Washington, DC 20211 (EEOIC Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>400 West Bay Street, Room 722, Jacksonville, FL 32202 (EEOIC Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1001 Lakeside Avenue Suite 350, Cleveland, OH 44114 (EEOIC Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1999 Broadway, Suite 1120, Denver, CO 80202 (EEOIC Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>719 Second Avenue, Suite 601, Seattle, WA 98104 (EEOIC Only)
</FP-1>
<HD3>Northeast Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>201 Varick Street, Seventh Floor, Room 750, New York, NY 10014 (FECA and LHWCA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>201 Varick Street, Seventh Floor, Room 740, New York, New York 10014 (FECA and LHWCA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>John F. Kennedy, Federal Building, Room E-260, Boston, Massachusetts 02203 (FECA and LHWCA Only)
</FP-1>
<HD3>Philadelphia Region
</HD3>
<FP-1>Curtis Center, Suite 780 West, 170 S. Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, PA 19106 (FECA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curtis Center, Suite 715 East, 170 S. Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, PA 19106 (FECA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Penn Traffic Building, 319 Washington Street, Johnstown, Pennsylvania 15901 (BLBA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>100 North Wilkes Barre Blvd., Suite 300A, Wilkes-Barre, Pennsylvania 18702 (BLBA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wellington Square, 1225 South Main Street, Suite 405, Greensburg, Pennsylvania 15601 (BLBA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Building, 31 Hopkins Plaza, Room 410B, Baltimore, Maryland 21201 (LHWCA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Building, 200 Granby Mall, Room #212, Norfolk, Virginia 23510 (LHWCA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Building, 500 Quarrier Street, Suite 110, Charleston, West Virginia 25301 (BLBA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Building, 425 Juliana Street, Suite 3116, Parkersburg, West Virginia 26101 (BLBA Only)
</FP-1>
<HD3>Jacksonville Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>400 West Bay Street, Suite 943, Jacksonville, FL 32202 (FECA, EEOIC and LHWC)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>400 West Bay Street, Room 826, Jacksonville, FL 32202 (FECA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>164 Main Street, Fifth Floor, Suite 508, Pikeville, Kentucky 41501 (BLBA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>400 West Bay Street, Room 63A, Jacksonville, Florida 32202 (LHWCA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>400 West Bay Street, Room 722, Jacksonville, Florida 32202 (DEEOIC only)
</FP-1>
<HD3>Midwest Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>230 South Dearborn Street, 8th Floor, Room 800, Chicago, Illinois 60604 (FECA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1240 East Ninth Street, Room 851, Cleveland, Ohio 44199 (FECA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1160 Dublin Road, Suite 300, Columbus, Ohio 43215 (BLBA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>City Center Square, 1100 Main Street, Suite 750, Kansas City, Missouri 64105 (FECA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>North Point Tower, 1001 Lakeside Ave, Suite 350, Cleveland, OH 44114 (EEOIC Only)
</FP-1>
<HD3>Southwest Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>525 South Griffin Street, Room 407, Federal Building, Dallas, Texas 75202 (FECA and DLHWC)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>525 South Griffin Street, Room 100, Federal Building, Dallas, Texas 75202 (FECA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P.O. Box 30728 New Orleans, Louisiana 70190 (LHWCA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>8866 Gulf Freeway, Suite 140, Houston, Texas 77017 (LHWCA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1999 Broadway, Suite 600, Denver, Colorado 80202 (FECA and BLBA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1999 Broadway, Suite 1120, Denver, Colorado 80202 (DEEOIC)
</FP-1>
<HD3>Pacific Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>71 Stevenson Street, Room 1705, San Francisco, California 94105 (LHWCA and FECA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>71 Stevenson Street, Room 305, San Francisco, California 94105 (LHWCA and FECA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>401 E. Ocean Boulevard, Suite 720, Long Beach, California 90802 (LHWCA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>300 Ala Moana Boulevard, Room 5-135, Honolulu, Hawaii 96850 (LHWCA Only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1111 Third Avenue, Suite 620, Seattle, Washington 98101 (LHWCA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1111 Third Avenue, Suite 650, Seattle, Washington 98101 (FECA only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>719 Second Avenue, Suite 601, Seattle, Washington 98101 (DEEOIC only)
</FP-1>
<HD2>Employment and Training Administration (ETA)
</HD2>
<HD3>Region I
</HD3>
<FP-1>U.S. Department of Labor, John F. Kennedy Federal Building, Room E-350, Boston, Massachusetts 02203
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region II
</HD3>
<FP-1>The Curtis Center 170 South Independence Mall West, Suite 825 East, Philadelphia, PA 19106-3315
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region III
</HD3>
<FP-1>Sam Nunn Atlanta Federal Center, 61 Forsyth Street, SW., Room 6M12, Atlanta, Georgia 30303
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region IV
</HD3>
<FP-1>A. Maceo Smith Federal Building 525 S. Griffin Street, Room 317, Dallas, TX 75202
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region V
</HD3>
<FP-1>John Kluczynski Federal Building, 230 South Dearborn Street, Room 628, Chicago, Illinois 60604
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region VI
</HD3>
<FP-1>71 Stevenson Street, Room 830, San Francisco, California 94119-3767
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of Job Corps
</HD2>
<HD3>Boston Region
</HD3>
<FP-1>John F. Kennedy Federal Building E-350, Boston, Massachusetts 02203
</FP-1>
<HD3>Philadelphia Region
</HD3>
<FP-1>The Curtis Center, Suite 815 East, 170 South Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, 19106
</FP-1>
<HD3>Atlanta Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>62 Forsyth Street, Room 6T95, Atlanta, Georgia 30303
</FP-1>
<HD3>Chicago Region
</HD3>
<FP-1>Federal Building, 230 South Dearborn Street, Room 676, Chicago, Illinois 60604
</FP-1>
<HD3>Dallas Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>525 Griffin Street, Room 403, Dallas, Texas 75202
</FP-1>
<HD3>San Francisco Region 
</HD3>
<FP-1>71 Stevenson Street, Suite 1015, San Francisco, California 94105
</FP-1>
<HD2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management (OASAM)
</HD2>
<HD3>Region I
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—John F. Kennedy Federal Building E 215, Boston, MA 02203
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region II
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—201 Varick Street, Room 815, New York, NY 10014
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region III
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—The Curtis Center, Suite 600 East, 170 S. Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, PA 19106-3305
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region IV
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—Sam Nunn Atlanta Federal Center, 61 Forsyth Street, SW., Room 6B65, Atlanta, GA 30303
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region V
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—230 South Dearborn Street, 10th Floor, Chicago, IL 60604
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region VI
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—525 Griffin Street, Room 744, Dallas, TX 75202
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region VII
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—1100 Main Street, Suite 850, Kansas City, MO 64105-2112
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region IX
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—71 Stevenson Street, Suite 515, San Francisco, CA 94105
</FP-1>
<HD3>Region X
</HD3>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—1111 3rd Avenue, Suite 815, Seattle, WA 98101-3212
</FP-1>
<HD2>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—John F. Kennedy Federal Building, Room E-340, Boston, Massachusetts 02203
</FP-1>
<HD3>Area Director
</HD3>
<FP-1>Federal Office Building, 450 Main Street, Room 613, Hartford, Connecticut 06103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1057 Broad Street, 4th Floor, Bridgeport, Connecticut 06604
</FP-1>
<FP-1>639 Granite Street, 4th Floor, Braintree, Massachusetts 02184
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1441 Main Street, Room 550, Springfield, Massachusetts 01103-1493
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Valley Office Park, 13 Branch Street, Methuen, Massachusetts 01844
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E.S. Muskie Federal Building, 40 Western Avenue, Room G-26, Augusta, Maine 04330
</FP-1>
<FP-1>202 Harlow Street, Room 240, Bangor, Maine 04401
</FP-1>
<FP-1>53 Pleasant Street, Room 3901, Concord, New Hampshire 03301
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Office Building, 380 Westminster Mall, Room 543, Providence, Rhode Island 02903
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—201 Varick Street, Room 670, New York, New York 10014
</FP-1>
<HD3>Area Director
</HD3>
<FP-1>500 Route 17 South, 2nd Floor, Hasbrouck Heights, New Jersey 07604
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Marlton Executive Park, Building 2, 701 Route 73 South, Suite 120, Marlton, New Jersey 08053
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1030 St. Georges Avenue, Plaza 35, Suite 205, Avenel, New Jersey 07001
</FP-1>
<FP-1>299 Cherry Hill Road, Suite 103, Parsippany, New Jersey 07054
</FP-1>
<FP-1>201 Varick Street, Room 908, New York, New York 10014
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1400 Old Country Road, Suite 208, Westbury, New York 11590
</FP-1>
<FP-1>45-17 Marathon Parkway, Little Neck, New York 11362
</FP-1>
<FP-1>401 New Karner Road, Suite 300, Albany, New York 12205-3809
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3300 Vickery Road, North Syracuse, New York 13212
</FP-1>
<FP-1>130 South Elmwood Avenue, Room 500, Buffalo, New York 14202-2465
</FP-1>
<FP-1>660 White Plains Road, 4th Floor, Tarrytown, New York 10591-5107
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Triple S Building, 1510 F.D. Roosevelt Avenue, Suite 5B, Guaynabo, Puerto Rico 00968
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—The Curtis Center—Suite 740 West, 170 South Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, PA 19106-3309
</FP-1>
<FP-1>919 Market Street, Mellon Bank Building, Suite 900, Wilmington, Delaware 19801-3319
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1099 Winterson Road, Suite 140, Linthicum, Maryland 21090-2218
</FP-1>
<FP-1>U.S. Custom House, Room 242, Second &amp; Chestnut Street, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19106-2902
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Building, 1000 Liberty Avenue, Room 1428, Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania 15222-4101
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1128 State Street, Suite 200, Erie, Pennsylvania 16501
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The Stegmaier Building, Suite 410, 7 North Wilkes-Barre Boulevard, Wilkes-Barre, Pennsylvania 18702-5241
</FP-1>
<FP-1>850 North 5th Street, Allentown, Pennsylvania 18102-1731
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Progress Plaza, 49 North Progress Avenue, Harrisburg, Pennsylvania 17109-3596
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Office Building, 200 Granby Street, Room 614, Norfolk, Virginia 23510-1819
</FP-1>
<FP-1>405 Capitol Street, Suite 407, Charleston, West Virginia 25301-1727
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—Sam Nunn Atlanta Federal Center, 61 Forsyth Street, SW., Room 6T50, Atlanta, Georgia 30303
</FP-1>
<HD3>Area Director
</HD3>
<FP-1>950 22nd Street North, Suite 1050, Birmingham, Alabama 35203
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1141 Montlimar Drive, Suite 1006, Mobile, Alabama 36609
</FP-1>
<FP-1>8040 Peters Road, Building H-100, Fort Lauderdale, Florida 33324
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ribault Building, Suite 227, 1851 Executive Center Drive, Jacksonville, Florida 32207
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5807 Breckenridge Parkway, Suite A, Tampa, Florida 33610-4249
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2400 Herodian Way, Suite 250, Smyrna, Georgia 30080-2968
</FP-1>
<FP-1>450 Mall Boulevard, Suite J, Savannah, Georgia 31406
</FP-1>
<FP-1>La Vista Perimeter Office Park, 2183 N. Lake Parkway, Building 7, Suite 110, Tucker, Georgia 30084-4154
</FP-1>
<FP-1>John C. Watts Federal Building, 330 West Broadway, Room 108, Frankfort, Kentucky 40601-1922
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3780 I-55 North, Suite 210, Jackson, Mississippi 39211-6323
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4407 Bland Road, Suite 210, Raleigh, North Carolina 27609
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Strom Thurman Federal Building, 1835 Assembly Street, Room 1472, Columbia, South Carolina 29201-2453
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2002 Richard Jones Road, Suite C-205, Nashville, Tennessee 37215-2809
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—John Kluczynski Federal Building, 230 South Dearborn Street, Room 3244, Chicago, Illinois 60604
</FP-1>
<HD3>Area Director
</HD3>
<FP-1>1600 167th Street, Suite 9, Calumet City, Illinois 60409
</FP-1>
<FP-1>701 Lee Street, Suite 950, Des Plaines, Illinois 60016
</FP-1>
<FP-1>365 Smoke Tree Plaza, North Aurora, Illinois 60542
</FP-1>
<FP-1>11 Executive Drive, Suite 11, Fairview Heights, Illinois 62208
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2918 W. Willow Knolls Road, Peoria, Illinois 61614
</FP-1>
<FP-1>46 East Ohio Street, Room 423, Indianapolis, Indiana 46204
</FP-1>
<FP-1>315 West Allegan, Room 207, Lansing, Michigan 48933
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Office Building, 1240 East 9th Street, Room 899, Cleveland, Ohio 44199
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Office Building, 200 N. High Street, Room 620, Columbus, Ohio 43215
</FP-1>
<FP-1>420 Madison Avenue, Suite 600, Toledo, Ohio 43604
</FP-1>
<FP-1>36 Triangle Park Drive, Cincinnati, Ohio 45246
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1648 Tri Parkway, Appleton, Wisconsin 54914
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Henry S. Reuss Building, Room 1180, 310 West Wisconsin Avenue, Milwaukee, Wisconsin 53203
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1310 W. Clairemont Avenue, Eau Claire, Wisconsin 54701
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4802 East Broadway, Madison, Wisconsin 53716
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—A. Maceo Smith Federal Building, 525 S. Griffin Street, Room 602, Dallas, TX 75202
</FP-1>
<HD3>Area Director
</HD3>
<FP-1>10810 Executive Center Drive, Danville Building 2, Suite 206, Little Rock, Arkansas 72211
</FP-1>
<FP-1>9100 Bluebonnet Centre Blvd., Suite 201, Baton Rouge, Louisiana 70809
</FP-1>
<FP-1>55 North Robinson, Suite 315, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73102-9237
</FP-1>
<FP-1>8344 East R.L. Thornton Freeway, Suite 420, Dallas, Texas 75228
</FP-1>
<FP-1>La Costa Green Building, 1033 La Posada, Suite 375, Austin, Texas 78752-3832
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wilson Plaza, 606 N. Carancahua, Suite 700, Corpus Christi, Texas 78476
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Office Building, 1205 Texas Avenue, Room 806, Lubbock, Texas 79401
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Houston North Area Office, 507 North Sam Houston Parkway East, Suite 400, Houston, Texas 77060
</FP-1>
<FP-1>17625 El Camino Real, Suite 400, Houston, Texas 77058
</FP-1>
<FP-1>8713 Airport Freeway, Suite 302, Fort Worth, Texas 76180-7610
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4849 North Mesa Street, Suite 200, El Paso, Texas 79912-5936
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—City Center Square, 1100 Main Street, Suite 800, Kansas City, Missouri 64105
</FP-1>
<HD3>Area Director 
</HD3>
<FP-1>210 Walnut Street, Room 815, Des Moines, Iowa 50309-2015
</FP-1>
<FP-1>271 W. 3rd Street North, Room 400, Wichita, Kansas 67202
</FP-1>
<FP-1>6200 Connecticut Avenue, Suite 100, Kansas City, Missouri 64120
</FP-1>
<FP-1>911 Washington Avenue, Room 420, St. Louis, Missouri 63101
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Overland—Wolf Building, 6910 Pacific Street, Room 100, Omaha, Nebraska 68106
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—1999 Broadway, Suite 1690, Denver, Colorado 80202
</FP-1>
<HD3>Area Director 
</HD3>
<FP-1>7935 East Prentice Avenue, Suite 209, Greenwood Village, Colorado 80011-2714
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1391 Speer Boulevard, Suite 210, Denver, Colorado 80204-2552
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2900 Fourth Avenue North, Suite 303, Billings, Montana 59101
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1640 East Capitol Avenue, Bismarck, North Dakota 58501
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—90 7th Street, Suite 18-100, San Francisco, California 94103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Administrator—1111 Third Avenue, Suite 715, Seattle, Washington 98101-3212
</FP-1>
<HD3>Area Director
</HD3>
<FP-1>222 W. 7th Avenue, Box 22, Anchorage, Alaska 99513
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1150 North Curtis Road, Suite 201, Boise, Idaho 83706
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1220 Southwest 3rd Avenue, Room 640, Portland, Oregon 97204
</FP-1>
<FP-1>505 106th Avenue NE, Suite 302, Belleview, Washington 98004
</FP-1>
<HD2>Veterans' Employment and Training Service (VETS)
</HD2>
<FP-1>Regional Administrators
</FP-1>
<HD3>Boston Regional Office
</HD3>
<FP-1>J.F. Kennedy Federal Building, Government Center, Room E-315, Boston, Massachusetts 02203
</FP-1>
<HD3>Philadelphia Regional Office
</HD3>
<FP-1>The Curtis Center, Suite 770 West, 170S. Independence Mall West, Philadelphia, PA 19106-2205
</FP-1>
<HD3>Atlanta Regional Office
</HD3>
<FP-1>Atlanta Federal Center, 61 Forsyth Street, SW., Room 6T85, Atlanta, Georgia 30303
</FP-1>
<HD3>Chicago Regional Office
</HD3>
<FP-1>230 South Dearborn, Room 1064, Chicago, Illinois 60604
</FP-1>
<HD3>Dallas Regional Office
</HD3>
<FP-1>525 Griffin Street, Room 858, Dallas, Texas 75202
</FP-1>
<HD3>San Francisco Regional Office
</HD3>
<FP-1>90 Seventh Street Suite 2-600, San Francisco, California 94103
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 37099, July 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="75" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 75—DEPARTMENT OF LABOR REVIEW AND CERTIFICATION PROCEDURES FOR RURAL INDUSTRIALIZATION LOAN AND GRANT PROGRAMS UNDER THE CONSOLIDATED FARM AND RURAL DEVELOPMENT ACT OF 1972
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 118, Pub. L. 92-419, 86 Stat. 663 (7 U.S.C. 1932).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 75.1" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.42.0.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.1   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 118 of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act authorizes the Rural Development Administration (RDA) of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) to make or guarantee loans to finance industrial and business activities in rural areas (broadly defined to include any place with a population of less than 50,000), 7 U.S.C. 1932(d). The Act also permits RDA to make grants to public bodies for measures designed to facilitate the development of private business enterprises and for pollution control and abatement projects. 
</P>
<P>(b) As a prior condition for the approval of such loans, guarantees and grants, the Act further specifies that the Secretary of Labor must certify to the Secretary of Agriculture within 30 days after referral, that the loan or grant is not calculated to or likely to result in the transfer from one area to another of any employment or business activity provided by operations of the applicant and is not calculated to or likely to result in an increase in the production of goods, materials, or commodities, or the availability of services or facilities in the area, when there is not sufficient demand for such goods, materials, commodities, services, or facilities, to employ the efficient capacity of existing competitive commercial or industrial enterprises, unless such financial or other assistance will not have an adverse effect upon existing competitive enterprises in the area. Responsibility within the Department of Labor (DOL) for the review and certification process has been assigned to the Employment and Training Administration (ETA). 
</P>
<P>(c) The following procedures have been established by the Department of Labor in consultation with the USDA for the issuance of labor certifications under this program. These procedures are designed to insure the orderly and expeditious review of the applications by the Department of Labor (DOL) within 30 days after they have been received from the USDA. It is anticipated that the procedure will permit completion of all cases within the 30-day legal maximum processing period permitted under the law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 4394, Jan. 29, 1975, as amended at 72 FR 37103, July 9, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.11" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.42.0.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.11   Standards for the review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applications to be routinely approved without field review.</I> The following types of applications will be routinely approved and certified by the Employment and Training Administration (ETA), provided that the required information is submitted by the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loans which involve the change of ownership from one person or group to another or the refinancing of an existing loan.</I> Provided, That such loans will not result in any transfer from one area to another of any employment or business activity provided by operations of the applicant and are not calculated to or likely to result in an increase in the production of goods, materials, or commodities, or the availability of services, or facilities, to employ the efficient capacity of existing competitive commercial or industrial enterprise. In transmitting such applications to ETA, RDA will include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A letter of transmittal stating the name and location of the applicant and the amount of the loan, and certifying that the loan is either for the purpose of financing the sale of the business or for the purpose of refinancing a loan and is not calculated to or likely to result in the transfer or expansion of employment or operations: 
</P>
<P>(ii) Three copies of Form RD 449-22, Certification of Non-Relocation; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Three copies of Form RD 449-23, Data Information Sheet. ETA will issue an affirmative certification on such applications, without further review, within 10 working days. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans of less than $100,000 where the loan proceeds are expected to result in the employment of not more than five workers.</I> In such instances, the RDA transmittal letter will call attention to the fact that the application involved falls within this category. This should be supported by data in the revised Forms RD 449-22 and 449-23 to be forwarded in triplicate to the DOL. For loan applications in this category, the RDA will also attach a certification signed by the State RDA director indicating that he has reviewed the loan application and certifying that such a loan is not calculated to or likely to result in the transfer from one area to another of any employment or business activity provided by operations of the applicant and is not calculated to or likely to result in an increase in the production of goods, materials, or commodities, or the availability of services or facilities, when there is not sufficient demand for such goods, materials, commodities, services, or facilities in the area, to employ the efficient capacity of existing competitive commercial or industrial enterprises, unless such financial or other assistance will not have an adverse effect upon existing competitive enterprises in the area. Unless there is other evidence to indicate an adverse effect on unemployment or competitive business enterprises, ETA will accept this certificate and accompanying forms as the basis for an affirmative certification without further review and will so certify within 10 working days after receipt. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Grants where there are no known current or future occupants.</I> In the case of such applications, e.g., a county's proposal to build an industrial park, RDA will send a transmittal letter to ETA stating the name and location of the applicant, and the amount and purpose of the grant, and certifying that there are no known current or future occupations. RDA will also forward with the letter a resolution or other statement from the local governing body agreeing to a <I>prior</I> review and certification by ETA of any person or organization which may occupy all or part of the facility within 3 years from the date of the certification, to insure that the requirements of the Act are being complied with. ETA will, within 10 days after receipt of such applications, issue an affirmative certification conditional upon the right of review and certification of each potential occupant within the 3-year period. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Grants where the occupants are known,</I> and the improvement will not result in a transfer or increase in operations or employment by the occupants. The RDA transmittal letter shall provide, in addition to the information specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the names of the occupants and a statement that this grant is not calculated to or likely to result in a transfer or increase in operations or employment. The applicant shall also be required to submit the same type of resolution as that specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. On the receipt of such data, ETA will issue a certification on the grant application and will certify the known occupants as well. The certification may require, however, that additional occupants or a change in occupants within the first 3 years after certification is subject to review and a redetermination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applications which will require field or other review.</I> (1) All loan and grant applications other than those specified in paragraph (a) of this section will be subject to a full review by the ETA prior to the issuance of a certification. For each loan application, the RDA shall submit to ETA: 
</P>
<P>(i) A letter of transmittal stating the name and location of the applicant and the amount of the loan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Six copies of the Certificate of Non-Relocation (Form RD 449-22); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Six copies of the Data Information Sheet (Form RD 449-23); and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any supplemental information, including A-95 Clearinghouse Reports, which RDA believes may be of value to ETA in evaluating the application. 
</P>
<FP>For grant applications, the letter of transmittal shall also provide information about the purpose of the grant. Two copies of a resolution or other statement of the type specified under paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall also be submitted with each grant application. 
</FP>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of applications, ETA will review the materials for completeness and will inform RDA in writing of any missing items within 2 working days after the date of receipt. It is agreed that in such instances the statutory 30-day period will not begin until the file is complete. State workforce agencies will be requested, through the ETA regional offices, to provide labor market information needed to determine whether the loan would result in adverse competitive effect upon existing competitive enterprises in the area. Comments will be due in the ETA national office 3 weeks after receipt of the request in the ETA regional offices. 
</P>
<P>(3) To assist in the review process, DOL will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a weekly listing of applications received (other than those to be routinely certified). The listing will include the name and location (City and State) of the applicant and the principal product or type of business activity. In the case of grant applications, the listing will also include the name and principal product or business activity of the occupant(s) of the facility for which the grant is being made. All interested parties will be afforded a 2-week period from the date of publication to comment in writing to ETA. In the event that adverse comments are received, the applicant will be sent copies of such comments by certified mail, and afforded an opportunity to provide such additional information as the applicant deems appropriate within 2 weeks from the date of transmittal. The Rural Development Administration will also be provided with copies of such adverse comments. 
</P>
<P>(4) In some instances, involving particularly complex situations, ETA may request the Economic Development Administration (EDA) in the Department of Commerce, or other agencies to provide supplemental data. The number of such requests will depend upon the extent to which the DOL is capable of making resources available to EDA or other agencies to perform this function. 
</P>
<P>(5) When all the data have been assembled, a determination will be made by ETA of whether the requested certifications may be certified or denied. RDA will be notified in writing of the determination. If DOL's investigation indicates the need for additional information, all material will be returned to RDA with instructions indicating the additional information needed to make a certification. Continuation of the 30-day time limit will begin again when the additional material is returned to Labor. 
</P>
<P>(6) All denials will be given additional consideration if the applicant or the USDA provides additional evidence which they believe merits further consideration. If the DOL reaffirms its denial after a review of all available facts and such additional investigation as it may make, such denial shall be considered as final. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 4394, Jan. 29, 1975, as amended at 72 FR 37103, July 9, 2007] 














</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="90" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 90 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="93" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 93—NEW RESTRICTIONS ON LOBBYING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 319, Public Law 101-121 (31 U.S.C. 1352); 5 U.S.C. 301, Reorganization Plan Number 6 of 1950.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 6737 and 6751, Feb. 26, 1990, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>See also Office of Management and Budget notice published at 54 FR 52306, December 20, 1989.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.100" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.1.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.100   Conditions on use of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No appropriated funds may be expended by the recipient of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative ageement to pay any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any of the following covered Federal actions: the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a certification, set forth in appendix A, that the person has not made, and will not make, any payment prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or a cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in appendix B, if such person has made or has agreed to make any payment using nonappropriated funds (to include profits from any covered Federal action), which would be prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section if paid for with appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a statement, set forth in appendix A, whether that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in appendix B, if that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.1.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency,</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(f), includes Federal executive departments and agencies as well as independent regulatory commissions and Government corporations, as defined in 31 U.S.C. 9101(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered Federal action</I> means any of the following Federal actions:
</P>
<P>(1) The awarding of any Federal contract;
</P>
<P>(2) The making of any Federal grant;
</P>
<P>(3) The making of any Federal loan;
</P>
<P>(4) The entering into of any cooperative agreement; and,
</P>
<P>(5) The extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<FP>Covered Federal action does not include receiving from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan. Loan guarantees and loan insurance are addressed independently within this part.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Federal contract</I> means an acquisition contract awarded by an agency, including those subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), and any other acquisition contract for real or personal property or services not subject to the FAR.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal cooperative agreement</I> means a cooperative agreement entered into by an agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal grant</I> means an award of financial assistance in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, by the Federal Government or a direct appropriation made by law to any person. The term does not include technical assistance which provides services instead of money, or other assistance in the form of revenue sharing, loans, loan guarantees, loan insurance, interest subsidies, insurance, or direct United States cash assistance to an individual.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal loan</I> means a loan made by an agency. The term does not include loan guarantee or loan insurance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Indian tribe</I> and <I>tribal organization</I> have the meaning provided in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450B). Alaskan Natives are included under the definitions of Indian tribes in that Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Influencing or attempting to influence</I> means making, with the intent to influence, any communication to or appearance before an officer or employee or any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan guarantee</I> and <I>loan insurance</I> means an agency's guarantee or insurance of a loan made by a person.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Local government</I> means a unit of government in a State and, if chartered, established, or otherwise recognized by a State for the performance of a governmental duty, including a local public authority, a special district, an intrastate district, a council of governments, a sponsor group representative organization, and any other instrumentality of a local government.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Officer or employee of an agency</I> includes the following individuals who are employed by an agency:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who is appointed to a position in the Government under title 5, U.S.C., including a position under a temporary appointment;
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the uniformed services as defined in section 101(3), title 37, U.S.C.; 
</P>
<P>(3) A special Government employee as defined in section 202, title 18, U.S.C.; and,
</P>
<P>(4) An individual who is a member of a Federal advisory committee, as defined by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, title 5, U.S.C. appendix 2.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, company, association, authority, firm, partnership, society, State, and local government, regardless of whether such entity is operated for profit or not for profit. This term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Reasonable compensation</I> means, with respect to a regularly employed officer or employee of any person, compensation that is consistent with the normal compensation for such officer or employee for work that is not furnished to, not funded by, or not furnished in cooperation with the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Reasonable payment</I> means, with respect to perfessional and other technical services, a payment in an amount that is consistent with the amount normally paid for such services in the private sector.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Recipient</I> includes all contractors, subcontractors at any tier, and subgrantees at any tier of the recipient of funds received in connection with a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. The term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Regularly employed</I> means, with respect to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, an officer or employee who is employed by such person for at least 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for receipt of such contract, grant, loan, cooperative agreement, loan insurance commitment, or loan guarantee commitment. An officer or employee who is employed by such person for less than 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person shall be considered to be regularly employed as soon as he or she is employed by such person for 130 working days. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, a territory or possession of the United States, an agency or instrumentality of a State, and a multi-State, regional, or interstate entity having governmental duties and powers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.1.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.110   Certification and disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, with each submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Award of a Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An award of a Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, upon receipt by such person of: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000,
</P>
<FP>Unless such person previously filed a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</FP>
<P>(c) Each person shall file a disclosure form at the end of each calendar quarter in which there occurs any event that requires disclosure or that materially affects the accuracy of the information contained in any disclosure form previously filed by such person under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. An event that materially affects the accuracy of the information reported includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A cumulative increase of $25,000 or more in the amount paid or expected to be paid for influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A change in the person(s) or individual(s) influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or, 
</P>
<P>(3) A change in the officer(s), employee(s), or Member(s) contacted to influence or attempt to influence a covered Federal action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who requests or receives from a person referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal contract; 
</P>
<P>(2) A subgrant, contract, or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal grant; 
</P>
<P>(3) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal loan exceeding $150,000; or, 
</P>
<P>(4) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal cooperative agreement,
</P>
<FP>Shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, to the next tier above.
</FP>
<P>(e) All disclosure forms, but not certifications, shall be forwarded from tier to tier until received by the person referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. That person shall forward all disclosure forms to the agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Any certification or disclosure form filed under paragraph (e) of this section shall be treated as a material representation of fact upon which all receiving tiers shall rely. All liability arising from an erroneous representation shall be borne solely by the tier filing that representation and shall not be shared by any tier to which the erroneous representation is forwarded. Submitting an erroneous certification or disclosure constitutes a failure to file the required certification or disclosure, respectively. If a person fails to file a required certification or disclosure, the United States may pursue all available remedies, including those authorized by section 1352, title 31, U.S.C.
</P>
<P>(g) For awards and commitments in process prior to December 23, 1989, but not made before that date, certifications shall be required at award or commitment, covering activities occurring between December 23, 1989, and the date of award or commitment. However, for awards and commitments in process prior to the December 23, 1989 effective date of these provisions, but not made before December 23, 1989, disclosure forms shall not be required at time of award or commitment but shall be filed within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(h) No reporting is required for an activity paid for with appropriated funds if that activity is allowable under either subpart B or C. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Activities by Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.200" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.2.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.200   Agency and legislative liaison.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 93.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if the payment is for agency and legislative liaison activities not directly related to a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, providing any information specifically requested by an agency or Congress is allowable at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agency and legislative liaison activities are allowable at any time only where they are not related to a specific solicitation for any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Discussing with an agency (including individual demonstrations) the qualities and characteristics of the person's products or services, conditions or terms of sale, and service capabilities; and, 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions and other activities regarding the application or adaptation of the person's products or services for an agency's use.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agencies and legislative liaison activities are allowable only where they are prior to formal solicitation of any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing any information not specifically requested but necessary for an agency to make an informed decision about initiation of a covered Federal action; 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions regarding the preparation of an unsolicited proposal prior to its official submission; and, 
</P>
<P>(3) Capability presentations by persons seeking awards from an agency pursuant to the provisions of the Small Business Act, as amended by Public Law 95-507 and other subsequent amendments. 
</P>
<P>(e) Only those activities expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.205" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.2.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.205   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 93.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or an extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, <I>professional and technical services</I> shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting of a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(c) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(d) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.210" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.2.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.210   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>No reporting is required with respect to payments of reasonable compensation made to regularly employed officers or employees of a person.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Activities by Other Than Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.300" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.3.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.300   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 93.100 (a), does not apply in the case of any reasonable payment to a person, other than an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action, if the payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) The reporting requirements in § 93.110 (a) and (b) regarding filing a disclosure form by each person, if required, shall not apply with respect to professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, <I>professional and technical services</I> shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting or a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(d) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons other than officers or employees of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action include consultants and trade associations.
</P>
<P>(f) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Penalties and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.400" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.4.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.400   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who makes an expenditure prohibited herein shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such expenditure.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who fails to file or amend the disclosure form (see appendix B) to be filed or amended if required herein, shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.
</P>
<P>(c) A filing or amended filing on or after the date on which an administrative action for the imposition of a civil penalty is commenced does not prevent the imposition of such civil penalty for a failure occurring before that date. An administrative action is commenced with respect to a failure when an investigating official determines in writing to commence an investigation of an allegation of such failure.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether to impose a civil penalty, and the amount of any such penalty, by reason of a violation by any person, the agency shall consider the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation, the effect on the ability of such person to continue in business, any prior violations by such person, the degree of culpability of such person, the ability of the person to pay the penalty, and such other matters as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) First offenders under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty of $10,000, absent aggravating circumstances. Second and subsequent offenses by persons shall be subject to an appropriate civil penalty between $10,000 and $100,000, as determined by the agency head or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(f) An imposition of a civil penalty under this section does not prevent the United States from seeking any other remedy that may apply to the same conduct that is the basis for the imposition of such civil penalty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.405" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.4.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.405   Penalty procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies shall impose and collect civil penalties pursuant to the provisions of the Program Fraud and Civil Remedies Act, 31 U.S.C. 3803 (except subsection (c)), 3804, 3805, 3806, 3807, 3808, and 3812, insofar as these provisions are not inconsistent with the requirements herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.410" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.4.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.410   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The head of each agency shall take such actions as are necessary to ensure that the provisions herein are vigorously implemented and enforced in that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.500" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.5.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.500   Secretary of Defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of Defense may exempt, on a case-by-case basis, a covered Federal action from the prohibition whenever the Secretary determines, in writing, that such an exemption is in the national interest. The Secretary shall transmit a copy of each such written exemption to Congress immediately after making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Defense may issue supplemental regulations to implement paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Agency Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.600" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.6.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.600   Semi-annual compilation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall collect and compile the disclosure reports (see appendix B) and, on May 31 and November 30 of each year, submit to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives a report containing a compilation of the information contained in the disclosure reports received during the six-month period ending on March 31 or September 30, respectively, of that year.
</P>
<P>(b) The report, including the compilation, shall be available for public inspection 30 days after receipt of the report by the Secretary and the Clerk.
</P>
<P>(c) Information that involves intelligence matters shall be reported only to the Select Committee on Intelligence of the Senate, the Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence of the House of Representatives, and the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(d) Information that is classified under Executive Order 12356 or any successor order shall be reported only to the Committee on Foreign Relations of the Senate and the Committee on Foreign Affairs of the House of Representatives or the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and the House of Representatives (whichever such committees have jurisdiction of matters involving such information) and to the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(e) The first semi-annual compilation shall be submitted on May 31, 1990, and shall contain a compilation of the disclosure reports received from December 23, 1989 to March 31, 1990.
</P>
<P>(f) Major agencies, designated by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), are required to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives no later than with the compilations due on May 31, 1991. OMB shall provide detailed specifications in a memorandum to these agencies.
</P>
<P>(g) Non-major agencies are requested to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives.
</P>
<P>(h) Agencies shall keep the originals of all disclosure reports in the official files of the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.605" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.6.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.605   Inspector General Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Inspector General, or other official as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, of each agency shall prepare and submit to Congress each year, commencing with submission of the President's Budget in 1991, an evaluation of the compliance of that agency with, and the effectiveness of, the requirements herein. The evaluation may include any recommended changes that may be necessary to strengthen or improve the requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an agency that does not have an Inspector General, the agency official comparable to an Inspector General shall prepare and submit the annual report, or, if there is no such comparable official, the head of the agency shall prepare and submit the annual report.
</P>
<P>(c) The annual report shall be submitted at the same time the agency submits its annual budget justifications to Congress.
</P>
<P>(d) The annual report shall include the following: All alleged violations relating to the agency's covered Federal actions during the year covered by the report, the actions taken by the head of the agency in the year covered by the report with respect to those alleged violations and alleged violations in previous years, and the amounts of civil penalties imposed by the agency in the year covered by the report.
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.6.81.3.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 93—Certification Regarding Lobbying
</HEAD>
<HD2>Certification for Contracts, Grants, Loans, and Cooperative Agreements
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned certifies, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>(1) No Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid, by or on behalf of the undersigned, to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of an agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) If any funds other than Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>(3) The undersigned shall require that the language of this certification be included in the award documents for all subawards at all tiers (including subcontracts, subgrants, and contracts under grants, loans, and cooperative agreements) and that all subrecipients shall certify and disclose accordingly.
</P>
<P>This certification is a material representation of fact upon which reliance was placed when this transaction was made or entered into. Submission of this certification is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S.C. Any person who fails to file the required certification shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.
</P>
<HD2>Statement for Loan Guarantees and Loan Insurance
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned states, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>If any funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>Submission of this statement is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S.C. Any person who fails to file the required statement shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.

</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.44.6.81.3.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 93—Disclosure Form To Report Lobbying

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.007.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="94" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 94—GOVERNMENTWIDE REQUIREMENTS FOR DRUG-FREE WORKPLACE (FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>41 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 66599, 66600, Nov. 26, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purpose and Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.100" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.1.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.100   What does this part do?</HEAD>
<P>This part carries out the portion of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 (41 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended) that applies to grants. It also applies the provisions of the Act to cooperative agreements and other financial assistance awards, as a matter of Federal Government policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.105" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.1.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.105   Does this part apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Portions of this part apply to you if you are either— 
</P>
<P>(1) A recipient of an assistance award from the Department of Labor; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A(n) Department of Labor awarding official. (See definitions of award and recipient in §§ 94.605 and 94.660, respectively.) 
</P>
<P>(b) The following table shows the subparts that apply to you:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If you are . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">see subparts . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) A recipient who is not an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B and E. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) A recipient who is an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, C and E. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) A(n) Department of Labor awarding official</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, D and E.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.110" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.1.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.110   Are any of my Federal assistance awards exempt from this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part does not apply to any award that the Secretary of Labor or designee determines that the application of this part would be inconsistent with the international obligations of the United States or the laws or regulations of a foreign government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.115" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.1.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.115   Does this part affect the Federal contracts that I receive?</HEAD>
<P>It will affect future contract awards indirectly if you are debarred or suspended for a violation of the requirements of this part, as described in § 94.510(c). However, this part does not apply directly to procurement contracts. The portion of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 that applies to Federal procurement contracts is carried out through the Federal Acquisition Regulation in chapter 1 of Title 48 of the Code of Federal Regulations (the drug-free workplace coverage currently is in 48 CFR part 23, subpart 23.5). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Recipients Other Than Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.200" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.2.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.200   What must I do to comply with this part?</HEAD>
<P>There are two general requirements if you are a recipient other than an individual. 
</P>
<P>(a) First, you must make a good faith effort, on a continuing basis, to maintain a drug-free workplace. You must agree to do so as a condition for receiving any award covered by this part. The specific measures that you must take in this regard are described in more detail in subsequent sections of this subpart. Briefly, those measures are to—
</P>
<P>(1) Publish a drug-free workplace statement and establish a drug-free awareness program for your employees (see §§ 94.205 through 94.220); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Take actions concerning employees who are convicted of violating drug statutes in the workplace (see § 94.225). 
</P>
<P>(b) Second, you must identify all known workplaces under your Federal awards (see § 94.230). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.205" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.2.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.205   What must I include in my drug-free workplace statement?</HEAD>
<P>You must publish a statement that—
</P>
<P>(a) Tells your employees that the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance is prohibited in your workplace; 
</P>
<P>(b) Specifies the actions that you will take against employees for violating that prohibition; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Lets each employee know that, as a condition of employment under any award, he or she: 
</P>
<P>(1) Will abide by the terms of the statement; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Must notify you in writing if he or she is convicted for a violation of a criminal drug statute occurring in the workplace and must do so no more than five calendar days after the conviction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.210" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.2.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.210   To whom must I distribute my drug-free workplace statement?</HEAD>
<P>You must require that a copy of the statement described in § 94.205 be given to each employee who will be engaged in the performance of any Federal award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.215" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.2.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.215   What must I include in my drug-free awareness program?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish an ongoing drug-free awareness program to inform employees about— 
</P>
<P>(a) The dangers of drug abuse in the workplace; 
</P>
<P>(b) Your policy of maintaining a drug-free workplace; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any available drug counseling, rehabilitation, and employee assistance programs; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The penalties that you may impose upon them for drug abuse violations occurring in the workplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.220" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.2.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.220   By when must I publish my drug-free workplace statement and establish my drug-free awareness program?</HEAD>
<P>If you are a new recipient that does not already have a policy statement as described in § 94.205 and an ongoing awareness program as described in § 94.215, you must publish the statement and establish the program by the time given in the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">then you . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) The performance period of the award is less than 30 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">must have the policy statement and program in place as soon as possible, but before the date on which performance is expected to be completed. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) The performance period of the award is 30 days or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">must have the policy statement and program in place within 30 days after award. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) You believe there are extraordinary circumstances that will require more than 30 days for you to publish the policy statement and establish the awareness program</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">may ask the Department of Labor awarding official to give you more time to do so. The amount of additional time, if any, to be given is at the discretion of the awarding official.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.225" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.2.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.225   What actions must I take concerning employees who are convicted of drug violations in the workplace?</HEAD>
<P>There are two actions you must take if an employee is convicted of a drug violation in the workplace: 
</P>
<P>(a) First, you must notify Federal agencies if an employee who is engaged in the performance of an award informs you about a conviction, as required by § 94.205(c)(2), or you otherwise learn of the conviction. Your notification to the Federal agencies must_ 
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Include the employee's position title; 
</P>
<P>(3) Include the identification number(s) of each affected award; 
</P>
<P>(4) Be sent within ten calendar days after you learn of the conviction; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Be sent to every Federal agency on whose award the convicted employee was working. It must be sent to every awarding official or his or her official designee, unless the Federal agency has specified a central point for the receipt of the notices. 
</P>
<P>(b) Second, within 30 calendar days of learning about an employee's conviction, you must either_ 
</P>
<P>(1) Take appropriate personnel action against the employee, up to and including termination, consistent with the requirements of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794), as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the employee to participate satisfactorily in a drug abuse assistance or rehabilitation program approved for these purposes by a Federal, State or local health, law enforcement, or other appropriate agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.230" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.2.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.230   How and when must I identify workplaces?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must identify all known workplaces under each Department of Labor award. A failure to do so is a violation of your drug-free workplace requirements. You may identify the workplaces_ 
</P>
<P>(1) To the Department of Labor official that is making the award, either at the time of application or upon award; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In documents that you keep on file in your offices during the performance of the award, in which case you must make the information available for inspection upon request by Department of Labor officials or their designated representatives. 
</P>
<P>(b) Your workplace identification for an award must include the actual address of buildings (or parts of buildings) or other sites where work under the award takes place. Categorical descriptions may be used (<I>e.g.,</I> all vehicles of a mass transit authority or State highway department while in operation, State employees in each local unemployment office, performers in concert halls or radio studios). 
</P>
<P>(c) If you identified workplaces to the Department of Labor awarding official at the time of application or award, as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and any workplace that you identified changes during the performance of the award, you must inform the Department of Labor awarding official. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements for Recipients Who Are Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.300" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.3.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.300   What must I do to comply with this part if I am an individual recipient?</HEAD>
<P>As a condition of receiving a(n) Department of Labor award, if you are an individual recipient, you must agree that— 
</P>
<P>(a) You will not engage in the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance in conducting any activity related to the award; and 
</P>
<P>(b) If you are convicted of a criminal drug offense resulting from a violation occurring during the conduct of any award activity, you will report the conviction: 
</P>
<P>(1) In writing. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 calendar days of the conviction. 
</P>
<P>(3) To the Department of Labor awarding official or other designee for each award that you currently have, unless § 94.301 or the award document designates a central point for the receipt of the notices. When notice is made to a central point, it must include the identification number(s) of each affected award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.301" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.3.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.301   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Responsibilities of Department of Labor Awarding Officials</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.400" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.4.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.400   What are my responsibilities as a(n) Department of Labor awarding official?</HEAD>
<P>As a(n) Department of Labor awarding official, you must obtain each recipient's agreement, as a condition of the award, to comply with the requirements in— 
</P>
<P>(a) Subpart B of this part, if the recipient is not an individual; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart C of this part, if the recipient is an individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Violations of this Part and Consequences</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.500" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.5.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.500   How are violations of this part determined for recipients other than individuals?</HEAD>
<P>A recipient other than an individual is in violation of the requirements of this part if the Secretary of Labor or designee determines, in writing, that— 
</P>
<P>(a) The recipient has violated the requirements of subpart B of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The number of convictions of the recipient's employees for violating criminal drug statutes in the workplace is large enough to indicate that the recipient has failed to make a good faith effort to provide a drug-free workplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.505" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.5.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.505   How are violations of this part determined for recipients who are individuals?</HEAD>
<P>An individual recipient is in violation of the requirements of this part if the Secretary of Labor or designee determines, in writing, that— 
</P>
<P>(a) The recipient has violated the requirements of subpart C of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The recipient is convicted of a criminal drug offense resulting from a violation occurring during the conduct of any award activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.510" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.5.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.510   What actions will the Federal Government take against a recipient determined to have violated this part?</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient is determined to have violated this part, as described in § 94.500 or § 94.505, the Department of Labor may take one or more of the following actions— 
</P>
<P>(a) Suspension of payments under the award; 
</P>
<P>(b) Suspension or termination of the award; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Suspension or debarment of the recipient under 29 CFR part 98, for a period not to exceed five years. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.515" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.5.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.515   Are there any exceptions to those actions?</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Labor or designee may waive with respect to a particular award, in writing, a suspension of payments under an award, suspension or termination of an award, or suspension or debarment of a recipient if the Secretary of Labor or designee determines that such a waiver would be in the public interest. This exception authority cannot be delegated to any other official. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.605" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.605   Award.</HEAD>
<P><I>Award</I> means an award of financial assistance by the Department of Labor or other Federal agency directly to a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(a) The term award includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal grant or cooperative agreement, in the form of money or property in lieu of money. 
</P>
<P>(2) A block grant or a grant in an entitlement program, whether or not the grant is exempted from coverage under the Governmentwide rule 29 CFR part 97 that implements OMB Circular A-102 (for availability, see 5 CFR 1310.3) and specifies uniform administrative requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term award does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Technical assistance that provides services instead of money. 
</P>
<P>(2) Loans. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan guarantees. 
</P>
<P>(4) Interest subsidies. 
</P>
<P>(5) Insurance. 
</P>
<P>(6) Direct appropriations. 
</P>
<P>(7) Veterans' benefits to individuals (<I>i.e.,</I> any benefit to veterans, their families, or survivors by virtue of the service of a veteran in the Armed Forces of the United States). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.610" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.610   Controlled substance.</HEAD>
<P><I>Controlled substance</I> means a controlled substance in schedules I through V of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 812), and as further defined by regulation at 21 CFR 1308.11 through 1308.15. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.615" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.615   Conviction.</HEAD>
<P><I>Conviction</I> means a finding of guilt (including a plea of nolo contendere) or imposition of sentence, or both, by any judicial body charged with the responsibility to determine violations of the Federal or State criminal drug statutes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.620" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.620   Cooperative agreement.</HEAD>
<P><I>Cooperative agreement</I> means an award of financial assistance that, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6305, is used to enter into the same kind of relationship as a grant (see definition of grant in § 94.650), except that substantial involvement is expected between the Federal agency and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the award. The term does not include cooperative research and development agreements as defined in 15 U.S.C. 3710a. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.625" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.625   Criminal drug statute.</HEAD>
<P><I>Criminal drug statute</I> means a Federal or non-Federal criminal statute involving the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, use, or possession of any controlled substance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.630" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.630   Debarment.</HEAD>
<P><I>Debarment</I> means an action taken by a Federal agency to prohibit a recipient from participating in Federal Government procurement contracts and covered nonprocurement transactions. A recipient so prohibited is debarred, in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation for procurement contracts (48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4) and the common rule, Government-wide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement), that implements Executive Order 12549 and Executive Order 12689. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.635" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.635   Drug-free workplace.</HEAD>
<P><I>Drug-free workplace</I> means a site for the performance of work done in connection with a specific award at which employees of the recipient are prohibited from engaging in the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.640" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.640   Employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employee</I> means the employee of a recipient directly engaged in the performance of work under the award, including— 
</P>
<P>(1) All direct charge employees; 
</P>
<P>(2) All indirect charge employees, unless their impact or involvement in the performance of work under the award is insignificant to the performance of the award; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Temporary personnel and consultants who are directly engaged in the performance of work under the award and who are on the recipient's payroll. 
</P>
<P>(b) This definition does not include workers not on the payroll of the recipient (<I>e.g.,</I> volunteers, even if used to meet a matching requirement; consultants or independent contractors not on the payroll; or employees of subrecipients or subcontractors in covered workplaces). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.645" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.645   Federal agency or agency.</HEAD>
<P><I>Federal agency or agency</I> means any United States executive department, military department, government corporation, government controlled corporation, any other establishment in the executive branch (including the Executive Office of the President), or any independent regulatory agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.650" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.650   Grant.</HEAD>
<P><I>Grant</I> means an award of financial assistance that, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6304, is used to enter into a relationship— 
</P>
<P>(a) The principal purpose of which is to transfer a thing of value to the recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States, rather than to acquire property or services for the Federal Government's direct benefit or use; and 
</P>
<P>(b) In which substantial involvement is not expected between the Federal agency and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.655" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.655   Individual.</HEAD>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.660" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.660   Recipient.</HEAD>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, association, unit of government (except a Federal agency) or legal entity, however organized, that receives an award directly from a Federal agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.665" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.665   State.</HEAD>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.670" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.45.6.81.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.670   Suspension.</HEAD>
<P><I>Suspension</I> means an action taken by a Federal agency that immediately prohibits a recipient from participating in Federal Government procurement contracts and covered nonprocurement transactions for a temporary period, pending completion of an investigation and any judicial or administrative proceedings that may ensue. A recipient so prohibited is suspended, in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation for procurement contracts (48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4) and the common rule, Government-wide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement), that implements Executive Order 12549 and Executive Order 12689. Suspension of a recipient is a distinct and separate action from suspension of an award or suspension of payments under an award. 












</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="95-99" NODE="29:1.1.1.1.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 95-99 [RESERVED]






</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 1, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="2" NODE="29:2" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 2</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Regulations Relating to Labor</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—National Labor Relations Board 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>100
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ii</E>—Office of Labor-Management Standards, Department of Labor 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>215
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter iii</E>—National Railroad Adjustment Board 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>301
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter iv</E>—Office of Labor-Management Standards, Department of Labor 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>401


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="29:2.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Regulations Relating to Labor 


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="29:2.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—NATIONAL LABOR RELATIONS BOARD</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="100" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 100—ADMINISTRATIVE REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 6, National Labor Relations Act, as amended (29 U.S.C. 141, 156).
</PSPACE><P>Subpart A is also issued under 5 U.S.C. 7301.
</P><P>Subpart B is also issued under the Inspector General Act of 1976, as amended by the Inspector General Act Amendments of 1988, 5 U.S.C. ap3; 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16(a).
</P><P>Subpart D is also issued under 28 U.S.C. 2672; 28 CFR part 14.
</P><P>Subpart E is also issued under 29 U.S.C. 794.
</P><P>Subpart F is also issued under 31 U.S.C. 3711 and 3716-3719, as amended, 31 CFR part 285, 31 CFR chapter IX parts 900-904.


</P></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Employee Responsibilities and Conduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.101" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.101   Cross-reference to financial disclosure requirements and other conduct rules.</HEAD>
<P>Employees of the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) should refer to the executive branch-wide Standards of Ethical Conduct at 5 CFR part 2635; the NLRB's regulations at 5 CFR part 7101, which supplement the executive branch-wide standards; the employee responsibilities and conduct regulations at 5 CFR part 735; and the executive branch financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6448, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Cooperation in Audits and Investigations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.201" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.201   Audits and investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees shall cooperate fully with any audit or investigation conducted by the Office of the Inspector General involving matters that fall within the jurisdiction and authority of the Inspector General, as defined in the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended, or with any audit or investigation conducted by any Agency official or department, including, but not limited to, the Office of Equal Employment Opportunity, involving matters that relate to or have an effect on the official business of the Agency. Such cooperation shall include, among other things, responding to requests for information, providing statements under oath relating to such audits or investigations, and affording access to Agency records and/or any other Agency materials in an employee's possession.
</P>
<P>(b) The obstruction of an audit or investigation, concealment of information, intentional furnishing of false or misleading information, refusal to provide information and/or answer questions, or refusal to provide a statement under oath, by an employee to an auditor or investigator pursuant to any audit or investigation as described in paragraph (a) of this section, may result in disciplinary action against an employee. However, nothing herein shall be construed to deny, abridge, or otherwise restrict the rights, privileges, or other entitlements or protections afforded to Agency employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 37158, July 21, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Employee Personal Property Loss Claims [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Claims Under the Federal Tort Claims Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.401" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.401   Claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act for loss of or damage to property or for personal injury or death.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of regulations.</I> These regulations apply to administrative claims filed under the Federal Tort Claims Act (28 U.S.C. 2672), as amended, for money damages against the United States for damage to or loss of property, or for personal injury or death, caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of any employee of the National Labor Relations Board acting within the scope of his or her office or employment, under circumstances where the United States, if a private person, would be liable to the claimant in accordance with the law of the place where the act or omission occurred. The regulations in this part supplement the Department of Justice's regulations in 28 CFR part 14.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing a claim.</I> Claims may be submitted to the Associate General Counsel, Division of Legal Counsel, Headquarters, National Labor Relations Board, Washington, DC 20570 at any time within 2 years after such claim has accrued. The current address for Headquarters can be found at <I>www.nlrb.gov.</I> Such claim may be presented by a person specified in 28 CFR 14.3. An executed Standard Form 95, <I>Claim for Damage, Injury, or Death</I>, or written notification must be submitted and accompanied by as much of the appropriate information specified in 28 CFR 14.4 as may reasonably be obtained.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amendment of claim.</I> A claim submitted in compliance with this subpart may be amended by the claimant at any time prior to final action by the National Labor Relations Board or prior to the exercise of the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a). Amendments shall be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or his or her duly authorized agent or legal representative. Upon the timely filing of an amendment to a pending claim, the National Labor Relations Board shall have six months to make a final disposition of the claim as amended and the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) shall not accrue until six months after filing of an amendment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Action on claims.</I> The Associate General Counsel, Division of Legal Counsel, shall have the power to consider, ascertain, adjust, determine, compromise, or settle any claim submitted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. Any exercise of such power shall be in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 2672 and 28 CFR part 1.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Legal review of claims.</I> In accordance with 28 CFR 14.5, legal review is required if the amount of a proposed settlement, compromise, or award exceeds $5,000. Any exercise of such power shall be in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 2672 and 28 CFR part 14.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment of awards.</I> Any award, compromise, or settlement in an amount of $2,500 or less made pursuant to this action will be paid by the Chief Financial Officer out of appropriations available to the National Labor Relations Board. Payment of any award, compromise, or settlement in an amount greater than $2,500 will be paid in accordance with 28 CFR 14.10.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Acceptance of payment constitutes release.</I> Acceptance by a claimant, his or her agent or legal representative of any award, compromise, or settlement made pursuant to this part shall be final and conclusive on the claimant, his or her agent or legal representative and any other person on whose behalf or for whose benefit the claim has been submitted, and shall constitute a complete release of any claims against the United States, the National Labor Relations Board, and any employee of the government whose act or omission gave rise to the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 19487, Apr. 5, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Enforcement of Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Handicap in Programs or Activities Conducted by the National Labor Relations Board</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 25884, 25885, July 8, 1988, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 59 FR 37159, July 21, 1994.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 100.501" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.501   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this regulation is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.502" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.502   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation (§§ 100.501-100.570) applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency, except for programs or activities conducted outside the United States that do not involve individuals with handicaps in the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 25884, 25885, July 8, 1988. Redesignated at 59 FR 37159, July 21, 1994, and amended at 60 FR 32587, June 23, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.503" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.503   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this regulation, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Historic preservation programs</I> means programs conducted by the agency that have preservation of historic properties as a primary purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Historic properties</I> means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with handicaps</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term “physical or mental impairment” includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with handicaps</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to preschool, elementary, or secondary education services provided by the agency, an individual with handicaps who is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive education services from the agency;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> as that term is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this regulation by § 100.540.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617); the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955); and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810). As used in this regulation, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial impairment</I> means a significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 25884, 25885, July 8, 1988. Redesignated at 59 FR 37159, July 21, 1994, and amended at 60 FR 32587, June 23, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 100.504-100.509" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 100.504-100.509   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.510" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.510   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, by September 6, 1989, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this regulation and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written).
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, for at least three years following completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspection:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.511" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.511   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this regulation and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 100.512-100.529" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 100.512-100.529   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.530" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.530   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified individual with handicaps an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with handicaps with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with handicaps or to any class of individuals with handicaps than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with handicaps with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards;
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with handicaps in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with handicaps from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to individuals with handicaps or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with handicaps from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with handicaps is not prohibited by this regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with handicaps.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 100.531-100.539" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 100.531-100.539   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.540" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.540   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be subject to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 100.541-100.548" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 100.541-100.548   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.549" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.549   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 100.550, no qualified individual with handicaps shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with handicaps, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 25884, 25885, July 8, 1988. Redesignated at 59 FR 37159, July 21, 1994, and amended at 60 FR 32587, June 23, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.550" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.550   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require the agency to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or
</P>
<P>(3) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 100.550(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with handicaps in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historic preservation programs.</I> In meeting the requirements of § 100.550(a) in historic preservation programs, the agency shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to individuals with handicaps. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of § 100.550(a) (2) or (3), alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—
</P>
<P>(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigning persons to guide individuals with handicaps into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Adopting other innovative methods.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section by November 7, 1988, except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made by September 6, 1991, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, by March 6, 1989, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to individuals with handicaps;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 25884, 25885, July 8, 1988. Redesignated at 59 FR 37159, July 21, 1994, and amended at 60 FR 32587, June 23, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.551" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.551   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 100.552-100.559" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 100.552-100.559   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.560" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.560   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with handicaps an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used to communicate with persons with impaired hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 100.560 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 25884, 25885, July 8, 1988. Redesignated at 59 FR 37159, July 21, 1994, and amended at 60 FR 32587, June 23, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 100.561-100.569" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 100.561-100.569   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.570" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.570   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs and activities conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c) The Director of Administration shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints may be sent to Director of Administration, National Labor Relations Board, 1099 Fourteenth Street NW., Washington, DC 20570.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate Government entity.
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 100.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause.
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency.
</P>
<P>(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 25884, 25885, July 8, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 25884, July 8, 1988. Redesignated and amended at 59 FR 37159, July 21, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 100.571-100.599" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 100.571-100.599   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Debt Collection Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 40070, July 23, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 100.601" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.601   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes standards and procedures for officers and employees of the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) who are responsible for the collection and disposition of certain debts owed to the United States, as further defined below. The authority for this part is the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966; the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996; 31 U.S.C. 3711 and 3716 through 3719, as amended; The Federal Claims Collection Standards, 31 CFR chapter IX parts 900-904; and Office of Management and Budget Circular A-129. The activities covered include: the collection of claims of any amount; compromising claims; suspending or terminating the collection of claims; referring debts that are more than 180 days delinquent to the Department of the Treasury for collection action; and the referral of debts of more than $100,000 (exclusive of any interest and charges) to the Department of Justice for litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.602" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.602   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart, the following definitions will apply:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Offset</I> means withholding money payable by the United States Government (including money payable by the United States Government on behalf of a State Government) to, or held by the Government for, a person to satisfy a debt the person owes the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Centralized offset</I> means the offset of Federal payments through the Treasury Offset Program to collect debts which creditor agencies have certified pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716(c), 3720A(a) and applicable regulations. The term “centralized offset” includes the Treasury Offset Program's processing of offsets of Federal payments disbursed by disbursing officials other than the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Claim or debt</I> means an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by an agency official to be owed to the United States by a person, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency. For the purposes of <I>administrative offset</I> under 31 U.S.C. 3716, the terms <I>claim</I> and <I>debt</I> include an amount of money, funds, or property owed by a person to a State (including past-due support being enforced by a State), the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-servicing</I> means that the Department of the Treasury or another debt collection center is taking appropriate debt collection action on behalf of one or more Federal agencies or a unit or sub-agency thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means an individual, organization, group, association, partnership, or corporation indebted to the United States, or the person or entity with legal responsibility for assuming the debtor's obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent</I> refers to the status of a debt and means a debt has not been paid by the date specified in the initial written demand for payment or applicable contractual agreement with the NLRB, unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made by that date. If the debtor fails to satisfy obligations under a payment agreement with the NLRB after other payment arrangements have been made, the debt becomes a delinquent debt.
</P>
<P><I>Payment in full</I> means payment of the total debt due the United States, including any interest, penalty, and administrative costs of collection assessed against the debtor.
</P>
<P><I>Recoupment</I> is a special method for adjusting debts arising under the same transaction or occurrence. For example, obligations arising under the same contract generally are subject to recoupment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.603" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.603   Debts that are covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures covered by this part generally apply to claims for payment or debts which
</P>
<P>(1) Result from certain internal management activities of the NLRB; or
</P>
<P>(2) Are referred to the NLRB for collection.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures covered by this part do not apply to
</P>
<P>(1) A debt arising from, or ancillary to, any action undertaken by or on behalf of the NLRB or its General Counsel in furtherance of efforts to ensure compliance with the National Labor Relations Board Act, 29 U.S.C. 151, <I>et seq.,</I> including but not limited to actions involving the collection of monies owed for back pay and/or other monetary remedies provided for in Board orders or ancillary court proceedings. (Regulations concerning the collection of these types of debts are found in 29 CFR part 102, subparts U and V.);
</P>
<P>(2) A debt involving criminal actions of fraud, the presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any other person having an interest in the claim;
</P>
<P>(3) A debt based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws;
</P>
<P>(4) A debt under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;
</P>
<P>(5) A debt between Federal agencies. Federal agencies should attempt to resolve interagency claims by negotiation in accordance with Executive Order 12146 (3 CFR, 1980 Comp., pp. 409-412);
</P>
<P>(6) A debt once it becomes subject to salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514; or
</P>
<P>(7) A debt involving bankruptcy which is covered by Title 11 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(c) Debts involving criminal actions of fraud, false claims, misrepresentation, or which violate antitrust laws will be promptly referred to the Department of Justice. Only the Department of Justice has the authority to compromise, suspend, or terminate collection activity on such debts. However, at its discretion, the Department of Justice may return a debt to the NLRB for further handling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.604" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.604   Monetary limitations on NLRB's authority.</HEAD>
<P>The NLRB's authority to compromise a debt or to suspend or terminate collection action on a debt covered by these procedures is limited by 31 U.S.C. 3711(a) to claims that:
</P>
<P>(a) Have not been referred to another Federal Agency for further collection actions; and
</P>
<P>(b) Do not exceed $100,000 (exclusive of any interest) or such higher amount as the Attorney General shall from time to time prescribe for purposes of compromise or suspension or termination of collection activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.605" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.605   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains no information collection requirements, and, therefore, is not subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.606" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.606   No private rights created.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The failure of the NLRB to include in this part any provision of the Federal Collections Claim Standards (FCCS), 31 CFR chapter IX parts 900-904, does not prevent the NLRB from applying these provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) A debtor may not use the failure of the NLRB to comply with any provision of this part or of the FCCS as a defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.607" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.607   Form of payment.</HEAD>
<P>These procedures are directed primarily at the recovery of money or, when a contractual basis exists, the NLRB may demand the return of specific property or the performance of specific services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.608" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.608   Subdivision of claims or debts.</HEAD>
<P>A debt may not be subdivided to avoid the monetary ceiling established by 31 U.S.C. 3711(a)(2) and 29 CFR 100.604.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.609" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.609   Administrative collection of claims.</HEAD>
<P>The NLRB shall aggressively collect all claims or debts. These collection activities will be undertaken promptly and follow up action will be taken as appropriate in accordance with 31 CFR chapter IX § 901.1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.610" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.610   Written demand for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NLRB will promptly make written demand upon the debtor for payment of money or the return of specific property. The written demand for payment will be consistent with the requirements of 31 CFR chapter IX § 901.2. The date by which payment is due to avoid any late charges will be 60 days from the date that the demand letter is mailed or hand-delivered.
</P>
<P>(b) The failure to state in a letter of demand a matter described in 31 CFR chapter IX § 901.2 is not a defense for a debtor and does not prevent the NLRB from proceeding with respect to that matter.
</P>
<P>(c) When necessary, to protect the Government's interest, written demand may be preceded by other appropriate action, including immediate referral for litigation. It may be appropriate to contact a debtor or his representative or guarantor by other means (telephone, in person, etc.) to discuss prompt payment, the debtor's ability to repay the debt, and to inform the debtor of his rights and the affect of nonpayment or delayed payment.
</P>
<P>(d) When the NLRB learns that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, the NLRB will cease collection action immediately unless it has been determined that the automatic stay imposed at the time of filing pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 362 has been lifted or is no longer in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.611" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.611   Reporting claims or debts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to assessing interest, penalties, and administrative costs pursuant to 31 CFR chapter IX § 901.9, the NLRB may report a debt that has been delinquent for 90 days to a consumer reporting agency in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3711(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The information the NLRB discloses to a consumer reporting agency is limited to—
</P>
<P>(1) Information necessary to establish the identity of the individual debtor, including name, address, and taxpayer identification number;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, status, and history of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(3) The NLRB activity under which the debt arose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.612" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.612   Disputed claims or debts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A debtor who disputes a debt should provide the NLRB with an explanation as to why the debt is incorrect within 60 days from the date the initial demand letter was mailed or hand-delivered. The debtor may support the explanation by affidavits, cancelled checks, or other relevant evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) If the debtor's arguments appear to have merit, the NLRB may waive the interest period pursuant to 29 CFR 100.617(c) pending a final determination of the existence or the amount of the debt.
</P>
<P>(c) The NLRB may investigate the facts concerning the dispute and, if it considers it necessary, arrange for a conference at which the debtor may present evidence and any arguments in support of the debtor's position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.613" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.613   Contracting for collection services.</HEAD>
<P>The NLRB may contract for collection services in order to recover delinquent debts only if the debts are not subject to the DCIA requirement to transfer claims or debts to Treasury for debt collection services, e.g., claims or debts of less than 180 days delinquent. However, the NLRB retains the authority to resolve disputes, compromise claims, suspend or terminate collection action, and initiate enforced collection through litigation. When appropriate, the NLRB shall contract for collection services in accordance with guidance and standards contained in 31 CFR chapter IX parts 900-904.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.614" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.614   Collection by administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> (1) The NLRB may administratively undertake collection by centralized offset on each claim which is liquidated or certain in amount in accordance with the guidance and standards in 31 CFR parts 900-904 and 5 U.S.C. 5514.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to those debts described in 31 CFR 901.3(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) Unless otherwise provided for by contract or law, debts or payments that are not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(4) Generally, administrative offset of payments under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3716 may not be conducted more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the claim or debt first accrued.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory centralized offset.</I> (1) The NLRB is required to refer past due legally enforceable, nontax debts that are over 180 days delinquent to the Department of the Treasury for collection by centralized administrative offset. A debt is legally enforceable if there has been a final determination by the NLRB that the debt, in the amount stated, is due and there are no legal bars to collection action. Debts under this section will be referred and collected pursuant to procedures in 31 CFR 901.3(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NLRB administrative offset.</I> The NLRB, in order to refer a delinquent debt to the Department of the Treasury for administrative offset, adopts the administrative offset procedures as prescribed by 31 CFR 901.3.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-centralized administrative offset.</I> Generally, non-centralized administrative offsets are ad hoc case-by-case offsets that the NLRB would conduct at its own discretion, internally or in cooperation with the agency certifying or authorizing payments to the debtor. Non-centralized administrative offset is used when centralized administrative offset is not available or appropriate to collect past due legally enforceable, nontax delinquent debts. In these cases, the NLRB may make a request directly to a payment-authorizing agency to offset a payment due a debtor to collect a delinquent debt. The NLRB adopts the procedures in 31 CFR 901.3(c) so that it may request that the Department of the Treasury or any other payment authorizing agency to conduct a non-centralized administrative offset.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests to OPM to offset a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payments under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund and the Federal Employees Retirement System.</I> Upon providing OPM written certification that a debtor has been afforded the procedures provided for in this section, the NLRB will request that OPM offset a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payments under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (Fund) in accordance with regulations codified at 5 CFR 831.1801-831.1808 and the Federal Employees Retirement System (System) in accordance with regulations codified at 5 CFR 845.401-845.408. Upon receipt of a request, OPM will identify and “flag” a debtor's account in anticipation of the time when the debtor requests or becomes eligible for payments from the Fund or System. This will satisfy any requirement that offset be initiated prior to the expiration of the time limitations referenced in 29 CFR 100.614(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, whenever the NLRB is required to afford a debtor a review within the Agency, the NLRB shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for a review of the record in accordance with 31 CFR 901.3(e). The NLRB will provide the debtor with the reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing in accordance with 31 CFR 285.11(f), when the debtor requests reconsideration of the debt, and the NLRB determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the written record, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.615" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.615   Authorities other than offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative Wage Garnishment.</I> The NLRB is authorized to collect debts from a debtor's wages by means of administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11. This section adopts and incorporates all of the provisions of 31 CFR 285.11 concerning administrative wage garnishment, including the hearing procedures described in 31 CFR 285.11(f). The NLRB may use administrative wage garnishment to collect a delinquent debt unless the debtor is making timely payments under an agreement to pay the debt in installments.
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not apply to Federal salary offset, the process by which the NLRB collects debts from the salaries of Federal employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.616" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.616   Payment collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NLRB shall make every effort to collect a claim in full before it becomes delinquent, but will consider arranging for payment in regular installments consistent with 31 CFR 901.8, if the debtor furnishes satisfactory evidence that he is unable to pay the debt in one lump sum. Except for a claim described in 5 U.S.C. 5514, all installment payment arrangements must be in writing and require the payment of interest, penalties, and other administrative costs. If possible, the installment payments should be sufficient in size and frequency to liquidate the debt in three years or less.
</P>
<P>(b) If a debt is paid in one lump sum after it becomes delinquent, the NLRB shall impose charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs as specified in 31 CFR 901.9.
</P>
<P>(c) Payment of a debt is made by check, electronic funds transfer, draft, or money order payable to the National Labor Relations Board. Payment should be made to the National Labor Relations Board, Finance Branch, 1099 14th Street NW., Washington, DC 20570, unless payment is—
</P>
<P>(1) Made pursuant to arrangements with the Department of Justice;
</P>
<P>(2) Ordered by a Court of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise directed in any other part of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.617" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.617   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717, the NLRB shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs on debts owed to the United States Government. Interest, penalties, and administrative costs will be assessed in accordance with the provisions contained in 31 CFR 901.9.
</P>
<P>(b) The NLRB shall waive collection of interest on a debt or any portion of the debt which is paid in full within 30 days after the date on which the interest began to accrue.
</P>
<P>(c) The NLRB may waive interest during a period a disputed debt is under investigation or review by the NLRB. However, this additional waiver is not automatic and must be requested before the expiration of the initial 30-day waiver period. The NLRB may grant the additional waiver only if it finds merit in the explanation the debtor has submitted.
</P>
<P>(d) The NLRB may waive collection of interest, penalties, and administrative costs if it finds that one or more of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor is unable to pay any significant sum toward the debt within a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(2) Collection of interest, penalties, and administrative costs will jeopardize collection of the principal of the debt;
</P>
<P>(3) The NLRB is unable to enforce collection in full within a reasonable period of time by enforced collection proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(4) Collection is not in the best interest of the United States, including when an administrative offset or installment agreement is in effect.
</P>
<P>(e) The NLRB is authorized to impose interest and related charges on debts not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717, in accordance with common law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.618" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.618   Bankruptcy claims.</HEAD>
<P>When the NLRB learns that a bankruptcy petition has been filed by a debtor, before proceeding with further collection action, the NLRB will immediately seek legal advice from the NLRB's Office of Special Counsel concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code on any pending or contemplated collection activities. After seeking legal advice from the NLRB's Office of Special Counsel, the NLRB will take any necessary action in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR 901.2(h).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.619" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.619   When a debt may be compromised.</HEAD>
<P>The NLRB may compromise a debt not in excess of the monetary limitation in accordance with 31 CFR part 902 if it has not been referred to the Department of Justice for litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.620" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.620   Finality of a compromise.</HEAD>
<P>An offer of compromise must be in writing and signed by the debtor. An offer of compromise which is accepted by the NLRB is final and conclusive on the debtor and on all officials, agencies, and courts of the United States, unless obtained by fraud, misrepresentation, the presentation of a false claim, or mutual mistake of fact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.621" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.621   When collection action may be terminated or suspended.</HEAD>
<P>The NLRB may suspend or terminate collection action on a claim not in excess of the monetary limitation of $100,000 or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, after deducting the amount of partial payments or collections, if any, in accordance with the standards and reasons set forth in 31 CFR part 903.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.622" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.622   Termination of collection action.</HEAD>
<P>Before terminating collection activity, the NLRB will have pursued all appropriate means of collection and determined, based upon results of the collection activity, that the debt is uncollectible. Termination of collection activity ceases active collection of the debt. The termination of collection activity does not preclude the NLRB from retaining a record of the account for the purposes stated in 31 CFR 903.3(b) and (c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.623" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.623   Exception to termination.</HEAD>
<P>If a debt meets the exceptions described in 31 CFR 903.4, the NLRB may refer it for litigation even though termination of collection activity may otherwise be appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.624" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.624   Discharge of indebtedness; reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before discharging a delinquent debt (also referred to as close-out of a debt), the NLRB shall take all appropriate steps to collect the debt in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g), including, as applicable, administrative offset, tax refund offset, Federal salary offset, referral to Treasury or Treasury-designated collection centers or private collection contractors, credit bureau reporting, wage garnishment, litigation, and foreclosure. Discharge of indebtedness is distinct from termination or suspension of collection activity and is governed by the Internal Revenue Code. When the NLRB determines that it will discharge a debt, it will do so in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR 903.5.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.625" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.1.6.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.625   Referral of a claim to the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>The NLRB shall promptly refer debts that are subject to aggressive collection activity and that cannot be compromised, or debts on which collection activity cannot be suspended or terminated, to the Department of Justice for litigation. Debts shall be referred as early as possible, consistent with the standards contained if 31 CFR parts 900-904 and, in any event, well within the period for initiating timely lawsuits against the debtors. The NLRB will make every effort to refer delinquent debts to the Department of Justice within one year of the date such debts became delinquent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="101" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 101—STATEMENTS OF PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 6 of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended (29 U.S.C. 151, 156), and sec. 552(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 552(a)). Section 101.14 also issued under sec. 2112(a)(1) of Pub. L. 100-236, 28 U.S.C. 2112(a)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 23968, June 26, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Statement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.1" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.1   General statement.</HEAD>
<P>The following statements of the general course and method by which the Board's functions are channeled and determined are issued and published pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1)(B).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Unfair Labor Practice Cases Under Section 10 (a) to (i) of the Act and Telegraph Merger Act Cases</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.2" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.2   Initiation of unfair labor practice cases.</HEAD>
<P>The investigation of an alleged violation of the National Labor Relations Act is initiated by the filing of a charge, which must be in writing and signed, and must either be notarized or must contain a declaration by the person signing it, under the penalties of the Criminal Code, that its contents are true and correct to the best of the persons' knowledge and belief. The charge is filed with the Regional Director for the Region in which the alleged violations have occurred or are occurring. A blank form for filing such charge is supplied by the Regional Office upon request. The charge contains the name and address of the person against whom the charge is made and a statement of the facts constituting the alleged unfair labor practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.3" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.4" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.4   Investigation of charges.</HEAD>
<P>When the charge is received in the Regional Office it is filed, docketed, and assigned a case number. The Regional Director may cause a copy of the charge to be served on the person against whom the charge is made, but timely service of a copy of the charge within the meaning of the proviso to section 10(b) of the Act is the exclusive responsibility of the charging party and not of the Regional Director. The Regional Director requests the person filing the charge to submit promptly evidence in its support. As part of the investigation hereinafter mentioned, the person against whom the charge is filed, hereinafter called the respondent, is asked to submit a statement of position in respect to the allegations. The case is assigned for investigation to a member of the field staff, who interviews representatives of the parties and other persons who have knowledge as to the charge, as is deemed necessary. In the investigation and in all other stages of the proceedings, charges alleging violations of section 8(b)(4) (A), (B), and (C), charges alleging violations of section 8(b)(4)(D) in which it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief under section 10(1) of the Act, and charges alleging violations of section 8(b)(7) or 8(e) are given priority over all other cases in the office in which they are pending except cases of like character; and charges alleging violations of sections 8(a)(3) or 8(b)(2) are given priority over all other cases except cases of like character and cases under section 10(1) of the Act. The Regional Director may exercise discretion to dispense with any portion of the investigation described in this section as appears necessary in consideration of such factors as the amount of time necessary to complete a full investigation, the nature of the proceeding, and the public interest. After investigation, the case may be disposed of through informal methods such as withdrawal, dismissal, or settlement; or the case may necessitate formal methods of disposition. Some of the informal methods of handling unfair labor practice cases will be stated first.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.5" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.5   Withdrawal of charges.</HEAD>
<P>If investigation reveals that there has been no violation of the National Labor Relations Act or the evidence is insufficient to substantiate the charge, the Regional Director recommends withdrawal of the charge by the person who filed. Withdrawal may also be requested on the initiative of the complainant. If the complainant accepts the recommendation of the Regional Director or requests withdrawal, the respondent is immediately notified of the withdrawal of the charge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.6" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.6   Dismissal of charges and appeals to the General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>If the complainant refuses to withdraw the charge as recommended, the Regional Director dismisses the charge. The Regional Director thereupon informs the parties of this section, together with a simple statement of the grounds therefor, and the complainant's right of appeal to the General Counsel in Washington, DC, within 14 days. If the complainant appeals to the General Counsel, the entire file in the case is sent to Washington, DC, where the case is fully reviewed by the General Counsel with staff assistance. Oral presentation of the appeal issues may be permitted a party on timely written request, in which event the other parties are notified and afforded a like opportunity at another appropriate time. Following such review, the General Counsel may sustain the Regional Director's dismissal, stating the grounds of affirmance, or may direct the Regional Director to take further action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.7" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.7   Settlements.</HEAD>
<P>Before any complaint is issued or other formal action taken, the Regional Director affords an opportunity to all parties for the submission and consideration of facts, argument, offers of settlement, or proposals of adjustment, except where time, the nature of the proceeding, and the public interest do not permit. Normally prehearing conferences are held, the principal purpose of which is to discuss and explore such submissions and proposals of adjustment. The Regional Office provides Board-prepared forms for such settlment agreements, as well as printed notices for posting by the respondent. These agreements, which are subject to the approval of the Regional Director, provide for an appeal to the General Counsel, as described in § 101.6, by a complainant who will not join in a settlement or adjustment deemed adequate by the Regional Director. Proof of compliance is obtained by the Regional Director before the case is closed. If the respondent fails to perform the obligations under the informal agreement, the Regional Director may determine to institute formal proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.8" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.8   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>If the charge appears to have merit and efforts to dispose of it by informal adjustment are unsuccessful, the Regional Director institutes formal action by issuance of a complaint and notice of hearing. In certain types of cases, involving novel and complex issues, the Regional Director, at the discretion of the General Counsel, must submit the case for advice from the General Counsel before issuing a complaint. The complaint, which is served on all parties, sets forth the facts upon which the Board bases its jurisidiction and the facts relating to the alleged violations of law by the respondent. The respondent must file an answer to the complaint within 14 days of its receipt, setting forth a statement of its defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.9" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.9   Settlement after issuance of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Even though formal proceedings have begun, the parties again have full opportunity at every stage to dispose of the case by amicable adjustment and in compliance with the law. Thus, after the complaint has been issued and a hearing scheduled or commenced, the attorney in charge of the case and the Regional Director afford all parties every opportunity for the submission and consideration of facts, argument, offers of settlement, or proposals of adjustment, except where time, the nature of the proceeding, and the public interest do not permit.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) After the issuance of a complaint, the Agency favors a formal settlement agreement, which is subject to the approval of the Board in Washington, DC. In such an agreement, the parties agree to waive their right to hearing and agree further that the Board may issue an order requiring the respondent to take action appropriate to the terms of the settlement. Ordinarily the formal settlement agreement also contains the respondent's consent to the Board's application for the entry of a judgment by the appropriate circuit court of appeals enforcing the Board's order.
</P>
<P>(2) In some cases, however, the Regional Director, who has authority to withdraw the complaint before the hearing (§ 102.18), may conclude that an informal settlement agreement of the type described in § 101.7 is appropriate. Such agreement is not subject to approval by the Board and does not provide for a Board order. It provides for the withdrawal of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If after issuance of a complaint but before opening of the hearing, the charging party will not join in a settlement tentatively agreed upon by the Regional Director, the respondent, and any other parties whose consent may be required, the Regional Director serves a copy of the proposed settlement agreement on the charging party with a brief written statement of the reasons for proposing its approval. Within 7 days after service of these documents, the charging party may file with the Regional Director a written statement of any objections to the proposed settlement. Such objections will be considered by the Regional Director in determining whether to approve the proposed settlement. If the settlement is approved by the Regional Director notwithstanding the objections, the charging party is so informed and provided a brief written statement of the reasons for the approval. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the settlement agreement approved by the Regional Director is a formal one, providing for the entry of a Board order, the settlement agreement together with the charging party's objections and the Regional Director's written statements are submitted to Washington, DC, where they are reviewed by the General Counsel. If the General Counsel decides to approve the settlement agreement, the charging party is so informed and the agreement and accompanying documents are submitted to the Board, upon whose approval the settlement is contingent. Within 7 days after service of notice of submission of the settlement agreement to the Board, the charging party may file with the Board in Washington, DC, a further statement in support of objections to the settlement agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) If the settlement agreement approved by the Regional Director is an informal one, providing for the withdrawal of the complaint, the charging party may appeal the Regional Director's action to the General Counsel, as provided in § 102.19 of the Board's Rules and Regulations.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the settlement occurs after the opening of the hearing and before issuance of the administrative law judge's decision and there is an all-party informal settlement, the request for withdrawal of the complaint must be submitted to the administrative law judge for approval. If the all-party settlement is a formal one, final approval must come from the Board. If any party will not join in the settlement agreed to by the other parties, the administrative law judge will give such party an opportunity to state on the record or in writing its reasons for opposing the settlement.
</P>
<P>(2) If the administrative law judge decides to accept or reject the proposed settlement, any party aggrieved by such ruling may ask for leave to appeal to the Board as provided in § 102.26.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) In the event the respondent fails to comply with the terms of a settlement stipulation, upon which a Board order and court judgment are based, the Board may petition the court to adjudge the respondent in contempt. If the respondent refuses to comply with the terms of a settlement stipulation providing solely for the entry of a Board order, the Board may petition the court for enforcement of its order pursuant to section 10 of the National Labor Relations Act.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event the respondent fails to comply with the terms of an informal settlement agreement, the Regional Director may set the agreement aside and institute further proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.10" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.10   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in extraordinary situations the hearing is open to the public and usually conducted in the Region where the charge originated. A duly designated administrative law judge presides over the hearing. The Government's case is conducted by an attorney attached to the Board's Regional Office, who has the responsibility of presenting the evidence in support of the complaint. The rules of evidence applicable in the district courts of the United States under the Rules of Civil Procedure adopted by the Supreme Court are, so far as practicable, controlling. Counsel for the General Counsel, all parties to the proceeding, and the administrative law judge have the power to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses and to introduce evidence into the record. They may also submit briefs, engage in oral argument, and submit proposed findings and conclusions to the administrative law judge. The attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence material to any matter under investigation may be compelled by subpoena.
</P>
<P>(b) The functions of all administrative law judges and other Board agents or employees participating in decisions in conformity with section 8 of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 557) are conducted in an impartial manner and any such administrative law judge, agent, or employee may at any time withdraw if he or she deems himself or herself disqualified because of bias or prejudice. The Board's attorney has the burden of proof of violations of section 8 of the National Labor Relations Act and section 222(f) of the Telegraph Merger Act. In connection with hearings subject to the provisions of section 7 of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 556):
</P>
<P>(1) No sanction is imposed or rule or order issued except upon consideration of the whole record or such portions thereof as may be cited by any party and as supported by and in accordance with the preponderance of the reliable, probative, and substantial evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) Every party has the right to present its case or defense by oral or documentary evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(3) Where any decision rests on official notice of a material fact not appearing in the evidence in the record, any party is on timely request afforded a reasonable opportunity to show the contrary.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to the approval of the administrative law judge, all parties to the proceeding voluntarily may enter into a stipulation dispensing with a verbatim written transcript of record of the oral testimony adduced at the hearing and providing for the waiver by the respective parties of their right to file with the Board exceptions to the findings of fact (but not to conclusions of law or recommended orders) in the administrative law judge's decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.11" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.11   Administrative law judge's decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the conclusion of the hearing the administrative law judge prepares a decision stating findings of fact and conclusions, as well as the reasons for the determinations on all material issues, and making recommendations as to action which should be taken in the case. The administrative law judge may recommend dismissal or sustain the complaint, in whole or in part, and recommend that the respondent cease and desist from the unlawful acts found and take action to remedy their effects.
</P>
<P>(b) The administrative law judge's decision is filed with the Board in Washington, DC, and copies are simultaneously served on each of the parties. At the same time the Board, through its Executive Secretary, issues and serves on each of the parties an order transferring the case to the Board. The parties may accept and comply with the administrative law judge's recommended order, which, in the absence of exceptions, shall become the order of the Board. Or, the parties or counsel for the Board may file exceptions to the administrative law judge's decision with the Board. Whenever any party files exceptions, any other party may file an answering brief limited to questions raised in the exceptions and/or may file cross-exceptions relating to any portion of the administrative law judge's decision. Cross-exceptions may be filed only by a party who has not previously filed exceptions. Whenever any party files cross-exceptions, any other party may file an answering brief to the cross-exceptions. The parties may request permission to appear and argue orally before the Board in Washington, DC. They may also submit proposed findings and conclusions to the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.12" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.12   Board decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any party files exceptions to the administrative law judge's decision, the Board, with the assistance of the staff counsel to each Board Member who function in much the same manner as law clerks do for judges, reviews the entire record, including the administrative law judge's decision and recommendations, the exceptions thereto, the complete transcript of evidence, and the exhibits, briefs, and arguments. The Board does not consult with members of the administrative law judge's staff of the division of judges or with any agent of the General Counsel in its deliberations. It then issues its decision and order in which it may adopt, modify, or reject the findings and recommendations of the administrative law judge. The decision and order contains detailed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and basic reasons for decision on all material issues raised, and an order either dismissing the complaint in whole or in part or requiring the respondent to cease and desist from its unlawful practices and to take appropriate affirmative action.
</P>
<P>(b) If no exceptions are filed, the administrative law judge's decision and recommended order automatically become the decision and order of the Board pursuant to section 10(c) of the Act. All objections and exceptions, whether or not previously made during or after the hearing, are deemed waived for all purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.13" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.13   Compliance with Board decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Shortly after the Board's decision and order is issued the Director of the Regional Office in which the charge was filed communicates with the respondent for the purpose of obtaining compliance. Conferences may be held to arrange the details necessary for compliance with the terms of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) If the respondent effects full compliance with the terms of the order, the Regional Director submits a report to that effect to Washington, DC, after which the case may be closed. Despite compliance, however, the Board's order is a continuing one; therefore, the closing of a case on compliance is necessarily conditioned upon the continued observance of that order; and in some cases it is deemed desirable, notwithstanding compliance, to implement the order with an enforcing court judgment. Subsequent violations of the order may become the basis of further proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.14" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.14   Judicial review of Board decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>If the respondent does not comply with the Board's order, or the Board deems it desirable to implement the order with a court judgment, the Board may petition the appropriate Federal court for enforcement. Or, the respondent or any person aggrieved by a final order of the Board may petition the circuit court of appeals to review and set aside the Board's order. If a petition for review is filed, the respondent or aggrieved person must ensure that the Board receives, by service upon its Deputy Associate General Counsel of the Appellate Court Branch, a court-stamped copy of the petition with the date of filing. Upon such review or enforcement proceedings, the court reviews the record and the Board's findings and order and sustains them if they are in accordance with the requirements of law. The court may enforce, modify, or set aside in whole or in part the Board's findings and order, or it may remand the case to the Board for further proceedings as directed by the court. Following the court's judgment, either the Government or the private party may petition the Supreme Court for review upon writ of certiorari. Such applications for review to the Supreme Court are handled by the Board through the Solicitor General of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 24440, June 29, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.15" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.15   Compliance with court judgment.</HEAD>
<P>After a Board order has been enforced by a court judgment, the Board has the responsibility of obtaining compliance with that judgment. Investigation is made by the Regional Office of the respondent's efforts to comply. If it finds that the respondent has failed to live up to the terms of the court's judgment, the General Counsel may, on behalf of the Board, petition the court to hold the respondent in contempt of court. The court may order immediate remedial action and impose sanctions and penalties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.16" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.16   Backpay proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After a Board order directing the payment of backpay has been issued or after enforcement of such order by a court judgment, if informal efforts to dispose of the matter prove unsuccessful, the Regional Director then has discretion to issue a “backpay specification” in the name of the Board and a notice of hearing before an administrative law judge, both of which are served on the parties involved. The specification sets forth computations showing gross and net backpay due and any other pertinent information. The respondent must file an answer within 21 days of the receipt of the specification, setting forth a particularized statement of its defense.
</P>
<P>(b) In the alternative, the Regional Director, under the circumstances specified above, may issue and serve on the parties a notice of hearing only, without a specification. Such notice contains, in addition to the time and place of hearing before an administrative law judge, a brief statement of the matters in controversy.
</P>
<P>(c) The procedure before the administrative law judge or the Board, whether initiated by the “backpay specification” or by notice of hearing without backpay specification, is substantially the same as that described in §§ 101.10 to 101.14, inclusive.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Unfair Labor Practice and Representation Cases Under Sections 8(b)(7) and 9(c) of the Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.22" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.22   Initiation and investigation of a case under section 8(b)(7).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigation of an alleged violation of section 8(b)(7) of the Act is initiated by the filing of a charge. The manner of filing such charge and the contents thereof are the same as described in § 101.2. In some cases, at the time of the investigation of the charge, there may be pending a representation petition involving the employees of the employer named in the charge. In those cases, the results of the investigation of the charge will determine the cause of the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) The investigation of the charge is conducted in accordance with the provisions of § 101.4, insofar as they are applicable. If the investigation reveals that there is merit in the charge, a complaint is issued as described in § 101.8, and an application is made for an injunction under section 10(1) of the Act, as described in § 101.37. If the investigation reveals that there is no merit in the charge, the Regional Director, absent a withdrawal of the charge, dismisses it, subject to appeal to the General Counsel. However, if the investigation reveals that issuance of a complaint may be warranted but for the pendency of a representation petition involving the employees of the employer named in the charge, action on the charge is suspended pending the investigation of the petition as provided in § 101.23.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.23" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.23   Initiation and investigation of a petition in connection with a case under section 8(b)(7).</HEAD>
<P>(a) A representation petition 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> involving the employees of the employer named in the charge is handled under an expedited procedure when the investigation of the charge has revealed that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The manner of filing of such petition and the contents thereof are the same as described in 29 CFR 102.60 and 102.61 and the statement of the general course of proceedings under Section 9(c) of the Act published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> insofar as they are applicable, except that the petitioner is not required to allege that a claim was made on the employer for recognition or that the union represents a substantial number of employees.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The employer's operations affect commerce within the meaning of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Picketing of the employer is being conducted for an object proscribed by section 8(b)(7) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Subparagraph (C) of that section of the Act is applicable to the picketing; and
</P>
<P>(4) The petition has been filed within a reasonable period of time not to exceed 30 days from the commencement of the picketing. In these circumstances, the member of the regional director's staff to whom the matter has been assigned investigates the petition to ascertain further: the unit appropriate for collective bargaining; and whether an election in that unit would effectuate the policies of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) If, based on such investigation, the regional director determines that an election is warranted, the director may, without a prior hearing, direct that an election be held in an appropriate unit of employees. Any party aggrieved may file a request with the Board for special permission to appeal that action to the Board, but such review, if granted, will not, unless otherwise ordered by the Board, stay the proceeding. If it is determined that an election is not warranted, the director dismisses the petition or makes other disposition of the matter. Should the regional director conclude that an election is warranted, the director fixes the basis of eligibility of voters and the place, date, and hours of balloting. The mechanics of arranging the balloting, the other procedures for the conduct of the election, and the postelection proceedings are the same, insofar as appropriate, as those described in 29 CFR 102.69 and the statement of the general course of proceedings under Section 9(c) of the Act published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> except that the regional director's rulings on any objections to the conduct of the election or challenged ballots are final and binding unless the Board, on an application by one of the parties, grants such party special permission to appeal from the regional director's rulings. The party requesting such review by the Board must do so promptly, in writing, and state briefly the grounds relied on. Such party must also immediately serve a copy on the other parties, including the regional director. Neither the request for review by the Board nor the Board's grant of such review operates as a stay of any action taken by the regional director, unless specifically so ordered by the Board. If the Board grants permission to appeal, and it appears to the Board that substantial and material factual issues have been presented with respect to the objections to the conduct of the election or challenged ballots, it may order that a hearing be held on such issues or take other appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(c) If the regional director believes, after preliminary investigation of the petition, that there are substantial issues which require determination before an election may be held, the director may order a hearing on the issues. This hearing is followed by regional director decision and direction of election, or other disposition. The procedures to be used in connection with such hearing and posthearing proceedings are the same, insofar as they are applicable, as those described in 29 CFR 102.63, 102.64, 102.65, 102.66, 102.67, 102.68, and 102.69, and the statement of the general course.
</P>
<P>(d) Should the parties so desire, they may, with the approval of the regional director, resolve the issues as to the unit, the conduct of the balloting, and related matters pursuant to informal consent procedures, as described in 29 CFR 102.62(a) and the statement of the general course.
</P>
<P>(e) If a petition has been filed which does not meet the requirements for processing under the expedited procedures, the regional director may process it under the procedures set forth in subpart C of 29 CFR part 102 and the statement of the general course.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 74476, Dec. 15, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.24" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.24   Final disposition of a charge which has been held pending investigation of the petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the determination that the issuance of a direction of election is warranted on the petition, the Regional Director, absent withdrawal of the charge, dismisses it subject to an appeal to the General Counsel in Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>(b) If, however, the petition is dismissed or withdrawn, the investigation of the charge is resumed, and the appropriate steps described in § 101.22 are taken with respect to it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.25" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.25   Appeal from the dismissal of a petition, or from the refusal to process it under the expedited procedure.</HEAD>
<P>If it is determined after investigation of the representation petition that further proceedings based thereon are not warranted, the regional director, absent withdrawal of the petition, dismisses it, stating the grounds therefor. If it is determined that the petition does not meet the requirements for processing under the expedited procedure, the regional director advises the petitioner of the determination to process the petition under the procedures described in subpart C of 29 CFR part 102 and the statement of the general course. In either event, the regional director informs all the parties of such action, and such action is final, although the Board may grant an aggrieved party permission to appeal from the regional director's action. Such party must request such review promptly, in writing, and state briefly the grounds relied on. Such party must also immediately serve a copy on the other parties, including the regional director. Neither the request for review by the Board, nor the Board's grant of such review, operates as a stay of the action taken by the regional director, unless specifically so ordered by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 74476, Dec. 15, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Referendum Cases Under Section 9(e) (1) and (2) of the Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.26" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.26   Initiation of rescission of authority cases.</HEAD>
<P>The investigation of the question as to whether the authority of a labor organization to make an agreement requiring membership in a labor organization as a condition of employment is to be rescinded is initiated by the filing of a petition by an employee or group of employees on behalf of 30 percent or more of the employees in a bargaining unit covered by an agreement between their employer and a labor organization requiring membership in such labor organization. The petition must be in writing and signed, and either must be notarized or must contain a declaration by the person signing it, under the penalties of the Criminal Code, that its contents are true and correct to the best of his knowledge and belief. It is filed with the regional director for the Region in which the alleged appropriate bargaining unit exists or, if the bargaining unit exists in two or more Regions, with the regional director for any of such Regions. The blank form, which is supplied by the Regional Office upon request or is available online, provides, among other things, for a description of the bargaining unit covered by the agreement, the approximate number of employees involved, the names of any other labor organizations which claim to represent the employees, the petitioner's position on the type, date(s), time(s), and location(s) of the election sought, and the name of, and contact information for, the individual who will serve as the petitioner's representative. The petition may be filed by facsimile or electronically. The petitioner must supply with the petition evidence of authorization from the employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 74476, Dec. 15, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.27" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.27   Investigation of petition; withdrawals and dismissals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the petition in the Regional Office, it is filed, docketed, and assigned to a member of the staff, usually a field examiner, for investigation. The field examiner conducts an investigation to ascertain:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the employer's operations affect commerce within the meaning of the Act,
</P>
<P>(2) Whether there is in effect an agreement requiring as a condition of employment membership in a labor organization,
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the petitioner has been authorized by at least 30 percent of the employees to file such a petition, and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether an election would effectuate the policies of the Act by providing for a free expression of choice by the employees.
</P>
<FP>The evidence of designation submitted by the petitioner, usually in the form of cards signed by individual employees authorizing the filing of such a petition, is checked to determine the proportion of employees who desire rescission.
</FP>
<P>(b) The petitioner may on its own initiative request the withdrawal of the petition if the investigation discloses that an election is inappropriate, because, among other possible reasons, the petitioner's card-showing is insufficient to meet the 30-percent statutory requirement referred to in subsection (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) For the same or similar reasons the Regional Director may request the petitioner to withdraw its petition. If the petitioner, despite the Regional Director's recommendation, refuses to withdraw the petition, the Regional Director then dismisses the petition, stating the grounds for his dismissal and informing the petitioner of the right of appeal to the Board in Washington, DC. The petitioner may within 14 days appeal from the Regional Director's dismissal by filing such request with the Board in Washington, DC. The request shall contain a complete statement setting forth the facts and reasons upon which the request is made. After a full review of the file with the assistance of its staff, the Board may sustain the dismissal, stating the grounds for its affirmance, or may direct the Regional Director to take further action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.28" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.28   Consent agreements providing for election.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board makes available to the parties three types of informal consent procedures through which authorization issues can be resolved without resort to formal procedures. These informal agreements are the consent election agreement with final regional director determinations of post-election disputes, the stipulated election agreement with discretionary Board review, and the full consent election agreement with final regional director determinations of pre- and post-election disputes. Forms for use in these informal procedures are available in the Regional Offices.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures to be used in connection with a consent-election agreement with final regional director determinations of post-election disputes, a stipulated election agreement with discretionary Board review, and a full consent-election agreement with final regional director determinations of pre- and post-election disputes are the same as those described in subpart C of 29 CFR part 102 and the statement of the general course in connection with similar agreements in representation cases under Section 9(c) of the Act, except that no provision is made for runoff elections.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 74477, Dec. 15, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.29" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.29   Procedure respecting election conducted without hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If the regional director determines that the case is an appropriate one for election without formal hearing, an election is conducted as quickly as possible among the employees and upon the conclusion of the election the regional director makes available to the parties a tally of ballots. The parties, however, have an opportunity to make appropriate challenges and objections to the conduct of the election and they have the same rights, and the same procedure is followed, with respect to objections to the conduct of the election and challenged ballots, as is described in subpart C of 29 CFR part 102 and the statement of the general course in connection with the postelection procedures in representation cases under Section 9(c) of the Act, except that no provision is made for a runoff election. If no such objections are filed within 7 days and if the challenged ballots are insufficient in number to affect the results of the election, the regional director issues to the parties a certification of the results of the election, with the same force and effect as if issued by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 74477, Dec. 15, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.30" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.30   Formal hearing and procedure respecting election conducted after hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures are the same as those described in subpart C of 29 CFR part 102 and the statement of the general course respecting representation cases arising under Section 9(c) of the Act insofar as applicable. If the preliminary investigation indicates that there are substantial issues which require determination before an appropriate election may be held, the regional director will institute formal proceedings by issuance of a notice of hearing on the issues which, after hearing, is followed by regional director decision and direction of election or dismissal. The notice of hearing together with a copy of the petition is served on the petitioner, the employer, and any other known persons or labor organizations claiming to have been designated by employees involved in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing, usually open to the public, is held before a hearing officer who normally is an attorney or field examiner attached to the Regional Office but may be another qualified Agency official. The hearing, which is nonadversary in character, is part of the investigation in which the primary interest of the Board's agents is to insure that the record contains as full a statement of the pertinent facts as may be necessary for determination of the case. The parties are afforded full opportunity to present their respective positions and to produce the significant facts in support of their contentions that are relevant to the issue of whether the Board should conduct an election to determine whether the employees in a bargaining unit covered by an agreement between their employer and a labor organization made pursuant to section 8(a)(3) of the Act, desire that such authority be rescinded. In most cases a substantial number of the relevant facts are undisputed and stipulated. The parties are permitted to argue orally on the record before the hearing officer.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the close of the hearing, the entire record in the case is then forwarded to the regional director, together with an informal analysis by the hearing officer of the issues and the evidence but without recommendations. Post-hearing briefs are filed only upon special permission of the regional director and within the time and addressing the subjects permitted by the regional director.
</P>
<P>(d) The parties have the same rights, and the same procedure is followed, with respect to objections to the conduct of the election and challenged ballots as is described in connection with the postelection procedures in representation cases under Section 9(c) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 74477, Dec. 15, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Jurisdictional Dispute Cases Under Section 10(k) of the Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.31" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.31   Initiation of proceedings to hear and determine jurisdictional disputes under section 10(k).</HEAD>
<P>The investigation of a jurisdictional dispute under section 10(k) is initiated by the filing of a charge, as described in § 101.2, by any person alleging a violation of paragraph (4)(D) of section 8(b). As soon as possible after a charge has been filed, the Regional Director serves on the parties a copy of the charge together with a notice of the filing of such charge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.32" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.32   Investigation of charges; withdrawal of charges; dismissal of charges and appeals to Board.</HEAD>
<P>These matters are handled as described in §§ 101.4 to 101.7, inclusive. Cases involving violation of paragraph (4)(D) of section 8(b) in which it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief of a district court pursuant to section 10(1) of the Act are given priority over all other cases in the office except other cases under section 10(1) of the Act and cases of like character.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.33" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.33   Initiation of formal action; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>If, after investigation, it appears that the Board should determine the dispute under section 10(k) of the Act, the Regional Director issues a notice of hearing which includes a simple statement of issues involved in the jurisdictional dispute and which is served on all parties to the dispute out of which the unfair labor practice is alleged to have arisen. The hearing is scheduled for not less than 10 days after service of the notice of the filing of the charge, except that in cases involving the national defense, agreement will be sought for scheduling of hearing on less notice. If the parties present to the Regional Director satisfactory evidence that they have adjusted the dispute, the Regional Director withdraws the notice of hearing and either permits the withdrawal of the charge or dismisses the charge. If the parties submit to the Regional Director satisfactory evidence that they have agreed upon methods for the voluntary adjustment of the dispute, the Regional Director shall defer action upon the charge and shall withdraw the notice of hearing if issued. The parties may agree on an arbitrator, a proceeding under section 9(c) of the Act, or any other satisfactory method to resolve the dispute. If the agreed-upon method for voluntary adjustment results in a determination that employees represented by a charged union are entitled to perform the work in dispute, the Regional Director dismisses the charge against that union irrespective of whether the employer complies with that determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.34" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.34   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If the parties have not adjusted the dispute or agreed upon methods of voluntary adjustment, a hearing, usually open to the public, is held before a hearing officer. The hearing is nonadversary in character, and the primary interest of the hearing officer is to insure that the record contains as full a statement of the pertinent facts as may be necessary for a determination of the issues by the Board. All parties are afforded full opportunity to present their respective positions and to produce evidence in support of their contentions. The parties are permitted to argue orally on the record before the hearing officer. At the close of the hearing, the case is transmitted to the Board for decision. The hearing officer prepares an analysis of the issues and the evidence, but makes no recommendations in regard to resolution of the dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.35" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.35   Procedure before the Board.</HEAD>
<P>The parties have 7 days after the close of the hearing, subject to any extension that may have been granted, to file briefs with the Board and to request oral argument which the Board may or may not grant. However, in cases involving the national defense and so designated in the notice of hearing, the parties may not file briefs but after the close of the evidence may argue orally upon the record their respective contentions and positions, except that for good cause shown in an application expeditiously made to the Board in Washington, DC, after the close of the hearing, the Board may grant leave to file briefs in such time as it shall specify. The Board then considers the evidence taken at the hearing and the hearing officer's analysis together with any briefs that may be filed and the oral argument, if any, and issues its determination or makes other disposition of the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.36" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.36   Compliance with determination; further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>After the issuance of determination by the Board, the Regional Director in the Region in which the proceeding arose communicates with the parties for the purpose of ascertaining their intentions in regard to compliance. Conferences may be held for the purpose of working out details. If satisfied that the parties are complying with the determination, the Regional Director dismisses the charge. If not satisfied that the parties are complying, the Regional Director issues a complaint and notice of hearing, charging violation of section 8(b)(4)(D) of the Act, and the proceeding follows the procedure outlined in §§ 101.8 to 101.15, inclusive. However, if the Board determines that employees represented by a charged union are entitled to perform the work in dispute, the Regional Director dismisses the charge against that union irrespective of whether the employer complies with the determination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Procedure Under Section 10 (j) and (l) of the Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.37" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.37   Application for temporary relief or restraining orders.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever it is deemed advisable to seek temporary injunctive relief under section 10(j) or whenever it is determined that a complaint should issue alleging violation of section 8(b)(4) (A), (B), or (C), or section 8(e), or section 8(b)(7), or whenever it is appropriate to seek temporary injunctive relief for a violation of section 8(b)(4)(D), the officer or regional attorney to whom the matter has been referred will make application for appropriate temporary relief or restraining order in the district court of the United States within which the unfair labor practice is alleged to have occurred or within which the party sought to be enjoined resides or transacts business, except that such officer or regional attorney will not apply for injunctive relief under section 10(l) with respect to an alleged violation of section 8(b)(7) if a charge under section 8(a)(2) has been filed and, after preliminary investigation, there is reasonable cause to believe that such charge is true and a complaint should issue.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.38" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.38   Change of circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a temporary injunction has been obtained pursuant to section 10(j) and thereafter the administrative law judge hearing the complaint, upon which the determination to seek such injunction was predicated, recommends dismissal of such complaint, in whole or in part, the officer or regional attorney handling the case for the Board suggests to the district court which issued the temporary injunction the possible change in circumstances arising out of the findings and recommendations of the administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Advisory Opinions and Declaratory Orders Regarding Board Jurisdiction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.39" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.39   Initiation of advisory opinion case.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The question of whether the Board will assert jurisdiction over a labor dispute which is the subject of a proceeding in an agency or court of a State or territory is initiated by the filing of a petition with the Board. This petition may be filed only if:
</P>
<P>(1) A proceeding is currently pending before such agency or court;
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner is the agency or court itself; and
</P>
<P>(3) The relevant facts are undisputed or the agency or court has already made the relevant factual findings.
</P>
<P>(b) The petition must be in writing and signed. It is filed with the Executive Secretary of the Board in Washington, DC. No particular form is required, but the petition must be properly captioned and must contain the allegations required by section 102.99 of the Board's Rules and Regulations. None of the information sought may relate to the merits of the dispute. The petition may be withdrawn at any time before the Board issues its advisory opinion determining whether it would or would not assert jurisdiction on the basis of the facts before it.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65182, Dec. 11, 1996; 62 FR 52381, Oct. 7, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.40" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.40   Proceedings following the filing of the petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A copy of the petition is served on all other parties and the appropriate Regional Director by the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) Interested persons may request intervention by a written motion to the Board. Such intervention may be granted at the discretion of the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) Parties other than the petitioner may reply to the petition in writing, admitting or denying any or all of the matters asserted therein.
</P>
<P>(d) No briefs shall be filed except upon special permission of the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) After review of the entire record, the Board issues an advisory opinion as to whether the facts presented would or would not cause it to assert jurisdiction over the case if the case had been originally filed before it. The Board will limit its advisory opinion to the jurisdictional issue confronting it, and will not presume to render an opinion on the merits of the case or on the question of whether the subject matter of the dispute is governed by the Labor Management Relations Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.41" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.41   Informal procedures for obtaining opinions on jurisdictional questions.</HEAD>
<P>Although a formal petition is necessary to obtain an advisory opinion from the Board, other avenues are available to persons seeking informal and, in most cases, speedy opinions on jurisdictional issues. In discussion of jurisdictional questions informally with Regional Office personnel, information and advice concerning the Board's jurisdictional standards may be obtained. Such practices are not intended to be discouraged by the rules providing for formal advisory opinions by the Board, although the opinions expressed by such personnel are not to be regarded as binding upon the Board or the General Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.42" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.42   Procedures for obtaining declaratory orders of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When both an unfair labor practice charge and a representation petition are pending concurrently in a Regional Office, appeals from a Regional Director's dismissals thereof do not follow the same course. Appeal from the dismissal of a charge must be made to the General Counsel, while appeal from dismissal of a representation petition may be made to the Board. To obtain uniformity in disposing of such cases on jurisdictional grounds at the same stage of each proceeding, the General Counsel may file a petition for a declaratory order of the Board. Such order is intended only to remove uncertainty with respect to the question of whether the Board would assert jurisdiction over the labor dispute.
</P>
<P>(b) A petition to obtain a declaratory Board order may be filed only by the General Counsel. It must be in writing and signed. It is filed with the Executive Secretary of the Board in Washington, DC. No particular form is required, but the petition must be properly captioned and must contain the allegations required by § 102.106 of the Board's Rules and Regulations. None of the information sought relates to the merits of the dispute. The petition may be withdrawn any time before the Board issues its declaratory order deciding whether it would or would not assert jurisdiction over the cases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.43" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.2.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.43   Proceedings following the filing of the petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A copy of the petition is served on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Interested persons may request intervention by a written motion to the Board. Such intervention may be granted at the discretion of the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) All other parties may reply to the petition in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) Briefs may be filed.
</P>
<P>(e) After review of the record, the Board issues a declaratory order as to whether it will assert jurisdiction over the cases, but it will not render a decision on the merits at this stage of the cases.
</P>
<P>(f) The declaratory Board order will be binding on the parties in both cases.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="102" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 102—RULES AND REGULATIONS, SERIES 8
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 151, 156. Section 102.117 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A), and § 102.119 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) and (k). Sections 102.143 through 102.155 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(1).






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.1" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.1   Terms defined in Section 2 of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of terms.</I> The terms <I>person, employer, employee, representative, labor organization, commerce, affecting commerce,</I> and <I>unfair labor practice</I> as used herein have the meanings set forth in Section 2 of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended by title I of the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act, Board, and Board agent.</I> The term <I>Act</I> means the National Labor Relations Act, as amended. The term <I>Board</I> means the National Labor Relations Board and must include any group of three or more Members designated pursuant to Section 3(b) of the Act. The term <I>Board agent</I> means any Member, agent, or agency of the Board, including its General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General Counsel.</I> The term <I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel under Section 3(d) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Region and Subregion.</I> The term <I>Region</I> means that part of the United States or any territory thereof fixed by the Board as a particular Region. The term <I>Subregion</I> means that area within a Region fixed by the Board as a particular <I>Subregion.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regional Director, Officer-in-Charge, and Regional Attorney.</I> The term <I>Regional Director</I> means the agent designated by the Board as the Regional Director for a particular Region, and also includes any agent designated by the Board as Officer-in-Charge of a Subregional office, but the Officer-in-Charge must have only such powers, duties, and functions appertaining to Regional Directors as have been duly delegated to such Officer-in-Charge. The term <I>Regional Attorney</I> means the attorney designated as Regional Attorney for a particular Region.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administrative Law Judge and Hearing Officer.</I> The term <I>Administrative Law Judge</I> means the agent of the Board conducting the hearing in an unfair labor practice proceeding. The term <I>Hearing Officer</I> means the agent of the Board conducting the hearing in a proceeding under Section 9 or in a dispute proceeding under Section 10(k) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>State.</I> The term <I>State</I> includes the District of Columbia and all States, territories, and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Party.</I> The term <I>party</I> means the Regional Director in whose Region the proceeding is pending and any person named or admitted as a party, or properly seeking and entitled as of right to be admitted as a party, in any Board proceeding, including, without limitation, any person filing a charge or petition under the Act, any person named as Respondent, as employer, or as party to a contract in any proceeding under the Act, and any labor organization alleged to be dominated, assisted, or supported in violation of Section 8(a)(1) or 8(a)(2) of the Act; but nothing herein should be construed to prevent the Board or its designated agent from limiting any party to participate in the proceedings to the extent of the party's interest only.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Business day.</I> The term <I>business day</I> means days that Agency offices are open normal business operating hours, which is Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays. A list of Federal holidays can be found at <I>www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/snow-dismissal-procedures/federal-holidays/.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11751, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 69588, Dec. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Service and Filings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11751, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.2" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.2   Time requirements for filings with the Agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Time computation. In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by these Rules, the day of the act, event, or default after which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included, unless it does not fall on a business day, in which event the period runs until the next Agency business day. When the period of time prescribed or allowed is less than 7 days, only business days are included in the computation. Except as otherwise provided, in computing the period of time for filing a responsive document, the designated period begins to run on the date the preceding document was required to be received by the Agency, even if the preceding document was filed prior to that date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timeliness of filings.</I> If there is a time limit for the filing of a motion, brief, exception, request for extension of time, or other paper in any proceeding, such document must be received by the Board or the officer or agent designated to receive such matter on or before the last day of the time limit for such filing or the last day of any extension of time that may have been granted. Non E-Filed documents must be received before the official closing time of the receiving office (see <I>www.nlrb.gov</I> setting forth the official business hours of the Agency's several offices). E-Filed documents must be received by 11:59 p.m. of the time zone of the receiving office. In construing this section of the Rules, the Board will accept as timely filed any document which is postmarked on the day before (or earlier than) the due date; documents which are postmarked on or after the due date are untimely. “Postmarking” must include timely depositing the document with a delivery service that will provide a record showing that the document was given to the delivery service in sufficient time for delivery by the due date, but in no event later than the day before the due date. However, the following documents must be received on or before the last day for filing:
</P>
<P>(1) Charges filed pursuant to Section 10(b) of the Act (see also § 102.14).
</P>
<P>(2) Applications for awards and fees and other expenses under the Equal Access to Justice Act.
</P>
<P>(3) Petitions to revoke subpoenas.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for extensions of time to file any document for which such an extension may be granted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extension of time to file.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a request for an extension of time to file a document must be filed no later than the date on which the document is due. Requests for extensions of time filed within 3 days of the due date must be grounded upon circumstances not reasonably foreseeable in advance. Requests for extension of time must be in writing and must be served simultaneously on the other parties. Parties are encouraged to seek agreement from the other parties for the extension, and to indicate the other parties' position in the extension of time request. An opposition to a request for an extension of time should be filed as soon as possible following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Late-filed documents.</I> (1) The following documents may be filed within a reasonable time after the time prescribed by these Rules only upon good cause shown based on excusable neglect and when no undue prejudice would result:
</P>
<P>(i) In unfair labor practice proceedings, motions, exceptions, answers to a complaint or a backpay specification, and briefs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In representation proceedings, exceptions, requests for review, motions, briefs, and any responses to any of these documents.
</P>
<P>(2) A party seeking to file such documents beyond the time prescribed by these Rules must file, along with the document, a motion that states the grounds relied on for requesting permission to file untimely. The specific facts relied on to support the motion must be set forth in affidavit form and sworn to by individuals with personal knowledge of the facts. The time for filing any document responding to the untimely document will not commence until the date a ruling issues accepting the untimely document. In addition, cross-exceptions are due within 14 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, from the date a ruling issues accepting the untimely filed documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11751, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 69588, Dec. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.3" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.3   Date of service.</HEAD>
<P>Where service is made by mail, private delivery service, or email, the date of service is the day when the document served is deposited in the United States mail, is deposited with a private delivery service that will provide a record showing the date the document was tendered to the delivery service, or is sent by email, as the case may be. Where service is made by personal delivery or facsimile, the date of service will be the date on which the document is received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.4" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.4   Methods of service of process and papers by the Agency; proof of service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of service for certain Agency-issued documents.</I> Complaints and compliance specifications (including accompanying notices of hearing, and amendments to either complaints or to compliance specifications), final orders of the Board in unfair labor practice cases and Administrative Law Judges' decisions must be served upon all parties personally, by registered or certified mail, by leaving a copy at the principal office or place of business of the person required to be served, by email as appropriate, or by any other method of service authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service of subpoenas.</I> Subpoenas must be served upon the recipient personally, by registered or certified mail, by leaving a copy at the principal office or place of business of the person required to be served, by private delivery service, or by any other method of service authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service of other Agency-issued documents.</I> Other documents may be served by the Agency by any of the foregoing methods as well as by regular mail, private delivery service, facsimile, or email.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Proof of service.</I> In the case of personal service, or delivery to a principal office or place of business, the verified return by the serving individual, setting forth the manner of such service, is proof of service. In the case of service by registered or certified mail, the return post office receipt is proof of service. However, these methods of proof of service are not exclusive; any sufficient proof may be relied upon to establish service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Service upon representatives of parties.</I> Whenever these Rules require or permit the service of pleadings or other papers upon a party, a copy must be served on any attorney or other representative of the party who has entered a written appearance in the proceeding on behalf of the party. If a party is represented by more than one attorney or representative, service upon any one of such persons in addition to the party satisfies this requirement. Service by the Board or its agents of any documents upon any such attorney or other representative may be accomplished by any means of service permitted by these Rules, including regular mail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.5" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.5   Filing and service of papers by parties: Form of papers; manner and proof of filing or service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of papers to be filed.</I> All papers filed with the Board, General Counsel, Regional Director, Administrative Law Judge, or Hearing Officer must be typewritten or otherwise legibly duplicated on 8
<FR>1/2</FR> by 11-inch plain white paper, and must have margins no less than one inch on all four sides. Page numbers may be placed in the margins, but no text may appear there. Typeface that is single-spaced must not contain more than 10.5 characters per inch, and proportionally-spaced typeface must be 12 point or larger, for both text and footnotes. Condensed text is not permitted. The text must be double-spaced, but headings and footnotes may be single-spaced, and quotations more than two lines long may be indented and single-spaced. Case names must be italicized or underlined. Where any brief filed with the Board exceeds 20 pages, it must contain a subject index with page references and an alphabetical table of cases and other authorities cited.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests to exceed the page limits.</I> Requests for permission to exceed the page limits for documents filed with the Board must state the reasons for the requests. Unless otherwise specified, such requests must be filed not less than 10 days prior to the date the document is due.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>E-Filing with the Agency.</I> Unless otherwise permitted under this section, all documents filed in cases before the Agency must be filed electronically (“E-Filed”) on the Agency's Web site (<I>www.nlrb.gov</I>) by following the instructions on the Web site. The Agency's Web site also contains certain forms that parties or other persons may use to prepare their documents for E-Filing. If the document being E-Filed is required to be served on another party to a proceeding, the other party must be served by email, if possible, or in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. Unfair labor practice charges, petitions in representation proceedings, and showings of interest may be filed in paper format or E-Filed. A party who files other documents in paper format must accompany the filing with a statement explaining why the party does not have access to the means for filing electronically or why filing electronically would impose an undue burden. Notwithstanding any other provision in these Rules, if a document is filed electronically the filer need not also file a hard copy of the document, and only one copy of a document filed in hard copy should be filed. Documents may not be filed with the Agency via email without the prior approval of the receiving office.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing with the Agency by Mail or Delivery.</I> Documents to be filed with the Board are to be filed with the Office of the Executive Secretary in Washington, DC. Documents to be filed with the Regional Offices are to be filed with the Regional Office handling the case. Documents to be filed with the Division of Judges are to be filed with the Division office handling the matter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing by fax with the Agency.</I> Only unfair labor practice charges, petitions in representation proceedings, objections to elections, and requests for extensions of time for filing documents will be accepted by the Agency if faxed to the appropriate office. Other documents may not be faxed. At the discretion of the receiving office, the person submitting a document by fax may be required simultaneously to file the original with the office by overnight delivery service. When filing a charge, a petition in a representation proceeding, or election objections by fax pursuant to this section, receipt of the faxed document by the Agency constitutes filing with the Agency. A failure to timely file or serve a document will not be excused on the basis of a claim that facsimile transmission could not be accomplished because the receiving machine was off-line or busy or unavailable for any other reason.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Service.</I> Unless otherwise specified, documents filed with the Agency must be simultaneously served on the other parties to the case including, as appropriate, the Regional Office in charge of the case. Service of documents by a party on other parties may be made personally, or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, email (unless otherwise provided for by these Rules), private delivery service, or by fax for documents of or under 25 pages in length. Service of documents by a party on other parties by any other means, including by fax for documents over 25 pages in length, is permitted only with the consent of the party being served. When a party does not have the ability to receive service by email or fax, or chooses not to accept service of a document longer than 25 pages by fax, the other party must be notified personally or by telephone of the substance of the filed document and a copy of the document must be served by personal service no later than the next day, by overnight delivery service, or by fax or email as appropriate. Unless otherwise specified elsewhere in these Rules, service on all parties must be made in the same manner as that used in filing the document with the Board, or in a more expeditious manner. When filing with the Board is done by hand, however, the other parties must be immediately notified of such action, followed by service of a copy in a manner designed to insure receipt by them by the close of the next business day. The provisions of this section apply to the General Counsel after a complaint has issued, just as they do to any other party, except to the extent that the provisions of § 102.4(a) provide otherwise.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Proof of service.</I> When service is made by registered or certified mail, the return post office receipt will be proof of service. When service is made by a private delivery service, the receipt from that service showing delivery will be proof of service. However, these methods of proof of service are not exclusive; any sufficient proof may be relied upon to establish service.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Statement of service.</I> The person or party filing a document with the Agency must simultaneously file a statement of service. Such statement must include the names of the parties served, the date and manner of service, and the location of service such as mailing address, fax number, or email address as appropriate. The Agency requires proof of service as defined in paragraph (g) of this section only if, subsequent to the receipt of the statement of service, a question is raised with respect to proper service. Failure to make proof of service does not affect the validity of the service.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Failure to properly serve.</I> Failure to comply with the requirements of this section relating to timeliness of service on other parties will be a basis for either:
</P>
<P>(1) Rejecting the document; or
</P>
<P>(2) Withholding or reconsidering any ruling on the subject matter raised by the document until after service has been made and the served party has had reasonable opportunity to respond.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.6" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.6   Notice to the Administrative Law Judge or Board of supplemental authority.</HEAD>
<P>Pertinent and significant authorities that come to a party's attention after the party's submission to the Administrative Law Judge or the Board has been filed may be brought to the Judge's or the Board's attention by the party promptly filing a letter with the judge or the Board and simultaneously serving all other parties. The body of the letter may not exceed 350 words. A party may file and serve on all other parties a response that is similarly limited. In unfair labor practice cases, the response must be filed no later than 14 days after service of the letter. In representation cases, the response must be filed no later than 7 days after service of the letter. No extension of time will be granted to file the response.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.7" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.7   Signature on documents E-Filed with the Agency.</HEAD>
<P>Documents filed with the Agency by E-Filing may contain an electronic signature of the filer which will have the same legal effect, validity, and enforceability as if signed manually. The term “electronic signature” means an electronic sound, symbol, or process, attached to or logically associated with a contract or other record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.8" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.8   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedure Under Section 10(A) to (I) of the Act for the Prevention of Unfair Labor Practices</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.9" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.9   Who may file; withdrawal and dismissal.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may file a charge alleging that any person has engaged in or is engaging in any unfair labor practice affecting commerce. The charge may be withdrawn, prior to the hearing, only with the consent of the Regional Director with whom such charge was filed; at the hearing and until the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, upon motion, with the consent of the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing; and after the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, upon motion, with the consent of the Board. Upon withdrawal of any charge, any complaint based thereon will be dismissed by the Regional Director issuing the complaint, the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing, or the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.10" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.10   Where to file.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 102.33, a charge must be filed with the Regional Director for the Region in which the alleged unfair labor practice has occurred or is occurring. A charge alleging that an unfair labor practice has occurred or is occurring in two or more Regions may be filed with the Regional Director for any of those Regions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.11" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.11   Signature; sworn; declaration.</HEAD>
<P>Charges must be in writing and signed, and either must be sworn to before a notary public, Board agent, or other person duly authorized by law to administer oaths and take acknowledgments or must contain a declaration by the person signing it, under the penalty of perjury that its contents are true and correct (see 28 U.S.C. 1746).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.12" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.12   Contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A charge must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The full name and address of the person making the charge.
</P>
<P>(2) If the charge is filed by a labor organization, the full name and address of any national or international labor organization of which it is an affiliate or constituent unit.
</P>
<P>(3) The full name and address of the person against whom the charge is made (referred to as the Charged Party).
</P>
<P>(4) A brief statement of the conduct constituting the alleged unfair labor practices affecting commerce.
</P>
<P>(b) Attachments to charges are not permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.13" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.14" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.14   Service of charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Charging Party's obligation to serve; methods of service.</I> Upon the filing of a charge, the Charging Party is responsible for the timely and proper service of a copy upon the person against whom such charge is made. Service may be made personally, or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, private delivery service, or facsimile. With the permission of the person receiving the charge, service may be made by email or by any other agreed-upon method.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service as courtesy by Regional Director.</I> The Regional Director will, as a matter of courtesy, serve a copy of the charge on the charged party in person, or send it to the charged party by regular mail, private delivery service, email or facsimile transmission, in any manner provided for in Rules 4 or 5 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, or in any other agreed-upon method. The Region will not be responsible for such service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date of service of charge.</I> In the case of service of a charge by mail or private delivery service, the date of service is the date of deposit with the post office or other carrier. In the case of delivery by email, the date of service is the date the email is sent. In the case of service by other methods, including hand delivery or facsimile transmission, the date of service is the date of receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.15" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.15   When and by whom issued; contents; service.</HEAD>
<P>After a charge has been filed, if it appears to the Regional Director that formal proceedings may be instituted, the Director will issue and serve on all parties a formal complaint in the Board's name stating the alleged unfair labor practices and containing a Notice of Hearing before an Administrative Law Judge at a fixed place and at a time not less than 14 days after the service of the complaint. The complaint will contain:
</P>
<P>(a) A clear and concise statement of the facts upon which the Board asserts jurisdiction, and
</P>
<P>(b) A clear and concise description of the acts which are claimed to constitute unfair labor practices, including, where known, the approximate dates and places of such acts and the names of Respondent's agents or other representatives who committed the acts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.16" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.16   Hearing; change of date or place.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the Regional Director's own motion or upon proper cause shown by any other party, the Regional Director issuing the complaint may extend the hearing date or change the hearing place, except that the Regional Director's authority to extend the hearing date is limited to the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all parties agree or no party objects to extension of the hearing date;
</P>
<P>(2) Where a new charge or charges have been filed which, if meritorious, might be appropriate for consolidation with the pending complaint;
</P>
<P>(3) Where negotiations which could lead to settlement of all or a portion of the complaint are in progress;
</P>
<P>(4) Where issues related to the complaint are pending before the General Counsel's Division of Advice or Office of Appeals; or
</P>
<P>(5) Where more than 21 days remain before the scheduled hearing date.
</P>
<P>(b) In circumstances other than those set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, motions to reschedule the hearing may be filed with the Division of Judges in accordance with § 102.24(a). When a motion to reschedule has been granted, the Regional Director issuing the complaint retains the authority to order a new hearing date and the responsibility to make the necessary arrangements for conducting the hearing, including its location and the transcription of the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.17" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.17   Amendment.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint may be amended upon such terms as may be deemed just, prior to the hearing, by the Regional Director issuing the complaint; at the hearing and until the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, upon motion, by the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing; and after the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, at any time prior to the issuance of an order based thereon, upon motion, by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.18" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.18   Withdrawal.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint may be withdrawn before the hearing by the Regional Director on the Director's own motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.19" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.19   Appeal to the General Counsel from refusal to issue or reissue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after the charge has been filed, the Regional Director declines to issue a complaint or, having withdrawn a complaint pursuant to § 102.18, refuses to reissue it, the Director will so advise the parties in writing, accompanied by a simple statement of the procedural or other grounds for that action. The Charging Party may obtain a review of such action by filing the “Appeal Form” with the General Counsel in Washington, DC, and filing a copy of the “Appeal Form” with the Regional Director, within 14 days from the service of the notice of such refusal to issue or reissue by the Regional Director, except where a shorter period is provided by § 102.81. The Charging Party may also file a statement setting forth the facts and reasons upon which the appeal is based. If such a statement is timely filed, the separate “Appeal Form” need not be served. A request for extension of time to file an appeal must be in writing and be received by the General Counsel, and a copy of such request filed with the Regional Director, prior to the expiration of the filing period. Copies of the acknowledgment of the filing of an appeal and of any ruling on a request for an extension of time for filing of the appeal must be served on all parties. Consideration of an appeal untimely filed is within the discretion of the General Counsel upon good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(b) Oral presentation in Washington, DC, of the appeal issues may be permitted by a party on written request made within 4 days after service of acknowledgement of the filing of an appeal. In the event such request is granted, the other parties must be notified and afforded, without additional request, a like opportunity at another appropriate time.
</P>
<P>(c) The General Counsel may sustain the Regional Director's refusal to issue or reissue a complaint, stating the grounds of the affirmance, or may direct the Regional Director to take further action; the General Counsel's decision must be served on all the parties. A motion for reconsideration of the decision must be filed within 14 days of service of the decision, except as hereinafter provided, and must state with particularity the error requiring reconsideration. A motion for reconsideration based upon newly discovered evidence which has become available only since the decision on appeal must be filed promptly on discovery of such evidence. Motions for reconsideration of a decision previously reconsidered will not be entertained, except in unusual situations where the moving party can establish that new evidence has been discovered which could not have been discovered by diligent inquiry prior to the first reconsideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.20" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.20   Answer to complaint; time for filing; contents; allegations not denied deemed admitted.</HEAD>
<P>The Respondent must, within 14 days from the service of the complaint, file an answer. The Respondent must specifically admit, deny, or explain each of the facts alleged in the complaint, unless the Respondent is without knowledge, in which case the Respondent must so state, such statement operating as a denial. All allegations in the complaint, if no answer is filed, or any allegation in the complaint not specifically denied or explained in an answer filed, unless the Respondent states in the answer that the Respondent is without knowledge, will be deemed to be admitted to be true and will be so found by the Board, unless good cause to the contrary is shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.21" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.21   Where to file; service upon the parties; form.</HEAD>
<P>An original and four copies of the answer shall be filed with the Regional Director issuing the complaint. Immediately upon the filing of the answer, Respondent shall serve a copy thereof on the other parties. An answer of a party represented by counsel or non-attorney representative shall be signed by at least one such attorney or non-attorney representative of record in his/her individual name, whose address shall be stated. A party who is not represented by an attorney or non-attorney representative shall sign his/her answer and state his/her address. Except when otherwise specifically provided by rule or statute, an answer need not be verified or accompanied by affidavit. The signature of the attorney or non-attorney party representative constitutes a certificate by him/her that he/she has read the answer; that to the best of his/her knowledge, information, and belief there is good ground to support it; and that it is not interposed for delay. If an answer is not signed or is signed with intent to defeat the purpose of this section, it may be stricken as sham and false and the action may proceed as though the answer had not been served. For a willful violation of this section an attorney or non-attorney party representative may be subjected to appropriate disciplinary action. Similar action may be taken if scandalous or indecent matter is inserted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 82 FR 43697, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.22" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.22   Extension of time for filing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the Regional Director's own motion or upon proper cause shown by any other party, the Regional Director issuing the complaint may by written order extend the time within which the answer must be filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.23" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.23   Amendment.</HEAD>
<P>The Respondent may amend its answer at any time prior to the hearing. During the hearing or subsequently, the Respondent may amend the answer in any case where the complaint has been amended, within such period as may be fixed by the Administrative Law Judge or the Board. Whether or not the complaint has been amended, the answer may, in the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge or the Board, upon motion, be amended upon such terms and within such periods as may be fixed by the Administrative Law Judge or the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.24" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.24   Motions; where to file; contents; service on other parties; promptness in filing and response; default judgment procedures; summary judgment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All motions under §§ 102.22 and 102.29 made prior to the hearing must be filed in writing with the Regional Director issuing the complaint. All motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal made prior to the hearing must be filed in writing with the Board pursuant to the provisions of § 102.50. All other motions made prior to the hearing, including motions to reschedule the hearing under circumstances other than those set forth in § 102.16(a), must be filed in writing with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, the Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be. All motions made at the hearing must be made in writing to the Administrative Law Judge or stated orally on the record. All motions filed subsequent to the hearing, but before the transfer of the case to the Board pursuant to § 102.45, must be filed with the Administrative Law Judge, care of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, the Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be. Motions must briefly state the order or relief applied for and the grounds therefor. All motions filed with a Regional Director or an Administrative Law Judge as set forth in this paragraph (a) must be filed together with an affidavit of service on the parties. All motions filed with the Board, including motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal, must be filed with the Executive Secretary of the Board in Washington, DC, together with an affidavit of service on the parties. Unless otherwise provided in this part, motions, oppositions, and replies must be filed promptly and within such time as not to delay the proceeding.


</P>
<P>(b) All motions for summary judgment or dismissal must be filed with the Board no later than 28 days prior to the scheduled hearing. Where no hearing is scheduled, or where the hearing is scheduled less than 28 days after the date for filing an answer to the complaint or compliance specification, whichever is applicable, the motion must be filed promptly. Upon receipt of the motion, the Board may deny the motion or issue a Notice to Show Cause why the motion may not be granted. If a Notice to Show Cause is issued, the hearing, if scheduled, will normally be postponed indefinitely. If a party desires to file an opposition to the motion prior to issuance of the Notice to Show Cause to prevent postponement of the hearing, it may do so. However, any such opposition must be filed no later than 21 days prior to the hearing. If a Notice to Show Cause is issued, an opposing party may file a response notwithstanding any opposition it may have filed prior to issuance of the notice. The time for filing the response must be fixed in the Notice to Show Cause. Neither the opposition nor the response must be supported by affidavits or other documentary evidence showing that there is a genuine issue for hearing. The Board in its discretion may deny the motion where the motion itself fails to establish the absence of a genuine issue, or where the opposing party's pleadings, opposition and/or response indicate on their face that a genuine issue may exist. If the opposing party files no opposition or response, the Board may treat the motion as conceded, and default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal, if appropriate, will be entered.
</P>
<P>(c) A party that has filed a motion may file a reply to an opposition to its motion within 7 days of receipt of the opposition, but in the interest of administrative finality, further responses are not permitted except where there are special circumstances warranting leave to file such a response.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 89 FR 50224, June 13, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.25" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.25   Ruling on motions.</HEAD>
<P>An Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, the Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge as the case may be, will rule on all prehearing motions (except as provided in §§ 102.16, 102.22, 102.29, and 102.50), and all such rulings and orders will be issued in writing and a copy served on each of the parties. The Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing will rule on all motions after opening of the hearing (except as provided in § 102.47), and any related orders, if announced at the hearing, will be stated orally on the record; in all other cases, the Administrative Law Judge will issue such rulings and orders in writing and must cause a copy to be served on each of the parties, or will make the ruling in the decision. Whenever the Administrative Law Judge has reserved ruling on any motion, and the proceeding is thereafter transferred to and continued before the Board pursuant to § 102.50, the Board must rule on such motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.26" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.26   Motions; rulings and orders part of the record; rulings not to be appealed directly to the Board without special permission; requests for special permission to appeal.</HEAD>
<P>All motions, rulings, and orders will become a part of the record, except that rulings on motions to revoke subpoenas will become a part of the record only upon the request of the party aggrieved thereby as provided in § 102.31. Unless expressly authorized by the Rules and Regulations, rulings by the Regional Director or by the Administrative Law Judge on motions and/or by the Administrative Law Judge on objections, and related orders, may not be appealed directly to the Board except by special permission of the Board, but will be considered by the Board in reviewing the record if exception to the ruling or order is included in the statement of exceptions filed with the Board pursuant to § 102.46. Requests to the Board for special permission to appeal from a ruling of the Regional Director or of the Administrative Law Judge, together with the appeal from such ruling, must be filed in writing promptly and within such time as not to delay the proceeding, and must briefly state the reasons special permission may be granted and the grounds relied on for the appeal. The moving party must simultaneously serve a copy of the request for special permission and of the appeal on the other parties and, if the request involves a ruling by an Administrative Law Judge, on the Administrative Law Judge. Any statement in opposition or other response to the request and/or to the appeal must be filed within 7 days of receipt of the appeal, in writing, and must be served simultaneously on the other parties and on the Administrative Law Judge, if any. If the Board grants the request for special permission to appeal, it may proceed immediately to rule on the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.27" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.27   Review of granting of motion to dismiss entire complaint; reopening of the record.</HEAD>
<P>If any motion in the nature of a motion to dismiss the complaint in its entirety is granted by the Administrative Law Judge before the filing of the Judge's decision, any party may obtain a review of such action by filing a request with the Board in Washington, DC, stating the grounds for review, and, immediately on such filing must serve a copy on the Regional Director and on the other parties. Unless such request for review is filed within 28 days from the date of the order of dismissal, the case will be closed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.28" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.28   Filing of answer or other participation in proceedings not a waiver of rights.</HEAD>
<P>The right to make motions or to make objections to rulings upon motions will not be deemed waived by the filing of an answer or by other participation in the proceedings before the Administrative Law Judge or the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.29" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.29   Intervention; requisites; rulings on motions to intervene.</HEAD>
<P>Any person desiring to intervene in any proceeding must file a motion in writing or, if made at the hearing, may move orally on the record, stating the grounds upon which such person claims an interest. Prior to the hearing, such a motion must be filed with the Regional Director issuing the complaint; during the hearing, such motion must be made to the Administrative Law Judge. Immediately upon filing a written motion, the moving party must serve a copy on the other parties. The Regional Director will rule upon all such motions filed prior to the hearing, and will serve a copy of the rulings on the other parties, or may refer the motion to the Administrative Law Judge for ruling. The Administrative Law Judge will rule upon all such motions made at the hearing or referred to the Judge by the Regional Director, in the manner set forth in § 102.25. The Regional Director or the Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, may, by order, permit intervention in person, or by counsel or other representative, to such extent and upon such terms as may be deemed proper.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.30" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.30   Depositions; examination of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>Witnesses must be examined orally under oath at a hearing, except that for good cause shown after the issuance of a complaint, testimony may be taken by deposition.
</P>
<P>(a) Applications to take depositions, including deposition testimony contemporaneously transmitted by videoconference, must be in writing and set forth the reasons why the depositions may be taken, the name, mailing address and email address (if available) of the witness, the matters concerning which it is expected the witness will testify, and the time and place proposed for taking the deposition, together with the name and mailing and email addresses of the person before whom it is desired that the deposition be taken (for the purposes of this section hereinafter referred to as the “officer”). Such application must be made to the Regional Director prior to the hearing, and to the Administrative Law Judge during and subsequent to the hearing but before transfer of the case to the Board pursuant to § 102.45 or § 102.50. Such application must be served on the Regional Director or the Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, and on all other parties, not less than 7 days (when the deposition is to be taken within the continental United States) and 15 days (if the deposition is to be taken elsewhere) prior to the time when it is desired that the deposition be taken. The Regional Director or the Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, will upon receipt of the application, if in the Regional Director's or Administrative Law Judge's discretion, good cause has been shown, make and serve on the parties an order specifying the name of the witness whose deposition is to be taken and the time, place, and designation of the officer before whom the witness is to testify, who may or may not be the same officer as that specified in the application. Such order will be served on all the other parties by the Regional Director or on all parties by the Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(b) The deposition may be taken before any officer authorized to administer oaths by the laws of the United States or of the place where the examination is held, including any Board agent authorized to administer oaths. If the examination is held in a foreign country, it may be taken before any secretary of embassy or legation, consul general, consul, vice consul, or consular agent of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) At the time and place specified in the order, the officer designated to take the deposition will permit the witness to be examined and cross-examined under oath by all the parties appearing in person or by contemporaneous transmission through videoconference, and testimony shall be transcribed by the officer or under the officer's direction. All objections to questions or evidence will be deemed waived unless made at the examination. The officer will not have power to rule upon any objections but the objections will be noted in the deposition. The testimony must be subscribed by the witness to the satisfaction of the officer who will attach a certificate stating that the witness was duly sworn by the officer, that the deposition is a true record of the testimony and exhibits given by the witness, and that the officer is not of counsel or attorney to any of the parties nor interested in the event of the proceeding or investigation. If the deposition is not signed by the witness because the witness is ill, dead, cannot be found, or refuses to sign it, such fact will be included in the certificate of the officer and the deposition may then be used as fully as though signed. The officer will immediately deliver the transcript, together with the certificate, in person, by registered or certified mail, or by E-File to the Regional Director or Division of Judges' office handling the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrative Law Judge will rule upon the admissibility of the deposition or any part of the deposition. A party may object to the admissibility of deposition testimony by videoconference on grounds that the taking of the deposition did not comply with appropriate safeguards as set forth in § 102.35(c), provided that the party opposing the admission of the deposition raised deficiencies in safeguards at the time of the deposition when corrections might have been made.
</P>
<P>(e) All errors or irregularities in compliance with the provisions of this section will be deemed waived unless a motion to suppress the deposition in whole or part is made with reasonable promptness after such defect is or, with due diligence, might have been ascertained.
</P>
<P>(f) If the parties so stipulate in writing, depositions may be taken before any person at any time or place, upon any notice and in any manner, and when so taken may be used like other depositions.
</P>
<P>(g) The official record of the deposition testimony will be the official transcript prepared by the officer designated to transcribe the deposition testimony.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 82 FR 43696, 43967, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.31" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.31   Issuance of subpoenas; petitions to revoke subpoenas; rulings on claim of privilege against self-incrimination; subpoena enforcement proceedings; right to inspect or copy data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board or any Board Member will, on the written application of any party, issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of any evidence, including books, records, correspondence, electronic data, or documents, in their possession or under their control. The Executive Secretary has the authority to sign and issue any such subpoenas on behalf of the Board or any Board Member. Applications for subpoenas, if filed before the hearing opens, must be filed with the Regional Director. Applications for subpoenas filed during the hearing must be filed with the Administrative Law Judge. Either the Regional Director or the Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, will grant the application on behalf of the Board or any Member. Applications for subpoenas may be made <I>ex parte.</I> The subpoena must show on its face the name and address of the party at whose request the subpoena was issued.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person served with a subpoena, whether <I>ad testificandum</I> or <I>duces tecum,</I> if that person does not intend to comply with the subpoena, must, within 5 business days after the date of service of the subpoena, petition in writing to revoke the subpoena. The date of service for purposes of computing the time for filing a petition to revoke is the date the subpoena is received. All petitions to revoke subpoenas must be served on the party at whose request the subpoena was issued. A petition to revoke, if made prior to the hearing, must be filed with the Regional Director and the Regional Director will refer the petition to the Administrative Law Judge or the Board for ruling. Petitions to revoke subpoenas filed during the hearing must be filed with the Administrative Law Judge. Petitions to revoke subpoenas filed in response to a subpoena issued upon request of the Agency's Contempt, Compliance, and Special Litigation Branch must be filed with that Branch, which will refer the petition to the Board for ruling. Notice of the filing of petitions to revoke will be promptly given by the Regional Director, the Administrative Law Judge, or the Contempt, Compliance and Special Litigation Branch, as the case may be, to the party at whose request the subpoena was issued. The Administrative Law Judge or the Board, as the case may be, will revoke the subpoena if in their opinion the evidence whose production is required does not relate to any matter under investigation or in question in the proceedings or the subpoena does not describe with sufficient particularity the evidence whose production is required, or if for any other reason sufficient in law the subpoena is otherwise invalid. The Administrative Law Judge or the Board, as the case may be, will make a simple statement of procedural or other grounds for the ruling on the petition to revoke. The petition to revoke any opposition to the petition, response to the opposition, and ruling on the petition will not become part of the official record except upon the request of the party aggrieved by the ruling, at an appropriate time in a formal proceeding rather than at the investigative stage of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon refusal of a witness to testify, the Board may, with the approval of the Attorney General of the United States, issue an order requiring any individual to give testimony or provide other information at any proceeding before the Board if, in the judgment of the Board:
</P>
<P>(1) The testimony or other information from such individual may be necessary to the public interest; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such individual has refused or is likely to refuse to testify or provide other information on the basis of the privilege against self-incrimination. Requests for the issuance of such an order by the Board may be made by any party. Prior to hearing, and after transfer of the proceeding to the Board, such requests must be made to the Board in Washington, DC, and the Board will take such action thereon as it deems appropriate. During the hearing, and thereafter while the proceeding is pending before the Administrative Law Judge, such requests must be made to the Administrative Law Judge. If the Administrative Law Judge denies the request, the ruling will be subject to appeal to the Board, in Washington, DC, in the manner and to the extent provided in § 102.26 with respect to rulings and orders by an Administrative Law Judge, except that requests for permission to appeal in this instance must be filed within 24 hours of the Administrative Law Judge's ruling. If no appeal is sought within such time, or if the appeal is denied, the ruling of the Administrative Law Judge becomes final and the denial becomes the ruling of the Board. If the Administrative Law Judge deems the request appropriate, the Judge will recommend that the Board seek the approval of the Attorney General for the issuance of the order, and the Board will take such action on the Administrative Law Judge's recommendation as it deems appropriate. Until the Board has issued the requested order, no individual who claims the privilege against self-incrimination will be required or permitted to testify or to give other information respecting the subject matter of the claim.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued upon the request of a private party, the General Counsel will, in the name of the Board but on relation of such private party, institute enforcement proceedings in the appropriate district court, unless in the judgment of the Board the enforcement of the subpoena would be inconsistent with law and with the policies of the Act. Neither the General Counsel nor the Board will be deemed thereby to have assumed responsibility for the effective prosecution of the same before the court.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons compelled to submit data or evidence at a public proceeding are entitled to retain or, on payment of lawfully prescribed costs, to procure copies or transcripts of the data or evidence submitted by them. Persons compelled to submit data or evidence in the nonpublic investigative stages of proceedings may, for good cause, be limited by the Regional Director to inspection of the official transcript of their testimony, but must be entitled to make copies of documentary evidence or exhibits which they have produced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.32" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.32   Payment of witness fees and mileage; fees of officer who transcribes deposition or video testimony.</HEAD>
<P>Witnesses summoned before the Administrative Law Judge must be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the courts of the United States, and witnesses whose depositions are taken or who testify by videoconference and the officer who transcribes the testimony shall severally be entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in the courts of the United States, and those fees shall be paid by the party at whose instance the deposition is taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 43696, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.33" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.33   Transfer of charge and proceeding from Region to Region; consolidation of proceedings in same Region; severance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the General Counsel deems it necessary to effectuate the purposes of the Act or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, a charge may be filed with the General Counsel in Washington, DC, or, at any time after a charge has been filed with a Regional Director, the General Counsel may order that such charge and any proceeding regarding the charge be:
</P>
<P>(1) Transferred to and continued before the General Counsel for investigation or consolidation with any other proceeding which may have been instituted in a Regional Office or with the General Counsel; or
</P>
<P>(2) Consolidated with any other proceeding which may have been instituted in the same region; or
</P>
<P>(3) Transferred to and continued in any other Region for the purpose of investigation or consolidation with any proceeding which may have been instituted in or transferred to such other region; or
</P>
<P>(4) Severed from any other proceeding with which it may have been consolidated pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of §§ 102.9 through 102.32 will, insofar as applicable, govern proceedings before the General Counsel, pursuant to this section, and the powers granted to Regional Directors in such provisions will, for the purpose of this section, be reserved to and exercised by the General Counsel. After the transfer of any charge and any proceeding which may have been instituted with respect thereto from one Region to another pursuant to this section, the provisions of this subpart will, insofar as possible, govern such charge and such proceeding as if the charge had originally been filed in the Region to which the transfer is made.
</P>
<P>(c) The Regional Director may, prior to hearing, exercise the powers in paragraphs (a)(2) and (4) of this section with respect to proceedings pending in the Director's Region.
</P>
<P>(d) Motions to consolidate or sever proceedings after issuance of complaint must be filed as provided in § 102.24 and ruled upon as provided in § 102.25, except that the Regional Director may consolidate or sever proceedings prior to hearing upon the Director's own motion. Rulings by the Administrative Law Judge upon motions to consolidate or sever may be appealed to the Board as provided in § 102.26.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.34" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.34   Who will conduct hearing; public unless otherwise ordered.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing for the purpose of taking evidence upon a complaint will be conducted by an Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or any Associate Chief Judge, as the case may be, unless the Board or any Board Member presides. At any time, an Administrative Law Judge may be designated to take the place of the Administrative Law Judge previously designated to conduct the hearing. Hearings will be public unless otherwise ordered by the Board or the Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.35" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.35   Duties and powers of Administrative Law Judges; stipulations of cases to Administrative Law Judges or to the Board; assignment and powers of settlement judges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Law Judge will inquire fully into the facts as to whether the Respondent has engaged in or is engaging in an unfair labor practice affecting commerce as set forth in the complaint or amended complaint. The Administrative Law Judge has authority, with respect to cases assigned to the Judge, between the time the Judge is designated and transfer of the case to the Board, subject to the Rules and Regulations of the Board and within its powers, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Administer oaths and affirmations.
</P>
<P>(2) Grant applications for subpoenas.
</P>
<P>(3) Rule upon petitions to revoke subpoenas.
</P>
<P>(4) Rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence.
</P>
<P>(5) Take or cause depositions to be taken whenever the ends of justice would be served.
</P>
<P>(6) Regulate the course of the hearing and, if appropriate or necessary, to exclude persons or counsel from the hearing for contemptuous conduct and to strike all related testimony of witnesses refusing to answer any proper question.
</P>
<P>(7) Hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties, but not to adjust cases.
</P>
<P>(8) Dispose of procedural requests, motions, or similar matters, including motions referred to the Administrative Law Judge by the Regional Director and motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or to amend pleadings; also to dismiss complaints or portions thereof; to order hearings reopened; and, upon motion, to order proceedings consolidated or severed prior to issuance of Administrative Law Judge decisions.
</P>
<P>(9) Approve stipulations, including stipulations of facts that waive a hearing and provide for a decision by the Administrative Law Judge. Alternatively, the parties may agree to waive a hearing and decision by an Administrative Law Judge and submit directly to the Executive Secretary a stipulation of facts, which, if approved, provides for a decision by the Board. A statement of the issues presented may be set forth in the stipulation of facts, and each party may also submit a short statement (no more than three pages) of its position on the issues. If the Administrative Law Judge (or the Board) approves the stipulation, the Judge (or the Board) will set a time for the filing of briefs. In proceedings before an Administrative Law Judge, no further briefs may be filed except by special leave of the Judge. In proceedings before the Board, answering briefs may be filed within 14 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, from the last date on which an initial brief may be filed. No further briefs may be filed except by special leave of the Board. At the conclusion of the briefing schedule, the Administrative Law Judge (or the Board) will decide the case or otherwise dispose of it.
</P>
<P>(10) Make and file decisions, including bench decisions delivered within 72 hours after conclusion of oral argument, in conformity with Public Law 89-554, 5 U.S.C. 557.
</P>
<P>(11) Call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses and to introduce into the record documentary or other evidence.
</P>
<P>(12) Request the parties at any time during the hearing to state their respective positions concerning any issue in the case and/or supporting theory(ies).
</P>
<P>(13) Take any other necessary action authorized by the Board's published Rules and Regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the request of any party or of the Administrative Law Judge assigned to hear a case, or upon the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judge's own motion, the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge or an Associate Chief Judge may assign a Judge other than the trial judge to conduct settlement negotiations. In exercising this discretion, the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judge making the assignment will consider, among other factors, whether there is reason to believe that resolution of the dispute is likely, the request for assignment of a settlement judge is made in good faith, and the assignment is otherwise feasible. However, no such assignment will be made absent the agreement of all parties to the use of this procedure.
</P>
<P>(1) The settlement judge will convene and preside over conferences and settlement negotiations between the parties, assess the practicalities of a potential settlement, and report to the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judge the status of settlement negotiations, recommending continuation or termination of the settlement negotiations. Where feasible, settlement conferences will be held in person.
</P>
<P>(2) The settlement judge may require that the attorney or other representative for each party be present at settlement conferences and that the parties or agents with full settlement authority also be present or available by telephone.
</P>
<P>(3) Participation of the settlement judge will terminate upon the order of the Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judges issued after consultation with the settlement judge. The conduct of settlement negotiations must not unduly delay the hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) All discussions between the parties and the settlement judge will be confidential. The settlement judge must not discuss any aspect of the case with the trial judge, and no evidence regarding statements, conduct, offers of settlement, and concessions of the parties made in proceedings before the settlement judge will be admissible in any proceeding before the Board, except by stipulation of the parties. Documents disclosed in the settlement process may not be used in litigation unless voluntarily produced or obtained pursuant to subpoena.
</P>
<P>(5) No decision of a Chief Judge, Deputy Chief Judge, or Associate Chief Judge concerning the assignment of a settlement judge or the termination of a settlement judge's assignment is appealable to the Board.
</P>
<P>(6) Any settlement reached under the auspices of a settlement judge is subject to approval in accordance with the provisions of § 101.9 of the Board's Statements of Procedure.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon a showing of good cause based on compelling circumstances, and under appropriate safeguards, the taking of video testimony by contemporaneous transmission from a different location may be permitted.
</P>
<P>(1) Applications to obtain testimony by videoconference must be presented to the Administrative Law Judge in writing, and the requesting party must simultaneously serve notice of the application upon all parties to the hearing. The application must set forth the compelling circumstances for such testimony, the witness's name and address, the location where the video testimony will be held, the matter concerning which the witness is expected to testify, the conditions in place to protect the integrity of the testimony, the transmission safeguards, and the electronic address from which the video testimony will be transmitted. Such application and any opposition must be made promptly and within such time as not to delay the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate safeguards must ensure that the Administrative Law Judge has the ability to assess the witness's credibility and that the parties have a meaningful opportunity to examine and cross-examine the witness, and must include at a minimum measures that ensure that representatives of the parties have the opportunity to be present at the remote location, the judge, participants, and the reporter are able to hear the testimony and observe the witness, the camera view is adjustable to provide a close-up view of counsel and the witness and a panoramic view of the room, exhibits used in the witness's examination are exchanged in advance of the examination, and video technology assistance is available to assist with technical difficulties that arise during the examination. The Administrative Law Judge may also impose additional safeguards.
</P>
<P>(3) The official record of the videoconference testimony will be the official transcript prepared by the officer designated to transcribe the testimony.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 82 FR 43696, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.36" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.36   Disqualification and unavailability of Administrative Law Judges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Administrative Law Judge may withdraw from a proceeding because of a personal bias or for other disqualifying reasons. Any party may request the Administrative Law Judge, at any time following the Judge's designation and before filing of the Judge's decision, to withdraw on grounds of personal bias or disqualification, by filing with the Judge promptly upon the discovery of the alleged facts a timely affidavit setting forth in detail the matters alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification. If, in the Administrative Law Judge's opinion, the affidavit is filed with due diligence and is sufficient on its face, the Judge will promptly disqualify himself/herself and withdraw from the proceeding. If the Administrative Law Judge does not disqualify himself/herself and withdraw from the proceeding, the Judge must rule upon the record, stating the grounds for that ruling, and proceed with the hearing, or, if the hearing has closed, the Judge will proceed with issuance of the decision, and the provisions of § 102.26, with respect to review of rulings of Administrative Law Judges, will apply.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing becomes unavailable to the Board after the hearing has been opened, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, may designate another Administrative Law Judge for the purpose of further hearing or other appropriate action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.37" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.37   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.38" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.38   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>Any party has the right to appear at the hearing in person, by counsel, or by other representative, to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses, and to introduce into the record documentary or other evidence, except that the Administrative Law Judge may limit the participation of any party as appropriate. Documentary evidence must be submitted in duplicate for the record with a copy to each party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.39" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.39   Rules of evidence controlling so far as practicable.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing will, so far as practicable, be conducted in accordance with the rules of evidence applicable in the district courts of the United States under the rules of civil procedure for the district courts of the United States, adopted by the Supreme Court of the United States pursuant to the Act of June 19, 1934 (U.S.C., title 28, Sections 723-B, 723-C).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.40" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.40   Stipulations of fact admissible.</HEAD>
<P>Stipulations of fact may be introduced in evidence with respect to any issue.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.41" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.41   Objection to conduct of hearing; how made; objections not waived by further participation.</HEAD>
<P>Any objection with respect to the conduct of the hearing, including any objection to the introduction of evidence, may be stated orally or in writing, accompanied by a short statement of the grounds of such objection, and included in the record. No such objection will be deemed waived by further participation in the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.42" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.42   Filings of briefs and proposed findings with the Administrative Law Judge and oral argument at the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any party is entitled, upon request, to oral argument, for a reasonable period at the close of the hearing. Oral argument and any presentation of proposed findings and conclusions will be included in the transcript of the hearing. In the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge, any party may, upon request made before the close of the hearing, file a brief or proposed findings and conclusions, or both, with the Administrative Law Judge, who may fix a reasonable time for such filing, but not in excess of 35 days from the close of the hearing. Requests for further extensions of time must be made to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be. Notice of the request for any extension must be immediately served on all other parties, and proof of service must be furnished. The brief or proposed findings and conclusions must be served on the other parties, and a statement of such service must be furnished. In any case in which the Administrative Law Judge believes that written briefs or proposed findings of fact and conclusions may not be necessary, the Judge must notify the parties at the opening of the hearing or as soon thereafter as practicable that the Judge may wish to hear oral argument in lieu of briefs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.43" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.43   Continuance and adjournment.</HEAD>
<P>In the Administrative Law Judge's discretion, the hearing may be continued from day to day, or adjourned to a later date or to a different place, by announcement at the hearing by the Administrative Law Judge, or by other appropriate notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.44" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.44   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.45" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.45   Administrative Law Judge's decision; contents of record; alternative dispute resolution program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative Law Judge's decision.</I> After a hearing for the purpose of taking evidence upon a complaint, the Administrative Law Judge will prepare a decision. The decision will contain findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the reasons or grounds for the findings and conclusions, and recommendations for the proper disposition of the case. If the Respondent is found to have engaged in the alleged unfair labor practices, the decision will also contain a recommendation for such affirmative action by the Respondent as will effectuate the policies of the Act. The Administrative Law Judge will file the decision with the Board. If the Judge delivers a bench decision, promptly upon receiving the transcript the Judge will certify the accuracy of the pages of the transcript containing the decision; file with the Board a certified copy of those pages, together with any supplementary matter the Judge may deem necessary to complete the decision; and serve a copy on each of the parties. Upon the filing of the decision, the Board will enter an order transferring the case to the Board, setting forth the date of the transfer and will serve on all the parties copies of the decision and the order. Service of the Administrative Law Judge's decision and of the order transferring the case to the Board is complete upon mailing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of record.</I> The charge upon which the complaint was issued and any amendments, the complaint and any amendments, notice of hearing, answer and any amendments, motions, rulings, orders, the transcript of the hearing, stipulations, exhibits, documentary evidence, and depositions, together with the Administrative Law Judge's decision and exceptions, and any cross-exceptions or answering briefs as provided in § 102.46, constitutes the record in the case.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative dispute resolution program.</I> The Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Program is available to parties with unfair labor practice or compliance cases pending before the Board at any stage subsequent to the initial issuance of an Administrative Law Judge's decision or any other process involving the transfer to the Board of such cases. Participation in the ADR Program is voluntary, and a party that enters the ADR Program may withdraw any time after the first meeting with the neutral. No party will be charged fees or expenses for using the ADR Program.
</P>
<P>(1) The parties may request participation in the ADR Program by contacting the program director. Deadlines for filing pleadings with the Board will be stayed effective the date that the case enters the ADR Program. If the case is removed from the ADR Program, the time period for filing will begin to run and will consist of the time period that remained when the case entered the ADR Program. Notice will be provided to the parties of the date the case enters the ADR Program and the date it is removed from the ADR Program.
</P>
<P>(2) A case may remain in the ADR Program for 28 days from the first settlement meeting or until the parties reach a settlement, whichever occurs first. A request for extension of the stay beyond the 28 days will be granted only with the approval and in the discretion of both the neutral and the program director upon a showing that such an extension is supported by good cause.
</P>
<P>(3) Once the case enters the ADR Program, the program director will arrange for the appointment of a neutral to assist the parties in settling the case.
</P>
<P>(4) The preferred method of conducting settlement conferences is to have the parties or their representatives attend in person, and therefore the neutral will make every reasonable effort to meet with the participants face-to-face at the parties' location. Settlement conferences by telephone or through videoconference may be held if the parties so desire.
</P>
<P>(5) Parties may be represented by counsel at the conferences, but representation by counsel is not required. However, each party must have in attendance a representative who has the authority to bind the party to the terms of a settlement agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) The neutral may ask the parties to submit pre-conference memos setting forth the issues in dispute, prior settlement efforts, and anything else that the parties would like to bring to the neutral's attention. A party's memo will be treated as a confidential submission unless the party that prepared the memo authorizes its release to the other parties.
</P>
<P>(7) Settlement discussions held under the ADR Program will be confidential. All documents submitted to the neutral and statements made during the ADR proceedings, including proposed settlement terms, are for settlement purposes only and are confidential. However, evidence otherwise admissible or discoverable will not be rendered inadmissible or undiscoverable because of its use in the ADR proceedings. No evidence as to what transpired during the ADR proceedings will be admissible in any administrative or court proceeding except to the extent it is relevant to determining the existence or meaning of a settlement agreement. The parties and their representatives will not discuss with the press any matters concerning settlement positions communicated during the ADR proceedings except by express written permission of the other parties. There will be no communication between the ADR Program and the Board on specific cases submitted to the ADR Program, except for procedural information such as case name, number, timing of the process, and status.
</P>
<P>(8) The neutral has no authority to impose a settlement. Settlement agreements are subject to approval by the Board in accordance with its existing procedures for approving settlements.
</P>
<P>(9) No party will at any time or in any proceeding take the position that participation in the ADR Program resulted in the waiver of any legal rights related to the underlying claims in the case, except as set forth in any settlement agreement.
</P>
<P>(10) Nothing in the ADR Program is intended to discourage or interfere with settlement negotiations that the parties wish to conduct outside the ADR Program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.46" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.46   Exceptions and brief in support; answering briefs to exceptions; cross-exceptions and brief in support; answering briefs to cross-exceptions; reply briefs; failure to except; oral argument; filing requirements; amicus curiae briefs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions and brief in support.</I> Within 28 days, or within such further period as the Board may allow, from the date of the service of the order transferring the case to the Board, pursuant to § 102.45, any party may (in accordance with Section 10(c) of the Act and §§ 102.2 through 102.5 and 102.7) file with the Board in Washington, DC, exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's decision or to any other part of the record or proceedings (including rulings upon all motions or objections), together with a brief in support of the exceptions. The filing of exceptions and briefs is subject to the filing requirements of paragraph (h) of this section
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) Each exception must:
</P>
<P>(A) Specify the questions of procedure, fact, law, or policy to which exception is taken;
</P>
<P>(B) Identify that part of the Administrative Law Judge's decision to which exception is taken;
</P>
<P>(C) Provide precise citations of the portions of the record relied on; and
</P>
<P>(D) Concisely state the grounds for the exception. If a supporting brief is filed, the exceptions document must not contain any argument or citation of authorities in support of the exceptions; any argument and citation of authorities must be set forth only in the brief. If no supporting brief is filed, the exceptions document must also include the citation of authorities and argument in support of the exceptions, in which event the exceptions document is subject to the 50-page limit for briefs set forth in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any exception to a ruling, finding, conclusion, or recommendation which is not specifically urged will be deemed to have been waived. Any exception which fails to comply with the foregoing requirements may be disregarded.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Brief in support of exceptions.</I> Any brief in support of exceptions must contain only matter that is included within the scope of the exceptions and must contain, in the order indicated, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear and concise statement of the case containing all that is material to the consideration of the questions presented.
</P>
<P>(ii) A specification of the questions involved and to be argued, together with a reference to the specific exceptions to which they relate.
</P>
<P>(iii) The argument, presenting clearly the points of fact and law relied on in support of the position taken on each question, with specific page citations to the record and the legal or other material relied on.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Answering briefs to exceptions.</I> (1) Within 14 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, from the last date on which exceptions and any supporting brief may be filed, a party opposing the exceptions may file an answering brief to the exceptions, in accordance with the filing requirements of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The answering brief to the exceptions must be limited to the questions raised in the exceptions and in the brief in support. It must present clearly the points of fact and law relied on in support of the position taken on each question. Where exception has been taken to a factual finding of the Administrative Law Judge and the party filing the answering brief proposes to support the Judge's finding, the answering brief must specify those pages of the record which the party contends support the Judge's finding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cross-exceptions and brief in support.</I> Any party who has not previously filed exceptions may, within 14 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, from the last date on which exceptions and any supporting brief may be filed, file cross-exceptions to any portion of the Administrative Law Judge's decision, together with a supporting brief, in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Answering briefs to cross-exceptions.</I> Within 14 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, from the last date on which cross-exceptions and any supporting brief may be filed, any other party may file an answering brief to such cross-exceptions in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (h) of this section. Such answering brief must be limited to the questions raised in the cross-exceptions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Within 14 days from the last date on which an answering brief may be filed pursuant to paragraphs (b) or (d) of this section, any party may file a reply brief to any such answering brief. Any reply brief filed pursuant to this paragraph (e) must be limited to matters raised in the brief to which it is replying, and must not exceed 10 pages. No extensions of time will be granted for the filing of reply briefs, nor will permission be granted to exceed the 10-page limit. The reply brief must be filed with the Board and served on the other parties. No further briefs may be filed except by special leave of the Board. Requests for such leave must be in writing and copies must be served simultaneously on the other parties.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to except.</I> Matters not included in exceptions or cross-exceptions may not thereafter be urged before the Board, or in any further proceeding.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Oral argument.</I> A party desiring oral argument before the Board must request permission from the Board in writing simultaneously with the filing of exceptions or cross-exceptions. The Board will notify the parties of the time and place of oral argument, if such permission is granted. Oral arguments are limited to 30 minutes for each party entitled to participate. No request for additional time will be granted unless timely application is made in advance of oral argument.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Filing requirements.</I> Documents filed pursuant to this section must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC, and copies must also be served simultaneously on the other parties. Any brief filed pursuant to this section must not be combined with any other brief, and except for reply briefs whose length is governed by paragraph (e) of this section, must not exceed 50 pages in length, exclusive of subject index and table of cases and other authorities cited.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amicus curiae briefs.</I> Amicus curiae briefs will be accepted only by permission of the Board. Motions for permission to file an amicus brief must state the bases of the movant's interest in the case and why the brief will be of benefit to the Board in deciding the matters at issue. Unless the Board directs otherwise, the following procedures will apply.
</P>
<P>(1) The Board will consider motions to file an amicus brief only when: (a) A party files exceptions to an Administrative Law Judge's decision; or (b) a case is remanded by the court of appeals and the Board requests briefing from the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) In circumstances where a party files exceptions to an Administrative Law Judge's decision, the motion must be filed with the Office of the Executive Secretary of the Board no later than 42 days after the filing of exceptions, or in the event cross-exceptions are filed, no later than 42 days after the filing of cross-exceptions. Where a case has been remanded by the court of appeals, the motion must be filed no later than 21 days after the parties file statements of position on remand. A motion filed outside these time periods must be supported by a showing of good cause. The motion will not operate to stay the issuance of a Board decision upon completion of the briefing schedule for the parties.
</P>
<P>(3) The motion must be accompanied by the proposed amicus brief and must comply with the service and form prescribed by § 102.5. The brief may be no more than 25 pages in length.
</P>
<P>(4) A party may file a reply to the motion within 7 days of service of the motion. A party may file an answering brief to the amicus brief within 14 days of issuance of the Board's order granting permission to file the amicus brief. Replies to an answering brief will not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board may direct the Executive Secretary to solicit amicus briefs. In such cases, the Executive Secretary will specify in the invitation the due date and page length for solicited amicus briefs, and the deadline for the parties to file answering briefs. Absent compelling reasons, no extensions of time will be granted for filing solicited amicus briefs or answering briefs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 82 FR 43696, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.47" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.47   Filing of motion after transfer of case to Board.</HEAD>
<P>All motions filed after the case has been transferred to the Board pursuant to § 102.45 must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC, and served upon the other parties. Such motions must be printed or otherwise legibly duplicated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.48" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.48   No exceptions filed; exceptions filed; motions for reconsideration, rehearing, or reopening the record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No exceptions filed.</I> If no timely or proper exceptions are filed, the findings, conclusions, and recommendations contained in the Administrative Law Judge's decision will, pursuant to Section 10(c) of the Act, automatically become the decision and order of the Board and become its findings, conclusions, and order, and all objections and exceptions must be deemed waived for all purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions filed.</I> (1) Upon the filing of timely and proper exceptions, and any cross-exceptions or answering briefs, as provided in § 102.46, the Board may decide the matter upon the record, or after oral argument, or may reopen the record and receive further evidence before a Board Member or other Board agent or agency, or otherwise dispose of the case.
</P>
<P>(2) Where exception is taken to a factual finding of the Administrative Law Judge, the Board, in determining whether the finding is contrary to a preponderance of the evidence, may limit its consideration to such portions of the record as are specified in the exceptions, the supporting brief, and the answering brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motions for reconsideration, rehearing, or reopening the record.</I> A party to a proceeding before the Board may, because of extraordinary circumstances, move for reconsideration, rehearing, or reopening of the record after the Board decision or order.
</P>
<P>(1) A motion for reconsideration must state with particularity the material error claimed and with respect to any finding of material fact, must specify the page of the record relied on. A motion for rehearing must specify the error alleged to require a hearing de novo and the prejudice to the movant from the error. A motion to reopen the record must state briefly the additional evidence sought to be adduced, why it was not presented previously, and that, if adduced and credited, it would require a different result. Only newly discovered evidence, evidence which has become available only since the close of the hearing, or evidence which the Board believes may have been taken at the hearing will be taken at any further hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion pursuant to this section must be filed within 28 days, or such further period as the Board may allow, after the service of the Board's decision or order, except that a motion to reopen the record must be filed promptly on discovery of the evidence to be adduced.
</P>
<P>(3) The filing and pendency of a motion under this provision will not stay the effectiveness of the action of the Board unless so ordered. A motion for reconsideration or rehearing need not be filed to exhaust administrative remedies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.49" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.49   Modification or setting aside of Board order before record filed in court; action thereafter.</HEAD>
<P>Within the limitations of the provisions of Section 10(c) of the Act, and § 102.48, until a transcript of the record in a case is filed in a court, within the meaning of Section 10 of the Act, the Board may at any time upon reasonable notice modify or set aside, in whole or in part, any findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order made or issued by it. Thereafter, the Board may proceed pursuant to § 102.50, insofar as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.50" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.50   Hearings before the Board or a Board Member.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Board deems it necessary to effectuate the purposes of the Act or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, it may, at any time, after a complaint has issued pursuant to § 102.15 or § 102.33, order that such complaint and any proceeding which may have been instituted with respect thereto be transferred to and continued before it or any Board Member. The provisions of this subpart, insofar as applicable, govern proceedings before the Board or any Board Member pursuant to this section, and the powers granted to Administrative Law Judges in such provisions will, for the purpose of this section, be reserved to and exercised by the Board or the Board Member who will preside.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.51" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.51   Settlement or adjustment of issues.</HEAD>
<P>At any stage of a proceeding prior to hearing, where time, the nature of the proceeding, and the public interest permit, all interested parties have an opportunity to submit to the Regional Director, with whom the charge was filed, for consideration, facts, arguments, offers of settlement, or proposals of adjustment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.52" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.52   Compliance with Board order; notification of compliance determination.</HEAD>
<P>After entry of a Board order directing remedial action, or the entry of a court judgment enforcing such order, the Regional Director will seek compliance from all persons having obligations under the order. As appropriate, the Regional Director will make a compliance determination and notify the parties of that determination. A Charging Party adversely affected by a monetary, make-whole, reinstatement, or other compliance determination will be provided, on request, with a written statement of the basis for that determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.53" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.53   Appeal of compliance determination to the General Counsel; General Counsel's action; request for review by the Board; Board action; opposition to appeal or request for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal of compliance determination to the General Counsel.</I> The Charging Party may appeal a compliance determination to the General Counsel in Washington, DC, within 14 days of the written statement of compliance determination as set forth in § 102.52. The appeal must contain a complete statement setting forth the facts and reasons upon which it is based and must identify with particularity the error claimed in the Regional Director's determination. The General Counsel may for good cause shown extend the time for filing an appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General Counsel's action.</I> The General Counsel may affirm or modify the Regional Director's determination or take such other action deemed appropriate, and must state the grounds for that decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for review by Board.</I> Within 14 days after service of the General Counsel's decision, the Charging Party may file a request for review of that decision with the Board in Washington, DC. The request for review must contain a complete statement of the facts and reasons upon which it is based and must identify with particularity the error claimed in the General Counsel's decision. A copy of the request for review must be served simultaneously on all other parties and on the General Counsel and the Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board action.</I> The Board may affirm or modify the General Counsel's decision, or otherwise dispose of the matter as it deems appropriate. The denial of the request for review will constitute an affirmance of the General Counsel's decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opposition to appeal or request for review.</I> Within 7 days of receipt of a compliance appeal or request for review, a party may file an opposition to the compliance appeal or request for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.54" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.54   Issuance of compliance specification; consolidation of complaint and compliance specification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If it appears that controversy exists with respect to compliance with a Board order which cannot be resolved without a formal proceeding, the Regional Director may issue and serve on all parties a compliance specification in the name of the Board. The specification will contain or be accompanied by a Notice of Hearing before an Administrative Law Judge at a specific place and at a time not less than 21 days after the service of the specification.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Regional Director deems it necessary to effectuate the purposes and policies of the Act or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, the Regional Director may issue a compliance specification, with or without a notice of hearing, based on an outstanding complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the Regional Director deems it necessary to effectuate the purposes and policies of the Act or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, the Regional Director may consolidate with a complaint and Notice of Hearing issued pursuant to § 102.15 a compliance specification based on that complaint. After opening of the hearing, the Board or the Administrative Law Judge, as appropriate, must approve consolidation. Issuance of a compliance specification is not a prerequisite or bar to Board initiation of proceedings in any administrative or judicial forum which the Board or the Regional Director determines to be appropriate for obtaining compliance with a Board order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.55" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.55   Contents of compliance specification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of specification with respect to allegations concerning the amount of backpay due.</I> With respect to allegations concerning the amount of backpay due, the specification will specifically and in detail show, for each employee, the backpay periods broken down by calendar quarters, the specific figures and basis of computation of gross backpay and interim earnings, the expenses for each quarter, the net backpay due, and any other pertinent information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of specification with respect to allegations other than the amount of backpay due.</I> With respect to allegations other than the amount of backpay due, the specification will contain a clear and concise description of the respects in which the Respondent has failed to comply with a Board or court order, including the remedial acts claimed to be necessary for compliance by the Respondent and, where known, the approximate dates, places, and names of the Respondent's agents or other representatives described in the specification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amendments to specification.</I> After the issuance of the Notice of Compliance Hearing but before the hearing opens, the Regional Director may amend the specification. After the hearing opens, the specification may be amended upon leave of the Administrative Law Judge or the Board, upon good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.56" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.56   Answer to compliance specification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing and service of answer to compliance specification.</I> Each Respondent alleged in the specification to have compliance obligations must, within 21 days from the service of the specification, file an answer with the Regional Director issuing the specification, and must immediately serve a copy on the other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and contents of answer.</I> The answer to the specification must be in writing, signed and sworn to by the Respondent or by a duly authorized agent with appropriate power of attorney affixed, and contain the address of the Respondent. The answer must specifically admit, deny, or explain each allegation of the specification, unless the Respondent is without knowledge, in which case the Respondent must so state, such statement operating as a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of the allegations of the specification at issue. When a Respondent intends to deny only a part of an allegation, the Respondent must specify so much of it as is true and deny only the remainder. As to all matters within the knowledge of the Respondent, including but not limited to the various factors entering into the computation of gross backpay, a general denial will not suffice. As to such matters, if the Respondent disputes either the accuracy of the figures in the specification or the premises on which they are based, the answer must specifically state the basis for such disagreement, setting forth in detail the Respondent's position and furnishing the appropriate supporting figures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to answer or to plead specifically and in detail to backpay allegations of specification.</I> If the Respondent fails to file any answer to the specification within the time prescribed by this section, the Board may, either with or without taking evidence in support of the allegations of the specification and without further notice to the Respondent, find the specification to be true and enter such order as may be appropriate. If the Respondent files an answer to the specification but fails to deny any allegation of the specification in the manner required by paragraph (b) of this section, and the failure to deny is not adequately explained, such allegation will be deemed admitted as true, and may be so found by the Board without the taking of evidence supporting such allegation, and the Respondent will be precluded from introducing any evidence controverting the allegation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extension of time for filing answer to specification.</I> Upon the Regional Director's own motion or upon proper cause shown by any Respondent, the Regional Director issuing the compliance specification may, by written order, extend the time within which the answer to the specification must be filed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amendment to answer.</I> Following the amendment of the specification by the Regional Director, any Respondent affected by the amendment may amend its answer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.57" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.57   Extension of date of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the Regional Director's own motion or upon proper cause shown, the Regional Director issuing the compliance specification and Notice of Hearing may extend the hearing date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.58" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.58   Withdrawal of compliance specification.</HEAD>
<P>Any compliance specification and Notice of Hearing may be withdrawn before the hearing by the Regional Director upon the Director's own motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.59" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.3.1.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.59   Hearing and posthearing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>After the issuance of a compliance specification and Notice of Hearing, the procedures provided in §§ 102.24 through 102.51 will be followed insofar as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedure Under Section 9(c) of the Act for the Determination of Questions Concerning Representation of Employees 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and for Clarification of Bargaining Units and for Amendment of Certifications Under Section 9(b) of the Act</HEAD>

<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Procedure under the first proviso to sec. 8(b)(7)(C) of the Act is governed by subpart D of this part. </P></FTNT>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.60" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.60   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition for certification or decertification.</I> A petition for investigation of a question concerning representation of employees under paragraphs (1)(A)(i) and (1)(B) of Section 9(c) of the Act (hereinafter called a petition for certification) may be filed by an employee or group of employees or any individual or labor organization acting in their behalf or by an employer. A petition under paragraph (1)(A)(ii) of Section 9(c) of the Act, alleging that the individual or labor organization which has been certified or is being currently recognized as the bargaining representative is no longer such representative (hereinafter called a petition for decertification), may be filed by any employee or group of employees or any individual or labor organization acting in their behalf. Petitions under this section shall be in writing and signed, and either shall be sworn to before a notary public, Board agent, or other person duly authorized by law to administer oaths and take acknowledgments or shall contain a declaration by the person signing it, under the penalty of perjury, that its contents are true and correct (see 28 U.S.C. 1746). One original of the petition shall be filed, and a copy served on all parties named in the petition. A person filing a petition by facsimile pursuant to § 102.5(e) shall also file an original for the Agency's records, but failure to do so shall not affect the validity of the filing by facsimile, if otherwise proper. A person filing a petition electronically pursuant to § 102.5(c) need not file an original. Except as provided in § 102.72, such petitions shall be filed with the Regional Director for the Region wherein the bargaining unit exists, or, if the bargaining unit exists in two or more Regions, with the Regional Director for any of such Regions. A certificate of service on all parties named in the petition shall also be filed with the Regional Director when the petition is filed. Along with the petition, the petitioner shall serve the Agency's description of the procedures in representation cases and the Agency's Statement of Position form on all parties named in the petition. Prior to the transfer of the record to the Board, the petition may be withdrawn only with the consent of the Regional Director with whom such petition was filed. After the transfer of the record to the Board, the petition may be withdrawn only with the consent of the Board. Whenever the Regional Director or the Board, as the case may be, approves the withdrawal of any petition, the case shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petition for clarification of bargaining unit or petition for amendment of certification.</I> A petition for clarification of an existing bargaining unit or a petition for amendment of certification, in the absence of a question of representation, may be filed by a labor organization or by an employer. Where applicable the same procedures set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall be followed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69588, Dec. 18, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.61" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.61   Contents of petition for certification; contents of petition for decertification; contents of petition for clarification of bargaining unit; contents of petition for amendment of certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>RC petitions.</I> A petition for certification, when filed by an employee or group of employees or an individual or labor organization acting in their behalf, shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the employer.
</P>
<P>(2) The address of the establishments involved.
</P>
<P>(3) The general nature of the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the bargaining unit which the petitioner claims to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) The names and addresses of any other persons or labor organizations who claim to represent any employees in the alleged appropriate unit, and brief descriptions of the contracts, if any, covering the employees in such unit.
</P>
<P>(6) The number of employees in the alleged appropriate unit.
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that a substantial number of employees in the described unit wish to be represented by the petitioner. Evidence supporting the statement shall be filed with the petition in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, but shall not be served on any party.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that the employer declines to recognize the petitioner as the representative within the meaning of Section 9(a) of the Act or that the labor organization is currently recognized but desires certification under the Act.
</P>
<P>(9) The name, affiliation, if any, and address of the petitioner, and the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as the representative of the petitioner and accept service of all papers for purposes of the representation proceeding.
</P>
<P>(10) Whether a strike or picketing is in progress at the establishment involved and, if so, the approximate number of employees participating, and the date such strike or picketing commenced.
</P>
<P>(11) Any other relevant facts.
</P>
<P>(12) The type, date(s), time(s) and location(s) of the election sought.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>RM petitions.</I> A petition for certification, when filed by an employer, shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the petitioner, and the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as the representative of the petitioner and accept service of all papers for purposes of the representation proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The general nature of the petitioner's business.
</P>
<P>(3) A brief statement setting forth that one or more individuals or labor organizations have presented to the petitioner a claim to be recognized as the exclusive representative of all employees in the unit claimed to be appropriate; a description of such unit; and the number of employees in the unit.
</P>
<P>(4) The name or names, affiliation, if any, and addresses of the individuals or labor organizations making such claim for recognition.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement whether the petitioner has contracts with any labor organization or other representatives of employees and, if so, their expiration date(s).
</P>
<P>(6) Whether a strike or picketing is in progress at the establishment involved and, if so, the approximate number of employees participating, and the date such strike or picketing commenced.
</P>
<P>(7) Any other relevant facts.
</P>
<P>(8) Evidence supporting the statement that a labor organization has made a demand for recognition on the employer or that the employer has good faith uncertainty about majority support for an existing representative. Such evidence shall be filed together with the petition, but if the evidence reveals the names and/or number of employees who no longer wish to be represented, the evidence shall not be served on any party. However, no proof of representation on the part of the labor organization claiming a majority is required and the Regional Director shall proceed with the case if other factors require it unless the labor organization withdraws its claim to majority representation.
</P>
<P>(9) The type, date(s), time(s) and location(s) of the election sought.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>RD petitions.</I> Petitions for decertification shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the employer.
</P>
<P>(2) The address of the establishments and a description of the bargaining unit involved.
</P>
<P>(3) The general nature of the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(4) The name and address of the petitioner and affiliation, if any, and the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as the representative of the petitioner and accept service of all papers for purposes of the representation proceeding.
</P>
<P>(5) The name or names and addresses of the individuals or labor organizations who have been certified or are being currently recognized by the employer and who claim to represent any employees in the unit involved, and the expiration date of any contracts covering such employees.
</P>
<P>(6) An allegation that the individuals or labor organizations who have been certified or are currently recognized by the employer are no longer the representative in the appropriate unit as defined in Section 9(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(7) The number of employees in the unit.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that a substantial number of employees in the described unit no longer wish to be represented by the incumbent representative. Evidence supporting the statement shall be filed with the petition in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, but shall not be served on any party.
</P>
<P>(9) Whether a strike or picketing is in progress at the establishment involved and, if so, the approximate number of employees participating, and the date such strike or picketing commenced.
</P>
<P>(10) Any other relevant facts.
</P>
<P>(11) The type, date(s), time(s) and location(s) of the election sought.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>UC petitions.</I> A petition for clarification shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the employer and the name of the recognized or certified bargaining representative.
</P>
<P>(2) The address of the establishment involved.
</P>
<P>(3) The general nature of the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the present bargaining unit, and, if the bargaining unit is certified, an identification of the existing certification.
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the proposed clarification.
</P>
<P>(6) The names and addresses of any other persons or labor organizations who claim to represent any employees affected by the proposed clarifications, and brief descriptions of the contracts, if any, covering any such employees.
</P>
<P>(7) The number of employees in the present bargaining unit and in the unit as proposed under the clarification.
</P>
<P>(8) The job classifications of employees as to whom the issue is raised, and the number of employees in each classification.
</P>
<P>(9) A statement by petitioner setting forth reasons why petitioner desires clarification of unit.
</P>
<P>(10) The name, the affiliation, if any, and the address of the petitioner, and the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as the representative of the petitioner and accept service of all papers for purposes of the representation proceeding.
</P>
<P>(11) Any other relevant facts.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>AC petitions.</I> A petition for amendment of certification shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the employer and the name of the certified union involved.
</P>
<P>(2) The address of the establishment involved.
</P>
<P>(3) The general nature of the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(4) Identification and description of the existing certification.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement by petitioner setting forth the details of the desired amendment and reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(6) The names and addresses of any other persons or labor organizations who claim to represent any employees in the unit covered by the certification and brief descriptions of the contracts, if any, covering the employees in such unit.
</P>
<P>(7) The name, the affiliation, if any, and the address of the petitioner, and the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as the representative of the petitioner and accept service of all papers for purposes of the representation proceeding.
</P>
<P>(8) Any other relevant facts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Provision of original signatures.</I> Evidence filed pursuant to paragraph (a)(7), (b)(8), or (c)(8) of this section together with a petition that is filed by facsimile or electronically, which includes original signatures that cannot be transmitted in their original form by the method of filing of the petition, may be filed by facsimile or in electronic form provided that the original documents are received by the Regional Director no later than 2 business days after the facsimile or electronic filing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69588, Dec. 18, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.62" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.62   Election agreements; voter list; Notice of Election.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consent-election agreements with final Regional Director determinations of post-election disputes.</I> Where a petition has been duly filed, the employer and any individual or labor organizations representing a substantial number of employees involved may, with the approval of the Regional Director, enter into an agreement providing for the waiver of a hearing and for an election and further providing that post-election disputes will be resolved by the Regional Director. Such agreement, referred to as a consent election agreement, shall include a description of the appropriate unit, the time and place of holding the election, and the payroll period to be used in determining what employees within the appropriate unit shall be eligible to vote. Such election shall be conducted under the direction and supervision of the Regional Director. The method of conducting such election shall be consistent with the method followed by the Regional Director in conducting elections pursuant to §§ 102.69 and 102.70 except that the rulings and determinations by the Regional Director of the results thereof shall be final, and the Regional Director shall issue to the parties a certification of the results of the election, including certifications of representative where appropriate, with the same force and effect, in that case, as if issued by the Board, and except that rulings or determinations by the Regional Director in respect to any amendment of such certification shall also be final.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stipulated election agreements with discretionary Board review.</I> Where a petition has been duly filed, the employer and any individuals or labor organizations representing a substantial number of the employees involved may, with the approval of the Regional Director, enter into an agreement providing for the waiver of a hearing and for an election as described in paragraph (a) of this section and further providing that the parties may request Board review of the Regional Director's resolution of post-election disputes. Such agreement, referred to as a stipulated election agreement, shall also include a description of the appropriate bargaining unit, the time and place of holding the election, and the payroll period to be used in determining which employees within the appropriate unit shall be eligible to vote. Such election shall be conducted under the direction and supervision of the Regional Director. The method of conducting such election and the post-election procedure shall be consistent with that followed by the Regional Director in conducting elections pursuant to §§ 102.69 and 102.70.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Full consent election agreements with final Regional Director determinations of pre- and post-election disputes.</I> Where a petition has been duly filed, the employer and any individual or labor organizations representing a substantial number of the employees involved may, with the approval of the Regional Director, enter into an agreement, referred to as a full consent election agreement, providing that pre- and post-election disputes will be resolved by the Regional Director. Such agreement provides for a hearing pursuant to §§ 102.63, 102.64, 102.65, 102.66, and 102.67 to determine if a question of representation exists. Upon the conclusion of such a hearing, the Regional Director shall issue a decision. The rulings and determinations by the Regional Director thereunder shall be final, with the same force and effect, in that case, as if issued by the Board. Any election ordered by the Regional Director shall be conducted under the direction and supervision of the Regional Director. The method of conducting such election shall be consistent with the method followed by the Regional Director in conducting elections pursuant to §§ 102.69 and 102.70, except that the rulings and determinations by the Regional Director of the results thereof shall be final, and the Regional Director shall issue to the parties a certification of the results of the election, including certifications of representative where appropriate, with the same force and effect, in that case, as if issued by the Board, and except that rulings or determinations by the Regional Director in respect to any amendment of such certification shall also be final.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voter list.</I> Absent agreement of the parties to the contrary specified in the election agreement or extraordinary circumstances specified in the direction of election, within 2 business days after the approval of an election agreement pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, or issuance of a direction of election pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the employer shall provide to the Regional Director and the parties named in the agreement or direction a list of the full names, work locations, shifts, job classifications, and contact information (including home addresses, available personal email addresses, and available home and personal cellular “cell” telephone numbers) of all eligible voters. The employer shall also include in separate sections of that list the same information for those individuals who will be permitted to vote subject to challenge. In order to be timely filed and served, the list must be received by the Regional Director and the parties named in the agreement or direction respectively within 2 business days after the approval of the agreement or issuance of the direction unless a longer time is specified in the agreement or direction. The list of names shall be alphabetized (overall or by department) and be in an electronic format approved by the General Counsel unless the employer certifies that it does not possess the capacity to produce the list in the required form. When feasible, the list shall be filed electronically with the Regional Director and served electronically on the other parties named in the agreement or direction. A certificate of service on all parties shall be filed with the Regional Director when the voter list is filed. The employer's failure to file or serve the list within the specified time or in proper format shall be grounds for setting aside the election whenever proper and timely objections are filed under the provisions of § 102.69(a)(8). The employer shall be estopped from objecting to the failure to file or serve the list within the specified time or in the proper format if it is responsible for the failure. The parties shall not use the list for purposes other than the representation proceeding, Board proceedings arising from it, and related matters.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of Election.</I> Upon approval of the election agreement pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section or with the direction of election pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the Regional Director shall promptly transmit the Board's Notice of Election to the parties and their designated representatives by email, facsimile, or by overnight mail (if neither an email address nor facsimile number was provided). The employer shall post and distribute the Notice of Election in accordance with § 102.67(k). The employer's failure properly to post or distribute the election notices as required herein shall be grounds for setting aside the election whenever proper and timely objections are filed under the provisions of § 102.69(a)(8). A party shall be estopped from objecting to the nonposting of notices if it is responsible for the nonposting, and likewise shall be estopped from objecting to the nondistribution of notices if it is responsible for the nondistribution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69588, Dec. 18, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 14911, Mar. 10, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.63" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.63   Investigation of petition by Regional Director; Notice of Hearing; service of notice; Notice of Petition for Election; Statement of Position; withdrawal of Notice of Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investigation; Notice of Hearing; notice of petition for election.</I> (1) After a petition has been filed under § 102.61(a), (b), or (c), if no agreement such as that provided in § 102.62 is entered into and if it appears to the Regional Director that there is reasonable cause to believe that a question of representation affecting commerce exists, that the policies of the Act will be effectuated, and that an election will reflect the free choice of employees in an appropriate unit, the Regional Director shall prepare and cause to be served upon the parties and upon any known individuals or labor organizations purporting to act as representatives of any employees directly affected by such investigation, a Notice of Hearing before a Hearing Officer at a time and place fixed therein. Except in cases presenting unusually complex issues, the Regional Director shall set the hearing for a date 8 days from the date of service of the notice excluding intervening Federal holidays, but if the 8th day is a weekend or Federal holiday, the Regional Director shall set the hearing for the following business day. The Regional Director may postpone the hearing for up to 2 business days upon request of a party showing special circumstances. The Regional Director may postpone the opening of the hearing for more than 2 business days upon request of a party showing extraordinary circumstances. A copy of the petition, a description of procedures in representation cases, a Notice of Petition for Election, and a Statement of Position form as described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, shall be served with such Notice of Hearing. Any such Notice of Hearing may be amended or withdrawn before the close of the hearing by the Regional Director on the director's own motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 2 business days after service of the Notice of Hearing, the employer shall post the Notice of Petition for Election in conspicuous places, including all places where notices to employees are customarily posted, and shall also distribute it electronically to employees in the petitioned-for unit if the employer customarily communicates with its employees electronically. The Notice of Petition for Election shall indicate that no final decisions have been made yet regarding the appropriateness of the petitioned-for bargaining unit and whether an election shall be conducted. The employer shall maintain the posting until the petition is dismissed or withdrawn or the Notice of Petition for Election is replaced by the Notice of Election. The employer's failure properly to post or distribute the Notice of Petition for Election may be grounds for setting aside the election whenever proper and timely objections are filed under the provisions of § 102.69(a)(8). A party shall be estopped from objecting to the nonposting of notices if it is responsible for the nonposting, and likewise shall be estopped from objecting to the nondistribution of notices if it is responsible for the nondistribution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statements of Position</I>—(1) <I>Statement of Position in RC cases.</I> If a petition has been filed under § 102.61(a) and the Regional Director has issued a Notice of Hearing, the employer shall file with the Regional Director and serve on the parties named in the petition its Statement of Position such that it is received by the Regional Director and the parties named in the petition by the date and time specified in the Notice of Hearing, which shall be at noon on the business day before the opening of the hearing if the hearing is set to open 8 days from service of the notice. The Regional Director may set the date and time for filing and serving the Statement of Position earlier than at noon on the business day before the hearing in the event the hearing is set to open more than 8 days from service of the notice. The Regional Director may postpone the time for filing and serving the Statement of Position for up to 2 business days upon request of a party showing special circumstances. The Regional Director may postpone the time for filing and serving the Statement of Position for more than 2 business days upon request of a party showing extraordinary circumstances. The Regional Director may permit the employer to amend its Statement of Position in a timely manner for good cause.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employer's Statement of Position.</I> (A) The employer's Statement of Position shall state whether the employer agrees that the Board has jurisdiction over it and provide the requested information concerning the employer's relation to interstate commerce; state whether the employer agrees that the proposed unit is appropriate, and, if the employer does not so agree, state the basis for its contention that the proposed unit is inappropriate, and state the classifications, locations, or other employee groupings that must be added to or excluded from the proposed unit to make it an appropriate unit; identify any individuals whose eligibility to vote the employer intends to contest at the pre-election hearing and the basis of each such contention; raise any election bar; state the length of the payroll period for employees in the proposed unit and the most recent payroll period ending date; state the employer's position concerning the type, date(s), time(s), and location(s) of the election and the eligibility period; and describe all other issues the employer intends to raise at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(B) The Statement of Position shall also state the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as the representative of the employer and accept service of all papers for purposes of the representation proceeding and be signed by a representative of the employer.
</P>
<P>(C) The Statement of Position shall include a list of the full names, work locations, shifts, and job classifications of all individuals in the proposed unit as of the payroll period preceding the filing of the petition who remain employed at the time of filing, and if the employer contends that the proposed unit is inappropriate, the employer shall separately list the full names, work locations, shifts, and job classifications of all individuals that the employer contends must be added to the proposed unit to make it an appropriate unit. The employer shall also indicate those individuals, if any, whom it believes must be excluded from the proposed unit to make it an appropriate unit. The list(s) of names shall be alphabetized (overall or by department) and be in an electronic format approved by the General Counsel unless the employer certifies that it does not possess the capacity to produce the list in the required form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statement of Position in RM cases.</I> If a petition has been filed under § 102.61(b) and the Regional Director has issued a Notice of Hearing, each individual or labor organization named in the petition shall file with the Regional Director and serve on the other parties named in the petition its Statement of Position such that it is received by the Regional Director and the parties named in the petition by the date and time specified in the Notice of Hearing, which shall be at noon on the business day before the opening of the hearing if the hearing is set to open 8 days from service of the notice. The Regional Director may set the date and time for filing and serving the Statement of Position earlier than at noon on the business day before the hearing in the event the hearing is set to open more than 8 days from service of the notice. The Regional Director may postpone the time for filing and serving the Statement of Position for up to 2 business days upon request of a party showing special circumstances. The Regional Director may postpone the time for filing and serving the Statement of Position for more than 2 business days upon request of a party showing extraordinary circumstances. The Regional Director may permit each individual or labor organization named in the petition to amend its Statement of Position in a timely manner for good cause.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Individual or labor organization's Statement of Position.</I> Each individual or labor organization's Statement of Position shall state whether it agrees that the Board has jurisdiction over the employer; state whether it agrees that the proposed unit is appropriate, and, if it does not so agree, state the basis for its contention that the proposed unit is inappropriate, and state the classifications, locations, or other employee groupings that must be added to or excluded from the proposed unit to make it an appropriate unit; identify any individuals whose eligibility to vote the individual or labor organization intends to contest at the pre-election hearing and the basis of each such contention; raise any election bar; state its position concerning the type, date(s), time(s), and location(s) of the election and the eligibility period; and describe all other issues it intends to raise at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Identification of representative for service of papers.</I> Each individual or labor organization's Statement of Position shall also state the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as its representative and accept service of all papers for purposes of the representation proceeding and be signed by the individual or a representative of the individual or labor organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Employer's Statement of Position.</I> Within the time permitted for filing the Statement of Position, the employer shall file with the Regional Director and serve on the parties named in the petition a list of the full names, work locations, shifts, and job classifications of all individuals in the proposed unit as of the payroll period preceding the filing of the petition who remain employed at the time of filing. The list(s) of names shall be alphabetized (overall or by department) and be in an electronic format approved by the General Counsel unless the employer certifies that it does not possess the capacity to produce the list in the required form. The employer's Statement of Position shall also state whether the employer agrees that the Board has jurisdiction over it and provide the requested information concerning the employer's relation to interstate commerce; identify any individuals whose eligibility to vote the employer intends to contest at the pre-election hearing and the basis of each such contention; and state the length of the payroll period for employees in the proposed unit and the most recent payroll period ending date. The Regional Director may permit the employer to amend its Statement of Position in a timely manner for good cause.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Statement of Position in RD cases</I>—(i) <I>Employer's and Representative's Statements of Position.</I> (A) If a petition has been filed under § 102.61(c) and the Regional Director has issued a Notice of Hearing, the employer and the certified or recognized representative of employees shall file with the Regional Director and serve on the parties named in the petition their respective Statements of Position such that they are received by the Regional Director and the parties named in the petition by the date and time specified in the Notice of Hearing, which shall be at noon on the business day before the opening of the hearing if the hearing is set to open 8 days from service of the notice. The Regional Director may set the date and time for filing and serving the Statement of Position earlier than at noon on the business day before the hearing in the event the hearing is set to open more than 8 days from service of the notice. The Regional Director may postpone the time for filing and serving the Statement of Position for up to 2 business days upon request of a party showing special circumstances. The Regional Director may postpone the time for filing and serving the Statement of Position for more than 2 business days upon request of a party showing extraordinary circumstances. The Regional Director may permit the employer and the certified or recognized representative of employees to amend their respective Statements of Position in a timely manner for good cause.
</P>
<P>(B) The Statements of Position of the employer and the certified or recognized representative shall state each party's position concerning the Board's jurisdiction over the employer; state whether each agrees that the proposed unit is appropriate, and, if not, state the basis for the contention that the proposed unit is inappropriate, and state the classifications, locations, or other employee groupings that must be added to or excluded from the proposed unit to make it an appropriate unit; identify any individuals whose eligibility to vote each party intends to contest at the pre-election hearing and the basis of each such contention; raise any election bar; and state each party's respective positions concerning the type, date(s), time(s), and location(s) of the election and the eligibility period; and describe all other issues each party intends to raise at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(C) The Statements of Position shall also state the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as the representative of the employer or the certified or recognized representative of the employees and accept service of all papers for purposes of the representation proceeding and be signed by a representative of the employer or the certified or recognized representative, respectively.
</P>
<P>(D) The employer's Statement of Position shall also include a list of the full names, work locations, shifts, and job classifications of all individuals in the proposed unit as of the payroll period preceding the filing of the petition who remain employed at the time of filing, and if the employer contends that the proposed unit is inappropriate, the employer shall separately list the full names, work locations, shifts, and job classifications of all individuals that the employer contends must be added to the proposed unit to make it an appropriate unit. The employer shall also indicate those individuals, if any, whom it believes must be excluded from the proposed unit to make it an appropriate unit. The list(s) of names shall be alphabetized (overall or by department) and be in an electronic format approved by the General Counsel unless the employer certifies that it does not possess the capacity to produce the list in the required form. The employer's Statement of Position shall also provide the requested information concerning the employer's relation to interstate commerce and state the length of the payroll period for employees in the proposed unit and the most recent payroll period ending date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>UC or AC cases.</I> After a petition has been filed under § 102.61(d) or (e), the Regional Director shall conduct an investigation and, as appropriate, may issue a decision without a hearing; or prepare and cause to be served upon the parties and upon any known individuals or labor organizations purporting to act as representatives of any employees directly affected by such investigation, a Notice of Hearing before a Hearing Officer at a time and place fixed therein; or take other appropriate action. If a Notice of Hearing is served, it shall be accompanied by a copy of the petition. Any such Notice of Hearing may be amended or withdrawn before the close of the hearing by the Regional Director on the director's own motion. All hearing and post-hearing procedure under this paragraph (c) shall be in conformance with §§ 102.64 through 102.69 whenever applicable, except where the unit or certification involved arises out of an agreement as provided in § 102.62(a), the Regional Director's action shall be final, and the provisions for review of Regional Director's decisions by the Board shall not apply. Dismissals of petitions without a hearing shall not be governed by § 102.71. The Regional Director's dismissal shall be by decision, and a request for review therefrom may be obtained under § 102.67, except where an agreement under § 102.62(a) is involved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 58099, Aug. 25, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.64" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.64   Conduct of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of a hearing conducted under Section 9(c) of the Act is to determine if a question of representation exists. A question of representation exists if a proper petition has been filed concerning a unit appropriate for the purpose of collective bargaining or concerning a unit in which an individual or labor organization has been certified or is being currently recognized by the employer as the bargaining representative. Disputes concerning individuals' eligibility to vote or inclusion in an appropriate unit ordinarily need not be litigated or resolved before an election is conducted. If, upon the record of the hearing, the Regional Director finds that a question of representation exists, the director shall direct an election to resolve the question.
</P>
<P>(b) Hearings shall be conducted by a Hearing Officer and shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the Hearing Officer. At any time, a Hearing Officer may be substituted for the Hearing Officer previously presiding. Subject to the provisions of § 102.66, it shall be the duty of the Hearing Officer to inquire fully into all matters and issues necessary to obtain a full and complete record upon which the Board or the Regional Director may discharge their duties under Section 9(c) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing shall continue from day to day until completed unless the Regional Director concludes that extraordinary circumstances warrant otherwise. The Regional Director may, in the director's discretion, adjourn the hearing to a different place by announcement thereof at the hearing or by other appropriate notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69593, Dec. 18, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 58101, Aug. 25, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.65" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.65   Motions; intervention; appeals of Hearing Officer's rulings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All motions, including motions for intervention pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (e) of this section, shall be in writing or, if made at the hearing, may be stated orally on the record and shall briefly state the order or relief sought and the grounds for such motion. The Motion shall immediately be served on the other parties to the proceeding. Motions made prior to the transfer of the record to the Board shall be filed with the Regional Director, except that motions made during the hearing shall be filed with the Hearing Officer. After the transfer of the record to the Board, all motions shall be filed with the Board. Such motions shall be printed or otherwise legibly duplicated. Eight copies of such motions shall be filed with the Board. Extra copies of electronically-filed papers need not be filed. The Regional Director may rule upon all motions filed with him/her, causing a copy of the ruling to be served on the parties, or may refer the motion to the Hearing Officer, except that if the Regional Director prior to the close of the hearing grants a motion to dismiss the petition, the petitioner may obtain a review of such ruling in the manner prescribed in § 102.71. The Hearing Officer shall rule, either orally on the record or in writing, upon all motions filed at the hearing or referred to the Hearing Officer as hereinabove provided, except that the Hearing Officer shall rule on motions to intervene and to amend the petition only as directed by the Regional Director, and except that all motions to dismiss petitions shall be referred for appropriate action at such time as the entire record is considered by the Regional Director or the Board, as the case may be. All motions, rulings, and orders shall become a part of the record, except that rulings on motions to revoke subpoenas shall become a part of the record only upon the request of the party aggrieved thereby as provided in § 102.66(f).
</P>
<P>(b) Any person desiring to intervene in any proceeding shall make a motion for intervention, stating the grounds upon which such person claims to have an interest in the proceeding. The Regional Director, or the Hearing Officer, at the specific direction of the Regional Director, may by order permit intervention in person or by counsel or other representative to such extent and upon such terms as the Regional Director may deem proper, and such intervenor shall thereupon become a party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Rulings by the Hearing Officer shall not be appealed directly to the Regional Director, except by special permission of the Regional Director, but shall be considered by the Regional Director when the director reviews the entire record. Requests to the Regional Director for special permission to appeal from a ruling of the Hearing Officer, together with the appeal from such ruling, shall be filed promptly, in writing, and shall briefly state the reasons special permission should be granted and the grounds relied on for the appeal. The moving party shall immediately serve a copy of the request for special permission and of the appeal on the other parties and on the Regional Director. Any statement in opposition or other response to the request and/or to the appeal shall be filed promptly, in writing, and shall be served immediately on the other parties and on the Regional Director. No party shall be precluded from raising an issue at a later time because it did not seek special permission to appeal. If the Regional Director grants the request for special permission to appeal, the Regional Director may proceed forthwith to rule on the appeal. Neither the filing nor the grant of such a request shall stay the proceedings unless otherwise ordered by the Regional Director. As stated in § 102.67, the parties may request Board review of Regional Director actions.
</P>
<P>(d) The right to make motions or to make objections to rulings on motions shall not be deemed waived by participation in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A party to a proceeding may, because of extraordinary circumstances, move after the close of the hearing for reopening of the record, or move after the decision or report for reconsideration, for rehearing, or to reopen the record, but no such motion shall stay the time for filing a request for review of a decision or exceptions to a report. No motion for reconsideration, for rehearing, or to reopen the record will be entertained by the Board or by any Regional Director or Hearing Officer with respect to any matter which could have been but was not raised pursuant to any other section of these Rules except that the Regional Director may treat a request for review of a decision or exceptions to a report as a motion for reconsideration. A motion for reconsideration shall state with particularity the material error claimed and with respect to any finding of material fact shall specify the page of the record relied on for the motion. A motion for rehearing or to reopen the record shall specify briefly the error alleged to require a rehearing or hearing de novo, the prejudice to the movant alleged to result from such error, the additional evidence sought to be adduced, why it was not presented previously, and what result it would require if adduced and credited. Only newly discovered evidence—evidence which has become available only since the close of the hearing—or evidence which the Regional Director or the Board believes should have been taken at the hearing will be taken at any further hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion for reconsideration or for rehearing pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall be filed within 10 business days, or such further period as may be allowed, after the service of the decision or report. Any request for an extension of time to file such a motion shall be served promptly on the other parties. A motion to reopen the record shall be filed promptly on discovery of the evidence sought to be adduced.
</P>
<P>(3) The filing and pendency of a motion under this provision shall not unless so ordered operate to stay the effectiveness of any action taken or directed to be taken nor will a Regional Director or the Board delay any decision or action during the period specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, except that, if a motion for reconsideration based on changed circumstances or to reopen the record based on newly discovered evidence states with particularity that the granting thereof will affect the eligibility to vote of specific employees, the Board agent shall have discretion to allow such employees to vote subject to challenge even if they are specifically excluded in the direction of election and to challenge or permit the moving party to challenge the ballots of such employees even if they are specifically included in the direction of election in any election conducted while such motion is pending. A motion for reconsideration, for rehearing, or to reopen the record need not be filed to exhaust administrative remedies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69593, Dec. 18, 2019]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.66" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.66   Introduction of evidence: rights of parties at hearing; preclusion; subpoenas; oral argument and briefs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rights of parties at hearing.</I> Any party shall have the right to appear at any hearing in person, by counsel, or by other representative, to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses, and to introduce into the record evidence of the significant facts that support the party's contentions and are relevant to the existence of a question of representation. The Hearing Officer shall also have power to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses and to introduce into the record documentary and other evidence. Witnesses shall be examined orally under oath. The rules of evidence prevailing in courts of law or equity shall not be controlling. Stipulations of fact may be introduced in evidence with respect to any issue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statements of Position.</I> Issues in dispute shall be identified as follows: After a Statement of Position is received in evidence and prior to the introduction of further evidence, all other parties shall respond on the record to each issue raised in the Statement. The Regional Director may permit any Statement of Position to be amended in a timely manner for good cause, in which event the other parties shall respond to each amended position. The Regional Director may also permit responses to be amended in a timely manner for good cause. The Hearing Officer shall not receive evidence concerning any issue as to which parties have not taken adverse positions, except that this provision shall not preclude the receipt of evidence regarding the Board's jurisdiction over the employer or limit the Regional Director's discretion to direct the receipt of evidence concerning any issue, such as the appropriateness of the proposed unit, as to which the Regional Director determines that record evidence is necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offers of proof.</I> The Regional Director shall direct the Hearing Officer concerning the issues to be litigated at the hearing. The Hearing Officer may solicit offers of proof from the parties or their counsel as to any or all such issues. Offers of proof shall take the form of a written statement or an oral statement on the record identifying each witness the party would call to testify concerning the issue and summarizing each witness's testimony. If the Regional Director determines that the evidence described in an offer of proof is insufficient to sustain the proponent's position, the evidence shall not be received.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preclusion.</I> A party shall be precluded from raising any issue, presenting any evidence relating to any issue, cross-examining any witness concerning any issue, and presenting argument concerning any issue that the party failed to raise in its timely Statement of Position or to place in dispute in response to another party's Statement of Position or response, except that no party shall be precluded from contesting or presenting evidence relevant to the Board's statutory jurisdiction to process the petition. Nor shall any party be precluded, on the grounds that a voter's eligibility or inclusion was not contested at the pre-election hearing, from challenging the eligibility of any voter during the election. If a party contends that the proposed unit is not appropriate in its Statement of Position but fails to specify the classifications, locations, or other employee groupings that must be added to or excluded from the proposed unit to make it an appropriate unit, the party shall also be precluded from raising any issue as to the appropriateness of the unit, presenting any evidence relating to the appropriateness of the unit, cross-examining any witness concerning the appropriateness of the unit, and presenting argument concerning the appropriateness of the unit. If the employer fails to timely furnish the lists of employees described in § 102.63(b)(1)(i)(C), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(3)(i)(D), the employer shall be precluded from contesting the appropriateness of the proposed unit at any time and from contesting the eligibility or inclusion of any individuals at the pre-election hearing, including by presenting evidence or argument, or by cross-examination of witnesses.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Objections.</I> Any objection with respect to the conduct of the hearing, including any objection to the introduction of evidence, may be stated orally or in writing, accompanied by a short statement of the grounds of such objection, and included in the record. No such objection shall be deemed waived by further participation in the hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Subpoenas.</I> The Board, or any Member thereof, shall, on the written application of any party, forthwith issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of any evidence, including books, records, correspondence, or documents, in their possession or under their control. The Executive Secretary shall have the authority to sign and issue any such subpoenas on behalf of the Board or any Member thereof. Any party may file applications for subpoenas in writing with the Regional Director if made prior to hearing, or with the Hearing Officer if made at the hearing. Applications for subpoenas may be made ex parte. The Regional Director or the Hearing Officer, as the case may be, shall forthwith grant the subpoenas requested. Any person served with a subpoena, whether ad testificandum or duces tecum, if he or she does not intend to comply with the subpoena, shall, within 5 business days after the date of service of the subpoena, petition in writing to revoke the subpoena. The date of service for purposes of computing the time for filing a petition to revoke shall be the date the subpoena is received. Such petition shall be filed with the Regional Director who may either rule upon it or refer it for ruling to the Hearing Officer except that if the evidence called for is to be produced at a hearing and the hearing has opened, the petition to revoke shall be filed with the Hearing Officer. Notice of the filing of petitions to revoke shall be promptly given by the Regional Director or Hearing Officer, as the case may be, to the party at whose request the subpoena was issued. The Regional Director or the Hearing Officer, as the case may be, shall revoke the subpoena if, in his/her opinion, the evidence whose production is required does not relate to any matter under investigation or in question in the proceedings or the subpoena does not describe with sufficient particularity the evidence whose production is required, or if for any other reason sufficient in law the subpoena is otherwise invalid. The Regional Director or the Hearing Officer, as the case may be, shall make a simple statement of procedural or other grounds for his/her ruling. The petition to revoke, any answer filed thereto, and any ruling thereon shall not become part of the record except upon the request of the party aggrieved by the ruling. Persons compelled to submit data or evidence are entitled to retain or, on payment of lawfully prescribed costs, to procure copies or transcripts of the data or evidence submitted by them.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Election details.</I> Prior to the close of the hearing, the Hearing Officer will:
</P>
<P>(1) Solicit the parties' positions on the type, date(s), time(s), and location(s) of the election and the eligibility period, but shall not permit litigation of those issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Solicit the name, address, email address, facsimile number, and phone number of the employer's on-site representative to whom the Regional Director should transmit the Notice of Election in the event the Regional Director directs an election;
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the parties that the Regional Director will issue a decision as soon as practicable and that the director will immediately transmit the document to the parties and their designated representatives by email, facsimile, or by overnight mail (if neither an email address nor facsimile number was provided); and
</P>
<P>(4) Inform the parties what their obligations will be under these Rules if the director directs an election and of the time for complying with such obligations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Oral argument and briefs.</I> Any party shall be entitled, upon request, to a reasonable period at the close of the hearing for oral argument, which shall be included in the stenographic report of the hearing. Post-hearing briefs shall be filed only upon special permission of the Regional Director and within the time and addressing the subjects permitted by the Regional Director. Copies of the brief shall be served on all other parties to the proceeding and a statement of such service shall be filed with the Regional Director together with the brief. No reply brief may be filed except upon special permission of the Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hearing Officer analysis.</I> The Hearing Officer may submit an analysis of the record to the Regional Director but shall make no recommendations.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Witness fees.</I> Witness fees and mileage shall be paid by the party at whose instance the witness appears.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69594, Dec. 18, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 58101, Aug. 25, 2023; 89 FR 25806, Apr. 12, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.67" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.67   Proceedings before the Regional Director; further hearing; action by the Regional Director; appeals from actions of the Regional Director; statement in opposition; requests for extraordinary relief; Notice of Election; voter list.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proceedings before Regional Director.</I> The Regional Director may proceed, either forthwith upon the record or after oral argument, the submission of briefs, or further hearing, as the director may deem proper, to determine whether a question of representation exists in a unit appropriate for purposes of collective bargaining as provided in § 102.64(a), and to direct an election, dismiss the petition, or make other disposition of the matter. A decision by the Regional Director upon the record shall set forth the director's findings, conclusions, and order or direction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Directions of elections.</I> If the Regional Director directs an election, the direction ordinarily will specify the type, date(s), time(s), and location(s) of the election and the eligibility period. The Regional Director shall schedule the election for the earliest date practicable consistent with these Rules. The Regional Director shall transmit the direction of election to the parties and their designated representatives by email, facsimile, or by overnight mail (if neither an email address nor facsimile number was provided). The Regional Director shall also transmit the Board's Notice of Election to the parties and their designated representatives by email, facsimile, or by overnight mail (if neither an email address nor facsimile number was provided), and it will ordinarily be transmitted simultaneously with the direction of election. If the direction of election provides for individuals to vote subject to challenge because their eligibility has not been determined, the Notice of Election shall so state, and shall advise employees that the individuals are neither included in, nor excluded from, the bargaining unit, inasmuch as they have been permitted to vote subject to challenge. The election notice shall further advise employees that the eligibility or inclusion of the individuals will be resolved, if necessary, following the election.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for Board review of Regional Director actions.</I> Upon the filing of a request therefor with the Board by any interested person, the Board may review any action of a Regional Director delegated to him/her under Section 3(b) of the Act except as the Board's Rules provide otherwise, but such a review shall not, unless specifically ordered by the Board, operate as a stay of any action by the Regional Director. The request for review may be filed at any time following the action until 10 business days after a final disposition of the proceeding by the Regional Director. No party shall be precluded from filing a request for review of the direction of election within the time provided in this paragraph because it did not file a request for review of the direction of election prior to the election.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grounds for review.</I> The Board will grant a request for review only where compelling reasons exist therefor. Accordingly, a request for review may be granted only upon one or more of the following grounds:
</P>
<P>(1) That a substantial question of law or policy is raised because of:
</P>
<P>(i) The absence of; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A departure from, officially reported Board precedent.
</P>
<P>(2) That the Regional Director's decision on a substantial factual issue is clearly erroneous on the record and such error prejudicially affects the rights of a party.
</P>
<P>(3) That the conduct of any hearing or any ruling made in connection with the proceeding has resulted in prejudicial error.
</P>
<P>(4) That there are compelling reasons for reconsideration of an important Board rule or policy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request for review must be a self-contained document enabling the Board to rule on the basis of its contents without the necessity of recourse to the record; however, the Board may, in its discretion, examine the record in evaluating the request. With respect to the ground listed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, and other grounds where appropriate, the request must contain a summary of all evidence or rulings bearing on the issues together with page citations from the transcript and a summary of argument. Such request may not raise any issue or allege any facts not timely presented to the Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Opposition to request.</I> Any party may, within 5 business days after the last day on which the request for review must be filed, file with the Board a statement in opposition which shall be served in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (i) of this section. The Board may grant or deny the request for review without awaiting a statement in opposition. No reply to the opposition may be filed except upon special leave of the Board.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Finality; waiver; denial of request.</I> The Regional Director's actions are final unless a request for review is granted. The parties may, at any time, waive their right to request review. Failure to request review shall preclude such parties from relitigating, in any related subsequent unfair labor practice proceeding, any issue which was, or could have been, raised in the representation proceeding. Denial of a request for review shall constitute an affirmance of the Regional Director's action which shall also preclude relitigating any such issues in any related subsequent unfair labor practice proceeding.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Grant of review; briefs.</I> The grant of a request for review shall not stay the Regional Director's action unless otherwise ordered by the Board. Except where the Board rules upon the issues on review in the order granting review, the appellants and other parties may, within 10 business days after issuance of an order granting review, file briefs with the Board. Such briefs may be reproductions of those previously filed with the Regional Director and/or other briefs which shall be limited to the issues raised in the request for review. No reply briefs may be filed except upon special leave of the Board. Where review has been granted, the Board may provide for oral argument or further hearing. The Board will consider the entire record in the light of the grounds relied on for review and shall make such disposition of the matter as it deems appropriate. Any request for review may be withdrawn with the permission of the Board at any time prior to the issuance of the decision of the Board thereon.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Format, Service, and Extensions</I>—(1) <I>Format of request.</I> All documents filed with the Board under the provisions of this section shall be double spaced, on 8 1/2- by 11-inch paper, and shall be printed or otherwise legibly duplicated. Extra copies of electronically-filed papers need not be filed. Requests for review, including briefs in support thereof and any motions under paragraph (j) of this section; statements in opposition thereto; and briefs on review shall not exceed 50 pages in length exclusive of subject index and table of cases and other authorities cited, unless permission to exceed that limit is obtained from the Board by motion, setting forth the reasons therefor, filed pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 102.2(c). Where any brief filed pursuant to this section exceeds 20 pages, it shall contain a subject index with page references and an alphabetical table of cases and other authorities cited. A party may combine a request for review of the Regional Director's decision and direction of election with a request for review of a Regional Director's post-election decision, if the party has not previously filed a request for review of the pre-election decision. A party may not, however, file more than one request for review of a particular action or decision by the Regional Director. Repetitive requests will not be considered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service.</I> The party filing with the Board a request for review, a statement in opposition to a request for review, or a brief on review shall serve a copy thereof on the other parties and shall file a copy with the Regional Director. A certificate of service shall be filed with the Board together with the document.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extensions.</I> Requests for extensions of time to file requests for review, statements in opposition to a request for review, or briefs, as permitted by this section, shall be filed pursuant to § 102.2(c) with the Board or the Regional Director, as the case may be. The party filing the request for an extension of time shall serve a copy thereof on the other parties and, if filed with the Board, on the Regional Director. A statement of such service shall be filed with the document.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Requests for extraordinary relief.</I> (1) A party requesting review may also move in writing to the Board for one or more of the following forms of relief:
</P>
<P>(i) Expedited consideration of the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) A stay of some or all of the proceedings, including the election; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Impoundment and/or segregation of some or all of the ballots.
</P>
<P>(2) Relief will be granted only upon a clear showing that it is necessary under the particular circumstances of the case. The pendency of a motion does not entitle a party to interim relief, and an affirmative ruling by the Board granting relief is required before the action of the Regional Director will be altered in any fashion.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notice of Election.</I> The employer shall post copies of the Board's Notice of Election in conspicuous places, including all places where notices to employees in the unit are customarily posted, at least 3 full working days prior to 12:01 a.m. of the day of the election and shall also distribute it electronically to all eligible voters (including individuals permitted to vote subject to challenge) if the employer customarily communicates with employees in the unit electronically. In elections involving mail ballots, the election shall be deemed to have commenced the day the ballots are deposited by the Regional Office in the mail. In all cases, the notices shall remain posted until the end of the election. For the purposes of this subpart, the term working day shall mean an entire 24-hour period excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays. The employer's failure properly to post or distribute the election notices as required herein shall be grounds for setting aside the election whenever proper and timely objections are filed under the provisions of § 102.69(a)(8). A party shall be estopped from objecting to the nonposting of notices if it is responsible for the nonposting, and likewise shall be estopped from objecting to the nondistribution of notices if it is responsible for the nondistribution.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Voter list.</I> Absent extraordinary circumstances specified in the direction of election, the employer shall, within 2 business days after issuance of the direction, provide to the Regional Director and the parties named in such direction a list of the full names, work locations, shifts, job classifications, and contact information (including home addresses, available personal email addresses, and available home and personal cellular “cell” telephone numbers) of all eligible voters. The employer shall also include in separate sections of that list the same information for those individuals who will be permitted to vote subject to challenge. In order to be timely filed and served, the list must be received by the Regional Director and the parties named in the direction respectively within 2 business days after issuance of the direction of election unless a longer time is specified therein. The list of names shall be alphabetized (overall or by department) and be in an electronic format approved by the General Counsel unless the employer certifies that it does not possess the capacity to produce the list in the required form. When feasible, the list shall be filed electronically with the Regional Director and served electronically on the other parties named in the direction. A certificate of service on all parties shall be filed with the Regional Director when the voter list is filed. The employer's failure to file or serve the list within the specified time or in proper format shall be grounds for setting aside the election whenever proper and timely objections are filed under the provisions of § 102.69(a)(8). The employer shall be estopped from objecting to the failure to file or serve the list within the specified time or in the proper format if it is responsible for the failure. The parties shall not use the list for purposes other than the representation proceeding, Board proceedings arising from it, and related matters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69595, Dec. 18, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 14912, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 58101, Aug. 25, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.68" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.68   Record in pre-election proceeding; what constitutes; transmission to Board.</HEAD>
<P>The record in a proceeding conducted pursuant to the foregoing section shall consist of: the petition, Notice of Hearing with affidavit of service thereof, statements of position, responses to statements of position, offers of proof made at the pre-election hearing, motions, rulings, orders, the stenographic report of the hearing and of any oral argument before the Regional Director, stipulations, exhibits, affidavits of service, and any briefs or other legal memoranda submitted by the parties to the Regional Director or to the Board, and the decision of the Regional Director, if any. Immediately upon issuance of an order granting a request for review by the Board, the Regional Director shall transmit the record to the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69597, Dec. 18, 2019]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.69" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.69   Election procedure; tally of ballots; objections; certification by the Regional Director; hearings; Hearing Officer reports on objections and challenges; exceptions to Hearing Officer reports; Regional Director decisions on objections and challenges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Election procedure; tally; objections.</I> (1) Unless otherwise directed by the Board, all elections shall be conducted under the supervision of the Regional Director in whose Region the proceeding is pending.
</P>
<P>(2) All elections shall be by secret ballot.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever two or more labor organizations are included as choices in an election, either participant may, upon its prompt request to and approval thereof by the Regional Director, whose decision shall be final, have its name removed from the ballot, except that in a proceeding involving an employer-filed petition or a petition for decertification the labor organization certified, currently recognized, or found to be seeking recognition may not have its name removed from the ballot without giving timely notice in writing to all parties and the Regional Director, disclaiming any representation interest among the employees in the unit.
</P>
<P>(4) A pre-election conference may be held at which the parties may check the list of voters and attempt to resolve any questions of eligibility or inclusions in the unit.
</P>
<P>(5) When the election is conducted manually, any party may be represented by observers of its own selection, subject to such limitations as the Regional Director may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(6) Any party and Board agents may challenge, for good cause, the eligibility of any person to participate in the election. The ballots of such challenged persons shall be impounded.
</P>
<P>(7) Upon the conclusion of the election the ballots will be counted and a tally of ballots prepared and immediately made available to the parties.
</P>
<P>(8) Within 5 business days after the tally of ballots has been prepared, any party may file with the Regional Director objections to the conduct of the election or to conduct affecting the results of the election which shall contain a short statement of the reasons therefor and a written offer of proof in the form described in § 102.66(c) insofar as applicable, except that the Regional Director may extend the time for filing the written offer of proof in support of the election objections upon request of a party showing good cause. Such filing(s) must be timely whether or not the challenged ballots are sufficient in number to affect the results of the election. The party filing the objections shall serve a copy of the objections, including the short statement of reasons therefor, but not the written offer of proof, on each of the other parties to the case, and include a certificate of such service with the objections. A person filing objections by facsimile pursuant to § 102.5(e) shall also file an original for the Agency's records, but failure to do so shall not affect the validity of the filing if otherwise proper. In addition, extra copies need not be filed if the filing is by facsimile or electronically pursuant to § 102.5(e) or (c). The Regional Director will transmit a copy of the objections to be served on each of the other parties to the proceeding, but shall not transmit the offer of proof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification in the absence of objections, determinative challenges and runoff elections.</I> If no objections are filed within the time set forth in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, if the challenged ballots are insufficient in number to affect the results of the election, and if no runoff election is to be held pursuant to § 102.70, the Regional Director shall forthwith issue to the parties a certification of the results of the election, including certification of representative where appropriate, with the same force and effect as if issued by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regional director's resolution of objections and challenges</I>—(1) <I>Regional director's determination to hold a hearing</I>—(i) <I>Decisions resolving objections and challenges without a hearing.</I> If timely objections are filed to the conduct of an election or to conduct affecting the results of the election, and the Regional Director determines that the evidence described in the accompanying offer of proof would not constitute grounds for setting aside the election if introduced at a hearing, and the Regional Director determines that any determinative challenges do not raise substantial and material factual issues, the Regional Director shall issue a decision disposing of the objections and determinative challenges, and a certification of the results of the election, including certification of representative where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notices of hearing on objections and challenges.</I> If timely objections are filed to the conduct of the election or to conduct affecting the results of the election, and the Regional Director determines that the evidence described in the accompanying offer of proof could be grounds for setting aside the election if introduced at a hearing, or if the challenged ballots are sufficient in number to affect the results of the election, and raise substantial and material factual issues, the Regional Director shall transmit to the parties and their designated representatives by email, facsimile, or by overnight mail (if neither an email address nor facsimile number was provided) a Notice of Hearing before a Hearing Officer at a place and time fixed therein. The Regional Director shall set the hearing for a date 15 business days after the preparation of the tally of ballots or as soon as practicable thereafter, unless the parties agree to an earlier date, except that the Regional Director may consolidate the hearing concerning objections and challenges with an unfair labor practice proceeding before an Administrative Law Judge. In any proceeding wherein the election has been held pursuant to § 102.62(a) or (c) and the representation case has been consolidated with an unfair labor practice proceeding for purposes of hearing, the Administrative Law Judge shall, after issuing a decision, sever the representation case and transfer it to the Regional Director for further processing.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Hearings; Hearing Officer reports; exceptions to Regional Director.</I> The hearing on objections and challenges shall continue from day to day until completed unless the Regional Director concludes that extraordinary circumstances warrant otherwise. Any hearing pursuant to this section shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of §§ 102.64, 102.65, and 102.66, insofar as applicable. Any party shall have the right to appear at the hearing in person, by counsel, or by other representative, to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses, and to introduce into the record evidence of the significant facts that support the party's contentions and are relevant to the objections and determinative challenges that are the subject of the hearing. The Hearing Officer may rule on offers of proof. Post-hearing briefs shall be filed only upon special permission of the Hearing Officer and within the time and addressing the subjects permitted by the Hearing Officer. Upon the close of such hearing, the Hearing Officer shall prepare and cause to be served on the parties a report resolving questions of credibility and containing findings of fact and recommendations as to the disposition of the issues. Any party may, within 10 business days from the date of issuance of such report, file with the Regional Director an original and one copy of exceptions to such report, with supporting brief if desired. A copy of such exceptions, together with a copy of any brief filed, shall immediately be served on the other parties and a statement of service filed with the Regional Director. Within 5 business days from the last date on which exceptions and any supporting brief may be filed, or such further time as the Regional Director may allow, a party opposing the exceptions may file an answering brief with the Regional Director. An original and one copy shall be submitted. A copy of such answering brief shall immediately be served on the other parties and a statement of service filed with the Regional Director. Extra copies of electronically-filed papers need not be filed. The Regional Director shall thereupon decide the matter upon the record or make other disposition of the case. If no exceptions are filed to such report, the Regional Director, upon the expiration of the period for filing such exceptions, may decide the matter forthwith upon the record or may make other disposition of the case.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regional Director decisions and Board review.</I> The decision of the Regional Director disposing of challenges and/or objections may include a certification of the results of the election, including certification of representative where appropriate, and shall be final unless a request for review is granted. If a consent election has been held pursuant to §§ 102.62(a) or (c), the decision of the Regional Director is not subject to Board review. If the election has been conducted pursuant to § 102.62(b), or by a direction of election issued following any proceeding under § 102.67, the parties shall have the right to Board review set forth in § 102.67, except that in any proceeding wherein a representation case has been consolidated with an unfair labor practice proceeding for purposes of hearing and the election was conducted pursuant to §§ 102.62(b) or 102.67, the provisions of § 102.46 shall govern with respect to the filing of exceptions or an answering brief to the exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's decision, and a request for review of the Regional Director's decision and direction of election shall be due at the same time as the exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's decision are due.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record for objections and challenges.</I> (1)(i) <I>Record in case with hearing.</I> In a proceeding pursuant to this section in which a hearing is held, the record in the case shall consist of the Notice of Hearing, motions, rulings, orders, stenographic report of the hearing, stipulations, exhibits, together with the objections to the conduct of the election or to conduct affecting the results of the election, offers of proof made at the post-election hearing, any briefs or other legal memoranda submitted by the parties, any report on such objections and/or on challenged ballots, exceptions, the decision of the Regional Director, any requests for review, and the record previously made as defined in § 102.68. Materials other than those set out above shall not be a part of the record.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Record in case with no hearing.</I> In a proceeding pursuant to this section in which no hearing is held, the record shall consist of the objections to the conduct of the election or to conduct affecting the results of the election, any decision on objections or on challenged ballots and any request for review of such a decision, any documentary evidence, excluding statements of witnesses, relied upon by the Regional Director in his decision, any briefs or other legal memoranda submitted by the parties, and any other motions, rulings, or orders of the Regional Director. Materials other than those set out above shall not be a part of the record, except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Immediately upon issuance of an order granting a request for review by the Board, the Regional Director shall transmit to the Board the record of the proceeding as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In a proceeding pursuant to this section in which no hearing is held, a party filing a request for review of a Regional Director's decision on challenged ballots or on objections or on both, or any opposition thereto, may support its submission to the Board by appending thereto copies of any offer of proof, including copies of any affidavits or other documentary evidence, it has timely submitted to the Regional Director and which were not included in the decision. Documentary evidence so appended shall thereupon become part of the record in the proceeding. Failure to append that evidence to its submission to the Board in the representation proceeding as provided above, shall preclude a party from relying on such evidence in any subsequent unfair labor proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Revised tally of ballots.</I> In any case under this section in which the Regional Director or the Board, upon a ruling on challenged ballots, has directed that such ballots be opened and counted and a revised tally of ballots issued, and no objection to such revised tally is filed by any party within 5 business days after the revised tally of ballots has been made available, the Regional Director shall forthwith issue to the parties certification of the results of the election, including certifications of representative where appropriate, with the same force and effect as if issued by the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Format of filings with Regional Director.</I> All documents filed with the Regional Director under the provisions of this section shall be filed double spaced, on 8
<FR>1/2</FR>- by 11-inch paper, and shall be printed or otherwise legibly duplicated. Extra copies of electronically-filed papers need not be filed. Briefs in support of exceptions or answering briefs shall not exceed 50 pages in length, exclusive of subject index and table of cases and other authorities cited, unless permission to exceed that limit is obtained from the Regional Director by motion, setting forth the reasons therefor, filed pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 102.2(c). Where any brief filed pursuant to this section exceeds 20 pages, it shall contain a subject index with page references and an alphabetical table of cases and other authorities cited.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Extensions of time.</I> Requests for extensions of time to file exceptions, requests for review, supporting briefs, or answering briefs, as permitted by this section, shall be filed pursuant to § 102.2(c) with the Board or the Regional Director, as the case may be. The party filing the request for an extension of time shall serve a copy thereof on the other parties and, if filed with the Board, on the Regional Director. A statement of such service shall be filed with the document.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Final Disposition.</I> For the purposes of filing a request for review pursuant to § 102.67(c) or to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a case is considered to have reached final disposition when the Regional Director dismisses the petition or issues a certification of results (including, where appropriate, a certification of representative).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69597, Dec. 18, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 14912, Mar. 10, 2023; 88 FR 58101, Aug. 25, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.70" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.70   Runoff election.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regional director shall conduct a runoff election, without further order of the Board, when an election in which the ballot provided for not less than three choices (i.e., at least two representatives and “neither”) results in no choice receiving a majority of the valid ballots cast and no objections are filed as provided in § 102.69. Only one runoff shall be held pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees who were eligible to vote in the election and who are in an eligible category on the date of the runoff election shall be eligible to vote in the runoff election.
</P>
<P>(c) The ballot in the runoff election shall provide for a selection between the two choices receiving the largest and second largest number of votes.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event the number of votes cast in an inconclusive election in which the ballot provided for a choice among two or more representatives and “neither” or “none” is equally divided among the several choices; or in the event the number of ballots cast for one choice in such election is equal to the number cast for another of the choices but less than the number cast for the third choice, the regional director shall declare the first election a nullity and shall conduct another election, providing for a selection from among the three choices afforded in the original ballot; and he shall thereafter proceed in accordance with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section. In the event two or more choices receive the same number of ballots and another choice receives no ballots and there are no challenged ballots that would affect the results of the election, and if all eligible voters have cast valid ballots, there shall be no runoff election and a certification of results of election shall be issued. Only one such further election pursuant to this paragraph may be held.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon the conclusion of the runoff election, the provisions of § 102.69 shall govern, insofar as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 3891, May 4, 1961]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.71" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.71   Dismissal of petition; refusal to proceed with petition; requests for review by the Board of action of the Regional Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after a petition has been filed and at any time prior to the close of hearing, it shall appear to the Regional Director that no further proceedings are warranted, the Regional Director may dismiss the petition by administrative action and shall so advise the petitioner in writing, setting forth a simple statement of the procedural or other grounds for the dismissal, with copies to the other parties to the proceeding. Any party may obtain a review of such action by filing a request therefor with the Board in Washington, DC, in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section. A request for review from an action of a Regional Director pursuant to this subsection may be granted only upon one or more of the following grounds:
</P>
<P>(1) That a substantial question of law or policy is raised because of:
</P>
<P>(i) The absence of; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A departure from, officially reported Board precedent.
</P>
<P>(2) There are compelling reasons for reconsideration of an important Board rule or policy.
</P>
<P>(3) The request for review is accompanied by documentary evidence previously submitted to the Regional Director raising serious doubts as to the Regional Director's factual findings, thus indicating that there are factual issues which can best be resolved upon the basis of the record developed at a hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) The Regional Director's action is, on its face, arbitrary or capricious.
</P>
<P>(5) The petition raises issues which can best be resolved upon the basis of a record developed at a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Regional Director dismisses a petition or directs that the proceeding on the petition be held in abeyance, and such action is taken because of the pendency of concurrent unresolved charges of unfair labor practices, and the Regional Director, upon request, has so notified the parties in writing, any party may obtain a review of the Regional Director's action by filing a request therefor with the Board in Washington, DC, in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section. A review of an action of a Regional Director pursuant to this subsection may be granted only upon one or more of the following grounds:
</P>
<P>(1) That a substantial question of law or policy is raised because of:
</P>
<P>(i) The absence of; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A departure from, officially reported Board precedent.
</P>
<P>(2) There are compelling reasons for reconsideration of an important Board rule or policy.
</P>
<P>(3) The Regional Director's action is, on its face, arbitrary or capricious.
</P>
<P>(c) A request for review must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC, and a copy filed with the Regional Director and copies served on all the other parties within 10 business days of service of the notice of dismissal or notification that the petition is to be held in abeyance. The request shall contain a complete statement setting forth facts and reasons upon which the request is based. The request shall be printed or otherwise legibly duplicated. Extra copies of electronically-filed papers need not be filed. The request must comply with the formatting requirements set forth in § 102.67(i)(1). Requests for an extension of time within which to file the request for review shall be filed pursuant to § 102.2(c) with the Board in Washington, DC, and a certificate of service shall accompany the requests.
</P>
<P>(d) Any party may, within 5 business days after the last day on which the request for review must be filed, file with the Board a statement in opposition to the request for review. An opposition must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC, and a copy filed with the Regional Direction and copies served on all the other parties. The opposition must comply with the formatting requirements set forth in § 102.67(i)(1). Requests for an extension of time within which to file the opposition shall be filed pursuant to § 102.2(c) with the Board in Washington, DC, and a certificate of service shall accompany the requests. The Board may grant or deny the request for review without awaiting a statement in opposition. No reply to the opposition may be filed except upon special leave of the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 69599, Dec. 18, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.72" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.72   Filing petition with general counsel: investigation upon motion of general counsel; transfer of petition and proceeding from region to general counsel or to another region; consolidation of proceedings in same region; severance; procedure before general counsel in cases over which the general counsel has assumed jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever it appears necessary in order to effectuate the purposes of the Act, or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, the General Counsel may permit a petition to be filed with him/her in Washington, DC, or may, at any time after a petition has been filed with a Regional Director pursuant to § 102.60, order that such petition and any proceeding that may have been instituted with respect thereto:
</P>
<P>(1) Be transferred to and continued before him/her, for the purpose of investigation or consolidation with any other proceeding which may have been instituted in a Regional Office or with him/her; or
</P>
<P>(2) Be consolidated with any other proceeding which may have been instituted in the same region; or
</P>
<P>(3) Be transferred to and continued in any other region, for the purpose of investigation or consolidation with any proceeding which may have been instituted in or transferred to such region; or
</P>
<P>(4) Be severed from any other proceeding with which it may have been consolidated pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of §§ 102.60 to 102.71, inclusive, shall, insofar as applicable, apply to proceedings before the general counsel pursuant to this section, and the powers granted to regional directors in such provisions shall, for the purpose of this section, be reserved to and exercised by the general counsel. After the transfer of any petition and any proceeding which may have been instituted in respect thereto from one region to another pursuant to this section, the provisions of this subpart shall, insofar as applicable, govern such petition and such proceedings as if the petition has originally been filed in the region to which the transfer was made.
</P>
<P>(c) The Regional Director may exercise the powers in paragraphs (a)(2) and (4) of this section with respect to proceedings pending in his/her Region.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 9550, July 1, 1967, as amended at 82 FR 43698, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Procedure for Unfair Labor Practice and Representation Cases Under Sections 8(b)(7) and 9(c) of the Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959. Redesignated at 82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.73" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.73   Initiation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever it is charged that any person has engaged in an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(b)(7) of the Act, the Regional Director will investigate such charge, giving it the priority specified in subpart H of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11764, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.74" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.74   Complaint and formal proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>If it appears to the Regional Director that the charge has merit, formal proceedings will be instituted in accordance with the procedures described in §§ 102.15 through 102.51, insofar as they are applicable, and insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of this subpart. If it appears to the Regional Director that issuance of a complaint is not warranted, the Director will decline to issue a complaint, and the provisions of § 102.19, including the provisions for appeal to the General Counsel, are applicable unless an election has been directed under §§ 102.77 and 102.78, in which event the provisions of § 102.81 are applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11764, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.75" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.75   Suspension of proceedings on the charge where timely petition is filed.</HEAD>
<P>If it appears to the Regional Director that issuance of a complaint may be warranted but for the pendency of a petition under Section 9(c) of the Act, which has been filed by any proper party within a reasonable time not to exceed 30 days from the commencement of picketing, the Regional Director will suspend proceedings on the charge and will proceed to investigate the petition under the expedited procedure provided below, pursuant to the first proviso to subparagraph (C) of Section 8(b)(7) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11764, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.76" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.76   Petition; who may file; where to file; contents.</HEAD>
<P>When picketing of an employer has been conducted for an object proscribed by Section 8(b)(7) of the Act, a petition for the determination of a question concerning representation of the employees of such employer may be filed in accordance with the provisions of §§ 102.60 and 102.61, insofar as applicable, except that if a charge under § 102.73 has been filed against the labor organization on whose behalf picketing has been conducted, the petition will not be required to contain a statement that the employer declines to recognize the petitioner as the representative within the meaning of Section 9(a) of the Act; or that the union represents a substantial number of employees; or that the labor organization is currently recognized but desires certification under the Act; or that the individuals or labor organizations who have been certified or are currently recognized by the employer are no longer the representative; or, if the petitioner is an employer, that one or more individuals or labor organizations have presented to the petitioner a claim to be recognized as the exclusive representative of the employees in the unit claimed to be appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11764, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.77" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.77   Investigation of petition by Regional Director; directed election.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a petition has been filed pursuant to § 102.76 the regional director shall make an investigation of the matters and allegations set forth therein. Any party, and any individual or labor organization purporting to act as representative of the employees involved and any labor organization on whose behalf picketing has been conducted as described in section 8(b)(7)(C) of the Act may present documentary and other evidence relating to the matters and allegations set forth in the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) If, after the investigation of such petition or any petition filed under subpart D of this part, and after the investigation of the charge filed pursuant to § 102.73, it appears to the Regional Director that an expedited election under Section 8(b)(7)(C) of the Act is warranted, and that the policies of the Act would be effectuated thereby, the Regional Director shall forthwith proceed to conduct an election by secret ballot of the employees in an appropriate unit, or make other disposition of the matter, except that in any case in which it appears to the Regional Director that the proceeding raises questions which cannot be decided without a hearing, the Director may issue and cause to be served on the parties, individuals, and labor organizations involved a Notice of Hearing before a Hearing Officer at a time and place fixed therein. In this event, the method of conducting the hearing and the procedure following, shall be governed insofar as applicable by §§ 102.63 through 102.68.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959, as amended at 26 FR 3892, May 4, 1961; 76 FR 80188, Dec. 22, 2011; 79 FR 3494, Jan. 22, 2014; 79 FR 74488, Dec. 15, 2014; 82 FR 11765, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.78" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.78   Election procedure; method of conducting balloting; postballoting procedure.</HEAD>
<P>If no agreement such as that provided in § 102.79 has been made, the regional director shall fix the time and place of the election, eligibility requirements for voting, and other arrangements for the balloting. The method of conducting the balloting and the postballoting procedure shall be governed, insofar as applicable, by the provisions of §§ 102.69 and 102.70 except that the labor organization on whose behalf picketing has been conducted may not have its name removed from the ballot without the consent of the regional director and except that the regional director's rulings on any objections or challenged ballots shall be final unless the Board grants special permission to appeal from the regional director's rulings. Any request for such permission shall be filed promptly, in writing, and shall briefly state the grounds relied upon. The party requesting review shall immediately serve a copy thereof on each other party. A request for review shall not operate as a stay of the regional director's rulings unless so ordered by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.79" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.79   Consent-election agreements.</HEAD>
<P>Where a petition has been duly filed, the parties involved may, subject to the approval of the regional director, enter into an agreement governing the method of conducting the election as provided for in § 102.62(a), insofar as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.80" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.80   Dismissal of petition; refusal to process petition under expedited procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after a petition has been filed pursuant to the provisions of § 102.76, and prior to the close of the hearing, it shall appear to the regional director that further proceedings in respect thereto in accordance with the provisions of § 102.77 are not warranted, he may dismiss the petition by administrative action, and the action of the regional director shall be final, subject to a prompt appeal to the Board on special permission which may be granted by the Board. Upon such appeal the provisions of § 102.71 shall govern insofar as applicable. Such appeal shall not operate as a stay unless specifically ordered by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) If it shall appear to the regional director that an expedited election is not warranted but that proceedings under subpart C of this part are warranted, he/she shall so notify the parties in writing with a simple statement of the grounds for his/her decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the regional director, pursuant to §§ 102.77 and 102.78, has determined that a hearing prior to election is not required to resolve the issues raised by the petition and has directed an expedited election, any party aggrieved may file a request with the Board for special permission to appeal from such determination. Such request shall be filed promptly, in writing, and shall briefly state the grounds relied upon. The party requesting such appeal shall immediately serve a copy thereof on each other party. Should the Board grant the requested permission to appeal, such action shall not, unless specifically ordered by the Board, operate as a stay of any action by the regional director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959, as amended at 26 FR 3892, May 4, 1961; 82 FR 43699, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.81" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.81   Review by the general counsel of refusal to proceed on charge; resumption of proceedings upon charge held during pendency of petition; review by the general counsel of refusal to proceed on related charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where an election has been directed by the Regional Director or the Board in accordance with the provisions of §§ 102.77 and 102.78, the Regional Director shall decline to issue a complaint on the charge, and he/she shall so advise the parties in writing, accompanied by a simple statement of the procedural or other grounds for his/her action. The person making the charge may obtain a review of such action by filing an appeal with the general counsel in Washington, DC, and filing a copy of the appeal with the regional director, within 7 days from the service of the notice of such refusal by the regional director. In all other respects the appeal shall be subject to the provisions of § 102.19. Such appeal shall not operate as a stay of any action by the regional director.
</P>
<P>(b) Where an election has not been directed and the petition has been dismissed in accordance with the provisions of § 102.80, the regional director shall resume investigation of the charge and shall proceed in accordance with § 102.74.
</P>
<P>(c) If in connection with an 8(b)(7) proceeding, unfair labor practice charges under other sections of the Act have been filed and the Regional Director upon investigation has declined to issue a complaint upon such charges, he/she shall so advise the parties in writing, accompanied by a simple statement of the procedural or other grounds for his/her action. The person making such charges may obtain a review of such action by filing an appeal with the general counsel in Washington, DC, and filing a copy of the appeal with the regional director, within 7 days from the service of the notice of such refusal by the regional director. In all other respects the appeal shall be subject to the provisions of § 102.19.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 9550, July 1, 1967, as amended at 51 FR 23749, July 1, 1986; 82 FR 43699, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.82" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.82   Transfer, consolidation, and severance.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of §§ 102.33 and 102.72, respecting the filing of a charge or petition with the general counsel and the transfer, consolidation, and severance of proceedings, shall apply to proceedings under this subpart, except that the provisions of §§ 102.73 to 102.81, inclusive, shall govern proceedings before the general counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Procedure for Referendum Under Section 9(e) of the Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959. Redesignated at 82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.83" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.83   Petition for referendum under Section 9(e)(1) of the Act; who may file; where to file; withdrawal.</HEAD>
<P>A petition to rescind the authority of a labor organization to make an agreement requiring as a condition of employment membership in such labor organization may be filed by an employee or group of employees on behalf of 30 percent or more of the employees in a bargaining unit covered by such an agreement. The petition shall be in writing and signed, and either must be sworn to before a notary public, Board agent, or other person duly authorized by law to administer oaths and take acknowledgments or must contain a declaration by the person signing it, under the penalties of the Criminal Code, that its contents are true and correct to the best of his/her knowledge and belief. One original of the petition must be filed with the Regional Director wherein the bargaining unit exists or, if the unit exists in two or more Regions, with the Regional Director for any of such Regions. A person filing a petition by facsimile must also file an original for the Agency's records, but failure to do so must not affect the validity of the filing by facsimile, if otherwise proper. A person filing a petition electronically need not file an original. The petition may be withdrawn only with the approval of the Regional Director with whom such petition was filed. Upon approval of the withdrawal of any petition the case will be closed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11765, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 82 FR 43699, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.84" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.84   Contents of petition to rescind authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The name of the employer.
</P>
<P>(b) The address of the establishments involved.
</P>
<P>(c) The general nature of the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(d) A description of the bargaining unit involved.
</P>
<P>(e) The name and address of the labor organization whose authority it is desired to rescind.
</P>
<P>(f) The number of employees in the unit.
</P>
<P>(g) Whether there is a strike or picketing in progress at the establishment involved and, if so, the approximate number of employees participating, and the date such strike or picketing commenced.
</P>
<P>(h) The date of execution and of expiration of any contract in effect covering the unit involved.
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the petitioner, and the name, title, address, telephone number, facsimile number, and email address of the individual who will serve as the representative of the petitioner and accept service of all papers for purposes of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(j) A statement that 30 percent or more of the bargaining unit employees covered by an agreement between their employer and a labor organization made pursuant to Section 8(a)(3) of the Act, desire that the authority to make such an agreement be rescinded.
</P>
<P>(k) Any other relevant facts.
</P>
<P>(l) Evidence supporting the statement that 30 percent or more of the bargaining unit employees desire to rescind the authority of their employer and labor organization to enter into an agreement made pursuant to Section 8(a)(3) of the Act. Such evidence must be filed together with the petition, but must not be served on any other party.
</P>
<P>(m) Evidence filed pursuant to paragraph (l) of this section together with a petition that is filed by facsimile or electronically, which includes original signatures that cannot be transmitted in their original form by the method of filing of the petition, may be filed by facsimile or in electronic form provided that the original documents are received by the regional director no later than 2 days after the facsimile or electronic filing.
</P>
<P>(n) The type, date(s), time(s) and location(s) of the election sought.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959, as amended at 79 FR 74489, Dec. 15, 2014; 82 FR 11765, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.85" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.85   Investigation of petition by Regional Director; consent referendum; directed referendum.</HEAD>
<P>Where a petition has been filed pursuant to § 102.83, and it appears to the Regional Director that the petitioner has made an appropriate showing, in such form as the Regional Director may determine, that 30 percent or more of the employees within a unit covered by an agreement between their employer and a labor organization requiring membership in such labor organization desire to rescind the authority of such labor organization to make such an agreement, the Regional Director will proceed to conduct a secret ballot of the employees involved on the question whether they desire to rescind the authority of the labor organization to make such an agreement with their employer, except that, in any case in which it appears to the Regional Director that the proceeding raises questions which cannot be decided without a hearing, the Director may issue and cause to be served on the parties a Notice of Hearing before a Hearing Officer at a time and place fixed therein. The Regional Director will fix the time and place of the election, eligibility requirements for voting, and other arrangements of the balloting, but the parties may enter into an agreement, subject to the approval of the Regional Director, fixing such arrangements. In any such consent agreements, provision may be made for final determination of all questions arising with respect to the balloting by the Regional Director or upon grant of a request for review, by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11765, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.86" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.86   Hearing; posthearing procedure.</HEAD>
<P>The method of conducting the hearing and the procedure following the hearing will be governed, insofar as applicable, by §§ 102.63 through 102.68.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11765, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.87" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.87   Method of conducting balloting; postballoting procedure.</HEAD>
<P>The method of conducting the balloting and the postballoting procedure will be governed by the provisions of § 102.69, insofar as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11765, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.88" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.88   Refusal to conduct referendum; appeal to Board.</HEAD>
<P>If, after a petition has been filed, and prior to the close of the hearing, it appears to the Regional Director that no referendum should be conducted, the Regional Director will dismiss the petition by administrative action. Such dismissal will be in writing and accompanied by a simple statement of the procedural or other grounds. The petitioner may obtain a review of such action by filing a request therefor with the Board in Washington, DC, and filing a copy of such request with the Regional Director and the other parties within 14 days from the service of notice of such dismissal. The request must contain a complete statement setting forth the facts and reasons upon which the request is based.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11765, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Procedure to Hear and Determine Disputes Under Section 10(k) of the Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11766, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.89" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.89   Initiation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever it is charged that any person has engaged in an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(b)(4)(D) of the Act, the Regional Director of the office in which such charge is filed or to which it is referred will, as soon as possible after the charge has been filed, serve on the parties a copy of the charge and will investigate such charge and if it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief of a district court pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act, the Regional Director will give it priority over all other cases in the office except other cases under Section 10(l) and cases of like character.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.90" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.90   Notice of hearing; hearing; proceedings before the Board; briefs; determination of dispute.</HEAD>
<P>If it appears to the Regional Director that the charge has merit and the parties to the dispute have not submitted satisfactory evidence to the Regional Director that they have adjusted, or have agreed-upon methods for the voluntary adjustment of, the dispute out of which such unfair labor practice has arisen, the Regional Director will serve on all parties to such dispute a Notice of Hearing under Section 10(k) of the Act before a Hearing Officer at a time and place stated in the Notice. The hearing date will not be less than 10 days after service of the notice of the filing of the charge. The Notice of Hearing must contain a simple statement of the issues involved in such dispute. Such Notice will be issued promptly, and, in cases in which it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act, will normally be issued within 5 days of the date upon which injunctive relief is first sought. Hearings will be conducted by a Hearing Officer, and the procedure will conform, insofar as applicable, to the procedure set forth in §§ 102.64 through 102.68. Upon the close of the hearing, the proceeding will be transferred to the Board, and the Board will proceed either promptly upon the record, or after oral argument, or the submission of briefs, or further hearing, to determine the dispute or otherwise dispose of the matter. Parties who desire to file a brief with the Board must do so within 7 days after the close of the hearing. However, no briefs will be filed in cases designated in the Notice of Hearing as involving the national defense, and the parties, after the close of the evidence, may argue orally upon the record their respective contentions and positions; except that, upon application for leave to file briefs expeditiously made to the Board in Washington, DC, after the close of the hearing, the Board may for good cause shown, grant leave to file briefs and set a time for filing. Simultaneously upon such filing, a copy must be served on the other parties. No reply brief may be filed except upon special leave of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.91" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.91   Compliance with determination; further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>If, after issuance of the determination by the Board, the parties submit to the Regional Director satisfactory evidence that they have complied with the determination, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge. If no satisfactory evidence of compliance is submitted, the Regional Director will proceed with the charge under Section 8(b)(4)(D) and Section 10 of the Act and the procedure prescribed in §§ 102.9 through 102.51 will, insofar as applicable, govern. However, if the Board determination is that employees represented by a Charged Union are entitled to perform the work in dispute, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge as to that union irrespective of whether the employer has complied with that determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.92" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.92   Review of determination.</HEAD>
<P>The record of the proceeding under Section 10(k) and the determination of the Board will become a part of the record in such unfair labor practice proceeding and may be subject to judicial review in proceedings to enforce or review the final order of the Board under Section 10(e) and (f) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.93" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.93   Alternative procedure.</HEAD>
<P>If, either before or after service of the Notice of Hearing, the parties submit to the Regional Director satisfactory evidence that they have adjusted the dispute, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge and will withdraw the Notice of Hearing if Notice has issued. If, either before or after issuance of the Notice of Hearing, the parties submit to the Regional Director satisfactory evidence that they have agreed-upon methods for the voluntary adjustment of the dispute, the Regional Director will defer action upon the charge and will withdraw the Notice of Hearing if Notice has issued. If it appears to the Regional Director that the dispute has not been adjusted in accordance with such agreed-upon methods and that an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(b)(4)(D) of the Act is occurring or has occurred, the Regional Director may issue a complaint under § 102.15, and the procedure prescribed in §§ 102.9 through 102.51 will, insofar as applicable, govern; and §§ 102.90 through 102.92 are inapplicable, except that if an agreed-upon method for voluntary adjustment results in a determination that employees represented by a Charged Union are entitled to perform the work in dispute, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge as to that union irrespective of whether the employer has complied with that determination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Procedure in Cases Under Section 10(j), (l), and (m) of the Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11766, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.94" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.94   Expeditious processing of Section 10(j) cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever temporary relief or a restraining order pursuant to Section 10(j) of the Act has been procured by the Board, the complaint which has been the basis for such temporary relief or restraining order will be heard expeditiously and the case will be given priority by the Board in its successive steps following the issuance of the complaint (until ultimate enforcement or dismissal by the appropriate circuit court of appeals) over all other cases except cases of like character and cases under Section 10(l) and (m) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event the Administrative Law Judge hearing a complaint, concerning which the Board has procured temporary relief or a restraining order pursuant to Section 10(j), recommends a dismissal in whole or in part of such complaint, the chief law officer will promptly suggest to the district court which issued such temporary relief or restraining order the possible change in circumstances arising out of the findings and recommendations of the Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.95" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.95   Priority of cases pursuant to Section 10(l) and (m) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a charge is filed alleging the commission of an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(b)(4)(A), (B), (C), 8(b)(7), or 8(e) of the Act, the Regional Office in which such charge is filed or to which it is referred will give it priority over all other cases in the office except cases of like character and cases under Section 8(b)(4)(D) in which it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief of a district court pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever a charge is filed alleging the commission of an unfair labor practice within the meaning of Section 8(a)(3) or 8(b)(2), the Regional Office in which such charge is filed or to which it is referred will give it priority over all other cases in the office except cases of like character and cases under Section 10(l) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.96" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.96   Issuance of complaint promptly.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever injunctive relief pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act is sought in district court, a complaint against the party or parties sought to be enjoined, covering the same subject matter as the application for injunctive relief, will be issued promptly, normally within 5 days of the date when injunctive relief is first sought, except in cases in which a Notice of Hearing under Section 10(k) of the Act has issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.97" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.97   Expeditious processing of Section 10(l) and (m) cases in successive stages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any complaint issued pursuant to § 102.95(a) or, in a case in which it is deemed appropriate to seek injunctive relief of a district court pursuant to Section 10(l) of the Act, any complaint issued pursuant to § 102.93 or Notice of Hearing issued pursuant to § 102.90 will be heard expeditiously and the case will be given priority in such successive steps following its issuance (until ultimate enforcement or dismissal by the appropriate circuit court of appeals) over all cases except cases of like character.
</P>
<P>(b) Any complaint issued pursuant to § 102.95(b) will be heard expeditiously and the case will be given priority in its successive steps following its issuance (until ultimate enforcement or dismissal by the appropriate circuit court of appeals) over all cases except cases of like character and cases under Section 10(l) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Advisory Opinions and Declaratory Orders Regarding Board Jurisdiction</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.98" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.98   Petition for advisory opinion; who may file; where to file.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever an agency or court of any State or territory is in doubt whether the Board would assert jurisdiction over the parties in a proceeding pending before such agency or court, the agency or court may file a petition with the Board for an advisory opinion on whether the Board would decline to assert jurisdiction over the parties before the agency or the court (1) on the basis of its current standards, or (2) because the employing enterprise is not within the jurisdiction of the National Labor Relations Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 9102, Nov. 7, 1959, as amended at 51 FR 15613, Apr. 25, 1986; 61 FR 65182, Dec. 11, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.99" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.99   Contents of petition for advisory opinion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for an advisory opinion, when filed by an agency or court of a State or territory, must allege the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the agency or court.
</P>
<P>(2) The names of the parties to the proceeding and the docket number.
</P>
<P>(3) The nature of the proceeding, and the need for the Board's opinion on the jurisdictional issue to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) The general nature of the business involved in the proceeding and, where appropriate, the nature of and details concerning the employing enterprise.
</P>
<P>(5) The findings of the agency or court or, in the absence of findings, a statement of the evidence relating to the commerce operations of such business and, where appropriate, to the nature of the employing enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) The petition or request must be submitted to the Board in Washington, DC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.100" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.100   Notice of petition; service of petition.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the filing of a petition, the petitioner must simultaneously serve, in the manner provided by § 102.5(g), a copy of the petition on all parties to the proceeding and on the Director of the Board's Regional Office having jurisdiction over the territorial area in which such agency or court is located. A statement of service must be filed with the petition as provided by § 102.5(h).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.101" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.101   Response to petition; service of response.</HEAD>
<P>Any party served with such petition may, within 14 days after service thereof, respond to the peti kept and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 1 day after the vote to close a meeting, or any portion of a meeting, pursuant to the provisions of § 102.139(b), the Agency will make publicly available a full written explanation of its action closing the meeting, or portion of a meeting, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation.
</P>
<P>(d) If after public announcement required by paragraph (b) of this section has been made, the time and place of the meeting are changed, a public announcement will be made at the earliest practicable time. The subject matter of the meeting may be changed after the public announcement only if a majority of the Members of the Board who will participate in the meeting determine that Agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible. When such a change in subject matter is approved a public announcement of tat the Board would or would not assert jurisdiction. Such determination will be in the form of an advisory opinion and will be served on the parties. No briefs may be filed except upon special permission of the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.104" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.104   Withdrawal of petition.</HEAD>
<P>The petitioner may withdraw the petition at any time prior to issuance of the Board's advisory opinion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.105" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.105   Petitions for declaratory orders; who may file; where to file; withdrawal.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever both an unfair labor practice charge and a representation case relating to the same employer are contemporaneously on file in a Regional Office of the Board, and the General Counsel entertains doubt whether the Board would assert jurisdiction over the employer involved, the General Counsel may file a petition with the Board for a declaratory order disposing of the jurisdictional issue in the case. Such petition may be withdrawn at any time prior to the issuance of the Board's order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.106" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.106   Contents of petition for declaratory order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for a declaratory order must allege the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the employer.
</P>
<P>(2) The general nature of the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(3) The case numbers of the unfair labor practice and representation cases.
</P>
<P>(4) The commerce data relating to the operations of such business.
</P>
<P>(5) Whether any proceeding involving the same subject matter is pending before an agency or court of a State or territory.
</P>
<P>(b) The petition must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.107" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.107   Notice of petition; service of petition.</HEAD>
<P>Upon filing a petition, the General Counsel will simultaneously serve a copy thereof on all parties and must file a statement of service as provided by § 102.5(h).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.108" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.108   Response to petition; service of response.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to the representation or unfair labor practice case may, within 14 days after service, respond to the petition, admitting or denying its allegations. The response must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC. The response must be served on the General Counsel and all other parties, and a statement of service must be filed as provided by § 102.5(h).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.109" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.109   Intervention.</HEAD>
<P>Any person desiring to intervene must file a motion for intervention, stating the grounds upon which such person claims to have an interest in the petition. The motion must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.110" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.110   Proceedings before the Board; briefs; declaratory orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Board will proceed, upon the petition, responses, and submission of briefs, to determine whether, on the facts before it, the commerce operations of the employer involved are such that the Board would or would not assert jurisdiction over the employer. Such determination will be made by a declaratory order, with like effect as in the case of other orders of the Board, and will be served on the parties. Any party desiring to file a brief must file the brief with the Board in Washington, DC, with a statement that copies are being served simultaneously on the other parties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11767, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 102.111-102.114" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.9.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 102.111-102.114   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Certification and Signature of Documents</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11768, Feb. 24, 11768, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.115" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.115   Certification of Board papers and documents.</HEAD>
<P>The Executive Secretary of the Board, or, in the event of the Executive Secretary's absence or disability, whomever may be designated by the Board in the Executive Secretary's place, will certify copies of all papers and documents which are a part of any of the files or records of the Board as necessary or desirable from time to time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.116" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.116   Signature on Board orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Executive Secretary, Deputy Executive Secretary, or an Associate Executive Secretary, or, in the event of their absence or disability, whomever may be designated by the Board in their place, is hereby authorized to sign all orders of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Records and Information</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11768, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.117" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.117   Freedom of Information Act Regulations: Agency materials including formal documents available pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act; requests for described records; time limit for response; appeal from denial of request; fees for document search, duplication, and review; files and records not subject to inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Introduction.</I> This subpart contains the Rules that the National Labor Relations Board (Agency) follows in processing requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552. The Rules in this subpart may be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB Guidelines). Some records will be made available on the Agency's Web site at <I>www.nlrb.gov</I> to facilitate public access. Requests made by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552(a), are processed under § 102.119.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>FOIA Officials.</I> The following are designated as the Agency's FOIA officials with responsibilities for complying with the FOIA:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FOIA Officer.</I> The Assistant General Counsel for the FOIA Branch is the Agency's designated FOIA Officer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Chief FOIA Officer.</I> The Associate General Counsel for the Division of Legal Counsel is the Agency's designated Chief FOIA Officer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>FOIA Public Liaison.</I> The official(s) designated by the Chief FOIA Officer is the Agency's FOIA Public Liaison, with overall responsibilities for assisting in reducing delays, increasing transparency, understanding the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes. The designated FOIA Public Liaison is available on the Agency's Web site.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authority to respond to requests and administrative appeals.</I> The FOIA Officer has the authority to act upon and respond on behalf of the Board and the General Counsel to all requests for Agency records, except for records maintained by the Agency's Office of the Inspector General. The Office of the Inspector General has the authority to respond to all requests for records maintained by that Office. The Chief FOIA Officer has the authority to respond on behalf of the Chairman of the Board and the General Counsel to all administrative appeals of adverse determinations. The Chief FOIA Officer's authority includes responding, on behalf of the Chairman of the Board, to appeals of initial determinations made by the Office of the Inspector General.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Records made available.</I> Records that are required by the FOIA under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) may be accessed through the Agency's Web site at <I>www.nlrb.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Formal documents.</I> The formal documents constituting the record in a case or proceeding are matters of official record and, until officially destroyed pursuant to applicable statutory authority, are available to the public pursuant to the procedures in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certification of records.</I> The Executive Secretary will certify copies of all formal documents maintained by the Board upon request made a reasonable time in advance of need and payment of lawfully prescribed costs. The Deputy General Counsel will certify copies of any record maintained by, or originating from, the Office of General Counsel and any division, branch, or office organizationally overseen by the Office of the General Counsel, including any Regional, Subregional, or Resident Office.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Making FOIA requests to the Agency</I>—(i) <I>Content of requests</I>—(A) <I>Description of records sought.</I> Requests for records must be in writing and must reasonably describe the record so as to permit its identification and location. To the extent possible, requesters may include specific information, such as the NLRB case number, case name, date(s) of record(s) requested, and/or full name of the party, author, or recipient of the record(s) in question. Requesters should include as much detail as practicable about the records sought. Requesters may contact the FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records sought and to receive assistance in describing the records.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Assumption of fees.</I> Requests must contain a specific statement assuming financial responsibility for the direct costs of responding to the request in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Specificity requirement.</I> Requests that do not reasonably describe the records sought or assume sufficient financial responsibility for responding to the request, or that otherwise fail to comply with this section, may delay the Agency's response to the request.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transmission of requests.</I> Requests for records maintained by the Agency should be made to the FOIA Branch, which is located in the Agency's Washington, DC headquarters. The FOIA Branch is responsible for responding to requests for records originating from, or maintained by, the Board and the Office of the General Counsel, including Regional, Subregional, and resident offices. Requests for records maintained by the Agency's Office of the Inspector General may be made directly to that office.
</P>
<P>(A) Requesters may file FOIA requests electronically through the Agency's Web site (<I>https://www.nlrb.gov</I>), which is the preferred method of submission to allow for prompt receipt, including for requests for records maintained by the Agency's Office of the Inspector General. FOIA requests may also be made by mail to the Agency's Washington, DC headquarters address, by email to the Agency's designated mailbox, or by facsimile. The mailing address, email address, and facsimile number are available on the Agency's Web site.
</P>
<P>(B) Requests not made through the Agency's Web site should be clearly marked to indicate that they contain a request for records under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(C) Requests made to an Agency division, branch, or any office other than the FOIA Branch will be forwarded to the FOIA Branch by the receiving office, but in that event, the applicable time limit for response set forth in paragraph (i) of this section will be calculated from the date of receipt by the FOIA Branch. The receiving office will normally forward the request to the FOIA Branch within 10 days of the initial receipt.
</P>
<P>(D) Requests made to the Agency for records that originated with another governmental agency may be referred to that agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Processing of FOIA requests</I>—(i) <I>Timing of response.</I> The Agency ordinarily responds to FOIA requests according to their order of receipt. An initial determination will be issued within 20 working days (<I>i.e.,</I> exempting Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) after the receipt of a request. Responsive records are released at the time of the determination or, if necessary, at a time thereafter on a rolling basis.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Expedited treatment.</I> A request for expedited processing may be made at any time during the pendency of a FOIA request or appeal. Requests and appeals will be taken out of order and given expedited treatment when warranted. A requester must provide sufficient justification to grant such processing by showing that any one of the following circumstances exists:
</P>
<P>(A) The lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(B) There is an urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged federal government activity, if made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information; or
</P>
<P>(C) The loss of substantial due process rights; or
</P>
<P>(D)(<I>1</I>) There is widespread and exceptional media interest and possible questions exist about the government's integrity which may affect public confidence.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of a request for expedited processing, the Agency will decide whether to grant it and will notify the requester of the decision. Once the determination has been made to grant expedited processing, the request will be given priority and processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, the Agency will act expeditiously on any appeal of that decision.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Initial determination of requests.</I> Within 20 working days after receipt of a request by the FOIA Branch, a determination will be made whether to comply with such request, and the requester will be notified in writing of that determination. In the case of requests made for records maintained by the Agency's Office of the Inspector General, that determination will be made by the Office of the Inspector General. Requesters will be made aware of their right to seek assistance from the Agency's FOIA Public Liaison.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Grants of requests.</I> If the determination is to comply with the request, the records will be made promptly available to the person making the request and, at the same time, a statement of any charges due in accordance with the fee schedule provisions of paragraph (d)(2) of this section will be provided.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Denials of requests.</I> If the determination is to deny the request in any respect, the requester will be notified in writing of that determination. The determination will set forth: The reason(s) for the denial; the name and title or position of each person responsible for the denial; and an estimate of the volume of records or information withheld, in number of pages or in some other reasonable form of estimation: However, this estimate does not need to be provided if the volume is otherwise indicated through deletions on records disclosed in part, or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption. The determination will also inform the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Agency's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services, as well as the right to appeal the adverse determination under the administrative appeal provisions of paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Adverse determinations may consist of: A determination to withhold any requested record in whole or in part; a determination that a requested record does not exist or cannot be located; a determination that what has been requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; a determination on any disputed fee matter, including a denial of a request for a fee waiver or reduction or placement in a particular fee category; and a denial of a request for expedited treatment. An adverse determination to an administrative appeal by the Chief FOIA Officer will be the final action of the Agency. An adverse determination will inform the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Agency's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services, as well as the right to appeal the adverse determination under the administrative appeal provisions of paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Records containing business information.</I> Business information obtained by the Agency from a submitter will be disclosed under the FOIA only consistent with the procedures established in this section.
</P>
<P>(A) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Business information</I> means commercial or financial information obtained by the Agency from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity from whom the Agency obtains business information, directly or indirectly. The term includes corporations; state, local, and tribal governments; and foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(B) A submitter of business information will use good faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations will expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests, and provides justification for, a longer designation period. The Agency will provide a submitter with prompt written notice of a FOIA request or administrative appeal that seeks its business information wherever required under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(F) of this section, in order to give the submitter an opportunity to object to disclosure of any specified portion of that information under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(D) of this section. The notice will either describe the business information requested or include copies of the requested records or record portions containing the information. When notification of a voluminous number of submitters is required, notification may be made by posting or publishing the notice in a place reasonably likely to accomplish notification.
</P>
<P>(C) Notice will be given to a submitter whenever: The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or the Agency has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4.
</P>
<P>(D) The Agency will allow a submitter a reasonable time to respond to the notice described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section. If a submitter has any objection to disclosure, it is required to submit a detailed written statement. The statement must specify all grounds for withholding any portion of the information under any exemption of the FOIA and, in the case of Exemption 4, it must show why the information is a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. In the event that a submitter fails to respond to the notice within the time specified in it, the submitter will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. Information provided by a submitter under this paragraph may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(E) The Agency will consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose business information. Whenever the Agency decides to disclose business information over the objection of a submitter, the Agency will give the submitter written notice, which will include: A statement of the reason(s) why each of the submitter's disclosure objections was not sustained; a description of the business information to be disclosed; and a specified disclosure date, which will be a reasonable time subsequent to the notice.
</P>
<P>(F) The notice requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(iv)(B) and (E) of this section will not apply if: The Agency determines that the information may not be disclosed; the information lawfully has been published or has been officially made available to the public; disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR, 1988 Comp., p. 235); or the designation made by the submitter under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section appears obviously frivolous—except that, in such a case, the Agency will, within a reasonable time prior to a specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.
</P>
<P>(G) Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of business information, the Agency will promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(H) Whenever the Agency provides a submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, the Agency will also notify the requester(s). Whenever the Agency notifies a submitter of its intent to disclose requested information under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(E) of this section, the Agency will also notify the requester(s). Whenever a submitter files a lawsuit seeking to prevent the disclosure of business information, the Agency will notify the requester(s).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Administrative appeals.</I> (A) An appeal from an adverse determination made pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section must be filed within 90 calendar days of the service of the notification of the adverse determination, in whole or in part. Appeals of adverse determinations made by the FOIA Officer or the Office of the Inspector General may be filed with the Division of Legal Counsel in Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>(B) As provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, an adverse determination will notify the requester of the right to appeal the adverse determination and will specify where such appeal may be filed. Within 20 working days after receipt of an appeal, the Chief FOIA Officer will make a determination with respect to such appeal and will notify the requester in writing. If the determination is to grant the appeal, the responsive records will be made promptly available to the requester upon receipt of payment of any charges due in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (d)(2) of this section. If the appeal is denied, in whole or in part, the requester will be notified of the reasons for the decision, the name and title or position of any person responsible for the denial, and the provisions for judicial review of that determination under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. Section 552(4)(B).
</P>
<P>(C) Before seeking judicial review of an adverse determination, a requester must first submit a timely administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(D) Even if no FOIA appeal is filed, the Chief FOIA Officer may, without regard to the time limit for filing of an appeal, initiate reconsideration of an adverse determination by issuing written notice to the requester. In such event, the time limit for making the determination will commence with the issuance of such notification.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Extension of time to respond to requests.</I> In unusual circumstances as specified in this paragraph (c)(2)(vi), the Agency may extend the time limits prescribed in either paragraph (c)(2)(i) or (iv) of this section by written notice to the requester setting forth the reasons for such extension and the date on which a determination is expected, and notifying the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services. The extension of time will not exceed 10 working days. As used in this paragraph (c)(2)(vi), <I>unusual circumstances</I> means, but only to the extent reasonably necessary to the proper processing of the particular request:
</P>
<P>(A) The need to search for and collect the requested records from other offices in the Agency that are separate from the FOIA Branch;
</P>
<P>(B) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are sought in a single request;
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) The need for consultation, which will be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request or with two or more offices in the Agency having a substantial subject matter interest in the request.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the request cannot be processed within the time limits prescribed above, the Agency will provide the requester with an opportunity to limit the request so that it may be processed within the 10-day extended time limit for response. The requester may also arrange an alternative time frame with the Agency for processing the request or a modified request. The Agency's FOIA Public Liaison is available to assist with any issues that may arise.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Preservation of FOIA request files.</I> The Agency will preserve files created in response to requests for information under the FOIA and files created in responding to administrative appeals under the FOIA until disposition or destruction is authorized by Title 44 of the United States Code or the National Archives and Records Administration's General Records Schedule 4.2, item 020. Records will not be disposed of or destroyed while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Fees.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures which are actually incurred in searching for and duplicating and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing documents to respond to a FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Search</I> refers to the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request. It includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents and also includes reasonable efforts to locate and retrieve information from records maintained in electronic form or format. The Agency will ensure that searches are done in the most efficient and least expensive manner reasonably possible.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Duplication</I> refers to the process of making a copy of a record, or the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Such copies can take the form of paper, microfilm, videotape, audiotape, or electronic records (<I>e.g.,</I> magnetic tape or disk), among others. The Agency will honor a requester's specified preference of form or format of disclosure if the record is readily reproducible with reasonable efforts in the requested form or format by the office responding to the request.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Review</I> refers to the process of examining documents located in response to a request that is for commercial use to determine whether any portion of it is exempt from disclosure. It includes processing any documents for disclosure, <I>e.g.,</I> doing all that is necessary to redact and prepare them for disclosure. Review time includes time spent considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a business submitter under paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section, but does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Commercial use request</I> refers to a request from or on behalf of a person who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made, which can include furthering those interests through litigation.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Educational institution</I> refers to a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education, that operates a program of scholarly research. To be in this category, a requester must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use but are sought to further scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Representative of the news media</I> refers to any person actively gathering news for an entity that is organized and operated to publish or broadcast news to the public. The term <I>news</I> means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only in instances where they can qualify as disseminators of <I>news</I>) who make their products available for purchase or subscription by the general public. For “freelance” journalists to be regarded as working for a news organization, they must demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that organization. A publication contract is the clearest proof, but the Agency will also look to the past publication record of a requester in making this determination. To be in this category, a requester must not be seeking the requested records for commercial use. However, a request for records supporting the news dissemination function of the requester will not be considered to be for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Working days,</I> as used in this section, means calendar days excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fee schedule.</I> Requesters will be subject to a charge of fees for the full allowable direct costs of document search, review, and duplicating, as appropriate, in accordance with the following schedules, procedures, and conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Schedule of charges:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) For each one-quarter hour or portion thereof of clerical time $3.10.
</P>
<P>(B) For each one-quarter hour or portion thereof of professional time $9.25.
</P>
<P>(C) For each sheet of duplication (not to exceed 8
<FR>1/2</FR> by 14 inches) of requested records $0.12.
</P>
<P>(D) All other direct costs of preparing a response to a request will be charged to the requester in the same amount as incurred by the Agency. Such costs will include, but not be limited to: Certifying that records are true copies; sending records to requesters or receiving records from the Federal records storage centers by special methods such as express mail; and, where applicable, conducting computer searches for information and for providing information in electronic format.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fees incurred in responding to information requests are to be charged in accordance with the following categories of requesters:
</P>
<P>(A) Commercial use requesters will be assessed charges to recover the full direct costs for searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought. Requesters must reasonably describe the records sought.
</P>
<P>(B) Educational institution requesters will be assessed charges for the cost of reproduction alone, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. To be eligible for inclusion in this category, requesters must show that the request is being made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for commercial use, but are sought in furtherance of scholarly research. Requesters must reasonably describe the records sought.
</P>
<P>(C) Requesters who are representatives of the news media will be assessed charges for the cost of reproduction alone, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. To be eligible for inclusion in this category, a requester must meet the criteria in paragraph (d)(1)(vii) of this section, and the request must not be made for commercial use. In reference to this class of requester, a request for records supporting the news dissemination function of the requester will not be considered to be a request for commercial use. Requesters must reasonably describe the records sought.
</P>
<P>(D) All other requesters, not elsewhere described, will be assessed charges to recover the full reasonable direct cost of searching for and reproducing records that are responsive to the request, except that the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first 2 hours of search time will be furnished without charge. Requesters must reasonably describe the records sought.
</P>
<P>(E) Absent a reasonably based factual showing that a requester may be placed in a particular user category, fees will be imposed as provided for in the commercial use requester category.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Unusual fee circumstances.</I> (A) In no event will fees be imposed on any requester when the total charges are less than $5, which is the Agency's cost of collecting and processing the fee itself.
</P>
<P>(B) If the Agency reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting together is attempting to divide a request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the Agency may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The Agency may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made to avoid fees. Where requests are separated by a longer period, the Agency will aggregate them only where there exists a solid basis for determining that aggregation is warranted under all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Requests for fee waiver or reduction.</I> Documents are to be furnished without charge or at reduced levels if disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest. A fee waiver or reduction is justified where the public interest standard is satisfied and that public interest is greater in magnitude than that of any identified commercial interest in disclosure. Where only some of the requested records satisfy the requirements for a fee waiver, a waiver will be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Failure to pay fees.</I> If a requester fails to pay chargeable fees that were incurred as a result of the Agency's processing of the information request, beginning on the 31st day following the date on which the notification of charges was sent, the Agency may assess interest charges against the requester in the manner prescribed in 31 U.S.C. Section 3717. Where appropriate, other steps permitted by federal debt collection statutes, including disclosure to consumer reporting agencies, use of collection agencies, and offset, will be used by the Agency to encourage payment of amounts overdue.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Assumption of financial responsibility for processing requests.</I> Each request for records must contain a specific statement assuming financial liability, in full or to a specified maximum amount, for charges, in accordance with paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, which may be incurred by the Agency in responding to the request. If the anticipated charges exceed the maximum limit stated by the person making the request, or if the request contains no assumption of financial liability or charges, the requester will be notified and afforded an opportunity to assume financial liability. In either case, the request for records will not be deemed received for purposes of the applicable time limit for response until a written assumption of financial liability is received. The Agency may require a requester to make an advance payment of anticipated fees under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) If the anticipated charges are likely to exceed $250, the Agency will notify the requester of the likely cost and obtain satisfactory assurance of full payment when the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees, or require an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case of requesters with no history of payment.
</P>
<P>(B) If a requester has previously failed to pay fees that have been charged in processing a request within 30 days of the date the notification of fees was sent, the requester will be required to pay the entire amount of fees that are owed, plus interest as provided for in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section, before the Agency will process a further information request. In addition, the Agency may require advance payment of fees that the Agency estimates will be incurred in processing the further request before the Agency commences processing that request. When the Agency acts under paragraph (d)(2)(vi)(A) or (B) of this section, the administrative time limits for responding to a request or an appeal from initial determinations will begin to run only after the Agency has received the fee payments required in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Fees may be charged even if no documents are provided.</I> Charges may be imposed even though the search discloses no records responsive to the request, or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.118" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.118   Present and former Board employees prohibited from producing documents and testifying; production of witnesses' statements after direct testimony.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition on producing files and documents.</I> Except as provided in § 102.117 respecting requests cognizable under the Freedom of Information Act, no present or former employee or specially designated agent of the Agency will produce or present any files, documents, reports, memoranda, or records of the Board or of the General Counsel, whether in response to a <I>subpoena duces tecum</I> or otherwise, without the written consent of the Board or the Chairman of the Board if the document is in Washington, DC, and in control of the Board; or of the General Counsel if the document is in a Regional Office of the Board or is in Washington, DC, and in the control of the General Counsel. A request that such consent be granted must be in writing and must identify the documents to be produced, the nature of the pending proceeding, and the purpose to be served by the production of the documents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on testifying.</I> No present or former employee or specially designated agent of the Agency will testify on behalf of any party to any cause pending in any court or before the Board, or any other board, commission, or other administrative agency of the United States, or of any State, territory, or the District of Columbia, or any subdivisions thereof, with respect to any information, facts, or other matter coming to that person's knowledge in that person's official capacity or with respect to the contents of any files, documents, reports, memoranda, or records of the Board or of the General Counsel, whether in answer to a subpoena or otherwise, without the written consent of the Board or the Chairman of the Board if the person is in Washington, DC, and subject to the supervision or control of the Board or was subject to such supervision or control when formerly employed at the Agency; or of the General Counsel if the person is in a Regional Office of the Agency or is in Washington, DC, and subject to the supervision or control of the General Counsel or was subject to such supervision or control when formerly employed at the Agency. A request that such consent be granted must be in writing and must identify the person whose testimony is desired, the nature of the pending proceeding, and the purpose to be served by the testimony of the official.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motion to quash subpoena.</I> Whenever any subpoena <I>ad testificandum</I> or subpoena <I>duces tecum,</I> the purpose of which is to adduce testimony or require the production of records as described above, has been served on any present or former employee or specially designated agent of the Agency, that person will, unless otherwise expressly directed by the Board or the Chairman of the Board or the General Counsel, as the case may be, move pursuant to the applicable procedure, whether by petition to revoke, motion to quash, or otherwise, to have such subpoena invalidated on the ground that the evidence sought is privileged against disclosure by this Rule.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition on disclosure of personal information.</I> No present or former employee or specially designated agent of the Agency will, by any means of communication to any person or to another agency, disclose personal information about an individual from a record in a system of records maintained by this Agency, as more fully described in the notices of systems of records published by this Agency in accordance with the provisions of Section (e)(4) of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4), or by the Notices of Government-wide Systems of Personnel Records published by the Civil Service Commission in accordance with those statutory provisions, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual to whom the record pertains, unless disclosure of the record would be in accordance with the provisions of Section (b)(1) through (11), both inclusive, of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(1) through (11).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Production of statement for cross-examination.</I> Notwithstanding the prohibitions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, after a witness called by the General Counsel or by the Charging Party has testified in a hearing upon a complaint under Section 10(c) of the Act, the Administrative Law Judge must, upon motion of the Respondent, order the production of any statement, as defined paragraph (g) of this section, of such witness in the possession of the General Counsel which relates to the subject matter as to which the witness has testified.
</P>
<P>(1) If the entire contents of any such statement relate to the subject matter of the testimony of the witness, the Administrative Law Judge must order the statement to be delivered directly to the respondent for examination and use for the purpose of cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(2) If the General Counsel claims that any statement ordered to be produced under this section contains matter which does not relate to the subject matter of the testimony of the witness, the Administrative Law Judge will order the General Counsel to deliver the statement for the inspection of the Administrative Law Judge <I>in camera.</I> Upon delivery, the Administrative Law Judge will excise the portions of such statement which do not relate to the subject matter of the testimony of the witness except that the Administrative Law Judge has discretion to decline to excise portions which, although not relating to the subject matter of the testimony of the witness, do relate to other matters raised by the pleadings. With the material excised, the Administrative Law Judge will then direct delivery of the statement to the Respondent for use on cross-examination. If any portion of the statement is withheld and the Respondent objects to the withholding, the General Counsel will preserve the entire text of the statement, and, if the Respondent files exceptions with the Board based upon such withholding, make the entire text available to the Board for the purpose of determining the correctness of the ruling of the Administrative Law Judge. If the General Counsel elects not to comply with an order of the Administrative Law Judge directing delivery to the Respondent of any statement, or portion thereof as the Administrative Law Judge may direct, the Administrative Law Judge will strike from the record the testimony of the witness.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Production of statement in postelection hearings.</I> The provisions of paragraph (e) of this section will also apply after any witness has testified in any postelection hearing pursuant to § 102.69(d) and any party has moved for the production of any statement, as defined in paragraph (g) of this section, of the witness in possession of any agent of the Board which relates to the subject matter as to which the witness has testified. The authority exercised by the Administrative Law Judge under paragraph (e) of this section will be exercised by the Hearing Officer presiding.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Definition of statement.</I> The term <I>statement</I> as used in this section means:
</P>
<P>(1) A written statement made by the witness and signed or otherwise adopted or approved by the witness; or
</P>
<P>(2) A stenographic, mechanical, electrical, or other recording, or a transcription thereof, which is a substantially verbatim recital of an oral statement made by the witness to an agent of the party obligated to produce the statement and recorded contemporaneously with the making of the oral statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11768, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 82 FR 43699, Sept. 19, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.119" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.119   Privacy Act Regulations: Notification as to whether a system of records contains records pertaining to requesting individuals; requests for access to records, amendment of such records, or accounting of disclosures; time limits for response; appeal from denial of requests; fees for document duplication; files and records exempted from certain Privacy Act requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) An individual will be informed whether a system of records maintained by the Agency contains a record pertaining to such individual. An inquiry may be made in writing or in person during normal business hours to the official of the Agency designated for that purpose and at the address set forth in a notice of a system of records published by this Agency, in a Notice of Systems of Government-wide Personnel Records published by the Office of Personnel Management, or in a Notice of Government-wide Systems of Records published by the Department of Labor. Copies of such notices, and assistance in preparing an inquiry, may be obtained from any Regional Office of the Board or at the Board offices in Washington, DC. The inquiry may contain sufficient information, as defined in the notice, to identify the record.
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable verification of the identity of the inquirer, as described in paragraph (e) of this section, will be required to assure that information is disclosed to the proper person. The Agency will acknowledge the inquiry in writing within 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) and, wherever practicable, the acknowledgment will supply the information requested. If, for good cause shown, the Agency cannot supply the information within 10 days, the inquirer will within that time period be notified in writing of the reasons therefor and when it is anticipated the information will be supplied. An acknowledgment will not be provided when the information is supplied within the 10-day period. If the Agency refuses to inform an individual whether a system of records contains a record pertaining to an individual, the inquirer will be notified in writing of that determination and the reasons therefor, and of the right to obtain review of that determination under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section. The provisions of this paragraph (a)(2) do not apply to the extent that requested information from the relevant system of records has been exempted from this Privacy Act requirement.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An individual will be permitted access to records pertaining to such individual contained in any system of records described in the notice of system of records published by the Agency, or access to the accounting of disclosures from such records. The request for access must be made in writing or in person during normal business hours to the person designated for that purpose and at the address set forth in the published notice of system of records. Copies of such notices, and assistance in preparing a request for access, may be obtained from any Regional Office of the Board or at the Board offices in Washington, DC. Reasonable verification of the identity of the requester, as described in paragraph (e) of this section, will be required to assure that records are disclosed to the proper person. A request for access to records or the accounting of disclosures from such records will be acknowledged in writing by the Agency within 10 days of receipt (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) and, wherever practicable, the acknowledgment will inform the requester whether access will be granted and, if so, the time and location at which the records or accounting will be made available. If access to the record of accounting is to be granted, the record or accounting will normally be provided within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) of the request, unless for good cause shown the Agency is unable to do so, in which case the individual will be informed in writing within that 30-day period of the reasons therefor and when it is anticipated that access will be granted. An acknowledgment of a request will not be provided if the record is made available within the 10-day period.
</P>
<P>(2) If an individual's request for access to a record or an accounting of disclosure from such a record under the provisions of this paragraph (b) is denied, the notice informing the individual of the denial will set forth the reasons therefor and advise the individual of the right to obtain a review of that determination under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section. The provisions of this paragraph (b)(2) do not apply to the extent that requested information from the relevant system of records has been exempted from this Privacy Act requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual granted access to records pertaining to such individual contained in a system of records may review all such records. For that purpose, the individual may be accompanied by a person of the individual's choosing, or the record may be released to the individual's representative who has written consent of the individual, as described in paragraph (e) of this section. A first copy of any such record or information will ordinarily be provided without charge to the individual or representative in a form comprehensible to the individual. Fees for any other copies of requested records will be assessed at the rate of 12 cents for each sheet of duplication.
</P>
<P>(d) An individual may request amendment of a record pertaining to such individual in a system of records maintained by the Agency. A request for amendment of a record must be in writing and submitted during normal business hours to the person designated for that purpose and at the address set forth in the published notice for the system of records containing the record of which amendment is sought. Copies of such notices, and assistance in preparing a request for amendment, may be obtained from any Regional Office of the Board or at the Board offices in Washington, DC. The requester must provide verification of identity as described in paragraph (e) of this section, and the request must set forth the specific amendment requested and the reason for the requested amendment. The Agency will acknowledge in writing receipt of the request within 10 days of receipt (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) and, whenever practicable, the acknowledgement will advise the individual of the determination of the request. If the review of the request for amendment cannot be completed and a determination made within 10 days, the review will be completed as soon as possible, normally within 30 days (Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays excluded) of receipt of the request unless unusual circumstances preclude completing the review within that time, in which event the requester will be notified in writing within that 30-day period of the reasons for the delay and when the determination of the request may be expected. If the determination is to amend the record, the requester will be so notified in writing and the record will be amended in accordance with that determination. If any disclosures accountable under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c) have been made, all previous recipients of the record which was amended must be advised of the amendment and its substance. If it is determined that the request may not be granted, the requester will be notified in writing of that determination and of the reasons therefor, and advised of the right to obtain review of the adverse determination under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section. The provisions of this paragraph (d) do not apply to the extent that requested information from the relevant system of records has been exempted from this Privacy Act requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) Verification of the identification of individuals required under paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section to assure that records are disclosed to the proper person will be required by the Agency to an extent consistent with the nature, location, and sensitivity of the records being disclosed. Disclosure of a record to an individual will normally be made upon the presentation of acceptable identification. Disclosure of records by mail may be made on the basis of the identifying information set forth in the request. Depending on the nature, location, and sensitivity of the requested record, a signed notarized statement verifying identity may be required by the Agency. Proof of authorization as representative to have access to a record of an individual must be in writing, and a signed notarized statement of such authorization may be required by the Agency if the record requested is of a sensitive nature.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Review may be obtained with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) A refusal, under paragraph (a) or (g) of this section, to inform an individual if a system of records contains a record concerning that individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) A refusal, under paragraph (b) or (g) of this section, to grant access to a record or an accounting of disclosure from such a record; or
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<P>(iii) A refusal, under paragraph (d) of this section, to amend a record.
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<P>(iv) The request for review may be made to the Chairman of the Board if the system of records is maintained in the office of a Member of the Board, the Office of the Executive Secretary, the Office of the Solicitor, the Office of Congressional and Public Affairs, or the Division of Administrative Law Judges. Consistent with the provisions of Section 3(d) of the Act, and the delegation of authority from the Board to the General Counsel, the request may be made to the General Counsel if the system of records is maintained by an office of the Agency other than those enumerated above. Either the Chairman of the Board or the General Counsel may designate in writing another officer of the Agency to review the refusal of the request. Such review will be completed within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) from the receipt of the request for review unless the Chairman of the Board or the General Counsel, as the case may be, for good cause shown, extends such 30-day period.
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<P>(2) If, upon review of a refusal under paragraph (a) or (g) of this section, the reviewing officer determines that the individual may be informed of whether a system of records contains a record pertaining to that individual, such information will be promptly provided. If the reviewing officer determines that the information was properly denied, the individual will be so informed in writing with a brief statement of the reasons therefor.
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<P>(3) If, upon review of a refusal under paragraph (b) or (g) of this section, the reviewing officer determines that access to a record or to an accounting of disclosures may be granted, the requester will be so notified and the record or accounting will be promptly made available to the requester. If the reviewing officer determines that the request for access was properly denied, the individual will be so informed in writing with a brief statement of the reasons therefor, and of the right to judicial review of that determination under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(B).
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<P>(4) If, upon review of a refusal under paragraph (i) of this section, the reviewing official grants a request to amend, the requester will be so notified, the record will be amended in accordance with the determination, and, if any disclosures accountable under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c) have been made, all previous recipients of the record which was amended will be advised of the amendment and its substance. If the reviewing officer determines that the denial of a request for amendment may be sustained, the Agency will advise the requester of the determination and the reasons therefor, and that the individual may file with the Agency a concise statement of the reason for disagreeing with the determination, and may seek judicial review of the Agency's denial of the request to amend the record. In the event a statement of disagreement is filed, that statement:
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<P>(i) Will be made available to anyone to whom the record is subsequently disclosed together with, at the discretion of the Agency, a brief statement summarizing the Agency's reasons for declining to amend the record; and
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<P>(ii) Will be supplied, together with any Agency statements, to any prior recipients of the disputed record to the extent that an accounting of disclosure was made.
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<P>(g) To the extent that portions of systems of records described in notices of Government-wide systems of records published by the Office of Personnel Management are identified by those notices as being subject to the management of an officer of this Agency, or an officer of the Agency is designated as the official to contact for information, access, or contents of those records, individual requests for access to those records, requests for their amendment, and review of denials of requests for amendment will be in accordance with the provisions of 5 CFR 297.101 through 297.501, as promulgated by the Office of Personnel Management. To the extent that portions of systems of records described in notices of Government-wide systems of records published by the Department of Labor are identified by those notices as being subject to the management of an officer of the Agency, or an officer of the Agency is designated as the official to contact for information, access, or contents of those records, individual requests for access to those records, requests for their amendment, and review of denials of requests for amendment will be in accordance with the provisions of this section. Review of a refusal to inform an individual whether such a system of records contains a record pertaining to that individual and review of a refusal to grant an individual's request for access to a record in such a system may be obtained in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section.
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<P>(h) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), the system of records maintained by the Office of the Inspector General of the National Labor Relations Board that contains Investigative Files will be exempted from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a, except subsections (b), (c)(1) and (2), (e)(4)(A) through (F), (e)(6), (7), (9), (10), and (11), and (i), from 29 CFR 102.117(c) and (d), and from 29 CFR 102.119(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f), insofar as the system contains investigatory material compiled for criminal law enforcement purposes.
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<P>(i) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the system of records maintained by the Office of the Inspector General of the National Labor Relations Board that contains the Investigative Files must be exempted from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f), from 29 CFR 102.117(c) and (d), and from 29 CFR 102.119(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f), insofar as the system contains investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes not within the scope of the exemption at 29 CFR 102.119(h).
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<P>(j) Privacy Act exemptions contained in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section are justified for the following reasons:
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<P>(1) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) requires an agency to make the accounting of each disclosure of records available to the individual named in the record at that individual's request. These accountings must state the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure of a record and the name and address of the recipient. Accounting for each disclosure would alert the subjects of an investigation to the existence of the investigation and the fact that they are subjects of the investigation. The release of such information to the subjects of an investigation would provide them with significant information concerning the nature of the investigation and could seriously impede or compromise the investigation, endanger the physical safety of confidential sources, witnesses, law enforcement personnel, and their families and lead to the improper influencing of witnesses, the destruction of evidence, or the fabrication of testimony.
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<P>(2) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(4) requires an agency to inform any person or other agency about any correction or notation of dispute made by the agency in accordance with subsection (d) of the Act. Since this system of records is being exempted from subsection (d) of the Act, concerning access to records, this section is inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempted from subsection (d) of the Act.
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<P>(3) 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) requires an agency to permit an individual to gain access to records pertaining to the individual, to request amendment to such records, to request a review of an agency decision not to amend such records, and to contest the information contained in such records. Granting access to records in this system of records could inform the subject of an investigation of an actual or potential criminal violation, of the existence of that investigation, of the nature and scope of the information and evidence obtained as to the individual's activities, or of the identity of confidential sources, witnesses, and law enforcement personnel and could provide information to enable the subject to avoid detection or apprehension. Granting access to such information could seriously impede or compromise an investigation, endanger the physical safety of confidential sources, witnesses, law enforcement personnel, and their families, lead to the improper influencing of witnesses, the destruction of evidence, or the fabrication of testimony, and disclose investigative techniques and procedures. In addition, granting access to such information could disclose classified, security-sensitive, or confidential business information and could constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of others.
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<P>(4) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1) requires each agency to maintain in its records only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required by statute or by executive order of the President. The application of this provision could impair investigations and law enforcement because it is not always possible to detect the relevance or necessity of specific information in the early stages of an investigation. Relevance and necessity are often questions of judgment and timing, and it is only after the information is evaluated that the relevance and necessity of such information can be established. In addition, during the course of the investigation, the investigator may obtain information which is incidental to the main purpose of the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. Such information cannot readily be segregated. Furthermore, during the course of the investigation, the investigator may obtain information concerning the violation of laws other than those which are within scope of the investigator's jurisdiction. In the interest of effective law enforcement, OIG investigators may retain this information, since it can aid in establishing patterns of criminal activity and can provide valuable leads for other law enforcement agencies.
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<P>(5) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(2) requires an agency to collect information to the greatest extent practicable directly from the subject individual when the information may result in adverse determinations about an individual's rights, benefits, and privileges under Federal programs. The application of this provision could impair investigations and law enforcement by alerting the subject of an investigation, thereby enabling the subject to avoid detection or apprehension, to influence witnesses improperly, to destroy evidence, or to fabricate testimony. Moreover, in certain circumstances, the subject of an investigation cannot be required to provide information to investigators and information must be collected from other sources. Furthermore, it is often necessary to collect information from sources other than the subject of the investigation to verify the accuracy of the evidence collected.
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<P>(6) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3) requires an agency to inform each person whom it asks to supply information, on a form that can be retained by the person, of the authority under which the information is sought and whether disclosure is mandatory or voluntary; of the principal purposes for which the information is intended to be used; of the routine uses which may be made of the information; and of the effects on the person, if any, of not providing all or any part of the requested information. The application of this provision could provide the subject of an investigation with substantial information about the nature of that investigation that could interfere with the investigation. Moreover, providing such a notice to the subject of an investigation could seriously impede or compromise an undercover investigation by revealing its existence and could endanger the physical safety of confidential sources, witnesses, and investigators by revealing their identities.
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<P>(7) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H) require an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice concerning its procedures for notifying an individual, at the individual's request, if the system of records contains a record pertaining to the individual, how to gain access to such a record, and how to contest its content. Since this system of records is being exempted from subsection (f) of the Act, concerning agency rules, and subsection (d) of the Act, concerning access to records, these requirements are inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempt from subsections (f) and (d) of the Act. Although the system would be exempt from these requirements, OIG has published information concerning its notification, access, and contest procedures because, under certain circumstances, OIG could decide it is appropriate for an individual to have access to all or a portion of the individual's records in this system of records.
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<P>(8) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I) requires an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice concerning the categories of sources of records in the system of records. Exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of the sources of information, to protect the privacy and physical safety of confidential sources and witnesses, and to avoid the disclosure of investigative techniques and procedures. Although the system will be exempt from this requirement, OIG has published such a notice in broad generic terms.
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<P>(9) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(5) requires an agency to maintain its records with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in making any determination about the individual. Since the Act defines <I>maintain</I> to include the collection of information, complying with this provision could prevent the collection of any data not shown to be accurate, relevant, timely, and complete at the moment it is collected. In collecting information for criminal law enforcement purposes, it is not possible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. Facts are first gathered and then placed into a logical order to prove or disprove objectively the criminal behavior of an individual. Material which seems unrelated, irrelevant, or incomplete when collected can take on added meaning or significance as the investigation progresses. The restrictions of this provision could interfere with the preparation of a complete investigative report, thereby impeding effective law enforcement.
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<P>(10) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(8) requires an agency to make reasonable efforts to serve notice on an individual when any record on such individual is made available to any person under compulsory legal process when such process becomes a matter of public record. Complying with this provision could prematurely reveal an ongoing criminal investigation to the subject of the investigation.
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<P>(11) 5 U.S.C. 552a(f)(1) requires an agency to promulgate rules that establish procedures whereby an individual can be notified in response to the individual's request if any system of records named by the individual contains a record pertaining to the individual. The application of this provision could impede or compromise an investigation or prosecution if the subject of an investigation were able to use such rules to learn of the existence of an investigation before it could be completed. In addition, mere notice of the fact of an investigation could inform the subject and others that their activities are under or may become the subject of an investigation and could enable the subjects to avoid detection or apprehension, to influence witnesses improperly, to destroy evidence, or to fabricate testimony. Since this system would be exempt from subsection (d) of the Act, concerning access to records, the requirements of subsection (f)(2) through (5) of the Act, concerning agency rules for obtaining access to such records, are inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempted from subsection (d) of the Act. Although this system would be exempt from the requirements of subsection (f) of the Act, OIG has promulgated rules which establish agency procedures because, under certain circumstances, it could be appropriate for an individual to have access to all or a portion of the individual's records in this system of records.
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<P>(12) 5 U.S.C. 552a(g) provides for civil remedies if an agency fails to comply with the requirements concerning access to records under subsections (d)(1) and (3) of the Act; maintenance of records under subsection (e)(5) of the Act; and any other provision of the Act, or any rule promulgated thereunder, in such a way as to have an adverse effect on an individual. Since this system of records would be exempt from subsections (c) (3) and (4), (d), (e)(1), (2), and (3) and (4)(G) through (I), (e)(5), and (8), and (f) of the Act, the provisions of subsection (g) of the Act would be inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempted from those subsections of the Act.
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<P>(k)-(l) [Reserved]


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<P>(m) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes that is contained in the Next Generation Case Management System (NxGen) (NLRB-33), are exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f).


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<P>(n) The reasons for exemption under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) are as follows:
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<P>(1) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) requires an agency to make the accounting of each disclosure of records available to the individual named in the record at such individual's request. These accountings must state the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure of a record, and the name and address of the recipient. Providing such an accounting of investigatory information to a party in an unfair labor practice or representation matter under investigation could inform that individual of the precise scope of an Agency investigation, or the existence or scope of another law enforcement investigation. Accordingly, this Privacy Act requirement could seriously impede or compromise either the Agency's investigation, or another law enforcement investigation, by causing the improper influencing of witnesses, retaliation against witnesses, destruction of evidence, or fabrication of testimony.
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<P>(2) 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) requires an agency to permit an individual to gain access to records pertaining to such individual, to request amendment to such records, to request review of an agency decision not to amend such records, and, where the Agency refuses to amend records, to submit a statement of disagreement to be included with the records. Such disclosure of investigatory information could seriously impede or compromise the Agency's investigation by revealing the identity of confidential sources or confidential business information, or causing the improper influencing of witnesses, retaliation against witnesses, destruction of evidence, fabrication of testimony, or unwarranted invasion of the privacy of others. Amendment of the records could interfere with ongoing law enforcement proceedings and impose an undue administrative burden by requiring investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
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<P>(3) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1) requires an agency to maintain in its records only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required by statute or by executive order of the President. This requirement could foreclose investigators from acquiring or receiving information the relevance and necessity of which is not readily apparent and could only be ascertained after a complete review and evaluation of all the evidence.
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<P>(4) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H) require an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice concerning its procedures for notifying an individual, at the individual's request, if the system of records contains a record pertaining to the individual, for gaining access to such a record, and for contesting its content. Because certain information from this system of records is exempt from subsection (d) of the Act concerning access to records, and consequently, from subsection (f) of the Act concerning Agency rules governing access, these requirements are inapplicable to that information.
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<P>(5) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I) requires an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice concerning the categories of sources of records in the system of records. Exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sources of information, to protect against the disclosure of investigative techniques and procedures, to avoid threats or reprisals against informers by subjects of investigations, and to protect against informers refusing to give full information to investigators for fear of having their identities as sources revealed.
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<P>(6) 5 U.S.C. 552a(f) requires an agency to promulgate rules for notifying individuals of Privacy Act rights granted by subsection (d) of the Act concerning access and amendment of records. Because certain information from this system is exempt from subsection (d) of the Act, the requirements of subsection (f) of the Act are inapplicable to that information.
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<P>(o) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), (3), (5), (6), and (7) of the Privacy Act, the system of records maintained by the NLRB containing Personnel Security Records shall be exempted from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f) insofar as the system may contain:
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<P>(1) Records properly classified pursuant to an Executive Order, within the meaning of section 552(b)(1);
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<P>(2) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2);
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<P>(3) Information maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to section 3056 of title 18 of the U.S. Code;
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<P>(4) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility or qualifications for Federal civilian employment and Federal contact or access to classified information;
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<P>(5) Testing and examination materials used for a personnel investigation for employment or promotion in the Federal service;
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<P>(6) Evaluation materials, compiled during the course of a personnel investigation, that are used solely to determine potential for promotion in the armed services.


</P>
<P>(p) The Privacy Act exemptions contained in paragraph (o) of this section are justified for the following reasons:
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<P>(1)(i) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) requires an agency to make the accounting of each disclosure of records available to the individual named in the record at his/her request. These accountings must state the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure of a record and the name and address of the recipient. 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) requires an agency to permit an individual to gain access to records pertaining to him/her, to request amendment to such records, to request a review of an agency decision not to amend such records, and to contest the information contained in such records.
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<P>(ii) Personnel investigations may contain properly classified information which pertains to national defense and foreign policy obtained from another Federal agency. Application of exemption 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1) is necessary to preclude an individual's access to and amendment of such classified information under 5 U.S.C. 552a(d).
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<P>(iii) Personnel investigations may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) is necessary to preclude an individual's access to or amendment of such records under 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d).
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<P>(iv) Personnel investigations may also contain information obtained from another Federal agency that relates to providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3056. Application of exemption 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(3) is necessary to preclude an individual's access to and amendment of such records under 5 U.S.C. 552a(d).
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<P>(v) Exemption 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) is claimed with respect to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d) because this system contains investigatory material compiled solely for determining suitability, eligibility, and qualifications for Federal employment. To the extent that the disclosure of material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, the applicability of exemption 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) will be required to honor promises of confidentiality should an individual request access to or amendment of the record, or access to the accounting of disclosures of the record. Similarly, personnel investigations may contain evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the armed services. Application of exemption 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(7) is necessary to the extent that the disclosure of data would compromise the anonymity of a source under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. Both of these exemptions are necessary to safeguard the integrity of background investigations by minimizing the threat of harm to confidential sources, witnesses, and law enforcement personnel. Additionally, these exemptions reduce the risks of improper influencing of sources, the destruction of evidence, and the fabrication of testimony.
</P>
<P>(vi) All information in this system that meets the criteria articulated in exemption 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6) is exempt from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), relating to access to and amendment of records by an individual. This exemption is claimed because portions of this system relate to testing or examining materials used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion to the Federal service. Access to or amendment to this information by an individual would compromise the objectivity and fairness of the testing or examining process.
</P>
<P>(2) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1) requires an agency to maintain in its records only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required by statute or by executive order of the President. This requirement could foreclose investigators from acquiring or receiving information the relevance and necessity of which is not readily apparent and could only be ascertained after a complete review and evaluation of all the evidence. This system of records is exempt from this requirement because in the course of personnel background investigations, the accuracy of information obtained or introduced occasionally may be unclear, or the information may not be strictly relevant or necessary to favorably or unfavorably adjudicate a specific investigation at a specific point in time. However, in the interests of protecting the public trust and national security, it is appropriate to retain all information that may aid in establishing patterns in such areas as criminal conduct, alcohol and drug use, financial dishonesty, allegiance, foreign preference or influence, and psychological conditions, that are relevant to future personnel security or suitability determinations.
</P>
<P>(3) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H) require an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice concerning its procedures for notifying an individual, at his/her request, if the system of records contains a record pertaining to him/her, how to gain access to such a record and how to contest its content. Since this system of records is being exempted from subsection (f) of the Privacy Act, concerning agency rules, and subsection (d) of the Privacy Act, concerning access to records, these requirements are inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempt from subsections (f) and (d) of the Privacy Act. Although the system would be exempt from these requirements, the NLRB has published information concerning its notification, access, and contest procedures because, under certain circumstances, it may be appropriate for a subject to have access to a portion of that individual's records in this system of records.
</P>
<P>(4) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I) requires an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice concerning the categories of sources of records in the system of records. Exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of the sources of information, to protect the privacy and physical safety of confidential sources and witnesses, and to avoid the disclosure of investigative techniques and procedures. Although the system will be exempt from this requirement, the agency has published source information in the accompanying notice in broad generic terms.
</P>
<P>(5) 5 U.S.C. 552a(f) requires an agency to promulgate rules which shall establish procedures whereby an individual can be notified in response to a request if any system of records named by the individual contains a record pertaining to that individual. The application of this provision could compromise the progress of an investigation concerning the suitability, eligibility, and fitness for service of applicants for Federal employment and impede a prompt assessment of the appropriate access to the Agency's facilities. Although this system would be exempt from the requirements of subsection (f) of the Privacy Act, the Agency has promulgated rules which establish agency procedures because, under certain circumstances, it could be appropriate for an individual to have access to all or a portion of that individual's records in this system of records.
</P>
<P>(q) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), (2), and (5), the system of records maintained by the NLRB containing NLRB iTrak and Banned Entry List records shall be exempted from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f) insofar as the system may contain:
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<P>(1) Records properly classified pursuant to an Executive order, within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2); and
</P>
<P>(3) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts or access to classified information.
</P>
<P>(r) The Privacy Act exemptions contained in paragraph (q) of this section are justified for the following reasons:
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<P>(1)(i) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) requires an agency to make the accounting of each disclosure of records available to the individual named in the record at his/her request. These accountings must state the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure of a record and the name and address of the recipient. 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) requires an agency to permit an individual to gain access to records pertaining to him/her, to request amendment to such records, to request a review of an agency decision not to amend such records, and to contest the information contained in such records.
</P>
<P>(ii) iTrak and Banned Entry List records may contain properly classified information which pertains to national defense and foreign policy obtained from another Federal agency. Application of exemption (k)(1) is necessary to preclude an individual's access to and amendment of such classified information under 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), which would pose a risk of harm to national defense and foreign policy interests.
</P>
<P>(iii) iTrak and Banned Entry List records may contain investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2). Application of exemption (k)(2) is necessary to preclude an individual's access to or amendment of such records under 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d), which would pose a risk of harm to law enforcement interests. Specifically, this exemption is necessary to safeguard the integrity of law enforcement investigations by minimizing the threat of harm to confidential sources, witnesses, and law enforcement personnel. Additionally, this exemption reduces the risks of improper influencing of sources, the destruction of evidence, and the fabrication of testimony.
</P>
<P>(iv) Exemption (k)(5) is claimed with respect to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d) because this system contains investigatory material compiled solely for determining suitability, eligibility, and qualifications for Federal employment. To the extent that the disclosure of material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, the applicability of exemption (k)(5) will be required to honor promises of confidentiality should an individual request access to or amendment of the record, or access to the accounting of disclosures of the record. This exemption is necessary to safeguard the integrity of security investigations by minimizing the threat of harm to confidential sources, witnesses, and law enforcement personnel. Additionally, this exemption reduces the risks of improper influencing of sources, the destruction of evidence, and the fabrication of testimony.
</P>
<P>(2) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1) requires an agency to maintain in its records only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required by statute or by Executive order of the President. This requirement could foreclose investigators from acquiring or receiving information the relevance and necessity of which is not readily apparent and could only be ascertained after a complete review and evaluation of all the evidence. This system of records is exempt from this requirement because in the course of security investigations, the accuracy of information obtained or introduced occasionally may be unclear, or the information may not be strictly relevant or necessary to favorably or unfavorably adjudicate a specific investigation at a specific point in time. However, in the interests of protecting the public trust and national security, it is appropriate to retain all information that may aid in establishing patterns in such areas as criminal conduct, alcohol and drug use, financial dishonesty, allegiance, foreign preference or influence, and psychological conditions, that are relevant to future security determinations.
</P>
<P>(3) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H) require an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice concerning its procedures for notifying an individual, at his/her request, if the system of records contains a record pertaining to him/her, how to gain access to such a record, and how to contest its content. Since this system of records is being exempted from subsection (f) of the Privacy Act concerning agency rules, and subsection (d) of the Privacy Act concerning access to records, these requirements are inapplicable to the extent that this system of records will be exempt from subsections (d) and (f) of the Act. Although the system would be exempt from these requirements, the NLRB has published information concerning its notification, access, and contest procedures because, under certain circumstances, it may be appropriate for a subject to have access to a portion of that individual's records in this system of records.
</P>
<P>(4) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(I) requires an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice concerning the categories of sources of records in the system of records. Exemption from this provision is necessary to protect the confidentiality of the sources of information, to protect the privacy and physical safety of confidential sources and witnesses, and to avoid the disclosure of investigative techniques and procedures. Although the system will be exempt from this requirement, the agency has published source information in the accompanying notice in broad generic terms.
</P>
<P>(5) 5 U.S.C. 552a(f) requires an agency to promulgate rules which shall establish procedures whereby an individual can be notified in response to a request if any system of records named by the individual contains a record pertaining to that individual. The application of this provision could compromise the progress of a law enforcement investigation regarding security and impede a prompt assessment of the appropriate access to the Agency's facilities. Although this system would be exempt from the requirements of subsection (f) of the Act, the Agency has promulgated rules which establish agency procedures because, under certain circumstances, it could be appropriate for an individual to have access to all or a portion of that individual's records in this system of records.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11754, Feb. 24, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 70425, Dec. 23, 2020; 85 FR 75855, Nov. 27, 2020; 89 FR 24714, Apr. 9, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Post-Employment Restrictions on Activities by Former Officers and Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.120" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.120   Post-employment restrictions on activities by former officers and employees.</HEAD>
<P>Former officers and employees of the Agency who were attached to any of its Regional Offices or the Washington staff are subject to the applicable post-employment restrictions imposed by 18 U.S.C. 207. Guidance concerning those restrictions may be obtained from the Designated Agency Ethics Officer and any applicable regulations issued by the Office of Government Ethics.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11768, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Construction of Rules</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11768, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.121" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.121   Rules to be liberally construed.</HEAD>
<P>The Rules and Regulations in this part will be liberally construed to effectuate the purposes and provisions of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 102.122-102.123" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 102.122-102.123   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.124" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.124   Petitions for issuance, amendment, or repeal of rules.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person may petition the Board, in writing, for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of a rule or regulation. An original of such petition must be filed with the Board and must state the rule or regulation proposed to be issued, amended, or repealed, together with a statement of grounds in support of such petition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.125" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.13.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.125   Action on petition.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the filing of such petition, the Board will consider the same and may either grant or deny the petition in whole or in part, conduct an appropriate hearing thereon, or make other disposition of the petition. Should the petition be denied in whole or in part, prompt notice will be given of the denial, accompanied by a simple statement of the grounds unless the denial is self-explanatory.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Amendments</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Ex Parte Communications</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 6, National Labor Relations Act, as amended (49 Stat. 452; 29 U.S.C. 156).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 13113, Mar. 8, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.126" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.126   Unauthorized communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No interested person outside this Agency may, in an on-the-record proceeding of the types defined in § 102.128, make or knowingly cause to be made any prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communication to Board agents of the categories designated in that Section relevant to the merits of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) No Board agent of the categories defined in § 102.128, participating in a particular proceeding as defined in that section, may:
</P>
<P>(i) Request any prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communications; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Make or knowingly cause to be made any prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communications about the proceeding to any interested person outside this Agency relevant to the merits of the proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.127" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.127   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>When used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>person outside this Agency,</I> to whom the prohibitions apply includes any individual outside this Agency, partnership, corporation, association, or other entity, or an agent thereof, and the General Counsel or the General Counsel's representative when prosecuting an unfair labor practice proceeding before the Board pursuant to Section 10(b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>ex parte communication</I> means an oral or written communication not on the public record with respect to which reasonable prior notice to all parties is not given, subject however, to the provisions of §§ 102.129 and 102.130.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13113, Mar. 8, 1977, as amended at 82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.128" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.128   Types of on-the-record proceedings; categories of Board agents; duration of prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise provided by specific order of the Board entered in the proceeding, the prohibition of § 102.126 will be applicable in the following types of on-the-record proceedings to unauthorized <I>ex parte</I> communications made to the designated categories of Board agents who participate in the decision, from the stage of the proceeding specified until the issues are finally resolved by the Board for the purposes of that proceeding under prevailing rules and practices:
</P>
<P>(a) In a pre-election proceeding pursuant to Section 9(c)(1) or 9(e), or in a unit clarification or certification amendment proceeding pursuant to Section 9(b) of the Act, in which a formal hearing is held, communications to the Regional Director and the Director's staff who review the record and prepare a draft of the decision, and Board Members and their staff, from the time the hearing is opened.
</P>
<P>(b) In a postelection proceeding pursuant to Section 9(c)(1) or 9(e) of the Act, in which a formal hearing is held, communications to the Hearing Officer, the Regional Director and the Director's staff who review the record and prepare a draft of the report or decision, and Board Members and their staff, from the time the hearing is opened.
</P>
<P>(c) In a postelection proceeding pursuant to Section 9(c)(1) or 9(e), or in a unit clarification or certification amendment proceeding pursuant to Section 9(b) of the Act, in which no formal hearing is held, communications to Board Members and their staff, from the time the Regional Director's report or decision is issued.
</P>
<P>(d) In a proceeding pursuant to Section 10(k) of the Act, communications to Board Members and their staff, from the time the hearing is opened.
</P>
<P>(e) In an unfair labor practice proceeding pursuant to Section 10(b) of the Act, communications to the Administrative Law Judge assigned to hear the case or to make rulings upon any motions or issues therein and Board Members and their staff, from the time the complaint and/or Notice of Hearing is issued, or the time the communicator has knowledge that a complaint or Notice of Hearing will be issued, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(f) In any other proceeding to which the Board by specific order makes the prohibition applicable, to the categories of personnel and from the stage of the proceeding specified in the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.129" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.129   Communications prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 102.130, <I>ex parte</I> communications prohibited by § 102.126 include:
</P>
<P>(a) Such communications, when written, if copies are not contemporaneously served by the communicator on all parties to the proceeding in accordance with the provisions of § 102.5(g).
</P>
<P>(b) Such communications, when oral, unless advance notice is given by the communicator to all parties in the proceeding and adequate opportunity afforded to them to be present.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.130" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.130   Communications not prohibited.</HEAD>
<P><I>Ex parte</I> communications prohibited by § 102.126 do not include oral or written communications or requests:
</P>
<P>(a) Which relate solely to matters which the Hearing Officer, Regional Director, Administrative Law Judge, or Board Member is authorized by law or Board Rules to entertain or dispose of on an <I>ex parte</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) For information solely with respect to the status of a proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Which all the parties to the proceeding agree, or which the responsible official formally rules, may be made on an <I>ex parte</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(d) Proposing settlement or an agreement for disposition of any or all issues in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e) Which concern matters of general significance to the field of labor-management relations or administrative practice and which are not specifically related to pending on-the-record proceedings.
</P>
<P>(f) From the General Counsel to the Board when the General Counsel is acting as counsel for the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.131" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.131   Solicitation of prohibited communications.</HEAD>
<P>No person may knowingly and willfully solicit the making of an unauthorized <I>ex parte</I> communication by any other person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.132" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.132   Reporting of prohibited communications; penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any Board agent of the categories defined in § 102.128 to whom a prohibited oral <I>ex parte</I> communication is attempted to be made shall refuse to listen to the communication, inform the communicator of this rule, and advise the communicator that anything may be said in writing with copies to all parties. Any Board agent who receives, or who makes or knowingly causes to be made, an unauthorized <I>ex parte</I> communication will place or cause to be placed on the public record of the proceeding:
</P>
<P>(1) The communication, if it was written;
</P>
<P>(2) A memorandum stating the substance of the communication, if it was oral;
</P>
<P>(3) All written responses to the prohibited communication; and
</P>
<P>(4) Memoranda stating the substance of all oral responses to the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(b) The Executive Secretary, if the proceeding is then pending before the Board, the Administrative Law Judge, if the proceeding is then pending before any such judge, or the Regional Director, if the proceeding is then pending before a Hearing Officer or the Regional Director, will serve copies of all such materials placed on the public record of the proceeding on all other parties to the proceeding and on the attorneys of record for the parties. Within 14 days after service of such copies, any party may file with the Executive Secretary, Administrative Law Judge, or Regional Director serving the communication, and serve on all other parties, a statement setting forth facts or contentions to rebut those contained in the prohibited communication. All such responses will be placed in the public record of the proceeding, and provision may be made for any further action, including reopening of the record which may be required under the circumstances. No action taken pursuant to this provision will constitute a waiver of the power of the Board to impose an appropriate penalty under § 102.133.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.133" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.133   Penalties and enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the nature and circumstances of a prohibited communication made by or caused to be made by a party to the proceeding are such that the interests of justice and statutory policy may require remedial action, the Board, the Administrative Law Judge, or the Regional Director, as the case may be, may issue to the party making the communication a Notice to Show Cause, returnable before the Board within a stated period not less than 7 days from the date of issuance, why the Board may not determine that the interests of justice and statutory policy require that the claim or interest in the proceeding of a party who knowingly makes a prohibited communication, or knowingly causes a prohibited communication to be made may be dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of such violation.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon notice and hearing, the Board may censure, suspend, or revoke the privilege of practice before the Agency of any person who knowingly and willfully makes or solicits the making of a prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communication. However, before the Board institutes formal proceedings under this paragraph (b), it will first advise the person or persons concerned in writing that it proposes to take such action and that they may show cause, within a period to be stated in such written advice, but not less than 7 days from the date thereof, why it may not take such action.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board may censure, or, to the extent permitted by law, suspend, dismiss, or institute proceedings for the dismissal of, any Board agent who knowingly and willfully violates the prohibitions and requirements of this rule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11778, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.134" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.16.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.134   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Procedure Governing Matters Affecting Employment-Management Agreements Under the Postal Reorganization Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.135" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.17.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.135   Postal Reorganization Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employment-management agreements.</I> All matters within the jurisdiction of the National Labor Relations Board pursuant to the Postal Reorganization Act (chapter 12 of title 39, U.S. Code, as revised) are governed by the provisions of subparts A, B, C, D, F, G, H, J, K, L, M, O, and P of this part, insofar as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inconsistencies.</I> To the extent that any provision of this subpart is inconsistent with any provision of title 39, United States Code, the provision of title 39 governs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> For the purposes of this subpart, references in the subparts cited in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Employer</I> is deemed to include the Postal Service;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Act</I> will in the appropriate context mean <I>Postal Reorganization Act;</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Section 9(c) of the Act</I> and cited paragraphs will mean <I>39 U.S.C. 1203(c) and 1204;</I> and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Section 9(b) of the Act</I> will mean <I>39 U.S.C. 1202.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11779, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Advisory Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.136" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.18.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.136   Establishment and use of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>Advisory committees may from time to time be established or used by the Agency in the interest of obtaining advice or recommendations on issues of concern to the Agency. The establishment, use, and functioning of such committees will be in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. 2, applicable Rules and Regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11779, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.19" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Open Meetings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 11779, Feb. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.137" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.19.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.137   Public observation of Board meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Every portion of every meeting of the Board will be open to public observation, except as provided in § 102.139, and Board Members will not jointly conduct or dispose of Agency business other than in accordance with the provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.138" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.19.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.138   Definition of <E T="0714">meeting</E>.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, <I>meeting</I> means the deliberations of at least three Members of the full Board, or the deliberations of at least two Members of any group of three Board Members to whom the Board has delegated powers which it may itself exercise, where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Agency business, but does not include deliberations to determine whether a meeting may be closed to public observation in accordance with the provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.139" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.19.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.139   Closing of meetings; reasons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where the Board determines that the public interest requires otherwise, meetings, or portions thereof, will not be open to public observation where the deliberations concern the issuance of a subpoena, the Board's participation in a civil action or proceeding or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition by the Board of particular representation or unfair labor practice proceedings under Section 8, 9, or 10 of the Act, or any court proceedings collateral or ancillary thereto.
</P>
<P>(b) Meetings, or portions thereof, may also be closed by the Board, except where it determines that the public interest requires otherwise, when the deliberations concern matters or information falling within the reasons for closing meetings specified in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(1) (secret matters concerning national defense or foreign policy); (c)(2) (internal personnel rules and practices); (c)(3) (matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute); (c)(4) (privileged or confidential trade secrets and commercial or financial information); (c)(5) (matters of alleged criminal conduct or formal censure); (c)(6) (personal information where disclosure would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy); (c)(7) (certain materials or information from investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes); or (c)(9)(B) (disclosure would significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed Agency action).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.140" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.19.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.140   Action necessary to close meeting; record of votes.</HEAD>
<P>A meeting will be closed to public observation under § 102.139, only when a majority of the Board Members who will participate in the meeting vote to take such action.
</P>
<P>(a) When the meeting deliberations concern matters specified in § 102.139(a), the Board Members will vote at the beginning of the meeting, or portion of the meeting, on whether to close such meeting, or portion of the meeting, to public observation, and on whether the public interest requires that a meeting which may properly be closed may nevertheless be open to public observation. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each Board Member, will be kept and made available to the public at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(b) When the meeting deliberations concern matters specified in § 102.139(b), the Board will vote on whether to close such meeting, or portion of the meeting, to public observation, and on whether there is a public interest which requires that a meeting which may properly be closed may nevertheless be open to public observation. The vote will be taken at a time sufficient to permit inclusion of information concerning the open or closed status of the meeting in the public announcement of the vote. A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings at which the deliberations will concern the same particular matters where such subsequent meetings are scheduled to be held within 30 days after the initial meeting. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each Board Member, will be kept and made available to the public within one day after the vote is taken.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever any person whose interests may be directly affected by deliberations during a meeting, or a portion of a meeting, requests that the Board close the meeting, or a portion of the meeting, to public observation for any of the reasons specified in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(5) (matters of alleged criminal conduct or formal censure), (c)(6) (personal information where disclosure would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy), or (c)(7) (certain materials or information from investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes), the Board Members participating in the meeting, upon request of any one of its Members, will vote on whether to close such meeting, or a portion of the meeting, for that reason. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each Board Member participating in the meeting will be kept and made available to the public within 1 day after the vote is taken.
</P>
<P>(d) After public announcement of a meeting as provided in § 102.141, a meeting, or portion of a meeting, announced as closed may be opened, or a meeting, or portion of a meeting, announced as open may be closed, only if a majority of the Board Members who will participate in the meeting determine by a recorded vote that Board business so requires and that an earlier announcement of the change was not possible. The change made and the vote of each Board Member on the change will be announced publicly at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(e) Before a meeting may be closed pursuant to § 102.139, the Solicitor of the Board will certify that in the Solicitor's opinion the meeting may properly be closed to public observation. The certification will set forth each applicable exemptive provision for such closing. Such certification will be retained by the Agency and made publicly available as soon as practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.141" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.19.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.141   Notice of meetings; public announcement and publication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A public announcement setting forth the time, place, and subject matter of meetings or portions of meetings closed to public observation pursuant to the provisions of § 102.139(a) will be made at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for meetings closed to public observation pursuant to the provisions of § 102.139(a), the Agency will publicly announce each meeting to be held at least 7 days before the scheduled date of the meeting. The announcement will specify the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open to public observation or closed, and the name, address, and phone number of an Agency official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting. The 7-day period for advance notice may be shortened only upon a determination by a majority of the Board Members who will participate in the meeting that Agency business requires that such meeting be called at an earlier date, in which event the public announcements will be made at the earliest practicable time. A record of the vote to schedule a meeting at an earlier date will be kept and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 1 day after the vote to close a meeting, or any portion of a meeting, pursuant to the provisions of § 102.139(b), the Agency will make publicly available a full written explanation of its action closing the meeting, or portion of a meeting, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation.
</P>
<P>(d) If after public announcement required by paragraph (b) of this section has been made, the time and place of the meeting are changed, a public announcement will be made at the earliest practicable time. The subject matter of the meeting may be changed after the public announcement only if a majority of the Members of the Board who will participate in the meeting determine that Agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible. When such a change in subject matter is approved a public announcement of the change will be made at the earliest practicable time. A record of the vote to change the subject matter of the meeting will be kept and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(e) All announcements or changes issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section, or pursuant to provisions of § 102.140(d), will be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> immediately following their release to the public.
</P>
<P>(f) Announcements of meetings made pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be made publicly available by the executive secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.142" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.19.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.142   Transcripts, recordings, or minutes of closed meetings; public availability; retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For every meeting or portion of a meeting closed under the provisions of § 102.139, the presiding officer will prepare a statement setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, which statement will be retained by the Agency. For each such meeting or portion of a meeting there will also be maintained a complete transcript or electronic recording of the proceedings, except that for meetings closed pursuant to § 102.139(a) the Board may, in lieu of a transcript or electronic recording, maintain a set of minutes fully and accurately summarizing any action taken, the reasons for taking the action, and views on the action taken, documents considered, and the Board Members' vote on each roll call vote.
</P>
<P>(b) The Agency will promptly make available to the public copies of transcripts, recordings, or minutes maintained as provided in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, except to the extent the items contain information which the Agency determines may be withheld pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(c). Copies of transcripts or minutes, or transcriptions of electronic recordings including the identification of speakers, will, to the extent determined to be publicly available, be furnished to any person, subject to the payment of duplication costs in accordance with the schedule of fees set forth in § 102.117(c)(2)(iv), and the actual cost of transcription.
</P>
<P>(c) The Agency will maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete electronic recording, or a complete set of the minutes for each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to the public, for a period of at least one year after the close of the Agency proceeding of which the meeting was a part, but in no event for a period of less than 2 years after such meeting.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="T" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart T—Awards of Fees and Other Expenses</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Equal Access to Justice Act, Pub. L. 96-481, 94 Stat. 2325.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 48087, Sept. 30, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.143" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.143   “Adversary adjudication” defined; entitlement to award; eligibility for award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>adversary adjudication,</I> as used in this subpart, means unfair labor practice proceedings pending before the Board on a complaint and backpay proceedings under §§ 102.52 through 102.59 pending before the Board on a Notice of Hearing at any time after October 1, 1984.
</P>
<P>(b) A Respondent in an adversary adjudication who prevails in that proceeding, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of that proceeding, and who otherwise meets the eligibility requirements of this section, is eligible to apply for an award of fees and other expenses allowable under the provisions of § 102.145.
</P>
<P>(c) Applicants eligible to receive an award are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million;
</P>
<P>(2) A sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests, and not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(4) A cooperative association as defined in Section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purpose of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant will be determined as of the date of the complaint in an unfair labor practice proceeding or the date of the Notice of Hearing in a backpay proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered as an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests.
</P>
<P>(f) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(g) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates will be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual, corporation, or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or any corporation or other entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will be considered an affiliate for purposes of this part, unless such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the Equal Access to Justice Act (94 Stat. 2325) in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph may constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(h) An applicant that participates in an adversary adjudication primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 48087, Sept. 30, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 17733, May 15, 1986; 51 FR 36224, Oct. 9, 1986; 82 FR 11781, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.144" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.144   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An eligible applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in connection with an adversary adjudication or in connection with a significant and discrete substantive portion of that proceeding, unless the position of the General Counsel over which the applicant has prevailed was substantially justified. The burden of proof that an award should not be made to an eligible applicant is on the General Counsel, who may avoid an award by showing that the General Counsel's position in the proceeding was substantially justified.
</P>
<P>(b) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the adversary adjudication or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 48087, Sept. 30, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 17733, May 15, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.145" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.145   Allowable fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) No award for the attorney or agent fees under these Rules may exceed $75 per hour. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the following matters will be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in practice, that person's customary fee for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services;
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant; and
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the adversary adjudicative proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter prepared on behalf of an applicant may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 48087, Sept. 30, 1981, as amended at 82 FR 11782, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.146" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.146   Rulemaking on maximum rates for attorney or agent fees.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may file with the Board a petition under § 102.124 for rulemaking to increase the maximum rate for attorney or agent fees. The petition should specify the rate the petitioner believes may be established and explain fully why the higher rate is warranted by an increase in the cost of living or a special factor (such as the limited availability of qualified attorneys or agents for the proceedings involved).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11782, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.147" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.147   Contents of application; net worth exhibit; documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act must identify the applicant and the adversary adjudication for which an award is sought. The application must state the particulars in which the applicant has prevailed and identify the positions of the General Counsel in that proceeding that the applicant alleges were not substantially justified. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application must also state the number, category, and work location of employees of the applicant and its affiliates and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
</P>
<P>(b) The application must include a statement that the applicant's net worth does not exceed $2 million (if an individual) or $7 million (for all other applicants, including their affiliates). However, an applicant may omit this statement if:
</P>
<P>(1) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such Section; or
</P>
<P>(2) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in Section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)).
</P>
<P>(c) The application must state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought.
</P>
<P>(d) The application may also include any other matters that the applicant wishes this Agency to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
</P>
<P>(e) The application must be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It must also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true.
</P>
<P>(f) Each applicant, except a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association, must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates (as defined in § 102.143(g)) when the adversary adjudicative proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The Administrative Law Judge may require an applicant to file such additional information as may be required to determine its eligibility for an award.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Unless otherwise directed by the Administrative Law Judge, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the fee application proceeding. An applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit may submit that portion of the exhibit in a sealed envelope labeled <I>Confidential Financial Information,</I> accompanied by a motion to withhold the information from public disclosure. The motion must describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why public disclosure of the information would adversely affect the applicant and why disclosure is not required in the public interest. The exhibit must be served on the General Counsel but need not be served on any other party to the proceeding. If the Administrative Law Judge finds that the information may not be withheld from disclosure, it will be placed in the public record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Administrative Law Judge grants the motion to withhold from public disclosure, the exhibit will remain sealed, except to the extent that its contents are required to be disclosed at a hearing. The granting of the motion to withhold from public disclosure will not determine the availability of the document under the Freedom of Information Act in response to a request made under the provisions of § 102.117. Notwithstanding that the exhibit may be withheld from public disclosure, the General Counsel may disclose information from the exhibit to others if required in the course of an investigation to verify the claim of eligibility.
</P>
<P>(h) The application must be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement must be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the dates and the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The Administrative Law Judge may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 48087, Sept. 30, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 17733, May 15, 1986; 51 FR 36224, Oct. 9, 1986; 82 FR 11782, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.148" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.148   When an application may be filed; place of filing; service; referral to Administrative Law Judge; stay of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be filed after entry of the final order establishing that the applicant has prevailed in an adversary adjudication proceeding or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of that proceeding, but in no case later than 30 days after the entry of the Board's final order in that proceeding. The application for an award must be filed with the Board in Washington, DC, together with a certificate of service. The application must be served on the Regional Director and on all parties to the adversary adjudication in the same manner as other pleadings in that proceeding, except as provided in § 102.147(g)(1) for financial information alleged to be confidential.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon filing, the application will be referred by the Board to the Administrative Law Judge who heard the adversary adjudication upon which the application is based, or, in the event that proceeding had not previously been heard by an Administrative Law Judge, it will be referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge for designation of an Administrative Law Judge, in accordance with § 102.34, to consider the application. When the Administrative Law Judge to whom the application has been referred is or becomes unavailable, the provisions of §§ 102.34 and 102.36 will apply.
</P>
<P>(c) Proceedings for the award of fees, but not the time limit of this section for filing an application for an award, will be stayed pending final disposition of the adversary adjudication in the event any person seeks reconsideration or review of the decision in that proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section the withdrawal of a complaint by a Regional Director under § 102.18 will be treated as a final order, and an appeal under § 102.19 will be treated as a request for reconsideration of that final order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11783, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.149" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.149   Filing of documents; service of documents; motions for extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All motions and pleadings after the time the case is referred by the Board to the Administrative Law Judge until the issuance of the Administrative Law Judge's decision must be filed with the Administrative Law Judge together with proof of service. Copies of all documents filed must be served on all parties to the adversary adjudication.
</P>
<P>(b) Motions for extensions of time to file motions, documents, or pleadings permitted by § 102.150 or by § 102.152 must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, the Deputy Chief Administrative Law Judge, or an Associate Chief Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be, no later than 3 days before the due date of the document. Notice of the request must be immediately served on all other parties and proof of service furnished.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11783, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.150" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.150   Answer to application; reply to answer; comments by other parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 35 days after service of an application, the General Counsel may file an answer to the application. Unless the General Counsel requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of this section, failure to file a timely answer may be treated as a consent to the award requested. The filing of a motion to dismiss the application will stay the time for filing an answer to a date 35 days after issuance of any order denying the motion. Within 21 days after service of any motion to dismiss, the applicant may file a response. Review of an order granting a motion to dismiss an application in its entirety may be obtained by filing a request with the Board in Washington, DC, pursuant to § 102.27.
</P>
<P>(b) If the General Counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate toward a settlement. The filing of such a statement will extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 35 days.
</P>
<P>(c) The answer must explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the General Counsel's position. If the answer is based on alleged facts not already in the record of the adversary adjudication, supporting affidavits must be provided or a request made for further proceedings under § 102.152.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 21 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on alleged facts not already in the record of the adversary adjudication, supporting affidavits must be provided or a request made for further proceedings under § 102.152.
</P>
<P>(e) Any party to an adversary adjudication other than the applicant and the General Counsel may file comments on a fee application within 35 days after it is served and on an answer within 21 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in the fee application proceeding unless the Administrative Law Judge determines that such participation is required in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11783, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.151" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.151   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and the General Counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application. If a prevailing party and the General Counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the proposed settlement must be filed with the application. All such settlements are subject to approval by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11783, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.152" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.152   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the documents in the record. The Administrative Law Judge, however, upon request of either the applicant or the General Counsel, or on the General Counsel's own initiative, may order further proceedings, including an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submission, or an evidentiary hearing. An evidentiary hearing will be held only when necessary for resolution of material issues of fact.
</P>
<P>(b) A request that the Administrative Law Judge order further proceedings under this section must specifically identify the disputed issues and the evidence sought to be adduced, and must explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.
</P>
<P>(c) An order of the Administrative Law Judge scheduling further proceedings will specify the issues to be considered.
</P>
<P>(d) Any evidentiary hearing held pursuant to this section will be open to the public and will be conducted in accordance with §§ 102.30 through 102.43, except §§ 102.33, 102.34, and 102.38.
</P>
<P>(e) Rulings of the Administrative Law Judge are reviewable by the Board only in accordance with the provisions of § 102.26.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11783, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.153" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.153   Administrative Law Judge's decision; contents; service; transfer of case to the Board; contents of record in case.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon conclusion of proceedings under §§ 102.147 through 102.152, the Administrative Law Judge will prepare a decision, which will include written findings and conclusions as necessary to dispose of the application. The Administrative Law Judge will transmit the decision to the Board. Upon receipt of the decision, the Board will enter an order transferring the case to the Board and will serve copies on all the parties of the Judge's decision and the Board's order, setting forth the date of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(b) The record in a proceeding on an application for an award of fees and expenses includes the application and any amendments or attachments, the net worth exhibit, the answer and any amendments or attachments, any reply to the answer, any comments by other parties, motions, rulings, orders, stipulations, written submissions, the transcript of any oral argument, the transcript of any hearing, exhibits, and depositions, together with the Administrative Law Judge's decision and exceptions, any cross-exceptions or answering briefs as provided in § 102.46, and the record of the adversary adjudication upon which the application is based.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11783, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.154" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.154   Exceptions to Administrative Law Judge's decision; briefs; action of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures before the Board, including the filing of exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's decision and briefs, and action by the Board, will be in accordance with §§ 102.46, 102.47, 102.48, and 102.50. The Board will issue a decision on the application or remand the proceeding to the Administrative Law Judge for further proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11783, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.155" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.20.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.155   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>To obtain payment of an award made by the Board, the applicant must submit to the Director of the Division of Administration, a copy of the Board's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek court review of the decision. If such statement is filed, the Agency will pay the amount of the award within 60 days, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision has been sought.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11783, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="U" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart U—Debt-Collection Procedures by Administrative Offset</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 55164, Oct. 23, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.156" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.156   Administrative offset; purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart specify the Agency procedures that will be followed to implement the administrative offset procedures set forth in the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365), 31 U.S.C. 3716.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11784, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.157" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.157   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>administrative offset</I> means the withholding of money payable by the United States to, or held by the United States on behalf of, a person to satisfy a debt owed the United States by that person.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>debtor</I> is any person against whom the Board has a claim.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>person</I> does not include any agency of the United States, or any state or local government.
</P>
<P>(d) The terms <I>claim</I> and <I>debt</I> are synonymous and interchangeable. They refer to an amount of money or property which has been determined by an appropriate Agency official to be owed to the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(e) A debt is considered <I>delinquent</I> if it has not been paid by the date specified in the Agency's initial demand letter (§ 102.161), unless satisfactory payment arrangements have been made by that date, or if, at any time thereafter, the debtor fails to satisfy the debtor's obligations under a payment agreement with the Agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55164, Oct. 23, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 11784, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.158" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.158   Agency requests for administrative offsets and cooperation with other Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise prohibited by law, the Agency may request that monies due and payable to a debtor by another Federal agency be administratively offset in order to collect debts owed the Agency by the debtor. In requesting an administrative offset, the Agency will provide the other Federal agency holding funds of the debtor with written certification stating:
</P>
<P>(a) That the debtor owes the Board a debt (including the amount of debt); and
</P>
<P>(b) That the Agency has complied with the applicable Federal Claims Collection Standards, including any hearing or review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.159" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.159   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Agency is not authorized by the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (31 U.S.C. 3716) to use administrative offset with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) Debts owed by any State or local government;
</P>
<P>(ii) Debts arising under or payments made under the Social Security Act, the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, or the tariff laws of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iii) When a statute explicitly provides for or prohibits using administrative offset to collect the claim or type of claim involved.
</P>
<P>(2) No claim that has been outstanding for more than 10 years after the Board's right to collect the debt first accrued may be collected by means of administrative offset, unless facts material to the right to collect the debt were not known, and could not reasonably have been known, by the official of the Agency who was charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts until within 10 years of the initiation of the collection action. A determination of when the debt first accrued may be made according to existing laws regarding the accrual of debts, such as under 28 U.S.C. 2415. Unless otherwise provided by contract or law, debts or payments owed the Board which are not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under the common law or other applicable statutory authority, pursuant to this paragraph (a) or Board regulations established pursuant to such other statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Collection by offset against a judgment obtained by a debtor against the United State will be accomplished in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3728.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11784, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.160" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.160   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agency will provide appropriate written or other guidance to Agency officials in carrying out this subpart, including the issuance of guidelines and instructions. The Agency will also take such administrative steps as may be appropriate to carry out the purposes and ensure the effective implementation of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Before collecting a claim by means of administrative offset, the Agency must ensure that administrative offset is feasible, allowable and appropriate, and must notify the debtor of the Agency's policies for collecting a claim by means of administrative offset.
</P>
<P>(c) Whether collection by administrative offset is feasible is a determination to be made by the Agency on a case-by-case basis, in the exercise of sound discretion. The Agency shall consider not only whether administrative offset can be accomplished, both practically and legally, but also whether administrative offset will further and protect the best interests of the United States Government. In appropriate circumstances, the Agency may give due consideration to the debtor's financial condition, and it is not expected that administrative offset will be used in every available instance, particularly where there is another readily available source of funds. The Agency may also consider whether administrative offset would substantially interfere with or defeat the purposes of the program authorizing the payments against which offset is contemplated.
</P>
<P>(d) Administrative offset must be considered by the Agency only after attempting to collect a claim under 31 U.S.C. 3711(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55164, Oct. 23, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 11784, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.161" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.161   Notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agency must send a written demand to the debtor in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to cooperate. In the demand letter, the Agency must provide the name of an Agency employee who can provide a full explanation of the claim. When the Agency deems it appropriate to protect the Government's interests (for example, to prevent the statute of limitations, 28 U.S.C. 2415, from expiring), written demand may be preceded by other appropriate actions.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with guidelines established by the Agency, the Agency official responsible for collection of the debt must send written notice to the debtor, informing the debtor, as appropriate, of the:
</P>
<P>(1) Nature and amount of the Board's claim;
</P>
<P>(2) Date by which payment is to be made (which normally may be not more than 30 days from the date that the initial notification was mailed or hand delivered);
</P>
<P>(3) Agency's intent to collect by administrative offset and of the debtor's rights in conjunction with such an offset;
</P>
<P>(4) Agency's intent to collect, as appropriate, interest, penalties, administrative costs and attorneys fees;
</P>
<P>(5) Rights of the debtor to a full explanation of the claim, of the opportunity to inspect and copy Agency records with respect to the claim and to dispute any information in the Agency's records concerning the claim;
</P>
<P>(6) Debtor's right to administrative appeal or review within the Agency concerning the Agency's claim and how such review must be obtained;
</P>
<P>(7) Debtor's opportunity to enter into a written agreement with the Agency to repay the debt; and
</P>
<P>(8) Date on which, or after which, an administrative offset will begin.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11784, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.162" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.162   Examination and copying of records related to the claim; opportunity for full explanation of the claim.</HEAD>
<P>Following receipt of the demand letter specified in § 102.161, and in conformity with Agency guidelines governing such requests, the debtor may request to examine and copy publicly available records pertaining to the debt, and may request a full explanation of the Agency's claim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.163" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.163   Opportunity for repayment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agency must afford the debtor the opportunity to repay the debt or enter into a repayment plan which is agreeable to the Agency and is in a written form signed by the debtor. The Agency may deem a repayment plan to be abrogated if the debtor, after the repayment plan is signed, fails to comply with the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) The Agency has discretion and may exercise sound judgment in determining whether to accept a repayment agreement in lieu of administrative offset.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.164" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.164   Review of the obligation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The debtor shall have the opportunity to obtain review by the Agency of the determination concerning the existence or amount of the debt as set forth in the notice. In cases where the amount of the debt has been fully liquidated, the review is limited to ensuring that the liquidated amount is correctly represented in the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) The debtor seeking review shall make the request in writing to the Agency, not more than 15 days from the date the demand letter was received by the debtor. The request for review shall state the basis for challenging the determination. If the debtor alleges that the Agency's information relating to the debt is not accurate, timely, relevant or complete, the debtor shall provide information or documentation to support this allegation.
</P>
<P>(c) The Agency may effect an administrative offset against a payment to be made to a debtor prior to the completion of the due process procedures required by this subpart, if failure to take the offset would substantially prejudice the Agency's ability to collect the debt; for example, if the time before the payment is to be made would not reasonably permit the completion of due process procedures. Administrative offset effected prior to completion of due process procedures must be promptly followed by the completion of those procedures. Amounts recovered by administrative offset, but later found not owed to the Agency, will be promptly refunded.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon completion of the review, the Agency's reviewing official shall transmit to the debtor the Agency's decision. If appropriate, this decision shall inform the debtor of the scheduled date on or after which administrative offset will begin. The decision shall also, if appropriate, indicate any changes in information to the extent such information differs from that provided in the initial notification to the debtor under § 102.161.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this subpart will preclude the Agency from <I>sua sponte</I> reviewing the obligation of the debtor, including reconsideration of the Agency's determination concerning the debt, and the accuracy, timeliness, relevance, and completeness of the information on which the debt is based.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55164, Oct. 23, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.165" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.165   Cost shifting.</HEAD>
<P>Costs incurred by the Agency in connection with referral of debts for administrative offset will be added to the debt and thus increase the amount of the offset. Such costs may include administrative costs and attorneys fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.166" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.166   Additional administrative collection action.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart is intended to preclude the Agency from utilizing any other administrative or legal remedy which may be available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.167" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.21.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.167   Prior provision of rights with respect to debt.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that the rights of the debtor in relation to the same debt have been previously provided for under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the Agency is not required to duplicate those efforts before effecting administrative offset.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="V" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart V—Debt Collection Procedures By Federal Income Tax Refund Offset</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 55166, Oct. 23, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.168" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.168   Federal income tax refund offset; purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart specify the Agency procedures that will be followed to implement the federal income tax refund offset procedures set forth in 26 U.S.C. 6402(d) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code), 31 U.S.C. 3720A, and 301.6402-6 of the Treasury Regulations on Procedure and Administration (26 CFR 301.6402-6). This statute and the implementing regulations of the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) at 26 CFR 301.6402-6 authorize the IRS to reduce a tax refund by the amount of a past-due legally enforceable debt owed to the United States. The regulations apply to past-due legally enforceable debts owed to the Agency by individuals and business entities. The regulations are not intended to limit or restrict debtor access to any judicial remedies to which the debtor may otherwise be entitled.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.169" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.169   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Tax refund offset</I> refers to the IRS income tax refund offset program operated under authority of 31 U.S.C. 3720A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Past-due legally enforceable debt</I> is a delinquent debt administratively determined to be valid, whereon no more than 10 years have lapsed since the date of delinquency (unless reduced to judgment), and which is not discharged under a bankruptcy proceeding or subject to an automatic stay under 11 U.S.C. 362.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual</I> refers to a taxpayer identified by a social security number (SSN).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business entity</I> refers to an entity identified by an employer identification number (EIN).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Taxpayer mailing address</I> refers to the debtor's current mailing address as obtained from IRS.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Memorandum of understanding</I> refers to the agreement between the Agency and IRS outlining the duties and responsibilities of the respective parties for participation in the tax refund offset program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55166, Oct. 23, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.170" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.170   Agency referral to IRS for tax referral effect; Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As authorized and required by law, the Agency may refer past-due legally enforceable debts to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) for collection by offset from any overpayment of income tax that may otherwise be due to be refunded to the taxpayer. By the date and in the manner prescribed by the IRS, the Agency may refer for tax refund offset past-due legally enforceable debts. Such referrals shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the debtor is an individual or a business entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and taxpayer identification number (SSN or EIN) of the debtor who is responsible for the debt;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(4) A designation that the Agency is referring the debt and (as appropriate) Agency account identifiers.
</P>
<P>(b) The Agency will ensure the confidentiality of taxpayer information as required by the IRS in its Tax Information Security Guidelines.
</P>
<P>(c) As necessary, the Agency will submit updated information at the times and in the manner prescribed by the IRS to reflect changes in the status of debts or debtors referred for tax refund offset.
</P>
<P>(d) Amounts erroneously offset will be refunded by the Agency or the IRS in accordance with the Memorandum of Understanding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55166, Oct. 23, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.171" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.171   Cost shifting.</HEAD>
<P>Costs incurred by the Agency in connection with referral of debts for tax refund offset will be added to the debt and thus increase the amount of the offset. Such costs may include administrative costs and attorneys fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.172" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.172   Minimum referral amount.</HEAD>
<P>The minimum amount of a debt otherwise eligible for Agency referral to the IRS is $25 for individual debtors and $100 for business debtors. The amount referred may include the principal portion of the debt, as well as any accrued interest, penalties, administrative cost charges, and attorney fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.173" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.173   Relation to other collection efforts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tax refund offset is intended to be an administrative collection remedy to be used consistent with IRS requirements for participation in the program, and the costs and benefits of pursuing alternative remedies when the tax refund offset program is readily available. To the extent practical, the requirements of the program will be met by merging IRS requirements into the Agency's overall requirements for delinquent debt collection.
</P>
<P>(b) As appropriate, debts of an individual debtor of $100 or more will be reported to a consumer or commercial credit reporting agency before referral for tax refund offset.
</P>
<P>(c) Debts owed by individuals will be screened for administrative offset potential using the most current information reasonably available to the Agency, and will not be referred for tax refund offset where administrative offset potential is found to exist.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55166, Oct. 23, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.174" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.174   Debtor notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agency must send appropriate written demand to the debtor in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to repay debts or claims owed to the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) Before the Agency refers a debt to the IRS for tax refund offset, it will make a reasonable attempt to notify the debtor that:
</P>
<P>(1) The debt is past-due;
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the debt is repaid or a satisfactory repayment agreement is established within 60 days thereafter, the debt will be referred to the IRS for offset from any overpayment of tax remaining after taxpayer liabilities of greater priority have been satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor will have a minimum of 60 days from the date of notification to present evidence that all or part of the debt is not past due or legally enforceable, and the Agency will consider this evidence in a review of its determination that the debt is past due and legally enforceable. The debtor will be advised where and to whom evidence is to be submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) The Agency will make a reasonable attempt to notify the debtor by using the most recent address information available to the Agency or obtained from the IRS, unless written notification to the Agency is received from the debtor stating that notices from the Agency are to be sent to a different address.
</P>
<P>(d) The notification required by paragraph (b) of this section and sent to the address specified in paragraph (c) of this section may, at the option of the Agency, be incorporated into demand letters required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 55166, Oct. 23, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.175" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.175   Agency review of the obligation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agency official responsible for collection of the debt will consider any evidence submitted by the debtor as a result of the notification required by § 102.174 and notify the debtor of the result. If appropriate, the debtor will also be advised where and to whom to request a review of any unresolved dispute.
</P>
<P>(b) The debtor will be granted 30 days from the date of the notification required by paragraph (a) of this section to request a review of the determination of the Agency official responsible for collection of the debt on any unresolved dispute. The debtor will be advised of the result.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.176" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.22.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.176   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="W" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.23" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart W—Misconduct by Attorneys or Party Representatives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.177" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.23.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.177   Exclusion from hearings; refusal of witness to answer questions; misconduct by attorneys and party representatives before the Agency; procedures for processing misconduct allegations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any attorney or other representative appearing or practicing before the Agency must conform to the standards of ethical and professional conduct required of practitioners before the courts, and the Agency will be guided by those standards in interpreting and applying the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Misconduct by any person at any hearing before an Administrative Law Judge, Hearing Officer, or the Board may be grounds for summary exclusion from the hearing. Notwithstanding the procedures set forth in paragraph (e) of this section for handling allegations of misconduct, the Administrative Law Judge, Hearing Officer, or Board has the authority in the proceeding in which the misconduct occurred to admonish or reprimand, after due notice, any person who engages in misconduct at a hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The refusal of a witness at any such hearing to answer any question which has been ruled to be proper may, in the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge or Hearing Officer, be grounds for striking all testimony previously given by such witness on related matters.
</P>
<P>(d) Misconduct by an attorney or other representative at any stage of any Agency proceeding, including but not limited to misconduct at a hearing, may be grounds for discipline. Such misconduct of an aggravated character may be grounds for suspension and/or disbarment from practice before the Agency and/or other sanctions.
</P>
<P>(e) All allegations of misconduct pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, except for those involving the conduct of Agency employees, will be handled in accordance with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Allegations that an attorney or party representative has engaged in misconduct may be brought to the attention of the Investigating Officer by any person. The Investigating Officer, for purposes of this paragraph (e)(1), is the head of the Division of Operations-Management, or designee.
</P>
<P>(2) The Investigating Officer or designee will conduct such investigation as is deemed appropriate and will have the usual powers of investigation provided in Section 11 of the Act. Following the investigation, the Investigating Officer will make a recommendation to the General Counsel, who will make the determination whether to institute disciplinary proceedings against the attorney or party representative. The General Counsel's authority to make this determination is not delegable to the Regional Director or other personnel in the Regional Office. If the General Counsel determines not to institute disciplinary proceedings, all interested persons will be notified of the determination, which is final.
</P>
<P>(3) If the General Counsel decides to institute disciplinary proceedings against the attorney or party representative, the General Counsel or designee will serve the respondent with a complaint which will include: A statement of the acts which are claimed to constitute misconduct including the approximate date and place of such acts together with a statement of the discipline recommended; notification of the right to a hearing before an Administrative Law Judge with respect to any material issues of fact or mitigation; and an explanation of the method by which a hearing may be requested. The complaint will not be issued until the respondent has been notified of the allegations in writing and has been afforded a reasonable opportunity to respond.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 14 days of service of the disciplinary complaint, the Respondent must file an answer admitting or denying the allegations, and may request a hearing. If no answer is filed or no material issue of fact or relevant to mitigation warranting a hearing is raised, the matter may be submitted directly to the Board. If no answer is filed, then the allegations will be deemed admitted.
</P>
<P>(5) Sections 102.24 through 102.51, rules applicable to unfair labor practice proceedings, apply to disciplinary proceedings under this section to the extent that they are not contrary to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The hearing will be conducted at a reasonable time, date, and place. In setting the hearing date, the Administrative Law Judge will give due regard to the Respondent's need for time to prepare an adequate defense and the need of the Agency and the Respondent for an expeditious resolution of the allegations.
</P>
<P>(7) The hearing will be public unless otherwise ordered by the Board or the Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(8) Any person bringing allegations of misconduct or filing a petition for disciplinary proceedings against an attorney or party representative will be given notice of the scheduled hearing. Any such person will not be a party to the disciplinary proceeding, however, and will not be afforded the rights of a party to call, examine or cross-examine witnesses and introduce evidence at the hearing, to file exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's decision, or to appeal the Board's decision.
</P>
<P>(9) The Respondent will, upon request, be provided with an opportunity to read the transcript or listen to a recording of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(10) The General Counsel must establish the alleged misconduct by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(11) At any stage of the proceeding prior to hearing, the Respondent may submit a settlement proposal to the General Counsel, who may approve the settlement or elect to continue with the proceedings. Any formal settlement reached between the General Counsel and the Respondent, providing for entry of a Board order reprimanding, suspending, disbarring or taking other disciplinary action against the Respondent, is subject to final approval by the Board. In the event any settlement, formal or informal, is reached after opening of the hearing, such settlement must be submitted to the Administrative Law Judge for approval. In the event the Administrative Law Judge rejects the settlement, either the General Counsel or the Respondent may appeal such ruling to the Board as provided in § 102.26.
</P>
<P>(12) If it is found that the Respondent has engaged in misconduct in violation of paragraph (d) of this section, the Board may issue a final order imposing such disciplinary sanctions as it deems appropriate, including, where the misconduct is of an aggravated character, suspension and/or disbarment from practice before the Agency, and/or other sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) Any person found to have engaged in misconduct warranting disciplinary sanctions under paragraph (d) of this section may seek judicial review of the administrative determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11785, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="X" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.24" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart X—Special Procedures When the Board Lacks a Quorum</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 77700, Dec. 14, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.178" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.24.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.178   Normal operations should continue.</HEAD>
<P>The policy of the National Labor Relations Board is that during any period when the Board lacks a quorum normal Agency operations should continue to the greatest extent permitted by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.179" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.24.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.179   Motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal referred to Chief Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>During any period when the Board lacks a quorum, all motions for default judgment, summary judgment, or dismissal filed or pending pursuant to § 102.50 will be referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in Washington, DC, for ruling. Such rulings by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, and orders in connection therewith, may not be appealed directly to the Board, but will be considered by the Board in reviewing the record if exception to the ruling or order is included in the statement of exceptions filed with the Board pursuant to § 102.46.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11786, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.180" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.24.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.180   Requests for special permission to appeal referred to Chief Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>During any period when the Board lacks a quorum, any request for special permission to appeal filed or pending pursuant to § 102.26 will be referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge in Washington, DC, for ruling. Such rulings by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, and orders in connection therewith, may not be appealed directly to the Board, but will be considered by the Board in reviewing the record if exception to the ruling or order is included in the statement of exceptions filed with the Board pursuant to § 102.46.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11786, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.181" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.24.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.181   Administrative and procedural requests referred to Executive Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>During any period when the Board lacks a quorum, administrative and procedural requests that would normally be filed with the Office of the Executive Secretary for decision by the Board prior to the filing of a request for review under § 102.67, or exceptions under §§ 102.46 and 102.69, will be referred to the Executive Secretary for ruling. Rulings by the Executive Secretary, and orders in connection therewith, may not be appealed directly to the Board, but will be considered by the Board if such matters are raised by a party in its request for review or exceptions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11786, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.182" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.3.24.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.182   Representation cases should be processed to certification.</HEAD>
<P>During any period when the Board lacks a quorum, the second proviso of § 102.67(b) regarding the automatic impounding of ballots will be suspended. To the extent practicable, all representation cases may continue to be processed and the appropriate certification should be issued by the Regional Director notwithstanding the pendency of a request for review, subject to revision or revocation by the Board pursuant to a request for review filed in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 11786, Feb. 24, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="103" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 103—OTHER RULES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 156, in accordance with the procedure set forth in 5 U.S.C. 553.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Jurisdictional Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.1" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.1   Colleges and universities.</HEAD>
<P>The Board will assert its jurisdiction in any proceeding arising under sections 8, 9, and 10 of the Act involving any private nonprofit college or university which has a gross annual revenue from all sources (excluding only contributions which, because of limitation by the grantor, are not available for use for operating expenses) of not less than $1 million.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 18370, Dec. 3, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.2" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.2   Symphony orchestras.</HEAD>
<P>The Board will assert its jurisdiction in any proceeding arising under sections 8, 9, and 10 of the Act involving any symphony orchestra which has a gross annual revenue from all sources (excluding only contributions which are because of limitation by the grantor not available for use for operating expenses) of not less than $1 million.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 6177, Mar. 7, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.3" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.3   Horseracing and dogracing industries.</HEAD>
<P>The Board will not assert its jurisdiction in any proceeding under sections 8, 9, and 10 of the Act involving the horseracing and dogracing industries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 9507, Apr. 17, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Election Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.20" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.20   Election procedures and blocking charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever any party to a representation proceeding files an unfair labor practice charge together with a request that it block the processing of the petition to the election, or whenever any party to a representation proceeding requests that its previously filed unfair labor practice charge block the further processing of the petition, the party shall simultaneously file, but not serve on any other party, a written offer of proof in support of the charge. The offer of proof shall provide the names of the witnesses who will testify in support of the charge and a summary of each witness's anticipated testimony. The party seeking to block the processing of a petition shall also promptly make available to the regional director the witnesses identified in its offer of proof.
</P>
<P>(b) If the regional director determines that the party's offer of proof describes evidence that, if proven, would interfere with employee free choice in an election, the regional director shall, absent special circumstances, hold the petition in abeyance and notify the parties of this determination.
</P>
<P>(c) If the regional director determines that the party's offer of proof describes evidence that, if proven, would be inherently inconsistent with the petition itself, the regional director shall, absent special circumstances, hold the petition in abeyance and notify the parties of this determination; in appropriate circumstances, the regional director should dismiss the petition subject to reinstatement and notify the parties of this determination.
</P>
<P>(d) If the regional director determines that the party's offer of proof does not describe evidence that, if proven, would interfere with employee free choice in an election or would be inherently inconsistent with the petition itself, and thus would require that the processing of the petition be held in abeyance absent special circumstances, the regional director shall continue to process the petition and conduct the election where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) If, after holding a petition in abeyance, the regional director determines that special circumstances have arisen or that employee free choice is possible notwithstanding the pendency of the unfair labor practices, the regional director may resume processing the petition.
</P>
<P>(f) If, upon completion of investigation of the charge, the regional director determines that the charge lacks merit and is to be dismissed, absent withdrawal, the regional director shall resume processing the petition, provided that resumption of processing is otherwise appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) Upon final disposition of a charge that the regional director initially determined had merit, the regional director shall resume processing a petition that was held in abeyance due to the pendency of the charge, provided that resumption of processing is otherwise appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) The provisions of this section are intended to be severable. If any paragraph of this section is held to be unlawful, the remaining paragraphs of this section not deemed unlawful are intended to remain in effect to the fullest extent permitted by law.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 63026, Aug. 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.21" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.21   Processing of petitions filed after voluntary recognition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer's voluntary recognition of a labor organization as exclusive bargaining representative of a unit of the employer's employees, based on a showing of the union's majority status, bars the processing of an election petition for a reasonable period of time for collective bargaining between the employer and the labor organization.
</P>
<P>(b) A reasonable period of time for collective bargaining, during which the voluntary-recognition bar will apply, is defined as no less than 6 months after the parties' first bargaining session and no more than 1 year after that date.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining whether a reasonable period of time for collective bargaining has elapsed in a given case, the following factors will be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the parties are bargaining for an initial collective-bargaining agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) The complexity of the issues being negotiated and of the parties' bargaining processes;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of time elapsed since bargaining commenced and the number of bargaining sessions;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of progress made in negotiations and how near the parties are to concluding an agreement; and
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the parties are at impasse.
</P>
<P>(d) In each case where a reasonable period of time is at issue, the burden of proof is on the proponent of the voluntary-recognition bar to show that further bargaining should be required before an election petition may be processed.
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), an employer's voluntary recognition of a labor organization as exclusive bargaining representative of a unit of the employer's employees will not preclude the processing of a petition filed by a competing labor organization where authorized by Board precedent.
</P>
<P>(f) This section shall be applicable to an employer's voluntary recognition of a labor organization on or after September 30, 2024.
</P>
<P>(g) The provisions of this section are intended to be severable. If any paragraph of this section is held to be unlawful, the remaining paragraphs of this section not deemed unlawful are intended to remain in effect to the fullest extent permitted by law.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 63026, Aug. 1, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Appropriate Bargaining Units</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.30" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.30   Appropriate bargaining units in the health care industry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This portion of the rule shall be applicable to acute care hospitals, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section: Except in extraordinary circumstances and in circumstances in which there are existing non-conforming units, the following shall be appropriate units, and the only appropriate units, for petitions filed pursuant to section 9(c)(1)(A)(i) or 9(c)(1)(B) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, except that, if sought by labor organizations, various combinations of units may also be appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) All registered nurses.
</P>
<P>(2) All physicians.
</P>
<P>(3) All professionals except for registered nurses and physicians.
</P>
<P>(4) All technical employees.
</P>
<P>(5) All skilled maintenance employees.
</P>
<P>(6) All business office clerical employees.
</P>
<P>(7) All guards.
</P>
<P>(8) All nonprofessional employees except for technical employees, skilled maintenance employees, business office clerical employees, and guards.
</P>
<FP><I>Provided That</I> a unit of five or fewer employees shall constitute an extraordinary circumstance.
</FP>
<P>(b) Where extraordinary circumstances exist, the Board shall determine appropriate units by adjudication.
</P>
<P>(c) Where there are existing non-conforming units in acute care hospitals, and a petition for additional units is filed pursuant to sec. 9(c)(1)(A)(i) or 9(c)(1)(B), the Board shall find appropriate only units which comport, insofar as practicable, with the appropriate unit set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board will approve consent agreements providing for elections in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, but nothing shall preclude regional directors from approving stipulations not in accordance with paragraph (a), as long as the stipulations are otherwise acceptable.
</P>
<P>(e) This rule will apply to all cases decided on or after May 22, 1989.
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of this rule, the term:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Hospital</I> is defined in the same manner as defined in the Medicare Act, which definition is incorporated herein (currently set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395x(e), as revised 1988);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acute care hospital</I> is defined as: either a short term care hospital in which the average length of patient stay is less than thirty days, or a short term care hospital in which over 50% of all patients are admitted to units where the average length of patient stay is less than thirty days. Average length of stay shall be determined by reference to the most recent twelve month period preceding receipt of a representation petition for which data is readily available. The term “acute care hospital” shall include those hospitals operating as acute care facilities even if those hospitals provide such services as, for example, long term care, outpatient care, psychiatric care, or rehabilitative care, but shall exclude facilities that are primarily nursing homes, primarily psychiatric hospitals, or primarily rehabilitation hospitals. Where, after issuance of a subpoena, an employer does not produce records sufficient for the Board to determine the facts, the Board may presume the employer is an acute care hospital.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Psychiatric hospital</I> is defined in the same manner as defined in the Medicare Act, which definition is incorporated herein (currently set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395x(f)).
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>rehabilitation hospital</I> includes and is limited to all hospitals accredited as such by either Joint Committee on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations or by Commission for Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities.
</P>
<P>(5) A <I>non-conforming unit</I> is defined as a unit other than those described in paragraphs (a) (1) through (8) of this section or a combination among those eight units.
</P>
<P>(g) Appropriate units in all other health care facilities: The Board will determine appropriate units in other health care facilities, as defined in section 2(14) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, by adjudication.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 16347, Apr. 21, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Joint Employers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.40" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.40   Joint employers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer, as defined by section 2(2) of the National Labor Relations Act (the Act), may be considered a joint employer of a separate employer's employees only if the two employers share or codetermine the employees' essential terms and conditions of employment. To establish that an entity shares or codetermines the essential terms and conditions of another employer's employees, the entity must possess and exercise such substantial direct and immediate control over one or more essential terms or conditions of their employment as would warrant finding that the entity meaningfully affects matters relating to the employment relationship with those employees. Evidence of the entity's indirect control over essential terms and conditions of employment of another employer's employees, the entity's contractually reserved but never exercised authority over the essential terms and conditions of employment of another employer's employees, or the entity's control over mandatory subjects of bargaining other than the essential terms and conditions of employment is probative of joint-employer status, but only to the extent it supplements and reinforces evidence of the entity's possession or exercise of direct and immediate control over a particular essential term and condition of employment. Joint-employer status must be determined on the totality of the relevant facts in each particular employment setting. The party asserting that an entity is a joint employer has the burden of proof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Essential terms and conditions of employment</I> means wages, benefits, hours of work, hiring, discharge, discipline, supervision, and direction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Direct and immediate control</I> means each respective essential employment term or condition in paragraphs (c)(1) through (8) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Wages.</I> An entity exercises direct and immediate control over wages if it actually determines the wage rates, salary or other rate of pay that is paid to another employer's individual employees or job classifications. An entity does not exercise direct and immediate control over wages by entering into a cost-plus contract (with or without a maximum reimbursable wage rate).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefits.</I> An entity exercises direct and immediate control over benefits if it actually determines the fringe benefits to be provided or offered to another employer's employees. This would include selecting the benefit plans (such as health insurance plans and pension plans) and/or level of benefits provided to another employer's employees. An entity does not exercise direct and immediate control over benefits by permitting another employer, under an arm's-length contract, to participate in its benefit plans.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hours of work.</I> An entity exercises direct and immediate control over hours of work if it actually determines work schedules or the work hours, including overtime, of another employer's employees. An entity does not exercise direct and immediate control over hours of work by establishing an enterprise's operating hours or when it needs the services provided by another employer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hiring.</I> An entity exercises direct and immediate control over hiring if it actually determines which particular employees will be hired and which employees will not. An entity does not exercise direct and immediate control over hiring by requesting changes in staffing levels to accomplish tasks or by setting minimal hiring standards such as those required by government regulation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Discharge.</I> An entity exercises direct and immediate control over discharge if it actually decides to terminate the employment of another employer's employee. An entity does not exercise direct and immediate control over discharge by bringing misconduct or poor performance to the attention of another employer that makes the actual discharge decision, by expressing a negative opinion of another employer's employee, by refusing to allow another employer's employee to continue performing work under a contract, or by setting minimal standards of performance or conduct, such as those required by government regulation.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Discipline.</I> An entity exercises direct and immediate control over discipline if it actually decides to suspend or otherwise discipline another employer's employee. An entity does not exercise direct and immediate control over discipline by bringing misconduct or poor performance to the attention of another employer that makes the actual disciplinary decision, by expressing a negative opinion of another employer's employee, or by refusing to allow another employer's employee to access its premises or perform work under a contract.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Supervision.</I> An entity exercises direct and immediate control over supervision by actually instructing another employer's employees how to perform their work or by actually issuing employee performance appraisals. An entity does not exercise direct and immediate control over supervision when its instructions are limited and routine and consist primarily of telling another employer's employees what work to perform, or where and when to perform the work, but not how to perform it.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Direction.</I> An entity exercises direct and immediate control over direction by assigning particular employees their individual work schedules, positions, and tasks. An entity does not exercise direct and immediate control over direction by setting schedules for completion of a project or by describing the work to be accomplished on a project.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substantial direct and immediate control</I> means direct and immediate control that has a regular or continuous consequential effect on an essential term or condition of employment of another employer's employees. Such control is not “substantial” if only exercised on a sporadic, isolated, or de minimis basis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Indirect control</I> means indirect control over essential terms and conditions of employment of another employer's employees but not control or influence over setting the objectives, basic ground rules, or expectations for another entity's performance under a contract.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contractually reserved authority over essential terms and conditions of employment</I> means the authority that an entity reserves to itself, under the terms of a contract with another employer, over the essential terms and conditions of employment of that other employer's employees, but that has never been exercised.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 9708, Feb. 27, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Remedial Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 103.100" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.4.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 103.100   Offers of reinstatement to employees in Armed Forces.</HEAD>
<P>When an employer is required by a Board remedial order to offer an employee employment, reemployment, or reinstatement, or to notify an employee of his or her entitlement to reinstatement upon application, the employer shall, if the employee is serving in the Armed Forces of the United States at the time such offer or notification is made, also notify the employee of his or her right to reinstatement upon application in accordance with the Military Selective Service Act of 1967, as amended, after discharge from the Armed Forces.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 21939, Oct. 17, 1972, as amended at 38 FR 9506, Apr. 17, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="104" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 104—XXX
</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20110830" REFID="40">Link to an amendment published at 76 FR 54046, Aug. 30, 2011.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20111230" REFID="29">This amendment was delayed until Apr. 30, 2012, at 76 FR 82133, Dec. 30, 2011.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20120502" REFID="3">This amendment was further delayed indefinitely at 77 FR 25868, May 2, 2012.</XREF>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="105-199" NODE="29:2.1.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 105-199 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="II" NODE="29:2.1.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER II—OFFICE OF LABOR-MANAGEMENT STANDARDS, DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="200-214" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 200-214 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="215" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 215—GUIDELINES, SECTION 5333(b), FEDERAL TRANSIT LAW
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secretary's Order No. 4-2007, 72 FR 26159, May 8, 2007.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 62969, Dec. 7, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 215.1" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these guidelines is to provide information concerning the Department of Labor's administrative procedures in processing applications for assistance under the Federal Transit law, as codified at 49 U.S.C. chapter 53.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 47055, Aug. 13, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.2" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.2   General.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of copies of applications for Federal assistance subject to 49 U.S.C. 5333(b), together with a request for the certification of employee protective arrangements from the Department of Transportation, the Department of Labor will process those applications, which must be in final form. The Federal Transit Administration will provide the Department with the information necessary to enable the Department to certify the project.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 62969, Dec. 7, 1995, as amended at 73 FR 47055, Aug. 13, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.3" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.3   Employees represented by a labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) If affected employees are represented by a labor organization, it is expected that where appropriate, protective arrangements shall be the product of negotiation/discussion, pursuant to these guidelines.
</P>
<P>(2) In instances where states or political subdivisions are subject to legal restrictions on bargaining with employee organizations, the Department of Labor will utilize special procedures to satisfy the Federal statute in a manner which does not contravene state or local law. For example, employee protective terms and conditions, acceptable to both employee and applicant representatives, may be incorporated into a resolution adopted by the involved local government.
</P>
<P>(3) If an application involves a grant to a state administrative agency or designated recipient that will pass assistance through to subrecipients, the Department will refer and process each subrecipient's respective portion of the project in accordance with this section. If a state administrative agency or designated recipient has previously provided employee protections on behalf of subrecipients in accordance with the terms of a negotiated agreement, the referral will be based on those terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) The referral procedures set forth in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section are not applicable to the following grants:
</P>
<P>(i) Grants to applicants for the Over-the-Road Bus Accessibility Program, and grant applications for the Other Than Urbanized Program; a special warranty will be applied to such grants under the procedures in § 215.7.
</P>
<P>(ii) Grants to applicants serving populations under 200,000 under the Job Access and Reverse Commute Program or grants to capitalize State Infrastructure Bank accounts under the State Infrastructure Bank Program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Grants involving only capital assistance for replacement of equipment and/or facilities of like-kind; these will be certified by the Department without referral on the basis of existing agreements or the Unified Protective Arrangement as referenced in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section. Where application of the existing protective agreement(s) or the Unified Protective Arrangement would not satisfy the requirements of the statute in the circumstances presented, the Department will make necessary modifications to the existing protections to ensure that the requirements of the statute are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(5) The Department will notify labor organizations representing potentially affected transit employees of the certification of grants without referral under paragraph (a)(4) of this section and inform them of their rights under the applicable protective arrangements.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt from the Federal Transit Administration of an application involving affected employees represented by a labor organization, the Department will refer a copy of the application and proposed terms for certification to that organization and to the applicant, and will also provide a copy to subrecipients with unions in their service area.
</P>
<P>(1) For applicants with existing protections the Department's referral will be based on those protective terms and conditions that are appropriate to the grant and are set by:
</P>
<P>(i) A signed negotiated agreement or formal acceptance of the July 23, 1975 National (Model) Agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Agreed-upon terms adopted by a State or local government through a resolution or similar instrument;
</P>
<P>(iii)) A determination of protective terms by the Department that modifies in whole or in part negotiated or adopted protections; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A protective arrangement that has been modified to include provisions that are more protective than the Unified Protective Arrangement referred to in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For applicants without protective terms and conditions set by an arrangement described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the referral will be based on the terms and conditions of the Unified Protective Arrangement.
</P>
<P>(c) Following referral and notification under paragraph (b) of this section, and subject to the exceptions defined in § 215.5, parties will be expected to engage in good faith efforts to reach mutually acceptable protective arrangements through negotiation/discussion within the timeframes designated under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) As part of the Department of Labor's review of an application, a time schedule for case processing will be established by the Department of Labor and specified in its referral and notification letters under paragraph 215.3(b) or subsequent written communications to the parties.
</P>
<P>(1) Parties will be given fifteen (15) days from the date of the referral and notification letters to submit objections, if any, to the referred terms. The parties are encouraged to engage in negotiations/discussions during this period with the aim of arriving at a mutually agreeable solution to objections any party has to the terms and conditions of the referral.
</P>
<P>(2) Within ten (10) days of the date for submitting objections, the Department of Labor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether the objections raised are sufficient; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Take one of the two steps described in paragraphs (d)(5) and (6) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) The Department of Labor will consider an objection to be sufficient when:
</P>
<P>(i) The objection raises material issues that may require alternative employee protections under 49 U.S.C. 5333(b); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The objection concerns changes in legal or factual circumstances that may materially affect the rights or interests of employees.
</P>
<P>(4) The Department of Labor will consult with the Federal Transit Administration for technical advice as to the validity of objections.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Department of Labor determines that there are no sufficient objections, the Department will issue its certification to the Federal Transit Administration.
</P>
<P>(6) If the Department of Labor determines that an objection is sufficient, the Department, as appropriate, will direct the parties to commence or continue negotiations/discussions, limited to issues that the Department deems appropriate and limited to a period not to exceed thirty (30) days. The parties will be expected to negotiate/discuss expeditiously and in good faith. The Department of Labor may provide mediation assistance during this period where appropriate. The parties may agree to waive any negotiations/discussions if the Department, after reviewing the objections, develops new terms and conditions acceptable to the parties. At the end of the designated negotiation/discussion period, if all issues have not been resolved, each party must submit to the Department its final proposal and a statement describing the issues still in dispute.
</P>
<P>(7) The Department will issue a certification to the Federal Transit Administration within five (5) days after the end of the negotiation/discussion period designated under paragraph (d)(6) of this section. The certification will be based on terms and conditions agreed to by the parties that the Department concludes meet the requirements of 49 U.S.C. 5333(b). To the extent that no agreement has been reached, the certification will be based on terms and conditions determined by the Department which are no less protective than the terms and conditions included in the referral pursuant to § 215.3(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(8) Notwithstanding that a certification has been issued to the Federal Transit Administration pursuant to paragraph (d)(7) of this section, no action may be taken which would result in irreparable harm to employees if such action concerns matters subject to the steps set forth in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) If the certification referred to in paragraph (d)(7) of this section is not based on full mutual agreement of the parties, the Department of Labor will take the following steps to resolve outstanding differences:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department will set a schedule that provides for final resolution of the disputed issue(s) within sixty (60) days of the certification referred to in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Within ten (10) days of the issuance of the certification referred to in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, and after reviewing the parties' descriptions of the disputed issues, the Department will define the issues still in dispute and set a schedule for final resolution of all such issues.
</P>
<P>(3) The Department may establish a briefing schedule, usually allowing no more than twenty (20) days for opening briefs and no more than ten (10) days for reply briefs, when the Department deems reply briefs to be beneficial. In either event, the Department will issue a final certification to the Federal Transit Administration no later than thirty (30) days after the last briefs are due.
</P>
<P>(4) The Department of Labor will decide the manner in which the dispute will be resolved. In making this decision, the Department may consider the form(s) of dispute resolution employed by the parties in their previous dealings as well as various forms of third party dispute resolution that may be appropriate. Any dispute resolution proceedings will normally be expected to commence within thirty (30) days of the certification referred to in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, and the Department will render a final determination, including the bases therefor, within thirty (30) days of the commencement of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(5) The Department will make available final decisions it renders on disputed issues.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in these guidelines restricts the parties from continuing to negotiate/discuss over final terms and conditions and seeking a final certification of an agreement that meets the requirements of the Act prior to the issuance of a final determination by the Department.
</P>
<P>(g) If, subsequent to the issuance of the certification referred to in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, the parties reach an agreement on one or more disputed issues that meets the requirements of the Act, and/or the Department of Labor issues a final decision containing revised terms and conditions, the Department will take appropriate steps to substitute the new terms and conditions for those previously certified to the Federal Transit Administration.
</P>
<P>(h) Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Department retains the right to withhold certification where circumstances inconsistent with the statute so warrant until such circumstances have been resolved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 62969, Dec. 7, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 40992, July 28, 1999; 73 FR 47055, Aug. 13, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.4" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.4   Employees not represented by a labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The certification made by the Department of Labor will afford the same level of protection to those employees who are not represented by labor organizations.
</P>
<P>(b) If there is no labor organization representing employees, the Department of Labor will set forth the protective terms and conditions in the letter of certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.5" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.5   Processing of amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Grant modifications in the form of grant amendments will be transmitted by the Federal Transit Administration to the Department for review. Applications amending a grant for which the Department has already certified fair and equitable arrangements to protect the interests of transit employees affected by the project, will be processed by the Department following one of the two procedures described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) When an application amends a grant for which the Department has previously certified fair and equitable arrangements and the amendment makes changes to a project that may necessitate alternative employee protections, the Department will conclude that the amendment materially amends the existing assistance agreement. The Department will refer and/or process the labor certification provisions of such an amended grant according to procedures specified under §§ 215.3 and 215.4, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) When an application amends in a manner that is not material a grant for which the Department has already certified fair and equitable arrangements, the Department will, on its own initiative and without referral to the parties, certify the subject grant on the same terms and conditions as were certified for the project as originally constituted. The Department's processing of these applications will be expedited and copies will be forwarded to interested parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Budget Revisions that make minor changes within the scope of the existing grant agreement and do not require a Federal Transit Administration grant amendment, as set forth in Federal Transit Administration guidance, will be covered under the Department's original certifications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 47056, Aug. 13, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.6" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.6   The Model Agreement.</HEAD>
<P>The Model (or National) Agreement mentioned in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(2) of § 215.3 refers to the agreement executed on July 23, 1975 by representatives of the American Public Transit Association (now known as the American Public Transportation Association) and the Amalgamated Transit Union and Transport Workers Union of America and on July 31, 1975 by representatives of the Railway Labor Executives' Association, Brotherhood of Locomotive Engineers, Brotherhood of Railway and Airline Clerks and International Association of Machinists and Aerospace Workers. The agreement is intended to serve as a ready-made employee protective arrangement for adoption by local parties in specific operating assistance project situations. The Department has determined that this agreement provides fair and equitable arrangements to protect the interests of employees in general purpose operating assistance project situations and meets the requirements of 49 U.S.C. 5333(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 62969, Dec. 7, 1995, as amended at 73 FR 47056, Aug. 13, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.7" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.7   The Special Warranty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Special Warranty mentioned in paragraph (b)(2) of § 215.3 refers to the protective arrangements developed for application to the Other Than Urbanized program. The warranty arrangement represents the understandings of the Department of Labor and the Department of Transportation, reached in May 1979, with respect to the protections to be applied for such grants. The Special Warranty provides fair and equitable arrangements to protect the interests of employees and meets the requirements of 49 U.S.C. 5333(b). The Special Warranty Arrangement applicable to OTRB and Other Than Urbanized grants will be derived from the terms and conditions of the May 1979 Special Section 13(c) Warranty, and the Department's subsequent experience under 49 U.S.C. 5333(b). From time to time, the Department may update this Special Warranty Arrangement to reflect developments in the employee protection program.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of 49 U.S.C. 5333(b) for OTRB and “Other Than Urbanized” grants are satisfied through application of a Special Warranty Arrangement certified by the Department of Labor; a copy of the current arrangement will be included on the OLMS <I>Web site.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The Federal Transit Administration will include the current version of the Special Warranty Arrangement, through reference in its Master Agreement, in each OTRB and Other Than Urbanized grant of assistance under the statute.
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal Transit Administration will notify the Department that it is funding an OTRB or Other Than Urbanized grant by transmitting to the Department an information copy of each grant application upon approval of the grant.
</P>
<P>(i) Each grant of assistance for an Other Than Urbanized program will contain a labor section identifying labor organizations representing transit employees of each subrecipient, the labor organizations representing employees of other transit providers in the service area, and a list of those transit providers. A sample format is posted on the OLMS <I>Web site</I> to facilitate the inclusion of this information in the grant application.
</P>
<P>(ii) OTRB grants of assistance will contain a labor section identifying labor organizations representing employees of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(2) The Department will notify labor organizations representing potentially affected transit employees of the approval of Other Than Urbanized and OTRB grants and inform them of their rights under the Special Warranty Arrangement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 62969, Dec. 7, 1995, as amended at 73 FR 47056, Aug. 13, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.8" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.8   Department of Labor contact.</HEAD>
<P>Questions concerning the subject matter covered by this part should be addressed to Chief, Division of Statutory Programs, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210; phone number 202-693-0126 or e-mailed to <I>OLMS-TransitGrant@dol.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 40995, July 28, 1999, as amended at 73 FR 47057, Aug. 13, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="216-299" NODE="29:2.1.2.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 216-299 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="III" NODE="29:2.1.3" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER III—NATIONAL RAILROAD ADJUSTMENT BOARD</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="300" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 300 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="301" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 301—RULES OF PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 3, 44 Stat. 578, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 153.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Circular 1, Oct. 10, 1934, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 301.1" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.1   General duties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It shall be the duty of all carriers, their officers, agents and employees to exert every reasonable effort to make and maintain agreements concerning rates of pay, rules, and working conditions, and to settle all disputes, whether arising out of the application of such agreements or otherwise, in order to avoid any interruption to commerce or to the operation of any carrier growing out of any disputes between the carrier and the employees thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) All disputes between a carrier or carriers, and its or their employees shall be considered, and, if possible, decided, with all expedition, in conference between representatives designated and authorized so to confer, respectively, by the carrier or carriers and by the employees thereof interested in the dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 301.2" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.2   Classes of disputes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The disputes between an employee or group of employees and a carrier or carriers growing out of grievances or out of the interpretation or application of agreements concerning rates of pay, rules, or working conditions, including cases pending and unadjusted on the date of approval of this act (June 21, 1934, 48 Stat. 1185; 45 U.S.C. 151-162), shall be handled in the usual manner up to and including the chief operating officer of the carrier designated to handle such disputes; but, failing to reach an adjustment in this manner, the disputes may be referred by petition of the parties or by either party to the appropriate division of the Adjustment Board with a full statement of the facts and all supporting data bearing upon the disputes.
</P>
<P>(b) No petition shall be considered by any division of the Board unless the subject matter has been handled in accordance with the provisions of the Railway Labor Act, approved June 21, 1934.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 301.3" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.3   Organization.</HEAD>
<P>The National Railroad Adjustment Board was organized as of July 31, 1934, in accordance with the provisions of the Railway Labor Act, approved June 21, 1934. The said Adjustment Board is composed of four Divisions, whose proceedings shall be independent of one another. The First, Second and Third Divisions thereof are each composed of 10 members, and the Fourth Division thereof is composed of 6 members.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 301.4" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.4   Jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>First Division.</I> The First Division will have jurisdiction over disputes involving train-and yard-service employees of carriers; that is, engineers, firemen, hostlers, and outside hostler helpers, conductors, trainmen, and yard-service employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Second Division.</I> The Second Division will have jurisdiction over disputes involving machinists, boilermakers, blacksmiths, sheet-metal workers, electrical workers, car men, the helpers and apprentices of all the foregoing, coach cleaners, power-house employees, and railroad-shop laborers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Third Division.</I> The Third Division will have jurisdiction over disputes involving station tower, and telegraph employees, train dispatchers, maintenance-of-way men, clerical employees, freight handlers, express, station, and store employees, signal men, sleeping-car conductors, sleeping-car porters, and maids and dining-car employees.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fourth Division.</I> The Fourth Division will have jurisdiction over disputes involving employees of carriers directly or indirectly engaged in transportation of passengers or property by water, and all other employees of carriers over which jurisdiction is not given to the First, Second, and Third Divisions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 301.5" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.5   Form of submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Parties.</I> All parties to the dispute must be stated in each submission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statement of claim.</I> Under the caption “statement of claims” the petitioner or petitioners must clearly state the particular question upon which an award is desired.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statement of facts.</I> In a “joint statement of facts,” if possible, briefly, but fully set forth the controlling facts involved. In the event of inability to agree upon a “joint statement of facts,” then each party shall show separately the facts as they respectively believe them to be.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Position of employees.</I> Under the caption “position of employees” the employees must clearly and briefly set forth all relevant, argumentative facts, including all documentary evidence submitted in exhibit form, quoting the agreement or rules involved, if any; and all data submitted in support of employees' position must affirmatively show the same to have been presented to the carrier and made a part of the particular question in dispute.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Position of carrier.</I> Under the caption “position of carrier” the carrier must clearly and briefly set forth all relevant, argumentative facts, including all documentary evidence submitted in exhibit form, quoting the agreement or rules involved, if any; and all data submitted in support of carrier's position must affirmatively show the same to have been presented to the employees or duly authorized representative thereof and made a part of the particular question in dispute.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Signatures.</I> All submissions must be signed by the parties submitting the same.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ex parte submission.</I> In event of an ex parte submission the same general form of submission is required. The petitioner will serve written notice upon the appropriate Division of the Adjustment Board of intention to file an ex parte submission on a certain date (30 days hence), and at the same time provide the other party with copy of such notice. For the purpose of identification such notice will state the question involved and give a brief description of the dispute. The Secretary of the appropriate Division of the Adjustment Board will immediately thereupon advise the other party of the receipt of such notice and request that the submission of such other party be filed with such Division within the same period of time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 301.6" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.6   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To conserve time and expedite proceedings all parties within the scope of the Adjustment Board should prepare submissions in such manner that the pertinent and related facts and all supporting data bearing upon the dispute will be fully set forth, thus obviating the need of lengthy briefs and unnecessary oral discussions.
</P>
<P>(b) All submissions shall be typewritten or machine prepared, addressed to the Secretary of the appropriate Division of the Adjustment Board, and fifteen copies thereof filed by the petitioner or petitioners.
</P>
<P>(c) Parties to a dispute are required to state in all submissions whether or not an oral hearing is desired.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 301.7" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.7   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Oral hearings will be granted if requested by the parties or either of them and due notice will be given the parties of the time and date of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The parties are, however, charged with the duty and responsibility of including in their original written submission all known relevant, argumentative facts and documentary evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 301.8" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.8   Appearances.</HEAD>
<P>Parties may be heard either in person, by counsel, or by other representatives, as they may respectively elect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 301.9" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 301.9   Awards.</HEAD>
<P>All awards of the Adjustment Board shall be signed by order of the appropriate Division thereof and shall be attested by the signature of its Secretary, as indicated thus:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><E T="04">national railroad adjustment board,</E> 
</FP-1>
<FRP>By Order of_____Division  
</FRP>
<FRP>Attest:__________ 
</FRP>
<FRP>[Secretary]    </FRP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="302-399" NODE="29:2.1.3.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 302-399 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="IV" NODE="29:2.1.4" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER IV—OFFICE OF LABOR-MANAGEMENT STANDARDS, DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—LABOR-MANAGEMENT STANDARDS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="400" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 400 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="401" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 401—MEANING OF TERMS USED IN THIS SUBCHAPTER
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 3, 208, 301, 401, 402, 73 Stat. 520, 529, 530, 532, 534 (29 U.S.C. 402, 438, 461, 481, 482); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012; § 401.4 also issued under sec. 320 of Title III of the Bankruptcy Reform Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-598, 92 Stat. 2678.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14380, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 401.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.1   Commerce.</HEAD>
<P><I>Commerce</I> means trade, traffic, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.2   State.</HEAD>
<P><I>State</I> includes any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Canal Zone, and Outer Continental Shelf lands defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (43 U.S.C. 1331-1343).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.3   Industry affecting commerce.</HEAD>
<P><I>Industry affecting commerce</I> means any activity, business, or industry in commerce or in which a labor dispute would hinder or obstruct commerce or the free flow of commerce and includes any activity or industry “affecting commerce” within the meaning of the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947, as amended, or the Railway Labor Act, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.4   Person.</HEAD>
<P><I>Person</I> includes one or more individuals, labor organizations, partnerships, associations, corporations, legal representatives, mutual companies, joint-stock companies, trusts, unincorporated organizations, trustees, trustees in cases under title 11 of the United States Code, or receivers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 70445, Oct. 24, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 15115, Mar. 31, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.5   Employer.</HEAD>
<P><I>Employer</I> means any employer or any group or association of employers engaged in an industry affecting commerce (a) which is, with respect to employees engaged in an industry affecting commerce, an employer within the meaning of any law of the United States relating to the employment of any employees or (b) which may deal with any labor organization concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work, and includes any person acting directly or indirectly as an employer or as an agent of an employer in relation to an employee but does not include the United States or any corporation wholly owned by the Government of the United States or any State or political subdivision thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.6   Employee.</HEAD>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any individual employed by an employer, and includes any individual whose work has ceased as a consequence of, or in connection with, any current labor dispute or because of any unfair labor practice or because of exclusion or expulsion from a labor organization in any manner or for any reason inconsistent with the requirements of this Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.7   Labor dispute.</HEAD>
<P><I>Labor dispute</I> includes any controversy concerning terms, tenure, or conditions of employment, or concerning the association or representation of persons in negotiating, fixing, maintaining, changing, or seeking to arrange terms or conditions of employment, regardless of whether the disputants stand in the proximate relation of employer and employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.8   Trusteeship.</HEAD>
<P><I>Trusteeship</I> means any receivership, trusteeship, or other method of supervision or control whereby a labor organization suspends the autonomy otherwise available to a subordinate body under its constitution or bylaws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.9   Labor organization.</HEAD>
<P><I>Labor organization</I> means a labor organization engaged in an industry affecting commerce and includes any organization of any kind, any agency, or employee representation committee, group, association, or plan so engaged in which employees participate and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours, or other terms or conditions of employment, and any conference, general committee, joint or system board, or joint council so engaged which is subordinate to a national or international labor organization, other than a State or local central body.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.10   Labor organization engaged in an industry affecting commerce.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization shall be deemed to be engaged in an industry affecting commerce if it:
</P>
<P>(a) Is the certified representative of employees under the provisions of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, or the Railway Labor Act, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(b) Although not certified, is a national or international labor organization or a local labor organization recognized or acting as the representative of employees of an employer or employers engaged in an industry affecting commerce; or
</P>
<P>(c) Has chartered a local labor organization or subsidiary body which is representing or actively seeking to represent employees of employers within the meaning of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(d) Has been chartered by a labor organization representing or actively seeking to represent employees within the meaning of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section as the local or subordinate body through which such employees may enjoy membership or become affiliated with such labor organization; or
</P>
<P>(e) Is a conference, general committee, joint or system board, or joint council, subordinate to a national or international labor organization, which includes a labor organization engaged in an industry affecting commerce within the meaning of any of the preceding paragraphs of this section, other than a State or local central body.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.11   Secret ballot.</HEAD>
<P><I>Secret ballot</I> means the expression by ballot, voting machine, or otherwise, but in no event by proxy, of a choice with respect to any election or vote taken upon any matter, which is cast in such a manner that the person expressing such choice cannot be identified with the choice expressed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.12" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.12   Trust in which a labor organization is interested.</HEAD>
<P><I>Trust in which a labor organization is interested</I> means a trust or other fund or organization (a) which was created or established by a labor organization, or one or more of the trustees or one or more members of the governing body of which is selected or appointed by a labor organization, and (b) a primary purpose of which is to provide benefits for the members of such labor organization or their beneficiaries.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.13" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.13   Labor relations consultant.</HEAD>
<P><I>Labor relations consultant</I> means any person who, for compensation, advises or represents an employer, employer organization, or labor organization concerning employee organizing, concerted activities, or collective bargaining activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.14" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.14   Officer.</HEAD>
<P><I>Officer</I> means any constitutional officer, any person authorized to perform the functions of president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, or other executive functions of a labor organization, and any member of its executive board or similar governing body.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.15" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.15   Member or member in good standing.</HEAD>
<P><I>Member</I> or <I>member in good standing,</I> when used in reference to a labor organization, includes any person who has fulfilled the requirements for membership in such organization, and who neither has voluntarily withdrawn from membership nor has been expelled or suspended from membership after appropriate proceedings consistent with lawful provisions of the constitution and bylaws of such organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.16" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.16   Secretary.</HEAD>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.17" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.17   Act.</HEAD>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.18" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.18   Office.</HEAD>
<P><I>Office</I> means the Office of Labor-Management Standards, United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6092, Feb. 10, 1997, as amended at 78 FR 8024, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 401.19" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.2.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 401.19   Director.</HEAD>
<P>“Director” means the Director of the Office of Labor-Management Standards, head of the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8024, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="402" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 402—LABOR ORGANIZATION INFORMATION REPORTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 201, 207, 208, 73 Stat. 524, 529 (29 U.S.C. 431, 437, 438); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14381, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 402.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.1   Labor organization constitution and bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization shall adopt a constitution and bylaws consistent with the provisions of the Act applicable thereto, within 90 days after the date the labor organization first becomes subject to the Act. This shall not, however, require the formal readoption by a labor organization of such a constitution and bylaws which it has previously adopted and under which it is operating when the report prescribed by § 402.2 is filed. As used in this part <I>constitution and bylaws</I> means the basic written rules governing the organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14381, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 40 FR 58856, Dec. 19, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.2   Labor organization initial information report.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization shall file a report signed by its president and secretary or corresponding principal officers containing the information required to be filed by section 201(a) of the Act, and found necessary to be reported under section 208 thereof by the Secretary, on United States Department of Labor Form LM-1 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> entitled, “Labor Organization Information Report”. There shall be attached to such report and made a part thereof a copy of the constitution and bylaws adopted by the reporting labor organization.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Filed as part of the original document.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14381, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8024, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.3   Filing of initial reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every labor organization shall file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards the report and (subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, where applicable) a copy of its constitution and bylaws required by section 201(a) of the Act and § 402.2, together with one additional copy of each, within 90 days after the date on which it first becomes subject to the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) A labor organization subject to paragraph (a) of this section may adopt or may have adopted as its constitution and bylaws (whether by formal action or by virtue of affiliation with a parent organization) a constitution and bylaws of a national or international labor organization which the national or international organization is required to file under section 201(a) of the Act and this part. In such a case, a filing by the national or international labor organization of copies of such constitution and bylaws will be accepted as a filing of such documents by each such adopting labor organization within the meaning of section 201(a) of the Act and this part, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The national or international labor organizations shows in its report filed under paragraph (a) of this section that copies of its constitution and bylaws are being filed on behalf of such adopting organizations as well as on its own behalf, and files such number of additional copies as the Office of Labor-Management Standards may request, and
</P>
<P>(2) The adopting labor organization shows in its report filed under paragraph (a) of this section that the national or international constitution and bylaws are also its constitution and bylaws and that copies are filed on its behalf by the national or international labor organization.
</P>
<FP>If the constitution and bylaws of the adopting labor organization include other documents, this shall be shown in such report and copies shall be filed as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14381, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 35 FR 2990, Feb. 13, 1970; 40 FR 58856, Dec. 19, 1975; 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.4   Subsequent reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as noted elsewhere in this paragraph, every labor organization which revises the most recent constitution and bylaws it has filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards shall file two dated copies of its revised constitution and bylaws at the time it files its annual financial report as provided in part 403 of this chapter. However, a labor organization which has as its constitution and bylaws a uniform constitution and bylaws prescribed by the reporting labor organization's parent national or international labor organization in accordance with § 402.3(b) is not required to file copies of a revised uniform constitution and bylaws if the parent national or international labor organization files as many copies of the revised constitution and bylaws with the Office of Labor-Management Standards as the Office may request.
</P>
<P>(b) Every labor organization which changes the practices and procedures for which separate statements must be filed pursuant to subsection 201(a)(5) (A) through (M) of the Act shall file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards two copies of an amended Form LM-1, signed by its president and secretary or corresponding principal officers. The amended Form LM-1 shall be filed when the labor organization files its annual financial report as provided in part 403 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 67604, Dec. 21, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.5   Terminal reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any labor organization required to file reports under the provisions of this part, which ceases to exist by virtue of dissolution or any other form of termination of its existence as a labor organization, or which loses its identity as a reporting labor organization through merger, consolidation or otherwise, shall file a report containing a detailed statement of the circumstances and effective date of such termination or loss of reporting identity, and if the latter, such report shall also state the name and mailing address of the labor organization into which it has been consolidated, merged, or otherwise absorbed. Such report shall be submitted on Form LM-2 or Form LM-2 Long Form in connection with the terminal financial report required by § 403.5 of this chapter and shall be signed by the president and treasurer, or corresponding principal officers, of the labor organization at the time of its termination or loss of reporting identity and, together with a copy thereof, shall be filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards within 30 days of the effective date of such termination or loss of reporting identity, as the case may be.


</P>
<P>(b) Labor organizations which qualify to use Form LM-3, the Labor Organization Annual Report, pursuant to §§ 403.4 and 403.5 of this chapter may file the terminal report called for in this section on Form LM-3. This report must be signed by the president and treasurer, or corresponding principal officers, of the labor organization.
</P>
<P>(c) Labor organizations which qualify to use Form LM-4, the Labor Organization Annual Report, pursuant to §§ 403.4 and 403.5 of this chapter may file the terminal report called for in this section on Form LM-4. The report must be signed by the president and treasurer, or corresponding principal officers, of the labor organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14381, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 62 FR 6092, Feb. 10, 1997; 91 FR 32621, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.6   Receipt of reports and documents.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of all reports and documents submitted for filing under the provisions of this part, the Office of Labor-Management Standards shall assign to the initial information report filed by each labor organization, an identifying number. This number thereafter shall be entered by the reporting labor organization on all subsequent or terminal reports and all other documents which it thereafter submits for filing under this part, as well as on all communications directed to the Office concerning such reports and documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.7   Effect of acknowledgment and filing by the Office of Labor-Management Standards.</HEAD>
<P>Acknowledgment by the Office of Labor-Management Standards of the receipt of reports and documents submitted for filing under this part, is intended solely to inform the sender of the receipt thereof by the Office, and neither such acknowledgment nor the filing of such reports and documents by the Office constitutes express or implied approval thereof, or in any manner indicates that the content of any such report or document fulfills the reporting or other requirements of the Act, or of the regulations in this chapter, applicable thereto.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.8   Personal responsibility of signatories of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each individual required to sign any report under section 201(a) of the Act and under this part shall be personally responsible for the filing of such report and for any statement contained therein which he knows to be false.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.9   Maintenance and retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>Every person required to file any report under this part shall maintain records on the matters required to be reported which will provide in sufficient detail the necessary basic information and data from which the documents filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards may be verified, explained or clarified, and checked for accuracy and completeness, and shall include vouchers, worksheets, receipts, and applicable resolutions, and shall keep such records available for examination for a period of not less than five years after the filing of the documents based on the information which they contain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.10   Dissemination and verification of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization required to submit a report under section 201(a) of the Act and under this part shall make available to all its members the information required to be contained in such report, including the copy of the constitution and bylaws required to be filed therewith, and every such labor organization and its officers shall be under a duty to permit such member for just cause to examine any books, records, and accounts necessary to verify such report and constitution and bylaws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14381, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.11   Attorney-client communications exempted.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this part shall be construed to require an attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of any State, to include in any report required to be filed pursuant to the provisions of section 201(a) of the Act, and of this part, any information which was lawfully communicated to such attorney by any of his clients in the course of a legitimate attorney-client relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.12" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.12   Publication of reports required by this part.</HEAD>
<P>Inspection and examination of any report or other document filed as required by this part, and the furnishing by the Office of Labor-Management Standards of copies thereof to any person requesting them, shall be governed by part 70 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 2990, Feb. 13, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 402.13" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.3.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 402.13   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collecting of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB control number 1245-0003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 15115, Mar. 31, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998; 78 FR 8024, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="403" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 403—LABOR ORGANIZATION ANNUAL FINANCIAL REPORTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 201, 207, 208, 301, 73 Stat. 524, 529, 530 (29 U.S.C. 431, 437, 438, 461); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14383, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 403.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.1   Fiscal year for reports required by this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part, unless otherwise defined, the term <I>fiscal year</I> means the calendar year or other period of 12 consecutive calendar months, on the basis of which financial accounts are kept by a labor organization reporting under this part. Where a labor organization designates a new fiscal year period prior to the expiration of a previously established fiscal year period, the resultant period of less than 12 consecutive calendar months, and thereafter the newly established fiscal year, shall in that order each constitute a fiscal year for purposes of the report required to be filed by section 201(b) of the Act, and of the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A labor organization which is subject to section 201(b) of the Act for only a portion of its fiscal year because the labor organization first becomes subject to the Act during such fiscal year, may consider such portion as the entire fiscal year in making its report under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14383, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.2   Annual financial report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every labor organization shall, as prescribed by the regulations in this part, file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards within 90 days after the end of each of its fiscal years, a financial report signed by its president and treasurer, or corresponding principal officers.
</P>
<P>(b) Every labor organization shall include in its annual financial report filed as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, in such detail as may be necessary accurately to disclose its financial condition and operations for its preceding fiscal year and in such categories as prescribed by the Secretary under the provisions of this part, the information required by section 201(b) of the Act and found by the Secretary under section 208 thereof to be necessary in such report. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, on the date for filing the annual financial report of a labor organization required under section 201(b) of the Act and this section, such labor organization is in trusteeship, the labor organization which has assumed trusteeship over such labor organization shall file such report as provided in § 408.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14383, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 68 FR 58447, Oct. 9, 2003; 71 FR 57737, Sept. 29, 2006; 73 FR 57449, Oct. 2, 2008; 75 FR 74959, Dec. 1, 2010; 78 FR 8024, Feb. 5, 2013; 85 FR 13441, Mar. 6, 2020; 86 FR 74371, Dec. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.3   Form of annual financial report—detailed report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every labor organization shall, except as expressly provided otherwise in this part, file an annual financial report as required by § 403.2, prepared on United States Department of Labor Form LM-2, “Labor Organization Annual Report,” in the detail required by the instructions accompanying the form and constituting a part thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) If a labor organization has gross annual receipts totaling $40,000,000 or more for its fiscal year it shall file the annual financial report called for in section 201(b) of the Act on United States Department of Labor Form LM-2 Long Form entitled “Labor Organization Annual Report Long Form,” in accordance with the instructions accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32622, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.4   Simplified annual reports for smaller labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) If a labor organization, not in trusteeship, has gross annual receipts totaling less than $350,000 for its fiscal year, it may elect, subject to revocation of the privileges as provided in section 208 of the Act, to file the annual financial report called for in section 201(b) of the Act and § 403.3 of this part on United States Department of Labor Form LM-3 entitled “Labor Organization Annual Report,” in accordance with the instructions accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) If a labor organization, not in trusteeship, has gross annual receipts totaling less than $25,000 for its fiscal year, it may elect, subject to revocation of the privileges as provided in section 208 of the Act, to file the annual financial report called for in section 201(b) of the Act and § 403.3 on United States Department of Labor Form LM-4 entitled “Labor Organization Annual Report” in accordance with the instructions accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof.


</P>
<P>(b) A local labor organization not in trusteeship, which has no assets, no liabilities, no receipts and no disbursements during the period covered by the annual report of the national organization with which it is affiliated need not file the annual report required by § 403.2 if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) It is governed by a uniform constitution and bylaws filed on its behalf pursuant to § 402.3(b) of this chapter, and does not have governing rules of its own;
</P>
<P>(2) Its members are subject to uniform fees and dues applicable to all members of the local labor organizations for which such simplified reports are submitted;
</P>
<P>(3) The national organization with which it is affiliated assumes responsibility for the accuracy of a statement filed electronically, through the electronic filing system made available on the Office of Labor-Management Standards website, covering each local labor organization covered by this paragraph (b) and containing the following information with respect to each local organization:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and designation number or other identifying information;
</P>
<P>(ii) The file number which the Office of Labor-Management Standards has assigned to it;
</P>
<P>(iii) The mailing address;
</P>
<P>(iv) The beginning and ending date of the reporting period which must be the same as that of the report for the national organization;
</P>
<P>(v) The names and titles of the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers as of the end of the reporting period;
</P>
<P>(4) At least thirty days prior to first submitting simplified annual reports in accordance with this section, the national organization notifies the Office of Labor-Management Standards in writing of its intent to begin submitting simplified annual reports for affiliated local labor organizations;
</P>
<P>(5) The national organization files the terminal report required by 29 CFR 403.5(a) on Form LM-3 or LM-4, as may be appropriate, clearly labeled on the form as a terminal report, for any local labor organization which has lost its identity through merger, consolidation, or otherwise if the national organization filed a simplified annual report on behalf of the local labor organization for its last reporting period; and
</P>
<P>(6) The national organization with which it is affiliated assumes responsibility for the accuracy of, and submits with its simplified annual reports filed electronically pursuant to § 403.4(b)(3) for the affiliated local labor organizations, the following certification properly completed and signed by the president and treasurer of the national organization:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Certification
</HD1>
<P>We, the undersigned, duly authorized officers of [name of national organization], hereby certify that the local labor organizations individually listed on the attached documents come within the purview of 29 CFR 403.4(b) for the reporting period from [beginning date of national organization's fiscal year] through [ending date of national organization's fiscal year], namely:
</P>
<P>(1) they are local labor organizations; (2) they are not in trusteeship; (3) they have no assets, liabilities, receipts, or disbursements; (4) they are governed by a uniform constitution and bylaws, and fifty copies of the most recent uniform constitution and bylaws have been filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards; (5) they have no governing rules of their own; and (6) they are subject to the following uniform schedule of fees and dues: [specify schedule for dues, initiation fees, fees required from transfer members, and work permit fees, as applicable].
</P>
<P>Each document attached contains the specific information called for in 29 CFR 403.4(b)(3)(i)-(v), namely: (i) the local labor organization's name and designation number; (ii) the file number assigned the organization by the Office of Labor-Management Standards; (iii) the local labor organization's mailing address; (iv) the beginning and ending date of the reporting period; and (v) the names and titles of the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers of the local labor organization as of [the ending date of the national organization's fiscal year].
</P>
<P>Furthermore, we certify that the terminal reports required by 29 CFR 403.4(b)(5) and 29 CFR 403.5(a) have been filed for any local labor organizations which have lost their identity through merger, consolidation, or otherwise on whose behalf a simplified annual report was filed for the last reporting period. 
</P>
<HD1>(Format for Simplified Annual Reporting)
</HD1>
<HD1>simplified annual report
</HD1>
<FP>Affiliation name: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Designation name and number: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Unit name: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Mailing address: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Name of person: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Number and street: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>City, State and zip: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>File number: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Period covered: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>From   Through
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Names and Titles of president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>For certification see NHQ file folder file number: 
</P>
<FP-DASH>President
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Where signed
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Treasurer
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Where signed
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14383, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 37 FR 10669, May 26, 1972; 41 FR 27318, July 2, 1976; 45 FR 7525, Feb. 1, 1980; 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985; 57 FR 49290, 49357, Oct. 30, 1992; 62 FR 6092, Feb. 10, 1997; 64 FR 71623, Dec. 21, 1999; 65 FR 21141, Apr. 20, 2000; 81 FR 33389, May 26, 2016; 86 FR 74371, Dec. 30, 2021; 91 FR 32622, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.5   Terminal financial report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any labor organization required to file a report under the provisions of this part, which during its fiscal year loses its identity as a reporting labor organization through merger, consolidation, or otherwise, shall, within 30 days after such loss, file a terminal financial report with the Office of Labor-Management Standards, on Form LM-2 Long Form, Form LM-2, Form LM-3, or Form LM-4, as may be appropriate, signed by the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers of the labor organization immediately prior to the time of its loss of reporting identity.
</P>
<P>(b) Every labor organization which has assumed trusteeship over a subordinate labor organization shall file within 90 days after the termination of such trusteeship on behalf of the subordinate labor organization a terminal financial report with the Office of Labor-Management Standards, on Form LM-2 Long Form or Form LM-2 and in conformance with the requirements of this part.


</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of the reports required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the period covered thereby shall be the portion of the labor organization's fiscal year ending on the effective date of its loss of reporting identity, or the portion of the subordinate labor organization's fiscal year ending on the effective date of the termination of trusteeship over such subordinate labor organization, as the case may be.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14383, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, 31310, Aug. 1, 1985; 62 FR 6092, Feb. 10, 1997; 68 FR 58447, Oct. 9, 2003; 71 FR 57737, Sept. 29, 2006; 73 FR 57449, Oct. 2, 2008; 75 FR 74959, Dec. 1, 2010; 85 FR 13442, Mar. 6, 2020; 86 FR 74371, Dec. 30, 2021; 91 FR 32622, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.6   Personal responsibility of signatories of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each individual required to sign a report under section 201(b) of the Act and under this part shall be personally responsible for the filing of such report and for any statement contained therein which he knows to be false.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.7   Maintenance and retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>Every person required to file any report under this part shall maintain records on the matters required to be reported which will provide in sufficient detail the necessary basic information and data from which the documents filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards may be verified, explained or clarified, and checked for accuracy and completeness, and shall include vouchers, worksheets, receipts, and applicable resolutions, and shall keep such records available for examination for a period of not less than five years after the filing of the documents based on the information which they contain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.8   Dissemination and verification of reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every labor organization required to submit a report under section 201(b) of the Act and under this part shall make available to all its members the information required to be contained in such reports, and every such labor organization and its officers shall be under a duty to permit such member for just cause to examine any books, records, and accounts necessary to verify such report.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If a labor organization is required to file a report under this part using the Form LM-2 Long Form or Form LM-2 and indicates that it has failed or refused to disclose information required by the Form concerning any disbursement, or receipt not otherwise reported on Statement B, to an individual or entity in the amount of $5,000 or more, or any two or more disbursements, or receipts not otherwise reported on Statement B, to an individual or entity that, in the aggregate, amount to $5,000 or more, because disclosure of such information may be adverse to the organization's legitimate interests, then the failure or refusal to disclose the information shall be deemed “just cause” for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure may be adverse to a labor organization's legitimate interests under this paragraph if disclosure would reveal confidential information concerning the organization's organizing or negotiating strategy or individuals paid by the labor organization to work in a non-union facility in order to assist the labor organization in organizing employees, provided that such individuals are not employees of the labor organization who receive more than $10,000 in the aggregate in the reporting year from the union.
</P>
<P>(c) In all other cases, a union member has the burden of establishing “just cause” for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14383, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 68 FR 58447, Oct. 9, 2003; 71 FR 57737, Sept. 29, 2006; 73 FR 57449, Oct. 2, 2008; 75 FR 74959, Dec. 1, 2010; 85 FR 13442, Mar. 6, 2020; 86 FR 74371, Dec. 30, 2021; 91 FR 32622, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.9   Attorney-client communications exempted.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this part shall be construed to require an attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of any State, to include in any report required to be filed pursuant to the provisions of section 201(b) of the Act, and of this part, any information which was lawfully communicated to such attorney by any of his clients in the course of a legitimate attorney-client relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.10   Publication of reports required by this part.</HEAD>
<P>Inspection and examination of any report or other document filed as required by this part, and the furnishing by the Office of Labor-Management Standards of copies thereof to any person requesting them, shall be governed by part 70 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 2990, Feb. 13, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.4.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.11   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collecting of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB control number 1245-0003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 15115, Mar. 31, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998; 78 FR 8024, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="404" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 404—LABOR ORGANIZATION OFFICER AND EMPLOYEE REPORTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 202, 207, 208, 73 Stat. 525, 529 (29 U.S.C. 432, 437, 438); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14384, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 404.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part the term:
</P>
<P>(a) Benefit with monetary value means anything of value, tangible or intangible, including any interest in personal or real property, gift, insurance, retirement, pension, license, copyright, forbearance, bequest or other form of inheritance, office, options, agreement for employment or property, or property of any kind. For reporting purposes, the following are excepted: pension, health, or other benefit payments from a trust that are provided pursuant to a written specific agreement covering such payments.
</P>
<P>(b) Dealing means to engage in a transaction (bargain, sell, purchase, agree, contract) or to in any way traffic or trade, including solicitation of business.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer</I> means any employer or any group or association of employers engaged in an industry affecting commerce (1) which is, with respect to employees engaged in an industry affecting commerce, an employer within the meaning of any law of the United States relating to the employment of any employees or (2) which may deal with any labor organization concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work, and includes any person acting directly or indirectly as an employer or as an agent of an employer in relation to an employee but does not include the United States or any corporation wholly owned by the Government of the United States or any State or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Fiscal year</I> means the calendar year or other period of 12 consecutive calendar months, on the basis of which financial accounts of the labor organization officer or employee are kept. Where a labor organization officer or employee designates a new fiscal year period prior to the expiration of a previously established fiscal year period, the resultant period of less than 12 consecutive calendar months, and thereafter the newly established fiscal year, shall in that order constitute the fiscal year for purposes of the reports required to be filed by section 202(a) of the Act and the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A labor organization officer or employee who is subject to section 202(a) of the Act for only a portion of his fiscal year because the labor organization officer or employee first becomes subject to the Act during such fiscal year, may consider such portion as the entire fiscal year in making this report under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Income means all income from whatever source derived, including, but not limited to, compensation for services, fees, commissions, wages, salaries, interest, rents, royalties, copyrights, licenses, dividends, annuities, honorarium, income and interest from insurance and endowment contracts, capital gains, discharge of indebtedness, share of partnership income, bequests or other forms of inheritance, and gifts, prizes or awards.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Labor organization employee</I> means any individual (other than an individual performing exclusively custodial or clerical services) employed by a labor organization within the meaning of any law of the United States relating to the employment of employees.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Labor organization officer</I> means any constitutional officer, any person authorized to perform the functions of president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, or other executive functions of a labor organization, and any member of its executive board or similar governing body. An officer is:
</P>
<P>(1) A person identified as an officer by the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization;
</P>
<P>(2) Any person authorized to perform the functions of president, vice president, secretary, or treasurer;
</P>
<P>(3) Any person who in fact has executive or policy-making authority or responsibility; and
</P>
<P>(4) A member of a group identified as an executive board or a body which is vested with functions normally performed by an executive board.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Minor child</I> means a son, daughter, stepson, or stepdaughter under 18 years of age.
</P>
<P>(i) Trust in which a labor organization is interested means a trust or other fund or organization:
</P>
<P>(1) Which was created or established by a labor organization, or one or more of the trustees or one or more members of the governing body of which is selected or appointed by a labor organization, and
</P>
<P>(2) A primary purpose of which is to provide benefits for the members of such labor organization or their beneficiaries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14384, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985; 72 FR 36158, July 2, 2007; 76 FR 66489, Oct. 26, 2011; 91 FR 13739, Mar. 23, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.2   Annual report.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization officer and employee who in any fiscal year has been involved in transactions of the type described in section 202(a) of the Act, or who holds or has held any interest in an employer or a business of the type referred to therein, or who has received any payments of the type referred to in that section, or who holds or has held an interest in or derived income or economic benefit with monetary value from a business any part of which consists of dealing with a trust in which his labor organization is interested, or whose spouse or minor child has been involved in such transactions, holds or has held any such interests, or has received such payments, is required to file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards, within 90 days after the end of his fiscal year, a signed report containing the detailed information required therein by section 202(a) of the Act, and found by the Secretary under section 208 thereof to be necessary in such report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14384, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8024, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.3   Form of annual report.</HEAD>
<P>On and after the effective date of this section, every labor organization officer and employee required to file an annual report under § 404.2 shall file such report on United States Department of Labor Form LM-30 entitled “Labor Organization Officer and Employee Report,” together with a true copy thereof, in the detail required by the instructions accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.5   Attorney-client communications exempted.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this part shall be construed to require an attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of any State, to include in any report required to be filed pursuant to the provisions of section 202(a) of the Act and of this part any information which was lawfully communicated to such attorney by any of his clients in the course of a legitimate attorney-client relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.6   Personal responsibility of signatories of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization officer or employee required to file a report under section 202(a) of the Act and under this part shall be personally responsible for the filing of such report and for any statement contained therein which he knows to be false.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.7   Maintenance and retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>Every person required to file any report under this part shall maintain records on the matters required to be reported which will provide in sufficient detail the necessary basic information and data from which the documents filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards may be verified, explained or clarified, and checked for accuracy and completeness, and shall include vouchers, worksheets, receipts, financial and investment statements, contracts, correspondence, and applicable resolutions, in their original electronic and paper formats, and any electronic programs by which they are maintained, available for examination for a period of not less than five years after the filing of the documents based on the information which they contain.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 36159, July 2, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.8   Publication of reports required by this part.</HEAD>
<P>Inspection and examination of any report or other document filed as required by this part, and the furnishing by the Office of Labor-Management Standards of copies thereof to any person requesting them, shall be governed by part 70 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 2990, Feb. 13, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.5.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.9   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collecting of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB control number 1245-0003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 15116, Mar. 31, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998; 78 FR 8024, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="405" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 405—EMPLOYER REPORTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 203, 207, 208, 73 Stat. 526, 529 (29 U.S.C. 433, 437, 438); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14384, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 405.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part the term:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Fiscal year</I> means the calendar year or other period of 12 consecutive calendar months, on the basis of which financial accounts are kept by an employer. Where an employer designates a new fiscal year period prior to the expiration of a previously established fiscal year period, the resultant period of less than 12 consecutive calendar months, and thereafter the newly established fiscal year, shall in that order constitute the fiscal year for purposes of the reports required to be filed by section 203(a) of the Act and of the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corresponding principal officers</I> shall include any person or persons performing or authorized to perform principal executive functions corresponding to those of president and treasurer, of any employer engaged in whole or in part in the performance of the activities described in section 203(a) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14384, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.2   Annual report.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer who in any fiscal year has made any payment, loan, promise, agreement, arrangement or expenditure of the kind described and required by section 203(a) of the Act to be reported, shall, as prescribed by the regulations in this part, file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards, within 90 days after the end of each of its fiscal years, a report signed by its president and treasurer, or corresponding principal officers, together with a true copy thereof, containing the detailed information required therein by section 203(a) of the Act and found by the Secretary under section 208 thereof to be necessary in such report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14384, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.3   Form of annual report.</HEAD>
<P>On and after the effective date of this section, every employer required to file an annual report by section 203(a) of the Act and § 405.2 shall file such report on the United States Department of Labor Form LM-10 entitled, “Employer Report” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in the detail required by the instructions 
<SU>1</SU> accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Filed as part of the original document.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14384, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 38 FR 10715, May 1, 1973; 42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.4   Terminal report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every employer required to file a report under the provisions of this part, who during its fiscal year loses its identity as a reporting employer through merger, consolidation, dissolution, or otherwise, shall, within 30 days of the effective date thereof, file a terminal employer report, and one copy, with the Office of Labor-Management Standards on Form LM-10 signed by the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers of such employer immediately prior to the time of the employer's loss of reporting identity, together with a statement of the effective date of such termination or loss of reporting identity, and if the latter, the name and mailing address of the employer entity into which it has been merged, consolidated or otherwise absorbed.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of the report required by paragraph (a) of this section, the period covered thereby shall be the portion of the employer's fiscal year ending on the effective date of the employer's termination or loss of reporting identity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.5   Special reports.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the report on Form LM-10, the Office of Labor-Management Standards may require from employers subject to the Act the submission of special reports on pertinent information, including but not necessarily confined to reports with respect to specifically identified personnel on the matters referred to in the second paragraph under the instructions for Question 8A of Form LM-10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977, as amended at 81 FR 16020, Mar. 24, 2016; 83 FR 33842, July 18, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.6   Exceptions from the filing requirements of § 405.2.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this part shall be construed to require:
</P>
<P>(a) An employer to file a report unless said employer has made an expenditure, payment, loan, agreement, or arrangement of the kind described in section 203(a) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(b) Any employer to file a report covering the services of any person by reason of his (1) giving or agreeing to give advice to such employer or (2) representing or agreeing to represent such employer before any court, administrative agency, or tribunal of arbitration or (3) engaging or agreeing to engage in collective bargaining on behalf of such employer with respect to wages, hours, or other terms or conditions of employment or the negotiation of an agreement or any question arising thereunder;
</P>
<P>(c) Any employer to file a report covering expenditures made to any regular officer, supervisor, or employee of an employer as compensation for service as a regular officer, supervisor, or employee of such employer;
</P>
<P>(d) An attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of any State, to include in any report required to be filed pursuant to the provisions of this part any information which was lawfully communicated to such attorney by any of his clients in the course of a legitimate attorney-client relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.7   Relation of section 8(c) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, to the reporting requirements of § 405.2.</HEAD>
<P>While nothing contained in section 203 of the Act shall be construed as an amendment to, or modification of the rights protected by section 8(c) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, activities protected by such section of the said Act are not for that reason exempted from the reporting requirements of section 203(a) of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 and § 405.2, and, if otherwise subject to such reporting requirements, are required to be reported if they have been engaged in during the course of the reporting fiscal year. However, the information required to be reported in Question 8C of Form LM-10 does not include matters protected by section 8(c) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, because the definition in section 203(g) of the term “interfere with, restrain, or coerce”, which is used in Question 8C does not cover such matters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977, as amended at 81 FR 16020, Mar. 24, 2016; 83 FR 33842, July 18, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.8   Personal responsibility of signatories of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each individual required to sign a report under section 203(a) of the Act and under this part shall be personally responsible for the filing of such report and for any statement contained therein which he knows to be false.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.9   Maintenance and retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>Every person required to file any report under this part shall maintain records on the matters required to be reported which will provide in sufficient detail the necessary basic information and data from which the documents filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards may be verified, explained or clarified, and checked for accuracy and completeness, and shall include vouchers, worksheets, receipts, and applicable resolutions, and shall keep such records available for examination for a period of not less than five years after the filing of the documents based on the information which they contain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.10   Publication of reports required by this part.</HEAD>
<P>Inspection and examination of any report or other document filed as required by this part, and the furnishing by the Office of Labor-Management Standards of copies thereof to any person requesting them, shall be governed by part 70 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 2990, Feb. 13, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 405.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.6.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 405.11   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collecting of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB control number 1245-0003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 15116, Mar. 31, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="406" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 406—REPORTING BY LABOR RELATIONS CONSULTANTS AND OTHER PERSONS, CERTAIN AGREEMENTS WITH EMPLOYERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 203, 207, 208, 73 Stat. 526, 529 (29 U.S.C. 433, 437, 438); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14385, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 406.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Corresponding principal officers</I> means any person or persons performing or authorized to perform, principal executive functions corresponding to those of president and treasurer of any entity engaged in whole or in part in the performance of the activities described in section 203(b) of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fiscal year</I> means the calendar year or other period of 12 consecutive calendar months, on the basis of which financial accounts are kept by a person. Where a person designates a new fiscal year prior to the expiration of a previously established fiscal year period, the resultant period of less than 12 consecutive calendar months, and thereafter the newly established fiscal year, shall in that order constitute the fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Undertake</I> means not only the performing of activities, but also the agreeing to perform them or to have them performed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>A direct or indirect party to an agreement or arrangement</I> includes persons who have secured the services of another or of others in connection with an agreement or arrangement of the type referred to in § 406.2 as well as persons who have undertaken activities at the behest of another or of others with knowledge or reason to believe that they are undertaken as a result of an agreement or arrangement between an employer and any other person, except bona fide regular officers, supervisors or employees of their employer to the extent to which they undertook to perform services as such bona fide regular officers, supervisors or employees of their employer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14385, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977; 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.2   Agreement and activities report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every person who as a direct or indirect party to any agreement or arrangement with an employer undertakes, pursuant to such agreement or arrangement, any activities where an object thereof is, directly or indirectly, (1) to persuade employees to exercise or not to exercise, or to persuade employees as to the manner of exercising, the right to organize and bargain collectively through representatives of their own choosing; or, (2) to supply an employer with information concerning the activities of employees or a labor organization in connection with a labor dispute involving such employer, except information for use solely in conjunction with an administrative or arbitral proceeding or a criminal or civil judicial proceeding; shall, as prescribed by the regulations in this part, file a report with the Office of Labor-Management Standards, and one copy thereof, on Form LM-20 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> entitled “Agreement and Activities Report (required of persons, including labor relations consultants and other individuals and organizations)” in the detail required by such form and the instructions accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof. The report shall be filed within 30 days after entering into an agreement or arrangement of the type described in this section. If there is any change in the information reported (other than that required by Item C. 10, (c) of the Form), it must be filed in a report clearly marked “Amended Report” within 30 days of the change.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Filed as part of the original document.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The report shall be signed by the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers of the reporting person. If the report is filed by an individual in his own behalf, it need only bear his signature.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14385, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 81 FR 16021, Mar. 24, 2016; 83 FR 33842, July 18, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.3   Receipts and disbursements report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every person who, as a direct or indirect party to any agreement or arrangement, undertakes any activities of the type described in § 406.2 pursuant to such agreement or arrangement and who, as a result of such agreement or arrangement made or received any payment during his fiscal year, shall, as prescribed by the regulations in this part, file a report and one copy thereof, with the Office of Labor-Management Standards, on Form LM-21 
<SU>1</SU> entitled “Receipts and Disbursements Report (required of persons, including labor relations consultants, other individuals and organizations)”, in the detail required by such form and the instructions accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof. The report shall be filed within 90 days after the end of such person's fiscal year during which payments were made or received as a result of such an agreement or arrangement.
</P>
<P>(b) The report shall be signed by the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers of the reporting person. If the report is filed by an individual in his own behalf, it need only bear his signature.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14385, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.4   Terminal report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every person required to file a report pursuant to the provisions of this part who during his fiscal year loses his identity as a reporting entity through merger, consolidation, dissolution, or otherwise shall within 30 days of the effective date thereof or of the effective date of this section, whichever is later, file a terminal report, and one copy thereof, with the Office of Labor-Management Standards, on Form LM-21 signed by the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers immediately prior to the time of the person's loss of reporting identity (or by the person himself if he is an individual), together with a statement of the effective date of termination or loss of reporting identity, and if the latter, the name and mailing address of the entity into which the person reporting has been merged, consolidated or otherwise absorbed.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of the report referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the period covered thereby shall be the portion of the reporting person's fiscal year ending on the effective date of the termination or loss of identity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14385, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.5   Persons excepted from filing reports.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this part shall be construed to require:
</P>
<P>(a) Any person to file a report under this part unless he was a direct or indirect party to an agreement or arrangement of the kind described in § 406.2;
</P>
<P>(b) Any person to file a report covering the services of such person by reason of his (1) giving or agreeing to give advice to an employer; or (2) representing or agreeing to represent an employer before any court, administrative agency, or tribunal of arbitration; or (3) engaging or agreeing to engage in collective bargaining on behalf of an employer with respect to wages, hours, or other terms or conditions of employment or the negotiation of an agreement or any question arising thereunder;
</P>
<P>(c) Any regular officer, or employee of an employer to file a report in connection with services rendered as such regular officer, supervisor or employee to such employer;
</P>
<P>(d) An attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of any State, to include in any report required to be filed pursuant to the provisions of this part any information which was lawfully communicated to such attorney by any of his clients in the course of a legitimate attorney-client relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.6   Relation of section 8(c) of the National Labor Relations Act to this part.</HEAD>
<P>While nothing contained in section 203 of the Act shall be construed as an amendment to, or modification of the rights protected by, section 8(c) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended (61 Stat. 142; 29 U.S.C. 158 (c)), activities protected by such section of the said Act are not for that reason exempted from the reporting requirements of this part and, if otherwise subject to such reporting requirements, are required to be reported. Consequently, information required to be included in Forms LM-20 and 21 must be reported regardless of whether that information relates to activities which are protected by section 8(c) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.7   Personal responsibility of signatories of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each individual required to file a report under this part shall be personally responsible for the filing of such report and for any statement contained therein which he knows to be false.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.8   Maintenance and retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>Every person required to file any report under this part shall maintain records on the matters required to be reported which will provide in sufficient detail the necessary basic information and data from which the documents filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards may be verified, explained or clarified, and checked for accuracy and completeness, and shall include vouchers, worksheets, receipts and applicable resolutions, and shall keep such records available for examination for a period of not less than five years after the filing of the documents based on the information which they contain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.9   Publication of reports required by this part.</HEAD>
<P>Inspection and examination of any report or other document filed as required by this part, and the furnishing by the Office of Labor-Management Standards of copies thereof to any person requesting them, shall be governed by part 70 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 2990, Feb. 13, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 406.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.7.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 406.10   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collecting of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB control number 1245-0003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 15116, Mar. 31, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 46888, Sept. 3, 1998; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="408" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 408—LABOR ORGANIZATION TRUSTEESHIP REPORTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 202, 207, 208, 73 Stat. 525, 529 (29 U.S.C. 432, 437, 438); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14387, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 408.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Corresponding principal officers</I> shall include any person or persons performing or authorized to perform principal executive functions corresponding to those of president and treasurer, of any labor organization which has assumed or imposed a trusteeship over a labor organization within the meaning of section 301(a) of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Trusteeship</I> means any receivership, trusteeship, or other method of supervision or control whereby a labor organization suspends the autonomy otherwise available to a subordinate body under its constitution or bylaws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Policy determining body</I> means any body which is convened by the parent labor organization or other labor organization which is composed of delegates from labor organizations and which formulates policy on such matters as wages, hours, or other conditions of employment or recommends or takes any action in the name of the participating labor organizations. Such a body includes, for example, a district council, area conference or joint board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.2   Initial trusteeship report.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization which has or assumes trusteeship over any subordinate labor organization shall file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards within 30 days after the imposition of any such trusteeship, a trusteeship report, pursuant to § 408.3, together with a true copy thereof, signed by its president and treasurer, or corresponding principal officers, as well as by the trustees of such subordinate labor organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14387, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.3   Form of initial report.</HEAD>
<P>On and after the effective date of this section, every labor organization required to file an initial report under § 408.2 shall file such report on United States Department of Labor Form LM-15 entitled “Trusteeship Report” in the detail required by the instructions accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14387, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.4   Semiannual trusteeship report.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization required to file an initial report under § 408.2 shall thereafter during the continuance of trusteeship over the subordinate labor organization, file with the said Office of Labor-Management Standards semiannually, and not later than six months after the due date of the initial trusteeship report, a semiannual trusteeship report on Form LM-15 containing the information required by that form except for the Statement of Assets and Liabilities. If in answer to Item 9 of Form LM-15, there was (a) a convention or other policy determining body to which the subordinate organization sent delegates or would have sent delegates if not in trusteeship or (b) an election of officers of the labor organization assuming trusteeship, Form LM-15A should be used to report the required information with respect thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.5   Annual financial report.</HEAD>
<P>During the continuance of a trusteeship, the labor organization which has assumed trusteeship over a subordinate labor organization, shall file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards on behalf of the subordinate labor organization the annual financial report required by part 403 of this chapter, signed by the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers of the labor organization which has assumed such trusteeship, and the trustees of the subordinate labor organization on Form LM-2 Long Form or Form LM-2.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32622, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.6   Amendments to the Labor Organization Information Report filed by or on behalf of the subordinate labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>During the continuance of a trusteeship, the labor organization which has assumed trusteeship over a subordinate labor organization, shall file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards on behalf of the subordinate labor organization any change in the information required by part 402 of this chapter in accordance with the procedure set out in § 402.4.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.7   Terminal trusteeship financial report.</HEAD>
<P>Each labor organization which has assumed trusteeship over a subordinate labor organization shall file within 90 days after the termination of such trusteeship on behalf of the subordinate labor organization a terminal financial report, and one copy, with the Office of Labor-Management Standards, on Form LM-2 Long Form or Form LM-2 and in conformance with the requirements of part 403 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 32622, June 1, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.8   Terminal trusteeship information report.</HEAD>
<P>There shall be filed at the same time that the terminal trusteeship financial report is filed a terminal trusteeship information report on Form LM-16. If in answer to Item 6 of Form LM-16, there was (a) a convention or other policy determining body to which the subordinate organization sent delegates or would have sent delegates if not in trusteeship or (b) an election of officers of the labor organization assuming trusteeship, Form LM-15A should be used to report the required information with respect thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 58856, Dec. 19, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.9   Personal responsibility of signatories of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each individual required to sign a report under this part shall be personally responsible for the filing of such report and for any statement contained therein which he knows to be false.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.10   Maintenance and retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>Every person required to file any report under this part shall maintain records on the matters required to be reported which will provide in sufficient detail the necessary basic information and data from which the documents filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards may be verified, explained or clarified, and checked for accuracy and completeness, and shall include vouchers, worksheets, receipts, and applicable resolutions, and shall keep such records available for examination for a period of not less than five years after the filing of the documents based on the information which they contain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.11   Dissemination and verification of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization required to submit a report shall make available the information required to be contained in such report to all of its members, and every such labor organization and its officers shall be under a duty to permit such member for just cause to examine any books, records, and accounts necessary to verify such report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.12" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.12   Publication of reports required by this part.</HEAD>
<P>Inspection and examination of any report or other document filed as required by this part, and the furnishing by the Office of Labor-Management Standards of copies thereof to any person requesting them, shall be governed by part 70 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 2990, Feb. 13, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.13" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.8.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.13   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collecting of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB control number 1245-0003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 15116, Mar. 31, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 46888, Sept. 3, 1998; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="409" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 409—REPORTS BY SURETY COMPANIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 207, 208, 211; 79 Stat. 888; 88 Stat. 852 (29 U.S.C. 437, 438, 441); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>31 FR 11177, Aug. 24, 1966, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 409.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 409.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Fiscal year</I> means the calendar year, or other period of 12 consecutive calendar months. Once reported on one basis, a change in the reporting year shall be effected only upon prior approval by the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corresponding principal officers</I> shall include any person or persons performing or authorized to perform principal executive functions corresponding to those of president and treasurer of any surety underwriting a bond for which reports are required under section 211 of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 409.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 409.2   Annual report.</HEAD>
<P>Each surety company having in force any bond required by section 502 of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 or section 412 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act during the fiscal year, shall file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards a report, on U.S. Department of Labor Form S-1 entitled “Surety Company Annual Report” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> signed by the president and treasurer or corresponding principal officers, in the detail required by the instructions accompanying such form and constituting a part thereof.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Filed as part of the original document.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 59070, Nov. 15, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 409.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.9.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 409.3   Time for filing annual report.</HEAD>
<P>Each surety company required to file an annual report by section 211 of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 and § 409.2 shall file such report within 150 days after the end of the fiscal year. The period of 150 days within which reports must be filed is stipulated in lieu of the statutory period of 90 days (sec. 207(b), 73 Stat. 529, 29 U.S.C. 437(b) as amended by 79 Stat. 888) pursuant to a finding under section 211 (79 Stat. 888) of the Act that information required to be reported cannot be practicably ascertained within 90 days of the end of the fiscal year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 11177, Aug. 24, 1966, as amended at 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 409.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.9.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 409.4   Personal responsibility for filing of reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each individual required to file a report under section 211 of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959, shall be personally responsible for the filing of such reports and for the accuracy of the information contained therein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 409.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.9.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 409.5   Maintenance and retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each surety required to file any report under this part shall maintain records on the matters required to be reported which will provide in sufficient detail the necessary basic information and data from which the reports filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards may be verified, explained or clarified and checked for accuracy and completeness, and shall keep such records available for examination for a period of not less than 5 years after the filing of the reports based on the information which they contain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 409.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.9.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 409.6   Publication of reports required by this part.</HEAD>
<P>Part 70 of this title shall govern inspection and examination of any report or other document filed as required by this part, and the furnishing by the Office of Labor-Management Standards of copies thereof to any person requesting them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 2990, Feb. 13, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 409.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.9.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 409.7   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collecting of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB control number 1245-0003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 15116, Mar. 31, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="417" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 417—PROCEDURE FOR REMOVAL OF LOCAL LABOR ORGANIZATION OFFICERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 401, 402, 73 Stat. 533, 534 (29 U.S.C. 481, 482); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012; Secretary's Order No. 01-2020.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Section 401(h) of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 (29 U.S.C. 481) provides that if, upon application of any member of a local labor organization, the Secretary of Labor finds, after hearing in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, that the constitution and bylaws of such labor organization do not provide an adequate procedure for the removal of an elected officer guilty of serious misconduct, such officer may be removed for cause shown and after notice and hearing, by the members in good standing voting in a secret ballot. Section 401(i) (29 U.S.C. 481) requires the Secretary to promulgate rules and regulations prescribing minimum standards and procedures for determining the adequacy of the removal procedures referred to in section 401(h). Section 402(a) (29 U.S.C. 482) provides that a member of a labor organization who has exhausted the available internal remedies of such organization and of any parent body, or who has invoked such remedies without obtaining a final decision within three months, may file a complaint with the Secretary within one month thereafter alleging violation of section 401 (including violation of the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization pertaining to the removal of officers). Section 402(b) (29 U.S.C. 482) provides that upon suit initiated by the Secretary, a Federal court may direct the conduct of a hearing and vote upon the removal of officers under the supervision of the Secretary, and in accordance with such rules and regulations as the Secretary may prescribe. It is the purpose of this part to implement those sections by prescribing regulations relating to the procedures and standards for determining the adequacy of removal procedures and the procedures for holding elections for the removal of officers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Chief, DOE</I> means the Chief of the Division of Enforcement within the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adequate procedure</I> shall mean any procedure which affords reasonable and equitable opportunity for (1) trial of an officer(s) charged with serious misconduct, and (2) removal of such an officer(s) if found guilty, and which contains the elements set forth in each of the subparagraphs of this paragraph: <I>Provided, however,</I> That any other procedure which provides otherwise reasonable and equitable measures for removal from office may also be considered adequate:
</P>
<P>(1) A reasonable opportunity is afforded for filing charges of serious misconduct against any elected officer(s) without being subject to retaliatory threats, coercion, or acts of intimidation.
</P>
<P>(2) The charges of serious misconduct are communicated to the accused officer(s), and reasonable notice is given the members of the organization, reasonably in advance of the time for hearing thereon.
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to reasonable restrictions, a fair and open hearing upon such charges is held after adequate notice and adequate opportunity is afforded for testimony or the submission of evidence in support of or in opposition to such charges. Within a reasonable time following such hearing, a decision is reached as to the guilt or innocence of the accused.
</P>
<P>(4) If the hearing upon such charges is held before a trial committee or other duly authorized body, reasonable notice of such body's findings is given to the membership of the organization promptly.
</P>
<P>(5) If such accused officer(s) is found guilty, he may be removed by a procedure which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A secret ballot vote of the members at an appropriately called meeting, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A vote of a trial committee or other duly authorized body, subject to appeal and review by the members voting by a secret ballot at an appropriately called meeting.
</P>
<P>(6) Within a reasonable time after the charges of serious misconduct are filed with the labor organization final disposition (including appellate procedures) is made of the charges.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Elected officer</I> means any constitutional officer, any person authorized to perform the functions of president, vice-president, secretary, treasurer, or other executive functions of a labor organization, and any member of its executive board or similar governing body.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cause shown</I> means substantial evidence of serious misconduct.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Interested person</I> means any person or organization whose interests are or may be affected by a proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Court</I> means the district court of the United States in the district in which the labor organization in question maintains its principal office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 29 FR 8480, July 7, 1964; 29 FR 9537, July 14, 1964; 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985; 62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997; 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Procedures To Determine Adequacy of Constitution and Bylaws for Removal of Officers of Local Labor Organizations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.3   Initiation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any member of a local labor organization who has reason to believe that:
</P>
<P>(1) An elected officer(s) of such organization has been guilty of serious misconduct, and
</P>
<P>(2) The constitution and bylaws of his organization do not provide an adequate procedure for the removal of such officer(s), may file with the Office of Labor-Management Standards a written application, which may be in the form of a letter, for initiation of proceedings under section 401(h) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) An application filed under paragraph (a) of this section shall set forth the facts upon which it is based including a statement of the basis for the charge that an elected officer(s) is guilty of serious misconduct; and shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Information identifying the labor organization and the officer or officers involved, and
</P>
<P>(2) Any data such member desires the Office of Labor-Management Standards to consider in connection with his application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.4   Pre-hearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of an application filed under § 417.3, the Chief, DOE shall cause an investigation to be conducted of the allegations contained therein, and if he finds probable cause to believe that the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization do not provide an adequate procedure for the removal of an elected officer(s) guilty of serious misconduct he shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Advise the labor organization of his findings and
</P>
<P>(2) Afford such labor organization the opportunity for a conference to be set not earlier than 10 days thereafter except where all interested persons elect to confer at an earlier time. Any such conference shall be conducted for the purpose of hearing the views of interested persons and attempting to achieve a settlement of the issue without formal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If:
</P>
<P>(i) The labor organization declines the opportunity to confer afforded under paragraph (a) of this section, and fails to undertake compliance with the provisions of section 401(h) of the Act, or if
</P>
<P>(ii) After consideration of any views presented by the labor organization the Chief, DOE still finds probable cause to believe that the removal procedures are not adequate and if agreement for the adoption of adequate procedures for removal has not been achieved and the labor organization refuses to enter into a stipulation to comply with the provisions of section 401(h) of the Act, the Chief, DOE shall submit his findings and recommendations to the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon consideration of the Chief, DOE's recommendations, the Director may order a hearing to be conducted before an Administrative Law Judge duly assigned by him to receive evidence and arguments (i) on the applicability of section 401(h) of the Act to the labor organization involved, and (ii) on the question of whether its constitution and bylaws provide an adequate procedure for the removal of an elected union officer guilty of serious misconduct.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985; 62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.5   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>Notice of hearing shall be given not less than 10 days before such hearing is held unless the parties agree to a shorter notice period. Such notice shall be transmitted to the labor organization and the officer(s) accused of misconduct and other interested persons, insofar as they are known, and shall inform them of:
</P>
<P>(a) The time, place, and nature of the hearings;
</P>
<P>(b) The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held; and
</P>
<P>(c) The matters of fact and law asserted.
</P>
<FP>The Labor organization shall inform its members of the provisions of the notice and copies of the notice shall be made available for inspection at the offices of the labor organization.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.6   Powers of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>The designated Administrative Law Judge shall have authority:
</P>
<P>(a) To give notice concerning and to conduct hearings;
</P>
<P>(b) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(c) To issue subpoenas;
</P>
<P>(d) To rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(e) To take or cause depositions to be taken whenever the ends of justice would be served thereby;
</P>
<P>(f) To regulate the course of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(g) To hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties;
</P>
<P>(h) To dispose of procedural requests or other matters;
</P>
<P>(i) To limit the number of witnesses at hearings, or limit or exclude evidence or testimony which may be irrelevant, immaterial, or cumulative;
</P>
<P>(j) If appropriate or necessary to exclude persons or counsel from participation in hearings for refusing any proper request for information or documentary evidence, or for contumacious conduct;
</P>
<P>(k) To grant continuances or reschedule hearings for good cause shown;
</P>
<P>(l) To consider and decide procedural matters;
</P>
<P>(m) To take any other actions authorized by the regulations in this part.
</P>
<FP>The Administrative Law Judge's authority in the case shall terminate upon his filing of the record and his initial decision with the Director, or when he shall have withdrawn from the case upon considering himself disqualified, or upon termination of his authority by the Director for good cause stated. However, the Administrative Law Judge's authority may be reinstated upon referral of some or all the issues by the Director for rehearing. This authority will terminate upon certification of the rehearing record to the Director.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.7   Transcript.</HEAD>
<P>An official reporter shall make the only official transcript of the proceedings. Copies of the official transcript shall be made available upon request addressed to the Director in accordance with the provisions of part 70 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.8   Appearances.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Labor does not maintain a register of persons or attorneys who may participate at hearings. Any interested person may appear and be heard in person or be represented by counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.9   Evidence; contumacious or disorderly conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Formal rules of evidence or procedure in use in courts of law or equity shall not obtain. Rules of evidence are to be within the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge. However, it shall be the policy to exclude testimony or matter which is irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<P>(b) Contumacious or disorderly conduct at a hearing may be ground for exclusion therefrom. The refusal of a witness at any hearing to answer any questions which have been ruled to be proper shall, in the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge be ground for striking all testimony previously given by such witness on related matter.
</P>
<P>(c) At any stage of the hearing the Administrative Law Judge may call for further evidence or testimony on any matter. After the hearing has been closed, no further information shall be received on any matter, except where provision shall have been made for it at the hearing, or except as the Administrative Law Judge or Director may direct by reopening the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 29 FR 8480, July 7, 1964; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.10   Rights of participants.</HEAD>
<P>Every interested person shall have the right to present oral or documentary evidence, to submit evidence in rebuttal, and to conduct such examination or cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts (subject to the rulings of the Administrative Law Judge), and to object to admissions or exclusions of evidence. The Department of Labor, through its officers and attorneys shall have all rights accorded interested persons by the provisions of this subpart A.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.11   Objections to evidence.</HEAD>
<P>Objections to the admission or exclusion of evidence may be made orally or in writing, but shall be in short form, stating the grounds for such objection. The transcript shall not include argument or debate thereon except as required by the Administrative Law Judge. Rulings on such objections shall be a part of the transcript. No such objections shall be deemed waived by further participation in the hearing. Formal exceptions are unnecessary and will not be taken to rulings on objections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.12" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.12   Proposed findings and conclusions.</HEAD>
<P>Within 10 days following the close of hearings, interested persons may submit proposed findings and conclusions to the Administrative Law Judge, together with supporting reasons therefor, which shall become a part of the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.13" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.13   Initial decision of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>Within 25 days following the period for submitting proposed findings and conclusions, the Administrative Law Judge shall consider the whole record, file an initial decision as to the adequacy of the constitution and bylaws for the purpose of removing officers with the Administrative Review Board, and forward a copy to each party participating in the hearing. His decision shall become a part of the record and shall include a statement of his findings and conclusions, as well as the reasons or basis therefor, upon all material issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.14" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.14   Form and time for filing of appeal with the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An interested person may appeal from the Administrative Law Judge's initial decision by filing written exceptions with the Administrative Review Board within 15 days of the issuance of the Administrative Law Judge's initial decision (or such additional time as the Administrative Review Board may allow), together with supporting reasons for such exceptions, in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. Blanket appeals shall not be received. Impertinent or scandalous matter may be stricken by the Administrative Review Board, or an appeal containing such matter or lacking in specification of exceptions may be dismissed.
</P>
<P>(b) In the absence of either an appeal to the Administrative Review Board or review of the Administrative Law Judge's initial decision by the Administrative Review Board on his own motion, such initial decision shall become the decision of the Administrative Review Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013; 86 FR 1785, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.15" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.1.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.15   Decision of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>Upon appeal filed with the Administrative Review Board pursuant to § 417.14, or within its discretion upon its own motion, the complete record of the proceedings shall be certified to it; it shall notify all interested persons who participated in the proceedings; and it shall review the record, the exceptions filed and supporting reasons, and shall issue a decision as to the adequacy of the constitution and bylaws for the purpose of removing officers, or shall order such further proceedings as it deems appropriate. Its decision shall become a part of the record and shall include a statement of its findings and conclusions, as well as the reasons or basis therefor, upon all material issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1785, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures Upon Failure of Union To Take Appropriate Remedial Action Following Subpart A Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.16" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.16   Initiation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any member of a local labor organization may file a complaint with the Office of Labor-Management Standards alleging that following a finding by the Administrative Review Board pursuant to subpart A that the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization pertaining to the removal of officers are inadequate, or a stipulation of compliance with the provisions of section 401(h) of the Act reached with the Chief, DOE in connection with a prior charge of the inadequacy of a union's constitution and bylaws to remove officers, as provided in subpart A of this part, the labor organization (1) has failed to act within a reasonable time, or (2) has violated the procedures agreed to with the Chief, DOE, or (3) has violated the principles governing adequate removal procedures under § 417.2(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint must be filed pursuant to section 402(a) of the Act within one calendar month after one of the two following conditions has been met:
</P>
<P>(1) The member has exhausted the remedies available to him under the constitution and bylaws of the organization, or
</P>
<P>(2) The member has invoked such remedies without obtaining a final decision within three calendar months after invoking them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 65716, Dec. 21, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.17" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.17   Investigation of complaint and court action.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Labor-Management Standards shall investigate such complaint, and if upon such investigation the Secretary finds probable cause to believe that a violation of section 401(h) of the Act has occurred and has not been remedied, the Secretary shall within 60 days after the filing of such complaint, bring a civil action against the labor organization in the district court of the United States for the district in which such labor organization maintains its principal office, to direct the conduct of a hearing and vote upon the removal of officer(s) under the supervision of the Director as provided in section 402(b) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 65717, Dec. 21, 1994, as amended at 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.18" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.18   Hearings—removal of officers of local labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P>Hearings pursuant to order of the court and concerning the removal of officers under section 402(b) of the Act shall be for the purpose of introducing testimony and evidence showing why an officer or officers accused of serious misconduct should or should not be removed. Hearings shall be conducted by the officers of the labor organization (subject to § 417.19) in accordance with the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization insofar as they are not inconsistent with title IV of the Act, or with the provisions of this part 417: <I>Provided, however,</I> That no officer(s) accused of serious misconduct shall participate in such hearings in any capacity except as witness or counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.19" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.19   Director's representative.</HEAD>
<P>The Director shall appoint a representative or representatives whose functions shall be to supervise the hearing and vote. Such representative(s) shall have final authority to issue such rulings as shall be appropriate or necessary to insure a full and fair hearing and vote. Upon his own motion or upon consideration of the petition of any interested person the Director's Representative may disqualify any officer(s) or member(s) of the union from participation in the conduct of the hearing (except in the capacity of witness or counsel).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 29 FR 8480, July 7, 1964 ; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.20" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.20   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Notice of hearing, not less than 10 days in advance of the date set for such hearing, shall be transmitted to the officer or officers accused of serious misconduct and other interested persons, insofar as they are known, and shall inform them of (a) the time, place, and nature of the hearing; (b) the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held; (c) the matters of fact and law asserted; and (d) their rights to challenge the appointment of certain of, or all of, the officers of the union to conduct the hearing in accordance with this subpart. The labor organization shall promptly inform its members of the provisions of the notice. Copies of the notice shall be made available for inspection at the office of the labor organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.21" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.21   Transcript.</HEAD>
<P>It shall be within the discretion of the Director to require an official reporter to make an official transcript of the hearings. In the event he does so require, copies of the official transcript shall be made available upon request addressed to the Director in accordance with the provisions of part 70 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 63 FR 33779, June 19, 1998; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.22" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.22   Vote among members of the labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>Within a reasonable time after completion of the hearing, and after proper notice thereof, a secret ballot vote shall be conducted among the members of the labor organization in good standing on the issue of whether the accused officer or officers shall be removed from office. The vote shall be in accordance with the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of the Act or this part 417. The presiding officer or officers at the taking of such vote shall entertai objections or suggestions as to the rules for conducting the vote, eligibility of voters, and such other matters as may be pertinent; and shall rule on such questions, shall establish procedures for the conduct of the vote, and for tabulation of the ballots; and shall appoint observers and compile a list of eligible voters. All rulings of the presiding officer or officers shall be subject to the provisions of § 417.19.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.23" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.23   Report to the Director.</HEAD>
<P>Following completion of the hearing and vote, the Director's Representative shall file a report with the Director setting out the results of the balloting; and pertinent details of the hearing and vote. Notice thereof shall be given to the membership of such labor organization promptly and copies shall be furnished to all interested parties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.24" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.24   Appeal to the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 15 days after mailing of the report of the Director's Representative, any interested party may appeal the conduct of the hearing or vote or both by filing written exceptions with the Director. Blanket appeals shall not be received. Impertinent or scandalous matter may be stricken by the Director, or an appeal containing such matter or lacking in specifications may be dismissed.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon review of the whole record, the Director shall issue a decision or may order further hearing, a new vote, or such further proceedings as he deems appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 417.25" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.10.2.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 417.25   Certification of results of vote.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of the report of the Director's Representative on the hearing and vote on removal, the Director shall certify the results of the vote to the court as required by section 402(c) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8264, July 1, 1964, as amended at 78 FR 8025, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="451" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 451—LABOR ORGANIZATIONS AS DEFINED IN THE LABOR-MANAGEMENT REPORTING AND DISCLOSURE ACT OF 1959
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 3, 208, 401, 73 Stat. 520, 529, 532 (29 U.S.C. 402, 438, 481); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14388, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 451.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.11.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.1   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part discusses the meaning and scope of sections 3(i) and 3(j) of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (hereinafter referred to as the Act). These provisions define the terms “labor organization” and “labor organization * * * in an industry affecting commerce” for purposes of the Act. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 73 Stat. 520, 521, 29 U.S.C. 402.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> It should be noted that the definition of the term “labor organization,” as well as other terms, in section 3 are for purposes of those portions of the Act included in titles I, II, III, IV, V (except section 505) and VI. They do not apply to title VII, which contains amendments of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, nor to section 505 of title V, which amends section 302 (a), (b), and (c) of the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947, as amended. The terms used in title VII and section 505 of title V have the same meaning as they have under the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, and the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947, as amended.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The Act imposes on labor organizations various obligations and prohibitions relating generally, among other things, to the reporting of information and election and removal of officers. Requirements are also imposed on the officers, representatives, and employees of labor organizations. In addition, certain rights are guaranteed the members thereof. It thus becomes a matter of importance to determine what organizations are included within the applicability of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of the Act, other than title I and amendments to other statutes contained in section 505 and title VII, are subject to the general investigatory authority of the Secretary of Labor embodied in section 601 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> (and delegated by him to the Director), which empowers him to investigate whenever he believes it necessary in order to determine whether any person has violated or is about to violate such provisions. The correctness of an interpretation of these provisions can be determined finally and authoritatively only by the courts. It is necessary, however, for the Director to reach informed conclusions as to the meaning of the law to enable him to carry out his statutory duties of administration and enforcement. The interpretations of the Director contained in this part, which are issued upon the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, indicate the construction of the law which will guide him in performing his duties unless and until he is directed otherwise by authoritative rulings of the courts or unless and until he subsequently decides that a prior interpretation is incorrect. However, the omission to discuss a particular problem in this part, or in interpretations supplementing it, should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Director with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice. Interpretations of the Director with respect to the meaning of the terms “labor organization” and “labor organization * * * in an industry affecting commerce,” as used in the Act, are set forth in this part to provide those affected by the provisions of the Act with “a practical guide * * * as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it.” 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Sec. 601, 73 Stat. 539, 29 U.S.C. 521.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU><I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 138.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) To the extent that prior opinions and interpretations relating to the meaning of “labor organization” and “labor organization * * * in an industry affecting commerce” are inconsistent or in conflict with the principles stated in this part, they are hereby rescinded and withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14388, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.11.0.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.2   General.</HEAD>
<P>A “labor organization” under the Act must qualify under section 3(i). It must also be engaged in an industry affecting commerce. In accordance with the broad language used and the manifest congressional intent, the language will be construed broadly to include all labor organizations of any kind other than those clearly shown to be outside the scope of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.11.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.3   Requirements of section 3(i).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Organizations which deal with employers.</I> (1) The term “labor organization” includes “any organization of any kind, any agency, or employee representation committee, group, association, or plan * * * in which employees participate and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours, or other terms or conditions of employment, * * *.” The quoted language is deemed sufficiently broad to encompass any labor organization irrespective of size or formal attributes. While it is necessary for employees to participate therein, such participating employees need not necessarily be the employees of the employer with whom the organization deals. In determining who are “employees” for purposes of this provision, resort must be had to the broad definition of “employee” contained in section 3(f) of the Act. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> It will be noted that the term includes employees whose work has ceased for certain specified reasons, including any current labor dispute.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Sec. 3(f) reads: “ ‘Employee’ means any individual employed by an employer, and includes any individual whose work has ceased as a consequence of, or in connection with, any current labor dispute or because of any unfair labor practice or because of exclusion or expulsion from a labor organization in any manner or for any reason inconsistent with the requirements of this Act.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) To come within the quoted language in section 3(i) the organization must exist for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, etc. In determining whether a given organization exists wholly or partially for such purpose, consideration will be given not only to formal documents, such as its constitution or bylaws, but the actual functions and practices of the organization as well. Thus, employee committees which regularly meet with management to discuss problems of mutual interest and handle grievances are “labor organizations”, even though they have no formal organizational structure. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>National Labor Relations Board</I> v. <I>Cabot Carbon Co.,</I> 360 U.S. 203.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Since the types of labor organizations described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph are those which deal with employers, it is necessary to consider the definition of “employer” contained in section 3(e) of the Act in determining the scope of the language under consideration. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> The term “employer” is broadly defined to include “any employer or any group or association of employers engaged in an industry affecting commerce” which is “an employer within the meaning of any law of the United States relating to the employment of any employees * * *.” Such laws would include, among others, the Railway Labor Act, as amended, the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, the Labor Management Relations Act, as amended, and the Internal Revenue Code. The fact that employers may be excluded from the application of any of the foregoing acts would not preclude their qualification as employers for purposes of this Act. For example, employers of agricultural labor who are excluded from the application of the Labor Management Relations Act, as amended, would appear to be employers within the meaning of this Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Sec. 3(e) reads: “ ‘Employer’ means any employer or any group or association of employers engaged in an industry affecting commerce, (1) which is, with respect to employees engaged in an industry affecting commerce, an employer within the meaning of any law of the United States relating to the employment of any employees or (2) which may deal with any labor organization concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work, and includes any person acting directly or indirectly as an employer or as an agent of an employer in relation to an employee but does not include the United States or any corporation wholly owned by the Government of the United States or any State or political subdivision thereof.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) In defining “employer,” section 3(e) expressly excludes the “United States or any corporation wholly owned by the Government of the United States or any State or political subdivision thereof.” The term “political subdivision” includes, among others, counties and municipal governments. A labor organization composed entirely of employees of the governmental entities excluded by section 3(e) would not be a labor organization for the purposes of the Act with the exception of a labor organization composed of employees of the United States Postal Service which is subject to the Act by virtue of the Postal Reorganization Act of 1970. (Organizations composed of Federal government employees that meet the definition of “labor organization” in the Civil Service Reform Act or the Foreign Service Act are subject to the standards of conduct requirements of those Acts, 5 U.S.C. 7120 and 22 U.S.C. 4117, respectively. In addition, labor organizations subject to the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995 are subject to the standards of conduct provisions of the Civil Service Reform Act pursuant to 2 U.S.C. 1351(a)(1). The regulations implementing the standards of conduct requirements are contained in parts 457-459 of this title.) However, in the case of a national, international or intermediate labor organization composed both of government locals and non-government or mixed locals, the parent organization as well as its mixed and non-government locals would be “labor organizations” and subject to the Act. In such case, the locals which are composed entirely of government employees would not be subject to the Act, although elections in which they participate for national officers or delegates would be so subject. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See also, § 452.12 of this chapter which discusses the election provisions of the Act.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Organizations which may or may not deal with employers.</I> Regardless of whether it deals with employers concerning terms and conditions of employment and regardless of whether it is composed of employees, any conference, general committee, joint or system board, or joint council engaged in an industry affecting commerce and which is subordinate to a national or international labor organization is a “labor organization” for purposes of the Act. Included are the area conferences and the joint councils of the International Brotherhood of Teamsters and similar units of other national and international labor organizations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14388, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 42 FR 59071, Nov. 15, 1977; 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985; 62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.11.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.4   Labor organizations under section 3(j).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 3(j) sets forth five categories of labor organizations which “shall be deemed to be engaged in an industry affecting commerce” within the meaning of the Act. Any organization which qualifies under section 3(i) and falls within any one of these categories listed in section 3(j) is subject to the requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certified employee representatives.</I> This category includes all organizations certified as employee representatives under the Railway Labor Act, as amended, or under the National Labor Relations Act, as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labor organizations recognized or acting as employee representatives though not certified.</I> This category includes local, national, or international labor organizations which, though not formally certified, are recognized or acting as the representatives of employees of an employer engaged in an industry affecting commerce. Federations, such as the American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations, are included in this category, 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> although expressly excepted from the election provisions of the Act. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See <I>National Labor Relations Board</I> v. <I>Highland Park Mfg. Co.,</I> 341 U.S. 322. See also paragraph (d) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Act, sec. 401(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Organizations which have chartered local or subsidiary bodies.</I> This category includes any labor organization that has chartered a local labor organization or subsidiary body which is within either of the categories discussed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section. Under this provision, a labor organization not otherwise subject to the Act, such as one composed of Government employees, would appear to be “engaged in an industry affecting commerce” and, therefore, subject to the Act if it charters one or more local labor organizations which deal with an “employer” as defined in section 3(c). 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> This category includes, among others, a federation of national or international organizations which directly charters local bodies. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> See § 451.3(a).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See also paragraph (c) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Local or subordinate bodies which have been chartered by a labor organization.</I> This category includes any labor organization that has been chartered by an organization within either of the categories discussed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section as the local or subordinate body through which such employees may enjoy membership or become affiliated with the chartering organization.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Intermediate bodies.</I> Included in this category is any conference, general committee, joint or system board, or joint council, subordinate to a national or international labor organization, which includes a labor organization engaged in an industry affecting commerce within the categories discussed in paragraphs (b), (c), (d) and (e) of this section. Excluded from this definition, however, are State or local central bodies. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> (It should be noted that the above listing is included in the Act as words of illustration, not of limitation.) The following is a description of typical intermediate bodies:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> For discussion of State and local central bodies see § 451.5.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) <I>Conference.</I> A conference is an organic body within a national or international labor organization formed on a geographical area, trade division, employer-wide or similar basis and composed of affiliate locals of the parent national or international organization. The various conferences of the International Brotherhood of Teamsters, for example, are in this category.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General committees.</I> Typical of those bodies are the general committees of the railroad labor organizations. The term includes any subordinate unit of a national railroad labor organization, regardless of the title or designation of such unit, which under the constitution and bylaws of the organization of which it is a unit, is authorized to represent that organization on a particular railroad or portion thereof in negotiating with respect to wages and working conditions. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> General committees are sometimes known as system boards of adjustment, general grievance committees, and general committees of adjustment. They are to be distinguished from system boards of adjustment established under the Railway Labor Act, which are composed of management and labor members. These joint labor-management boards are not included within the definition of a labor organization under the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See definition of term “General Committee” under Railroad Retirement Act in 20 CFR 201.1(k).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Joint or system boards.</I> As mentioned above, in connection with railroad labor organizations the term “general committee” includes system boards. However, as used here the term has a broader meaning and includes, among others, boards which have members from more than one labor organization.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Joint councils.</I> A joint council is composed of locals not necessarily of the same national or international labor organization located in a particular area, such as a city or county. These bodies are sometimes called joint boards, joint executive boards, joint councils, or district councils. Included, for example, are councils of building and construction trades labor organizations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14388, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 42 FR 59071, Nov. 15, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.11.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.5   “State or local central body.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definition of “labor organization” in section 3(i) and the examples of labor organizations deemed to be engaged in an industry affecting commerce in section 3(j)(5) both except from the term “labor organization” a “State or local central body.” As used in these two sections, the phrase <I>State or local central body</I> means an organization that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is chartered by a federation of national or international unions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Admits to membership local unions and subordinate bodies of national or international unions that are affiliated with the chartering federation within the State or local central body's territory and any local unions or subordinate bodies directly affiliated with the federation in such territory; and
</P>
<P>(3) Exists primarily to carry on educational, legislative and coordinating activities.
</P>
<P>(b) The term does not include organizations of local unions or subordinate bodies (1) of a single national or international union; or (2) of a particular department of a federation or similar association of national or international unions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 8060, June 25, 1964]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.11.0.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.6   Extraterritorial application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is not the purpose of the Act to impose on foreign labor organizations any regulation of the activities they carry on under the laws of the countries in which they are domiciled or have their principal place of business. The applicability of the Act is limited to the activities of persons or organizations within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States. The foregoing would be applicable, for example, to Canadian locals affiliated with international labor organizations organized within the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) On the other hand, labor organizations otherwise subject to the Act are not relieved of the requirements imposed upon them with respect to actions taken by them in the United States or which will have effect in the United States, by virtue of the fact that they have foreign members or affiliates that participate in these actions. For example, a national or international labor organization which conducts its required election of officers by referendum or at a convention of delegates must comply with the election provisions of the Act, 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> even though members of foreign locals participate in the balloting, or delegates of foreign locals participate in the election at the convention.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> See § 452.13 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Similarly, the provisions of the Act with respect to imposition of trusteeships 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> are applicable to United States national or international labor organizations subject to this Act even though the action of the United States organization is taken with respect to a foreign local.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> See title III of the Act.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="452" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 452—GENERAL STATEMENT CONCERNING THE ELECTION PROVISIONS OF THE LABOR-MANAGEMENT REPORTING AND DISCLOSURE ACT OF 1959
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 401, 402, 73 Stat. 532, 534 (29 U.S.C. 481, 482); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Considerations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.1   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part discusses the meaning and scope of the provisions of title IV of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (hereinafter referred to as the Act), which deal with the election of officers of labor organizations. These provisions require periodic election of union officers, and prescribe minimum standards to insure that such elections will be fairly conducted. Specific provisions are included to assure the right of union members to participate in selecting their officers without fear of interference or reprisal, and to protect the right to nominate candidates, run for office, and vote in officer elections. Title IV also sets forth the rights of candidates, provides for secret ballots in appropriate cases, and requires notice of nominations and elections, preservation of election records, and other safeguards to insure fair elections. However, the Act does not prescribe complete, detailed procedures for the nomination and election of union officers.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 73 Stat. 532-535, 29 U.S.C. 481-483.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Interpretations of the Director with respect to the election provisions of title IV are set forth in this part to provide those affected by these provisions of the Act with “a practical guide * * * as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The correctness of an interpretation can be determined finally and authoritatively only by the courts. It is necessary, however, for the Director to reach informed conclusions as to the meaning of the law to enable him to carry out his statutory duties of administration and enforcement. The interpretations of the Director contained in this part, which are issued upon the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, indicate the construction of the law which will guide him in performing his duties unless and until he is directed otherwise by authoritative rulings of the courts or unless and until he subsequently announces that a prior interpretation is incorrect. However, the fact that a particular problem is not discussed in this part, or in interpretations supplementing it, should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Director with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134 at 138 (1944).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) To the extent that prior opinions and interpretations relating to the election of officers of labor organizations under the Act are inconsistent or in conflict with the principles stated in this part, they are hereby rescinded and withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.2   Application of union constitution and bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>Elections required to be held as provided in title IV are to be conducted in accordance with the validly adopted constitution and bylaws of the labor organizations insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.3   Interpretations of constitution and bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>The interpretation consistently placed on a union's constitution by the responsible union official or governing body will be accepted unless the interpretation is clearly unreasonable. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>English</I> v. <I>Cunningham,</I> 282 F.2d 848 (C.A.D.C. 1960).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.1.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.4   Investigatory provision—application.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of section 601 of the Act provide general investigatory authority to investigate alleged violations of the Act including violations of title IV. However, section 601 in and of itself provides no remedy, and the section must be read in conjunction with the remedy and statutory scheme of section 402, i.e., exhaustion of internal union remedies and a complaint to the Secretary following completion of the election before suit can be filed. In view of the remedy provided, an investigation prior to completion of an election may have the effect of publicizing the activities or unsubstantiated allegations of one faction to the prejudice of the opposition. To avoid this result, and as a matter of sound statutory construction, the Department will exercise its investigatory authority only in circumstances in which the outcome of the election could not be affected by the investigation. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, the Department ordinarily will employ its investigatory authority only where the procedural requirements for a title IV investigation have been met; but in unusual circumstances or where necessary to collect or preserve evidence an investigation may be conducted after the conclusion of balloting.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> However questions involving the use of force or violence or the threat of the use of force or violence under circumstances which may violate section 610 (29 U.S.C. 530) of the Act will be referred promptly to the Department of Justice for appropriate action.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.1.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.5   Effect of violation on outcome.</HEAD>
<P>Since the remedy under section 402 is contingent upon a finding by the court, among other things, that the violation “may have affected the outcome of an election” 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> the Secretary as a matter of policy will not file suit to enforce the election provisions unless the violations found are such that the outcome may have been affected. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Act, sec. 402(b) (29 U.S.C. 482).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>Dunlop</I> v. <I>Bachowski,</I> 421 U.S. 560, 570 (1975), citing <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Glass Bottle Blowers,</I> 389 U.S. 463, 472 (1968) and <I>Schonfeld</I> v. <I>Wirtz,</I> 285 F. Supp. 705, 707-708 (S.D.N.Y. 1966).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985; 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.1.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.6   Delegation of enforcement authority.</HEAD>
<P>The authority of the Secretary under the Act has been delegated in part to the Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Other Provisions of the Act Affecting Title IV</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.7   Bill of Rights, title I.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of title I, “Bill of Rights of Members of Labor Organizations” 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> (particularly section 101(a)(1) “Equal Rights,” section 101(a)(2) “Freedom of Speech and Assembly,” and section 101(a)(5) “Safeguards against Improper Disciplinary Action”) are related to the rights pertaining to elections. Direct enforcement of title I rights, as such, is limited to civil suit in a district court of the United States by the person whose rights have been infringed. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> The exercise of particular rights of members is subject to reasonable rules and regulations in the labor organization's constitution and bylaws. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> 73 Stat. 522, 29 U.S.C. 411.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> But the Secretary may bring suit to enforce section 104 (29 U.S.C. 414).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Act, sec. 101(a)(1), 101(a)(2), and 101(b) (29 U.S.C. 411).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.8   Trusteeship provisions, title III.</HEAD>
<P>Placing a labor organization under trusteeship consistent with title III, may have the effect of suspending the application of title IV to the trusteed organization (see § 452.15).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.9   Prohibition against certain persons holding office; section 504.</HEAD>
<P>Among the safeguards for labor organizations provided in title V is a prohibition against the holding of office by certain classes of persons. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> This provision makes it a crime for any person willfully to serve in certain positions, including as an elected officer of a labor organization, for a period of three to thirteen years after conviction or imprisonment for the commission of specified offenses, including violation of titles II or III of the Act, or conspiracy or attempt to commit such offenses. It is likewise a crime for any labor organization or officer knowingly to permit such a person to serve in such positions. Persons subject to the prohibition applicable to convicted criminals may serve if their citizenship rights have been fully restored after being taken away by reason of the conviction, or if, following the procedures set forth in the Act, it is determined that their service would not be contrary to the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Act, sec. 504(a) (29 U.S.C. 504), as amended by the Comprehensive Crime Control Act of 1984, Public Law 98-473, secs. 229, 235, 803 and 804. See text at footnote 23 for a list of the disabling crimes.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31310, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.10   Retaliation for exercising rights.</HEAD>
<P>Section 609, which prohibits labor organizations or their officials from disciplining members for exercising their rights under the Act, and section 610, which makes it a crime for any person to use or threaten force or violence for the purpose of interfering with or preventing the exercise of any rights protected under the Act, apply to rights relating to the election of officers under title IV.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Coverage of Election Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.11   Organizations to which election provisions apply.</HEAD>
<P>Title IV of the Act contains election provisions applicable to national and international labor organizations, except federations of such organizations, to intermediate bodies such as general committees, conferences, system boards, joint boards, or joint councils, certain districts, district councils and similar organizations and to local labor organizations. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> The provisions do not apply to State and local central bodies, which are explicitly excluded from the definition of “labor organization”. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> The characterization of a particular organizational unit as a “local,” “intermediate,” etc., is determined by its functions and purposes rather than the formal title by which it is known or how it classifies itself.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> For the scope of the term “labor organization,” see part 451 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See § 451.5 of this chapter for a definition of “State or local central body.”</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.12" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.12   Organizations comprised of government employees.</HEAD>
<P>An organization composed entirely of government employees (other than employees of the United States Postal Service) is not subject to the election provisions of the Act. Section 3(e) of the Act, defining the term “employer,” specifically excludes the United States Government, its wholly owned corporations, and the States and their political subdivisions from the scope of that term, and section 3(f) defines an “employee” as an individual employed by an “employer.” Since a “labor organization” is defined in section 3(i) as one in which “employees” participate and which exists in whole or in part for the purpose of “dealing with employers,” an organization composed entirely of government employees would not be a “labor organization” 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> as that term is defined in the Act. However, section 1209 of the Postal Reorganization Act provides that organizations of employees of the United States Postal Service shall be subject to the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act. A national, international or intermediate labor organization which has some locals of government employees not covered by the Act and other locals which are mixed or are composed entirely of employees covered by the Act would be subject to the election requirements of the Act. Its mixed locals would also be subject to the Act. The requirements would not apply to locals composed entirely of government employees not covered by the Act, except with respect to the election of officers of a parent organization which is subject to those requirements or the election of delegates to a convention of such parent organization, or to an intermediate body to which the requirements apply.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> Most labor organizations composed of Federal Government employees are subject to the standards of conduct provisions of the Civil Service Reform Act, 5 U.S.C. 7120, or the Foreign Service Act, 22 U.S.C. 4117. The regulations implementing those statutory provisions are contained in parts 457-459 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985; 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.13" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.13   Extraterritorial application.</HEAD>
<P>Although the application of the Act is limited to the activities of persons and organizations within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States, 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> an international, national or intermediate body is not exempted from the requirements of the Act by virtue of the participation of its foreign locals or foreign membership in its elections. For example, votes received from Canadian members in referendum elections held by an international must have been cast under procedures meeting the minimum requirements of the Act, and Canadian delegates participating at conventions of the international at which officers are elected must have been elected by secret ballot.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See § 451.6 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.14" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.14   Newly formed or merged labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P>The initial selection of officers by newly formed or merged labor organizations is not subject to the requirements of title IV. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> Such labor organizations may have temporary or provisional officers serve until a regular election subject to the Act can be scheduled. An election under all the safeguards prescribed in these regulations must be held within a reasonable period after the organization begins to function. What would be a reasonable time for this purpose depends on the circumstances, but after the formation or consolidation of the labor organization, a regular election subject to title IV may not be deferred longer than the statutory period provided for that type of organization. However, when a pre-existing labor organization changes its affiliation without substantially altering its basic structure or identity the terms of its officers may not be extended beyond the maximum period specified by the Act for the type of labor organization involved.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> However, the other provisions of the Act are applicable immediately upon such formation or merger.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.15" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.15   Effect of trusteeship.</HEAD>
<P>Establishment of a valid trusteeship may have the effect of suspending the operation of the election provisions of the Act. When the autonomy otherwise available to a subordinate labor organization has been suspended consistent with the provisions of title III of the Act, officers of the organization under trusteeship may be relieved of their duties and temporary officers appointed by the trustee if necessary to assist him in carrying out the purposes for which the trusteeship was established. However, when a regular election of officers or an election for purposes of terminating the trusteeship is being held during the trusteeship, title IV would apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.16" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.16   Offices which must be filled by election.</HEAD>
<P>Section 401 of the Act identifies the types of labor organizations whose officers must be elected and prescribes minimum standards and procedures for the conduct of such elections. Under that section officers of national or international labor organizations (except federations of such organizations), local labor organizations, and intermediate bodies such as general committees, system boards, joint boards, joint councils, conferences, certain districts, district councils and similar organizations must be elected. 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> See § 452.23 for a discussion of the frequency with which the different types of labor organizations must conduct elections of officers. See part 451 of this chapter for the scope of the term “labor organization.”</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.17" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.17   Officer.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(n) of the Act defines the word “officer” and it is this definition which must be used as a guide in determining what particular positions in a labor organization are to be filled in the manner prescribed in the Act. For purposes of the Act, “officer” means “any constitutional officer, any person authorized to perform the functions of president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, or other executive functions of a labor organization, and any member of its executive board or similar governing body.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.18" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.18   Constitutional officers.</HEAD>
<P>A constitutional officer refers to a person holding a position identified as an officer by the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization. Thus, for example, a legislative representative of a labor organization who performs no executive functions and whose duties are confined to promoting the interests of members in legislative matters is nevertheless an officer who is required to be elected where the labor organization's constitution identifies the holder of such a position as an officer. On the other hand, legislative representatives who are required to be elected by the constitution and bylaws of a labor organization are not considered to be officers within the meaning of the Act if they are not designated as such by the constitution, are not members of any executive board or similar governing body, and do not perform executive functions. As defined in the Act, however, the term “officer” is not limited to individuals in positions identified as such or provided for in the constitution or other organic law of the labor organization. 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> The post of Honorary President, President Emeritus or Past President that is to be assumed by the retiring chief executive officer of a union would not be an officer position unless it is designated as an officer position by the union's constitution, or the holder of the position performs executive functions or serves on an executive board or similar governing body.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> Cf. <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Coca-Cola Bottling Co.,</I> 350 U.S. 264 (1956). See also, Daily Cong. Rec. 5867, Sen., Apr. 23, 1959.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.19" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.19   Executive functions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitional phrase “a person authorized to perform the functions of president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, or other executive functions of a labor organization” brings within the term “officer” any person who in fact has executive or policy-making authority or responsibility, although he may not occupy a position identified as an officer under the constitution and bylaws of the organization. Authorization to perform such functions need not be contained in any provision of the constitution or bylaws or other document but may be inferred from actual practices or conduct. On the other hand, a person is not an officer merely because he performs ministerial acts for a designated officer who alone has responsibility. The normal functions performed by business agents and shop stewards, such as soliciting memberships, presenting or negotiating employee grievances within the work place, and negotiating contracts are not “other executive functions” as that phrase is used in section 3(n) of the Act. However, a directing business representative or a business manager usually exercises such a degree of executive authority as to be considered an officer and, therefore, must be elected. The duties normally pertaining to membership on a bargaining committee do not come within the phrase “other executive functions.” However, persons occupying such non-executive positions may be “officers” if they are ex officio members of the organization's executive board (or similar governing body) or if the constitution or bylaws of the union designate such positions as officers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.20" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.20   Nature of executive functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The functions that will bring a particular position with a title other than president, vice-president, secretary-treasurer, or executive board member within the definition of “officer” cannot be precisely defined. They are the functions typically performed by officers holding these titles in current labor union practice. Decisions in each case will require a practical judgment. As a general rule, a person will be regarded as being authorized to perform the functions of president if he is the chief or principal executive officer of the labor organization. Similarly, he will be regarded as being authorized to perform the functions of treasurer if he has principal responsibility for control and management of the organization's funds and fiscal operation. A member of any group, committee, or board which is vested with broad governing or policymaking authority will be regarded as a member of an “executive board or similar governing body.” The name or title that the labor organization assigns to the position is not controlling.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of the election requirement of the Act is to assure that persons in positions of control in labor organizations will be responsive to the desires of the members. 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> Professional and other staff members of the labor organization who do not determine the organization's policies or carry on its executive functions and who are employed merely to implement policy decisions and managerial directives established by the governing officials of the organization are not officers and are not required to be elected.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> See, for example, S. Rept. 187, 86th Cong., 1st sess., p. 7.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.21" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.21   Members of executive board.</HEAD>
<P>The phrase “a member of its executive board or similar governing body” refers to a member of a unit identified as an executive board or a body, whatever its title, which is vested with functions normally performed by an executive board. Members of a committee which is actually the executive board or similar governing body of the union are considered officers within the meaning of section 3(n) of the Act even if they are not so designated by the union's constitution and bylaws. For example, members of an “Executive-Grievance Committee” which exercises real governing powers are officers under the Act. However, it should be noted that committee membership alone will not ordinarily be regarded as an indication of officer status, unless the committee or its members meet the requirements contained in section 3(n) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.22" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.3.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.22   Delegates to a convention.</HEAD>
<P>Under certain circumstances, delegates to a convention of a national or international labor organization, or to an intermediate body, must be elected by secret ballot among the members in good standing of the labor organization they represent even though such delegates are not “officers” of the organization. Such election is required by the Act 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> when the delegates are to nominate or elect officers of a national or international labor organization, or of an intermediate body. There is, of course, no requirement that delegates be elected in accordance with the provisions of title IV if they do not nominate or elect officers, unless delegates are designated as “officers” in the union's constitution and bylaws or unless, by virtue of their position, they serve as members of the executive board or similar governing body of the union.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> Act, sec. 401(a) and 401(d) (29 U.S.C. 481).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Frequency and Kinds of Elections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.23" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.23   Frequency of elections.</HEAD>
<P>The Act requires that all national and international labor organizations (other than federations of such labor organizations) elect their officers not less often than every five years. Officers of intermediate bodies, such as general committees, system boards, joint boards, joint councils, conferences, and certain districts, district councils and similar organizations, must be elected at least every four years, and officers of local labor organizations not less often than every three years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.24" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.24   Terms of office.</HEAD>
<P>The prescribed maximum period of three, four, or five years is measured from the date of the last election. 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> It would not be consistent with these provisions of the Act for officers elected for the maximum terms allowable under the statute to remain in office after the expiration of their terms without a new election. Failure to hold an election for any office after the statutory period has expired constitutes a continuing violation of the Act, which may be brought to the attention of the Secretary in the form of a complaint filed in accordance with the appropriate procedure. Title IV establishes only maximum time intervals between elections for officers. Labor organizations covered by these provisions may hold elections of officers with greater frequency than the specified maximum period. For example, a local labor organization is required to hold an election of officers at least once every three years, but it must hold an election every year if its governing rules so provide. It should be noted, moreover, that the provisions of title IV apply to all regular elections of officers in labor organizations subject to the Act. Thus, if a labor organization chooses to hold elections of officers more frequently than the statutory maximum intervals, it must observe the minimum standards set forth in title IV for the conduct of such elections.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> See § 452.14 for a discussion of the selection of officers in a new or newly-merged labor organization.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.25" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.25   Vacancies in office.</HEAD>
<P>Title IV governs the regular periodic elections of officers in labor organizations subject to the Act. No requirements are imposed with respect to the filling by election or other method of any particular office which may become vacant between such regular elections. If, for example, a vacancy in office occurs in a local labor organization, it may be filled by appointment, by automatic succession, or by a special election which need not conform to the provisions of title IV. The provisions of section 504 of the Act, which prohibit certain persons from holding office, are applicable to such situations. While the enforcement procedures of section 402 are not available to a member in connection with the filling of an interim vacancy, remedies may be available to an aggrieved member under section 102 of the Act or under any pertinent State or local law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.26" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.26   Elections in local labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P>Local labor organizations must conduct their regular elections of officers by secret ballot among the members in good standing. All members in good standing of the local labor organization must be given an opportunity to vote directly for candidates to fill the offices that serve them. Indirect election of officers of a local labor organization would violate section 401(b) of the Act. For example, a procedure whereby the local's membership elects an executive board or some similar body by secret ballot which in turn selects (either from among its own membership or from the local's membership at large) the persons to fill specific offices would not comply with the Act. 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, the election of a chief steward by the shop stewards would violate the Act if the chief steward, by virtue of that position, also serves as a member of the executive board, since members of the executive board must be elected directly by secret ballot among the members in good standing.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Independent Petroleum Workers of America,</I> 75 LRRM 2340, 63 L.C. ¶ 11,190 (N.D. Ind. 1970).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.27" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.27   National, international organizations, and intermediate bodies.</HEAD>
<P>The officers of a national or international labor organization or of an intermediate body must be elected either directly by secret ballot among the members in good standing or indirectly by persons acting in a representative capacity who have been elected by secret ballot among all members in good standing. 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> See § 452.119 and following for discussion of indirect elections.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.28" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.28   Unopposed candidates.</HEAD>
<P>An election of officers or delegates that would otherwise be required by the Act to be held by secret ballot need not be held by secret ballot when all candidates are unopposed and the following conditions are met: (a) The union provides a reasonable opportunity for nominations; (b) write-in votes are not permitted, as evidenced by provisions in the constitution and bylaws, by an official interpretation fairly placed on such documents, or by established union practice; and (c) the union complies with all other provisions of title IV.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.29" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.29   Primary elections.</HEAD>
<P>Where a union holds primary elections or similar procedures for eliminating candidates prior to the final vote in connection with regular elections subject to these provisions, the primary election or other procedure must be conducted in accordance with the same standards required under the Act for the final election. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.30" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.30   Run-off elections.</HEAD>
<P>A run-off election must meet the standards set forth in title IV if the original election was subject to the requirements of the Act. For example, if the run-off is to be held at the same meeting as the original election, the original notice of election must have so stated and all records pertaining to the run-off must be retained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.31" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.4.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.31   One candidate for several offices.</HEAD>
<P>Where a union constitution or other validly adopted rule provides that a single elected officer will perform the functions of more than one office, a separate election need not be held for each office.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Candidacy for Office; Reasonable Qualifications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.32" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.32   Persons who may be candidates and hold office; secret ballot elections.</HEAD>
<P>Section 401(e) provides that in any election of officers required by the Act which is held by secret ballot, every member in good standing with the exceptions explained in sections following shall be eligible to be a candidate and to hold office. This provision is applicable not only to the election of officers in local labor organizations, but also to elections of officers in national or international and intermediate labor organizations where those elections are held by secret ballot referendum among the members, and to the election of delegates to conventions at which officers will be elected.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.33" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.33   Persons who may be candidates and hold office; elections at conventions.</HEAD>
<P>Where elections of national or international labor organizations or of intermediate bodies are held at a convention of delegates elected by secret ballot, protection of the right to be a candidate and to hold office is afforded by the requirement in section 401(f) that the convention be conducted in accordance with the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of title IV. If members in good standing are denied the right to be candidates by the imposition of unreasonable qualifications on eligibility for office such qualifications would be inconsistent with the provisions of title IV.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.34" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.34   Application of section 504, LMRDA.</HEAD>
<P>The eligibility of members of labor organizations to be candidates and to hold office in such organizations is subject only to the provisions of section 504(a), which bars individuals convicted of certain crimes from holding office in labor organizations 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/> and to reasonable qualifications uniformly imposed. A person who is barred from serving in union office by section 504(a) is not eligible to be a candidate. However, a labor organization may permit a person who is barred from holding union office by section 504(a) to be a candidate for office if the section 504 disability will terminate by the customary date for the installation of officers. A labor organization may within reasonable limits adopt stricter standards than those contained in section 504(a) by extending the period of disability or by barring from union office persons who have been convicted of crimes other than those specified.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> The disabling crimes set forth in the Act, sec. 504(a), as amended by sec. 803 of the Comprehensive Crime Control Act of 1984, Public Law 98-473, (29 U.S.C. 504) are robbery, bribery, extortion, embezzlement, grand larceny, burglary, arson, violation of narcotics laws, murder, rape, assault with intent to kill, assault which inflicts grievous bodily injury, or a violation of title II or III of this Act, any felony involving abuse or misuse of a position or employment in a labor organization or employee benefit plan to seek or obtain an illegal gain at the expense of the members of the labor organization or the beneficiaries of the employee benefit plan, or conspiracy to commit any such crimes or attempt to commit any such crimes or a crime in which any of the foregoing crimes is an element.”
</P>
<P><E T="04">Note:</E> The U.S. Supreme Court, on June 7, 1965, held unconstitutional as a bill of attainder the section 504 provision which imposes criminal sanctions on Communist Party members for holding union office; <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Brown,</I> 381 U.S. 437.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.35" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.35   Qualifications for candidacy.</HEAD>
<P>It is recognized that labor organizations may have a legitimate institutional interest in prescribing minimum standards for candidacy and officeholding in the organization. On the other hand, a dominant purpose of the Act is to ensure the right of members to participate fully in governing their union and to make its officers responsive to the members. A basic assumption underlying the concept of “free and democratic elections,” is that voters will exercise common sense and good judgment in casting their ballots. In union elections as in political elections, the good judgment of the members in casting their votes should be the primary determinant of whether a candidate is qualified to hold office. Therefore, restrictions placed on the right of members to be candidates must be closely scrutinized to determine whether they serve union purposes of such importance, in terms of protecting the union as an institution, as to justify subordinating the right of the individual member to seek office and the interest of the membership in a free, democratic choice of leaders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.36" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.36   Reasonableness of qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The question of whether a qualification is reasonable is a matter which is not susceptible of precise definition, and will ordinarily turn on the facts in each case. However, court decisions in deciding particular cases have furnished some general guidelines. The Supreme Court in <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Hotel, Motel and Club Employees Union, Local 6,</I> 391 U.S. 492 at 499 (1968) held that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Congress plainly did not intend that the authorization in section 401(e) of ‘reasonable qualifications uniformly imposed’ should be given a broad reach. The contrary is implicit in the legislative history of the section and in its wording that ‘every member in good standing shall be eligible to be a candidate and to hold office * * *.’ This conclusion is buttressed by other provisions of the Act which stress freedom of members to nominate candidates for Office. Unduly restrictive candidacy qualifications can result in the abuses of entrenched leadership that the LMRDA was expressly enacted to curb. The check of democratic elections as a preventive measure is seriously impaired by candidacy qualifications which substantially deplete the ranks of those who might run in opposition to incumbents.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Union qualifications for office should not be based on assumptions that certain experience or qualifications are necessary. Rather it must be assumed that the labor organization members will exercise common sense and judgment in casting their ballots. “Congress' model of democratic elections was political elections in this country” (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Local 6,</I> 391 U.S. at 502) and a qualification may not be required without a showing that citizens assumed to make discriminating judgments in public elections cannot be relied on to make such judgments when voting as union members.
</FP>
<P>(b) Some factors to be considered, therefore, in assessing the reasonableness of a qualification for union office are:
</P>
<P>(1) The relationship of the qualification to the legitimate needs and interests of the union;
</P>
<P>(2) The relationship of the qualification to the demands of union office;
</P>
<P>(3) The impact of the qualification, in the light of the Congressional purpose of fostering the broadest possible participation in union affairs;
</P>
<P>(4) A comparison of the particular qualification with the requirements for holding office generally prescribed by other labor organizations; and
</P>
<P>(5) The degree of difficulty in meeting a qualification by union members.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.37" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.37   Types of qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>Ordinarily the following types of requirements may be considered reasonable, depending on the circumstances in which they are applied and the effect of their application:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Period of prior membership.</I> It would ordinarily be reasonable for a local union to require a candidate to have been a member of the organization for a reasonable period of time, not exceeding two years, before the election. However, if a member is involuntarily compelled to transfer from one local to another, such a requirement would not be reasonable if he is not given credit for his prior period of membership.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuity of good standing.</I> A requirement of continuous good standing based on punctual payment of dues will be considered a reasonable qualification only if (1) it provides a reasonable grace period during which members may make up missed payments without loss of eligibility for office, 
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> and (2) the period of time involved is reasonable. What are reasonable periods of time for these purposes will depend upon the circumstances. Section 401(e) of the Act provides that a member whose dues have been withheld by the employer for payment to the labor organization pursuant to his voluntary authorization provided for in a collective bargaining agreement may not be declared ineligible to vote or be a candidate for office by reason of alleged delay or default in the payment of dues. If during the period allowed for payment of dues in order to remain in good standing, a member on a dues checkoff system has no earnings from which dues can be withheld, section 401(e) does not relieve the member of the responsibility of paying his dues in order to remain in good standing.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> In <I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Amarillo General Drivers, Teamsters Local 577,</I> 214 F. Supp. 74 (N.D. Tex. 1963), the disqualification of five nominees for union office for failure to satisfy a constitutional provision requiring candidates for office to have maintained continuous good standing for two years by paying their dues on or before the first business day of the current month, in advance, was held to be unreasonable. See also <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Local Unions No. 9, 9-A and 9-B, International Union of Operating Engineers,</I> 254 F. Supp. 980 (D. Colo. 1965), aff'd. 366 F. 2d 911 (CA 10 1966), vacated as moot 387 U.S. 96 (1967).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.38" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.38   Meeting attendance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It may be reasonable for a labor organization to establish a requirement of attendance at a specified number of its regular meetings during the period immediately preceding an election, in order to insure that candidates have a demonstrated interest in and familiarity with the affairs of the organization. In the past, it was ordinarily considered reasonable to require attendance at no more than 50 percent of the meetings over a period not exceeding two years. Experience has demonstrated that it is not feasible to establish arbitrary guidelines for judging the reasonableness of such a qualification. Its reasonableness must be gauged in the light of all the circumstances of the particular case, including not only the frequency of meetings, the number of meetings which must be attended and the period of time over which the requirement extends, but also such factors as the nature, availability and extent of excuse provisions, whether all or most members have the opportunity to attend meetings, and the impact of the rule, i.e., the number or percentage of members who would be rendered ineligible by its application. 
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> If a meeting attendance requirement disqualifies a large portion of members from candidacy, that large antidemocratic effect alone may be sufficient to render the requirement unreasonable. In <I>Doyle</I> v. <I>Brock,</I> 821 F.2d 778 (D.C. Circuit 1987), the court held that the impact of a meeting attendance requirement which disqualified 97% of the union's membership from candidacy was by itself sufficient to make the requirement unreasonable notwithstanding any of the other factors set forth in 29 CFR 452.38(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(a—1) In <I>Steelworkers, Local 3489</I> v. <I>Usery,</I> 429 U.S. 305, 94 LRRM 2203, 79 L.C. ¶ 11,806 (1977), the Supreme Court found that this standard for determining validity of meeting attendance qualifications was the type of flexible result that Congress contemplated when it used the word “reasonable.” The Court concluded that Congress, in guaranteeing every union member the opportunity to hold office, subject only to “reasonable qualifications,” disabled unions from establishing eligibility qualifications as sharply restrictive of the openness of the union political process as the Steelworkers' attendance rule. The rule required attendance at fifty percent of the meetings for three years preceding the election unless prevented by union activities or working hours, with the result that 96.5 percent of the members were ineligible.
</P>
<P>(b) Other guidance is furnished by lower court decisions which have held particular meeting attendance requirements to be unreasonable under the following circumstances: One meeting during each quarter for the three years preceding nomination, where the effect was to disqualify 99 percent of the membership (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Independent Workers Union of Florida,</I> 65 LRRM 2104, 55 L.C. par. 11,857 (M.D. Fla., 1967)); 75 percent of the meetings held over a two-year period, with absence excused only for work or illness, where over 97 percent of the members were ineligible (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Local 153, Glass Bottle Blowers Ass'n,</I> 244 F. Supp. 745 (W.D. Pa., 1965), order vacating decision as moot, 372 F. 2d 86 (C.A. 3 1966), reversed 389 U.S. 463; decision on remand, 405 F.2d 176 (C.A. 3 1968)); <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Local 262, Glass bottle Blowers Ass'n.,</I> 290 F. Supp. 965 (N.D. Cal., 1968)); attendance at each of eight meetings in the two months between nomination and election, where the meetings were held at widely scattered locations within the State (<I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Local Union No. 624 A-B, International Union of Operating Engineers,</I> 80 LRRM 3049, 68 L.C. par. 12,816 (S.D. Miss. Feb. 19, 1972)); attendance at not less than six regular meetings each year during the twenty-four months prior to an election which has the effect of requiring attendance for a period that must begin no later than eighteen months before a biennial election (<I>Usery</I> v. <I>Local Division 1205, Amalgamated Transit Union,</I> 545 F. 2d 1300 (C.A. 1, 1976)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 3, 1973, as amended at 42 FR 39105, Aug. 2, 1977; 42 FR 41280, Aug. 16, 1977; 42 FR 45306, Sept. 9, 1977; 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985; 60 FR 57178, Nov. 14, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.39" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.39   Participation in insurance plan.</HEAD>
<P>In certain circumstances, in which the duties of a particular office require supervision of an insurance plan in more than the formal sense, a union may require candidates for such office to belong to the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.40" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.40   Prior office holding.</HEAD>
<P>A requirement that candidates for office have some prior service in a lower office is not considered reasonable. 
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Hotel, Motel and Club Employees Union, Local 6,</I> 391 U.S. 492 at 504. The Court stated that the union, in applying such a rule, “* * * assumes that rank and file union members are unable to distinguish qualified from unqualified candidates for particular offices without a demonstration of a candidate's performance in other offices. But Congress' model of democratic elections was political elections in this Country, and they are not based on any such assumption. Rather, in those elections the assumption is that voters will exercise common sense and judgment in casting their ballots. Local 6 made no showing that citizens assumed to make discriminating judgments in public elections cannot be relied on to make such judgments when, voting as union members * * *.”</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.41" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.41   Working at the trade.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It would ordinarily be reasonable for a union to require candidates to be employed at the trade or even to have been so employed for a reasonable period. In applying such a rule an unemployed member is considered to be working at the trade if he is actively seeking such employment. Such a requirement should not be so inflexible as to disqualify those members who are familiar with the trade but who because of illness, economic conditions, or other good reasons are temporarily not working.
</P>
<P>(b) It would be unreasonable for a union to prevent a person from continuing his membership rights on the basis of failure to meet a qualification which the union itself arbitrarily prevents the member from satisfying. If a member is willing and able to pay his union dues to maintain his good standing and his right to run for office, it would be unreasonable for the union to refuse to accept such dues merely because the person is temporarily unemployed. Where a union constitution requires applicants for membership to be actively employed in the industry served by the union, a person who becomes a member would not be considered to forfeit his membership in the union or any of the attendant rights of membership merely because he is discharged or laid off.
</P>
<P>(c) Ordinarily members working part-time at the trade may not for that reason alone be denied the right to run for office.
</P>
<P>(d) A labor organization may postpone the right to run for office of members enrolled in a bona fide apprenticeship program until such members complete their apprenticeship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.42" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.42   Membership in particular branch or segment of the union.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization may not limit eligibility for office to particular branches or segments of the union where such restriction has the effect of depriving those members who are not in such branch or segment of the right to become officers of the union. 
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Local Unions No. 18, etc., IUOE,</I> 440 F. 2d 485 (C.A. 6), cert. den. 404 U.S. 852 (1971); <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Local 610, Unit. Elec. Radio &amp; Mach. Work. of Am.,</I> 342 F. Supp. 1344 (W.D. Pa. 1972).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.43" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.43   Representative categories.</HEAD>
<P>In the case of a position which is representative of a unit defined on a geographic, craft, shift, or similar basis, a labor organization may by its constitution or bylaws limit eligibility for candidacy and for holding office to members of the represented unit. For example, a national or international labor organization may establish regional vice-presidencies and require that each vice-president be a member of his respective region. This kind of limitation would not be considered reasonable, however, if applied to general officers such as the president, vice-president, recording secretary, financial secretary, and treasurer. If eligibility of delegates to a convention which will elect general officers is limited to special categories of members, all such categories within the organization must be represented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.44" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.44   Dual unionism.</HEAD>
<P>While the Act does not prohibit a person from maintaining membership or holding office in more than one labor organization, it would be considered reasonable for a union to bar from candidacy for office persons who hold membership in a rival labor organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.45" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.45   Multiple office holding.</HEAD>
<P>An officer may hold more than one office in a labor organization so long as this is consistent with the constitution and bylaws of the organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.46" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.46   Characteristics of candidate.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization may establish certain restrictions on the right to be a candidate on the basis of personal characteristics which have a direct bearing on fitness for union office. A union may, for example, require a minimum age for candidacy. However, a union may not establish such rules if they would be inconsistent with any other Federal law. Thus, it ordinarily may not limit eligibility for office to persons of a particular race, color, religion, sex, or national origin since this would be inconsistent with the Civil Rights Act of 1964. 
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> Nor may it establish a general compulsory retirement age or comparable age restriction on candidacy since this would be inconsistent with the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended. A union may not require candidates for office to be registered voters and to have voted in public elections during the year preceding their nominations. Nor may it require that candidates have voted in the previous union election to be eligible. Such restrictions may not be said to be relevant to the members' fitness for office.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> <I>Shultz</I> v. <I>Local 1291, International Longshoremen's Association,</I> 338 F. Supp. 1204 (E.D. Pa.), aff'd, 461 F.2d 1262 (C.A. 3 1972).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 8751, Mar. 17, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 23233, June 21, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.47" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.47   Employer or supervisor members.</HEAD>
<P>Inasmuch as it is an unfair labor practice under the Labor Management Relations Act (LMRA) for any employer (including persons acting in that capacity) to dominate or interfere with the administration of any labor organization, it follows that employers, while they may be members, may not be candidates for office or serve as officers. Thus, while it is recognized that in some industries, particularly construction, members who become supervisors, or contractors traditionally keep their union membership as a form of job security or as a means of retaining union benefits, such persons may not be candidates for or hold office. 
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/> Whether a restriction on officeholding by members who are group leaders or others performing some supervisory duties is reasonable depends on the particular circumstances. For instance, if such persons might be considered “supervisors” 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> under the LMRA, their right to be candidates under the Act may be limited. Another factor in determining the reasonableness of a ban on such persons is the position (if any) of the NLRB on the status of the particular employees involved. If, for example, the NLRB has determined that certain group leaders are part of the bargaining unit, it might be unreasonable for the union to prohibit them from running for office. An overall consideration in determining whether a member may fairly be denied the right to be a candidate for union office as an employer or supervisor is whether there is a reasonable basis for assuming that the person involved would be subject to a conflict of interest in carrying out his representative duties for employees and rank and file union members.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> See Nassau and Suffolk Contractors' Association, 118 NLRB No. 19 (1957). See also <I>Local 636, Plumbers</I> v. <I>NLRB,</I> 287 F.2d 354 (C.A. D.C. 1961).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> Under section 2(11) of the Labor Management Relations Act, supervisors include individuals “having authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees, or responsibly to direct them, or to adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend such action, if in connection with the foregoing the exercise of such authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment.”</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 3, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 37360, Oct. 21, 1974]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.48" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.48   Employees of union.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization may in its constitution and bylaws prohibit members who are also its full-time non-elective employees from being candidates for union office, because of the potential conflict of interest arising from the employment relationship which could be detrimental to the union as an institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.49" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.49   Other union rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unions may establish such other reasonable rules as are necessary to protect the members against leaders who may have committed serious offenses against the union. For example, a union may, after appropriate proceedings, bar from office persons who have misappropriated union funds, even if such persons were never indicted and convicted in a court of law for their offenses. Of course, the union would have to provide reasonable precautions to insure that no member is made ineligible to hold office on the basis of unsupported allegations and that any rights guaranteed him by the constitution and bylaws are protected. Similarly, a union may require an elected officer to sign an affidavit averring that he is not barred from serving as an officer by the provisions of section 504 of the Act since the union and its officers may not permit a person to serve as an officer if he is so barred (see footnote 23).
</P>
<P>(b) It would not violate the Act for a union to prohibit successive terms in office or to limit the number of years an officer may serve. Such rules are intended to encourage as many members as possible to seek positions of leadership in the organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.50" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.50   Disqualification as a result of disciplinary action.</HEAD>
<P>Section 401(e) was not intended to limit the right of a labor organization to take disciplinary action against members guilty of misconduct. So long as such action is conducted in accordance with section 101(a)(5), a union may, for example, if its constitution and bylaws so provide, bar from office for a period of time any member who is guilty of specific acts, such as strikebreaking, detrimental to the union as an institution. However, if a union has improperly disciplined a member and barred him from candidacy, the Secretary may, in an appropriate case, treat him as a member in good standing entitled to all of the rights of members guaranteed by title IV.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.51" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.51   Declaration of candidacy.</HEAD>
<P>A union may not adopt rules which in their effect discourage or paralyze any opposition to the incumbent officers. Therefore, it would not be a reasonable qualification to require members to file a declaration of candidacy several months in advance of the nomination meeting since such a requirement would have such effect and “serves no reasonable purpose which cannot otherwise be satisfied without resort to this procedure.” 
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Local 30, IUOE,</I> 242 F. Supp. 631 (S.D. N.Y. 1965) reversed as moot 366 F.2d 438 (C.A. 2, 1966), reh. den. 366 F.2d 438.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.52" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.52   Filing fee.</HEAD>
<P>It would be unreasonable to require candidates for office to pay a filing fee because a fee limits the right of members to a reasonable opportunity to nominate the candidates of their choice and there is no objective relationship between the requirement and the ability to perform the duties of the office.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.53" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.53   Application of qualifications for office.</HEAD>
<P>Qualifications for office which may seem reasonable on their face may not be proper if they are applied in an unreasonable manner or if they are not applied in a uniform way. An essential element of reasonableness is adequate advance notice to the membership of the precise terms of the requirement. A qualification which is not part of the constitution and bylaws or other duly enacted rules of the organization may not be the basis for denial of the right to run for office, unless required by Federal or State law. 
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> Qualifications must be specific and objective. They must contain specific standards of eligibility by which any member can determine in advance whether or not he is qualified to be a candidate. For example, a constitutional provision which states that “a candidate shall not be eligible to run for office who intends to use his office as a cloak to effect purposes inimical to the scope and policies of the union” would not be a reasonable qualification within the meaning of section 401(e) because it is so general as to preclude a candidate from ascertaining whether he is eligible and would permit determinations of eligibility based on subjective judgments. Further, such a requirement is by its nature not capable of being uniformly imposed as required by section 401(e).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Local Union 559, United Brotherhood of Carpenters and Joiners of America,</I> 61 LRRM 2618, 53 L.C. ¶ 11.044 (W.D. Ky. 1966); <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Longshoremen's Local 1655 New Orleans Dray Clerks,</I> 79 LRRM 2893, 67 L.C. ¶ 12,466 (E.D. La. January 5, 1972).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.54" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.5.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.54   Retroactive rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The reasonableness of applying a newly adopted restriction on candidacy retroactively depends in part upon the nature of the requirement. It would be unreasonable for a labor organization to enforce eligibility requirements which the members had no opportunity to satisfy. For example, it would not be reasonable for a union to apply a newly adopted meeting attendance requirement retroactively since members would have no opportunity to comply with such requirement prior to its effective date. 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> When such a rule is in effect the membership is entitled to advance notice of the requirements of the rule and of the means to be used in verifying attendance. It would not be unreasonable, however, for a union to adopt and enforce a rule disqualifying persons convicted of a felony from being candidates or holding office.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Longshoremen's Local 1655, New Orleans Dray Clerks,</I> 79 LRRM 2893, 67 L.C. ¶ 12,466 (E.D. La. January 5, 1972)</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) It would not be proper for a labor organization to amend its constitution after an election to make eligible a person who had been elected but who was not eligible at the time of the election.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Nominations for Office</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.55" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.55   Statutory provisions concerning nomination.</HEAD>
<P>In elections subject to the provisions of title IV a reasonable opportunity must be afforded for the nomination of candidates. Although the Act does not prescribe particular forms of nomination procedures, it does require that the procedures employed be reasonable and that they conform to the provisions of the labor organization's constitution and bylaws insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of title IV.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.56" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.56   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To meet this requirement, the labor organization must give timely notice reasonably calculated to inform all members of the offices to be filled in the election as well as the time, place, and form for submitting nominations. Such notice should be distinguished from the notice of election, discussed in § 452.99. Notice of nominations need not necessarily be given at least 15 days before nominations are held, nor is it required to be given by mail. In an election which is to be held by secret ballot, accordingly, notice of nominations may be given in any manner reasonably calculated to reach all members in good standing and in sufficient time to permit such members to nominate the candidates of their choice, so long as it is in accordance with the provisions of the labor organization's constitution or bylaws. Mailing such notice to the last known address of each member within a reasonable time prior to the date for making nominations would satisfy this requirement. Likewise, timely publication in the union newspaper with sufficient prominence to be seen by all members would be adequate notice. The method of making nominations, whether by mail, petition, or at meetings, could affect the determination of the timeliness of the notice. The nomination notice may be combined with the election notice if the requirements of both are met. Posting of a nomination notice may satisfy the requirement of a reasonable opportunity for making nominations if such posting is reasonably calculated to inform all members in good standing in sufficient time to permit such members to nominate the candidates of their choice.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement of a reasonable opportunity for the nomination of candidates has been met only when the members of a labor organization are fully informed of the proper method of making such nominations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.57" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.57   Procedures for nomination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Since the Act does not prescribe particular procedures for the nomination of candidates, the labor organization is free to employ any method that will provide a reasonable opportunity for making nominations. There are various methods which, if properly and fairly employed, would be considered reasonable under the Act. For example, nominations may be by petition, or from the floor at a nomination meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) Whether a particular procedure is sufficient to satisfy the requirements of the Act is a question which will depend upon the particular facts in each case. While a particular procedure may not on its face violate the requirements of the Act, its application in a given instance may make nomination so difficult as to deny the members a reasonable opportunity to nominate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.58" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.58   Self-nomination.</HEAD>
<P>A system of self-nomination, if this is the only method for making nominations, deprives union members of a reasonable opportunity to nominate candidates and thus is inconsistent with the provisions of title IV. 
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/> Self-nomination is permissible only if the members are afforded additional methods whereby they may nominate the candidates of their choice.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>National Maritime Union of America,</I> 399 F.2d 544 (C.A. 2 1968).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.59" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.59   Presence of nominee.</HEAD>
<P>A requirement that members must be present at the nomination meeting in order to be nominated for office might be considered unreasonable in certain circumstances; for example, in the absence of a provision for an alternative method under which a member who is unavoidably absent from the nomination meeting may be nominated, such a restriction might be regarded as inconsistent with the requirement in section 401(e) that there be a reasonable opportunity to nominate and to be a candidate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.60" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.60   Nominations for national, international or intermediate body office.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When officers of a national or international labor organization or of an intermediate body are to be elected by secret ballot among the members of the constituent local unions, it is not unreasonable for the organization to employ a nominating procedure whereby each local may nominate only one candidate for each office. When such a procedure is employed the organization may require that each candidate be nominated by a certain number of locals before his name will appear on the ballot. The reasonableness of the number of local union nominations or endorsements required depends upon the size and dispersion of the organization.
</P>
<P>(b) Nominations for national, international or intermediate body office by locals or other subordinate organizations differ from primary elections in that they are not subject to all the technical requirements of secret ballot elections. 
<SU>35</SU>
<FTREF/> However, where nominations are made by locals or other subordinate organizations fundamental safeguards must be observed including the right of members to vote for and support the candidates of their choice without improper interference.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>35</SU> In <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>United Mine Workers of America,</I> the Court directed that the nomination proceedings within the local unions be conducted by secret ballot and in accordance with the provisions of title IV. [80 LRRM 3451, 68 L.C. ¶ 12,786 (D.D.C. June 15, 1972)]. This Order indicates that the use of secret ballot nominating procedures may be an appropriate remedial measure in a supervised election.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.61" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.61   Elimination contests—local unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A procedure in a local under which nominees compete in an elimination process to reduce the number of candidates in the final balloting is also part of the election process and must be conducted by secret ballot.
</P>
<P>(b) When such an elimination process is used it would be unreasonable for some nominees, such as those selected by a nominating committee, to be exempt from the process since they would thus be given an unfair advantage over other nominees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.62" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.62   Disqualification of candidates; procedural reasons.</HEAD>
<P>A candidate who is otherwise eligible for office may not be disqualified because of the failure of a union officer to perform his duties which are beyond the candidate's control. For example, the failure of a local recording secretary to perform his duty to complete and forward a candidate's nomination certificate to the district may not be used as the basis for disqualifying the candidate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.63" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.63   Nominations at conventions.</HEAD>
<P>In elections at conventions at which nominations are also made, delegates who have been elected by secret ballot must be given ample opportunity to nominate candidates on behalf of themselves or the members they represent. A union may adopt a rule limiting access to the convention floor to delegates. However, once the candidates have been nominated, they must be accorded equal opportunity to campaign. 
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> Where delegates are instructed by locals to nominate candidates, the constitution of the organization or the convention rules should provide a specific procedure for the implementation of nominating instructions issued by any local to its delegate.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> See § 452.79.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.64" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.64   Write-in votes.</HEAD>
<P>The Act neither requires nor prohibits write-in candidacy or write-in votes. These matters are governed by appropriate provisions of the union's constitution and bylaws, applicable resolutions, or the established practice of the union.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.65" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.6.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.65   Interval between nominations and election.</HEAD>
<P>The Act specifies no time interval between nominations and election. Thus, both may be scheduled to be held at the same meeting if, during a reasonable period prior to such nomination-election meeting, every member eligible to hold office who intends to run for office is afforded the protection provided in section 401(c), including sufficient opportunity to campaign for office.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Campaign Safeguards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.66" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.66   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The opportunity for members to have a free, fair, and informed expression of their choices among candidates seeking union office is a prime objective of title IV of the Act. Voters can best be assured opportunity for an informed choice if certain campaign rights are guaranteed to candidates and their supporters. To this end, the statute provides that adequate safeguards to insure a fair election shall be provided, and states certain specific safeguards. These safeguards apply not only to candidates for officer positions as defined in the Act but also to candidates for delegate posts, if the delegates are to nominate or elect officers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.67" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.67   Distribution of campaign literature.</HEAD>
<P>The Act imposes the duty on the union and its officers to comply with all reasonable requests of any candidate to distribute his campaign literature to the membership at his expense. When the organization or its officers authorize distribution of campaign literature on behalf of any candidate, similar distribution under the same conditions must be made for any other candidate, if he requests it. In order to avoid charges of disparity of treatment among candidates, it is advised that a union inform all candidates in advance of the conditions under which distribution will be made and promptly advise them of any change in those conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.68" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.68   Distribution to less than full membership.</HEAD>
<P>Although section 401(c) specifies distribution to “all members in good standing,” a labor organization must also honor requests for distribution of literature to only a portion of the membership if such distribution is practicable. Each candidate may choose his own ways of campaigning for election according to his own ingenuity and resources. For example, some candidates for national or international union office may desire to limit distribution to delegates, but others may want to appeal directly to the membership or parts thereof in an effort to influence particular constituencies to choose delegates favorable to their candidacy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.69" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.69   Expenses of campaign literature.</HEAD>
<P>Each candidate must be treated equally with respect to the expense of such distribution. Thus, a union and its officers must honor a candidate's request for distribution where the candidate is willing and able to bear the expense of such distribution. However, should the candidate be unable to bear such expense, there is no requirement that the union distribute the literature of the candidate free of charge. In the event the union distributes any candidate's literature without charge, however, all other candidates are entitled to have their literature distributed on the same basis. Since labor organizations have an affirmative duty to comply with all reasonable requests of any candidate to distribute campaign literature (at the candidate's expense), a union rule refusing all such distributions would not be proper, even though applied in a nondiscriminatory fashion. In view of the fact that expenses of distribution are to be borne by the candidate a labor organization may not refuse to distribute campaign literature merely because it may have a small staff which cannot handle such distribution for all candidates. If this is the case, the organization may employ additional temporary staff or contract the job to a professional mailer and charge the expense incurred to the candidates for whom the service is being rendered. The organization may require candidates to tender in advance the estimated costs of distributing their literature, if such requirement is applied uniformly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.70" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.70   Contents of literature.</HEAD>
<P>The Act does not and unions may not regulate the contents of campaign literature which candidates may wish to have distributed by the union. This is left to the discretion of each candidate. The labor organization may not require that it be permitted to read a copy of the literature before it is sent out, nor may it censor the statements of the candidates in any way, even though the statement may include derogatory remarks about other candidates. Furthermore, a union's contention that mailing of certain campaign literature may constitute libel for which it may be sued has been held not to justify its refusal to distribute the literature, since the union is under a statutory duty to distribute the material. 
<SU>37</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>37</SU> See <I>Philo</I> v. <I>Stellato,</I> (E.D. Mich. Civil No. 21244, May 24, 1961); <I>Ansley</I> v. <I>Fulco,</I> (Calif. Ct. of Appeal, First App. District, Div. Three, 1 Civil No. 29483, May 31, 1972).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.71" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.71   Inspection of membership lists.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each bona fide candidate for office has a right, once within 30 days prior to any election in which he is a candidate, to inspect a list containing the names and last known addresses of all members of the labor organization who are subject to a collective bargaining agreement requiring membership therein as a condition of employment. The right of inspection does not include the right to copy the list but does include the right to compare it with a personal list of members. It is the intent of the Act that such membership lists be made available for inspection at the candidates' option any time within the 30-day period. The list is not required to be maintained continuously and may be compiled immediately before each election. The form in which the list is to be maintained is not specified by the Act. Thus, a card index system may satisfy the requirements of the Act. The list may be organized alphabetically or geographically, or by local in a national or international labor organization.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the duty of the labor organization and its officers to refrain from discrimination in favor of or against any candidate with respect to the use of lists of members. Thus, if a union permits any candidate to use such lists in any way other than the right of inspection granted by the Act, it must inform all candidates of the availability of the list for that purpose and accord the same privilege to all candidates who request it. Such privileges may include permitting inspection of the list where members are not subject to a collective bargaining agreement requiring membership as a condition of employment, inspecting the list more than once, or copying the list.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.72" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.72   Period of inspection.</HEAD>
<P>The Act specifies the maximum period during which the right of inspection of membership lists is to be granted. The opportunity to inspect the lists must be granted once during the 30-day period prior to the casting of ballots in the election. Thus, where a mail ballot system is employed under which ballots are returnable as soon as received by members, the right to inspect must be accorded within the 30-day period prior to the mailing of the ballots to members. It would be an unreasonable restriction to permit inspection of lists only after the ballots have been mailed or the balloting has commenced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.73" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.73   Use of union funds.</HEAD>
<P>In the interest of fair union elections, section 401(g) of the Act places two limitations upon the use of labor organization funds derived from dues, assessments, or similar levy. These limitations are:
</P>
<P>(a) No such funds may be contributed or applied to promote the candidacy of any person in an election subject to title IV, either in an election within the organization expending the funds or in any other labor organization; and
</P>
<P>(b) No such funds may be used for issuing statements involving candidates in the election.
</P>
<FP>This section is not intended to prohibit a union from assuming the cost of distributing to the membership on an equal basis campaign literature submitted to the union by the candidates pursuant to the rights granted by section 401(c), as previously discussed, nor does it prohibit the expenditure of such funds for notices, factual statements of issues not involving candidates, and other expenses necessary for the holding of the election.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.74" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.74   Expenditures permitted.</HEAD>
<P>The Act does not prohibit impartial publication of election information. Thus, it would not be improper for a union to sponsor a debate at which all candidates for a particular office are afforded equal opportunity to express their views to the membership prior to an election. Similarly, a union may issue information sheets containing biographical data on all candidates so long as all candidates are given equal opportunity to submit such data.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.75" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.75   Union newspapers.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of section 401(g) prohibit any showing of preference by a labor organization or its officers which is advanced through the use of union funds to criticize or praise any candidate. Thus, a union may neither attack a candidate in a union-financed publication nor urge the nomination or election of a candidate in a union-financed letter to the members. Any such expenditure regardless of the amount, constitutes a violation of section 401(g). 
<SU>38</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>38</SU> <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Liquor Salesmen's Union, Local No. 2,</I> 334 F.Supp. 1369 (S.D. N.Y.) aff'd 444 F.2d 1344 (C.A. 2 1971); <I>Shultz</I> v. <I>Local Union 6799, United Steelworkers,</I> 426 F.2d 969 (C.A. 9 1970).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.76" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.76   Campaigning by union officers.</HEAD>
<P>Unless restricted by constitutional provisions to the contrary, union officers and employes retain their rights as members to participate in the affairs of the union, including campaigning activities on behalf of either faction in an election. However, such campaigning must not involve the expenditure of funds in violation of section 401(g). Accordingly, officers and employees may not campaign on time that is paid for by the union, nor use union funds, facilities, equipment, stationery, etc., to assist them in such campaigning. Campaigning incidental to regular union business would not be a violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.77" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.77   Permissible use of union funds.</HEAD>
<P>Certain uses of union funds are considered permissible under section 401(g). For example, a court ruled that money of a subordinate union may be contributed to a committee formed to challenge the results of a national union election under title IV when such contributions are properly authorized by the members in an effort to pursue election remedies both within and outside the union. In holding such activity to be outside the prohibitions of section 401(g), although the committee was formed by defeated candidates and their supporters, the court stated that “* * * It does not promote the candidacy of any person if an election is declared invalid by a court under title IV's procedure despite the fact that in the rerun election the candidates may be identical. Neither the winner nor the loser of the disputed election gains votes by the setting aside of the election. Such action is not a vote-getting device but merely returns the parties to their pre-election status; it does not place any candidate into office.” 
<SU>39</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>39</SU> <I>Retail Clerks Union, Local 648</I> v. <I>Retail Clerks International Association,</I> 299 F.Supp. 1012, 1024 (D.D.C. 1969).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.78" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.78   Expenditures by employers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As an additional safeguard, section 401(g) provides that no money of an employer is to be contributed or applied to promote the candidacy of any person in an election subject to the provisions of title IV. This includes indirect as well as direct expenditures. Thus, for example, campaigning by union stewards on company time with the approval of the employer would violate section 401(g) unless it can be shown that they are on legitimate work assignments, and that their campaign activities are only incidental to the performance of their assigned task and do not interfere with its performance. This prohibition against the use of employer money includes any costs incurred by an employer, or anything of value contributed by an employer, in order to support the candidacy of any individual in an election. It would not, however, extend to ordinary business practices which result in conferring a benefit, such as, for example, a discount on the cost of printing campaign literature which is made available on the same terms to other customers.
</P>
<P>(b) The prohibition against the use of employer money to support the candidacy of a person in any election subject to the provisions of title IV is not restricted to employers who employ members of the labor organization in which the election is being conducted, or who have any business or contractual relationship with the labor organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.79" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.79   Opportunity to campaign.</HEAD>
<P>There must be a reasonable period prior to the election during which office-seekers and their supporters may engage in the campaigning that the Act contemplates and guarantees. What is a reasonable period of time would depend upon the circumstances, including the method of nomination and the size of the union holding the election, both in terms of the number of members and the geographic area in which it operates. For example, a candidate for office in a local labor organization was improperly disqualified and then appealed to the international union which directed that his name be placed on the ballot. A complaint was considered properly filed alleging election violations because the candidate's name was restored to the ballot two days prior to the election so that he was denied an equal opportunity to campaign. Similarly, in a mail ballot election a union's delay in the distribution of campaign literature until after the ballots have been distributed and some have been cast would not satisfy the requirement to distribute such literature in compliance with a reasonable request. 
<SU>40</SU>
<FTREF/> Such a delay would deny the candidate a reasonable opportunity to campaign prior to the election and would thus not meet the requirement for adequate safeguards to insure a fair election. Where access to the convention floor is limited exclusively to delegates at a convention at which officers are to be elected, there must, nevertheless, be equal opportunity for all nominees to campaign. Thus, if the privilege of addressing the convention is accorded to any of the nominees, it must be accorded to all nominees who request it, whether they are delegates or not.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>40</SU> <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>American Guild of Variety Artists,</I> 267 F. Supp. 527 (S.D.N.Y. 1967).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.80" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.80   Bona fide candidates.</HEAD>
<P>A person need not be formally nominated in order to be a bona fide candidate entitled to exercise the rights mentioned in §§ 452.67 and 452.71. 
<SU>41</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, any qualified member seeking to be nominated and elected at a convention would be able to take advantage of the distribution rights even before the convention meets and thus attempt to influence members to select delegates favorable to his candidacy or to persuade the delegates to support his candidacy. A union may reasonably require that a person be nominated in order to be elected, but may not prevent a member who actively seeks office and is otherwise qualified from taking advantage of the campaign safeguards in the Act in an effort to gain the support necessary to be nominated.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>41</SU> <I>Yablonski</I> v. <I>United Mine Workers,</I> 71 LRRM 2606, 60 L.C. 10,204 (D.D.C. 1969).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.81" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.81   Rights in intermediate body elections.</HEAD>
<P>While the literal language in section 401(c) relating to distribution of campaign literature and to discrimination with respect to the use of membership lists would seem to apply only to national, international and local labor organizations, two United States District Courts have held that these provisions also apply to intermediate bodies. 
<SU>42</SU>
<FTREF/> The Department of Labor considers these rulings to be consistent with the intent of Congress and, therefore, has adopted this position.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>42</SU> <I>Antal</I> v. <I>UMW District 5,</I> 64 LRRM 2222, 54 L.C. 11,621 (W.D. Pa. 1966); <I>Schonfeld</I> v. <I>Rarback,</I> 49 L.C. 19,039 (S.D.N.Y. 1964).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.82" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.82   Reprisal for exercising rights.</HEAD>
<P>A member has a right to support the candidate of his choice without being subject to penalty, discipline, or improper interference or reprisal of any kind by the labor organization conducting the election or any member thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.83" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.7.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.83   Enforcement of campaign safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>Certain of the safeguards of section 401(c) are enforceable at the suit of any bona fide candidate. This special statutory right to sue is limited to the distribution of campaign literature by the labor organization and the forbearance of such organization from discrimination among candidates with respect to the use of membership lists. Of course, all title IV safeguards, including those discussed in this paragraph, are subject to enforcement as provided in section 402. It should be noted that the right of a bona fide candidate to sue in the circumstances described herein is limited to the period prior to election. After the election, the only remedy would be through a suit by the Secretary under section 402.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Right To Vote</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.84" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.84   General.</HEAD>
<P>Under the provisions of section 401(e), every member in good standing is entitled to vote in elections required under title IV which are to be held by secret ballot. The phrase “member in good standing” includes any person who has fulfilled the requirements for membership and who neither has withdrawn from membership nor has been expelled or suspended from membership after appropriate proceedings consistent with lawful provisions of the constitution and bylaws of the organization. 
<SU>43</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>43</SU> Act, sec. 3(o).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.85" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.85   Reasonable qualifications on right to vote.</HEAD>
<P>The basic right of members to vote in elections of the labor organization may be qualified by reasonable rules and regulations in its constitution and bylaws. 
<SU>44</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>44</SU> Act, sec. 101(a)(1).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.86" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.86   Vote conditioned on payment of dues.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization may condition the exercise of the right to vote upon the payment of dues, which is a basic obligation of membership. Such a rule must be applied uniformly. If a member has not paid his dues as required by the labor organization's constitution or bylaws he may not be allowed to vote. Thus, a rule which suspends a member's right to vote in an election of officers while the member is laid off and is not paying dues would not, in ordinary circumstances, be considered unreasonable, so long as it is applied in a nondiscriminatory manner. However, members must be afforded a reasonable opportunity to pay dues, including a grace period during which dues may be paid without any loss of rights. In the case where a member is laid off but desires to maintain his good standing and thus his membership rights by continuing to pay dues, it would be clearly unreasonable for the labor organization to refuse to accept his payment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.87" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.87   Dues paid by checkoff.</HEAD>
<P>A member in good standing whose dues are checked off by his employer pursuant to his voluntary authorization provided for in a collective bargaining agreement may not be disqualified from voting by reason of alleged delay or default in the payment of dues. For example, the constitution and bylaws of a labor organization call for suspension of members whose dues are three months in arrears. Dues to be paid directly by a member are two months in arrears when the union changes to a checkoff system. The member may not be denied the right to vote merely because the employer is late in submitting the checked off dues for the first month. It would not be inconsistent with the Act, however, for a union to require a new member who executes a checkoff authorization to pay one month's dues in advance on the date he becomes a member in order to be in good standing for the current month.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.88" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.88   Resumption of good standing.</HEAD>
<P>While it is permissible for a labor organization to deny the right to vote to those delinquent in paying their dues (with the exceptions noted) or to those who have been suspended or disciplined in accordance with section 101(a)(5) of the Act, a provision under which such persons are disqualified from voting for an extended period of time after payment of back dues or after reinstatement would not be considered reasonable. After a member has resumed his good-standing status, it would be unreasonable to continue to deprive him of his right to vote for a period longer than that for a new member. A new member may reasonably be required to establish a relationship with the union by remaining in good standing for a continuous period of time, e.g., 6 months or a year, before being permitted to vote in an election of officers. However, while the right to vote may be deferred within reasonable limits, a union may not create special classes of nonvoting members. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.89" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.89   Apprentices.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization may condition the right to vote upon completion of a bona fide program of apprenticeship training which is designed to produce competent tradesmen in the industry the union serves.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.90" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.90   Visiting members.</HEAD>
<P>A decision about the voting rights of visiting members is properly one for resolution by the union in accordance with the organization's constitution and bylaws or applicable resolutions. For purposes of the Act, a person is ordinarily considered to be a member of the local to which he pays his dues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.91" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.91   Voting by employers, supervisors.</HEAD>
<P>Voting in union elections by employers, self-employed persons, supervisors or other persons who are considered to be part of management is not precluded by title IV of the Act even if they are not required to maintain union membership as a condition of employment. However, as mentioned in the discussion of qualifications for candidacy (see § 452.47), such persons may not dominate or interfere with the administration of any labor organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.92" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.92   Unemployed members.</HEAD>
<P>Members who are otherwise qualified to vote may not be disqualified from voting merely because they are currently unemployed or are employed on a part-time basis in the industry served by the union, provided, of course, that such members are paying dues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.93" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.93   Retired members.</HEAD>
<P>The right of retirees to vote may be restricted to the extent provided by the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.94" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.94   Reasonable opportunity to vote.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory protection of the right to vote implies that there must be a reasonable opportunity to vote. Thus, there is an obligation on the labor organization to conduct its periodic election of officers in such a way as to afford all its members a reasonable opportunity to cast ballots. A union may meet this obligation in a variety of ways, depending on factors such as the distance between the members' work site or homes and the polling place, the means of transportation available, the nature of the members' occupations, and their hours of work. A reasonable opportunity to vote may require establishing multiple polling places or the use of a mail ballot referendum when the members are widely dispersed. It would also be reasonable for the time period for voting to be extended to accommodate members who might otherwise be prevented from voting due to conflicting work schedules. Shortening the voting period by a late opening of the polls would not, in itself, be improper unless the intent or practical effect of such action is to deprive members of their right to vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.95" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.8.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.95   Absentee ballots.</HEAD>
<P>Where the union knows in advance that a substantial number or a particular segment of the members will not be able to exercise their right to vote in person, as, for example, when access to a polling place is impracticable for many members because of shipping assignments, absentee ballots or other means of voting must be made available. 
<SU>45</SU>
<FTREF/> In the event absentee ballots are necessary the organization must give its members reasonable notice of the availability of such ballots. 
<SU>46</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45</SU> <I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Marine Cooks and Stewards Union,</I> 204 F. Supp. 844 (N.D. Cal. 1962).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>46</SU> <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Local Union 262, Glass Bottle Blowers Association,</I> 290 F. Supp. 965 (N.D. Calif. 1968).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Election Procedures; Rights of Members</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.96" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.96   General.</HEAD>
<P>The Act safeguards democratic processes by prescribing, in section 401, minimum standards for the regular periodic election of officers in labor organizations subject to its provisions. It does not, however, prescribe in detail election procedures which must be followed. Labor organizations are free to establish procedures for elections as long as they are fair to all members and are consistent with lawful provisions of the organization's constitution and bylaws and with section 401. The rights granted to members in section 401(e) refer to individuals, not labor organizations. For example, while locals may be members of an intermediate body, they are not entitled to the rights granted “members” in section 401(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.97" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.97   Secret ballot.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prime requisite of elections regulated by title IV is that they be held by secret ballot among the members or in appropriate cases by representatives who themselves have been elected by secret ballot among the members. A secret ballot under the Act is “the expression by ballot, voting machine, or otherwise, but in no event by proxy, of a choice * * * cast in such a manner that the person expressing such choice cannot be identified with the choice expressed.” 
<SU>47</SU>
<FTREF/> Secrecy may be assured by the use of voting machines, or, if paper ballots are used, by providing voting booths, partitions, or other physical arrangements permitting privacy for the voter while he is marking his ballot. The ballot must not contain any markings which upon examination would enable one to identify it with the voter. Balloting by mail presents special problems in assuring secrecy. Although no particular method of assuring such secrecy is prescribed, secrecy may be assured by the use of a double envelope system for return of the voted ballots with the necessary voter identification appearing only on the outer envelope.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>47</SU> Act, sec. 3(k).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Should any voters be challenged as they are casting their ballots, there should be some means of setting aside the challenged ballots until a decision regarding their validity is reached without compromising the secrecy requirement. For example, each such ballot might be placed in an envelope with the voter's name on the outside. Of course, it would be a violation of the secrecy requirement to open these envelopes and count the ballots one at a time in such a way that each vote could be identified with a voter.
</P>
<P>(c) In a mail ballot election, a union may require members to sign the return envelope if the signatures may be used in determining eligibility. However, it would be unreasonable for a union to void an otherwise valid ballot merely because a member printed rather than signed his name if the union does not use the signatures to determine voter eligibility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.98" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.98   Outside agencies.</HEAD>
<P>There is nothing in the Act to prevent a union from employing an independent organization as its agent to handle the printing, mailing, and counting of ballots in such elections if all the standards of the Act are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.99" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.99   Notice of election.</HEAD>
<P>Elections required by title IV to be held by secret ballot must be preceded by a notice of election mailed to each member at his last known home address not less than fifteen days prior to the election. 
<SU>48</SU>
<FTREF/> For purposes of computing the fifteen day period, the day on which the notices are mailed is not counted whereas the day of the election is counted. For example, if the election is to be held on the 20th day of the month, the notices must be mailed no later than the 5th day. The notice must include a specification of the date, time and place of the election and of the offices to be filled, and it must be in such form as to be reasonably calculated to inform the members of the impending election. Specification of the offices to be filled would not be necessary if it is a regular, periodic election of all officers and the notice so indicates. A statement in the union bylaws that an election will be held at a certain time does not constitute the notice required by the statute. Since the Act specifies that the notice must be mailed, other means of transmission such as posting on a bulletin board or hand delivery will not satisfy the requirement. A notice of election must be sent to every member as defined in section 3(o) of the Act, not only to members who are eligible to vote in the election. Where the notice, if mailed to the last known permanent or legal residence of the member, would not be likely to reach him because of a known extended absence from that place, the statutory phrase “last known home address” may reasonably be interpreted to refer to the last known temporary address of definite duration. A single notice for both nominations and election may be used if it meets the requirements of both such notices. 
<SU>49</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48</SU> Act, sec. 401(e).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>49</SU> See § 452.56 for a discussion of the requirements for notices of nomination.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.100" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.100   Use of union newspaper as notice.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization may comply with the election notice requirement by publishing the notice in the organization's newspaper which is mailed to the last known home address of each member not less than fifteen days prior to the election. Where this procedure is used (a) the notice should be conspicuously placed on the front page of the newspaper, or the front page should have a conspicuous reference to the inside page where the notice appears, so that the inclusion of the election notice in a particular issue is readily apparent to each member; (b) the notice should clearly identify the particular labor organization holding the election; (c) the notice should specify the time and place of the election and the offices to be filled; and (d) a reasonable effort must be made to keep the mailing list of the publication current.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.101" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.101   Sample ballots as notice.</HEAD>
<P>Sample ballots together with information as to the time and place of the election and the offices to be filled, if mailed fifteen days prior to the election, will fulfill the election notice requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.102" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.102   Notice in mail ballot election.</HEAD>
<P>If the election is conducted by mail and no separate notice is mailed to the members, the ballots must be mailed to the members no later than fifteen days prior to the date when they must be mailed back in order to be counted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.103" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.103   Primary elections.</HEAD>
<P>The fifteen-day election notice provision applies to a “primary election” at which nominees are chosen. Likewise, the fifteen-day election notice requirement applies to any runoff election which may be held after an inconclusive election. However, a separate notice would not be necessary if the election notice for the first election advises the members of the possibility of a runoff election and specifies such details as the time and place of such runoff election as may be necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.104" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.104   Proximity of notice to election.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The statutory requirement for giving fifteen days' notice of election is a minimum standard. There is no objection to giving more notice than is required by law. However, it was clearly the intent of Congress to have members notified at a time which reasonably precedes the date of the election. For example, notice in a union publication which is expected to cover elections to be held six months later would not be considered reasonable.
</P>
<P>(b) Should a union change the date of an election from the date originally announced in the mail notice to the members, it must mail a second notice, containing the corrected date, at least fifteen days before the election.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.105" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.105   Interference or reprisal.</HEAD>
<P>Title IV expressly provides for the right of a member to vote for and otherwise support the candidates of his choice without being subject to penalty, discipline, or improper interference or reprisal of any kind by the labor organization conducting the election or any officer or member thereof. 
<SU>50</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>50</SU> Act, section 401(e). In <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Local 1752, ILA,</I> 56 LRRM 2303, 49 L.C. ¶ 18,998 (S.D. Miss. 1963), the court, under its equitable jurisdiction, granted a preliminary injunction on the motion of the Secretary to enjoin a union from taking disciplinary action against a member. The member had filed a complaint with the Secretary under section 402(a) that resulted in the Secretary filing suit under 402(b).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.106" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.106   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>In every secret ballot election which is subject to the Act, the ballots and all other records pertaining to the election must be preserved for one year. 
<SU>51</SU>
<FTREF/> The responsibility for preserving the records is that of the election officials designated in the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization or, if none is so designated, its secretary. Since the Act specifies that ballots must be retained, all ballots, marked or unmarked, must be preserved. Independent certification as to the number and kind of ballots destroyed may not be substituted for preservation. In addition, ballots which have been voided, for example, because they were received late or because they were cast for an ineligible candidate, must also be preserved.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>51</SU> Act, section 401(e).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.107" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.107   Observers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the provisions of section 401(c), each candidate must be permitted to have an observer (1) at the polls and (2) at the counting of the ballots. This right encompasses every phase and level of the counting and tallying process, including the counting and tallying of the ballots and the totaling, recording, and reporting of tally sheets. If there is more than one polling place, the candidate may have an observer at each location. If ballots are being counted at more than one location or at more than one table at a single location, a candidate is entitled to as many observers as necessary to observe the actual counting of ballots. The observer may note the names of those voting so that the candidates may be able to ascertain whether unauthorized persons voted in the election. The observers should be placed so that they do not compromise, or give the appearance of compromising, the secrecy of the ballot. The observer is not required to be a member of the labor organization unless the union's constitution and bylaws require him to be a member. There is no prohibition on the use of alternate observers, when necessary, or on a candidate serving as his own observer. Observers do not have the right to count the ballots.
</P>
<P>(b) The right to have an observer at the polls and at the counting of the ballots extends to all candidates for office in an election subject to title IV, i.e., this includes elections in intermediate bodies as well as elections in locals and national and international labor organizations.
</P>
<P>(c) In any secret ballot election which is conducted by mail, regardless of whether the ballots are returned by members to the labor organization office, to a mail box, or to an independent agency such as a firm of certified public accountants, candidates must be permitted to have an observer present at the preparation and mailing of the ballots, their receipt by the counting agency and at the opening and counting of the ballots.
</P>
<P>(d) Paying election observers is the responsibility of the candidate they represent unless the union has a rule providing for the payment of observers. If the union does have such a rule, it must be uniformly applied to all candidates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.108" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.108   Publication of results.</HEAD>
<P>In any election which is required by the Act to be held by secret ballot, the votes cast by members of each local labor organization must be counted, and the results published, separately. 
<SU>52</SU>
<FTREF/> For example, where officers of an intermediate body are elected directly by members, the votes of each local must be tabulated and published separately. The publishing requirement is to assure that the results of the voting in each local are made known to all interested members. Thus, the presentation of the election report at a regular local membership meeting, and the entry of the report in the minutes, would normally accomplish this purpose in a local election. Such minutes would have to be available for inspection by members at reasonable times, unless copies of the report are made available. In an election that encompasses more than one local, publication may be accomplished by posting on appropriate bulletin boards, or in a union newspaper, or by any procedure which allows any member to obtain the information without unusual effort. Of course, the counting and reporting should account for all ballots cast in the election, although only valid votes will be counted in determining the successful candidates.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>52</SU> Act, sec. 401(e). See also Senate Report 187, 86th Cong. 1st sess., p. 47; Daily Cong. Rec. p. 13682, Aug. 3, 1959, and p. A6573, July 29, 1959.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.109" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.109   Constitution of labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>Elections must be conducted in accordance with the constitution and bylaws of the organization insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of title IV. 
<SU>53</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>53</SU> Act, sec. 401(e). Under 29 CFR 402.10, a labor organization is required to make available to all members a copy of its constitution and bylaws.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.110" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.110   Adequate safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the election safeguards discussed in this part, the Act contains a general mandate in section 401(c), that adequate safeguards to insure a fair election shall be provided. Such safeguards are not required to be included in the union's constitution and bylaws, but they must be observed. A labor organization's wide range of discretion regarding the conduct of elections is thus circumscribed by a general rule of fairness. For example, if one candidate is permitted to have his nickname appear on the ballot, his opponent should enjoy the same privilege.
</P>
<P>(b) A union's failure to provide voters with adequate instructions for properly casting their ballots may violate the requirement of adequate safeguards to insure a fair election.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.111" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.111   Campaigning in polling places.</HEAD>
<P>There must not be any campaigning within a polling place 
<SU>54</SU>
<FTREF/> and a union may forbid any campaigning within a specified distance of a polling place.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>54</SU> See <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>UMW,</I> 344 F.Supp. 17 (D.D.C. 1972).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.112" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.112   Form of ballot; slate voting.</HEAD>
<P>The form of the ballot is not prescribed by the Act. Thus, a union may, if it so desires, include a proposed bylaw change or other similar proposal on a ballot along with the candidates for office so long as this is permissible under the union's constitution and bylaws. A determination as to the position of a candidate's name on the ballot may be made by the union in any reasonable manner permitted by its constitution and bylaws, consistent with the requirement of fairness and the other provisions of the Act. For example, candidates may be listed according to their affiliation with a particular slate. However, while “slate voting” is permissible, the balloting must be consistent with the right of members to vote for the candidates of their choice. Thus, there must be provision for the voter to choose among individual candidates if he does not wish to vote for an entire slate. To avoid any misunderstanding in this regard, the voting instructions should specifically inform the voter that he need not vote for an entire slate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.113" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.113   Sectional balloting.</HEAD>
<P>The ballots may be prepared so that the names of candidates for positions representative of a particular area appear only on the ballots received by members living in that area.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.114" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.114   Write-in votes.</HEAD>
<P>Where write-in votes are permitted in an election subject to title IV, details of the format of the ballot are left to the discretion of the union. Ordinarily, the Secretary would become involved in such matters only in the context of an election complaint under section 402 and then only if the arrangements for write-in votes were so unreasonable that the outcome of the election may have been affected. Of course, a union may, in accordance with its constitution and bylaws or as a matter of stated policy, refuse to permit write-in votes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.115" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.115   Distribution of ballots.</HEAD>
<P>So long as secrecy of the ballot is maintained, there is no restriction on how the ballots are distributed to the voters. Any method which actually provides each eligible voter with one blank ballot would be in conformance with the law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.116" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.116   Determining validity of ballots.</HEAD>
<P>Generally, a labor organization has a right to establish reasonable rules for determining the validity of ballots cast in an election. However, where the union has no published guides for determining the validity of a voted ballot, it must count any ballot voted in such a way as to indicate fairly the intention of the voter. An entire ballot may not be voided because of a mistake made in voting for one of the offices on the ballot.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.117" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.117   Majority of votes not required for election.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization may by its constitution and bylaws provide for the election of the candidate who receives the greatest number of votes, although he does not have a majority of all the votes cast. Alternatively, it may provide that where no candidate receives a majority of all the votes cast, a run-off election be held between the two candidates having the highest vote. Similarly, a labor organization conducting an election to choose five members of an executive board may designate as elected from among all the nominees the five candidates who receive the highest vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.118" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.118   Local unions agents in international elections.</HEAD>
<P>An international union may establish internal rules which require local or intermediate union officials to act as agents of the international in conducting designated aspects of the international referendum election of officers. The consequences of the failure to perform as directed by such officials will, of course, depend on the totality of the circumstances involved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.119" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.119   Indirect elections.</HEAD>
<P>National or international labor organizations subject to the Act have the option of electing officers either directly by secret ballot among the members in good standing or at a convention of delegates or other representatives who have been elected by secret ballot among the members. Intermediate labor organizations subject to the Act have the option of electing officers either directly by secret ballot among the members in good standing or by labor organization officers or delegates elected by secret ballot vote of the members they represent. Local unions, in contrast, do not have the option of conducting their periodic elections of officers indirectly through representatives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.120" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.120   Officers as delegates.</HEAD>
<P>Officers of labor organizations who have been elected by secret ballot vote of their respective memberships may, by virtue of their election to office, serve as delegates to conventions at which officers will be elected, if the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization so provide. In such cases it is advisable to have a statement to this effect included on the ballots. Persons who have been appointed to serve unexpired terms of officers who are ex officio delegates to a convention at which officers will be elected may not vote for officers in such election.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.121" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.121   Limitations on national or international officers serving as delegates.</HEAD>
<P>While officers of national or international labor organizations or of intermediate bodies who have been elected by a vote of the delegates to a convention may serve as delegates to conventions of their respective labor organizations if the constitution and bylaws so provide, they may not vote in officer elections at such conventions unless they have also been elected as delegates by a secret ballot vote of the members they are to represent. Of course, such officers may participate in the convention, i.e., they may preside over the convention, be nominated as candidates, or act in other capacities permitted under the organization's constitution and bylaws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.122" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.122   Delegates from intermediate bodies; method of election.</HEAD>
<P>A delegate from an intermediate body who participates in the election of officers at a national or international convention must have been elected by a secret ballot vote of the individual members of the constituent units of that body. He may not participate if he was elected by the delegates who make up the intermediate body. The secret ballot election required by the Act is an election among the general membership and not an election of delegates by other delegates. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.123" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.123   Elections of intermediate body officers.</HEAD>
<P>Section 401(d) states that officers of intermediate bodies shall be elected either by secret ballot among the members in good standing or by labor organization officers representative of such members who have been elected by secret ballot. The phrase “officers representative of such members” includes delegates who have been elected by secret ballot to represent labor organizations in intermediate bodies. Such delegates may therefore participate in the election of officers of intermediate bodies regardless of whether they are characterized as officers of the labor organization they represent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.124" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.124   Delegates from units which are not labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that units, such as committees, which do not meet the definition of a labor organization under the Act 
<SU>55</SU>
<FTREF/> participate in the election of officers of a national or international labor organization or an intermediate body, through delegates to the convention or otherwise, the provisions of title IV are, nevertheless, applicable to the election of such delegates. The following example is typical in organizations of railway employees. The chairman of a local grievance committee, which is not a labor organization under the Act, is not an officer within the meaning of the Act. If such a local chairman is a delegate to the general grievance committee, which is considered to be an intermediate body under the Act, however, he must be elected by secret ballot vote of the members he represents, if he votes for officers of the general grievance committee.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>55</SU> Act, sec. 3 (i) and (j) and part 451 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.125" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.125   Delegates from labor organizations under trusteeship.</HEAD>
<P>It would be unlawful under section 303(a)(1) of the Act to count the votes of delegates from a labor organization under trusteeship in any convention or election of officers of the organization imposing the trusteeship unless such delegates were chosen by secret ballot vote in an election in which all the members in good standing of the subordinate organization were eligible to participate. 
<SU>56</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>56</SU> Section 303(b) of the LMRDA provides criminal penalties for violation of section 303(a)(1).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.126" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.126   Delegates to conventions which do not elect officers.</HEAD>
<P>Delegates to conventions need not be elected by secret ballot when officers of the organization are elected by a secret ballot vote of the entire membership. However, if the only method of making nominations is by delegates, then the delegates must be elected by secret ballot.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.127" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.127   Proportionate representation.</HEAD>
<P>When officers of a national, international or intermediate labor organization are elected at a convention of delegates who have been chosen by secret ballot, the structure of representation of the membership is a matter for the union to determine in accordance with its constitution and bylaws. There is no indication that Congress intended, in enacting title IV of the Act, to require representation in delegate bodies of labor organizations to reflect the proportionate number of members in each subordinate labor organization represented in such bodies. Questions of such proportionate representation are determined in accordance with the labor organization's constitution and bylaws insofar as they are not inconsistent with the election provisions of the Act. Congress did not attempt to specify the organizational structure or the system of representation which unions must adopt. However, all members must be represented; the union may not deny representation to locals below a certain size.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.128" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.128   Under-strength representation.</HEAD>
<P>A local union may elect fewer delegates than it is permitted under the union constitution as long as the local is allowed to determine for itself whether or not it will send its full quota of delegates to the union convention. The delegates present from a local may cast the entire vote allotted to that local if this is permitted by the constitution and bylaws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.129" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.129   Non-discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>Further, distinctions in representational strength among or within locals may not be based on arbitrary and unreasonable factors such as race, sex, or class of membership based on type of employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.130" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.130   Expenses of delegates.</HEAD>
<P>A local may elect two groups—one which would receive expenses while the other would be required to pay its own way, provided each member has an equal opportunity to run for the expense-paid as well as the non-expense-paid positions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.131" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.131   Casting of ballots; delegate elections.</HEAD>
<P>The manner in which the votes of the representatives are cast in the convention is not subject to special limitations. For example, the voting may be by secret ballot, by show of hands, by oral roll call vote, or if only one candidate is nominated for an office, by acclamation or by a motion authorizing the convention chairman to cast a unanimous vote of the delegates present.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.132" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.132   Proxy voting.</HEAD>
<P>There is no prohibition on delegates in a convention voting by proxy, if the constitution and bylaws permit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.133" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.133   Election of delegates not members of the labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>A labor organization's constitution and bylaws may authorize the election of delegates who are not members of the subordinate labor organization they represent, provided the members of the subordinate organization are also eligible to be candidates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.134" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.9.2.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.134   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>The credentials of delegates, and all minutes and other records pertaining to the election of officers at conventions, must be preserved for one year by the officials designated in the constitution and bylaws or by the secretary if no other officer is designated. This requirement applies not only to conventions of national or international labor organizations, but also to representative bodies of intermediate labor organizations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Special Enforcement Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.135" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.10.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.135   Complaints of members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any member of a labor organization may file a complaint with the Office of Labor-Management Standards alleging that there have been violations of requirements of the Act concerning the election of officers, delegates, and representatives (including violations of election provisions of the organization's constitution and bylaws that are not inconsistent with the Act.). 
<SU>57</SU>
<FTREF/> The complaint may not be filed until one of the two following conditions has been met: (1) The member must have exhausted the remedies available to him under the constitution and bylaws of the organization and its parent body, or (2) he must have invoked such remedies without obtaining a final decision within three calendar months after invoking them.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>57</SU> Act, sec. 402(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) If the member obtains an unfavorable final decision within three calendar months after invoking his available remedies, he must file his complaint within one calendar month after obtaining the decision. If he has not obtained a final decision within three calendar months, he has the option of filing his complaint or of waiting until he has exhausted the available remedies within the organization. In the latter case, if the final decision is ultimately unfavorable, he will have one month in which to file his complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.136" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.10.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.136   Investigation of complaint by Office of Labor-Management Standards, court action by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of Labor-Management Standards is required to investigate each complaint of a violation filed in accordance with the requirements of the Act and, if the Secretary finds probable cause to believe that a violation has occurred and has not been remedied, he is directed to bring within 60 days after the complaint has been filed a civil action against the labor organization in a Federal district court. In any such action brought by the Secretary the statute provides that if, upon a preponderance of the evidence after a trial upon the merits, the court finds (1) that an election has not been held within the time prescribed by the election provisions of the Act or (2) that a violation of these provisions “may have affected the outcome of an election”, the court shall declare the election, if any, to be void and direct the conduct of an election under the supervision of the Secretary, and, so far as is lawful and practicable, in conformity with the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization.
</P>
<P>(b) Violations of the election provisions of the Act which occurred in the conduct of elections held within the prescribed time are not grounds for setting aside an election unless they “may have affected the outcome.” The Secretary, therefore, will not institute court proceedings upon the basis of a complaint alleging such violations unless he finds probable cause to believe that they “may have affected the outcome of an election.”
</P>
<P>(b-1) The Supreme Court, in <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Local Union 6799, Steelworkers Union of America,</I> 403 U.S. 333, 91 S.Ct. 1841 (1971), ruled that the Secretary of Labor may not include in his complaint a violation which was known to the protesting member but was not raised in the member's protest to the union.
</P>
<FP>Complaints filed by the Department of Labor will accordingly be limited by that decision to the matters which may fairly be deemed to be within the scope of the member's internal protest and those which investigation discloses he could not have been aware of.
</FP>
<P>(c) Elections challenged by a member are presumed valid pending a final decision. The statute provides that until such time, the affairs of the labor organization shall be conducted by the elected officers or in such other manner as the union constitution and bylaws provide. However, after suit is filed by the Secretary the court has power to take appropriate action to preserve the labor organization's assets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 3, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 37360, Oct. 21, 1974]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Dates and Scope of Application</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.137" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.11.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.137   Effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 404 states when the election provisions of the Act become applicable. 
<SU>58</SU>
<FTREF/> In the case of labor organizations whose constitution and bylaws can be lawfully modified or amended by action of the organization's “constitutional officers or governing body,” the election provisions become applicable 90 days after the enactment of the statute (December 14, 1959). Where the modification of the constitution and bylaws of a local labor organization requires action by the membership at a general meeting or by referendum, the general membership would be a “governing body” within the meaning of this provision. In the cases where any necessary modification of the constitution and bylaws can be made only by a constitutional convention of the labor organization, the election provisions become applicable not later than the next constitutional convention after the enactment of the statute, or one year after the enactment of the statute, whichever is sooner.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>58</SU> Act, sec. 404.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The statute does not require the calling of a special constitutional convention to make such modifications. However, if no convention is held within the one-year period, the executive board or similar governing body that has the power to act for the labor organization between conventions is empowered by the statute to make such interim constitutional changes as are necessary to carry out the provisions of title IV of the Act. Any election held thereafter would have to comply with the requirements of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.138" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.12.11.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.138   Application of other laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 403 
<SU>59</SU>
<FTREF/> provides that no labor organization shall be required by law to conduct elections of officers with greater frequency or in a different form or manner than is required by its own constitution or bylaws, except as otherwise provided by the election provisions of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>59</SU> Act, sec. 403.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The remedy 
<SU>60</SU>
<FTREF/> provided in the Act for challenging an election already conducted is exclusive. 
<SU>61</SU>
<FTREF/> However, existing rights and remedies to enforce the constitutions and bylaws of such organizations before an election has been held are unaffected by the election provisions. Section 603 
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/> which applies to the entire Act, states that except where explicitly provided to the contrary, nothing in the Act shall take away any right or bar any remedy of any union member under other Federal law or law of any State.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>60</SU> Act, sec. 402.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>61</SU> Act, sec. 403. See Daily Cong. Rec. 86th Cong., 1st sess., p. 9115, June 8, 1959, pp. 13017 and 13090, July 27, 1959. H. Rept. No. 741, p. 17; S. Rept. No. 187, pp. 21-22, 101, 104. Hearings, House Comm. on Education and Labor, 86th Cong., 1st sess., pt. 1, p. 1611. See also <I>Furniture Store Drivers Local 82</I> v. <I>Crowley,</I> 104 S.Ct. 2557 (1984).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> Act, sec. 603.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 18324, July 9, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="453" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 453—GENERAL STATEMENT CONCERNING THE BONDING REQUIREMENTS OF THE LABOR-MANAGEMENT REPORTING AND DISCLOSURE ACT OF 1959
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 502, 73 Stat. 536; 79 Stat. 888 (29 U.S.C. 502); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14394, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.1   Scope and significance of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Functions of the Department of Labor.</I> This part discusses the meaning and scope of section 502 of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (hereinafter referred to as the Act), which requires the bonding of certain officials, representatives, and employees of labor organizations and of trusts in which labor organizations are interested. The provisions of section 502 are subject to the general investigatory authority of the Secretary of Labor, embodied in section 601 of the Act (and delegated by him to the Director), which empowers him to investigate whenever he believes it necessary in order to determine whether any person has violated or is about to violate any provisions of the Act (except title I or amendments to other statutes made by section 505 or title VII). The Department of Labor is also authorized, under the general provisions of section 607, to forward to the Attorney General, for appropriate action, any evidence of violations of section 502 developed in such investigations, as may be found to warrant criminal prosecution under the Act or other Federal law.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 73 Stat. 536; 29 U.S.C. 502.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and effect of interpretations.</I> Interpretations of the Director with respect to the bonding provisions are set forth in this part to provide those affected by these provisions of the Act with “a practical guide * * * as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The correctness of an interpretation can be determined finally and authoritatively only by the courts. It is necessary, however, for the Director to reach informed conclusions as to the meaning of the law to enable him to carry out his statutory duties of administration and enforcement. The interpretations of the Director contained in this part, which are issued upon the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, indicate the construction of the law which will guide him in performing his duties unless and until he is directed otherwise by authoritative rulings of the courts or unless and until he subsequently decides that a prior interpretation is incorrect. However, the omission to discuss a particular problem in this part, or in interpretations supplementing it, should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Director with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 138.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Earlier interpretations superseded.</I> To the extent that prior opinions and interpretations under the Act, relating to the bonding of certain officials, representatives, and employees of labor organizations and of trusts in which labor organizations are interested, are inconsistent or in conflict with the principles stated in this part, they are hereby rescinded and withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14394, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31309, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Criteria for Determining Who Must Be Bonded</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.2   Provisions of the statute.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 502(a) requires that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Every officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative or employee of any labor organization (other than a labor organization whose property and annual financial receipts do not exceed $5,000 in value), or of a trust in which a labor organization is interested, who handles funds or other property thereof shall be bonded to provide protection against loss by reason of acts of fraud or dishonesty on his part directly or through connivance with others.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) This section sets forth, in the above language and in its further provisions, the minimum requirements regarding the bonding of the specified personnel. There is no provision in the Act which precludes the bonding of such personnel in amounts exceeding those specified in section 502(a). Similarly, the Act contains no provision precluding the bonding of such personnel as are not required to be bonded by this section. Such excess coverage may be in any amount and in any form otherwise lawful and acceptable to the parties to such bonds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14394, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 30 FR 14925, Dec. 2, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.3   Labor organizations within the coverage of section 502(a).</HEAD>
<P>Any labor organization as defined in sections 3(i) and 3(j) of the Act 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> is a labor organization within the coverage of section 502(a) unless its property and annual financial receipts do not exceed $5,000 in value. The determination as to whether a particular labor organization is excepted from the application of section 502(a) is to be made at the beginning of each of its fiscal years on the basis of the total value of all its property at the beginning of, and its total financial receipts during, the preceding fiscal year of the organization.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See part 451 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.4   Trusts (in which a labor organization is interested) within the coverage of section 502(a).</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(l) of the Act defines a <I>trust in which a labor organization is interested</I> as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * a trust or other fund or organization (1) which was created or established by a labor organization, or one or more of the trustees or one or more members of the governing body of which is selected or appointed by a labor organization, and (2) a primary purpose of which is to provide benefits for the members of such labor organization or their beneficiaries.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Both the language and the legislative history 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> make it clear that this definition covers pension funds, health and welfare funds, profit sharing funds, vacation funds, apprenticeship and training funds, and funds or trusts of a similar nature which exist for the purpose of, or have as a primary purpose, the providing of the benefits specified in the definition. This is so regardless of whether these trusts, funds, or organizations are administered solely by labor organizations, or jointly by labor organizations and employers, or by a corporate trustee, unless they were neither created or established by a labor organization nor have any trustee or member of the governing body who was selected or appointed by a labor organization.
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Daily Cong. Rec., pp. 5858-59, Senate, April 23, 1959.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.5   Officers, agents, shop stewards, or other representatives or employees of a labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to labor organizations, the term “officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative” is defined in section 3(q) of the Act to include “elected officials and key administrative personnel, whether elected or appointed (such as business agents, heads of departments or major units, and organizers who exercise substantial independent authority)”. Other individuals employed by a labor organization, including salaried non-supervisory professional staff, stenographic, and service personnel are “employees” and must be bonded if they handle 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> funds or other property of the labor organization.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> For discussion of “handle”, see § 453.8.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.6   Officers, agents, shop stewards or other representatives or employees of a trust in which a labor organization is interested.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Officers, agents, shop stewards or other representatives.</I> While the definition of the collective term “Officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative” in section 3(q) of the Act is expressly applicable only “when used with respect to a labor organization,” the use of this term in connection with trusts in which a labor organization is interested makes it clear that, in that connection, it refers to personnel of such trusts in positions similar to those enumerated in the definition. Thus, the term covers trustees and key administrative personnel of trusts, such as the administrator of a trust, heads of departments or major units, and persons in similar positions. It covers such personnel, including trustees, regardless of whether they are representatives of or selected by labor organizations, or representatives of or selected by employers, 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> and such personnel must be bonded if they handle funds or other property of the trust within the meaning of section 502(a).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See the contrast between section 308 of S. 1555 as passed by the Senate (“All officers, agents, representatives, and employees of any labor organization engaged in an industry affecting commerce who handle funds of such organization or of a trust in which such organization is interested shall be bonded * * *”) and section 502 of the Act as finally enacted. The change between the two versions originated in the House Committee on Education and Labor. Prior to the reporting of the bill (H.R. 8342) by that Committee, a joint subcommittee of that Committee held extensive hearings, during the course of which witnesses including President Meany of the AFL-CIO criticized the bonding provision of the Senate bill on the ground that it required only union personnel of joint employer-union trusts to be bonded. (See Record of Hearings before a Joint Subcommittee of the Committee on Education and Labor, House of Representatives, 86th Congress, 1st Session, on H.R. 3540, H.R. 3302, H.R. 4473 and H.R. 4474, pp. 1493-94, 1979.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Independent institutions not included.</I> The analogy to the definition of the term “officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative,” when used with respect to a labor organization, shows that banks and other qualified financial institutions in which trust funds are deposited are not to be considered as “agents” or “representatives” of trusts within the meaning of section 502 and thus are not subject to the bonding requirement, even though they may also have administrative or management responsibilities with respect to such trusts. Similarly, the bonding requirement does not apply to brokers or other independent contractors who have contracted with trusts for the performance of functions which are normally not carried out by officials or employees of such trusts such as the buying of securities, the performance of other investment functions, or the transportation of funds by armored truck.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees of a trust in which a labor organization is interested.</I> As in the case of labor organizations, all individuals employed by a trust in which a labor organization is interested are “employees,” regardless of whether, technically, they are employed by the trust, by the trustees, by the trust administrator, or by trust officials in similar positions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14394, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.7   “Funds or other property” of a labor organization or of a trust in which a labor organization is interested.</HEAD>
<P>The affirmative requirement for bonding the specified personnel is applicable only if they handle “funds or other property” of the labor organization or trust concerned. A consideration of the purpose of section 502 and a reading of the section as a whole, including provisions for fixing the amount of bonds, suffice to show that the term “funds or other property”, as used in this section of the Act, encompasses more than cash alone but that it does not embrace all of the property of a labor organization or of a trust in which a labor organization is interested. The term does not include property of a relatively permanent nature, such as land, buildings, furniture, fixtures and office and delivery equipment used in the operations of a labor organization or trust. It does, however, include items in the nature of quick assets, such as checks and other negotiable instruments, government obligations and marketable securities, as well as cash, and other property held, not for use, but for conversion into cash or for similar purposes making it substantially equivalent to funds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.8   Personnel who “handle” funds or other property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General considerations.</I> Section 502(a) requires “every” person specified in its bonding requirement “who handles” funds or other property of the labor organization or trust to be bonded. It does not contain any exemption based on the amount of the funds or other property handled by particular personnel. Therefore, if the bonding requirement is otherwise applicable to such persons, the amount of the funds or the value of the property handled by them does not affect such applicability. In determining whether a person “handles” funds or other property within the meaning of section 502(a), however, it is important to consider the term “handles” in the light of the basic purpose which Congress sought to achieve by the bonding requirement and the language chosen to make that purpose effective. Thus, while it is clear that section 502(a) should be considered as representing the minimum requirements which Congress deemed necessary in order to insure the reasonable protection of the funds and other property of labor organizations and trusts within the coverage of the section, it is equally clear from the legislative history 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> and the language used that Congress was aware of cost considerations and did not intend to require unreasonable, unnecessary or duplicative bonding. In terms of these general considerations, more specific content may be assigned to the term “handles” by reference to the prohibition in section 502(a) against permitting any person not covered by an appropriate bond “to receive, handle, disburse, or otherwise exercise custody or control” of the funds or other property of a labor organization or of a trust in which a labor organization is interested. The phrase “receive, handle, disburse, or otherwise exercise custody or control” is not to be considered as expanding the scope of the term “handles” but rather as indicating facets of “handles” which in a specific prohibition, Congress believed should be clearly set forth.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> House Report No. 1147, 86th Congress, 1st Session, p. 35; Daily Cong. Record 16419, Senate, Sept. 3, 1959; Hearings Before the Subcommittee on Labor of the Senate Committee on Labor and Public Welfare on S. 505, S. 748, S. 76, S. 1002, S. 1137, and S. 1311, 86th Congress, 1st Session, p. 709.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Persons included generally.</I> The basic objective of section 502(a) is to provide reasonable protection of funds or other property rather than to insure against every conceivable possibility of loss. Accordingly, a person shall be deemed to be “handling” funds or other property, so as to require bonding under that section, whenever his duties or activities with respect to given funds or other property are such that there is a significant risk of loss by reason of fraud or dishonesty on the part of such person, acting either alone or in collusion with others.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Physical contact as criterion of “handling.”</I> Physical dealing with funds or other property is, under the principles above stated, not necessarily a controlling criterion in every case for determining the persons who “handle” within the meaning of section 502(a). Physical contact with cash, checks or similar property generally constitutes “handling.” On the other hand, bonding may not be required for office personnel who from time to time perform counting, packaging, tabulating or similar duties which involve physical contact with checks, securities, or other funds or property but which are performed under conditions that cannot reasonably be said to give rise to significant risks with respect to the receipt, safekeeping or disbursement of funds or property. This may be the case where significant risks of fraud or dishonesty in the performance of duties of an essentially clerical character are precluded by the closeness of the supervision provided or by the nature of the funds or other property handled.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>“Handling” funds or other property without physical contact.</I> Personnel who do not physically handle funds or property may nevertheless “handle” within the meaning of section 502(a) where they have or perform significant duties with respect to the receipt, safekeeping or disbursement of funds or other property. For example, persons who have access to a safe deposit box or similar depository for the purpose of adding to, withdrawing, checking or otherwise dealing with its contents may be said to “handle” these contents within the meaning of section 502(a) even though they do not at any time during the year actually secure such access for such purposes. Similarly, those charged with general responsibility for the safekeeping of funds or other property such as the treasurer of a labor organization, should be considered as handling funds or other property. It should also be noted that the extent of actual authority to deal with funds or property may be immaterial where custody or other functions have been granted which create a substantial risk of fraud or dishonesty. Thus, if a bank account were maintained in the name of a particular officer or employee whose signature the bank were authorized to honor, it could not be contended that he did not “handle” funds merely because he had been forbidden by the organization or by his superiors to make deposits or withdrawals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disbursement of funds or other property.</I> It is clear from both the purpose and language of section 502(a) that personnel described in the section who actually disburse funds or other property, such as officers or trustees authorized to sign checks or persons who make cash disbursements, must be considered as handling such funds and property. Whether others who may influence, authorize or direct disbursements must also be considered to handle funds or other property can be determined only by reference to the specific duties or responsibilities of these persons in a particular labor organization or trust.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14394, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 30 FR 14925, Dec. 2, 1965] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.9" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.9   “Handling” of funds or other property by personnel functioning as a governing body.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>General considerations.</I> For many labor organizations and trusts special problems involving disbursements will be presented by those who, as trustees or members of an executive board or similar governing body, are, as a group, charged with general responsibility for the conduct of the business and affairs of the organization or trust. Often such bodies may approve contracts, authorize disbursements, audit accounts and exercise similar responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) It is difficult to formulate any general rule for such cases. The mere fact that a board of trustees, executive board or similar governing body has general supervision of the affairs of a trust or labor organization, including investment policy and the establishment of fiscal controls, would not necessarily mean that the members of this body “handle” the funds or other property of the organization. On the other hand, the facts may indicate that the board or other body exercises such close, day-to-day supervision of those directly charged with the handling of funds or other property that it might be unreasonable to conclude that the members of such board were not, as a group, also participating in the handling of such funds and property. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> Also, whether or not the members of a particular board of trustees or executive board handle funds or other property in their capacity as such, certain of these members may hold other offices or have other functions involving duties directly related to the receipt, safekeeping or disbursement of the funds or other property of the organization so that it would be necessary that they be bonded irrespective of their board membership.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> As to group coverage, see § 453.16.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of responsibilities as affecting “handling.”</I> With respect to particular responsibilities of boards of trustees, executive boards and similar bodies in disbursing funds or other property, much would depend upon the system of fiscal controls provided in a particular trust or labor organization. The allocation of funds or authorization of disbursements for a particular purpose is not necessarily handling of funds within the meaning of the section. If the allocation or authorization merely permits expenditures by a disbursing officer who has responsibility for determining the validity or propriety of particular expenditures, then the action of the disbursing officer and not that of the board would constitute handling. But if pursuant to a direction of the board, the disbursing officer performed only ministerial acts without responsibility to determine whether the expenditures were valid or appropriate, then the board's action would constitute handling. In such a case, the absence of fraud or dishonesty in the acts of the disbursing officer alone would not necessarily prevent fraudulent or dishonest disbursements. The person or persons who are charged with or exercise responsibility for determining whether specific disbursements are bona fide, regular, and in accordance with the applicable constitution, trust instrument, resolution or other laws or documents governing the disbursement of funds or other property should be considered to handle such funds and property and be bonded accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14394, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 30 FR 14926, Dec. 2, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Scope of the Bond</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.4.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.10   The statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>The statute requires that every covered person “shall be bonded to provide protection against loss by reason of acts of fraud or dishonesty on his part directly or through connivance with others.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 14926, Dec. 2, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.4.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.11   The nature of the “duties” to which the bonding requirement relates.</HEAD>
<P>The bonding requirement in section 502(a) relates only to duties of the specified personnel in connection with their handling of funds or other property to which this section refers. It does not have reference to the special duties imposed upon representatives of labor organizations by virtue of the positions of trust which they occupy, which are dealt with in section 501(a), and for which civil remedies for breach of the duties are provided in section 501(b). The fact that the bonding requirement is limited to personnel who handle funds or other property indicates the correctness of these conclusions. They find further support in the differences between sections 501(a) and 502(a) of the Act which sufficiently indicate that the scope of the two sections is not coextensive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.12" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.4.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.12   Meaning of fraud or dishonesty.</HEAD>
<P>The term “fraud or dishonesty” shall be deemed to encompass all those risks of loss that might arise through dishonest or fraudulent acts in handling of funds as delineated in §§ 453.8 and 453.9. As such, the bond must provide recovery for loss occasioned by such acts even though no personal gain accrues to the person committing the act and the act is not subject to punishment as a crime or misdemeanor, provided that within the law of the State in which the act is committed, a court would afford recovery under a bond providing protection against fraud or dishonesty. As usually applied under State laws, the term “fraud or dishonesty” encompasses such matters as larceny, theft, embezzlement, forgery, misappropriation, wrongful abstraction, wrongful conversion, willful misapplication or any other fraudulent or dishonest acts resulting in financial loss.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 14926, Dec. 2, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="5" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Amount of Bonds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.13" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.13   The statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 502(a) of the Act requires that the bond of each “person” handling “funds or other property” who must be bonded be fixed “at the beginning of the organization's fiscal year * * * in an amount not less than 10 percentum of the funds handled by him and his predecessor or predecessors, if any, during the preceding fiscal year, but in no case more than $500,000.” If there is no preceding fiscal year, the amount of each required bond is set at not less than $1,000 for local labor organizations and at not less than $10,000 for other labor organizations or for trusts in which a labor organization is interested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.14" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.14   The meaning of “funds.”</HEAD>
<P>While the protection of bonds required under the Act must extend to any actual loss from the acts of fraud or dishonesty in the handling of “funds or other property” (§ 453.7), the amount of the bond depends upon the “funds” handled by the personnel bonded and their predecessors, if any. “Funds” as here used is not defined in the Act. As in the case of “funds or other property” discussed earlier in § 453.7, the term would not include property of a relatively permanent nature such as land, buildings, furniture, fixtures, or property similarly held for use in the operations of the labor organization or trust rather than as quick assets. In its normal meaning, however, “funds” would include, in addition to cash, items such as bills and notes, government obligations and marketable securities, and in a particular case might well include all the “funds or other property” handled during the year in the positions occupied by the particular personnel for whom the bonding is required. In any event, it is clear that bonds fixed in the amount of 10 percent or more of the total “funds or other property” handled by the occupants of such positions during the preceding fiscal year would be in amounts sufficient to meet the statutory requirement. Of course, in situations where a significant saving in bonding costs might result from computing separately the amounts of “funds” and of “other property” handled, criteria for distinguishing particular items to be included in the quoted terms would prove useful. While the criteria to be applied in a particular case would depend on all the relevant facts concerning the specific items handled, it may be assumed as a general principle that at least those items which may be handled in a manner similar to cash and which involve a like risk of loss should be included in computing the amount of “funds” handled.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 14926, Dec. 2, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.15" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.15   The meaning of funds handled “during the preceding fiscal year”.</HEAD>
<P>The funds handled by personnel required to be bonded and their predecessors during the course of a fiscal year would ordinarily include the total of whatever such funds were on hand at the beginning of the fiscal year plus any items received or added in the form of funds during the year for any reason, such as dues, fees and assessments, trust receipts, or items received as a result of sales, investments, reinvestments, or otherwise. It would not, however, be necessary to count the same item twice in arriving at the total funds handled by personnel during a year. Once an item properly within the category of “funds” had been counted as handled by personnel during a year, there would be no need to count it again should it subsequently be handled by the same personnel during the same year in some other connection.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.16" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.5.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.16   Funds handled by more than one person.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of any required bond is determined by the total funds handled during a fiscal year by each “person” bonded, and any predecessors of such “person”. The term “person”, however, is defined in section 3(d) of the Act to include “one or more” of the various individuals or entities there listed, so that there may be numerous instances where the bond of a “person” may include several individuals. Wherever this is the case, the amount of the bond for that “person” would, of course, be based on the total funds handled by all who comprise the “person” included in the bond, without regard to the precise extent to which any particular individual might have handled such funds. This would be the situation, for example, in many cases of joint or group activity in the performance of a single function. It would also be true where various individuals performed the same type of function for an organization, even though they acted independently of one another. There would, however, be no objection to bonding each individual separately, and fixing the amount of his bond on the basis of the total funds which he individually handled during the year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.17" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.5.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.17   Term of the bond.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of any required bond must in each instance be based on funds handled “during the preceding fiscal year,” and must be fixed “at the beginning” of an organization's fiscal year—that is, as soon after the date when such year begins as the necessary information from the preceding fiscal year can practicably be ascertained. This does not mean, however, that a new bond must be obtained each year. There is nothing in the Act which prohibits a bond for a term longer than one year, with whatever advantages such a bond might offer by way of a lower premium, but at the beginning of each fiscal year during its term the bond must be in at least the requisite amount. If it is below that level at that time for any reason, it would then be necessary either to modify the existing bond to increase it to the proper amount or to obtain a supplementary bond. In either event, the terms upon which this could best be done would be left to the parties directly concerned.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Form of Bonds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.18" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.6.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.18   Bonds “individual or schedule in form”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General consideration.</I> In addition to such substantive matters as the personnel who must be bonded and the scope and the amount of the prescribed bonds, which have been discussed previously, the form of the bonds is the subject of a specific provision of section 502(a). Under this provision, a bond meeting the substantive requirements of the section may be either “individual or schedule in form.” These terms are not specially defined and could be descriptive of a variety of possible forms of bonds. According to trade usage, an individual bond is a single bond covering a single named individual to a designated amount, and bonds “schedule in form” may include either name schedule or position schedule bonds. A name schedule bond is typically a single bond covering a series or list of named individuals, each of whom is bonded separately to a designated amount. A position schedule bond is typically a single bond providing coverage with respect to any occupant or holder of one or more specified positions during the term of the bond, each office or position being covered to a designated amount. In a statute relating to trade or commerce, it is frequently helpful to consider whatever trade or commercial usages may have developed with respect to the statutory terms. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> References to individual, schedule and position schedule bonds may be found in other acts of Congress and indicate a clear awareness of trade usages and terminology in this field. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See 2 Sutherland, Statutory Construction (3d ed. 1943) § 4919.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Act of August 24, 1954, 68 Stat. 335, 12 U.S.C. 1766(g); Act of August 9, 1955, 69 Stat. 618, 6 U.S.C. 14.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Particular forms of bonds.</I> If the phrase “individual or schedule in form” is considered in light of the trade usages, section 502(a) at least permits bonds which are individual, name schedule or position schedule in form. Of course, section 502(a) does not require any particular type of individual or schedule bonds where different types exist or may be developed. It could not be said, for example, that a bond which schedules positions according to similarities in duties, risks, or required amounts of coverage is not “schedule in form” within the meaning of section 502(a) merely because the particular form of scheduling involved was not employed in bonds current at the time the section became law. A more specific illustration would be a bond scheduling shop stewards as a group because of the similar duties they perform in collecting dues, or members of an executive board as a group because of the fact that duties are imposed upon the board as such. A bond of this type would be “schedule in form” within the meaning of section 502(a) and, assuming adequacy of amount and coverage of all persons whom it is necessary to bond, such a bond would be in conformity with the statute. Also, a bond scheduling positions or groups of positions according to amounts of funds handled by occupants of the positions could be viewed as “schedule in form.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional bonding.</I> Section 502(a) neither prevents additional bonding beyond that required by its terms nor prescribes the form in which such additional coverage may be taken. Thus, so long as a particular bond is schedule in form as to the personnel required to be bonded and schedules coverage of these persons in at least the minimum required amount, additional coverage either as to personnel or amount may be taken in any form either in the same or in separate bonds. A bond which provided name or position schedule coverage for all persons required to be bonded under section 502(a), each scheduled person or position being bonded in at least the required minimum amount, would clearly be “schedule in form” within the meaning of section 502(a) regardless of the extent or form of additional schedule or blanket coverage provided in the same bond.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.19" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.6.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.19   The designation of the “insured” on bonds.</HEAD>
<P>Since section 502 is intended to protect the funds or other property of labor organizations and trusts in which labor organizations are interested, bonds under this section should allow for enforcement or recovery for the benefit of the labor organization or trust concerned by those ordinarily authorized to act for it in such matters. For example, in the case of a local labor organization, a bond would not be appropriate under section 502 if it protected only the interests of a national or international labor organization with which the local labor organization is affiliated or if it designated as the insured only some particular officer of the organization who does not legally represent it in similar formal instruments.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="7" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Qualified Agents, Brokers, and Surety Companies for the Placing of Bonds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.20" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.7.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.20   Corporate sureties holding grants of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of section 502(a) require that any surety company with which a bond is placed pursuant to that section must be a corporate surety which holds a grant of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury under the Act of July 30, 1947 (6 U.S.C. 6-13), as an acceptable surety on Federal bonds. That Act provides, among other things, that in order for a surety company to be eligible for such grant of authority, it must be incorporated under the laws of the United States or of any State and the Secretary of the Treasury shall be satisfied of certain facts relating to its authority and capitalization. Such grants of authority are evidenced by Certificates of Authority which are issued by the Secretary of the Treasury and which expire on the June 30 following the date of their issuance. A list of the companies holding such Certificates of Authority is published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> usually in July. Changes in the list, occurring between July 1 and June 30, either by addition to or removal from the list of companies, are also published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> following each such change.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14394, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.21" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.7.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.21   Interests held in agents, brokers, and surety companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 502(a) of the Act prohibits the placing of bonds required therein through any agent or broker or with any surety company in which any labor organization or any officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative of a labor organization has any direct or indirect interest. The purpose of this provision, as shown by its legislative history, is to insure against the existence of any “financial or other influential” interests which would affect the objectivity of the action of agents, brokers, or surety companies in bonding the personnel specified in the section. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> It appears, therefore, that it was the intent of Congress to prevent the placing of bonds through agents or brokers, and with surety companies, in which any labor organization or any officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative of a labor organization holds more than a nominal interest.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Daily Cong. Rec. 9114, Senate, June 8, 1959; Record of Hearings before a Joint Subcommittee of the Committee on Education and Labor, House of Representatives, 86th Congress, 1st Session, on H.R. 3540, H.R. 3302, H.R. 4473 and H.R. 4474, p. 1607.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Since the statute provides that either a direct or indirect interest by a labor organization or by the specified persons may disqualify an agent, broker, or surety company from having a bond placed through or with it, the disqualification would be effective if a labor organization or any of the specified persons are in a position to influence or control the activities or operations of such brokers, agents, or surety companies, by virtue of interests held either directly by them or by relatives or third parties which they own or control. The question of whether the relationship between the labor organization or the specified persons on the one hand, and another party or parties holding an interest in a broker, agent, or surety company on the other hand, is so close as to put the former in a position to influence or control the activities or operations of such broker, agent, or surety company through the latter, presents a question of fact which must necessarily be determined in each case in the light of all the pertinent circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) It is also to be noted that the statute does not appear to restrict the disqualification to cases in which a direct or indirect interest is held by a labor organization as a whole, or by a substantial number of officers, agents, shop stewards, or other representatives of a labor organization, but provides for the disqualification also in cases where any one officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative of a labor organization holds such an interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14394, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.22" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.8.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.22   Prohibition of certain activities by unbonded persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 502(a) provides that persons who are not covered by bonds as required by that section shall not be permitted to receive, handle, disburse, or otherwise exercise custody or control of the funds or other property of a labor organization or of a trust in which a labor organization is interested. This prohibits personnel who are required to be bonded, as explained in § 453.8 from performing any of these acts without being covered by the required bonds. In addition, this provision makes it unlawful for any person with power to do so to delegate or assign the duties of receiving, handling, disbursing, or otherwise exercising custody or control of such funds or property to any person who is not bonded in accordance with the provisions of section 502(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) The legislative history of the Act indicates, however, that it was not the intent of Congress to make compliance with the bonding requirements of section 502(a) a condition on the right of banks or other financial institutions to serve as the depository of the funds of labor organizations or trusts. Similarly, it appears that the provisions of that section do not require the bonding of brokers or other independent contractors who have contracted with labor organizations or trusts for the performance of functions which are normally not carried out by such labor organizations' or trusts' own officials or employees, such as the buying of securities, the performance of other investment functions, or the transportation of funds by armored truck. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See § 453.6(b).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.23" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.8.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.23   Persons becoming subject to bonding requirements during fiscal year.</HEAD>
<P>Considering the purpose of section 502, the language of the prohibition should be considered to apply to persons who because of election, employment or change in duties begin to handle funds or other property during the course of a particular fiscal year. Bonds should be secured for such persons, in an amount based on the funds handled by their predecessors during the preceding fiscal year, before they are permitted to engage in any of the fund-handling activities referred to in the prohibition, unless coverage with respect to such persons is already provided by bonds in force meeting the requirements of section 502(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.24" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.8.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.24   Payment of bonding costs.</HEAD>
<P>The Act does not prohibit payment of the cost of the bonds, required by section 502(a), by labor organizations or by trusts in which a labor organization is interested. The decision whether such costs are to be borne by the labor organization or trust or by the bonded person is left to the duly authorized discretion and agreement of the parties concerned in each case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.25" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.8.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.25   Effective date of the bonding requirement.</HEAD>
<P>While the bonding provision in section 502(a) became effective on September 14, 1959, its requirement for obtaining bonds does not become applicable to a labor organization or a trust in which a labor organization is interested, or to the personnel of any such organization, until the subsequent date when such organization's next fiscal year begins. This is so because the Act requires each such bond to be fixed at the beginning of the organization's fiscal year in an amount based on funds handled in the preceding fiscal year, and it could not well have been intended that the obtaining of a bond would be necessary in advance of the time when it would be possible to meet this requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 453.26" NODE="29:2.1.4.1.13.0.8.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 453.26   Powers of the Secretary of Labor to exempt.</HEAD>
<P>Section 502(a) of the Act provides that when in the opinion of the Secretary of Labor a labor organization has made other bonding arrangements which would provide the protection required at comparable cost or less, he may exempt such labor organization from placing a bond through a surety company holding a grant of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury under the Act of July 30, 1947 (6 U.S.C. 6-13), as acceptable surety on Federal bonds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 14926, Dec. 2, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—STANDARDS OF CONDUCT


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="457" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 457—GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7120, 7134; 22 U.S.C. 4117; 2 U.S.C. 1351(a)(1); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012; Secretary's Order No. 02-2012, 77 FR 69378, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purpose and Scope</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations contained in this subchapter are designed to implement 5 U.S.C. 7120 and 22 U.S.C. 4117, which relate to the standards of conduct for labor organizations in the Federal sector set forth in title VII of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 and chapter 10 of the Foreign Service Act of 1980. They prescribe procedures and basic principles which the Director of Labor will utilize in effectuating the standards of conduct required of labor organizations composed of Federal government employees that are covered by these Acts. (Regulations implementing the other provisions of title VII of the Civil Service Reform Act are issued by the Federal Labor Relations Authority, the General Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations Authority, and the Federal Service Impasses Panel in title 5 of the Code of Federal Regulations. Regulations implementing the other provisions of chapter 10 of the Foreign Service Act are issued by the Foreign Service Labor Relations Board, the Federal Labor Relations Authority, the General Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations Authority, and the Foreign Service Impasse Disputes Panel in title 22 of the Code of Federal Regulations.) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Pursuant to section 220(a)(1) of the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1351(a)(1), labor organizations covered by that statute are subject to the standards of conduct provisions of the Civil Service Reform Act, 5 U.S.C. 7120, and are therefore subject to the regulations in this subchapter. Regulations implementing the Congressional Accountability Act were issued at 142 Cong. R. S12062 (daily ed., October 1, 1996) and 142 Cong. R. H10369 (Daily ed., September 12, 1996).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Meaning of Terms as Used in This Chapter</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.10   CSRA; FSA; CAA; LMRDA.</HEAD>
<P><I>CSRA</I> means the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978; <I>FSA</I> means the Foreign Service Act of 1980; <I>CAA</I> means the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995; <I>LMRDA</I> means the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.11   Agency, employee, labor organization, dues, Department, activity, employing office.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agency, employee, labor organization,</I> and <I>dues,</I> when used in connection with the CSRA, have the meanings set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7103. <I>Employee, labor organization,</I> and <I>dues,</I> when used in connection with the FSA, have the meanings set forth in 22 U.S.C. 4102; <I>Department,</I> when used in connection with the FSA, means the Department of State, except that with reference to the exercise of functions under the FSA with respect to another agency authorized to utilize the Foreign Service personnel system, such term means that other agency. <I>Covered employee, employee, employing office,</I> and <I>agency,</I> when used in connection with the CAA, have the meanings set forth in 2 U.S.C. 1301 and 1351(a)(2). <I>Activity</I> means any facility, organizational entity, or geographical subdivision or combination thereof of any agency or employing office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.12" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.12   Authority; Board.</HEAD>
<P><I>Authority</I> means the Federal Labor Relations Authority as described in the CSRA, 5 U.S.C. 7104 and 7105. <I>Board,</I> when used in connection with the FSA, means the Foreign Service Labor Relations Board as described in the FSA, 22 U.S.C. 4106(a). “Board,” when used in connection with the CAA, means the Board of Directors of the Office of Compliance as described in 2 U.S.C. 1301 and 1381(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.13" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.13   Director.</HEAD>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Office of Labor-Management Standards, head of the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Pursuant to Secretary of Labor's Orders No. 02-2012, 77 FR 69378 (November 16, 2012), and 03-2012, 77 FR 69376 (November 16, 2012), the Director of the Office of Labor-Management Standards has certain responsibilities and authority for implementing the standards of conduct provisions of the CSRA and the FSA.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.14" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.14   Standards of conduct for labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P><I>Standards of conduct for labor organizations</I> shall have the meaning as set forth in the CSRA, 5 U.S.C. 7120, and the FSA, 22 U.S.C. 4117, and as amplified in part 458 of this subchapter. The standards of conduct provisions of the CSRA and the regulations in this subchapter are applicable to labor organizations covered by the CAA pursuant to 2 U.S.C. 1351(a)(1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6093, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.15" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.15   District Director.</HEAD>
<P><I>District Director</I> means the Director of a district office within the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.16" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.16   Chief, DOE.</HEAD>
<P><I>Chief, DOE</I> means the Chief of the Division of Enforcement within the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.17" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.17   Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P><I>Administrative Law Judge</I> means the Chief Administrative Law Judge or any Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge to conduct a hearing in cases under 5 U.S.C. 7120 or 22 U.S.C. 4117 as implemented by part 458 of this subchapter and such other matters as may be assigned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.18" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.18   Chief Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P><I>Chief Administrative Law Judge</I> means the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.19" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.19   Party.</HEAD>
<P><I>Party</I> means any person, employee, group of employees, labor organization, Department, activity or agency: 
</P>
<P>(a) Filing a complaint, petition, request, or application; 
</P>
<P>(b) Named in a complaint, petition, request, or application; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Whose intervention in a proceeding has been permitted or directed by the Director, Chief Administrative Law Judge, or Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 457.20" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.14.2.9.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 457.20   Intervenor.</HEAD>
<P><I>Intervenor</I> means a party in a proceeding whose intervention has been permitted or directed by the Director, Chief Administrative Law Judge, or Administrative Law Judge, as the case may be.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="458" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 458—STANDARDS OF CONDUCT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7105, 7111, 7120, 7134; 22 U.S.C. 4107, 4111, 4117; 2 U.S.C. 1351(a)(1); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012; Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Substantive Requirements Concerning Standards of Conduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.15.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>LMRDA</I> means the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959, as amended (29 U.S.C. 401 <I>et seq.</I>). Unless otherwise provided in this part or in the CSRA or FSA, any term in any section of the LMRDA which is incorporated into this part by reference, and any term in this part which is also used in the LMRDA, shall have the meaning which that term has under the LMRDA, unless the context in which it is used indicates that such meaning is not applicable. In applying the standards contained in this subpart the Director will be guided by the interpretations and policies followed by the Department of Labor in applying the provisions of the LMRDA and by applicable court decisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.15.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.2   Bill of rights of members of labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Equal rights.</I> Every member of a labor organization shall have equal rights and privileges within such organization to nominate candidates, to vote in elections or referendums of the labor organization, to attend membership meetings and to participate in the deliberations and voting upon the business of such meetings, subject to reasonable rules and regulations in such organization's constitution and bylaws.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Freedom of speech and assembly.</I> Every member of any labor organization shall have the right to meet and assemble freely with other members; and to express any views, arguments or opinions; and to express at meetings of the labor organization his views upon candidates in an election of the labor organization or upon any business properly before the meeting, subject to the organization's established and reasonable rules pertaining to the conduct of meetings: <I>Provided,</I> That nothing herein shall be construed to impair the right of a labor organization to adopt and enforce reasonable rules as to the responsibility of every member toward the organization as an institution and to his refraining from conduct that would interfere with its performance of its legal or contractual obligations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dues, initiation fees, and assessments.</I> Except in the case of a federation of national or international labor organizations, the rates of dues and initiation fees payable by members of any labor organization in effect on the date this section is published shall not be increased, and no general or special assessment shall be levied upon such members, except:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a local organization, (A) by majority vote by secret ballot of the members in good standing voting at a general or special membership meeting, after reasonable notice of the intention to vote upon such question, or (B) by majority vote of the members in good standing voting in a membership referendum conducted by secret ballot; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a labor organization, other than a local labor organization or a federation of national or international labor organizations, (A) by majority vote of the delegates voting at a regular convention, or at a special convention of such labor organization held upon not less than 30 days written notice to the principal office of each local or constituent labor organization entitled to such notice, or (B) by majority vote of the members in good standing of such labor organization voting in a membership referendum conducted by secret ballot, or (C) by majority vote of the members of the executive board or similar governing body of such labor organization, pursuant to express authority contained in the constitution and bylaws of such labor organization: <I>Provided,</I> That such action on the part of the executive board or similar governing body shall be effective only until the next regular convention of such labor organization.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection of the right to sue.</I> No labor organization shall limit the right of any member thereof to institute an action in any court, or in a proceeding before any administrative agency, irrespective of whether or not the labor organization or its officers are named as defendants or respondents in such action or proceedings, or the right of any member of a labor organization to appear as a witness in any judicial, administrative, or legislative proceeding, or to petition any legislature or to communicate with any legislator: <I>Provided,</I> That any such member may be required to exhaust reasonable hearing procedures (but not to exceed a 4-month lapse of time) within such organization, before instituting legal or administrative proceedings against such organizations or any officer thereof.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Safeguards against improper disciplinary action.</I> No member of any labor organization may be fined, suspended, expelled, or otherwise disciplined, except for nonpayment of dues by such organization or by any officer thereof unless such member has been (i) served with written specific charges; (ii) given a reasonable time to prepare his defense; (iii) afforded a full and fair hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Any provision of the constitution and bylaws of any labor organization which is inconsistent with the provisions of this section shall not be a defense to any proceeding instituted against the labor organization under this part or under the CSRA or FSA.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing contained in this section shall limit the rights and remedies of any member of a labor organization under any State or Federal law or before any court or other tribunal, or under the constitution and bylaws of any labor organization.
</P>
<P>(d) It shall be the duty of the secretary or corresponding principal officer of each labor organization, in the case of a local labor organization, to forward a copy of each agreement made by such labor organization with an agency, Department or activity to any employee who requests such a copy and whose rights as such employee are directly affected by such agreement, and in the case of a labor organization other than a local labor organization, to forward a copy of any such agreement to each constituent unit which has members directly affected by such agreement; and such officer shall maintain at the principal office of the labor organization of which he is an officer, copies of any such agreement made or received by such labor organization, which copies shall be available for inspection by any member or by any employee whose rights are affected by such agreement. An employee's rights under this paragraph shall be enforceable in the same manner as the rights of a member.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31312, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.15.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.3   Application of LMRDA labor organization reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The reporting provisions of parts 402, 403, and 408 of this chapter shall apply to labor organizations subject to the requirements of the CSRA or FSA.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1215-0188) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15116, Mar. 31, 1994; 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.15.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.4   Informing members of the standards of conduct provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every labor organization subject to the requirements of the CSRA, the FSA, or the CAA shall inform its members concerning the standards of conduct provisions of the Acts and the regulations in this subchapter. Labor organizations shall provide such notice to members by October 2, 2006 and thereafter to all new members within 90 days of the time they join and to all members at least once every three years. Notice must be provided by hand delivery, U.S. mail or e-mail or a combination of the three as long as the method is reasonably calculated to reach all members. Such notice may be included with the required notice of local union elections. Where a union newspaper is used to provide notice, the notice must be conspicuously placed on the front page of the newspaper, or the front page should have a conspicuous reference to the inside page where the notice appears, so that the inclusion of the notice in a particular issue is readily apparent to each member.
</P>
<P>(b) A labor organization may demonstrate compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by showing that another labor organization provided an appropriate notice to all of its members during the necessary time frame.
</P>
<P>(c) Labor organizations may use the Department of Labor publication Union Member Rights and Officer Responsibilities under the Civil Service Reform Act (available on the OLMS Web site at <I>http://www.dol.gov/olms</I>) or may devise their own language as long as the notice accurately states all of the CSRA standards of conduct provisions as set forth in the fact sheet.
</P>
<P>(d) If a labor organization has a Web site, the site must contain a conspicuous link to Union Member Rights and Officer Responsibilities under the Civil Service Reform Act or, alternatively, to the labor organization's own notice prepared in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 31492, June 2, 2006, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Trusteeships</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.26" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.15.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.26   Purposes for which a trusteeship may be established.</HEAD>
<P>Trusteeships shall be established and administered by a labor organization over a subordinate body only in accordance with the constitution and bylaws of the organization which has assumed trusteeship over the subordinate body and for the purpose of (a) correcting corruption or financial malpractice, (b) assuring the performance of negotiated agreements or other duties of a representative of employees, (c) restoring democratic procedures, or (d) otherwise carrying out the legitimate objects of such labor organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.27" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.15.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.27   Prohibited acts relating to subordinate body under trusteeship.</HEAD>
<P>During any period when a subordinate body of a labor organization is in trusteeship, (a) the votes of delegates or other representatives from such body in any convention or election of officers of the labor organization shall not be counted unless the representatives have been chosen by secret ballot in an election in which all the members in good standing of such subordinate body were eligible to participate; and (b) no current receipts or other funds of the subordinate body except the normal per capita tax and assessments payable by subordinate bodies not in trusteeship shall be transferred directly or indirectly to the labor organization which has imposed the trusteeship; <I>Provided, however,</I> That nothing contained in this section shall prevent the distribution of the assets of a labor organization in accordance with its constitution and bylaws upon the bona fide dissolution thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.28" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.15.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.28   Presumption of validity.</HEAD>
<P>In any proceeding involving § 458.26, a trusteeship established by a labor organization in conformity with the procedural requirements of its constitution and bylaws and authorized or ratified after a fair hearing either before the executive board or before such other body as may be provided in accordance with its constitution and bylaws shall be presumed valid for a period of 18 months from the date of its establishment and shall not be subject to attack during such period except upon clear and convincing proof that the trusteeship was not established or maintained in good faith for purposes allowable under § 458.26. After the expiration of 18 months the trusteeship shall be presumed invalid in any such proceeding, unless the labor organization shall show by clear and convincing proof that the continuation of the trusteeship is necessary for a purpose allowable under § 458.26.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="16" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.16" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Elections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.29" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.29   Election of officers.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization subject to the CSRA or FSA shall conduct periodic elections of officers in a fair and democratic manner. All elections of officers shall be governed by the standards prescribed in sections 401 (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) and (g) of the LMRDA to the extent that such standards are relevant to elections held pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 7120 or 22 U.S.C. 4117 .
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31312, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Provisions Applicable</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.30" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.30   Removal of elected officers.</HEAD>
<P>When an elected officer of a local labor organization is charged with serious misconduct and the constitution and bylaws of such organization do not provide an adequate procedure meeting the standards of § 417.2(b) of this chapter for removal of such officer, the labor organization shall follow a procedure which meets those standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.31" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.31   Maintenance of fiscal integrity in the conduct of the affairs of labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P>The standards of fiduciary responsibility prescribed in section 501(a) of the LMRDA are incorporated into this subpart by reference and made a part hereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.32" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.32   Provision for accounting and financial controls.</HEAD>
<P>Every labor organization shall provide accounting and financial controls necessary to assure the maintenance of fiscal integrity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.33" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.33   Prohibition of conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No officer or agent of a labor organization shall, directly or indirectly through his spouse, minor child, or otherwise (1) have or acquire any pecuniary or personal interest which would conflict with his fiduciary obligation to such labor organization, or (2) engage in any business or financial transaction which conflicts with his fiduciary obligation.
</P>
<P>(b) Actions prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section include, but are not limited to, buying from, selling, or leasing directly or indirectly to, or otherwise dealing with the labor organization, its affiliates, subsidiaries, or trusts in which the labor organization is interested, or having an interest in a business any part of which consists of such dealings, except bona fide investments of the kind exempted from reporting under section 202(b) of the LMRDA. The receipt of salaries and reimbursed expenses for services actually performed or expenses actually incurred in carrying out the duties of the officer or agent is not prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.34" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.34   Loans to officers or employees.</HEAD>
<P>No labor organization shall directly or indirectly make any loan to any officer or employee of such organization which results in a total indebtedness on the part of such officer or employee to the labor organization in excess of $2,000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.35" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.35   Bonding requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Every officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative or employee of any labor organization subject to the CSRA or FSA (other than a labor organization whose property and annual financial receipts do not exceed $5,000 in value), or of a trust in which a labor organization is interested, who handles funds or other property thereof shall be bonded in accordance with the principles of section 502(a) of the LMRDA. In enforcing this requirement the Director will be guided by the interpretations and policies followed by the Department of Labor in applying the provisions of section 502(a) of the LMRDA and by applicable court decisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.36" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.36   Prohibitions against certain persons holding office or employment.</HEAD>
<P>The prohibitions against holding office or employment in a labor organization contained in section 504(a) of the LMRDA are incorporated into this subpart by reference and made a part hereof. The prohibitions shall also be applicable to any person who has been convicted of, or who has served any part of a prison term resulting from his conviction of, violating 18 U.S.C. 1001 by making a false statement in any report required to be filed pursuant to this subpart, or who has been determined by the Director after an appropriate proceeding pursuant to §§ 458.66 through 458.92 to have willfully violated § 458.27: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the Director or such other person as he may designate may exempt a person from the prohibition against holding office or employment or may reduce the period of the prohibition where he determines that it would not be contrary to the purposes of the CSRA or the FSA and this section to permit a person barred from holding office or employment to hold such office or employment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31312, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.37" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.37   Prohibition of certain discipline.</HEAD>
<P>No labor organization or any officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative or any employee thereof shall fine, suspend, expel, or otherwise discipline any of its members for exercising any right to which he is entitled under the provisions of the CSRA or FSA or this subchapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.38" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.1.17.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.38   Deprivation of rights under the CSRA or FSA by violence or threat of violence.</HEAD>
<P>No labor organization or any officer, agent, shop steward, or other representative or any employee thereof shall use, conspire to use, or threaten to use force or violence to restrain, coerce, or intimidate, or attempt to restrain, coerce, or intimidate any member of a labor organization for the purpose of interfering with or preventing the exercise of any right to which he is entitled under the provisions of the CSRA or FSA or of this subchapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Proceedings for Enforcing Standards of Conduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.50" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.50   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When he believes it necessary in order to determine whether any person has violated or is about to violate any provision of §§ 458.26 through 458.30, the Chief, DOE may cause an investigation to be conducted.
</P>
<P>(b) When he believes it necessary in order to determine whether any person has violated or is about to violate any provision of this part (other than §§ 458.2, 458.26 through 458.30 or 458.37), a District Director may conduct an investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) The authority to investigate possible violations of this part (other than § 458.2 or 458.37) shall not be contingent upon receipt of a complaint.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31312, Aug. 1, 1985. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.51" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.51   Inspection of records and questioning.</HEAD>
<P>In connection with such investigation the Chief, DOE or a District Director or his representative may inspect such records and question such persons as he may deem necessary to enable him to determine the relevant facts. Every labor organization, its officers, employees, agents, or representatives shall cooperate fully in any investigation and shall testify and produce the records or other documents requested in connection with the investigation. This section shall be enforced in accordance with the procedures in §§ 458.66 through 458.92.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31312, Aug. 1, 1985; 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.52" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.52   Report of investigation.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief, DOE may report to interested persons concerning any matter which he deems to be appropriate as a result of an investigation of possible violations of §§ 458.26 through 458.30. The District Director may report to interested persons concerning any matter which he deems to be appropriate as a result of an investigation of possible violations of any provision of this part (other than §§ 458.2, 458.26 through 458.30 and 458.37).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31312, Aug. 1, 1985. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.53" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.53   Filing of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint alleging violations of this part may be filed with any district office, or any other office of the Office of Labor-Management Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985; 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Involving Bill of Rights or Prohibited Discipline</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.54" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.54   Complaints alleging violations of § 458.2, Bill of rights of members of labor organization, or § 458.37, prohibition of certain discipline.</HEAD>
<P>Any member of a labor organization whose rights under the provisions of § 458.2 or § 458.37 are alleged to have been infringed or violated, may file a complaint in accordance with § 458.53: <I>Provided, however,</I> That such member may be required to exhaust reasonable hearing procedures (but not to exceed a 4-month lapse of time) within such organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.55" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.55   Content of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The complaint shall contain appropriate identifying information and a clear and concise statement of the facts constituting the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(b) The complainant shall submit with his complaint a statement setting forth the procedures, if any, invoked to remedy the alleged violation, including the dates when such procedures were invoked and copies of any written ruling or decision which he has received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.56" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.56   Service on respondent.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the filing of a complaint, a copy of the complaint shall be served upon the respondent, and a written statement of such service shall be furnished to the District Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.57" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.57   Additional information and report.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the filing of a complaint pursuant to §§ 458.54 through 458.56, the District Director shall obtain such additional information as he deems necessary, including the positions of the parties and any offers of settlement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985; 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.58" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.58   Dismissal of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>If the District Director determines that a reasonable basis for the complaint has not been established, or that an offer of settlement satisfactory to the complainant has been made, he may dismiss the complaint. If he dismisses the complaint, he shall furnish the complainant with a written statement of the grounds for dismissal, sending a copy of the statement to the respondent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985; 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.59" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.59   Review of dismissal.</HEAD>
<P>The complainant may obtain a review of a dismissal by filing a request for review with the Director within fifteen (15) days of service of the notice of dismissal. A copy of such request shall be served on the District Director and the respondent, and a statement of service shall be filed with the Director. The request for review shall contain a complete statement of the facts and reasons upon which a request is based.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.60" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.60   Actionable complaint.</HEAD>
<P>If it appears to the District Director that there is a reasonable basis for the complaint, and that no offer of settlement satisfactory to the complainant has been made, he shall refer the matter to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, for the issuance of a notice of hearing as set forth in § 458.69.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.61" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.61   Transfer and consolidation of cases.</HEAD>
<P>In any matter arising pursuant to the regulations in this subchapter, whenever it appears necessary in order to effectuate the purposes of the CSRA or FSA or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, the District Director may consolidate cases within his own area or may transfer such cases to any other area, for the purpose of consolidation with any proceedings which may have been instituted in, or transferred to, such area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.62" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.18.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.62   Hearing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The proceedings following issuance of the notice of hearing shall be as provided in §§ 458.69 through 458.92 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Involving Election of Officers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.63" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.19.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.63   Complaints alleging violations of § 458.29, election of officers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A member of a labor organization may file a complaint alleging violations of § 458.29 within 1 calendar month after he has (1) exhausted the remedies available under the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization and of any parent body, or (2) invoked such available remedies without obtaining a final decision within 3 calendar months of such invocation.
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint shall contain a clear and concise statement of the facts constituting the alleged violation(s), the remedies which have been invoked under the constitution and bylaws of the labor organization and when such remedies were invoked.
</P>
<P>(c) The complainant shall submit with his complaint a copy of any ruling or decision he has received in connection with the subject matter of his complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.64" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.19.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.64   Investigations; dismissal of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If it is determined after preliminary inquiry that a complaint is deficient in any of the following respects, the District Director shall conduct no investigation:
</P>
<P>(1) The complainant is not a member of the labor organization which conducted the election being challenged;
</P>
<P>(2) The labor organization is not subject to the CSRA or FSA;
</P>
<P>(3) The election was not a regular periodic election of officers;
</P>
<P>(4) The allegations, if true, do not constitute a violation or violations of § 458.29;
</P>
<P>(5) The complainant has not complied with the requirements of § 458.63(a).
</P>
<P>(b) If investigation discloses (1) that there has been no violation or (2) that a violation has occurred but could not have affected the outcome or (3) that a violation has occurred but has been remedied, the Chief, DOE shall issue a determination dismissing the complaint and stating the reasons for his action.
</P>
<P>(c) A determination dismissing the complaint may be reviewed by the Director, but only on the basis of deciding whether the Chief, DOE's decision was arbitrary and capricious. The request for review must be made within fifteen (15) days after service of notice of dismissal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.65" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.19.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.65   Procedures following actionable complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Chief, DOE concludes that there is probable cause to believe that a violation has occurred which may have affected the outcome and which has not been remedied, he shall proceed in accordance with §§ 458.66 through 458.92.
</P>
<P>(b) The challenged election shall be presumed valid pending a final decision thereon as hereinafter provided in §§ 458.66 through 458.92, and in the interim the affairs of the organization shall be conducted by the officers elected or in such other manner as its constitution and bylaws may provide.
</P>
<P>(c) When the Chief, DOE supervises an election pursuant to an order of the Administrative Review Board issued under § 458.70 or § 458.91, he shall certify to the Administrative Review Board the names of the persons elected. The Administrative Review Board shall thereupon issue an order declaring such persons to be the officers of the labor organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985; 62 FR 6094, FEb. 10, 1997; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013; 81 FR 33389, May 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Other Enforcement Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.66" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.20.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.66   Procedures for institution of enforcement proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever it appears to the Chief, DOE that a violation of any provision of §§ 458.26 through 458.30 has occurred and has not been remedied, he shall immediately notify any appropriate person and labor organization. Within fifteen (15) days following receipt of such notification, any such person or labor organization may request a conference with the Chief, DOE or his representative concerning such alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever it appears to a District Director that a violation of this part (other than § 458.2, §§ 458.26-458.30, or § 458.37) has occurred and has not been remedied, he shall immediately notify any appropriate person and labor organization. Within fifteen (15) days following receipt of such notification, any such person or labor organization may request a conference with the District Director or his representative concerning such alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(c) At any conference held pursuant to this section, the Chief, DOE or District Director may enter into an agreement providing for appropriate remedial action. If no person or labor organization requests such a conference, or upon failure to reach agreement following any such conference, the Chief, DOE or District Director shall institute enforcement proceedings by filing a complaint with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, and shall cause a copy of the complaint to be served on each respondent named therein. If an agreement is reached and the Chief, DOE or District Director concludes that there has not been compliance with all the terms of the agreement, he may refer the matter to the Director for appropriate enforcement action or file a complaint with the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 31313, Aug. 1, 1985. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.67" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.20.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.67   Standards complaint; initiation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint filed under § 458.66 shall constitute the institution of a formal enforcement proceeding in the name of the Chief, DOE or District Director, who shall be the only complaining party in the proceeding and shall, where he believes it appropriate, refrain from disclosing the identity of any person who called the violation to his attention (except in proceedings involving violations of § 458.29, Election of officers). The complaint shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The name and identity of each respondent.
</P>
<P>(b) A clear and concise statement of the facts alleged to constitute violations of the CSRA or FSA or of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of the relief requested.
</P>
<P>(d) In any complaint filed by the Chief, DOE on the basis of a complaint received from a member of a labor organization pursuant to § 458.63, a statement setting forth the procedures, if any, followed to invoke available remedies, including the dates when such procedures were invoked, and the substance of any ruling or decision received by the complaining member from the labor organization or any parent body.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985; 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.68" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.2.20.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.68   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within twenty (20) days from the service of the complaint the respondent shall file an answer thereto with the Chief Administrative Law Judge and shall serve a copy on all parties. The answer shall be signed by the respondent or his attorney or other agent or representative.
</P>
<P>(b) The answer (1) shall contain a statement of the facts which constitute the grounds of defense, and shall specifically admit, explain, or deny each of the allegations of the complaint unless the respondent is without knowledge, in which case the answer shall so state; or (2) shall state that the respondent admits all of the allegations in the complaint. Failure to file an answer to or plead specifically to any allegation in the complaint shall constitute an admission of such allegation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hearing and Related Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.69" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.69   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Administrative Law Judge shall issue and cause to be served upon each of the parties a notice of hearing. The notice of hearing shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The name and identity of each party and the case number.
</P>
<P>(b) A statement of the authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of the time and place of the hearing which shall be not less than fifteen (15) days after service of the notice of hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.70" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.70   Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>Each enforcement proceeding instituted pursuant to this part shall be conducted before an Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge for the Department of Labor except, however, that when the Administrative Law Judge approves a stipulated agreement for appropriate remedial action, he shall prepare his recommended decision and order adopting that agreement and transfer the case to the Administrative Review Board. The Administrative Review Board may order the remedial action set forth in the stipulated agreement or take such other action as it deems appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013; 81 FR 33389, May 26, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.71" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.71   Procedure upon admission of facts.</HEAD>
<P>The admission of all the material allegations of fact in the complaint shall constitute a waiver of hearing. Upon such admission, the Administrative Law Judge without further hearing shall prepare his recommended decision and order in which he shall adopt as his proposed findings of fact the material facts alleged in the complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.72" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.72   Motions and requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Motions and requests made prior to the hearing shall be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The moving party shall serve a copy of all motions and requests on all other parties. Motions during the course of the hearing may be stated orally or filed in writing and shall be made part of the record. Each motion shall state the particular order, ruling, or action desired, and the grounds therefor. The Administrative Law Judge is authorized to rule upon all motions made prior to the filing of his report.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may request the attendance of witnesses and/or the production of documents at a hearing held pursuant to this part, by written application before the hearing or orally during the hearing. Copies of an application filed before the opening of the hearing shall be served on the other parties, who may file written objections to the request within seven (7) days after such service. The Administrative Law Judge after consideration of any objections, shall grant the request provided the specified testimony and/or documents appear to be necessary to the matters under investigation. If the Administrative Law Judge denies the request he shall set forth the basis for his ruling. Upon the failure of any party or officer or employee of any party to comply with such a request which has been granted by the Administrative Law Judge, the Administrative Law Judge and the Administrative Review Board may disregard all related evidence offered by the party failing to comply with the request or take such other action as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees who have been determined to be necessary as witnesses at a hearing shall be granted official time only for such participation as occurs during their regular work hours and when they would otherwise be in a work or paid leave status. Participation as witnesses includes the time necessary to travel to and from the site of a hearing, and the time spent giving testimony and waiting to give testimony, when such time falls during regular work hours.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.73" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.73   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon his own motion or the motion of the parties, the Administrative Law Judge may direct the parties or their counsel to meet with him for a conference to consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Necessity or desirability of amendments to pleadings for purposes of clarification, simplification, or limitations;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and contents and authenticity of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of expert witnesses; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) The record shall show the matters disposed of by order and by agreement in such prehearing conferences. The subsequent course of the proceeding shall be controlled by such action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.74" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.74   Conduct of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Hearings shall be conducted by an Administrative Law Judge and shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.75" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.75   Intervention.</HEAD>
<P>Any person desiring to intervene in a hearing shall file a motion in writing in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 458.72 or, if made at the hearing, may move orally on the record, stating the grounds upon which such person claims an interest. Such a motion shall be filed with the Administrative Law Judge who shall rule upon such motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.76" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.76   Duties and powers of the Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>It shall be the duty of the Administrative Law Judge to inquire fully into the facts as they relate to the matter before him and to prepare, serve and submit his recommended decision and order pursuant to § 458.88. Upon assignment to him and before transfer of the case to the Administrative Review Board, the Administrative Law Judge shall have the authority to:
</P>
<P>(a) Grant requests for appearance of witnesses or production of ducuments;
</P>
<P>(b) Rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(c) Take or cause depositions to be taken whenever the ends of justice would be served thereby;
</P>
<P>(d) Limit lines of questioning or testimony which are immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious;
</P>
<P>(e) Regulate the course of the hearing and if appropriate, exclude from the hearing persons who engage in misconduct and strike all related testimony of witnesses refusing to answer any questions ruled to be proper;
</P>
<P>(f) Hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties or upon his own motion;
</P>
<P>(g) Dispose of procedural requests, motions, or similar matters which shall be made part of the record of the proceeding, including motions to amend pleadings; also to recommend dismissal of cases or portions thereof, and to order hearings reopened prior to issuance of his recommended decision and order;
</P>
<P>(h) Examine and cross-examine witnesses and introduce into the record documentary or other evidence;
</P>
<P>(i) Request the parties at any time during the hearing to state their respective positions concerning any issue in the case or theory in support thereof; 
</P>
<P>(j) Continue, at his discretion, the hearing from day-to-day, or adjourn it to a later date or to a different place, by announcement thereof at the hearing or by other appropriate notice;
</P>
<P>(k) Take official notice of any material fact not appearing in evidence in the record, which is among the traditional matters of judicial notice and also concerning which the Department of Labor by reason of its functions is presumed to be expert: <I>Provided,</I> That the parties shall be given adequate notice, at the hearing or by reference in the Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision and order, of the matters so noticed, and shall be given adequate opportunity to show the contrary;
</P>
<P>(l) Correct or approve proposed corrections of the official transcript when deemed necessary; and
</P>
<P>(m) Take any other action necessary under the foregoing and not prohibited by these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985; 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.77" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.77   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>Any party shall have the right to appear at such hearing in person, by counsel, or by other representative, to examine and cross-examine witnesses, and to introduce into the record documentary or other relevant evidence, except that the participation of any party shall be limited to the extent prescribed by the Administrative Law Judge. Two (2) copies of documentary evidence shall be submitted and a copy furnished to each of the other parties. Stipulations of fact may be introduced in evidence with respect to any issue.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.78" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.78   Rules of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>The technical rules of evidence do not apply. Any evidence may be received, except that an Administrative Law Judge may exclude any evidence or offer of proof which is immaterial, irrelevant, unduly repetitious, or customarily privileged. Every party shall have a right to present his case by oral and documentary evidence and to submit rebuttal evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.79" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.79   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>In a hearing concerning an alleged violation of § 458.2 (Bill of rights of members of labor organizations) or § 458.37 (Prohibition of certain discipline), the complainant shall have the burden of proving the allegations of the complaint by a preponderance of the evidence. In a hearing concerning an alleged violation of §§ 458.26-458.30, the Chief, DOE shall have the burden of proving the allegations of the complaint by a preponderance of the evidence. In a hearing concerning an alleged violation of other standards of conduct matters, the District Director shall have the burden of proving the allegations of the complaint by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 50 FR 31311, 31313, Aug. 1, 1985; 59 FR 15117, Mar. 31, 1994; 62 FR 6094, Feb. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.80" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.80   Unavailability of Administrative Law Judges.</HEAD>
<P>In the event the Administrative Law Judge designated to conduct the hearing becomes unavailable, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall designate another Administrative Law Judge for the purpose of further hearing or issuance of a recommended decision and order on the record as made, or both.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.81" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.81   Objection to conduct of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any objection with respect to the conduct of the hearing, including any objection to the introduction of evidence, may be stated orally or in writing accompanied by a short statement of the grounds for such objection and included in the record. No such objection shall be deemed waived by further participation in the hearing. Such objection shall not stay the conduct of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Automatic exceptions will be allowed to all adverse rulings. Rulings by the Administrative Law Judge shall not be appealed prior to the transfer of the case to the Administrative Review Board, but shall be considered by the Administrative Review Board only upon the filing of exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision and order in accordance with § 458.88.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8026, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.82" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.82   Motions after a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>All motions made after the transfer of the case to the Administrative Review Board, except motions to correct the record under § 458.76(l), shall be made in writing to the Administrative Review Board. The moving party shall serve a copy of all motion papers on all other parties. A statement of service shall accompany the motion. Answers, if any, must be served on all parties and the original thereof, together with a statement of service, shall be filed with the Administrative Review Board after the hearing, within seven (7) days after service of the moving papers unless it is otherwise directed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.83" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.83   Waiver of objections.</HEAD>
<P>Any objection not duly urged before an Administrative Law Judge shall be deemed waived.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.84" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.84   Oral argument at the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any party shall be entitled, upon request, to a reasonable period prior to the close of the hearing for oral argument, which shall be included in the official transcript of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.85" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.85   Transcript.</HEAD>
<P>An official reporter shall make the only official transcript of such proceedings. Copies of the official transcript will be provided to the parties, in accordance with the provisions of part 70 of this title, or they may be examined in the district office in whose geographic jurisdiction the hearing has been held.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 63 FR 33780, June 19, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.86" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.86   Filing of brief.</HEAD>
<P>Any party desiring to submit a brief to the Administrative Law Judge shall file the original within ten (10) days after the close of the hearing: <I>Provided, however,</I> That prior to the close of the hearing and for good cause, the Administrative Law Judge may grant a reasonable extension of time. Copies of such brief shall be served on all of the parties to the proceeding. Requests for additional time in which to file a brief under authority of this section made after the hearing shall be made in writing to the Administrative Law Judge and copies thereof served on the other parties. A statement of such service shall be furnished. A request for extension of time shall be received not later than three (3) days before the date such briefs are due. In the absence of the Administrative Law Judge such requests shall be ruled upon by the Chief Administrative Law Judge. No reply brief may be filed except by permission of the Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.87" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.87   Proposed findings and conclusions.</HEAD>
<P>Within fifteen (15) days following the close of the hearing, the parties may submit proposed findings and conclusions to the Administrative Law Judge, together with supporting reasons therefor, which shall become part of the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.88" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.88   Submission of the Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision and order to the Administrative Review Board; exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the close of the hearing, and the receipt of briefs, or findings and conclusions, if any, the Administrative Law Judge shall prepare his recommended decision and order expeditiously. The recommended decision and order shall contain findings of fact, conclusions, and the reasons or basis therefor including credibility determinations, and recommendations as to the disposition of the case including the remedial action to be taken.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrative Law Judge shall cause his recommended decision and order to be served promptly on all parties to the proceeding. Thereafter, the Administrative Law Judge shall transfer the case to the Administrative Review Board including his recommended decision and order and the record. The record shall include the complaint, the notice of hearing, motions, rulings, orders, official transcript of the hearing, stipulations, objections, depositions, exhibits, documentary evidence and any briefs or other documents submitted by the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) Exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision and order may be filed by any party with the Administrative Review Board within fifteen (15) days after service of the recommended decision and order, in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. The Administrative Review Board may for good cause shown extend the time for filing such exceptions. Requests for additional time in which to file exceptions shall be in writing, and copies thereof shall be served on the other parties. Requests for extension of time must be received no later than three (3) days before the date the exceptions are due. Copies of such exceptions and any supporting briefs shall be served on all other parties, and a statement of such service shall be furnished to the Administrative Review Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2013; 86 FR 1785, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.89" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.89   Contents of exceptions to Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Exceptions to an Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision and order shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Set forth specifically the questions upon which exceptions are taken;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify that part of the Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision and order to which objection is made;
</P>
<P>(3) Designate by precise citation of page the portions of the record relied on, state the grounds for the exceptions and include the citation of authorities unless set forth in a supporting brief.
</P>
<P>(b) Any exception to a ruling, finding, conclusion, or recommendation which is not specifically urged shall be deemed to have been waived. Any exception which fails to comply with the foregoing requirements may be disregarded.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.90" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.90   Briefs in support of exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any brief in support of exceptions shall be filed in accordance with 29 CFR part 26, contain only matters included within the scope of the exceptions, and contain, in the order indicated, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise statement of the case containing all that is material to the consideration of the questions presented;
</P>
<P>(2) A specification of the questions involved and to be argued;
</P>
<P>(3) The argument, presenting clearly the points of fact and law relied on in support of the position taken on each question, with specific page reference to the transcript and the legal or other material relied on.
</P>
<P>(b) Answering briefs to the exceptions may be filed with the Administrative Review Board within ten (10) days after service of the exceptions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15158, Mar. 7, 1980; 45 FR 28322, Apr. 29, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2013; 86 FR 1785, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.91" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.91   Action by the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After consideration of the Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision and order, the record, and any exceptions filed, the Administrative Review Board shall issue its decision affirming or reversing the Administrative Law Judge, in whole, or in part, or making such other disposition of the matter as it deems appropriate: <I>Provided, however,</I> That unless exceptions are filed which are timely and in accordance with § 458.89, the Administrative Review Board may, at its discretion, adopt without discussion the recommended decision and order of the Administrative Law Judge, as contained in his recommended decision and order, shall, upon appropriate notice to the parties, automatically become the decision of the Administrative Review Board.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon finding a violation of the CSRA, FSA or this part, the Administrative Review Board may order respondent to cease and desist from such violative conduct and may require the respondent to take such affirmative action as it deems appropriate to effectuate the policies of the CSRA or FSA.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon finding no violation of the CSRA, FSA or this part, the Administrative Review Board shall dismiss the complaint.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.92" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.92   Compliance with decisions and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>When remedial action is ordered, the respondent shall report to the Director, within a specified period, that the required remedial action has been effected. When the Director finds that the required remedial action has not been effected, he shall refer the matter for appropriate action to the Federal Labor Relations Authority (in the case of labor organizations covered by the CSRA), the Foreign Service Labor Relations Board (in the case of labor organizations covered by the FSA), or the Board of Directors of the Office of Compliance (in the case of labor organizations covered by the Congressional Accountability Act).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 458.93" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.15.3.21.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 458.93   Stay of remedial action.</HEAD>
<P>In cases involving violations of this part, the Administrative Review Board may direct, subject to such conditions at it deems appropriate, that the remedial action ordered by stayed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="459" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 459—MISCELLANEOUS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7120, 7134; 22 U.S.C. 4117; 2 U.S.C. 1351(a)(1); Secretary's Order No. 03-2012, 77 FR 69376, November 16, 2012.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 15165, Mar. 7, 1980, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 459.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.16.0.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 459.1   Computation of time for filing papers.</HEAD>
<P>In computing any period of time prescribed by or allowed by the regulations contained in part 458 of this subchapter, the day of the act, event, or default after which the designated period of time begins to run, shall not be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday or Federal legal holiday in which event the period shall run until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal legal holiday. When the period of time prescribed or allowed is seven (7) days or less, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal legal holidays shall be excluded from the computations. When these regulations require the filing of any paper, such document must be received by the Director or the officer or agent designated to receive such matter before the close of business of the last day of the time limit, if any, for such filing or extension of time that may have been granted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15165, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 459.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.16.0.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 459.2   Additional time after service by mail.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a party has the right or is required to do some act pursuant to these regulations within a prescribed period after service of a notice or other paper upon him and the notice or paper is served on him by mail, five (5) days shall be added to the prescribed period: <I>Provided, however,</I> That five (5) days shall not be added if any extension of time may have been granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 459.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.16.0.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 459.3   Documents in a proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Title.</I> Documents in any proceeding under part 458 of this subchapter, including correspondence, shall show the title of the proceeding and the case number, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signature.</I> The original of each document required to be filed under these regulations shall be signed by the party or by an attorney or representative of record for the party, or by an officer of the party, and shall contain the address and telephone number of the person signing it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 459.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.16.0.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 459.4   Service of pleading and other papers under this subchapter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of service.</I> Notices of hearing, decisions, orders and other papers may be served personally or by registered or certified mail or by telegraph. When service is by mail, the date of service shall be the day when the matter served is deposited in the United States mail.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Upon whom served.</I> All papers, except as herein otherwise provided, shall be served upon all counsel of record and upon parties not represented by counsel or by their agents designated by them or by law and upon the Director, or his designated officer, or agent or Administrative Law Judge where appropriate. Service upon such counsel or representative shall constitute service upon the party, but a copy also shall be transmitted to the party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15165, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 459.5" NODE="29:2.1.4.2.16.0.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 459.5   Rules to be construed liberally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this subchapter may be construed liberally to effectuate the purposes and provisions of the CSRA or FSA. 
</P>
<P>(b) When an act is required or allowed to be done at or within a specified time, the Director may at any time order the period altered where it shall be manifest that strict adherence will work surprise or injustice or interfere with the proper effectuation of the CSRA or FSA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15165, Mar. 7, 1980. Redesignated at 50 FR 31311, Aug. 1, 1985, as amended at 78 FR 8027, Feb. 5, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="29:2.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—EMPLOYEE RIGHTS CONCERNING PAYMENT OF UNION DUES OR FEES


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="470" NODE="29:2.1.4.3.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 470 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="29:2.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—NOTIFICATION OF EMPLOYEE RIGHTS UNDER FEDERAL LABOR LAWS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="471" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 471—OBLIGATIONS OF FEDERAL CONTRACTORS AND SUBCONTRACTORS; NOTIFICATION OF EMPLOYEE RIGHTS UNDER FEDERAL LABOR LAWS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 101 <I>et seq.;</I> Executive Order 13496, 74 FR 6107, February 4, 2009; Secretary's Order No. 7-2009, 74 FR 58834, November 13, 2009; Secretary's Order No. 01-2020.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 28397, May 20, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions, Requirements for Employee Notice, and Exceptions and Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.1" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.1.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.1   What definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the construction, rehabilitation, alteration, conversion, extension, demolition, weatherization, or repair of buildings, highways, or other changes or improvements to real property, including facilities providing utility services. The term construction also includes the supervision, inspection, and other on-site functions incidental to the actual construction.
</P>
<P><I>Construction work site</I> means the general physical location of any building, highway, or other change or improvement to real property which is undergoing construction, rehabilitation, alteration, conversion, extension, demolition, weatherization or repair, and any temporary location or facility at which a contractor or subcontractor meets a demand or performs a function relating to the contract or subcontract.
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> means, unless otherwise indicated, any Government contract or subcontract.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting agency</I> means any department, agency, establishment, or instrumentality in the executive branch of the Government, including any wholly owned Government corporation, that enters into contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means, unless otherwise indicated, a prime contractor or subcontractor.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Director of OFCCP</I> means the Director of the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs in the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Director of OLMS</I> means the Director of the Office of Labor-Management Standards in the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Employee notice clause</I> means the contract clause set forth in Appendix A that Government contracting departments and agencies must include in all Government contracts and subcontracts pursuant to Executive Order 13496 and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the Government of the United States of America.
</P>
<P><I>Government contract</I> means any agreement or modification thereof between any contracting agency and any person for the purchase, sale, or use of personal property or non-personal services. The term “personal property,” as used in this section, includes supplies, and contracts for the use of real property (such as lease arrangements), unless the contract for the use of real property itself constitutes real property (such as easements). The term “non-personal services” as used in this section includes, but is not limited to, the following services: utilities, construction, transportation, research, insurance, and fund depository. The term Government contract does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Agreements in which the parties stand in the relationship of employer and employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Federal financial assistance, as defined in 29 CFR 31.2.
</P>
<P><I>Labor organization</I> means any organization of any kind, or any agency or employee representation committee or plan, in which employees participate and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work.
</P>
<P><I>Modification of a contract</I> means any alteration in the terms and conditions of that contract, including amendments, renegotiations, and renewals.
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> or <I>Executive Order</I> means Executive Order 13496 (74 FR 6107, Feb. 4, 2009).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any natural person, corporation, partnership, unincorporated association, State or local government, and any agency, instrumentality, or subdivision of such a government.
</P>
<P><I>Prime contractor</I> means any person holding a contract with a contracting agency, and, for the purposes of subparts B and C of this part, includes any person who has held a contract subject to the Executive Order and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Related rules, regulations, and orders of the Secretary of Labor,</I> as used in § 471.2 of this part, means rules, regulations, and relevant orders issued pursuant to the Executive Order or this part.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Subcontract</I> means any agreement or arrangement between a contractor and any person (in which the parties do not stand in the relationship of an employer and an employee):
</P>
<P>(1) For the purchase, sale or use of personal property or non-personal services that, in whole or in part, is necessary to the performance of any one or more contracts; or
</P>
<P>(2) Under which any portion of the contractor's obligation under any one or more contracts is performed, undertaken or assumed.
</P>
<P><I>Subcontractor</I> means any person holding a subcontract and, for the purposes of subparts B and C of this part, any person who has held a subcontract subject to the Executive Order and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Union</I> means a labor organization as defined above.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the several States, the District of Columbia, the Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and Wake Island.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.2" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.1.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.2   What employee notice clause must be included in Government contracts?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Government contracts.</I> With respect to all contracts covered by this part, Government contracting departments and agencies must, to the extent consistent with law, include the language set forth in appendix A to subpart A of part 471 in every Government contract, other than those contracts to which exceptions are applicable as stated in § 471.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inclusion by reference.</I> The employee notice clause need not be quoted verbatim in a contract, subcontract, or purchase order. The clause may be made part of the contract, subcontract, or purchase order by citation to 29 CFR part 471, appendix A to subpart A.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adaptation of language.</I> The Director of OLMS may find that an Act of Congress, clarification of existing law by the courts or the National Labor Relations Board, or other circumstances make modification of the contractual provisions necessary to achieve the purposes of the Executive Order and this part. In such circumstances, the Director of OLMS will promptly issue rules, regulations, or orders as are needed to ensure that all future government contracts contain appropriate provisions to achieve the purposes of the Executive Order and this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Physical posting of employee notice.</I> A contractor or subcontractor that posts notices to employees physically must also post the required notice physically. Where a significant portion of a contractor's workforce is not proficient in English, the contractor must provide the notice in the language employees speak. The employee notice must be placed:
</P>
<P>(1) In conspicuous places in and about the contractor's plants and offices so that the notice is prominent and readily <I>See</I>n by employees. Such conspicuous placement includes, but is not limited to, areas in which the contractor posts notices to employees about the employees' terms and conditions of employment; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where employees covered by the National Labor Relations Act engage in activities relating to the performance of the contract. An employee shall be considered to be so engaged if:
</P>
<P>(i) The duties of the employee's position include work that fulfills a contractual obligation, or work that is necessary to, or that facilitates, performance of the contract or a provision of the contract; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The cost or a portion of the cost of the employee's position is allowable as a cost of the contract under the principles set forth in the Federal Acquisition Regulation at 48 CFR Ch. 1, part 31: Provided, That a position shall not be considered covered by this part by virtue of this provision if the cost of the position was not allocable in whole or in part as a direct cost to any Government contract, and only a de minimis (less than 2%) portion of the cost of the position was allocable as an indirect cost to Government contracts, considered as a group.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Obtaining a poster with the employee notice.</I> A poster with the required employee notice, including a poster with the employee notice translated into languages other than English, will be printed by the Department, and will be provided by the Federal contracting agency or may be obtained from the Division of Interpretations and Standards, Office of Labor-Management Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-5609, Washington, DC 20210, or from any field office of the Department's Office of Labor-Management Standards or Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs. A copy of the poster in English and in languages other than English may also be downloaded from the Office of Labor-Management Standards Web site at <I>http://www.olms.dol.gov.</I> Additionally, contractors may reproduce and use exact duplicate copies of the Department's official poster.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Electronic postings of employee notice.</I> A contractor or subcontractor that customarily posts notices to employees electronically must also post the required notice electronically. Such contractors or subcontractors satisfy the electronic posting requirement by displaying prominently on any Web site that is maintained by the contractor or subcontractor, whether external or internal, and customarily used for notices to employees about terms and conditions of employment, a link to the Department of Labor's Web site that contains the full text of the poster. The link to the Department's Web site must read, “Important Notice about Employee Rights to Organize and Bargain Collectively with Their Employers.” Where a significant portion of a contractor's workforce is not proficient in English, the contractor must provide the notice required in this subsection in the language the employees speak. This requirement will be satisfied by displaying prominently on any Web site that is maintained by the contractor or subcontractor, whether external or internal, and customarily used for notices to employees about terms and conditions of employment, a link to the Department of Labor's Web site that contains the full text of the poster in the language the employees speak. In such cases, the Office of Labor-Management Standards will provide translations of the link to the Department's Web site that must be displayed on the contractor's or subcontractor's Web site.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.3" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.1.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.3   What exceptions apply and what exemptions are available?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions for specific types of contracts.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Collective bargaining agreements as defined in the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute, entered into by an agency and the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate unit to set terms and conditions of employment of those employees.
</P>
<P>(2) Government contracts that involve purchases below the simplified acquisition threshold set by Congress under the Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act. Therefore, the employee notice clause need not be included in government contracts for purchases below that threshold, provided that
</P>
<P>(i) No agency or contractor is permitted to procure supplies or services in a manner designed to avoid the applicability of the Order and this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee notice clause must be included in government contracts for indefinite quantities, unless the contracting agency or contractor has reason to believe that the amount to be ordered in any year under such a contract will be less than the simplified acquisition threshold set in the Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act.
</P>
<P>(3) Government contracts resulting from solicitations issued before the effective date of this rule.
</P>
<P>(4) Subcontracts of $10,000 or less in value, except that contractors and subcontractors are not permitted to procure supplies or services in a manner designed to avoid the applicability of the Order and this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Contracts and subcontracts for work performed exclusively outside the territorial United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions for certain contracts.</I> The Director of OLMS may exempt a contracting department or agency or groups of departments or agencies from the requirements of this part with respect to a particular contract or subcontract or any class of contracts or subcontracts when the Director finds that either:
</P>
<P>(1) The application of any of the requirements of this part would not serve its purposes or would impair the ability of the Government to procure goods or services on an economical and efficient basis; or
</P>
<P>(2) Special circumstances require an exemption in order to serve the national interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for requesting an exemption and withdrawals of exemptions.</I> Requests for exemptions under this subsection from a contracting department or agency must be in writing, and must be directed to the Director of OLMS, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-5603, Washington, DC, 20210. The Director of OLMS may withdraw an exemption granted when, in the Director's judgment, such action is necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.4" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.1.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.4   What employers are not covered under this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following employers are excluded from the definition of “employer” in the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA), and are not covered by the requirements of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) The United States or any wholly owned Government corporation;
</P>
<P>(2) Any Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(3) Any State or political subdivision thereof;
</P>
<P>(4) Any person subject to the Railway Labor Act;
</P>
<P>(5) Any labor organization (other than when acting as an employer); or
</P>
<P>(6) Anyone acting in the capacity of officer or agent of such labor organization.
</P>
<P>(b) Additionally, employers exclusively employing workers who are excluded from the definition of “employee” under the NLRA are not covered by the requirements of this part. Those excluded employees are employed:
</P>
<P>(1) As agricultural laborers;
</P>
<P>(2) In the domestic service of any family or person at his home;
</P>
<P>(3) By his or her parent or spouse;
</P>
<P>(4) As an independent contractor;
</P>
<P>(5) As a supervisor as defined under the NLRA;
</P>
<P>(6) By an employer subject to the Railway Labor Act; or
</P>
<P>(7) By any other person who is not an employer as defined in the NLRA


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.1.21.5.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 471—Text of Employee Notice Clause
</HEAD>
<P>“1. During the term of this contract, the contractor agrees to post a notice, of such size and in such form, and containing such content as the Secretary of Labor shall prescribe, in conspicuous places in and about its plants and offices where employees covered by the National Labor Relations Act engage in activities relating to the performance of the contract, including all places where notices to employees are customarily posted both physically and electronically. The “Secretary's notice” shall consist of the following:
</P>
<HD1>“Employee Rights Under The National Labor Relations Act”
</HD1>
<P>“The NLRA guarantees the right of employees to organize and bargain collectively with their employers, and to engage in other protected concerted activity. Employees covered by the NLRA* are protected from certain types of employer and union misconduct. This Notice gives you general information about your rights, and about the obligations of employers and unions under the NLRA. Contact the National Labor Relations Board, the Federal agency that investigates and resolves complaints under the NLRA, using the contact information supplied below, if you have any questions about specific rights that may apply in your particular workplace.
</P>
<P>“Under the NLRA, you have the right to:
</P>
<P>• Organize a union to negotiate with your employer concerning your wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.
</P>
<P>• Form, join or assist a union.
</P>
<P>• Bargain collectively through representatives of employees' own choosing for a contract with your employer setting your wages, benefits, hours, and other working conditions.
</P>
<P>• Discuss your terms and conditions of employment or union organizing with your co-workers or a union.
</P>
<P>• Take action with one or more co-workers to improve your working conditions by, among other means, raising work-related complaints directly with your employer or with a government agency, and <I>seeking</I> help from a union.
</P>
<P>• Strike and picket, depending on the purpose or means of the strike or the picketing.
</P>
<P>• Choose not to do any of these activities, including joining or remaining a member of a union.
</P>
<P>“Under the NLRA, it is illegal for your employer to:
</P>
<P>• Prohibit you from soliciting for a union during non-work time, such as before or after work or during break times; or from distributing union literature during non-work time, in non-work areas, such as parking lots or break rooms.
</P>
<P>• Question you about your union support or activities in a manner that discourages you from engaging in that activity.
</P>
<P>• Fire, demote, or transfer you, or reduce your hours or change your shift, or otherwise take adverse action against you, or threaten to take any of these actions, because you join or support a union, or because you engage in concerted activity for mutual aid and protection, or because you choose not to engage in any such activity.
</P>
<P>• Threaten to close your workplace if workers choose a union to represent them.
</P>
<P>• Promise or grant promotions, pay raises, or other benefits to discourage or encourage union support.
</P>
<P>• Prohibit you from wearing union hats, buttons, t-shirts, and pins in the workplace except under special circumstances.
</P>
<P>• Spy on or videotape peaceful union activities and gatherings or pretend to do so.
</P>
<P>“Under the NLRA, it is illegal for a union or for the union that represents you in bargaining with your employer to:
</P>
<P>• Threaten you that you will lose your job unless you support the union.
</P>
<P>• Refuse to process a grievance because you have criticized union officials or because you are not a member of the union.
</P>
<P>• Use or maintain discriminatory standards or procedures in making job referrals from a hiring hall.
</P>
<P>• Cause or attempt to cause an employer to discriminate against you because of your union-related activity.
</P>
<P>• Take other adverse action against you based on whether you have joined or support the union.
</P>
<P>“If you and your coworkers select a union to act as your collective bargaining representative, your employer and the union are required to bargain in good faith in a genuine effort to reach a written, binding agreement setting your terms and conditions of employment. The union is required to fairly represent you in bargaining and enforcing the agreement.
</P>
<P>“Illegal conduct will not be permitted. If you believe your rights or the rights of others have been violated, you should contact the NLRB promptly to protect your rights, generally within six months of the unlawful activity. You may inquire about possible violations without your employer or anyone else being informed of the inquiry. Charges may be filed by any person and need not be filed by the employee directly affected by the violation. The NLRB may order an employer to rehire a worker fired in violation of the law and to pay lost wages and benefits, and may order an employer or union to cease violating the law. Employees should <I>seek</I> assistance from the nearest regional NLRB office, which can be found on the Agency's Web site: <I>http://www.nlrb.gov.</I> “Click on the NLRB's page titled “About Us,” which contains a link, “Locating Our Offices.” You can also contact the NLRB by calling toll-free: 1-866-667-NLRB (6572) or (TTY) 1-866-315-NLRB (6572) for hearing impaired.
</P>
<P>“* The National Labor Relations Act covers most private-sector employers. Excluded from coverage under the NLRA are public-sector employees, agricultural and domestic workers, independent contractors, workers employed by a parent or spouse, employees of air and rail carriers covered by the Railway Labor Act, and supervisors (although supervisors that have been discriminated against for refusing to violate the NLRA may be covered).
</P>
<P>“This is an official Government Notice and must not be defaced by anyone.
</P>
<P>“2. The contractor will comply with all provisions of the Secretary's notice, and related rules, regulations, and orders of the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>“3. In the event that the contractor does not comply with any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1) or (2) above, this contract may be cancelled, terminated, or suspended in whole or in part, and the contractor may be declared ineligible for further Government contracts in accordance with procedures authorized in or adopted pursuant to Executive Order 13496 of January 30, 2009. Such other sanctions or remedies may be imposed as are provided in Executive Order 13496 of January 30, 2009, or by rule, regulation, or order of the Secretary of Labor, or as are otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>“4. The contractor will include the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (4) herein in every subcontract or purchase order entered into in connection with this contract (unless exempted by rules, regulations, or orders of the Secretary of Labor issued pursuant to Section 3 of Executive Order 13496 of January 30, 2009), so that such provisions will be binding upon each subcontractor. The contractor will take such action with respect to any such subcontract or purchase order as may be directed by the Secretary of Labor as a means of enforcing such provisions, including the imposition of sanctions for non-compliance: Provided, however, if the contractor becomes involved in litigation with a subcontractor, or is threatened with such involvement, as a result of such direction, the contractor may request the United States to enter into such litigation to protect the interests of the United States.”


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Enforcement; Compliance Review and Complaint Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.10" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.2.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.10   How will the Department determine whether a contractor is in compliance with Executive Order 13496 and this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of OFCCP may conduct a compliance evaluation to determine whether a contractor holding a covered contract is in compliance with the requirements of this part. Such an evaluation may be limited to compliance with this part or may be included in a compliance evaluation conducted under other laws, Executive Orders, and/or regulations enforced by the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) During such an evaluation, a determination will be made whether:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee notice required by § 471.2(a) is posted in conformity with the applicable physical and electronic posting requirements contained in § 471.2(d) and (f); and
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of the employee notice clause are included in government contracts, subcontracts or purchase orders entered into on or after June 21, 2010, or that the government contracts, subcontracts or purchase orders have been exempted under § 471.3(b).
</P>
<P>(c) The results of the evaluation will be documented in the evaluation record, which will include findings regarding the contractor's compliance with the requirements of the Executive Order and this part and, as applicable, conciliation efforts made, corrective action taken and/or enforcement recommended under § 471.13.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.11" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.2.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.11   What are the procedures for filing and processing a complaint?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing complaints.</I> An employee of a covered contractor may file a complaint alleging that the contractor has failed to post the employee notice as required by the Executive Order and this part; and/or has failed to include the employee notice clause in subcontracts or purchase orders. Complaints may be filed with the Office of Labor-Management Standards (OLMS) or the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) at 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210, or with any OLMS or OFCCP field office.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of complaints.</I> The complaint must be in writing and must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee's name, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the contractor alleged to have violated the Executive Order and this part;
</P>
<P>(3) An identification of the alleged violation and the establishment or construction work site where it is alleged to have occurred;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other pertinent information that will assist in the investigation and resolution of the complaint; and
</P>
<P>(5) The signature of the employee filing the complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complaint investigations.</I> In investigating complaints filed with the Department under this section, the Director of OFCCP will evaluate the allegations of the complaint and develop a case record. The record will include findings regarding the contractor's compliance with the requirements of the Executive Order and this part, and, as applicable, a description of conciliation efforts made, corrective action taken, and/or enforcement recommended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.12" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.2.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.12   What are the procedures to be followed when a violation is found during a complaint investigation or compliance evaluation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any complaint investigation or compliance evaluation indicates a violation of the Executive Order or this part, the Director of OFCCP will make reasonable efforts to secure compliance through conciliation.
</P>
<P>(b) Before the contractor may be found to be in compliance with the Executive Order or this part, the contractor must correct the violation found by the Department (for example, by posting the required employee notice, and/or by amending its subcontracts or purchase orders with subcontractors to include the employee notice clause), and must commit, in writing, not to repeat the violation.
</P>
<P>(c) If a violation cannot be resolved through conciliation efforts, the Director of OFCCP will refer the matter to the Director of OLMS, who may take action under § 471.13.
</P>
<P>(d) For reasonable cause shown, the Director of OLMS may reconsider, or cause to be reconsidered, any matter on his or her own motion or in response to a request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.13" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.2.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.13   Under what circumstances, and how, will enforcement proceedings under Executive Order 13496 be conducted?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Violations of the Executive Order or this part may result in administrative enforcement proceedings. The bases for a finding of a violation may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The results of a compliance evaluation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of a complaint investigation;
</P>
<P>(iii) A contractor's refusal to allow a compliance evaluation or complaint investigation to be conducted; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A contractor's refusal to cooperate with the compliance evaluation or complaint investigation, including failure to provide information sought during those procedures.
</P>
<P>(v) A contractor's refusal to take such action with respect to a subcontract as directed by the Director of OFCCP or the Director of OLMS as a means of enforcing compliance with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) A subcontractor's refusal to adhere to requirements of this part regarding employee notice or inclusion of the contract clause in its subcontracts.
</P>
<P>(2) If a determination is made by the Director of OFCCP that the Executive Order or the regulations in this part have been violated, and the violation has not been corrected through conciliation, he or she will refer the matter to the Director of OLMS for enforcement consideration. The Director of OLMS may refer the matter to the Solicitor of Labor to begin administrative enforcement proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative enforcement proceedings.</I> (1) Administrative enforcement proceedings will be conducted under the control and supervision of the Solicitor of Labor, under the hearing procedures in 29 CFR part 18, Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings Before the Office of Administrative Law Judges.
</P>
<P>(2) The administrative law judge will certify his or her recommended decision issued under 29 CFR 18.57 to the Administrative Review Board. The decision will be served on all parties and amicus curiae.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 25 days (10 days if the proceeding is expedited) after receipt of the administrative law judge's recommended decision, either party may file exceptions to the decision. Exceptions may be responded to by the other parties within 25 days (7 days if the proceeding is expedited) after receipt. All exceptions and responses must be filed with the Administrative Review Board.


</P>
<P>(4) After the expiration of time for filing exceptions, the Administrative Review Board may issue an administrative order, or may otherwise appropriately dispose of the matter. In an expedited proceeding, unless the Administrative Review Board issues an administrative order within 30 days after the expiration of time for filing exceptions, the Administrative Law Judge's recommended decision will become the final administrative order. If the Administrative Review Board determines that the contractor has violated the Executive Order or the regulations in this part, the administrative order will order the contractor to cease and desist from the violations, require the contractor to provide appropriate remedies, or, subject to the procedures in § 471.14, impose appropriate sanctions and penalties, or any combination thereof.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28397, May 20, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 13034, Mar. 6, 2020; 85 FR 30619, May 20, 2020; 85 FR 30619, June 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.14" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.2.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.14   What sanctions and penalties may be imposed for noncompliance, and what procedures will the Department follow in imposing such sanctions and penalties?</HEAD>
<P>(a) After a final decision on the merits has issued and before imposing the sanctions and penalties described in paragraph (d) of this section, the Director of OLMS will consult with the affected contracting agencies, and provide the heads of those agencies the opportunity to respond and provide written objections.
</P>
<P>(b) If the contracting agency provides written objections, those objections must include a complete statement of reasons for the objections, which must include a finding that, as applicable, the completion of the contract, or further contracts or extensions or modifications of existing contracts, is essential to the agency's mission.
</P>
<P>(c) The sanctions and penalties described in this section will not be imposed if:
</P>
<P>(1) The head of the contracting agency, or his or her designee, continues to object to the imposition of such sanctions and penalties, or
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor has not been given an opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) In enforcing the Executive Order and this part, the Director of OLMS may take any of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct a contracting agency to cancel, terminate, suspend, or cause to be canceled, terminated or suspended, any contract or any portions thereof, for failure to comply with its contractual provisions required by Section 7(a) of the Executive Order and the regulations in this part. Contracts may be canceled, terminated, or suspended absolutely, or continuance of contracts may be conditioned upon compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) Issue an order of debarment under Section 7(b) of the Executive Order providing that one or more contracting agencies must refrain from entering into further contracts, or extensions or other modification of existing contracts, with any non-complying contractor.
</P>
<P>(3) Issue an order of debarment under Section 7(b) of the Executive Order providing that no contracting agency may enter into a contract with any non-complying subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(e) Whenever the Director of OLMS exercises the authority in this section, the contracting agency must report the actions it has taken to the Director of OLMS within such time as the Director of OLMS will specify.
</P>
<P>(f) Periodically, the Director of OLMS will publish and distribute to all executive agencies a list of the names of contractors and subcontractors that have, in the judgment of the Director of OLMS, failed to comply with the provisions of the Executive Order and this part, or of related rules, regulations, and orders of the Secretary of Labor, and as a result have been declared ineligible for future contracts under the Executive Order and the regulations in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.15" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.2.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.15   Under what circumstances must a contractor be provided the opportunity for a hearing?</HEAD>
<P>Before the Director of OLMS takes either of the following actions, a contractor or subcontractor must be given the opportunity for a hearing:
</P>
<P>(a) Issues an order for cancellation, termination, or suspension of any contract or debarment of any contractor from further Government contracts under Sections 7(a) or (b) of the Executive Order and § 471.14(d)(1) or (2) of this part; or
</P>
<P>(b) Includes the contractor on a published list of non-complying contractors under Section 7(c) of the Executive Order and § 471.14(f) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.16" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.2.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.16   Under what circumstances may a contractor be reinstated?</HEAD>
<P>Any contractor or subcontractor debarred from or declared ineligible for further contracts under the Executive Order and this part may request reinstatement in a letter to the Director of OLMS. In connection with a request for reinstatement, debarred contractors and subcontractors shall be required to show that they have established and will carry out policies and practices in compliance with the Executive Order and implementing regulations. Before reaching a decision, the Director of OLMS may request that a compliance evaluation of the contractor or subcontractor be conducted, and may require the contractor or subcontractor to supply additional information regarding the request for reinstatement. If the Director of OLMS finds that the contractor or subcontractor has come into compliance with the Executive Order and this part and has shown that it will carry out the Executive Order and this part, the contractor or subcontractor may be reinstated. The Director of OLMS shall issue a written decision on the request.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Ancillary Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.20" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.3.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.20   What authority under this part or Executive Order 13496 may the Secretary delegate, and under what circumstances?</HEAD>
<P>Section 11 of the Executive Order grants the Secretary the right to delegate any functions or duties under the Order to any officer in the Department of Labor or to any other officer in the executive branch of the Government, with the consent of the head of the department or agency in which that officer serves.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.21" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.3.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.21   Who will make rulings and interpretations under Executive Order 13496 and this part?</HEAD>
<P>The Director of OLMS and the Director of OFCCP will make rulings under or interpretations of the Executive Order or the regulations contained in this part in accordance with their respective responsibilities under the regulations. Requests for a ruling or interpretation must be submitted to the Director of OLMS, who will consult with the Director of OFCCP to the extent necessary and appropriate to issue such ruling or interpretation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.22" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.3.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.22   What actions may the Director of OLMS take in the case of intimidation and interference?</HEAD>
<P>The Director of OLMS may impose the sanctions and penalties contained in § 471.14 of this part against any contractor or subcontractor who does not take all necessary steps to ensure that no person intimidates, threatens, or coerces any individual for the purpose of interfering with the filing of a complaint, furnishing information, or assisting or participating in any manner in a compliance evaluation, complaint investigation, hearing, or any other activity related to the administration or enforcement of the Executive Order or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 471.23" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.18.3.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 471.23   What other provisions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part implement only the Executive Order, and do not modify or affect the interpretation of any other Department of Labor regulations or policy.
</P>
<P>(b) Each contracting department and agency must cooperate with the Director of OLMS and the Director of the OFCCP, and must provide any information and assistance that they may require, in the performance of their functions under the Executive Order and the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) This subpart does not impair or otherwise affect:
</P>
<P>(i) Authority granted by law to a department, agency, or the head thereof; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Functions of the Director of the Office of Management and Budget relating to budgetary, administrative, or legislative proposals.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart must be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
</P>
<P>(d) Neither the Executive Order nor this part creates any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="472-499" NODE="29:2.1.4.4.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 472-499 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>May. 15, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="3" NODE="29:3" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 3</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter v</E>—Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor
</SUBJECT>
<PG>500


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="29:3.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="V" NODE="29:3.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER V—WAGE AND HOUR DIVISION, DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—REGULATIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="500" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 500—MIGRANT AND SEASONAL AGRICULTURAL WORKER PROTECTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 97-470, 96 Stat. 2583 (29 U.S.C. 1801-1872); Secretary's Order No. 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014); 28 U.S.C. 2461 Note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990); and Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat 584.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.0   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act (MSPA), hereinafter referred to as MSPA or the Act, repeals and replaces the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act of 1963, as amended, hereinafter referred to as FLCRA or the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act. Prior judgments and final orders obtained under FLCRA continue in effect as stated in § 500.4.
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations include provisions necessitated by the Immigration Reform and Control Act's (IRCA) amendment to the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA). IRCA amended MSPA to remove section 106 thereof prohibiting the employment of illegal aliens. Matters concerning certificate actions or the assessment of civil money penalties, for a violation of section 106 of MSPA which occurred prior to June 1, 1987, continue through final administrative determination as stated in § 500.147.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 13328, Mar. 31, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Congress stated, in enacting the Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act that “[I]t is the purpose of this Act to remove the restraints on commerce caused by activities detrimental to migrant and seasonal agricultural workers; to require farm labor contractors to register under this Act; and to assure necessary protections for migrant and seasonal agricultural workers, agricultural associations, and agricultural employers.” It authorized the Secretary to issue such rules and regulations as are necessary to carry out the Act consistent with the requirements of chapter 5 of title 5, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations implement this purpose and policy. The regulations contained in this part are issued in accordance with section 511 of the Act and establish the rules and regulations necessary to carry out the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Any farm labor contractor, as defined in the Act, is required to obtain a Certificate of Registration issued pursuant to the Act from the Department of Labor or from a State agency authorized to issue such certificates on behalf of the Department of Labor. Such a farm labor contractor must ensure that any individual whom he employs to perform any farm labor contracting activities also obtains a Certificate of Registration. The farm labor contractor is responsible, as well, for any violation of the Act or these regulations by any such employee whether or not the employee obtains a certificate. In addition to registering, farm labor contractors must comply with all other applicable provisions of the Act when they recruit, solicit, hire, employ, furnish or transport or, in the case of migrant agricultural workers, provide housing.
</P>
<P>(d) Agricultural employers and agricultural associations which are subject to the Act must comply with all of the worker protections which are applicable under the Act to migrant or seasonal agricultural workers whom they recruit, solicit, hire, employ, furnish, or transport or, in the case of migrant agricultural workers, provide housing. The obligations will vary, depending on the types of activities affecting migrant or seasonal agricultural workers. Agricultural employers and agricultural associations and their employees need not obtain Certificates of Registration in order to engage in these activities, even if the workers they obtain are utilized by other persons or on the premises of another.
</P>
<P>(e) The Act empowers the Secretary of Labor to enforce the Act, conduct investigations, issue subpenas and, in the case of designated violations of the Act, impose sanctions. As provided in the Act, the Secretary is empowered, among other things, to impose an assessment and to collect a civil money penalty of not more than $3,126 for each violation, to seek a temporary or permanent restraining order in a U.S. District Court, and to seek the imposition of criminal penalties on persons who willfully and knowingly violate the Act or any regulation under the Act. In accordance with the Act and with these regulations, the Secretary may refuse to issue or to renew, or may suspend or revoke a certificate of registration issued to a farm labor contractor or to a person who engages in farm labor contracting as an employee of a farm labor contractor.
</P>
<P>(f) The facilities and services of the U.S. Employment Service, including State agencies, authorized by the Wagner-Peyser Act may be denied to any person found by a final determination by an appropriate enforcement agency to have violated any employment-related laws including MSPA when notification of this final determination has been provided to the Job Service by that enforcement agency. See 20 CFR 658.501(a)(4). The facilities and services of the U.S. Employment Service shall be restored immediately upon compliance with 20 CFR 658.502(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(g) Subparts A through E set forth the substantive regulations relating to farm labor contractors, agricultural employers and agricultural associations. These subparts cover the applicability of the Act, registration requirements applicable to farm labor contractors, the obligations of persons who hold Certificates of Registration, the worker protections which must be complied with by all who are subject to the Act, and the enforcement authority of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(h) Subpart F sets forth the rules of practice for administrative hearings relating to actions involving Certificates of Registration. It also outlines the procedure to be followed for filing a challenge to a proposed administrative action relating to violations and summarizes the methods provided for collection and recovery of a civil money penalty.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) The Act requires that farm labor contractors obtain a certificate of registration from the Department of Labor prior to engaging in farm labor contracting activities. The Act also requires registration by individuals who will perform farm labor contracting activities for a farm labor contractor. Form WH-510 and WH-512 are the applications used to obtain Farm Labor Contractor and Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificates of Registration. These forms have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under control numbers 1215-0038 (WH-510) and 1215-0037 (WH-512). Forms WH-514 and WH-514a are used when applying for transportation authorization to furnish proof of compliance with vehicle safety requirements. These forms have been jointly cleared by OMB under control number 1215-0036.
</P>
<P>(2) The Act further requires disclosure to migrant and seasonal agricultural workers regarding wages, hours and other working conditions and housing when provided to migrant workers. The Department of Labor has developed optional forms for use in making the required disclosure. OMB has approved the following: Worker Information (WH-516) 1215-0145 and Housing Terms and Conditions (WH-521) 1215-0146.
</P>
<P>(3) The Act also requires that farm labor contractors, agricultural employers and agricultural associations make, keep, preserve and disclose certain payroll records. Forms WH-501 and WH-501a (Spanish version) are provided to assist in carrying out this requirement. In addition, farm labor contractors who are applying for housing authorization must submit information which identifies the housing to be used along with proof of compliance with housing safety and health requirements. There has been no form developed for this purpose. The Act further requires disclosure by the insurance industry of certain information pertaining to cancellation of vehicle liability insurance policies. The requirements concerning recordkeeping, housing and insurance have been cleared by OMB under control number 1215-0148.
</P>
<P>(4) The Act provides that no farm labor contractor shall knowingly employ or utilize the services of aliens not lawfully admitted for permanent residence or who have not been authorized by the Attorney General to accept employment. Form WH-509 is an optional form which may be used to self-certify that the applicant is a citizen of the U.S. This form has been cleared by OMB under control number 1215-0091. (See § 500.59(a)(11)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983; 48 FR 38380, Aug. 23, 1983, as amended at 81 FR 43450, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 5381, Jan. 18, 2017; 83 FR 12, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 218, Jan. 23, 2019; 85 FR 2297, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2968, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 2334, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2216, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1815, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1859, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.2   Compliance with State laws and regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The Act and these regulations are intended to supplement State law; compliance with the Act or these regulations shall not excuse any
</P>
<FP>individual from compliance with appropriate State law or regulation.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.3   Effective date of the Act; transition period; repeal of the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of the Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act are effective on April 14, 1983, and are codified in 29 U.S.C. 1801 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act repeals the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act of 1963, as amended, (7 U.S.C. 2041, <I>et seq.</I>), effective April 14, 1983.
</P>
<P>(c) Violations of the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act occurring prior to April 14, 1983, may be pursued by the Department of Labor after that date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.4   Effect of prior judgments and final orders obtained under the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may refuse to issue or to renew, or may suspend or revoke, a Certificate of Registration under the Act, if the applicant or holder has failed to pay any court judgment obtained by the Secretary or any other person under the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act, or has failed to comply with any final order issued by the Secretary under the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act. The Secretary may deny a Certificate of Registration under the Act to any farm labor contractor who has a judgment outstanding against him, or is subject to a final order assessing a civil money penalty which has not been paid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.5   Filing of applications, notices and documents.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise prescribed herein, all applications, notices and other documents required or permitted to be filed by these regulations shall be filed in accordance with the provisions of subpart F of the regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.6   Accuracy of information, statements and data.</HEAD>
<P>Information, statements and data submitted in compliance with provisions of the Act or these regulations are subject to title 18, section 1001, of the United States Code, which provides:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD2>Section 1001. Statements or entries generally.
</HD2>
<P>Whoever, in any matter within the jurisdiction of any department or agency of the United States knowingly and willfully falsifies, conceals or covers up by any trick, scheme, or device a material fact, or makes any false, fictitious or fraudulent statements or representations, or makes or uses any false writing or document knowing the same to contain any false, fictitious or fraudulent statement or entry, shall be fined not more than $10,000 or imprisoned not more than five years, or both.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.7   Investigation authority of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary, either pursuant to a complaint or otherwise, shall, as may be appropriate, investigate and, in connection therewith, enter and inspect such places (including housing and vehicles) and such records (and make transcriptions thereof), question such persons and gather such information as he deems necessary to determine compliance with the Act, or these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary may issue subpenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of any evidence in connection with such investigations. The Secretary may administer oaths, examine witnesses, and receive evidence. For the purpose of any hearing or investigation provided for in the Act, the Authority contained in sections 9 and 10 of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 49, 50), relating to the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, papers, and documents, shall be available to the Secretary. The Secretary shall conduct investigations in a manner which protects the confidentiality of any complainant or other party who provides information to the Secretary in good faith.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person may report a violation of the Act or these regulations to the Secretary by advising any local office of the Employment Service of the various States, or any office of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or any other authorized representative of the Administrator. The office or person receiving such a report shall refer it to the appropriate office of the Wage and Hour Division, for the region or area in which the reported violation is alleged to have occurred.
</P>
<P>(d) In case of disobedience to a subpena, the Secretary may invoke the aid of a United States District Court which is authorized to issue an order requiring the person to obey such subpena.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2226, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.8   Prohibition on interference with Department of Labor officials.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of section 512(c) of the Act for any person to unlawfully resist, oppose, impede, intimidate, or interfere with any official of the Department of Labor assigned to perform an investigation, inspection, or law enforcement function pursuant to the Act during the performance of such
</P>
<FP>duties. (Other Federal statutes which prohibit persons from interfering with a Federal officer in the course of official duties are found at 18 U.S.C. 111 and 18 U.S.C. 1114.)


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.9   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is a violation of the Act for any person to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, or in any manner discriminate against any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker because such worker has, with just cause:
</P>
<P>(1) Filed a complaint with reference to the Act with the Secretary of Labor; or
</P>
<P>(2) Instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to the Act; or
</P>
<P>(3) Testified or is about to testify in any proceeding under or related to the Act; or
</P>
<P>(4) Exercised or asserted on behalf of himself or others any right or protection afforded by the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) A migrant or seasonal agricultural worker who believes, with just cause, that he has been discriminated against by any person in violation of this section may, no later than 180 days after such violation occurs, file a complaint with the Secretary alleging such discrimination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.10   Waiver of rights prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Any agreement by an employee purporting to waive or modify any rights inuring to said person under the Act or these regulations shall be void as contrary to public policy, except that a waiver or modification of rights or obligations hereunder in favor of the Secretary shall be valid for purposes of enforcement of the provisions of the Act or these regulations. This does not prevent agreements to settle private litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor, and such authorized representatives as may be designated by the Administrator to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative Law Judge</I> means a person appointed as provided in title 5 U.S.C. and qualified to preside at hearings under 5 U.S.C. 557. Chief Administrative Law Judge means the Chief Administrative Law Judge, United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agricultural association</I> means any nonprofit or cooperative association of farmers, growers, or ranchers, incorporated or qualified under applicable State law, which recruits, solicits, hires, employs, furnishes, or transports any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agricultural employer</I> means any person who owns or operates a farm, ranch, processing establishment, cannery, gin, packing shed or nursery, or who produces or conditions seed, and who either recruits, solicits, hires, employs, furnishes, or transports any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker. <I>Produces seed</I> means the planting, cultivation, growing and harvesting of seeds of agricultural or horticultural commodities. <I>Conditions seed</I> means the in-plant work done after seed production including the drying and aerating of seed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agricultural employment</I> means employment in any service or activity included within the provisions of section 3(f) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 203(f)), or section 3121(g) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (26 U.S.C. 3121(g)) and the handling, planting, drying, packing, packaging, processing, freezing, or grading prior to delivery for storage of any agricultural or horticultural commodity in its unmanufactured state.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Convicted</I> means that a final judgment of guilty has been rendered by a court of competent jurisdiction from which no opportunity for appeal remains.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Day-haul operation</I> means the assembly of workers at a pick-up point waiting to be hired and employed, transportation of such workers to agricultural employment, and the return of such workers to a drop-off point on the same day. This term does not include transportation provided by an employer for individuals who are already employees at the time they are picked up nor does it include carpooling arrangements by such employees which are not specifically directed or requested by the employer, farm labor contractor or agent thereof.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) The term <I>employ</I> has the meaning given such term under section 3(g) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 203(g)) for the purposes of implementing the requirements of that Act. As so defined, <I>employ</I> includes to suffer or permit to work.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>employer</I> is given its meaning as found in the Fair Labor Standards Act. <I>Employer</I> under section 3(d) of that Act includes any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>employee</I> is also given its meaning as found in the Fair Labor Standards Act. <I>Employee</I> under section 3(e) of that Act means any individual employed by an employer.
</P>
<P>(4) The definition of the term <I>employ</I> may include consideration of whether or not an <I>independent contractor</I> or <I>employment</I> relationship exists under the Fair Labor Standards Act. Under MSPA, questions will arise whether or not a farm labor contractor engaged by an agricultural employer/association is a bona fide independent contractor or an employee. Questions also arise whether or not the worker is a bona fide independent contractor or an employee of the farm labor contractor and/or the agricultural employer/association. These questions should be resolved in accordance with the factors set out below and the principles articulated by the federal courts in <I>Rutherford Food Corp.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 331 U.S. 722 (1947), <I>Real</I> v. <I>Driscoll Strawberry Associates, Inc.,</I> 603 F.2d 748 (9th Cir. 1979), <I>Sec'y of Labor, U.S. Dept. of Labor</I> v. <I>Lauritzen,</I> 835 F.2d 1529 (7th Cir. 1987), <I>cert.</I> denied, 488 U.S. 898 (1988); <I>Beliz</I> v. <I>McLeod,</I> 765 F.2d 1317 (5th Cir. 1985), and <I>Castillo</I> v. <I>Givens,</I> 704 F.2d 181 (5th Cir.), <I>cert. denied,</I> 464 U.S. 850 (1983). If it is determined that the farm labor contractor is an <I>employee</I> of the agricultural employer/association, the agricultural workers in the farm labor contractor's crew who perform work for the agricultural employer/association are deemed to be employees of the agricultural employer/association and an inquiry into joint employment is not necessary or appropriate. In determining if the farm labor contractor or worker is an employee or an independent contractor, the ultimate question is the economic reality of the relationship—whether there is economic dependence upon the agricultural employer/association or farm labor contractor, as appropriate. <I>Lauritzen</I> at 1538; <I>Beliz</I> at 1329; <I>Castillo</I> at 192; <I>Real</I> at 756. This determination is based upon an evaluation of all of the circumstances, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature and degree of the putative employer's control as to the manner in which the work is performed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The putative employee's opportunity for profit or loss depending upon his/her managerial skill;
</P>
<P>(iii) The putative employee's investment in equipment or materials required for the task, or the putative employee's employment of other workers; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the services rendered by the putative employee require special skill;
</P>
<P>(v) The degree of permanency and duration of the working relationship;
</P>
<P>(vi) The extent to which the services rendered by the putative employee are an integral part of the putative employer's business.
</P>
<P>(5) The definition of the term <I>employ</I> includes the <I>joint employment</I> principles applicable under the Fair Labor Standards Act. The term <I>joint employment</I> means a condition in which a single individual stands in the relation of an employee to two or more persons at the same time. A determination of whether the employment is to be considered joint employment depends upon all the facts in the particular case. If the facts establish that two or more persons are completely disassociated with respect to the employment of a particular employee, a joint employment situation does not exist. When the putative employers share responsibility for activities set out in the following factors or in other relevant facts, this is an indication that the putative employers are not completely disassociated with respect to the employment and that the agricultural worker may be economically dependent on both persons:
</P>
<P>(i) If it is determined that a farm labor contractor is an independent contractor, it still must be determined whether or not the employees of the farm labor contractor are also jointly employed by the agricultural employer/association. <I>Joint employment</I> under the Fair Labor Standards Act is joint employment under the MSPA. <I>Such joint employment</I> relationships, which are common in agriculture, have been addressed both in the legislative history and by the courts.
</P>
<P>(ii) The legislative history of the Act (H. Rep. No. 97-885, 97th Cong., 2d Sess., 1982) states that the legislative purpose in enacting MSPA was “to reverse the historical pattern of abuse and exploitation of migrant and seasonal farm workers * * *,” which would only be accomplished by “advanc[ing] * * * a completely new approach” (Rept. at 3). Congress's incorporation of the FLSA term <I>employ</I> was undertaken with the deliberate intent of adopting the FLSA <I>joint employer</I> doctrine as the “central foundation” of MSPA and “the best means by which to insure that the purposes of this MSPA would be fulfilled” (Rept. at 6). Further, Congress intended that the <I>joint employer</I> test under MSPA be the formulation as set forth in <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Griffin &amp; Brand of McAllen, Inc.</I> 471 F.2d 235 (5th Cir.), <I>cert. denied,</I> 414 U.S. 819 (1973) (Rept. at 7). In endorsing <I>Griffin &amp; Brand,</I> Congress stated that this formulation should be controlling in situations “where an agricultural employer * * * asserts that the agricultural workers in question are the <I>sole</I> employees of an independent contractor/crewleader,” and that the “decision makes clear that even if a farm labor contractor is found to be a bona fide independent contractor, * * * this status does not as a matter of law negate the possibility that an agricultural employer may be a joint employer * * * of the harvest workers” together with the farm labor contractor. Further, regarding the <I>joint employer</I> doctrine and the <I>Griffin &amp; Brand</I> formulation, Congress stated that “the absence of evidence on any of the criteria listed does not preclude a finding that an agricultural association or agricultural employer was a joint employer along with the crewleader”, and that “it is expected that the special aspects of agricultural employment be kept in mind” when applying the tests and criteria set forth in the case law and legislative history (Rept. at 8).
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining whether or not an employment relationship exists between the agricultural employer/association and the agricultural worker, the ultimate question to be determined is the economic reality—whether the worker is so economically dependent upon the agricultural employer/association as to be considered its employee.
</P>
<P>(iv) The factors set forth in paragraphs (h)(5)(iv)(A) through (G) of this section are analytical tools to be used in determining the ultimate question of economic dependency. The consideration of each factor, as well as the determination of the ultimate question of economic dependency, is a qualitative rather than quantitative analysis. The factors are not to be applied as a checklist. No one factor will be dispositive of the ultimate question; nor must a majority or particular combination of factors be found for an employment relationship to exist. The analysis as to the existence of an employment relationship is not a strict liability or <I>per se</I> determination under which any agricultural employer/association would be found to be an employer merely by retaining or benefiting from the services of a farm labor contractor. The factors set forth in paragraphs (h)(5)(iv)(A) through (G) of this section are illustrative only and are not intended to be exhaustive; other factors may be significant and, if so, should be considered, depending upon the specific circumstances of the relationship among the parties. How the factors are weighed depends upon all of the facts and circumstances. Among the factors to be considered in determining whether or not an employment relationship exists are:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the agricultural employer/association has the power, either alone or through control of the farm labor contractor to direct, control, or supervise the worker(s) or the work performed (such control may be either direct or indirect, taking into account the nature of the work performed and a reasonable degree of contract performance oversight and coordination with third parties);
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the agricultural employer/association has the power, either alone or in addition to another employer, directly or indirectly, to hire or fire, modify the employment conditions, or determine the pay rates or the methods of wage payment for the worker(s);
</P>
<P>(C) The degree of permanency and duration of the relationship of the parties, in the context of the agricultural activity at issue;
</P>
<P>(D) The extent to which the services rendered by the worker(s) are repetitive, rote tasks requiring skills which are acquired with relatively little training;
</P>
<P>(E) Whether the activities performed by the worker(s) are an integral part of the overall business operation of the agricultural employer/association;
</P>
<P>(F) Whether the work is performed on the agricultural employer/association's premises, rather than on premises owned or controlled by another business entity; and
</P>
<P>(G) Whether the agricultural employer/association undertakes responsibilities in relation to the worker(s) which are commonly performed by employers, such as preparing and/or making payroll records, preparing and/or issuing pay checks, paying FICA taxes, providing workers' compensation insurance, providing field sanitation facilities, housing or transportation, or providing tools and equipment or materials required for the job (taking into account the amount of the investment).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Farm labor contracting activity</I> means recruiting, soliciting, hiring, employing, furnishing, or transporting any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Farm labor contractor</I> means any person—other than an agricultural employer, an agricultural association, or an employee of an agricultural employer or agricultural association—who, for any money or other valuable consideration paid or promised to be paid, performs any farm labor contracting activity.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Farm Labor Contractor Certificate of Registration</I> or <I>Certificate of Registration</I> means the certificate issued by the Administrator which permits a farm labor contractor to engage in farm labor contracting activities.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Farm labor contractor employee</I> who is required to obtain a Certificate of Registration as an employee of a farm labor contractor means a person who performs farm labor contracting activity solely on behalf of a farm labor contractor holding a valid Certificate of Registration and is not an independent farm labor contractor who would be required to register under the Act in his own right.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate</I> or <I>Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration</I> or <I>Employee Certificate</I> means the certificate issued by the Administrator to an employee of a farm labor contractor authorizing the performance of farm labor contracting activities solely on behalf of such farm labor contractor and not as an independent farm labor contractor who would be required to register in his own right.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Illegal alien</I> means any person who is not lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States or who has not been authorized by the Attorney General to accept employment in the United States.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Immediate family</I> includes only:
</P>
<P>(1) A spouse;
</P>
<P>(2) Children, stepchildren, and foster children;
</P>
<P>(3) Parents, stepparents, and foster parents; and
</P>
<P>(4) Brothers and sisters.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Migrant agricultural worker</I> means an individual who is employed in agricultural employment of a seasonal or other temporary nature, and who is required to be absent overnight from his permanent place of residence.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Migrant agricultural worker</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any immediate family member of an agricultural employer or a farm labor contractor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any temporary nonimmigrant alien who is authorized to work in agricultural employment in the United States under sections 101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a) and 214(c) of the Immigration and Nationality Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permanent place of residence,</I> with respect to an individual, means a domicile or permanent home. Permanent place of residence does not include seasonal or temporary housing such as a labor camp. The term <I>permanent place of residence</I> for any nonimmigrant alien is that individual's country of origin.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, association, joint stock company, trust, cooperative, or corporation.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Seasonal agricultural worker</I> means an individual who is employed in agricultural employment of a seasonal or other temporary nature and is not required to be absent overnight from his permanent place of residence:
</P>
<P>(1) When employed on a farm or ranch performing field work related to planting, cultivating, or harvesting operations; or
</P>
<P>(2) When employed in canning, packing, ginning, seed conditioning or related research, or processing operations, and transported, or caused to be transported, to or from the place of employment by means of a day-haul operation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Seasonal agricultural worker</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any migrant agricultural worker;
</P>
<P>(B) Any immediate family member of an agricultural employer or a farm labor contractor; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any temporary nonimmigrant alien who is authorized to work in agricultural employment in the United States under sections 101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a) and 214(c) of the Immigration and Nationality Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Field work related to planting, cultivating or harvesting operations</I> includes all farming operations on a farm or ranch which are normally required to plant, harvest or produce agricultural or horticultural commodities, including the production of a commodity which normally occurs in the fields of a farm or ranch as opposed to those activities which generally occur in a processing plant or packing shed. A worker engaged in the placing of commodities in a container in the field and on-field loading of trucks and similar transports is included. Nursery, mushroom and similar workers engaged in activities in connection with planting, cultivating or harvesting operations are intended to be covered. An individual operating a machine, such as a picker, or tractor is not included when performing such activity.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>On a seasonal or other temporary basis</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Labor is performed on a seasonal basis where, ordinarily, the employment pertains to or is of the kind exclusively performed at certain seasons or periods of the year and which, from its nature, may not be continuous or carried on throughout the year. A worker who moves from one seasonal activity to another, while employed in agriculture or performing agricultural labor, is employed on a seasonal basis even though he may continue to be employed during a major portion of the year.
</P>
<P>(2) A worker is employed on <I>other temporary basis</I> where he is employed for a limited time only or his performance is contemplated for a particular piece of work, usually of short duration. Generally, employment, which is contemplated to continue indefinitely, is not temporary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>On a seasonal or other temporary basis</I> does not include the employment of any foreman or other supervisory employee who is employed by a specific agricultural employer or agricultural association essentially on a year round basis.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>On a seasonal or other temporary basis</I> does not include the employment of any worker who is living at his permanent place of residence, when that worker is employed by a specific agricultural employer or agricultural association on essentially a year round basis to perform a variety of tasks for his employer and is not primarily employed to do field work.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or the Secretary's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(u)(1) <I>Solicitor of Labor</I> means the Solicitor, United States Department of Labor, and includes attorneys designated by the Solicitor to perform functions of the Solicitor under these regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards</I> means the Associate Solicitor, who, among other duties, is in charge of litigation for the Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act (MSPA), Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regional Solicitors</I> means the attorneys in charge of the various regional offices of the Office of the Solicitor.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>State</I> means any of the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and Guam. <I>State agency</I> means a State agency vested with all powers necessary to cooperate with the U.S.
</P>
<FP>Department of Labor for purposes of entering into agreements to carry out the Act as provided in section 513 thereof.
</FP>
<P>(w) <I>Temporary nonimmigrant alien</I> means a person who has a residence in a foreign country which he does not intend to abandon and who comes temporarily to the United States, with approval of the Attorney General, to perform temporary service or labor.
</P>
<P>(x) The <I>Wagner-Peyser Act</I> is the Act of June 6, 1933 (48 Stat. 113; codified in 29 U.S.C. 49 <I>et seq.</I>), providing, inter alia, for the establishment of the U.S. Employment Service. <I>Employment Service of the various States</I> means a State agency vested with all powers necessary to cooperate with the U.S. Employment Service under the Wagner-Peyser Act.
</P>
<P>(y) The <I>Immigration and Nationality Act</I> (INA) as amended by the <I>Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986</I> (IRCA) to effectively control unauthorized immigration to the United States and for other purposes, is set out in 8 U.S.C. 1101 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983; 48 FR 38374, Aug. 23, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 13329, Mar. 31, 1989; 56 FR 54708, Oct. 22, 1991; 62 FR 11747, Mar. 12, 1997; 82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017; 86 FR 1786, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Applicability of the Act: Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.1.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.30   Persons not subject to the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Family business exemption.</I> Any individual who engages in a farm labor contracting activity on behalf of a farm, processing establishment, seed conditioning establishment, cannery, gin, packing shed, or nursery, which is owned or operated exclusively by such individual or an immediate family member of such individual, if such activities are performed only for such operation and exclusively by such individual or an immediate family member, but without regard to whether such individual has incorporated or otherwise organized for business purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Small business exemption.</I> Any person, other than a farm labor contractor, for whom the man-days exemption for agricultural labor provided under section 13(a)(6)(A) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 213(a)(6)(A)) is applicable. That exemption applies to an agricultural employer who did not, during any calendar quarter of the preceding calendar year, use more man-days of agricultural labor than the limit specified under that statute.
</P>
<P>(1) Currently the limit for exemption is 500 man-days.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>man-day</I> means any day during which an employee performs agricultural labor for not less than one (1) hour. Agricultural labor performed by an employer's parent, spouse, child, or other member of his immediate family, i.e., step-children, foster children, step-parents and foster parents, brothers, and sisters is not counted as man-days.
</P>
<P>(3) The man-days of agricultural labor rendered in a joint employment relationship are counted toward the man-days of such labor of each employer for purposes of the man-day test of this exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Common carriers.</I> Any common carrier which would be a farm labor contractor solely because the carrier is engaged in the farm labor contracting activity of transporting any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker. A “common carrier” by motor vehicle is one which holds itself out to the general public to engage in transportation of passengers for hire, whether over regular or irregular routes, and which holds a valid certificate of authorization for such purposes from an appropriate local, State or Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labor organizations.</I> Any labor organization, as defined in section 2(5) of the Labor Management Relations Act (29 U.S.C. 152(5)) (without regard to the exclusion of agricultural employees in that Act) or as defined under applicable State labor relations law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nonprofit charitable organizations.</I> Any nonprofit charitable organization or public or private nonprofit educational institution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Local short-term contracting activity.</I> Any person who engages in any farm labor contracting activity solely within a twenty-five mile intrastate radius of such person's permanent place of residence and for not more than thirteen weeks per year.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Twenty-five mile intrastate radius</I> as used in section 4(a)(3)(D) of the Act means that engagement in a farm labor contracting activity may not go beyond a twenty-five mile intrastate geographical radius. Once this limit is transcended, the exemption no longer applies and the person becomes subject to the requirements of the Act. If, for example, a person or his employee solicits workers from a distance greater than twenty-five miles from his permanent residence or from across a State line, then the person has engaged in a named activity outside of the permitted scope of the exemption, and is subject to the requirements of the Act. A person who uses lines of communication (such as U.S. Mail, telephone, or advertising) to recruit, solicit, hire, or furnish workers over a distance greater than twenty-five miles from his permanent residence or from across a State line for agricultural employment is also engaged in a named activity beyond the specified limit of the exemption and is subject to the Act. In the case of a corporation its permanent place of residence for these purposes shall be a single designated location.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For not more than thirteen weeks per year</I> as used in section 4(a)(3)(D) of the Act means that farm labor contracting activities may not be engaged in for more than thirteen weeks in a year. This does not mean, however,
</P>
<FP>that persons who engage in intrastate and short-range farm labor contracting activities are exempt for the first thirteen weeks of their farm labor contracting activities each year. The number of weeks of contracting activity during the prior year is also a factor. When the limit of weeks for the exemption is exceeded in a calendar year, the person is subject immediately to the Act and is also presumed subject to the Act in the next calendar year, unless it can be shown that the tests of section 4(a)(3)(D) are met.
</FP>
<P>(g) <I>Custom combine.</I> Any custom combine, hay harvesting, or sheep shearing operation. <I>Custom combine, hay harvesting, and sheep shearing operation</I> means the agricultural services and activities involved in combining grain, harvesting hay and shearing sheep which are provided to a farmer on a contract basis by a person who provides the necessary equipment and labor and who specializes on providing such services and activities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Custom poultry operations.</I> Any custom poultry harvesting, breeding, debeaking, desexing, or health service operation, provided the employees of the operation are not regularly required to be away from their permanent place of residence other than during their normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Seed production exemption.</I> (1) Any person whose principal occupation or business is not agricultural employment, when supplying full-time students or other individuals whose principal occupation is not agricultural employment to detassel, rogue, or otherwise engage in the production of seed and to engage in related and incidental agricultural employment, unless such full-time students or other individuals are required to be away from their permanent place of residence overnight or there are individuals under eighteen years of age who are providing transportation on behalf of such person.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person to the extent he is supplied with students or other individuals for agricultural employment in accordance with paragraph (i)(1) of this section by a person who is exempt thereunder.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Shade grown tobacco.</I> (1) Any person whose principal occupation or business is not agricultural employment, when supplying full-time students or other individuals whose principal occupation is not agricultural employment to string or harvest shade grown tobacco and to engage in related and incidental agricultural employment, unless there are individuals under eighteen years of age who are providing transportation on behalf of such person.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person to the extent he is supplied with students or other individuals for agricultural employment is accordance with paragraph (j)(1) of this section by a person who is exempt thereunder.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Employees of exempt employers.</I> Any employee of any person described in paragraphs (c) through (j) of this section when performing farm labor contracting activities within the scope of such exemptions and exclusively for such person.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Registration of Farm Labor Contractors and Employees of Farm Labor Contractors Engaged in Farm Labor Contracting Activities</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="26" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Registration Requirements; General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.40" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.40   Registration in general.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who desires to engage in any activity as a farm labor contractor, as defined in the Act and these regulations, and is not exempt, is required first to obtain a Certificate of Registration authorizing each such activity. Any employee of a registered farm labor contractor who performs farm labor contracting activities solely on behalf of such contractor, and who is not an independent contractor, must obtain a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration authorizing each such activity. The employee's certificate must show the name of the farm labor contractor for whom the activities are to be performed. The contractor whose name appears on the employee's certificate must hold a valid Certificate of Registration covering the entire period shown on the employee's certificate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.41" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.41   Farm labor contractor is responsible for actions of his farm labor contractor employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A farm labor contractor is responsible for assuring that every employee who is performing farm labor contracting activities on behalf of such contractor has obtained either a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration or a Certificate of Registration as an independent farm labor contractor, as required by the Act and these regulations, prior to such employee's engagement in any activity enumerated in section 3(6) of the Act. A farm labor contractor who utilizes the services of another farm labor contractor who is not his employee must also comply with the provisions of § 500.71. The farm labor contractor is responsible for any violations of the Act or these regulations committed by his employee, whether or not the employee has registered as required by the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration is valid only during the period in which the holder is an employee of the registered farm labor contractor named on the Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate. If prior to the expiration of the Employee Certificate, the holder through a change in employment, should become an employee of a different registered farm labor contractor, a replacements Employee Certificate which names the new employer may be obtained by submitting to the regional office that issued the original employee certificate or to any regional office of the Wage and Hour Division, a written statement that includes the date of the change in employment status and the name, the permanent place of residence and certificate registration number of the new employer. Any such change should be reported immediately.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.42" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.42   Certificate of Registration to be carried and exhibited.</HEAD>
<P>Each registered farm labor contractor and registered farm labor contractor employee shall carry at all times while engaging in farm labor contracting activities, a Certificate of Registration or a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate as appropriate and, upon request, shall exhibit that certificate to representatives of the U.S. Department of Labor and State Employment Service Agencies and to all persons with whom he intends to deal as a farm labor contractor or farm labor contractor employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.43" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.43   Effect of failure to produce certificate.</HEAD>
<P>The facilities and the services authorized by the Wagner-Peyser Act shall be denied to any farm labor contractor upon refusal or failure to produce, when asked, a Certificate of Registration. Services shall be provided upon presentation of a valid Certificate of Registration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="27" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.27" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Applications and Renewal of Farm Labor Contractor and Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificates</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.44" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.44   Form of application.</HEAD>
<P>An application for issuance or renewal of a Farm Labor Contractor Certificate of Registration or Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate shall be made on forms designated by the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.45" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.45   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall set forth the information required thereon which shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A declaration, subscribed and sworn to by the applicant, stating the applicant's permanent place of residence, the farm labor contracting activities for which the certificate is requested, and the address to which official documents should be mailed;
</P>
<P>(b) A statement identifying each vehicle to be used to transport any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker and, if the vehicle is or will be owned or controlled by the applicant, documentation showing that the applicant for a Farm Labor Contractor Certificate of Registration is in compliance with the requirements of section 401 of the Act with respect to each such vehicle;
</P>
<P>(c) A statement identifying each facility or real property to be used to house any migrant agricultural worker and, if the facility or real property is or will be owned or controlled by the applicant, documentation showing that the applicant for a Farm Labor Contractor Certificate of Registration is in compliance with section 203 of the Act with respect to each such facility or real property;
</P>
<P>(d) A set of fingerprints of the applicant on Form FD 258 as prescribed by the U.S. Department of Justice;
</P>
<P>(e) A declaration, subscribed and sworn to by the applicant, consenting to the designation by a court of the Secretary as an agent available to accept service of summons in any action against the applicant, if the applicant has left the jurisdiction in which the action is commenced or otherwise has become unavailable to accept service; and
</P>
<P>(f) Such other relevant information as the Secretary may require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.46" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.46   Filing an application.</HEAD>
<P>Registration under the Act is required whether or not licensing or registration is required under State law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.47" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.47   Place for filing application.</HEAD>
<P>Application forms may be filed in any State Employment Service Office or in any office of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="28" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Action on Application</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.48" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.48   Issuance of certificate.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator or authorized representative shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Review each application received and determine whether such application is complete and properly executed;
</P>
<P>(b) When appropriate, notify the applicant in writing of any incompleteness or error in the application and return the application for correction and completion;
</P>
<P>(c) Determine, after appropriate investigation, whether the applicant has complied with the requirements of the Act and these regulations, and if appropriate, issue a Certificate of
</P>
<FP>Registration or a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration authorizing the performance of one or more activities permitted under the Act;
</FP>
<P>(d) Authorize the activity of transporting a migrant or seasonal agricultural worker, subject to the maximum number of workers authorized to be transported under the vehicle liability policy and as indicated on the face of the Certificate of Registration, only upon receipt of:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement in the manner prescribed by the Secretary identifying each vehicle to be used, or caused to be used, by the applicant for the transportation of any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker during the period for which registration is sought;
</P>
<P>(2) Written proof that every such vehicle which is under the applicant's ownership or control, is in compliance with the vehicle safety requirements of the Act and these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Written proof that every such vehicle is in compliance with the insurance requirements of the Act and these regulations;
</P>
<P>(e) Authorize the activity of driving a vehicle to transport a migrant or seasonal agricultural worker only upon receipt of (1) A doctor's certificate on the prescribed form, with an initial application for a Certificate of Registration or a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate, and, when applying for a renewal, a new completed doctor's certificate if the previous doctor's certificate is more than three years old; and (2) evidence of a valid and appropriate license, as provided by State law, to operate the vehicle; and
</P>
<P>(f) Authorize the activity of housing a migrant agricultural worker only upon receipt of (1) A statement identifying each facility or real property to be used for housing a migrant agricultural worker during the period for which registration is sought; and (2) if the facility or real property is or will be owned or controlled by the applicant, written proof that the facility or real property complies with the applicable Federal and State standards of health and safety. Such written proof may be either a certification issued by a State or local health authority or other appropriate agency, or a copy of a written request for the inspection of a facility or real property made to the appropriate State or local agency at least forty-five days prior to the date on which the facility or real property is to be occupied by migrant agricultural workers, dated and signed by the applicant or other person who owns or controls the facility or real property. If housing authorization is issued based on a written request for inspection and the housing facility or real property is subsequently inspected and does not meet the appropriate standards, the housing authorization is null and void. Should the required written proof for housing authorization be unavailable at the time of filing an application, the applicant must attest in writing that the applicant will not house any migrant agricultural worker in any facility or real property owned or controlled by the applicant, until such applicant shall have submitted all necessary written proof and obtained a Farm Labor Contractor Certificate of Registration showing that housing in the facility or real property is authorized by the Secretary of Labor. In such event, if otherwise eligible, the applicant will be issued a Certificate of Registration without a housing authorization. This certificate may be amended to include an authorization to house at such time as the required proof is forthcoming.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 24865, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.50   Duration of certificate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial certificates of farm labor contractors and farm labor contractor employees.</I> (1) An initial certificate issued under the Act and these regulations shall expire twelve months from the date of issuance unless earlier suspended or revoked.
</P>
<P>(2) Certificates applied for during the period beginning April 14, 1983, and ending November 30, 1983, may be issued for a period of up to twenty-four months for the purpose of an orderly transition to registration under the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) Certificates issued to employees of farm labor contractors shall expire at the suspension, revocation or expiration of the farm labor contractor's Certificate of Registration under which such employee was authorized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certificate renewal of farm labor contractors and farm labor contractor employees.</I> (1) A certificate issued under the Act and these regulations may be temporarily extended by the filing of a properly completed and signed application with the Secretary at least thirty days prior to the expiration date. “Filing” may be accomplished by hand delivery, certified mail, or regular mail.
</P>
<P>(i) If the application for renewal is filed by regular mail or if it is delivered in person by the applicant, it must be <I>received</I> by the Department of Labor or an authorized representative of the Department of Labor at least 30 days prior to the expiration date shown on the current certificate.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the application for renewal is filed by certified mail, it must be <I>mailed</I> at least 30 days prior to the expiration date shown on the current certificate.
</P>
<FP>Where timely application for renewal has been filed, the authority to operate pursuant to a valid certificate under the Act and these regulations shall continue until the renewal application has been finally determined by the Secretary.
</FP>
<P>(2) A certificate issued under the Act and these regulations may be renewed by the Secretary for additional twelve-month periods or for periods in excess of twelve months but not in excess of twenty-four months.
</P>
<P>(3) Eligibility for renewals of certificates for more than twelve months under the Act and these regulations shall be limited to those farm labor contractors and farm labor contractor employees who have not been cited during the preceding five years for a violation of the Act or any regulation under the Act, or the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act or any regulation under such Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Continuation of certain FLCRA certificates.</I> (1) Certificates issued under FLCRA, and in effect on April 14, 1983, that are valid for the services performed under FLCRA, will be continued in effect and be accepted as authorization to perform like services under the Act and these regulations for the remainder of calendar year 1983. Such certificates will be subject to the Act and these regulations with respect to determinations to suspend, revoke or refuse renewal.
</P>
<P>(2) Actions pending related to the suspension, revocation, or refusal to issue or renew FLCRA certificates shall continue through to a final determination. Any such certificate which is considered to be in effect under title 29 CFR 40.21 pending a final determination, will be considered valid under MSPA, provided application for a certificate under MSPA is made no later than November 30, 1983.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 13329, Mar. 31, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.51" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.51   Refusal to issue or to renew, or suspension or revocation of certificate.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may suspend or revoke or refuse to issue or to renew a Certificate of Registration (including a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate) if the applicant or holder:
</P>
<P>(a) Has knowingly made any misrepresentation in the application for such certificate;
</P>
<P>(b) Is not the real party in interest in the application or Certificate of Registration and the real party in interest is a person who has been refused issuance or renewal of a certificate, has had a certificate suspended or revoked, or does not qualify under this section for a certificate;
</P>
<P>(c) Has failed to comply with the Act or these regulations;
</P>
<P>(d) Has failed to pay any court judgment obtained by the Secretary or any other person under the Act or these regulations or under the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act of 1963 or any regulation under such Act;
</P>
<P>(e) Has failed to comply with any final order issued by the Secretary as a result of a violation of the Act or these regulations or a violation of the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act of 1963 or any regulation under such Act;
</P>
<P>(f) Has been convicted within the preceding five years:
</P>
<P>(1) Of any crime under State or Federal law relating to gambling, or to the sale, distribution or possession of alcoholic beverages, in connection with or incident to any farm labor contracting activities, or
</P>
<P>(2) Of any felony under State or Federal law involving robbery, bribery, extortion, embezzlement, grand larceny, burglary, arson, violation of narcotics laws, murder, rape, assault with intent to kill, assault which inflicts grievous bodily injury, prostitution, peonage, or smuggling or harboring individuals who have entered the United States illegally.
</P>
<P>(g) Has been found to have violated paragraph (1) or (2) of section 274A(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA) by hiring, recruiting, or referring for a fee, for employment in the United States, (1) An alien knowing the alien is an unauthorized alien as defined in section 274A(h)(3) of INA with respect to such employment, or (2) an individual without complying with the requirements concerning verification of the person's identity and employment authorization as stated in section 274A(b) of INA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 13329, Mar. 31, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.52" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.52   Right to hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any applicant or holder who desires an administrative hearing on the determination to refuse to issue or to renew, or to suspend or to revoke, a Certificate of Registration or a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration, shall make a request in accordance with § 500.212, no later than thirty (30) days after service of the notice referred to in § 500.210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.53" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.53   Nontransfer of certificate.</HEAD>
<P>A Certificate of Registration may not be transferred or assigned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.54" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.54   Change of address.</HEAD>
<P>During the period for which the Certificate of Registration or Employee Certificate is in effect, each farm labor contractor or farm labor contractor employee shall provide to the Secretary, within thirty (30) days, a notice of each change of permanent place of residence in accordance with § 500.215.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.55" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.55   Changes to or amendments of certificate authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the period for which the Certificate of Registration is in effect, a farm labor contractor must apply to the Secretary to amend the Certificate of Registration whenever he intends to:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in another farm labor contracting activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Use, or cause to be used, another vehicle than that covered by the certificate to transport any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker; or
</P>
<P>(3) Use, or cause to be used, another real property or facility to house any migrant agricultural worker than that covered by the certificate.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever another vehicle or housing facility or real property is or will be owned, operated, or controlled by the farm labor contractor, the farm labor contractor must submit the appropriate information to obtain transportation, driving or housing authorization, as applicable, as described in § 500.48, within 10 days after the contractor obtains or learns of the intended use of such vehicle or housing facility or real property.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding submission of the appropriate information, the farm labor contractor must comply with all
</P>
<FP>applicable motor safety, insurance, and housing safety and health provisions of the Act and these regulations. With regard to housing, the farm labor contractor must submit the appropriate housing documentation as well as comply with the housing safety and health provisions of the Act and these regulations, prior to occupancy by a migrant agricultural worker.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.56" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.28.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.56   Replacement of Certificate of Registration or Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate.</HEAD>
<P>If a Certificate of Registration or a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate is lost or destroyed, a duplicate certificate may be obtained by the submission to the regional office that issued it or to any regional office of the Wage and Hour Division, of a written statement explaining its loss or destruction, indicating where the original application was filed and requesting that a duplicate be issued.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="29" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.29" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Obligations of Farm Labor Contractors and Farm Labor Contractor Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.60" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.29.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.60   Farm labor contractors' recruitment, contractual and general obligations.</HEAD>
<P>The Act imposes certain specific recruitment, contractual and general obligations on farm labor contractors and farm labor contractor employees. The contractor is responsible for any violations under the Act committed by his employee. Each of the following obligations applies to both farm labor contractors and farm labor contractor employees.
</P>
<P>(a) Each farm labor contractor shall provide to any other farm labor contractor and to any agricultural employer and agricultural association to which such farm labor contractor has furnished any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker, copies of all records for that place of employment which such farm labor contractor is required to retain for each worker furnished or supplied. The recipient of these records shall keep them for a period of three years.
</P>
<P>(b) Each farm labor contractor, without regard to any other provisions of this Act, shall obtain at each place of employment and make available for inspection to every worker he furnishes for employment, a written statement of the conditions of such employment as described in sections 201(b) and 301(b) of the Act and §§ 500.75 and 500.76 of these regulations. As with the written disclosure statements under §§ 500.76 and 500.77, these statements must be provided to the workers in English or, as necessary and reasonable, in Spanish or another language common to migrant or seasonal agricultural workers who are not fluent in English.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) No farm labor contractor shall violate, without justification, the terms of any written agreements made with an agricultural employer or an agricultural association pertaining to any contracting activity or worker protection under the Act. Normally, “without justification” would not include situations in which failure to comply with the terms of any written agreements was directly attributable to Acts of God, due to conditions beyond the control of the person or to conditions which he could not reasonably foresee.
</P>
<P>(2) Written agreements do not relieve a farm labor contractor of any responsibility that such contractor would otherwise have under the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) All payroll records made by the farm labor contractor must be retained by him for a period of three years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.61" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.29.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.61   Farm labor contractors must comply with all worker protections and all other statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Every farm labor contractor must comply with all of the provisions of titles I through V of the Act and all of the subparts of these regulations, unless subject to a specific statutory exemption. In addition to complying with all of the standards stated in subparts A and B of these regulations, every farm labor contractor must comply with each provision stated in subpart C and the motor vehicle safety and insurance and housing standards stated in subpart D.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.62" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.2.29.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.62   Obligations of a person holding a valid Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration.</HEAD>
<P>Any person holding a valid Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration in accordance with the Act and these regulations is required to comply with the Act and these regulations to the same extent as if said person had been required to obtain a Certificate of Registration in such person's own name as a farm labor contractor.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Worker Protections</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="30" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.30" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.70" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.70   Scope of worker protections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Act provides protections for migrant and seasonal agricultural workers irrespective of whether they are employed by a farm labor contractor, an agricultural employer or an agricultural association, or, in the case where there is joint responsibility, by more than one of these persons. The Act's provisions include standards relating to vehicle safety, housing safety and health, disclosure of wages, hours and other conditions of employment, and recordkeeping. When any person not otherwise exempt from the Act recruits, solicits, hires, employs, furnishes or transports workers, that person is required to comply with the applicable protective provisions of the Act. In addition, any person not specifically exempt from coverage of the Act (irrespective of whether that person is an agricultural employer, an agricultural association or farm labor contractor) who owns or controls a facility or real property which is used as housing for any migrant agricultural workers must ensure that the facility or real property complies with all substantive Federal and State safety and health standards made applicable to that type of housing. (See § 500.132)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Wage related protections.</I> Joint employment under the Fair Labor Standards Act, which establishes responsibility for the maintenance of payroll records, payment of wages and posting of notices under that law, is joint employment under MSPA for establishing responsibility for the maintenance of records, payment of wages and the posting of required posters under MSPA. In such joint employment situations the responsibility for assuring these MSPA protections may be carried out by one of the joint employers. While under a joint employment relationship all joint employers are equally responsible for assuring that the appropriate protections are provided, the creation of such a joint employment relationship does not also require unnecessary duplication of effort as, for example, in relation to the posting of posters (see §§ 500.75(e) and 500.76(e)) or the provision of an itemized written statement of the worker's pay (see § 500.80(d)). Failure to provide protections coming within the joint employment relationship, however, will result in all joint employers being responsible for that failure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transportation related protections.</I> Responsibility for compliance with the motor vehicle safety and insurance provisions of section 401 of the Act and §§ 500.100 through 500.128 of these regulations is imposed upon the person or persons using or causing to be used, any vehicle for transportation of migrant or seasonal agricultural workers. As stated in these regulations, the transportation safety provisions do not include certain car pooling arrangements. Additionally, these regulations do not impose responsibility on an agricultural employer or agricultural association for a farm labor contractor's failure to adhere to the safety provisions provided in these regulations when the farm labor contractor is providing the vehicles and directing their use. However, when an agricultural employer or agricultural association specifically directs or requests a farm labor contractor to use the contractor's vehicle to carry out a task for the agricultural employer or agricultural association, such direction constitutes causing the vehicle to be used and the agricultural employer or agricultural association is jointly responsible with the farm labor contractor for assuring that the vehicle meets the insurance, and safety and health provisions of these regulations. In all cases a person using a farm labor contractor is required to take reasonable steps to determine that the vehicle used by the farm labor contractor is authorized to be used for transportation as prescribed in section 402 of the Act and § 500.71 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Housing related protections.</I> Responsibility for compliance with the housing safety and health provisions of section 203 of the Act and §§ 500.130 through 500.135 of these regulations is imposed upon the person (or persons) who owns or controls a facility or real property used as housing for migrant agricultural workers. Any agricultural employer or agricultural association which has a farm labor contractor operate housing which it owns or controls is responsible, as well as the farm labor contractor, for insuring compliance with the housing safety and health provisions of these regulations. When the owner or operator of the housing is not an agricultural employer, agricultural association or farm labor contractor, the owner is responsible for that housing meeting the safety and health provisions under the Act and these regulations. This is subject to the exclusion stated in § 500.131 of these regulations which provides that the housing safety and health requirements do not apply to any person who, in the ordinary course of that person's business, regularly provides housing on a commercial basis to the general public and who provides housing to any migrant agricultural worker of the same character and on the same or comparable terms and conditions as provided to the general public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.71" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.71   Utilization of only registered farm labor contractors.</HEAD>
<P>The Act prohibits any person from utilizing the services of a farm labor contractor to supply migrant or seasonal agricultural workers without first taking reasonable steps to determine that the farm labor contractor possesses a valid Certificate of Registration, issued pursuant to the Act, which authorizes the activity for which the contractor is to be utilized. This prohibition also applies to a farm labor contractor who wishes to utilize the services of another farm labor contractor (see § 500.41). In making the determination about a contractor's registration status, a person may rely upon the contractor's possession of a Certificate of Registration which on its face is valid and which authorizes the activity for which the contractor is utilized. A person has the alternative to confirm the contractor's registration through the central registry maintained by the United States Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.72" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.72   Agreements with workers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act prohibits farm labor contractors, agricultural employers and agricultural associations from violating, without justification, the terms of any working arrangements they have made with migrant or seasonal agricultural workers. Normally, “without justification” would not include situations in which failure to comply with the terms of any working arrangements was directly attributable to acts of God, due to conditions beyond the control of the person or to conditions which he could not reasonably foresee.
</P>
<P>(b) Written agreements do not relieve any person of any responsibility that the person would otherwise have under the Act or these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.73" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.73   Required purchase of goods or services solely from any person prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>The Act prohibits a farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association from requiring a migrant or seasonal agricultural worker to purchase goods or services solely from such farm labor contractor, agricultural employer, or agricultural association, or any other person acting as an agent for any person subject to this prohibition.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="31" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.31" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Recruiting, Hiring and Providing Information to Migrant Agricultural Workers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.75" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.31.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.75   Disclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where disclosure is required, Department of Labor optional forms may be used to satisfy the requirements of disclosure under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer, and agricultural association which recruits any migrant agricultural worker shall ascertain to the best of his ability and disclose, in writing to the extent that he has obtained such information, to such worker at the time of recruitment, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The place of employment (with as much specificity as practical, such as the name and address of the employer or the association);
</P>
<P>(2) The wage rates (including piece rates) to be paid;
</P>
<P>(3) The crops and kinds of activities on which the worker may be employed;
</P>
<P>(4) The period of employment;
</P>
<P>(5) The transportation, housing, and any other employee benefits to be provided, if any, and any costs to be charged for each of them;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether state workers' compensation or state unemployment insurance is provided:
</P>
<P>(i) If workers' compensation is provided, the required disclosure must include the name of the workers' compensation insurance carrier, the name(s) of the policyholder(s), the name and telephone number of each person who must be notified of an injury or death, and the time period within which such notice must be given.
</P>
<P>(ii) The information requirement in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section may be satisfied by giving the worker a photocopy of any workers' compensation notice required by State law;.
</P>
<P>(7) The existence of any strike or other concerted work stoppage, slowdown, or interruption of operations by employees at the place of employment; and
</P>
<P>(8) The existence of any arrangements with any owner or agent of any establishment in the area of employment under which the farm labor contractor, the agricultural employer, or the agricultural association is to receive a commission or any other benefit resulting from any sales by such establishment to the workers.
</P>
<P>(c) Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association which employs any migrant agricultural worker shall post (and maintain) in a conspicuous place at the place of employment a poster provided by the Secretary of Labor, which sets out the rights and protections for workers required under the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer (other than a farm labor contractor) of any migrant agricultural worker, shall provide at the place of employment on request of the worker, a written statement of the conditions of employment. A farm labor contractor shall provide such information in accordance with § 500.60(b) of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) In a joint employment situation, each employer is equally responsible for displaying and maintaining the poster and for responding to worker requests for written statements of the conditions of employment which are made during the course of employment. This joint responsibility, however, does not require needless duplication, such as would occur if each employer posted the same poster or provided the same written statement with respect to the same employment conditions. Failure to provide the information required by a joint employment relationship, however, will result in all joint employers being responsible for that failure.
</P>
<P>(f) Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association which provides housing for any migrant agricultural worker shall post in a conspicuous place (at the site of the housing) or present in the form of a written statement to the worker the following information on the terms and conditions of occupancy of such housing, if any:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the farm labor contractor, agricultural employer
</P>
<FP>or agricultural association providing the housing;
</FP>
<P>(2) The name and address of the individual in charge of the housing;
</P>
<P>(3) The mailing address and phone number where persons living in the housing facility may be reached;
</P>
<P>(4) Who may live at the housing facility;
</P>
<P>(5) The charges to be made for housing;
</P>
<P>(6) The meals to be provided and the charges to be made for them;
</P>
<P>(7) The charges for utilities; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any other charges or conditions of occupancy.
</P>
<P>(g) If the terms and conditions of occupancy are posted, the poster shall be displayed and maintained during the entire period of occupancy. If the terms and conditions of occupancy are disclosed to the worker through a statement (rather than through a posting), such statement shall be provided to the worker prior to occupancy. Department of Labor optional forms may be used to satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 24866, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="32" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.32" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hiring and Providing Information to Seasonal Agricultural Workers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.76" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.32.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.76   Disclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where disclosure is required, Department of Labor optional forms may be used to satisfy the requirements of disclosure under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association, which recruits any seasonal agricultural worker for employment on a farm or ranch to perform field work related to planting, cultivating or harvesting operations, shall ascertain and, upon request, disclose in writing the following information to such worker when an offer of employment is made:
</P>
<P>(1) The place of employment (with as much specificity as practical, such as the name and address of the employer or the association);
</P>
<P>(2) The wage rates (including piece rates) to be paid;
</P>
<P>(3) The crops and kinds of activities on which the worker may be employed;
</P>
<P>(4) The period of employment;
</P>
<P>(5) The transportation and any other employee benefits to be provided, if any, and any costs to be charged for each of them;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether state workers' compensation or state unemployment insurance is provided:
</P>
<P>(i) If workers' compensation is provided, the required disclosure must include the name of the workers' compensation insurance carrier, the name(s) of the policyholder(s), the name and telephone number of each person who must be notified of an injury or death, and the time period within which such notice must be given.
</P>
<P>(ii) The information requirement in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section may satisfied giving the worker a photocopy of any workers' compensation notice required by State law;
</P>
<P>(7) The existence of any strike or other concerted work stoppage, slowdown, or interruption of operations by employees at the place of employment; and
</P>
<P>(8) The existence of any arrangements with any owner or agent of any establishment in the area of employment under which the farm labor contractor, the agricultural employer, or the agricultural association is to receive a commission or any other benefit resulting from any sales by such establishment to the workers.
</P>
<P>(c) Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association which recruits any seasonal agricultural worker for employment through the use of day-haul operation in canning, packing, ginning, seed conditioning or related research, or processing operations, shall ascertain and disclose in writing to the worker at the time of recruitment the information on employment conditions set out in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association which employs any seasonal agricultural worker shall post (and maintain) at the place of employment in a conspicuous place readily accessible to the worker a poster provided by the Secretary of Labor which sets out the rights and protections for such worker required under the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Such employer shall provide, on request of the worker, a written statement of the information described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) In a joint employment situation, each employer is equally responsible for displaying and maintaining the poster and for responding to worker requests for written statements of the conditions of employment which are made during the course of employment. This joint responsibility, however, does not require needless duplication, such as would occur if each employer posted the same poster or provided the same written statement with respect to the same employment conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 24866, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="33" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.33" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employment Information Furnished</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.77" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.33.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.77   Accuracy of information furnished.</HEAD>
<P>No farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association shall knowingly provide false or misleading information on the terms, conditions or existence of agricultural employment and housing required to be disclosed by the Act and these regulations to any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.78" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.33.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.78   Information in foreign language.</HEAD>
<P>Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association shall make all required written disclosures to the worker, including the written disclosures of the terms and conditions of occupancy of housing to be provided to any migrant worker, in English or, as necessary and reasonable, in Spanish or another language common to migrant or seasonal agricultural workers who are not fluent or literate in English. The Department of Labor shall make forms available in English, Spanish, Haitian-Creole and other languages, as necessary, which may be used in providing workers with such information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="34" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.34" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Wages and Payroll Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.80" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.34.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.80   Payroll records required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association which employs any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker shall make and keep the following records with respect to each worker including the name, permanent address, and Social Security number:
</P>
<P>(1) The basis on which wages, are paid;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of piecework units earned, if paid on a piecework basis;
</P>
<P>(3) The number of hours worked;
</P>
<P>(4) The total pay period earnings;
</P>
<P>(5) The specific sums withheld and the purpose of each sum withheld; and
</P>
<P>(6) The net pay.
</P>
<P>(b) Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association which employs any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker shall preserve all payroll records with respect to each such worker for a period of three years.
</P>
<P>(c) When a farm labor contractor furnishes any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker, and the farm labor contractor is the employer, the farm labor contractor must furnish the agricultural employer, agricultural association or other farm labor contractor to whom the workers are furnished, a copy of all payroll records required under paragraph (a) of this section which the farm labor contractor has made regarding such worker for that place of employment. The person receiving such records shall maintain them for a period of three years.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to making records of this payroll information, the farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association shall provide each migrant or seasonal agricultural worker employed with an itemized written statement of this information at the time of payment for each pay period which must be no less often than every two weeks (or semi-monthly). Such statement shall also include the employer's name, address, and employer identification number assigned by the Internal Revenue Service. This responsibility does not require needless duplication such as would occur if each provided the worker with a written itemized statement for the same work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.81" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.3.34.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.81   Payment of wages when due.</HEAD>
<P>Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association which employs any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker must pay the wages owed such worker when due. In meeting this responsibility, the farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association shall pay the worker no less often than every two weeks (or semi-monthly).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Motor Vehicle Safety and Insurance for Transportation of Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Workers, Housing Safety and Health for Migrant Workers</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="35" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.35" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Motor Vehicle Safety</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.100   Vehicle safety obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General obligations.</I> Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association which uses, or causes to be used, any vehicle to transport a migrant or seasonal agricultural worker shall ensure that such vehicle conforms to vehicle safety standards prescribed by the Secretary of Labor under the Act and with other applicable Federal and State safety standards. Each farm labor contractor, agricultural employer and agricultural association shall also ensure that each driver of any such vehicle has a currently valid motor vehicle operator's permit or license, as provided by applicable State law, to operate the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proof of compliance with vehicle safety standards.</I> Prima facie evidence that safety standards have been met will be shown by the presence of a current State vehicle inspection sticker. Such sticker will not, however, relieve the farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association from responsibility for maintaining the vehicle in accordance with § 500.104 or § 500.105, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uses or causes to be used.</I> The term “uses or causes to be used” as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section does not include carpooling arrangements made by the workers themselves, using one of the workers' own vehicles. However, carpooling does not include any transportation arrangement in which a farm labor contractor participates or which is specifically directed or requested by an agricultural employer or an agricultural association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.101   Promulgation and adoption of vehicle standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> All transportation of migrant and seasonal agricultural workers, whether on the farm or on the road, shall be subject to the vehicle safety standards of the Act, except for activities under the circumstances set out in § 500.103.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance required.</I> Any violation of the standards promulgated by the Secretary in § 500.104 or adopted by the Secretary in § 500.105 shall be a violation of the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Development of Department of Labor Standards.</I> In developing the regulations in § 500.104, the Secretary has considered among other factors: (1) The type of vehicle used, (2) the passenger capacity of the vehicle, (3) the distance which such workers will be carried in the vehicle, (4) the type of roads and highways on which such workers will be carried in the vehicle, and (5) the extent to which a proposed standard would cause an undue burden on agricultural employers, agricultural associations, or farm labor contractors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adoption of Department of Transportation (DOT) Standards.</I> In accordance with section 401(b)(2)(C) of the Act, the Secretary has adopted in § 500.105 of these regulations, the DOT standards, without regard to the mileage and boundary limitations established in 49 U.S.C. 3102(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.102   Applicability of vehicle safety standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any passenger automobile or station wagon used or caused to be used by any farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association to transport any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker shall meet the vehicle safety standards prescribed in § 500.104.
</P>
<P>(b) Any vehicle, other than a passenger automobile or station wagon, used or caused to be used by any farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association to transport any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker pursuant to a day-haul operation shall be subject to the safety standards prescribed under § 500.105.
</P>
<P>(c) Any vehicle, other than a passenger automobile or station wagon, which has been or is being used or caused to be used for any trip of a distance greater than 75 miles by a farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association to transport any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker, shall be subject to the safety standards prescribed under § 500.105. One trip may have numerous intermediate stops.
</P>
<P>(d) Any vehicle, other than a passenger automobile or station wagon, used or caused to be used by any farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association to transport any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker in any manner not addressed by paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this section shall meet the vehicle safety standards prescribed in § 500.104.
</P>
<P>(e) The use or intended use of a vehicle, other than a passenger automobile or station wagon, for transportation of the type identified in § 500.102(b) or § 500.102(c) will make the vehicle subject to the standards prescribed under § 500.105, so long as the vehicle is used for transportation subject to the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) Any pickup truck used only for transportation subject to § 500.104 when transporting passengers only within the cab shall be treated as a station wagon.
</P>
<P>(g) Pursuant to section 401(b)(2)(C) of the Act, standards prescribed by the Secretary shall be in addition to, and shall not supersede nor modify, any standards prescribed under part II of the Interstate Commerce Act and any successor provision of subtitle IV of title 49, U.S. Code or the regulations issued thereunder which is independently applicable to transportation to which this section applies. A violation of any such standard shall also constitute a violation of the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983; 48 FR 38380, Aug. 23, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.103   Activities not subject to vehicle safety standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agricultural machinery and equipment excluded.</I> Vehicle safety standards or insurance requirements issued under the Act and these regulations do not apply to the transportation of any seasonal or migrant agricultural worker on a tractor, combine, harvester, picker, other similar machinery and equipment while such worker is actually engaged in the planting, cultivating, or harvesting of any agricultural commodity or the care of livestock or poultry. This exclusion applies only to workers carrying out these activities on such machinery and equipment or being engaged in transportation incidental thereto. The exclusion does not include the use of such machinery for the transportation of any worker under any other circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion for immediate family transporting family members.</I> The standards of this subpart do not apply to an individual migrant or seasonal agricultural worker when the only other occupants of that individual's vehicle consist of his immediate family members as defined in § 500.20(o).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Carpooling.</I> Vehicle safety standards or insurance requirements of the Act and these regulations do not apply to carpooling arrangements made by the workers themselves, using one of the workers' own vehicles and not specifically directed or requested by an agricultural employer or agricultural association. Carpooling, however, does not include any transportation arrangement in which a farm labor contractor participates.
</P>
<FP>(See also § 500.120)


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.104   Department of Labor standards for passenger automobiles and station wagons and transportation of seventy-five miles or less.</HEAD>
<P>Any farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association providing transportation in passenger automobiles and station wagons and other vehicles used only for transportation as provided in § 500.102(a) and (d) shall comply with the following vehicle safety standards:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>External lights.</I> Head lights, tail lights, stop lights, back-up lights, turn signals and hazard warning lights shall be operable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Brakes.</I> Every vehicle shall be equipped with operable brakes for stopping and holding on an incline. Brake systems shall be free of leaks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tires.</I> Tires shall have at least
</P>
<FP>2/32 inch tread depth, and have no cracks/defects in the sidewall.
</FP>
<P>(d) <I>Steering.</I> The steering wheel and associated mechanism shall be maintained so as to safely and accurately turn the vehicles.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Horn.</I> Vehicles shall have an operable air or electric horn.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mirrors.</I> Mirrors shall provide the driver full vision of the sides and to the rear of the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Windshields/windshield wipers.</I> Windshields and windows may not have cracks or opaque obstructions which obscure vision. Vehicles shall be equipped with windshield wipers that are operational to allow the operator full frontal vision in all weather conditions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fuel system.</I> Fuel lines and the fuel tank shall be free of leaks. The tank shall be fitted with a cap to securely cover the filling opening.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exhaust system.</I> The exhaust system shall discharge carbon monoxide away from the passenger compartment and be free of leaks beneath the passenger compartment.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Ventilation.</I> Windows will be operational to allow fresh air to the occupants of the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Safe loading.</I> Vehicles will not be driven when loaded beyond the manufacturer's gross vehicle weight rating.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Seats.</I> A seat securely fastened to the vehicle will be provided for each occupant or rider in, or on, any vehicle, except that transportation which is primarily on private farm roads will be excused from this requirement provided the total distance traveled does not exceed ten (10) miles, and so long as the trip begins and ends on a farm owned or operated by the same employer.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Handles and latches.</I> Door handles and latches shall be provided and maintained to allow exiting capability for vehicle occupants.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Passenger compartment.</I> Floor and sides of any part of the vehicle to be occupied by passengers must be free of openings, rusted areas or other defects which are likely to result in injury to passengers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.35.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.105   DOT standards adopted by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association providing transportation in vehicles other than passenger automobiles and station wagons used for transportation as provided in § 500.102 (b), (c), and (e) shall comply with the motor carrier safety standards listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary for the purposes of this section has adopted from 49 CFR part 398 the following pertinent standards. (In adopting these standards, editorial changes necessitated by the Act and these regulations have been made to conform the language to these regulations):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Qualification of drivers or operators (Source: 49 CFR 398.3)</I>—(i) <I>Compliance required.</I> Every person subject to this Act who drives a motor vehicle or is responsible for the hiring, supervision, training, assignment or dispatching of drivers shall comply and be conversant with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Minimum physical requirements.</I> No such person shall drive, nor shall any such person require or permit any person to drive, any motor vehicle unless such person possesses the following minimum qualifications:
</P>
<P>(A) No loss of foot, leg, hand or arm,
</P>
<P>(B) No mental, nervous, organic, or functional disease, likely to interfere with safe driving.
</P>
<P>(C) No loss of fingers, impairment of use of foot, leg, fingers, hand or arm, or other structural defect or limitation, likely to interfere with safe driving.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Eyesight.</I> Visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye either without glasses or by correction with glasses; form field of vision in the horizontal meridian shall not be less than a total of 140 degrees; ability to distinguish colors red, green and yellow; drivers requiring correction by glasses shall wear properly prescribed glasses at all times when driving.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Hearing.</I> Hearing shall not be less than 10/20 in the better ear, for conversational tones, without a hearing aid.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Liquor, narcotics and drugs.</I> Shall not be addicted to the use of narcotics or habit forming drugs, or the excessive use of alcoholic beverages or liquors.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Initial and periodic physical examination of drivers.</I> No such person shall drive nor shall any such person require or permit any person to drive any motor vehicle unless within the immediately preceding 36-month period such person shall have been physically examined and shall have been certified in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(H) of this section by a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy as meeting the requirements of this subsection.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Certificate of physical examination.</I> Every person shall have in his files at his principal place of business for every driver employed or used by him a legible certificate of a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy based on a physical examination as required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(G) of this section or a legible photographically reproduced copy thereof, and every driver shall have in his possession while driving, such a certificate or a photographically reproduced copy thereof covering himself.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Doctor's certificate.</I> The doctor's certificate shall certify as follows:
</P>
<HD1>Doctor's Certificate
</HD1>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>(Driver of Migrant Workers)
</HD3>
<P>This is to certify that I have this day examined ______ in accordance with § 398.3(b) of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations of the Federal Highway Administration and that I find him
</P>
<P>Qualified under said rules □
</P>
<P>Qualified only when wearing glasses □
</P>
<P>I have kept on file in my office a completed examination.
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Place)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>  (Signature of examining doctor)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>  (Address of doctor)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>  (Signature of driver)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>  (Address of driver)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) <I>Minimum age and experience requirements.</I> No person shall drive, nor shall any person require or permit any person to drive, any motor vehicle unless such person possesses the following minimum qualifications:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Age.</I> Minimum age shall be 21 years.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Driving skill.</I> Experience in driving some type of motor vehicle (including private automobiles) for not less than one year, including experience throughout the four seasons.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Knowledge of regulations.</I> Familiarity with the rules and regulations prescribed in this part pertaining to the driving of motor vehicles.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Knowledge of English.</I> Every driver shall be able to read and speak the English language sufficiently to understand highway traffic signs and signals and directions given in English and to respond to official inquiries.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Driver's permit.</I> Possession of a valid permit qualifying the driver to operate the type of vehicle driven by him in the jurisdiction by which the permit is issued.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Driving of motor vehicles (Source: 49 CFR 398.4)</I>—(i) <I>Compliance required.</I> Every person shall comply with the requirements of this section, shall instruct its officers, agents, representatives and drivers with respect thereto, and shall take such measures as are necessary to insure compliance therewith by such persons. All officers, agents, representatives, drivers, and employees of persons subject to this Act directly concerned with the management, maintenance, operation, or driving of motor vehicles, shall comply with and be conversant with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Driving rules to be obeyed.</I> Every motor vehicle shall be driven in accordance with the laws, ordinances, and regulations of the jurisdiction in which it is being operated, unless such laws, ordinances and regulations are at variance with specific regulations of the Federal Highway Administration, which impose a greater affirmative obligation or restraint.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Alcoholic beverages.</I> No driver shall drive or be required or permitted to drive a motor vehicle, be in active control of any such vehicle, or go on duty or remain on duty, when under the influence of any alcoholic beverage or liquor, regardless of its alcoholic content, nor shall any driver drink any such beverage or liquor while on duty.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Schedules to conform with speed limits.</I> No person shall permit nor require the operation of any motor vehicle between points in such period of time as would necessitate the vehicle being operated at speeds greater than those prescribed by the jurisdictions in or through which the vehicle is being operated.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Equipment and emergency devices.</I> No motor vehicle shall be driven unless the driver thereof shall have satisfied himself that the following parts, accessories, and emergency devices are in good working order; nor shall any driver fail to use or make use of such parts, accessories, and devices when and as needed:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Service brakes, including trailer brake connections.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Parking (hand) brake.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Steering mechanism.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lighting devices and reflectors.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tires.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Horn.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Windshield wiper or wipers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rear-vision mirror or mirrors.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coupling devices.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fire extinguisher, at least one properly mounted.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Road warning devices, at least one red burning fusee and at least three flares (oil burning pot torches), red electric lanterns, or red emergency reflectors.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vii) <I>Safe loading</I>—(A) <I>Distribution and securing of load.</I> No motor vehicle shall be driven nor shall any motor carrier permit or require any motor vehicle to be driven if it is so loaded, or if the load thereon is so improperly distributed or so inadequately secured, as to prevent its safe operation.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Doors, tarpaulins, tailgates and other equipment.</I> No motor vehicle shall be driven unless the tailgate, tailboard, tarpaulins, doors, all equipment and rigging used in the operation of said vehicle, and all means of fastening the load, are securely in place.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Interference with driver.</I> No motor vehicle shall be driven when any object obscures his view ahead, or to the right or left sides, or to the rear, or interferes with the free movement of his arms or legs, or prevents his free and ready access to the accessories required for emergencies, or prevents the free and ready exit of any person from the cab or driver's compartment.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Property on motor vehicles.</I> No vehicle transporting persons and property shall be driven unless such property is stowed in a manner which will assure: (<I>1</I>) Unrestricted freedom of motion to the driver for proper operation of the vehicle; (<I>2</I>) unobstructed passage to all exits by any person; and (<I>3</I>) adequate protection to passengers and others from injury as a result of the displacement or falling of such articles.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Maximum passengers on motor vehicles.</I> No motor vehicle shall be driven if the total number of passengers exceeds the seating capacity which will be permitted on seats prescribed in § 500.105(b)(3)(vi). All passengers carried on such vehicle shall remain seated while the motor vehicle is in motion.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Rest and meal stops.</I> Every person shall provide for reasonable rest stops at least once between meal stops. Meal stops shall be made at intervals not to exceed six hours and shall be for a period of not less than 30 minutes duration.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Kinds of motor vehicles in which workers may be transported.</I> Workers may be transported in or on only the following types of motor vehicles: A bus, a truck with no trailer attached, or a semitrailer attached to a truck-tractor provided that no other trailer is attached to the semitrailer. Closed vans without windows or means to assure ventilation shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Limitation on distance of travel in trucks.</I> Any truck when used for the transportation of migrant or seasonal agricultural workers, if such workers are being transported in excess of 600 miles, shall be stopped for a period of not less than eight consecutive hours either before or upon completion of 600 miles travel, and either before or upon completion of any subsequent 600 miles travel to provide rest for drivers and passengers.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Lighting devices and reflectors.</I> No motor vehicle shall be driven when any of the required lamps or reflectors are obscured by the tailboard, by any and all lighting devices required pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 3102(c) shall be lighted during darkness or at any other time when there is not sufficient light to render vehicles and persons visible upon the highway at a distance of 500 feet.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Ignition of fuel; prevention.</I> No driver or other person shall: (A) Fuel a motor vehicle with the engine running, except when it is necessary to run the engine to fuel the vehicle; (B) smoke or expose any open flame in the vicinity of a vehicle being fueled; (C) fuel a motor vehicle unless the nozzle of the fuel hose is continuously in contact with the intake pipe of the fuel tank; (D) permit any other person to engage in such activities as would be likely to result in fire or explosion.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Reserve fuel.</I> No supply of fuel for the propulsion of any motor vehicle or for the operation of any accessory thereof shall be carried on the motor vehicle except in a properly mounted fuel tank or tanks.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Driving by unauthorized person.</I> Except in case of emergency, no driver shall permit a motor vehicle to which he is assigned to be driven by any person not authorized to drive such vehicle.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Protection of passengers from weather.</I> No motor vehicle shall be driven while transporting passengers unless the passengers therein are protected from inclement weather conditions such as rain, snow, or sleet, by use of the top or protective devices required by § 500.105(b)(3)(vi)(E).
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Unattended vehicles; precautions.</I> No motor vehicle shall be left unattended by the driver until the parking brake has been securely set, the wheels chocked, and all reasonable precautions have been taken to prevent the movement of such vehicle.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Railroad grade crossings; stopping required; sign on rear of vehicle.</I> Every motor vehicle shall, upon approaching any railroad grade crossing, make a full stop not more than 50 feet, nor less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of such railroad grade crossing, and shall not proceed until due caution has been taken to ascertain that the course is clear; except that a full stop need not be made at:
</P>
<P>(A) A street car crossing within a business or residence district of a municipality;
</P>
<P>(B) A railroad grade crossing where a police officer or a traffic-control signal (not a railroad flashing signal) directs traffic to proceed:
</P>
<P>(C) An abandoned or exempted grade crossing which is clearly marked as such by or with the consent of the proper state authority, when such marking can be read from the driver's position.
</P>
<FP>All such motor vehicles shall display a sign on the rear reading, “This Vehicle Stops at Railroad Crossings.”
</FP>
<P>(3) <I>Parts and accessories necessary (Source: 49 CFR 398.5)</I>—(i) <I>Compliance.</I> Every person and its officers, agents, drivers, representatives and employees directly concerned with the installation and maintenance of equipment and accessories shall comply and be conversant with the requirements and specifications of this part, and no person shall operate any motor vehicle, or cause or permit it to be operated, unless it is equipped in accordance with said requirements and specifications.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lighting devices.</I> Every motor vehicle shall be equipped with the lighting devices and reflectors required pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 3102 (c).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Brakes.</I> Every motor vehicle shall be equipped with brakes as required pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 3102 (c).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Coupling devices; fifth wheel mounting and locking.</I> The lower half of every fifth wheel mounted on any truck-tractor or dolly shall be securely affixed to the frame thereof by U-bolts of adequate size, securely tightened, or by other means providing at least equivalent security. Such U-bolts shall not be of welded construction. The installation shall be such as not to cause cracking, warping, or deformation of the frame. Adequate means shall be provided positively to prevent the shifting of the lower half of a fifth wheel on the frame to which it is attached. The upper half of every fifth wheel shall be fastened to the motor vehicle with at least the security required for the securing of the lower half to a truck-tractor or dolly. Locking means shall be provided in every fifth wheel mechanism including adapters when used, so that the upper and lower halves may not be separated without the operation of a positive manual release. A release mechanism operated by the driver from the cab shall be deemed to meet this requirement. On fifth wheels designed and constructed so as to be readily separable, the fifth wheel locking devices shall apply automatically on coupling for any motor vehicle the date of manufacture of which is subsequent to December 31, 1952.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Tires.</I> Every motor vehicle shall be equipped with tires of adequate capacity to support its gross weight. No motor vehicle shall be operated on tires which have been worn so smooth as to expose any tread fabric or which have any other defect likely to cause failure. No vehicle shall be operated while transporting passengers while using any tire which does not have tread configurations on that part of the tire which is in contact with the road surface. No vehicle transporting passengers shall be operated with regrooved, re-capped, or re-treaded tires on front wheels.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Passenger compartment.</I> Every motor vehicle transporting passengers, other than a bus, shall have a passenger compartment meeting the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Floors.</I> A substantially smooth floor, without protruding obstructions more than two inches high, except as are necessary for securing seats or other devices to the floor, and without cracks or holes.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Sides.</I> Side walls and ends above the floor at least 60 inches high, by attachment of sideboards to the permanent body construction if necessary. Stake body construction shall be construed to comply with this requirement only if all six-inch or larger spaces between stakes are suitably closed to prevent passengers from falling off the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Nails, screws, splinters.</I> The floor and the interior of the sides and ends of the passenger-carrying space shall be free of inwardly protruding nails, screws, splinters, or other projecting objects likely to be injurious to passengers or their apparel.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Seats.</I> A seat shall be provided for each worker transported. The seats shall be: Securely attached to the vehicle during the course of transportation; not less than 16 inches nor more than 19 inches above the floor; at least 13 inches deep; equipped with backrests extending to a height of at least 36 inches above the floor, with at least 24 inches of space between the backrests or between the edges of the opposite seats when face to face; designed to provide at least 18 inches of seat for each passenger; without cracks more than two inches wide, and the exposed surfaces, if made of wood, planed or sanded smooth and free of splinters.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Protection from weather.</I> Whenever necessary to protect the passengers from inclement weather conditions, be equipped with a top at least 80 inches high above the floor and facilities for closing the sides and ends of the passenger-carrying compartment. Tarpaulins or other such removable devices for protection from the weather shall be secured in place.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Exit.</I> Adequate means of ingress and egress to and from the passenger space shall be provided on the rear or at the right side. Such means of ingress and egress shall be at least 18 inches wide. The top and the clear opening shall be at least 60 inches high, or as high as the side wall of the passenger space if less than 60 inches. The bottom shall be at the floor of the passenger space.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Gates and doors.</I> Gates or doors shall be provided to close the means of ingress and egress and each such gate or door shall be equipped with at least one latch or other fastening device of such construction as to keep the gate or door securely closed during the course of transportation; and readily operative without the use of tools.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Ladders or steps.</I> Ladders or steps for the purpose of ingress or egress shall be used when necessary. The maximum vertical spacing of footholds shall not exceed 12 inches, except that the lowest step may be not more than 18 inches above the ground when the vehicle is empty.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Hand holds.</I> Hand holds or devices for similar purpose shall be provided to permit ingress and egress without hazard to passengers.
</P>
<P>(J) <I>Emergency exit.</I> Vehicles with permanently affixed roofs shall be equipped with at least one emergency exit having a gate or door, latch and hand hold as prescribed in paragraphs (b)(3)(vi) (G) and (I) of this section and located on a side or rear not equipped with the exit prescribed in paragraph (b)(3)(vi)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>Communication with driver.</I> Means shall be provided to enable the passengers to communicate with the driver. Such means may include telephone, speaker tubes, buzzers, pull cords, or other mechanical or electrical means.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Protection from cold.</I> Every motor vehicle shall be provided with a safe means of protecting passengers from cold or undue exposure, but in no event shall heaters of the following types be used:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Exhaust heaters.</I> Any type of exhaust heater in which the engine exhaust gases are conducted into or through any space occupied by persons or any heater which conducts engine compartment air into any such space.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Unenclosed flame heaters.</I> Any type of heater employing a flame which is not fully enclosed.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Heaters permitting fuel leakage.</I> Any type of heater from the burner of which there could be spillage or leakage of fuel upon the tilting or overturning of the vehicle in which it is mounted.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Heaters permitting air contamination.</I> Any heater taking air, heated or to be heated, from the engine compartment or from direct contact with any portion of the exhaust system; or any heater taking air in ducts from the outside atmosphere to be conveyed through the engine compartment, unless said ducts are so constructed and installed as to prevent contamination of the air so conveyed by exhaust or engine compartment gases.
</P>
<P>(E) Any heater not securely fastened to the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hours of service of drivers; maximum driving time (Source: 49 CFR 398.6).</I> No person shall drive nor shall any person permit or require a driver employed or used by it to drive or operate for more than 10 hours in the aggregate (excluding rest stops and stops for meals) in any period of 24 consecutive hours, unless such driver be afforded eight consecutive hours rest immediately following the 10 hours aggregate driving. The term “24 consecutive hours” as used in this part means any such period starting at the time the driver reports for duty.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Inspection and maintenance of motor vehicles (Source: 49 CFR 398.7).</I> Every person shall systematically inspect and maintain or cause to be systematically maintained, all motor vehicles and their accessories subject to its control, to insure that such motor vehicles and accessories are in safe and proper operating condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983; 48 FR 38380, Aug. 23, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="36" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Insurance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.120" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.120   Insurance policy or liability bond is required for each vehicle used to transport any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker.</HEAD>
<P>A farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association shall not transport any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker or his property in any vehicle such contractor, employer or association owns, operates, controls, or causes to be operated unless he has an insurance policy or liability bond in effect which insures against liability for damage to persons or property arising from the ownership, operation, or causing to be operated of such vehicle. Generally, the owner or lessor of the vehicle will be responsible for providing the required insurance. The insurance requirements do not apply to vehicles involved in carpooling arrangements made by the workers themselves, using one of the workers' own vehicles and not specifically directed or requested by an agricultural employer or agricultural association. However, carpooling does not include any transportation arrangement in which a farm labor contractor participates. Activities exempt from transportation safety standards are also exempt from insurance requirements. (See also § 500.103.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.121" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.121   Coverage and level of insurance required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where a liability bond pursuant to § 500.124 of this part has been approved by the Secretary, a farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association shall, in order to meet the insurance requirements in § 500.120, obtain a policy of vehicle liability insurance.
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of vehicle liability insurance shall not be less than $100,000 for each seat in the vehicle, but in no event is the total insurance required to be more than $5,000,000 for any one vehicle. The number of seats in the vehicle shall be determined by reference to § 500.105(b)(3)(vi). See § 500.122 regarding insurance requirements where State workers' compensation coverage is provided.
</P>
<P>(c) The insurance to be obtained under paragraph (a) of this section shall be issued by an insurance carrier licensed or otherwise authorized to do business in the State in which the insurance is obtained.
</P>
<P>(d) The vehicle liability insurance to be obtained under paragraph (a) of this section shall be endorsed to insure against liability for personal injury to employees whose transportation is not covered by workers' compensation insurance, and to persons who are not employees; and for property damage as specified in (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) An agricultural employer or agricultural association may evidence the purchase of liability insurance which covers the workers while being transported, as required under paragraph (a) by obtaining and making available upon request to the Department of Labor a completed liability certificate of insurance showing that insurance conforming to the limits required by paragraph (b) and the coverage required by paragraph (d) of this section is in effect. A farm labor contractor must obtain such a certificate and provide a copy to the Administrator when applying for authorization to transport migrant or seasonal agricultural workers.
</P>
<P>(f) With respect to an agricultural employer or agricultural association, in the absence of the insurance certificate referred to under paragraph (e) of this section, the Department of Labor will look to the actual policy of insurance in determining compliance with the insurance requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 57 FR 3905, Jan. 31, 1992; 61 FR 24866, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.122" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.122   Adjustments in insurance requirements when workers' compensation coverage is provided under State law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association referred to in § 500.120 is the employer of a migrant or seasonal agricultural worker for purposes of a State workers' compensation law and such employer provides workers' compensation coverage for such worker in the case of bodily injury or death as provided by such State law, the following adjustments in the insurance requirements relating to having an insurance policy or liability bond apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in § 500.123, no vehicle liability insurance policy or liability bond shall be required of the employer, if such worker is transported only under circumstances for which there is coverage under such State law.
</P>
<P>(2) A liability insurance policy or liability bond shall be required of the employer for circumstances under which coverage for the transportation of such worker is not provided under such State law.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) A farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association who is the employer of a migrant or seasonal agricultural worker may evidence the issuance of workers' compensation insurance and passenger insurance under paragraph (a) of this section by obtaining and making available upon request to the Department of Labor:
</P>
<P>(1) A workers' compensation coverage policy of insurance; and
</P>
<P>(2) A certificate of liability insurance covering transportation of all passengers who are not employees and of workers whose transportation by the employer is not covered by workers' compensation insurance. See § 500.121.
</P>
<P>(d) In the absence of the insurance certificate referred to under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Department of Labor will look to the actual policy of insurance or liability bond in determining compliance with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 56 FR 30327, July 2, 1991; 61 FR 24866, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.123" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.123   Property damage insurance required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a person who is an employer of a migrant or seasonal agricultural worker provides workers' compensation insurance which protects such worker in the event of bodily injury or death while the worker is being transported, such person must also obtain insurance providing a minimum of $50,000 for loss or damage in any one accident to the property of others (excluding cargo), or evidence of a general liability insurance policy that provides the same protection.
</P>
<P>(b) Such person may evidence the purchase of motor carrier insurance or other appropriate insurance providing such property damage protection by obtaining and making available upon request to the Department of Labor a vehicle or other liability certificate of insurance showing that such person has obtained the property damage insurance required under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) In the absence of the insurance certificate referred to in paragraph (b) of this section, the Department of Labor will look to the actual policy of insurance in determining compliance with paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.124" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.124   Liability bond in lieu of insurance policy.</HEAD>
<P>Financial responsibility in lieu of insurance may be evidenced by a liability bond executed as the “principal” by the person who will be transporting a migrant or seasonal agricultural worker, together with a third party identified in the instrument as the “surety”, to assure payment of any liability up to $500,000 for damages to persons or property arising out of such person's ownership of, operation of, or causing to be operated any vehicle for the transportation of such worker in connection with the person's business, activities, or operations. The “surety” shall be one which appears on the list contained in Treasury Department Circular 570, or which has been approved by the Secretary under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-406). Treasury Department Circular 570 may be obtained from the U.S. Treasury Department, Audit Staff, Bureau of Government Financial Operations, Washington, DC 20226.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.125" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.125   Qualifications and eligibility of insurance carrier or surety.</HEAD>
<P>A policy of insurance or liability bond does not satisfy the financial responsibility of requirements of the Act and these regulations unless the insurer or surety furnishing the policy or bond to any farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association is:
</P>
<P>(a) Legally authorized to issue such policies or bonds in the State in which the transportation occurs; or
</P>
<P>(b) Legally authorized to issue such policies or bonds in the State in which the farm labor contractor, agricultural employer or agricultural association has its principal place of business or permanent residence and is willing to designate a person upon whom process, issued by or under the authority of any court having jurisdiction of the subject matter, may be served in any proceeding at law or equity brought in any State in which the transportation occurs; or
</P>
<P>(c) Legally authorized to issue such policies or bonds in any State of the United States and eligible as an excess or surplus lines insurer in any State in which business is written and is willing to designate a person upon whom process, issued by or under the authority of any court having jurisdiction of the subject matter, may be served in any proceeding at law or equity brought in any State in which the transportation occurs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.126" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.126   Duration of insurance or liability bond.</HEAD>
<P>Any insurance policy or liability bond which is obtained pursuant to the Act shall provide the required coverage for the full period during which the person shall be engaged in transporting any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker within the meaning of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.127" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.127   Limitations on cancellation of insurance or liability bond of registered farm labor contractors.</HEAD>
<P>Any insurance policy or liability bond obtained by a farm labor contractor who is required to register with the Department of Labor shall provide that it shall not be cancelled, rescinded, or suspended, nor become void for any reason whatsoever during such period in which the insurance or liability bond is required by the Act to be effective, except upon the expiration of the term for which it is written; or unless the parties desiring to cancel shall have first given thirty (30) days notice to the Administrator. The notice will include a statement setting forth the reason for cancellation, rescission, suspension, or any other termination of such policy or bond. The notice shall be in writing and forwarded via certified or registered mail, addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. Said thirty (30) days notice shall commence to run from the date notice is actually received by the Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.128" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.36.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.128   Cancellation of insurance policy or liability bond not relief from insurance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Cancellation, rescission, suspension, or any other termination of any insurance policy or liability bond required by the Act does not relieve a person who transports or causes to be transported any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker in any vehicle under
</P>
<FP>his ownership or control of the responsibility to comply with the insurance requirements specified in §§ 500.121, 500.122 and 500.123.


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="37" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.37" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Housing Safety and Health</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.130" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.37.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.130   Application and scope of safety and health requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person who owns or controls a facility or real property which is used as housing for any migrant agricultural worker must ensure that the facility or real property complies with all substantive Federal and State safety and health standards applicable to such housing. If more than one person is involved in providing the housing for any migrant agricultural worker (for example, when an agricultural employer owns it and a farm labor contractor or any other person operates it), both persons are responsible for ensuring that the facility or real property meets the applicable Federal and State housing standards.
</P>
<P>(b) A farm labor contractor, agricultural employer, agricultural association or any other person is deemed an “owner” of a housing facility or real property if said person has a legal or equitable interest in such facility or real property.
</P>
<P>(c) A farm labor contractor, agricultural employer, agricultural association or any other person is in “control” of a housing facility or real property, regardless of the location of such facility, if said person is in charge of or has the power or authority to oversee, manage, superintend or administer the housing facility or real property either personally or through an authorized agent or employee, irrespective of whether compensation is paid for engaging in any of the aforesaid capacities.
</P>
<P>(d) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is the agency of the U.S. Department of Labor which administers the Occupational Safety and Health Act (29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>) which provides for the establishment of safety and health standards generally.
</P>
<P>(e) The Employment and Training Administration (ETA) is the agency of the U.S. Department of Labor which administers the U.S. Employment Service pursuant to the Wagner-Peyser Act (29 U.S.C. 49 <I>et seq.</I>) including the interstate clearance order system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.131" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.37.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.131   Exclusion from housing safety and health requirement.</HEAD>
<P>The housing safety and health requirements do not apply to any person who, in the ordinary course of that person's business, regularly provides housing on a commercial basis to the general public and who provides housing to any migrant agricultural worker of the same character and on the same or comparable terms and conditions as provided to the general public. Migrant labor housing shall not be brought within this exception simply by offering lodging to the general public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.132" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.37.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.132   Applicable Federal standards: ETA and OSHA housing standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary has determined that the applicable Federal housing standards are the standards promulgated by the Employment and Training Administration, at 20 CFR 654.404 <I>et seq.</I> and the standards promulgated by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, at 29 CFR 1910.142. Except as provided in § 500.131, all migrant housing is subject to either the ETA standards or the OSHA standards, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A person who owns or controls a facility or real property to be used for housing any migrant agricultural worker, the construction of which was begun on or after April 3, 1980, and which was not under a contract for construction as of March 4, 1980, shall comply with the substantive Federal safety and health standards promulgated by OSHA at 29 CFR 1910.142. These OSHA standards are enforceable under MSPA, irrespective of whether housing is, at any particular point in time, subject to inspection under the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
</P>
<P>(2) A person who owns or controls a facility or real property to be used for housing any migrant agricultural worker which was completed or under construction prior to April 3, 1980, or which was under a contract for construction prior to March 4, 1980, may elect to comply with either the substantive Federal safety and health standards promulgated by OSHA at 29 CFR 1910.142 or the standards promulgated by ETA at 20 CFR 654.404 <I>et seq.</I> The ETA standards were established to provide housing requirements for migrant housing used by an employer obtaining migrant workers through the U.S. Employment Service. The owner or operator of such housing may continue to rely on those standards, rather than OSHA standards, even if the housing is not currently being provided pursuant to a USES job placement program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.133" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.37.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.133   Substantive Federal and State safety and health standards defined.</HEAD>
<P>Substantive safety and health standards include, but are not limited to, those that provide fire prevention, an adequate and sanitary supply of water,
</P>
<FP>plumbing maintenance, structurally sound construction of buildings, effective maintenance of those buildings, provision of adequate heat as weather conditions require, and reasonable protections for inhabitants from insects and rodents. Substantive housing standards do not include technical or procedural violations of safety and health standards.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.134" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.37.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.134   Compliance with State standards.</HEAD>
<P>Compliance with the substantive Federal housing safety and health standards shall not excuse noncompliance with applicable substantive State housing safety and health standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.135" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.4.37.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.135   Certificate of housing inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a facility or real property to be used for housing a migrant agricultural worker shall not be occupied by any migrant agricultural worker unless either a State or local health authority or other appropriate agency, including a Federal agency, has certified that the facility or real property meets applicable safety and health standards.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the person who owns or controls a facility or real property shall not permit it to be occupied by any migrant agricultural worker unless a copy of a certificate of occupancy from the State, local or Federal agency which conducted the housing safety and health inspection is posted at the site of the facility or real property. The original of such certificate of occupancy shall be retained by such person for three years and made available for inspection in accordance with section 512 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) If a request for an inspection of a facility or real property is made to the appropriate State, local or Federal agency at least forty-five (45) days prior to the date on which it is to be occupied by a migrant agricultural worker but the agency has not conducted an inspection by such date, the facility or property may be occupied by migrant agricultural workers unless prohibited by State law.
</P>
<P>(d) Receipt and posting of a certificate of occupancy as provided under paragraph (b) of this section, or the failure of an agency to inspect a facility or property within the forty-five (45) day time period, shall not relieve the person who owns or controls a facility or property from the responsibility of ensuring that such facility or property meets the applicable State and Federal safety and health standards. Once such facility or property is occupied, such person shall supervise and continually maintain such facility or property so as to ensure that it remains in compliance with the applicable safety and health standards.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.140" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.140   General.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Secretary believes that the Act or these regulations have been violated he shall take such action and institute such proceedings as he deems appropriate, including (but not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Recommend to the Attorney General the institution of criminal proceedings against any person who willfully and knowingly violates the Act or these regulations;
</P>
<P>(b) Recommend to the Attorney General the institution of criminal proceedings against any farm labor contractor who recruits, hires, employs, or uses, with knowledge, the services of any illegal alien, as defined in § 500.20(n) of these regulations, if such farm labor contractor has:
</P>
<P>(1) Been refused issuance or renewal of, or has failed to obtain, a Certificate of Registration, or
</P>
<P>(2) Is a farm labor contractor whose certificate has been suspended or revoked;
</P>
<P>(c) Petition any appropriate District Court of the United States for temporary or permanent injunctive relief to prohibit violation of the Act or these regulations by any person;
</P>
<P>(d) Assess a civil money penalty against any person for any violation of the Act or these regulations;
</P>
<P>(e) Refer any unpaid civil money penalty which has become a final and unappealable order of the Secretary or a final judgment of a court in favor of the Secretary to the Attorney General for recovery;
</P>
<P>(f) Revoke or suspend or refuse to issue or renew any Certificate of Registration authorized by the Act or these regulations;
</P>
<P>(g) Deny the facilities and services afforded by the Wagner-Peyser Act to any farm labor contractor who refuses or fails to produce, when asked, a valid Certificate of Registration;
</P>
<P>(h) Institute action in any appropriate United States District Court against any person who, contrary to the provisions of section 505(a) of the Act, discriminates against any migrant or seasonal agricultural worker.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.141" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.141   Concurrent actions.</HEAD>
<P>The taking of any one of the actions referred to in § 500.140 shall not be a bar to the concurrent taking of any other action authorized by the Act and these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.142" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.142   Representation of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in section 518(a) of title 28, U.S. Code, relating to litigation before the Supreme Court, the Solicitor of Labor may appear for and represent the Secretary in any civil litigation brought under the Act; but all such litigation shall be subject to the direction and control of the Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(b) The Solicitor of Labor, through the authorized representatives identified in § 500.231, shall represent the Secretary in all administrative hearings under the Act and these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.143" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.143   Civil money penalty assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A civil money penalty may be assessed for each violation of the Act or these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the amount of penalty to be assessed for any violation of the Act or these regulations the Secretary shall consider the type of violation committed and other relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Previous history of violation or violations of this Act and the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of workers affected by the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(3) The gravity of the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(4) Efforts made in good faith to comply with the Act (such as when a joint employer agricultural employer/association provides employment-related benefits which comply with applicable law to agricultural workers, or takes reasonable measures to ensure farm labor contractor compliance with legal obligations);
</P>
<P>(5) Explanation of person charged with the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(6) Commitment to future compliance, taking into account the public health, interest or safety, and whether the person has previously violated the Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The extent to which the violator achieved a financial gain due to the violation, or the potential financial loss or potential injury to the workers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 11748, Mar. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.144" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.144   Civil money penalties—payment and collection.</HEAD>
<P>Where the assessment is directed in a final order by the Secretary or in a final judgment issued by a United States District Court, the amount of the penalty is immediately due and payable to the United States Department of Labor. The person assessed such penalty shall remit promptly the amount thereof, as finally determined, to the Secretary. Payment shall be made by certified check or money order made payable and delivered or mailed according to the instructions provided by the Department; through the electronic pay portal located at <I>www.pay.gov</I> or any successor system; or by any additional payment method deemed acceptable by the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59930, Nov. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.145" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.145   Registration determinations.</HEAD>
<P>Section 500.51 set forth the standards under which the Secretary may refuse to issue or to renew, or may suspend or revoke, a Certificate of Registration (including a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.146" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.146   Continuation of matters involving violations of FLCRA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any matter involving the revocation, suspension, or refusal to renew a Certification of Registration issued under FLCRA and any matter involving the refusal to issue a certificate authorized under FLCRA shall continue through final administrative determination in accordance with the provisions of FLCRA and the regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(b) Any matter involving the assessment of a civil money penalty for a violation of FLCRA will continue through final administrative determination in accordance with the provisions of FLCRA and the regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(c) The rules of practice for implementation of administrative enforcement for violations of FLCRA referred to the Office of the Chief Administrative Law Judge on or after April 14, 1983, shall be the rules of practice provided in §§ 500.220 through 500.262 and the official record shall be maintained in accordance with §§ 500.270 and 500.271 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) The rules of practice for implementation of administrative enforcement for violations of FLCRA referred to the Office of the Chief Administrative Law Judge prior to April 14, 1983 shall be the rules of practice provided in 29 CFR 40.201 through 40.262.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.147" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.147   Continuation of matters involving violations of section 106 of MSPA.</HEAD>
<P>Any matter involving the revocation, suspension, refusal to issue or to renew a certificate of registration or any matter involving the assessment of a civil money penalty, for a violation of section 106 of MSPA, which occurred prior to June 1, 1987, shall continue through final administrative determination in accordance with the provisions of MSPA and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 13329, Mar. 31, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="38" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Agreements With Federal and State Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.155" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.155   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>Section 513 of the Act authorizes the Secretary to enter into agreements with Federal and State agencies (a) to use their facilities and services, (b) to delegate (subject to subsection 513(b) of the Act) to Federal and State agencies such authority (other than rulemaking) as he determines may be useful in carrying out the purposes of the Act, and (c) to allocate or transfer funds to, or otherwise pay or reimburse, such agencies for expenses incurred pursuant to paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.156" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.156   Scope of agreements with Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Every agreement between the Secretary and any other Federal agency under the authority referred to in § 500.155 of this part shall contain terms and conditions mutually agreeable to both parties, and shall contain such delegation of authority as the Secretary deems useful.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.157" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.157   Scope of agreements with State agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every agreement between the Secretary and any State agency under the authority referred to in § 500.155 of this part shall be in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) Any delegation to a State agency by the Secretary under such authority shall be made pursuant to approval of a written State plan submitted in accordance with § 500.159 which shall: (1) Include a description of each function to be performed, the method of performing each such function, and the resources to be devoted to the performance of each such function, (2) provide assurances satisfactory to the Secretary that the State agency will comply with its description under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and that the State agency's performance of the delegated functions will be at least comparable to the performance of such functions by the Department of Labor; and (3) contain a certification of the Attorney General of such State, or, if the Attorney General is not authorized to make such a statement, the State official who is so authorized, that an agreement pursuant to such State plan is valid under the laws of that State.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.158" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.158   Functions delegatable.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may delegate to the State such functions as he deems useful including the
</P>
<P>(a) Receipt, handling and processing of applications for certificates of registration;
</P>
<P>(b) Issuance of certificates of registration;
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct of various investigations; and
</P>
<P>(d) Enforcement of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.159" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.159   Submission of plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any State agency desiring to enter into an agreement pursuant to section 513 of the Act shall submit a State plan in such form and in such detail as the Secretary shall direct.
</P>
<P>(b) Each such plan shall include, at least, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The delegation sought;
</P>
<P>(2) The State authority for performing such delegated functions;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the manner in which the State intends to carry out such functions; and
</P>
<P>(4) The estimated cost of carrying out such functions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.160" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.160   Approved State plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary, in accordance with the authority referred to in § 500.155 of this part, has delegated the following functions to the States listed herein below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">State
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Function
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Florida</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Receive, handle, process applications and issue certificates of registration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Jersey</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Receive, handle, process applications and issue certificates of registration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Virginia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Receive, handle, process applications and issue certificates of registration.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Every State agreement entered into pursuant to the authority referred to in § 500.155 of this part shall be available for public inspection and copying in accordance with 29 CFR part 70.
</P>
<P>(c) Every enumerated delegated function shall be valid in all states.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 5112, Feb. 10, 1984; 50 FR 42163, Oct. 18, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.161" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.161   Audits.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall conduct audits as he deems necessary of the State plans, but on not less than an annual basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.162" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.38.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.162   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall require such reports as he deems necessary of activities conducted pursuant to State plans, but on not less than an annual basis.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="39" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Central Public Registry</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.170" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.5.39.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.170   Establishment of registry.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator shall establish a central public registry of all persons issued a Certificate of Registration or a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate. The central public registry shall be available at the Regional Offices of the Wage and Hour Division and its National Office in Washington, DC. Information filed therein shall be made available upon request. Requests for information contained in the registry may also be directed by mail to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division. Attn: MSPA, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. Alternatively, requests for registry information may be made by telephone by calling 1-866-4US-WAGE (1-866-487-9243), a toll-free number, during the hours of 8 a.m. to 5 p.m., in your time zone, Monday through Friday.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 76986, Dec. 16, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.40.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.200   Establishment of procedures and rules of practice.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart codifies and establishes the procedures and rules of practice necessary for the administrative enforcement of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.40.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.201   Applicability of procedures and rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures and rules contained herein prescribe the administrative process necessary for a determination:
</P>
<P>(1) To suspend or revoke, or to refuse to issue or renew, a Certificate of Registration authorized under the Act and these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) To impose an assessment of civil money penalties for violations of the Act or of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures and rules contained herein also specify the administrative responsibility under section 102(5) of the Act with regard to a designation by a court of the Secretary as an agent of an applicant for a certificate of registration in any action against such applicant, if said applicant has left the jurisdiction in which the action is commenced or otherwise has become unavailable to accept service. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Relating to Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.210" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.41.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.210   Written notice of determination required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Secretary determines to suspend or revoke, or to refuse to issue or renew, a Certificate of Registration, the applicant for or the holder of such certificate shall be notified in writing of such determination.
</P>
<P>(1) In cases involving a determination relating to a Certificate of Registration applied for by, or issued to, a farm labor contractor, written notice shall also be given to every applicant for or holder of a Certificate of Registration as an employee of such contractor.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases involving a determination relating to a Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate of Registration, written notice shall also be given to the farm labor contractor of such applicant or certificate holder.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Secretary determines to assess a civil money penalty for a violation of the Act or these regulations, the person against whom such penalty is assessed shall be notified in writing of such determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.211" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.41.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.211   Contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>The notice required by § 500.210 shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Set forth the determination of the Secretary and the reason or reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) Set forth, in the case of a civil money penalty assessment:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of each violation; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount assessed for each violation.
</P>
<P>(c) Set forth the right to request a hearing on such determination.
</P>
<P>(d) Inform any affected person or persons that in the absence of a timely request for a hearing, the determination of the Secretary shall become final and unappealable.
</P>
<P>(e) Set forth the time and method for requesting a hearing, and the procedures relating thereto, as set forth in § 500.212.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.212" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.41.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.212   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person desiring to request an administrative hearing on a determination referred to in § 500.210 shall make such request in writing to the official who issued the determination, at the Wage and Hour Division address appearing on the determination notice. Such request must be made no later than thirty (30) days after the date of issuance of the notice referred to in § 500.210.
</P>
<P>(b) The request for such hearing shall be delivered in person or by mail to the Wage and Hour Division office at the address appearing on the determination notice upon which the request for a hearing is based, within the time set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. For the affected person's protection, if the request is by mail, it should be by certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) No particular form is prescribed for any request for hearing permitted by this part. However, any such request shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be typewritten or legibly written on size 8
<FR>1/2</FR>″ × 11″ paper;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the issue or issues stated in the notice of determination giving rise to such request;
</P>
<P>(3) State the specific reason or reasons why the person requesting the hearing believes such determination is in error;
</P>
<P>(4) Be signed by the person making the request or by an authorized representative of such person; and
</P>
<P>(5) Include the address at which such person or authorized representative desires to receive further communications relating thereto.
</P>
<P>(d) Civil money penalties under FLCRA shall be treated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Determinations to assess civil money penalties for violations of FLCRA made prior to April 14, 1983 shall continue until a final administrative determination shall have been made in accordance with 29 CFR part 40.
</P>
<P>(2) Determinations to assess civil money penalties for violations of FLCRA arising prior to April 14, 1983, made on or after April 14, 1983, shall continue until a final administrative determination shall have been made in accordance with these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 13329, Mar. 31, 1989; 57 FR 5942, Feb. 18, 1992; 71 FR 16665, Apr. 3, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="42" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Relating to Substituted Service</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.215" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.42.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.215   Change of address.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 105(1) of the Act, every holder of a Certificate of Registration shall notify the Secretary within thirty (30) days of each change of permanent place of residence. Said persons may also furnish additional mailing addresses.
</P>
<P>(b) The notification required in paragraph (a) of this section shall be in writing, by certified mail and addressed to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(c) Such change of address shall be deemed effective upon receipt by the Administrator, unless a later date is specified in the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.216" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.42.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.216   Substituted service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 102(5) of the Act, the Secretary, when so designated by a court, shall accept service of summons in any action arising under the Act or these regulations against any applicant for or any holder of a Certificate of Registration who has left the jurisdiction in which such action is commenced or otherwise has become unavailable to accept such service.
</P>
<P>(b) Acceptance of service of summons referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall be under such terms and conditions as are set by the court in its designation of the Secretary for the purpose of section 102(5) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) To be effective, such service shall be made by delivery personally or by certified mail, either to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division in Washington, DC, or to the Administrator's authorized representative located in the area in which the action has been commenced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.217" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.42.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.217   Responsibility of Secretary for service.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of any substituted service, as described in § 500.216, the same shall be forwarded by certified mail to the permanent address furnished by the person for whom service is accepted and to such other address as may be determined appropriate by the Secretary. Such mailing shall complete the Secretary's responsibility in connection with the substituted service requirement of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="43" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.43" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Rules of Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.219" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.219   General.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically provided in these regulations, the “Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings Before the Office of Administrative Law Judges” established by the Secretary at 29 CFR part 18 shall apply to administrative proceedings under MSPA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 21, 1983. Redesignated at 54 FR 13329, Mar. 31, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.220" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.43.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.220   Service of determinations and computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of determinations to suspend, revoke, refuse to issue, or refuse to renew a certificate of registration or to assess a civil money penalty shall be made by personal service to the individual, officer of a corporation, or attorney of record or by mailing the determination to the last known address of the individual, officer, or attorney. If done by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If done by regular mail or in person, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee or the addressee's representative;
</P>
<P>(b) Time will be computed beginning with the day following the action and includes the last day of the period unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federally observed holiday, in which case the time period includes the next business day; and
</P>
<P>(c) When a request for hearing is filed by mail, five (5) days shall be added to the prescribed period during which the party has the right to request a hearing on the determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 13329, Mar. 31, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.221" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.43.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.221   Commencement of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Each administrative proceeding permitted under the Act and these regulations shall be commenced upon receipt of a timely request for hearing filed in accordance with § 500.212.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.222" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.43.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.222   Designation of record.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) Each administrative proceeding instituted under the Act and these regulations shall be identified of record by a number preceded by the year and the letters “MSPA” and followed by one or more of the following designations:
</P>
<P>(1) Proceedings involving the “refusal to issue or to renew, or to suspend or to revoke Certificate of Registration” shall be designated as “R”.
</P>
<P>(2) Proceedings involving the “assessment of civil money penalties” shall be designated as “P”.
</P>
<P>(3) Proceedings involving both Certificate of Registration and assessment of civil money penalties shall be designated as “R and P”.
</P>
<P>(b) The number, letter(s), and designation assigned to each such proceeding shall be clearly displayed on each pleading, motion, brief, or other formal document filed and docketed of record.
</P>
<P>(c) Each administrative proceeding involving violations of FLCRA prior to April 14, 1983 and filed with the Office of the Chief Administrative Law Judge on or after April 14, 1983, shall be identified of record by a number preceded by the year and the letters “FLCRA-MSPA” and followed by one or more of the letter designations provided in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section, i.e., (<I>year</I>) -FLCRA-MSPA-(#)-(R and/or P).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.223" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.43.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.223   Caption of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each administrative proceeding instituted under the Act and these regulations shall be captioned in the name of the person requesting such hearing, and shall be styled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>In The Matter of __, Respondent.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) For the purposes of such administrative proceeding the “Secretary of Labor” shall be identified as plaintiff and the person requesting such hearing shall be named as respondent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="44" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.44" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Referral for Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.224" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.44.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.224   Referral to Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing filed pursuant to and in accordance with § 500.212, the Secretary, by the Associate Solicitor for the Division of Fair Labor Standards or by the Regional Solicitor for the Region in which the action arose, shall, by Order of Reference, promptly refer an authenticated copy of the notice of administrative determination complained of, and the original or a duplicate copy of the request for hearing signed by the person requesting such hearing or by the authorized representative of such person, to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, for a determination in an administrative proceeding as provided herein. The notice of administrative determination and request for hearing shall be filed of record in the Office of the Chief Administrative Law Judge and shall, respectively, be given the effect of a complaint and answer thereto for purposes of the administrative proceeding, subject to any amendment that may be permitted under these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases involving a denial, suspension, or revocation of a Certificate of Registration (Farm Labor Contractor Certificate; Farm Labor Contractor Employee Certificate) or “certificate action,” including those cases where the farm labor contractor has requested a hearing on civil money penalty(ies) as well as on the certificate action, the date of the hearing shall be not more than sixty (60) days from the date on which the Order of Reference is filed. No request for postponement shall be granted except for compelling reasons.
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of the Order of Reference, together with a copy of these regulations, shall be served by counsel for the Secretary upon the person requesting the hearing, in the manner provided in 29 CFR 18.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 24866, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.225" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.44.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.225   Notice of docketing.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly notify the parties of the docketing of each matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.226" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.44.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.226   Service upon attorneys for the Department of Labor—number of copies.</HEAD>
<P>Two copies of all pleadings and other documents required for any administrative proceeding provided herein shall be served on the attorneys for the Department of Labor. One copy shall be served on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210, and one copy on the Attorney representing the Department in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="45" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.45" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Before Administrative Law Judge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.231" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.45.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.231   Appearances; representation of the Department of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>The Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, and such other counsel, as designated, shall represent the Secretary in any proceeding under these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.232" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.45.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.232   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding under this part, but prior to the reception of evidence in any such proceeding, a party may move to defer the receipt of any evidence for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such deferment and the duration thereof shall be at the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge, after consideration of the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of an agreement being reached which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice of administrative determination (or amended notice, if one is filed), and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the Administrative Law Judge; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their authorized representatives or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement for consideration by the Administrative Law Judge; or
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the Administrative Law Judge that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event an agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the Administrative Law Judge, within thirty (30) days thereafter, shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="46" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.46" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Post-Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.262" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.46.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.262   Decision and order of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Law Judge shall prepare, as promptly as practicable after the expiration of the time set for filing proposed findings and related papers a decision on the issues referred by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases involving certificate actions as described in § 500.224(b), the Administrative Law Judge shall issue a decision within ninety (90) calendar days after the close of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be limited to a determination whether the respondent has violated the Act or these regulations, and the appropriateness of the remedy or remedies imposed by the Secretary. The Administrative Law Judge shall not render determinations on the legality of a regulatory provision or the constitutionality of a statutory provision.
</P>
<P>(d) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge, for purposes of the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504), shall be limited to determinations of attorney fees and/or other litigation expenses in adversary proceedings requested pursuant to § 500.212 which involve the modification, suspension or revocation of a Certificate of Registration issued under the Act and these Regulations, and/or the imposition of a civil money penalty assessed for a violation of the Act or these Regulations. The Administrative Law Judge shall have no power or authority to award attorney fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act or Regulations issued thereunder in any proceeding under MSPA or these Regulations involving the refusal to issue or renew a Certificate of Registration.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall include a statement of findings and conclusions, with reasons and basis therefor, upon each material issue presented on the record. The decision shall also include an appropriate order which may be to affirm, deny, reverse, or modify, in whole or in part, the determination of the Secretary. The reason or reasons for such order shall be stated in the decision.
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrative Law Judge shall transmit to the Chief Administrative Law Judge the entire record including the decision. The Chief Administrative Law Judge shall serve copies of the decision on each of the parties.
</P>
<P>(g) The decision when served shall constitute the final order of the Secretary unless the Secretary, pursuant to section 103(b)(2) or section 503(b)(2) of the Act, modifies or vacates the decision and order of the Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(h) Except as provided in §§ 500.263 through 500.268, the administrative remedies available to the parties under the Act will be exhausted upon service of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 24866, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="47" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.47" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Modification or Vacation of Order of Administrative Law Judge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.263" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.47.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.263   Authority of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrative Review Board may modify or vacate the Decision and Order of the Administrative Law Judge whenever it concludes that the Decision and Order:
</P>
<P>(a) Is inconsistent with a policy or precedent established by the Department of Labor,
</P>
<P>(b) Encompasses determinations not within the scope of the authority of the Administrative Law Judge,
</P>
<P>(c) Awards attorney fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the Equal Access to Justice Act which are unjustified or excessive, or
</P>
<P>(d) Otherwise warrants modifying or vacating.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 13330, Mar. 31, 1989, as amended at 86 FR 1786, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.264" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.47.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.264   Procedures for initiating review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within twenty (20) days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge, the respondent, the Administrator, or any other party desiring review thereof, may file with the Administrative Review Board (Board) a petition for issuance of a Notice of Intent as described under § 500.265. The petition shall be in writing and shall contain a concise and plain statement specifying the grounds on which review is sought. A copy of the Decision and Order of the Administrative Law Judge shall be attached to the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of the petition shall be served upon all parties to the proceeding and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 13330, Mar. 31, 1989, as amended at 86 FR 1786, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.265" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.47.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.265   Implementation by the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever, on the Administrative Review Board's (Board) own motion or upon acceptance of a party's petition, the Board believes that a Decision and Order may warrant modifying or vacating, the Board shall issue a Notice of Intent to modify or vacate.
</P>
<P>(b) The Notice of Intent to Modify or Vacate a Decision and Order shall specify the issue or issues to be considered, the form in which submission shall be made (<I>i.e.,</I> briefs, oral argument, etc.), and the time within which such presentation shall be submitted. The Board shall closely limit the time within which the briefs must be filed or oral presentations made, so as to avoid unreasonable delay.
</P>
<P>(c) The Notice of Intent shall be issued within thirty (30) days after the date of the Decision and Order in question.
</P>
<P>(d) Service of the Notice of Intent shall be made upon each party to the proceeding, and upon the Chief Administrative Law Judge, in accordance with 29 CFR part 26.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1786, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.266" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.47.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.266   Responsibility of the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of the Administrative Review Board's (Board) Notice of Intent to Modify or Vacate a Decision and Order of an Administrative Law Judge, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall, within fifteen (15) days, index, certify, and forward a copy of the complete hearing record to the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 21, 1983. Redesignated at 54 FR 13330, Mar. 31, 1989, as amended at 86 FR 1786, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.267" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.47.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.267   Filing and service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> All documents submitted to the Administrative Review Board (Board) shall be filed in accordance with 29 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation of time for delivery.</I> Documents are not deemed filed with the Board until actually received by that office. All documents, including documents filed by mail, must be received by the Board either on or before the due date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manner and proof of service.</I> A copy of all documents filed with the Board shall be served upon all other parties involved in the proceeding. Service under this section shall be in accordance with 29 CFR part 26.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1786, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.268" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.47.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.268   Decision of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Review Board's (Board) Decision and Order shall be issued within 120 days from the notice of intent granting the petition, except that in cases involving the review of an Administrative Law Judge decision in a certificate action as described in § 500.224(b), the Board's decision shall be issued within ninety (90) days from the date such notice. The Board's Decision and Order shall be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge, in accordance with 29 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an Order of the Board modifying or vacating the Decision and Order of an Administrative Law Judge, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall substitute such Order for the Decision and Order of the Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board's decision is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1786, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.269" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.47.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.269   Stay pending decision of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The filing of a petition seeking review by the Secretary of a Decision and Order of an Administrative Law Judge, pursuant to § 500.264, does not stop the running of the thirty-day time limit in which respondent may file an appeal to obtain a review in the United States District Court of an administrative order, as provided in section 103(b)(2) or section 503(b)(2) of the Act, unless the Secretary issues a Notice of Intent pursuant to § 500.265.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event a respondent has filed a notice of appeal of the Administrative Law Judge's Decision and Order in a United States District Court and the Secretary issues a Notice of Intent, the Secretary will seek a stay of proceedings in the Court until such time as the Secretary issues the final decision, as provided in § 500.268.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the Secretary has issued a Notice of Intent, the time for filing an appeal under sections 103(b)(2) or 503(b)(2) of the Act shall commence from the date of the issuance of the Secretary's final decision, as provided in § 500.268.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 13330, Mar. 31, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="48" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.48" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.270" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.48.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.270   Retention of official record.</HEAD>
<P>The official record of every completed administrative hearing provided by these regulations shall be maintained and filed under the custody and control of the Chief Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.271" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.1.6.48.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.271   Certification of official record.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of timely notice of appeal to a United States District Court pursuant to section 103(c) or 503(c) of the Act, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly certify and file with the appropriate United States District Court, a full, true, and correct copy of the entire record, including the transcript of proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="501" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 501—ENFORCEMENT OF CONTRACTUAL OBLIGATIONS FOR TEMPORARY AGRICULTURAL WORKERS ADMITTED UNDER SECTION 218 OF THE IMMIGRATION AND NATIONALITY ACT


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), 1184(c), and 1188; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; and sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 61822, Oct. 12, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.0   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part cover the enforcement of all contractual obligations, including requirements under 8 U.S.C. 1188 and 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, applicable to the employment of H-2A workers and workers in corresponding employment, including obligations to offer employment to eligible United States (U.S.) workers and to not lay off or displace U.S. workers in a manner prohibited by the regulations in this part or 20 CFR part 655, subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory standards.</I> The standard in 8 U.S.C. 1188 provides that:
</P>
<P>(1) An H-2A Petition to import an H-2A worker, as defined at 8 U.S.C. 1188, may not be approved by the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) unless the petitioner has applied for and received a temporary agricultural labor certification from the Secretary of Labor (Secretary). The temporary agricultural labor certification establishes that:
</P>
<P>(i) There are not sufficient workers who are able, willing, and qualified, and who will be available at the time and place needed, to perform the labor or services involved in the H-2A Petition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employment of the H-2A worker in such labor or services will not adversely affect the wages and working conditions of workers in the United States similarly employed.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary is authorized to take actions that assure compliance with the terms and conditions of employment under 8 U.S.C. 1188, the regulations at 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or the regulations in this part, including imposing appropriate penalties, and seeking injunctive relief and specific performance of contractual obligations. <I>See</I> 8 U.S.C. 1188(g)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority and role of the Office of Foreign Labor Certification.</I> The Secretary has delegated authority to the Assistant Secretary for the Employment and Training Administration (ETA), who in turn has delegated that authority to the Office of Foreign Labor Certification (OFLC), to issue certifications and carry out other statutory responsibilities as required by 8 U.S.C. 1188. Determinations on an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> are made by the OFLC Administrator who, in turn, may delegate this responsibility to designated staff, e.g., a Certifying Officer (CO).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority of the Wage and Hour Division.</I> The Secretary has delegated authority to the Wage and Hour Division (WHD) to conduct certain investigatory and enforcement functions with respect to terms and conditions of employment under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, and this part (“the H-2A program”), and to carry out other statutory responsibilities required by 8 U.S.C. 1188. Certain investigatory, inspection, and law enforcement functions to carry out the provisions under 8 U.S.C. 1188 have been delegated by the Secretary to the WHD. In general, matters concerning the obligations under a work contract between an employer of H-2A workers and the H-2A workers and workers in corresponding employment are enforced by WHD, including whether employment was offered to U.S. workers as required under 8 U.S.C. 1188 or 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or whether U.S. workers were laid off or displaced in violation of program requirements under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part. Included within the enforcement responsibility of WHD are such matters as the payment of required wages, transportation, meals, and housing provided during the employment. WHD has the responsibility to carry out investigations, inspections, and law enforcement functions and in appropriate instances to impose penalties, to debar from future certifications, to recommend revocation of existing certification(s), and to seek injunctive relief and specific performance of contractual obligations, including recovery of unpaid wages and reinstatement of laid off or displaced U.S. workers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Concurrent authority.</I> OFLC and WHD have concurrent authority to impose a debarment remedy pursuant to 20 CFR 655.182 and § 501.20.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of regulations.</I> The enforcement functions carried out by WHD under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, and this part apply to the employment of any H-2A worker and any other worker in corresponding employment as the result of any <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> processed under 20 CFR 655.102(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.2   Coordination between Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Complaints received by ETA or any State Workforce Agency (SWA) regarding contractual H-2A labor standards between the employer and the worker will be immediately forwarded to the appropriate WHD office for appropriate action under the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Information received in the course of processing applications, program integrity measures, or enforcement actions may be shared between OFLC and WHD or, where applicable to employer enforcement under the H-2A program, other Departments or agencies as appropriate, including the Department of State (DOS) and DHS.
</P>
<P>(c) A specific violation for which debarment is imposed will be cited in a single debarment proceeding. OFLC and WHD may coordinate their activities to achieve this result. Copies of final debarment decisions will be forwarded to DHS promptly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions of terms used in this part.</I> The following defined terms apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act.</I> The Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1101 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Law Judge (ALJ).</I> A person within the Department of Labor's (Department or DOL) Office of Administrative Law Judges (OALJ) appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator.</I> See definitions of OFLC Administrator and WHD Administrator in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P><I>Adverse effect wage rate (AEWR).</I> The annual weighted average hourly wage for field and livestock workers (combined) in the States or regions as published annually by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) based on its quarterly wage survey.
</P>
<P><I>Agent.</I> A legal entity or person, such as an association of agricultural employers, or an attorney for an association, that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is authorized to act on behalf of the employer for temporary agricultural labor certification purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not itself an employer, or a joint employer, as defined in this part with respect to a specific application; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not under suspension, debarment, expulsion, or disbarment from practice before any court, the Department, the Executive Office for Immigration Review, or DHS under 8 CFR 292.3 or 1003.101.
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural association.</I> Any nonprofit or cooperative association of farmers, growers, or ranchers (including, but not limited to, processing establishments, canneries, gins, packing sheds, nurseries, or other similar fixed-site agricultural employers), incorporated or qualified under applicable State law, that recruits, solicits, hires, employs, furnishes, houses, or transports any worker that is subject to 8 U.S.C. 1188. An agricultural association may act as the agent of an employer, or may act as the sole or joint employer of any worker subject to 8 U.S.C. 1188.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant.</I> A U.S. worker who is applying for a job opportunity for which an employer has filed an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and job order.
</P>
<P><I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I> The Office of Management and Budget (OMB)-approved Form ETA-9142A and appropriate appendices submitted by an employer to secure a temporary agricultural labor certification determination from DOL.
</P>
<P><I>Area of intended employment (AIE).</I> The geographic area within normal commuting distance of the place of employment for which the temporary agricultural labor certification is sought. There is no rigid measure of distance that constitutes a normal commuting distance or normal commuting area, because there may be widely varying factual circumstances among different areas (e.g., average commuting times, barriers to reaching the place of employment, or quality of the regional transportation network). If a place of employment is within a Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA), including a multi-State MSA, any place within the MSA is deemed to be within normal commuting distance of the place of employment. The borders of MSAs are not controlling in the identification of the normal commuting area; a place of employment outside of an MSA may be within normal commuting distance of a place of employment that is inside (e.g., near the border of) the MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Attorney.</I> Any person who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State, possession, territory, or commonwealth of the United States, or the District of Columbia (DC). Such a person is also permitted to act as an agent under this part. No attorney who is under suspension, debarment, expulsion, or disbarment from practice before any court, the Department, the Executive Office for Immigration Review under 8 CFR 1003.101, or DHS under 8 CFR 292.3 may represent an employer under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Certifying Officer (CO).</I> The person who makes a determination on an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> filed under the H-2A program. The OFLC Administrator is the National CO. Other COs may be designated by the OFLC Administrator to also make the determination required under 20 CFR part 655, subpart B.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Administrative Law Judge (Chief ALJ).</I> The chief official of the Department's OALJ or the Chief ALJ's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Corresponding employment.</I> The employment of workers who are not H-2A workers by an employer who has an approved <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> in any work included in the job order, or in any agricultural work performed by the H-2A workers. To qualify as corresponding employment, the work must be performed during the validity period of the job order, including any approved extension thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Department of Homeland Security (DHS).</I> The Department of Homeland Security, as established by 6 U.S.C. 111.
</P>
<P><I>Employee.</I> A person who is engaged to perform work for an employer, as defined under the general common law of agency. Some of the factors relevant to the determination of employee status include: the hiring party's right to control the manner and means by which the work is accomplished; the skill required to perform the work; the source of the instrumentalities and tools for accomplishing the work; the location of the work; the hiring party's discretion over when and how long to work; and whether the work is part of the regular business of the hiring party. Other applicable factors may be considered and no one factor is dispositive.
</P>
<P><I>Employer.</I> A person (including any individual, partnership, association, corporation, cooperative, firm, joint stock company, trust, or other organization with legal rights and duties) that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has an employment relationship (such as the ability to hire, pay, fire, supervise, or otherwise control the work of employee) with respect to an H-2A worker or a worker in corresponding employment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Files an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> other than as an agent; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is a person on whose behalf an <I>Application of Temporary Employment Certification</I> is filed.
</P>
<P><I>Employment and Training Administration (ETA).</I> The agency within the Department that includes OFLC and has been delegated authority by the Secretary to fulfill the Secretary's mandate under the INA and DHS' implementing regulations in 8 CFR chapter I, subchapter B, from the administration and adjudication of an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and related functions.
</P>
<P><I>Federal holiday.</I> Legal public holiday as defined at 5 U.S.C. 6103.
</P>
<P><I>First date of need.</I> The first date the employer requires the labor or services of H-2A workers as indicated in the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Fixed-site employer.</I> Any person engaged in agriculture who meets the definition of an employer, as those terms are defined in this part; who owns or operates a farm, ranch, processing establishment, cannery, gin, packing shed, nursery, or other similar fixed-site location where agricultural activities are performed; and who recruits, solicits, hires, employs, houses, or transports any worker subject to 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part as incident to or in conjunction with the owner's or operator's own agricultural operation.
</P>
<P><I>H-2A labor contractor (H-2ALC).</I> Any person who meets the definition of employer under this part and is not a fixed-site employer, an agricultural association, or an employee of a fixed-site employer or agricultural association, as those terms are used in this part, who recruits, solicits, hires, employs, furnishes, houses, or transports any worker subject to 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part.
</P>
<P><I>H-2A Petition.</I> The USCIS Form I-129, Petition for a Nonimmigrant Worker, with H Supplement or successor form or supplement, and accompanying documentation required by DHS for employers seeking to employ foreign persons as H-2A nonimmigrant workers.
</P>
<P><I>H-2A worker.</I> Any temporary foreign worker who is lawfully present in the United States and authorized by DHS to perform agricultural labor or services of a temporary or seasonal nature pursuant to 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Job offer.</I> The offer made by an employer or potential employer of H-2A workers to both U.S. and H-2A workers describing all the material terms and conditions of employment, including those relating to wages, working conditions, and other benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Job opportunity.</I> Full-time employment at a place in the United States to which U.S. workers can be referred.
</P>
<P><I>Job order.</I> The document containing the material terms and conditions of employment that is posted by the SWA on its interstate and intrastate job clearance systems based on the employer's <I>Agricultural Clearance Order</I> (Form ETA-790/ETA-790A and all appropriate addenda), as submitted to the National Processing Center.


</P>
<P><I>Joint employment.</I> (i) Where two or more employers each have sufficient definitional indicia of being a joint employer of a worker under the common law of agency, they are, at all times, joint employers of that worker.
</P>
<P>(ii) An agricultural association that files an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> as a joint employer is, at all times, a joint employer of all the H-2A workers sponsored under the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and all workers in corresponding employment. An employer-member of an agricultural association that files an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> as a joint employer is a joint employer of the H-2A workers sponsored under the joint employer <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> along with the agricultural association during the period that the employer-member employs the H-2A workers sponsored under the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers that jointly file a joint employer <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> under 20 CFR 655.131(b) are, at all times, joint employers of all H-2A workers sponsored under the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and all workers in corresponding employment.
</P>
<P><I>Key service provider.</I> A health-care provider; a community health worker; an education provider; a translator or interpreter; an attorney, legal advocate, or other legal service provider; a government official, including a consular representative; a member of the clergy; an emergency services provider; a law enforcement officer; and any other provider of similar services.


</P>
<P><I>Labor organization.</I> Any organization of any kind, or any agency or employee representation committee or plan, in which workers participate and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA).</I> A geographic entity defined by OMB for use by Federal statistical agencies in collecting, tabulating, and publishing Federal statistics. A Metropolitan Statistical Area contains a core urban area of 50,000 or more population, and a Micropolitan Statistical Area contains an urban core of at least 10,000 (but fewer than 50,000) population. Each metropolitan or micropolitan area consists of one or more counties and includes the counties containing the core urban area, as well as any adjacent counties that have a high degree of social and economic integration (as measured by commuting to work) with the urban core.
</P>
<P><I>National Processing Center (NPC).</I> The offices within OFLC in which the Cos operate and which are charged with the adjudication of <I>Applications for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Office of Foreign Labor Certification (OFLC).</I> OFLC means the organizational component of ETA that provides national leadership and policy guidance, and develops regulations and procedures to carry out the responsibilities of the Secretary under the INA concerning the admission of foreign workers to the United States to perform work described in 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a).
</P>
<P><I>OFLC Administrator.</I> The primary official of OFLC, or the OFLC Administrator's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Period of employment.</I> The time during which the employer requires the labor or services of H-2A workers as indicated by the first and last dates of need provided in the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Piece rate.</I> A form of wage compensation based upon a worker's quantitative output or one unit of work or production for the crop or agricultural activity.
</P>
<P><I>Place of employment.</I> A worksite or physical location where work under the job order actually is performed by the H-2A workers and workers in corresponding employment.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary of Labor (Secretary).</I> The chief official of the Department, or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P><I>State Workforce Agency (SWA).</I> State government agency that receives funds pursuant to the Wagner-Peyser Act, 29 U.S.C. 49 <I>et seq.,</I> to administer the State's public labor exchange activities.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary agricultural labor certification.</I> Certification made by the OFLC Administrator, based on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> job order, and all supporting documentation, with respect to an employer seeking to file an H-2A Petition with DHS to employ one or more foreign nationals as an H-2A worker, pursuant to 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), 1184(a) and (c), and 1188, and 20 CFR part 655, subpart B.
</P>
<P><I>United States.</I> The continental United States, Alaska, Hawaii, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the territories of Guam, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS).</I> An operational component of DHS.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. worker.</I> A worker who is:
</P>
<P>(i) A citizen or national of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States, is admitted as a refugee under 8 U.S.C. 1157, is granted asylum under 8 U.S.C. 1158, or is an immigrant otherwise authorized by the INA or DHS to be employed in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual who is not an unauthorized alien, as defined in 8 U.S.C. 1324a(h)(3), with respect to the employment in which the worker is engaging.
</P>
<P><I>Wage and Hour Division (WHD).</I> The agency within the Department with authority to conduct certain investigatory and enforcement functions, as delegated by the Secretary, under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Wages.</I> All forms of cash remuneration to a worker by an employer in payment for labor or services.
</P>
<P><I>WHD Administrator.</I> The primary official of the WHD, or the WHD Administrator's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Work contract.</I> All the material terms and conditions of employment relating to wages, hours, working conditions, and other benefits, including those required by 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part. The contract between the employer and the worker may be in the form of a separate written document. In the absence of a separate written work contract incorporating the required terms and conditions of employment, agreed to by both the employer and the worker, the work contract at a minimum will be the terms and conditions of the job order and any obligations required under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of agricultural labor or services.</I> For the purposes of this part, agricultural labor or services, pursuant to 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), is defined as agricultural labor as defined and applied in sec. 3121(g) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 at 26 U.S.C. 3121(g); agriculture as defined and applied in sec. 3(f) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (FLSA), at 29 U.S.C. 203(f); the pressing of apples for cider on a farm; or logging employment. An occupation included in either statutory definition is agricultural labor or services, notwithstanding the exclusion of that occupation from the other statutory definition. For informational purposes, the statutory provisions are listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Agricultural labor.</I> (i) For the purpose of paragraph (b) of this section, agricultural labor means all service performed:
</P>
<P>(A) On a farm, in the employ of any person, in connection with cultivating the soil, or in connection with raising or harvesting any agricultural or horticultural commodity, including the raising, shearing, feeding, caring for, training, and management of livestock, bees, poultry, and fur-bearing animals and wildlife;
</P>
<P>(B) In the employ of the owner or tenant or other operator of a farm, in connection with the operation, management, conservation, improvement, or maintenance of such farm and its tools and equipment, or in salvaging timber or clearing land of brush and other debris left by a hurricane, if the major part of such service is performed on a farm;
</P>
<P>(C) In connection with the production or harvesting of any commodity defined as an agricultural commodity in sec. 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1141j, or in connection with the ginning of cotton, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways, not owned or operated for profit, used exclusively for supplying and storing water for farming purposes;
</P>
<P>(D) In the employ of the operator of a farm in handling, planting, drying, packing, packaging, processing, freezing, grading, storing, or delivering to storage or to market or to a carrier for transportation to market, in its unmanufactured state, any agricultural or horticultural commodity; but only if such operator produced more than one-half of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed;
</P>
<P>(E) In the employ of a group of operators of farms (other than a cooperative organization) in the performance of service described in paragraph (b)(1)(i)(D) of this section but only if such operators produced all of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(i)(E), any unincorporated group of operators shall be deemed a cooperative organization if the number of operators comprising such group is more than 20 at any time during the calendar year in which such service is performed;
</P>
<P>(F) The provisions of paragraphs (b)(1)(i)(D) and (E) of this section shall not be deemed to be applicable with respect to service performed in connection with commercial canning or commercial freezing or in connection with any agricultural or horticultural commodity after its delivery to a terminal market for distribution for consumption; or
</P>
<P>(G) On a farm operated for profit if such service is not in the course of the employer's trade or business or is domestic service in a private home of the employer.
</P>
<P>(ii) As used in this section, the term “farm” includes stock, dairy, poultry, fruit, fur-bearing animal, and truck farms, plantations, ranches, nurseries, ranges, greenhouses, or other similar structures used primarily for the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities, and orchards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agriculture.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, agriculture means farming in all its branches and among other things includes the cultivation and tillage of the soil, dairying, the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodities (including commodities defined as agricultural commodities in 12 U.S.C. 1141j(g), the raising of livestock, bees, fur-bearing animals, or poultry, and any practices (including any forestry or lumbering operations) performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations, including preparation for market, delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market. <I>See</I> 29 U.S.C. 203(f), as amended. Under 12 U.S.C. 1141j(g), agricultural commodities include, in addition to other agricultural commodities, crude gum (oleoresin) from a living tree, and the following products as processed by the original producer of the crude gum (oleoresin) from which derived: gum spirits of turpentine and gum rosin. In addition, as defined in 7 U.S.C. 92, gum spirits of turpentine means spirits of turpentine made from gum (oleoresin) from a living tree and gum rosin means rosin remaining after the distillation of gum spirits of turpentine.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Apple pressing for cider.</I> The pressing of apples for cider on a farm, as the term farm is defined and applied in sec. 3121(g) of the Internal Revenue Code at 26 U.S.C. 3121(g), or as applied in sec. 3(f) of the FLSA at 29 U.S.C. 203(f), pursuant to 29 CFR part 780.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Logging employment.</I> Logging employment is operations associated with felling and moving trees and logs from the stump to the point of delivery, such as, but not limited to, marking danger trees, marking trees or logs to be cut to length, felling, limbing, bucking, debarking, chipping, yarding, loading, unloading, storing, and transporting machines, equipment and personnel to, from, and between logging sites.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employment as defined and specified in 20 CFR 655.300 through 655.304.</I> For the purpose of paragraph (b) of this section, agricultural labor or services includes animal shearing, commercial beekeeping, and custom combining activities as defined and specified in 20 CFR 655.300 through 655.304.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of a temporary or seasonal nature.</I> For the purposes of this subpart, employment is of a seasonal nature where it is tied to a certain time of year by an event or pattern, such as a short annual growing cycle or a specific aspect of a longer cycle, and requires labor levels far above those necessary for ongoing operations. Employment is of a temporary nature where the employer's need to fill the position with a temporary worker will, except in extraordinary circumstances, last no longer than 1 year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition of single employer for purposes of temporary or seasonal need and contractual obligations.</I> Separate entities will be deemed a single employer (sometimes referred to as an “integrated employer”) for purposes of assessing temporary or seasonal need and for enforcement of contractual obligations if they meet the definition of single employer in this paragraph (e). Under the definition of single employer, a determination of whether separate entities are a single employer is not determined by a single factor, but rather the entire relationship is viewed in its totality. Factors considered in determining whether two or more entities consist of a single employer include:
</P>
<P>(1) Common management;
</P>
<P>(2) Interrelation between operations;
</P>
<P>(3) Centralized control of labor relations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Degree of common ownership/financial control.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 61822, Oct. 12, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 34067, Apr. 29, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.4   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A person may not intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, or in any manner discriminate against any person who has:
</P>
<P>(i) Filed a complaint under or related to 8 U.S.C. 1188 or this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instituted or causes to be instituted any proceedings related to 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Testified or is about to testify in any proceeding under or related to 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) Consulted with an employee of a legal assistance program or an attorney on matters related to 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part;
</P>
<P>(v) Consulted with a key service provider on matters related to 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part;
</P>
<P>(vi) Exercised or asserted on behalf of themselves or others any right or protection afforded by 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Filed a complaint, instituted, or caused to be instituted any proceeding, or testified, assisted, or participated (or is about to testify, assist or participate) in any investigation, proceeding or hearing under or related to any applicable Federal, State, or local laws or regulations, including safety and health, employment, and labor laws.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any person engaged in agriculture as defined and applied in 29 U.S.C. 203(f), a person may not intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge or in any manner discriminate against, and may not cause any person to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, or in any manner discriminate against, any person because such person:
</P>
<P>(i) Has engaged in activities related to self-organization, including any effort to form, join, or assist a labor organization; has engaged in other concerted activities for the purpose of mutual aid or protection relating to wages or working conditions; or has refused to engage in any or all of such activities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has refused to attend an employer-sponsored meeting with the employer or its agent, representative or designee, the primary purpose of which is to communicate the employer's opinion concerning any activity protected by this subpart; or listen to speech or view communications, the primary purpose of which is to communicate the employer's opinion concerning any activity protected by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Allegations of discrimination against any person under paragraph (a) of this section will be investigated by WHD. Where WHD has determined through investigation that such allegations have been substantiated, appropriate remedies may be sought. WHD may assess civil money penalties, seek injunctive relief, and/or seek additional remedies necessary to make the worker whole as a result of the discrimination, as appropriate, initiate debarment proceedings, and recommend to OFLC revocation of any such violator's current temporary agricultural labor certification. Complaints alleging discrimination against workers or immigrants based on citizenship or immigration status may also be forwarded by WHD to the Department of Justice, Civil Rights Division, Immigrant and Employee Rights Section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 61822, Oct. 12, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 34068, Apr. 29, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.5   Waiver of rights prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>A person may not seek to have an H-2A worker, a worker in corresponding employment, or a U.S. worker improperly rejected for employment or improperly laid off or displaced waive any rights conferred under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part. Any agreement by a worker purporting to waive or modify any rights given to said person under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part shall be void as contrary to public policy except as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Waivers or modifications of rights or obligations under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part in favor of the Secretary shall be valid for purposes of enforcement; and
</P>
<P>(b) Agreements in settlement of private litigation are permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.6   Investigation authority of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Secretary, through WHD, may investigate to determine compliance with obligations under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, either pursuant to a complaint or otherwise, as may be appropriate. In connection with such an investigation, WHD may enter and inspect any premises, land, property, housing, vehicles, and records (and make transcriptions thereof), question any person, and gather any information as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidential investigation.</I> WHD shall conduct investigations in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any complainant or other person who provides information to the Secretary in good faith.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Report of violations.</I> Any person may report a violation of the obligations imposed by 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part to the Secretary by advising any local office of the SWA, ETA, WHD, or any other authorized representative of the Secretary. The office or person receiving such a report shall refer it to the appropriate office of WHD for the geographic area in which the reported violation is alleged to have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.7   Cooperation with Federal officials.</HEAD>
<P>All persons must cooperate with any Federal officials assigned to perform an investigation, inspection, or law enforcement function pursuant to 8 U.S.C. 1188 and this part during the performance of such duties. WHD will take such action as it deems appropriate, including initiating debarment proceedings, seeking an injunction to bar any failure to cooperate with an investigation, and/or assessing a civil money penalty therefor. In addition, WHD will report the matter to OFLC, and may recommend to OFLC that the person's existing temporary agricultural labor certification be revoked. In addition, Federal statutes prohibiting persons from interfering with a Federal officer in the course of official duties are found at 18 U.S.C. 111 and 114.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.8   Accuracy of information, statements, and data.</HEAD>
<P>Information, statements, and data submitted in compliance with 8 U.S.C. 1188 or this part are subject to 18 U.S.C. 1001, which provides, with regard to statements or entries generally, that whoever, in any matter within the jurisdiction of any department or agency of the United States, knowingly and willfully falsifies, conceals, or covers up a material fact by any trick, scheme, or device, or makes any false, fictitious, or fraudulent statements or representations, or makes or uses any false writing or document knowing the same to contain any false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or entry, shall be fined not more than $10,000 or imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.9   Enforcement of surety bond.</HEAD>
<P>Every H-2A labor contractor (H-2ALC) must obtain a surety bond demonstrating its ability to discharge financial obligations as set forth in 20 CFR 655.132(c).
</P>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding the required bond amounts set forth in 20 CFR 655.132(c), the WHD Administrator may require that an H-2ALC obtain a bond with a higher face value amount after notice and opportunity for hearing when it is shown based on objective criteria that the amount of the bond is insufficient to meet potential liabilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon a final decision reached pursuant to the administrative proceedings of subpart C of this part, including any timely appeal, or resulting from an enforcement action brought directly in a District Court of the United States finding a violation or violations of 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, the WHD Administrator may make a written demand on the surety for payment of any wages and benefits, including the assessment of interest, owed to an H-2A worker, a worker engaged in corresponding employment, or a U.S. worker improperly rejected or improperly laid off or displaced. The WHD Administrator shall have 3 years from the expiration of the labor certification, including any extension thereof, to make such written demand for payment on the surety. This 3-year period for making a demand on the surety is tolled by commencement of any enforcement action of the WHD Administrator pursuant to § 501.6, § 501.15, or § 501.16 or the commencement of any enforcement action in a District Court of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.1.56.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.10   Severability.</HEAD>
<HEAD>§ 501.10   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>If any provision of this part is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision will be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding is one of total invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision will be severable from this part and will not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 34068, Apr. 29, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.15   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The investigation, inspection, and law enforcement functions to carry out the provisions of 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, as provided in this part for enforcement by WHD, pertain to the employment of any H-2A worker, any worker in corresponding employment, or any U.S. worker improperly rejected for employment or improperly laid off or displaced. Such enforcement includes the work contract provisions as defined in § 501.3(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.16   Sanctions and remedies—general.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the WHD Administrator believes that 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part have been violated, such action shall be taken and such proceedings instituted as deemed appropriate, including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Institute appropriate administrative proceedings, including: the recovery of unpaid wages (including recovery of recruitment fees paid in the absence of required contract clauses (<I>see</I> 20 CFR 655.135(k)); the enforcement of provisions of the work contract, 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part; the assessment of a civil money penalty; make whole relief for any person who has been discriminated against; reinstatement and make whole relief for any U.S. worker who has been improperly rejected for employment, or improperly laid off or displaced; or debarment for up to 3 years.
</P>
<P>(2) The remedies referenced in paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be sought either directly from the employer, agent, or attorney, or from its successor in interest, as appropriate. In the case of an H-2ALC, the remedies will be sought from the H-2ALC directly and/or monetary relief (other than civil money penalties) from the insurer who issued the surety bond to the H-2ALC, as required by 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, and § 501.9.
</P>
<P>(b) Petition any appropriate District Court of the United States for temporary or permanent injunctive relief, including to prohibit the withholding of unpaid wages and/or for reinstatement, or to restrain violation of 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, by any person.
</P>
<P>(c) Petition any appropriate District Court of the United States for an order directing specific performance of covered contractual obligations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.17   Concurrent actions.</HEAD>
<P>OFLC has primary responsibility to make all determinations regarding the issuance, denial, or revocation of a labor certification as described in 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, and § 501.1(b). WHD has primary responsibility to make all determinations regarding the enforcement functions as described in § 501.1(c). The taking of any one of the actions referred to above shall not be a bar to the concurrent taking of any other action authorized by 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part. OFLC and WHD have concurrent jurisdiction to impose a debarment remedy pursuant to 20 CFR 655.182 and § 501.20.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.18   Representation of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The Solicitor of Labor, through authorized representatives, shall represent the WHD Administrator and the Secretary in all administrative hearings under 8 U.S.C. 1188 and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.19   Civil money penalty assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A civil money penalty may be assessed by the WHD Administrator for each violation of the work contract, or the obligations imposed by 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part. Each failure to pay an individual worker properly or to honor the terms or conditions of a worker's employment required by 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part constitutes a separate violation.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the amount of penalty to be assessed for each violation, the WHD Administrator shall consider the type of violation committed and other relevant factors. The factors that the WHD Administrator may consider include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Previous history of violation(s) of 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of H-2A workers, workers in corresponding employment, or U.S. workers who were and/or are affected by the violation(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The gravity of the violation(s);
</P>
<P>(4) Efforts made in good faith to comply with 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, and this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Explanation from the person charged with the violation(s);
</P>
<P>(6) Commitment to future compliance, taking into account the public health, interest, or safety, and whether the person has previously violated 8 U.S.C. 1188; and
</P>
<P>(7) The extent to which the violator achieved a financial gain due to the violation(s), or the potential financial loss or potential injury to the worker(s).
</P>
<P>(c) A civil money penalty for each violation of the work contract or a requirement of 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part will not exceed $2,166 per violation, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) A civil money penalty for each willful violation of the work contract or a requirement of 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, or for each act of discrimination prohibited by § 501.4 shall not exceed $7,289;
</P>
<P>(2) A civil money penalty for a violation of a housing or transportation safety and health provision of the work contract, or any obligation under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, that proximately causes the death or serious injury of any worker shall not exceed $72,164 per worker; and
</P>
<P>(3) A civil money penalty for a repeat or willful violation of a housing or transportation safety and health provision of the work contract, or any obligation under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, that proximately causes the death or serious injury of any worker, shall not exceed $144,329 per worker.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) this section, the term <I>serious injury</I> includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Permanent loss or substantial impairment of one of the senses (sight, hearing, taste, smell, tactile sensation);
</P>
<P>(ii) Permanent loss or substantial impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ or mental faculty, including the loss of all or part of an arm, leg, foot, hand, or other body part; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Permanent paralysis or substantial impairment that causes loss of movement or mobility of an arm, leg, foot, hand, or other body part.
</P>
<P>(d) A civil money penalty for failure to cooperate with a WHD investigation shall not exceed $7,289 per investigation.
</P>
<P>(e) A civil money penalty for laying off or displacing any U.S. worker employed in work or activities that are encompassed by the approved <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> for H-2A workers in the area of intended employment either within 60 calendar days preceding the first date of need or during the validity period of the job order, including any approved extension thereof, other than for a lawful, job-related reason, shall not exceed $21,649 per violation per worker.
</P>
<P>(f) A civil money penalty for improperly rejecting a U.S. worker who is an applicant for employment, in violation of 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, shall not exceed $21,649 per violation per worker.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 61822, Oct. 12, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 2216, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1815, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1860, Jan. 10, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.20   Debarment and revocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Debarment of an employer, agent, or attorney.</I> The WHD Administrator may debar an employer, agent, or attorney from participating in any action under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, subject to the time limits set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, if the WHD Administrator finds that the employer, agent, or attorney substantially violated a material term or condition of the temporary agricultural labor certification, with respect to H-2A workers, workers in corresponding employment, or U.S. workers improperly rejected for employment, or improperly laid off or displaced, by issuing a Notice of Debarment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect on future applications.</I> (1) No application for H-2A workers may be filed by or on behalf of a debarred employer, or by an employer represented by a debarred agent or attorney, subject to the time limits set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. If such an application is filed, it will be denied without review.
</P>
<P>(2) No application for H-2A workers may be filed by or on behalf of a successor in interest, as defined in 20 CFR 655.104, to a debarred employer, agent, or attorney, subject to the term limits set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. If the CO determines that such an application is filed, the CO will issue a Notice of Deficiency (NOD) pursuant to 20 CFR 655.141 or deny the application pursuant to 20 CFR 655.164, as appropriate depending upon the status of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> solely on the basis that the entity is a successor in interest to a debarred employer, agent, or attorney. The employer, agent, or attorney may appeal its status as a successor in interest to the debarred entity, pursuant to the procedures for appeals of CO determinations at 20 CFR 655.171.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statute of limitations and period of debarment.</I> (1) The WHD Administrator must issue any Notice of Debarment not later than 2 years after the occurrence of the violation.
</P>
<P>(2) No employer, agent, or attorney, or their successors in interest, may be debarred under this part for more than 3 years from the date of the final agency decision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition of violation.</I> For the purposes of this section, a violation includes:
</P>
<P>(1) One or more acts of commission or omission on the part of the employer or the employer's agent which involve:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay or provide the required wages, benefits, or working conditions to the employer's H-2A workers and/or workers in corresponding employment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure, except for lawful, job-related reasons, to offer employment to qualified U.S. workers who applied for the job opportunity for which certification was sought;
</P>
<P>(iii) Failure to comply with the employer's obligations to recruit U.S. workers;
</P>
<P>(iv) Improper layoff or displacement of U.S. workers or workers in corresponding employment;
</P>
<P>(v) Failure to comply with one or more sanctions or remedies imposed by the WHD Administrator for violation(s) of contractual or other H-2A obligations, or with one or more decisions or orders of the Secretary or a court under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part;
</P>
<P>(vi) Impeding an investigation of an employer under 8 U.S.C. 1188 or this part, or an audit under 20 CFR part 655, subpart B;
</P>
<P>(vii) Employing an H-2A worker outside the area of intended employment, or in an activity/activities not listed in the job order or outside the validity period of employment of the job order, including any approved extension thereof;
</P>
<P>(viii) A violation of the requirements of 20 CFR 655.135(j), (k), or (o);


</P>
<P>(ix) A violation of any of the provisions listed in § 501.4(a); or
</P>
<P>(x) A single heinous act showing such flagrant disregard for the law that future compliance with program requirements cannot reasonably be expected.
</P>
<P>(2) In determining whether a violation is so substantial as to merit debarment, the factors set forth in § 501.19(b) shall be considered.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedural requirements.</I> The Notice of Debarment must be in writing, must state the reason for the debarment finding, including a detailed explanation of the grounds for and the duration of the debarment, must identify appeal opportunities under § 501.33 and a timeframe under which such rights must be exercised and must comply with § 501.32. The debarment will take effect 30 calendar days from the date the Notice of Debarment is issued, unless a request for review is properly filed within 30 calendar days from the issuance of the Notice of Debarment. The timely filing of an administrative appeal stays the debarment pending the outcome of the appeal as provided in § 501.33(d).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Debarment of associations, employer-members of associations, and joint employers.</I> If, after investigation, the WHD Administrator determines that an individual employer-member of an agricultural association, or a joint employer under 20 CFR 655.131(b), has committed a substantial violation, the debarment determination will apply only to that employer-member unless the WHD Administrator determines that the agricultural association or another agricultural association member or joint employer under 20 CFR 655.131(b), participated in the violation, in which case the debarment will be invoked against the agricultural association or other complicit agricultural association member(s) or joint employer under 20 CFR 655.131(b) as well.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Debarment involving agricultural associations acting as sole employers.</I> If, after investigation, the WHD Administrator determines that an agricultural association acting as a sole employer has committed a substantial violation, the debarment determination will apply only to the agricultural association and any successor in interest to the debarred agricultural association.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Debarment involving agricultural associations acting as joint employers.</I> If, after investigation, the WHD Administrator determines that an agricultural association acting as a joint employer with its employer-members has committed a substantial violation, the debarment determination will apply only to the agricultural association, and will not be applied to any individual employer-member of the agricultural association. However, if the WHD Administrator determines that the employer-member participated in, had knowledge of, or had reason to know of the violation, the debarment may be invoked against the complicit agricultural association member as well. An agricultural association debarred from the H-2A temporary labor certification program will not be permitted to continue to file as a joint employer with its employer-members during the period of the debarment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Revocation.</I> WHD may recommend to the OFLC Administrator the revocation of a temporary agricultural labor certification if WHD finds that the employer:
</P>
<P>(1) Substantially violated a material term or condition of the approved temporary agricultural labor certification;
</P>
<P>(2) Failed to cooperate with a DOL investigation or with a DOL official performing an investigation, inspection, or law enforcement function under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) Failed to comply with one or more sanctions or remedies imposed by WHD, or with one or more decisions or orders of the Secretary or a court order secured by the Secretary under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Successors in interest.</I> When an employer, agent, or attorney is debarred under this section, any successor in interest to the debarred employer, agent, or attorney is also debarred, regardless of whether the successor is named or not named in the notice of debarment issued under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 61822, Oct. 12, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 34068, Apr. 29, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.21   Failure to cooperate with investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall refuse to cooperate with any employee of the Secretary who is exercising or attempting to exercise this investigative or enforcement authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Where an employer (or employer's agent or attorney) does not cooperate with an investigation concerning the employment of an H-2A worker, a worker in corresponding employment, or a U.S. worker who has been improperly rejected for employment or improperly laid off or displaced, WHD may make such information available to OFLC and may recommend that OFLC revoke the existing certification that is the basis for the employment of the H-2A workers giving rise to the investigation. In addition, WHD may take such action as appropriate, including initiating proceedings for the debarment of the employer, agent, or attorney from future certification for up to 3 years, seeking an injunction, and/or assessing civil money penalties against any person who has failed to cooperate with a WHD investigation. The taking of any one action shall not bar the taking of any additional action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.2.56.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.22   Civil money penalties—payment and collection.</HEAD>
<P>Where a civil money penalty is assessed in a final order by the WHD Administrator, by an ALJ, or by the Administrative Review Board (ARB), the amount of the penalty must be received by the WHD Administrator within 30 days of the date of the final order. The person assessed such penalty shall remit the amount thereof, as finally determined, to the Secretary. Payment shall be made by certified check or money order made payable and delivered or mailed according to the instructions provided by the Department; through the electronic pay portal located at <I>www.pay.gov</I> or any successor system; or by any additional payment method deemed acceptable by the Department.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.30   Applicability of procedures and rules in this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures and rules contained in this subpart prescribe the administrative process that will be applied with respect to a determination to assess civil money penalties, debar, or increase the amount of a surety bond and which may be applied to the enforcement of provisions of the work contract, or obligations under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, or to the collection of monetary relief due as a result of any violation. Except with respect to the imposition of civil money penalties, debarment, or an increase in the amount of a surety bond, the Secretary may, in the Secretary's discretion, seek enforcement action in a District Court of the United States without resort to any administrative proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="56" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.56" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Relating to Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.31" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.31   Written notice of determination required.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the WHD Administrator decides to assess a civil money penalty, debar, increase a surety bond, or proceed administratively to enforce contractual obligations, or obligations under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part, including for the recovery of the monetary relief, the person against whom such action is taken shall be notified in writing of such determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.32" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.32   Contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>The notice required by § 501.31 shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Set forth the determination of the WHD Administrator including the amount of any monetary relief due or actions necessary to fulfill a contractual obligation or obligations under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or this part; the amount of any civil money penalty assessment; whether debarment is sought and if so its term; and any change in the amount of the surety bond, and the reason or reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) Set forth the right to request a hearing on such determination.
</P>
<P>(c) Inform any affected person or persons that in the absence of a timely request for a hearing, the determination of the WHD Administrator shall become final and unappealable.
</P>
<P>(d) Set forth the time and method for requesting a hearing, and the procedures relating thereto, as set forth in § 501.33.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.33" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.33   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person desiring review of a determination referred to in § 501.32, including judicial review, shall make a written request for an administrative hearing to the official who issued the determination at the WHD address appearing on the determination notice, no later than 30 calendar days after the date of issuance of the notice referred to in § 501.32.
</P>
<P>(b) No particular form is prescribed for any request for hearing permitted by this part. However, any such request shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be typewritten or legibly written;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the issue or issues stated in the notice of determination giving rise to such request (any issues not raised in the request may be deemed waived);
</P>
<P>(3) State the specific reason or reasons the person requesting the hearing believes such determination is in error;
</P>
<P>(4) Be signed by the person making the request or by an authorized representative of such person; and
</P>
<P>(5) Include the address at which such person or authorized representative desires to receive further communications relating thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) The request for such hearing must be received by the official who issued the determination, at the WHD address appearing on the determination notice, within the time set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. Requests may be made by certified mail or by means normally assuring overnight delivery.
</P>
<P>(d) The determination shall take effect on the start date identified in the written notice of determination, unless an administrative appeal is properly filed. The timely filing of an administrative appeal stays the determination pending the outcome of the appeal proceedings, provided that any surety bond remains in effect until the conclusion of any such proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 61822, Oct. 12, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 34068, Apr. 29, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="57" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.57" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Rules of Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.34" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.57.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.34   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specifically provided in this part, the <I>Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges</I> established by the Secretary at 29 CFR part 18 shall apply to administrative proceedings described in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) As provided in the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 556, any oral or documentary evidence may be received in proceedings under this part. The Federal Rules of Evidence and 29 CFR part 18, subpart B, will not apply, but principles designed to ensure production of relevant and probative evidence shall guide the admission of evidence. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.35" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.57.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.35   Commencement of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Each administrative proceeding permitted under 8 U.S.C. 1188 and the regulations in this part shall be commenced upon receipt of a timely request for hearing filed in accordance with § 501.33.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.36" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.57.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.36   Caption of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each administrative proceeding instituted under 8 U.S.C. 1188 and the regulations in this part shall be captioned in the name of the person requesting such hearing, and shall be styled as follows: In the Matter of ___, Respondent.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of such administrative proceedings, the WHD Administrator shall be identified as plaintiff and the person requesting such hearing shall be named as respondent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="58" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.58" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Referral for Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.37" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.58.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.37   Referral to Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing filed pursuant to and in accordance with § 501.33, the WHD Administrator, by the Associate Solicitor for the Division of Fair Labor Standards or the Regional Solicitor for the Region in which the action arose, will, by Order of Reference, promptly refer a copy of the notice of administrative determination complained of, and the original or a duplicate copy of the request for hearing signed by the person requesting such hearing or the authorized representative of such person, to the Chief ALJ, for a determination in an administrative proceeding as provided in this subpart. The notice of administrative determination and request for hearing shall be filed of record in the Office of the Chief Administrative Law Judge and shall, respectively, be given the effect of a complaint and answer thereto for purposes of the administrative proceeding, subject to any amendment that may be permitted under 29 CFR part 18 or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the Order of Reference, together with a copy of this part, shall be served by counsel for the WHD Administrator upon the person requesting the hearing, in the manner provided in 29 CFR 18.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.38" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.58.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.38   Notice of docketing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an Order of Reference, the Chief ALJ shall appoint an ALJ to hear the case. The ALJ shall promptly notify all interested parties of the docketing of the matter and shall set the time and place of the hearing. The date of the hearing shall be not more than 60 calendar days from the date on which the Order of Reference was filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.39" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.58.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.39   Service upon attorneys for the Department of Labor—number of copies.</HEAD>
<P>Two copies of all pleadings and other documents required for any administrative proceeding provided in this subpart shall be served on the attorneys for DOL. One copy shall be served on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210, and one copy on the attorney representing the Department in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="59" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.59" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Before Administrative Law Judge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.40" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.59.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.40   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding under this part, but prior to the reception of evidence in any such proceeding, a party may move to defer the receipt of any evidence for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such deferment and the duration thereof shall be at the discretion of the ALJ, after consideration of the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of an agreement being reached which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice of administrative determination (or amended notice, if one is filed), and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the ALJ; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their authorized representatives or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement for consideration by the ALJ; or
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the ALJ that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event an agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the ALJ, within 30 calendar days thereafter, shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="60" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.60" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Post-Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.41" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.60.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.41   Decision and order of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will prepare, within 60 calendar days after completion of the hearing and closing of the record, a decision on the issues referred by the WHD Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision of the ALJ shall include a statement of the findings and conclusions, with reasons and basis therefor, upon each material issue presented on the record. The decision shall also include an appropriate order which may affirm, deny, reverse, or modify, in whole or in part, the determination of the WHD Administrator. The reason or reasons for such order shall be stated in the decision.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision shall be served on all parties and the ARB.
</P>
<P>(d) The decision concerning civil money penalties, debarment, monetary relief, and/or enforcement of other contractual obligations under 8 U.S.C. 1188, 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, and/or this part, when served by the ALJ shall constitute the final agency order unless the ARB, as provided for in § 501.42, determines to review the decision.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="61" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.61" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Review of Administrative Law Judge's Decision</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.42" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.61.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.42   Procedures for initiating and undertaking review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A respondent, WHD, or any other party wishing review, including judicial review, of the decision of an ALJ must, within 30 calendar days of the decision of the ALJ, petition the ARB to review the decision. Copies of the petition must be served on all parties and on the ALJ. If the ARB does not issue a notice accepting a petition for review of the decision within 30 calendar days after receipt of a timely filing of the petition, or within 30 calendar days of the date of the decision if no petition has been received, the decision of the ALJ will be deemed the final agency action.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the ARB, either on the ARB's own motion or by acceptance of a party's petition, determines to review the decision of an ALJ, a notice of the same shall be served upon the ALJ and upon all parties to the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.43" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.61.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.43   Responsibility of the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of the ARB's notice to accept the petition, the OALJ will promptly forward a copy of the complete hearing record to the ARB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.44" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.61.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.44   Additional information, if required.</HEAD>
<P>Where the ARB has determined to review such decision and order, the ARB will notify each party of:
</P>
<P>(a) The issue or issues raised;
</P>
<P>(b) The form in which submissions must be made (e.g., briefs or oral argument); and
</P>
<P>(c) The time within which such presentation must be submitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.45" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.61.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.45   Decision of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>The ARB's decision shall be issued within 90 days from the notice granting the petition and served upon all parties and the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="62" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.62" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.46" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.62.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.46   Retention of official record.</HEAD>
<P>The official record of every completed administrative hearing provided by the regulations in this part shall be maintained and filed under the custody and control of the Chief ALJ, or, where the case has been the subject of administrative review, the ARB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.47" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.2.3.62.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.47   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a complaint seeking review of a decision issued pursuant to this part filed in a District Court of the United States, after the administrative remedies have been exhausted, the Chief ALJ or, where the case has been the subject of administrative review, the ARB shall promptly index, certify, and file with the appropriate District Court of the United States, a full, true, and correct copy of the entire record, including the transcript of proceedings.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="502" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 502—ENFORCEMENT OF CONTRACTUAL OBLIGATIONS FOR TEMPORARY ALIEN AGRICULTURAL WORKERS ADMITTED UNDER SECTION 218 OF THE IMMIGRATION AND NATIONALITY ACT (SUSPENDED 6-29-2009)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), 1184(c), and 1188. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 77229, Dec. 18, 2008, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 74 FR 26008, May 29, 2009, part 501 was redesignated as part 502, and newly designated part 502 was suspended, effective June 29, 2009.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.0   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations cover the enforcement of all contractual obligation provisions applicable to the employment of H-2A workers under sec. 218 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), as amended by the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 (IRCA). These regulations are also applicable to the employment of United States (U.S.) workers newly hired by employers of H-2A workers in the same occupations as the H-2A workers during the period of time set forth in the labor certification approved by ETA as a condition for granting H-2A certification, including any extension thereof. Such U.S. workers hired by H-2A employers are hereafter referred to as engaged in corresponding employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory standard.</I> Section 218(a) of the INA provides that:
</P>
<P>(1) A petition to import an alien as an H-2A worker (as defined in the INA) may not be approved by the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) unless the petitioner has applied to the Secretary of the United States Department of Labor (Secretary) for a certification that:
</P>
<P>(i) There are not sufficient workers who are able, willing, and qualified, and who will be available at the time and place needed, to perform the labor or services involved in the petition, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employment of the alien in such labor or services will not adversely affect the wages and working conditions of workers in the U.S. similarly employed.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Role of the Employment and Training Administration (ETA).</I> The issuance and denial of labor certification under sec. 218 of the INA has been delegated by the Secretary to ETA, an agency within the U.S. Department of Labor (the Department or DOL). In general, matters concerning the obligations of an employer of H-2A workers related to the labor certification process are administered and enforced by ETA. Included within ETA's jurisdiction are issues such as whether U.S. workers are available, whether adequate recruitment has been conducted, whether there is a strike or lockout, the methodology for establishing AEWR, whether workers' compensation insurance has been provided, whether employment was offered to U.S. workers as required by sec. 218 of the INA and regulations at 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, and other similar matters. The regulations pertaining to the issuance and denial of labor certification for temporary alien workers by the ETA are found in 20 CFR part 655, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Role of the Employment Standards Administration (ESA), Wage and Hour Division (WHD).</I> (1) The Secretary is authorized to take actions that assure compliance with the terms and conditions of employment under sec. 218 of the INA, the regulations at 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or these regulations, including the assessment of civil money penalties and seeking injunctive relief and specific performance of contractual obligations. <I>See</I> 8 U.S.C. 1188(g)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) Certain investigatory, inspection, and law enforcement functions to carry out the provisions of sec. 218 of the INA have been delegated by the Secretary to the ESA, WHD. In general, matters concerning the obligations under a work contract between an employer of H-2A workers and the H-2A workers and U.S. workers hired in corresponding employment by H-2A employers are enforced by ESA, including whether employment was offered to U.S. workers as required under sec. 218 of the INA or 20 CFR part 655, subpart B, or whether U.S. workers were laid off or displaced in violation of program requirements. Included within the enforcement responsibility of WHD are such matters as the payment of required wages, transportation, meals, and housing provided during the employment. The WHD has the responsibility to carry out investigations, inspections, and law enforcement functions and in appropriate instances impose penalties, recommend revocation of existing certification(s) or debarment from future certifications, and seek injunctive relief and specific performance of contractual obligations, including recovery of unpaid wages (either directly from the employer or in the case of an H-2A Labor Contractors (H-2ALC), from the H-2ALC directly and/or from the insurer who issued the surety bond to the H-2ALC as required by 20 CFR part 655, subpart B and 29 CFR 501.8).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of regulations.</I> The amendments to the INA made by Title III of the IRCA apply to petitions and applications filed on and after June 1, 1987. Accordingly, the enforcement functions carried out by the WHD under the INA and these regulations apply to the employment of any H-2A worker and any other U.S. workers hired by H-2A employers in corresponding employment as the result of any application filed with the Department on and after June 1, 1987. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.2   Coordination of intake between DOL agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Complaints received by ETA or any State Workforce Agency (SWA) regarding contractual H-2A labor standards between the employer and the employee will be immediately forwarded to the appropriate WHD office for appropriate action under these regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.3   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, or in any manner discriminate against any person who has:
</P>
<P>(1) Filed a complaint under or related to sec. 218 of the INA or these regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Instituted or caused to be instituted any proceedings related to sec. 218 of the INA or these regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) Testified or is about to testify in any proceeding under or related to sec. 218 of the INA or these regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) Exercised or asserted on behalf of himself or others any right or protection afforded by sec. 218 of the INA or these regulations; or
</P>
<P>(5) Consulted with an employee of a legal assistance program or an attorney on matters related to sec. 218 of the INA, or to this subpart or any other Department regulation promulgated pursuant to sec. 218 of the INA.
</P>
<P>(b) Allegations of discrimination against any person under paragraph (a) of this section will be investigated by the WHD. Where the WHD has determined through investigation that such allegations have been substantiated, appropriate remedies may be sought. The WHD may assess civil money penalties, seek injunctive relief, and/or seek additional remedies necessary to make the employee whole as a result of the discrimination, as appropriate, and may recommend to ETA debarment of any such violator from future labor certification. Complaints alleging discrimination against U.S. workers and immigrants based on citizenship or immigration status may also be forwarded by the WHD to the Department of Justice, Civil Rights Division, Office of Special Counsel for Immigration-Related Unfair Employment Practices. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.4   Waiver of rights prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>No person shall seek to have an H-2A worker, or other U.S. worker hired in corresponding employment by an H-2A employer, waive any rights conferred under sec. 218 of the INA, the regulations at 20 CFR part 655, Subpart B, or under these regulations. Any agreement by an employee purporting to waive or modify any rights inuring to said person under the INA or these regulations shall be void as contrary to public policy, except that a waiver or modification of rights or obligations hereunder in favor of the Secretary shall be valid for purposes of enforcement of the provisions of the INA or these regulations. This does not prevent agreements to settle private litigation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.5   Investigation authority of Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Secretary, either pursuant to a complaint or otherwise, shall, as may be appropriate, investigate and, in connection therewith, enter and inspect such places (including housing) and such vehicles, and such records (and make transcriptions thereof), question such persons and gather such information as deemed necessary by the Secretary to determine compliance with contractual obligations under sec. 218 of the INA or these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to cooperate with an investigation.</I> Where any employer (or employer's agent or attorney) using the services of an H-2A worker does not cooperate with an investigation concerning the employment of H-2A workers or U.S. workers hired in corresponding employment, the WHD shall report such occurrence to ETA and may recommend that ETA revoke the existing certification that is the basis for the employment of the H-2A workers giving rise to the investigation, and the WHD may recommend to ETA the debarment of the employer from future certification for up to 3 years. In addition, the WHD may take such action as may be appropriate, including the seeking of an injunction and/or assessing civil money penalties, against any person who has failed to permit the WHD to make an investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential investigation.</I> The Secretary shall conduct investigations in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any complainant or other person who provides information to the Secretary in good faith.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report of violations.</I> Any person may report a violation of the work contract obligations of sec. 218 of the INA or these regulations to the Secretary by advising any local office of the SWA, ETA, WHD, or any other authorized representative of the Secretary. The office or person receiving such a report shall refer it to the appropriate office of DOL, WHD for the geographic area in which the reported violation is alleged to have occurred. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.6   Cooperation with DOL officials.</HEAD>
<P>All persons must cooperate with any official of the DOL assigned to perform an investigation, inspection, or law enforcement function pursuant to the INA and these regulations during the performance of such duties. The WHD will take such action as it deems appropriate, including seeking an injunction to bar any failure to cooperate with an investigation and/or assessing a civil money penalty therefore. In addition, the WHD will report the matter to ETA, and the WHD may recommend to ETA the debarment of the employer from future certification and/or recommend that the person's existing labor certification be revoked. In addition, Federal statutes prohibiting persons from interfering with a Federal officer in the course of official duties are found at 18 U.S.C. 111 and 18 U.S.C. 1114. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.7   Accuracy of information, statements, data.</HEAD>
<P>Information, statements and data submitted in compliance with provisions of the Act or these regulations are subject to 18 U.S.C. 1001, which provides, with regard to statements or entries generally, that whoever, in any matter within the jurisdiction of any department or agency of the U.S. knowingly and willfully falsifies, conceals or covers up by any trick, scheme, or device a material fact, or makes any false, fictitious or fraudulent statements or representations, or makes or uses any false writing or document knowing the same to contain any false, fictitious or fraudulent statement or entry, shall be fined not more than $10,000 or imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.8   Surety bond.</HEAD>
<P>(a) H-2ALCs shall obtain a surety bond to assure compliance with the provisions of this part and 20 CFR part 655, subpart B for each labor certification being sought. The H-2ALC shall attest on the application for labor certification that such a bond meeting all the requirements of this section has been obtained and shall provide on the labor certification application form information that fully identifies the surety, including the name, address and phone number of the surety, and which identifies the bond by number or other identifying designation.
</P>
<P>(b) The bond shall be payable to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor. It shall obligate the surety to pay any sums to the Administrator, WHD, for wages and benefits owed to H-2A and U.S. workers, based on a final decision finding a violation or violations of this part or 20 CFR part 655, subpart B relating to the labor certification the bond is intended to cover. The aggregate liability of the surety shall not exceed the face amount of the bond. The bond shall be written to cover liability incurred during the term of the period listed in the application for labor certification made by the H-2ALC, and shall be amended to cover any extensions of the labor certification requested by the H-2ALC. Surety bonds may not be canceled or terminated unless 30 days' notice is provided by the surety to the Administrator, WHD.
</P>
<P>(c) The bond shall be in the amount of $5,000 for a labor certification for which a H-2ALC will employ fewer than 25 employees, $10,000 for a labor certification for which a H-2ALC will employ 25 to 49 employees, and $20,000 for a labor certification for which a H-2ALC will employ 50 or more employees. The amount of the bond may be increased by the Administrator, WHD after notice and an opportunity for hearing when it is shown based on objective criteria that the amount of the bond is insufficient to meet potential liabilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.1.70.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.10   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions of terms used in this part. For the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Law Judge (ALJ)</I> means a person within the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105, or a panel of such persons designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge from the Board of Alien Labor Certification Appeals (BALCA) established by part 656 of this chapter, which will hear and decide appeals as set forth at 20 CFR 655.115.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator, WHD</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division (WHD), ESA and such authorized representatives as may be designated to perform any of the functions of the Administrator, WHD under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse effect wage rate (AEWR)</I> means the minimum wage rate that the Administrator of the Office of Foreign Labor Certification (OFLC) has determined must be offered and paid to every H-2A worker employed under the DOL-approved <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> in a particular occupation and/or area, as well as to U.S. workers hired by employers into corresponding employment during the H-2A recruitment period, to ensure that the wages of similarly employed U.S. workers will not be adversely affected.
</P>
<P><I>Agent</I> means a legal entity or person, such as an association of agricultural employers, or an attorney for an association, that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is authorized to act on behalf of the employer for temporary agricultural labor certification purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not itself an employer, or a joint employer, as defined in this section, with respect to a specific application; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is not under suspension, debarment, expulsion, or disbarment from practice before any court or the Department, the Board of Immigration Appeals, the immigration judges, or DHS under 8 CFR 292.3, 1003.101.
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural association</I> means any nonprofit or cooperative association of farmers, growers, or ranchers (including but not limited to processing establishments, canneries, gins, packing sheds, nurseries, or other fixed-site agricultural employers), incorporated or qualified under applicable State law, that recruits, solicits, hires, employs, furnishes, houses or transports any worker that is subject to sec. 218 of the INA. An agricultural association may act as the agent of an employer for purposes of filing an H-2A <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I>, and may also act as the sole or joint employer of H-2A workers.
</P>
<P><I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> means the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)-approved form submitted by an employer to secure a temporary agricultural labor certification determination from DOL. A complete submission of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> includes the form and the initial recruitment report.
</P>
<P><I>Area of intended employment</I> means the geographic area within normal commuting distance of the place (worksite address) of the job opportunity for which the certification is sought. There is no rigid measure of distance which constitutes a normal commuting area, because there may be widely varying factual circumstances among different areas (e.g., average commuting times, barriers to reaching the worksite, quality of the regional transportation network, etc.). If the place of intended employment is within a Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA), including a multistate MSA, any place within the MSA is deemed to be within normal commuting distance of the place of intended employment. The borders of MSAs are not controlling in the identification of the normal commuting area; a location outside of an MSA may be within normal commuting distance of a location that is inside (e.g., near the border of) the MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Department of Homeland Security (DHS)</I> means the Federal agency having control over certain immigration functions that, through its sub-agency, <I>United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS)</I>, makes the determination under the INA on whether to grant visa petitions filed by employers seeking H-2A workers to perform temporary agricultural work in the U.S.
</P>
<P><I>DOL or Department</I> means the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible worker</I> means an individual who is not an unauthorized alien (as defined in sec. 274A(h)(3) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1324a(h)(3)) with respect to the employment in which the worker is engaging.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means employee as defined under the general common law of agency. Some of the factors relevant to the determination of employee status include: the hiring party's right to control the manner and means by which the work is accomplished; the skill required to perform the work; the source of the instrumentalities and tools for accomplishing the work; the location of the work; the hiring party's discretion over when and how long to work; and whether the work is part of the regular business of the hiring party. Other applicable factors may be considered and no one factor is dispositive.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means a person, firm, corporation or other association or organization that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a place of business (physical location) in the U.S. and a means by which it may be contacted for employment;
</P>
<P>(2) Has an employer relationship with respect to H-2A employees or related U.S. workers under this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Possesses, for purposes of filing an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I>, a valid Federal Employer Identification Number (FEIN).
</P>
<P><I>Employment Service (ES)</I> refers to the system of Federal and state entities responsible for administration of the labor certification process for temporary and seasonal agricultural employment of nonimmigrant foreign workers. This includes the SWAs and OFLC, including the National Processing Centers (NPCs).
</P>
<P><I>Employment Standards Administration (ESA)</I> means the agency within DOL that includes the WHD, and which is charged with carrying out certain investigative and enforcement functions of the Secretary under the INA.
</P>
<P><I>Employment and Training Administration (ETA)</I> means the agency within the DOL that includes OFLC.
</P>
<P><I>Federal holiday</I> means a legal public holiday as defined at 5 U.S.C. 6103.
</P>
<P><I>Fixed-site employer</I> means any person engaged in agriculture who meets the definition of an employer as those terms are defined in this part who owns or operates a farm, ranch, processing establishment, cannery, gin, packing shed, nursery, or other similar fixed-site location where agricultural activities are performed and who recruits, solicits, hires, employs, houses, or transports any worker subject to sec. 218 of the INA or these regulations as incident to or in conjunction with the owner's or operator's own agricultural operation. For purposes of this part, <I>person</I> includes any individual, partnership, association, corporation, cooperative, joint stock company, trust, or other organization with legal rights and duties.
</P>
<P><I>H-2A Labor Contractor (H-2ALC)</I> means any person who meets the definition of employer in this section and is not a fixed-site employer, an agricultural association, or an employee of a fixed-site employer or agricultural association, as those terms are used in this part, who recruits, solicits, hires, employs, furnishes, houses, or transports any worker subject to sec. 218 of the INA or these regulations.
</P>
<P><I>H-2A worker</I> means any temporary foreign worker who is lawfully present in the U.S. to perform agricultural labor or services of a temporary or seasonal nature pursuant to sec. 101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a) of the INA, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>INA/Act</I> means the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended, 8 U.S.C. 1101 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Job offer</I> means the offer made by an employer or potential employer of H-2A workers to eligible workers describing all the material terms and conditions of employment, including those relating to wages, working conditions, and other benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Job opportunity</I> means a job opening for temporary, full-time employment at a place in the U.S. to which a U.S. worker can be referred.
</P>
<P><I>Joint employment</I> means that where two or more employers each have sufficient definitional indicia of employment to be considered the employer of an employee, those employers will be considered to jointly employ that employee. Each employer in a joint employment relationship to an employee is considered a “joint employer” of that employee.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Foreign Labor Certification (OFLC)</I> means the organizational component of the ETA that provides national leadership and policy guidance and develops regulations and procedures to carry out the responsibilities of the Secretary under the INA concerning the admission of foreign workers to the U.S. to perform work described in sec. 101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a) of the INA, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Positive recruitment</I> means the active participation of an employer or its authorized hiring agent in recruiting and interviewing qualified and eligible individuals in the area where the employer's job opportunity is located and any other State designated by the Secretary as an area of traditional or expected labor supply with respect to the area where the employer's job opportunity is located, in an effort to fill specific job openings with U.S. workers.
</P>
<P><I>Prevailing</I> means with respect to practices engaged in by employers and benefits other than wages provided by employers, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Fifty percent or more of employers in an area and for an occupation engage in the practice or offer the benefit; but only if
</P>
<P>(2) This 50 percent or more of employers also employs in aggregate 50 percent or more of U.S. workers in the occupation and area (including H-2A and non-H-2A employers for purposes of determinations concerning the provision of family housing, frequency of wage payments, and workers supplying their own bedding, but non-H-2A employers only for determinations concerning the provision of advance transportation and the utilization of H-2ALCs).
</P>
<P><I>Prevailing hourly wage</I> means the hourly wage determined by the SWA to be prevailing in the area in accordance with State-based wage surveys.
</P>
<P><I>Prevailing piece rate</I> means that amount that is typically paid to an agricultural worker per piece (which includes, but is not limited to, a load, bin, pallet, bag, bushel, etc.) to be determined by the SWA according to a methodology published by the Department. As is currently the case, the unit of production will be required to be clearly described; e.g., a field box of oranges (1
<FR>1/2</FR> bushels), a bushel of potatoes, and Eastern apple box (1
<FR>1/2</FR> metric bushels), a flat of strawberries (twelve quarts), etc.
</P>
<P><I>Representative</I> means a person or entity employed by, or duly authorized to act on behalf of, the employer with respect to activities entered into for, and/or attestations made with respect to, the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the United States Department of Labor or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P><I>State Workforce Agency (SWA)</I> means the State government agency that receives funds pursuant to the Wagner-Peyser Act to administer the public labor exchange delivered through the State's One-Stop delivery system in accordance with the Wagner-Peyser Act, 29 U.S.C. 49, <I>et seq.</I> Separately, SWAs receive ETA grants, administered by OFLC, to assist them in performing certain activities related to foreign labor certification, including conducting housing inspections.
</P>
<P><I>Successor in interest</I> means that, in determining whether an employer is a successor in interest, the factors used under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act and the Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act will be considered. When considering whether an employer is a successor for purposes of this part, the primary consideration will be the personal involvement of the firm's ownership, management, supervisors, and others associated with the firm in the violations resulting in a debarment recommendation. Normally, wholly new management or ownership of the same business operation, one in which the former management or owner does not retain a direct or indirect interest, will not be deemed to be a successor in interest for purposes of debarment. A determination of whether or not a successor in interest exists is based on the entire circumstances viewed in their totality. The factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substantial continuity of the same business operations;
</P>
<P>(2) Use of the same facilities;
</P>
<P>(3) Continuity of the work force;
</P>
<P>(4) Similarity of jobs and working conditions;
</P>
<P>(5) Similarity of supervisory personnel;
</P>
<P>(6) Similarity in machinery, equipment, and production methods;
</P>
<P>(7) Similarity of products and services; and
</P>
<P>(8) The ability of the predecessor to provide relief.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary agricultural labor certification</I> means the certification made by the Secretary with respect to an employer seeking to file with DHS a visa petition to employ one or more foreign nationals as an H-2A worker, pursuant to secs. 101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), 214(a) and (c), and 218 of the INA that:
</P>
<P>(1) There are not sufficient workers who are able, willing, and qualified, and who will be available at the time and place needed, to perform the agricultural labor or services involved in the petition, and
</P>
<P>(2) The employment of the foreign worker in such agricultural labor or services will not adversely affect the wages and working conditions of workers in the U.S. similarly employed as stated at 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), 1184(a) and (c), and 1188.
</P>
<P><I>United States (U.S.),</I> when used in a geographic sense, means the continental United States, Alaska, Hawaii, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the territories of Guam, the Virgin Islands, and, as of the transition program effective date, as defined in the Consolidated Natural Resources Act of 2008, Public Law 110-229, Title VII, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. worker</I> means a worker who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A citizen or national of the U.S., or;
</P>
<P>(2) An alien who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the U.S., is admitted as a refugee under sec. 207 of the INA, is granted asylum under sec. 208 of the INA, or is an immigrant otherwise authorized (by the INA or by DHS) to be employed in the U.S.
</P>
<P><I>Wages</I> means all forms of cash remuneration to a worker by an employer in payment for personal services.
</P>
<P><I>Work contract</I> means all the material terms and conditions of employment relating to wages, hours, working conditions, and other benefits, required by the applicable regulations in subpart B of 20 CFR part 655, <I>Labor Certification for Temporary Agricultural Employment of H-2A Aliens in the U.S. (H-2A Workers)</I>, or these regulations, including those terms and conditions attested to by the H-2A employer, which contract between the employer and the worker may be in the form of a separate written document. In the absence of a separate written work contract incorporating the required terms and conditions of employment, agreed to by both the employer and the worker, the work contract at a minimum shall be the terms of the job order, as provided in 20 CFR part 653, subpart F, and covered provisions of the work contract shall be enforced in accordance with these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of agricultural labor or services of a temporary or seasonal nature.</I> For the purposes of this part, <I>agricultural labor or services of a temporary or seasonal nature</I> means the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Agricultural labor or services,</I> pursuant to sec. 101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a) of the INA (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a)), is defined as:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Agricultural labor</I> as defined and applied in sec. 3121(g) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 at 26 U.S.C. 3121(g);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Agriculture</I> as defined and applied in sec. 3(f) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (FLSA) at 29 U.S.C. 203(f) (Work performed by H-2A workers, or workers in corresponding employment, that is not defined as agriculture in sec. 3(f) is subject to the provisions of the FLSA as provided therein, including the overtime provisions in sec. 7(a) at 29 U.S.C. 207(a));
</P>
<P>(iii) The pressing of apples for cider on a farm;
</P>
<P>(iv) Logging employment; or
</P>
<P>(v) Handling, planting, drying, packing, packaging, processing, freezing, grading, storing, or delivering to storage or to market or to a carrier for transportation to market, in its unmanufactured state, any agricultural or horticultural commodity while in the employ of the operator of a farm where no H-2B workers are employed to perform the same work at the same establishment; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Other work typically performed on a farm that is not specifically listed on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and is minor (<I>i.e.</I>, less than 20 percent of the total time worked on the job duties and activities that are listed on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I>) and incidental to the agricultural labor or services for which the H-2A worker was sought.
</P>
<P>(2) An occupation included in either of the statutory definitions cited in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section is <I>agricultural labor or services,</I> notwithstanding the exclusion of that occupation from the other statutory definition.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Agricultural labor</I> for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section means all services performed:
</P>
<P>(A) On a farm, in the employ of any person, in connection with cultivating the soil, or in connection with raising or harvesting any agricultural or horticultural commodity, including the raising, shearing, feeding, caring for, training, and management of livestock, bees, poultry, and furbearing animals and wildlife;
</P>
<P>(B) In the employ of the owner or tenant or other operator of a farm, in connection with the operation or maintenance of such farm and its tools and equipment, or in salvaging timber or clearing land of brush and other debris left by a hurricane, if the major part of such service is performed on a farm;
</P>
<P>(C) In connection with the production or harvesting of any commodity defined as an agricultural commodity in sec. 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended at 12 U.S.C. 1141j, or in connection with the ginning of cotton, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways, not owned or operated for profit, used exclusively for supplying and storing water for farming purposes;
</P>
<P>(D)(<I>1</I>) In the employ of the operator of a farm in handling, planting, drying, packing, packaging, processing, freezing, grading, storing, or delivering to storage or to market or to a carrier for transportation to market, in its unmanufactured state, any agricultural or horticultural commodity, but only if such operator produced more than one-half of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In the employ of a group of operators of farms (other than a cooperative organization) in the performance of service described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section, but only if such operators produced all of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed. For purposes of this paragraph, any unincorporated group of operators will be deemed a cooperative organization if the number of operators comprising such group is more than 20 at any time during the calendar quarter in which such service is performed;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The provisions of paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section do not apply to services performed in connection with commercial canning or commercial freezing or in connection with any agricultural or horticultural commodity after its delivery to a terminal market for distribution for consumption; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) On a farm operated for profit if such service is not in the course of the employer's trade or business and is not domestic service in a private home of the employer.
</P>
<P>(E) For the purposes of this section, the term <I>farm</I> includes stock, dairy, poultry, fruit, fur-bearing animals, and truck farms, plantations, ranches, nurseries, ranges, greenhouses or other similar structures used primarily for the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities, and orchards. See sec. 3121(g) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 3121(g)).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Agriculture.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section <I>agriculture</I> means farming in all its branches and among other things includes the cultivation and tillage of the soil, dairying, the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodities (including commodities as defined as agricultural commodities in 12 U.S.C. 1141j(g)), the raising of livestock, bees, fur-bearing animals, or poultry, and any practices (including any forestry or lumbering operations) performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations, including preparation for market, delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market. <I>See sec.</I> 29 U.S.C. 203(f), as amended.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Agricultural commodity.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, <I>agricultural commodity</I> includes, in addition to other agricultural commodities, crude gum (oleoresin) from a living tree, and gum spirits of turpentine and gum rosin as processed by the original producer of the crude gum (oleoresin) from which derived. <I>Gum spirits of turpentine</I> means spirits of turpentine made from gum (oleoresin) from a living tree and <I>gum rosin</I> means rosin remaining after the distillation of gum spirits of turpentine. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 1141j(g) (sec. 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended), and 7 U.S.C. 92.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Of a temporary or seasonal nature—</I> (i) <I>On a seasonal or other temporary basis.</I> For the purposes of this part, <I>of a temporary or seasonal nature</I> means <I>on a seasonal or other temporary basis,</I> as defined in the WHD's regulation at 29 CFR 500.20 under the Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act (MSPA).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>MSPA definition.</I> The definition of <I>on a seasonal or other temporary basis</I> found in MSPA is summarized as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Labor is performed on a seasonal basis where, ordinarily, the employment pertains to or is of the kind exclusively performed at certain seasons or periods of the year and which, from its nature, may not be continuous or carried on throughout the year. A worker who moves from one seasonal activity to another, while employed in agriculture or performing agricultural labor, is employed on a seasonal basis even though the worker may continue to be employed during a major portion of the year.
</P>
<P>(B) A worker is employed on <I>other temporary basis</I> where the worker is employed for a limited time only or the worker's performance is contemplated for a particular piece of work, usually of short duration. Generally, employment which is contemplated to continue indefinitely is not temporary.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>On a seasonal or other temporary basis</I> does not include
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The employment of any foreman or other supervisory employee who is employed by a specific agricultural employer or agricultural association essentially on a year round basis; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employment of any worker who is living at his or her permanent place of residence, when that worker is employed by a specific agricultural employer or agricultural association on essentially a year round basis to perform a variety of tasks for his or her employer and is not primarily employed to do field work.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Temporary.</I> For the purposes of this part, the definition of <I>temporary</I> in paragraph (b)(3) of this section refers to any job opportunity covered by this part where the employer needs a worker for a position for a limited period of time, including, but not limited, to a peakload need, which is generally less than 1 year, unless the original temporary agricultural labor certification is extended pursuant to 20 CFR 655.110. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enforcement of Work Contracts</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2.70.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.15   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The investigation, inspections and law enforcement functions to carry out the provisions of sec. 218 of the INA, as provided in these regulations for enforcement by the WHD, pertain to the employment of any H-2A worker and any other U.S. worker hired in corresponding employment by an H-2A employer. Such enforcement includes work contract provisions as defined in § 501.10(a). The work contract also includes those employment benefits which are required to be stated in the job offer, as prescribed in 20 CFR 655.104. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2.70.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.16   Sanctions and remedies—General.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Secretary believes that the H-2A provisions of the INA or these regulations have been violated such action shall be taken and such proceedings instituted as deemed appropriate, including (but not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Institute appropriate administrative proceedings, including: The recovery of unpaid wages, including wages owed to U.S. workers as a result of a layoff or displacement prohibited by these rules (either directly from the employer, a successor in interest, or in the case of an H-2ALC also by claim against any surety who issued a bond to the H-2ALC); the enforcement of covered provisions of the work contract as set forth in 29 CFR 501.10(a); the assessment of a civil money penalty; reinstatement; or the recommendation of debarment for up to 3 years.
</P>
<P>(b) Petition any appropriate District Court of the U.S. for temporary or permanent injunctive relief, including the withholding of unpaid wages and/or reinstatement, to restrain violation of the H-2A provisions of the INA, 20 CFR part 655, Subpart B, or these regulations by any person.
</P>
<P>(c) Petition any appropriate District Court of the U.S. for specific performance of covered contractual obligations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2.70.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.17   Concurrent actions.</HEAD>
<P>The taking of any one of the actions referred to above shall not be a bar to the concurrent taking of any other action authorized by the H-2A provisions of the Act and these regulations, or the regulations of 20 CFR part 655. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2.70.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.18   Representation of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in 28 U.S.C. 518(a) relating to litigation before the Supreme Court, the Solicitor of Labor may appear for and represent the Secretary in any civil litigation brought under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The Solicitor of Labor, through authorized representatives, shall represent the Administrator, WHD and the Secretary in all administrative hearings under the H-2A provisions of the Act and these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2.70.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.19   Civil money penalty assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A civil money penalty may be assessed by the Administrator, WHD for each violation of the work contract as set forth in § 501.10(a) of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the amount of penalty to be assessed for any violation of the work contract as provided in the H-2A provisions of the Act or these regulations the Administrator, WHD shall consider the type of violation committed and other relevant factors. The matters which may be considered include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Previous history of violation or violations of the H-2A provisions of the Act and these regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of H-2A employees, corresponding U.S. employees or those U.S. workers individually rejected for employment affected by the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(3) The gravity of the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(4) Efforts made in good faith to comply with the H-2A provisions of the Act and these regulations;
</P>
<P>(5) Explanation of person charged with the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(6) Commitment to future compliance, taking into account the public health, interest or safety, and whether the person has previously violated the H-2A provisions of the Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The extent to which the violator achieved a financial gain due to the violation, or the potential financial loss or potential injury to the workers.
</P>
<P>(c) A civil money penalty for violation of the work contract will not exceed $1,000 for each violation committed (with each failure to pay a worker properly or to honor the terms or conditions of a worker's employment that is required by sec. 218 of the INA, 20 CFR 655, subpart B, or these regulations constituting a separate violation), with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) For a willful failure to meet a covered condition of the work contract, or for willful discrimination, the civil money penalty shall not exceed $5,000 for each such violation committed (with each willful failure to honor the terms or conditions of a worker's employment that are required by sec. 218 of the INA, 20 CFR 655, subpart B, or these regulations constituting a separate violation);
</P>
<P>(2) For a violation of a housing or transportation safety and health provision of the work contract that proximately causes the death or serious injury of any worker, the civil money penalty shall not exceed $25,000 per worker, unless the violation is a repeat or willful violation, in which case the penalty shall not exceed $50,000 per worker, or unless the employer failed, after notification, to cure the specific violation, in which case the penalty shall not exceed $100,000 per worker.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the term <I>serious injury</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Permanent loss or substantial impairment of one of the senses (sight, hearing, taste, smell, tactile sensation);
</P>
<P>(ii) Permanent loss or substantial impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty, including the loss of all or part of an arm, leg, foot, hand or other body part; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Permanent paralysis or substantial impairment that causes loss of movement or mobility of an arm, leg, foot, hand or other body part.
</P>
<P>(d) A civil money penalty for failure to cooperate with a WHD investigation shall not exceed $5,000 per investigation;
</P>
<P>(e) For a willful layoff or displacement of any similarly employed U.S. worker in the occupation that is the subject of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> in the area of intended employment within 60 days of the date of need other than for a lawful, job-related reason, except that such layoff shall be permitted where all H-2A workers were laid off first, the civil penalty shall not exceed $10,000 per violation per worker. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2.70.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.20   Debarment and revocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The WHD shall recommend to the Administrator, OFLC the debarment of any employer and any successor in interest to that employer (or the employer's attorney or agent if they are a responsible party) if the WHD finds that the employer substantially violated a material term or condition of its temporary labor certification for the employment of domestic or nonimmigrant workers.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a substantial violation includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A pattern or practice of acts of commission or omission on the part of the employer or the employer's agent which:
</P>
<P>(i) Are significantly injurious to the wages, benefits required to be offered under the H-2A program, or working conditions of a significant number of the employer's U.S. or H-2A workers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reflect a significant failure to offer employment to all qualified domestic workers who applied for the job opportunity for which certification was being sought, except for lawful job-related reasons;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reflect a willful failure to comply with the employer's obligations to recruit U.S. workers as set forth in this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Reflect the employment of an H-2A worker outside the area of intended employment, or in an activity/activities, not listed in the job order (other than an activity minor and incidental to the activity/activities listed in the job order), or after the period of employment specified in the job order and any approved extension;
</P>
<P>(2) A significant failure to cooperate with a DOL investigation or with a DOL official performing an investigation, inspection, or law enforcement function under sec. 218 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1188, this subpart, or 29 CFR part 501 (ESA enforcement of contractual obligations); or
</P>
<P>(3) A significant failure to comply with one or more sanctions or remedies imposed by the ESA for violation(s) of obligations found by that agency (if applicable), or with one or more decisions or orders of the Secretary or a court order secured by the Secretary under sec. 218 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1188, this subpart, or 29 CFR part 501 (ESA enforcement of contractual obligations); or
</P>
<P>(4) A single heinous act showing such flagrant disregard for the law that future compliance with program requirements cannot reasonably be expected.
</P>
<P>(c) Procedures for Debarment Recommendation. The WHD will send to the employer a <I>Notice of Recommended Debarment.</I> The <I>Notice of Recommended Debarment</I> must be in writing, must state the reason for the debarment recommendation, including a detailed explanation of the grounds for and the duration of the recommended debarment. The debarment recommendation will be forwarded to the Administrator, OFLC. The <I>Notice of Recommended Debarment</I> shall be issued no later than 2 years after the occurrence of the violation.
</P>
<P>(d) The WHD may recommend to the Administrator, OFLC the revocation of a temporary agricultural labor certification if the WHD finds that the employer:
</P>
<P>(1) Willfully violated a material term or condition of the approved temporary agricultural labor certification, work contract, or this part, unless otherwise provided under paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Failed, after notification, to cure a substantial violation of the applicable housing standards set out in 20 CFR 655.104(d);
</P>
<P>(3) Failed to cooperate with a DOL investigation or with a DOL official performing an investigation, inspection, or law enforcement function under sec. 218 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1188, this subpart, or 29 CFR part 501 (ESA enforcement of contractual obligations); or
</P>
<P>(4) Failed to comply with one or more sanctions or remedies imposed by the ESA for violation(s) of obligations found by that agency (if applicable), or with one or more decisions or orders of the Secretary or a court order Secured by the Secretary under sec. 218 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1188, this subpart, or 29 CFR part 501 (ESA enforcement of contractual obligations).
</P>
<P>(e) In considering a recommendation made by the WHD to debar an employer or to revoke a temporary agricultural labor certification, the Administrator, OFLC shall treat final agency determinations that the employer has committed a violation as res judicata and shall not reconsider those determinations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2.70.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.21   Failure to cooperate with investigations.</HEAD>
<P>No person shall refuse to cooperate with any employee of the Secretary who is exercising or attempting to exercise this investigative or enforcement authority. As stated in §§ 501.6 and 501.19 of this part, a civil money penalty may be assessed for each failure to cooperate with an investigation, and other appropriate relief may be sought. In addition, the WHD shall report each such occurrence to ETA, and ETA may debar the employer from future certification. The WHD may also recommend to ETA that an existing certification be revoked. The taking of any one action shall not bar the taking of any additional action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.2.70.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.22   Civil money penalties—payment and collection.</HEAD>
<P>Where the assessment is directed in a final order by the Administrator, WHD, by an ALJ, or by the ARB, the amount of the penalty is due within 30 days and payable to the United States Department of Labor. The person assessed such penalty shall remit promptly the amount thereof as finally determined, to the Administrator, WHD by certified check or by money order, made payable to the order of <I>Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor.</I> The remittance shall be delivered or mailed to the WHD Regional Office for the area in which the violations occurred. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.70.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.30   Applicability of procedures and rules.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures and rules contained herein prescribe the administrative process that will be applied with respect to a determination to impose an assessment of civil money penalties, and which may be applied to the enforcement of covered provisions of the work contract as set forth in § 501.10(a), including the collection of unpaid wages due as a result of any violation of the H-2A provisions of the Act or of these regulations. Except with respect to the imposition of civil money penalties, the Secretary may, in the Secretary's discretion, seek enforcement action in Federal court without resort to any administrative proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="70" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.70" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Relating to Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.31" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.70.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.31   Written notice of determination required.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Administrator, WHD decides to assess a civil money penalty or to proceed administratively to enforce covered contractual obligations, including the recovery of unpaid wages, the person against whom such action is taken shall be notified in writing of such determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.32" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.70.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.32   Contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>The notice required by § 501.31 shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Set forth the determination of the Administrator, WHD including the amount of any unpaid wages due or actions necessary to fulfill a covered contractual obligation, the amount of any civil money penalty assessment and the reason or reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(b) Set forth the right to request a hearing on such determination.
</P>
<P>(c) Inform any affected person or persons that in the absence of a timely request for a hearing, the determination of the Administrator, WHD shall become final and unappealable.
</P>
<P>(d) Set forth the time and method for requesting a hearing, and the procedures relating thereto, as set forth in § 501.33. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.33" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.70.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.33   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person desiring review of a determination referred to in § 501.32, including judicial review, shall make a written request for an administrative hearing to the official who issued the determination at the WHD address appearing on the determination notice, no later than 30 days after issuance of the notice referred to in § 501.32.
</P>
<P>(b) No particular form is prescribed for any request for hearing permitted by this part. However, any such request shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be typewritten or legibly written;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the issue or issues stated in the notice of determination giving rise to such request;
</P>
<P>(3) State the specific reason or reasons why the person requesting the hearing believes such determination is in error;
</P>
<P>(4) Be signed by the person making the request or by an authorized representative of such person; and
</P>
<P>(5) Include the address at which such person or authorized representative desires to receive further communications relating thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) The request for such hearing must be received by the official who issued the determination, at the WHD address appearing on the determination notice, within the time set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. For the affected person's protection, if the request is by mail, it should be by certified mail.
</P>
<P>(d) The determination shall take effect on the start date identified in the determination, unless an administrative appeal is properly filed. The timely filing of an administrative appeal stays the determination pending the outcome of the appeal proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="71" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.71" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Rules of Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.34" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.71.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.34   General.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically provided in these regulations, the <I>Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings Before the Office of Administrative Law Judges</I> established by the Secretary at 29 CFR part 18 shall apply to administrative proceedings described in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.35" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.71.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.35   Commencement of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Each administrative proceeding permitted under the Act and these regulations shall be commenced upon receipt of a timely request for hearing filed in accordance with § 501.33. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.36" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.71.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.36   Caption of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each administrative proceeding instituted under the Act and these regulations shall be captioned in the name of the person requesting such hearing, and shall be styled as follows: 
</P>
<HD1>In the Matter of __, Respondent.
</HD1>
<P>(b) For the purposes of such administrative proceedings the Administrator, WHD shall be identified as plaintiff and the person requesting such hearing shall be named as respondent. 
</P>
<HD1>Referral for Hearing 


</HD1>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.37" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.71.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.37   Referral to Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing filed pursuant to and in accordance with § 501.33, the Administrator, WHD, by the Associate Solicitor for the Division of Fair Labor Standards or by the Regional Solicitor for the Region in which the action arose, shall, by <I>Order of Reference,</I> promptly refer a copy of the notice of administrative determination complained of, and the original or a duplicate copy of the request for hearing signed by the person requesting such hearing or by the authorized representative of such person, to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, for a determination in an administrative proceeding as provided herein. The notice of administrative determination and request for hearing shall be filed of record in the Office of the Chief Administrative Law Judge and shall, respectively, be given the effect of a complaint and answer thereto for purposes of the administrative proceeding, subject to any amendment that may be permitted under these regulations or 29 CFR part 18.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the <I>Order of Reference,</I> together with a copy of these regulations, shall be served by counsel for the Administrator, WHD upon the person requesting the hearing, in the manner provided in 29 CFR 18.3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.38" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.71.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.38   Notice of docketing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an <I>Order of Reference,</I> the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall appoint an ALJ to hear the case. The ALJ shall promptly notify all interested parties of the docketing of the matter and shall set the time and place of the hearing. The date of the hearing shall be not more than 60 days from the date on which the <I>Order of Reference</I> was filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.39" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.71.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.39   Service upon attorneys for the Department of Labor—number of copies.</HEAD>
<P>Two copies of all pleadings and other documents required for any administrative proceeding provided herein shall be served on the attorneys for the DOL. One copy shall be served on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210, and one copy on the Attorney representing the Department in the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="72" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.72" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Before Administrative Law Judge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.40" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.72.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.40   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding under this part, but prior to the reception of evidence in any such proceeding, a party may move to defer the receipt of any evidence for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such deferment and the duration thereof shall be at the discretion of the ALJ, after consideration of the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of an agreement being reached which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice of administrative determination (or amended notice, if one is filed), and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the ALJ; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their authorized representatives or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement for consideration by the ALJ; or
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the ALJ that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event an agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the ALJ, within 30 days thereafter, shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="73" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.73" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Post-Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.41" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.73.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.41   Decision and order of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall prepare, within 60 days after completion of the hearing and closing of the record, a decision on the issues referred by the Administrator, WHD.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision of the ALJ shall include a statement of findings and conclusions, with reasons and basis therefor, upon each material issue presented on the record. The decision shall also include an appropriate order which may affirm, deny, reverse, or modify, in whole or in part, the determination of the Administrator, WHD. The reason or reasons for such order shall be stated in the decision.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision shall be served on all parties and the Administrative Review Board (ARB) in person or by certified mail.
</P>
<P>(d) The decision concerning civil money penalties and/or back wages when served by the ALJ shall constitute the final agency order unless the ARB, as provided for in § 501.42, determines to review the decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="74" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.74" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Review of Administrative Law Judge's Decision</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.42" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.74.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.42   Procedures for initiating and undertaking review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A respondent, the WHD, or any other party wishing review, including judicial review, of the decision of an ALJ shall, within 30 days of the decision of the ALJ, petition the ARB to review the decision. Copies of the petition shall be served on all parties and on the ALJ. If the ARB does not issue a notice accepting a petition for review of the decision concerning civil money penalties and/or back wages within 30 days after receipt of a timely filing of the petition, or within 30 days of the date of the decision if no petition has been received, the decision of the ALJ shall be deemed the final agency action. If the ARB does not issue a notice accepting a petition for review of the decision concerning the debarment recommendation within 30 days after the receipt of a timely filing of the petition, or if no petition has been received by the ARB within 30 days of the date of the decision, the decision of the ALJ shall be deemed the final agency action. If a petition for review is accepted, the decision of the ALJ shall be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order affirming the decision.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the ARB, either on the ARB's own motion or by acceptance of a party's petition, determines to review the decision of an ALJ, a notice of the same shall be served upon the ALJ and upon all parties to the proceeding in person or by certified mail. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.43" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.74.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.43   Responsibility of the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of the ARB's Notice pursuant to § 501.42 of these regulations, the Office of ALJ shall promptly forward a copy of the complete hearing record to the ARB. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.44" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.74.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.44   Additional information, if required.</HEAD>
<P>Where the ARB has determined to review such decision and order, the ARB shall notify each party of:
</P>
<P>(a) The issue or issues raised;
</P>
<P>(b) The form in which submissions shall be made (<I>i.e.</I>, briefs, oral argument, etc.); and
</P>
<P>(c) The time within which such presentation shall be submitted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.45" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.74.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.45   Final decision of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>The ARB's final decision shall be issued within 90 days from the notice granting the petition and served upon all parties and the ALJ, in person or by certified mail. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="75" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.75" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.46" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.75.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.46   Retention of official record.</HEAD>
<P>The official record of every completed administrative hearing provided by these regulations shall be maintained and filed under the custody and control of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, or, where the case has been the subject of administrative review, the ARB. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 502.47" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.3.3.75.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 502.47   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a complaint seeking review of a decision issued pursuant to this part filed in a U.S. District Court, after the administrative remedies have been exhausted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge or, where the case has been the subject of administrative review, the ARB shall promptly index, certify and file with the appropriate U.S. District Court, a full, true, and correct copy of the entire record, including the transcript of proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="503" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 503—ENFORCEMENT OF OBLIGATIONS FOR TEMPORARY NONIMMIGRANT NON-AGRICULTURAL WORKERS DESCRIBED IN THE IMMIGRATION AND NATIONALITY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(b); 8 U.S.C. 1184; 8 CFR 214.2(h); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990); Pub. L. 114-74 at sec. 701.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 24130, Apr. 29, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.0   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part cover the enforcement of all statutory and regulatory obligations, including requirements under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), section 214(c) of the INA and 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, applicable to the employment of H-2B workers in nonimmigrant status under the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(b), section 101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(b) of the INA, and workers in corresponding employment, including obligations to offer employment to eligible United States (U.S.) workers and to not lay off or displace U.S. workers in a manner prohibited by the regulations in this part or 20 CFR part 655, subpart A.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consultation standard.</I> Section 214(c)(1) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1184(c)(1), requires the Secretary of Homeland Security to consult with appropriate agencies before authorizing the classification of aliens as H-2B workers. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) regulations at 8 CFR 214.2(h)(6)(iii)(D) recognize the Secretary of Labor as the appropriate authority with whom DHS consults regarding the H-2B program, and recognize the Secretary of Labor's authority in carrying out the Secretary of Labor's consultative function to issue regulations regarding the issuance of temporary labor certifications. DHS regulations at 8 CFR 214.2(h)(6)(iv) provide that an employer's petition to employ nonimmigrant workers on H-2B visas for temporary non-agricultural employment in the United States (U.S.), except for Guam, must be accompanied by an approved temporary labor certification from the Secretary of Labor. The temporary labor certification reflects a determination by the Secretary that:
</P>
<P>(1) There are not sufficient U.S. workers who are qualified and who will be available to perform the temporary services or labor for which an employer desires to hire foreign workers; and
</P>
<P>(2) The employment of the foreign worker will not adversely affect the wages and working conditions of U.S. workers similarly employed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Role of the Employment and Training Administration (ETA).</I> The issuance and denial of labor certifications for purposes of satisfying the consultation requirement in 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), INA section 214(c), has been delegated by the Secretary to ETA, an agency within the U.S. Department of Labor (DOL), which in turn has delegated that authority to the Office of Foreign Labor Certification (OFLC). In general, matters concerning the obligations of an H-2B employer related to the temporary labor certification process are administered by OFLC, including obligations and assurances made by employers, overseeing employer recruitment, and assuring program integrity. The regulations pertaining to the issuance, denial, and revocation of labor certification for temporary foreign workers by the OFLC are found in 20 CFR part 655, subpart A.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Role of the Wage and Hour Division (WHD).</I> Effective January 18, 2009, DHS has delegated to the Secretary under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c)(14)(B), section 214(c)(14)(B) of the INA, certain investigatory and law enforcement functions to carry out the provisions under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), INA section 214(c). The Secretary has delegated these functions to the WHD. In general, matters concerning the rights of H-2B workers and workers in corresponding employment under this part and the employer's obligations are enforced by the WHD, including whether employment was offered to U.S. workers as required under 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or whether U.S. workers were laid off or displaced in violation of program requirements. The WHD has the responsibility to carry out investigations, inspections, and law enforcement functions and in appropriate instances to impose penalties, to debar from future certifications, to recommend revocation of existing certifications, and to seek remedies for violations, including recovery of unpaid wages and reinstatement of improperly laid off or displaced U.S. workers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of regulations.</I> The enforcement functions carried out by the WHD under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), INA section 214(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, and the regulations in this part apply to the employment of any H-2B worker and any worker in corresponding employment as the result of an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> filed with the Department of Labor on or after April 29, 2015.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.2   Territory of Guam.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not apply to temporary employment in the Territory of Guam. The Department of Labor does not certify to DHS the temporary employment of nonimmigrant foreign workers or enforce compliance with the provisions of the H-2B visa program in the Territory of Guam.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.3   Coordination among Governmental agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Complaints received by ETA or any State Workforce Agency (SWA) regarding noncompliance with H-2B statutory or regulatory labor standards will be immediately forwarded to the appropriate WHD office for suitable action under the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Information received in the course of processing registrations and applications, program integrity measures, or enforcement actions may be shared between OFLC and WHD or, where applicable to employer enforcement under the H-2B program, may be forwarded to other agencies as appropriate, including the Department of State (DOS) and DHS.
</P>
<P>(c) A specific violation for which debarment is sought will be cited in a single debarment proceeding. OFLC and the WHD will coordinate their activities to achieve this result. Copies of final debarment decisions will be forwarded to DHS promptly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.4   Definition of terms.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Immigration and Nationality Act or INA, as amended, 8 U.S.C. 1101 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Law Judge (ALJ)</I> means a person within the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator, Office of Foreign Labor Certification (OFLC)</I> means the primary official of the Office of Foreign Labor Certification, ETA, or the Administrator's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator, Wage and Hour Division (WHD)</I> means the primary official of the WHD, or the Administrator's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Agent</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A legal entity or person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Is authorized to act on behalf of an employer for temporary nonagricultural labor certification purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not itself an employer, or a joint employer, as defined in this part with respect to a specific application; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not an association or other organization of employers.
</P>
<P>(2) No agent who is under suspension, debarment, expulsion, disbarment, or otherwise restricted from practice before any court, the Department of Labor, the Executive Office for Immigration Review under 8 CFR 1003.101, or DHS under 8 CFR 292.3 may represent an employer under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural labor or services</I> means those duties and occupations defined in 20 CFR part 655, subpart B.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a U.S. worker who is applying for a job opportunity for which an employer has filed an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> (ETA Form 9142B and the appropriate appendices).
</P>
<P><I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> means the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)-approved ETA Form 9142B and the appropriate appendices, a valid wage determination, as required by 20 CFR 655.10, and a subsequently-filed U.S. worker recruitment report, submitted by an employer to secure a temporary labor certification determination from DOL.
</P>
<P><I>Area of intended employment</I> means the geographic area within normal commuting distance of the place (worksite address) of the job opportunity for which the certification is sought. There is no rigid measure of distance that constitutes a normal commuting distance or normal commuting area, because there may be widely varying factual circumstances among different areas (e.g., average commuting times, barriers to reaching the worksite, or quality of the regional transportation network). If the place of intended employment is within a Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA), including a multistate MSA, any place within the MSA is deemed to be within normal commuting distance of the place of intended employment. The borders of MSAs are not controlling in the identification of the normal commuting area; a location outside of an MSA may be within normal commuting distance of a location that is inside (e.g., near the border of) the MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Attorney</I> means any person who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State, possession, territory, or commonwealth of the U.S., or the District of Columbia. No attorney who is under suspension, debarment, expulsion, disbarment, or otherwise restricted from practice before any court, the Department of Labor, the Executive Office for Immigration Review under 8 CFR 1003.101, or DHS under 8 CFR 292.3 may represent an employer under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Certifying Officer (CO)</I> means an OFLC official designated by the Administrator, OFLC to make determinations on applications under the H-2B program. The Administrator, OFLC is the National CO. Other COs may also be designated by the Administrator, OFLC to make the determinations required under 20 CFR part 655, subpart A.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Administrative Law Judge (Chief ALJ)</I> means the chief official of the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges or the Chief Administrative Law Judge's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Corresponding employment</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The employment of workers who are not H-2B workers by an employer that has a certified H-2B <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> when those workers are performing either substantially the same work included in the job order or substantially the same work performed by the H-2B workers, except that workers in the following two categories are not included in corresponding employment:
</P>
<P>(i) Incumbent employees continuously employed by the H-2B employer to perform substantially the same work included in the job order or substantially the same work performed by the H-2B workers during the 52 weeks prior to the period of employment certified on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and who have worked or been paid for at least 35 hours in at least 48 of the prior 52 workweeks, and who have worked or been paid for an average of at least 35 hours per week over the prior 52 weeks, as demonstrated on the employer's payroll records, provided that the terms and working conditions of their employment are not substantially reduced during the period of employment covered by the job order. In determining whether this standard was met, the employer may take credit for any hours that were reduced by the employee voluntarily choosing not to work due to personal reasons such as illness or vacation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Incumbent employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement or an individual employment contract that guarantees both an offer of at least 35 hours of work each workweek and continued employment with the H-2B employer at least through the period of employment covered by the job order, except that the employee may be dismissed for cause.
</P>
<P>(2) To qualify as corresponding employment, the work must be performed during the period of the job order, including any approved extension thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Date of need</I> means the first date the employer requires services of the H-2B workers as listed on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Department of Homeland Security (DHS)</I> means the Federal Department having jurisdiction over certain immigration-related functions, acting through its component agencies, including U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS).
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means a person who is engaged to perform work for an employer, as defined under the general common law. Some of the factors relevant to the determination of employee status include: The hiring party's right to control the manner and means by which the work is accomplished; the skill required to perform the work; the source of the instrumentalities and tools for accomplishing the work; the location of the work; the hiring party's discretion over when and how long to work; and whether the work is part of the regular business of the hiring party. Other applicable factors may be considered and no one factor is dispositive. The terms employee and worker are used interchangeably in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means a person (including any individual, partnership, association, corporation, cooperative, firm, joint stock company, trust, or other organization with legal rights and duties) that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a place of business (physical location) in the U.S. and a means by which it may be contacted for employment;
</P>
<P>(2) Has an employer relationship (such as the ability to hire, pay, fire, supervise or otherwise control the work of employees) with respect to an H-2B worker or a worker in corresponding employment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Possesses, for purposes of filing an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> a valid Federal Employer Identification Number (FEIN).
</P>
<P><I>Employment and Training Administration (ETA)</I> means the agency within the Department of Labor that includes OFLC and has been delegated authority by the Secretary to fulfill the Secretary's mandate under the DHS regulations for the administration and adjudication of an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and related functions.
</P>
<P><I>Federal holiday</I> means a legal public holiday as defined at 5 U.S.C. 6103.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time</I> means 35 or more hours of work per week.
</P>
<P><I>H-2B Petition</I> means the DHS Form I-129 <I>Petition for a Nonimmigrant Worker,</I> with H Supplement, or successor form or supplement, and accompanying documentation required by DHS for employers seeking to employ foreign persons as H-2B nonimmigrant workers.
</P>
<P><I>H-2B Registration</I> means the OMB-approved ETA Form 9155, submitted by an employer to register its intent to hire H-2B workers and to file an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>H-2B worker</I> means any temporary foreign worker who is lawfully present in the U.S. and authorized by DHS to perform nonagricultural labor or services of a temporary or seasonal nature under 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(b), INA section 101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(b).
</P>
<P><I>Job contractor</I> means a person, association, firm, or a corporation that meets the definition of an employer and that contracts services or labor on a temporary basis to one or more employers, which is not an affiliate, branch or subsidiary of the job contractor and where the job contractor will not exercise substantial, direct day-to-day supervision and control in the performance of the services or labor to be performed other than hiring, paying and firing the workers.
</P>
<P><I>Job offer</I> means the offer made by an employer or potential employer of H-2B workers to both U.S. and H-2B workers describing all the material terms and conditions of employment, including those relating to wages, working conditions, and other benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Job opportunity</I> means one or more openings for full-time employment with the petitioning employer within a specified area(s) of intended employment for which the petitioning employer is seeking workers.
</P>
<P><I>Job order</I> means the document containing the material terms and conditions of employment relating to wages, hours, working conditions, worksite and other benefits, including obligations and assurances under 29 CFR part 655, subpart A and this subpart that is posted between and among the SWAs on their job clearance systems.
</P>
<P><I>Joint employment</I> means that where two or more employers each have sufficient definitional indicia of being an employer to be considered the employer of a worker, those employers will be considered to jointly employ that worker. Each employer in a joint employment relationship to a worker is considered a joint employer of that worker.
</P>
<P><I>Layoff</I> means any involuntary separation of one or more U.S. employees without cause.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA)</I> means a geographic entity defined by OMB for use by Federal statistical agencies in collecting, tabulating, and publishing Federal statistics. A metro area contains a core urban area of 50,000 or more population, and a micro area contains an urban core of at least 10,000 (but fewer than 50,000) population. Each metro or micro area consists of one or more counties and includes the counties containing the core urban area, as well as any adjacent counties that have a high degree of social and economic integration (as measured by commuting to work) with the urban core.
</P>
<P><I>National Processing Center (NPC)</I> means the office within OFLC which is charged with the adjudication of an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> or other applications.
</P>
<P><I>Non-agricultural labor and services</I> means any labor or services not considered to be agricultural labor or services as defined in 20 CFR part 655, subpart B. It does not include the provision of services as members of the medical profession by graduates of medical schools.
</P>
<P><I>Offered wage</I> means the wage offered by an employer in an H-2B job order. The offered wage must equal or exceed the highest of the prevailing wage or Federal, State or local minimum wage.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Foreign Labor Certification (OFLC)</I> means the organizational component of the ETA that provides national leadership and policy guidance and develops regulations to carry out the Secretary's responsibilities, including determinations related to an employer's request for <I>H-2B Registration, Application for Prevailing Wage Determination,</I> or <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Prevailing wage determination (PWD)</I> means the prevailing wage for the position, as described in 20 CFR 655.10, that is the subject of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, the chief official of the U.S. Department of Labor, or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary of Homeland Security</I> means the chief official of the U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) or the Secretary of Homeland Security's designee.
</P>
<P><I>State Workforce Agency (SWA)</I> means a State government agency that receives funds under the Wagner-Peyser Act (29 U.S.C. 49 <I>et seq.</I>) to administer the State's public labor exchange activities.
</P>
<P><I>Strike</I> means a concerted stoppage of work by employees as a result of a labor dispute, or any concerted slowdown or other concerted interruption of operation (including stoppage by reason of the expiration of a collective bargaining agreement).
</P>
<P><I>Successor in interest</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Where an employer has violated 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or this part, and has ceased doing business or cannot be located for purposes of enforcement, a successor in interest to that employer may be held liable for the duties and obligations of the violating employer in certain circumstances. The following factors, as used under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act and the Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act, may be considered in determining whether an employer is a successor in interest; no one factor is dispositive, but all of the circumstances will be considered as a whole:
</P>
<P>(i) Substantial continuity of the same business operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of the same facilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Continuity of the work force;
</P>
<P>(iv) Similarity of jobs and working conditions;
</P>
<P>(v) Similarity of supervisory personnel;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the former management or owner retains a direct or indirect interest in the new enterprise;
</P>
<P>(vii) Similarity in machinery, equipment, and production methods;
</P>
<P>(viii) Similarity of products and services; and
</P>
<P>(ix) The ability of the predecessor to provide relief.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of debarment only, the primary consideration will be the personal involvement of the firm's ownership, management, supervisors, and others associated with the firm in the violation(s) at issue.
</P>
<P><I>United States (U.S.)</I> means the continental United States, Alaska, Hawaii, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (CNMI).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS)</I> means the Federal agency within DHS that makes the determination under the INA whether to grant petitions filed by employers seeking H-2B workers to perform temporary non-agricultural work in the U.S.
</P>
<P><I>United States worker (U.S. worker)</I> means a worker who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A citizen or national of the U.S.;
</P>
<P>(2) An alien who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the U.S., is admitted as a refugee under 8 U.S.C. 1157, section 207 of the INA, is granted asylum under 8 U.S.C. 1158, section 208 of the INA, or is an alien otherwise authorized under the immigration laws to be employed in the U.S.; or
</P>
<P>(3) An individual who is not an unauthorized alien (as defined in 8 U.S.C. 1324a(h)(3), section 274a(h)(3) of the INA) with respect to the employment in which the worker is engaging.
</P>
<P><I>Wage and Hour Division (WHD)</I> means the agency within the Department of Labor with investigatory and law enforcement authority, as delegated from DHS, to carry out the provisions under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), section 214(c) of the INA.
</P>
<P><I>Wages</I> mean all forms of cash remuneration to a worker by an employer in payment for personal services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.5   Temporary need.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer seeking certification under 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, must establish that its need for non-agricultural services or labor is temporary, regardless of whether the underlying job is permanent or temporary.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer's need is considered temporary if justified to the CO as one of the following: A one-time occurrence; a seasonal need; a peakload need; or an intermittent need, as defined by DHS regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.6   Waiver of rights prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>A person may not seek to have an H-2B worker, a worker in corresponding employment, or any other person, including but not limited to a U.S. worker improperly rejected for employment or improperly laid off or displaced, waive or modify any rights conferred under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), INA section 214(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or the regulations in this part. Any agreement by an employee purporting to waive or modify any rights given to said person under these provisions will be void as contrary to public policy except as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Waivers or modifications of rights or obligations hereunder in favor of the Secretary will be valid for purposes of enforcement; and
</P>
<P>(b) Agreements in settlement of private litigation are permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.7   Investigation authority of Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority of the Administrator, WHD.</I> The Secretary of Homeland Security has delegated to the Secretary, under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c)(14)(B), INA section 214(c)(14)(B), authority to perform investigative and enforcement functions. Within the Department of Labor, the Administrator, WHD will perform all such functions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conduct of investigations.</I> The Secretary, through the WHD, may investigate to determine compliance with obligations under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), INA section 214(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or the regulations in this part, either under a complaint or otherwise, as may be appropriate. In connection with such an investigation, WHD may enter and inspect any premises, land, property, worksite, vehicles, structure, facility, place and records (and make transcriptions, photographs, scans, videos, photocopies, or use any other means to record the content of the records or preserve images of places or objects), question any person, or gather any information, in whatever form, as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential investigation.</I> The WHD will conduct investigations in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any complainant or other person who provides information to the Secretary in good faith.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report of violations.</I> Any person may report a violation of the obligations imposed by 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), INA section 214(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or the regulations in this part to the Secretary by advising any local office of the SWA, ETA, WHD or any other authorized representative of the Secretary. The office or person receiving such a report will refer it to the appropriate office of WHD for the geographic area in which the reported violation is alleged to have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.1.82.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.8   Accuracy of information, statements, data.</HEAD>
<P>Information, statements, and data submitted in compliance with 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), INA section 214(c), or the regulations in this part are subject to 18 U.S.C. 1001, which provides, with regard to statements or entries generally, that whoever, in any matter within the jurisdiction of any department or agency of the U.S., knowingly and willfully falsifies, conceals, or covers up a material fact by any trick, scheme, or device, or makes any false, fictitious, or fraudulent statements or representations, or makes or uses any false writing or document knowing the same to contain any false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or entry, will be fined not more than $250,000 or imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.15   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The investigation, inspection, and law enforcement functions that carry out the provisions of 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), INA section 214(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or the regulations in this part pertain to the employment of any H-2B worker, any worker in corresponding employment, or any U.S. worker improperly rejected for employment or improperly laid off or displaced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.16   Assurances and obligations of H-2B employers.</HEAD>
<P>An employer employing H-2B workers and/or workers in corresponding employment under an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> has agreed as part of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> that it will abide by the following conditions with respect to its H-2B workers and any workers in corresponding employment:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Rate of pay.</I> (1) The offered wage in the job order equals or exceeds the highest of the prevailing wage or Federal minimum wage, State minimum wage, or local minimum wage. The employer must pay at least the offered wage, free and clear, during the entire period of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> granted by OFLC.
</P>
<P>(2) The offered wage is not based on commissions, bonuses, or other incentives, including paying on a piece-rate basis, unless the employer guarantees a wage earned every workweek that equals or exceeds the offered wage.
</P>
<P>(3) If the employer requires one or more minimum productivity standards of workers as a condition of job retention, the standards must be specified in the job order and the employer must demonstrate that they are normal and usual for non-H-2B employers for the same occupation in the area of intended employment.
</P>
<P>(4) An employer that pays on a piece-rate basis must demonstrate that the piece rate is no less than the normal rate paid by non-H-2B employers to workers performing the same activity in the area of intended employment. The average hourly piece rate earnings must result in an amount at least equal to the offered wage. If the worker is paid on a piece rate basis and at the end of the workweek the piece rate does not result in average hourly piece rate earnings during the workweek at least equal to the amount the worker would have earned had the worker been paid at the offered hourly wage, then the employer must supplement the worker's pay at that time so that the worker's earnings are at least as much as the worker would have earned during the workweek if the worker had instead been paid at the offered hourly wage for each hour worked.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Wages free and clear.</I> The payment requirements for wages in this section will be satisfied by the timely payment of such wages to the worker either in cash or negotiable instrument payable at par. The payment must be made finally and unconditionally and “free and clear.” The principles applied in determining whether deductions are reasonable and payments are received free and clear and the permissibility of deductions for payments to third persons are explained in more detail in 29 CFR part 531.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions.</I> The employer must make all deductions from the worker's paycheck required by law. The job order must specify all deductions not required by law which the employer will make from the worker's pay; any such deductions not disclosed in the job order are prohibited. The wage payment requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are not met where unauthorized deductions, rebates, or refunds reduce the wage payment made to the worker below the minimum amounts required by the offered wage or where the worker fails to receive such amounts free and clear because the worker “kicks back” directly or indirectly to the employer or to another person for the employer's benefit the whole or part of the wages delivered to the worker. Authorized deductions are limited to: those required by law, such as taxes payable by workers that are required to be withheld by the employer and amounts due workers which the employer is required by court order to pay to another; deductions for the reasonable cost or fair value of board, lodging, and facilities furnished; and deductions of amounts which are authorized to be paid to third persons for the worker's account and benefit through his or her voluntary assignment or order or which are authorized by a collective bargaining agreement with bona fide representatives of workers which covers the employer. Deductions for amounts paid to third persons for the worker's account and benefit which are not so authorized or are contrary to law or from which the employer, agent or recruiter, including any agents or employees of these entities, or any affiliated person derives any payment, rebate, commission, profit, or benefit directly or indirectly, may not be made if they reduce the actual wage paid to the worker below the offered wage indicated on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Job opportunity is full-time.</I> The job opportunity is a full-time temporary position, consistent with § 503.4, and the employer must use a single workweek as its standard for computing wages due. An employee's workweek must be a fixed and regularly recurring period of 168 hours—seven consecutive 24-hour periods. It need not coincide with the calendar week but may begin on any day and at any hour of the day.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Job qualifications and requirements.</I> Each job qualification and requirement must be listed in the job order and must be bona fide and consistent with the normal and accepted qualifications and requirements imposed by non-H-2B employers in the same occupation and area of intended employment. The employer's job qualifications and requirements imposed on U.S. workers must not be less favorable than the qualifications and requirements that the employer is imposing or will impose on H-2B workers. A qualification means a characteristic that is necessary to the individual's ability to perform the job in question. A requirement means a term or condition of employment which a worker is required to accept in order to obtain the job opportunity. The CO may require the employer to submit documentation to substantiate the appropriateness of any job qualification and/or requirement specified in the job order.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Three-fourths guarantee.</I> (1) The employer must guarantee to offer the worker employment for a total number of work hours equal to at least three-fourths of the workdays in each 12-week period (each 6-week period if the period of employment covered by the job order is less than 120 days) beginning with the first workday after the arrival of the worker at the place of employment or the advertised first date of need, whichever is later, and ending on the expiration date specified in the job order or in its extensions, if any. See the exception in paragraph (y) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (f) a workday means the number of hours in a workday as stated in the job order. The employer must offer a total number of hours of work to ensure the provision of sufficient work to reach the three-fourths guarantee in each 12-week period (each 6-week period if the period of employment covered by the job order is less than 120 days) during the work period specified in the job order, or during any modified job order period to which the worker and employer have mutually agreed and that has been approved by the CO.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event the worker begins working later than the specified beginning date the guarantee period begins with the first workday after the arrival of the worker at the place of employment, and continues until the last day during which the job order and all extensions thereof are in effect.
</P>
<P>(4) The 12-week periods (6-week periods if the period of employment covered by the job order is less than 120 days) to which the guarantee applies are based upon the workweek used by the employer for pay purposes. The first 12-week period (or 6-week period, as appropriate) also includes any partial workweek, if the first workday after the worker's arrival at the place of employment is not the beginning of the employer's workweek, with the guaranteed number of hours increased on a pro rata basis (thus, the first period may include up to 12 weeks and 6 days (or 6 weeks and 6 days, as appropriate)). The final 12-week period (or 6-week period, as appropriate) includes any time remaining after the last full 12-week period (or 6-week period) ends, and thus may be as short as 1 day, with the guaranteed number of hours decreased on a pro rata basis.
</P>
<P>(5) Therefore, if, for example, a job order is for a 32-week period (a period greater than 120 days), during which the normal workdays and work hours for the workweek are specified as 5 days a week, 7 hours per day, the worker would have to be guaranteed employment for at least 315 hours in the first 12-week period (12 weeks × 35 hours/week = 420 hours × 75 percent = 315), at least 315 hours in the second 12-week period, and at least 210 hours (8 weeks × 35 hours/week = 280 hours × 75 percent = 210) in the final partial period. If the job order is for a 16-week period (less than 120 days), during which the normal workdays and work hours for the workweek are specified as 5 days a week, 7 hours per day, the worker would have to be guaranteed employment for at least 157.5 hours (6 weeks × 35 hours/week = 210 hours × 75 percent = 157.5) in the first 6-week period, at least 157.5 hours in the second 6-week period, and at least 105 hours (4 weeks × 35 hours/week = 140 hours × 75 percent = 105) in the final partial period.
</P>
<P>(6) If the worker is paid on a piece rate basis, the employer must use the worker's average hourly piece rate earnings or the offered wage, whichever is higher, to calculate the amount due under the guarantee.
</P>
<P>(7) A worker may be offered more than the specified hours of work on a single workday. For purposes of meeting the guarantee, however, the worker will not be required to work for more than the number of hours specified in the job order for a workday. The employer, however, may count all hours actually worked in calculating whether the guarantee has been met. If during any 12-week period (6-week period if the period of employment covered by the job order is less than 120 days) during the period of the job order the employer affords the U.S. or H-2B worker less employment than that required under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the employer must pay such worker the amount the worker would have earned had the worker, in fact, worked for the guaranteed number of days. An employer has not met the work guarantee if the employer has merely offered work on three-fourths of the workdays in an 12-week period (or 6-week period, as appropriate) if each workday did not consist of a full number of hours of work time as specified in the job order.
</P>
<P>(8) Any hours the worker fails to work, up to a maximum of the number of hours specified in the job order for a workday, when the worker has been offered an opportunity to work in accordance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and all hours of work actually performed (including voluntary work over 8 hours in a workday), may be counted by the employer in calculating whether each 12-week period (or 6-week period, as appropriate) of guaranteed employment has been met. An employer seeking to calculate whether the guaranteed number of hours has been met must maintain the payroll records in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Impossibility of fulfillment.</I> If, before the expiration date specified in the job order, the services of the worker are no longer required for reasons beyond the control of the employer due to fire, weather, or other Act of God, or similar unforeseeable man-made catastrophic event (such as an oil spill or controlled flooding) that is wholly outside the employer's control that makes the fulfillment of the job order impossible, the employer may terminate the job order with the approval of the CO. In the event of such termination of a job order, the employer must fulfill a three-fourths guarantee, as described in paragraph (f) of this section, for the time that has elapsed from the start date listed in the job order or the first workday after the arrival of the worker at the place of employment, whichever is later, to the time of its termination. The employer must make efforts to transfer the H-2B worker or worker in corresponding employment to other comparable employment acceptable to the worker and consistent with the INA, as applicable. If a transfer is not effected, the employer must return the worker, at the employer's expense, to the place from which the worker (disregarding intervening employment) came to work for the employer, or transport the worker to the worker's next certified H-2B employer, whichever the worker prefers.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Frequency of pay.</I> The employer must state in the job order the frequency with which the worker will be paid, which must be at least every 2 weeks or according to the prevailing practice in the area of intended employment, whichever is more frequent. Employers must pay wages when due.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Earnings statements.</I> (1) The employer must keep accurate and adequate records with respect to the workers' earnings, including but not limited to: records showing the nature, amount and location(s) of the work performed; the number of hours of work offered each day by the employer (broken out by hours offered both in accordance with and over and above the three-fourths guarantee in paragraph (f) of this section); the hours actually worked each day by the worker; if the number of hours worked by the worker is less than the number of hours offered, the reason(s) the worker did not work; the time the worker began and ended each workday; the rate of pay (both piece rate and hourly, if applicable); the worker's earnings per pay period; the worker's home address; and the amount of and reasons for any and all deductions taken from or additions made to the worker's wages.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must furnish to the worker on or before each payday in one or more written statements the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The worker's total earnings for each workweek in the pay period;
</P>
<P>(ii) The worker's hourly rate and/or piece rate of pay;
</P>
<P>(iii) For each workweek in the pay period the hours of employment offered to the worker (showing offers in accordance with the three-fourths guarantee as determined in paragraph (f) of this section, separate from any hours offered over and above the guarantee);
</P>
<P>(iv) For each workweek in the pay period the hours actually worked by the worker;
</P>
<P>(v) An itemization of all deductions made from or additions made to the worker's wages;
</P>
<P>(vi) If piece rates are used, the units produced daily;
</P>
<P>(vii) The beginning and ending dates of the pay period; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The employer's name, address and FEIN.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Transportation and visa fees</I>—(1)(i) <I>Transportation to the place of employment.</I> The employer must provide or reimburse the worker for transportation and subsistence from the place from which the worker has come to work for the employer, whether in the U.S. or abroad, to the place of employment if the worker completes 50 percent of the period of employment covered by the job order (not counting any extensions). The employer may arrange and pay for the transportation and subsistence directly, advance at a minimum the most economical and reasonable common carrier cost of the transportation and subsistence to the worker before the worker's departure, or pay the worker for the reasonable costs incurred by the worker. When it is the prevailing practice of non-H-2B employers in the occupation in the area to do so or when the employer extends such benefits to similarly situated H-2B workers, the employer must advance the required transportation and subsistence costs (or otherwise provide them) to workers in corresponding employment who are traveling to the employer's worksite. The amount of the transportation payment must be no less (and is not required to be more) than the most economical and reasonable common carrier transportation charges for the distances involved. The amount of the daily subsistence must be at least the amount permitted in 20 CFR 655.173. Where the employer will reimburse the reasonable costs incurred by the worker, it must keep accurate and adequate records of: the costs of transportation and subsistence incurred by the worker; the amount reimbursed; and the date(s) of reimbursement. Note that the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) applies independently of the H-2B requirements and imposes obligations on employers regarding payment of wages.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transportation from the place of employment.</I> If the worker completes the period of employment covered by the job order (not counting any extensions), or if the worker is dismissed from employment for any reason by the employer before the end of the period, and the worker has no immediate subsequent H-2B employment, the employer must provide or pay at the time of departure for the worker's cost of return transportation and daily subsistence from the place of employment to the place from which the worker, disregarding intervening employment, departed to work for the employer. If the worker has contracted with a subsequent employer that has not agreed in the job order to provide or pay for the worker's transportation from the employer's worksite to such subsequent employer's worksite, the employer must provide or pay for that transportation and subsistence. If the worker has contracted with a subsequent employer that has agreed in the job order to provide or pay for the worker's transportation from the employer's worksite to such subsequent employer's worksite, the subsequent employer must provide or pay for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Employer-provided transportation.</I> All employer-provided transportation must comply with all applicable Federal, State, and local laws and regulations and must provide, at a minimum, the same vehicle safety standards, driver licensure requirements, and vehicle insurance as required under 49 CFR parts 390, 393, and 396.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Disclosure.</I> All transportation and subsistence costs that the employer will pay must be disclosed in the job order.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must pay or reimburse the worker in the first workweek for all visa, visa processing, border crossing, and other related fees (including those mandated by the government) incurred by the H-2B worker, but not for passport expenses or other charges primarily for the benefit of the worker.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Employer-provided items.</I> The employer must provide to the worker, without charge or deposit charge, all tools, supplies, and equipment required to perform the duties assigned.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Disclosure of job order.</I> The employer must provide to an H-2B worker outside of the U.S. no later than the time at which the worker applies for the visa, or to a worker in corresponding employment no later than on the day work commences, a copy of the job order including any subsequent approved modifications. For an H-2B worker changing employment from an H-2B employer to a subsequent H-2B employer, the copy must be provided no later than the time an offer of employment is made by the subsequent H-2B employer. The disclosure of all documents required by this paragraph (l) must be provided in a language understood by the worker, as necessary or reasonable.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Notice of worker rights.</I> The employer must post and maintain in a conspicuous location at the place of employment a poster provided by the Department of Labor that sets out the rights and protections for H-2B workers and workers in corresponding employment. The employer must post the poster in English. To the extent necessary, the employer must request and post additional posters, as made available by the Department of Labor, in any language common to a significant portion of the workers if they are not fluent in English.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>No unfair treatment.</I> The employer has not and will not intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge or in any manner discriminate against, and has not and will not cause any person to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, or in any manner discriminate against, any person who has:
</P>
<P>(1) Filed a complaint under or related to 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), section 214(c) of the INA, 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or this part or any other regulation promulgated thereunder;
</P>
<P>(2) Instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), section 214(c) of the INA, 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or this part or any other regulation promulgated thereunder;
</P>
<P>(3) Testified or is about to testify in any proceeding under or related to 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), section 214(c) of the INA, 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or this part or any other regulation promulgated thereunder;
</P>
<P>(4) Consulted with a workers' center, community organization, labor union, legal assistance program, or an attorney on matters related to 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), section 214(c) of the INA, 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or this part or any other regulation promulgated thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(5) Exercised or asserted on behalf of himself or herself or others any right or protection afforded by 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), section 214(c) of the INA, 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or this part or any other regulation promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Comply with the prohibitions against employees paying fees.</I> The employer and its attorney, agents, or employees have not sought or received payment of any kind from the worker for any activity related to obtaining H-2B labor certification or employment, including payment of the employer's attorney or agent fees, application and <I>H-2B Petition</I> fees, recruitment costs, or any fees attributed to obtaining the approved <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (o), payment includes, but is not limited to, monetary payments, wage concessions (including deductions from wages, salary, or benefits), kickbacks, bribes, tributes, in-kind payments, and free labor. All wages must be paid free and clear. This provision does not prohibit employers or their agents from receiving reimbursement for costs that are the responsibility and primarily for the benefit of the worker, such as government-required passport fees.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Contracts with third parties to comply with prohibitions.</I> The employer must contractually prohibit in writing any agent or recruiter (or any agent or employee of such agent or recruiter) whom the employer engages, either directly or indirectly, in recruitment of H-2B workers to seek or receive payments or other compensation from prospective workers. The contract must include the following statement: “Under this agreement, [name of agent, recruiter] and any agent of or employee of [name of agent or recruiter] are prohibited from seeking or receiving payments from any prospective employee of [employer name] at any time, including before or after the worker obtains employment. Payments include but are not limited to, any direct or indirect fees paid by such employees for recruitment, job placement, processing, maintenance, attorneys' fees, agent fees, application fees, or petition fees.”
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Prohibition against preferential treatment of foreign workers.</I> The employer's job offer must offer to U.S. workers no less than the same benefits, wages, and working conditions that the employer is offering, intends to offer, or will provide to H-2B workers. Job offers may not impose on U.S. workers any restrictions or obligations that will not be imposed on the employer's H-2B workers. This does not relieve the employer from providing to H-2B workers at least the minimum benefits, wages, and working conditions which must be offered to U.S. workers consistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Non-discriminatory hiring practices.</I> The job opportunity is, and through the period set forth in paragraph (t) of this section must continue to be, open to any qualified U.S. worker regardless of race, color, national origin, age, sex, religion, disability, or citizenship. Rejections of any U.S. workers who applied or apply for the job must only be for lawful, job-related reasons, and those not rejected on this basis have been or will be hired. In addition, the employer has and will continue to retain records of all hired workers and rejected applicants as required by § 503.17.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Recruitment requirements.</I> The employer must conduct all required recruitment activities, including any additional employer-conducted recruitment activities as directed by the CO, and as specified in 20 CFR 655.40 through 655.46.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Continuing requirement to hire U.S. workers.</I> The employer has and will continue to cooperate with the SWA by accepting referrals of all qualified U.S. workers who apply (or on whose behalf a job application is made) for the job opportunity, and must provide employment to any qualified U.S. worker who applies to the employer for the job opportunity, until 21 days before the date of need.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>No strike or lockout.</I> There is no strike or lockout at any of the employer's worksites within the area of intended employment for which the employer is requesting H-2B certification at the time the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> is filed.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>No recent or future layoffs.</I> The employer has not laid off and will not lay off any similarly employed U.S. worker in the occupation that is the subject of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> in the area of intended employment within the period beginning 120 calendar days before the date of need through the end of the period of certification. A layoff for lawful, job-related reasons such as lack of work or the end of a season is permissible if all H-2B workers are laid off before any U.S. worker in corresponding employment.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Contact with former U.S. employees.</I> The employer will contact (by mail or other effective means) its former U.S. workers, including those who have been laid off within 120 calendar days before the date of need (except those who were dismissed for cause or who abandoned the worksite), employed by the employer in the occupation at the place of employment during the previous year, disclose the terms of the job order, and solicit their return to the job.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Area of intended employment and job opportunity.</I> The employer must not place any H-2B workers employed under the approved <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> outside the area of intended employment or in a job opportunity not listed on the approved <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> unless the employer has obtained a new approved <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Abandonment/termination of employment.</I> Upon the separation from employment of worker(s) employed under the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> or workers in corresponding employment, if such separation occurs before the end date of the employment specified in the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> the employer must notify OFLC in writing of the separation from employment not later than 2 work days after such separation is discovered by the employer. In addition, the employer must notify DHS in writing (or any other method specified by the Department of Labor or DHS in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or the Code of Federal Regulations) of such separation of an H-2B worker. An abandonment or abscondment is deemed to begin after a worker fails to report for work at the regularly scheduled time for 5 consecutive working days without the consent of the employer. If the separation is due to the voluntary abandonment of employment by the H-2B worker or worker in corresponding employment, and the employer provides appropriate notification specified under this paragraph (y), the employer will not be responsible for providing or paying for the subsequent transportation and subsistence expenses of that worker under this section, and that worker is not entitled to the three-fourths guarantee described in paragraph (f) of this section. The employer's obligation to guarantee three-fourths of the work described in paragraph (f) ends with the last full 12-week period (or 6-week period, as appropriate) preceding the worker's voluntary abandonment or termination for cause.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Compliance with applicable laws.</I> During the period of employment specified on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> the employer must comply with all applicable Federal, State and local employment-related laws and regulations, including health and safety laws. This includes compliance with 18 U.S.C. 1592(a), with respect to prohibitions against employers, the employer's agents or their attorneys knowingly holding, destroying or confiscating workers' passports, visas, or other immigration documents.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Disclosure of foreign worker recruitment.</I> The employer, and its attorney or agent, as applicable, must comply with 20 CFR 655.9 by providing a copy of all agreements with any agent or recruiter whom it engages or plans to engage in the recruitment of H-2B workers, and the identity and location of the persons or entities hired by or working for the agent or recruiter, and any of the agents or employees of those persons and entities, to recruit foreign workers. Pursuant to 20 CFR 655.15(a), the agreements and information must be filed with the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I>
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Cooperation with investigators.</I> The employer must cooperate with any employee of the Secretary who is exercising or attempting to exercise the Department's authority pursuant to 8 U.S.C. 1184(c)(14)(B), section 214(c)(14)(B) of the INA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.17   Document retention requirements of H-2B employers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Entities required to retain documents.</I> All employers filing an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> requesting H-2B workers are required to retain the documents and records proving compliance with 20 CFR part 655, subpart A and this part, including but not limited to those specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Period of required retention.</I> The employer must retain records and documents for 3 years from the date of certification of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> or from the date of adjudication if the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> is denied or 3 years from the day the Department of Labor receives the letter of withdrawal provided in accordance with 20 CFR 655.62.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents and records to be retained by all employer applicants.</I> All employers filing an <I>H-2B Registration</I> and an <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> must retain the following documents and records and must provide the documents and records in the event of an audit or investigation:
</P>
<P>(1) Documents and records not previously submitted during the registration process that substantiate temporary need;
</P>
<P>(2) Proof of recruitment efforts, as applicable, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Job order placement as specified in 20 CFR 655.16;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contact with former U.S. workers as specified in 20 CFR 655.43;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contact with bargaining representative(s), copy of the posting of the job opportunity, and contact with community-based organizations, if applicable, as specified in 20 CFR 655.45(a), (b) and (c); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Additional employer-conducted recruitment efforts as specified in 20 CFR 655.46;
</P>
<P>(3) Substantiation of the information submitted in the recruitment report prepared in accordance with 20 CFR 655.48, such as evidence of nonapplicability of contact with former workers as specified in 20 CFR 655.43;
</P>
<P>(4) The final recruitment report and any supporting resumes and contact information as specified in 20 CFR 655.48;
</P>
<P>(5) Records of each worker's earnings, hours offered and worked, and other information as specified in § 503.16(i);
</P>
<P>(6) If appropriate, records of reimbursement of transportation and subsistence costs incurred by the workers, as specified in § 503.16(j).
</P>
<P>(7) Evidence of contact with U.S. workers who applied for the job opportunity in the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> including documents demonstrating that any rejections of U.S. workers were for lawful, job-related reasons, as specified in § 503.16(r);
</P>
<P>(8) Evidence of contact with any former U.S. worker in the occupation and the area of intended employment in the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> including documents demonstrating that the U.S. worker had been offered the job opportunity in the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> as specified in § 503.16(w), and that the U.S. worker either refused the job opportunity or was rejected only for lawful, job-related reasons, as specified in § 503.16(r);
</P>
<P>(9) The written contracts with agents or recruiters, as specified in 20 CFR 655.8 and 655.9, and the list of the identities and locations of persons hired by or working for the agent or recruiter and these entities' agents or employees, as specified in 20 CFR 655.9;
</P>
<P>(10) Written notice provided to and informing OFLC that an H-2B worker or worker in corresponding employment has separated from employment before the end date of employment specified in the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> as specified in § 503.16(y);
</P>
<P>(11) The <I>H-2B Registration,</I> job order, and a copy of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and the original signed Appendix B of the Application.
</P>
<P>(12) The approved <I>H-2B Petition,</I> including all accompanying documents; and
</P>
<P>(13) Any collective bargaining agreement(s), individual employment contract(s), or payroll records from the previous year necessary to substantiate any claim that certain incumbent workers are not included in corresponding employment, as specified in § 503.4.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of documents for enforcement purposes.</I> An employer must make available to the Administrator, WHD within 72 hours following a request by the WHD the documents and records required under 20 CFR part 655, subpart A and this section so that the Administrator, WHD may copy, transcribe, or inspect them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 24130, Apr. 29, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 62447, Nov. 15, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.18   Validity of temporary labor certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Validity period.</I> A temporary labor certification is valid only for the period of time between the beginning and ending dates of employment, as approved on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I> The certification expires on the last day of authorized employment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of validity.</I> A temporary labor certification is valid only for the number of H-2B positions, the area of intended employment, the job classification and specific services or labor to be performed, and the employer specified on the approved <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification.</I> The temporary labor certification may not be transferred from one employer to another unless the employer to which it is transferred is a successor in interest to the employer to which it was issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.19   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Types of violations.</I> Pursuant to the statutory provisions governing enforcement of the H-2B program, 8 U.S.C. 1184(c)(14), a violation exists under this part where the Administrator, WHD determines that there has been a:
</P>
<P>(1) Willful misrepresentation of a material fact on the <I>H-2B Registration, Application for Prevailing Wage Determination,</I> <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> or <I>H-2B Petition;</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Substantial failure to meet any of the terms and conditions of the <I>H-2B Registration, Application for Prevailing Wage Determination,</I> <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> or <I>H-2B Petition.</I> A substantial failure is a willful failure to comply that constitutes a significant deviation from the terms and conditions of such documents; or
</P>
<P>(3) Willful misrepresentation of a material fact to the Department of State during the H-2B nonimmigrant visa application process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining whether a violation is willful.</I> A willful misrepresentation of a material fact or a willful failure to meet the required terms and conditions occurs when the employer, attorney, or agent knows its statement is false or that its conduct is in violation, or shows reckless disregard for the truthfulness of its representation or for whether its conduct satisfies the required conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determining whether a violation is significant.</I> In determining whether a violation is a significant deviation from the terms and conditions of the <I>H-2B Registration, Application for Prevailing Wage Determination,</I> <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> or <I>H-2B Petition,</I> the factors that the Administrator, WHD may consider include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Previous history of violation(s) under the H-2B program;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of H-2B workers, workers in corresponding employment, or U.S. workers who were and/or are affected by the violation(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The gravity of the violation(s);
</P>
<P>(4) The extent to which the violator achieved a financial gain due to the violation(s), or the potential financial loss or potential injury to the worker(s); and
</P>
<P>(5) Whether U.S. workers have been harmed by the violation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employer acceptance of obligations.</I> The provisions of this part become applicable upon the date that the employer's <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> is accepted. The employer's submission of the approved <I>H-2B Registration, Application for Prevailing Wage Determination,</I> the employer's survey attestation (Form ETA-9165), Appendix B of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> and <I>H-2B Petition</I> constitute the employer's representation that the statements on the forms are accurate and that it knows and accepts the obligations of the program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.20   Sanctions and remedies—general.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Administrator, WHD determines that there has been a violation(s), as described in § 503.19, such action will be taken and such proceedings instituted as deemed appropriate, including (but not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Institute administrative proceedings, including for: the recovery of unpaid wages (including recovery of prohibited recruitment fees paid or impermissible deductions from pay, and recovery of wages due for improperly placing workers in areas of employment or in occupations other than those identified on the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and for which a prevailing wage was not obtained); the enforcement of provisions of the job order, 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or the regulations in this part; the assessment of a civil money penalty; make whole relief for any person who has been discriminated against; reinstatement and make whole relief for any U.S. worker who has been improperly rejected for employment, laid off or displaced; or debarment for no less than 1 or no more than 5 years.
</P>
<P>(b) The remedies referenced in paragraph (a) of this section will be sought either directly from the employer, or from its successor in interest, or from the employer's agent or attorney, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.21   Concurrent actions within the Department of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>OFLC has primary responsibility to make all determinations regarding the issuance, denial, or revocation of a labor certification as described in § 503.1(b) and in 20 CFR part 655, subpart A. The WHD has primary responsibility to make all determinations regarding the enforcement functions as described in § 503.1(c). The taking of any one of the actions referred to above will not be a bar to the concurrent taking of any other action authorized by 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or the regulations in this part. OFLC and the WHD have concurrent jurisdiction to impose a debarment remedy under 20 CFR 655.73 or under § 503.24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.22   Representation of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The Solicitor of Labor, through authorized representatives, will represent the Administrator, WHD and the Secretary in all administrative hearings under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c)(14) and the regulations in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.23   Civil money penalty assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A civil money penalty may be assessed by the Administrator, WHD for each violation that meets the standards described in § 503.19. Each such violation involving the failure to pay an individual worker properly or to honor the terms or conditions of a worker's employment required by the <I>H-2B Registration, Application for Prevailing Wage Determination, Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> or <I>H-2B Petition,</I> constitutes a separate violation. Civil money penalty amounts for such violations are determined as set forth in paragraphs (b) to (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon determining that an employer has violated any provisions of § 503.16 related to wages, impermissible deductions or prohibited fees and expenses, the Administrator, WHD, may assess civil money penalties that are equal to the difference between the amount that should have been paid and the amount that actually was paid to such worker(s), not to exceed $15,846 per violation.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon determining that an employer has terminated by layoff or otherwise or has refused to employ any worker in violation of § 503.16(r), (t), or (v), within the periods described in those sections, the Administrator, WHD may assess civil money penalties that are equal to the wages that would have been earned but for the layoff or failure to hire, not to exceed $15,846 per violation. No civil money penalty will be assessed, however, if the employee refused the job opportunity, or was terminated for lawful, job-related reasons.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator, WHD, may assess civil money penalties in an amount not to exceed $15,846 per violation for any other violation that meets the standards described in § 503.19.
</P>
<P>(e) In determining the amount of the civil money penalty to be assessed under paragraph (d) of this section, the Administrator, WHD will consider the type of violation committed and other relevant factors. In determining the level of penalties to be assessed, the highest penalties will be reserved for willful failures to meet any of the conditions of the <I>Application for Temporary Employment Certification</I> and <I>H-2B Petition</I> that involve harm to U.S. workers. Other factors which may be considered include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Previous history of violation(s) of 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or the regulations in this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of H-2B workers, workers in corresponding employment, or improperly rejected U.S. applicants who were and/or are affected by the violation(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The gravity of the violation(s);
</P>
<P>(4) Efforts made in good faith to comply with 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, and the regulations in this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Explanation from the person charged with the violation(s);
</P>
<P>(6) Commitment to future compliance, taking into account the public health, interest or safety; and
</P>
<P>(7) The extent to which the violator achieved a financial gain due to the violation, or the potential financial loss or potential injury to the workers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 24130, Apr. 29, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 42986, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 14149, Mar. 17, 2017; 83 FR 12, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 218, Jan. 23, 2019; 85 FR 2298, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2968, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 2334, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2216, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1816, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1860, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.24   Debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Debarment of an employer.</I> The Administrator, OFLC may not issue future labor certifications under 20 CFR part 655, subpart A to an employer or any successor in interest to that employer, subject to the time limits set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, if the Administrator, WHD finds that the employer committed a violation that meets the standards of § 503.19. Where these standards are met, debarrable violations would include but not be limited to one or more acts of commission or omission which involve:
</P>
<P>(1) Failure to pay or provide the required wages, benefits, or working conditions to the employer's H-2B workers and/or workers in corresponding employment;
</P>
<P>(2) Failure, except for lawful, job-related reasons, to offer employment to qualified U.S. workers who applied for the job opportunity for which certification was sought;
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to comply with the employer's obligations to recruit U.S. workers;
</P>
<P>(4) Improper layoff or displacement of U.S. workers or workers in corresponding employment;
</P>
<P>(5) Failure to comply with one or more sanctions or remedies imposed by the Administrator, WHD for violation(s) of obligations under the job order or other H-2B obligations, or with one or more decisions or orders of the Secretary or a court under 20 CFR part 655, subpart A or this part;
</P>
<P>(6) Impeding an investigation of an employer under this part;
</P>
<P>(7) Employing an H-2B worker outside the area of intended employment, in an activity/activities not listed in the job order, or outside the validity period of employment of the job order, including any approved extension thereof;
</P>
<P>(8) A violation of the requirements of § 503.16(o) or (p);
</P>
<P>(9) A violation of any of the provisions listed in § 503.16(r);
</P>
<P>(10) Any other act showing such flagrant disregard for the law that future compliance with program requirements cannot reasonably be expected;
</P>
<P>(11) Fraud involving the <I>H-2B Registration, Application for Prevailing Wage Determination, Application for Temporary Employment Certification,</I> or <I>H-2B Petition;</I> or
</P>
<P>(12) A material misrepresentation of fact during the registration or application process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Debarment of an agent or attorney.</I> If the Administrator, WHD finds, under this section, that an agent or attorney committed a violation as described in paragraph (a) of this section or participated in an employer's violation, the Administrator, OFLC may not issue future labor certifications to an employer represented by such agent or attorney, subject to the time limits set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Period of debarment.</I> Debarment under this subpart may not be for less than 1 year or more than 5 years from the date of the final agency decision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Debarment procedure.</I> If the Administrator, WHD makes a determination to debar an employer, attorney, or agent, the Administrator, WHD will send the party a Notice of Debarment. The notice will state the reason for the debarment finding, including a detailed explanation of the grounds for and the duration of the debarment and inform the party subject to the notice of its right to request a debarment hearing and the timeframe under which such rights must be exercised under § 503.43. If the party does not request a hearing within 30 calendar days of the date of the Notice of Debarment, the notice is the final agency action and the debarment will take effect at the end of the 30-day period. The timely filing of an administrative appeal stays the debarment pending the outcome of the appeal as provided in § 503.43(e).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Concurrent debarment jurisdiction.</I> OFLC and the WHD have concurrent jurisdiction debar under 20 CFR 655.73 or under this part. When considering debarment, OFLC and the WHD will coordinate their activities. A specific violation for which debarment is imposed will be cited in a single debarment proceeding. Copies of final debarment decisions will be forwarded to DHS and DOS promptly.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Debarment from other labor certification programs.</I> Upon debarment under this part or 20 CFR 655.73, the debarred party will be disqualified from filing any labor certification applications or labor condition applications with the Department of Labor by, or on behalf of, the debarred party for the same period of time set forth in the final debarment decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.25   Failure to cooperate with investigators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person will interfere or refuse to cooperate with any employee of the Secretary who is exercising or attempting to exercise the Department's investigative or enforcement authority under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c). Federal statutes prohibiting persons from interfering with a Federal officer in the course of official duties are found at 18 U.S.C. 111 and 18 U.S.C. 114.
</P>
<P>(b) Where an employer (or employer's agent or attorney) interferes or does not cooperate with an investigation concerning the employment of an H-2B worker or a worker in corresponding employment, or a U.S. worker who has been improperly rejected for employment or improperly laid off or displaced, WHD may make such information available to OFLC and may recommend that OFLC revoke the existing certification that is the basis for the employment of the H-2B workers giving rise to the investigation. In addition, WHD may take such action as appropriate where the failure to cooperate meets the standards in § 503.19, including initiating proceedings for the debarment of the employer from future certification for up to 5 years, and/or assessing civil money penalties against any person who has failed to cooperate with a WHD investigation. The taking of any one action will not bar the taking of any additional action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.26" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.2.82.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.26   Civil money penalties—payment and collection.</HEAD>
<P>Where a civil money penalty is assessed in a final order by the Administrator, WHD, by an ALJ, or by the ARB, the amount of the penalty must be received by the Administrator, WHD within 30 calendar days of the date of the final order. The person assessed the penalty will remit the amount ordered to the Administrator, WHD by certified check or by money order, made payable to the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor. The remittance will be delivered or mailed to the WHD Regional Office for the area in which the violations occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.40" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.82.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.40   Applicability of procedures and rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures and rules contained in this subpart prescribe the administrative appeal process that will be applied with respect to a determination to assess civil money penalties, to debar, to enforce provisions of the job order or provisions under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), 20 CFR part 655, subpart A, or the regulations in this part, or to the collection of monetary relief due as a result of any violation.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to determinations as listed in paragraph (a) involving provisions under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c), the procedures and rules contained in this subpart will apply regardless of the date of violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="82" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.82" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Related to Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.41" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.82.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.41   Administrator, WHD's determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Administrator, WHD decides to assess a civil money penalty, to debar, or to impose other appropriate administrative remedies, including for the recovery of monetary relief, the party against which such action is taken will be notified in writing of such determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator, WHD's determination will be served on the party by personal service or by certified mail at the party's last known address. Where service by certified mail is not accepted by the party, the Administrator may exercise discretion to serve the determination by regular mail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.42" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.82.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.42   Contents of notice of determination.</HEAD>
<P>The notice of determination required by § 503.41 will:
</P>
<P>(a) Set forth the determination of the Administrator, WHD, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of any monetary relief due; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other appropriate administrative remedies; or
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of any civil money penalty assessment; or
</P>
<P>(4) Whether debarment is sought and the term; and
</P>
<P>(5) The reason or reasons for such determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Set forth the right to request a hearing on such determination;
</P>
<P>(c) Inform the recipient(s) of the notice that in the absence of a timely request for a hearing, received by the Chief ALJ within 30 calendar days of the date of the determination, the determination of the Administrator, WHD will become final and not appealable;
</P>
<P>(d) Set forth the time and method for requesting a hearing, and the related procedures for doing so, as set forth in § 503.43, and give the addresses of the Chief ALJ (with whom the request must be filed) and the representative(s) of the Solicitor of Labor (upon whom copies of the request must be served); and
</P>
<P>(e) Where appropriate, inform the recipient(s) of the notice that the Administrator, WHD will notify OFLC and DHS of the occurrence of a violation by the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.43" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.82.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.43   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring review of a determination issued under § 503.41, including judicial review, must make a request for such an administrative hearing in writing to the Chief ALJ at the address stated in the notice of determination. In such a proceeding, the Administrator will be the plaintiff, and the party will be the respondent. If such a request for an administrative hearing is timely filed, the Administrator, WHD's determination will be inoperative unless and until the case is dismissed or the ALJ issues an order affirming the decision.
</P>
<P>(b) No particular form is prescribed for any request for hearing permitted by this section. However, any such request will:
</P>
<P>(1) Be dated;
</P>
<P>(2) Be typewritten or legibly written;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the issue or issues stated in the notice of determination giving rise to such request;
</P>
<P>(4) State the specific reason or reasons why the party believes such determination is in error;
</P>
<P>(5) Be signed by the party making the request or by the agent or attorney of such party; and
</P>
<P>(6) Include the address at which such party or agent or attorney desires to receive further communications relating thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) The request for such hearing must be received by the Chief ALJ, at the address stated in the Administrator, WHD's notice of determination, no later than 30 calendar days after the date of the determination. A party which fails to meet this 30-day deadline for requesting a hearing may thereafter participate in the proceedings only by consent of the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(d) The request may be filed in person, by facsimile transmission, by certified or regular mail, or by courier service within the time set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. For the requesting party's protection, if the request is by mail, it should be by certified mail. If the request is by facsimile transmission, the original of the request, signed by the party or its attorney or agent, must be filed within 25 days.
</P>
<P>(e) The determination will take effect on the start date identified in the written notice of determination, unless an administrative appeal is properly filed. The timely filing of an administrative appeal stays the determination pending the outcome of the appeal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(f) Copies of the request for a hearing will be sent by the party or attorney or agent to the WHD official who issued the notice of determination on behalf of the Administrator, WHD, and to the representative(s) of the Solicitor of Labor identified in the notice of determination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="83" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.83" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Rules of Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.44" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.83.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.44   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specifically provided in the regulations in this part and to the extent they do not conflict with the provisions of this part, the Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings Before the Office of Administrative Law Judges established by the Secretary at 29 CFR part 18 will apply to administrative proceedings described in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) As provided in the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 556, any oral or documentary evidence may be received in proceedings under this part. The Federal Rules of Evidence and subpart B of the Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings Before the Office of Administrative Law Judges (29 CFR part 18, subpart B) will not apply, but principles designed to ensure production of relevant and probative evidence will guide the admission of evidence. The ALJ may exclude evidence which is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.45" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.83.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.45   Service of pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under this part, a party may serve any pleading or document by regular mail. Service on a party is complete upon mailing to the last known address. No additional time for filing or response is authorized where service is by mail. In the interest of expeditious proceedings, the ALJ may direct the parties to serve pleadings or documents by a method other than regular mail.
</P>
<P>(b) Two copies of all pleadings and other documents in any ALJ proceeding must be served on the attorneys for the Administrator, WHD. One copy must be served on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-2716, Washington, DC 20210, and one copy must be served on the attorney representing the Administrator in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Time will be computed beginning with the day following service and includes the last day of the period unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federally-observed holiday, in which case the time period includes the next business day.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.46" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.83.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.46   Commencement of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Each administrative proceeding permitted under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c)(14) and the regulations in this part will be commenced upon receipt of a timely request for hearing filed in accordance with § 503.43.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.47" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.83.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.47   Caption of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each administrative proceeding instituted under 8 U.S.C. 1184(c)(14), INA section 214(c)(14) and the regulations in this part will be captioned in the name of the person requesting such hearing, and will be styled as follows:
</P>
<P>In the Matter of __________, Respondent.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of such administrative proceedings the Administrator, WHD will be identified as plaintiff and the person requesting such hearing will be named as respondent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.48" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.83.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.48   Conduct of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing filed under and in accordance with § 503.43, the Chief ALJ will promptly appoint an ALJ to hear the case.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ will notify all parties of the date, time and place of the hearing. Parties will be given at least 30 calendar days' notice of such hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ may prescribe a schedule by which the parties are permitted to file a prehearing brief or other written statement of fact or law. Any such brief or statement must be served upon each other party. Post-hearing briefs will not be permitted except at the request of the ALJ. When permitted, any such brief must be limited to the issue or issues specified by the ALJ, will be due within the time prescribed by the ALJ, and must be served on each other party.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="84" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.84" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Before Administrative Law Judge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.49" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.84.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.49   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding under this part, but before the reception of evidence in any such proceeding, a party may move to defer the receipt of any evidence for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such deferment and the duration thereof will be at the discretion of the ALJ, after consideration of the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of an agreement being reached which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof will also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order will have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based will consist solely of the notice of administrative determination (or amended notice, if one is filed), and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the ALJ; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their attorney or agent may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement for consideration by the ALJ; or
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the ALJ that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event an agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefore, the ALJ, within 30 days thereafter, will, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="85" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.85" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Post-Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.50   Decision and order of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will prepare, within 60 days after completion of the hearing and closing of the record, a decision on the issues referred by the Administrator, WHD.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision of the ALJ will include a statement of the findings and conclusions, with reasons and basis therefore, upon each material issue presented on the record. The decision will also include an appropriate order which may affirm, deny, reverse, or modify, in whole or in part, the determination of the Administrator, WHD. The reason or reasons for such order will be stated in the decision.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that the Administrator, WHD assesses back wages for wage violation(s) of § 503.16 based upon a PWD obtained by the Administrator from OFLC during the investigation and the ALJ determines that the Administrator's request was not warranted, the ALJ will remand the matter to the Administrator for further proceedings on the Administrator's determination. If there is no such determination and remand by the ALJ, the ALJ will accept as final and accurate the wage determination obtained from OFLC or, in the event the party filed a timely appeal under 20 CFR 655.13 the final wage determination resulting from that process. Under no circumstances will the ALJ determine the validity of the wage determination or require submission into evidence or disclosure of source data or the names of establishments contacted in developing the survey which is the basis for the PWD.
</P>
<P>(d) The decision will be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision concerning civil money penalties, debarment, monetary relief, and/or other administrative remedies, when served by the ALJ will constitute the final agency order unless the ARB, as provided for in § 503.51, determines to review the decision.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="86" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.86" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Review of Administrative Law Judge's Decision</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.51" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.86.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.51   Procedures for initiating and undertaking review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A respondent, the WHD, or any other party wishing review, including judicial review, of the decision of an ALJ will, within 30 days of the decision of the ALJ, petition the ARB to review the decision. Copies of the petition will be served on all parties and on the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) No particular form is prescribed for any petition for the ARB's review permitted by this part. However, any such petition will:
</P>
<P>(1) Be dated;
</P>
<P>(2) Be typewritten or legibly written;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the issue or issues stated in the ALJ decision and order giving rise to such petition;
</P>
<P>(4) State the specific reason or reasons why the party petitioning for review believes such decision and order are in error;
</P>
<P>(5) Be signed by the party filing the petition or by an authorized representative of such party;
</P>
<P>(6) Include the address at which such party or authorized representative desires to receive further communications relating thereto; and
</P>
<P>(7) Include as an attachment the ALJ's decision and order, and any other record documents which would assist the ARB in determining whether review is warranted.
</P>
<P>(c) If the ARB does not issue a notice accepting a petition for review of the decision within 30 days after receipt of a timely filing of the petition, or within 30 days of the date of the decision if no petition has been received, the decision of the ALJ will be deemed the final agency action.
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever the ARB, either on the ARB's own motion or by acceptance of a party's petition, determines to review the decision of an ALJ, a notice of the same will be served upon the ALJ and upon all parties to the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.52" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.86.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.52   Responsibility of the Office of Administrative Law Judges (OALJ).</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of the ARB's notice under § 503.51, the OALJ will promptly forward a copy of the complete hearing record to the ARB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.53" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.86.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.53   Additional information, if required.</HEAD>
<P>Where the ARB has determined to review such decision and order, the ARB will notify the parties of:
</P>
<P>(a) The issue or issues raised;
</P>
<P>(b) The form in which submissions will be made (<I>i.e.,</I> briefs, oral argument); and
</P>
<P>(c) The time within which such presentation will be submitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.54" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.86.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.54   Submission of documents to the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>All documents submitted to the ARB will be filed with the Administrative Review Board, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room S-5220, Washington, DC 20210. An original and two copies of all documents must be filed. Documents are not deemed filed with the ARB until actually received by the ARB. All documents, including documents filed by mail, must be received by the ARB either on or before the due date. Copies of all documents filed with the ARB must be served upon all other parties involved in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.55" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.86.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.55   Final decision of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>The ARB's final decision will be issued within 90 days from the notice granting the petition and served upon all parties and the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="87" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.87" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.56" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.4.3.87.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.56   Retention of official record.</HEAD>
<P>The official record of every completed administrative hearing provided by the regulations in this part will be maintained and filed under the custody and control of the Chief ALJ, or, where the case has been the subject of administrative review, the ARB.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="504" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 504—ATTESTATIONS BY FACILITIES USING NONIMMIGRANT ALIENS AS REGISTERED NURSES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(i)(a) and 1182(m); sec. 3(c)(1), Pub. L. 101-238, 103 Stat. 2099, 2103; and sec. 341 (a) and (b), Pub. L. 103-182, 107 Stat. 2057.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 51014, Sept. 30, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 504.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.5.0.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 504.1   Cross-reference.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations governing labor condition attestations by facilities using nonimmigrant aliens as registered nurses are found at 20 CFR part 655, subparts D and E.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="505" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 505—LABOR STANDARDS ON PROJECTS OR PRODUCTIONS ASSISTED BY GRANTS FROM THE NATIONAL ENDOWMENTS FOR THE ARTS AND HUMANITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 5(j), Pub. L. 89-209, 79 Stat. 848 (20 U.S.C. 954(i)); sec. 7(g), Pub. L. 94-462, 90 Stat. 1971, as amended by sec. 107(4), Pub. L. 99-194, 99 Stat. 1337 (20 U.S.C. 956(g)); Secretary's Order No. 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014); Secretary's Order 01-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 23541, June 22, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 505.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.6.0.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 505.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations contained in this part set forth the procedures which are deemed necessary and appropriate to carry out the provisions of section 5(i) and section 7(g) of the National Foundation on the Arts and Humanities Act of 1965, as amended, 20 U.S.C. 954(i), 20 U.S.C. 956(g). As a condition to the receipt of any grant, the grantees must give adequate assurances that all professional performers and related or supporting professional personnel employed on projects or productions assisted by grants from the National Endowment for the Arts and the National Endowment for the Humanities shall receive not less than the prevailing minimum compensation as determined by the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) Regulations and procedures relating to wages on construction projects as provided in section 5(j) and section 7(j) of the National Foundation on the Arts and Humanities Act of 1965, as amended, may be found in parts 3 and 5 of this title.
</P>
<P>(c) Standards of overtime compensation for laborers or mechanics may be found in the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, 76 Stat. 357, 40 U.S.C. 327 <I>et seq.</I> and part 5 of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 505.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.6.0.88.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 505.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>Act</I> means the National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities Act of 1965, as amended, 79 Stat 848, as amended, 20 U.S.C. 951 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or authorized representative, to whom is assigned the performance of functions of the Secretary pertaining to wages under the National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities Act of 1965, as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or authorized representative, to whom is assigned the performance of functions of the Secretary pertaining to safety and health under the National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities Act of 1965, as amended.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Professional</I> in the phrase <I>professional performer and related or supporting professional personnel</I> shall include all those who work for compensation on a project or production which is assisted by a grant from the National Endowment for the Arts or the National Endowment for the Humanities regardless of whether paid out of grant funds. It shall not include those whose status is <I>amateur</I> because their engagement for performance or supporting work contemplates no compensation. Compensation does not include reimbursement of expenses (<I>i.e.</I>, meals, costumes, make-up etc.). The words <I>related or supporting . . . personnel</I> in the same phrase shall include all those whose work is related to the particular project or production such as musicians, stage hands, scenery designers, technicians, electricians and moving picture machine operators, as distinguished from those who operate a place for receiving an audience without reference to the particular project or production being exhibited, such as ushers, janitors, and those who sell and collect tickets. The phrase does not include laborers and mechanics employed by contractors or subcontractors on construction projects, whose compensation is regulated under section 5(j) and section 7(j) of the Act. The phrase <I>professional performers and related or supporting professional personnel</I> shall not include persons employed as regular faculty or staff of an educational institution primarily performing duties commonly associated with the teaching profession. It shall include persons employed by educational institutions primarily to engage in activities customarily performed by performing artists or by those who assist in the presentation of performances assisted by grants from the National Endowment for the Arts or the National Endowment for the Humanities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36741, Aug. 12, 1983, as amended at 82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 505.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.6.0.88.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 505.3   Prevailing minimum compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In the absence of an alternative determination made by the Administrator under paragraph (b) of this section, and except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the prevailing minimum compensation required to be paid under the Act to the various professional performers and related or supporting professional personnel employed on projects or productions assisted by grants from the National Endowment for the Arts and the National Endowment for the Humanities shall be the compensation (including fringe benefits) contained in collective bargaining agreements negotiated by the following national or international labor organizations or their local affiliates:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Actors' Equity Association.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Screen Actors Guild, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Screen Extras Guild, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Guild of Musical Artists, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>International Alliance of Theatrical Stage Employees and Moving Picture Machine Operators.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Federation of Musicians.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Association of Broadcast Employees and Technicians.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Federation of Television and Radio Artists.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Guild of Variety Artists.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Writers Guild.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Professional performers and related or supporting professional personnel who are to perform activities which do not come within the jurisdiction of any collective bargaining agreement negotiated by the labor organizations named in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be paid minimum compensation as determined by agreement of the grant applicant or grantee and the personnel who will perform such activities or their representatives. Evidence of the agreement reached by the parties shall be submitted by the grant applicant to the grant agency, together with evidence of the prevailing minimum compensation for similar activities. If the parties do not agree on the minimum compensation to be paid to such personnel, the matter shall be referred to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division for final determination.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Interested parties, including grant applicants, grantees, professional performers or related or supporting professional personnel and their representatives, may at any time submit to the Administrator a request for a determination of prevailing minimum compensation. The Administrator will make a determination concerning each such request in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any request for a determination of prevailing minimum compensation shall include or be accompanied by information as to the locality or localities, the class or classes of professional performers or related or supporting professional personnel for the project or production in question, the names and addresses (to the extent known) of interested parties, and all available information relating to prevailing minimum compensation currently being paid to such persons or to persons employed in similar activities. No particular form is prescribed for submission of information under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the information specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is not submitted with a request for an alternative determination of prevailing minimum compensation or is insufficient to permit a determination, the Administrator may deny the request or request additional information, at the Administrator's discretion. Pertinent information from any source may be considered by the Administrator in connection with any request.
</P>
<P>(4) The Administrator will respond to a request for determination under this section within 30 days of receipt, by issuing a determination of alternative prevailing minimum compensation or denying the request or advising that additional time is necessary for a decision. If the Administrator determines from a preponderance of all relevant evidence obtained in connection with the request that the compensation provided for in the agreements negotiated by the labor organizations set forth in paragraph (a) of this section does not prevail for any professional performer or related or supporting professional personnel employed on similar activities in the locality, the Administrator will issue a determination of the prevailing minimum compensation required to be paid under the Act to such persons. If the Administrator finds that the compensation provided for in the agreements negotiated by the labor organizations set forth in paragraph (a) of this section does prevail for the professional performers or related or supporting professional personnel in question, the requesting party will be so notified.
</P>
<P>(c) All professional performers and related or supporting professional personnel (other than laborers or mechanics with respect to whom labor standards are prescribed in section 5(j) and 7(j) of the Act) employed on projects or productions which are financed in whole or in part under section 5 or section 7 of the Act will be paid, without subsequent deduction or rebate on any account, not less than the prevailing minimum compensation determined in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, unless an alternative determination is made under paragraph (b) of this section. Pending the decision of the Administrator on a request for determination under paragraph (b) of this section, the grantee may be required to set aside in a separate escrow account sufficient funds to satisfy the difference between the compensation (including fringe benefits) actually paid to the employee(s) in question, and the compensation (including fringe benefits) required under the applicable collective bargaining agreement negotiated by the labor organization named in paragraph (a) of this section, or furnish a bond with a surety or sureties satisfactory to the Administrator for the protection of the compensation of the affected employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 505.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.6.0.88.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 505.4   Receipt of grant funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The grantee shall not receive funds authorized by section 5 or section 7 of the Act until adequate initial assurances have been filed with the Chairperson of the National Endowment for the Arts or the Chairperson of the National Endowment for the Humanities, pursuant to sections 5(i) (1) and (2) and sections 7(g) (1) and (2) of the Act as provided in § 505.5(a), that all professional performers and related or supporting professional personnel will be paid not less than the prevailing minimum compensation and that the safety and health requirements will be complied with. Neither shall the grantee receive any such funds if and after the Chairperson of the National Endowment for the Arts or Chairperson of the National Endowment for the Humanities is advised by the Secretary that continuing assurances as provided in § 505.5(b) are inadequate or that labor standards contemplated by sections 5(i) (1) and (2) or sections 7(g) (1) and (2) of the Act have not been observed.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to facilitate such assurances so that the grantee may receive the grant funds promptly, the Chairpersons of the National Endowment for the Arts and the National Endowment for the Humanities will transmit with the grant letter, to each grantee of a grant that will provide assistance to projects or productions employing professional performers or related or supporting professional personnel under section 5 or section 7 of the Act, a copy of these regulations together with two copies of the assurance form (Form No. ESA-38). The Chairperson will advise the grantee that before the grant may be received, the grantee must give assurances that all professional performers and related or supporting professional personnel (other than laborers or mechanics with respect to whom labor standards are prescribed in section 5(j) and section 7(j) of the Act), will be paid, without subsequent deduction or rebate on any account not less than the minimum compensation determined in accordance with § 505.3 (a) or (b) and that the safety and health requirements under § 505.6 will be met. The Chairpersons will maintain on file in Washington, DC, for a period of three (3) years and make available upon request of the Secretary the original signed Form ESA-38 and a copy of the grant letter together with any supplementary documents needed to give a description of the project or production to be financed in whole or in part under the grant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 505.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.6.0.88.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 505.5   Adequate assurances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial assurances.</I> The grantee shall give adequate initial assurances that not less than the prevailing minimum compensation determined in accordance with § 505.3 will be paid to all professional performers and related or supporting professional personnel, and that no part of the project or production will be performed under working conditions which are unsanitary or hazardous or dangerous to the health and safety of the employees, by executing and filing with the Chairperson of the National Endowment for the Arts or the Chairperson of the National Endowment for the Humanities, as appropriate, Form ESA-38.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuing assurances.</I> (1) The grantee shall maintain and preserve sufficient records as an assurance of compliance with section 5(i) (1) and (2) and section 7(g) (1) and (2) of the Act and shall make such reports therefrom to the Secretary as necessary or appropriate to assure the adequacy of the assurances given. Such records shall be kept for a period of three (3) years after the end of the grant period to which they pertain. These records shall include the following information relating to each performer and related or supporting professional personnel to whom a prevailing minimum compensation determination applies pursuant to § 505.3. In addition the record required in paragraph (b)(1)(vii) of this section shall be kept for all employees engaged in the project or production assisted by the grant.
</P>
<P>(i) Name.
</P>
<P>(ii) Home address.
</P>
<P>(iii) Occupation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Basic unit of compensation (such as the amount of a weekly or monthly salary, talent or performance fee, hourly rate or other basis on which compensation is computed), including fringe benefits or amounts paid in lieu thereof.
</P>
<P>(v) Work performed for each pay period expressed in terms of the total units of compensation fully and partially completed.
</P>
<P>(vi) Total compensation paid each pay period, deductions made, and date of payment, including amounts paid for fringe benefits and the person to whom they were paid, and
</P>
<P>(vii) Brief description of any injury incurred while performing under the grant and the dates and duration of disability.
</P>
<P>(2) The grantee shall permit the Administrator and the Assistant Secretary or their representatives to investigate and gather data regarding the wages, hours, safety, health, and other conditions and practices of employment related to the project or production, and to enter and inspect such project or production and such records (and make such transcriptions thereof), interview such employees during normal working hours, and investigate such facts, conditions, practices, or matters as may be deemed necessary or appropriate to determine whether the grantee has violated the labor standards contemplated by section 5(i) and section 7(g) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of adequacy.</I> The Administrator and Assistant Secretary shall determine the adequacy of assurances given pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section within each of their respective areas of responsibilities, and may revise any such determination at any time.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The requirements in paragraph (b) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0018)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23541, June 22, 1988; 53 FR 24171, June 27, 1988, as amended at 82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 505.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.6.0.88.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 505.6   Safety and health standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards.</I> Section 5(i)(2) and section 7(g)(2) of the Act provide that “no part of any project or production which is financed in whole or in part under this section will be performed or engaged in under working conditions which are unsanitary or hazardous or dangerous to the health and safety of the employees engaged in such project or production. Compliance with the safety and sanitary laws in the State in which the performance or part thereof is to take place shall be prima facie evidence of compliance. * * *” The applicable safety and health standards shall be those set forth in 29 CFR parts 1910 and 1926, including matters incorporated by reference therein. Evidence of compliance with State laws relating to health and sanitation will be considered prime facie evidence of compliance with the safety and health requirements of the Act, and it shall be sufficient unless rebutted or overcome by a preponderance of evidence of a failure to comply with any applicable safety and health standards set forth in 29 CFR parts 1910 and 1926, including matters incorporated by reference therein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Variances.</I> (1) Variances from standards applied under paragraph (a) of this section may be granted under the same circumstances in which variances may be granted under section 6(b)(6)(A) or 6(d) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 655). The procedures for the granting of variances and for related relief are those published in part 1905 of this title.
</P>
<P>(2) Any requests for variances shall also be considered requests for variances under the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, and any variance from a standard applied under paragraph (a) of this section and in part 1910 of this title shall be deemed a variance from the standards under both the National Foundation on the Arts and Humanities Act of 1965 and the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 505.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.6.0.88.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 505.7   Failure to comply.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary's representatives shall maintain a list of those grantees who are considered to be responsible for instances of failure to comply with the obligation of the grantees specified in section 5(i) (1) and (2) and section 7(g) (1) and (2) of the Act, which are considered to have been willful or of such nature as to cast doubt on the reliability of formal assurances subsequently given and there shall be maintained a similar list where adjustment of the violations satisfactory to the Secretary was not properly made. Assurances from persons or organizations placed on either such list or any organization in which they have a substantial interest shall be considered inadequate for purposes of receiving further grants for a period not to exceed three (3) years from the date of notification by the Secretary that they have been placed on the lists unless, by appropriate application to the Secretary, they demonstrate a current responsibility to comply with section 5(i) (1) and (2) and section 7(g) (1) and (2) of the Act, and demonstrate that correction of the violations has been made.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="506" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 506—ATTESTATIONS BY EMPLOYERS USING ALIEN CREWMEMBERS FOR LONGSHORE ACTIVITIES IN U.S. PORTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>8 U.S.C. 1288 (c) and (d).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 51014, Sept. 30, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 506.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.7.0.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 506.1   Cross-reference.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations governing attestations by employers using alien crewmembers for longshore activities in U.S. ports are found at 20 CFR part 655, subparts F and G. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="507" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 507—LABOR CONDITION APPLICATIONS AND REQUIREMENTS FOR EMPLOYERS USING NONIMMIGRANTS ON H-1B SPECIALTY VISAS IN SPECIALTY OCCUPATIONS AND AS FASHION MODELS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(H)(i)(b), 1182(n), and 1184; 29 U.S.C. 49 <I>et seq.;</I> Pub. L. 102-232, 105 Stat. 1733, 1748 (8 U.S.C. 1182 note); and sec. 341 (a) and (b), Pub. L. 103-182, 107 Stat. 2057.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 51014, Sept. 30, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 507.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.8.0.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 507.1   Cross-reference.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations governing labor condition applications requirements for employers using nonimmigrants on H-1B specialty visas in specialty occupations and as fashion models are found at 20 CFR part 655, subparts H and I.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="508" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 508—ATTESTATIONS FILED BY EMPLOYERS UTILIZING F-1 STUDENTS FOR OFF-CAMPUS WORK
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 49 <I>et seq.;</I> and sec. 221(a), Pub. L. 101-649, 104 Stat. 4978, 5027 (8 U.S.C. 1184 note).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 51014, Sept. 30, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 508.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.9.0.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 508.1   Cross-reference.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations governing attestations by employers using F-1 students in off-campus work are found at 20 CFR part 655, subparts J and K.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="510" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 510—IMPLEMENTATION OF THE MINIMUM WAGE PROVISIONS OF THE 1989 AMENDMENTS TO THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT IN PUERTO RICO
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 4, Pub. L. 101-157, 103 Stat. 938; 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.1.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.1   Summary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1989 (Pub. L. 101-157) were enacted into law on November 17, 1989. Among other provisions, these amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) increased the minimum wage in section 6(a)(1) of the Act to $3.80 an hour effective April 1, 1990, and to $4.25 an hour effective April 1, 1991. With respect to certain industries and governmental entities in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Amendments provided that these increases would be phased in over extended periods of time.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 6(c) of the FLSA provides for four separate categories or tiers for implementing the minimum wage rate increases in Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P>(1) For Tier 1, which includes employees of the United States, employees of hotels, motels, or restaurants, retail or service establishments that employ such employees primarily in connection with the preparation or offering of food or beverages for human consumption, and industries in which the average hourly wage is greater than $4.64, there shall be no phase-in. The wage rates and effective dates shall be those specified in section 6(a)(1) of FLSA, i.e., $3.80 per hour beginning April 1, 1990 and $4.25 per hour beginning April 1, 1991.
</P>
<P>(2) For Tier 2, which includes industries in which the average hourly wage is not less than $4.00 but not more than $4.64, the increases in the minimum wage rates shall be phased-in in five annual increments (rounded to the nearest 5 cents) beginning April 1, 1990, and ending April 1, 1994.
</P>
<P>(3) For Tier 3, which includes industries in which the average hourly wage is less than $4.00, the increases in the minimum wage shall be phased-in in six annual increments (rounded to the nearest 5 cents) beginning April 1, 1990, and ending April 1, 1995.
</P>
<P>(4) For Tier 4, which includes certain employees of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, municipalities, and other governmental entities of the Commonwealth in which the average hourly wage is less than $4.00, the increases shall be phased-in in seven annual increments (rounded to the nearest 5 cents) beginning April 1, 1990 and ending April 1, 1996.
</P>
<P>(c) The Amendments also eliminated reference to Puerto Rico in those sections of FLSA relating to the establishment and conduct of special industry committees which recommend minimum wage rates in certain territories. These sections now apply only to American Samoa. (Industry committee regulations pertaining to American Samoa are found in 29 CFR parts 511 and 697).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.1.88.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.2   Purpose and scope of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of these regulations is to implement the 1989 Amendments to the FLSA with respect to minimum wage increases in Puerto Rico. These regulations establish the applicable wage rates and effective dates in the four statutory tiers and categorize industries and governmental entities in Puerto Rico in those tiers according to average hourly wage rates. In addition, these regulations explain the methodology used to determine appropriate tiers, including the use of standard industrial classification (SIC) codes to categorize industries.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart A of this part summarizes the provisions of the Amendments as applicable to Puerto Rico and defines the terms used herein. Subpart B of this part states the specific minimum wage rates for each tier and the effective dates of those rates. Subpart C of this part explains how industry and governmental categories were determined, the general methodology used to conduct the surveys which provided the data used to determine average hourly wage rates, and special issues in the classification of governmental entities. Appendix A of this part contains a listing of manufacturing industries by Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) code and indicates the tier to which each industry is subject. Appendix B of this part contains a listing of nonmanufacturing industries by SIC code and indicates the tier to which each industry is subject. Appendix C of this part contains a listing of government corporations and indicates the tier to which each such corporation is subject. Appendix D of this part contains a listing of municipalities and indicates the tier to which each municipality is subject.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing contained in this part should be construed as precluding the Puerto Rico Minimum Wage Board, which has been granted authority to promulgate minimum wage rates above the Federal statutory minimum, from providing for increases in any industry which would exceed the rates provided for in these regulations or in section 6(a)(1) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.1.88.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> or <I>FLSA</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (29 U.S.C. 201, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments</I> or <I>1989 Amendments</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1989 (Pub. L. 101-157).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, or a duly authorized representative of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division of the Employment Standards Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, or a duly authorized representative of the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Tier</I> means one of the four categories established for an extended phase-in of the statutory increases in the minimum wage under section 6(c) of the Act as amended.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Standard Industrial Classification (SIC)</I> refers to the classifications established in the <I>Standard Industrial Classification Manual, 1987,</I> published by the Office of Management and Budget, Executive Office of the President.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Schedule of Minimum Wage Rates Applicable in Puerto Rico</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.2.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.10   Table of wage rates and effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following table provides effective dates of minimum wage increases for the four statutory tiers. Appendices A and B to these regulations contain listings of manufacturing and non-manufacturing industries in Puerto Rico by SIC code, and indicate which tier is applicable. Appendices C and D contain listings of government corporations and municipalities and indicate which tier is applicable.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Effective Dates
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4/1/90
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4/1/91
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4/1/92
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4/1/93
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4/1/94
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4/1/95
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4/1/96
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$3.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$4.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Four</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Tier 1 applies to employees of the United States, employees of hotels, motels, or restaurants, retail or service establishments that employ such employees primarily in connection with the preparation or offering of food or beverages for human consumption, and industries in which the average hourly wage is greater than $4.64.
</P>
<P>(c) Tier 2 applies to industries in which the average hourly wage is not less than $4.00 but not more than $4.64.
</P>
<P>(d) Tier 3 applies to industries in which the average hourly wage is less than $4.00.
</P>
<P>(e) Tier 4 applies to certain employees of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, municipalities, and other governmental entities of the Commonwealth in which the average hourly wage is less than $4.00.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Classification of Industries</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.20   Wage surveys in Puerto Rico.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The legislative history to the 1989 Amendments (Conference Report 101-47 on H.R. 2, May 8, 1989) stated that for any industry to qualify for an extended minimum wage phase-in, the government of Puerto Rico would be required to furnish official survey data substantiating that an industry's average hourly wage is below either the $4.65 or $4.00 threshold level. Such data were to be compiled and submitted for review to the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manufacturing industries.</I> For purposes of implementing section 6(c) of the Act, as amended, Puerto Rico has submitted its Census of Manufacturing Industries. The Bureau of Labor Statistics of Puerto Rico regularly gathers data from manufacturing establishments regarding employment, hours and earnings. The data include hourly earnings for production and related workers and are generally specific to the four-digit SIC code level.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-manufacturing industries.</I> The Bureau of Labor Statistics of Puerto Rico designed and executed a survey to supplement data regularly gathered for the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics (<I>i.e.</I>, that included in the payroll establishment survey published in <I>Employment and Earnings</I>). The supplemental survey was carried out to determine average hourly earnings for production workers or non-supervisory employees in the private non-agricultural, non-manufacturing sector. Employment and payroll information was collected for the payroll period which included April 12, 1989. The data provided to the Department were generally specific to the four-digit SIC code level.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agriculture.</I> At the request of the Department, the Bureau of Labor Statistics of Puerto Rico conducted a survey of wages paid to agricultural workers which included employment and earnings from at least a specified number of sugarcane farms, coffee farms, ornamental farms, vegetable farms, and other farms, following standard statistical random sampling techniques. The survey included information on earnings, employment, and hourly wage rates paid to workers for the workweek including March 11 through March 17, 1990. In addition, applicable collective bargaining agreements were reviewed for sugarcane farms.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commonwealth government.</I> In the case of the Commonwealth Government of Puerto Rico, a census of hourly earnings was undertaken of all government departments, commissions and other agencies. A separate survey was conducted of government corporations. Managers, officials and employees in positions which require a college degree were excluded from the surveys.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Municipalities.</I> In the case of the municipalities of Puerto Rico, a census of hourly earnings was conducted. Managers, officials and employees in positions which require a college degree were excluded from the survey.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990, as amended at 55 FR 53247, Dec. 27, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.21   SIC codes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Conference Report specifically cites Puerto Rico's annual Census of Manufacturing Industries as a source of average hourly wage data by industry. Industries in that census are organized by Standard Industrial Classification (SIC), the statistical classification system used for a variety of governmental and statistical purposes. With respect to non-manufacturing industries, or other industries not included in the Census of Manufacturing, the Conference Report stated that data “should be at a level of specificity comparable to the four digit Standard Industry Code (SIC) code level.”
</P>
<P>(b) The Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) codes listed in appendix A and B herein are designated in accordance with the Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual, 1987, published by the Executive Office of the President, Office of Management and Budget. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161. Copies may be inspected at all federal depository libraries in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; at the district office of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, New San Juan Office Building, 159 Chardon St., room 102, Hato Rey, PR 00918; at the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico Department of Labor and Human Resources, Prudencio Rivera Building, Munoz Rivera Avenue 505, Mato Rey, PR 00918; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Establishments are classified according to their primary activity. The classification structure classifies industries by:
</P>
<P>(1) Two-digit major group,
</P>
<P>(2) Three digit industry group, or
</P>
<P>(3) Four-digit industry code, according to the level of industrial detail which may be required.
</P>
<FP>Each operating establishment is assigned an industry code on the basis of its primary activity, which is determined by its principal product or group of products produced or distributed, or services rendered.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990; 55 FR 12778, Apr. 5, 1990, as amended at 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.22   Industries eligible for minimum wage phase-in.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appendix A contains a listing of all industries included in the Census of Manufacturing. Appendix B contains a listing of non-manufacturing industries. These listing are organized by SIC numbers, presented by:
</P>
<P>(1) Major group (two-digit classification),
</P>
<P>(2) Industry group (three-digit classification), and (3) industry (four-digit classification). In each instance the phase-in tier which applies to that industry or group is indicated.
</P>
<P>(b) Employers are required to utilize the most detailed classification which applies to their industry. Where an employer's four-digit SIC code is listed, the tier applicable to that code determines the minimum wage phase-in schedule for that employer. (See § 510.10, above).
</P>
<P>(c) Where an industry is not listed by four-digit SIC code, employers shall utilize the three-digit which applies to their industry. If a three-digit code is not listed, employers shall use the applicable two-digit code.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990; 55 FR 12778, Apr. 5, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.23   Agricultural activities eligible for minimum wage phase-in.</HEAD>
<P>Agriculture activities eligible for an extended phase-in of the minimum wage in Major groups 01, 02, and 07 have been incorporated into Appendix B—Nonmanufacturing Industries Eligible for Minimum Wage Phase-In. Applicable wage rates are effective retroactive to April 1, 1990. Employers in the sugarcane farming industry (SIC Number 0133) who are subject to Tier 3 wage rates but who have paid wage rates based on Tier 2 wage rates may not take any action to recoup such payments where those actions would have the effect of reducing the wage rate being paid at the time of such recoupment to below that required under Tier 3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53247, Dec. 27, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.24   Governmental entities eligible for minimum wage phase-in.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commonwealth government of Puerto Rico has been determined to be eligible for treatment under Tier 2, on the basis of wage data supplied to the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) Appendix C of this part contains a listing of Commonwealth government corporations, indicating the phase-in tier which applies. Entities which do not appear on the list are those for which no wage data were supplied. These entities are therefore categorized under Tier 1, and are ineligible for an extended phase-in.
</P>
<P>(c) Appendix D of the part contains a listing of municipalities, indicating the phase-in tier which applies. Municipalities categorized under Tier 1 are those which failed to supply wage data.
</P>
<P>(d) Employees of municipalities who have reason to believe that the municipality by which they are employed has been incorrectly categorized, e.g., categorized under Tier 3 instead of Tier 2, may no later than June 1, 1990, file with the Administrator a petition for review. The petition shall be accompanied by any information the employee may have to support a determination that the municipality is incorrectly categorized. In the event the Administrator determines that a tier other than that listed in appendix D of this part applies, the affected municipality shall be liable for retroactive payment of any back wages found to be due.
</P>
<P>(e) Certain employees of municipalities or government corporations in which the average wage is less than $4.00 per hour are eligible to be paid under Tier 4, rather than Tier 3. Tier 4 applies only to those employees employed by municipalities or government corporations who are principally engaged in one or more of the “traditional” functions listed in § 510.24 (a) or (b). All other employees of such entities must be paid in accordance with Tier 3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990; 55 FR 12778, Apr. 5, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 510.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 510.25   Traditional functions of government.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 6(c)(4) of the Act, as amended, limits the six-year phase-in of the statutory minimum wage (“Tier 4”) to those employees with an average wage of less than $4.00 per hour who were brought under minimum wage coverage “pursuant to an amendment made by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1985.” The Department has interpreted this language as referring to section 2(c) of the 1985 FLSA Amendments, which provided for deferred liability for minimum wage violations (until April 15, 1986) “with respect to any employee who would not have been covered under the Secretary's special enforcement policy” published in 29 CFR 775.2 and 775.4. The latter subsection listed those functions of State or local government which were determined by the Supreme Court's ruling in <I>National League of Cities</I> v. <I>Usery,</I> 426 U.S. 833 (1976) (subsequently overruled by <I>Garcia</I> v. <I>San Antonio Metropolitan Transit Authority,</I> 469 U.S. 528 (1985)) to be integral operations of the governments in areas of traditional governmental functions. The listed “traditional” functions included the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Schools.
</P>
<P>(2) Hospitals.
</P>
<P>(3) Fire prevention.
</P>
<P>(4) Police protection.
</P>
<P>(5) Sanitation.
</P>
<P>(6) Public health.
</P>
<P>(7) Parks and recreation.
</P>
<P>(8) Libraries.
</P>
<P>(9) Museums.
</P>
<P>(b) The Supreme Court in <I>National League of Cities</I> clearly did not limit “traditional” functions of government to those set out in paragraph (a) of this section. The Court included within this concept all those governmental services which the States and their political subdivisions have traditionally afforded their citizens, which the States have regarded as integral parts of their governmental activities, and which State and local governments are created to provide. The Department interprets the Court's analysis of “traditional” functions as turning in large part upon whether the States or local governments had, prior to initial enactment of federal regulatory legislation applicable to a particular field of service or activity (such as FLSA), generally established themselves as providers of the services. The Department therefore views the following government functions as falling within the “traditional” category:
</P>
<P>(1) Finance (including Auditor, Budget and Comptroller).
</P>
<P>(2) Elections.
</P>
<P>(3) Personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) Public works.
</P>
<P>(5) Office of the Mayor.
</P>
<P>(6) Legal Affairs.
</P>
<P>(7) Planning.
</P>
<P>(8) Waterworks.
</P>
<P>(9) Social services.
</P>
<P>(10) Street and highway construction and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(11) Automobile licensing.
</P>
<P>(12) Sewage treatment.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees whose primary function falls within one or more of the activities listed in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, are therefore considered to be engaged in “traditional” functions of government. This would include employees who provide support functions for such activities, such as clerical, secretarial, supply and janitorial.
</P>
<P>(d) No employees of a municipality or government corporation may be paid in accordance with the Tier 4 phase-in schedule unless the employee:
</P>
<P>(1) Is engaged in one of the specific activities listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is employed by a municipality or government corporation in which the average wage is less than $4.00 per hour.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.7.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 510—Manufacturing Industries Eligible for Minimum Wage Phase-In
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains a listing of all manufacturing industries for which data were collected and compiled by the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico for purposes of implementing the 1989 Amendments to FLSA. This listing follows the order and classifications used in the <I>SIC Manual, 1987,</I> which is incorporated by reference in these regulations (§ 510.21).
</P>
<P>The data in this appendix are presented by major industry group (two-digit classification), industry group number (three-digit classification), and industry number (four-digit classification). Tiers will not be listed for industry categories in which there were fewer than three employers, in conformance with standard procedures used by the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico in collecting and publishing these data until such time as Puerto Rico receives appropriate waivers of confidentiality from all employers in such categories. These categories are noted with an “a” on the following table. In addition, no tier will be listed where an industry was not included in the original survey, because it was not in existence, because the industry was too small to be included, or for other reasons.
</P>
<P>Employers who do not find the four-digit classification for their industry shall refer to the appropriate three-digit classification under which their establishment falls. If the appropriate three-digit classification is not listed, employers shall refer to the appropriate two-digit classification. For example, no tier is listed for industry number 2034, dried and dehydrated fruits, vegetables, and soup mixes. Thus, an employer in industry 2034 must use the tier listed for industry group 203, i.e. Tier 2.
</P>
<P>Further, employers who find the appropriate four-digit designation in this appendix <I>must</I> use that designation and cannot refer to a two- or three-digit classification. For example, an employer in industry number 2033, canned fruits, vegetables, preserves, jams, and jellies, which has a Tier 1 designation, cannot use the Tier 2 designation of industry group 203, canned, frozen, and preserved fruits, vegetables, and food specialties.
</P>
<P>If no four-digit, three-digit, or two-digit classification is listed for an industry, employees in that group must pay the Tier 1 rates.
</P>
<P><I>Important:</I> In referring to this appendix to determine appropriate tier designations, please note that certain categories of employees are subject to treatment under Tier 1 regardless of the average hourly wage rate for the industry and the tier designation contained herein. These employees, as listed in the 1989 Amendments, are those employed by:
</P>
<P>(a) The United States
</P>
<P>(b) An establishment that is a hotel, motel, or restaurant, or
</P>
<P>(c) Any other retail or service establishment that employs such employee in connection with the preparation or offering of food or beverages for human consumption, either on the premises, or by such services as catering, banquet, box lunch, or curb or counter service, to the public, to employees, or to members or guests of clubs.
</P>
<P>Please note that these named categories may not correspond exactly to categories established by the SIC manual.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Manufacturing Industries
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major group
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry group number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Food and kindred products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meat products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meat packing plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sausages and other prepared meat products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poultry slaughtering and processing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Natural, processed, and imitation cheese.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dry, condensed, and evaporated dairy products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ice cream and frozen desserts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fluid milk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canned, frozen, and preserved fruits, vegetables, and food specialties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2032</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canned specialties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2033</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canned fruits, vegetables, preserves, jams, and jellies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2035</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pickled fruits and vegetables, vegetable sauces and seasonings, and salad dressings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2037</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Frozen fruits, fruit juices, and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2038</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Frozen specialties, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">204</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grain mill products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2041</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flour and other grain mill products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cereal breakfast foods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2044</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rice milling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prepared flour mixes and doughs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2046</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wet corn milling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prepared feeds and feed ingredients for animals and fowls, except dogs and cats.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bakery products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2051</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bread and other bakery products, except cookies and crackers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2052</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cookies and crackers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2053</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Frozen bakery products, except bread.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">206</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sugar and confectionery products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cane sugar, except refining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2062</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cane sugar refining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2064</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Candy and other confectionery products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2066</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chocolate and cocoa products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2067</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chewing gum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">208</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beverages.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2082</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Malt beverages.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2084</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wines, brandy, and brandy spirits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2085</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Distilled and blended liquors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2086</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bottled and canned soft drinks and carbonated waters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2087</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flavoring extracts and flavoring syrups, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">209</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous food preparations and kindred products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2091</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canned and cured fish and seafoods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2095</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roasted coffee.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2096</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potato chips, corn chips, and similar snacks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2097</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manufactured ice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2098</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Macaroni, spaghetti, vermicelli, and noodles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2099</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Food preparations, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tobacco products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cigarettes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cigarettes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cigars.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cigars.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chewing and smoking tobacco and snuff.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chewing and smoking tobacco and snuff.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">214</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tobacco stemming and redrying.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tobacco stemming and redrying.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Textile mill products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">221</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broadwoven fabric mills, cotton.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broadwoven fabric mills, cotton.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Narrow fabric and other smallwares mills: cotton, wool, silk, and manmade fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Narrow fabric and other smallwares mills: cotton, wool, silk, and manmade fiber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Knitting mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's full-length and knee-length hosiery, except socks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Knit outerwear mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Knit underwear and nightwear mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dyeing and finishing textiles, except wool fabrics and knit goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finishers of broadwoven fabrics of cotton.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2262</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Finishers of broadwoven fabrics of manmade fiber and silk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carpets and rugs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2273</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carpets and rugs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yarn and thread mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yarn spinning mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apparel and other finished products made from fabrics and similar materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' suits, coats, and overcoats.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2311</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' suits, coats, and overcoats.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' furnishings, work clothing, and allied garments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2321</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' shirts except work shirts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2322</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' underwear and nightwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2323</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' neckwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2325</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' separate trousers and slacks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2326</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' work clothing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' clothing, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's, misses', and juniors' outerwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2331</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's, misses', and juniors' blouses and shirts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2335</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's, misses', and juniors dresses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2337</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's, misses, and juniors' suits, skirts, and coats.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's, misses', and juniors' outerwear, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's, misses', children's, and infants' undergarments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2341</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's, misses', children's, and infants' underwear and nightwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2342</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brassieres, girdles, and allied garments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">235</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hats, caps, and millinery
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2353</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hats, caps, and millinery
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">236</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Girls', children's, and infants' outerwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2361</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Girls', children's, and infants' dresses, blouses, and shirts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2369</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Girls', children's, and infants' outerwear, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous apparel and accessories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2385</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waterproof outerwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2387</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apparel belts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2389</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apparel and accessories, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous fabricated textile products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2391</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curtains and draperies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2392</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Housefurnishings, except curtains and draperies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2393</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Textile bags.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2395</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pleating, decorative and novelty stitching, and tucking for the trade.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2396</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive trimmings, apparel findings, and related products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2399</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated textile products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lumber and wood products, except furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sawmills and planing mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sawmills and planing mills, general.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Millwork, veneer, plywood, and structural wood members.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2431</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Millwork.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2434</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood kitchen cabinets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hardwood veneer and plywood.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood containers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2448</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood pallets and skids.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood buildings and mobile homes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2451</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mobile homes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">249</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous wood products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2491</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood preserving.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furniture and fixtures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2511</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood household furniture, except upholstered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2512</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood household furniture, upholstered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2514</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal household furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2515</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mattresses, foundations, and convertible beds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2517</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood television, radio, phonograph, and sewing machine cabinets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2519</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household furniture, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2521</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood office furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2522</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office furniture, except wood.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Public building and related furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2531</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Public building and related furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Partitions, shelving, lockers, and office and store fixtures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2541</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood office and store fixtures, partitions, shelving, and lockers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2542</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office and store fixtures, partitions, shelving, and lockers, except wood.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">259</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous furniture and fixtures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2591</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drapery hardware and window blinds and shades.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2599</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furniture and fixtures, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paper and allied products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pulp mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2611</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pulp mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">262</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paper mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2621</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paper mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">263</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paperboard mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2631</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paperboard mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">265</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paperboard containers and boxes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2652</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Setup paperboard boxes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2653</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corrugated and solid fiber boxes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2655</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber cans, tubes, drums, and similar products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2657</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Folding paperboard boxes, including sanitary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">267</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Converted paper and paperboard products, except containers and boxes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2671</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Packaging paper and plastics film, coated and laminated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2672</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coated and laminated paper, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2673</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics, foil, and coated paper bags.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2674</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Uncoated paper and multiwall bags.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2676</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sanitary paper products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2677</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Envelopes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2678</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stationery, tablets, and related products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2679</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Converted paper and paperboard products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Printing, publishing, and allied industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">271</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Newspapers: publishing, or publishing and printing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2711</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Newspapers: publishing, or publishing and printing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">273</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Books.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Books: publishing, or publishing and printing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2732</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Book printing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">274</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous publishing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2741</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous publishing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial printing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2752</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial printing, lithographic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2754</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial printing, gravure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2759</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial printing, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">276</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manifold business forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2761</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manifold business forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">278</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blankbooks, looseleaf binders, and bookbinding and related work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2782</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blankbooks, looseleaf binders and devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">279</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service industries for the printing trade.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2796</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Platemaking and related services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemicals and allied products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial inorganic chemicals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2813</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial gases.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2819</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial inorganic chemicals, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">282</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics materials and synthetic resins, synthetic rubber, cellulosic and other manmade fibers, except glass.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2821</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics materials, synthetic resins, and nonvulcanizable elastomers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2822</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Synthetic rubber (vulcanizable elastomers).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">283</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drugs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medicinal chemicals and botanical products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2834</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pharmaceutical preparations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2835</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In vitro and in vivo diagnostic substances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2836</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biological products, except diagnostic substances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">284</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Soap, detergents, and cleaning preparations; perfumes, cosmetics, and other toilet preparations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2841</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Soap and other detergents, except specialty cleaners.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2842</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialty cleaning, polishing, and sanitation preparations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2844</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Perfumes, cosmetics, and other toilet preparations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">285</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paints, varnishes, lacquers, enamels, and allied products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2851</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paints, varnishes, lacquers, enamels, and allied products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">286</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial organic chemicals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2865</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cyclic organic crudes and intermediates, and organic dyes and pigments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2869</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial organic chemicals, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">287</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agricultural chemicals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2873</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nitrogenous fertilizers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2879</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pesticides and agricultural chemicals, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous chemical products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2891</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adhesives and sealants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2899</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemicals and chemical preparations, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petroleum refining and related industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">291</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petroleum refining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2911</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petroleum refining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">295</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asphalt paving and roofing materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2951</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asphalt paving mixtures and blocks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2952</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asphalt felts and coatings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous products of petroleum and coal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2992</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lubricating oils and greases.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rubber and miscellaneous plastics products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">302</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rubber and plastics footwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rubber and plastics footwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">305</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gaskets, packing, and sealing devices and rubber and plastics hose and belting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3052</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rubber and plastics hose and belting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">306</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated rubber products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3069</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated rubber products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">308</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous plastics products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3081</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unsupported plastics film and sheet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3082</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unsupported plastics profile shapes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3083</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laminated plastics plate, sheet, and profile shapes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3084</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics pipe.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3085</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics bottles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3086</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics foam products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3087</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Custom compounding of purchased plastics resin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3088</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics plumbing fixtures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3089</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leather and leather products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">313</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boot and shoe cut stock and findings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boot and shoe cut stock and findings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">314</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Footwear, except rubber.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">House slippers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's footwear, except athletic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's footwear, except athletic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Footwear, except rubber, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">315</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leather gloves and mittens.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leather gloves and mittens.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">316</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Luggage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Luggage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">317</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Handbags and other personal leather goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's handbags and purses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personal leather goods, except women's handbags and purses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stone, clay, glass, and concrete products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">321</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flat glass.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flat glass.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">322</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Glass and glassware, pressed or blown.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3221</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Glass containers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">323</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Glass products, made of purchased glass.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Glass products, made of purchased glass.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">324</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cement, hydraulic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cement, hydraulic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">326</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pottery and related products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vitreous china plumbing fixtures and china and earthenware fittings and bathroom accessories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3269</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pottery products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">327</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concrete, gypsum, and plaster products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3271</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concrete block and brick.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3272</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concrete products, except block and brick.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3273</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ready-mixed concrete.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3274</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lime.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gypsum products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">328</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cut stone and stone products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cut stone and stone products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abrasive, asbestos, and miscellaneous nonmetallic mineral products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3295</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minerals and earths, ground or otherwise treated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3296</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mineral wool.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Primary metal industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">331</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Steel works, blast furnaces, and rolling and finishing mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3312</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Steel works, blast furnaces (including coke ovens), and rolling mills.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3317</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Steel pipe and tubes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">334</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secondary smelting and refining of nonferrous metals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3341</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secondary smelting and refining of nonferrous metals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">335</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rolling, drawing, and extruding of nonferrous metals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3351</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rolling, drawing, and extruding of copper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3353</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aluminum sheet, plate, and foil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3354</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aluminum extruded products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">336</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nonferrous foundries (castings).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3365</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aluminum foundries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous primary metal products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3398</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal heat treating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3399</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Primary metal products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated metal products, except machinery and transportation equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">341</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal cans and shipping containers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3411</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal cans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3412</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal shipping barrels, drums, kegs, and pails.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">342</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cutlery, handtools, and general hardware.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cutlery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3423</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hand and edge tools, except machine tools and handsaws.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3429</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hardware, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">343</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating equipment, except electric and warm air; and plumbing fixtures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3433</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating equipment, except electric and warm air furnaces.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">344</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated structural metal products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3441</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated structural metal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3442</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal doors, sash, frames, molding, and trim.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3443</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated plate work (boiler shops).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3444</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sheet metal work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3446</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Architectural and ornamental metal work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3449</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous structural metal work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">345</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Screw machine products, and bolts, nuts, screws, rivets, and washers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3452</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bolts, nuts, screws, rivets, and washers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">346</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal forgings and stampings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3469</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal stampings, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">347</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coating, engraving, and allied services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3471</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electroplating, plating, polishing, anodizing and coloring.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">349</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous fabricated metal products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3494</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Valves and pipe fittings, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3495</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wire springs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3496</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous fabricated wire products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3498</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated pipe and pipe fittings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fabricated metal products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial and commercial machinery and computer equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">353</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Construction, mining, and materials handling machinery and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3535</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conveyors and conveying equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">354</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metalworking machinery and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3541</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Machine tools, metal cutting types.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3544</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special dies and tools, die sets, jigs and fixtures, and industrial molds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3545</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cutting tools, machine tool accessories, and machinists' precision measuring devices. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">355</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special industry machinery, except metalworking machinery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3555</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Printing trades machinery and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">356</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General industrial machinery and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3562</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ball and roller bearings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3563</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air and gas compressors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3564</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial and commercial fans and blowers and air purification equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mechanical power transmission equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3569</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General industrial machinery and equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">357</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer and office equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3571</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic computers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3572</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer storage devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3577</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer peripheral equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3579</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office machines, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">358</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refrigeration and service industry machinery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3585</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air-conditioning and warm air heating equipment and commercial and industrial refrigeration equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3589</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service industry machinery, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous industrial and commercial machinery and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3592</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carburetors, pistons, piston rings, and valves.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scales and balances, except laboratory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3599</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial and commercial machinery and equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic and other electrical equipment and components, except computer equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">361</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic transmission and distribution equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3612</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Power, distribution, and specialty transformers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3613</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Switchgear and switchboard apparatus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">362</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical industrial apparatus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3621</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motors and generators.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3624</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carbon and graphite products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Relays and industrial controls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3629</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical industrial apparatus, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">363</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household appliances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3639</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household appliances, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">364</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric lighting and wiring equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3641</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric lamp bulbs and tubes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3643</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current-carrying wiring devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3644</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Noncurrent-carrying wiring devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3645</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residential electric lighting fixtures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3646</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial, industrial, and institutional electric lighting fixtures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3648</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lighting equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household audio and video equipment, and audio recordings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3651</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household audio and video equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3652</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phonograph records and pre-recorded audio tapes and disks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">366</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Communications equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3661</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Telephone and telegraph apparatus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3663</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radio and television broadcasting and communications equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3669</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Communications equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">367</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic components and accessories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3672</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Printed circuit boards.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3674</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semiconductors and related devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3677</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic coils, transformers and other inductors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3678</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic connectors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3679</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic components, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">369</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous electrical machinery, equipment, and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3692</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Primary batteries, dry and wet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3694</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical equipment for internal combustion engines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation Equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">371</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3713</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Truck and bus bodies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3714</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor vehicle parts and accessories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">372</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aircraft and parts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3721</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aircraft.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3728</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aircraft parts and auxiliary equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">373</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ship and boat building and repairing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ship building and repairing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3732</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boat building and repairing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">379</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous transportation equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3792</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel trailers and campers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measuring, analyzing, and controlling instruments; photographic, medical, and optical goods, watches and clocks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">381</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Search, detection, navigation, guidance, aeronautical, and nautical systems, instruments, and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3812</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Search, detection, navigation, guidance, aeronautical, and nautical systems, instruments, and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">382</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laboratory apparatus and analytical, optical, measuring, and controlling instrument.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3821</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laboratory apparatus and furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3822</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automatic controls for regulating residential and commercial environments and appliances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3823</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial instruments for measurement, display, and control of process variables; and related products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3824</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Totalizing fluid meters and counting devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3825</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instruments for measuring and testing of electricity and electrical signals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3829</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measuring and controlling devices, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">384</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Surgical, medical, and dental instruments and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3841</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Surgical and medical instruments and apparatus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3842</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Orthopedic, prosthetic, and surgical appliances and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3843</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dental equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3844</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X-ray apparatus and tubes and related irradiation apparatus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3845</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electromedical and electrotherapeutic apparatus.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">385</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ophthalmic goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3851</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ophthalmic goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">386</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photographic equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3861</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photographic equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">387</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Watches, clocks, clockwork operated devices, and parts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3873</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Watches, clocks, clockwork operated devices, and parts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous manufacturing industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">391</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jewelry, silverware, and plated ware.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3911</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jewelry, precious metal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3914</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Silverware, plated ware, and stainless steel ware.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3915</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jewelers' findings and materials, and lapidary work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">394</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dolls, toys, games, and sporting and athletic goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3942</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dolls and stuffed toys.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3949</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sporting and athletic goods, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">395</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pens, pencils, and other artists' materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3951</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pens, mechanical pencils, and parts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3952</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lead pencils, crayons, and artists' materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3953</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marking devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">396</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Costume jewelry, costume novelties, buttons, and miscellaneous notions, except precious metal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3961</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Costume jewelry and costume novelties, except precious metal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3965</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fasteners, buttons, needles, and pins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">399</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous manufacturing industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brooms and brushes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Signs and advertising specialties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Burial caskets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manufacturing industries, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">a = Category contained less than three employers.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990; 55 FR 12778, Apr. 5, 1990, as amended at 55 FR 39575, Sept. 27, 1990; 57 FR 1103, Jan. 10, 1992]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.7.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 510—Nonmanufacturing Industries Eligible for Minimum Wage Phase-In
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains a listing of all non-manufacturing industries (except those in major groups 01, 02, 08, and 09, pertaining to agriculture) for which data were collected and compiled by the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico for purposes of implementing the 1989 Amendments to FLSA. This listing follows the order and classifications used in the <I>SIC Manual, 1987,</I> which is incorporated by reference in these regulations (§ 510.21).
</P>
<P>The data in this appendix are presented by major industry group (two-digit classification), industry group number (three-digit classification), and industry number (four-digit classification).
</P>
<P>Tiers will not be listed for industry categories in which there were fewer than three responding employers, or one responding employer had more than 80 percent of the employment in the category, in conformance with practices of the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics in collecting and publishing similar data, until such time as Puerto Rico receives appropriate waivers of confidentiality from all employers in such categories. These categories are noted with an “a” on the following table. In situations where one or more employers declined to furnish a waiver, categories are noted with a “b” on the following table.
</P>
<P>In addition, no tier will be listed where an industry was not included in the original survey because it was not in existence, because the industry was too small to be included, or for other reasons.
</P>
<P>Employers who do not find the four-digit classification for their industry shall refer to the appropriate three-digit classification under which their establishment falls. If the appropriate three-digit classification is not listed, employers shall refer to the appropriate two-digit classification.
</P>
<P>For example, no tier is listed for industry number 1423, crushed and broken granite. However, a tier is listed for industry group 142, crushed and broken stone, including riprap. Thus, an employer in industry 1423 must use the tier listed for industry group 142, <I>i.e.,</I> Tier 1. Furthermore, employers who find the appropriate four-digit designation in this appendix <I>must</I> use that designation and cannot refer to a two- or three-digit classification. For example, an employer with industry number 5719, miscellaneous homefurnishings stores, which has a Tier 1 designation, cannot refer to industry group number 571, home furniture and furnishings stores, which has a Tier 2 designation.
</P>
<P><I>Important:</I> In referring to this appendix to determine appropriate tier designations, please note that certain categories of employees are subject to treatment under Tier 1 regardless of the average hourly wage rate for the industry and the tier designation contained herein. These employees, as listed in the 1989 Amendments, are those employed by:
</P>
<P>(a) The United States,
</P>
<P>(b) An establishment that is a hotel, motel, or restaurant, or
</P>
<P>(c) Any other retail or service establishment that employs such employee in connection with the preparation or offering of food or beverages for human consumption, either on the premises, or by such services as catering, banquet, box lunch, or curb or counter service, to the public, to employees, or to members or guests of clubs.
</P>
<P>Please note that these named categories may not correspond exactly to categories established by the SIC manual.
</P>
<P>If no four-digit, three-digit, or two-digit classification is listed for an industry, employers in that group must pay the Tier 1 rates.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Nonmanufacturing Industries
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major group
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry group number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agricultural production—crops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cash grains.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cash grains, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Field crops, except cash grains.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sugarcane and sugar beets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Field crops, except cash grains, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vegetables and melons.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vegetables and melons.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fruits and tree nuts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Citrus fruits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fruits and tree nuts, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horticultural specialties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ornamental floriculture and nursery products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General farms, primarily crop.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General farms, primarily crop.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agricultural production—livestock and animal specialties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Livestock, except dairy and poultry.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beef cattle feedlots.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hogs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy farms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy farms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poultry and eggs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broiler, fryer, and roaster chickens.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chicken eggs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poultry hatcheries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">027</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Animal specialties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0271</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fur-bearing animals and rabbits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0272</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horse and other equines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0273</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Animal aquaculture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0279</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Animal specialties, not else where classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agricultural services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crop services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0723</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crop preparation services for market, except cotton ginning.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">074</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Veterinary services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">075</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Animal services except veterinary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0751</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Livestock services, except veterinary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">078</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Landscape and horticultural services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mining and quarrying of nonmetallic minerals, except fuels.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1422</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crushed and broken limestone.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1429</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crushed and broken stone, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sand and gravel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1442</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Construction sand and gravel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Building construction-general contractors and operative builders.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">152</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General building contractors-residential buildings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General building contractors-nonresidential buildings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heavy construction other than building construction-contractors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Highway and street construction, except elevated highways.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1611</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Highway and street construction, except elevated highways.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heavy construction, except highway and street construction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1622</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bridge, tunnel, and elevated highway construction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1623</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water, sewer, pipeline, and communications and power line construction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1629</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heavy construction, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Construction-special trade contractors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plumbing, heating and air-conditioning.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1711</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plumbing, heating and air-conditioning.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Painting and paper hanging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1721</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Painting and paper hanging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Masonry, stonework, tile setting, and plastering.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1741</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Masonry, stone setting, and other stone work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1742</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastering, drywall, acoustical, and insulation work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1743</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Terrazzo, tile, marble, and mosaic work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carpentry and floor work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1751</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carpentry work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">176</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roofing, siding, and sheet metal work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1761</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roofing, siding, and sheet metal work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous special trade contractors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1791</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Structural steel erection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1793</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Glass and glazing work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1794</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Excavation work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1795</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wrecking and demolition work.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1796</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Installation or erection of building equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1799</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special trade contractors, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Local and suburban transit and interurban highway passenger transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">411</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Local and suburban passenger transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Local and suburban transit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">412</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Taxicabs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Taxicabs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">413</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intercity and rural bus transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intercity and rural bus transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">415</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">School buses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">School buses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor freight transportation and warehousing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trucking and courier services, except air.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">422</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Public warehousing and storage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4221</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farm product warehousing and storage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4222</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refrigerated warehousing and storage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General warehousing and storage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special warehousing and storage, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">442</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deep sea domestic transportation of freight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4424</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deep sea domestic transportation of freight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">444</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water transportation of freight, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4449</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water transportation of freight, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">449</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Services incidental to water transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4491</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Marine cargo handling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4492</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Towing and tugboat services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water transportation services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation by air.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">451</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air transportation, scheduled, and air courier services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4512</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air transportation, scheduled.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">452</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air transportation, nonscheduled.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4522</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air transportation, nonscheduled.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">458</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Airports, flying fields, and airport terminal services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4581</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Airports, flying fields, and airport terminal services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pipelines, except natural gas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">461</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pipelines, except natural gas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4613</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refined petroleum pipelines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">472</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arrangement of passenger transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4729</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arrangement of passenger transportation, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">473</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arrangement of transportation of freight and cargo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arrangement of transportation of freight and cargo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">478</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous services incidental to transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4785</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fixed facilities and inspection and weighing services for motor vehicle transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Communications.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">482</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Telegraph and other message communications.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4822</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Telegraph and other message communications.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">483</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radio and television broadcasting stations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4832</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radio broadcasting stations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Television broadcasting stations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">489</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Communications services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4899</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Communications services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric, gas and sanitary services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">492</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas production and distribution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4923</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Natural gas transmission and distribution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4925</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mixed, manufactured, or liquefied petroleum gas production and/or distribution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">495</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sanitary services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4953</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refuse systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">497</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Irrigation systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4971</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Irrigation systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wholesale trade-durable goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">501</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor vehicles and motor vehicle parts and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automobiles and other motor vehicles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor vehicle supplies and new parts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tires and tubes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">502</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furniture and homefurnishings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furniture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Homefurnishings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">503</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lumber and other construction materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5031</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lumber, plywood, millwork, and wood panels.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5039</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Construction materials, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">504</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional and commercial equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photographic equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5046</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional equipment and supplies, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">505</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metals and minerals, except petroleum.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5051</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metals service centers and offices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">506</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical apparatus and equipment, wiring supplies and construction materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5064</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical appliances, television and radio sets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic parts and equipment, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">507</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hardware, and plumbing and heating equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hardware.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5074</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plumbing and heating equipment and supplies (hydronics).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5075</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Warm air heating and air-conditioning equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5078</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refrigeration equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">508</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Machinery, equipment, and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5082</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Construction and mining (except petroleum) machinery and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5083</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farm and garden machinery and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5084</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial machinery and equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5085</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5087</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service establishment equipment and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">509</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous durable goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5091</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sporting and recreational goods and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5092</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Toys and hobby goods and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5093</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scrap and waste materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5094</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jewelry, watches, precious stones, and precious metals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5099</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Durable goods, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wholesale trade—nondurable goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">511</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paper and paper products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Printing and writing paper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stationery and office supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industrial and personal service paper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">512</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drugs, drug proprietaries, and druggists' sundries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drugs, drug proprietaries, and druggists' sundries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">513</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apparel, piece goods, and notions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piece goods, notions, and other dry goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5136</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' clothing and furnishings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's, children's, and infants' clothing and accessories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Footwear.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">514</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Groceries and related products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Groceries, general line.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Packaged frozen foods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy products, except dried or canned.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poultry and poultry products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Confectionery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fish and seafoods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meats and meat products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fresh fruits and vegetables.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Groceries and related products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">515</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farm-product raw materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Livestock.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">516</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemicals and allied products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemicals and allied products, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">517</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petroleum and petroleum products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petroleum bulk stations and terminals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petroleum and petroleum products wholesalers, except bulk stations and terminals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">518</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beer, wine and distilled alcoholic beverages.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beer and ale.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">519</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous nondurable goods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farm supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tobacco and tobacco products.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paints, varnishes, and supplies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nondurable goods, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Building materials, hardware, garden supply, and mobile home dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">521</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lumber and other building materials dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lumber and other building materials dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">523</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paint, glass, and wallpaper stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paint, glass, and wallpaper stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hardware stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hardware stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">526</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retail nurseries, lawn and garden supply stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retail nurseries, lawn and garden supply stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General merchandise stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">531</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Department stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5311</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Department stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">533</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variety stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5331</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variety stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">539</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous general merchandise stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5399</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous general merchandise stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Food stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">541</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grocery stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5411</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grocery stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meat and fish (seafood) markets, including freezer provisioners.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meat and fish (seafood) markets, including freezer provisioners.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meat and fish (seafood) markets, including freezer provisioners.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">543</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fruit and vegetable markets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5431</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fruit and vegetable markets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">546</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retail bakeries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5461</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retail bakeries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">549</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous food stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous food stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive dealers and gasoline service stations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">551</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor vehicle dealers (new and used).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5511</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor vehicle dealers (new and used).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">552</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor vehicle dealers (used only).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5521</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor vehicle dealers (used only).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">553</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Auto and home supply stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5531</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Auto and home supply stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">554</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gasoline service stations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5541</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gasoline service stations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apparel and accessory stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">561</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' clothing and accessory stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5611</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Men's and boys' clothing and accessory stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">562</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's clothing stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5621</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's clothing stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">563</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's accessory and specialty stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5632</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Women's accessory and specialty stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">564</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Children's and infants' wear stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5641</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Children's and infants' wear stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">565</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Family clothing stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5651</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Family clothing stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">566</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shoe stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5661</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shoe stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">569</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous apparel and accessory stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5699</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous apparel and accessory stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Home furniture, furnishings, and equipment stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">571</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Home furniture and furnishings stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5712</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furniture stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5713</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Floor covering stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5714</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drapery, curtain, and upholstery stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5719</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous homefurnishings stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">572</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household appliance stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5722</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household appliance stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">573</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radio, television, consumer electronics, and music stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radio, television, and consumer electronics stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5735</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Record and prerecorded tape stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eating and drinking places.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 581</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eating and drinking places.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous retail.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug stores and proprietary stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5912</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drug stores and proprietary stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">592</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquor stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5921</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquor stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">593</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Used merchandise stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5932</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Used merchandise stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous shopping goods stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5941</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sporting goods stores and bicycle shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5942</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Book stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5943</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stationery stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5944</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jewelry stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5945</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hobby, toy, and game shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Camera and photographic supply stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5947</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gift, novelty, and souvenir shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5949</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sewing, needlework, and piece goods stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nonstore retailers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5962</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automatic merchandising machine operators.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5963</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct selling establishments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">598</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fuel dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5984</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquefied petroleum gas (bottled gas) dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">599</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retail stores, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5992</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Florists.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous retail stores, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Depository institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">602</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial banks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National commercial banks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">State commercial banks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6029</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial banks, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">603</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Savings institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6035</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Savings institutions, Federally chartered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6036</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Savings institutions, not Federally chartered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">606</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit unions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit unions, Federally chartered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6062</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit unions, not Federally chartered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">609</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Functions related to depository banking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6099</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Functions related to depository banking, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nondepository credit institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">614</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personal credit institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personal credit institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">615</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business credit institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Short-term business credit institutions, except agricultural.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous business credit institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">616</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mortgage bankers and brokers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mortgage bankers and loan correspondents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Security and commodity brokers, dealers, exchanges, and services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">621</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Security brokers, dealers, and flotation companies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Security brokers, dealers, and flotation companies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">622</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commodity contracts brokers and dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6221</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commodity contracts brokers and dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insurance carriers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">631</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Life insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6311</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Life insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">632</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accidental and health insurance and medical service plans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6321</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accident and health insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6324</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hospital and medical service plans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">633</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fire, marine, and casualty insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6331</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fire, marine, and casualty insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">635</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Surety insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6351</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Surety insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">636</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6361</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Title insurance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">637</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pension, health, and welfare funds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6371</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pension, health, and welfare funds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insurance agents, brokers, and service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">641</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insurance agents, brokers, and service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6411</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insurance agents, brokers, and service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Real estate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">651</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Real estate operators (except developers) and lessors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">653</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Real estate agents and managers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6531</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Real estate agents and managers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">655</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Land subdividers and developers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6552</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Land subdividers and developers, except cemeteries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6553</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cemetery subdividers and developers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hotels, rooming houses, camps, and other lodging places.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">701</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hotels and motels.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hotels and motels.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">702</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rooming and boarding houses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rooming and boarding houses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personal services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">721</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laundry, cleaning, and garment services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">722</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photographic studios, portrait.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7221</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photographic studios, portrait.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">723</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beauty shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beauty shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">724</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barber shops
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barber shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">725</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shoe repair shops and shoeshine parlors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shoe repair shops and shoeshine parlors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">726</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Funeral service and crematories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Funeral service and crematories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">729</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous personal services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous personal services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Advertising.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7311</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Advertising agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7312</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outdoor advertising services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7319</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Advertising, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">732</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Consumer credit reporting agencies, mercantile reporting agencies, and adjustment and collection agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7323</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit reporting services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">733</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mailing, reproduction, commercial art and photography, and stenographic services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7338</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secretarial and court reporting services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">734</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Services to dwellings and other buildings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7342</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disinfecting and pest control services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7349</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Building cleaning and maintenance services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">735</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous equipment rental and leasing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equipment rental and leasing, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">736</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personnel supply services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7361</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employment agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7363</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Help supply services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">737</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer programming, data processing, and other computer related services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7372</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prepackaged software.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7374</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer processing and data preparation and processing services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7379</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer related services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">738</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous business services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7382</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Security systems services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7384</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photofinishing laboratories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7389</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive repair, services, and parking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">751</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive rental and leasing, without drivers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7513</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Truck rental and leasing, without drivers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7514</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Passenger car rental.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">752</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automobile parking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7521</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automobile parking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">753</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive repair shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7532</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Top, body, and upholstery repair shops and paint shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7534</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tire retreading and repair shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7538</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General automotive repair shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7539</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive repair shops, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">754</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive services, except repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7542</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carwashes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7549</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive services, except repair and carwashes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous repair services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">762</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical repair shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7622</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radio and television repair shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7623</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refrigeration and air-conditioning service and repair shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7629</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical and electronic repair shops, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">763</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Watch, clock, and jewelry repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7631</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Watch, clock, and jewelry repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">764</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reupholstery and furniture repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7641</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reupholstery and furniture repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">769</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous repair shops and related services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7692</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Welding repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7694</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Armature rewinding shops.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7699</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Repair shops and related services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motion pictures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">781</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motion picture production and allied services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7812</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motion picture and video tape production.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">782</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motion picture distribution and allied services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7822</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motion picture and video tape distribution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">783</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motion picture theaters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7832</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motion picture theaters, except drive-in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drive-in motion picture theaters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amusement and recreation services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">791</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dance studios, schools, and halls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7911</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dance studios, schools, and halls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">792</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Theatrical producers (except motion picture), bands, orchestras, and entertainers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7929</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bands, orchestras, actors, and other entertainers and entertainment groups.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">793</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bowling centers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7933</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bowling centers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">794</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial sports.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7941</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional sports clubs and promoters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7948</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Racing, including track operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">799</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous amusement and recreation services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coin-operated amusement devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Membership sports and recreation clubs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amusement and recreation services not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Health services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">801</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices and clinics of doctors of medicine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices and clinics of doctors of medicine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">802</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices and clinics of dentists.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices and clinics of dentists.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">803</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices and clinics of doctors of osteopathy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8031</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices and clinics of doctors of osteopathy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">804</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices and clinics of other health practitioners.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices and clinics of health practitioners, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">805</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nursing and personal care facilities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8059</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nursing and personal care facilities, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">806</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8062</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General medical and surgical hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Psychiatric hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8069</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialty hospitals, except psychiatric.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">807</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medical and dental laboratories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8071</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medical laboratories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dental laboratories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">809</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous health and allied services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8099</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Health and allied services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">811</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Educational services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">821</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elementary and secondary schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elementary and secondary schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">822</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colleges, universities, professional schools, and junior colleges.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8221</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colleges, universities, and professional schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8222</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Junior colleges and technical institutes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">824</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vocational schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data processing schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business and secretarial schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8249</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vocational schools, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">829</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schools and educational services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schools and educational services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">832</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual and family social services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8322</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual and family social services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Job training and vocational rehabilitation services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8331</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Job training and vocational rehabilitation services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">835</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Child day care services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8351</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Child day care services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">836</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residential care.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8361</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residential care.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">839</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8399</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social services, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Museums, art galleries, and botanical and zoological gardens.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">841</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Museums and art galleries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8412</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Museums and art galleries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Membership organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">861</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business associations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8611</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business associations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">862</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional membership organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8621</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional membership organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">863</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Labor unions and similar labor organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8631</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Labor unions and similar labor organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">864</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Civic, social, and fraternal associations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8641</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Civic, social, and fraternal associations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">866</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Religious organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8661</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Religious organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">869</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Membership organizations, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8699</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Membership organizations, not elsewhere classified.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Engineering, accounting, research, management, and related services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">871</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Engineering, architectural, and surveying services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8711</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Engineering services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">872</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accounting, auditing, and bookkeeping services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8721</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accounting, auditing, and bookkeeping services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">873</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Research, development, and testing services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8733</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Noncommercial research organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Private households.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">881</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Private households.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8811</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Private households.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">“a” = Category contained less than three responding employers or one responding employer had more than 80 percent of the employment in the category.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">“b” = Firm(s) declined to furnish waivers in these categories.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Survey data reported on the basis of SIC code 5810. Data were not broken down by SIC 5812, Eating places, and 5813 Drinking places (Alcoholic beverages).</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990; 55 FR 12778, Apr. 5, 1990, as amended at 55 FR 39577, Sept. 27, 1990; 55 FR 53248, Dec. 27, 1990; 57 FR 1104, Jan. 10, 1992]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.7.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 510—Government Corporations Eligible for Minimum Wage Phase-In
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains a listing of the public organizations (corporations) in Puerto Rico for which data have been provided by the Commonwealth for purposes of implementing the 1989 Amendments to FLSA. Such Corporations are subject to Tiers 1, 2, or 3, as set forth below. Corporations which are listed under Tier 3 may pay rates specified under Tier 4 to employees engaged in traditional activities, as defined in § 510.25 of the regulations. All other employees are subject to Tier 3. Organizations for which no data were provided are subject to Tier 1 treatment.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Organization
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automobile Accidents Compensation Administration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cardiovascular Center Corporation of Puerto Rico and the Caribbean.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Culebra Conservation and Development Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Government Development Bank of Puerto Rico.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Highway Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industries for the Blind, Mentally Retarded, and other Disabled Persons of Puerto Rico.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Institute of Puerto Rican Culture.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corporation for the Development and Administration of Marine, Lacustrine, and Fluvial Resources of Puerto Rico.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metropolitan Bus Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Mineral Resource Development Corporation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Musical Arts Corporation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Public Building Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Institute of Cinematographic and Television Arts and Industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Aqueducts and Sewer Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Communications Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Land Administration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Marine Shipping Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Medical Service Administration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Ports Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Musical Performing Arts Corporation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Rural Development Corporation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Sugar Board.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Telephone Company.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Solid Waste Management Authority.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Housing Bank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Tourism Company.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Renewal and Housing Corporation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Puerto Rico Industrial Development Bank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Recreational Development Company.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Right to Work Administration.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.10.3.88.7.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 510—Municipalities Eligible for Minimum Wage Phase-In
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains a listing of the municipalities in Puerto Rico and the tier applicable to each. Municipalities with average hourly earnings below $4.65 but equal to or greater than $4.00 are subject to Tier 2, as set forth below. Municipalities with average hourly earnings under $4.00 are subject to Tier 3. Municipalities which are listed under Tier 3 may pay the rates specified under Tier 4 to employees engaged in traditional activities, as defined in § 510.25 of the regulations. All other employees are subject to Tier 3. Municipalities which did not submit data are subject to Tier 1. The tiers set forth below are subject to petitions for review by affected employees, if filed prior to June 1, 1990. If upon review it is determined that the municipality should have been subject to Tier 1 or 2, back wages will have to be paid to April 1, 1990, to make up the difference between what municipal employees were paid and what they should have been paid.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Municipality
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adjuntas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aguada.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aguadilla.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aguas Buenas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aibonito.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Añasco.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arecibo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arroyo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barceloneta.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barranquitas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bayamon.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cabo Rojo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Caguas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Camuy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canovanas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carolina.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cataño.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cayey.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ceiba.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ciales.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cidra.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coamo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Comerio.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corozal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Culebra.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dorado.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fajardo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Florida.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guanica.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guyama.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guayanilla.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guaynabo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guarbo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hatillo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hormigueros.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Humacao.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Isabela.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jayuya.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Juana Diaz.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Juncos.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lajas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lares.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Las Marias.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Las Piedras.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loiza.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Luquillo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manati.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maricao.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maunabo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mayaguez.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moca.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Morovis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Naguabo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Naranjito.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Orocovis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Patillas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Peñuelas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ponce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quebradillas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rincon.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rio Grande.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sabana Grande.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salinas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">San German.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">San Juan.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">San Lorenzo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">San Sebastian.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Santa Isabel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Toa Alta.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Toa Baja.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trujillo Alto.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Utuado.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vega Alta.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vega Baja.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vieques.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Villalba.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yabucoa.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yauco.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="511" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 511—WAGE ORDER PROCEDURE FOR AMERICAN SAMOA
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 205, 206, 208; 5 U.S.C. 551-559.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>21 FR 7669, Oct. 6, 1956, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 511.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.1   General method for issuance of wage orders.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to authority delegated by the Secretary of Labor, the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division publishes the orders that are required by statute to make the recommendations of industry committees effective as wage orders under section 6(a)(3) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. The wage orders issued by the Administrator must by law give effect to the recommendations of the industry committees. All wage order proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the standards provided in the Administrative Procedure Act as interpreted and applied in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53298, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.2   Initiation of proceedings; notices of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wage order proceedings are initiated by order of the Secretary, published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> giving notice of hearings by industry committees to recommend the minimum rate or rates of wages to be paid under section 6 of the Act to employees in American Samoa engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce or in any enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. These orders will contain a definition of the particular industry in American Samoa, for which the committee is to make its recommendations, or these orders will direct the committee to recommend the minimum rate or rates of wages for all industry in American Samoa. All such orders will make provision for convening the committee. Any particular industry defined in such an order may be a trade, business, industry, or branch thereof, or group of industries, in which individuals are gainfully employed.
</P>
<P>(b) These orders will also give reasonable notice (1) of the time and place of the commencement of the hearing of such witnesses and receiving of such evidence as may be necessary or appropriate to enable the committee to perform its duties and functions under the Act, (2) of the general nature of the wage order proceedings and the authority under which they are proposed, (3) of the subjects and issues involved, and (4) that the committee will take official notice of the economic report (note § 511.13) and the parties will have an opportunity at the hearing to show any contrary or additional facts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 6513, July 20, 1961, as amended at 55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.3   Composition and appointment of committees.</HEAD>
<P>An industry committee will be composed of residents of American Samoa and residents of the United States outside of American Samoa. The Secretary will appoint as members of each committee an equal number of persons representing:
</P>
<P>(a) The public,
</P>
<P>(b) Employees in the industry, and
</P>
<P>(c) Employers in the industry.
</P>
<FP>The public members shall be disinterested, and the Secretary will designate one as chairperson. For purposes of this section only, the definition of the industry shall be considered to include all such industry throughout the United States, its territories and possessions.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53298, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.4   Compensation of committee members.</HEAD>
<P>Each member of an industry committee will be allowed per diem compensation at the rate specified in Chapter 304 of the Department of Labor Supplement to the Federal Personnel Manual for each day actually spent in the work of the committee, and will, in addition, be reimbursed for necessary transportation and other expenses incident to traveling in accordance with Standard Government Travel Regulations then in effect. All travel expenses will be paid on travel vouchers certified by the Administrator or an authorized representative. Any other necessary expenses that are incidental to the work of the committee may be incurred by the committee upon approval of, and shall be paid upon, certification of the Administrator or an authorized representative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 34524, June 28, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.5   Vacancies and dissolution of committees.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will appoint persons to fill any vacancies occurring in industry committees. If an industry committee is unable to arrive at a recommendation within a reasonable time, or refuses to make a recommendation, it may be dissolved by the Secretary. An industry committee shall cease to perform further functions when it has filed with the Administrator its report containing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to the matters referred to it, and shall not again perform any functions with respect to any matter reported on, unless and until directed by the Administrator. An industry committee shall be dissolved automatically when its recommendations are no longer subject to review under section 10 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 10651, Nov. 1, 1962]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.6   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator shall prepare an economic report containing such data as can be assembled pertinent to the matters to be referred to a committee. A copy of these regulations will be sent to all members of the committee following their appointment, and a copy of the economic report when completed will be furnished promptly. Before making its report the committee will decide whether it will conduct any further investigation, apart from the hearing and the review of the economic report, in connection with the matters referred to it.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53298, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.7   Committee staff.</HEAD>
<P>Each industry committee will be furnished a lawyer, to serve as committee counsel, and an economist, to serve as committee economist. Committee counsel shall advise the committee on the issues of law, including interpretations of these regulations and the legal scope of the committee's discretion, which arise during the committee proceedings. The committee counsel and economist shall be available to advise and assist the committee at all of its meetings. The Administrator shall furnish the committee with adequate stenographic, clerical, and other assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.8   Prehearing statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every employer, employee, trade association, trade union, or group of employers, employees, associations, or unions in the industry as defined, or in such industry elsewhere in the United States, and every other person who, in the judgment of the committee has an interest sufficient to justify the participation proposed by such party, shall be considered an interested person. No member of the committee may participate as an interested person.
</P>
<P>(b) Any interested person who wishes to participate on his or her own behalf or by counsel shall file a written prehearing statement within such period of time as may be prescribed in a notice of hearing, or other notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The number of copies of such statements and the time and places for filing them will be specified in notices of hearings. The prehearing statement shall describe the person's interest in the proceeding and shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The prepared statement he or she proposes to give, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the individual classifications and minimum wage rates, if any, he or she proposes to support;
</P>
<P>(3) The written data he or she proposes to introduce in evidence, including all tangible objective data to be submitted pursuant to § 511.13;
</P>
<P>(4) The names and addresses of the witnesses he or she proposes to call and a summary of the evidence he or she proposes to develop;
</P>
<P>(5) The name and address of the individual who will present his or her case; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of the approximate length of time his or her case will take.
</P>
<FP>If the prehearing statement is in conformity with the above requirements, the person shall have the right to participate as a party. In accordance with section 6(c) of the Administrative Procedure Act, the industry committee shall, after considering the advice of committee counsel, issue subpoenas, authorized by section 9 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, to parties who make a request therefor accompanied by a clear showing of general relevance and reasonable scope of the evidence sought.
</FP>
<P>(c) Prehearing statements of parties shall be made available for examination at the offices where they are filed. Each person who files a prehearing statement should, if requested, make himself or herself available for conference with the committee staff to make any needed clarification of his or her prehearing statement, and arrange details of presenting his or her testimony or case.
</P>
<P>(d) In exceptional circumstances a person who has not filed the prehearing statement required by this section and who does not appear on a witness list filed by a party may nevertheless be permitted, in the discretion of the committee, to offer testimony.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 14024, Dec. 31, 1960, as amended at 55 FR 53298, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.9   Requirements for quorum and decisions.</HEAD>
<P>Two-thirds of the members of an industry committee shall constitute a quorum. Approval by a majority of all of the members of an industry committee or subcommittee shall be required for its report. Except as otherwise provided in this part, the chairperson of the industry committee or subcommittee may make other decisions for the committee or subcommittee, but each such decision shall be subject to approval of a majority of the members present if any member objects.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53298, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.10   Subjects and issues.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The declared policy of the Act with respect to industries or enterprises in American Samoa engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce is to reach as rapidly as is economically feasible without substantially curtailing employment the object of the minimum wage rate that would apply in each such industry under paragraph (1) of section 6(a) but for section 6(a)(3) of the Act. Each industry committee shall recommend to the Administrator the highest minimum wage rates for the industry that it determines, having due regard to economic and competitive conditions, will not substantially curtail employment in the industry and will not give any industry in American Samoa a competitive advantage over any industry in the United States outside of American Samoa; except that the committee shall recommend to the Secretary the minimum wage rate prescribed in section 6(a)(1), that would be applicable but for section 6(a)(3), unless there is evidence in the record that establishes that the industry, or a predominant portion thereof, is unable to pay that wage due to such economic and competitive conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the industry committee finds that a higher minimum wage may be determined for employees engaged in certain activities or in the manufacture of certain products in the industry than may be determined for other employees in the industry, the industry committee shall recommend such reasonable classifications within the industry as it determines to be necessary for the purpose of fixing for each classification the highest minimum wage rate (not in excess of that prescribed in paragraph (1) of section 6(a) of the Act) that can be determined for it under the principles set out in this section that will not substantially curtail employment in such classification and will not give a competitive advantage to any group in that industry. No classification shall be made, however, and no minimum wage rate shall be fixed solely on a regional basis or on the basis of age or sex. In determining whether there should be classifications within an industry, in making such classifications, and in determining the minimum wage rate for each classification, the committee shall consider, among other relevant factors, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Competitive conditions as affected by transportation, living and production costs;
</P>
<P>(2) The wages established for work of like or comparable character by collective labor agreements negotiated between employers and employees by representatives of their own choosing; and
</P>
<P>(3) The wages paid for work of like or comparable character by employers who voluntarily maintain minimum wage standards in the industry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53298, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.11   Pertinent data.</HEAD>
<P>Among the types of data which may be considered pertinent to the subjects and issues delineated in § 511.10, are those revealing:
</P>
<P>(a) Employment and labor conditions and trends in American Samoa, and on the mainland, particularly since the promulgation of the presently applicable wage order, including such items as present and past employment, present wage rates and fringe benefits, changes in average hourly earnings or wage structure, provisions of collective bargaining agreements, hours of work, labor turnover, absenteeism, productivity, learning periods, rejection rates, and similar factors;
</P>
<P>(b) Market conditions and trends in American Samoa, and on the mainland, including changes in the volume and value of production, market outlets, price changes, style factors, consumer demand, competitive relationships, tariff rates, and similar marketing factors;
</P>
<P>(c) Comparative production costs in American Samoa, on the mainland, and in foreign countries, together with the factors responsible for differences;
</P>
<P>(d) Financial conditions and trends since promulgation of the present wage order as reflected in profit and loss statements and balance sheets; and
</P>
<P>(e) Data bearing on proper definitions of classifications within an industry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 12120, Mar. 30, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.12   Committee and subcommittee meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The full committee, or a quorum thereof, will convene at the time and place appointed for an initial prehearing meeting as provided in the Secretary's order initiating the proceedings (note § 511.2). The full committee acting through a quorum will decide at that meeting whether it will preside at the reception at the hearing or will authorize a subcommittee to preside. Any resolution authorizing a subcommittee to hold the hearing shall provide a period of 30 days after:
</P>
<P>(1) The subcommittee has filed its recommended report and
</P>
<P>(2) A transcript of the subcommittee hearing is made available to the parties, for the parties to file exceptions to the recommended report, and the committee shall meet promptly thereafter on call of its chairperson or the Administrator to consider exceptions and prepare its final report.
</P>
<P>(b) A committee may adjourn its meeting or hearing, or both, from time to time, and meet again, at hearing or otherwise, pursuant to the terms of adjournment, or on call of its chairperson or the Administrator.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53299, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.13   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the notice of hearing, the committee and any authorized subcommittee will take official notice of the facts stated in the economic report to the extent they are not refuted by evidence received at the hearing. Other pertinent evidence available to the Department of Labor may be presented at the hearing. The committee itself may call witnesses not otherwise scheduled to testify. Oral or documentary evidence may be received, but the committee shall exclude irrelevant, immaterial, and unduly repetitious evidence. Every interested person who has met the requirements for participation as a party shall have the right to present his or her case by oral or documentary evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination of witnesses called by others as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts. Testimony on behalf of an employer or group of employers as to inability to pay the minimum wage rate specified in paragraph (1) of section 6(a) of the Act, or as to inability to adjust to a higher minimum wage rate than prescribed by any applicable wage order of the Secretary, shall be supported by tangible objective data filed as part of the prehearing statement under § 511.8. Financial or other data shall include data for the most recent year or fraction thereof for which data are available. Financial statements filed in accordance with this provision, except those relating to a period of less than a full fiscal year or a fiscal year ending less than 90 days prior to the filing of the prehearing statement, shall be certified by an independent public accountant or shall be sworn to conform to and be consistent with the corresponding income tax returns covering the same years. Evidence of witnesses not present at the hearing may be submitted only by affidavits received with, or as a part of, a prehearing statement that meets the requirements of § 511.8 and satisfactorily explains why each affiant cannot be present. Such affidavits will be received in evidence to the same extent that testimony from affiants would have been admitted had they been present. The committee will give such weight to these statements as it considers appropriate, and the fact that such affiants have not been subject to cross-examination may be considered, along with other relevant facts, in assessing the weight to be given such evidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53299, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.14   Procedure for receiving evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All testimony shall be given under oath or affirmation. Any party shall have the right to appear in person, by counsel, or by other specified representative. Misconduct at any hearing shall be grounds for summary exclusion from the hearing. The committee shall limit the testimony of any witness where appropriate to prevent the hearing from becoming unduly prolonged. The refusal of a witness to answer any question which has been ruled to be proper shall, in the discretion of the committee, be ground for striking all testimony given by the witness on related matters.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise directed by the committee, witnesses shall be called in the following order: The committee economist qualified to testify concerning the content and preparation of the economic report, other witnesses called by the Department of Labor, witnesses called by the parties, other witnesses. Unless otherwise directed by the committee, all witnesses other than those called by the parties shall be examined in the following order: By committee counsel, by committee economist, by committee members, by the parties or their representatives. Witnesses called by the parties shall be examined first by the party calling them or by the party's specified representative, and then in the order herein indicated for all other witnesses. Redirect examination may be permitted at the discretion of the committee. Rebuttal evidence may be offered in the order and manner in this section provided for other evidence. To the extent not specified in this section, the order for calling and examining witnesses shall be specified by the chairperson of the committee or subcommittee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 7669, Oct. 6, 1956, as amended at 55 FR 53299, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.15   Submittals prior to reports.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as the receipt of evidence is concluded, a committee or subcommittee presiding at a hearing shall receive any proposed findings of fact and recommendations together with the reasons therefor submitted by any party. These submittals shall be oral unless otherwise directed by the committee or subcommittee. If, in the discretion of the committee or subcommittee such proposals should be in writing, it may grant such additional time as it deems essential.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.16   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>Promptly after receipt of submissions under § 511.15, the committee or subcommittee will resolve the issues before it and prepare a report containing its findings of fact and recommendations. The report shall contain the committee's or the subcommittee's findings and conclusions as well as the reasons or basis therefor upon all the material issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record. When a committee, acting through a quorum, has presided at the reception of evidence, this report shall be its final report on the matters referred to it. Where, however, a subcommittee has presided at the reception of evidence, this report shall be an initial report, and the committee shall meet thereafter to review the report and rule on exceptions in its final report. Where the committee presides at the reception of evidence and proceeds to final decision, every party shall be regarded as having objected to any wage rate or classification at variance with any the party proposed in the party's prehearing statements unless the party accepted such a rate or classification in any submittal made pursuant to § 511.15. A copy of the report shall be signed by each member of the committee who approves it, either at a meeting of the committee or by circulation of one or more copies among the members of the committee. At any time within 3 days after the committee report is signed by those who approve it, members dissenting therefrom may collectively or individually submit signed reports stating the reasons for their dissent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53299, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.17   Records.</HEAD>
<P>Each industry committee shall keep a journal recording the time and place of all its meetings, the members present, the votes, and other formal proceedings, including the appointment of subcommittees. Subcommittees shall keep a similar journal. No report of committee or subcommittee discussions need be included. All hearings shall be recorded. The record of any hearing before any subcommittee shall be transcribed. All hearings before a committee shall also be transcribed in whole or in part whenever the Administrator so directs upon his or her own motion or upon the motion of any party or any person compelled to submit data or evidence and upon the payment of costs prescribed by the Administrator. Promptly after completion of the committee's final report, the committee chairperson shall certify the report and transmit it to the Administrator. As soon as practicable thereafter, the committee staff shall transmit to the Administrator:
</P>
<P>(a) All committee and subcommittee journals;
</P>
<P>(b) All applications for leave to participate as parties together with the record of action thereon; and,
</P>
<P>(c) The record, including any transcript of the testimony and exhibits, together with all papers and requests filed in the proceedings.
</P>
<FP>These documents shall be available for inspections and copying by interested persons at the Office of the Administrator during usual business hours.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53300, Dec. 28, 1990] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.18   Publication and effective date of wage order.</HEAD>
<P>Promptly after receipt of the committee report the Administrator shall publish the committee recommendations in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall provide by order that the recommendations contained in such report shall take effect upon the expiration of 15 days after the date of such publication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 511.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.11.0.88.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 511.19   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person may at any time file a petition with the Administrator for an amendment to the regulations contained in this part or for an amendment to a wage order applicable to that person. In view of the statutory requirement that the minimum rates of wages established by order under section 6 of the Act be reviewed by an industry committee at least biennially, substantial cause must be shown in support of any petition for an amendment of a wage order out of regular course. Any interested person may also file a petition at any time with the Administrator for a public hearing under section 13(e) of the Act to determine whether economic conditions warrant rules or regulations providing reasonable limitations or allowing reasonable variations, tolerances, or exemptions to or from any or all of the provisions of section 7 of the Act with respect to employees in American Samoa for whom the Secretary of Labor has established minimum wage rates under section 6(a)(3) of the Act and the regulations contained in this part. Whenever it appears to the Secretary of Labor, by reason of such a petition or otherwise, to be probable that such a hearing is likely to reveal that economic conditions warrant such action, notice of such hearing specifying the procedure to be followed will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 53300, Dec. 28, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="515" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 515—UTILIZATION OF STATE AGENCIES FOR INVESTIGATIONS AND INSPECTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 4, 49 Stat. 2038, sec. 11(b), 52 Stat. 1066; 29 U.S.C. 211(b), 41 U.S.C. 38.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>13 FR 2161, 2163, Apr. 22, 1948, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 515.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Acts.</I> The term <I>Acts</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (Act of June 25, 1938; Chapter 676, 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201) and the Public Contracts Act (Act of June 30, 1936; 49 Stat. 2036; 41 U.S.C. 35-45).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrator.</I> The term <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Division.</I> The term <I>Division</I> means the Wage and Hour Division of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State.</I> The term <I>State</I> means any State of the United States or the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State agency.</I> The term <I>State agency</I> means the agency in the State charged with the administration of labor laws which necessitate inspection of places of employment for (1) enforcement of State child-labor regulations and (2) enforcement of State maximum-hour or State minimum-wage regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Official forms.</I> The term <I>official forms</I> means forms prescribed by the Administrator or the Secretary of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.2   Agreements with State agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The Secretary and the Administrator may enter into agreements with State agencies for the utilization of services of State and local agencies and their employees in making investigations and inspections under the Acts and for reimbursement therefor, when such State agencies have submitted plans of cooperation for such purposes and such plans have been found to be reasonably appropriate and adequate to carry out the respective functions of the Secretary and the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certificates of attorneys general.</I> No such agreement shall become effective and operative until a statement of the Attorney General of the State, or, if the Attorney General is not authorized to make such a statement, the State official who is so authorized, has been received by the Division and the Secretary of Labor certifying that the agreement is valid in the form as executed under the laws of the State.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.3   Qualifications of the State agency.</HEAD>
<P>The State agency shall have as its primary function the administration of State labor laws and shall be under the direction of an executive who gives full time to the work of the agency. The agency shall be engaged in inspecting places of employment for (a) enforcement of State child-labor laws and regulations, and (b) enforcement of State maximum hour or minimum-wage laws and regulations. An administrative division of the State agency shall be designated to make investigations and inspections under the Acts; qualified staff, under adequate supervision, shall be specifically assigned for work connected with State and Federal child-labor, maximum-hour and minimum-wage laws and regulations; and provision shall be made to inspect any establishment subject to the Acts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.4   Submission of plan.</HEAD>
<P>The State agency shall submit a plan, in quadruplicate, which shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the Act establishing the State agency, copies of the laws administered by the State agency, and if there is an act specifically authorizing the State to cooperate with the Division or the Secretary of Labor, or both, a copy of such Act.
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the organization of the State agency, illustrated by organization charts, showing the delegation of responsibility and lines of authority to be followed within the agency in the enforcement of the act and State labor laws.
</P>
<P>(c) A description: (1) Of the manner in which investigations and inspections under the Acts will be coordinated with the investigations and inspections for enforcement of State child-labor, maximum-hour and minimum-wage laws and regulations; (2) of the location of offices of the administrative division designated to make inspections under the Acts, with the job titles of employees located in each such office and employees assigned to work in connection with the Acts so designated; and (3) of the manner in which the work of inspectors will be supervised.
</P>
<P>(d) Provisions for the establishment and maintenance of personnel administration, with respect to personnel engaged in work under the Acts for the Division and the Secretary of Labor in accordance with the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) Job classifications based upon an analysis of the duties and responsibilities of positions;
</P>
<P>(2) A compensation schedule adjusted to State salary schedules for similar positions: <I>Provided, however,</I> That all salaries paid by the State for services rendered in accordance with an agreement entered into pursuant to § 515.2 shall be on the basis of applicable State laws or regulations, or in the absence of such applicable laws or regulations, on the approved and usual scale pair by the State for similar services and shall in no case exceed salaries paid for comparable Federal positions in the competitive classified service. Allowances for necessary traveling expenses shall be on the basis of State laws and regulations governing travel allowances;
</P>
<P>(3) Assignment of personnel to Federal work only when their qualifications conform substantially with qualifications of Federal employees engaged in similar work, such assignment to be made only after submission to and approval by the Division and the Secretary of Labor of a statement of the training and experience of each person who will engage in Federal work;
</P>
<P>(4) Appointment of new personnel on the basis of merit, either (i) from lists of eligible persons certified in the order of merit, secured under a merit system through State-wide competitive examinations which prescribe requirements of training and experience in substantial conformity with Federal civil service requirements for similar positions or (ii) from lists taken from Federal registers established through competitive examinations for similar positions, it being understood that such registers may be broken down by States;
</P>
<P>(5) Adequate training of staff;
</P>
<P>(6) Promotion on the basis of qualifications and performance;
</P>
<P>(7) Security of tenure assured satisfactory employees, including right of notice and hearing prior to demotion or dismissal;
</P>
<P>(8) Prohibition against employees engaging in political activities other than the exercise of their right to vote and to express privately their opinions on political questions.
</P>
<P>(e) A budget which shall show, in detail, estimated expenditures by the State agency on behalf of the Division and the Secretary of Labor for services to be rendered in connection with the administration of the Acts and a budget which shall show estimated expenditure for the enforcement of comparable State laws and regulations during the period covered by the agreement; a statement showing funds appropriated to or allocated for meeting the budget for estimated State expenditures; and a statement showing expenditures by the State agency for the enforcement of comparable State laws and regulations during the last fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(f) A statement of State requirements in regard to fiscal practices and to appointment of personnel, together with copies of the laws and regulations setting forth such requirements.
</P>
<P>(g) A statement from the Attorney General of the State or, if the Attorney General is not authorized to make such a statement, from the State official who is so authorized certifying that the State agency has authority to enter into an Agreement with the Division and the Secretary of Labor in accordance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.5   Additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State Agency shall follow the procedure set forth in the Inspection Manual for the enforcement of the act and such supplements to or provisions thereof as may be issued from time to time by the Division or the Secretary of Labor; use official forms for recording findings; make reports as required; and carry on the work connected with the administration of the Acts in conformity with the plans and budget agreed upon and with the instructions and policies of the Division and the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) Representatives of the Division and the Secretary of Labor may at any time, upon notifying the State agency, make such inspections and investigations and secure such information as may be necessary for the administration of the Acts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.6   Audits.</HEAD>
<P>The accounting records and the supporting data pertaining to expenditures for investigations and inspections under the Acts shall be subject to audit by the Division and the Secretary of Labor, annually, or so often as the Administrator and the Secretary of Labor, may require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.7   Transmission of official mail.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the requirements of law and of the regulations of the Post Office Department, franked self-addressed envelopes may be used for communications from the field staff to a State official designated by the Division and the Secretary of Labor, and for communication from the State agency to the Division or the Secretary of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.8   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>All litigation relating to the enforcement of the Acts, other than civil actions for the recovery of wages due instituted pursuant to section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 and all administrative proceedings instituted pursuant to section 5 of the Public Contracts Act shall be undertaken by and be under the direction and control of the Federal Government. Any State agency intending to institute a civil action in behalf of an employee or employees for the recovery of wages due, pursuant to section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 shall notify the Division and the Secretary of Labor prior to the institution of such action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.9   Agreements and approved plans.</HEAD>
<P>Agreements and approved plans incorporated therein may be amended upon the consent of the parties thereto.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 515.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.12.0.88.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 515.10   Amendments and repeal.</HEAD>
<P>This part may be amended or repealed by appropriate joint regulations issued by the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator: <I>Provided, however,</I> That no such amendment or repeal shall be effective as to any agreement previously entered into by a State agency without its consent thereto.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="516" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 516—RECORDS TO BE KEPT BY EMPLOYERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 11, Pub. L. 75-718, 52 Stat. 1066, as amended (29 U.S.C. 211). Section 516.28 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 203(m), as amended by sec. 2105(b), Pub. L. 104-188, 110 Stat. 1755; sec. 8102(a), Pub. L. 110-28, 121 Stat. 112; and sec. 1201, Div. S., Tit. XII, Pub. L. 115-141, 132 Stat. 348. Section 516.33 also issued under Pub. L. 75-718, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>). Section 516.34 also issued under Sec. 7, Pub. L. 101-157, 103 Stat. 944 (29 U.S.C. 207(q)).






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 24896, July 1, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="88" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.0.88" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.0.88.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.0   Display of OMB control numbers.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subpart or section where
<br/>information collection
<br/> requirement is located
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Currently
<br/>assigned
<br/>OMB Control
<br/>No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subpart A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subpart B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">516.31 also discussed in</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1235-0001</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.0.88.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.1   Form of records; scope of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of records.</I> No particular order or form of records is prescribed by the regulations in this part. However, every employer subject to any provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (hereinafter referred to as the “Act”), is required to maintain records containing the information and data required by the specific sections of this part. The records may be maintained and preserved on microfilm or other basic source document of an automatic word or data processing memory provided that adequate projection or viewing equipment is available, that the reproductions are clear and identifiable by date or pay period and that extensions or transcriptions of the information required by this part are made available upon request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of regulations.</I> The regulations in this part are divided into two subparts.
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A of this part contains the requirements generally applicable to all employers employing covered employees, including the requirements relating to the posting of notices, the preservation and location of records, and the recordkeeping requirements for employers of employees to whom both the minimum wage provisions of section 6 or the minimum wage provisions of section 6 and the overtime pay provisions of section 7(a) of the Act apply. In addition, § 516.3 contains the requirements relating to executive, administrative, and professional employees (including academic administrative personnel or teachers in elementary or secondary schools), and outside sales employees.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B of this part deals with the information and data which must be kept for employees (other than executive, administrative, etc., employees) who are subject to any of the exemptions provided in the Act. This section also specifies the records needed for deductions from and additions to wages for “board, lodging, or other facilities,” industrial homeworkers and employees whose tips are credited toward wages. The sections in subpart B of this part require the recording of more, less, or different items of information or data than required under the generally applicable recordkeeping requirements of subpart A.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relationship to other recordkeeping and reporting requirements.</I> Nothing in 29 CFR part 516 shall excuse any party from complying with any recordkeeping or reporting requirement imposed by any other Federal, State or local law, ordinance, regulation or rule.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.2   Employees subject to minimum wage or minimum wage and overtime provisions pursuant to section 6 or sections 6 and 7(a) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Items required.</I> Every employer shall maintain and preserve payroll or other records containing the following information and data with respect to each employee to whom section 6 or both sections 6 and 7(a) of the Act apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Name in full, as used for Social Security recordkeeping purposes, and on the same record, the employee's identifying symbol or number if such is used in place of name on any time, work, or payroll records,
</P>
<P>(2) Home address, including zip code,
</P>
<P>(3) Date of birth, if under 19,
</P>
<P>(4) Sex and occupation in which employed (sex may be indicated by use of the prefixes Mr., Mrs., Miss., or Ms.) (Employee's sex identification is related to the equal pay provisions of the Act which are administered by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. Other equal pay recordkeeping requirements are contained in 29 CFR part 1620.)
</P>
<P>(5) Time of day and day of week on which the employee's workweek begins (or for employees employed under section 7(k) of the Act, the starting time and length of each employee's work period). If the employee is part of a workforce or employed in or by an establishment all of whose workers have a workweek beginning at the same time on the same day, a single notation of the time of the day and beginning day of the workweek for the whole workforce or establishment will suffice,
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Regular hourly rate of pay for any workweek in which overtime compensation is due under section 7(a) of the Act, (ii) explain basis of pay by indicating the monetary amount paid on a per hour, per day, per week, per piece, commission on sales, or other basis, and (iii) the amount and nature of each payment which, pursuant to section 7(e) of the Act, is excluded from the “regular rate” (these records may be in the form of vouchers or other payment data),
</P>
<P>(7) Hours worked each workday and total hours worked each workweek (for purposes of this section, a “workday” is any fixed period of 24 consecutive hours and a “workweek” is any fixed and regularly recurring period of 7 consecutive workdays),
</P>
<P>(8) Total daily or weekly straight-time earnings or wages due for hours worked during the workday or workweek, exclusive of premium overtime compensation,
</P>
<P>(9) Total premium pay for overtime hours. This amount excludes the straight-time earnings for overtime hours recorded under paragraph (a)(8) of this section,
</P>
<P>(10) Total additions to or deductions from wages paid each pay period including employee purchase orders or wage assignments. Also, in individual employee records, the dates, amounts, and nature of the items which make up the total additions and deductions,
</P>
<P>(11) Total wages paid each pay period,
</P>
<P>(12) Date of payment and the pay period covered by payment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records of retroactive payment of wages.</I> Every employer who makes retroactive payment of wages or compensation under the supervision of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division pursuant to section 16(c) and/or section 17 of the Act, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Record and preserve, as an entry on the pay records, the amount of such payment to each employee, the period covered by such payment, and the date of payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare a report of each such payment on a receipt form provided by or authorized by the Wage and Hour Division, and (i) preserve a copy as part of the records, (ii) deliver a copy to the employee, and (iii) file the original, as evidence of payment by the employer and receipt by the employee, with the Administrator or an authorized representative within 10 days after payment is made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees working on fixed schedules.</I> With respect to employees working on fixed schedules, an employer may maintain records showing instead of the hours worked each day and each workweek as required by paragraph (a)(7) of this section, the schedule of daily and weekly hours the employee normally works. Also,
</P>
<P>(1) In weeks in which an employee adheres to this schedule, indicates by check mark, statement or other method that such hours were in fact actually worked by him, and
</P>
<P>(2) In weeks in which more or less than the scheduled hours are worked, shows that exact number of hours worked each day and each week.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.3   Bona fide executive, administrative, and professional employees (including academic administrative personnel and teachers in elementary or secondary schools), and outside sales employees employed pursuant to section 13(a)(1) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity (including employees employed in the capacity of academic administrative personnel or teachers in elementary or secondary schools), or in outside sales, as defined in part 541 of this chapter (pertaining to so-called “white collar” employee exemptions), employers shall maintain and preserve records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (6) through (10) and, in addition, the basis on which wages are paid in sufficient detail to permit calculation for each pay period of the employee's total remuneration for employment including fringe benefits and prerequisites. (This may be shown as the dollar amount of earnings per month, per week, per month plus commissions, etc. with appropriate addenda such as “plus hospitalization and insurance plan A,” “benefit package B,” “2 weeks paid vacation,” etc.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.4   Posting of notices.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer employing any employees subject to the Act's minimum wage provisions shall post and keep posted a notice explaining the Act, as prescribed by the Wage and Hour Division, in conspicuous places in every establishment where such employees are employed so as to permit them to observe readily a copy. Any employer of employees to whom section 7 of the Act does not apply because of an exemption of broad application to an establishment may alter or modify the poster with a legible notation to show that the overtime provisions do not apply. For example:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Overtime Provisions Not Applicable to Taxicab Drivers (section 13(b)(17)).</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.5   Records to be preserved 3 years.</HEAD>
<P>Each employer shall preserve for at least 3 years:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Payroll records.</I> From the last date of entry, all payroll or other records containing the employee information and data required under any of the applicable sections of this part, and
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certificates, agreements, plans, notices, etc.</I> From their last effective date, all written:
</P>
<P>(1) Collective bargaining agreements relied upon for the exclusion of certain costs under section 3(m) of the Act,
</P>
<P>(2) Collective bargaining agreements, under section 7(b)(1) or 7(b)(2) of the Act, and any amendments or additions thereto,
</P>
<P>(3) Plans, trusts, employment contracts, and collective bargaining agreements under section 7(e) of the Act,
</P>
<P>(4) Individual contracts or collective bargaining agreements under section 7(f) of the Act. Where such contracts or agreements are not in writing, a written memorandum summarizing the terms of each such contract or agreement,
</P>
<P>(5) Written agreements or memoranda summarizing the terms of oral agreements or understandings under section 7(g) or 7(j) of the Act, and
</P>
<P>(6) Certificates and notices listed or named in any applicable section of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sales and purchase records.</I> A record of (1) total dollar volume of sales or business, and (2) total volume of goods purchased or received during such periods (weekly, monthly, quarterly, etc.), in such form as the employer maintains records in the ordinary course of business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.6   Records to be preserved 2 years.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Supplementary basic records: Each employer required to maintain records under this part shall preserve for a period of at least 2 years.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Basic employment and earnings records.</I> From the date of last entry, all basic time and earning cards or sheets on which are entered the daily starting and stopping time of individual employees, or of separate work forces, or the amounts of work accomplished by individual employees on a daily, weekly, or pay period basis (for example, units produced) when those amounts determine in whole or in part the pay period earnings or wages of those employees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wage rate tables.</I> From their last effective date, all tables or schedules of the employer which provide the piece rates or other rates used in computing straight-time earnings, wages, or salary, or overtime pay computation.
</P>
<P>(b) Order, shipping, and billing records: From the last date of entry, the originals or true copies of all customer orders or invoices received, incoming or outgoing shipping or delivery records, as well as all bills of lading and all billings to customers (not including individual sales slips, cash register tapes or the like) which the employer retains or makes in the usual course of business operations. 
</P>
<P>(c) Records of additions to or deductions from wages paid:
</P>
<P>(1) Those records relating to individual employees referred to in § 516.2(a)(10) and
</P>
<P>(2) All records used by the employer in determining the original cost, operating and maintenance cost, and depreciation and interest charges, if such costs and charges are involved in the additions to or deductions from wages paid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.7   Place for keeping records and their availability for inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Place of records.</I> Each employer shall keep the records required by this part safe and accessible at the place or places of employment, or at one or more established central recordkeeping offices where such records are customarily maintained. Where the records are maintained at a central recordkeeping office, other than in the place or places of employment, such records shall be made available within 72 hours following notice from the Administrator or a duly authorized and designated representative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection of records.</I> All records shall be available for inspection and transcription by the Administrator or a duly authorized and designated representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.8   Computations and reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each employer required to maintain records under this part shall make such extension, recomputation, or transcription of the records and shall submit to the Wage and Hour Division such reports concerning persons employed and the wages, hours, and other conditions and practices of employment set forth in the records as the Administrator or a duly authorized and designated representative may request in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.9   Petitions for exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of petitions for relief.</I> Any employer or group of employers who, due to peculiar conditions under which they must operate, desire authority to maintain records in a manner other than required in this part, or to be relieved of preserving certain records for the period specified in this part, may submit a written petition to the Administrator requesting such authority, setting forth the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action on petitions.</I> If, after review of the petition, the Administrator finds that the authority requested will not hinder enforcement of the Act, the Administrator may grant such authority limited by any conditions determined necessary and subject to subsequent revocation. Prior to revocation of such authority because of noncompliance with any of the prescribed conditions, the employer will be notified of the reasons and given an opportunity to come into compliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance after submission of petitions.</I> The submission of a petition or the delay of the Administrator in acting upon such petition will not relieve any employer or group of employers from any obligations to comply with all the applicable requirements of the regulations in this part. However, the Administrator will provide a response to all petitions as soon as possible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.1.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Records Pertaining to Employees Subject to Miscellaneous Exemptions Under the Act; Other Special Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.11   Employees exempt from both minimum wage and overtime pay requirements under section 13(a) (2), (3), (4), (5), (8), (10), (12), or 13(d) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each and every employee exempt from both the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to the provisions of section 13(a) (2), (3), (4), (5), (8), (10), (12), or 13(d) of the Act, employers shall maintain and preserve records containing the information and data required by § 516.2(a) (1) through (4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.12   Employees exempt from overtime pay requirements pursuant to section 13(b) (1), (2), (3), (5), (9), (10), (15), (16), (17), (20), (21), (24), (27), or (28) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to the provisions of section 13(b) (1), (2), (3), (5), (9), (10), (15), (16), (17), (20), (21), (24), (27), or (28) of the Act, shall maintain and preserve payroll or other records, containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (6) and (9) and, in addition, information and data regarding the basis on which wages are paid (such as the monetary amount paid, expressed as earnings per hour, per day, per week, etc.).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.13   Livestock auction employees exempt from overtime pay requirements under section 13(b)(13) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to section 13(b)(13), the employer shall maintain and preserve records containing the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (6) and (9) and, in addition, for each workweek in which the employee is employed both in agriculture and in connection with livestock auction operations:
</P>
<P>(a) The total number of hours worked by each such employee,
</P>
<P>(b) The total number of hours in which the employee was employed in agriculture and the total number of hours employed in connection with livestock auction operations, and
</P>
<P>(c) The total straight-time earnings for employment in livestock auction operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.14   Country elevator employees exempt from overtime pay requirements under section 13(b)(14) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to each employee exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to section 13(b)(14), the employer shall maintain and preserve records containing the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (6) and (9) and, in addition, for each workweek, the names and occupations of all persons employed in the country elevator, whether or not covered by the Act, and
</P>
<P>(b) Information demonstrating that the “area of production” requirements of part 536 of this chapter are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.15   Local delivery employees exempt from overtime pay requirements pursuant to section 13(b)(11) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to section 13(b)(11), the employer shall maintain and preserve payroll or other records, containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (6) and (9) and, in addition, information and data regarding the basis on which wages are paid (such as the dollar amount paid per trip; the dollar amount of earnings per week plus 3 percent commission on all cases delivered). Records shall also contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the Administrator's finding under part 551 of this chapter with respect to the plan under which such employees are compensated;
</P>
<P>(b) A statement or description of any changes made in the trip rate or other delivery payment plan of compensation for such employees since its submission for such finding;
</P>
<P>(c) Identification of each employee employed pursuant to such plan and the work assignments and duties; and
</P>
<P>(d) A computation for each quarter-year of the average weekly hours of full-time employees employed under the plan during the most recent representative annual period as described in § 551.8(g) (1) and (2) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.16   Commission employees of a retail or service establishment exempt from overtime pay requirements pursuant to section 7(i) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee of a retail or service establishment exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to the provisions of section 7(i), employers shall maintain and preserve payroll and other records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (6), (8), (9), and (11), and in addition:
</P>
<P>(a) A symbol, letter or other notation placed on the payroll records identifying each employee who is paid pursuant to section 7(i). 
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the agreement or understanding under which section 7(i) is utilized or, if such agreement or understanding is not in writing, a memorandum summarizing its terms including the basis of compensation, the applicable representative period and the date the agreement was entered into and how long it remains in effect. Such agreements or understandings, or summaries may be individually or collectively drawn up.
</P>
<P>(c) Total compensation paid to each employee each pay period (showing separately the amount of commissions and the amount of noncommission straight-time earnings).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.17   Seamen exempt from overtime pay requirements pursuant to section 13(b)(6) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee employed as a seaman and exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to section 13(b)(6), the employer shall maintain and preserve payroll or other records, containing all the information required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (5) through (9) and, in addition, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Basis on which wages are paid (such as the dollar amount paid per hour, per day, per month, etc.)
</P>
<P>(b) Hours worked each workday and total hours worked each pay period (for purposes of this section, a “workday” shall be any fixed period of 24 consecutive hours; the “pay period” shall be the period covered by the wage payment, as provided in section 6(a)(4) of the Act),
</P>
<P>(c) Total straight-time earnings or wages for each such pay period, and
</P>
<P>(d) The name, type, and documentation, registry number, or other identification of the vessel or vessels upon which employed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.18   Employees employed in certain tobacco, cotton, sugar cane or sugar beet services, who are partially exempt from overtime pay requirements pursuant to section 7(m), 13(h), 13(i) or 13(j) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee providing services in connection with certain types of green leaf or cigar leaf tobacco, cotton, cottonseed, cotton ginning, sugar cane, sugar processing or sugar beets who are partially exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to 7(m), 13(h), 13(i) or 13(j), the employer shall, in addition to the records required in § 516.2, maintain and preserve a record of the daily and weekly overtime compensation paid. Also, the employer shall note in the payroll records the beginning date of each workweek during which the establishment operates under the particular exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.20   Employees under certain collective bargaining agreements who are partially exempt from overtime pay requirements as provided in section 7(b)(1) or section 7(b)(2) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall maintain and preserve all the information and data required by § 516.2 and shall record daily as well as weekly overtime compensation for each employee employed:
</P>
<P>(1) Pursuant to an agreement, made as a result of collective bargaining by representatives of employees certified as bona fide by the National Labor Relations Board, which provides that no employees shall be employed more than 1,040 hours during any period of 26 consecutive weeks as provided in section 7(b)(1) of the Act, or
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to an agreement, made as a result of collective bargaining by representatives of employees certified as bona fide by the National Labor Relations Board, which provides that the employee shall be employed not more than 2,240 hours during a specified period of 52 consecutive weeks and shall be guaranteed employment as provided in section 7(b)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall also keep copies of such collective bargaining agreement and such National Labor Relations Board certification as part of the records and shall keep a copy of each amendment or addition thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) The employer shall also make and preserve a record, either separately or as a part of the payroll:
</P>
<P>(1) Listing each employee employed pursuant to each such collective bargaining agreement and each amendment and addition thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) Indicating the period or periods during which the employee has been or is employed pursuant to an agreement under section 7(b)(1) or 7(b)(2) of the Act, and
</P>
<P>(3) Showing the total hours worked during any period of 26 consecutive weeks, if the employee is employed in accordance with section 7(b)(1) of the Act, or during the specified period of 52 consecutive weeks, if employed in accordance with section 7(b)(2) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.21   Bulk petroleum employees partially exempt from overtime pay requirements pursuant to section 7(b)(3) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee partially exempt from the overtime provisions of the Act pursuant to section 7(b)(3), the employer shall maintain and preserve records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a), and, in addition, shall record the daily as well as the weekly overtime compensation paid to the employees, the rate per hour and the total pay for time worked between the 40th and 56th hour of the workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.22   Employees engaged in charter activities of carriers pursuant to section 7(n) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee employed in charter activities for a street, suburban or interurban electric railway or local trolley or motorbus carrier pursuant to section 7(n) of the Act, the employer shall maintain and preserve records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) and, in addition, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Hours worked each workweek in charter activities; and
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the employment agreement or understanding stating that in determining the hours of employment for overtime pay purposes, the hours spent by the employee in charter activities will be excluded and, also, the date this agreement or understanding was entered into.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.23   Employees of hospitals and residential care facilities compensated for overtime work on the basis of a 14-day work period pursuant to section 7(j) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee of hospitals and institutions primarily engaged in the care of the sick, the aged, or mentally ill or defective who reside on the premises compensated for overtime work on the basis of a work period of 14 consecutive days pursuant to an agreement or understanding under section 7(j) of the Act, employers shall maintain and preserve.
</P>
<P>(a) The records required by § 516.2 except paragraphs (a) (5) and (7) through (9), and in addition:
</P>
<P>(1) Time of day and day of week on which the employee's 14-day work period begins,
</P>
<P>(2) Hours worked each workday and total hours worked each 14-day work period,
</P>
<P>(3) Total straight-time wages paid for hours worked during the 14-day period,
</P>
<P>(4) Total overtime excess compensation paid for hours worked in excess of 8 in a workday and 80 in the work period.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the agreement or understanding with respect to using the 14-day period for overtime pay computations or, if such agreement or understanding is not in writing, a memorandum summarizing its terms and showing the date it was entered into and how long it remains in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.24   Employees employed under section 7(f) “Belo” contracts.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee to whom both sections 6 and 7(f) of the Act apply, the employer shall maintain and preserve payroll or other records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (8) and (9), and, in addition, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Total weekly guaranteed earnings,
</P>
<P>(b) Total weekly compensation in excess of weekly guaranty,
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of the bona fide individual contract or the agreement made as a result of collective bargaining by representatives of employees, or where such contract or agreement is not in writing, a written memorandum summarizing its terms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.25   Employees paid for overtime on the basis of “applicable” rates provided in sections 7(g)(1) and 7(g)(2) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee compensated for overtime work in accordance with section 7(g)(1) or 7(f)(2) of the Act, employers shall maintain and preserve records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (6) and (9) and, in addition, the following:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Each hourly or piece rate at which the employee is employed, (2) basis on which wages are paid, and (3) the amount and nature of each payment which, pursuant to section 7(e) of the Act, is excluded from the “regular rate,”
</P>
<P>(b) The number of overtime hours worked in the workweek at each applicable hourly rate or the number of units of work performed in the work-week at each applicable piece rate during the overtime hours,
</P>
<P>(c) Total weekly overtime compensation at each applicable rate which is over and above all straight-time earnings or wages earned during overtime worked,
</P>
<P>(d) The date of the agreement or understanding to use this method of compensation and the period covered. If the employee is part of a workforce or employed in or by an establishment all of whose workers have agreed to use this method of compensation a single notation of the date of the agreement or understanding and the period covered will suffice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.26" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.26   Employees paid for overtime at premium rates computed on a “basic” rate authorized in accordance with section 7(g)(3) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee compensated for overtime hours at a “basic” rate which is substantially equivalent to the employee's average hourly earnings, as authorized in accordance with section 7(g)(3) of the Act and part 548 of this chapter, employers shall maintain and preserve records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2 except paragraph (a)(6) thereof and, in addition, the following:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) The hourly rates, piece rates, or commission rates applicable to each type of work performed by the employee,
</P>
<P>(2) The computation establishing the basic rate at which the employee is compensated for overtime hours (if the employee is part of a workforce or employed in or by an establishment all of whose workers have agreed to accept this method of compensation, a single entry of this computation will suffice),
</P>
<P>(3) The amount and nature of each payment which, pursuant to section 7(e) of the Act, is excluded from the “regular rate.”
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Identity of representative period for computing the basic rate, (2) the period during which the established basic rate is to be used for computing overtime compensation, (3) information which establishes that there is no significant difference between the pertinent terms, conditions and circumstances of employment in the period selected for the computation of the basic rate and those in the period for which the basic rate is used for computing overtime compensation, which could affect the representative character of the period from which the basic rate is derived.
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of the written agreement or, if there is no such agreement, a memorandum summarizing the terms of and showing the date and period covered by the oral agreement or understanding to use this method of computation. If the employee is one of a group, all of whom have agreed to use this method of computation, a single memorandum will suffice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.27" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.27   “Board, lodging, or other facilities” under section 3(m) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to keeping other records required by this part, an employer who makes deductions from the wages of employees for “board, lodging, or other facilities” (as these terms are used in sec. 3(m) of the Act) furnished to them by the employer or by an affiliated person, or who furnishes such “board, lodging, or other facilities” to employees as an addition to wages, shall maintain and preserve records substantiating the cost of furnishing each class of facility except as noted in paragraph (c) of this section. Separate records of the cost of each item furnished to an employee need not be kept. The requirements may be met by keeping combined records of the costs incurred in furnishing each class of facility, such as housing, fuel, or merchandise furnished through a company store or commissary. Thus, in the case of an employer who furnishes housing, separate cost records need not be kept for each house. The cost of maintenance, utilities, and repairs for all the houses may be shown together. Original cost and depreciation records may be kept for groups of houses acquired at the same time. Costs incurred in furnishing similar or closely related facilities, moreover, may be shown in combined records. Where cost records are kept for a “class” of facility rather than for each individual article furnished to employees, the records must also show the gross income derived from each such class of facility; e.g., gross rentals in the case of houses, total sales through the store or commissary, total receipts from sales of fuel, etc.
</P>
<P>(1) Such records shall include itemized accounts showing the nature and amount of any expenditures entering into the computation of the reasonable cost, as defined in part 531 of this chapter, and shall contain the data required to compute the amount of the depreciated investment in any assets allocable to the furnishing of the facilities, including the date of acquisition or construction, the original cost, the rate of depreciation and the total amount of accumulated depreciation on such assets. If the assets include merchandise held for sale to employees, the records should contain data from which the average net investment in inventory can be determined.
</P>
<P>(2) No particular degree of itemization is prescribed. However, the amount of detail shown in these accounts should be consistent with good accounting practices, and should be sufficient to enable the Administrator or authorized representative to verify the nature of the expenditure and the amount by reference to the basic records which must be preserved pursuant to § 516.6(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) If additions to or deductions from wages paid (1) so affect the total cash wages due in any workweek (even though the employee actually is paid on other than a workweek basis) as to result in the employee receiving less in cash than the applicable minimum hourly wage, or (2) if the employee works in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard and (i) any additions to the wages paid are a part of wages, or (ii) any deductions made are claimed as allowable deductions under sec. 3(m) of the Act, the employer shall maintain records showing on a workweek basis those additions to or deductions from wages. (For legal deductions not claimed under sec. 3(m) and which need not be maintained on a workweek basis, see part 531 of this chapter.)
</P>
<P>(c) The records specified in this section are not required with respect to an employee in any workweek in which the employee is not subject to the overtime provisions of the Act and receives not less than the applicable statutory minimum wage in cash for all hours worked in that workweek. (The application of section 3(m) of the Act in nonovertime weeks is discussed in part 531 of this chapter.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.28" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.28   Tipped employees and employer-administered tip pools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to each tipped employee whose wages are determined pursuant to section 3(m) of the Act, the employer shall maintain and preserve payroll or other records containing all the information and data required in § 516.2(a) and, in addition, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A symbol, letter or other notation placed on the pay records identifying each employee whose wage is determined in part by tips.
</P>
<P>(2) Weekly or monthly amount reported by the employee, to the employer, of tips received (this may consist of reports made by the employees to the employer on IRS Form 4070).
</P>
<P>(3) Amount by which the wages of each tipped employee have been deemed to be increased by tips as determined by the employer (not in excess of the difference between $2.13 and the applicable minimum wage specified in section 6(a)(1) of the Act). The amount per hour which the employer takes as a tip credit shall be reported to the employee in writing each time it is changed from the amount per hour taken in the preceding week.
</P>
<P>(4) Hours worked each workday in any occupation in which the employee does not receive tips, and total daily or weekly straight-time payment made by the employer for such hours. 
</P>
<P>(5) Hours worked each workday in occupations in which the employee receives tips, and total daily or weekly straight-time earnings for such hours.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to employees who receive tips but for whom a tip credit is not taken under section 3(m)(2)(A), any employer that collects tips received by employees to operate a mandatory tip-pooling or tip-sharing arrangement shall maintain and preserve payroll or other records containing the information and data required in § 516.2(a) and, in addition, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A symbol, letter, or other notation placed on the pay records identifying each employee who receive tips.
</P>
<P>(2) Weekly or monthly amount reported by the employee, to the employer, of tips received (this may consist of reports made by the employees to the employer on IRS Form 4070).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24896, July 1, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 18854, Apr. 5, 2011; 85 FR 86788, Dec. 30, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.29" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.29   Employees employed by a private entity operating an amusement or recreational establishment located in a national park or national forest or on land in the National Wildlife Refuge System who are partially exempt from overtime pay requirements pursuant to section 13(b)(29) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee who is partially exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act pursuant to section 13(b)(29), the employer shall maintain and preserve the records required in § 516.2, except that the record of the regular hourly rate of pay in § 516.2(a)(6) shall be required only in a workweek when overtime compensation is due under section 13(b)(29).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.30   Learners, apprentices, messengers, students, or handicapped workers employed under special certificates as provided in section 14 of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to persons employed as learners, apprentices, messengers or full-time students employed outside of their school hours in any retail or service establishment in agriculture, or in institutions of higher education, or handicapped workers employed at special minimum hourly rates under Special Certificates pursuant to section 14 of the Act, employers shall maintain and preserve records containing the same information and data required with respect to other employees employed in the same occupations.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, each employer shall segregate on the payroll or pay records the names and required information and data with respect to those learners, apprentices, messengers, handicapped workers and students, employed under Special Certificates. A symbol or letter may be placed before each such name on the payroll or pay records indicating that that person is a “learner,” “apprentice,” “messenger,” “student,” or “handicapped worker,” employed under a Special Certificate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.31" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.31   Industrial homeworkers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Industrial homeworker</I> and <I>homeworker,</I> as used in this section, mean any employee employed or suffered or permitted to perform industrial homework for an employer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Industrial homework,</I> as used in this section, means the production by any person in or about a home, apartment, tenement, or room in a residential establishment of goods for an employer who suffers or permits such production, regardless of the source (whether obtained from an employer or elsewhere) of the materials used by the homeworker in such production.
</P>
<P>(3) The meaning of the terms person, employ, employer, employee, goods, and production as used in this section is the same as in the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Items required.</I> In addition to all of the records required by § 516.2, every employer of homeworkers shall maintain and preserve payroll or other records containing the following information and data with respect to each and every industrial homeworker employed (excepting those homeworkers to whom section 13(d) of the Act applies and those homeworkers in Puerto Rico to whom part 545 of this chapter applies, or in the Virgin Islands to whom part 695 of this chapter applies):
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to each lot of work:
</P>
<P>(i) Date on which work is given out to worker, or begun by worker, and amount of such work given out or begun;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date on which work is turned in by worker, and amount of such work;
</P>
<P>(iii) Kind of articles worked on and operations performed;
</P>
<P>(iv) Piece rates paid;
</P>
<P>(v) Hours worked on each lot of work turned in;
</P>
<P>(vi) Wages paid for each lot of work turned in.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any agent, distributor, or contractor: The name and address of each such agent, distributor, or contractor through whom homework is distributed or collected and the name and address of each homeworker to whom homework is distributed or from whom it is collected by each such agent, distributor, or contractor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Homeworker handbook.</I> In addition to the information and data required in paragraph (b) of this section, a separate handbook (to be obtained by the employer from the Wage and Hour Division and supplied by such employer to each worker) shall be kept for each homeworker. The employer is required to insure that the hours worked and other information required therein is entered by the homeworker when work is performed and/or business-related expenses are incurred. This handbook must remain in the possession of the homeworker except at the end of each pay period when it is to be submitted to the employer for transcription of the hours worked and other required information and for computation of wages to be paid. The handbooks shall include a provision for written verification by the employer attesting that the homeworker was instructed to accurately record all of the required information regarding such homeworker's employment, and that, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the information was recorded accurately. Once no space remains in the handbook for additional entries, or upon termination of the homeworker's employment, the handbook shall be returned to the employer. The employer shall then preserve this handbook for at least two years and make it available for inspection by the Wage and Hour Division on request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 24896, July 1, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 45726, Nov. 10, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.32" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.32   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.33" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.33   Employees employed in agriculture pursuant to section 13(a)(6) or 13(b)(12) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No records, except as required under paragraph (f) of this section, need be maintained by an employer who did not use more than 500 man-days 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of agricultural labor in any quarter of the preceding calendar year, unless it can reasonably be anticipated that more than 500 man-days of agricultural labor will be used in at least one calendar quarter of the current calendar year. The 500 man-day test includes the work of agricultural workers supplied by crew leaders, or farm labor contractors, if the farmer is an employer of such workers, or a joint employer of such workers with the crew leader or farm labor contractor. However, members of the employer's immediate family are not included. (A “man-day” is any day during which an employee does agricultural work for 1 hour or more.)
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Sections 3(u) and 13(a)(6) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) set forth and define the term “man-day.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) If it can reasonably be anticipated that the employer will use more than 500 man-days of agricultural labor in at least one calendar quarter of the current calendar year, the employer shall maintain and preserve for each employee records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) (1), (2) and (4) and, in addition, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Symbols or other identifications separately designating those employees who are
</P>
<P>(i) Members of the employer's immediate family as defined in section 13(a)(6)(B) of the Act,
</P>
<P>(ii) Hand harvest laborers as defined in section 13(a)(6) (C) or (D), and
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees principally engaged in the range production of livestock as defined in section 13(a)(6)(E).
</P>
<P>(2) For each employee, other than members of the employer's immediate family, the number of man-days worked each week or each month.
</P>
<P>(c) For the entire year following a year in which the employer used more than 500 man-days of agricultural labor in any calendar quarter, the employer shall maintain, and preserve in accordance with §§ 516.5 and 516.6, for each covered employee (other than members of the employer's immediate family, hand harvest laborers and livestock range employees as defined in sections 13(a)(6) (B), (C), (D), and (E) of the Act) records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2(a) except paragraphs (a) (3) and (8).
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to other required items, the employer shall keep on file with respect to each hand harvest laborer as defined in section 13(a)(6)(C) of the Act for whom exemption is taken, a statement from each such employee showing the number of weeks employed in agriculture during the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to hand harvest laborers as defined in section 13(a)(6)(D), for whom exemption is taken, the employer shall maintain in addition to paragraph (b) of this section, the minor's date of birth and name of the minor's parent or person standing in place of the parent.
</P>
<P>(f) Every employer (other than parents or guardians standing in the place of parents employing their own child or a child in their custody) who employs in agriculture any minor under 18 years of age on days when school is in session or on any day if the minor is employed in an occupation found to be hazardous by the Secretary shall maintain and preserve records containing the following data with respect to each and every such minor so employed:
</P>
<P>(1) Name in full,
</P>
<P>(2) Place where minor lives while employed. If the minor's permanent address is elsewhere, give both addresses,
</P>
<P>(3) Date of birth.
</P>
<P>(g) Where a farmer and a bona fide independent contractor or crew leader are joint employers of agricultural laborers, each employer is responsible for maintaining and preserving the records required by this section. Duplicate records of hours and earnings are not required. The requirements will be considered met if the employer who actually pays the employees maintains and preserves the records specified in paragraphs (c) and (f) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 516.34" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.13.2.89.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 516.34   Exemption from overtime pay for time spent by certain employees receiving remedial education pursuant to section 7(q) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each employee exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act for time spent receiving remedial education pursuant to section 7(q) of the Act and § 778.603 of this title, the employer shall maintain and preserve records containing all the information and data required by § 516.2 and, in addition, shall also make and preserve a record, either separately or as a notation on the payroll, showing the hours spent each workday and total hours each workweek that the employee is engaged in receiving such remedial education that does not include any job-specific training but that is designed to provide reading and other basic skills at or below the eighth-grade level or to fulfill the requirements for a high school diploma (or General Educational Development certificate), and the compensation (at not less than the employee's regular rate of pay) paid each pay period for the time so engaged.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 61101, Nov. 29, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="519" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 519—EMPLOYMENT OF FULL-TIME STUDENTS AT SUBMINIMUM WAGES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 11 and 14, 52 Stat. 1068; sec. 11, 75 Stat. 74; secs. 501 and 602, 80 Stat. 843, 844 (29 U.S.C. 211, 214).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Retail or Service Establishments, and Agriculture</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.1   Applicability of the regulations in this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provisions.</I> Under section 14 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, and the authority and responsibility delegated to him/her by the Secretary of Labor (36 FR 8755) and by the Assistant Secretary for Employment Standards (39 FR 33841) the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division is authorized and directed, to the extent necessary in order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment, to provide by regulation or order for the employment, under certificates, of full-time students in retail or service establishments, or in agriculture. That section contains provisions requiring a wage rate in such certificates of not less than 85 percent of the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act, limiting weekly hours of employment, stipulating compliance with the applicable child-labor standards, and safeguarding against the reduction of the full-time employment opportunities of employees other than full-time students employed under certificates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source of limitations.</I> Some of the limitations in this subpart are specifically required in section 14(b) of the Act. The other limitations implement the provisions in that section relating to employment opportunities, <I>i.e.,</I> the “extent necessary to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment” and the avoidance of a “substantial probability of reducing the full-time employment opportunities of persons other than those to whom the minimum wage rate authorized” under section 14(b) is applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Full-time students.</I> A <I>full-time student</I> for the purpose of this subpart is defined as a student who receives primarily daytime instruction at the physical location of a bona fide educational institution, in accordance with the institution's accepted definition of a full-time student. A full-time student retains that status during the student's Christmas, summer and other vacations. An individual who was such a student immediately prior to vacation will be presumed not to have discontinued such status during vacation if local law requires his/her attendance at the end of the vacation. In the absence of such requirement his/her status during vacation will be governed by his/her intention as last communicated to his/her employer. The phrase in section 14(b) of the statute “regardless of age but in compliance with applicable child-labor laws,” among other things, restricts the employment in a retail or service establishment to full-time students who are at least 14 years of age because of the application of section 3(1) of the Act. There is a minimum age requirement of 16 years in agriculture for employment during school hours and in any occupation declared hazardous by the Secretary of Labor (subpart E-1 of part 570 of this title.) In addition, there is a minimum age restriction of 14 years generally for employment in agriculture of a full-time student outside school hours for the school district where such employee is living while so employed, except (1) Minors 12 or 13 years of age may be employed with written parental or guardian consent or they may work on farms where their parents or guardians are employed, and (2) minors under 12 may work on farms owned or operated by their parents or with parental or guardian consent on farms whose employees are exempt from section 6 by section 13 (a)(6)(A) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bona fide educational institution.</I> A <I>bona fide educational institution</I> is ordinarily an accredited institution. However, a school which is not accredited may be considered a <I>bona fide educational institution</I> in exceptional circumstances, such as when the school is too recently established to have received accreditation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail or service establishment. Retail or service establishment</I> means a retail or service establishment as defined in section 13(a)(2) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. The statutory definition is interpreted in part 779 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agriculture. Agriculture</I> means agriculture as defined in section 3(f) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. The statutory definition is interpreted in part 780 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Student hours of employment.</I> Student hours of employment means hours during which students are employed under full-time student certificates issued under this part and is distinguished from <I>hours of employment of students.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employer.</I> Section 519.4 permits an agricultural or retail or service establishment employer to employ not more than six full-time students at subminimum wages on forwarding an application but before certification. For this purpose, the term <I>employer</I> looks to the highest structure of ownership or control, and hence may be more than a single retail or service establishment or farm, e.g., the controlling conglomerate or enterprise would be the <I>employer.</I> With respect to public employers who operate retail or service establishments (see 29 CFR part 779), the <I>employer</I> means the highest structure of control such as the State, municipality, county or other political subdivision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 58745, Nov. 11, 1977; 43 FR 29000, July 5, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.3   Application for a full-time student certificate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the employment of full-time students working outside of school hours in agriculture or in a retail or service establishment at wages lower than the minimum applicable under section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act is believed to be necessary to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment and employment of them will not create a substantial probability of reducing the full-time employment opportunities of the other workers, an application for a certificate may be filed by their employer with the appropriate Regional Office of the Wage and Hour Division (or the Denver, Colorado Area Office for Colorado, North Dakota, and South Dakota; the Salt Lake City, Utah area Office for Montana, Utah, and Wyoming; and the Caribbean Office for the area it covers). Such application shall be signed by an authorized representative of the employer.
</P>
<P>(b) The application must be filed in duplicate on official forms or exact copies thereof. The forms are available at the offices mentioned in paragraph (a) of this section. The application must contain the information as to the type of products sold or services rendered by the establishment, hours of employment during the preceding twelve-month period or data from previous certificates (or applications) as pertinent to the application, and other information for which request is made on the form.
</P>
<P>(c) Separate application must be made for each farm or establishment in which authority to employ full-time students at subminimum wage rates is sought.
</P>
<P>(d) Application for renewal of a certificate shall be made either on the same type of form as is used for a new application or on an alternate official form. No certificate in effect shall expire until action on such an application shall have been finally determined, provided that such application has been properly executed, and is received by the office specified in paragraph (a) of this section not less than 15 nor more than 30 days prior to the expiration date. A properly executed application is one which fully and accurately contains the information required on the form, and the required certification by an authorized representative of the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.4   Procedure for action upon an application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under certain conditions, an agricultural or retail or service establishment employer may obtain temporary authorization to employ full-time students at subminimum wages. These conditions are: (1) Attestation by the employer that he/she will employ no more than six full-time students at subminimum wages on any workday and that the employment of such students will not reduce the full-time employment opportunities of other persons, and (2) forwarding a properly completed application to the Wage and Hour Division not later than the start of such employment, and (3) posting a notice of such filing at the place(s) specified in paragraph (a) of § 519.6 of this subpart, and (4) compliance during the temporary authorization period with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b) and (j) through (o) of § 519.6 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Temporary authorization under the conditions set forth in paragraph (a) of this section is effective from the date the application is forwarded to the Wage and Hour Division in conformance with § 519.3 of this subpart. This authorization shall continue in effect for one year from the date of forwarding of the application unless, within 30 days the Administrator or his/her authorized representative denies the application, issues a certificate with modified terms and conditions, or expressly extends the 30-day period of review.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of an application for a certificate, the officer authorized to act upon such application shall issue a certificate if the terms and conditions specified in this subpart are satisfied. To the extent he/she deems appropriate, the authorized officer may provide an opportunity to other interested persons to present data, views, or argument on the application prior to granting or denying a certificate.
</P>
<P>(d) Until April 30, 1976, if a certificate is issued, there shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a general statement of the terms of such certificate together with a notice that, pursuant to § 519.9, for 45 days following such publication any interested person may file a written request for reconsideration or review. Thereafter, applications and certificates will be available for examination in accordance with applicable regulations in Washington, DC, and in the appropriate Regional Office of the Wage and Hour Division (or the Denver, Colorado Area Office for Colorado, North Dakota, and South Dakota; the Salt Lake City, Utah Area Office for Montana, Utah, and Wyoming; and the Caribbean Office for the area it covers) for establishments in its area. A period of 60 days will be provided after certificate issuance during which any interested person may file a written request for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(e) If a certificate is denied, notice of such denial shall be sent to the employer, stating the reason or reasons for the denial. Such denial shall be without prejudice to the filing of any subsequent application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 58745, Nov. 11, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.5   Conditions governing issuance of full-time student certificates.</HEAD>
<P>Certificates authorizing the employment of full-time students at subminimum wage rates shall not be issued unless the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) Full-time students are available for employment at subminimum rates; the granting of a certificate is necessary in order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment.
</P>
<P>(b) The employment of more than six full-time students by an employer will not create a substantial probability of reducing the full-time employment opportunities for persons other than those employed under such certificates.
</P>
<P>(c) Abnormal labor conditions such as a strike or lockout do not exist at the farm or establishment for which a full-time student certificate is requested.
</P>
<P>(d) The data given on the application are accurate and based on available records.
</P>
<P>(e) The farms or establishments on whose experience the applicant relies meet the requirements of paragraph (h) of § 519.6.
</P>
<P>(f) There are no serious outstanding violations of the provisions of a full-time student certificate previously issued to the employer, nor have there been any serious violations of the Fair Labor Standards Act (including Child-Labor Regulation No. 3 and the Hazardous Occupations Orders published in part 570 of this chapter) which provide reasonable grounds to conclude that the terms of a certificate may not be compiled with, if issued.
</P>
<P>(g) The subminimum wage rate(s) proposed to be paid full-time students under temporary authorization or under certificate is not less than 85 percent of the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(h) Certificates will not be issued where such issuance will result in a reduction of the wage rate paid to a current employee, including current student employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 58745, Nov. 11, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.6   Terms and conditions of employment under full-time student certificates and under temporary authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A full-time student certificate will not be issued for a period longer than 1 year, nor will it be issued retroactively. It shall specify its effective and expiration dates. A copy of the certificate shall be posted during its effective period in a conspicuous place or places in the establishment or at the farm readily visable to all employees, for example, adjacent to the time clock or on the bulletin board used for notices to the employees. If temporary authorization is in effect under paragraph (a) of § 519.4 of this subpart, a notice thereof shall be similarly posted during the effective period of such authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) Full-time students may not be employed under a certificate at less than 85 percent of the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) For retail or service establishment employers or agricultural employers, the allowable extent of full-time student employment under certificates varies depending on whether: (1) The employer proposes to employ no more than six full-time students at subminimum wages on any workday, (2) the applicant requests authority for not more than 10 percent of the total hours of all employees during any month, or (3) the applicant requests authority for more than 10 percent of the total hours during any month. (For agricultural employers, the month of full-time student certificated employment may vary somewhat from the month in a previous year on which the certificate is based, depending on seasonal factors.)
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retail or service establishment employers or agricultural employers requesting authorization to employ not more than six full-time students at subminimum wages on any workday.</I> An application from such an applicant provides temporary authorization for the employment of full-time students at subminimum wages: <I>Provided,</I> The conditions set forth in paragraph (a) of § 519.4 of this subpart are met. Upon review of the application by the Administration or his/her authorized representative, the extent of the temporary authority may be modified.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicants requesting authorization for not more than 10 percent of the total hours of all employees during any month.</I> For such an applicant, certificates may authorize the employment of full-time student at subminimum wages for up to 10 percent of the total hours of all employees during any month, regardless of past practice of employing students. (Note: An establishment which has not previously held a certificate may be authorized 10 percent of the total hours of all employees during any month. Applicants requesting authority under this paragraph need not refer to paragraphs (f), (g), or (h) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicants requesting authorization for more than 10 percent of the total monthly hours of all employees during any month with records of hours of employment of students and coverage by the Act prior to May 1974.</I> For such an applicant, certificates may not authorize full-time student employment at subminimum wages in excess of the highest ratio under any of these three formulas: (1) The proportion of student hours of employment (<I>i.e.,</I> of full-time students under certificates) to total hours of all employees for the corresponding month of the preceding twelve-month period; (2) the maximum proportion of student hours of employment to total hours of all employees (in any corresponding month), applicable to the issuance of full-time student certificates before May 1974; or (3) 10 percent of the total hours of all employees, during any month. (Note: An establishment which is entitled to monthly allowances ranging from 5 to 20 percent may be authorized 10 percent for those months which were less than 10 percent and retain the higher allowances for those months above 10 percent.)
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicants requesting authorization for more than 10 percent of the total hours of all employees during any month with records of hours of employment of students and new coverage under the 1974 Amendments.</I> For such an applicant, the highest permissible allowance under a certificate during any month is the highest ratio under any of these three formulas: 
</P>
<P>(1) The proportion of hours of employment of full-time students to total hours of all employees during the corresponding month from May 1973 through April 1974; 
</P>
<P>(2) The proportion of student hours of employment (<I>i.e.,</I> of hours of full-time students under certificates) to total hours of all employees during the corresponding month of the preceding twelve-month period (an alternative which is not applicable to all months of the year until 12 months after May 1, 1974); or 
</P>
<P>(3) 10 percent of the total hours of all employees, during any month. (See notes under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicants requesting authorization for more than 10 percent of the total hours of all employees during any month without records of student hours worked.</I> For such an applicant, the permissible proportion under certificate of full-time student hours at subminimum wages to total hours of all employees is based on the “practice” during the preceding twelve-month period of: (1) Similar establishments of the same employer in the same general metropolitan areas in which such establishment is located: (2) similar establishments in the same or nearby communities if such establishment is not in a metropolitan area; or (3) other establishments of the same general character operating in the community or the nearest comparable community. (“Practice” means either the certificate allowances or the proportion between the actual student hours of employment to the total hours of all employees.)
</P>
<P>(i) An overestimate of total hours of employment of all employees for a current month resulting in the employment of the full-time students in excess of the hours authorized in paragraph (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section may be corrected by compensating them for the difference between the subminimum wages actually paid and the applicable minimum under section 6 of the Act for the excess hours. Similarly, if an agricultural employer or a retail or service establishment employer has authorization to employ no more than six full-time students at subminimum wages on any workday but exceeds that number, the excess may be corrected by compensating the additional full-time students for the difference between the subminimum wages actually paid and the applicable minimum under section 6 of the Act. This additional compensation shall be paid on the regular payday next after the end of the period.
</P>
<P>(j) Full-time students shall not be permitted to work at subminimum wages for more than 8 hours a day, nor for more than 40 hours a week when school is not in session, nor more than 20 hours a week when school is in session (apart from a full-time student's summer vacation), except that when a full-day school holiday occurs on a day when the establishment is open for business, the weekly limitation on the maximum number of hours which may be worked shall be increased by 8 hours for each such holiday but in no event shall the 40-hour limitation be exceeded. (Note: School is considered to be in session for a student attending summer school.) Whenever a full-time student is employed for more than 20 hours in any workweek in conformance with this paragraph, the employer shall note in his/her payroll records that school was not in session during all or part of that workweek or the student was in his/her summer vacation.
</P>
<P>(k) Neither oppressive child labor as defined in section 3(1) of the Act and regulations issued under the Act nor any other employment in violation of a Federal, State or local child labor law or ordinance shall come within the terms of any certificate issued under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(l) Full-time students shall be employed at subminimum wages under this subpart only outside of their school hours, <I>i.e.,</I> only outside of the scheduled hours of instruction of the individual student, or, in the case of agriculture, only outside of school hours for the school district where the employee is living while so employed, if the employee is under 16 years of age.
</P>
<P>(m) No full-time student shall be hired under a full-time student certificate while abnormal labor conditions, such as a strike or lockout, exist at the establishment or farm.
</P>
<P>(n) No provision of any full-time student certificate shall excuse noncompliance with higher standards applicable to full-time students which may be established under the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act or any other Federal law, State law, local ordinance, or union or other agreement. Thus, certificates issued under this law have no application to employment under the Service Contract Act.
</P>
<P>(o) No full-time student certificate shall apply to any employee to whom a certificate issued under section 14 (a) or (c) of the Act has application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 58745, Nov. 11, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.7   Records to be kept.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall designate each worker employed as a full-time student under a full-time student certificate at subminimum wages, as provided under part 516 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In addition to the records required under part 516 of this chapter and this subpart, the employer shall keep the records specified in paragraph (b) (2) and (3) of this section specifically relating to full-time students employed at subminimum wages.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall obtain at the time of hiring and keep in his records information from the school attended that the employee receives primarily daytime instruction at the physical location of the school in accordance with the school's accepted definition of a full-time student. During a period between attendance at different schools not longer than the usual summer vacation, a certificate from the school next to be attended that the student has been accepted as a full-time student will satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) The employer operating any farm or retail or service establishment shall maintain records of the monthly hours of employment of full-time students at subminimum wages and of the total hours of employment during the month of all employees in the establishment except for those employed in agriculture who come within one of the other exemptions from the minimum wage provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The records required in this section, including a copy of any full-time student certificate issued, shall be kept for a period of 3 years at the place and made available for inspection, both as provided in part 516 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.8   Amendment or replacement of a full-time student certificate.</HEAD>
<P>In the absence of an objection by the employer (which may be resolved in the manner provided in part 528 of this chapter), the authorized officer upon his/her own motion may amend the provisions of a certificate when it is necessary by reason of the amendment of these regulations, or may withdraw a certificate and issue a replacement certificate when necessary to correct omissions or apparent defects in the original certificate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.1.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.9   Reconsideration and review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 15 days after being informed of a denial of an application for a full-time student certificate or within 45 days after <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication of a statement of the terms of the certificate granted (subsequent to April 30, 1976, within 60 days after a certificate is granted), any person aggrieved by the action of an authorized officer in denying or granting a certificate may: 
</P>
<P>(1) File a written request for reconsideration thereof by the authorized officer who made the decision in the first instance, or 
</P>
<P>(2) File with the Administrator a written request for review.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for reconsideration shall be accompanied by a statement of the additional evidence which the applicant believes may materially affect the decision and a showing that there were reasonable grounds for failure to present such evidence in the original proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person aggrieved by the reconsideration determination of an authorized officer may, within 15 days after such determination, file with the Administrator a written request for review.
</P>
<P>(d) A request for review shall be granted where reasonable grounds for the review are set forth in the request.
</P>
<P>(e) If a request for reconsideration or review is granted, the authorized officer or the Administrator may, to the extent he/she deems it appropriate, afford other interested persons an opportunity to present data, views, or argument.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Institutions of Higher Education</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.11   Applicability of the regulations in this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provisions.</I> Under section 14 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, and the authority and responsibility delegated to him/her by the Secretary of Labor (36 FR 8755), the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division is authorized and directed, to the extent necessary in order to prevent curtailment of employment opportunities for employment, to provide by regulation or order for the employment, under certificates, of full-time students in institutions of higher education. That section contains provisions requiring a wage rate in such certificates of not less than 85 percent of the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act, limiting weekly hours of employment, stipulating compliance with the applicable child-labor standards, and safeguarding against the reduction of the full-time employment opportunities of employees other than full-time students employed under certificates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source of limitations.</I> Some of the limitations expressed in this subpart are specifically required in section 14(b) of the Act. The other limitations implement the provisions relating to employment opportunities, <I>i.e.,</I> the “extent necessary in order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment” and the requirement that the regulations shall “prescribe standards and requirements to insure that this paragraph will not create a substantial probability of reducing the full-time employment opportunities of persons other than those to whom the minimum wage rate authorized by” section 14(b) of the Act is applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975, as amended at 82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Full-time students.</I> A <I>full-time student</I> for the purpose of this subpart is defined as one who meets the accepted definition of a full-time student of the institution of higher education which employs him/her. A full-time student retains that status during the student's Christmas, summer and other vacations, even when a student is taking one or more courses during his/her summer or other vacation. The phrase in section 14(b) of the statute “regardless of age but in compliance with applicable child labor laws”, among other things restricts the employment in an institution of higher education to full-time students who are at least 14 years of age because of the application of section 3(1) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Institution of higher education.</I> An <I>institution of higher education</I> is an institution above the secondary level, such as a college or university, a junior college, or a professional school of engineering, law, library science, social work, etc. It is one that is recognized by a national accrediting agency or association as determined by the U.S. Commissioner of Education. Generally, an institution of higher education: (1) Admits as regular students only individuals having a certificate of graduation from a high school or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate; and (2) is legally authorized within a State to provide a program of education beyond high school; and (3) provides an educational program for which it normally awards a bachelor's degree, or provides not less than a two-year program which is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree or offers a two-year program in engineering, mathematics, or the physical or biological sciences which is designed to prepare the student to work as a technician and at a semi-professional level in engineering, scientific, or other technological fields which require the understanding and application of basic engineering, scientific, or mathematical principles of knowledge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.13   Application for a full-time student certificate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the employment of its full-time students working in an institution at wages lower than the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act is believed to be necessary to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment and employment of them will not create a substantial probability of reducing the full-time employment opportunities of other workers, an application for a certificate may be filed by their employer with the appropriate Regional Office of the Wage and Hour Division (or the Denver, Colorado Area Office for Colorado, North Dakota and South Dakota; the Salt Lake City, Utah Area Office for Montana, Utah and Wyoming; and the Caribbean Office for the area it covers). Such an application shall be signed by an authorized representative of the employer.
</P>
<P>(b) The application provided for under § 519.14 must be filed in duplicate on official forms or exact copies thereof. The forms are available at the offices mentioned in paragraph (a) of this section. The application must contain the information on numbers of full-time students and full-time employees (other than full-time students), minimum full-time student wages, and other information for which request is made on the form.
</P>
<P>(c) Separate application must be made for each campus of an institution of higher education for which authority to employ full-time students at subminimum wage rates is sought.
</P>
<P>(d) Application for renewal of a certificate shall be made on the same type of form as is used for a new application. No certificate in effect shall expire until action on such an application shall have been finally determined, provided that such application has been properly executed, and is received by the office specified in paragraph (a) of this section not less than 15 nor more than 30 days prior to the expiration date. A properly executed application is one which fully and accurately contains the information required on the form, and the required certification by an authorized representative of the employer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.14   Procedure for action upon an application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under certain conditions, an institution of higher education has temporary authorization to employ full-time students at subminimum wages. These conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) Absence of an effective finding by the Secretary that the institution has been employing full-time students under certificates in violation of the requirements of section 14(b)(3) of the Act or of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) Forwarding of a properly completed application to the Wage and Hour Division not later than the start of employment of full-time students at subminimum wages; and
</P>
<P>(3) Posting a notice of such filing at the place(s) specified in paragraph (a) of § 519.16 of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance during the temporary authorization period with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b) and (e) through (j) of § 519.16 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Temporary authorization under the conditions set forth in paragraph (a) of this section is effective from the date the application is forwarded to the Wage and Hour Division in conformance with § 519.13 of this subpart. This authorization shall continue in effect for one year from the date of forwarding of the application unless, within 30 days, the Administrator or his/her authorized representative denies the application, issues a certificate with modified terms and conditions, or expressly extends the 30-day period of review.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of an application for a certificate, the officer authorized to act upon such application shall issue a certificate if the terms and conditions specified in this subpart are satisfied. To the extent he/she deems appropriate, the authorized officer may provide an opportunity to other interested persons to present data, views, or argument on the application prior to granting or denying a certificate.
</P>
<P>(d) Until April 30, 1976, if a certificate is issued there shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a general statement of the terms of such certificate together with a notice that, pursuant to § 519.19, for 45 days following such publication any interested person may file a written request for reconsideration or review. Thereafter, applications and certificates will be available for examination in accordance with applicable regulations in Washington, DC, and in the appropriate Regional Office of the Wage and Hour Division (or the Denver, Colorado Area Office for Colorado, North Dakota, and South Dakota; the Salt Lake City, Utah Area Office for Montana, Utah, and Wyoming; and the Caribbean Office for the area it covers) for institutions of higher education in its area. A period of 60 days will be provided after certificate issuance during which any interested person may file a written request for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(e) If a certificate is denied, notice of such denial shall be sent to the employer, stating the reason or reasons for the denial. Such denial shall be without prejudice to the filing of any subsequent application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.15   Conditions governing issuance of full-time student certificates.</HEAD>
<P>Certificates authorizing the employment of full-time students at subminimum wage rates shall not be issued unless the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) Full-time students are available for employment at subminimum rates; the granting of a certificate is necessary in order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment.
</P>
<P>(b) The employment of full-time students will not create a substantial probability of reducing the full-time employment opportunities for persons other than those employed under such certificates.
</P>
<P>(c) Abnormal labor conditions such as a strike or lockout do not exist in the units of the campus for which a full-time student certificate is requested.
</P>
<P>(d) The data given on the application are accurate and based on available records.
</P>
<P>(e) There are no serious outstanding violations of the provisions of a full-time student certificate previously issued to the employer, nor have there been any serious violations of the Fair Labor Standards Act (including Child-Labor Regulation No. 3 and the Hazardous Occupations Orders published in part 570 of this chapter) which provide reasonable grounds to conclude that the terms of a certificate may not be complied with, if issued.
</P>
<P>(f) The subminimum wage rate(s) proposed to be paid full-time students under temporary authorization or under certificate is not less than 85 percent of the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(g) Full-time students are not to be employed by an institution of higher education at subminimum wages under this subpart in unrelated trades or businesses as defined and applied under sections 511 through 515 of the Internal Revenue Code, such as apartment houses, stores, or other businesses not primarily catering to the students of the institution.
</P>
<P>(h) Certificates will not be issued where such issuance will result in a reduction of the wage rate paid to a current employee, including current student employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.16   Terms and conditions of employment under full-time student certificates and under temporary authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A full-time student certificate will not be issued for a period longer than 1 year, nor will it be issued retroactively. It shall specify its effective and expiration dates. A copy of the certificate shall be posted during its effective period in a conspicuous place or places in the institution of higher education readily visible to all employees, for example, adjacent to the time clock or on the bulletin board used for notices to the employees. If temporary authorization is in effect under paragraph (a) of § 519.14, a notice thereof shall be similarly posted during the effective period of such authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) Full-time students may not be employed under a certificate at less than 85 percent of the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) An institution of higher education shall not employ full-time students at subminimum wages under this subpart in unrelated trades or businesses as defined and applied under sections 511 through 515 of the Internal Revenue Code, such as apartment houses, stores, or other businesses not primarily catering to the students of the institution.
</P>
<P>(d) An institution of higher education subject to a finding by the Secretary that it is in violation of the requirements of section 14(b)(3) of the Act or of this subpart must be issued a full-time student certificate before it can employ full-time students at wages below those required by section 6 of the Act. The Administrator or his/her authorized representative will not issue a full-time student certificate to such an institution without adequate assurances and safeguards to insure that the violations found by the Secretary will not continue.
</P>
<P>(e) Full-time students shall not be permitted to work at subminimum wages for more than 8 hours a day, nor for more than 40 hours a week when school is not in session, nor more than 20 hours a week when school is in session (apart from a full-time student's summer vacation), except that when a full-day school holiday occurs the weekly limitation on the maximum hours which may be worked shall be increased by 8 hours for each such holiday but in no event shall the 40-hour limitation be exceeded. (Note: School is considered to be in session for a student taking one or more courses during a summer or other vacation.) Whenever a full-time student is employed for more than 20 hours in any workweek in conformance with this paragraph, the employer shall note in his/her payroll that school was not in session during all or part of that workweek or the student was in his/her summer vacation.
</P>
<P>(f) Neither oppressive child labor as defined in section 3(1) of the Act and regulations issued under the Act nor any other employment in violation of a Federal, State or local child labor law or ordinance shall come within the terms of any certificate issued under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) Full-time students shall be employed at subminimum wages under this subpart only outside of their school hours, <I>i.e.,</I> only outside of the scheduled hours of instruction of the individual full-time student.
</P>
<P>(h) No full-time student shall be hired under a full-time student certificate for work in a unit or units of the campus where abnormal labor conditions, such as a strike or lockout, exist.
</P>
<P>(i) No provision of any full-time student certificate shall excuse noncompliance with higher standards applicable to full-time students which may be established under the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act or any other Federal law, State law, local ordinance, or union or other agreement. Thus, certificates issued under this subpart have no application to employment under the Service Contract Act.
</P>
<P>(j) No full-time student certificate shall apply to any employee to whom a certificate issued under section 14(a) or (c) of the Act has application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.17   Records to be kept.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall designate each worker employed as a full-time student under a full-time student certificate at subminimum wages, as provided under part 516 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In addition to the records required under part 516 of this chapter and this subpart, the employer shall keep the records specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section specifically relating to full-time students employed at subminimum wages.
</P>
<P>(2) The institution shall obtain at the time of hiring and keep in its records information that the employee is its full-time student at the physical location of the institution in accordance with its accepted definition of a full-time student. During a period between attendance at different schools not longer than the usual summer vacation, the acceptance by the institution of the full-time student for its next term will satisfy the requirements of (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) An institution of higher education shall maintain records showing the total number of all full-time students of the type defined in § 519.12(a) employed at the campus of the institution at less than the minimum wage otherwise applicable under the Act, and the total number of all employees at the campus to whom the minimum wage provision of the Act applies.
</P>
<P>(c) The records required in this section, including a copy of any full-time student certificate issued, shall be kept for a period of 3 years at the place and made available for inspection, both as provided in part 516 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.18   Amendment or replacement of a full-time student certificate.</HEAD>
<P>In the absence of an objection by the employer (which may be resolved in the manner provided in part 528 of this chapter) the authorized officer upon his/her own motion may amend the provisions of a certificate when it is necessary by reason of the amendment of these regulations, or may withdraw a certificate and issue a replacement certificate when necessary to correct omissions or apparent defects in the original certificates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 519.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.14.2.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 519.19   Reconsideration and review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 15 days after being informed of a denial of an application for a full-time student certificate or within 45 days after <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication of a statement of the terms of the certificate granted, (subsequent to April 30, 1976, within 60 days after a certificate is granted), any person aggrieved by the action of an authorized officer in denying or granting a certificate may:
</P>
<P>(1) File a written request for reconsideration thereof by the authorized officer who made the decision in the first instance, or
</P>
<P>(2) File with the Administrator a written request for review.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for reconsideration shall be accompanied by a statement of the additional evidence which the applicant believes may materially affect the decision and a showing that there were reasonable grounds for failure to present such evidence in the original proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person aggrieved by the reconsideration of an authorized officer may, within 15 days after such determination, file with the Administrator a written request for review.
</P>
<P>(d) A request for review shall be granted where reasonable grounds for the review are set forth in the request.
</P>
<P>(e) If a request for reconsideration or review is granted, the authorized officer or the Administrator may, to the extent he/she deems it appropriate, afford other interested persons an opportunity to present data, views, or argument.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6329, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 22546, May 23, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="520" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 520—EMPLOYMENT UNDER SPECIAL CERTIFICATE OF MESSENGERS, LEARNERS (INCLUDING STUDENT-LEARNERS), AND APPRENTICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 14, 52 Stat. 1062, 1064 (29 U.S.C. 214); secs. 2-12, 60 Stat. 237-244; (5 U.S.C. 1001-1011); 52 Stat. 1068, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 214.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 64959, Dec. 9, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—What are the General Provisions Governing the Employment of Messengers, Learners (Including Student-Learners), and Apprentices at Subminimum Wages?</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.2.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.200   What is the legal authority for payment of wages lower than the minimum wage required by section 6(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Act?</HEAD>
<P>Section 14(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Act provides, in order to prevent curtailment of employment opportunities, for the payment of special minimum wage rates to workers employed as messengers, learners (including student-learners), and apprentices under special certificates issued by the Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.2.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.201   How are those classifications of workers which may be paid subminimum wages under section 14(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Act defined?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A messenger is a worker who is primarily engaged in delivering letters and messages for a firm whose principal business is the delivery of such letters and messages.
</P>
<P>(b) A learner is a worker who is being trained for an occupation, which is not customarily recognized as an apprenticeable trade, for which skill, dexterity and judgment must be learned and who, when initially employed, produces little or nothing of value. Except in extraordinary circumstances, an employee cannot be considered a “learner” once he/she has acquired a total of 240 hours of job-related and/or vocational training with the same or other employer(s) or training facility(ies) during the past three years. An individual qualifying as a “learner” may only be trained in two qualifying occupations.
</P>
<P>(c) A student-learner is a student who is at least sixteen years of age, or at least eighteen years of age if employed in an occupation which the Secretary has declared to be particularly hazardous, who is receiving instruction in an accredited school, college or university and who is employed on a part-time basis, pursuant to a “bona fide vocational training program” as defined in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) An apprentice is a worker, at least sixteen years of age unless a higher minimum age standard is otherwise fixed by law, who is employed to learn a skilled trade through a registered apprenticeship program. Training is provided through structured on-the-job training combined with supplemental related theoretical and technical instruction. This term excludes pre-apprentices, trainees, learners, and student-learners. The terms learner and student-learner are defined in subpart C of this part. Standards governing the registration of apprenticeship programs are established and administered by the U.S. Department of Labor, Employment and Training Administration, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training (BAT) and are found in Regulations, 29 CFR Part 29.
</P>
<P>(e) Additional terms used in this part are defined in subpart C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.202" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.2.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.202   How do persons who want to apply for a particular certificate find out what is needed?</HEAD>
<P>The application process, terms, conditions and requirements of certificates and other matters are discussed in subparts D and E of this part. Messengers, learners (excluding student-learners), and apprentices are discussed in subpart D of this part and student-learners in subpart E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.203" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.2.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.203   What records does an employer have to keep when subminimum wage certificates are granted? How long do they have to be kept?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to other records required under the recordkeeping requirements (part 516 of this chapter), the employer is required to keep records specific to certification under section 14(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. All workers employed under a subminimum wage certificate shall be designated as such on the employer's payroll records. Further recordkeeping requirements are described in each applicable subpart of this part (see §§ 520.412 and 520.508 of this part).
</P>
<P>(b) Employers must maintain and preserve all required records for at least three years from the last date of employment under a subminimum wage program. The employer's copy of the application and the certificate shall also be maintained for three years. Such records shall be kept secure and accessible at the place of employment or where payroll records are customarily maintained. All records must be available for inspection and copying by the Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.204" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.2.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.204   If someone does not agree with the Department of Labor's decision on a certificate, can the decision be appealed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person, applicant, trade union, association, etc. who does not agree with action granting or denying a certificate (pursuant to §§ 520.406 and 520.505) may, within 60 days of that action or such additional time as the Administrator may allow, file with the Administrator a petition for review. The decision of the Administrator becomes final unless such a written request is timely filed.
</P>
<P>(b) Such requests should contain a statement of the additional evidence which the person believes may materially affect the decision and establish that there were reasonable grounds for failure to present such evidence during the original certification process.
</P>
<P>(c) If a request for reconsideration or review is granted, the Administrator, to the extent it is deemed appropriate, may afford other interested persons an opportunity to present data and views.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may conduct an investigation, which may include a hearing, prior to taking any action pursuant to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.205" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.2.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.205   How do these rules affect other Federal, state and local laws and collective bargaining agreements?</HEAD>
<P>No provision of this part, or of any special minimum wage certificate issued thereunder, shall excuse noncompliance with any other Federal or state law or municipal ordinance or collective bargaining agreement establishing higher standards.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.3.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.300   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor, or his/her authorized representative.
</P>
<P><I>Apparel industry</I> means the manufacturing of the following products as referred to in subpart D of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Rainwear means the manufacture of waterproofed garments and raincoats from oiled cloth or other materials, whether vulcanized, rubberized, cravenetted, or otherwise processed.
</P>
<P>(2) Leather and sheep-lined clothing means the manufacture of leather, leather-trimmed and sheeplined garments for men, women or children.
</P>
<P>(3) Women's apparel division of the apparel industry for the manufacture of women's, misses', and juniors' dresses means the production of women's, misses' and juniors' dresses; washable service garments; blouses from woven or purchased knit fabric; women's, misses', children's and infants' underwear, nightwear and negligees from woven fabrics; corsets and other body supporting garments from any material; infants' and children's outerwear; and other garments similar to them.
</P>
<P>(4) Robes, means the manufacture of robes from any woven material or from purchased knitted materials, including, without limitation, men's, women's and children's bath, lounging and beach robes and dressing gowns.
</P>
<P><I>Apprentice</I> means a worker, at least sixteen years of age unless a higher minimum age standard is otherwise fixed by law, who is employed to learn a skilled trade through a registered apprenticeship program. Training is provided through structured on-the-job training combined with supplemental related theoretical and technical instruction. This term excludes pre-apprentices, trainees, learners, and student-learners. The terms learner and student-learner are defined in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Apprenticeship agreement</I> means a written agreement between an apprentice and either his/her employer, or an apprenticeship committee acting as agent for employer(s), which contains the terms and conditions of the employment and training of the apprentice.
</P>
<P><I>Apprenticeship committee</I> means those persons designated by the sponsor to act for it in the administration of the program. A committee may be “joint”, i.e., it is composed of an equal number of representatives of the employer(s) and of the employees represented by a bona fide collective bargaining agent(s) and has been established to conduct, operate, or administer an apprenticeship program and enter into apprenticeship agreements with apprentices. A committee may be “unilateral” or “non-joint” and shall mean a program sponsor in which a bona fide collective bargaining agent is not a participant.
</P>
<P><I>Apprenticeship program</I> means a plan containing all terms and conditions for the qualification, recruitment, selection, employment and training of apprentices, including such matters as the requirements for a written apprenticeship agreement.
</P>
<P><I>BAT</I> means the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, Employment and Training Administration, United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Bona fide vocational training program</I> means a program authorized and approved by a state board of vocational education or other recognized educational body that provides for part-time employment training which may be scheduled for a part of the work day or workweek, for alternating weeks or for other limited periods during the year, supplemented by and integrated with a definitely organized plan of instruction designed to teach technical knowledge and related industrial information given as a regular part of the student-learner's course by an accredited school, college, or university.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Experienced worker</I> means a worker whose total experience in an authorized learner occupation in the industry, including vocational training, within the past three years is equal to or greater than 240 hours or such other period as authorized by a learner certificate issued pursuant to the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Experienced worker available for employment</I> means an experienced worker residing within the area from which the plant/business customarily draws its labor supply or within a reasonable commuting distance of such area, and who is willing and able to accept employment in the plant/business; or an experienced worker residing outside of the area from which the plant/business customarily draws its labor supply, who has in fact made himself or herself available for employment at the plant/business.
</P>
<P><I>FLSA</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 as amended (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Learner</I> means a worker who is being trained for an occupation, which is not customarily recognized as an apprenticeable trade, for which skill, dexterity and judgment must be learned and who, when initially employed produces little or nothing of value. Except in extraordinary circumstances, an employee cannot be considered a “learner” once he/she has acquired a total of 240 hours of job-related and/or vocational training with the same or other employer(s) or training facility(ies) during the past three years. An individual qualifying as a “learner” may only be trained in two qualifying occupations.
</P>
<P><I>Learning period</I> means a period of time measured in work hours and vocational training hours that is normally required to fully train an inexperienced worker in a particular occupation within an industry where the learner is employed. The learning period will not exceed 240 hours for any qualifying occupation except in extraordinary circumstances where the employer demonstrates that the occupation to be learned requires an extended period of specialized training.
</P>
<P><I>Men's and boys' clothing industry</I> means the industry which manufactures men's, youths', and boys' suits, coats, and overcoats.
</P>
<P><I>Messenger</I> means a worker who is primarily engaged in delivering letters and messages for a firm whose principal business is the delivery of such letters and messages.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum wage</I> means the wage rate required by section 6 of FLSA. For purposes of this part, subminimum wage rates are based exclusively on the applicable minimum wage provided by section 6(a) of FLSA.
</P>
<P><I>Recognized apprenticeship agency</I> means either a state apprenticeship agency recognized by the BAT, or if no such apprenticeship agency exists in the state, the BAT.
</P>
<P><I>Registered apprenticeship program or agreement</I> means a program or agreement which has been approved by a recognized apprenticeship agency as meeting the basic standards of apprenticeship adopted and published by BAT.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary or Secretary of Labor</I> means the Secretary of Labor, United States Department of Labor or his/her authorized representative.
</P>
<P><I>Shoe manufacturing industry</I> means the manufacture or partial manufacture of footwear from any material and by any process except knitting, vulcanizing of the entire article or vulcanizing (as distinct from cementing) of the sole to the upper, including the manufacturing of the following: athletic shoes; boots; boot tops; burial shoes; custom-made boots or shoes; moccasins; puttees, except spiral puttees; sandals; shoes completely rebuilt in a shoe factory; slippers. This term also includes the manufacture from leather or from any shoe-upper material of all cut stock and findings for footwear, including bows, ornaments, and trimmings. It also includes the manufacture of cutsoles; midsoles; insoles; taps; lifts; rands; toplifts; bases; shanks; boxtoes; counters; stays; stripping; sock linings; and heel pads. Shoe manufacturing also includes the manufacture of heels from any material except molded rubber, but not including the manufacture of woodheel blocks; the manufacture of cut upper parts for footwear, including linings, vamps and quarters; and the manufacture of pasted shoe stock; as well as the manufacture of boot and shoe patterns. However, the manufacture of cut stock and findings is included within this definition only when performed by companies engaged in the production of shoes who incorporate most of the cut stock and findings in the manufacture of their product(s).
</P>
<P><I>Skilled trade</I> means an apprenticeable occupation which possesses all of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) It is customarily learned in a practical way through a structured, systematic program of on-the-job supervised training.
</P>
<P>(2) It is clearly identified and commonly recognized throughout an industry.
</P>
<P>(3) It involves manual, mechanical or technical skills and knowledge which require a minimum of 2,000 hours of on-the-job work experience.
</P>
<P>(4) It requires related instruction to supplement the on-the-job training.
</P>
<P>(5) It is not merely a part of an apprenticeable occupation and does not fall into any of the following categories: marketing; sales administration; administrative support; executive and managerial; professional and semi-professional occupations (this category covers occupations for which entrance requirements customarily include education of college level).
</P>
<P><I>Standards of apprenticeship</I> means the apprenticeship program is an organized, written plan embodying the terms and conditions of employment, training, and supervision of one or more apprentices in the apprenticeable occupation, which meets the requirements established by BAT, and is subscribed to by a sponsor who has undertaken to carry out the apprentice training program.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state of the United States or the District of Columbia or any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Student-learner</I> means a student who is at least sixteen years of age, or at least eighteen years of age if employed in an occupation which the Secretary has declared to be particularly hazardous, who is receiving instruction in an accredited school, college or university and who is employed by an establishment on a part-time basis, pursuant to a bona fide vocational training program.
</P>
<P><I>Subminimum wage</I> means the rates which may be paid under temporary authorization or under certificate as provided by section 14(a) of FLSA and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Vocational Training Program.</I> See “Bona fide vocational training program”.
</P>
<P><I>Wage and Hour Division</I> means the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 64959, Dec. 9, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Messengers, Learners (Excluding Student-Learners), and Apprentices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.400" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.400   Who are messengers, learners, and apprentices?</HEAD>
<P>The terms messenger, learner, and apprentice are defined in subpart C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.401" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.401   Are there any industries, occupations, etc. that do not qualify for a certificate to employ messengers, learners, or apprentices at subminimum wages?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certificates to employ messengers at subminimum wages are available to only those establishments engaged in the business of providing messenger service, i.e., the delivery of letters and messages. Requests for such certificates are uniformly denied to applicants whose principal business purpose is not the delivery of messages and letters.
</P>
<P>(b) All applications for special certificates authorizing the employment of learners at subminimum wage rates in the manufacture of products in the following industries shall be denied (definitions for all listed activities can be found in subpart C of this part):
</P>
<P>(1) In the apparel industry:
</P>
<P>(i) Rainwear
</P>
<P>(ii) Leather and sheep-lined clothing
</P>
<P>(iii) Women's apparel division of the apparel industry for the manufacture of women's misses', and juniors' dresses;
</P>
<P>(iv) Robes
</P>
<P>(2) Shoe manufacturing industry
</P>
<P>(3) Men's and boys' clothing industry.
</P>
<P>(c) No certificates will be granted authorizing the employment of learners at subminimum wage rates as homeworkers; in maintenance occupations such as guard, porter, or custodian; in office and clerical occupations in any industry; or in operations of a temporary or sporadic nature.
</P>
<P>(d) Authorization to employ apprentices at subminimum wages will only be granted if permitted by the BAT regulations (29 CFR Part 29).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.402" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.402   How do I obtain authority to employ messengers, learners, or apprentices at subminimum wages?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers wishing to employ messengers, learners, or apprentices as defined in subpart C of this part at subminimum wages must apply for authority to do so from the Administrator at the Wage and Hour Division's Regional Office having administrative jurisdiction over the geographic area in which the employment is to take place. To obtain the address of the Regional Office which services your geographic area, please contact your local Wage and Hour Office (under “Department of Labor” in the blue pages of your local telephone book).
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of messengers, such application may be filed by an employer or group of employers. Preferential consideration will be given to applications filed by groups or organizations which are deemed to be representative of the interests of a whole industry or branch thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.403" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.403   What information is required when applying for authority to pay less than the minimum wage?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A separate application must be made for each plant or establishment requesting authorization for employment of messengers and/or learners at subminimum wages, on the official form furnished by the Wage and Hour Division, containing all information required by the form including:
</P>
<P>(1) Information concerning efforts made by the applicant to obtain experienced workers in occupation(s) for which learners are requested;
</P>
<P>(2) The occupations/industry in which the messenger(s) and/or learner(s) are to be employed;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement explaining why employment of messenger(s) and/or learners(s) at subminimum wages is needed to prevent curtailment of employment opportunities;
</P>
<P>(4) The number of messengers and/or learners the applicant anticipates employing at subminimum wages under special certificate;
</P>
<P>(5) If requesting authorization for the employment of learners at subminimum wages for a learning period greater than 240 hours, information pertinent to the extraordinary circumstances necessitating such a request. While each such request will be considered on its own merit, it is anticipated that such authorizations would be limited to occupations requiring an extended period of specialized training;
</P>
<P>(6) The number of messengers and/or learners hired at subminimum wages during the twelve-month period prior to making application;
</P>
<P>(7) Total number of nonsupervisory workers in the particular plant or establishment for which a certificate is requested;
</P>
<P>(8) The number of experienced workers in the learner occupations and their straight-time average hourly earnings during the last payroll period and the corresponding payroll period in the prior year; and
</P>
<P>(9) The type of equipment to be used by learners.
</P>
<P>(b) For apprentices, the employer or apprenticeship committee must submit a copy of the registered apprenticeship program.
</P>
<P>(c) Any applicant may also submit such additional information as may be pertinent. Applications which fail to provide the information required by the form may be returned to the applicant with a notation of deficiencies and without prejudice against submission of a new or revised application.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0001)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 64959, Dec. 9, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 2227, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.404" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.404   What must I demonstrate in my application for a messenger, learner, or apprentice certificate to receive a favorable review?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application must demonstrate that a certificate is necessary in order to prevent the curtailment of opportunities for employment.
</P>
<P>(b) The issuance of a messenger and/or learner certificate must not tend to create unfair competitive labor cost advantages nor have the effect of impairing or depressing wage rates or working standards of experienced workers performing work of a like or comparable character in the industry.
</P>
<P>(c) Abnormal labor conditions such as a strike, lock-out, or other similar condition, must not exist at the plant or establishment for which a messenger and/or learner certificate is requested.
</P>
<P>(d) It must be shown that an adequate supply of qualified experienced workers is not available for employment in those occupations for which authorization to pay subminimum wages to learners has been requested; that the experienced workers presently employed in the plant or establishment in occupations in which learners are requested are afforded an opportunity, to the fullest extent possible, for full-time employment upon completion of the learning period; and that learners are available for employment.
</P>
<P>(e) Reasonable efforts must have been made to recruit workers paid at least the minimum wage in those occupations in which certificates to employ learners at subminimum wages have been requested. This includes the placement of an order with the local State or Territorial Public Employment Service Office (except in possessions where there is no such office) not more than fifteen days prior to the date of application. Written evidence from such office that the order has been placed shall be submitted by the employer with the application.
</P>
<P>(f) The occupation or occupations in which learners are to receive training must involve a sufficient degree of skill to necessitate an appreciable learning period.
</P>
<P>(g) An apprenticeship program must conform with or substantially conform with the standards of apprenticeship as defined in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) There must be no serious outstanding violations involving the employee(s) for whom a certificate is being requested nor any serious outstanding violations of a certificate previously issued, nor any serious violations of the FLSA which provide reasonable grounds to conclude that the terms of a certificate may not be complied with, if issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.405" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.405   Must I notify my employees that I am applying for a certificate to employ messengers and/or learners at subminimum wages?</HEAD>
<P>Upon making application for a messenger and/or learner certificate or for renewal thereof, an employer shall post a copy of the first page of the completed application form in a conspicuous place in each department of the plant or establishment where he/she proposes to employ messengers and/or learners at subminimum wage rates. Such notice shall remain posted until the application is acted upon by the Administrator.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained herein were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0001)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 64959, Dec. 9, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.406" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.406   What happens once I have submitted my request for authorization to pay messengers, learners, or apprentices subminimum wages?</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applications submitted for authorization to pay wages lower than those required by section 6(a) of the FLSA will be considered and acted upon (issued or denied) subject to the conditions specified in §§ 520.403 and 520.404 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) If, in the case of messengers and/or learners, available information indicates that the requirements of this part are satisfied, the Administrator shall issue a special certificate which will be mailed to the employer. If a special certificate is denied, the employer shall be given written notice of the denial. If a messenger and/or learner certificate is denied, notice of such denial shall be without prejudice to the filing of any subsequent application.
</P>
<P>(c) If, in the case of apprentices, the apprenticeship agreement and other available information indicate that the requirements of this part are satisfied, the Administrator shall issue a special certificate. The special certificate, if issued, shall be mailed to the employer or the apprenticeship committee and a copy shall be mailed to the apprentice. If a special certificate is denied, the employer or the apprenticeship committee, the apprentice and the recognized apprenticeship agency shall be given written notice of the denial. The employer shall pay the apprentice the minimum wage applicable under section 6(a) of the FLSA from the date of receipt of notice of such denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.407" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.407   What is the subminimum wage for messengers and what must I do to comply with the terms of my certificate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A messenger certificate, if issued, shall specify:
</P>
<P>(1) The subminimum wage rate of not less than 95 percent of the applicable minimum wage required by section 6(a) of the FLSA; and
</P>
<P>(2) The effective and expiration dates of the certificate.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall post a copy of the messenger certificate during its effective period in a conspicuous place where it can be readily seen by employees.
</P>
<P>(c) No messenger shall be hired under a messenger certificate while abnormal labor conditions such as a strike, lock-out, or other similar condition, exist.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.408" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.408   What is the subminimum wage for learners and what must I do to comply with the terms of my certificate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) All learner certificates shall specify:
</P>
<P>(1) The subminimum wage rate of not less than 95 percent of the applicable minimum wage required by section 6(a) of the FLSA;
</P>
<P>(2) The number or proportion of learners authorized to be employed on any one day;
</P>
<P>(3) The occupations in which learners may be employed;
</P>
<P>(4) The authorized learning period of not more than 240 hours, except in extraordinary situations as discussed in § 520.403; and
</P>
<P>(5) The effective and expiration dates of the certificate.
</P>
<P>(b) Learners properly hired prior to the date on which a learner certificate expires may be continued in employment at subminimum wage rates for the duration of their authorized learning period under the terms of the certificate, even though the certificate may expire before the learning period is completed.
</P>
<P>(c) The employer shall post a copy of the learner certificate during its effective period and thereafter until all authorized learners have completed their learning period(s). The certificate shall be posted in a conspicuous place in each department of the plant where learners are to be employed.
</P>
<P>(d) No learners shall be hired under a learner certificate if, at the time the employment begins, experienced workers capable of equaling the performance of a worker of minimum acceptable skill are available for employment. Before hiring learners during the effective period of the certificate, the employer shall place an order for experienced workers with the local State or Territorial Public Employment Service Office (except in possessions where there is no such office) or have such an active order on file. Written evidence that an order has been placed or is on active file shall be maintained in the employer's records.
</P>
<P>(e) No learner shall be hired under a learner certificate while abnormal labor conditions such as a strike, lock-out, or other similar condition exist in the plant or establishment.
</P>
<P>(f) For each individual learner, the number of hours of previous employment and hours of vocational or similar facility(ies) training must be deducted from the authorized learning period if within the past three years the learner has been employed or received vocational training in a given occupation and industry.
</P>
<P>(g) If experienced workers are paid on a piece rate basis, learners shall be paid at least the same piece rates as experienced workers employed on similar work in the plant and shall receive earnings based on such piece rates whenever such earnings exceed the subminimum wage rates permitted in the certificate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.409" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.409   When will authority to pay apprentices special minimum wages become effective and what is the special minimum wage rate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An apprenticeship program which has been registered with a recognized apprenticeship agency shall constitute a temporary special certificate authorizing the employment of an apprentice at the wages and under the conditions specified in such program until a special certificate is issued or denied. This temporary authorization is, however, conditioned on the requirement that within 90 days from the beginning date of employment of the apprentice, the employer or the apprenticeship committee shall send one copy of each apprenticeship agreement, with evidence of registration, to the appropriate Regional Office of the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(b) The wage rate specified by the apprenticeship program becomes the special minimum wage rate that must be paid unless the Administrator issues a certificate modifying the terms and conditions of employment of apprentices at special minimum wages.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.410" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.410   How long does a messenger, learner, or apprentice certificate remain in effect?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Messenger and/or learner certificates may be issued for a period of not longer than one year.
</P>
<P>(b) Each special apprentice certificate shall specify the conditions and limitations under which it is granted, including the periods of time during which subminimum wage rates may be paid pursuant to a registered apprenticeship program.
</P>
<P>(c) No certificate may be issued retroactively.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator may amend the provisions of a certificate when necessary to correct omissions or defects in the original certificate or reflect changes in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.411" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.411   Does a certificate authorizing payment of subminimum wages to messengers and/or learners remain in effect during the renewal process?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Application for renewal of a messenger and/or learner certificate shall be made on the same form as described in this section and employees shall be advised of such renewal application in the same manner as explained in § 520.405. No effective messenger and/or learner certificate shall expire until action on an application for renewal shall have been finally determined, provided that such application has been properly executed in accordance with the requirements, and filed with and received by the Administrator not less than fifteen nor more than thirty days prior to the expiration date. A final determination means either the granting of or initial denial of the application for renewal of a messenger and/or learner certificate, or withdrawal of the application. A “properly executed application” is one which contains the complete information required on the form, and the required certification by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) A renewal certificate will not be issued unless there is a clear showing that the conditions set forth in section 520.404 of this part still prevail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.412" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.4.89.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.412   What records, in addition to those required by Part 516 of this chapter and section 520.203 of this part, must I keep relating to the employment of messengers, learners, or apprentices under special certificate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each worker employed as a messenger, learner, or apprentice under a certificate shall be designated as such on the employer's payroll records. All such messengers, learners, or apprentices shall be listed together as a separate group on the payroll records, with each messenger's, learner's, or apprentice's occupation being shown.
</P>
<P>(b) At the time learners are hired, the employer shall also obtain and keep in his/her records a statement signed by each employee showing all applicable experience which the learner had in the employer's industry, including vocational training, during the preceding three years. The statement shall contain the dates of such previous employment, names and addresses of employers, the occupation or occupations in which the learner was engaged and the types of products upon which the learner worked. The statement shall also contain information concerning pertinent training in vocational training schools or similar training facilities, including the dates of such training and the identity of the vocational school or training facility. If the learner has had no applicable experience or pertinent training, a statement to that effect signed by the learner shall likewise be kept in the employer's records.
</P>
<P>(c) The employer shall maintain a file of all evidence and records, including any correspondence, pertaining to the filing or cancellation of job orders placed with the local State or Territorial Public Employment Service Office pertaining to job orders for occupations to be performed by learners.
</P>
<P>(d) Every employer who employs apprentices under temporary or special certificates shall preserve for three years from the last effective date of the certificate copies of the apprenticeship program, apprenticeship agreement and special certificate under which such an apprentice is employed.
</P>
<P>(e) Every apprenticeship committee which holds a certificate under this part shall keep the following records for each apprentice under its control and supervision:
</P>
<P>(1) The apprenticeship program, apprenticeship agreement and special certificate under which the apprentice is employed by an employer;
</P>
<P>(2) The cumulative amount of work experience gained by the apprentice, in order to establish the proper wage at the time of his/her assignment to an employer; and
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the employers to whom the apprentice was assigned and the period of time he/she worked for each employer.
</P>
<P>(f) The records required in this section, including a copy of the application(s) submitted and any special certificate(s) issued, shall be kept and made available for inspection for at least three years from the expiration date of the certificate(s).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Student-Learners</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.500" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.500   Who is a student-learner?</HEAD>
<P>The term student-learner is defined in subpart C.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.501" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.501   How do I obtain authority to employ student-learners at subminimum wages?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers wishing to employ student-learners at subminimum wages must apply for authority to do so from the Administrator at the Wage and Hour Division's Regional Office having administrative jurisdiction over the geographic area in which the employment is to take place. To obtain the address of the Regional Office which services your geographic area, please contact your local Wage and Hour Office (under “Department of Labor” in the blue pages of your local telephone book).
</P>
<P>(b) Application must be made on the official form furnished by the Wage and Hour Division and must be signed by the employer, the appropriate school official and the student-learner. A separate application must be filed by the employer for each student-learner the employer proposes to employ at subminimum wages.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in paragraph (b) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0001)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 64959, Dec. 9, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.502" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.502   What information must an application to employ student-learners at subminimum wages contain?</HEAD>
<P>Student-learner applications must contain:
</P>
<P>(a) A statement clearly outlining the vocational training program and showing, particularly, the processes in which the student-learner will be engaged when in training on the job;
</P>
<P>(b) A statement clearly outlining the school instruction directly related to the job;
</P>
<P>(c) The total number of workers employed in the establishment;
</P>
<P>(d) The number and hourly wage rates of experienced workers employed in the occupation in which the student-learner is to be trained;
</P>
<P>(e) The hourly wage rate or progressive wage schedule which the employer proposes to pay the student-learner;
</P>
<P>(f) The age of the student-learner;
</P>
<P>(g) The period of employment training at subminimum wages;
</P>
<P>(h) The number of hours of employment training a week and the number of hours of school instruction a week;
</P>
<P>(i) A certification by the appropriate school official that the student named on the application form will be receiving instruction in an accredited school, college, or university and will be employed pursuant to a bona fide vocational training program, as defined in subpart C of this part. The certification by the school official must satisfy the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The application must be properly executed in conformance with § 520.501 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The employment training must conform with the provisions of § 520.503 (a), (c), (d), and (g) and paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 520.506;
</P>
<P>(3) The occupation must not be one for which a student-learner application was previously submitted by the employer and a special certificate was denied by the Administrator.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), and (i) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0001)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 64959, Dec. 9, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.503" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.503   What must I demonstrate in my application for a student-learner certificate to receive a favorable review?</HEAD>
<P>Each student-learner application must demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(a) The training program under which the student-learner will be employed is a bona fide vocational training program as defined in subpart C of this part;
</P>
<P>(b) The employment of the student-learner at subminimum wages authorized by the special certificate must be necessary to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment;
</P>
<P>(c) The student-learner is at least sixteen years of age, or at least eighteen years of age if employed in any occupation which the Secretary has declared to be particularly hazardous (see part 570, subpart E, of this chapter, but note the specific exemptions for student-learners in several of the orders);
</P>
<P>(d) The occupation for which the student-learner is receiving preparatory training requires a sufficient degree of skill to necessitate a substantial learning period;
</P>
<P>(e) The training is not for the purpose of acquiring manual dexterity and high production speed in repetitive operations;
</P>
<P>(f) The employment of a student-learner will not have the effect of displacing a worker employed in the establishment;
</P>
<P>(g) The employment of the student-learners at subminimum wages must not tend to impair or depress the wage rates or working standards established for experienced workers for work of a like or comparable character;
</P>
<P>(h) The occupational needs of the community or industry warrant the training of student-learners;
</P>
<P>(i) There are no serious outstanding violations of the provisions of a student-learner certificate previously issued to the employer, or serious violations of any other provisions of the FLSA by the employer which provide reasonable grounds to conclude that the terms of the certificate would not be complied with, if issued;
</P>
<P>(j) The issuance of such a certificate would not tend to prevent the development of apprenticeship programs in accordance with the regulations applicable thereto (subpart D of this part) or would not impair established apprenticeship standards in the occupation or industry involved; and
</P>
<P>(k) The number of student-learners to be employed in one establishment is not more than a small proportion of its work force.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.504" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.504   When will authority to pay student-learners subminimum wages become effective?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certification by the appropriate school official on an application for a special student-learner certificate shall constitute a temporary authorization. This temporary authorization is effective from the date such application is forwarded to the Wage and Hour Division in conformance with § 520.501.
</P>
<P>(b) At the end of 30 days, this application shall become the permanent special student-learner certificate unless, after review, the Administrator denies the application, issues a certificate with modified terms and conditions, or expressly extends the period of review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.505" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.505   How will I be notified that my request to employ student-learners at subminimum wages has been denied and can I appeal the denial?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after review, an application is denied, notification of denial will be made to the appropriate school official, the employer and the student. This notification will occur within 30 days following the date such application was forwarded to the Wage and Hour Division, unless additional time for review is considered necessary or appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) If additional time for review is considered necessary or appropriate, the proper school official, the employer, and the student shall be so notified. To the extent feasible, the Administrator may provide an opportunity to other interested persons to present data and views on the application before denying a special student-learner certificate.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever a notification of denial is mailed to the employer, such denial shall be without prejudice to any subsequent application, except under the circumstances referred to in § 520.502(i)(3).
</P>
<P>(d) Section 520.204 of this part describes the procedures for requesting reconsideration of a decision to grant or deny a certificate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.506" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.506   What is the subminimum wage for student-learners and what must I do to comply with the terms of my student-learner certificate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The special minimum wage rate paid to student-learners shall be not less than 75 percent of the applicable minimum under section 6(a) of the FLSA.
</P>
<P>(b) Compliance with items listed for favorable review of a student-learner application (§ 540.503) must be demonstrated.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The number of hours of employment training each week at subminimum wages pursuant to a certificate, when added to the hours of school instruction, shall not exceed 40 hours, except that authorization may be granted by the Administrator for a greater number of hours if found to be justified by extraordinary circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) When school is not in session on any school day, the student-learner may work a number of hours in addition to the weekly hours of employment training authorized by the certificate; provided,
</P>
<P>(i) The total hours worked shall not exceed 8 hours on any such day, and
</P>
<P>(ii) A notation shall be made in the employer's records to the effect that school not being in session was the reason additional hours were worked on such day.
</P>
<P>(3) During the school term, when school is not in session for the entire week, the student-learner may work at his/her employment training a number of hours in the week in addition to those authorized by the certificate; provided,
</P>
<P>(i) The total hours shall not exceed 40 hours in any such week, and
</P>
<P>(ii) A notation shall be made in the employer's records to the effect that school not being in session was the reason additional hours were worked in such week.
</P>
<P>(d) A special student-learner certificate shall not constitute authorization to pay a subminimum wage rate to a student-learner in any week in which he/she is employed for a number of hours in addition to the number authorized in the certificate, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(1), (2), and (3) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.507" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.507   How long does my certificate remain in effect?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A special student-learner certificate shall be effective for a period not to exceed the length of one school year unless a longer period is found to be justified by extraordinary circumstances. These circumstances must be explained in detail at the time of application. While each such request will be considered on its own merit, it is anticipated that such authorizations would be limited to occupations requiring an extended period of specialized training;
</P>
<P>(b) No certificate shall authorize employment training beyond the date of graduation.
</P>
<P>(c) No special student-learner certificate may be issued retroactively.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 520.508" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.15.5.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 520.508   What records, in addition to those required by Part 516 of this chapter and section 520.203 of this part, must I keep when student-learners are employed?</HEAD>
<P>Any worker employed as a student-learner shall be identified as such on the payroll records, with each student-learner's occupation and rate of pay being shown. Notations should be made in the employer's records when additional hours are worked by reason of school not being in session.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="521-524" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 521-524 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="525" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 525—EMPLOYMENT OF WORKERS WITH DISABILITIES UNDER SPECIAL CERTIFICATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060, as amended (29 U.S.C. 201-219); Pub. L. 99-486, 100 Stat. 1229 (29 U.S.C. 214).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 32928, Aug. 10, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 525.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.1   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-486, 100 Stat. 1229) substantially revised those provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 201) (FLSA) permitting the employment of individuals disabled for the work to be performed (workers with disabilities) at special minimum wage rates below the rate that would otherwise be required by statute. These provisions are codified at section 14(c) of the FLSA and:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide for the employment under certificates of individuals with disabilities at special minimum wage rates which are commensurate with those paid to workers not disabled for the work to be performed employed in the vicinity for essentially the same type, quality, and quantity of work;
</P>
<P>(b) Require employers to provide written assurances that wage rates of individuals paid on an hourly rate basis be reviewed at least once every six months and that the wages of all employees be reviewed at least annually to reflect changes in the prevailing wages paid to experienced individuals not disabled for the work to be performed employed in the locality for essentially the same type of work;
</P>
<P>(c) Prohibit employers from reducing the wage rates prescribed by certificate in effect on June 1, 1986, for two years;
</P>
<P>(d) Permit the continuance or establishment of work activities centers; and
</P>
<P>(e) Provide that any employee receiving a special minimum wage rate pursuant to section 14(c), or the parent or guardian of such an employee, may petition for a review of that wage rate by an administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part govern the issuance of all certificates authorizing the employment of workers with disabilities at special minimum wages pursuant to section 14(c) of FLSA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FLSA</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or the Secretary of Labor's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or the Administrator's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Worker with a disability</I> for the purpose of this part means an individual whose earning or productive capacity is impaired by a physical or mental disability, including those relating to age or injury, for the work to be performed. Disabilities which may affect earning or productive capacity include blindness, mental illness, mental retardation, cerebral palsy, alcoholism, and drug addiction. The following, taken by themselves, are not considered disabilities for the purposes of this part: Vocational, social, cultural, or educational disabilities; chronic unemployment; receipt of welfare benefits; nonattendance at school; juvenile delinquency; and, correctional parole or probation. Further, a disability which may affect earning or productive capacity for one type of work may not affect such capacity for another.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Patient worker</I> means a worker with a disability, as defined above, employed by a hospital or institution providing residential care where such worker receives treatment or care without regard to whether such worker is a resident of the establishment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hospital or institution,</I> hereafter referred to as <I>institution,</I> is a public or private, nonprofit or for-profit facility primarily engaged in (<I>i.e.,</I> more than 50 percent of the income is attributable to) providing residential care for the sick, the aged, or the mentally ill or retarded, including but not limited to nursing homes, intermediate care facilities, rest homes, convalescent homes, homes for the elderly and infirm, halfway houses, residential centers for drug addicts or alcoholics, and the like, whether licensed or not licensed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Employ</I> is defined in FLSA as <I>to suffer or permit to work.</I> An employment relationship arises whenever an individual, including an individual with a disability, is suffered or permitted to work. The determination of an employment relationship does not depend upon the level of performance or whether the work is of some therapeutic benefit. However, an individual does not become an employee if engaged in such activities as making craft products where the individual voluntarily participates in such activities and the products become the property of the individual making them, or all of the funds resulting from the sale of the products are divided among the participants in the activity or are used in purchasing additional materials to make craft products.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Special minimum wage</I> is a wage authorized under a certificate issued to an employer under this part that is less than the statutory minimum wage.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commensurate</I> wage is a special minimum wage paid to a worker with a disability which is based on the worker's individual productivity in proportion to the wage and productivity of experienced nondisabled workers performing essentially the same type, quality, and quantity of work in the vicinity in which the individual under certificate is employed. For example, the commensurate wage of a worker with a disability who is 75% as productive as the average experienced nondisabled worker, taking into consideration the type, quality, and quantity of work of the disabled worker, would be set at 75% of the wage paid to the nondisabled worker. For purposes of these regulations, a commensurate wage is always a special minimum wage, <I>i.e.,</I> a wage below the statutory minimum.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Vicinity</I> or <I>locality</I> means the geographic area from which the labor force of the community is drawn.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Experienced worker</I> means a worker who has learned the basic elements or requirements of the work to be performed, ordinarily by completion of a probationary or training period. Typically, such a worker will have received at least one pay raise after successful completion of the probationary or training period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.4   Patient workers.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to patient workers, as defined in § 525.3(e), a major factor in determining if an employment relationship exists is whether the work performed is of any consequential economic benefit to the institution. Generally, work shall be considered to be of consequential economic benefit if it is of the type that workers without disabilities normally perform, in whole or in part in the institution or elsewhere. However, a patient does not become an employee if he or she merely performs personal housekeeping chores, such as maintaining his or her own quarters, or receives a token remuneration in connection with such services. It may also be possible for patients in family-like settings such as group homes to rotate or share household tasks or chores without becoming employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.5   Wage payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual whose earning or productive capacity is not impaired for the work being performed cannot be employed under a certificate issued pursuant to this part and must be paid at least the applicable minimum wage. An individual whose earning or productive capacity is impaired to the extent that the individual is unable to earn at least the applicable minimum wage may be paid a commensurate wage, but only after the employer has obtained a certificate authorizing payment of special minimum wages from the appropriate office of the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to patient workers employed in institutions, no deductions can be made from such individuals' commensurate wages to cover the cost of room, board, or other services provided by the facility. Such an individual must receive his or her wages free and clear, except for amounts deducted for taxes assessed against the employee and any voluntary wage assignments directed by the employee. (See part 531 of this title.) However, it is not the intention of these regulations to preclude the institution thereafter from assessing or collecting charges for room, board, and other services actually provided to an individual to the extent permitted by applicable Federal or State law and on the same basis as it assesses and collects from nonworking patients.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.6   Compensable time.</HEAD>
<P>Individuals employed subject to this part must be compensated for all hours worked. Compensable time includes not only those hours during which the individual is actually performing productive work but also includes those hours when no work is performed but the individual is required by the employer to remain available for the next assignment. However, where the individual is completely relieved from duty and is not required to remain available for the next assignment, such time will not be considered compensable time. For example, an individual employed by a rehabilitation facility would not be engaged in a compensable activity where such individual is completely relieved from duty but is provided therapy or the opportunity to participate in an alternative program or activity in the facility not involving work and not directly related to the worker's job (e.g., self-help skills training, recreation, job seeking skills training, independent living skills, or adult basic education). The burden of establishing that such hours are not compensable rests with the facility and such hours must be clearly distinguishable from compensable hours. (For further information on compensable time in general under FLSA, see part 785 of this title.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.7   Application for certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Application for a certificate may be filed by any employer with the Regional Office of the Wage and Hour Division having administrative jurisdiction over the geographic area in which the employment is to take place.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall provide answers to all of the applicable questions contained on the application form provided by the Regional Office.
</P>
<P>(c) The application shall be signed by the employer or the employer's authorized representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.8   Special provisions for temporary authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Temporary authority may be granted to an employer permitting the employment of workers with disabilities pursuant to a vocational rehabilitation program of the Veterans Administration for veterans with a service-incurred disability or a vocational rehabilitation program administered by a State agency.
</P>
<P>(b) Temporary authority is effective for 90 days from the date the appropriate section of the application form is signed and completed by the duly designated representative of the State agency or the Veterans Administration. Such authority may not be renewed or extended by the issuing agency.
</P>
<P>(c) The signed application constitutes the temporary authority to employ workers with disabilities at special minimum wage rates. A copy of the application must be forwarded within 10 days to the appropriate Regional Office of the Wage and Hour Division. Upon receipt, the application will be reviewed and, where appropriate, a certificate will be issued by the Regional Office. Where additional information is required or certification is denied, the applicant will receive notification from the Regional Office.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.9   Criteria for employment of workers with disabilities under certificates at special minimum wage rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to determine that special minimum wage rates are necessary in order to prevent the curtailment of opportunities for employment, the following criteria will be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and extent of the disabilities of the individuals employed as these disabilities relate to the individuals' productivity;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing wages of experienced employees not disabled for the job who are employed in the vicinity in industry engaged in work comparable to that performed at the special minimum wage rate;
</P>
<P>(3) The productivity of the workers with disabilities compared to the norm established for nondisabled workers through the use of a verifiable work measurement method (see § 525.12(h)) or the productivity of experienced nondisabled workers employed in the vicinity on comparable work; and,
</P>
<P>(4) The wage rates to be paid to the workers with disabilities for work comparable to that performed by experienced nondisabled workers.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to be granted a certificate authorizing the employment of workers with disabilities at special minimum wage rates, the employer must provide the following written assurances concerning such employment:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of individuals paid hourly rates, the special minimum wage rates will be reviewed by the employer at periodic intervals at a minimum of once every six months; and,
</P>
<P>(2) Wages for all employees will be adjusted by the employer at periodic intervals at a minimum of once each year to reflect changes in the prevailing wages paid to experienced nondisabled individuals employed in the locality for essentially the same type of work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.10   Prevailing wage rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prevailing wage rate is a wage rate that is paid to an experienced worker not disabled for the work to be performed. The Department recognizes that there may be more than one wage rate for a specific type of work in a given area. An employer must be able to demonstrate that the rate being used as prevailing for determining a commensurate wage was objectively determined according to the guidelines contained in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer whose work force primarily consists of nondisabled workers or who employs more than a token number of nondisabled workers doing similar work may use as the prevailing wage the wage rate paid to that employer's experienced nondisabled employees performing similar work. Where an agency places a worker or workers with disabilities on the premises of an employer described above, the wage paid to the employer's experienced workers may be used as prevailing.
</P>
<P>(c) An employer whose work force primarily consists of workers disabled for the work to be performed may determine the prevailing wage by ascertaining the wage rates paid to the experienced nondisabled workers of other employers in the vicinity. Such data may be obtained by surveying comparable firms in the area that employ primarily nondisabled workers doing similar work. The firms surveyed must be representative of comparable firms in terms of wages paid to experienced workers doing similar work. The appropriate size of such a sample will depend on the number of firms doing similar work but should include no less than three firms unless there are fewer firms doing such work in the area. A comparable firm is one which is of similar size in terms of employees or which competes for or bids on contracts of a similar size or nature. Employers may contact other sources such as the Bureau of Labor Statistics or private or State employment services where surveys are not practical. If similar work cannot be found in the area defined by the geographic labor market, the closest comparable community may be used.
</P>
<P>(d) The prevailing wage rate must be based upon the wage rate paid to experienced nondisabled workers as defined elsewhere in these regulations. Employment services which only provide entry level wage data are not acceptable as sources for prevailing wage information as required in these regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) There is no prescribed method for tabulating the results of a prevailing wage survey. For example, either a weighted or unweighted average would be acceptable provided the employer is consistent in the methodology used.
</P>
<P>(f) The prevailing wage must be based upon work utilizing similar methods and equipment. Where the employer is unable to obtain the prevailing wage for a specific job to be performed on the premises, such as collating documents, it would be acceptable to use as the prevailing wage the wage paid to experienced individuals employed in similar jobs such as file clerk or general office clerk, requiring the same general skill levels.
</P>
<P>(g) The following information should be recorded in documenting the determination of prevailing wage rates:
</P>
<P>(1) Date of contact with firm or other source;
</P>
<P>(2) Name, address, and phone number of firm or other source contacted;
</P>
<P>(3) Individual contacted within firm or source;
</P>
<P>(4) Title of individual contacted;
</P>
<P>(5) Wage rate information provided;
</P>
<P>(6) Brief description of work for which wage information is provided;
</P>
<P>(7) Basis for the conclusion that wage rate is not based upon an entry level position. (See also § 525.10(c).)
</P>
<P>(h) A prevailing wage may not be less than the minimum wage specified in section 6(a) of FLSA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.11   Issuance of certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon consideration of the criteria cited in these regulations, a special certificate may be issued.
</P>
<P>(b) If a special minimum wage certificate is issued, a copy shall be sent to the employer. If denied, the employer will be notified in writing and told the reasons for the denial, as well as the right to petition under § 525.18.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.12   Terms and conditions of special minimum wage certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A special minimum wage certificate shall specify the terms and conditions under which it is granted.
</P>
<P>(b) A special minimum wage certificate shall apply to all workers employed by the employer to which the special certificate is granted provided such workers are in fact disabled for the work they are to perform.
</P>
<P>(c) A special minimum wage certificate shall be effective for a period to be designated by the Administrator. Workers with disabilities may be paid wages lower than the statutory minimum wage rate set forth in section 6 of FLSA only during the effective period of the certificate.
</P>
<P>(d) Workers paid under special minimum wage certificates shall be paid wages commensurate with those paid experienced nondisabled workers employed in the vicinity in which they are employed for essentially the same type, quality, and quantity of work.
</P>
<P>(e) Workers with disabilities shall be paid not less than one and one-half times their regular rates of pay for all hours worked in excess of the maximum workweek applicable under section 7 of FLSA.
</P>
<P>(f) The wages of all workers paid a special minimum wage under this part shall be adjusted by the employer at periodic intervals at a minimum of once a year to reflect changes in the prevailing wages paid to experienced individuals not disabled for the work to be performed employed in the vicinity for essentially the same type of work.
</P>
<P>(g) Each worker with a disability and, where appropriate, a parent or guardian of the worker, shall be informed, orally and in writing, of the terms of the certificate under which such worker is employed. This requirement may be satisfied by making copies of the certificate available. Where a worker with disabilities displays an understanding of the terms of a certificate and requests that other parties not be informed, it is not necessary to inform a parent or guardian.
</P>
<P>(h) In establishing piece rates for workers with disabilities, the following criteria shall be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Industrial work measurement methods such as stop watch time studies, predetermined time systems, standard data, or other measurement methods (hereinafter referred to as “work measurement methods”) shall be used by the employer to establish standard production rates of workers not disabled for the work to be performed. The Department will accept the use of whatever method an employer chooses to use. However, the employer has the responsibility of demonstrating that a particular method is generally accepted by industrial engineers and has been properly executed. No specific training or certification will be required. Where work measurement methods have already been applied by another employer or source, and documentation exists to show that the methods used are the same, it is not necessary to repeat these methods to establish production standards.
</P>
<P>(i) The piece rates shall be based on the standard production rates (number of units an experienced worker not disabled for the work is expected to produce per hour) and the prevailing industry wage rate paid experienced nondisabled workers in the vicinity for essentially the same type and quality of work or for work requiring similar skill. (Prevailing industry wage rate divided by the standard number of units per hour equals the piece rate.).
</P>
<P>(ii) Piece rates shall not be less than the prevailing piece rates paid experienced workers not disabled for the work doing the same or similar work in the vicinity when such piece rates exist and can be compared with the actual employment situations of the workers with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Any work measurement method used to establish piece rates shall be verifiable through the use of established industrial work measurement techniques.
</P>
<P>(i) If stop watch time studies are made, they shall be made with a person or persons whose productivity represents normal or near normal performance. If their productivity does not represent normal or near normal performance, adjustments of performance shall be made. Such adjustments, sometimes called “performance rating” or “leveling” shall be made only by a person knowledgeable in this technique, as evidenced by successful completion of training in this area. The persons observed should be given time to practice the work to be performed in order to provide them with an opportunity to overcome the initial learning curve. The persons observed shall be trained to use the specific work method and tools which are available to workers with disabilities employed under special minimum wage certificates.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate time shall be allowed for personal time, fatigue, and unavoidable delays. Generally, not less than 15% allowances (9-10 minutes per hour) shall be used in conducting time studies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work measurements shall be conducted using the same work method that will be utilized by the workers with disabilities. When modifications such as jigs or fixtures are made to production methods to accommodate special needs of individual workers with disabilities, additional work measurements need not be conducted where the modifications enable the workers with disabilities to perform the work or increase productivity but would impede a worker without disabilities. Where workers with disabilities do not have a method available to them, as for example where an adequate number of machines are not available, a second work measurement should be conducted.
</P>
<P>(i) Each worker with a disability employed on a piece rate basis should be paid full earnings. Employers may “pool” earnings only where piece rates cannot be established for each individual worker. An example of this situation is a team production operation where each worker's individual contribution to the finished product cannot be determined separately. However, in such situations, the employer should make every effort to objectively divide the earnings according to the productivity level of each individual worker.
</P>
<P>(j) The following terms shall be met for workers with disabilities employed at hourly rates:
</P>
<P>(1) Hourly rates shall be based upon the prevailing hourly wage rates paid to experienced workers not disabled for the job doing essentially the same type of work and using similar methods or equipment in the vicinity. (See also § 525.10.)
</P>
<P>(2) An initial evaluation of a worker's productivity shall be made within the first month after employment begins in order to determine the worker's commensurate wage rate. The results of the evaluation shall be recorded and the worker's wages shall be adjusted accordingly no later than the first complete pay period following the initial evaluation. Each worker is entitled to commensurate wages for all hours worked. Where the wages paid to the worker during pay periods prior to the initial evaluation were less than the commensurate wage indicated by the evaluation, the employer must compensate the worker for any such difference unless it can be demonstrated that the initial payments reflected the commensurate wage due at that time.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon completion of not more than six months of employment, a review shall be made with respect to the quantity and quality of work of each hourly-rated worker with a disability as compared to that of nondisabled workers engaged in similar work or work requiring similar skills and the findings shall be recorded. The worker's productivity shall then be reviewed and the findings recorded at least every 6 months thereafter. A review and recording of productivity shall also be made after a worker changes jobs and at least every 6 months thereafter. The worker's wages shall be adjusted accordingly no later than the first complete pay period following each review. Conducting reviews at six-month intervals should be viewed as a minimum requirement since workers with disabilities are entitled to commensurate wages for all hours worked. Reviews must be conducted in a manner and frequency to insure payment of commensurate wages. For example, evaluations should not be conducted before a worker has had an opportunity to become familiar with the job or at a time when the worker is fatigued or subject to conditions that result in less than normal productivity.
</P>
<P>(4) Each review should contain, as a minimum and in addition to the data cited above, the following: name of the individual being reviewed; date and time of the review; and, name and position of the individual doing the review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.13   Renewal of special minimum wage certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications may be filed for renewal of special minimum wage certificates.
</P>
<P>(b) If an application for renewal has been properly and timely filed, an existing special minimum wage certificate shall remain in effect until the application for renewal has been granted or denied.
</P>
<P>(c) Workers with disabilities may not continue to be paid special minimum wages after notice that an application for renewal has been denied.
</P>
<P>(d) Except in cases of willfulness or those in which the public interest requires otherwise, before an application for renewal is denied facts or conduct which may warrant such action shall be called to the attention of the employer in writing and such employer shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance with all legal requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.14   Posting of notices.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer having workers who are employed under special minimum wage certificates shall at all times display and make available to employees a poster as prescribed and supplied by the Administrator. The Administrator will make available, upon request, posters in other formats such as Braille or recorded tapes. Such a poster will explain, in general terms, the conditions under which special minimum wages may be paid and shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the employer's premises where it may be readily observed by the workers with disabilities, the parents and guardians of such workers, and other workers. Where an employer finds it inappropriate to post such a notice, this requirement may be satisfied by providing the poster directly to all employees subject to its terms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.15   Industrial homework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the employer is an organization or institution carrying out a recognized program of rehabilitation for workers with disabilities and holds a special certificate issued pursuant to this part, certification under regulations governing the employment of industrial homeworkers (29 CFR part 530) is not required.
</P>
<P>(b) For all other types of employers, special rules apply to the employment of homeworkers in the following industries: Jewelry manufacturing, knitted outerwear, gloves and mittens, buttons and buckles, handkerchief manufacturing, embroideries, and women's apparel. (See 29 CFR part 530.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.16   Records to be kept by employers.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer, or where appropriate (in the case of records verifying the workers' disabilities) the referring agency or facility, of workers employed under special minimum wage certificates shall maintain and have available for inspection records indicating:
</P>
<P>(a) Verification of the workers' disabilities;
</P>
<P>(b) Evidence of the productivity of each worker with a disability gathered on a continuing basis or at periodic intervals (not to exceed six months in the case of employees paid hourly wage rates);
</P>
<P>(c) The prevailing wages paid workers not disabled for the job performed who are employed in industry in the vicinity for essentially the same type of work using similar methods and equipment as that used by each worker with disabilities employed under a special minimum wage certificate (see also § 525.10(b) and (d));
</P>
<P>(d) The production standards and supporting documentation for nondisabled workers for each job being performed by workers with disabilities employed under special certificates; and
</P>
<P>(e) The records required under all of the applicable provisions of part 516 of this title, except that any provision pertaining to homeworker handbooks shall not be applicable to workers with disabilities who are employed by a recognized nonprofit rehabilitation facility and working in or about a home, apartment, tenement, or room in a residential establishment. (See § 525.15) Records required by this section shall be maintained and preserved for the periods specified in part 516 of this title.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0001)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32928, Aug. 10, 1989, as amended at 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.17   Revocation of certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A special minimum wage certificate may be revoked for cause at any time. A certificate may be revoked:
</P>
<P>(1) As of the date of issuance, if it is found that misrepresentations or false statements have been made in obtaining the certificate or in permitting a worker with a disability to be employed thereunder;
</P>
<P>(2) As of the date of violation, if it is found that any of the provisions of FLSA or of the terms of the certificate have been violated; or
</P>
<P>(3) As of the date of notice of revocation, if it is found that the certificate is no longer necessary in order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment, or that the requirements of these regulations other than those referred to in paragraph (a)(2) of this section have not been complied with.
</P>
<P>(b) Except in cases of willfulness or those in which the public interest requires otherwise, before any certificate shall be revoked, facts or conduct which may warrant such action shall be called to the attention of the employer in writing and such employer shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance with all legal requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.18   Review.</HEAD>
<P>Any person aggrieved by any action of the Administrator taken pursuant to this part may, within 60 days or such additional time as the Administrator may allow, file with the Administrator a petition for review. Such review, if granted, shall be made by the Administrator. Other interested persons, to the extent it is deemed appropriate, may be afforded an opportunity to present data and views.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.19   Investigations and hearings.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may conduct an investigation, which may include a hearing, prior to taking any action pursuant to these regulations. To the extent it is deemed appropriate, the Administrator may provide an opportunity to other interested persons to present data and views. Proceedings initiated pursuant to this section are separate from those taken pursuant to FLSA section 14(c)(5) and § 525.22.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.20   Relation to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>No provision of these regulations, or of any special minimum wage certificate issued thereunder, shall excuse noncompliance with any other Federal or State law or municipal ordinance establishing higher standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.21   Lowering of wage rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employer may reduce the minimum hourly wage rate, guaranteed by a special minimum wage certificate in effect on June 1, 1986, of any worker with disabilities from June 1, 1986 until May 31, 1988, without prior authorization of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) This provision applies to those workers with disabilities who were:
</P>
<P>(1) Employed during the pay period which included June 1, 1986, even if no work was performed during that pay period; and
</P>
<P>(2) Employed under a group or individual special minimum wage certificate which specified a minimum guaranteed rate, i.e., a special certificate issued under former section 14(c) (1) or (2)(b) of FLSA.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to obtain authority to lower the wage rate of a worker with a disability to whom this provision applies to a rate below the certificate rate, the employer must submit information as prescribed under this section to the appropriate Regional Office. The burden of establishing the necessity of lowering the wage of a worker with a disability rests with the employer.
</P>
<P>(d) In reviewing a request to lower a wage rate of a worker with a disability, documented evidence of the following will be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) Any change in the worker's disabling condition which has a substantially negative impact on productive capacity;
</P>
<P>(2) Any change in the type of work being performed in the facility which would affect the productivity of the worker with a disability or which would result in the application of a lower prevailing wage rate;
</P>
<P>(3) Any change in general economic conditions in the locality in which the work is performed which results in lower prevailing wage rates.
</P>
<P>(e) A wage rate may not be lowered until authorization is obtained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.22   Employee's right to petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employee receiving a special minimum wage at a rate specified pursuant to subsection 14(c) of FLSA or the parent or guardian of such an employee may petition the Secretary to obtain a review of such special minimum wage rate. No particular form of petition is required, except that a petition must be signed by the individual, or the parent or guardian of the individual, and should contain the name and address of the employee and the name and address of the employee's employer. A petition may be filed in person or by mail with the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Room S3502, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210. The petitioner may be represented by counsel in any stage of such proceedings. Upon receipt, the petition shall be forwarded immediately to the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a petition, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall, within 10 days of the receipt of the petition by the Secretary, appoint an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) to hear the case. Upon receipt, the ALJ shall notify the employer named in the petition. The ALJ shall also notify the employee, the employer, the Administrator, and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards of the time and place of the hearing. The date of the hearing shall be not more than 30 days after the assignment of the case to the ALJ. All the parties shall be given at least eight days' notice of such hearing. Because of the time constraints imposed by the statute, requests for postponement shall be granted only sparingly and for compelling reasons.
</P>
<P>(c) Hearings held under this subpart shall be conducted, consistent with statutory time limitations, under the Department's rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings found in 29 CFR part 18. There shall be a minimum of formality in the proceeding consistent with orderly procedure. Any employer who intends to participate in the proceeding shall provide to the ALJ, and shall serve on the petitioner and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards no later than 15 days prior to the commencement of the hearing, or as soon as practical depending on when the notice of a hearing as required under paragraph (b) of this section was received, that documentary evidence pertaining to the employee or employees identified in the petition which is contained in the records required by § 525.16 (a), (b), (c) and (d). The Administrator shall be permitted to participate by counsel in the proceeding upon application.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether any special minimum wage rate is justified, the ALJ shall consider, to the extent evidence is available, the productivity of the employee or employees identified in the petition and the conditions under which such productivity was measured, and the productivity of other employees performing work of essentially the same type and quality for other employers in the same vicinity and the conditions under which much productivity was mesured. In these proceedings, the burden of proof on all matters relating to the propriety of a wage at issue shall rest with the employer.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ shall issue a decision within 30 days after the termination of the hearing and shall serve the decision on the Administrator and all interested parties in accordance with 29 CFR part 18. The decision shall contain appropriate findings and conclusions and an order. If the ALJ finds that the special minimum wage being paid or which has been paid is not justified, the order shall specify the lawful rate and the period of employment to which the rate is applicable. In the absence of evidence sufficient to support the conclusion that the proper wage should be less than the minimum wage, the ALJ shall order that the minimum wage be paid.
</P>
<P>(f) Within 15 days after the date of the decision of the ALJ, the petitioner, the Administrator, or the employer who seeks review thereof may request review by the Administrative Review Board (Board). The request must be filed in accordance with 29 CFR part 26 and must include a copy of the ALJ's decision. Any other interested party may file a reply thereto with the Board and the Administrator within 5 working days of receipt of such request for review. The request for review and reply thereto shall be transmitted by the Administrator to all interested parties by a method guaranteeing one-day delivery.
</P>
<P>(g) The decision of the ALJ shall be deemed to be final agency action 30 days after issuance thereof, unless within 30 days of the date of the decision the Board grants a request to review the decision. Where such request for review is granted, within 30 days after receipt of such request the Board shall review the record and shall either adopt the decision of the ALJ or issue exceptions. The decision of the ALJ, together with any exceptions issued by the Board, shall be deemed to be a final agency action, unless the Secretary exercises discretionary review over the decision and exceptions as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(h) Within 30 days of issuance of the decision of the ALJ, ARB, or Secretary becoming a final action, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by such action may seek judicial review pursuant to chapter 7 of title 5, United States Code. The record of the case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, shall be transmitted by the Board to the appropriate court pursuant to the rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 32928, Aug. 10, 1989, as amended at 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017; 86 FR 1786, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.23   Work activities centers.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in these regulations shall be interpreted to prevent an employer from maintaining or establishing work activities centers to provide therapeutic activities for workers with disabilities as long as the employer complies with the requirement of these regulations. Work activities centers shall include centers planned and designed to provide therapeutic activities for workers with severe disabilities affecting their productive capacity. Any establishment whose workers with disabilities are employed at special minimum wages must comply with the requirements of this part, regardless of the designation of such establishment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 525.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.17.0.89.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 525.24   Advisory Committee on Special Minimum Wages.</HEAD>
<P>The Advisory Committee on Special Minimum Wages, the members of which are appointed by the Secretary, shall advise and make recommendations to the Administrator concerning the administration and enforcement of these regulations and the need for amendments thereof and shall serve such other functions as may be desired by the Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="527" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 527 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="528" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 528—ANNULMENT OR WITHDRAWAL OF CERTIFICATES FOR THE EMPLOYMENT OF STUDENT-LEARNERS, APPRENTICES, LEARNERS, MESSENGERS, HANDICAPPED PERSONS, STUDENT-WORKERS, AND FULL-TIME STUDENTS IN AGRICULTURE OR IN RETAIL OR SERVICE ESTABLISHMENTS AT SPECIAL MINIMUM WAGE RATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 14, 52 Stat. 1068, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 214, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 528.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.19.0.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.1   Applicability of the regulations in this part.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part shall govern the annulment or withdrawal of any certificate except a temporary certificate issued pending final action on an application, issued pursuant to parts 519, 520, 521, 522, 523, 524, and 527 of this chapter, and having effect under section 14 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 3994, Apr. 26, 1962]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.19.0.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.2   Definition of terms.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the regulations contained in this part, the term:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Withdrawal</I> shall mean termination of validity of a certificate with prospective effect from the time of the action of withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annulment</I> shall mean withdrawal of a certificate with retroactive effect to the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authorized representative</I> shall mean: (1) The Assistant Regional Administrators for the Wage and Hour Division (who are authorized to redelegate this authority) within their respective regions, and (2) the Caribbean Director of the Wage and Hour Division for the area covered by the Caribbean office.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Area director</I> shall include any area director of the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secretary's Order No. 16-75, dated Nov. 25, 1975 (40 FR 55913). Employment Standards Order No. 76-2, dated Feb. 23, 1976 (41 FR 9016))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 28469, June 30, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.19.0.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.3   Withdrawal and annulment of certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An authorized representative may withdraw a certificate from any employer within that representative's region who, acting under color of any certificate or application for the employment of learners, handicapped workers, student workers, student learners, apprentices, messengers, or full-time students in agriculture, retail, or service establishments, or in institutions of higher education at subminimum wages under section 14 of the act, fails to comply with the limitations in such certificate or otherwise violates the act.
</P>
<P>(b) An authorized representative may annul a certificate affected by mistake in its issuance if the employer knowingly induced or knowingly took advantage of the mistake. Where the employer did not knowingly induce the mistake but knowingly took advantage of it, a new certificate shall be issued by the authorized representative if, and on such terms as, such certificate would have been issued had there been no mistake limited in its term from the date of issuance to the date of annulment of the annulled certificate.
</P>
<P>(c) A certificate may be withdrawn in the public interest by a representative authorized to issue such type of certificate whenever any part of the exemption it provides is no longer necessary to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment. If appropriate, a more limited replacement certificate may be issued by the authorized representative.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secretary's Order No. 16-75, dated Nov. 25, 1975 (40 FR 55913); Employment Standards Order No. 76-2, dated Feb. 23, 1976 (41 FR 9016))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 28469, June 30, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.19.0.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.4   According opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to instituting proceedings for withdrawal of a certificate under paragraph (a) of § 528.3, except in cases of willfullness, an area director shall mail a letter to the employer setting forth alleged facts or conduct which may warrant withdrawal of the certificate, and fixing a time and a place for a conference at which the employer shall be accorded an opportunity to show that no cause for withdrawal under § 528.3(a) exists or that compliance has been achieved by paying wages improperly withheld and by taking steps adequate to insure that new cause for annulment or withdrawal will not occur. By written report to the appropriate authorized representative, a copy of which shall be mailed to the employer, the area director shall concisely summarize the conference and shall include conclusions as to whether the employer demonstrated or achieved compliance. If the authorized representative is satisfied that the employer either demonstrated or achieved such compliance, no proceedings shall be instituted under § 528.3(a) for the withdrawal of the certificate.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secretary's Order No. 16-75, dated Nov. 25, 1975 (40 FR 55913), Employment Standards Order 76-2, dated Feb. 23, 1976 (41 FR 9016))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 28469, June 30, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.19.0.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.5   Proceedings for withdrawal or annulment.</HEAD>
<P>The representative authorized to withdraw or annul a certificate under § 528.3 shall institute proceedings by a letter mailed to the employer and, where appropriate, to the apprenticeship agency (in the case of apprentice certificates) or the responsible school official (in the case of student-learner certificates), setting forth alleged facts which may warrant such annulment or withdrawal and advising the employer that such an annulment or withdrawal of the scope provided in § 528.7 will take effect at a time specified unless facts are presented which convince the authorized representative that such action should not be taken. The letter shall advise such person, agency, or official of the right to respond by mail or to appear by or with counsel or by other duly qualified representative at a specified time and place. If there is no timely objection to the withdrawal or annulment thus proposed, it shall be deemed effective according to the terms of the letter instituting the annulment or withdrawal proceeding without the necessity of any further action. If objection to the annulment or withdrawal as proposed is made within the specified time the further proceedings shall be as informal as practicable commensurate with orderly dispatch and fairness. Department of Labor investigation files or reports or portions thereof may be considered in such proceedings to the extent they are made available for examination during the proceedings. If objection to the proposed annulment or withdrawal is made by such specified time, the authorized representative shall, after considering all pertinent matters presented, mail a letter to the employer and, where appropriate, to the apprenticeship agency or the responsible school official, setting out that representative's findings of specific pertinent facts and conclusions and that representative's order concerning the proposed annulment or withdrawal. In proceedings instituted for annulment, the order may provide for withdrawal instead of annulment if the proof warrants such withdrawal but fails to support adequately the annulment. Such an order shall be deemed issued and effective according to its terms when mailed.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secretary's Order No. 16-75, dated Nov. 25, 1975 (40 FR 55913); Employment Standards Order No. 76-2, dated Feb. 23, 1976 (41 FR 9016))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 28469, June 30, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.19.0.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.6   Review.</HEAD>
<P>Any employer and, when appropriate, any apprenticeship agency or responsible school official, who expressed timely objection to the proposed action prior to issuance of an order of annulment or withdrawal may obtain review, limited to the question of whether the findings of fact support the order under the regulations in this part. Application for such review shall be in writing addressed to the Administrator and mailed within 15 days after the order is issued. The Administrator may affirm, modify, or reverse the order, or may remand it for further proceedings. The order under review shall not be stayed in effect pending such review. Any aggrieved person may obtain such review of an order entered in proceedings instituted under paragraph (c) of § 528.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 5316, July 17, 1956, as amended at 22 FR 5683, July 18, 1957]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 528.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.19.0.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 528.7   Effect of order of annulment or withdrawal.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise expressly provided in such order, any order of annulment or withdrawal under paragraph (a) or (b) of § 528.3 shall be effective to terminate all certifications to which the regulations in this part apply in effect at the establishment where the cause for withdrawal arose or where the annulled certificate had effect. After such annulment or withdrawal, such employer shall be ineligible to obtain or exercise the privileges granted in such a certificate until he satisfies the issuing officer that he will not again give cause for annulment or withdrawal if a certificate is issued.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secretary's Order No. 16-75, dated Nov. 25, 1975 (40 FR 55913); Employment Standards Order No 76-2, dated Feb. 23, 1976 (41 FR 9016))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 28469, June 30, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="530" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 530—EMPLOYMENT OF HOMEWORKERS IN CERTAIN INDUSTRIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 11, 52 Stat. 1066 (29 U.S.C. 211) as amended by sec. 9, 63 Stat. 910 (29 U.S.C. 211(d)); Secretary's Order No. 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990); Pub. L. 114-74 at sec. 701, 129 Stat. 584.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The meaning of the terms person, employ, employer, employee, goods, and production, as used in this part, is the same as in the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b)<I> Administrator</I> as used in this part means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or an authorized representative of the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Industrial homeworker</I> and <I>homeworker,</I> as used in this part, mean any employee employed or suffered or permitted to perform industrial homework for an employer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Industrial homework,</I> as used in this part, means the production by any person in or about a home, apartment, tenement, or room in a residential establishment of goods for an employer who suffers or permits such production, regardless of the source (whether obtained from an employer or elsewhere) of the materials used by the homeworker in such production.
</P>
<P>(e) The women's apparel industry is defined as follows: The production of women's, misses' and juniors' dresses, washable service garments, blouses, and neckwear from woven or purchased knit fabric; women's, misses', children's and infants' underwear, nightwear, and negligees from woven fabrics; corsets and other body supporting garments from any material; other garments similar to the foregoing; and infants; and children's outerwear.
</P>
<P>(f) The jewelry manufacturing industry is defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The manufacturing, processing, or assembling, wholly or partially from any material, of jewelry, commonly or commercially so known. Jewelry as used herein includes without limitation, religious, school, college, and fraternal insignia; articles of ornament or adornment designed to be worn on apparel or carried on or about the person, including, without limitation, cigar and cigarette cases, holders, and lighters; watch cases; metal mesh bags and metal watch bracelets; and chain, mesh, and parts for use in the manufacture of any of the articles included in this definition. Jewelry as used in this part does not include pocket knives, cigar cutters, badges, emblems, military and naval insignia, belt buckles, and handbag and pocketbook frames and clasps, or commercial compacts and vanity cases, except when made from or embellished with precious metals or precious, semiprecious, synthetic or imitation stones, or the assaying, refining, and smelting of base or precious metals.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term <I>parts</I> as used in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section does not include parts which are used predominantly for products other than jewelry, such as springs, blades, and nail files. The term <I>commercial compacts and vanity cases</I> as used means compacts and vanity cases which bear the trade name or mark of a cosmetic manufacturer and are made for the purpose of distributing or advertising said cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturing, cutting, polishing, encrusting, engraving, and setting of precious, semiprecious, synthetic, and imitation stones.
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturing, drilling, and stringing of pearls, imitation pearls, and beads designed for use in the manufacture of jewelry.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>hand-fashioned jewelry</I> as used in § 530.12(b) means articles of jewelry commonly known as genuine Navajo, Pueblo, Hopi, or Zuni handmade jewelry which in all elements of design, fashioning and ornamentation are handmade by methods and with the help of only such devices as permit the maker to determine the shape and design of each individual product: <I>Provided,</I> That silver used in the making of such jewelry shall be of at least nine hundred fineness, and that turquoise and other stones used shall be genuine stones, uncolored and untreated by artificial means: <I>And provided further,</I> That power machinery is permitted in the production of findings, in the cutting and polishing of stones, in the buffing and polishing of completed products, and in incidental functions. Equipment specifically prohibited shall include hand presses, foot presses, drop hammers, and similar equipment: <I>And provided further,</I> That solder may be of less silver content than nine hundred; <I>And provided further,</I> That findings may be mechanically made of any metal by Indians or others: <I>And provided further,</I> That turquoise and other stones may be cut and polished by Indians or others without restrictions as to methods or equipment used.
</P>
<P>(g) The knitted outerwear industry is defined as follows: The knitting from any yarn or mixture of yarns and the further manufacturing, dyeing or other finishing of knitted garments, knitted garment sections, or knitted garment accessories for use as external apparel or covering which are partially or completely manufactured in the same establishment as that where the knitting process is performed; and the manufacture of bathing suits from any purchased fabric: <I>Provided,</I> That the manufacturing, dyeing or other finishing of the following shall not be included:
</P>
<P>(1) Knitted fabric, as distinguished from garment sections or garments, for sale as such.
</P>
<P>(2) Fulled suitings, coatings, topcoatings, and overcoatings.
</P>
<P>(3) Garments or garment accessories made from purchased fabric, except bathing suits.
</P>
<P>(4) Gloves or mittens.
</P>
<P>(5) Hosiery.
</P>
<P>(6) Knitted garments or garment accessories for use as underwear, sleeping wear, or negligees.
</P>
<P>(7) Fleece-lined garments made from knitted fabric containing cotton only or containing any mixture of cotton and not more than 25 percent, by weight, of wool or animal fiber other than silk.
</P>
<P>(8) Knitted shirts of cotton or any synthetic fiber or any mixture of such fibers which have been knit on machinery of 10-cut or fine: <I>Provided,</I> That this exception shall not be construed to exclude from the knitted outerwear industry and the manufacturing, dyeing, or other finishing of knitted shirts made in the same establishment as that where the knitting process is performed, if such shirts are made wholly or in part of fibers other than those specified in this clause, or if such shirts of any fiber are knit on machinery coarser than 10-cut.
</P>
<P>(h) The gloves and mittens industry is defined as follows: The production of gloves and mittens from any material or combination of materials, except athletic gloves and mittens. 
</P>
<P>(i) The button and buckle manufacturing industry is defined as follows: The manufacture of buttons, buckles, and slides, and the manufacture of blanks and parts for such articles from any material except metal, for use on apparel.
</P>
<P>(j) The handkerchief manufacturing industry is defined as follows: The manufacture of men's, women's and children's handkerchiefs, plain or ornamented, from any materials.
</P>
<P>(k) The embroideries industry is defined as follows: The production of all kinds of hand and machine-made embroideries and ornamental stitchings, including but not by way of limitation, tucking shirring, smocking, hemstitching, hand rolling, fagoting, Bonnez embroidery, appliqueing, crochet beading, hand drawing, machine drawing, rhinestone trimming, sequin trimming, spangle trimming, eyelets, passementerie, pleating, the application of rhinestones and nailheads, stamping and perforating of designs, Schifli embroidery and laces, burnt-out laces and velvets, Swiss handmachine embroidery, thread splitting, embroidery thread cutting, scallop cutting, lace cutting, lace making-up, making-up of embroidered yard goods, straight cutting of embroidery and cutting out of embroidery, embroidery trimmings, bindings (not made in textile establishments), pipings and emblems: <I>Provided,</I> That (1) the foregoing when produced or performed by a manufacturer of a garment, fabric or other article for use on such garment, fabric or other article, and (2) the manufacture of covered buttons and buckles, shall not be included.
</P>
<P>(l) As used throughout this part the terms “Secretary” or “Secretary of Labor” shall mean the Secretary of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, or his or her designee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 46 FR 50349, Oct. 9, 1981; 49 FR 22036, May 24, 1984; 53 FR 45722, Nov. 10, 1988; 61 FR 19986, May 3, 1996; 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.2   Restriction of homework.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in subpart B of this part, no work in the industries defined in paragraphs (e) through (k) of § 530.1 shall be done in or about a home, apartment, tenement, or room in a residential establishment unless a special homework certificate issued and in effect pursuant to this part has been obtained for each homeworker or unless the homeworker is so engaged under the supervision of a Sheltered Workshop, as defined in § 525.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 45722, Nov. 10, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.3   Application forms for individual homeworker certificates.</HEAD>
<P>Certificates authorizing the employment of industrial homeworkers in the industries defined in § 530.1 may be issued on the following terms and conditions upon application therefore on forms provided by the Wage and Hour Division. Such forms shall be signed by both the homeworker and the employer.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0001)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 49 FR 18294, Apr. 30, 1984; 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.4   Terms and conditions for the issuance of individual homeworker certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon application by the homeworker and the employer on forms provided by the Wage and Hour Division, certificates may be issued to the applicant employer authorizing the employment of a particular worker in industrial homework in a particular industry, provided that the application is in proper form and sets forth facts showing that the worker:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is unable to adjust to factory work because of age or physical or mental disability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is unable to leave home because the worker's presence is required to care for an invalid in the home; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Was engaged in industrial homework in the particular industry for which the certificate is applied, as such industry is defined in § 530.1, prior to: (<I>a</I>) April 4, 1942, in the button and buckle manufacturing industry; (<I>b</I>) November 2, 1942, in the embroideries industry; (<I>c</I>) April 1, 1941, in the gloves and mittens industry; (<I>d</I>) October 7, 1942, in the handkerchief manufacturing industry; (<I>e</I>) July 1, 1941, in the jewelry manufacturing industry; or (<I>f</I>) March 5, 1942, in the women's apparel industry, except that if this requirement shall result in unusual hardship to the individual homeworker it shall not be applied; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is engaged in industrial homework under the supervision of a State Vocational Rehabilitation Agency.
</P>
<P>(b) No homeworker shall perform industrial homework for more than one employer in the same industry, but homework employment in one industry shall not be a bar to the issuance of certificates for other industries.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Information collection requirements contained in paragraph (a) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0001)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 43 FR 28470, June 30, 1978; 46 FR 50349, Oct. 9, 1981; 49 FR 44270, Nov. 5, 1984; 53 FR 45722, Nov. 10, 1988; 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.5   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>An investigation may be ordered in any case to obtain additional data or facts. A medical examination of the worker or invalid may be ordered or a certification of facts concerning eligibility for the certificate by designated officers of the State or Federal Government may be required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.6   Termination of individual homeworker certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A certificate shall be valid under the terms set forth in the certificate for a period to be designated by the Administrator or his authorized representative. Application for renewal of any certificate shall be filed in the same manner as an original application under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) No effective certificate shall expire until action on an application for renewal shall have been finally determined, provided that such application has been properly executed in accordance with the requirements, and filed not less than 15 nor more than 30 days prior to the expiration date. A final determination means either the granting of or initial denial of the application for renewal of a certificate, or withdrawal of the application. A “properly executed” application is one which contains the complete information required on the form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 27 FR 7020, July 25, 1962]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.7   Revocation and cancellation of individual homeworker certificates.</HEAD>
<P>Any certificate may be revoked for cause at any time. Violation of any provision of the Fair Labor Standards Act shall be sufficient grounds for revocation of all certificates issued to an employer, in which event no certificates shall be issued to the offending employer for a period of up to one year. Before any certificate is cancelled, however, interested parties shall be notified in writing of the facts warranting such cancellation and afforded an opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance. In appropriate circumstances, the Administrator shall afford an opportunity for a hearing to resolve the disputed matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 44271, Nov. 5, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.8   Preservation of individual homeworker certificates.</HEAD>
<P>A copy of all certificates provided to the employer under this part shall be maintained for a period of at least three years after the last employment under the certificate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 44271, Nov. 5, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.9   Records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>The issuance of a certificate shall not relieve the employer of the duty of maintaining the records required in the regulations in part 516 of this chapter and failure to keep such records shall be sufficient cause for the cancellation of certificates issued to such an employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.10   Delegation of authority to grant, deny, or cancel an individual homeworker certificate.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may from time to time designate and appoint members of the Administrator's staff or State Agencies as his authorized representatives with full power and authority to grant, deny, or cancel homework certificates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 28470, June 30, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.11   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>Any person aggrieved by the action of an authorized representative of the Administrator in granting or denying a certificate may, within 15 days thereafter or within such additional time as the Administrator for cause shown may allow, file with the Administrator a petition for review of the action of such representative praying for such relief as is desired. Such petition for review, if duly filed, will be acted upon by the Administrator or an authorized representative of the Administrator who took no part in the proceeding being reviewed. All interested parties will be afforded an opportunity to present their views in support of or in opposition to the matters prayed for in the petition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.1.89.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.12   Special provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Gloves and mittens industry.</I> Any certificate issued to an industrial homeworker by the New York State Department of Labor under paragraph II of Home Work Order No. 4 Restricting Industrial Homework in the Glove Industry, dated June 28, 1941, will be given effect by the Administrator as a certificate permitting the employment of the homeworker under the terms of § 530.4 for the period during which such certificate shall continue in force.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Jewelry manufacturing industry.</I> Nothing contained in the regulations in this part shall be construed to prohibit the employment, as homeworkers, of American Indians residing on the Navajo, Pueblo, and Hopi Indian Reservations, who are engaged in producing genuine hand-fashioned jewelry on the Indian reservations mentioned, provided the employment of such homeworker is in conformity with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) That each employer of one or more Indian homeworkers engaged in making hand-fashioned jewelry on these Indian reservations shall submit in duplicate to the regional office of the Wage and Hour Division for the region in which the employer's place of business is located, on April 1, August 1, and December 1 of each year, the name and address of such employee engaged during the preceding 4-month period in making hand-fashioned jewelry on Indian reservations;
</P>
<P>(2) That each employer of one or more Indian homeworkers engaged in making hand-fashioned jewelry on these Indian reservations shall file copies of the piece rates in duplicate with the regional office of the Wage and Hour Division for the region in which the employer's place of business is located on April 1, August 1, and December 1 of each year, and
</P>
<P>(3) That each employer of one or more Indian homeworkers engaged in making hand-fashioned jewelry on these Indian reservations shall keep, maintain, and have available for inspection by the Administrator or the Administrator's authorized representative at any time, records and reports showing with respect to each of the homeworkers engaged in making hand-fashioned jewelry on these Indian reservations, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of the homeworker.
</P>
<P>(ii) Address of the homeworker.
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of birth of the homeworker, if under 19 years of age.
</P>
<P>(iv) Description of work performed.
</P>
<P>(v) Amount of cash wage payments made to the homeworker for each pay period.
</P>
<P>(vi) Date of such payment.
</P>
<P>(vii) Schedule of piece rates paid.
</P>
<FP>These records shall be kept by each employer for each of the employer's homeworkers engaged in making hand-fashioned jewelry on Indian reservations, as provided in this section, in lieu of the records required under §§ 516.2 and 516.31 of this chapter: <I>Provided, however,</I> That nothing in this section shall relieve an employer from maintaining all other records required by part 516 of this chapter.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 43 FR 28470, June 30, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Homeworker Employer Certificates</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 45722, Nov. 10, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 530.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.2.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.101   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in subpart C, a certificate may be issued to an employer authorizing the employment of homeworkers in
</P>
<P>(1) The knitted outerwear, gloves and mittens, and embroideries industries as defined in paragraphs (g), (h), and (k), respectively, at § 530.1, effective January 9, 1989;
</P>
<P>(2) In the button and buckle and handkerchief manufacturing industries as defined in paragraphs (i) and (j), respectively, of § 530.1, effective July 9, 1989; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the jewelry industry as defined in paragraph (f) of § 530.1, effective July 9, 1989, but only where the employer's homeworkers are engaged exclusively in the stringing of beads and other jewelry and the carding and packaging of jewelry. The terms “carding and packaging of jewelry” include the attaching of jewelry to cards, boxing and wrapping, and the use of common household glues available to the general public, but do not include potentially hazardous operations such as the use of industrial glues, epoxies, soldering irons, or heating elements.
</P>
<P>(b) This certificate may be issued irrespective of whether individual homeworkers meet the conditions set forth in paragraph (a) of § 530.4 of Subpart A. Unless suspended or revoked, such certificates are valid for two-year periods. Applications for renewals must be submitted no later than thirty (30) days prior to the expiration date of the current certificate. Except as provided in subpart A, in the absence of a certificate, the employment of homeworkers in these industries is prohibited, and an employer violating this prohibition is subject to all the sanctions provided in the Fair Labor Standards Act and in this part, including an injunction restraining the employment of homeworkers.
</P>
<P>(c) Certificates authorizing such employment may be issued on the following terms and conditions upon written application to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 45722, Nov. 10, 1988, as amended at 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.2.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.102   Requests for employer certificates.</HEAD>
<P>The initial request for certification or renewal application shall be signed by the employer and shall contain the name of the firm, its mailing address, the physical location of the firm's principal place of business and a description of the business operations and items produced. In addition, the initial or renewal application shall contain the names, addresses, and languages (if other than English) spoken by the homeworkers that are currently employed (if any) or expected to be employed. The employer shall also provide the Administrator, within thirty (30) days, a notice of each change of address of the principal place of business. The notification shall be in writing and addressed to the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.2.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.103   Employer assurances.</HEAD>
<P>In order to be granted a certificate authorizing the employment of industrial homeworkers, the employer must provide written assurances concerning the employment of homeworkers subject to section 11(d) of the Fair Labor Standards Act to the effect that:
</P>
<P>(a) All homeworkers shall be paid in accordance with the monetary provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) All homeworkers shall be employed in compliance with the child labor provisions contained in section 12 of the Act and regulations and orders issued pursuant to section 12. All homeworkers will be instructed not to permit minors to work in violation of such provisions.
</P>
<P>(c) Records of hours worked and wages paid shall be maintained in accordance with section 11 of the Act and part 516 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) All homeworkers shall complete homeworker handbooks in accordance with § 516.31 of part 516.
</P>
<P>(e) All homeworkers will be instructed to accurately record all hours worked, piece work information, and business-related expenses in the handbooks.
</P>
<P>(f) All records shall be made available for inspection and transcription by the Administrator or a duly authorized and designated representative, or transcription by the employer upon written request.
</P>
<P>(g) Piece rates paid to homeworkers shall be established using stop watch time studies or other work measurement methods.
</P>
<P>(h) All homeworkers shall be encouraged to cooperate with the Department in any investigation that may be made.
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to jewelry manufacturing, no operations other than the stringing of beads and other jewelry and the carding and packaging of jewelry will be performed by homeworkers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.2.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.104   Bonding or security payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where in the Administrator's judgment there is not sufficient reason to believe that the Act will be complied with or that money will be available if violations of the Act occur, the Administrator may condition issuance or renewal of a certificate to an employer upon the furnishing of a bond with a surety or sureties satisfactory to the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator shall condition issuance or reinstatement of a certificate to any employer whose application for a certificate had previously been denied, or whose certificate had been revoked, upon the furnishing of a bond.
</P>
<P>(c) Any bond required by the Administrator under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall be in an amount determined by the Administrator, up to $2500 for each homeworker to be employed by such employer under the certificate. In lieu of a bond, the employer may furnish a cash payment of equal amount, to be held in a special deposit account by the Administrator for the period during which the certificate is in effect. Such bond, or cash payment, shall be subject to payment or forfeiture, in whole or in part, upon a final determination that the employer has failed to pay minimum wages or overtime compensation to homeworkers in accordance with the Act. Any sums thus paid or forfeited to the Administrator shall be disbursed to affected homeworkers in accordance with section 16(c) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) At the Administrator's discretion, the obligation of a bond may be relieved, and any cash payment held as security in lieu thereof may be refunded (together with any interest accrued thereon), upon a subsequent determination that the employer is in compliance with the Act and that sufficient funds will be available to meet back wage payment obligations in the event of violations of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.2.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.105   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>Any employer in a restricted industry who requests certification to employ homeworkers will be investigated promptly after the issuance of the certificate by the Wage and Hour Division. Where such an employer is found to be in violation of the FLSA, and the violations are corrected and future compliance is promised, the firm will be reinvestigated to assure that full FLSA compliance has, in fact, been achieved.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Denial/Revocation of Homeworker Employer Certificates</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 45723, Nov. 10, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 530.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.3.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.201   Conflict with State law.</HEAD>
<P>No certificate will be issued pursuant to § 530.101 of subpart B above authorizing the employment of homeworkers in an industry in a State where the Governor (or authorized representative) has advised the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division in writing that the employment of homeworkers in such industry, as defined in paragraphs (f) through (k) of § 530.1, is illegal by virtue of a State labor standards or health and safety law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.202" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.3.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.202   Piece rates—work measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No certificate will be issued pursuant to § 530.101 of subpart B to an employer who pays homeworkers based on piece rates unless the employer establishes the piece rates for the different types of items produced using stop watch time studies or other work measurement methods. Documentation of the work measurements used to establish the piece rates, and the circumstances under which such measurements were conducted shall be retained for three years and made available on request to the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(b) The fact that an employer bases piece rates on work measurements which indicate that the homeworkers would receive at least the minimum wage at such piece rate(s) does not relieve the employer from the Act's requirement that <I>each</I> homeworker actually receive not less than the minimum wage for all hours worked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.203" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.3.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.203   Outstanding violations and open investigations.</HEAD>
<P>A homework certificate will not be issued or renewed by the Administrator if, within the previous three years, the Administrator has found and notified the applicant of a monetary violation of the Fair Labor Standards Act in an amount certain, or the Administrator has assessed a civil money penalty pursuant to subpart D of these regulations or part 579 of this chapter (child labor), and such amounts are unpaid, or if the applicant is the subject of a revocation proceeding at the time of the application for renewal, or the applicant is the subject of an open investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.204" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.3.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.204   Discretionary denial or revocation.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Administrator finds that the employment of homeworkers under a certificate is likely to result in violations of the Fair Labor Standards Act, the regulations issued thereunder, or the assurances required by this part, the Administrator may deny or revoke the certificate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.205" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.3.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.205   Mandatory denial or revocation.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator shall deny or revoke a certificate in accordance with the following standards and for the period specified in the standards:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Serious wage violations.</I> Upon a finding by the Administrator of a serious wage violation, a certificate shall be denied (including refusal to renew) or revoked for one year. A serious wage violation is defined as minimum wage or overtime pay violations of the Act totalling $10,000 or more with respect to homeworkers; or minimum wage violations where 10 percent or more of a certificate holder's homeworkers (but in all cases at least two homeworkers) failed to receive at least 80 percent of the minimum wage for all hours worked for 6 or more weeks in any 3 month period; or minimum wage or overtime pay violations affecting more than half of the homeworkers of the certificate holder for 6 or more weeks in any 3 month period. All other wage violations are deemed non-serious wage violations for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repeated wage violations.</I> For repeated wage violations found by the Administrator, a certificate shall be denied or revoked for one to three years, depending on the seriousness and frequency of the violations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Child labor violations.</I> Upon a finding by the Administrator of a violation of the child labor provisions of section 12 of the Fair Labor Standards Act and the regulations at part 570 of this title, a certificate shall be denied or revoked for one year. Upon a second finding by the Administrator of such a violation, the certificate shall be denied or revoked for three years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to pay back wages or civil money penalties judged owing.</I> Upon the failure of a certificate holder to pay within 60 days back wages or civil money penalties finally judged by a court, administrative law judge or other appropriate authority, as the case may be, to be owed by the certificate holder, or agreed to be paid by the certificate holder, or within such longer period as may be specified in the final order or agreement, a certificate shall be denied or revoked for up to one year or for such period as such obligation shall remain unpaid if longer than one year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to cooperate in an investigation.</I> Where the Administrator finds obstruction of or other failure to cooperate in a Wage and Hour investigation by a certificate holder which impedes the investigation, the certificate shall be denied or revoked for a period of one to three years, depending on the circumstances. For purposes of this regulation, cooperation includes providing records upon request to Wage and Hour compliance officers, identifying homeworkers of the certificate holder, and encouraging homeworkers to make themselves available in connection with an investigation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Serious recordkeeping violations.</I> Upon a finding by the Administrator that a certificate holder has engaged in a serious recordkeeping violation, the certificate may be revoked for up to one year. Upon a second finding by the Administrator of a serious recordkeeping violation, a certificate shall be denied or revoked for one to three years. A serious recordkeeping violation is defined as one where, either through errors in or omissions of required information, the name and current address of homeworkers and the data which is necessary for the accurate determination of hours worked by or wages paid to homeworkers or data necessary for the computation of wages owed to homeworkers is unavailable with respect to 10 percent or more of the homeworkers.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Deliberate misstatement in an application for a certificate or in other documents.</I> Upon a finding by the Administrator of a deliberate misstatement of a material fact in an application for a certificate, in payroll records, or in any other information submitted to the Wage and Hour Division or maintained by the employer pursuant to these regulations, the certificate shall be denied or revoked for one to three years.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Discrimination against a homeworker.</I> Upon a finding by the Administrator that a certificate holder has discharged or otherwise discriminated against a homeworker with respect to the homeworker's compensation or terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the homeworker engaged in protected activity, the certificate shall be denied or revoked for three years. Protected activity is defined as: (1) Any complaint of a violation of the Act to the employer, the Department or other appropriate authority, or (2) any action which furthers the enforcement of or compliance with the Act, such as giving information to a Wage and Hour compliance officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.206" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.3.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.206   Special circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>At the discretion of the Administrator, a certificate need not be denied or revoked pursuant to §§ 530.204 or 530.205 of this subpart if the Administrator finds all of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The certificate holder, despite the exercise of due care, did not know and did not have reason to know of the violations;
</P>
<P>(b) All back wages and civil money penalties found by the Administrator to be owing by the certificate holder have been paid; and
</P>
<P>(c) The certificate holder has taken appropriate steps to prevent recurrence of the violations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Civil Money Penalties</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 45724, Nov. 10, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 530.301" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.4.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.301   General.</HEAD>
<P>A system of civil money penalties is established to provide a remedy for any violation of the FLSA related to homework (except child labor violations, which are subject to civil money penalties pursuant to part 579 of this chapter), or for any violation of the homeworker regulations or employers' assurances pursuant to this part, which are not so serious as to warrant denial or revocation of a certificate. Accordingly, no civil money penalty will be assessed for conduct which serves as the basis of proposed denial or revocation of a certificate. (See subpart C of this part.) Civil money penalties will be assessed only against employers who are operating under a certificate or who are seeking certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.302" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.4.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.302   Amounts of civil money penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A civil money penalty, not to exceed $1,313 per affected homeworker for any one violation, may be assessed for any violation of the Act or of this part or of the assurances given in connection with the issuance of a certificate.
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of civil money penalties shall be determined per affected homeworker within the limits set forth in the following schedule, except that no penalty shall be assessed in the case of violations which are deemed to be de minimis in nature:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nature of violation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Penalty per affected homeworker
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substantial
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Repeated, intentional or knowing
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recordkeeping</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$26-264</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$264-525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$525-1,313
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monetary violations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26-264</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">264-525
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Employment of homeworkers without a certificate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">264-525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">525-1,313
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other violations of statutes, regulations or employer assurances</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26-264</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">264-525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">525-1,313</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 43450, July 1, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 5381, Jan. 18, 2017; 83 FR 13, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 218, Jan. 23, 2019; 85 FR 2298, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2969, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 2334, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2216, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1816, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1860, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.303" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.4.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.303   Considerations in determining amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining the amount of a penalty within any range, the Administrator shall take into account the presence or absence of circumstances such as the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Good faith attempts to comply with the Act or regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Extent to which the violation is under the employer's control;
</P>
<P>(3) Non-culpable ignorance of the requirements of the Act or regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) False documents or representations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Exercise of due care.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer's financial inability to meet obligations under the Act shall not constitute a mitigating or extenuating circumstance.
</P>
<P>(c) No civil money penalty shall be assessed against an employer, who applies for a certificate, solely for employing homeworkers, provided the employer is not currently under investigation by the Wage and Hour Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.304" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.4.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.304   Procedures for assessment.</HEAD>
<P>Assessment of penalties pursuant to this section, including administrative proceedings, shall be in accordance with the procedures set out in subpart E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Administrative Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 45725, Nov. 10, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 530.401" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.401   Applicability of procedures and rules.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures and rules contained herein prescribe the administrative process which will be applied with respect to a determination to deny (including refusal to renew) or revoke a certificate and to a determination to assess civil money penalties. Special rules and procedures for the emergency revocation of certificates are prescribed in § 530.412 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.402" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.402   Notice of determination.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Administrator determines to deny or revoke a certificate or determines to assess a civil money penalty, the person affected by such determination shall be notified of the determination in writing, by certified mail to the last known address. The notice required shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Set forth the determination of the Administrator, including the specific statutory or regulatory provision or assurance violated, the reasons for denying or revoking a certificate, or the amount of any civil money penalty assessment and the reason or reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) Set forth the right to request a hearing on such determination.
</P>
<P>(c) Set forth the time and method for requesting a hearing, and the procedures relating thereto, as set forth in § 530.403 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Inform any affected person or persons that in lieu of formal proceedings there is available an alternative summary proceeding under § 530.412 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) Inform any affected persons that in the absence of a timely request for a hearing the determination of the Administrator shall become final and unappealable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.403" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.403   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in the case of an emergency revocation under § 530.411 of this subpart, a request for an administrative hearing on a determination referred to in § 530.402 of this subpart shall be made in writing to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, and must be received no later than thirty (30) days after issuance of the notice referred to in § 530.402 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) No particular form is prescribed for any request for a hearing permitted by this part. However, any such request shall be typewritten or legibly written; specify the issue or issues stated in the notice of determination giving rise to such request; state the specific reason or reasons why the person requesting the hearing believes such determination is in error; be signed by the person making the request or by an authorized representative of such person; and include the address at which such person or authorized representative desires to receive further communications relating thereto. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of an emergency revocation, a request for an administrative hearing shall be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and must be received no later than 20 days after the issuance of the notice referred to in § 530.402 of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 45725, Nov. 10, 1988, as amended at 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017; 86 FR 1787, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.404" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.404   Referral to Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing, the request and a copy of the notice of administrative determination complained of, shall, by Order of Reference, be referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, for a determination in an administrative proceeding as provided herein. The notice of administrative determination and request for hearing shall, respectively, be given the effect of a complaint and answer thereto for purposes of the administrative proceedings, subject to any amendment that may be permitted under 29 CFR part 18.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.405" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.405   General.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically provided in these regulations, the “Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges” established by the Secretary at 29 CFR part 18 shall apply to administrative proceedings described in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.406" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.406   Decision and order of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Law Judge shall prepare, after completion of the hearing and closing of the record, a decision on the issues referred by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall include a statement of findings and conclusions, with reasons and basis therefor, upon each material issue presented on the record. If the Administrative Law Judge finds that the Administrator has established by a preponderance of the evidence the factual basis for the determination to deny or revoke a certificate or to assess a civil money penalty, that determination shall be affirmed. The decision shall also include an appropriate order which may affirm, deny, reverse, or modify, in whole or in part, the determination of the Administrator. The reason or reasons for such order shall be stated in the decision.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision shall be served on all parties and the Secretary. The decision when served by the Administrative Law Judge shall constitute the final order of the Department of Labor unless the Administrative Review Board, as provided for in § 530.407 of this subpart, determines to review the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 86 FR 1787, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.407" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.407   Procedures for initiating and undertaking review.</HEAD>
<P>Any party desiring review of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge may petition the Administrative Review Board to review the decision. To be effective, such petition must be received by the Secretary within 30 days of the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge. Copies of the petition shall be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge. If the Administrative Review Board does not issue a notice accepting a petition for review within 30 days after receipt of a timely filing of the petition, or within 30 days of the date of the decision if no petition has been received, the decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be deemed the final agency action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 86 FR 1787, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.408" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.408   Notice of the Secretary to review decision.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Administrative Review Board determines to review the decision and order of an Administrative Law Judge, the Secretary shall notify each party of the issue or issues raised; the form in which submission shall be made (<I>i.e.,</I> briefs, oral argument, etc.); and, the time within which such presentation shall be submitted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 86 FR 1787, Jan. 11, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.409" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.409   Decision of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrative Review Board's decision shall be served upon all parties and the Administrative Law Judge. The Administrative Review Board's decision is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1787, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.410" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.410   Special procedures.</HEAD>
<P>In a revocation proceeding pursuant to § 530.205(d) of subpart C of this part arising as a result of a certificate holder's failure to pay back wages or civil money penalties judged owing, the Administrator may file a motion for expedited decision, attaching to the notice, by affidavit or other means, evidence that a final order has been entered or agreement signed requiring respondent to pay back wages or civil money penalties and that the back wages or civil money penalties have not been paid. The respondent in the proceeding shall have 20 days in which to file a countering affidavit or other evidence. If no evidence countering the material assertions of the Administrator has been submitted within 20 days, the Administrative Law Judge shall, within 30 days thereafter, affirm the revocation or denial of the certificate. If the respondent does timely file such evidence, the Administrative Law Judge shall schedule a hearing pursuant to § 530.411(c) of this subpart and the case shall be subject to the expeditious procedures following therein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.411" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.411   Emergency certificate revocation procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Administrator determines that immediate revocation of a homework certificate is necessary to safeguard the payment of minimum wages to homeworkers, a notice of proposed emergency revocation of a certificate shall be sent to the certificate holder pursuant to § 530.402 of this subpart setting forth reasons requiring emergency revocation of the certificate.
</P>
<P>(b) If no request for a hearing pursuant to § 530.403 of this subpart is received within 20 days of the date of receipt of the notice by the certificate holder, the proposed revocation of the certificate shall become final.
</P>
<P>(c) The Office of Administrative Law Judges shall notify the parties, electronically or at their last known address, of the date, time, and place for the hearing, which shall be no more than 60 days from the date of receipt of the request for the hearing. All parties shall be given at least 5 days' notice of such hearing. No requests for postponement shall be granted except for compelling reasons.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrative Law Judge shall issue a decision pursuant to § 530.406 of this subpart within 30 days after the termination of a proceeding at which evidence was submitted. The decision shall be served on all parties and the Administrative Review Board (“Board”) and shall constitute the final order of the Department of Labor unless the Board determines to review the decision.
</P>
<P>(e) Any party desiring review of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge may petition the Secretary to review the decision of the Administrative Law Judge. To be effective, such petition must be received by the Secretary within 30 days of the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge. If the Secretary does not issue a notice accepting a petition for review within 15 days after receipt of a timely filing of the petition, or within 30 days of the date of the decision if no petition is filed, the decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be deemed the final agency action.
</P>
<P>(f) The Board's decision shall be issued within 60 days of the notice by the Board accepting the submission, and shall be served upon all parties and the Administrative Law Judge. The Board's decision is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 729, Feb. 3, 1959, as amended at 86 FR 1787, Jan. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.412" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.412   Alternative summary proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>In lieu of an administrative hearing before an Administrative Law Judge under the above procedures, an applicant or certificate holder who does not dispute the factual findings of the Administrator may, within 30 days of the date of issuance of the notice of denial, revocation, or assessment (or within 20 days in the case of a notice of emergency revocation) petition the Administrator instead to reconsider the denial or revocation of the certificate or the assessment of civil money penalties. An applicant or certificate holder electing this informal procedure may appear before the Administrator in person, make a written submission to the Administrator, or both. Such reconsideration by the Administrator shall be available only upon waiver by the applicant or certificate holder of the formal hearing procedures provided by the above regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.413" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.413   Certification of the record.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a complaint seeking review of a final decision issued pursuant to this part filed in a United States District Court, after the administrative remedies have been exhausted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly index, certify and file with the appropriate United States District Court, a full, true, and correct copy of the entire record, including the transcript of proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 530.414" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.20.5.89.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 530.414   Equal Access to Justice Act.</HEAD>
<P>Proceedings under this part are not subject to the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act. In any hearing conducted pursuant to these regulations, Administrative Law Judges shall have no power or authority to award attorney fees or other litigation expenses pursuant to the Equal Access to Justice Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="531" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 531—WAGE PAYMENTS UNDER THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT OF 1938
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 203(m) and (t), as amended by sec. 3(m), Pub. L. 75-718, 52 Stat. 1060; sec. 2, Pub. L. 87-30, 75 Stat. 65; sec. 101, sec. 602, Pub. L. 89-601, 80 Stat. 830; sec. 29(B), Pub. L. 93-259, 88 Stat. 55 sec. 3, sec. 15(c), Pub. L. 95-151, 91 Stat 1245; sec. 2105(b), Pub. L. 104-188, 110 Stat 1755; sec. 8102, Pub. L. 110-28, 121 Stat. 112; and sec. 1201, Div. S., Tit. XII, Pub. L. 115-141, 132 Stat. 348.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>32 FR 13575, Sept. 28, 1967, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Preliminary Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.1.92.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division or his authorized representative. The Secretary of Labor has delegated to the Administrator the functions vested in him under section 3(m) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.1.92.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(m) of the Act defines the term “wage” to include the “reasonable cost”, as determined by the Secretary of Labor, to an employer of furnishing any employee with board, lodging, or other facilities, if such board, lodging, or other facilities are customarily furnished by the employer to his employees. In addition, section 3(m) gives the Secretary authority to determine the “fair value.” of such facilities on the basis of average cost to the employer or to groups of employers similarly situated, on average value to groups of employees, or other appropriate measures of “fair value.” Whenever so determined and when applicable and pertinent, the “fair value” of the facilities involved shall be includable as part of “wages” instead of the actual measure of the costs of those facilities. The section provides, however, that the cost of board, lodging, or other facilities shall not be included as part of “wages” if excluded therefrom by a bona fide collective bargaining agreement. Section 3(m) also provides a method for determining the wage of a tipped employee.
</P>
<P>(b) This part 531 contains any determinations made as to the “reasonable cost” and “fair value” of board, lodging, or other facilities having general application, and describes the procedure whereby determinations having general or particular application may be made. The part also interprets generally the provisions of section 3(m) of the Act, including the term “tipped employee” as defined in section 3(t).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Determinations of “Reasonable Cost” and “Fair Value”; Effects of Collective Bargaining Agreements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.2.92.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.3   General determinations of “reasonable cost.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>reasonable cost</I> as used in section 3(m) of the Act is hereby determined to be not more than the actual cost to the employer of the board, lodging, or other facilities customarily furnished by him to his employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reasonable cost</I> does not include a profit to the employer or to any affiliated person.
</P>
<P>(c) Except whenever any determination made under § 531.4 is applicable, the “reasonable cost” to the employer of furnishing the employee with board, lodging, or other facilities (including housing) is the cost of operation and maintenance including adequate depreciation plus a reasonable allowance (not more than 5
<FR>1/2</FR> percent) for interest on the depreciated amount of capital invested by the employer: <I>Provided,</I> That if the total so computed is more than the fair rental value (or the fair price of the commodities or facilities offered for sale), the fair rental value (or the fair price of the commodities or facilities offered for sale) shall be the reasonable cost. The cost of operation and maintenance, the rate of depreciation, and the depreciated amount of capital invested by the employer shall be those arrived at under good accounting practices. As used in this paragraph, the term “good accounting practices” does not include accounting practices which have been rejected by the Internal Revenue Service for tax purposes, and the term “depreciation” includes obsolescence.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The cost of furnishing “facilities” found by the Administrator to be primarily for the benefit or convenience of the employer will not be recognized as reasonable and may not therefore be included in computing wages.
</P>
<P>(2) The following is a list of facilities found by the Administrator to be primarily for the benefit of convenience of the employer. The list is intended to be illustrative rather than exclusive: (i) Tools of the trade and other materials and services incidental to carrying on the employer's business; (ii) the cost of any construction by and for the employer; (iii) the cost of uniforms and of their laundering, where the nature of the business requires the employee to wear a uniform.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.2.92.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.4   Making determinations of “reasonable cost.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure.</I> Upon his own motion or upon the petition of any interested person, the Administrator may determine generally or particularly the “reasonable cost” to an employer of furnishing any employee with board, lodging, or other facilities, if such board, lodging, or other facilities are customarily furnished by the employer to his employees. Notice of proposed determination shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and interested persons shall be afforded an opportunity to participate through submission of written data, views, or arguments. Such notice shall indicate whether or not an opportunity will be afforded to make oral presentations. Whenever the latter opportunity is afforded, the notice shall specify the time and place of any hearing and the rules governing such proceedings. Consideration shall be given to all relevant matter presented in the adoption of any rule.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of petitions submitted by interested persons.</I> Any petition by an employee or an authorized representative of employees, an employer or group of employers, or other interested persons for a determination of “reasonable cost” shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and location of the employer's or employers' place or places of business;
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description of the board, lodging, or other facilities furnished by the employer or employers, whether or not these facilities are customarily furnished by the employer or employers, and whether or not they are alleged to constitute “wages”;
</P>
<P>(3) The charges or deductions made for the facility or facilities by the employer or employers;
</P>
<P>(4) When the actual cost of the facility or facilities is known an itemized statement of such cost to the employer or employers of the furnished facility or facilities;
</P>
<P>(5) The cash wages paid;
</P>
<P>(6) The reason or reasons for which the determination is requested, including any reason or reasons why the determinations in § 531.3 should not apply; and
</P>
<P>(7) Whether an opportunity to make an oral presentation is requested; and if it is requested, the inclusion of a summary of any expected presentation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.2.92.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.5   Making determinations of “fair value.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure.</I> The procedures governing the making of determinations of the “fair value” of board, lodging, or other facilities for defined classes of employees and in defined areas under section 3(m) of the Act shall be the same as that prescribed in § 531.4 with respect to determinations of “reasonable cost.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petitions of interested persons.</I> Any petition by an employee or an authorized representative of employees, an employer or group of employers, or other interested persons for a determination of “fair value” under section 3(m) of the Act shall contain the information required under paragraph (b) of § 531.4, and in addition, to the extent possible, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A proposed definition of the class or classes of employees involved;
</P>
<P>(2) A proposed definition of the area to which any requested determination would apply;
</P>
<P>(3) Any measure of “fair value” of the furnished facilities which may be appropriate in addition to the cost of such facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.2.92.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.6   Effects of collective bargaining agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cost of board, lodging, or other facilities shall not be included as part of the wage paid to any employee to the extent it is excluded therefrom under the terms of a bona fide collective bargaining agreement applicable to the particular employee.
</P>
<P>(b) A collective bargaining agreement shall be deemed to be “bona fide” when it is made with a labor organization which has been certified pursuant to the provision of section 7(b)(1) or 7(b)(2) of the Act by the National Labor Relations Board, or which is the certified representative of the employees under the provisions of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, or the Railway Labor Act, as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) Collective bargaining agreements made with representatives who have not been so certified will be ruled on individually upon submission to the Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.2.92.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.7   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.25   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ultimate decisions on interpretations of the Act are made by the courts (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Zachry,</I> 362 U.S. 310; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517). Court decisions supporting interpretations contained in this subpart are cited where it is believed they may be helpful. On matters which have not been determined by the courts, it is necessary for the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator to reach conclusions as to the meaning and the application of provisions of the law in order to carry out their responsibilities of administration and enforcement (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). In order that these positions may be made known to persons who may be affected by them, official interpretations are issued by the Administrator on the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, as authorized by the Secretary (Reorganization Plan 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263; Gen. Order 45A, May 24, 1950, 15 FR 3290). The Supreme Court has recognized that such interpretations of this Act “provide a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it” and “constitute a body of experience and informed judgment to which courts and litigants may properly resort for guidance.” Further, as stated by the Court: “Good administration of the Act and good judicial administration alike require that the standards of public enforcement and those for determining private rights shall be at variance only where justified by very good reasons.” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134.)
</P>
<P>(b) The interpretations of the law contained in this subpart are official interpretations of the Department of Labor with respect to the application under described circumstances of the provisions of law which they discuss. The interpretations indicate, with respect to the methods of paying the compensation required by sections 6 and 7 and the application thereto of the provisions of section 3(m) of the Act, the construction of the law which the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator believe to be correct and which will guide them in the performance of their administrative duties under the Act unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude, upon reexamination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect. Reliance may be placed upon the interpretations as provided in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act (29 U.S.C. 259) so long as they remain effective and are not modified, amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial authority to be incorrect. For discussion of section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act, see part 790 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.26" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.26   Relation to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>Various Federal, State, and local legislation requires the payment of wages in cash; prohibits or regulates the issuance of scrip, tokens, credit cards, “dope checks” or coupons; prevents or restricts payment of wages in services or facilities; controls company stores and commissaries; outlaws “kickbacks”; restrains assignment and garnishment of wages; and generally governs the calculation of wages and the frequency and manner of paying them. Where such legislation is applicable and does not contravene the requirements of the Act, nothing in the Act, the regulations, or the interpretations announced by the Administrator should be taken to override or nullify the provisions of these laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="92" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>How Payments May Be Made</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.27" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.27   Payment in cash or its equivalent required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Standing alone, sections 6 and 7 of the Act require payments of the prescribed wages, including overtime compensation, in cash or negotiable instrument payable at par. Section 3(m) provides, however, for the inclusion in the “wage” paid to any employee, under the conditions which it prescribes of the “reasonable cost,” or “fair value” as determined by the Secretary, of furnishing such employee with board, lodging, or other facilities. In addition, section 3(m) provides that a tipped employee's wages may consist in part of tips. It is section 3(m) which permits and governs the payment of wages in other than cash.
</P>
<P>(b) It should not be assumed that because the term “wage” does not appear in section 7, all overtime compensation must be paid in cash and may not be paid in board, lodging, or other facilities. There appears to be no evidence in either the statute or its legislative history which demonstrates the intention to provide one rule for the payment of the minimum wage and another rule for the payment of overtime compensation. The principles stated in paragraph (a) of this section are considered equally applicable to payment of the minimum hourly wage required by section 6 or of the wages required by the equal pay provisions of section 6(d), and to payment, when overtime is worked, of the compensation required by section 7. Thus, in determining whether he has met the minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Act, the employer may credit himself with the reasonable cost to himself of board, lodging, or other facilities customarily furnished by him to his employees when the cost of such board, lodging, or other facilities is not excluded from wages paid to such employees under the term of a bona fide collective bargaining agreement applicable to the employees. Unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the term “wage” is used in this part to designate the amount due under either section 6 or section 7 without distinction. It should be remembered, however, that the wage paid for a job, within the meaning of the equal pay provisions of section 6(d), may include remuneration for employment which is not included in the employee's regular rate of pay under section 7(e) of the act or is not allocable to compensation for hours of work required by the minimum wage provisions of section 6. Reference should be made to parts 778 and 800 of this chapter for a more detailed discussion of the applicable principles.
</P>
<P>(c) Tips may be credited or offset against the wages payable under the Act in certain circumstances, as discussed later in this subpart. See also the recordkeeping requirements contained in part 516 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.28" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.28   Restrictions applicable where payment is not in cash or its equivalent.</HEAD>
<P>It appears to have been the clear intention of Congress to protect the basic minimum wage and overtime compensation required to be paid to the employee by sections 6 and 7 of the Act from profiteering or manipulation by the employer in dealings with the employee. Section 3(m) of the Act and subpart B of this part accordingly prescribe certain limitations and safeguards which control the payment of wages in other than cash or its equivalent. (Special recordkeeping requirements must also be met. These are contained in part 516 of this chapter.) These provisions, it should be emphasized, do not prohibit payment of wages in facilities furnished either as additions to a stipulated wage or as items for which deductions from the stipulated wage will be made; they prohibit only the use of such a medium of payment to avoid the obligation imposed by sections 6 and 7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.29" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.29   Board, lodging, or other facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(m) applies to both of the following situations: (a) Where board, lodging, or other facilities are furnished in addition to a stipulated wage; and (b) where charges for board, lodging, or other facilities are deducted from a stipulated wage. The use of the word “furnishing” and the legislative history of section 3(m) clearly indicate that this section was intended to apply to all facilities furnished by the employer as compensation to the employee, regardless of whether the employer calculates charges for such facilities as additions to or deductions from wages.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.30   “Furnished” to the employee.</HEAD>
<P>The reasonable cost of board, lodging, or other facilities may be considered as part of the wage paid an employee only where customarily “furnished” to the employee. Not only must the employee receive the benefits of the facility for which he is charged, but it is essential that his acceptance of the facility be voluntary and uncoerced. See <I>Williams</I> v. <I>Atlantic Coast Line Railroad Co.</I> (E.D.N.C.). 1 W.H. Cases 289.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.31" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.31   “Customarily” furnished.</HEAD>
<P>The reasonable cost of board, lodging, or other facilities may be considered as part of the wage paid an employee only where “customarily” furnished to the employee. Where such facilities are “furnished” to the employee, it will be considered a sufficient satisfaction of this requirement if the facilities are furnished regularly by the employer to his employees or if the same or similar facilities are customarily furnished by other employees engaged in the same or similar trade, business, or occupation in the same or similar communities. See <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Alaska Pacific Consolidated Mining Co.,</I> 152 F. (2d) 812 (C.A. 9), cert. denied, 327 U.S. 803; <I>Southern Pacific Co.</I> v. <I>Joint Council</I> (C.A. 9) 7 W.H. Cases 536. Facilities furnished in violation of any Federal, State, or local law, ordinance or prohibition will not be considered facilities “customarily” furnished.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.32" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.32   “Other facilities.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) “Other facilities,” as used in this section, must be something like board or lodging. The following items have been deemed to be within the meaning of the term: Meals furnished at company restaurants or cafeterias or by hospitals, hotels, or restaurants to their employees; meals, dormitory rooms, and tuition furnished by a college to its student employees; housing furnished for dwelling purposes; general merchandise furnished at company stores and commissaries (including articles of food, clothing, and household effects); fuel (including coal, kerosene, firewood, and lumber slabs), electricity, water, and gas furnished for the noncommercial personal use of the employee; transportation furnished employees between their homes and work where the travel time does not constitute hours worked compensable under the Act and the transportation is not an incident of and necessary to the employment.
</P>
<P>(b) Shares of capital stock in an employer company, representing only a contingent proprietary right to participate in profits and losses or in the assets of the company at some future dissolution date, do not appear to be “facilities” within the meaning of the section.
</P>
<P>(c) It should also be noted that under § 531.3(d)(1), the cost of furnishing “facilities” which are primarily for the benefit or convenience of the employer will not be recognized as reasonable and may not therefore be included in computing wages. Items in addition to those set forth in § 531.3 which have been held to be primarily for the benefit or convenience of the employer and are not therefore to be considered “facilities” within the meaning of section 3(m) include: Safety caps, explosives, and miners' lamps (in the mining industry); electric power (used for commercial production in the interest of the employer); company police and guard protection; taxes and insurance on the employer's buildings which are not used for lodgings furnished to the employee; “dues” to chambers of commerce and other organizations used, for example, to repay subsidies given to the employer to locate his factory in a particular community; transportation charges where such transportation is an incident of and necessary to the employment (as in the case of maintenance-of-way employees of a railroad); charges for rental of uniforms where the nature of the business requires the employee to wear a uniform; medical services and hospitalization which the employer is bound to furnish under workmen's compensation acts, or similar Federal, State, or local law. On the other hand, meals are always regarded as primarily for the benefit and convenience of the employee. For a discussion of reimbursement for expenses such as “supper money,” “travel expenses,” etc., see § 778.217 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.33" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.33   “Reasonable cost”; “fair value.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(m) directs the Administrator to determine “the reasonable cost * * * to the employer of furnishing * * * facilities” to the employee, and in addition it authorizes him to determine “the fair value” of such facilities for defined classes of employees and in defined areas, which may be used in lieu of the actual measure of the cost of such facilities in ascertaining the “wages” paid to any employee. Subpart B contains three methods whereby an employer may ascertain whether any furnished facilities are a part of “wages” within the meaning of section 3(m): (1) An employer may calculate the “reasonable cost” of facilities in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 531.3; (2) an employer may request that a determination of “reasonable cost” be made, including a determination having particular application; and (3) an employer may request that a determination of “fair value” of the furnished facilities be made to be used in lieu of the actual measure of the cost of the furnished facilities in assessing the “wages” paid to an employee.
</P>
<P>(b) “Reasonable cost,” as determined in § 531.3 “does not include a profit to the employer or to any affiliated person.” Although the question of affiliation is one of fact, where any of the following persons operate company stores or commissaries or furnish lodging or other facilities they will normally be deemed “affiliated persons” within the meaning of the regulations: (1) A spouse, child, parent, or other close relative of the employer; (2) a partner, officer, or employee in the employer company or firm; (3) a parent, subsidiary, or otherwise closely connected corporation; and (4) an agent of the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.34" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.34   Payment in scrip or similar medium not authorized.</HEAD>
<P>Scrip, tokens, credit cards, “dope checks,” coupons, and similar devices are not proper mediums of payment under the Act. They are neither cash nor “other facilities” within the meaning of section 3(m). However, the use of such devices for the purpose of conveniently and accurately measuring wages earned or facilities furnished during a single pay period is not prohibited. Piecework earnings, for example, may be calculated by issuing tokens (representing a fixed amount of work performed) to the employee, which are redeemed at the end of the pay period for cash. The tokens do not discharge the obligation of the employer to pay wages, but they may enable him to determine the amount of cash which is due to the employee. Similarly, board, lodging, or other facilities may be furnished during the pay period in exchange for scrip or coupons issued prior to the end of the pay period. The reasonable cost of furnishing such facilities may be included as part of the wage, since payment is being made not in scrip but in facilities furnished under the requirements of section 3(m). But the employer may not credit himself with “unused scrip” or “coupons outstanding” on the pay day in determining whether he has met the requirements of the Act because such scrip or coupons have not been redeemed for cash or facilities within the pay period. Similarly, the employee cannot be charged with the loss or destruction of scrip or tokens.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.35" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.92.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.35   “Free and clear” payment; “kickbacks.”</HEAD>
<P>Whether in cash or in facilities, “wages” cannot be considered to have been paid by the employer and received by the employee unless they are paid finally and unconditionally or “free and clear.” The wage requirements of the Act will not be met where the employee “kicks-back” directly or indirectly to the employer or to another person for the employer's benefit the whole or part of the wage delivered to the employee. This is true whether the “kick-back” is made in cash or in other than cash. For example, if it is a requirement of the employer that the employee must provide tools of the trade which will be used in or are specifically required for the performance of the employer's particular work, there would be a violation of the Act in any workweek when the cost of such tools purchased by the employee cuts into the minimum or overtime wages required to be paid him under the Act. See also in this connection, § 531.32(c).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="93" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.93" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Payment Where Additions or Deductions Are Involved</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.36" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.93.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.36   Nonovertime workweeks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When no overtime is worked by the employees, section 3(m) and this part apply only to the applicable minimum wage for all hours worked. To illustrate, where an employee works 40 hours a week at a cash wage rate of at least the applicable minimum wage and is paid that amount free and clear at the end of the workweek, and in addition is furnished facilities, no consideration need be given to the question of whether such facilities meet the requirements of section 3(m) and this part, since the employee has received in cash the applicable minimum wage for all hours worked. Similarly, where an employee is employed at a rate in excess of the applicable minimum wage and during a particular workweek works 40 hours for which the employee receives at least the minimum wage free and clear, the employer having deducted from wages for facilities furnished, whether such deduction meets the requirement of section 3(m) and subpart B of this part need not be considered, since the employee is still receiving, after the deduction has been made, a cash wage of at least the minimum wage for each hour worked. Deductions for board, lodging, or other facilities may be made in nonovertime workweeks even if they reduce the cash wage below the minimum wage, provided the prices charged do not exceed the “reasonable cost” of such facilities. When such items are furnished the employee at a profit, the deductions from wages in weeks in which no overtime is worked are considered to be illegal only to the extent that the profit reduces the wage (which includes the “reasonable cost” of the facilities) below the required minimum wage. Facilities must be measured by the requirements of section 3(m) and this part to determine if the employee has received the applicable minimum wage in cash or in facilities which may be legitimately included in “wages” payable under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Deductions for articles such as tools, miners' lamps, dynamite caps, and other items which do not constitute “board, lodging, or other facilities” may likewise be made in nonovertime workweeks if the employee nevertheless received the required minimum wage in cash free and clear; but to the extent that they reduce the wages of the employee in any such workweek below the minimum required by the Act, they are illegal. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 13575, Sept. 28, 1967, as amended at 76 FR 18855, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.37" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.93.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.37   Overtime workweeks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7 requires that the employee receive compensation for overtime hours at “a rate of not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed.” When overtime is worked by an employee who receives the whole or part of his or her wage in facilities and it becomes necessary to determine the portion of wages represented by facilities, all such facilities must be measured by the requirements of section 3(m) and subpart B of this part. It is the Administrator's opinion that deductions may be made, however, on the same basis in an overtime workweek as in nonovertime workweeks (<I>see</I> § 531.36), if their purpose and effect are not to evade the overtime requirements of the Act or other law, providing the amount deducted does not exceed the amount which could be deducted if the employee had only worked the maximum number of straight-time hours during the workweek. Deductions in excess of this amount for such articles as tools or other articles which are not “facilities” within the meaning of the Act are illegal in overtime workweeks as well as in nonovertime workweeks. There is no limit on the amount which may be deducted for “board, lodging, or other facilities” in overtime workweeks (as in workweeks when no overtime is worked), provided that these deductions are made only for the “reasonable cost” of the items furnished. These principles assume a situation where bona fide deductions are made for particular items in accordance with the agreement or understanding of the parties. If the situation is solely one of refusal or failure to pay the full amount of wages required by section 7, these principles have no application. Deductions made only in overtime workweeks, or increases in the prices charged for articles or services during overtime workweeks will be scrutinized to determine whether they are manipulations to evade the overtime requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Where deductions are made from the stipulated wage of an employee, the regular rate of pay is arrived at on the basis of the stipulated wage before any deductions have been made. Where board, lodging, or other facilities are customarily furnished as additions to a cash wage, the reasonable cost of the facilities to the employer must be considered as part of the employee's regular rate of pay. <I>See Walling</I> v. <I>Alaska Pacific Consolidated Mining Co.,</I> 152 F.2d 812 (9th Cir. 1945), <I>cert. denied,</I> 327 U.S. 803.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18855, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="94" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.94" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Payments Made to Persons Other Than Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.38" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.94.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.38   Amounts deducted for taxes.</HEAD>
<P>Taxes which are assessed against the employee and which are collected by the employer and forwarded to the appropriate governmental agency may be included as “wages” although they do not technically constitute “board, lodging, or other facilities” within the meaning of section 3(m). This principle is applicable to the employee's share of social security and State unemployment insurance taxes, as well as other Federal, State, or local taxes, levies, and assessments. No deduction may be made for any tax or share of a tax which the law requires to be borne by the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.39" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.94.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.39   Payments to third persons pursuant to court order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where an employer is legally obliged, as by order of a court of competent and appropriate jurisdiction, to pay a sum for the benefit or credit of the employee to a creditor of the employee, trustee, or other third party, under garnishment, wage attachment, trustee process, or bankruptcy proceeding, deduction from wages of the actual sum so paid is not prohibited: <I>Provided,</I> That neither the employer nor any person acting in his behalf or interest derives any profit or benefit from the transaction. In such case, payment to the third person for the benefit and credit of the employee will be considered equivalent, for the purposes of the Act, to payment to the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of any individual's earnings withheld by means of any legal or equitable procedure for the payment of any debt may not exceed the restriction imposed by section 303(a), title III, Restriction on Garnishment, of the Consumer Credit Protection Act (82 Stat. 163, 164; 15 U.S.C. 1671 <I>et seq.</I>). The application of title III is discussed in part 870 of this chapter. When the payment to a third person of moneys withheld pursuant to a court order under which the withholdings exceeds that permitted by the CCPA, the excess will not be considered equivalent to payment of wages to the employee for purpose of the Fair Labor Standards Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 10757, July 2, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.40" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.3.94.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.40   Payments to employee's assignee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where an employer is directed by a voluntary assignment or order of his employee to pay a sum for the benefit of the employee to a creditor, donee, or other third party, deduction from wages of the actual sum so paid is not prohibited: <I>Provided,</I> That neither the employer nor any person acting in his behalf or interest, directly or indirectly, derives any profit or benefit from the transaction. In such case, payment to the third person for the benefit and credit of the employee will be considered equivalent, for purposes of the Act, to payment to the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) No payment by the employer to a third party will be recognized as a valid payment of compensation required under the Act where it appears that such payment was part of a plan or arrangement to evade or circumvent the requirements of section 3(m) or subpart B of this part. For the protection of both employer and employee it is suggested that full and adequate record of all assignments and orders be kept and preserved and that provisions of the applicable State law with respect to signing, sealing, witnessing, and delivery be observed.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the principles stated in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, employers have been permitted to treat as payments to employees for purposes of the Act sums paid at the employees' direction to third persons for the following purposes: Sums paid, as authorized by the employee, for the purchase in his behalf of U.S. savings stamps or U.S. savings bonds; union dues paid pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement with bona fide representatives of the employees and as permitted by law; employees' store accounts with merchants wholly independent of the employer; insurance premiums (paid to independent insurance companies where the employer is under no obligation to supply the insurance and derives, directly or indirectly, no benefit or profit from it); voluntary contributions to churches and charitable, fraternal, athletic, and social organizations, or societies from which the employer receives no profit or benefit directly or indirectly.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Tipped Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.50   Statutory provisions with respect to tipped employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to tipped employees, section 3(m)(2)(A) provides that, in determining the wage an employer is required to pay a tipped employee, the amount paid such employee by the employee's employer shall be an amount equal to—
</P>
<P>(1) The cash wage paid such employee which for purposes of such determination shall not be less than the cash wage required to be paid such an employee on August 20, 1996 [<I>i.e.,</I> $2.13]; and
</P>
<P>(2) An additional amount on account of the tips received by such employee which amount is equal to the difference between the wage specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and section 6(a)(1) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3(m)(2)(A) also provides that an employer that takes a tip credit against its minimum wage obligations to its tipped employees must inform those employees of the provisions of that subsection, and that the employees must retain all of their tips, although the employer may require those employees to participate in a tip pool with other tipped employees that customarily and regularly receive tips.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 3(m)(2)(B) provides that an employer may not keep tips received by its employees for any purposes, including allowing managers and supervisors to keep any portion of employees' tips, regardless of whether the employer takes a tip credit under section 3(m)(2)(A).
</P>
<P>(d) “Tipped employee” is defined in section 3(t) of the Act as any employee engaged in an occupation in which he or she customarily and regularly receives more than $30 a month in tips.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 86789, Dec. 30, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.51" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.51   Conditions for taking tip credits in making wage payments.</HEAD>
<P>The wage credit permitted on account of tips under section 3(m)(2)(A) may be taken only with respect to wage payments made under the Act to those employees whose occupations in the workweeks for which such payments are made are those of “tipped employees” as defined in section 3(t).  Under section 3(t), the occupation of the employee must be one “in which he customarily and regularly receives more than $30 a month in tips.” To determine whether a tip credit may be taken in paying wages to a particular employee it is necessary to know what payments constitute “tips,” whether the employee receives “more than $30 a month” in such payments in the occupation in which he is engaged, and whether in such occupation he receives these payments in such amount “customarily and regularly.” The principles applicable to a resolution of these questions are discussed in the following sections.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 13575, Sept. 28, 1967, as amended at 76 FR 18855, Apr. 5, 2011; 85 FR 86789, Dec. 30, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.52" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.52   General restrictions on an employer's use of its employees' tips.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A tip is a sum presented by a customer as a gift or gratuity in recognition of some service performed for the customer. It is to be distinguished from payment of a charge, if any, made for the service. Whether a tip is to be given, and its amount, are matters determined solely by the customer. An employer that takes a tip credit against its minimum wage obligations is prohibited from using an employee's tips for any reason other than that which is statutorily permitted in section 3(m)(2)(A): As a credit against its minimum wage obligations to the employee, or in furtherance of a tip pool limited to employees who customarily and regularly receive tips. Only tips actually received by an employee as money belonging to the employee may be counted in determining whether the person is a “tipped employee” within the meaning of the Act and in applying the provisions of section 3(m)(2)(A) which govern wage credits for tips.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3(m)(2)(B) of the Act provides that an employer may not keep tips received by its employees for any purposes, regardless of whether the employer takes a tip credit.
</P>
<P>(1) An employer may exert control over an employee's tips only to distribute tips to the employee who received them, require employees to share tips with other employees in compliance with § 531.54, or, where the employer facilitates tip pooling by collecting and redistributing employees' tips, distribute tips to employees in a tip pool in compliance with § 531.54.
</P>
<P>(2) An employer may not allow managers and supervisors to keep any portion of an employee's tips, regardless of whether the employer takes a tip credit. A manager or supervisor may keep tips that he or she receives directly from customers based on the service that he or she directly and solely provides. For purposes of section 3(m)(2)(B), the term “manager” or “supervisor” shall mean any employee whose duties match those of an executive employee as described in § 541.100(a)(2) through (4) or § 541.101 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 86789, Dec. 30, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 52986, Sept. 24, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.53" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.53   Payments which constitute tips.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to cash sums presented by customers which an employee keeps as his own, tips received by an employee include, within the meaning of the Act, amounts paid by bank check or other negotiable instrument payble at par and amounts transferred by the employer to the employee pursuant to directions from credit customers who designate amounts to be added to their bills as tips. Special gifts in forms other than money or its equivalent as above described such as theater tickets, passes, or merchandise, are not counted as tips received by the employee for purposes of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.54" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.54   Tip pooling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Monies counted as tips.</I> Where employees practice tip splitting, as where waiters give a portion of their tips to the busser, both the amounts retained by the waiters and those given the bussers are considered tips of the individuals who retain them, in applying the provisions of sections 3(m)(2)(A) and 3(t). Similarly, where an accounting is made to an employer for his or her information only or in furtherance of a pooling arrangement whereby the employer redistributes the tips to the employees upon some basis to which they have mutually agreed among themselves, the amounts received and retained by each individual as his or her own are counted as his or her tips for purposes of the Act. Section 3(m)(2)(A) does not impose a maximum contribution percentage on mandatory tip pools.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition against keeping tips</I>—(1) <I>Meaning of “keep.”</I> Section 3(m)(2)(B)'s prohibition against keeping tips applies regardless of whether an employer takes a tip credit. Section 3(m)(2)(B) expressly prohibits employers from requiring employees to share tips with managers or supervisors, as defined in § 531.52(b)(2), or employers, as defined in 29 U.S.C. 203(d). An employer does not violate section 3(m)(2)(B)'s prohibition against keeping tips if it requires employees to share tips with other employees who are eligible to receive tips.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Full and prompt distribution of tips.</I> An employer that facilitates tip pooling by collecting and redistributing employees' tips does not violate section 3(m)(2)(B)'s prohibition against keeping tips if it fully distributes any tips the employer collects no later than the regular payday for the workweek in which the tips were collected, or when the pay period covers more than a single workweek, the regular payday for the period in which the workweek ends. To the extent that it is not possible for an employer to ascertain the amount of tips that have been received or how tips should be distributed prior to processing payroll, tips must be distributed to employees as soon as practicable after the regular payday.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employers that take a section 3(m)(2)(A) tip credit.</I> When an employer takes a tip credit pursuant to section 3(m)(2)(A):
</P>
<P>(1) The employer may require an employee for whom the employer takes a tip credit to contribute tips to a tip pool only if it is limited to employees who customarily and regularly receive tips; and
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must notify its employees of any required tip pool contribution amount, may only take a tip credit for the amount of tips each employee ultimately receives, and may not retain any of the employees' tips for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>(3) An employer may not receive tips from such a tip pool and may not allow managers and supervisors to receive tips from the tip pool.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employers that do not take a section 3(m)(2)(A) tip credit.</I> An employer that pays its tipped employees the full minimum wage and does not take a tip credit may impose a tip pooling arrangement that includes dishwashers, cooks, or other employees in the establishment who are not employed in an occupation in which employees customarily and regularly receive tips. An employer may not receive tips from such a tip pool and may not allow supervisors and managers to receive tips from the tip pool.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 86789, Dec. 30, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 52986, Sept. 24, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.55" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.55   Examples of amounts not received as tips.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A compulsory charge for service, such as 15 percent of the amount of the bill, imposed on a customer by an employer's establishment, is not a tip and, even if distributed by the employer to its employees, cannot be counted as a tip received in applying the provisions of sections 3(m)(2)(A) and 3(t). Similarly, where negotiations between a hotel and a customer for banquet facilities include amounts for distribution to employees of the hotel, the amounts so distributed are not counted as tips received.
</P>
<P>(b) As stated above, service charges and other similar sums which become part of the employer's gross receipts are not tips for the purposes of the Act. Where such sums are distributed by the employer to its employees, however, they may be used in their entirety to satisfy the monetary requirements of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18856, Apr. 5, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 86750, Dec. 30, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.56" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.56   “More than $30 a month in tips.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> An employee who receives tips, within the meaning of the Act, is a “tipped employee” under the definition in section 3(t) when, in the occupation in which he is engaged, the amounts he receives as tips customarily and regularly total “more than $30 a month.” An employee employed in an occupation in which the tips he or she receives meet the minimum standard in the preceding sentence is a “tipped employee” for whom the wage credit provided by section 3(m)(2)(A) may be taken in computing the compensation due him or her under the Act for employment in such occupation, whether he or she is employed in it full time or part time. An employee employed full time or part time in an occupation in which he or she does not receive more than $30 a month in tips customarily and regularly is not a “tipped employee” within the meaning of the Act and must receive the full compensation required by the provisions of the Act in cash or allowable facilities without any deduction for tips received under the provisions of section 3(m)(2)(A).</P>
<P>(b) <I>Month.</I> The definition of tipped employee does not require that the calendar month be used in determining whether more than $30 a month is customarily and regularly received as tips. Any appropriate recurring monthly period beginning on the same day of the calendar month may be used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual tip receipts are controlling.</I> An employee must him- or herself customarily and regularly receive more than $30 a month in tips in order to qualify as a tipped employee. The fact that he or she is part of a group which has a record of receiving more than $30 a month in tips will not qualify him or her. For example, a server who is newly hired will not be considered a tipped employee merely because the other servers in the establishment receive tips in the requisite amount. For the method of applying the test in initial and terminal months of employment, <I>see</I> § 531.58.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Significance of minimum monthly tip receipts.</I> More than $30 a month in tips customarily and regularly received by the employee is a minimum standard that must be met before any wage credit for tips is determined under section 3(m)(2)(A). It does not govern or limit the determination of the appropriate amount of wage credit under section 3(m)(2)(A) that may be taken for tips under section 6(a)(1) (tip credit equals the difference between the minimum wage required by section 6(a)(1) and the cash wage paid (at least $2.13 per hour)).


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dual jobs.</I> In some situations an employee is employed in a dual job, as for example, where a maintenance man in a hotel also serves as a waiter. In such a situation the employee, if he customarily and regularly receives at least $30 a month in tips for his work as a waiter, is a tipped employee only with respect to his employment as a waiter. He is employed in two occupations, and no tip credit can be taken for his hours of employment in his occupation of maintenance man. Such a situation is distinguishable from that of a waitress who spends part of her time cleaning and setting tables, toasting bread, making coffee and occasionally washing dishes or glasses. It is likewise distinguishable from the counterman who also prepares his own short orders or who, as part of a group of countermen, takes a turn as a short order cook for the group. Such related duties in an occupation that is a tipped occupation need not by themselves be directed toward producing tips.










</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 13575, Sept. 28, 1967, as amended at 76 FR 18855, Apr. 5, 2011; 85 FR 86790, Dec. 30, 2020; 86 FR 60156, 60157, Oct. 29, 2021; 86 FR 71829, Dec. 20, 2021; 89 FR 101887, Dec. 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.57" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.57   Receiving the minimum amount “customarily and regularly.”</HEAD>
<P>The employee must receive more than $30 a month in tips “customarily and regularly” in the occupation in which he is engaged in order to qualify as a tipped employee under section 3(t). If it is known that he always receives more than the stipulated amount each month, as may be the case with many employees in occupations such as those of waiters, bellhops, taxicab drivers, barbers, or beauty operators, the employee will qualify and the tip credit provisions of section 3(m) may be applied. On the other hand, an employee who only occasionally or sporadically receives tips totaling more than $30 a month, such as at Christmas or New Years when customers may be more generous than usual, will not be deemed a tipped employee. The phrase “customarily and regularly” signifies a frequency which must be greater than occasional, but which may be less than constant. If an employee is in an occupation in which he normally and recurrently receives more than $30 a month in tips, he will be considered a tipped employee even though occasionally because of sickness, vacation, seasonal fluctuations or the like, he fails to receive more than $30 in tips in a particular month.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 13575, Sept. 28, 1967, as amended at 76 FR 18855, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.58" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.58   Initial and terminal months.</HEAD>
<P>An exception to the requirement that an employee, whether full-time, part-time, permanent or temporary, will qualify as a tipped employee only if he customarily and regularly receives more than $30 a month in tips is made in the case of initial and terminal months of employment. In such months the purpose of the provision for tipped employees would seem fulfilled if qualification as a tipped employee is based on his receipt of tips in the particular week or weeks of such month at a rate in excess of $30 a month, where the employee has worked less than a month because he started or terminated employment during the month.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 13575, Sept. 28, 1967, as amended at 76 FR 18855, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.59" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.59   The tip wage credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining compliance with the wage payment requirements of the Act, under the provisions of section 3(m)(2)(A) the amount paid to a tipped employee by an employer is increased on account of tips by an amount equal to the formula set forth in the statute (minimum wage required by section 6(a)(1) of the Act minus cash wage paid (at least $2.13)), provided that the employer satisfies all the requirements of section 3(m)(2)(A). This tip credit is in addition to any credit for board, lodging, or other facilities which may be allowable under section 3(m).
</P>
<P>(b) As indicated in § 531.51, the tip credit may be taken only for hours worked by the employee in an occupation in which the employee qualifies as a “tipped employee.” Pursuant to section 3(m)(2)(A), an employer is not eligible to take the tip credit unless it has informed its tipped employees in advance of the employer's use of the tip credit of the provisions of section 3(m)(2)(A) of the Act, <I>i.e.:</I> The amount of the cash wage that is to be paid to the tipped employee by the employer; the additional amount by which the wages of the tipped employee are increased on account of the tip credit claimed by the employer, which amount may not exceed the value of the tips actually received by the employee; that all tips received by the tipped employee must be retained by the employee except for a tip pooling arrangement limited to employees who customarily and regularly receive tips; and that the tip credit shall not apply to any employee who has not been informed of the requirements in this section. The credit allowed on account of tips may be less than that permitted by statute (minimum wage required by section 6(a)(1) minus the cash wage paid (at least $2.13)); it cannot be more. In order for the employer to claim the maximum tip credit, the employer must demonstrate that the employee received at least that amount in actual tips. If the employee received less than the maximum tip credit amount in tips, the employer is required to pay the balance so that the employee receives at least the minimum wage with the defined combination of wages and tips. With the exception of tips contributed to a tip pool limited to employees who customarily and regularly receive tips as described in § 531.54, section 3(m)(2)(A) also requires employers that take a tip credit to permit employees to retain all tips received by the employee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 86790, Dec. 30, 2020]
</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 531.60" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.21.4.95.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 531.60   Overtime payments.</HEAD>
<P>When overtime is worked by a tipped employee who is subject to the overtime pay provisions of the Act, the employee's regular rate of pay is determined by dividing the employee's total remuneration for employment (except statutory exclusions) in any workweek by the total number of hours actually worked by the employee in that workweek for which such compensation was paid. (<I>See</I> part 778 of this chapter for a detailed discussion of overtime compensation under the Act.) In accordance with section 3(m)(2)(A), a tipped employee's regular rate of pay includes the amount of tip credit taken by the employer per hour (not in excess of the minimum wage required by section 6(a)(1) minus the cash wage paid (at least $2.13)), the reasonable cost or fair value of any facilities furnished to the employee by the employer, as authorized under section 3(m) and this part, and the cash wages including commissions and certain bonuses paid by the employer. Any tips received by the employee in excess of the tip credit need not be included in the regular rate. Such tips are not payments made by the employer to the employee as remuneration for employment within the meaning of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86791, Dec. 30, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="536" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 536—AREA OF PRODUCTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 13(a)(17), 52 Stat. 1067, as amended, sec. 9, 75 Stat. 71, as amended, sec. 204(b), 80 Stat. 835; 29 U.S.C. 213(b)(14). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>27 FR 400, Jan. 13, 1962, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§§ 536.1-536.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.22.0.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 536.1-536.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 536.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.22.0.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 536.3   “Area of production” as used in section 13(b)(14) of the Fair Labor Standards Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee employed by an establishment commonly recognized as a country elevator and having not more than five employees (including such an establishment which sells products and services used in the operation of a farm) shall be regarded as employed within the “area of production,” within the meaning of section 13(b)(14) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, if the establishment by which he is employed is located in the open country or in a rural community and 95 percent of the agricultural commodities received by the establishment for storage or for market come from normal rural sources of supply within the following air-line distances from the establishment:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to grain and soybeans—50 miles;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other agricultural commodities—20 miles.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) “Open country or rural community” shall not include any city, town, or urban place of 2,500 or greater population or any area within:
</P>
<P>(i) One air-line mile of the city, town, or urban place with a population of 2,500 up to by not including 50,000, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Three air-line miles of any city, town, or urban place with a population of 50,000 up to but not including 500,000, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Five air-line miles of any city with a population of 500,000 or greater, according to the latest available United States Census.
</P>
<P>(2) The commodities shall be considered to come from “normal rural sources of supply” within the specified distances from the establishment if they are received: (i) From farms within such specified distances, or (ii) from farm assemblers or other establishments through which the commodity customarily moves, which are within such specified distances and located in the open country or in a rural community, or (iii) from farm assemblers or other establishments not located in the open country or in a rural community provided it can be demonstrated that the commodities were produced on farms within such specified distances.
</P>
<P>(3) The period for determining whether 95 percent of the commodities are received from normal rural sources of supply shall be the last preceding calendar month in which operations were carried on for two workweeks or more, except that until such time as an establishment has operated for such a calendar month the period shall be the time during which it has been in operation.
</P>
<P>(4) The percentage of commodities received from normal rural sources of supply within the specified distances shall be determined by weight, volume or other physical unit of measure, except that dollar value shall be used if different commodities received in the establishment are customarily measured in physical units that are not comparable.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 13(a) (17), 52 Stat. 1067, as amended, sec. 9, 75 Stat. 71; 29 U.S.C. 213 (a) (17))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 400, Jan. 13, 1962, as amended at 71 FR 16666, Apr. 3, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="541" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 541—DEFINING AND DELIMITING THE EXEMPTIONS FOR EXECUTIVE, ADMINISTRATIVE, PROFESSIONAL, COMPUTER AND OUTSIDE SALES EMPLOYEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 213; Public Law 101-583, 104 Stat. 2871; Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950 (3 CFR 1945-53 Comp. p. 1004); Secretary's Order No. 4-2001 (66 FR 29656).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 213; Pub. L. 101-583, 104 Stat. 2871; Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950 (3 CFR, 1945-53 Comp., p. 1004); Secretary's Order 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.1.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.0   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, provides an exemption from the Act's minimum wage and overtime requirements for any employee employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity (including any employee employed in the capacity of academic administrative personnel or teacher in elementary or secondary schools), or in the capacity of an outside sales employee, as such terms are defined and delimited from time to time by regulations of the Secretary, subject to the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act. Section 13(a)(17) of the Act provides an exemption from the minimum wage and overtime requirements for computer systems analysts, computer programmers, software engineers, and other similarly skilled computer employees.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements for these exemptions are contained in this part as follows: executive employees, subpart B; administrative employees, subpart C; professional employees, subpart D; computer employees, subpart E; outside sales employees, subpart F. Subpart G contains regulations regarding salary requirements applicable to most of the exemptions, including salary levels and the salary basis test. Subpart G also contains a provision for exempting certain highly compensated employees. Subpart H contains definitions and other miscellaneous provisions applicable to all or several of the exemptions.
</P>
<P>(c) Effective July 1, 1972, the Fair Labor Standards Act was amended to include within the protection of the equal pay provisions those employees exempt from the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions as bona fide executive, administrative, and professional employees (including any employee employed in the capacity of academic administrative personnel or teacher in elementary or secondary schools), or in the capacity of an outside sales employee under section 13(a)(1) of the Act. The equal pay provisions in section 6(d) of the Fair Labor Standards Act are administered and enforced by the United States Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.1.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.1   Terms used in regulations.</HEAD>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor. The Secretary of Labor has delegated to the Administrator the functions vested in the Secretary under sections 13(a)(1) and 13(a)(17) of the Fair Labor Standards Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.1.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.2   Job titles insufficient.</HEAD>
<P>A job title alone is insufficient to establish the exempt status of an employee. The exempt or nonexempt status of any particular employee must be determined on the basis of whether the employee's salary and duties meet the requirements of the regulations in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.1.95.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.3   Scope of the section 13(a)(1) exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The section 13(a)(1) exemptions and the regulations in this part do not apply to manual laborers or other “blue collar” workers who perform work involving repetitive operations with their hands, physical skill and energy. Such nonexempt “blue collar” employees gain the skills and knowledge required for performance of their routine manual and physical work through apprenticeships and on-the-job training, not through the prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction required for exempt learned professional employees such as medical doctors, architects and archeologists. Thus, for example, non-management production-line employees and non-management employees in maintenance, construction and similar occupations such as carpenters, electricians, mechanics, plumbers, iron workers, craftsmen, operating engineers, longshoremen, construction workers and laborers are entitled to minimum wage and overtime premium pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act, and are not exempt under the regulations in this part no matter how highly paid they might be.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The section 13(a)(1) exemptions and the regulations in this part also do not apply to police officers, detectives, deputy sheriffs, state troopers, highway patrol officers, investigators, inspectors, correctional officers, parole or probation officers, park rangers, fire fighters, paramedics, emergency medical technicians, ambulance personnel, rescue workers, hazardous materials workers and similar employees, regardless of rank or pay level, who perform work such as preventing, controlling or extinguishing fires of any type; rescuing fire, crime or accident victims; preventing or detecting crimes; conducting investigations or inspections for violations of law; performing surveillance; pursuing, restraining and apprehending suspects; detaining or supervising suspected and convicted criminals, including those on probation or parole; interviewing witnesses; interrogating and fingerprinting suspects; preparing investigative reports; or other similar work.
</P>
<P>(2) Such employees do not qualify as exempt executive employees because their primary duty is not management of the enterprise in which the employee is employed or a customarily recognized department or subdivision thereof as required under § 541.100. Thus, for example, a police officer or fire fighter whose primary duty is to investigate crimes or fight fires is not exempt under section 13(a)(1) of the Act merely because the police officer or fire fighter also directs the work of other employees in the conduct of an investigation or fighting a fire.
</P>
<P>(3) Such employees do not qualify as exempt administrative employees because their primary duty is not the performance of work directly related to the management or general business operations of the employer or the employer's customers as required under § 541.200.
</P>
<P>(4) Such employees do not qualify as exempt professionals because their primary duty is not the performance of work requiring knowledge of an advanced type in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction or the performance of work requiring invention, imagination, originality or talent in a recognized field of artistic or creative endeavor as required under § 541.300. Although some police officers, fire fighters, paramedics, emergency medical technicians and similar employees have college degrees, a specialized academic degree is not a standard prerequisite for employment in such occupations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.1.95.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.4   Other laws and collective bargaining agreements.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Act provides minimum standards that may be exceeded, but cannot be waived or reduced. Employers must comply, for example, with any Federal, State or municipal laws, regulations or ordinances establishing a higher minimum wage or lower maximum workweek than those established under the Act. Similarly, employers, on their own initiative or under a collective bargaining agreement with a labor union, are not precluded by the Act from providing a wage higher than the statutory minimum, a shorter workweek than the statutory maximum, or a higher overtime premium (double time, for example) than provided by the Act. While collective bargaining agreements cannot waive or reduce the Act's protections, nothing in the Act or the regulations in this part relieves employers from their contractual obligations under collective bargaining agreements.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Executive Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.2.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.100   General rule for executive employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “employee employed in a bona fide executive capacity” in section 13(a)(1) of the Act shall mean any employee:
</P>
<P>(1) Compensated on a salary basis pursuant to § 541.600 at a rate of not less than $684 per week (or $455 per week if employed in the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the U.S. Virgin Islands by employers other than the Federal government, or $380 per week if employed in American Samoa by employers other than the Federal government), exclusive of board, lodging or other facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Whose primary duty is management of the enterprise in which the employee is employed or of a customarily recognized department or subdivision thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) Who customarily and regularly directs the work of two or more other employees; and
</P>
<P>(4) Who has the authority to hire or fire other employees or whose suggestions and recommendations as to the hiring, firing, advancement, promotion or any other change of status of other employees are given particular weight.
</P>
<P>(b) The phrase “salary basis” is defined at § 541.602; “board, lodging or other facilities” is defined at § 541.606; “primary duty” is defined at § 541.700; and “customarily and regularly” is defined at § 541.701.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 32549, May 23, 2016; 84 FR 51306, Sept. 27, 2019; 89 FR 32971, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27835, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.2.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.101   Business owner.</HEAD>
<P>The term “employee employed in a bona fide executive capacity” in section 13(a)(1) of the Act also includes any employee who owns at least a bona fide 20-percent equity interest in the enterprise in which the employee is employed, regardless of whether the business is a corporate or other type of organization, and who is actively engaged in its management. The term “management” is defined in § 541.102. The requirements of Subpart G (salary requirements) of this part do not apply to the business owners described in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.2.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.102   Management.</HEAD>
<P>Generally, “management” includes, but is not limited to, activities such as interviewing, selecting, and training of employees; setting and adjusting their rates of pay and hours of work; directing the work of employees; maintaining production or sales records for use in supervision or control; appraising employees' productivity and efficiency for the purpose of recommending promotions or other changes in status; handling employee complaints and grievances; disciplining employees; planning the work; determining the techniques to be used; apportioning the work among the employees; determining the type of materials, supplies, machinery, equipment or tools to be used or merchandise to be bought, stocked and sold; controlling the flow and distribution of materials or merchandise and supplies; providing for the safety and security of the employees or the property; planning and controlling the budget; and monitoring or implementing legal compliance measures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.2.95.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.103   Department or subdivision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The phrase “a customarily recognized department or subdivision” is intended to distinguish between a mere collection of employees assigned from time to time to a specific job or series of jobs and a unit with permanent status and function. A customarily recognized department or subdivision must have a permanent status and a continuing function. For example, a large employer's human resources department might have subdivisions for labor relations, pensions and other benefits, equal employment opportunity, and personnel management, each of which has a permanent status and function.
</P>
<P>(b) When an enterprise has more than one establishment, the employee in charge of each establishment may be considered in charge of a recognized subdivision of the enterprise.
</P>
<P>(c) A recognized department or subdivision need not be physically within the employer's establishment and may move from place to place. The mere fact that the employee works in more than one location does not invalidate the exemption if other factors show that the employee is actually in charge of a recognized unit with a continuing function in the organization.
</P>
<P>(d) Continuity of the same subordinate personnel is not essential to the existence of a recognized unit with a continuing function. An otherwise exempt employee will not lose the exemption merely because the employee draws and supervises workers from a pool or supervises a team of workers drawn from other recognized units, if other factors are present that indicate that the employee is in charge of a recognized unit with a continuing function.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.2.95.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.104   Two or more other employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify as an exempt executive under § 541.100, the employee must customarily and regularly direct the work of two or more other employees. The phrase “two or more other employees” means two full-time employees or their equivalent. One full-time and two half-time employees, for example, are equivalent to two full-time employees. Four half-time employees are also equivalent.
</P>
<P>(b) The supervision can be distributed among two, three or more employees, but each such employee must customarily and regularly direct the work of two or more other full-time employees or the equivalent. Thus, for example, a department with five full-time nonexempt workers may have up to two exempt supervisors if each such supervisor customarily and regularly directs the work of two of those workers.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee who merely assists the manager of a particular department and supervises two or more employees only in the actual manager's absence does not meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) Hours worked by an employee cannot be credited more than once for different executives. Thus, a shared responsibility for the supervision of the same two employees in the same department does not satisfy this requirement. However, a full-time employee who works four hours for one supervisor and four hours for a different supervisor, for example, can be credited as a half-time employee for both supervisors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.2.95.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.105   Particular weight.</HEAD>
<P>To determine whether an employee's suggestions and recommendations are given “particular weight,” factors to be considered include, but are not limited to, whether it is part of the employee's job duties to make such suggestions and recommendations; the frequency with which such suggestions and recommendations are made or requested; and the frequency with which the employee's suggestions and recommendations are relied upon. Generally, an executive's suggestions and recommendations must pertain to employees whom the executive customarily and regularly directs. It does not include an occasional suggestion with regard to the change in status of a co-worker. An employee's suggestions and recommendations may still be deemed to have “particular weight” even if a higher level manager's recommendation has more importance and even if the employee does not have authority to make the ultimate decision as to the employee's change in status.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.2.95.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.106   Concurrent duties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Concurrent performance of exempt and nonexempt work does not disqualify an employee from the executive exemption if the requirements of § 541.100 are otherwise met. Whether an employee meets the requirements of § 541.100 when the employee performs concurrent duties is determined on a case-by-case basis and based on the factors set forth in § 541.700. Generally, exempt executives make the decision regarding when to perform nonexempt duties and remain responsible for the success or failure of business operations under their management while performing the nonexempt work. In contrast, the nonexempt employee generally is directed by a supervisor to perform the exempt work or performs the exempt work for defined time periods. An employee whose primary duty is ordinary production work or routine, recurrent or repetitive tasks cannot qualify for exemption as an executive.
</P>
<P>(b) For example, an assistant manager in a retail establishment may perform work such as serving customers, cooking food, stocking shelves and cleaning the establishment, but performance of such nonexempt work does not preclude the exemption if the assistant manager's primary duty is management. An assistant manager can supervise employees and serve customers at the same time without losing the exemption. An exempt employee can also simultaneously direct the work of other employees and stock shelves.
</P>
<P>(c) In contrast, a relief supervisor or working supervisor whose primary duty is performing nonexempt work on the production line in a manufacturing plant does not become exempt merely because the nonexempt production line employee occasionally has some responsibility for directing the work of other nonexempt production line employees when, for example, the exempt supervisor is unavailable. Similarly, an employee whose primary duty is to work as an electrician is not an exempt executive even if the employee also directs the work of other employees on the job site, orders parts and materials for the job, and handles requests from the prime contractor.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.3.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.200   General rule for administrative employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “employee employed in a bona fide administrative capacity” in section 13(a)(1) of the Act shall mean any employee:
</P>
<P>(1) Compensated on a salary or fee basis pursuant to § 541.600 at a rate of not less than $684 per week (or $455 per week if employed in the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the U.S. Virgin Islands by employers other than the Federal government, or $380 per week if employed in American Samoa by employers other than the Federal government), exclusive of board, lodging or other facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Whose primary duty is the performance of office or non-manual work directly related to the management or general business operations of the employer or the employer's customers; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Whose primary duty includes the exercise of discretion and independent judgment with respect to matters of significance.
</P>
<P>(b) The term “salary basis” is defined at § 541.602; “fee basis” is defined at § 541.605; “board, lodging or other facilities” is defined at § 541.606; and “primary duty” is defined at § 541.700.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 32549, May 23, 2016; 84 FR 51306, Sept. 27, 2019; 89 FR 32971, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27835, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.3.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.201   Directly related to management or general business operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify for the administrative exemption, an employee's primary duty must be the performance of work directly related to the management or general business operations of the employer or the employer's customers. The phrase “directly related to the management or general business operations” refers to the type of work performed by the employee. To meet this requirement, an employee must perform work directly related to assisting with the running or servicing of the business, as distinguished, for example, from working on a manufacturing production line or selling a product in a retail or service establishment.
</P>
<P>(b) Work directly related to management or general business operations includes, but is not limited to, work in functional areas such as tax; finance; accounting; budgeting; auditing; insurance; quality control; purchasing; procurement; advertising; marketing; research; safety and health; personnel management; human resources; employee benefits; labor relations; public relations, government relations; computer network, internet and database administration; legal and regulatory compliance; and similar activities. Some of these activities may be performed by employees who also would qualify for another exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee may qualify for the administrative exemption if the employee's primary duty is the performance of work directly related to the management or general business operations of the employer's customers. Thus, for example, employees acting as advisers or consultants to their employer's clients or customers (as tax experts or financial consultants, for example) may be exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.202" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.3.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.202   Discretion and independent judgment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify for the administrative exemption, an employee's primary duty must include the exercise of discretion and independent judgment with respect to matters of significance. In general, the exercise of discretion and independent judgment involves the comparison and the evaluation of possible courses of conduct, and acting or making a decision after the various possibilities have been considered. The term “matters of significance” refers to the level of importance or consequence of the work performed.
</P>
<P>(b) The phrase “discretion and independent judgment” must be applied in the light of all the facts involved in the particular employment situation in which the question arises. Factors to consider when determining whether an employee exercises discretion and independent judgment with respect to matters of significance include, but are not limited to: whether the employee has authority to formulate, affect, interpret, or implement management policies or operating practices; whether the employee carries out major assignments in conducting the operations of the business; whether the employee performs work that affects business operations to a substantial degree, even if the employee's assignments are related to operation of a particular segment of the business; whether the employee has authority to commit the employer in matters that have significant financial impact; whether the employee has authority to waive or deviate from established policies and procedures without prior approval; whether the employee has authority to negotiate and bind the company on significant matters; whether the employee provides consultation or expert advice to management; whether the employee is involved in planning long- or short-term business objectives; whether the employee investigates and resolves matters of significance on behalf of management; and whether the employee represents the company in handling complaints, arbitrating disputes or resolving grievances.
</P>
<P>(c) The exercise of discretion and independent judgment implies that the employee has authority to make an independent choice, free from immediate direction or supervision. However, employees can exercise discretion and independent judgment even if their decisions or recommendations are reviewed at a higher level. Thus, the term “discretion and independent judgment” does not require that the decisions made by an employee have a finality that goes with unlimited authority and a complete absence of review. The decisions made as a result of the exercise of discretion and independent judgment may consist of recommendations for action rather than the actual taking of action. The fact that an employee's decision may be subject to review and that upon occasion the decisions are revised or reversed after review does not mean that the employee is not exercising discretion and independent judgment. For example, the policies formulated by the credit manager of a large corporation may be subject to review by higher company officials who may approve or disapprove these policies. The management consultant who has made a study of the operations of a business and who has drawn a proposed change in organization may have the plan reviewed or revised by superiors before it is submitted to the client.
</P>
<P>(d) An employer's volume of business may make it necessary to employ a number of employees to perform the same or similar work. The fact that many employees perform identical work or work of the same relative importance does not mean that the work of each such employee does not involve the exercise of discretion and independent judgment with respect to matters of significance.
</P>
<P>(e) The exercise of discretion and independent judgment must be more than the use of skill in applying well-established techniques, procedures or specific standards described in manuals or other sources. <I>See also</I> § 541.704 regarding use of manuals. The exercise of discretion and independent judgment also does not include clerical or secretarial work, recording or tabulating data, or performing other mechanical, repetitive, recurrent or routine work. An employee who simply tabulates data is not exempt, even if labeled as a “statistician.”
</P>
<P>(f) An employee does not exercise discretion and independent judgment with respect to matters of significance merely because the employer will experience financial losses if the employee fails to perform the job properly. For example, a messenger who is entrusted with carrying large sums of money does not exercise discretion and independent judgment with respect to matters of significance even though serious consequences may flow from the employee's neglect. Similarly, an employee who operates very expensive equipment does not exercise discretion and independent judgment with respect to matters of significance merely because improper performance of the employee's duties may cause serious financial loss to the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.203" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.3.95.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.203   Administrative exemption examples.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Insurance claims adjusters generally meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption, whether they work for an insurance company or other type of company, if their duties include activities such as interviewing insureds, witnesses and physicians; inspecting property damage; reviewing factual information to prepare damage estimates; evaluating and making recommendations regarding coverage of claims; determining liability and total value of a claim; negotiating settlements; and making recommendations regarding litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees in the financial services industry generally meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption if their duties include work such as collecting and analyzing information regarding the customer's income, assets, investments or debts; determining which financial products best meet the customer's needs and financial circumstances; advising the customer regarding the advantages and disadvantages of different financial products; and marketing, servicing or promoting the employer's financial products. However, an employee whose primary duty is selling financial products does not qualify for the administrative exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee who leads a team of other employees assigned to complete major projects for the employer (such as purchasing, selling or closing all or part of the business, negotiating a real estate transaction or a collective bargaining agreement, or designing and implementing productivity improvements) generally meets the duties requirements for the administrative exemption, even if the employee does not have direct supervisory responsibility over the other employees on the team.
</P>
<P>(d) An executive assistant or administrative assistant to a business owner or senior executive of a large business generally meets the duties requirements for the administrative exemption if such employee, without specific instructions or prescribed procedures, has been delegated authority regarding matters of significance.
</P>
<P>(e) Human resources managers who formulate, interpret or implement employment policies and management consultants who study the operations of a business and propose changes in organization generally meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption. However, personnel clerks who “screen” applicants to obtain data regarding their minimum qualifications and fitness for employment generally do not meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption. Such personnel clerks typically will reject all applicants who do not meet minimum standards for the particular job or for employment by the company. The minimum standards are usually set by the exempt human resources manager or other company officials, and the decision to hire from the group of qualified applicants who do meet the minimum standards is similarly made by the exempt human resources manager or other company officials. Thus, when the interviewing and screening functions are performed by the human resources manager or personnel manager who makes the hiring decision or makes recommendations for hiring from the pool of qualified applicants, such duties constitute exempt work, even though routine, because this work is directly and closely related to the employee's exempt functions.
</P>
<P>(f) Purchasing agents with authority to bind the company on significant purchases generally meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption even if they must consult with top management officials when making a purchase commitment for raw materials in excess of the contemplated plant needs.
</P>
<P>(g) Ordinary inspection work generally does not meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption. Inspectors normally perform specialized work along standardized lines involving well-established techniques and procedures which may have been catalogued and described in manuals or other sources. Such inspectors rely on techniques and skills acquired by special training or experience. They have some leeway in the performance of their work but only within closely prescribed limits.
</P>
<P>(h) Employees usually called examiners or graders, such as employees that grade lumber, generally do not meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption. Such employees usually perform work involving the comparison of products with established standards which are frequently catalogued. Often, after continued reference to the written standards, or through experience, the employee acquires sufficient knowledge so that reference to written standards is unnecessary. The substitution of the employee's memory for a manual of standards does not convert the character of the work performed to exempt work requiring the exercise of discretion and independent judgment.
</P>
<P>(i) Comparison shopping performed by an employee of a retail store who merely reports to the buyer the prices at a competitor's store does not qualify for the administrative exemption. However, the buyer who evaluates such reports on competitor prices to set the employer's prices generally meets the duties requirements for the administrative exemption.
</P>
<P>(j) Public sector inspectors or investigators of various types, such as fire prevention or safety, building or construction, health or sanitation, environmental or soils specialists and similar employees, generally do not meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption because their work typically does not involve work directly related to the management or general business operations of the employer. Such employees also do not qualify for the administrative exemption because their work involves the use of skills and technical abilities in gathering factual information, applying known standards or prescribed procedures, determining which procedure to follow, or determining whether prescribed standards or criteria are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.204" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.3.95.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.204   Educational establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “employee employed in a bona fide administrative capacity” in section 13(a)(1) of the Act also includes employees:
</P>
<P>(1) Compensated on a salary or fee basis at a rate of not less than $684 per week (or $455 per week if employed in the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the U.S. Virgin Islands by employers other than the Federal government, or $380 per week if employed in American Samoa by employers other than the Federal government), exclusive of board, lodging, or other facilities; or on a salary basis which is at least equal to the entrance salary for teachers in the educational establishment by which employed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Whose primary duty is performing administrative functions directly related to academic instruction or training in an educational establishment or department or subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) The term “educational establishment” means an elementary or secondary school system, an institution of higher education or other educational institution. Sections 3(v) and 3(w) of the Act define elementary and secondary schools as those day or residential schools that provide elementary or secondary education, as determined under State law. Under the laws of most States, such education includes the curriculums in grades 1 through 12; under many it includes also the introductory programs in kindergarten. Such education in some States may also include nursery school programs in elementary education and junior college curriculums in secondary education. The term “other educational establishment” includes special schools for mentally or physically disabled or gifted children, regardless of any classification of such schools as elementary, secondary or higher. Factors relevant in determining whether post-secondary career programs are educational institutions include whether the school is licensed by a state agency responsible for the state's educational system or accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting organization for career schools. Also, for purposes of the exemption, no distinction is drawn between public and private schools, or between those operated for profit and those that are not for profit.
</P>
<P>(c) The phrase “performing administrative functions directly related to academic instruction or training” means work related to the academic operations and functions in a school rather than to administration along the lines of general business operations. Such academic administrative functions include operations directly in the field of education. Jobs relating to areas outside the educational field are not within the definition of academic administration.
</P>
<P>(1) Employees engaged in academic administrative functions include: the superintendent or other head of an elementary or secondary school system, and any assistants, responsible for administration of such matters as curriculum, quality and methods of instructing, measuring and testing the learning potential and achievement of students, establishing and maintaining academic and grading standards, and other aspects of the teaching program; the principal and any vice-principals responsible for the operation of an elementary or secondary school; department heads in institutions of higher education responsible for the administration of the mathematics department, the English department, the foreign language department, etc.; academic counselors who perform work such as administering school testing programs, assisting students with academic problems and advising students concerning degree requirements; and other employees with similar responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Jobs relating to building management and maintenance, jobs relating to the health of the students, and academic staff such as social workers, psychologists, lunch room managers or dietitians do not perform academic administrative functions. Although such work is not considered academic administration, such employees may qualify for exemption under § 541.200 or under other sections of this part, provided the requirements for such exemptions are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 32549, May 23, 2016; 84 FR 51306, Sept. 27, 2019; 89 FR 32971, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27835, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Professional Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.4.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.300   General rule for professional employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “employee employed in a bona fide professional capacity” in section 13(a)(1) of the Act shall mean any employee:
</P>
<P>(1) Compensated on a salary or fee basis pursuant to § 541.600 at a rate of not less than $684 per week (or $455 per week if employed in the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the U.S. Virgin Islands by employers other than the Federal government, or $380 per week if employed in American Samoa by employers other than the Federal government), exclusive of board, lodging or other facilities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Whose primary duty is the performance of work:
</P>
<P>(i) Requiring knowledge of an advanced type in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Requiring invention, imagination, originality or talent in a recognized field of artistic or creative endeavor.
</P>
<P>(b) The term “salary basis” is defined at § 541.602; “fee basis” is defined at § 541.605; “board, lodging or other facilities” is defined at § 541.606; and “primary duty” is defined at § 541.700.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 32549, May 23, 2016; 84 FR 51306, Sept. 27, 2019; 89 32971, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27835, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.301" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.4.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.301   Learned professionals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify for the learned professional exemption, an employee's primary duty must be the performance of work requiring advanced knowledge in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction. This primary duty test includes three elements:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee must perform work requiring advanced knowledge; 
</P>
<P>(2) The advanced knowledge must be in a field of science or learning; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The advanced knowledge must be customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction.
</P>
<P>(b) The phrase “work requiring advanced knowledge” means work which is predominantly intellectual in character, and which includes work requiring the consistent exercise of discretion and judgment, as distinguished from performance of routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical work. An employee who performs work requiring advanced knowledge generally uses the advanced knowledge to analyze, interpret or make deductions from varying facts or circumstances. Advanced knowledge cannot be attained at the high school level.
</P>
<P>(c) The phrase “field of science or learning” includes the traditional professions of law, medicine, theology, accounting, actuarial computation, engineering, architecture, teaching, various types of physical, chemical and biological sciences, pharmacy and other similar occupations that have a recognized professional status as distinguished from the mechanical arts or skilled trades where in some instances the knowledge is of a fairly advanced type, but is not in a field of science or learning.
</P>
<P>(d) The phrase “customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction” restricts the exemption to professions where specialized academic training is a standard prerequisite for entrance into the profession. The best prima facie evidence that an employee meets this requirement is possession of the appropriate academic degree. However, the word “customarily” means that the exemption is also available to employees in such professions who have substantially the same knowledge level and perform substantially the same work as the degreed employees, but who attained the advanced knowledge through a combination of work experience and intellectual instruction. Thus, for example, the learned professional exemption is available to the occasional lawyer who has not gone to law school, or the occasional chemist who is not the possessor of a degree in chemistry. However, the learned professional exemption is not available for occupations that customarily may be performed with only the general knowledge acquired by an academic degree in any field, with knowledge acquired through an apprenticeship, or with training in the performance of routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical processes. The learned professional exemption also does not apply to occupations in which most employees have acquired their skill by experience rather than by advanced specialized intellectual instruction.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Registered or certified medical technologists.</I> Registered or certified medical technologists who have successfully completed three academic years of pre-professional study in an accredited college or university plus a fourth year of professional course work in a school of medical technology approved by the Council of Medical Education of the American Medical Association generally meet the duties requirements for the learned professional exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nurses.</I> Registered nurses who are registered by the appropriate State examining board generally meet the duties requirements for the learned professional exemption. Licensed practical nurses and other similar health care employees, however, generally do not qualify as exempt learned professionals because possession of a specialized advanced academic degree is not a standard prerequisite for entry into such occupations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dental hygienists.</I> Dental hygienists who have successfully completed four academic years of pre-professional and professional study in an accredited college or university approved by the Commission on Accreditation of Dental and Dental Auxiliary Educational Programs of the American Dental Association generally meet the duties requirements for the learned professional exemption.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Physician assistants.</I> Physician assistants who have successfully completed four academic years of pre-professional and professional study, including graduation from a physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant, and who are certified by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants generally meet the duties requirements for the learned professional exemption.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Accountants.</I> Certified public accountants generally meet the duties requirements for the learned professional exemption. In addition, many other accountants who are not certified public accountants but perform similar job duties may qualify as exempt learned professionals. However, accounting clerks, bookkeepers and other employees who normally perform a great deal of routine work generally will not qualify as exempt professionals.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Chefs.</I> Chefs, such as executive chefs and sous chefs, who have attained a four-year specialized academic degree in a culinary arts program, generally meet the duties requirements for the learned professional exemption. The learned professional exemption is not available to cooks who perform predominantly routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical work.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Paralegals.</I> Paralegals and legal assistants generally do not qualify as exempt learned professionals because an advanced specialized academic degree is not a standard prerequisite for entry into the field. Although many paralegals possess general four-year advanced degrees, most specialized paralegal programs are two-year associate degree programs from a community college or equivalent institution. However, the learned professional exemption is available for paralegals who possess advanced specialized degrees in other professional fields and apply advanced knowledge in that field in the performance of their duties. For example, if a law firm hires an engineer as a paralegal to provide expert advice on product liability cases or to assist on patent matters, that engineer would qualify for exemption.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Athletic trainers.</I> Athletic trainers who have successfully completed four academic years of pre-professional and professional study in a specialized curriculum accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs and who are certified by the Board of Certification of the National Athletic Trainers Association Board of Certification generally meet the duties requirements for the learned professional exemption.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Funeral directors or embalmers.</I> Licensed funeral directors and embalmers who are licensed by and working in a state that requires successful completion of four academic years of pre-professional and professional study, including graduation from a college of mortuary science accredited by the American Board of Funeral Service Education, generally meet the duties requirements for the learned professional exemption.
</P>
<P>(f) The areas in which the professional exemption may be available are expanding. As knowledge is developed, academic training is broadened and specialized degrees are offered in new and diverse fields, thus creating new specialists in particular fields of science or learning. When an advanced specialized degree has become a standard requirement for a particular occupation, that occupation may have acquired the characteristics of a learned profession. Accrediting and certifying organizations similar to those listed in paragraphs (e)(1), (e)(3), (e)(4), (e)(8) and (e)(9) of this section also may be created in the future. Such organizations may develop similar specialized curriculums and certification programs which, if a standard requirement for a particular occupation, may indicate that the occupation has acquired the characteristics of a learned profession.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.302" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.4.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.302   Creative professionals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify for the creative professional exemption, an employee's primary duty must be the performance of work requiring invention, imagination, originality or talent in a recognized field of artistic or creative endeavor as opposed to routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical work. The exemption does not apply to work which can be produced by a person with general manual or intellectual ability and training.
</P>
<P>(b) To qualify for exemption as a creative professional, the work performed must be “in a recognized field of artistic or creative endeavor.” This includes such fields as music, writing, acting and the graphic arts.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirement of “invention, imagination, originality or talent” distinguishes the creative professions from work that primarily depends on intelligence, diligence and accuracy. The duties of employees vary widely, and exemption as a creative professional depends on the extent of the invention, imagination, originality or talent exercised by the employee. Determination of exempt creative professional status, therefore, must be made on a case-by-case basis. This requirement generally is met by actors, musicians, composers, conductors, and soloists; painters who at most are given the subject matter of their painting; cartoonists who are merely told the title or underlying concept of a cartoon and must rely on their own creative ability to express the concept; essayists, novelists, short-story writers and screen-play writers who choose their own subjects and hand in a finished piece of work to their employers (the majority of such persons are, of course, not employees but self-employed); and persons holding the more responsible writing positions in advertising agencies. This requirement generally is not met by a person who is employed as a copyist, as an “animator” of motion-picture cartoons, or as a retoucher of photographs, since such work is not properly described as creative in character.
</P>
<P>(d) Journalists may satisfy the duties requirements for the creative professional exemption if their primary duty is work requiring invention, imagination, originality or talent, as opposed to work which depends primarily on intelligence, diligence and accuracy. Employees of newspapers, magazines, television and other media are not exempt creative professionals if they only collect, organize and record information that is routine or already public, or if they do not contribute a unique interpretation or analysis to a news product. Thus, for example, newspaper reporters who merely rewrite press releases or who write standard recounts of public information by gathering facts on routine community events are not exempt creative professionals. Reporters also do not qualify as exempt creative professionals if their work product is subject to substantial control by the employer. However, journalists may qualify as exempt creative professionals if their primary duty is performing on the air in radio, television or other electronic media; conducting investigative interviews; analyzing or interpreting public events; writing editorials, opinion columns or other commentary; or acting as a narrator or commentator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.303" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.4.95.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.303   Teachers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “employee employed in a bona fide professional capacity” in section 13(a)(1) of the Act also means any employee with a primary duty of teaching, tutoring, instructing or lecturing in the activity of imparting knowledge and who is employed and engaged in this activity as a teacher in an educational establishment by which the employee is employed. The term “educational establishment” is defined in § 541.204(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Exempt teachers include, but are not limited to: Regular academic teachers; teachers of kindergarten or nursery school pupils; teachers of gifted or disabled children; teachers of skilled and semi-skilled trades and occupations; teachers engaged in automobile driving instruction; aircraft flight instructors; home economics teachers; and vocal or instrumental music instructors. Those faculty members who are engaged as teachers but also spend a considerable amount of their time in extracurricular activities such as coaching athletic teams or acting as moderators or advisors in such areas as drama, speech, debate or journalism are engaged in teaching. Such activities are a recognized part of the schools' responsibility in contributing to the educational development of the student.
</P>
<P>(c) The possession of an elementary or secondary teacher's certificate provides a clear means of identifying the individuals contemplated as being within the scope of the exemption for teaching professionals. Teachers who possess a teaching certificate qualify for the exemption regardless of the terminology (e.g., permanent, conditional, standard, provisional, temporary, emergency, or unlimited) used by the State to refer to different kinds of certificates. However, private schools and public schools are not uniform in requiring a certificate for employment as an elementary or secondary school teacher, and a teacher's certificate is not generally necessary for employment in institutions of higher education or other educational establishments. Therefore, a teacher who is not certified may be considered for exemption, provided that such individual is employed as a teacher by the employing school or school system.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of § 541.300 and Subpart G (salary requirements) of this part do not apply to the teaching professionals described in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.304" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.4.95.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.304   Practice of law or medicine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “employee employed in a bona fide professional capacity” in section 13(a)(1) of the Act also shall mean:
</P>
<P>(1) Any employee who is the holder of a valid license or certificate permitting the practice of law or medicine or any of their branches and is actually engaged in the practice thereof; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any employee who is the holder of the requisite academic degree for the general practice of medicine and is engaged in an internship or resident program pursuant to the practice of the profession.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of medicine, the exemption applies to physicians and other practitioners licensed and practicing in the field of medical science and healing or any of the medical specialties practiced by physicians or practitioners. The term “physicians” includes medical doctors including general practitioners and specialists, osteopathic physicians (doctors of osteopathy), podiatrists, dentists (doctors of dental medicine), and optometrists (doctors of optometry or bachelors of science in optometry).
</P>
<P>(c) Employees engaged in internship or resident programs, whether or not licensed to practice prior to commencement of the program, qualify as exempt professionals if they enter such internship or resident programs after the earning of the appropriate degree required for the general practice of their profession.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of § 541.300 and subpart G (salary requirements) of this part do not apply to the employees described in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Computer Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.400" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.5.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.400   General rule for computer employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Computer systems analysts, computer programmers, software engineers or other similarly skilled workers in the computer field are eligible for exemption as professionals under section 13(a)(1) of the Act and under section 13(a)(17) of the Act. Because job titles vary widely and change quickly in the computer industry, job titles are not determinative of the applicability of this exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) The section 13(a)(1) exemption applies to any computer employee who is compensated on a salary or fee basis at a rate of not less than $684 per week (or $455 per week if employed in the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the U.S. Virgin Islands by employers other than the Federal government, or $380 per week if employed in American Samoa by employers other than the Federal government), exclusive of board, lodging, or other facilities. The section 13(a)(17) exemption applies to any computer employee compensated on an hourly basis at a rate of not less than $27.63 an hour. In addition, under either section 13(a)(1) or section 13(a)(17) of the Act, the exemptions apply only to computer employees whose primary duty consists of:
</P>
<P>(1) The application of systems analysis techniques and procedures, including consulting with users, to determine hardware, software or system functional specifications;
</P>
<P>(2) The design, development, documentation, analysis, creation, testing or modification of computer systems or programs, including prototypes, based on and related to user or system design specifications;
</P>
<P>(3) The design, documentation, testing, creation or modification of computer programs related to machine operating systems; or
</P>
<P>(4) A combination of the aforementioned duties, the performance of which requires the same level of skills.
</P>
<P>(c) The term “salary basis” is defined at § 541.602; “fee basis” is defined at § 541.605; “board, lodging or other facilities” is defined at § 541.606; and “primary duty” is defined at § 541.700.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 32550, May 23, 2016; 84 FR 51306, Sept. 27, 2019; 89 FR 32971, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27835, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.401" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.5.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.401   Computer manufacture and repair.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption for employees in computer occupations does not include employees engaged in the manufacture or repair of computer hardware and related equipment. Employees whose work is highly dependent upon, or facilitated by, the use of computers and computer software programs (e.g., engineers, drafters and others skilled in computer-aided design software), but who are not primarily engaged in computer systems analysis and programming or other similarly skilled computer-related occupations identified in § 541.400(b), are also not exempt computer professionals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.402" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.5.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.402   Executive and administrative computer employees.</HEAD>
<P>Computer employees within the scope of this exemption, as well as those employees not within its scope, may also have executive and administrative duties which qualify the employees for exemption under subpart B or subpart C of this part. For example, systems analysts and computer programmers generally meet the duties requirements for the administrative exemption if their primary duty includes work such as planning, scheduling, and coordinating activities required to develop systems to solve complex business, scientific or engineering problems of the employer or the employer's customers. Similarly, a senior or lead computer programmer who manages the work of two or more other programmers in a customarily recognized department or subdivision of the employer, and whose recommendations as to the hiring, firing, advancement, promotion or other change of status of the other programmers are given particular weight, generally meets the duties requirements for the executive exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Outside Sales Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.500" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.6.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.500   General rule for outside sales employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “employee employed in the capacity of outside salesman” in section 13(a)(1) of the Act shall mean any employee:
</P>
<P>(1) Whose primary duty is:
</P>
<P>(i) making sales within the meaning of section 3(k) of the Act, or
</P>
<P>(ii) obtaining orders or contracts for services or for the use of facilities for which a consideration will be paid by the client or customer; and
</P>
<P>(2) Who is customarily and regularly engaged away from the employer's place or places of business in performing such primary duty.
</P>
<P>(b) The term “primary duty” is defined at § 541.700. In determining the primary duty of an outside sales employee, work performed incidental to and in conjunction with the employee's own outside sales or solicitations, including incidental deliveries and collections, shall be regarded as exempt outside sales work. Other work that furthers the employee's sales efforts also shall be regarded as exempt work including, for example, writing sales reports, updating or revising the employee's sales or display catalogue, planning itineraries and attending sales conferences.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of subpart G (salary requirements) of this part do not apply to the outside sales employees described in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.501" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.6.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.501   Making sales or obtaining orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 541.500 requires that the employee be engaged in:
</P>
<P>(1) Making sales within the meaning of section 3(k) of the Act, or
</P>
<P>(2) Obtaining orders or contracts for services or for the use of facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Sales within the meaning of section 3(k) of the Act include the transfer of title to tangible property, and in certain cases, of tangible and valuable evidences of intangible property. Section 3(k) of the Act states that “sale” or “sell” includes any sale, exchange, contract to sell, consignment for sale, shipment for sale, or other disposition.
</P>
<P>(c) Exempt outside sales work includes not only the sales of commodities, but also “obtaining orders or contracts for services or for the use of facilities for which a consideration will be paid by the client or customer.” Obtaining orders for “the use of facilities” includes the selling of time on radio or television, the solicitation of advertising for newspapers and other periodicals, and the solicitation of freight for railroads and other transportation agencies.
</P>
<P>(d) The word “services” extends the outside sales exemption to employees who sell or take orders for a service, which may be performed for the customer by someone other than the person taking the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.502" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.6.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.502   Away from employer's place of business.</HEAD>
<P>An outside sales employee must be customarily and regularly engaged “away from the employer's place or places of business.” The outside sales employee is an employee who makes sales at the customer's place of business or, if selling door-to-door, at the customer's home. Outside sales does not include sales made by mail, telephone or the Internet unless such contact is used merely as an adjunct to personal calls. Thus, any fixed site, whether home or office, used by a salesperson as a headquarters or for telephonic solicitation of sales is considered one of the employer's places of business, even though the employer is not in any formal sense the owner or tenant of the property. However, an outside sales employee does not lose the exemption by displaying samples in hotel sample rooms during trips from city to city; these sample rooms should not be considered as the employer's places of business. Similarly, an outside sales employee does not lose the exemption by displaying the employer's products at a trade show. If selling actually occurs, rather than just sales promotion, trade shows of short duration (<I>i.e.,</I> one or two weeks) should not be considered as the employer's place of business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.503" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.6.95.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.503   Promotion work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Promotion work is one type of activity often performed by persons who make sales, which may or may not be exempt outside sales work, depending upon the circumstances under which it is performed. Promotional work that is actually performed incidental to and in conjunction with an employee's own outside sales or solicitations is exempt work. On the other hand, promotional work that is incidental to sales made, or to be made, by someone else is not exempt outside sales work. An employee who does not satisfy the requirements of this subpart may still qualify as an exempt employee under other subparts of this rule.
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer's representative, for example, may perform various types of promotional activities such as putting up displays and posters, removing damaged or spoiled stock from the merchant's shelves or rearranging the merchandise. Such an employee can be considered an exempt outside sales employee if the employee's primary duty is making sales or contracts. Promotion activities directed toward consummation of the employee's own sales are exempt. Promotional activities designed to stimulate sales that will be made by someone else are not exempt outside sales work.
</P>
<P>(c) Another example is a company representative who visits chain stores, arranges the merchandise on shelves, replenishes stock by replacing old with new merchandise, sets up displays and consults with the store manager when inventory runs low, but does not obtain a commitment for additional purchases. The arrangement of merchandise on the shelves or the replenishing of stock is not exempt work unless it is incidental to and in conjunction with the employee's own outside sales. Because the employee in this instance does not consummate the sale nor direct efforts toward the consummation of a sale, the work is not exempt outside sales work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.504" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.6.95.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.504   Drivers who sell.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drivers who deliver products and also sell such products may qualify as exempt outside sales employees only if the employee has a primary duty of making sales. In determining the primary duty of drivers who sell, work performed incidental to and in conjunction with the employee's own outside sales or solicitations, including loading, driving or delivering products, shall be regarded as exempt outside sales work.
</P>
<P>(b) Several factors should be considered in determining if a driver has a primary duty of making sales, including, but not limited to: a comparison of the driver's duties with those of other employees engaged as truck drivers and as salespersons; possession of a selling or solicitor's license when such license is required by law or ordinances; presence or absence of customary or contractual arrangements concerning amounts of products to be delivered; description of the employee's occupation in collective bargaining agreements; the employer's specifications as to qualifications for hiring; sales training; attendance at sales conferences; method of payment; and proportion of earnings directly attributable to sales.
</P>
<P>(c) Drivers who may qualify as exempt outside sales employees include:
</P>
<P>(1) A driver who provides the only sales contact between the employer and the customers visited, who calls on customers and takes orders for products, who delivers products from stock in the employee's vehicle or procures and delivers the product to the customer on a later trip, and who receives compensation commensurate with the volume of products sold.
</P>
<P>(2) A driver who obtains or solicits orders for the employer's products from persons who have authority to commit the customer for purchases.
</P>
<P>(3) A driver who calls on new prospects for customers along the employee's route and attempts to convince them of the desirability of accepting regular delivery of goods.
</P>
<P>(4) A driver who calls on established customers along the route and persuades regular customers to accept delivery of increased amounts of goods or of new products, even though the initial sale or agreement for delivery was made by someone else.
</P>
<P>(d) Drivers who generally would not qualify as exempt outside sales employees include:
</P>
<P>(1) A route driver whose primary duty is to transport products sold by the employer through vending machines and to keep such machines stocked, in good operating condition, and in good locations.
</P>
<P>(2) A driver who often calls on established customers day after day or week after week, delivering a quantity of the employer's products at each call when the sale was not significantly affected by solicitations of the customer by the delivering driver or the amount of the sale is determined by the volume of the customer's sales since the previous delivery.
</P>
<P>(3) A driver primarily engaged in making deliveries to customers and performing activities intended to promote sales by customers (including placing point-of-sale and other advertising materials, price stamping commodities, arranging merchandise on shelves, in coolers or in cabinets, rotating stock according to date, and cleaning and otherwise servicing display cases), unless such work is in furtherance of the driver's own sales efforts.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Salary Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.600" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.600   Amount of salary required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify as an exempt executive, administrative or professional employee under section 13(a)(1) of the Act, an employee must be compensated on a salary basis at a rate of not less than $684 per week (or $455 per week if employed in the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the U.S. Virgin Islands by employers other than the Federal Government, or $380 per week if employed in American Samoa by employers other than the Federal Government), exclusive of board, lodging or other facilities. Administrative and professional employees may also be paid on a fee basis, as defined in § 541.605.
</P>
<P>(b) The required amount of compensation per week may be translated into equivalent amounts for periods longer than one week. For example, the $684-per-week requirement will be met if the employee is compensated biweekly on a salary basis of not less than $1,368, semimonthly on a salary basis of not less than $1,482, or monthly on a salary basis of not less than $2,964. However, the shortest period of payment that will meet this compensation requirement is one week.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of academic administrative employees, the compensation requirement also may be met by compensation on a salary basis at a rate at least equal to the entrance salary for teachers in the educational establishment by which the employee is employed, as provided in § 541.204(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of computer employees, the compensation requirement also may be met by compensation on an hourly basis at a rate not less than $27.63 an hour, as provided in § 541.400(b).
</P>
<P>(e) In the case of professional employees, the compensation requirements in this section shall not apply to employees engaged as teachers (<I>see</I> § 541.303); employees who hold a valid license or certificate permitting the practice of law or medicine or any of their branches and are actually engaged in the practice thereof (<I>see</I> § 541.304); or to employees who hold the requisite academic degree for the general practice of medicine and are engaged in an internship or resident program pursuant to the practice of the profession (<I>see</I> § 541.304). In the case of medical occupations, the exception from the salary or fee requirement does not apply to pharmacists, nurses, therapists, technologists, sanitarians, dietitians, social workers, psychologists, psychometrists, or other professions which service the medical profession.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 27835, May 15, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.601" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.601   Highly compensated employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Beginning on January 1, 2020, an employee with total annual compensation of at least $107,432 is deemed exempt under section 13(a)(1) of the Act if the employee customarily and regularly performs any one or more of the exempt duties or responsibilities of an executive, administrative or professional employee as identified in subparts B, C or D of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the annual period covers periods both prior to and after January 1, 2020, the amount of total annual compensation due will be determined on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) “Total annual compensation” must include at least $684 per week paid on a salary or fee basis as set forth in §§ 541.602 and 541.605, except that § 541.602(a)(3) shall not apply to highly compensated employees. Total annual compensation may also include commissions, nondiscretionary bonuses and other nondiscretionary compensation earned during a 52-week period. Total annual compensation does not include board, lodging and other facilities as defined in § 541.606, and does not include payments for medical insurance, payments for life insurance, contributions to retirement plans and the cost of other fringe benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) If an employee's total annual compensation does not total at least the amount specified in the applicable subsection of paragraph (a) by the last pay period of the 52-week period, the employer may, during the last pay period or within one month after the end of the 52-week period, make one final payment sufficient to achieve the required level. For example, for a 52-week period beginning January 1, 2020, an employee may earn $90,000 in base salary, and the employer may anticipate based upon past sales that the employee also will earn $17,432 in commissions. However, due to poor sales in the final quarter of the year, the employee actually only earns $12,000 in commissions. In this situation, the employer may within one month after the end of the year make a payment of at least $5,432 to the employee. Any such final payment made after the end of the 52-week period may count only toward the prior year's total annual compensation and not toward the total annual compensation in the year it was paid. If the employer fails to make such a payment, the employee does not qualify as a highly compensated employee, but may still qualify as exempt under subparts B, C, or D of this part.


</P>
<P>(3) An employee who does not work a full year for the employer, either because the employee is newly hired after the beginning of the year or ends the employment before the end of the year, may qualify for exemption under this section if the employee receives a <I>pro rata</I> portion of the minimum amount established in paragraph (a) of this section, based upon the number of weeks that the employee will be or has been employed. An employer may make one final payment as under paragraph (b)(2) of this section within one month after the end of employment.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer may utilize any 52-week period as the year, such as a calendar year, a fiscal year, or an anniversary of hire year. If the employer does not identify some other year period in advance, the calendar year will apply.
</P>
<P>(c) A high level of compensation is a strong indicator of an employee's exempt status, thus eliminating the need for a detailed analysis of the employee's job duties. Thus, a highly compensated employee will qualify for exemption if the employee customarily and regularly performs any one or more of the exempt duties or responsibilities of an executive, administrative or professional employee identified in subparts B, C or D of this part. An employee may qualify as a highly compensated executive employee, for example, if the employee customarily and regularly directs the work of two or more other employees, even though the employee does not meet all of the other requirements for the executive exemption under § 541.100.
</P>
<P>(d) This section applies only to employees whose primary duty includes performing office or non-manual work. Thus, for example, non-management production-line workers and non-management employees in maintenance, construction and similar occupations such as carpenters, electricians, mechanics, plumbers, iron workers, craftsmen, operating engineers, longshoremen, construction workers, laborers and other employees who perform work involving repetitive operations with their hands, physical skill and energy are not exempt under this section no matter how highly paid they might be.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 32550, May 23, 2016; 84 FR 51307, Sept. 27, 2019; 85 FR 34969, June 8, 2020; 89 FR 32972, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27836, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.602" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.602   Salary basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An employee will be considered to be paid on a “salary basis” within the meaning of this part if the employee regularly receives each pay period on a weekly, or less frequent basis, a predetermined amount constituting all or part of the employee's compensation, which amount is not subject to reduction because of variations in the quality or quantity of the work performed.
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to the exceptions provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an exempt employee must receive the full salary for any week in which the employee performs any work without regard to the number of days or hours worked. Exempt employees need not be paid for any workweek in which they perform no work.
</P>
<P>(2) An employee is not paid on a salary basis if deductions from the employee's predetermined compensation are made for absences occasioned by the employer or by the operating requirements of the business. If the employee is ready, willing and able to work, deductions may not be made for time when work is not available.
</P>
<P>(3) Up to ten percent of the salary amount required by § 541.600(a) may be satisfied by the payment of nondiscretionary bonuses, incentives and commissions, that are paid annually or more frequently. The employer may utilize any 52-week period as the year, such as a calendar year, a fiscal year, or an anniversary of hire year. If the employer does not identify some other year period in advance, the calendar year will apply. This provision does not apply to highly compensated employees under § 541.601.
</P>
<P>(i) If by the last pay period of the 52-week period the sum of the employee's weekly salary plus nondiscretionary bonus, incentive, and commission payments received is less than 52 times the weekly salary amount required by § 541.600(a), the employer may make one final payment sufficient to achieve the required level no later than the next pay period after the end of the year. Any such final payment made after the end of the 52-week period may count only toward the prior year's salary amount and not toward the salary amount in the year it was paid.
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee who does not work a full 52-week period for the employer, either because the employee is newly hired after the beginning of this period or ends the employment before the end of this period, may qualify for exemption if the employee receives a <I>pro rata</I> portion of the minimum amount established in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, based upon the number of weeks that the employee will be or has been employed. An employer may make one final payment as under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section within one pay period after the end of employment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The prohibition against deductions from pay in the salary basis requirement is subject to the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) Deductions from pay may be made when an exempt employee is absent from work for one or more full days for personal reasons, other than sickness or disability. Thus, if an employee is absent for two full days to handle personal affairs, the employee's salaried status will not be affected if deductions are made from the salary for two full-day absences. However, if an exempt employee is absent for one and a half days for personal reasons, the employer can deduct only for the one full-day absence.
</P>
<P>(2) Deductions from pay may be made for absences of one or more full days occasioned by sickness or disability (including work-related accidents) if the deduction is made in accordance with a bona fide plan, policy or practice of providing compensation for loss of salary occasioned by such sickness or disability. The employer is not required to pay any portion of the employee's salary for full-day absences for which the employee receives compensation under the plan, policy or practice. Deductions for such full-day absences also may be made before the employee has qualified under the plan, policy or practice, and after the employee has exhausted the leave allowance thereunder. Thus, for example, if an employer maintains a short-term disability insurance plan providing salary replacement for 12 weeks starting on the fourth day of absence, the employer may make deductions from pay for the three days of absence before the employee qualifies for benefits under the plan; for the twelve weeks in which the employee receives salary replacement benefits under the plan; and for absences after the employee has exhausted the 12 weeks of salary replacement benefits. Similarly, an employer may make deductions from pay for absences of one or more full days if salary replacement benefits are provided under a State disability insurance law or under a State workers' compensation law.
</P>
<P>(3) While an employer cannot make deductions from pay for absences of an exempt employee occasioned by jury duty, attendance as a witness or temporary military leave, the employer can offset any amounts received by an employee as jury fees, witness fees or military pay for a particular week against the salary due for that particular week without loss of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(4) Deductions from pay of exempt employees may be made for penalties imposed in good faith for infractions of safety rules of major significance. Safety rules of major significance include those relating to the prevention of serious danger in the workplace or to other employees, such as rules prohibiting smoking in explosive plants, oil refineries and coal mines.
</P>
<P>(5) Deductions from pay of exempt employees may be made for unpaid disciplinary suspensions of one or more full days imposed in good faith for infractions of workplace conduct rules. Such suspensions must be imposed pursuant to a written policy applicable to all employees. Thus, for example, an employer may suspend an exempt employee without pay for three days for violating a generally applicable written policy prohibiting sexual harassment. Similarly, an employer may suspend an exempt employee without pay for twelve days for violating a generally applicable written policy prohibiting workplace violence.
</P>
<P>(6) An employer is not required to pay the full salary in the initial or terminal week of employment. Rather, an employer may pay a proportionate part of an employee's full salary for the time actually worked in the first and last week of employment. In such weeks, the payment of an hourly or daily equivalent of the employee's full salary for the time actually worked will meet the requirement. However, employees are not paid on a salary basis within the meaning of these regulations if they are employed occasionally for a few days, and the employer pays them a proportionate part of the weekly salary when so employed.
</P>
<P>(7) An employer is not required to pay the full salary for weeks in which an exempt employee takes unpaid leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act. Rather, when an exempt employee takes unpaid leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act, an employer may pay a proportionate part of the full salary for time actually worked. For example, if an employee who normally works 40 hours per week uses four hours of unpaid leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act, the employer could deduct 10 percent of the employee's normal salary that week.
</P>
<P>(c) When calculating the amount of a deduction from pay allowed under paragraph (b) of this section, the employer may use the hourly or daily equivalent of the employee's full weekly salary or any other amount proportional to the time actually missed by the employee. A deduction from pay as a penalty for violations of major safety rules under paragraph (b)(4) of this section may be made in any amount.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 32550, May 23, 2016; 84 FR 51307, Sept. 27, 2019; 89 FR 32972, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27836, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.603" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7.95.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.603   Effect of improper deductions from salary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer who makes improper deductions from salary shall lose the exemption if the facts demonstrate that the employer did not intend to pay employees on a salary basis. An actual practice of making improper deductions demonstrates that the employer did not intend to pay employees on a salary basis. The factors to consider when determining whether an employer has an actual practice of making improper deductions include, but are not limited to: the number of improper deductions, particularly as compared to the number of employee infractions warranting discipline; the time period during which the employer made improper deductions; the number and geographic location of employees whose salary was improperly reduced; the number and geographic location of managers responsible for taking the improper deductions; and whether the employer has a clearly communicated policy permitting or prohibiting improper deductions.
</P>
<P>(b) If the facts demonstrate that the employer has an actual practice of making improper deductions, the exemption is lost during the time period in which the improper deductions were made for employees in the same job classification working for the same managers responsible for the actual improper deductions. Employees in different job classifications or who work for different managers do not lose their status as exempt employees. Thus, for example, if a manager at a company facility routinely docks the pay of engineers at that facility for partial-day personal absences, then all engineers at that facility whose pay could have been improperly docked by the manager would lose the exemption; engineers at other facilities or working for other managers, however, would remain exempt.
</P>
<P>(c) Improper deductions that are either isolated or inadvertent will not result in loss of the exemption for any employees subject to such improper deductions, if the employer reimburses the employees for such improper deductions.
</P>
<P>(d) If an employer has a clearly communicated policy that prohibits the improper pay deductions specified in § 541.602(a) and includes a complaint mechanism, reimburses employees for any improper deductions and makes a good faith commitment to comply in the future, such employer will not lose the exemption for any employees unless the employer willfully violates the policy by continuing to make improper deductions after receiving employee complaints. If an employer fails to reimburse employees for any improper deductions or continues to make improper deductions after receiving employee complaints, the exemption is lost during the time period in which the improper deductions were made for employees in the same job classification working for the same managers responsible for the actual improper deductions. The best evidence of a clearly communicated policy is a written policy that was distributed to employees prior to the improper pay deductions by, for example, providing a copy of the policy to employees at the time of hire, publishing the policy in an employee handbook or publishing the policy on the employer's Intranet.
</P>
<P>(e) This section shall not be construed in an unduly technical manner so as to defeat the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.604" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7.95.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.604   Minimum guarantee plus extras.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer may provide an exempt employee with additional compensation without losing the exemption or violating the salary basis requirement, if the employment arrangement also includes a guarantee of at least the minimum weekly-required amount paid on a salary basis. Thus, for example, an exempt employee guaranteed at least $684 each week paid on a salary basis may also receive additional compensation of a one percent commission on sales. An exempt employee also may receive a percentage of the sales or profits of the employer if the employment arrangement also includes a guarantee of at least $684 each week paid on a salary basis. Similarly, the exemption is not lost if an exempt employee who is guaranteed at least $684 each week paid on a salary basis also receives additional compensation based on hours worked for work beyond the normal workweek. Such additional compensation may be paid on any basis (<I>e.g.,</I> flat sum, bonus payment, straight-time hourly amount, time and one-half or any other basis), and may include paid time off.
</P>
<P>(b) An exempt employee's earnings may be computed on an hourly, a daily or a shift basis, without losing the exemption or violating the salary basis requirement, if the employment arrangement also includes a guarantee of at least the minimum weekly required amount paid on a salary basis regardless of the number of hours, days or shifts worked, and a reasonable relationship exists between the guaranteed amount and the amount actually earned. The reasonable relationship test will be met if the weekly guarantee is roughly equivalent to the employee's usual earnings at the assigned hourly, daily or shift rate for the employee's normal scheduled workweek. Thus, for example, an exempt employee guaranteed compensation of at least $725 for any week in which the employee performs any work, and who normally works four or five shifts each week, may be paid $210 per shift without violating the $684-per-week salary basis requirement. The reasonable relationship requirement applies only if the employee's pay is computed on an hourly, daily or shift basis. It does not apply, for example, to an exempt store manager paid a guaranteed salary per week that exceeds the current salary level who also receives a commission of one-half percent of all sales in the store or five percent of the store's profits, which in some weeks may total as much as, or even more than, the guaranteed salary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 51307, Sept. 27, 2019, as amended by 89 FR 32972, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27836, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.605" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7.95.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.605   Fee basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Administrative and professional employees may be paid on a fee basis, rather than on a salary basis. An employee will be considered to be paid on a “fee basis” within the meaning of these regulations if the employee is paid an agreed sum for a single job regardless of the time required for its completion. These payments resemble piecework payments with the important distinction that generally a “fee” is paid for the kind of job that is unique rather than for a series of jobs repeated an indefinite number of times and for which payment on an identical basis is made over and over again. Payments based on the number of hours or days worked and not on the accomplishment of a given single task are not considered payments on a fee basis.
</P>
<P>(b) To determine whether the fee payment meets the minimum amount of salary required for exemption under these regulations, the amount paid to the employee will be tested by determining the time worked on the job and whether the fee payment is at a rate that would amount to at least the minimum salary per week, as required by §§ 541.600(a) and 541.602(a), if the employee worked 40 hours. Thus, an artist paid $350 for a picture that took 20 hours to complete meets the $684 minimum salary requirement for exemption since earnings at this rate would yield the artist $700 if 40 hours were worked.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 22260, Apr. 23, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 32551, May 23, 2016; 84 FR 51308, Sept. 27, 2019; 89 FR 32972, Apr. 26, 2024; 91 FR 27837, May 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.606" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7.95.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.606   Board, lodging or other facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(1) of the Act, an employee must earn the minimum salary amount set forth in § 541.600, “exclusive of board, lodging or other facilities.” The phrase “exclusive of board, lodging or other facilities” means “free and clear” or independent of any claimed credit for non-cash items of value that an employer may provide to an employee. Thus, the costs incurred by an employer to provide an employee with board, lodging or other facilities may not count towards the minimum salary amount required for exemption under this part 541. Such separate transactions are not prohibited between employers and their exempt employees, but the costs to employers associated with such transactions may not be considered when determining if an employee has received the full required minimum salary payment.
</P>
<P>(b) Regulations defining what constitutes “board, lodging, or other facilities” are contained in 29 CFR part 531. As described in 29 CFR 531.32, the term “other facilities” refers to items similar to board and lodging, such as meals furnished at company restaurants or cafeterias or by hospitals, hotels, or restaurants to their employees; meals, dormitory rooms, and tuition furnished by a college to its student employees; merchandise furnished at company stores or commissaries, including articles of food, clothing, and household effects; housing furnished for dwelling purposes; and transportation furnished to employees for ordinary commuting between their homes and work.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.607" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.7.95.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.607   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Definitions and Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.700" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.700   Primary duty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify for exemption under this part, an employee's “primary duty” must be the performance of exempt work. The term “primary duty” means the principal, main, major or most important duty that the employee performs. Determination of an employee's primary duty must be based on all the facts in a particular case, with the major emphasis on the character of the employee's job as a whole. Factors to consider when determining the primary duty of an employee include, but are not limited to, the relative importance of the exempt duties as compared with other types of duties; the amount of time spent performing exempt work; the employee's relative freedom from direct supervision; and the relationship between the employee's salary and the wages paid to other employees for the kind of nonexempt work performed by the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of time spent performing exempt work can be a useful guide in determining whether exempt work is the primary duty of an employee. Thus, employees who spend more than 50 percent of their time performing exempt work will generally satisfy the primary duty requirement. Time alone, however, is not the sole test, and nothing in this section requires that exempt employees spend more than 50 percent of their time performing exempt work. Employees who do not spend more than 50 percent of their time performing exempt duties may nonetheless meet the primary duty requirement if the other factors support such a conclusion.
</P>
<P>(c) Thus, for example, assistant managers in a retail establishment who perform exempt executive work such as supervising and directing the work of other employees, ordering merchandise, managing the budget and authorizing payment of bills may have management as their primary duty even if the assistant managers spend more than 50 percent of the time performing nonexempt work such as running the cash register. However, if such assistant managers are closely supervised and earn little more than the nonexempt employees, the assistant managers generally would not satisfy the primary duty requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.701" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.701   Customarily and regularly.</HEAD>
<P>The phrase “customarily and regularly” means a frequency that must be greater than occasional but which, of course, may be less than constant. Tasks or work performed “customarily and regularly” includes work normally and recurrently performed every workweek; it does not include isolated or one-time tasks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.702" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.702   Exempt and nonexempt work.</HEAD>
<P>The term “exempt work” means all work described in §§ 541.100, 541.101, 541.200, 541.300, 541.301, 541.302, 541.303, 541.304, 541.400 and 541.500, and the activities directly and closely related to such work. All other work is considered “nonexempt.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.703" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.703   Directly and closely related.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Work that is “directly and closely related” to the performance of exempt work is also considered exempt work. The phrase “directly and closely related” means tasks that are related to exempt duties and that contribute to or facilitate performance of exempt work. Thus, “directly and closely related” work may include physical tasks and menial tasks that arise out of exempt duties, and the routine work without which the exempt employee's exempt work cannot be performed properly. Work “directly and closely related” to the performance of exempt duties may also include recordkeeping; monitoring and adjusting machinery; taking notes; using the computer to create documents or presentations; opening the mail for the purpose of reading it and making decisions; and using a photocopier or fax machine. Work is not “directly and closely related” if the work is remotely related or completely unrelated to exempt duties.
</P>
<P>(b) The following examples further illustrate the type of work that is and is not normally considered as directly and closely related to exempt work:
</P>
<P>(1) Keeping time, production or sales records for subordinates is work directly and closely related to an exempt executive's function of managing a department and supervising employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The distribution of materials, merchandise or supplies to maintain control of the flow of and expenditures for such items is directly and closely related to the performance of exempt duties.
</P>
<P>(3) A supervisor who spot checks and examines the work of subordinates to determine whether they are performing their duties properly, and whether the product is satisfactory, is performing work which is directly and closely related to managerial and supervisory functions, so long as the checking is distinguishable from the work ordinarily performed by a nonexempt inspector.
</P>
<P>(4) A supervisor who sets up a machine may be engaged in exempt work, depending upon the nature of the industry and the operation. In some cases the setup work, or adjustment of the machine for a particular job, is typically performed by the same employees who operate the machine. Such setup work is part of the production operation and is not exempt. In other cases, the setting up of the work is a highly skilled operation which the ordinary production worker or machine tender typically does not perform. In large plants, non-supervisors may perform such work. However, particularly in small plants, such work may be a regular duty of the executive and is directly and closely related to the executive's responsibility for the work performance of subordinates and for the adequacy of the final product. Under such circumstances, it is exempt work.
</P>
<P>(5) A department manager in a retail or service establishment who walks about the sales floor observing the work of sales personnel under the employee's supervision to determine the effectiveness of their sales techniques, checks on the quality of customer service being given, or observes customer preferences is performing work which is directly and closely related to managerial and supervisory functions.
</P>
<P>(6) A business consultant may take extensive notes recording the flow of work and materials through the office or plant of the client; after returning to the office of the employer, the consultant may personally use the computer to type a report and create a proposed table of organization. Standing alone, or separated from the primary duty, such note-taking and typing would be routine in nature. However, because this work is necessary for analyzing the data and making recommendations, the work is directly and closely related to exempt work. While it is possible to assign note-taking and typing to nonexempt employees, and in fact it is frequently the practice to do so, delegating such routine tasks is not required as a condition of exemption.
</P>
<P>(7) A credit manager who makes and administers the credit policy of the employer, establishes credit limits for customers, authorizes the shipment of orders on credit, and makes decisions on whether to exceed credit limits would be performing work exempt under § 541.200. Work that is directly and closely related to these exempt duties may include checking the status of accounts to determine whether the credit limit would be exceeded by the shipment of a new order, removing credit reports from the files for analysis, and writing letters giving credit data and experience to other employers or credit agencies.
</P>
<P>(8) A traffic manager in charge of planning a company's transportation, including the most economical and quickest routes for shipping merchandise to and from the plant, contracting for common-carrier and other transportation facilities, negotiating with carriers for adjustments for damages to merchandise, and making the necessary rearrangements resulting from delays, damages or irregularities in transit, is performing exempt work. If the employee also spends part of the day taking telephone orders for local deliveries, such order-taking is a routine function and is not directly and closely related to the exempt work.
</P>
<P>(9) An example of work directly and closely related to exempt professional duties is a chemist performing menial tasks such as cleaning a test tube in the middle of an original experiment, even though such menial tasks can be assigned to laboratory assistants.
</P>
<P>(10) A teacher performs work directly and closely related to exempt duties when, while taking students on a field trip, the teacher drives a school van or monitors the students' behavior in a restaurant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.704" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.704   Use of manuals.</HEAD>
<P>The use of manuals, guidelines or other established procedures containing or relating to highly technical, scientific, legal, financial or other similarly complex matters that can be understood or interpreted only by those with advanced or specialized knowledge or skills does not preclude exemption under section 13(a)(1) of the Act or the regulations in this part. Such manuals and procedures provide guidance in addressing difficult or novel circumstances and thus use of such reference material would not affect an employee's exempt status. The section 13(a)(1) exemptions are not available, however, for employees who simply apply well-established techniques or procedures described in manuals or other sources within closely prescribed limits to determine the correct response to an inquiry or set of circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.705" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.705   Trainees.</HEAD>
<P>The executive, administrative, professional, outside sales and computer employee exemptions do not apply to employees training for employment in an executive, administrative, professional, outside sales or computer employee capacity who are not actually performing the duties of an executive, administrative, professional, outside sales or computer employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.706" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.706   Emergencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An exempt employee will not lose the exemption by performing work of a normally nonexempt nature because of the existence of an emergency. Thus, when emergencies arise that threaten the safety of employees, a cessation of operations or serious damage to the employer's property, any work performed in an effort to prevent such results is considered exempt work.
</P>
<P>(b) An “emergency” does not include occurrences that are not beyond control or for which the employer can reasonably provide in the normal course of business. Emergencies generally occur only rarely, and are events that the employer cannot reasonably anticipate.
</P>
<P>(c) The following examples illustrate the distinction between emergency work considered exempt work and routine work that is not exempt work:
</P>
<P>(1) A mine superintendent who pitches in after an explosion and digs out workers who are trapped in the mine is still a bona fide executive.
</P>
<P>(2) Assisting nonexempt employees with their work during periods of heavy workload or to handle rush orders is not exempt work.
</P>
<P>(3) Replacing a nonexempt employee during the first day or partial day of an illness may be considered exempt emergency work depending on factors such as the size of the establishment and of the executive's department, the nature of the industry, the consequences that would flow from the failure to replace the ailing employee immediately, and the feasibility of filling the employee's place promptly.
</P>
<P>(4) Regular repair and cleaning of equipment is not emergency work, even when necessary to prevent fire or explosion; however, repairing equipment may be emergency work if the breakdown of or damage to the equipment was caused by accident or carelessness that the employer could not reasonably anticipate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.707" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.707   Occasional tasks.</HEAD>
<P>Occasional, infrequently recurring tasks that cannot practicably be performed by nonexempt employees, but are the means for an exempt employee to properly carry out exempt functions and responsibilities, are considered exempt work. The following factors should be considered in determining whether such work is exempt work: Whether the same work is performed by any of the exempt employee's subordinates; practicability of delegating the work to a nonexempt employee; whether the exempt employee performs the task frequently or occasionally; and existence of an industry practice for the exempt employee to perform the task.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.708" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.708   Combination exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Employees who perform a combination of exempt duties as set forth in the regulations in this part for executive, administrative, professional, outside sales and computer employees may qualify for exemption. Thus, for example, an employee whose primary duty involves a combination of exempt administrative and exempt executive work may qualify for exemption. In other words, work that is exempt under one section of this part will not defeat the exemption under any other section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.709" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.709   Motion picture producing industry.</HEAD>
<P>The requirement that the employee be paid “on a salary basis” does not apply to an employee in the motion picture producing industry who is compensated at a base rate of at least $1,043 per week (exclusive of board, lodging, or other facilities). Thus, an employee in this industry who is otherwise exempt under subparts B, C, or D of this part, and who is employed at a base rate of at least the applicable current minimum amount a week is exempt if paid a proportionate amount (based on a week of not more than 6 days) for any week in which the employee does not work a full workweek for any reason. Moreover, an otherwise exempt employee in this industry qualifies for exemption if the employee is employed at a daily rate under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(a) The employee is in a job category for which a weekly base rate is not provided and the daily base rate would yield at least the minimum weekly amount if 6 days were worked; or
</P>
<P>(b) The employee is in a job category having the minimum weekly base rate and the daily base rate is at least one-sixth of such weekly base rate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 32552, May 23, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 51308, Sept. 27, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 541.710" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.23.8.95.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 541.710   Employees of public agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee of a public agency who otherwise meets the salary basis requirements of § 541.602 shall not be disqualified from exemption under §§ 541.100, 541.200, 541.300 or 541.400 on the basis that such employee is paid according to a pay system established by statute, ordinance or regulation, or by a policy or practice established pursuant to principles of public accountability, under which the employee accrues personal leave and sick leave and which requires the public agency employee's pay to be reduced or such employee to be placed on leave without pay for absences for personal reasons or because of illness or injury of less than one work-day when accrued leave is not used by an employee because:
</P>
<P>(1) Permission for its use has not been sought or has been sought and denied;
</P>
<P>(2) Accrued leave has been exhausted; or
</P>
<P>(3) The employee chooses to use leave without pay.
</P>
<P>(b) Deductions from the pay of an employee of a public agency for absences due to a budget-required furlough shall not disqualify the employee from being paid on a salary basis except in the workweek in which the furlough occurs and for which the employee's pay is accordingly reduced.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="547" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 547—REQUIREMENTS OF A “BONA FIDE THRIFT OR SAVINGS PLAN”
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 7, 52 Stat. 1063, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 207.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>19 FR 4864, Aug. 3, 1954, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 547.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.24.0.95.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 547.0   Scope and effect of part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part set forth the requirements of a “bona fide thrift or savings plan” under section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (hereinafter called the Act). In determining the total remuneration for employment which section 7(e) of the Act requires to be included in the regular rate at which an employee is employed, it is not necessary to include any sums paid to or on behalf of such employee, in recognition of services performed by him during a given period, which are paid pursuant to a bona fide thrift or savings plan meeting the requirements set forth herein. In the formulation of these regulations due regard has been given to the factors and standards set forth in section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a thrift or savings plan is combined in a single program (whether in one or more documents) with a plan or trust for providing profit-sharing payments to employees, or with a plan or trust for providing old age, retirement, life, accident or health insurance or similar benefits for employees, contributions made by the employer pursuant to such thrift or savings plan may be excluded from the regular rate if the plan meets the requirements of the regulation in this part and the contributions made for the other purposes may be excluded from the regular rate if they meet the tests set forth in regulations. Part 549, or the tests set forth in Interpretative Bulletin, part 778 of this chapter, §§ 778.214 and 778.215, as the case may be.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 547.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.24.0.95.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 547.1   Essential requirements for qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A “bona fide thrift or savings plan” for the purpose of section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Act is required to meet all the standards set forth in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section and must not contain the disqualifying provisions set forth in § 547.2.
</P>
<P>(b) The thrift or savings plan constitutes a definite program or arrangement in writing, adopted by the employer or by contract as a result of collective bargaining and communicated or made available to the employees, which is established and maintained, in good faith, for the purpose of encouraging voluntary thrift or savings by employees by providing an incentive to employees to accumulate regularly and retain cash savings for a reasonable period of time or to save through the regular purchase of public or private securities.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan specifically shall set forth the category or categories of employees participating and the basis of their eligibility. Eligibility may not be based on such factors as hours of work, production, or efficiency of the employees' <I>Provided, however,</I> That hours of work may be used to determine eligibility of part-time or casual employees.
</P>
<P>(d) The amount any employee may save under the plan shall be specified in the plan or determined in accordance with a definite formula specified in the plan, which formula may be based on one or more factors such as the straight-time earnings or total earnings, base rate of pay, or length of service of the employee.
</P>
<P>(e) The employer's total contribution in any year may not exceed 15 percent of the participating employees' total earnings during that year. In addition, the employer's total contribution in any year may not exceed the total amount saved or invested by the participating employees during that year: <I>Provided, however,</I> That a plan permitting a greater contribution may be submitted to the Administrator and approved by him as a “bona fide thrift or savings plan” within the meaning of section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Act if:
</P>
<P>(1) The plan meets all the other standards of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The plan contains none of the disqualifying factors enumerated in § 547.2;
</P>
<P>(3) The employer's contribution is based to a substantial degree upon retention of savings; and
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of the employer's contribution bears a reasonable relationship to the amount of savings retained and the period of retention.
</P>
<P>(f) The employer's contributions shall be apportioned among the individual employees in accordance with a definite formula or method of calculation specified in the plan, which formula or method of calculation is based on the amount saved or the length of time the individual employee retains his savings or investment in the plan: <I>Provided,</I> That no employee's share determined in accordance with the plan may be diminished because of any other remuneration received by him.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0013)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[19 FR 4864, Aug. 3, 1954, as amended at 47 FR 145, Jan. 5, 1982; 71 FR 16666, Apr. 3, 2006; 82 FR 2228, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 547.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.24.0.95.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 547.2   Disqualifying provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employee's participation in the plan shall be on other than a voluntary basis.
</P>
<P>(b) No employee's wages or salary shall be dependent upon or influenced by the existence of such thrift or savings plan or the employer's contributions thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) The amounts any employee may save under the plan, or the amounts paid by the employer under the plan may not be based upon the employee's hours of work, production or efficiency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="548" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 548—AUTHORIZATION OF ESTABLISHED BASIC RATES FOR COMPUTING OVERTIME PAY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 7, 52 Stat. 1063, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 207, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Regulations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>20 FR 5679, Aug. 6, 1955, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 548.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.1.100.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.1   Scope and effect of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations for computing overtime pay under sections 7(g)(1) and 7(g)(2) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (“the Act” or “FLSA”), for employees paid on the basis of a piece rate, or at a variety of hourly rates or piece rates, or a combination thereof, are set forth in §§ 778.415 through 778.421. Payment of overtime compensation in accordance with other subsections of section 7 of the Act is explained in part 778 of this title (Interpretive Bulletin on Overtime Compensation). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5679, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 84 FR 68769, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.1.100.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.2   General conditions.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of section 7 of the Act with respect to the payment of overtime compensation to an employee for a workweek longer than the applicable number of hours established in section 7(a) of the Act, will be met under the provisions of section 7(g)(3) of the Act by payments which satisfy all the following standards:
</P>
<P>(a) Overtime compensation computed in accordance with this part and section 7(g)(3) of the Act is paid pursuant to an agreement or understanding arrived at between the employer and the employee or as a result of collective bargaining before performance of the work;
</P>
<P>(b) A rate is established by such agreement or understanding as the basic rate to be used in computing overtime compensation thereunder;
</P>
<P>(c) The established basic rate is a specified rate or a rate which can be derived from the application of a specified method of calculation;
</P>
<P>(d) The established basic rate is a bona fide rate and is not less than the minimum hourly rate required by applicable law;
</P>
<P>(e) The basic rate so established is authorized by § 548.3 or is authorized by the Administrator under § 548.4 as being substantially equivalent to the average hourly earnings of the employee, exclusive of overtime premiums, in the particular work over a representative period of time;
</P>
<P>(f) Overtime hours are compensated at a rate of not less than one and one-half times such established basic rate;
</P>
<P>(g) The hours for which the employee is paid not less than one and one-half times such established basic rate qualify as overtime hours under section 7(e) (5), (6), or (7) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(h) The number of hours for which the employee is paid not less than one and one-half times such established basic rate equals or exceeds the number of hours worked by him in any workweek in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employees under subsection 7(a) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(i) The employee's average hourly earnings for the workweek exclusive of payments described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of section 7(e) of the Act are not less than the minimum hourly rate required by this Act or other applicable law;
</P>
<P>(j) Extra overtime compensation is properly computed and paid on other forms of additional pay which have not been considered in arriving at the basic rate but which are required to be included in computing the regular rate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5679, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 26 FR 7731, Aug. 18, 1961]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.1.100.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.3   Authorized basic rates.</HEAD>
<P>A rate which meets all of the conditions of § 548.2 and which in addition satisfies all the conditions set forth in one of the following paragraphs will be regarded as being substantially equivalent to the average hourly earnings of the employee, exclusive of overtime premiums, in the particular work over a representative period of time and may be used in computing overtime compensation for purposes of section 7(g)(3) of the Act, and § 548.2:
</P>
<P>(a) A rate per hour which is obtained by dividing a monthly or semi-monthly salary by the number of regular working days in each monthly or semi-monthly period and then by the number or hours in the normal or regular workday. Such a rate may be used to compute overtime compensation for all the overtime hours worked by the employee during the monthly or semimonthly period for which the salary is paid.
</P>
<P>(b) A rate per hour which is obtained by averaging the earnings, exclusive of payments described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of section 7(e) of the Act, of the employee for all work performed during the workday or any other longer period not exceeding sixteen calendar days for which such average is regularly computed under the agreement or understanding. Such a rate may be used to compute overtime compensation for all the overtime hours worked by the employee during the particular period for which the earnings average is computed.
</P>
<P>(c) A rate per hour which is obtained by averaging the earnings, exclusive of payments described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of section 7(e) of the Act, of the employee for each type of work performed during each workweek, or any other longer period not exceeding sixteen calendar days, for which such average is regularly computed under the agreement or understanding. Such a rate may be used to compute overtime compensation, during the particular period for which such average is computed, for all the overtime hours worked by the employee at the type of work for which the rate is obtained.
</P>
<P>(d) The rate or rates which may be used under the Act to compute overtime compensation of the employee but excluding the cost of meals where the employer customarily furnishes not more than a single meal per day.
</P>
<P>(e) The rate or rates (not less than the rates required by section 6(a) and (b) of the Act) which may be used under the Act to compute overtime compensation of the employee but excluding additional payments in cash or in kind which, if included in the computation of overtime under the Act, would not increase the total compensation of the employee by more than 40 percent of the applicable hourly minimum wage under either section 6(a) of the Act or the state or local law applicable in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed, whichever is higher, per week on the average for all overtime weeks (in excess of the number of hours applicable under section 7(a) of the Act) in the period for which such additional payments are made.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) A rate per hour for each workweek equal to the average hourly remuneration of the employee for employment during the annual period or the quarterly period immediately preceding the calendar or fiscal quarter year in which such workweek ends, provided: (i) It is a fact, confirmed by proper records of the employer, that the terms, conditions, and circumstances of employment during such prior period, including weekly hours of work, work assignments and duties, and the basis of remuneration for employment, were not significantly different from the terms, conditions, and circumstances of employment which affect the employee's regular rates of pay during the current quarter year, or differ only because of some change in basic salary or similar nonfluctuating factor for which suitable adjustments have been made in the calculations to accurately reflect such change and (ii) such average hourly remuneration during the prior period is computed by the method or methods authorized in the following paragraphs. 
</P>
<P>(2) The average hourly remuneration on which the rate authorized in paragraph (f)(1) of this section is based shall be computed: (i) By totaling all remuneration for employment during the workweeks ending in the prior period (including all earnings at hourly or piece rates, bonuses, commission or other incentive payments, and other forms of remuneration paid to or on behalf of the employee) except overtime premiums and other payments excluded from the regular rate pursuant to provisions of section 7(e) of the Act, and (ii) by dividing the amount thus obtained by the number of hours worked in such prior period for which such compensation was paid.
</P>
<P>(3) Where it is not practicable for an employer to compute the total remuneration of an employee for employment in the prior period in time to determine obligations under the Act for the current quarter year (as where computation of bonus, commission, or incentive payments cannot be made immediately at the end of the period), a one month grace period may be used. If this one month grace period is used, it will be deemed in compliance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section to use the basic rate authorized therein for the quarter commencing one month after the next preceding four-quarter or quarter-year period (whichever length period is adopted as the base period for the rate determination). Once the grace period method of computation is adopted it must be used for each successive quarter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5679, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 28 FR 11266, Oct. 22, 1963; 31 FR 6769, May 6, 1966; 84 FR 68769, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.1.100.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.4   Application for authorization of a “basic rate.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Application may be made by any employer or group of employers, for authorization of a basic rate or rates, other than those approved under § 548.3. Application must be made jointly with any collective bargaining representative of employees covered by the application. Application must be made to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the agreement or understanding arrived at between the employer and employee, including the proposed effective date, the term of the agreement or understanding, and a statement of the applicable overtime provisions, and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the basic rate of the method or formula to be used in computing the basic rate for the type of work or position to which it will be applicable, and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the kinds of jobs or employees covered by the agreement, and
</P>
<P>(4) The facts and reasons relied upon to show that the basic rate so established is substantially equivalent to the average hourly earnings of the employee, exclusive of overtime premiums, in the particular work over a representative period of time. For such showing, a basic rate shall be deemed “substantially equivalent” to the average hourly earnings of the employee if, during a representative period, the employee's total overtime earnings calculated at the basic rate in accordance with the applicable overtime provisions are substantially equivalent to the amount of such earnings when computed in accordance with section 7(a) of the Act on the basis of the employee's average hourly earnings for each workweek, and
</P>
<P>(5) Such additional information as the Administrator may require.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator shall require that notice of the application be given to affected employees in such manner as he deems appropriate. The Administrator shall notify the applicants in writing of his decision as to each application.
</P>
<P>(d) In authorizing a basic rate pursuant to this part, the Administrator shall include such conditions as are necessary to insure that the basic rate will be used only so long as it is substantially equivalent to the average hourly earnings of the employee, exclusive of overtime premiums, in the particular work over a representative period of time, and such other conditions as are necessary or appropriate to insure compliance with the provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrator may at any time, upon his own motion or upon written request of any interested party setting forth reasonable grounds therefor, and after a hearing or other opportunity to interested persons to present their views, amend or revoke any authorization granted under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="100" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.100" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.100.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.100   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart contains material explaining and illustrating the terms used in subpart A of this part which were issued under section 7(g)(3) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. The purpose of section 7(g)(3) of the Act, and subpart A of this part, is to provide an exception from the requirements of computing overtime pay at the regular rate, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and to allow, under specific conditions, the use of an established “basic” rate 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> instead. Basic rates are alternatives to the regular rate of pay under section 7(a), and their use is optional. The use of basic rates is principally intended to simplify bookkeeping and computation of overtime pay.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The regular rate is the average hourly earnings of an employee for a workweek. See §§ 778.107 to 778.122 of this chapter on overtime compensation. Sections 7(g)(1) and 7(g)(2) of the Act permit overtime compensation to be computed, under specified conditions, at time and one-half the bona fide hourly or piece rate applicable to the work performed during the overtime hours. See §§ 778.415 to 778.421 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The term “basic” rate as used in this part means the rate authorized under section 7(g)(3) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. Such a rate may be used to compute overtime compensation under the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act. (See Rulings and Interpretations No. 3. section 42(e)(1)). However, the term “basic” rate in this part should not be confused with the more general use of the term in the Public Contracts Act to describe all rates which may be used to compute overtime compensation or the use of the term in any other statute.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Section 7(g) of the Fair Labor Standards Act provides that an employer will comply with the overtime requirements of the Act if:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>* * * pursuant to an agreement or understanding arrived at between the employer and the employee before performance of the work, the amount paid to the employee for the number of hours worked by him in such workweek in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under such subsection [7](a):</FP></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(3) is computed at a rate not less than one and one-half times the rate established by such agreement or understanding as the basic rate to be used in computing overtime compensation thereunder: <I>Provided,</I> That the rate so established shall be authorized by regulation by the Secretary of Labor as being substantially equivalent to the average hourly earnings of the employee, exclusive of overtime premiums, in the particular work over a representative period of time; and if (i) the employee's average hourly earnings for the workweek exclusive of payments described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (e) are not less than the minimum hourly rate required by applicable law, and (ii) extra overtime compensation is properly computed and paid on other forms of additional pay required to be included in computing the regular rate.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5680, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 26 FR 7731, Aug. 18, 1961]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="101" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.101" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for a Basic Rate</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.101.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.200   Requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The following conditions must be satisfied if a “basic” rate is to be considered proper under section 7(g)(3) and subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agreement or understanding.</I> There must be an agreement or understanding establishing a basic rate or rates. This agreement must be arrived at before performance of the work to which it is intended to apply. It may be arrived at directly with the employee or through his representative. The “basic” rate method of computing overtime may be used for as many of the employees in an establishment as the employer chooses, provided he has reached an agreement or understanding with these employees prior to the performance of the work. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The records which an employer is required to maintain and preserve for an employee compensated for overtime hours on the basis of a basic rate are described in §§ 516.5(b)(5) and 516.21 of this subchapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>The rate.</I> The established basic rate may be a specified rate or a rate which can be derived from the application of a specified method of calculation. For instance, under certain conditions the Regulations permit the use of the daily average hourly earnings of the employee as a basis for computing daily overtime. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, a method rather than a specific rate is authorized. Also, under certain conditions, the cost of a single meal a day furnished to employees may be excluded from the computation of overtime pay. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> It is the exclusion of the cost of the meals that is authorized and each employee's rate of pay, whatever it may be—an hourly rate, a piece rate or a salary—is his basic rate.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See § 548.302.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See § 548.304.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum wage.</I> The employee's average hourly earnings for the workweek (exclusive of overtime pay and other pay which may be excluded from the regular rate) 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> and the established basic rate used to compute overtime pay may not be less than the legal minimum. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See §§ 778.200 through 778.225 of this chapter for further discussion of what payments may be excluded.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The legal minimum is the highest rate required by the Fair Labor Standards Act or other Federal, State or local law.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5680, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 21 FR 338, Jan. 18, 1956]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="102" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.102" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Authorized Basic Rates</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.102.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.300   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>Section 548.3 contains a description of a number of basic rates any one of which, when established by agreement or understanding, is authorized for use without prior specific approval of the Administrator. These basic rates have been found in use in industry and the Administrator has determined that they are substantially equivalent to the straight-time average hourly earnings of the employee over a representative period of time. The authorized basic rates are described below.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5681, Aug. 6, 1955]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.301" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.102.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.301   Salaried employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 548.3(a) authorizes as an established basic rate: “A rate per hour which is obtained by dividing a monthly or semi-monthly salary by the number of regular working days in each monthly or semi-monthly period and then by the number of hours in the normal or regular workday. Such a rate may be used to compute overtime compensation for all the overtime hours worked by the employee during the monthly or semi-monthly period for which the salary is paid.”
</P>
<P>(b) Section 548.3(a) may be applied to salaried employees paid on a monthly or semi-monthly basis. Under section 7(a) of the Act the method of computing the regular rate of pay for an employee who is paid on a monthly or semi-monthly salary basis is to reduce the salary to its weekly equivalent by multiplying the monthly salary by 12 (the number of months) or the semi-monthly salary by 24, and dividing by 52 (the number of weeks). The weekly equivalent is then divided by the number of hours in the week which the salary is intended to compensate. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> Section 548.3(a) is designed to provide an alternative method of computing the rate for overtime purposes in the case of an employee who is compensated on a monthly or semi-monthly salary basis, where this method is found more desirable. This method is applicable only where the salary is paid for a specified number of days per week and a specified number of hours per day normally or regularly worked by the employee. It permits the employer to take into account the variations in the number of regular working days in each pay period. The basic rate authorized by § 548.3(a) is obtained by dividing the monthly or semi-monthly salary by the number of regular working days in the month or half-month, and then by the number of hours of the normal or regular work day.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See § 778.113 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>An employee is compensated at a semi-monthly salary of $154 for a workweek of 5 days of 8 hours each, Monday through Friday. If a particular half-month begins on Tuesday and ends on the second Tuesday following, there are 11 working days in that half-month. The employee's basic rate would then be computed by dividing the $154 salary by 11 working days of 8 hours each, or 88 hours. The basic rate in this situation would therefore be $1.75 an hour. The basic rate would remain the same regardless of the fact that the employee did not actually work 11 days of 8 hours each because of the occurrence of a holiday, or because the employee took a day off, or because he worked longer than 8 hours on some days during the period, or because he worked fewer than 8 hours on some days, or because he worked more then 11 days. In any of these circumstances the employee's basic rate would still be $1.75 an hour. If in the next semimonthly period there are 10 working days the rate would be computed by dividing the salary of $154 by 80 working hours, or 10 days of 8 hours each. The basic rate would therefore be $1.925 an hour. The rate would remain $1.925 an hour even though the employee did not in fact work ten 8-hour days during the period for the reasons indicated above, or for any other reason.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) The overtime compensation for each workweek should be computed at not less than time and one-half the established basic rate applicable in the period during which the overtime is worked. Thus, in the example given above all overtime worked in the first half-month would be computed at not less than time and one-half the basic rate of $1.75 an hour; in the second half-month overtime would be paid for at not less than time and one-half the rate of $1.925 an hour. Where a workweek overlaps two semimonthly periods part of the overtime may be performed in one semimonthly period and part in another semimonthly period with a different basic rate. If it is desired to avoid computing overtime compensation in the same workweek at two different rates, the employment arrangement may provide that overtime compensation for each workweek should be computed at the established basic rate applicable in the half-monthly or monthly period during which the workweek ends.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 1, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 201, <I>et seq.</I>)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5681, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 32 FR 3293, Feb. 25, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.302" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.102.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.302   Average earnings for period other than a workweek.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 548.3(b) authorizes as an established basic rate: “A rate per hour which is obtained by averaging the earnings, exclusive of payments described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of section 7(e) of the act, of the employee for all work performed during the workday or any other longer period not exceeding sixteen calendar days for which such average is regularly computed under the agreement or understanding. Such a rate may be used to compute overtime compensation for all the overtime hours worked by the employee during the particular period for which the earnings average is computed.”
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The ordinary method of computing overtime under the act is at the employee's regular rate of pay, obtained by averaging his hourly earnings for each workweek. Section 548.3(b) authorizes overtime to be computed on the basis of the employee's average hourly earnings for a period longer or shorter than a workweek. It permits the payment of overtime compensation on the basis of average hourly earnings for a day, a week, two weeks or any period up to 16 calendar days, if the period is established and agreed to with the employee prior to the performance of the work. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> The agreement or understanding may contemplate that the basic rate will be the average hourly earnings for a day or a specified number of days within the sixteen day limit, or it may provide that the basic rate will be the average hourly earnings for the period required to complete a specified job or jobs.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Averaging over periods in excess of 16 calendar days may in appropriate cases be authorized by the Administrator under § 548.4.</P></FTNT>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>An employee is employed on a piece-work basis with overtime after 8 hours a day and on Saturday. Ordinarily his overtime compensation would be computed by averaging his earnings for the entire workweek to arrive at the regular rate of pay and then computing the overtime compensation due. Under this subsection of the regulations the employer and the employee may agree to compute overtime on the basis of the average hourly earnings for each day. Similarly, in a situation involving a bi-weekly or a semi-monthly pay period the employer may find it convenient to compute overtime on the basis of the average hourly earnings for the bi-weekly or semi-monthly period. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</PSPACE>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See § 548.301 (c) for a discussion of the method of computing overtime for an employee paid on a semi-monthly basis.</P></FTNT></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>An employee, who normally would come within the forty hour provision of section 7(a) of the Act, is paid a fixed amount of money for the completion of each job. Each job takes 2 or 3 days to complete. Under the employment agreement, the employee is entitled to time and one-half an authorized basic rate for all hours worked in excess of forty in the workweek. The authorized basic rate is the employee's average hourly earnings for each job. Suppose he completes two jobs in a particular workweek and all his overtime hours are on job No. 2. The employee's average hourly earnings on job No. 2 may be used to compute his overtime pay.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) In this connection it should be noted that although the basic rate is obtained by averaging earnings over a period other than a workweek the number of overtime hours under the act must be determined on a workweek basis.
</P>
<P>(c) In computing the basic rate under § 548.3(b), the employer may exclude from the computation the payments which he could exclude in computing the “regular” rate of pay. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> See §§ 778.200 through 778.225 of this chapter for an explanation of what payments may be excluded.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5681, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 26 FR 7731, Aug. 18, 1961]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.303" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.102.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.303   Average earnings for each type of work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 548.3(c) authorizes as an established basic rate: “A rate per hour which is obtained by averaging the earnings, exclusive of payments described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of section 7(e) of the act, of the employee for each type of work performed during each workweek, or any other longer period not exceeding sixteen calendar days, for which such average is regularly computed under the agreement or understanding. Such a rate may be used to compute overtime compensation, during the particular period for which such average is computed, for all the overtime hours worked by the employee at the type of work for which the rate is obtained.”
</P>
<P>(b) Section 548.3(c) differs from § 548.3(b) in this way: Section 548.3(b) provides for the computation of the basic rate on the average of all earnings during the specified period; § 548.3(c) permits the basic rate to be computed on the basis of the earnings for each particular type of work. Thus, if the employee performs different types of work, each involving a different rate of pay such as different piece-rate, job rates, or a combination of these with hourly rates, a separate basic rate may be computed for each type of work and overtime computed on the basis of the rate or rates applicable to the type of work performed during the overtime hours.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>An employee who is paid on a weekly basis with overtime after 40 hours works six 8-hour days in a workweek under an agreement or understanding reached pursuant to this subsection. He performs three different types of piecework, each at a different rate of pay. The basic rates to be used for computing overtime in this situation would be arrived at by dividing the earnings for each type of work by the number of hours during which that type of work was performed. There would thus be three different basic rates, one for each type of work. Since the overtime hours used in this illustration occur on the sixth day, the types of work performed on the sixth day would determine the basic rate or rates on which overtime would be computed that week. Thus, if the average hourly earnings for the three types of work are respectively $1.70 an hour in type A, $1.80 an hour in type B, and $2 an hour in type C, and on the sixth day the employee works on type B, his overtime premium for the sixth day would be one-half the basic rate of $1.80 an hour, multiplied by the 8 hours worked on that day.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 1, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 201, <I>et seq.</I>)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5681, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 32 FR 3293, Feb. 25, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.304" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.102.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.304   Excluding value of lunches furnished.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 548.3(d) authorizes as established basic rates:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The rate or rates which may be used under the Act to compute overtime compensation of the employee but excluding the cost of meals where the employer customarily furnishes not more than a single meal per day.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is the purpose of § 548.3(d) to permit the employer upon agreement with his employees to omit from the computation of overtime the cost of a free daily lunch or other single daily meal furnished to the employees. The policy behind § 548.3(d) is derived from the Administrator's experience that the amount of additional overtime compensation involved in such cases is trivial and does not justify the bookkeeping required in computing it. Section 548.3(d) is applicable only in cases where the employer customarily furnishes no more than a single meal a day. If more than one meal a day is customarily furnished by the employer all such meals must be taken into account in computing the regular rate of pay and the overtime compensation due. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> In a situation where the employer furnishes three meals a day to his employees he may not, under § 548.3(d), omit one of the three meals in computing overtime compensation. However, if an employer furnishes a free lunch every day and, in addition, occasionally pays “supper money” 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> when the employees work overtime, the cost of the lunches and the supper money may both be excluded from the overtime rates.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See § 531.37 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> See § 778.217(b)(4) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5682, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 21 FR 338, Jan. 18, 1956]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.305" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.102.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.305   Excluding certain additions to wages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) See § 548.3(e) for authorized established basic rates.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 548.3(e) permits the employer, upon agreement or understanding with the employee, to omit from the computation of overtime certain incidental payments which have a trivial effect on the overtime compensation due. Examples of payments which may be excluded are: modest housing, bonuses or prizes of various sorts, tuition paid by the employer for the employee's attendance at a school, and cash payments or merchandise awards for soliciting or obtaining new business. It may also include such things as payment by the employer of the employee's social security tax.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of one or more additional payments under § 548.3(e) must not affect the overtime compensation of the employee by more than 40 percent of the applicable hourly minimum wage under either section 6(a) of the Act or the state or local law applicable in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed, whichever is higher, per week on the average for the overtime weeks.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example.</I> An employee, who normally would come within the 40-hour provision of section 7(a) of the Act, is paid a cost-of-living bonus of $1300 each calendar quarter, or $100 per week. The employee works overtime in only 2 weeks in the 13-week period, and in each of these overtime weeks he works 50 hours. He is therefore entitled to $10 as overtime compensation on the bonus for each week in which overtime was worked (<I>i.e.,</I> $100 bonus divided by 50 hours equals $2 an hour; 10 overtime hours, times one-half, times $2 an hour, equals $10 per week). Forty percent of the minimum wage of $7.25 is $2.90 (this example assumes the employee works in a state or locality that does not have a minimum wage that is higher than the minimum wage under the FLSA). Since the overtime on the bonus is more than $2.90 on the average for the 2 overtime weeks, this cost-of-living bonus would be included in the overtime computation under § 548.3(e).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) It is not always necessary to make elaborate computations to determine whether the effect of the exclusion of a bonus or other incidental payment on the employee's total compensation will exceed 40 percent of the applicable hourly minimum wage under either section 6(a) of the Act or the state or local law applicable in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed, whichever is higher, per week on the average. Frequently the addition to regular wages is so small or the number of overtime hours is so limited that under any conceivable circumstances exclusion of the additional payments from the rate used to compute the employee's overtime compensation would not affect the employee's total earnings by more than 40 percent of the applicable hourly minimum wage under either section 6(a) of the Act or the state or local law applicable in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed, whichever is higher, per week. The determination that this is so may be made by inspection of the payroll records or knowledge of the normal working hours.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example.</I> An employer has a policy of giving employees who have a perfect attendance record during a 4-week period a bonus of $50. The employee never works more than 50 hours a week. Exclusion of this attendance bonus from the rate of pay used to compute overtime compensation could not affect the employee's total earnings by more than $2.90 per week (<I>i.e.,</I> 40 percent of the minimum wage of $7.25, assuming the employee works in a state or locality that does not have a minimum wage that is higher than the minimum wage under the FLSA).
<SU>14</SU>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> For a 50-hour week, an employee's bonus would have to exceed $29 a week to affect his overtime compensation by more than $2.90 (<I>i.e.,</I> 40 percent of the minimum wage of $7.25). ($30 ÷ 50 hours worked × 10 overtime hours × 0.5).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) There are many situations in which the employer and employee cannot predict with any degree of certainty the amount of bonus to be paid at the end of the bonus period. They may not be able to anticipate with any degree of certainty the number of hours an employee might work each week during the bonus period. In such situations, the employer and employee may agree prior to the performance of the work that a bonus will be disregarded in the computation of overtime pay if the employee's total earnings are not affected by more than 40 percent of the applicable hourly minimum wage under either section 6(a) of the Act or the state or local law applicable in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed, whichever is higher, per week on the average for all overtime weeks during the bonus period. If it turns out at the end of the bonus period that the effect on the employee's total compensation would exceed 40 percent of the applicable minimum wage under either section 6(a) of the Act or the state or local law applicable in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed, whichever is higher, per week on the average, then additional overtime compensation must be paid on the bonus. (See § 778.209 of this chapter, for an explanation of how to compute overtime on the bonus).
</P>
<P>(f) In order to determine whether the exclusion of a bonus or other incidental payment would affect the total compensation of the employee by not more than 40 percent of the applicable hourly minimum wage under either section 6(a) of the Act or the state or local law applicable in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed, whichever is higher, per week on the average, a comparison is made between his total compensation computed under the employment agreement and his total compensation computed in accordance with the applicable overtime provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example.</I> An employee, who normally would come within the 40-hour provision of section 7(a) of the Act, is paid at piece rates and at one and one-half times the applicable piece rates for work performed during hours in excess of 40 in the workweek. The employee is also paid a bonus, which when apportioned over the bonus period, amounts to $10 a week. He never works more than 50 hours a week. The piece rates could be established as basic rates under the employment agreement and no additional overtime compensation paid on the bonus. The employee's total compensation computed in accordance with the applicable overtime provision of the Act, section 7(g)(1) 
<SU>15</SU> would be affected by not more than $1 in any week by not paying overtime compensation on the bonus.
<SU>16</SU>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Section 7(g)(1) of the Act provides that overtime compensation may be paid at one and one-half times the applicable piece rate but extra overtime compensation must be properly computed and paid on additional pay required to be included in computing the regular rate.
</P>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> Bonus of $10 divided by fifty hours equals 20 cents an hour. Half of this hourly rate multiplied by ten overtime hours equals $1.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) Section 548.3(e) is not applicable to employees employed at subminimum wage rates under learner certificates, or special certificates for handicapped workers, or in the case of employees in Puerto Rico or the Virgin Islands employed at special minimum rates authorized by wage orders issued pursuant to the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 6769, May 6, 1966, as amended at 84 FR 68769, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.306" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.102.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.306   Average earnings for year or quarter year preceding the current quarter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 548.3(f)(1) authorizes as an established basic rate:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>A rate per hour for each workweek equal to the average hourly remuneration of the employee for employment during the annual period or the quarterly period immediately preceding the calendar or fiscal quarter year in which such workweek ends, provided (i) it is a fact, confirmed by proper records of the employer, that the terms, conditions, and circumstances of employment during such prior period, including weekly hours of work, work assignments and duties, and the basis of remuneration for employment, were not significantly different from the terms, conditions, and circumstances of employment which affect the employee's regular rates of pay during the current quarter year, and (ii) such average hourly remuneration during the prior period is computed by the method or methods authorized in the following subparagraphs.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) There may be circumstances in which it would be impossible or highly impracticable for an employer at the end of a pay period to compute, allocate, and pay to an employee certain kinds of remuneration for employment during that pay period. This may be true in the case of such types of compensation as commissions, recurring bonuses, and other incentive payments which are calculated on work performance over a substantial period of time. Since the total amount of straight-time remuneration is unknown at the time of payment the full regular rate cannot be ascertained and overtime compensation could not be paid immediately except for the provisions of § 548.3(f). In many such situations, the necessity for any subsequent computation and payment of the additional overtime compensation due on these types of remuneration can be avoided and all overtime premium pay due under the Act, including premium pay due on such a commission, bonus or incentive payment, can be paid at the end of the pay period rather than at some later date, if the parties to the employment agreement so desire. This is authorized by § 548.3(f)(1), which provides an alternate method of paying overtime premium pay by permitting an employer, under certain conditions, to use an established basic rate for computing overtime premium pay at the end of each pay period rather than waiting until some later date when the exact amounts of the commission, bonus, or other incentive payment can be ascertained. Such established rate may also be used in other appropriate situations where the parties desire to avoid the necessity of recomputing the regular rate from week to week.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The rate authorized by §§ 548.3(f)(1) is an average hourly rate based on earnings and hours worked during the workweeks ending in a representative period consisting of either the four quarter-years or the last quarter-year immediately preceding the calendar or fiscal quarter-year in which the established rate is to be used. Such a rate may be used only if it is a fact, confirmed by proper records of the employer, that the terms, conditions, and circumstances of employment during this prior period were not significantly different from those affecting the employee's regular rates of pay during the current quarterly period. Significant differences in weekly hours of work, work assignments and duties, the basis of remuneration for employment, or other factors in the employment which could result in substantial differences in regular rates of pay as between the two periods will render the use of an established rate based on such a prior period inappropriate, and its use is not authorized under such circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) However, an increase in the basic salary or other constant factor would not preclude the use of such a rate provided that accurate adjustments are made. For instance, assume that during the previous annual period an employee was compensated on the basis of a weekly salary of $70 plus a commission of 1 percent of sales. If his weekly salary is raised to $80 for the next annual period (assuming he still receives his commission of 1 percent of sales) the annual rate on which the established rate is to be computed must be adjusted by an increase of $520 ($10 × 52 weeks). For instance, assume the above employee earned a total of $4,244 and worked 2,318 hours during the previous annual period when his salary was $70 per week. Normally his established basic rate would be computed by dividing 2,318 hours into $4,244, thus arriving at a rate of $1.83. However, since the rate must reflect the increase in salary it must be computed by adding the anticipated increase to the pay received during the previous annual period ($4,244 + $520 = $4,764). The established basic rate would then be $2.05.
</P>
<P>(d) Establishment of the rate explained in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section is authorized under the circumstances there stated, provided it is computed in accordance with § 548.3(f)(2), which prescribes the following method: First, all of the employees' remuneration for employment during the workweeks ending in the representative four-quarter or quarter-year period immediately preceding the current quarter, except overtime premiums and other payments excluded from the regular rate under section 7(e) of the Act, must be totaled. All straight-time earnings at hourly or piece rates or in the form of salary, commissions, bonus or other incentive payments, and board, lodging, or other facilities to the extent required under section 3(m) of the Act and Part 531 of this chapter, together with all other forms of remuneration paid to or on behalf of the employee must be included in the above total. Second, this total sum must be divided by the total number of hours worked during all the workweeks ending in the prior period for which such remuneration was paid. The average hourly rate obtained through this division may be used as the established rate for computing overtime compensation in any workweek, in which the employee works in excess of the applicable maximum standard number of hours, ending in the calendar or fiscal quarter-year period following the four-quarter or quarterly period used for determination of this rate. This is authorized irrespective of any fluctuations of average straight-time hourly earnings above or below such rate from workweek to workweek within the quarter.
</P>
<P>(e) As a variant to the method of computation described in paragraph (d) of this section, it is provided in § 548.3(f)(3), with respect to situations where it is not practicable for an employer to compute the total remuneration of an employee for employment in the prior period in time to determine obligations under the Act for the current quarter year, a one-month grace period may be used. This method is authorized, for example, in employment situations where the computation of bonuses, commissions, or other incentive payments cannot be made immediately at the end of the four-quarter or quarterly base period. If this one month grace period is used, it will be deemed in compliance with § 548.3(f)(1) to use the basic rate authorized therein for the quarter commencing one month after the next preceding four-quarter or quarter-year period. To illustrate, suppose an employer and employee agree that the employee will be paid for overtime work at one and one-half times a basic rate computed in accordance with § 548.3(f)(1), but on the pay day for the first workweek ending in the current quarter his records do not show all commissions earned by the employee in the preceding quarter. The employer and employee may therefore elect to use a one month grace period. This would mean that a basic rate for the quarter January 1-March 31, for example, which is derived from the prior four-quarter (January 1-December 31) or quarterly (October 1-December 31) period, as the case may be, would be applied during a quarterly period commencing one month later (February 1-April 30) than the period (January 1-March 31) in which it would otherwise be applicable. The same adjustment would be made in succeeding quarters. Once the grace method of computation is adopted it must be used for each successive quarter.
</P>
<P>(f) The established basic rate must be designated and substantiated in the employer's records as required by part 516 of this chapter, and other requirements of such part with respect to records must be met. An agreement or understanding between the parties to use such rate must be reached prior to the quarter-year period in which the work to which it is applied is performed. The agreement or understanding may be limited to a fixed period or may be a continuing one, but use of the established rate under such an agreement or understanding is not authorized for any period in which terms, conditions, and circumstances of employment become significantly different from those obtaining during the period from which the rate was derived. This method of computation cannot be used if there is any change in the employee's position, method of pay, or amount of salary or if the employee was not employed during the full period used to determine the rate.
</P>
<P>(g) To function properly and to provide, over an extended period, overtime premium pay substantially equivalent to the pay the employee would receive if overtime were paid on the true regular rate, the plan must provide that overtime be computed on the established basic rate in every overtime week without regard to the fact that in some weeks the employee receives more premium pay than he would using the true regular rate and in some weeks less. Plans initiated pursuant to this section are based on averages and, if properly applied, will yield substantially the same overtime compensation in a representative period as the employee would have received if it were computed on the true regular rate.
</P>
<P>(h) The following examples assume the employee is due overtime premium pay for hours worked over 40 in the workweek.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example.</I> A sales employee whose applicable maximum hours standard is 40 hours enters into an agreement with his employer that he will be paid a salary plus a commission based on a certain percentage of sales. He agrees that this compensation will constitute his total straight-time earnings for all hours worked each week, provided such compensation equals or exceeds the applicable minimum wage.
</P>
<P>The employee further agrees that he is to receive overtime premium pay for each workweek on the normal pay day for that week; based each quarter on one-half his established basic rate derived by taking the hourly average of the total straight-time remuneration he received during the workweeks ending in the four-quarter period immediately preceding the current quarter. For example, his established basic rate for each workweek ending in the first quarter of 1964 (January through March) is determined by computing his average hourly rate for employment during all workweeks ending in the four quarter periods of 1963.
</P>
<P>Assume the employee worked the following number of hours and received the straight-time pay indicated:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Line No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Quarters
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Pay
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Hours worked
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1st—1963</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,074</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2d—1963</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">980</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$980</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">489
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3d—1963</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,069</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,069</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4th—1963</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,365</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,365</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">619</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">619
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1, 2, 3, 4—1963</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,488</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1st—1964</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,168</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">531
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2, 3, 4 (1963) 1 (1964)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,582</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,181</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>The employee's basic rate for the first quarter of 1964 (line 6) is determined by the hours worked and pay received in the four previous quarters (lines 1, 2, 3 and 4). Total pay received during that period ($4,488.00, line 5) is divided by the total hours worked (2,200 hours, line 5) to derive the established basic rate ($2.04 per hour). This is the hourly rate on which overtime is computed in each workweek ending in the first quarter of 1964 in which the employee worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard. For instance, if in the first week of that quarter the employee worked 47 hours he would be due his guaranteed salary, his commission (at a later date) plus $7.14 as overtime premium pay (7 hours × 2.04 × 1/2). It does not matter that the employee actually earned and ultimately received $90.71 in salary and commission as his total straight-time pay for that week and that his true hourly rate would be only $1.93 ($90.71 ÷ 47 hours). The established basic rate is an average rate and is designed to be used, and must be used, in every overtime week in the quarter for which it was computed, without regard to the employee's true hourly rate in the particular week.
</FP>
<P>The employee's basic rate for the second quarter of 1964 will be similarly computed at the end of the first quarter of that year by adding together the hours worked and pay received in the second, third, and fourth quarters of 1963 and the first quarter of 1964 (lines 2, 3, 4 and 6) so that the totals now reflect the figures in line 7. The regular rate is again computed by dividing pay received ($4,582.00) by hours worked (2,181) and the new basic rate would be $2.10.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> Assume that an employee employed under a similar arrangement agrees to receive overtime premium pay for each workweek on the normal pay day, based each quarter on one-half his established basic rate determined by the <I>quarterly</I> method rather than by the <I>annual</I> method previously discussed. His established basic rate for the first quarter of 1964 would therefore be determined by computing his average hourly rate for the <I>last quarter</I> of 1963. To illustrate, if in the latter quarter the employee received $1,156.00 in straight time compensation and worked 561 hours, his basic rate for the first quarter of 1964 would therefore be $2.06 ($1,156.00 ÷ 561 hours). During the overtime weeks in this quarter there would be due him, in addition to his straight time compensation, premium pay of $1.03 ($2.06 × 1/2) for each hour he works in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard.
</P>
<P>As in the previous example the established basic rate must be used in every overtime week in the quarter for which it was computed without regard to the employee's true hourly rate in the particular quarter.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 1, 52 Stat. 1060, 1062, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 201, <I>et seq.</I>)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 11266, Oct. 22, 1963, as amended at 32 FR 3293, Feb. 26, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="103" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.103" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Rates Authorized on Application</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.400" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.103.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.400   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an employer wants to use an established basic rate other than one of those authorized under § 548.3, he must obtain specific prior approval from the Administrator. For example, if an employer wishes to compute overtime compensation for piece workers for each workweek in a 4-week period at established basic rates which are the straight-time average hourly earnings for each employee for the immediately preceding 4-week period, he should apply to the Administrator for authorization. The application for approval of such a basic rate should be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. No particular form of application is required but the minimum necessary information outlined in § 548.4 should be included. The application may be made by an employer or a group of employers. If any of the employees covered by the application is represented by a collective bargaining agent, a joint application of the employer and the bargaining agent should be filed. It is not necessary to file separate applications for each employee. One application will cover as many employees as will be paid at the proposed basic rate or rates.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior approval of the Administrator is also required if the employer desires to use a basic rate or basic rates which come within the scope of a combination of two or more of the paragraphs in § 548.3 unless the basic rate or rates sought to be adopted meet the requirements of a single paragraph in § 548.3. For instance, an employee may receive free lunches, the cost of which, by agreement or understanding, is not to be included in the rate used to compute overtime compensation.
<SU>17</SU> In addition, the employee may receive an attendance bonus which, by agreement or understanding, is to be excluded from the rate used to compute overtime compensation.
<SU>18</SU> Since these exclusions involve two paragraphs of § 548.3, prior approval of the Administrator would be necessary unless the exclusion of the cost of the free lunches together with the attendance bonus do not affect the employee's overtime compensation by more than 40 percent of the applicable hourly minimum wage under either section 6(a) of the Act or the state or local law applicable in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed, whichever is higher, per week on the average, in which case the employer and the employee may treat the situation as one falling within § 548.3(e).
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> See § 548.304.
</P>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> See § 548.305.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5682, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 21 FR 338, Jan. 18, 1956; 32 FR 3294, Feb. 25, 1967; 84 FR 68770, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.401" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.103.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.401   Agreement or understanding.</HEAD>
<P>If the agreement or understanding establishing the basic rate is in writing, whether incorporated in a collective bargaining agreement or not, a copy of the agreement or understanding should be attached to the application. If it is not in writing, however, the application to the Administrator for approval of a basic rate should contain a written statement describing the substance of the agreement or understanding, including the proposed effective date and term of the agreement or understanding. The term of the agreement or understanding may be of definite duration, or may run indefinitely until modified or changed. If an agreement or understanding is modified, a new application for authorization should be made. 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> See § 548.200 for a further explanation of the requirements as to the agreement or understanding establishing the basic rate.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5683, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 21 FR 338, Jan. 18, 1956]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.402" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.103.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.402   Applicable overtime provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The application should also contain a description of the terms of employment relating to overtime so that the Administrator can determine how the established basic rate will be used if it is approved. For instance, if the employees are to be paid time and one-half the basic rate for all hours worked in excess of 35 each workweek, this should be stated in the application. If the employees are to be paid double time for work on Sundays the application should so state.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5683, Aug. 6, 1955]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.403" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.103.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.403   Description of method of calculation.</HEAD>
<P>The established basic rate for which approval will be sought will normally be a formula or method of calculation of a rate rather than a specific dollars and cents rates. 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> The application should contain a complete description of the formula or method of calculation of the established basic rate, including any necessary examples which will enable the Administrator to understand how the rate will be computed and applied.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> See § 548.200.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5683, Aug. 6, 1955]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.404" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.103.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.404   Kinds of jobs or employees.</HEAD>
<P>The application should describe or otherwise identify the employees to whom the established basic rate will apply. The individual employees need not be identified by name but may be described in terms of job classification, department, location or other appropriate identifying characteristics.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5683, Aug. 6, 1955]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.405" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.103.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.405   Representative period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application must set forth the facts relied upon to show that the established basic rate is substantially equivalent to the average hourly earnings of the employee exclusive of overtime premiums over a representative period of time. 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/> The basic rate will be considered “substantially equivalent” to the average hourly earnings of the employee if, during a representative period, the employee's total overtime earnings calculated at the basic rate in accordance with the applicable overtime provisions are approximately equal to the employee's total overtime earnings computed on his average hourly earnings for each workweek in accordance with section 7(a) of the Act. 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> See §§ 778.200 through 778.207 of this chapter for further discussion of overtime premiums which may be excluded from the regular rate of pay.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> See §§ 778.208 through 778.225 of this chapter for further discussion of the exclusion of vacation pay, holiday pay, discretionary bonuses and other payments from the average hourly earnings which comprise the employee's regular rate of pay.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The length of time constituting a representative period will depend on the factors that cause the employee's average hourly earnings to vary appreciably from week to week. For instance, if the variation in earnings of an employee paid on an incentive basis is due to the difference in availability of work in the slow and busy seasons the period used for comparison of overtime earnings would have to include both a slow and a busy season in order to be representative. Likewise, if a piece-worker's average hourly earnings vary appreciably from week to week because of differences in materials or styles worked on, the period used for purposes of comparison would have to include work on the different materials and styles in order to be representative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5683, Aug. 6, 1955]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="104" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.104" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Computation of Overtime Pay</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.500" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.104.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.500   Methods of computation.</HEAD>
<P>The methods of computing overtime pay on the basic rates for piece workers, hourly rated employees, and salaried employees are the same as the methods of computing overtime pay at the regular rate.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Under an employment agreement the basic rate to be used in computing overtime compensation for a piece worker for hours of work in excess of 8 in each day is the employee's average hourly earnings for all work performed during that day. 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/> The employee is entitled to one-half the basic rate for each daily overtime hour in addition to the total piece work earnings for the day.
</PSPACE>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> See § 548.302.</P></FTNT></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>An employee, who normally would come within the forty hour provision of section 7(a) of the Act, has a basic rate which is his monthly salary divided by the number of regular hours of work in the month. 
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> If the salary is intended to cover straight-time compensation for a forty hour week he would be entitled to overtime for every hour after forty computed on the basis of one and one-half times the established basic rate, in addition to his monthly salary. If the salary is intended to cover a workweek shorter than forty hours, such as thirty-five hours, he would be entitled to additional straight time at the basic rate for the hours between thirty-five and forty and also to overtime at one and one-half time that rate for all hours worked in excess of forty in a week.
</PSPACE>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> See § 548.301.</P></FTNT></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5683, Aug. 6, 1955, as amended at 26 FR 7732, Aug. 18, 1961]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.501" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.104.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.501   Overtime hours based on nonstatutory standards.</HEAD>
<P>Many employees are paid daily overtime pay or Saturday overtime pay or overtime pay on a basis other than the statutory standard of overtime pay required by section 7(a) of the Act. In these cases, the number of hours for which an employee is paid at least one and one-half times an established basic rate must equal or exceed the number of hours worked in excess of the applicable number of hours established in section 7(a) of the Act in the workweek. However, only overtime hours under the employment agreement which also qualify as overtime hours under section 7(e) (5), (6), or (7) of the Act 
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/> may be offset against the hours of work in excess of the applicable number of hours established in section 7(a) of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> See §§ 778.201 through 778.207 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 7732, Aug. 18, 1961]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 548.502" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.25.2.104.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 548.502   Other payments.</HEAD>
<P>Extra overtime compensation must be separately computed and paid on payments such as bonuses or shift differentials which are not included in the computation of the established basic rate and which would have been included in the regular rate of pay. 
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> Unless specifically excluded by agreement or understanding and prior authorization is obtained from the Administrator. See § 548.400(b).</P></FTNT>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>An employee is paid on an hourly rate basis plus a production bonus, and also a shift differential of 10 cents for each hour worked on the second shift. The authorized basic rate under the agreement is the employee's daily average hourly earnings, and under the employment agreement he is paid one and one-half times the basic rate for all hours worked in excess of 8 each day. Suppose his production bonus is included in the computation of the basic rate, but the shift differential is not. In addition to overtime compensation computed at the basic rate the employee must be paid an extra 5 cents for each overtime hour worked on the second shift.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>A piece worker, under his employment agreement, is paid overtime compensation for daily overtime and for hours of work on Saturday based on an authorized basic rate obtained by averaging his piece work earnings for the half-month. In addition, he is paid a monthly cost-of-living bonus which is not included in the computation of the basic rate. It will be necessary for the employer to compute and pay overtime compensation separately on the bonus. 
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/>
</PSPACE>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> See § 778.209 of this chapter for an explanation of how to compute overtime on the bonus.</P></FTNT></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[20 FR 5683, Aug. 6, 1955]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="549" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 549—REQUIREMENTS OF A “BONA FIDE PROFIT-SHARING PLAN OR TRUST”
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 7, 52 Stat. 1063, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 207.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>18 FR 3292, June 10, 1953, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 549.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.26.0.105.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 549.0   Scope and effect of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part set forth the requirements of a “bona fide profit-sharing plan or trust” under section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (hereinafter called the Act). In determining the total remuneration for employment which section 7(e) of the Act requires to be included in the regular rate at which an employee is employed, it is not necessary to include any sums paid to or on behalf of such employee, in recognition of services performed by him during a given period, which are paid pursuant to a bona fide profit-sharing plan or trust meeting the requirements set forth herein. In the formulation of these regulations due regard has been given to the factors and standards set forth in section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The inclusion or exclusion from the regular rate of contributions made by an employer pursuant to any plan or trust for providing old age, retirement, life, accident or health insurance or similar benefits for employees (regardless of whether the plan or trust is financed out of profits) is governed by section 7(e)(4) of the Act, the requirements of which are set forth in the Interpretative Bulletin on Overtime Compensation, part 778, of this chapter, §§ 778.214 and 778.215. However, where such a plan or trust is combined in a single program (whether in one or more documents) with a plan or trust for providing profit-sharing payments to employees, the profit-sharing payments may be excluded from the regular rate if they meet the requirements of the regulations in this part and the contributions made by the employer for providing the benefits described in section 7(e)(4) of the Act may be excluded from the regular rate if they meet the tests set forth in the Interpretative Bulletin, part 778, of this chapter, §§ 778.214 and 778.215.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 549.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.26.0.105.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 549.1   Essential requirements for qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bona fide profit-sharing plan or trust for purposes of section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Act is required to meet all of the standards set forth in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section and must not contain any of the disqualifying provisions set forth in § 549.2.
</P>
<P>(b) The profit-sharing plan or trust constitutes a definite program or arrangement in writing, communicated or made available to the employees, which is established and maintained in good faith for the purpose of distributing to the employees a share of profits as additional remuneration over and above the wages or salaries paid to employees which wages or salaries are not dependent upon or influenced by the existence of such profit-sharing plan or trust or the amount of the payments made pursuant thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) All contributions or allocations by the employer to the fund or trust to be distributed to the employees are:
</P>
<P>(1) Derived solely from profits of the employer's business enterprise, establishment or plant as a whole, or an established branch or division of the business or enterprise which is recognized as such for general business purposes and for which profits are separately and regularly calculated in accordance with accepted accounting practice; and
</P>
<P>(2) Made periodically, but not more frequently than is customary or consonant with accepted accounting practice to make periodic determinations of profit.
</P>
<P>(d) Eligibility to share in profits extends:
</P>
<P>(1) At least to all employees who are subject to the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Act, or to all such employees in an established part of the employer's business as described in paragraph (c) of this section: <I>Provided, however,</I> That such eligibility may be determined by factors such as length of service or minimum schedule of hours or days of work which are specified in the plan or trust, and further, that eligibility need not extend to officers of the employer; or
</P>
<P>(2) To such classifications of employees as the employer may designate with the approval of the Administrator upon a finding, after notice to interested persons, including employee representatives, and an opportunity to present their views either orally or in writing, that it is in accord with the meaning and intent of the provisions of section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Act and this part. The Administrator may give such notice by requiring the employer to post a notice approved by the Administrator for a specified period in a place or places where notices to employees are customarily posted or at such other place or places designated by the Administrator, or he may require notice to be given in such other manner as he deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) The amounts paid to individual employees are determined in accordance with a definite formula or method of calculation specified in the plan or trust. The formula or method of calculation may be based on any one or more or more of such factors as straight-time earnings, total earnings, base rate of pay of the employee, straight-time hours or total hours worked by employees, or length of service, or distribution may be made on a per capita basis.
</P>
<P>(f) An employee's total share determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section may not be diminished because of any other remuneration received by him.
</P>
<P>(g) Provision is made either for payment to the individual employees of their respective shares of profits within a reasonable period after the determination of the amount of profits to be distributed, or for the irrevocable deposit by the employer of his employees' distributive shares of profits with a trustee for deferred distribution to such employees of their respective shares after a stated period of time or upon the occurrence of appropriate contingencies specified in the plan or trust: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the right of an employee to receive his share is not made dependent upon his continuing in the employ of the employer after the period for which the determination of profits has been made.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0013)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[18 FR 3292, June 10, 1953, as amended at 47 FR 145, Jan. 5, 1982; 71 FR 16666, Apr. 3, 2006; 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 549.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.26.0.105.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 549.2   Disqualifying provisions.</HEAD>
<P>No plan or trust which contains any one of the following provisions shall be deemed to meet the requirements of a bona fide profit-sharing plan or trust under section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Act:
</P>
<P>(a) If the share of any individual employee is determined in substance on the basis of attendance, quality or quantity of work, rate of production, or efficiency;
</P>
<P>(b) If the amount to be paid periodically by the employer into the fund or trust to be distributed to the employees is a fixed sum;
</P>
<P>(c) If periodic payments of minimum amounts to the employees are guaranteed by the employer;
</P>
<P>(d) If any individual employee's share, by the terms of the plan or trust, is set at a predetermined fixed sum or is so limited as to provide in effect for the payment of a fixed sum, or is limited to or set at a predetermined specified rate per hour or other unit of work or worktime;
</P>
<P>(e) If the employer's contributions or allocations to the fund or trust to be distributed to the employees are based on factors other than profits such as hours of work, production, efficiency, sales or savings in cost.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 549.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.26.0.105.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 549.3   Distinction between plan and trust.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Profit-sharing plan</I> means any such program or arrangement as qualifies hereunder which provides for the distribution by the employer to his employees of their respective shares of profits;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Profit-sharing trust</I> means any such program or arrangement as qualifies under this part which provides for the irrevocable deposit by the employer of his employees' distributive shares of profits with a trustee for deferred distribution to such employees of their respective shares.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="550" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 550—DEFINING AND DELIMITING THE TERM “TALENT FEES”
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 7, 52 Stat. 1063, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 207. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 550.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.27.0.105.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 550.1   “Talent fees” as used in section 7(e)(3)(c) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>talent fees</I> in section 7(e)(3)(c) of the Act shall mean extra payments made to performers, including announcers on radio and television programs, where the payment is made:
</P>
<P>(a) To an employee having regular duties as a staff performer (including announcers), as an extra payment for services as a performer on a particular commercial program or a particular series of commercial programs (including commercial spot announcements) or for special services as a performer on a particular sustaining program or a particular series of sustaining programs;
</P>
<P>(b) In pursuance of an applicable employment agreement or understanding or an applicable collective bargaining agreement in a specific amount agreed upon in advance of the performance of the services or special services for which the extra payment is made: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where services described in paragraph (a) of this section are performed on a program falling outside of the regular workday or workweek as established and scheduled in good faith in accordance with the provisions of the applicable employment agreement, the Administrator will not regard the Act as requiring additional compensation as a result of the time worked on the program if the parties agree in advance of such program that a special payment made therefor shall include any increased statutory compensation attributable to the additional worktime thereon and if such special payment, when made, is actually sufficient in amount to include the statutory straight time and overtime compensation (computed without regard to talent fees) for the additional time worked in the workweek resulting from the performer's services on such program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 402, Jan. 25, 1950, as amended at 18 FR 5069, Aug. 25, 1953]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 550.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.27.0.105.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 550.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the regulations in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>extra payment</I> shall mean a payment, in a specific amount, made in addition to the straight-time and overtime compensation which would be due the performer under the agreement applicable to his employment and under the Act if the time spent in performing the services or special services referred to in paragraph (a) of § 550.1 had been devoted exclusively to duties as a staff performer; but shall not include any payment any part of which is credited or offset against any remuneration otherwise payable to the performer under any contract or statutory provision;
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>performer</I> shall mean a person who performs a distinctive, personalized service as a part of an actual broadcast or telecast including an actor, singer, dancer, musician, comedian, or any person who entertains, affords amusement to, or occupies the interest of a radio or television audience by acting, singing, dancing, reading, narrating, performing feats of skill, or announcing, or describing or relating facts, events and other matters of interest, and who actively participates in such capacity in the actual presentation of a radio or television program. It shall not include such persons as script writers, stand-ins, or directors who are neither seen nor heard by the radio or television audience; nor shall it include persons who participate in the broadcast or telecast purely as technicians such as engineers, electricians and stage hands;
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>special services</I> shall mean services beyond the scope of a performer's regular or ordinary duties as a staff performer under the agreement applicable to the employment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 402, Jan. 25, 1950]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="551" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 551—LOCAL DELIVERY DRIVERS AND HELPERS; WAGE PAYMENT PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 9, 75 Stat. 74; 29 U.S.C. 213(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>30 FR 8585, July 7, 1965, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 551.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.1   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>The following provision for exemption from the overtime pay provision is contained in section 13(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (29 U.S.C. 213(b)):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The provisions of section 7 shall not apply with respect to:</P></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(11) any employee employed as a driver or driver's helper making local deliveries, who is compensated for such employment on the basis of trip rates, or other delivery payment plan, if the Secretary shall find that such plan has the general purpose and effect of reducing hours worked by such employees to, or below, the maximum workweek applicable to them under section 7(a).</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Under this provision, an employee employed and compensated as described in the quoted paragraph (11) may be employed without payment of overtime compensation for a workweek longer than the maximum workweek applicable to him under section 7(a) of the Act, but only if it is established by a finding of the Secretary that the employee is compensated for his employment as a driver or driver's helper making local deliveries on the basis of trip rates or other delivery payment plan that has the general purpose and effect stated in section 13(b)(11). Such a finding is prescribed by the statute as one of the “explicit prerequisites to exemption”. (See <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388, 392.)


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 551.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.2   Findings authorized by this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator, pursuant to the authority vested in him by the Secretary of Labor, will make and apply findings under section 13(b)(11) of the Act as provided in this part. Such findings shall be made only upon petitions meeting the requirements of this part, and only as authorized in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of establishing whether a wage payment plan has the purpose and effect required by section 13(b)(11) for an exemption from the overtime provisions of the Act, the Administrator shall have authority, upon a proper showing and in accordance with the provisions of this part, to make a finding as to the general purpose and effect of any specific plan of compensation on the basis of trip rates or other delivery payment plan, with respect to the reduction of the length of the workweeks worked by the employees of any specific employer who are compensated in accordance with such plan for their employment by such employer as drivers or drivers' helpers making local deliveries.
</P>
<P>(c) Any finding made as to the purpose and effect of such a wage payment plan pursuant to a petition therefor will be based upon a consideration of all relevant facts shown or represented to exist with respect to such plan that are made available to the Administrator. A finding that such plan has the general effect of reducing the hours worked by drivers or drivers' helpers compensated thereunder to, or below, the maximum workweek applicable to them under section 7(a) of the Act is not authorized under this part unless the Administrator finds that during the most recently completed representative period of one year (based on the experience of the employer in question, or if such employer has not previously used such plan, on the experience of another employer using such plan under substantially the same conditions, all as defined in § 551.8(g)(1)), the average weekly hours, taken in the aggregate, of all full-time employees covered by the plan are not in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employees under section 7(a), or unless the Administrator makes an interim finding with respect to such plan that, notwithstanding a lack of experience under it for a representative period of 1 year, its provisions and manner of operation, together with the other available information concerning the plan, indicate clearly that by the end of such first representative year the effect of the plan will have been to reduce the average weekly hours worked by the employees covered by the plan in such first year of operation to, or below, such maximum applicable workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 551.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.3   Petition for a finding.</HEAD>
<P>Any employer desiring to establish an exemption from the overtime pay requirements of the Act with respect to employees whose employment and compensation may be considered to qualify therefor under section 13(b)(11) may petition the Administrator, in writing, for a finding under such section and this part. If the wage payment plan with respect to which the finding is sought has been the subject of collective bargaining with representatives of employees covered by the plan, the employer shall provide timely notice of such petition, in writing, to the authorized representatives or representatives of such employees and shall submit a copy of such notice to the Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 551.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.4   Requirements for petition.</HEAD>
<P>A petition for a finding under section 13(b)(11) of the Act and this part shall include in such detail as the Administrator may deem necessary for evaluation under the standards provided by the statute and this part, all the information required by § 551.5. Such information may be presented in any form convenient to the petitioner; no particular form is prescribed for the petition. The petition shall also include, by attachment, a copy of any collective bargaining agreement or other document governing the method of payment for the work of employees covered by the wage payment plan with respect to which a finding is requested. The petition, together with any such documents, shall be filed with the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 551.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.5   Information to be submitted.</HEAD>
<P>Every petition filed under §§ 551.3 and 551.4 shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A full statement of the facts relied upon by the petitioner to establish, under the applicable definitions in § 551.8, that the wage payment plan submitted for consideration: (1) Applies to employees employed (i) as drivers or drivers' helpers, or both, (ii) in “making local deliveries” and (2) determines, “on the basis of trip rates or other delivery payment plan”, the compensation which such employees receive for such employment; and
</P>
<P>(b) A complete description of the wage payment plan and full information concerning its application showing, among other things: (1) The method of compensation which it provides and the types of payments made to employees covered by the plan, together with such information as may be necessary to show how these payments are computed and how and to what extent they are actually used in determining the total compensation received by employees covered by the plan, (2) a full description of all duties performed by the employees compensated under the plan, including information as to the types of goods delivered, their points of origin and destination and the purposes for and geographical area within which they are transported by the employees, the relationship of the employer to the consignor and consignee, and the numbers, (minimum, maximum, and average or typical) of round trips made by such employees in transporting such goods during the workday and of deliveries made during each such trip, and (3) other relevant information concerning the employees compensated under the plan including the total number of such employees employed full-time as drivers or drivers' helpers making local deliveries under the provisions of the plan during the most recent representative annual period as defined in § 551.8(g)(1), the weekly hours worked and the average workweek of such employees during such period and, if there are any significant variations in the number of such employees so employed in the particular workweeks within the period, a full statement of the facts concerning such variations, information as to any workweeks in which any employees compensated under the plan devote less than eighty percent of their worktime to duties as drivers or drivers' helpers making local deliveries; and
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of the facts and reasons based on the history and application of the plan which are relied upon to support a finding that the plan has the general purpose and effect of reducing the hours worked by drivers or drivers' helpers covered by its provisions to, or below, the statutory maximum workweek applicable to them under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 551.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.6   Action on petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the filing of a petition as provided in this part, the Administrator will give consideration thereto, and make any further inquiry into the facts that he may deem necessary. The Administrator may require, before taking further action thereof, that notice of the petition be given to affected employees in such manner as he shall determine to be appropriate to afford them an opportunity to submit any facts or reasons supporting or opposing the finding prayed for in the petition. If the Administrator determines that the petition fails to satisfy any of the requirements of this part, he shall deny the request for a finding or, in his discretion, advise petitioners that further consideration will be given to the submission if the deficiencies are remedied within a specified time. No further consideration will be given, however, to a request for a finding if the Administrator determines that the factual situation as described in the petition is not one in which authority to make the finding is provided by section 13(b)(11) and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Administrator determines that a petition meets all requirements of this part and if he is satisfied from consideration of all relevant facts and information available to him that the wage payment plan submitted has, within the meaning of section 13(b)(11) of the Act and this part, the general purpose and effect with respect to drivers or drivers' helpers making local deliveries, who are employed pursuant to its provisions on the basis of trip rates or other delivery payment plan, of reducing the hours worked by such employees to, or below, the maximum workweek applicable to them under section 7(a) of the Act, the Administrator will make an appropriate finding to this effect, and notify the petitioner; otherwise the request for such a finding will be denied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 551.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.7   Finding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A finding by the Administrator under paragraph (b) of § 551.6 that a wage payment plan has the purpose and effect required for exemption of employees under section 13(b)(11) and this part shall be effective in accordance with its terms upon notification to petitioners as provided in § 551.6(b). The finding shall include such terms and conditions and such limitations with respect to its application as the Administrator shall deem necessary to ensure that no exemption will be based thereon in the event of any significant change in any of the essential supporting facts.
</P>
<P>(b) A finding made pursuant to this part may be amended or revoked by the Administrator at any time upon his own motion or upon written request of any interested person setting forth reasonable grounds therefor. Before taking such action, the Administrator shall afford opportunity to interested persons to present their views and shall give consideration to any relevant information that they may present.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 551.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.8   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Finding</I> means a finding made pursuant to section 13(b)(11) of the Fair Labor Standards Act as provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Making local deliveries</I> includes the activities customarily and regularly performed in the physical transfer, to customers of a business establishment situated within the rural or urban community or metropolitan area in which the establishment is located, of goods sold or otherwise disposed of to such local customers by such establishment. Included are activities performed by the driver or driver's helpers as an incident to or in conjunction with making such deliveries, such as picking up and returning the delivery vehicle at the beginning and end of the workday, cleaning the vehicle, checking it to see that it is in operating condition, loading and unloading or assisting in loading or unloading the goods, and picking up empty containers or other goods from customers for return to the establishment. Not included in the making of local deliveries are such transportation as the carriage of passengers; the transportation of any load of goods that would normally require a round trip longer than a single workday for delivery and return to the starting point; any movement of goods which does not accomplish a transfer of possession from one person to another; transportation of goods as a part of a process of production; and transportation of goods within a local community or metropolitan area as an integral part of a carriage of such goods from a point outside such community or area to a destination within it, rather than as a part of the activities customarily performed in making local deliveries, as defined in this section, in the same manner as deliveries of goods held locally for local disposition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employee employed as a driver or driver's helper making local deliveries</I> includes any employee who is employed in any workweek:
</P>
<P>(1) To drive a delivery vehicle used in making local deliveries, or
</P>
<P>(2) To assist the driver of such a vehicle in making such deliveries, being required to ride on the vehicle to perform such work,
</P>
<FP>and whose work in making local deliveries, as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, accounts for at least 80 percent of his hours of work in such workweek. In making and applying any finding as provided in this part, no employee shall be considered to be employed as a driver or driver's helper making local deliveries in any workweek when more than 20 percent of his hours of work results from the performance of duties other than those included in making such local deliveries.
</FP>
<P>(f) A plan of compensation <I>on the basis of trip rates or other delivery payment plan</I> means any plan whereby employees employed as drivers or drivers' helpers making local deliveries are compensated for their employment on a basis such that the amount of payment which they receive is governed in substantial part by a system of wage payments based on units of work measurement such as numbers of trips taken, miles driven, stops made, or units of goods delivered (but not including any plan based solely on the number of hours worked) so that there is a substantial inducement to employees to minimize the number of hours worked.
</P>
<P>(g) For purposes of determining whether and to what extent a plan of compensation on the basis of trip rates or other delivery payment plan has the effect of reducing the weekly hours worked by employees employed by an employer as drivers or drivers' helpers making local deliveries pursuant to such plan:
</P>
<P>(1) The <I>most recently completed representative period of one year</I> (§ 551.2(c)) or <I>most recent representative annual period</I> (§ 551.5(b)(3)) shall mean a one-year period within which such employees were so employed on a regular full-time basis by such employer (or, if such employer has not previously used such plan, by another employer using the plan under substantially the same conditions, which period shall include a calendar or fiscal quarter-year ending not more than four months prior to the date as of which the effect of such plan is to be considered, together with the three quarter-year periods immediately preceding such recently completed quarter-year; and
</P>
<P>(2) The <I>average weekly hours</I> or <I>average workweek</I> of the full-time employees so employed during such annual period shall mean the number of hours obtained by the following computation: (i) All the hours worked during such annual period by all the full-time employees regularly employed under the plan shall be totaled; (ii) the number of workweeks worked by each such employee during such annual period under such plan shall be computed, and the totals added together; and (iii) the average weekly hours, taken in the aggregate, of all such employees shall be computed by dividing the sum resulting from computation (i) by the sum resulting from computation (ii).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 551.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.28.0.105.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 551.9   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The records which must be kept and the computations which must be made with respect to employees for whom the overtime pay exemption under section 13(b)(11) is taken are specified in § 516.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 17841, Nov. 20, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="552" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 552—APPLICATION OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT TO DOMESTIC SERVICE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 13(a)(15) and 13(b)(21) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended (29 U.S.C. 213(a)(15), (b)(21)), 88 Stat. 62; Sec. 29(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-259, 88 Stat. 76), unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.1.105.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.1   Terms used in regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or the Administrator's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.1.105.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part provides necessary rules for the application of the Act to domestic service employment in accordance with the following amendments made by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1974, 88 Stat. 55, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2(a) of the Act finds that the “employment of persons in domestic service in households affects commerce.” Section 6(f) extends the minimum wage protection under section 6(b) to employees employed as domestic service employees under either of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) If the employee's compensation for such services from his/her employer would constitute wages under section 209(a)(6) of title II of the Social Security Act, that is, if the cash remuneration during a calendar year is not less than $1,000 in 1995, or the amount designated for subsequent years pursuant to the adjustment provision in section 3121(x) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the employee was employed in such domestic service work by one or more employers for more than 8 hours in the aggregate in any workweek.
</P>
<FP>Section 7(l) extends generally the protection of the overtime provisions of section 7(a) to such domestic service employees. Section 13(a)(15) provides both a minimum wage and overtime exemption for “employees employed on a casual basis in domestic service employment to provide babysitting services” and for domestic service employees employed” to provide companionship services for individuals who (because of age or infirmity) are unable to care for themselves.” Section 13(b)(21) provides an overtime exemption for domestic service employees who reside in the household in which they are employed. 
</FP>
<P>(c) The definitions required by section 13(a)(15) are contained in §§ 552.3, 552.4, 552.5 and 552.6.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 29(b), 88 Stat. 76; (29 U.S.C. 206(f)); Secretary's Order No. 16-75, dated Nov. 25, 1975 (40 FR 55913), and Employment Standards Order No. 76-2, dated Feb. 23, 1976 (41 FR 9016))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, as amended at 44 FR 37221, June 26, 1979; 60 FR 46767, 46768, Sept. 8, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.1.105.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.3   Domestic service employment.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>domestic service employment</I> means services of a household nature performed by an employee in or about a private home (permanent or temporary). The term includes services performed by employees such as companions, babysitters, cooks, waiters, butlers, valets, maids, housekeepers, nannies, nurses, janitors, laundresses, caretakers, handymen, gardeners, home health aides, personal care aides, and chauffeurs of automobiles for family use. This listing is illustrative and not exhaustive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 60557, Oct. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.1.105.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.4   Babysitting services.</HEAD>
<P>As used in section 13(a)(15) of the Act, the term <I>babysitting services</I> shall mean the custodial care and protection, during any part of the 24-hour day, of infants or children in or about the private home in which the infants or young children reside. The term “babysitting services” does not include services relating to the care and protection of infants or children which are performed by trained personnel, such as registered, vocational, or practical nurses. While such trained personnel do not qualify as babysitters, this fact does not remove them from the category of a covered domestic service employee when employed in or about a private household.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.1.105.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.5   Casual basis.</HEAD>
<P>As used in section 13(a)(15) of the Act, the term <I>casual basis,</I> when applied to babysitting services, shall mean employment which is irregular or intermittent, and which is not performed by an individual whose vocation is babysitting. Casual babysitting services may include the performance of some household work not related to caring for the children: <I>Provided, however,</I> That such work is incidental, <I>i.e.,</I> does not exceed 20 percent of the total hours worked on the particular babysitting assignment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.1.105.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.6   Companionship services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in section 13(a)(15) of the Act, the term <I>companionship services</I> means the provision of fellowship and protection for an elderly person or person with an illness, injury, or disability who requires assistance in caring for himself or herself. The provision of <I>fellowship</I> means to engage the person in social, physical, and mental activities, such as conversation, reading, games, crafts, or accompanying the person on walks, on errands, to appointments, or to social events. The provision of <I>protection</I> means to be present with the person in his or her home or to accompany the person when outside of the home to monitor the person's safety and well-being.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>companionship services</I> also includes the provision of care if the care is provided attendant to and in conjunction with the provision of fellowship and protection and if it does not exceed 20 percent of the total hours worked per person and per workweek. The provision of <I>care</I> means to assist the person with activities of daily living (such as dressing, grooming, feeding, bathing, toileting, and transferring) and instrumental activities of daily living, which are tasks that enable a person to live independently at home (such as meal preparation, driving, light housework, managing finances, assistance with the physical taking of medications, and arranging medical care).
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>companionship services</I> does not include domestic services performed primarily for the benefit of other members of the household.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>companionship services</I> does not include the performance of medically related services provided for the person. The determination of whether services are medically related is based on whether the services typically require and are performed by trained personnel, such as registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, or certified nursing assistants; the determination is not based on the actual training or occupational title of the individual performing the services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 60557, Oct. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.99" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.99   Basis for coverage of domestic service employees.</HEAD>
<P>Congress in section 2(a) of the Act specifically found that the employment of persons in domestic service in households affects commerce. In the legislative history it was pointed out that employees in domestic service employment handle goods such as soaps, mops, detergents, and vacuum cleaners that have moved in or were produced for interstate commerce and also that they free members of the household to themselves to engage in activities in interstate commerce (S. Rep. 93-690, pp. 21-22). The Senate Committee on Labor and Public Welfare “took note of the expanded use of the interstate commerce clause by the Supreme Court in numerous recent cases (particularly <I>Katzenbach</I> v. <I>McClung,</I> 379 U.S. 294 (1964)),” and concluded “that coverage of domestic employees is a vital step in the direction of ensuring that all workers affecting interstate commerce are protected by the Fair Labor Standards Act” (S. Rep. 93-690, pp. 21-22).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.100   Application of minimum wage and overtime provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Domestic service employees must receive for employment in any household a minimum wage of not less than that required by section 6(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Act.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, domestic service employees who work more than 40 hours in any one workweek for the same employer must be paid overtime compensation at a rate not less than one and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay for such excess hours, unless the employee is one who resides in the employer's household. In the case of employees who reside in the household where they are employed, section 13(b)(21) of the Act provides an overtime, but not a minimum wage, exemption. See § 552.102.
</P>
<P>(b) In meeting the wage responsibilities imposed by the Act, employers may take appropriate credit for the reasonable cost or fair value, as determined by the Administrator, of food, lodging and other facilities customarily furnished to the employee by the employer such as drugs, cosmetics, drycleaning, etc. See S. Rep. 93-690, p. 19, and section 3(m) of the Act. Credit may be taken for the reasonable cost or fair value of these facilities only when the employee's acceptance of them is voluntary and uncoerced. See regulations, part 531. Where uniforms are required by the employer, the cost of the uniforms and their care may not be included in such credit.
</P>
<P>(c) For enforcement purposes, the Administrator will accept a credit taken by the employer of up to 37.5 percent of the statutory minimum hourly wage for a breakfast (if furnished), up to 50 percent of the statutory minimum hourly wage for a lunch (if furnished), and up to 62.5 percent of the statutory minimum hourly wage for a dinner (if furnished), which meal credits when combined do not in total exceed 150 percent of the statutory minimum hourly wage for any day. Nothing herein shall prevent employers from crediting themselves with the actual cost or fair value of furnishing meals, whichever is less, as determined in accordance with part 531 of this chapter, if such cost or fair value is different from the meal credits specified above: <I>Provided, however,</I> that employers keep, maintain and preserve (for a period of 3 years) the records on which they rely to justify such different cost figures.
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of lodging furnished to live-in domestic service employees, the Administrator will accept a credit taken by the employer of up to seven and one-half times the statutory minimum hourly wage for each week lodging is furnished. Nothing herein shall prevent employers from crediting themselves with the actual cost or fair value of furnishing lodging, whichever is less, as determined in accordance with part 531 of this chapter, if such cost or fair value is different from the amount specified above, <I>provided, however,</I> that employers keep, maintain, and preserve (for a period of 3 years) the records on which they rely to justify such different cost figures. In determining reasonable cost or fair value, the regulations and rulings in 29 CFR part 531 are applicable.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 29(b), 88 Stat. 76; (29 U.S.C. 206(f)); Secretary's Order No. 16-75, dated Nov. 25, 1975 (40 FR 55913), and Employment Standards Order No. 76-2, dated Feb. 23, 1976 (41 FR 9016))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, as amended at 44 FR 6716, Feb. 2, 1979; 60 FR 46768, Sept. 8, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.101   Domestic service employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definition of <I>domestic service employment</I> contained in § 552.3 is derived from the regulations issued under the Social Security Act (20 CFR 404.1057) and from “the generally accepted meaning” of the term. Accordingly, the term includes persons who are frequently referred to as “private household workers.” See. S. Rep. 93-690, p. 20. The domestic service must be performed in or about a private home whether that home is a fixed place of abode or a temporary dwelling as in the case of an individual or family traveling on vacation. A separate and distinct dwelling maintained by an individual or a family in an apartment house, condominium or hotel may constitute a private home.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees employed in dwelling places which are primarily rooming or boarding houses are not considered domestic service employees. The places where they work are not private homes but commercial or business establishments. Likewise, employees employed in connection with a business or professional service which is conducted in a home (such as a real estate, doctor's, dentist's or lawyer's office) are not domestic service employees.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the total hours worked, the employer must include all time the employee is required to be on the premises or on duty and all time the employee is suffered or permitted to work. Special rules for live-in domestic service employees are set forth in § 552.102.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, as amended at 60 FR 46768, Sept. 8, 1995; 78 FR 60557, Oct. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.102   Live-in domestic service employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Domestic service employees who reside in the household where they are employed are entitled to the same minimum wage as domestic service employees who work by the day. However, section 13(b)(21) provides an exemption from the Act's overtime requirements for domestic service employees who reside in the household where employed. But this exemption does not excuse the employer from paying the live-in worker at the applicable minimum wage rate for all hours worked. In determining the number of hours worked by a live-in worker, the employee and the employer may exclude, by agreement between themselves, the amount of sleeping time, meal time and other periods of complete freedom from all duties when the employee may either leave the premises or stay on the premises for purely personal pursuits. For periods of free time (other than those relating to meals and sleeping) to be excluded from hours worked, the periods must be of sufficient duration to enable the employee to make effective use of the time. If the sleeping time, meal periods or other periods of free time are interrupted by a call to duty, the interruption must be counted as hours worked. See regulations part 785, § 785.23.
</P>
<P>(b) If it is found by the parties that there is a significant deviation from the initial agreement, the parties should reach a new agreement that reflects the actual facts of the hours worked by the employee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, as amended at 78 FR 60557, Oct. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.103   Babysitting services in general.</HEAD>
<P>The term “babysitting services” is defined in § 552.4. Babysitting is a form of domestic service, and babysitters other than those working on a casual basis are entitled to the same benefits under the Act as other domestic service employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.104   Babysitting services performed on a casual basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees performing babysitting services on a casual basis, as defined in § 552.5 are excluded from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Act. The rationale for this exclusion is that such persons are usually not dependent upon the income from rendering such services for their livelihood. Such services are often provided by (1) Teenagers during non-school hours or for a short period after completing high school but prior to entering other employment as a vocation, or (2) older persons whose main source of livelihood is from other means.
</P>
<P>(b) Employment in babysitting services would usually be on a “casual basis,” whether performed for one or more employees, if such employment by all such employers does not exceed 20 hours per week in the aggregate. Employment in excess of these hours may still be on a “casual basis” if the excessive hours of employment are without regularity or are for irregular or intermittent periods. Employment in babysitting services shall also be deemed to be on a “casual basis” (regardless of the number of weekly hours worked by the babysitter) in the case of individuals whose vocations are not domestic service who accompany families for a vacation period to take care of the children if the duration of such employment does not exceed 6 weeks.
</P>
<P>(c) If the individual performing babysitting services on a “casual basis” devotes more than 20 percent of his or her time to household work during a babysitting assignment, the exemption for “babysitting services on a casual basis” does not apply during that assignment and the individual must be paid in accordance with the Act's minimum wage and overtime requirements. This does not affect the application of the exemption for previous or subsequent babysitting assignments where the 20 percent tolerance is not exceeded.
</P>
<P>(d) Individuals who engage in babysitting as a full-time occupation are not employed on a “casual basis.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, as amended at 60 FR 46768, Sept. 8, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.105   Individuals performing babysitting services in their own homes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is clear from the legislative history that the Act's new coverage of domestic service employees is limited to those persons who perform such services in or about the private household of the employer. Accordingly, if such services are performed away from the employer's permanent, or temporary household there is no coverage under sections 6(f) and 7(l) of the Act. A typical example would be an individual who cares for the children of others in her own home. This type of operation, however, could, depending on the particular facts, qualify as a preschool or day care center and thus be covered under section 3(s)(1)(B) of the Act in which case the person providing the service would be required to comply with the applicable provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual in a local neighborhood who takes four or five children into his or her home, which is operated as a day care home, and who does not have more than one employee or whose only employees are members of that individual's immediate family is not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, as amended at 60 FR 46768, Sept. 8, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.106   Companionship services.</HEAD>
<P>The term “companionship services” is defined in § 552.6. Persons who provide care and protection for babies and young children who do not have illnesses, injuries, or disabilities are considered babysitters, not companions. The companion must perform the services with respect to the elderly person or person with an illness, injury, or disability and not generally to other persons. The “casual” limitation does not apply to companion services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 60557, Oct. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.107" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.107   Yard maintenance workers.</HEAD>
<P>Persons who mow lawns and perform other yard work in a neighborhood community generally provide their own equipment, set their own work schedule and occasionally hire other individuals. Such persons will be recognized as independent contractors who are not covered by the Act as domestic service employees. On the other hand, gardeners and yardmen employed primarily by one household are not usually independent contractors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.108" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.108   Child labor provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Congress made no change in section 12 as regards domestic service employees. Accordingly, the child labor provisions of the Act do not apply unless the underaged minor (a) is individually engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, or (b) is employed by an enterprise meeting the coverage tests of sections 3(r) and 3(s)(1) of the Act, or (c) is employed in or about a home where work in the production of goods for commerce is performed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.109" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.109   Third party employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Third party employers of employees engaged in companionship services within the meaning of § 552.6 may not avail themselves of the minimum wage and overtime exemption provided by section 13(a)(15) of the Act, even if the employee is jointly employed by the individual or member of the family or household using the services. However, the individual or member of the family or household, even if considered a joint employer, is still entitled to assert the exemption, if the employee meets all of the requirements of § 552.6.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees who are engaged in providing babysitting services and who are employed by an employer or agency other than the family or household using their services are not employed on a “casual basis” for purposes of the section 13(a)(15) exemption. Such employees are engaged in this occupation as a vocation.
</P>
<P>(c) Third party employers of employees engaged in live-in domestic service employment within the meaning of § 552.102 may not avail themselves of the overtime exemption provided by section 13(b)(21) of the Act, even if the employee is jointly employed by the individual or member of the family or household using the services. However, the individual or member of the family or household, even if considered a joint employer, is still entitled to assert the exemption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, as amended at 78 FR 60557, Oct. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 552.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.29.2.105.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 552.110   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The general recordkeeping regulations are found in part 516 of this chapter and they require that every employer having covered domestic service employees shall keep records which show for each such employee: (1) Name in full, (2) social security number, (3) address in full, including zip code, (4) total hours worked each week by the employee for the employer, (5) total cash wages paid each week to the employee by the employer, (6) weekly sums claimed by the employer for board, lodging or other facilities, and (7) extra pay for weekly hours worked in excess of 40 by the employee for the employer. No particular form of records is required, so long as the above information is recorded and the record is maintained and preserved for a period of 3 years.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an employee who resides on the premises, the employer shall keep a copy of the agreement specified by § 552.102 and make, keep, and preserve a record showing the exact number of hours worked by the live-in domestic service employee. The provisions of § 516.2(c) of this chapter shall not apply to live-in domestic service employees.
</P>
<P>(c) With the exception of live-in domestic service employees, where a domestic service employee works on a fixed schedule, the employer may use a schedule of daily and weekly hours that the employee normally works and either the employer or the employee may:
</P>
<P>(1) Indicate by check marks, statement or other method that such hours were actually worked; and
</P>
<P>(2) When more or less than the scheduled hours are worked, show the exact number of hours worked.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer is required to maintain records of hours worked by each covered domestic service employee. However, the employer may require the domestic service employee to record the hours worked and submit such record to the employer.
</P>
<P>(e) No records are required for casual babysitters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 7405, Feb. 20, 1975, as amended at 78 FR 60557, Oct. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="553" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 553—APPLICATION OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT TO EMPLOYEES OF STATE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended (29 U.S.C. 201-219); Pub. L. 99-150, 99 Stat. 787 (29 U.S.C. 203, 207, 211). Pub. L. 106-151, 113 Stat. 1731 (29 U.S.C. 203(y)).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="114" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.114" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.114.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> or <I>FLSA</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>1985 Amendments</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1985 (Pub. L. 99-150).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public agency</I> means a State, a political subdivision of a State or an interstate governmental agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, or any other Territory or possession of the United States (29 U.S.C. 203(c) and 213(f)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.114.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The 1985 Amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) changed certain provisions of the Act as they apply to employees of State and local public agencies. The purpose of part 553 is to set forth the regulations to carry out the provisions of these Amendments, as well as other FLSA provisions previously in existence relating to such public agency employees.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part are divided into three subparts. Subpart A interprets and applies the special FLSA provisions that are generally applicable to all covered and nonexempt employees of State and local governments. Subpart A also contains provisions concerning certain individuals (<I>i.e.,</I> elected officials, their appointees, and legislative branch employees) who are excluded from the definition of “employee” and thus from FLSA coverage. This subpart also interprets and applies sections 7(o), and 7(p)(2), 7(p)(3), and 11(c) of the Act regarding compensatory time off, occasional or sporadic part-time employment, and the performance of substitute work by public agency employees, respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart B of this part deals with “volunteer” services performed by individuals for public agencies. Subpart C applies various FLSA provisions as they relate to fire protection and law enforcement employees of public agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.114.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.3   Coverage—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In 1966, Congress amended the FLSA to extend coverage to State and local government employees engaged in the operation of hospitals, nursing homes, schools, and mass transit systems.
</P>
<P>(2) In 1972, the Education Amendments further extended coverage to employees of public preschools.
</P>
<P>(3) In 1974, the FLSA Amendments extended coverage to virtually all of the remaining State and local government employees who were not covered as a result of the 1966 and 1972 legislation.
</P>
<P>(b) Certain definitions already in the Act were modified by the 1974 Amendments. The definition of the term “employer” was changed to include public agencies and that of “employee” was amended to include individuals employed by public agencies. The definition of “enterprise” contained in section 3(r) of the Act was modified to provide that activities of a public agency are performed for a “business purpose.” The term “enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” defined in section 3(s) of the Act was expanded to include public agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="115" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.115" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Section 3(<E T="01">e</E>)(2)(C)—Exclusions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.115.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.10   General.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(e)(2)(C) of the Act excludes from the definition of “employee”, and thus from coverage, certain individuals employed by public agencies. This exclusion applies to elected public officials, their immediate advisors, and certain individuals whom they appoint or select to serve in various capacities. In addition, the 1985 Amendments exclude employees of legislative branches of State and local governments. A condition for exclusion is that the employee must not be subject to the civil service laws of the employing State or local agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.115.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.11   Exclusion for elected officials and their appointees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(e)(2)(C) provides an exclusion from the Act's coverage for officials elected by the voters of their jurisdictions. Also excluded under this provision are personal staff members and officials in policymaking positions who are selected or appointed by the elected public officials and certain advisers to such officials.
</P>
<P>(b) The statutory term “member of personal staff” generally includes only persons who are under the direct supervision of the selecting elected official and have regular contact with such official. The term typically does not include individuals who are directly supervised by someone other than the elected official even though they may have been selected by the official. For example, the term might include the elected official's personal secretary, but would not include the secretary to an assistant.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to qualify as personal staff members or officials in policymaking positions, the individuals in question must not be subject to the civil service laws of their employing agencies. The term “civil service laws” refers to a personnel system established by law which is designed to protect employees from arbitrary action, personal favoritism, and political coercion, and which uses a competitive or merit examination process for selection and placement. Continued tenure of employment of employees under civil service, except for cause, is provided. In addition, such personal staff members must be appointed by, and serve solely at the pleasure or discretion of, the elected official.
</P>
<P>(d) The exclusion for “immediate adviser” to elected officials is limited to staff who serve as advisers on constitutional or legal matters, and who are not subject to the civil service rules of their employing agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.115.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.12   Exclusion for employees of legislative branches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(e)(2)(C) of the Act provides an exclusion from the definition of the term “employee” for individuals who are not subject to the civil service laws of their employing agencies and are employed by legislative branches or bodies of States, their political subdivisions or interstate governmental agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees of State or local legislative libraries do not come within this statutory exclusion. Also, employees of school boards, other than elected officials and their appointees (as discussed in § 553.11), do not come within this exclusion.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="116" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Section 7(<E T="01">o</E>)—Compensatory Time and Compensatory Time Off</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.20   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7 of the FLSA requires that covered, nonexempt employees receive not less than one and one-half times their regular rates of pay for hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standards. However, section 7(o) of the Act provides an element of flexibility to State and local government employers and an element of choice to their employees or the representatives of their employees regarding compensation for statutory overtime hours. The exemption provided by this subsection authorizes a public agency which is a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency, to provide compensatory time off (with certain limitations, as provided in § 553.21) in lieu of monetary overtime compensation that would otherwise be required under section 7. Compensatory time received by an employee in lieu of cash must be at the rate of not less than one and one-half hours of compensatory time for each hour of overtime work, just as the monetary rate for overtime is calculated at the rate of not less than one and one-half times the regular rate of pay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.21   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(o) provides as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(o)(1) Employees of a public agency which is a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency may receive, in accordance with this subsection and in lieu of overtime compensation, compensatory time off at a rate not less than one and one-half hours for each hour of employment for which overtime compensation is required by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A public agency may provide compensatory time under paragraph (1) only—
</P>
<P>(A) Pursuant to—
</P>
<P>(i) Applicable provisions of a collective bargaining agreement, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement between the public agency and representatives of such employees; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of employees not covered by subclause (i), an agreement or understanding arrived at between the employer and employee before the performance of the work; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the employee has not accrued compensatory time in excess of the limit applicable to the employee prescribed by paragraph (3).
</P>
<P>In the case of employees described in clause (A)(ii) hired prior to April 15, 1986, the regular practice in effect on April 15, 1986, with respect to compensatory time off for such employees in lieu of the receipt of overtime compensation, shall constitute an agreement or understanding under such clause (A)(ii). Except as provided in the previous sentence, the provision of compensatory time off to such employees for hours worked after April 14, 1986, shall be in accordance with this subsection.
</P>
<P>(3)(A) If the work of an employee for which compensatory time may be provided included work in a public safety activity, an emergency response activity, or a seasonal activity, the employee engaged in such work may accrue not more than 480 hours of compensatory time for hours worked after April 15, 1986. If such work was any other work, the employee engaged in such work may accrue not more than 240 hours of compensatory time for hours worked after April 15, 1986. Any such employee who, after April 15, 1986, has accrued 480 or 240 hours, as the case may be, of compensatory time off shall, for additional overtime hours of work, be paid overtime compensation.
</P>
<P>(B) If compensation is paid to an employee for accrued compensatory time off, such compensation shall be paid at the regular rate earned by the employee at the time the employee receives such payment.
</P>
<P>(4) An employee who has accrued compensatory time off authorized to be provided under paragraph (1) shall, upon termination of employment, be paid for the unused compensatory time at a rate of compensation not less than—
</P>
<P>(A) The average regular rate received by such employee during the last 3 years of the employee's employment, or
</P>
<P>(B) The final regular rate received by such employee, whichever is higher.
</P>
<P>(5) An employee of a public agency which is a State, political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency—
</P>
<P>(A) Who has accrued compensatory time off authorized to be provided under paragraph (1), and
</P>
<P>(B) Who has requested the use of such compensatory time, shall be permitted by the employee's employer to use such time within a reasonable period after making the request if the use of the compensatory time does not unduly disrupt the operations of the public agency.
</P>
<P>(6) For purposes of this subsection—
</P>
<P>(A) The term <I>overtime compensation</I> means the compensation required by subsection (a), and
</P>
<P>(B) The terms <I>compensatory time</I> and <I>compensatory time off</I> means hours during which an employee is not working, which are not counted as hours worked during the applicable workweek or other work period for purposes of overtime compensation, and for which the employee is compensated at the employee's regular rate.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.22   “FLSA compensatory time” and “FLSA compensatory time off”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Compensatory time and compensatory time off are interchangeable terms under the FLSA. Compensatory time off is paid time off the job which is earned and accrued by an employee in lieu of immediate cash payment for employment in excess of the statutory hours for which overtime compensation is required by section 7 of the FLSA.
</P>
<P>(b) The Act requires that compensatory time under section 7(o) be earned at a rate not less than one and one-half hours for each hour of employment for which overtime compensation is required by section 7 of the FLSA. Thus, the 480-hour limit on accrued compensatory time represents not more than 320 hours of actual overtime worked, and the 240-hour limit represents not more than 160 hours of actual overtime worked.
</P>
<P>(c) The 480- and 240-hour limits on accrued compensatory time only apply to overtime hours worked after April 15, 1986. Compensatory time which an employee has accrued prior to April 15, 1986, is not subject to the overtime requirements of the FLSA and need not be aggregated with compensatory time accrued after that date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.23   Agreement or understanding prior to performance of work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) As a condition for use of compensatory time in lieu of overtime payment in cash, section 7(o)(2)(A) of the Act requires an agreement or understanding reached prior to the performance of work. This can be accomplished pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement, a memorandum of understanding or any other agreement between the public agency and representatives of the employees. If the employees do not have a representative, compensatory time may be used in lieu of cash overtime compensation only if such an agreement or understanding has been arrived at between the public agency and the individual employee before the performance of work. No agreement or understanding is required with respect to employees hired prior to April 15, 1986, who do not have a representative, if the employer had a regular practice in effect on April 15, 1986, of granting compensatory time off in lieu of overtime pay.
</P>
<P>(2) Agreements or understandings may provide that compensatory time off in lieu of overtime payment in cash may be restricted to certain hours of work only. In addition, agreements or understandings may provide for any combination of compensatory time off and overtime payment in cash (e.g., one hour compensatory time credit plus one-half the employee's regular hourly rate of pay in cash for each hour of overtime worked) so long as the premium pay principle of at least “time and one-half” is maintained. The agreement or understanding may include other provisions governing the preservation, use, or cashing out of compensatory time so long as these provisions are consistent with section 7(o) of the Act. To the extent that any provision of an agreement or understanding is in violation of section 7(o) of the Act, the provision is superseded by the requirements of section 7(o).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agreement or understanding between the public agency and a representative of the employees.</I> (1) Where employees have a representative, the agreement or understanding concerning the use of compensatory time must be between the representative and the public agency either through a collective bargaining agreement or through a memorandum of understanding or other type of oral or written agreement. In the absence of a collective bargaining agreement applicable to the employees, the representative need not be a formal or recognized bargaining agent as long as the representative is designated by the employees. Any agreement must be consistent with the provisions of section 7(o) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 2(b) of the 1985 Amendments provides that a collective bargaining agreement in effect on April 15, 1986, which permits compensatory time off in lieu of overtime compensation, will remain in effect until the expiration date of the collective bargaining agreement unless otherwise modified. However, the terms and conditions of such agreement under which compensatory time off is provided after April 14, 1986, must not violate the requirements of section 7(o) of the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agreement or understanding between the public agency and individual employees.</I> (1) Where employees of a public agency do not have a recognized or otherwise designated representative, the agreement or understanding concerning compensatory time off must be between the public agency and the individual employee and must be reached prior to the performance of work. This agreement or understanding with individual employees need not be in writing, but a record of its existence must be kept. (See § 553.50.) An employer need not adopt the same agreement or understanding with different employees and need not provide compensatory time to all employees. The agreement or understanding to provide compensatory time off in lieu of cash overtime compensation may take the form of an express condition of employment, provided (i) the employee knowingly and voluntarily agrees to it as a condition of employment and (ii) the employee is informed that the compensatory time received may be preserved, used or cashed out consistent with the provisions of section 7(o) of the Act. An agreement or understanding may be evidenced by a notice to the employee that compensatory time off will be given in lieu of overtime pay. In such a case, an agreement or understanding would be presumed to exist for purposes of section 7(o) with respect to any employee who fails to express to the employer an unwillingness to accept compensatory time off in lieu of overtime pay. However, the employee's decision to accept compensatory time off in lieu of cash overtime payments must be made freely and without coercion or pressure.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 2(a) of the 1985 Amendments provides that in the case of employees who have no representative and were employed prior to April 15, 1986, a public agency that has had a regular practice of awarding compensatory time off in lieu of overtime pay is deemed to have reached an agreement or understanding with these employees as of April 15, 1986. A public agency need not secure an agreement or understanding with each employee employed prior to that date. If, however, such a regular practice does not conform to the provisions of section 7(o) of the Act, it must be modified to do so with regard to practices after April 14, 1986. With respect to employees hired after April 14, 1986, the public employer who elects to use compensatory time must follow the guidelines on agreements discussed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.24   “Public safety”, “emergency response”, and “seasonal” activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(o)(3)(A) of the FLSA provides that an employee of a public agency which is a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency, may accumulate not more than 480 hours of compensatory time for FLSA overtime hours which are worked after April 15, 1986, if the employee is engaged in “public safety”, “emergency response”, or “seasonal” activity. Employees whose work includes “seasonal”, “emergency response”, or “public safety” activities, as well as other work, will not be subject to both limits of accrual for compensatory time. If the employee's work regularly involves the activities included in the 480-hour limit, the employee will be covered by that limit. A public agency cannot utilize the higher cap by simple classification or designation of an employee. The work performed is controlling. Assignment of occasional duties within the scope of the higher cap will not entitle the employer to use the higher cap. Employees whose work does not regularly involve “seasonal”, “emergency response”, or “public safety” activities are subject to a 240-hour compensatory time accrual limit for FLSA overtime hours which are worked after April 15, 1986.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees engaged in “public safety”, “emergency response”, or “seasonal” activities, who transfer to positions subject to the 240-hour limit, may carry over to the new position any accrued compensatory time. The employer will not be required to cash out the accrued compensatory time which is in excess of the lower limit. However, the employee must be compensated in cash wages for any subsequent overtime hours worked until the number of accrued hours of compensatory time falls below the 240-hour limit.
</P>
<P>(c) “Public safety activities”: The term “public safety activities” as used in section 7(o)(3)(A) of the Act includes law enforcement, fire fighting or related activities as described in §§ 553.210 (a) and (b) and 553.211 (a)-(c), and (f). An employee whose work regularly involves such activities will qualify for the 480-hour accrual limit. However, the 480-hour accrual limit will not apply to office personnel or other civilian employees who may perform public safety activities only in emergency situations, even if they spend substantially all of their time in a particular week in such activities. For example, a maintenance worker employed by a public agency who is called upon to perform fire fighting activities during an emergency would remain subject to the 240-hour limit, even if such employee spent an entire week or several weeks in a year performing public safety activities. Certain employees who work in “public safety” activities for purposes of section 7(o)(3)(A) may qualify for the partial overtime exemption in section 7(k) of the Act. (See § 553.201)
</P>
<P>(d) “Emergency response activity”: The term “emergency response activity” as used in section 7(o)(3)(A) of the Act includes dispatching of emergency vehicles and personnel, rescue work and ambulance services. As is the case with “public safety” and “seasonal” activities, an employee must regularly engage in “emergency response” activities to be covered under the 480-hour limit. A city office worker who may be called upon to perform rescue work in the event of a flood or snowstorm would not be covered under the higher limit, since such emergency response activities are not a regular part of the employee's job. Certain employees who work in “emergency response” activities for purposes of section 7(o)(3)(A) may qualify for the partial overtime exemption in section 7(k) of the Act. (See § 553.215.)
</P>
<P>(e)(1) “Seasonal activity”: The term “seasonal activity” includes work during periods of significantly increased demand, which are of a regular and recurring nature. In determining whether employees are considered engaged in a seasonal activity, the first consideration is whether the activity in which they are engaged is a regular and recurring aspect of the employee's work. The second consideration is whether the projected overtime hours during the period of significantly increased demand are likely to result in the accumulation during such period of more than 240 compensatory time hours (the number available under the lower cap). Such projections will normally be based on the employer's past experience with similar employment situations.
</P>
<P>(2) Seasonal activity is not limited strictly to those operations that are very susceptible to changes in the weather. As an example, employees processing tax returns over an extended period of significantly increased demand whose overtime hours could be expected to result in the accumulation during such period of more than 240 compensatory time hours will typically qualify as engaged in a seasonal activity.
</P>
<P>(3) While parks and recreation activity is primarily seasonal because peak demand is generally experienced in fair weather, mere periods of short but intense activity do not make an employee's job seasonal. For example, clerical employees working increased hours for several weeks on a special project or assigned to an afternoon of shoveling snow off the courthouse steps would not be considered engaged in seasonal activities, since the increased activity would not result in the accumulation during such period of more than 240 compensatory time hours. Further, persons employed in municipal auditoriums, theaters, and sports facilities that are open for specific, limited seasons would be considered engaged in seasonal activities, while those employed in facilities that operate year round generally would not.
</P>
<P>(4) Road crews, while not necessarily seasonal workers, may have significant periods of peak demand, for instance during the snow plowing season or road construction season. The snow plow operator/road crew employee may be able to accrue compensatory time to the higher cap, while other employees of the same department who do not have lengthy periods of peak seasonal demand would remain under the lower cap.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.25   Conditions for use of compensatory time (“reasonable period”, “unduly disrupt”).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(o)(5) of the FLSA provides that any employee of a public agency who has accrued compensatory time and requested use of this compensatory time, shall be permitted to use such time off within a “reasonable period” after making the request, if such use does not “unduly disrupt” the operations of the agency. This provision, however, does not apply to “other compensatory time” (as defined below in § 553.28), including compensatory time accrued for overtime worked prior to April 15, 1986.
</P>
<P>(b) Compensatory time cannot be used as a means to avoid statutory overtime compensation. An employee has the right to use compensatory time earned and must not be coerced to accept more compensatory time than an employer can realistically and in good faith expect to be able to grant within a reasonable period of his or her making a request for use of such time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasonable period.</I> (1) Whether a request to use compensatory time has been granted within a “reasonable period” will be determined by considering the customary work practices within the agency based on the facts and circumstances in each case. Such practices include, but are not limited to (a) the normal schedule of work, (b) anticipated peak workloads based on past experience, (c) emergency requirements for staff and services, and (d) the availability of qualified substitute staff.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of compensatory time in lieu of cash payment for overtime must be pursuant to some form of agreement or understanding between the employer and the employee (or the representative of the employee) reached prior to the performance of the work. (See § 553.23.) To the extent that the (conditions under which an employee can take compensatory time off are contained in an agreement or understanding as defined in § 553.23, the terms of such agreement or understanding will govern the meaning of “reasonable period”.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unduly disrupt.</I> When an employer receives a request for compensatory time off, it shall be honored unless to do so would be “unduly disruptive” to the agency's operations. Mere inconvenience to the employer is an insufficient basis for denial of a request for compensatory time off. (See H. Rep. 99-331, p. 23.) For an agency to turn down a request from an employee for compensatory time off requires that it should reasonably and in good faith anticipate that it would impose an unreasonable burden on the agency's ability to provide services of acceptable quality and quantity for the public during the time requested without the use of the employee's services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.26" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.26   Cash overtime payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Overtime compensation due under section 7 may be paid in cash at the employer's option, in lieu of providing compensatory time off under section 7(o) of the Act in any workweek or work period. The FLSA does not prohibit an employer from freely substituting cash, in whole or part, for compensatory time off; and overtime payment in cash would not affect subsequent granting of compensatory time off in future workweeks or work periods. (See § 553.23(a)(2).)
</P>
<P>(b) The principles for computing cash overtime pay are contained in 29 CFR part 778. Cash overtime compensation must be paid at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which the employee is actually paid. (See 29 CFR 778.107.)
</P>
<P>(c) In a workweek or work period during which an employee works hours which are overtime hours under FLSA and for which cash overtime payment will be made, and the employee also takes compensatory time off, the payment for such time off may be excluded from the regular rate of pay under section 7(e)(2) of the Act. Section 7(e)(2) provides that the regular rate shall not be deemed to include
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>. . . payments made for occasional periods when no work is performed due to vacation, holiday, . . . or other similar cause.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>As explained in 29 CFR 778.218(d), the term “other similar cause” refers to payments made for periods of absence due to factors like holidays, vacations, illness, and so forth. Payments made to an employee for periods of absence due to the use of accrued compensatory time are considered to be the type of payments in this “other similar cause” category.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.27" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.27   Payments for unused compensatory time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Payments for accrued compensatory time earned after April 14, 1986, may be made at any time and shall be paid at the regular rate earned by the employee at the time the employee receives such payment.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon termination of employment, an employee shall be paid for unused compensatory time earned after April 14, 1986, at a rate of compensation not less than—
</P>
<P>(1) The average regular rate received by such employee during the last 3 years of the employee's employment, or
</P>
<P>(2) The final regular rate received by such employee, whichever is higher.
</P>
<P>(c) The phrase <I>last 3 years of employment</I> means the 3-year period immediately prior to termination. Where an employee's last 3 years of employment are not continuous because of a break in service, the period of employment after the break in service will be treated as new employment. However, such a break in service must have been intended to be permanent and any accrued compensatory time earned after April 14, 1986, must have been cashed out at the time of initial separation. Where the final period of employment is less than 3 years, the average rate still must be calculated based on the rate(s) in effect during such period.
</P>
<P>(d) The term “regular rate” is defined in 29 CFR 778.108. As indicated in § 778.109, the regular rate is an hourly rate, although the FLSA does not require employers to compensate employees on an hourly basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.28" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.116.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.28   Other compensatory time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Compensatory time which is earned and accrued by an employee for employment in excess of a nonstatutory (that is, non-FLSA) requirement is considered “other” compensatory time. The term “other” compensatory time off means hours during which an employee is not working and which are not counted as hours worked during the period when used. For example, a collective bargaining agreement may provide that compensatory time be granted to employees for hours worked in excess of 8 in a day, or for working on a scheduled day off in a nonovertime workweek. The FLSA does not require compensatory time to be granted in such situations.
</P>
<P>(b) Compensatory time which is earned and accrued by an employee working hours which are “overtime” hours under State or local law, ordinance, or other provisions, but which are not overtime hours under section 7 of the FLSA is also considered “other” compensatory time. For example, a local law or ordinance may provide that compensatory time be granted to employees for hours worked in excess of 35 in a workweek. Under section 7(a) of the FLSA, only hours worked in excess of 40 in a workweek are overtime hours which must be compensated at one and one-half times the regular rate of pay.
</P>
<P>(c) Similarly, compensatory time earned or accrued by an employee for employment in excess of a standard established by the personnel policy or practice of an employer, or by custom, which does not result from the FLSA provision, is another example of “other” compensatory time.
</P>
<P>(d) The FLSA does not require that the rate at which “other” compensatory time is earned has to be at a rate of one and one-half hours for each hour of employment. The rate at which “other” compensatory time is earned may be some lesser or greater multiple of the rate or the straight-time rate itself.
</P>
<P>(e) The requirements of section 7(o) of the FLSA, including the limitations on accrued compensatory time, do not apply to “other” compensatory time as described above.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="117" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.117" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Other Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.117.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.30   Occasional or sporadic employment-section 7(p)(2).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(p)(2) of the FLSA provides that where State or local government employees, solely at their option, work occasionally or sporadically on a part-time basis for the same public agency in a different capacity from their regular employment, the hours worked in the different jobs shall not be combined for the purpose of determining overtime liability under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Occasional or sporadic.</I> (1) The term <I>occasional or sporadic</I> means infrequent, irregular, or occurring in scattered instances. There may be an occasional need for additional resources in the delivery of certain types of public services which is at times best met by the part-time employment of an individual who is already a public employee. Where employees freely and solely at their own option enter into such activity, the total hours worked will not be combined for purposes of determining any overtime compensation due on the regular, primary job. However, in order to prevent overtime abuse, such hours worked are to be excluded from computing overtime compensation due only where the occasional or sporadic assignments are not within the same general occupational category as the employee's regular work.
</P>
<P>(2) In order for an employee's occasional or sporadic work on a part-time basis to qualify for exemption under section 7(p)(2), the employee's decision to work in a different capacity must be made freely and without coercion, implicit or explicit, by the employer. An employer may suggest that an employee undertake another kind of work for the same unit of government when the need for assistance arises, but the employee must be free to refuse to perform such work without sanction and without being required to explain or justify the decision.
</P>
<P>(3) Typically, public recreation and park facilities, and stadiums or auditoriums utilize employees in occasional or sporadic work. Some of these employment activities are the taking of tickets, providing security for special events (e.g., concerts, sports events, and lectures), officiating at youth or other recreation and sports events, or engaging in food or beverage sales at special events, such as a county fair. Employment in such activity may be considered occasional or sporadic for regular employees of State or local government agencies even where the need can be anticipated because it recurs seasonally (e.g., a holiday concert at a city college, a program of scheduled sports events, or assistance by a city payroll clerk in processing returns at tax filing time). An activity does not fail to be occasional merely because it is recurring. In contrast, for example, if a parks department clerk, in addition to his or her regular job, also regularly works additional hours on a part-time basis (e.g., every week or every other week) at a public park food and beverage sales center operated by that agency, the additional work does not constitute intermittent and irregular employment and, therefore, the hours worked would be combined in computing any overtime compensation due.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Different capacity.</I> (1) In order for employment in these occasional or sporadic activities not to be considered subject to the overtime requirements of section 7 of the FLSA, the regular government employment of the individual performing them must also be in a different capacity, <I>i.e.,</I> it must not fall within the same general occupational category.
</P>
<P>(2) In general, the Administrator will consider the duties and other factors contained in the definitions of the 3-digit categories of occupations in the <I>Dictionary of Occupational Titles</I> (except in the case of public safety employees as discussed below in section (3)), as well as all the facts and circumstances in a particular case, in determining whether employment in a second capacity is substantially different from the regular employment.
</P>
<P>(3) For example, if a public park employee primarily engaged in playground maintenance also from time to time cleans an evening recreation center operated by the same agency, the additional work would be considered hours worked for the same employer and subject to the Act's overtime requirements because it is not in a <I>different capacity.</I> This would be the case even though the work was <I>occasional or sporadic,</I> and, was not regularly scheduled. Public safety employees taking on any kind of security or safety function within the same local government are never considered to be employed in a <I>different capacity.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) However, if a bookkeeper for a municipal park agency or a city mail clerk occasionally referees for an adult evening basketball league sponsored by the city, the hours worked as a referee would be considered to be in a different general occupational category than the primary employment and would not be counted as hours worked for overtime purposes on the regular job. A person regularly employed as a bus driver may assist in crowd control, for example, at an event such as a winter festival, and in doing so, would be deemed to be serving in a different capacity.
</P>
<P>(5) In addition, any activity traditionally associated with teaching (e.g., coaching, career counseling, etc.) will not be considered as employment in a <I>different capacity.</I> However, where personnel other than teachers engage in such teaching-related activities, the work will be viewed as employment in a <I>different capacity,</I> provided that these activities are performed on an occasional or sporadic basis and all other requirements for this provision are met. For example, a school secretary could substitute as a coach for a basketball team or a maintenance engineer could provide instruction on auto repair on an occasional or sporadic basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.31" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.117.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.31   Substitution—section 7(p)(3).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(p)(3) of the FLSA provides that two individuals employed in any occupation by the same public agency may agree, solely at their option and with the approval of the public agency, to substitute for one another during scheduled work hours in performance of work in the same capacity. The hours worked shall be excluded by the employer in the calculation of the hours for which the substituting employee would otherwise be entitled to overtime compensation under the Act. Where one employee substitutes for another, each employee will be credited as if he or she had worked his or her normal work schedule for that shift.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of section 7(p)(3) apply only if employees' decisions to substitute for one another are made freely and without coercion, direct or implied. An employer may suggest that an employee substitute or “trade time” with another employee working in the same capacity during regularly scheduled hours, but each employee must be free to refuse to perform such work without sanction and without being required to explain or justify the decision. An employee's decision to substitute will be considered to have been made at his/her sole option when it has been made (i) without fear of reprisal or promise of reward by the employer, and (ii) exclusively for the employee's own convenience.
</P>
<P>(c) A public agency which employs individuals who substitute or “trade time” under this subsection is not required to keep a record of the hours of the substitute work.
</P>
<P>(d) In order to qualify under section 7(p)(3), an agreement between individuals employed by a public agency to substitute for one another at their own option must be approved by the agency. This requires that the agency be aware of the arrangement prior to the work being done, i.e., the employer must know what work is being done, by whom it is being done, and where and when it is being done. Approval is manifest when the employer is aware of the substitution and indicates approval in whatever manner is customary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.32" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.117.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.32   Other FLSA exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There are other exemptions from the minimum wage and/or overtime requirements of the FLSA which may apply to certain employees of public agencies. The following sections provide a discussion of some of the major exemptions which may be applicable. This list is not comprehensive.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7(k) of the Act provides a partial overtime pay exemption for public agency employees employed in fire protection or law enforcement activities (including security personnel in correctional institutions). In addition, section 13(b)(20) provides a complete overtime pay exemption for any employee of a public agency engaged in fire protection or law enforcement activities, if the public agency employs less than five employees in such activities. (See subpart C of this part.)
</P>
<P>(c) Section 13(a)(1) of the Act provides an exemption from both the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements for any employee employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, professional, or outside sales capacity, as these terms are defined and delimited in part 541 of this title. An employee will qualify for exemption if he or she meets all of the pertinent tests relating to duties, responsibilities, and salary.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7(j) of the Act provides that a hospital or residential care establishment may, pursuant to a prior agreement or understanding with an employee or employees, adopt a fixed work period of 14 consecutive days for the purpose of computing overtime pay in lieu of the regular 7-day workweek. Workers employed under section 7(j) must receive not less than one and one-half times their regular rates of pay for all hours worked over 8 in any workday, and over 80 in the 14-day work period. (See § 778.601 of this title.)
</P>
<P>(e) Section 13(a)(3) of the Act provides a minimum wage and overtime pay exemption for any employee employed by an amusement or recreational establishment if (1) it does not operate for more than 7 months in any calendar year or (2) during the preceding calendar year, its average receipts for any 6 months of such year were not more than 33
<FR>1/3</FR> percent of its average receipts for the other 6 months of such year. In order to meet the requirements of section 13(a)(3)(B), the establishment in the previous year must have received at least 75 percent of its income within 6 months. The 6 months, however, need not be 6 consecutive months. State and local governments operate parks and recreational areas to which this exemption may apply.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 13(b)(1) of the Act provides an exemption from the overtime pay requirements for “Any employee with respect to whom the Secretary of Transportation has power to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service pursuant to the provisions of section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act, 1935.” (recodified at section 3102, 49 U.S.C.). With regard to State or local governments, this overtime pay exemption may affect mass transit systems engaged in interstate commerce. This exemption is applicable to drivers, driver's helpers, loaders, and mechanics employed by a common carrier whose activities directly affect the safety of operation of motor vehicles in the transportation on the public highways of passengers or property. (See part 782 of this title.)
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7(n) of the Act provides that, for the purpose of computing overtime pay, the hours of employment of a mass transit employee do not include the time spent in charter activities if (1) pursuant to a prior agreement the time is not to be so counted, and (2) such charter activities are not a part of the employee's regular employment.
</P>
<P>(h) Additional overtime pay exemptions which may apply to emloyees of public agencies are contained in sections 13(b)(2) (employees of certain common carriers by rail), 13(b)(9) (certain employees of small market radio and television stations), and section 13(b)(12) (employees in agriculture) of the Act. Further, section 13(a)(6) of the Act provides a minimum wage and overtime pay exemption for agricultural employees who work on small farms. (See part 780 of this title.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="118" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.118" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.118.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.50   Records to be kept of compensatory time.</HEAD>
<P>For each employee subject to the compensatory time and compensatory time off provisions of section 7(o) of the Act, a public agency which is a State, a political subdivision of a State or an interstate governmental agency shall maintain and preserve records containing the basic information and data required by § 516.2 of this title and, in addition:
</P>
<P>(a) The number of hours of compensatory time earned pursuant to section 7(o) each workweek, or other applicable work period, by each employee at the rate of one and one-half hour for each overtime hour worked;
</P>
<P>(b) The number of hours of such compensatory time used each workweek, or other applicable work period, by each employee;
</P>
<P>(c) The number of hours of compensatory time compensated in cash, the total amount paid and the date of such payment; and
</P>
<P>(d) Any collective bargaining agreement or written understanding or agreement with respect to earning and using compensatory time off. If such agreement or understanding is not in writing, a record of its existence must be kept.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.51" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.1.118.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.51   Records to be kept for employees paid pursuant to section 7(k).</HEAD>
<P>For each employee subject to the partial overtime exemption in section 7(k) of the Act, a public agency which is a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency shall maintain and preserve records containing the information and data required by § 553.50 and, in addition, make some notation on the payroll records which shows the work period for each employee and which indicates the length of that period and its starting time. If all the workers (or groups of workers) have a work period of the same length beginning at the same time on the same day, a single notation of the time of day and beginning day of the work period will suffice for these workers.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Volunteers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.2.119.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.100   General.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(e) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended in 1985, provides that individuals performing volunteer services for units of State and local governments will not be regarded as “employees” under the statute. The purpose of this subpart is to define the circumstances under which individuals may perform hours of volunteer service for units of State and local governments without being considered to be their employees during such hours for purposes of the FLSA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.2.119.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.101   “Volunteer” defined.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual who performs hours of service for a public agency for civic, charitable, or humanitarian reasons, without promise, expectation or receipt of compensation for services rendered, is considered to be a volunteer during such hours. Individuals performing hours of service for such a public agency will be considered volunteers for the time so spent and not subject to sections 6, 7, and 11 of the FLSA when such hours of service are performed in accord with sections 3(e)(4) (A) and (B) of the FLSA and the guidelines in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Congress did not intend to discourage or impede volunteer activities undertaken for civic, charitable, or humanitarian purposes, but expressed its wish to prevent any manipulation or abuse of minimum wage or overtime requirements through coercion or undue pressure upon individuals to “volunteer” their services.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals shall be considered volunteers only where their services are offered freely and without pressure or coercion, direct or implied, from an employer.
</P>
<P>(d) An individual shall not be considered a volunteer if the individual is otherwise employed by the same public agency to perform the same type of services as those for which the individual proposes to volunteer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.2.119.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.102   Employment by the same public agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(e)(4)(A)(ii) of the FLSA does not permit an individual to perform hours of volunteer service for a public agency when such hours involve the same type of services which the individual is employed to perform for the same public agency.
</P>
<P>(b) Whether two agencies of the same State or local government constitute the same public agency can only be determined on a case-by-case basis. One factor that would support a conclusion that two agencies are separate is whether they are treated separately for statistical purposes in the Census of Governments issued by the Bureau of the Census, U.S. Department of Commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.2.119.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.103   “Same type of services” defined.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The 1985 Amendments provide that employees may volunteer hours of service to their public employer or agency provided “such services are not the same type of services which the individual is employed to perform for such public agency.” Employees may volunteer their services in one capacity or another without contemplation of pay for services rendered. The phrase “same type of services” means similar or identical services. In general, the Administrator will consider, but not as the only criteria, the duties and other factors contained in the definitions of the 3-digit categories of occupations in the <I>Dictionary of Occupational Titles</I> in determining whether the volunteer activities constitute the “same type of services” as the employment activities. Equally important in such a determination will be the consideration of all the facts and circumstances in a particular case, including whether the volunteer service is closely related to the actual duties performed by or responsibilities assigned to the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) An example of an individual performing services which constitute the “same type of services” is a nurse employed by a State hospital who proposes to volunteer to perform nursing services at a State-operated health clinic which does not qualify as a separate public agency as discussed in § 553.102. Similarly, a firefighter cannot volunteer as a firefighter for the same public agency.
</P>
<P>(c) Examples of volunteer services which do not constitute the “same type of services” include: A city police officer who volunteers as a part-time referee in a basketball league sponsored by the city; an employee of the city parks department who serves as a volunteer city firefighter; and an office employee of a city hospital or other health care institution who volunteers to spend time with a disabled or elderly person in the same institution during off duty hours as an act of charity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.2.119.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.104   Private individuals who volunteer services to public agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals who are not employed in any capacity by State or local government agencies often donate hours of service to a public agency for civic or humanitarian reasons. Such individuals are considered volunteers and not employees of such public agencies if their hours of service are provided with no promise expectation, or receipt of compensation for the services rendered, except for reimbursement for expenses, reasonable benefits, and nominal fees, or a combination thereof, as discussed in § 553.106. There are no limitations or restrictions imposed by the FLSA on the types of services which private individuals may volunteer to perform for public agencies. 
</P>
<P>(b) Examples of services which might be performed on a volunteer basis when so motivated include helping out in a sheltered workshop or providing personal services to the sick or the elderly in hospitals or nursing homes; assisting in a school library or cafeteria; or driving a school bus to carry a football team or band on a trip. Similarly, individuals may volunteer as firefighters or auxiliary police, or volunteer to perform such tasks as working with retarded or handicapped children or disadvantaged youth, helping in youth programs as camp counselors, soliciting contributions or participating in civic or charitable benefit programs and volunteering other services needed to carry out charitable or educational programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.2.119.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.105   Mutual aid agreements.</HEAD>
<P>An agreement between two or more States, political subdivisions, or interstate governmental agencies for mutual aid does not change the otherwise volunteer character of services performed by employees of such agencies pursuant to said agreement. For example, where Town A and Town B have entered into a mutual aid agreement related to fire protection, a firefighter employed by Town A who also is a volunteer firefighter for Town B will not have his or her hours of volunteer service for Town B counted as part of his or her hours of employment with Town A. The mere fact that services volunteered to Town B may in some instances involve performance in Town A's geographic jurisdiction does not require that the volunteer's hours are to be counted as hours of employment with Town A.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.2.119.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.106   Payment of expenses, benefits, or fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Volunteers may be paid expenses, reasonable benefits, a nominal fee, or any combination thereof, for their service without losing their status as volunteers.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual who performs hours of service as a volunteer for a public agency may receive payment for expenses without being deemed an employee for purposes of the FLSA. A school guard does not become an employee because he or she receives a uniform allowance, or reimbursement for reasonable cleaning expenses or for wear and tear on personal clothing worn while performing hours of volunteer service. (A uniform allowance must be reasonably limited to relieving the volunteer of the cost of providing or maintaining a required uniform from personal resources.) Such individuals would not lose their volunteer status because they are reimbursed for the approximate out-of-pocket expenses incurred incidental to providing volunteer services, for example, payment for the cost of meals and transportation expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals do not lose their status as volunteers because they are reimbursed for tuition, transportation and meal costs involved in their attending classes intended to teach them to perform efficiently the services they provide or will provide as volunteers. Likewise, the volunteer status of such individuals is not lost if they are provided books, supplies, or other materials essential to their volunteer training or reimbursement for the cost thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) Individuals do not lose their volunteer status if they are provided reasonable benefits by a public agency for whom they perform volunteer services. Benefits would be considered reasonable, for example, when they involve inclusion of individual volunteers in group insurance plans (such as liability, health, life, disability, workers' compensation) or pension plans or “length of service” awards, commonly or traditionally provided to volunteers of State and local government agencies, which meet the additional test in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Individuals do not lose their volunteer status if they receive a nominal fee from a public agency. A nominal fee is not a substitute for compensation and must not be tied to productivity. However, this does not preclude the payment of a nominal amount on a “per call” or similar basis to volunteer firefighters. The following factors will be among those examined in determining whether a given amount is nominal: The distance traveled and the time and effort expended by the volunteer; whether the volunteer has agreed to be available around-the-clock or only during certain specified time periods; and whether the volunteer provides services as needed or throughout the year. An individual who volunteers to provide periodic services on a year-round basis may receive a nominal monthly or annual stipend or fee without losing volunteer status.
</P>
<P>(f) Whether the furnishing of expenses, benefits, or fees would result in individuals' losing their status as volunteers under the FLSA can only be determined by examining the total amount of payments made (expenses, benefits, fees) in the context of the economic realities of the particular situation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Fire Protection and Law Enforcement Employees of Public Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="119" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.119" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Principles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.119.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.200   Statutory provisions: section 13(b)(20).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(b)(20) of the FLSA provides a complete overtime pay exemption for “any employee of a public agency who in any workweek is employed in fire protection activities or any employee of a public agency who in any workweek is employed in law enforcement activities (including security personnel in correctional institutions), if the public agency employs during the workweek less than 5 employees in fire protection or law enforcement activities, as the case may be.”
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether a public agency qualifies for the section 13(b)(20) exemption, the fire protection and law enforcement activities are considered separately. Thus, if a public agency employs less than five employees in fire protection activities, but five or more employees in law enforcement activities (including security personnel in a correctional institution), it may claim the exemption for the fire protection employees but not for the law enforcement employees. No distinction is made between full-time and part-time employees, or between employees on duty and employees on leave status, and all such categories must be counted in determining whether the exemption applies. Individuals who are not considered “employees” for purposes of the FLSA by virtue of section 3(e) of the Act (including persons who are “volunteers” within the meaning of § 553.101, and “elected officials and their appointees” within the meaning of § 553.11) are not counted in determining whether the section 13(b)(20) exemption applies.
</P>
<P>(c) The section 13(b)(20) exemption applies on a workweek basis. It is therefore possible that employees may be subject to maximum hours standard in certain workweeks, but not in others. In those workweeks in which the section 13(b)(20) exemption does not apply, the public agency is entitled to utilize the section 7(k) exemption which is explained below in § 553.201.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.119.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.201   Statutory provisions: section 7(k).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(k) of the Act provides a partial overtime pay exemption for fire protection and law enforcement personnel (including security personnel in correctional institutions) who are employed by public agencies on a work period basis. This section of the Act formerly permitted public agencies to pay overtime compensation to such employees in work periods of 28 consecutive days only after 216 hours of work. As further set forth in § 553.230 of this part, the 216-hour standard has been replaced, pursuant to the study mandated by the statute, by 212 hours for fire protection employees and 171 hours for law enforcement employees. In the case of such employees who have a work period of at least 7 but less than 28 consecutive days, overtime compensation is required when the ratio of the number of hours worked to the number of days in the work period exceeds the ratio of 212 (or 171) hours to 28 days.
</P>
<P>(b) As specified in §§ 553.20 through 553.28 of subpart A, workers employed under section 7(k) may, under certain conditions, be compensated for overtime hours worked with compensatory time off rather than immediate overtime premium pay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.202" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.119.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.202   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>The application of sections 13(b)(20) and 7(k), by their terms, is limited to public agencies, and does not apply to any private organization engaged in furnishing fire protection or law enforcement services. This is so even if the services are provided under contract with a public agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="120" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.120" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exemption Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.210" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.120.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.210   Fire protection activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in sections 7(k) and 13(b)(20) of the Act, the term “any employee * * * in fire protection activities” refers to “an employee, including a firefighter, paramedic, emergency medical technician, rescue worker, ambulance personnel, or hazardous materials worker, who—(1) is trained in fire suppression, has the legal authority and responsibility to engage in fire suppression, and is employed by a fire department of a municipality, county, fire district, or State; and (2) is engaged in the prevention, control, and extinguishment of fires or response to emergency situations where life, property, or the environment is at risk.”
</P>
<P>(b) Not included in the term “employee in fire protection activities” are the so-called “civilian” employees of a fire department, fire district, or forestry service who engage in such support activities as those performed by dispatchers, alarm operators, apparatus and equipment repair and maintenance workers, camp cooks, clerks, stenographers, etc.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 18856, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.211" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.120.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.211   Law enforcement activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in sections 7(k) and 13(b)(20) of the Act, the term “any employee . . . in law enforcement activities” refers to any employee (1) who is a uniformed or plainclothed member of a body of officers and subordinates who are empowered by State statute or local ordinance to enforce laws designed to maintain public peace and order and to protect both life and property from accidental or willful injury, and to prevent and detect crimes, (2) who has the power to arrest, and (3) who is presently undergoing or has undergone or will undergo on-the-job training and/or a course of instruction and study which typically includes physical training, self-defense, firearm proficiency, criminal and civil law principles, investigative and law enforcement techniques, community relations, medical aid and ethics.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees who meet these tests are considered to be engaged in law enforcement activities regardless of their rank, or of their status as “trainee,” “probationary,” or “permanent,” and regardless of their assignment to duties incidental to the performance of their law enforcement activities such as equipment maintenance, and lecturing, or to support activities of the type described in paragraph (g) of this section, whether or not such assignment is for training or familiarization purposes, or for reasons of illness, injury or infirmity. The term would also include rescue and ambulance service personnel if such personnel form an integral part of the public agency's law enforcement activities. See § 553.215.
</P>
<P>(c) Typically, employees engaged in law enforcement activities include city police; district or local police, sheriffs, under sheriffs or deputy sheriffs who are regularly employed and paid as such; court marshals or deputy marshals; constables and deputy constables who are regularly employed and paid as such; border control agents; state troopers and highway patrol officers. Other agency employees not specifically mentioned may, depending upon the particular facts and pertinent statutory provisions in that jurisdiction, meet the three tests described above. If so, they will also qualify as law enforcement officers. Such employees might include, for example, fish and game wardens or criminal investigative agents assigned to the office of a district attorney, an attorney general, a solicitor general or any other law enforcement agency concerned with keeping public peace and order and protecting life and property.
</P>
<P>(d) Some of the law enforcement officers listed above, including but not limited to certain sheriffs, will not be covered by the Act if they are elected officials and if they are not subject to the civil service laws of their particular State or local jurisdiction. Section 3(e)(2)(C) of the Act excludes from its definition of “employee” elected officials and their personal staff under the conditions therein prescribed. 29 U.S.C. 203(e)(2)(C), and see § 553.11. Such individuals, therefore, need not be counted in determining whether the public agency in question has less than five employees engaged in law enforcement activities for purposes of claiming the section 13(b)(20) exemption.
</P>
<P>(e) Employees who do not meet each of the three tests described above are not engaged in “law enforcement activities” as that term is used in sections 7(k) and 13(b)(20). Employees who normally would not meet each of these tests include
</P>
<P>(1) Building inspectors (other than those defined in § 553.213(a)),
</P>
<P>(2) Health inspectors,
</P>
<P>(3) Animal control personnel,
</P>
<P>(4) Sanitarians,
</P>
<P>(5) civilian traffic employees who direct vehicular and pedestrian traffic at specified intersections or other control points,
</P>
<P>(6) Civilian parking checkers who patrol assigned areas for the purpose of discovering parking violations and issuing appropriate warnings or appearance notices,
</P>
<P>(7) Wage and hour compliance officers,
</P>
<P>(8) Equal employment opportunity compliance officers,
</P>
<P>(9) Tax compliance officers,
</P>
<P>(10) Coal mining inspectors, and
</P>
<P>(11) Building guards whose primary duty is to protect the lives and property of persons within the limited area of the building.
</P>
<P>(f) The term “any employee in law enforcement activities” also includes, by express reference, “security personnel in correctional instititions.” A correctional institution is any government facility maintained as part of a penal system for the incarceration or detention of persons suspected or convicted of having breached the peace or committed some other crime. Typically, such facilities include penitentiaries, prisons, prison farms, county, city and village jails, precinct house lockups and reformatories. Employees of correctional institutions who qualify as security personnel for purposes of the section 7(k) exemption are those who have responsibility for controlling and maintaining custody of inmates and of safeguarding them from other inmates or for supervising such functions, regardless of whether their duties are performed inside the correctional institution or outside the institution (as in the case of road gangs). These employees are considered to be engaged in law enforcement activities regardless of their rank (e.g., warden, assistant warden or guard) or of their status as “trainee,” “probationary,” or “permanent,” and regardless of their assignment to duties incidental to the performance of their law enforcement activities, or to support activities of the type described in paragraph (g) of this section, whether or not such assignment is for training or familiarization purposes or for reasons of illness, injury or infirmity.
</P>
<P>(g) Not included in the term “employee in law enforcement activities” are the so-called “civilian” employees of law enforcement agencies or correctional institutions who engage in such support activities as those performed by dispatcher, radio operators, apparatus and equipment maintenance and repair workers, janitors, clerks and stenographers. Nor does the term include employees in correctional institutions who engage in building repair and maintenance, culinary services, teaching, or in psychological, medical and paramedical services. This is so even though such employees may, when assigned to correctional institutions, come into regular contact with the inmates in the performance of their duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.212" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.120.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.212   Twenty percent limitation on nonexempt work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees engaged in law enforcement activities as described in § 553.211 may also engage in some nonexempt work which is not performed as an incident to or in conjunction with their law enforcement activities. The performance of such nonexempt work will not defeat either the section 13(b)(20) or 7(k) exemptions unless it exceeds 20 percent of the total hours worked by that employee during the workweek or applicable work period. A person who spends more than 20 percent of his/her working time in nonexempt activities is not considered to be an employee engaged in law enforcement activities for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Public agency fire protection and law enforcement personnel may, at their own option, undertake employment for the same employer on an occasional or sporadic and part-time basis in a different capacity from their regular employment. (See § 553.30.) The performance of such work does not affect the application of the section 13(b)(20) or 7(k) exemptions with respect to the regular employment. In addition, the hours of work in the different capacity need not be counted as hours worked for overtime purposes on the regular job, nor are such hours counted in determining the 20 percent tolerance for nonexempt work for law enforcement personnel discussed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 18856, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.213" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.120.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.213   Public agency employees engaged in both fire protection and law enforcement activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Some public agencies have employees (often called “public safety officers”) who engage in both fire protection and law enforcement activities, depending on the agency needs at the time. This dual assignment would not defeat either the section 13(b)(20) or 7(k) exemption, provided that each of the activities performed meets the appropriate tests set forth in §§ 553.210 and 553.211. This is so regardless of how the employee's time is divided between the two activities. However, all time spent in nonexempt activities by public safety officers within the work period, whether performed in connection with fire protection or law enforcement functions, or with neither, must be combined for purposes of the 20 percent limitation on nonexempt work discussed in § 553.212.
</P>
<P>(b) As specified in § 553.230, the maximum hours standards under section 7(k) are different for employees engaged in fire protection and for employees engaged in law enforcement. For those employees who perform both fire protection and law enforcement activities, the applicable standard is the one which applies to the activity in which the employee spends the majority of work time during the work period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.214" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.120.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.214   Trainees.</HEAD>
<P>The attendance at a bona fide fire or police academy or other training facility, when required by the employing agency, constitutes engagement in activities under section 7(k) only when the employee meets all the applicable tests described in § 553.210 or § 553.211 (except for the power of arrest for law enforcement personnel), as the case may be. If the applicable tests are met, then basic training or advanced training is considered incidental to, and part of, the employee's fire protection or law enforcement activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.215" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.120.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.215   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.216" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.120.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.216   Other exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Although the 1974 Amendments to the FLSA provided special exemptions for employees of public agencies engaged in fire protection and law enforcement activities, such workers may also be subject to other exemptions in the Act, and public agencies may claim such other applicable exemptions in lieu of sections 13(b)(20) and 7(k). For example, section 13(a)(1) provides a complete minimum wage and overtime pay exemption for any employee employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, as those terms are defined and delimited in 29 CFR part 541. The section 13(a)(1) exemption can be claimed for any fire protection or law enforcement employee who meets all of the tests specified in part 541 relating to duties, responsibilities, and salary. Thus, high ranking police officials who are engaged in law enforcement activities, may also, depending on the facts, qualify for the section 13(a)(1) exemption as “executive” employees. Similarly, certain criminal investigative agents may qualify as “administrative” employees under section 13(a)(1). However, the election to take the section 13(a)(1) exemption for an employee who qualifies for it will not result in excluding that employee from the count that must be made to determine the application of the section 13(b)(20) exemption to the agency's other employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="121" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Tour of Duty and Compensable Hours of Work Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.220" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.220   “Tour of duty” defined.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “tour of duty” is a unique concept applicable only to employees for whom the section 7(k) exemption is claimed. This term, as used in section 7(k), means the period of time during which an employee is considered to be on duty for purposes of determining compensable hours. It may be a scheduled or unscheduled period. Such periods include “shifts” assigned to employees often days in advance of the performance of the work. Scheduled periods also include time spent in work outside the “shift” which the public agency employer assigns. For example, a police officer may be assigned to crowd control during a parade or other special event outside of his or her shift.
</P>
<P>(b) Unscheduled periods include time spent in court by police officers, time spent handling emergency situations, and time spent working after a shift to complete an assignment. Such time must be included in the compensable tour of duty even though the specific work performed may not have been assigned in advance.
</P>
<P>(c) The tour of duty does not include time spent working for a separate and independent employer in certain types of special details as provided in § 553.227. The tour of duty does not include time spent working on an occasional or sporadic and part-time basis in a different capacity from the regular work as provided in § 553.30. The tour of duty does not include time spent substituting for other employees by mutual agreement as specified in § 553.31.
</P>
<P>(d) The tour of duty does not include time spent in volunteer firefighting or law enforcement activities performed for a different jurisdiction, even where such activities take place under the terms of a mutual aid agreement in the jurisdiction in which the employee is employed. (See § 553.105.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.221" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.221   Compensable hours of work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The general rules on compensable hours of work are set forth in 29 CFR part 785 which is applicable to employees for whom the section 7(k) exemption is claimed. Special rules for sleep time (§ 553.222) apply to both law enforcement and employees in fire protection activities for whom the section 7(k) exemption is claimed. Also, special rules for meal time apply in the case of employees in fire protection activities (§ 553.223). Part 785 does not discuss the special provisions that apply to State and local government workers with respect to the treatment of substitution, special details for a separate and independent employer, early relief, and work performed on an occasional or sporadic and part-time basis, all of which are covered in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Compensable hours of work generally include all of the time during which an employee is on duty on the employer's premises or at a prescribed workplace, as well as all other time during which the employee is suffered or permitted to work for the employer. Such time includes all pre-shift and post-shift activities which are an integral part of the employee's principal activity or which are closely related to the performance of the principal activity, such as attending roll call, writing up and completing tickets or reports, and washing and re-racking fire hoses.
</P>
<P>(c) Time spent away from the employer's premises under conditions that are so circumscribed that they restrict the employee from effectively using the time for personal pursuits also constitutes compensable hours of work. For example, where a police station must be evacuated because of an electrical failure and the employees are expected to remain in the vicinity and return to work after the emergency has passed, the entire time spent away from the premises is compensable. The employees in this example cannot use the time for their personal pursuits.
</P>
<P>(d) An employee who is not required to remain on the employer's premises but is merely required to leave word at home or with company officials where he or she may be reached is not working while on call. Time spent at home on call may or may not be compensable depending on whether the restrictions placed on the employee preclude using the time for personal pursuits. Where, for example, an employee in fire protection activities has returned home after the shift, with the understanding that he or she is expected to return to work in the event of an emergency in the night, such time spent at home is normally not compensable. On the other hand, where the conditions placed on the employee's activities are so restrictive that the employee cannot use the time effectively for personal pursuits, such time spent on call is compensable.
</P>
<P>(e) Normal home to work travel is not compensable, even where the employee is expected to report to work at a location away from the location of the employer's premises.
</P>
<P>(f) A police officer, who has completed his or her tour of duty and who is given a patrol car to drive home and use on personal business, is not working during the travel time even where the radio must be left on so that the officer can respond to emergency calls. Of course, the time spent in responding to such calls is compensable.
</P>
<P>(g) The fact that employees cannot return home after work does not necessarily mean that they continue on duty after their shift. For example, employees in fire protection activities working on a forest fire may be transported to a camp after their shift in order to rest and eat a meal. As a practical matter, the employee in fire protection activities may be precluded from going to their homes because of the distance of the fire from their residences.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987; 52 FR 2648, Jan. 23, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 18857, Apr. 5, 2011; 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.222" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.222   Sleep time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a public employer elects to pay overtime compensation to employees in fire protection activities and/or law enforcement personnel in accordance with section 7(a)(1) of the Act, the public agency may exclude sleep time from hours worked if all the conditions in § 785.22 of this title are met.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the employer has elected to use the section 7(k) exemption, sleep time cannot be excluded from the compensable hours of work where
</P>
<P>(1) The employee is on a tour of duty of less than 24 hours, which is the general rule applicable to all employees under § 785.21, and
</P>
<P>(2) Where the employee is on a tour of duty of exactly 24 hours, which is a departure from the general rules in part 785.
</P>
<P>(c) Sleep time can be excluded from compensable hours of work, however, in the case of police officers or employees in fire protection activities who are on a tour of duty of more than 24 hours, but only if there is an expressed or implied agreement between the employer and the employees to exclude such time. In the absence of such an agreement, the sleep time is compensable. In no event shall the time excluded as sleep time exceed 8 hours in a 24-hour period. If the sleep time is interrupted by a call to duty, the interruption must be counted as hours worked. If the sleep period is interrupted to such an extent that the employee cannot get a reasonable night's sleep (which, for enforcement purposes means at least 5 hours), the entire time must be counted as hours of work.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 18857, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.223" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.223   Meal time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a public agency elects to pay overtime compensation to employees in fire protection activities and law enforcement personnel in accordance with section 7(a)(1) of the Act, the public agency may exclude meal time from hours worked if all the tests in § 785.19 of this title are met.
</P>
<P>(b) If a public agency elects to use the section 7(k) exemption, the public agency may, in the case of law enforcement personnel, exclude meal time from hours worked on tours of duty of 24 hours or less, provided that the employee is completely relieved from duty during the meal period, and all the other tests in § 785.19 of this title are met. On the other hand, where law enforcement personnel are required to remain on call in barracks or similar quarters, or are engaged in extended surveillance activities (e.g., “stakeouts”), they are not considered to be completely relieved from duty, and any such meal periods would be compensable.
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to employees in fire protection activities employed under section 7(k), who are confined to a duty station, the legislative history of the Act indicates Congressional intent to mandate a departure from the usual FLSA “hours of work” rules and adoption of an overtime standard keyed to the unique concept of “tour of duty” under which employees in fire protection activities are employed. Where the public agency elects to use the section 7(k) exemption for employees in fire protection activities, meal time cannot be excluded from the compensable hours of work where (1) the employee in fire protection activities is on a tour of duty of less than 24 hours, and (2) where the employee in fire protection activities is on a tour of duty of exactly 24 hours, which is a departure from the general rules in § 785.22 of this title.
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of police officers or employees in fire protection activities who are on a tour of duty of more than 24 hours, meal time may be excluded from compensable hours of work provided that the tests in §§ 785.19 and 785.22 of this title are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 18857, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.224" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.224   “Work period” defined.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in section 7(k), the term “work period” refers to any established and regularly recurring period of work which, under the terms of the Act and legislative history, cannot be less than 7 consecutive days nor more than 28 consecutive days. Except for this limitation, the work period can be of any length, and it need not coincide with the duty cycle or pay period or with a particular day of the week or hour of the day. Once the beginning and ending time of an employee's work period is established, however, it remains fixed regardless of how many hours are worked within the period. The beginning and ending of the work period may be changed, provided that the change is intended to be permanent and is not designed to evade the overtime compensation requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer may have one work period applicable to all employees, or different work periods for different employees or groups of employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.225" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.225   Early relief.</HEAD>
<P>It is a common practice among employees engaged in fire protection activities to relieve employees on the previous shift prior to the scheduled starting time. Such early relief time may occur pursuant to employee agreement, either expressed or implied. This practice will not have the effect of increasing the number of compensable hours of work for employees employed under section 7(k) where it is voluntary on the part of the employees and does not result, over a period of time, in their failure to receive proper compensation for all hours actually worked. On the other hand, if the practice is required by the employer, the time involved must be added to the employee's tour of duty and treated as compensable hours of work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.226" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.226   Training time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The general rules for determining the compensability of training time under the FLSA are set forth in §§ 785.27 through 785.32 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) While time spent in attending training required by an employer is normally considered compensable hours of work, following are situations where time spent by employees of State and local governments in required training is considered to be noncompensable:
</P>
<P>(1) Attendance outside of regular working hours at specialized or follow-up training, which is required by law for certification of public and private sector employees within a particular governmental jurisdiction (e.g., certification of public and private emergency rescue workers), does not constitute compensable hours of work for public employees within that jurisdiction and subordinate jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(2) Attendance outside of regular working hours at specialized or follow-up training, which is required for certification of employees of a governmental jurisdiction by law of a higher level of government (e.g., where a State or county law imposes a training obligation on city employees), does not constitute compensable hours of work.
</P>
<P>(3) Time spent in the training described in paragraphs (b) (1) or (2) of this section is not compensable, even if all or part of the costs of the training is borne by the employer.
</P>
<P>(c) Police officers or employees in fire protection activities, who are in attendance at a police or fire academy or other training facility, are not considered to be on duty during those times when they are not in class or at a training session, if they are free to use such time for personal pursuits. Such free time is not compensable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 18857, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.227" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.121.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.227   Outside employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(p)(1) makes special provision for fire protection and law enforcement employees of public agencies who, at their own option, perform special duty work in fire protection, law enforcement or related activities for a separate and independent employer (public or private) during their off-duty hours. The hours of work for the separate and independent employer are not combined with the hours worked for the primary public agency employer for purposes of overtime compensation.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7(p)(1) applies to such outside employment provided (1) The special detail work is performed solely at the employee's option, and (2) the two employers are in fact separate and independent.
</P>
<P>(c) Whether two employers are, in fact, separate and independent can only be determined on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(d) The primary employer may facilitate the employment or affect the conditions of employment of such employees. For example, a police department may maintain a roster of officers who wish to perform such work. The department may also select the officers for special details from a list of those wishing to participate, negotiate their pay, and retain a fee for administrative expenses. The department may require that the separate and independent employer pay the fee for such services directly to the department, and establish procedures for the officers to receive their pay for the special details through the agency's payroll system. Finally, the department may require that the officers observe their normal standards of conduct during such details and take disciplinary action against those who fail to do so.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7(p)(1) applies to special details even where a State law or local ordinance requires that such work be performed and that only law enforcement or fire protection employees of a public agency in the same jurisdiction perform the work. For example, a city ordinance may require the presence of city police officers at a convention center during concerts or sports events. If the officers perform such work at their own option, the hours of work need not be combined with the hours of work for their primary employer in computing overtime compensation.
</P>
<P>(f) The principles in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section with respect to special details of public agency fire protection and law enforcement employees under section 7(p)(1) are exceptions to the usual rules on joint employment set forth in part 791 of this title.
</P>
<P>(g) Where an employee is directed by the public agency to perform work for a second employer, section 7(p)(1) does not apply. Thus, assignments of police officers outside of their normal work hours to perform crowd control at a parade, where the assignments are not solely at the option of the officers, would not qualify as special details subject to this exception. This would be true even if the parade organizers reimburse the public agency for providing such services.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 7(p)(1) does not prevent a public agency from prohibiting or restricting outside employment by its employees.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="122" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.122" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Overtime Compensation Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.230" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.122.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.230   Maximum hours standards for work periods of 7 to 28 days—section 7(k).</HEAD>
<P>(a) For those employees engaged in fire protection activities who have a work period of at least 7 but less than 28 consecutive days, no overtime compensation is required under section 7(k) until the number of hours worked exceeds the number of hours which bears the same relationship to 212 as the number of days in the work period bears to 28.
</P>
<P>(b) For those employees engaged in law enforcement activities (including security personnel in correctional institutions) who have a work period of at least 7 but less than 28 consecutive days, no overtime compensation is required under section 7(k) until the number of hours worked exceeds the number of hours which bears the same relationship to 171 as the number of days in the work period bears to 28.
</P>
<P>(c) The ratio of 212 hours to 28 days for employees engaged in fire protection activities is 7.57 hours per day (rounded) and the ratio of 171 hours to 28 days for employees engaged in law enforcement activities is 6.11 hours per day (rounded). Accordingly, overtime compensation (in premium pay or compensatory time) is required for all hours worked in excess of the following maximum hours standards (rounded to the nearest whole hour):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Work period (days)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Maximum hours standards
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fire protection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Law enforcement
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">171
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">204</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">159
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">147
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">116
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.231" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.122.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.231   Compensatory time off.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Law enforcement and fire protection employees who are subject to the section 7(k) exemption may receive compensatory time off in lieu of overtime pay for hours worked in excess of the maximum for their work period as set forth in § 553.230. The rules for compensatory time off are set forth in §§ 553.20 through 553.28 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7(k) permits public agencies to balance the hours of work over an entire work period for law enforcement and fire protection employees. For example, if an employee engaged in fire protection activities' work period is 28 consecutive days, and he or she works 80 hours in each of the first two weeks, but only 52 hours in the third week, and does not work in the fourth week, no overtime compensation (in cash wages or compensatory time) would be required since the total hours worked do not exceed 212 for the work period. If the same employee in fire protection activities had a work period of only 14 days, overtime compensation or compensatory time off would be due for 54 hours (160 minus 106 hours) in the first 14 day work period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2032, Jan. 16, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 18857, Apr. 5, 2011; 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.232" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.122.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.232   Overtime pay requirements.</HEAD>
<P>If a public agency pays employees subject to section 7(k) for overtime hours worked in cash wages rather than compensatory time off, such wages must be paid at one and one-half times the employees' regular rates of pay. In addition, employees who have accrued the maximum 480 hours of compensatory time must be paid cash wages of time and one-half their regular rates of pay for overtime hours in excess of the maximum for the work period set forth in § 553.230.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 553.233" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.30.3.122.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 553.233   “Regular rate” defined.</HEAD>
<P>The rules for computing an employee's “regular rate”, for purposes of the Act's overtime pay requirements, are set forth in part 778 of this title. These rules are applicable to employees for whom the section 7(k) exemption is claimed when overtime compensation is provided in cash wages. However, wherever the word “workweek” is used in part 778, the words “work period” should be substituted.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="570" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 570—CHILD LABOR REGULATIONS, ORDERS AND STATEMENTS OF INTERPRETATION
</HEAD>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and further redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 3, 11, 12, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended, 1066, as amended, 1067, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 203, 211, 212.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 26834, June 29, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 570.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.1.131.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oppressive child labor</I> means employment of a minor in an occupation for which he does not meet the minimum age standards of the Act, as set forth in § 570.2 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oppressive child labor age</I> means an age below the minimum age established under the Act for the occupation in which a minor is employed or in which his employment is contemplated.
</P>
<P>(d) A <I>certificate of age</I> means a certificate as provided in § 570.5(b) (1) or (2) of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secretary” or Secretary of Labor</I> means the Secretary of Labor, United States Department of Labor, or his authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Wage and Hour Division</I> means the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division or his authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>State agency</I> means any officer, executive department, board, bureau or commission of a State or any division or unit thereof authorized to take action with respect to the application of laws relating to minors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 26834, June 29, 1976, as amended at 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.1.131.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.2   Minimum age standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>All occupations except in agriculture.</I> (1) The Act, in section 3(1), sets a general 16-year minimum age which applies to all employment subject to its child labor provisions in any occupation other than in agriculture, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) The Act authorizes the Secretary of Labor to provide by regulation or by order that the employment of employees between the ages of 14 and 16 years in occupations other than manufacturing and mining shall not be deemed to constitute oppressive child labor, if and to the extent that the Secretary of Labor determines that such employment is confined to periods which will not interfere with their schooling and to conditions which will not interfere with their health and well-being (see subpart C of this part); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Act sets an 18-year minimum age with respect to employment in any occupation found and declared by the Secretary of Labor to be particularly hazardous for the employment of minors of such age or detrimental to their health or well-being (see subpart E of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) The Act exempts from its minimum age requirements the employment by a parent of his own child, or by a person standing in place of a parent of a child in his custody, except in occupations to which the 18-year age minimum applies and in manufacturing and mining occupations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Occupations in agriculture.</I> The Act sets a 16-year age minimum for employment in agriculture during school hours for the school district in which the employed minor is living at the time, and also for employment in any occupation in agriculture that the Secretary of Labor finds and declares to be particularly hazardous except where such employee is employed by his parent or by a person standing in the place of his parent on a farm owned or operated by such parent or person (see Subpart E-1 of this part). There is a minimum age requirement of 14 years generally for employment in agriculture outside school hours for the school district where such employee is living while so employed. However, (1) a minor 12 or 13 years of age may be so employed with written consent of his parent or person standing in place of his parent, or may work on a farm where such parent or person is also employed, and (2) a minor under 12 years of age may be employed by his parent or by a person standing in place of his parent on a farm owned or operated by such parent or person, or may be employed with consent of such parent or person on a farm where all employees are exempt from the minimum wage provisions by virtue of section 13(a) (6) (A) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Certificates of Age</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 203(l), 211, 212.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 26835, June 29, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 570.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.5   Certificates of age and their effect.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To protect an employer from unwitting violation of the minimum age standards under the Act, section 3(1) of the Act provides that “oppressive child labor shall not be deemed to exist by virtue of the employment in any occupation of any person with respect to whom the employer shall have on file an unexpired certificate issued and held pursuant to regulations of the Secretary of Labor certifying that such person is above the oppressive child-labor age.” The provisions of this subpart provide for age certificates based on the best available documentary evidence of age. Certificates issued and effective pursuant to this subpart furnish an employer with proof of the age of a minor employee upon which he may rely in determining whether the minor is at least the minimum age for the occupation in which he is to be employed.
</P>
<P>(b) The employment of any minor shall not be deemed to constitute oppressive child labor under the Act if his employer shall have on file an unexpired certificate, issued and held in accordance with this subpart, which shall be either:
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal certificate of age, issued by a person authorized by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, showing that such minor is above the oppressive child-labor age applicable to the occupation in which he is employed, or
</P>
<P>(2) A State certificate, which may be in the form of and known as an age, employment, or working certificate or permit, issued by or under the supervision of a State agency in a State which has been designated for this purpose by the Administrator showing that such minor is above the oppressive child-labor age applicable to the occupation in which the minor is employed. States so designated are listed in § 570.9(a). Any such certificate shall have the force and effect specified in § 570.9.
</P>
<P>(c) The prospective employer of a minor, in order to protect himself from unwitting violation of the Act, should obtain a certificate (as specified in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section) for the minor if there is any reason to believe that the minor's age may be below the applicable minimum for the occupation in which he is to be employed. Such certificate should always be obtained where the minor claims to be only 1 or 2 years above the applicable minimum age for the occupation in which he is to be employed. It should also be obtained for every minor claiming to be older than 2 years above the applicable minimum age if his physical appearance indicates that this may not be true.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.6   Contents and disposition of certificates of age.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in §§ 570.9 and 570.10, a certificate of age which shall have the effect specified in § 570.5 shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Name and address of minor.
</P>
<P>(2) Place and date of birth of minor, together with a statement indicating the evidence on which this is based. The place of birth need not appear on the certificate if it is obtained and kept on file by the person issuing the certificate.
</P>
<P>(3) Sex of minor.
</P>
<P>(4) Signature of minor.
</P>
<P>(5) Name and address of minor's parent or person standing in place of parent. This information need not appear on the certificate if it is obtained and kept on file by the person issuing the certificate.
</P>
<P>(6) Name and address of employer, if minor is under 18.
</P>
<P>(7) Industry of employer, if minor is under 18.
</P>
<P>(8) Occupation of minor, if minor is under 18.
</P>
<P>(9) Signature of issuing officer.
</P>
<P>(10) Date and place of issuance.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) We will send a certificate of age for a minor under 18 years of age to the prospective employer of the minor. That employer must keep the certificate on file at the minor's workplace. When the minor terminates employment, the employer must give the certificate to the minor. The minor may then present the previously issued certificate to future employers as proof of age as described in § 570.5.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever a certificate of age is issued for a minor 18 or 19 years of age it may be given to the minor by the person issuing the certificate. Every minor 18 or 19 years of age shall, upon entering employment, deliver his certificate of age to his employer for filing and upon the termination of the employment, the employer shall return the certificate to the minor.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in paragraph (a) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0018)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 26835, June 29, 1976, as amended at 49 FR 18294, Apr. 30, 1984; 69 FR 75402, Dec. 16, 2004; 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.7   Documentary evidence required for issuance of a certificate of age.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in §§ 570.9 and 570.10, a certificate of age which shall have the effect specified in § 570.5 shall be issued only upon application of the minor desiring employment or of the prospective employer to the person authorized to issue such certificate and only after acceptable documentary evidence of age has been received, examined, and approved. Such evidence shall consist of one of the following to be required in the order of preference herein designated:
</P>
<P>(1) A birth certificate or attested transcript thereof or a signed statement of the recorded date and place of birth, issued by a registrar of vital statistics or other officer charged with the duty of recording births.
</P>
<P>(2) A record of baptism or attested transcript thereof showing the date and place of birth and date and place of baptism of the minor, or a bona fide contemporary record of the date and place of the minor's birth kept in the Bible in which the records of the births in the family of the minor are preserved, or other documentary evidence satisfactory to the Administrator, such as a passport showing the age of the minor, or a certificate of arrival in the United States issued by the United States immigration office and showing the age of the minor, or a life-insurance policy: <I>Provided,</I> That such other documentary evidence has been in existence at least 1 year prior to the time it is offered as evidence: And <I>provided further,</I> That a school record of age or an affidavit of a parent or a person standing in place of a parent, or other written statement of age shall not be accepted except as specified in paragraph (a) (3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) The school record or the school-census record of the age of the minor, together with the sworn statement of a parent or person standing in place of a parent as to the age of the minor and also a certificate signed by a physician specifying what in his opinion is the physical age of the minor. Such certificate shall show the height and weight of the minor and other facts concerning his physical development which were revealed by such examination and upon which the opinion of the physician as to the physical age of the minor is based. If the school or school-census record of age is not obtainable, the sworn statement of the parent or person standing in place of a parent as to the date of birth of the minor, together with a physician's certificate of age as hereinbefore specified, may be accepted as evidence of age.
</P>
<P>(b) The officer issuing a certificate of age for a minor shall require the evidence of age specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in preference to that specified in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, and shall not accept the evidence of age permitted by either subsequent paragraph unless he shall receive and file evidence that reasonable efforts have been made to obtain the preferred evidence required by the preceding paragraph or paragraphs before accepting any subsequently named evidence: <I>Provided,</I> That to avoid undue delay in the issuance of certificates, evidence specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be accepted, or if such evidence is not available, evidence specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section may be accepted if a verification of birth has been requested but has not been received from the appropriate bureau of vital statistics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.8   Issuance of a Federal certificate of age.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal certificate of age which shall have the effect specified in § 570.5 shall be issued by a person authorized by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division and shall be issued in accordance with the provisions of §§ 570.6 and 570.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.9   States in which State certificates of age are accepted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The States in which age, employment, or working certificates or permits have been found by the Administrator to be issued by or under the supervision of a State agency substantially in accordance with the provisions of §§ 570.6 and 570.7 and which are designated as States in which certificates so issued shall have the force and effect specified in § 570.5, except as individual certificates may be revoked in accordance with § 570.11 of this subpart, are:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Alabama, Arkansas, California, Colorado, Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, Florida, Georgia, Hawaii, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Montana, Nebraska, Nevada, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New Mexico, New York, North Carolina, North Dakota, Ohio, Oklahoma, Oregon, Pennsylvania, Puerto Rico, Rhode Island, South Dakota, Tennessee, Vermont, Virginia, West Virginia, Wisconsin and Wyoming.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) State certificates requiring conditions or restrictions additional to those required by this subpart shall not be deemed to be inconsistent herewith.
</P>
<P>(c) The designation of a State under this section shall have force and effect indefinitely unless withdrawal of such designation is deemed desirable for the effective administration of the Act. No withdrawal of the designation of a State under this section shall make any certificate invalid if it was issued by or under the supervision of a State agency as herein provided prior to such withdrawal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.10   Rules for certificates of age in the State of Alaska and the Territory of Guam.</HEAD>
<P>The State of Alaska and the Territory of Guam are designated as States in which any of the following documents shall have the same effect as Federal certificates of age as specified in § 570.5:
</P>
<P>(a) A birth certificate or attested transcript thereof, or a signed statement of the recorded date and place of birth issued by a registrar of vital statistics or other officer charged with the duty of recording births, or
</P>
<P>(b) A record of baptism or attested transcript thereof showing the date of birth of the minor, or
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to the State of Alaska, a statement on the census records of the Bureau of Indian Affairs and signed by an administrative representative thereof showing the name, date of birth, and place of birth of the minor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.11   Continued acceptability of certificates of age.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a person duly authorized to make investigations under this Act shall obtain substantial evidence that the age of the minor as given on a certificate held by an employer subject to this Act is incorrect, he shall inform the employer and the minor of such evidence and of his intention to request through the appropriate channels that action be taken to establish the correct age of the minor and to determine the continued acceptability of the certificate as proof of age under the Act. The said authorized person shall request in writing through the appropriate channels that action be taken on the acceptability of the certificate as proof of age under the Fair Labor Standards Act and shall state the evidence of age of the minor which he has obtained and the reasons for such request. A copy of this request shall be sent to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division for further handling through the State agency responsible for the issuance of certificates, except that in those States where Federal certificates of age are issued, action necessary to establish the correct age of the minor and to revoke the certificate if it is found that the minor is under age shall be taken by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division or his designated representative.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator shall have final authority in those States in which State certificates are accepted as proof of age under the Act for determining the continued acceptability of the certificate, and shall have final authority for such determination in those States in which Federal certificates of age are issued. When such determination has been made in any case, notice thereof shall be given to the employer and the minor. In those cases involving the continued acceptability of State certificates, the appropriate State agency and the official who issued the certificate shall also be notified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.12   Revoked certificates of age.</HEAD>
<P>A certificate which has been revoked as proof of age under the Act shall be of no force and effect under the Act after notice of such revocation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="131" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Provisions of Other Laws</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.2.131.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.25   Effect on laws other than the Federal child labor standards.</HEAD>
<P>No provision of this subpart shall under any circumstances justify or be construed to permit noncompliance with the provisions of any other Federal law or of any State law or municipal ordinance establishing higher standards than those established under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Employment of Minors Between 14 and 16 Years of Age (Child Labor Reg. 3)</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 203(l), 212, 213(c).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 570.31" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.31   Secretary's determinations concerning the employment of minors 14 and 15 years of age.</HEAD>
<P>The employment of minors between 14 and 16 years of age in the occupations, for the periods, and under the conditions specified in § 570.34 and § 570.35, does not interfere with their schooling or with their health and well-being and shall not be deemed to be oppressive child labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28448, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.32" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.32   Effect of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart concerns the employment of youth between 14 and 16 years of age in nonagricultural occupations; standards for the employment of minors in agricultural occupations are detailed in subpart E-1. The employment (including suffering or permitting to work) by an employer of minors 14 and 15 years of age in occupations detailed in § 570.34, for the periods and under the conditions specified in § 570.35, shall not be deemed to be oppressive child labor within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. Employment that is not specifically permitted is prohibited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28448, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.33" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.33   Occupations that are prohibited to minors 14 and 15 years of age.</HEAD>
<P>The following occupations, which is not an exhaustive list, constitute oppressive child labor within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act when performed by minors who are 14 and 15 years of age:
</P>
<P>(a) Manufacturing, mining, or processing occupations, including occupations requiring the performance of any duties in work rooms or work places where goods are manufactured, mined or otherwise processed, except as permitted in § 570.34 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Occupations that the Secretary of Labor may, pursuant to section 3(l) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, find and declare to be hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age or detrimental to their health or well-being.
</P>
<P>(c) Occupations that involve operating, tending, setting up, adjusting, cleaning, oiling, or repairing hoisting apparatus.
</P>
<P>(d) Work performed in or about boiler or engine rooms or in connection with the maintenance or repair of the establishment, machines, or equipment.
</P>
<P>(e) Occupations that involve operating, tending, setting up, adjusting, cleaning, oiling, or repairing any power-driven machinery, including but not limited to lawn mowers, golf carts, all-terrain vehicles, trimmers, cutters, weed-eaters, edgers, food slicers, food grinders, food choppers, food processors, food cutters, and food mixers. Youth 14 and 15 years of age may, however, operate office equipment pursuant to § 570.34(a) and vacuum cleaners and floor waxers pursuant to § 570.34(h).
</P>
<P>(f) The operation of motor vehicles; the service as helpers on such vehicles except those tasks permitted by § 570.34(k); and the riding on a motor vehicle, inside or outside of an enclosed passenger compartment, except as permitted by § 570.34(o).
</P>
<P>(g) Outside window washing that involves working from window sills, and all work requiring the use of ladders, scaffolds, or their substitutes.
</P>
<P>(h) All baking and cooking activities except that cooking which is permitted by § 570.34(c).
</P>
<P>(i) Work in freezers and meat coolers and all work in the preparation of meats for sale except as permitted by § 570.34(j). This section, however, does not prohibit the employment of 14- and 15-year-olds whose duties require them to occasionally enter freezers only momentarily to retrieve items as permitted by § 570.34(i).
</P>
<P>(j) Youth peddling, which entails the selling of goods or services to customers at locations other than the youth-employer's establishment, such as the customers' residences or places of business, or public places such as street corners and public transportation stations. Prohibited activities associated with youth peddling not only include the attempt to make a sale or the actual consummation of a sale, but also the preparatory and concluding tasks normally performed by a youth peddler in conjunction with his or her sales such as the loading and unloading of vans or other motor vehicles, the stocking and restocking of sales kits and trays, the exchanging of cash and checks with the employer, and the transportation of minors to and from the various sales areas by the employer. Prohibited youth peddling also includes such promotion activities as the holding, wearing, or waving of signs, merchandise, costumes, sandwich boards, or placards in order to attract potential customers, except when performed inside of, or directly in front of, the employer's establishment providing the product, service, or event being advertised. This provision does not prohibit a young salesperson from conducting sales for his or her employer on property controlled by the employer that is out of doors but may properly be considered part of the employer's establishment. Youth may conduct sales in such employer exterior facilities, whether temporary or permanent, as garden centers, sidewalk sales, and parking lot sales, when employed by that establishment. Youth peddling does not include the activities of persons who, as volunteers and without compensation, sell goods or services on behalf of eleemosynary organizations or public agencies.
</P>
<P>(k) Loading and unloading of goods or property onto or from motor vehicles, railroad cars, or conveyors, except the loading and unloading of personal non-power-driven hand tools, personal protective equipment, and personal items to and from motor vehicles as permitted by § 570.34(k).
</P>
<P>(l) Catching and cooping of poultry in preparation for transport or for market.
</P>
<P>(m) Public messenger service.
</P>
<P>(n) Occupations in connection with:
</P>
<P>(1) Transportation of persons or property by rail, highway, air, water, pipeline, or other means;
</P>
<P>(2) Warehousing and storage;
</P>
<P>(3) Communications and public utilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Construction (including demolition and repair); except such office work (including ticket office) or sales work in connection with paragraphs (n)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section, as does not involve the performance of any duties on trains, motor vehicles, aircraft, vessels, or other media of transportation or at the actual site of construction operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28448, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.34" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.34   Occupations that may be performed by minors 14 and 15 years of age.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart authorizes only the following occupations in which the employment of minors 14 and 15 years of age is permitted when performed for periods and under conditions authorized by § 570.35 and not involving occupations prohibited by § 570.33 or performed in areas or industries prohibited by § 570.33.
</P>
<P>(a) Office and clerical work, including the operation of office machines.
</P>
<P>(b) Work of an intellectual or artistically creative nature such as, but not limited to, computer programming, the writing of software, teaching or performing as a tutor, serving as a peer counselor or teacher's assistant, singing, the playing of a musical instrument, and drawing, as long as such employment complies with all the other provisions contained in §§ 570.33, 570.34, and 570.35. Artistically creative work is limited to work in a recognized field of artistic or creative endeavor.
</P>
<P>(c) Cooking with electric or gas grills which does not involve cooking over an open flame (Note: This provision does not authorize cooking with equipment such as rotisseries, broilers, pressurized equipment including fryolators, and cooking devices that operate at extremely high temperatures such as “Neico broilers”). Cooking is also permitted with deep fryers that are equipped with and utilize a device which automatically lowers the baskets into the hot oil or grease and automatically raises the baskets from the hot oil or grease.
</P>
<P>(d) Cashiering, selling, modeling, art work, work in advertising departments, window trimming, and comparative shopping.
</P>
<P>(e) Price marking and tagging by hand or machine, assembling orders, packing, and shelving.
</P>
<P>(f) Bagging and carrying out customers' orders.
</P>
<P>(g) Errand and delivery work by foot, bicycle, and public transportation.
</P>
<P>(h) Clean up work, including the use of vacuum cleaners and floor waxers, and the maintenance of grounds, but not including the use of power-driven mowers, cutters, trimmers, edgers, or similar equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) Kitchen work and other work involved in preparing and serving food and beverages, including operating machines and devices used in performing such work. Examples of permitted machines and devices include, but are not limited to, dishwashers, toasters, dumbwaiters, popcorn poppers, milk shake blenders, coffee grinders, automatic coffee machines, devices used to maintain the temperature of prepared foods (such as warmers, steam tables, and heat lamps), and microwave ovens that are used only to warm prepared food and do not have the capacity to warm above 140 °F. Minors are permitted to clean kitchen equipment (not otherwise prohibited), remove oil or grease filters, pour oil or grease through filters, and move receptacles containing hot grease or hot oil, but only when the equipment, surfaces, containers and liquids do not exceed a temperature of 100 °F. Minors are also permitted to occasionally enter freezers momentarily to retrieve items in conjunction with restocking or food preparation.
</P>
<P>(j) Cleaning vegetables and fruits, and the wrapping, sealing, labeling, weighing, pricing, and stocking of items, including vegetables, fruits, and meats, when performed in areas physically separate from a freezer or meat cooler.
</P>
<P>(k) The loading onto motor vehicles and the unloading from motor vehicles of the light, non-power-driven, hand tools and personal protective equipment that the minor will use as part of his or her employment at the work site; and the loading onto motor vehicles and the unloading from motor vehicles of personal items such as a back pack, a lunch box, or a coat that the minor is permitted to take to the work site. Such light tools would include, but are not limited to, rakes, hand-held clippers, shovels, and brooms. Such light tools would not include items like trash, sales kits, promotion items or items for sale, lawn mowers, or other power-driven lawn maintenance equipment. Such minors would not be permitted to load or unload safety equipment such as barriers, cones, or signage.
</P>
<P>(l)(1) <I>Lifeguard.</I> The employment of 15-year-olds (but not 14-year-olds) to perform permitted lifeguard duties at traditional swimming pools and water amusement parks (including such water park facilities as wave pools, lazy rivers, specialized activity areas that may include water falls and sprinkler areas, and baby pools; but not including the elevated areas of power-driven water slides) when such youth have been trained and certified by the American Red Cross, or a similar certifying organization, in aquatics and water safety.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this paragraph (l):
</P>
<P><I>Permitted lifeguard duties</I> include the rescuing of swimmers in danger of drowning, the monitoring of activities at poolside to prevent accidents, the teaching of water safety, and providing assistance to patrons. Lifeguards may also help to maintain order and cleanliness in the pool and pool areas, give swimming instructions (if, in addition to being certified as a lifeguard, the 15-year-old is also properly certified as a swimming instructor by the American Red Cross or some other recognized certifying organization), conduct or officiate at swimming meets, and administer first aid. Additional lifeguard duties may include checking in and out items such as towels and personal items such as rings, watches and apparel. Permitted duties for 15-year-olds include the use of a ladder to access and descend from the lifeguard chair; the use of hand tools to clean the pool and pool area; and the testing and recording of water quality for temperature and/or pH levels, using all of the tools of the testing process including adding chemicals to the test water sample. Fifteen-year-olds employed as lifeguards are, however, prohibited from entering or working in any mechanical room or chemical storage areas, including any areas where the filtration and chlorinating systems are housed. The term permitted lifeguard duties does not include the operation or tending of power-driven equipment including power-driven elevated water slides often found at water amusement parks and some swimming pools. Minors under 16 years of age may not be employed as dispatchers or attendants at the top of elevated water slides performing such tasks as maintaining order, directing patrons as to when to depart the top of the slide, and ensuring that patrons have begun their “ride” safely. Properly certified 15-year-old lifeguards may, however, be stationed at the “splashdown pools” located at the bottom of the elevated water slides to perform those permitted duties listed in this subsection.
</P>
<P><I>Traditional swimming pool</I> means a water tight structure of concrete, masonry, or other approved materials located either indoors or outdoors, used for bathing or swimming and filled with a filtered and disinfected water supply, together with buildings, appurtenances and equipment used in connection therewith, excluding elevated “water slides.” Not included in the definition of a traditional swimming pool would be such natural environment swimming facilities as rivers, streams, lakes, ponds, quarries, reservoirs, wharfs, piers, canals, or oceanside beaches.
</P>
<P><I>Water amusement park</I> means an establishment that not only encompasses the features of a traditional swimming pool, but may also include such additional attractions as wave pools; lazy rivers; specialized activities areas such as baby pools, water falls, and sprinklers; and elevated water slides. Not included in the definition of a water amusement park would be such natural environment swimming facilities as rivers, streams, lakes, reservoirs, wharfs, piers, canals, or oceanside beaches.
</P>
<P>(m)(1) <I>Employment inside and outside of places of business where machinery is used to process wood products.</I> The employment of a 14- or 15-year-old who by statute or judicial order is exempt from compulsory school attendance beyond the eighth grade inside or outside places of business where machinery is used to process wood products if:
</P>
<P>(i) The youth is supervised by an adult relative of the youth or is supervised by an adult member of the same religious sect or division as the youth;
</P>
<P>(ii) The youth does not operate or assist in the operation of power-driven woodworking machines;
</P>
<P>(iii) The youth is protected from wood particles or other flying debris within the workplace by a barrier appropriate to the potential hazard of such wood particles or flying debris or by maintaining a sufficient distance from machinery in operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The youth is required to use, and uses, personal protective equipment to prevent exposure to excessive levels of noise and saw dust.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance.</I> Compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (m)(1)(iii) and (m)(1)(iv) of this section will be accomplished when the employer is in compliance with the requirements of the applicable governing standards issued by the U.S. Department of Labor's Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) or, in those areas where OSHA has authorized the state to operate its own Occupational Safety and Health Plan, the applicable standards issued by the Office charged with administering the State Occupational Safety and Health Plan. The employment of youth under this section must comply with the other sections of this subpart, including the hours and time of day standards established by § 570.35.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this paragraph (m):
</P>
<P><I>Inside or outside places of business</I> shall mean the actual physical location of the establishment employing the youth, including the buildings and surrounding land necessary to the business operations of that establishment.
</P>
<P><I>Operate or assist in the operation of power-driven woodworking machines</I> shall mean the operating of such machines, including supervising or controlling the operation of such machines, feeding material into such machines, helping the operator feed material into such machines, unloading materials from such machines, and helping the operator unload materials from such machines. The term also includes the occupations of setting-up, adjusting, repairing, oiling, or cleaning such machines.
</P>
<P><I>Places of business where machinery is used to process wood products</I> shall mean such permanent workplaces as sawmills, lath mills, shingle mills, cooperage stock mills, furniture and cabinet making shops, gazebo and shed making shops, toy manufacturing shops, and pallet shops. The term shall not include construction sites, portable sawmills, areas where logging is being performed, or mining operations.
</P>
<P><I>Power-driven woodworking machines</I> shall mean all fixed or portable machines or tools driven by power and used or designed for cutting, shaping, forming, surfacing, nailing, stapling, wire stitching, fastening or otherwise assembling, pressing, or printing wood, veneer, trees, logs, or lumber.
</P>
<P><I>Supervised by an adult relative or is supervised by an adult member of the same religious sect or division as the youth</I> has several components. <I>Supervised</I> means that the youth's on-the-job activities must be directed, monitored, overseen, and controlled by certain named adults. Such supervision must be close, direct, constant, and uninterrupted. An <I>adult</I> shall mean an individual who is at least eighteen years of age. A <I>relative</I> shall mean the parent (or someone standing in the place of a parent), grandparent, sibling, uncle, or aunt of the young worker. <I>A member of the same religious sect or division as the youth</I> refers to an individual who professes membership in the same religious sect or division to which the youth professes membership.
</P>
<P>(n) Work in connection with cars and trucks if confined to the following: dispensing gasoline and oil; courtesy service; car cleaning, washing and polishing by hand; and other occupations permitted by this section, but not including work involving the use of pits, racks, or lifting apparatus, or involving the inflation of any tire mounted on a rim equipped with a removable retaining ring.
</P>
<P>(o) Work in connection with riding inside passenger compartments of motor vehicles except as prohibited by § 570.33(f) or § 570.33(j), or when a significant reason for the minor being a passenger in the vehicle is for the purpose of performing work in connection with the transporting—or assisting in the transporting of—other persons or property. The transportation of the persons or property does not have to be the primary reason for the trip for this exception to apply. Each minor riding as a passenger in a motor vehicle must have his or her own seat in the passenger compartment; each seat must be equipped with a seat belt or similar restraining device; and the employer must instruct the minors that such belts or other devices must be used. In addition, each driver transporting the young workers must hold a State driver's license valid for the type of driving involved and, if the driver is under the age of 18, his or her employment must comply with the provisions of § 570.52.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28448, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.35" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.35   Hours of work and conditions of employment permitted for minors 14 and 15 years of age.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hours standards.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, employment in any of the permissible occupations to which this subpart is applicable shall be confined to the following periods:
</P>
<P>(1) Outside of school hours;
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than 40 hours in any 1 week when school is not in session;
</P>
<P>(3) Not more than 18 hours in any 1 week when school is in session;
</P>
<P>(4) Not more than 8 hours in any 1 day when school is not in session;
</P>
<P>(5) Not more than 3 hours in any 1 day when school is in session, including Fridays;
</P>
<P>(6) Between 7 a.m. and 7 p.m. in any 1 day, except during the summer (June 1 through Labor Day) when the evening hour will be 9 p.m.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Outside school hours</I> means such periods as before and after school hours, holidays, summer vacations, weekends, and any other day or part of a day when school is not in session as determined by the local public school district in which the minor resides when employed. Summer school sessions, held in addition to the regularly scheduled school year, are considered to be <I>outside of school hours.</I>
</P>
<P><I>School hours</I> refers to the hours that the local public school district where the minor resides while employed is in session during the regularly scheduled school year.
</P>
<P><I>Week</I> means a fixed and regularly recurring period of 168 hours—seven consecutive 24-hour periods—that is identical to the workweek the employer establishes for the employee under § 778.105 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>Week when school is in session</I> refers to any week the local public school district where the minor resides while employed is in session and students are required to attend for at least one day or partial day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) School is not considered to be in session, and exceptions from the hours limitations standards listed in paragraphs (a)(1), (3), and (5) of this section are provided, for any youth 14 or 15 years of age who:
</P>
<P>(i) Has graduated from high school;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been excused from compulsory school attendance by the state or other jurisdiction once he or she has completed the eighth grade and his or her employment complies with all the requirements of the state school attendance law;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a child to support and appropriate state officers, pursuant to state law, have waived school attendance requirements for this minor;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is subject to an order of a state or federal court prohibiting him or her from attending school; or
</P>
<P>(v) Has been permanently expelled from the local public school he or she would normally attend, unless the youth is required, by state or local law or ordinance, or by court order, to attend another school.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of minors 14 and 15 years of age who are employed to perform sports-attending services at professional sporting events, <I>i.e.,</I> baseball, basketball, football, soccer, tennis, etc., the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(6) of this section shall not apply, provided that the duties of the sports-attendant occupation consist of pre- and post-game or practice setup of balls, items and equipment; supplying and retrieving balls, items and equipment during a sporting event; clearing the field or court of debris, moisture, etc., during play; providing ice, drinks, towels, etc., to players during play; running errands for trainers, managers, coaches, and players before, during, and after a sporting event; and returning and/or storing balls, items and equipment in club house or locker room after a sporting event. For purposes of this exception, impermissible duties include grounds or field maintenance such as grass mowing, spreading or rolling tarpaulins used to cover playing areas, etc.; cleaning and repairing equipment; cleaning locker rooms, showers, lavatories, rest rooms, team vehicles, club houses, dugouts or similar facilities; loading and unloading balls, items and equipment from team vehicles before and after a sporting event; doing laundry; and working in concession stands or other selling and promotional activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Exceptions from certain of the hours standards contained in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(3) of this section are provided for the employment of minors who are enrolled in and employed pursuant to a school-supervised work-experience and career exploration program as detailed in § 570.36.
</P>
<P>(4) Exceptions from certain of the hours standards contained in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(5) of this section are provided for the employment of minors who are participating in a work-study program designed as described in § 570.37.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28448, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.36" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.36   Work experience and career exploration program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section varies some provisions of this subpart for the employment of minors between 14 and 16 years of age who are enrolled in and employed pursuant to a school-supervised and school-administered work-experience and career exploration program which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, in the occupations permitted under paragraph (c) of this section, and for the periods and under the conditions specified in paragraph (d) of this section. With these safeguards, such employment is found not to interfere with the schooling of the minors or with their health and well-being and therefore is not deemed to be oppressive child labor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A school-supervised and school-administered work-experience and career exploration program shall meet the educational standards established and approved by the State Educational Agency in the respective State.
</P>
<P>(2) The State Educational Agency shall file with the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division a letter of application for approval of a State program as one not interfering with schooling or with the health and well-being of the minors involved and therefore not constituting oppressive child labor. The application must include information concerning the criteria listed in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. The Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division shall approve the application, or give prompt notice of any denial and the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(3) The criteria to be used in consideration of applications are the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligibility.</I> Any student aged 14 or 15 years who authoritative local school personnel identify as being able to benefit from the program shall be eligible to participate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Credits.</I> Students shall receive school credits for both in-school related instruction and on-the-job experience.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Size.</I> Each program unit shall be a reasonable size. A unit of 12 to 25 students to one teacher-coordinator would be generally considered reasonable. Whether other sizes are reasonable would depend upon the individual facts and circumstances involved.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Instructional schedule.</I> There shall be (<I>a</I>) allotted time for the required classroom instruction in those subjects necessary for graduation under the State's standards and (<I>b</I>) regularly scheduled classroom periods of instruction devoted to job-related and to employability skill instruction.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Teacher-coordinator.</I> Each program unit shall be under the supervision of a school official to be designated for the purpose of the program as a teacher-coordinator, who shall generally supervise the program and coordinate the work and education aspects of the program and make regularly scheduled visits to the work stations.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Written training agreement.</I> No student shall participate in the program until there has been made a written training agreement signed by the teacher-coordinator, the employer, and the student. The agreement shall also be signed or otherwise consented to by the student's parent or guardian.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Other provisions.</I> Any other provisions of the program providing safeguards ensuring that the employment permitted under this section will not interfere with the schooling of the minors or with their health and well-being may also be submitted for use in consideration of the application.
</P>
<P>(4) Every State Educational Agency having students in a program approved pursuant to the requirements of this section shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Permissible occupations.</I> No student shall be assigned to work in any occupation other than one permitted under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Records and reports.</I> The names and addresses of each school enrolling work experience and career exploration program students and the number of enrollees in each unit shall be kept at the State Educational Agency office. A copy of the written training agreement for each student participating in the program shall be kept in the State Educational Agency office or in the local educational office. The records required for this paragraph shall be kept for a period of 3 years from the date of enrollment in the program and shall be made available for inspection or transcription to the representatives of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division.
</P>
<P>(c) Employment of minors enrolled in a program approved pursuant to the requirements of this section shall be permitted in all occupations except the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing and mining.
</P>
<P>(2) Occupations declared to be hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age in subpart E of this part, and occupations in agriculture declared to be hazardous for employment of minors below the age of 16 in subpart E-1 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Occupations other than those permitted under § 570.34, except upon approval of a variation by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division in acting on the program application of the State Educational Agency. The Administrator shall have discretion to grant requests for special variations if the applicant demonstrates that the activity will be performed under adequate supervision and training (including safety precautions) and that the terms and conditions of the proposed employment will not interfere with the health or well-being or schooling of the minor enrolled in an approved program. The granting of a special variation is determined on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(i) The Administrator's decision on whether to grant a special variation will be based on information provided in the application filed by the State Educational Agency, and/or any supplemental information that may be requested by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Administrator's decision shall be in writing, and may designate specific equipment safeguards or other terms and conditions governing the work-activity approved by variation. If the request is denied, in whole or part, the reason(s) for the decision will be provided to the applicant, who may request reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(iii) A special variation will be valid only during the period covered by an approved program, and must be renewed with the filing of a new program application.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Administrator shall revoke or deny a special variation, in whole or in part, where there is reason to believe that program participants have been or will be employed contrary to terms and conditions specified for the variation, or these regulations, other provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act, or otherwise in conditions detrimental to their health or well-being or schooling.
</P>
<P>(v) Requests for special variations and related documentation will be available for examination in the Branch of Child Labor and Polygraph Standards, Wage and Hour Division, Room S3510, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210. Any interested person may oppose the granting of a special variation or may request reconsideration or revocation of a special variation. Such requests shall set forth reasons why the special variation should be denied or revoked.
</P>
<P>(d) Employment of minors enrolled in a program approved pursuant to the requirements of this section shall be confined to not more than 23 hours in any 1 week when school is in session and not more than 3 hours in any day when school is in session, any portion of which may be during school hours. Insofar as these provisions are inconsistent with the provisions of § 570.35, this section shall be controlling.
</P>
<P>(e) The employment of a minor enrolled in a program pursuant to the requirements of this section must not have the effect of displacing a worker employed in the establishment of the employer.
</P>
<P>(f) Programs shall be in force and effect for a period of two (2) school years from the date of their approval by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division. A new application for approval must be filed at the end of that period. Failure to meet the requirements of this section may result in withdrawal of approval.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in paragraphs (b)(3)(vi) and (4) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0018)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 40801, Sept. 4, 1975; 40 FR 44130, Sept. 25, 1975; 47 FR 145, Jan. 5, 1982; 47 FR 28095, June 29, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 18294, Apr. 30, 1984; 60 FR 19339, Apr. 17, 1995. Redesignated and amended at 75 FR 28452, May 20, 2010; 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.37" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.37   Work-study program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section varies the provisions contained in § 570.35(a)(1) and (a)(5) for the employment of minors 14 and 15 years of age who are enrolled in and employed pursuant to a school-supervised and school-administered work-study program that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, in the occupations permitted by § 570.34, and for the periods and under the conditions specified in paragraph (c) of this section. With these safeguards, such employment is found not to interfere with the schooling of the minors or with their health and well-being and therefore is not deemed to be oppressive child labor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A school-supervised and school-administered work-study program shall meet the educational standards established and approved by the State Educational Agency in the respective state.
</P>
<P>(2) The superintendent of the public or private school system supervising and administering the work-study program shall file with the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division a letter of application for approval of the work-study program as one not interfering with schooling or with the health and well-being of the minors involved and therefore not constituting oppressive child labor. The application shall be filed at least sixty days before the start of the school year and must include information concerning the criteria listed in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. The Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division shall approve the application, or give prompt notice of any denial and the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(3) The criteria to be used in consideration of applications under this section are the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligibility.</I> Any student 14 or 15 years of age, enrolled in a college preparatory curriculum, whom authoritative personnel from the school attended by the youth identify as being able to benefit from the program shall be able to participate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Instructional schedule.</I> Every youth shall receive, every school year he or she participates in the work-study program, at least the minimum number of hours of classroom instruction, as required by the State Educational Agency responsible for establishing such standards, to complete a fully-accredited college preparatory curriculum. Such classroom instruction shall include, every year the youth participates in the work-study program, training in workplace safety and state and federal child labor provisions and rules.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Teacher-coordinator.</I> Each school participating in a work-study program shall designate a teacher-coordinator under whose supervision the program will operate. The teacher-coordinator shall generally supervise and coordinate the work and educational aspects of the program and make regularly scheduled visits to the workplaces of the participating students to confirm that minors participating in the work-study program are employed in compliance with all applicable provisions of this part and section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act. Such confirmation shall be noted in any letters of application filed by the superintendent of the public or private school system in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section when seeking continuance of its work-study program.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Written participation agreement.</I> No student shall participate in the work-study program until there has been made a written agreement signed by the teacher-coordinator, the employer, and the student. The agreement shall also be signed or otherwise consented to by the student's parent or guardian. The agreement shall detail the objectives of the work-study program; describe the specific job duties to be performed by the participating minor as well as the number of hours and times of day that the minor will be employed each week; affirm that the participant will receive the minimum number of hours of class-room instruction as required by the State Educational Agency for the completion of a fully-accredited college preparatory curriculum; and affirm that the employment of the minor will be in compliance with the child labor provisions of both this part and the laws of the state where the work will be performed, and the applicable minimum wage provisions contained in section 6 of the FLSA.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other provisions.</I> Any other provisions of the program providing safeguards ensuring that the employment permitted under this section will not interfere with the schooling of the minors or with their health and well-being may also be submitted for use in considering the application.
</P>
<P>(4) Every public or private school district having students in a work-study program approved pursuant to these requirements, and every employer employing students in a work-study program approved pursuant to these requirements, shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Permissible occupations.</I> No student shall be assigned to work in any occupation other than one permitted under § 570.34.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Records and reports.</I> A copy of the written agreement for each student participating in the work-study program shall be kept by both the employer and the school supervising and administering the program for a period of three years from the date of the student's enrollment in the program. Such agreements shall be made available upon request to the representatives of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division for inspection, transcription, and/or photocopying.
</P>
<P>(c) Employment of minors enrolled in a program approved pursuant to the requirements of this section shall be confined to not more than 18 hours in any one week when school is in session, a portion of which may be during school hours, in accordance with the following formula that is based upon a continuous four-week cycle. In three of the four weeks, the participant is permitted to work during school hours on only one day per week, and for no more than for eight hours on that day. During the remaining week of the four-week cycle, such minor is permitted to work during school hours on no more than two days, and for no more than for eight hours on each of those two days. The employment of such minors would still be subject to the time of day and number of hours standards contained in §§ 570.35(a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(6). To the extent that these provisions are inconsistent with the provisions of § 570.35, this section shall be controlling.
</P>
<P>(d) Programs shall be in force and effect for a period to be determined by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, but in no case shall be in effect for longer than two school years from the date of their approval by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division. A new application for approval must be filed at the end of that period. Failure to meet the requirements of this section may result in withdrawal of the approval.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in § 570.37 were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0018)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28452, May 20, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.38" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.38   Effect of a certificate of age under this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The employment of any minor in any of the occupations to which this subpart is applicable, if confined to the periods specified in § 570.35, shall not be deemed to constitute oppressive child labor within the meaning of the act if the employer shall have on file an unexpired certificate, issued in substantially the same manner as that provided for the issuance of certificates in subpart A of this part relating to certificates of age, certifying that such minor is of an age between 14 and 16 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 27 FR 4165, May 2, 1962, and 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971. Redesignated at 75 FR 28452, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.39" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.3.132.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.39   Effect of this subpart on other laws.</HEAD>
<P>No provision of this subpart shall under any circumstances justify or be construed to permit noncompliance with the wage and hour provisions of the act or with the provisions of any other Federal law or of any State law or municipal ordinance establishing higher standards than those established under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 27 FR 4165, May 2, 1962, and 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971. Redesignated at 75 FR 28452, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Occupations Particularly Hazardous for the Employment of Minors Between 16 and 18 Years of Age or Detrimental to Their Health or Well-Being</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 203(l), 212, 213(c).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The provisions of this subpart declaring certain occupations to be particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age or detrimental to their health or well-being do not apply to employment in agriculture.</P></NOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 570.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.50   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Higher standards.</I> Nothing in this subpart shall authorize non-compliance with any Federal or State law, regulation, or municipal ordinance establishing a higher standard. If more than one standard within this subpart applies to a single activity the higher standard shall be applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Apprentices.</I> Some sections in this subpart contain an exemption for the employment of apprentices. Such an exemption shall apply only when: (1) The apprentice is employed in a craft recognized as an apprenticeable trade; (2) the work of the apprentice in the occupations declared particularly hazardous is incidental to his training; (3) such work is intermittent and for short periods of time and is under the direct and close supervision of a journeyman as a necessary part of such apprentice training; and (4) the apprentice is registered by the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training of the United States Department of Labor as employed in accordance with the standards established by that Bureau, or is registered by a State agency as employed in accordance with the standards of the State apprenticeship agency recognized by the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, or is employed under a written apprenticeship agreement and conditions which are found by the Secretary of labor to conform substantially with such Federal or State standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Student-learners.</I> Some sections in this subpart contain an exemption for the employment of student-learners. Such an exemption shall apply when:
</P>
<P>(1) The student-learner is enrolled in a course of study and training in a cooperative vocational training program under a recognized State or local educational authority or in a course of study in a substantially similar program conducted by a private school and;
</P>
<P>(2) Such student-learner is employed under a written agreement which provides:
</P>
<P>(i) That the work of the student-learner in the occupations declared particularly hazardous shall be incidental to his training;
</P>
<P>(ii) That such work shall be intermittent and for short periods of time, and under the direct and close supervision of a qualified and experienced person;
</P>
<P>(iii) That safety instructions shall be given by the school and correlated by the employer with on-the-job training; and
</P>
<P>(iv) That a schedule of organized and progressive work processes to be performed on the job shall have been prepared.
</P>
<FP>Each such written agreement shall contain the name of student-learner, and shall be signed by the employer and the school coordinator or principal. Copies of each agreement shall be kept on file by both the school and the employer. This exemption for the employment of student-learners may be revoked in any individual situation where it is found that reasonable precautions have not been observed for the safety of minors employed thereunder. A high school graduate may be employed in an occupation in which he has completed training as provided in this paragraph as a student-learner, even though he is not yet 18 years of age.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963, as amended at 33 FR 12777, Sept. 10, 1968. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.51" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.51   Occupations in or about plants or establishments manufacturing or storing explosives or articles containing explosive components (Order 1).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations in or about plants or establishments manufacturing or storing explosives or articles containing explosive components are particularly hazardous for minors between 16 and 18 years of age or detrimental to their health or well-being:
</P>
<P>(1) All occupations in or about any plant or establishment (other than retail establishments or plants or establishments of the type described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section) manufacturing or storing explosives or articles containing explosive components except where the occupation is performed in a “nonexplosives area” as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The following occupations in or about any plant or establishment manufacturing or storing small-arms ammunition not exceeding .60 caliber in size, shotgun shells, or blasting caps when manufactured or stored in conjunction with the manufacture of small-arms ammunition:
</P>
<P>(i) All occupations involved in the manufacturing, mixing, transporting, or handling of explosive compounds in the manufacture of small-arms ammunition and all other occupations requiring the performance of any duties in the explosives area in which explosive compounds are manufactured or mixed.
</P>
<P>(ii) All occupations involved in the manufacturing, transporting, or handling of primers and all other occupations requiring the performance of any duties in the same building in which primers are manufactured.
</P>
<P>(iii) All occupations involved in the priming of cartridges and all other occupations requiring the performance of any duties in the same workroom in which rim-fire cartridges are primed.
</P>
<P>(iv) All occupations involved in the plate loading of cartridges and in the operation of automatic loading machines.
</P>
<P>(v) All occupations involved in the loading, inspecting, packing, shipping and storage of blasting caps.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>plant or establishment manufacturing or storing explosives or articles containing explosive component</I> means the land with all the buildings and other structures thereon used in connection with the manufacturing or processing or storing of explosives or articles containing explosive components.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms <I>explosives</I> and <I>articles containing explosive components</I> mean and include ammunition, black powder, blasting caps, fireworks, high explosives, primers, smokeless powder, and explosives and explosive materials as defined in 18 U.S.C. 841(c)-(f) and the implementing regulations at 27 CFR part 555. The terms include any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion, as well as all goods identified in the most recent list of explosive materials published by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives, Department of Justice. This list is not intended to be all-inclusive and is updated and published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 841(d). A copy of the most recent version of the list may be found through the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives' Web site at <I>http://www.atf.gov.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) An area meeting all of the criteria in paragraphs (b)(3) (i) through (iv) of this section shall be deemed a “nonexplosives area”:
</P>
<P>(i) None of the work performed in the area involves the handling or use of explosives;
</P>
<P>(ii) The area is separated from the explosives area by a distance not less than that prescribed in the American Table of Distances for the protection of inhabited buildings;
</P>
<P>(iii) The area is separated from the explosives area by a fence or is otherwise located so that it constitutes a definite designated area; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Satisfactory controls have been established to prevent employees under 18 years of age within the area from entering any area in or about the plant which does not meet criteria of paragraphs (b)(3) (i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[17 FR 4324, May 13, 1952. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971; 69 FR 75403, Dec. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.52" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.52   Occupations of motor-vehicle driver and outside helper (Order 2).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Findings and declaration of fact.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the occupations of motor-vehicle driver and outside helper on any public road, highway, in or about any mine (including open pit mine or quarry), place where logging or sawmill operations are in progress, or in any excavation of the type identified in § 570.68(a) are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption—Incidental and occasional driving by 17-year-olds.</I> Minors who are at least 17 years of age may drive automobiles and trucks on public roadways when all the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The automobile or truck does not exceed 6,000 pounds gross vehicle weight, and the vehicle is equipped with a seat belt or similar restraining device for the driver and for any passengers and the employer has instructed the employee that such belts or other devices must be used;
</P>
<P>(2) The driving is restricted to daylight hours;
</P>
<P>(3) The minor holds a State license valid for the type of driving involved in the job performed and has no records of any moving violations at the time of hire;
</P>
<P>(4) The minor has successfully completed a State-approved driver education course;
</P>
<P>(5) The driving does not involve: the towing of vehicles; route deliveries or route sales; the transportation for hire of property, goods, or passengers; urgent, time-sensitive deliveries; or the transporting at any one time of more than three passengers, including the employees of the employer;
</P>
<P>(6) The driving performed by the minor does not involve more than two trips away from the primary place of employment in any single day for the purpose of delivering goods of the minor's employer to a customer (except urgent, time-sensitive deliveries which are completely banned in paragraph (b)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) The driving performed by the minor does not involve more than two trips away from the primary place of employment in any single day for the purpose of transporting passengers (other than the employees of the employer);
</P>
<P>(8) The driving takes place within a thirty (30) mile radius of the minor's place of employment; and,
</P>
<P>(9) The driving is only occasional and incidental to the employee's employment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>motor vehicle</I> shall mean any automobile, truck, truck-tractor, trailer, semitrailer, motorcycle, or similar vehicle propelled or drawn by mechanical power and designed for use as a means of transportation but shall not include any vehicle operated exclusively on rails.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>driver</I> shall mean any individual who, in the course of employment, drives a motor vehicle at any time.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>outside helper</I> shall mean any individual, other than a driver, whose work includes riding on a motor vehicle outside the cab for the purpose of assisting in transporting or delivering goods.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>gross vehicle weight</I> includes the truck chassis with lubricants, water and a full tank or tanks of fuel, plus the weight of the cab or driver's compartment, body and special chassis and body equipment, and payload.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>occasional and incidental</I> means no more than one-third of an employee's worktime in any workday and no more than 20 percent of an employee's worktime in any workweek.
</P>
<P>(6) The term <I>urgent, time-sensitive deliveries</I> means trips which, because of such factors as customer satisfaction, the rapid deterioration of the quality or change in temperature of the product, and/or economic incentives, are subject to time-lines, schedules, and/or turn-around times which might impel the driver to hurry in the completion of the delivery. Prohibited trips would include, but are not limited to, the delivery of pizzas and prepared foods to the customer; the delivery of materials under a deadline (such as deposits to a bank at closing); and the shuttling of passengers to and from transportation depots to meet transport schedules. <I>Urgent, time-sensitive deliveries</I> would not depend on the delivery's points of origin and termination, and would include the delivery of people and things to the employer's place of business as well as from that business to some other location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58630, Nov. 20, 1991, as amended at 69 FR 75403, Dec. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.53" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.53   Coal-mine occupations (Order 3).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> All occupations in or about any coal mine, except the occupation of slate or other refuse picking at a picking table or picking chute in a tipple or breaker and occupations requiring the performance of duties solely in offices or in repair or maintenance shops located in the surface part of any coal-mining plant, are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>coal</I> shall mean any rank of coal including lignite, bituminous, and the anthracite coals.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>all occupations in or about any coal mine</I> shall mean all types of work performed in any underground working, open-pit, or surface part of any coal-mining plant, that contribute to the extraction, grading, cleaning, or other handling of coal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.54" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.54   Forest fire fighting and forest fire prevention occupations, timber tract occupations, forestry service occupations, logging occupations, and occupations in the operation of any sawmill, lath mill, shingle mill, or cooperage stock mill (Order 4).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declarations of fact.</I> All occupations in forest fire fighting and forest fire prevention, in timber tracts, in forestry services, logging, and the operation of any sawmill, lath mill, shingle mill, or cooperage stock mill are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age, except the following when not prohibited by any other section of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Work in offices or in repair or maintenance shops.
</P>
<P>(2) Work in the construction, operation, repair, or maintenance of living and administrative quarters, including logging camps and fire fighting base camps.
</P>
<P>(3) Work in the repair or maintenance of roads, railroads or flumes and work in construction and maintenance of telephone lines, but only if the minors are not engaged in the operation of power-driven machinery, the handling or use of explosives, the felling or bucking of timber, the collecting or transporting of logs, or work on trestles.
</P>
<P>(4) The following tasks in forest fire prevention <I>provided</I> none of these tasks may be performed in conjunction with or in support of efforts to extinguish a forest fire: the clearing of fire trails or roads; the construction, maintenance, and patrolling of fire lines; the piling and burning of slash; the maintaining of fire fighting equipment; and acting as a fire lookout or fire patrolman.
</P>
<P>(5) Work related to forest marketing and forest economics when performed away from the forest.
</P>
<P>(6) Work in the feeding or care of animals.
</P>
<P>(7) Peeling of fence posts, pulpwood, chemical wood, excelsior wood, cordwood, or similar products, when not done in conjunction with and at the same time and place as other logging occupations declared hazardous by this section.
</P>
<P>(8) The following additional exceptions apply to the operation of a permanent sawmill or the operation of any lath mill, shingle mill, or cooperage stock mill, but not to a portable sawmill. In addition, the following exceptions do not apply to work which entails entering the sawmill building, except for those minors whose employment meets the requirements of the limited exemptions discussed in §§ 570.34(m) and 570.54(c):
</P>
<P>(i) Straightening, marking, or tallying lumber on the dry chain or the dry drop sorter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pulling lumber from the dry chain, <I>except</I> minors under 16 years of age may not pull lumber from the dry chain as such youth are prohibited from operating or tending power-driven machinery by § 570.33(e) of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Clean-up in the lumberyard.
</P>
<P>(iv) Piling, handling, or shipping of cooperage stock in yards or storage sheds other than operating or assisting in the operation of power-driven equipment; <I>except</I> minors under 16 years of age may not perform shipping duties as they are prohibited from employment in occupations in connection with the transportation of property by rail, highway, air, water, pipeline, or other means by § 570.33(n)(1) of this part.
</P>
<P>(v) Clerical work in yards or shipping sheds, such as done by ordermen, tally-men, and shipping clerks.
</P>
<P>(vi) Clean-up work outside shake and shingle mills, except when the mill is in operation.
</P>
<P>(vii) Splitting shakes manually from precut and split blocks with a froe and mallet, except inside the mill building or cover.
</P>
<P>(viii) Packing shakes into bundles when done in conjunction with splitting shakes manually with a froe and mallet, except inside the mill building or cover.
</P>
<P>(ix) Manual loading of bundles of shingles or shakes into trucks or railroad cars, provided that the employer has on file a statement from a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy certifying the minor capable of performing this work without injury to himself, <I>except</I> minors under 16 years of age may not load bundles of shingles or shakes into trucks or railroad cars as they are prohibited from loading and unloading goods or property onto or from motor vehicles, railroad cars, or conveyors by § 570.33(k) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>All occupations in forest fire fighting and forest fire prevention</I> shall include the controlling and extinguishing of fires, the wetting down of areas or extinguishing of spot fires, and the patrolling of burned areas to assure the fire has been extinguished. The term shall also include the following tasks when performed in conjunction with, or in support of, efforts to extinguish a forest fire: the piling and burning of slash; the clearing of fire trails or roads; the construction, maintenance, and patrolling of fire lines; acting as a fire lookout or fire patrolman; and the maintaining of fire fighting equipment. The prohibition concerning the employment of youth in forest fire fighting and fire prevention applies to all forest and timber tract locations, logging operations, and sawmill operations, including all buildings located within such areas.
</P>
<P><I>All occupations in forestry services</I> shall mean all work involved in the support of timber production, wood technology, forestry economics and marketing, and forest protection. The term includes such services as timber cruising, surveying, or logging-engineering parties; estimating timber; timber valuation; forest pest control; forest fire fighting and forest fire prevention as defined in this section; and reforestation. The term shall not include work in forest nurseries, establishments primarily engaged in growing trees for purposes of reforestation. The term shall not include the gathering of forest products such as balsam needles, ginseng, huckleberry greens, maple sap, moss, Spanish moss, sphagnum moss, teaberries, and tree seeds; the distillation of gum, turpentine, and rosin if carried on at the gum farm; and the extraction of pine gum.
</P>
<P><I>All occupations in logging</I> shall mean all work performed in connection with the felling of timber; the bucking or converting of timber into logs, poles, piles, ties, bolts, pulpwood, chemical wood, excelsior wood, cordwood, fence posts, or similar products; the collecting, skidding, yarding, loading, transporting and unloading of such products in connection with logging; the constructing, repairing and maintaining of roads, railroads, flumes, or camps used in connection with logging; the moving, installing, rigging, and maintenance of machinery or equipment used in logging; and other work performed in connection with logging.
</P>
<P><I>All occupations in the operation of any sawmill, lath mill, shingle mill, or cooperage-stock mill</I> shall mean all work performed in or about any such mill in connection with storing of logs and bolts; converting logs or bolts into sawn lumber, lathers, shingles, or cooperage stock; storing drying, and shipping lumber, laths, shingles, cooperage stock, or other products of such mills; and other work performed in connection with the operation of any sawmill, lath mill, shingle mill, or cooperage-stock mill. The term shall not include work performed in the planing-mill department or other remanufacturing departments of any sawmill or remanufacturing plant not a part of a sawmill.
</P>
<P><I>All occupations in timber tracts</I> means all work performed in or about establishments that cultivate, manage or sell standing timber. The term includes work performed in timber culture, timber tracts, timber-stand improvement, and forest fire fighting and fire prevention. It includes work on tree farms, except those tree farm establishments that meet the definition of agriculture contained in 29 U.S.C. 203(f).
</P>
<P><I>Inside or outside places of business</I> shall mean the actual physical location of the establishment employing the youth, including the buildings and surrounding land necessary to the business operations of that establishment.
</P>
<P><I>Operate or assist in the operation of power-driven woodworking machines</I> includes operating such machines, including supervising or controlling the operation of such machines, feeding material into such machines, helping the operator feed material into such machines, unloading materials from such machines, and helping the operator unload materials from such machines. The term also includes the occupations of setting-up, adjusting, repairing, oiling, or cleaning such machines.
</P>
<P><I>Places of business where machinery is used to process wood products</I> shall mean such permanent workplaces as sawmills, lath mills, shingle mills, cooperage stock mills, furniture and cabinet making shops, gazebo and shed making shops, toy manufacturing shops, and pallet shops. The term shall not include construction sites, portable sawmills, areas where logging is being performed, or mining operations.
</P>
<P><I>Portable sawmill</I> shall mean a sawmilling operation where no office or repair or maintenance shop is ordinarily maintained, and any lumberyard operated in conjunction with the sawmill is used only for the temporary storage of green lumber.
</P>
<P><I>Power-driven woodworking machines</I> shall mean all fixed or portable machines or tools driven by power and used or designed for cutting, shaping, forming, surfacing, nailing, stapling, wire stitching, fastening or otherwise assembling, pressing or printing wood, veneer, trees, logs, or lumber.
</P>
<P><I>Remanufacturing department</I> shall mean those departments of a sawmill where lumber products such as boxes, lawn furniture, and the like are remanufactured from previously cut lumber. The kind of work performed in such departments is similar to that done in planing mill departments in that rough lumber is surfaced or made into other finished products. The term is not intended to denote those operations in sawmills where rough lumber is cut to dimensions.
</P>
<P><I>Supervised by an adult relative or is supervised by an adult member of the same religious sect or division as the youth,</I> as a term, has several components. <I>Supervised</I> refers to the requirement that the youth's on-the-job activities be directed, monitored, and controlled by certain named adults. Such supervision must be close, direct, constant and uninterrupted. An <I>adult</I> shall mean an individual who is at least eighteen years of age. A <I>relative</I> shall mean the parent (or someone standing in place of a parent), grandparent, sibling, uncle, or aunt of the young worker. A <I>member of the same religious sect or division as the youth</I> refers to an individual who professes membership in the same religious sect or division to which the youth professes membership.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) The provisions contained in paragraph (a)(8) of this section that prohibit youth between 16 and 18 years of age from performing any work that entails entering the sawmill building do not apply to the employment of a youth who is at least 14 years of age and less than 18 years of age and who by statute or judicial order is exempt from compulsory school attendance beyond the eighth grade, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The youth is supervised by an adult relative or by an adult member of the same religious sect or division as the youth;
</P>
<P>(ii) The youth does not operate or assist in the operation of power-driven woodworking machines;
</P>
<P>(iii) The youth is protected from wood particles or other flying debris within the workplace by a barrier appropriate to the potential hazard of such wood particles or flying debris or by maintaining a sufficient distance from machinery in operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The youth is required to use, and uses, personal protective equipment to prevent exposure to excessive levels of noise and saw dust.
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section will be accomplished when the employer is in compliance with the requirements of the applicable governing standards issued by the U.S. Department of Labor's Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) or, in those areas where OSHA has authorized the state to operate its own Occupational Safety and Health Plan, the applicable standards issued by the Office charged with administering the State Occupational Safety and Health Plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28453, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.55" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.55   Occupations involved in the operation of power-driven woodworking machines (Order 5).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations involved in the operation of power-driven wood-working machines are particularly hazardous for minors between 16 and 18 years of age:
</P>
<P>(1) The occupation of operating power-driven woodworking machines, including supervising or controlling the operation of such machines, feeding material into such machines, and helping the operator to feed material into such machines but not including the placing of material on a moving chain or in a hopper or slide for automatic feeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The occupations of setting up, adjusting, repairing, oiling, or cleaning power-driven woodworking machines.
</P>
<P>(3) The occupations of off-bearing from circular saws and from guillotine-action veneer clippers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Off-bearing</I> shall mean the removal of material or refuse directly from a saw table or from the point of operation. Operations not considered as off-bearing within the intent of this section include:
</P>
<P>(i) The removal of material or refuse from a circular saw or guillotine-action veneer clipper where the material or refuse has been conveyed away from the saw table or point of operation by a gravity chute or by some mechanical means such as a moving belt or expulsion roller; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The following operations when they do not involve the removal of materials or refuse directly from a saw table or point of operation: The carrying, moving, or transporting of materials from one machine to another or from one part of a plant to another; the piling, stacking, or arranging of materials for feeding into a machine by another person; and the sorting, tying, bundling, or loading of materials.
</P>
<P><I>Power-driven woodworking machines</I> shall mean all fixed or portable machines or tools driven by power and used or designed for cutting, shaping, forming, surfacing, nailing, stapling, wire stitching, fastening or otherwise assembling, pressing or printing wood, veneer, trees, logs, or lumber.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section shall not apply to the employment of apprentices or student-learners under the conditions prescribed in § 570.50 (b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971; 75 FR 28455, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.57" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.57   Exposure to radioactive substances and to ionizing radiations (Order 6).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations involving exposure to radioactive substances and to ionizing radiations are particularly hazardous and detrimental to health for minors between 16 and 18 years of age:
</P>
<P>(1) Any work in any workroom in which (i) radium is stored or used in the manufacture of self-luminous compound, (ii) self-luminous compound is made, processed, or packaged, (iii) self-luminous compound is stored, used, or worked upon, (iv) incandescent mantles are made from fabric and solutions containing thorium salts, or are processed or packaged, (v) other radioactive substances are present in the air in average concentrations exceeding 10 percent of the maximum permissible concentrations in the air recommended for occupational exposure by the National Committee on Radiation Protection, as set forth in the 40-hour week column of table one of the National Bureau of Standards Handbook No. 69 entitled “Maximum Permissible Body Burdens and Maximum Permissible Concentrations of Radionuclides in Air and in Water for Occupational Exposure,” issued June 5, 1959.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other work which involves exposure to ionizing radiations in excess of 0.5 rem per year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>self-luminous compound</I> shall mean any mixture of phosphorescent material and radium, mesothorium, or other radioactive element;
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>workroom</I> shall include the entire area bounded by walls of solid material and extending from floor to ceiling;
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>ionizing radiations</I> shall mean alpha and beta particles, electrons, protons, neutrons, gamma and X-ray and all other radiations which produce ionizations directly or indirectly, but does not include electromagnetic radiations other than gamma and X-ray.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[22 FR 3657, May 24, 1957, as amended at 26 FR 8885, Sept. 21, 1961. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.58" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.58   Occupations involved in the operation of power-driven hoisting apparatus (Order 7).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Findings and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations involved in the operation of power-driven hoisting apparatus are particularly hazardous for minors between 16 and 18 years of age:
</P>
<P>(1) Work of operating, tending, riding upon, working from, repairing, servicing, or disassembling an elevator, crane, derrick, hoist, or high-lift truck, except operating or riding inside an unattended automatic operation passenger elevator. Tending such equipment includes assisting in the hoisting tasks being performed by the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Work of operating, tending, riding upon, working from, repairing, servicing, or disassembling a manlift or freight elevator, except 16- and 17-year-olds may ride upon a freight elevator operated by an assigned operator. Tending such equipment includes assisting in the hoisting tasks being performed by the equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Crane</I> shall mean a power-driven machine for lifting and lowering a load and moving it horizontally, in which the hoisting mechanism is an integral part of the machine. The term shall include all types of cranes, such as cantilever gantry, crawler, gantry, hammerhead, ingot pouring, jib, locomotive, motor-truck, overhead traveling, pillar jib, pintle, portal, semi-gantry, semi-portal, storage bridge, tower, walking jib, and wall cranes.
</P>
<P><I>Derrick</I> shall mean a power-driven apparatus consisting of a mast or equivalent members held at the top by guys or braces, with or without a boom, for use with a hoisting mechanism or operating ropes. The term shall include all types of derricks, such as A-frame, breast, Chicago boom, gin-pole, guy, and stiff-leg derrick.
</P>
<P><I>Elevator</I> shall mean any power-driven hoisting or lowering mechanism equipped with a car or platform which moves in guides in a substantially vertical direction. The term shall include both passenger and freight elevators (including portable elevators or tiering machines), but shall not include dumbwaiters.
</P>
<P><I>High-lift truck</I> shall mean a power-driven industrial type of truck used for lateral transportation that is equipped with a power-operated lifting device usually in the form of a fork or platform capable of tiering loaded pallets or skids one above the other. Instead of a fork or a platform, the lifting device may consist of a ram, scoop, shovel, crane, revolving fork, or other attachments for handling specific loads. The term shall mean and include highlift trucks known under such names as fork lifts, fork trucks, fork lift trucks, tiering trucks, backhoes, front-end loaders, skid loaders, skid-steer loaders, Bobcat loaders, or stacking trucks, but shall not mean low-lift trucks or low-lift platform trucks that are designed for the transportation of but not the tiering of materials.
</P>
<P><I>Hoist</I> shall mean a power-driven apparatus for raising or lowering a load by the application of a pulling force that does not include a car or platform running in guides. The term shall include all types of hoists, such as base mounted electric, clevis suspension, hook suspension, monorail, overhead electric, simple drum, and trolley suspension hoists.
</P>
<P><I>Manlift</I> shall mean a device intended for the conveyance of persons that consists of platforms or brackets mounted on, or attached to, an endless belt, cable, chain or similar method of suspension; with such belt, cable or chain operating in a substantially vertical direction and being supported by and driven through pulleys, sheaves or sprockets at the top and bottom. The term shall also include truck- or equipment-mounted aerial platforms commonly referred to as scissor lifts, boom-type mobile elevating work platforms, work assist vehicles, cherry pickers, basket hoists, and bucket trucks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception.</I> (1) This section shall not prohibit the operation of an automatic elevator and an automatic signal operation elevator provided that the exposed portion of the car interior (exclusive of vents and other necessary small openings), the car door, and the hoistway doors are constructed of solid surfaces without any opening through which a part of the body may extend; all hoistway openings at floor level have doors which are interlocked with the car door so as to prevent the car from starting until all such doors are closed and locked; the elevator (other than hydraulic elevators) is equipped with a device which will stop and hold the car in case of overspeed or if the cable slackens or breaks; and the elevator is equipped with upper and lower travel limit devices which will normally bring the car to rest at either terminal and a final limit switch which will prevent the movement in either direction and will open in case of excessive over travel by the car.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of this exception the term <I>automatic elevator</I> shall mean a passenger elevator, a freight elevator, or a combination passenger-freight elevator, the operation of which is controlled by pushbuttons in such a manner that the starting, going to the landing selected, leveling and holding, and the opening and closing of the car and hoistway doors are entirely automatic.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of this exception, the term <I>automatic signal operation elevator</I> shall mean an elevator which is started in response to the operation of a switch (such as a lever or pushbutton) in the car which when operated by the operator actuates a starting device that automatically closes the car and hoistway doors—from this point on, the movement of the car to the landing selected, leveling and holding when it gets there, and the opening of the car and hoistway doors are entirely automatic.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951, as amended at 20 FR 6386, Aug. 31, 1955. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963; 32 FR 15479, Nov. 7, 1967. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971; 75 FR 28455, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.59" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.59   Occupations involved in the operation of power-driven metal forming, punching, and shearing machines (Order 8).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age:
</P>
<P>(1) The occupations of operator of or helper on the following power-driven metal forming, punching, and shearing machines: 
</P>
<P>(i) All rolling machines, such as beading, straightening, corrugating, flanging, or bending rolls; and hot or cold rolling mills.
</P>
<P>(ii) All pressing or punching machines, such as punch presses except those provided with full automatic feed and ejection and with a fixed barrier guard to prevent the hands or fingers of the operator from entering the area between the dies; power presses; and plate punches.
</P>
<P>(iii) All bending machines, such as apron brakes and press brakes.
</P>
<P>(iv) All hammering machines, such as drop hammers and power hammers.
</P>
<P>(v) All shearing machines, such as guillotine or squaring shears; alligator shears; and rotary shears.
</P>
<P>(2) The occupations of setting up, adjusting, repairing, oiling, or cleaning these machines including those with automatic feed and ejection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) The term <I>operator</I> shall mean a person who operates a machine covered by this section by performing such functions as starting or stopping the machine, placing materials into or removing them from the machine, or any other functions directly involved in operation of the machine.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>helper</I> shall mean a person who assists in the operation of a machine covered by this section by helping place materials into or remove them from the machine.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>forming, punching, and shearing machines</I> shall mean power-driven metal-working machines, other than machine tools, which change the shape of or cut metal by means of tools, such as dies, rolls, or knives which are mounted on rams, plungers, or other moving parts. Types of forming, punching, and shearing machines enumerated in this section are the machines to which the designation is by custom applied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section shall not apply to the employment of apprentices or student-learners under the conditions prescribed in § 570.50 (b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951, as amended at 25 FR 9848, Oct. 14, 1960. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.60" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.60   Occupations in connection with mining, other than coal (Order 9).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> All occupations in connection with mining, other than coal, are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age or detrimental to their health or well-being and employment in such occupations is therefore prohibited under section 12 of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, except the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Work in offices, in the warehouse or supply house, in the change house, in the laboratory, and in repair or maintenance shops not located underground.
</P>
<P>(2) Work in the operation and maintenance of living quarters.
</P>
<P>(3) Work outside the mine in surveying, in the repair and maintenance of roads, and in general clean-up about the mine property such as clearing brush and digging drainage ditches.
</P>
<P>(4) Work of track crews in the building and maintaining of sections of railroad track located in those areas of open-cut metal mines where mining and haulage activities are not being conducted at the time and place that such building and maintenance work is being done.
</P>
<P>(5) Work in or about surface placer mining operations other than placer dredging operations and hydraulic placer mining operations.
</P>
<P>(6) The following work in metal mills other than in mercury-recovery mills or mills using the cyanide process:
</P>
<P>(i) Work involving the operation of jigs, sludge tables, flotation cells, or drier-filters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Work of hand-sorting at picking table or picking belt;
</P>
<P>(iii) General clean-up work:
</P>
<FP><I>Provided, however,</I> That nothing in this section shall be construed as permitting employment of minors in any occupation prohibited by any other hazardous occupations order issued by the Secretary of Labor.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section: The term <I>all occupations in connection with mining, other than coal</I> shall mean all work performed underground in mines and quarries; on the surface at underground mines and underground quarries; in or about open-cut mines, open quarries, clay pits, and sand and gravel operations; at or about placer mining operations; at or about dredging operations for clay, sand or gravel; at or about bore-hole mining operations; in or about all metal mills, washer plants, or grinding mills reducing the bulk of the extracted minerals; and at or about any other crushing, grinding, screening, sizing, washing or cleaning operations performed upon the extracted minerals except where such operations are performed as a part of a manufacturing process. The term shall not include work performed in subsequent manufacturing or processing operations, such as work performed in smelters, electro-metallurgical plants, refineries reduction plants, cement mills, plants where quarried stone is cut, sanded and further processed, or plants manufacturing clay glass or ceramic products. Neither shall the term include work performed in connection with coal mining, in petroleum production, in natural-gas production, nor in dredging operations which are not a part of mining operations, such as dredging for construction or navigation purposes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.61" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.61   Occupations in the operation of power-driven meat-processing machines and occupations involving slaughtering, meat and poultry packing, processing, or rendering (Order 10).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Findings and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations in or about slaughtering and meat packing establishments, rendering plants, or wholesale, retail or service establishments are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age or detrimental to their health or well-being:
</P>
<P>(1) All occupations on the killing floor, in curing cellars, and in hide cellars, except the work of messengers, runners, handtruckers, and similar occupations which require entering such workrooms or workplaces infrequently and for short periods of time.
</P>
<P>(2) All occupations involved in the recovery of lard and oils, except packaging and shipping of such products and the operation of lard-roll machines.
</P>
<P>(3) All occupations involved in tankage or rendering of dead animals, animal offal, animal fats, scrap meats, blood, and bones into stock feeds, tallow, inedible greases, fertilizer ingredients, and similar products.
</P>
<P>(4) All occupations involved in the operation or feeding of the following power-driven machines, including setting-up, adjusting, repairing, or oiling such machines or the cleaning of such machines or the individual parts or attachments of such machines, regardless of the product being processed by these machines (including, for example, the slicing in a retail delicatessen of meat, poultry, seafood, bread, vegetables, or cheese, etc.): meat patty forming machines, meat and bone cutting saws, poultry scissors or shears; meat slicers, knives (except bacon-slicing machines), headsplitters, and guillotine cutters; snoutpullers and jawpullers; skinning machines; horizontal rotary washing machines; casing-cleaning machines such as crushing, stripping, and finishing machines; grinding, mixing, chopping, and hashing machines; and presses (except belly-rolling machines). <I>Except,</I> the provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the operation of those lightweight, small capacity, portable, countertop mixers discussed in § 570.62(b)(1) of this chapter when used as a mixer to process materials other than meat or poultry.
</P>
<P>(5) All boning occupations.
</P>
<P>(6) All occupations that involve the pushing or dropping of any suspended carcass, half carcass, or quarter carcass.
</P>
<P>(7) All occupations involving the handlifting or handcarrying any carcass or half carcass of beef, pork, horse, deer, or buffalo, or any quarter carcass of beef, horse, or buffalo.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Boning occupations</I> means the removal of bones from meat cuts. It does not include work that involves cutting, scraping, or trimming meat from cuts containing bones.
</P>
<P><I>Curing cellar</I> includes a workroom or workplace which is primarily devoted to the preservation and flavoring of meat, including poultry, by curing materials. It does not include a workroom or workplace solely where meats are smoked.
</P>
<P><I>Hide cellar</I> includes a workroom or workplace where hides are graded, trimmed, salted, and otherwise cured.
</P>
<P><I>Killing floor</I> includes a workroom, workplace where such animals as cattle, calves, hogs, poultry, sheep, lambs, goats, buffalo, deer, or horses are immobilized, shackled, or killed, and the carcasses are dressed prior to chilling.
</P>
<P><I>Retail/wholesale or service establishments</I> include establishments where meat or meat products, including poultry, are processed or handled, such as butcher shops, grocery stores, restaurants and quick service food establishments, hotels, delicatessens, and meat locker (freezer-locker) companies, and establishments where any food product is prepared or processed for serving to customers using machines prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Rendering plants</I> means establishments engaged in the conversion of dead animals, animal offal, animal fats, scrap meats, blood, and bones into stock feeds, tallow, inedible greases, fertilizer ingredients, and similar products.
</P>
<P><I>Slaughtering and meat packing establishments</I> means places in or about which such animals as cattle, calves, hogs, poultry, sheep, lambs, goats, buffalo, deer, or horses are killed, butchered, or processed. The term also includes establishments which manufacture or process meat or poultry products, including sausage or sausage casings from such animals.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) The killing and processing of rabbits or small game in areas physically separated from the killing floor.
</P>
<P>(2) The employment of apprentices or student-learners under the conditions prescribed in § 570.50(b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58631, Nov. 20, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 28455, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.62" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.62   Occupations involved in the operation of bakery machines (Order 11).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations involved in the operation of power-driven bakery machines are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age:
</P>
<P>(1) The occupations of operating, assisting to operate, or setting up, adjusting, repairing, oiling, or cleaning any horizontal or vertical dough mixer; batter mixer; bread dividing, rounding, or molding machine; dough brake; dough sheeter; combination bread slicing and wrapping machine; or cake cutting band saw.
</P>
<P>(2) The occupation of setting up or adjusting a cookie or cracker machine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) This section shall not apply to the operation, including the setting up, adjusting, repairing, oiling and cleaning, of lightweight, small capacity, portable counter-top power-driven food mixers that are, or are comparable to, models intended for household use. For purposes of this exemption, a lightweight, small capacity mixer is one that is not hardwired into the establishment's power source, is equipped with a motor that operates at no more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> horsepower, and is equipped with a bowl with a capacity of no more than five quarts. <I>Except,</I> this exception shall not apply when the mixer is used, with or without attachments, to process meat or poultry products as prohibited by § 570.61(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) This section shall not apply to the operation of pizza-dough rollers, a type of dough sheeter, that: have been constructed with safeguards contained in the basic design so as to prevent fingers, hands, or clothing from being caught in the in-running point of the rollers; have gears that are completely enclosed; and have microswitches that disengage the machinery if the backs or sides of the rollers are removed. This exception applies only when all the safeguards detailed in this paragraph are present on the machine, are operational, and have not been overridden. This exception does not apply to the setting up, adjusting, repairing, oiling or cleaning of such pizza-dough rollers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[17 FR 5610, June 21, 1952, as amended at 25 FR 9849, Oct. 14, 1960. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971; 75 FR 28456, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.63" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.63   Occupations involved in the operation of balers, compactors, and paper-products machines (Order 12).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Findings and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age:
</P>
<P>(1) The occupations of operation or assisting to operate any of the following power-driven paper products machines:
</P>
<P>(i) Arm-type wire stitcher or stapler, circular or band saw, corner cutter or mitering machine, corrugating and single-or-double facing machine, envelope die-cutting press, guillotine paper cutter or shear, horizontal bar scorer, laminating or combining machine, sheeting machine, scrap paper baler, paper box compactor, or vertical slotter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Platen die-cutting press, platen printing press, or punch press which involves hand feeding of the machine.
</P>
<P>(2) The occupations of operation or assisting to operate any baler that is designed or used to process materials other than paper.
</P>
<P>(3) The occupations of operation or assisting to operate any compactor that is designed or used to process materials other than paper.
</P>
<P>(4) The occupations of setting up, adjusting, repairing, oiling, or cleaning any of the machines listed in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Applicable ANSI Standard</I> means the American National Standard Institute's Standard ANSI Z245.5-1990 <I>American National Standard for Refuse Collection, Processing, and Disposal—Baling Equipment—Safety Requirements</I> (ANSI S245.5-1990) for scrap paper balers or the American National Standard Institute's Standard ANSI Z245.2-1992 <I>American National Standard for Refuse Collection, Processing, and Disposal Equipment—Stationary Compactors—Safety Requirements</I> (ANSI Z245.2-1992) for paper box compactors. Additional applicable standards are the American National Standard Institute's Standard ANSI Z245.5-1997 <I>American National Standard for Equipment Technology and Operations for Wastes and Recyclable Materials—Baling Equipment—Safety Requirements</I> (ANSI Z245.5-1997), the American National Standard Institute's Standard ANSI Z245.5-2004 <I>American National Standard for Equipment Technology and Operations for Wastes and Recyclable Materials—Baling Equipment—Safety Requirements for Installation, Maintenance and Operation</I> (ANSI Z245.5-2004), and the American National Standard Institute's Standard ANSI Z245.5-2008 <I>American National Standard for Equipment Technology and Operations for Wastes and Recyclable Materials—Baling Equipment—Safety Requirements</I> (ANSI Z245.5-2008) for scrap paper balers or the American National Standard Institute's Standard ANSI Z245.2-1997 <I>American National Standard for Equipment Technology and Operations for Wastes and Recyclable Materials—Stationary Compactors—Safety Requirements</I> (ANSI Z245.2-1997), the American National Standard Institute's Standard ANSI Z245.2-2004 <I>American National Standard for Equipment Technology and Operations for Wastes and Recyclable Materials—Stationary Compactors—Safety Requirements for Installation, Maintenance and Operation</I> (ANSI Z245.2-2004), and the American National Standard Institute's Standard ANSI Z245.2-2008 <I>American National Standard for Equipment Technology and Operations for Wastes and Recyclable Materials—Stationary Compactors—Safety Requirements for Installation, Maintenance and Operation</I> (ANSI Z245.2-2008) for paper box compactors, which the Secretary has certified to be at least as protective of the safety of minors as Standard ANSI Z245.5-1990 for scrap paper balers or Standard ANSI Z245.2-1992 for paper box compactors. The ANSI standards for scrap paper balers and paper box compactors govern the manufacture and modification of the equipment, the operation and maintenance of the equipment, and employee training. These ANSI standards are incorporated by reference in this paragraph and have the same force and effect as other standards in this part. Only the mandatory provisions (<I>i.e.,</I> provisions containing the word “shall” or other mandatory language) of these standards are adopted as standards under this part. These standards are incorporated by reference as they exist on the date of the approval; if any changes are made in these standards which the Secretary finds to be as protective of the safety of minors as the current standards, the Secretary will publish a Notice of the change of standards in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> These incorporations by reference were approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of these standards are available for purchase from the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd St., Fourth Floor, New York, NY 10036. The telephone number for ANSI is (212) 642-4900 and its Web site is located at <I>http://www.ansi.org.</I> In addition, these standards are available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> These standards are also available for inspection at the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's Docket Office, Room N-2625, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210, or any of its regional offices. The telephone number for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's Docket Office is (202) 693-2350 and its Web site is located at <I>http://dockets.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Baler that is designed or used to process materials other than paper</I> means a powered machine designed or used to compress materials other than paper and cardboard boxes, with or without binding, to a density or form that will support handling and transportation as a material unit without requiring a disposable or reusable container.
</P>
<P><I>Compactor that is designed or used to process materials other than paper</I> means a powered machine that remains stationary during operation, designed or used to compact refuse other than paper or cardboard boxes into a detachable or integral container or into a transfer vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Operating or assisting to operate</I> means all work that involves starting or stopping a machine covered by this section, placing materials into or removing materials from a machine, including clearing a machine of jammed materials, paper, or cardboard, or any other work directly involved in operating the machine. The term does not include the stacking of materials by an employee in an area nearby or adjacent to the machine where such employee does not place the materials into the machine.
</P>
<P><I>Paper box compactor</I> means a powered machine that remains stationary during operation, used to compact refuse, including paper boxes, into a detachable or integral container or into a transfer vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Paper products machine</I> means all power-driven machines used in remanufacturing or converting paper or pulp into a finished product, including preparing such materials for recycling; or preparing such materials for disposal. The term applies to such machines whether they are used in establishments that manufacture converted paper or pulp products, or in any other type of manufacturing or nonmanufacturing establishment. The term also applies to those machines which, in addition to paper products, process other material for disposal.
</P>
<P><I>Scrap paper baler</I> means a powered machine used to compress paper and possibly other solid waste, with or without binding, to a density or form that will support handling and transportation as a material unit without requiring a disposable or reusable container.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) Sixteen- and 17-year-olds minors may load materials into, but not operate or unload, those scrap paper balers and paper box compactors that are safe for 16- and 17-year-old employees to load and cannot be operated while being loaded. For the purpose of this exemption, a scrap paper baler or a paper box compactor is considered to be safe for 16- and 17-year-old to load only if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The scrap paper baler or paper box compactor meets the applicable ANSI standard (the employer must initially determine if the equipment meets the applicable ANSI standard, and the Administrator or his/her designee may make a determination when conducting an investigation of the employer);
</P>
<P>(ii) The scrap paper baler or paper box compactor includes an on-off switch incorporating a key-lock or other system and the control of the system is maintained in the custody of employees who are 18 years of age or older;
</P>
<P>(iii) The on-off switch of the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor is maintained in an off position when the machine is not in operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer posts a notice on the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor (in a prominent position and easily visible to any person loading, operating, or unloading the machine) that includes and conveys all of the following information:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) That the scrap paper baler or compactor meets the industry safety standard applicable to the machine, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section and displayed in the following table.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">In order for employers to take advantage of the limited exception discussed in this section, the <E T="03">scrap paper baler</E> must meet one of the following ANSI Standards:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">In order for employers to take advantage of the limited exception discussed in this section, the <E T="03">paper box compactor</E> must meet one of the following ANSI Standards:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANSI Standard Z245.5-1990</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Standard Z245.2-1992.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANSI Standard Z245.5-1997</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Standard Z245.2-1997.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANSI Standard Z245.5-2004</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Standard Z245.2-2004.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANSI Standard Z245.5-2008</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Standard Z245.2-2008.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The notice shall completely identify the appropriate ANSI standard.
</P>
<P>(B) That sixteen- and 17-year-old employees may only load the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor.
</P>
<P>(C) That no employee under the age of 18 may operate or unload the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor.
</P>
<P>(2) This section shall not apply to the employment of apprentices or student-learners under the conditions prescribed in § 570.50 (b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58632, Nov. 20, 1991, as amended at 69 FR 75403, Dec. 16, 2004; 75 FR 28456, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.64" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.64   Occupations involved in the manufacture of brick, tile, and kindred products (Order 13).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Findings and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations involved in the manufacture of clay construction products and of silica refractory products are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age, and detrimental to their health and well-being.
</P>
<P>(1) All work in or about establishments in which clay construction products are manufactured, except (i) work in storage and shipping: (ii) work in offices, laboratories, and storerooms; and (iii) work in the drying departments of plants manufacturing sewer pipe.
</P>
<P>(2) All work in or about establishments in which silica brick or other silica refractories are manufactured, except work in offices.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section shall be construed as permitting employment of minors in any occupation prohibited by any other hazardous occupations order issued by the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) The term <I>clay construction products</I> shall mean the following clay products: Brick, hollow structural tile, sewer pipe and kindred products, refractories, and other clay products such as architectural terra cotta, glazed structural tile, roofing tile, stove lining, chimney pipes and tops, wall coping, and drain tile. The term shall not include the following non-structural-bearing clay products: Ceramic floor and wall tile, mosaic tile, glazed and enameled tile, faience, and similar tile, nor shall the term include non-clay construction products such as sand-lime brick, glass brick, or non-clay refractories.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>silica brick or other silica refractories</I> shall mean refractory products produced from raw materials containing free silica as their main constituent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 5773, Aug. 2, 1956, as amended at 23 FR 6240, Aug. 14, 1958. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3450, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.65" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.65   Occupations involving the operation of circular saws, band saws, guillotine shears, chain saws, reciprocating saws, wood chippers, and abrasive cutting discs (Order 14).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Findings and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age:
</P>
<P>(1) The occupations of operator of or helper on the following power-driven fixed or portable machines except machines equipped with full automatic feed and ejection:
</P>
<P>(i) Circular saws.
</P>
<P>(ii) Band saws.
</P>
<P>(iii) Guillotine shears.
</P>
<P>(2) The occupations of operator of or helper on the following power-driven fixed or portable machines:
</P>
<P>(i) Chain saws.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reciprocating saws.
</P>
<P>(iii) Wood chippers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Abrasive cutting discs.
</P>
<P>(3) The occupations of setting-up, adjusting, repairing, oiling, or cleaning circular saws, band saws, guillotine shears, chain saws, reciprocating saws, wood chippers, and abrasive cutting discs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Abrasive cutting disc</I> shall mean a machine equipped with a disc embedded with abrasive materials used for cutting materials.
</P>
<P><I>Band saw</I> shall mean a machine equipped with an endless steel band having a continuous series of notches or teeth, running over wheels or pulleys, and used for sawing materials.
</P>
<P><I>Chain saw</I> shall mean a machine that has teeth linked together to form an endless chain used for cutting materials.
</P>
<P><I>Circular saw</I> shall mean a machine equipped with a thin steel disc having a continuous series of notches or teeth on the periphery, mounted on shafting, and used for sawing materials.
</P>
<P><I>Guillotine shear</I> shall mean a machine equipped with a moveable blade operated vertically and used to shear materials. The term shall not include other types of shearing machines, using a different form of shearing action, such as alligator shears or circular shears.
</P>
<P><I>Helper</I> shall mean a person who assists in the operation of a machine covered by this section by helping place materials into or remove them from the machine.
</P>
<P><I>Operator</I> shall mean a person who operates a machine covered by this section by performing such functions as starting or stopping the machine, placing materials into or removing them from the machine, or any other functions directly involved in operation of the machine.
</P>
<P><I>Reciprocating saw</I> shall mean a machine equipped with a moving blade that alternately changes direction on a linear cutting axis used for sawing materials.
</P>
<P><I>Wood chipper</I> shall mean a machine equipped with a feed mechanism, knives mounted on a rotating chipper disc or drum, and a power plant used to reduce to chips or shred such materials as tree branches, trunk segments, landscape waste, and other materials.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section shall not apply to the employment of apprentices or student-learners under the conditions prescribed in § 570.50 (b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 9849, Oct. 14, 1960. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3450, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971; 75 FR 28457, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.66" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.66   Occupations involved in wrecking, demolition, and shipbreaking operations (Order 15).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> All occupations in wrecking, demolition, and shipbreaking operations are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age and detrimental to their health and well-being.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> The term <I>wrecking, demolition, and shipbreaking operations</I> shall mean all work, including clean-up and salvage work, performed at the site of the total or partial razing, demolishing, or dismantling of a building, bridge, steeple, tower, chimney, other structure, ship or other vessel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 9850, Oct. 14, 1960. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3450, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.67" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.67   Occupations in roofing operations and on or about a roof (Order 16).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> All occupations in roofing operations and all occupations on or about a roof are particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age or detrimental to their health.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. On or about a roof</I> includes all work performed upon or in close proximity to a roof, including carpentry and metal work, alterations, additions, maintenance and repair, including painting and coating of existing roofs; the construction of the sheathing or base of roofs (wood or metal), including roof trusses or joists; gutter and downspout work; the installation and servicing of television and communication equipment such as cable and satellite dishes; the installation and servicing of heating, ventilation and air conditioning equipment or similar appliances attached to roofs; and any similar work that is required to be performed on or about roofs.
</P>
<P><I>Roofing operations</I> means all work performed in connection with the installation of roofs, including related metal work such as flashing, and applying weatherproofing materials and substances (such as waterproof membranes, tar, slag or pitch, asphalt prepared paper, tile, composite roofing materials, slate, metal, translucent materials, and shingles of asbestos, asphalt, wood or other materials) to roofs of buildings or other structures. The term also includes all jobs on the ground related to roofing operations such as roofing laborer, roofing helper, materials handler and tending a tar heater.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section shall not apply to the employment of apprentices or student-learners under the conditions prescribed in § 570.50 (b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 102, Jan. 5, 1962. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and amended at 28 FR 3450, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971; 69 FR 57404, Dec. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.68" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.5.132.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.68   Occupations in excavation operations (Order 17).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding and declaration of fact.</I> The following occupations in excavation operations are particularly hazardous for the employment of persons between 16 and 18 years of age:
</P>
<P>(1) Excavating, working in, or backfilling (refilling) trenches, except (i) manually excavating or manually backfilling trenches that do not exceed four feet in depth at any point, or (ii) working in trenches that do not exceed four feet in depth at any point.
</P>
<P>(2) Excavating for buildings or other structures or working in such excavations, except: (i) Manually excavating to a depth not exceeding four feet below any ground surface adjoining the excavation, or (ii) working in an excavation not exceeding such depth, or (iii) working in an excavation where the side walls are shored or sloped to the angle of repose.
</P>
<P>(3) Working within tunnels prior to the completion of all driving and shoring operations.
</P>
<P>(4) Working within shafts prior to the completion of all sinking and shoring operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section shall not apply to the employment of apprentices or student-learners under the conditions prescribed in § 570.50 (b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 3449, Apr. 9, 1963. Redesignated at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E-1—Occupations in Agriculture Particularly Hazardous for the Employment of Children Below the Age of 16</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 12, 13, 18, 52 Stat. 1067, 1069, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 212, 213, 218.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 570.70" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.6.132.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.70   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 13(c)(2) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (29 U.S.C. 213(c)(2)) states that the “provisions of section 12 [of the Act] relating to child labor shall apply to an employee below the age of 16 employed in agriculture in an occupation that the Secretary of Labor finds and declares to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children below the age of 16, except where such employee is employed by his parent or by a person standing in the place of his parent on a farm owned or operated by such parent or person.” The purpose of this subpart is to apply this statutory provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> This subpart shall not apply to the employment of a child below the age of 16 by his parent or by a person standing in the place of his parent on a farm owned or operated by such parent or person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statutory definitions.</I> As used in this subpart, the terms <I>agriculture, employer,</I> and <I>employ</I> have the same meanings as the identical terms contained in section 3 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (29 U.S.C. 203), which are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Agriculture</I> includes farming in all its branches and among other things includes the cultivation and tillage of soil, dairying, the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodities (including commodities defined as agricultural commodities in section 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended), the raising of livestock, bees, fur-bearing animals, or poultry, and any practices (including any forestry or lumbering operations) performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations, including preparation for market, delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employer</I> includes any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee but shall not include the United States or any State or political subdivision of a State (except with respect to employees of a State or a political subdivision thereof, employed:
</P>
<P>(i) In a hospital, institution, or school referred to in the last sentence of section (r) of the Act, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the operation of a railway or carrier referred to in such sentence), or any labor organization (other than when acting as an employer), or anyone acting in the capacity of officer or agent of such labor organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Employ</I> includes to suffer or permit to work.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 221, Jan. 7, 1970, as amended at 35 FR 2822, Feb. 11, 1970. Redesignated at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.71" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.6.132.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.71   Occupations involved in agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Findings and declarations of fact as to specific occupations.</I> The following occupations in agriculture are particularly hazardous for the employment of children below the age of 16:
</P>
<P>(1) Operating a tractor of over 20 PTO horsepower, or connecting or disconnecting an implement or any of its parts to or from such a tractor.
</P>
<P>(2) Operating or assisting to operate (including starting, stopping, adjusting, feeding, or any other activity involving physical contact associated with the operation) any of the following machines:
</P>
<P>(i) Corn picker, cotton picker, grain combine, hay mower, forage harvester, hay baler, potato digger, or mobile pea viner;
</P>
<P>(ii) Feed grinder, crop dryer, forage blower, auger conveyor, or the unloading mechanism of a nongravity-type self-unloading wagon or trailer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Power post-hole digger, power post driver, or nonwalking type rotary tiller.
</P>
<P>(3) Operating or assisting to operate (including starting, stopping, adjusting, feeding, or any other activity involving physical contact associated with the operation) any of the following machines:
</P>
<P>(i) Trencher or earthmoving equipment; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Fork lift;
</P>
<P>(iii) Potato combine; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Power-driven circular, band, or chain saw.
</P>
<P>(4) Working on a farm in a yard, pen, or stall occupied by a:
</P>
<P>(i) Bull, boar, or stud horse maintained for breeding purposes; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Sow with suckling pigs, or cow with newborn calf (with umbilical cord present)
</P>
<P>(5) Felling, bucking, skidding, loading, or unloading timber with butt diameter of more than 6 inches.
</P>
<P>(6) Working from a ladder or scaffold (painting, repairing, or building structures, pruning trees, picking fruit, etc.) at a height of over 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(7) Driving a bus, truck, or automobile when transporting passengers, or riding on a tractor as a passenger or helper.
</P>
<P>(8) Working inside:
</P>
<P>(i) A fruit, forage, or grain storage designed to retain an oxygen deficient or toxic atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(ii) An upright silo within 2 weeks after silage has been added or when a top unloading device is in operating position;
</P>
<P>(iii) A manure pit; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A horizontal silo while operating a tractor for packing purposes.
</P>
<P>(9) Handling or applying (including cleaning or decontaminating equipment, disposal or return of empty containers, or serving as a flagman for aircraft applying) agricultural chemicals classified under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. 135 <I>et seq.</I>) as Category I of toxicity, identified by the word “poison” and the “skull and crossbones” on the label; or Category II of toxicity, identified by the word “warning” on the label;
</P>
<P>(10) Handling or using a blasting agent, including but not limited to, dynamite, black powder, sensitized ammonium nitrate, blasting caps, and primer cord; or
</P>
<P>(11) Transporting, transferring, or applying anhydrous ammonia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Occupational definitions.</I> In applying machinery, equipment, or facility terms used in paragraph (a) of this section, the Wage and Hour Division will be guided by the definitions contained in the current edition of <I>Agricultural Engineering,</I> a dictionary and handbook, Interstate Printers and Publishers, Danville, Ill. Copies of this dictionary and handbook are available for examination in Regional Offices of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 221, Jan. 7, 1970. Redesignated at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.72" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.6.132.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.72   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Student-learners.</I> The findings and declarations of fact in § 570.71(a) shall not apply to the employment of any child as vocational agriculture student-learner in any of the occupations described in paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of § 570.71(a) when each of the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The student-learner is enrolled in a vocational education training program in agriculture under a recognized State or local educational authority, or in a substantially similar program conducted by a private school;
</P>
<P>(2) Such student-learner is employed under a written agreement which provides; (i) that the work of the student-learner is incidental to his training; (ii) that such work shall be intermittent, for short periods of time, and under the direct and close supervision of a qualified and experienced person; (iii) that safety instruction shall be given by the school and correlated by the employer with on-the-job training; and (iv) that a schedule of organized and progressive work processes to be performed on the job have been prepared;
</P>
<P>(3) Such written agreement contains the name of the student-learner, and is signed by the employer and by a person authorized to represent the educational authority or school; and
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of each such agreement are kept on file by both the educational authority or school and by the employer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal Extension Service.</I> The findings and declarations of fact in § 570.71(a) shall not apply to the employment of a child under 16 years of age in those occupations in which he has successfully completed one or more training programs described in paragraph (b) (1), (2), or (3) of this section provided he has been instructed by his employer on safe and proper operation of the specific equipment he is to use; is continuously and closely supervised by the employer where feasible; or, where not feasible, in work such as cultivating, his safety is checked by the employer at least at midmorning, noon, and midafternoon.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>4-H tractor operation program.</I> The child is qualified to be employed in an occupation described in § 570.71(a)(1) provided:
</P>
<P>(i) He is a 4-H member;
</P>
<P>(ii) He is 14 years of age, or older;
</P>
<P>(iii) He is familiar with the normal working hazards in agriculture;
</P>
<P>(iv) He has completed a 10-hour training program which includes the following units from the manuals of the 4-H tractor program conducted by, or in accordance with the requirements of, the Cooperative Extension Service of a land grant university:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) First-year Manual:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Unit 1—Learning How to be Safe;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unit 4—The Instrument Panel;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unit 5—Controls for Your Tractor;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unit 6—Daily Maintenance and Safety Check; and
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unit 7—Starting and Stopping Your Tractor;</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Second-year Manual:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Unit 1—Tractor Safety on the Farm;</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Third-year Manual:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Unit 1—Tractor Safety on the Highway;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Unit 3—Hitches, Power-take-off, and Hydraulic Controls;</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) He has passed a written examination on tractor safety and has demonstrated his ability to operate a tractor safely with a two-wheeled trailed implement on a course similar to one of the 4-H Tractor Operator's Contest Courses; and
</P>
<P>(vi) His employer has on file with the child's records kept pursuant to part 516 of this title (basically, name, address, and date of birth) a copy of a certificate acceptable by the Wage and Hour Division, signed by the leader who conducted the training program and by an Extension Agent of the Cooperative Extension Service of a land grant university to the effect that the child has completed all the requirements specified in paragraphs (b)(1) (i) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>4-H machine operation program.</I> The child is qualified to be employed in an occupation described in § 570.71(a)(2) providing:
</P>
<P>(i) He satisfies all the requirements specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) He has completed an additional 10-hour training program on farm machinery safety, including 4-H Fourth-Year Manual, Unit 1, Safe Use of Farm Machinery;
</P>
<P>(iii) He has passed a written and practical examination on safe machinery operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) His employer has on file with the child's records kept pursuant to part 516 of this title (basically, name, address, and date of birth) a copy of a certificate acceptable by the Wage and Hour Division, signed by the leader who conducted the training program and by an Extension Agent of the Cooperative Extension Service of a land grant university, to the effect that the child has completed all of the requirements specified in paragraphs (b)(2) (i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tractor and machine operation program.</I> The child is qualified to be employed in an occupation described in § 570.71(a) (1) and (2) providing:
</P>
<P>(i) He is 14 years of age, or older;
</P>
<P>(ii) He has completed a 4-hour orientation course familiarizing him with the normal working hazards in agriculture;
</P>
<P>(iii) He has completed a 20-hour training program on safe operation of tractors and farm machinery, which covers all material specified in paragraphs (b) (1)(iv) and (2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) He has passed a written examination on tractor and farm machinery safety, and has demonstrated his ability to operate a tractor with a two-wheeled trailed implement on a course similar to a 4-H Tractor Operator's Contest Course, and to operate farm machinery safely.
</P>
<P>(v) His employer has on file with the child's records kept pursuant to part 516 of this title (basically, name, address and date of birth) a copy of a certificate acceptable by the Wage and Hour Division, signed by the volunteer leader who conducted the training program and by an Extension Agent of the Cooperative Extension Service of a land grant university, to the effect that all of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) (i) through (iv) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vocational agriculture training.</I> The findings and declarations of fact in § 570.71(a) shall not apply to the employment of a vocational agriculture student under 16 years of age in those occupations in which he has successfully completed one or more training programs described in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section and who has been instructed by his employer in the safe and proper operation of the specific equipment he is to use, who is continuously and closely supervised by his employer where feasible or, where not feasible, in work such as cultivating, whose safety is checked by the employer at least at midmorning, noon, and midafternoon, and who also satisfies whichever of the following program requirements are pertinent:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Tractor operation program.</I> The student is qualified to be employed in an occupation described in § 570.71(a)(1) provided:
</P>
<P>(i) He is 14 years of age, or older;
</P>
<P>(ii) He is familiar with the normal working hazards in agriculture;
</P>
<P>(iii) He has completed a 15-hour training program which includes the required units specified in the Vocational Agriculture Training Program in Safe Tractor Operation, outlined by the Office of Education, U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare and acceptable by the U.S. Department of Labor. The training program is outlined in Special Paper No. 8, April 1969, prepared at Michigan State University, East Lansing, Mich., for the Office of Education. Copies of this training program outline are available for examination in the Regional Offices of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, and a copy may be obtained from the Office of Education, U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare, Washington, DC 20202.
</P>
<P>(iv) He has passed both a written test and a practical test on tractor safety including a demonstration of his ability to operate safely a tractor with a two-wheeled trailed implement on a test course similar to that described in the Vocational Agriculture Training Program in Safe Tractor Operation, outlined by the Office of Education, U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare; and
</P>
<P>(v) His employer has on file with the child's records kept pursuant to part 516 of this title (basically, name, address, and date of birth) a copy of a certificate acceptable by the Wage and Hour Division, signed by the Vocational Agriculture teacher who conducted the program to the effect that the student has completed all the requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Machinery operation program.</I> The student is qualified to be employed in an occupation described in paragraph (2) of § 570.71(a) provided he has completed the Tractor Operation Program described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and:
</P>
<P>(i) He has completed an additional 10-hour training program which includes the required units specified in the Vocational Agriculture Training Program in Safe Farm Machinery Operation, outlined by the Office of Education, U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare and approved by the U.S. Department of Labor;
</P>
<P>(ii) He has passed both a written test and a practical test on safe machinery operation similar to that described in the Vocational Agriculture Training Program in Safe Farm Machinery Operation, outlined by the Office of Education, U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare; and
</P>
<P>(iii) His employer has on file with the child's records kept pursuant to part 516 of this title (basically, name, address and date of birth) a copy of a certificate acceptable by the Wage and Hour Division, signed by the Vocational Agriculture teacher who conducted the program to the effect that student has completed all the requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agency review.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section will be reviewed and reevaluated before January 1, 1972. In addition, determinations will be made as to whether the use of protective frames, crush resistant cabs, and other personal protective devices should be made a condition of these exemptions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 221, Jan. 7, 1970. Redesignated at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—General Statements of Interpretation of the Child Labor Provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as Amended</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060-1069, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990); Pub. L. 114-74 at sec. 701.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV7 N="132" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.132" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.132.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.101   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart discusses the meaning and scope of the child labor provisions contained in the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended (hereinafter referred to as the Act). These provisions seek to protect the safety, health, well-being, and opportunities for schooling of youthful workers and authorize the Secretary of Labor to issue legally binding orders or regulations in certain instances and under certain conditions. The child labor provisions are found in sections 3(1), 11(b), 12, 13 (c) and (d), 15(a)(4), 16(a), and 18 of the Act. They are administered and enforced by the Secretary of Labor who has delegated to the Wage and Hour Division the duty of making investigations to obtain compliance, and of developing standards for the issuance of regulations and orders relating to: (1) Hazardous occupations, (2) employment of 14- and 15-year-old children, and (3) age certificates.
</P>
<P>(b) The interpretations of the Secretary contained in this subpart indicate the construction of the law which will guide him in performing his duties until he is directed otherwise by authoritative rulings of the courts or until he shall subsequently decide that his prior interpretation is incorrect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.132.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.102   General scope of statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The most important of the child labor provisions are contained in sections 12(a), 12(c), and 3(l) of the Act. Section 12(a) provides that no producer, manufacturer, or dealer shall ship or deliver for shipment in interstate or foreign commerce any goods produced in an establishment in or about which oppressive child labor was employed within 30 days before removal of the goods. The full text of this subsection is set forth in § 570.104 and its terms are discussed in §§ 570.105 to 570.111, inclusive. Section 12(c) prohibits any employer from employing oppressive child labor in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce. The text and discussion of this provision appear in §§ 570.112 and 570.113. Section 3(l) of the Act, which defines the term “oppressive child labor,” is set forth in § 570.117 and its provisions are discussed in §§ 570.118 to 570.121, inclusive. It will further be noted that the Act provides various specific exemptions from the foregoing provisions which are set forth and discussed in §§ 570.122 to 570.130, inclusive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28458, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.132.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.103   Comparison with wage and hour provisions.</HEAD>
<P>A comparison of the child labor provisions with the so-called wage and hours provisions contained in the Act discloses some important distinctions which should be mentioned.
</P>
<P>(a) The child labor provisions contain no requirements in regard to wages. The wage and hours provisions, on the other hand, provide for minimum rates of pay for straight time and overtime pay at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate of pay for overtime hours worked. Except as provided in certain exemptions contained in the Act, these rates are required to be paid all employees subject to the wage and hours provisions, regardless of their age or sex. The fact therefore, that the employment of a particular child is prohibited by the child labor provisions or that certain shipments or deliveries may be proscribed on account of such employment, does not relieve the employer of the duties imposed by the wage and hours provisions to compensate the child in accordance with those requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) There are important differences between the child labor provisions and the wage and hours provisions with respect to their general coverage. As pointed out in § 570.114, two separate and basically different coverage provisions are contained in section 12 relating to child labor. One of these provisions (section 12(c)), which applies to the employment by an employer of oppressive child labor in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, is similar to the wage and hours coverage provisions, which include employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce or employed in enterprises having employees so engaged. The other provision (section 12(a)), however, differs fundamentally in its basic concepts of coverage from the wage and hours provisions, as will be explained in §§ 570.104 to 570.111.
</P>
<P>(c) Another distinction is that the exemptions provided by the Act from the minimum wage and/or overtime provisions are more numerous and differ from the exemptions granted from the child labor provisions. There are only eight specific child labor exemptions of which only two apply to the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements as well. These are the exemptions for employees engaged in the delivery of newspapers to the consumer and homeworkers engaged in the making of wreaths composed principally of evergreens.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Apart from these two exceptions, none of the specific exemptions from the minimum wage and/or overtime pay requirements applies to the child labor provisions. However, it should be noted that the exclusion of certain employers by section 3(d) 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> of the Act applies to the child labor provisions as well as the wage and hours provisions.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Both of these exemptions are contained in section 13(d) of the FLSA.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Section 3(d) defines ‘employer‘ as including “any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee and includes a public agency, but does not include any labor organization (other than when acting as an employer) or anyone acting in the capacity of officer or agent of such labor organization.”</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971; 75 FR 28458, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="133" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Coverage of Section 12(<E T="01">a</E>)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.104   General.</HEAD>
<P>Section 12(a) of the Act provides as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>No producer, manufacturer, or dealer shall ship or deliver for shipment in commerce any goods produced in an establishment situated in the United States in or about which within 30 days prior to the removal of such goods therefrom any oppressive child labor has been employed: <I>Provided,</I> That any such shipment or delivery for shipment of such goods by a purchaser who acquired them in good faith in reliance on written assurance from the producer, manufacturer, or dealer that the goods were produced in compliance with the requirements of this section, and who acquired such goods for value without notice of any such violation, shall not be deemed prohibited by this subsection: <I>And provided further,</I> That a prosecution and conviction of a defendant for the shipment or delivery for shipment of any goods under the conditions herein prohibited shall be a bar to any further prosecution against the same defendant for shipments or deliveries for shipment of any such goods before the beginning of said prosecution.</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>In determining the applicability of this provision, consideration of the meaning of the terms used is necessary. These terms are discussed in §§ 570.105 to 570.111, inclusive.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.105   “Producer, manufacturer, or dealer”.</HEAD>
<P>It will be observed that the prohibition of section 12(a) with respect to certain shipments or deliveries for shipment is confined to those made by producers, manufacturers, and dealers. The terms “producer, manufacturer, or dealer” used in this provision are not expressly defined by the statute. However, in view of the definition of “produced” in section 3(j), for purposes of this section a “producer” is considered to be one who engages in producing, manufacturing, handling or in any other manner working on goods in any State. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> Since manufacturing is considered a specialized form of production, the word “manufacturer” does not have as broad an application as the word “producer.” Manufacturing generally involves the transformation of raw materials or semifinished goods into new or different articles. A person may be considered a “manufacturer” even though his goods are made by hand, as is often true of products made by homeworkers. Moreover, it is immaterial whether manufacturing is his sole or main business. Thus, the term includes retailers who, in addition to retail selling, engage in such manufacturing activities as the making of slip-covers or curtains, the baking of bread, the making of candy, or the making of window frames. The word “dealer” refers to anyone who deals in goods (as defined in section 3(i) of the Act), 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> including persons engaged in buying, selling, trading, distributing, delivering, etc. It includes middlemen, factors, brokers, commission merchants, wholesalers, retailers and the like.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> For a discussion of the definition of “produced” as it relates to section 12(a), see § 570.108.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See § 570.107.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.106   “Ship or deliver for shipment in commerce”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 12(a) forbids producers, manufacturers, and dealers to “ship or deliver for shipment in commerce” the goods referred to therein. A producer, manufacturer, or dealer may “ship” goods in commerce either by moving them himself in interstate or foreign commerce or by causing them to so move, as by delivery to a carrier. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, a baker “ships” his bread in commerce whether he carries it in his own truck across State lines or sends it by contract or common carrier to his customers in other States. The word “ship” must be applied in its ordinary meaning. For example, it does not apply to the transmission of telegraphic messages. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Section 3(b) of the Act defines “commerce” to mean “trade, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.”</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> <I>Western Union Telegraph Co.</I> v. <I>Lenroot,</I> 323 U.S. 490.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) To “deliver for shipment in commerce” means to surrender the custody of goods to another under such circumstances that the person surrendering the goods knows or has reason to believe that the goods will later be shipped in commerce. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> Typical is the case of a Detroit manufacturer who delivers his goods in Detroit to a distributor who, as the manufacturer is well aware, will ship the goods into another State. A delivery for shipment in commerce may also be made where raw materials are delivered by their producer to a manufacturer in the same State who converts them into new products which are later shipped across State lines. If the producer in such case is aware or has reason to believe that the finished products will ultimately be sent into another State, his delivery of the raw materials to the manufacturer is a delivery for shipment in commerce. Another example is a paper box manufacturer who ships a carton of boxes to a fresh fruit or vegetable packing shed within the same State, with knowledge or reason to believe that the boxes will there be filled with fruits or vegetables and shipped outside the State. In such case the box manufacturer has delivered the boxes for shipment in commerce.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Grant,</I> N. D. Calif., 79 Sup. 975 which was a suit for injunction by the Secretary of Labor against a manufacturer of books and book covers employing oppressive child labor. The facts showed that the manufactured articles sold by defendant to purchasers in the same State had an ultimate out-of-State destination which was manifest to defendant. The court construed the words “deliver for shipment in commerce” as sufficiently broad to cover this situation even though the purchasers acquired title to the goods.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.107" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.107   “Goods”. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> The term <I>goods</I> is discussed in more detail in part 776 of this title (Interpretative Bulletin on the coverage of the wage and hours provisions) issued by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) Section 12(a) prohibits the shipment or delivery for shipment in commerce of “any goods” produced in an establishment which were removed within 30 days of the employment there of oppressive child labor. It should be noted that the statute does not base the prohibition of section 12(a) upon the percentage of an establishment's output which is shipped in commerce.
</P>
<P>(b) The Act furnishes its own definition of “goods” in section 3(i), as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP><I>Goods</I> means goods (including ships and marine equipment), wares, products, commodities, merchandise, or articles or subjects of commerce of any character, or any part or ingredient thereof, but does not include goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer thereof other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof.</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>The term includes such things as food-stuffs, clothing, machinery, printed materials, blueprints and also includes intangibles such as news, ideas, and intelligence. The statute expressly excludes goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of an ultimate consumer other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof. Accordingly, such a consumer may lawfully ship articles in his possession although they were ineligible for shipments (commonly called “hot goods”) before he received them. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> For a discussion of the exclusionary clause in section 3(i) of the Act, see <I>Powell et al.</I> v. <I>United States Cartridge Co.,</I> 70 S. CT. 755.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.108" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.108   “Produced”.</HEAD>
<P>The word “produced” as used in the Act is defined by section 3(j) to mean:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>* * * produced, manufactured, mined, handled, or in any other manner worked on in any state; * * * 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/></FP></EXTRACT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> The remaining portion of section 3(j) provides: “ * * * and for the purposes of this Act an employee shall be deemed to have been engaged in the production of goods if such employee was employed in producing, manufacturing, mining, handling, transporting, or in any other manner working on such goods, or in any closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production thereof, in any State.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) The prohibition of section 12(a) cannot apply to a shipment of goods unless those goods (including any part or ingredient thereof) were actually “produced” in and removed from an establishment where oppressive child labor was employed. This provision is applicable even though the under-age employee does not engage in the production of the goods themselves if somewhere in the establishment in or about which he is employed goods are “produced” which are subsequently shipped or delivered for shipment in commerce. In contrast to this restrictive requirement of section 12(a), it will be noted that the employees covered under the wage and hours provisions as engaged in the production of goods for commerce are not limited to those in or about establishments where such goods are being produced. If the requisite relationship 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> to production of such goods is present, an employee is covered for wage and hours purposes regardless of whether his work brings him in or near any establishment where the goods are produced. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> See footnote 12.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See part 776 of this title (interpretative Bulletin on the coverage of the wage and hours provisions) issued by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division. Also, see §§ 570.112 and 570.113.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Since the first word in the definition of “produced” repeats the term being defined, it seems clear that the first word must carry the meaning that it has in everyday language. Goods are commonly spoken of as “produced” if they have been brought into being as a result of the application of work. The words “manufactured” and “mined” in the definition refer to special forms of production. The former term is generally applied to the products of industry where existing raw materials are transformed into new or different articles by the use of industrial methods, either by the aid of machinery or by manual operations. Mining is a type of productive activity involving the taking of materials from the ground, such as coal from a coal mine, oil from oil wells, or stone from quarries. The statute also defines the term “produced” to mean “handled” or “in any other manner work on.” 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> These words relate not only to operations carried on in the course of manufacturing, mining, or production as commonly described, but include as well all kinds of operations which prepare goods for their entry into the stream of commerce, without regard to whether the goods are to be further processed or are so-called “finished goods.” 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, warehouses, fruit and vegetable packing sheds, distribution yards, grain elevators, etc., where goods are sorted, graded, stored, packed, labeled or otherwise handled or worked on in preparation for their shipment out of the State are producing establishments for purposes of section 12(a). 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> However, the handling or working on goods, performed by employees of carriers which accomplishes the interstate transit or movement in commerce itself, does not constitute production under the Act. 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> For a more complete discussion of these words, see § 776.16 of part 776 (bulletin on coverage of the wage and hours provisions) of chapter V of this title.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> In <I>Western Union Telegraph Co.</I> v. <I>Lenroot,</I> 323 U.S. 490, the Supreme Court stated that these words bring within the statutory definition “every step in putting the subject of commerce in a state to enter commerce,” including “all steps, whether manufacture or not, which lead to readiness for putting goods into the stream of commerce” and “every kind of incidental operation preparatory to putting goods into the stream of commerce.”</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> <I>Lenroot</I> v. <I>Kemp</I> and <I>Lenroot</I> v. <I>Hazlehurst Mercantile Co.,</I> 153 F. 2d 153 (C.A. 5), where the court directed issuance of injunctions to restrain violations of the child labor provisions by operators of vegetable packing sheds at which they bought, then washed, sorted, crated, and packed cabbage and tomatoes for shipment in interstate commerce.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> <I>Western Union Telegraph Co.</I> v. <I>Lenroot,</I> 323 U.S. 490.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.109" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.109   “Establishment situated in the United States”.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The statute does not expressly define “establishment.” Accordingly, the term should be given a meaning which is not only consistent with its ordinary usage, but also designed to accomplish the general purposes of the Act. As normally used in business and in Government, the word “establishment” refers to a distinct physical place of business. This is the meaning attributed to the term as it is used in section 13(a)(2) of the Act. 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> Since the establishments covered under section 12(a) of the Act are those in which goods are produced, the term “establishment” there refers to a physical place where goods are produced. Typical producing establishments are industrial plants, mines, quarries, and the like. The producing establishment, however, need not have a permanently fixed location as is the case with a factory or mine. A boat, for instance, where productive activities such as catching or canning fish are carried on is considered a producing establishment for purposes of section 12(a).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> <I>A. H. Phillips, Inc.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490. See part 779 (bulletin on the retail and service establishment exemption from the wage and hours provisions) of chapter V of this title.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Frequently, questions arise as to what should be considered a single establishment. No hard and fast rule can be laid down which will fix the area of all establishments. Accordingly, a determination of the area contained in a single establishment must be based upon the facts of each individual situation. Facts which are particularly pertinent in this connection, however, are those which relate to the physical characteristics and the manner of operation and control of the business. Sometimes, an establishment may extend over an area of several square miles as is common with farms, logging enterprises, mines, and quarries. On the other hand, it may be confined to a few square feet. A typical illustration of this is a loft building that houses the workshops of hundreds of independent manufacturing firms. Each of the workshops is, for purposes of this section, a separate establishment.
</P>
<P>(3) Similar principles are applicable in determining whether several buildings located on the same premises constitute one establishment or more than one. For example, where several factory buildings are located on the same premises and owned and operated by the same person, they are generally to be considered as a single establishment. On the other hand, factory buildings located on the same premises, but owned and operated by different persons, will not ordinarily be treated as a single establishment. Where the several factories, however, are engaged in a joint productive enterprise, they may constitute a single establishment. This is the case, for example, where a large shipyard contains the plants of a number of subcontractors who are engaged in making parts or equipment for the boats that are built in the yard.
</P>
<P>(b) The phrase “situated in the United States” is construed to include any of the 50 States or the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.110   “In or about”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 12(a) excludes from the channels of interstate commerce goods produced in an establishment “in or about” which oppressive child labor has been employed. In a great many situations it is obviously easy to determine whether a minor is employed “in” an establishment. Thus, he is so employed where he performs his occupational duties on the premises of the producing establishment. Furthermore, a minor is also considered as employed in an establishment where he performs most of his duties off the premises but is regularly required to perform certain occupational duties in the establishment, such as loading or unloading a truck, checking in or out, or washing windows. This is true in such cases even though the minor is employed by someone other than the owner or operator of the particular establishment. On the other hand, a minor is not considered to be employed in an establishment other than his employer's merely because such establishment is visited by him for brief periods of time and for the sole purpose of picking up or delivering a message or other small article.
</P>
<P>(b) If, in the light of the statements in paragraph (a) of this section, the minor cannot be considered as employed in the establishment, he may, nevertherless, be employed “about” it if he performs his occupational duties sufficiently close in proximity to the actual place of production to fall within the commonly understood meaning of the term “about.” This would be true in a situation where the foregoing proximity test is met and the occupation of the minor is directly related to the activities carried on in the producing establishment, in this connection, occupations are considered sufficiently related to the activities carried on in the producing establishment to meet the second test above at least where the requisite relationship to production of goods exists within the meaning of section 3(j) of the Act. 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> By way of example, a driver's helper employed to assist in the distribution of the products of a bottling company who regularly boards the delivery truck immediately outside the premises of the bottling plant is considered employed “in or about” such establishment, without regard to whether he ever enters the plant itself. On the other hand, employees working entirely within one establishment are not considered to be employed “in or about” a wholly different establishment occupying separate premises and operated by another employer. This would be true even though the two establishments are contiguous. But in other situations the distance between the producing establishment and the minor's place of employment may be a decisive factor. Thus, a minor employed in clearing rights-of-way for power lines many miles away from the power plant cannot well be said to be employed “in or about” such establishment. In view of the great variety of establishments and employments, however, no hard and fast rule can be laid down which will once and for all distinguish between employments that are “about” an establishment and those that are not. Therefore, each case must be determined on its own merits. In determining whether a particular employment is “about” an establishment, consideration of the following factors should prove helpful:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> See part 776 (bulletin on coverage of the wage and hours provisions) of this title.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Actual distance between the producing establishment and the minor's place of employment;
</P>
<P>(2) Nature of the establishment;
</P>
<P>(3) Ownership or control of the premises involved;
</P>
<P>(4) Nature of the minor's activities in relation to the establishment's purpose;
</P>
<P>(5) Identity of the minor's employer and the establishment's owner;
</P>
<P>(6) Extent of control by the producing establishment's owner over the minor's employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.111" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.133.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.111   Removal “within 30 days”.</HEAD>
<P>According to section 12(a) goods produced in an establishment in or about which oppressive child labor has been employed are barred as “hot goods” from being shipped or delivered for shipment in commerce in the following two situations: First, if they were removed from the establishment while any oppressive child labor was still being employed in or about it; second, if they were removed from an establishment in or about which oppressive child labor was no longer employed but less than 30 days had then elapsed since any such employment of oppressive child labor came to an end. Once any goods have been removed from a producing establishment within the above-mentioned thirty-day period, they are barred at any time theafter from being shipped or delivered for shipment in commerce so long as they remain “goods” for purposes of the Act. 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/> Goods are considered removed from an establishment just as soon as they are taken away from the establishment as that term has been defined. 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/> The statute does not require that this “removal” from the establishment be made for the purpose or in the course of a shipment or delivery for shipment in commerce. A “removal” within the meaning of the statute also takes place where the goods are removed from the establishment for some other purpose such as storage, the granting of a lien or other security interest, or further processing.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> However, section 12(a) contains a provision relieving innocent purchasers from liability thereunder provided certain conditions are met. For a discussion of this provision, <I>see</I> § 570.141.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> For a discussion of the meaning of “establishment,” see § 570.109.
</P>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951, as amended at 23 FR 6240, Aug. 14, 1958. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971; 75 FR 28458, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="134" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.134" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Coverage of Section 12(<E T="01">c</E>)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.112" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.134.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.112   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 12(c) of the Act provides as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>No employer shall employ any oppressive child labor in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce or in an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) This provision, which was added by amendments of 1949 and 1961 to the Act, broadens child labor coverage to include employment in commerce. Moreover, it establishes a direct prohibition of the employment of oppressive child labor in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. The legislative history pertaining to this provision leads to the conclusion that Congress intend its application to be generally consistent with that of wage and hours coverage provisions. The application of the provision depends on the existence of two necessary elements: (1) The employment of “oppressive child labor” 
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> by some employer and (2) the employment of such oppressive child labor in activities or enterprises which are in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce within the meaning of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> “Oppressive child labor” is discussed in §§ 570.117 to 570.121, inclusive.
</P>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.113" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.134.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.113   Employment “in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “employ” is broadly defined in section 3(g) of the Act to include “to suffer or permit to work.” The Act expressly provides that the term “employer” includes “any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee”. The nature of an employer-employee relationship is ordinarily to be determined not solely on the basis of the contractual relationship between the parties but also in the light of all the facts and circumstances. Moreover, the terms “employer” and “employ” as used in the Act are broader than the common-law concept of employment and must be interpreted broadly in the light of the mischief to be corrected. Thus, neither the technical relationship between the parties nor the fact that the minor is unsupervised or receives no compensation is controlling in determining whether an employer-employee relationship exists for purposes of section 12(c) of the Act. However, these are matters which should be considered along with all other facts and circumstances surrounding the relationship of the parties in arriving at such determination. The words “suffer or permit to work” include those who suffer by a failure to hinder and those who permit by acquiescence in addition to those who employ by oral or written contract. A typical illustration of employment of oppressive child labor by suffering or permitting an under-aged minor to work is that of an employer who knows that his employee is utilizing the services of such a minor as a helper or substitute in performing his employer's work. If the employer acquiesces in the practice or fails to exercise his power to hinder it, he is himself suffering or permitting the helper to work and is, therefore, employing him, within the meaning of the Act. Where employment does exist within the meaning of the Act, it must, of course, be in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce or in an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce in order for section 12(c) to be applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) As previously indicated, the scope of coverage of section 12(c) of the Act is, in general, coextensive with that of the wage and hours provisions. The basis for this conclusion is provided by the similarity in the language used in the respective provisions and by statements appearing in the legislative history concerning the intended effect of the addition of section 12(c). Accordingly, it may be generally stated that employees considered to be within the scope of the phrases “in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” for purposes of the wage and hours provisions are also included within the identical phrases used in section 12(c). To avoid needless repetition, reference is herein made to the full discussion of principles relating to the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions contained in parts 776 and 779 of this chapter. In this connection, however, it should be borne in mind that lack of coverage under the wage and hours provisions or under section 12(c) does not necessarily preclude the applicability of section 12(a) of the Act. 
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> See § 570.116</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="135" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.135" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Joint and Separate Applicability of Sections 12(<E T="01">a</E>) and 12(<E T="01">c</E>)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.114" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.135.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.114   General.</HEAD>
<P>It should be noted that section 12(a) does not directly outlaw the employment of oppressive child labor. Instead, it prohibits the shipment or delivery for shipment in interstate or foreign commerce of goods produced in an establishment where oppressive child labor has been employed within 30 days before removal of the goods. Section 12(c), on the other hand, is a direct prohibition against the employment of oppressive child labor in commerce, or in the production of goods for commerce. Moreover, the two subsections provide different methods for determining the employees who are covered thereby. Thus, subsection (a) may be said to apply to young workers on an “establishment” basis. If the standards for child labor are not observed in the employment of minors in or about an establishment where goods are produced and from which such goods are removed within the statutory 30-day period, it becomes unlawful for any producer, manufacturer, or dealer (other than an innocent purchaser who is in compliance with the requirements for a good faith defense as provided in the subsection) to ship or deliver those goods for shipment in commerce. It is not necessary for the minor himself to have been employed by the producer of such goods or in their production in order for the ban to apply. On the other hand, whether the employment of a particular minor below the applicable age standard will subject his employer to the prohibition of subsection (c) is dependent upon the minor himself being employed in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, or in an enterprise engaged in commerce or in production of goods for commerce within the meaning of the Act. If such a minor is so employed by his employer and is not specifically exempt from the child labor provisions then his employment under such circumstances constitutes a violation of section 12(c) regardless of where he may be employed or what his employer may do. Moreover, a violation of section 12(c) occurs under the foregoing circumstances without regard to whether there is a “removal” of goods or a shipment or delivery for shipment in commerce.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 25157, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.135.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.115   Joint applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The child labor coverage provisions contained in sections 12(a) and 12(c) of the Act may be jointly applicable in certain situations. For example, a manufacturer of women's dresses who ships them in interstate commerce, employs a minor under 16 years of age who gathers and bundles scraps of material in the cutting room of the plant. Since the employment of the minor under such circumstances constitutes oppressive child labor and involves the production of goods for commerce, the direct prohibition of section 12(c) is applicable to the case. In addition, section 12(a) also applies to the manufacturer if the dresses are removed from the establishment during the course of the minor's employment or within 30 days thereafter. To illustrate further, suppose that a transportation company employs a 17-year-old boy as helper on a truck used for hauling materials between railroads and the plants of its customers who are engaged in producing goods for shipment in commerce. The employment of the minor as helper on a truck is oppressive child labor because such occupation has been declared particularly hazardous by the Secretary for children between 16 and 18 years of age. Since his occupation involves the transportation of goods which are moving in interstate commerce, his employment in such occupation by the transportation company is, therefore, directly prohibited by the terms of section 12(c). If the minor's duties in this case should, for example, include loading and unloading the truck at the establishments of the customers of his employer, then the provisions of section 12(a) might be applicable with respect to such customers. This would be true where any goods which they produce and ship in commerce are removed from the producing establishment within 30 days after the minor's employment there.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.116" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.135.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.116   Separate applicability.</HEAD>
<P>There are situations where section 12(c) does not apply because the minor himself is not considered employed in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. This does not exclude the possibility of coverage under the provisions of section 12(a), however. In those cases where oppressive child labor is employed in commerce but not in or about a producing establishment, coverage exists under section 12(c) but not under the provisions of section 12(a). The employment of telegraph messengers under 16 years of age would normally involve this type of situation. 
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> There may also be cases where oppressive child labor is employed in occupations closely related and directly essential to the production of goods in a separate establishment and therefore covered by section 12(c) but due to the fact that none of the goods produced in the establishment where the minors work are ever shipped or delivered for shipment in commerce either in the same form or as a part or ingredient of other goods, coverage of section 12(a) is lacking. An illustration of this type of situation would be the employment of a minor under the applicable age minimum in a plant engaged in the production of electricity which is sold and consumed exclusively within the same State and some of which is used by establishments in the production of goods for commerce.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> In “Western Union Telegraph Co. v. Lenroot,” 323 U.S. 490, the court held section 12(a) inapplicable to Western Union on the grounds that the company does not “produce” or “ship” goods within the meaning of that subsection.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 25157, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="136" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.136" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Oppressive Child Labor</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.117" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.136.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.117   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(1) of the Act defines “oppressive child labor” as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP><I>Oppressive child labor</I> means a condition of employment under which (1) any employee under the age of sixteen years is employed by an employer (other than a parent or a person standing in place of a parent employing his own child or a child in his custody under the age of sixteen years in an occupation other than manufacturing or mining or an occupation found by the Secretary of Labor to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children between the ages of sixteen and eighteen years or detrimental to their health or well-being) in any occupation, or (2) any employee between the ages of sixteen and eighteen years is employed by an employer in any occupation which the Secretary of Labor shall find and by order declare to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children between such ages or detrimental to their health or well-being, but oppressive child labor shall not be deemed to exist by virtue of the employment in any occupation of any person with respect to whom the employer shall have on file an unexpired certificate issued and held pursuant to regulations of the Secretary of Labor certifying that such person is above the oppressive child labor age. The Secretary of Labor shall provide by regulation or by order that the employment of employees between the ages of fourteen and sixteen years in occupations other than manufacturing and mining shall not be deemed to constitute oppressive child labor if and to the extent that the Secretary of Labor determines that such employment is confined to periods which will not interfere with their schooling and to conditions which will not interfere with their health and well-being.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It will be noted that the term includes generally the employment of young workers under the age of 16 years in any occupation. In addition, the term includes employment of minors 16 and 17 years of age by an employer in any occupation which the Secretary finds and declares to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children of such ages or detrimental to their health or well-being. Authority is also given the Secretary to issue orders or regulations permitting the employment of children 14 and 15 years of age in nonmanufacturing and nonmining occupations where he determines that such employment is confined to periods which will not interfere with their schooling and to conditions which will not interfere with their health and well-being. The subsection further provides for the issuance of age certificates pursuant to regulations of the Secretary which will protect an employer from unwitting employment of oppressive child labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.118" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.136.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.118   Sixteen-year minimum.</HEAD>
<P>The Act sets a 16-year-age minimum for employment in manufacturing or mining occupations, although under FLSA section 13(c)(7), certain youth between the ages of 14 and 18 may, under specific conditions, be employed inside and outside of places of business that use power-driven machinery to process wood products. Furthermore, the 16-year-age minimum for employment is applicable to employment in all other occupations unless otherwise provided by regulation or order issued by the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28458, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.119" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.136.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.119   Fourteen-year minimum.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to employment in occupations other than manufacturing and mining and in accordance with the provisions of FLSA section 13(c)(7), the Secretary is authorized to issue regulations or orders lowering the age minimum to 14 years where he or she finds that such employment is confined to periods that will not interfere with the minors' schooling and to conditions that will not interfere with their health and well-being. Pursuant to this authority, the Secretary has detailed in § 570.34 all those occupations in which 14- and 15-year-olds may be employed when the work is performed outside school hours and is confined to other specified limits. The Secretary, in order to provide clarity and assist employers in attaining compliance, has listed in § 570.33 certain prohibited occupations that, over the years, have been the frequent subject of questions or violations. The list of occupations in § 570.33 is not exhaustive. The Secretary has also set forth, in § 570.35, additional conditions that limit the periods during which 14- and 15-year-olds may be employed. The employment of minors under 14 years of age is not permissible under any circumstances if the employment is covered by the child labor provisions and not specifically exempt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28458, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.120" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.136.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.120   Eighteen-year minimum.</HEAD>
<P>To protect young workers from hazardous employment, the FLSA provides for a minimum age of 18 years in occupations found and declared by the Secretary to be particularly hazardous or detrimental to the health or well-being for minors 16 and 17 years of age. Hazardous occupations orders are the means through which occupations are declared to be particularly hazardous for minors. Since 1995, the promulgation and amendment of the hazardous occupations orders have been effectuated under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.</I> The effect of these orders is to raise the minimum age for employment to 18 years in the occupations covered. Seventeen orders, published in subpart E of this part, have thus far been issued under the FLSA and are now in effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28458, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.121" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.136.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.121   Age certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To protect an employer from unwitting violation of the minimum age standards, it is provided in section 3(1)(2) of the Act that “oppressive child labor shall not be deemed to exist by virtue of the employment in any occupation of any person with respect to whom the employer shall have on file an unexpired certificate issued and held pursuant to regulations of the Secretary of Labor certifying that such person is above the oppressive child labor age.” An age certificate is a statement of a minor's age issued under regulations of the Secretary (Child Labor Regulation No. 1), 
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> based on the best available documentary evidence of age, and carrying the signatures of the minor and the issuing officer. Its purpose is to furnish an employer with reliable proof of the age of a minor employee in order that he may, as specifically provided by the act, protect himself against unintentional violation of the child labor provisions. Pursuant to the regulations of the Secretary, State employment or age certificates are accepted as proof of age in 45 States, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico, and Federal certificates of age in Idaho, Mississippi, South Carolina and Texas. If there is a possibility that the minor whom he intends to employ is below the applicable age minimum for the occupation in which he is to be employed, the employer should obtain an age certificate for him.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> Subpart A of this part.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) It should be noted that the age certificate furnishes protection to the employer as provided by the act only if it shows the minor to be above the minimum age applicable thereunder to the occupation in which he is employed. Thus, a State certificate which shows a minor's age to be above the minimum required by State law for the occupation in which he is employed does not protect his employer for purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act unless the age shown on such certificate is also above the minimum provided under that act for such occupation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="137" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.122" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.122   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Specific exemptions from the child labor requirements of the Act are provided for:
</P>
<P>(1) Employment of children in agriculture outside of school hours for the school district where they live while so employed;
</P>
<P>(2) Employment of employees engaged in the delivery of newspapers to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(3) Employment of children as actors or performers in motion pictures or in theatrical, radio, or television productions;
</P>
<P>(4) Employment by a parent or a person standing in a parent's place of his own child or a child in his custody under the age of sixteen years in any occupation other than manufacturing, mining, or an occupation found by the Secretary to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children between the ages of sixteen and eighteen years or detrimental to their health or well-being.
</P>
<P>(5) Employment of homeworkers engaged in the making of evergreen wreaths, including the harvesting of the evergreens or other forest products used in making such wreaths.
</P>
<P>(6) Employment of 16- and 17-year-olds to load, but not operate or unload, certain scrap paper balers and paper box compactors under specified conditions.
</P>
<P>(7) Employment of 17-year-olds to perform limited driving of cars and trucks during daylight hours under specified conditions.
</P>
<P>(8) Employment of youths between the ages of 14 and 18 years who, by statute or judicial order, are excused from compulsory school attendance beyond the eighth grade, under specified conditions, in places of business that use power-driven machinery to process wood products.
</P>
<P>(b) When interpreting these provisions, the Secretary will be guided by the principle that such exemptions should be narrowly construed and their application limited to those employees who are plainly and unmistakably within their terms. Thus, the fact that a child's occupation involves the performance of work which is considered exempt from the child labor provisions will not relieve his employer from the requirements of section 12(c) or the producer, manufacturer, or dealer from the requirements of section 12(a) if, during the course of his employment, the child spends any part of his time doing work which is covered but not so exempt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28459, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.123" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.123   Agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(c) of the Act provides an exemption from the child labor provisions for “any employee employed in agriculture outside of school hours for the school district where such employee is living while he is so employed.” This is the only exemption from the child labor provisions relating to agriculture or the products of agriculture. The various agricultural exemptions provided by sections 7(b)(3), 7(c), 13(a)(6), 13(a)(10) and 13(b)(5) from all or part of the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements are not applicable to the child labor provisions. This exemption, it will be noted, is limited to periods outside of school hours in contrast to the complete exemption for employment in “agriculture” under the wage and hours provisions. Under the original act, the exemption became operative whenever the applicable State law did not require the minor to attend school. The legislative history clearly indicates that in amending this provision, Congress sought to establish a clearer and simpler test for permissive employment which could be applied without the necessity of exploring State legal requirements regarding school attendance in the particular State. It recognized that the original provision fell short of achieving the objective of permitting agricultural work only so long as it did not infringe upon the opportunity of children for education. By recasting the exemption on an “outside of school hours” basis, Congress intended to provide a test which could be more effectively applied toward carrying out this purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicability of the exemption to employment in agriculture as defined in section 3(f) 
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> of the Act depends in general upon whether such employment conflict with school hours for the locality where the child lives. Since the phrase “school hours” is not defined in the Act, it must be given the meaning that it has in ordinary speech. Moreover, it will be noted that the statute speaks of school hours “for the school district” rather than for the individual child. Thus, the provision does not depend for its application upon the individual student's requirements for attendance at school. For example, if an individual student is excused from his studies for a day or a part of a day by the superintendent or the school board, the exemption would not apply if school was in session then. “Outside of school hours” generally may be said to refer to such periods as before or after school hours, holidays, summer vacation, Sundays, or any other days on which the school for the district in which the minor lives does not assemble. Since “school hours for the school district” do not apply to minors who have graduated from high school, the entire year would be considered “outside of school hours” and, therefore, their employment in agriculture would be permitted at any time. While it is the position of the Department that a minor who leaves one district where schools are closed and who moves into and lives in another district where schools are in session may not work during the hours that schools are in session in the new district, it will not be asserted that this position prevents the employment of a minor in a district where schools are in session, if the school last attended by the minor has closed for summer vacation. As a reasonable precaution, however, no employer should employ a child under such circumstances before May 15, and after that date he should do so only if he is shown by the minor satisfactory evidence in the form of a written statement signed by a school official stating that the school with which he is connected is the one last attended by the minor and that the school is closed for summer vacation. Such statement should contain the minor's name, the name and address of the school, the date the school closed for the current year, the date the statement was signed, and the title of the school official signing the statement.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> <I>Agriculture</I> as defined in section 3(f) includes “farming in all its branches and among other things includes the cultivation and tillage of the soil, dairying, the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodities (including commodities defined as agricultural commodities in section 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended), the raising of livestock, bees, fur-bearing animals, or poultry, and any practices (including any forestry, or lumbering operations) performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations, including preparation for market, delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Attention is directed to the fact that by virtue of the parental exemption provided in section 3(1) of the Act, children under 16 years of age are permitted to work, for their parents on their parents' farms at any time provided they are not employed in a manufacturing or mining occupation.
</P>
<P>(d) The orders (subpart E of this part) declaring certain occupations to be particularly hazardous for the employment of minors between 16 and 18 years of age or detrimental to their health or well-being do not apply to employment in agriculture, pending study as to the hazardous or detrimental nature of occupations in agriculture. 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> See note to subpart E of this part.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951, as amended at 23 FR 3062, May 8, 1958. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963. Redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.124" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.124   Delivery of newspapers.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(d) of the Act provides an exemption from the child labor as well as the wage and hours provisions for employees engaged in the delivery of newspapers to the consumer. This provision applies to carriers engaged in making deliveries to the homes of subscribers or other consumers of newspapers (including shopping news). It also includes employees engaged in the street sale or delivery of newspapers to the consumer. However, employees engaged in hauling newspapers to drop stations, distributing centers, newsstands, etc., do not come within the exemption because they do not deliver to the consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.125" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.125   Actors and performers.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(c) of the Act provides an exemption from the child labor provisions for “any child employed as an actor or performer in motion pictures or theatrical productions, or in radio or television productions.” The term “performer” used in this provision is obviously more inclusive than the term “actor.” In regulations issued pursuant to section 7(d)(3) of the Act, the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division has defined a “performer” on radio and television programs for purposes of that section. 
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/> The Secretary will follow this definition in determining whether a child is employed as a “* * * performer * * * in radio or television productions” for purposes of this exemption. Moreover, in many situations the definition will be helpful in determining whether a child qualifies as a “* * * performer in motion pictures or theatrical productions * * *” within the meaning of the exemption.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> Section 550.2(b) of this title provides:
</P>
<P>(b) The term “performer” shall mean a person who performs a distinctive, personalized service as a part of an actual broadcast or telecast including an actor, singer, dancer, musician, comedian, or any person who entertains, affords amusement to, or occupies the interest of a radio or television audience by acting, singing, dancing, reading, narrating, performing feats of skill, or announcing, or describing or relating facts, events and other matters of interest, and who actively participates in such capacity in the actual presentation of a radio or television program. It shall not include such persons as script writers, stand-ins, or directors who are neither seen nor heard by the radio or television audience; nor shall it include persons who participate in the broadcast or telecast purely as technicians such as engineers, electricians and stage hands.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.126" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.126   Parental exemption.</HEAD>
<P>By the parenthetical phrase included in section 3(l)(1) of the Act, a parent or a person standing in place of a parent may employ his own child or a child in his custody under the age of 16 years in any occupation other than the following: (a) Manufacturing; (b) mining; (c) an occupation found by the Secretary to be particularly hazardous or detrimental to health or well-being for children between the ages of 16 and 18 years. This exemption may apply only in those cases where the child is exclusively employed by his parent or a person standing in his parents' place. Thus, where a child assists his father in performing work for the latter's employer and the child is considered to be employed both by his father and his father's employer, the parental exemption would not be applicable. The words “parent” or a “person standing in place of a parent” include natural parents, or any other person, where the relationship between that person and a child is such that the person may be said to stand in place of a parent. For example, one who takes a child into his home and treats it as a member of his own family, educating and supporting the child as if it were his own, is generally said to stand to the child in place of a parent. It should further be noted that occupations found by the Secretary to be hazardous or detrimental to health or well-being for children between 16 and 18 years of age, as well as manufacturing and mining occupations, are specifically excluded from the scope of the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.127" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.127   Homeworkers engaged in the making of evergreen wreaths.</HEAD>
<P>FLSA section 13(d) provides an exemption from the child labor provisions, as well as the minimum wage and overtime provisions, for homeworkers engaged in the making of wreaths composed principally of natural holly, pine, cedar, or other evergreens (including the harvesting of the evergreens or other forest products used in making such wreaths).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28459, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.128" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.128   Loading of certain scrap paper balers and paper box compactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(c)(5) of the FLSA provides for an exemption from the child labor provisions for the employment of 16- and 17-year-olds to load, but not operate or unload, certain power-driven scrap paper balers and paper box compactors under certain conditions. The provisions of this exemption, which are contained in HO 12 (§ 570.63) include that the scrap paper baler or compactor meet an applicable standard established by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) and identified in the statute, or a more recent ANSI standard that the Secretary of Labor has found, incorporated by reference (<I>see</I> § 570.63), and declared to be as protective of the safety of young workers as the ANSI standard named in the statute.
</P>
<P>(b) These standards have been incorporated into these regulations by reference by the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as discussed in § 570.63. In addition, the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor must include an on-off switch incorporating a key-lock or other system and the control of the system must be maintained in the custody of employees who are at least 18 years of age. The on-off switch of the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor must be maintained in an off position when the machine is not in operation. Furthermore, the employer must also post a notice on the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor that conveys certain information, including the identification of the applicable ANSI standard that the equipment meets, that 16- and 17-year-old employees may only load the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor, and that no employee under the age of 18 may operate or unload the scrap paper baler or paper box compactor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28459, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.129" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.129   Limited driving of automobiles and trucks by 17-year-olds.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(c)(6) of the FLSA provides an exemption for 17-year-olds, but not 16-year-olds, who, as part of their employment, perform the occasional and incidental driving of automobiles and trucks on public highways under specified conditions. These specific conditions, which are contained in HO 2 (§ 570.52), include that the automobile or truck may not exceed 6,000 pounds gross vehicle weight, the driving must be restricted to daylight hours, the vehicle must be equipped with a seat belt or similar restraining device for the driver and for any passengers, and the employer must instruct the employee that such belts or other devices must be used. In addition, the 17-year-old must hold a State license valid for the type of driving involved in the job, have successfully completed a State-approved driver education course, and have no records of any moving violations at the time of his or her hire. The exemption also prohibits the minor from performing any driving involving the towing of vehicles; route deliveries or route sales; the transportation for hire of property, goods, or passengers; urgent, time-sensitive deliveries; or the transporting of more than three passengers at any one time. The exemption also places limitations on the number of trips the 17-year-old may make each day and restricts the driving to a 30-mile radius of the minor's place of employment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28459, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.130" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.137.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.130   Employment of certain youth inside and outside of places of business that use power-driven machinery to process wood products.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(c)(7) of the FLSA provides a limited exemption from the child labor provisions for certain youths between the ages of 14 and 18 years who, by statute or judicial order, are excused from compulsory school attendance beyond the eighth grade, that permits their employment inside and outside of places of business that use power-driven machinery to process wood products. The provisions of this exemption are contained in subpart C of this part (§ 570.34(m)) and HO 4 (§ 570.54). Although the exemption allows certain youths between the ages of 14 and 18 years to be employed inside and outside of places of business that use power-driven machines to process wood products, it does so only if such youths do not operate or assist in the operation of power-driven woodworking machines. The exemption also requires that the youth be supervised by an adult relative or by an adult member of the same religious sect as the youth. The youth must also be protected from wood particles or other flying debris within the workplace by a barrier appropriate to the potential hazard of such wood particles or flying debris or by maintaining a sufficient distance from machinery in operation. For the exemption to apply, the youth must also be required to use personal protective equipment to prevent exposure to excessive levels of noise and sawdust.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28460, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="138" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.138" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.140" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.138.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.140   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 15(a)(4) of the Act makes any violation of the provisions of sections 12(a) or 12(c) unlawful. Any such unlawful act or practice may be enjoined by the United States District Courts under section 17 upon court action, filed by the Secretary pursuant to section 12(b) and, if willful will subject the offender to the criminal penalties provided in section 16(a) of the Act. Section 16(a) provides that any person who willfully violates any of the provisions of section 15 shall upon conviction thereof be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than six months, or both. No person shall be imprisoned under this subsection except for an offense committed after the conviction of such person for a prior offense under this subsection.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, FLSA section 16(e) states that any person who violates the provisions of FLSA sections 12 or 13(c), relating to child labor, or any regulations issued under those sections, shall be subject to a civil penalty, not to exceed:
</P>
<P>(1) $16,035 for each employee who was the subject of such a violation; or
</P>
<P>(2) $72,876 with regard to each such violation that causes the death or serious injury of any employee under the age of 18 years, which penalty may be doubled where the violation is repeated or willful.
</P>
<P>(c) Part 579 of this chapter, <I>Child Labor Violations—Civil Money Penalties,</I> provides for the issuance of the notice of civil money penalties for any violation of FLSA sections 12 or 13(c) relating to child labor. Part 580 of this chapter, <I>Civil Money Penalties—Procedures for Assessing and Contesting Penalties,</I> describes the administrative process for assessment and resolution of the civil money penalties. When a civil money penalty is assessed against an employer for a child labor violation, the employer has the right, within 15 days after receipt of the notice of such penalty, to file an exception to the determination that the violation or violations occurred. When such an exception is filed with the office making the assessment, the matter is referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, and a formal hearing is scheduled. At such a hearing, the employer or an attorney retained by the employer may present such witnesses, introduce such evidence and establish such facts as the employer believes will support the exception. The determination of the amount of any civil money penalty becomes final if no exception is taken to the administrative assessment thereof, or if no exception is filed to the decision and order of the administrative law judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28460, May 20, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 5382, Jan. 18, 2017; 83 FR 13, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 218, Jan. 23, 2019; 85 FR 2298, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2969, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 2335, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2217, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1816, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1861, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.141" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.138.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.141   Good faith defense.</HEAD>
<P>A provision is contained in section 12(a) of the Act relieving any purchaser from liability thereunder who ships or delivers for shipment in commerce goods which he acquired in good faith in reliance on written assurance from the producer, manufacturer, or dealer that the goods were produced in compliance with section 12, and which he acquired for value without notice of any violation. 
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> For a complete discussion of this subject see part 789 of this title, General Statement on the Provisions of section 12(a) and section 15(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, relating to Written Assurances.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and further redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971. Redesignated at 75 FR 28459, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 570.142" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.31.8.138.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 570.142   Relation to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>Section 18 provides, in part, that “no provision of this act relating to the employment of child labor shall justify noncompliance with any Federal or State law or municipal ordinance establishing a higher standard than the standard established under this act.” The child labor requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, must be complied with as to the employment of minors within their general coverage and not excepted from their operation by special provision of the act itself regardless of any State, local, or other Federal law that may be applicable to the same employment. Furthermore, any administrative action pursuant to other laws, such as the issuance of a work permit to a minor or the referral by an employment agency of a minor to an employer does not necessarily relieve a person of liability under this act. Where such other legislation is applicable and does not contravene the requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act, however, nothing in the act, the regulations or the interpretations announced by the Secretary should be taken to override or nullify the provisions of these laws. Although compliance with other applicable legislation does not constitute compliance with the act unless the requirements of the act are thereby met, compliance with the act, on the other hand, does not relieve any person of liability under other laws that establish higher child labor standards than those prescribed by or pursuant to the act. Moreover, such laws, if at all applicable, continue to apply to the employment of all minors who either are not within the general coverage of the child labor provisions of the act or who are specifically excepted from their requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 7008, July 20, 1951. Redesignated at 28 FR 1634, Feb. 21, 1963, and further redesignated and amended at 36 FR 25156, Dec. 29, 1971. Redesignated at 75 FR 28459, May 20, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="575" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 575—WAIVER OF CHILD LABOR PROVISIONS FOR AGRICULTURAL EMPLOYMENT OF 10 AND 11 YEAR OLD MINORS IN HAND HARVESTING OF SHORT SEASON CROPS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 11, 12, 13, 18, 52 Stat. 1067, 1069, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 211, 212, 213, 218; Secretary's Order 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 26562, June 21, 1978, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 575.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(c)(4) was added to the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1977. This section provides that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(A) An employer or group of employers may apply to the Secretary for a waiver of the application of section 12 to the employment for not more than 8 weeks in any calendar year of individuals who are less than 12 years of age, but not less than 10 years of age, as hand harvest laborers in an agricultural operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as being, paid on a piece rate basis in the region in which such individuals would be employed. The Secretary may not grant such a waiver unless he finds, based on objective data submitted by the applicant, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The crop to be harvested is one with a particularly short harvesting season and the application of section 12 would cause severe economic disruption in the industry of the employer or group of employers applying for the waiver;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employment of the individuals to whom the waiver would apply would not be deleterious to their health or well-being;
</P>
<P>(iii) The level and type of pesticides and other chemicals used would not have an adverse effect on the health or well-being of the individuals to whom the waiver would apply;
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals age 12 and above are not available for such employment; and
</P>
<P>(v) The industry of such employer or group of employers has traditionally and substantially employed individuals under 12 years of age without displacing substantial job opportunities for individuals over 16 years of age.
</P>
<P>(B) Any waiver granted by the Secretary under subparagraph (A) shall require that:
</P>
<P>(i) The individuals employed under such waiver be employed outside of school hours for the school district where they are living while so employed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Such individuals while so employed commute daily from their permanent residence to the farm on which they are so employed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Such individuals be employed under such waiver (I) for not more than 8 weeks between June 1 and October 15 of any calendar year, and (II) in accordance with such other terms and conditions as the Secretary shall prescribe for such individuals' protection.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The child labor provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act, section 12, require the following age standards for employment in agriculture:
</P>
<P>(1) 16 years of age in any occupation at any time;
</P>
<P>(2) 14 and 15 years of age outside of school hours except in occupations found and declared by the Secretary to be particularly hazardous for the employment of minors under 16 years of age (subpart E-1, 29 CFR 570.70, <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) 12 and 13 years of age in nonhazardous occupations outside of school hours if:
</P>
<P>(i) Such employment is with the written consent of a parent or person standing in the place of a parent of such minor, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such employment is on the same farm where such parent or person is also employed;
</P>
<P>(4) Under 12 years of age in nonhazardous occupations outside of school hours if such employment is with the written consent of a parent or person standing in place of a parent of such minor, on a farm where, because of the provisions of section 13(a)(6)(A) of the Act, none of the employees are required to be paid at the wage rate prescribed by section 6(a)(5) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(5) 10 and 11 years of age in nonhazardous occupations outside of school hours employed to hand-harvest short season crop or crops under a waiver issued pursuant to section 13(c)(4) of the Act and this part:
</P>
<P>(6) Minors of any age may be employed by their parents or persons standing in place of their parents at any time in any occupation on a farm owned or operated by their parents or persons standing in place of their parents.
</P>
<P>(c) This part provides the procedures to be used under section 13(c)(4) of the Act. This part describes the information and defines the supporting data that the employer or group of employers must submit when applying for a waiver of the child labor provisions for the employment of 10 and 11 year old minors as hand-harvest laborers in an agricultural operation. It further explains the specific requirements imposed by the statute for employment under a waiver and specifies the conditions prescribed by the Secretary for employment under a waiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 575.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, and includes an authorized representative designated by the Administrator to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Agriculture</I> means agriculture as defined in section 3(f) of the Act and as interpreted in part 780 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Commute daily</I> means the minors shall travel by foot, car, or other vehicle designed for transporting passengers from their permanent residences to the field or farm where they will work and return thereto at the end of each workday.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means employer as defined in section 3(d) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Group of employers</I> means a number of employers who seek to be considered together for the purpose of applying for a waiver under section 13(c)(4) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Hand-harvest laborers</I> means agricultural workers engaged solely in harvesting by hand soil grown crops such as but not limited to berries, potatoes, and beans, and as interpreted in § 780.312 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Outside school hours</I> means such periods as determined by the school district of the minor's permanent residence. These periods include before or after school hours, holidays, summer vacation, Saturdays, Sundays, or any other days on which the school for the school district does not assemble.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent residence</I> means the place where the minor and the minor's parent or person standing in place of a parent reside year-round.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, United States Department of Labor, or an authorized representative of the Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver</I> means a letter signed by the Administrator advising the named employer or group of employers that 10 and 11 year old minors may be employed in the hand-harvesting of the specified short season crop or crops for the period designated, in accordance with the terms and conditions set forth in section 13(c)(4) of the Act and this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 26562, June 21, 1978; 43 FR 28471, June 30, 1978, as amended at 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 575.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.3   Application for waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a waiver shall be filed with the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. To permit adequate time for processing, it is recommended that such applications be filed 6 weeks prior to the period the waiver is to be in effect.
</P>
<P>(b) No particular form is prescribed. The application, which may be in letter form, shall be typewritten or clearly written and shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The general information as described in § 575.4 of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of employer or group of employers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Telephone number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Location of farm(s);
</P>
<P>(iv) Crop or crops to be hand harvested;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether payment is customarily paid on a piece rate basis;
</P>
<P>(vi) Requested period of waiver;
</P>
<P>(vii) Statement that such employment shall be outside school hours;
</P>
<P>(2) The objective data as required in § 575.5 of this part to show that:
</P>
<P>(i) The crops have a short harvesting season;
</P>
<P>(ii) Without 10 and 11 year olds the industry would suffer severe economic disruption;
</P>
<P>(iii) Employment will not be deleterious to the health and well-being of 10 and 11 year olds;
</P>
<P>(iv) The level of pesticides will not adversely affect 10 and 11 year olds;
</P>
<P>(v) Individuals 12 years and over are not available for employment;
</P>
<P>(vi) Employer or group of employers has traditionally used minors under 12 years and this will not displace employees 16 years or older.
</P>
<P>(c) The application shall be signed and dated by the employer or group of employers requesting the waiver or by the authorized representative of such employer or group.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1215-0120)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 26562, June 21, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 145, Jan. 5, 1982; 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 575.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.4   Information to be included in application.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a waiver pursuant to section 13(c)(4) of the Act shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The name, address, and zip code of the employer, or each employer of a group of employers, and the authorized representative, if any, of an employer or group.
</P>
<P>(b) The telephone number and area code for any employer or authorized representative from whom additional information concerning the application may be obtained.
</P>
<P>(c) The address, location, and/or area (State, county, and/or other geographic designation), clearly identifying each employer's farm(s) or field(s) where 10 and 11 year old hand-harvest laborers are to be employed.
</P>
<P>(d) The specific crop or crops to be hand-harvested at each designated farm or field.
</P>
<P>(e) Substantiation of the claim that such agricultural operation “is customarily and generally recognized as being paid on a piece rate basis in the region in which such individuals would be employed.” The Administrator will accept signed statements to that effect from agricultural employers and employees and others, such as agricultural extension agents, in the region of employment who are familiar with farming operations and practices in the region and with the method of compensation used in such operations and practices.
</P>
<P>(f) Designated dates of not more than 8 weeks an any calendar year, between June 1 and October 15, during which it is anticipated that 10 and 11 year old minors will be employed in the hand-harvesting of the specified short season crop or crops.
</P>
<P>(g) A statement that the 10- and 11-year old hand harvesters will be employed outside school hours.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 575.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.5   Supporting data to accompany application.</HEAD>
<P>Objective data, as required by section 13(c)(4) of the Act, shall also be submitted by the employer or group of employers applying for a waiver, to show that:
</P>
<P>(a) The crop to be harvested is one with a “particularly short harvesting season.” The variety of each crop to be harvested must ordinarily be harvested within 4 weeks in the region in which the waiver will be applicable. The Administrator will accept the written statement to that effect from the agricultural extension agent for the county.
</P>
<P>(b) The 12-year minimum age prescribed by the Act for such employment would cause “severe economic disruption in the industry of the employer or group of employers applying for the waiver.” Severe economic disruption in the industry refers to the consequences of not meeting a compelling need for the employment of 10- and 11-year olds to avoid loss of a significant portion of the crop. Evidence of this need includes the projected number of laborers needed to harvest the acreage planted and evidence that recruitment requirements specified in paragraph (e) of this section have been complied with. Data concerning the number of hand harvest laborers used in previous years for given acreages will serve as a basis for evaluating needs for the current year. If the requisite number of workers cannot be recruited from the labor supply of 12 years and above, this would ordinarily demonstrate the compelling need for the employment of 10 and 11 year olds.
</P>
<P>(c) The employment of minors under the waiver “would not be deleterious to their health or well-being.” This refers to the prospective effect on the health or well-being generally (<I>i.e.</I>, other than the tolerance level of pesticides or other chemicals) of 10 and 11 year-old hand harvesters. The Administrator will accept signed statements to that effect from doctors, or nurses or public health officials in the region.
</P>
<P>(d) The “level and type of pesticides and other chemicals used would not have an adverse effect on the health or well-being of” minors employed under the waiver. The safe reentry standards established by the Environmental Protection Agency, and followed by other Federal and State agencies, were established for adult workers and have not been shown to be safe for 10 and 11 year olds. Therefore, the applicant, in order to satisfy this condition, will either have to submit a statement that no pesticides or other chemicals were used on the crop to be harvested or submit data which upon study by the Secretary or the Secretary's designee establishes a safe reentry times for 10 and 11 year olds. If such data, or additional studies conducted by the Secretary or the Secretary's designee, establish safe reentry standards for 10 and 11 year olds, this section will be amended to include such standards and the applicant will then need only identify the type and level of pesticides or chemicals used and the date of last application of same prior to harvest.
</P>
<P>(e) Individuals age 12 and above are not available for such employment. Evidence of such unavailability must be documented by the applicant by:
</P>
<P>(1) Placement of intrastate and interstate job orders, in which the piece rate is specified, with the state employment service sufficiently in advance of the harvest to allow reasonable time for the recruitment of local and migrant workers. An interstate order need not be placed if the applicant can demonstrate that suitable housing is not available.
</P>
<P>(2) Placement of at least two advertisements in local papers of general circulation or advertisements over local radio stations.
</P>
<P>(3) Contact with farm labor contractors, migrant workers, and other potential workers.
</P>
<P>(4) Contact with schools, business and labor organizations, non-profit organizations and public agencies to enlist their help. Data showing the responses received to these solicitations must be categorized by age and submitted with the waiver application to verify that older workers are not available to perform the work.
</P>
<P>(f) The “industry of such employer or groups of employers has traditionally and substantially employed individuals under twelve years of age without displacing substantial job opportunities for individuals over sixteen years of age.” Documentation that the industry has traditionally and substantially employed individuals under 12 years of age may include newspaper reports, magazine articles, research organization reports, or other appropriate sources. Data to indicate that such employment did not displace substantial job opportunities for individuals over 16 years of age may include the signed statement of an appropriate official of the employment service agency of the State (or States, if region designated crosses State lines) certifying to that fact. This certification must be based on statistical documentation for at least the previous year.
</P>
<P>(g) When supporting data required by this section are submitted by an employer or group of employers, the objective data required by paragraph (d) of this section shall be submitted on the basis of each individual employer. However, objective data required by paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (e), and (f) of this section may be submitted for the specific geographic area, e.g., an entire county, of the employer or group of employers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 26562, June 21, 1978; 43 FR 28471, June 30, 1978, as amended at 44 FR 22061, Apr. 13, 1979; 44 FR 24059, Apr. 24, 1979; 44 FR 29049, May 18, 1979; 45 FR 55177, Aug. 19, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 575.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.6   Procedure for action on an application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of an application for a waiver, the Administrator shall review all of the information and supporting data. If sufficient, the Administrator shall grant a waiver; if insufficient, the Administrator may seek further information. If such information is not made available to the Administrator, the Administrator shall deny the waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator shall deny the application for a waiver from any employer against whom a final civil money penalty is outstanding under section 16(e) of the Act for violation of the child labor provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The waiver, in the form of a letter signed by the Administrator, shall set forth the terms and conditions for employment under the waiver as provided in §§ 575.7 and 575.8. The waiver shall be issued to the employer or group of employers applying for it.
</P>
<P>(d) If a waiver is granted there will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a general notice to that effect setting forth for each waiver granted: the name of the employer or the name of each employer of a group of employers; the address of each such employer, including city, state, and zip code; and the dates of the period the waiver will be in effect.
</P>
<P>(e) If a waiver is denied, the Administrator shall give written notice of such denial to the employer or group of employers applying for a waiver. Such denial will be without prejudice to the filing of any subsequent application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 575.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.7   Statutory conditions for employment under the waiver.</HEAD>
<P>Any waiver granted pursuant to section 13(c)(4) of the Act and this part shall require that:
</P>
<P>(a) Employment of 10 and 11 year old minors pursuant to the waiver be outside school hours.
</P>
<P>(b) Individuals employed commute daily from their permanent residence to the farms(s) or field(s) where employed.
</P>
<P>(c) Such individuals be employed for not more than 8 weeks between June 1 and October 15 of any calendar year. When schools are in session, any employment under a waiver shall be confined to outside of school hours.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 575.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.8   Secretary's conditions for employment under the waiver.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary prescribes the following terms and conditions for the protection of minors employed pursuant to a waiver granted under section 13(c)(4) of the Act:
</P>
<P>(a) An employer or group of employers granted such a waiver shall obtain and keep on file a signed statement of the parent or person standing in the place of the parent of each 10 and 11-year old minor employed consenting to the employment of such minor under the waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employment pursuant to a waiver shall be in compliance with applicable Federal and State laws, and any regulations issued under them.
</P>
<P>(c) No employer or group of employers shall employ any 10 or 11 year old minor pursuant to a waiver for more than 5 hours in any one day or for more than 30 hours in any workweek with a meal break of at least 30 minutes and two rest breaks of at least 15 minutes each.
</P>
<P>(d) An employer or group of employers granted such a waiver shall provide immediately adjacent to the field(s) to be hand harvested: (1) Adequate sanitary facilities, such as portable toilets; (2) adequate and clean drinking water in covered containers with spouts, and an adequate supply of paper or plastic cups for individual drinking use; and (3) a specified adult employee, who is appropriately equipped and is knowledgeable about first-aid treatment and readily available to give such treatment when needed.
</P>
<P>(e) An employer or group of employers granted such a waiver shall provide emergency transportation either to the minor's permanent residence or to the nearest hospital for any 10 or 11 year old hand harvester who becomes ill or is injured during the normal hours of employment.
</P>
<P>(f) No 10 or 11 year old employed under a waiver shall ride upon or be employed in the operation of or in the close proximity to any power driven machinery or equipment. Generally, a distance of fifty feet or more will be construed to meet the requirement that employment not be in “close proximity” to machinery or equipment.
</P>
<P>(g) An employer or group of employers granted such a waiver who owns, operates, or causes to be operated any vehicle for the transportation of such minors shall be responsible for assuring that:
</P>
<P>(1) Every such vehicle is in compliance with all applicable Federal and State safety and health standards and with the rules and regulations issued by the Bureau of Motor Carrier Safety, Federal Highway Administration of the U.S. Department of Transportation;
</P>
<P>(2) Every such vehicle be designed for transporting passengers and be operated by a lawfully licensed driver; and
</P>
<P>(3) A vehicle liability insurance policy provides insurance in an amount not less than the amounts applicable to vehicles used in the transportation of passengers under the Interstate Commerce Act and its regulations. These amounts currently are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Insurance Required for Passenger Equipment
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">12 or less passengers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">More than 12 passengers
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Limit for bodily injuries to or death of 1 person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$100,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Limit for bodily injuries to or death of all persons injured or killed in any 1 accident (subject to a maximum of $100,000 for bodily injuries to or death of 1 person)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Limit for loss or damage in any 1 accident to property of others (excluding cargo)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(h) A copy of the waiver shall be posted or readily available at the site or sites of such employment of such minors during the entire period.
</P>
<P>(i) The employer or group of employers shall maintain and preserve a record of the name, address, and occupation of each minor employed under the waiver in accordance with § 516.33(b) of this chapter. In addition, the record shall also include the date of birth, the name and address of the school in which the minor is enrolled, and the number of hours worked each day and each week of the designated period. Each employer required to maintain records under this part shall preserve them for a period of at least 2 years.
</P>
<P>(j) A waiver shall be effective for the period designated therein with no provision for amendment
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 26562, June 21, 1978; 43 FR 28471, June 30, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 575.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.32.0.139.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 575.9   Failure to comply with the terms and conditions of the waiver.</HEAD>
<P>If the employer or group of employers granted a waiver pursuant to section 13(c)(4) of the Act and this part do not comply with the terms and conditions set forth in the waiver and this part, the waiver shall be null and void and the employer or group of employers will be subject to civil money penalties under section 16(e) of the Act.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="578" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 578—TIP RETENTION, MINIMUM WAGE, AND OVERTIME VIOLATIONS—CIVIL MONEY PENALTIES






</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 216(e), as amended by sec. 9, Pub. L. 101-157, 103 Stat. 938, sec. 3103, Pub. L. 101-508, 104 Stat. 1388-29, sec. 302(a), Pub. L. 110-233, 122 Stat. 920, and sec. 1201, Div. S., Tit. XII, Pub. L. 115-141, 132 Stat. 348; Pub. L. 101-410, 104 Stat. 890 (28 U.S.C. 2461 note), as amended by sec. 31001(s), Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321-358, 1321-373, and sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat 584.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 49129, Oct. 29, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 578.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.33.0.139.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 578.1   What does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>Section 9 of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1989 amended section 16(e) of the Act to provide that any person who repeatedly or willfully violates the minimum wage (section 6) or overtime provisions (section 7) of the Act shall be subject to a civil money penalty not to exceed $1,100 for each such violation. In 2001, the Wage and Hour Division (WHD) adjusted this penalty for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-410), as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-134, section 31001(s)). The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 amended section 16(e) of the Act to reflect this increase. <I>See</I> Public aw. 110-233, sec. 302(a), 122 Stat. 920. Section 1201(b)(3) of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018, amended section 16(e) to add that any person who violates section 3(m)(2)(B) of the Act shall be subject to a civil money penalty not to exceed $1,100. The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-410), as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-134, section 31001(s)) and the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Pub. L. 114-74, section 701), requires that inflationary adjustments be annually made in these civil money penalties according to a specified cost-of-living formula. This part defines terms necessary for administration of the civil money penalty provisions, describes the violations for which a penalty may be imposed, and describes criteria for determining the amount of penalty to be assessed. The procedural requirements for assessing and contesting such penalties are contained in part 580 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 86791, Dec. 30, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 578.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.33.0.139.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 578.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (52 Stat. 1060 (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>));
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, and includes any official of the Wage and Hour Division who is authorized by the Administrator to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Person</I> includes any individual, partnership, corporation, association, business trust, legal representative, or organized group of persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 49129, Oct. 29, 1992, as amended at 82 FR 2229, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 578.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.33.0.139.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 578.3   What types of violations may result in a penalty being assessed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) A penalty of up to $1,409 per violation may be assessed against any person who violates section 3(m)(2)(B) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) A penalty of up to $2,515 per violation may be assessed against any person who repeatedly or willfully violates section 6 (minimum wage) or section 7 (overtime) of the Act. The amount of the penalties stated in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section will be determined by applying the criteria in § 578.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repeated violations.</I> An employer's violation of section 6 or section 7 of the Act shall be deemed to be “repeated” for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the employer has previously violated section 6 or section 7 of the Act, provided the employer has previously received notice, through a responsible official of the Wage and Hour Division or otherwise authoritatively, that the employer allegedly was in violation of the provisions of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where a court or other tribunal has made a finding that an employer has previously violated section 6 or section 7 of the Act, unless an appeal therefrom which has been timely filed is pending before a court or other tribunal with jurisdiction to hear the appeal, or unless the finding has been set aside or reversed by such appellate tribunal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Willful violations.</I> (1) An employer's violation of section 6 or section 7 of the Act shall be deemed to be “willful” for purposes of this section where the employer knew that its conduct was prohibited by the Act or showed reckless disregard for the requirements of the Act. All of the facts and circumstances surrounding the violation shall be taken into account in determining whether a violation was willful.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the employer's receipt of advice from a responsible official of the Wage and Hour Division to the effect that the conduct in question is not lawful, among other situations, can be sufficient to show that the employer's conduct is knowing, but is not automatically dispositive.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, reckless disregard of the requirements of the Act means, among other situations, that the employer should have inquired further into whether its conduct was in compliance with the Act and failed to make adequate further inquiry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 52986, Sept. 24, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 2335, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2217, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1816, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1861, Jan. 10, 2025]

      




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 578.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.33.0.139.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 578.4   Determination of penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining the amount of penalty to be assessed for any violation of section 3(m)(2)(B) or repeated or willful violation of section 6 or section 7 of the Act, the Administrator shall consider the seriousness of the violations and the size of the employer's business.


</P>
<P>(b) Where appropriate, the Administrator may also consider other relevant factors in assessing the penalty, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the employer has made efforts in good faith to comply with the provisions of the Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The employer's explanation for the violations, including whether the violations were the result of a bona fide dispute of doubtful legal certainty;
</P>
<P>(3) The previous history of violations, including whether the employer is subject to injunction against violations of the Act;
</P>
<P>(4) The employer's commitment to future compliance;
</P>
<P>(5) The interval between violations;
</P>
<P>(6) The number of employees affected; and
</P>
<P>(7) Whether there is any pattern to the violations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 49129, Oct. 29, 1992, as amended at 86 FR 52987, Sept. 24, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="579" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 579—CHILD LABOR VIOLATIONS—CIVIL MONEY PENALTIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 203(m), (l), 211, 212, 213(c), 216; Reorg. Plan No. 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263, 5 U.S.C. App; secs. 25, 29, 88 Stat. 72, 76; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014); 28 U.S.C. 2461 Note.








</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 579.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.34.0.139.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 579.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 16(e), added to the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1974, and as further amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1989, the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990, the Compactor and Balers Safety Standards Modernization Act of 1996, and the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008, provides for the imposition of civil money penalties in the following manner:


</P>
<P>(1)(i) Any person who violates the provisions of sections 212 or 213(c) of the FLSA, relating to child labor, or any regulation issued pursuant to such sections, shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed:
</P>
<P>(A) $16,035 for each employee who was the subject of such a violation; or
</P>
<P>(B) $72,876 with regard to each such violation that causes the death or serious injury of any employee under the age of 18 years, which penalty may be doubled where the violation is a repeated or willful violation.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i)(B) of this section, the term “serious injury” means:
</P>
<P>(A) Permanent loss or substantial impairment of one of the senses (sight, hearing, taste, smell, tactile sensation);
</P>
<P>(B) Permanent loss or substantial impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty, including the loss of all or part of an arm, leg, foot, hand or other body part; or
</P>
<P>(C) Permanent paralysis or substantial impairment that causes loss of movement or mobility of an arm, leg, foot, hand or other body part.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Any person who repeatedly or willfully violates section 206 or 207 of the FLSA, relating to wages, shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $2,515 for each such violation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person who violates section 203(m)(2)(B) of the FLSA, relating to the retention of tips, shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $1,409 for each such violation.


</P>
<P>(3) In determining the amount of any penalty under section 216(e) of the FLSA, the appropriateness of such penalty to the size of the business of the person charged and the gravity of the violation shall be considered. The amount of any penalty under section 216(e) of the FLSA, when finally determined, may be:
</P>
<P>(i) Deducted from any sums owing by the United States to the person charged;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recovered in a civil action brought by the Secretary in any court of competent jurisdiction, in which litigation the Secretary shall be represented by the Solicitor of Labor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Ordered by the court, in an action brought for a violation of section 215(a)(4) or a repeated or willful violation of section 215(a)(2) of the FLSA, to be paid to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(4) Any administrative determination by the Secretary of the amount of any penalty under section 216(e) of the FLSA shall be final, unless within 15 days after receipt of notice thereof by certified mail the person charged with the violation takes exception to the determination that the violations for which the penalty is imposed occurred, in which event final determination of the penalty shall be made in an administrative proceeding after opportunity for hearing in accordance with section 554 of title 5, United States Code, and regulations to be promulgated by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(5) Except for civil penalties collected for violations of section 212 of the FLSA, sums collected as penalties pursuant to section 216(e) of the FLSA shall be applied toward reimbursement of the costs of determining the violations and assessing and collecting such penalties, in accordance with the provision of section 202 of the Act entitled “An Act to authorize the Department of Labor to make special statistical studies upon payment of the cost thereof and for other purposes” (29 U.S.C. 9a). Civil penalties collected for violations of section 212 shall be deposited in the general fund of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-410), as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-134, section 31001(s)) and the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvement Act of 2015 (Pub. L. 114-74, section 701), requires that Federal agencies annually adjust their civil money penalties for inflation according to a specified cost-of-living formula.
</P>
<P>(c) This part explains our procedures for issuing a notice of civil penalty to an employer that has violated section 12 or section 13(c)(5) of the Act, or any regulation issued under those sections; describes the types of violations for which we may impose a penalty and the factors we will consider in assessing the amount of the penalty; outlines the procedure for a person charged with violations to file an exception to the determination that the violations occurred; and summarizes the methods we will follow for collecting and recovering the penalty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25792, June 18, 1975, as amended at 56 FR 8679, Feb. 28, 1991; 66 FR 63503, Dec. 7, 2001; 69 FR 75405, Dec. 16, 2004; 75 FR 28460, May 20, 2010; 81 FR 43451, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 5382, Jan. 18, 2017; 83 FR 13, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 219, Jan. 23, 2019; 85 FR 2298, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2969, Jan. 14, 2021; 86 FR 52987, Sept. 24, 2021; 87 FR 2335, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2217, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1816, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1861, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 579.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.34.0.139.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 579.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part and part 580 of this chapter:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201, <I>et seq.).</I>
</P>
<P><I>Administrative law judge</I> means a person appointed as provided in 5 U.S.C. 3105 and subpart B of part 930 of title 5 of the CFR, and qualified to preside at hearings under 5 U.S.C. 554-557.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, and includes an authorized representative designated by the Administrator to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part and part 580 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> has the meaning given it by 5 U.S.C. 551.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Administrative Law Judge</I> means the Chief Administrative Law Judge, Office of Administrative Law Judges, U.S. Department of Labor, 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes any individual, partnership, corporation, association, business trust, legal representative, or organized group of persons.
</P>
<P><I>Repeated violations</I> has two components. An employer's violation of section 12 or section 13(c) of the Act relating to child labor or any regulation issued pursuant to such sections shall be deemed to be <I>repeated</I> for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the employer has previously violated section 12 or section 13(c) of the Act relating to child labor or any regulation issued pursuant to such sections, provided the employer has previously received notice, through a responsible official of the Wage and Hour Division or otherwise authoritatively, that the employer allegedly was in violation of the provisions of the Act; or,
</P>
<P>(2) Where a court or other tribunal has made a finding that an employer has previously violated section 12 or section 13(c) of the Act relating to child labor or any regulation issued pursuant to such sections, unless an appeal therefrom which has been timely filed is pending before a court or other tribunal with jurisdiction to hear the appeal, or unless the finding has been set aside or reversed by such appellate tribunal.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, or an authorized representative of the Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>Serious injury</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Permanent loss or substantial impairment of one of the senses (sight, hearing, taste, smell, tactile sensation);
</P>
<P>(2) Permanent loss or substantial impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty, including the loss of all or part of an arm, leg, foot, hand or other body part; or,
</P>
<P>(3) Permanent paralysis or substantial impairment that causes loss of movement or mobility of an arm, leg, foot, hand or other body part.
</P>
<P><I>Solicitor of Labor</I> means the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, and includes attorneys designated by the Solicitor to perform functions of the Solicitor under this part and part 780 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Willful violations</I> under this section has several components. An employer's violation of section 12 or section 13(c) of the Act relating to child labor or any regulation issued pursuant to such sections, shall be deemed to be willful for purposes of this section where the employer knew that its conduct was prohibited by the Act or showed reckless disregard for the requirements of the Act. All of the facts and circumstances surrounding the violation shall be taken into account in determining whether a violation was willful. In addition, for purposes of this section, the employer's receipt of advice from a responsible official of the Wage and Hour Division to the effect that the conduct in question is not lawful, among other situations, can be sufficient to show that the employer's conduct is knowing, but is not automatically dispositive. For purposes of this section, reckless disregard of the requirements of the Act means, among other situations, that the employer should have inquired further into whether its conduct was in compliance with the Act and failed to make adequate further inquiry.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 28461, May 20, 2010, as amended at 86 FR 52987, Sept. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 579.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.34.0.139.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 579.3   Violations for which child labor civil money penalties may be assessed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What constitutes the violation.</I> Each of the following constitutes a violation of the Act and/or the Secretary's regulations for which a penalty as provided by section 16(e) of the Act and this part may be imposed, unless employment of the minor or minors referred to is shown to come within a specific exemption or exception described in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Each shipment or delivery for shipment in commerce by a producer, manufacturer, or dealer of any goods produced in an establishment situated in the United States in or about which, within thirty days prior to the removal of such goods therefrom, there has been employed any minor as described in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Each employment by an employer of any minor as described in paragraph (b) of this section, for any period in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce or in any enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce;
</P>
<P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) The failure by an employer employing any minor for whom records must be kept under any provision of part 516 of this title to maintain and preserve, as required by such provision, such records concerning the date of the minor's birth and concerning the proof of the minor's age as specified therein; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The failure by an employer employing any minor subject to any provision of 29 CFR part 570, to take or cause to be taken such action as is necessary to assure compliance with all requirements of such provision which, by the regulations in such part, are made conditions for lawful employment of such minor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minors whose employment may result in violation.</I> The violations described in paragraph (a) may result from employment of any of the following minors as described:
</P>
<P>(1) Any minor under the age of 18 years in any occupation (other than in agriculture) in which employment, as set forth in subpart E of part 570 of this chapter, has been found and declared by the Secretary to be particularly hazardous for or detrimental to the health or well-being of minors below such age;
</P>
<P>(2) Any minor under the age of 16 years:
</P>
<P>(i) In agriculture during school hours for the school district where such minor is living while so employed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In agriculture in any occupation found and declared by the Secretary as set forth in subpart E-1 of part 570 of this chapter, to be particularly hazardous for the employment of minors below such age; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In any manufacturing or mining occupation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In any other occupation other than in agriculture unless it is established that such minor is at least 14 years of age and the employment of such minor in such occupation is specifically permitted by and in accord with regulations of the Secretary as set forth in subpart C of part 570 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Any minor under the age of 14 years:
</P>
<P>(i) In any occupation other than in agriculture; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In agriculture, outside of school hours for the school district where such minor is living while so employed, unless it is established either:
</P>
<P>(A) That such minor is not less than 12 years of age <I>and</I> either (<I>1</I>) that such employment is with the written consent of a parent or person standing in place of a parent of such minor, or (<I>2</I>) that such employment is on the same farm where such parent or person is also employed; or
</P>
<P>(B) That such minor, if less than 12 years of age, is employed as described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) or (b)(4)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any minor under the age of 12 years, unless it is established that such minor is employed in agriculture outside of school hours for the school district where such minor is living while so employed, and:
</P>
<P>(i) Is employed by a parent or by a person standing in place of a parent of such minor, on a farm owned or operated by such parent or person; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is employed with the written consent of a parent or person standing in place of a parent of such minor, on a farm where, because of the provisions of section 13(a)(6) of the Act, none of the employees are required to be paid at the wage rate prescribed by section 6(a)(5) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions and exceptions.</I> Conduct which otherwise might constitute a violation of the Act as described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be shown to be not violative of the child labor provisions by evidence that a specific exemption or exception provided in the Act makes such conduct permissible. Thus, the Act provides:
</P>
<P>(1) That none of the child labor provisions of section 12 shall apply to: (i) Any child employed as an actor or performer in motion pictures or theatrical productions, or in radio or television productions; (ii) any employee engaged in the delivery of newspapers to the consumer; (iii) any homeworker engaged in the making of wreaths composed principally of natural holly, pine, cedar, or other evergreens (including the harvesting of the evergreens or other forest products used in making such wreaths); or (iv) any employee whose services during the workweek are performed in a workplace within a foreign country or within territory under the jurisdiction of the United States other than the States, territories, and possessions listed in section 13(f) of the Act (see Act, sections 13(c)(3), 13(d), 13(f));
</P>
<P>(2) That, with respect to the violations described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, any such shipment or delivery for shipment of such goods by a purchaser who acquired them in good faith in reliance on written assurance from the producer, manufacturer, or dealer that the goods were produced in compliance with the requirements of section 12 of the Act, and who acquired such goods for value without notice of any such violation, shall not be deemed prohibited (see Act, section 12(a) and 29 CFR part 789);
</P>
<P>(3) That, with respect to violations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section resulting from employment of minors as described in paragraph (b) (2)(iv), a parent or person standing in place of a parent may lawfully employ his or her own child or a child in his or her custody under the age of 16 years in an occupation <I>other than:</I> (i) Manufacturing or (ii) mining or (iii) an occupation found and declared by the Secretary of Labor to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children between the ages of 16 and 18 years or detrimental to their health or well-being, and an employer may lawfully employ a young worker between 14 and 16 years of age in an occupation permitted and under conditions prescribed by 29 CFR part 570, subpart C;
</P>
<P>(4) That, with respect to violations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section resulting from employment of minors in agriculture as described in paragraph (b)(2)(iii), a parent or person standing in place of a parent may lawfully employ on a farm owned or operated by such parent or person, his or her own child or a child in his or her custody under the age of 16 years in an occupation in agriculture found and declared by the Secretary of Labor to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children below such age;
</P>
<P>(5) That, with respect to violations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section resulting from employment of minors in agriculture as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii), employment of minors 12 or 13 years of age is lawful under the conditions prescribed in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A) of this section and employment of minors under 12 years of age is lawful under the conditions prescribed in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(6) That, with respect to violations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section resulting from employment of minors in agriculture as described in paragraph (b)(4), employment of minors under 12 years of age is lawful under the conditions prescribed in paragraph (b)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25792, June 18, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 26836, June 29, 1976; 69 FR 75405, Dec. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 579.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.34.0.139.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 579.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 579.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.34.0.139.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 579.5   Determining the amount of the penalty and assessing the penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative determination of the amount of the civil penalty for each employee who was the subject of a violation of section 12 or section 13(c) of the Act relating to child labor or of any regulation under those sections will be based on the available evidence of the violation or violations and will take into consideration the size of the business of the person charged and the gravity of the violations as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the amount of such penalty there shall be considered the appropriateness of such penalty to the size of the business of the person charged with the violation or violations, taking into account the number of employees employed by that person (and if the employment is in agriculture, the man-days of hired farm labor used in pertinent calendar quarters), dollar volume of sales or business done, amount of capital investment and financial resources, and such other information as may be available relative to the size of the business of such person.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the amount of such penalty there shall be considered the appropriateness of such penalty to the gravity of the violation or violations, taking into account, among other things, any history of prior violations; any evidence of willfulness or failure to take reasonable precautions to avoid violations; the number of minors illegally employed; the age of the minors so employed and records of the required proof of age; the occupations in which the minors were so employed; exposure of such minors to hazards and any resultant injury to such minors; the duration of such illegal employment; and, as appropriate, the hours of the day in which it occurred and whether such employment was during or outside school hours.
</P>
<P>(d) Based on all the evidence available, including the investigation history of the person so charged and the degree of willfulness involved in the violation, it shall further be determined, where appropriate,
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the evidence shows that the violation is “de minimis” and that the person so charged has given credible assurance of future compliance, and whether a civil penalty in the circumstances is necessary to achieve the objectives of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the evidence shows that the person so charged had no previous history of child labor violations, that the violations themselves involved no intentional or heedless exposure of any minor to any obvious hazard or detriment to health or well-being and were inadvertent, and that the person so charged has given credible assurance of future compliance, and whether a civil penalty in the circumstances is necessary to achieve the objectives of the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) An administrative determination of the amount of the civil money penalty for a particular violation or particular violations of section 12 or section 13(c) relating to child labor or any regulation issued under those sections shall become final 15 days after receipt of the notice of penalty by certified mail by the person so charged unless such person has, pursuant to § 580.6 filed with the Secretary an exception to the determination that the violation or violations for which the penalty is imposed occurred.
</P>
<P>(f) A determination of the penalty made in an administrative proceeding after opportunity for hearing as provided in section 16(e) of the Act and pursuant to Part 580 of this chapter shall be final.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25792, June 18, 1975, as amended at 56 FR 8679, Feb. 28, 1991; 66 FR 63503, Dec. 7, 2001; 75 FR 28461, May 20, 2010; 81 FR 43451, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="580" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 580—CIVIL MONEY PENALTIES—PROCEDURES FOR ASSESSING AND CONTESTING PENALTIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 9a, 203, 209, 211, 212, 213(c), 216; Reorg. Plan No. 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263, 5 U.S.C. App; secs. 25, 29, 88 Stat. 72, 76; Secretary's Order 01-2014 (Dec. 19, 2014), 79 FR 77527 (Dec. 24, 2014); 5 U.S.C. 500, 503, 551, 559; 103 Stat. 938.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 24991, May 31, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 580.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (52 Stat. 1060 as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Administrative law judge</I> means a person appointed as provided in 5 U.S.C. 3105 and subpart B of part 930 of title 5 of the CFR, and qualified to preside at hearings under 5 U.S.C. 554-557.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, and includes any official of the Wage and Hour Division authorized by the Administrator to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part and parts 578 and 579 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Administrative Law Judge</I> means the Chief Administrative Law Judge, Office of the Administrative Law Judges, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes any individual, partnership, corporation, association, business trust, legal representative, or organized group of persons.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, or a designated representative of the Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>Solicitor of Labor</I> means the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, and includes attorneys of the Office of the Solicitor authorized by the Solicitor to perform functions of the Solicitor under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24991, May 31, 1991, as amended at 82 FR 2230, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.2   Applicability of procedures and rules.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures and rules contained in this part prescribe the administrative process for assessment of civil money penalties for any violation of the child labor provisions at section 12 of the Act and any regulation thereunder as set forth in part 579 of this chapter, and for assessment of civil money penalties for any violation of the tip retention provisions of section 3(m)(2)(B) or any repeated or willful violation of the minimum wage provisions of section 6 or the overtime provisions of section 7 of the Act or the regulations thereunder set forth in 29 CFR subtitle B, chapter V. The substantive requirements for assessment of civil money penalties are set forth at 29 CFR part 579 (child labor) and part 578 (minimum wage and overtime).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24991, May 31, 1991, as amended at 86 FR 52987, Sept. 24, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.3   Written notice of determination required.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Administrator determines that there has been a violation by any person of section 12 of the Act relating to child labor or any regulation thereunder as set forth in part 579 of this chapter, or determines that there has been a violation by any person of section 3(m)(2)(B), or determines that there has been a repeated or willful violation by any person of section 6 or section 7 of the Act, and determines that imposition of a civil money penalty for such violation is appropriate, the Administrator shall issue and serve a notice of such penalty on such person in person or by certified mail. Where service by certified mail is not accepted by the party, notice shall be deemed received on the date of attempted delivery. Where service is not accepted, the Administrator may exercise discretion to serve the notice by regular mail.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24991, May 31, 1991, as amended at 86 FR 52987, Sept. 24, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.4   Contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>The notice required by § 580.3 of this part shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Set forth the determination of the Administrator as to the amount of the penalty and the reason or reasons therefor;
</P>
<P>(b) Set forth the right to take exception to the assessment of penalties and set forth the right to request a hearing on such determination;
</P>
<P>(c) Inform any affected person or persons that in the absence of a timely exception to a determination of penalty and a request for a hearing received within 15 days of the date of receipt of the notice, the determination of the Administrator shall become final and unappealable; and
</P>
<P>(d) Set forth the time and method for taking exception to the determination and requesting a hearing, and the procedures relating thereto, as set forth in § 580.6 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.5   Finality of notice.</HEAD>
<P>If the person charged with violations does not, within 15 days after receipt of the notice, take exception to the determination that the violation or violations for which the penalty is imposed occurred, the administrative determination by the Administrator of the amount of such penalty shall be deemed final and not subject to administrative or judicial review. Upon the determination becoming final in such a manner, collection and recovery of the penalty shall be instituted pursuant to § 580.18.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 75405, Dec. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.6   Exception to determination of penalty and request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person desiring to take exception to the determination of penalty, or to seek judicial review, shall request an administrative hearing pursuant to this part. The exception shall be in writing to the official who issued the determination at the Wage and Hour Division address appearing on the determination notice, and must be received no later than 15 days after the date of receipt of the notice referred to in § 580.3. No additional time shall be added where service of the determination of penalties or of the exception thereto is made by mail. If such a request for an administrative hearing is timely filed, the Administrator's determination shall be inoperative unless and until the case is dismissed or the Administrative Law Judge issues a decision affirming the determination.
</P>
<P>(b) No particular form is prescribed for any exception to determination of penalty and request for hearing permitted by this part. However, any such request shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be dated;
</P>
<P>(2) Be typewritten or legibly written;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the issue(s) stated in the notice of determination giving rise to such request;
</P>
<P>(4) State the specific reason(s) why the person requesting the hearing believes such determination is in error;
</P>
<P>(5) Be signed by the person making the request or by an authorized representative of such person; and
</P>
<P>(6) Include the address at which such person or authorized representative desires to receive further communications relating thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24991, May 31, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 17222, Apr. 5, 1995; 69 FR 75405, Dec. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="139" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Rules of Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.7   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specifically provided in this subpart, and to the extent they do not conflict with the provisions of this subpart, the Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings Before the Office of Administrative Law Judges established by the Secretary at 29 CFR part 18 shall apply to administrative proceedings under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of the Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings Before the Office of Administrative Law Judges (29 CFR part 18, subpart B) shall apply except as follows: Notwithstanding the provisions of subpart B, including the hearsay rule (§ 18.802), testimony of current or former Department of Labor employees concerning information obtained in the course of investigations and conclusions thereon, as well as any documents contained in Department of Labor files (other than the investigation file concerning the violation(s) as to which the penalty in litigation has been assessed), shall be admissible in proceedings under this subpart. Nothing in this paragraph is intended to limit the admissibility of any evidence which is otherwise admissible under 29 CFR part 18, subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.8   Service and computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of documents under this subpart shall be made to the individual, an officer of a corporation, or attorney of record in accordance with 29 CFR part 18.
</P>
<P>(b) Two (2) copies of all pleadings and other documents required for any administrative proceeding provided by this subpart shall be served on the attorneys for the Department of Labor. One copy shall be served on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210, and one copy on the attorney representing the Department in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Time will be computed in accordance with part 18.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24991, May 31, 1991, as amended at 86 FR 1787, an. 11, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.139.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.9   Commencement of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Each administrative proceeding permitted under the Act and these regulations shall be commenced upon receipt of a timely request for hearing filed in accordance with § 580.6 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="140" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Referral for Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.10   Referral to Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely exception to a determination of penalties and request for a hearing filed pursuant to and in accordance with § 580.6 of this subpart, the Administrator, by the Associate Solicitor for the Division of Fair Labor Standards or by the Regional Solicitor for the Region in which the action arose, shall, by Order of Reference, refer the matter to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, for a determination in an administrative proceeding as provided herein. A copy of the notice of administrative determination and of the request for hearing shall be attached to the Order of Reference and shall, respectively, be given the effect of a complaint and answer thereto for purposes of the administrative proceeding, subject to any amendment that may be permitted under this subpart and 29 CFR part 18.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the Order of Reference and attachments thereto, together with a copy of this part, shall be served by counsel for the Administrator upon the person requesting the hearing, in the manner provided in § 580.8 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.11   Appointment of Administrative Law Judge and notification of prehearing conference and hearing date.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt from the Administrator of an Order of Reference, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall appoint an Administrative Law Judge to hear the case. The Administrative Law Judge shall notify all interested parties of the time and place of a prehearing conference and of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.12   Decision and Order of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Law Judge shall render a decision on the issues referred by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be limited to a determination of whether the respondent has committed a violation of section 12, a violation of section 3(m)(2)(B), or a repeated or willful violation of section 6 or section 7 of the Act, and the appropriateness of the penalty assessed by the Administrator. The Administrative Law Judge shall not render determinations on the legality of a regulatory provision or the constitutionality of a statutory provision.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall include a statement of findings and conclusions, with reasons and basis therefor, upon each material issue presented on the record. The decision shall also include an appropriate order which may affirm, deny, reverse, or modify, in whole or in part, the determination of the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrative Law Judge shall serve copies of the decision on each of the parties.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall constitute the final order of the Secretary unless, pursuant to § 580.13 of this part, there is an appeal to the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24991, May 31, 1991, as amended at 86 FR 52987, Sept. 24, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.13   Procedures for appeals to the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring review of a decision of the Administrative Law Judge, including judicial review, must file a petition for review with the Department's Administrative Review Board (Board). To be effective, such petition must be received by the Board within 30 days of the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge. Copies of the appeal shall be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge. If such a petition for review is timely filed, the decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be inoperative unless and until the Board dismisses the appeal or issues a decision affirming the decision of the Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(b) All documents submitted to the Board shall be filed with the Administrative Review Board in accordance with 29 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(c) Documents are not deemed filed with the Board until actually received by the Board, either on or before the due date. No additional time shall be added where service of a document requiring action within a prescribed time was made by mail.
</P>
<P>(d) A copy of each document filed with the Board shall be served upon all other parties involved in the proceeding in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. Service by mail is deemed effected at the time of mailing to the last known address of the party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 75405, Dec. 16, 2004, as amended at 86 FR 1787, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.14   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.15   Responsibility of the Office of Administrative Law Judges for the administrative record.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a petition seeking review of the Decision and Order of an Administrative Law Judge, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly forward a copy of the complete hearing record to the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.16   Decision of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>The Board's decision shall be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1787, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.17   Retention of official record.</HEAD>
<P>The official record of every completed administrative hearing provided by this part shall be maintained and filed under the custody and control of the Chief Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.35.0.140.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.18   Collection and recovery of penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the determination of the amount of any civil money penalty provided for in this part becomes final under § 580.5 in accordance with the administrative assessment thereof, or pursuant to the decision and order of an Administrative Law Judge in an administrative proceeding as provided in § 580.12, or the decision of the Board pursuant to § 580.16, the amount of the penalty as thus determined is immediately due and payable to the U.S. Department of Labor. The person assessed such penalty shall remit promptly the amount thereof, as finally determined, to the Secretary. Payment shall be made by certified check or money order made payable and delivered or mailed according to the instructions provided by the Department; through the electronic pay portal located at <I>www.pay.gov</I> or any successor system; or by any additional payment method deemed acceptable by the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to section 16(e) of the Act, the amount of the penalty, finally determined as provided in § 580.5, § 580.12 or § 580.16, may be:
</P>
<P>(1) Deducted from any sums owing by the United States to the person charged. To effect this, any agency having sums owing from the United States to such person shall, on the request of the Secretary, withhold the specific amount of the penalty from the sums owed to the person so charged and remit the amount to the Secretary to satisfy the amount of the penalty assessed;
</P>
<P>(2) Recovered in a civil action brought by the Secretary in any court of competent jurisdiction, in which litigation the Secretary shall be represented by the Solicitor of Labor. When the person against whom a final determination assessing a civil money penalty has been made does not voluntarily remit the amount of such penalty to the Secretary within a reasonable time after notification to do so, the Solicitor of Labor may institute such an action to recover the amount of the penalty; or
</P>
<P>(3) Ordered by the court, in an action brought for a violation of section 15(a)(4) or a repeated or willful violation of section 15(a)(2), to be paid to the Secretary. Any such unlawful act or practice may be enjoined by the United States district courts under section 17 upon court action, filed by the Secretary; and failure of the person so enjoined to comply with the court order may subject such person to contempt proceedings. A willful violation of sections 6, 7, or 12 of the Act may subject the offender to the penalties provided in section 16(a) of the Act, enforced by the Department of Justice in criminal proceedings in the United States courts. In any of the foregoing civil or criminal proceedings, the court may order the payment to the Secretary of the civil penalty finally assessed by the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24991, May 31, 1991, as amended at 69 FR 75406, Dec. 16, 2004; 84 FR 59931, Nov. 7, 2019; 86 FR 52987, Sept. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="697" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 697—INDUSTRIES IN AMERICAN SAMOA
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 205, 206, 208.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 697.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.36.0.141.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 697.1   Industry definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Government employees.</I> This industry includes all activities of employees of the Government of American Samoa. This industry does not include any employees of the United States or its agencies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fish canning and processing.</I> This industry shall include the canning, freezing, preserving, and other processing of any kind of fish, shellfish, and other aquatic forms of animal life, the manufacture of any by-product thereof, and the manufacture of cans and related activities. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petroleum marketing.</I> This industry shall include the wholesale marketing and distribution of gasoline, kerosene, lubricating oils, diesel and marine fuels, and other petroleum products, bunkering operations in connection therewith, and repair and maintenance of petroleum storage facilities. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Shipping and transportation.</I> This industry shall include the transportation of passengers and cargo by water or by air, and all activities in connection therewith, including storage and lighterage operations: <I>Provided, however,</I> that this industry shall not include the operation of tourist bureaus and of travel and ticket agencies. <I>Provided, further,</I> that this industry shall not include bunkering of petroleum products or activities engaged in by seamen on American vessels which are documented or numbered under the laws of the United States, which operate exclusively between points in the Samoan Islands, and which are not in excess of 350 tons net capacity. Within this industry there shall be three classifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Classification A: Stevedoring, lighterage and maritime shipping agency activities.</I> This classification shall include all employees of employers who engage in each of the following three services: stevedoring, lighterage and maritime shipping agency activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification B: Unloading of fish.</I> This classification shall include the unloading of raw and/or frozen fish from vessels. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Classification C: All other activities.</I> This classification shall include all other activities in the shipping and transportation industry. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Construction.</I> This industry shall include all construction, reconstruction, structural renovation and demolition, on public or private account, of buildings, housing, highways and streets, catchments, dams, and any other structure. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retailing, wholesaling and warehousing.</I> This industry includes all activities in connection with the selling of goods or services at retail, including the operation of retail stores and other retail establishments, the wholesaling and warehousing and other distribution of commodities including but without limitation the wholesaling, warehousing and other distribution activities of jobbers, importers and exporters, manufacturers' sales branches and sales offices engaged in the distribution of products manufactured outside of American Samoa, industrial distributors, mail order establishments, brokers and agents, and public warehouses: <I>Provided, however,</I> that this industry shall not include retailing and wholesaling activities included within other industry wage orders which are applicable in American Samoa. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Bottling, brewing and dairy products.</I> The bottling, brewing and dairy products industry includes the bottling, sale and distribution of malt beverages and soft drinks in bottles and other containers and the processing or recombining of fluid milk and cream for wholesale and retail distribution and the manufacture of malt beverages, butter, natural and processed cheese, condensed and evaporated milk, malted milk, ice cream and frozen desserts; including also any warehousing operation incidental to the above activities of firms engaged in these activities. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Printing.</I> The printing industry is that industry which is engaged in printing, job printing, and duplicating. This industry shall not include printing performed by an employer who publishes a newspaper, magazine, or similar publications. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Publishing.</I> This industry is that industry which is engaged in the publishing of newspapers, magazines, or similar publications other than the publishing of a weekly, semiweekly or daily newspaper with a circulation of less than 4,000, the major part of which circulation is within the county or counties contiguous thereto. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Finance and insurance.</I> The finance and insurance industry includes all banks (whether privately or government owned in whole or in part) and trust companies, credit agencies other than banks, holding companies, other investment companies, collection agencies, brokers and dealers in securities and commodity contracts, as well as carriers of all types of insurance, and insurance agents and brokers. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Ship maintenance.</I> This industry is defined as all work activity associated with ship repair and maintenance, including marine, railway, and dry dock operation. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Hotel.</I> This industry shall include all activities in connection with the operation of hotels (whether privately or government owned in whole or in part), motels, apartment hotels, and tourist courts engaged in providing lodging, with or without meals, for the general public, including such laundry and cleaning and other activities as are engaged in by a hotel or motel or other lodging facility on its own linens or on garments of its guests. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Tour and travel services.</I> This industry shall include the operation of tourist bureaus and of travel and passenger ticket services and agencies: <I>Provided, however,</I> that this industry shall not include the operation of a freight-shipping agency. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Private hospitals and educational institutions.</I> This industry shall include all activities performed in connection with the operation of private hospitals, nursing homes, and related institutions primarily engaged in the care of the sick, the aged or the mentally or physically disabled or for gifted children, preschools, elementary or secondary schools, or institutions of higher education: <I>Provided, however,</I> that this industry shall not include employees of the Government of American Samoa or employees of any agency or corporation of the Government of American Samoa. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Garment manufacturing.</I> This industry is defined as the manufacture from any material of articles of apparel and clothing made by knitting, spinning, crocheting, cutting, sewing, embroidering, dyeing, or any other processes and includes but is not limited to all the following clothing: men's, women's, and children's suits, clothing and other products; hosiery; gloves and mittens; sweaters and other outerwear; swimwear; leather, leather goods, and related products; handkerchief, scarf, and art linen products; shirts; blouses; and underwear; uniforms and work clothing; and includes assembling, tagging, ironing, and packing apparel for shipping. This industry does not include manufacturing, processing or mending of apparel in retail or service establishments, including clothing stores, laundries, and other stores. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Miscellaneous activities.</I> This industry shall include every activity not included in any other industry defined herein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 44968, Aug. 27, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 697.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.36.0.141.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 697.2   Industry wage rates and effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer shall pay to each employee in American Samoa, who in any workweek is engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, or is employed in any enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, as these terms are defined in section 3 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, wages at a rate not less than the minimum rate prescribed in this section for the industries and classifications in which such employee is engaged.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Industry 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Minimum wage 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Effective
<br/>October 3, 2005 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Effective
<br/>October 18, 2005 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Effective
<br/>October 1, 2006 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) Government Employees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$2.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$2.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$2.91 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) Fish Canning and Processing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.26 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) Petroleum Marketing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.85 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(d) Shipping and Transportation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Classification A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.09 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Classification B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.92 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Classification C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.88 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(e) Construction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.60 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(f) Retailing, Wholesaling, and Warehousing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(g) Bottling, Brewing, and Dairy Products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.19 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(h) Printing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Publishing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.63 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(j) Finance and Insurance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.99 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(k) Ship Maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.51 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(l) Hotel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(m) Tour and Travel Services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.48 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(n) Private Hospitals and Educational Institutions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(o) Garment Manufacturing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(p) Miscellaneous Activities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.70</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 57723, Oct. 3, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 697.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.36.0.141.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 697.3   Notices.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer subject to the provisions of § 697.2 shall post in a conspicuous place in each department of his establishment where employees subject to the provisions of § 697.2 are working such notices of this part as shall be prescribed from time to time by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor, and shall give such other notice as the Administrator may prescribe.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 24121, June 15, 1976. Redesignated and amended at 66 FR 44969, Aug. 27, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 697.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.1.36.0.141.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 697.4   Effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>The wage rates specified in § 697.2 shall be effective on October 18, 2005, except as otherwise specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 57724, Oct. 3, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—STATEMENTS OF GENERAL POLICY OR INTERPRETATION NOT DIRECTLY RELATED TO REGULATIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="775" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 775—GENERAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.,</I> 61 Stat. 84, 29 U.S.C. 251 <I>et seq.,</I> 49 Stat. 2036, 41 U.S.C. 35 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 775.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.37.0.141.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 775.0   General enforcement policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to clarify at this time the practices and policies which will guide the administration and enforcement of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201-219), and the Walsh-Healey Act as amended (49 Stat. 2036, 41 U.S.C. 35-45), as affected by the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947 (61 Stat. 84; 29 U.S.C. Sup. 251 <I>et seq.</I>), the following policy is announced effective June 30, 1947.
</P>
<P>(b) The investigation, inspection and enforcement activities of all officers and agencies of the Department of Labor as they relate to the Fair Labor Standards Act and the Walsh-Healey Act will be carried out on the basis that all employers in all industries whose activities are subject to the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act or the Walsh-Healey Act are responsible for strict compliance with the provisions thereof and the regulations issued pursuant thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) Any statements, orders, or instructions inconsistent herewith are rescinded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 3915, June 17, 1947]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 775.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.37.0.141.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 775.1   Advisory interpretations announced by the Administrator.</HEAD>
<P>Advisory interpretations announced by the Administrator serve only to indicate the construction of the law which will guide the Administrator in the performance of his administrative duties unless he is directed otherwise by the authoritative ruling of the courts, or unless he shall subsequently decide that his prior interpretation is incorrect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[11 FR 14099, Dec. 5, 1946]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="776" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 776—INTERPRETATIVE BULLETIN ON THE GENERAL COVERAGE OF THE WAGE AND HOURS PROVISIONS OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT OF 1938
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>15 FR 2925, May 17, 1950, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 776.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.147.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.0   Subpart limited to individual employee coverage.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, which was adopted before the amendments of 1961 and 1966 to the Fair Labor Standards Act, is limited to discussion of general coverage of the Act on the traditional basis of engagement by individual employees “in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce”. The 1961 and 1966 amendments broadened coverage by extending it to other employees on an “enterprise” basis, when “employed in an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” as defined in section 3 (r), (s), of the present Act. Employees covered under the principles discussed in this subpart remain covered under the Act as amended; however, an employee who would not be individually covered under the principles discussed in this subpart may now be subject to the Act if he is employed in a covered enterprise as defined in the amendments. Questions of “enterprise coverage” not answered in published statements of the Department of Labor may be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210 or assistance may be requested from any of the Regional or District Offices of the Division.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 5543, Apr. 3, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="147" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.147" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Individual Employee Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.0a" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.147.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.0a   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and significance of this part.</I> (1) The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (hereinafter referred to as the Act), brings within the general coverage of its wage and hours provisions every employee who is “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> What employees are so engaged must be ascertained in the light of the definitions of “commerce”, “goods”, and “produced” which are set forth in the Act as amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> giving due regard to authoritative interpretations by the courts and to the legislative history of the Act, as amended. Interpretations of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division with respect to this general coverage are set forth in this part to provide “a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it.” 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> These interpretations with respect to the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions of the Act, indicate the construction of the law which the Administrator believes to be correct and which will guide him in the performance of his administrative duties under the Act unless and until he is otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or concludes, upon reexamination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Pub. L. 718, 75th Cong., 3d sess. (52 Stat. 1060), as amended by the Act of June 26, 1940 (Pub. Res. No. 88, 76th Cong., 3d sess., 54 Stat. 616); by Reorganization Plan No. 2 (60 Stat. 1095), effective July 16, 1946; by the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947, approved May 14, 1947 (61 Stat. 84); and by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949, approved October 26, 1949 (Pub. L. 393, 81st Cong., 1st sess., 63 Stat. 910); by Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950 (15 FR 3174), effective May 24, 1950; and by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1955, approved August 12, 1955 (Pub. L. 381, 84th Cong., 1st sess., C. 867, 69 Stat. 711).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The requirement of section 6 as to minimum wages is: “Every employer shall pay to each of his employees who is engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce wages at the following rates—” (not less than $1.00 an hour, except in Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands to which special provisions apply).
</P>
<P>The requirement of section 7 as to maximum hours which an employee may work without receiving extra pay for overtime is: “no employer shall employ any of his employees who is engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce for a workweek longer than forty hours, unless such employee receives compensation for his employment in excess of the hours above specified at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed.”</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Pub. L. 393, 81st Cong., 1st sess. (63 Stat. 910). These amendments, effective January 25, 1950, leave the existing law unchanged except as to provisions specifically amended and the addition of certain new provisions. Section 3(b) of the Act, defining “commerce”, and section 3(j), defining “produced”, were specifically amended as explained in §§ 776.13 and 776.17(a) herein.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 138.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Under the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947, 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> interpretations of the Administrator may, under certain circumstances, be controlling in determining the rights and liabilities of employers and employees. The interpretations contained in this bulletin are interpretations on which reliance may be placed as provided in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act, so long as they remain effective and are not modified, amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial authority to be incorrect. However, the omission to discuss a particular problem in this part or in interpretations supplementing it should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Administrator with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice or enforcement policy.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Pub. L. 49, 80th Cong., 1st sess. (61 Stat. 84), discussed in part 790 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions and child labor provisions not discussed.</I> This part does not deal with the various specific exemptions provided in the statute, under which certain employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce and thus within the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions are wholly or partially excluded from the protection of the Act's minimum-wage and overtime-pay requirements. Some of these exemptions are self-executing; others call for definitions or other action by the Administrator. Regulations and interpretations relating to specific exemptions may be found in other parts of this chapter. Coverage and exemptions under the child labor provisions of the Act are discussed in a separate interpretative bulletin (§§ 570.101 to 570.121 of this chapter) issued by the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Earlier interpretations superseded.</I> All general and specific interpretations issued prior to July 11, 1947, with respect to the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions of the Act were rescinded and withdrawn by § 776.0(b) of the general statement on this subject, published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on that date as part 776 of this chapter (12 FR 4583). To the extent that interpretations contained in such general statement or in releases, opinion letters, and other statements issued on or after July 11, 1947, are inconsistent with the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949, they do not continue in effect after January 24, 1950. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> Effective on the date of its publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> subpart A of this interpretative bulletin replaces and supersedes the general statement previously published as part 776 of this chapter, which statement is withdrawn. All other administrative rulings, interpretations, practices and enforcement policies relating to the general coverage of the wages and hours provisions of the Act and not withdrawn prior to such date are, to the extent that they are inconsistent with or in conflict with the principles stated in this interpretative bulletin, hereby rescinded and withdrawn.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Section 16(c) of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949 (63 Stat. 910) provides:
</P>
<P>“Any order, regulation, or interpretation of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division or of the Secretary of Labor, and any agreement entered into by the Administrator or the Secretary, in effect under the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, on the effective date of this Act, shall remain in effect as an order, regulation, interpretation, or agreement of the Administrator or the Secretary, as the case may be, pursuant to this Act, except to the extent that any such order, regulation, interpretation, or agreement may be inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, or may from time to time be amended, modified, or rescinded by the Administrator or the Secretary, as the case may be, in accordance with the provisions of this Act.”</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 2925, May 17, 1950, as amended at 21 FR 1448, Mar. 6, 1956. Redesignated at 35 FR 5543, Apr. 3, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="148" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.148" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>How Coverage Is Determined</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.148.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.1   General interpretative guides.</HEAD>
<P>The congressional policy under which employees “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” are brought within the general coverage of the Act's wage and hours provisions is stated in section 2 of the Act. This section makes it clear that the congressional power to regulate interstate and foreign commerce is exercised in this Act in order to remedy certain evils, namely, “labor conditions detrimental to the maintenance of the minimum standards of living necessary for health, efficiency, and the general well being of workers” which Congress found “(a) causes commerce and the channels and instrumentalities of commerce to be used to perpetuate such labor conditions among the workers of the several States; (b) burdens commerce and the free flow of goods in commerce; (c) constitutes an unfair method of competition in commerce; (d) leads to labor disputes burdening and obstructing commerce and the free flow of goods in commerce and (e) interferes with the orderly and fair marketing of goods in commerce.” In carrying out these broad remedial purposes, however, the Congress did not choose to make the scope of the Act coextensive in all respects with the limits of its power over commerce or to apply it to all activities affecting commerce. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Congress delimited the area in which the Act operates by providing for certain exceptions and exemptions, and by making wage-hour coverage applicable only to employees who are “engaged in” either “commerce”, as defined in the Act, or “production” of “goods” for such commerce, within the meaning of the Act's definitions of these terms. The Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949 indicate an intention to restrict somewhat the category of employees within the reach of the Act under the former definition of “produced” and to expand to some extent the group covered under the former definition of “commerce.” In his interpretations, the Administrator will endeavor to give effect to both the broad remedial purposes of the Act and the limitations on its application, seeking guidance in his task from the terms of the statute, from authoritative court decisions, and from the legislative history of the Act, as amended. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> 317 U.S. 564; <I>10 East 40th St. Bldg. Co.</I> v. <I>Callus,</I> 325 U.S. 578; <I>A. H. Phillips, Inc.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52 (C.A. 8); <I>Armstrong</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 161 F. 2d 515 (C.A. 1); <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11 (C.A. 1).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Footnote references to some of the relevant court decisions are made for the assistance of readers who may be interested in such decisions.
</P>
<P>Footnote reference to the legislative history of the 1949 amendments are made at points in this part where it is believed they may be helpful. References to the <I>Statement of the Managers on the part of the House,</I> appended to the Conference Report on the amendments (H. Rept. No. 1453, 81st Cong., 1st sess.) are abbreviated: H. Mgrs. St. 1949, p. __. References to the <I>Statement of a majority of the Senate Conferees,</I> 95 Cong. Rec., October 19, 1949 at 15372-15377 are abbreviated: Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec. References to the Congressional Record are to the 1949 daily issues, the permanent volumes being unavailable at the time this part was prepared.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.148.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.2   Employee basis of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The coverage of the Act's wage and hours provisions as described in sections 6 and 7 does not deal in a blanket way with industries as a whole. Thus, in section 6, it is provided that every employer shall pay the statutory minimum wage to “each of his employees who is engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.” It thus becomes primarily an individual matter as to the nature of the employment of the particular employee. Some employers in a given industry may have no employees covered by the Act; other employers in the industry may have some employees covered by the Act, and not others; still other employers in the industry may have all their employees within the Act's coverage. If, after considering all relevant factors, employees are found to be engaged in covered work, their employer cannot avoid his obligations to them under the Act on the ground that he is not “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.” To the extent that his employees are so engaged, he is himself so engaged. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517. See also <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> 317 U.S. 564; <I>McLeod</I> v. <I>Threlkeld,</I> 319 U.S. 491; <I>Mabee</I> v. <I>White Plains Pub. Co.,</I> 327 U.S. 178.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) In determining whether an individual employee is within the coverage of the wage and hours provisions, however, the relationship of an employer's business to commerce or to the production of goods for commerce may sometimes be an important indication of the character of the employee's work. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> It is apparent, too, from the 1949 amendment to the definition of “produced” and its legislative history that an examination of the character of the employer's business will in some borderline situations be necessary in determining whether the employees' occupation bears the requisite close relationship to production for commerce. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 325 U.S. 679; <I>10 E. 40th St. Bldg. Co.</I> v. <I>Callus,</I> 325 U.S. 578; <I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126; <I>Donovan</I> v. <I>Shell Oil Co.,</I> 168 F. 2d 229 (C.A. 4); <I>Hertz Driveurself Stations</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 150 F. 2d 923 (C.A. 8); <I>Horton</I> v. <I>Wilson &amp; Co.,</I> 223 N.C. 71, 25 S.E. 2d 437.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 14, 15; Sen. St. 1949 Cong. Rec. 15372.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.148.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.3   Persons engaging in both covered and noncovered activities.</HEAD>
<P>The Act applies to employees “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” without regard to whether such employees, or their employer, are also engaged in other activities which would not bring them within the coverage of the Act. The Act makes no distinction as to the percentage, volume, or amount of activities of either employee or employer which constitute engaging in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. Sections 6 and 7 refer to “each” and “any” employee so engaged, and section 15(a)(1) prohibits the introduction into the channels of interstate or foreign commerce of “any” goods in the production of which “any” employee was employed in violation of section 6 or section 7. Although employees doing work in connection with mere isolated, sporadic, or occasional shipments in commerce of insubstantial amounts of goods will not be considered covered by virtue of that fact alone, the law is settled that every employee whose engagement in activities in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, even though small in amount, is regular and recurring, is covered by the Act. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> This does not, however, necessarily mean that an employee who at some particular time may engage in work which brings him within the coverage of the Act is, by reason of that fact, thereafter indefinitely entitled to its benefits.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> <I>United States</I> v. <I>Darby,</I> 312 U.S. 100; <I>Mabee</I> v. <I>White Plains Pub. Co.,</I> 327 U.S. 178; <I>Schmidt</I> v. <I>Peoples Telephone Union of Maryville, Missouri,</I> 138 F. 2d 13 (C.A. 8); <I>New Mexico Public Service Co.</I> v. <I>Engel,</I> 145 F. 2d 636 (C.A. 10); <I>Sun Pub. Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 140 F. 2d 445 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 322 U.S. 728; <I>Davis</I> v. <I>Goodman Lumber Co.,</I> 133 F. 2d 52 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.148.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.4   Workweek standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The workweek is to be taken as the standard in determining the applicability of the Act. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, if in any workweek an employee is engaged in both covered and noncovered work he is entitled to both the wage and hours benefits of the Act for all the time worked in that week, unless exempted therefrom by some specific provision of the Act. The proportion of his time spent by the employee in each type of work is not material. If he spends any part of the workweek in covered work he will be considered on exactly the same basis as if he had engaged exclusively in such work for the entire period. Accordingly, the total number of hours which he works during the workweek at both types of work must be compensated for in accordance with the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> See <I>Gordon's Transports</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 162 F. 2d 203 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 332 U.S. 774; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Fox-Pelletier Detective Agency,</I> 4 W.H. Cases 452 (W.D. Tenn.), 8 Labor Cases 62,219; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Black Diamond Coal Mining Co.,</I> 59 F. Supp. 348 (W.D. Ky.); <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Knox,</I> 42 F. Supp. 948 (S.D. Ga.); <I>Roberg</I> v. <I>Henry Phipps Estate,</I> 156 F. 2d 958 (C.A. 2). For a definition of the workweek, see § 778.2(c) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) It is thus recognized that an employee may be subject to the Act in one workweek and not in the next. It is likewise true that some employees of an employer may be subject to the Act and others not. But the burden of effecting segregation between covered and noncovered work as between particular workweeks for a given employee or as between different groups of employees is upon the employer. Where covered work is being regularly or recurrently performed by his employees, and the employer seeks to segregate such work and thereby relieve himself of his obligations under sections 6 and 7 with respect to particular employees in particular workweeks, he should be prepared to show, and to demonstrate from his records, that such employees in those workweeks did not engage in any activities in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce, which would necessarily include a showing that such employees did not handle or work on goods or materials shipped in commerce or used in production of goods for commerce, or engage in any other work closely related and directly essential to production of goods for commerce. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> The Division's experience has indicated that much so-called “segregation” does not satisfy these tests and that many so-called “segregated” employees are in fact engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See <I>Guess</I> v. <I>Montague,</I> 140 F. 2d 500 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.148.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.5   Coverage not dependent on method of compensation.</HEAD>
<P>The Act's individual employee coverage is not limited to employees working on an hourly wage. The requirements of section 6 as to minimum wages are that “each” employee described therein shall be paid wages at a rate not less than a specified rate “an hour”. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> This does not mean that employees cannot be paid on a piecework basis or on a salary, commission, or other basis; it merely means that whatever the basis on which the workers are paid, whether it be monthly, weekly, or on a piecework basis, they must receive at least the equivalent of the minimum hourly rate. “Each” and “any” employee obviously and necessarily includes one compensated by a unit of time, by the piece, or by any other measurement. 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> Regulations prescribed by the Administrator (part 516 of this chapter) provide for the keeping of records in such form as to enable compensation on a piecework or other basis to be translated into an hourly rate. 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Special exceptions are made for Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> <I>United States</I> v. <I>Rosenwasser,</I> 323 U.S. 360.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> For methods of translating other forms of compensation into an hourly rate for purposes of sections 6 and 7, see parts 531 and 778 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 5543, Apr. 3, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.148.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.6   Coverage not dependent on place of work.</HEAD>
<P>Except for the general geographical limitations discussed in § 776.7, the Act contains no prescription as to the place where the employee must work in order to come within its coverage. It follows that employees otherwise coming within the terms of the Act are entitled to its benefits whether they perform their work at home, in the factory, or elsewhere. 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> The specific provisions of the Act relative to regulation of homework serve to emphasize this fact. 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>American Needlecrafts,</I> 139 F. 2d 60 (C.A. 6); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Twyeffort Inc.,</I> 158 F. 2d 944 (C.A. 2); <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Homeworkers' Handicraft Cooperative,</I> 176 F. 2d 633 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> See 6(a)(2); Sec. 11(d).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.148.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.7   Geographical scope of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The geographical areas within which the employees are to be deemed “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” within the meaning of the Act, and thus within its coverage are governed by definitions in section 3 (b), (c), and (j). In the definition of “produced” in section 3(j), “production” is expressly confined to described employments “in any State.” (See § 776.15 (a).) “Commerce” is defined to mean described activities “among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.” (See § 776.8.) “State” is defined in section 3(c) to mean “any State of the United States or the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States.”
</P>
<P>(b) Under the definitions in paragraph (a) of this section, employees within the District of Columbia; Puerto Rico; the Virgin Islands; Outer Continental Shelf lands defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (ch. 345, 67 Stat. 462, 43 U.S.C. 1331); American Samoa; Guam; Wake Island; Enewetok Atoll; Kwajalein Atoll; Johnston Island; and the Canal Zone are dealt with on the same basis as employees working in any of the 50 States. 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> Congress did not exercise the national legislative power over the District of Columbia or the Territories or possessions referred to by extending the Act to purely local commerce within them.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> An amendment to the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, 71 Stat. 514 (approved Aug. 30, 1957) provides that no employer shall be subject to any liability or punishment under the Act with respect to work performed at any time in work places excluded from the Act's coverage by this law or for work performed prior to Nov. 29, 1957, on Guam, Wake Island, or the Canal Zone; or for work performed prior to the establishment, by the Secretary, of a minimum wage rate applicable to such work in American Samoa. Work performed by employees in “a work place within a foreign country or within territory under the jurisdiction of the United States” other than those enumerated in this paragraph is exempt by this amendment from coverage under the Act. When part of the work performed by an employee for an employer in any workweek is covered work performed in any State, it makes no difference where the remainder of such work is performed; the employee is entitled to the benefits of the Act for the entire workweek unless he comes within some specific exemption. The reference in 71 Stat. 514 to liability for work performed in American Samoa is an extension of the relief granted by the American Samoa Labor Standards Amendments of 1956 (29 U.S.C. Supp. IV, secs. 206, 213, and 216).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 2925, May 17, 1950, as amended at 35 FR 5543, Apr. 3, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="149" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.149" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Engaging “In Commerce”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.149.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.8   The statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The activities constituting “commerce” within the meaning of the phrase “engaged in commerce” in sections 6 and 7 of the Act are defined in section 3(b) as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Commerce</I> means trade, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication among the several States, or between any State and any place outside thereof. 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/></P></EXTRACT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> As amended by section 3(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949.</P></FTNT>
<FP>As has been noted in § 776.7, the word “State” in this definition refers not only to any of the fifty States but also to the District of Columbia and to any Territory or possession of the United States.
</FP>
<P>(b) It should be observed that the term <I>commerce</I> is very broadly defined. The definition does not limit the term to transportation, or to the “commercial” transactions involved in “trade,” although these are expressly included. Neither is the term confined to commerce in “goods.” Obviously, “transportation” or “commerce” between any State and any place outside its boundaries includes a movement of persons as well as a movement of goods. And “transmission” or “communication” across State lines constitutes “commerce” under the definition, without reference to whether anything so transmitted or communicated is “goods.” 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> “Goods” is, however, broadly defined in the Act. See § 776.20(a).</P></FTNT>
<FP>The inclusion of the term “commerce” in the definition of the same term as used in the Act implies that no special or limited meaning is intended; rather, that the scope of the term for purposes of the Act is at least as broad as it would be under concepts of “commerce” established without reference to this definition. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.149.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.9   General scope of “in commerce” coverage.</HEAD>
<P>Under the definitions quoted above, it is clear that the employees who are covered by the wage and hours provisions of the Act as employees “engaged in commerce” are employees doing work involving or related to the movement of persons or things (whether tangibles or intangibles, and including information and intelligence) “among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.” 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/> Although this does not include employees engaged in activities which merely “affect” such interstate or foreign commerce, the courts have made it clear that coverage of the Act based on engaging in commerce extends to every employee employed “in the channels of” such commerce or in activities so closely related to such commerce, as a practical matter, that they should be considered a part of it. 
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> The courts have indicated that the words “in commerce” should not be so limited by construction as to defeat the purpose of Congress, but should be interpreted in a manner consistent with their practical meaning and effect in the particular situation. One practical question to be asked is whether, without the particular service, interstate or foreign commerce would be impeded, impaired, or abated; 
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/> others are whether the service contributes materially to the consummation of transactions in interstate or foreign commerce 
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/> or makes it possible for existing instrumentalities of commerce 
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> to accomplish the movement of such commerce effectively and to free it from burdens or obstructions. 
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> “Any place outside thereof” is not limited in meaning to another State or country. Any movement between a State and a place “outside thereof” is “commerce” for purposes of the Act, such as ship-to-shore communication, or transportation out of a State by ship of food, fuel, or ice to be consumed at sea before arrival at another port.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> 317 U.S. 564; <I>Overstreet</I> v. <I>North Shore Corp.,</I> 318 U.S. 125; <I>McLeod</I> v. <I>Threlkeld,</I> 319 U.S. 491; <I>Boutell</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 327 U.S. 463; <I>Pedersen</I> v. <I>J. F. Fitzgerald Constr. Co.,</I> 318 U.S. 740 and 324 U.S. 720.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> <I>Republic Pictures Corp.</I> v. <I>Kappler,</I> 151 F. 2d 543 (C.A. 8), affirmed 327 U.S. 757; <I>New Mexico Public Service Co.</I> v. <I>Engel,</I> 145 F. 2d 636 (C.A. 10).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Sondock,</I> 132 F. 2d 77 (C.A. 5), certiorari denied 318 U.S. 772. See also <I>Horton</I> v. <I>Wilson &amp; Co.,</I> 223 N.C. 71, 25 S.E. 2d 437, in which the court stated that an employee is engaged “in commerce” if his services—not too remotely but substantially and directly—aid in such commerce as defined in the Act.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> For a list of such instrumentalities, see § 776.11.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> <I>Overstreet</I> v. <I>North Shore Corp.,</I> 318 U.S. 125; <I>J. F. Fitzgerald Constr. Co.</I> v. <I>Pedersen,</I> 324 U.S. 720; <I>Ritch</I> v. <I>Puget Sound Bridge &amp; Dredging Co.,</I> 156 F. 2d 334 (C.A. 9); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCrady Constr. Co.,</I> 156 F. 2d 932 (C.A. 3); <I>Bennett</I> v. <I>V. P. Loftis,</I> 167 F. 2d 286 (C.A. 4); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Patton-Tully Transp. Co.,</I> 134 F. 2d 945 (C.A. 6).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.149.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.10   Employees participating in the actual movement of commerce.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the principles stated in § 776.9, the wage and hours provisions of the Act apply typically, but not exclusively, to employees such, as those in the telephone, 
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/> telegraph, 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> television, radio, 
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> transportation and shipping 
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> industries, since these industries serve as the actual instrumentalities and channels of interstate and foreign commerce. Similarly, employees of such businesses as banking, insurance, newspaper publishing, 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> and others which regularly utilize the channels of interstate and foreign commerce in the course of their operations, are generally covered by the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> <I>Schmidt</I> v. <I>Peoples Telephone Union of Maryville, Mo.,</I> 138 F. 2d 13 (C.A. 8); <I>North Shore Corp.</I> v. <I>Barnett,</I> 143 F. 2d 172 (C.A. 5); <I>Strand</I> v. <I>Garden Valley Telephone Co.,</I> 51 F. Supp. 898 (D. Minn.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> <I>Western Union Telegraph Co.</I> v. <I>Lenroot,</I> 323 U.S. 490; <I>Western Union Telegraph Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 165 F. 2d 65 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 333 U.S. 862; <I>Moss</I> v. <I>Postal Telegraph Cable Co.,</I> 42 F. Supp. 807 (M.D. Ga.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> <I>Wilson</I> v. <I>Shuman,</I> 140 F. 2d 644 (C.A. 8); <I>Wabash Radio Corp.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 162 F. 2d 391 (C.A. 6).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> <I>Overnight Motor Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572; <I>Hargis</I> v. <I>Wabash R. Co., 163 F. 2d 607 (C.A. 7); Rockton &amp; Rion R.R.</I> v. <I>Walling</I> 146 F. 2d 111 (C.A. 4), certiorari denied 334 U.S. 880; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Keansburg Steamboat Co.,</I> 162 F. 2d 405 (C.A. 3); <I>Knudsen</I> v. <I>Lee &amp; Simmons,</I> 163 F. 2d 95 (C.A. 2); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Southwestern Greyhound Lines,</I> 65 F. Supp. 52 (W.D. Mo.); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Atlantic Greyhound Corp.,</I> 61 F. Supp. 992 (E.D. S.C.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> <I>Sun Pub. Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 140 F. 2d 445 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 322 U.S. 728. See also <I>Oklahoma Press Pub. Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 327 U.S. 186, and <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Dessau,</I> 9 W.H. Cases 332 (S.D. Calif.) 17 Labor Cases, 65, 643.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Employees whose work is an essential part of the stream of interstate or foreign commerce, in whatever type of business they are employed, are likewise engaged in commerce and within the Act's coverage. This would include, for example, employees of a warehouse whose activities are connected with the receipt or distribution of goods across State lines. 
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/> Also, since “commerce” as used in the Act includes not only “transmission” of communications but “communication” itself, employees whose work involves the continued use of the interstate mails, telegraph, telephone or similar instrumentalities for communication across State lines are covered by the Act. 
<SU>35</SU>
<FTREF/> This does not mean that any use by an employee of the mails and other channels of communication is sufficient to establish coverage. But if the employee, as a regular and recurrent part of his duties, uses such instrumentalities in obtaining or communicating information or in sending or receiving written reports or messages, or orders for goods or services, or plans or other documents across State lines, he comes within the scope of the Act as an employee directly engaged in the work of “communication” between the State and places outside the State.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> <I>Phillips Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Clyde</I> v. <I>Broderick,</I> 144 F. 2d 348 (C.A. 10).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>35</SU> <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Weller,</I> 9 W.H. Cases 53 (W.D. Tenn.); <I>Yunker</I> v. <I>Abbye Employment Agency,</I> 32 N.Y.S. 2d 715; (Munic. Ct. N.Y.C.); <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Meeker Coop. Light &amp; Power Asso.,</I> 63 F. Supp. 733 (D. Minn.); <I>Anderson Bros. Corp.</I> v. <I>Flynn,</I> 218 S.W. 2d 653 (C.A. Ky.).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 2925, May 17, 1950, as amended at 22 FR 5684, July 18, 1957]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.149.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.11   Employees doing work related to instrumentalities of commerce.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Another large category of employees covered as “engaged in commerce” is comprised of employees performing the work involved in the maintenance, repair, or improvement of existing instrumentalities of commerce. (See the cases cited in footnote 28 to § 776.9. See also the discussion of coverage of employees engaged in building and construction work, in subpart B of this part.) Typical illustrations of instrumentalities of commerce include railroads, highways, city streets, pipe lines, telephone lines, electrical transmission lines, rivers, streams, or other waterways over which interstate or foreign commerce more or less regularly moves; airports; railroad, bus, truck, or steamship terminals; telephone exchanges, radio and television stations, post offices and express offices; bridges and ferries carrying traffic moving in interstate or foreign commerce (even though within a single State); bays, harbors, piers, wharves and docks used for shipping between a State and points outside; dams, dikes, revetments and levees which directly facilitate the uninterrupted movement of commerce by enhancing or improving the usefulness of waterways, railways, and highways through control of water depth, channels or flow in streams or through control of flood waters; warehouses or distribution depots devoted to the receipt and shipment of goods in interstate or foreign commerce; ships, vehicles, and aircraft regularly used in transportation of persons or goods in commerce; and similar fixed or movable facilities on which the flow of interstate and foreign commerce depends.
</P>
<P>(b) It is well settled that the work of employees involved in the maintenance, repair, or improvement of such existing instrumentalities of commerce is so closely related to interstate or foreign commerce as to be in practice and in legal contemplation a part of it. Included among the employees who are thus “engaged in commerce” within the meaning of the Act are employees of railroads, telephone companies, and similar instrumentalities who are engaged in maintenance-of-way work; 
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> employees (including office workers, guards, watchmen, etc.) engaged in work on contracts or projects for the maintenance, repair, reconstruction or other improvement of such instrumentalities of commerce as the transportation facilities of interstate railroads, highways, waterways, or other interstate transportation facilities, or interstate telegraph, telephone, or electrical transmission facilities (see subpart B of this part); and employees engaged in the maintenance or alteration and repair of ships 
<SU>37</SU>
<FTREF/> or trucks 
<SU>38</SU>
<FTREF/> used as instrumentalities of interstate or foreign commerce. Also, employees have been held covered as engaged in commerce where they perform such work as watching or guarding ships or vehicles which are regularly used in commerce 
<SU>39</SU>
<FTREF/> or maintaining, watching, or guarding warehouses, railroad or equipment yards, etc., where goods moving in interstate commerce are temporarily held, 
<SU>40</SU>
<FTREF/> or acting as porters, janitors, or in other maintenance capacities in bus stations, railroad stations, airports, or other transportation terminals. 
<SU>41</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> <I>Davis</I> v. <I>Rockton &amp; Rion R.R.,</I> 65 F. Supp. 67 affirmed in 159 F. 2d 291 (C.A. 4); <I>North Shore Corp.</I> v. <I>Barnett,</I> 143 F. 2d 172 (C.A. 5); <I>Palmer</I> v. <I>Howard,</I> 12 Lab. Cas. (CCH) par. 63, 756 (W.D. Tenn.); <I>Williams</I> v. <I>Atlantic Coast Lines R.R. Co.,</I> 1 W.M. Cases 289 (E.D. N.C. 1940), 2 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 18, 564.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>37</SU> <I>Slover</I> v. <I>Wathen,</I> 140 F. 2d 258 (C.A. 4); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Keansburg Steamboat Co.,</I> 162 F. 2d 405 (C.A. 3).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>38</SU> <I>Boutell</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 327 U.S. 463; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>John J. Casale, Inc.,</I> 160 F. 2d 527 (C.A. 2), certiorari denied 331 U.S. 812; <I>Hertz Drivurself Stations</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 150 F. 2d 923 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Sturm &amp; Sons, Inc.,</I> 6 W.H. Cases 131 (D.N.J.) 10 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 62, 980.
</P>
<P>As to exemptions from the overtime requirements for mechanics employed by motor carriers, see part 782 of this chapter. For exemptions applicable to retail or service establishments, see part 779 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>39</SU> <I>Slover</I> v. <I>Wathen,</I> 140 F. 2d 258 (C.A. 4); <I>Agosto</I> v. <I>Rocafort,</I> 5 W.H. Cases 176 (D.P.R.), 9 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 62, 610; <I>Cannon</I> v. <I>Miller,</I> 155 F. 2d 500 (S. Ct. Wash.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>40</SU> <I>Engebretson</I> v. <I>E. J. Albrecht Co.,</I> 150 F. 2d 602 (C.A. 7); <I>Mid-Continent Petroleum Corp.</I> v. <I>Keen,</I> 157 F. 2d 310 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Mutual Wholesale Food &amp; Supply Co.,</I> 141 F. 2d 331 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Sondock,</I> 132 F. 2d 77 (C.A. 5); certiorari denied 318 U.S. 772; <I>Reliance Storage &amp; Insp. Co.</I> v. <I>Hubbard,</I> 50 F. Supp. 1012 (W.D. Va.); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Fox-Pelletier Detective Agency,</I> 4 W.H. Cases 452 (W.D. Tenn. 1944); 8 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 62, 219; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Russell Co.,</I> 9 W.H. Cases 258 (D. Miss. 1949), 17 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 65, 519.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>41</SU> <I>Mornford</I> v. <I>Andrews,</I> 151 F. 2d 511 (C.A. 5); <I>Hargis</I> v. <I>Wabash R. Co.</I> 163 F. 2d 607 (C.A. 7); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Atlantic Greyhound Corp.,</I> 61 F. Supp. 992 (E.D. S.C.); <I>Rouch</I> v. <I>Continental Oil Co.,</I> 55 F. Supp. 315 (D. Kans.); see also <I>Williams</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Terminal Co.,</I> 315 U.S. 386.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) On the other hand, work which is less immediately related to the functioning of instrumentalities of commerce than is the case in the foregoing examples may be too remote from interstate or foreign commerce to establish coverage on the ground that the employee performing it is “engaged in commerce.” This has been held true, for example, of a cook preparing meals for workmen who are repairing tracks over which interstate trains operate, 
<SU>42</SU>
<FTREF/> and of a porter caring for washrooms and lockers in a garage which is not an instrumentality of commerce, where trucks used both in intrastate and interstate commerce are serviced. 
<SU>43</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>42</SU> <I>McLeod</I> v. <I>Threlkeld,</I> 319 U.S. 491.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>43</SU> <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>John J. Casale, Inc.,</I> 160 F. 2d 527, certiorari denied 331 U.S. 812 (use in interstate commerce of trucks serviced was from 10 to 25 percent of total use).</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) There are other situations in which employees are engaged “in commerce” and therefore within the coverage of the Act because they contribute directly to the movement of commerce by providing goods or facilities to be used or consumed by instrumentalities of commerce in the direct furtherance of their activities of transportation, communication, transmission, or other movement in interstate or foreign commerce. Thus, for example, employees are considered engaged “in commerce” where they provide to railroads, radio stations, airports, telephone exchanges, or other similar instrumentalities of commerce such things as electric energy, 
<SU>44</SU>
<FTREF/> steam, fuel, or water, which are required for the movement of the commerce carried by such instrumentalities. 
<SU>45</SU>
<FTREF/> Such work is “so related to the actual movement of commerce as to be considered an essential and indispensable part thereof, and without which it would be impeded or impaired.” 
<SU>46</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>44</SU> <I>New Mexico Public Service Co.</I> v. <I>Engel,</I> 145 F. 2d 636 (C.A. 10); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Connecticut Co.,</I> 154 F. 2d 552 (C.A. 2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45</SU> Such employees would also be covered as engaged in the production of goods for commerce. See <I>Lewis</I> v. <I>Florida Power &amp; Light Co.,</I> 154 F. 2d 751 (C.A. 5); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Connecticut Co.,</I> 154 F. 2d 552 (C.A. 2); also § 776.21(b).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>46</SU> <I>New Mexico Public Service Co.</I> v. <I>Engel,</I> 145 F. 2d 636, 640 (C.A. 10).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.149.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.12   Employees traveling across State lines.</HEAD>
<P>Questions are frequently asked as to whether the fact that an employee crosses State lines in connection with his employment brings him within the Act's coverage as an employee “engaged in commerce.” Typical of the employments in which such questions arise are those of traveling service men, traveling buyers, traveling construction crews, collectors, and employees of such organizations as circuses, carnivals, road shows, and orchestras. The area of coverage in such situations cannot be delimited by any exact formula, since questions of degree are necessarily involved. If the employee transports material or equipment or other persons across State lines or within a particular State as a part of an interstate movement, it is clear of course, that he is engaging in commerce. 
<SU>47</SU>
<FTREF/> And as a general rule, employees who are regularly engaged in traveling across State lines in the performance of their duties (as distinguished from merely going to and from their homes or lodgings in commuting to a work place) are engaged in commerce and covered by the Act. 
<SU>48</SU>
<FTREF/> On the other hand, it is equally plain that an employee who, in isolated or sporadic instances, happens to cross a State line in the course of his employment, which is otherwise intrastate in character, is not, for that sole reason, covered by the Act. Nor would a man who occasionally moves to another State in order to pursue an essentially local trade or occupation there become an employee “engaged in commerce” by virtue of that fact alone. Doubtful questions arising in the area between the two extremes must be resolved on the basis of the facts in each individual case.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>47</SU> The employee may, however, be exempt from the overtime provisions of the Act under section 13(b)(1). See part 792 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48</SU> <I>Reck</I> v. <I>Zarmocay,</I> 264 App. Div. 520, 36 N.Y.S. 2d 394; <I>Colbeck</I> v. <I>Dairyland Creamery Co.,</I> 17 N.W. 2d 262 (S. Ct. S.D.).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.149.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.13   Commerce crossing international boundaries.</HEAD>
<P>Under the Act, as amended, an employee engaged in “trade commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication” between any State and any place outside thereof is covered by the Act regardless of whether the “place outside” is another State or is a foreign country or is some other place. Before the amendment to section 3(b) which became effective January 25, 1950, employees whose work related solely to the flow of commerce into a State from places outside it which were not “States” as defined in the Act were not employees engaged in “commerce” for purposes of the Act, although employees whose work was concerned with the flow of commerce out of the State to such places were so engaged. 
<SU>49</SU>
<FTREF/> This placed employees of importers in a less favorable position under the Act than the employees of exporters. This inequality was removed by the amendment to section 3(b). 
<SU>50</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, employees performing work in connection with the importation of goods from foreign countries are engaged “in commerce” and covered by the Act, as amended. The coverage of such employees, as of those performing work in connection with the exportation of goods to foreign countries, is determined by the same principles as in the case of employees whose work is connected with goods procured from or sent to other States.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>49</SU> The definition of “commerce” previously referred to commerce “from any State to any place outside thereof.” The amendment substituted “between” for “from” and “and” for “to” in this clause.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>50</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 13, 14.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="150" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Engaging in “The Production of Goods for Commerce”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.14   Elements of “production” coverage.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 6 and 7 of the Act, as has been noted, cover not only employees who are engaged “in commerce” as explained above, but also “each” and “any” employee who is engaged in the “production” of “goods” for “commerce”. What employees are so engaged can be determined only by references to the very comprehensive definitions which Congress has supplied to make clear what is meant by “production”, by “goods,” and by “commerce” as those words are used in sections 6 and 7. In the light of these definitions, there are three interrelated elements of coverage to be considered in determining whether an employee is engaged in the production of goods for commerce: (a) There must be “production”; (b) such production must be of “goods”; (c) such production of goods must be “for commerce”; all within the meaning of the Act. 
<SU>51</SU>
<FTREF/> The three elements of “production” coverage are discussed in order in the sections following.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>51</SU> These elements need not be considered if the employee would be covered in any event because engaged “in commerce” under the principles discussed in preceding sections of this part.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.15   “Production.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The statutory provisions.</I> The activities constituting “production” within the meaning of the phrase “engaged in * * * production of goods for commerce” are defined in the Act 
<SU>52</SU>
<FTREF/> as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>52</SU> Act, section 3(j). This definition is also applicable in determining coverage of the child labor provisions of the Act. See part 4 of this title.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Produced</I> means produced, manufactured, mined, handled, or in any other manner worked on in any State; and for the purposes of this Act an employee shall be deemed to have been engaged in the production of goods if such employee was employed in producing, manufacturing, mining, handling, transporting, or in any other manner working on such goods, or in any closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production thereof, in any State.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The Act bars from interstate commerce “any” goods in the production of which “any” employee was employed in violation of the minimum-wage or overtime-pay provisions, 
<SU>53</SU>
<FTREF/> and provides that in determining, for purposes of this provision, whether an employee was employed in the production of such goods:
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>53</SU> Act, section 15(a)(1). The only exceptions are stated in the section itself, which provides that “it shall be unlawful for any person—(1) to transport, offer for transportation, ship, deliver, or sell in commerce, or to ship, deliver, or sell with knowledge that shipment or delivery or sale thereof in commerce is intended, any goods in the production of which any employee was employed in violation of section 6 or section 7, or in violation of any regulation or order of the Administrator issued under section 14; except that no provision of this Act shall impose any liability upon any common carrier for the transportation in commerce in the regular course of its business of any goods not produced by such common carrier, and no provision of this Act shall excuse any common carrier from its obligation to accept any goods for transportation; and except that any such transportation, offer, shipment, delivery, or sale of such goods by a purchaser who acquired them in good faith in reliance on written assurance from the producer that the goods were produced in compliance with the requirements of the Act, and who acquired such goods for value without notice of any such violation, shall not be deemed unlawful;”</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>* * * proof that any employee was employed in any place of employment where goods shipped or sold in commerce were produced, within ninety days prior to the removal of the goods from such place of employment, shall be prima facie evidence that such employee was engaged in the production of such goods. 
<SU>54</SU>
<FTREF/></FP></EXTRACT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>54</SU> Act, sec. 15(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>General scope of “production” coverage.</I> The statutory provisions quoted in paragraph (a) of this section, show that for purposes of the Act, wherever goods are being produced for interstate or foreign commerce, the employees who are covered as “engaged in the production” of such goods, include, in general, all those whose work may fairly be said to be a part of their employer's production of such goods, 
<SU>55</SU>
<FTREF/> and include those whose work is closely related and directly essential thereto, 
<SU>56</SU>
<FTREF/> whether employed by the same or a different employee. (See §§ 776.17 to 776.19.) Typically, but not exclusively, this includes that large group of employees engaged in mines, oil fields, quarries, and manufacturing, processing, or distributing plants where goods are produced for commerce. The employees covered as engaged in “production” are not limited, however, to those engaged in actual physical work on the product itself or to those in the factories, mines, warehouses, or other place of employment where goods intended for commerce are being produced. If the requisite relationship to production of such goods is present, an employee is covered, regardless of whether his work brings him into actual contact with such goods or into the establishments where they are produced, and even though his employer may be someone other than the producer of the goods for commerce. 
<SU>57</SU>
<FTREF/> As explained more fully in the sections following, the Act's “production” coverage embraces many employees who serve productive enterprises in capacities which do not involve working directly on goods produced but which are nevertheless closely related and directly essential to successful operations in producing goods for interstate or foreign commerce. And as a general rule, in conformity with the provisions of the Act quoted in paragraph (a) of this section, an employee will be considered to be within the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions if he is working in a place of employment where goods sold or shipped in interstate commerce or foreign commerce are being produced, unless the employer maintains the burden of establishing that the employee's functions are so definitely segregated from such production that they should not be regarded as closely related and directly essential thereto. 
<SU>58</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>55</SU> <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 325 U.S. 679; <I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126. See also paragraph (c) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>56</SU> <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657; H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; Sen. St. 1949 Cong. Rec. p. 15372.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>57</SU> <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 325 U.S. 679; <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling.</I> 326 U.S. 657; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Walton</I> v. <I>Southern Package Corp. 320 U.S. 540.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>58</SU> <I>Guess</I> v. <I>Montague,</I> 140 F. 2d 500 (C.A. 4). <I>Cf. Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.16   Employment in “producing, * * * or in any other manner working on” goods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage in general.</I> Employees employed in “producing, manufacturing, mining, handling, or in any other manner working on” goods (as defined in the Act, including parts or ingredients thereof) for interstate or foreign commerce are considered actually engaged in the “production” of such goods, within the meaning of the Act. Such employees have been within the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions since enactment of the Act in 1938, and remain so under the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949. 
<SU>59</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>59</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15372.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Activities constituting actual “production” under statutory definition.</I> It will be noted that the actual productive work described in this portion of the definition of “produced” includes not only the work involved in making the products of mining, manufacturing, or processing operations, but also includes “handling, transporting, or in any other manner working on” goods. This is so, regardless of whether the goods are to be further processed or are so-called “finished goods.” The Supreme Court has stated that this language of the definition brings within the scope of the term “production,” as used in the Act, “every step in putting the subject to commerce in a state to enter commerce,” including “all steps, whether manufacture or not, which lead to readiness for putting goods into the stream of commerce,” and “every kind of incidental operation preparatory to putting goods into the stream of commerce.” 
<SU>60</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>60</SU> <I>Western Union Tel. Co.</I> v. <I>Lenroot,</I> 323 U.S. 490. See, to the same effect, <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Friend,</I> 156 F. 2d 429 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Commet Carriers,</I> 151 F. 2d 107 (C.A. 2); <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Star Overall Dry Cleaning Laundry Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 416 (C.A. 2); certiorari denied 327 U.S. 780; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Griffin Cartage Co.,</I> 62 F. Supp. 396, affirmed in 153 F. 2d 587 (C.A. 6). For examples, see paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. Employees who are not engaged in the actual production Activities described in section 3(j) of the Act are not engaged in “production” unless their work is “closely related” and “directly essential” to such production. See §§ 776.17-776.19.</P></FTNT>
<FP>However, where employees of a common carrier, by handling or working on goods, accomplish the interstate transit or movement in commerce itself, such handling or working on the goods is not “production.” The employees in that event are covered only under the phrase “engaged in commerce.” 
<SU>61</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>61</SU> <I>Western Union Tel. Co.</I> v. <I>Lenroot,</I> 323 U.S. 490. For examples, see paragraph (c) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Physical labor.</I> It is clear from the principles stated in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, that employees in shipping rooms, warehouses, distribution yards, grain elevators, etc., who sort, screen, grade, store, pack, label, address or otherwise handle or work on goods in preparation for shipment of the goods out of the State are engaged in the production of goods for commerce within the meaning of the Act. 
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/> The same has been held to be true of employees doing such work as handling ingredients (scrap iron) of steel used in building ships which will move in commerce; 
<SU>63</SU>
<FTREF/> handling and caring for livestock at stockyards where the livestock are destined for interstate shipment as such 
<SU>64</SU>
<FTREF/> or as meat products; 
<SU>65</SU>
<FTREF/> handling or transporting containers to be used in shipping products interstate; 
<SU>66</SU>
<FTREF/> transporting, within a single State, oil to a refinery 
<SU>67</SU>
<FTREF/> or lumber to a mill, 
<SU>68</SU>
<FTREF/> where products of the refinery or mill will be sent out of the State; transporting parts or ingredients of other types of goods or the finished goods themselves between processors, manufacturers, and storage places located in a single State, where goods so transported will leave the State in the same or an altered form; 
<SU>69</SU>
<FTREF/> and repairing or otherwise working on ships, 
<SU>70</SU>
<FTREF/> vehicles, 
<SU>71</SU>
<FTREF/> machinery, 
<SU>72</SU>
<FTREF/> clothing, 
<SU>73</SU>
<FTREF/> or other goods which may be expected to move in interstate commerce.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Wyandotte Furn. Co.,</I> 169 F. 2d 766 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Mutual Wholesale Food &amp; Supply Co.,</I> 141 F. 2d 331 (C.A. 8); <I>West Kentucky Coal Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 153 F. 2d 582 (C.A. 6); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Home Loose Leaf Tobacco Warehouse Co.,</I> 51 F. Supp. 914 (E.D. Ky.); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Yeakley,</I> 3 W.H. Cases 27, modified and affirmed in 140 F. 2d 830 (C.A. 10); <I>Shain</I> v. <I>Armour &amp; Co.,</I> 50 F. Supp. 907 (W.D. Ky.); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCracken County Peach Growers Assn.,</I> 50 F. Supp. 900 (W.D. Ky). See also <I>Clyde</I> v. <I>Broderick,</I> 144 F. 2d 348 (C.A. 10).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>63</SU> <I>Bracey</I> v. <I>Luray,</I> 138 F. 2d 8 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>64</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Friend,</I> 156 F. 2d 429 (C.A. 8).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>65</SU> <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 41 F. Supp. 825, affirmed in 131 F. 2d 249 (C.A. 7); <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Benz Co.,</I> 9 W.H. Cases 277 (S.D. Ind.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>66</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Villaume Box &amp; Lbr. Co.,</I> 58 F. Supp. 150 (D. Minn.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>67</SU> <I>Mid-Continent Pipe Line Co.</I> v. <I>Hargrave,</I> 129 F. 2d 655 (C.A. 10); <I>Boling</I> v. <I>R. J. Allison Co., Inc.,</I> 4 W.H. Cases 500 (N.D. Okla.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>68</SU> <I>Hanson</I> v. <I>Lagerstrom,</I> 133 F. 2d 120 (C.A. 8).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>69</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Griffin Cartage Co.,</I> 62 F. Supp. 696, affirmed in 153 F. 2d 587 (C.A. 6); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Comet Carriers,</I> 151 F. 2d 107 (C.A. 2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>70</SU> <I>Slover</I> v. <I>Walthen,</I> 140 F. 2d 258 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>71</SU> <I>Hertz Drivurself Stations</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 150 F. 2d 923 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Armbruster,</I> 51 F. Supp. 166 (W.D. Ark.); <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Weller,</I> 9. W.H. Cases 53 (W.D. Tenn.), 17 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 65, 332; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Strum &amp; Sons,</I> 6 W.H. Cases 131 (D. N.J.), 11 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 63, 249.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>72</SU> <I>Engebretson</I> v. <I>Albrecht,</I> 150 F. 2d 602 (C.A. 7); <I>Guess</I> v. <I>Montague,</I> 140 F. 2d 500 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>73</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Belikoff,</I> 147 F. 2d 1008 (C.A. 2); <I>Campbell</I> v. <I>Zavelo,</I> 243 Ala. 361, 10 So. 2d 29; <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Star Overall Dry Cleaning Laundry Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 416 (C.A. 2), certiorari denied 327 U.S. 780.</P></FTNT>
<FP>These examples are, of course, illustrative rather than exhaustive. Some of them relate to situations in which the handling or working on goods for interstate or foreign commerce may constitute not only “production for commerce” but also engaging “in commerce” because the activities are so closely related to commerce as to be for all practical purposes a part of it. 
<SU>74</SU>
<FTREF/> However, as noted in paragraph (b) of this section, handling or working on goods constitutes engagement in “commerce” only and not engagement in “production” of the goods when it is done by employees of a common carrier and is itself the means whereby interstate transit or movement of the goods by the carrier is accomplished. Thus, employees of a telegraph company preparing messages for interstate transmission, television cameramen photographing sports or news events for simultaneous viewing at television receiving sets in other State, and railroad train crews or truck drivers hauling goods from one State to another are not engaged in the “production” of goods by virtue of such activities, but are covered by the Act only as employees “engaged in commerce.”
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>74</SU> <I>Slover</I> v. <I>Walthen,</I> 140 F. 2d 258 (C.A. 4); <I>Hertz Drivurself Stations</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 150 F. 2d 923 (C.A. 8); <I>Engebretson</I> v. <I>Albrecht,</I> 150 F. 2d 602 (C.A. 7); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Strum &amp; Sons,</I> 6 W.H. Cases 131 (D. N.J.).</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Nonmanual work.</I> The “production” described by the phrase “producing * * * or in any other manner working on” goods includes not only the manual, physical labor involved in processing and working on the tangible products of a producing enterprise, but equally the administration, planning, management, and control of the various physical processes together with the accompanying accounting and clerical activities. 
<SU>75</SU>
<FTREF/> An enterprise producing goods for commerce does not accomplish the actual production of such goods solely with employees performing physical labor on them. Other employees may be equally important in actually producing the goods, such as employees who conceive and direct policies of the enterprise; employees who dictate, control, and coordinate the steps involved in the physical production of goods; employees who maintain detailed and meticulous supervision of productive activities; and employees who direct the purchase of raw materials and supplies, the methods of production, the amounts to be produced, the quantity and character of the labor, the safety measures, the budgeting and financing, the labor policies, and the maintenance of the plants and equipment. (For regulations governing exemption from the wage and hours provisions of employees employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, see part 541 of this chapter.) Employees who perform these and similar activities are an integral part of the coordinated productive pattern of a modern industrial organization. The Supreme Court of the United States has held that from a productive standpoint and for purposes of the Act the employees who perform such activities “are actually engaged in the production of goods for commerce just as much as are those who process and work on the tangible products” in the manufacturing plant or other producing facilities of the enterprise. 
<SU>76</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>75</SU> <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 325 U.S. 679; <I>Hertz Drivurself Stations.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 150 F. 2d 923 (C.A. 8); <I>Callus</I> v. <I>10 E. 40th St. Bldg.,</I> 146 F. 2d 438 (C.A. 2), reversed on other grounds in 325 U.S. 578.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>76</SU> <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 325 U.S. 679, 683.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.17   Employment in a “closely related process or occupation directly essential to” production of goods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage in general.</I> Employees who are not actually “producing * * * or in any other manner working on” goods for commerce are, nevertheless, engaged in the “production” of such goods within the meaning of the Act and therefore within its general coverage if they are employed “in any closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production thereof, in any State.” 
<SU>77</SU>
<FTREF/> Prior to the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949, this was true of employees engaged “in any process or occupation necessary to the production” of goods for commerce. The amendments deleted the word “necessary” and substituted the words “closely related” and “directly essential” contained in the present law. The words “directly essential” were adopted by the Conference Committee in lieu of the word “indispensable” contained in the amendments as first passed by the House of Representatives. Under the amended language, an employee is covered if the process or occupation in which he is employed is both “closely related” and “directly essential” to the production of goods for interstate or foreign commerce.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>77</SU> If coverage of an employee is determined to exist on either basis, it is, of course, not necessary to determine whether the employee would also be covered on the other ground. See <I>Warren-Bradshaw Drilling Co.</I> v. <I>Hall,</I> 124 F. 2d 42 (C.A. 5), affirmed in 317 U.S. 88.</P></FTNT>
<FP>The legislative history shows that the new language in the final clause of section 3(j) of the Act is intended to narrow, and to provide a more precise guide to, the scope of its coverage with respect to employees (engaged neither “in commerce” nor in actually “producing or in any other manner working on” goods for commerce) whose coverage under the Act formerly depended on whether their work was “necessary” to the production of goods for commerce. Some employees whose work might meet the “necessary” test are now outside the coverage of the Act because their work is not “closely related” and “directly essential” to such production; others, however, who would have been excluded if the indispensability of their work to production had been made the test, remain within the coverage under the new language. 
<SU>78</SU>
</FP>
<FP>The scope of coverage under the “closely related” and “directly essential” language is discussed in the paragraphs following. In the light of explanations provided by managers of the legislation in Congress 
<SU>78</SU>
<FTREF/> including expressions of their intention to leave undisturbed the areas of coverage established under court decisions containing similar language, 
<SU>79</SU>
<FTREF/> this new language should provide a more definite guide to the intended coverage under the final clause of section 3(j) than did the earlier “necessary” test. However, while the coverage or noncoverage of many employees may be determined with reasonable certainty, no precise line for inclusion or exclusion may be drawn; there are bound to be borderline problems of coverage under the new language which cannot be finally determined except by authoritative decisions of the courts.
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>78</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec. p. 15372; Statement of the Chairman of the Committee on Education and Labor explaining the conference agreement to the House of Representatives, 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15135; colloquy between Representatives McConnell and Javits, 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15129; of statements of Representative Barden (1949 Cong. Rec. p. 15131), Representative Brehm (1949 Cong. Rec. p. 15132), and Senator Taft (1950 Cong. Rec., p. A-1162).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>79</SU> <I>See Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Meaning of “closely related” and “directly essential”.</I> The terms “closely related” and “directly essential” are not susceptible of precise definition; as used in the Act they together describe a situation in which, under all the facts and circumstances, the process or occupation in which the employee is employed bears a relationship to the production of goods for interstate or foreign commerce: (1) Which may reasonably be considered close, as distinguished from remote or tenuous, and (2) in which the work of the employee directly aids production in a practical sense by providing something essential to the carrying on in an effective, efficient, and satisfactory manner of an employer's operations in producing such goods. 
<SU>80</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>80</SU> See H. Mgrs. St. 1949, pp. 14, 15; Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15372; cf. <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Not all activities that are “closely related” to production will be “directly essential” to it, nor will all activities “directly essential” to production meet the “closely related” test. For example, employees employed by an employer in an enterprise, or portion thereof, which is devoted to the production of goods for interstate or foreign commerce will, as a general rule, be considered engaged in work “closely related” to such production, but some such employees may be outside the coverage of the Act because their work is not “directly essential” to production of the goods. (For a discussion of this point and specific illustration, see § 776.18(b).) Similarly, there are some situations in which an employee performing work “directly essential” to production by an employer other than his own may not be covered because the kind of work and the circumstances under which it is performed show the employee's activities to be so much a part of an essentially local business operated by his employer that it would be unrealistic to consider them “closely related” to the productive activities of another. (For a more detailed discussion and specific illustrations see § 776.19.)
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Determining whether activities are “closely related” and “directly essential”.</I> (1) The close relationship of an activity to production, which may be tested by a wide variety of relevant factors, is to be distinguished from its direct essentiality to production, which is dependent solely on considerations of need or function of the activity in the productive enterprise. The words “directly essential” refer only to the relationship of the employee's work to production. Work “directly essential” to production remains so no matter whose employee does it and regardless of the nature or purpose of the employer's business. It seems clear, on the other hand, that the criteria for determining whether a process or occupation is “closely related” to production cannot be limited to those which show its closeness in terms of need or function. 
<SU>81</SU>
<FTREF/> It may also be important to ascertain, for instance, whether the activity of the employee bears a relationship to production which is close in terms either of the place or the time of its performance, or in terms of the purposes with which the activity is performed by the particular employer through the employee, or in terms of relative directness or indirectness of the activity's effect in relation to such production, or in terms of employment within or outside the productive enterprise. (Examples of the application of these principles may be found in §§ 776.18 and 776.19.)
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>81</SU> Of course, if the need of function of the activity in production is such that the tie between them is both close and immediate (cf. <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517), as for example, where an employee is employed to repair electric motors which are used in factories in the production of goods for commerce, this fact may be sufficient to show both the direct essentiality and the close relationship of the employee's work to production. See <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657. See also § 776.19 and H. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 14, 15.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The determination of whether an activity is closely or only remotely related to production may thus involve consideration of such factors, among others, as the contribution which the activity makes to the production; who performs the activity; where, when and how it is performed in relation to the production to which it pertains; whether its performance is with a view to aiding production or for some different purpose; how immediate or delayed its effect on production is; the number and nature of any intervening operations or processes between the activity and the production in question; and, in an appropriate case, the characteristics and purposes of the employer's business. 
<SU>82</SU>
<FTREF/> Moreover, in some cases where particular work “directly essential” to production is performed by an employer other than the producer the degree of such essentiality may be a significant factor in determining whether the work is also “closely related” to such production. (See § 776.19.) No one of the factors listed in this paragraph is necessarily controlling, and other factors may assume importance. Some may have more significance than others in particular cases, depending upon the facts. They are merely useful guides for determining whether the total situation in respect to a particular process or occupation demonstrates the requisite “close and immediate tie” 
<SU>83</SU>
<FTREF/> to the production of goods for interstate or foreign commerce. It is the sum of the factors relevant to each case that determines whether the particular activity is “closely related” to such production. The application of the principles in this paragraph is further explained and illustrated in §§ 776.18 and 776.19.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>82</SU> Cf. <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>10 E. 40th St. Bldg.</I> v. <I>Callus,</I> 325 U.S. 578; <I>Schulte Co.</I> v. <I>Gangi,</I> 328 U.S. 108; <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 325 U.S. 679; <I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>83</SU> See <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) In determining whether an activity is “directly essential” to production, a practical judgment is required as to whether, in terms of the function and need of such activity in successful production operations, it is “essential” and “directly” so to such operations. These are questions of degree; even “directly” essential activities (for example, machinery repair, custodial, and clerical work in a producing plant) (for other examples, see §§ 776.18(a) and 776.19) will vary in the degree of their essentiality and in the directness of the aid which they provide to production. An activity may be “directly essential” without being indispensable in the sense that it cannot be done without; yet some activities which, in a long chain of causation, might be indispensable to production, such as the manufacture of brick for a new factory, or even the construction of the new factory itself, are not “directly” essential. 
<SU>84</SU>
<FTREF/> An activity which provides something essential to meet the immediate needs of production, as, for example, the manufacture of articles like machinery or tools or dies for use in the production of goods for commerce (see § 776.19(b)) will, however, be no less “directly” essential because intervening activities must be performed in the distribution, transportation, and installation of such products before they can be used in production. 
<SU>85</SU>
<FTREF/> The application of the principles in this paragraph is further explained and illustrated in §§ 776.18 and 776.19.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>84</SU> Cf. 10 <I>E. 40th St. Bldg.</I> v. <I>Callus,</I> 325 U.S. 578; Sen. St. 95 Cong. Rec., October 19, 1949, at 15372.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>85</SU> See <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Hamner,</I> 64 F. Supp. 690 (W.D. Va.).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.18   Employees of producers for commerce.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered employments illustrated.</I> Some illustrative examples of the employees employed by a producer of goods for interstate or foreign commerce who are or are not engaged in the “production” of such goods within the meaning of the Act have already been given. Among the other employees of such a producer, doing work in connection with his production of goods for commerce, who are covered because their work, if not actually a part of such production, is “closely related” and “directly essential” to it, 
<SU>86</SU>
<FTREF/> are such employees as bookkeepers, stenographers, clerks, accountants and auditors, employees doing payroll, timekeeping and time study work, draftsmen, inspectors, testers and research workers, industrial safety men, employees in the personnel, labor relations, advertising, promotion, and public relations activities of the producing enterprise, work instructors, and other office and white collar workers; employees maintaining, servicing, repairing or improving the buildings, 
<SU>87</SU>
<FTREF/> machinery, equipment, vehicles, or other facilities used in the production of goods for commerce, 
<SU>88</SU>
<FTREF/> and such custodial and protective employees as watchmen, guards, firemen, patrolmen, caretakers, stockroom workers, and warehousemen; and transportation workers bringing supplies, materials, or equipment to the producer's premises, removing slag or other waste materials therefrom, or transporting materials or other goods, or performing such other transportation activities, as the needs of production may require. These examples are intended as illustrative, rather than exhaustive of the group of employees of a producer who are “engaged in the production” of goods for commerce, within the meaning of the Act, and who are therefore entitled to its wage and hours benefits unless specifically exempted by some provision of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>86</SU> See H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15372. See also <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 325 U.S. 679.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>87</SU> No distinction of economic or statutory significance can be drawn between such work in a building where the production of goods is carried on physically and in one where such production is administered, managed, and controlled. <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 324 U.S. 679.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>88</SU> Such mechanics and laborers as machinists, carpenters, electricians, plumbers, steamfitters, plasters, glaziers, painters, metal workers, bricklayers, hod carriers, roofers, stationary engineers, their apprentices and helpers, elevator starters and operators, messengers, janitors, charwomen, porters, handy men, and other maintenance workers would come within this category.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Employments not directly essential to production distinguished.</I> Employees of a producer of goods for commerce are not covered as engaged in such production if they are employed solely in connection with essentially local activities which are undertaken by the employer independently of his productive operations or at most as a dispensable, collateral incident to them and not with a view to any direct function which the activities serve in production. It is clear, for example, that an employee would not be covered merely because he works as a domestic servant in the home of an employer whose factory produces goods for commerce, even though he is carried on the factory payroll. To illustrate further, a producer may engage in essentially local activities as a landlord, restauranteur, or merchant in order to utilize the opportunity for separate and additional profit from such ventures or to provide a convenient means of meeting personal needs of his employees. Employees exclusively employed in such activities of the producer are not engaged in work “closely related” and “directly essential” to his production of goods for commerce merely because they provide residential, eating, or other living facilities for his employees who are engaged in the production of such goods. 
<SU>89</SU>
<FTREF/> Such employees are to be distinguished from employees like cooks, cookees, and bull cooks in isolated lumber camps or mining camps, where the operation of a cookhouse may in fact be “closely related” and “directly essential” or, indeed, indispensable to the production of goods for commerce. 
<SU>90</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>89</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 14, 15; see also <I>Brogan</I> v. <I>National Surety Co.,</I> 246 U.S. 257. Cf. Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15372.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>90</SU> See <I>Brogan</I> v. <I>National Surety Co.,</I> 246 U.S. 257; <I>Consolidated Timber Co.</I> v. <I>Womack,</I> 132 F. 2d 101 (C.A. 9); <I>Hanson</I> v. <I>Lagerstrom,</I> 133 F. 2d 120 (C.A. 8); cf. H. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 14, 15 and Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15372.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Some specific examples of the application of these principles may be helpful. Such services as watching, guarding, maintaining or repairing the buildings, facilities, and equipment used in the production of goods for commerce are “directly essential” as well as “closely related” to such production as it is carried on in modern industry. 
<SU>91</SU>
<FTREF/> But such services performed with respect to private dwellings tenanted by employees of the producer, as in a mill village, would not be “directly essential” to production merely because the dwellings were owned by the producer and leased to his employees. 
<SU>92</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, employees of the producer or of an independent employer who are engaged only in maintaining company facilities for entertaining the employer's customers, or in providing food, refreshments, or recreational facilities, including restaurants, cafeterias, and snack bars, for the producer's employees in a factory, or in operating a children's nursery for the convenience of employees who leave young children there during working hours, would not be doing work “directly essential” to the production of goods for commerce. 
<SU>93</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>91</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15372; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Borden Co.</I> v. <I>Borella,</I> 325 U.S. 679; <I>Walton</I> v. <I>Southern Package Corp.</I> 320 U.S. 540; <I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 325 U.S. 126.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>92</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 14, 15; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>Beaumont Mfg. Co.,</I> 84 F. Supp. 909 (W.D. S.C.); cf. <I>Wilson</I> v. <I>Reconstruction Finance Corp.,</I> 158 F. 2d 564 (C.A. 5), certiorari denied, 331 U.S. 810. Cf. <I>Brogan</I> v. <I>National Surety Co.,</I> 246 U.S. 257; <I>Consolidated Timber Co.</I> v. <I>Womack,</I> 132 F. 2d 101 (C.A. 9); <I>Hanson</I> v. <I>Lagerstrom,</I> 133 F. 2d 120 (C.A. 8).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>93</SU> Cf. H. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 14, 15.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.19   Employees of independent employers meeting needs of producers for commerce.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General statement.</I> (1) If an employee of a producer of goods for commerce would not, while performing particular work, be “engaged in the production” of such goods for purposes of the Act under the principles heretofore stated, an employee of an independent employer performing the same work on behalf of the producer would not be so engaged. Conversely, as shown in the paragraphs following, the fact that employees doing particular work on behalf of such a producer are employed by an independent employer rather than by the producer will not take them outside the coverage of the Act if their work otherwise qualifies as the “production” of “goods” for “commerce.”
</P>
<P>(2) Of course, in view of the Act's definition of “goods” as including “any part or ingredient” of goods (see § 776.20 (a), (c)), employees of an independent employer providing other employers with materials or articles which become parts or ingredients of goods produced by such other employers for commerce are actually employed by a producer of goods for commerce and their coverage under the Act must be considered in the light of this fact. For example, an employee of such an independent employer who handles or in any manner works on the goods which become parts or ingredients of such other producer's goods is engaged in actual production of goods (parts of ingredients) for commerce, and the question of his coverage is determined by this fact without reference to whether his work is “closely related” and “directly essential” to the production by the other employer of the goods in which such parts or ingredients are incorporated. So also, if the employee is not engaged in the actual production of such parts or ingredients, his coverage will depend on whether as an employee of a producer of goods for commerce, his work is “closely related” and “directly essential” to the production of the parts or ingredients, rather than on the principles applicable in determining the coverage of employees of an independent employer who does not himself produce the goods for commerce. 
<SU>94</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>94</SU> <I>Bracey</I> v. <I>Luray,</I> 138 F. 2d 8 (C.A. 4); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Peoples Packing Co.,</I> 132 F. 2d 236 (C.A. 10), certiorari denied 318 U.S. 774; <I>Mid-Continent Pipe Line Co.</I> v. <I>Hargrave,</I> 129 F. 2d 655 (C.A. 10); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>W. D. Haden Co.,</I> 153 F. 2d 196 (C.A. 5).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Where the work of an employee would be “closely related” and “directly essential” to the production of goods for commerce if he were employed by a producer of the goods, the mere fact that the employee is employed by an independent employer will not justify a different answer. 
<SU>95</SU>
<FTREF/> This does not necessarily mean that such work in every case will remain “closely related” to production when performed by employees of an independent employer. It will, of course, be as “directly essential” to production in the one case as in the other. (See § 776.17(c)). But in determining whether an employee's work is “closely” or only remotely related to the production of goods for commerce by an employer other than his own, the nature and purpose of the business in which he is employed and in the course of which he performs the work may sometimes become important.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>95</SU> See <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657; <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755; H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14. See also Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15372.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Such factors may prove decisive in particular situations where the employee's work, although “directly essential” to the production of goods by someone other than his employer, is not far from the borderline between those activities which are “directly essential” and those which are not. In such a situation, it may appear that his performance of the work is so much a part of an essentially local business carried on by his employer without any intent or purpose of aiding production of goods for commerce by others that the work, as thus performed, may not reasonably be considered “closely related” to such production. 
<SU>96</SU>
<FTREF/> In other situations, however, where the degree to which the work is directly essential to production by the producer is greater the fact that the independent employer is engaged in a business having local aspects may not be sufficient to negate a close relationship between his employees' work and such production. 
<SU>97</SU>
<FTREF/> And it seems clear that where the independent employer operates a business which, unlike that of the ordinary local merchant, is directed to providing producers with materials or services directly essential to the production of their goods for commerce, the activities of such a business may be found to be “closely related” to such production. 
<SU>98</SU>
<FTREF/> In such event, all the employees of the independent employer whose work is part of his integrated effort to meet such needs of producers are covered as engaged in work closely related and directly essential to production of goods for commerce. 
<SU>99</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>96</SU> M. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 14, 15, <I>10 E. 40th St. Bldg. Co.</I> v. <I>Callus,</I> 325 U.S. 578.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>97</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Warren-Bradshaw Drilling Co.</I> v. <I>Hall,</I> 317 U.S. 88.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>98</SU> See H. Mgrs. St., p. 14, and <I>10 E. 40th St. Bldg. Co.</I> v. <I>Callus,</I> 325 U.S. 578.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>99</SU> <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517 (Stationary engineers and firemen, watchmen, elevator operators, electricians, carpenters, carpenters' helper, engaged in maintaining and servicing loft building for producers); <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657 (foremen, trouble shooters, mechanics, helpers, and office employees of company selling and servicing electric motors, generators, and equipment for commercial and industrial firms); <I>Meeker Coop. Light &amp; Power Assn.</I> v. <I>Phillips,</I> 158 F. 2d 698 (C.A. 8) (outside employees and office employees of light and power company serving producers); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>New Orleans Private Patrol Service,</I> 57 F. Supp. 143 (E. D. La.) (guards, watchmen, and office employees of company providing patrol service for producers); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Thompson,</I> 65 F. Supp. 686 (S.D. Cal.) (installation and service men, shopmen, bookkeeper, salesman, dispatcher of company supplying burglar alarm service to producers).
</P>
<P>In H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14 it is said, “Employees engaged in such maintenance, custodial and clerical work will remain subject to the Act, notwithstanding they are employed by an independent employer performing such work on behalf of the manufacturer, mining company, or other producer for commerce. All such employees perform activities that are closely related and directly essential to the production of goods for commerce.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Extent of coverage under “closely related” and “directly essential” clause illustrated.</I> In paragraphs (b)(1) to (5) of this section, the principles discussed above are illustrated by reference to a number of typical situations in which goods or services are provided to producers of goods for commerce by the employees of independent employers. These examples are intended not only to answer questions as to coverage in the particular situations discussed, but to provide added guideposts for determining whether employees in other situations are doing work closely related and directly essential to such production.
</P>
<P>(1) Many local merchants sell to local customers within the same State goods which do not become a part or ingredient (as to parts or ingredients, see § 776.20(c)) of goods produced by any of such customers. Such a merchant may sell to his customers, including producers for commerce, such articles, for example, as paper towels, or record books, or paper clips, or filing cabinets, or automobiles and trucks, or paint, or hardware, not specially designed for use in the production of other goods.
</P>
<FP>Where such a merchant's business is essentially local in nature, selling its goods to the usual miscellany of local customers without any particular intent or purpose of aiding production of other goods for commerce by such customers, the local merchant's employees are not doing work both “closely related” and “directly essential” to production, so as to bring them within the reach of the Act, merely “because some of the customers * * * are producing goods for interstate [or foreign] commerce.” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Therefore, if they do not otherwise engage “in commerce” (see §§ 776.8 to 776.13) or in the “production” of goods for commerce, they are not covered by the Act.
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, pp. 14, 15.</P></FTNT>
<FP>In such a situation, moreover, even where the work done by the employees is “directly essential” to such production by their employer's customers, it may not meet the “closely related” test. But the more directly essential to the production of goods for commerce such work is, the more likely it is that a close and immediate tie between it and such production exists which will be sufficient, notwithstanding the local aspect of the employer's business, to bring the employees within the coverage of the Act on the ground that their work is “closely related” as well as “directly essential” to production by the employer's customers.
</FP>
<FP>Such a close and immediate tie with production exists, for example, where the independent employer, through his employees, supplies producers of goods for commerce with things as directly essential to production as electric motors or machinery or machinery parts for use in producing the goods of a manufacturer, for mining operations, or for production of oil, or for other production operations or the power, water, or fuel required in such production operations, to mention a few typical examples. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The fact that these needs of producers are supplied through the agency of businesses having certain local aspects cannot alter the obvious fact that the employees of such businesses who supply these needs are doing work both “closely related” and “directly essential” to production by the employer's customers. As the United States Supreme Court has stated: “Such sales and services must be immediately available to * * * [the customers] or their production will stop.” 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; Sen. St., 95 Cong. Rec., October 19, 1949, at 15372; Statement of the Chairman of the Committee on Education and Labor explaining the conference agreement to the House of Representatives, 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15135; <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657; <I>Reynolds</I> v. <I>Salt River Valley Water Users Assn.,</I> 143 F. 2d 863 (C.A. 9); <I>Meeker Coop. Light &amp; Power Assn.</I> v. <I>Phillips,</I> 158 F. 2d 698 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Hammer,</I> 64 F. Supp. 690 (W.D. Va.); <I>Holland</I> v. <I>Amoskeag Machine Co.,</I> 44 F. Supp. 884 (D. N.H.); <I>Princeton Mining Co.</I> v. <I>Veach,</I> 63 N.E. 2d 306 (Ind. App.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657, 664.</P></FTNT>
<FP>It should be noted that employees of independent employers providing such essential goods and services to producers will not be removed from coverage because an unsegregated portion of their work is performed for customers other than producers of goods for commerce. For example, employees of public utilities, furnishing gas, electricity or water to firms within the State engaged in manufacturing, mining, or otherwise producing goods for commerce, are subject to the Act notwithstanding such gas, electricity or water is also furnished to consumers who do not produce goods for commerce. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>Meeker Coop. Light &amp; Power Assn.</I> v. <I>Phillips,</I> 158 F. 2d 698 (C.A. 8); H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14. For another illustration see H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 26, with reference to industrial laundries.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) On similar principles, employees of independent employers providing to manufacturers, mining companies, or other producers such goods used in their production of goods for commerce as tools and dies, patterns, designs, or blueprints are engaged in work “closely related” as well as “directly essential” to the production of the goods for commerce; 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> the same is true of employees of an independent employer engaged in such work as producing and supplying to a steel mill, sand meeting the mill's specifications for cast shed, core, and molding sands used in the production by the mill of steel for commerce. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> Another illustration of such covered work, according to managers of the bill in Congress, is that of employees of industrial laundry and linen supply companies serving the needs of customers engaged in manufacturing or mining goods for commerce. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; Sen. St., 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15372.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Amidon,</I> 153 F. 2d 159 (C.A. 10); Sen. St., 95 Cong. Rec., October 19, 1949, at 15372.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 26; Sen. St., 95 Cong. Rec., October 19, 1949, at 15372. See also <I>Koerner</I> v. <I>Associated Linen Laundry Suppliers,</I> 270 App. Div. 986, 62 N.Y.S. 2d 774.</P></FTNT>
<FP>On the other hand, the legislative history makes it clear that employees of a “local architectural firm” are not brought within the coverage of the Act by reason of the fact that their activities “include the preparation of plans for the alteration of buildings within the State which are used to produce goods for interstate commerce.” Such activities are not “directly essential” enough to the production of goods in the buildings to establish the required close relationship between their performance and such production when they are performed by employees of such a “local” firm. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> Of course, this result is even more apparent where the activities of the employees of such a “local” business may not be viewed as “directly essential” to production. It is clear, for example, that Congress did not believe “employees of an independently owned and operated restaurant” should be brought under the coverage of the Act because the restaurant is “located in a factory.” To establish coverage on “production” grounds, an employee must be “shown to have a closer and more direct relationship to the producing * * * activity” than this. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 15. See also <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Turpin,</I> 81 F. Supp. 86, 1948 (D. Md.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14. Cf. <I>Bayer</I> v. <I>Courtemanche,</I> 76 F. Supp. 193 (D. Conn.). See also § 776.18(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Some further examples may help to clarify the line to be drawn in such cases. The work of employees constructing a dike to prevent the flooding of an oil field producing oil for commerce would clearly be work not only “directly essential” but also “closely related” to the production of the oil. However, employees of a materialman quarrying, processing, and transporting stone to the construction site for use in the dike would be doing work too far removed from production of the oil to be considered “closely related” thereto. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, the sale of sawmill equipment to a producer of mine props which are in turn sold to mines within the same State producing coal for commerce is too remote from production of the coal to be considered “closely related” thereto, but production of the mine props, like the manufacture of tools, dies, or machinery for use in producing goods for commerce, has such a close and immediate tie with production of the goods for commerce that it meets the “closely related” (as well as the “directly essential”) test. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See <I>E. C. Schroeder Co.</I> v. <I>Clifton,</I> 153 F. 2d 385 (C.A. 10) (opinion of Judge Phillips) and H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 15.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> See <I>Wailing</I> v. <I>Hamner,</I> 64 F. Supp. 690 (W.D. Va.), and statement of the Chairman of the Committee on Education and Labor explaining the conference agreement to the House of Representatives, 1949 Cong. Rec., p. 15135.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) A further illustration of the distinction between work that is, and work that is not, “closely related” to the production of goods for commerce may be found in situations involving activities which are directly essential to the production by farmers of farm products which are shipped in commerce. Employees of an employer furnishing to such farmers, within the same State, water for the irrigation of their crops, power for use in their agricultural production for commerce, or seed from which the crops grow, are engaged in work “closely related” as well as “directly essential” to the production of goods for commerce. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> On the other hand, it is apparent from the legislative history that Congress did not regard, as “closely related” to the production of farm products for commerce, the activities of employees in a local fertilizer plant producing fertilizer for use by farmers within the same State to improve the productivity of the land used in growing such products. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> Fertilizer is ordinarily thought to be assimilated by the soil rather than by the crop and, in the ordinary case, may be considered less directly essential to production of farm products than the water or seed, without which such production would not be possible. Probably the withdrawal from coverage of such employees (who were held “necessary” to production of goods for commerce under the Act prior to the 1949 amendments 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>) rests wholly or in part on the principles stated in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Heretofore the Department has taken the position that producing or supplying feed for poultry and livestock to be used by farmers within the State in the production of poultry or cattle for commerce was covered. The case of Mitchell v. Garrard Mills 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> has reached a contrary conclusion as to a local producer of such feed in a situation where all of the feed was sold to farmers and dealers for use exclusively within the State. For the time being, and until further clarification from the courts, the Divisions will not assert the position that coverage exists under the factual situation which existed in this case.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755; <I>Reynolds</I> v. <I>Salt River Valley Water Users Assn.,</I> 143 F. 2d 863 (C.A. 9); <I>Meeker Coop. Light &amp; Power Assn.</I> v. <I>Phillips,</I> 158 F. 2d 698 (C.A. 8).
</P>
<P>Reference should be made to section 13 (a) (6) of the Act providing an exemption from the wage and hours provisions for employees employed in agriculture and for certain employees of nonprofit and sharecrop irrigation companies.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> H. Mgrs. St. 1949, p. 15.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Super-A Fertilizer Works,</I> 165 F. 2d 824 (C.A. 1).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> 241 F. 2d 249 (C.A. 6).</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) Managers of the legislation in Congress stated that all maintenance, custodial, and clerical employees of manufacturers, mining companies, and other producers of goods for commerce perform activities that are both “closely related” and “directly essential” to the production of goods for commerce, and that the same is true of employees of an independent employer performing such maintenance, custodial, and clerical work “on behalf of” such producers.
</P>
<FP>Typical of the employees in this covered group are those repairing or maintaining the machinery or buildings used by the producer in his production of goods for commerce and employees of a watchman or guard or patrol or burglar alarm service protecting the producer's premises. 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> On the other hand, the House managers of the bill made it clear that employees engaged in cleaning windows or cutting grass at the plant of a producer of goods for commerce were not intended to be included as employees doing work “closely related” to production on “on behalf of” the producer where they were employed by a “local window-cleaning company” or a “local independent nursery concern,” merely because the customers of the employer happen to include producers of goods for commerce. 
<SU>17</SU> A similar view was expressed with respect to employees of a “local exterminator service firm” working wholly within the State exterminating pests in private homes, in a variety of local establishments, “and also in buildings within the State used to produce goods for interstate commerce.” 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> See H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 14; Sen. St. 1949 Cong. Rec. p. 15372; <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Sondock,</I> 132 F. 2d 77 (C.A. 5); <I>Holland</I> v. <I>Amoskeag Machine Co.,</I> 44 F. Supp. 884 (D.N.H.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> H. Mgrs. St., 1949, page 15.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 2925, May 17, 1950, as amended at 22 FR 9692, Dec. 4, 1957]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.20   “Goods.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The statutory provision.</I> An employee is covered by the wage and hours provisions of the Act if he is engaged in the “production” (as explained in §§ 776.15 through 776.19) “for commerce” (as explained in § 776.21) of anything defined as “goods” in section 3(i) of the Act. This definition is:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Goods</I> means goods (including ships and marine equipment), wares, products, commodities, merchandise, or articles or subjects of commerce of any character, or any part or ingredient thereof, but does not include goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer thereof other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>“Articles or subjects of commerce of any character.”</I> It will be observed that “goods” as defined in the Act are not limited to commercial goods or articles of trade, or, indeed, to tangible property, but include “articles or subjects of commerce of <I>any character</I> (emphasis supplied). 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> It is well settled that things such as “ideas, * * * orders, and intelligence” are “subjects of commerce.” Telegraphic messages have, accordingly, been held to be “goods” within the meaning of the Act. 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> Other articles or subjects of commerce which fall within the definition of “goods” include written materials such as newspapers, magazines, brochures, pamphlets, bulletins, and announcements; 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> written reports, fiscal and other statements and accounts, correspondence, lawyers' briefs and other documents; 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/> advertising, motion picture, newspaper and radio copy, artwork and manuscripts for publication; 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/> sample books; 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/> letterheads, envelopes, shipping tags, labels, check books, blank books, book covers, advertising circulars and candy wrappers. 
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> Insurance policies are “goods” within the meaning of the Act; 
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/> so are bonds, stocks, bills of exchange, bills of lading, checks, drafts, negotiable notes and other commercial paper. 
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/> “Goods” includes gold; 
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> livestock; 
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> poultry and eggs; 
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/> vessels; 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> vehicles; 
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> aircraft; 
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> garments being laundered or rented; 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> ice; 
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/> containers, as, for example, cigar boxes or wrapping paper and packing materials for other goods shipped in commerce; 
<SU>35</SU>
<FTREF/> electrical energy or power, gas, etc.; 
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> and by-products, 
<SU>37</SU>
<FTREF/> to mention only a few illustrations of the articles or subjects of “trade, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication among the several States, or between any State and any place outside thereof” which the Act refers to as “goods.” The Act's definitions do not, however, include as “goods” such things as dams, river improvements, highways and viaducts, or railroad lines. 
<SU>38</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> As pointed out in <I>Lenroot</I> v. <I>Western Union Tel. Co.,</I> 141 F. 2d 400 (C.A. 2), the legislative history shows that the definition was originally narrower, and that subjects of commerce were added by a Senate amendment.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> <I>Western Union Tel. Co.</I> v. <I>Lenroot</I> 323 U.S. 490.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> <I>Mabee</I> v. <I>White Plains Pub. Co.,</I> 327 U.S. 178; <I>Yunker</I> v. <I>Abbye Employment Agency,</I> 32 N.Y.S. 2d 715; <I>Berry</I> v. <I>34 Irving Place Corp.,</I> 52 F. Supp. 875 (S.D. N.Y.); <I>Ullo</I> v. <I>Smith,</I> 62 F. Supp. 757, affirmed in 177 F. 2d 101 (C.A. 2); see also opinion of the four dissenting justices in <I>10 E. 40th St. Bldg.</I> v. <I>Callus,</I> 325 U.S. at p. 586.
</P>
<P>Waste paper collected for shipment in commerce is goods. See <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Schiff,</I> 1 W.H. Cases 893 (D. Colo.), 15 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 60,864.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Meeker Coop. Light &amp; Power Asso.,</I> 63 F. Supp. 733, affirmed in 158 F. 2d 698 (C.A. 8); <I>Lofther</I> v. <I>First Nat. Bank of Chicago,</I> 48 F. Supp. 692 (N.D. Ill.) See also <I>Rausch</I> v. <I>Wolf,</I> 72 F. Supp. 658 (N.D. Ill). There are other cases (e.g., <I>Kelly</I> v. <I>Ford, Bacon &amp; Davis,</I> 162 F. 2d 555 (C.A. 3) and <I>Bozant</I> v. <I>Bank of New York,</I> 156 F. 2d 787 (C.A. 2) which suggest that such things are “goods” only when they are articles of trade. Although the Supreme Court has not settled the question, such a view appears contrary to the express statutory definitions of “goods” and “commerce”.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> <I>Robert</I> v. <I>Henry Phipps Estate,</I> 156 F. 2d 958 (C.A. 2); <I>Baldwin</I> v. <I>Emigrant Industrial Sav. Bank,</I> 150 F. 2d 524 (C.A. 2), certiorari denied 326 U.S. 757; <I>Bittner</I> v. <I>Chicago Daily News Ptg. Co.,</I> 4 W.H. Cases 837 (N.D. Ill.), 29 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 62,479; <I>Schinck</I> v. <I>386 Fourth Ave. Corp.,</I> 49 N.Y.S. 2d 872.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Higgins,</I> 47 F. Supp. 856 (E.D. Pa.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> <I>McAdams</I> v. <I>Connelly,</I> 8 W.H. Cases 498 (W.D. Ark.), 16 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 64,963; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Lacy,</I> 51 F. Supp. 1002 (D. Colo.); <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Grant</I> 8 W.H. Cases 361 (N.D. Calif.). See also <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Sieving,</I> 5 W.H. Cases 1009 (N.D. Ill.), 11 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 63,098.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> <I>Darr</I> v. <I>Mutual Life Ins. Co.,</I> 169 F. 2d 262 (C.A. 2), certiorari denied 335 U.S. 871.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> <I>Bozant</I> v. <I>Bank of New York,</I> 156 F. 2d 787 (C.A. 2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haile Gold Mines,</I> 136 F. 2d 102 (C.A. 4); <I>Fox</I> v. <I>Summit King Mines,</I> 143 F. 2d 926 (C.A. 9).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Friend,</I> 156 F. 2d 429 (C.A. 8).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>DeSoto Creamery &amp; Produce Co.,</I> 51 F. Supp. 938 (D. Minn).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> <I>Slover</I> v. <I>Wathen,</I> 140 F. 2d 258 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> <I>Hertz Drivurself Stations</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 150 F. 2d 923 (C.A. 8).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> <I>Jackson</I> v. <I>Northwest Airlines,</I> 75 F. Supp. 32 (D. Minn.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Star Overall Dry Cleaning Laundry Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 416 (C.A. 2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> <I>Hamlet Ice Co.</I> v. <I>Fleming,</I> 127 F. 2d 165 (C.A. 4); <I>Atlantic Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 131 F. 2d 518 (C.A. 5).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>35</SU> <I>Enterprise Box Co.</I> v. <I>Fleming,</I> 125 F. 2d 897 (C.A. 5), certiorari denied, 316 U.S. 704; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Schiff,</I> 1 W.H. Cases 883 (D. Colo.), 5 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 60,864.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Connecticut Co.;</I> 62 F. Supp. 733 (D. Conn.), affirmed 154 F. 2d 552 (C.A. 2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>37</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Peoples Packing Co.,</I> 132 F. 2d 236 (C.A. 10), certiorari denied 318 U.S. 774.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>38</SU> <I>Engebretsen</I> v. <I>Albrecht,</I> 150 F. 2d 602 (C.A. 7); <I>Kenny</I> v. <I>Wigton-Abbott Corp.,</I> 80 F. Supp. 489 (D. N.J.).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>“Any part or ingredient.”</I> Section 3(i) draws no distinction between goods and their ingredients and in fact defines goods to mean “goods” * * * or any part or ingredient thereof.” The fact that goods are processed or changed in form by several employers before going into interstate or foreign commerce does not affect the character of the original product as “goods” produced for commerce. Thus, if a garment manufacturer sends goods to an independent contractor within the State to have them sewn, after which he further processes and ships them in interstate commerce, the division of the production functions between the two employees does not alter the fact that the employees of the independent contractor are actually producing (“working on”) the “goods” (parts or ingredients of goods) which enter the channels of commerce. 
<SU>39</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>39</SU> <I>Schulte Co.</I> v. <I>Gangi,</I> 328 U.S. 108.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Similarly, if a manufacturer of buttons sells his products within the State to a manufacturer of shirts, who ships the shirts in interstate commerce, the employees of the button manufacturer would be engaged in the production of goods for commerce; or, if a lumber manufacturer sells his lumber locally to a furniture manufacturer who sells furniture in interstate commerce, the employees of the lumber manufacturer would likewise come within the scope of the Act. Any employee who is engaged in the “production” (as explained in § 776.15) of any part or ingredient of goods produced for trade, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof is engaged in the production of “goods” for commerce within the meaning of the Act. 
<SU>40</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>40</SU> <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657; <I>Bracy</I> v. <I>Luray,</I> 138 F. 2d 8 (C.A. 4); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>W. J. Haden Co.,</I> 153 F. 2d 196 (C.A. 5); <I>Mid-Continent Pipe Line Co.</I> v. <I>Hargrave,</I> 129 F. 2d 655 (C.A. 10); <I>Boiling</I> v. <I>Allison,</I> 4 W. H. Cases 500 (N.D. Okla.); <I>Hanson</I> v. <I>Lagerstrom,</I> 133 F. 2d 120 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Comet Carriers,</I> 151 F. 2d 107 (C.A. 2); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Griffin Cartage Co.,</I> 62 F. Supp. 396, affirmed in 153 F. 2d 587 (C.A. 6); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Kerr,</I> 47 F. Supp. 852 (E.D. Pa.).</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of the exclusionary clause.</I> The exclusionary clause in the definition that excepts “goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer thereof other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof,” is intended to protect ultimate consumers other than producers, manufacturers, or processors of the goods in question 
<SU>41</SU>
<FTREF/> from the “hot goods” provisions of section 15(a)(1) of the Act. 
<SU>42</SU>
<FTREF/> Section 15(a)(1) makes it unlawful for any person “to transport * * * (or * * * ship * * * in commerce * * * any goods” produced in violation of the wage and hours standards established by the Act. (Exceptions are made subject to specified conditions for common carriers and for certain purchasers acting in good faith reliance on written statements of compliance. See footnote 53 to § 776.15(a).) By defining “goods” in section 3(i) so as to exclude goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer (other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof) Congress made it clear that it did not intend to hold the ultimate consumer as a violator of section 15(a)(1) if he should transport “hot goods” across a State line. 
<SU>43</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, if a person purchases a pair of shoes for himself from a retail store 
<SU>44</SU>
<FTREF/> and carries the shoes across a State line, the purchaser is not guilty of a violation of section 15(a)(1) if the shoes were produced in violation of the wage or hours provisions of the statute. But the fact that goods produced for commerce lose their character as “goods” after they come into the actual physical possession of an ultimate consumer who does not further process or work on them, does not affect their character as “goods” while they are still in the actual physical possession of the producer, manufacturer or processor who is handling or working on them with the intent or expectation that they will subsequently enter interstate or foreign commerce. 
<SU>45</SU>
<FTREF/> Congress clearly did not intend to permit an employer to avoid the minimum wage and maximum hours standards of the Act by making delivery within the State into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer who transports or ships the goods outside of the State. Thus, employees engaged in building a boat for delivery to the purchaser at the boatyard are considered within the coverage of the Act if the employer, at the time the boat is being built, intends, hopes, or has reason to believe that the purchase will sail it outside the State. 
<SU>46</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>41</SU> <I>Southern Advance Bag &amp; Paper Co.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 183 F. 2d 449 (C.A. 5); <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Star Overall Dry Cleaning Laundry Co,</I> 149 F. 2d 485 (C.A. 2), certiorari denied 327 U.S. 780.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>42</SU> <I>Jackson</I> v. <I>Northwest Airlines,</I> 70 F. Supp. 501.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>43</SU> <I>Hamlet Ice Co.</I> v. <I>Fleming,</I> 127 F. 2d 165 (C.A. 4), certiorari denied 317 U.S. 634.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>44</SU> Note that the retail or service establishment exemption in section 13(a)(2) does not protect the retail store from a violation of the “hot goods” provision if it sells in interstate commerce goods produced in violation of section 6 or 7.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45</SU> See cases cited above in footnotes 41, 42, 43, this section.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>46</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Lowe,</I> 5 W.H. Cases (S.D. Fla.), 10 Labor Cases (CCH) 63,033. See also <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Armbruster,</I> 51 F. Supp. 166 (W.D. Ark.); <I>Joshua Hendy Corp.</I> v. <I>Mills,</I> 169 F. 2d 898 (C.A. 9); <I>St. Johns River Shipbuilding Co.</I> v. <I>Adams,</I> 164 F. 2d 1012 S. (C.A. 5).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.1.150.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.21   “For” commerce.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General principles.</I> As has been made clear previously, where “goods” (as defined in the Act) are produced “for commerce,” every employee engaged in the “production” (as explained in §§ 776.15 through 776.19) of such goods (including any part or ingredient thereof) is within the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions of the Act. Goods are produced for “commerce” if they are produced for “trade, commerce, transporation, transmission, or communication among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.” 
<SU>47</SU>
<FTREF/> Goods are produced “for” such commerce where the employer intends, hopes, expects, or has reason to believe that the goods or any unsegregated part of them will move (in the same or in an altered form or as a part or ingredient of other goods) in such interstate or foreign commerce. 
<SU>48</SU>
<FTREF/> If such movement of the goods in commerce can be reasonably anticipated by the employer when his employees perform work defined in the Act as “production” of such goods, it makes no difference whether he himself, or a subsequent owner or possessor of the goods, put the goods in interstate or foreign commerce. 
<SU>49</SU>
<FTREF/> The fact that goods do move in interstate or foreign commerce is strong evidence that the employer intended, hoped, expected, or had reason to believe that they would so move.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>47</SU> Fair Labor Standards Act, section 3(b).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48</SU> <I>United States</I> v. <I>Darby,</I> 312 U.S. 100; <I>Warren-Bradshaw Drilling Co.</I> v. <I>Hall,</I> 371 U.S. 88; <I>Schulte Co.</I> v. <I>Gangi,</I> 328 U.S. 108.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>49</SU> <I>Schulte Co.</I> v. <I>Gangi,</I> 328 U.S. 108; <I>Warren-Bradshaw Drilling Co.</I> v. <I>Hall,</I> 417 U.S. 88. See paragraph (d) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Although it is generally well understood that goods are produced “for” commerce if they are produced for movement in commerce to points outside the State, questions have been raised as to whether work done on goods may constitute production “for” commerce even though the goods do not ultimately leave the State. As is explained more fully in the paragraphs following, there are certain situations in which this may be true, either under the principles above stated (see paragraph (c) of this section), or because it appears that the goods are produced “for” commerce in the sense that they are produced for use directly in the furtherance, within the particular State, of the actual movement to, from, or across such State or interstate or foreign commerce. (See paragraph (b) of this section).
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Goods produced for direct furtherance of interstate movement.</I> (1) The Act's definition of “commerce,” as has been seen, describes a movement, among the several States or between any State and any outside place, of trade, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication.” Whenever goods are produced “for” such movement, such goods are produced “for commerce,” whether or not there is any expectation or reason to anticipate that the particular goods will leave the State. 
<SU>50</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>50</SU> <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Atlantic Co.,</I> 40 F. Supp. 654, affirmed in 131 F. 2d 518 (C.A. 5).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The courts have held that particular goods are produced “for” commerce when they are produced with a view to their use, whether within or without the State, in the direct furtherance of the movement of interstate or foreign commerce. Thus, it is well settled that ice is produced “for” commerce when it is produced for use by interstate rail or motor carriers in the refrigeration or cooling of the equipment in which the interstate traffic actually moves, even though the particular ice may melt before the equipment in which it is placed leaves the State. 
<SU>51</SU>
<FTREF/> The goods (ice) produced for such use “enter into the very means of transportation by which the burdens of traffic are borne.” 
<SU>52</SU>
<FTREF/> The same may be said of electrical energy produced and sold within a single State for such uses as lighting and operating signals on railroads and at airports to guide interstate traffic, lighting and operating radio stations transmitting programs interstate, and lighting and message transmission of telephone and telegraph companies. 
<SU>53</SU>
<FTREF/> Similar principles would apply to the production of fuel or water for use in the operation of railroads with which interstate and foreign commerce is carried on; the production of radio or television scripts which provide the basis for programs transmitted interstate; the production of telephone and telegraph poles for use in the necessary repair, maintenance, or improvement of interstate communication systems; the production of crushed rock, ready-mixed concrete, cross-ties, concrete culvert pipe, bridge timbers, and similar items for use in the necessary repair, maintenance, or improvement of railroad roadbeds and bridges which serve as the instrumentalities over which interstate traffic moves.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>51</SU> <I>Hamlet Ice Co.</I> v. <I>Fleming,</I> 127 F. 2d 165 (C.A. 4), certiorari denied 317 U.S. 634; <I>Atlantic Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 131 F. 2d 518 (C.A. 5); <I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Home Ice Co.</I>; 136 F. 2d 353 (C.A. 6) certiorari denied 320 U.S. 761; <I>Southern United Ice Co.</I> v. <I>Hendrix,</I> 153 F. 2d 689 (C.A. 6); <I>Hansen</I> v. <I>Salinas Valley Ice Co.,</I> 62 Cal. App. 357, 144 F. 2d 896.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>52</SU> <I>Hamlet Ice Co.</I> v. <I>Fleming,</I> 127 F. 2d 165 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>53</SU> <I>Lewis</I> v. <I>Florida Power &amp; Light Co.,</I> 154 F. 2d 751 (C.A. 5); see also <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Connecticut Co.,</I> 154 F. 2d 552 (C.A. 2).</P></FTNT>
<FP>Similarly, in the case of highways, pipe lines, and waterways which serve as instrumentalities of interstate and foreign commerce, the production of goods for use in the direct furtherance of the movement of commerce thereon would be the production of goods “for commerce.” The production of materials 
<SU>54</SU>
<FTREF/> for use in the necessary maintenance, repair, or improvement of the instrumentality so that the flow of commerce will not be impeded or impaired is an example of this. Thus, stone or ready-mixed concrete, crushed rock, sand, gravel, and similar materials for bridges or dams; like materials or bituminous aggregate or oil for road surfacing; concrete or galvanized pipe for road drainage; bridge planks and timbers; paving blocks; and other such materials may be produced “for” commerce even though they do not leave the State.
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>54</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Staffen,</I> 5 W.H. Cases 1002 (W.D. N.Y.), 11 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 63, 102; <I>McCombs</I> v. <I>Carter,</I> 8 W.H. Cases 498 (E.D. Va.), 16 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 64, 964. <I>Contra, McComb</I> v. <I>Trimmer,</I> 85 F. Supp. 565 (D. N.J.). Cf. <I>Engebretson</I> v. <I>Albrecht,</I> 150 F. 2d 602 (C.A. 7).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) This does not, however, necessarily mean that the production of such materials within a State is always production “for” commerce when the materials are used in the same State for the maintenance, repair, or improvement of highways or other instrumentalities carrying interstate traffic. In determining whether the production is actually “for” commerce in a situation where there is no reason to believe that the goods will leave the State, a practical judgment is required. Some illustrations may be helpful.
</P>
<FP>On the one hand, there are situations where there is little room for doubt that the goods are produced “for” commerce in the sense that the goods are intended for the direct furtherance of the movement of commerce over the instrumentalities of transportation and communication. The most obvious illustration is that of special-purpose goods such as cross-ties for railroads, telephone or telegraph poles, or concrete pipe designed for highway use. Another illustration is sand and gravel for highway repair or reconstruction which is produced from a borrow pit opened expressly for that purpose, or from the pits of an employer whose business operations are conducted wholly or in the substantial part with the intent or purpose of filling highway contracts. (The fact that a substantial portion of the employer's gross income is derived from supplying such materials for highway repair and reconstruction would be one indication that a substantial part of his business is directed to the purpose of meeting such needs of commerce.)
</FP>
<FP>On the other hand, there are situations where materials or other goods used in maintaining, repairing, or reconstructing instrumentalities of commerce are produced and supplied by local materialmen under circumstances which may require the conclusion that the goods are not produced “for” commerce. Thus, a materialman may be engaged in an essentially local business serving the usual miscellany of local customers, without any substantial part of such business being directed to meeting the needs of highway repair or reconstruction. If, on occasion, he happens to produce or supply some materials which are used within the State to meet such highway needs, and he does so as a mere incident of his essentially local business, the Administrator will not consider that his employees handling or working on such materials are producing goods “for” commerce. This is, rather, a typically local activity of the kind the Act was not intended to cover. The same may be said of the production of ice by an essentially local ice plant where the only basis of coverage is the delivery of ice for the water cooler in the community railroad station. The employees producing ice in the ice plant for local use would not by reason of this be covered as engaged in the production of goods “for” commerce.
</FP>
<FP>Other illustrations might be given but these should emphasize the essential distinction which must be kept in mind. Borderline cases will, of course, arise. In each such case the facts must be examined and a determination made as to whether or not the goods may fairly be viewed as produced “for” use in the direct furtherance of the movement of interstate or foreign commerce, and thus “for” commerce.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Controlling effect of facts at time “production” occurs.</I> (1) Whether employees are engaged in the production of goods “for” commerce depends upon circumstances as they exist at the time the goods are being produced, not upon some subsequent event. Thus, if a lumber manufacturer produces lumber to fill an out-of-State order, the employees working on the lumber are engaged in the production of goods for commerce and within the coverage of the Act's wage and hours provisions, even though the lumber does not ultimately leave the State because it is destroyed by fire before it can be shipped. Similarly, employees drilling for oil which the employer expects to leave the State either as crude oil or refined products are engaged in the production of goods for commerce while the drilling operations are going on and are entitled to be paid on that basis notwithstanding some of the wells drilled may eventually prove to be dry holes. 
<SU>55</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>55</SU> <I>Culver</I> v. <I>Bell &amp; Loffland,</I> 146 F. 2d 29 (C.A. 9); see also <I>Warren-Bradshaw Drilling Co.</I> v. <I>Hall,</I> 317 U.S. 88.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) On the other hand, if the lumber manufacturer first mentioned produces lumber to fill the order of a local contractor in the expectation that it will be used to build a schoolhouse within the State, the employees producing the lumber are not engaged in the production of goods “for” commerce and are not covered by the Act. This would remain true notwithstanding the contractor subsequently goes bankrupt and the lumber is sold to a purchaser who moves it to another State; the status of the employees for purposes of coverage cannot in this situation, any more than in the others, be retroactively changed by the subsequent event.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Goods disposed of locally to persons who place them in commerce.</I> It is important to remember that if, at the time when employees engage in activities which constitute “production of goods” within the meaning of the Act, their employer intends, hopes, expects, or has reason to believe that such goods will be taken or sent out of the State by a subsequent purchaser or other person into whose possession the goods will come, this is sufficient to establish that such employees are engaged in the production of such goods “for” commerce and covered by the Act. Whether the producer passes title to the goods to another within the State is immaterial. 
<SU>56</SU>
<FTREF/> The goods are produced “for” commerce in such a situation whether they are purchased f.o.b. the factory and are taken out of the State by the purchaser, or whether they are sold within the State to a wholesaler or retailer or manufacturer or processor who in turn sells them, either in the same form or after further processing, in interstate or foreign commerce. The same is true where the goods worked on by the producer's employees are not owned by the producer and are returned, after the work is done, to the possession of the owner who takes or sends them out of the State. 
<SU>57</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, employees are engaged in the production of goods “for” commerce when they are manufacturing, handling, working on, or otherwise engaging in the production of boxes, barrels, bagging, crates, bottles, or other containers, wrapping or packing material which their employer has reason to believe will be used to hold the goods of other producers which will be sent out of the State in such containers or wrappings. It makes no difference that such other producers are located in the same State and that the containers are sold and delivered to them there. 
<SU>58</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>56</SU> <I>Hamlet Ice Co.</I> v. <I>Fleming,</I> 127 F. 2d 165 (C.A. 4). certiorari denied 317 U.S. 634; <I>Bracey</I> v. <I>Luray,</I> 138 F. 2d 8 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>57</SU> <I>Schulte Co.</I> v. <I>Gangi,</I> 328 U.S. 108; <I>Warren-Bradshaw Drilling Co.</I> v. <I>Hall,</I> 317 U.S. 88; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Kerr,</I> 47 F. Supp. 852 (E.D. Pa.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>58</SU> <I>Enterprise Box Co.</I> v. <I>Fleming,</I> 125 F. 2d 897 (C.A. 5), certiorari denied 316 U.S. 704; <I>Dize</I> v. <I>Maddrix,</I> 144 F. 2d 584 (C.A. 4), affirmed 324 U.S. 697; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Burch,</I> 5 W. H. Cases 323 (S.D. Ga.); 9 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 62, 613; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Schiff,</I> 1 W.H. Cases 893 (D. Colo.), 5 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 60, 864.
</P>
<P>It should be noted that where empty containers are purchased, loaded, or transported within a single State as a part of their movement, as empty containers, out of the State, an employee engaged in such purchasing, loading, or transporting operations is covered by the Act as engaged “in commerce.” <I>Atlantic Co.</I> v. <I>Weaver,</I> 150 F. 2d 843 (C.A. 4); <I>Klotz</I> v. <I>Ippolito,</I> 40 F. Supp. 422 (S.D. Tex.); <I>Orange Crush Bottling Co.</I> v. <I>Tuggle,</I> 70 Ga. App. 144, 27 S.E. 2d 769.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Construction Industry</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>21 FR 5439, July 20, 1956, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 776.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.151.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.22   Subpart limited to individual employee coverage.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, which was adopted before the amendments of 1961 and 1966 to the Fair Labor Standards Act, is limited to discussion of the traditional general coverage of employees employed in activities of the character performed in the construction industry, which depends on whether such employees are, individually, “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” within the meaning of the Act. The 1961 and 1966 amendments broadened coverage by extending it to other employees of the construction industry on an “enterprise” basis, as explained in § 776.22a. Employees covered under the principles discussed in this subpart remain covered under the Act as amended; however, an employee who would not be individually covered under the principles discussed in this subpart may now be subject to the Act if he is employed in an enterprise engaged in covered construction as defined in the amendments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 5543, Apr. 3, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="151" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.151" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enterprise Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.22a" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.151.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.22a   Extension of coverage to employment in certain enterprises.</HEAD>
<P>Whether or not individually covered on the traditional basis, an employee is covered on an “enterprise” basis by the Act as amended in 1961 and 1966 if he is “employed in an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” as defined in section 3 (r), (s), of the Act. “Enterprise” is defined generally by section 3(r) to mean “the related activities performed (either through unified operation or common control) by any person or persons for a common business purpose, and includes all such activities whether performed in one or more establishments or by one or more corporate or other organizational units.” If an “enterprise” as thus defined is an “enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” as defined and described in section 3(s) of the Act as amended, any employee employed in such enterprise is subject to the provisions of the Act to the same extent as if he were individually engaged “in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce”, unless specifically exempt, section 3(s), insofar as pertinent to the construction industry, reads as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce means an enterprise which has employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, including employees handling, selling, or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person, and which:</P></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Is engaged in the business of construction or reconstruction, or both.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Questions of “enterprise coverage” in the construction industry which are not answered in published statements of the Department of Labor may be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or assistance may be requested from any of the Regional or District Offices of the Division.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 5543, Apr. 3, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="152" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Individual Employee Coverage in the Construction Industry</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.22b" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.22b   Guiding principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of bulletin and general coverage statement.</I> This subpart contains the opinions of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division with respect to the applicability of the Fair Labor Standards Act to employees engaged in the building and construction industry. The provisions of the Act expressly make its application dependent on the character of an employee's activities, that is, on whether he is engaged “in commerce” or in the “production of goods for commerce including any closely related process or occupation directly essential to such production.” Under either of the two prescribed areas of covered work, coverage cannot be determined by a rigid or technical formula. The United States Supreme Court has said of both phases that coverage must be given “a liberal construction” determined “by practical considerations, not by technical conceptions.” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The Court has specifically rejected the technical “new construction” concept, as a reliable test for determining coverage under this Act. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer &amp; Co.,</I> 349 U.S. 427; <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Alstate Construction Co.</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 345 U.S. 13.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer &amp; Co.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<FP>So far as construction work specifically is concerned, the courts have cast the relevant tests for determining the scope of “in commerce” coverage in substantially similar language as they have used in construing the “production” phase of coverage. Thus the Act applies to construction work which is so intimately related to the functioning of interstate commerce as to be, in practical effect, a part of it, as well as to construction work which has a close and immediate tie with the process of production. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer &amp; Co.,</I> ante; Cf. <I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Engagement in commerce.</I> The United States Supreme Court has held that the “in commerce” phase of coverage extends “throughout the farthest reaches of the channels of interstate commerce,” and covers not only construction work physically in or on a channel or instrumentality of interstate commerce but also construction work “so directly and vitally related to the functioning of an instrumentality or facility of interstate commerce as to be, in practical effect, a part of it, rather than isolated, local activity.” 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer &amp; Co.,</I> ante; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> 317 U.S. 564; <I>Overstreet</I> v. <I>North Shore Corp.,</I> 318 U.S. 125.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Production of goods for commerce.</I> The “production” phase of coverage includes “any closely related process or occupation directly essential” to production of goods for commerce. An employee need not be engaged in activities indispensable to production in order to be covered. Conversely, even indispensable or essential activities, in the sense of being included in the long line of causation which ultimately results in production of finished goods, may not be covered. The work must be both closely related and directly essential to the covered production. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> ante; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 417; Cf. <I>10 E. 40th St. Co.</I> v. <I>Callus,</I> 325 U.S. 578.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>State and national authority.</I> Consideration must also be given to the relationship between state and national authority because Congress intended “to leave local business to the protection of the State.” 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> Activities which superficially appear to be local in character, when isolated, may in fact have the required close or intimate relationship with the area of commerce to which the Act applies. The courts have stated that a project should be viewed as a whole in a realistic way and not broken down into its various phases so as to defeat the purposes of the Act. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> ante; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> ante; <I>Phillips Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490, 497.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> ante; <I>Bennett</I> v. <I>V. P. Loftis Co.,</I> 167 F. (2d) 286 (C.A.4); <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Pennington-Winter Const. Co.,</I> 198 F. (2d) 334 (C.A.10), certiorari denied 345 U.S. 915; See General Coverage Bulletin, §§ 776.19 (a), (b), and 776.21(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Interpretations.</I> In his task of distinguishing covered from non-covered employees the Administrator will be guided by authoritative court decisions. To the extent that prior administrative rulings, interpretations, practices and enforcement policies relating to employees in the construction industry are inconsistent or in conflict with the principles stated in this subpart, they are hereby rescinded and withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 5439, July 20, 1956. Redesignated at 35 FR 5543, Apr. 3, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.23   Employment in the construction industry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The same principles for determining coverage under the Fair Labor Standards Act generally apply to employees in the building and construction industry. As in other situations, it is the employee's activities rather than the employer's business which is the important consideration, and it is immaterial if the employer is an independent contractor who performs the construction work for or on behalf of a firm which is engaged in interstate commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Joyce Agency,</I> 348 U.S. 945, affirming 110 F. Supp. 918; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Sondeck,</I> 132 F. (2d) 77 (C.A. 5), certiorari denied 318 U.S. 772; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> ante; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCrady Construction Co.,</I> 156 F. (2d) 932. certiorari denied 329 U.S. 785; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Brown Engineering Co.,</I> 224 F. (2d) 359 (C.A. 8), certiorari denied 350 U.S. 875; <I>Chambers Construction Co. and L. H. Chambers</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> decided June 5, 1965 (C.A. 8).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>On both covered and non-covered work.</I> If the employee is engaged in both covered and non-covered work during the workweek he is entitled to the benefits of the Act for the entire week regardless of the amount of covered activities which are involved. The covered activities must, however, be regular or recurring rather than isolated, sporadic or occasional. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See General Coverage Bulletin, §§ 776.2 and 776.4</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>On covered construction projects.</I> All employees who are employed in connection with construction work which is closely or intimately related to the functioning of existing instrumentalities and channels of interstate commerce or facilities for the production of goods for such commerce are within the scope of the Act. Closely or intimately related construction work includes the maintenance, repair, reconstruction, redesigning, improvement, replacement, enlargement or extension of a covered facility. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> If the construction project is subject to the Act, all employees who participate in the integrated effort are covered, including not only those who are engaged in work at the site of the construction such as mechanics, laborers, handymen, truckdrivers, watchmen, guards, timekeepers, inspectors, checkers, surveyors, payroll workers, and repair men, but also office, clerical, bookkeeping, auditing, promotional, drafting, engineering, custodial and stock room employees. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCrady Const. Co.,</I> 156 F. (2d) 932, certiorari denied 329 U.S. 785; <I>Chambers Construction Co. and L. H. Chambers</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> decided June 5, 1956 (C.A. 8); <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Pennington-Winter Const. Co.</I> ante; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer &amp; Co.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Brown Engineering Co.,</I> ante; <I>Chambers Construction Co. and L. H. Chambers</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> ante; <I>Ritch</I> v. <I>Puget Sound Bridge &amp; Dredging Co.,</I> 156 F. (2d) 334 (C.A. 9).</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>On non-covered construction projects.</I> (1) A construction project maybe purely local and, therefore, not covered, but some individual employees may nonetheless be covered on independent ground by reason of their interstate activities. Under the principle that coverage depends upon the particular activities of the employee and not on the nature of the business of the employer, individual employees engaged in interstate activities are covered even though their activities may be performed in connection with a non-covered construction project. Thus, the Act is applicable to employees who are regularly engaged in ordering or procuring materials and equipment from outside the State or receiving, unloading, checking, watching or guarding such goods while they are still in transit. For example, laborers on a non-covered construction project who regularly unload materials and equipment from vehicles or railroad cars which are transporting such articles from other States are performing covered work. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> <I>Clyde</I> v. <I>Broderick,</I> 144 F. (2d) 348 (C.A. 10); <I>Durnil</I> v. <I>J. E. Dunn Construction Co.</I> 186 F (2d) 27 (C.A. 8), <I>Donahue</I> v. <I>George A. Fuller Co.,</I> 104 F. Supp. 145; Cf. <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Royal Baking Co.,</I> 219 F. (2d) 532 (C.A. 5).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Similarly, employees who regularly use instrumentalities of commerce, such as the telephone, telegraph and mails for interstate communication are within the scope of the Act, as are employees who are regularly engaged in preparing, handling, or otherwise working on goods which will be sent to other States. This includes the preparation of plans, orders, estimates, accounts, reports and letters for interstate transmittal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.24   Travel in connection with construction projects.</HEAD>
<P>The Act also applies to employees who regularly travel across State lines in the performance of their duties, even though the construction project itself is not covered. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> If an employee regularly transports persons, materials, or equipment between jobs across State lines, or to a covered project, even within the State, as part of his duties for the contractor, he would be covered. As in other situations, the Act would not apply if crossing State lines or transporting persons, materials or equipment by the employee was isolated or sporadic rather than regular and recurring. Also, ordinary home-to-work travel, even across State lines, is not covered.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>Reck v. Zarmacay,</I> 264 App. Div. 520, 36 N.Y.S. (2d) 394; <I>Colbeck</I> v. <I>Dairyland Creamery Co.,</I> 17 N.W. (2d) 262 (S. Ct. S.D.).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.25   Regular and recurring activities as basis of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>Regular and recurring may mean a very small amount and is not to be determined by volume or percentages. Coverage depends on the character rather than the volume of the employee's activities. For example, if an employee in the course of his duties regularly engages in covered work even though the covered work constitutes only a small part of his duties, he would be covered in any week when he performs such covered work. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> ante; <I>Mabee</I> v. <I>White Plains Publishing Co.,</I> 327 U.S. 178.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.26" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.26   Relationship of the construction work to the covered facility.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the construction work is physically or functionally integrated or closely identified with an existing covered facility it is not regarded as covered construction because it is not closely enough related to or integrated with the production of goods for commerce or the engagement in commerce. For this reason the erection, maintenance or repair of dwellings, apartments, hotels, churches and schools are not covered projects. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly the construction of a separate, wholly new, factory building, not constructed as an integral part or as an improvement of an existing covered production plant, is not covered (Cf. § 776.27(c)). Coverage of any construction work, whether new or repair work, depends upon how closely integrated it is with, and how essential it is to the functioning of, existing covered facilities. Neither the mere fact that the construction is “new construction” nor the fact that it is physically separated from an existing covered plant, is determinative. Moreover, the court decisions make it clear that the construction project itself need not be actually employed in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce during the time of its construction in order to be covered. 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> Such factors may be considered in determining whether as a practical matter the work is directly and vitally related to the functioning of the covered facility but would not be decisive.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Cf. § 776.18(b).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer,</I> ante; <I>Bennett</I> v. <I>V. P. Loftis Co.,</I> ante; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Chambers Const. Co.,</I> 214 F. (2d) 515 (C.A. 10); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCrady Const. Co.,</I> ante; <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Pennington-Winter Const. Co.,</I> 198 F. (2d) 334 (C.A. 5), certiorari denied, 345 U.S. 915.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.27" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.27   Construction which is related to covered production.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Existing production establishments.</I> (1) Covered production facilities within the concept of the Act include mines, oil wells, banks, manufacturing, packing and processing plants, filtration, sewage treatment, electric power and water plants, shipyards, warehouses in which goods are broken down, packed or handled preparatory to being sent in interstate commerce, and similar establishments.
</P>
<P>(2) The repair or maintenance of a covered production unit is essential for its continued operation and has a close and immediate tie with the production of goods for commerce. 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> The Act is also applicable to other construction which is an integral part of a covered production unit, such as the replacement, enlargement, reconstruction, extension or other improvement of the premises, the buildings, the machinery, tools and dies and other equipment. Functionally such work is like maintenance and repair and is necessary for the continued, efficient and effective operation of the facility as a unit. Thus the construction of new appurtenances of a covered production establishment such as parking aprons, access roads, railroad spurs, drainage ditches, storm, waste and sanitary sewers or adjacent integrated buildings is subject to the Act. Similarly, the Act applies to the installation of telephone, electric, gas and water lines, machinery and other equipment on the premises of such a facility.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> ante; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCrady Const. Co.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) On the other hand, the production and furnishings, within the State, of construction materials, such as sand, gravel, brick and other construction materials produced for general local use, is not covered even if the producer also supplies such materials to construction companies which use them within the State in the repair, maintenance or improvement of facilities for the production of goods for commerce. Employees of the materialman in such a situation would not have such a close and immediate tie to the production of goods for commerce as to be considered “closely related” and “directly essential” to such production. 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> See General Coverage Bulletin, § 776.19(b)(3); but see § 776.19 (b) (1), (2) and (3); on coverage of furnishing materials “specially designed”, or meeting particular specifications, for use in production of particular kinds of goods for commerce; and paragraph (d) of this section, on coverage of producing and furnishing materials for use in construction work on instrumentalities of commerce.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Utilities which serve production establishments.</I> The Act applies to employees of public utilities which furnish gas, electricity, water or fuel to firms engaged within the same State in manufacturing, processing, producing, or mining goods for commerce. 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> Construction work performed upon the plant and facilities of such a utility is covered as in the case of any other covered production establishment. 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> The extension of the lines or other facilities of a covered utility for the first time to the premises of an establishment which produces goods for commerce would be subject to the Act, because such extension is simply an improvement or enlargement of an existing covered utility. 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/> Furthermore, the maintenance or repair of the wires, pipes, or other conduits of a covered utility which serves business and manufacturing as well as residential areas would also be within the Act. On the other hand, extension or repair of lines or other facilities serving only residential areas would not be covered unless the electricity, gas, fuel, or water comes from out of the State.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> House Manager's Statement, 1949 Amendments.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> See decisions cited in footnotes 10 and 11, of this subpart.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> <I>Meeker Cooperative Light &amp; Power Ass'n</I> v. <I>Phillips,</I> 158 F. (2d) 698 (C.A. 8); Cf. <I>New Mexico Public Service Co.</I> v. <I>Engel,</I> 145 F. (2d) 636 (C.A. 10); <I>Lewis</I> v. <I>Florida Power &amp; Light Co.,</I> 154 F. (2d) 75 (C.A. 5).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>New construction which is not integrated with existing production facilities.</I> (1) Construction of a new factory building, even though its use for interstate production upon completion may be contemplated, will not ordinarily be considered covered. However, if the new building is designed as a replacement of or an addition or an improvement to, an existing interstate production facility, its construction will be considered subject to the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) If the new building, though not physically attached to an existing plant which produces goods for commerce, is designed to be an integral part of the improved, expanded or enlarged plant, the construction, like maintenance and repair, it would be subject to the Act. 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCrady Const. Co.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Production of materials for use in construction work on interstate instrumentalities.</I> (1) The Act applies to employees who are engaged, at the job site or away from it, in the production of goods to be used within the State for the maintenance, repair, extension, enlargement, improvement, replacement or reconstruction of an instrumentality of interstate commerce. The goods need not go out of the State since the Act applies to the production of goods “for” commerce, including for use in commerce, and is not limited to “production of goods for transportation in commerce,” that is, to be sent across State lines. 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> <I>Alstate Construction Co.</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 345 U.S. 13; <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Johnson,</I> 198 F. (2d) 130 (C.A. 8); <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Emulsified Asphalt Products Co.,</I> 222 F. (2) 913 (C.A. 6).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The Act would also apply to the production of such items as electricity, fuel or water, for use in the operation of railroads or other instrumentalities of commerce. 
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> Therefore, as in the case of other production units, the maintenance, repair or other improvement of the premises or buildings or the appurtenances, including the machinery, tools and dies and equipment, of the facilities which are used to produce such goods, are subject to the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> Sections 776.19(b)(2) and 776.21. See also paragraph (b) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Coverage also extends to employees who produce sand, gravel, asphalt, cement, crushed rock, railroad ties, pipes, conduits, wires, concrete pilings and other materials which are to be used in the construction of instrumentalities which serve as the means for the interstate movement of goods or persons.
</P>
<P>(4) This does not mean, however, that in every case where employees produce such materials which are used within the State in the maintenance, repair, or reconstruction of an instrumentality of commerce, the production of such materials is necessarily considered as production “for” commerce. A material supply company may be engaged in an independent business which is essentially local in nature, selling its materials to the usual miscellany of local customers without any particular intent or purpose of supplying materials for the maintenance, repair, or reconstruction of instrumentalities of commerce, and without any substantial portion of its business being directed to such specific uses. Employees of such an “essentially local business” are not covered by the Act merely because as an incident to its essentially local business, the company, on occasion, happens to produce or supply some materials which are used within the State to meet the needs of instrumentalities of commerce. 
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> See §§ 776.19 (a) and (b) and 776.21(b)(3). See also cases cited in footnote 22 of this subpart.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.28" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.28   Covered preparatory activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Before production begins.</I> (1) The United States Supreme Court has held that the Act is applicable to employees of a company which was engaged in preliminary oil well drilling, even though the holes were drilled to a specified depth which was short of where the oil was expected to be found. 
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/> The Act would also apply to drilling operations even though no oil was discovered. 
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> Laborers employed in erecting drilling rigs would also be covered. 
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> Other preparatory work before drilling begins in an oil field, such as staking oil claims, surveying, clearing the land, assembling materials and equipment, erecting sheds, derricks or dikes would also be within the scope of the Act. 
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/> Preliminary work such as the foregoing has the requisite close and immediate tie with the production of goods for commerce to be within the coverage of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> <I>Warren-Bradshaw Drilling Co.</I> v. <I>Hall,</I> 317 U.S. 8.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> <I>Culver</I> v. <I>Bell &amp; Loffland,</I> 146 F. (2d) 20.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> <I>Devine</I> v. <I>Levy,</I> 39 F. Supp. 44.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> <I>Straughn</I> v. <I>Schlumberger Well Surveying Corp.,</I> 72 F. Supp. 511.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Similarly, coverage extends to employees engaged in the installation of machinery to be used in covered production in a new factory building, even though the construction of the building itself may not have been subject to the Act. Such installation is considered to be a preliminary production activity rather than simply part of the construction of the building.
</P>
<P>(3) If the construction project is subject to the Act, preliminary activities, such as surveying, clearing, draining and leveling the land, erecting necessary buildings to house materials and equipment, or the demolition of structures in order to begin building the covered facility, are subject to the Act. 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> Coverage of preparation of plans and designs is discussed in § 776.19(b) (2).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Facilities used in aid of the covered construction.</I> The installation of facilities, and the repair and maintenance of trucks, tools, machinery and other equipment to be used by a contractor in the furtherance of his covered construction work, are activities subject to the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.29" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.29   Instrumentalities and channels of interstate commerce.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Typical examples.</I> Instrumentalities and channels which serve as the media for the movement of goods and persons in interstate commerce or for interstate communications include railroads, highways, city streets; telephone, gas, electric and pipe line systems; radio and television broadcasting facilities; rivers, canals and other waterways; airports; railroad, bus, truck or steamship terminals; freight depots, bridges, ferries, bays, harbors, docks, wharves, piers; ships, vehicles and aircraft which are regularly used in interstate commerce. 
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> General coverage bulletin, § 776.11.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>General character of an instrumentality of interstate commerce.</I> (1) An instrumentality of interstate commerce need not stretch across State lines but may operate within a particular State as a link in a chain or system of conduits through which interstate commerce moves. 
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> Obvious examples of such facilities are railroad terminals, airports which are components of a system of air transportation, bridges and canals. A facility may be used for both interstate and intrastate commerce but when it is so used it is nonetheless an interstate instrumentality. Such double use does not exclude construction employees from being engaged in commerce.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer,</I> ante; <I>Bennett.</I> v. <I>V. P. Loftis,</I> 167 F. (2d) 286 (C.A. 4); <I>Overstreet</I> v. <I>North Shore Corp.,</I> ante; <I>Rockton &amp; Rion R. R.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 146 F. (2d) 111, certiorari denied 324 U.S. 880; <I>National Labor Relations Board</I> v. <I>Central Missouri Tel. Co.,</I> 115 F. (2d) 563 (C.A. 8).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The term instrumentality of interstate commerce may refer to one unit or the entire chain of facilities. An instrumentality such as a railroad constitutes a system or network of facilities by which the interstate movement of goods and persons is accomplished. Each segment of the network is integrally connected with the whole and must be viewed as part of the system as a whole, not as an isolated local unit.
</P>
<P>(3) A construction project which changes the interstate system as a whole, or any of its units, would have a direct bearing on the flow of interstate commerce throughout the network. Thus, the new construction of an alternate route or an additional unit which alters the system or any segment of it, would have such a direct and vital relationship to the functioning of the instrumentality of interstate commerce as to be, in practical effect, a part of such commerce rather than isolated local activity. For example, such construction as the maintenance, repair, replacement, expansion, enlargement, extension, reconstruction, redesigning, or other improvement, of a railroad system as a whole, or of any part of it, would have a close and intimate relationship with the movement of goods and persons across State lines. All such construction, therefore, is subject to the Act.
</P>
<P>(4) The same would be true with respect to other systems of interstate transportation or communication such as roads, waterways, airports, pipe, gas and electric lines, and ship, bus, truck, telephone and broadcasting facilities. Consequently, construction projects for lengthening, widening, deepening, relocating, redesigning, replacing and adding new, substitute or alternate facilities; shortening or straightening routes or lines; providing cutoffs, tunnels, trestles, causeways, overpasses, underpasses and bypasses are subject to the Act. Furthermore, the fact that such construction serves another purpose as well as the improvement of the interstate facility, or that the improvement to the interstate facility was incidental to other non-covered work, would not exclude it from the Act's coverage. 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Pennington-Winter Const. Co.,</I> ante; <I>Oklahoma</I> v. <I>Atkinson Co.,</I> 313 U.S. 508; <I>Cuascut</I> v. <I>Standard Dredging Corp.,</I> 94 F. Supp. 197.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of construction projects which are subject to the Act.</I> Coverage extends to employees who are engaged on such work as repairing or replacing abutments and superstructures on a washed out railroad bridge; 
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/> replacing an old highway bridge with a new one at a different location; 
<SU>35</SU>
<FTREF/> removing an old railroad bridge and partially rebuilding a new one; repairing a railroad roundhouse, signal tower, and storage building; relocating portions of a county road; erecting new bridges with new approaches in different locations from the old ones; widening a city street; relocating, improving or extending interstate telephone facilities including the addition of new conduits and new trunk lines. 
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> Also within the scope of the Act are employees who are engaged in the construction, maintenance and repair of ships, barges and other vessels used for interstate commerce, including those belonging to the Government, 
<SU>37</SU>
<FTREF/> and facilities used in the production and transmission of electric, fuel, water, steam and other powers to instrumentalities of interstate commerce. 
<SU>38</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> <I>Pedersen</I> v. <I>J. F. Fitzgerald,</I> 318 U.S. 740.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>35</SU> <I>Bennett</I> v. <I>V. P. Loftis Co.,</I> 167 F. (2d) 286 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCrady Const. Co.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>37</SU> <I>Divins</I> v. <I>Hazeltine Electronics Corp.,</I> 163 F. (2d) 100 (C.A. 2); Cf. <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haile Gold Mines, Inc.,</I> 136 F. (2d) 102 (C.A. 4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>38</SU> <I>New Mexico Public Service Co.</I> v. <I>Engel,</I> ante; <I>Lewis</I> v. <I>Florida Light &amp; Power Co.,</I> ante; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Mercer Water Co.,</I> 208 F. (2d) 900 (C.A. 3); <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Brown Engineering Co.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Construction of new facilities.</I> (1) In a case before the United States Supreme Court, the question was presented whether the Act applied to the construction of a new canal at some distance from the one then in use. The new canal was to be an alternate route for entering the Mississippi River and would relieve traffic congestion in the existing canal. The latter would continue in operation but could not be widened because of its location in a highly developed industrial section of New Orleans. The Court in holding the construction of the new canal to be within the coverage of the Act stated that the new construction was as intimately related to the improvement of navigation on the Gulf Intercoastal Waterway as dredging in the existing canal would be and that the project was “part of the redesigning of an existing facility of interstate commerce.” 
<SU>39</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus the construction of a new facility in a network of instrumentalities of interstate commerce, in order to serve the system, or to function as an alternate route, or to relieve traffic congestion in another unit, or to replace an outmoded facility, is subject to the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>39</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer &amp; Co.,</I> ante; see also <I>Bennett</I> v. <I>V. P. Loftis,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Similarly, the construction of a new unit, such as a new airport which is an addition to the entire interstate system of air transportation although not physically attached to any other unit, would, as a practical matter, necessarily expand, promote and facilitate the movement of interstate commerce over the airway system, and consequently, would be subject to the Act. In such a situation the interstate system, although composed of physically separate local units, is, as a whole, the instrumentality of commerce which is improved. In most cases such an addition would also directly enhance, improve or replace some particular nearby unit in the interstate network. The new addition would thus relieve traffic congestion and facilitate the interstate movement of commerce over the existing instrumentality as a whole, as well as at the particular nearby units. The same principle would apply to highways, turnpikes and similar systems of interstate facilities.
</P>
<P>(3) In like manner, the reconstruction, extension or expansion of a small unit in a system of interstate facilities, such as the enlargement of a small airport which is regularly used for interstate travel or transportation, is covered, regardless of the relative sizes of the original unit and the new one. The construction in such situations facilitates and improves the interstate commerce served by, and is directly related to the continued, efficient and effective operation of, both the particular original unit and the interstate system as a whole. Also, the construction of facilities such as hangars, repair shops and the like at a covered airport, which are “directly and vitally related to the functioning” of the instrumentality of commerce, would be subject to the Act. 
<SU>40</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>40</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer &amp; Co.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Construction on waterways.</I> Courts have consistently held that the engagement in interstate commerce includes the maintenance, repair or improvement of navigable waterways even when the construction work is performed on the non-navigable parts of the instrumentality such as at the headwaters and watersheds or in tributary streams. 
<SU>41</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>41</SU> <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Pennington-Winter Const. Co.</I>, ante; <I>Oklahoma</I> v. <I>Atkinson Co.,</I> ante; <I>United States</I> v. <I>Appalachian Power Co.,</I> 311 U.S. 426.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Construction which improves rivers and waterways serving as instrumentalities of interstate commerce includes dredging; the building, maintenance, repair, replacement, reconstruction, improvement, or enlargement of dikes, revetments, levees, harbor facilities, retaining walls, channels, berths, piers, wharves, canals, dams, reservoirs and similar projects; also the removal of debris and other impediments in the waterway and flood control work in general. 
<SU>42</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>42</SU> <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Patton-Tulley Transportation Co.,</I> 134 F. (2d) 945 (C.A. 6); <I>Ritch</I> v. <I>Puget Sound Bridge</I> &amp; <I>Dredging Co.,</I> 156 F. (2d) 334.</P></FTNT>
<FP>The Act applies to construction work which increases the navigability of a waterway, protects it from floods or otherwise improves or maintains its use as an instrumentality of interstate commerce. The courts have held that a program for controlling floods is inseparably related to the stabilization and maintenance of the navigable channel of the river, since levees, dams, dikes and like structures, which hold back the waters in time of flood, at the same time confine a more efficient body of water during other periods by increasing its velocity and scouring and deepening its channels. 
<SU>43</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>43</SU> <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Pennington-Winter Const. Co.,</I> ante; <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Ramey,</I> 206 F. (2d) 505 (C.A. 5) certiorari denied, sub nom <I>Hughes Construction Co.</I> v. <I>Secretary of Labor,</I> 346 U.S. 925; <I>Jackson</I> v. <I>U.S.,</I> 230 U.S. 1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) <I>Flood control work in non-navigable parts of a waterway.</I> Both Congress and the courts have considered that watersheds and headwaters are keys to the control of floods on navigable streams and that the control over the non-navigable parts of a river is essential for the prevention of overflows on the navigable portions. It is also well settled that in order to control floods on a navigable stream it is necessary to take flood control measures on its tributaries.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Basis of coverage.</I> (i) The construction of a levee, dam or other improvement in any part of a river or its tributaries for the purpose of preventing floods or aiding navigation must be considered as an integral part of a single comprehensive project for improvement of the river system. Even though a particular levee or dike, by itself, may not effect an improvement, the courts have made it clear that the combined effect of a chain of such structures serves as the basis for determining coverage. The construction of a particular river structure may, therefore, be subject to the Act simply because it is part of a comprehensive system of structures, whose combined effect will achieve the improvement of the navigable channel. Thus, it has been held that site clearance work in the construction of a multiple-purpose dam on a non-navigable stream is covered by the Act where the work is an integral part of a comprehensive system for the control of floods and the betterment of navigation on the Arkansas and Mississippi Rivers. 
<SU>44</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, the enlargement of a set-back levee, located from two to six miles from the banks of the Mississippi, was held to be covered because it was part of the Mississippi levee system even though the set-back levee, when viewed separately, was not directly related to the functioning of the Mississippi as an instrumentality of commerce. 
<SU>45</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>44</SU> <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Pennington-Winter Const. Co.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45</SU> <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Ramey,</I> 205 F. (2d) 606, rehearing denied 206 F. (2d) 505 (C.A. 5) certiorari denied, sub nom <I>Hughes Construction Co.</I> v. <I>Secretary of Labor,</I> 346 U.S. 925.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The principle involved applies also to other instrumentalities of interstate commerce. As in the case of covered waterway projects, individual additions or improvements to other instrumentalities of interstate commerce may for coverage purposes be considered as part of a whole program rather than separately. The Act will apply to the construction in such situations if the unit, considered by itself or as part of a larger program, promotes the efficient or effective operation of the instrumentality of interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Construction of wharves, piers and docks.</I> The Act also applies to the construction of new piers, wharves, docks and other facilities if they are integrated with the interstate commerce functions of an existing harbor. Similarly, the new construction of such facilities in other locations along the waterway is subject to the Act if they are regularly used by vessels carrying goods or persons in interstate commerce.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Highways, county roads and city streets</I>—(1) <I>Typical examples.</I> As a generic term highways includes bridges, underpasses, overpasses, bypasses, county roads, access roads, city streets and alternate roads, draw bridges, toll bridges, toll roads and turnpikes, but does not include roads or parking facilities on privately owned land and which are not for use by the general public for interstate traffic.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Basis of coverage.</I> The general rules for determining the coverage of employees engaged in the construction of other instrumentalities of interstate commerce apply to highway construction work. The United States Supreme Court has stated that in applying the Act to highway construction as to other coverage problems, practical rather than technical constructions are decisive. 
<SU>46</SU>
<FTREF/> After the Court remanded the Overstreet case to the district court, the latter held that the employees engaged in maintaining and repairing the facilities regularly used and available for interstate commerce were engaged in commerce, regardless of the extent of the interstate traffic. 
<SU>47</SU>
<FTREF/> The court recognized that although the amount of the interstate commerce in the Overstreet case was very small it was regular and recurring and not occasional nor incidental. Thus, under the authoritative decision a percentage test is not regarded as a practical guide for ascertaining whether a particular facility is an instrumentality of interstate commerce. 
<SU>48</SU>
<FTREF/> Employees who are engaged in the repair, maintenance, extension, enlargement, replacement, reconstruction, redesigning or other improvement of such a road are subject to the Act. The fact that the road is owned or controlled by the State or Federal Government or by any subdivision thereof would not affect the applicability of the Act. The same would be true if State or Federal funds were used to finance the construction. It should be noted, however, that if the employees are actually employees of a State, or a political subdivision thereof, they are excepted from coverage of the Act under section 3(d).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>46</SU> <I>Overstreet</I> v. <I>North Shore Corp.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>47</SU> 52 F. Supp. 503.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48</SU> <I>North Shore Corp.</I> v. <I>Barnett,</I> 143 F. (2d) 172 (C.A. 5); <I>Schmidt</I> v. <I>Peoples Telephone Union of Maryville, Mo.,</I> 138 F. (2d) 13 (C.A. 8).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>City streets.</I> The construction, reconstruction or repair of a city street, whether residential or not, which is part of an interstate highway or which directly connects with any interstate highway is so closely related to the interstate commerce moving on the existing highway as to be a part of it. Construction of other streets, which are not a part of a public road building program and are constructed on private property as a part of a new residential development, will not be considered covered until further clarification from the courts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>New highway construction.</I> Although a number of appellate court decisions have held that the construction of new highways is not within the coverage of the Act, these decisions relied upon the technical “new construction” concept which the United States Supreme Court has subsequently held to be inapplicable as the basis for determining coverage under this Act. 
<SU>49</SU>
<FTREF/> Under the principles now established by that Court's decision, which require determination of coverage on the basis of realistic, practical considerations, the construction of new expressways and highways that will connect with an interstate highway system is so “related to the functioning of an instrumentality or facility of interstate commerce as to be, in practical effect, a part of it, rather than isolated, local activity.” 
<SU>50</SU>
<FTREF/> Such highways and expressways not only are so designed as necessarily to become a part of or additions to an existing interstate highway system, but their construction is plainly of a national rather than a local character, as evidenced by the Federal financial contribution to their construction. And neither the fact that they are not dedicated to interstate use during their construction, nor the fact that they will constitute alternate routes rather than replacement of existing road, constitute sufficient basis, under the controlling court decisions, for excluding them from the coverage of the Act. 
<SU>51</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, unless and until authoritative court decision in the future hold otherwise, the construction of such new highways and expressways will be regarded as covered.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>49</SU> Compare <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer,</I> ante, with <I>Koepfie</I> v. <I>Garavaglia,</I> 200 F. (2d) 191 (C.A. 6); <I>Moss</I> v. <I>Gillioz Const. Co.,</I> 206 F. (2d) 819 (C.A. 10); and <I>Van Klaveren</I> v. <I>Killian House,</I> 210 F. (2d) 510 (C.A. 5). The Vollmer decision specifically rejected the applicability of the decision construing the Federal Employer's Liability Act, on which the cited appellate court decision relied.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>50</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer,</I> ante; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> ante; and <I>Overstreet</I> v. <I>North Shore Corp.,</I> ante.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>51</SU> <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Vollmer &amp; Co.,</I> ante; <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Pennington-Winter Const. Co.,</I> 198 F. (2d) 334, certiorari denied 345 U.S. 915; and <I>Bennett</I> v. <I>V. P. Loftis Co.,</I> 167 F. (2d) 286.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 776.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.38.2.152.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 776.30   Construction performed on temporarily idle facilities.</HEAD>
<P>The Act applies to work on a covered interstate instrumentality or production facility even though performed during periods of temporary non-use or idleness. 
<SU>52</SU>
<FTREF/> The courts have held the Act applicable to performance of construction work upon a covered facility even though the use of the facility was temporarily interrupted or discontinued. 
<SU>53</SU>
<FTREF/> It is equally clear that the repair or maintenance of a covered facility (including its machinery, tools, dies, and other equipment) though performed during the inactive or dead season, is subject to the Acts. 
<SU>54</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>52</SU> <I>Walton</I> v. <I>Southern Package Corp.,</I> 320 U.S. 540; <I>Slover</I> v. <I>Wathen &amp; Co.,</I> 140 F. (2d) 258 (C.A. 4); <I>Bodden</I> v. <I>McCormick Shipping Corp.,</I> 188 F. (2d) 733; and <I>Russell Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 187 F. (2d) 524 (C.A. 5).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>53</SU> <I>Pedersen</I> v. <I>J. F. Fitzgerald Construction Co.,</I> ante; <I>Bennett</I> v. <I>V. P. Loftis,</I> ante; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McCrady Const. Co.,</I> ante; and <I>Bodden</I> v. <I>McCormick Shipping Corp.,</I> 188 F. (2d) 733.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>54</SU> <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua Agricultural Co.,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. (2d) 11; <I>Weaver</I> v. <I>Pittsburgh Steamship Co.,</I> 153 F. (2d) 597, certiorari denied 328 U.S. 858; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Keensburg Steamship Co.,</I> 462 F. (2d) 405.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="778" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 778—OVERTIME COMPENSATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I> Section 778.200 also issued under Pub. L. 106-202, 114 Stat. 308 (29 U.S.C. 207(e) and (h)).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Considerations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1.175.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.0   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, hereinafter referred to as the Act, is a Federal statute of general application which establishes minimum wage, overtime pay, child labor, and equal pay requirements that apply as provided in the Act. All employees whose employment has the relationship to interstate or foreign commerce which the Act specifies are subject to the prescribed labor standards unless specifically exempted from them. Employers having such employees are required to comply with the Act's provisions in this regard unless relieved therefrom by some exemption in the Act. Such employers are also required to comply with specified recordkeeping requirements contained in part 516 of this chapter. The law authorizes the Department of Labor to investigate for compliance and, in the event of violations, to supervise the payment of unpaid wages or unpaid overtime compensation owing to any employee. The law also provides for enforcement in the courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1.175.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.1   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains the Department of Labor's general interpretations with respect to the meaning and application of the maximum hours and overtime pay requirements contained in section 7 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (“the Act” or “FLSA”). The Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division will use these interpretations to guide the performance of his or her duties under the Act, and intends the interpretations to be used by employers, employees, and courts to understand employers' obligations and employees' rights under the Act. These official interpretations are issued by the Administrator on the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, as authorized by the Secretary (Reorg. Pl. 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263; Gen. Ord. 45A, published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on May 24, 1950).
</P>
<P>(b) The Department recognizes that compensation practices can vary significantly and will continue to evolve in the future. The Department also recognizes that it is not feasible to address all of the various compensation and benefits arrangements that may exist between employers and employees, both currently and in the future. In general, the FLSA does not restrict the forms of “remuneration” that an employer may pay—which may include an hourly rate, salary, commission, piece rate, a combination thereof, or any other method—as long as the regular rate is equal to at least the applicable minimum wage and compensation for overtime hours worked is paid at the rate of at least one and one-half times the regular rate. While the eight categories of payments in section 7(e)(1)-(8) are the exhaustive list of payments excludable from the regular rate, this part does not contain an exhaustive list of permissible or impermissible compensation practices under section 7(e), unless otherwise indicated. Rather, it provides examples of regular rate and overtime calculations under the FLSA and the types of compensation that may be excluded from regular rate calculations under section 7(e) of the FLSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 68770, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1.175.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.2   Coverage and exemptions not discussed.</HEAD>
<P>This part 778 does not deal with the general coverage of the Act or various specific exemptions provided in the statute, under which certain employees within the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions are wholly or partially excluded from the protection of the Act's minimum-wage and overtime-pay requirements. Some of these exemptions are self-executing; others call for definitions or other action by the Administrator. Regulations and interpretations relating to general coverage and specific exemptions may be found in other parts of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1.175.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.3   Interpretations made, continued, and superseded by this part.</HEAD>
<P>On and after publication of this part in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the interpretations contained therein shall be in effect and shall remain in effect until they are modified, rescinded or withdrawn. This part supersedes and replaces the interpretations previously published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and Code of Federal Regulations as part 778 of this chapter. Prior opinions, rulings and interpretations and prior enforcement policies which are not inconsistent with the interpretations in this part or with the Fair Labor Standards Act as amended are continued in effect; all other opinions, rulings, interpretations, and enforcement policies on the subjects discussed in the interpretations in this part are rescinded and withdrawn. Questions on matters not fully covered by this part may be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or to any Regional Office of the Division.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7309, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1.175.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.4   Reliance on interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The interpretations of the law contained in this part 778 are official interpretations which may be relied upon as provided in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947 (61 Stat. 84).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1.175.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.5   Relation to other laws generally.</HEAD>
<P>Various Federal, State, and local laws require the payment of minimum hourly, daily or weekly wages different from the minimum set forth in the Fair Labor Standards Act, and the payment of overtime compensation computed on bases different from those set forth in the Fair Labor Standards Act. Where such legislation is applicable and does not contravene the requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act, nothing in the act, the regulations or the interpretations announced by the Administrator should be taken to override or nullify the provisions of these laws. Compliance with other applicable legislation does not excuse noncompliance with the Fair Labor Standards Act. Where a higher minimum wage than that set in the Fair Labor Standards Act is applicable to an employee by virtue of such other legislation, the regular rate of the employee, as the term is used in the Fair Labor Standards Act, cannot be lower than such applicable minimum, for the words “regular rate at which he is employed” as used in section 7 must be construed to mean the regular rate at which he is lawfully employed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1.175.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.6   Effect of Davis-Bacon Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 1 of the Davis-Bacon Act (46 Stat. 1494, as amended; 40 U.S.C. 276a) provides for the inclusion of certain fringe benefits in the prevailing wages that are predetermined by the Secretary of Labor, under that Act and related statutes, as minimum wages for laborers and mechanics employed by contractors and subcontractors performing construction activity on Federal and federally assisted projects. Laborers and mechanics performing work subject to such predetermined minimum wages may, if they work overtime, be subject to overtime compensation provisions of other laws which may apply concurrently to them, including the Fair Labor Standards Act. In view of this fact, specific provision was made in the Davis-Bacon Act for the treatment of such predetermined fringe benefits in the computation of overtime compensation under other applicable statutes including the Fair Labor Standards Act. The application of this provision is discussed in § 5.32 of this title, which should be considered together with the interpretations in this part 778 in determining any overtime compensation payable under the Fair Labor Standards Act to such laborers and mechanics in any workweek when they are subject to fringe benefit wage determinations under the Davis-Bacon and related acts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.1.175.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.7   Effect of Service Contract Act of 1965.</HEAD>
<P>The McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act of 1965, which provides for the predetermination and the specification in service contracts entered into by the Federal Government or the District of Columbia, of the minimum wages and fringe benefits to be received by employees of contractors and subcontractors employed in work on such contracts, contains the following provision:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="05">Sec. 6.</E> In determining any overtime pay to which such service employees are entitled under any Federal law, the regular or basic hourly rate of pay of such an employee shall not include any fringe benefit payments computed hereunder which are excluded from the regular rate under the Fair Labor Standards Act by provisions of section 7(e)* thereof. (*Subsection designation changed in text from section 7(d) to 7(e) to conform with the relettering enacted by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Where the fringe benefits specified in such a service contract are furnished to an employee, the above provision permits exclusion of such fringe benefits from the employee's regular rate of pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act pursuant to the rules and principles set forth in subpart C of this part 778. However, the McNamara-O'Hara Act permits an employer to discharge his obligation to provide the specified fringe benefits by furnishing any equivalent combinations of bona fide fringe benefits or by making equivalent or differential payments in cash. Permissible methods of doing this are set forth in part 4 of this title, subpart B. If the employer furnishes equivalent benefits or makes cash payments, or both, to an employee as therein authorized, the amounts thereof, to the extent that they operate to discharge the employer's obligation under the McNamara-O'Hara Act to furnish such specified fringe benefits, may be excluded pursuant to such Act from the employee's regular or basic rate of pay in computing any overtime pay due the employee under the Fair Labor Standards Act, pursuant to the rule provided in § 4.55 of this title. This means that such equivalent fringe benefits or cash payments which are authorized under the McNamara-O'Hara Act to be provided in lieu of the fringe benefits specified in determinations issued under such Act are excludable from the regular rate in applying the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act if the fringe benefits specified under the McNamara-O'Hara Act would be so excludable if actually furnished. This is true regardless of whether the equivalent benefits or payments themselves meet the requirements of section 7(e) of the Fair Labor Standards Act and subpart C of this part 778.


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—The Overtime Pay Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="175" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.175" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.175.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.100   The maximum-hours provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(a) of the Act deals with maximum hours and overtime compensation for employees who are within the general coverage of the Act and are not specifically exempt from its overtime pay requirements. It prescribes the maximum weekly hours of work permitted for the employment of such employees in any workweek without extra compensation for overtime, and a general overtime rate of pay not less than one and one-half times the employee's regular rate which the employee must receive for all hours worked in any workweek in excess of the applicable maximum hours. The employment by an employer of an employee in any work subject to the Act in any workweek brings these provisions into operation. The employer is prohibited from employing the employee in excess of the prescribed maximum hours in such workweek without paying him the required extra compensation for the overtime hours worked at a rate meeting the statutory requirement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.175.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.101   Maximum nonovertime hours.</HEAD>
<P>As a general standard, section 7(a) of the Act provides 40 hours as the maximum number that an employee subject to its provisions may work for an employer in any workweek without receiving additional compensation at not less than the statutory rate for overtime. Hours worked in excess of the statutory maximum in any workweek are overtime hours under the statute; a workweek no longer than the prescribed maximum is a nonovertime workweek under the Act, to which the pay requirements of section 6 (minimum wage and equal pay) but not those of section 7(a) are applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7309, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.175.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.102   Application of overtime provisions generally.</HEAD>
<P>Since there is no absolute limitation in the Act (apart from the child labor provisions and regulations thereunder) on the number of hours that an employee may work in any workweek, he may work as many hours a week as he and his employer see fit, so long as the required overtime compensation is paid him for hours worked in excess of the maximum workweek prescribed by section 7(a). The Act does not generally require, however, that an employee be paid overtime compensation for hours in excess of eight per day, or for work on Saturdays, Sundays, holidays or regular days of rest. If no more than the maximum number of hours prescribed in the Act are actually worked in the workweek, overtime compensation pursuant to section 7(a) need not be paid. Nothing in the Act, however, will relieve an employer of any obligation he may have assumed by contract or of any obligation imposed by other Federal or State law to limit overtime hours of work or to pay premium rates for work in excess of a daily standard or for work on Saturdays, Sundays, holidays, or other periods outside of or in excess of the normal or regular workweek or workday. (The effect of making such payments is discussed in §§ 778.201 through 778.207 and 778.219.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7309, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.175.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.103   The workweek as the basis for applying section 7(a).</HEAD>
<P>If in any workweek an employee is covered by the Act and is not exempt from its overtime pay requirements, the employer must total all the hours worked by the employee for him in that workweek (even though two or more unrelated job assignments may have been performed), and pay overtime compensation for each hour worked in excess of the maximum hours applicable under section 7(a) of the Act. In the case of an employee employed jointly by two or more employers (see part 791 of this chapter), all hours worked by the employee for such employers during the workweek must be totaled in determining the number of hours to be compensated in accordance with section 7(a). The principles for determining what hours are hours worked within the meaning of the Act are discussed in part 785 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.175.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.104   Each workweek stands alone.</HEAD>
<P>The Act takes a single workweek as its standard and does not permit averaging of hours over 2 or more weeks. Thus, if an employee works 30 hours one week and 50 hours the next, he must receive overtime compensation for the overtime hours worked beyond the applicable maximum in the second week, even though the average number of hours worked in the 2 weeks is 40. This is true regardless of whether the employee works on a standard or swing-shift schedule and regardless of whether he is paid on a daily, weekly, biweekly, monthly or other basis. The rule is also applicable to pieceworkers and employees paid on a commission basis. It is therefore necessary to determine the hours worked and the compensation earned by pieceworkers and commission employees on a weekly basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.175.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.105   Determining the workweek.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's workweek is a fixed and regularly recurring period of 168 hours—seven consecutive 24-hour periods. It need not coincide with the calendar week but may begin on any day and at any hour of the day. For purposes of computing pay due under the Fair Labor Standards Act, a single workweek may be established for a plant or other establishment as a whole or different workweeks may be established for different employees or groups of employees. Once the beginning time of an employee's workweek is established, it remains fixed regardless of the schedule of hours worked by him. The beginning of the workweek may be changed if the change is intended to be permanent and is not designed to evade the overtime requirements of the Act. The proper method of computing overtime pay in a period in which a change in the time of commencement of the workweek is made, is discussed in §§ 778.301 and 778.302.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.175.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.106   Time of payment.</HEAD>
<P>There is no requirement in the Act that overtime compensation be paid weekly. The general rule is that overtime compensation earned in a particular workweek must be paid on the regular pay day for the period in which such workweek ends. When the correct amount of overtime compensation cannot be determined until some time after the regular pay period, however, the requirements of the Act will be satisfied if the employer pays the excess overtime compensation as soon after the regular pay period as is practicable. Payment may not be delayed for a period longer than is reasonably necessary for the employer to compute and arrange for payment of the amount due and in no event may payment be delayed beyond the next payday after such computation can be made. Where retroactive wage increases are made, retroactive overtime compensation is due at the time the increase is paid, as discussed in § 778.303. For a discussion of overtime payments due because of increases by way of bonuses, see § 778.209.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="176" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Principles for Computing Overtime Pay Based on the “Regular Rate”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.107" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.107   General standard for overtime pay.</HEAD>
<P>The general overtime pay standard in section 7(a) requires that overtime must be compensated at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which the employee is actually employed. The regular rate of pay at which the employee is employed may in no event be less than the statutory minimum. (The statutory minimum is the specified minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act, except in the case of workers specially provided for in section 14 and workers in Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa who are covered by wage orders issued pursuant to section 8 of the Act.) If the employee's regular rate of pay is higher than the statutory minimum, his overtime compensation must be computed at a rate not less than one and one-half times such higher rate. Under certain conditions prescribed in section 7 (f), (g), and (j), the Act provides limited exceptions to the application of the general standard of section 7(a) for computing overtime pay based on the regular rate. With respect to these, see §§ 778.400 through 778.421 and 778.601 and part 548 of this chapter. The Act also provides, in section 7(b), (i), (k) and (m) and in section 13, certain partial and total exemptions from the application of section 7(a) to certain employees and under certain conditions. Regulations and interpretations concerning these exemptions are outside the scope of this part 778 and reference should be made to other applicable parts of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7309, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.108" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.108   The “regular rate”.</HEAD>
<P>The “regular rate” of pay under the Act cannot be left to a declaration by the parties as to what is to be treated as the regular rate for an employee; it must be drawn from what happens under the employment contract (<I>Bay Ridge Operating Co.</I> v. <I>Aaron,</I> 334 U.S. 446). The Supreme Court has described it as the hourly rate actually paid the employee for the normal, nonovertime workweek for which he is employed—an “actual fact” (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Youngerman-Reynolds Hardwood Co.,</I> 325 U.S. 419). Section 7(e) of the Act requires inclusion in the “regular rate” of “all remuneration for employment paid to, or on behalf of, the employee” except payments specifically excluded by paragraphs (1) through (7) of that subsection. (These seven types of payments, which are set forth in § 778.200 and discussed in §§ 778.201 through 778.224, are hereafter referred to as “statutory exclusions.”) As stated by the Supreme Court in the Youngerman-Reynolds case cited above: “Once the parties have decided upon the amount of wages and the mode of payment the determination of the regular rate becomes a matter of mathematical computation, the result of which is unaffected by any designation of a contrary ‘regular rate’ in the wage contracts.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.109" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.109   The regular rate is an hourly rate.</HEAD>
<P>The “regular rate” under the Act is a rate per hour. The Act does not require employers to compensate employees on an hourly rate basis; their earnings may be determined on a piece-rate, salary, commission, or other basis, but in such case the overtime compensation due to employees must be computed on the basis of the hourly rate derived therefrom and, therefore, it is necessary to compute the regular hourly rate of such employees during each workweek, with certain statutory exceptions discussed in §§ 778.400 through 778.421. The regular hourly rate of pay of an employee is determined by dividing his total remuneration for employment (except statutory exclusions) in any workweek by the total number of hours actually worked by him in that workweek for which such compensation was paid. The following sections give some examples of the proper method of determining the regular rate of pay in particular instances: (The maximum hours standard used in these examples is 40 hours in a workweek).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.110   Hourly rate employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Earnings at hourly rate exclusively.</I> If the employee is employed solely on the basis of a single hourly rate, the hourly rate is the “regular rate.” For overtime hours of work the employee must be paid, in addition to the straight time hourly earnings, a sum determined by multiplying one-half the hourly rate by the number of hours worked in excess of 40 in the week. Thus a $12 hourly rate will bring, for an employee who works 46 hours, a total weekly wage of $588 (46 hours at $12 plus 6 at $6). In other words, the employee is entitled to be paid an amount equal to $12 an hour for 40 hours and $18 an hour for the 6 hours of overtime, or a total of $588.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hourly rate and bonus.</I> If the employee receives, in addition to the earnings computed at the $12 hourly rate, a production bonus of $46 for the week, the regular hourly rate of pay is $13 an hour (46 hours at $12 yields $552; the addition of the $46 bonus makes a total of $598; this total divided by 46 hours yields a regular rate of $13). The employee is then entitled to be paid a total wage of $637 for 46 hours (46 hours at $13 plus 6 hours at $6.50, or 40 hours at $13 plus 6 hours at $19.50).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18857, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.111" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.111   Pieceworker.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Piece rates and supplements generally.</I> When an employee is employed on a piece-rate basis, the regular hourly rate of pay is computed by adding together total earnings for the workweek from piece rates and all other sources (such as production bonuses) and any sums paid for waiting time or other hours worked (except statutory exclusions). This sum is then divided by the number of hours worked in the week for which such compensation was paid, to yield the pieceworker's “regular rate” for that week. For overtime work the pieceworker is entitled to be paid, in addition to the total weekly earnings at this regular rate for all hours worked, a sum equivalent to one-half this regular rate of pay multiplied by the number of hours worked in excess of 40 in the week. (For an alternative method of complying with the overtime requirements of the Act as far as pieceworkers are concerned, <I>see</I> § 778.418.) Only additional half-time pay is required in such cases where the employee has already received straight-time compensation at piece rates or by supplementary payments for all hours worked. Thus, for example, if the employee has worked 50 hours and has earned $491 at piece rates for 46 hours of productive work and in addition has been compensated at $8.00 an hour for 4 hours of waiting time, the total compensation, $523.00, must be divided by the total hours of work, 50, to arrive at the regular hourly rate of pay—$10.46. For the 10 hours of overtime the employee is entitled to additional compensation of $52.30 (10 hours at $5.23). For the week's work the employee is thus entitled to a total of $575.30 (which is equivalent to 40 hours at $10.46 plus 10 overtime hours at $15.69).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Piece rates with minimum hourly guarantee.</I> In some cases an employee is hired on a piece-rate basis coupled with a minimum hourly guaranty. Where the total piece-rate earnings for the workweek fall short of the amount that would be earned for the total hours of work at the guaranteed rate, the employee is paid the difference. In such weeks the employee is in fact paid at an hourly rate and the minimum hourly guaranty is the regular rate in that week. In the example just given, if the employee was guaranteed $11 an hour for productive working time, the employee would be paid $506 (46 hours at $11) for the 46 hours of productive work (instead of the $491 earned at piece rates). In a week in which no waiting time was involved, the employee would be owed an additional $5.50 (half time) for each of the 6 overtime hours worked, to bring the total compensation up to $539 (46 hours at $11 plus 6 hours at $5.50 or 40 hours at $11 plus 6 hours at $16.50). If the employee is paid at a different rate for waiting time, the regular rate is the weighted average of the 2 hourly rates, as discussed in § 778.115.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18857, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.112" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.112   Day rates and job rates.</HEAD>
<P>If the employee is paid a flat sum for a day's work or for doing a particular job, without regard to the number of hours worked in the day or at the job, and if he receives no other form of compensation for services, his regular rate is determined by totaling all the sums received at such day rates or job rates in the workweek and dividing by the total hours actually worked. He is then entitled to extra half-time pay at this rate for all hours worked in excess of 40 in the workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.113" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.113   Salaried employees—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Weekly salary.</I> If the employee is employed solely on a weekly salary basis, the regular hourly rate of pay, on which time and a half must be paid, is computed by dividing the salary by the number of hours which the salary is intended to compensate. If an employee is hired at a salary of $350 and if it is understood that this salary is compensation for a regular workweek of 35 hours, the employee's regular rate of pay is $350 divided by 35 hours, or $10 an hour, and when the employee works overtime the employee is entitled to receive $10 for each of the first 40 hours and $15 (one and one-half times $10) for each hour thereafter. If an employee is hired at a salary of $375 for a 40-hour week the regular rate is $9.38 an hour.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Salary for periods other than workweek.</I> Where the salary covers a period longer than a workweek, such as a month, it must be reduced to its workweek equivalent. A monthly salary is subject to translation to its equivalent weekly wage by multiplying by 12 (the number of months) and dividing by 52 (the number of weeks). A semimonthly salary is translated into its equivalent weekly wage by multiplying by 24 and dividing by 52. Once the weekly wage is arrived at, the regular hourly rate of pay will be calculated as indicated above. The regular rate of an employee who is paid a regular monthly salary of $1,560, or a regular semimonthly salary of $780 for 40 hours a week, is thus found to be $9 per hour. Under regulations of the Administrator, pursuant to the authority given to him in section 7(g)(3) of the Act, the parties may provide that the regular rates shall be determined by dividing the monthly salary by the number of working days in the month and then by the number of hours of the normal or regular workday. Of course, the resultant rate in such a case must not be less than the statutory minimum wage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7310, Jan. 23, 1981, as amended at 76 FR 18857, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.114" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.114   Fluctuating Workweek Method of Computing Overtime.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer may use the fluctuating workweek method to properly compute overtime compensation based on the regular rate for a nonexempt employee under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee works hours that fluctuate from week to week;
</P>
<P>(2) The employee receives a fixed salary that does not vary with the number of hours worked in the workweek, whether few or many;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the employee's fixed salary is sufficient to provide compensation to the employee at a rate not less than the applicable minimum wage rate for every hour worked in those workweeks in which the number of hours the employee works is greatest;
</P>
<P>(4) The employee and the employer have a clear and mutual understanding that the fixed salary is compensation (apart from overtime premiums and any bonuses, premium payments, commissions, hazard pay, or other additional pay of any kind not excludable from the regular rate under section 7(e)(l) through (8) of the Act) for the total hours worked each workweek regardless of the number of hours, although the clear and mutual understanding does not need to extend to the specific method used to calculate overtime pay; and
</P>
<P>(5) The employee receives overtime compensation, in addition to such fixed salary and any bonuses, premium payments, commissions, hazard pay, and additional pay of any kind, for all overtime hours worked at a rate of not less than one-half the employee's regular rate of pay for that workweek. Since the salary is fixed, the regular rate of the employee will vary from week to week and is determined by dividing the amount of the salary and any non-excludable additional pay received each workweek by the number of hours worked in the workweek. Payment for overtime hours at not less than one-half such rate satisfies the overtime pay requirement because such hours have already been compensated at the straight time rate by payment of the fixed salary and non-excludable additional pay. Payment of any bonuses, premium payments, commissions, hazard pay, and additional pay of any kind is compatible with the fluctuating workweek method of overtime payment, and such payments must be included in the calculation of the regular rate unless excludable under section 7(e)(1) through (8) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The application of the principles stated above may be illustrated by the case of an employee whose hours of work do not customarily follow a regular schedule but vary from week to week, whose work hours never exceed 50 hours in a workweek, and whose salary of $600 a week is paid with the understanding that it constitutes the employee's compensation (apart from overtime premiums and any bonuses, premium payments, commissions, hazard pay, or other additional pay of any kind not excludable from the regular rate under section 7(e)(1) through (8)) for all hours worked in the workweek.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example.</I> If during the course of 4 weeks this employee receives no additional compensation and works 37.5, 44, 50, and 48 hours, the regular rate of pay in each of these weeks is $16, $13.64, $12, and $12.50, respectively. Since the employee has already received straight time compensation for all hours worked in these weeks, only additional half-time pay is due for overtime hours. For the first week the employee is owed $600 (fixed salary of $600, with no overtime hours); for the second week $627.28 (fixed salary of $600, and 4 hours of overtime pay at one-half times the regular rate of $13.64 for a total overtime payment of $27.28); for the third week $660 (fixed salary of $600, and 10 hours of overtime pay at one-half times the regular rate of $12 for a total overtime payment of $60); for the fourth week $650 (fixed salary of $600, and 8 overtime hours at one-half times the regular rate of $12.50 for a total overtime payment of $50).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> If during the course of 2 weeks this employee works 37.5 and 48 hours and 4 of the hours the employee worked each week were nightshift hours compensated at a premium rate of an extra $5 per hour, the employee's total straight time earnings would be $620 (fixed salary of $600 plus $20 of premium pay for the 4 nightshift hours). In this case, the regular rate of pay in each of these weeks is $16.53 and $12.92, respectively, and the employee's total compensation would be calculated as follows: For the 37.5 hour week the employee is owed $620 (fixed salary of $600 plus $20 of non-overtime premium pay, with no overtime hours); and for the 48 hour week $671.68 (fixed salary of $600 plus $20 of non-overtime premium pay, and 8 hours of overtime at one-half times the regular rate of $12.92 for a total overtime payment of $51.68). This principle applies in the same manner regardless of the reason for the hourly premium rate (e.g., weekend hours).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> If during the course of 2 weeks this employee works 37.5 and 48 hours and the employee received a $100 productivity bonus each week, the employee's total straight time earnings would be $700 (fixed salary of $600 plus $100 productivity bonus). In this case, the regular rate of pay in each of these weeks is $18.67 and $14.58, respectively, and the employee's total compensation would be calculated as follows: For the 37.5 hour week the employee is owed $700 (fixed salary of $600 plus $100 productivity bonus, with no overtime hours); and for the 48 hour week $758.32 (fixed salary of $600 plus $100 productivity bonus, and 8 hours of overtime at one-half times the regular rate of $14.58 for a total overtime payment of $58.32).
</P>
<P>(c) Typically, such fixed salaries are paid to employees who do not customarily work a regular schedule of hours and are in amounts agreed on by the parties as adequate compensation for long workweeks as well as short ones, under the circumstances of the employment as a whole. Where the conditions for the use of the fluctuating workweek method of overtime payment are present, the Act, in requiring that “not less than” the prescribed premium of 50 percent for overtime hours worked be paid, does not prohibit paying more. On the other hand, where all the facts indicate that an employee is being paid for overtime hours at a rate no greater than that which the employee receives for nonovertime hours, compliance with the Act cannot be rested on any application of the fluctuating workweek overtime formula.
</P>
<P>(d) The fixed salary described in paragraph (a) of this section does not vary with the number of hours worked in the workweek, whether few or many. However, employers using the fluctuating workweek method of overtime payment may take occasional disciplinary deductions from the employee's salary for willful absences or tardiness or for infractions of major work rules, provided that the deductions do not cut into the minimum wage or overtime pay required by the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 34992, June 8, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.115   Employees working at two or more rates.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee in a single workweek works at two or more different types of work for which different nonovertime rates of pay (of not less than the applicable minimum wage) have been established, his regular rate for that week is the weighted average of such rates. That is, his total earnings (except statutory exclusions) are computed to include his compensation during the workweek from all such rates, and are then divided by the total number of hours worked at all jobs. Certain statutory exceptions permitting alternative methods of computing overtime pay in such cases are discussed in §§ 778.400 and 778.415 through 778.421. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.116" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.116   Payments other than cash.</HEAD>
<P>Where payments are made to employees in the form of goods or facilities which are regarded as part of wages, the reasonable cost to the employer or the fair value of such goods or of furnishing such facilities must be included in the regular rate. (See part 531 of this chapter for a discussion as to the inclusion of goods and facilities in wages and the method of determining reasonable cost.) Where, for example, an employer furnishes lodging to his employees in addition to cash wages the reasonable cost or the fair value of the lodging (per week) must be added to the cash wages before the regular rate is determined.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7310, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.117" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.117   Commission payments—general.</HEAD>
<P>Commissions (whether based on a percentage of total sales or of sales in excess of a specified amount, or on some other formula) are payments for hours worked and must be included in the regular rate. This is true regardless of whether the commission is the sole source of the employee's compensation or is paid in addition to a guaranteed salary or hourly rate, or on some other basis, and regardless of the method, frequency, or regularity of computing, allocating and paying the commission. It does not matter whether the commission earnings are computed daily, weekly, biweekly, semimonthly, monthly, or at some other interval. The fact that the commission is paid on a basis other than weekly, and that payment is delayed for a time past the employee's normal pay day or pay period, does not excuse the employer from including this payment in the employee's regular rate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 4981, Mar. 16, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.118" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.118   Commission paid on a workweek basis.</HEAD>
<P>When the commission is paid on a weekly basis, it is added to the employee's other earnings for that workweek (except overtime premiums and other payments excluded as provided in section 7(e) of the Act), and the total is divided by the total number of hours worked in the workweek to obtain the employee's regular hourly rate for the particular workweek. The employee must then be paid extra compensation at one-half of that rate for each hour worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.119" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.119   Deferred commission payments—general rules.</HEAD>
<P>If the calculation and payment of the commission cannot be completed until sometime after the regular pay day for the workweek, the employer may disregard the commission in computing the regular hourly rate until the amount of commission can be ascertained. Until that is done he may pay compensation for overtime at a rate not less than one and one-half times the hourly rate paid the employee, exclusive of the commission. When the commission can be computed and paid, additional overtime compensation due by reason of the inclusion of the commission in the employee's regular rate must also be paid. To compute this additional overtime compensation, it is necessary, as a general rule, that the commission be apportioned back over the workweeks of the period during which it was earned. The employee must then receive additional overtime compensation for each week during the period in which he worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard. The additional compensation for that workweek must be not less than one-half of the increase in the hourly rate of pay attributable to the commission for that week multipled by the number of hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard in that workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.120" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.120   Deferred commission payments not identifiable as earned in particular workweeks.</HEAD>
<P>If it is not possible or practicable to allocate the commission among the workweeks of the period in proportion to the amount of commission actually earned or reasonably presumed to be earned each week, some other reasonable and equitable method must be adopted. The following methods may be used:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Allocation of equal amounts to each week.</I> Assume that the employee earned an equal amount of commission in each week of the commission computation period and compute any additional overtime compensation due on this amount. This may be done as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For a commission computation period of 1 month, multiply the commission payment by 12 and divide by 52 to get the amount of commission allocable to a single week. If there is a semimonthly computation period, multiply the commission payment by 24 and divide by 52 to get each week's commission. For a commission computation period of a specific number of workweeks, such as every 4 weeks (as distinguished from every month) divide the total amount of commission by the number of weeks for which it represents additional compensation to get the amount of commission allocable to each week.
</P>
<P>(2) Once the amount of commission allocable to a workweek has been ascertained for each week in which overtime was worked, the commission for that week is divided by the total number of hours worked in that week, to get the increase in the hourly rate. Additional overtime due is computed by multiplying one-half of this figure by the number of overtime hours worked in the week. A shorter method of obtaining the amount of additional overtime compensation due is to multiply the amount of commission allocable to the week by the decimal equivalent of the fraction
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>     Overtime hours</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>    ————————
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>     Total hours × 2</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>A coefficient table (WH-134) has been prepared which contains the appropriate decimals for computing the extra half-time due.
</FP>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Examples:</HED><PSPACE>(i) If there is a monthly commission payment of $416, the amount of commission allocable to a single week is $96 ($416 × 12 = $4,992 ÷ 52 = $96). In a week in which an employee who is due overtime compensation after 40 hours works 48 hours, dividing $96 by 48 gives the increase to the regular rate of $2. Multiplying one-half of this figure by 8 overtime hours gives the additional overtime pay due of $8. The $96 may also be multiplied by 0.083 (the appropriate decimal shown on the coefficient table) to get the additional overtime pay due of $8.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) An employee received $384 in commissions for a 4-week period. Dividing this by 4 gives him a weekly increase of $96. Assume that he is due overtime compensation after 40 hours and that in the 4-week period he worked 44, 40, 44 and 48 hours. He would be due additional compensation of $4.36 for the first and third week ($96 ÷ 44 = $2.18 ÷ 2 = $1.09 × 4 overtime hours = $4.36), no extra compensation for the second week during which no overtime hours were worked, and $8 for the fourth week, computed in the same manner as weeks one and three. The additional overtime pay due may also be computed by multiplying the amount of the weekly increase by the appropriate decimal on the coefficient table, for each week in which overtime was worked.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Allocation of equal amounts to each hour worked.</I> Sometimes, there are facts which make it inappropriate to assume equal commission earnings for each workweek. For example, the number of hours worked each week may vary significantly. In such cases, rather than following the method outlined in paragraph (a) of this section, it is reasonable to assume that the employee earned an equal amount of commission in each hour that he worked during the commission computation period. The amount of the commission payment should be divided by the number of hours worked in the period in order to determine the amount of the increase in the regular rate allocable to the commission payment. One-half of this figure should be multiplied by the number of statutory overtime hours worked by the employee in the overtime workweeks of the commission computation period, to get the amount of additional overtime compensation due for this period.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>An employee received commissions of $192 for a commission computation period of 96 hours, including 16 overtime hours (<I>i.e.,</I> two workweeks of 48 hours each). Dividing the $192 by 96 gives a $2 increase in the hourly rate. If the employee is entitled to overtime after 40 hours in a workweek, he is due an additional $16 for the commission computation period, representing an additional $1 for each of the 16 overtime hours.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7310, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.121" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.121   Commission payments—delayed credits and debits.</HEAD>
<P>If there are delays in crediting sales or debiting returns or allowances which affect the computation of commissions, the amounts paid to the employee for the computation period will be accepted as the total commission earnings of the employee during such period, and the commission may be allocated over the period from the last commission computation date to the present commission computation date, even though there may be credits or debits resulting from work which actually occurred during a previous period. The hourly increase resulting from the commission may be computed as outlined in the preceding paragraphs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.122" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.2.176.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.122   Computation of overtime for commission employees on established basic rate.</HEAD>
<P>Overtime pay for employees paid wholly or partly on a commission basis may be computed on an established basic rate, in lieu of the method described above. See § 778.400 and part 548 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Payments That May Be Excluded From the “Regular Rate”</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="177" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.177" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>The Statutory Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.177.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.200   Provisions governing inclusion, exclusion, and crediting of particular payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Section 7(e).</I> This subsection of the Act provides as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>As used in this section the “regular rate” at which an employee is employed shall be deemed to include all remuneration for employment paid to, or on behalf of, the employee, but shall not be deemed to include:
</P>
<P>(1) Sums paid as gifts; payments in the nature of gifts made at Christmas time or on other special occasions, as a reward for service, the amounts of which are not measured by or dependent on hours worked, production, or efficiency; [discussed in § 778.212].
</P>
<P>(2) Payments made for occasional periods when no work is performed due to vacation, holiday, illness, failure of the employer to provide sufficient work, or other similar cause; reasonable payments for traveling expenses, or other expenses, incurred by an employee in the furtherance of his employer's interests and properly reimbursable by the employer; and other similar payments to an employee which are not made as compensation for his hours of employment; [discussed in §§ 778.216 through 778.224].
</P>
<P>(3) Sums paid in recognition of services performed during a given period if either, (a) both the fact that payment is to be made and the amount of the payment are determined at the sole discretion of the employer at or near the end of the period and not pursuant to any prior contract, agreement, or promise causing the employee to expect such payments regularly; or (b) the payments are made pursuant to a bona fide profit-sharing plan or trust or bona fide thrift or savings plan, meeting the requirements of the Secretary of Labor set forth in appropriate regulations which he shall issue, having due regard among other relevant factors, to the extent to which the amounts paid to the employee are determined without regard to hours of work, production, or efficiency; or (c) the payments are talent fees (as such talent fees are defined and delimited by regulations of the Secretary) paid to performers, including announcers, on radio and television programs; [discussed in §§ 778.208 through 778.215 and 778.225].
</P>
<P>(4) Contributions irrevocably made by an employer to a trustee or third person pursuant to a bona fide plan for providing old-age, retirement, life, accident, or health insurance or similar benefits for employees; [discussed in §§ 778.214 and 778.215].
</P>
<P>(5) Extra compensation provided by a premium rate paid for certain hours worked by the employee in any day or workweek because such hours are hours worked in excess of eight in a day or in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under subsection (a) or in excess of the employee's normal working hours or regular working hours, as the case may be; [discussed in §§ 778.201 and 778.202].
</P>
<P>(6) Extra compensation provided by a premium rate paid for work by the employee on Saturdays, Sundays, holidays, or regular days of rest, or on the sixth or seventh day of the workweek, where such premium rate is not less than one and one-half times the rate established in good faith for like work performed in nonovertime hours on other days; or [discussed in §§ 778.203, 778.205, and 778.206].
</P>
<P>(7) Extra compensation provided by a premium rate paid to the employee, in pursuance of an applicable employment contract or collective bargaining agreement, for work outside of the hours established in good faith by the contract or agreement as the basic, normal, or regular workday (not exceeding eight hours) or workweek (not exceeding the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under subsection (a)), where such premium rate is not less than one and one-half times the rate established in good faith by the contract or agreement for like work performed during such workday or workweek; [discussed in §§ 778.201 and 778.206].
</P>
<P>(8) Any value or income derived from employer-provided grants or rights provided pursuant to a stock option, stock appreciation right, or bona fide employee stock purchase program which is not otherwise excludable under any of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section if—
</P>
<P>(i) Grants are made pursuant to a program, the terms and conditions of which are communicated to participating employees either at the beginning of the employee's participation in the program or at the time of the grant;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of stock options and stock appreciation rights, the grant or right cannot be exercisable for a period of at least 6 months after the time of grant (except that grants or rights may become exercisable because of an employee's death, disability, retirement, or a change in corporate ownership, or other circumstances permitted by regulation), and the exercise price is at least 85 percent of the fair market value of the stock at the time of grant;
</P>
<P>(iii) Exercise of any grant or right is voluntary; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any determinations regarding the award of, and the amount of, employer-provided grants or rights that are based on performance are—
</P>
<P>(A) Made based upon meeting previously established performance criteria (which may include hours of work, efficiency, or productivity) of any business unit consisting of at least 10 employees or of a facility, except that, any determinations may be based on length of service or minimum schedule of hours or days of work; or
</P>
<P>(B) Made based upon the past performance (which may include any criteria) of one or more employees in a given period so long as the determination is in the sole discretion of the employer and not pursuant to any prior contract.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Section 7(h).</I> This subsection of the Act provides as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), sums excluded from the regular rate pursuant to subsection (e) shall not be creditable toward wages required under section 6 or overtime compensation required under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Extra compensation paid as described in paragraphs (5), (6), and (7) of subsection (e) of this section shall be creditable toward overtime compensation payable pursuant to this section.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Only the statutory exclusions are authorized.</I> It is important to determine the scope of these exclusions, since all remuneration for employment paid to employees which does not fall within one of these seven exclusionary clauses must be added into the total compensation received by the employee before his regular hourly rate of pay is determined.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 76 FR 18858, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="178" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.178" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Extra Compensation Paid for Overtime</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.178.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.201   Overtime premiums—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain premium payments made by employers for work in excess of or outside of specified daily or weekly standard work periods or on certain special days are regarded as overtime premiums. In such case, the extra compensation provided by the premium rates need not be included in the employee's regular rate of pay for the purpose of computing overtime compensation due under section 7(a) of the Act. Moreover, under section 7(h) this extra compensation may be credited toward the overtime payments required by the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The three types of extra premium payments which may thus be treated as overtime premiums for purposes of the Act are outlined in section 7(e) (5), (6), and (7) of the Act as set forth in § 778.200(a). These are discussed in detail in the sections following.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7(h) of the Act specifically states that the extra compensation provided by these three types of payments may be credited toward overtime compensation due under section 7(a) for work in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard. No other types of remuneration for employment may be so credited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.202" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.178.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.202   Premium pay for hours in excess of a daily or weekly standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hours in excess of 8 per day or statutory weekly standard.</I> A written or unwritten employment contract, agreement, understanding, handbook, policy, or practice may provide for the payment of overtime compensation for hours worked in excess of 8 per day or 40 per week. If the payment of such overtime compensation is in fact contingent upon the employee's having worked in excess of 8 hours in a day or in excess of the number of hours in the workweek specified in section 7(a) of the Act as the weekly maximum and such hours are reflected in an agreement or by established practice, the extra premium compensation paid for the excess hours is excludable from the regular rate under section 7(e)(5) of the Act and may be credited toward statutory overtime payments pursuant to section 7(h) of the Act. In applying the rules in this paragraph (a) to situations where it is the custom to pay employees for hours during which no work is performed due to vacation, holiday, illness, failure of the employer to provide sufficient work, or other similar cause, as these terms are explained in §§ 778.216 through 778.224, it is permissible (but not required) to count these hours as hours worked in determining the amount of overtime premium pay, due for hours in excess of 8 per day or the applicable maximum hours standard, which may be excluded from the regular rate and credited toward the statutory overtime compensation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hours in excess of normal or regular working hours.</I> Similarly, where the employee's normal or regular daily or weekly working hours are greater or fewer than 8 hours and 40 hours respectively and such hours are reflected in an agreement or by established practice, and the employee receives payment of premium rates for work in excess of such normal or regular hours of work for the day or week (such as 7 in a day or 35 in a week), the extra compensation provided by such premium rates, paid for excessive hours, is a true overtime premium to be excluded from the regular rate and it may be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Premiums for excessive daily hours.</I> If an employee whose maximum hours standard is 40 hours is hired at the rate of $12 an hour and receives, as overtime compensation under his contract, $12.50 per hour for each hour actually worked in excess of 8 per day (or in excess of his normal or regular daily working hours), his employer may exclude the premium portion of the overtime rate from the employee's regular rate and credit the total of the extra 50-cent payments thus made for daily overtime hours against the overtime compensation which is due under the statute for hours in excess of 40 in that workweek. If the same contract further provided for the payment of $13 for hours in excess of 12 per day, the extra $1 payments could likewise be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act. To qualify as overtime premiums under section 7(e)(5) of the Act, the daily overtime premium payments must be made for hours in excess of 8 hours per day or the employee's normal or regular working hours. If the normal workday is artificially divided into a “straight time” period to which one rate is assigned, followed by a so-called “overtime” period for which a higher “rate” is specified, the arrangement will be regarded as a device to contravene the statutory purposes and the premiums will be considered part of the regular rate. For a fuller discussion of this problem, see § 778.501.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hours in excess of other statutory standard.</I> Where payment at premium rates for hours worked in excess of a specified daily or weekly standard is made pursuant to the requirements of another applicable statute, the extra compensation provided by such premium rates will be regarded as a true overtime premium.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Premium pay for sixth or seventh day worked.</I> Under sections 7(e)(6) and 7(h), extra premium compensation paid for work on the sixth or seventh day worked in the workweek (where the workweek schedule is reflected in an agreement or by established practice) is regarded in the same light as premiums paid for work in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard or the employee's normal or regular workweek.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7311, Jan. 23, 1981; 84 FR 68771, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.203" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.178.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.203   Premium pay for work on Saturdays, Sundays, and other “special days”.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 7(e)(6) and 7(h) of the Act, extra compensation provided by a Premium rate of at least time and one-half which is paid for work on Saturdays, Sundays, holidays, or regular days of rest or on the sixth or seventh day of the workweek (hereinafter referred to as “special days”) may be treated as an overtime premium for the purposes of the Act. If the premium rate is less than time and one-half, the extra compensation provided by such rate must be included in determining the employee's regular rate of pay and cannot be credited toward statutory overtime due, unless it qualifies as an overtime premium under section 7(e)(5).
</P>
<P>(a) “Special days” rate must be at least time and one-half to qualify as overtime premium: The premium rate must be at least “one and one-half times the rate established in good faith for like work performed in nonovertime hours on other days.” Where an employee is hired on the basis of a salary for a fixed workweek or at a single hourly rate of pay, the rate paid for work on “special days” must be at least time and one-half his regular hourly rate in order to qualify under section 7(e)(6). If the employee is a pieceworker or if he works at more than one job for which different hourly or piece rates have been established and these are bona fide rates applicable to the work when performed during nonovertime hours, the extra compensation provided by a premium rate of at least one and one-half times either (1) the bona fide rate applicable to the type of job the employee performs on the “special days”, or (2) the average hourly earnings in the week in question, will qualify as an overtime premium under this section. (For a fuller discussion of computation on the average rate, see § 778.111; on the rate applicable to the job, see §§ 778.415 through 778.421; on the “established” rate, see § 778.400.)
</P>
<P>(b) Bona fide base rate required. The statute authorizes such premiums paid for work on “special days” to be treated as overtime premiums only if they are actually based on a “rate established in good faith for like work performed in nonovertime hours on other days.” This phrase is used for the purpose of distinguishing the bona fide employment standards contemplated by section 7(e)(6) from fictitious schemes and artificial or evasive devices as discussed in Subpart F of this part. Clearly, a rate which yields the employee less than time and one-half the minimum rate prescribed by the Act would not be a rate established in good faith.
</P>
<P>(c) Work on the specified “special days”: To qualify as an overtime premium under section 7(e)(6), the extra compensation must be paid for work on the specified days. The term “holiday” is read in its ordinary usage to refer to those days customarily observed in the community in celebration of some historical or religious occasion. A day of rest arbitrarily granted to employees because of lack of work is not a “holiday” within the meaning of this section, nor is it a “regular day of rest.” The term “regular day of rest” means a day on which the employee in accordance with his regular prearranged schedule is not expected to report for work. In some instances the “regular day of rest” occurs on the same day or days each week for a particular employee; in other cases, pursuant to a swing shift schedule, the schedule day of rest rotates in a definite pattern, such as 6 days work followed by 2 days of rest. In either case the extra compensation provided by a premium rate for work on such scheduled days of rest (if such rate is at least one and one-half times the bona fide rate established for like work during nonovertime hours on other days) may be treated as an overtime premium and thus need not be included in computing the employee's regular rate of pay and may be credited toward overtime payments due under the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Payment of premiums for work performed on the “special day”: To qualify as an overtime premium under section 7(e)(6), the premium must be paid because work is performed on the days specified and not for some other reason which would not qualify the premium as an overtime premium under sections 7(e)(5), (6), or (7) of the Act. (For examples distinguishing pay for work on a holiday from idle holiday pay, see § 778.219.) Thus a premium rate paid to an employee only when he received less than 24 hours' notice that he is required to report for work on his regular day of rest is not a premium paid for work on one of the specified days; it is a premium imposed as a penalty upon the employer for failure to give adequate notice to compensate the employee for the inconvenience of disarranging his private life. The extra compensation is not an overtime premium. It is part of his regular rate of pay unless such extra compensation is paid the employee so as to qualify for exclusion under section 7(e)(2) of the Act in which event it need not be included in computing his regular rate of pay, as explained in § 778.222.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 84 FR 68771, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.204" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.178.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.204   “Clock pattern” premium pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overtime premiums under section 7(e)(7).</I> Where a collective bargaining agreement or other applicable employment contract in good faith establishes certain hours of the day as the basic, normal, or regular workday (not exceeding 8 hours) or workweek (not exceeding the maximum hours standard applicable under section 7(a)) and provides for the payment of a premium rate for work outside such hours, the extra compensation provided by such premium rate will be treated as an overtime premium if the premium rate is not less than one and one-half times the rate established in good faith by the contract or agreement for like work performed during the basic, normal or regular workday or workweek.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Premiums for hours outside established working hours.</I> To qualify as an overtime premium under section 7(e)(7) the premium must be paid because the work was performed during hours “outside of the hours established * * * as the basic * * * workday or workweek” and not for some other reason. Thus, if the basic workday is established in good faith as the hours from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. a premium of time and one-half paid for hours between 5 p.m. and 8 a.m. would qualify as an overtime premium. However, where the contract does not provide for the payment of a premium except for work between midnight and 6 a.m. the premium would not qualify under this section since it is not a premium paid for work outside the established workday but only for certain special hours outside the established workday, in most instances because they are undesirable hours. Similarly, where payments of premium rates for work are made after 5 p.m. only if the employee has not had a meal period or rest period, they are not regarded as overtime premiums; they are premiums paid because of undesirable working conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment in pursuance of agreement.</I> Premiums of the type which section 7(e)(7) authorizes to be treated as overtime premiums must be paid “in pursuance of an applicable employment contract or collective bargaining agreement,” and the rates of pay and the daily and weekly work periods referred to must be established in good faith by such contract or agreement. Although as a general rule a collective bargaining agreement is a formal agreement which has been reduced to writing, an employment contract for purposes of section 7(e)(7) may be either written or oral. Where there is a written employment contract and the practices of the parties differ from its provisions, it must be determined whether the practices of the parties have modified the contract. If the practices of the parties have modified the written provisions of the contract, the provisions of the contract as modified by the practices of the parties will be controlling in determining whether the requirements of section 7(e)(7) are satisfied. The determination as to the existence of the requisite provisions in an applicable oral employment contract will necessarily be based on all the facts, including those showing the terms of the oral contract and the actual employment and pay practices thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.205" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.178.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.205   Premiums for weekend and holiday work—example.</HEAD>
<P>The application of section 7(e)(6) of the Act may be illustrated by the following example: Suppose, based on a written or unwritten employment contract, agreement, understanding, handbook, policy, or practice, an employee earns $18 an hour for all hours worked on a holiday or on Sunday in the operation of machines by operators whose maximum hours standard is 40 hours and who are paid a bona fide hourly rate of $12 for like work performed during nonovertime hours on other days. Suppose further that the workweek of such an employee begins at 12:01 a.m. Sunday, and in a particular week he works a schedule of 8 hours on Sunday and on each day from Monday through Saturday, making a total of 56 hours worked in the workweek. Tuesday is a holiday. The payment of $768 to which the employee is entitled will satisfy the requirements of the Act since the employer may properly exclude from the regular rate the extra $48 paid for work on Sunday and the extra $48 paid for holiday work and credit himself with such amount against the statutory overtime premium required to be paid for the 16 hours worked over 40.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 68771, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.206" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.178.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.206   Premiums for work outside basic workday or workweek—examples.</HEAD>
<P>The effect of section 7(e)(7) where “clock pattern” premiums are paid may be illustrated by reference to provisions typical of the applicable collective bargaining agreements traditionally in effect between employers and employees in the longshore and stevedoring industries. These agreements specify straight time rates applicable during the hours established in good faith under the agreement as the basic, normal, or regular workday and workweek. Under one such agreement, for example, such workday and workweek are established as the first 6 hours of work, exclusive of mealtime, each day, Monday through Friday, between the hours of 8 a.m. and 5 p.m. Under another typical agreement, such workday and workweek are established as the hours between 8 a.m. and 12 noon and between 1 p.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday. Work outside such workday and workweek is paid for at premium rates not less than one and one-half times the bona fide straight-time rates applicable to like work when performed during the basic, normal, or regular workday or workweek. The extra compensation provided by such premium rates will be excluded in computing the regular rate at which the employees so paid are employed and may be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act. For example, if an employee is paid $5 an hour under such an agreement for handling general cargo during the basic, normal, or regular workday and $7.50 per hour for like work outside of such workday, the extra $2.50 will be excluded from the regular rate and may be credited to overtime pay due under the Act. Similarly, if the straight time rate established in good faith by the contract should be higher because of handling dangerous or obnoxious cargo, recognition of skill differentials, or similar reasons, so as to be $7.50 an hour during the hours established as the basic or normal or regular workday or workweek, and a premium rate of $11.25 an hour is paid for the same work performed during other hours of the day or week, the extra $3.75 may be excluded from the regular rate of pay and may be credited toward overtime pay due under the Act. Similar principles are applicable where agreements following this general pattern exist in other industries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7311, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.207" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.178.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.207   Other types of contract premium pay distinguished.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overtime premiums are those defined by the statute.</I> The various types of premium payments which provide extra compensation qualifying as overtime premiums to be excluded from the regular rate (under sections 7(e)(5), (6), and (7) and credited toward statutory overtime pay requirements (under section 7(h)) have been described in §§ 778.201 through 778.206. The plain wording of the statute makes it clear that extra compensation provided by premium rates other than those described in the statute cannot be treated as overtime premiums. When such other premiums are paid, they must be included in the employee's regular rate before statutory overtime compensation is computed; no part of such premiums may be credited toward statutory overtime pay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonovertime premiums.</I> The Act requires the inclusion in the regular rate of such extra premiums as nightshift differentials (whether they take the form of a percent of the base rate or an addition of so many cents per hour) and premiums paid for hazardous, arduous or dirty work. It also requires inclusion of any extra compensation which is paid as an incentive for the rapid performance of work, and since any extra compensation in order to qualify as an overtime premium must be provided by a premium rate per hour, except in the special case of pieceworkers as discussed in § 778.418, lump sum premiums which are paid without regard to the number of hours worked are not overtime premiums and must be included in the regular rate. For example, where an employer pays 8 hours' pay for a particular job whether it is performed in 8 hours or in less time, the extra premium of 2 hours' pay received by an employee who completes the job in 6 hours must be included in his regular rate. Similarly, where an employer pays for 8 hours at premium rates for a job performed during the overtime hours whether it is completed in 8 hours or less, no part of the premium paid qualifies as overtime premium under sections 7(e) (5), (6), or (7). (For a further discussion of this and related problems, see §§ 778.308 to 778.314.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 84 FR 68772, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="179" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Bonuses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.208" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.208   Inclusion and exclusion of bonuses in computing the “regular rate.”</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(e) of the Act requires the inclusion in the regular rate of all remuneration for employment except eight specified types of payments. Among these excludable payments are discretionary bonuses, gifts and payments in the nature of gifts on special occasions, contributions by the employer to certain welfare plans and payments made by the employer pursuant to certain profit-sharing, thrift and savings plans. These are discussed in §§ 778.211 through 778.214. Bonuses which do not qualify for exclusion from the regular rate as one of these types must be totaled in with other earnings to determine the regular rate on which overtime pay must be based. Bonus payments are payments made in addition to the regular earnings of an employee. For a discussion on the bonus form as an evasive bookkeeping device, see §§ 778.502 and 778.503. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 76 FR 18858, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.209" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.209   Method of inclusion of bonus in regular rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> Where a bonus payment is considered a part of the regular rate at which an employee is employed, it must be included in computing his regular hourly rate of pay and overtime compensation. No difficulty arises in computing overtime compensation if the bonus covers only one weekly pay period. The amount of the bonus is merely added to the other earnings of the employee (except statutory exclusions) and the total divided by total hours worked. Under many bonus plans, however, calculations of the bonus may necessarily be deferred over a period of time longer than a workweek. In such a case the employer may disregard the bonus in computing the regular hourly rate until such time as the amount of the bonus can be ascertained. Until that is done he may pay compensation for overtime at one and one-half times the hourly rate paid by the employee, exclusive of the bonus. When the amount of the bonus can be ascertained, it must be apportioned back over the workweeks of the period during which it may be said to have been earned. The employee must then receive an additional amount of compensation for each workweek that he worked overtime during the period equal to one-half of the hourly rate of pay allocable to the bonus for that week multiplied by the number of statutory overtime hours worked during the week.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocation of bonus where bonus earnings cannot be identified with particular workweeks.</I> If it is impossible to allocate the bonus among the workweeks of the period in proportion to the amount of the bonus actually earned each week, some other reasonable and equitable method of allocation must be adopted. For example, it may be reasonable and equitable to assume that the employee earned an equal amount of bonus each week of the period to which the bonus relates, and if the facts support this assumption additional compensation for each overtime week of the period may be computed and paid in an amount equal to one-half of the average hourly increase in pay resulting from bonus allocated to the week, multiplied by the number of statutory overtime hours worked in that week. Or, if there are facts which make it inappropriate to assume equal bonus earnings for each workweek, it may be reasonable and equitable to assume that the employee earned an equal amount of bonus each hour of the pay period and the resultant hourly increase may be determined by dividing the total bonus by the number of hours worked by the employee during the period for which it is paid. The additional compensation due for the overtime workweeks in the period may then be computed by multiplying the total number of statutory overtime hours worked in each such workweek during the period by one-half this hourly increase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.210" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.210   Percentage of total earnings as bonus.</HEAD>
<P>In some instances the contract or plan for the payment of a bonus may also provide for the simultaneous payment of overtime compensation due on the bonus. For example, a contract made prior to the performance of services may provide for the payment of additional compensation in the way of a bonus at the rate of 10 percent of the employee's straight-time earnings, and 10 percent of his overtime earnings. In such instances, of course, payments according to the contract will satisfy in full the overtime provisions of the Act and no recomputation will be required. This is not true, however, where this form of payment is used as a device to evade the overtime requirements of the Act rather than to provide actual overtime compensation, as described in §§ 778.502 and 778.503.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.211" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.211   Discretionary bonuses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provision.</I> Section 7(e) (3)(a) of the Act provides that the regular rate shall not be deemed to include “sums paid in recognition of services performed during a given period if * * * (a) both the fact that payment is to be made and the amount of the payment are determined at the sole discretion of the employer at or near the end of the period and not pursuant to any prior contract, agreement, or promise causing the employee to expect such payments regularly * * *”. Such sums may not, however, be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary character of excluded bonus.</I> In order for a bonus to qualify for exclusion as a discretionary bonus under section 7(e)(3)(a) the employer must retain discretion both as to the fact of payment and as to the amount until a time quite close to the end of the period for which the bonus is paid. The sum, if any, to be paid as a bonus is determined by the employer without prior promise or agreement. The employee has no contract right, express or implied, to any amount. If the employer promises in advance to pay a bonus, he has abandoned his discretion with regard to it. Thus, if an employer announces to his employees in January that he intends to pay them a bonus in June, he has thereby abandoned his discretion regarding the fact of payment by promising a bonus to his employees. Such a bonus would not be excluded from the regular rate under section 7(e)(3)(a). Similarly, an employer who promises to sales employees that they will receive a monthly bonus computed on the basis of allocating 1 cent for each item sold whenever, is his discretion, the financial condition of the firm warrants such payments, has abandoned discretion with regard to the amount of the bonus though not with regard to the fact of payment. Such a bonus would not be excluded from the regular rate. On the other hand, if a bonus such as the one just described were paid without prior contract, promise or announcement and the decision as to the fact and amount of payment lay in the employer's sole discretion, the bonus would be properly excluded from the regular rate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Promised bonuses not excluded.</I> The bonus, to be excluded under section 7(e)(3)(a), must not be paid pursuant to any prior contract, agreement, or promise. For example, any bonus which is promised to employees upon hiring or which is the result of collective bargaining would not be excluded from the regular rate under this provision of the Act. Bonuses which are announced to employees to induce them to work more steadily or more rapidly or more efficiently or to remain with the firm are regarded as part of the regular rate of pay. Most attendance bonuses, individual or group production bonuses, bonuses for quality and accuracy of work, bonuses contingent upon the employee's continuing in employment until the time the payment is to be made and the like are in this category; in such circumstances they must be included in the regular rate of pay.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labels are not determinative.</I> The label assigned to a bonus does not conclusively determine whether a bonus is discretionary under section 7(e)(3). Instead, the terms of the statute and the facts specific to the bonus at issue determine whether bonuses are excludable discretionary bonuses. Thus, regardless of the label or name assigned to bonuses, bonuses are discretionary and excludable if both the fact that the bonuses are to be paid and the amounts are determined at the sole discretion of the employer at or near the end of the periods to which the bonuses correspond and they are not paid pursuant to any prior contract, agreement, or promise causing the employee to expect such payments regularly. Examples of bonuses that may be discretionary include bonuses to employees who made unique or extraordinary efforts which are not awarded according to pre-established criteria, severance bonuses, referral bonuses for employees not primarily engaged in recruiting activities, bonuses for overcoming challenging or stressful situations, employee-of-the-month bonuses, and other similar compensation. Such bonuses are usually not promised in advance and the fact and amount of payment is in the sole discretion of the employer until at or near the end of the period to which the bonus corresponds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 84 FR 68772, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.212" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.212   Gifts, Christmas and special occasion bonuses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provision.</I> Section 7(e)(1) of the Act provides that the term “regular rate” shall not be deemed to include “sums paid as gifts; payments in the nature of gifts made at Christmas time or on other special occasions, as a reward for service, the amounts of which are not measured by or dependent on hours worked, production, or efficiency * * *”. Such sums may not, however, be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Gift or similar payment.</I> To qualify for exclusion under section 7(e)(1) the bonus must be actually a gift or in the nature of a gift. If it is measured by hours worked, production, or efficiency, the payment is geared to wages and hours during the bonus period and is no longer to be considered as in the nature of a gift. If the payment is so substantial that it can be assumed that employees consider it a part of the wages for which they work, the bonus cannot be considered to be in the nature of a gift. Obviously, if the bonus is paid pursuant to contract (so that the employee has a legal right to the payment and could bring suit to enforce it), it is not in the nature of a gift.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of exclusion.</I> If the bonus paid at Christmas or on other special occasion is a gift or in the nature of a gift, it may be excluded from the regular rate under section 7(e)(1) even though it is paid with regularity so that the employees are led to expect it and even though the amounts paid to different employees or groups of employees vary with the amount of the salary or regular hourly rate of such employees or according to their length of service with the firm so long as the amounts are not measured by or directly dependent upon hours worked, production, or efficiency. A Christmas bonus paid (not pursuant to contract) in the amount of two weeks' salary to all employees and an equal additional amount for each 5 years of service with the firm, for example, would be excludable from the regular rate under this category. Employers may also provide gifts with more regularity throughout the year, as long as they are provided with the understanding that they are gifts. Office coffee and snacks provided to employees, for example, would also be excludable from the regular rate under this category.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 84 FR 68772, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.213" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.213   Profit-sharing, thrift, and savings plans.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(e)(3)(b) of the Act provides that the term “regular rate” shall not be deemed to include “sums paid in recognition of services performed during a given period if * * * the payments are made pursuant to a bona fide profit-sharing plan or trust or bona fide thrift or savings plan, meeting the requirements of the Secretary of Labor set forth in appropriate regulations * * *”. Such sums may not, however, be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act. The regulations issued under this section are parts 547 and 549 of this chapter. Payments in addition to the regular wages of the employee, made by the employer pursuant to a plan which meets the requirements of the regulations in part 547 or 549 of this chapter, will be properly excluded from the regular rate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.214" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.214   Benefit plans; including profit-sharing plans or trusts providing similar benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provision.</I> Section 7(e)(4) of the Act provides that the term “regular rate” shall not be deemed to include: “contributions irrevocably made by an employer to a trustee or third person pursuant to a bona fide plan for providing old age, retirement, life, accident, or health insurance or similar benefits for employees * * *.” Such sums may not, however, be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and application of exclusion generally.</I> Plans for providing benefits of the kinds described in section 7(e)(4) are referred to herein as “benefit plans”. It is section 7(e)(4) which governs the status for regular rate purposes of any contributions made by an employer pursuant to a plan for providing the described benefits. This is true irrespective of any other features the plan may have. Thus, it makes no difference whether or not the benefit plan is one financed out of profits or one which by matching employee contributions or otherwise encourages thrift or savings. Where such a plan or trust is combined in a single program (whether in one or more documents) with a plan or trust for providing profit-sharing payments to employees, the profit-sharing payments may be excluded from the regular rate if they meet the requirements of the Profit-Sharing Regulations, part 549 of this chapter, and the contributions made by the employer for providing the benefits described in section 7(e)(4) of the Act may be excluded from the regular rate if they meet the tests set forth in § 778.215. Advance approval by the Department of Labor is not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tests must be applied to employer contributions.</I> It should be emphasized that it is the employer's contribution made pursuant to the benefit plan that is excluded from or included in the regular rate according to whether or not the requirements set forth in § 778.215 are met. If the contribution is not made as provided in section 7(e)(4) or if the plan does not qualify as a bona fide benefit plan under that section, the contribution is treated the same as any bonus payment which is part of the regular rate of pay, and at the time the contribution is made the amount thereof must be apportioned back over the workweeks of the period during which it may be said to have accrued. Overtime compensation based upon the resultant increases in the regular hourly rate is due for each overtime hour worked during any workweek of the period. The subsequent distribution of accrued funds to an employee on account of severance of employment (or for any other reason) would not result in any increase in his regular rate in the week in which the distribution is made.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employer contributions when included in fringe benefit wage determinations under Davis-Bacon Act.</I> As noted in § 778.6 where certain fringe benefits are included in the wage predeterminations of the Secretary of Labor for laborers and mechanics performing contract work subject to the Davis-Bacon Act and related statutes, the provisions of Public Law 88-349 discussed in § 5.32 of this title should be considered together with the interpretations in this part 778 in determining the excludability of such fringe benefits from the regular rate of such employees. Accordingly, reference should be made to § 5.32 of this title as well as to § 778.215 for guidance with respect to exclusion from the employee's regular rate of contributions made by the employer to any benefit plan if, in the workweek or workweeks involved, the employee performed work as a laborer or mechanic subject to a wage determination made by the Secretary pursuant to part 1 of this title, and if fringe benefits of the kind represented by such contributions constitute a part of the prevailing wages required to be paid such employee in accordance with such wage determination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employer contributions or equivalents pursuant to fringe benefit determinations under Service Contract Act of 1965.</I> Contributions by contractors and subcontractors to provide fringe benefits specified under the McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act of 1965, which are of the kind referred to in section 7(e)(4), are excludable from the regular rate under the conditions set forth in § 778.215. Where the fringe benefit contributions specified under such Act are so excludable, equivalent benefits or payments provided by the employer in satisfaction of his obligation to provide the specified benefits are also excludable from the regular rate if authorized under part 4 of this title, subpart B, pursuant to the McNamara-O'Hara Act, and their exclusion therefrom is not dependent on whether such equivalents, if separately considered, would meet the requirements of § 778.215. See § 778.7.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 36 FR 4699, Mar. 11, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.215" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.179.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.215   Conditions for exclusion of benefit-plan contributions under section 7(e)(4).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> In order for an employer's contribution to qualify for exclusion from the regular rate under section 7(e)(4) of the Act the following conditions must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The contributions must be made pursuant to a specific plan or program adopted by the employer, or by contract as a result of collective bargaining, and communicated to the employees. This may be either a company-financed plan or an employer-employee contributory plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The primary purpose of the plan must be to provide systematically for the payment of benefits to employees on account of death, disability, advanced age, retirement, illness, medical expenses, hospitalization, accident, unemployment, legal services, or other events that could cause significant future financial hardship or expense.
</P>
<P>(3) In a plan or trust, either:
</P>
<P>(i) The benefits must be specified or definitely determinable on an actuarial basis; or
</P>
<P>(ii) There must be both a definite formula for determining the amount to be contributed by the employer and a definite formula for determining the benefits for each of the employees participating in the plan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) There must be both a formula for determining the amount to be contributed by the employer and a provision for determining the individual benefits by a method which is consistent with the purposes of the plan or trust under section 7(e)(4) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(iv) <E T="04">Note:</E> The requirements in paragraphs (a)(3) (ii) and (iii) of this section for a formula for determining the amount to be contributed by the employer may be met by a formula which requires a specific and substantial minimum contribution and which provides that the employer may add somewhat to that amount within specified limits; provided, however, that there is a reasonable relationship between the specified minimum and maximum contributions. Thus, formulas providing for a minimum contribution of 10 percent of profits and giving the employer discretion to add to that amount up to 20 percent of profits, or for a minimum contribution of 5 percent of compensation and discretion to increase up to a maximum of 15 percent of compensation, would meet the requirement. However, a plan which provides for insignificant minimum contributions and permits a variation so great that, for all practical purposes, the formula becomes meaningless as a measure of contributions, would not meet the requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer's contributions must be paid irrevocably to a trustee or third person pursuant to an insurance agreement, trust or other funded arrangement. The trustee must assume the usual fiduciary responsibilities imposed upon trustees by applicable law. The trust or fund must be set up in such a way that in no event will the employer be able to recapture any of the contributions paid in nor in any way divert the funds to his own use or benefit. (It should also be noted that in the case of joint employer-employee contributory plans, where the employee contributions are not paid over to a third person or to a trustee unaffiliated with the employer, violations of the Act may result if the employee contributions cut into the required minimum or overtime rates. See part 531 of this chapter.) Although an employer's contributions made to a trustee or third person pursuant to a benefit plan must be irrevocably made, this does not prevent return to the employer of sums which he had paid in excess of the contributions actually called for by the plan, as where such excess payments result from error or from the necessity of marking payments to cover the estimated cost of contributions at a time when the exact amount of the necessary contributions under the plan is not yet ascertained. For example, a benefit plan may provide for definite insurance benefits for employees in the event of the happening of a specified contingency such as death, sickness, accident, etc., and may provide that the cost of such definite benefits, either in full or any balance in excess of specified employee contributions, will be borne by the employer. In such a case the return by the insurance company to the employer of sums paid by him in excess of the amount required to provide the benefits which, under the plan, are to be provided through contributions by the employer, will not be deemed a recapture or diversion by the employer of contributions made pursuant to the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) The plan must not give an employee the right to assign his benefits under the plan nor the option to receive any part of the employer's contributions in cash instead of the benefits under the plan: <I>Provided, however,</I> That if a plan otherwise qualified as a bona fide benefit plan under section 7(e)(4) of the Act, it will still be regarded as a bona fide plan even though it provides, as an incidental part thereof, for the payment to an employee in cash of all or a part of the amount standing to his credit (i) at the time of the severance of the employment relation due to causes other than retirement, disability, or death, or (ii) upon proper termination of the plan, or (iii) during the course of his employment under circumstances specified in the plan and not inconsistent with the general purposes of the plan to provide the benefits described in section 7(e)(4) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plans under sections of the Internal Revenue Code.</I> In the absence of evidence to the contrary, where the benefit plan or trust has been approved by the Internal Revenue Service as satisfying the requirements of section 401(a), 403(a), or 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, is otherwise maintained pursuant to a written document that the plan sponsor reasonably believes satisfies the requirements of section 401(a), 403(a), 403(b), 408(k) or 408(p) of the Internal Revenue Code, or is sponsored by a government employer that reasonably believes the plan satisfies the requirements of section 457(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, the plan or trust will be considered to meet the conditions specified in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), (4), and (5) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7312, Jan. 23, 1981; 84 FR 68772, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="180" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Payments not for Hours Worked</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.216" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.216   The provisions of section 7(e)(2) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(e)(2) of the Act provides that the term “regular rate” shall not be deemed to include “payments made for occasional periods when no work is performed due to vacation, holiday, illness, failure of the employer to provide sufficient work, or other similar cause; reasonable payments for traveling expenses, or other expenses, incurred by an employee in the furtherance of his employer's interests and properly reimbursable by the employer; and other similar payments to an employee which are not made as compensation for his hours of employment * * *.” However, since such payments are not made as compensation for the employee's hours worked in any workweek, no part of such payments can be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.217" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.217   Reimbursement for expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Where an employee incurs expenses on his employer's behalf or where he is required to expend sums by reason of action taken for the convenience of his employer, section 7(e)(2) is applicable to reimbursement for such expenses. Payments made by the employer to cover such expenses are not included in the employee's regular rate (if the amount of the reimbursement reasonably approximates the expense incurred). Such payment is not compensation for services rendered by the employees during any hours worked in the workweek.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Illustrations.</I> Payment by way of reimbursement for the following types of expenses will not be regarded as part of the employee's regular rate:
</P>
<P>(1) The actual amount expended by an employee in purchasing supplies, tools, materials, cell phone plans, or equipment on behalf of his employer or in paying organization membership dues or credentialing exam fees where relevant to the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(2) The actual or reasonably approximate amount expended by an employee in purchasing, laundering or repairing uniforms or special clothing which his employer requires him to wear.
</P>
<P>(3) The actual or reasonably approximate amount expended by an employee, who is traveling “over the road” on his employer's business, for transportation (whether by private car or common carrier) and living expenses away from home, other travel expenses, such as taxicab fares, incurred while traveling on the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(4) “Supper money”, a reasonable amount given to an employee, who ordinarily works the day shift and can ordinarily return home for supper, to cover the cost of supper when he is requested by his employer to continue work during the evening hours.
</P>
<P>(5) The actual or reasonably approximate amount expended by an employee as temporary excess home-to-work travel expenses incurred (i) because the employer has moved the plant to another town before the employee has had an opportunity to find living quarters at the new location or (ii) because the employee, on a particular occasion, is required to report for work at a place other than his regular workplace.
</P>
<FP>The foregoing list is intended to be illustrative rather than 

exhaustive.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Payments excluding expenses.</I> (1) It should be noted that only the actual or reasonably approximate amount of the expense is excludable from the regular rate. If the amount paid as “reimbursement” is disproportionately large, the excess amount will be included in the regular rate.
</P>
<P>(2) A reimbursement amount for an employee traveling on his or her employer's business is per se reasonable, and not disproportionately large, if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Is the same or less than the maximum reimbursement payment or per diem allowance permitted for the same type of expense under 41 CFR subtitle F (the Federal Travel Regulation System) or IRS guidance issued under 26 CFR 1.274-5(g) or (j); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Otherwise meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (c)(2) of this section creates no inference that a reimbursement for an employee traveling on his or her employer's business exceeding the amount permitted under 41 CFR subtitle F (the Federal Travel Regulation System) or IRS guidance issued under 26 CFR 1.274-5(g) or (j) is unreasonable for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payments for expenses personal to the employee.</I> The expenses for which reimbursement is made must in order to merit exclusion from the regular rate under this section, be expenses incurred by the employee on the employer's behalf or for his benefit or convenience. If the employer reimburses the employee for expenses normally incurred by the employee for his own benefit, he is, of course, increasing the employee's regular rate thereby. An employee normally incurs expenses in traveling to and from work, buying lunch, paying rent, and the like. If the employer reimburses him for these normal everyday expenses, the payment is not excluded from the regular rate as “reimbursement for expenses.” Whether the employer “reimburses” the employee for such expenses or furnishes the facilities (such as free lunches or free housing), the amount paid to the employee (or the reasonable cost to the employer or fair value where facilities are furnished) enters into the regular rate of pay as discussed in § 778.116. See also § 531.37(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 84 FR 68772, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.218" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.218   Pay for certain idle hours.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> Payments which are made for occasional periods when the employee is not at work due to vacation, holiday, illness, failure of the employer to provide sufficient work, or other similar cause, where the payments are in amounts approximately equivalent to the employee's normal earnings for a similar period of time, are not made as compensation for his hours of employment. Therefore, such payments may be excluded from the regular rate of pay under section 7(e)(2) of the Act and, for the same reason, no part of such payments may be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on exclusion.</I> The provision of section 7(e)(2) of the Act deals with the type of absences which are infrequent or sporadic or unpredictable. It has no relation to regular “absences” such as regularly scheduled days of rest. Sundays may not be workdays in a particular establishment, but this does not make them either “holidays” or “vacations,” or days on which the employee is absent because of the failure of the employer to provide sufficient work. The term holiday is read in its ordinary usage to refer to those days customarily observed in the community in celebration of some historical or religious occasion; it does not refer to days of rest given to employees in lieu of or as an addition to compensation for working on other days.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to provide work.</I> The term “failure of the employer to provide sufficient work” is intended to refer to occasional, sporadically recurring situations where the employee would normally be working but for such a factor as machinery breakdown, failure of expected supplies to arrive, weather conditions affecting the ability of the employee to perform the work and similarly unpredictable obstacles beyond the control of the employer. The term does not include reduction in work schedule (as discussed in §§ 778.321 through 778.329), ordinary temporary layoff situations, or any type of routine, recurrent absence of the employee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other similar cause.</I> The term “other similar cause” refers to payments made for periods of absence due to factors like holidays, vacations, sickness, and failure of the employer to provide work. Examples of “similar causes” are absences due to jury service, reporting to a draft board, attending a funeral, inability to reach the workplace because of weather conditions, attending adoption or child custody hearings, attending school activities, donating organs or blood, voting, volunteering as a first responder, military leave, family medical leave, and nonroutine paid leave required under state or local laws. Only absences of a non-routine character which are infrequent or sporadic or unpredictable are included in the “other similar cause” category.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 84 FR 68772, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.219" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.219   Pay for forgoing holidays and unused leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sums payable whether employee works or not.</I> As explained in § 778.218, certain payments made to an employee for periods during which he performs no work because of a holiday, vacation, or illness are not required to be included in the regular rate because they are not regarded as compensation for working. When an employee who is entitled to such paid leave forgoes the use of leave and instead receives a payment that is the approximate equivalent to the employees' normal earnings for a similar period of working time, and is in addition to the employee's normal compensation for hours worked, the sum allocable to the forgone leave may be excluded from the regular rate. Such payments may be excluded whether paid out during the pay period in which the holiday or prescheduled leave is forgone or as a lump sum at a later point in time. Since it is not compensation for work, pay for unused leave may not be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act. Four examples in which the maximum hours standard is 40 hours may serve to illustrate this principle:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee whose rate of pay is $12 an hour and who usually works a 6-day, 48-hour week is entitled, under his employment contract, to a week's paid vacation in the amount of his usual straight-time earnings—$576. He forgoes his vacation and works 50 hours in the week in question. He is owed $600 as his total straight-time earnings for the week, and $576 in addition as his vacation pay. Under the statute he is owed an additional $60 as overtime premium (additional half-time) for the 10 hours in excess of 40. His regular rate of $12 per hour has not been increased by virtue of the payment of $576 vacation pay, but no part of the $576 may be offset against the statutory overtime compensation which is due. (Nothing in this example is intended to imply that the employee has a statutory right to $576 or any other sum as vacation pay. This is a matter of private contract between the parties who may agree that vacation pay will be measured by straight-time earnings for any agreed number of hours or days, or by total normal or expected take-home pay for the period, or that no vacation pay at all will be paid. The example merely illustrates the proper method of computing overtime for an employee whose employment contract provides $576 vacation pay.)
</P>
<P>(2) An employee who is entitled under his employment contract to 8 hours' pay at his rate of $12 an hour for the Christmas holiday, forgoes his holiday and works 9 hours on that day. During the entire week, he works a total of 50 hours. He is paid under his contract $600 as straight-time compensation for 50 hours plus $96 as idle holiday pay. He is owed, under the statute, an additional $60 as overtime premium (additional half-time) for the 10 hours in excess of 40. His regular rate of $12 per hour has not been increased by virtue of the holiday pay but no part of the $96 holiday pay may be credited toward statutory overtime compensation due.
</P>
<P>(3) An employee whose rate of pay is $12 an hour and who usually works a 40-hour week is entitled to two weeks of paid time off per year per his or her employer's policies. The employee takes one week of paid time off during the year and is paid $480 pursuant to employer policy for the one week of unused paid time off at the end of the year. The leave payout may be excluded from the employee's regular rate of pay, but no part of the payout may be credited toward statutory overtime compensation due.
</P>
<P>(4) An employee is scheduled to work a set schedule of two 24-hour shifts on duty, followed by four 24-hour shifts off duty. This cycle repeats every six days. The employer recognizes ten holidays per year and provides employees with holiday pay for these days at amounts approximately equivalent to their normal earnings for a similar period of working time. Due to the cycle of the schedule, employees may be on duty during some recognized holidays and off duty during others, and due to the nature of their work, employees may be required to forgo a holiday if an emergency arises. In recognition of this fact, the employer provides the employees holiday pay regardless of whether the employee works on the holiday. If the employee works on the holiday, the employee will receive his or her regular salary in addition to the holiday pay. In these circumstances, the sum allocable to the holiday pay may be excluded from the regular rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Premiums for holiday work distinguished.</I> The example in paragraph (a)(2) of this section should be distinguished from a situation in which an employee is entitled to idle holiday pay under the employment agreement only when he is actually idle on the holiday, and who, if he forgoes his holiday also, under his contract, forgoes his idle holiday pay.
</P>
<P>(1) The typical situation is one in which an employee is entitled by contract to 8 hours' pay at his rate of $12 an hour for certain named holidays when no work is performed. If, however, he is required to work on such days, he does not receive his idle holiday pay. Instead he receives a premium rate of $18 (time and one-half) for each hour worked on the holiday. If he worked 9 hours on the holiday and a total of 50 hours for the week, he would be owed, under his contract, $162 (9 × $18) for the holiday work and $492 for the other 41 hours worked in the week, a total of $654. Under the statute (which does not require premium pay for a holiday) he is owed $660 for a workweek of 50 hours at a rate of $12 an hour. Since the holiday premium is one and one-half times the established rate for nonholiday work, it does not increase the regular rate because it qualifies as an overtime premium under section 7(e)(6), and the employer may credit it toward statutory overtime compensation due and need pay the employee only the additional sum of $6 to meet the statutory requirements. (For a discussion of holiday premiums see § 778.203.)
</P>
<P>(2) If all other conditions remained the same but the contract called for the payment of $24 (double time) for each hour worked on the holiday, the employee would receive, under his contract $216 (9 × $24) for the holiday work in addition to $492 for the other 41 hours worked, a total of $708. Since this holiday premium is also an overtime premium under section 7(e)(6), it is excludable from the regular rate and the employer may credit it toward statutory overtime compensation due. Because the total thus paid exceeds the statutory requirements, no additional compensation is due under the Act. In distinguishing this situation from that in the example in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, it should be noted that the contract provisions in the two situations are different and result in the payment of different amounts. In the example in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the employee received a total of $204 attributable to the holiday: 8 hours' idle holiday pay at $12 an hour (8 × $12), due him whether he worked or not, and $108 pay at the nonholiday rate for 9 hours' work on the holiday. In the situation discussed in this paragraph (b)(2), the employee received $216 pay for working on the holiday—double time for 9 hours of work. All of the pay in this situation is paid for and directly related to the number of hours worked on the holiday.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 68773, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.220" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.220   “Show-up” or “reporting” pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicable principles.</I> Under some employment agreements, an employee may be paid a minimum of a specified number of hours' pay at the applicable straight time or overtime rate on infrequent and sporadic occasions when, after reporting to work at his scheduled starting time on a regular work day or on another day on which he has been scheduled to work, he is not provided with the expected amount of work. The amounts that may be paid under such an agreement over and above what the employee would receive if paid at his customary rate only for the number of hours worked are paid to compensate the employee for the time wasted by him in reporting for work and to prevent undue loss of pay resulting from the employer's failure to provide expected work during regular hours. One of the primary purposes of such an arrangement is to discourage employers from calling their employees in to work for only a fraction of a day when they might get full-time work elsewhere. Pay arrangements of this kind are commonly referred to as “show-up” or “reporting” pay. Under the principles and subject to the conditions set forth in subpart B of this part and §§ 778.201 through 778.207, that portion of such payment which represents compensation at the applicable rates for the straight time or overtime hours actually worked, if any, during such period may be credited as straight time or overtime compensation, as the case may be, in computing overtime compensation due under the Act. The amount by which the specified number of hours' pay exceeds such compensation for the hours actually worked is considered as a payment that is not made for hours worked. As such, it may be excluded from the computation of the employee's regular rate and cannot be credited toward statutory overtime compensation due him.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application illustrated.</I> To illustrate, assume that an employee entitled to overtime pay after 40 hours a week whose workweek begins on Monday and who is paid $12 an hour reports for work on Monday according to schedule and is sent home after being given only 2 hours of work. He then works 8 hours each day on Tuesday through Saturday, inclusive, making a total of 42 hours for the week. The employment agreement covering the employees in the plant, who normally work 8 hours a day, Monday through Friday, provides that an employee reporting for scheduled work on any day will receive a minimum of 4 hours' work or pay. The employee thus receives not only the $24 earned in the 2 hours of work on Monday but an extra 2 hours' “show-up” pay, or $24 by reason of this agreement. However, since this $24 in “show-up” pay is not regarded as compensation for hours worked, the employee's regular rate remains $12 and the overtime requirements of the Act are satisfied if he receives, in addition to the $504 straight-time pay for 42 hours and the $24 “show-up” payment, the sum of $12 as extra compensation for the 2 hours of overtime work on Saturday.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Show-up or reporting pay mandated by law.</I> State and local laws may mandate payments or penalties paid to an employee when, before or after reporting to work as scheduled, the employee is not provided with the expected amount of work. All such payments or penalties paid to employees that are mandated by such laws and that are not payments for hours worked by the employee are excludable from the regular rate if such penalties are paid or payments made on an infrequent or sporadic basis. They cannot be credited toward statutory overtime compensation due.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7312, Jan. 23, 1981, as amended at 85 FR 68774, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.221" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.221   “Call-back” pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Typically, “call-back” or “call-out” payments are made pursuant to agreement or established practice and consist of a specified number of hours' pay at the applicable straight time or overtime rates received by an employee on occasions when, after his scheduled hours of work have ended and without prearrangement, he responds to a call from his employer to perform extra work. The amount by which the specified number of hours' pay exceeds the compensation for hours actually worked is considered as a payment that is not made for hours worked. As such, it may be excluded from the computation of the employee's regular rate and cannot be credited toward statutory overtime compensation due the employee. Payments that are prearranged, however, may not be excluded from the regular rate. For example, if an employer retailer called in an employee to help clean up the store for 3 hours after an unexpected roof leak, and then again 3 weeks later for 2 hours to cover for a coworker who left work for a family emergency, payments for those instances would be without prearrangement and any call-back pay that exceeded the amount the employee would receive for the hours worked would be excludable. However, when payments under §§ 778.221 and 778.222 are prearranged, they are compensation for work. The key inquiry for determining prearrangement is whether the extra work was anticipated and therefore reasonably could have been scheduled. For example, if an employer restaurant anticipates needing extra servers for two hours during the busiest part of each Saturday evening and calls in employees to meet that need instead of scheduling additional servers, that would be prearrangement and any call-back pay would be included in the regular rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application illustrated.</I> The application of the principles in paragraph (a) of this section to call-back payments may be illustrated as follows: An employment agreement provides a minimum of 3 hours' pay at time and one-half for any employee called back to work outside his scheduled hours. The employees covered by the agreement, who are entitled to overtime pay after 40 hours a week, normally work 8 hours each day, Monday through Friday, inclusive, in a workweek beginning on Monday, and are paid overtime compensation at time and one-half for all hours worked in excess of 8 in any day or 40 in any workweek. Assume that an employee covered by this agreement and paid at the rate of $12 an hour works 1 hour overtime or a total of 9 hours on Monday, and works 8 hours each on Tuesday through Friday, inclusive. After he has gone home on Friday evening, he is called back to perform an emergency job. His hours worked on the call total 2 hours and he receives 3 hours' pay at time and one-half, or $54, under the call-back provision, in addition to $480 for working his regular schedule and $18 for overtime worked on Monday evening. In computing overtime compensation due this employee under the Act, the 43 actual hours (not 44) are counted as working time during the week. In addition to $516 pay at the $12 rate for all these hours, he has received under the agreement a premium of $6 for the 1 overtime hour on Monday and of $12 for the 2 hours of overtime work on the call, plus an extra sum of $18 paid by reason of the provision for minimum call-back pay. For purposes of the Act, the extra premiums paid for actual hours of overtime work on Monday and on the Friday call (a total of $18) may be excluded as true overtime premiums in computing his regular rate for the week and may be credited toward compensation due under the Act, but the extra $18 received under the call-back provision is not regarded as paid for hours worked; thus, it may be excluded from the regular rate, but it cannot be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act. The regular rate of the employee, therefore, remains $12, and he has received an overtime premium of $6 an hour for 3 overtime hours of work. This satisfies the requirements of section 7 of the Act. The same would be true, of course, if in the foregoing example, the employee was called back outside his scheduled hours for the 2-hour emergency job on another night of the week or on Saturday or Sunday, instead of on Friday night.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 68774, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.222" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.222   Other payments similar to “call-back” pay.</HEAD>
<P>The principles discussed in § 778.221 are also applied with respect to certain types of extra payments which are similar to call-back pay. Payments are similar to call-back pay if they are extra payments, including payments made pursuant to state or local scheduling laws, to compensate an employee for working unanticipated or insufficiently scheduled hours or shifts. The extra payment, over and above the employee's earnings for the hours actually worked at his applicable rate (straight time or overtime, as the case may be), is considered as a payment that is not made for hours worked. Payments that are prearranged, however, may not be excluded from the regular rate. Examples of payments similar to excludable call-back pay include:
</P>
<P>(a) Extra payments made to employees for failure to give the employee sufficient notice to report for work on regular days of rest or during hours outside of his regular work schedule;
</P>
<P>(b) Extra payments made solely because the employee has been called back to work before the expiration of a specified number of hours between shifts or tours of duty, sometimes referred to as a “rest period;”
</P>
<P>(c) Pay mandated by state or local law for employees who are scheduled to work the end of one day's shift and the start of the next day's shift with fewer than the legally required number of hours between the shifts; and
</P>
<P>(d) “Predictability pay” mandated by state or local law for employees who do not receive requisite notice of a schedule change.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 68775, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.223" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.223   Pay for non-productive hours distinguished.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the Act an employee must be compensated for all hours worked. As a general rule the term “hours worked” will include:
</P>
<P>(1) All time during which an employee is required to be on duty or to be on the employer's premises or at a prescribed workplace; and
</P>
<P>(2) All time during which an employee is suffered or permitted to work whether or not he is required to do so.
</P>
<P>(b) Thus, working time is not limited to the hours spent in active productive labor, but includes time given by the employee to the employer even though part of the time may be spent in idleness. Some of the hours spent by employees, under certain circumstances, in such activities as waiting for work, remaining “on call”, traveling on the employer's business or to and from workplaces, and in meal periods and rest periods are regarded as working time and some are not. The governing principles are discussed in part 785 of this chapter (interpretative bulletin on “hours worked”) and part 790 of this chapter (statement of effect of Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947). To the extent that these hours are regarded as working time, payment made as compensation for these hours obviously cannot be characterized as “payments not for hours worked.” Such compensation is treated in the same manner as compensation for any other working time and is, of course, included in the regular rate of pay. Where payment is ostensibly made as compensation for such of these hours as are not regarded as working time under the Act, the payment is nevertheless included in the regular rate of pay unless it qualifies for exclusion from the regular rate as one of a type of “payments made for occasional periods when no work is performed due to failure of the employer to provide sufficient work, or other similar cause” as discussed in § 778.218 or is excludable on some other basis under section 7(e)(2). For example, an employment contract may provide that employees who are assigned to take calls for specific periods will receive a payment of $5 for each 8-hour period during which they are “on call” in addition to pay at their regular (or overtime) rate for hours actually spent in making calls. If the employees who are thus on call are not confined to their homes or to any particular place, but may come and go as they please, provided that they leave word where they may be reached, the hours spent “on call” are not considered as hours worked. Although the payment received by such employees for such “on call” time is, therefore, not allocable to any specific hours of work, it is clearly paid as compensation for performing a duty involved in the employee's job and is not of a type excludable under section 7(e)(2). The payment must therefore be included in the employee's regular rate in the same manner as any payment for services, such as an attendance bonus, which is not related to any specific hours of work. The principle in this paragraph (b) also applies when such “on call” pay is mandated by state or local law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 68775, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.224" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.180.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.224   “Other similar payments”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Sections 778.216 through 778.223 have enumerated and discussed the basic types of payments for which exclusion from the regular rate is specifically provided under section 7(e)(2) because they are not made as compensation for hours of work. Section 7(e)(2) also authorizes exclusion from the regular rate of other similar payments to an employee which are not made as compensation for his hours of employment. Such payments do not depend on hours worked, services rendered, job performance, or other criteria that depend on the quality or quantity of the employee's work. Conditions not dependent on the quality or quality of work include a reasonable waiting period for eligibility, the requirement to repay benefits as a remedy for employee misconduct, and limiting eligibility on the basis of geographic location or job position. Since a variety of miscellaneous payments are paid by an employer to an employee under peculiar circumstances, it was not considered feasible to attempt to list them. They must, however, be “similar” in character to the payments specifically described in section 7(e)(2). It is clear that the clause was not intended to permit the exclusion from the regular rate of payments such as most bonuses or the furnishing of facilities like board and lodging which, though not directly attributable to any particular hours of work are, nevertheless, clearly understood to be compensation for services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of other excludable payments.</I> A few examples may serve to illustrate some of the types of payments intended to be excluded as “other similar payments”.
</P>
<P>(1) Sums paid to an employee for the rental of his truck or car.
</P>
<P>(2) Loans or advances made by the employer to the employee.
</P>
<P>(3) The cost to the employer of conveniences furnished to the employee such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Parking spaces and parking benefits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Restrooms and lockers;
</P>
<P>(iii) On-the-job medical care;
</P>
<P>(iv) Treatment provided on-site from specialists such as chiropractors, massage therapists, physical therapists, personal trainers, counselors, or Employee Assistance Programs; or
</P>
<P>(v) Gym access, gym memberships, fitness classes, and recreational facilities.
</P>
<P>(4) The cost to the employer of providing wellness programs, such as health risk assessments, biometric screenings, vaccination clinics (including annual flu vaccinations), nutrition classes, weight loss programs, smoking cessation programs, stress reduction programs, exercise programs, coaching to help employees meet health goals, financial wellness programs or financial counseling, and mental health wellness programs.
</P>
<P>(5) Discounts on employer-provided retail goods and services, and tuition benefits (whether paid to an employee, an education provider, or a student loan program).
</P>
<P>(6) Adoption assistance (including financial assistance, legal services, or information and referral services).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 68775, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="181" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.181" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Talent Fees in the Radio and Television Industry</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.225" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.3.181.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.225   Talent fees excludable under regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(e)(3) provides for the exclusion from the regular rate of “talent fees (as such talent fees are defined and delimited by regulations of the Secretary) paid to performers, including announcers, on radio and television programs.” Regulations defining “talent fees” have been issued as part 550 of this chapter. Payments which accord with this definition are excluded from the regular rate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Special Problems</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="182" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.182" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.182.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.300   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies the principles of computing overtime to some of the problems that arise frequently.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="183" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.183" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Change in the Beginning of the Workweek</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.301" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.183.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.301   Overlapping when change of workweek is made.</HEAD>
<P>As stated in § 778.105, the beginning of the workweek may be changed for an employee or for a group of employees if the change is intended to be permanent and is not designed to evade the overtime requirements of the Act. A change in the workweek necessarily results in a situation in which one or more hours or days fall in both the “old” workweek as previously constituted and the “new” workweek. Thus, if the workweek in the plant commenced at 7 a.m. on Monday and it is now proposed to begin the workweek at 7 a.m. on Sunday, the hours worked from 7 a.m. Sunday to 7 a.m. Monday will constitute both the last hours of the old workweek and the first hours of the newly established workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.302" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.183.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.302   Computation of overtime due for overlapping workweeks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> When the beginning of the workweek is changed, if the hours which fall within both “old” and “new” workweeks as explained in § 778.301 are hours in which the employee does no work, his statutory compensation for each workweek is, of course, determinable in precisely the same manner as it would be if no overlap existed. If, on the other hand, some of the employee's working time falls within hours which are included in both workweeks, the Department of Labor, as an enforcement policy, will assume that the overtime requirements of section 7 of the Act have been satisfied if computation is made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Assume first that the overlapping hours are to be counted as hours worked only in the “old” workweek and not in the new; compute straight time and overtime compensation due for each of the 2 workweeks on this basis and total the two sums.
</P>
<P>(2) Assume now that the overlapping hours are to be counted as hours worked only in the new workweek and not in the old, and complete the total computation accordingly.
</P>
<P>(3) Pay the employee an amount not less than the greater of the amounts computed by methods (1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of rule illustrated.</I> Suppose that, in the example given in § 778.301, the employee, who receives $5 an hour and is subject to overtime pay after 40 hours a week, worked 5 hours on Sunday, March 7, 1965. Suppose also that his last “old” workweek commenced at 7 a.m. on Monday, March 1, and he worked 40 hours March 1 through March 5 so that for the workweek ending March 7 he would be owed straight time and overtime compensation for 45 hours. The proposal is to commence the “new” workweek at 7 a.m. on March 7. If in the “new” workweek of Sunday, March 7, through Saturday, March 13, the employee worked a total of 40 hours, including the 5 hours worked on Sunday, it is obvious that the allocation of the Sunday hours to the old workweek will result in higher total compensation to the employee for the 13-day period. He should, therefore, be paid $237.50 (40 × $5 + 5 × $7.50) for the period of March 1 through March 7, and $175 (35 × $5) for the period of March 8 through March 13.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonstatutory obligations unaffected.</I> The fact that this method of compensation is permissible under the Fair Labor Standards Act when the beginning of the workweek is changed will not alter any obligation the employer may have under his employment contract to pay a greater amount of overtime compensation for the period in question.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7314, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="184" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.184" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Pay for Past Period</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.303" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.184.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.303   Retroactive pay increases.</HEAD>
<P>Where a retroactive pay increase is awarded to employees as a result of collective bargaining or otherwise, it operates to increase the regular rate of pay of the employees for the period of its retroactivity. Thus, if an employee is awarded a retroactive increase of 10 cents per hour, he is owed, under the Act, a retroactive increase of 15 cents for each overtime hour he has worked during the period, no matter what the agreement of the parties may be. A retroactive pay increase in the form of a lump sum for a particular period must be prorated back over the hours of the period to which it is allocable to determine the resultant increases in the regular rate, in precisely the same manner as a lump sum bonus. For a discussion of the method of allocating bonuses based on employment in a prior period to the workweeks covered by the bonus payment, see § 778.209.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="185" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.185" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>How Deductions Affect the Regular Rate</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.304" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.185.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.304   Amounts deducted from cash wages—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The word “deduction” is often loosely used to cover reductions in pay resulting from several causes:
</P>
<P>(1) Deductions to cover the cost to the employer of furnishing “board, lodging or other facilities,” within the meaning of section 3(m) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Deductions for other items such as tools and uniforms which are not regarded as “facilities.”
</P>
<P>(3) Deductions authorized by the employee (such as union dues) or required by law (such as taxes and garnishments).
</P>
<P>(4) Reductions in a fixed salary paid for a fixed workweek in weeks in which the employee fails to work the full schedule.
</P>
<P>(5) Deductions for disciplinary reasons.
</P>
<P>(b) In general, where such deductions are made, the employee's “regular rate” is the same as it would have been if the occasion for the deduction had not arisen. Also, as explained in part 531 of this chapter, the requirements of the Act place certain limitations on the making of some of the above deductions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7314, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.305" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.185.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.305   Computation where particular types of deductions are made.</HEAD>
<P>The regular rate of pay of an employee whose earnings are subject to deductions of the types described in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of § 778.304 is determined by dividing his total compensation (except statutory exclusions) before deductions by the total hours worked in the workweek. (See also §§ 531.36-531.40 of this chapter.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.306" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.185.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.306   Salary reductions in short workweeks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The reductions in pay described in § 778.304(a)(4) are not, properly speaking, “deductions” at all. If an employee is compensated at a fixed salary for a fixed workweek and if this salary is reduced by the amount of the average hourly earnings for each hour lost by the employee in a short workweek, the employee is, for all practical purposes, employed at an hourly rate of pay. This hourly rate is the quotient of the fixed salary divided by the fixed number of hours it is intended to compensate. If an employee is hired at a fixed salary of $200 for a 40-hour week, his hourly rate is $5. When he works only 36 hours he is therefore entitled to $180. The employer makes a “deduction” of $20 from his salary to achieve this result. The regular hourly rate is not altered.
</P>
<P>(b) When an employee is paid a fixed salary for a workweek of variable hours (or a guarantee of pay under the provisions of section 7(f) of the Act, as discussed in §§ 778.402 through 778.414), the understanding is that the salary or guarantee is due the employee in short workweeks as well as in longer ones and “deductions” of this type are not made. Therefore, in cases where the understanding of the parties is not clearly shown as to whether a fixed salary is intended to cover a fixed or a variable workweek the practice of making “deductions” from the salary for hours not worked in short weeks will be considered strong, if not conclusive, evidence that the salary covers a fixed workweek.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7314, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.307" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.185.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.307   Disciplinary deductions.</HEAD>
<P>Where deductions as described in § 778.304(a)(5) are made for disciplinary reasons, the regular rate of an employee is computed before deductions are made, as in the case of deductions of the types in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of § 778.304. Thus where disciplinary deductions are made from a piece-worker's earnings, the earnings at piece rates must be totaled and divided by the total hours worked to determine the regular rate before the deduction is applied. In no event may such deductions (or deductions of the type described in § 778.304(a)(2)) reduce the earnings to an average below the applicable minimum wage or cut into any part of the overtime compensation due the employee. For a full discussion of the limits placed on such deductions, see part 531 of this chapter. The principles set forth therein with relation to deductions have no application, however, to situations involving refusal or failure to pay the full amount of wages due. See part 531 of this chapter; also § 778.306. It should be noted that although an employer may penalize an employee for lateness subject to the limitations stated above by deducting a half hour's straight time pay from his wages, for example, for each half hour, or fraction thereof of his lateness, the employer must still count as hours worked all the time actually worked by the employee in determining the amount of overtime compensation due for the workweek.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7314, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="186" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.186" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Lump Sum Attributed to Overtime</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.308" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.186.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.308   The overtime rate is an hourly rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(a) of the Act requires the payment of overtime compensation for hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate. The overtime rate, like the regular rate, is a rate per hour. Where employees are paid on some basis other than an hourly rate, the regular hourly rate is derived, as previously explained, by dividing the total compensation (except statutory exclusions) by the total hours of work for which the payment is made. To qualify as an overtime premium under section 7(e)(5), (6), or (7), the extra compensation for overtime hours must be paid pursuant to a premium rate which is likewise a rate per hour (subject to certain statutory exceptions discussed in §§ 778.400 through 778.421).
</P>
<P>(b) To qualify under section 7(e)(5), the overtime rate must be greater than the regular rate, either a fixed amount per hour or a multiple of the nonovertime rate, such as one and one-third, one and one-half or two times that rate. To qualify under section 7(e) (6) or (7), the overtime rate may not be less than one and one-half times the bonafide rate established in good faith for like work performed during nonovertime hours. Thus, it may not be less than time and one-half but it may be more. It may be a standard multiple greater than one and one-half (for example, double time); or it may be a fixed sum of money per hour which is, as an arithmetical fact, at least one and one-half times the nonovertime rate for example, if the nonovertime rate is $5 per hour, the overtime rate may not be less than $7.50 but may be set at a higher arbitrary figure such as $8 per hour.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7314, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.309" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.186.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.309   Fixed sum for constant amount of overtime.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee works a regular fixed number of hours in excess of the statutory maximum each workweek, it is, of course, proper to pay him, in addition to his compensation for nonovertime hours, a fixed sum in any such week for his overtime work, determined by multiplying his overtime rate by the number of overtime hours regularly worked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.310" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.186.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.310   Fixed sum for varying amounts of overtime.</HEAD>
<P>A premium in the form of a lump sum which is paid for work performed during overtime hours without regard to the number of overtime hours worked does not qualify as an overtime premium even though the amount of money may be equal to or greater than the sum owed on a per hour basis. For example, an agreement that provides for the payment of a flat sum of $75 to employees who work on Sunday does not provide a premium which will qualify as an overtime premium, even though the employee's straight time rate is $5 an hour and the employee always works less than 10 hours on Sunday. Likewise, where an agreement provides for the payment for work on Sunday of either the flat sum of $75 or time and one-half the employee's regular rate for all hours worked on Sunday, whichever is greater, the $75 guaranteed payment is not an overtime premium. The reason for this is clear. If the rule were otherwise, an employer desiring to pay an employee a fixed salary regardless of the number of hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard could merely label as overtime pay a fixed portion of such salary sufficient to take care of compensation for the maximum number of hours that would be worked. The Congressional purpose to effectuate a maximum hours standard by placing a penalty upon the performance of excessive overtime work would thus be defeated. For this reason, where extra compensation is paid in the form of a lump sum for work performed in overtime hours, it must be included in the regular rate and may not be credited against statutory overtime compensation due.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7314, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.311" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.186.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.311   Flat rate for special job performed in overtime hours.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Flat rate is not an overtime premium.</I> The same reasoning applies where employees are paid a flat rate for a special job performed during overtime hours, without regard to the time actually consumed in performance. (This situation should be distinguished from “show-up” and “call-back” pay situations discussed in §§ 778.220 through 778.222 and from payment at a rate not less than one and one-half times the applicable rate to pieceworkers for work performed during overtime hours, as discussed in §§ 778.415 through 778.421). The total amount paid must be included in the regular rate; no part of the amount may be credited toward statutory overtime compensation due.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of rule illustrated.</I> It may be helpful to give a specific example illustrating the result of paying an employee on the basis under discussion.
</P>
<P>(1) An employment agreement calls for the payment of $5 per hour for work during the hours established in good faith as the basic workday or workweek; it provides for the payment of $7.50 per hour for work during hours outside the basic workday or workweek. It further provides that employees doing a special task outside the basic workday or workweek shall receive 6 hours' pay at the rate of $7.50 per hour (a total payment of $45) regardless of the time actually consumed in performance. The applicable maximum hours standard is 40 hours in a workweek.
</P>
<P>(2) Suppose an employee under such an agreement works the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">M
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">W
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hours within basic workday</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pay under contract</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hours outside basic workday</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pay under contract</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Hours spent in the performance of special work.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) To determine the regular rate, the total compensation (except statutory exclusions) must be divided by the total number of hours worked. The only sums to be excluded in this situation are the extra premiums provided by a premium rate (a rate per hour) for work outside the basic workday and workweek, which qualify for exclusion under section 7(e)(7) of the Act, as discussed in § 778.204. The $15 paid on Monday, the $7.50 paid on Wednesday and the $30 paid on Saturday are paid pursuant to rates which qualify as premium rates under section 7(e)(7) of the Act. The total extra compensation (over the straight time pay for these hours) provided by these premium rates is $17.50. The sum of $17.50 should be subtracted from the total of $292.50 due the employee under the employment agreement. No part of the $45 payment for the special work performed on Tuesday qualifies for exclusion. The remaining $275 must thus be divided by 48 hours to determine the regular rate—$5.73 per hour. The employee is owed an additional one-half this rate under the Act for each of 8 overtime hours worked—$22.92. The extra compensation in the amount of $17.50 payable pursuant to contract premium rates which qualify as overtime premiums may be credited toward the $22.92 owed as statutory overtime premiums. No part of the $45 payment may be so credited. The employer must pay the employee an additional $5.42 as statutory overtime pay—a total of $297.92 for the week.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7315, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="187" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.187" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>“Task” Basis of Payment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.312" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.187.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.312   Pay for task without regard to actual hours.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under some employment agreements employees are paid according to a job or task rate without regard to the number of hours consumed in completing the task. Such agreements take various forms but the two most usual forms are the following:
</P>
<P>(1) It is determined (sometimes on the basis of a time study) that an employee (or group) should complete a particular task in 8 hours. Upon the completion of the task the employee is credited with 8 “hours” of work though in fact he may have worked more or less than 8 hours to complete the task. At the end of the week an employee entitled to statutory overtime compensation for work in excess of 40 hours is paid at an established hourly rate for the first 40 of the “hours” so credited and at one and one-half times such rate for the “hours” so credited in excess of 40. The number of “hours” credited to the employee bears no necessary relationship to the number of hours actually worked. It may be greater or less. “Overtime” may be payable in some cases after 20 hours of work; in others only after 50 hours or any other number of hours.
</P>
<P>(2) A similar task is set up and 8 hours' pay at the established rate is credited for the completion of the task in 8 hours or less. If the employee fails to complete the task in 8 hours he is paid at the established rate for each of the first 8 hours he actually worked. For work in excess of 8 hours or after the task is completed (whichever occurs first) he is paid one and one-half times the established rate for each such hour worked. He is owed overtime compensation under the Act for hours worked in the workweek in excess of 40 but is paid his weekly overtime compensation at the premium rate for the hours in excess of 40 actual or “task” hours (or combination thereof) for which he received pay at the established rate. “Overtime” pay under this plan may be due after 20 hours of work, 25 or any other number up to 40.
</P>
<P>(b) These employees are in actual fact compensated on a daily rate of pay basis. In plans of the first type, the established hourly rate never controls the compensation which any employee actually receives. Therefore, the established rate cannot be his regular rate. In plans of the second type the rate is operative only for the slower employees who exceed the time allotted to complete the task; for them it operates in a manner similar to a minimum hourly guarantee for piece workers, as discussed in § 778.111. On such days as it is operative it is a genuine rate; at other times it is not.
</P>
<P>(c) Since the premium rates (at one and one-half times the established hourly rate) are payable under both plans for hours worked within the basic or normal workday (if one is established) and without regard to whether the hours are or are not in excess of 8 per day or 40 per week, they cannot qualify as overtime premiums under section 7(e) (5), (6), or (7) of the Act. They must therefore be included in the regular rate and no part of them may be credited against statutory overtime compensation due. Under plans of the second type, however, where the pay of an employee on a given day is actually controlled by the established hourly rate (because he fails to complete the task in the 8-hour period) and he is paid at one and one-half times the established rate for hours in excess of 8 hours actually worked, the premium rate paid on that day will qualify as an overtime premium under section 7(e)(5).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.313" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.187.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.313   Computing overtime pay under the Act for employees compensated on task basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An example of the operation of a plan of the second type discussed in § 778.312 may serve to illustrate the effects on statutory overtime computations of payment on a task basis. Assume the following facts: The employment agreement establishes a basic hourly rate of $5 per hour, provides for the payment of $7.50 per hour for overtime work (in excess of the basic workday or workweek) and defines the basic workday as 8 hours, and the basic workweek as 40 hours, Monday through Friday. It further provides that the assembling of a machine constitutes a day's work. An employee who completes the assembling job in less than 8 hours will be paid 8 hours' pay at the established rate of $5 per hour and will receive pay at the “overtime” rate for hours worked after the completion of the task. An employee works the following hours in a particular week:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">M
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">W
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hours spent on task</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Day's pay under contract</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Additional hours</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Additional pay under contract</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) In the example in paragraph (a) of this section the employee has actually worked a total of 48 hours and is owed under the contract a total of $305 for the week. The only sums which can be excluded as overtime premiums from this total before the regular rate is determined are the extra $2.50 payments for the extra hour on Thursday and Friday made because of work actually in excess of 8 hours. The payment of the other premium rates under the contract is either without regard to whether or not the hours they compensated were in excess of a bona fide daily or weekly standard or without regard to the number of overtime hours worked. Thus only the sum of $5 is excluded from the total. The remaining $300 is divided by 48 hours to determine the regular rate—$6.25 per hour. One-half this rate is due under the Act as extra compensation for each of the 8 overtime hours—$25. The $5 payment under the contract for actual excess hours may be credited and the balance—$20—is owed in addition to the $305 due under the contract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7315, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.314" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.187.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.314   Special situations.</HEAD>
<P>There may be special situations in which the facts demonstrate that the hours for which contract overtime compensation is paid to employees working on a “task” or “stint” basis actually qualify as overtime hours under section 7(e)(5), (6), or (7). Where this is true, payment of one and one-half times an agreed hourly rate for “task” or “stint” work may be equivalent to payment pursuant to agreement of one and one-half time a piece rate. The alternative methods of overtime pay computation permitted by section 7(g)(1) or (2), as explained in §§ 778.415 through 778.421 may be applicable in such a case.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="188" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.188" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Effect of Failure To Count or Pay for Certain Working Hours</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.315" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.188.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.315   Payment for all hours worked in overtime workweek is required.</HEAD>
<P>In determining the number of hours for which overtime compensation is due, all hours worked (see § 778.223) by an employee for an employer in a particular workweek must be counted. Overtime compensation, at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate of pay, must be paid for each hour worked in the workweek in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard. This extra compensation for the excess hours of overtime work under the Act cannot be said to have been paid to an employee unless all the straight time compensation due him for the nonovertime hours under his contract (express or implied) or under any applicable statute has been paid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.316" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.188.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.316   Agreements or practices in conflict with statutory requirements are ineffective.</HEAD>
<P>While it is permissible for an employer and an employee to agree upon different base rates of pay for different types of work, it is settled under the Act that where a rate has been agreed upon as applicable to a particular type of work the parties cannot lawfully agree that the rate for that work shall be lower merely because the work is performed during the statutory overtime hours, or during a week in which statutory overtime is worked. Since a lower rate cannot lawfully be set for overtime hours it is obvious that the parties cannot lawfully agree that the working time will not be paid for at all. An agreement that only the first 8 hours of work on any days or only the hours worked between certain fixed hours of the day or only the first 40 hours of any week will be counted as working time will clearly fail of its evasive purpose. An announcement by the employer that no overtime work will be permitted, or that overtime work will not be compensated unless authorized in advance, will not impair the employee's right to compensation for work which he is actually suffered or permitted to perform.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.317" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.188.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.317   Agreements not to pay for certain nonovertime hours.</HEAD>
<P>An agreement not to compensate employees for certain nonovertime hours stands on no better footing since it would have the same effect of diminishing the employee's total overtime compensation. An agreement, for example, to pay an employee whose maximum hours standard for the particular workweek is 40 hours, $5 an hour for the first 35 hours, nothing for the hours between 35 and 40 and $7.50 an hour for the hours in excess of 40 would not meet the overtime requirements of the Act. Under the principles set forth in § 778.315, the employee would have to be paid $25 for the 5 hours worked between 35 and 40 before any sums ostensibly paid for overtime could be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act. Unless the employee is first paid $5 for each nonovertime hour worked, the $7.50 per hour payment purportedly for overtime hours is not in fact an overtime payment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7315, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.318" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.188.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.318   Productive and nonproductive hours of work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Failure to pay for nonproductive time worked.</I> Some agreements provide for payment only for the hours spent in productive work; the work hours spent in waiting time, time spent in travel on the employer's behalf or similar nonproductive time are not made compensable and in some cases are neither counted nor compensated. Payment pursuant to such an agreement will not comply with the Act; such nonproductive working hours must be counted and paid for.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compensation payable for nonproductive hours worked.</I> The parties may agree to compensate nonproductive hours worked at a rate (at least the minimum) which is lower than the rate applicable to productive work. In such a case, the regular rate is the weighted average of the two rates, as discussed in § 778.115 and the employee whose maximum hours standard is 40 hours is owed compensation at his regular rate for all of the first 40 hours and at a rate not less than one and one-half times this rate for all hours in excess of 40. (See § 778.415 for the alternative method of computing overtime pay on the applicable rate.) In the absence of any agreement setting a different rate for nonproductive hours, the employee would be owed compensation at the regular hourly rate set for productive work for all hours up to 40 and at a rate at least one and one-half times that rate for hours in excess of 40.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compensation attributable to both productive and nonproductive hours.</I> The situation described in paragraph (a) of this section is to be distinguished from one in which such nonproductive hours are properly counted as working time but no special hourly rate is assigned to such hours because it is understood by the parties that the other compensation received by the employee is intended to cover pay for such hours. For example, while it is not proper for an employer to agree with his pieceworkers that the hours spent in down-time (waiting for work) will not be paid for or will be neither paid for nor counted, it is permissible for the parties to agree that the pay the employees will earn at piece rates is intended to compensate them for all hours worked, the productive as well as the nonproductive hours. If this is the agreement of the parties, the regular rate of the pieceworker will be the rate determined by dividing the total piecework earnings by the total hours worked (both productive and nonproductive) in the workweek. Extra compensation (one-half the rate as so determined) would, of course, be due for each hour worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="189" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.189" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Effect of Paying for But Not Counting Certain Hours</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.319" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.189.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.319   Paying for but not counting hours worked.</HEAD>
<P>In some contracts provision is made for payment for certain hours, which constitute working time under the Act, coupled with a provision that these hours will not be counted as working time. Such a provision is a nullity. If the hours in question are hours worked, they must be counted as such in determining whether more than the applicable maximum hours have been worked in the workweek. If more hours have been worked, the employee must be paid overtime compensation at not less than one and one-half times his regular rate for all overtime hours. A provision that certain hours will be compensated only at straight time rates is likewise invalid. If the hours are actually hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard, extra half-time compensation will be due regardless of any agreement to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.320" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.189.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.320   Hours that would not be hours worked if not paid for.</HEAD>
<P>In some cases an agreement or established practice provides for compensation for hours spent in certain types of activities which would not be regarded as working time under the Act if no compensation were provided. Preliminary and postliminary activities and time spent in eating meals between working hours fall in this category. Compensation for such hours does not convert them into hours worked unless it appears from all the pertinent facts that the parties have treated such time as hours worked. Except for certain activity governed by the Portal-to-Portal Act (see paragraph (b) of this section), the agreement or established practice of the parties will be respected, if reasonable.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Time treated as hours worked.</I> Where the parties have reasonably agreed to include as hours worked time devoted to activities of the type described in the introductory text of this section, payments for such hours will not have the mathematical effect of increasing or decreasing the regular rate of an employee if the hours are compensated at the same rate as other working hours. The requirements of section 7(a) of the Act will be considered to be met where overtime compensation at one and one-half times such rate is paid for the hours so compensated in the workweek which are in excess of the statutory maximum.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time not treated as hours worked.</I> Under the principles set forth in § 778.319, where the payments are made for time spent in an activity which, if compensable under contract, custom, or practice, is required to be counted as hours worked under the Act by virtue of section 4 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947 (see parts 785 and 790 of this chapter), no agreement by the parties to exclude such compensable time from hours worked would be valid. On the other hand, in the case of time spent in an activity which would not be hours worked under the Act if not compensated and would not become hours worked under the Portal-to-Portal Act even if made compensable by contract, custom, or practice, such time will not be counted as hours worked unless agreement or established practice indicates that the parties have treated the time as hours worked. Such time includes bona fide meal periods, see § 785.19. Unless it appears from all the pertinent facts that the parties have treated such activities as hours worked, payments for such time will be regarded as qualifying for exclusion from the regular rate under the provisions of section 7(e)(2), as explained in §§ 778.216 through 778.224. The payments for such hours cannot, of course, qualify as overtime premiums creditable toward overtime compensation under section 7(h) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 68776, Dec. 16, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="190" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Reduction in Workweek Schedule With No Change in Pay</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.321" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.321   Decrease in hours without decreasing pay—general.</HEAD>
<P>Since the regular rate of pay is the average hourly rate at which an employee is actually employed, and since this rate is determined by dividing his total remuneration for employment (except statutory exclusions) for a given workweek by the total hours worked in that workweek for which such remuneration was paid, it necessarily follows that if the schedule of hours is reduced while the pay remains the same, the regular rate has been increased.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.322" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.322   Reducing the fixed workweek for which a salary is paid.</HEAD>
<P>If an employee whose maximum hours standard is 40 hours was hired at a salary of $200 for a fixed workweek of 40 hours, his regular rate at the time of hiring was $5 per hour. If his workweek is later reduced to a fixed workweek of 35 hours while his salary remains the same, it is the fact that it now takes him only 35 hours to earn $200, so that he earns his salary at the average rate of $5.71 per hour. His regular rate thus becomes $5.71 per hour; it is no longer $5 an hour. Overtime pay is due under the Act only for hours worked in excess of 40, not 35, but if the understanding of the parties is that the salary of $200 now covers 35 hours of work and no more, the employee would be owed $5.71 per hour under his employment contract for each hour worked between 35 and 40. He would be owed not less than one and one-half times $5.71 ($8.57) per hour, under the statute, for each hour worked in excess of 40 in the workweek. In weeks in which no overtime is worked only the provisions of section 6 of the Act, requiring the payment of not less than the applicable minimum wage for each hour worked, apply so that the employee's right to receive $5.71 per hour is enforceable only under his contract. However, in overtime weeks the Administrator has the duty to insure the payment of at least one and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay for hours worked in excess of 40 and this overtime compensation cannot be said to have been paid until all straight time compensation due the employee under the statute or his employment contract has been paid. Thus if the employee works 41 hours in a particular week, he is owed his salary for 35 hours—$200, 5 hours' pay at $5.71 per hour for the 5 hours between 35 and 40—$28.55, and 1 hour's pay at $8.57 for the 1 hour in excess of 40—$8.57, or a total of $237.12 for the week.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7316, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.323" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.323   Effect if salary is for variable workweek.</HEAD>
<P>The discussion in the prior section sets forth one result of reducing the workweek from 40 to 35 hours. It is not either the necessary result or the only possible result. As in all cases of employees hired on a salary basis, the regular rate depends in part on the agreement of the parties as to what the salary is intended to compensate. In reducing the customary workweek schedule to 35 hours the parties may agree to change the basis of the employment arrangement by providing that the salary which formerly covered a fixed workweek of 40 hours now covers a variable workweek up to 40 hours. If this is the new agreement, the employee receives $200 for workweeks of varying lengths, such as 35, 36, 38, or 40 hours. His rate thus varies from week to week, but in weeks of 40 hours or over, it is $5 per hour (since the agreement of the parties is that the salary covers up to 40 hours and no more) and his overtime rate, for hours in excess of 40, thus remains $7.50 per hour. Such a salary arrangement presumably contemplates that the salary will be paid in full for any workweek of 40 hours or less. The employee would thus be entitled to his full salary if he worked only 25 or 30 hours. No deductions for hours not worked in short workweeks would be made. (For a discussion of the effect of deductions on the regular rate, see §§ 778.304 to 778.307.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7316, Jan. 23, 1981; 46 FR 33516, June 30, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.324" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.324   Effect on hourly rate employees.</HEAD>
<P>A similar situation is presented where employees have been hired at an hourly rate of pay and have customarily worked a fixed workweek. If the workweek is reduced from 40 to 35 hours without reduction in total pay, the average hourly rate is thereby increased as in § 778.322. If the reduction in work schedule is accompanied by a new agreement altering the mode of compensation from an hourly rate basis to a fixed salary for a variable workweek up to 40 hours, the results described in § 778.323 follow.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.325" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.325   Effect on salary covering more than 40 hours' pay.</HEAD>
<P>The same reasoning applies to salary covering straight time pay for a longer workweek. If an employee whose maximum hours standard is 40 hours was hired at a fixed salary of $275 for 55 hours of work, he was entitled to a statutory overtime premium for the 15 hours in excess of 40 at the rate of $2.50 per hour (half-time) in addition to his salary, and to statutory overtime pay of $7.50 per hour (time and one-half) for any hours worked in excess of 55. If the scheduled workweek is later reduced to 50 hours, with the understanding between the parties that the salary will be paid as the employee's nonovertime compensation for each workweek of 55 hours or less, his regular rate in any overtime week of 55 hours or less is determined by dividing the salary by the number of hours worked to earn it in that particular week, and additional half-time, based on that rate, is due for each hour in excess of 40. In weeks of 55 hours or more, his regular rate remains $5 per hour and he is due, in addition to his salary, extra compensation of $2.50 for each hour over 40 but not over 55 and full time and one-half, or $7.50, for each hour worked in excess of 55. If, however, the understanding of the parties is that the salary now covers a fixed workweek of 50 hours, his regular rate is $5.50 per hour in all weeks. This assumes that when an employee works less than 50 hours in a particular week, deductions are made at a rate of $5.50 per hour for the hours not worked.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7316, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.326" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.326   Reduction of regular overtime workweek without reduction of take-home pay.</HEAD>
<P>The reasoning applied in the foregoing sections does not, of course, apply to a situation in which the former earnings at both straight time and overtime are paid to the employee for the reduced workweek. Suppose an employee was hired at an hourly rate of $5 an hour and regularly worked 50 hours, earning $275 as his total straight time and overtime compensation, and the parties now agree to reduce the workweek to 45 hours without any reduction in take-home pay. The parties in such a situation may agree to an increase in the hourly rate from $5 per hour to $6 so that for a workweek of 45 hours (the reduced schedule) the employee's straight time and overtime earnings will be $285. The parties cannot, however, agree that the employee is to receive exactly $285 as total compensation (including overtime pay) for a workweek varying, for example, up to 50 hours, unless he does so pursuant to contracts specifically permitted in section 7(f) of the Act, as discussed in §§ 778.402 through 778.414. An employer cannot otherwise discharge his statutory obligation to pay overtime compensation to an employee who does not work the same fixed hours each week by paying a fixed amount purporting to cover both straight time and overtime compensation for an “agreed” number of hours. To permit such a practice without proper statutory safeguards would result in sanctioning the circumvention of the provisions of the Act which require that an employee who works more than 40 hours in any workweek be compensated, in accordance with express congressional intent, at a rate not less than one and one-half times his regular rate of pay for the burden of working long hours. In arrangements of this type, no additional financial pressure would fall upon the employer and no additional compensation would be due to the employee under such a plan until the workweek exceeded 50 hours.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7316, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.327" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.327   Temporary or sporadic reduction in schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The problem of reduction in the workweek is somewhat different where a temporary reduction is involved. Reductions for the period of a dead or slow season follow the rules announced above. However, reduction on a more temporary or sporadic basis presents a different problem. It is obvious that as a matter of simple arithmetic an employer might adopt a series of different rates for the same work, varying inversely with the number of overtime hours worked in such a way that the employee would earn no more than his straight time rate no matter how many hours he worked. If he set the rate at $6 per hour for all workweeks in which the employee worked 40 hours or less, approximately $5.93 per hour for workweeks of 41 hours, approximately $5.86 for workweeks of 42 hours, approximately $5.45 for workweeks of 50 hours, and so on, the employee would always receive (for straight time and overtime at these “rates”) $6 an hour regardless of the number of overtime hours worked. This is an obvious bookkeeping device designed to avoid the payment of overtime compensation and is not in accord with the law. See <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Green Head Bit &amp; Supply Co.,</I> 138 F. 2d 453. The regular rate of pay of this employee for overtime purposes is, obviously, the rate he earns in the normal nonovertime week—in this case, $6 per hour.
</P>
<P>(b) The situation is different in degree but not in principle where employees who have been at a bona fide $6 rate usually working 50 hours and taking home $330 as total straight time and overtime pay for the week are, during occasional weeks, cut back to 42 hours. If the employer raises their rate to $7.65 for such weeks so that their total compensation is $328.95 for a 42-hour week the question may properly be asked, when they return to the 50-hour week, whether the $6 rate is really their regular rate. Are they putting in 8 additional hours of work for that extra $1.05 or is their “regular” rate really now $7.65 an hour since this is what they earn in the short workweek? It seems clear that where different rates are paid from week to week for the same work and where the difference is justified by no factor other than the number of hours worked by the individual employee—the longer he works the lower the rate—the device is evasive and the rate actually paid in the shorter or nonovertime week is his regular rate for overtime purposes in all weeks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7317, Jan. 23, 1981; 46 FR 33516, June 30, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.328" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.328   Plan for gradual permanent reduction in schedule.</HEAD>
<P>In some cases, pursuant to a definite plan for the permanent reduction of the normal scheduled workweek from say, 48 hours to 40 hours, an agreement is entered into with a view to lessening the shock caused by the expected reduction in take-home wages. The agreement may provide for a rising scale of rates as the workweek is gradually reduced. The varying rates established by such agreement will be recognized as bona fide in the weeks in which they are respectively operative provided that (a) the plan is bona fide and there is no effort made to evade the overtime requirements of the Act; (b) there is a clear downward trend in the duration of the workweek throughout the period of the plan even though fluctuations from week-to-week may not be constantly downward; and (c) the various rates are operative for substantial periods under the plan and do not vary from week-to-week in accordance with the number of hours which any particular employee or group happens to work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.329" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.190.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.329   Alternating workweeks of different fixed lengths.</HEAD>
<P>In some cases an employee is hired on a salary basis with the understanding that his weekly salary is intended to cover the fixed schedule of hours (and no more) and that this fixed schedule provides for alternating workweeks of different fixed lengths. For example, many offices operate with half staff on Saturdays and, in consequence, employees are hired at a fixed salary covering a fixed working schedule of 7 hours a day Monday through Friday and 5 hours on alternate Saturdays. The parties agree that extra compensation is to be paid for all hours worked in excess of the schedule in either week at the base rate for hours between 35 and 40 in the short week and at time and one-half such rate for hours in excess of 40 in all weeks. Such an arrangement results in the employee's working at two different rates of pay—one thirty-fifth of the salary in short workweeks and one-fourtieth of the salary in the longer weeks. If the provisions of such a contract are followed, if the nonovertime hours are compensated in full at the applicable regular rate in each week and overtime compensation is properly computed for hours in excess of 40 at time and one-half the rate applicable in the particular workweek, the overtime requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act will be met. While this situation bears some resemblance to the one discussed in § 778.327 there is this significant difference; the arrangement is permanent, the length of the respective workweeks and the rates for such weeks are fixed on a permanent-schedule basis far in advance and are therefore not subject to the control of the employer and do not vary with the fluctuations in business. In an arrangement of this kind, if the employer required the employee to work on Saturday in a week in which he was scheduled for work only on the Monday through Friday schedule, he would be paid at his regular rate for all the Saturday hours in addition to his salary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="191" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.191" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Prizes as Bonuses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.330" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.191.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.330   Prizes or contest awards generally.</HEAD>
<P>All compensation (except statutory exclusions) paid by or on behalf of an employer to an employee as remuneration for employment must be included in the regular rate, whether paid in the form of cash or otherwise. Prizes are therefore included in the regular rate if they are paid to an employee as remuneration for employment. If therefore it is asserted that a particular prize is not to be included in the regular rate, it must be shown either that the prize was not paid to the employee for employment, or that it is not a thing of value which is part of wages.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.331" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.191.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.331   Awards for performance on the job.</HEAD>
<P>Where a prize is awarded for the quality, quantity or efficiency of work done by the employee during his customary working hours at his normal assigned tasks (whether on the employer's premises or elsewhere) it is obviously paid as additional remuneration for employment. Thus prizes paid for cooperation, courtesy, efficiency, highest production, best attendance, best quality of work, greatest number of overtime hours worked, etc., are part of the regular rate of pay. If the prize is paid in cash, the amount paid must be allocated (for the method of allocation see § 778.209) over the period during which it was earned to determine the resultant increase in the average hourly rate for each week of the period. If the prize is merchandise, the cost to the employer is the sum which must be allocated. Where the prize is either cash or merchandise, with the choice left the employee, the amount to be allocated is the amount (or the cost) of the actual prize he accepts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.332" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.191.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.332   Awards for activities not normally part of employee's job.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the prize is awarded for activities outside the customary working hours of the employee, beyond the scope of his customary duties or away from the employer's premises, the question of whether the compensation is remuneration for employment will depend on such factors as the amount of time, if any, spent by the employee in competing, the relationship between the contest activities and the usual work of the employee, whether the competition involves work usually performed by other employees for employers, whether an employee is specifically urged to participate or led to believe that he will not merit promotion or advancement unless he participates.
</P>
<P>(b) By way of example, a prize paid for work performed in obtaining new business for an employer would be regarded as remuneration for employment. Although the duties of the employees who participate in the contest may not normally encompass this type of work, it is work of a kind normally performed by salesmen for their employers, and the time spent by the employee in competing for such a prize (whether successfully or not) is working time and must be counted as such in determining overtime compensation due under the Act. On the other hand a prize or bonus paid to an employee when a sale is made by the company's sales representative to a person whom he recommended as a good sales prospect would not be regarded as compensation for services if in fact the prize-winner performed no work in securing the name of the sales prospect and spent no time on the matter for the company in any way.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.333" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.4.191.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.333   Suggestion system awards.</HEAD>
<P>The question has been raised whether awards made to employees for suggestions submitted under a suggestion system plan are to be regarded as part of the regular rate. There is no hard and fast rule on this point as the term “suggestion system” has been used to describe a variety of widely differing plans. It may be generally stated, however, that prizes paid pursuant to a bona fide suggestion system plan may be excluded from the regular rate at least in situations where it is the fact that:
</P>
<P>(a) The amount of the prize has no relation to the earnings of the employee at his job but is rather geared to the value to the company of the suggestion which is submitted; and
</P>
<P>(b) The prize represents a bona fide award for a suggestion which is the result of additional effort or ingenuity unrelated to and outside the scope of the usual and customary duties of any employee of the class eligible to participate and the prize is not used as a substitute for wages; and
</P>
<P>(c) No employee is required or specifically urged to participate in the suggestion system plan or led to believe that he will not merit promotion or advancement (or retention of his existing job) unless he submits suggestions; and
</P>
<P>(d) The invitation to employees to submit suggestions is general in nature and no specific assignment is outlined to employees (either as individuals or as a group) to work on or develop; and
</P>
<P>(e) There is no time limit during which suggestions must be submitted; and
</P>
<P>(f) The employer has, prior to the submission of the suggestion by an employee, no notice or knowledge of the fact that an employee is working on the preparation of a suggestion under circumstances indicating that the company approved the task and the schedule of work undertaken by the employee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exceptions From the Regular Rate Principles</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="192" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.192" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Computing Overtime Pay on an “Established” Rate</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.400" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.192.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.400   The provisions of section 7(g)(3) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(g)(3) of the Act provides the following exception from the provisions of section 7(a):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(g) No employer shall be deemed to have violated subsection (a) by employing any employee for a workweek in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under such subsection if, pursuant to an agreement or understanding arrived at between the employer and the employee before performance of the work, the amount paid to the employee for the number of hours worked by him in such workweek in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under such subsection:
</P><STARS/>
<P>(3) is computed at a rate not less than one and one-half times the rate established by such agreement or understanding as the basic rate to be used in computing overtime compensation thereunder: <I>Provided,</I> That the rate so established shall be authorized by regulation by the Secretary of Labor as being substantially equivalent to the average hourly earnings of the employee, exclusive of overtime premiums, in the particular work over a representative period of time; and if (1) the employee's average hourly earnings for the workweek exclusive of payments described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (e) are not less than the minimum hourly rate required by applicable law, and (ii) extra overtime compensation is properly computed and paid on other forms of additional pay required to be included in computing the regular rate.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.401" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.192.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.401   Regulations issued under section 7(g)(3).</HEAD>
<P>Regulations issued pursuant to section 7(g) (3) of the Act are published as Part 548 of this chapter. Payments made in conformance with these regulations satisfy the overtime pay requirements of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="193" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Guaranteed Compensation Which Includes Overtime Pay</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.402" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.402   The statutory exception provided by section 7(f) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(f) of the Act provides the following exception from the provisions of section 7(a):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(f) No employer shall be deemed to have violated subsection (a) by employing any employee for a workweek in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under subsection (a) if such employee is employed pursuant to a bona fide individual contract, or pursuant to an agreement made as a result of collective bargaining by representatives of employees, if the duties of such employee necessitate irregular hours of work, and the contract or agreement (1) specifies a regular rate of pay of not less than the minimum hourly rate provided in subsection (a) or (b) of section 6 (whichever may be applicable) and compensation at not less than one and one-half times such rate for all hours worked in excess of such maximum workweek, and (2) provides a weekly guaranty of pay for not more than 60 hours based on the rates so specified.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.403" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.403   Constant pay for varying workweeks including overtime is not permitted except as specified in section 7(f).</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(f) is the only provision of the Act which allows an employer to pay the same total compensation each week to an employee who works overtime and whose hours of work vary from week to week. (See in this connection the discussion in §§ 778.207, 778.321-778.329, and 778.308-778.315.) Unless the pay arrangements in a particular situation meet the requirements of section 7(f) as set forth, all the compensation received by the employee under a guaranteed pay plan is included in his regular rate and no part of such guaranteed pay may be credited toward overtime compensation due under the Act. Section 7(f) is an exemption from the overtime provisions of the Act. No employer will be exempt from the duty of computing overtime compensation for an employee under section 7(a) unless the employee is paid pursuant to a plan which actually meets all the requirements of the exemption. These requirements will be discussed separately in the ensuing sections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.404" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.404   Purposes of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The exception to the requirements of section 7(a) provided by section 7(f) of the Act is designed to provide a means whereby the employer of an employee whose duties necessitate irregular hours of work and whose total wages if computed solely on an hourly rate basis would of necessity vary widely from week to week, may guarantee the payment, week-in, week-out, of at least a fixed amount based on his regular hourly rate. Section 7(f) was proposed and enacted in 1949 with the stated purpose of giving express statutory validity, subject to prescribed limitations, to a judicial “gloss on the Act” by which an exception to the usual rule as to the actual regular rate had been recognized by a closely divided Supreme Court as permissible with respect to employment in such situations under so-called “Belo” contracts. See <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Utica Knitting Co.,</I> 164 F. 2d 670, rehearing denied 164 F. 2d 678 (C.A. 2); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>A. H. Belo Co.,</I> 316 U.S. 624; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Halliburton Oil Well Cementing Co.,</I> 331 U.S. 17; 95 Cong. Rec. 11893, 12365, 14938, A2396, A5233, A5476. Such a contract affords to the employee the security of a regular weekly income and benefits the employer by enabling him to anticipate and control in advance at least some part of his labor costs. A guaranteed wage plan also provides a means of limiting overtime computation costs so that wide leeway is provided for working employees overtime without increasing the cost to the employer, which he would otherwise incur under the Act for working employees in excess of the statutory maximum hours standard. Recognizing both the inherent advantages and disadvantages of guaranteed wage plans, when viewed in this light, Congress sought to strike a balance between them which would, on the one hand, provide a feasible method of guaranteeing pay to employees who needed this protection without, on the other hand, nullifying the overtime requirements of the Act. The provisions of section 7(f) set forth the conditions under which, in the view of Congress, this may be done. Plans which do not meet these conditions were not thought to provide sufficient advantage to the employee to justify Congress in relieving employers of the overtime liability section 7(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.405" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.405   What types of employees are affected.</HEAD>
<P>The type of employment agreement permitted under section 7(f) can be made only with (or by his representatives on behalf of) an employee whose “duties * * * necessitate irregular hours of work.” It is clear that no contract made with an employee who works a regularly scheduled workweek or whose schedule involves alternating fixed workweeks will qualify under this subsection. Even if an employee does in fact work a variable workweek, the question must still be asked whether his duties necessitate irregular hours of work. The subsection is not designed to apply in a situation where the hours of work vary from week to week at the discretion of the employer or the employee, nor to a situation where the employee works an irregular number of hours according to a predetermined schedule. The nature of the employee's duties must be such that neither he nor his employer can either control or anticipate with any degree of certainty the number of hours he must work from week to week. Furthermore, for the reasons set forth in § 778.406, his duties must necessitate significant variations in weekly hours of work both below and above the statutory weekly limit on nonovertime hours. Some examples of the types of employees whose duties may necessitate irregular hours of work would be outside buyers, on-call servicemen, insurance adjusters, newspaper reporters and photographers, propmen, script girls and others engaged in similar work in the motion picture industry, firefighters, troubleshooters and the like. There are some employees in these groups whose hours of work are conditioned by factors beyond the control of their employer or themselves. However, the mere fact that an employee is engaged in one of the jobs just listed, for example, does not mean that his duties necessitate irregular hours. It is always a question of fact whether the particular employee's duties do or do not necessitate irregular hours. Many employees not listed here may qualify. Although office employees would not ordinarily qualify, some office employees whose duties compel them to work variable hours could also be in this category. For example, the confidential secretary of a top executive whose hours of work are irregular and unpredictable might also be compelled by the nature of her duties to work variable and unpredictable hours. This would not ordinarily be true of a stenographer or file clerk, nor would an employee who only rarely or in emergencies is called upon to work outside a regular schedule qualify for this exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.406" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.406   Nonovertime hours as well as overtime hours must be irregular if section 7(f) is to apply.</HEAD>
<P>Any employment in which the employee's hours fluctuate only in the overtime range above the maximum workweek prescribed by the statute lacks the irregularity of hours for which the Supreme Court found the so-called “Belo” contracts appropriate and so fails to meet the requirements of section 7(f) which were designed to validate, subject to express statutory limitations, contracts of a like kind in situations of the type considered by the Court (see § 778.404). Nothing in the legislative history of section 7(f) suggests any intent to suspend the normal application of the general overtime provisions of section 7(a) in situations where the weekly hours of an employee fluctuate only when overtime work in excess of the prescribed maximum weekly hours is performed. Section 7(a) was specifically designed to deal with such a situation by making such regular resort to overtime more costly to the employer and thus providing an inducement to spread the work rather than to impose additional overtime work on employees regularly employed for a workweek of the maximum statutory length. The “security of a regular weekly income” which the Supreme Court viewed as an important feature of the “Belo” wage plan militating against a holding that the contracts were invalid under the Act is, of course, already provided to employees who regularly work at least the maximum number of hours permitted without overtime pay under section 7(a). Their situation is not comparable in this respect to employees whose duties cause their weekly hours to fluctuate in such a way that some workweeks are short and others long and they cannot, without some guarantee, know in advance whether in a particular workweek they will be entitled to pay for the regular number of hours of nonovertime work contemplated by section 7(a). It is such employees whose duties necessitate “irregular hours” within the meaning of section 7(f) and whose “security of a regular weekly income” can be assured by a guarantee under that section which will serve to increase their hourly earnings in short workweeks under the statutory maximum hours. It is this benefit to the employee that the Supreme Court viewed, in effect, as a quid pro quo which could serve to balance a relaxation of the statutory requirement, applicable in other cases, that any overtime work should cost the employer 50 percent more per hour. In the enactment of section 7(f), as in the enactment of section 7(b) (1) and (2), the benefits that might inure to employees from a balancing of long workweeks against short workweeks under prescribed safeguards would seem to be the reason most likely to have influenced the legislators to provide express exemptions from the strict application of section 7(a). Consequently, where the fluctuations in an employee's hours of work resulting from his duties involve only overtime hours worked in excess of the statutory maximum hours, the hours are not “irregular” within the purport of section 7(f) and a payment plan lacking this factor does not qualify for the exemption. (See <I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Winn-Dixie Stores</I> (S.D. Fla.), 15 WH Cases 641; <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Midland Finance Co.</I> (N.D. Ga.), 16 WH Cases 141; <I>Trager</I> v. <I>J. E. Plastics Mfg. Co.</I> (S.D.N.Y.), 13 WH Cases 621; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Utica Knitting Co.,</I> 164 F. 2d 670; <I>Foremost Dairies</I> v. <I>Wirtz,</I> 381 F. 2d 653 (C.A. 5).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.407" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.407   The nature of the section 7(f) contract.</HEAD>
<P>Payment must be made “pursuant to a bona fide individual contract or pursuant to an agreement made as a result of collective bargaining by representatives of employees.” It cannot be a onesided affair determinable only by examination of the employer's books. The employee must not only be aware of but must have agreed to the method of compensation in advance of performing the work. Collective bargaining agreements in general are formal agreements which have been reduced to writing, but an individual employment contract may be either oral or written. While there is no requirement in section 7(f) that the agreement or contract be in writing, it is certainly desirable to reduce the agreement to writing, since a contract of this character is rather complicated and proof both of its existence and of its compliance with the various requirements of the section may be difficult if it is not in written form. Furthermore, the contract must be “bona fide.” This implies that both the making of the contract and the settlement of its terms were done in good faith.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.408" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.408   The specified regular rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To qualify under section 7(f), the contract must specify “a regular rate of pay of not less than the minimum hourly rate provided in subsection (a) or (b) of section 6 (whichever may be applicable).” The word “regular” describing the rate in this provision is not to be treated as surplusage. To understand the nature of this requirement it is important to consider the past history of this type of agreement in the courts. In both of the two cases before it, the Supreme Court found that the relationship between the hourly rate specified in the contract and the amount guaranteed was such that the employee in a substantial portion of the workweeks of the period examined by the court worked sufficient hours to earn in excess of the guaranteed amount and in those workweeks was paid at the specified hourly rate for the first 40 hours and at time and one-half such rate for hours in excess of 40 (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>A. H. Belo Company,</I> 316 U.S. 624, and <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Halliburton Oil Well Cementing Company,</I> 331 U.S.17). The fact that section 7(f) requires that a contract, to qualify an employee for exemption under section 7(f), must specify a “regular rate,” indicates that this criterion of these two cases is still important.
</P>
<P>(b) The regular rate of pay specified in the contract may not be less than the applicable minimum rate. There is no requirement, however, that the regular rate specified be equal to the regular rate at which the employee was formerly employed before the contract was entered into. The specified regular rate may be any amount (at least the applicable minimum wage) which the parties agree to and which can reasonably be expected to be operative in controlling the employee's compensation.
</P>
<P>(c) The rate specified in the contract must also be a “regular” rate which is operative in determining the total amount of the employee's compensation. Suppose, for example, that the compensation of an employee is normally made up in part by regular bonuses, commissions, or the like. In the past he has been employed at an hourly rate of $5 per hour in addition to which he has received a cost-of-living bonus of $7 a week and a 2-percent commission on sales which averaged $70 per week. It is now proposed to employ him under a guaranteed pay contract which specifies a rate of $5 per hour and guarantees $200 per week, but he will continue to receive his cost-of-living bonus and commissions in addition to the guaranteed pay. Bonuses and commissions of this type are, of course, included in the “regular rate” as defined in section 7(e). It is also apparent that the $5 rate specified in the contract is not a “regular rate” under the requirements of section 7(f) since it never controls or determines the total compensation he receives. For this reason, it is not possible to enter into a guaranteed pay agreement of the type permitted under section 7(f) with an employee whose regular weekly earnings are made up in part by the payment of regular bonuses and commissions of this type. This is so because even in weeks in which the employee works sufficient hours to exceed, at his hourly rate, the sum guaranteed, his total compensation is controlled by the bonus and the amount of commissions earned as well as by the hourly rate.
</P>
<P>(d) In order to qualify as a “regular rate” under section 7(f) the rate specified in the contract together with the guarantee must be the actual measure of the regular wages which the employee receives. However, the payment of extra compensation, over and above the guaranteed amount, by way of extra premiums for work on holidays, or for extraordinarily excessive work (such as for work in excess of 16 consecutive hours in a day, or for work in excess of 6 consecutive days of work), year-end bonuses and similar payments which are not regularly paid as part of the employee's usual wages, will not invalidate a contract which otherwise qualifies under section 7(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7317, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.409" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.409   Provision for overtime pay.</HEAD>
<P>The section 7(f) contract must provide for compensation at not less than one and one-half times the specified regular rate for all hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard for the particular workweek. All excessive hours, not merely those covered by the guarantee, must be compensated at one and one-half times (or a higher multiple) of the specified regular rate. A contract which guaranteed a weekly salary of $169, specified a rate of $3.60 per hour, and provided that not less than one and one-half times such rate would be paid only for all hours up to and including 46
<FR>2/3</FR> hours would not qualify under this section. The contract must provide for payment at time and one-half (or more) for all hours in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard in any workweek. A contract may provide a specific overtime rate greater than one and one-half times the specified rate, for example, double time. If it does provide a specific overtime rate it must provide that such rate will be paid for all hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7317, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.410" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.410   The guaranty under section 7(f).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The statute provides that the guaranty must be a weekly guaranty. A guaranty of monthly, semimonthly, or biweekly pay (which would allow averaging wages over more than one workweek) does not qualify under this paragraph. Obviously guarantees for periods less than a workweek do not qualify. Whatever sum is guaranteed must be paid in full in all workweeks, however short in which the employee performs any amount of work for the employer. The amount of the guaranty may not be subject to proration or deduction in short weeks.
</P>
<P>(b) The contract must provide a guaranty of pay. The amount must be specified. A mere guaranty to provide work for a particular number of hours does not qualify under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The pay guaranteed must be “for not more than 60 hours based on the rate so specified.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.411" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.411   Sixty-hour limit on pay guaranteed by contract.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of weekly pay guaranteed may not exceed compensation due at the specified regular rate for the applicable maximum hours standard and at the specified overtime rate for the additional hours, not to exceed a total of 60 hours. Thus, if the maximum hours standard is 40 hours and the specified regular rate is $5 an hour the weekly guaranty cannot be greater than $350. This does not mean that an employee employed pursuant to a guaranteed pay contract under this section may not work more than 60 hours in any week; it means merely that pay in an amount sufficient to compensate for a greater number of hours cannot be covered by the guaranteed pay. If he works in excess of 60 hours he must be paid, for each hour worked in excess of 60, overtime compensation as provided in the contract, in addition to the guaranteed amount.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7317, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.412" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.412   Relationship between amount guaranteed and range of hours employee may be expected to work.</HEAD>
<P>While the guaranteed pay may not cover more than 60 hours, the contract may guarantee pay for a lesser number of hours. In order for a contract to qualify as a bona fide contract for an employee whose duties necessitate irregular hours of work, the number of hours for which pay is guaranteed must bear a reasonable relation to the number of hours the employee may be expected to work. A guaranty of pay for 60 hours to an employee whose duties necessitate irregular hours of work which can reasonably be expected to range no higher than 50 hours would not qualify as a bona fide contract under this section. The rate specified in such a contract would be wholly fictitious and therefore would not be a “regular rate” as discussed above. When the parties enter into a guaranteed pay contract, therefore, they should determine, as far as possible, the range of hours the employee is likely to work. In deciding the amount of the guaranty they should not choose a guaranty of pay to cover the maximum number of hours which the employee will be likely to work at any time but should rather select a figure low enough so that it may reasonably be expected that the rate will be operative in a significant number of workweeks. In both <I>Walling</I> v. <I>A. H. Belo Co.,</I> 316 U.S. 624 and <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Halliburton Oil Well Cementing Co.,</I> 331 U.S. 17 the court found that the employees did actually exceed the number of hours (60 and 84 respectively) for which pay was guaranteed on fairly frequent occasions so that the hourly rate stipulated in the contract in each case was often operative and did actually control the compensation received by the employees. In cases where the guaranteed number of hours has not been exceeded in a significant number of workweeks, this fact will be weighed in the light of all the other facts and circumstances pertinent to the agreement before reaching a conclusion as to its effect on the validity of the pay arrangement. By a periodic review of the actual operation of the contract the employer can determine whether a stipulated contract rate reasonably expected by the parties to be operative in a significant number of workweeks is actually so operative or whether adjustments in the contract are necessary to ensure such an operative rate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.413" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.413   Guaranty must be based on rates specified in contract.</HEAD>
<P>The guaranty of pay must be “based on the rate so specified,” in the contract. If the contract specifies a regular rate of $5 and an overtime rate of $7.50 and guarantees pay for 50 hours and the maximum hours standard is 40 hours, the amount of the guaranty must be $275, if it is to be based on the rates so specified. A guaranty of $290 in such a situation would not, obviously, be based on the rates specified in the contract. Moreover, a contract which provides a variety of different rates for shift differentials, arduous or hazardous work, stand-by time, piece-rate incentive bonuses, commissions or the like in addition to a specified regular rate and a specified overtime rate with a guaranty of pay of, say, $290 from all sources would not qualify under this section, since the guaranty of pay in such a case is not based on the regular and overtime rates specified in the contract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7318, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.414" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.193.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.414   “Approval” of contracts under section 7(f).</HEAD>
<P>(a) There is no requirement that a contract, to qualify under section 7(f), must be approved by the Secretary of Labor or the Administrator. The question of whether a contract which purports to qualify an employee for exemption under section 7(f) meets the requirements is a matter for determination by the courts. This determination will in all cases depend not merely on the wording of the contract but upon the actual practice of the parties thereunder. It will turn on the question of whether the duties of the employee in fact necessitate irregular hours, whether the rate specified in the contract is a “regular rate”—that is, whether it was designed to be actually operative in determining the employee's compensation—whether the contract was entered into in good faith, whether the guaranty of pay is in fact based on the regular and overtime rates specified in the contract. While the Administrator does have the authority to issue an advisory opinion as to whether or not a pay arrangement accords with the requirements of section 7(f) he can do so only if he has knowledge of these facts.
</P>
<P>(b) As a guide to employers, it may be helpful to describe a fact situation in which the making of a guaranteed salary contract would be appropriate and to set forth the terms of a contract which would comply, in the circumstances described, with the provisions of section 7(f).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>An employee is employed as an insurance claims adjuster; because of the fact that he must visit claimants and witnesses at their convenience, it is impossible for him or his employer to control the hours which he must work to perform his duties. During the past 6 months his weekly hours of work have varied from a low of 30 hours to a high of 58 hours. His average workweek for the period was 48 hours. In about 80 percent of the workweeks he worked less than 52 hours. It is expected that his hours of work will continue to follow this pattern. The parties agree upon a regular rate of $5 per hour. In order to provide for the employee the security of a regular weekly income the parties further agree to enter into a contract which provides a weekly guaranty of pay. If the applicable maximum hours standard is 40 hours, guaranty of pay for a workweek somewhere between 48 hours (his average week) and 52 would be reasonable. In the circumstances described the following contract would be appropriate.
</PSPACE><P>The X Company hereby agrees to employ John Doe as a claims adjuster at a regular hourly rate of pay of $5 per hour for the first 40 hours in any workweek and at the rate of $7.50 per hour for all hours in excess of 40 in any workweek, with a guarantee that John Doe will receive, in any week in which he performs any work for the company, the sum of $275 as total compensation, for all work performed up to and including 50 hours in such workweek.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) The situation described in paragraph (b) of this section is merely an example and nothing herein is intended to imply that contracts which differ from the example will not meet the requirements of section 7(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7318, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="194" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.194" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Computing Overtime Pay on the Rate Applicable to the Type of Work Performed in Overtime Hours (Secs. 7(<E T="01">g</E>)(1) and (2))</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.415" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.194.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.415   The statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 7(g) (1) and (2) of the Act provide:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(g) No employer shall be deemed to have violated subsection (a) by employing any employee for a workweek in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under such subsection if, pursuant to an agreement or understanding arrived at between the employer and the employee before performance of the work, the amount paid to the employee for the number of hours worked by him in such workweek in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under such subsection:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an employee employed at piece rates, is computed at piece rates not less than one and one-half times the bona fide piece rates applicable to the same work when performed during nonovertime hours; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an employee performing two or more kinds of work for which different hourly or piece rates have been established, is computed at rates not less than one and one-half times such bona fide rates applicable to the same work when performed during nonovertime hours;
</P><STARS/>
<FP>and if (i) the employee's average hourly earnings for the workweek exclusive of payments described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (e) are not less than the minimum hourly rate required by applicable law, and (ii) extra overtime compensation is properly computed and paid on other forms of additional pay required to be included in computing the regular rate.</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.416" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.194.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.416   Purpose of provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of the provisions set forth in § 778.415 is to provide an exception from the requirement of computing overtime pay at not less than one and one-half times the regular rate for hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard for a particular workweek and to allow, under specified conditions, a simpler method of computing overtime pay for employees paid on the basis of a piece rate, or at a variety of hourly rates or piece rates, or a combination thereof. This provision is not designed to exclude any group of employees from the overtime benefits of the Act. The intent of the provision is merely to simplify the method of computation while insuring the receipt by the affected employees of substantially the same amount of overtime compensation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.417" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.194.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.417   General requirements of section 7(g).</HEAD>
<P>The following general requirements must be met in every case before the overtime computation authorized under section 7(g)(1) or (2) may be utilized.
</P>
<P>(a) First, in order to insure that the method of computing overtime pay permitted in this section will not in any circumstances be seized upon as a device for avoiding payment of the minimum wage due for each hour, the requirement must be met that employee's average hourly earnings for the workweek (exclusive of overtime pay and of all other pay which is excluded from the regular rate) are not less than the minimum. This requirement insures that the employer cannot pay subminimum nonovertime rates with a view to offsetting part of the compensation earned during the overtime hours against the minimum wage due for the workweek.
</P>
<P>(b) Second, in order to insure that the method of computing overtime pay permitted in this section will not be used to circumvent or avoid the payment of proper overtime compensation due on other sums paid to employees, such as bonuses which are part of the regular rate, the section requires that extra overtime compensation must be properly computed and paid on other forms of additional pay required to be included in computing the regular rate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.418" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.194.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.418   Pieceworkers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 7(g)(1), an employee who is paid on the basis of a piece rate for the work performed during nonovertime hours may agree with his employer in advance of the performance of the work that he shall be paid at a rate not less than one and one-half times this piece rate for each piece produced during the overtime hours. No additional overtime pay will be due under the Act provided that the general conditions discussed in § 778.417 are met and:
</P>
<P>(1) The piece rate is a bona fide rate;
</P>
<P>(2) The overtime hours for which the overtime rate is paid qualify as overtime hours under section 7(e) (5), (6), or (7);
</P>
<P>(3) The number of overtime hours for which such overtime piece rate is paid equals or exceeds the number of hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard for the particular workweek; and
</P>
<P>(4) The compensation paid for the overtime hours is at least equal to pay at one and one-half times the applicable minimum rate for the total number of hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard.
</P>
<P>(b) The piece rate will be regarded as bona fide if it is the rate actually paid for work performed during the nonovertime hours and if it is sufficient to yield at least the minimum wage per hour.
</P>
<P>(c) If a pieceworker works at two or more kinds of work for which different straight time piece rates have been established, and if by agreement he is paid at a rate not less than one and one-half whichever straight time piece rate is applicable to the work performed during the overtime hours, such piece rate or rates must meet all the tests set forth in this section and the general tests set forth in § 778.417 in order to satisfy the overtime requirements of the Act under section 7(g) (2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.419" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.194.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.419   Hourly workers employed at two or more jobs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 7(g)(2) an employee who performs two or more different kinds of work, for which different straight time hourly rates are established, may agree with his employer in advance of the performance of the work that he will be paid during overtime hours at a rate not less than one and one-half times the hourly nonovertime rate established for the type of work he is performing during such overtime hours. No additional overtime pay will be due under the act provided that the general requirements set forth in § 778.417 are met and;
</P>
<P>(1) The hourly rate upon which the overtime rate is based in a bona fide rate;
</P>
<P>(2) The overtime hours for which the overtime rate is paid qualify as overtime hours under section 7(e) (5), (6), or (7); and
</P>
<P>(3) The number of overtime hours for which the overtime rate is paid equals or exceeds the number of hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard.
</P>
<P>(b) An hourly rate will be regarded as a bona fide rate for a particular kind of work it is equal to or greater than the applicable minimum rate therefor and if it is the rate actually paid for such work when performed during nonovertime hours.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.420" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.194.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.420   Combined hourly rates and piece rates.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee works at a combination of hourly and piece rates, the payment of a rate not less than one and one-half times the hourly or piece rate applicable to the type of work being performed during the overtime hours will meet the overtime requirements of the Act if the provisions concerning piece rates (as discussed in § 778.418) and those concerning hourly rates (as discussed in § 778.419) are respectively met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.421" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.5.194.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.421   Offset hour for hour.</HEAD>
<P>Where overtime rates are paid pursuant to statute or contract for hours in excess of 8 in a day, or in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard, or in excess of the employees' normal working hours or regular working hours (as under section 7(e)(5) or for work on “special days” (as under section 7(e)(6), or pursuant to an applicable employment agreement for work outside of the hours established in good faith by the agreement as the basic, normal, or regular workday (not exceeding 8 hours) or workweek (not exceeding the applicable maximum hours standard) (under section 7(e) (7), the requirements of section 7(g) (1) and 7(g)(2) will be met if the number of such hours during which overtime rates were paid equals or exceeds the number of hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard for the particular workweek. It is not necessary to determine whether the total amount of compensation paid for such hours equals or exceeds the amount of compensation which would be due at the applicable rates for work performed during the hours after the applicable maximum in any workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Pay Plans Which Circumvent the Act</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="195" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.6.195" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Devices To Evade the Overtime Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.500" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.6.195.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.500   Artificial regular rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Since the term <I>regular rate</I> is defined to include all remuneration for employment (except statutory exclusions) whether derived from hourly rates, piece rates, production bonuses or other sources, the overtime provisions of the act cannot be avoided by setting an artificially low hourly rate upon which overtime pay is to be based and making up the additional compensation due to employees by other means. The established hourly rate is the “regular rate” to an employee only if the hourly earnings are the sole source of his compensation. Payment for overtime on the basis of an artificial “regular” rate will not result in compliance with the overtime provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) It may be helpful to describe a few schemes that have been attempted and to indicate the pitfalls inherent in the adoption of such schemes. The device of the varying rate which decreases as the length of the workweek increases has already been discussed in §§ 778.321 through 778.329. It might be well, however, to re-emphasize that the hourly rate paid for the identical work during the hours in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard cannot be lower than the rate paid for the nonovertime hours nor can the hourly rate vary from week to week inversely with the length of the workweek. It has been pointed out that, except in limited situations under contracts which qualify under section 7(f), it is not possible for an employer lawfully to agree with his employees that they will receive the same total sum, comprising both straight time and overtime compensation, in all weeks without regard to the number of overtime hours (if any) worked in any workweek. The result cannot be achieved by the payment of a fixed salary or by the payment of a lump sum for overtime or by any other method or device.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the employee is hired at a low hourly rate supplemented by facilities furnished by the employer, bonuses (other than those excluded under section 7(e)), commissions, pay ostensibly (but not actually) made for idle hours, or the like, his regular rate is not the hourly rate but is the rate determined by dividing his total compensation from all these sources in any workweek by the number of hours worked in the week. Payment of overtime compensation based on the hourly rate alone in such a situation would not meet the overtime requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) One scheme to evade the full penalty of the Act was that of setting an arbitrary low hourly rate upon which overtime compensation at time and one-half would be computed for all hours worked in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard; coupled with this arrangement was a guarantee that if the employee's straight time and overtime compensation, based on this rate, fell short, in any week, of the compensation that would be due on a piece-rate basis of x cents per piece, the employee would be paid on the piece-rate basis instead. The hourly rate was set so low that it never (or seldom) was operative. This scheme was found by the Supreme Court to be violative of the overtime provisions of the Act in the case of <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Youngerman-Reynolds Hardwood Co.,</I> 325 U.S. 427. The regular rate of the employee involved was found to be the quotient of total piece-rate earnings paid in any week divided by the total hours worked in such week.
</P>
<P>(e) The scheme is no better if the employer agrees to pay straight time and overtime compensation on the arbitrary hourly rates and to make up the difference between this total sum and the piece-rate total in the form of a bonus to each employee. (For further discussion of the refinements of this plan, see §§ 778.502 and 778.503.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.501" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.6.195.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.501   The “split-day” plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Another device designed to evade the overtime requirements of the Act was a plan known as the “Poxon” or “split-day” plan. Under this plan the normal or regular workday is artificially divided into two portions one of which is arbitrarily labeled the “straight time” portion of the day and the other the “overtime” portion. Under such a plan, an employee who would ordinarily command an hourly rate of pay well in excess of the minimum for his work is assigned a low hourly rate (often the minimum) for the first hour (or the first 2 or 4 hours) of each day. This rate is designated as the regular rate: “time and one-half” based on such rate is paid for each additional hour worked during the workday. Thus, for example, an employee is arbitrarily assigned an hourly rate of $5 per hour under a contract which provides for the payment of so-called “overtime” for all hours in excess of 4 per day. Thus, for the normal or regular 8-hour day the employee would receive $20 for the first 4 hours and $30 for the remaining 4 hours; and a total of $50 for 8 hours. (This is exactly what he would receive at the straight time rate of $6.25 per hour.) On the sixth 8-hour day the employee likewise receives $50 and the employer claims to owe no additional overtime pay under the statute since he has already compensated the employee at “overtime” rates for 20 hours of the workweek.
</P>
<P>(b) Such a division of the normal 8-hour workday into 4 straight time hours and 4 overtime hours is purely fictitious. The employee is not paid at the rate of $5 an hour and the alleged overtime rate of $7.50 per hour is not paid for overtime work. It is not geared either to hours “in excess of the employee's normal working hours or regular working hours” (section 7(e)(5) or for work “outside of the hours established in good faith * * * as the basic, normal, or regular workday” (section 7(e) (7)) and it cannot therefore qualify as an overtime rate. The regular rate of pay of the employee in this situation is $6.25 per hour and he is owed additional overtime compensation, based on this rate, for all hours in excess of the applicable maximum hours standard. This rule was settled by the Supreme Court in the case of <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Helmerich &amp; Payne,</I> 323 U.S. 37, and its validity has been reemphasized by the definition of the term “regular rate” in section 7(e) of the Act as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7318, Jan. 23, 1981; 46 FR 33516, June 30, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="196" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.6.196" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Pseudo-Bonuses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.502" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.6.196.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.502   Artificially labeling part of the regular wages a “bonus”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “bonus” is properly applied to a sum which is paid as an addition to total wages usually because of extra effort of one kind or another, or as a reward for loyal service or as a gift. The term is improperly applied if it is used to designate a portion of regular wages which the employee is entitled to receive under his regular wage contract.
</P>
<P>(b) For example, if an employer has agreed to pay an employee $300 a week without regard to the number of hours worked, the regular rate of pay of the employee is determined each week by dividing the $300 salary by the number of hours worked in the week. The situation is not altered if the employer continues to pay the employee, whose applicable maximum hours standard is 40 hours, the same $300 each week but arbitrarily breaks the sum down into wages for the first 40 hours at an hourly rate of $4.80 an hour, overtime compensation at $7.20 per hour and labels the balance a “bonus” (which will vary from week to week, becoming smaller as the hours increase and vanishing entirely in any week in which the employee works 55 hours or more). The situation is in no way bettered if the employer, standing by the logic of his labels, proceeds to compute and pay overtime compensation due on this “bonus” by prorating it back over the hours of the workweek. Overtime compensation has still not been properly computed for this employee at his regular rate.
</P>
<P>(c) An illustration of how the plan works over a 3-week period may serve to illustrate this principle more clearly:
</P>
<P>(1) In the first week the employee whose applicable maximum hours standard is 40 hours, works 40 hours and receives $300. The books show he has received $192 (40 hours × $4.80 an hour) as wages and $108 as bonus. No overtime has been worked so no overtime compensation is due.
</P>
<P>(2) In the second week he works 45 hours and receives $300. The books show he has received $192 for the first 40 hours and $36 (5 hours × $7.20 an hour) for the 5 hours over 40, or a total of $228 as wages, and the balance as a bonus of $72. Overtime compensation is then computed by the employer by dividing $72 by 45 hours to discover the average hourly increase resulting from the bonus—$1.60 per hour—and half this rate is paid for the 5 overtime hours—$4. This is improper. The employee's regular rate in this week is $6.67 per hour. He is owed $316.85 not $304.
</P>
<P>(3) In the third week the employee works 50 hours and is paid $300. The books show that the employee received $192 for the first 40 hours and $72 (10 hours × $7.20 per hour) for the 10 hours over 40, for a total of $264 and the balance as a bonus of $36. Overtime pay due on the “bonus” is found to be $3.60. This is improper. The employee's regular rate in this week is $6 and he is owed $330, not $303.60.
</P>
<P>(d) Similar schemes have been devised for piece-rate employees. The method is the same. An employee is assigned an arbitrary hourly rate (usually the minimum) and it is agreed that his straight-time and overtime earnings will be computed on this rate but that if these earnings do not amount to the sum he would have earned had his earnings been computed on a piece-rate basis of “x” cents per piece, he will be paid the difference as a “bonus.” The subterfuge does not serve to conceal the fact that this employee is actually compensated on a piece-rate basis, that there is no bonus and his regular rate is the quotient of piece-rate earnings divided by hours worked (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Youngerman-Reynolds Hardwood Company,</I> 325 U.S. 419).
</P>
<P>(e) The general rule may be stated that wherever the employee is guaranteed a fixed or determinable sum as his wages each week, no part of this sum is a true bonus and the rules for determining overtime due on bonuses do not apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968; 33 FR 3172, Feb. 20, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7318, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.503" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.6.196.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.503   Pseudo “percentage bonuses.”</HEAD>
<P>As explained in § 778.210 of this part, a true bonus based on a percentage of total wages—both straight time and overtime wages—satisfies the Act's overtime requirements, if it is paid unconditionally. Such a bonus increases both straight time and overtime wages by the same percentage, and thereby includes proper overtime compensation as an arithmetic fact. Some bonuses, however, although expressed as a percentage of both straight time and overtime wages, are in fact a sham. Such bonuses, like the bonuses described in § 778.502 of this part, are generally separated out of a fixed weekly wage and usually decrease in amount in direct proportion to increases in the number of hours worked in a week in excess of 40. The hourly rate purportedly paid under such a scheme is artificially low, and the difference between the wages paid at the hourly rate and the fixed weekly compensation is labeled a percentage of wage “bonus.”
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>An employer's wage records show an hourly rate of $5.62 per hour, and an overtime rate of one and one-half times that amount, or $8.43 per hour. In addition, the employer pays an alleged percentage of wage bonus on which no additional overtime compensation is paid:
</PSPACE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Week 1—40 hours worked:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">40 hours at $5.62 per hour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$224.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Percentage of total earnings bonus at 33.45% of $224.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">    Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Week 2—43 hours worked:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">40 hours at $5.62 per hour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">224.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3 hours at $8.43 per hour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">    Subtotal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percentage of total earnings bonus at 19.96% of $250.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">    Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Week 3—48 hours worked:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">40 hours at $5.62 per hour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">224.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">8 hours at $8.43 per hour</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67.44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">    Subtotal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">292.24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percentage of total earnings bonus at 2.66% of $292.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">    Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>This employee is in fact being paid no overtime compensation at all. The records in fact reveal that the employer pays exactly $300 per week, no matter how many hours the employee works. The employee's regular rate is $300 divided by the number of hours worked in the particular week, and his overtime compensation due must be computed as shown in § 778.114.</FP></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 7319, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.600" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.7.197.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.600   Veterans' subsistence allowances.</HEAD>
<P>Subsistence allowances paid under Public Law 346 (commonly known as the G.I. bill of rights) to a veteran employed in on-the-job training program work may not be used to offset the wages to which he is entitled under the Fair Labor Standards Act. The subsistence allowances provided by Public Law 346 for payment to veterans are not paid as compensation for services rendered to an employer nor are they intended as subsidy payments for such employer. In order to qualify as wages under either section 6 or section 7 of the Act, sums paid to an employee must be paid by or on behalf of the employer. Since veterans' subsistence allowances are not so paid, they may not be used to make up the minimum wage or overtime pay requirements of the Act nor are they included in the regular rate of pay under section 7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.601" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.7.197.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.601   Special overtime provisions available for hospital and residential care establishments under section 7(j).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The statutory provision.</I> Section 7(j) of the Act provides, for hospital and residential care establishment employment, under prescribed conditions, an exemption from the general requirement of section 7(a) that overtime compensation be computed on a workweek basis. It permits a 14-day period to be established for the purpose of computing overtime compensation by an agreement or understanding between an employer engaged in the operation of a hospital or residential care establishment, and any of his employees employed in connection therewith. The exemption provided by section 7(j) applies:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>if, pursuant to an agreement or understanding arrived at between the employer and employee before performance of the work, a work period of 14 consecutive days is accepted in lieu of the workweek of 7 consecutive days for purposes of overtime computation and if, for his employment in excess of 8 hours in any workday and in excess of 80 hours in such 14-day period, the employee receives compensation at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions for application of exemption.</I> As conditions for use of the 14-day period in lieu of the workweek in computing overtime, section 7(j) requires, first, an agreement or understanding between the employer and the employee before performance of the work that such period is to be used, and second, the payment to the employee of overtime compensation at a rate not less than one and one-half times his regular rate for all hours worked in excess of eight in any workday within such period and in excess of 80 during the period as a whole.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The agreement or understanding.</I> The agreement or understanding between the employer and employee to use the 14-day period for computing overtime must be entered into before the work to which it is intended to apply is performed. It may be arrived at directly with the employee or through his representative. It need not be in writing, but if it is not, a special record concerning it must be kept as required by part 516 of this chapter. The 14-day period may begin at any hour of any day of the week; it need not commence at the beginning of a calendar day. It consists of 14 consecutive 24-hour periods, at the end of which a new 14-day period begins. The election to use the 14-day period in lieu of the workweek must, like selection of an employee's workweek (§ 778.105) be with the intent to use such period permanently or for a substantial period of time. Changes from such period to the workweek and back again to take advantage of less onerous overtime pay liabilities with respect to particular work schedules under one system than under the other are not permissible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment for overtime under the special provisions.</I> If the parties have the necessary agreement or understanding to use the 14-day period, computation of overtime pay on the workweek basis as provided in section 7(a) is not required so long as the employee receives overtime compensation at a rate not less than one and one-half times his regular rate of pay “for his employment in excess of 8 hours in any workday and in excess of 80 hours in such 14-day period.” Such compensation is required for all hours in such period in excess of eight in any workday or workdays therein which are worked by the employee, whether or not more than 80 hours are worked in the period. The first workday in the period, for purposes of this computation, begins at the same time as the 14-day period and ends 24 hours later. Each of the 13 consecutive 24-hour periods following constitutes an additional workday of the 14-day period. Overtime compensation at the prescribed time and one-half rate is also required for all hours worked in excess of 80 in the 14-day period, whether or not any daily overtime is worked during the first 80 hours. However, under the provisions of section 7(h) and 7(e)(5) of the Act, any payments at the premium rate for daily overtime hours within such period may be credited toward the overtime compensation due for overtime hours in excess of 80.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of 14-day period in lieu of workweek.</I> Where the 14-day period is used as authorized in section 7(j), such period is used in lieu of the workweek in computing the regular rate of pay of employees to whom it applies (<I>i.e.</I>, those of the hospital's or residential care establishment's employees with whom the employer has elected to enter into the necessary agreement or understanding as explained in paragraph (c) of this section). With this exception, the computation of the regular rate and the application of statutory exclusions therefrom is governed by the general principles set forth in this part 778.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 46 FR 7319, Jan. 23, 1981; 46 FR 33516, June 30, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.602" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.7.197.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.602   Special overtime provisions under section 7(b).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Daily and weekly overtime standards.</I> The general overtime pay requirements of the Act provide for such pay only when the number of hours worked exceeds the standard specified for the workweek; no overtime compensation on a daily basis is required. However, section 7 of the Act, in subsection (b), provides certain partial exemptions from the general overtime provisions, each of which is conditioned upon the payment to the employee of overtime compensation at a rate not less than one and one-half times his regular rate of pay for his hours worked in the workweek in excess of daily, as well as weekly, standards specified in the subsection. Under these provisions, when an employee works in excess of both the daily and weekly maximum hours standards in any workweek for which such an exemption is claimed, he must be paid at such overtime rate for all hours worked in the workweek in excess of the applicable daily maximum or in excess of the applicable weekly maximum, whichever number of hours is greater. Thus, if his total hours of work in the workweek which are in excess of the daily maximum are 10, and his hours in excess of the weekly maximum are 8, overtime compensation is required for 10 hours, not 8.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards under section 7(b).</I> The partial exemptions provided by section 7(b) apply to an employee under the conditions specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of the subsection “if such employee receives compensation for employment in excess of 12 hours in any workday, or for employment in excess of 56 hours in any workweek, as the case may be, at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed.” As an example, suppose an employee is employed under the other conditions specified for an exemption under section 7(b) at an hourly rate of $5.20 and works the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">M
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">W
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tot.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Worked</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Number of overtime hours: Daily, 5 (hours over 12); weekly, 12 (hours over 56).</P></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Since the weekly overtime hours are greater, the employee is entitled to pay for 12 hours at $7.80 an hour (1
<FR>1/2</FR> × $5.20), a total of $93.60 for the overtime hours, and to pay at his regular rate for the remaining 56 hours (56 × $5.20) in the amonut of $291.20 or a total of $384.80 for the week. If the employee had not worked the 8 hours on Saturday, his total hours worked in the week would have been 60, of which five were daily overtime hours, and there would have been no weekly overtime hours under the section 7(b) standard. For such a schedule the employee would be entitled to 5 hours of overtime pay at time and one-half (5 × 1
<FR>1/2</FR> × $5.20 = $39) plus the pay at his regular rate for the remaining 55 hours (55 × $5.20 = $286), making a total of $325 due him for the week.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 986, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended at 34 FR 144, Jan. 4, 1969; 46 FR 7319, Jan. 23, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 778.603" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.39.7.197.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 778.603   Special overtime provisions for certain employees receiving remedial education under section 7(q).</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(q) of the Act, enacted as part of the 1989 Amendments, provides an exemption from the overtime pay requirements for time spent by certain employees who are receiving remedial education. The exemption provided by section 7(q), as implemented by these regulations, allows any employer to require that an employee spend up to 10 hours in the aggregate in any workweek in remedial education without payment of overtime compensation provided that the employee lacks a high school diploma or educational attainment at the eighth-grade level; the remedial education is designed to provide reading and other basic skills at an eighth-grade level or below, or to fulfill the requirements for a high school diploma or General Educational Development (GED) certificate; and the remedial education does not include job-specific training. Employees must be compensated at their regular rate of pay for the time spent receiving such remedial education. The employer must maintain a record of the hours that an employee is engaged each workday and each workweek in receiving remedial education, and the compensation paid each pay period for the time so engaged, as described in 29 CFR 516.34. The remedial education must be conducted during discrete periods of time set aside for such a program, and, to the maximum extent practicable, away from the employee's normal work station. An employer has the burden to establish compliance with all applicable requirements of this special overtime provision as set forth in section 7(q) of the Act and in this section of the regulations. Section 7(q) is solely an exemption from the overtime provisions of section 7(a) of the Act. It is not an exemption from the requirements of any other law that regulates employment practices, including the standards that are used to select individuals for employment. An employer creating a remedial education program pursuant to section 7(q) should be mindful not to violate other applicable requirements. See, for example, title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>; Executive Order 11246, as amended, 3 CFR part 339 (1964-1965 Compilation), <I>reprinted in</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000e note; the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>; and the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures published at 41 CFR part 60-3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 61101, Nov. 29, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="779" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 779—THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT AS APPLIED TO RETAILERS OF GOODS OR SERVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 75 Stat. 65; Sec. 29(B), Pub. L. 93-259, 88 Stat. 55; 29 U.S.C. 201-219.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 5856, Apr. 9, 1970, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="253" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.253" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.253.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.0   Purpose of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>It is the purpose of this part to provide an official statement of the views of the Department of Labor with respect to the application and meaning of those provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act, hereinafter referred to as the Act, which govern rights and obligations of employees and employers in the various enterprises in which retail sales of goods or services are made. The application of the Act to employment in such enterprises was greatly broadened by amendments effective September 3, 1961. The Act's application was extended to employment in additional retail and service enterprises by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966, effective February 1, 1967. Under the amended Act, there are many employees employed by retail or service establishments and in enterprises having such establishments engaged in the retail selling of goods or services who must be employed in compliance with its provisions. It is an objective of this part to make available in one place, for the guidance of those who may be concerned with the provisions of the law, the official interpretations of these provisions by which the Department of Labor will be guided in carrying out its responsibilities under the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.253.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.1   General scope of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, is a Federal statute of general application which establishes minimum wage, maximum hours, overtime pay, equal pay, and child labor requirements that apply as provided in the Act. Employers and employees in enterprises in which retail sales of goods or services are made need to know how the Act applies to employment in these enterprises so that they may understand their rights and obligations under the law. All employees whose employment has the relationship to interstate or foreign commerce which the Act specifies are subject to the prescribed labor standards unless specifically exempted from them. Employers having such employees are required to comply with the Act's provisions in this regard and with specified recordkeeping requirements contained in Part 516 of this chapter. The law authorizes the Department of Labor to investigate for compliance and, in the event of violations, to supervise the payment of unpaid minimum wages or unpaid overtime compensation owing to any employee. The law also provides for enforcement in the courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.253.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.2   Previous and new coverage.</HEAD>
<P>Under the Act as amended in 1966, an employer may have some employees subject to its minimum wages, maximum hours, overtime pay, equal pay, or child labor provisions who would be covered by such provisions under the prior law even if the amendments had not been enacted, and other employees whose coverage under such provisions was provided for the first time by the 1966 amendments. As explained in subparts B and C such provisions of the amended Act may apply to an employee by reason of the activities in which he is individually engaged, or because he is employed in an enterprise whose activities satisfy the conditions prescribed in the law prior to the amendments. On the other hand, such provisions of the amended Act may apply to an employee solely because he is employed in an enterprise whose activities satisfy only the conditions provided in the Act as it was amended in 1966. Previously covered employment in retail and service enterprise is subject to different monetary standards than newly covered employment in such enterprises until February 1, 1971. On and after that date, every such employee subject to the minimum wage provisions will be entitled to not less than $1.60 an hour. However, beginning February 1, 1969, every such employee subject to the overtime provisions is entitled to overtime pay for all hours worked in excess of 40 in a workweek at a rate not less than one and one-half times his regular rate of pay. During the period for which different minimum wage provisions were made applicable, beginning with the effective date of the 1966 amendments on February 1, 1967, and ending on January 31, 1971, a lower minimum wage rate is authorized for employees in employment brought under the minimum wage provisions of the Act for the first time by the amendments than for those subject to the minimum wage provisions under the prior Act. Also, in the period beginning with the effective date of the amendments and ending on January 31, 1969, employees in employment brought under the overtime pay provisions for the first time by the amendments could be employed for a longer workweek without overtime pay, as specified in the Act. Accordingly, employers who do not wish to pay aIl covered employees for employment during such periods the minimum wages and overtime pay required for employment covered under the prior provisions will need to identify those employees who are covered under the prior provisions and those who are covered under the new provisions when wages are computed and paid under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.253.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.3   Pay standards for employees subject to previous coverage of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Before the 1966 amendments, the Act applied, as it still applies, to employees individually engaged in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce, and to employees in certain enterprises, including enterprises in which retail sales of goods or services are made. The tests by which coverage based on the employee's individual activities is determined were not changed by the 1966 amendments and are described in subpart B of this part. An employee in an enterprise whose activities satisfy the conditions prescribed in the law prior to the 1966 amendments (discussed in subpart C) is covered under the present Act. Any employee whose employment satisfies the tests by which individual or enterprise coverage is determined under the Act prior to the 1966 amendments and who would not have come within some exemption in the law prior to the amendments is subject to the monetary provisions prescribed in the law for previously covered employees and is entitled to a minimum wage of at least $1.40 an hour beginning February 1, 1967, and not less than $1.60 an hour beginning February 1, 1968, unless expressly exempted by some provision of the amended Act. (In each instance where there is an increase in the minimum wage, the new minimum wage rate becomes effective 12:01 a.m., on the date indicated.) Such an employee is also entitled to overtime pay for hours worked in excess of 40 in any workweek at a rate not less than one and one-half times his regular rate of pay. (Minimum wage rates in Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa are governed by special provisions of the Act. Information on these rates is available at any office of the Wage and Hour Division.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.253.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.4   Pay standards for newly covered employment.</HEAD>
<P>There are many employees of retailers as well as other employees who would not be subject to the minimum wage or overtime pay provisions of the Act as it was prior to the 1966 amendments, either because of their individual activities or because of the activities of the enterprise in which they are employed, but who are brought under the minimum wage or overtime provisions, or both, for the first time by the changed enterprise coverage provisions or changes in exemptions, or both, which were enacted as part of the amendments and made effective February 1, 1967. The following pay standards apply to this newly covered employment, unless a specific exemption has been retained or provided in the amendments; such employees must be paid not less than the minimum wages for hours worked and not less than one and one-half times their regular rates of pay for overtime, as shown in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum wage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Beginning
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.00 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1967.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.15 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1968.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.30 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1969.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.45 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1970.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.60 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1971 and thereafter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>In each instance where there is an increase in the minimum wage, the new minimum wage rate becomes effective 12:01 a.m., on the date indicated. (Minimum wage rates for newly covered employees in Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa are set by wage order under special industry committee procedures. Information on these rates and their effective dates may be obtained at any office of the Wage and Hour Division.)
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Overtime pay
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Beginning
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">After 44 hours in a workweek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feb. 1, 1967.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">After 42 hours in a workweek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feb. 1, 1968.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">After 40 hours in a workweek and thereafter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Feb. 1, 1969.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>In each instance where a new overtime pay standard is applicable, it shall be effective as to any workweek beginning on or after the date indicated.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.253.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.5   Matters discussed in this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part discusses generally the provisions of the Act which govern its application to employers and employees in enterprises and establishments that make retail sales of goods or services. It discusses in some detail those provisions of the Act which refer specifically to such employers and employees and such enterprises or establishments. The criteria for determining the employments in which these employers and employees may be subject to the law are discussed in subparts B and C of this part and the criteria for exclusion from its provisions under specific exemptions are discussed in subpart D of this part. Other provisions of special interest to retailers and their employees are discussed in subparts E and F of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.253.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.6   Matters discussed in other interpretative bulletins.</HEAD>
<P>Bulletins having general application to others subject to the law as well as to retailers and their employees have been issued on a number of subjects of general interest. These will be found in other parts of this chapter of the Code of Federal Regulations. Reference should be made to them for guidance on matters which they discuss in detail and which this part does not undertake to do. They include part 776 of this chapter, discussing general coverage, including the employer-employee relationship under the Act; part 531 of this chapter, discussing methods of payment of wages; part 778 of this chapter, discussing computation and payment of overtime compensation; part 785 of this chapter, discussing the calculation of hours worked; and part 800 of this chapter, discussing equal pay for equal work.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="254" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.254" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations of the Law</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.254.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.7   Significance of official interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part contain the official interpretations of the Department of Labor with respect to the application under described circumstances of the provisions of law which they discuss. These interpretations indicate the construction of the law which the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator believe to be correct and which will guide them in the performance of their duties under the Act unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude, upon reexamination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.254.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.8   Basic support for interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate decisions on interpretations of the Act are made by the courts (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Zachry,</I> 362 U.S. 310; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517). Court decisions supporting interpretations contained in this bulletin are cited where it is believed they may be helpful. On matters which have not been determined by the courts, it is necessary for the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator to reach conclusions as to the meaning and the application of provisions of the law in order to carry out their responsibilities of administration and enforcement (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). In order that these positions may be made known to persons who may be affected by them, official interpretations are issued by the Administrator on the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, as authorized by the Secretary (Reorg. Pl. 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263; Gen. Ord. 45A, May 24, 1950; 15 FR 3290). As included in the regulations in this part, these interpretations are believed to express the intent of the law as reflected in its provisions as constructed by the courts and evidenced by its legislative history. References to pertinent legislative history are made in this part where it appears that they will contribute to a better understanding of the interpretations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.254.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.9   Reliance on interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The interpretations of the law contained in this part are official interpretations which may be relied upon as provided in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947. In addition, the Supreme Court has recognized that such interpretations of the Act “provide a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it” and “constitute a body of experience and informed judgment to which courts and litigants may properly resort for guidance.” Further, as stated by the Court: “Good administration of the Act and good judicial administration alike require that the standards of public enforcement and those for determining private rights shall be at variance only where justified by very good reasons.” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134.) Some of the interpretations in subpart D of this part relating to the scope of the exemption provided for retail or service establishments are interpretations of this exemption as it appeared in the original Act before amendment in 1949 and 1961, which have remained unchanged because they were consistent with the amendments. These interpretations may be said to have Congressional sanction because “When Congress amended the Act in 1949 it provided that pre-1949 rulings and interpretations by the Administrator should remain in effect unless inconsistent with the statute as amended. 63 Stat. 920.” (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.254.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.10   Interpretations made, continued, and superseded by this part.</HEAD>
<P>On and after publication of this part in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the interpretations contained therein shall be in effect and shall remain in effect until they are modified, rescinded, or withdrawn. This part supersedes and replaces the interpretations previously published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and Code of Federal Regulations as part 779 of this chapter. Prior opinions, rulings and interpretations and prior enforcement policies which are not inconsistent with the interpretations in this part or with the Fair Labor Standards Act as amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1961 are continued in effect; all other opinions, rulings, interpretations, and enforcement policies on the subjects discussed in the interpretations in this part are rescinded and withdrawn. The interpretations in this part provide statements of general principles applicable to the subjects discussed and illustrations of the application of these principles to situations that frequently arise. They do not and cannot refer specifically to every problem which may be met by retailers in the application of the Act. The omission to discuss a particular problem in this part or in interpretations supplementing it should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Secretary of Labor or the Administrator with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice or enforcement policy. Questions on matters not fully covered by this part may be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or to any Regional or District Office of the Division.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="255" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Some Basic Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.11   General statement.</HEAD>
<P>The meaning and application of the provisions of law discussed in this part depend in large degree on the definitions of terms used in these provisions. The Act itself defines some of these terms. Others have been defined and construed in decisions of the courts. In the following sections some of these basic definitions are set forth for ready reference in connection with the part's discussion of the various provisions in which they appear. Some of these definitions and their application are considered in detail in other interpretative bulletins. The application of the others is considered in the sections of this part where the particular provisions containing the defined terms are discussed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.12   Commerce.</HEAD>
<P><I>Commerce</I> as used in the Act includes interstate and foreign commerce. It is defined in section 3(b) of the Act to mean “trade, commerce, transportation, transmission or communication among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.” (For the definition of “State” see § 779.16.) The application of this definition and the kinds of activities which it includes are discussed at length in the interpretative bulletin on general coverage of the Act, part 776 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.13   Production.</HEAD>
<P>To understand the meaning of “production” of goods for commerce as used in the Act it is necessary to refer to the definition in section 3(j) of the term “produced.” A detailed discussion of the application of the term as defined is contained in the interpretative bulletin on general coverage of the Act, part 776 of this chapter. Section 3(j) provides that “produced” as used in the Act “means produced, manufactured, mined, handled, or in any other manner worked on in any State; and for the purposes of this Act an employee shall be deemed to have been engaged in the production of goods if such employee was employed in producing, manufacturing, mining, handling, transporting, or in any other manner working on such goods, or in any closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production thereof, in any State.” (For the definition of “State,” see § 779.16.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.14   Goods.</HEAD>
<P>The definition in section 3(i) of the Act states that <I>goods,</I> as used in the Act, means “goods (including ships and marine equipment), wares, products, commodities, merchandise, or articles or subjects of commerce of any character, or any part or ingredient thereof, but does not include goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer thereof other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof.” The interpretative bulletin on general coverage of the Act, part 776 of this chapter, contains a detailed discussion of the application of this definition and what is included in it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.15   Sale and resale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(k) of the Act provides that “Sale” or “sell”, as used in the Act, “includes any sale, exchange, contract to sell, consignment for sale, shipment for sale, or other disposition.” Since “goods”, as defined, includes any part or ingredient of goods (see § 779.14), a “resale” of goods includes their sale in a different form than when first purchased or sold, such as the sale of goods of which they have become a component part (<I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388). The Act, in section 3(n), provides one exception to this rule by declaring that “resale”, as used in the Act, “shall not include the sale of goods to be used in residential or farm building construction, repair, or maintenance: <I>Provided,</I> That the sale is recognized as a bona fide retail sale in the industry.” A resale of goods is not confined to resale of the goods as such, but under section 3(k) may include an “other disposition” of the goods in which they are disposed of in a transaction of a different kind; thus the sale by a restaurant to an airline of prepared meals to be served in flight to passengers whose tickets entitle them to a “complimentary” meal is a sale of goods “for resale”. (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Sherry Corine Corp.,</I> 264 F 2d 831 (C.A. 4), cert. denied 360 U.S. 934.)
</P>
<P>(b) In construing section 3(s)(1) of the Act as it was prior to the 1966 amendments it should be noted that section 3(n) of the prior Act defined “resale” by declaring that this term, “except as used in subsection (s)(1), shall not include the sale of goods to be used in residential or farm building construction, repair, or maintenance: <I>Provided,</I> That the sale is recognized as a bona fide retail sale in the industry.” Thus, although section 3(n) of the prior Act also provided the one exception to the meaning of “resale”, it made clear that the exception was inapplicable in determining under section 3(s)(1) of the prior Act, “if such enterprise purchases or receives goods for resale that move or have moved across State lines (not in deliveries from the reselling establishment) which amount in total volume to $250,000 or more”. The application of the inflow test under section 3(s) (1) of the prior Act is discussed fully in subpart C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.16   State.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act, <I>State</I> means “any State of the United States or the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States” (Act, section 3(c)). The application of this definition in determining questions of coverage under the Act's definition of “commerce” and “produced” (see §§ 779.12, 779.13) is discussed in the interpretative bulletin on general coverage, part 776 of this chapter. This definition is also important in determining whether goods “for resale” purchased or received by an enterprise move or have moved across State lines within the meaning of former section 3(s)(1) of the Act (prior to the 1966 amendments) and whether sales of goods or services are “made within the State” within the meaning of the retail or service establishment exemption in section 13(a)(2), as discussed in subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.17   Wage and wage payments to tipped employees.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(m) of the Act provides that as used in the Act, “wage” paid to any employee:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>includes the reasonable cost, as determined by the Secretary of Labor, to the employer of furnishing such employee with board, lodging, or other facilities, if such board, lodging or other facilities are customarily furnished by such employer to his employees: <I>Provided,</I> That the cost of board, lodging, or other facilities shall not be included as a part of the wage paid to any employee to the extent it is excluded therefrom under the terms of a bona fide collective-bargaining agreement applicable to the particular employee: <I>Provided further,</I> That the Secretary is authorized to determine the fair value of such board, lodging, or other facilities for defined classes of employees and in defined areas, based on average cost to the employer or to groups of employers similarly situated, or average value to groups of employees, or other appropriate measures of fair value. Such evaluations, where applicable and pertinent, shall be used in lieu of actual measure of cost in determining the wage paid to any employee. In determining the wage of a tipped employee, the amount paid such employee by his employer shall be deemed to be increased on account of tips by an amount determined by the employer, but not by an amount in excess of 50 per centum of the applicable minimum wage rate, except that in the case of an employee who (either himself or acting through his representative) shows to the satisfaction of the Secretary that the actual amount of tips received by him was less than the amount determined by the employer as the amount by which the wage paid him was deemed to be increased under this sentence, the amount paid such employee by his employer shall be deemed to have been increased by such lesser amount.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>As explained in part 531 of this chapter, section 3(m) of the Act governs the payment of wages required by the Act, including payment in other than cash and in tips. Part 531 of this chapter contains the regulations under which the reasonable cost or fair value of such facilities furnished may be computed for inclusion as part of wages required by the Act. Section 3(m) provides a method for determining the wage of a “tipped employee” and this term as defined in section 3(t) of the Act “means any employee engaged in an occupation in which he customarily and regularly receives more than $20 a month in tips”. Regulations under which wage credits are permitted on account of tips paid to “tipped employees” are also contained in part 531 of this chapter.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.18   Regular rate.</HEAD>
<P>As explained in the interpretative bulletin on overtime compensation, part 778 of this chapter, employees subject to the overtime pay provisions of the Act must generally receive for their overtime work in any workweek as provided in the Act not less than one and one-half times their regular rates of pay. Section 7(e) of the Act defines “regular rate” in the following language:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(e) As used in this section the <I>regular rate</I> at which an employee is employed shall be deemed to include all remuneration for employment paid to, or on behalf of, the employee, but shall not be deemed to include:
</P>
<P>(1) Sums paid as gifts; payments in the nature of gifts made at Christmas time or on other special occasions, as a reward for service, the amounts of which are not measured by or dependent on hours worked, production, or efficiency;
</P>
<P>(2) Payments made for occasional periods when no work is performed due to vacation, holiday, illness, failure of the employer to provide sufficient work, or other similar cause; reasonable payments for traveling expenses or other expenses, incurred by an employee in the furtherance of his employer's interests and properly reimbursable by the employer; and other similar payments to an employee which are not made as compensation for his hours of employment;
</P>
<P>(3) Sums paid in recognition of services performed during a given period if either, (a) both the fact that payment is to be made and the amount of the payment are determined at the sole discretion of the employer at or near the end of the period and not pursuant to any prior contract, agreement, or promise causing the employee to expect such payments regularly; or (b) the payments are made pursuant to a bona fide profit-sharing plan or trust or bona fide thrift or savings plan, meeting the requirements of the Secretary of Labor set forth in appropriate regulation which he shall issue, having due regard among other relevant factors, to the extent to which the amounts paid to the employee are determined without regard to hours of work, production, or efficiency; or (c) the payments are talent fees (as such talent fees are defined and delimited by regulations of the Secretary) paid to performers, including announcers, on radio and television programs;
</P>
<P>(4) Contributions irrevocably made by an employer to a trustee or third person pursuant to a bona fide plan for providing old age, retirement, life, accident, or health insurance or similar benefits for employees;
</P>
<P>(5) Extra compensation provided by a premium rate paid for certain hours worked by the employee in any day or workweek because such hours are hours worked in excess of eight in a day or in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under subsection (a) or in excess of the employee's normal working hours or regular working hours, as the case may be;
</P>
<P>(6) Extra compensation provided by a premium rate paid for work by the employee on Saturdays, Sundays, holidays, or regular days of rest, or on the sixth or seventh day of the workweek, where such premium rate is not less than one and one-half times the rate established in good faith for like work performed in nonovertime hours on other days; or
</P>
<P>(7) Extra compensation provided by a premium rate paid to the employee, in pursuance of an applicable employment contract or collective-bargaining agreement, for work outside of the hours established in good faith by the contract or agreement as the basic, normal, or regular workday (not exceeding 8 hours) or workweek (not exceeding the maximum workweek applicable to such employee under subsection (a), where such premium rate is not less than one and one-half times the rate established in good faith by the contract or agreement for like work performed during such workday or workweek.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>This definition, which is discussed at length in part 778 of this chapter, also governs the computation of “regular rate” for purposes of the special overtime exemption of certain commission employees of retail or service establishments which is contained in section 7(i) of the Act and is discussed in subpart E of this part.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.19   Employer, employee, and employ.</HEAD>
<P>The Act's major provisions impose certain requirements and prohibitions on every “employer” subject to their terms. The employment by an “employer” of an “employee” is, to the extent specified in the Act, made subject to minimum wage and overtime pay requirements and to prohibitions against the employment of oppressive child labor. The Act provides its own definitions of “employer,” “employee”, and “employ”, under which “economic reality” rather than “technical concepts” determines whether there is employment subject to its terms (<I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Whitaker House Cooperative,</I> 366 U.S. 28; <I>United States</I> v. <I>Silk,</I> 331 U.S. 704; <I>Rutherford Food Corp.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 331 U.S. 722). An “employer”, as defined in section 3(d) of the Act, “includes any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee but shall not include the United States or any State or political subdivision of a State (except with respect to employees of a State or a political subdivision thereof, employed (a) in a hospital, institution, or school referred to in the last sentence of subsection (r) of this section, or (b) in the operation of a railway or carrier referred to in such sentence), or any labor organization (other than when acting as an employer), or anyone acting in the capacity of officer or agent of such labor organization”. An “employee”, as defined in section 3(e) of the Act, “includes any individual employed by an employer” (except that the term is further qualified for purposes of counting man-days of employment by an employer in agriculture). “Employ”, as used in the Act, is defined in section 3(g) to include “to suffer or permit to work”. It should be noted, as explained in the interpretative bulletin on general coverage, part 776 of this chapter, that in appropriate circumstances two or more employers may be jointly responsible for compliance with the statutory requirements applicable to employment of a particular employee. It should also be noted that “employer”, “enterprise”, and “establishment” are not synonymous terms, as used in the Act. An employer may have an enterprise with more than one establishment, or he may have more than one enterprise, in which he employs employees within the meaning of the Act. Also, there may be different employers who employ employees in a particular establishment or enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.20   Person.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act (including the definition of “enterprise” set forth in § 779.21), “person” is defined as meaning “an individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, or any organized group of persons.” (Act, section 3(a).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.21   Enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(r) of the Act provides, in pertinent part that “enterprise” as used in the Act:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>means the related activities performed (either through unified operation or common control) by any person or persons for a common business purpose, and includes all such activities whether performed in one or more establishments or by one or more corporate or other organizational units including departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements, but shall not include the related activities performed for such enterprise by an independent contractor: <I>Provided,</I> That, within the meaning of this subsection, a retail or service establishment which is under independent ownership shall not be deemed to be so operated or controlled as to be other than a separate and distinct enterprise by reason of any arrangement, which includes, but is not necessarily limited to, an agreement, (a) that it will sell, or sell only, certain goods specified by a particular manufacturer, distributor, or advertiser, or (b) that it will join with other such establishments in the same industry for the purpose of the collective purchasing, or (c) that it will have the exclusive right to sell the goods or use the brand name of a manufacturer, distributor, or advertiser within a specified area, or by reason of the fact that it occupies premises leased to it by a person who also leases premises to other retail or service establishments * * *</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The scope and application of this definitional language is discussed in subpart C of this part.
</FP>
<P>(b) The 1966 amendments added two clauses to the above language of the definition to make it clear that “the activities performed by any person or persons” will be regarded as performed for a business purpose if they are performed:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(1) In connection with the operation of a hospital, an institution primarily engaged in the care of the sick, the aged, the mentally ill or defective who reside on the premises of such institution, a school for mentally or physically handicapped or gifted children, an elementary or secondary school, or an institution of higher education (regardless of whether or not such hospital, institution, or school is public or private or operated for profit or not for profit); or
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with the operation of a street, suburban, or interurban electric railway, or local trolley or motorbus carrier, if the rates and services of such railway or carrier are subject to regulation by a State or local agency (regardless of whether or not such railway or carrier is public or private or operated for profit or not for profit).</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>A discussion of the scope and application of this added language is contained in part 776 of this chapter.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.22   Enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.</HEAD>
<P>The portions of the former and present definitions of “enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” (contained in section 3(s) of the Act prior to the 1966 amendments and as amended in 1966) which are important to a determination of the application of provisions of the Act to employees employed by retailers generally and by certain retail or service establishments are as follows:
</P>
<FP>Previous coverage (prior to the 1966 amendments):
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(s) Enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce means any of the following in the activities of which employees are so engaged, including employees handling, selling, or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person:
</P>
<P>(1) Any such enterprise which has one or more retail or service establishments if the annual gross volume of sales of such enterprise is not less than $1 million, exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated and if such enterprise purchases or receives goods for resale that move or have moved across State lines (not in deliveries from the reselling establishment) which amount in total annual volume to $250,000 or more;
</P><STARS/>
<P>(5) Any gasoline service establishment if the annual gross volume of sales of such establishment is not less than $250,000, exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated:
</P>
<P><I>Provided,</I> That an establishment shall not be considered to be an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, or a part of an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, and the sales of such establishment shall not be included for the purpose of determining the annual gross volume of sales of any enterprise for the purpose of this subsection, if the only employees of such establishment are the owner thereof or persons standing in the relationship of parent, spouse, or child of such owner.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>New coverage (beginning with the 1966 amendments):
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(s) <I>Enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce</I> means an enterprise which has employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, including employees handling, selling, or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person, and which:
</P>
<P>(1) During the period February 1, 1967, through January 31, 1969, is an enterprise whose annual gross volume of sales made or business done is not less than $500,000 (exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated) or is a gasoline service establishment whose annual gross volume of sales is not less than $250,000 (exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated), and beginning February 1, 1969, is an enterprise whose annual gross volume of sales made or business done is not less than $250,000 (exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated);
</P><STARS/>
<P>(4) Is engaged in the operation of a hospital, an institution primarily engaged in the care of the sick, the aged, the mentally ill or defective who reside on the premises of such institution, a school for mentally or physically handicapped or gifted children, an elementary or secondary school, or an institution of higher education (regardless of whether or not such hospital, institution, or school is public or private or operated for profit or not for profit).
</P>
<P>Any establishment which has as its only regular employees the owner thereof or the parent, spouse, child, or other member of the immediate family of such owner shall not be considered to be an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce or a part of such an enterprise, and the sales of such establishment shall not be included for the purpose of determining the annual gross volume of sales of any enterprise for the purpose of this subsection.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.23   Establishment.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act, the term <I>establishment,</I> which is not specially defined therein, refers to a “distinct physical place of business” rather than to “an entire business or enterprise” which may include several separate places of business. This is consistent with the meaning of the term as it is normally used in business and in government, is judicially settled, and has been recognized in the Congress in the course of enactment of amendatory legislation (<I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. Bekins Van &amp; Storage Co., 352 U.S. 1027; 95 Cong. Rec. 12505, 12579, 14877; H. Rept. No. 1453, 81st Cong., 1st Sess., p. 25). As appears more fully elsewhere in this part, this is the meaning of the term as used in sections 3(r), 3(s), 6(d), 7(i), 13(a), 13(b), and 14 of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.1.255.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.24   Retail or service establishment.</HEAD>
<P>In the 1949 amendments to the Act, the term “retail or service establishment”, which was not previously defined in the law, was given a special definition for purposes of the Act. The legislative history of the 1961 and the 1966 amendments to the Act, which use the same term in a number of provisions relating to coverage and exemptions, indicates that no different meaning was intended by the term “retail or service establishment” as used in the new provisions from that already established by the Act's definition. On the contrary, the existing definition was reenacted in section 13(a)(2) of the Act as amended in 1961 and 1966 as follows: “A ‘retail or service establishment’ shall mean an establishment 75 per centum of whose annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services (or of both) is not for resale and is recognized as retail sales or services in the particular industry”. The application of this definition, which has had much judicial construction since its original enactment, is considered at length in subpart D of this part. As is apparent from the quoted language, not every establishment which engages in retail selling of goods or services will constitute a “retail or service establishment” within the meaning of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Employment to Which the Act May Apply: Basic Principles and Individual Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="256" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.256" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Principles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.256.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.100   Basic coverage in general.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in specific exemptions, the minimum wage, maximum hours, overtime pay, equal pay, and child labor provisions of the Act have applied and continue to apply subsequent to the 1966 amendments to employees who are individually engaged in interstate commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce as these terms are defined in the Act and to employees in certain enterprises described in the amended section 3(s) which were covered under section 3(s) of the Act prior to the amendments. Through the broadening of the definition of a covered enterprise the Act's coverage was extended to additional employees because of their employment in certain enterprises beginning February 1, 1967, and in certain other enterprises beginning February 1, 1969. Such covered enterprises are described in section 3(s) as enterprises engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce and further described in sections 3(s) (1) through (4) of the amended Act. A detailed discussion of the coverage of employees in those enterprises covered under the prior and amended Act of interest to the retail industry is contained in subpart C of this part. The employer must comply with the minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Act with respect to all employees who are covered either because they are individually engaged in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce, or because of their employment in an enterprise covered under the prior or amended enterprise definition of the Act, except those who may be denied one or both of these benefits by virtue of some specific exemption provision of the Act. Of special interest to the retailer in a covered enterprise is the exemption from the minimum wage and overtime provisions for certain small retail or service establishments of such enterprise. This exemption is applicable under the conditions and subject to exceptions stated in section 13(a) (2) of the Act to any retail or service establishment which has an annual dollar volume of sales of less than $250,000 (exclusive of certain excise taxes) even if the establishment is a part of an enterprise that is covered by the Act. This exemption and other exemptions of particular interest to retailers and their employees are discussed in subparts D and E of this part. The child labor provisions as they apply to retail or service businesses are discussed in subpart F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.256.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.101   Guiding principles for applying coverage and exemption provisions.</HEAD>
<P>It is clear that Congress intended the Fair Labor Standards Act to be broad in its scope. “Breadth of coverage is vital to its mission.” (<I>Powell</I> v. <I>U.S. Cartridge Co.,</I> 339 U.S. 497.) An employer who claims an exemption under the Act has the burden of showing that it applies. (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>General Industries Co.,</I> 330 U.S. 545; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52.) Conditions specified in the language of the Act are “explicit prerequisites to exemption.” (<I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388.) “The details with which the exemptions in this Act have been made preclude their enlargement by implication.” (<I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill,</I> 322 U.S. 60; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254.) Exemptions provided in the Act “are to be narrowly construed against the employer seeking to assert them” and their application limited to those who come plainly and unmistakably within their terms and spirit; this restricted or narrow construction of the exemptions is necessary to carry out the broad objectives for which the Act was passed. (<I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> supra; <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> supra; <I>Calaf</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 127 F. 2d 934; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.256.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.102   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The Act has applied since 1938 and continues to apply to all employees, not specifically exempted, who are engaged: (a) In interstate or foreign commerce or (b) in the production of goods for such commerce, which is defined to include any closely related process or occupation directly essential to such production. (See §§ 779.12-779.16 for definitions governing the scope of this coverage.) Prior to the 1961 amendments a retailer was not generally concerned with the coverage provisions as they applied to his individual employees because retail or service establishments ordinarily were exempt. However, in some cases such coverage was applicable as where employees were employed in central offices of warehouses of retail chain store systems and, therefore, were not exempt. (See § 779.118.) Some exemptions for retail or service establishments were narrowed as a result of the 1961 amendments and further revised or eliminated by the 1966 amendments effective February 1, 1967. Therefore, discussion of the individual coverage provisions of the Act is pertinent and this subpart will discuss briefly the principles of such coverage with particular reference to employment in the retail or service trades. A more comprehensive discussion with respect to employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce may be found in part 776 of this chapter, the general coverage bulletin.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="257" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employees Engaged in Commerce or in the Production of Goods for Commerce</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.103   Employees “engaged in commerce.”</HEAD>
<P>Employees are “engaged in commerce” within the meaning of the Act when they are performing work involving or related to the movement of persons or things (whether tangibles or intangibles, and including information and intelligence) among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof. (The statutory definition of commerce is contained in section 3(b) of the Act and is set forth in § 779.12.) The courts have made it clear that this includes every employee employed in the channels of such commerce or in activities so closely related to this commerce, as to be considered a part of it as a practical matter. (Court cases are cited in the discussion of this term in §§ 776.9-776.13 of this chapter). Typically, but not exclusively, employees engaged in interstate or foreign commerce include employees in distributing industries, such as wholesaling or retailing, who sell, handle or otherwise work on goods moving in interstate commerce as well as workers who order, receive, pack, ship, or keep records of such goods; clerical and other workers who regularly use the mails, telephone or telegraph for interstate communication; and employees who regularly travel across State lines while working.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.104   Employees “engaged in the production of goods for commerce.”</HEAD>
<P>The activities constituting “production” within the meaning of the phrase “engaged in * * * the production of goods for commerce” are defined in section 3(j) of the Act. (The statutory definition is set forth in § 779.13.) The handling or otherwise working on goods intended for shipment out of the State, directly or indirectly, in engagement in the “production” of goods for commerce. Thus, employees in retail stores who sell, pack, or otherwise work on goods which are to be shipped or delivered outside of the State are engaged in the production of goods for commerce. Typically, but not exclusively, employees engaged in the production of goods for interstate or foreign commerce, include those who work in manufacturing, processing and distributing establishments, including wholesale or retail establishments, that produce goods for interstate or foreign commerce. This includes everyone, including office, management, sales and shipping personnel, and maintenance, custodial and protective employees, whether they are employed by the producer or an intermediary. Employees may be covered even if their employer does not ship his goods directly in such commerce. The goods may leave the State through another firm. The workers may produce goods which become a part or ingredient of goods shipped in interstate or foreign commerce by another firm. Also covered are workers who are engaged in a closely related process or occupation directly essential to such production. (See § 779.105.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.105   Employees engaged in activities “closely related” and “directly essential” to the production of goods for commerce.</HEAD>
<P>Some employees are covered because their work, although not actually a part of such production, is “closely related” and “directly essential” to it. This group of employees includes bookkeepers, stenographers, clerks, accountants and auditors and other office and white collar workers, and employees doing payroll, timekeeping and time study work for the producer of goods; employees in the personnel, labor relations, advertising, promotion, and public relations activities of the producing enterprise; work instructors for the producer; employees maintaining, servicing, repairing or improving the buildings, machinery, equipment, vehicles or other facilities used in the production of goods for commerce, and such custodial and protective employees as watchmen, guards, firemen, patrolmen, caretakers, stockroom workers, and warehousemen; and transportation workers bringing supplies, materials, or equipment to the producer's premises, removing waste materials therefrom, or transporting materials or other goods, or performing such other transportation activities, as the needs of production may require. These examples are illustrative, rather than exhaustive, of the group of employees of a producer who are “engaged in the production of goods for commerce” by reason of performing activities closely related and directly essential to such production.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.106   Employees employed by an independent employer.</HEAD>
<P>Where the work of an employee would be closely related and directly essential to the production of goods for commerce if he were employed by a producer of the goods, the mere fact that the employee is employed by an independent employer will not justify a different answer. (See §§ 776.17(c) and 776.19 of this chapter.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.107" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.107   Goods defined.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>goods</I> is defined in section 3(i) of the Act and has a well established meaning under the Act since it has been contained in the statute from the date of its enactment in 1938. A comprehensive statement of the meaning of the term “goods” is contained in part 776 of this chapter, which also cites the court cases in which the term was construed. The statutory definition of “goods” is set forth in § 779.14. It will be observed that the term “goods” includes any part or ingredient of the goods. Also that “goods” as defined in the Act are not limited to commercial goods, or articles of trade, or, indeed, to tangible property, but include “articles or subjects of commerce of any character.” Thus telegraphic messages have been held to be “goods” within the meaning of the Act (<I>Western Union Tel. Co.</I> v. <I>Lenroot,</I> 323 U.S. 490). Some of the “articles or subjects of commerce” which fall within the definition of “goods” include written materials such as newspapers, magazines, brochures, pamphlets, bulletins, and announcements; written reports, fiscal and other statements and accounts, correspondence, and other documents; advertising, motion pictures, newspaper and radio copy; art work and manuscripts for publication; sample books, letterheads, envelopes, shipping tags, labels, checkbooks, blankbooks, book covers, advertising circulars, and wrappers and other packaging materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.108" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.108   Goods produced for commerce.</HEAD>
<P>Goods are “produced for commerce” if they are “produced, manufactured, mined, handled or in any other manner worked on” in any State for sale, trade, transportation, transmission, shipment or delivery, to any place outside thereof. Goods are produced for commerce where the producer intends, hopes, expects, or has reason to believe that the goods or any unsegregated part of them will move (in the same or in an altered form or as a part or ingredient of other goods) in interstate or foreign commerce. If such movement of the goods in commerce can reasonably be anticipated by the producer when the goods are produced, it makes no difference whether he himself or the person to whom the goods are transferred puts the goods in interstate or foreign commerce. The fact that goods do move in interstate or foreign commerce is strong evidence that the producer intended, hoped, expected, or had reason to believe that they would so move. Goods produced to serve the movement of interstate commerce within the same State are also produced for commerce within the meaning of the Act, as explained in part 776 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.109" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.109   Amount of activities which constitute engaging in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.</HEAD>
<P>The Act makes no distinction as to the percentage, volume, or amount of activities of either the employee or the employer which constitute engaging in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. However, an employee whose in-commerce or production activities are isolated, sporadic, or occasional and involve only insubstantial amounts of goods will not be considered “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” by virtue of that fact alone. The law is settled that every employee whose activities in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, even though small in amount are regular and recurring, is considered “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.110   Employees in retailing whose activities may bring them under the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The discussion in §§ 779.103 to 779.109 included general reference to types of employees in the retail or service field whose individual activities constitute engagement in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce within the meaning of the Act. There are many classes of employees customarily employed by retail or service establishments or enterprises whose individual activities ordinarily constitute engagement in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce within the meaning of the Act. The groups of employees discussed in the following §§ 779.111 to 779.118, are illustrative only. There are other employees whose activities may be covered; also there are other activities performed by the groups discussed which would result in individual coverage under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.111" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.111   Buyers and their assistants.</HEAD>
<P>Buyers and their assistants, employed by retail businesses, as a regular part of their duties, generally travel across State lines, or use the mails, telegraph, or telephone for interstate communication to order goods; or they regularly send or receive, across State lines, written reports, messages or other documents. These activities of such employees constitute engagement “in commerce” within the meaning of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.112" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.112   Office employees.</HEAD>
<P>Similarly office employees of retail businesses who regularly and recurrently check records of and make payments for goods shipped to their employer from outside of the State, or regularly and recurrently keep records of or otherwise work on the accounts of their employer's out-of-State customers, or who regularly and recurrently prepare or mail letters, checks, reports or other documents to out-of-State points, are engaged both in commerce and in the production of goods for commerce within the meaning of the Act. Likewise, timekeepers who regularly and recurrently prepare and maintain payrolls for and pay employees who are engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce are themselves engaged in covered activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.113" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.113   Warehouse and stock room employees.</HEAD>
<P>Warehouse and stock room employees of retail businesses who regularly and recurrently engage in the loading or unloading of goods moving in commerce, or who regularly and recurrently handle, pack or otherwise work on goods that are destined to out-of-State points are engaged in covered activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.114" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.114   Transportation employees.</HEAD>
<P>Transportation employees of retail businesses, such as truck drivers or truck drivers' helpers, who regularly and recurrently cross State lines to make deliveries or to pick up goods for their employer; or who regularly and recurrently pick up at rail heads, air, bus or other such terminals goods originating out of State, or deliver to such terminals goods destined to points out of State; and dispatchers who route, plan or otherwise control such out-of-State deliveries and pick ups, are engaged in interstate commerce within the meaning of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.115   Watchmen and guards.</HEAD>
<P>Watchmen or guards employed by retail businesses who protect the warehouses, workshops, or store premises where goods moving in interstate or foreign commerce are kept or where goods are produced for such commerce, are covered under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.116" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.116   Custodial and maintenance employees.</HEAD>
<P>Custodial and maintenance employees who perform maintenance and custodial work on the machinery, equipment, or premises where goods regularly are produced for commerce or from which goods are regularly shipped in interstate commerce are engaged in covered activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.117" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.117   Salesmen and sales clerks.</HEAD>
<P>A salesman or a sales clerk who regularly and recurrently takes orders for, or sells, or selects merchandise for delivery to points outside the State or which are to be shipped or delivered to a customer from a point outside the State, i.e. drop shipments; or who wraps, packs, addresses or otherwise prepares goods for out-of-State shipments is performing covered activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.118" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.118   Employees providing central services for multi-unit organizations.</HEAD>
<P>Employees providing central services for a multiunit organization may be engaged both “in commerce” and “in the production of goods for commerce” within the meaning of the Act. For example, employees engaged in work relating to the coordinated purchasing, warehousing and distribution (and in the administrative and clerical work relating to such activities) for various retail units of a chain are covered under the Act. (See <I>Phillips Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> 317 U.S. 564, affirming, 128 F. 2d 935 (CA-5); <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>C. &amp; P. Stores,</I> 286 F. 2d 109 (CA-5); <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>E. G. Shinner &amp; Co.,</I> Inc., 221 F. 2d 260 (CA-7); <I>Donovan</I> v. <I>Shell Oil Co.,</I> 168 F. 2d 776 (CA-8).) In addition, employees who regularly and recurrently correspond and maintain records of activities of out-of-State stores and such employees as traveling auditors, inventory men, window display men, etc., who regularly travel from State to State in the performance of their duties are covered under the Act. (See <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kroger Co.,</I> 248 F. 2d 935 (CA-8).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.119" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.2.257.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.119   Exempt occupations.</HEAD>
<P>Of course, it should be noted that although employees may be engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce within the meaning of the Act, they may be exempt from the Act's minimum wage or overtime provisions (or both). For a complete list of such exemptions the Act should be consulted. Those exemptions, however, which are of particular interest to employers and employees in the retail field are discussed in subparts D, E, and F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Employment to Which the Act May Apply; Enterprise Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="258" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.258" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enterprise; the Business Unit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.258.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.200   Coverage expanded by 1961 and 1966 amendments.</HEAD>
<P>The 1961 amendments for the first time since the enactment of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 provided that all employees in a particular business unit are covered by the Act. Prior to the 1961 amendments each employee's coverage depended on whether that employee's activities were in commerce or constituted the production of goods for commerce. All employees employed in an “enterprise” described in section 3(s)(1) through (5) of the Act as it was amended in 1961 and section 3(s)(1) through (4) of the Act as amended in 1966 are also covered. Thus, it is necessary to consider the meaning of the term “enterprise” as used in the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.258.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.201   The place of the term “enterprise” in the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The term “enterprise” is defined in section 3(r) of the Act and, wherever used in the Act, is governed by this definition. (§ 779.21(a) provides that portion of the definition of “enterprise” which is pertinent with respect to retail and service enterprises.) The term is a key in determining the applicability of the Act to these businesses. The “enterprise” is the unit for determining whether the conditions of section 3(s)(1) through (5) of the prior Act and section 3(s)(1) through (4) of the amended Act, including, where applicable, the requisite dollar volume are met. The “enterprise” is also the unit for determining which employees not individually covered by the Act are entitled to the minimum wage, overtime, and equal pay benefits, and to the child labor protection, under sections 6, 7, and 12 of the Act. In general, if the “enterprise” comes within any of the categories described in section 3(s)(1) through (5) of the prior Act or section 3(s)(1) through (4) of the amended Act, all employees employed in the “enterprise” are covered by the Act and, regardless of their duties, are entitled to the Act's benefits unless a specific exemption applies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.202" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.258.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.202   Basic concepts of definition.</HEAD>
<P>Under the definition, the “enterprise” consists of “the related activities performed * * * for a common business purpose.” All of the activities comprising the enterprise must be “related.” Activities serving a single business purpose may be related, although different, but other activities which are not related are not included in the enterprise. The definition makes clear that the enterprise includes all such related activities which are performed through “unified operation” or “common control.” This is true even if they are performed by more than one person, or in more than one establishment, or by more than one corporate or other organizational unit. Specifically included, as a part of the enterprise, are departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements. On the other hand, the definition excludes from the “enterprise” activities only performed “for” the enterprise rather than as a part of it by an independent contractor even if they are related to the activities of the enterprise. Also, it makes clear that a truly independent retail or service establishment does not become a part of a larger enterprise merely because it enters into certain types of franchise or collective purchasing arrangements or because it has a common landlord with other such retail establishments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.203" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.258.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.203   Distinction between “enterprise,” “establishment,” and “employer.”</HEAD>
<P>The coverage, exemption and other provisions of the Act depend, in part, on the scope of the terms <I>employer, establishment,</I> or <I>enterprise.</I> As explained more fully in part 776 of this chapter, these terms are not synonymous. The term <I>employer</I> has been defined in the Act since its inception and has a well established meaning. As defined in section 3(d), it includes, with certain stated exceptions, any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee. (See § 779.19.) The term <I>establishment</I> means a <I>distinct physical place of business</I> rather than <I>an entire business or enterprise.</I> (See § 779.23.) The term <I>enterprise</I> was not used in the Act prior to the 1961 amendments, but the careful definition and the legislative history of the 1961 and 1966 amendments provide guidance as to its meaning and application. As defined in the Act, the term <I>enterprise</I> is roughly descriptive of a business rather than of an establishment or of an employer although on occasion the three may coincide. The enterprise may consist of a single establishment (see § 779.204(a)) which may be operated by one or more employers; or it may be composed of a number of establishments which may be operated by one or more employers (see § 779.204(b)). The enterprise is not necessarily coextensive with the entire business activities of an employer; a single employer may operate more than one enterprise (see § 779.204(c)). The Act treats as separate enterprises different businesses which are unrelated to each other even if they are operated by the same employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.204" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.258.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.204   Common types of “enterprise.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The single establishment business.</I> In the simplest type of organization—the entire business ordinarily is one enterprise. The entire business activity of the single owner-employer may be performed in one establishment, as in the typical independently owned and controlled retail store. In that case the establishment and the enterprise are one and the same. All of the activities of the store are “related” and are performed for a single business purpose and there is both unified operation and common control. The entire business is the unit for applying the statutory tests. If the coverage tests are met, all of the employees employed by the establishment are employed in the enterprise and will be entitled to the benefits of the Act unless otherwise exempt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The multiunit business.</I> In many cases, as in the typical chain of retail stores, one company conducts its single business in a number of establishments. All of the activities ordinarily are related and performed for one business purpose, the single company which owns the chain also controls the entire business, and the entire business is a single enterprise. The dollar volume of the entire business from all of its establishments is added together to determine whether the requisite dollar volume tests are met. If the coverage tests are met, all of the employees employed in the business will be entitled to the benefits of the Act unless otherwise exempt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complex business organizations.</I> In complex retail and service organizations, questions may arise as to whether certain activities are a part of a particular enterprise. In some cases one employer may operate several separate enterprises; in others, several employers may conduct their business activities in such a manner that they are part of a single enterprise. The answer, in each case, as to whether or not the “enterprise” includes certain activities will depend upon whether the particular activities are “related” to the business purpose of such enterprise and whether they are performed with its other activities through “unified operation” or “common control,” or whether, on the other hand, they are performed for a separate and distinct business purpose. As the Senate Report states,
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>related activities conducted by separate business entities will be considered a part of the same enterprise where they are joined either through unified operation or common control into a unified business system or economic unit to serve a common business purpose.
</P>
<FP>(S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 41; see also H. Rept. 1366, 89th Cong., 2d Sess., p. 9.) §§ 779.205 through 779.211 discuss the terms of the definition and may aid in making these determinations.</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="259" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.259" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Related Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.205" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.259.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.205   Enterprise must consist of “related activities.”</HEAD>
<P>The enterprise must consist of certain “related activities” performed for a common business purpose; activities which are not “related” are not a part of the enterprise even if performed by the same employer. Moreover, even if activities are “related” they may be excluded from the enterprise if they are performed only “for” the enterprise and not as a part of it by an independent contractor. This is discussed separately in § 779.206.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.206" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.259.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.206   What are “related activities.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Senate Report on the 1961 amendments states as follows, with respect to the meaning of related activities:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Within the meaning of this term, activities are “related” when they are the same or similar, such as those of the individual retail or service stores in a chain, or departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements. They are also “related” when they are auxiliary and service activities such as central office and warehousing activities and bookkeeping, auditing, purchasing, advertising and other services. Likewise, activities are “related” when they are part of a vertical structure such as the manufacturing, warehousing, and retailing of a particular product or products under unified operation or common control for a common business purpose. (Senate Report No. 145, 87th Cong., 1st Sess., Page 41.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Thus, activities will be regarded as “related” when they are the same or similar or when they are auxiliary or service activities such as warehousing, bookkeeping, purchasing, advertising, including, generally, all activities which are necessary to the operation and maintenance of the particular business. So also, all activities which are performed as a part of the unified business operation will be “related,” including, in appropriate cases, the manufacturing, warehousing, and distribution of its goods, the repair and maintenance of its equipment, machinery and its premises, and all other activities which are performed for the common business purpose of the enterprise. The Senate Report on the 1966 amendments makes it plain that related, even if somewhat different, business activities can frequently be part of the same enterprise, and that activities having a reasonable connection with the major purpose of an enterprise would be considered related. (Senate Report No. 1487, 89th Cong., 2d Sess., Page 7.) A more comprehensive discussion of “related activities” will be found in part 776 of this chapter.
</FP>
<P>(b) Generally, the answer to the question whether particular activities are “related” or not, will depend in each case upon whether the activities serve a business purpose common to all the activities of the enterprise, or whether they serve a separate and unrelated business purpose. For example, where a company operates retail or service establishments, and also engages in a separate and unrelated construction business, the construction activities will not be “related” and will constitute a separate enterprise if they are conducted independently and apart from the retail operations. Where, however, the retail and construction activities are conducted for a common business purpose, they may be “related,” and if they are performed through unified operation or common control, they will be a part of a single enterprise. Thus, a retail store enterprise may engage in construction activities as an additional outlet for building materials which it sells, or otherwise to serve its retail operations. It may act as its own contractor in constructing or reconstructing its own stores and related facilities. In such a case, the construction activities will be “related” activities. Other examples may also be cited. The answer in each case will necessarily depend upon all the facts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.207" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.259.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.207   Related activities in retail operations.</HEAD>
<P>In the case of an enterprise which has one or more retail or service establishments, all of the activities which are performed for the furtherance of the common business purpose of operating the retail or service establishments are “related activities.” It is not material that the enterprise sells different goods or provides different services, or that it operates separate retail or service establishments. As stated in the definition, the enterprise includes all related activities whether performed “in one or more establishments.” Since the activities performed by one retail or service establishment are the “same or similar” to the activities performed by another, they are, as such, “related activities.” (See Senate Report No. 145, 87th Cong. 1st Sess. p. 41.) For example, in operations of a single retailing business a drug store may sell a large variety of different products, and a grocery store may sell clothing and furniture and other goods. Clearly all of these activities are “related.” Similarly it is clear that all activities of a department store are “related activities,” even if the store sells a great variety of different types of goods and services and even if, as in some cases, the departmentalized business is conducted in more than one location, as where the department selling garden supplies or electrical appliances is located on separate premises. Whether on the same premises or at separate locations, the activities involved in retail selling of goods or services, of any type, are related activities and they will be considered one enterprise where they are performed, through unified operation or common control, for a common business purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.208" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.259.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.208   Auxiliary activities which are “related activities.”</HEAD>
<P>As stated in Senate Report No. 145, 87th Congress, 1st Session, cited in § 779.206, auxiliary and service activities, such as central office and warehousing activities and bookkeeping, auditing, purchasing, advertising and other similar services, also are “related activities.” When such activities are performed through unified operation or common control, for a common business purpose, they will be included in the enterprise. The following are some additional examples of auxiliary activities which are “related activities” and which may be included in the enterprise:
</P>
<P>(a) Credit rating and collection services;
</P>
<P>(b) Promotional activities including advertising, sign painting, display services, stamp redemptions, and prize contests; 
</P>
<P>(c) Maintenance and repair services of plant machinery and equipment including painting, decorating, and similar services;
</P>
<P>(d) Store or plant engineering, site location and related survey activities;
</P>
<P>(e) Detective, guard, watchmen, and other protective services;
</P>
<P>(f) Delivery services;
</P>
<P>(g) The operation of employee or customer parking lots;
</P>
<P>(h) The recruitment, hiring and training activities, and other managerial services;
</P>
<P>(i) Recreational and health facilities for customers or employees including eating and drinking facilities (note that employees primarily engaged in certain food service activities in retail establishments may be exempt from the overtime provisions under section 13(b)(18) of the Act if the specific conditions are met; see § 779.388);
</P>
<P>(j) The operation of employee benefit and insurance plans; and
</P>
<P>(k) Repair and alteration services on goods for sale or sold to customers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.209" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.259.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.209   Vertical activities which are “related activities.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Senate Report also states (see § 779.206 that activities are “related” when they are “part of a vertical structure such as the manufacturing, warehousing, and retailing of a particular product or products.” Where such activities are performed through unified operation or common control for a common business purpose they will be regarded as a part of the enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) Whether activities are vertically “related” activities and part of a single enterprise, or whether they constitute separate businesses are separate enterprises, depends upon the facts in each case. In all of these cases of so-called “vertical operations,” the determination whether the activities are “related,” depends upon the extent to which the various business activities, such as a wholesaling and retailing or manufacturing and retailing, are interrelated and interdependent and are performed to serve a business objective common to all. The mere fact that they are under common ownership is not, by itself, sufficient to bring them within the same enterprise. Thus, where a manufacturing business is carried on separately from and wholly independently of a retail business, with neither serving the business purpose of the other, they are separate businesses even if they are under common ownership. However, where the manufacturing operations are performed in substantial part for the purpose of distributing the goods through the retail stores, or the retail outlet serves to carry out a business purpose of the manufacturing plant, retailing and manufacturing will be “related” activities and performed for a “common business purpose,” and they will be a single enterprise if they are performed through unified operations or common control.
</P>
<P>(c) In these cases of “vertical operations” a practical judgment will be required to determine whether the activities are maintained and operated as separate and distinct businesses with different objectives or whether they, in fact, constitute a single integrated business enterprise. The answer necessarily will depend upon all the facts in each case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.210" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.259.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.210   Other activities which may be part of the enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An enterprise may perform certain activities that appear entirely foreign to its principal business but which may be a part of the enterprise because of the manner in which they are performed. In some cases these activities may be a very minor and incidental part of its business operations. For example a retail store may accept payments of utility bills, provide a notarial service, sell stamps, bus and theater tickets, or travellers' checks, etc. These and other activities may be entirely different from the enterprise's principal business but they may be performed on the same premises and by the same employees or otherwise under such circumstances as to be a part of the enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) Sometimes such activities are performed as an adjunct to the principal business to create good will or to attract customers. In other cases, the businessman may engage in them primarily for the additional revenue. Some such foreign activities may be conducted in a more elaborate manner, as where the enterprise operates a bus stop or a post office substation as an adjunct to a principal business such as a hotel or a retail store. Where in such a case the activities are performed in a physically separate “establishment” (see §§ 779.303-779.308) from the other business activities of the enterprise and are functionally operated as a separate business, separately controlled, with separate employees, separate records, and a distinct business objective of its own, they may constitute a separate enterprise. Where, however, such activities are intermingled with the other activities of the enterprise and have a reasonable connection to the same business purpose they will be a part of the enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.211" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.259.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.211   Status of activities which are not “related.”</HEAD>
<P>Activities which are not related even if performed by the same employer are not included as a part of the enterprise. The receipts from the unrelated activities will not be counted toward the annual dollar volume of sales or business under section 3(s) and the employees performing such unrelated activities will not be covered merely because they work for the same employer. Common ownership standing alone does not bring unrelated activities within the scope of the same enterprise. If, for example, one individual owns or controls a bank, a filing station, and a factory, the mere fact of common ownership will not make them one enterprise. However, if it appears that there is a reasonable relationship of all the activities to a single business purpose a different conclusion might be warranted. Activities which are not “related” will be treated separately for purposes of the tests contained in section 3(s)(1) through (5) of the prior Act and section 3(s)(1) through (4) of the amended Act. For example, in the case where a single company operates retail grocery stores and also engages in an unrelated business of constructing homes, one “enterprise” for purposes of section 3(s)(1) of both the prior and the amended Act will consist of the retail grocery stores and any activities related to them, and home construction activities will constitute a separate enterprise. The latter will not be included in determining whether the retail business enterprise meets the conditions of section 3(s)(1), and the construction employees will not be covered merely because the retail business is covered. The construction business will be considered separately under section 3(s)(4) of the poor Act and section 3(s)(3) of the amended Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="260" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.260" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Common Business Purpose</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.212" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.260.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.212   Enterprise must consist of related activities performed for a “common business purpose.”</HEAD>
<P>The related activities described in section 3(r) as included in the statutory enterprise are those performed for a “common business purpose.” (See the comprehensive discussion in 29 CFR part 776.) The term “common business purpose” as used in the definition does not have a narrow concept and is not intended to be limited to a single business establishment or a single type of business. As pointed out above, retailing, wholesaling and manufacturing may, under certain circumstances be engaged in for a “common business purpose.” (See § 779.209.) An example was also cited where retailing and construction were performed for a common business purpose. (See § 779.206.) On the other hand, it is clear that even a single individual or corporation may perform activities for different business purposes. (See § 779.211.) Thus the reports of the House of Representatives cite, as an example of this, the case of a single company which owns several retail apparel stores and is also engaged in the lumbering business. It concludes that these activities are not part of a single enterprise. (H. Rept. 75, 87th Cong.,1st Sess., p. 7 and H. Rept. 1366, 89th Cong. 2d Sess., p. 9.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.213" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.260.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.213   What is a common business purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Generally, the term “common business purpose” will encompass activities whether performed by one person or by more than one person, or corporation, or other business organization, which are directed to the same business objective or to similar objectives in which the group has an interest. The scope of the term “enterprise” encompasses a single business entity as well as a unified business system which performs related activities for a common business purpose. What is a “common business purpose” in any particular case involves a practical judgment based on the facts in the light of the statutory provisions and the legislative intent. The answer ordinarily will be readily apparent from the facts. The facts may show that the activities are related to a single business objective or that they are so operated or controlled as to form a part of a unified business system which is directed to a single business objective. In such cases, it will follow that they are performed for a common business purpose. Where, however, the facts show that the activities are not performed as a part of such enterprise but for an entirely separate and unrelated business, they will be considered performed for a different business purpose and will not be a part of that enterprise. The application of these principles is considered in more detail in part 776 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.214" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.260.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.214   “Business” purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The activities described in section 3(r) are included in an enterprise only when they are performed for a “business” purpose. Activities of eleemosynary, religious, or educational organization may be performed for a business purpose. Thus, where such organizations engage in ordinary commercial activities, such as operating a printing and publishing plant, the business activities will be treated under the Act the same as when they are performed by the ordinary business enterprise. (See <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Pilgrims Holiness Church Corp.,</I> 210 F. 2d 879 (CA-7); cert. den. 347 U.S. 1013.) However, the nonprofit educational, religious, and eleemosynary activities will not be included in the enterprise unless they are of the types which the last sentence of section 3(r), as amended in 1966, declares shall be deemed to be performed for a business purpose. Such activities were not regarded as performed for a business purpose under the prior Act and are not so considered under the Act as it was amended in 1966 except for those activities listed in the last sentence of amended section 3(r). (See § 779.21.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="261" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Unified Operation or Common Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.215" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.215   General scope of terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the definition related activities performed for a common business purpose will be a part of the enterprise when they are performed either through “unified operation” or “common control.” It should be noted that these conditions are stated in the alternative. Thus if it is established that the described activities are performed through “common control,” it is unnecessary to show that they are also performed through “unified operation,” although frequently both conditions may exist.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the definition the terms “unified operation” and “common control” refer to the performance of the “related activities.” They do not refer to the ownership of the activities. Although ownership may be a significant factor in determining control (see § 779.222), the related activities will be a part of the enterprise even if they are not under common ownership, so long as they are performed for a common business purpose through unified operation or common control. Further, under the definition the terms “unified operation” and “common control” refer to the performance only of the particular related activities and not to other activities which may be performed by the various persons, corporations, or other business organizations, comprising the enterprise. Thus where two or more individual or business organizations perform certain of their activities through unified operation or common control, these activities will be part of a single enterprise, assuming of course they are related activities performed for a common business purpose. Finally, the definition in section 3(r) makes clear that the described activities may be performed through unified operation or common control “in one or more establishments or by one or more corporate or other organizational units.” The Senate Report on the 1966 amendments makes the following comment with respect to this:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Also, the operations through substantial ownership or control of a number of firms engaged in similar types of business activities constitute, in the committee's view, related activities performed through unified operation or common control within the meaning of the definition of enterprise. The fact the firms are independently incorporated or physically separate or under the immediate direction of local management, as in <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Hardin,</I> 16 Wage Hour Cases 722 (N.D. Ala.), is not determinative of this question. (Sen. Rept. No. 1487, 89th Congress, 2nd session, page 7.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>But where, as in the case of a retail store owned by a partnership and another store owned by one of the partners providing similar goods or services, it appears that the activities of the separate stores have no functional interdependence and that they are separately conducted to serve the business purpose of the partnership on the one hand and the business purpose of the individual on the other hand, the requirement of performance “through common control” of “related activities” for a “common business purpose” may not be sufficiently met.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.216" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.216   Statutory construction of the terms.</HEAD>
<P>The terms “unified operation” and “common control” do not have a fixed legal or technical meaning. As used in the definition, these and other terms must be given an interpretation consistent with the Congressional intention to be ascertained from the context in which they are used, the legislation of which they form a part, and the legislative history. In extending coverage of the Act on an “enterprise” basis, the Congress intended, by the 1961 and 1966 amendments to cover, among others, business organizations and chain store systems which may perform their related activities through complex business arrangements or business structures, whether they perform their activities for a common business purpose through unified operation or through the retention or exercise of control. For these reasons, the definition of the term “enterprise” is stated in broad general terms. This legislative intent is evidenced both by the statements in the Committee Reports and by the definition itself, particularly the broad references to the inclusion in the “enterprise” of “all such activities” whether performed “in one or more establishments” or “by one or more corporate or other organizational units.” When the Act was amended in 1966 the Congress further broadened coverage by redefining an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce in section 3(s). (See § 779.22.) Where the Congress intended to exclude certain arrangements or activities from the “enterprise” it did so by specific provision under the prior and amended Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.217" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.217   “Unified operation” defined.</HEAD>
<P>Webster defines the word “unify” to mean “to cause to be one; to make into a unit; to unite.” The pertinent definition of “operation” is a method or way of operating, working or functioning. Since the term “unified operation” has reference to the method of performing the related activities, it means combining, uniting, or organizing their performance so that they are in effect a single business unit or an organized business system which is an economic unit directed to the accomplishment of a common business purpose. The term “unified operation” thus includes a business which may consist of separate segments but which is conducted or operated as a unit or as a single business for a common business purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.218" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.218   Methods to accomplish “unified operation.”</HEAD>
<P>There are many instances where several establishments, persons, corporations, or other business organizations, join together to perform some or all of their activities as a unified business or business system. They may accomplish such unification through agreements, franchises, grants, leases, or other arrangements which have the effect of aligning or integrating the activities of one company with the activities of others so that they constitute a single business or unified business system. Whether in any particular case the activities are performed through “unified operation” and have the effect of creating a single enterprise, will depend upon all the facts, including the manner in which the activities are performed, the agreements and arrangements which govern their performance, and the other relationships between the parties, considered in the light of the statutory provision and the legislative intent. (cf <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Wornom's Pharmacy</I> (E.D. Va.), 18 WH Cases 289, 365; 57 Labor Cases 32,006, 32,030.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.219" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.219   Unified operation may be achieved without common control or common ownership.</HEAD>
<P>The performance of related activities through “unified operation” to serve a common business purpose may be achieved without common control and without common ownership. In particular cases ownership or control of the related activities may be factors to be considered, along with all facts and circumstances, in determining whether the activities are performed through “unified operation.” It is clear from the definition that if the described activities are performed through unified operation they will be part of the enterprise whether they are performed by one company or by more than one corporate or other organizational unit. The term “unified operation” has reference particularly to enterprises composed of a number of separate companies as is clear in the quotation from the Senate Report in § 779.215. Where the related activities are performed by a single company, or under other single ownership, they will ordinarily be performed through “common control,” and the question of whether they are also performed through unified operation will not need to be decided. (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Barnes Grocer Co.,</I> 398 F. 2d 718 (C.A. 8).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.220" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.220   Unified operation may exist as to separately owned or controlled activities which are related.</HEAD>
<P>Whether there is unified operation of related activities will thus be of concern primarily in those cases where the related activities are separately owned or controlled but where, through arrangement, agreement or otherwise, they are so performed as to constitute a unified business system organized for a common business purpose. For example, a group of separately incorporated, separately owned companies, may agree to conduct their activities in such manner as to be for all intents and purposes a single business system except for the fact that the ownership and control of the individual segments of the business are retained, in part or in whole, by the individual companies comprising the unified business system. The various units may operate under a single trade name; construct their establishment to appear identical; use identical equipment; sell generally the same goods or provide the same type of services, and, in some cases, at uniform standardized prices; and in other respects appear to the persons utilizing their services or purchasing their goods as being the same business. They also may arrange for group purchasing and warehousing; for advertising as a single business; and for standardization of their records, as well as their credit, employment, and other business policies and practices. In such circumstances the activities may well be performed through “unified operation” sufficient to consider all of the related activities performed by the group of units as constituting one enterprise, despite the separate ownership of the various segments and despite the fact that the individual units or segments may retain control as to some or all of their own activities. That this is in accord with the congressional intent is plain, since where the Congress intended that such arrangements shall not bring a group of certain individual retail or service establishments into a single enterprise, provision to accomplish such exception was specifically included. (See § 779.226, discussing the proviso in section 3(r) with respect to certain franchise and other specified arrangements entered into between independently owned retail or service establishments and other businesses.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.221" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.221   “Common control” defined.</HEAD>
<P>Under the definition the “enterprise” includes all related activities performed through “common control” for a common business purpose. The word “control” may be defined as the act of fact of controlling; power or authority to control; directing or restraining domination. “Control” thus includes the power or authority to control. In relation to the performance of the described activities, the “control,” referred to in the definition in section 3(r) includes the power to direct, restrict, regulate, govern, or administer the performance of the activities. “Common” control includes the sharing of control and it is not limited to sole control or complete control by one person or corporation. “Common” control therefore exists where the performance of the described activities are controlled by one person or by a number of persons, corporations, or other organizational units acting together. This is clearly supported by the definition which specifically includes in the “enterprise” all such activities whether performed by “one or more corporate or other organizational units.” The meaning of “common control” is discussed comprehensively in part 776 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.222" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.222   Ownership as factor.</HEAD>
<P>As pointed out in § 779.215 “unified operation” and “common control” do not refer to the ownership of the described activities but only to their performance. It is clear, however, that ownership may be an important factor in determining whether the activities are performed through “unified operation or common control.” Thus common control may exist where there is common ownership. Where the right to control, one of the prerogatives of ownership, exists, there may be sufficient “control” to meet the requirements of the statute. Ownership, or sufficient ownership to exercise control, will be regarded as sufficient to meet the requirement of “common control.” Where there is such ownership, it is immaterial that some segments of the related activities may operate on a semiautonomous basis, superficially free of actual control, so long as the power to exercise control exists through such ownership. (See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Barnes Grocer Co.,</I> 398 F. 2d 718 (C.A. 8).) For example, a parent corporation may operate a chain of retail or service establishments which, for business reasons, may be divided into several geographic units. These units may have certain autonomy as to purchasing, marketing, labor relations, and other matters. They may be separately incorporated, and each unit may maintain its own records, including records of its profits or losses. All the units together, in such a case, will constitute a single enterprise with the parent corporation. They would constitute a single business organization under the “common control” of the parent corporation so long as they are related activities performed for a common business purpose. The common ownership in such cases provides the power to exercise the “control” referred to in the definition. It is clear from the Act and the legislative history that the Congress did not intend that such a chain organization should escape the effects of the law with respect to any segment of its business merely by separately incorporating or otherwise dividing the related activities performed for a common business purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.223" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.223   Control where ownership vested in individual or single organization.</HEAD>
<P>Ownership, sufficient to exercise “control,” of course, exists where total ownership is vested in a single person, family unit, partnership, corporation, or other single business organization. Ownership sufficient to exercise “control” exist also where there is more than 50 percent ownership of voting stock. (See <I>West</I> v. <I>Wal-Mart,</I> 264 F. Supp. 168 (W.D. Ark.).) But “control” may exist with much more limited ownership, and, in certain cases exists in the absence of any ownership. The mere ownership of stock in a corporation does not by itself establish the existence of the “control” referred to in the definition. The question whether the ownership in a particular case includes the right to exercise the requisite “control” will necessarily depend upon all the facts in the light of the statutory provisions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.224" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.261.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.224   Common control in other cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As stated in § 779.215 “common control” may exist with or without ownership. The actual control of the performance of the related activities is sufficient to establish the “control” referred to in the definition. In some cases an owner may actually relinquish his control to another, or by agreement or other arrangement, he may so restrict his right to exercise control as to abandon the control or to share the control of his business activities with other persons or corporations. In such a case, the activities may be performed under “common control.” In other cases, the power to control may be reserved through agreement or arrangement between the parties so as to vest the control of the activities of one business in the hands of another.
</P>
<P>(b) Activities are considered to be performed under “common control” even if, because of the particular methods of operation, the power to control is only seldom used, as where the business has been in operation for a long time without change in methods of operation and practically no actual direction is necessary; also common control may exist where the control, although rarely visibly exercised, is evidenced by the fact that mere suggestions are adopted readily by the business being controlled.
</P>
<P>(c) In the retail industry, particularly, there are many instances where, for business reasons, related activities performed by separate companies are so unified or controlled as to constitute a single enterprise. A common example, specifically named in the definition, is the leased department. This and other examples are discussed in §§ 779.225 through 779.235.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="262" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Leased Departments, Franchise and Other Business Arrangements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.225" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.225   Leased departments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As stated in section 3(r) of the enterprise includes “departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements.” This statutory provision is based on the fact that ordinarily the activities of such leased departments are related to the activities of the establishment in which they are located, and they are performed for a common business purpose either through “unified operation” or “common control.” A general discussion will be found in part 776 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) In the ordinary case, a retail or service establishment may control many of the operations of a leased department therein and unify its operation with its own. Thus, they may operate under a common trade name: The host establishment may determine, or have the power to determine, the leased department's space location, the type of merchandise it will sell, its pricing policy, its hours of operation and some or all of its hiring, firing and other personnel policies; advertising, adjustment and credit operations, may be unified, and insurance, taxes, and other matters may be included as a part of the total operations of the establishment. Some or all of these and other functions, which are the normal prerogatives of an independent businessman, may be controlled or unified with the store's other activities in such a way as to constitute a single enterprise under the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Since the definition specifically includes in the “enterprise,” for the purpose of this Act, “departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements,” any such department will be considered a part of the host establishment's enterprise in the absence of special facts and circumstances warranting a different conclusion.
</P>
<P>(d) Whether, in a particular case, the relationship is such as to constitute the lessee's operation to be a separate establishment of a different enterprise rather than a “leased department” of the host establishment as described in the definition, will depend upon all the facts including the agreements and arrangements between the parties as well as the manner in which the operations are conducted. If, for example, the facts show that the lessee occupies a physically separate space with (or even without) a separate entrance, and operates under a separate name, with his own separate employees and records, and in other respects conducts his business independently of the lessor's, the lessee may be operating a separate establishment or place of business of his own and the relationship of the parties may be only that of landlord and tenant. In such a case, the lessee's operation will not be regarded as a “leased department” and will not be included in the same enterprise with the lessor.
</P>
<P>(e) The employees of a leased department would not be covered on an enterprise basis if such leased department is located in an establishment which is not itself a covered enterprise or part of a covered enterprise. Likewise, the applicability of exemptions for certain retail or service establishments from the Act's minimum wage or overtime pay provisions, or both, to employees of a leased department would depend upon the character of the establishment in which the leased department is located. Other sections of this subpart discuss the coverage of leased retail and service departments in more detail while subpart D of this part explains how exemptions for certain retail and service establishments apply to leased department employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.226" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.226   Exception for an independently owned retail or service establishment under certain franchise and other arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>While certain franchise and other arrangements may operate to bring the one to whom the franchise is granted into another enterprise (see § 779.232), section 3(r) contains a specific exception for certain arrangements entered into by a retail or service establishment which is under independent ownership. The specific exception in section 3(r) reads as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Provided,</I> That, within the meaning of this subsection, a retail or service establishment which is under independent ownership shall not be deemed to be so operated or controlled as to be other than a separate and distinct enterprise by reason of any arrangement, which includes, but is not necessarily limited to, an agreement, (1) that it will sell, or sell only, certain goods specified by a particular manufacturer, distributor, or advertiser, (2) that it will join with other such establishments in the same industry for the purpose of collective purchasing, or (3) that it will have the exclusive right to sell the goods or use the brand name of a manufacturer, distributor, or advertiser within a specified area, or by reason of the fact that it occupies premises leased to it by a person who also leases premises to other retail or service establishments.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.227" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.227   Conditions which must be met for exception.</HEAD>
<P>This exception, in accordance with its specific terms, will apply to exclude an establishment from enterprise coverage only if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The establishment must be a “retail or service establishment” as this term is defined in section 13(a)(2) of the Act (see discussion of this term in §§ 779.312 and 779.313); and
</P>
<P>(b) The retail or service establishment must not be an “enterprise” which is large enough to come within the scope of section 3(s) of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(c) The retail or service establishment must be under independent ownership.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.228" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.228   Types of arrangements contemplated by exception.</HEAD>
<P>If the retail or service establishment meets the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (c) of § 779.227, it may enter into the following arrangements without becoming a part of the larger enterprise, that is, without losing its status as a “separate and distinct enterprise” to which section 3(s) would not otherwise apply:
</P>
<P>(a) Any arrangement, whether by agreement, franchise or otherwise, that it will sell, or sell only certain goods specified by a particular manufacturer, distributor, or advertiser.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such arrangement that it will have the exclusive right to sell the goods or use the brand name of a manufacturer, distributor, or advertiser within a specified area.
</P>
<P>(c) Any such arrangement by which it will join with other similar retail or service establishments in the same industry for the purpose of collective purchasing. Where an agreement for “collective purchasing” is involved, further requirements are imposed, namely, that all of the other establishments joining in the agreement must be retail or service establishments under independent ownership, and that all of the establishments joining in the collective purchasing arrangement must be “in the same industry.” This has reference to such arrangements by a group of grocery stores, or by some other trade group in the retail industry.
</P>
<P>(d) Any arrangement whereby the establishment's premises are leased from a person who also leases premises to other retail or service establishments. In connection with this rental arrangement, the Senate Report cites as an example the retail establishment which rents its premises from a shopping center operator (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 41). It is clear that this exception was not intended to apply to the usual leased department in an establishment, which is specifically included within the larger enterprise under the definition of section 3(r). (See discussion under § 779.225.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.229" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.229   Other arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to those arrangements specifically described in the proviso contained in the definition, an independently owned retail or service establishment will not be considered to be other than a separate and distinct enterprise, if other arrangements the establishment makes do not have the effect of bringing the establishment within a larger enterprise. Whether or not other arrangements have such an effect will necessarily depend upon all the facts. The Senate Report makes the following observations with respect to this:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Thus the mere fact that a group of independently owned and operated stores join together to combine their purchasing activities or to run combined advertising will not for these reasons mean that their activities are performed through unified operation or common control and they will not for these reasons be considered a part of the same “enterprise.” This is also the case in food retailing because of the great extent to which local independent food store operators have joined together in many phases of their business. While maintaining their stores as independently owned units, they have affiliated together not just for the purchasing of merchandise, but also for providing numerous other services such as (1) central warehousing; (2) advertising; (3) sales promotions; (4) managerial advice; (5) store engineering; (6) accounting systems; (7) site locations; and (8) hospitalization and life insurance protection. (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 42.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The report continues with the following observations:
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Whether such arrangements bring the establishment within the franchisor's, lessor's, or grantor's “enterprise” is a question to be determined on all the facts. The facts may show that the arrangements reserve the necessary right of control in the grantor or unify the operations among the separate “franchised” establishments so as to create an economic unity of related activities for a common business purpose. In that case, the “franchised” establishment will be considered a part of the same “enterprise.” For example, whether a franchise, lease, or other contractual arrangement between a distributor and a retail dealer has the effect of bringing the dealer's establishments within the enterprise of the distributor will depend upon the terms of the agreements and the related facts concerning the relationship between the parties.
</P>
<P>There may be a number of different types of arrangements established in such cases. The key in each case may be found in the answer to the question, “Who receives the profits, suffers the losses, sets the wages and working conditions of employees, or otherwise manages the business in those respects which are the common attributes of an independent businessman operating a business for profit?”
</P>
<P>For instance, a bona fide independent automobile dealer will not be considered a part of the enterprise of the automobile manufacturer or of the distributor. Likewise, the same result will also obtain with respect to the independent components of a shopping center.
</P>
<P>In all of these cases if it is found on the basis of all the facts and circumstances that the arrangements are so restrictive as to products, prices, profits, or management as to deny the “franchised” establishment the essential prerogatives of the ordinary independent businessman, the establishment, the dealer, or concessionaire will be considered an integral part of the related activities of the enterprise which grants the franchise, right, or concession. (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 42.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Thus, there may be a number of different types of arrangements established in such cases, and the determination as to whether the arrangements create a larger “enterprise” will necessarily depend on all the facts. Some arrangements which do not create a larger enterprise and some which do are discussed in §§ 779.230 through 779.235.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.230" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.230   Franchise and other arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There are many different and complex arrangements by which businesses may join to perform their activities for a common purpose. A general discussion will be found in part 776 of this chapter. The quotation in § 779.229 from the Senate Report shows that Congress recognized that some franchise, lease, or other arrangements have the effect of creating a larger enterprise and whether they do or not depends on the facts. The facts may show that the arrangements are so restrictive as to deprive the individual establishment of those prerogatives which are the essential attributes of an independent business. (Compare <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Lunsford,</I> 404 F. 2d, 693 (C.A. 6).) An establishment through such arrangements may transfer sufficient “control” so that it becomes in effect a unit in a unified chain operation. In such cases the result of the arrangement will be to create a larger enterprise composed of the various segments, including the establishment which relinquishes its control.
</P>
<P>(b) The term “franchise” is not susceptible of precise definition. The extent to which a businessman relinquishes the control of his business or the extent to which a franchise results in the performance of the activities through unified operation or common control depends upon the terms of the contract and the other relationships between the parties. Ultimately the determination of the precise scope of such arrangements which result in creating larger enterprises rests with the courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.231" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.231   Franchise arrangements which do not create a larger enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) While it is clear that in every franchise a businessman surrenders some rights, it equally is clear that every franchise does not create a larger enterprise. In the ordinary case a franchise may involve no more than an agreement to sell the particular product of the one granting the franchise. It may also prohibit the sale of a competing product. Such arrangements, standing alone, do not deprive the individual businessman of his “control” so as to bring him into a larger enterprise with the one granting the franchise.
</P>
<P>(b) The portion of the Senate Report quoted in the § 779.229 cites a “bona fide independent automobile dealer” as an example of such a franchise arrangement. (It is recognized that salesmen, mechanics, and partsmen primarily engaged in selling or servicing automobiles, trucks, trailers, farm implements, or aircraft, employed by nonmanufacturing establishments primarily engaged in the business of selling such vehicles to ultimate purchasers are specifically exempt from the overtime pay provisions under section 13(b)(10) of the Act. Section 779.372 discusses the exemption provided by section 13(b)(10) and its application whether or not the establishment meets the Act's definition of a retail or service establishment. The automobile dealer is used here only as an example of the type of franchise arrangement which, within the intent of the Congress, does not result in creating a larger enterprise.) The methods of operation of the independent automobile dealer are widely known. While he operates under a franchise to sell a particular make of automobile and also may be required to stock certain parts and to maintain specified service facilities, it is clear that he retains the control of the management of his business in those respects which characterize an independent businessman. He determines the prices for which he sells his merchandise. Even if prices are suggested by the manufacturer, it is well known that the dealer exercises wide discretion in this respect, free of control by the manufacturer or distributor. Also the automobile dealer retains control with respect to the management of his business, the determination of his employment practices, the operation of his various departments, and his business policies. The type of business in which he is engaged leaves him wide latitude for the exercise of his judgment and for decisions with respect to important aspects of his business upon which its success or failure depends. On the basis of these considerations, it is evident why the independent automobile dealer was cited as an example of the type of franchise which does not create a larger enterprise encompassing the dealer, the manufacturer or the distributor. Similar facts will lead to the same conclusion in other such arrangements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.232" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.232   Franchise or other arrangements which create a larger enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In other instances, franchise arrangements do result in bringing a dealer's business into a larger enterprise with the one granting the franchise. Where the franchise arrangement results in vesting control over the operations of the dealer's business in the one granting the franchise, the result is to place the dealer in a larger enterprise with the one granting the franchise. Where there are multiple units to which such franchises have been granted, the several dealers are considered to be subject to the common control of the one granting the franchise and all would be included in the same larger enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) It is not possible to lay down specific rules to determine whether a franchise or other agreement is such that a single enterprise results because all the facts and circumstances must be examined in the light of the definition of the term “enterprise” as discussed above in this subpart. However, the following example illustrates a franchising company and independently owned retail establishments which would constitute a single enterprise:
</P>
<P>(1) The franchisor had developed a system of retail food store operations, built up a large volume of buying power, formulated rules and regulations for the successful operation of stores together constituting a system which for many years proved in practice to be of commercial value to the separate stores; and
</P>
<P>(2) The franchisor desired to extend its business through the operation of associated franchise stores, by responsible persons in various localities to act as limited agents, and to be parts of the system, to the end that the advantages of and the profits from the business could be enjoyed by those so associated as well as by the franchisor; and
</P>
<P>(3) The stores were operated under the franchise as part of the general system and connected with the home office of the franchisor from which general administrative jurisdiction was exercised over all franchised stores, wherever located; and
</P>
<P>(4) The stores operated under the franchise agreement were always subject to the general administrative jurisdiction of the franchisor and agreed to comply with it; and
</P>
<P>(5) The stores operated under the franchise agreed to install appliances, fixtures, signs, etc. according to plans and specifications provided by the franchisor and to purchase their merchandise through the franchisor except to the extent that the latter may authorize local purchase of certain items; and
</P>
<P>(6) The stores operated under the franchise agreed to participate in special promotions, sales and advertising as directed by the franchisor, to attend meetings of franchise store operators and to pay a fee to the franchisor at the rate of one-half of 1 percent of total gross sales each month for the privileges to them and the advantages and profits derived from operating a local unit of the franchisor's system; and
</P>
<P>(7) The franchisor under the franchise agreement had the right to place on a prohibited list any merchandise which it considered undesirable for sale in a franchise store, and the stores operated pursuant to the franchise agreed to immediately discontinue sale of any such blacklisted merchandise.
</P>
<P>(c) It is clear from the facts and circumstances surrounding this franchise arrangement described in paragraph (b) of this section that the operators of the franchised establishments are denied the essential prerogatives of the ordinary independent businessman because of restrictions as to products, prices, profits and management. The last paragraph of the Senate Report quoted in § 779.229 makes clear that in such cases the franchised establishment, dealer, or concessionaire will be considered an integral part of the related activities of the enterprise which grants the franchise, right, or concession.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.233" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.233   Independent contractors performing work “for” an enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definition in section 3(r) specifically provides that the “enterprise” shall not include “the related activities performed for such enterprise by an independent contractor.” This exclusion will apply where the related activities are performed “for” the enterprise and if such activities are performed by “an independent contractor.” This provision is discussed generally in part 776 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Senate Report in referring to this exception states as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>It does not include the related activities performed for such an enterprise by an independent contractor, such as an independent accounting firm or sign service or advertising company, * * * (S. Rept. No. 145, 87th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 40).</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The term “independent contractor” as used in section 3(r) has reference to an independent business which performs services for other businesses as an established part of its own business activities. The term “independent contractor” as used in 3(r) thus has reference to an independent business which is a separate “enterprise,” and which deals in the ordinary course of its own business operations, at arms length, with the enterprises for which it performs services.
</FP>
<P>(c) There are many instances in industry where one business performs activities for separate businesses without becoming a part of a larger enterprise. In addition to the examples cited in the Report they may include such services as repairs, window cleaning, transportation, warehousing, collection services, and many others. The essential test in each case will be whether such services are performed “for” the enterprise by an independent, separate enterprise, or whether the related activities are performed for a common purpose through unified operation or common control. In the latter case the activities will be considered performed “by” the enterprise, rather than “for” the enterprise, and will be a part of the enterprise. The distinction in the ordinary case will be readily apparent from the facts. In those cases where questions arise a determination must be made on the basis of all the facts in the light of the statute and the legislative history.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.234" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.234   Establishments whose only regular employees are the owner or members of his immediate family.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(s) provides that any “establishment which has as its only regular employees the owner thereof or the parent, spouse, child, or other member of the immediate family of such owner” shall not be considered to be an “enterprise” as described in section 3(r) or a part of any other enterprise. Further the sales of such establishment are not included for the purpose of determining the annual gross volume of sales of any enterprise for the purpose of section 3(s). The term “other member of the immediate family of such owner” is considered to include relationships such as brother, sister, grandchildren, grandparents, and in-laws but not distant relatives from separate households. The 1966 amendments extended the exception to include family operated establishments which only employ persons other than members of the immediate family infrequently, irregularly, and sporadically. (See general discussion in part 776 of this chapter.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.235" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.262.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.235   Other “enterprises.”</HEAD>
<P>No attempt has been made in the discussion of the term “enterprise,” to consider every possible situation which may, within the meaning of section 3(r), constitute an “enterprise” under the Act. The discussion is designed to explain and illustrate the application of the term in some cases; in others, the discussion may serve as a guide in applying the criteria of the definition to the particular fact situation. A more complete discussion is contained in part 776 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="263" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.263" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Covered Enterprises</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.236" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.263.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.236   In general.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 779.201 through 779.235 discuss the various criteria for determining what business unit or units constitute an “enterprise” within the meaning of the Act. Sections 779.237 through 779.245 discuss the criteria for determining what constitutes a “covered enterprise” under the Act with respect to the conditions for coverage of those enterprises in which retail sale of goods or services are made. As explained in §§ 779.2 through 779.4, previously covered employment in retail and service enterprises will be subject to different monetary standards than newly covered employment in such enterprises until February 1, 1971. For this reason the enterprise coverage provisions of both the prior and the amended Act are discussed in the following sections of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.237" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.263.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.237   Enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 3(s) the “enterprise” to be covered must be an “enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.” This is defined in section 3(s) as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce means an enterprise which has employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, including employees handling, selling or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In order for an enterprise to come within the coverage of the Act, it must, therefore, be established that the enterprise has some employees who are:
</FP>
<P>(a) Engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, including
</P>
<P>(b) Employees handling, selling or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person.
</P>
<FP>The legislative history of the 1966 amendments does not indicate a difference between the meaning of the above wording and the wording used in the prior Act. (See § 779.22.) For a complete discussion of the employees who come within the quoted language see subpart B of the Interpretative Bulletin on general coverage, part 776 of this chapter.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.238" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.263.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.238   Engagement in described activities determined on annual basis.</HEAD>
<P>As set forth in the preceding section an enterprise to be a “covered enterprise” must have at least some employees engaged in certain described activities. This requirement will be determined on an annual basis in order to give full effect to the intent of Congress. Thus, it is not necessary that the enterprise have two or more employees engaged in the named activities every week. An enterprise described in section 3(s)(1) or (5) of the prior Act or in section 3(s)(1) of the Act as it was amended in 1966 will be considered to have employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, including the handling, selling or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person, if during the annual period which it uses in calculating its annual sales for purposes of the other conditions of these sections, it regularly and recurrently has at least two or more employees engaged in such activities. On the other hand, it is plain that an enterprise that has employees engaged in such activities only in isolated or sporadic occasions, will not meet this condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.239" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.263.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.239   Meaning of “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.”</HEAD>
<P>The term “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce,” as used in section 3(s) of the Act in reference to employees who are so engaged is the same as the term which has been used in the Act for many years. The statutory definitions of these terms are set forth in §§ 779.12 through 779.16. The interpretative bulletin on general coverage part 776 of this chapter) contains the Division's interpretations as to which employees are “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.” These interpretations are equally applicable under section 3(s) in determining which employees are “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” within the meaning of this section. A brief discussion of the guiding principles of retail or service establishments are “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” is set forth in subpart B of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="264" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.264" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employees Handling, Selling, or Otherwise Working on Goods That Have Been Moved in or Produced for Commerce by Any Person</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.240" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.264.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.240   Employees “handling * * * or otherwise working on goods.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>“Goods” upon which the described activities are performed.</I> Employees will be considered to be handling, selling, or otherwise working on goods within the meaning of section 3(s) if they engage in the described activities on “goods” which “have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person.” They may be handling or working on such goods which the enterprise does not sell. The term “goods” is defined in section 3(i) of the Act. The definition is explained in § 779.107 and discussed comprehensively in part 776 of this chapter. As defined in section 3(i) of the Act, the term includes any part or ingredient of “goods” and, in general, includes “articles or subjects of commerce of any character.” Thus the term “goods,” as used in section 3(s), includes all goods which have been moved in or produced for commerce, such as stock-in-trade, or raw materials that have been moved in or produced for commerce.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“Handling * * * or otherwise working on goods.”</I> The term “handling * * * or otherwise working on goods” used in section 3(s) is substantially the same as the term used since 1938 in section 3(j) of the Act. Both terms will therefore be considered to have essentially the same meaning. (See part 776 of this chapter, the interpretative bulletin on the general coverage of the Act.) Thus, the activities encompassed in the term “handling or in any other manner working on goods” in section 3(s) are the same as the activities, encompassed in the similar term in section 3(j), by which goods are “produced” within the meaning of the Act. In general, the term “handling * * * or otherwise working on goods” includes employees who sort, screen, grade, store, pack, label, address, transport, deliver, print, type, or otherwise handle or work on the goods. The same will be true of employees who handle or work on “any part of ingredient of the goods” referred to in the discussion of the term “goods” in § 779.107. An employee will be considered engaged in “handling * * * or otherwise working on goods,” within the meaning of section 3(s), only if he performs the described activities on goods that “have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person.” This requirement is discussed in §§ 779.242 and 779.243.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.241" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.264.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.241   Selling.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory definition of the term “sale” or “sell” is quoted in § 779.15. As long as the employee in any way participates in the sale of the goods he will be considered to be “selling” the goods, whether he physically handles them or not. Thus, if the employee performs any work that, in a practical sense is an essential part of consummating the “sale” of the particular goods, he will be considered to be “selling” the goods. “Selling” goods, under section 3(s) has reference only to goods which “have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person,” as discussed in §§ 779.242 and 779.243.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.242" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.264.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.242   Goods that “have been moved in” commerce.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of section 3(s), goods will be considered to “have been moved * * * in commerce” when they have moved across State lines before they are handled, sold, or otherwise worked on by the employees. It is immaterial in such a case that the goods may have “come to rest” within the meaning of the term “in commerce” as interpreted in other respects, before they are handled, sold, or otherwise worked on by the employees in the enterprise. Such movement in commerce may take place before they have reached the enterprise, or within the enterprise, such as from a warehouse of the enterprise in one State to a retail store of the same enterprise located in another State. Thus, employees will be considered to be “handling, selling, or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in * * * commerce” where they are engaged in the described activities on “goods” that have moved across State lines at any time in the course of business, such as from the manufacturer to the distributor, or to the “enterprise,” or from one establishment to another within the “enterprise.” See the general discussion in part 776 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.243" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.264.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.243   Goods that have been “produced for commerce by any person.”</HEAD>
<P>An employee will be considered to be handling, selling, or otherwise working on goods that have been “produced for commerce by any person” within the meaning of section 3(s), if he is performing the described activities with respect to goods which have been “produced for commerce” within the meaning of the Act. The term “produced” is defined in section 3(j) of the Act and, as explained above, has a well-established meaning under the existing law. (See § 779.104 and part 776 of this chapter.) The word as it is used in the context of the phrase “goods * * * produced for commerce by any person” in section 3(s) has the same meaning as in 3(j). Therefore, where goods are considered “produced for commerce” within the meaning of section 3(j) of the Act they also will be considered “produced for commerce” within the meaning of section 3(s). A discussion of when goods are produced for commerce within the meaning of section 3(j) is contained in § 779.108. Of course, within the meaning of section 3(s), the goods will be considered “produced for commerce” when they are so produced “by any person.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="265" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.265" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Covered Retail Enterprise</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.244" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.265.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.244   “Covered enterprises” of interest to retailers of goods or services.</HEAD>
<P>Retailers of goods or services are primarily concerned with the enterprises described in sections 3(s)(1) and 3(s)(5) of the prior Act and section 3(s)(1) of the Act as amended in 1966. Although section 3(s)(1) of the prior Act (under the 1961 amendments) had exclusive application to the retail and service industry, section 3(s)(1) of the Act as amended in 1966 may apply to any enterprise. This part is concerned only with retail or service establishments and enterprises. Enterprises described in clauses (2), (3), and (4) of section 3(s) are discussed herein only with respect to the application to them of provisions relating to retail or service establishments. Coverage of such enterprises and the application of section 3(s)(1) of the amended Act to enterprises generally are discussed in part 776 of this chapter. The statutory definitions of enterprises of interest to retailers under the prior Act and the Act as amended in 1966 are quoted in § 779.22.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.245" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.265.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.245   Conditions for coverage of retail or service enterprises.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Retail or service enterprises may be covered under section 3(s)(1) of the prior Act or section 3(s)(1) of the amended Act although the latter is not limited to retail or service enterprises. A retail or service enterprise will be a covered enterprise under section 3(s)(1) of the amended Act if both the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The enterprise is “an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.” This requirement, which is discussed in §§ 779.237 through 779.243, applies to all covered enterprises under the provisions of both the prior and the amended Act; and,
</P>
<P>(2) During the period February 1, 1967, through January 31, 1969, the enterprise has an annual gross volume of sales made or business done, exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated, of at least $500,000; or on and after February 1, 1969, the enterprise has an annual gross volume of sales made or business done of at least $250,000, exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated.
</P>
<P>(b) A retail or service enterprise will be covered under section 3(s)(1) of the Act prior to the amendments if all four of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The enterprise is “an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” as explained above in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and,
</P>
<P>(2) The enterprise has one or more “retail or service establishments” (the statutory definition of the term “retail or service establishment” is contained in § 779.24 and discussed in subpart D of this part) and,
</P>
<P>(3) The enterprise has an annual gross volume of sales of $1 million or more, exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated and,
</P>
<P>(4) The enterprise “purchases or receives goods for resale that move or have moved across State lines (not in deliveries from the reselling establishment) which amount in total annual volume to $250,000 or more.” (This requirement is discussed in §§ 779.246 through 779.253.)
</P>
<P>(c) Sections 779.258 through 779.260 discuss the meaning of “annual gross volume of sales made or business done” and §§ 779.261 through 779.264 discuss what excise taxes may be excluded from the annual gross volume. Sections 779.265 through 779.269 discuss the method of computing the annual gross volume where it is necessary to determine monetary obligations to employees under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="266" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interstate Inflow Test Under Prior Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.246" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.246   Inflow test under section 3(s)(1) of the Act prior to 1966 amendments.</HEAD>
<P>To come within the scope of section 3(s)(1) of the prior Act, the enterprise, in addition to the other conditions, must purchase or receive goods for resale that move or have moved across State lines (not in deliveries from the reselling establishment) which amount in total annual volume to $250,000 or more. To meet this condition, it must be shown that (a) the enterprise purchases or receives goods for resale (§ 779.248), (b) that such goods move or have moved across State lines (§ 779.249), and (c) that such purchases and receipts amount in total annual volume to $250,000 or more (§ 779.253). Enterprises which do not meet this test may be covered under section 3(s)(1) of the present Act, which contains no interstate inflow requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.247" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.247   “Goods” defined.</HEAD>
<P>The term “goods” as used in section 3(s) of the prior and amended Act is defined in section 3(i) of the Act. The statutory definition is quoted in § 779.14, and is discussed in detail in part 776 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.248" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.248   Purchase or receive “goods for resale.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Goods will be considered purchased or received “for resale” for purposes of the inflow test contained in section 3(s)(1) of the prior Act if they are purchased or received with the intention of being resold. This includes goods, such as stock in trade which is purchased or received by the enterprise for resale in the ordinary course of business. It does not include machinery, equipment, supplies, and other goods which the enterprise purchases to use in conducting its business. This is true even if such capital goods or other equipment, which the enterprise originally purchased for use in conducting its business, are at some later date actually resold. The distinction is to be found in whether the goods are purchased or received by the enterprise with the intention of reselling them in the same form or after further processing or manufacturing, or whether they are purchased with the intent of being consumed or used by the enterprise itself in the performance of its activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Goods, such as raw materials or ingredients, are considered purchased or received by the enterprise “for resale,” even if such goods are purchased or received for the purpose of being processed or used as parts or ingredients in the manufacture of other goods which the enterprise intends to sell. For example, where the enterprise purchases flour for use in baking bread or pastries for sale, the goods will be considered to have been purchased “for resale.” It is immaterial whether the goods will be resold by the enterprise at retail or at wholesale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.249" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.249   Goods which move or have moved across State lines.</HEAD>
<P>In order to be included in the annual dollar volume for purposes of this test, the goods which the enterprise purchases or receives for resale must be goods that “move or have moved across the State lines.” Goods which have not moved across State lines before they are resold by the enterprise will not be included. The movement to which the phrase “move or have moved” has reference is that movement which the goods follow in their journey to the enterprise or within the enterprise to the establishment which sells the goods. Thus, if goods have moved across State lines at some stage in the flow of trade before they are actually sold by the enterprise, they will be considered to have moved across State lines. It is not material that the goods may have “come to rest” at some time before they are purchased or received and sold by the enterprise; nor is it material that some time may have elapsed between the time the goods have moved across State lines and the time they are purchased or received and sold by the enterprise. It is sufficient if at any time such goods have moved across State lines in the ordinary course of trade before resale by the enterprise. Much of the goods purchased by retailers are produced from a local intrastate supplier. In many instances these goods may have been stored at the supplier's establishment for some time. However, as long as the particular goods purchased have moved across State lines at some stage in the flow of trade to the retailer, they would have to be included in determining whether or not the enterprise has purchased or received for resale such out-of-State goods amounting to $250,000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.250" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.250   Goods that have not lost their out-of-State identity.</HEAD>
<P>Goods which are purchased or received by the enterprise from within the State will be considered goods which “have moved across State lines” if they have previously been moved across State lines and have not lost their identity as out-of-State goods before they are purchased or received by the enterprise. Also goods which have been assembled within the State after they were moved across State lines but before they are purchased or received by the enterprise will still be regarded as goods which “have moved across State lines.” Such goods are still identifiable as goods brought into the State. This is also true in certain cases where goods are processed to some extent without losing their identity as out-of-State goods. For example, out-of-State furniture or television sets which are put together within the State, or milk from outside the State which is pasteurized and bottled within the State, before being purchased or received by the enterprise, are goods which “have moved across State lines.” They have already moved across State lines and they retain their out-of-State identity, despite the assembly or processing within the State.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.251" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.251   Goods that have lost their out-of-State identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Goods which are purchased or received by the enterprise within the State will not be considered goods which have “moved across State lines” if the goods, although they came from outside the State, had been processed or manufactured so as to have lost their identity as out-of-State goods before they are purchased or received by the enterprise. This assumes, of course, that the goods so manufactured or processed do not move across State lines before they are sold by the enterprise. Thus where an enterprise buys bread baked within the State which does not move across State lines before it is resold by the enterprise, the bread is not “goods, which have moved across State lines” even if the flour and other ingredients came from outside the State. The same conclusion will follow, under the same circumstances, where clothing is manufactured from out-of-State fabrics.
</P>
<P>(b) In those cases where goods are composed in part of goods which have, and in part of goods which have not, moved across State lines, the entire product will be considered as goods which have moved across State lines, if, as a practical matter, it substantially consists of goods which are identifiable as out-of-State goods. Whether goods have been so changed as to have lost their out-of-State identity is question which will depend upon all the facts in a particular case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.252" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.252   Not in deliveries from the reselling establishment.</HEAD>
<P>Goods which move across State lines only in the course of deliveries from the reselling establishment of the enterprise are not included as goods which “move or have moved across State lines.” Thus, goods delivered by the enterprise to its customers outside of the State are not, for that reason, considered goods which “move or have moved across State lines.” The purpose of the provision excepting “deliveries from the reselling establishment” is to limit the test to goods which flow into the enterprise and to exclude those goods which only cross State lines when they flow out of the enterprise as an incident of the sale of such goods by the enterprise. In other words, this is an inflow test and not an outflow test.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.253" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.266.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.253   What is included in computing the total annual inflow volume.</HEAD>
<P>The goods which the establishment purchases or receives for resale that move or have moved across State lines must “amount in total annual volume to $250,000 or more.” It will be noted that taxes are not excluded in measuring this annual dollar volume. Thus, the total cost to the enterprise of such goods will be included in calculating the $250,000. This will include all taxes and other charges which the enterprise must pay for such goods. Generally, all charges will be included in the invoice of the goods. But whether included in the invoice or not, the total amount which the enterprise is required to pay for such goods, including charges for transportation, insurance, delivery, storage and any other will be included in computing the $250,000. The dollar volume of the goods purchased or received by the enterprise is the “annual” volume. The method of calculating the annual dollar volume is explained in § 779.266.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="267" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.267" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>The Gasoline Service Establishment Enterprise</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.254" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.267.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.254   Summary of coverage and exemptions prior to and following the 1966 amendments.</HEAD>
<P>The ordinary gasoline service establishment is a covered enterprise under the Act if it has an annual gross volume of sales made or business done of not less than $250,000 a year, exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated, and meets the other tests of section 3(s)(5) of the prior Act and section 3(s)(1) of the amended Act. Beginning February 1, 1969, enterprise coverage extends to any gasoline service establishment in an enterprise which has an annual gross volume in such amount, even if the establishment's annual gross volume is less. However, a gasoline service establishment with gross sales of less than $250,000, exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated, may qualify for the minimum wage and overtime pay exemption provided in section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets the requirements of that section. Section 779.313 summarizes the requirements. An overtime pay exemption, which was repealed by the 1966 amendments, existed until February 1, 1967, for employees of ordinary gasoline service establishments under the prior Act. Thus, nonexempt employees of a covered gasoline service establishment enterprise are subject to the minimum wage standards for previously covered employment and the overtime pay requirements for newly covered employment as listed below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum wage:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Beginning
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.40 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1967.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.60 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1968 and thereafter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Overtime pay after:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44 hours in a workweek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1967.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 hours in a workweek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1968.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40 hours in a workweek</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1, 1969 and thereafter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>The particular considerations affecting coverage and exemptions are discussed in subsequent sections. The statutory language contained in section 3(s)(5) of the prior Act and 3(s)(1) of the amended Act may be found in § 779.22.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.255" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.267.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.255   Meaning of “gasoline service establishment.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) A gasoline service station or establishment is one which is typically a physically separate place of business engaged primarily (“primarily” meaning 50 percent or more) in selling gasoline and lubricating oils to the general public at the station or establishment. It may also sell other merchandise or perform minor repair work as an incidental part of the business. (See S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 32.) No difference in application of the terms “gasoline service establishment” and “gasoline service station” was intended by Congress (see Senate Report cited above) and both carry the same meaning.
</P>
<P>(b) Under section 3(s)(5) of the prior Act and until February 1, 1969, under section 3(s)(1) of the amended Act, the covered enterprise is always a single establishment—a gasoline service establishment, even though such establishment may be a part of some larger enterprise for purposes of other provisions of the “enterprise” coverage of the new amendments. As noted above this term refers to what is commonly known as a gasoline service station, a separate “establishment.” What constitutes a separate establishment is discussed in §§ 779.303 through 779.306. While receipts from incidental sales and services are included and counted in determining the establishment's annual gross volume of sales for purposes of enterprise coverage, the establishment's primary source of receipts must be from the sale of gasoline and lubricating oils. (See Senate Report cited above.) An establishment which derives the greater part of its income from the sales of goods other than gasoline or lubricating oils will not be considered a “gasoline service establishment.” The mere fact that an establishment has a gasoline pump as an incidental part of other business activities in which it is principally engaged does not constitute it “a gasoline service establishment” within the meaning and for the purposes of these sections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.256" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.267.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.256   Conditions for enterprise coverage of gasoline service establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirement that the enterprise must be “an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” is discussed in §§ 779.237 through 779.243. Those sections explain which employees are engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, including employees handling, selling, or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person. In connection with the discussion in those sections as it concerns employees of gasoline service establishments, it should be noted that as a general rule such employees normally are “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” within the meaning of the Act. For example, gasoline filling station employees servicing motor vehicles used in interstate transportation or in the production of goods for commerce have always been regarded as being “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” within the meaning of the Act. Such employees will also be considered as engaged in handling, selling or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person, if the gasoline or lubricating oils or the other goods with respect to which they perform the described activities have come from outside the State in which the establishment is located.
</P>
<P>(b) For periods before February 1, 1969, a gasoline service establishment was within the scope of the enterprise coverage provisions of the Act only if its annual gross volume of sales was not less than $250,000, exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated. Until such date, a gasoline service establishment which did not have such an annual gross volume of sales was not a covered enterprise, and enterprise coverage did not extend to it by virtue of the fact that it is an establishment of an enterprise which meets coverage tests of section 3(s). In determining whether the establishment has the requisite annual gross volume of sales the receipts from all sales of the establishment are included without limitation to the receipts from sales of gasoline and lubricating oil. In computing the annual gross volume of sales the gross receipts from all types of sales during a 12-month period are included. These gross receipts are measured by the price paid by the purchaser of the goods or services sold by the establishment (Sen. Rept. 1487, 89th Cong. second session p. 7). Thus, where the establishment sells gasoline for an oil company on commission, annual gross volume is based on the retail sale price and not on the smaller amount retained or received as commissions. A further discussion of what sales are included in the annual gross volume is contained in §§ 779.258 through 779.260.
</P>
<P>(c) In computing the annual gross volume of sales, excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated are not counted. A discussion of the excise taxes which may be excluded under this provision is contained in §§ 779.261 through 779.264. Whether the particular taxes are “excise taxes at the retail level” depends upon the facts in each case. If the taxes are “excise taxes at the retail level” they will be excludable only if they are “separately stated.” Where a gasoline station posts a sign on or alongside the gasoline pumps indicating that a certain amount per gallon is for a specific excise tax, this will meet the requirement of being “separately stated”. The method of calculating annual gross volume of sales is explained in greater detail in §§ 779.265 through 779.269.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.257" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.267.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.257   Exemption applicable to gasoline service establishments under the prior Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(8) of the prior Act (before the 1966 amendments) contained an exemption from the overtime pay requirements for “any employee of a gasoline service station”. This exemption was applicable prior to February 1, 1967, without regard to the annual gross volume of sales of the gasoline service station by which the employee was employed. The removal of this exemption by the 1966 amendments brought non-exempt employees of covered gasoline service stations within the purview of the overtime requirements of the Act for the first time.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="268" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.268" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Annual Gross Volume of Sales Made or Business Done</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.258" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.268.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.258   Sales made or business done.</HEAD>
<P>The Senate Report on the 1966 amendments reaffirmed the intent to measure the “dollar volume of sales or business” including “the gross receipts or gross business” to determine whether an enterprise is covered. This concept was first expressed in the Senate Report on the 1961 amendment (S. Rept. No. 145, 87th Congress, first session, p. 38). The phrase “business done” added by the 1966 amendments to section 3(s) merely reflects with more clarity the economic test of business size expressed in the prior Act in terms of “annual gross volume of sales” and conforms the language of the Act with the Congressional view expressed in the legislative history of the 1961 amendments. Thus, the annual gross volume of an enterprise must include any business activity in which it engages which can be measured on a dollar basis irrespective of whether the enterprise is tested under the prior or amended Act. The Senate Report on the 1966 amendments states:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The intent to measure the “dollar volume of sales or business” including the “gross receipts or gross business” in determining coverage of such an enterprise was expressed in the Senate report above cited at page 38. The addition of the term “business done” to the statutory language should make this intent abundantly plain for the future and remove any possible reason for misapprehension. The annual gross volume of sales made or business done by an enterprise, within the meaning of section 3(s), will thus continue to include both the gross dollar volume of the sales (as defined in sec. 3(k)) which it makes, as measured by the price paid by the purchaser for the property or service sold to him (exclusive of any excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated), and the gross dollar volume of any other business activity in which the enterprise engages which can be similarly measured on a dollar basis. This would include, for example, such activity by an enterprise as making loans or renting or leasing property of any kind. (S. Rept. No. 1487, 89th Congress, second session, pp. 7-8.)</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.259" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.268.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.259   What is included in annual gross volume.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The annual gross volume of sales made or business done of an enterprise consists of its gross receipts from all types of sales made and business done during a 12-month period. The gross volume of sales made or business done means the gross dollar volume (not limited to income) derived from all sales and business transactions including, for example, gross receipts from service, credit, or other similar charges. Credits for goods returned or exchanged and rebates and discounts, and the like, are not ordinarly included in the annual gross volume of sales or business. The gross volume of sales or business includes the receipts from sales made or business done by the retail or service establishments of the enterprise as well as the sales made or business done by any other establishments of the enterprise, exclusive of the internal transactions between them. Gross volume is measured by the price paid by the purchaser for the property or service sold to him, as stated in the Senate Committee Report (§ 779.258). It is not measured by profit on goods sold or commissions on sales made for others. The dollar value of sales or business of the entire enterprise in all establishments is added together to determine whether the applicable dollar test is met. The fact that one or more of the retail or service establishments of the enterprise may have less than $250,000 in annual dollar volume and may meet the other requirements for exemption from the pay provisions of the Act under section 13(a)(2), does not exclude the dollar volume of sales or business of that establishment from the annual gross volume of the enterprise. However, the dollar volume of an establishment derived from transactions with other establishments in the same enterprise does not ordinarily constitute part of the annual gross volume of the enterprise as a whole. The computation of the annual gross volume of sales or business of the enterprise is made “exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated”. The taxes which may be excluded are discussed in §§ 779.261 through 779.264. The methods of calculating the annual gross volume of sales of an enterprise are set forth in §§ 779.265 through 779.269.
</P>
<P>(b) In the ordinary case the functions of a leased department are controlled or unified in such a way that it is included in the establishment and therefore in the enterprise in which it is located, as discussed in § 779.225. The applicability of enterprise coverage and certain exemptions to such a leased department depends upon the enterprise coverage and the exemption status of the establishment in which the leased department is located. The annual gross volume of such a leased department is included in the annual gross volume of the establishment in which it is located as well as in the annual gross volume of the enterprise of which such establishment is a part.
</P>
<P>(c) Likewise, where franchise or other arrangements result in the creation of a larger enterprise by means of operational restrictions so that the establishment, dealer, or concessionaire is an integral part of the related activities of the enterprise which grants the franchise, right, or concession, as discussed in §§ 779.229 and 779.232, it will follow that the annual gross volume of sales made or business done of such an enterprise includes the dollar volume of sales or business of each related establishment dealer, or concessionaire.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.260" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.268.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.260   Trade-in allowances.</HEAD>
<P>Where merchandise is taken in trade when a sale is made, the annual gross volume of sales or business will include the gross amount of the sale before deduction of the allowance on such trade-in merchandise. This is so even though an overallowance or excessive value is allowed on the trade-in merchandise. In turn, when the trade-in merchandise is sold the amount of the sale will be included in the annual gross volume.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="269" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.269" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Excise Taxes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.261" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.269.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.261   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 3(s)(1) and 13(a)(2) of the amended Act as well as sections 3(s)(1), 3(s)(2), 3(s)(5), and 13(a)(2)(iv) of the prior Act provide for the exclusion of “excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated” in computing the gross annual volume of sales or business or the annual dollar volume of sales for purposes of certain of the provisions contained in those sections. The Senate Committee report states as follows with respect to this provision:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>* * * in determining whether the enterprise or establishment, as the case may be, has the requisite annual dollar volume of sales, excise taxes will not be counted if they are taxes that are collected at the retail level and are separately identified in the price charged the customer for the goods or services at the time of the sale. Excise taxes which are levied at the manufacturer's, wholesaler's, or other distributive level will not be excluded in calculating the dollar volume of sales nor will excise taxes be excluded in cases where the customer is charged a single price for the merchandise or services and the taxes are not separately identified when the sale is made. (S. Rept., 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 39.)</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>In applying the above rules to determine annual gross volume of sales or business under section 3(s) or annual dollar volume of sales for purposes of the $250,000 test under section 13(a)(2), excise taxes which (a) are levied at the retail level and (b) are separately stated and identified in the charge to the customer at the time of sale need not be included in the calculation of the gross or dollar volume of sales. Excise taxes which are levied at the manufacturer's, wholesaler's or other distributive level will not, ordinarily, be excluded in calculating the volume of sales, nor will excise taxes, even if levied at the retail level, be excluded in cases where the customer is charged a single price for the merchandise or services and the taxes are not separately identified when the sale is made. Excise taxes will be excludable whether they are levied by the Federal, State, or local government provided that the tax is “levied at the retail level” and “separately stated”.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.262" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.269.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.262   Excise taxes at the retail level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal excise taxes are imposed at the retail level on highway vehicle fuels other than gasoline under the provisions of 26 U.S.C. 4041. Such excise taxes are levied at the retail level on any liquid fuel sold for use, or used in a diesel-powered highway vehicle. A similar tax is imposed on the sale of such special motor fuels as benzene and liquefied petroleum gas when used as a motor fuel. To the extent that these taxes are separately stated to the customer, they may be excluded from gross volume of sales. The extent to which State taxes are levied at the retail level, and thus excludable when separately stated, depends, of course, upon the law of the State concerned. However, as a general rule, State, county, and municipal sales taxes are levied at the retail level, and to the extent that they are separately stated, may be excluded. All State excise taxes on gasoline are, for purposes of section 3(s), taxes levied at the retail level, which, if separately stated, may be excluded.
</P>
<P>(b) The circumstances surrounding the levying and collection of the Federal excise taxes on gasoline, tires, and inner tubes reflect that, although they are listed under the title of “Manufacturers Excise Taxes,” they are, in practical operation, taxes “at the retail level.” Federal excise taxes on gasoline, tires, and inner tubes, when “separately stated,” may therefore be excluded in computing the annual gross volume of an enterprise for the purpose of determining coverage under section 3(s)(1) of the Act and section 13(a)(2) for purposes of applying the $250,000 test for determining the retail and service establishment exemption of an establishment in a covered enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.263" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.269.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.263   Excise taxes not at the retail level.</HEAD>
<P>There are also a wide variety of taxes levied at the manufacturer's or distributor's level and not at the retail level. It should be noted, however, that the circumstances surrounding the levying and collection of taxes must be carefully considered. The facts concerning the levying and collection of Federal excise taxes on alcoholic beverages and tobacco reflect that such taxes are upon the manufacture of these products and that they are neither levied nor collected at the retail level and thus are not excludable. However, in some cases the circumstances may reflect that despite the fact that such taxes may be levied upon the manufacturer or distributor, nevertheless they may be, in practical operation, taxes at the retail level and may be so regarded for the purpose of this provision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.264" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.269.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.264   Excise taxes separately stated.</HEAD>
<P>A tax is separately stated where it clearly appears that it has been added to the sales price as a separate, identifiable amount, even though there was no invoice or sales slip. In the absence of a sales slip or invoice, the amount of the tax may either be separately stated orally at the time of sale, or visually by means of a poster or other sign reasonable designed to inform the purchaser that the amount of the tax, either as a stated sum per unit or measured by the gross amount of the sale, or as a percentage of the price, is included in the sales price. A sign on a gasoline pump indicating in cents per gallon the amount of State and Federal highway fuel excise taxes is an example of “separately stated” taxes.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="270" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.270" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Computing The Annual Volume</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.265" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.270.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.265   Basis for making computations.</HEAD>
<P>The annual gross dollar volume of sales made or business done of an enterprise or establishment consists of the gross receipts from all of its sales or its volume of business done during a 12-month period. Where a computation of the annual gross volume is necessary to determine monetary obligations to employees under the Act whether in an enterprise which has one or more retail or service establishments, or in any establishment in such enterprise, or in any gasoline service establishment, it must be based on the most recent prior experience which it is practicable to use. This was recognized in the Congress when the legislation was under consideration. (S. Rept. No. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 38 discusses in detail the calculation of the annual gross volume.) When gross receipts of an enterprise show that the annual dollar volume of sales made or business done meets the statutory tests for coverage and nonexemption, the employer must comply with the Act's monetary provisions from that time on or until such time as the tests are not met. (See § 779.266.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.266" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.270.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.266   Methods of computing annual volume of sales or business.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No computations of annual gross dollar volume are necessary to determine coverage or exemption in those enterprises in which the gross receipts regularly derived each year from the business are known by the employers to be substantially in excess or substantially under the minimum dollar volume specified in the applicable provision of the Act. Also, where the enterprise or establishment, during the portion of its current income tax year up to the end of the current payroll period, has already had a gross volume of sales or business in excess of the dollar amount specified in the statute, it is plain that its annual dollar volume currently is in excess of the statutory amount, and that the Act applies accordingly. The computation described in paragraph (b) of this section, therefore need not be made. Nor is it required where the enterprise or establishment has not yet in such current year exceeded the statutory amount in its gross volume of sales or business, if it has had, in the most recently ended year used by it for income tax purposes, a gross volume of sales made and business done in excess of the amount specified in the Act. In such event, the enterprise or establishment will be deemed to have an annual gross volume in excess of the statutory amount unless the employer establishes, through use of the method set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, an annual gross volume of sales made or business done which is less than the amount specified in the Act. The method described in paragraph (b) of this section shall be used, as intended by the Congress (see S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong. first session, p. 38), for computation of annual dollar volume in all cases when such a computation becomes necessary in order to determine the applicability of provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to determine, when there may be doubt, whether an enterprise or establishment has an annual gross volume of sales made or business done in excess of the amount specified in the statute, and analysis will be made at the beginning of each quarter-year so that the employer will know whether or not the dollar volume tests have been met for the purpose of complying with the law in the workweeks ending in the current quarter-year. The total of the gross receipts from all its sales or business during a 12-month period which immediately precedes the quarter-year being tested will be the basis for analysis. When it is necessary to make a determination for enterprises or establishments which are operated on a calendar year basis for income tax or sales or other accounting purposes the quarter-year periods tested will coincide with the calendar quarters (January 1-March 31; April 1-June 30; July 1-September 30; October 1-December 31). On the other hand, where enterprises or establishments are operated on a fiscal year basis, which consists of an annual period different from the calendar year, the four quarters of the fiscal period will be used in lieu of calendar quarters in computing the annual volume. Once either basis has been adopted it must be used in making subsequent calculations. The sales records maintained as a result of the accounting procedures used for tax or other business purposes may be utilized in computing the annual dollar volume provided the same accounting procedure is used consistently and that such procedure accurately reflects the annual volume of sales or business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.267" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.270.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.267   Fluctuations in annual gross volume affecting enterprise coverage and establishment exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>It is possible that the analysis performed at the beginning of each quarter to determine the applicability of the monetary provisions of the Act may reveal changes in the annual gross volume or other determinative factors which result in the enterprise or establishment meeting or ceasing to meet one or more of the tests for enterprise coverage or establishment exemption. Thus, enterprise coverage may result where the annual volume increases from an amount under to an amount over $250,000. Also, an enterprise having an annual gross volume of more than $1 million and meeting the requirements for a covered retail enterprise under the prior Act on the basis of previous sales analyses may fall below $1 million when the annual gross volume is computed at the beginning of the quarter being tested and as a result qualify only as a newly covered enterprise for the current quarter under the amended Act. Similarly, an enterprise previously subject to new coverage pay standards, having an annual gross volume of more than $250,000 but less than $1 million on the basis of previous sales analyses, may increase its annual gross volume to $1 million or more when recomputed at the beginning of the quarter being tested. It will thus become for the current quarter an enterprise in which employees are subject to the pay standards for employment covered under the Act prior to the amendments, provided that it meets the other conditions as discussed in § 779.245.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.268" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.270.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.268   Grace period of 1 month for computation.</HEAD>
<P>Where it is not practicable to compute the annual gross volume of sales or business under paragraph (b) of § 779.266 in time to determine obligations under the Act for the current quarter, an enterprise or establishment may use a 1-month grace period. If this 1-month grace period is used, the computations made under this section will determine its obligations under the Act for the 3-month period commencing 1 month after the end of the preceding calendar or fiscal quarter. Once adopted the same basis must be used for each successive 3-month period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.269" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.3.270.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.269   Computations for a new business.</HEAD>
<P>When a new business is commenced the employer will necessarily be unable for a time to determine its annual dollar volume on the basis of a full 12-month period as described above. In many cases it is readily apparent that the enterprise or establishment will or will not have the requisite annual dollar volume specified in the Act. For example, where the new business consists of a large department store, or a supermarket, it may be clear from the outset that the business will meet the annual dollar volume tests so as to be subject to the requirements of the Act. In other cases, where doubt exists, the gross receipts of the new business during the first quarter year in which it has been in operation will be taken as representative of its annual dollar volume, in applying the annual volume tests of sections 3(s) and 13(a)(2), for purposes of determining its obligations under the Act in workweeks falling in the following quarter year period. Similarly, for purposes of determining its obligations under the Act in workweeks falling within ensuing quarter year periods, the gross receipts of the new business for the completed quarter year periods will be taken as representative of its annual dollar volume in applying the annual volume tests of the Act. After the new business has been in operation for a full calendar or fiscal year, the analysis can be made by the method described in paragraph (b) of § 779.266 with use of the grace period described in § 779.268, if necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exemptions for Certain Retail or Service Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="271" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.271" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Principles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.271.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.300   Purpose of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart C of this part has discussed the various criteria for determining coverage under the Act of employers and employees in enterprises and establishments that make retail sales of goods and services. This subpart deals primarily with the exemptions from the Act's minimum wage and overtime provisions found in section 13(a) (2), (4), (11), and 13(b)(18) for employees of retail or service establishments. Also discussed are some exemptions for special categories of establishments engaged in retailing goods or services, which do not require for exemption that the particular establishment be a retail or service establishment as defined in the Act. If all the requirements set forth in any of these exemptions are met, to the extent provided therein the employer is relieved from complying with the minimum wage and/or overtime provisions of the Act even though his employees are engaged in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce or employed in covered enterprises.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.301" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.271.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.301   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(a) (2), (4), (11), and section 13(b)(18) of the Act, as amended, grant exemption from the minimum wage provisions of section 6 and the maximum hours provisions of section 7 as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 13(a)(2) exempts from minimum wages and overtime pay:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee employed by any retail or service establishment (except an establishment or employee engaged in laundering, cleaning, or repairing clothing or fabrics or an establishment engaged in the operation of a hospital, institution, or school described in section 3(s)(4), if more than 50 per centum of such establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services is made within the State in which the establishment is located, and such establishment is not in an enterprise described in section 3(s) or such establishment has an annual dollar volume of sales which is less than $250,000 (exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated). A “retail or service establishment” shall mean an establishment 75 per centum of whose annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services (or of both) is not for resale and is recognized as retail sales or services in the particular industry.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Section 13(a)(4) exempts from minimum wages and overtime pay:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee employed by an establishment which qualifies as an exempt retail establishment under clause (2) of this sub-section and is recognized as a retail establishment in the particular industry notwithstanding that such establishment makes or processes at the retail establishment the goods that it sells: <I>Provided,</I> That more than 85 per centum of such establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of goods so made or processed is made within the State in which the establishment is located.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Section 13(a)(11) exempts from minimum wages and overtime pay:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee or proprietor in a retail or service establishment which qualifies as an exempt retail or service establishment under clause (2) of this subsection with respect to whom the provisions of sections 6 and 7 would not otherwise apply, engaged in handling telegraphic messages for the public under an agency or contract arrangement with a telegraph company where the telegraph message revenue of such agency does not exceed $500 a month.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Section 13(b)(18) exempts from overtime pay only:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee of a retail or service establishment who is employed primarily in connection with the preparation or offering of food or beverages for human consumption, either on the premises, or by such services as catering, banquet, box lunch, or curb or counter service, to the public, to employees, or to members or guests of members of clubs.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Sections 13(a)(2), (4), (13), (19), and (20) of the prior Act granted exemptions from both the minimum wage provisions of section 6 and the maximum hours provisions of section 7 as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 13(a)(2) exempted:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee employed by any retail or service establishment, more than 50 per centum of which establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services is made within the state in which the establishment is located, if such establishment—
</P>
<P>(i) Is not in an enterprise described in section 3(s), or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is in such an enterprise and is a hotel, motel or restaurant, or motion picture theater; or is an amusement or recreational establishment that operates on a seasonal basis, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is in such an enterprise and is a hospital, or an institution which is primarily engaged in the care of the sick, the aged, the mentally ill or defective, residing on the premises of such institution, or a school for physically or mentally handicapped or gifted children, or
</P>
<P>(iv) Is in such an enterprise and has an annual dollar volume of sales (exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated) which is less than $250,000.
</P>
<FP>A “retail or service establishment” shall mean an establishment 75 per centum of whose annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services (or both) is not for resale and is recognized as retail sales or services in the particular industry.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Section 13(a)(4) provided the same exemption as it now does.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 13(a)(13) provided the same exemption as section 13(a)(11) of the present Act.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 13(a)(19) exempted:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee of a retail or service establishment which is primarily engaged in the business of selling automobiles, trucks, or farm implements.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) Section 13(a)(20) exempted those employees who are now exempt from the overtime provisions only under section 13(b)(18) of the present Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees who were exempt from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements under a provision of the prior Act set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, but are no longer exempt from one or both of such requirements under the present Act must be paid minimum wages or overtime pay, as the case may be, in accordance with the pay standards provided for newly covered employment, in any workweek when they perform work within the individual or enterprise coverage of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="272" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>“Establishment” Basis of Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.302" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.302   Exemptions depend on character of establishment.</HEAD>
<P>Some exemptions depend on the character of the establishment by which an employee is employed. These include the “retail or service establishment” exemptions in sections 13(a) (2), (4), and (11) and the exemptions available to the establishments of the character specified in sections 13(a) (3), (9), and 13(b)(8) (first part). Therefore, if the establishment meets the tests enumerated in these sections, employees “employed by” that establishment are generally exempt from sections 6 and 7. (See §§ 779.307 to 779.309 discussing “employed by.”) Other exemptions establish two criteria, the character of the establishment and the nature of the conditions of the employment of the particular employee. Such exemptions are set forth in section 13(b)(8) (second part), and section 13(b)(18) and (19). To determine whether the exemptions of these sections apply it is necessary to determine both that the establishment meets the enumerated tests and that the employee is engaged in the enumerated activities or employed under the conditions specified. Thus, under section 13(b)(18) some of the employees of a given employer may be exempt from the overtime pay requirements (but not the minimum wage) of the Act, while others may not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.303" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.303   “Establishment” defined; distinguished from “enterprise” and “business.”</HEAD>
<P>As previously stated in § 779.23, the term <I>establishment</I> as used in the Act means a distinct physical place of business. The “enterprise,” by reason of the definition contained in section 3(r) of the Act and the tests enumerated in section 3(s) of the Act, may be composed of a single establishment. The term “establishment,” however, is not synonymous with the words “business” or “enterprise” when those terms are used to describe multiunit operations. In such a multiunit operation some of the establishments may qualify for exemption, others may not. For example, a manufacturer may operate a plant for production of its goods, a separate warehouse for storage and distribution, and several stores from which its products are sold. Each such physically separate place of business is a separate establishment. In the case of chain store systems, branch stores, groups of independent stores organized to carry on business in a manner similar to chain store systems, and retail outlets operated by manufacturing or distributing concerns, each separate place of business ordinarily is a separate establishment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.304" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.304   Illustrations of a single establishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The unit store ordinarily will constitute the establishment contemplated by the exemptions. The mere fact that a store is departmentalized will not alter the rule. For example, the typical large department store carries a wide variety of lines which ordinarily are segregated or departmentalized not only as to location within the store, but also as to operation and records. Where such departments are operated as integral parts of a unit, the departmentalized unit taken as a whole ordinarily will be considered to be the establishment contemplated by the exemptions, even if there is diversity of ownership of some of the departments, such as leased departments.
</P>
<P>(b) Some stores, such as bakery or tailor shops, may produce goods in a back room and sell them in the adjoining front room. In such cases if there is unity of ownership and if the back room and the front room are operated by the employer as a single store, the entire premises ordinarily will be considered to be a single establishment for purposes of the tests of the exemption, notwithstanding the fact that the two functions of making and selling the goods, are separated by a partition or a wall. (See H. Mgrs. St., 1949, p. 27.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.305" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.305   Separate establishments on the same premises.</HEAD>
<P>Although, as stated in the preceding section, two or more departments of a business may constitute a single establishment, two or more physically separated portions of a business though located on the same premises, and even under the same roof in some circumstances may constitute more than one establishment for purposes of exemptions. In order to effect such a result physical separation is a prerequisite. In addition, the physically separated portions of the business also must be engaged in operations which are functionally separated from each other. Since there is no such functional separation between activities of selling goods or services at retail, the Act recognizes that food service activities of such retail or service establishments as drugstores, department stores, and bowling alleys are not performed by a separate establishment which “is” a “restaurant” so as to qualify for the overtime exemption provided in section 13(b)(8) and accordingly provides a separate overtime exemption in section 13(b)(18) for employees employed by any “retail or service establishments” in such activities in order to equalize the application of the Act between restaurant establishments and retail or service establishments of other kinds which frequently compete with them for customers and labor. (See Sen. Rept. 1487, 89th Cong. first session, p. 32.) For retailing and other functionally unrelated activities performed on the same premises to be considered as performed in separate establishments, a distinct physical place of business engaged in each category of activities must be identifiable. The retail portion of the business must be distinct and separate from and unrelated to that portion of the business devoted to other activities. For example, a firm may engage in selling groceries at retail and at the same place of business be engaged in an unrelated activity, such as the incubation of chicks for sale to growers. The retail grocery portion of the business could be considered as a separate establishment for purposes of the exemption, if it is physically segregated from the hatchery and has separate employees and separate records. In other words, the retail portion of an establishment would be considered a separate establishment from the unrelated portion for the purpose of the exemption if (a) It is physically separated from the other activities; and (b) it is functionally operated as a separate unit having separate records, and separate bookkeeping; and (c) there is no interchange of employees between the units. The requirement that there be no interchange of employees between the units does not mean that an employee of one unit may not occasionally, when circumstances require it, render some help in the other units or that one employee of one unit may not be transferred to work in the other unit. The requirement has reference to the indiscriminate use of the employee in both units without regard to the segregated functions of such units.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.306" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.306   Leased departments not separate establishments.</HEAD>
<P>It does not follow from the principles discussed in § 779.305 that leased departments engaged in the retail sale of goods or services in a departmentalized store are separate establishments. To the contrary, it is only in rare instances that such leased departments would be separate establishments for purposes of the exemptions. For example, take a situation where the departmentalized retail store, having leased departments, controls the space location, determines the type of goods that may be sold, determines the pricing policy, bills the customers, passes on customers' credit, receives payments due, handles complaints, determines the personnel policies, and performs other functions as well. In such situations the leased department is an integral part of the retail store and considered to be such by the customers. It is clear that such departments are not separate establishments but rather a part of the retail store establishment and will be considered as such for purposes of the exemptions. The same result may follow in the case of leased departments engaged in the retail sale of goods or services in a departmentalized store where all or most of the departments are leased or otherwise individually owned, but which operate under one common trade name and hold themselves out to the public as one integrated business unit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.307" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.307   Meaning and scope of “employed by” and “employee of.”</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(2) as originally enacted in 1938 exempted any employee “engaged in” any retail or service establishment. The 1949 amendments to that section, however, as contained in section 13(a)(2) and (4) exempted any employee “employed by” any establishment described in those exemptions. The 1961 and 1966 amendments retained the “employed by” language of these exemptions. Thus, where it is found that any of those exemptions apply to an establishment owned or operated by the employer the employees “employed by” that establishment of the employer are exempt from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Act without regard to whether such employees perform their activities inside or outside the establishment. Thus, such employees as collectors, repair and service men, outside salesmen, merchandise buyers, consumer survey and promotion workers, and delivery men actually employed by an exempt retail or service establishment are exempt from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Act although they may perform the work of the establishment away from the premises. As used in section 13 of the Act, the phrases “employee of” and “employed by” are synonymous.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.308" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.308   Employed within scope of exempt business.</HEAD>
<P>In order to meet the requirement of actual employment “by” the establishment, an employee, whether performing his duties inside or outside the establishment, must be employed by his employer in the work of the exempt establishment itself in activities within the scope of its exempt business. (See <I>Davis</I> v. <I>Goodman Lumber Co.,</I> 133 F. 2d 52 (CA-4) (holding section 13(a)(2) exemption inapplicable to employees working in manufacturing phase of employer's retail establishment); <I>Wessling</I> v. <I>Carroll Gas Co.,</I> 266 F. Supp. 795 (N.D. Iowa); <I>Oliveira</I> v. <I>Basteiro,</I> 18 WH Cases 668 (S.D. Texas). See also, <I>Northwest Airlines</I> v. <I>Jackson,</I> 185 F. 2d 74 (CA-8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Connecticut Co.,</I> 154 F. 2d 522 (CA-2) certiorari denied, 329 U.S. 667; and <I>Wabash Radio Corp.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 162 F. 2d 391 (CA-6).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.309" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.309   Employed “in” but not “by.”</HEAD>
<P>Since the exemptions by their terms apply to the employees “employed by” the exempt establishment, it follows that those exemptions will not extend to other employees who, although actually working in the establishment and even though employed by the same person who is the employer of all under section 3(d) of the Act, are not “employed by” the exempt establishment. Thus, traveling auditors, manufacturers' demonstrators, display-window arrangers, sales instructors, etc., who are not “employed by” an exempt establishment in which they work will not be exempt merely because they happen to be working in such an exempt establishment, whether or not they work for the same employer. (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kroger Co.,</I> 248 F. 2d 935 (CA-8).) For example, if the manufacturer sends one of his employees to demonstrate to the public in a customer's exempt retail establishment the products which he has manufactured, the employee will not be considered exempt under section 13(a)(2) since he is not employed by the retail establishment but by the manufacturer. The same would be true of an employee of the central offices of a chain-store organization who performs work for the central organization on the premises of an exempt retail outlet of the chain (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kroger Co.,</I> supra.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.310" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.310   Employees of employers operating multi-unit businesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the employer's business operations are conducted in more than one establishment, as in the various units of a chain-store system or where branch establishments are operated in conjunction with a main store, the employer is entitled to exemption under section 13(a)(2) or (4) for those of his employees in such business operations, and those only, who are “employed by” an establishment which qualifies for exemption under the statutory tests. For example, the central office or central warehouse of a chain-store operation even though located on the same premises as one of the chain's retail stores would be considered a separate establishment for purposes of the exemption, if it is physically separated from the area in which the retail operations are carried on and has separate employees and records. (<I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Sunshine Department Stores,</I> 15 W.H. Cases 169 (CA-5) <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Miller Drugs, Inc.,</I> 255 F. 2d 574 (CA-1); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Goldblatt Bros.,</I> 152 F. 2d 475 (CA-7).)
</P>
<P>(b) Under this test, employees in the warehouse and central offices of chainstore systems have not been exempt prior to, and their nonexempt status is not changed by, the 1961 amendments. Typically, chain-store organizations are merchandising institutions of a hybrid retail-wholesale nature, whose wholesale functions are performed through their warehouses and central offices and similar establishments which distribute to or serve the various retail outlets. Such central establishments clearly cannot qualify as exempt establishments. (<I>A. H. Phillips, Inc.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>C &amp; P Stores,</I> 286 F. 2d 109 (CA-5).) The employees working there are not “employed by” any single exempt establishment of the business; they are, rather, “employed by” an organization of a number of such establishments. Their status obviously differs from that of employees of an exempt retail or service establishment, working in a warehouse operated by and servicing such establishment exclusively, who are exempt as employees “employed by” the exempt establishment regardless of whether or not the warehouse operation is conducted in the same building as the selling or servicing activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.311" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.272.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.311   Employees working in more than one establishment of same employer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee who is employed by an establishment which qualifies as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(2) or (4) is exempt from the minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Act even though his employer also operates one or more establishments which are not exempt. On the other hand, it may be stated as a general rule that if such an employer employs an employee in the work of both exempt and nonexempt establishments during the same workweek, the employee is not “employed by” an exempt establishment during such workweek. It is recognized, however, that employees performing an insignificant amount of such incidental work or performing work sporadically for the benefit of another establishment of their employer nevertheless, are “employed by” their employer's retail establishment. For example, there are situations where an employee of an employer in order to discharge adequately the requirements of his job for the exempt establishment by which he is employed incidentally or sporadically may be called upon to perform some work for the benefit of another establishment. For example, an elevator operator employed by a retail store, in performance of his regular duties for the store incidentally may carry personnel who have a central office or warehouse function. Similarly, a maintenance man employed by such store incidentally may perform work which is for the benefit of the central office or warehouse activities. Also, a sales clerk employed in a retail store in one of its sales departments sporadically may be called upon to release some of the stock on hand in the department for the use of another store.
</P>
<P>(b) The application of the principles discussed in § 779.310 and in paragraph (a) of this section would not preclude the applicability of the exemption to the employee whose duties require him to spend part of his week in one exempt retail establishment and the balance of the week in another of his employer's exempt retail establishments; provided that his work in each of the establishments will qualify him as “employed” by such a retail establishment at all times within the individual week. As an example, a shoe clerk may sell shoes for part of a week in one exempt retail establishment of his employer and in another of his employer's exempt retail establishments for the remainder of the workweek. In that entire workweek he would be considered to be employed by an exempt retail establishment. In such a situation there is no central office or warehouse concept, nor is the employee considered as performing services for the employer's business organization as a whole since there is no period during the week in which the employee is not “employed by” a single exempt retail establishment. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="273" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.273" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Statutory Meaning of Retail or Service Establishment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.312" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.273.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.312   “Retail or service establishment”, defined in section 13(a)(2).</HEAD>
<P>The 1949 amendments to the Act defined the term “retail or service establishment” in section 13(a)(2). That definition was retained in section 13(a)(2) as amended in 1961 and 1966 and is as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>A “retail or service establishment” shall mean an establishment 75 per centum of whose annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services (or of both) is not for resale and is recognized as retail sales or services in the particular industry.</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>It is clear from the legislative history of the 1961 amendments to the Act that no different meaning was intended by the term “retail or service establishment” from that already established by the Act's definition, wherever used in the new provisions, whether relating to coverage or to exemption. (See S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., first session p. 27; H.R. 75, 87th Cong., first session p. 9.) The legislative history of the 1949 amendments and existing judicial pronouncements regarding section 13(a)(2) of the Act, therefore, will offer guidance to the application of this definition.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.313" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.273.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.313   Requirements summarized.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory definition of the term “retail or service establishment” found in section 13(a)(2), clearly provides that an establishment to be a “retail or service establishment”: (a) Must engage in the making of sales of goods or services; and (b) 75 percent of its sales of goods or services, or of both, must be recognized as retail in the particular industry; and (c) not over 25 percent of its sales of goods or services, or of both, may be sales for resale. These requirements are discussed below in §§ 779.314 through 779.341.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="274" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Making Sales of Goods and Services “Recognized as Retail”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.314" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.314   “Goods” and “services” defined.</HEAD>
<P>The term “goods” is defined in section 3(i) of the Act and has been discussed above in § 779.14. The Act, however, does not define the term “services.” The term “services,” therefore, must be given a meaning consistent with its usage in ordinary speech, with the context in which it appears and with the legislative history of the exemption as it explains the scope, the purposes and the objectives of the exemption. Although in a very general sense every business might be said to perform a service it is clear from the context and the legislative history that all business establishments are not making sales of “services” of the type contemplated in the Act; that is, services rendered by establishments which are traditionally regarded as local retail service establishments such as the restaurants, hotels, barber shops, repair shops, etc. (See §§ 779.315 through 779.320.) It is to these latter services only that the term “service” refers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.315" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.315   Traditional local retail or service establishments.</HEAD>
<P>The term “retail” whether it refers to establishments or to the sale of goods or services is susceptible of various interpretations. When used in a specific law it can be defined properly only in terms of the purposes and objectives and scope of that law. In enacting the section 13(a)(2) exemption, Congress had before it the specific object of exempting from the minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Act employees employed by the traditional local retail or service establishment, subject to the conditions specified in the exemption. (See statements of Rep. Lucas, 95 Cong. Rec. pp. 11004 and 11116, and of Sen. Holland, 95 Cong. Rec. pp. 12502 and 12506.) Thus, the term “retail or service establishment” as used in the Act denotes the traditional local retail or service establishment whether pertaining to the coverage or exemption provisions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.316" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.316   Establishments outside “retail concept” not within statutory definition; lack first requirement.</HEAD>
<P>The term “retail” is alien to some businesses or operations. For example, transactions of an insurance company are not ordinarily thought of as retail transactions. The same is true of an electric power company selling electrical energy to private consumers. As to establishments of such businesses, therefore, a concept of retail selling or servicing does not exist. That it was the intent of Congress to exclude such businesses from the term “retail or service establishment” is clearly demonstrated by the legislative history of the 1949 amendments and by the judicial construction given said term both before and after the 1949 amendments. It also should be noted from the judicial pronouncements that a “retail concept” cannot be artificially created in an industry in which there is no traditional concept of retail selling or servicing. (95 Cong. Rec. pp. 1115, 1116, 12502, 12506, 21510, 14877, and 14889; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290; <I>Phillips Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; <I>Durkin</I> v. <I>Joyce Agency, Inc.,</I> 110 F. Supp. 918 (N.D. Ill.) affirmed sub nom Mitchell v. Joyce Agency, Inc., 348 U.S. 945; <I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Roberts</I> 291 F. 2d 532 (CA-9); <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Idaho Sheet Metal Works,</I> 335 F. 2d 952 (CA-9), affirmed in 383 U.S. 190; Telephone Answering Service v. Goldberg, 290 F. 2d 529 (CA-1).) It is plain, therefore, that the term “retail or service establishment” as used in the Act does not encompass establishments in industries lacking a “retail concept”. Such establishments not having been traditionally regarded as retail or service establishments cannot under any circumstances qualify as a “retail or service establishment” within the statutory definition of the Act, since they fail to meet the first requirement of the statutory definition. Industry usage of the term “retail” is not in itself controlling in determining when business transactions are retail sales under the Act. Judicial authority is quite clear that there are certain goods and services which can never be sold at retail. (<I>Idaho Sheet Metal Works, Inc.</I> v. <I>Wirtz,</I> 383 U.S. 190, 202, rehearing denied 383 U.S. 963; <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Company, Inc.,</I> 383 U.S. 190, 202, rehearing denied 383 U.S. 963.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.317" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.317   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.318" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.318   Characteristics and examples of retail or service establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Typically a retail or service establishment is one which sells goods or services to the general public. It serves the everyday needs of the community in which it is located. The retail or service establishment performs a function in the business organization of the Nation which is at the very end of the stream of distribution, disposing in small quantities of the products and skills of such organization and does not take part in the manufacturing process. (See, however, the discussion of section 13(a)(4) in §§ 779.346 to 779.350.) Such an establishment sells to the general public its food and drink. It sells to such public its clothing and its furniture, its automobiles, its radios and refrigerators, its coal and its lumber, and other goods, and performs incidental services on such goods when necessary. It provides the general public its repair services and other services for the comfort and convenience of such public in the course of its daily living. Illustrative of such establishments are: Grocery stores, hardware stores, clothing stores, coal dealers, furniture stores, restaurants, hotels, watch repair establishments, barber shops, and other such local establishments.
</P>
<P>(b) The legislative history of the section 13(a)(2) exemption for certain retail or service establishments shows that Congress also intended that the retail exemption extend in some measure beyond consumer goods and services to embrace certain products almost never purchased for family or noncommercial use. A precise line between such articles and those which can never be sold at retail cannot be drawn. But a few characteristics of items like small trucks and farm implements may offer some guidance; their use is very widespread as is that of consumer goods; they are often distributed in stores or showrooms by means not dissimilar to those used for consumer goods; and they are frequently used in commercial activities of limited scope. The list of strictly commercial items whose sale can be deemed retail is very small and a determination as to the application of the retail exemption in specific cases would depend upon the consideration of all the circumstances relevant to the situation. (<I>Idaho Sheet Metal Works, Inc.</I> v. <I>Wirtz</I> and <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Company, Inc.,</I> 383 U.S. 190, 202, rehearing denied 383 U.S. 963.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 5856, Apr. 9, 1970, as amended at 36 FR 14466, Aug. 6, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.319" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.319   A retail or service establishment must be open to general public.</HEAD>
<P>The location of the retail or service establishment, whether in an industrial plant, an office building, a railroad depot, or a government park, etc., will make no difference in the application of the exemption and such an establishment will be exempt if it meets the tests of the exemption. Generally, however, an establishment, wherever located, will not be considered a retail or service establishment within the meaning of the Act, if it is not ordinarily available to the general consuming public. An establishment, however, does not have to be actually frequented by the general public in the sense that the public must actually visit it and make purchases of goods or services on the premises in order to be considered as available and open to the general public. A refrigerator repair service shop, for example, is available and open to the general public even if it receives all its orders on the telephone and performs all of its repair services on the premises of its customers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.320" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.320   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.321" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.274.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.321   Inapplicability of “retail concept” to some types of sales or services of an eligible establishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only those sales or services to which the retail concept applies may be recognized as retail sales of goods or services for purposes of the exemption. The fact that the particular establishment may have a concept of retailability, in that it makes sales of types which may be recognized as retail, is not determinative unless the requisite portion of its annual dollar volume is derived from particular sales of its goods and services which have a concept of retailability. Thus, the mere fact that an establishment is of a type noted in § 779.320 does not mean that any particular sales of such establishment are within the retail concept. As to each particular sale of goods or services, an initial question that must be answered is whether the sales of goods or services of the particular type involved can ever be recognized as retail. The Supreme Court in <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Co.,</I> 383 U.S. 190, confirmed the Department's position that (1) The concept of “retailability” must apply to particular sales of the establishment, as well as the establishment or business as a whole, and (2) even as to the establishment whose sales are “variegated” and include retail sales, that nonetheless classification of particular sales of goods or services as ever coming within the concept of retailability must be made. Sales of some particular types of goods or services may be decisively classified as nonretail on the ground that such particular types of goods or services cannot ever qualify as retail whatever the terms of sale, regardless of the industry usage or classification.
</P>
<P>(b) An establishment is, therefore, not automatically exempt upon a finding that it is of the type to which the retail concept of selling or servicing is applicable; it must meet all the tests specified in the Act in order to qualify for exemption. Thus, for example, an establishment may be engaged in repairing household refrigerators, and in addition it may be selling and repairing manufacturing machinery for manufacturing establishments. The retail concept does not apply to the latter activities. In such case, the exemption will not apply if the annual dollar volume derived from the selling and servicing of such machinery, and from any other sales and services which are not recognized as retail sales or services, and from sales of goods or services for resale exceeds 25 percent of the establishment's total annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services.
</P>
<P>(c) Since there is no retail concept in the construction industry, gross receipts from construction activities of any establishment also engaged in retail selling must be counted as dollar volume from sales not recognized as retail in applying the percentage tests of section 13(a)(2). Also, since construction and the distribution of goods are entirely dissimilar activities performed in industries traditionally recognized as wholly separate and distinct from each other, an employee engaged in construction activities is not employed within the scope of his employer's otherwise exempt retail business in any week in which the employee engages in such construction work, and is therefore (see § 779.308) not employed “by” a retail or service establishment within the meaning of the Act in such workweek.
</P>
<P>(d) Certain business establishments engage in the retail sale to the general public, as goods delivered to purchasers at a stipulated price, of items such as certain plumbing and heating equipment, electrical fixtures and supplies, and fencing and siding for residential installation. In addition to selling the goods they may also install, at an additional charge, the goods which are sold. Installation which is incidental to a retail sale (as distinguished from a construction or reconstruction contract to do a building alteration, or repair job at a contract price for materials and labor required, see § 779.355(a)(1) is considered an exempt activity. By way of example, if the installation for the customer of such goods sold to him at retail requires only minor carpentry, plumbing or electrical work (as may be the case where ordinary plumbing fixtures, or household items such as stoves, garbage disposals, attic fans, or window air conditioners are being installed or replaced), or where only labor of the type required for the usual installation of chain link fences around a home or small business establishment is involved, will normally be considered as incidental to the retail sale of the goods involved (unless, of course, the transaction between the parties is for a construction job at an overall price for the job, involving no retail sale of goods as such). In determining whether such an installation is incidental to a retail sale or constitutes a nonretail construction activity, it is necessary to consider the general characteristics of the entire transaction. Where one or more of the following conditions are present, the installation will normally be considered a construction activity rather than incidental to a retail sale:
</P>
<P>(1) The cost to the purchaser of the installation in relation to the sale price of the goods is substantial;
</P>
<P>(2) The installation involves substantial structural changes, extensive labor, planning or the use of specialized equipment;
</P>
<P>(3) The goods are being installed in conjunction with the construction of a new home or other structure; or
</P>
<P>(4) The goods installed are of a specialized type which the general consuming public does not ordinarily have occasion to use.
</P>
<P>(e) An auxiliary employee of an exempt retail or service establishment performing clerical, maintenance, or custodial work in the exempt establishment which is related to the establishment's construction activities will, for enforcement purposes, be considered exempt in any workweek if no more than 20 percent of his time is spent in such work.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="275" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>“Recognized” as Retail “in the Particular Industry”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.322" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.322   Second requirement for qualifying as a “retail or service establishment.”</HEAD>
<P>If the business is one to which the retail concept is applicable then the second requirement for qualifying as a “retail or service establishment” within that term's statutory definition is that 75 percent of the establishment's annual dollar volume must be derived from sales of goods or services (or of both) which are recognized as retail sales or services in the particular industry. Under the Act, this requirement is distinct from the requirement that 75 percent of annual dollar volume be from sales of goods or services “not for resale” (§ 779.329); many sales which are not for resale lack a retail concept and the fact that a sale is not for resale cannot establish that it is recognized as retail in a particular industry. (See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Co.,</I> 383 U.S. 190.) To determine whether the sales or services of an establishment are recognized as retail sales or services in the particular industry, we must inquire into what is meant by the terms “recognized” and “in the particular industry,” and into the functions of the Secretary and the courts in determining whether the sales are recognized as retail in the industry.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.323" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.323   Particular industry.</HEAD>
<P>In order to determine whether a sale or service is recognized as a retail sale or service in the “particular industry” it is necessary to identify the “particular” industry to which the sale or service belongs. Some situations are clear and present no difficulty. The sale of clothes, for example, belongs to the clothing industry and the sale of ice belongs to the ice industry. In other situations, a sale or service is not so easily earmarked and a wide area of overlapping exists. Household appliances are sold by public utilities as well as by department stores and by stores specializing in the sale of such goods; and tires are sold by manufacturers' outlets, by independent tire dealers and by other types of outlets. In these cases, a fair determination as to whether a sale or service is recognized as retail in the “particular” industry may be made by giving to the term “industry” its broad statutory definition as a “group of industries” and thus including all industries wherein a significant quantity of the particular product or service is sold. For example, in determining whether a sale of lumber is a retail sale, it is the recognition the sale of lumber occupies in the lumber industry generally which decides its character rather than the recognition such sales occupies in any branch of that industry.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.324" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.324   Recognition “in.”</HEAD>
<P>The express terms of the statutory provision requires the “recognition” to be “in” the industry and not “by” the industry. Thus, the basis for the determination as to what is recognized as retail “in the particular industry” is wider and greater than the views of an employer in a trade or business, or an association of such employers. It is clear from the legislative history and judicial pronouncements that it was not the intent of this provision to delegate to employers in any particular industry the power to exempt themselves from the requirements of the Act. It was emphasized in the debates in Congress that while the views of an industry are significant and material in determining what is recognized as a retail sale in a particular industry, the determination is not dependent on those views alone. (See 95 Cong. Rec. pp. 12501, 12502, and 12510; <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Co.,</I> 383 U.S. 190; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>City Ice Co.,</I> 273 F. 2d 560 (CA-5); <I>Durkin</I> v. <I>Casa Baldrich, Inc.,</I> 111 F. Supp. 71 (DCPR) affirmed 214 F. 2d 703 (CA-1); see also <I>Aetna Finance Co.</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> 247 F. 2d 190 (CA-1).) Such a determination must take into consideration the well-settled habits of business, traditional understanding and common knowledge. These involve the understanding and knowledge of the purchaser as well as the seller, the wholesaler as well as the retailer, the employee as well as the employer, and private and governmental research and statistical organizations. The understanding of all these and others who have knowledge of recognized classifications in an industry, would all be relevant in the determination of the question.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.325" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.325   Functions of the Secretary and the courts.</HEAD>
<P>It may be necessary for the Secretary in the performance of his duties under the Act, to determine in some instances whether a sale or service is recognized as a retail sale or particular industry. In the exceptional case where the determination cannot be made on the basis of common knowledge or readily accessible information, the Secretary may gather the information needed for the purpose of making such determinations. Available information on usage and practice in the industry is carefully considered in making such determinations, but the “word-usage of the industry” does not have controlling force; the Secretary “cannot be hamstrung by the terminology of a particular trade” and possesses considerable discretion as the one responsible for the actual administration of the Act. (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Co.,</I> 383 U.S. 190; and see 95 Cong. Rec. 12501-12502, 12510.) The responsibility for making final decisions, of course, rests with the courts. An employer disagreeing with the determinations of the Secretary and claiming exemption has the burden of proving in a court proceeding that the prescribed percentage of the establishment's sales or services are recognized as retail in the industry and that his establishment qualifies for the exemption claimed by him. (See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton,</I> cited above, and 95 Cong. Rec. 12510.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.326" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.326   Sources of information.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether a sale or service is recognized as a retail sale or service in a particular industry, there are available to the Secretary a number of sources of information to aid him in arriving at a conclusion. These sources include: (a) The legislative history of the Act as originally enacted in 1938 and the legislative history of the 1949, 1961, and 1966 amendments to the Act pertaining to those sections in which the term “retail or service establishment” is found, particularly in the section 13(a)(2) exemption; (b) the decisions of the courts during the intervening years; and (c) the Secretary's experience in the intervening years in interpreting and administering the Act. These sources of information enable the Secretary to lay down certain standards and criteria, as discussed in this subpart, for determining generally and in some cases specifically what sales or services are recognized as retail sales or services in particular industries.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.327" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.327   Wholesale sales.</HEAD>
<P>A wholesale sale, of course, is not recognized as a retail sale. If an establishment derives more than 25 percent of its annual dollar volume from sales made at wholesale, it clearly cannot qualify as a retail and service establishment. It must be remembered, however, that what is a retail sale for purposes of a sales tax law is not necessarily a retail sale for purposes of the statutory definition of the term “retail or service establishment”. Similarly, a showing that sales of goods or services are not wholesale or are made to the ultimate consumer and are not for resale does not necessarily prove that such sales or services are recognized in the particular industry as retail. (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Co.,</I> 388 U.S. 190.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.328" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.328   Retail and wholesale distinguished.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The distinction between a retail sale and a wholesale sale is one of fact. Typically, retail sales are made to the general consuming public. The sales are numerous and involve small quantities of goods or services. Wholesale establishments usually exclude the general consuming public as a matter of established business policy and confine their sales to other wholesalers, retailers, and industrial or business purchasers in quantities greater than are normally sold to the general consuming public at retail. What constitutes a small quantity of goods depends, of course, upon the facts in the particular case and the quantity will vary with different commodities and in different trades and industries. Thus, a different quantity would be characteristic of retail sales of canned tomato juice, bed sheets, furniture, coal, etc. The quantity test is a well-recognized business concept. There are reasonably definite limits as to the quantity of a particular commodity which the general consuming public regularly purchases at any given time at retail and businessmen are aware of these buying habits. These buying habits set the standard for the quantity of goods which is recognized in an industry as the subject of a retail sale. Quantities which are materially in excess of such a standard are generally regarded as wholesale and not retail quantities.
</P>
<P>(b) The sale of goods or services in a quantity approximating the quantity involved in a normal wholesale transaction and as to which a special discount from the normal retail price is given is generally regarded as a wholesale sale in most industries. Whether the sale of such a quantity must always involve a discount in order to be considered a wholesale sale depends upon industry practice. If the practice in a particular industry is such that a discount from the normal retail price is not regarded in the industry as significant in determining whether the sale of a certain quantity is a wholesale sale, then the question of whether the sale of such a quantity will be considered a wholesale sale would be determined without reference to the price. In some industries, the sale of a small quantity at a discount may also be regarded as a wholesale sale, in which case it will be so treated for purposes of the exemption. Generally, as the Supreme Court has recognized (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Co.,</I> 383 U.S. 1900), both the legislative history and common parlance suggest that “the term retail becomes less apt as the quantity and the price discount increases in a particular transaction.”
</P>
<P>(c) In some cases, a purchaser contracts for the purchase of a large quantity of goods or services to be delivered or performed in smaller quantities or jobs from time to time as the occasion requires. In other cases, the purchaser instead of entering into a single contract for the entire amount of goods, or services, receives a series of regular deliveries of performances pursuant to a quotation, bid, estimate, or general business arrangement or understanding. In these situations, if the total quantity of goods or services which is sold is materially in excess of the total quantity of goods or services which might reasonably be purchased by a member of the general consuming public during the same period, it will be treated as a wholesale quantity for purposes of the statutory definition of the term “retail or service establishment”, in the absence of clear evidence that under such circumstances such a quantity is recognized as a retail quantity in the particular industry. For example, if a food service firm contracts with a college to provide meals for the latter's boarding students for a term, in consideration of payment by the college of a stipulated sum based on the number of students registered or provided with meals, the services are being sold in a wholesale, rather than a retail quantity. If such a contract is entered into as a result of formal bids, as noted in paragraph (d) of this section, this would be an additional reason for nonrecognition of the transaction as a retail sale of such services.
</P>
<P>(d) Sales made pursuant to formal bid procedures, such as those utilized by the agencies of Federal, State, and local governments and oftentimes by commercial and industrial concerns involving the issuance by the buyer of a formal invitation to bid on certain merchandise or services for delivery in accordance with prescribed terms and specifications, are not recognized as retail sales.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.329" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.275.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.329   Effect of type of customer and type of goods or services.</HEAD>
<P>In some industries the type of goods or services sold or the type of purchaser of goods or services are determining factors in whether a sale or service is recognized as retail in the particular industry. In other industries a sale or service may be recognized as retail regardless of the type of goods or services sold or the type of customer. Where a sale is recognized as retail regardless of the type of customer, its character as such will not be affected by the character of the customer, with reference to whether he is a private individual or a business concern, or by the use the purchaser makes of the purchased commodity. For example, if the sale of a single automobile to anyone for any purpose is recognized as a retail sale in the industry, it will be considered as a retail sale for purposes of the exemption whether the customer be a private individual or an industrial concern or whether the automobile is used by the purchaser for pleasure purposes or for business purposes. If a sale of a particular quantity of coal is recognized in the industry as a retail sale, its character as such will not be affected by the fact that it is sold for the purpose of heating an office building as distinguished from a private dwelling. If the repair of a wash basin is recognized in the industry as a retail service, its character as such will not be affected by the fact that it is a wash basin in a factory building as distinguished from a wash basin in a private dwelling house. It must be remembered that these principles apply only to those sales of goods or services which have a retail concept, that is, where the subject matter is “retailable.” See § 779.321. The “industry-recognition” question as to whether such sales are recognized as retail in the industry has no relevancy if in fact the goods and services sold are not of a “retailable” character, as previously explained. If the subject of the sale does not come within the concept of retailable items contemplated by the statute, there can be no recognition in any industry of the sale of the goods or services as retail, for purposes of the Act, even though the nomenclature used by the industry members may put a retail label on the transaction. (See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Co.,</I> 383 U.S. 190; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="276" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.276" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Sales Not Made for Resale</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.330" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.276.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.330   Third requirement for qualifying as a “retail or service establishment.”</HEAD>
<P>The third requirement for qualifying as a “retail or service establishment” within that term's statutory definition is that 75 percent of the retail or service establishment's annual dollar volume must be from sales of goods or of services (or of both) which are not made for resale. At least three-fourths of the total sales of goods or services (or of both) (measured by annual dollar volume) must not be made for resale. Except under the special provision in section 3(n) of the Act, discussed in § 779.335, the requirement that 75 percent of the establishment's dollar volume be from sales of goods or services “not for resale” is a separate test and a sale which “for resale” cannot be counted toward the required 75 percent even if it is recognized as retail in the particular industry. The prescribed 75 percent must be from sales which are both not for resale and recognized as retail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.331" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.276.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.331   Meaning of sales “for resale.”</HEAD>
<P>Except with respect to a specific situation regarding certain building materials, the word “resale” is not defined in the Act. The common meaning of “resale” is the act of “selling again.” A sale is made for resale where the seller knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the goods or services will be resold, whether in their original form, or in an altered form, or as a part, component or ingredient of another article. Where the goods or services are sold for resale, it does not matter what ultimately happens to such goods or services. Thus, the fact that the goods are consumed by fire or no market is found for them, and are, therefore, never resold does not alter the character of the sale which is made for resale. Similarly, if at the time the sale is made, the seller has no knowledge or reasonable cause to believe that the goods are purchased for the purpose of resale, the fact that the goods later are actually resold is not controlling. In considering whether there is a sale of goods or services and whether such goods or services are sold for resale in any specific situation, the term “sale” includes, as defined in section 3(k) of the Act, “any sale, exchange, contract to sell, consignment for sale, shipment for sale, or other disposition.” Thus, under the definition sales by an establishment to a competitor are regarded as sales for resale even though made without profit. (<I>Northwestern-Hanna Fuel Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 166 F. 2d 932 (CA-8).) Similarly, sales for distribution by the purchaser for business purposes are sales for resale under the “other disposition” language of the definition of “sale” even though distributed at no cost to the ultimate recipient. (See <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Duplicate Photo Service,</I> 13 WH Cases 71, 31 L.C. Par. 70,287 (S.D. Cal. 1956) accord, <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Sherry Corine Corporation,</I> 264 F. 2d 831 (CA-4) (sale of meals to airlines for distribution to their passengers).) It should be noted, however, that occasional transfer of goods from the stock of one retail or service establishment to relieve a shortage in another such establishment under the same ownership will not be considered as sales for resale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.332" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.276.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.332   Resale of goods in an altered form or as parts or ingredients of other goods or services.</HEAD>
<P>Sale for resale includes the sale of goods which will be resold in their original form, in an altered form, or as a part or ingredient of another article. A sale of goods which the seller knows, or has reasonable cause to believe, will be resold after processing or manufacture is a sale for resale. Thus, sales of parts with the expectation that they will be incorporated in aircraft and that the aircraft will be sold clearly are sales for resale. (<I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Ben Kanowsky, Inc.,</I> 361 U.S. 388.) Similarly, the sale of lumber to furniture or box factories, or the sale of textiles to clothing manufacturers, is a sale for resale even though the goods are resold in the form of furniture or clothing. The principle is also illustrated in cases where the article sold becomes a part or an ingredient of another, such as scrap metal in steel, dyes in fabrics, flour in bread and pastries, and salt in food or ice in beverages. (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Douglas Auto Parts Co.,</I> 11 WH Cases 807, 25 L.C. Par. 68, 119 (N.D. Ill., 1954).) The fact that goods sold will be resold as a part of a service in which they are used or as a part of a building into which they are incorporated does not negate the character of the sale as one “for resale.” (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Furman Beauty Supply,</I> 300 F. 2d 16 (CA-3); <I>Mayol</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> 280 F. 2d 477 (CA-1), cert. denied 364 U.S. 902; <I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Kleban Eng. Corp.,</I> 303 F. 2d 855 (CA-5).) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.333" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.276.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.333   Goods sold for use as raw materials in other products.</HEAD>
<P>Goods are sold for resale where they are sold for use as a raw material in the production of a specific product to be sold, such as sales of coal for the production of coke, coal gas, or electricity, or sales of liquefied-petroleum-gas for the production of chemicals or synthetic rubber. However, the goods are not considered sold for resale if sold for general industrial or commercial uses, such as coal for use in laundries, bakeries, nurseries, canneries, or for space heating, or ice for use by grocery stores or meat markets in cooling and preserving groceries and meat to be sold. Similarly, ice used for cooling soft drinks while in storage will not be considered sold for resale. On the other hand, ice or ice cubes sold for serving soft drinks or other beverages will be considered as sales for resale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.334" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.276.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.334   Sales of services for resale.</HEAD>
<P>The same principles apply in the case of sales of services for resale. A sale of services where the seller knows or has reasonable cause to believe will be resold is a sale for resale. Where, for example, an establishment reconditions and repairs watches for retail jewelers who resell the services to their own customers, the services constitute a sale for resale. Where a garage repairs automobiles for a secondhand automobile dealer with the knowledge or reasonable cause to believe that the automobile on which the work is performed will be sold, the service performed by the garage is a sale for resale. The services performed by a dental laboratory in the making of artificial teeth for the dentist for the use of his patients is a sale of services (as well as of goods) for resale. The services of a fur repair and storage establishment performed for other establishments who sell these services to their own customers, constitute sales for resale. As in the case of the sale of goods, in certain circumstances, sales of services to a business for a specific use in performing a different service which such business renders to its own customers are in economic effect sales for resale as a part of the service that the purchaser in turn sells to his customers, even though such services are consumed in the process of performance of the latter service. For example, if a storage establishment uses mothproofing services in order to render satisfactory storage services for its customers, the sale of such mothproofing services to that storage establishment will be considered a sale for resale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.335" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.276.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.335   Sales of building materials for residential or farm building construction.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(n) of the Act, as amended, excludes from the category of sales for resale “the sale of goods to be used in residential or farm building construction, repair or maintenance: <I>Provided,</I> That the sale is recognized as a bona fide retail sale in the industry.” Under this section a sale of building materials to a building contractor or a builder for use in residential or farm building, repair or maintenance is not a sale for resale, provided, the sale is otherwise recognized as a bona fide retail sale in the industry. If the sale is not so recognized it will be considered a sale for resale. Thus, only bona fide retail sales of building materials to a building contractor or a builder for the uses described would be taken out of the category of sales for resale. (<I>Sucrs. De A. Mayol &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> 280 F. 2d 477 (CA-1); <I>Elder</I> v. <I>Phillips &amp; Buttroff Mfg. Co.,</I> 23 L.C. Par. 67,524 (Tenn., 1958).) The legislative history of the amendment indicates that it is not the intent of its sponsors to remove from the category of sales for resale such sales, for example, as sales of lumber to a contractor to build a whole residential subdivision. (See 95 Cong. Rec. 12533-12535; Sen. St. ibid; 14877.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.336" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.276.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.336   Sales of building materials for commercial property construction.</HEAD>
<P>Sales of building materials to a contractor or speculative builder for the construction, maintenance or repair of commercial property or any other property not excepted in section 3(n) of the Act, as explained above, will be considered as sales for resale. (See §§ 779.332 and 779.335.) Some employers who are dealers in building materials are also engaged in the business of building contractors or speculative builders. Building materials for the carrying on of the employer's contracting or speculative building business often are supplied by the employer himself from or through his building materials establishment. In the analysis of the sales of the building materials establishment for the purpose of determining the qualification of such establishment as a “retail or service establishment” all transfers of stock made by the employer from or through his building materials establishment to his building business for the construction, maintenance or repair of commercial property or any other property not excepted in section 3 (n) of the Act will be considered as sales made by such establishment for resale.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="277" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.277" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Tests of Exemption Under Section 13(<E T="01">a</E>)(2)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.337" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.277.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.337   Requirements of exemption summarized.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An establishment which is a “retail or service establishment” within the Act's statutory definition of that term (See discussion in §§ 779.312 to 779.336) must, to qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act (See § 779.301), meet both of the following tests:
</P>
<P>(1) More than 50 percent of the retail or service establishment's total annual dollar volume of sales must be derived from sales of goods or services (or both) which are made within the State in which the establishment is located; and
</P>
<P>(2) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) The retail or service establishment must not be in an enterprise of the type described in section 3(s), or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the retail or service establishment is in an enterprise of the type described in 3(s), it has an annual volume of sales (exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated) of less than $250,000.
</P>
<P>(b) The language of the statute in section 13(a)(2) expressly excludes from the exemption an establishment or employee engaged in laundering, cleaning, or repairing clothing or fabrics or an establishment engaged in the operation of a hospital, institution, or school described in section 3(s)(4) of the Act. No exemption for these is provided under this section even if the establishment meets the tests set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. (See § 779.338(b).) With respect to laundering and drycleaning establishments, which Congress found to lack a retail concept (See § 779.317) and had provided with a separate exemption in former section 13(a)(3) of the Act, repealed by the 1966 amendments, this exclusion simply clarifies the congressional intent to cover employees in such work under section 3(s)(2) of the present Act and to make sure that no exemption under 13(a)(2) will be construed so as to defeat the purpose of repealing the prior special exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.338" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.277.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.338   Effect of 1961 and 1966 amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The 1961 amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act narrowed the exemption for retail or service establishments by permitting section 13(a)(2) to be applied only to an establishment which was not in a covered enterprise, or (if it was in such an enterprise) which had an annual gross volume of sales of less than $250,000 (exclusive of specified taxes). There were certain exemptions to this general principle. These exceptions were set out in section 13(a)(2)(ii) and (iii). The establishments enumerated therein were exempt whether or not they were in a covered enterprise and regardless of the annual dollar volume of sales. They were: Hotels, motels, restaurants, motion picture theaters, seasonally operated amusement or recreational establishments, hospitals, institutions primarily engaged in the care of the sick, the aged, the mentally ill or defective residing on the premises of the institution, and schools for physically or mentally handicapped or gifted children. These establishments were exempt if they met the basic 50 percent in State sales test and the 75 percent retail sales test of section 13(a)(2). The 1966 amendments to the Act repealed sections 13(a)(2)(ii) and (iii). Now to be exempt under section 13(a)(2) hotels, motels, and restaurants must meet the same tests as other retail or service establishments (see § 779.337). Seasonal amusement or recreational establishments and motion picture theaters now have special exemptions from both the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions of the Act as provided by the 1966 amendments in sections 13(a)(3) and 13(a)(9) respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) Certain establishments which were previously exempt under section 13(a)(2) prior to the 1966 amendments have been specifically excluded from this exemption as a result of the amendments, even though they may still qualify as retail or service establishments under the definition of such an establishment in that section. These are hospitals, institutions primarily engaged in the care of the sick, the aged, the mentally ill or defective residing on the premises of the institution, and schools for physically or mentally handicapped or gifted children. However, such institutions have been recognized as having a retail concept and where the nature of their operations has not changed and where they otherwise satisfy the Act's definition of a “retail or service establishment”, certain food service employees employed by such institutions will be considered to be exempt from the Act's overtime pay provisions under section 13(b)(18), exemptions for their administrative or executive employees will not be defeated by nonexempt work occupying less than 40 percent of the employee's time, and full-time students may be employed in accordance with the special minimum wage provisions of section 14 of the Act and part 519 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="278" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.278" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Sales Made Within the State</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.339" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.278.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.339   More than 50 percent intrastate sales required.</HEAD>
<P>The first test specified in section 13 (a)(2) is that more than 50 percent of the sales of goods or of services (or of both) of a “retail or service establishment” (Measured by annual dollar volume) must be made “within the State in which the establishment is located”. This limitation means that such establishment must be primarily engaged (more than 50 percent) in selling to or serving customers within its State. If the establishment is engaged to the extent of 50 percent or more in selling to or serving customers outside the State of its location, the requirement is not met and the establishment cannot qualify for exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.340" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.278.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.340   Out-of-State customers.</HEAD>
<P>Whether the sale or service is made to an out-of-State customer is a question of fact. In order for a customer to be considered an out-of-State customer, some specific relationship between him and the seller has to exist to indicate his out-of-State character. Sales made to the casual cash-and-carry customer of a retail or service establishment, who, for all practical purposes, is indistinguishable from the mass of customers who visit the establishment, are sales made within the State even though the seller knows or has reason to believe, because of his proximity to the State line or because he is frequented by tourists, that some of the customers who visit his establishment reside outside the State. If the customer is of that type, sales made to him are sales made within the State even if the seller knows in the particular instance that the customer resides outside the State. On the other hand, a sale is made to an out-of-State customer and, therefore, is not a sale made “within the State” in which the establishment is located, if delivery of the goods is made outside the State. It should be noted that sales of goods or services that are conditioned upon acceptance or rejection by an out-of-State source are interstates sales and not sales made within the State for purposes of section 13(a)(2). For example, a contract entered into in the State where the customer resides for the delivery of a magazine to the customer's residence, is an interstate sale if the contract must be approved by the out-of-State home office of the company publishing the magazine before it becomes effective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.341" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.278.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.341   Sales “made within the State” and “engagement in commerce” distinguished.</HEAD>
<P>Sales to customers located in the same State as the establishment are sales made “within the State” even though such sales may constitute engagement in interstate commerce as where the sale: (a) Is made pursuant to prior orders from customers for goods to be obtained from outside the State; (b) contemplates the purchase of goods from outside the State to fill a customer's order; or (c) is made to a customer for use in interstate commerce or in production of goods for such commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="279" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.279" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Computing Annual Dollar Volume and Combination of Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.342" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.279.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.342   Methods of computing annual volume of sales.</HEAD>
<P>The tests as to whether an establishment qualifies for exemption under section 13(a)(2) of the Act are specified in terms of the “annual dollar volume of sales” of goods or of services (or both) and percentages thereof. The “annual dollar volume of sales” of an establishment consists of the gross receipts from all sales of the establishment during a 12-month period. The methods of computing it for purposes of determining whether the establishment qualifies under the tests of the exemption are the same as the methods of calculating whether the annual gross volume of sales or business of an enterprise or an establishment meets the statutory dollar tests for coverage. These are discussed in §§ 779.265 to 779.269. However, for purposes of the exemption tests the specified percentages are based on annual dollar volume before deduction of those taxes which are excluded in determining whether the $250,000 test is met. The exemption tests are in terms of the annual dollar volume of the establishment. This will include dollar volume from transactions with other establishments in the same enterprise, even though such transactions within an enterprise may not be part of the annual gross volume of the enterprise's sales made or business done (see § 779.259).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.343" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.279.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.343   Combinations of exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee may be engaged in a particular workweek in two or more types of activities for each of which a specific exemption is provided by the Act. The combined work of the employee during such a workweek may not satisfy the requirements of either exemption. It is not the intent of the Act, however, that an exemption based on the performance of one exempt activity should be defeated by the performance of another activity which has been made the basis of an equivalent exemption under another provision of the Act. Thus, where an employee during a particular workweek is exclusively engaged in performing two or more activities to which different exemptions are applicable, each of which activities considered separately would be an exempt activity under the applicable exemption if it were the sole activity of the employee for the whole workweek in question, as a matter of enforcement policy the employee will be considered exempt during such workweek. If the scope of such exemptions is not the same, the exemption applicable to the employee will be equivalent to that provided by whichever exemption provision is more limited in scope.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an establishment which sells both goods and services at retail and which qualifies as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(2), but cannot, as a whole, meet the tests of section 13(a)(4) because it sells services as well as goods, a combination of section 13(a)(2) and 13(a)(4) exemptions may nevertheless be available for employees of the establishment who make or process, on the premises, goods which it sells. Such employees employed by an establishment which, as a whole, meets the tests set forth in section 13(a)(2), will be considered exempt under this combination exemption if the establishment, on the basis of all its activities other than sales of services, would meet the tests of section 13(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(c) Where two or more exemptions are applicable to an employee's work or employment during a workweek and where he may be exempt under a combination of exemptions stated above, the availability of a combination exemption will depend on whether the employee meets all the requirements of each exemption which it is sought to combine. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="280" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.280" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Engaging in Manufacturing and Processing Activities; Section 13(<E T="01">a</E>)(4)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.345" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.280.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.345   Exemption provided in section 13(a)(4).</HEAD>
<P>The section 13(a)(4) exemption (see § 779.301) exempts any employee employed by a retail establishment which meets the requirements for exemption under section 13(a)(2), even though the establishment makes or processes on its own premises the goods that it sells, provided, that more than 85 percent of such establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of the goods so made or processed is made within the State in which the establishment is located, and other prescribed tests are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.346" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.280.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.346   Requirements for exemption summarized.</HEAD>
<P>An establishment to qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(4) must be an exempt retail establishment under section 13(a)(2); that is, 75 percent of its annual dollar volume of sales of goods must not be for resale, 75 percent of its annual dollar volume of sales of goods must be recognized as retail in its industry, over 50 percent of its annual dollar volume of sales of goods must be made within the State in which the establishment is located, and its annual dollar volume of sales must be under $250,000. In addition, the establishment must meet the following three tests:
</P>
<P>(a) The establishment must be recognized as a retail establishment in the particular industry.
</P>
<P>(b) The goods which the exempt establishment makes or processes must be made or processed at the establishment which sells the goods.
</P>
<P>(c) More than 85 percent of the establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of the goods which it makes or processes must be made within the State in which the establishment is located. (See Act, section 13(a)(2); H. Rept. No. 1453, 81st Cong. first session, p. 27; <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Ben Kanowsky, Inc.,</I> 361 U.S. 388.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.347" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.280.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.347   Exemption limited to “recognized retail establishment”; factories not exempt.</HEAD>
<P>The section 13(a)(4) exemption requires the establishment to be recognized as a retail establishment in the particular industry. This test limits the exemption to retail establishments only, and excludes factories as such and establishments to which the retail concept does not apply. In other words this test requires that the establishment as a whole be recognized as a retail establishment although it makes or processes at the establishment the goods it sells. Typical of the establishment which may be recognized as retail establishments under the exemption are custom tailor shops, candy shops, ice cream parlors, bakeries, drug stores, optometrist establishments, retail ice plants and other local retail establishments which make or process the goods they sell and meet the other tests for exemption. Clearly factories as such are not “recognized retail establishments” and would not be eligible for this exemption. (See 95 Cong. Rec. pp. 11001, 11200, 11216, and 14942.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.348" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.280.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.348   Goods must be made at the establishment which sells them.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Further to make certain that the exemption applies to retail establishments only and not to factories, an additional requirement of the exemption is that the goods which the exempt establishment makes or processes must be made or processed at the establishment which sells the goods. The exemption does not apply to an establishment which makes or processes goods for sale to customers who will go to other places to buy them. Thus an establishment that makes or processes any goods which the employer will sell from another establishment, is not exempt. If the establishment making the goods does not sell such goods but makes them for the purpose of selling them at other establishments the establishment making the goods is a factory and not a retail establishment.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the making or processing of the goods takes place away from the selling establishment, the section 13(a)(4) requirement that both the making or processing and selling take place at the same establishment cannot be met. This will be true even though the place at which the goods are made or processed services the retail selling establishment exclusively. In such a situation, while the selling establishment may qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(2), the separate establishment at which the goods are made or processed will not be exempt. The latter is a manufacturing establishment. For example, a candy kitchen manufacturing candy for sale at separate retail outlets is a manufacturing establishment and not a retail establishment. (<I>Fred Wolferman, Inc.</I> v. <I>Gustafson,</I> 169 F. 2d 759 (CA-8.))
</P>
<P>(c) The fact that goods made or processed on the premises of a bona fide retail establishment are sold by the establishment through outside salesmen (as, for example, department store salesmen taking orders from housewives for draperies) will not defeat the exemption if otherwise applicable. On the other hand, in the case of a factory or similar establishment devoted to making or processing goods, the fact that its goods are sold at retail by outside salesmen provides no ground for recognizing the establishment as a retail establishment or qualifying it for exemption. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.349" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.280.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.349   The 85-percent requirement.</HEAD>
<P>The final requirement for the section 13(a)(4) exemption is that more than 85 percent of the establishment's sales of the goods it makes or processes, measured by annual dollar volume, must consist of sales made within the State in which the establishment is located. A retail establishment of the type intended to be exempt under this exemption may also sell goods which it does not make or process; the 85-percent requirement applies only to the sales of goods which are made or processed at the establishment. This must not be confused with the additional test which requires that the establishment, to be exempt, must derive more than 50 percent of its entire annual dollar volume of sales of goods from sales made within the State. (See § 779.339.) In other words, more than 85 percent of the establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of goods made or processed at the establishment, and more than 50 percent of the establishment's total annual dollar volume of sales of all the goods sold by the establishment, must be derived from sales made within the State. An establishment will not lose an otherwise applicable exemption under section 13(a)(4) merely because some of its sales of goods made or processed at the establishment are sales for resale or are not recognized as retail sales in the particular industry. Sales for resale, such as wholesale sales, and other sales not recognized as retail sales in the industry, will be counted in the 25-percent tolerance permitted by the exemption. (Cf. <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Ben Kanowsky, Inc.,</I> 361 U.S. 388.) Thus, for example, a bakery otherwise meeting the tests of 13(a)(4) making and selling baked goods on the premises nevertheless will qualify as an exempt retail establishment even though it engages in the sale of baked goods to grocery stores for resale if such sales, together with other sales not recognized as retail in the industry, do not exceed 25 percent of the total annual dollar volume of the establishment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.350" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.280.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.350   The section 13(a)(4) exemption does not apply to service establishments.</HEAD>
<P>The section 13(a)(4) exemption applies to retail establishments engaged in the selling of goods. It does not apply to service establishments. If the establishment is a service establishment, it must qualify under section 13(a)(2) in order to be exempt. A retail establishment selling goods, however, also may perform services incidental or necessary to the sale of such goods, such as a delivery service by a bakery store or installation of antennas by a radio dealer for his customers, without affecting the character of the establishment as a retail establishment qualified for exemption under section 13(a)(4).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="281" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.281" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Engaging in Contract Telegraph Agency Operations; Section 13(<E T="01">a</E>)(11)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.351" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.281.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.351   Exemption provided.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(11) (See § 779.301) exempts from sections 6 and 7 of the Act any employee or proprietor who is engaged in handling telegraphic messages for the public in a retail or service establishment which qualifies as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2), if the conditions specified in section 13(a)(11) are met and the provisions of section 6 and 7 of the Act would not otherwise apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.352" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.281.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.352   Requirements for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of the exemption are: (a) The establishment in which the employee or proprietor works must qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act; (b) the employee or proprietor must be engaged in handling telegraphic messages for the public pursuant to an agency or contract arrangement with a telegraph company; (c) such employee or proprietor must be one to whom the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions of the Act would not apply in the absence of such handling of telegraphic messages (See <I>Western Union Tel. Co.</I> v. <I>McComb</I> 165 F. 2d. 65 (CA-6), certiorari denied, 333 U.S. 362); and (d) the exemption applies only where the telegraphic message revenue does not exceed $500 a month. For purposes of this exemption only, in determining whether a retail or service establishment meets the percentage tests contained in section 13(a)(2) of the Act, the receipts from the telegraphic message agency will not be included.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="282" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.282" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Classification of Sales and Establishments in Certain Industries</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.353" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.282.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.353   Basis for classification.</HEAD>
<P>The general principles governing the application of the 13(a)(2) and 13(a)(4) exemptions are explained in detail earlier in the subpart. It is the purpose of the following sections to show how these principles apply to establishments in certain specific industries. In these industries the Divisions have made special studies, held hearings or consulted with representatives of industry and labor, to ascertain the facts. Based upon these facts the following determinations have been made as to which sales or establishments are, and which are not, recognized as retail in the particular industry.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="283" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.283" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Lumber and Building Materials Dealers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.354" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.283.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.354   Who may qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) or 13(a)(4) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Section 13(a)(2).</I> An establishment engaged in selling lumber and building materials may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. It must appear that:
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment is not in an enterprise described in section 3(s) of the Act or, if it is, its annual dollar volume of sales (exclusive of excise taxes at the retail level which are separately stated) is less than $250,000; and
</P>
<P>(2) More than 50 percent of the establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services is made within the State in which the establishment is located; and
</P>
<P>(3) 75 percent or more of the establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services (or of both) is made from sales which are not for resale and are recognized as retail sales of goods or services in the industry.
</P>
<FP>These requirements are further explained in §§ 779.301 through 779.343.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Section 13(a)(4).</I> An establishment which makes or processes lumber and building materials which it sells may qualify as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(4) of the Act if it meets all the requirements (see <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388) of that exemption. It must appear that:
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment qualifies as an exempt retail establishment under section 13(a)(2) (see paragraph (a) of this section and § 779.350); and
</P>
<P>(2) The establishment is recognized as a retail establishment in the industry (see § 779.347 and paragraph (c) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(3) The goods which such establishment makes or processes for sale are made or processed at the retail establishment which sells them (see § 779.348); and
</P>
<P>(4) More than 85 percent of the annual dollar volume derived by the retail establishment from sales of goods so made or processed therein is made within the State in which the establishment is located (see §§ 779.349, 779.339 through 779.341). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Establishments recognized as retail in the industry.</I> An establishment which meets the requirements for exemption under section 13(a)(4) which are stated in paragraphs (b)(1), (3), and (4) of this section is recognized as retail establishment in the industry within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2) of this section if its annual dollar volume of sales of goods made or processed at the establishment does not exceed 50 percent of the annual dollar volume which it derives from sales that are recognized as retail and are not made for resale.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establishments lacking a “retail concept.</I>” The exemptions provided by sections 13(a)(2) and 13(a)(4) of the Act do not apply to establishments in an industry in which there is no traditional concept of retail selling or servicing (see § 779.316), such as the establishment of a building contractor (see § 779.317; <I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Dakota Flooring Co.,</I> 15 WH Cases 305), or a factory (see § 779.347).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.355" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.283.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.355   Classification of lumber and building materials sales.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In determining, for purposes of the section 13(a)(2) and (4) exemptions, whether 75 percent of the annual dollar volume of the establishment's sales which are not for resale and are recognized as retail in the industry, such sales will be considered to include all sales of lumber and building materials by the establishment which meet all the requirements for such classification as previously explained in this subpart, but will not be considered to include the transactions noted in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, which do not meet the statutory tests:
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transactions not recognized as retail sales.</I> (See §§ 779.314 through 779.329.) Dollar volume derived from the following is not made from sales or services which are recognized as retail in the industry:
</P>
<P>(1) Contracts to build, maintain, or repair buildings or other structures, or sales of services involving performance of typical construction activity or any other work recognized as an activity of a contracting business rather than a function of a retail merchant;
</P>
<P>(2) Sales of lumber and building materials in which the seller agrees to install them for the purchaser, where the installation is not limited to services that are merely incidental to the sale and delivery of such materials but includes a substantial amount of activity such as construction work which is not recognized as retail (for example, sale and installation of roofing, siding, or insulation). A sale of such materials which would otherwise be recognized as retail (contracts described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are outside this category) may be so recognized notwithstanding the installation agreement, however, to the extent that the sales value of the materials is segregated and separately identified in the transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) Sales in direct carload shipments; that is, where the materials are shipped direct in carload lots from the dealer's supplier to the dealer's customer;
</P>
<P>(4) Sales of specialized goods (some examples are logs, ties, pulpwood, telephone poles, and pilings). Such specialized items are of the type which the general consuming public does not ordinarily have occasion to use (cf. § 779.318 and <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Raines,</I> 238 F. 2d 186), and the sales of such items are not recognized as retail in the industry;
</P>
<P>(5) Sales made pursuant to formal bid procedures, such as those utilized by the Federal, State, and local governments and their agencies, involving the issuance by the buyer of a formal invitation to bid on certain merchandise for delivery in accordance with prescribed terms and specifications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sales for resale.</I> (See §§ 779.330-779.336.) Examples of sales which cannot be counted toward the required 75 percent because they are for resale include:
</P>
<P>(1) Sales of lumber and building materials sold to other dealers for resale in the same form;
</P>
<P>(2) Sales to industrial concerns for resale in any altered form or as a part or ingredient of other goods;
</P>
<P>(3) Sales to contractors or builders for use in the construction, repair, or maintenance of commercial or industrial structures or any other structures not specifically included in section 3(n) of the Act (Sucrs. de Mayal v. Mitchell, 280 F. 2d 477, certiorari denied 364 U.S. 902; and see <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388, 394, footnote 10, and §§ 779.335-779.336);
</P>
<P>(4) Transfers of goods by an employer, who is a dealer in lumber and building materials and who also acts in the capacity of a building contractor or speculative builder, from or through his building materials establishment to his building business for the construction maintenance, or repair of commercial property or any other property not excepted in section 3(n) of the Act. (See § 779.336.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.356" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.283.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.356   Application of exemptions to employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employees who may be exempt under sections 13(a)(2) and 13(a)(4).</I> These exemptions apply on an establishment basis (see §§ 779.302-779.306). Accordingly, where an establishment of a dealer in lumber and building materials qualifies as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) or as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(4), as explained in § 779.354, the exemption from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements of the Act provided by such section will apply, subject to the limitations hereafter noted in this section, to all employees who are employed “by” such establishment (see §§ 779.307-779.311) in activities within the scope of its business (§ 779.308) and who are not employed by the employer in performing central office or warehouse work of an organization operating several such establishments (§ 779.310; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>W. E. Wright Co.,</I> 168 F. 2d 40, cert. denied 335 U.S. 854). Neither exemption extends to employees employed in performing the work of a nonexempt establishment (§ 779.311) or such activities as construction work. Employees employed in making and processing of lumber and building materials for sale do not come within the section 13(a)(2) exemption; they are exempt only if employed by an establishment which qualifies as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(4) as explained in § 779.354 and if their work in the making or processing of such materials is done at such establishment. How duties relating to the processing or manufacturing of such materials affect the application of these exemptions is discussed in further detail in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing and manufacturing activities.</I> The performance, in an establishment which sells lumber and building materials at retail, of activities such as cutting lumber to a smaller size or dressing lumber in accordance with a customer's request or assembling window and door frames received in “knocked-down” condition, constitutes processing incidental to the sales of such materials. Such activities are not considered manufacturing and will not affect the applicability of the section 13(a)(2) exemption to the establishment or to the employees who perform them. However, whenever lumber is cut or dressed for sale, or fabricated products are manufactured for sale (for example, windows, door frames, benches, pig troughs, pallets, molding, sashes, cabinets, boxes), there is no exemption under section 13(a)(2). Employees performing such manufacturing activities at the establishment are exempt only if all the tests set forth in section 13(a)(4) are met (see pars. (b), (c), and (d) of § 779.354). Employees engaged in such activities at a manufacturing plant, central yard, or other place not qualifying as an exempt establishment under section 13(a) (2) and (4) are not exempt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees serving exempt and nonexempt operations.</I> In lumber and building materials establishments which qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(2) but engage in some activities in which their employees are not exempt, such as construction or the making or processing of materials for sale where no exemption under section 13(a)(4) is applicable, there may be auxiliary employees of the establishment whose duties relate to both the exempt sales portion of the business and the non-exempt operations. For example, office workers may keep records of both the retail sales and construction or manufacturing activities; custodial workers may clean the entire premises, including portions devoted to nonexempt manufacturing; and warehousemen, messengers, and stock clerks may handle material for all departments, including material used in the nonexempt operations. These employees do not qualify for the exemption except when they are primarily engaged in the sales portion of the business and only incidentally perform clerical, custodial, or messenger service for the other operations. As an enforcement policy, such an employee will not be considered to be engaged in nonexempt activities which render him ineligible for exemption under section 13(a)(2) if, in the particular workweek, an insubstantial amount of his time (20 percent or less) is allocable to the clerical, custodial, or messenger services performed by him which relate to such nonexempt operations of the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="284" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.284" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Coal Dealers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.357" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.284.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.357   May qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) establishments; classification of coal sales.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A coal dealer's establishment may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. In determining for purposes of the 13(a)(2) exemption, whether 75 percent of the establishment's sales are recognized as retail in the particular industry, sales of coal to the consumer from a dealer's yard storage, where bulk is broken, are recognized as retail if they meet the requirements for such classification as previously explained in this subpart. It has been determined that the following sales do not meet such requirements and are not so recognized even if made from a dealer's yard storage:
</P>
<P>(1) Sales where the delivery is made by railroad car or cargo vessel.
</P>
<P>(2) Sales in a carload quantity or more for continuous delivery by truck from a dock, mine or public railroad facility.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sales of coal at a wholesale price.</I> A wholesale price is a price comparable to or lower than the establishment's price in sales described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section or in sales to dealers (but not peddlers) for resale. If the establishment makes no such sales, the wholesale price is the price comparable to or lower than the price prevailing in the immediate area in sales described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section or in sales to dealers (but not peddlers) for resale.
</P>
<P>(4) Sales of coal for use in the production of a specific product to be sold in which coal is an essential ingredient or the principal raw material, such as sales of coal for the production of coke, coal gas, coal tar, or electricity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“Sales for resale.”</I> In determining for purposes of the 13(a)(2) exemption, whether 75 percent of the establishment's sales are not made for resale, “sales for resale” will include sales of coal to other dealers, to peddlers, and sales of coal for use in the production of a specific product to be sold, in which coal is an essential ingredient or the principal raw material, such as sales of coal for the production of coke, coal gas, coal tar, or electricity. This is distinguished from sales of coal for use in the general manufacturing or industrial process such as the use in laundries, bakeries, nurseries, canneries, etc., or for space heating, which are not sales made for resale.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="285" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.285" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Ice Manufacturers and Ice Dealers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.358" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.285.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.358   May qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) or 13(a)(4) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An establishment engaged in selling ice may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. Similarly, an establishment making the ice it sells may qualify as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(4) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether the requirements of the 13(a)(2) exemption that 75 percent of the establishment's sales must not be made for resale and must be recognized as retail sales in the industry are met, sales of ice which meet all the requirements for such classification as previously explained in this subpart will be regarded as retail. The following sales have been determined not to qualify under the applicable tests for recognition as retail:
</P>
<P>(1) Sales for resale.
</P>
<P>(2) Sales of ice for icing railroad cars and for icing cargo trucks. However, sales of ice for the re-icing of cargo trucks are recognized as retail if such sales do not fall into the nonretail categories described in paragraphs (b) (4) and (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Sales of ice in railroad car lots.
</P>
<P>(4) Sales of ice of a ton or more. 
</P>
<P>(5) Sales of ice at a price comparable to that charged by the establishment to dealers or, if no sales are made to dealers by the establishment, at a price comparable to or lower than the prevailing price to dealers in the area.
</P>
<P>(c) The legislative history indicates that iceplants making the ice they sell are among the establishments which may qualify as retail establishments under the section 13(a)(4) exemption. It appears that all iceplants which sell at retail are establishments of the same general type, permitting no separate classifications with respect to recognition as retail establishments. Any iceplant which meets the tests of section 13(a)(2) will, therefore, be considered to be recognized as a retail establishment in the industry. Of course, the establishment must also meet all the other tests of section 13(a)(4) to qualify for the exemption.
</P>
<P>(d) There are some iceplants which meet the section 13(a)(2) exemption requirements, but do not meet all of the section 13(a)(4) requirements. In such establishments, there may be some employees whose duties relate to both the sales portion of the business and the making or processing of ice. These employees will not qualify for exemption. However, in such establishment, there may be some employees who work primarily for the retail sales portion of the business and also perform incidental clerical, custodial, or messenger service for the manufacturing operation. For example, office workers may keep records of both the manufacturing activities and of the retail sales departments, maintenance workers may clean up in both parts of the establishment, and messengers may perform services for both activities. If these employees spend relatively little time in the work related to the ice manufacturing portion of the business, they will not, as an enforcement policy, be regarded as engaged in the making or processing of ice. Such an auxiliary employee will thus be exempt under section 13(a)(2) in any workweek in which an insubstantial amount of his time (20 percent or less) is allocable to the clerical, messenger, or custodial work of the ice manufacturing operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="286" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.286" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Liquefied-Petroleum-Gas and Fuel Oil Dealers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.359" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.286.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.359   May qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>A liquefied-petroleum-gas or fuel oil dealer's establishment may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. (It should be noted, however, that employees of certain enterprises engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products may be partially exempt from the overtime provisions of the Act under section 7(b)(3). This overtime exemption is discussed in a separate bulletin, part 794 of this chapter. Liquefied-petroleum-gas means butane, propane and mixtures of butane and propane gases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.360" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.286.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.360   Classification of liquefied-petroleum-gas sales.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In determining, under the 13(a)(2) exemption, whether 75 percent of the establishment's sales are not for resale and are recognized as retail sales in the industry, sales to the ultimate consumer of liquefied-petroleum-gas, whether delivered in portable cylinders or in bulk to the customer's storage tanks, are recognized as retail in the industry if they meet all the requirements for such classification as previously explained in this subpart. The following are not recognized as retail:
</P>
<P>(1) Sales in single lot deliveries exceeding 1,000 gallons;
</P>
<P>(2) Sales made on a competitive bid basis (this term covers sales made pursuant to an invitation to bid, particularly sales to Federal, State and local governments; sales made in a like manner to commercial and industrial concerns and institutions are also included); and
</P>
<P>(3) Sales for use in the production of a specific product in which the gas is an essential ingredient or principal raw material, such as sales of liquefied-petroleum-gas for the production of chemicals and synthetic rubber; and
</P>
<P>(4) Sales of liquefied-petroleum-gas for use as truck or bus fuel and the repair and servicing of trucks and buses used in over-the-road commercial transportation (including parts and accessories for such vehicles). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sales or repairs of tanks.</I> Sales or repairs of tanks for the storage of liquefied-petroleum-gas are recognized as retail in the industry, except: (1) Any tank exceeding 1,000 gallons in capacity; (2) any tank sold or repaired on the basis described in paragraph (a) (2) of this section or for the purposes described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section; and (3) sales in quantity larger than involved in the ordinary sales to a farm or household customer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conversion units.</I> Sales and installation of units for converting pumps, stoves, furnaces and other equipment and appliances to the use of liquefied-petroleum-gas, are recognized as retail sales except: (1) Sales of the installation of such conversion units which involve substantial modification of the appliance or equipment; (2) sales and installation of such units to be used in industrial machinery or equipment; (3) sales and installations made on the basis described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or in quantity as described in § 779.327; and (4) sales and installation of such units for vehicles mentioned in paragraph (a) (4) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.361" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.286.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.361   Classification of other fuel oil sales.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sales of fuel oil (as differentiated from sales of butane and propane gases) are classified as retail and nonretail sales as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Retail sales—all sales of grades No. 1, No. 2, and No. 3 of fuel oil direct to housholders for their own domestic uses;
</P>
<P>(2) Nonretail sales:
</P>
<P>(i) All sales of grades No. 4, No. 5, and No. 6 fuel oil as these heavy oils are “special purpose” goods to which the retail sales concept has no application (See § 779.321);
</P>
<P>(ii) All sales for resale including such sales to peddlers and other dealers (See §§ 779.331-779.334);
</P>
<P>(iii) All sales made pursuant to a formal invitation to bid (See § 779.328(d)).
</P>
<P>(b) In some cases the retail or nonretail status of an establishment may turn on sales other than those listed above. In such cases all the facts relative to such sales shall be considered in arriving at a determination. The classification of such sales depends upon whether they are recognized as retail sales. In such cases particular attention shall be given to the quantities involved and the prices charged.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="287" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.287" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Feed Dealers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.362" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.287.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.362   May qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) or 13(a)(4) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An establishment engaged in selling feed may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. Similarly an establishment making and processing the feed it sells may qualify as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(4) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether, under the 13(a)(2) exemption, 75 percent of the establishment's sales are not for resale and are recognized as retail sales in the industry, sales of feed to feeders will generally meet the requirements for such classification as previously explained in this subpart and will ordinarily be considered to be retail sales except for the following which do not meet the requirements and are not recognized as retail: Any sale of feed for shipment by railcar direct to the feeder; and sales made at a quantity discount which results in a price comparable to or lower than the establishment's price to dealers for resale or, if the establishment makes no sales to other dealers, at a price comparable to or lower than the price prevailing in the immediate area in sales by similar establishments to dealers for resale.
</P>
<P>(c) The custom grinding and mixing of feed (including the addition of supplements) for feeders from the grain they themselves bring in will be regarded as the performance of a service, and not the making or processing of goods for sale under section 13(a)(4). Such services are recognized as retail services in the industry and the revenue derived therefrom will be included with the retail receipts of the establishment.
</P>
<P>(d) Employees employed in the grinding and mixing of feed for sale (as distinguished from the grinding and mixing services discussed in paragraph (c) of this section) are engaged in the making or processing of goods and are therefore not exempt under section 13(a)(2). In order for these employees to be exempt, the establishment by which they are employed must meet all the requirements of section 13(a)(4), including the requirement that the establishment must be recognized as a retail establishment in the particular industry. The typical small feed mill engaged in selling goods to farmers appears to be recognized as retail in the industry. There are, of course, large mills which are essentially factories which are not so recognized. As an enforcement policy an establishment which qualifies for exemption under section 13(a)(2) will be considered to have met this requirement: (1) If less than 50 percent of its retail sales are composed of feed manufactured at the establishment; or (2) if its sales of feeds manufactured at the establishment do not exceed 2,000 tons a year. In determining these tests for the applicability of the exemption, the computation of the sales of feed manufactured will be made on an annual basis in the same manner as set forth in §§ 779.265 through 779.269 for the computation of sales.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="288" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.288" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Monument Dealers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.363" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.288.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.363   May qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) or 13(a)(4) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An establishment engaged in the sale of monuments and memorials may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. Similarly, an establishment making or processing the monuments it sells may qualify as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(4) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) Monument dealers' establishments may be roughly divided into four types;
</P>
<P>(1) Establishments which are engaged exclusively in selling monuments and memorials from designs. They receive their monuments from a manufacturer completely finished and lettered and they then erect the monuments.
</P>
<P>(2) Establishments which purchase finished monuments from manufacturers, display them, carve or sand-blast lettering or incidental decoration to order, and set them in cemeteries or elsewhere.
</P>
<P>(3) Establishments which purchase finished and semi-finished work. The semifinished work consists of sawed, steeled, or polished granite slabs or sand-rubbed marble. In such a case the establishments will cut ends, tops, or joints on dies and may shape a base.
</P>
<P>(4) Establishments which purchase stone in rough form and perform all the fabricating operations in their own plants. In such a case the establishments may saw or line-up the rough stones, machine surface and polish the stone and then perform the other operations necessary to complete the monument. They may finish the monuments for display or on special order and then erect them.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining whether, under the 13(a)(2) exemption, 75 percent of the establishment's sales are not for resale and are recognized as retail sales in the industry, the ordinary sale of a single tombstone or monument to the ultimate purchaser will be considered as a retail sale within the meaning of the exemption. If the monument dealer establishment meets all the tests of the 13(a)(2) exemption all employees employed by it will be exempt under that exemption except those employees who are engaged in the making or processing of the goods. However, carving or sandblasting of lettering or incidental decoration or erecting the monuments, is considered processing incidental to the making of retail sales and would not defeat the 13(a)(2) exemption for employees performing such work. Employees who engage in processing semifinished or rough granite or marble or other stone into finished monuments such as the work performed in establishments described in paragraphs (b) (3) and (4) of this section are engaged in the making or processing of goods and are, for that reason, not exempt under section 13(a)(2). In order for those employees to be exempt the establishment by which they are employed must meet all the requirements of the 13(a)(4) exemption.
</P>
<P>(d) One of the requirements of the section 13(a)(4) exemption is that an establishment which makes or processes goods must be recognized as a retail establishment in the industry. Generally an establishment described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section which receives finished stock and in addition receives some semifinished work, including sawed, steeled, or polished granite slabs or sand-rubbed marble, etc., and performs such operations as cutting ends, tops, or joints on the dies, is a type of establishment which is recognized as a retail establishment in the industry. On the other hand, those establishments which characteristically engage in the sawing or lining up of rough stone, or in the machine surfacing and polishing of stone, such as the activities performed in an establishment described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, are not recognized as retail establishments in the particular industry within the meaning of section 13(a)(4). Therefore, their employees who engage in such processing of monuments are not exempt under this section of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="289" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.289" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Frozen-Food Locker Plants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.364" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.289.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.364   May qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) or 13(a)(4) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An establishment engaged in providing frozen-food locker service to farmers and other private individuals and rendering services thereto may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. Similarly, a frozen-food locker plant which also engages in slaughtering and dressing livestock or poultry for sale may qualify as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(4) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Activities of frozen-food locker plants.</I> Frozen-food locker plants provide locker service for the cold storage of frozen meats, fruits, and vegetables and engage in incidental activities such as the cutting of meat, cleaning, packaging or wrapping and quick freezing, of meats, fruits, or vegetables for such locker service. In such establishments lockers are rented principally to farmers and other private individuals for the purpose of storage by them of such goods for their own personal or family use. Storage space and related services may also be provided for business or commercial use such as to hotels, stores or restaurants, or to farmers or other customers who use it to store meat and other goods for future sale. Such locker plants may also engage in such activities as the custom slaughtering and dressing of livestock or poultry and the curing, smoking, or other processing of meat owned by farmers and other private individuals for storage by those customers either in their home freezers or in locker plants for the customers' personal or family use. The custom slaughtering or processing activities of such locker establishments may be performed on the premises of the establishments or at some location away from the establishment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification of sales.</I> In determining whether, under the 13(a)(2) exemption, 75 percent of the establishment's sales are not for resale and are recognized as retail sales in the industry, the receipts from the locker service and the incidental activities mentioned in the first sentence of this section and from the slaughtering, dressing, or other processing of livestock or poultry performed for farmers and other private individuals for their own use, but not where the goods are to be sold to others by the customer, will be counted as receipts from sales of services recognized as retail in the industry. Receipts from commercial storage and activities incidental thereto and from the sale of hides, offal or other byproducts will be counted as receipts from sales of goods or services made for resale or which are not recognized as retail sales of goods or services in the industry.
</P>
<P>(d) Some locker plant establishments also include a meat market of the type which slaughters its own livestock or poultry (as distinguished from the slaughtering performed as a service to customers on the customers' own livestock) and processes such meat for sale by it to the general public. In performing such operations as the slaughtering, curing, and smoking of meat and the rendering of fats for sale, the establishment is making or processing goods that it sells and is not performing retail services for its customers. Employees engaged in these activities in such an establishment, therefore, are not exempt under section 13(a)(2) but may be exempt if the establishment meets the tests of a combination 13(a)(2)-13(a)(4) exemption in accordance with the principles stated in § 779.343. As a general rule, such a meat market which slaughters its own livestock and sells its meat to the general public is a type of establishment which may be recognized as a retail establishment in the industry within the meaning of the 13(a)(4) exemption. Whether a particular establishment, however, is so recognized depends upon the facts of the case. It should be noted that where such slaughtering, curing or smoking is, for any reason, performed away from the premises of the establishment where the meat is sold, the employees engaged in such activities are not employees employed by a retail establishment which “makes or processes at the retail establishment the goods that it sells” within the meaning of the 13(a)(4) exemption and cannot, therefore, be exempt under that section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="290" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.290" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Automotive Tire Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.365" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.290.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.365   May qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) or 13(a)(4) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An establishment engaged in the selling of tires, tubes, accessories and of repair services on tires may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. Similarly, an establishment engaged in retreading or recapping tires may qualify as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(4) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In determining whether, under the 13(a)(2) exemption, 75 percent of the establishment's sales are not made for resale and are recognized as retail sales in the industry, sales other than those described hereinafter in the subparagraphs of this paragraph may be so counted if they meet all the requirements for such classification as previously explained in this subpart. Not eligible for inclusion in the requisite 75 percent are sales of goods that cannot be the subject of a retail sale because the goods are not of a “retailable” type or the sales of such goods lack the “retail concept” (see § 779.321). Nor can sales for resale be counted toward the 75 percent. For example, sales of tires, tubes, accessories or services to garages, service stations, repair shops, tire dealers and automobile dealers, to be sold or to be used in reconditioning vehicles for sale are sales for resale. Further, the sales of tires, tubes, accessories and tire repair services, including retreading and recapping, which are described in the following paragraphs (b) (2) through (7), are not recognized as retail in the industry.
</P>
<P>(2) Sales made pursuant to a formal invitation to bid: Such sales are made under a procedure involving the issuance by the buyer of a formal invitation to bid on certain merchandise for delivery in accordance with prescribed terms and specifications. Sales to the Federal, State and local governments are typically made in this manner.
</P>
<P>(3) Sales to “national accounts” as known in the trades; that is, sales where delivery is made by the local tire dealer under a centralized pricing arrangement between the customer's national office and the tire manufacturer; payment may be made either to the local dealer or direct to the tire manufacturer under a centralized billing arrangement with the customer's national office.
</P>
<P>(4) Sales to fleet accounts at wholesale prices: As used in this section, a “fleet account” is a customer operating five or more automobiles or trucks for business purposes. Wholesale prices for tires, tubes, and accessories are prices equivalent to, or less than, those typically charged on sales for resale. If the establishment makes no sales of passenger car tires for resale, the wholesale price of such tires will be taken to be the price typically charged in the area on sales of passenger car tires for resale. If the establishment makes no sales of truck tires for resale, the wholesale price of such tires will be taken to be the price charged by the establishment on sales of truck tires to fleet accounts operating 10 or more commercial vehicles, or if the establishment makes no such sales, the wholesale price will be taken to be the price typically charged in the area on sales of truck tires to fleet accounts operating 10 or more commercial vehicles. (See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire,</I> 383 U.S. 190, 202, rehearing denied 383 U.S. 963.) 
</P>
<P>(5) Sales of a tire rental service on a mileage basis known in the trade as “mileage contracts”: This is a leasing arrangement under which a tire dealer agrees to provide and maintain tires or tubes for motor vehicles of a fleet account.
</P>
<P>(6) Sales of servicing and repair work performed under a fleet maintenance arrangement on tires for trucks and other automotive vehicles whereby the establishment undertakes to maintain the tires or tubes for a fleet account at a price below the prevailing retail price.
</P>
<P>(7) Sales, repair, recapping, or rental of truck or machinery tires suitable for use only on trucks or equipment of a specialized kind that cannot themselves be the subject of a retail sale because their lack of a concept of “retailability” as previously explained precludes the recognition of their sale as “retail;” to any industry.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.366" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.290.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.366   Recapping or retreading tires for sale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Some automotive tire establishments engage in recapping and retreading work on tires which the establishment expects to sell in their reconditioned form. Such activities are not performed as a service for a customer but constitute manufacturing goods for sale. Employees performing such work may be exempt only if they are employed by an establishment which meets all the requirements of the 13(a)(4) exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of meeting the retail recognition requirement of section 13(a)(4), an establishment engaged in retreading or recapping of tires which qualifies for exemption under section 13(a)(2) is recognized as a retail establishment in the industry if not more than 50 percent of the annual dollar volume of its sales resulting from its retreading and recapping operations comes from the sale of tires retreaded and recapped for sale.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="291" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.291" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Commercial Stationers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.367" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.291.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.367   Commercial stationers may qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A commercial stationer's establishment may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that exemption. Where the establishment meets these requirements all employees employed by the establishment will be exempt, except any employees who are engaged in the making or processing of goods, such as printing and engraving. The commercial stationer ordinarily has a store on the street level located in the shopping section of the community where other stores are located and many people pass by. He has store clerks who sell over the counter to the consuming public and may have outside salesmen who sell to offices. He makes very few, if any, sales to other dealers for resale. He keeps in stock and displays the various items sold over the counter and by outside salesmen. The number of items in stock typically ranges from 5,000 to 15,000. Primarily, items sold are stationery, pens, pencils, blotters, briefcases, calendars, clocks, greeting cards, thumbtacks, typewriter ribbons, carbon paper, paper clips, ink, commercial envelopes and typewriter paper, filing supplies and similar items. In addition he may also sell filing cabinets, office desks and chairs, other items of office furniture and supplies and equipment generally, as well as standard and portable typewriters and certain other small office machines.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether, under the 13(a)(2) exemption, 75 percent of the establishment's sales are recognized as retail sales, in the case of commercial stationery establishments which in general operate as described in § 779.367(a), the sales made which are of “Retailable” items and are not for resale will be recognized as retail if they meet the requirements for such classification as previously explained in this subpart. The following position is adopted for enforcement purposes: All sales other than for resale of stationery, office supplies and equipment, office furniture and office machinery commonly stocked by commercial stationers for sale to individual consumers as well as businesses, including typewriters, adding machines, small duplicating machines, checkwriters, and the like, will be considered to be retail except for the sales set out below: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sales made on a competitive bid basis. This term covers sales made pursuant to an invitation to bid, particularly sales to Federal, State, and local governments; sales made in a like manner to commercial and industrial concerns and institutions are also included.
</P>
<P>(2) Sales made pursuant to a requirements contract or other contractual arrangement involving the sale of a large quantity of goods over a period of time with a substantially lower price structure for the individual deliveries than would prevail for the usual sales of the quantities delivered.
</P>
<P>(3) Sales made at quantity discount of 30 percent or more from the price of the ordinary unit of sale.
</P>
<P>(4) Sales of school supplies to municipalities, boards of education, or schools in the same manner as the sales of school supply distributors.
</P>
<P>(5) Sales of job printing and engraving other than (i) sales of social printing and engraving and (ii) sales of printing and engraving of business envelopes, letterheads, and calling cards.
</P>
<P>(6) Sales of specialized machinery and equipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.368" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.291.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.368   Printing and engraving establishments not recognized as retail.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An establishment which is engaged in printing and engraving is not recognized as a retail establishment for purposes of section 13(a)(4). Therefore, employees of a stationery establishment engaged in printing and/or engraving do not come within the exemption. This fact will not affect the exemption under section 13(a)(2) of employees of stationery establishments who are not engaged in printing or engraving.
</P>
<P>(b) In a combined stationery and printing or engraving establishment there are employees who operate the machines in the printing or engraving department and there may be other employees who also perform work primarily or exclusively for that department. There are in addition various employees in such combined establishments whose work relates to the stationery portion of the business but who also perform some work for the printing department. For example, office workers may keep records of both the printing plant and stationery department, maintenance workers may clean up in both departments; and warehousemen, messengers and stock clerks may handle material for both departments. In some establishments these workers spend relatively little time in the work of the printing department. As an enforcement policy an auxiliary employee will not be considered to be engaged in the making or processing of goods for purposes of the exemption under section 13(a)(2) in any workweek in which an insubstantial amount of his time (20 percent or less) is allocable to the clerical, messenger, or custodial work of the printing department.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="292" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.292" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Funeral Homes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.369" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.292.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.369   Funeral home establishments may qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A funeral home establishment may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that section. Where the establishment meets these requirements generally all employees employed by the establishment will be exempt except any employees who perform any work in connection with burial insurance operations (see paragraph (b)) or who spend a substantial portion of their workweek in ambulance service operations, as described in paragraph (e) below.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Burial insurance operations.</I> There is no retail concept applicable to the insurance business (see § 779.317). Burial associations which enter into burial insurance contracts are generally regulated by the State and the regulations governing such associations are included in State statutes under Insurance. The contracts issued are very similar in form and content to ordinary life insurance policies. Income received from such operations is nonretail income and employees engaged in such work are not employed in work within the scope of the retail exemption (see § 779.308).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accommodation items.</I> Amounts paid to funeral homes to cover the cost of “accommodation” items are part of the gross receipts of the establishment and are included in its annual gross volume of sales made or business done. Such items may include goods or services procured by the funeral home on behalf of the bereaved with or without profit but on its own credit or through cash payment by it, such as telegrams, long distance calls, newspaper notices, flowers, livery service, honoraria to participating personnel, transportation by common carrier, clothing for the deceased, and transcripts of necessary forms. For the purposes of determining the applicability of the retail or service establishment exemption, receipts of the funeral home in reimbursement for such services are considered derived from sales or services recognized as retail in the industry. Cash advances made as a convenience to a bereaved family are not included in computing the gross volume of sales made of business done when repaid. Of course, if interest is charged it would be included in the gross volume of sales and nonretail income.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonretail services.</I> Calling for and preparing bodies and crematory service for other funeral homes, burial insurance operations, and ambulance or livery transportation service (as distinguished from the use of ambulances or other vehicles as a necessary part of the undertaking, funeral, or burial services of the establishment), are some examples of a funeral home providing goods or services which will be “resold” or which are not recognized as retail.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Ambulance service.</I> The typical ambulance service establishment, engaged exclusively or nearly so in providing a specialized form of transportation for sick, injured, aged, or handicapped persons, is a part or branch of the transportation industry. Since there is no traditional retail concept in the transportation industry, such ambulance service establishments cannot qualify for the section 13(a)(2) exemption (see § 779.317). Income from the same typical ambulance services would be considered nonretail in applying the 25 percent tolerance for nonretail income in a funeral home. If an establishment engaged in a combination of funeral home and ambulance services meets all the tests for exemption under section 13(a)(2), as applied to the combined sales of both types of services, those of its employees who are engaged in the funeral home's activities and functions will be exempt as employees of a retail or service establishment. This exemption, however, does not apply to any employee regularly engaged in nonexempt ambulance transportation activities in any workweek when he devotes a substantial amount of his working time to such nonexempt work. More than 20 percent of the employee's working time in the workweek will, for enforcement purposes, be considered substantial.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Out-of-State sales.</I> An arrangement with a funeral home to embalm and ship human remains to a point outside the State for burial is not a sale within the State. The reverse situation where an out-of-State funeral director ships the remains to a funeral home to arrange for local interment also is not a sale within the State.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Work for more than one establishment.</I> Employees performing central office, supply, or warehouse functions for more than one funeral home establishment are not within the exemption (see § 779.310). However, where certain mortuaries may operate more than one exempt establishment and where employees such as embalmers employed by an exempt funeral home may be called upon in a given workweek to perform for another exempt establishment or establishments in the same enterprise work which is a part of the funeral home services sold by that establishment or establishments to customers, such employees do not lose the exemption where at all times during the workweek the employee is employed by one or the other of such exempt establishments either inside or outside the establishment in the activities within the scope of its own exempt business (see § 779.311(b)). In addition, where an establishment offering complete funeral home services also has outlying chapels where only the funeral services of the deceased persons are conducted, employees of the main establishment who are otherwise exempt do not lose the exemption by virtue of the activities which they may perform in connection with the funeral services held at the chapel. These activities are in such a case part of their employment by the exempt main establishment. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="293" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.293" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Cemeteries</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.370" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.293.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.370   Cemeteries may qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A cemetery may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if it meets all the requirements of that section, including the requirement that the retail or service establishment be open to the general public. So long as a cemetery is open to any persons of a particular religion rather than merely the members of a specific organization or place of worship, it will be considered for enforcement purposes to be “open to the general public.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual dollar volume.</I> As used in the Act, annual gross volume means the gross receipts from all the business activities of the establishment during a 12-month period (see §§ 779.265 through 779.269). Sums received from the following types of transactions are part of the annual gross volume of sales made or business done:
</P>
<P>(1) Sales of lots or plots.
</P>
<P>(2) Annual tax or assessment levied on lot owners, and
</P>
<P>(3) Gifts or bequests.
</P>
<FP>Interest from any trust funds for permanent or current maintenance is also included in the annual gross volume of sales made or business done. The allocation of the gross receipts to any trust funds or other accounts of the establishment does not affect the annual gross volume.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Nonretail sales or income.</I> Sales of lots or plots to a burial society or a fraternal organization for the use of the members are sales for resale and as such may not be counted as part of the 75 percent of annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services which is not for resale and recognized as retail in the industry under section 13(a)(2). Such sales are counted as part of the annual gross volume in the period in which the transaction between the cemetery and the burial society or fraternal organization is completed. Any interest from trust funds or other investments also is not recognized as retail receipts under section 13(a)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="294" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.294" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Automobile, Truck and Farm Implement Sales and Services, and Trailer, Boat and Aircraft Sales</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.371" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.294.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.371   Some automobile, truck, and farm implement establishments may qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(2).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The specific exemption from the provisions of sections 6 and 7 of the Act that was provided in section 13(a)(19) prior to the 1966 amendments for employees of a retail or service establishment which is primarily engaged in the business of selling automobiles, trucks, or farm implements was repealed. However, some such establishments may qualify for exemption from both the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions of the Act under section 13(a)(2) as retail or service establishments. These are establishments whose annual dollar volume is smaller than the amount specified in section 13(a)(2) or in section 3(s)(1) and which meet all the other requirements of section 13(a)(2) (see § 779.337). (Such establishments which do not qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(2) may have certain employees who are exempt only from the overtime pay provisions of the Act under section 13(b)(10). Section 13(b)(10) is applicable not only to automobile, truck, and farm implement dealers but also to dealers in trailers, boats, and aircraft. The section 13(b)(10) exemption is discussed in § 779.372 below.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of the 75-percent test.</I> In determining whether, under the section 13(a)(2) exemption, 75 percent of an automobile, truck, or farm implement establishment's sales of goods or services are not for resale and are recognized as retail, the requirements for such classification, including the existence of a retail concept, as explained previously in this subpart, and the specific applications in the industry of these requirements in accordance with the following principles, will govern the classification of sales made by such establishments. The sales of goods or services described in paragraph (c) of this section and in paragraphs (e)(1) through (5) of this section may not be counted toward the required 75 percent. Such sales do not qualify as retail because they either are for resale, are outside the retail concept, or have been determined to lack the requisite recognition as retail sales or services. Other sales of goods or services by the dealer can qualify if they meet the requirements previously explained.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonretail automobile and truck sales and servicing.</I> None of the following sales of automobiles, trucks, automotive parts, accessories, servicing and repair work will be considered as retail:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sales for resale.</I> For example, sales of new or used automobiles and trucks, tires, accessories or services, to service stations, repair shops and automobile or truck dealers, where these establishments resell the various items or where they use them in repairing customers' vehicles or in reconditioning used cars for resale, are sales for resale. (Note that a “sale” for purposes of the Act need not be for profit under section 3(k) it includes any “exchange * * * or other disposition”.) However, internal transfers of such items between departments within the dealer's establishment, such as transfers of parts from the parts department to the service department of an automobile dealer's establishment, will not be considered sales for resale. Such transfers from one department to another will be disregarded in computing the establishment's sales for determining the applicability of this exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sales made pursuant to a formal invitation to bid.</I> Such sales are made under a procedure involving the issuance by the buyer of a formal invitation to bid on certain merchandise for delivery in accordance with prescribed terms and specifications. Sales to the Federal, State, and local governments are typically made in this manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fleet sales.</I> Sales in a fleet quantity for business purposes (a sale of five or more cars or trucks at a time, for example); and sales to fleet accounts as described in paragraphs (c)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section. (As here used, a “fleet account” is a customer operating five or more automobiles or trucks for business purposes.)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Automobiles and trucks.</I> Sales and term leases of automobiles and trucks to national fleet accounts as designated by the various automotive manufacturers, at fleet discounts, and sales and term leases to other fleet accounts at discounts equivalent to those provided in sales to national fleet owners are not recognized as retail.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Automotive parts and accessories.</I> Sales of parts and accessories to fleet accounts at wholesale prices are not recognized as retail. Wholesale prices are prices equivalent to, or less than, those typically charged on sales for resale.
</P>
<P>(4) Sales and term leases of specialized heavy motor vehicles or bodies (16,000 pounds and over gross vehicle weight) and of tires, parts, and accessories designed for use on such specialized equipment. The following is a partial list illustrating the types of items of equipment not considered to qualify as subjects of retail sale:
</P>
<P>(i) Single unit trucks, including:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Armored (money carrying).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Buses (integral).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Drilling.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dump.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hook and ladder (fire department).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chemical wagons (fire department).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Garbage.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mixer.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Refrigerator.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Special public utility.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Steel haulers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Street-cleaning.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tank.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wrecker.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Full trailers and semitrailers (tractors and semitrailer and truck and trailer combinations), including:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Auto carrier.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dump.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Garbage.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>House carrier.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Low bed carry all.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pole (lumber).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Refrigerator.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tank.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Van.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) Sales of servicing and repair work peculiar to the servicing and repair of specialized vehicles referred to in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, or performed under a fleet maintenance arrangement on trucks and other automotive vehicles whereby the establishment undertakes to maintain a customer's fleet at a price below the prevailing retail prices.
</P>
<P>(6) Sales to motor carriers of services, fuel, equipment, or other goods or facilities by establishments commonly referred to as truck stops. Such establishments, which are physically laid out and specially equipped to meet the highway needs of the motor transportation industry, offer a variety of services to truckers on a “one-stop” basis, and provide services principally to motor carriers and their crews. They are an integral part of the interstate transportation industry and are not within the traditional retail establishments (see paragraphs (c) (4) and (5) of this section).
</P>
<P>(7) Sales of diesel fuel (and LP gas) for use as truck or bus fuel and the repair and servicing of trucks and buses used in over-the-road commercial transportation (including parts and accessories for such vehicles) are specialized goods and services “which can never be sold at retail * * * whatever the terms of the sale.” (<I>Idaho Sheet Metal Works, Inc.</I> v. <I>Wirtz,</I> 383 U.S. 190, 202, rehearing denied 383 U.S. 963; <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Steepleton General Tire Company, Inc.,</I> 383 U.S. 190, 202, rehearing denied 383 U.S. 963.) Sales of these items are nonretail whether made by truck stops or other establishments (see paragraphs (c) (4) and (5) of this section).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonspecialized truck parts, accessories and services.</I> Sales of parts and accessories which are of the type used by small trucks engaged in local transportation or by farm vehicles and are not nonretail under paragraph (c)(6) of this section will be tested under paragraphs (b) and (c)(3) (ii) of this section, even when made on occasion for use in larger vehicles. Likewise, repairs and servicing of a minor nature (such as tire repair, battery recharging, cleaning of fuel lines, or minor electrical rewiring) performed on any type vehicle will be considered retail in nature unless nonretail under paragraph (c)(6) of this section or unless a fleet maintenance arrangement as in paragraph (c)(5) of this section is present.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Farm implement sales.</I> Sales of farm machinery, such as equipment necessary for plowing, planting, thinning, weeding, fertilizing, irrigating, and harvesting of crops, and raising of livestock on the farm, and the repair work thereon, will be considered as retail (whether sold to farmers or nonfarmers) when they satisfy the tests referred to in paragraph (b) of this section. The following, which fail to satisfy these tests, must be classified as nonretail:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sales for resale.</I> For example, sales of new or used machinery, parts, accessories or services to service stations, repair shops and other dealers, where these establishments resell these items or where they use them in repairing customers' farm implements or in reconditioning used farm implements for resale, are sales for resale. However, this does not apply to internal transfers of such items between departments within the dealer's establishment. Transfers of parts from the parts department to the service department of a farm implement dealer's establishment will not be considered sales for resale, and will be disregarded in computing the establishment's sales for determining the applicability of the section 13(a)(2) exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sales made pursuant to formal invitation to bid.</I> Such sales are made under a procedure involving the issuance by the buyer of a formal invitation to bid on certain merchandise for delivery in accordance with prescribed terms and specifications. Sales to Federal, State and local governments are typically made in this manner.
</P>
<P>(3) Sales of specialized equipment not ordinarily used by farmers, such as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Bulldozers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Scrapers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Land levelers.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Graders.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cotton ginning machinery.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Canning and packing equipment.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Sales of junk.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sales of machinery or equipment which are sold “installed”, where the installation involves construction work.</I> Installations which require extensive planning, labor and use of specialized equipment ordinarily constitute construction work. In such cases the cost of installation ordinarily is substantial in relation to the cost of the goods installed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Quantity sales to farmers.</I> It should be noted that the concept of fleet sales discussed in paragraphs (c)(3) and (5) of this section is not applied to sales to farmers, even though the farmer uses five or more vehicles on his farm.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Particular activities which lack a retail concept.</I> Any receipts derived from warehousing, construction, including water well drilling, or manufacturing activities performed by the automobile, truck, or farm implement dealer are not receipts from retail sales. These activities and the manufacturing of farm implements are not retail activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 5856, Apr. 9, 1970, as amended at 76 FR 18858, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.372" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.294.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.372   Nonmanufacturing establishments with certain exempt employees under section 13(b)(10).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A specific exemption from only the overtime pay provisions of section 7 of the Act is provided in section 13(b)(10) for certain employees of nonmanufacturing establishments engaged in the business of selling automobiles, trucks, farm implements, trailers, boats, or aircraft. Section 13(b)(10)(A) states that the provisions of section 7 shall not apply with respect to “any salesman, partsman, or mechanic primarily engaged in selling or servicing automobiles, trucks, or farm implements, if he is employed by a nonmanufacturing establishment primarily engaged in the business of selling such vehicles or implements to ultimate purchasers.” Section 13(b)(10)(B) states that the provisions of section 7 shall not apply with respect to “any salesman primarily engaged in selling trailers, boats, or aircraft, if he is employed by a nonmanufacturing establishment primarily engaged in the business of selling trailers, boats, or aircraft to ultimate purchasers.” This exemption will apply irrespective of the annual dollar volume of sales of the establishment or of the enterprise of which it is a part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Character of establishment and employees exempted.</I> (1) An establishment will qualify for this exemption if the following two tests are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The establishment must not be engaged in manufacturing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The establishment must be primarily engaged in the business of selling automobiles, trucks, or farm implements to the ultimate purchaser for section 13(b)(10)(A) to apply. If these tests are met by an establishment the exemption will be available for salesmen, partsmen and mechanics, employed by the establishment, who are primarily engaged during the work week in the selling or servicing of the named items. Likewise, the establishment must be primarily engaged in the business of selling trailers, boats, or aircraft to the ultimate purchaser for the section 13(b)(10)(B) exemption to be available for salesmen employed by the establishment who are primarily engaged during the work week in selling these named items. An explanation of the term “employed by” is contained in §§ 779.307 through 779.311. The exemption is intended to apply to employment by such an establishment of the specified categories of employees even if they work in physically separate buildings or areas, or even if, though working in the principal building of the dealership, their work relates to the work of physically separate buildings or areas, so long as they are employed in a department which is functionally operated as part of the dealership.
</P>
<P>(2) This exemption, unlike the former exemption in section 13(a)(19) of the Act prior to the 1966 amendments, is not limited to dealerships that qualify as retail or service establishments nor is it limited to establishments selling automobiles, trucks, and farm implements, but also includes dealers in trailers, boats, and aircraft.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Salesman, partsman, or mechanic.</I> (1) As used in section 13(b)(10)(A), a salesman is an employee who is employed for the purpose of and is primarily engaged in making sales or obtaining orders or contracts for sale of the automobiles, trucks, or farm implements that the establishment is primarily engaged in selling. As used in section 13(b)(10)(B), a salesman is an employee who is employed for the purpose of and is primarily engaged in making sales or obtaining orders or contracts for sale of trailers, boats, or aircraft that the establishment is primarily engaged in selling. Work performed incidental to and in conjunction with the employee's own sales or solicitations, including incidental deliveries and collections, is regarded as within the exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) As used in section 13(b)(10)(A), a partsman is any employee employed for the purpose of and primarily engaged in requisitioning, stocking, and dispensing parts.
</P>
<P>(3) As used in section 13(b)(10)(A), a mechanic is any employee primarily engaged in doing mechanical work (such as get ready mechanics, automotive, truck, or farm implement mechanics, used car reconditioning mechanics, and wrecker mechanics) in the servicing of an automobile, truck or farm implement for its use and operation as such. This includes mechanical work required for safe operation, as an automobile, truck, or farm implement. The term does not include employees primarily performing such nonmechanical work as washing, cleaning, painting, polishing, tire changing, installing seat covers, dispatching, lubricating, or other nonmechanical work. Wrecker mechanic means a service department mechanic who goes out on a tow or wrecking truck to perform mechanical servicing or repairing of a customer's vehicle away from the shop, or to bring the vehicle back to the shop for repair service. A tow or wrecker truck driver or helper who primarily performs nonmechanical repair work is not exempt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Primarily engaged.</I> As used in section 13(b)(10), primarily engaged means the major part or over 50 percent of the salesman's, partsman's, or mechanic's time must be spent in selling or servicing the enumerated vehicles. As applied to the establishment, primarily engaged means that over half of the establishments annual dollar volume of sales made or business done must come from sales of the enumerated vehicles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 5856, Apr. 9, 1970, as amended at 38 FR 7549, Mar. 23, 1973; 76 FR 18858, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="295" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.295" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Other Establishments for Which Special Exceptions or Exemptions Are Provided</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.381" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.295.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.381   Establishments within special exceptions or exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As stated in § 779.338, the special exceptions provided in the 1961 amendments for hotels, motels, restaurants, hospitals, institutions for the sick, the aged, the mentally ill or defective, and schools for physically or mentally handicapped or gifted children have been removed. Seasonally operated amusement or recreational establishments and motion picture theaters also no longer are specifically exempt under section 13(a)(2), but have specific exemptions set out for them in sections 13(a)(3) and 13(a)(9) of the Act as amended in 1966.
</P>
<P>(b) Hotels, motels, and restaurants continue to be eligible for exemption under section 13(a)(2), but must meet all the requirements of that section for exemption in the same manner as other retail or service establishments. However, a special overtime exemption is provided for such establishments, regardless of size, in the first part of section 13(b)(8). Hospitals, residential care establishments, and schools for physically or mentally handicapped or gifted children are specifically excluded by the Act from consideration for exemption under section 13(a)(2); however, residential care establishments are exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act under the second part of section 13(b)(8) as long as overtime premium of not less than one and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay is paid to him for time worked in excess of 48 hours in the workweek. In addition, section 7(j) of the amended Act provides a special overtime arrangement for hospital employees whereby overtime pay is due an employee after 8 hours in a day or 80 hours in a 14-day work period rather than on the basis of the 7-day workweek as is normally required by the Act. This provision, though, requires an agreement or understanding on the part of both the employer and the employee prior to the performance of the work. See § 778.601 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The amendments of 1966 also repealed the exemption from both the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions which was in the Act for certain food service employees employed by retail or service establishments that were not exempt under section 13(a)(2). This exemption (formerly found in section 13(a)(20) is now an exemption from the overtime provisions only and is set out in section 13(b)(18). Those establishments now excluded by the Act from consideration for exemption under section 13(a)(2) (hospitals, residential care establishments, etc.) may utilize this exemption where they meet the Act's definition of retail or service establishment in the last sentence of section 13(a)(2) and the conditions set out in section 13(b)(18). Likewise, the special exemption for any employee of a retail or service establishment primarily engaged in the business of selling automobiles, trucks, or farm implements was repealed by the 1966 amendments. In its stead the overtime exemption set out in section 13(b)(10) and previously discussed in § 779.372 was provided for certain employees of any nonmanufacturing establishment primarily engaged in the business of selling automobiles, trailers, trucks, farm implements, or aircraft to the ultimate consumer.
</P>
<P>(d) A special exemption from the overtime pay requirements is also included in the amended Act for bowling establishments which do not meet the tests under section 13(a)(2) for exemption as a retail or service establishment. Section 13(b)(19) states that the overtime pay requirements of the Act shall not apply with respect to “any employee of a bowling establishment if such employee receives compensation for employment in excess of 48 hours in any workweek at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed.” Unlike the overtime pay exemption in section 13(b)(18), this exemption is not dependent upon the establishment meeting the definition of retail or service establishment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="296" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.296" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hotels and Motels</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.382" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.296.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.382   May qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>A hotel or motel establishment may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act. However, the establishment must meet all of the requirements of section 13(a)(2) (see § 779.337). In determining whether an establishment is a retail or service establishment within the meaning of section 13(a)(2) the dollar volume received from the leasing or rental of space to other than transient members of the general public cannot be counted as derived from retail sales of goods or services. Therefore, receipts from tenants who are not transient guests (see § 779.383(c)) must be included in the 25 percent tolerance provided for sales for resale or sales not recognized as retail. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.383" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.296.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.383   “Hotel” and “motel” exemptions under section 13(b)(8).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A hotel or motel establishment may qualify for exemption from the Act's overtime pay requirements, even if it is in an enterprise described in section 3(s) and is not exempt under section 13(a)(2) because it exceeds the monetary test for exemption under that section. The first part of section 13(b)(8) provides that the overtime provisions of section 7 of the Act shall not apply with respect to “any employee employed by an establishment which is a hotel, motel * * *.” The 13(b)(8) exemption is applicable irrespective of the annual dollar volume of sales of a hotel or motel establishment or of the enterprise of which it is a part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of “hotel”.</I> The term <I>hotel</I> as used in section 13(b)(8) means an establishment known to the public as a hotel, which is primarily engaged in providing lodging or lodging and meals for the general public. Included are hotels operated by membership organizations and open to the general public and apartment hotels which provide accommodations for transients. However, an establishment whose income is primarily from providing a permanent place of residence or from providing residential facilities complete with bedrooms and kitchen for leased periods longer than 3 months would not be considered a hotel within the meaning of the Act. An apartment or residential hotel is not considered a hotel for purposes of section 13(b)(8) unless more than half of its annual dollar volume is derived from providing transient guests representative of the general public with lodging or lodging and meals. (See paragraph (c) of this section.) Establishments in which lodging accommodations are not available to the public are not included. Also excluded from the category of hotels are rooming and boarding houses, and private residences commonly known as tourist homes. Resort or other hotels even if they operate seasonally are regarded as hotel. (See Cong. Rec., August 25, 1966, pages 19729-19732; Cong Rec., August 26, 1966, pages 19907-19911.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>“Transient guests”.</I> In determining who are “transient guests” within the meaning of § 779.382 and paragraph (b) of this section, as a general rule the Department of Labor would consider as transient a guest who is free to come and go as he pleases and who does not sojourn in the establishment for a specified time or permanently. A transient is one who is entertained from day to day without any express contract or lease and whose stay is indefinite although to suit his convenience it may extend for several weeks or a season.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition of “motel”.</I> The term <I>motel</I> as used in section 13(b)(8) means an establishment which provides services similar to that of a “hotel” described in paragraph (b) of this section, but which caters mostly to the motoring public, providing it with motor car parking facilities either adjacent to the room or cabin rented or at some other easily accessible place. Included in the term “motel” are those establishments known to the public as motor hotels, motor lodges, motor courts, motor inns, tourist courts, tourist lodges and the like.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hotel and motel establishments engaged in other activities.</I> The primary function of a hotel or motel is to provide lodging facilities to the public. In addition, most hotels or motels provide food for their guests and many sell alcoholic beverages. These establishments also may engage in some minor revenue producing activities; such as, the operation of valet services offering cleaning and laundering service for the garments of their guests, news stands, hobby shops, the renting out of their public rooms for meetings, lectures, dances, trade exhibits and weddings. The exception provided for “hotels” and “motels” in section 13(b)(8) will not be defeated simply because a “hotel” or a “motel” engages in all or some of these activities, if it is primarily engaged in providing lodging facilities, food and drink to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="297" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.297" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Motion Picture Theaters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.384" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.297.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.384   May qualify as exempt establishments.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(9) of the Act as amended in 1966 exempts from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements “any employee employed by an establishment which is a motion picture theater.” This exemption will be applicable irrespective of the annual dollar volume of sales of such establishment or of the enterprise of which it is a part. A motion picture theater may also qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act if the establishment meets all requirements of the exemption, discussed above in §§ 779.337 to 779.341. The term “motion picture theater” as used in section 13(a)(9) means a commercially operated theater primarily engaged in the exhibition of motion pictures with or without vaudeville presentations. It includes “drive-in motion picture theaters” commonly known as “open air” or “drive-in” theaters, but does not include such incidental exhibition of motion pictures as those offered to passengers on aircraft. “Legitimate theaters” primarily engaged in exhibiting stage productions are not “motion picture theaters.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="298" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.298" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Seasonal Amusement or Recreational Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.385" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.298.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.385   May qualify as exempt establishments.</HEAD>
<P>An amusement or recreational establishment operating on a seasonal basis may qualify as an exempt establishment under section 13(a)(3) of the Act, added by the 1966 amendments, even if it does not meet all the requirements of the 13(a)(2) exemption. Section 13(a)(3) exempts from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements of the Act “any employee employed by an establishment which is an amusement or recreational establishment, if (a) it does not operate for more than seven months in any calendar year or (b) during the preceding calendar year, its average receipts for any 6 months of the year were not more than 33
<FR>1/3</FR> percentum of its average receipts for the other 6 months of such year”. “Amusement or recreational establishments” as used in section 13(a)(3) are establishments frequented by the public for its amusement or recreation and which are open for 7 months or less a year or which meet the seasonal receipts test provided in clause (B) of the exemption. Typical examples of such are the concessionaires at amusement parks and beaches. (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 28; H. Rept. 75, 87th Cong., 1st Sess., p. 10.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="299" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.299" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Restaurants and Establishments Providing Food And Beverage Service</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.386" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.299.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.386   Restaurants may qualify as exempt 13(a)(2) establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A restaurant may qualify as an exempt retail or service establishment under section 13(a)(2) of the Act. However, the establishment must meet all of the requirements of section 13(a)(2) (see § 779.337). It should be noted that a separate exemption from the overtime pay provisions of the Act only is provided in section 13(b)(18) for certain food service employees employed by establishments other than restaurants if the establishment meets the definition of a retail or service establishment as defined in the last sentence of section 13(a)(2). Privately owned and operated restaurants conducted as separate and independent business establishments in industrial plants, office buildings, government installations, hospitals, or colleges, such as were involved in <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Factory Stores,</I> 81 F. Supp. 403 (N.D. Ohio) continue to be exempt under section 13(a)(2) where the tests of the exemption are met (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 28; H. Rept. 75, 87th Cong., first session, p. 10). However, they would not be met if the food service is carried on as an activity of the larger, nonretail establishment in which the facility is located and there is no independent, separate and distinct place of business offering the restaurant service to individual customers from the general public, who purchase the meals selected by them directly from the establishment which serves them. An establishment serving meals to individuals, pursuant to a contract with an organization or person paying for such meals because the latter has assumed a contractual obligation to furnish them to the individuals concerned, is selling to such organization or firm, and the sales are for resale within the meaning of section 13(a)(2). See also § 779.387. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.387" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.299.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.387   “Restaurant” exemption under section 13(b) (8).</HEAD>
<P>(a) As amended in 1966, the Act, in section 13(b) (8), exempts from its overtime pay provisions “any employee employed by an establishment which is a * * * restaurant”. The term <I>restaurant</I> as used in section 13(b)(8) of the Act means an establishment which is primarily engaged in selling and serving to purchasers at retail prepared food and beverages for immediate consumption on the premises. This includes such establishments commonly known as lunch counters, refreshment stands, cafes, cafeterias, coffee shops, diners, dining rooms, lunch rooms, or tea rooms. The term “restaurant” does not include drinking establishments, such as bars or cocktail lounges, whose sales of alcoholic beverages exceed the receipts from sales of prepared foods and nonalcoholic beverages. Certain food or beverage service employees of establishments such as bars and cocktail lounges, however, may be exempt under section 13(b)(18).
</P>
<P>(b) Not all places where food is served for immediate consumption on the premises are “restaurant” establishments within the meaning of section 13(b)(8). Such service is sometimes provided as an incidental activity of an establishment of another kind, rather than by an establishment possessing the physical and functional characteristics of a separate place of business engaged in restaurant operations. In such event, the establishment providing the meal service is not an establishment “which is” a restaurant as section 13(b)(8) requires for exemption. Further, not every place which serves meals, even if it should qualify as a separate food service establishment, possesses the characteristics of a “restaurant.” The meals served by restaurants are characteristically priced, offered, ordered, and served for consumption by and paid for by the customer on an individual meal basis. A restaurant functions principally, and not merely incidentally, to meet the immediate needs and desires of the individual customer for refreshment at the particular time that he visits the establishment for the purpose. A separate transaction to accommodate these needs and desires takes place on the occasion of each such visit. A “restaurant”, therefore, is to be distinguished from an establishment offering meal service on a boarding or term basis or providing such service only as an incident to the operation of an enterprise of another kind and primarily to meet institutional needs for continuing meal service to persons whose continued presence is required for such operation. Accordingly, a boarding house is not a “restaurant” within the meaning of section 13(b)(8), nor are the dining facilities of a boarding school, college or university which serve its students and faculty, nor are the luncheon facilities provided for private and public day school students, nor are other institutional food service facilities providing long-term meal service to stable groups of individuals as an incident to institutional operations in a manner wholly dissimilar to the typical transactions between a restaurant and its customers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.388" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.4.299.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.388   Exemption provided for food or beverage service employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A special exemption is provided in section 13(b)(18) of the Act for certain food or beverage service employees of retail or service establishments. This section excludes from the overtime pay provisions in section 7 of the Act, “any employee of a retail or service establishment who is employed primarily in connection with the preparation or offering of food or beverages for human consumption, either on the premises, or by such services as catering, banquet, box lunch, or curb or counter service, to the public, to employees, or to members or guests of members of clubs.” This is an employee exemption, intended to apply to employees engaged in the named activities for such establishments as “drug stores, department stores, bowling alleys, and the like.” (S. Rept. No. 1487, 89th Cong., second session, p. 32.)
</P>
<P>(b) The 13(b)(18) exemption will apply only if the following two tests are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee must be an employee of a retail or service establishment (as defined in section 13(a)(2) of the Act); and
</P>
<P>(2) The employee must be employed primarily in connection with the specified food or beverage service activities. If both of the above criteria are met, the employee is exempt from the overtime pay provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The establishment by which the employee is employed must be a “retail or service establishment.” This term is defined in section 13(a)(2) of the Act and the definition is quoted in § 779.24; the application of the definition is considered at length earlier in this subpart. In accordance with this definition, the establishment will be a “retail or service establishment” for purposes of section 13(b) (18) if 75 percent or more of the establishment's annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services (or of both) is not for resale and is recognized as retail sales or services in the particular industry.
</P>
<P>(d) If the establishment comes within the above definition it is immaterial that the establishment is in an enterprise or part of an enterprise described in section 3(s). Thus section 13(b)(18) will be applicable regardless of the annual dollar volume of sales of the establishment or of the enterprise of which it is a part. It should also be noted that it is not required that the establishment make more than 50 percent of its annual dollar volume of sales within the State in which it is located. The establishment by which the employee is employed, provided it qualifies as a “retail or service establishment,” may be a drug store, department store, cocktail lounge, night club, and the like.
</P>
<P>(e) This exemption does not apply to employees of the ordinary bakery or grocery store who handle, prepare or sell food or beverages for human consumption since such food or beverages are not prepared or offered for consumption “on the premises, or by such services as catering, banquet, box lunch, or curb or counter service * * *.”
</P>
<P>(f) If the establishment by which the employee is employed is a “retail or service establishment,” as explained above, he will be exempt under section 13(b)(18) provided he is employed primarily in connection with the preparation or offering of food or beverages for human consumption either on the premises, or by such services as catering, banquet, box lunch, or curb or counter service, to the public, to employees, or to members or guests of members of clubs. An employee employed in the actual preparation or serving of the food or beverages or in activities closely related and directly essential to the preparation and serving will be regarded as engaged in the described activities. The exemption, therefore, extends not only to employees actually cooking, packaging or serving food or beverages, but also to employees such as cashiers, hostesses, dishwashers, busboys, and cleanup men. Also, where the food or beverages are served away from the establishment, the exemption extends to employees of the retail or service establishment who make ready the serving place, serve the food, clean up, and transport the equipment, food and beverages to and from the serving place.
</P>
<P>(g) For the exemption to apply, the employee must be engaged “primarily” in performing the described activities. A sales clerk in a drug store, department store or other establishment, who as an incident to his other duties, occasionally prepares or otherwise handles food or beverages for human consumption on the premises will not come within the scope of this exemption. The exemption is intended for employees who devote all or most of their time to the described food or beverage service activities. For administrative purposes this exemption will not be considered defeated for an employee in any workweek in which he devotes more than one-half of his time worked to such activities.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Provisions Relating to Certain Employees of Retail or Service Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="300" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.300" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Principles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.400" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.300.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.400   Purpose of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The 1966 amendments to the Act changed certain existing provisions and added other provisions pertaining to exemptions from the requirements of sections 6 and 7 with respect to certain employees. This subpart deals with those exemptions provisions of interest to retail or service enterprises or establishments. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="301" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.301" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Executive, Administrative, and Professional Employees and Outside Salesmen</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.401" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.301.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.401   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(1) of the Act provides that the provisions of sections 6 and 7 shall not apply with respect to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity (including any employee employed in the capacity of academic administrative personnel or teacher in elementary or secondary schools), or in the capacity of outside salesman (as such terms are defined and delimited from time to time by regulations of the Secretary, subject to the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, except that an employee of a retail or service establishment shall not be excluded from the definition of employee employed in a bona fide executive or administrative capacity because of the number of hours in his workweek which he devotes to activities not directly or closely related to the performance of executive or administrative activities, if less than 40 per centum of his hours worked in the workweek are devoted to such activities).</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.402" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.301.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.402   “Executive” and “administrative” employees defined.</HEAD>
<P>The terms “executive” and “administrative” as used in section 13(a)(1) of the Act are defined and delimited in subpart A of part 541 of this chapter and explained in subpart B of that part. These regulations are applicable under the amended section 13(a)(1) in determining which employees are bona fide executive or administrative employees. The clause that is enclosed in parentheses in section 13(a)(1) and which reads “including any employee employed in the capacity of academic administrative personnel for teacher in elementary or secondary schools” was added by the 1966 amendments to the Act. This clause will not have any affect in the application of the regulations to retail or service establishments. The Act and the regulations point out the fact that an executive or administrative employee of a retail or service establishment may devote up to 40 percent of his hours worked in a workweek to activities which are not directly and closely related to the performance of executive or administrative activities and still qualify as a bona fide executive or administrative employee. However, in other types of establishments such a tolerance is limited to 20 percent, except where special provisions are made in part 541 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.403" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.301.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.403   Administrative and executive employees in covered enterprises employed in other than retail or service establishments.</HEAD>
<P>The up-to-40 percent tolerance for nonexecutive or nonadministrative duties discussed in the preceding section, does not apply to executive or administrative employees of an establishment other than a “retail or service establishment.” For example, an executive or administrative employee of a central office or a central warehouse of a chain store system is not an employee of a “retail or service establishment,” and therefore must still devote not more than 20 percent of his hours worked in a workweek to activities which are not directly and closely related to the performance of executive or administrative duties in order to qualify as a bona fide executive or administrative employee under section 13(a)(1), except where special provisions are made in the regulations issued under that section of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.404" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.301.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.404   Other section 13(a)(1) employees employed in covered enterprises.</HEAD>
<P>The “professional” employee or the “outside salesman” employed by a retail or service establishment in a covered enterprise, in order to qualify as a bona fide “professional employee” or as an “outside salesman,” must meet all the requirements set forth in the regulations issued and found in part 541, subpart A of this chapter, and further explained in subpart B thereof. The up-to-40 percent tolerance discussed in § 779.403 for “administrative and executive employees” of a retail or service establishment does not apply to the “professional employee” or the “outside salesman.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="302" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.302" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Students, Learners, and Handicapped Workers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.405" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.302.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.405   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(7) of the Act provides that the provisions of sections 6 and 7 shall not apply to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee to the extent that such employee is exempted by regulations, order, or certificate of the Secretary issued under section 14.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>Section 14 of the Act provides, in pertinent part, as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Learners, Apprentices, Students, and Handicapped Workers
</HD1>
<P><E T="05">Sec. 14.</E> (a) The Secretary of Labor, to the extent necessary in order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment, shall by regulations or by orders provide for the employment of learners, of apprentices, and of messengers employed primarily in delivering letters and messages, under special certificates issued pursuant to regulations of the Secretary, at such wages lower than the minimum wage applicable under section 6 and subject to such limitations as to time, number, proportion, and length of service as the Secretary shall prescribe.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary, to the extent necessary in order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment, shall by regulation or order provide for the employment of full-time students, regardless of age but in compliance with applicable child labor laws, on a part-time basis in retail or service establishments (not to exceed twenty hours in any workweek) or on a part-time or a full-time basis in such establishments during school vacations, under special certificates issued pursuant to regulations of the Secretary, at a wage rate not less than 85 per centum of the minimum wage applicable under section 6, except that the proportion of student hours of employment to total hours of employment of all employees in any establishment may not exceed (1) such proportion for the corresponding month of the 12-month period preceding May 1, 1961, (2) in the case of a retail or service establishment whose employees (other than employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce) are covered by this Act for the first time on or after the effective date of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966, such proportion for the corresponding month of the 12-month period immediately prior to such date, or (3) in the case of a retail or service establishment coming into existence after May 1, 1961, or a retail or service establishment for which records of student hours worked are not available, a proportion of student hours of employment to total hours of employment of all employees based on the practice during the 12-month period preceding May 1, 1961, in (A) similar establishments of the same employer in the same general metropolitan area in which the new establishment is located, (B) similar establishments of the same employer in the same or nearby counties if the new establishment is not in a metropolitan area, or (C) other establishments of the same general character operating in the community or the nearest comparable community. Before the Secretary may issue a certificate under this subsection he must find that such employment will not create a substantial probability of reducing the full-time employment opportunities of persons other than those employed under this subsection.</P></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(d)(1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (2) and (3) of this subsection, the Secretary of Labor, to the extent necessary in order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment, shall by regulation or order provide for the employment under special certificates of individuals * * * whose earning or productive capacity is impaired by age or physical or mental deficiency or injury, at wages which are lower than the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of this Act but not less than 50 per centum of such wage and which are commensurate with those paid nonhandicapped workers in industry in the vicinity for essentially the same type, quality, and quantity of work.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary, pursuant to such regulations as he shall prescribe and upon certification of the State agency administering or supervising the administration of vocational rehabilitation services, may issue special certificates for the employment of—
</P>
<P>(A) handicapped workers engaged in work which is incidental to training or evaluation programs, and
</P>
<P>(B) multihandicapped individuals and other individuals whose earning capacity is so severly impaired that they are unable to engage in competitive employment,
</P>
<FP>at wages which are less than those required by this subsection and which are related to the worker's productivity.
</FP>
<P>(3)(A) The Secretary may by regulation or order provide for the employment of handicapped clients in work activities centers under special certificates at wages which are less than the minimums applicable under section 6 of this Act or prescribed by paragraph (1) of this subsection and which constitute equitable compensation for such clients in work activities centers.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of this section, the term “work activities centers” shall mean centers planned and designed exclusively to provide therapeutic activities for handicapped clients whose physical or mental impairment is so severe as to make their productive capacity inconsequential.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.406" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.302.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.406   “Student-learners”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicable regulations.</I> In accordance with section 14 of the Act regulations have been issued to provide for employment under special certificates of student-learners at wages lower than the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act. These regulations are set forth in part 520 of this chapter and govern the issuance of special certificates for student-learners in covered employments generally as well as such employments in retail or service establishments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The regulations in § 520.2 of this chapter define “student-learners” and “bona fide vocational training program” as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>student-learner</I> is defined as “a student who is receiving instruction in an accredited school, college or university and who is employed on a part-time basis, pursuant to a bona fide vocational training program.”
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>bona fide vocational training program</I> is defined as “one authorized and approved by a State board of vocational education or other recognized educational body and provides for part-time employment training which may be scheduled for a part of the workday or workweek, for alternating weeks or for other limited periods during the year, supplemented by and integrated with a definitely organized plan of instruction designed to teach technical knowledge and related industrial information given as a regular part of the student-learner's course by an accredited school, college or university.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.407" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.302.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.407   Learners other than “student-learners”.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations have been issued in accordance with the authority in section 14 of the Act to provide for employment under special certificates of learners at wages lower than the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act. Part 522 of this chapter contains the general regulations for learners and those for learners in particular industries. General learner regulations are set forth in §§ 522.1 to 522.11 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.408" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.302.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.408   “Full-time students”.</HEAD>
<P>The 1961 Amendments added to section 14 of the Act, the authority to issue special certificates for the employment of “full-time students,” under certain specified conditions, at wages lower than the minimum wage applicable under section 6. The student, to qualify for a special certificate must attend school full time and his employment must be outside of his school hours and his employment must be in a retail or service establishment. In addition, the student's employment must not be of the type ordinarily given to a full-time employee. “The purpose of this provision,” as made clear in the legislative history, “is to provide employment opportunities for students who desire to work part time outside of their school hours without the displacement of adult workers” (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 29). The application of this provision was amplified by the 1966 Amendments to provide for the employment of full-time students regardless of age but in compliance with applicable child labor laws in retail or service establishments and in agriculture (not to exceed 20 hours in any workweek) or on a part-time or a full-time basis during school vacations at a wage rate not less than 85 percent of the applicable minimum wage (H. Rept. 1366, 89th Cong., second session, pp. 34 and 35). Regulations authorizing the issuance of certificates under this provision of the Act are published in part 519 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.409" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.302.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.409   Handicapped workers.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations have been issued under the authority in section 14 of the Act to provide for employment under special certificate of handicapped workers at wages lower than the minimum wage applicable under section 6 of the Act. These regulations are set forth in part 524 of this chapter. In these regulations handicapped workers are defined as individuals whose earning capacity is impaired by age or physical or mental deficiency or injury for the work they are to perform.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="303" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employees Compensated Principally by Commissions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.410" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.410   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7 of the Act provides, in subsection (i):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(i) No employer shall be deemed to have violated subsection (a) by employing any employee of a retail or service establishment for a workweek in excess of the applicable workweek specified therein, if (1) the regular rate of pay of such employee is in excess of one and one-half times the minimum hourly rate applicable to him under section 6, and (2) more than half his compensation for a representative period (not less than 1 month) represents commissions on goods or services. In determining the proportion of compensation representing commissions, all earnings resulting from the application of a bona fide commission rate shall be deemed commissions on goods or services without regard to whether the computed commissions exceed the draw or guarantee.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>There are briefly set forth in §§ 779.411 to 779.421 some guiding principles for determining whether an employee's employment and compensation meet the conditions set forth in section 7(i).


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.411" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.411   Employee of a “retail or service establishment”.</HEAD>
<P>In order for an employee to come within the exemption from the overtime pay requirement provided by section 7(i) for certain employees receiving commissions, the employee must be employed by a retail or service establishment. The term “retail or service establishment” is defined in section 13(a)(2) of the Act. The definition is set forth in § 779.24; its application is considered at length in subpart D of this part. As used in section 7(i), as in other provisions of the Act, the term “retail or service establishment” means an establishment 75 per centum of whose annual dollar volume of sales of goods or services (or of both) is not for resale and is recognized as retail sales or services in the particular industry.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.412" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.412   Compensation requirements for overtime pay exemption under section 7(i).</HEAD>
<P>An employee of a “retail or service establishment” who is paid on a commission basis or whose pay includes compensation representing commissions need not be paid the premium compensation prescribed by section 7(a) for overtime hours worked in a workweek, provided the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The “regular rate” of pay of such employee must be more than one and one-half times the minimum hourly rate applicable to him under section 6, and
</P>
<P>(b) More than half his compensation for a “representative period” (not less than one month) must represent commissions on goods or services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.413" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.413   Methods of compensation of retail store employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Retail or service establishment employees are generally compensated (apart from any extra payments for overtime or other additional payments) by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) Straight salary or hourly rate: Under this method of compensation the employee receives a stipulated sum paid weekly, biweekly, semimonthly, or monthly or a fixed amount for each hour of work.
</P>
<P>(2) Salary plus commission: Under this method of compensation the employee receives a commission on all sales in addition to a base salary (see paragraph (a)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(3) Quota bonus: This method of compensation is similar to paragraph (a)(2) of this section except that the commission payment is paid on sales over and above a predetermined sales quota.
</P>
<P>(4) Straight commission without advances: Under this method of compensation the employee is paid a flat percentage on each dollar of sales he makes.
</P>
<P>(5) Straight commission with “advances,” “guarantees,” or “draws.” This method of compensation is similar to paragraph (a)(4) of this section except that the employee is paid a fixed weekly, biweekly, semimonthly, or monthly “advance,” “guarantee,” or “draw.” At periodic intervals a settlement is made at which time the payments already made are supplemented by any additional amount by which his commission earnings exceed the amounts previously paid.
</P>
<P>(b) The above listing in paragraph (a) of this section which reflects the typical methods of compensation is not, of course, exhaustive of the pay practices which may exist in retail or service establishments. Although typically in retail or service establishments commission payments are keyed to sales, the requirement of the exemption is that more than half the employee's compensation represent commissions “on goods or services,” which would include all types of commissions customarily based on the goods or services which the establishment sells, and not exclusively those measured by “sales” of these goods or services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.414" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.414   Types of employment in which this overtime pay exemption may apply.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(i) was enacted to relieve an employer from the obligation of paying overtime compensation to certain employees of a retail or service establishment paid wholly or in greater part on the basis of commissions. These employees are generally employed in so-called “big ticket” departments and those establishments or parts of establishments where commission methods of payment traditionally have been used, typically those dealing in furniture, bedding and home furnishings, floor covering, draperies, major appliances, musical instruments, radios and television, men's clothing, women's ready to wear, shoes, corsets, home insulation, and various home custom orders. There may be other segments in retailing where the proportionate amount of commission payments would be great enough for employees employed in such segments to come within the exemption. Each such situation will be examined, where exemption is claimed, to make certain the employees treated as exempt from overtime compensation under section 7(i) are properly within the statutory exclusion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.415" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.415   Computing employee's compensation for the representative period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining for purposes of section 7(i) whether more than half of an employee's compensation “represents commissions on goods or services” it is necessary first to total all compensation paid to or on behalf of the employee as remuneration for his employment during the period. All such compensation in whatever form or by whatever method paid should be included, whether calculated on a time, piece, incentive or other basis, and amounts representing any board, lodging or other facilities furnished should be included in addition to cash payments, to the extent required by section 3(m) of the Act and part 531 of this chapter. Payments excludable from the employee's “regular rate” under section 7(e) may be excluded from this computation if, but only if, they are payments of a kind not made as compensation for his employment during the period. (See part 778 of this chapter.)
</P>
<P>(b) In computing the employee's total compensation for the representative period it will in many instances become clear whether more than half of it represents commissions. Where this is not clear, it will be necessary to identify and total all portions of the compensation which represent commissions on the goods or services that the retail or service establishment sells. In determining what compensation “represents commissions on goods or services” it is clear that any portion of the compensation paid, as a weekly, biweekly, semimonthly, monthly, or other periodic salary, or as an hourly or daily rate of pay, does not “represent commissions” paid to the employee. On the other hand, it is equally clear that an employee paid entirely by commissions on the goods or services which the retail or service establishment sells will, in any representative period which may be chosen, satisfy the requirement that more than half of his compensation represents commissions. The same will be true of an employee receiving both salary and commission payments whose commissions always exceed the salary. If, on the other hand, the commissions paid to an employee receiving a salary are always a minor part of his total compensation it is clear that he will not qualify for the exemption provided by section 7(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.416" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.416   What compensation “represents commissions.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employment arrangements which provide for a commission on goods or services to be paid to an employee of a retail or service establishment may also provide, as indicated in § 779.413, for the payment to the employee at a regular pay period of a fixed sum of money, which may bear a more or less fixed relationship to the commission earnings which could be expected, on the basis of experience, for an average period of the same length. Such periodic payments, which are variously described in retail or service establishments as “advances,” “draws,” or “guarantees,” are keyed to a time base and are usually paid at weekly or other fixed intervals which may in some instances be different from and more frequent than, the intervals for payment of any earnings computed exclusively on a commission basis. They are normally smaller in amount than the commission earnings expected for such a period and if they prove to be greater, a deduction of the excess amount from commission earnings for a subsequent period, if otherwise lawful, may or may not be customary under the employment arrangement. A determination of whether or to what extent such periodic payments can be considered to represent commissions may be required in those situations where the employment arrangement is that the employee will be paid the stipulated sum, or the commission earnings allocable to the same period, whichever is the greater amount. The stipulated sum can never represent commissions, of course, if it is actually paid as a salary. If, however, it appears from all the facts and circumstances of the employment that the stipulated sum is not so paid and that it actually functions as an integral part of a true commission basis of payment, then such compensation may qualify as compensation which “represents commissions on goods or services” within the meaning of clause (2) of the section 7(i) exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) The express statutory language of section 7(i), as amended in 1966, provides that “In determining the proportion of compensation representing commissions, all earnings resulting from the application of a bona fide commission rate shall be deemed commissions on goods or services without regard to whether the computed commissions exceed the draw or guarantee” which may be paid to the employee. Thus an employee who is paid a guarantee or draw against commissions computed in accordance with a bona fide commission payment plan or formula under which the computed commissions vary in accordance with the employee's performance on the job will qualify for exemption provided the conditions of 7(i)(1) are met as explained in § 779.419. Under a bona fide commission plan all of the computed commissions will be counted as compensation representing commissions even though the amount of commissions may not equal or exceed the guarantee or draw in some workweeks. The exemption will also apply in the case of an employee who is paid a fixed salary plus an additional amount of earned commissions if the amount of commission payments exceeds the total amount of salary payments for the representative period.
</P>
<P>(c) A commission rate is not bona fide if the formula for computing the commissions is such that the employee, in fact, always or almost always earns the same fixed amount of compensation for each workweek (as would be the case where the computed commissions seldom or never equal or exceed the amount of the draw or guarantee). Another example of a commission plan which would not be considered as bona fide is one in which the employee receives a regular payment consituting nearly his entire earnings which is expressed in terms of a percentage of the sales which the establishment or department can always be expected to make with only a slight addition to his wages based upon a greatly reduced percentage applied to the sales above the expected quota.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.417" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.417   The “representative period” for testing employee's compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whether compensation representing commissions constitutes most of an employee's pay, so as to satisfy the exemption condition contained in clause (2) or section 7(i), must be determined by testing the employee's compensation for a “representative period” of not less than 1 month. The Act does not define a representative period, but plainly contemplates a period which can reasonably be accepted by the employer, the employee, and disinterested persons as being truly representative of the compensation aspects of the employee's employment on which this exemption test depends. A representative period within the meaning of this exemption may be described generally as a period which typifies the total characteristics of an employee's earning pattern in his current employment situation, with respect to the fluctuations of the proportion of his commission earnings to his total compensation. 
</P>
<P>(b) To this end the period must be as recent a period, of sufficient length (see paragraph (c) of this section) to fully and fairly reflect all such factors, as can practicably be used. Thus, as a general rule, if a month is long enough to reflect the necessary factors, the most recent month for which necessary computations can be made prior to the payday for the first workweek in the current month should be chosen. Similarly, if it is necessary to use a period as long as a calendar or fiscal quarter year to fully represent such factors, the quarterly period used should ordinarily be the one ending immediately prior to the quarter in which the current workweek falls. If a period longer than a quarter year is required in order to include all the factors necessary to make it fully and fairly representative of the current period of employment for purposes of section 7(i), the end of such period should likewise be at least as recent as the end of the quarter year immediately preceding the quarter in which the current workweek falls. Thus, in the case of a representative period of 6 months or of 1 year, recomputation each quarter would be required so as to include in it the most recent two quarter-years or four quarter-years, as the case may be. The quarterly recomputation would tend to insure that the period used reflects any gradual changes in the characteristics of the employment which could be important in determining the ratio between compensation representing commissions and other compensation in the current employment situation of the employee.
</P>
<P>(c) The representative period for determining whether more than half of an employee's compensation represents commissions cannot, under the express terms of section 7(i), be less than 1 month. The period chosen should be long enough to stabilize the measure of the balance between the portions of the employee's compensation which respectively represent commissions and other earnings, against purely seasonal or plainly temporary changes. Although the Act sets no upper limit on the length of the period, the statutory intent would not appear to be served by any recognition of a period in excess of 1 year as representative for purposes of this exemption. There would seem to be no employment situation in a retail or service establishment in which a period longer than a year would be needed to represent the seasonal and other fluctuations in commission compensation.
</P>
<P>(d) Accordingly, for each employee whose exemption is to be tested in any workweek under clause (2) of section 7(i), an appropriate representative period or a formula for establishing such a period must be chosen and must be designated and substantiated in the employer's records (see § 516.16 of this chapter). When the facts change so that the designated period or the period established by the designated formula is no longer representative, a new representative period or formula therefor must be adopted which is appropriate and sufficient for the purpose, and designated and substantiated in the employer's records. Although the period selected and designated must be one which is representative with respect to the particular employee for whom exemption is sought, and the appropriateness of the representative period for that employee will always depend on his individual earning pattern, there may be situations in which the factors affecting the proportionate relationship between total compensation and compensation representing commissions will be substantially identical for a group or groups of employees in a particular occupation or department of a retail or service establishment or in the establishment as a whole. Where this can be demonstrated to be a fact, and is substantiated by pertinent information in the employer's records, the same representative period or formula for establishing such a period may properly be used for each of the similarly situated employees in the group.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.418" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.418   Grace period for computing portion of compensation representing commissions.</HEAD>
<P>Where it is not practicably possible for the employer to compute the commission earnings of the employee for all workweeks ending in a prior representative period in time to determine the overtime pay obligations, if any, for the workweek or workweeks immediately following, 1 month of grace may be used by the retail or service establishment. This month of grace will not change the length of the current period in which the prior period is used as representative. It will merely allow an interval of 1 month between the end of the prior period and the beginning of the current period in order to permit necessary computations for the prior period to be made. For example, assume that the representative period used is the quarter-year immediately preceding the current quarter, and commissions for the prior period cannot be computed in time to determine the overtime pay obligations for the workweeks included in the first pay period in the current quarter. By applying a month of grace, the next earlier quarterly period may be used during the first month of the current quarter; and the quarter-year immediately preceding the current quarter will then be used for all workweeks ending in a quarter-year period which begins 1 month after the commencement of the current quarter. Thus, a January 1-March 31 representative period may be used for purposes of section 7(i) in a quarterly period beginning May 1 and ending July 31, allowing the month of April for necessary commission computations for the representative period. Once this method of computation is adopted it must be used for each successive period in like manner. The prior period used as representative must, of course, as in other cases, meet all the requirements of a representative period as previously explained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.419" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.419   Dependence of the section 7(i) overtime pay exemption upon the level of the employee's “regular rate” of pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If more than half of the compensation of an employee of a retail or service establishment for a representative period as previously explained represents commissions on goods or services, one additional condition must be met in order for the employee to be exempt under section 7(i) from the overtime pay requirement of section 7(a) of the Act in a workweek when his hours of work exceed the maximum number specified in section (a). This additional condition is that his “regular rate” of pay for such workweek must be more than one and one-half times the minimum hourly rate applicable to him from the minimum wage provisions of section 6 of the Act. If it is not more than one and one-half times such minimum rate, there is no overtime pay exemption for the employee in that particular workweek.
</P>
<P>(b) The meaning of the “regular rate” of pay under the Act is well established. As explained by the Supreme Court of the United States, it is “the hourly rate actually paid the employee for the normal, nonovertime workweek for which he is employed” and “by its very nature must reflect all payments which the parties have agreed shall be received regularly during the workweek, exclusive of overtime payments.” (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Youngerman-Reynolds Hardwood Co.,</I> 325 U.S. 419.) It is a rate per hour, computed for the particular workweek by a mathematical computation in which hours worked are divided into straight-time earnings for such hours to obtain the statutory regular rate (<I>Overnight Motor Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572). By definition (Act, section 7(e), the “regular rate” as used in section 7 of the Act includes “all remuneration paid to, or on behalf of, the employee” except payments expressly excluded by the seven numbered clauses of section 7(e). The computation of the regular rate for purposes of the Act is explained in part 778 of this chapter. The “regular rate” is not synonymous with the “basic rate” which may be established by agreement or understanding of the parties to the employment agreement under the provisions of section 7(g)(3) of the Act; that section, like section 7(i), merely provides an exemption from the general requirement of overtime compensation based on the regular rate contained in section 7(a), if certain prescribed conditions are met (in section 7(g)(3) these include payment of overtime compensation on a basic rate established and authorized in accordance with its terms). The requirement of section 7(i) with respect to the “regular rate” of pay of an employee who may come within the exemption which it provides is a simple one: “the regular rate of pay of such employee,” when employed “for a workweek in excess of the applicable workweek specified” in section 7(a), must be “in excess of one and one-half times the minimum hourly rate applicable to him under section 6.” The employee's “regular rate” of pay must be computed, in accordance with the principles discussed above, on the basis of his hours of work in that particular workweek and the employee's compensation attributable to such hours. The hourly rate thus obtained must be compared with the applicable minimum rate of pay of the particular employee under the provisions of section 6 of the Act. If the latter rate is $1.60 an hour, for example, then the employee's regular rate must be <I>more</I> than $2.40 an hour if the exemption is to apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.420" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.420   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The records which must be kept with respect to employees for whom the overtime pay exemption under section 7(i) is taken are specified in § 516.16 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.421" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.5.303.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.421   Basic rate for computing overtime compensation of nonexempt employees receiving commissions.</HEAD>
<P>The overtime compensation due employees of a retail or service establishment who do not meet the exemption requirements of section 7(i) may be computed under the provisions of section 7(g)(3) of the Act if the employer and employee agree to do so under the conditions there provided. Section 7(g)(3) permits the use of a basic rate established, pursuant to agreement or understanding in advance of the work, in lieu of the regular rate for the purpose of computing overtime compensation. The use of such a basic rate for employees of a retail or service establishment compensated wholly or partly by commissions is authorized under the conditions set forth in part 548 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Other Provisions Which May Affect Retail Enterprises</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="304" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.304" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.500" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.304.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.500   Purpose of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>In Subpart A of this part, reference was made to a number of regulations which discuss provisions of the Act, such as general coverage, overtime compensation, joint employment, hours worked, and methods of payment of wages, which are applicable to others as well as to retailers and their employees. (See § 779.6.) In addition to those provisions, the act contains other provisions of interest to retailers and their employees. It is the purpose of this subpart to focus attention on several of the more significant provisions in these categories.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="305" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.305" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Equal Pay Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.501" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.305.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.501   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 6(d) of the Act provides:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(1) No employer having employees subject to any provisions of this section shall discriminate, within any establishment in which such employees are employed, between employees on the basis of sex by paying wages to employees in such establishment at a rate less than the rate at which he pays wages to employees of the opposite sex in such establishment for equal work on jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, effort, and responsibility, and which are performed under similar working conditions, except where such payment is made pursuant to (i) a seniority system; (ii) a merit system; (iii) a system which measures earnings by quantity or quality of production; or (iv) a differential based on any other factor other than sex: <I>Provided,</I> That an employer who is paying a wage rate differential in violation of this subsection shall not, in order to comply with the provisions of this subsection, reduce the wage rate of any employee.
</P>
<P>(2) No labor organization, or its agents, representing employees of an employer having employees subject to any provisions of this section shall cause or attempt to cause such an employer to discriminate against an employee in violation of paragraph (1) of this subsection.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of administration and enforcement, any amounts owing to any employee which have been withheld in violation of this subsection shall be deemed to be unpaid minimum wages or unpaid overtime compensation under this Act.
</P>
<P>(4) As used in this subsection, the term “labor organization” means any organization of any kind, or any agency or employee representation committee or plan, in which employees participate and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>Official interpretations of the Department of Labor with respect to the provisions of section 6(d) are found in part 800 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="306" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.306" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Child Labor Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.502" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.306.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.502   Statutory provisions; regulations in part 1500 of this title.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act's prohibitions in relation to employment of child labor, which may have application to retailers, are found in section 12(a) and section 12(c). Section 12(a) reads as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>No producer, manufacturer, or dealer shall ship or deliver for shipment in commerce any goods produced in an establishment situated in the United States in or about which within 30 days prior to the removal of such goods therefrom any oppressive child labor has been employed: <I>Provided,</I> That any such shipment or delivery for shipment of such goods by a purchaser who acquired them in good faith in reliance on written assurance from the producer, manufacturer, or dealer that the goods were produced in compliance with the requirements of this section, and who acquired such goods for value without notice of any such violation, shall not be deemed prohibited by this subsection and conviction of a defendant for the shipment or delivery for shipment of any goods under the conditions herein prohibited shall be a bar to any further prosecution against the same defendant for shipments or deliveries for shipment of any such goods before the beginning of said prosecution.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>Section 12(c) provides:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>No employer shall employ any oppressive child labor in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce or in any enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) “Oppressive child labor” is defined by the Act, for purposes of the foregoing provisions, in the language set forth in § 779.505.
</P>
<P>(c) Sections 570.1 to 570.129 of this chapter contain applicable regulations and a detailed discussion of the child labor provisions of the Act. Although those sections offer guidance for all including retailers, there are set forth in §§ 779.503 through 779.508 pertinent provisions and a brief discussion of the standards which are of particular interest to those in the retail field.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.503" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.306.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.503   The retailer and section 12(a).</HEAD>
<P>Section 12(a) prohibits certain shipments or deliveries for shipment by “producers,” “manufacturers” “or dealers.” These terms having appeared in this section prior to the 1961 amendments are defined and described in § 570.105 of this chapter, and said definitions remain unchanged. It should be noted that the term “manufacturer” as used in section 12(a) includes retailers who, in addition to retail selling, engage in such manufacturing activities as the making of slipcovers or curtains, the baking of bread, the making of candy, or the making of window frames. Further, the term “dealers” refers to anyone who deals in goods including persons engaged in buying, selling, trading, distributing, delivering, etc. “Dealers,” therefore, as used in section 12(a) include retailers. Therefore, where a retailer's business unit is covered under the Act and he is a producer, manufacturer or dealer within the meaning of this section, the retailer must comply with the requirements of section 12(a). If a retailer's business unit which is covered under the Act is exempt as a retail or service establishment under section 13 of the Act from the monetary requirements of the Act, the requirements of the child labor provisions must still be met. Thus, retail or service establishments, in covered enterprises, doing less than $250,000 annually, must comply with the child labor requirements even if they are exempt from minimum wage and overtime provisions under section 13(a)(2) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.504" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.306.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.504   The retailer and section 12(c).</HEAD>
<P>Section 12(c) was amended in 1961 to prohibit the employment of oppressive child labor in any enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. Thus, employers in every enterprise which is covered under the Act must comply with section 12(c) of the child labor provisions of the Act. As stated in § 779.503, compliance with this provision is necessary even though the employers in a particular establishment or establishments of a covered enterprise are exempt from the requirement of compensating employees in accordance with sections 6 and 7 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.505" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.306.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.505   “Oppressive child labor” defined.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(1) of the Act defines oppressive child labor as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Oppressive child labor” means a condition of employment under which (1) any employee under the age of 16 years is employed by an employer (other than a parent or a person standing in place of a parent employing his own child or a child in his custody under the age of 16 years in an occupation other than manufacturing or mining or an occupation found by the Secretary of Labor to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children between the ages of 16 and 18 years or detrimental to their health or well-being) in any occupation, or (2) any employee between the ages of 16 and 18 years is employed by an employer in any occupation which the Secretary of Labor shall find and by order declare to be particularly hazardous for the employment of children between such ages or detrimental to their health or well-being; but oppressive child labor shall not be deemed to exist by virtue of the employment in any occupation of any person with respect to whom the employer shall have on file an unexpired certificate issued and held pursuant to regulations of the Secretary of Labor certifying that such person is above the oppressive child labor age. The Secretary of Labor shall provide by regulation or by order that the employment of employees between the ages of 14 and 16 years in occupations other than manufacturing and mining shall not be deemed to constitute oppressive child labor if and to the extent that the Secretary of Labor determines that such employment is confined to periods which will not interfere with their schooling and to conditions which will not interfere with their health and well-being.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.506" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.306.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.506   Sixteen-year minimum.</HEAD>
<P>The Act sets a 16-year minimum for employment in manufacturing or mining occupations. Furthermore, this age minimum is applicable to employment in all other occupations unless otherwise provided by regulation or order issued by the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.507" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.306.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.507   Fourteen-year minimum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited occupations.</I> With respect to employment in occupations other than manufacturing and mining, the Secretary is authorized to issue regulations or orders lowering the age minimum to 14 years where he finds that such employment is confined to periods which will not interfere with the minors' schooling and to conditions which will not interfere with their health and well-being. Pursuant to this authority, the Secretary permits the employment of 14- and 15-year-old children in a limited number of occupations where the work is performed outside school hours and is confined to other specified limits. Under the provisions of Child Labor Regulations, subpart C (§§ 570.31 through 570.38 of this chapter), employment of minors in this age group is not permitted in the following occupations:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing, mining, or processing occupations including occupations requiring the performance of any duties in a workroom or workplace where goods are manufactured, mined, or otherwise processed;
</P>
<P>(2) Occupations involving the operation or tending of hoisting apparatus or of any power-driven machinery other than office machines;
</P>
<P>(3) The operation of motor vehicles or service as helpers on such vehicles;
</P>
<P>(4) Public messenger service;
</P>
<P>(5) Occupations declared to be particularly hazardous or detrimental to health or well-being by the Secretary;
</P>
<P>(6) Occupations in connection with (i) transportation of persons or property by rail, highway, air, water, pipeline, or other means; (ii) warehousing and storage; (iii) communications and public utilities; and (iv) construction (including demolition and repair). Office and sales work performed in connection with the occupations specified in this subparagraph is permitted if such work is not performed on trains or any other media of transportation or at the actual site of construction operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permissible occupations; conditions.</I> Employment of 14- and 15-year-olds in all occupations other than those in paragraph (a) of this section is permitted by the regulation under certain conditions specified in the regulation. The permissible occupations for minors between 14 and 16 years of age in retail, food service, and gasoline service establishments are listed in § 570.34. The periods and conditions of employment for such minors are set out in § 570.35.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.508" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.306.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.508   Eighteen-year minimum.</HEAD>
<P>To protect young workers from hazardous employment, the Act provides for a minimum age of 18 years in occupations found and declared by the Secretary to be particularly hazardous or detrimental to health or well-being of minors 16 and 17 years of age. These occupations may be found in §§ 570.51 through 570.68 of this chapter. Of particular interest to retailers are §§ 570.52, 570.58, 570.62 and 570.63 of this chapter pertaining to the occupations of motor-vehicle driver and outside helper, and occupations involving the operation of power-driven hoisting apparatus, bakery machines, and paper products machines.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="307" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.307" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Driver or Driver's Helper Making Local Deliveries</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.509" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.307.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.509   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(11) exempts from the provisions of section 7 of the Act:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee employed as a driver or driver's helper making local deliveries, who is compensated for such employment on the basis of trip rates, or other delivery payment plan, if the Secretary shall find that such plan has the general purpose and effect of reducing hours worked by such employees to, or below, the maximum workweek applicable to them under section 7(a).</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>This is an exemption from the overtime pay requirements only.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.510" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.307.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.510   Conditions that must be met for section 13(b)(11) exemption.</HEAD>
<P>In order that an employee be exempt from the overtime provisions of the Act under section 13(b)(11) he must be employed as a driver or driver's helper making local deliveries, and, he must be compensated for such employment on a trip rate basis or other delivery payment plan, and such plan must be found by the Secretary to have the general purpose and effect of reducing the hours worked by the driver or driver's helper to, or below, the maximum workweek applicable to him under section 7(a) of the Act. If all the preceding conditions are not met the exemption is inapplicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.511" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.307.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.511   “Finding by Secretary.”</HEAD>
<P>As stated in § 779.510, before the section 13(b)(11) exemption may be claimed, the Secretary must find that the trip rate basis of compensation, or other delivery payment plan used to compensate a driver or a driver's helper making local deliveries, has the general purpose and effect of reducing the hours worked by these employees to, or below, the maximum workweek applicable to them under section 7(a) of the Act. The conditions under which such findings may be made, amended, or revoked, and the procedure for obtaining such a finding are set forth in the regulations in part 551 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="308" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.308" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records to be Kept by Employers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.512" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.308.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.512   The recordkeeping regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer who is subject to any of the provisions of the Act is required to maintain certain records. The recordkeeping requirements are set forth in regulations which have been published in subparts A and B of part 516 of this chapter. Subpart A contains the requirements applicable to all employers employing covered employees, including the general requirements relating to the posting of notices, the preservation and location of records and similar general provisions. Subpart A also contains the requirements relating to the records which must be kept for exempt executive, administrative, and professional employees and outside salesmen. Subpart B deals with information and data which must be kept with respect to employees who are subject to other exemptions and provisions of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.513" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.308.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.513   Order and form of records.</HEAD>
<P>No particular order or form of records is prescribed by the regulations. However, the records which the employer keeps must contain the information and data required by the specific sections of the regulations which are applicable. In addition, where the employer claims an exemption from the minimum wage or overtime or other requirements of the Act, he should also maintain those records which serve to support his claim for exemption, such as records of sales, purchases, and receipts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.514" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.308.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.514   Period for preserving records.</HEAD>
<P>Basic records, such as payroll records, certificates issued or required under the Act, and employment agreements and other basic records must be preserved for at least 3 years. Supplementary records such as time and earnings cards or sheets, wage rate tables, work time schedules, or order, shipping and billing records, and similar records need be preserved for only 2 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 779.515" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.40.6.308.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 779.515   Regulations should be consulted.</HEAD>
<P>This discussion in subpart F of this part is intended only to indicate the general requirements of the recordkeeping regulations. Each employer subject to any provision of the Act should consult the regulations to determine what records he must maintain and the period for which they must be preserved.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="780" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 780—EXEMPTIONS APPLICABLE TO AGRICULTURE, PROCESSING OF AGRICULTURAL COMMODITIES, AND RELATED SUBJECTS UNDER THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 75 Stat. 65; 29 U.S.C. 201-219. Pub. L. 105-78, 111 Stat. 1467.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>37 FR 12084, June 17, 1972, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.0   Purpose of interpretative bulletins in this part.</HEAD>
<P>It is the purpose of the interpretative bulletins in this part to provide an official statement of the views of the Department of Labor with respect to the application and meaning of the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, which exempt certain employees from the minimum wage or overtime pay requirements, or both, when employed in agriculture or in certain related activities or in certain operations with respect to agricultural or horticultural commodities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1   General scope of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Act is a Federal statute of general application which establishes minimum wage, overtime pay, equal pay, and child labor requirements that apply as provided in the Act. These requirements are applicable, except where exemptions are provided, to employees in those workweeks when they are engaged in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce or are employed in enterprises so engaged within the meaning of definitions set forth in the Act. Employers having such employees are required to comply with the Act's provisions in this regard unless relieved therefrom by some exemption in the Act, and with specified recordkeeping requirements contained in part 516 of this chapter. The law authorizes the Department of Labor to investigate for compliance and, in the event of violations, to supervise the payment of unpaid minimum wages or unpaid overtime compensation owing to any employee. The law also provides for enforcement in the courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.2   Exemptions from Act's requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Act provides a number of specific exemptions from the general requirements described in § 780.1. Some are exemptions from the overtime provisions only. Others are from the child labor provisions only. Several are exemptions from both the minimum wage and the overtime requirements of the Act. Finally, there are some exemptions from all three—minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor requirements. An employer who claims an exemption under the Act has the burden of showing that it applies (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>General Industries Co.,</I> 330 U.S. 545; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290). Conditions specified in the language of the Act are “explicit prerequisites to exemption” (<I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388). “The details with which the exemptions in this Act have been made preclude their enlargement by implication” and “no matter how broad the exemption, it is meant to apply only to” the specified activities (<I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill,</I> 322 U.S. 607; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254). Exemptions provided in the Act “are to be narrowly construed against the employer seeking to assert them” and their application limited to those who come “plainly and unmistakably within their terms and spirit” (<I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 334 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290; <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.3   Exemptions discussed in this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The specific exemptions which the Act provides for employment in agriculture and in certain operations more or less closely connected with the agricultural industry are discussed in this part 780. These exemptions differ substantially in their terms, scope, and methods of application. Each of them is therefore separately considered in a subpart of this part which, together with this subpart A, constitutes the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to that exemption. Exemptions from minimum wages and overtime pay and the subparts in which they are considered include the section 13(a)(6) exemptions for employees on small farms, family members, local hand harvest laborers, migrant hand harvest workers under 16, and range production employees discussed in subpart D of this part, and the section 13(a)(14) exemption for agricultural employees processing shade-grown tobacco discussed in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Exemptions from the overtime pay provisions and the subparts in which these exemptions are discussed include the section 13(b)(12) exemption (agriculture and irrigation) discussed in subpart E of this part, the section 13(b)(13) exemption (agriculture and livestock auction operations) discussed in subpart G of this part, the section 13(b)(14) exemption (country elevators) discussed in subpart H of this part, the section 13(b)(15) exemption (cotton ginning and sugar processing) discussed in subpart I of this part, and the section 13(b)(16) exemption (fruit and vegetable harvest transportation) discussed in subpart J of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) An exemption in section 13(d) of the Act from the minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor provisions for certain homeworkers making holly and evergreen wreaths is discussed in subpart K of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.4   Matters not discussed in this part.</HEAD>
<P>The application of provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act other than the exemptions referred to in § 780.3 is not considered in this part 780. Interpretative bulletins published elsewhere in the Code of Federal Regulations deal with such subjects as the general coverage of the Act (part 776 of this chapter) and of the child labor provisions (subpart G of part 1500 of this title which includes a discussion of the exemption for children employed in agriculture outside of school hours), partial overtime exemptions provided for industries of a seasonal nature under sections 7(c) and 7(d) (part 526 of this chapter) and for industries with marked seasonal peaks of operations under section 7(d) (part 526 of this chapter), methods of payment of wages (part 531 of this chapter), computation and payment of overtime compensation (part 778 of this chapter), and hours worked (part 785 of this chapter). Regulations on recordkeeping are contained in part 516 of this chapter and regulations defining exempt administrative, executive, and professional employees, and outside salesmen are contained in part 541 of this chapter. Regulations and interpretations on other subjects concerned with the application of the Act are listed in the table of contents to this chapter. Copies of any of these documents may be obtained from any office of the Wage and Hour Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.5   Significance of official interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part contain the official interpretations of the Department of Labor with respect to the application under described circumstances of the provisions of law which they discuss. These interpretations indicate the construction of the law which the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator believe to be correct and which will guide them in the performance of their duties under the Act unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude, upon reexamination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.6   Basic support for interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate decisions on interpretations of the Act are made by the courts (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Zachry,</I> 362 U.S. 310; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517). Court decisions supporting interpretations contained in this bulletin are cited where it is believed they may be helpful. On matters which have not been determined by the courts, it is necessary for the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator to reach conclusions as to the meaning and the application of provisions of the law in order to carry out their responsibilities of administration and enforcement (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). In order that these positions may be made known to persons who may be affected by them, official interpretations are issued by the Administrator on the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, as authorized by the Secretary (Reorg. Pl. 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263; Gen. Ord. 45A, May 24, 1950; 15 FR 3290; Secretary's Order 13-71, May 4, 1971, FR; Secretary's Order 15-71, May 4, 1971, FR). Interpretative rules under the Act as amended in 1966 are also authorized by section 602 of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966 (80 Stat. 830), which provides: “On and after the date of the enactment of this Act the Secretary is authorized to promulgate necessary rules, regulations, or orders with regard to the amendments made by this Act.” As included in the regulations in this part, these interpretations are believed to express the intent of the law as reflected in its provisions and as construed by the courts and evidenced by its legislative history. References to pertinent legislative history are made in this bulletin where it appears that they will contribute to a better understanding of the interpretations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.7   Reliance on interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The interpretations of the law contained in this part are official interpretations which may be relied upon as provided in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947. In addition, the Supreme Court has recognized that such interpretations of this Act “provide a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it” and “constitute a body of experience and informed judgment to which courts and litigants may properly resort for guidance.” Further, as stated by the Court: “Good administration of the Act and good judicial administration alike require that the standards of public enforcement and those for determining private rights shall be at variance only where justified by very good reasons.” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). Some of the interpretations in this part are interpretations of exemption provisions as they appeared in the original Act before amendment in 1949, 1961, and 1966, which have remained unchanged because they are consistent with the amendments. These interpretations may be said to have congressional sanction because “When Congress amended the Act in 1949 it provided that pre-1949 rulings and interpretations by the Administrator should remain in effect unless inconsistent with the statute as amended. 63 Stat. 920.” (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290; accord, <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.8   Interpretations made, continued, and superseded by this part.</HEAD>
<P>On and after publication of this part 780 in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the interpretations contained therein shall be in effect and shall remain in effect until they are modified, rescinded, or withdrawn. This part supersedes and replaces the interpretations previously published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and Code of Federal Regulations as this part 780. Prior opinions, rulings, and interpretations and prior enforcement policies which are not inconsistent with the interpretations in this part or with the Fair Labor Standards Act as amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966 are continued in effect; all other opinions, rulings, interpretations, and enforcement policies on the subjects discussed in the interpretations in this part are rescinded and withdrawn. The interpretations in this part provide statements of general principles applicable to the subjects discussed and illustrations of the application of these principles to situations that frequently arise. They do not and cannot refer specifically to every problem which may be met in the consideration of the exemptions discussed. The omission to discuss a particular problem in this part or in interpretations supplementing it should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Secretary of Labor or the Administrator with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice or enforcement policy. Questions on matters not fully covered by this bulletin may be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or to any Regional Office of the Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.9   Related exemptions are interpreted together.</HEAD>
<P>The interpretations contained in the several subparts of this part 780 consider separately a number of exemptions which affect employees who perform activities in or connected with agriculture and its products. These exemptions deal with related subject matter and varying degrees of relationships between them were the subject of consideration in Congress before their enactment. Together they constitute an expression in some detail of existing Federal policy on the lines to be drawn in the industries connected with agriculture and agricultural products between those employees to whom the pay provisions of the Act are to be applied and those whose exclusion in whole or in part from the Act's requirements has been deemed justified. The courts have indicated that these exemptions, because of their relationship to one another, should be construed together insofar as possible so that they form a consistent whole. Consideration of the language and history of a related exemption or exemptions is helpful in ascertaining the intended scope and application of an exemption whose effect might otherwise not be clear (<I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill,</I> 322 U.S. 607; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzales</I> (C.A. 1), 117 F. 2d 11). In the interpretations of the several exemptions discussed in the various subparts of this part 780, effect has been given to these principles and each exemption has been considered in its relation to others in the group as well as to the combined effect of the group as a whole.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.10   Workweek standard in applying exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The workweek is the unit of time to be taken as the standard in determining the applicability of an exemption. An employee's workweek is a fixed and regularly recurring period of 168 hours—seven consecutive 24-hour periods. It need not coincide with the calendar week. If in any workweek an employee does only exempt work, he is exempt from the wage and hour provisions of the Act during that workweek, irrespective of the nature of his work in any other workweek or workweeks. An employee may thus be exempt in 1 workweek and not in the next. But the burden of effecting segregation between exempt and nonexempt work as between particular workweeks is upon the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.11   Exempt and nonexempt work during the same workweek.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee in the same workweek performs work which is exempt under one section of the Act and also engages in work to which the Act applies but is not exempt under some other section of the Act, he is not exempt that week, and the wage and hour requirements of the Act are applicable (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Maxfield,</I> 12 WH Cases 792 (S.D. Ohio), 29 Labor Cases 69, 781; <I>Jordan</I> v. <I>Stark Bros. Nurseries,</I> 45 F. Supp. 769; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op Ass'n,</I> 80 F. Supp. 953, affirmed 181 F. 2d 697; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Peacock Corp.,</I> 58 F. Supp. 880-883). On the other hand, an employee who performs exempt activities during a workweek will not lose the exemption by virtue of the fact that he performs other activities outside the scope of the exemption if the other activities are not covered by the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.1.355.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.12   Work exempt under another section of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The combination (tacking) of exempt work under one exemption with exempt work under another exemption is permitted. For instance, the overtime pay requirements are not considered applicable to an employee who does work within section 13(b)(12) for only part of a workweek if all of the covered work done by him during the remainder of the workweek is within one or more equivalent exemptions under other provisions of the Act. If the scope of such exemptions is not the same, however, the exemption applicable to the employee is equivalent to that provided by whichever exemption provision is more limited in scope. For instance, an employee who devotes part of a workweek to work within section 13(b)(12) and the remainder to work exempt under section 7(c) must receive the minimum wage and must be paid time and one-half for his overtime work during that week for hours over 10 a day or 50 a week, whichever provides the greater compensation. Each activity is tested separately under the applicable exemption as though it were the sole activity of the employee for the whole workweek in question. The availability of a combination exemption depends on whether the employee meets all the requirements of each exemption which is sought to combine.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Scope of Agriculture</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="355" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.355" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.355.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.100   Scope and significance of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part 780, this subpart B and subparts C, D, and E of this part together constitute the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of sections 3(f), 13(a)(6), and 13(b)(12) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. Section 3(f) defines “agriculture” as the term is used in the Act. Section 13(a)(6) provides exemption from the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions of the Act for certain employees employed in “agriculture,” as so defined. Section 13(b)(12) provides an overtime exemption for any employee employed in agriculture. As appears more fully in subpart A of this part 780, interpretations in this bulletin with respect to the provisions of the Act discussed are official interpretations upon which reliance may be placed and which will guide the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator in the performance of their duties under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.355.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.101   Matters discussed in this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(f) defines “agriculture” as this term is used in the Act. Those principles and rules which govern the interpretation of the meaning and application of the Act's definition of “agriculture” in section 3(f) and of the terms used in it are set forth in this subpart B. Included is a discussion of the application of the definition in section 3(f) to the employees of farmers' cooperative associations. In addition, the official interpretations of section 3(f) of the Act and the terms which appear in it are to be taken into consideration in determining the meaning intended by the use of like terms in particular related exemptions which are provided by the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.355.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.102   Pay requirements for agricultural employees.</HEAD>
<P>Section 6(a)(5) of the Act provides that any employee employed in agriculture must be paid at least $1.30 an hour beginning February 1, 1969. However, there are certain exemptions provided in the Act for agricultural workers, as previously mentioned. (See §§ 780.3 and 780.4.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.355.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.103   “Agriculture” as defined by the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(f) of the Act defines “agriculture” as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Agriculture” includes farming in all its branches and among other things includes the cultivation and tillage of the soil, dairying, the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodities (including commodities defined as agricultural commodities in section 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended), the raising of livestock, bees, fur-bearing animals, or poultry, and any practices (including any forestry or lumbering operations) performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations, including preparation for market, delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.355.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.104   How modern specialization affects the scope of agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>The effect of modern specialization on agriculture has been discussed by the U.S. Supreme Court as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Whether a particular type of activity is agricultural depends, in large measure, upon the way in which that activity is organized in a particular society. The determination cannot be made in the abstract. In less advanced societies the agricultural function includes many types of activity which, in others, are not agricultural. The fashioning of tools, the provision of fertilizer, the processing of the product, to mention only a few examples, are functions which, in some societies, are performed on the farm by farmers as part of their normal agricultural routine. Economic progress, however, is characterized by a progressive division of labor and separation of function. Tools are made by a tool manufacturer, who specializes in that kind of work and supplies them to the farmer. The compost heap is replaced by factory produced fertilizers. Power is derived from electricity and gasoline rather than supplied by the farmer's mules. Wheat is ground at the mill. In this way functions which are necessary to the total economic process of supplying an agricultural produce become, in the process of economic development and specialization, separate and independent productive functions operated in conjunction with the agricultural function but no longer a part of it. Thus the question as to whether a particular type of activity is agricultural is not determined by the necessity of the activity to agriculture nor by the physical similarity of the activity to that done by farmers in other situations. The question is whether the activity in the particular case is carried on as part of the agricultural function or is separately organized as an independent productive activity. The farmhand who cares for the farmer's mules or prepares his fertilizer is engaged in agriculture. But the maintenance man in a powerplant and the packer in a fertilizer factory are not employed in agriculture, even if their activity is necessary to farmers and replaces work previously done by farmers. The production of power and the manufacture of fertilizer are independent productive functions, not agriculture (see <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755 cf. <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254).</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.355.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.105   “Primary” and “secondary” agriculture under section 3(f).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(f) of the Act contains a very comprehensive definition of the term “agriculture.” The definition has two distinct branches (see <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755). One has relation to the primary meaning of agriculture; the other gives to the term a somewhat broader secondary meaning for purposes of the Act (<I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714).
</P>
<P>(b) First, there is the primary meaning. This includes farming in all its branches. Listed as being included “among other things” in the primary meaning are certain specific farming operations such as cultivation and tillage of the soil, dairying the production, cultivation, growing and harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodities and the raising of livestock, bees, fur-bearing animals or poultry. If an employee is employed in any of these activities, he is engaged in agriculture regardless of whether he is employed by a farmer or on a farm. (<I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> supra; <I>Holtville Alfalfa Mills</I> v. <I>Wyatt,</I> 230 F. 2d 398.)
</P>
<P>(c) Then there is the secondary meaning of the term. The second branch includes operations other than those which fall within the primary meaning of the term. It includes any practices, whether or not they are themselves farming practices, which are performed either by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with “such” farming operations (<I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> supra; <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254).
</P>
<P>(d) Employment not within the scope of either the primary or the secondary meaning of “agriculture” as defined in section 3(f) is not employment in agriculture. In other words, employees not employed in farming or by a farmer or on a farm are not employed in agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="356" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.356" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exemption for “Primary” Agriculture Generally</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.356.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.106   Employment in “primary” agriculture is farming regardless of why or where work is performed.</HEAD>
<P>When an employee is engaged in direct farming operations included in the primary definition of “agriculture,” the purpose of the employer in performing the operations is immaterial. For example, where an employer owns a factory and a farm and operates the farm only for experimental purposes in connection with the factory, those employees who devote all their time during a particular workweek to the direct farming operations, such as the growing and harvesting of agricultural commodities, are considered as employed in agriculture. It is also immaterial whether the agricultural or horticultural commodities are grown in enclosed houses, as in greenhouses or mushroom cellars, or in an open field. Similarly, the mere fact that production takes place in a city or on industrial premises, such as in hatcheries, rather than in the country or on premises possessing the normal characteristics of a farm makes no difference (see <I>Jordan</I> v. <I>Stark Brothers Nurseries,</I> 45 F. Supp. 769; <I>Miller Hatcheries</I> v. <I>Boyer,</I> 131 F. 2d 283; <I>Damutz</I> v. <I>Pinchbeck,</I> 158 F. 2d 882).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="357" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.357" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Farming in All Its Branches</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.107" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.357.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.107   Scope of the statutory term.</HEAD>
<P>The language “farming in all its branches” includes all activities, whether listed in the definition or not, which constitute farming or a branch thereof under the facts and circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.108" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.357.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.108   Listed activities.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(f), in defining the practices included as “agriculture” in its statutory secondary meaning, refers to the activities specifically listed in the earlier portion of the definition (the “primary” meaning) as “farming” operations. They may therefore be considered as illustrative of “farming in all its branches” as used in the definition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.109" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.357.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.109   Determination of whether unlisted activities are “farming.”</HEAD>
<P>Unlike the specifically enumerated operations, the phrase “farming in all its branches” does not clearly indicate its scope. In determining whether an operation constitutes “farming in all its branches,” it may be necessary to consider various circumstances such as the nature and purpose of the operations of the employer, the character of the place where the employee performs his duties, the general types of activities there conducted, and the purpose and function of such activities with respect to the operations carried on by the employer. The determination may involve a consideration of the principles contained in § 780.104. For example, fish farming activities fall within the scope of the meaning of “farming in all its branches” and employers engaged in such operations would be employed in agriculture. On the other hand, so-called “bird dog” operations of the citrus fruit industry consisting of the purchase of fruit unsuitable for packing and of the transportation and sale of the fruit to canning plants do not qualify as “farming” and, consequently, employees engaged in such operations are not employed in agriculture. (See <I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 360 cert. denied 348 U.S. 897; <I>Fort Mason Fruit Co.</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 363 cert. denied, 348 U.S. 897.) However, employees gathering the fruit at the groves are considered agricultural workers because they are engaged in harvesting operations. (For exempt transportation, see subpart J of this part.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="358" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.358" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Cultivation and Tillage of the Soil</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.358.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.110   Operations included in “cultivation and tillage of the soil.”</HEAD>
<P>“Cultivation and tillage of the soil” includes all the operations necessary to prepare a suitable seedbed, eliminate weed growth, and improve the physical condition of the soil. Thus, grading or leveling land or removing rock or other matter to prepare the ground for a proper seedbed or building terraces on farmland to check soil erosion are included. The application of water, fertilizer, or limestone to farmland is also included. (See in this connection §§ 780.128 <I>et seq.</I> Also see <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755.) Other operations such as the commercial production and distribution of fertilizer are not included within the scope of agriculture. (<I>McComb</I> v. <I>Super-A Fertilizer Works,</I> 165 F. 2d 824; <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="359" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.359" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Dairying</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.111" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.359.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.111   “Dairying” as a farming operation.</HEAD>
<P>“Dairying” includes the work of caring for and milking cows or goats. It also includes putting the milk in containers, cooling it, and storing it where done on the farm. The handling of milk and cream at receiving stations is not included. Such operations as separating cream from milk, bottling milk and cream, or making butter and cheese may be considered as “dairying” under some circumstances, or they may be considered practices under the “secondary” meaning of the definition when performed by a farmer or on a farm, if they are not performed on milk produced by other farmers or produced on other farms. (See the discussions in §§ 780.128 <I>et seq.</I>)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="360" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.360" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Agricultural or Horticultural Commodities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.112" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.360.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.112   General meaning of “agriculture or horticultural commodities.”</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(f) of the Act defines as “agriculture” the “production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting” of “agricultural or horticultural commodities,” and employees employed in such operations are engaged in agriculture. In general, within the meaning of the Act, “agricultural or horticultural commodities” refers to commodities resulting from the application of agricultural or horticultural techniques. Insofar as the term refers to products of the soil, it means commodities that are planted and cultivated by man. Among such commodities are the following: Grains, forage crops, fruits, vegetables, nuts, sugar crops, fiber crops, tobacco, and nursery products. Thus, employees engaged in growing wheat, corn, hay, onions, carrots, sugar cane, seed, or any other agricultural or horticultural commodity are engaged in “agriculture.” In addition to such products of the soil, however, the term includes domesticated animals and some of their products such as milk, wool, eggs, and honey. The term does not include commodities produced by industrial techniques, by exploitation of mineral wealth or other natural resources, or by uncultivated natural growth. For example, peat humus or peat moss is not an agricultural commodity. <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Ti Ti Peat Humus Co.,</I> 373 f(2d) 209 (C.A.4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.113" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.360.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.113   Seeds, spawn, etc.</HEAD>
<P>Seeds and seedlings of agricultural and horticultural plants are considered “agricultural or horticultural commodities.” Thus, since mushrooms and beans are considered “agricultural or horticultural commodities,” the spawn of mushrooms and bean sprouts are also so considered and the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of mushroom spawn or bean sprouts is “agriculture” within the meaning of section 3(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.114" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.360.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.114   Wild commodities.</HEAD>
<P>Employees engaged in the gathering or harvesting of wild commodities such as mosses, wild rice, burls and laurel plants, the trapping of wild animals, or the appropriation of minerals and other uncultivated products from the soil are not employed in “the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of agricultural or horticultural commodities.” However, the fact that plants or other commodities actually cultivated by men are of a species which ordinarily grows wild without being cultivated does not preclude them from being classed as “agricultural or horticultural commodities.” Transplanted branches which were cut from plants growing wild in the field or forest are included within the term. Cultivated blueberries are also included.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.360.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.115   Forest products.</HEAD>
<P>Trees grown in forests and the lumber derived therefrom are not “agricultural or horticultural commodities.” Christmas trees, whether wild or planted, are also not so considered. It follows that employment in the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of such trees or timber products is not sufficient to bring an employee within section 3(f) unless the operation is performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with his or its farming operations. On the latter point, see §§ 780.160 through 780.164 which discuss the question of when forestry or lumbering operations are incident to or in conjunction with farming operations so as to constitute “agriculture.” For a discussion of the exemption in section 13(a)(13) of the Act for certain forestry and logging operations in which not more than eight employees are employed, see part 788 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 26014, May 29, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.116" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.360.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.116   Commodities included by reference to the Agricultural Marketing Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(f) expressly provides that the term “agricultural or horticultural commodities” shall include the commodities defined as agricultural commodities in section 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1141-1141j). Section 15(g) of that Act provides: “As used in this act, the term ‘agricultural commodity’ includes, in addition to other agricultural commodities, crude gum (oleoresin) from a living tree, and the following products as processed by the original producers of the crude gum (oleoresin) from which derived: Gum spirits of turpentine, and gum resin, as defined in the Naval Stores Act, approved March 3, 1923” (7 U.S.C. 91-99). As defined in the Naval Stores Act, “ ‘gum spirits of turpentine’ means spirits of turpentine made from gum (oleoresin) from a living tree” and “ ‘gum rosin’ means rosin remaining after the distillation of gum spirits of turpentine.” The production of these commodities is therefore within the definition of “agriculture.”
</P>
<P>(b) Since the only oleoresin included within section 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act is that derived from a living tree, the production of oleoresin from stumps or any sources other than living trees is not within section 3(f). If turpentine or rosin is produced in any manner other than the processing of crude gum from living trees, as by digging up pine stumps and grinding them or by distilling the turpentine with steam from the oleoresin within or extracted from the wood, the production of the turpentine or rosin is not included in section 3(f).
</P>
<P>(c) Similarly, the production of gum turpentine or gum rosin is not included when these are produced by anyone other than the original producer of the crude gum from which they are derived. Thus, if a producer of turpentine or rosin from oleoresin from living trees makes such products not only from oleoresin produced by him but also from oleoresin delivered to him by others, he is not producing a product defined as an agricultural commodity and employees engaged in his production operations are not agricultural employees. (For an explanation of the inclusion of the word “production” in section 3(f), see § 780.117(b).) It is to be noted, however, that the production of gum turpentine and gum rosin from crude gum (oleoresin) derived from a living tree is included within section 3(f) when performed at a central still for and on account of the producer of the crude gum. But where central stills buy the crude gum they process and are the owners of the gum turpentine and gum rosin that are derived from such crude gum and which they market for their own account, the production of such gum turpentine and gum rosin is not within section 3(f).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="361" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.361" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>“Production, Cultivation, Growing, and Harvesting” of Commodities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.117" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.361.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.117   “Production, cultivation, growing.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The words “production, cultivation, growing” describe actual raising operations which are normally intended or expected to produce specific agricultural or horticultural commodities. The raising of such commodities is included even though done for purely experimental purposes. The “growing” may take place in growing media other than soil as in the case of hydroponics. The words do not include operations undertaken or conducted for purposes not concerned with obtaining any specific agricultural or horticultural commodity. Thus operations which are merely preliminary, preparatory or incidental to the operations whereby such commodities are actually produced are not within the terms “production, cultivation, growing”. For example, employees of a processor of vegetables who are engaged in buying vegetable plants and distributing them to farmers with whom their employer has acreage contracts are not engaged in the “production, cultivation, growing” of agricultural or horticultural commodities. The furnishing of mushroom spawn by a canner of mushrooms to growers who supply the canner with mushrooms grown from such spawn does not constitute the “growing” of mushrooms. Similarly, employees of the employer who is engaged in servicing insecticide sprayers in the farmer's orchard and employees engaged in such operations as the testing of soil or genetics research are not included within the terms. (However, see §§ 780.128, <I>et seq.,</I> for possible exemption on other grounds.) The word “production,” used in conjunction with “cultivation, growing, and harvesting,” refers, in its natural and unstrained meaning, to what is derived and produced from the soil, such as any farm produce. Thus, “production” as used in section 3(f) does not refer to such operations as the grinding and processing of sugarcane, the milling of wheat into flour, or the making of cider from apples. These operations are clearly the processing of the agricultural commodities and not the production of them (<I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11).
</P>
<P>(b) The word “production” was added to the definition of “agriculture” in order to take care of a special situation—the production of turpentine and gum rosins by a process involving the tapping of living trees. (See S. Rep. No. 230, 71st Cong., second sess. (1930); H.R. Rep. No. 2738, 75th Cong., third sess. p. 29 (1938).) To insure the inclusion of this process within the definition, the word “production” was added to section 3(f) in conjunction with the words “including commodities defined as agricultural commodities in section 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended” (<I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11). It is clear, therefore, that “production” is not used in section 3(f) in the artificial and special sense in which it is defined in section 3(j). It does not exempt an employee merely because he is engaged in a closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production of agricultural or horticultural commodities. To so construe the term would render unnecessary the remainder of what Congress clearly intended to be a very elaborate and comprehensive definition of “agriculture.” The legislative history of this part of the definition was considered by the U.S. Supreme Court in reaching these conclusions in <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.118" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.361.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.118   “Harvesting.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “Harvesting” as used in section 3(f) includes all operations customarily performed in connection with the removal of the crops by the farmer from their growing position (<I>Holtville Alfalfa Mills</I> v. <I>Wyatt,</I> 230 F. 2d 398; <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714). Examples include the cutting of grain, the picking of fruit, the stripping of bluegrass seed, and the digging up of shrubs and trees grown in a nursery. Employees engaged on a plantation in gathering sugarcane as soon as it has been cut, loading it, and transporting the cane to a concentration point on the farm are engaged in “Harvesting” (<I>Vives</I> v. <I>Serralles,</I> 145 F. 2d 552).
</P>
<P>(b) The combining of grain is exempt either as harvesting or as a practice performed on a farm in conjunction with or as an incident to farming operations. (See in this connection <I>Holtville Alfalfa Mills</I> v. <I>Wyatt,</I> 230 F. 2d 398.) “Harvesting” does not extend to operations subsequent to and unconnected with the actual process whereby agricultural or horticultural commodities are severed from their attachment to the soil or otherwise reduced to possession. For example, the processing of sugarcane into raw sugar (<I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11, and see <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254), or the vining of peas are not included. For a further discussion on vining employees, see § 780.139. While transportation to a concentration point on the farm may be included, “harvesting” never extends to transportation or other operations off the farm. Off-the-farm transportation can only be “agriculture” when performed by the farmer as an incident to his farming operations (<I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 360 cert. denied 348 U.S. 897; <I>Fort Mason Fruit Co.</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 363 cert. denied 348 U.S. 897). For further discussion of this point, see §§ 780.144 through 780.147; §§ 780.152 through 780.157.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="362" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Raising of Livestock, Bees, Fur-bearing Animals, or Poultry</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.119" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.119   Employment in the specified operations generally.</HEAD>
<P>Employees are employed in the raising of livestock, bees, fur-bearing animals or poultry only if their operations relate to animals of the type named and constitute the “raising” of such animals. If these two requirements are met, it makes no difference for what purpose the animals are raised or where the operations are performed. For example, the fact that cattle are raised to obtain serum or virus or that chicks are hatched in a commercial hatchery does not affect the status of the operations under section 3(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.120" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.120   Raising of “livestock.”</HEAD>
<P>The meaning of the term “livestock” as used in section 3(f) is confined to the ordinary use of the word and includes only domestic animals ordinarily raised or used on farms. That Congress did not use this term in its generic sense is supported by the specific enumeration of activities, such as the raising of fur-bearing animals, which would be included in the generic meaning of the word. The term includes the following animals, among others: Cattle (both dairy and beef cattle), sheep, swine, horses, mules, donkeys, and goats. It does not include such animals as albino and other rats, mice, guinea pigs, and hamsters, which are ordinarily used by laboratories for research purposes (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Maxfield,</I> 12 WH Cases 792 (S.D. Ohio), 29 Labor Cases 68, 781). Fish are not “livestock” (<I>Dunkly</I> v. <I>Erich,</I> 158 F. 2d 1), but employees employed in propagating or farming of fish may qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(6) or 13(b)(12) of the Act as stated in § 780.109 as well as under section 13(a)(5), as explained in part 784 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.121" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.121   What constitutes “raising” of livestock.</HEAD>
<P>The term “raising” employed with reference to livestock in section 3(f) includes such operations as the breeding, fattening, feeding, and general care of livestock. Thus, employees exclusively engaged in feeding and fattening livestock in stock pens where the livestock remains for a substantial period of time are engaged in the “raising” of livestock. The fact that the livestock is purchased to be fattened and is not bred on the premises does not characterize the fattening as something other than the “raising” of livestock. The feeding and care of livestock does not necessarily or under all circumstances constitute the “raising” of such livestock, however. It is clear, for example, that animals are not being “raised” in the pens of stockyards or the corrals of meat packing plants where they are confined for a period of a few days while en route to slaughter or pending their sale or shipment. Therefore, employees employed in these places in feeding and caring for the constantly changing group of animals cannot reasonably be regarded as “raising” livestock (<I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Tovrea Packing Co.,</I> 111 F. 2d 626, cert. denied 311 U.S. 668; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Friend,</I> 156 F. 2d 429). Employees of a cattle raisers' association engaged in the publication of a magazine about cattle, the detection of cattle thefts, the location of stolen cattle, and apprehension of cattle thieves are not employed in raising livestock and are not engaged in agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.122" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.122   Activities relating to race horses.</HEAD>
<P>Employees engaged in the breeding, raising, and training of horses on farms for racing purposes are considered agricultural employees. Included are such employees as grooms, attendants, exercise boys, and watchmen employed at the breeding or training farm. On the other hand, employees engaged in the racing, training, and care of horses and other activities performed off the farm in connection with commercial racing are not employed in agriculture. For this purpose, a training track at a racetrack is not a farm. Where a farmer is engaged in both the raising and commercial racing of race horses, the activities performed off the farm by his employees as an incident to racing, such as the training and care of the horses, are not practices performed by the farmer in his capacity as a farmer or breeder as an incident to his raising operations. Employees engaged in the feeding, care, and training of horses which have been used in commercial racing and returned to a breeding or training farm for such care pending entry in subsequent races are employed in agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.123" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.123   Raising of bees.</HEAD>
<P>The term “raising of * * * bees” refers to all of those activities customarily performed in connection with the handling and keeping of bees, including the treatment of disease and the raising of queens.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.124" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.124   Raising of fur-bearing animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “fur-bearing animals” has reference to animals which bear fur of marketable value and includes, among other animals, rabbits, silver foxes, minks, squirrels, and muskrats. Animals whose fur lacks marketable value, such as albino and other rats, mice, guinea pigs, and hamsters, are not “fur-bearing animals” which within the meaning of section 3(f).
</P>
<P>(b) The term “raising” of fur-bearing animals includes all those activities customarily performed in connection with breeding, feeding and caring for fur-bearing animals, including the treatment of disease. Such treatment of disease has reference only to disease of the animals being bred and does not refer to the use of such animals or their fur in experimenting with disease or treating diseases in others. The fact that muskrats or other fur-bearing animals are propagated in open water or marsh areas rather than in pens does not prevent the raising of such animals from constituting the “raising of fur-bearing animals.” Where wild fur-bearing animals propagate in their native habitat and are not raised as above described, the trapping or hunting of such animals and activities incidental thereto are not included within section 3(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.125" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.125   Raising of poultry in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “poultry” includes domesticated fowl and game birds. Ducks and pigeons are included. Canaries and parakeets are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) The “raising” of poultry includes the breeding, hatching, propagating, feeding, and general care of poultry. Slaughtering, which is the antithesis of “raising,” is not included. To constitute “agriculture,” slaughtering must come within the secondary meaning of the term “agriculture.” The temporary feeding and care of chickens and other poultry for a few days pending sale, shipment or slaughter is not the “raising” of poultry. However, feeding, fattening and caring for poultry over a substantial period may constitute the “raising” of poultry. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.126" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.126   Contract arrangements for raising poultry.</HEAD>
<P>Feed dealers and processors sometimes enter into contractual arrangements with farmers under which the latter agree to raise to marketable size baby chicks supplied by the former who also undertake to furnish all the required feed and possibly additional items. Typically, the feed dealer or processor retains title to the chickens until they are sold. Under such an arrangement, the activities of the farmers and their employees in raising the poultry are clearly within section 3(f). The activities of the feed dealer or processor, on the other hand, are not “raising of poultry” and employees engaged in them cannot be considered agricultural employees on that ground. Employees of the feed dealer or processor who perform work on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with the raising of poultry on the farm are employed in “secondary” agriculture (see §§ 780.137 <I>et seq.</I> and <I>Johnston</I> v. <I>Cotton Producers Assn.,</I> 244 F. 2d 553).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.127" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.362.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.127   Hatchery operations.</HEAD>
<P>Hatchery operations incident to the breeding of poultry, whether performed in a rural or urban location, are the “raising of poultry” (<I>Miller Hatcheries</I> v. <I>Boyer,</I> 131 F. 2d 283). The application of section 3(f) to employees of hatcheries is further discussed in §§ 780.210 through 780.214.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="363" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.363" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Practices Exempt Under “Secondary” Meaning of Agriculture Generally</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.128" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.363.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.128   General statement on “secondary” agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>The discussion in §§ 780.106 through 780.127 relates to the direct farming operations which come within the “primary” meaning of the definition of “agriculture.” As defined in section 3(f) “agriculture” includes not only the farming activities described in the “primary” meaning but also includes, in its “secondary” meaning, “any practices (including any forestry or lumbering operations) performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations, including preparation for market delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market.” The legislative history makes it plain that this language was particularly included to make certain that independent contractors such as threshers of wheat, who travel around from farm to farm to assist farmers in what is recognized as a purely agricultural task and also to assist a farmer in getting his agricultural goods to market in their raw or natural state, should be included within the definition of agricultural employees (see <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; 81 Cong. Rec. 7876, 7888).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.129" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.363.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.129   Required relationship of practices to farming operations.</HEAD>
<P>To come within this secondary meaning, a practice must be performed either by a farmer or on a farm. It must also be performed either in connection with the farmer's own farming operations or in connection with farming operations conducted on the farm where the practice is performed. In addition, the practice must be performed “as an incident to or in conjunction with” the farming operations. No matter how closely related it may be to farming operations, a practice performed neither by a farmer nor on a farm is not within the scope of the “secondary” meaning of “agriculture.” Thus, employees employed by commission brokers in the typical activities conducted at their establishments, warehouse employees at the typical tobacco warehouses, shop employees of an employer engaged in the business of servicing machinery and equipment for farmers, plant employees of a company dealing in eggs or poultry produced by others, employees of an irrigation company engaged in the general distribution of water to farmers, and other employees similarly situated do not generally come within the secondary meaning of “agriculture.” The inclusion of industrial operations is not within the intent of the definition in section 3(f), nor are processes that are more akin to manufacturing than to agriculture (see <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzales,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52; <I>Holtville Alfalfa Mills</I> v. <I>Wyatt,</I> 230 F. 2d 398; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="364" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.364" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Practices Performed “By a Farmer”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.130" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.364.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.130   Performance “by a farmer” generally.</HEAD>
<P>Among other things, a practice must be performed by a farmer or on a farm in order to come within the secondary portion of the definition of “agriculture.” No precise lines can be drawn which will serve to delimit the term “farmer” in all cases. Essentially, however, the term is an occupational title and the employer must be engaged in activities of a type and to the extent that the person ordinarily regarded as a “farmer” is engaged in order to qualify for the title. If this test is met, it is immaterial for what purpose he engages in farming or whether farming is his sole occupation. Thus, an employer's status as a “farmer” is not altered by the fact that his only purpose is to obtain products useful to him in a non-farming enterprise which he conducts. For example, an employer engaged in raising nursery stock is a “farmer” for purposes of section 3(f) even though his purpose is to supply goods for a separate establishment where he engages in the retail distribution of nursery products. The term “farmer” as used in section 3(f) is not confined to individual persons. Thus an association, a partnership, or a corporation which engages in actual farming operations may be a “farmer” (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473). This is so even where it operates “what might be called the agricultural analogue of the modern industrial assembly line” (<I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.131" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.364.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.131   Operations which constitute one a “farmer.”</HEAD>
<P>Generally, an employer must undertake farming operations of such scope and significance as to constitute a distinct activity, for the purpose of yielding a farm product, in order to be regarded as a “farmer.” It does not necessarily follow, however, that any employer is a “farmer” simply because he engages in some actual farming operations of the type specified in section 3(f). Thus, one who merely harvests a crop of agricultural commodities is not a “farmer” although his employees who actually do the harvesting are employed in “agriculture” in those weeks when exclusively so engaged. As a general rule, a farmer performs his farming operations on land owned, leased, or controlled by him and devoted to his own use. The mere fact, therefore, that an employer harvests a growing crop, even under a partnership agreement pursuant to which he provides credit, advisory or other services, is not generally considered to be sufficient to qualify the employer so engaged as a “farmer.” Such an employer would stand, in packing or handling the product, in the same relationship to the produce as if it were from the fields or groves of an independent grower. One who engaged merely in practices which are incidental to farming is not a “farmer.” For example, a company which merely prepares for market, sells, and ships flowers and plants grown and cultivated on farms by affiliated corporations is not a “farmer.” The fact that one has suspended actual farming operations during a period in which he performs only practices incidental to his part or prospective farming operations does not, however, preclude him from qualifying as a “farmer.” One otherwise qualified as a farmer does not lose his status as such because he performs farming operations on land which he does not own or control, as in the case of a cattleman using public lands for grazing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.132" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.364.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.132   Operations must be performed “by” a farmer.</HEAD>
<P>“Farmer” includes the employees of a farmer. It does not include an employer merely because he employs a farmer or appoints a farmer as his agent to do the actual work. Thus, the stripping of tobacco, i.e., removing leaves from the stalk, by the employees of an independent warehouse is not a practice performed “by a farmer” even though the warehouse acts as agent for the tobacco farmer or employs the farmer in the stripping operations. One who merely performs services or supplies materials for farmers in return for compensation in money or farm products is not a “farmer.” Thus, a person who provides credit and management services to farmers cannot qualify as a “farmer” on that account. Neither can a repairman who repairs and services farm machinery qualify as a “farmer” on that basis. Where crops are grown under contract with a person who provides a market, contributes counsel and advice, make advances and otherwise assists the grower who actually produces the crop, it is the grower and not the person with whom he contracts who is the farmer with respect to that crop (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> 267 F. 2d 286).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.133" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.364.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.133   Farmers' cooperative as a “farmer.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The phrase “by a farmer” covers practices performed either by the farmer himself or by the farmer through his employees. Employees of a farmers' cooperative association, however, are employed not by the individual farmers who compose its membership or who are its stockholders, but by the cooperative association itself. Cooperative associations whether in the corporate form or not, are distinct, separate entities from the farmers who own or compose them. The work performed by a farmers' cooperative association is not work performed “by a farmer” but for farmers. Therefore, employees of a farmers' cooperative association are not generally engaged in any practices performed “by a farmer” within the meaning of section 3(f) (<I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755; <I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Crowley Ridge Ass'n.,</I> 295 F. 2d 7; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op Ass'n.,</I> 80 F. Supp. 953, 181 F. 2d 697). The legislative history of the Act supports this interpretation. Statutes usually cite farmers' cooperative associations in express terms if it is intended that they be included. The omission of express language from the Fair Labor Standards Act is significant since many unsuccessful attempts were made on the floor of Congress to secure special treatment for such cooperatives.
</P>
<P>(b) It is possible that some farmers' cooperative associations may themselves engage in actual farming operations to an extent and under circumstances sufficient to qualify as a “farmer.” In such case, any of their employees who perform practices as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations are employed in “agriculture.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="365" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.365" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Practices Performed “On a Farm”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.134" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.365.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.134   Performance “on a farm” generally.</HEAD>
<P>If a practice is not performed by a farmer, it must, among other things, be performed “on a farm” to come within the secondary meaning of “agriculture” in section 3(f). Any practice which cannot be performed on a farm, such as “delivery to market,” is necessarily excluded, therefore, when performed by someone other than a farmer (see <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755; <I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 360, cert. denied 348 U.S. 897; <I>Fort Mason Fruit Co.</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 363, cert. denied 348 U.S. 897). Thus, employees of an alfalfa dehydrator engaged in hauling chopped or unchopped alfalfa away from the farms to the dehydrating plant are not employed in a practice performed “on a farm.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.135" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.365.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.135   Meaning of “farm.”</HEAD>
<P>A “farm” is a tract of land devoted to the actual farming activities included in the first part of section 3(f). Thus, the gathering of wild plants in the woods for transplantation in a nursery is not an operation performed “on a farm.” (For a further discussion, see § 780.207.) The total area of a tract operated as a unit for farming purposes is included in the “farm,” irrespective of the fact that some of this area may not be utilized for actual farming operations (see <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714; In re Princeville Canning Co., 14 WH Cases 641 and 762). It is immaterial whether a farm is situated in the city or in the country. However, a place in a city where no primary farming operations are performed is not a farm even if operated by a farmer (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> 267 F. 2d 286).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.136" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.365.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.136   Employment in practices on a farm.</HEAD>
<P>Employees engaged in building terraces or threshing wheat and other grain, employees engaged in the erection of silos and granaries, employees engaged in digging wells or building dams for farm ponds, employees engaged in inspecting and culling flocks of poultry, and pilots and flagmen engaged in the aerial dusting and spraying of crops are examples of the types of employees of independent contractors who may be considered employed in practices performed “on a farm.” Whether such employees are engaged in “agriculture” depends, of course, on whether the practices are performed as an incident to or in conjunction with the farming operations on the particular farm, as discussed in §§ 780.141 through 780.147; that is, whether they are carried on as a part of the agricultural function or as a separately organized productive activity (§§ 780.104 through 780.144). Even though an employee may work on several farms during a workweek, he is regarded as employed “on a farm” for the entire workweek if his work on each farm pertains solely to farming operations on that farm. The fact that a minor and incidental part of the work of such an employee occurs off the farm will not affect this conclusion. Thus, an employee may spend a small amount of time within the workweek in transporting necessary equipment for work to be done on farms. Field employees of a canner or processor of farm products who work on farms during the planting and growing season where they supervise the planting operations and consult with the grower on problems of cultivation are employed in practices performed “on a farm” so long as such work is done entirely on farms save for an incidental amount of reporting to their employer's plant. Other employees of the above employers employed away from the farm would not come within section 3(f). For example, airport employees such as mechanics, loaders, and office workers employed by a crop dusting firm would not be agriculture employees (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Boyls dba Boyls Dusting and Spraying Service</I> 230 F. Supp. 246, aff'd per curiam 352 F. 2d 63; <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Wenatchee Air Service,</I> 10 WH Cases 680, 21 CCH Lab Cas. Paragraph 67,019 (E.D. Wash.)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="366" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.366" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>“Such Farming Operation”—of the Farmer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.137" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.366.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.137   Practices must be performed in connection with farmer's own farming.</HEAD>
<P>“Practices * * * performed by a farmer” must be performed as an incident to or in conjunction with “such farming operations” in order to constitute “agriculture” within the secondary meaning of the term. Practices performed by a farmer in connection with his nonfarming operations do not satisfy this requirement (see <I>Calaf</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 127 F. 2d 934; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473). Furthermore, practices performed by a farmer can meet the above requirement only in the event that they are performed in connection with the farming operations of the same farmer who performs the practices. Thus, the requirement is not met with respect to employees engaged in any practices performed by their employer in connection with farming operations that are not his own (see <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> 267 F. 2d 286; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11). The processing by a farmer of commodities of other farmers, if incident to or in conjunction with farming operations, is incidental to or in conjunction with the farming operations of the other farmers and not incidental to or in conjunction with the farming operations of the farmer doing the processing (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> supra; <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> supra; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> supra).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.138" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.366.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.138   Application of the general principles.</HEAD>
<P>Some examples will serve to illustrate the above principles. Employees of a fruit grower who dry or pack fruit not grown by their employer are not within section (f). This is also true of storage operations conducted by a farmer in connection with products grown by someone other than the farmer. Employees of a grower-operator of a sugarcane mill who transport cane from fields to the mill are not within section 3(f), where such cane is grown by independent farmers on their land as well as by the mill operator (<I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11). Employees of a tobacco grower who strip tobacco (<I>i.e.</I>, remove the leaves from the stalk) are not agricultural employees when performing this operation on tobacco not grown by their employer. On the other hand, where a farmer rents some space in a warehouse or packinghouse located off the farm and the farmer's own employees there engage in handling or packing only his own products for market, such operations by the farmers are within section 3(f) if performed as an incident to or in conjunction with his farming operations. Such arrangements are distinguished from those where the employees are not actually employed by the farmer. The fact that a packing shed is conducted by a family partnership, packing products exclusively grown on lands owned and operated by individuals constituting the partnership, does not alter the status of the packing activity. Thus, if in a particular case an individual farmer is engaged in agriculture, a family partnership which performs the same operations would also be engaged in agriculture. (<I>Dofflemeyer</I> v. <I>NLRB,</I> 206 F. 2d 813.) However, an incorporated association of farmers that does not itself engage in farming operations is not engaged in agriculture though it processes at its packing shed produce grown exclusively by the farmer members of the association. (<I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Crowley Ridge and Fruit Growers Association,</I> 295 F. 2d 7 (C.A. 8).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.139" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.366.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.139   Pea vining.</HEAD>
<P>Vining employees of a pea vinery located on a farm, who vine only the peas grown on that particular farm, are engaged in agriculture. If they also vine peas grown on other farms, such operations could not be within section 3(f) unless the farmer-employer owns or operates the other farms and vines his own peas exclusively. However, the work of vining station employees in weeks in which the stations vine only peas grown by a canner on farms owned or leased by him is considered part of the canning operations. As such, the cannery operations, including the vining operations, are within section 3(f) only if the canners can crops which he grows himself and if the canning operations are subordinate to the farming operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.140" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.366.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.140   Place of performing the practice as a factor.</HEAD>
<P>So long as the farming operations to which a farmer's practice pertains are performed by him in his capacity as a farmer, the status of the practice is not necessarily altered by the fact that the farming operations take place on more than one farm or by the fact that some of the operations are performed off his farm (<I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714). Thus, where the practice is performed with respect to products of farming operations, the controlling consideration is whether the products were produced by the farming operations of the farmer who performs the practice rather than at what place or on whose land he produced them. Ordinarily, a practice performed by a farmer in connection with farming operations conducted on land which he owns or leases will be considered as performed in connection with the farming operations of such farmer in the absence of facts indicating that the farming operations are actually those of someone else. Conversely, a contrary conclusion will ordinarily be justified if such farmer is not the owner or a bona fide lessee of such land during the period when the farming operations take place. The question of whose farming operations are actually being conducted in cases where they are performed pursuant to an agreement or arrangement, not amounting to a bona fide lease, between the farmer who performs the practice and the landowner necessarily involves a careful scrutiny of the facts and circumstances surrounding the arrangement. Where commodities are grown on the farm of the actual grower under contract with another, practices performed by the latter on the commodities, off the farm where they were grown, relate to farming operations of the grower rather than to any farming operations of the contract purchaser. This is true even though the contract purports to lease the land to the latter, give him the title to the crop at all times, and confer on him the right to supervise the growing operations, where the facts as a whole show that the contract purchaser provides a farm market, cash advances, and advice and counsel but does not really perform growing operations (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> 267 F. 2d 286).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="367" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.367" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>“Such Farming Operations”—On the Farm</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.141" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.367.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.141   Practices must relate to farming operations on the particular farm.</HEAD>
<P>“Practices * * * performed * * * on a farm” must be performed as an incident to or in conjunction with “such farming operations” in order to constitute “agriculture” within the secondary meaning of the term. No practice performed with respect to farm commodities is within the language under discussion by reason of its performance on a farm unless all of such commodities are the products of that farm. Thus, the performance on a farm of any practice, such as packing or storing, which may be incidental to farming operations cannot constitute a basis for considering the employees engaged in agriculture if the practice is performed upon any commodities that have been produced elsewhere than on such farm (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913). The construction by an independent contractor of granary on a farm is not connected with “such” farming operations if the farmer for whom it is built intends to use the structure for storing grain produced on other farms. Nor is the requirement met with respect to employees engaged in any other practices performed on a farm, but not by a farmer, in connection with farming operations that are not conducted on that particular farm. The fact that such a practice pertains to farming operations generally or to those performed on a number of farms, rather than to those performed on the same farm only, is sufficient to take it outside the scope of the statutory language. Area soil surveys and genetics research activities, results of which are made available to a number of farmers, are typical of the practices to which this principle applies and which are not within section 3(f) under this provision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.142" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.367.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.142   Practices on a farm not related to farming operations.</HEAD>
<P>Practices performed on a farm in connection with nonfarming operations performed on or off such farm do not meet the requirement stated in § 780.141. For example, if a farmer operates a gravel pit on his farm, none of the practices performed in connection with the operation of such gravel pit would be within section 3(f). Whether or not some practices are performed in connection with farming operations conducted on the farm where they are performed must be determined with reference to the purpose of the farmer for whom the practice is performed. Thus, land clearing operations may or may not be connected with such farming operations depending on whether or not the farmer intends to devote the cleared land to farm use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.143" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.367.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.143   Practices on a farm not performed for the farmer.</HEAD>
<P>The fact that a practice performed on a farm is not performed by or for the farmer is a strong indication that it is not performed in connection with the farming operations there conducted. Thus, where such an employer other than the farmer performs certain work on a farm solely for himself in furtherance of his own enterprise, the practice cannot ordinarily be regarded as performed in connection with farming operations conducted on the farm. For example, it is clear that the work of employees of a utility company in trimming and cutting trees for power and communications lines is part of a nonfarming enterprise outside the scope of agriculture. When a packer of vegetables or dehydrator of alfalfa buys the standing crop from the farmer, harvests it with his own crew of employees, and transports the harvested crop to his off-the-farm packing or dehydrating plant, the transporting and plant employees, who are not engaged in “primary” agriculture as are the harvesting employees (see <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714), are clearly not agricultural employees. Such an employer cannot automatically become an agricultural employer by merely transferring the plant operations to the farm so as to meet the “on a farm” requirement. His employees will continue outside the scope of agriculture if the packing or dehydrating is not in reality done for the farmer. The question of for whom the practices are performed is one of fact. In determining the question, however, the fact that prior to the performance of the packing or dehydrating operations, the farmer has relinquished title and divested himself of further responsibility with respect to the product, is highly significant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="368" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.368" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Performance of the Practice “As an Incident To or In Conjunction With” the Farming Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.144" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.368.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.144   “As an incident to or in conjunction with” the farming operations.</HEAD>
<P>In order for practices other than actual farming operations to constitute “agriculture” within the meaning of section 3(f) of the Act, it is not enough that they be performed by a farmer or on a farm in connection with the farming operations conducted by such farmer or on such farm, as explained in §§ 780.129 through 780.143. They must also be performed “as an incident to or in conjunction with” these farming operations. The line between practices that are and those that are not performed “as an incident to or in conjunction with” such farming operations is not susceptible of precise definition. Generally, a practice performed in connection with farming operations is within the statutory language only if it constitutes an established part of agriculture, is subordinate to the farming operations involved, and does not amount to an independent business. Industrial operations (<I>Holtville Alfalfa Mills</I> v. <I>Wyatt,</I> 230 F. 2d 398) and processes that are more akin to manufacturing than to agriculture (<I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473) are not included. This is also true when on-the-farm practices are performed for a farmer. As to when practices may be regarded as performed for a farmer, see § 780.143.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.145" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.368.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.145   The relationship is determined by consideration of all relevant factors.</HEAD>
<P>The character of a practice as a part of the agricultural activity or as a distinct business activity must be determined by examination and evaluation of all the relevant facts and circumstances in the light of the pertinent language and intent of the Act. The result will not depend on any mechanical application of isolated factors or tests. Rather, the total situation will control (<I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473). Due weight should be given to any available criteria which may indicate whether performance of such a practice may properly be considered an incident to farming within the intent of the Act. Thus, the general relationship, if any, of the practice to farming as evidenced by common understanding, competitive factors, and the prevalence of its performance by farmers (see § 780.146), and similar pertinent matters should be considered. Other factors to be considered in determining whether a practice may be properly regarded as incidental to or in conjunction with the farming operations of a particular farmer or farm include the size of the operations and respective sums invested in land, buildings and equipment for the regular farming operations and in plant and equipment for performance of the practice, the amount of the payroll for each type of work, the number of employees and the amount of time they spend in each of the activities, the extent to which the practice is performed by ordinary farm employees and the amount of interchange of employees between the operations, the amount of revenue derived from each activity, the degree of industrialization involved, and the degree of separation established between the activities. With respect to practices performed on farm products (see § 780.147) and in the consideration of any specific practices (see §§ 780.148-780.158 and 780.205-780.214), there may be special factors in addition to those above mentioned which may aid in the determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.146" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.368.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.146   Importance of relationship of the practice to farming generally.</HEAD>
<P>The inclusion of incidental practices in the definition of agriculture was not intended to include typical factory workers or industrial operations, and the sponsors of the bill made it clear that the erection and operation on a farm by a farmer of a factory, even one using raw materials which he grows, “would not make the manufacturing * * * a farming operation” (see 81 Cong. Rec. 7658; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254). Accordingly, in determining whether a given practice is performed “as an incident to or in conjunction with” farming operations under the intended meaning of section 3(f), the nature of the practice and the circumstances under which it is performed must be considered in the light of the common understanding of what is agricultural and what is not, or the facts indicating whether performance of the practice is in competition with agricultural or with industrial operations, and of the extent to which such a practice is ordinarily performed by farmers incidentally to their farming operations (see <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzales,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; <I>Calaf</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 127 F. 2d 934; <I>Vives</I> v. <I>Seralles,</I> 145 F. 2d 552; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>Holtville Alfalfa Mills</I> v. <I>Wyatt,</I> 230 F. 2d 398; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> supra). Such an inquiry would appear to have a direct bearing on whether a practice is an “established” part of agriculture. The fact that farmers raising a commodity on which a given practice is performed do not ordinarily perform such a practice has been considered a significant indication that the practice is not “agriculture” within the secondary meaning of section 3(f) (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> supra; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> supra). The test to be applied is not the proportion of those performing the practice who produce the commodities on which it is performed but the proportion of those producing such commodities who perform the practice (<I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> supra). In <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> supra, the U.S. Supreme Court found that the following two factors tipped the scales so as to take the employees of tobacco bulking plants outside the scope of agriculture: Tobacco farmers do not ordinarily perform the bulking operation; and, the bulking operation is a process which changes tobacco leaf in many ways and turns it into an industrial product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.147" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.368.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.147   Practices performed on farm products—special factors considered.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether a practice performed on agricultural or horticultural commodities is incident to or in conjunction with the farming operations of a farmer or a farm, it is also necessary to consider the type of product resulting from the practice—as whether the raw or natural state of the commodity has been changed. Such a change may be a strong indication that the practice is not within the scope of agriculture (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473); the view was expressed in the legislative debates on the Act that it marks the dividing line between processing as an agricultural function and processing as a manufacturing operation (<I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254, citing 81 Cong. Rec. 7659-7660, 7877-7879). Consideration should also be given to the value added to the product as a result of the practice and whether a sales organization is maintained for the disposal of the product. Seasonality of the operations involved in the practice would not be very helpful as a test to distinguish between operations incident to agriculture and operations of commercial or industrial processors who handle a similar volume of the same seasonal crop. But the length of the period during which the practice is performed might cast some light on whether the operations are conducted as a part of agriculture or as a separate undertaking when considered together with the amount of investment, payroll, and other factors. In some cases, the fact that products resulting from the practice are sold under the producer's own label rather than under that of the purchaser may furnish an indication that the practice is conducted as a separate business activity rather than as a part of agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="369" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.369" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Practices Included When Performed as Provided in Section 3(<E T="01">f</E>)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.148" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.369.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.148   “Any” practices meeting the requirements will qualify for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The language of section 3(f) of the Act, in defining the “secondary” meaning of “agriculture,” provides that any practices performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such (his or its) farming operations are within the definition. The practices which may be exempt as “agriculture” if so performed are stated to include forestry or lumbering operations, preparation for market, and delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market. The specification of these practices is illustrative rather than limiting in nature. The broad language of the definition clearly includes all practices thus performed and not merely those named (see <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.149" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.369.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.149   Named practices as well as others must meet the requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The specific practices named in section 3(f) must, like any others, be performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations, for this condition applies to “any” practices brought within the secondary meaning of agriculture as defined in that section of the Act. Thus the preparation for market, by a farmer's employees on a farm of animals to be sold at a livestock auction is not within section 3(f) if animals from other farmers and other farms are also handled. The practice is not performed as an incident to or in conjunction with “such” farming operations, that is, the operations of the farmer by whom, or of the farm on which, the livestock is raised (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="370" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.370" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preparation for Market</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.150" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.370.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.150   Scope and limits of “preparation for market.”</HEAD>
<P>“Preparation for market” is also named as one of the practices which may be included in “agriculture.” The term includes the operations normally performed upon farm commodities to prepare them for the farmer's market. The farmer's market normally means the wholesaler, processor, or distributing agency to which the farmer delivers his products. “Preparation for market” clearly has reference to activities which precede “delivery to market.” It is not, however, synonymous with “preparation for sale.” The term must be treated differently with respect to various commodities. It is emphasized that “preparation for market,” like other practices, must be performed “by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations” in order to be within section 3(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.151" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.370.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.151   Particular operations on commodities.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the rules heretofore discussed, the following activities are, among others, activities that may be performed in the “preparation for market” of the indicated commodities and may come within section 3(f):
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Grain, seed, and forage crops.</I> Weighing, binning, stacking, drying, cleaning, grading, shelling, sorting, packing, and storing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fruits and vegetables.</I> Assembling, ripening, cleaning, grading, sorting, drying, preserving, packing, and storing. (See In the Matter of J. J. Crosetti, 29 LRRM 1353, 98 NLRB 268; In the Matter of Imperial Garden Growers, 91 NLRB 1034, 26 LRRM 1632; <I>Lenroot</I> v. <I>Hazelhurst Mercantitle Co.,</I> 59 F. Supp. 595; <I>North Whittier Heights Citrus Ass'n</I> v. <I>NLRB,</I> 109 F.2d 76; <I>Dofflemeyer</I> v. <I>NLRB,</I> 206 F.2d 813.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Peanuts and nuts (pecans, walnuts, etc.).</I> Grading, cracking, shelling, cleaning, sorting, packing, and storing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eggs.</I> Handling, cooling, grading, candling, and packing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Wool.</I> Grading and packing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dairy products.</I> Separating, cooling, packing, and storing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Cotton.</I> Weighing, ginning, and storing cotton; hulling, delinting, cleaning, sacking, and storing cottonseed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Nursery stock.</I> Handling, sorting, grading, trimming, bundling, storing, wrapping, and packing. (See <I>Jordan</I> v. <I>Stark Brothers Nurseries,</I> 45 F. Supp. 769; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> 267 F.2d 286.)
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Tobacco.</I> Handling, grading, drying, stripping from stalk, tying, sorting, storing, and loading.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Livestock.</I> Handling and loading.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Poultry.</I> Culling, grading, cooping, and loading.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Honey.</I> Assembling, extracting, heating, ripening, straining, cleaning, grading, weighing, blending, packaging, and storing. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Fur.</I> Removing the pelt, scraping, drying, putting on boards, and packing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="371" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.371" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Specified Delivery Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.152" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.371.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.152   General scope of specified delivery operations.</HEAD>
<P>Employment in “secondary” agriculture, under section 3(f), includes employment in “delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market” when performed by a farmer as an incident to or in conjunction with his own farming operations. To the extent that such deliveries may be accomplished without leaving the farm where the commodities delivered are grown, the exemption extends also to employees of someone other than the farmer who raised them if they are performing such deliveries for the farmer. However, normally such deliveries require travel off the farm, and where this is the case, only employees of a farmer engaged in making them can come within section 3(f). Such employees would not be engaged in agriculture in any workweek when they delivered commodities of other farmers, however, because such deliveries would not be performed as an incident to or in conjunction with “such” farming operations, as explained previously. If the “delivery” trip is within section 3(f) the necessary return trip to the farm is also included.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.153" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.371.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.153   Delivery “to storage.”</HEAD>
<P>The term “delivery to storage” includes taking agricultural or horticultural commodities, dairy products, livestock, bees or their honey, fur-bearing animals or their pelts, or poultry to the places where they are to be stored or held pending preparation for or delivery to market. The fact that the commodities have been subjected to some other practice “by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations” does not preclude the inclusion of “delivery to storage” within section 3(f). The same is true with respect to “delivery to market” and “delivery to carriers for transporation to market.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.154" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.371.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.154   Delivery “to market.”</HEAD>
<P>The term “delivery * * * to market” includes taking agricultural or horticultural commodities, dairy products, livestock, bees or their honey, fur-bearing animals or their pelts, or poultry to market. It ordinarily refers to the initial journey of the farmer's products from the farm to the market. The market referred to is the farmer's market which normally means the distributing agency, cooperative marketing agency, wholesaler or processor to which the farmer delivers his products. Delivery to market ends with the delivery of the commodities at the receiving platform of such a farmer's market (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473). When the delivery involves travel off the farm (which would normally be the case) the delivery must be performed by the employees employed by the farmer in order to constitute an agricultural practice. Delivery by an independent contractor for the farmer or a group of farmers or by a “bird-dog” operator who has purchased the commodities on the farm from the farmer is not an agricultural practice (see <I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 360, cert. denied 348 U.S. 897; <I>Fort Mason Fruit Co.</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 363, cert. denied 348 U.S. 897). However, in the case of fruits or vegetables, the Act provides a special overtime pay exemption for intrastate transportation of the freshly harvested commodities from the farm to a place of first marketing or first processing, which may apply to employees engaged in such transportation regardless of whether they are employed by the farmer. See subpart J of this part 780, discussing the exemption provided by section 13(b)(16).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.155" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.371.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.155   Delivery “to carriers for transportation to market.”</HEAD>
<P>The term “delivery * * * to carriers for transportation to market” includes taking agricultural or horticultural commodities, dairy products, livestock, bees or their honey, fur-bearing animals or their pelts, and poultry to any carrier (including carriers by truck, rail, water, etc.) for transportation by such carrier to market. The market referred to is the farmer's market which normally means the distributing agency, cooperative marketing agency, wholesaler, or processor to which the farmer delivers his products. As in the case of “delivery to market,” when it involves travel off the farm (as would normally be the case) the delivery must be performed by the farmer's own employees in order to constitute an agricultural practice. Employees of the carrier who transport to market the commodities which are delivered to it are not within the scope of agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="372" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.372" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Transportation Operations Not Mentioned in Section 3(<E T="01">f</E>)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.156" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.372.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.156   Transportation of farm products from the fields or farm.</HEAD>
<P>Transportation of farm products from the fields where they are grown or from the farm to other places may be within the “secondary” meaning of agriculture, regardless of whether the transportation is included as “delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market”: <I>Provided only,</I> That it is performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with the farming operations of that farmer or that farm. Of course, any transportation operations which are part of, and not subsequent to, the “primary” farming operations are also within section 3(f). These principles have been recognized by the courts in the following cases, among others: <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzales,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; <I>Calaf</I> v. <I>Gonzales,</I> 127 F. 8d 934; <I>Vives</I> v. <I>Serralles,</I> 145 F. 2d 552; <I>Holtville Alfalfa Mills</I> v. <I>Wyatt,</I> 230 F. 2d 398. If not performed by the farmer, transportation beyond the limits of the farm is not within section 3(f), even when performed by a purchaser of the unharvested commodities who has harvested the crop. The scope of section 3(f) includes the harvesting employees but does not extend to the employees transporting the commodities off the farm (<I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 360, cert. denied, 348 U.S. 897; <I>Fort Mason Fruit Co.</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 363, cert. denied, 348 U.S. 897).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.157" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.372.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.157   Other transportation incident to farming.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Transportation by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with the farming operations of the farmer or of that farm is within the scope of agriculture even though things other than farm commodities raised by the farmer or on the farm are being transported. As previously indicated, transportation of commodities raised by other farmers or on other farms would not be within section 3(f). The definition of agriculture clearly covers the transportation by the farmer, as an incident to or in conjunction with his farming activities, of farm implements, supplies, and fieldworkers to and from the fields, regardless of whether such transportation involves travel on or off the farm and regardless of the method used. The Supreme Court of the United States so held in <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254. Transportation of fieldworkers to or from the farm by persons other than the farmer does not come within section 3(f). However, under section 13(b)(16) of the Act, discussed in subpart J of this part 780, an overtime pay exemption is provided for transportation, whether or not performed by the farmer, of fruit or vegetable harvest workers to and from the farm, within the same State where the farm is located. In the case of transportation to the farm of materials or supplies, it seems clear that transportation to the farm by the farmer of materials and supplies for use in his farming operations, such as seed, animal or poultry feed, farm machinery or equipment, etc., would be incidental to the farmer's actual farming operations. Thus, truckdrivers employed by a farmer to haul feed to the farm for feeding pigs are engaged in “agriculture.”
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to the practice of transporting farm products from farms to a processing establishment by employees of a person who owns both the farms and the establishment, such practice may or may not be incident to or in conjunction with the employer's farming operations depending on all the pertinent facts. For example, the transportation is clearly incidental to milling operations, rather than to farming, where the employees engaged in it are hired by the mill, carried on its payroll, do no agricultural work on the farms, and report for and end their daily duties at the mill where the transportation vehicles are kept (<I>Calaf</I> v. <I>Gonzales,</I> 127 F. 2d 934). On the other hand, a different result is reached where the facts show that the transportation workers are farm employees whose work is closely integrated with harvesting and other direct farming operations (<I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714; and see <I>Vives</I> v. <I>Serralles,</I> 145 F. 2d 552). The method by which the transportation is accomplished is not material (<I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="373" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.373" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Other Unlisted Practices Which May Be Within Section 3(<E T="01">f</E>)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.158" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.373.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.158   Examples of other practices within section 3(f) if requirements are met.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As has been noted above, the term “agriculture” includes other practices performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with the farming operations conducted by such farmer or on such farm in addition to the practices listed in section 3(f). The selling (including selling at roadside stands or by mail order and house to house selling) by a farmer and his employees of his agricultural commodities, dairy products, etc., is such a practice provided it does not amount to a separate business. Other such practices are office work and maintenance and protective work. Section 3(f) includes, for example, secretaries, clerks, bookkeepers, night watchmen, maintenance workers, engineers, and others who are employed by a farmer or on a farm if their work is part of the agricultural activity and is subordinate to the farming operations of such farmer or on such farm. (<I>Damutz</I> v. <I>Pinchbeck,</I> 66 F. Supp. 667, aff'd. 158 F. 2d 882). Employees of a farmer who repair the mechanical implements used in farming, as a subordinate and necessary task incident to their employer's farming operations, are within section 3(f). It makes no difference that the work is done by a separate labor force in a repair shop maintained for the purpose, where the size of the farming operations is such as to justify it. Only employees engaged in the repair of equipment used in performing agricultural functions would be within section 3(f), however; employees repairing equipment used by the employer in industrial or other nonfarming activities would be outside the scope of agriculture. (<I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254.) The repair of equipment used by other farmers in their farming operations would not qualify as an agricultural practice incident to the farming operations of the farmer employing the repair workers.
</P>
<P>(b) The following are other examples of practices which may qualify as “agriculture” under the secondary meaning in section 3(f), when done on a farm, whether done by a farmer or by a contractor for the farmer, so long as they do not relate to farming operations on any other farms: The operation of a cook camp for the sole purpose of feeding persons engaged exclusively in agriculture on that farm; artificial insemination of the farm animals; custom corn shelling and grinding of feed for the farmer; the packing of apples by portable packing machines which are moved from farm to farm packing only apples grown on the particular farm where the packing is being performed; the culling, catching, cooping, and loading of poultry; the threshing of wheat; the shearing of sheep; the gathering and baling of straw.
</P>
<P>(c) It must be emphasized with respect to all practices performed on products for which exemption is claimed that they must be performed only on the products produced or raised by the particular farmer or on the particular farm (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> 267 F. 2d 286; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Olaa Sugar Co.,</I> 242 F. 2d 714; <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Peacock Corp.,</I> 58 F. Supp. 880; <I>Lenroot</I> v. <I>Hazelhurst Mercantile Co.,</I> 153 F. 2d 153; <I>Jordan</I> v. <I>Stark Bros. Nurseries,</I> 45 F. Supp. 769).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.159" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.2.373.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.159   Forest products.</HEAD>
<P>Trees grown in forests and the lumber derived therefrom are not agricultural or horticultural commodities, for the purpose of the FLSA. (<I>See</I> § 780.205 regarding production of Christmas trees.) It follows that employment in the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of such trees or timber products is not sufficient to bring an employee within sec. 3(f) unless the operation is performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with his or its farming operations. On the latter point, see §§ 780.200 through 780.209 discussing the question of when forestry or lumbering operations are incident to or in conjunction with farming operations so as to constitute agriculture. For a discussion of the exemption in sec. 13(b)(28) of the Act for certain forestry and logging operations in which not more than eight employees are employed, see part 788 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 77238, Dec. 18, 2008. Redesignated at 74 FR 26014, May 29, 2009]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 74 FR 26014, May 29, 2009, § 780.115 was redesignated as § 780.159 and newly designated § 780.159 was suspended, effective June 29, 2009.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Agriculture as It Relates to Specific Situations</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="374" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.374" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Forestry or Lumbering Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.374.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.200   Inclusion of forestry or lumbering operations in agriculture is limited.</HEAD>
<P>Employment in forestry or lumbering operations is expressly included in agriculture if the operations are performed “by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operation.” While “agriculture” is sometimes used in a broad sense as including the science and art of cultivating forests, the language quoted in the preceding sentence is a limitation on the forestry and lumbering operations which will be considered agricultural for purposes of section 3(f). It follows that employees of an employer engaged exclusively in forestry or lumbering operations are not considered agricultural employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.374.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.201   Meaning of “forestry or lumbering operations.”</HEAD>
<P>The term “forestry or lumbering operations” refers to the cultivation and management of forests, the felling and trimming of timber, the cutting, hauling, and transportation of timber, logs, pulpwood, cordwood, lumber, and like products, the sawing of logs into lumber or the conversion of logs into ties, posts, and similar products, and similar operations. It also includes the piling, stacking, and storing of all such products. The gathering of wild plants and of wild or planted Christmas trees are included. (See the related discussion in §§ 780.205 through 780.209 and in part 788 of this chapter which considers the section 13(a)(13) exemption for forestry or logging operations in which not more than eight employees are employed.) “Wood working” as such is not included in “forestry” or “lumbering” operations. The manufacture of charcoal under modern methods is neither a “forestry” nor “lumbering” operation and cannot be regarded as “agriculture.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 26014, May 29, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.202" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.374.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.202   Subordination to farming operations is necessary for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>While section 3(f) speaks of practices performed “in conjunction with” as well as “incident to” farming operations, it would be an unreasonable construction of the Act to hold that all practices were to be regarded as agricultural if the person performing the practice did any farming, no matter how little, or resorted to tilling a small acreage for the purpose of qualifying for exemption (<I>Ridgeway</I> v. <I>Warren,</I> 60 F. Supp. 363 (M.D. Tenn.); in re Combs, 5 WH Cases 595, 10 Labor Cases 62,802 (M.D. Ga.)). To illustrate, where an employer owns several thousand acres of timberland on which he carries on lumbering operations and cultivates about 100 acres of farm land which are contiguous to such timberland, he would not be engaged in agriculture so far as his forestry or lumbering operations are concerned. In such case, the forestry or lumbering operations would clearly not be subordinate to the farming operations but rather the principal or a separate business of the “farmer.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.203" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.374.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.203   Performance of operations on a farm but not by the farmer.</HEAD>
<P>Logging or sawmill operations on a farm undertaken on behalf of the farmer or on behalf of the buyer of the logs or the resulting lumber by a contract logger or sawmill owner are not within the scope of agriculture unless it can be shown that these logging or sawmill operations are clearly incidental to farming operations on the farm on which the logging or sawmill operations are being conducted. For example, the clearing of additional land for cultivation by the farmer or the preparation of timber for construction of his farm buildings would appear to constitute operations incidental to “such farming operations.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.204" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.374.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.204   Number of employees engaged in operations not material.</HEAD>
<P>The fact that the employer employs fewer than a certain number of employees in forestry and lumbering operations does not provide a basis for their being considered as agricultural employees. This is to be distinguished from the exemption provided by section 13(a)(13) (discussed in part 788 of this chapter) which is limited to employers employing not more than eight employees in the forestry or logging operations described therein.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="375" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.375" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Nursery and Landscaping Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.205" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.375.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.205   Nursery activities generally.</HEAD>
<P>The employees of a nursery who are engaged in the following activities are employed in “agriculture”:
</P>
<P>(a) Sowing seeds and otherwise propagating fruit, nut, shade, vegetable, and ornamental plants or trees (but not Christmas trees), and shrubs, vines, and flowers;
</P>
<P>(b) Handling such plants from propagating frames to the field;
</P>
<P>(c) Planting, cultivating, watering, spraying, fertilizing, pruning, bracing, and feeding the growing crop.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.206" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.375.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.206   Planting and lawn mowing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The planting of trees and bushes is within the scope of agriculture where it constitutes a step in the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of agricultural or horticultural commodities, or where it constitutes a practice performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with farming operations (as where it is part of the subordinate marketing operations of the grower of such trees or bushes). Thus, employees of the nurseryman who raised such nursery stock are doing agricultural work when they plant the stock on private or public property, trim, spray, brace, and treat the planted stock, or perform other duties incidental to its care and preservation. Similarly, employees who plant fruit trees and berry stock not raised by their employer would be considered as engaged in agriculture if the planting is done on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with the farming operation on that farm.
</P>
<P>(b) On the other hand, the planting of trees and bushes on residential, business, or public property is not agriculture when it is done by employees of an employer who has not grown the trees and bushes, or who, if he has grown them, engages in the planting operations as an incident, not to his farming operations, but to landscaping operations which include principally the laying of sod and the construction of pools, walks, drives, and the like.
</P>
<P>(c) The mowing of lawns, except where it can be considered incidental to farming operations, is not agricultural work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.207" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.375.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.207   Operations with respect to wild plants.</HEAD>
<P>Nurseries frequently obtain plants growing wild in the woods or fields which are to be further cultivated by the nursery before they are sold by it. Obtaining such plants is a practice which is incidental to farming operations. The activities are therefore within the scope of agriculture if performed by a farmer or on a farm. Thus, employees of the nursery are engaged in agriculture when performing these activities. On the other hand, employees of an independent contractor performing these activities off the farm would not be engaged in agriculture. The transplanting of such wild plants in the nursery is performed “on a farm” and is an agricultural activity whether performed by employees of an independent contractor or by employees of the nursery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.208" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.375.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.208   Forest and Christmas tree activities.</HEAD>
<P>Operations in a forest tree nursery such as seeding new beds and growing and transplanting forest seedlings are not farming operations. The planting, tending, and cutting of Christmas trees do not constitute farming operations. If such operations on forest products are within section 3(f), they must qualify under the second part of the definition dealing with incidental practices. (See § 780.201.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.209" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.375.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.209   Packing, storage, warehousing, and sale of nursery products.</HEAD>
<P>Employees of a grower of nursery stock who work in packing and storage sheds sorting the stock, grading and trimming it, racking it in bins, and packing it for shipment are employed in “agriculture” provided they handle only products grown by their employer and their activities constitute an established part of their employer's agricultural activities and are subordinate to his farming operations. Such employees are not employed in agriculture when they handle the products of other growers (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> 267 F. 2d 286; <I>Jordan</I> v. <I>Stark Bros. Nurseries &amp; Orchards Co.,</I> 45 F. Supp. 769). Agricultural activities would typically include employees engaged in the balling and storing of shrubs and trees grown in the nursery. Where a grower of nursery stock operates, as a separate enterprise, a processing establishment or an establishment for the wholesale of retail distribution of such commodities, the employees in such separate enterprise are not engaged in agriculture (see <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Rocklin,</I> 132 F. 2d 3; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Huntsville Nurseries,</I> 267 F. 2d 286). Although the handling and the sale of nursery commodities by the grower at or near the place where they were grown may be incidental to his farming operations, the character of these operations changes when they are performed in an establishment set up as a marketing point to aid the distribution of those products.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="376" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hatchery Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.210" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.210   The typical hatchery operations constitute “agriculture.”</HEAD>
<P>As stated in § 780.127, the typical hatchery is engaged in “agriculture,” whether in a rural or city location. Where the hatchery is engaged solely in procuring eggs for hatching, performing the hatching operations, and selling the chicks, all the employees including office and maintenance workers are engaged in agriculture (see <I>Miller Hatcheries</I> v. <I>Boyer,</I> 131 F. 2d 283).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.211" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.211   Contract production of hatching eggs.</HEAD>
<P>It is common practice for hatcherymen to enter into arrangements with farmer poultry raisers for the production of hatching eggs which the hatchery agrees to buy. Ordinarily, the farmer furnishes the facilities, feed and labor and the hatchery furnishes the basic stock of poultry. The farmer undertakes a specialized program of care and improvement of the flock in cooperation with the hatchery. The hatchery may at times have a surplus of eggs, including those suitable for hatching and culled eggs which it sells. Activities such as grading and packing performed by the hatchery employees in connection with the disposal of these eggs, are an incident to the breeding of poultry by the hatchery and are within the scope of agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.212" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.212   Hatchery employees working on farms.</HEAD>
<P>The work of hatchery employees in connection with the maintenance of the quality of the poultry flock on farms is also part of the “raising” operations. This includes testing for disese, culling, weighing, cooping, loading, and transporting the culled birds. The catching and loading of broilers on farms by hatchery employees for transportation to market are agricultural operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.213" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.213   Produce business.</HEAD>
<P>In some instances, hatcheries also engage in the produce business as such and commingle with the culled eggs and chickens other eggs and chickens which they buy for resale. In such a case that work which relates to both the hatchery and produce types of activities would not be within the scope of agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.214" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.214   Feed sales and other activities.</HEAD>
<P>In some situations, the hatchery also operates a feed store and furnishes feed to the growers. As in the case of the produce business operated by a hatchery, this is not an agricultural activity and employees engaged therein, such as truckdrivers hauling feed to growers, are not agricultural employees. Also office workers and other employees are not employed in agriculture when their duties relate to nonagricultural activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.215" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.215   Meaning of forestry or lumbering operations.</HEAD>
<P>The term forestry or lumbering operations refers to the cultivation and management of forests, the felling and trimming of timber, the cutting, hauling, and transportation of timber, logs, pulpwood, cordwood, lumber, and like products, the sawing of logs into lumber or the conversion of logs into ties, posts, and similar products, and similar operations. It also includes the piling, stacking, and storing of all such products. The gathering of wild plants and of wild Christmas trees is included. (<I>See</I> the related discussion in §§ 780.205 through 780.209 and in part 788 of this chapter which considers the sec. 13(b)(28) exemption for forestry or logging operations in which not more than eight employees are employed.) Wood working as such is not included in forestry or lumbering operations. The manufacture of charcoal under modern methods is neither a forestry nor lumbering operation and cannot be regarded as agriculture.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 77238, Dec. 18, 2008. Redesignated at 74 FR 26014, May 29, 2009]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 74 FR 26014, May 29, 2009, § 780.201 was redesignated as § 780.215 and newly designated § 780.215 was suspended, effective June 29, 2009.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.216" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.216   Nursery activities generally and Christmas tree production.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employees of a nursery who are engaged in the following activities are employed in agriculture:
</P>
<P>(1) Sowing seeds and otherwise propagating fruit, nut, shade, vegetable, and ornamental plants or trees, and shrubs, vines, and flowers;
</P>
<P>(2) Handling such plants from propagating frames to the field;
</P>
<P>(3) Planting, cultivating, watering, spraying, fertilizing, pruning, bracing, and feeding the growing crop.
</P>
<P>(b) Trees produced through the application of extensive agricultural or horticulture techniques to be harvested and sold for seasonal ornamental use as Christmas trees are considered to be agricultural or horticultural commodities. Employees engaged in the application of agricultural and horticultural techniques to produce Christmas trees as ornamental horticultural commodities such as the following are employed in agriculture:
</P>
<P>(1) Planting seedlings in a nursery; on-going treatment with fertilizer, herbicides, and pesticides as necessary;
</P>
<P>(2) After approximately three years, re-planting in lineout beds;
</P>
<P>(3) After two more seasons, lifting and re-planting the small trees in cultivated soil with continued treatment with fertilizers, herbicides, and pesticides as indicated by testing to see if such applications are necessary;
</P>
<P>(4) Pruning or shearing yearly;
</P>
<P>(5) Harvesting of the tree for seasonal ornamental use, typically within 7 to 10 years of planting.
</P>
<P>(c) Trees to be used as Christmas trees which are gathered in the wild, such as from forests or uncultivated land and not produced through the application of agricultural or horticultural techniques are not agricultural or horticultural commodities for purposes of sec. 3(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 77239, Dec. 18, 2008. Redesignated at 74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009, § 780.205 was redesignated as § 780.216 and newly designated § 780.216 was suspended, effective June 29, 2009.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.217" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.3.376.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.217   Forestry activities.</HEAD>
<P>Operations in a forest tree nursery such as seeding new beds and growing and transplanting forest seedlings are not farming operations. For such operations to fall within sec. 3(f), they must qualify under the second part of the definition dealing with incidental practices. <I>See</I> § 780.201.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 77239, Dec. 18, 2008. Redesignated at 74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009, § 780.208 was redesignated as § 780.217 and newly designated § 780.217 was suspended, effective June 29, 2009.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Employment in Agriculture That Is Exempted From the Minimum Wage and Overtime Pay Requirements Under Section 13(a)(6)</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="377" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Statutory Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.300   Statutory exemptions in section 13(a)(6).</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(6) of the Act exempts from the minimum wage requirements of section 6 and from the overtime pay requirements of section 7:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee employed in agriculture: (A) If such employee is employed by an employer who did not, during any calendar quarter during the preceding calendar year, use more than 500 man-days of agricultural labor, (B) if such employee is the parent, spouse, child, or other member of his employer's immediate family, (C) if such employee (i) is employed as a hand harvest laborer and is paid on a piece-rate basis in an operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece-rate basis in the region of employment, (ii) commutes daily from his permanent residence to the farm on which he is so employed, and (iii) has been employed in agriculture less than 13 weeks during the preceding calendar year, (D) if such employee (other than an employee described in clause (C) of this subsection) (i) is 16 years of age or under and is employed as a hand harvest laborer, is paid on a piece-rate basis in an operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece-rate basis in the region of employment, (ii) is employed on the same farm as his parent or person standing in the place of his parent, and (iii) is paid at the same piece rate as employees over age 16 are paid on the same farm, or (E) if such employee is principally engaged in the range production of livestock.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.301" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.301   Other pertinent statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Man-day is defined by section 3(u) of the Act as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Man-day” means any day during which an employee performs any agriculture labor for not less than 1 hour.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Under section 3(e) of the Act the term employee does not include certain individuals in determining mandays of labor. Section 3(e) provides that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Employee” includes any individual employed by an employer, except that such term shall not, for the purposes of section 3(u) include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual employed by an employer engaged in agriculture if such individual is the parent, spouse, child, or other member of the employer's immediate family, or
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual who is employed by an employer engaged in agriculture if such individual (A) is employed as a hand harvest laborer and is paid on a piece rate basis in an operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece-rate basis in the region of employment, and (B) commutes daily from his permanent residence to the farm on which he is so employed, and (C) has been employed in agriculture less than 13 weeks during the preceding calendar year.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The legislative history of the 1966 amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act indicates that the Congress in enacting minimum wage protection (section 6(a)(5)) for agriculture workers for the first time sought to provide a minimum wage floor for the farmworkers on large farms or agri-business enterprises. The section 13(a)(6)(A) exemption was intended to exempt those farmworkers on the smaller or familysize farms. In keeping with this intention, a labor requirement of 500 man-days was incorporated into the exemption, and certain workers were specifically excluded from the man-day count, as provided in section 3(e) (1) and (2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.302" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.302   Basic conditions of section 13 (a)(6)(A).</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(6)(A) applies to an employee provided all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) He must be “employed in agriculture”
</P>
<P>(b) By an “employer”
</P>
<P>(c) Who did not use more than “500 man-days” of agriculture labor
</P>
<P>(d) During any “calendar quarter of the preceding calendar year.”
</P>
<FP>The following sections discuss the meaning and application of these requirements.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.303" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.303   Exemption applicable on employee basis.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(6)(A) exempts “any employee employed in agriculture * * * by an employer * * *.” It is clear from this language that it is the activities of the employee rather than those of his employer which determine the application of the exemption. In other words, the exemption applies only to employees who are engaged in agricultural activities. Thus some employees of the employer may be exempt while others may not. In any case the burden of effecting segregation between exempt and nonexempt work as between different groups of employees is upon the employer. For a more detailed discussion of what constitutes employment in agriculture, see subpart B of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.304" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.304   “Employed by an employer.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer may be an individual, a partnership, or a corporation. It is not necessary that the employer be a farmer as defined in § 780.131. It is sufficient that he “uses” agricultural labor.
</P>
<P>(b) In applying this exemption, one of the main criteria is the number of man-days of agricultural labor used by the employer. Section 13(a)(6)(A) provides that the exemption shall not apply to an employee employed in agriculture “if such employee is employed by an employer who did not * * * use more than 500 man-days of agricultural labor * * *.” From this language of the statute, the man-days of all agricultural workers, unless specifically excluded, of an employer whether he be the owner of a single farm, the owner of an enterprise consisting of several farms, a tenant farmer, an independent contractor, etc., are to be counted for purposes of section 13(a)(6)(A) whether they are employed at one place or several widely scattered places. For example if an employer owns and operates two farms, it is the total number of man-days used on both farms and not that used on each individual farm that determines whether he meets the 500 man-day test. Likewise independent contractor who harvests crops on different farms during the harvesting season must total all the man-days of agricultural labor used on all such farms except those excludable under section 3(e) in determining whether he meets the 500 man-day test.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.305" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.305   500 man-day provision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(u) of the Act defines <I>man-day</I> to mean “any day during which an employee performs agricultural labor for not less than 1 hour.” 500 man-days is approximately the equivalent of seven employees employed full-time in a calendar quarter. However, a farmer who hires temporary or part-time employees during part of the year, such as the harvesting season, may exceed the man-day test even though he may have only two or three full-time employees.
</P>
<P>(b) All of the employer's employees who are engaged in “agricultural labor” except those specifically excluded by section 3(e) (see § 780.301) and those exempt under section 13(a)(14) (see subpart F of this part) must be counted in determining whether the 500 man-day test is met. This is true even though an employee may be exempt from the monetary provisions under another section of the Act. For example, a general manager of a farm may be an exempt executive employee under section 13(a)(1) or a sheepherder may meet the requirements of section 13(a)(6)(E). Regardless of those exemptions, their man-days of employment would be included in the man-day count of the employer.
</P>
<P>(c) A farmer whose crops are harvested by an independent contractor is considered to be a joint employer with the contractor who supplies the harvest hands if the farmer has the power to direct, control or supervise the work, or to determine the pay rates or method of payment for the harvest hands. (See § 780.331.) Each employer must include the contractor's employees in his man-day count in determining whether his own man-day test is met. Each employer will be considered responsible for compliance with the minimum wage and child labor requirements of the Act with respect to the employees who are jointly employed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 12084, June 17, 1972, as amended at 38 FR 27520, Oct. 4, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.306" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.306   Calendar quarter of the preceding calendar year defined.</HEAD>
<P>In applying section 13(a)(6)(A), it is necessary to consider each of the four calendar quarters (January 1-March 31; April 1-June 30; July 1-September 30; October 1-December 31) in the preceding calendar year (January 1-December 31). If in any calendar quarter of the preceding calendar year the employer used more than 500 man-days of agricultural labor, he must comply with the minimum wage requirements of section 6(a)(5) with respect to any employee not otherwise exempt in the current year. Compliance with the Act is required in the current year regardless of the number of man-days of agricultural labor used in the current year. On the other hand, if in the preceding calendar year the number of man-days used did not exceed 500 in any calendar quarter, there is no requirement to comply with respect to employment of agricultural labor in the current calendar year regardless of how many man-days are used in any calendar quarter of the current calendar year. Such employees are exempt under the basic provisions of section 13(a)(6)(A).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.307" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.307   Exemption for employer's immediate family.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(6)(B) of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966 provides a minimum wage and overtime exemption in the case of “any employee engaged in agriculture * * * if such employee is the parent, spouse, child, or other member of the employer's immediate family.” The requirements of this exemption, evident from the statutory language, are that the employee be employed in agriculture and that he be a close blood relative, spouse or member of the employer's immediate family. Reference is made to subpart B of this part as to what constitutes employment in agriculture. The section 13(a)(6)(B) exemption applies to such an individual even though he is employed by an employer who otherwise used more than 500 man-days of agricultural labor in a calendar quarter of the preceding calendar year, as discussed in § 780.305.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.308" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.308   Definition of immediate family.</HEAD>
<P>The Act does not define the scope of “immediate family.” Whether an individual other than a parent, spouse or child will be considered as a member of the employer's immediate family, for purposes of sections 3(e)(1) and 13(a)(6)(b), does not depend on the fact that he is related by blood or marriage. Other than a parent, spouse or child, only the following persons will be considered to qualify as part of the employer's immediate family: Step-children, foster children, step-parents and foster parents. Other relatives, even when living permanently in the same household as the employer, will not be considered to be part of the “immediate family.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17726, July 3, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.309" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.309   Man-day exclusion.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(e)(1) specifically excludes from the employer's man-day total (as defined in section 3(u)) employees who qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(6)(B). See § 780.301. This man-day count is a basic factor in the application of the section 13(a)(6)(A) exemption. See § 780.302 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.310" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.310   Exemption for local hand harvest laborers.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(6)(C) was added to the Act by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966. The legislative history of the exemption indicates that it was intended to apply to the local worker who goes out on a temporary basis during the harvest season to harvest crops. The exemption was not intended to apply to a full-time farmworker, that is, one who earns a livelihood at farming. For instance, migrant laborers who travel from farm to farm were not intended to be within the scope of this exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.311" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.311   Basic conditions of section 13(a)(6)(C).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(a)(6)(C) of the Act applies to an employee who:
</P>
<P>(1) Is employed in agriculture.
</P>
<P>(2) Is employed as a hand harvest laborer.
</P>
<P>(3) Is paid on a piece-rate basis.
</P>
<P>(4) Is paid piece-rates in an operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece-rate basis in the region of employment.
</P>
<P>(5) Commutes daily from his permanent residence to the farm on which he is so employed.
</P>
<P>(6) Has been employed in agriculture less than 13 weeks during the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) In order for the exemption to apply to an employee, all of the requirements must be met. Since a hand harvest laborer is normally an agricultural worker, while so engaged, such an employee would meet the basic requirements that he be employed in agriculture. Subpart B of this part contains a more detailed discussion of what constitutes employment in agriculture. The meaning and application of the remaining requirements are discussed in the following sections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.312" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.312   “Hand harvest laborer” defined.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term hand harvest laborer for purposes of this exemption refers to farm workers engaged in harvesting by hand, or with hand tools, soil grown crops such as cotton, tobacco, grains, fruits, and vegetables. The term would not include harvesting operations performed by an employee with an electrically powered mechanical device, such as a “blueberry picking tool.” “Hand-harvesting” refers only to soil-grown crops and does not include any operation involving animals, such as shearing or lambing of sheep and catching chickens. Hand-harvesting is defined as manually gathering or severing the crop from the soil, stems, or roots at its growing position in the fields. Included are integral related operations, closely related geographically and in point of time, which are performed before the transportation to concentration points on the farm.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For example:
</P>
<P>(1) Employees who take tobacco leaves from the pickers and string them on poles by hand qualify as “hand harvest laborers” because the stringing operation is performed in the field almost simultaneously with the picking and before transportation to the concentration point on the farm (drying shed).
</P>
<P>(2) The picking up of tomatoes by hand after hand pulling from the vines is “hand-harvesting,” as it is performed where the crop is severed and prior to its transportation to the packing shed.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The definition is limited to harvesting, and the performance by the hand harvester of any nonharvesting operation in the same workweek would cause the loss of the section 13(a)(6)(C) exemption.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For example:
</P>
<P>(1) Employees who wrap tomatoes in a packing shed would not qualify, as the wrapping is a nonharvesting operation. (<I>Schultz</I> v. <I>Durrence</I> (S.D. Ga.) 63 CCH. Lab. Cas. 32,387; 19 W.H. Cases 747.)
</P>
<P>(2) Employees who hand pick small undesirable fruit prior to harvesting in order to insure a better crop would not qualify for the exemption. This is a preharvest culling operation performed as a part of the cultivation and growing operations not harvesting.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees who chop cotton, since this is a nonharvesting operation.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.313" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.313   Piece rate basis.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption provides that the employee must be paid on a piece-rate basis. To be exempt the employee must be compensated solely on piece rates during the workweek. The exemption does not apply in any workweek in which the employee is compensated on any other basis. For example, if an employee is compensated on an hourly rate for part of the week and on a piece rate for part of the week, the exemption would not be available. Also, if any pieceworker who is otherwise subject to the minimum wage provisions of the Act does not meet all the requirements set forth in this section he must be paid at least the minimum wage for each hour worked in a particular workweek, regardless of the fact he is paid on piece rate unless he is exempted by some other provision of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.314" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.314   Operations customarily * * * paid on a piece rate basis * * *.</HEAD>
<P>A significant test of the exemption is that the hand harvest operation “has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece rate basis in the region of employment.” The legislative history is silent on who must customarily and generally recognize the hand harvest operation as having been paid on a piece rate basis. However, considering the context in which the term is used, such recognition must be on the part of agricultural employers and employees and other individuals in the region of employment who are familiar with farming operations and practices in the region and the method of compensation utilized in such operations and practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.315" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.315   Local hand harvest laborers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A requirement of the exemption is that an employee must commute each day from his permanent residence to the farm where he is employed. Thus, the exemption does not apply to a migrant worker who travels to different areas of the country during the harvesting seasons. This would be true even though the worker may remain in the area for a considerable period of time. On the other hand, if a migrant worker actually changes his place of residence and thereafter commutes daily from his permanent residence, the exemption applies from the date of the change of residence if the other tests are met.
</P>
<P>(b) The fact that a worker may live on the farm where the operations are performed would not be a reason for disqualification. For example, if the other tests for the exemption are met, members of a tractor driver's family who reside on the farm could be employed in picking cotton within the terms of the exemption. Such family members would be considered to be commuting daily from their permanent residence despite the fact that their residence may be located on the farm at which they are employed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.316" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.316   Thirteen week provision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The exemption provides that an “employee must have been employed in agriculture less than 13 weeks during the preceding calendar year.” For purposes of determining whether a worker has been employed in agriculture less than 13 weeks during the preceding calendar year, a week is considered to be a fixed and regularly recurring period of 168 hours consisting of seven consecutive 24-hour periods during which the employee worked at least 1 “man-day.” Section 3(u) of the Act defines a man-day as “any day during which an employee performs any agricultural labor for not less than 1 hour.”
</P>
<P>(b) In defining the term “week” in this manner for purposes of section 13(a)(6)(C) (as well as section 3(e)(2)) comports with the traditional definition of week used in administering all the other provisions of the law. On this basis, the phrase “employed in agriculture less than 13 weeks” means that an employee has spent less than 13 weeks in agricultural work, regardless of the number of hours he worked during each one of the 13 weekly units. This position recognizes and accommodates to situations where an employee works very long as well as very short hours during the week. This would accord with the legislative history of this exemption which clearly indicates that it was meant to apply only to temporary workers whose hours of work would undoubtedly vary in length, and would, thereby effectuate the legislative intent.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the 13-week period, not only that work for the current employer in the preceding calendar year is counted, but also that agricultural work for all employers in the previous year. It is the total of all weeks of agricultural employment by the employee for all employers in the preceding calendar year that determines whether he meets the 13-week test. In this respect a self-employed farmer who works as a hand harvest laborer during part of the year is considered to be “employed” in agriculture only during those weeks when he is an employee of other farmers. Thus, such weeks of employment are to be counted but any weeks when he works only for himself are not counted toward the 13 weeks.
</P>
<P>(d) The 13-week test applies to each individual worker. It does not apply on a family basis. To carry the example in the preceding section further, members of a tractor driver's family who reside on the farm could be employed in picking cotton within the terms of the exemption even though the driver had been employed in agriculture as much as 13 weeks in the previous calendar year, so long as the family members themselves had not.
</P>
<P>(e) If an employer claims this exemption, it is the employer's responsibility to obtain a statement from the employee showing the number of weeks he was employed in agriculture during the preceding calendar year. This requirement is contained in the recordkeeping regulations in § 516.33 (d) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.317" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.317   Man-day exclusion.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(e)(2) specifically excludes from the employer's man-day total (as defined in section 3(u)) employees who qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(6)(C). (See § 780.301.) This man-day count is a basic factor in the application of the section 13(a)(6)(A) exemption. (See § 780.302 <I>et seq.</I>)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.318" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.318   Exemption for nonlocal minors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(a)(6)(D) of the 1966 Amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act exempts from the minimum wage and overtime provisions “any employee employed in agriculture * * * if such employee (other than an employee described in clause (C) of this subsection): (1) Is 16 years of age or under and is employed as a hand harvest laborer, is paid on a piece rate basis in an operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece rate basis in the region of employment, (2) is employed on the same farm as his parent of persons standing in the place of his parent, and (3) is paid at the same piece rate as employees over age 16 are paid on the same farm.” 
</P>
<P>(b) It is clear from the legislative history of the amendments that the exemption was intended to apply, where the other specific tests are met, only to minors 16 years of age or under who are not “local” in the sense that they are away from their permanent home when employed in agriculture. Specifically the exemption was intended to apply in the case of the children of migrants who typically accompany their parents in harvesting and other agricultural work. (S. Rept. No. 1487, 89th Cong., second sess., to accompany H.R. 13712, pp. 9 and 10)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.319" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.319   Basic conditions of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(a)(6)(D) applies to an employee engaged in agriculture who meets all of the following tests:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not a local hand harvest laborer,
</P>
<P>(2) Is 16 years of age or under,
</P>
<P>(3) Is employed as a hand harvest laborer,
</P>
<P>(4) Is paid on a piece rate basis,
</P>
<P>(5) Is employed in an operation which has been, and is customarily and generally recognized as having been, paid on a piece rate basis in the region of employment,
</P>
<P>(6) Is employed on the same farm as his parent or person standing in the place of his parent, and
</P>
<P>(7) Is paid at the same piece rate as employees over age 16 are paid on the same farms.
</P>
<P>(b) Some of these requirements which are common to both sections 13(a)(6)(C) and 13(a)(6)(D) have already been discussed in connection with section 13(a)(6)(C) and need not be repeated. They are found in §§ 780.311 (employed in agriculture), 780.312 (hand harvest laborer), 780.313 (piece rate basis), and 780.314 (operations customarily * * * paid on a piece rate basis). The other requirements are discussed in the following sections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.320" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.320   Nonlocal minors.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption applies only to migrant or other than local hand harvest workers 16 years of age or under who do come within the scope of section 13(a)(6)(C) (application to all local hand harvest laborers who commute daily from their permanent residences). (See § 780.315.) A local youth under the prescribed age who commutes daily from his permanent residence to the farm to perform work is not exempt under section 13(a)(6)(D). The exemption may, however, be available for the specified minors who work for short periods of several days or weeks without returning daily to their homes on farms beyond commuting distances from their permanent homes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.321" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.321   Minors 16 years of age or under.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(6)(D) by its very terms is available only to employees 16 years of age or under. Accordingly, even though all the other tests of the exemption are met, the exemption is inapplicable in the case of an employee over 16 years of age and the employer must pay to such an employee the applicable statutory minimum wage unless his operations come within the reach of some other exemption, such as section 13(a)(6)(A). Furthermore, although section 13(a)(6)(D) provides a minimum wage and overtime exemption for minors 16 years of age or under, the employer must nevertheless comply with the child labor provisions of the Act prohibiting the employment of minors in agriculture except under certain conditions and circumstances. These provisons are discussed in part 1500, subpart G of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.322" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.322   Is employed on the same farm as his parent or persons standing in the place of his parent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The words “employed on the same farm” are accorded their natural meaning with the usual caution, however, that as in the case of all other exemptions, the exemptive language is to be construed narrowly. (See § 780.2.)
</P>
<P>(b) Individuals who are considered as “his parent or persons standing in place of his parent” include natural parents, or any other person where the relationship between that person and a child is such that the person may be said to stand in place of a parent. For example, one who takes a child into his home and treats it as a member of his own family, educating and supporting the child as if it were his own, is generally said to stand to the child in place of a parent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.323" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.323   Exemption for range production of livestock.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(6)(E) which was added to the Act by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966 provides an exemption from the minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Act for any employee “employed in agriculture” if he is “principally engaged in the range production of livestock.” It is apparent from the language of section 13(a)(6)(E) that the application of this exemption depends on the type of work performed by the individual employee for whom exemption is sought and on where the work is done. A determination of whether an employee is exempt therefore requires an examination of that employee's duties and where they are performed. Some employees of the employer may be exempt while others may not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.324" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.324   Requirements for the exemption to apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All the following conditions must be met in order for the exemption to apply to an employee:
</P>
<P>(1) He must be “engaged in agriculture”;
</P>
<P>(2) Be “principally engaged”;
</P>
<P>(3) On the “range”, and
</P>
<P>(4) In the “production of livestock.”
</P>
<P>(b) Since the raising of livestock is included in the definition of agriculture under section 3(f) of the Act (see §§ 780.119-780.121 of subpart B of this part), the range production of livestock would normally be deemed agriculture work, and, consequently, an employee, during this time he is engaged in such activities, would meet the basic requirement of the exemption that he be “employed in agriculture.”
</P>
<FP>The following sections discuss the meaning and application of the other requirements.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.325" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.325   Principally engaged.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To determine whether an employee is “principally engaged” in the range production of livestock, one must consider the nature of his duties and responsibilities. To qualify for this exemption the primary duty and responsibility of a range employee must be to take care of the animals actively or to stand by in readiness for that purpose. A determination of whether an employee has range production of livestock as his primary duty must be based on all the facts in a particular case. The amount of time spent in the performance of the range production duties is a useful guide in determining whether this is the primary duty of the employee. In the ordinary case it will be considered that the primary duty means the major part, or over 50 percent, of the employee's time.
</P>
<P>(b) Under this principle, an employee who spends more than 50 percent of his time during the year on the range in the duties designated as range production duties would be exempt. This is true even though the employee may perform some activities not directly related to the range production of livestock, such as putting up hay or constructing dams or digging irrigation ditches.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.326" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.326   On the range.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this exemption, “range” is defined generally as land that is not cultivated. It is land that produces native forage for animal consumption, and includes land that is revegetated naturally or artificially to provide a forage cover that is managed like range vegetation. “Forage” as used here means “browse” or herbaceous food that is available to livestock or game animals.
</P>
<P>(b) The range may be on private or Federal or State land, and need not be open. Typically it is not only noncultivated land, but land that is not suitable for cultivation because it is rocky, thin, semiarid, or otherwise poor. Typically, also, many acres of range land are required to graze one animal unit (five sheep or one cow) for 1 month. By its nature, range production of livestock is most typically conducted over wide expanses of land, such as thousands of acres.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.327" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.327   Production of livestock.</HEAD>
<P>For an employee to be engaged in the production of livestock, he must be actively taking care of the animals or standing by in readiness for that purpose. Thus, such activities as herding, handling, transporting, feeding, watering, caring for, branding, tagging, protecting, or otherwise assisting in the raising of livestock and in such immediately incidental duties as inspecting and repairing fences, wells, and windmills would be considered as the production of livestock. On the other hand, such work as terracing, reseeding, haying, and constructing dams, wells, and irrigation ditches would not be considered as the production of livestock within the meaning of the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.328" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.328   Meaning of livestock.</HEAD>
<P>The term “livestock” includes cattle, sheep, horses, goats, and other domestic animals ordinarily raised or used on the farm. This is further discussed in § 780.120. Turkeys or domesticated fowl are considered poultry and not livestock within the meaning of this exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.329" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.329   Exempt work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The standard that must be used to determine whether the individual employee is exempt is that his primary duty must be the range production of livestock and that this duty necessitates his constant attendance on the range, on a standby basis, for such periods of time so as to make the computation of hours worked extremely difficult. The fact that an employee generally returns to his place of residence at the end of each day would not affect the application of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) Thus, exempt work must be performed away from the “headquarters.” The headquarters is not, however, to be confused with the “headquarters ranch.” The term headquarters has reference to the place for the transaction of the business of the ranch (administrative center), as distinguished from buildings or lots used for convenience elsewhere. It is a particular location for the discharge of the management duties. Accordingly, the term “headquarters” would not embrace large acreage, but only the ranchhouse, barns, sheds, pen, bunkhouse, cookhouse, and other buildings in the vicinity. The balance of the “headquarters ranch” would be the “range.”
</P>
<P>(c) Furthermore, the legislative history indicates that this exemption was not intended to apply to feed lots or to any area where the stock involved would be near headquarters. Its sponsors stated that the exemption would apply only to those employees principally engaged in activities which require constant attendance on a standby basis, away from headquarters, such as herding, where the computation of hours worked would be extremely difficult. Such constant surveillance of livestock that graze and reproduce on range lands is necessary to see that the animals receive adequate care, water, salt, minerals, feed supplements, and protection from insects, parasites, disease, predators, adverse weather, etc.
</P>
<P>(d) The man-days of labor of employees principally engaged in the range production of livestock, even though the employees are exempt from the wage and hour requirements of the Act, are included in the employer's man-day count for purposes of application of section 13(a)(6)(A). Thus, if a cattle rancher in a particular calendar quarter uses 200 man-days of such range production labor and 400 man-days of agricultural labor performed by individuals not so engaged, he is required to pay the minimum wage to the latter employees in the following year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.330" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.330   Sharecroppers and tenant farmers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The test of coverage for sharecroppers and tenant farmers is the same as that applied under the Act to determine whether any other person is an employee or not. Certain so-called sharecroppers or tenants whose work activities are closely guided by the landowner or his agent are covered. Those individuals called sharecroppers and tenants whose work is closeIy directed and who have no actual discretion in controlling farm operations are in fact employees by another name. True independent-contractor sharecroppers or tenant farmers who actually control their farm operations are not employees, but if they employ other workers they may be responsible as employers under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether such individuals are employees or independent contractors, the criteria set forth in §§ 795.100 through 795.110 of this chapter are used.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a tenant or sharecropper is found to be an employee, he and any members of his family who work with him on the crop are also to be included in the 500 man-day count of the owner or operator of the farm. Thus, where a sharecropper is an employee and his wife and children help in chopping cotton, all the family members are employees of the farm owner or operator and all their man-days of work are counted.
</P>
<P>(d) On the other hand, a sharecropper or tenant who qualifies as a bona fide independent contractor is considered the same as any other employer, and only the man-days of agricultural labor performed by employees of such a sharecropper or tenant are counted toward the man-days used by him. If he does not meet the 500 man-day test, he is not required to pay his employees the minimum wage even though those employees are entitled to the minimum wage when working for a separate employer who met the man-day test.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 15794, Oct. 14, 1969, as amended at 89 FR 1741, Jan. 10, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.331" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.331   Crew leaders and labor contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whether a crew leader or a labor contractor is the employer of the workers he supplies is a question of fact. The tests here are the same as those used to determine whether a sharecropper or tenant is an independent contractor. A crew leader who merely assembles a crew and brings them to the farm to be supervised and paid directly by the farmer, and who does the same work and receives the same pay as the crewmembers, is an employee of the farmer, and both he and his crew are counted as such and paid accordingly if the farmer is not exempt under the 500 man-day test. The situation is not significantly different if under the same circumstances, the crew is hired at so much per acre for their work. This is in effect a group piecework arrangement.
</P>
<P>(b) The situation is different where the farmer only establishes the general manner for the work to be done. Where this is the case, the labor contractor is the employer of the workers if he makes the day-to-day decisions regarding the work and has an opportunity for profit or loss through his supervision of the crew and its output. As the employer, he has the authority to hire and fire the workers and direct them while working in the fields. Complaints by the farmer about the quality or quantity of the work or about a worker are made to the contractor or his representatives, who takes whatever action he deems appropriate. His opportunity for profit or loss comes from his control over the time and manner of performance of work by his crew and his authority to determine the wage rates paid to his workers.
</P>
<P>(c) There is also the common and general practice of an individual who performs custom work such as crop dusting or grain harvesting and threshing or sheepshearing. In the typical case this contractor has a substantial investment in equipment and his business decisions and judgments materially affect his opportunity for profit or loss. In the overall picture, the contractor is not following the usual path of an employee, but that of an independent contractor.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For example: A sheepshearing contractor who operates in the following manner is considered an independent contractor and therefore an agricultural employer in his own right—he operates his own equipment including power supply from his own trucks or trailers, boards his shearing crew and has complete responsibility for their work and compensation, has complete charge of the sheep from the time they enter the shearing pen until they are shorn and turned out, and contracts with the rancher for the complete operation at an agreed rate per head.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Whether or not a labor contractor or crew leader is found to be a bona fide independent contractor, his employees are considered jointly employed by him and the farmer who is using their labor if the farmer has the power to direct, control or supervise the work, or to determine the pay rates or method of payment. (<I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Okada</I> (C.A. 10), 20 W.H. Cases 1107; <I>Hodgson</I> v. <I>Griffin &amp; Brand</I> (C.A. 5) 20 W.H. Cases 1051; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hertzke,</I> 234 F. 2d 183, 12 W.H. Cases 877 (C.A. 10).) In a joint employment situation, the man-days of agricultural labor rendered are counted toward the man-days of such labor of each employer. Each employer is considered equally responsible for compliance with the Act. With respect to the recordkeeping regulations in 29 CFR 516.33, the employer who actually pays the employees will be considered primarily responsible for maintaining and preserving the records of hours worked and employees' earnings specified in paragraph (c) of § 516.33 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 12084, June 17, 1972, as amended at 38 FR 27521, Oct. 4, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.332" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.4.377.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.332   Exchange of labor between farmers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Occasionally a farmer may help his neighbor with the harvest of his crop. For instance, Farmer B helps his neighbor Farmer A harvest his wheat. In return Farmer A helps Farmer B with the harvest at his farm.
</P>
<P>(b) In a case where neighboring farmers exchange their own work under an arrangement where the work of one farmer is repaid by the labor of the other farmer and there is no monetary compensation for these services paid or contemplated, the Department of Labor would not assert that either farmer is an employee of the other.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition, there may be instances where employees of a farmer also work for neighboring farmers during harvest time. For example, employees of Farmer A may help Farmer B with his harvest, and later, Farmer B's employees may help Farmer A. These employees would be included in the man-day count of the farmer for whom the work is performed on the day in question. Since the Act defines man-day to mean any day during which an employee performs any agricultural labor for not less than 1 hour, there may be days on which these employees work for both Farmer A and Farmer B for a “man-day.” In that event they would be included for that day in the man-day count of both Farmer A and Farmer B.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Employment in Agriculture or Irrigation That Is Exempted From the Overtime Pay Requirements Under Section 13(b)(12)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.400" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.400   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(12) of the Fair Labor Standards Act exempts from the overtime provisions of section 7 any employee employed in agriculture or in connection with the operation or maintenance of ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways, not owned or operated for profit, or operated on a sharecrop basis, and which are used exclusively for supply and storing of water, at least 90 percent of which was ultimately delivered for agricultural purposes during the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18859, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.401" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.401   General explanatory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(b)(12) of the Act contains the same wording exempting any employee employed in agriculture as did section 13(a)(6) prior to the 1966 amendments. The effect of this is to provide a complete overtime exemption for any employee employed in “agriculture” who does not qualify for exemption under section 13(a)(6) (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) of the 1966 amendments.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to exempting employees engaged in agriculture, section 13(b)(12) also exempts from the overtime provisions of the Act employees employed in specified irrigation activities. The effect of the 1997 amendment to section 13(b)(12) is to expand the overtime exemption for any employee employed in specified irrigation activities used for supply and storing of water for agricultural purposes by substituting “water, at least 90 percent of which was ultimately delivered for agricultural purposes during the preceding calendar year” for the prior requirement that all the water be used for agricultural purposes. Prior to the 1966 amendments employees employed in specified irrigation activities were exempt from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) For exempt employment in “agriculture,” see subpart B of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 12084, June 17, 1972, as amended at 76 FR 18859, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.402" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.402   The general guides for applying the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Like other exemptions provided by the Act, the section 13(b)(12) exemption is narrowly construed (<I>Phillips, Inc.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 334 U.S. 490; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; <I>Calaf</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 127 F. 2d 934; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 41 F. Supp. 825; <I>Miller Hatcheries</I> v. <I>Boyer,</I> 131 F. 2d 283; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Friend,</I> 156 F. 2d 429; see also § 780.2 of subpart A of this part 780). An employer who claims the exemption has the burden of showing that it applies. (See § 780.2) The section 13(b)(12) exemption for employment in agriculture is intended to cover all agriculture, including “extraordinary methods” of agriculture as well as the more conventional ones and large operators as well as small ones. Nevertheless, it was meant to apply only to agriculture. It does not extend to processes that are more akin to manufacturing than to agriculture. Practices performed off the farm by nonfarmers are not within the exemption, except for the irrigation activities specifically described in section 13(b)(12). Practices performed by a farmer do not come within the exemption for agriculture if they are neither a part of farming nor performed by him as an incident to or in conjunction with his own farming operations. These principles have been well established by the courts in such cases as <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755; <I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill Fruit Products,</I> 322 U.S. 607; <I>Calaf</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 127 F. 2d 934; <I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 363, certiorari denied, 348 U.S. 897; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op. Ass'n.</I> 80 F. Supp. 953, 181 F. 2d 697.
</P>
<P>(b) When the Congress, in the 1961 amendments, provided special exemptions for some activities which had been held not to be included in the exemption for agriculture (see subparts F and J of this part 780), it was made very clear that no implication of disagreement with “the principles and tests governing the application of the present agriculture exemption as enunciated by the courts” was intended (Statement of the Managers on the part of the House, Conference Report, H. Rept. No. 327, 87th Cong. first sess., p. 18). Accordingly, an employee is considered an exempt agricultural or irrigation employee if, but only if, his work falls clearly within the specific language of section 3(f) or section 13(b)(12).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.403" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.403   Employee basis of exemption under section 13(b)(12).</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(12) exempts “any employee employed in * * *.” It is clear from this language that it is the activities of the employee rather than those of his employer which ultimately determine the application of the exemption. Thus the exemption may not apply to some employees of an employer engaged almost exclusively in activities within the exemption, and it may apply to some employees of an employer engaged almost exclusively in other activities. But the burden of effecting segregation between exempt and nonexempt work as between different groups of employees is upon the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.404" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.404   Activities of the employer considered in some situations.</HEAD>
<P>Although the activities of the individual employee, as distinguished from those of his employer, constitute the ultimate test for applying the exemption, it is necessary in some instances to examine the activities of the employer. For example, in resolving the status of the employees of an irrigation company for purposes of the agriculture exemption, the U.S. Supreme Court, found it necessary to consider the nature of the employer's activities (<I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="378" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>The Irrigation Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.405" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.405   Exemption is direct and does not mean activities are agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption provided in section 13(b)(12) for irrigation activities is a direct exemption which depends for its application on its own terms and not on the meaning of “agriculture” as defined in section 3(f). This exemption was added by an amendment to section 13(a)(6) in 1949 to alter the effect of the decision of the U.S. Supreme Court in <I>Farmers Reservoir Company</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755, so as to exclude the type of employees involved in that case from certain requirements of the Act. Congress chose to accomplish this result, not by expanding the definition of agriculture in section 3(f), but by adding a further exemption. In view of this approach, it can well be said that Congress agreed with the Supreme Court's holding that such workers are not employed in agriculture. (<I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Crowley Ridge Assn.,</I> 295 F. 2d 7.) Irrigation workers who are employed in any workweek exclusively by a farmer or on a farm in irrigation work which meets the requirement of performance as an incident to or in conjunction with the primary farming operations of such farmer or such farm, as previously explained, are considered as employed in agriculture under section 3(f) and may qualify for the minimum wage and overtime exemption under section 13(a)(6) or for the overtime exemption provided agricultural workers under section 13(b)(12). Where they are not so employed, they are not considered as agricultural workers (<I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> supra), but may qualify for the overtime exemption under section 13(b)(12) relating to irrigation work if their duties and the irrigation system on which they work come within the express language of the statute. Where this is the case, it is not material whether the employees are employed in agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.406" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.406   Exemption is from overtime only.</HEAD>
<P>This exemption applies only to the overtime provisions of the Act and does not affect the minimum wage, child labor, recordkeeping, and other requirements of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18859, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.407" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.407   System must be nonprofit or operated on a share-crop basis.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption does not apply to employees employed in the described operations on facilities of any irrigation system unless the ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways in connection with which their work is done meet the statutory requirement that they either be not owned or operated for profit, or be operated on a share-crop basis. The employer is paid on a share-crop basis when he receives, as his total compensation, a share of the crop of the farmers serviced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.408" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.408   Facilities of system at least 90 percent of which was used for agricultural purposes.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(12) requires for exemption of irrigation work that the ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways in connection with which the employee's work is done be “used exclusively for supply and storing of water at least 90 percent of which was ultimately delivered for agricultural purposes during the preceding calendar year.” If a water supplier supplies water of which more than 10 percent is used for purposes other than “agricultural purposes” during the preceding calendar year, the exemption would not apply. For example, the exemption would not apply where more than 10 percent of the water supplier's water is delivered to a municipality to be used for general, domestic, and commercial purposes. Water used for watering livestock raised by a farmer is “for agricultural purposes.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18859, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.409" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.5.378.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.409   Employment “in connection with the operation or maintenance” is exempt.</HEAD>
<P>The irrigation exemption provided by section 13(b)(12) applies to “any employee employed * * * in connection with the operation or maintenance of ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways” of an irrigation system which qualifies for the exemption. The employee, to be exempt, must be employed “in connection with the operation or maintenance” of the named facilities; other employees of the irrigation system, not employed in connection with the named activities, are not exempt. The exemption may apply to employees engaged in insect, rodent, and weed control along the canals and waterways of the irrigation system.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Employment or Agricultural Employees in Processing Shade-Grown Tobacco; Exemption From Minimum Wage and Overtime Pay Requirements Under Section 13(a)(14)</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="379" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.379" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.500" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.379.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.500   Scope and significance of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part 780 and this subpart F together constitute the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of section 13(a)(14) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. This section provides an exemption from the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions of the Act for certain agricultural employees engaged in the processing, prior to stemming, or shade-grown tobacco for use as cigar wrapper tobacco. As appears more fully in subpart A, interpretations in this bulletin with respect to provisions of the Act discussed are official interpretations upon which reliance may be placed and which will guide the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator in the performance of their duties under the Act. The exemptions provided in section 13(a)(6) of the Act for employees employed in agriculture is not discussed in this subpart except in its relation to section 13(a)(14). The meaning and application of the section 13(a)(6) exemption is fully considered in subpart D of this part 780.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.501" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.379.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.501   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(14) of the Fair Labor Standards Act exempts from the minimum wage requirements of section 6 of the Act and from the overtime provisions of section 7:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any agricultural employee employed in the growing and harvesting of shade-grown tobacco who is engaged in the processing (including, but not limited to, drying, curing, fermenting, bulking, rebulking, sorting, grading, aging, and baling) of such tobacco, prior to the stemming process, for use as cigar wrapper tobacco.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.502" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.379.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.502   Legislative history of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption for shade-grown tobacco workers was added to the Act by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1961. The intent of the committee which inserted the provision in the amendments which were reported to the House (see H. Rept. No. 75, 87th Cong., first sess., p. 29) was to exclude from the minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Act “employees engaged prior to the stemming process in processing shade-grown tobacco for use as cigar wrapper tobacco, but only if the employees were employed in the growing and harvesting of such tobacco”. The Report also pointed out that “such operations were assumed to be exempt prior to the case of <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473 (1956), as a continuation of the agricultural process occurring in the vicinity where the tobacco was grown”. The original provision in the House-passed bill was in the form of an amendment to the Act's definition of agriculture. In that form, it would have altered the effect of the Supreme Court's decision in the case of <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> cited above, by bringing the described employees under the exemption provided for agriculture in section 13(a)(6) of the Act. (H. Rept. No. 75, p. 26, and H. Rept. No. 327, p. 17, 87th Cong., first sess.) The Conference Committee, in changing the provision to provide a separate exemption, made it clear that it was “not intended by the committee of conference to change * * * by the exemption for employees engaged in the named operations on shade-grown tobacco the application of the Act to any other employees. Nor is it intended that there be any implication of disagreement by the conference committee with the principles and tests governing the application of the present agricultural exemption as enunciated by the courts.” (H. Rept. No. 327, supra, p. 18.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.503" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.379.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.503   What determines the application of the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The application of the section 13(a)(14) exemption depends upon the nature of the work performed by the individual employee for whom exemption is sought and not upon the character of the work of the employer. A determination of whether an employee is exempt therefore requires an examination of that employee's duties. Some employees of the employer may therefore be exempt while others may not.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="380" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.380" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.504" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.380.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.504   Basic conditions of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 13(a)(14) of the Act all the following conditions must be met in order for the exemption to apply to an employee:
</P>
<P>(a) He must work on “shade-grown tobacco.”
</P>
<P>(b) He must be an “agricultural employee” employed “in the growing and harvesting” of shade-grown tobacco.
</P>
<P>(c) He must be engaged “in the processing * * * of such tobacco” and this processing must be both “prior to the stemming process” and to prepare the tobacco “for use as cigar wrapper tobacco.” These requirements are discussed in the foIlowing sections of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="381" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Shade-Grown Tobacco</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.505" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.505   Definition of “shade-grown tobacco.”</HEAD>
<P>Shade-grown tobacco to which the exemption applies is Connecticut Valley Shade-Grown U.S. Type 61 and Georgia-Florida Shade-Grown U.S. Type 62.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.506" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.506   Dependence of exemption on shade-grown tobacco operations.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption provided by section 13(a)(14) of the Act is limited to the performance of certain operations with respect to the specified commodity, shade-grown tobacco. Work in connection with any other kind of tobacco, or any other commodity, including any other farm product, is not exempt under this section. An employee must be an agricultural employee variously employed in the growing and harvesting of “shade-grown tobacco” and in the described processing of “such tobacco” in order that the section 13(a)(14) exemption may apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.507" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.507   “Such tobacco.”</HEAD>
<P>To be within the exemption, the processing activities with respect to shade-grown tobacco must be performed by an employee who has been employed in growing and harvesting “such tobacco.” The term “such tobacco” clearly is limited to the specified type of tobacco named in the section, that is, shade-grown tobacco. While a literal interpretation of the term “such tobacco” might lead to a conclusion that the exemption extends only to the processing of the tobacco which the employee grew or harvested, it appears from the legislative history that the intent was to extend the exemption to the processing of such tobacco which may be viewed “as a continuation of the agricultural process, occurring in the vicinity where the tobacco was grown.” (H. Rept. 75, 87th Cong., first sess., p. 26.) Thus, it appears that the term “such tobacco” has reference to the local crop of shade-grown tobacco, raised by other local growers as well as by the processor, and which is being processed as a continuation of the growing and harvesting of such crop in the vicinity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.508" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.508   Application of the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As indicated in § 780.504, an employee qualifies for exemption under section 13(a)(14) only if he is an agricultural employee employed in the growing and harvesting of shade-grown tobacco and is engaged in the processing of such tobacco. However, both operations do not have to be performed during the same workweek. Section 13(a)(14) of the Act is intended to exempt any agricultural employee from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Act in any workweek when he is employed in the growing and harvesting of shade-grown tobacco, irrespective of the provisions of section 13(a)(6) and whether or not in such workweek he is also engaged in the processing of the tobacco as described in section 13(a)(14). The exemption would also apply in any workweek in which the employee, who grew and harvested shade-grown tobacco, is exclusively engaged in such processing.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee so employed in any workweek is considered to be excluded from the “employee employed in agriculture” whose exemption from the pay provisions of the Act is governed by section 13(a)(6). Therefore, his man-days of exempt labor under section 13(a)(14) in any such workweek are not to be counted as man-days of agricultural labor within the meaning of section 3(u) of the Act and to which section 13(a)(6) refers.
</P>
<P>(c) However, since section 3(u) defines man-day to mean “any day during which an employee performs any agricultural labor for not less than 1 hour” in the case of an employee who qualifies for the exemption in some workweeks but not in others under section 13(a)(14), all such man-days of his agricultural labor in the workweeks when he is not exempt under section 13(a)(14) will be counted. In this connection, the performance of some agricultural work which does not relate to shade-grown tobacco by an agricultural employee of a grower of such tobacco will not be considered as the performance of nonexempt work outside the section 13(a)(14) exemption in any workweek in which such an employee is employed by such an employer in the growing and harvesting of such tobacco or in its processing prior to stemming, or both, and engages in other agricultural work only incidentally or to an insubstantial extent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.509" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.509   Agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>The definition of “agriculture,” as contained in section 3(f) of the Act, is discussed in subpart B of this part 780. The principles there discussed should be referred to as guides to the meaning of the terms “agricultural employee” and “growing and harvesting” as used in section 13(a)(14).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.510" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.510   “Any agricultural employee.”</HEAD>
<P>The section 13(a)(14) exemption applies to “any agricultural employee” who is employed in the specified activities. The term “any agricultural employee” includes not only agricultural employees of the tobacco grower but also such employees of other farmers or independent contractors. “Any agricultural employee” employed in the growing and harvesting of shade-grown tobacco will qualify for exemption if he engages in the specified processing operations. The use of the word “agricultural” before “employee” makes it apparent that separate consideration must be given to whether an employee is an “agricultural employee” and to whether he is employed in the specified “growing and harvesting” within the meaning of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.511" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.511   Meaning of “agricultural employee.”</HEAD>
<P>An “agricultural employee,” for purposes of section 13(a)(14), may be defined as an employee employed in activities which are included in the definition of “agriculture” in section 3(f) of the Act (see § 780.103), and who is employed in these activities with sufficient regularity or continuity to characterize him as a person who engages in them as an occupation. Isolated or sporadic instances of engagement by an employee in activities defined as “agriculture” would not ordinarily establish that he is an “agricultural employee.” His engagement in agriculture should be sufficiently substantial to demonstrate some dedication to agricultural work as a means of livelihood.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.512" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.512   “Employed in the growing and harvesting.”</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(14) exempts processing operations on shade-grown tobacco only when performed by agricultural employees “employed in the growing and harvesting” of such tobacco. The use of the term “and” in the phrase “growing and harvesting” may be in recognition of the fact that in the raising of shade-grown tobacco the two operations are typically intermingled; however, it is not considered that the word “and” would preclude a determination on the particular facts that an employee is qualified for the exemption if he is employed only in “growing” or only in “harvesting.” Employment in work other than growing and harvesting of shade-grown tobacco will not satisfy the requirement that the employee be employed in growing and harvesting, even if such work is on shade-grown tobacco and constitutes “agriculture” as defined in section 3(f) of the Act. For example, delivery of the tobacco by an employee of the farmer to the receiving platform of the bulking plant would be a “delivery to market” included in “agriculture” when performed by the farmer as an incident to or in conjunction with his farming operations (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473), but it would not be part of “growing and harvesting.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.513" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.513   What employment in growing and harvesting is sufficient.</HEAD>
<P>To qualify for exemption the employee must be one of those who “were employed in the growing and harvesting of such tobacco” (H. Rept. No. 75, 87th Cong., First Sess., p. 29) and one whose processing work could be viewed as a “continuation of the agricultural process, occurring in the vicinity where the tobacco was grown.” (Ibid. p. 26.) This appears to require that such employment be in connection with the crop of shade-grown tobacco which is being processed; it appears to preclude an employee who has had no such employment in the current crop season from qualifying for this exemption even if in some past season he was employed in growing and harvesting such tobacco. Bona fide employment in growing and harvesting shade-grown tobacco would also appear to be necessary. An attempt to qualify an employee for the processing exemption by sending him to the fields for growing or harvesting work for a few hours or days would not establish the bona fide employment in growing and harvesting contemplated by the Act. It would not seem sufficient that an employee has been engaged in growing or harvesting operations only occasionally or casually or incidentally for a small fraction of his work time. (See <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196.) Employment for a significant period in the current crop season or on some regular recurring basis during this season would appear to be necessary before an agricultural employee could reasonably be described as one “employed in the growing and harvesting of shade-grown tobacco.” The determination in a doubtful case will, therefore, require a careful examination and consideration of the particular facts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.514" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.381.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.514   “Growing” and “harvesting.”</HEAD>
<P>The general meaning of “growing” and “harvesting” of agricultural commodities is explained in §§ 780.117 and 780.118 of subpart B of this part 780, where the meaning of these terms as used in the Act's definition of agriculture is fully discussed. As there indicated, these terms include the actual raising of the crop and the operations customarily performed in connection with the removal of the crops by the farmer from their growing position, but do not extend to operations subsequent to and unconnected with the actual process whereby the agricultural commodities are severed from their attachment to the soil. Thus, while transportation to a concentration point on the farm may be included, “harvesting” never extends to transportation or other operations off the farm. The “growing” of shade-grown tobacco is considered to include such work as preparing the soil, planting, irrigating, fertilizing, and other activities. This type of tobacco requires special cultivation and is grown in fields that are completely enclosed and covered with cheesecloth shade. The leaves of the plant are picked in stages, as they mature. The leaves are taken immediateIy to a tobacco barn, located on the farm, where they are strung on sticks and dried by heat. Before the drying process is completed, the leaves are allowed to absorb moisture. Then they are dried again. It is not until the end of this drying operation that the leaves are packed in boxes and taken from the farm to a building plant for further processing (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473). Under the general principles stated above, “harvesting” of shade-grown tobacco is considered to include the removal of the tobacco leaves from the plant and moving the tobacco from the field to the drying barn on the farm, together with the performance of other work as a necessary part of such operations. Subsequent operations such as the drying of the tobacco in the barn on the farm and packing of the tobacco for transportation to the bulking plant are not included in “harvesting.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="382" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exempt Processing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.515" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.515   Processing requirements of section 13(a)(14).</HEAD>
<P>When it has been determined that an employee is an “agricultural employee employed in the growing and harvesting of shade-grown tobacco,” to whom section 13(a)(14) of the Act may apply, it then becomes necessary to ascertain whether he is “engaged in the processing * * * of such tobacco, prior to the stemming process, for use as Cigar-wrapper tobacco.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.516" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.516   “Prior to the stemming process.”</HEAD>
<P>The exemption provided by section 13(a)(14) applies only to employees whose processing operations on shade-grown tobacco are performed “prior to the stemming process.” (See H. Rept. No. 75, 87th Cong., first sess., p. 26). This means that an employee engaged in stemming, the removal of the midrib from the tobacco leaf (<I>McComb</I> v. <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op. Ass'n.,</I> 80 F. Supp. 953, affirmed 181 F. 2d 697), or in any operations on the tobacco which are performed after stemming has begun will not come within the exemption. Stemming and all subsequent operations are nonexempt work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.517" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.517   “For use as Cigar-wrapper tobacco.”</HEAD>
<P>The phrase “for use as Cigar-wrapper tobacco” limits the type of end product which may be produced by the exempt operations. As its name indicates, cigar-wrapper tobacco is used as a cigar wrapper and is distinguished from other types of tobacco which serve other purposes such as filler, pipe, chewing, and other kinds of tobacco. Normally, shade-grown tobacco is used only for cigar wrappers. However, if the tobacco is not being processed by the employer for such specific and limited use, the employee is not engaged in exempt processing operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.518" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.518   Exempt processing operations.</HEAD>
<P>The processing operations under section 13(a)(14) include, but are not limited to, “drying, curing, fermenting, bulking, rebulking, sorting, grading, aging, and baling” of the shade-grown tobacco. As previously noted, these operations are exempt only if performed on shade-grown tobacco prior to the stemming process to prepare the tobacco for use as cigar wrapper tobacco.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.519" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.519   General scope of exempt operations.</HEAD>
<P>All operations normally performed in the processing of shade-grown tobacco for use as cigar wrapper tobacco, if performed prior to the stemming process and for such use, are included in the exemption. As a whole, this processing substantially changes the physical properties and chemical content of the tobacco, improves its color, increases its combustibility, and eliminates the rawness and harshness of the freshly cured leaf. In the process the leaves are piled in “bulks” of about 4,000 pounds each to undergo a “sweating” or “fermentation” process in which temperature and humidity are carefully controlled. Proper heat control includes, among other things, breaking up the bulk, redistributing the tobacco, and adding water. Proper fermentation or aging requires the bulk to be reconstructed several times. This bulking process may last from 4 to 8 months. When the tobacco is properly dried, cured, fermented, and aged, it is moved to long tables where the leaves are individually graded and sorted, after which they are tied in bundles called “hands” of about 30 to 35 leaves each, which are then baled for shipment. Equipment required for the work may include a steam-heated plant, platforms, thermometers, bulk covers, baling boxes and presses, baling mats and packing, sorting, and grading tables. (See <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473, 475.) Employees performing any part of this processing prior to the stemming process, including the operations named in section 13(a)(14), may come within the exemption if they are otherwise qualified and if the tobacco on which they work is being processed for use as cigar wrapper tobacco.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.520" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.520   Particular operations which may be exempt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 13(a)(14) lists a number of operations as being included in the processing of shade-grown tobacco. Some of these are, and others are not, themselves “processing” in the sense that performance of the operations changes the natural form of the commodity on which it is performed. All of the operations named and described in paragraph (b) of this section, however, are a necessary and integral part of the overall process of preparing shade-grown tobacco for use as cigar wrapper tobacco and, when performed as part of that process and prior to stemming of the tobacco, by an employee qualified under the terms of the section, will provide the basis for his exemption from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Particular operations</I>—(1) <I>Drying.</I> Drying includes the removal or lowering of the moisture content of the tobacco, whether by natural means or by exposure to heat from ovens, furnaces, etc.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Curing.</I> Curing includes removing the tobacco to the curing shed or barn and stringing the tobacco over slats.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fermenting.</I> Fermenting includes the operations controlling the chemical changes which take place in the tobacco as the result of bulking and rebulking.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bulking.</I> Bulking includes piling the tobacco in piles or bulks of about 4,000 pounds each for the purpose of fermenting the tobacco.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rebulking.</I> Rebulking includes the breaking down of the tobacco bulks or piles and rearranging them so that the tobacco on the inside will be placed on the outside of the bulk and tobacco on the outside will be placed inside.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sorting.</I> Sorting includes segregation of the tobacco leaves in connection with the grading and classifying of the cured tobacco.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Grading.</I> Grading includes sorting or classifying as to size and quality.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Aging.</I> Aging includes the curing process brought about by bulking.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Baling.</I> Baling includes the tying of the tobacco into “hands” and placing them in bales for shipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.521" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.521   Other processing operations.</HEAD>
<P>The language of the section, namely, “including, but not limited to,” extends the exemption for processing to include other operations in the processing of shade-grown tobacco besides those specifically enumerated. These additional operations include only those which are a necessary and integral part of preparing the shade-grown tobacco for use as cigar wrapper tobacco. These additional operations, like those enumerated in section 13(a)(14), must be performed before the tobacco has been stemmed. Stemming work and further work on the tobacco after stemming has been performed are nonexempt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.522" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.6.382.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.522   Nonprocessing employees.</HEAD>
<P>Only those employees who actually engaged in the growing and harvesting of shade-grown tobacco and the specified exempt processing activities are exempt. Clerical, maintenance and custodial workers are not included.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Employment in Agriculture and Livestock Auction Operations Under the Section 13(b)(13) Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="383" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.383" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.600" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.383.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.600   Scope and significance of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part 780 and this subpart G together constitute the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of section 13(b)(13) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. This section provides an exemption from the overtime pay provisions of the Act for certain employees who, in the same workweek, are employed by a farmer in agriculture and also in the farmer's livestock auction operations. As appears more fully in subpart A of this part, interpretations in this bulletin with respect to provisions of the Act discussed are official interpretations upon which reliance may be placed and which will guide the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator in the performance of their duties under the Act. The general exemptions provided in sections 13(a)(6) and 13(b)(12) of the Act for employees employed in agriculture are not discussed in this subpart except in its relation to section 13(b)(13). The meaning and application of these exemptions are fully considered in subparts D and E of this part 780.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.601" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.383.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.601   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(13) of the Fair Labor Standards Act exempts from the overtime provisions of section 7:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee with respect to his employment in agriculture by a farmer, notwithstanding other employment of such employee in connection with livestock auction operations in which such farmer is engaged as an adjunct to the raising of livestock, either on his own account or in conjunction with other farmers, if such employee (A) is primarily employed during his workweek in agriculture by such farmer, and (B) is paid for his employment in connection with such livestock auction operations at a wage rate not less than that prescribed by section 6(a)(1).</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.602" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.383.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.602   General explanatory statement.</HEAD>
<P>Ordinarily, as discussed in subparts D and E of this part 780, an employee who in the same workweek engages in work which is exempt as agriculture under section 13(a)(6) or 13(b)(12) of the Act and also performs nonexempt work to which the Act applies is not exempt in that week (§ 780.11). Employees of a farmer are not employed in work exempt as “agriculture” while engaged in livestock auction operations in which the livestock offered at auction includes livestock raised by other farmers (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913) (C.A. 5); <I>Hearnsberger</I> v. <I>Gillespie,</I> 435 F. 2d 926 (C.A. 8). However, under section 13(b)(13) an employee who is employed by a farmer in agriculture as well as in livestock auction operations in the same workweek will not lose the overtime exemption for that workweek, if certain conditions are met. These conditions and their meaning and application are discussed in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="384" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.603" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.603   What determines application of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The application of the section 13(b)(13) exemption depends largely upon the nature of the work performed by the individual employee for whom exemption is sought. The character of the employer's business also determine the application of the exemption. Whether an employee is exempt therefore depends upon his duties as well as the nature of the employer's activities. Some employees of the employer may be exempt in some weeks and others may not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.604" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.604   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The general requirements for exemption under section 13(b)(13) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Employment of the employee “primarily” in agriculture in the particular workweek.
</P>
<P>(b) This primary employment by a farmer.
</P>
<P>(c) Engagement by the farmer in raising livestock.
</P>
<P>(d) Engagement by the farmer in livestock auction operations “as an adjunct to” the raising of livestock.
</P>
<P>(e) Payment of the minimum wage required by section 6(a)(1) of the Act for all hours spent in livestock auction work by the employee.
</P>
<FP>These requirements will be separately discussed in the following sections of this subpart.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.605" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.605   Employment in agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>One requirement for exemption is that the employee be employed in “agriculture.” “Agriculture,” as used in the Act, is defined in section 3(f) as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(f) “Agriculture” includes farming in all its branches and among other things includes the cultivation and tillage of the soil, dairying, the production, cultivation, growing, and harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodities (including commodities defined as agricultural commodities in section 15(g) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended), the raising of livestock, bees, fur-bearing animals, or poultry, and any practices (including any forestry or lumbering operations) performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with such farming operations, including preparation for market, delivery to storage or to market or to carriers for transportation to market.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>An employee meets the tests of being employed in agriculture when he either engages in any one or more of the branches of farming listed in the first part of the above definition or performs, as an employee of a farmer or on a farm, practices incident to such farming operations as mentioned in the second part of the definition (<I>Farmers Reservoir &amp; Irrigation Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755). The exemption applies to “any employee” of a farmer whose employment meets the tests for exemption. Accordingly, any employee of the farmer who is employed in “agriculture,” including laborers, clerical, maintenance, and custodial employees, harvesters, dairy workers, and others may qualify for the exemption under section 13(b)(13) if the other conditions of the exemption are met.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.606" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.606   Interpretation of term “agriculture.”</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(f) of the Act, which defines “agriculture,” has been extensively interpreted by the Department of Labor and the courts. Subpart B of this part 780 contains those interpretations which have full application in construing the term “agriculture” as used in the 13(b)(13) exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.607" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.607   “Primarily employed” in agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>Not only must the employee be employed in agriculture, but he must be “primarily” so employed during the particular workweek or weeks in which the 13(b)(13) exemption is to be applied. The word “primarily” may be considered to mean chiefly or principally (<I>Agnew</I> v. <I>Board of Governors,</I> 153 F. 2d 785). This interpretation is consistent with the view, expressed by the sponsor of the exemption at the time of its adoption on the floor of the Senate (107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed., April 19, 1961), p. 5879), that the word means “most of his time.” The Department of Labor will consider that an employee who spends more than one-half of his hours worked in the particular workweek in agriculture, as defined in the Act, is “primarily” employed in agriculture during that week.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.608" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.608   “During his workweek.”</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(13) specifically requires that the unit of time to be used in determining whether an employee is primarily employed in agriculture is “during his workweek.” The employee's own workweek, and not that of any other person, is to be used in applying the exemption. The employee's employment must meet the “primarily” test in each workweek in which the exemption is applied to him.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.609" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.609   Workweek unit in applying the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The unit of time to be used in determining the application of the exemption to an employee is the workweek. (See <I>Overnight Transportation Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572.) A workweek is a fixed and regularly recurring interval of seven consecutive 24-hour periods. It may begin at any hour of any day set by the employer and need not coincide with the calendar week. Once the workweek has been set it commences each succeeding week on the same day and at the same hour. Changing of the workweek for the purpose of escaping the requirements of the Act is not permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.610" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.610   Workweek exclusively in exempt work.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who engages exclusively in a workweek in duties which come within the exemption under section 13(b)(13) and is paid in accordance with the requirements of that exemption, is exempt in that workweek from the overtime requirements of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.611" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.611   Workweek exclusively in agriculture.</HEAD>
<P>In any workweek in which the employee works exclusively in agriculture, performing no duty in respect to livestock auction operations, his exemption for that week is determined by application of sections 13(a)(6) and 13(b)(12) to his activities. (See subparts D and E of this part.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.612" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.612   Employment by a “farmer.”</HEAD>
<P>A further requirement for exemption is the expressed statutory one that the employee must be employed in agriculture by a “farmer.” Employment by a nonfarmer will not qualify an employee for the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.613" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.613   “By such farmer.”</HEAD>
<P>The employee's primary employment in agriculture during the exempt week is also required to be by “such farmer.” The phrase “such farmer” refers to the particular farmer by whom the employee is employed in agriculture and who engages in the livestock auction operations as an adjunct to his raising of livestock. Even if an employee may spend more than half of his work time in a workweek in agriculture, he would not be exempt if such employment in agriculture were engaged in for various persons so that less than the primary portion of his workweek was performed in his employment in agriculture by such farmer. For example, an employee may work a 60-hour week and be employed in agriculture for 50 of those hours, of which 20 hours are worked in his employment by the farmer who is engaged in the livestock auction operations, the other 30 being performed for a neighboring farmer. Although this employee was primarily employed in agriculture during the workweek he is not exempt. His primary employment in agriculture was not by the farmer described in section 13(b)(13) as required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.614" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.614   Definition of a farmer.</HEAD>
<P>The Act does not define the term “farmer.” Whether an employer is a “farmer” within the meaning of section 13(b)(13) must be determined by consideration of the particular facts, keeping in mind the purpose of the exemption. A full discussion of the meaning of the term “farmer” as used in the Act's definition of agriculture is contained in §§ 780.130 through 780.133. Generally, as indicated in that discussion, a farmer under the Act is one who engages, as an occupation, in farming operations as a distinct activity for the purpose of producing a farm crop. A corporation or a farmers' cooperative may be a “farmer” if engaged in actual farming of the nature and extent there indicated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.615" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.615   Raising of livestock.</HEAD>
<P>Livestock auction operations are within the 13(b)(13) exemption only when they are conducted as an adjunct to the raising of livestock by the farmer. The farmer is required to engage in the raising of livestock as a prerequisite for the exemption of an employee employed in the operations described in section 13(b) (13). Engagement by the farmer in one or more of the other branches of farming will not meet this requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.616" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.616   Operations included in raising livestock.</HEAD>
<P>Raising livestock includes such operations as the breeding, fattening, feeding, and care of domestic animals ordinarily raised or used on farms. A fuller discussion of the meaning of raising livestock is contained in §§ 780.119 through 780.122.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.617" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.617   Adjunct livestock auction operations.</HEAD>
<P>The livestock auction operations referred to in section 13(b)(13) are those engaged in by the farmer “as an adjunct” to the raising of livestock. This phrase limits the relative extent to which the farmer may conduct livestock auctions and claim exemption under section 13(b)(13). To qualify under the exemption provision, the auction operations should be an established part of the farmer's raising of the livestock and subordinate to it. (<I>Hearnsberger</I> v. <I>Gillespie,</I> 435 F. 2d 926 (C.A. 8).) The auction operations should not be conducted on so large a scale as to predominate over the raising of livestock. The livestock auction should be adjunct to the farmer's raising of livestock not only when he engages in it on his own account, but also when he joins with other farmers to hold an auction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.618" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.618   “His own account”—“in conjunction with other farmers.”</HEAD>
<P>Under the terms of section 13(b)(13), the farmer may operate a livestock auction solely for his own benefit or he may join with “other farmers” to auction livestock for their mutual benefit. (See § 780.614 with regard to the definition of “farmer.”) Unless the auction is conducted by the farmer alone or with others who are “farmers” the exemption does not apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.619" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.619   Work “in connection with” livestock auction operations.</HEAD>
<P>An employee whose agricultural employment meets the tests for exemption may engage in “other” employment “in connection with” his employer's livestock auction operations under the conditions stated in section 13(b)(13). The work which an employee may engage in under the phrase “in connection with” includes only those activities which are a necessary incident to conducting a livestock auction of the limited type permitted under the exemption. Such work as transporting the livestock and caring for it, custodial, maintenance, and clerical duties are included. Work which cannot be considered necessarily incident to the livestock auction is not exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.620" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.384.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.620   Minimum wage for livestock auction work.</HEAD>
<P>The application of the exemption is further determined by whether another condition has been met. That condition is that the employee, in the workweek in which he engages in livestock auction activities, must be paid at a wage rate not less than the minimum rate required by section 6(a)(1) of the Act for the time spent in livestock auction work. The exemption does not apply unless there is payment for all hours spent in livestock auction work at not less than the applicable minimum rate prescribed in the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="385" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.385" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Effect of Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.621" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.7.385.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.621   No overtime wages in exempt week.</HEAD>
<P>In a workweek in which all the requirements of the section 13(b)(13) exemption are met, the employee is exempt from the overtime requirements of section 7 for that entire workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Employment by Small Country Elevators Within Area of Production; Exemption From Overtime Pay Requirements Under Section 13(b)(14)</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="386" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.386" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.700" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.386.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.700   Scope and significance of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part 780 and this subpart together constitute the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of section 13(b)(14) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. This section provides an exemption from the overtime pay provisions of the Act for employees employed by certain country elevators “within the area of production,” as defined by the Secretary of Labor in part 536 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.701" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.386.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.701   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(14) of the Fair Labor Standards Act exempts from the overtime provisions of section 7:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee employed within the area of production (as defined by the Secretary) by an establishment commonly recognized as a country elevator, including such an establishment which sells products and services used in the operation of a farm: <I>Provided,</I> That no more than five employees are employed in the establishment in such operations * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.702" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.386.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.702   What determines application of the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The application of the section 13(b)(14) exemption depends on te employment of the employee by an establishment of the kind described in the section, and on such employment “within the area of production” as defined by regulation. In any workweek when an employee is employed in country elevator activities by such an establishment within the area of production, the overtime pay requirements of the Act will not apply to him. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.703" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.386.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.703   Basic requirements for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The basic requirements for exemption of country elevator employees under section 13(b)(14) of the Act are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The employing establishment must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be an establishment “commonly recognized as a country elevator,” and
</P>
<P>(2) Have not more than five employees employed in its operations as such; and
</P>
<P>(b) The employee must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be “employed by” such establishment, and
</P>
<P>(2) Be employed “within the area of production,” as defined by the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<FP>All the requirements must be met in order for the exemption to apply to an employee in any workweek. The requirements in section 13(b)(14) are “explicit prerequisites to exemption” and the burden of showing that they are satisfied rests upon the employer who asserts that the exemption applies (<I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388). In accordance with the general rules stated in § 780.2 of subpart A of this part, this exemption is to be narrowly construed and applied only to those establishments plainly and unmistakably within its terms and spirit. The requirements for its application will be separately discussed below.


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="387" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Establishment Commonly Recognized as a Country Elevator</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.704" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.704   Dependence of exemption on nature of employing establishment.</HEAD>
<P>If an employee is to be exempt under section 13(b)(14), he must be employed by an “establishment” which is “commonly recognized as a country elevator.” If he is employed by such an establishment, the fact that it may be part of a larger enterprise which also engages in activities that are not recognized as those of country elevators (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mills,</I> 185 F. 2d 596) would not make the exemption inapplicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.705" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.705   Meaning of “establishment.”</HEAD>
<P>The word “establishment” has long been interpreted by the Department of Labor and the courts to mean a distinct physical place of business and not to include all the places of business which may be operated by an organization (<I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 334 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Bekins Van and Storage Co.,</I> 352 U.S. 1027). Thus, in the case of a business organization which operates a number of country elevators (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mills,</I> 185 F. 2d 596), each individual elevator or other place of business would constitute an establishment, within the meaning of the Act. Country elevators are usually one-unit places of business with, in some cases, an adjoining flat warehouse. No problem exists of determining what is the establishment in such cases. However, where separate facilities are used by a country elevator, a determination must be made, based on their proximity to the elevator and their relationship to its operations, on whether the facilities and the elevator are one or more than one establishment. If there are more than one, it must be determined by which establishment the employee is employed and whether that establishment meets the requirements of section 13(b)(14) before the application of the exemption to the employee can be ascertained (compare <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Cammill,</I> 245 F. 2d 207; <I>Remington</I> v. <I>Shaw</I> (W.D. Mich.), 2 WH Cases 262).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.706" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.706   Recognition of character of establishment.</HEAD>
<P>A further requirement for exemption is that the establishment must be “commonly recognized” as a country elevator. The word “commonly” means ordinarily or generally and the term “recognized” means known. An elevator should be generally known by the public as a country elevator. This requirement imposes, on the establishment for whose employees exemption is sought, the obligation to demonstrate that it engages in the type of work and has the attributes which will cause the general public to know it as a country elevator. The recognition which the statute requires must be shown to exist if the employer seeks to take the benefit of the exemption (see <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388, 395). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.707" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.707   Establishments “commonly recognized” as country elevators.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether a particular establishment is one that is “commonly recognized” as a country elevator—and this must be true of the particular establishment if the exemption is to apply—it should be kept in mind that the intent of section 13(b)(14) is to “exempt country elevators that market farm products, mostly grain, for farmers” (107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 5883). It is also appropriate to consider the characteristics and functions which the courts and government agencies have recognized as those of “country elevators” and the distinctions which have been recognized between country elevators and other types of establishments. For example, in proceedings to determine industries of a seasonal nature under part 526 of the regulations in this chapter, “country” grain elevators, public terminal and subterminal grain elevators, wheat flour mill elevators, non-elevator-type bulk grain storing establishments, and “flat warehouses” in which grain is stored in sacks, have been recognized as distinct types of establishments engaged in grain storage. (See 24 FR 2584; 3581.) As the legislative history of the exemption cited above makes clear, country elevators handle “mostly grain.” The courts have recognized that the terms “country elevator” and “country grain elevator” are interchangeable (the term “country house” has also been recognized as synonymous), and that there are significant differences between country elevators and other types of establishments engaged in grain storage (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mils,</I> 185 F. 2d 596; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Sampson Const. Co.</I> (D. Kan.) 14 WH Cases 269).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.708" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.708   A country elevator is located near and serves farmers.</HEAD>
<P>Country elevators, as commonly recognized, are typically located along railroads in small towns or rural areas near grain farmers, and have facilities especially designed for receiving bulk grain by wagon or truck from farms, elevating it to storage bins, and direct loading of the grain in its natural state into railroad boxcars. The principal function of such elevators is to provide a point of initial concentration for grain grown in their local area and to handle, store for limited periods, and load out such grain for movement in carload lots by rail from the producing area to its ultimate destination. They also perform a transport function in facilitating the even and orderly movement of grain over the interstate network of railroads from the producing areas to terminal elevators, markets, mills, processors, consumers, and to seaboard ports for export. The country elevator is typically the farmer's market for his grain or the point at which his grain is delivered to carriers for transportation to market. The elevator may purchase the grain from the farmer or store and handle it for him, and it may also store and handle substantial quantities of grain owned by or pledged to the Government under a price-support program. Country elevators customarily receive, weigh, test, grade, clean, mix, dry, fumigate, store, and load out grain in its natural state, and provide certain incidental services and supplies to farmers in the locality. The foregoing attributes of country elevators have been recognized by the courts. See, for example, <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Sampson Const. Co.</I> (D. Kan.) 14 WH Cases 269; <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mills,</I> 185 F. 2d 596; <I>Holt</I> v. <I>Barnesville Elevator Co.,</I> 145 F. 2d 250; <I>Remington</I> v. <I>Shaw</I> (W.D. Mich.), 2 WH Cases 262.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.709" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.709   Size and equipment of a country elevator.</HEAD>
<P>Typically, the establishments commonly recognized as country elevators are small. Most of the establishments intended to come within the exemption have only one or two employees (107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 5883), although some country elevators have a larger number. (See <I>Holt</I> v. <I>Barnesville Elevator Co.,</I> 145 F. 2d 250.) Establishments with more than five employees are not within the exemption. (See § 780.712.) The storage capacity of a country elevator may be as small as 6,000 bushels (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mills,</I> 185 F. 2d 596) and will generally range from 15,000 to 50,000 bushels. As indicated in § 780.708, country elevators are equipped to receive grain in wagons or trucks from farmers and to load it in railroad boxcars. The facilities typically include scales for weighing the farm vehicles loaded with grain, grain bins, cleaning and mixing machinery, driers for prestorage drying of grain and endless conveyor belts or chain scoops to carry grain from the ground to the top of the elevator. The facilities for receiving grain in truckloads or wagonloads from farmers and the limited storage capacity, together with location of the elevator in or near the grain-producing area, serve to distinguish country elevators from terminal or subterminal elevators, to which the exemption is not applicable. The latter are located at terminal or interior market points, receive grain in carload lots, and receive the bulk of their grain from country elevators. Although some may receive grain from farms in the immediate areas, they are not typically equipped to receive grain except by rail. (See <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mills,</I> supra; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Sampson Const. Co.</I> (D. Kan.) 14 WH Cases 269.) It is the facilities of a country elevator for the elevation of bulk grain and the discharge of such grain into rail cars that make it an “elevator” and distinguish it from warehouses that perform similar functions in the flat warehousing, storage, and marketing for farmers of grain in sacks. Such warehouses are not “elevators” and therefore do not come within the section 13(b)(14) exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.710" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.710   A country elevator may sell products and services to farmers.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(14) expressly provides that an establishment commonly recognized as a country elevator, within the meaning of the exemption, includes “such an establishment which sells products and services used in the operation of a farm.” This language makes it plain that if the establishment is “such an establishment,” that is, if its functions and attributes are such that it is “commonly recognized as a country elevator” but not otherwise, exemption of its employees under this section will not be lost solely by reason of the fact that it sells products and services used in the operation of a farm. Establishments commonly recognized as country elevators, especially the smaller ones, not only engage in the storing of grain but also conduct various merchandising or “sideline” operations as well. They may distribute feed grains to feeders and other farmers, sell fuels for farm use, sell and treat seeds, and sell other farm supplies such as fertilizers, farm chemicals, mixed concentrates, twine, lumber, and farm hardware supplies and machinery. (See <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mills,</I> 185 F. 2d 596; <I>Holt</I> v. <I>Barnesville Elevator Co.,</I> 145 F. 2d 250). Services performed for farmers by country elevators may include grinding of feeds, cleaning and fumigating seeds, supplying bottled gas, and gasoline station services. As conducted by establishments commonly recognized as country elevators, the selling of goods and services used in the operation of a farm is a minor and incidental secondary activity and not a main business of the elevator (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mills,</I> supra; <I>Holt</I> v. <I>Barnesville Elevator Co.,</I> supra).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.711" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.387.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.711   Exemption of mixed business applies only to country elevators.</HEAD>
<P>The language of section 13(b)(14) permitting application of the exemption to country elevators selling products and services used in the operation of a farm does not extend the exemption to an establishment selling products and services to farmers merely because of the fact that it is also equipped to provide elevator services to its customers. The exemption will not apply if the extent of its business of making sales to farmers is such that the establishment is not commonly known as a “country elevator” or is commonly recognized as an establishment of a different kind. As the legislative history of the exemption indicates, its purpose is limited to exempting country elevators that market farm products, mostly grain, for farmers who are working long workweeks and need to have the elevator facilities open and available for disposal of their crops during the same hours that are worked by the farmers. (See 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p.5883.) The reason for the exemption does not justify its application to employees selling products and services to farmers otherwise than as an incidental and subordinate part of the business of a country elevator as commonly recognized. An establishment making such sales must be “such an establishment” to come within this exemption. An employer may, however, be engaged in the business of making sales of goods and services to farmers in an establishment separate from the one in which he provides the recognized country elevator services. In such event, the exemption of employees who work in both establishments may depend on whether the work in the sales establishment comes within another exemption provided by the Act. (See <I>Remington</I> v. <I>Shaw</I> (W.D. Mich.), 2 WH Cases 262, and infra, § 780.724.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="388" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.388" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employment of “No More Than Five Employees”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.712" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.388.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.712   Limitation of exemption to establishments with five or fewer employees.</HEAD>
<P>If the operations of an establishment are such that it is commonly recognized as a country elevator, its employees may come within the section 13(b)(14) exemption provided that “no more than five employees are employed in the establishment in such operations”. The exemption is intended, as explained by its sponsor, to “affect only institutions that have five employees or less” (107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 5883). Since the Act is applied on a workweek basis, a country elevator is not an exempt place of work in any workweek in which more than five employees are employed in its operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.713" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.388.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.713   Determining the number of employees generally.</HEAD>
<P>The number of employees referred to in section 13(b)(14) is the number “employed in the establishment in such operations”. The determination of the number of employees so employed involves a consideration of the meaning of employment “in the establishment” and “in such operations” in relation to each other. If, in any workweek, an employee is “employed in the establishment in such operations” for more than a negligible period of time, he should be counted in determining whether, in that workweek, more than five employees were so employed. An employee so employed must be counted for this purpose regardless of whether he would, apart from this exemption, be within the coverage of the Act. Also, as noted in the following discussion, the employees to be counted are not necessarily limited to employees directly employed by the country elevator but may include employees directly employed by others who are engaged in performing operations of the elevator establishment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.714" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.388.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.714   Employees employed “in such operations” to be counted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The five-employee limitation on the exemption for country elevators relates to the number of employees employed in the establishment “in such operations.” This means that the employees to be counted include those employed in, and do not include any who are not employed in, the operations of the establishment commonly recognized as a country elevator, including the operations of such an establishment in selling products and services used in the operation of a farm, as previously explained.
</P>
<P>(b) In some circumstances, an employee employed in an establishment commonly recognized as a country elevator may, during his workweek, be employed in work which is not part of the operations of the elevator establishment. This would be true, for example, in the case of an employee who spends his entire workweek in the construction of an overflow warehouse for the elevator. Such an employee would not be counted in that workweek because constructing a warehouse is not part of the operations of the country elevator but is an entirely distinct activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees employed by the same employer in a separate establishment in which he is engaged in a different business, and not employed in the operations of the elevator establishment, would not be counted.
</P>
<P>(d) Employees not employed by the elevator establishment who come there sporadically, occasionally, or casually in the course of their duties for other employers are not employed in the operations of the establishment commonly recognized as a country elevator and would not be counted in determining whether the five-employee limitation is exceeded in any workweek. Examples of such employees are employees of a restaurant who bring food and beverages to the elevator employees, and employees of other employers who make deliveries to the establishment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.715" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.388.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.715   Counting employees “employed in the establishment.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees employed “in the establishment,” if employed “in such operations” as previously explained, are to be counted in determining whether the five-employee limitation on the exemption is exceeded.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees employed “in” the establishment clearly include all employees engaged, other than casually or sporadically, in performing any duties of their employment there, regardless of whether they are direct employees of the country elevator establishment or are employees of a farmer, independent contractor, or other person who are suffered or permitted to work (see Act, section 3(g)) in the establishment. However, tradesmen, such as dealers and their salesmen, for example, are not employed in the elevator simply because they visit the establishment to do business there. Neither are workers who deliver, on behalf of their employers, goods used in the sideline business of the establishment to be considered employed in the elevator.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of the language “employed in” rather than “engaged in” makes it plain also that the employees to be counted include all those employed by the establishment in its operations without regard to whether they are engaged in the establishment or away from it in performing their duties. This has been the consistent interpretation of similar language in other sections of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="389" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.389" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employees “Employed * * * By” The Country Elevator Establishment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.716" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.389.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.716   Exemption of employees “employed * * * by” the establishment.</HEAD>
<P>If the establishment is a country elevator establishment qualified for exemption as previously explained, and if the “area of production” requirement is met (see § 780.720), any employee “employed * * * by” such establishment will come within the section 13(b)(14) exemption. This will bring within the exemption employees who are engaged in duties performed away from the establishment as well as those whose duties are performed in the establishment itself, so long as such employees are “employed * * * by” the country elevator establishment within the meaning of the Act. The employees employed “by” the establishment, who may come within the exemption if the other requirements are met, are not necessarily identical with the employees employed “in the establishment in such operations” who must be counted for purposes of the five-employee limitation since some of the latter employees may be employed by another employer. (See §§ 780.712 through 780.715.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.717" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.389.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.717   Determining whether there is employment “by” the establishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No single test will determine whether a worker is in fact employed “by” a country elevator establishment. This question must be decided on the basis of the total situation (<I>Rutherford Food Corp.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 331 U.S. 722; <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Silk,</I> 331 U.S. 704). Clearly, an employee is so employed where he is hired by the elevator, engages in its work, is paid by the elevator and is under its supervision and control.
</P>
<P>(b) “Employed by” requires that there be an employer-employee relationship between the worker and the employer engaged in operating the elevator. The fact, however, that the employer carries an employee on the payroll of the country elevator establishment which qualifies for exemption does not automatically extend the exemption to that employee. In order to be exempt an employee must actually be “employed by” the exempt establishment. This means that whether the employee is performing his duties inside or outside the establishment, he must be employed in the work of the exempt establishment itself in activities within the scope of its exempt business in order to meet the requirement of actual employment “by” the establishment (see <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Connecticut Co.,</I> 154 F. 2d 552).
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of employers who operate multiunit enterprises and conduct business operations in more than one establishment (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Flour Mills,</I> 185 F. 2d 596; <I>Remington</I> v. <I>Shaw</I> (W.D. Mich.) 2 WH Cases 262), there will be employees of the employer who perform central office or central warehousing activities for the enterprise or for more than one establishment, and there may be other employees who spend time in the various establishments of the enterprise performing duties for the enterprise rather than for the particular establishment in which they are working at the time. Such employees are employed by the enterprise and not by any particular establishment of the employer (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Miller Drugs,</I> 255 F. 2d 574; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kroger Co.,</I> 248 F. 2d 935). Accordingly, so long as they perform such functions for the enterprise they would not be exempt as employees employed by a country elevator establishment operated as part of such an enterprise, even while stationed in it or placed on its payroll.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.718" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.389.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.718   Employees who may be exempt.</HEAD>
<P>Employees employed “by” a country elevator establishment which qualifies for exemption will be exempt, if the “area of production” requirement is met, while they are engaged in any of the customary operations of the establishment which is commonly recognized as a country elevator. Included among such employees are those who are engaged in selling the elevator's goods or services, keeping its books, receiving, handling, and loading out grain, grinding and mixing feed or treating seed for farmers, performing ordinary maintenance and repair of the premises and equipment or engaging in any other work of the establishment which is commonly recognized as part of its operations as a country elevator. An employee employed by such an elevator is not restricted to performing his work inside the establishment. He may also engage in his exempt duties away from the elevator. For example, a salesman who visits farmers on their farms to discuss the storage of their grain in the elevator is performing exempt work while on such visits. It is sufficient that an employee employed by an elevator is, while working away from the establishment, doing the exempt work of the elevator. If the establishment is engaged only in activities commonly recognized as those of a country elevator and none of its employees engaged in any other activities, all the employees employed by the country elevator will come within the exemption if no more than five employees are employed in the establishment in such operations and if the “area of production” requirement is met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.719" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.389.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.719   Employees not employed “by” the elevator establishment.</HEAD>
<P>Since the exemption depends on employment “by” an establishment qualified for exemption rather than simply the work of the employee, employees who are not employed by the country elevator are not exempt. This is so even though they work in the establishment and engage in duties which are part of the services which are commonly recognized as those of a country elevator. Since they are not employed by the elevator, employees of independent contractors, farmers and others who work in or for the elevator are not exempt under section 13(b)(14) simply because they work in or for the elevator (see <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Friend,</I> 156 F. 2d 429; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kroger,</I> 248 F. 2d 935; <I>Durkin</I> v. <I>Joyce Agency,</I> 110 F. Supp. 918, affirmed sub. nom. <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Joyce Agency,</I> 348 U.S. 945). Thus an employee of an independent contractor who works inside the elevator in drying grain for the elevator is not exempt under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="390" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.390" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employment “Within the Area of Production”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.720" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.390.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.720   “Area of production” requirement of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the requirements for exemption previously discussed, section 13(b)(14) requires that the employee employed by an establishment commonly recognized as a country elevator be “employed within the area of production (as defined by the Secretary).” Regulations defining employment within the “area of production” for purposes of section 13(b)(14) are contained in part 536 of this chapter. All the requirements of the applicable regulations must be met in order for the exemption to apply.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the regulations, an employee is considered to be employed within “the area of production” within the meaning of section 13(b)(14) if the country elevator establishment by which he is employed is located in the “open country or a rural community,” as defined in the regulations, and receives 95 percent or more of the agricultural commodities handled through its elevator services from normal rural sources of supply within specified distances from the country elevator. A definition of “area of production” in terms of such criteria has been upheld by the U.S. Supreme Court in <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473. Reference should be made to part 536 of this chapter for the precise requirements of the definition.
</P>
<P>(c) However, it is appropriate to point out here that nothing in the definition places limits on the distance from which commodities come to the elevator for purposes other than the storage of marketing of farm products. The commodities, 95 percent of which are required by definition to come from specified distances, are those agriculural commodities received by the elevator with respect to which it performs the primary concentration, storage, and marketing functions of a country elevator as previously explained (see § 780.708). This is consistent with the emphasis given, in the legislative history, to the country elevator's function of marketing farm products, mostly grain, for farmers (see 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 5883). Commodities brought or shipped to a country elevator establishment not for storage or for market but in connection with its secondary, incidental, or side-line functions of selling products and services used in the operation of a farm (see § 780.610) are not required to be counted in determining whether 95 percent of the agricultural commodities handled come from rural sources of supply within the specified distances.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="391" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.391" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Workweek Application of Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.721" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.391.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.721   Employment in the particular workweek as test of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The period for determining whether the “area of production” requirement of section 13(b)(14) is met is prescribed in the regulations in part 536 of this chapter. Whether or not an establishment is one commonly recognized as a country elevator must be tested by general functions and attributes over a representative period of time, as previously explained, and requires reexamination for exemption purposes only if these change. But insofar as the exemption depends for its application on the employment of employees, it applies on a workweek basis. An employee employed by the establishment is not exempt in any workweek when more than five employees “are employed in the establishment in such operations,” as previously explained (see §§ 780.712 through 780.715). Nor is any employee within the exemption in a workweek when he is not employed “by” the establishment within the meaning of section 13(b)(14) (see §§ 780.716 through 780.719). This is in accordance with the general rule that the unit of time to be used in determining the application of the Act and its exemptions to an employee is the workweek. (See <I>Overnight Motor Transportation Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op. Ass'n,</I> 80 F. Supp. 953, affirmed 181 F. 2d 697.) A workweek is a fixed and regularly recurring interval of seven consecutive 24-hour periods. It may begin at any hour of any day set by the employer and need not coincide with the calendar week. Once the workweek has been set it commences each succeeding week on the same day and at the same hour. Changing the workweek for the purpose of escaping the requirements of the Act is not permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.722" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.391.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.722   Exempt workweeks.</HEAD>
<P>An employee performing work for an establishment commonly recognized as a country elevator is exempt under section 13(b)(14) in any workweek when he is, for the entire workweek, employed “by” such establishment, if no more than five employees are “employed in the establishment in such operations”, and if the “area of production” requirement is met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.723" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.391.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.723   Exempt and nonexempt employment.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 13(b)(14), where an employee, for part of his workweek, is employed “by” an “exempt” establishment (one commonly recognized as a country elevator which has five employees or less employed in the establishment in such operations in that workweek) and the employee is, in his employment by the establishment, employed “within the area of production” as defined by the regulations, but in the remainder of the workweek is employed by his employer in an establishment or in activities not within this or another exemption provided by the Act, in the course of which he performs any work to which the Act applies, the employee is, not exempt for any part of that workweek (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>Waialua</I> v. <I>Maneja,</I> 77 F. Supp. 480; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Peacock Corp.,</I> 58 F. Supp. 880; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op. Ass'n,</I> 181 F. 2d 697).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.724" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.8.391.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.724   Work exempt under another section of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee's employment during part of his workweek would qualify for exemption under section 13(b)(14) if it continued throughout the workweek, and the remainder of his workweek is spent in employment which, if it continued throughout the workweek, would qualify for exemption under another section or sections of the Act, the exemptions may be combined (see <I>Remington</I> v. <I>Shaw</I> (W.D. Mich.) 2 WH Cases 262). The employee, however, qualifies for exemption only to the extent of the exemption which is more limited in scope (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913). For example, if part of the work is exempt from both minimum wage and overtime compensation under one section of the Act and the rest is exempt only from the overtime pay provisions under another section, the employee is exempt that week from the overtime provisions, but not from the minimum wage requirements. In this connection, attention is directed to another exemption in the Act which relates to work in grain elevators, which may apply in appropriate circumstances, either in combination with section 13(b)(14) or to employees for whom the requirements of section 13(b)(14) cannot be met. This other exemption is that provided by section 7(c). Section 7(c), which is discussed in part 526 of this chapter, provides a limited overtime exemption for employees employed in the seasonal industry of storing grain in country grain elevators, public terminal and sub-terminal elevators, wheat flour mills, nonelevator bulk storing establishments and flat warehouses, § 526.10(b)(14) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Employment in Ginning of Cotton and Processing of Sugar Beets, Sugar-Beet Molasses, Sugarcane, or Maple Sap into Sugar or Syrup; Exemption From Overtime Pay Requirements Under Section 13(b)(15)</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="392" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.392" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.800" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.392.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.800   Scope and significance of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part 780 and this subpart I constitute the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of section 13(b)(15) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. This section provides an exemption from the overtime pay provisions of the Act for two industries (a) for employees engaged in ginning of cotton for market in any place of employment located in a county where cotton is grown in commercial quantities and (b) for employees engaged in the processing of sugar beets, sugar-beet molasses, sugarcane or maple sap, into sugar (other than refined sugar) or syrup. The limited overtime exemptions provided for cotton ginning and for sugar processing under sections 7(c) and 7(d) (see part 526 of this chapter) are not discussed in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.801" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.392.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.801   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(15) of the Fair Labor Standards Act exempts from the overtime requirements of section 7:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee engaged in ginning of cotton for market, in any place of employment located in a county where cotton is grown in commercial quantities, or in the processing of sugar beets, sugar-beet molasses, sugarcane, or maple sap, into sugar (other than refined sugar) or syrup.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Section 13(b)(15) supplants two exemptions that were contained in the Act prior to the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966. The first is former section 13(a)(18), having identical language, which provided a complete exemption for those employed in the ginning of cotton. The second is the former section 7(c) which provided an overtime exemption for the employees of an employer engaged in sugar processing operations resulting in unrefined sugar or syrup.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.802" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.392.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.802   What determines application of the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>It is apparent from the language of section 13(b)(15) that the application of this exemption depends upon the nature and purpose of the work performed by the individual employee for whom exemption is sought, and in the case of ginning of cotton on the location of the place of employment where the work is done and other factors as well. It does not depend upon the character of the business of the employer. A determination of whether an employee is exempt therefore requires an examination of that employee's duties. Some employees of the employer may be exempt while others may not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.803" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.392.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.803   Basic conditions of exemption; first part, ginning of cotton.</HEAD>
<P>Under the first part of section 13(b)(15) of the Act, the ginning of cotton, all the following conditions must be met in order for the exemption to apply to an employee:
</P>
<P>(a) He must be “engaged in ginning.”
</P>
<P>(b) The commodity ginned must be cotton.
</P>
<P>(c) The ginning of the cotton must be “for market.”
</P>
<P>(d) The place of employment in which this work is done must be “located in a county where cotton is grown in commercial quantities.” The following sections discuss the meaning and application of these requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="393" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.393" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Ginning of Cotton for Market</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.804" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.393.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.804   “Ginning” of cotton.</HEAD>
<P>The term “ginning” refers to operations performed on “seed cotton” to separate the seeds from the spinnable fibers. (<I>Moore</I> v. <I>Farmer's Manufacturing and Ginning Co.,</I> 51 Ariz., 378, 77 F. 2d 209; <I>Frazier</I> v. <I>Stone,</I> 171 Miss. 56, 156 So. 596). “Seed cotton” is cotton in its natural state (<I>Burchfield</I> v. <I>Tanner,</I> 142 Tex. 404, 178 S.W. 2d 681, 683) and the ginning to which section 13(b)(15) refers is the “first processing” of this agricultural commodity (107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 5887), which converts it into the marketable product commonly known as “lint cotton” (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Southern Pickery Inc.</I> (W.D. Tenn.) 278 F. Supp. 729; <I>Mangan</I> v. <I>State,</I> 76 Ala. 60, 66) by removing the seed from the lint and then pressing and wrapping the lint into bales.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.805" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.393.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.805   Ginning of “cotton.”</HEAD>
<P>Only the ginning of “cotton” is within the first part of the exemption. An employee engaged in ginning of moss, for example, would not be exempt. The reconditioning of cotton waste resulting from spinning or oil mill operations is not included, since such waste is not the agricultural commodity in its natural state for whose first processing the exemption was provided. (See 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 5887.) The “cotton,” “seed cotton,” and “lint cotton” ginned by ordinary gins do not include “linter” or “Grabbot” cotton, obtained by reginning cotton seed and hard locks of cotton mixed with hulls, bolls, and other substances which could not be removed by ordinary ginning (<I>Mississippi Levee Com'rs</I> v. <I>Refuge Cotton Oil Co.,</I> 91 Miss. 480, 44 So. 828, 829). Mote ginning, the process whereby raw motes (leaves, trash, sticks, dirt, and immature cotton with some cottonseed) are run through a ginning process to extract the short-fiber cotton, is not included in the ginning of cotton unless it is done as a part of the whole ginning process in one gin establishment as a continuous and uninterrupted series of operations resulting in useful cotton products including the regular “gin” bales, the “mote” bales (short-fiber cotton), and the cottonseed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.806" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.393.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.806   Exempt ginning limited to first processing.</HEAD>
<P>As indicated in § 780.804, the ginning for which the exemption is intended is the first processing of the agricultural commodity, cotton, in its natural form, into lint cotton for market. It does not include further operations which may be performed on the cottonseed or the cotton lint, even though such operations are performed in the same establishment where the ginning is done. Delinting, which is the removal of short fibers and fuzz from cottonseed, is not exempt under section 13(b)(15). It is not first processing of the seed cotton; rather, it is performed on cottonseed, usually in cottonseed processing establishments, and even if regarded as ginning (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Burgess,</I> 239 F. 2d 484) it is not the ginning of cotton for market contemplated by section 13(b)(15). It may come within the overtime exemption provided in section 7(d) of the Act for certain seasonal industries. (See § 526.11(b)(1) of part 526 of this chapter.) Compressing of cotton, which is the pressing of bales into higher density bales than those which come from the gin, is a further processing of the cotton entirely removed from ginning (<I>Peacock</I> v. <I>Lubbock Compress Co.,</I> 252 F. 2d 892). Employees engaged in compressing may, however, be subject to exemption from overtime pay under section 7(c). (See § 526.10(b)(8) of this chapter.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.807" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.393.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.807   Cotton must be ginned “for market.”</HEAD>
<P>As noted in § 780.804, it is ginning of seed cotton which converts the cotton to marketable form. Section 13(b)(15), however, provides an exemption only where the cotton is actually ginned “for market.” (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Southern Pickery, Inc.</I> (W.D. Tenn.) 278 F. Supp. 729.) The ginning of cotton for some other purpose is not exempt work. Cotton is not ginned “for market” if it is not to be marketed in the form in which the ginning operation leaves it. Cotton is not ginned “for market” if it is being ginned preliminary to further processing operations to be performed on the cotton by the same employer before marketing the commodity in an altered form. (Compare <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Park</I> (D. Minn.), 14 WH Cases 43, 36 Labor Cases 65, 191; <I>Bush</I> v. <I>Wilson &amp; Co.,</I> 157 Kans. 82, 138 P. 2d 457; <I>Gaskin</I> v. <I>Clell Coleman &amp; Sons,</I> 2 WH Cases 977.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="394" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.394" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employees “Engaged in” Ginning</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.808" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.394.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.808   Who may qualify for the exemption generally.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption applies to “any employee engaged in” ginning of cotton. This means that the exemption may apply to an employee so engaged, no matter by whom he is employed. Employees of the gin operator, of an independent contractor, or of a farmer may come within the exemption in any workweek when all other conditions of the exemption are met. To come within the exemption, however, an employee's work must be an integral part of ginning of cotton, as previously described. The courts have uniformly held that exemptions in the Act must be construed strictly to carry out the purpose of the Act. (See § 780.2, in subpart A of this part.) No operation in which an employee engages in a place of employment where cotton is ginned is exempt unless it comes within the meaning of the term “ginning.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.809" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.394.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.809   Employees engaged in exempt operations.</HEAD>
<P>Employees engaged in actual ginning operations, as described in § 780.804 will come within the exemption if all other conditions of section 13(b)(15) are met. The following activities are among those within the meaning of the term “engaged in ginning of cotton”:
</P>
<P>(a) “Spotting” vehicles in the gin yard or in nearby areas before or after being weighed.
</P>
<P>(b) Moving vehicles in the gin yard or from nearby areas to the “Suction” and reparking them subsequently.
</P>
<P>(c) Weighing the seed cotton prior to ginning, weighing lint cotton and seed subsequent to ginning (including preparation of weight records and tickets in connection with weighing operations).
</P>
<P>(d) Placing seed cotton in temporary storage at the gin and removing the cotton from such storage to be ginned.
</P>
<P>(e) Operating the suction feed.
</P>
<P>(f) Operating the gin stands and power equipment.
</P>
<P>(g) Making gin repairs during the ginning season. 
</P>
<P>(h) Operating the press, including the handling of bagging and ties in connection with the ginning operations of that gin.
</P>
<P>(i) Removing bales from the press to holding areas on or near the gin premises.
</P>
<P>(j) Others whose work is so directly and physically connected with the ginning process itself that it constitutes an integral part of its actual performance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.810" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.394.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.810   Employees not “engaged in” ginning.</HEAD>
<P>Since an employee must actually be “engaged in” ginning of cotton to come within the exemption, an employee engaged in other tasks, not an integral part of “ginning” operations, will not be exempt. (See, for rule that only the employees performing the work described in the exemption are exempt, <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Burton Mercantile and Gin Co., Inc.,</I> 234 F. Supp. 825, aff'd per curiam 338 F. 2d 414, cert. denied 380 U.S. 965; <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Kelso Gin Co., Inc.</I> (E.D. Ark.) 50 Labor Cases 31, 631, 16 WH Cases 663; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210; <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Meeker Cooperative Light and Power Ass'n</I> 63 F. Supp. 743, affirmed 158 F. 2d 698; <I>Jenkins</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 208 F. 2d 941; <I>Heaburg</I> v. <I>Independent Oil Mill, Inc.,</I> 46 F. Supp. 751; <I>Abram</I> v. <I>San Joaquin Cotton Oil Co.,</I> 46 F. Supp. 969.) The following activities are among those not within the meaning of the term “engaged in ginning of cotton”:
</P>
<P>(a) Transporting seed cotton from farms or other points to the gin.
</P>
<P>(b) General maintenance work (as opposed to operating repairs).
</P>
<P>(c) General office and custodial duties.
</P>
<P>(d) “Watching” duties.
</P>
<P>(e) Working in the seed house.
</P>
<P>(f) Transporting seed, hulls, and ginned bales away from the gin.
</P>
<P>(g) Any activity performed during the “off-season.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="395" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>County Where Cotton Is Grown in Commercial Quantities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.811" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.811   Exemption dependent upon place of employment generally.</HEAD>
<P>Under the first part of section 13(b)(15), if the employee's work meets the requirements for exemption, the location of the place of employment where he performs it will determine whether the exemption is applicable. This location is required to be in a county where cotton is grown in commercial quantities. The exemption will apply, however, to an employee who performs such work in “any” place of employment in such a county. The place of employment in which he engages in ginning need not be an establishment exclusively or even principally devoted to such operations; nor is it important whether the place of employment is on a farm or in a town or city in such a county, or whether or to what extent the cotton ginned there comes from the county in which the ginning is done or from nearby or distant sources. It is enough if the place of employment where the employee is engaged in ginning cotton for market is “located” in such a county.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.812" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.812   “County.”</HEAD>
<P>As used in the section 13(b)(15) exemption, the term “county” refers to the political subdivision of a State commonly known as such, whether or not such a unit bears that name in a particular State. It would, for example, refer to the political subdivision known as a “parish” in the State of Louisiana. A place of employment would not be located in a county, within the meaning of the exemption, if it were located in a city which, in the particular State, was not a part of any county.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.813" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.813   “County where cotton is grown.”</HEAD>
<P>For the exemption to apply, the employee must be ginning cotton in a place of employment in a county where cotton “is grown” in the described quantities. It is the cotton grown, not the cotton ginned in the place of employment, to which the quantity test is applicable. The quantities of cotton ginned in the county do not matter, so long as the requisite quantities are grown there.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.814" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.814   “Grown in commercial quantities.”</HEAD>
<P>Cotton must be “grown in commercial quantities” in the county where the place of employment is located if an employee ginning cotton in such place is to be exempt under section 13(b)(15). The term “commercial quantities” is not defined in the statute, but in the cotton-growing areas of the country there should be little question in most instances as to whether commercial quantities of cotton are grown in the county where the ginning is done. If it should become necessary to determine whether commercial quantities are grown in a particular county, it would appear appropriate in view of crop-year variations to consider average quantities produced over a representative period such as 5 years. On the question of whether the quantities grown are “commercial” quantities, the trade understanding of what are “commercial” quantities of cotton would be important. It would appear appropriate also to measure “commercial” quantities in terms of marketable lint cotton in bales rather than by acreage or amounts of seed cotton grown, since seed cotton is not a commercially marketable product (<I>Mangan</I> v. <I>State,</I> 76 Ala. 60). Also, production of a commodity in “commercial” quantities generally involves quantities sufficient for sale with a reasonable expectation of some return to the producers in excess of costs (<I>Bianco</I> v. <I>Hess</I> (Ariz.), 339 P. 2d 1038; <I>Nystel</I> v. <I>Thomas</I> (Tex. Civ. App.) 42 S.W. 2d 168).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.815" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.815   Basic conditions of exemption; second part, processing of sugar beets, sugar-beet molasses, sugarcane, or maple sap.</HEAD>
<P>Under the second part of section 13(b)(15) of the Act, the following conditions must be met in order for the exemption to apply to an employee:
</P>
<P>(a) He must be engaged in the processing of sugar beets, sugar-beet molasses, sugarcane, or maple sap.
</P>
<P>(b) The product of the processing must be sugar (other than refined sugar) or syrup.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.816" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.816   Processing of specific commodities.</HEAD>
<P>Only the processing of sugar beets, sugar-beet molasses, sugarcane, or maple sap is within the exemption. Operations performed on commodities other than those named are not exempt under this section even though they result in the production of unrefined sugar or syrup. For example, sorghum cane or refinery syrup (which is a byproduct of refined syrup) are not named commodities and employees engaged in processing these products are not exempt under this section even though the resultant product is raw sugar. The loss of exemption would obtain for the same reason for employees engaged in processing sugar, glucose, or ribbon cane syrup into syrup.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.817" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.817   Employees engaged in processing.</HEAD>
<P>Only those employees who are engaged in the processing will come within the exemption. The processing of sugarcane to which the exemption applies and in which the employee must be engaged in order to come within it is considered to begin when the processor receives the cane for processing and to end when the cane is processed “into sugar (other than refined sugar) or syrup.” Employees engaged in the following activities of a sugarcane processing mill are considered to be engaged in “the processing of” the sugarcane into the named products, within the meaning of the exemption:
</P>
<P>(a) Loading of the sugarcane in the field or at a concentration point and hauling the cane to the mill “if performed by employees of the mill.” (Such activities performed by employees of some other employer, such as an independent contractor, are not considered to be within the exemption.)
</P>
<P>(b) Weighing, unloading, and stacking the cane at the mill yard.
</P>
<P>(c) Performing sampling tests (such as a trash test or sucrose content test) on the incoming cane.
</P>
<P>(d) Washing the cane, feeding it into the mill crushers and crushing.
</P>
<P>(e) Operations on the extracted cane juice in the making of raw sugar and molasses: Juice weighing and measurement, heating, clarification, filtration, evaporating, crystallization, centrifuging, and handling and storing the raw sugar or molasses at the plant during the grinding season.
</P>
<P>(f) Laboratory analytical and testing operations at any point in the processing or at the end of the process.
</P>
<P>(g) Loading out raw sugar or molasses during the grinding season.
</P>
<P>(h) Handling, baling, or storing bagasse during the grinding season. 
</P>
<P>(i) Firing boilers and other activities connected with the overall operation of the plant machinery during grinding operations, including cleanup and maintenance work and day-to-day repairs. (This includes shop employees, mechanics, electricians, and employees maintaining stocks of various items used in repairs.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.818" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.818   Employees not engaged in processing.</HEAD>
<P>Employees engaged in operations which are not an integral part of processing of the named commodities will not come within the exemption. The following activities are not considered exempt under section 13(b)(15):
</P>
<P>(a) Office and general clerical work.
</P>
<P>(b) Feeding and housing millhands and visitors (typically this is called the “boarding house”).
</P>
<P>(c) Hauling raw sugar or molasses away from the mill.
</P>
<P>(d) Any work outside the grinding season.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.819" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.9.395.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.819   Production must be of unrefined sugar or syrup.</HEAD>
<P>The second part of the section 13(b)(15) exemption is specifically limited to the production “of sugar (other than refined sugar) or syrup.” The production of “refined sugar” a term which is commonly understood to refer to the refinement of “raw sugar” is expressly excluded. Thus, the exemption does not apply to the manufacture of sugar that is produced by melting sugar, purifying the melted sugar solution through a carbon medium process and the recrystallization of the sugar from this solution. Nor does the exemption apply to the processing of cane syrup into refined sugar or to the further processing of sugar, as for example, beet sugar into powdered or liquid sugar.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Employment in Fruit and Vegetable Harvest Transportation; Exemption From Overtime Pay Requirements Under Section 13(b)(16)</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="396" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.396" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.900" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.396.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.900   Scope and significance of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part 780 and this subpart J together constitute the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of section 13(b)(16) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. This section provides exemption from the overtime pay provisions of the Act for employees engaging in specified transportation activities when fruits and vegetables are harvested. As appears more fully in subpart A of this part, interpretations in this bulletin with respect to the provisions of the Act discussed are official interpretations upon which reliance may be placed and which will guide the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator in the performance of their duties under the Act. The general exemption provided in sections 13(a)(6) and 13(b)(12) of the Act for employees employed in agriculture, are not discussed in this subpart except in their relation to section 13(b)(16). The meaning and application of these exemptions are fully considered in subparts D and E, respectively, of this part 780.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.901" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.396.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.901   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(16) of the Act exempts from the overtime provisions of section 7:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any employee engaged (A) in the transportation and preparation for transportation of fruits or vegetables, whether or not performed by the farmer, from the farm to a place of first processing or first marketing within the same State, or (B) in transportation, whether or not performed by the farmer, between the farm and any point within the same State of persons employed or to be employed in the harvesting of fruits or vegetables.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.902" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.396.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.902   Legislative history of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Since the language of section 13(b)(16) and its predecessor, section 13(a)(22) is identical, the legislative history of former section 13(a)(22) still retains its pertinency and vitality. The former section 13(a)(22) was added to the Act by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1961. The original provision in the House-passed bill was in the form of an amendment to the Act's definition of agriculture. It would have altered the effect of holdings of the courts that operations such as those described in the amendment are not within the agriculture exemption provided by section 13(a)(6) when performed by employees of persons other than the farmer. (<I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 360, certiorari denied 348 U.S. 897; <I>Fort Mason Fruit Co.</I> v. <I>Durkin,</I> 214 F. 2d 363, certiorari denied, 348 U.S. 897.) The amendment was offered to exempt operations which, in the sponsor's view, were meant to be exempt under the original Act. (See 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 4523.) The Conference Committee, in changing the provision to make it a separate exemption made it clear that is was “not intended by the committee of conference to change by this exemption (for the described transportation employees) * * * the application of the Act to any other employees. Nor is it intended that there be any implication of disagreement by the conference committee with the principles and tests governing the application of the present agricultural exemption as enunciated by the courts.” (H. Rept. No. 327, 87th Cong., first session, p. 18.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.903" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.396.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.903   General scope of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption provided by section 13(b)(16) is in two parts, subsection (A), which exempts employees engaged in the described transportation and preparation for transportation of fruits or vegetables, and subsection (B) which exempts employees engaged in the specified transportation of employees who harvest fruits or vegetables. The transportation and preparation for transportation of fruits and vegetables must be from the farm to a place of first processing or first marketing located in the same State where the farm is located; the transportation of harvesters must be between the farm and a place located in the same State as the farm.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.904" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.396.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.904   What determines the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The application of the exemption provided by section 13(b)(16) depends on the nature of the employee's work and not on the character of the employer's business. An employee is not exempt in any workweek unless his employment in that workweek meets all the requirements for exemption. To determine whether an employee is exempt an examination should be made of the duties which that employee performs. Some employees of the employer may be exempt and others may not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.905" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.396.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.905   Employers who may claim exemption.</HEAD>
<P>A nonfarmer, as well as a farmer, who has an employee engaged in the operations specified in section 13(b)(16) may take advantage of the exemption. Employees of contractual haulers, packers, processors, wholesalers, “bird-dog” operators, and others may qualify for exemption. If an employee is engaged in the specified operations, the exemption will apply “whether or not” these operations are “performed by the farmer” who has grown the harvested fruits and vegetables. Where such operations are performed by the farmer, the engagement by his employee in them will provide a basis for exemption under section 13(b)(16) without regard to whether the farmer is performing the operations as an incident to or in conjunction with his farming operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="397" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exempt Operations on Fruits or Vegetables</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.906" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.906   Requisites for exemption generally.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(16), in clause (A), provides an exemption from the overtime pay provision of the Act for an employee during any workweek in which all the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(a) The employee must be engaged “in the transportation and preparation for transportation of fruits and vegetables”; and
</P>
<P>(b) Such transportation must be transportation “from the farm”; and
</P>
<P>(c) The destination to which the fruits or vegetables are transported must be “a place of first processing or first marketing”; and
</P>
<P>(d) The transportation must be from the farm to such destination “within the same State”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.907" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.907   “Fruits or vegetables.”</HEAD>
<P>The exempt operations of preparing for transportation and transporting must be performed with respect to “fruits or vegetables.” The intent of section 13(b)(16) is to exempt such operations on fruits or vegetables which are “just-harvested” and still in their raw and natural state. As explained at the time of adoption of the amendment on the floor of the House, the exemption was intended to eliminate the difference in treatment of farmers and nonfarmers with respect to exemption of such “handling or hauling of fruit or vegetables in their raw or natural state.” (See 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 4523.) Transporting and preparing for transportation other farm products which are not fruits or vegetables are not exempt under section 13(b)(16). For example, operations on livestock, eggs, tobacco, or poultry are nonexempt. Sugarcane is not a fruit or vegetable for purposes of this exemption (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Osceola Farms Co.,</I> 372 F. 2d 584).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.908" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.908   Relation of employee's work to specified transportation.</HEAD>
<P>In order for the exemption to apply to an employee, he must be engaged “in the transportation and preparation for transportation” of the just-harvested fruits or vegetables from the farm to the specified places within the same State. Engagement in other activities is not exempt work. The employee must be actually engaged in the described operations. The exemption is not available for other employees of the employer, such as office, clerical, and maintenance workers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.909" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.909   “Transportation.”</HEAD>
<P>“Transportation,” as used in section 13(b)(16), refers to the movement by any means of conveyance of fruits or vegetables from the farm to a place of first processing or first marketing in the same State. It includes only those activities which are immediately necessary to move the fruits or vegetables to the specified points and the return trips. Drivers, drivers' helpers, loaders, and checkers perform work which is exempt. Transportation ends with delivery at the receiving platform of the place to which the fruits or vegetables are transported. (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473.) Thus, unloading at the delivery point by employees who did not transport the commodities would not be a part of the transportation activities under section 13(b)(16).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.910" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.910   Engagement in transportation and preparation.</HEAD>
<P>Since transportation and preparation for transportation are both exempt activities, an employee who engages in both is performing exempt work. In referring to “the transportation and preparation for transportation” of the fruits or vegetables, the statute recognizes the two activities as interrelated parts of the single task of moving the commodities from the farm to the designated points. Accordingly, the word “and” between the words “transportation” and “preparation” is not considered to require that any employee be employed in both parts of the task in order to be exempt. The exemption may apply to an employee engaged either in transporting or preparing the commodities for transportation if he otherwise qualifies under section 13(b)(16).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.911" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.911   Preparation for transportation.</HEAD>
<P>The “preparation for transportation” of fruits or vegetables includes only those activities which are necessary to prepare the fruits or vegetables for transportation from the farm to the places described in section 13(b)(16). These preliminary activities on the farm will vary with the commodity involved, with the means of the transportation to be used, and with the nature of operations to be performed on the commodity after delivery. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.912" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.912   Exempt preparation.</HEAD>
<P>The following operations, if required in order to move the commodities from the farm and to deliver them to a place of first marketing or first processing, are considered preparation for transportation: Assembling, weighing, placing the fruits or vegetables in containers such as lugs, crates, boxes or bags, icing, marking, labeling or fastening containers, and moving the commodities from storage or concentration areas on the farm to loading sites.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.913" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.913   Nonexempt preparation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retail packing.</I> Since the exemption, as expressly stated in section 13(b)(16), includes the transportation of the fruits or vegetables only to places of first marketing or first processing, packing or preparing for retail or further distribution beyond the place of first processing or first marketing is not exempt as “preparation for transportation.” (<I>Schultz</I> v. <I>Durrence</I> (D. Ga.), 19 WH Cases 747, 63 CCH Lab. Cas. secs. 32, 387.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preparation for market.</I> No exemption is provided under section 13(b)(16) for operations performed on the farm in preparation for market (such as ripening, cleaning, grading, or sorting) rather than in preparation for the transportation described in the section. Exemption, if any, for these activities should be considered under sections 13(a)(6) and 13(b)(12). (See subparts D and E of this part 780.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing or canning.</I> Processing is not exempt preparation for transportation. Thus, the canning of fruits or vegetables is not under section 13(b)(16).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.914" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.914   “From the farm.”</HEAD>
<P>The exemption applies only to employees whose work relates to transportation of fruits or vegetables “from the farm.” The phrase “from the farm” makes it clear that the preparation of the fruits or vegetables should be performed on the farm and that the first movement of the commodities should commence at the farm. A “farm” has been interpreted under the Act to mean a tract of land devoted to one or more of the primary branches of farming outlined in the definition of “agriculture” in section 3(f) of the Act. These expressly include the cultivation and tillage of the soil and the growing and harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.915" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.915   “Place of first processing.”</HEAD>
<P>Under section 13(b)(16) the fruits or vegetables may be transported to only two types of places. One is a “place of first processing”, which includes any place where canning, freezing, drying, preserving, or other operations which first change the form of the fresh fruits or vegetables from their raw and natural state are performed. (For overtime exemption applicable to “first processing,” see part 526 of this chapter.) A plant which grades and packs only is not a place of first processing (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>DeSoto Creamery and Produce Co.,</I> 51 F. Supp. 938). However, a packer's plant may qualify as a place of first marketing. (See § 780.916.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.916" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.916   “Place of * * * first marketing.”</HEAD>
<P>A “place of * * * first marketing” is the second of the two types of places to which the freshly harvested fruits or vegetables may be transported from the farm under the exemption provided by section 13(b)(16). Typically, a place of first marketing is a farmer's market of the kind to which “delivery to market” is made within the meaning of section 3(f) of the Act when a farmer delivers such commodities there as an incident to or in conjunction with his own farming operations. Under section 13(b)(16), of course, there is no requirement that the transportation be performed by or for a farmer or as an incident to or in conjunction with any farming operations. A place of first marketing may be described in general terms as a place at which the freshly harvested fruits or vegetables brought from the farm are first delivered for marketing, such as a packing plant or an establishment of a wholesaler or other distributor, cooperative marketing agency, or processor to which the fruits or vegetables are first brought from the farm and delivered for sale. A place of first marketing may also be a place of first processing (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Budd,</I> 350 U.S. 473) but it need not be. The “first place of packing” to which the just-harvested fruits or vegetables are transported from the farm is intended to be included. (See 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 4523.) Transportation to places which are not first processing or first marketing places is not exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.917" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.397.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.917   “Within the same State.”</HEAD>
<P>To qualify for exemption under section 13(b)(16), the transportation of the fruits or vegetables must be made to the specified places “within the same State” in which the farm is located. Transportation is made to a place “within the same State” when the commodities are taken from the farm, hauled and delivered within the same State to first markets or first processors for sale or processing at the place of delivery. The exemption is not provided for transportation to any place of first marketing or first processing across State lines and does not apply to any part of the transportation within the State of fruits or vegetables destined for a place in another State at which they are to be first marketed or first processed. Transportation from the farm to an intermediate point in such a journey located within the same State would not qualify for exemption; it would make no difference that the intermediate point is a place of first marketing or first processing for other fruits or vegetables if it is not actually such for the fruits or vegetables being transported. On the other hand, where the place to which fruits or vegetables are transported from the farm within the same State is actually the place of first marketing or first processing of those very commodities, transportation of the goods across State lines by the first-market operator or first processor, after such delivery to him within the State, does not affect the nature of the delivery to him as one made within the State.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="398" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.398" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exempt Transportation of Fruit or Vegetable Harvest Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.918" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.398.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.918   Requisites for exemption generally.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(16), in clause (B), provides an exemption from the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions of the Act for an employee during any workweek in which all the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(a) The employee must be engaged “in transportation” of harvest workers; and
</P>
<P>(b) The harvest workers transported must be “persons employed or to be employed in the harvesting of fruits or vegetables”; and
</P>
<P>(c) The employee's transportation of such harvest workers must be “between the farm and any point within the same State.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.919" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.398.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.919   Engagement “in transportation” of harvest workers.</HEAD>
<P>In order for the exemption to apply, the employees must be engaged “in transportation” of the specified harvest workers between the points stated in the statute. Actual engagement “in transportation” of such workers is required. Engagement in other activities is not exempt work. Drivers, driver's helpers, and others who are engaged in the actual movement of the persons transported may qualify for the exemption. Office employees, garage mechanics, and other employees of the employer who may perform supporting activities but do not engage in the actual transportation work do not come within the exemption. There is no restriction in the statute as to the means of conveyance used; the exempt transportation may be by land, air, or water in any vehicle or conveyance appropriate for the purpose. Employees of any employer who are engaged in the specified transportation activities may qualify for exemption; it is not necessary that the transportation be performed by the farmer. (See § 780.905.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.920" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.398.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.920   Workers transported must be fruit or vegetable harvest workers.</HEAD>
<P>Clause (B) of section 13(b)(16) exempts only those transportation employees who are engaged in transportation “of persons employed or to be employed in the harvesting of fruits or vegetables.” Transportation of harvest workers is not exempt unless the workers are fruit and vegetable harvest workers; transportation of workers employed or to be employed in harvesting or other commodities is not exempt work under section 13(b)(16). <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Osceola Farms Co.,</I> 372 F. (2d) 584 (C.A. 5). Nor does the exemption apply to the transportation of persons for the purpose of planting or cultivating any crop, whether or not it is a fruit or a vegetable crop.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.921" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.398.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.921   Persons “employed or to be employed” in fruit or vegetable harvesting.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption applies to the transportation of persons “employed or to be employed” in the harvesting of fruits or vegetables. Included in this phrase are persons who at the time of transportation are currently employed in harvesting fruits or vegetables and others who, regardless of their occupation at such time, are being transported to be employed in such harvesting. The conveying of persons to a farm from a factory, packinghouse or processing plant would be exempt where their transportation is for the purpose of their employment in harvesting the named commodities. On the other hand, the transportation of harvest workers, who have been employed in the fruit or vegetable harvest, to such a plant for the purpose of their employment in the plant would not be exempt. The transportation must come within the intended scope of section 13(b)(16) which is to provide exemption for “transportation of the harvest crew to and from the farm” (see 107 Cong. Rec. daily ed. p. 4523).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.922" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.398.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.922   “Harvesting” of fruits or vegetables.</HEAD>
<P>Only transportation of employees employed or to be employed in the “harvesting” of fruits or vegetables is exempt under clause (B) of section 13(b)(16). As indicated in § 780.920, such harvest workers do not include employees employed or to be employed in planting or cultivating the crop. Nor do they include employees employed or to be employed in operations subsequent to harvesting, even where such operations constitute “agriculture” within the definition in section 3(f) of the Act. “Harvesting” refers to the removal of fruits or vegetables from their growing position in the fields, and as explained in § 780.118 of this part, includes the operations customarily performed in connection with this severance of the crops from the soil (see <I>Vives</I> v. <I>Serralles,</I> 145 F. 2d 552), but does not extend to operations subsequent to and unconnected with the actual severance process or to operations performed off the farm. It may include moving the fruits or vegetables to concentration points on the farm, but would not include packingshed or other operations performed in preparation for market rather than as part of harvesting, such as ripening, cleaning, grading, sorting, drying, and storing. If the workers are employed or to be employed in “harvesting”, it does not matter for purposes of the exemption whether a farmer or someone else employs them or does the harvesting. It is the character of their employment as “harvesting” and not the identity of their employer or the owner of the crop which determines whether their transportation to and from the farm will provide a basis for exemption of the transportation of employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.923" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.10.398.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.923   “Between the farm and any point within the same State.”</HEAD>
<P>The transportation of fruit or vegetable harvest workers is permitted “between the farm and any point within the same State”. The exempt transportation of such harvest workers therefore includes their movement to and from the farm (see 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 4523). Such transportation must, however, be from or to points “within the same State” in which the farm is located. Crossing of State lines is not contemplated. Thus, the exemption would not apply to day-haul transportation of fruit or vegetable harvest workers between a town in one State and farms located in another State. Also, the intent to exempt “transportation of the harvest crew to and from the farm” (see 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 4523) within a single State would not justify exemption of the transportation of workers from one State to another to engage in harvest work in the latter State. The exemption does not apply to transportation of persons on any trip, or any portion of a trip, in which the point of origin or point of destination is in another State. Subject to these limitations, however, where employees are being transported for employment in harvesting they may be picked up in any place within the State, including other farms, packing or processing establishments, factories, transportation terminals, and other places. The broad term “any point” must be interpreted in the light of the purpose of the exemption to facilitate the harvesting of fruits or vegetables. Transportation from a farm to “any point” within the same State (such as a factory or processing plant) where some other purpose than harvesting is served is not exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Employment of Home- workers in Making Wreaths; Exemption From Minimum Wage, Overtime Compensation, and Child Labor Provisions Under Section 13(d)</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="399" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.399" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1000" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.399.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1000   Scope and significance of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part 780 and this subpart K together constitute the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of section 13(d) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. This section provides an exemption from the minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor provisions of the Act for certain homeworkers employed in making wreaths from evergreens and in harvesting evergreens and other forest products for use in making wreaths. Attention is directed to the fact that a limited overtime exemption for employees employed in the decoration greens industry is provided under section 7(c) of the Act (see part 526 of this chapter). The section 7(c) exemption is not limited to homeworkers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1001" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.399.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1001   General explanatory statement.</HEAD>
<P>Workers in rural areas sometimes engage, as a family unit, around the Christmas holidays, in gathering evergreens and making them into wreaths in their homes. Such workers, under well-settled interpretations by the Department of Labor and the courts, have been held to be employees of the firm which purchases the wreaths and furnishes the workers with wire used in making such wreaths.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="400" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1002" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1002   Statutory requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(d) of the Fair Labor Standards Act exempts from the minimum wage provisions of section 6, the overtime requirements of section 7 and the child labor restrictions of section 12:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any homeworker engaged in the making of wreaths composed principally of natural holly, pine, cedar, or other evergreens (including the harvesting of the evergreens or other forest products used in making such wreaths).</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1003" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1003   What determines the application of the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The application of this exemption depends on the nature of the employee's work and not on the character of the employer's business. To determine whether an employee is exempt an examination should be made of the activities which that employee performs and the conditions under which he performs them. Some employees of the employer may be exempt and others may not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1004" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1004   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The general requirements of the exemption are that:
</P>
<P>(a) The employee must be a homeworker;
</P>
<P>(b) The employee must be engaged in making wreaths as a homeworker;
</P>
<P>(c) The wreaths must be made principally of evergreens;
</P>
<P>(d) Any harvesting of the evergreens and other forest products by the homeworkers must be for use in making the wreaths by homeworkers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1005" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1005   Homeworkers.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption applies to “any homeworker.” A homeworker within the meaning of the Act is a person who works for an employer in or about a home, apartment, tenement, or room in a residential establishment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1006" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1006   In or about a home.</HEAD>
<P>Whether the work of an employee is being performed “in or about a home,” so that he may be considered a homeworker, must be determined on the facts in the particular case. In general, however the phrase “in or about a home” includes any home, apartment, or other dwelling place and surrounding premises, such yards, garages, sheds or basements. A convent, orphanage or similar institution is considered a home.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1007" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1007   Exemption is inapplicable if wreath-making is not in or about a home.</HEAD>
<P>The section 13(d) exemption does not apply when the wreaths are made in or about a place which is not considered a “home”. Careful consideration is required in many cases to determine whether work is being performed in or about a home. Thus, the circumstances under which an employee may engage in work in what ostensibly is a “home” may require the conclusion, on an examination of all the facts, that the work is not being performed in or about a home within the intent of the term and for purposes of section 13(d) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1008" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1008   Examples of places not considered homes.</HEAD>
<P>The following are examples of workplaces which, on examination, have been considered not to be a “home”:
</P>
<P>(a) Living quarters allocated to and regularly used solely for production purposes, where workers work regular schedules and are under constant supervision by the employer, are not considered to be a home.
</P>
<P>(b) While a convent, orphanage or similar institution is considered a home, an area in such place which is set aside for and used for sewing or other productive work under supervision is not a home.
</P>
<P>(c) Where an employee performs work on wreaths in a home and also engages in work on the wreaths for the employer during that workweek in a factory, he is not exempt in that week, since some of his work is not performed in a home.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1009" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1009   Wreaths.</HEAD>
<P>The only product which may be produced under the section 13(d) exemption by a homeworker is a wreath having no less than the specified evergreen content. The making of a product other than a wreath is nonexempt even though it is made principally of evergreens.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1010" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1010   Principally.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption is intended to apply to the making of an evergreen wreath. Such a wreath is one made “principally” of evergreens. <I>Principally</I> means chiefly, in the main or mainly (<I>Hartford Accident and Indemnity Co.</I> v. <I>Casualty Underwriters Insurance Co.,</I> 130 F. Supp. 56). A wreath is made “principally” of evergreens when it is comprised mostly of evergreens. For example, where a wreath is composed of evergreens and other kinds of material, the evergreens should comprise a greater part of the wreath than all the other materials together, including materials such as frames, stands, and wires. The principal portion of a wreath may consist of any one or any combination of the evergreens listed in section 13(d), including “other evergreens.” The making of wreaths in which natural evergreens are a secondary component is not exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1011" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1011   Evergreens.</HEAD>
<P>The material which must principally be used in making the wreaths is listed as “natural holly, pine, cedar, or other evergreens.” Other plants or materials cannot be used to satisfy this requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1012" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1012   Other evergreens.</HEAD>
<P>The “other evergreens” of which the wreath may be principally made include any plant which retains its greenness through all the seasons of the year, such as laurel, ivy, yew, fir, and others. While plants other than evergreens may be used in making the wreaths, such plants, whether they are forest products cultivated plants, cannot be considered as part of the required principal evergreen component of the wreath.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1013" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1013   Natural evergreens.</HEAD>
<P>Only “natural” evergreens may comprise the principal part of the wreath. The word “natural” qualifies all of the evergreens listed in the section, including “other evergreens.” The term <I>natural</I> means that the evergreens at the time they are being used in making a wreath must be in the raw and natural state in which they have been harvested. Artificial evergreens (<I>Herring Magic</I> v. <I>U.S.,</I> 258 F. 2d 197; <I>Cal. Casualty Indemnity Exchange</I> v. <I>Industrial Accident Commission of Cal.</I> 90 P. 2d 289) or evergreens which have been processed as by drying and spraying with tinsel or by other means are not included. It is immaterial whether the natural evergreen used in making a wreath has been cultivated or is a product of the woods or forest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1014" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1014   Harvesting.</HEAD>
<P>The homeworker is permitted to harvest evergreens and other forest products to be used in making the wreath. The word <I>harvesting</I> means the removal of evergreens and other forest products from their growing positions in the woods or forest, including transportation of the harvested products to the home of the homeworker and the performance of other duties necessary for such harvesting.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1015" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1015   Other forest products.</HEAD>
<P>The homeworker may also harvest “other forest products” for use in making wreaths. The term <I>other forest products</I> means any plant of the forest and includes, of course, deciduous plants as well.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1016" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.41.11.400.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1016   Use of evergreens and forest products.</HEAD>
<P>Harvesting of evergreens and other forest products is exempt only when these products will be “used in making such wreaths.” The phrase “used in making such wreaths” places a definite limitation on the purpose for which evergreens may be harvested under section 13(d). Harvesting of these materials for a use other than making wreaths is nonexempt. Also, such harvesting is nonexempt when the evergreens are used for wreathmaking by persons other than the homeworkers (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913). For example, harvesting of evergreens for sale or distribution to an employer who uses them in his factory to make wreaths is not exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="782" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 782—EXEMPTION FROM MAXIMUM HOURS PROVISIONS FOR CERTAIN EMPLOYEES OF MOTOR CARRIERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 21778, Nov. 13, 1971, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 782.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.0   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Since the enactment of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, the views of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division as to the scope and applicability of the exemption provided by section 13(b)(1) of the act have been expressed in interpretations issued from time to time in various forms. This part, as of the date of its publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> supersedes and replaces such prior interpretations. Its purpose is to make available in one place general interpretations of the Administrator which will provide “a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in enforcement of the law will seek to apply it.” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134)
</P>
<P>(b) The interpretations contained in this part indicate, with respect to the scope and applicability of the exemption provided by section 13(b)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, the construction of the law which the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator believe to be correct in the light of the decisions of the courts, the Interstate Commerce Commission, and since October 15, 1966, its successor, the Secretary of Transportation, and which will guide them in the performance of their administrative duties under the act unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude upon reexamination of an interpretation that it is incorrect.
</P>
<P>(c) Public Law 89-670 (80 Stat. 931) transferred to and vested in the Secretary of Transportation all functions, powers, and duties of the Interstate Commerce Commission: (1) Under section 204 (a)(1) and (a)(2) to the extent they relate to qualifications and maximum hours of service of employees and safety of operations and equipment, and (2) under section 204(a)(5) of the Motor Carrier Act. The interpretations contained in this part are interpretations on which reliance may be placed as provided in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act (Pub. L. 49, 80th Cong., first sess. (61 Stat. 84), discussed in part 790, statement on effect of Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947), so long as they remain effective and are not modified, amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial authority to be incorrect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.1   Statutory provisions considered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 13(b)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act provides an exemption from the maximum hours and overtime requirements of section 7 of the act, but not from the minimum wage requirements of section 6. The exemption is applicable to any employee with respect to whom the Secretary of Transportation has power to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service pursuant to the provisions of section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act of 1935, (part II of the Interstate Commerce Act, 49 Stat. 546, as amended; 49 U.S.C. 304, as amended by Pub. L. 89-670, section 8e which substituted “Secretary of Transportation” for “Interstate Commerce Commission”—Oct. 15, 1966) except that the exemption is not applicable to any employee with respect to whom the Secretary of Transportation has power to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service solely by virtue of section 204(a)(3a) of part II of the Interstate Commerce Act. (Pub. L. 939, 84th Cong., second sess., Aug. 3, 1956, secs. 2 and 3) The Fair Labor Standards Act confers no authority on the Secretary of Labor or the Administrator to extend or restrict the scope of this exemption. It is settled by decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court that the applicability of the exemption to an employee otherwise entitled to the benefits of the Fair Labor Standards Act is determined exclusively by the existence of the power conferred under section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service with respect to him. It is not material whether such qualifications and maximum hours of service have actually been established by the Secretary of Transportation; the controlling consideration is whether the employee comes within his power to do so. The exemption is not operative in the absence of such power, but an employee with respect to whom the Secretary of Transportation has such power is excluded, automatically, from the benefits of section 7 of the Fair Labor Standards Act. (<I>Southland Gasoline Co.</I> v. <I>Bayley,</I> 319 U.S. 44; <I>Boutell</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 327 U.S. 463; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422)
</P>
<P>(b) Section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act, 1935, provides that it shall be the duty of the Interstate Commerce Commission (now that of the Secretary of Transportation (see § 782.0(c))) to regulate common and contract carriers by motor vehicle as provided in that act, and that “to that end the Commission may establish reasonable requirements with respect to * * * qualifications and maximum hours of service of employees, and safety of operation and equipment.” (Motor Carrier Act, sec. 204(a)(1)(2), 49 U.S.C. 304(a)(1)(2)) Section 204 further provides for the establishing of similar regulations with respect to private carriers of property by motor vehicle, if need therefor is found. (Motor Carrier Act, sec. 204(a)(3), 49 U.S.C. 304(a)(3))
</P>
<P>(c) Other provisions of the Motor Carrier Act which have a bearing on the scope of section 204 include those which define common and contract carriers by motor vehicle, motor carriers, private carriers of property by motor vehicle (Motor Carrier Act, sec. 203(a) (14), (15), (16), (17), 49 U.S.C. sec. 303(a) (14), (15), (16), (17)) and motor vehicle (Motor Carrier Act, sec. 203(a)(13)); those which confer regulatory powers with respect to the transportation of passengers or property by motor carriers engaged in interstate or foreign commerce (Motor Carrier Act, sec. 202(a)), as defined in the Motor Carrier Act, sec. 203(a) (10), (11), and reserve to each State the exclusive exercise of the power of regulation of intrastate commerce by motor carriers on its highways (Motor Carrier Act, sec. 202(b)); and those which expressly make section 204 applicable to certain transportation in interstate or foreign commerce which is in other respects excluded from regulation under the act. (Motor Carrier Act, sec. 202(c))


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.2   Requirements for exemption in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The exemption of an employee from the hours provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act under section 13(b)(1) depends both on the class to which his employer belongs and on the class of work involved in the employee's job. The power of the Secretary of Transportation to establish maximum hours and qualifications of service of employees, on which exemption depends, extends to those classes of employees and those only who: (1) Are employed by carriers whose transportation of passengers or property by motor vehicle is subject to his jurisdiction under section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act (<I>Boutell</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 327 U.S. 463; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Casale,</I> 51 F. Supp. 520; and see Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, in the Matter of Maximum Hours of Service of Motor Carrier Employees, 28 M.C.C. 125, 132), and (2) engage in activities of a character directly affecting the safety of operation of motor vehicles in the transportation on the public highways of passengers or property in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act. <I>United States</I> v. <I>American Trucking Assns.,</I> 310 U.S. 534; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; Ex parte No. MC-28, 13 M.C.C. 481; Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Comet Carriers,</I> 151 F. (2d) 107 (C.A. 2).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The carriers whose transportation activities are subject to the Secretary of Transportation jurisdiction are specified in the Motor Carrier Act itself (see § 782.1). His jurisdiction over private carriers is limited by the statute to private carriers of property by motor vehicle, as defined therein, while his jurisdiction extends to common and contract carriers of both passengers and property. See also the discussion of special classes of carriers in § 782.8. And see paragraph (d) of this section. The U.S. Supreme Court has accepted the Agency determination, that activities of this character are included in the kinds of work which has been defined as the work of drivers, driver's helpers, loaders, and mechanics (see §§ 782.3 to 782.6) employed by such carriers, and that no other classes of employees employed by such carriers perform duties directly affecting such “safety of operation.” Ex parte No. MC-2, 11 M.C.C. 203; Ex parte No. MC-28, 13 M.C.C. 481; Ex parte No. MC-3, 23 M.C.C. 1; Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Southland Gasoline Co.</I> v. <I>Bayley,</I> 319 U.S. 44. See also paragraph (d) of this section and §§ 782.3 through 782.8.
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption is applicable, under decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court, to those employees and those only whose work involves engagement in activities consisting wholly or in part of a class of work which is defined: (i) As that of a driver, driver's helper, loader, or mechanic, and (ii) as directly affecting the safety of operation of motor vehicles on the public highways in transportation in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act. <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 442. Although the Supreme Court recognized that the special knowledge and experience required to determine what classifications of work affects safety of operation of interstate motor carriers was applied by the Commission, it has made it clear that the determination whether or not an individual employee is within any such classification is to be determined by judicial process. (<I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; Cf. <I>Missel</I> v. <I>Overnight Motor Transp.,</I> 40 F. Supp. 174 (D. Md.), reversed on other grounds 126 F. (2d) 98 (C.A. 4), affirmed 316 U.S. 572; <I>West</I> v. <I>Smoky Mountains Stages,</I> 40 F. Supp. 296 (N.D. Ga.); <I>Magann</I> v. <I>Long's Baggage Transfer Co.,</I> 39 F. Supp. 742 (W.D. Va.); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Burlington Transp. Co.</I> (D. Nebr.), 5 W.H. Cases 172, 9 Labor Cases par. 62,576; <I>Hager</I> v. <I>Brinks, Inc.,</I> 6 W.H. Cases 262 (N.D. Ill.)) In determining whether an employee falls within such an exempt category, neither the name given to his position nor that given to the work that he does is controlling (<I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Porter</I> v. <I>Poindexter,</I> 158 F.—(2d) 759 (C.A. 10); <I>Keeling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 57 F. Supp. 617 (W.D. Ky.); <I>Crean</I> v. <I>Moran Transp. Lines</I> (W.D. N.Y.) 9 Labor Cases, par. 62,416 (see also earlier opinion in 54 F. Supp. 765)); what is controlling is the character of the activities involved in the performance of his job.
</P>
<P>(3) As a general rule, if the bona fide duties of the job performed by the employee are in fact such that he is (or, in the case of a member of a group of drivers, driver's helpers, loaders, or mechanics employed by a common carrier and engaged in safety-affecting occupations, that he is likely to be) called upon in the ordinary course of his work to perform, either regularly or from time to time, safety-affecting activities of the character described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, he comes within the exemption in all workweeks when he is employed at such job. This general rule assumes that the activities involved in the continuing duties of the job in all such workweeks will include activities which have been determined to affect directly the safety of operation of motor vehicles on the public highways in transportation in interstate commerce. Where this is the case, the rule applies regardless of the proportion of the employee's time or of his activities which is actually devoted to such safety-affecting work in the particular workweek, and the exemption will be applicable even in a workweek when the employee happens to perform no work directly affecting “safety of operation.” On the other hand, where the continuing duties of the employee's job have no substantial direct effect on such safety of operation or where such safety-affecting activities are so trivial, casual, and insignificant as to be de minimis, the exemption will not apply to him in any workweek so long as there is no change in his duties. (<I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Rogers Cartage Co.</I> v. <I>Reynolds,</I> 166 F. (2d) 317 (C.A. 6); <I>Opelika Bottling Co.</I> v. <I>Goldberg,</I> 299 F. (2d) 37 (C.A. 5); <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Mason &amp; Dixon Lines, Inc.,</I> 102 F. Supp. 466 (E.D. Tenn.)) If in particular workweeks other duties are assigned to him which result, in those workweeks, in his performance of activities directly affecting the safety of operation of motor vehicles in interstate commerce on the public highways, the exemption will be applicable to him those workweeks, but not in the workweeks when he continues to perform the duties of the non-safety-affecting job. 
</P>
<P>(4) Where the same employee of a carrier is shifted from one job to another periodically or on occasion, the application of the exemption to him in a particular workweek is tested by application of the above principles to the job or jobs in which he is employed in that workweek. Similarly, in the case of an employee of a private carrier whose job does not require him to engage regularly in exempt safety-affecting activities described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and whose engagement in such activities occurs sporadically or occasionally as the result of his work assignments at a particular time, the exemption will apply to him only in those workweeks when he engages in such activities. Also, because the jurisdiction of the Secretary of Transportation over private carriers is limited to carriers of property (see paragraph (b)(1) of this section) a driver, driver's helper, loader, or mechanic employed by a private carrier is not within the exemption in any workweek when his safety-affecting activities relate only to the transporation of passengers and not to the transportation of property.
</P>
<P>(c) The application of these principles may be illustrated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In a situation considered by the U.S. Supreme Court, approximately 4 percent of the total trips made by drivers employed by a common carrier by motor vehicle involved in the hauling of interstate freight. Since it appeared that employer, as a common carrier, was obligated to take such business, and that any driver might be called upon at any time to perform such work, which was indiscriminately distributed among the drivers, the Court considered that such trips were a natural, integral, and apparently inseparable part of the common carrier service performed by the employer and driver employees. Under these circumstances, the Court concluded that such work, which directly affected the safety of operation of the vehicles in interstate commerce, brought the entire classification of drivers employed by the carrier under the power of the Interstate Commerce Commission to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service, so that all were exempt even though the interstate driving on particular employees was sporadic and occasional, and in practice some drivers would not be called upon for long periods to perform any such work. (<I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422)
</P>
<P>(2) In another situation, the U.S. Court of Appeals (Seventh Circuit) held that the exemption would not apply to truckdrivers employed by a private carrier on interstate routes who engaged in no safety-affecting activities of the character described above even though other drivers of the carrier on interstate routes were subject to the jurisdiction of the Motor Carrier Act. The court reaffirmed the principle that the exemption depends not only upon the class to which the employer belongs but also the activities of the individual employee. (<I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Faber Industries,</I> 291 F. (2d) 232)
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<P>(d) The limitations, mentioned in paragraph (a) of this section, on the regulatory power of the Secretary of Transportation (as successor to the Interstate Commerce Commission) under section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act are also limitations on the scope of the exemption. Thus, the exemption does not apply to employees of carriers who are not carriers subject to his jurisdiction, or to employees of noncarriers such as commercial garages, firms engaged in the business of maintaining and repairing motor vehicles owned and operated by carriers, firms engaged in the leasing and renting of motor vehicles to carriers and in keeping such vehicles in condition for service pursuant to the lease or rental agreements. (<I>Boutell</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 327 U.S. 463; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Casale,</I> 51 F. Supp. 520). Similarly, the exemption does not apply to an employee whose job does not involve engagement in any activities which have been defined as those of drivers, drivers' helpers, loaders, or mechanics, and as directly affecting the “safety of operation” of motor vehicles. (<I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>United States</I> v. <I>American Trucking Assn.,</I> 310 U.S. 534; <I>Gordon's Transports</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6); <I>Porter</I> v. <I>Poindexter,</I> 158 F. (2d) 759 (C.A. 10)) Except insofar as the Commission has found that the activities of drivers, drivers' helpers, loaders, and mechanics, as defined by it, directly affect such “safety of operation,” it has disclaimed its power to establish qualifications of maximum hours of service under section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act. (<I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695) <I>Safety of operation</I> as used in section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act means “the safety of operation of motor vehicles in the transportation of passengers or property in interstate or foreign commerce, and that alone.” (Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3 (Conclusions of Law No. 1), 28 M.C.C. 125, 139) Thus the activities of drivers, drivers' helpers, loaders, or mechanics in connection with transportation which is not in interstate of foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act provide no basis for exemption under section 13(b)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. (<I>Walling,</I> v. <I>Comet Carriers,</I> 151 F. (2d) 107 (C.C.A. 2); <I>Hansen</I> v. <I>Salinas Valley Ice Co.</I> (Cal. App.) 144 P. (2d) 896; <I>Reynolds</I> v. <I>Rogers Cartage Co.,</I> 71 F. Supp. 870 (W.D. Ky.), reversed on other grounds, 166 F. (d) 317 (C.A. 6); <I>Earle</I> v. <I>Brinks, Inc.,</I> 54 F. Supp. 676 (S.D. N.Y.); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Villaume Box &amp; Lumber Co.,</I> 58 F. Supp. 150 (D. Minn.); <I>Hager</I> v. <I>Brinks, Inc.,</I> 11 Labor Cases, par. 63,296 (N.D. Ill.), 6 W.H. Cases 262; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>DeSoto Creamery &amp; Produce Co.,</I> 51 F. Supp. 938 (D. Minn.); <I>Dallum</I> v. <I>Farmers Cooperative Trucking Assn.,</I> 46 F. Supp. 785 (D. Minn.); <I>McLendon</I> v. <I>Bewely Mills</I> (N.D. Tex.); 3 Labor Cases, par. 60,247, 1 W.H. Cases 934; <I>Gibson</I> v. <I>Glasgow</I> (Tenn. Sup. Ct.), 157 S.W. (2d) 814; cf. <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422. See also § 782.1 and §§ 782.7 through 782.8.)
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<P>(e) The jurisdiction of the Secretary of Transportation under section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act relates to safety of operation of motor vehicles only, and “to the safety of operation of such vehicles on the highways of the country, and that alone.” (Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 192. See also <I>United States</I> v. <I>American Trucking Assns.,</I> 319 U.S. 534, 548.) Accordingly, the exemption does not extend to employees merely because they engage in activities affecting the safety of operation of motor vehicles operated on private premises. Nor does it extend to employees engaged solely in such activities as operating freight and passenger elevators in the carrier's terminals of moving freight or baggage therein or the docks or streets by hand trucks, which activities have no connection with the actual operation of motor vehicles. (<I>Gordon's Transport</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6), certorari denied 322 U.S. 774; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Comet Carriers,</I> 57 F. Supp. 1018, affirmed, 151 F. (2d) 107 (C.A. 2), certiorari dismissed, 382 U.S. 819; <I>Gibson</I> v. <I>Glasgow</I> (Tenn. Sup. Ct.), 157 S.W. (2d) 814; Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 128. See also Pyramid Motor Freight <I>Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Serv.,</I> 330 U.S. 949.)
</P>
<P>(f) Certain classes of employees who are not within the definitions of drivers, driver's helpers, loaders, and mechanics are mentioned in §§ 782.3-782.6, inclusive. Others who do not come within these definitions include the following, whose duties are considered to affect safety of operation, if at all, only indirectly; stenographers (including those who write letters relating to safety or prepare accident reports); clerks of all classes (including rate clerks, billing clerks, clerks engaged in preparing schedules, and filing clerks in charge of filing accident reports, hours-of-service records, inspection reports, and similar documents); foremen, warehousemen, superintendents, salesmen, and employees acting in an executive capacity. (Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125; Ex parte No. MC-28, 13 M.C.C. 481. But see §§ 782.5(b) and 782.6(b) as to certain foremen and superintendents.) Such employees are not within the section 13(b)(1) exemption. (<I>Overnight Motor Transp. Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572 (rate clerk who performed incidental duties as cashier and dispatcher); <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Porter</I> v. <I>Poindexter,</I> 158 F. (2d) 759 (C.A. 10) (checker of freight and bill collector); <I>Potashnik, Local Truck System</I> v. <I>Archer</I> (Ark. Sup. Ct.), 179 S.W. (2d) 696 (night manager who did clerical work on waybills, filed day's accumulation of bills and records, billed out local accumulation of shipments, checked mileage on trucks and made written reports, acted as night dispatcher, answered telephone calls, etc.).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.3   Drivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A “driver,” as defined for Motor Carrier Act jurisdiction (49 CFR parts 390-395; Ex parte No. MC-2, 3 M.C.C. 665; Ex parte No. MC-3, 23 M.C.C.1; Ex parte No. MC-4, 1 M.C.C. 1), is an individual who drives a motor vehicle in transporation which is, within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act, in interstate or foreign commerce. (As to what is considered transportation in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act, see § 782.7). This definition does not require that the individual be engaged in such work at all times; it is recognized that even full-duty drivers devote some of their working time to activities other than such driving. “Drivers,” as thus officially defined, include, for example, such partial-duty drivers as the following, who drive in interstate or foreign commerce as part of a job in which they are required also to engage in other types of driving or nondriving work: Individuals whose driving duties are concerned with transportation some of which is in intrastate commerce and some of which is in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act; individuals who ride on motor vehicles engaged in transportation in interstate or foreign commerce and act as assistant or relief drivers of the vehicles in addition to helping with loading, unloading, and similar work; drivers of chartered buses or of farm trucks who have many duties unrelated to driving or safety of operation of their vehicles in interstate transportation on the highways; and so-called “driver-salesmen” who devote much of their time to selling goods rather than to activities affecting such safety of operation. (<I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 300 U.S. 649; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; <I>Richardson</I> v. <I>James Gibbons Co.,</I> 132 F. (2d) 627 (C.A. 4), affirmed 319 U.S. 44; <I>Gavril</I> v. <I>Kraft Cheese Co.,</I> 42 F. Supp. 702 (N.D. Ill.); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Craig,</I> 53 F. Supp. 479 (D. Minn.); <I>Vannoy</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.</I> (Mo. S. Ct.), 201 S.W. (2d) 350; Ex parte No. MC-2, 3 M.C.C. 665; Ex parte No. MC-3, 23 M.C.C. 1; Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125; Ex parte No. MC-4, 1 M.C.C. 1. Cf. <I>Colbeck</I> v. <I>Dairyland Creamery Co.</I> (S.D. Supp. Ct.), 17 N.W. (2d) 262, in which the court held that the exemption did not apply to a refrigeration mechanic by reason solely of the fact that he crossed State lines in a truck in which he transported himself to and from the various places at which he serviced equipment belonging to his employer.)
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<P>(b) The work of an employee who is a full-duty or partial-duty “driver,” as the term “driver” is above defined, directly affects “safety of operation” within the meaning of section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act whenever he drives a motor vehicle in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of that act. (<I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649, citing <I>Richardson</I> v. <I>James Gibbons Co.,</I> 132 F. (2d) 627 (C.A. 4), affirmed 319 U.S. 44; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; Ex parte No. MC-28, 13 M.C.C. 481, 482, 488; Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 139 (Conclusion of Law No. 2). See also Ex parte No. MC-2, 3 M.C.C. 665; Ex parte No. MC-3, 23 M.C.C. 1; Ex parte No. MC-4, 1 M.C.C. 1.) The Secretary has power to establish, and has established, qualifications and maximum hours of service for such drivers employed by common and contract carriers or passengers or property and by private carriers of property pursuant to section 204, of the Motor Carrier Act. (See Ex parte No. MC-4, 1 M.C.C. 1; Ex parte No. MC-2, 3 M.C.C. 665; Ex parte No. MC-3, 23 M.C.C. 1; Ex parte No. MC-28, 13 M.C.C. 481; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Southland Gasoline Co.</I> v. <I>Bayley,</I> 319 U.S. 44; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; Safety Regulations (Carriers by Motor Vehicle), 49 CFR parts 390, 391, 395) In accordance with principles previously stated (see § 782.2), such drivers to whom this regulatory power extends are, accordingly, employees exempted from the overtime requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act by section 13(b)(1). (<I>Southland Gasoline Co.</I> v. <I>Bayley,</I> 319 U.S. 44; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; <I>Rogers Cartage Co.</I> v. <I>Reynolds,</I> 166 F. (2d) 317 (C.A. 6). This does not mean that an employee of a carrier who drives a motor vehicle is exempted as a “driver” by virtue of that fact alone. He is not exempt if his job never involves transportation in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act (see §§ 782.2 (d) and (e), 782.7, and 782.8, or if he is employed by a private carrier and the only such transportation called for by his job is not transportation of property. (See § 782.2. See also Ex parte No. MC-28, 13 M.C.C. 481, Cf. <I>Colbeck</I> v. <I>Dairyland Creamery Co.</I> (S. Ct. S.D.), 17 N.W. (2d) 262 (driver of truck used only to transport himself to jobsites, as an incident of his work in servicing his employer's refrigeration equipment, held non exempt).) It has been held that so-called “hostlers” who “spot” trucks and trailers at a terminal dock for loading and unloading are not exempt as drivers merely because as an incident of such duties they drive the trucks and tractors in and about the premises of the trucking terminal. (<I>Keegan</I> v. <I>Ruppert</I> (S.D. N.Y.), 7 Labor Cases, par. 61,726 6 Wage Hour Rept. 676, cf. <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.4   Drivers' helpers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Driver's “helper,” as defined for Motor Carrier Act jurisdiction (Ex Parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 135, 136, 138, 139), is an employee other than a driver, who is required to ride on a motor vehicle when it is being operated in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act. (The term does not include employees who ride on the vehicle and act as assistants or relief drivers. Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, supra. See § 782.3.) This definition has classified all such employees, including armed guards on armored trucks and conductorettes on buses, as “helpers” with respect to whom he has power to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service because of their engagement in some or all of the following activities which, in his opinion, directly affect the safety of operation of such motor vehicles in interstate or foreign commerce (Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 135-136): Assist in loading the vehicles (they may also assist in unloading (Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, supra), an activity which has been held not to affect “safety of operation,” see § 782.5(c); as to what it meant by “loading” which directly affects “safety of operation,” see § 782.5(a)); dismount when the vehicle approaches a railroad crossing and flag the driver across the tracks, and perform a similar duty when the vehicle is being turned around on a busy highway or when it is entering or emerging from a driveway; in case of a breakdown: (1) Place the flags, flares, and fuses as required by the safety regulations. (2) go for assistance while the driver protects the vehicle on the highway, or vice versa, or (3) assist the driver in changing tires or making minor repairs; and assist in putting on or removing chains.
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<P>(b) An employee may be a “helper” under the official definition even though such safety-affecting activities constitute but a minor part of his job. Thus, although the primary duty of armed guards on armored trucks is to protect the valuables in the case of attempted robberies, they are classified as “helpers” where they ride on such trucks being operated in interstate or foreign commerce, because, in the case of an accident or other emergency and in other respects, they act in a capacity somewhat similar to that of the helpers described in the text. Similarly, conductorettes on buses whose primary duties are to see to the comfort of the passengers are classified as “helpers” whose such buses are being operated in interstate or foreign commerce, because in instances when accidents occur, they help the driver in obtaining aid and protect the vehicle from oncoming traffic.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with principles previously stated (see § 782.2), the section 13(b)(1) exemption applies to employees who are, under the Secretary of Transporation's definitions, engaged in such activities as full- or partial-duty “helpers” on motor vehicles being operated in transporation in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act. (<I>Ispass</I> v. <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.,</I> 152 F. (2d) 619 (C.A. 2); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McGinley Co.</I> (E.D. Tenn.), 12 Labor Cases, par. 63,731, 6 W.H. Cases 916. See also <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Dallum</I> v. <I>Farmers, Coop Trucking Assn.</I> 46 F. Supp. 785 (D. Minn.).) The exemption has been held inapplicable to so-called helpers who ride on motor vehicles but do not engage in any of the activities of “helpers” which have been found to affect directly the safety of operation of such vehicles in interstate or foreign commerce. (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Gordon's Transports</I> (W.D. Tenn.) 10 Labor Cases par. 62,934, 6 W.H. Cases 831, affirmed 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied, 332 U.S. 774 (helpers on city “pickup and delivery trucks” where it was not shown that the loading in any manner affected safety of operation and the helper's activities were “in no manner similar” to those of a driver's helper in over-the-road operation).) It should be noted also that an employee, to be exempted as a driver's “helper” under the Secretary's definitions, must be “required” as part of his job to ride on a motor vehicle when it is being operated in interstate or foreign commerce; an employee of a motor carrier is not exempted as a “helper” when he rides on such a vehicle, not as a matter of fixed duty, but merely as a convenient means of getting himself to, from, or between places where he performs his assigned work. (See <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695, modifying, on other grounds, 152 F. (2d) 619 (C.A. 2).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.5   Loaders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A “loader,” as defined for Motor Carrier Act jurisdiction (Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 133, 134, 139), is an employee of a carrier subject to section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act (other than a driver or driver's helper as defined in §§ 782.3 and 782.4) whose duties include, among other things, the proper loading of his employer's motor vehicles so that they may be safely operated on the highways of the country. A “loader” may be called by another name, such as “dockman,” “stacker,” or “helper,” and his duties will usually also include unloading and the transfer of freight between the vehicles and the warehouse, but he engages, as a “loader,” in work directly affecting “safety of operation” so long as he has responsibility when such motor vehicles are being loaded, for exercising judgment and discretion in planning and building a balanced load or in placing, distributing, or securing the pieces of freight in such a manner that the safe operation of the vehicles on the highways in interstate or foreign commerce will not be jeopardized. (<I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 300 U.S. 649; <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Gordon's Transport</I> (W.D. Tenn.), 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,934, affirmed 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 332 U.S. 774; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 855; Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 133, 134)
</P>
<P>(b) The section 13(b)(1) exemption applies, in accordance with principles previously stated (see § 782.2), to an employee whose job involves activities consisting wholly or in part of doing, or immediately directing, a class of work defined: (1) As that of a loader, and (2) as directly affecting the safety of operation of motor vehicles in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act, since such an employee is an employee with respect to whom the Secretary of Transporation has power to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service. (<I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 855; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Gordon's Transports</I> (W.D. Tenn.); 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,934, affirmed 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6) certiorari denied 332 U.S. 774; <I>Tinerella</I> v. <I>Des Moines Transp. Co.,</I> 41 F. Supp. 798.) Where a checker, foreman, or other supervisor plans and immediately directs the proper loading of a motor vehicle as described above, he may come within the exemption as a partial-duty loader. (<I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Gordon's Transports</I> (W.D. Tenn.), 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,934; affirmed 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 332 U.S. 774; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 885; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>Crean</I> v. <I>Moran Transporation Lines,</I> 57 F. Supp. 212 (W.D. N.Y.). See also 9 Labor Cases, par. 62,416; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Commercial Motor Freight</I> (S.D. Ind.), 11 Labor Cases, par. 63,451; <I>Hogla</I> v. <I>Porter</I> (E.D. Okla.), 11 Labor Cases, par. 63,389 6 W. H. Cases 608.)
</P>
<P>(c) An employee is not exempt as a loader where his activities in connection with the loading of motor vehicles are confined to classes of work other than the kind of loading described above, which directly affects “safety of operation.” (<I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649) The mere handling of freight at a terminal, before or after loading, or even the placing of certain articles of freight on a motor carrier truck may form so trivial, casual, or occasional a part of an employee's activities, or his activities may relate only to such articles or to such limited handling of them, that his activities will not come within the kind of “loading” which directly affects “safety of operation.” Thus the following activities have been held to provide no basis for exemption: Unloading; placing freight in convenient places in the terminal, checking bills of lading; wheeling or calling freight being loaded or unloaded; loading vehicles for trips which will not involve transportation in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act; and activities relating to the preservation of the freight as distinguished from the safety of operation of the motor vehicles carrying such freight on the highways. (<I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Porter</I> v. <I>Poindexter,</I> 158 F. (2d) 759 (C.A. 10); <I>McKeown</I> v. <I>Southern Calif. Freight Forwarders,</I> 49 F. Supp. 543; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Gordon's Transports</I> (W.D. Tenn.), 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,934, affirmed 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 332 U.S. 774; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 855; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>Crean</I> v. <I>Moran Transp. Lines,</I> 50 F. Supp. 107, 54 F. Supp. 765 (cf. 57 F. Supp. 212); <I>Gibson</I> v. <I>Glasgow</I> (Tenn. Sup. Ct.) 157 S.W. (2d) 814. See also <I>Keeling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 57 F. Supp. 617.) As is apparent from opinion in Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, red caps of bus companies engaged in loading baggage on buses are not loaders engaged in work directly affecting safety of operation of the vehicles. In the same opinion, it is expressly recognized that there is a class of freight which, because it is light in weight, probably could not be loaded in a manner which would adversely affect “safety of operations.” Support for this conclusion is found in <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>C&amp;P Shoe Corp.</I> 335 F. (2d) 21 (C.A. 5), wherein the court held the loading of boxes of shoes, patterned on the last in, first out principle clearly was not of a safety affecting character “in view of the light weight of the cargo involved.” In the case of coal trucks which are loaded from stockpiles by the use of an electric bridge crane and a mechanical conveyor, it has been held that employees operating such a crane or conveyor in the loading process are not exempt as “loaders” under section 13(b)(1). (<I>Barrick</I> v. <I>South Chicago Coal &amp; Dock Co.</I> (N.D. Ill.), 8 Labor Cases, par. 62,242, affirmed 149 F. (2d) 960 (C.A. 7).) It seems apparent from the foregoing discussion that an employee who has no responsibility for the proper loading of a motor vehicle is not within the exemption as a “loader” merely because he furnishes physical assistance when necessary in loading heavy pieces of freight, or because he deposits pieces of freight in the vehicle for someone else to distribute and secure inplace, or even because he does the physical work of arranging pieces of freight in the vehicle where another employee tells him exactly what to do in each instance and he is given no share in the exercise of discretion as to the manner in which the loading is done. (See <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Yellow Transit Freight Lines Inc.</I> v. <I>Balven,</I> 320 F. (2d) 495 (C.A. 8); <I>Foremost Dairies</I> v. <I>Ivey,</I> 204 F. (2d) 186 (C.A. 5); <I>Ispass</I> v. <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.,</I> 78 F. Supp. 475 (S.D. N.Y.); <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Meco Steel Supply Co.,</I> 183 F. Supp. 779 (S.D. Tex.); <I>Garton</I> v. <I>Sanders Transfer &amp; Storage Co.,</I> 124 F. Supp. 84 (M.D. Tenn.); <I>McKeown</I> v. <I>Southern Calif. Freight Forwarders,</I> 49 F. Supp. 543; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Gordon's Transports</I> (W.D. Tenn.) 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,934, affirmed 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 332 U.S. 774; <I>Crean</I> v. <I>Moran Transporation Lines,</I> 50 F. Supp. 107 (see also further opinion in 54 F. Supp. 765, and cf. the court's holding in 57 F. Supp. 212 with <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Gordon's Transports,</I> cited above). See also <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649.) Such activities would not seem to constitute the kind of “loading” which directly affects the safety of operation of the loaded vehicle on the public highways, under the official definitions. (See Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 133, 134).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.6   Mechanics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A “mechanic,” for purposes of safety regulations under the Motor Carrier Act is an employee who is employed by a carrier subject to the Secretary's jurisdiction under section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act and whose duty it is to keep motor vehicles operated in interstate or foreign commerce by his employer in a good and safe working condition. (Ex parte, Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 132, 133. Ex parte No. MC-40 (Sub. No. 2), 88 M.C.C. 710 (repair of refrigeration equipment). See also <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422.) It has been determined that the safety of operation of such motor vehicles on the highways is directly affected by those activities of mechanics, such as keeping the lights and brakes in a good and safe working condition, which prevent the vehicles from becoming potential hazards to highway safety and thus aid in the prevention of accidents. The courts have held that mechanics perform work of this character where they actually do inspection, adjustment, repair or maintenance work on the motor vehicles themselves (including trucks, tractors and trailers, and buses) and are, when so engaged, directly responsible for creating or maintaining physical conditions essential to the safety of the vehicles on the highways through the correction or prevention of defects which have a direct causal connection with the safe operation of the unit as a whole. (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Bros.,</I> 136 F. (2d) 168 (C.A. 1); <I>McDuffie</I> v. <I>Hayes Freight Lines,</I> 71 F. Supp. 755; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>Keeling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 57 F. Supp. 617; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 855; <I>Tinerella</I> v. <I>Des Moines Transp. Co.,</I> 41 F. Supp. 798; <I>Robbins</I> v. <I>Zabarsky,</I> 44 F. Supp. 867; <I>West</I> V. <I>Smoky Mt. Stages,</I> 40 F. Supp. 296; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Cumberland &amp; Liberty Mills Co.</I> (S.D. Fla.), 6 Labor Cases, par. 61,184; <I>Esibill</I> v. <I>Marshall</I> (D. N.J.), 6 Labor Cases, par. 61,256; <I>Keegan</I> v. <I>Ruppert</I> (S.D. N.Y.), 7 Labor Cases, par. 61,726; <I>Baker</I> v. <I>Sharpless Hendler Ice Cream Co.</I> (E.D. Pa.), 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,956; <I>Kentucky Transport Co.</I> v. <I>Drake</I> (Ky. Ct. App.). 182 SW (2d) 960.) The following activities performed by mechanics on motor vehicles operated in interstate or foreign commerce are illustrative of the specific kinds of activities which the courts, in applying the foregoing principles, have regarded as directly affecting “safety of operation”: The inspection, repair, adjustment, and maintenance for safe operation of steering apparatus, lights, brakes, horns, windshield wipers, wheels and axles, bushings, transmissions, differentials, motors, starters and ignition, carburetors, fifth wheels, springs and spring hangers, frames, and gasoline tanks (<I>McDuffie</I> v. <I>Hayes Freight Lines,</I> 71 F. Supp. 755; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>Wolfe</I> v. <I>Union Transfer &amp; Storage Co.,</I> 48 F. Supp. 855; <I>Mason &amp; Dixon Lines</I> v. <I>Ligon</I> (Tenn. Ct. App.) 7 Labor Cases, par. 61,962; <I>Walling</I> v. Palmer, 67 F. Supp. 12; <I>Kentucky Transport Co.</I> v. <I>Drake</I> (Ky. Ct. App.), 182 SW (2d) 960.) Inspecting and checking air pressure in tires, changing tires, and repairing and rebuilding tires for immediate replacement on the vehicle from which they were removed have also been held to affect safety of operation directly. (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Palmer,</I> 67 F. Supp. 12. See also <I>McDuffie</I> v. <I>Hayes Freight Lines,</I> 71 F. Supp. 755.) The same is true of hooking up tractors and trailers, including light and brake connections, and the inspection of such hookups. (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Palmer,</I> 67 F. Supp. 12. See also <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Gordon's Transports</I> (W.D. Tenn.). 10 Labor cases, par. 62,934, affirmed 162 F. (2d) 203 (C.A. 6), certiorari denied 332 U.S. 744.)
</P>
<P>(b) The section 13(b)(1) exemption applies, in accordance with principles previously stated (see § 782.2), to an employee whose job involves activities consisting wholly or in part of doing, or immediately directing, a class of work which, under the definitions referred to above, is that of a “mechanic” and directly affects the safety of operation of motor vehicles on the public highways in interstate or foreign commerce, within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act. The power under the Motor Carrier Act to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service for such an employee has been sustained by the courts. (<I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422. See also <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass.</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Bros.,</I> 136 F. (2d) 168 (C.C.A. 1)). A supervisory employee who plans and immediately directs and checks the proper performance of this class of work may come within the exemption as a partial-duty mechanic. (<I>Robbins</I> v. <I>Zabarsky,</I> 44 F. Supp. 867; <I>Mason &amp; Dixon Lines</I> v. <I>Ligon</I> (Tenn. Ct. App.), 7 Labor Cases par. 61,962; cf. <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422 and <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649)
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An employee of a carrier by motor vehicle is not exempted as a “mechanic” from the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act under section 13(b)(1) merely because he works in the carrier's gargage, or because he is called a “mechanic,” or because he is a mechanic by trade and does mechanical work. (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Tyler Pipe &amp; Foundry Co.,</I> 369 F. 2d 927 (C.A. 5).) The exemption applies only if he is doing a class of work defined as that of a “mechanic”, including activities which directly affect the safety of operation of motor vehicles in transporation on the public highways in interstate or foreign commerce. (<I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; <I>Keeling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 57 F. Supp. 617; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 855; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>McDuffie</I> v. <I>Hayes Freight Lines,</I> 71 F. Supp. 755; <I>Anuchick</I> v. <I>Transamerican Freight Lines,</I> 46 F. Supp. 861; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Burlington Transp. Co.</I> (D. Nebr.), 9 Labor Cases, par. 62,576. Compare Ex parte No. MC-40 (Sub. No. 2), 88 M.C.C. 710 with <I>Colbeck</I> v. <I>Dairyland Creamery Co.</I> (S.D. Sup. Ct.), 17 N.W. (2d) 262. See also <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass</I> 330 U.S. 695.) Activities which do not directly affect such safety of operation include those performed by employees whose jobs are confined to such work as that of dispatchers, carpenters, tarpaulin tailors vehicle painters, or servicemen who do nothing but oil, gas, grease, or wash the motor vehicles. (Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 132, 133, 135) To these may be added activities such as filling radiators, checking batteries, and the usual work of such employees as stockroom personnel, watchmen, porters, and garage employees performing menial nondiscretionary tasks or disassembling work. Employees whose work is confined to such “nonsafety” activities are not within the exemption, even though the proper performance of their work may have an indirect effect on the safety of operation of the motor vehicles on the highways. (<I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; <I>Campbell</I> v. <I>Riss &amp; Co.</I> (W.D. Mo.), 5 Labor Cases, par. 61,092 (dispatcher); <I>McDuffie</I> v. <I>Hayes Freight Lines,</I> 71 F. Supp. 755 (work of janitor and caretaker, carpentry work, body building, removing paint, preparing for repainting, and painting); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846 (body building, construction work, painting and lettering); <I>Hutchinson</I> v. <I>Barry,</I> 50 F. Supp. 292 (washing vehicles); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Palmer,</I> 67 F. Supp. 12 (putting water in radiators and batteries, oil and gas in vehicles, and washing vehicles); <I>Anuchick</I> v. <I>Transamerican Freight Lines,</I> 46 F. Supp. 861 (body builders, tarpaulin worker, stockroom boy, night watchman, porter); <I>Bumpus</I> v. <I>Continental Baking Co.</I> (W.D. Tenn.), 1 Wage Hour Cases 920 (painter), reversed on other grounds 124 F. (2d) 549; <I>Green</I> v. <I>Riss &amp; Co.,</I> 45 F. Supp. 648 (night watchman and gas pump attendant); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Burlington Transp. Co.</I> (D. Nebr.), 9 Labor Cases, par. 62,576 (body builders); <I>Keegan</I> v. <I>Ruppert</I> (S.D. N.Y.), 7 Labor Cases, par. 61,726 (greasing and washing); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>East Texas Freight Lines</I> (N.D. Tex.), 8 Labor Cases, par. 62,083 (Menial tasks); <I>Collier</I> v. <I>Acme Freight Lines,</I> unreported (S.D. Fla., Oct. 1943) (same); <I>Potashnik Local Truck System</I> v. <I>Archer</I> (Ark. Sup. Ct.). 179 S.W. (2d) 696 (checking trucks in and out and acting as night dispatcher, among other duties); <I>Overnight Motor Corp.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572 (rate clerk with part-time duties as dispatcher).) The same has been held true of employees whose activities are confined to construction work, manufacture or rebuilding of truck, bus, or trailer bodies, and other duties which are concerned with the safe carriage of the contents of the vehicle rather than directly with the safety of operation on the public highways of the motor vehicle itself (<I>Anuchick</I> v. <I>Transamerican Freight Lines,</I> 46 F. Supp. 816; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Fleet Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 846; <I>McDuffie</I> v. <I>Hayes Freight Lines</I> 71 F. Supp. 755; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Burlington Transp. Co.</I> (D. Nebr.), 9 Labor Cases, par. 62,576. Compare <I>Colbeck</I> v. <I>Dairyland Creamery Co.</I> (S.D. Sup. Ct.) 17 N.W. (2d) 262 with Ex parte No. MC-40 (Sub. No. 2), 88 M.C.C. 710.)
</P>
<P>(2) The distinction between direct and indirect effects on safety of operation is exemplified by the comments in rejecting the contention in Ex parte Nos. MC-2 and MC-3, 28 M.C.C. 125, 135, that the activities of dispatchers directly affect safety of operation. It was stated: “It is contended that if a dispatcher by an error in judgment assigns a vehicle of insufficient size and weight-carrying capacity to transport the load, or calls a driver to duty who is sick, fatigued, or otherwise not in condition to operate the vehicle, or requires or permits the vehicle to depart when the roads are icy and the country to be traversed is hilly, an accident may result. While this may be true, it is clear that such errors in judgment are not the proximate causes of such accidents, and the dispatchers engage in no activities which directly affect the safety of operation of motor vehicles in interstate or foreign commerce.”
</P>
<P>(3) Similarly, the exemption has been held inapplicable to mechanics repairing and rebuilding parts, batteries, and tires removed from vehicles where a direct causal connection between their work and the safe operation of motor vehicles on the highways is lacking because they do no actual work on the vehicles themselves and entirely different employees have the exclusive responsibility for determining whether the products of their work are suitable for use, and for the correct installation of such parts, on the vehicles. (<I>Keeling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 57 F. Supp. 617; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Huber &amp; Huber Motor Express,</I> 67 F. Supp. 855) Mechanical work on motor vehicles of a carrier which is performed in order to make the vehicles conform to technical legal requirements rather than to prevent accidents on the highways has not been regarded by the courts as work directly affecting “safety of operation.” (<I>Kentucky Transport Co.</I> v. <I>Drake</I> (Ky. Ct. App.), 182 S.W. (2d) 960; <I>Anuchick</I> v. <I>Transamerican Freight Lines,</I> 46 F. Supp. 861; <I>Yellow Transit Freight Lines Inc.</I> v. <I>Balsen</I> 320 F. (2d) 495 (C.A. 8)) And it is clear that no mechanical work on motor vehicles can be considered to affect safety of operation of such vehicles in interstate or foreign commerce if the vehicles are never in fact used in transportation in such commerce on the public highways. (<I>Baker</I> v. <I>Sharpless Hendler Ice Cream Co.</I> (E.D. Pa.), 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,956)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.7   Interstate commerce requirements of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As explained in preceding sections of this part, section 13(b)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act does not exempt an employee of a carrier from the act's overtime provisions unless it appears, among other things, that his activities as a driver, driver's helper, loader, or mechanic directly affect the safety of operation of motor vehicles in transportation in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act. What constitutes such transportation in interstate or foreign commerce, sufficient to bring such an employee within the regulatory power of the Secretary of Transportation under section 204 of that act, is determined by definitions contained in the Motor Carrier Act itself. These definitions are, however, not identical with the definitions in the Fair Labor Standards Act which determine whether an employee is within the general coverage of the wage and hours provisions as an employee “engaged in (interstate or foreign) commerce.” For this reason, the interstate commerce requirements of the section 13(b)(1) exemption are not necessarily met by establishing that an employee is “engaged in commerce” within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act when performing activities as a driver, driver's helper, loader, or mechanic, where these activities are sufficient in other respects to bring him within the exemption. (<I>Hager</I> v. <I>Brinks, Inc.</I> (N.D. Ill.), 11 Labor Cases, par. 63,296, 6 W.H. Cases 262; <I>Earle</I> v. <I>Brinks, Inc.,</I> 54 F. Supp. 676 (S.D. N.Y.); <I>Thompson</I> v. <I>Daugherty,</I> 40 F. Supp. 279 (D. Md.). See also, <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Villaume Box &amp; Lbr. Co.,</I> 58 F. Supp. 150 (D. Minn.). And see in this connection paragraph (b) of this section and § 782.8.) To illustrate, employees of construction contractors are, within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act, engaged in commerce where they operate or repair motor vehicles used in the maintenance, repair, or reconstruction of instrumentalities of interstate commerce (for example, highways over which goods and persons regularly move in interstate commerce). (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Craig,</I> 53 F. Supp. 479 (D. Minn). See also <I>Engbretson</I> v. <I>E. J. Albrecht Co.,</I> 150 F. (2d) 602 (C.A. 7); <I>Overstreet</I> v. <I>North Shore Corp.,</I> 318 U.S. 125; <I>Pedersen</I> v. <I>J. F. Fitzgerald Constr. Co.,</I> 318 U.S. 740, 742.) Employees so engaged are not, however, brought within the exemption merely by reason of that fact. In order for the exemption to apply, their activities, so far as interstate commerce is concerned, must relate directly to the transportation of materials moving in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act. Asphalt distributor-operators, although not exempt by reason of their work in applying the asphalt to the highways, are within the exemption where they transport to the road site asphalt moving in interstate commerce. See <I>Richardson</I> v. <I>James Gibbons Co.,</I> 132 F. (2d) 627 (C.A. 4), affirmed 319 U.S. 44 (and see reference to this case in footnote 18 of <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Craig,</I> 53 F. Supp. 479 (D. Minn.).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Highway transportation by motor vehicle from one State to another, in the course of which the vehicles cross the State line, clearly constitutes interstate commerce under both acts. Employees of a carrier so engaged, whose duties directly affect the safety of operation of such vehicles, are within the exemption in accordance with principles previously stated. (<I>Southland Gasoline Co.</I> v. <I>Bayley,</I> 319 U.S. 44; <I>Plunkett</I> v. <I>Abraham Bros.,</I> 129 F. (2d) 419 (C.A. 6); <I>Vannoy</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.</I> (Mo. Sup. Ct.), 201 S.W. (2d) 350; <I>Nelson</I> v. <I>Allison &amp; Co.</I> (E.D. Tenn.), 13 Labor Cases, par. 64,021; <I>Reynolds</I> v. <I>Rogers Cartage Co.</I> (W.D. Ky.), 13 Labor Cases, par. 63,978, reversed on other grounds 166 F. (2d) 317 (C.A. 6); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>McGinley Co.</I> (E.D. Tenn.), 12 Labor Cases, par. 63,731; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>A. H. Phillips, Inc.,</I> 50 F. Supp. 749, affirmed (C.A. 1) 144 F. (2d) 102,324 U.S. 490. See §§ 782.2 through 782.8.) The result is no different where the vehicles do not actually cross State lines but operate solely within a single State, if what is being transported is actually moving in interstate commerce within the meaning of both acts; the fact that other carriers transport it out of or into the State is not material. (<I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 68 S. Ct. 131; <I>Pyramid Motor Freight Corp.</I> v. <I>Ispass,</I> 330 U.S. 695; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Silver Bros. Co.</I> 136 F. (2d) 168 (C.A. 1); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Mutual Wholesale Food &amp; Supply Co.,</I> 141 F. (2d) 331 (C.A. 8); <I>Dallum</I> v. <I>Farmers Cooperative Trucking Assn.,</I> 46 F. Supp. 785 (D. Minn.); <I>Gavril</I> v. <I>Kraft Cheese Co.,</I> 42 F. Supp. 702 (N.D. Ill.); <I>Keegan</I> v. <I>Rupport</I> (S.D. N.Y.), 7 Labor Cases, par. 61,726, 3 W.H. Cases 412; <I>Baker</I> v. <I>Sharpless Hendler Ice Cream Co.</I> (E.D. Pa.), 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,956, 5 W.H. Cases 926). Transportation within a single State is in interstate commerce within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act where it forms a part of a “practical continuity of movement” across State lines from the point of origin to the point of destination. (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> 317 U.S. 564; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Mutual Wholesale Food &amp; Supply Co.,</I> 141 F. (2d) 331 (C.A. 8); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>American Stores Co.,</I> 133 F. (2d) 840 (C.A. 3); <I>Baker</I> v. <I>Sharpless Hendler Ice Cream Co.</I> (E.D. Pa.), 10 Labor Cases, par. 62,956 5 W.H. Cases 926) Since the interstate commerce regulated under the two acts is not identical (see paragraph (a) of this section), such transportation may or may not be considered also a movement in interstate commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act. Decisions of the Interstate Commerce Commission prior to 1966 seemingly have limited the scope of the Motor Carrier Act more narrowly than the courts have construed the Fair Labor Standards Act. (see § 782.8.) It is deemed necessary, however, as an enforcement policy only and without prejudice to any rights of employees under section 16 (b) of the Act, to assume that such a movement in interstate commerce under the Fair Labor Standards Act is also a movement in interstate commerce under the Motor Carrier Act, except in those situations where the Commission has held or the Secretary of Transportation or the courts hold otherwise. (See § 782.8(a); and compare <I>Beggs</I> v. <I>Kroger Co.,</I> 167 F. (2d) 700, with the Interstate Commerce Commission's holding in Ex parte No. MC-48, 71 M.C.C. 17, discussed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.) Under this enforcement policy it will ordinarily be assumed by the Administrator that the interstate commerce requirements of the section 13(b)(1) exemption are satisfied where it appears that a motor carrier employee is engaged as a driver, driver's helper, loader, or mechanic in transportation by motor vehicle which, although confined to a single State, is a part of an interstate movement of the goods or persons being thus transported so as to constitute interstate commerce within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act. This policy does not extend to drivers, driver's helpers, loaders, or mechanics whose transportation activities are “in commerce” or “in the production of goods for commerce” within the meaning of the act but are not a part of an interstate movement of the goods or persons carried (see, e.g., <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Crystal Lake Crushed Stone Co.,</I> 327 F. 2d 455 (C.A. 7)). Where, however, it has been authoritatively held that transportation of a particular character within a single State is not in interstate commerce as defined in the Motor Carrier Act (as has been done with respect to certain transportation of petroleum products from a terminal within a State to other points within the same State—see paragraph (b)(2) of this section), there is no basis for an exemption under section 13(b)(1), even though the facts may establish a “practical continuity of movement” from out-of-State sources through such in-State trip so as to make the trip one in interstate commerce under the Fair Labor Standards Act. Of course, engagement in local transportation which is entirely in intrastate commerce provides no basis for exempting a motor carrier employee. (<I>Kline</I> v. <I>Wirtz,</I> 373 F. 2d 281 (C.A. 5). See also paragraph (b) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(2) The Interstate Commerce Commission held that transportation confined to points in a single State from a storage terminal of commodities which have had a prior movement by rail, pipeline, motor, or water from an origin in a different State is not in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of part II of the Interstate Commerce Act if the shipper has no fixed and persisting transportation intent beyond the terminal storage point at the time of shipment. See Ex parte No. MC-48 (71 M.C.C. 17, 29). The Commission specifically ruled that there is not fixed and persisting intent where: (i) At the time of shipment there is no specific order being filled for a specific quantity of a given product to be moved through to a specific destination beyond the terminal storage, and (ii) the terminal storage is a distribution point or local marketing facility from which specific amounts of the product are sold or allocated, and (iii) transportation in the furtherance of this distribution within the single State is specifically arranged only after sale or allocation from storage. In <I>Baird</I> v. <I>Wagoner Transportation Co.,</I> 425 F. (2d) 407 (C.A. 6), the court found each of these factors to be present and held the intrastate transportation activities were not “in interstate commerce” within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act and denied the section 13(b)(1) exemption. While ex parte No. MC-48 deals with petroleum and petroleum products, the decision indicates that the same reasoning applies to general commodities moving interstate into a warehouse for distribution (71 M.C.C. at 27). Accordingly, employees engaged in such transportation are not subject to the Motor Carrier Act and therefore not within the section 13(b)(1) exemption. They may, however, be engaged in commerce within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act. (See in this connection, <I>Mid-Continent Petroleum Corp.</I> v. <I>Keen,</I> 157 F. 2d 310 (C.A. 8); <I>DeLoach</I> v. <I>Crowley's Inc.,</I> 128 F. 2d 378 (C.A. 5); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Jacksonville Paper Co.,</I> 69 F. Supp. 599, affirmed 167 F. 2d 448, reversed on another point in 336 U.S. 187; and <I>Standard Oil Co.</I> v. <I>Trade Commission,</I> 340 U.S. 231, 238).
</P>
<P>(c) The wage and hours provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act are applicable not only to employees engaged in commerce, as defined in the act, but also to employees engaged in the production of goods for commerce. Employees engaged in the “production” of goods are defined by the act as including those engaged in “handling, transporting, or in any other manner working on such goods, or in closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production thereof, in any State.” (Fair Labor Standards Act, sec. 3(j), 29 U.S.C., sec. 203(j), as amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949, 63 Stat. 910. See also the Division's Interpretative Bulletin, part 776 of this chapter on general coverage of the wage and hours provisions of the act.) Where transportation of persons or property by motor vehicle between places within a State falls within this definition, and is not transportation in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the Motor Carrier Act because movement from points out of the State has ended or because movement to points out of the State has not yet begun, the employees engaged in connection with such transportation (this applies to employees of common, contract, and private carriers) are covered by the wage and hours provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act and are not subject to the jurisdiction of the Secretary of Transportation. Examples are: (1) Drivers transporting goods in and about a plant producing goods for commerce; (2) chauffeurs or drivers of company cars or buses transporting officers or employees from place to place in the course of their employment in an establishment which produces goods for commerces; (3) drivers who transport goods from a producer's plant to the plant of a processor, who, in turn, sells goods in interstate commerce, the first producer's goods being a part or ingredient of the second producer's goods; (4) drivers transporting goods between a factory and the plant of an independent contractor who performs operations on the goods, after which they are returned to the factory which further processes the goods for commerce; and (5) drivers transporting goods such as machinery or tools and dies, for example, to be used or consumed in the production of other goods for commerce. These and other employees engaged in connection with the transportation within a State of persons or property by motor vehicle who are subject to the Fair Labor Standards Act because engaged in the production of goods for commerce and who are not subject to the Motor Carrier Act because not engaged in interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of that act, are not within the exemption provided by section 13(b)(1). (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Comet Carriers,</I> 151 F. (2d) 107 (C.A. 2); <I>Griffin Cartage Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 153 F. (2d) 587 (C.A. 6); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Morris,</I> 155 F. (2d) 832 (C.A. 6), reversed on other grounds in <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422; <I>West Kentucky Coal Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 153 F. (2d) 582 (C.A. 6); <I>Hamlet Ice Co.</I> v. <I>Fleming,</I> 127 F. (2d) 165 (C.A. 4); <I>Atlantic Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 131 F. (2d) 518 (C.A. 5); <I>Chapman</I> v. <I>Home Ice Co.,</I> 136 F. (2d) 353 (C.A. 6); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Griffin Cartage Co.,</I> 62 F. Supp. 396 (E.D. Mich.), affirmed 153 F. (2d) 587 (C.A. 6); <I>Dallum</I> v. <I>Farmers Coop. Trucking Assn.,</I> 46 F. Supp. 785 (D. Minn.); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Villaume Box &amp; Lbr. Co.,</I> 58 F. Supp. 150 (D. Minn); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>DeSoto Creamery &amp; Produce Co.,</I> 51 F. Supp. 938 (D. Minn.); <I>Reynolds</I> v. <I>Rogers Cargate Co.,</I> 71 F. Supp. 870 (W.D. Ky.), reversed on other grounds 166 F. (2d) 317 (C.A. 6), <I>Hansen</I> v. <I>Salinas Valley Ice Co.</I> (Cal. App.), 144 P. (2d) 896).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.42.0.401.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.8   Special classes of carriers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Interstate Commerce Commission consistently maintained that transportation with a State of consumable goods (such as food, coal, and ice) to railroad, docks, etc., for use of trains and steamships is not such transportation as is subject to its jurisdiction. (<I>New Pittsburgh Coal Co.</I> v. <I>Hocking Valley Ry. Co.,</I> 24 I.C.C. 244; <I>Corona Coal Co.</I> v. <I>Secretary of War,</I> 69 I.C.C. 389; Bunker Coal from Alabama to Gulf Ports, 227 I.C.C. 485.) The intrastate delivery of chandleries, including cordage, canvas, repair parts, wire rope, etc., to ocean-going vessels for use and consumption aboard such vessels which move in interstate or foreign commerce falls within this category. Employees of carriers so engaged are considered to be engaged in commerce, as that term is used in the Fair Labor Standards Act. These employees may also be engaged in the “production of goods for commerce” within the meaning of section 3(j) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. See cases cited in § 782.7(c), and see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Independent Ice Co.,</I> 294 F. 2d 186 (C.A. 5), certiorari denied 368 U.S. 952, and part 776 of this chapter. Since the Commission has disclaimed jurisdiction over this type of operation (see, in this connection § 782.7(b)), it is the Division's opinion that drivers, driver's helpers, loaders, and mechanics employed by companies engaged in such activities are covered by the wage and hours provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act, and are not within the exemption contained in section 13(b)(1). (See <I>Hansen</I> v. <I>Salinas Valley Ice Co.</I> (Cal. App.), 144 P. (2d) 896.)
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to June 14, 1972, when the Department of Transportation published a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (37 FR 11781) asserting its power to establish qualifications and maximum hours of service of employees of contract mail haulers, thereby reversing the long-standing position of the Interstate Commerce Commission, the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division had taken the position that employees engaged in the transportation of mail under contract with the Postal Service were not within the exemption provided by section 13(b)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. As the result of the notice of June 14, 1972, the Administrator will no longer assert that employees of contract mail carriers are not within the 13(b)(1) exemption for overtime work performed after June 14, 1972, pending authoritative court decisions to the contrary. This position is adopted without prejudice to the rights of individual employees under section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 202(c)(2) of the Motor Carrier Act, as amended on May 16, 1942, makes section 204 of that act “relative to qualifications and maximum hours of service of employees and safety of operations and equipment,” applicable “to transportation by motor vehicle by any person (whether as agent or under a contractual arrangement) for a * * * railroad * * * express company * * * motor carrier * * * water carrier * * * or a freight forwarder * * * in the performance within terminal areas of transfer, collection, or delivery service.” Thus, drivers, drivers' helpers, loaders, and mechanics of a motor carrier performing pickup and delivery service for a railroad, express company, or water carrier are to be regarded as within the 13(b)(1) exemption. (See <I>Levinson</I> v. <I>Spector Motor Service,</I> 330 U.S. 649 (footnote 10); cf. <I>Cedarblade</I> v. <I>Parmelee Transp. Co.</I> (C.A. 7), 166 F. (2d) 554, 14 Labor Cases, par. 64,340.) The same is true of drivers, drivers' helpers, loaders, and mechanics employed directly by a railroad, a water carrier or a freight forwarder in pickup and delivery service. Section 202(c)(1) of the Motor Carrier Act, as amended on May 16, 1942, includes employees employed by railroads, water carriers, and freight forwarders, in transfer, collection, and delivery service in terminal areas by motor vehicles within the Interstate Commerce Commission's regulatory power under section 204 of the same act. See <I>Morris</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 332 U.S. 422 and § 782.2(a). (Such employees of a carrier subject to part I of the Interstate Commerce Act may come within the exemption from the overtime requirements provided by section 13(b)(2). Cf. <I>Cedarblade</I> v. <I>Parmelee Transp. Co.</I> (C.A. 7), 166 F. (2d) 554, 14 Labor Cases, par. 64,340. Thus, only employees of a railroad, water carrier, or freight forwarder outside of the scope of part I of the Interstate Commerce Act and of the 13(b)(2) exemption are affected by the above on and after the date of the amendment.) Both before and after the amendments referred to, it has been the Division's position that the 13(b)(1) exemption is applicable to drivers, drivers' helpers, loaders, and mechanics employed in pickup and delivery service to line-haul motor carrier depots or under contract with forwarding companies, since the Interstate Commerce Commission had determined that its regulatory power under section 204 of the Motor Carrier Act extended to such employees.
</P>
<P>(d) The determinations of the Interstate Commerce Commission discussed in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section have not been amended or revoked by the Secretary of Transportation. These determinations will continue to guide the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division in his enforcement of section 13(b)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 21778, Nov. 13, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 23638, Nov. 7, 1972]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="783" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 783—APPLICATION OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT TO EMPLOYEES EMPLOYED AS SEAMEN
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>27 FR 8309, Aug. 21, 1962, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="401" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.401" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.401.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.0   Purpose of this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part 783 is the official interpretation of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of sections 6(b)(2), 13(a)(14), and 13(b)(6) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, which govern the application of the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements of the Act to employees employed as seamen. Prior to the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1961, which became effective on September 3, 1961, all employees employed as seamen were exempt from both the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions of the Act. The 1961 amendments have narrowed this exemption so as to extend the minimum wage provisions of the Act to employees employed as seamen on American vessels. Employees employed as seamen on vessels other than American vessels continue to be exempt from both the minimum wage and the overtime pay requirements of the Act. It is the purpose of this part to make available in one place the interpretations of the law relating to employees employed as seamen which will guide the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator in the performance of their duties under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.401.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.1   General scope of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, is a Federal statute of general application which establishes minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor requirements that apply as provided in the Act. All employees, whose employment has the relationship to interstate or foreign commerce which the Act specifies, are subject to the prescribed labor standards unless specifically exempt from them. Employers having such employees are required to comply with the Act's provisions in this regard unless relieved therefrom by some exemption in the Act. Such employers are also required to comply with specified recordkeeping requirements contained in part 516 of this chapter. The law authorizes the Department of Labor to investigate for compliance and, in the event of violations, to supervise the payment of unpaid wages or unpaid overtime compensation owing to any employee. The law also provides for enforcement in the courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.401.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.2   Matters discussed in this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part 783 discusses the meaning and application of the exemptions provided in sections 13(a)(14) and 13(b)(6) of the Act. The provisions of section 6(b)(2) of the Act, which relate to the calculation of minimum wages and the hours worked by seamen on American vessels, are also discussed in this part. Other provisions of the Act are discussed only to make clear their relevance to these provisions and are not considered in detail in this part. Interpretations and regulations also published elsewhere in this title deal in some detail with such subjects as the general coverage of the Act (part 776 of this chapter), methods of payment of wages (part 531 of this chapter), hours worked (part 785 of this chapter), recordkeeping requirements (part 516 of this chapter), and qualifications for exempt executive, administrative, and professional employees (part 541 of this chapter). Reference should also be made to subpart G of part 570 of this chapter which contains the official interpretations of the child labor provisions of the Act. Copies of any of these documents may be obtained from any office of the Wage and Hour Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.401.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.3   Significance of official interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the official interpretations of the Department of Labor pertaining to the provisions of section 6(b)(2) and the exemptions provided in sections 13(a)(14) and 13(b)(6) of the Act. It is intended that the positions stated concerning the Act will serve as “a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). The Secretary of Labor and the Administrator will follow these interpretations in the performance of their duties under the Act, unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude upon re-examination of an interpretation that it is incorrect. The interpretations contained herein may be relied upon in accordance with section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act (29 U.S.C. 251-262), so long as they remain effective and are not modified, amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial authority to be incorrect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.401.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.4   Basic support for interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate decisions on interpretations of the Act are made by the courts (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Zachry,</I> 362 U.S. 310; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517). Court decisions supporting interpretations contained in this part are cited where it is believed they may be helpful. On matters which have not been determined by the courts, it is necessary for the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator to reach conclusions as to the meaning and the application of provisions of the law in order to carry out their responsibilities of administration and enforcement (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). In order that these positions may be made known to persons who may be affected by them, official interpretations are issued by the Administrator on the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, as authorized by the Secretary (reorg. Pl. 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263; Gen. Ord. 45A, May 24, 1950, 15 FR 3290). As included in this part, these interpretations are believed to express the intent of the law as reflected in its provisions and as construed by the courts and evidenced by its legislative history. References to pertinent legislative history are made in this part where it appears that they will contribute to a better understanding of the interpretations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.401.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.5   Interpretations made, continued, and superseded by this part.</HEAD>
<P>On and after publication of this part 783 in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the interpretations contained therein shall be in effect and shall remain in effect until they are modified, rescinded or withdrawn. This part supersedes and replaces the interpretations previously published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and Code of Federal Regulations as part 783 of this chapter. Prior opinions, rulings, and interpretations and prior enforcement policies which are not inconsistent with the interpretations in this part or with the Fair Labor Standards Act as amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1961 are continued in effect; all other opinions, rulings, interpretations, and enforcement policies on the subjects discussed in the interpretations in this part are rescinded and withdrawn. The interpretations in this part provide statements of general principles applicable to the subjects discussed and illustrations of the application of these principles to situations that frequently arise. They do not and cannot refer specifically to every problem which may be met by employers and employees in the application of the Act. The omission to discuss a particular problem in this part or in interpretations supplementing it should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Secretary of Labor or the Administrator with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretations or practice or enforcement policy. Questions on matters not fully covered by this part may be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or to any Regional Office of the Division.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="402" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Some Basic Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.6   Definitions of terms used in the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The meaning and application of the provisions of law discussed in this part depend in large degree on the definitions of terms used in these provisions. The Act itself defines some of these terms. Others have been defined and construed in decisions of the courts. In the following sections some of these basic definitions are set forth for ready reference in connection with the part's discussion of the various provisions in which they appear. These definitions and their application are further considered in other statements of interpretations to which reference is made, and in the sections of this part where the particular provisions containing the defined terms are discussed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.7   “Employer”, “employee”, and “employ”.</HEAD>
<P>The Act's major provisions impose certain requirements and prohibitions on every “employer” subject to their terms. The employment by an “employer” of an “employee” is, to the extent specified in the Act, made subject to minimum wage and overtime pay requirements and to prohibitions against the employment of oppressive child labor. The Act provides its own definitions of “employer”, “employee”, and “employ”, under which “economic reality” rather than “technical concepts” determines whether there is employment subject to its terms (<I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Whitaker House Cooperative,</I> 366 U.S. 28; <I>United States</I> v. <I>Silk,</I> 331 U.S. 704; <I>Rutherford Food Corp.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 331 U.S. 772). An “employer”, as defined in section 3(d) of the Act, “includes any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee but shall not include the United States or any State or political subdivision of a State, or any labor organization (other than when acting as an employer), or anyone acting in the capacity of officer or agent of such labor organization”. An “employee”, as defined in section 3(e) of the Act, “includes any individual employed by an employer”, and “employ”, as used in the Act, is defined in section 3(g) to include “to suffer or permit to work”. It should be noted, as explained in part 791 of this chapter, dealing with joint employment, that in appropriate circumstances two or more employers may be jointly responsible for compliance with the statutory requirements applicable to employment of a particular employee. It should also be noted that “employer”, “enterprise”, and “establishment” are not synonymous terms, as used in the Act. An employer may have an enterprise with more than one establishment, or he may have more than one enterprise, in which he employs employees within the meaning of the Act. Also, there may be different employers who employ employees in a particular establishment or enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.8   “Person”.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act (including definition of “enterprise” set forth below in § 783.9), “person” is defined as meaning “an individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, or any organized group of persons” (Act, section 3(a)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.9   “Enterprise”.</HEAD>
<P>The term “enterprise” which may, in some situations, be pertinent in determining coverage of this Act of employees employed by employers on vessels, is defined in section 3(r) of the Act. Section 3(r) states:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Enterprise means the related activities performed (either through unified operation or common control) by any person or persons for a common business purpose, and includes all such activities whether performed in one or more establishments or by one or more corporate or other organizational units including departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements, but shall not include the related activities performed for such enterprise by an independent contractor * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The scope and application of this definition is discussed in part 776 of this chapter and in §§ 779.200 through 779.235 of this chapter.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.10   “Establishment”.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act (including the provision quoted below in § 783.11), the term “establishment”, which is not specifically defined therein, refers to a “distinct physical place of business” rather than to “an entire business or enterprise” which may include several separate places of business. This is consistent with the meaning of the term as it is normally used in business and in government, is judicially settled, and has been recognized in the Congress in the course of enactment of amendatory legislation (<I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling</I> 334 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Bekins Van &amp; Storage Co.,</I> 352 U.S. 1027; 95 Cong. Rec. 12505, 12579, 14877; H. Rept. No. 1453, 81st Cong., 1st sess. p. 35). This is the meaning of the term as used in sections 3(r), 3(s), and 6(b) of the Act. An establishment may have employees employed away from the establishment as well as within it (H. Rept. No. 1453, supra).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.11   “Enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce”.</HEAD>
<P>Portions of the definition of “enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” (Act section 3(s)) which may in some situations determine the application of provisions of the Act to employees employed by employers on vessels are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(s) “Enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” means any of the following in the activities of which employees are so engaged, including employees handling, selling, or otherwise working on goods that have been moved in or produced for commerce by any person:</P></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(3) any establishment of any such enterprise * * * which has employees engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce if the annual gross volume of sales of such enterprise is not less than $1,000,000.</P></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<FP>The application of this definition is considered in part 776 of this chapter.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.12   “Commerce”.</HEAD>
<P>“Commerce” as used in the Act includes interstate and foreign commerce. It is defined in section 3(b) of the Act to mean “trade, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.” (For the definition of “State”, see § 783.15.) The application of this definition and the kinds of activities which it includes are discussed at length in part 776 of this chapter dealing with the general coverage of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.13   “Production”.</HEAD>
<P>To understand the meaning of “production” of goods for commerce as used in the Act it is necessary to refer to the definition in section 3(j) of the term “produced”. A detailed discussion of the application of the terms as defined is contained in part 776 of this chapter, dealing with the general coverage of the Act. Section 3(j) provides that “produced” as used in the Act “means produced, manufactured, mined, handled, or in any other manner worked on in any State; and for the purposes of this Act an employee shall be deemed to have been engaged in the production of goods if such employee was employed in producing, manufacturing, mining, handling, transporting, or in any other manner working on such goods, or in any closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production thereof, in any State.” (For the definition of “State” see § 783.15.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.14   “Goods”.</HEAD>
<P>The definition in section 3(i) of the Act states that “goods”, as used in the Act means “goods (including ships and marine equipment), wares, products, commodities, merchandise, or articles or subjects of commerce of any character, or any part or ingredient thereof, but does not include goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer thereof other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof.” Part 776 of this chapter, dealing with the general coverage of the Act, contains a detailed discussion of the application of this definition and what is included in it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.15   “State”.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act, “State” means “any State of the United States or the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States” (Act, section 3(c)). The application of this definition in determining questions of coverage under the Acts' definition of “commerce” and “produced” (see §§ 783.12, 783.13) is discussed in part 776 of this chapter, dealing with general coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.16   “Wage”.</HEAD>
<P>“Wage” paid to an employee is defined in section 3(m) of the Act to include “the reasonable cost, as determined by the Secretary of Labor, to the employer of furnishing such employee with board, lodging, or other facilities, if such board, lodging, or other facilities are customarily furnished by such employer to his employees: <I>Provided,</I> That the cost of board, lodging, or other facilities shall not be included as a part of the wage paid to any employee to the extent it is excluded therefrom under the terms of a bona fide collective bargaining agreement applicable to the particular employee: <I>Provided further,</I> That the Secretary is authorized to determine the fair value of such board, lodging, or other facilities for defined classes of employees and in defined areas, based on average cost to the employer or to groups of employers similarly situated, or average value to groups of employees, or other appropriate measure of fair value. Such evaluations, where applicable and pertinent, shall be used in lieu of actual measure of cost in determining the wage paid to any employee”. Although there is some incidental discussion in this part of this definition and its impact, a fuller discussion of its meaning and the regulations pertaining thereto are set forth in part 531 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.402.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.17   “American vessel”.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(p) of the Act, added by the 1961 Amendments, defines “American vessel” to include “any vessel which is documented or numbered under the laws of the United States.” This definition and its effect with respect to the application of the Act to employment of individuals as seamen are discussed in subsequent sections of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="403" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.403" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Application in General of the Act's Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.403.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.18   Commerce activities of employees.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to the 1961 Amendments, the Fair Labor Standards Act applied to all employees, not specifically exempted, who are engaged (a) in interstate or foreign commerce or (b) in the production of goods for such commerce, which is defined to include any closely related process or occupation directly, essential to such production (29 U.S.C. 206(a), 207(a); and see §§ 783.12 to 783.15 for definitions governing the scope of this coverage). The Act as amended in 1961 continues this coverage. In general, employees of businesses concerned with the transportation of goods or persons on navigable waters are engaged in interstate or foreign commerce, or in the production of goods for such commerce, as defined in the Act, and are subject to the Act's provisions except as otherwise provided in sections 13(a)(14) and 13(b)(6) or other express exemptions. A detailed discussion of the activities in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce which will bring an employee under the Act is contained in part 776 of this chapter, dealing with general coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.403.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.19   Commerce activities of enterprises in which employee is employed.</HEAD>
<P>Under amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act effective September 3, 1961, employees not covered by reason of their personal engagement in interstate commerce activites, as explained in § 783.18, are nevertheless brought within the coverage of the Act if they are employed in an enterprise which is defined in section 3(s) of the Act as an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, or by an establishment described in section 3(s)(3) of the Act (see § 783.11). Such employees, if not exempt from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements under section 13(a)(14) or exempt from the overtime pay requirements under section 13(b)(6), will have to be paid in accordance with those monetary standards of the Act unless expressly exempt under some other provision. This would generally be true of employees employed in enterprises and by establishments engaged in a business concerned with transportation of goods or persons by vessels, where the enterprise has an annual gross sales volume of $1,000,000 or more. Enterprise coverage is more fully discussed in part 776 of this chapter, dealing with general coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.403.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.20   Exemptions from the Act's provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The Act provides a number of specific exemptions from the general requirements previously described. Some are exemptions from the overtime provisions only. Others are from the child labor provisions only. Several are exemptions from both the minimum wage and the overtime requirements of the Act. Finally, there are some exemptions from all three—minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor requirements. An examination of the terminology in which the exemptions from the general coverage of the Fair Labor Standards Act are stated discloses language patterns which reflect congressional intent. Thus, Congress specified in varying degree the criteria for application of each of the exemptions and in a number of instances differentiated as to whether employees are to be exempt because they are employed by a particular kind of employer, employed in a particular type of establishment, employed in a particular industry, employed in a particular capacity or occupation, or engaged in a specified operation. (See 29 U.S.C. 203(d); 207 (b), (c), (h); 213 (a), (b), (c), (d). And see <I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill,</I> 322 U.S. 607; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196, certiorari denied 328 U.S. 866; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210.) In general, there are no exemptions from the child labor requirements that apply in enterprises or establishments engaged in transportation or shipping (see part 570, subpart G of this chapter). Such enterprises or establishments will, however, be concerned with the exemption from overtime pay in section 13(b)(6) of the Act for employees employed as seamen and the exemption from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements provided by section 13(a)(14) for employees so employed on vessels other than American vessels. These exemptions, which are subject to the general rules stated in § 783.21, are discussed at length in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.403.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.21   Guiding principles for applying coverage and exemption provisions.</HEAD>
<P>It is clear that Congress intended the Fair Labor Standards Act to be broad in its scope (<I>Helena Glendale Ferry Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 132 F. 2d 616). “Breadth of coverage is vital to its mission” (<I>Powell</I> v. <I>U.S. Cartridge Co.,</I> 339 U.S. 497). An employer who claims an exemption under the Act has the burden of showing that it applies (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>General Industries Co.,</I> 330 U.S. 545; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290; <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Blue Channel Corp.</I> 198 F. 2d 245, approved in <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Myrtle Grove Packing Co.,</I> 350 U.S. 891; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52). Conditions specified in the language of the Act are “explicit prerequisites to exemption” (<I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388; and see <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196). In their application, the purpose of the exemption as shown in its legislative history as well as its language should be given effect. However, “the details with which the exemptions in this Act have been made preclude their enlargement by implication” and “no matter how broad the exemption, it is meant to apply only to” the specified activities (<I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill,</I> 322 U.S. 607; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254). Exemptions provided in the Act “are to be narrowly construed against the employer seeking to assert them” and their application limited to those who come “plainly and unmistakably within their terms and spirits.” This construction of the exemptions is necessary to carry out the broad objectives for which the Act was passed (<I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> supra; <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> supra; <I>Helena Glendale Ferry Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> supra; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210; <I>Flemming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Bay State Dredging &amp; Contracting Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 346, certiorari denied 326 U.S. 760; <I>Anderson</I> v. <I>Manhattan Lighterage Corp.,</I> 148 F. 2d 971, certiorari denied 326 U.S. 722; <I>Sternberg Dredging Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 158 F. 2d 678).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.403.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.22   Pay standards for employees subject to “old” coverage of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The 1961 amendments did not change the tests described in § 783.18 by which coverage based on the employee's individual activities is determined. Any employee whose employment satisfies these tests and would not have come within some exemption (such as section 13(a)(14)) in the Act prior to the 1961 amendments is subject to the “old” provisions of the law and entitled to a minimum wage of at least $1.15 an hour beginning September 3, 1961, and not less than $1.25 an hour beginning September 3, 1963 (29 U.S.C. 206(a)(1)), unless expressly exempted by some provision of the amended Act. Such an employee is also entitled to overtime pay for hours worked in excess of 40 in any workweek at a rate not less than one and one-half times his regular rate of pay (29 U.S.C. 207(a)(1)), unless expressly exempt from overtime by some exemption such as section 13(b)(6). (Minimum wage rates in Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa are governed by special provisions of the Act (26 U.S.C. 206(a)(3); 206(c)(2).) Information on these rates is available at any office of the Wage and Hour Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.403.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.23   Pay standards for “newly covered” employees.</HEAD>
<P>There are some employees whose individual activities would not bring them within the minimum wage or overtime pay provisions of the Act as it was prior to the 1961 amendments, but who are brought within minimum wage or overtime coverage or both for the first time by the new “enterprise” coverage provisions or changes in exemptions, or both, which were enacted as part of the amendments and made effective September 3, 1961. Typical of such employees are those who, regardless of any engagement in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, are employed as seamen and would therefore have been exempt from minimum wage as well as overtime pay requirements by virtue of section 13(a)(14) of the Act until the 1961 amendments if so employed during that period, but who by virtue of these amendments are exempt only from the overtime pay requirements on and after September 3, 1961, under section 13(b)(6) of the amended Act. These “newly covered” employees for whom no specific exemption has been retained or provided in the amendments must be paid not less than the minimum wages shown in the schedule below for hours worked, computed, in the case of employees employed as seamen, in accordance with the special provisions of section 6(b)(2) which are discussed in subsequent sections of this part. Any “newly covered” employees who are not exempted by section 13(b)(6) because of their employment as seamen must be paid, unless exempted by some other provision, not less than one and one-half times their regular rates of pay for overtime, as shown in the schedule below.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Beginning
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum wage (29 U.S.C. 206(b))
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Overtime pay (29 U.S.C. 207(a)(2))
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sept. 3, 1961</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None required.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sept. 3, 1963</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No change</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">After 44 hours in a workweek
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sept. 3, 1964</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1.15 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">After 42 hours in a workweek.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sept. 3, 1965 
<sup>1</sup> and thereafter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1.25 an hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">After 40 hours in a workweek.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Requirements identical to those for employees under “old” coverage. (Minimum wage rates for newly covered employees, in Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa are set by wage order on recommendations of special industry committees (29 U.S.C. 206(a)(3); 206(c)(2). Information on these rates may be obtained at any office of the Wage and Hour and Public Contracts Divisions.)</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="404" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.404" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>The Statutory Provisions Regarding Seamen</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.404.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.24   The section 13(a)(14) exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(14) of the Fair Labor Standards Act exempts from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements of the Act, but not from its child labor provisions, “any employee employed as a seaman on a vessel other than an American vessel”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.404.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.25   The section 13(b)(6) exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(6) of the Act exempts from the overtime pay requirements of the Act, but not from its other requirements, “any employee employed as a seaman”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.26" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.404.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.26   The section 6(b)(2) minimum wage requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Section 6(b), with paragraph (2) thereof, requires the employer to pay to an employee, “if such employee is employed as a seaman on an American vessel, not less than the rate which will provide to the employee, for the period covered by the wage payment, wages equal to compensation at the hourly rate prescribed by paragraph (1) of this subsection for all hours during such period when he was actually on duty (including periods aboard ship when the employee was on watch or was, at the direction of a superior officer, performing work or standing by, but not including off-duty periods which are provided pursuant to the employment agreement).” The “hourly rate prescribed by” paragraph (1) of the subsection is the minimum wage rate applicable according to the schedule shown in § 783.23.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.27" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.404.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.27   Scope of the provisions regarding “seamen”.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the above provisions of the Act as amended, an employee employed as a seaman is exempt only from its overtime pay provisions under the new section 13(b)(6), unless the vessel on which he is employed is not an American vessel. Section 13(a)(14) as amended continues the prior exemption, from minimum wages as well as overtime pay, for any employees employed as a seaman on a vessel other than an American vessel. Thus, to come within this latter exemption an employee now must be “employed as” a “seaman” on a vessel other than an “American vessel”, while to come within the overtime exemption provided by section 13(b)(6) an employee need only be “employed as” a “seaman”. The minimum wage requirements of the Act, as provided in section 6(b) and paragraph (2) of that subsection apply if the employee is “employed as” a “seaman” on an “American vessel”. The meaning and scope of these key words, “employed as a seaman” and “American vessel” are discussed in subsequent sections of this part. Of course, if an employee is not “employed as” a “seaman” within the meaning of this term as used in the Act, these exemptions and section 6(b)(2) would have no relevancy and his status under the Act would depend, as in the case of any other employee, upon the other facts of his employment, (§§ 783.18 through 783.20).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="405" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.405" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Legislative History and Judicial Construction of the Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.28" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.405.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.28   General legislative history.</HEAD>
<P>As originally enacted in 1938, section 13(a)(3) of the Fair Labor Standards Act exempted from both the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements “any employee employed as a seaman” (52 Stat. 1050). In 1949 when several amendments were made to the Act (63 Stat. 910), this exemption was not changed except that it was renumbered section 13(a)(14). In the 1961 amendments (75 Stat. 65), a like exemption was retained but it was limited to one employed as a seaman on a vessel other than an American vessel (section 13(a)(14)); an overtime exemption was provided for all employees employed as seamen (section 13(b)(6)), and those employed as seamen on an American vessel were brought within the minimum wage provisions (sec. 6(b)(2)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.29" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.405.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.29   Adoption of the exemption in the original 1938 Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The general pattern of the legislative history of the Act shows that Congress intended to exempt, as employees “employed as” seamen, only workers performing water transportation services. The original bill considered by the congressional committees contained no exemption for seamen or other transportation workers. At the joint hearings before the Senate and House Committees on Labor, representatives of the principal labor organizations representing seamen and other transportation workers testified orally and by writing that the peculiar needs of their industry and the fact that they were already under special governmental regulation made it unwise to bring them within the scope of the proposed legislation (see Joint Hearings before Senate Committee on Education and Labor and House Committee on Labor on S. 2475 and H.R. 7200, 75th Cong., 1st sess., pp. 545, 546, 547, 549, 1216, 1217). The committees evidently acquiesced in this view and amendments were accepted (81 Cong. Rec. 7875) and subsequently adopted in the law, exempting employees employed as seamen (sec. 13(a)(3)), certain employees of motor carriers (sec. 13(b)(1)), railroad employees (sec. 13(b)(2)), and employees of carriers by air (sec. 13(a)(4), now sec. 13(b)(3)).
</P>
<P>(b) That the exemption was intended to exempt employees employed as “seamen” in the ordinary meaning of that word is evidenced by the fact that the chief proponents for the seamen's exemption were the Sailors Union of the Pacific and the National Maritime Union. The former wrote asking for an exemption for “seamen” for the reason that they were already under the jurisdiction of the Maritime Commission pursuant to the Merchant Marine Act of 1936 (Joint Hearings before the Committees on Labor on S. 2475 and H.R. 7200, 75th Cong., 1st sess., pp. 1216, 1217). The representative of the latter union also asked that “seamen” be exempted for the same reason saying * * * “We feel that in a general interpretation of the whole bill that the way has been left open for the proposed Labor Standards Board to have jurisdiction over those classes of workers who are engaged in transportation. While this may not have an unfavorable effect upon the workers engaged in transportation by water, we feel that it may conflict with the laws now in effect regarding the jurisdiction of the government machinery now set up to handle these problems” (id. at p. 545). And he went on to testify, “What we would like is an interpretation of the bill which would provide a protective clause for the ‘seamen’ ” (id. at p. 547).
</P>
<P>(c) Consonant with this legislative history, the courts in interpreting the phrase “employee employed as a seaman” for the purpose of the Act have given it its commonly accepted meaning, namely, one who is aboard a vessel necessarily and primarily in aid of its navigation (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Bay State Dredging and Contracting Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 346; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196; <I>Sternberg Dredging Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 158 F. 2d 678). In arriving at this conclusion the courts recognized that the term “seaman” does not have a fixed and precise meaning but that its meaning is governed by the context in which it is used and the purpose of the statute in which it is found. In construing the Fair Labor Standards Act, as a remedial statute passed for the benefit of all workers engaged in commerce, unless exempted, the courts concluded that giving a liberal interpretation of the meaning of the term “seaman” as used in an exemptive provision of the Act would frustrate rather than accomplish the legislative purpose (<I>Helena Glendale Ferry Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 132 F. 2d 616; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Bay State Dredging and Contracting Co.,</I> supra; <I>Sternberg Dredging Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> supra; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> supra).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.405.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.30   The 1961 Amendments.</HEAD>
<P>One of the steps Congress took in the 1961 Amendments to extend the monetary provisions of the Act to more workers was to limit the scope of the exemption which excluded all employees employed as seamen from application of the minimum wage and overtime provisions. This it did by extending the minimum wage provisions of the Act to one employed as a seaman on an American vessel (section 6(b)(2)), by adding to the language of section 13(a)(14) to make the exemption applicable only to a seaman employed on a vessel other than an American vessel, and finally by the addition of a new exemption, section 13(b)(6), relieving employers of overtime pay requirements with respect to those employees employed as seamen who do not come within the scope of the amended section 13(a)(14). (H. Rep. No. 75, 87th Cong., 1st sess., pp. 33, 36; Sen. Rep. No. 145, 87th Cong., 1st sess., pp. 32, 50; Statement of the Managers on the part of the House, H. (Cong.) Rep. No. 327, 87th Cong., 1st sess., p. 16.) In view of the retention in the 1961 amendments of the basic language of the original exemption, “employee employed as a seaman”, the legislative history and prior judicial construction (see § 783.29) of the scope and meaning of this phrase would seem controlling for purposes of the amended Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="406" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.406" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Who Is “Employed as a Seaman”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.31" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.406.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.31   Criteria for employment “as a seaman.”</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the legislative history and authoritative decisions as discussed in §§ 783.28 and 783.29, an employee will ordinarily be regarded as “employed as a seaman” if he performs, as master or subject to the authority, direction, and control of the master aboard a vessel, service which is rendered primarily as an aid in the operation of such vessel as a means of transportation, provided he performs no substantial amount of work of a different character. This is true with respect to vessels navigating inland waters as well as ocean-going and coastal vessels (<I>Sternberg Dredging Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 158 F. 2d 678; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196, certiorari denied 328 U.S. 866; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Great Lakes Dredge &amp; Dock Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 9, certiorari denied 327 U.S. 722; <I>Douglas</I> v. <I>Dixie Sand and Gravel Co.,</I> (E.D. Tenn.) 9 WH Cases 285). The Act's provisions with respect to seamen apply to a seaman only when he is “employed as” such (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> supra); it appears also from the language of section 6(b)(2) and 13(a)(14) that they are not intended to apply to any employee who is not employed on a vessel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.32" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.406.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.32   “Seaman” includes crew members.</HEAD>
<P>The term “seaman” includes members of the crew such as sailors, engineers, radio operators, firemen, pursers, surgeons, cooks, and stewards if, as is the usual case, their service is of the type described in § 783.31. In some cases it may not be of that type, in which event the special provisions relating to seamen will not be applicable (<I>Sternberg Dredging Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 158 F. 2d 678; <I>Cuascut</I> v. <I>Standard Dredging Co.,</I> 94 F. Supp. 197; <I>Woods Lumber Co.</I> v. <I>Tobin,</I> 199 F. 2d 455). However, an employee employed as a seaman does not lose his status as such simply because, as an incident to such employment, he performs some work not connected with operation of the vessel as a means of transportation, such as assisting in the loading or unloading of freight at the beginning or end of a voyage, if the amount of such work is not substantial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.33" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.406.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.33   Employment “as a seaman” depends on the work actually performed.</HEAD>
<P>Whether an employee is “employed as a seaman”, within the meaning of the Act, depends upon the character of the work he actually performs and not on what it is called or the place where it is performed (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196; <I>Cuascut</I> v. <I>Standard Dredging Corp.,</I> 94 F. Supp. 197). Merely because one works aboard a vessel (<I>Helena Glendale Ferry Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 132 F. 2d 616; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Bay State Dredging &amp; Contracting Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 346), or may be articled as a seaman (see <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> supra), or performs some maritime duties (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Bay State Dredging &amp; Contracting Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 346; <I>Anderson</I> v. <I>Manhattan Lighterage Corp.,</I> 148 F. 2d 971) one is not employed as a seaman within the meaning of the Act unless one's services are rendered primarily as an aid in the operation of the vessel as a means of transportation, as for example services performed substantially as an aid to the vessel in navigation. For this reason it would appear that employees making repairs to vessels between navigation seasons would not be “employed as” seamen during such a period. (See <I>Desper</I> v. <I>Starved Rock Ferry Co.,</I> 342 U.S. 187; but see <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Keansburg Steamboat Co.,</I> 162 F. 2d 405 in which the seaman exemption was allowed in the case of an article employee provided he also worked in the ensuing navigation period but not in the case of unarticled employees who only worked during the lay-up period.) For the same and other reasons, stevedores and longshoremen are not employed as seamen. (<I>Knudson</I> v. <I>Lee &amp; Simmons, Inc.,</I> 163 F. 2d 95.) Stevedores or roust-abouts traveling aboard a vessel from port to port whose principal duties require them to load and unload the vessel in port would not be employed as seamen even though during the voyage they may perform from time to time certain services of the same type as those rendered by other employees who would be regarded as seamen under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.34" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.406.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.34   Employees aboard vessels who are not “seamen”.</HEAD>
<P>Concessionaires and their employees aboard a vessel ordinarily do not perform their services subject to the authority, direction, and control of the master of the vessel, except incidentally, and their services are ordinarily not rendered primarily as an aid in the operation of the vessel as a means of transportation. As a rule, therefore, they are not employed as seamen for purposes of the Act. Also, other employees working aboard vessels, whose service is not rendered primarily as an aid to the operation of the vessel as a means of transportation are not employed as seamen (<I>Knudson</I> v. Lee &amp; Simmons, Inc., 163 F. 2d 95; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196, certiorari denied 32 U.S. 866). Thus, employees on floating equipment who are engaged in the construction of docks, levees, revetments or other structures, and employees engaged in dredging operations or in the digging or processing of sand, gravel, or other materials are not employed as seamen within the meaning of the Act but are engaged in performing essentially industrial or excavation work (<I>Sternberg Dredging Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 158 F. 2d 678; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> supra; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Bay State Dredging &amp; Contracting Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 346; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Great Lakes Dredge &amp; Dock Co.,</I> 149 F. 2d 9, certiorari denied 327 U.S. 722). Thus, “captains” and “deck hands” of launches whose dominant work was industrial activity performed as an integrated part of harbor dredging operations and not in furtherance of transportation have been held not to be employed as seamen within the meaning of the Act (<I>Cuascut</I> v. <I>Standard Dredging Corp.</I> 94 F. Supp. 197).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.35" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.406.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.35   Employees serving as “watchmen” aboard vessels in port.</HEAD>
<P>Various situations are presented with respect to employees rendering watchman or similar service aboard a vessel in port. Members of the crew, who render such services during a temporary stay in port or during a brief lay-up for minor repairs, are still employed as “seamen”. Where the vessel is laid up for a considerable period, members of the crew rendering watchman or similar services aboard the vessel during this period would not appear to be within the special provisions relating to seamen because their services are not rendered primarily as an aid in the operation of the vessel as a means of transportation. See <I>Desper</I> v. <I>Starved Rock Ferry Co.,</I> 342 U.S. 187. Furthermore, employees who are furnished by independent contractors to perform watchman or similar services aboard a vessel while in port would not be employed as seamen regardless of the period of time the vessel is in port, since such service is not of the type described in § 783.31. The same considerations would apply in the case of members of a temporary or skeleton crew hired merely to maintain the vessel while in port so that the regular crew may be granted shore leave. On the other hand, licensed relief officers engaged during relatively short stays in port whose duty it is to maintain the ship in safe and operational condition and who exercise the authority of the master in his absence, including keeping the log, checking the navigation equipment, assisting in the movement of the vessel while in port, are employed as seamen within the meaning of the exemptions. The same may be true of licensed relief engineers employed under the same circumstances whose duty it is to maintain the ship's auxiliary machinery in operation and repair (see <I>Pratt</I> v. <I>Alaska Packers Asso.</I> (N.D. Calif.) 9 WH Cases 61).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.36" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.406.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.36   Barge tenders.</HEAD>
<P>Barge tenders on non-selfpropelled barges who perform the normal duties of their occupation, such as attending to the lines and anchors, putting out running and mooring lights, pumping out bilge water, and other similar activities necessary and usual to the navigation of barges, are considered to be employed as “seamen” for the purposes of the Act unless they do a substantial amount of “non-seaman's” work (<I>Gale</I> v. <I>Union Bag &amp; Paper Corp.,</I> 116 F. (2d) 27 (C.A. 5, 1940), cert. den. 313 U.S. 559 (1941)). However, there are employees who, while employed on vessels such as barges and lighters, are primarily or substantially engaged in performing duties such as loading and unloading or custodial service which do not constitute service performed primarily as an aid in the operation of these vessels as a means of transportation and consequently are not employed as “seamen” (<I>McCarthy</I> v. <I>Wright &amp; Cobb Lighterage Co.,</I> 163 F. (2d) 92; <I>Anderson</I> v. <I>Manhattan Lighterage Corp.,</I> 148 F. (2d) 971, certiorari denied 326 U.S. 722; <I>Woods Lumber Co.</I> v. <I>Tobin,</I> 20 Labor Cases 66, 640 (W.D. Tenn, 1951), aff'd, 199 F. (2d) 455). Whether an employee is on board a vessel primarily to perform maritime services as a seaman or loading and unloading services typical of such shore-bases personnel as longshoremen is a question of fact and can be determined only after reviewing all the facts in the particular case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.37" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.406.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.37   Enforcement policy for non-seaman's work.</HEAD>
<P>In the enforcement of the Act, an employee will be regarded as “employed as a seaman” if his work as a whole meets the test stated in § 783.31, even though during the workweek he performs some work of a nature other than that which characterizes the service of a seaman, if such nonseaman's work is not substantial in amount. For enforcement purposes, the Administrator's position is that such differing work is “substantial” if it occupies more than 20 percent of the time worked by the employee during the workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="407" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.407" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>What Is an “American Vessel”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.38" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.407.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.38   Statutory definition of “American vessel”.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of section 6(b)(2) prescribe special methods for computing minimum wages and hours worked under the Act which are applicable only to seamen who are employed on American vessels. An “American vessel”, which would appear to signify a vessel of the United States as distinguished from a foreign vessel, “includes”, under the terms of the definition in section 3(p) of the Act, “any vessel which is documented or numbered under the laws of the United States.” The Department of the Treasury, Bureau of Customs and the United States Coast Guard, respectively, are responsible for documentation and numbering of vessels.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.39" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.407.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.39   “Vessel” includes all means of water transportation.</HEAD>
<P>Since the Act does not define “vessel” it is appropriate to apply the difinition of “vessel” as set forth in the United States Code (1 U.S.C. 3). The Code defines “vessel” as including “every description of watercraft or other artificial contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on water”. But the Federal Boating Act of 1958, (under which the U.S. Coast Guard is responsible for numbering vessels) and the Documentation Regulations administered by the Bureau of Customs, utilize this basic definition, with the addition of specific exclusions for “seaplanes” and “aircraft” (46 U.S.C. 527; 19 CFR 3.1(a)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.40" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.407.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.40   “Documented” vessel.</HEAD>
<P>A vessel “documented * * * under the laws of the United States” is typically a vessel which has been registered, enrolled and licensed, or licensed by the Bureau of Customs under the laws of the United States (46 U.S.C. 11, 193, 251-252, 258, 840). Although Bureau of Customs regulations provide for three types of documentations, distinctions between the categories of vessels subject to them are immaterial for the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act, since a vessel with any of the three kinds of documentation is an “American vessel” within the section 3(p) definition. Generally, any vessel of five net tons or more which is owned by a citizen of the United States is “entitled to” documentation. Complete information on the documentation requirements may be found in 19 CFR part 3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.41" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.407.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.41   “Numbered” vessel.</HEAD>
<P>A vessel “numbered under the laws of the United States” means a vessel numbered pursuant to the provisions of Federal law, including vessels numbered under any State numbering system approved by the Secretary of the Department under which the U.S. Coast Guard is operating, in accordance with section 2(c) of the Federal Boating Act of 1958 (46 U.S.C. 527-527h). Generally, any vessel, which is not required to have and does not have, a valid marine document issued by the Bureau of Customs and is propelled by machinery of more than 10 horsepower, whether or not such machinery is the principal source of propulsion, is required to be numbered in conformity with the Federal Boating Act of 1958 if it uses the navigable waters of the United States, its Territories, or the District of Columbia, or is owned in a State and uses the high seas (46 U.S.C. 527(a)). The requirements and procedures of this Act are explained in detail in 46 CFR part 170.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.42" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.407.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.42   Vessels neither “documented” nor “numbered”.</HEAD>
<P>An “American vessel” on which employment as a seaman is subject to the minimum wage under the provisions of section 6(b)(2) and section 13(a)(14) is not limited by the language of the Act to those vessels which are “documented” or “numbered” as described above in §§ 783.40 and 783.41. Since the term “American vessel” has traditionally been applied to regularly documented vessels (see <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Rogers,</I> 27 Fed. Cas. 890; <I>Badger</I> v. <I>Entierrez,</I> 111 U.S. 734; 18 Op. A.G. 234 (1885); 48 Am. Jur. 40), the inclusion of numbered vessels in the statutory definition of “American vessel” would indicate that the work “includes” is used in the sense of “embracing”, as an enlargement and not as a word of limitation. The term may therefore apply to other vessels that do not fall within the illustrations given. For example, neither the documenting laws nor the numbering laws apply to vessels plying the purely internal waters of a State which do not join up with navigable waters touching on another State (19 CFR 3.5(a)(4); 33 CFR 2.10-5), but, nevertheless, the Fair Labor Standards Act does apply in those areas and it clearly would not comport with the remedial purpose of the Act to exclude from its minimum wage provisions seamen engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce in those areas though the vessels are not documented or numbered. On the contrary, the legislative history shows the affirmative purpose to improve, though to a limited extent, the status of seamen (Sen. Rep. No. 145, 87th Cong., 1st sess., p. 32, 50).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="408" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.408" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Computation of Wages and Hours</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.43" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.408.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.43   Computation of seaman's minimum wage.</HEAD>
<P>Section 6(b) requires, under paragraph (2) of the subsection, that an employee employed as a seaman on an American vessel be paid wages at not less than the rate which will provide to the employee, for the period covered by the wage payment, wages which are equal to compensation for all hours on duty in such period at the hourly rate prescribed for employees newly covered by the Act's minimum wage requirements by reason of the 1961 Amendments (see §§ 783.23 and 783.26). Although the Act takes the workweek as the unit of time to be used in determining compliance with the minimum wage of overtime requirements and in applying the exemptions, Congress, in recognition of the unique working conditions of seamen and of the customs in the industry, made this special provision. Under section 6(b)(2) periods other than a workweek may be used, in accordance with established customs in the industry, as the basis for calculating wages for covered seamen provided the wages equal the compensation at the applicable minimum hourly rate which would be due to the employee for his hours actually spent on duty in the period. This would mean that the wage period may properly cover, for example, the period of a month or of a voyage so long as the seaman receives at the appropriate time compensation at least equal to the prescribed minimum rate for each compensable hour in that pay period. (See also § 531.26 of this chapter concerning requirements of other laws governing calculation of wages and frequency and manner of payment.) To illustrate, where seamen have customarily been paid monthly under an arrangement to perform seamen's duties during stipulated periods and to be off duty during stipulated periods during the month, if such a seaman works 300 hours during the month and receives his monthly compensation in an amount equal to a payment for that number of hours at the applicable minimum rate, there would be compliance with the requirements of section 6(b)(2). The fact that this seaman works a varying number of hours during the weeks comprising the monthly period or that the monthly compensation is disbursed in two or four partial payments to the seaman during the month would not warrant a contrary conclusion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.44" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.408.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.44   Board and lodging as wages.</HEAD>
<P>The wages for the period covered by the wage payment include all remuneration for employment paid to or on behalf of the employee for all hours actually on duty intended to be compensated by such wage payment. The reasonable cost or fair value, as determined by the Secretary of Labor pursuant to section 3(m) of the Act, of board and lodging furnished the employee during such period, if customarily furnished by the employer to his employees, is also included as part of the wages for the actual hours worked in the period (see § 783.16). However, the cost of board and lodging would not be included as part of the wages paid to the employee to the extent it is excluded from the employee's wages under terms of a bona fide collective bargaining agreement applicable to such employee, whether or not customarily furnished to the employee. Where such an exclusion is not provided for in any bona fide collective bargaining agreement applicable to the employee, the reasonable cost or fair value thereof, whichever is appropriate, as determined in accordance with the standards set forth in the regulations in part 531 of this chapter, is included as part of the wage paid to such employee. Part 531 of this chapter also contains the official regulations and interpretations of the Department of Labor concerning the application of section 3(m) to other facilities as well as board and lodging furnished to an employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.45" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.408.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.45   Deductions from wages.</HEAD>
<P>Where deductions are made from the wages of a seaman subject to section 6(b) of the Act, consideration must be given as to whether or not such deductions are permitted to be made when they result in the seaman receiving cash wages which are less than the applicable minimum wage rate for each hour actually on duty during the period covered by the wage payments. Such considerations are to be based upon the principles and interpretations governing such deductions. These are set forth and discussed in part 531 of this chapter. The methods of paying the compensation required by section 6 and the application thereto of the provisions of section 3(m) of the Act, which are set forth and explained in the said part 531, are applicable to seamen subject to the minimum wage provisions of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.46" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.408.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.46   Hours worked.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of section 6(b)(2) of the Act require that a seaman employed on an American vessel be paid wages equal to compensation at not less than the prescribed minimum wage rate for all of the hours the employee “was actually on duty (including periods aboard ship when the employee was on watch or was, at the direction of a superior officer, performing work or standing by, but not including off-duty periods which are provided pursuant to the employment agreement)”. The Act in this portion of section 6(b)(2) is reflecting concepts that are well established in the law, and existing precedents (in such cases as <I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126; <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134; <I>Steiner</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> 350 U.S. 247; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>King Packing Co.,</I> 350 U.S. 260; <I>Tennessee Coal, Iron &amp; R. Co.</I> v. <I>Muscoda Local N. 123,</I> 321 U.S. 590; and <I>General Electric Co.</I> v. <I>Porter,</I> 208 F. 2d 805, certiorari denied, 347 U.S. 951, 975) would be applicable in determining what time constitutes hours worked. See also the general discussion of hours worked in part 785 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.47" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.408.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.47   Off-duty periods.</HEAD>
<P>Off-duty periods include not only such periods as shore leave but also generally those hours spent by a seaman on the vessel outside his watch or normal or regular working hours and his standby periods during which hours he is not required to perform and does not perform work of any kind but is free to utilize his time for his own purpose. The fact that during such off-duty periods the employee is subject to call in case of emergency situations affecting the safety and welfare of the vessel upon which he is employed, or of its passengers, crew, or cargo or for participation in life boat or fire drills will not render such off-duty periods, excluded by employment agreement applicable to the employee, “hours worked”. Responding to such calls, however, as well as the performance of work in response thereto constitute compensable work time. For further and more detailed discussion on what generally are regarded as “hours worked” under the Act, see part 785 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="409" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.409" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Application of the Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.48" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.409.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.48   Factors determining application of exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The application of the exemptions provided by section 13(a)(14) and section 13(b)(6) of the Act is determined in accordance with their language and scope as explained in §§ 783.24, 783.25, and 783.27, with regard to the principles set forth in § 783.20 and the legislative history and judicial construction outlined in §§ 783.28 through 783.30. Whether a particular employee is exempt depends on what he does, as explained in §§ 783.31 through 783.37. Whether he is exempt from the overtime pay provisions only or from minimum wages as well depends on whether his employment is or is not on an American vessel, which is determined as indicated in §§ 783.38 through 783.42. In addition, sections 13(a)(14) and 13(b)(6), like other exemptions in the Act, apply on a workweek basis as mentioned in § 783.43 and explained in §§ 783.49 and 783.50.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.49" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.409.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.49   Workweek unit in applying the exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The unit of time to be used in determining the application of the exemption provided by section 13(b)(6) or 13(a)(14) to an employee is the workweek. (See <I>Overnight Transportation Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572; <I>Sternberg Dredging Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 158 F. 2d 678.) This is the period used in determining whether a substantial amount of non-seaman's work has been performed so as to make the exemption inapplicable. See § 783.37. A workweek is a fixed and regularly recurring interval of 7 consecutive 24-hour periods. It may begin at any hour of any day set by the employer and need not coincide with the calendar week. Once the workweek has been set it commences each succeeding week on the same day and at the same hour. Changing of the workweek for the purpose of escaping the requirements of the Act is not permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.409.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.50   Work exempt under another section of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee performs work during his workweek, some of which is exempt under one section of the Act, and the remainder of which is exempt under another section or sections of the Act, the exemptions may be combined. The employee's combination exemption is controlled in such case by that exemption which is narrower in scope. For example, if part of his work is exempt from both minimum wage and overtime compensation under one section of the Act, and the rest is exempt only from the overtime pay requirements under section 13(b)(6), the employee is exempt that week from the overtime pay provisions but not from the minimum wage requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.51" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.43.0.409.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.51   Seamen on a fishing vessel.</HEAD>
<P>In extending the minimum wage to seamen on American vessels by limiting the exemption from minimum wages and overtime provided by section 13(a)(14) of the Act to “any employee employed as a seaman on a vessel other than an American vessel,” and at the same time extending the minimum wage to “onshore” but not “offshore” operations concerned with aquatic products, the Congress, in the 1961 Amendments to the Act, did not indicate any intent to remove the crews of fishing vessels engaged in operations named in section 13(a)(5) from the exemption provided by that section. The exemption provided by section 13(a)(14), and the general exemption in section 13(b)(6) from overtime for “any employee employed as a seaman” (whether or not on an American vessel) apply, in general, to employees, working aboard vessels, whose services are rendered primarily as an aid to navigation (§§ 783.31-783.37). It appears, however, that it is not the custom or practice in the fishing industry for a fishing vessel to have two crews; namely, a fishing crew whose duty it is primarily to fish and to perform other duties incidental thereto and a navigational crew whose duty it is primarily to operate the boat. Where, as is the typical situation, there is but one crew which performs all these functions, the section 13(a)(5) exemption from both the minimum wage and the overtime provisions would apply to its members. For a further explanation of the fishery exemption see part 784 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="784" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 784—PROVISIONS OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT APPLICABLE TO FISHING AND OPERATIONS ON AQUATIC PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended, 75 Stat. 65; 29 U.S.C. 201-219.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 13342, Aug. 20, 1970, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="423" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.423" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.423.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.0   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>It is the purpose of this part to provide an official statement of the views of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of sections 13(a)(5) and 13(b)(4) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, which govern the application of the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements of the Act to employees engaged in fishing and related activities and in operations on aquatic products. It is an objective of this part to make available in one place, the interpretations of law relating to such employment which will guide the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator in carrying out their responsibilities under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.423.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.1   General scope of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, is a Federal statute of general application which establishes minimum wage, overtime pay, equal pay, and child labor requirements that apply as provided in the Act. Employers and employees in enterprises engaged in fishing and related activities, or in operations on aquatic products on shore, need to know how the Act applies to employment in these enterprises so that they may understand their rights and obligations under the law. All employees whose employment has the relationship to interstate or foreign commerce which the Act specifies are subject to the prescribed labor standards unless specifically exempted from them. Employers having such employees are required to comply with the Act's provisions in this regard and with specified recordkeeping requirements contained in part 516 of this chapter. The law authorizes the Department of Labor to investigate for compliance and, in the event of violations, to supervise the payment of unpaid minimum wages or unpaid overtime compensation owing to any employee. The law also provides for enforcement in the courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.423.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.2   Matters discussed in this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part discusses generally the provisions of the Act which govern its application to employers and employees in enterprises and establishments of the fisheries, seafood processing, and related industries. It discusses in some detail those exemption provisions of the Act in sections 13(a)(5) and 13(b)(4) which refer specifically to employees employed in described activities with respect to seafood and other forms of aquatic life.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.423.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.3   Matters discussed in other interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Interpretations having general application to others subject to the law, as well as to fishermen and seafood canners, processors, or distributors and their employees, have been issued on a number of subjects of general interest. These will be found in other parts of this chapter. Reference should be made to them for guidance on matters which they discuss in detail, which this part does not undertake to do. They include part 776 of this chapter, discussing coverage; part 531 of this chapter, discussing payment of wages; part 778 of this chapter, discussing computation and payment of overtime compensation; part 785 of this chapter, discussing the calculation of hours worked; and part 800 of this chapter, discussing equal pay for equal work. Reference should also be made to subpart G of part 570 of this chapter, which contains the official interpretations of the child labor provisions of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.423.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.4   Significance of official interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part contain the official interpretations of the Department of Labor pertaining to the exemptions provided in sections 13(a)(5) and 13(b)(4) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. It is intended that the positions stated will serve as “a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 138). These interpretations indicate the construction of the law which the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator believe to be correct and which will guide them in the performance of their duties under the Act, unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude upon re-examination of an interpretation that it is incorrect. The interpretations contained herein may be relied upon in accordance with section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act (29 U.S.C. 251-262), so long as they remain effective and are not modified, amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial authority to be incorrect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.423.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.5   Basic support for interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate decisions on interpretations of the Act are made by the courts (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Zachry,</I> 362 U.S. 310; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517). Court decisions supporting interpretations contained in this part are cited where it is believed they may be helpful. On matters which have not been determined by the courts, it is necessary for the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator to reach conclusions as to the meaning and the application of provisions of the law in order to carry out their responsibilities of administration and enforcement (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). In order that these positions may be made known to persons who may be affected by them, official interpretations are issued by the Administrator on the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, as authorized by the Secretary (Reorganization Plan 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263; Gen. Ord. 45 A, May 24, 1950; 15 FR 3290). As included in the regulations in this part, these interpretations are believed to express the intent of the law as reflected in its provisions and as construed by the courts and evidenced by its legislative history. References to pertinent legislative history are made in this part where it appears that they will contribute to a better understanding of the interpretations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.423.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.6   Interpretations made, continued, and superseded by this part.</HEAD>
<P>On and after publication of this part 784 in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the interpretations contained therein shall be in effect, and shall remain in effect until they are modified, rescinded, or withdrawn. This part supersedes and replaces the interpretations previously published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and Code of Federal Regulations as part 784 of this chapter. Prior opinions, rulings, and interpretations and prior enforcement policies which are not inconsistent with the interpretations in this part or with the Fair Labor Standards Act as amended are continued in effect; all other opinions, rulings, interpretations, and enforcement policies on the subjects discussed in the interpretations in this part are rescinded and withdrawn. The interpretations in this part provide statements of general principles applicable to the subjects discussed and illustrations of the application of these principles to situations that frequently arise. They do not and cannot refer specifically to every problem which may be met by employers and employees in the application of the Act. The omission to discuss a particular problem in this part or in interpretations supplementing it should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Secretary of Labor or the Administrator with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice or enforcement policy. Questions on matters not fully covered by this bulletin may be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or to any Regional Office of the Division.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="424" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Some Basic Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.7   Definition of terms used in the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The meaning and application of the provisions of law discussed in this part depend in large degree on the definitions of terms used in these provisions. The Act itself defines some of these terms. Others have been defined and construed in decisions of the courts. In the following sections some of these basic definitions are set forth for ready reference in connection with the part's discussion of the various provisions in which they appear. These definitions and their application are further considered in other interpretative bulletins to which reference is made, and in the sections of this part where the particular provisions containing the defined terms are discussed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.8   “Employer,” “employee,” and “employ.”</HEAD>
<P>The Act's major provisions impose certain requirements and prohibitions on every “employer” subject to their terms. The employment by an “employer” of an “employee” is, to the extent specified in the Act, made subject to minimum wage and overtime pay requirements and to prohibitions against the employment of oppressive child labor. The Act provides its own definitions of “employer,” “employee” and “employ,” under which “economic reality” rather than “technical concepts” determines whether there is employment subject to its terms (<I>Goldberg</I> v. <I>Whitaker House Cooperative,</I> 366 U.S. 28; <I>United States</I> v. <I>Silk,</I> 331 U.S. 704; <I>Rutherford Food Corp.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 331 U.S. 722). An “employer,” as defined in section 3(d) of the Act, “includes any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee but shall not include the United States or any State or political subdivision of a State or any labor organization (other than when acting as an employer), or anyone acting in the capacity of officer or agent of such labor organization.” An “employee,” as defined in section 3(e) of the Act, “includes any individual employed by an employer,” and “employ,” as used in the Act, is defined in section 3(g) to include “to suffer or permit to work.” It should be noted, as explained in part 791 of this chapter, dealing with joint employment that in appropriate circumstances two or more employers may be jointly responsible for compliance with the statutory requirements applicable to employment of a particular employee. It should also be noted that “employer,” “enterprise,” and “establishment” are not synonymous terms, as used in the Act. An employer may have an enterprise with more than one establishment, or he may have more than one enterprise in which he employs employees within the meaning of the Act. Also, there may be different employers who employ employees in a particular establishment or enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.9   “Person.”</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act (including the definition of “enterprise” set forth below in § 784.10), “person” is defined as meaning “an individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, or any organized group of persons” (Act, section 3(a)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.10   “Enterprise.”</HEAD>
<P>The term “enterprise” which may, in some situations, be pertinent in determining coverage of this Act to employees employed by employers engaged in the procurement, processing, or distribution of aquatic products, is defined in section 3(r) of the Act, section 3(r) states:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Enterprise means the related activities performed (either through unified operation or common control) by any person or persons for a common business purpose, and includes all such activities whether performed in one or more establishments or by one or more corporate or other organizational units including departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements, but shall not include the related activities performed for such enterprise by an independent contractor * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The scope and application of this definition is discussed in part 776 of this chapter.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.11   “Establishment.”</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act, the term “establishment”, which is not specially defined therein, refers to a “distinct physical place of business” rather than to “an entire business or enterprise” which may include several separate places of business. This is consistent with the meaning of the term as it is normally used in business and in government, is judicially settled, and has been recognized in the Congress in the course of enactment of amendatory legislation (<I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Bekins Van &amp; Storage Co.,</I> 352 U.S. 1027; 95 Cong. Rec. 12505, 12579, 14877; H. Rept. No. 1453, 81st Cong., first session, p. 25). This is the meaning of the term as used in sections 3(r) and 3(s) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.12   “Commerce.”</HEAD>
<P>“Commerce” as used in the Act includes interstate and foreign commerce. It is defined in section 3(b) of the Act to mean “trade, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.” (For the definition of “State,” see § 784.15.) The application of this definition and the kinds of activities which it includes are discussed at length in part 776 of this chapter dealing with the general coverage of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.13   “Production.”</HEAD>
<P>To understand the meaning of “production” of goods for commerce as used in the Act it is necessary to refer to the definition in section 3(j) of the term “produced.” A detailed discussion of the application of the term as defined is contained in part 776 of this chapter, dealing with the general coverage of the Act. Section 3(j) provides that “produced” as used in the Act “means produced, manufactured, mined, handled, or in any other manner worked on in any State; and for the purposes of this Act an employee shall be deemed to have been engaged in the production of goods if such employee was employed in producing, manufacturing, mining, handling, transporting, or in any other manner working on such goods, or in any closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production thereof, in any State.” (For the definition of “State” see § 784.15.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.14   “Goods.”</HEAD>
<P>The definition in section 3(i) of the Act states that “goods,” as used in the Act, means “goods (including ships and marine equipment), wares, products, commodities, merchandise, or articles or subjects of commerce of any character, or any part or ingredient thereof, but does not include goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer thereof other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof.” Part 776 of this chapter, dealing with the general coverage of the Act, contains a detailed discussion of the application of this definition and what is included in it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.15   “State.”</HEAD>
<P>As used in the Act, “State” means “any State of the United States or the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States” (Act, section 3(c)). The application of this definition in determining questions of “coverage under the Act's definition of “commerce” and “produced” (see §§ 784.12, 784.13) is discussed in part 776 of this chapter, dealing with general coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.424.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.16   “Regular rate.”</HEAD>
<P>As explained in part 778 of this chapter, dealing with overtime compensation, employees subject to the overtime pay provisions of the Act must generally receive for their overtime work in any workweek as provided in the Act not less than one and one-half times their regular rates of pay. Section 7(e) of the Act defines the term “regular rate” “to include all remuneration for employment paid to, or on behalf of, the employee” except certain payments which are expressly described in and excluded by the statutory definition. This definition, which is discussed at length in part 778 of this chapter, determines the regular rate upon which time and one-half overtime compensation must be computed under section 7(a) of the Act for employees within its general coverage who are not exempt from the overtime provisions under either of the fishery and seafood exemptions provided by sections 13(a)(5) and 13(b)(4) or under some other exemption contained in the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="425" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.425" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Application of Coverage and Exemptions Provisions of the Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.425.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.17   Basic coverage in general.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in specific exemptions, the minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor standards of the Act are generally applicable to employees who engage in specified activities concerned with interstate or foreign commerce. The employment of oppressive child labor in or about establishments producing goods for such commerce is also restricted by the Act. The monetary and child labor standards of the Act are also generally applicable to other employees, not specifically exempted, who are employed in specified enterprises engaged in such commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce. The employer must observe the monetary standards with respect to all such employees in his employ except those who may be denied one or both of these benefits by virtue of some specific exemption provision of the Act, such as section 13(a)(5) or 13(b)(4). It should be noted that enterprises having employees subject to these exemptions may also have other employees who may be exempt under section 13(a)(1) of the Act, subject to conditions specified in regulations, as employees employed in a bona fide executive, administrative, or professional capacity, or in the capacity of outside salesman. The regulations governing these exemptions are set forth and explained in part 541 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.425.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.18   Commerce activities of employees.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Act has applied since 1938 to all employees, not specifically exempted, who are engaged (a) in interstate or foreign commerce or (b) in the production of goods for such commerce, which is defined to include any closely related process or occupation directly essential to such production (29 U.S.C. 206(a), 207(a); and see §§ 784.12 to 784.15 for definitions governing the scope of this coverage). In general, employees of businesses concerned with fisheries and with operations on seafood and other aquatic products are engaged in interstate or foreign commerce, or in the production of goods for such commerce, as defined in the Act, and are subject to the Act's provisions except as otherwise provided in sections 13(a)(5) and 13(b)(4) or other express exemptions. A detailed discussion of the activities in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce which will bring an employee under the Act is contained in part 776 of this chapter, dealing with general coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.425.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.19   Commerce activities of enterprise in which employee is employed.</HEAD>
<P>Under amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act employees not covered by reason of their personal engagement in interstate commerce activities, as explained in § 784.18, are nevertheless brought within the coverage of the Act if they are employed in an enterprise which is defined in section 3(s) of the Act as an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. Such employees, if not exempt from minimum wages and overtime pay under section 13(a)(5) or exempt from overtime pay under section 13(b)(4), will have to be paid in accordance with the monetary standards of the Act unless expressly exempt under some other provision. This would generally be true of employees employed in enterprises and by establishments engaged in the procurement, processing, marketing, or distribution of seafood and other aquatic products, where the enterprise has an annual gross sales volume of not less than $250,000. Enterprise coverage is more fully discussed in part 776 of this chapter, dealing with general coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.425.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.20   Exemptions from the Act's provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The Act provides a number of specific exemptions from the general requirements previously described. Some are exemptions from the overtime provisions only. Several are exemptions from both the minimum wage and the overtime requirements of the Act. Finally, there are some exemptions from all three—minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor requirements. An examination of the terminology in which the exemptions from the general coverage of the Fair Labor Standards Act are stated discloses language patterns which reflect congressional intent. Thus, Congress specified in varying degree the criteria for application of each of the exemptions and in a number of instances differentiated as to whether employees are to be exempt because they are employed by a particular kind of employer, employed in a particular type of establishment, employed in a particular industry, employed in a particular capacity or occupation or engaged in a specified operation. (See 29 U.S.C. 203(d); 207 (b), (c), (i); 213 (a), (b), (c), (d). And see <I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill,</I> 322 U.S. 607; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Trade Winds, Inc.,</I> 289 F. 2d 278; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d (210). In general there are no exemptions from the child labor requirements that apply in enterprises or establishments engaged in fishing or in operations on aquatic products (see part 570, subpart G, of this chapter). Such enterprises or establishments will, however, be concerned with the exemption from overtime pay in section 13(b)(4) of the Act for employees employed in specified “on-shore” operations (see § 784.101), and the exemption from minimum wages and overtime pay provided by section 13(a)(5) for employees employed in fishing, fish-farming, and other specified “off-shore” operations on aquatic products. These exemptions, which are subject to the general rules stated in § 784.21, are discussed at length in subpart B of this part 784.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.1.425.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.21   Guiding principles for applying coverage and exemption provisions.</HEAD>
<P>It is clear that Congress intended the Fair Labor Standards Act to be broad in its scope. “Breadth of coverage is vital to its mission” (<I>Powell</I> v. <I>U.S. Cartridge Co.,</I> 339 U.S. 497). An employer who claims an exemption under the Act has the burden of showing that it applies (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>General Industries Co.,</I> 330 U.S. 545; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290: <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Blue Channel Corp.,</I> 198 F. 2d 245, approved in <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Myrtle Grove Packing Co.,</I> 350 U.S. 891; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52). Conditions specified in the language of the Act are “explicit prerequisites to exemption” (<I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388). In their application, the purpose of the exemption as shown in its legislative history as well as its language should be given effect. However, “the details with which the exemptions in this Act have been made preclude their enlargement by implication” and “no matter how broad the exemption, it is meant to apply only to” the specified activities (<I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill,</I> 322 U.S. 607; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254). Exemptions provided in the Act “are to be narrowly construed against the employer seeking to assert them” and their application limited to those who come “plainly and unmistakably within their terms and spirit.” This construction of the exemptions is necessary to carry out the broad objectives for which the Act was passed (<I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> supra; <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> supra; <I>Calaf</I> v. <I>Gonzales,</I> 127 F. 2d 934; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzales,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemptions Provisions Relating to Fishing and Aquatic Products</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="426" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.426" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>The Statutory Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.426.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.100   The section 13(a)(5) exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(5) grants an exemption from both the minimum wage and the overtime requirements of the Act and applies to “any employee employed in the catching, taking, propagating, harvesting, cultivating, or farming of any kind of fish, shellfish, crustacea, sponges, seaweeds, or other aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life, or in the first processing, canning, or packing of such marine products at sea as an incident to, or in conjunction with, such fishing operations, including the going to and returning from work and loading and unloading when performed by any such employee.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.426.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.101   The section 13(b)(4) exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(4) grants an exemption only from the overtime requirements of the Act and applies to “any employee employed in the canning, processing, marketing, freezing, curing, storing, packing for shipment, or distributing of any kind of fish shellfish, or other aquatic forms of animal or vegetable life, or any byproduct thereof.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="427" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.427" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Legislative History of Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.427.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.102   General legislative history.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As orginally enacted in 1938, the Fair Labor Standards Act provided an exemption from both the minimum wage requirements of section 6 and the overtime pay requirements of section 7 which was made applicable to “any employee employed in the catching, taking, harvesting, cultivating, or farming of any kind of fish, shellfish, crustacea, sponges, seaweeds or other aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life, including the going to and returning from work and including employment in the loading, unloading, or packing of such products for shipment or in propagating, processing, marketing, freezing, canning, curing, storing, or distributing the above products or by products thereof” (52 Stat. 1060, sec. 13(a)(5)).
</P>
<P>(b) In 1949 the minimum wage was extended to employees employed in canning such products by deleting the word “canning” from the above exemption, adding the parenthetical phrase “(other than canning)” after the word “processing” therein, and providing a new exemption in section 13(b)(4), from overtime pay provisions only, applicable to “any employee employed in the canning of any kind of fish, shellfish, or other aquatic forms of animal or vegetable life, or any byproduct thereof”. All other employees included in the original minimum wage and overtime exemption remained within it (63 Stat. 910).
</P>
<P>(c) By the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1961, both these exemptions were further revised to read as set forth in §§ 784.100 and 784.101. The effect of this change was to provide a means of equalizing the application of the Act as between canning employees and employees employed in other processing, marketing, and distributing of aquatic products on shore, to whom minimum wage protection, formerly provided only for canning employees, was extended by this action. The 1961 amendments, however, left employees employed in fishing, in fish farming, and in related occupations concerned with procurement of aquatic products from nature, under the existing exemption from minimum wages as well as overtime pay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.427.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.103   Adoption of the exemption in the original 1938 Act.</HEAD>
<P>Although in the course of consideration of the legislation in Congress before passage in 1938, provisions to exempt employment in fisheries and aquatic products activities took various forms, section 13(a)(5), as drafted by the conference committee and finally approved, followed the language of an amendment adopted during consideration of the bill by the House of Representatives on May 24, 1938, which was proposed by Congressman Bland of Virginia. He had earlier on the same day, offered an amendment which had as its objective the exemption of the “fishery industry,” broadly defined. The amendment had been defeated (83 Cong. Rec. 7408), as had an amendment subsequently offered by Congressman Mott of Oregon (to a pending amendment proposed by Congressman Coffee of Nebraska) which would have provided an exemption for “industries engaged in producing, processing, distributing, or handling * * * fishery or seafood products which are seasonal or perishable” (83 Cong. Rec. 7421-7423). Against this background, when Congressman Bland offered his amendment which ultimately became section 13(a)(5) of the Act he took pains to explain: “This amendment is not the same. In the last amendment I was trying to define the fishery industry. I am now dealing with those persons who are exempt, and I call the attention of the Committee to the language with respect to the employment of persons in agriculture * * * I am only asking for the seafood and fishery industry that which has been done for agriculture.” It was after this explanation that the amendment was adopted (83 Cong. Rec. 7443). When the conference committee included in the final legislation this provision from the House bill, it omitted from the bill another House provision granting an hours exemption for employees “in any place of employment” where the employer was “engaged in the processing of or in canning fresh fish or fresh seafood” and the provision of the Senate bill providing an hours exemption for employees “employed in connection with” the canning or other packing of fish, etc. (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Consolidated Fisheries,</I> 75 F. Supp. 798). The indication in this legislative history that the exemption in its final form was intended to depend upon the employment of the particular employee in the specified activities is in accord with the position of the Department of Labor and the weight of judicial authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.427.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.104   The 1949 amendments.</HEAD>
<P>In deleting employees employed in canning aquatic products from the section 13(a)(5) exemption and providing them with an exemption in like language from the overtime provisions only in section 13(b)(4), the conferees on the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949 did not indicate any intention to change in any way the category of employees who would be exempt as “employed in the canning of” the aquatic products. As the Supreme Court has pointed out in a number of decisions, “When Congress amended the Act in 1949 it provided that pre-1949 rulings and interpretations by the Administrator should remain in effect unless inconsistent with the statute as amended 63 Stat. 920” (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290). In connection with this exemption the conference report specifically indicates what operations are included in the canning process (see § 784.142). In a case decided before the 1961 amendments to the Act, this was held to “indicate that Congress intended that only those employees engaged in operations physically essential in the canning of fish, such as cutting the fish, placing it in cans, labelling and packing the cans for shipment are in the exempt category” (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.427.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.105   The 1961 amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The statement of the Managers on the Part of the House in the conference report on the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1961 (H. Rept. No. 327, 87th Cong., first session, p. 16) refers to the fact that the changes made in sections 13(a)(5) and 13(b)(4) originated in the Senate amendment to the House bill and were not in the bill as passed by the House. In describing the Senate provision which was retained in the final legislation, the Managers stated that it “changes the exemption in the act for” the operations transferred to section 13(b)(4) from section 13(a)(5) “from a minimum wage and overtime exemption to an overtime only exemption.” They further stated: “The present complete exemption is retained for employees employed in catching, propagating, taking, harvesting, cultivating, or farming fish and certain other marine products, or in the first processing, canning, or packing such marine products at sea as an incident to, or in conjunction with, such fishing operations, including the going to and returning from work and loading and unloading when performed by such an employee.” In the report of the Senate committee on the provision included in the Senate bill (S. Rept. No. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 33), the committee stated: “The bill would modify the minimum wage and overtime exemption in section 13(a)(5) of the Act for employees engaged in fishing and in specified activities on aquatic products.” In further explanation, the report states that the bill would amend this section “to remove from this exemption those so-called on-shore activities and leave the exemption applicable to ‘offshore’ activities connected with the procurement of the aquatic products, including first processing, canning, or packing at sea performed as an incident to fishing operations, as well as employment in loading and unloading such products for shipment when performed by any employee engaged in these procurement operations.” It is further stated in the report that “persons who are employed in the activities removed from the section 13(a)(5) exemption will have minimum wage protection but will continue to be exempt from the Act's overtime requirements under an amended section 13(b)(4). The bill will thus have the effect of placing fish processing and fish canning on the same basis under the Act. There is no logical reason for treating them differently and their inclusion within the Act's protection is desirable and consistent with its objectives.”
</P>
<P>(b) The language of the Managers on the Part of the House in the conference report and of the Senate committee in its report, as quoted above, is consistent with the position supported by the earlier legislative history and by the courts, that the exemption of an employee under these provisions of the Act depends on what he does. The Senate report speaks of the exemption “for employees engaged in fishing and in specified activities” and of the “activities now enumerated in this section.” While this language confirms the legislative intent to continue to provide exemptions for employees employed in specified activities rather than to grant exemption on an industry, employer, or establishment basis (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Trade Winds, Inc.,</I> 289 F. 2d 278), the report also refers with apparent approval to certain prior judicial interpretations indicating that the list of activities set out in the exemption provisions is intended to be “a complete catalog of the activities involved in the fishery industry” and that an employee to be exempt, need not engage directly in the physical acts of catching, processing, canning, etc. of aquatic products which are included in the operation specifically named in the statute (<I>McComb</I> v. <I>Consolidated Fisheries Co.,</I> 174 F. 2d 74). It was stated that an interpretation of section 13(a)(5) and section 13(b)(4) which would include within their purview “any employee who participates in activities which are necessary to the conduct of the operations specifically described in the exemptions” is “consistent with the congressional purpose” of the 1961 amendments. (See Sen. Rep. No. 145, 87 Cong., first session, p. 33; Statement of Representative Roosevelt, 107 Cong. Rec. (daily ed.) p. 6716, as corrected May 4, 1961.) From this legislative history the intent is apparent that the application of these exemptions under the Act as amended in 1961 is to be determined by the practical and functional relationship of the employee's work to the performance of the operations specifically named in section 13(a)(5) and section 13(b)(4).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="428" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Principles Applicable to the Two Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.106   Relationship of employee's work to the named operations.</HEAD>
<P>It is clear from the language of section 13(a)(5) and section 13(b)(4) of the Act, and from their legislative history as discussed in §§ 784.102-784.105, that the exemptions which they provide are applicable only to those employees who are “employed in” the named operations. Under the Act as amended in 1961 and in accordance with the evident legislative intent (see § 784.105), an employee will be considered to be “employed in” an operation named in section 13(a)(5) or 13(b)(4) where his work is an essential and integrated step in performing such named operation (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Myrtle Grove Packing Co.,</I> 350 U.S. 891, approving <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Blue Channel Corp.,</I> 198 F. 2d 245; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210), or where the employee is engaged in activities which are functionally so related to a named operation under the particular facts and circumstances that they are necessary to the conduct of such operation and his employment is, as a practical matter, necessarily and directly a part of carrying on the operation for which exemption was intended (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Trade Winds, Inc.,</I> 289 F. 2d 278; see also <I>Waller</I> v. <I>Humphreys,</I> 133 F. 2d 193 and <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Consolidated Fisheries Co.,</I> 174 F. 2d 74). Under these principles, generally an employee performing functions without which the named operations could not go on is, as a practical matter, “employed in” such operations. It is also possible for an employee to come within the exemption provided by section 13(a)(5) or section 13(b)(4) even though he does not directly participate in the physical acts which are performed on the enumerated marine products in carrying on the operations which are named in that section of the Act. However, it is not enough to establish the applicability of such an exemption that an employee is hired by an employer who is engaged in one or more of the named operations or that the employee is employed by an establishment or in an industry in which operations enumerated in section 13(a)(5) or section 13(b)(4) are performed. The relationship between what he does and the performance of the named operations must be examined to determine whether an application of the above-stated principles to all the facts and circumstances will justify the conclusion that he is “employed in” such operations within the intendment of the exemption provision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.107" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.107   Relationship of employee's work to operations on the specified aquatic products.</HEAD>
<P>It is also necessary to the application of the exemptions that the operation of which the employee's work is a part be performed on the marine products named in the Act. Thus the operations described in section 13(a)(5) must be performed with respect to “any kind of fish, shellfish, crustacea, sponges, seaweeds, or other aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life.” The operations enumerated in section 13(b)(4) must be performed with respect to “any kind of fish, shellfish, or other aquatic forms of animal or vegetable life, or any byproduct thereof”. Work performed on products which do not fall within these descriptions is not within the exemptions (<I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Trade Winds, Inc.,</I> 289 F. 2d 278; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.108" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.108   Operations not included in named operations on forms of aquatic “life.”</HEAD>
<P>Since the subject matter of the exemptions is concerned with “aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life,” the courts have held that the manufacture of buttons from clam shells or the dredging of shells to be made into lime and cement are not exempt operations because the shells are not living things (<I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196, certiorari denied 328 U.S. 866). Similarly, the production of such items as crushed shell and grit, shell lime, pearl buttons, knife handles, novelties, liquid glue, isinglass, pearl essence, and fortified or refined fish oil is not within these exemptions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.109" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.109   Manufacture of supplies for named operations is not exempt.</HEAD>
<P>Employment in the manufacture of supplies for the named operations is not employment in the named operations on aquatic forms of life. Thus, the exemption is not applicable to the manufacture of boxes, barrels, or ice by a seafood processor for packing or shipping its seafood products or for use of the ice in its fishing vessels. These operations, when performed by an independent manufacturer, would likewise not be exempt (<I>Dize</I> v. <I>Maddix,</I> 144 F. 284 (C.A. 4), affirmed 324 U.S. 667, and approved on this point in <I>Farmers' Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.110   Performing operations both on nonaquatic products and named aquatic products.</HEAD>
<P>By their terms, sections 13(a)(5) and 13(b)(4) provide no exemption with respect to operations performed on any products other than the aquatic products named in these subsections (see § 784.107). Accordingly, neither of the exemptions is applicable to the making of any commodities from ingredients only part of which consist of such aquatic products, if a substantial amount of other products is contained in the commodity so produced (compare <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Bridgeman-Russell Co.,</I> 6 Labor Cases 61, 422, 2 WH Cases 785 (D. Minn.) and <I>Miller</I> v. <I>Litchfield Creamery Co.,</I> 11 Labor Cases 63, 274, 5 WH Cases 1039 (N.D. Ind.), with <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Trade Winds, Inc.,</I> 289 F. 2d 278). Thus, the first processing, canning, or processing of codfish cakes, clam chowder, dog food, crab cakes, or livestock food containing aquatic products is often not exempt within the meaning of the relevant exemptions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.111" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.111   Operations on named products with substantial amounts of other ingredients are not exempt.</HEAD>
<P>To exempt employees employed in first processing, canning, or processing products composed of the named commodities and a substantial amount of ingredients not named in the exemptions would be contrary to the language and purposes of such exemptions which specifically enumerate the commodities on which exempt operations were intended to be performed. Consequently, in such situations all operations performed on the mixed products at and from the time of the addition of the foreign ingredients, including those activities which are an integral part of first processing, canning, or processing are nonexempt activities. However, activities performed in connection with such operations on the named aquatic products prior to the addition of the foreign ingredients are deemed exempt operations under the applicable exemption. Where the commodity produced from named aquatic products contains an insubstantial amount of products not named in the exemption, the operations will be considered as performed on the aquatic products and handling and preparation of the foreign ingredients for use in the exempt operations will also be considered as exempt activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.112" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.112   Substantial amounts of nonaquatic products; enforcement policy.</HEAD>
<P>As an enforcement policy in applying the principles stated in §§ 784.110 and 784.111, if more than 20 percent of a commodity consists of products other than aquatic products named in section 13(a)(5) or 13(b)(4), the commodity will be deemed to contain a substantial amount of such nonaquatic products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.113" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.113   Work related to named operations performed in off- or dead-season.</HEAD>
<P>Generally, during the dead or inactive season when operations named in section 13(a)(5) or 13(b)(4) are not being performed on the specified aquatic forms of life, employees performing work relating to the plant or equipment which is used in such operations during the active seasons are not exempt. Illustrative of such employees are those who repair, overhaul, or recondition fishing equipment or processing or canning equipment and machinery during the off-season periods when fishing, processing, or canning is not going on. An exemption provided for employees employed “in” specified operations is plainly not intended to apply to employees employed in other activities during periods when the specified operations are not being carried on, where their work is functionally remote from the actual conduct of the operations for which exemption is provided and is unaffected by the natural factors which the Congress relied on as reason for exemption. The courts have recognized these principles. See <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210; <I>Maisonet</I> v. <I>Central Coloso,</I> 6 Labor Cases (CCH) par. 61,337, 2 WH Cases 753 (D. P.R.); <I>Abram</I> v. <I>San Joaquin Cotton Oil Co.,</I> 49 F. Supp. 393 (S.D. Calif.), and <I>Heaburg</I> v. <I>Independent Oil Mill Inc.,</I> 46 F. Supp. 751 (W.D. Tenn.). On the other hand, there may be situations where employees performing certain preseason or postseason activities immediately prior or subsequent to carrying on operations named in sections 13(a)(5) or section 13(b)(4) are properly to be considered as employed “in” the named operations because their work is so close in point of time and function to the conduct of the named operations that the employment is, as a practical matter, necessarily and directly a part of carrying on the operation for which exemption was intended. Depending on the facts and circumstances, this may be true, for example, of employees who perform such work as placing boats and other equipment in condition for use at the beginning of the fishing season, and taking the necessary protective measures with respect to such equipment which are required in connection with termination of the named operations at the end of the season. Where such work is integrated with and is required for the actual conduct of the named operations on the specified aquatic forms of life, and is necessarily performed immediately before or immediately after such named operations, the employees performing it may be considered as employed in the named operations, so as to come within the exemption. It should be kept in mind that the relationship between the work of an employee and the named operations which is required for exemption is not necessarily identical with the relationship between such work and the production of goods for commerce which is sufficient to establish its general coverage under the Act. Thus, repair, overhaul, and reconditioning work during the inactive season which does not come within the exemption is nevertheless closely related and directly essential to the production of goods for commerce which takes place during the active season and, therefore, is subject to the provisions of the Act (<I>Farmers' Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210; <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzalez,</I> 117 F. 2d 11; <I>Weaver</I> v. <I>Pittsburgh Steamship Co.,</I> 153 F. 2d 597, cert., den., 328 U.S. 858).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.114" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.114   Application of exemptions on a workweek basis.</HEAD>
<P>The general rule that the unit of time to be used in determining the application of the exemption to an employee is the workweek (see <I>Overnight Motor Transportation Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt.</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op. Ass'n.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 181 F. 2d 697). Thus, the workweek is the unit of time to be taken as the standard in determining the applicability to an employee of section 13(a)(5) or section 13(b)(4) (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> supra). An employee's workweek is a fixed and regularly recurring period of 168 hours—seven consecutive 24-hour periods. It may begin at an hour of any day set by the employer and need not coincide with the calendar week. Once the workweek has been set it commences each succeeding week on the same day and at the same hour. Changing the workweek for the purpose of escaping the requirements of the Act is not permitted. If in any workweek an employee does only exempt work he is exempt from the wage and hours provisions of the Act during that workweek, irrespective of the nature of his work in any other workweek or workweeks. An employee may thus be exempt in one workweek and not the next (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> supra). But the burden of effecting segregation between exempt and nonexempt work as between particular workweeks is on the employer (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Blue Channel Corp.,</I> 198 F. 2d 245). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.115   Exempt and noncovered work performed during the workweek.</HEAD>
<P>The wage and hours requirements of the Act do not apply to any employees during any workweek in which a portion of his activities falls within section 13(a)(5) if no part of the remainder of his activities is covered by the Act. Similarly, the overtime requirements are inapplicable in any workweek in which a portion of an employee's activities falls within section 13(b)(4) if no part of the remainder of his activities is covered by the Act. Covered activities for purposes of the above statements mean engagement in commerce, or in the production of goods for commerce, or in an occupation closely related or directly essential to such production or employment in an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, as explained in §§ 784.17 through 784.19.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.116" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.116   Exempt and nonexempt work in the same workweek.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee, during any workweek, performs work that is exempt under section 13(a)(5) or 13(b)(4), and also performs nonexempt work, some part of which is covered by the Act, the exemption will be deemed inapplicable unless the time spent in performing nonexempt work during that week is not substantial in amount. For enforcement purposes, nonexempt work will be considered substantial in amount if more than 20 percent of the time worked by the employee in a given workweek is devoted to such work (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 210). Where exempt and nonexempt work is performed during a workweek by an employee and is not or cannot be segregated so as to permit separate measurement of the time spent in each, the employee will not be exempt (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Blue Channel Corp.,</I> 198 F. 2d 245; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Public Quick Freezing and Cold Storage Co.,</I> 62 F. Supp. 924).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.117" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.428.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.117   Combinations of exempt work.</HEAD>
<P>The combination of exempt work under sections 13(a)(5) and 13(b)(4), or one of these sections with exempt work under another section of the Act, is permitted. Where a part of an employee's covered work in a workweek is exempt under section 13(a)(5) and the remainder is exempt under another section which grants an exemption from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Act, the wage and hours requirements are not applicable. If the scope of the exemption is not the same, however, the exemption applicable to the employee is that provided by whichever exemption provision is more limited in scope unless, of course, the time spent in performing work which is nonexempt under the broader exemption is not substantial. For example, an employee may devote part of his workweek to work within section 13(b)(4) and the remainder to work exempt from both the minimum wage and overtime requirements under another section of the Act. In such a case he must receive the minimum wage but is not required to receive time and one-half for his overtime work during that week (C.F. <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Myrtle Grove Packing Co.,</I> 350 U.S. 891; <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Blue Channel Corp.,</I> 198 F. 2d 245). Each activity is tested separately under the applicable exemption as though it were the sole activity of the employee for the whole workweek in question. Unless the employee meets all the requirements of each exemption a combination exemption would not be available.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="429" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Character and Scope of the Section 13(<E T="01">a</E>)(5) Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.118" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.118   The exemption is intended for work affected by natural factors.</HEAD>
<P>As indicated by the legislative history, the purpose of the section 13(a)(5) exemption is to exempt from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Act employment in those activities in the fishing industry that are controlled or materially affected by natural factors or elements, such as the vicissitudes of the weather, the changeable conditions of the water, the run of the catch, and the perishability of the products obtained (83 Cong. Rec. 7408, 7443; S. Rep. No. 145, p. 33 on H.R. 3935, 87th Cong., first session; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196, certiorari denied 328 U.S. 866). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.119" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.119   Effect of natural factors on named operations.</HEAD>
<P>The various activities enumerated in section 13(a)(5)—the catching, taking, propagating, harvesting, cultivating, or farming of aquatic forms of animal or vegetable life as well as “the going to and returning from work” are materially controlled and affected by the natural elements. Similarly, the activities of “first processing, canning, or packing of such marine products at sea as an incident to, or in conjunction with, such fishing operations” are subject to the natural factors mentioned above. The “loading and unloading” of such aquatic products when performed at sea are also subject to the natural forces.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.120" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.120   Application of exemption to “offshore” activities in general.</HEAD>
<P>The expression “offshore activities” is used to describe the category of named operations pertaining to the acquisition from nature of aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life. As originally enacted in 1938, section 13(a)(5) exempted not only employees employed in such “offshore” or “trip” activities but also employees employed in related activities on shore which were similarly affected by the natural factors previously discussed (see § 784.103, and <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52). However, the intent of the 1961 amendments to the Act was to remove from the exemption the so-called onshore activities and “leave the exemption applicable to ‘offshore’ activities connected with the procurement of the aquatic products” (S. Rep. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 33). Despite its comprehensive reach (see §§ 784.105 and 784.106), the exemption, like the similar exemption is the Act for agriculture, is “meant to apply only” to the activities named in the statute (see <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.121" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.121   Exempt fisheries operations.</HEAD>
<P>Employees engaged in the named operations, such at “catching” or “taking,” are clearly exempt. As indicated in § 784.106, employees engaged in activities that are “directly and necessarily a part of” an enumerated operation are also exempt (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Trade Winds, Inc.,</I> 289 F. 2d 278). The “catching, taking, propagating, harvesting, cultivating, or farming” of the various forms of aquatic life includes not only the actual performance of the activities, but also the usual duties inherent in the occupations of those who perform the activities. Thus, the fisherman who is engaged in “catching” and “taking” must see to it that his lines, nets, seines, traps, and other equipment are not fouled and are in working order. He may also have to mend or replace his lines or nets or repair or construct his traps. Such activities are an integral part of the operations of “catching” and “taking” of an aquatic product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.122" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.122   Operations performed as an integrated part of fishing.</HEAD>
<P>Certain other activities performed on a fishing vessel in connection with named operations are, functionally and as a practical matter, directly and necessarily a part of such operations. For example, maintenance work performed by members of the fishing crew during the course of the trip on the fishing boat would necessarily be a part of the fishing operation, since the boat itself is as much a fishing instrument as the fishing rods or nets. Similarly, work required on the vessel to keep in good operating condition any equipment used for processing, canning, or packing the named aquatic products at sea is so necessary to the conduct of such operations that it must be considered a part of them and exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.123" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.123   Operations performed on fishing equipment.</HEAD>
<P>On the principle stated in § 784.122 the replacement, repair, mending, or construction of the fisherman's equipment performed at the place of the fishing operation would be exempt. Such activities performed in contemplation of the trip are also within the exemption if the work is so closely related both in point of time and function to the acquisition of the aquatic life that it is really a part of the fishing operation or of “going to * * * work.” For example, under appropriate facts, the repair of the nets, or of the vessel, or the building of fish trap frames on the shore immediately prior to the opening of the fishing season would be within the exemption. Activities at the termination of a fishing trip which are similarly related in time and function to the actual conduct of fishing operations or “returning from work” may be within the exemption on like principles. Similarly, the fact that the exemption is intended generally for “offshore” activities does not mean that it may not apply to employment in other activities performed on shore which are so integrated with the conduct of actual fishing operations and functionally so necessary thereto that the employment is, in practical effect, directly and necessarily a part of the fishing operations for which the exemption is intended. In such circumstances the exemption will apply, for example, to an employee employed by a vessel owner to watch the fishing vessel, its equipment, and the catch when it comes to port, checks the mooring lines, operate bilge pumps and heating and cooling systems on the vessel, and assist in the loading and unloading of the fishing equipment and the catch. Work of the kinds referred to may be exempt when performed by the fisherman himself or necessary to the conduct of the fishing organization. However, the exemption would not apply to employees of a manufacturer of supplies or to employees of independent shops which repair boats and equipment. (<I>Dize</I> v. <I>Maddix,</I> 144 F. 2d 584, affirmed 324 U.S. 697.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.124" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.124   Going to and returning from work.</HEAD>
<P>The phrase “including the going to and returning from work” relates to the preceding named operations which pertain to the procuring and appropriation of seafood and other forms of aquatic life from nature. The expression obviously includes the time spent by fishermen and others who go to and from the fishing grounds or other locations where the aquatic life is reduced to possession. If going to work requires fishermen to prepare and carry the equipment required for the fishing operation, this would be included within the exemption. In performing such travel the fishermen may be required to row, guide or sail the boat or otherwise assist in its operation. Similarly, if an employee were digging for clams or other shellfish or gathering seaweed on the sand or rocks it might be necessary to drive a truck or other vehicle to reach his destination. Such activities are exempt within the meaning of this language. However, the phrase does not apply to employees who are not employed in the activities involved in the acquisition of aquatic animal or vegetable life, such as those going to or returning from work at processing or refrigerator plants or wholesale establishments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.125" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.125   Loading and unloading.</HEAD>
<P>The term “loading and unloading” applies to activities connected with the removal of aquatic products from the fishing vessel and their initial movement to markets or processing plants. The term, however, is not without limitation. The statute by its clear language makes these activities exempt only when performed by any employee employed in the procurement activities enumerated in section 13(a)(5). This limitation is confirmed by the legislative history of the 1961 amendments which effectuated this change in the application of this term (S. Rep. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 33). Consequently, members of the fishing crew engaged in loading and unloading the catch of the vessel to another vessel at sea, or at the dockside would be engaging in exempt activities within the meaning of section 13(a)(5). On the other hand, dock workers performing the same kind of tasks would not be within the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.126" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.126   Operation of the fishing vessel.</HEAD>
<P>In extending the minimum wage to seamen on American vessels by limiting the exemption from minimum wages and overtime provided by section 13(a)(12) of the Act to “any employee employed as a seaman on a vessel other than an American vessel”, and at the same time extending the minimum wage to “onshore” but not “offshore” operations concerned with aquatic products, the Congress, in the 1961 amendments to the Act, did not indicate any intent to remove the crews of fishing vessels engaged in operations named in section 13(a)(5) from the exemption provided by that section. The exemption provided by section 13(a)(12), above noted, and the general exemption in section 13(b)(6) from overtime for “any employee employed as a seaman” (whether or not on an American vessel) apply, in general to employees, working aboard vessels, whose services are rendered primarily as an aid to navigation. It appears, however, that it is not the custom or practice in the fishing industry for a fishing vessel to have two crews; namely, a fishing crew whose duty it is primarily to fish and to perform other duties incidental thereto and a navigational crew whose duty it is primarily to operate the boat. Where, as is the typical situation, there is but one crew which performs all these functions, the section 13(a)(5) exemptions would apply to its members. For a further explanation of the seaman's exemption, see part 783 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.127" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.429.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.127   Office and clerical employees under section 13(a)(5).</HEAD>
<P>Office and clerical employees, such as bookkeepers, stenographers, typists, and others who perform general office work of a firm engaged in operating fishing boats are not for that reason within the section 13(a)(5) exemption. Under the principles stated in § 784.106, their general office activities are not a part of any of the named operations even when they are selling, taking, and putting up orders, on recording sales, taking cash or making telephone connections for customer or dealer calls. Employment in the specific activities enumerated in the preceding sentence would ordinarily, however, be exempt under section 13(b)(4) since such activities constitute “marketing” or “distributing” within the meaning of that exemption (see § 784.153). In certain circumstances, office or clerical employees may come within the section 13(a)(5) exemption. If, for example, it is necessary to the conduct of the fishing operations that such employees accompany a fishing expedition to the fishing grounds to perform certain work required there in connection with the catch, their employment under such circumstances may, as a practical matter, be directly and necessarily a part of the operations for which exemption was intended, in which event the exemption would apply to them.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="430" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>First Processing, Canning, or Packing of Marine Products Under Section 13(<E T="01">a</E>)(5)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.128" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.128   Requirements for exemption of first processing, etc., at sea.</HEAD>
<P>A complete exemption from minimum and overtime wages is provided by section 13(a)(5) for employees employed in the operations of first processing, canning, or packing of marine products at sea as an incident to, or in conjunction with “such” fishing operations—that is, the fishing operations of the fishing vessel (S. Rep. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 33). To qualify under this part of the exemption, there must be a showing that: (a) The work of the employees is such that they are, within the meaning of the Act, employed in one or more of the named operations of first processing, canning or packing, (b) such operations are performed as an incident to, or in conjunction with, fishing operations of the vessel, (c) such operations are performed at sea, and (d) such operations are performed on the marine product specified in the statute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.129" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.129   “Marine products”.</HEAD>
<P>The marine products which form the basis of the exemption are the “fish, shellfish, crustaceas, sponges, seaweeds, or other aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life” mentioned in section 13(a)(5). The exemption contemplates aquatic products currently or recently acquired and in the form obtained from the sea, since the language of the exemption clearly indicates the named operations of first processing, canning, or packing must be performed “at sea” and “as an incident to or in conjunction with”, fishing operations. Also, such “marine products” are limited to aquatic forms of “life.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.130" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.130   “At sea.”</HEAD>
<P>The “at sea” requirement must be construed in context and in such manner as to accomplish the statutory objective. The section 13(a)(5) exemption is for the “catching, taking, propagating, harvesting,” etc., of “aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life.” There is no limitation as to where these activities must take place other than, as the legislative history indicates, that they are “offshore” activities. Since the purpose of the 1961 amendments is to exempt the “first processing, canning, or packing such marine products at sea as an incident to, or in conjunction with, such fishing operations,” it would frustrate this objective to give the phrase “at sea” a technical or special meaning. For example, to define “at sea” to include only bodies of water subject to the ebb and flow of the tides or to saline waters would exclude the Great Lakes which obviously would not comport with the legislative intent. On the other hand, one performing the named activities of first processing, canning, or packing within the limits of a port or harbor is not performing them “at sea” within the meaning of the legislative intent although the situs of performance is subject to tidewaters. In any event it would not appear necessary to draw a precise line as to what constitutes “at sea” operations, for, as a practical matter, such first processing, canning, or packing operations are those closely connected with the physical catching of the fish and are performed on the fishing vessel shortly or immediately following the “catching” and “taking” of the fish.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.131" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.131   “As an incident to, or in conjunction with”, fishing operations.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory language makes clear that the “first processing, canning, or packing,” unlike the other named operations of “catching, taking, propagating, harvesting, cultivating, or farming” are not exempt operations in and of themselves. They are exempt only when performed “as an incident to, or in conjunction with such fishing operations” (see <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755). It is apparent from the context that the language “such fishing operations” refers to the principal named operations of “catching, taking, propagating, harvesting, cultivating, or farming” as performed by the fishermen or fishing vessel (compare <I>Bowie</I> v. <I>Gonzales,</I> 117 F. 2d 11). Therefore to be “an incident to, or in conjunction with such fishing operations”, the first processing, canning, or packing must take place upon the vessel that is engaged in the physical catching, taking, etc., of the fish. This is made abundantly clear by the legislative history. In Senate Report No. 145, 87th Congress, first session, at page 33, it pointed out:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For the same reasons, there was included in section 13(a)(5) as amended by the bill an exemption for the “first processing, canning, or packing” of marine products “at sea as an incident to, or in conjunction with such fishing operations.” The purpose of this additional provision is to make certain that the Act will be uniformly applicable to all employees on the fishing vessel including those employees on the vessel who may be engaged in these activities at sea as an incident to the fishing operations conducted by the vessel.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In accordance with this purpose of the section, the exemption is available to an employee on a fishing vessel who is engaged in first processing fish caught by fishing employees of that same fishing vessel; it would not be available to such an employee if some or all of the fish being first processed were obtained from other fishing vessels, regardless of the relationship, financial or otherwise, between such vessels (cf. <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>Farmers Reservoir Co.</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 337 U.S. 755).


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.132" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.132   The exempt operations.</HEAD>
<P>The final requirement is that the employee on the fishing vessel must be employed in “the first processing, canning or packing” of the marine products. The meaning and scope of these operations when performed at sea as an incident to the fishing operations of the vessel are set forth in §§ 784.133 to 784.135. To be “employed in” such operations the employee must, as previously explained (see §§ 784.106 and 784.121), be engaged in work which is clearly part of the named activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.133" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.133   “First processing.”</HEAD>
<P>Processing connotes a change from the natural state of the marine product and first processing would constitute the first operation or series of continuous operations that effectuate this change. It appears that the first processing operations ordinarily performed on the fishing vessels at sea consist for the most part of eviscerating, removal of the gills, beheading certain fish that have large heads, and the removal of the scallop from its shell. Icing or freezing operations, which ordinarily immediately follow these operations, would also constitute an integral part of the first processing operations, as would such activities as filleting, cutting, scaling, or salting when performed as part of a continuous series of operations. Employment aboard the fishing vessel in freezing operations thus performed is within the exemption if the first processing of which it is a part otherwise meets the conditions of section 13(a)(5), notwithstanding the transfer by the 1961 amendments of “freezing”, as such, from this exemption to the exemption from overtime only provided by section 13(b)(4). Such preliminary operations as cleaning, washing, and grading of the marine products, though not exempt as first processing since they effect no change, would be exempt as part of first processing when done in preparation for the first processing operation described above including freezing. The same would be true with respect to the removal of the waste products resulting from the above described operations on board the fishing vessel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.134" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.134   “Canning.”</HEAD>
<P>The term “canning” was defined in the legislative history of the 1949 amendments (House (Conference) Report No. 1453, 81st Cong., first session; 95 Cong. Rec. 14878, 14932-33). These amendments made the “canning” of marine products or byproducts exempt from overtime only under a separate exemption (section 13(b)(4), and subject to the minimum wage requirements of the Act (see § 784.136 <I>et seq.</I>). The same meaning will be accorded to “canning” in section 13(a)(5) as in section 13(b)(4) (see § 784.142 <I>et seq.</I>) subject, of course, to the limitations necessarily imposed by the context in which it is found. In other words, although certain operations as described in § 784.142 <I>et seq.</I> qualify as canning, they are, nevertheless, not exempt under section 13(a)(5) unless they are performed on marine products by employees of the fishing vessel at sea as an incident to, or in conjunction with the fishing operations of the vessel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.135" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.430.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.135   “Packing.”</HEAD>
<P>The packing of the various named marine products at sea as an incident to, or in conjunction with, the fishing operations of the vessel is an exempt operation. The term “packing” refers to the placing of the named product in containers, such as boxes, crates, bags, and barrels. Activities such as washing, grading, sizing, and placing layers of crushed ice in the containers are deemed a part of packing when performed as an integral part of the packing operation. The packing operation may be a simple or complete and complex operation depending upon the nature of the marine product, the length of time out and the facilities aboard the vessel. Where the fishing trip is of short duration, the packing operation may amount to no more than the simple operation, of packing the product in chipped or crushed ice in wooden boxes, as in the case of shrimp, or placing the product in wooden boxes and covering with seaweed as in the case of lobsters. Where the trips are of long duration, as for several weeks or more, packing the operations on fishing vessels with the proper equipment sometimes are integrated with first processing operations so that together these operations amount to readying the product in a marketable form. For example, in the case of shrimp, the combined operations may consist of the following series of operations—washing, grading, sizing, placing 5-pound boxes already labeled for direct marketing, placing in trays with other boxes, loading into a quick freezer locker, removing after freezing, emptying the box, glazing the contents with a spray of fresh water, replacing the box, putting them in 50-pound master cartons and finally stowing in refrigerated locker.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="431" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.431" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Character and Scope of the Section 13(<E T="01">a</E>)(4) Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.136" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.431.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.136   “Shore” activities exempted under section 13(b)(4).</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(4) provides an exemption from the overtime but not from the minimum wage provisions of the Act for “any employee employed in the canning, processing, marketing, freezing, curing, storing, packing for shipment, or distributing” aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life or any byproducts thereof. Orginally, all these operations were contained in the exemption provided by section 13(a)(5) but, as a result of amendments, first “canning”, in 1949, and then the other operations in 1961, were transferred to section 13(b)(4). (See the discussion in §§ 784.102 to 784.105.) These activities are “shore” activities and in general have to do with the movement of the perishable aquatic products to a nonperishable state or to points of consumption (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 33).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.137" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.431.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.137   Relationship of exemption to exemption for “offshore” activities.</HEAD>
<P>The reasons advanced for exemption of employment in “shore” operations, now listed in section 13(b)(4), at the time of the adoption of the original exemption in 1938, had to do with the difficulty of regulating hours of work of those whose operations, like those of fishermen, were stated to be governed by the time, size, availability, and perishability of the catch, all of which were considered to be affected by natural factors that the employer could not control (see 83 Cong. Rec. 7408, 7422, 7443). The intended limited scope of the exemption in this respect was not changed by transfer of the “shore” activities from section 13(a)(5) to section 13(b)(4). The exemption of employment in these “shore” operations may be considered, therefore, as intended to implement and supplement the exemption for employment in “offshore” operations provided by section 13(a)(5), by exempting from the hours provisions of the Act employees employed in those “shore” activities which are necessarily somewhat affected by the same natural factors. These “shore” activities are affected primarily, however, by fluctuations in the supply of the product or by the necessity for consumption or preservation of such products before spoilage occurs (see <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52; cf. <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Consolidated Fisheries,</I> 174 F. 2d 74).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.138" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.431.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.138   Perishable state of the aquatic product as affecting exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Activities performed after conversion of an aquatic product to a nonperishable state cannot form the basis for application of the section 13(b)(4) exemption unless the subsequent operation is so integrated with the performance of exempt operations on the aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life mentioned in the section that functionally and as a practical matter it must be considered a part of the operations for which exemption was intended. The exemption is, consequently, not available for the handling or shipping of nonperishable products by an employer except where done as a part of named operations commenced on the product when it was in a perishable state. Thus, employees of dealers in or distributors of such nonperishable products as fish oil and fish meal, or canned seafood, are not within the exemption. Similarly, there is no basis for application of the exemption to employees employed in further processing of or manufacturing operations on products previously rendered nonperishable, such as refining fish oil or handling fish meal in connection with the manufacture of feeds. Further specific examples of application of the foregoing principle are given in the subsequent discussion of particular operations named in section 13(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) In applying the principle stated in paragraph (a) of this section, the Department has not asserted that the exemption is inapplicable to the performance of the operations described in section 13(b)(4) on frozen, smoked, salted, or cured fish. The Department will continue to follow this policy until further clarification from the courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.139" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.431.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.139   Scope of exempt operations in general.</HEAD>
<P>Exemption under section 13(b)(4), like exemption under section 13(a)(5), depends upon the employment in the actual activities named in the section, and an employee performing a function which is not necessary to the actual conduct of a named activity, as explained in § 784.106, is not within the exemption. It is also essential to exemption that the operations named in section 13(b)(4) be performed on the forms of aquatic life specified in the section and not on other commodities a substantial part of which consists of materials or products other than the named aquatic products. Application of these principles has been considered generally in the earlier discussion, and further applications will be noted in the following sections and in the subsequent discussion of particular operations mentioned in the section 13(b)(4) exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.140" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.431.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.140   Fabrication and handling of supplies for use in named operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As noted in § 784.109, the exemption for employees employed “in” the named operations does not extend to an employee by reason of the fact that he engages in fabricating supplies for the named operations. Employment in connection with the furnishing of supplies for the processing or canning operations named in section 13(b)(4) is not exempt as employment “in” such named operations unless the functional relationship of the work to the actual conduct of the named operations is such that, as a practical matter, the employment is directly and necessarily a part of the operations for which exemption is intended. Employees who meet the daily needs of the canning or processing operations by delivering from stock, handling, and working on supplies such as salt, condiments, cleaning supplies, containers, etc., which must be provided as needed if the named operations are to continue, are within the exemption because such work is, in practical effect, a part of the operations for which exemption is intended. On the other hand, the receiving, unloading, and storing of such supplies during seasons when the named operations are not being carried on for subsequent use in the operations expected to be performed during the active season, are ordinarily too remote from the actual conduct of the named operations to come within the exemption (see § 784.113), and are not affected by the natural factors (§ 784.137) which were considered by the Congress to constitute a fundamental reason for providing the exemption. Whether the receiving, unloading, and storing of supplies during periods when the named operations are being carried on are functionally so related to the actual conduct of the operations as to be, in practical effect, a part of the named operations and within the exemption, will depend on all the facts and circumstances of the particular situation and the manner in which the named operations are carried on. Normally where such activities are directed to building up stock for use at a relatively remote time and there is no direct integration with the actual conduct of the named operations, the exemption will not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) It may be that employees are engaged in the same workweek in performing exempt and nonexempt work. For example, a shop machinist engaged in making a new part to be used in the repair of a machine currently used in canning operations would be doing exempt work. If he also in the same workweeks makes parts to be used in a manufacturing plant operated by his employer, this work, since it does not directly or necessarily contribute to the conduct of the canning operations, would be nonexempt work causing the loss of the exemption if such work occupied a substantial amount (for enforcement purposes, more than 20 percent) of the employee's worktime in that workweek (see § 784.116 for a more detailed discussion).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.141" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.431.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.141   Examples of nonexempt employees.</HEAD>
<P>An employer who engaged in operations specified in section 13(b)(4) which he performs on the marine products and byproducts described in that section may operate a business which engages also in operations of a different character or one in which some of the activities carried on are not functionally necessary to the conduct of operations named in section 13(b)(4). In such a business there will ordinarily be, in addition to the employees employed in such named operations, other employees who are nonexempt because their work is concerned entirely or in substantial part with carrying on activities which constitute neither the actual engagement in the named operations nor the performance of functions which are, as a practical matter, directly and necessarily a part of their employer's conduct of such named operations. Ordinarily, as indicated in § 784.156, such nonexempt employees will not be employed in an establishment which is exclusively devoted by the employer to the named operations during the period of their employment. It is usually when the named operations are not being carried on, or in places wholly or partly devoted to other operations, that employees of such an employer will be performing functions which are not so necessarily related to the conduct of the operations named in section 13(b)(4) as to come within the exemption. Typical illustrations of the occupations in which such nonexempt workers may be found (although employment in such an occupation does not necessarily mean that the worker is nonexempt) are the following: General office work (such as maintaining employment, social security, payroll and other records, handling general correspondence, etc., as distinguished from “marketing” or “distributing” work like that described in § 784.155), custodial, maintenance, watching, and guarding occupations; furnishing food, lodging, transportation, or nursing services to workers; and laboratory occupations such as those concerned with development of new products. Such workers are, of course, not physically engaged in operations named in section 13(b)(4) in the ordinary case, and they are not exempt unless they can be shown to be “employed in” such operations on other grounds. But any of them may come within the exemption in a situation where the employer can show that the functions which they perform, in view of all the facts and circumstances under which the named operations are carried on, are actually so integrated with or essential to the conduct of the named operations as to be, in practical effect directly and necessarily a part of the operations for which exemption was intended. Thus, for example, if canning operations described in section 13(b)(4) are carried on in a location where the canning employees cannot obtain necessary food unless the canner provides it, his employment of culinary employees to provide such food is functionally so necessary to the conduct of the canning operations that their work is, as a practical matter, a part of such operations, and the exemption will apply to them. On like principle, the exemption may apply to a watchman whose services are required during performance of the named operations in order to guard against spontaneous combustion of the products of such operations and other occurrences which may jeopardize the conduct of the operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="432" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.432" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>“Canning”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.142" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.432.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.142   Meaning and scope of “canning” as used in section 13(b)(4).</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b)(4) exempts any employee employed in the canning of aquatic forms of animal or vegetable life or byproducts thereof from the overtime requirements of the Act. As previously stated, it was made a limited exemption by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949. The legislative history of this section in specifically explaining what types of activities are included in the term “canning” and the antecedents from which this section evolved make it clear that the exemption applies to those employees employed in the activities that Congress construed as being embraced in the term and not to all those engaged in the fish canning industry (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 214). Congress defined Report No. 1453, 81st Cong., first session 95 Cong. Rec. 14878, 14932-33) as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Under the conference agreement “canning” means hermetically sealing and sterilizing or pasteurizing and has reference to a process involving the performance of such operations. It also means other operations performed in connection therewith such as necessary preparatory operations performed on the products before they are placed in bottles, cans, or other containers to be hermetically sealed, as well as the actual placing of the commodities in such containers. Also included are subsequent operations such as the labeling of the cans or other cases or boxes whether such subsequent operations are performed as part of an uninterrupted or interrupted process. It does not include the placing of such products or byproducts thereof in cans or other containers that are not hermetically sealed as such an operation is “processing” as distinguished from “canning” and comes within the complete exemption contained in section 13(a)(5).</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Of course, the processing other than canning, referred to in the last sentence quoted above, is now like canning, in section 13(a)(5).


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.143" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.432.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.143   “Necessary preparatory operations.”</HEAD>
<P>All necessary preparatory work performed on the named aquatic products as an integral part of a single uninterrupted canning process is subject to section 13(b)(4) (see <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Blue Channel Corp.,</I> 198 F. 2d 245, approved in <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Myrtle Grove Packing Co.,</I> 350 U.S. 891). Such activities conducted as essential and integrated steps in the continuous and uninterrupted process of canning are clearly within the definition of “canning” as contemplated by Congress and cannot be viewed in isolation from the canning process as a whole. Exempt preparatory operations include the necessary weighing, cleaning, picking, peeling, shucking, cutting, heating, cooling, steaming, mixing, cooking, carrying, conveying, and transferring to the containers the exempt aquatic products (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Stinson,</I> 217 F. 2d 214). But the preparatory operations do not include operations specified in section 13(a)(5) pertaining to the acquisition of the exempt products from nature. Therefore, if a canner employs fishermen or others to catch, take, harvest, cultivate or farm aquatic animal and vegetable life, section 13(a)(5) and not section 13(b)(4) would apply to these particular operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.144" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.432.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.144   Preliminary processing by the canner.</HEAD>
<P>The mere fact that operations preparatory to canning are physically separated from the main canning operations of hermetically sealing and sterilizing or pasteurizing would not be sufficient to remove them from the scope of section 13(b)(4). Where preparatory operations such as the steaming or shucking of oysters are performed in an establishment owned, operated, or controlled by a canner of seafood as part of a process consisting of continuous series of operations in which such products are hermetically sealed in containers and sterilized or pasteurized, all employees who perform any part of such series of operations on any portion of such aquatic products for canning purposes are within the scope of the term “canning.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.145" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.432.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.145   Preliminary processing by another employer as part of “canning.”</HEAD>
<P>If the operations of separate processors are integrated in producing canned seafood products all employees of such processors who perform any part of the described continuous series of operations to accomplish this result would be “employed in the canning of” such products. Moreover, preliminary operations performed in a separately owned processing establishment which are directed toward the particular requirements of a cannery pursuant to some definite arrangement between the operators of the two establishments would generally appear to be integrated with the cannery operations within the meaning of the above principles, so that the employees engaged in the preliminary operations in the separate establishment would be employed in “canning” within the meaning of section 13(b)(4) of the Act. Whether or not integration exists in a specific case of this general nature will depend, of course, upon all the relevant facts and circumstances in such case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.146" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.432.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.146   “Subsequent operations.”</HEAD>
<P>Canning, within the meaning of the exemption, includes operations performed after hermetic sealing of the cans or other containers, such as labeling of them and placing of them in cases or boxes, which are required to place the canned product in the form in which it will be sold or shipped by the canner. This is so whether or not such operations immediately follow the actual canning operations as a part of an uninterrupted process. Storing and shipping operations performed by the employees of the cannery in connection with its canned products, during weeks in which canning operations are going on, to make room for the canned products coming off the line or to make storage room, come within the exemption. The fact that such activities relate in part to products canned during the previous weeks or seasons would not affect the application of the exemption, provided canning operations such as hermetic sealing and sterilizing, or labeling, are currently being carried on.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.147" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.432.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.147   Employees “employed in” canning.</HEAD>
<P>All employees whose activities are directly and necessarily a part of the canning of the specified aquatic forms of life are within the exemption provided by section 13(b)(4). Thus, employees engaged in handling the fish or seafood, placing it into the cans, providing steam for cooking it or operating the machinery that seals the cans or the equipment that sterilizes the canned product are engaged in exempt activities. In addition, can loft workers, those engaged in removing and carrying supplies from the stock room for current use in canning operations, and employees whose duty it is to re-form cans, when canning operations are going on, for current use, are engaged in exempt activities. Similarly, the repairing, oiling, or greasing during the active season of canning machinery or equipment currently used in the actual canning operations are exempt activities. The making of repairs in the production room such as to the floor around the canning machinery or equipment would also be deemed exempt activities where the repairs are essential to the continued canning operations or to prevent interruptions in the canning operations. These examples are illustrative but not exhaustive. Employees engaged in other activities which are similarly integrated with and necessary to the actual conduct of the canning operations will also come within the exemption. Employees whose work is not directly and necessarily a part of the canning operations are not exempt. See §§ 784.106, 784.140, and 784.141.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="433" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.433" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Processing, Freezing, and Curing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.148" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.433.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.148   General scope of processing, freezing, and curing activities.</HEAD>
<P>Processing, freezing, and curing embrace a variety of operations that change the form of the “aquatic forms of animal and vegetable life.” They include such operations as filleting, cutting, scaling, salting, smoking, drying, pickling, curing, freezing, extracting oil, manufacturing meal or fertilizer, drying seaweed preparatory to the manufacture of agar, drying and cleaning sponges (<I>Feming</I> v. <I>Hawkeye Pearl Button Co.,</I> 113 F. 2d 52).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.149" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.433.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.149   Typical operations that may qualify for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Such operations as transporting the specified aquatic products to the processing plant; moving the products from place to place in the plant; cutting, trimming, eviscerating, peeling, shelling, and otherwise working on the products; packing the products; and moving the products from the production line to storage or to the shipping platform are typical of the operations in processing plants which are included in the exemption. Removal of waste, such as clam and oyster shells, operation of processing and packing machinery, and providing steam and brine for the processing operations (see <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Trade Winds Inc.,</I> 289 F. 2d 278, explaining <I>Waller</I> v. <I>Humphreys,</I> 133 F. 2d 193) are also included. As for the application of the exemption to office, maintenance, warehouse, and other employees, see the discussion in § 784.106 <I>et seq.,</I> and §§ 784.140 and 784.141.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.150" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.433.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.150   Named operations performed on previously processed aquatic products.</HEAD>
<P>It will be noted that section 13(b)(4) refers to employees employed in “processing” the named aquatic commodities and not just to “first processing” as does the provision in section 13(a)(5) for such processing at sea. Accordingly, if the aquatic products, though subjected to a processing operation, are still in a perishable state, the subsequent performance of any of the enumerated operations on the still perishable products will be within the exemption no matter who the employer performing the exempt operations may be. He may be the same employer who performed the prior processing or other exempt operation, another processor, or a wholesaler, as the case may be. As noted in § 784.138(b), the Department has not questioned the applicability of the foregoing rule where the operation is performed on frozen, salted, smoked, or cured fish.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.151" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.433.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.151   Operations performed after product is rendered nonperishable.</HEAD>
<P>As indicated in § 784.138, after the character of the aquatic products as taken from nature has been altered by the performance of the enumerated operations so as to render them nonperishable (e.g., drying and cleaning sponges) section 13(b)(4) provides no exemption for any subsequent operations on the preserved products, unless the subsequent operation is performed as an integrated part of the operations named in the exemption which are performed by an employer on aquatic commodities described in section 13(b)(4) after receiving them in the perishable state. In the case of an employer who is engaged in performing on perishable aquatic forms of life specified in section 13(b)(4) any operations named in that section which result in a nonperishable product, the employment of his employees in the storing, marketing, packing for shipment, or distributing of nonperishable products resulting from such operations performed by him (including products processed during previous weeks or seasons) will be considered to be an integrated part of his operations on the perishable aquatic forms of life during those workweeks when he is actively engaged in such operations. The employees employed by him in such work on the nonperishable products are, accordingly, within the exemption in such workweeks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.152" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.433.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.152   Operations performed on byproducts.</HEAD>
<P>The principles stated in the two preceding sections would also be applicable where the specified operations are performed on perishable byproducts. Any operation performed on perishable fish scraps, an unsegregated portion of which is to be canned, would come within the canning (not the processing) part of the exemption. Fish-reduction operations performed on the inedible and still perishable portions of fish resulting from processing or canning operations, to produce fish oil or meal, would come within the processing part of the exemption. Subsequent operations on the oil to fortify it would not be exempt, however, since fish oil is nonperishable in the sense that it may be held for a substantial period of time without deterioration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="434" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.434" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Marketing, Storing, Packing for Shipment, and Distributing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.153" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.434.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.153   General scope of named operations.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption from the overtime pay requirements provided by section 13(b)(4) of the Act extends to employees “employed in the * * * marketing * * * storing, packing for shipment, or distributing of any kind of” perishable aquatic product named in the section. An employee's work must be functionally so related to the named activity as to be, in practical effect, a part of it, and the named activity must be performed with respect to the perishable aquatic commodities listed in section 13(b)(4), in order for the exemption to apply to him. The named activities include the operations customarily performed in the marketing, storing, packing for shipment, or distributing of perishable marine products. For example, an employee engaged in placing perishable marine products in boxes, cartons, crates, bags, barrels, etc., preparatory to shipment and placing the loaded containers on conveyances for delivery to customers would be employed in the “packing for shipment” of such products. Salesmen taking orders for the perishable aquatic products named in the section would be employed in the “marketing” of them. Employees of a refrigerated warehouse who perform only duties involved in placing such perishable marine products in the refrigerated space, removing them from it, and operating the refrigerating equipment, would be employed in “storing” or “distributing” such products, depending on the facts. On the other hand, employees of a public warehouse handling aquatic products which have been canned or otherwise rendered nonperishable, or handling perishable products which contain substantial amount of ingredients not named in section 13(b)(4), would not be within the exemption. Office, clerical, maintenance, and custodial employees are not exempt by reason of the fact that they are employed by employers engaged in marketing, storing, packing for shipment, or distributing seafood and other aquatic products. Such employees are exempt only when the facts of their employment establish that they are performing functions so necessary to the actual conduct of such operations by the employer that, as a practical matter, their employment is directly and necessarily a part of the operations intended to be exempted (see, for some examples, § 784.155).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.154" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.434.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.154   Relationship to other operations as affecting exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Employment in marketing, storing, distributing, and packing for shipment of the aquatic commodities described in section 13(b)(4) is, as such, exempted from the overtime pay provisions of the Act. This means that the employees actually employed in such operations on the named commodities are within the exemption without regard to the intimacy or remoteness of the relationship between their work and processing operations also performed on the commodities, so long as any prior processing has not rendered the commodity nonperishable (as in the case of a canned product) and therefore removed it from the category of marine products referred to by section 13(b)(4). If the commodity has previously been rendered nonperishable, the marketing, storing, distributing, or packing for shipment of it by an employee can come within the exemption only if the activity is one performed by his employer as an integrated part of a series of the named operations which commenced with operations on the perishable marine products to which section 13(b)(4) refers. Some examples of this situation are given in §§ 784.146 and 784.151.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.155" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.434.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.155   Activities performed in wholesale establishments.</HEAD>
<P>The section 13(b)(4) exemption for employment in “marketing * * * storing, or distributing” the named aquatic products or byproducts, as applied to the wholesaling of fish and seafood, affords exemption to such activities as unloading the aquatic product at the establishment, icing or refrigerating the product and storing it, placing the product into boxes, and loading the boxes on trucks or other transportation facilities for shipment to retailers or other receivers. Transportation to and from the establishment is also included (<I>Johnson</I> v. <I>Johnson &amp; Company, Inc.,</I> N.D. Ga., 47 F. Supp. 650). Office and clerical employees of a wholesaler who perform general office work such as posting to ledgers, sending bills and statements, preparing tax returns, and making up payrolls, are not exempt unless these activities can be shown to be functionally necessary, in the particular fact situation, to the actual conduct of the operations named in section 13(b)(4). Such activities as selling, taking, and putting up orders, recording sales, and taking cash are, however, included in employment in “marketing” or “distributing” within the exemption. Employees of a wholesaler engaged in the performance of any of the enumerated operations on fresh fish or fish products will be engaged in exempt work. However, any such operations which they perform on aquatic products which have been canned or otherwise rendered nonperishable are nonexempt in accordance with the principles stated in §§ 784.138 and 784.154.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="435" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.435" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Application of Section 13(<E T="01">b</E>)(4) in Certain Establishments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.156" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.44.2.435.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.156   Establishments exclusively devoted to named operations.</HEAD>
<P>As noted in § 784.106 and elsewhere in the previous discussion, the section 13(b)(4) exemption depends on employment of the employee in the operations named in that section and does not apply on an establishment basis. However, the fact that an establishment is exclusively devoted to operations specified in section 13(b)(4) is, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, an indication that the employees employed there are employed in the named operations either directly or through the performance of functions so necessary to conducting the operations that the employment should, in practical effect, be considered a part of the activity intended to be exempted. Where this is the case, it is consistent with the legislative intent to avoid segmentation and treat all employees of the establishment in the same manner (see Sen. Rep. No. 145, 87th Cong. first session, p. 33). Accordingly, where it can be demonstrated that an establishment is, during a particular workweek, devoted exclusively to the performance of the operations named in section 13(b)(4), on the forms of aquatic life there specified, any employee of the establishment who is employed there during such workweek will be considered to be employed in such operations and to come within the exemption if there are no other facts pertinent to his employment that require a particular examination of the functions which he performs in connection with the conduct of the named operations. If, however, there are any facts (for example, the employment of the same employee at the establishment or the engagement by other employees in like duties there during periods when none of the named operations are being carried on) which raise questions as to whether he is actually engaged in the exempt activities, it will be necessary to scrutinize what he is actually doing during the conduct of the operations named in section 13(b)(4) in order to determine the applicability of the exemption to him. This is necessary because an employee who would not otherwise be within the exemption such as a carpenter doing repair work during the dead season, does not become exempt as “employed in” one of the named activities merely because the establishment begins canning or processing fish. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="785" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 785—HOURS WORKED 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060; 29 U.S.C. 201-219; 29 U.S.C. 254. Pub. L. 104-188, 100 Stat. 1755.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>26 FR 190, Jan. 11, 1961, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Considerations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.1.444.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.1   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>Section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 206) requires that each employee, not specifically exempted, who is engaged in commerce, or in the production of goods for commerce, or who is employed in an enterprise engaged in commerce, or in the production of goods for commerce receive a specified minimum wage. Section 7 of the Act (29 U.S.C. 207) provides that persons may not be employed for more than a stated number of hours a week without receiving at least one and one-half times their regular rate of pay for the overtime hours. The amount of money an employee should receive cannot be determined without knowing the number of hours worked. This part discusses the principles involved in determining what constitutes working time. It also seeks to apply these principles to situations that frequently arise. It cannot include every possible situation. No inference should be drawn from the fact that a subject or an illustration is omitted. If doubt arises inquiries should be sent to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210, or to any area or Regional Office of the Division.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 15289, Oct. 1, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.1.444.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.2   Decisions on interpretations; use of interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate decisions on interpretations of the act are made by the courts. The Administrator must determine in the first instance the positions he will take in the enforcement of the Act. The regulations in this part seek to inform the public of such positions. It should thus provide a “practical guide for employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it.” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 138 (1944).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.1.444.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.3   Period of effectiveness of interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>These interpretations will remain in effect until they are rescinded, modified or withdrawn. This will be done when and if the Administrator concludes upon reexamination, or in the light of judicial decision, that a particular interpretation, ruling or enforcement policy is incorrect or unwarranted. All other rulings, interpretations or enforcement policies inconsistent with any portion of this part are superseded by it. The Portal-to-Portal Bulletin (part 790 of this chapter) is still in effect except insofar as it may not be consistent with any portion hereof. The applicable statutory provisions are set forth in § 785.50. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.1.444.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.4   Application to Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act.</HEAD>
<P>The principles set forth in this part are also followed by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division in determining hours worked by employees performing work subject to the provisions of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 15289, Oct. 1, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Principles for Determination of Hours Worked</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.2.444.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.5   General requirements of sections 6 and 7 of the Fair Labor Standards Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 6 requires the payment of a minimum wage by an employer to his employees who are subject to the Act. Section 7 prohibits their employment for more than a specified number of hours per week without proper overtime compensation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 7732, Aug. 18, 1961]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.2.444.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.6   Definition of “employ” and partial definition of “hours worked”.</HEAD>
<P>By statutory definition the term “employ” includes (section 3(g)) “to suffer or permit to work.” The act, however, contains no definition of “work”. Section 3(o) of the Fair Labor Standards Act contains a partial definition of “hours worked” in the form of a limited exception for clothes-changing and wash-up time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.2.444.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.7   Judicial construction.</HEAD>
<P>The United States Supreme Court originally stated that employees subject to the act must be paid for all time spent in “physical or mental exertion (whether burdensome or not) controlled or required by the employer and pursued necessarily and primarily for the benefit of the employer and his business.” (<I>Tennessee Coal, Iron &amp; Railroad Co.</I> v. <I>Muscoda Local No. 123,</I> 321 U. S. 590 (1944)) Subsequently, the Court ruled that there need be no exertion at all and that all hours are hours worked which the employee is required to give his employer, that “an employer, if he chooses, may hire a man to do nothing, or to do nothing but wait for something to happen. Refraining from other activity often is a factor of instant readiness to serve, and idleness plays a part in all employments in a stand-by capacity. Readiness to serve may be hired, quite as much as service itself, and time spent lying in wait for threats to the safety of the employer's property may be treated by the parties as a benefit to the employer.” (<I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126 (1944); <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134 (1944)) The workweek ordinarily includes “all the time during which an employee is necessarily required to be on the employer's premises, on duty or at a prescribed work place”. (<I>Anderson</I> v. <I>Mt. Clemens Pottery Co.,</I> 328 U.S. 680 (1946)) The Portal-to-Portal Act did not change the rule except to provide an exception for preliminary and postliminary activities. See § 785.34.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 190, Jan. 11, 1961, as amended at 76 FR 18859, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.2.444.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.8   Effect of custom, contract, or agreement.</HEAD>
<P>The principles are applicable, even though there may be a custom, contract, or agreement not to pay for the time so spent with special statutory exceptions discussed in §§ 785.9 and 785.26.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 15289, Oct. 1, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.2.444.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.9   Statutory exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Portal-to-Portal Act.</I> The Portal-to-Portal Act (secs. 1-13, 61 Stat. 84-89, 29 U.S.C. 251-262) eliminates from working time certain travel and walking time and other similar “preliminary” and “postliminary” activities performed “prior” or “subsequent” to the “workday” that are not made compensable by contract, custom, or practice. It should be noted that “preliminary” activities do not include “principal” activities. See §§ 790.6 to 790.8 of this chapter. The use of an employer's vehicle for travel by an employee and activities that are incidental to the use of such vehicle for commuting are not considered “principal” activities when meeting the following conditions: The use of the employer's vehicle for travel is within the normal commuting area for the employer's business or establishment and the use of the employer's vehicle is subject to an agreement on the part of the employer and the employee or the representative of such employee. Section 4 of the Portal-to-Portal Act does not affect the computation of hours worked within the “workday”. “Workday” in general, means the period between “the time on any particular workday at which such employee commences (his) principal activity or activities” and “the time on any particular workday at which he ceases such principal activity or activities.” The “workday” may thus be longer than the employee's scheduled shift, hours, tour of duty, or time on the production line. Also, its duration may vary from day to day depending upon when the employee commences or ceases his “principal” activities. With respect to time spent in any “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity compensable by contract, custom, or practice, the Portal-to-Portal Act requires that such time must also be counted for purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act. There are, however, limitations on this requirement. The “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity in question must be engaged in during the portion of the day with respect to which it is made compensable by the contract, custom, or practice. Also, only the amount of time allowed by the contract or under the custom or practice is required to be counted. If, for example, the time allowed is 15 minutes but the activity takes 25 minutes, the time to be added to other working time would be limited to 15 minutes. (<I>Galvin</I> v. <I>National Biscuit Co.,</I> 82 F. Supp. 535 (S.D.N.Y. 1949) appeal dismissed, 177 F. 2d 963 (C.A. 2, 1949))
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Section 3(o) of the Fair Labor Standards Act.</I> Section 3(o) gives statutory effect, as explained in § 785.26, to the exclusion from measured working time of certain clothes-changing and washing time at the beginning or the end of the workday by the parties to collective bargaining agreements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 190, Jan. 11, 1961, as amended at 30 FR 9912, Aug. 10, 1965; 76 FR 18859, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Application of Principles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.444.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.10   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies the principles to the problems which arise frequently.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="444" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.444" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employees “Suffered or Permitted” to Work</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.444.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.11   General.</HEAD>
<P>Work not requested but suffered or permitted is work time. For example, an employee may voluntarily continue to work at the end of the shift. He may be a pieceworker, he may desire to finish an assigned task or he may wish to correct errors, paste work tickets, prepare time reports or other records. The reason is immaterial. The employer knows or has reason to believe that he is continuing to work and the time is working time. (<I>Handler</I> v. <I>Thrasher,</I> 191, F. 2d 120 (C.A. 10, 1951); <I>Republican Publishing Co.</I> v. <I>American Newspaper Guild,</I> 172 F. 2d 943 (C.A. 1, 1949; <I>Kappler</I> v. <I>Republic Pictures Corp.,</I> 59 F. Supp. 112 (S.D. Iowa 1945), aff'd 151 F. 2d 543 (C.A. 8, 1945); 327 U.S. 757 (1946); <I>Hogue</I> v. <I>National Automotive Parts Ass'n.</I> 87 F. Supp. 816 (E.D. Mich. 1949); <I>Barker</I> v. <I>Georgia Power &amp; Light Co.,</I> 2 W.H. Cases 486; 5 CCH Labor Cases, para. 61,095 (M.D. Ga. 1942); <I>Steger</I> v. <I>Beard &amp; Stone Electric Co., Inc.,</I> 1 W.H. Cases 593; 4 Labor Cases 60,643 (N.D. Texas, 1941))


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.444.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.12   Work performed away from the premises or job site.</HEAD>
<P>The rule is also applicable to work performed away from the premises or the job site, or even at home. If the employer knows or has reason to believe that the work is being performed, he must count the time as hours worked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.444.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.13   Duty of management.</HEAD>
<P>In all such cases it is the duty of the management to exercise its control and see that the work is not performed if it does not want it to be performed. It cannot sit back and accept the benefits without compensating for them. The mere promulgation of a rule against such work is not enough. Management has the power to enforce the rule and must make every effort to do so.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="445" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.445" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Waiting Time</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.445.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.14   General.</HEAD>
<P>Whether waiting time is time worked under the Act depends upon particular circumstances. The determination involves “scrutiny and construction of the agreements between particular parties, appraisal of their practical construction of the working agreement by conduct, consideration of the nature of the service, and its relation to the waiting time, and all of the circumstances. Facts may show that the employee was engaged to wait or they may show that he waited to be engaged.” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134 (1944)) Such questions “must be determined in accordance with common sense and the general concept of work or employment.” (<I>Central Mo. Tel. Co.</I> v. <I>Conwell,</I> 170 F. 2d 641 (C.A. 8, 1948)) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.445.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.15   On duty.</HEAD>
<P>A stenographer who reads a book while waiting for dictation, a messenger who works a crossword puzzle while awaiting assignments, fireman who plays checkers while waiting for alarms and a factory worker who talks to his fellow employees while waiting for machinery to be repaired are all working during their periods of inactivity. The rule also applies to employees who work away from the plant. For example, a repair man is working while he waits for his employer's customer to get the premises in readiness. The time is worktime even though the employee is allowed to leave the premises or the job site during such periods of inactivity. The periods during which these occur are unpredictable. They are usually of short duration. In either event the employee is unable to use the time effectively for his own purposes. It belongs to and is controlled by the employer. In all of these cases waiting is an integral part of the job. The employee is engaged to wait. (See: <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 137 (1944); <I>Wright</I> v. <I>Carrigg,</I> 275 F. 2d 448, 14 W.H. Cases (C.A. 4, 1960); <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Wigger,</I> 39 Labor Cases, para. 66,278, 14 W.H. Cases 534 (D.N.M. 1960); <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Nicholson,</I> 179 F. Supp, 292,14 W.H. Cases 487 (W.D.N.C. 1959))


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.445.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.16   Off duty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Periods during which an employee is completely relieved from duty and which are long enough to enable him to use the time effectively for his own purposes are not hours worked. He is not completely relieved from duty and cannot use the time effectively for his own purposes unless he is definitely told in advance that he may leave the job and that he will not have to commence work until a definitely specified hour has arrived. Whether the time is long enough to enable him to use the time effectively for his own purposes depends upon all of the facts and circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Truck drivers; specific examples.</I> A truck driver who has to wait at or near the job site for goods to be loaded is working during the loading period. If the driver reaches his destination and while awaiting the return trip is required to take care of his employer's property, he is also working while waiting. In both cases the employee is engaged to wait. Waiting is an integral part of the job. On the other hand, for example, if the truck driver is sent from Washingtion, DC to New York City, leaving at 6 a.m. and arriving at 12 noon, and is completely and specifically relieved from all duty until 6 p.m. when he again goes on duty for the return trip the idle time is not working time. He is waiting to be engaged. (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 137 (1944); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Dunbar Transfer &amp; Storage,</I> 3 W.H. Cases 284; 7 Labor Cases para. 61,565 (W.D. Tenn. 1943); <I>Gifford</I> v. <I>Chapman,</I> 6 W.H. Cases 806; 12 Labor Cases para. 63,661 (W.D. Okla., 1947); <I>Thompson</I> v. <I>Daugherty,</I> 40 Supp. 279 (D. Md. 1941))


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.445.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.17   On-call time.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who is required to remain on call on the employer's premises or so close thereto that he cannot use the time effectively for his own purposes is working while “on call”. An employee who is not required to remain on the employer's premises but is merely required to leave word at his home or with company officials where he may be reached is not working while on call. (<I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126 (1944); <I>Handler</I> v. <I>Thrasher,</I> 191 F. 2d 120 (C.A. 10, 1951); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Bank of Waynesboro, Georgia,</I> 61 F. Supp. 384 (S.D. Ga. 1945))


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="446" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.446" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Rest and Meal Periods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.446.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.18   Rest.</HEAD>
<P>Rest periods of short duration, running from 5 minutes to about 20 minutes, are common in industry. They promote the efficiency of the employee and are customarily paid for as working time. They must be counted as hours worked. Compensable time of rest periods may not be offset against other working time such as compensable waiting time or on-call time. (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Greinetz,</I> 235 F. 2d 621, 13 W.H. Cases 3 (C.A. 10, 1956); <I>Ballard</I> v. <I>Consolidated Steel Corp., Ltd.,</I> 61 F. Supp. 996 (S.D. Cal. 1945))


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.446.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.19   Meal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bona fide meal periods.</I> Bona fide meal periods are not worktime. Bona fide meal periods do not include coffee breaks or time for snacks. These are rest periods. The employee must be completely relieved from duty for the purposes of eating regular meals. Ordinarily 30 minutes or more is long enough for a bona fide meal period. A shorter period may be long enough under special conditions. The employee is not relieved if he is required to perform any duties, whether active or inactive, while eating. For example, an office employee who is required to eat at his desk or a factory worker who is required to be at his machine is working while eating. (<I>Culkin</I> v. <I>Glenn L. Martin, Nebraska Co.,</I> 97 F. Supp. 661 (D. Neb. 1951), aff'd 197 F. 2d 981 (C.A. 8, 1952), cert. denied 344 U.S. 888 (1952); <I>Thompson</I> v. <I>Stock &amp; Sons, Inc.,</I> 93 F. Supp. 213 (E.D. Mich 1950), aff'd 194 F. 2d 493 (C.A. 6, 1952); <I>Biggs</I> v. <I>Joshua Hendy Corp.,</I> 183 F. 2d 515 (C. A. 9, 1950), 187 F. 2d 447 (C.A. 9, 1951); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Dunbar Transfer &amp; Storage Co.,</I> 3 W.H. Cases 284; 7 Labor Cases para. 61.565 (W.D. Tenn. 1943); <I>Lofton</I> v. <I>Seneca Coal and Coke Co.,</I> 2 W.H. Cases 669; 6 Labor Cases para. 61,271 (N.D. Okla. 1942); aff'd 136 F. 2d 359 (C.A. 10, 1943); cert. denied 320 U.S. 772 (1943); <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Tampa Cigar Co.,</I> 36 Labor Cases para. 65, 198, 14 W.H. Cases 38 (S.D. Fla. 1959); <I>Douglass</I> v. <I>Hurwitz Co.,</I> 145 F. Supp. 29, 13 W.H. Cases (E.D. Pa. 1956))
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where no permission to leave premises.</I> It is not necessary that an employee be permitted to leave the premises if he is otherwise completely freed from duties during the meal period.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="447" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.447" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Sleeping Time and Certain Other Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.447.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.20   General.</HEAD>
<P>Under certain conditions an employee is considered to be working even though some of his time is spent in sleeping or in certain other activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.447.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.21   Less than 24-hour duty.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who is required to be on duty for less than 24 hours is working even though he is permitted to sleep or engage in other personal activities when not busy. A telephone operator, for example, who is required to be on duty for specified hours is working even though she is permitted to sleep when not busy answering calls. It makes no difference that she is furnished facilities for sleeping. Her time is given to her employer. She is required to be on duty and the time is worktime. (<I>Central Mo. Telephone Co.</I> v. <I>Conwell,</I> 170 F. 2d 641 (C.A. 8, 1948); <I>Strand</I> v. <I>Garden Valley Telephone Co.,</I> 51 F. Supp. 898 (D. Minn. 1943); <I>Whitsitt</I> v. <I>Enid Ice &amp; Fuel Co.,</I> 2 W. H. Cases 584; 6 Labor Cases para. 61,226 (W.D. Okla. 1942).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.447.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.22   Duty of 24 hours or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Where an employee is required to be on duty for 24 hours or more, the employer and the employee may agree to exclude bona fide meal periods and a bona fide regularly scheduled sleeping period of not more than 8 hours from hours worked, provided adequate sleeping facilities are furnished by the employer and the employee can usually enjoy an uninterrupted night's sleep. If sleeping period is of more than 8 hours, only 8 hours will be credited. Where no expressed or implied agreement to the contrary is present, the 8 hours of sleeping time and lunch periods constitute hours worked. (<I>Armour</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126 (1944); <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134 (1944); <I>General Electric Co.</I> v. <I>Porter,</I> 208 F. 2d 805 (C.A. 9, 1953), cert. denied, 347 U.S. 951, 975 (1954); <I>Bowers</I> v. <I>Remington Rand,</I> 64 F. Supp. 620 (S.D. Ill, 1946), aff'd 159 F. 2d 114 (C.A. 7, 1946) cert. denied 330 U.S. 843 (1947); <I>Bell</I> v. <I>Porter,</I> 159 F. 2d 117 (C.A. 7, 1946) cert. denied 330 U.S. 813 (1947); <I>Bridgeman</I> v. <I>Ford, Bacon &amp; Davis,</I> 161 F. 2d 962 (C.A. 8, 1947); <I>Rokey</I> v. <I>Day &amp; Zimmerman,</I> 157 F. 2d 736 (C.A. 8, 1946); <I>McLaughlin</I> v. <I>Todd &amp; Brown, Inc.,</I> 7 W.H. Cases 1014; 15 Labor Cases para. 64,606 (N.D. Ind. 1948); <I>Campbell</I> v. <I>Jones &amp; Laughlin,</I> 70 F. Supp. 996 (W.D. Pa. 1947).)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interruptions of sleep.</I> If the sleeping period is interrupted by a call to duty, the interruption must be counted as hours worked. If the period is interrupted to such an extent that the employee cannot get a reasonable night's sleep, the entire period must be counted. For enforcement purposes, the Divisons have adopted the rule that if the employee cannot get at least 5 hours' sleep during the scheduled period the entire time is working time. (See <I>Eustice</I> v. <I>Federal Cartridge Corp.,</I> 66 F. Supp. 55 (D. Minn. 1946).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.447.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.23   Employees residing on employer's premises or working at home.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who resides on his employer's premises on a permanent basis or for extended periods of time is not considered as working all the time he is on the premises. Ordinarily, he may engage in normal private pursuits and thus have enough time for eating, sleeping, entertaining, and other periods of complete freedom from all duties when he may leave the premises for purposes of his own. It is, of course, difficult to determine the exact hours worked under these circumstances and any reasonable agreement of the parties which takes into consideration all of the pertinent facts will be accepted. This rule would apply, for example, to the pumper of a stripper well who resides on the premises of his employer and also to a telephone operator who has the switchboard in her own home. (<I>Skelly Oil Co.</I> v. <I>Jackson,</I> 194 Okla. 183, 148 P. 2d 182 (Okla. Sup. Ct. 1944; <I>Thompson</I> v. <I>Loring Oil Co.,</I> 50 F. Supp. 213 (W.D. La. 1943).)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="448" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.448" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preparatory and Concluding Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.448.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.24   Principles noted in Portal-to-Portal Bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>In November, 1947, the Administrator issued the Portal-to-Portal Bulletin (part 790 of this chapter). In dealing with this subject, § 790.8 (b) and (c) of this chapter said:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The term “principal activities” includes all activities which are an integral part of a principal activity. Two examples of what is meant by an integral part of a principal activity are found in the report of the Judiciary Committee of the Senate on the Portal-to-Portal bill. They are the following:
</P>
<P>(1) In connection with the operation of a lathe, an employee will frequently, at the commencement of his workday, oil, grease, or clean his machine, or install a new cutting tool. Such activities are an integral part of the principal activity, and are included within such term.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a garment worker in a textile mill, who is required to report 30 minutes before other employees report to commence their principal activities, and who during such 30 minutes distributes clothing or parts of clothing at the workbenches of other employees and gets machines in readiness for operation by other employees, such activities are among the principal activities of such employee.
</P>
<FP>Such preparatory activities, which the Administrator has always regarded as work and as compensable under the Fair Labor Standards Act, remain so under the Portal Act, regardless of contrary custom or contract.
</FP>
<P>(c) Among the activities included as an integral part of a principal activity are those closely related activities which are indispensable to its performance. If an employee in a chemical plant, for example, cannot perform his principal activities without putting on certain clothes, changing clothes on the employer's premises at the beginning and end of the workday would be an integral part of the employee's principal activity. On the other hand, if changing clothes is merely a convenience to the employee and not directly related to his principal activities, it would be considered as a “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity rather than a principal part of the activity. However, activities such as checking in and out and waiting in line to do so would not ordinarily be regarded as integral parts of the principal activity or activities.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.448.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.25   Illustrative U.S. Supreme Court decisions.</HEAD>
<P>These principles have guided the Administrator in the enforcement of the Act. Two cases decided by the U.S. Supreme Court further illustrate the types of activities which are considered an integral part of the employees' jobs. In one, employees changed their clothes and took showers in a battery plant where the manufacturing process involved the extensive use of caustic and toxic materials. (<I>Steiner</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> 350 U.S. 247 (1956).) In another case, knifemen in a meatpacking plant sharpened their knives before and after their scheduled workday (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>King Packing Co.,</I> 350 U.S. 260 (1956)). In both cases the Supreme Court held that these activities are an integral and indispensable part of the employees' principal activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.26" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.448.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.26   Section 3(o) of the Fair Labor Standards Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(o) of the Act provides an exception to the general rule for employees under collective bargaining agreements. This section provides for the exclusion from hours worked of time spent by an employee in changing clothes or washing at the beginning or end of each workday which was excluded from measured working time during the week involved by the express terms of or by custom or practice under a bona fide collective-bargaining agreement applicable to the particular employee. During any week in which such clothes-changing or washing time was not so excluded, it must be counted as hours worked if the changing of clothes or washing is indispensable to the performance of the employee's work or is required by law or by the rules of the employer. The same would be true if the changing of clothes or washing was a preliminary or postliminary activity compensable by contract, custom, or practice as provided by section 4 of the Portal-to-Portal Act, and as discussed in § 785.9 and part 790 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 9912, Aug. 10, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="449" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.449" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Lectures, Meetings and Training Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.27" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.449.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.27   General.</HEAD>
<P>Attendance at lectures, meetings, training programs and similar activities need not be counted as working time if the following four criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(a) Attendance is outside of the employee's regular working hours;
</P>
<P>(b) Attendance is in fact voluntary;
</P>
<P>(c) The course, lecture, or meeting is not directly related to the employee's job; and
</P>
<P>(d) The employee does not perform any productive work during such attendance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.28" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.449.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.28   Involuntary attendance.</HEAD>
<P>Attendance is not voluntary, of course, if it is required by the employer. It is not voluntary in fact if the employee is given to understand or led to believe that his present working conditions or the continuance of his employment would be adversely affected by nonattendance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.29" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.449.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.29   Training directly related to employee's job.</HEAD>
<P>The training is directly related to the employee's job if it is designed to make the employee handle his job more effectively as distinguished from training him for another job, or to a new or additional skill. For example, a stenographer who is given a course in stenography is engaged in an activity to make her a better stenographer. Time spent in such a course given by the employer or under his auspices is hours worked. However, if the stenographer takes a course in bookkeeping, it may not be directly related to her job. Thus, the time she spends voluntarily in taking such a bookkeeping course, outside of regular working hours, need not be counted as working time. Where a training course is instituted for the bona fide purpose of preparing for advancement through upgrading the employee to a higher skill, and is not intended to make the employee more efficient in his present job, the training is not considered directly related to the employee's job even though the course incidentally improves his skill in doing his regular work.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 9912, Aug. 10, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.449.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.30   Independent training.</HEAD>
<P>Of course, if an employee on his own initiative attends an independent school, college or independent trade school after hours, the time is not hours worked for his employer even if the courses are related to his job.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.31" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.449.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.31   Special situations.</HEAD>
<P>There are some special situations where the time spent in attending lectures, training sessions and courses of instruction is not regarded as hours worked. For example, an employer may establish for the benefit of his employees a program of instruction which corresponds to courses offered by independent bona fide institutions of learning. Voluntary attendance by an employee at such courses outside of working hours would not be hours worked even if they are directly related to his job, or paid for by the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.32" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.449.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.32   Apprenticeship training.</HEAD>
<P>As an enforcement policy, time spent in an organized program of related, supplemental instruction by employees working under bona fide apprenticeship programs may be excluded from working time if the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The apprentice is employed under a written apprenticeship agreement or program which substantially meets the fundamental standards of the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training of the U.S. Department of Labor; and
</P>
<P>(b) Such time does not involve productive work or performance of the apprentice's regular duties. If the above criteria are met the time spent in such related supplemental training shall not be counted as hours worked unless the written agreement specifically provides that it is hours worked. The mere payment or agreement to pay for time spent in related instruction does not constitute an agreement that such time is hours worked.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="450" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Traveltime</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.33" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.33   General.</HEAD>
<P>The principles which apply in determining whether or not time spent in travel is working time depend upon the kind of travel involved. The subject is discussed in §§ 785.35 to 785.41, which are preceded by a brief discussion in § 785.34 of the Portal-to-Portal Act as it applies to traveltime.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.34" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.34   Effect of section 4 of the Portal-to-Portal Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Portal Act provides in section 4(a) that except as provided in subsection (b) no employer shall be liable for the failure to pay the minimum wage or overtime compensation for time spent in “walking, riding, or traveling to and from the actual place of performance of the principal activity or activities which such employee is employed to perform either prior to the time on any particular workday at which such employee commences, or subsequent to the time on any particular workday at which he ceases, such principal activity or activities.” Section 4(a) further provides that the use of an employer's vehicle for travel by an employee and activities that are incidental to the use of such vehicle for commuting are not considered principal activities when the use of such vehicle is within the normal commuting area for the employer's business or establishment and is subject to an agreement on the part of the employer and the employee or the representative of such employee. Subsection (b) provides that the employer shall not be relieved from liability if the activity is compensable by express contract or by custom or practice not inconsistent with an express contract. Thus traveltime at the commencement or cessation of the workday which was originally considered as working time under the Fair Labor Standards Act (such as underground travel in mines or walking from time clock to work-bench) need not be counted as working time unless it is compensable by contract, custom or practice. If compensable by express contract or by custom or practice not inconsistent with an express contract, such traveltime must be counted in computing hours worked. However, ordinary travel from home to work (see § 785.35) need not be counted as hours worked even if the employer agrees to pay for it. (See <I>Tennessee Coal, Iron &amp; RR. Co.</I> v. <I>Musecoda Local,</I> 321 U.S. 590 (1946); <I>Anderson</I> v. <I>Mt. Clemens Pottery Co.,</I> 328 U.S. 690 (1946); <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Anaconda Copper Mining Co.,</I> 66 F. Supp. 913 (D. Mont. (1946).)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 190, Jan. 11, 1961, as amended at 76 FR 18860, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.35" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.35   Home to work; ordinary situation.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who travels from home before his regular workday and returns to his home at the end of the workday is engaged in ordinary home to work travel which is a normal incident of employment. This is true whether he works at a fixed location or at different job sites. Normal travel from home to work is not worktime.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.36" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.36   Home to work in emergency situations.</HEAD>
<P>There may be instances when travel from home to work is overtime. For example, if an employee who has gone home after completing his day's work is subsequently called out at night to travel a substantial distance to perform an emergency job for one of his employer's customers all time spent on such travel is working time. The Divisions are taking no position on whether travel to the job and back home by an employee who receives an emergency call outside of his regular hours to report back to his regular place of business to do a job is working time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.37" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.37   Home to work on special one-day assignment in another city.</HEAD>
<P>A problem arises when an employee who regularly works at a fixed location in one city is given a special 1-day work assignment in another city. For example, an employee who works in Washington, DC, with regular working hours from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. may be given a special assignment in New York City, with instructions to leave Washington at 8 a.m. He arrives in New York at 12 noon, ready for work. The special assignment is completed at 3 p.m., and the employee arrives back in Washington at 7 p.m. Such travel cannot be regarded as ordinary home-to-work travel occasioned merely by the fact of employment. It was performed for the employer's benefit and at his special request to meet the needs of the particular and unusual assignment. It would thus qualify as an integral part of the “principal” activity which the employee was hired to perform on the workday in question; it is like travel involved in an emergency call (described in § 785.36), or like travel that is all in the day's work (see § 785.38). All the time involved, however, need not be counted. Since, except for the special assignment, the employee would have had to report to his regular work site, the travel between his home and the railroad depot may be deducted, it being in the “home-to-work” category. Also, of course, the usual meal time would be deductible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.38" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.38   Travel that is all in the day's work.</HEAD>
<P>Time spent by an employee in travel as part of his principal activity, such as travel from job site to job site during the workday, must be counted as hours worked. Where an employee is required to report at a meeting place to receive instructions or to perform other work there, or to pick up and to carry tools, the travel from the designated place to the work place is part of the day's work, and must be counted as hours worked regardless of contract, custom, or practice. If an employee normally finishes his work on the premises at 5 p.m. and is sent to another job which he finishes at 8 p.m. and is required to return to his employer's premises arriving at 9 p.m., all of the time is working time. However, if the employee goes home instead of returning to his employer's premises, the travel after 8 p.m. is home-to-work travel and is not hours worked. (<I>Walling</I> v. <I>Mid-Continent Pipe Line Co.,</I> 143 F. 2d 308 (C. A. 10, 1944))


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.39" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.39   Travel away from home community.</HEAD>
<P>Travel that keeps an employee away from home overnight is travel away from home. Travel away from home is clearly worktime when it cuts across the employee's workday. The employee is simply substituting travel for other duties. The time is not only hours worked on regular working days during normal working hours but also during the corresponding hours on nonworking days. Thus, if an employee regularly works from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. from Monday through Friday the travel time during these hours is worktime on Saturday and Sunday as well as on the other days. Regular meal period time is not counted. As an enforcement policy the Divisions will not consider as worktime that time spent in travel away from home outside of regular working hours as a passenger on an airplane, train, boat, bus, or automobile.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.40" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.40   When private automobile is used in travel away from home community.</HEAD>
<P>If an employee is offered public transporation but requests permission to drive his car instead, the employer may count as hours worked either the time spent driving the car or the time he would have had to count as hours worked during working hours if the employee had used the public conveyance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.41" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.450.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.41   Work performed while traveling.</HEAD>
<P>Any work which an employee is required to perform while traveling must, of course, be counted as hours worked. An employee who drives a truck, bus, automobile, boat or airplane, or an employee who is required to ride therein as an assistant or helper, is working while riding, except during bona fide meal periods or when he is permitted to sleep in adequate facilities furnished by the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="451" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.451" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Adjusting Grievances, Medical Attention, Civic and Charitable Work, and Suggestion Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.42" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.451.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.42   Adjusting grievances.</HEAD>
<P>Time spent in adjusting grievances between an employer and employees during the time the employees are required to be on the premises is hours worked, but in the event a bona fide union is involved the counting of such time will, as a matter of enforcement policy, be left to the process of collective bargaining or to the custom or practice under the collective bargaining agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.43" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.451.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.43   Medical attention.</HEAD>
<P>Time spent by an employee in waiting for and receiving medical attention on the premises or at the direction of the employer during the employee's normal working hours on days when he is working constitutes hours worked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.44" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.451.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.44   Civic and charitable work.</HEAD>
<P>Time spent in work for public or charitable purposes at the employer's request, or under his direction or control, or while the employee is required to be on the premises, is working time. However, time spent voluntarily in such activities outside of the employee's normal working hours is not hours worked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.45" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.3.451.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.45   Suggestion systems.</HEAD>
<P>Generally, time spent by employees outside of their regular working hours in developing suggestions under a general suggestion system is not working time, but if employees are permitted to work on suggestions during regular working hours the time spent must be counted as hours worked. Where an employee is assigned to work on the development of a suggestion, the time is considered hours worked.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Recording Working Time</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.46" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.4.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.46   Applicable regulations governing keeping of records.</HEAD>
<P>Section 11(c) of the Act authorizes the Secretary to promulgate regulations requiring the keeping of records of hours worked, wages paid and other conditions of employment. These regulations are published in part 516 of this chapter. Copies of the regulations may be obtained on request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.47" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.4.452.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.47   Where records show insubstantial or insignificant periods of time.</HEAD>
<P>In recording working time under the Act, insubstantial or insignificant periods of time beyond the scheduled working hours, which cannot as a practical administrative matter be precisely recorded for payroll purposes, may be disregarded. The courts have held that such trifles are de minimis. (<I>Anderson</I> v. <I>Mt. Clemens Pottery Co.,</I> 328 U.S. 680 (1946)) This rule applies only where there are uncertain and indefinite periods of time involved of a few seconds or minutes duration, and where the failure to count such time is due to considerations justified by industrial realities. An employer may not arbitrarily fail to count as hours worked any part, however small, of the employee's fixed or regular working time or practically ascertainable period of time he is regularly required to spend on duties assigned to him. See <I>Glenn L. Martin Nebraska Co.</I> v. <I>Culkin,</I> 197 F. 2d 981, 987 (C.A. 8, 1952), cert. denied, 344 U.S. 866 (1952), rehearing denied, 344 U.S. 888 (1952), holding that working time amounting to $1 of additional compensation a week is “not a trivial matter to a workingman,” and was not de minimis; <I>Addison</I> v. <I>Huron Stevedoring Corp.,</I> 204 F. 2d 88, 95 (C.A. 2, 1953), cert. denied 346 U.S. 877, holding that “To disregard workweeks for which less than a dollar is due will produce capricious and unfair results.” <I>Hawkins</I> v. <I>E. I. du Pont de Nemours &amp; Co.,</I> 12 W.H. Cases 448, 27 Labor Cases, para. 69,094 (E.D. Va., 1955), holding that 10 minutes a day is not de minimis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.48" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.4.452.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.48   Use of time clocks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Differences between clock records and actual hours worked.</I> Time clocks are not required. In those cases where time clocks are used, employees who voluntarily come in before their regular starting time or remain after their closing time, do not have to be paid for such periods provided, of course, that they do not engage in any work. Their early or late clock punching may be disregarded. Minor differences between the clock records and actual hours worked cannot ordinarily be avoided, but major discrepancies should be discouraged since they raise a doubt as to the accuracy of the records of the hours actually worked.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“Rounding” practices.</I> It has been found that in some industries, particularly where time clocks are used, there has been the practice for many years of recording the employees' starting time and stopping time to the nearest 5 minutes, or to the nearest one-tenth or quarter of an hour. Presumably, this arrangement averages out so that the employees are fully compensated for all the time they actually work. For enforcement purposes this practice of computing working time will be accepted, provided that it is used in such a manner that it will not result, over a period of time, in failure to compensate the employees properly for all the time they have actually worked.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.49" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.5.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.49   Applicable provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Section 6.</I> Section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 206) requires that each employee, not specifically exempted, who is engaged in commerce, or in the production of goods for commerce, or who is employed in an enterprise engaged in commerce, or in the production of goods for commerce receive a specified minimum wage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Section 7.</I> Section 7(a) of the Act (29 U.S.C. 207) provides that persons may not be employed for more than a stated number of hours a week without receiving at least one and one-half times their regular rate of pay for the overtime hours.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Section 3(g).</I> Section 3(g) of this act provides that: “ ‘Employ’ includes to suffer or permit to work.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Section 3(o).</I> Section 3(o) of this act provides that: “Hours worked—in determining for the purposes of sections 6 and 7 the hours for which an employee is employed, there shall be excluded any time spent in changing clothes or washing at the beginning or end of each workday which was excluded from the measured working time during the week involved by the express terms of or by custom or practice under a bona fide collective-bargaining agreement applicable to the particular employees.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 190, Jan. 11, 1961, as amended at 26 FR 7732, Aug. 18, 1961]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 785.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.45.5.452.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 785.50   Section 4 of the Portal-to-Portal Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 4 of this Act provides that:
</P>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), of this section, no employer shall be subject to any liability or punishment under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, the Walsh-Healey Act, or the Davis-Bacon Act, on account of the failure of such employer to pay an employee minimum wages, or to pay an employee overtime compensation, for or on account of any of the following activities of such employee engaged in, on, or after May 14, 1947:
</P>
<P>(1) Walking, riding, or traveling to and from the actual place of performance of the principal activity or activities which such employee is employed to perform, and
</P>
<P>(2) Activities which are preliminary to or postliminary to said principal activity or activities, which occur either prior to the time on any particular workday at which such employee commences, or subsequent to the time on any particular workday which he ceases, such principal activity or activities. For purposes of this subsection, the use of an employer's vehicle for travel by an employee and activities performed by an employee which are incidental to the use of such vehicle for commuting shall not be considered part of the employee's principal activities if the use of such vehicle for travel is within the normal commuting area for the employer's business or establishment and the use of the employer's vehicle is subject to an agreement on the part of the employer and the employee or representative of such employee.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section which relieve an employer from liability and punishment with respect to an activity the employer shall not be so relieved if such activity is compensable by either:
</P>
<P>(1) An express provision of a written or nonwritten contract in effect, at the time of such activity, between such employee, his agent, or collective-bargaining representative and his employer; or
</P>
<P>(2) A custom or practice in effect, at the time of such activity, at the establishment or other place where such employee is employed, covering such activity, not inconsistent with a written or nonwritten contract, in effect at the time of such activity, between such employee, his agent, or collective-bargaining representative and his employer.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, an activity shall be considered as compensable, under such contract provision or such custom or practice only when it is engaged in during the portion of the day with respect to which it is so made compensable.
</P>
<P>(d) In the application of the minimum wage and overtime compensation provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, of the Walsh-Healey Act, or of the Davis-Bacon Act, in determining the time for which an employer employs an employee with respect to walking, riding, traveling, or other preliminary or postliminary activities described in paragraph (a) of this section, there shall be counted all that time, but only that time, during which the employee engages in any such activity which is compensable within the meaning of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 190, Jan. 11, 1961, as amended at 76 FR 18860, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="786" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 786—MISCELLANEOUS EXEMPTIONS AND EXCLUSIONS FROM COVERAGE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219. Pub. L. 104-188, 100 Stat. 1755. Pub. L. 105-221, 112 Stat. 1248, 29 U.S.C. 203(e).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Carriers by Air</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 786.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.1.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 786.1   Enforcement policy concerning performance of nonexempt work.</HEAD>
<P>The Division has taken the position that the exemption provided by section 13(b)(3) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, will be deemed applicable even though some nonexempt work (that is, work of a nature other than that which characterizes the exemption) is performed by the employee during the workweek, unless the amount of such nonexempt work is substantial. For enforcement purposes, the amount of nonexempt work will be considered substantial if it occupies more than 20 percent of the time worked by the employed during the workweek.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 5056, July 7, 1956]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Switchboard Operator Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 786.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.3.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 786.100   Enforcement policy concerning performance of nonexempt work.</HEAD>
<P>The Division has taken the position that the exemption provided by section 13(a)(10) of the Fair Labor Standards Act will be deemed applicable even though some nonexempt work (that is, work of a nature other than that which characterizes the exemption) is performed by the employee during the workweek, unless the amount of such nonexempt work is substantial. For enforcement purposes, the amount of nonexempt work will be considered substantial if it occupies more than 20 percent of the time worked by the employee during the workweek.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 15426, Nov. 4, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Employers Subject to Part 1 of Interstate Commerce Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 786.150" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.4.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 786.150   Enforcement policy concerning performance of nonexempt work.</HEAD>
<P>The Division has taken the position that the exemption provided by section 13(b)(2) of the Fair Labor Standards Act will be deemed applicable even though some nonexempt work (that is, work of a nature other than that which characterizes the exemption) is performed by the employee during the workweek, unless the amount of such nonexempt work is substantial. For enforcement purposes, the amount of nonexempt work will be considered substantial if it occupies more than 20 percent of the time worked by the employee during the workweek.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[13 FR 1377, Mar. 17, 1948]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Taxicab Operators</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 786.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.5.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 786.200   Enforcement policy concerning performance of nonexempt work.</HEAD>
<P>The Division has taken the position that the exemption provided by section 13(b)(17) of the Fair Labor Standards Act will be deemed applicable even though some nonexempt work (that is, work of a nature other than that which characterizes the exemption) is performed by the employee during the workweek, unless the amount of such nonexempt work is substantial. For enforcement purposes, the amount of nonexempt work will be considered substantial if it occupies more than 20 percent of the time worked by the employee during the workweek.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 15426, Nov. 4, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Newspaper Publishing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 786.250" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.6.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 786.250   Enforcement policy.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption provided by paragraph 13(a)(8) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 applies to “any employee employed in connection with the publication of any weekly, semiweekly, or daily newspaper with a circulation of less than four thousand the major part of which circulation is within the county where published or counties contiguous thereto.” For the purpose of enforcement, it is the Divisions' position that such an employee is within the exemption even though he is also engaged in job printing activities. if less than 50 percent of the employee's worktime during the workweek is spent in job printing work, some of which is subject to the Act. If none of the job printing activities are within the general coverage of the Act, the exemption applies even if the job printing activities equal or exceed 50 percent of the employee's worktime. However, this exemption is not applicable if the employee spends 50 percent or more of his worktime in a workweek on job printing, any portion of which is within the general coverage of the Act on an individual or enterprise basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 15426, Nov. 4, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Youth Opportunity Wage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 786.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.7.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 786.300   Application of the youth opportunity wage.</HEAD>
<P>Section 6(g) of the Fair Labor Standards Act allows any employer to pay any employee who has not attained the age of 20 years a wage of not less than $4.25 an hour during the first 90 consecutive calendar days after such employee is initially employed by such employer. For the purposes of hiring workers at this wage, no employer may take any action to displace employees, including partial displacements such as reducing hours, wages, or employment benefits. Any employer that violates these provisions is considered to have violated section 15(a)(3) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18860, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Volunteers at Private Non-Profit Food Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 786.350" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.46.8.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 786.350   Exclusion from definition of “employee” of volunteers at private non-profit food banks.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(e)(5) of the Fair Labor Standards Act excludes from the definition of the term “employee” individuals who volunteer their services solely for humanitarian purposes at private non-profit food banks and who receive groceries from the food banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18860, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="788" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 788—FORESTRY OR LOGGING OPERATIONS IN WHICH NOT MORE THAN EIGHT EMPLOYEES ARE EMPLOYED
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>34 FR 15794, Oct. 14, 1969, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 788.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.1   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a)(13) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, provides an exemption from the minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Act, as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The provisions of sections 6 and 7 shall not apply with respect to * * * any employee employed in planting or tending trees, cruising, surveying, or felling timber, or in preparing or transporting logs or other forestry products to the mill, processing plant, railroad, or other transportation terminal, if the number of employees employed by his employer in such forestry or lumbering operations does not exceed eight.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>This exemption, formerly section 13(a)(15) of the Act, was amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966 (80 Stat. 830) to change the number of employees limitation from 12 to eight, and to redesignate it as section 13(a)(13).


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.2   Matters not discussed in this part.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption in section 13(a)(13) of the Act need not be considered unless the employee is “engaged in commerce or the production of goods for commerce” or is employed in an “enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce,” as those words are defined in the Act, so as to come within the general scope of sections 6 and 7. The principles of coverage are discussed in part 776 of this chapter and the discussion will not be repeated in this part. Neither does this part discuss the exemptions provided in section 13(a)(6) and 13(b)(12), or section 3(f) which includes in the definition of agriculture forestry or lumbering operations performed by a farmer or on a farm as an incident to or in conjunction with certain farming operations. (See part 780 of this chapter.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.3   Purpose of this part.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to make available in one place the views of the Department of Labor with respect to the application and meaning of the provisions of section 13(a)(13) of the Act which will provide “a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in enforcement of the law will seek to apply it” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 324 U.S. 134).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.4   Significance of official interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The interpretations contained in this part indicate, with respect to section 13(a)(13) of the Act which refers to small forestry or lumbering operations, the construction of the law which the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator believes to be correct and which will guide them in the performance of their duties under the Act unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoratative decisions of the courts or conclude, upon reexamination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.5   Reliance on official interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947 (29 U.S.C. 259), official interpretation issued under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 may, under certain circumstances, be controlling in determining the rights and liabilities of employers and employees. The interpretations of the law contained in this part are official interpretations on which reliance may be placed as provided in section l0 of the Portal-to-Portal Act so long as they remain effective and are not modified, rescinded, or determined by judicial authority to be incorrect. However, the failure to discuss a particular problem in this part or in the interpretations supplementing it should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Secretary of Labor or the Administrator with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice or enforcement policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.6   Scope of the section 13(a)(13) exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Employees will not be held exempt under section 13(a)(13) unless they are clearly shown to come within its terms. (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>F. M. Sloan Co.,</I> 4ll F. 2d 56 (C.A. 3), 18 WH Cases 878; <I>Gatlin Lumber Co.</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> 287 F. 2d 76 (C.A. 5) cert. denied, 366 U.S. 963.) By its terms, the exemption is limited to those employed in the named operations by an employer who employs not more than eight employees therein. The named operations are described in terms of ordinary speech and mean what they mean in ordinary intercourse in this context. These operations include the incidental activities normally performed by persons employed in them, but do not include mill operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.7   “Planting or tending trees.”</HEAD>
<P>Employees employed in “planting or tending trees” include those engaged in weeding, preparing firebreaks, removing “seeding, planting seedlings, pruning, rot or rusts, spraying, and similar operations when the object is to bring about, protect, or foster the growth of trees.” “Tending trees” would also include watching the timberland to guard against thefts and fire (<I>Gatlin Lumber Co.</I> v. <I>Mitchell,</I> 287 F. 2d 76, cert. den. 366 U.S. 963).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.8   “Cruising, surveying, or felling timber.”</HEAD>
<P>Employees engaged in “cruising * * * timber” include all those members of a field crew whose purpose is to estimate and report on the volume of marketable timber. Employees engaged in “surveying * * * timber” include the customary members of a crew accomplishing that function such as the chairmen, the transit men, the rodmen, and the axmen who clear the ground of brush or trees in order that the transit men may obtain a clear sight. Similarly, the usual members of a crew which go to the woods for the purpose of felling timber and preparing and transporting logs are engaged in operations described in the exemption. Typically included, when members of such a crew, are fellers, limbers, skidders, buckers, loaders, swampers, scalers, and log truck drivers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.9   “Preparing * * * logs.”</HEAD>
<P>Preparing logs includes, where appropriate, removing the limbs and top, cutting them into lengths, removing the bark, and splitting or facing them when done at the felling site, but does not include such operations when done at a mill. Employees engaged in sawmill, tie mill, and other operations in connection with the processing of logs, such as the production of lumber, are not exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.10   “Preparing * * * other forestry products.”</HEAD>
<P>As used in the exemption, “other forestry products” mean plants of the forest and the natural properties or substances of such plants and trees. Included among these are decorative greens such as holly, ferns and Christmas trees, roots, stems, leaves, Spanish moss, wild fruit, and brush. Gathering and preparing such forestry products as well as transporting them to the mill, processing plant, railroad, or other transportation terminal are among the described operations. Preparing such forestry products does not include operations which change the natural physical or chemical condition of the products or which amount to extracting as distinguished from gathering, such as shelling nuts, or mashing berries to obtain juices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.11   “Transporting [such] products to the mill, processing plant, railroad, or other transportation terminal.”</HEAD>
<P>The transportation or movement of logs or other forestry products to a “mill processing plant, railroad, or other transportation terminal” is among the described operations. Loading and unloading, when performed by employees employed in the named operations, are included as exempt operations. Loading logs or other forestry products onto railroad cars or other transportation facilities for further shipment if performed as part of the exempt transportation will be considered a step in the exempt transportation (<I>Woods Lumber Co.</I> v. <I>Tobin,</I> 199 F. 2d 455 (C.A.5)). However, any other loading, transportation, or other activities performed in connection with the logs or other forestry products after they have been unloaded at one of the described destinations is not exempt. “Other transportation terminal” refers to any place where there are established facilities or equipment for the shipment or transportation of logs or other forestry products. Motor carrier yards, docks, wharves, or similar facilities are examples of other transportation terminals, but the place where logs are picked up by contract motor carriers or haulers at the site of the woods operations for transportation to the mill, processing plant, or railroad is not such a terminal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.12   Limitation of exemption to specific operations in which “number of employees * * * does not exceed eight.”</HEAD>
<P>Regardless of his duties, no employee is exempt under section 13(a)(13) unless “the number of employees employed by his employer in such forestry or lumbering operations does not exceed eight.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.13   Counting the eight employees.</HEAD>
<P>The determination of the number of employees employed in the named operations is to be made on an occupational and a workweek basis. Thus the exemption will be available in one workweek when eight or less employees are employed in the exempt operations and not in another workweek when more than that number are so employed. For a discussion of the term “workweek” see part 778 of this chapter. The exemption will not be defeated, however, if one or more of the eight employees so engaged is replaced during the workweek, for example, by reason of illness. But if additional employees are employed during the workweek in the named operations, even if they work on a different shift, the exemption would no longer be available if the total number exceed eight. Similarly, all of an employer's employees employed in any workweek in the named operations must be counted in the eight regardless of where the work is performed or how it is divided. Thus if an employer employs four employees in felling timber and preparing logs at one location and five at another location in those operations, the exemption would not be available. Similarly, if he employs six employees in such operations and three other employees in transportation work as discussed in § 788.11, the exemption could not apply. Under such circumstances he would be employing more than eight employees in the named operations. The fact that some of these employees may not be engaged in commerce or the production of goods for commerce or may be engaged in other exempt operations will not affect these conclusions (<I>Woods Lumber Co.</I> v. <I>Tobin,</I> 199 F. 2d 455 (C.A. 5)). Except for replacements, therefore, all of an employer's employees employed in the named operations in a workweek must be counted, regardless of where they perform their work or in which of the named operations or combinations of such operations they are employed. The length of time an employee is employed in the named operations during a workweek is also immaterial for the purpose of applying the numerical limitation. Thus, even if an employee would not himself be exempt because he is engaged substantially in nonexempt work (see § 788.17), nevertheless, if, as a regular part of his duties, he is also engaged in the operations named in the exemption, he must be counted in determining whether the eight employee limitation is satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.14   Number employed in other than specified operations.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption is available to an employer, however, even if he has a total of nine or more employees, if only eight of them or less are employed in the named operations. Thus, if such an employer employs only eight employees in the named operations and others in operations not named in the exemption, such as sawmill operations, the exemption is not defeated because of the fact that he employs more than eight employees altogether. It will not apply, however, to those engaged in the operations not named in the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.15   Multiple crews.</HEAD>
<P>In many cases an employer who operates a sawmill or concentration yard will be supplied with logs or other forestry products by several crews of persons who are engaged in the named operations. Frequently some or all of such crews, separately considered, do not employ more than eight persons but the total number of such employees is in excess of eight. Whether the exemption will apply to the members of the individual crews which do not exceed eight will depend on whether they are employees of the sawmill or concentration yard to which the logs or other forestry products are delivered or whether each such crew is a truly independently owned and operated business. If the number of employees in such a truly independently owned and operated business does not exceed eight, the exemption will apply. On the other hand, the Secretary and the Administrator will assume that the courts will be reluctant to approve as bona fide a plan by which an employer of a large number of woods employees splits his employees into several allegedly “independent businesses” in order to take advantage of the exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.16   Employment relationship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining whether individuals are employees or independent contractors, the criteria set forth in §§ 795.100 through 795.110 of this chapter are used.
</P>
<P>(b) At least in one situation it is possible to be specific: (1) Where the sawmill or concentration yard to which the products are delivered owns the land or the appropriation rights to the timber or other forestry products; (2) the crew boss has no very substantial investment in tools or machinery used; and (3) the crew does not transfer its relationship as a unit from one sawmill or concentration yard to another, the crew boss and the employees working under him will be considered employees of the sawmill or concentration yard. Other situations, where one or more of these three factors is not present, will be considered as they arise on the basis of the criteria mentioned in paragraph (a) of this section. Where all of these three criteria are present, however, it will make no difference if the crew boss receives the entire compensation for the production from the sawmill or concentration yard and distributes it in any way he chooses to the crew members. Similarly, it will make no difference if the hiring, firing, and supervising of the crew members is left in the hands of the crew boss. (See <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>LaDuke,</I> 190 F. 2d 977 (C.A. 9); <I>Tobin</I> v. <I>Anthony-Williams Mfg. Co.,</I> 196 F. 2d 547 (C.A. 8).)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 15794, Oct. 14, 1969, as amended at 89 FR 1741, Jan. 10, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.17   Employees employed in both exempt and nonexempt work.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption for an employee employed in exempt work will be defeated in any workweek in which he performs a substantial amount of nonexempt work. For enforcement purposes nonexempt work will be considered substantial in amount if more than 20 percent of the time worked by the employee in a given workweek is devoted to such work. Where two types of work cannot be segregated, however, so as to permit separate measurement of the time spent in each, the employee will not be exempt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 788.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.47.0.452.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 788.18   Preparing other forestry products.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the exemption, other forestry products means plants of the forest and the natural properties or substances of such plants and trees. Included among these are decorative greens such as holly, ferns, roots, stems, leaves, Spanish moss, wild fruit, and brush. Christmas trees are only included where they are gathered in the wild from forests or from uncultivated land and not produced through the application of extensive agricultural or horticultural techniques. <I>See</I> 29 CFR 780.205 for further discussion. Gathering and preparing such forestry products as well as transporting them to the mill, processing plant, railroad, or other transportation terminal are among the described operations. Preparing such forestry products does not include operations that change the natural physical or chemical condition of the products or that amount to extracting (as distinguished from gathering) such as shelling nuts, or that mash berries to obtain juices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 77239, Dec. 18, 2008. Redesignated at 74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 74 FR 26015, May 29, 2009, § 788.10 was redesignated as § 788.18 and newly designated § 788.18 was suspended, effective June 29, 2009.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="789" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.48" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 789—GENERAL STATEMENT ON THE PROVISIONS OF SECTION 12(a) AND SECTION 15(a)(1) OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT OF 1938, RELATING TO WRITTEN ASSURANCES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>15 FR 5047, Aug. 5, 1950, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 789.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.48.0.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 789.0   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 12(a) and section 15(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (hereinafter referred to as the (Act) contain certain prohibitions against putting into interstate or foreign commerce any goods ineligible for shipment (commonly called “hot goods”), in the production of which the child-labor or wage-hour standards of the Act were not observed. These sections were amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> to provide, among other things, protection against these “hot goods” prohibitions with respect to purchasers “who acquired such goods for value without notice of such violation” if they did so “in good faith in reliance on” a specified “written assurance.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Pub. L. 718, 75th Cong., 3d sess. (52 Stat. 1060), as amended by the Act of June 26, 1940 (Pub. Res. No. 88, 76th Cong., 3d sess., 54 Stat. 616); by Reorganization Plan No. 2 (60 Stat. 616); by Reorganization Plan No. 2 (60 Stat. 1095), effective July 16, 1946; by the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947, approved May 14, 1947 (61 Stat. 84); by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949, approved October 26, 1949 (Pub. L. 393, 81st Cong., 1st sess., 63 Stat. 910); by Reorganization Plan No. 6 of 1950 (15 FR 3174), effective May 24, 1950; and by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1955, approved August 12, 1955 (Pub. L. 381, 84th Cong., 1st sess., C. 867, 69 Stat. 711).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Pub. L. 393, 81st Cong., 1st sess. 963 Stat. 910.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) These amendments to the Act relating to purchasers in good faith and written assurances are for the protection of purchasers. The Act does not provide that a purchaser must secure such an assurance or that a supplier must give it. The amendments confer no express authority for the Department of Labor to require the use of these assurances or to prescribe their form or content. Whether any particular written assurance affords the statutory protection to a purchaser who acquires his goods in good faith and for value without notice of an applicable violation, is left for determination by the courts. Opinions issued by the Department of Labor on this question are advisory only and represent simply the Department's best judgment as to what the courts may hold.
</P>
<P>(c) The interpretations contained in this general statement are confined to the statutory protection accorded these purchasers in section 12(a) and section 15(a)(1) of the Act. These interpretations, with respect to this protection of purchasers, indicate the construction of the law which the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> believe to be correct and which will guide them in the performance of their administrative duties under the Act unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude, upon re-examination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The functions of the Secretary and the Administrator under the Act are delineated in 13 FR 2195, 12 FR 6971, and 15 FR 3290.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 5047, Aug. 5, 1950, as amended at 21 FR 1450, Mar. 6, 1956]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 789.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.48.0.452.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 789.1   Statutory provisions and legislative history.</HEAD>
<P>Section 12(a) of the Act provides, in part that no producer, manufacturer or dealer shall ship or deliver for shipment in commerce any goods produced in an establishment situated in the United States in or about which within 30 days prior to the removal of such goods therefrom, any oppressive child labor has been employed. Section 12(a) then provides an exception from this prohibition in the following language:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Provided,</I> That any such shipment or delivery for shipment of such goods by a purchaser who acquired them in good faith in reliance on written assurance from the producer, manufacturer, or dealer that the goods were produced in compliance with the requirements of this section, and who acquired such goods for value without notice of any such violation, shall not be deemed prohibited by this subsection * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Section 15(a)(1) provides, in part, that it shall be unlawful for any person to transport, offer for transportation, ship, deliver, or sell with knowledge that shipment or delivery or sale thereof in commerce is intended, any goods in the production of which any employee was employed in violation of section 6 or 7 of the Act or any regulation or order of the Administrator issued under section 14. Section 15(a)(1) also provides the following exception with respect to this “hot goods” restriction:
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * any such transportation, offer, shipment, delivery, or sale of such goods by a purchaser who acquired them in good faith in reliance on written assurance from the producer that the goods were produced in compliance with the requirements of the Act, and who acquired such goods for value without notice of any such violation, shall not be deemed unlawful.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The most important portion of the legislative history of those provisions in sections 12(a) and 15(a)(1) which relate to the protection of purchasers is found in the following discussion of the amendment to section 15(a)(1), contained in the Statement of the Managers on the part of the House appended to the Conference Report on the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1949: 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> H. Rept. No. 1453, 81st Cong. 1st sess., p. 31.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This provision protects an innocent purchaser from an unwitting violation and also protects him from having goods which he has purchased in good faith ordered to be withheld from shipment in commerce by a “hot goods” injunction. An affirmative duty is imposed upon him to assure himself that <I>the goods in question were produced</I> in compliance with the Act, and he must have secured written assurance <I>to that effect</I> from the producer of the goods. The requirement that he must have made the purchase in good faith is comparable to similar requirements imposed on purchasers in other fields of law, and is to be subjected to the test of what a reasonable, prudent man, acting with due diligence, would have done in the circumstances. (Emphasis supplied.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>This discussion would appear to be generally applicable also to the similar provisions of the Act contained in section 12(a).


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 789.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.48.0.452.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 789.2   “ * * * in reliance on written assurance from the producer * * *.”</HEAD>
<P>In order for a purchaser to be protected under these provisions of the Act, he must acquire the goods “in reliance on written assurance * * *.” The written assurance specified in section 15(a)(1) is one from the “producer” and in section 12(a) it is one from the “producer, manufacturer or dealer.”
</P>
<FP>Since the acquisition of the goods by the purchaser must be “in reliance” upon such written assurance it is obvious that the Act contemplates a written assurance given to the purchaser as a part of the transaction by which the goods are acquired and on which he can rely at the time of their acquisition. Thus, where the purchaser does not receive a written assurance at the time he acquires particular goods, he cannot be said to have acquired the goods “in reliance on” the specified written assurance merely because the producer later furnishes an assurance that all goods which the purchaser has previously acquired from him were produced in compliance with the Fair Labor Standards Act.
</FP>
<FP>The assurances described in the Act are assurances in writing “from” the producer or “from” the producer, manufacturer, or dealer, as the case may be. It is therefore clear that the following procedures will not amount to “written assurance from the producer” within the meaning of the Act:
</FP>
<P>(a) The purchaser stamps his purchase order with the statement that the order is valid only for goods produced in compliance with the requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act. No written statement concerning the production of the goods is made to the purchaser by the producer. The producer ships the goods which the purchaser has ordered.
</P>
<P>(b) The purchaser stamps the above statement on his purchase order and in addition notifies the producer that shipment of the goods so ordered will be construed by the purchaser as a guarantee by the producer that the goods were produced in compliance with the Act. The producer ships the goods to the purchaser.
</P>
<FP>In neither of these situations can the purchase order be deemed to contain a written assurance from the producer to the purchaser. A statement concerning the circumstances under which the order will be valid is sent to the producer, but no written instrument at all is given the purchaser by the producer. Although, in these situations, the shipment of the goods by the producer may establish a contractual relationship between the parties, the conditions of the statute are not satisfied because there is in neither situation any written assurance from the producer to the purchaser that the goods were produced in compliance with applicable provisions of the Act referred to in sections 12(a) and 15(a)(1).


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 789.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.48.0.452.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 789.3   “* * * goods were produced in compliance with” * * * the requirements referred to.</HEAD>
<P>It is apparent from the language of the statute and the statement appended to the Conference Report 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> that the written assurance referred to is one with respect to specific goods in being, assuring the purchaser that the “goods in question were produced in compliance” with the requirements referred to in sections 12(a) and 15(a) (1). A written statement made prior to production of the particular goods is not the type of assurance contemplated by the statute.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> H. Rept. No. 1453, 81st Cong., 1st sess., p. 31.</P></FTNT>
<FP>A so-called “general and continuing” assurance or “blanket guarantee” stating, for instance, that all goods to be shipped to the purchaser during a twelve-month period following a certain date “will be or were produced” in compliance with applicable provisions of the Act would not afford the purchaser the statutory protection with respect to any production of such goods after the assurance is given. This type of assurance attempts to assure the purchaser concerning the future production of goods. With respect to any production of goods after the assurance is given, this “general and continuing” assurance would, at most, be an assurance that the goods will be produced in compliance with the Act.
</FP>
<FP>The definitions of the terms “goods” and “produced” in sections 3(i) and 3(j) of the Act 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> respectively, should be considered in interpreting the requirement that the written assurance must relate to goods which were produced in compliance with applicable provisions of the Act. These definitions make it apparent, for instance that the raw materials from which a machine has been made retain their identity as “goods” even though these raw materials have been converted into an entirely different finished product in which the raw materials are merely a part.
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Section 3(i) defines “goods” to mean “goods (including ships and marine equipment), wares, products, commodities, merchandise, or articles or subjects of commerce of any character, or any part or ingredient thereof, but does not include goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer thereof other than a producer, manufacturer, or processor thereof.”
</P>
<P>Section 3(j) defines “produced” to mean “produced, manufactured, mined, handled, or in any other manner worked on in any state; and for the purposes of this Act an employee shall be deemed to have been engaged in the production of goods if such employee was employed in producing, manufacturing, mining, handling, transporting, or in any other manner working on such goods, or in any closely related process or occupation directly essential to the production thereof, in any State.”</P></FTNT>
<FP>Since “goods,” as defined in the Act, “does not include goods after their delivery into the actual physical possession of the ultimate consumer thereof other than a producer, manufacturing, or processor thereof,” the “hot goods” restrictions of section 12(a) and section 15(a)(1) do not apply to such ultimate consumers. There appears to be no need, therefore, for such consumers to secure these written assurances from their suppliers.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 789.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.48.0.452.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 789.4   Scope and content of assurances of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>A question frequently asked is whether a single written assurance of compliance will suffice for purposes both of section 12(a), relating to child labor, and section 15(a)(1), relating to wage and hour standards. A single assurance would appear to be sufficient, provided it is specific enough to meet all the conditions of the two sections. Although it is possible that the courts might find assurances referring generally to compliance “with the requirements of the Act” adequate for all purposes, the safer course to pursue would be to phrase the assurance in terms of compliance with the specific sections of the Act whose violation would bar the goods from interstate or foreign commerce.
</P>
<FP>The language of the statute gives support to this view. It will be noted that the written assurance referred to in section 15(a)(1) is described as one of “compliance with the requirements of the Act * * *,” whereas the written assurance referred to in section 12(a) is described as one of “compliance with this section.” In view of the differences in wording of the two sections, a court might conclude that a general assurance of compliance with the Act is not sufficient to include a specific assurance of compliance with section 12, on the theory that if Congress had intended an assurance of compliance with the Act to be sufficient under the child-labor provisions, there would have been no reason for the use of the more specific language which it placed in section 12. Also, it is possible that a court might conclude that Congress intended, under section 15(a)(1), that the assurance should refer specifically to the particular sections of the Act mentioned therein, since unless there is some violation of one of those sections in the production of goods, a subsequent purchaser is not prohibited from putting them in commerce.
</FP>
<FP>There is no prescribed form or language that must be followed in order for the written assurance of compliance to afford the desired protection. However, in view of the considerations mentioned above, the following is suggested as a guide for the type of language which would appear to provide the maximum degree of certainty that a purchaser who acquired the goods in good faith in reliance on the written assurance would receive the protection intended by the amendments:
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>We hereby certify that these goods were produced in compliance with all applicable requirements of sections 6, 7, and 12 of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, and of regulations and orders of the United States Department of Labor issued under section 14 thereof:</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The question has also arisen as to what method should be used to give a purchaser a proper written assurance which would adequately identify the particular goods to which such assurance relates. Although other means of giving proper written assurances may be found to be more practical and convenient, it appears that one simple and feasible method of giving such assurance is for the producer to stamp or print the assurance on the invoice which covers the particular goods and which is given to the purchaser as a part of the transaction whereby the goods are acquired.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 789.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.48.0.452.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 789.5   “* * * acquired * * * in good faith * * * for value without notice * * *.”</HEAD>
<P>Section 12(a) and section 15(a)(1) of the Act provide that a purchaser must acquire the goods in good faith in reliance on the specified written assurance in order to be accorded the statutory protection.
</P>
<FP>The legislative history of the amendments indicates that a purchaser's good faith is not to be determined merely from the actual state of his mind but that good faith also depends upon an objective test—that of what a “reasonable, prudent man, acting with due diligence, would have done in the circumstances.” This good faith requirement is, in the words of the House Managers, “comparable to similar requirements imposed on purchasers in other fields of law.” The final determination of what will amount to good faith can be made only upon the basis of the pertinent facts in each situation.
</FP>
<FP>It is clear, however, that good faith as used in the Act, not only requires honesty of intention but also that a purchaser must not know, have reason to know, or have knowledge of circumstances which ought to put him on inquiry that the goods in question were produced in violation of any of the provisions of the Act referred to in sections 12(a) and 15(a)(1).
</FP>
<FP>These good faith provisions are reinforced by the requirement in sections 12(a) and 15(a)(1) that the purchaser must also acquire his goods “for value without notice” of an applicable violation of the Act.
</FP>
<FP>To illustrate the application of the above principles, let us assume that a purchaser of goods for value acquires them in reliance upon a written assurance from the producer, manufacturer, or dealer that the particular goods were produced in compliance with all applicable requirements of the Act, and that the form and content of the assurance is sufficient to meet the conditions of sections 12 and 15(a)(1) of the Act. If a reasonable, prudent man in the purchaser's position, acting with the diligence, would have no reason to question the truth of the assurance that the applicable requirements has been complied with, the purchaser's reliance on such written assurance would be considered to be in good faith and without notice of any violation, and the purchaser would be protected in the event that violations of the child-labor or the wage-hour standards of the Act had actually occurred in the production of such goods by the vendor or by prior producers of the goods. In such circumstances, the purchaser's protection would not be contingent on his securing separate written assurances from the prior producers or on his assuring himself that his vendor had secured specific guarantees from them with respect to compliance.


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="790" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 790—GENERAL STATEMENT AS TO THE EFFECT OF THE PORTAL-TO-PORTAL ACT OF 1947 ON THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT OF 1938
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 110 Stat. 1755; 29 U.S.C. 201-219; 29 U.S.C. 254.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>12 FR 7655, Nov. 18, 1947, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="452" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.452" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.452.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.1   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947 was approved May 4, 1947. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> It contains provisions which, in certain circumstances, affect the rights and liabilities of employees and employers with regard to alleged underpayments of minimum or overtime wages under the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, and the Bacon-Davis Act. The Portal Act also establishes time limitations for the bringing of certain actions under these three Acts, limits the jurisdiction of the courts with respect to certain claims, and in other respects affects employee suits and proceedings under these Acts.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> An act to relieve employers from certain liabilities and punishments under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, the Walsh-Healey Act, and the Bacon-Davis Act, and for other purposes (61 Stat. 84; 29 U.S.C., Sup., 251 <I>et seq.</I>).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I> In the Fair Labor Standards Act, the Congress exercised its power over interstate commerce to establish basic standards with respect to minimum and overtime wages and to bar from interstate commerce goods in the production of which these standards were not observed. For the nature of liabilities under this Act, see footnote 17.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For the sake of brevity, this Act is referred to in the following discussion as the Portal Act.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) It is the purpose of this part to outline and explain the major provisions of the Portal Act as they affect the application to employers and employees of the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act. The effect of the Portal Act in relation to the Walsh-Healey Act and the Bacon-Davis Act is not within the scope of this part, and is not discussed herein. Many of the provisions of the Portal Act do not apply to claims or liabilities arising out of activities engaged in after the enactment of the Act. These provisions are not discussed at length in this part, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> because the primary purpose of this part is to indicate the effect of the Portal Act upon the future administration and enforcement of the Fair Labor Standards Act, with which the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division is charged under the law. The discussion of the Portal Act in this part is therefore directed principally to those provisions that have to do with the application of the Fair Labor Standards Act on or after May 14, 1947.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Sections 790.23 through 790.29 in the prior edition of this part 790 have been omitted in this revision because of their obsolescence in that they dealt with those sections of the Act concerning activities prior to May 14, 1947, the effective date of the Portal-to-Portal Act.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The correctness of an interpretation of the Portal Act, like the correctness of an interpretation of the Fair Labor Standards Act, can be determined finally and authoritatively only by the courts. It is necessary, however, for the Administrator to reach informed conclusions as to the meaning of the law in order to enable him to carry out his statutory duties of administration and enforcement. It would seem desirable also that he makes these conclusions known to persons affected by the law. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, as in the case of the interpretative bulletins previously issued on various provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act, the interpretations set forth herein are intended to indicate the construction of the law which the Administration believes to be correct 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> and which will guide him in the performance of his administrative duties under the Fair Labor Standards Act, unless and until he is directed otherwise by authoritative rulings of the courts or concludes, upon reexamination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect. As the Supreme Court has pointed out, such interpretations provide a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> enforcement of the law will seek to apply it. As has been the case in the past with respect to other interpretative bulletins, the Administrator will receive and consider statements suggesting change of any interpretation contained in this part.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134; <I>Kirschbaum Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; Portal-to-Portal Act, sec. 10.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> The interpretations expressed herein are based on studies of the intent, purpose, and interrelationship of the Fair Labor Standards Act and the Portal Act as evidenced by their language and legislative history, as well as on decisions of the courts establishing legal principles believed to be applicable in interpreting the two Acts. These interpretations have been adopted by the Administrator after due consideration of relevant knowledge and experience gained in the administration of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 and after consultation with the Solicitor of Labor.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134. See also <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657; <I>United States</I> v. <I>American Trucking Assn.,</I> 310 U.S. 534; <I>Overnight Motor Transp. Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 7655, Nov. 18, 1947, as amended at 35 FR 7383, May 12, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.452.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.2   Interrelationship of the two acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The effect on the Fair Labor Standards Act of the various provisions of the Portal Act must necessarily be determined by viewing the two acts as interelated parts of the entire statutory scheme for the establishment of basic fair labor standards. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> The Portal Act contemplates that employers will be relieved, in certain circumstances, from liabilities or punishments to which they might otherwise be subject under the Fair Labor Standards Act. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> But the act makes no express change in the national policy, declared by Congress in section 2 of the Fair Labor Standards Act, of eliminating labor conditions “detrimental to the maintenance of the minimum standard of living necessary for health, efficiency, and general well-being of workers.” The legislative history indicates that the Portal Act was not intended to change this general policy. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> The Congressional declaration of policy in section 1 of the Portal Act is explicitly directed to the meeting of the existing emergency and the correction, both retroactively and prospectively, of existing evils referred to therein. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> Sponsors of the legislation in both Houses of Congress asserted that it “in no way repeals the minimum wage requirements and the overtime compensation requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act” 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> that it “protects the legitimate claims” under that Act, 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> and that one of the objectives of the sponsors was to “preserve to the worker the rights he has gained under the Fair Labor Standards Act.” 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> It would therefore appear that the Congress did not intend by the Portal Act to change the general rule that the remedial provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act are to be given a liberal interpretation 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> and exemptions therefrom are to be narrowly construed and limited to those who can meet the burden of showing that they come “plainly and unmistakably within (the) terms and spirit” of such an exemption. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> As appears more fully in the following sections of this part, the several provisions of the Portal Act relate, in pertinent part, to actions, causes of action, liabilities, or punishments based on the nonpayment by employers to their employees of minimum or overtime wages under the provision of the Fair Labor Standards Act. Section 13 of the Portal Act provides that the terms, “employer,” “employee,” and “wage”, when used in the Portal Act, in relation to the Fair Labor Standards Act, have the same meaning as when used in the latter Act.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Portal Act, sections 1, 2, 4, 6, 9, 10, 11, 12.
</P>
<P>Sponsors of the legislation asserted that the provisions of the Portal Act do not deprive any person of a contract right or other right which he may have under the common law or under a State statute. See colloquy between Senators Donnell, Hatch and Ferguson, 93 Cong. Rec. 2098; colloquy between Senators Donnell and Ferguson, 93 Cong. Rec. 2127; statement of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1557.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See references to this policy at page 5 of the Senate Committee Report on the bill (Senate Rept. 48, 80th Cong., 1st sess.), and in statement of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2177; see also statement of Senator Morse, 93 Cong. Rec. 2274; statement of Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 4389.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Cf. House Rept. No. 71; Senate Rept. No. 48; House (Conf.) Rept. No. 326, 80th Cong., 1st sess. (referred to hereafter as House Report, Senate Report, and Conference Report); statement of Representative Michener, 93 Cong. Rec. 4390; statement of Senator Wiley, 93 Cong. Rec. 4269, 4270; statement of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1572; statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2133-2135, 2176-2178; statement of Representative Robison, 93 Cong. Rec. 1499; Message of the President to Congress, May 14, 1947 on approval of the Act (93 Cong. Rec. 5281).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Statements of Senator Wiley, explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 4269 and 4371. See also statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2295; statement of Representative Robsion, 93 Cong. Rec. 1499, 1500.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Statement of Representative Michener, explaining the conference agreement to the House of Representatives, 93 Cong. Rec. 4391. See also statement of Representative Keating, 93 Cong. Rec. 1512.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> Statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2300; see also statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2361, 2362, 2364; statements of Representatives Walter and Robsion, 93 Cong. Rec. 1496, 1498.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> <I>Roland Electrical Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 326 U.S. 657; <I>United States</I> v. <I>Rosenwasser,</I> 323 U.S. 360; <I>Brooklyn Savings Bank</I> v. <I>O'Neil,</I> 324 U.S. 697.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> See <I>Phillips Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>General Industries Co.,</I> 330 U.S. 545.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) It is clear from the legislative history of the Portal Act that the major provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act remain in full force and effect, although the application of some of them is affected in certain respects by the 1947 Act. The provisions of the Portal Act do not directly affect the provisions of section 15(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act banning shipments in interstate commerce of “hot” goods produced by employees not paid in accordance with the Act's requirements, or the provisions of section 11(c) requiring employers to keep records in accordance with the regulations prescribed by the Administrator. The Portal Act does not affect in any way the provision in section 15(a)(3) banning discrimination against employees who assert their rights under the Fair Labor Standards Act, or the provisions of section 12(a) of the Act banning from interstate commerce goods produced in establishments in or about which oppressive child labor is employed. The effect of the Portal Act in relation to the minimum and overtime wage requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act is considered in this part in connection with the discussion of specific provisions of the 1947 Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="453" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Provisions Relating to Certain Activities Engaged in by Employees on or After May 14, 1947</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.3   Provisions of the statute.</HEAD>
<P>Section 4 of the Portal Act, which relates to so-called “portal-to-portal” activities engaged in by employees on or after May 14, 1947, provides as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), no employer shall be subject to any liability or punishment under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, * * * on account of the failure of such employer to pay an employee minimum wages, or to pay an employee overtime compensation, for or on account of any of the following activities of such employee engaged in on or after the date of the enactment of this Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Walking, riding, or traveling to and from the actual place of performance of the principal activity or activities which such employee is employed to perform, and
</P>
<P>(2) Activities which are preliminary to or postliminary to said principal activity or activities
</P>
<FP>which occur either prior to the time on any particular workday at which such employee commences, or subsequent to the time on any particular workday at which he ceases, such principal activity or activities. For purposes of this subsection, the use of an employer's vehicle for travel by an employee and activities performed by an employee which are incidental to the use of such vehicle for commuting shall not be considered part of the employee's principal activities if the use of such vehicle for travel is within the normal commuting area for the employer's business or establishment and the use of the employer's vehicle is subject to an agreement on the part of the employer and the employee or representative of such employee.
</FP>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) which relieve an employer from liability and punishment with respect to an activity, the employer shall not be so relieved if such activity is compensable by either:
</P>
<P>(1) An express provision of a written or nonwritten contract in effect, at the time of such activity, between such employee, his agent, or collective-bargaining representative and his employer; or
</P>
<P>(2) A custom or practice in effect, at the time of such activity, at the establishment or other place where such employee is employed, covering such activity, not inconsistent with a written or nonwritten contract, in effect at the time of such activity, between such employee, his agent, or collective-bargaining representative and his employer.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of subsection (b), an activity shall be considered as compensable under such contract provision or such custom or practice only when it is engaged in during the portion of the day with respect to which it is so made compensable.
</P>
<P>(d) In the application of the minimum wage and overtime compensation provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, * * * in determining the time for which an employer employs an employee with respect to walking, riding, traveling, or other preliminary or postliminary activities described in subsection (a) of this section, there shall be counted all that time, but only that time, during which the employee engages in any such activity which is compensable within the meaning of subsections (b) and (c) of this section.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 7655, Nov. 18, 1947, as amended at 76 FR 18860, Apr. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.4   Liability of employer; effect of contract, custom, or practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 4 of the Portal Act, quoted above, applies to situations where an employee, on or after May 14, 1974, has engaged in activities of the kind described in this section and has not been paid for or on account of these activities in accordance with the statutory standards established by the Fair Labor Standards Act. 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> Where, in these circumstances such activities are not compensable by contract, custom, or practice as described in section 4, this section relieves the employer from certain liabilities or punishments to which he might otherwise be subject under the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act. 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> The primary Congressional objectives in enacting section 4 of the Portal Act, as disclosed by the statutory language and legislative history were:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> The Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, requires the payment of the applicable minimum wage for all hours worked and overtime compensation for all hours in excess of 40 in a workweek at a rate not less than one and one-half times the employees regular rate of pay, unless a specific exemption applies.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> The failure of an employer to compensate employees subject to the Fair Labor Standards Act in accordance with its minimum wage and overtime requirements makes him liable to them for the amount of their unpaid minimum wages and unpaid overtime compensation together with an additional equal amount (subject to section 11 of the Portal-to-Portal Act, discussed below in § 790.22) as liquidated damages (section 16(b) of the Act); and, if his Act or omission is willful, subjects him to criminal penalties (section 16(a) of the Act). Civil actions for injunction can be brought by the Administrator (sections 11(a) and 17 of the Act).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) To minimize uncertainty as to the liabilities of employers which it was felt might arise in the future if the compensability under the Fair Labor Standards Act of such preliminary or postliminary activities should continue to be tested solely by existing criteria 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> for determining compensable worktime, independently of contract, custom, or pratice; 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> Employees subject to the minimum and overtime wage provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act have been held to be entitled to compensation in accordance with the statutory standards, regardless of contrary custom or contract, for all time spent during the workweek in “physical or mental exertion (whether burdensome or not), controlled or required by the employer and pursued necessarily and primarily for the benefit of the employer and his business” (<I>Tennessee Coal Iron &amp; R.R. Co.</I> v. <I>Muscoda Local,</I> 321 U.S. 590, 598), as well as for all time spent in active or inactive duties which such employees are engaged to perform (<I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126, 132-134; <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323, U.S. 134, 136-137).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> Portal Act, section 1: Senate Report, pp. 41, 42, 46-49; Conference Report, pp. 12, 13; statements of Senator Wiley, 93 Cong. Rec. 2084, 4269-4270; statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2089, 2121, 2122, 2181, 2182, 2362, 2363; statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2292-2300.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) To leave in effect, with respect to the workday proper, the interpretations by the courts and the Administrator of the requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act with regard to the compensability of activities and time to be included in computing hours worked. 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> Senate Report, pp. 46-49; Conference Report, pp. 12, 13; statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2181, 2182, 2362; statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2294, 2296, 2297, 2299, 2300; statement of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 4388; statements of Senator Wiley, 93 Cong. Rec. 2084, 4269-4270.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Under section 4 of the Portal Act, an employer who fails to pay an employee minimum wages or overtime compensation for or on account of activities engaged in by such employee is relieved from liability or punishment therefor if, and only if, such activities meet the following three tests:
</P>
<P>(1) They constitute “walking, riding, or traveling” of the kind described in the statute, or other activities “preliminary” or “postliminary” to the “principal activity or activities” which the employee is employed to perform; and
</P>
<P>(2) They take place before or after the performance of all the employee's “principal activities” in the workday; and
</P>
<P>(3) They are not compensable, during the portion of the day when they are engaged in, by virtue of any contract, custom, or practice of the kind described in the statute.
</P>
<P>(c) It will be observed that section 4 of the Portal Act relieves an employer of liability or punishment only with respect to activities of the kind described, which have not been made compensable by a contract or by a custom or practice (not inconsistent with a contract) at the place of employment, in effect at the time the activities are performed. The statute states that “the employer shall not be so relieved” if such activities are so compensable; 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/> it does not matter in such a situation that they are so-called “portal-to-portal” activities. 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> Section 4(b) of the Act (quoted in § 790.3).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> Conference Report, pp. 12, 13; colloquy between Senators Donnell and Hakes, 93 Cong. Rec. 2181-2182; colloquy between Senators Cooper and McGrath, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297-2298, cf. colloquy between Senators Donnell and Hawkes, 93 Cong. Rec. 2179.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Accordingly, an employer who fails to take such activities into account in paying compensation to an employee who is subject to the Fair Labor Standards Act is not protected from liability or punishment in either of the following situations.
</FP>
<P>(1) Where, at the time such activities are performed there is a contract, whether written or not, in effect between the employer and the employee (or the employee's agent or collective-bargaining representative), and by an express provision of this contract the activities are to be paid for; 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/> or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> Statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2179, 2181, 2182; statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297, 2298, 2299.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Where, at the time such activities are performed, there is in effect at the place of employment a custom or practice to pay for such activities, and this custom or practice is not inconsistent with any applicable contract between such parties. 
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> Statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2181, 2182.</P></FTNT>
<FP>In applying these principles, it should be kept in mind that under the provisions of section 4(c) of the Portal-to-Portal Act, “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities which take place outside the workday “before the morning whistle” or “after the evening whistle” are, for purposes of the statute, not to be considered compensable by a contract, custom or practice if such contract, custom or practice makes them compensable only during some other portion of the day. 
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> Conference Report, pp. 12, 13. See also § 790.12.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 7655, Nov. 18, 1947, as amended at 35 FR 7383, May 12, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.5   Effect of Portal-to-Portal Act on determination of hours worked.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the application of the minimum wage and overtime compensation provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act to activities of employees on or after May 14, 1947, the determination of hours worked is affected by the Portal Act only to the extent stated in section 4(d). This section requires that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>. . . in determining the time for which an employer employs an employee with respect to walking, riding, traveling or other preliminary or postliminary activities described (in section 4(a)) there shall be counted all that time, but only that time, during which the employee engages in any such activity which is compensable (under contract, custom, or practice within the meaning of section 4 (b), (c)). 
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/></P></EXTRACT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> The full text of section 4 of the Act is set forth in § 790.3.</P></FTNT>
<FP>This provision is thus limited to the determination of whether time spent in such “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities, performed before or after the employee's “principal activities” for the workday 
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> must be included or excluded in computing time worked. 
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> If time spent in such an activity would be time worked within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act if the Portal Act had not been enacted, 
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/> then the question whether it is to be included or excluded in computing hours worked under the law as changed by this provision depends on the compensability of the activity under the relevant contract, custom, or practice applicable to the employment. Time occupied by such an activity is to be excluded in computing the time worked if, when the employee is so engaged, the activity is not compensable by a contract, custom, or practice within the meaning of section 4; otherwise it must be included as worktime in calculating minimum or overtime wages due. 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> Employers are not relieved of liability for the payment of minimum wages or overtime compensation for any time during which an employee engages in such activities thus compensable by contract, custom, or practice. 
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> But where, apart from the Portal Act, time spent in such an activity would not be time worked within the meaning of the Fair Labor Standards Act, although made compensable by contract, custom, or practice, such compensability will not make it time worked under section 4(d) of the Portal Act.
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> See § 709.6. Section 4(d) makes plain that subsections (b) and (c) of section 4 likewise apply only to such activities.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> Conference Report, p. 13.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> See footnote 18.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> See Conference Report, pp. 10, 13.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> Conference Report, p. 10.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The operation of section 4(d) may be illustrated by the common situation of underground miners who spend time in traveling between the portal of the mine and the working face at the beginning and end of each workday. Before enactment of the Portal Act, time thus spent constituted hours worked. Under the law as changed by the Portal Act, if there is a contract between the employer and the miners calling for payment for all or a part of this travel, or if there is a custom or practice to the same effect of the kind described in section 4, the employer is still required to count as hours worked, for purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act, all of the time spent in the travel which is so made compensable. 
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> But if there is no such contract, custom, or practice, such time will be excluded in computing worktime for purposes of the Act. And under the provisions of section 4(c) of the Portal Act, 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> if a contract, custom, or practice of the kind described makes such travel compensable only during the portion of the day before the miners arrive at the working face and not during the portion of the day when they return from the working face to the portal of the mine, the only time spent in such travel which the employer is required to count as hours worked will be the time spent in traveling from the portal to the working face at the beginning of the workday.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> Cf. colloquies between Senators Donnell and Hawkes, 93 Cong. Rec. 2179, 2181, 2182; colloquy between Senators Ellender and Cooper, 83 Cong. Rec. 2296-2297; colloquy between Senators McGrath and Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297-2298. See also Senate Report, p. 48.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> See § 790.3 and Conference Report pp. 12, 13. See also Senate Report, p. 48.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.6   Periods within the “workday” unaffected.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 4 of the Portal Act does not affect the computation of hours worked within the “workday” proper, roughly described as the period “from whistle to whistle,” and its provisions have nothing to do with the compensability under the Fair Labor Standards Act of any activities engaged in by an employee during that period. 
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/> Under the provisions of section 4, one of the conditions that must be present before “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities are excluded from hours worked is that they ‘occur either prior to the time on any particular workday at which the employee commences, or subsequent to the time on any particular workday at which he ceases’ the principal activity or activities which he is employed to perform. Accordingly, to the extent that activities engaged in by an employee occur after the employee commences to perform the first principal activity on a particular workday and before he ceases the performance of the last principal activity on a particular workday, the provisions of that section have no application. Periods of time between the commencement of the employee's first principal activity and the completion of his last principal activity on any workday must be included in the computation of hours worked to the same extent as would be required if the Portal Act had not been enacted. 
<SU>35</SU>
<FTREF/> The principles for determining hours worked within the “workday” proper will continue to be those established under the Fair Labor Standards Act without reference to the Portal Act, 
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> which is concerned with this question only as it relates to time spent outside the “workday” in activities of the kind described in section 4. 
<SU>37</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> The report of the Senate Judiciary Committee states (p. 47), “Activities of an employee which take place during the workday are * * * not affected by this section (section 4 of the Portal-to-Portal Act, as finally enacted) and such activities will continue to be compensable or not without regard to the provisions of this section.”</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>35</SU> See Senate Report, pp. 47, 48; Conference Report, p. 12; statement of Senator Wiley, explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 4269 (also 2084, 2085); statement of Representative Gwynne, explaining the conference agreement to the House of Representatives, 93 Cong. Rec. 4388; statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2293-2294, 2296-2300; statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2181, 2182, 2362.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> The determinations of hours worked under the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended is discussed in part 785 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>37</SU> See statement of Senator Wiley explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 3269. See also the discussion in §§ 790.7 and 790.8.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) “Workday” as used in the Portal Act means, in general, the period between the commencement and completion on the same workday of an employee's principal activity or activities. It includes all time within that period whether or not the employee engages in work throughout all of that period. For example, a rest period or a lunch period is part of the “workday”, and section 4 of the Portal Act therefore plays no part in determining whether such a period, under the particular circumstances presented, is or is not compensable, or whether it should be included in the computation of hours worked. 
<SU>38</SU>
<FTREF/> If an employee is required to report at the actual place of performance of his principal activity at a certain specific time, his “workday” commences at the time he reports there for work in accordance with the employer's requirement, even though through a cause beyond the employee's control, he is not able to commence performance of his productive activities until a later time. In such a situation the time spent waiting for work would be part of the workday, 
<SU>39</SU>
<FTREF/> and section 4 of the Portal Act would not affect its inclusion in hours worked for purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>38</SU> Senate Report, pp. 47, 48. Cf. statement of Senator Wiley explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 4269; statement of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2362; statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297, 2298.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>39</SU> Colloquy between Senators Cooper and McGrath, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297, 2298.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 7655, Nov. 18, 1947, as amended at 35 FR 7383, May 12, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.7   “Preliminary” and “postliminary” activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Since section 4 of the Portal Act applies only to situations where employees engage in “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities outside the workday proper, it is necessary to consider what activities fall within this description. The fact that an employee devotes some of his time to an activity of this type is, however, not a sufficient reason for disregarding the time devoted to such activity in computing hours worked. If such time would otherwise be counted as time worked under the Fair Labor Standards Act, section 4 may not change the situation. Whether such time must be counted or may be disregarded, and whether the relief from liability or punishment afforded by section 4 of the Portal Act is available to the employer in such a situation will depend on the compensability of the activity under contract, custom, or practice within the meaning of that section. 
<SU>40</SU>
<FTREF/> On the other hand, the criteria described in the Portal Act have no bearing on the compensability or the status as worktime under the Fair Labor Standards Act of activities that are not “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities outside the workday. 
<SU>41</SU>
<FTREF/> And even where there is a contract, custom, or practice to pay for time spent in such a “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity, section 4(d) of the Portal Act does not make such time hours worked under the Fair Labor Standards Act, if it would not be so counted under the latter Act alone. 
<SU>42</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>40</SU> See Conference Report. pp. 10, 12, 13; statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2178-2179, 2181, 2182; statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297, 2298. See also §§ 790.4 and 790.5.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>41</SU> See Conference Report, p. 12; Senate Report, pp. 47, 48; statement of Senator Wiley, explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 4269; statement of Representative Gwynne, explaining the conference agreement to the House of Representatives, 93 Cong. Rec. 4388. See also § 790.6.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>42</SU> See § 790.5(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The words “preliminary activity” mean an activity engaged in by an employee before the commencement of his “principal” activity or activities, and the words “postliminary activity” means an activity engaged in by an employee after the completion of his “principal” activity or activities. No categorical list of “preliminary” and “postliminary” activities except those named in the Act can be made, since activities which under one set of circumstances may be “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities, may under other conditions be “principal” activities. The following “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities are expressly mentioned in the Act: “Walking, riding, or traveling to or from the actual place of performance of the principal activity or activities which (the) employee is employed to perform.” 
<SU>43</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>43</SU> Portal Act, subsections 4(a), 4(d). See also Conference Report, p. 13; statement of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2181, 2362.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The statutory language and the legislative history indicate that the “walking, riding or traveling” to which section 4(a) refers is that which occurs, whether on or off the employer's premises, in the course of an employee's ordinary daily trips between his home or lodging and the actual place where he does what he is employed to do. It does not, however, include travel from the place of performance of one principal activity to the place of performance of another, nor does it include travel during the employee's regular working hours. 
<SU>44</SU>
<FTREF/> For example, travel by a repairman from one place where he performs repair work to another such place, or travel by a messenger delivering messages, is not the kind of “walking, riding or traveling” described in section 4(a). Also, where an employee travels outside his regular working hours at the direction and on the business of his employer, the travel would not ordinarily be “walking, riding, or traveling” of the type referred to in section 4(a). One example would be a traveling employee whose duties require him to travel from town to town outside his regular working hours; another would be an employee who has gone home after completing his day's work but is subsequently called out at night to travel a substantial distance and perform an emergency job for one of his employer's customers. 
<SU>45</SU>
<FTREF/> In situations such as these, where an employee's travel is not of the kind to which section 4(a) of the Portal Act refers, the question whether the travel time is to be counted as worktime under the Fair Labor Standards Act will continue to be determined by principles established under this Act, without reference to the Portal Act. 
<SU>46</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>44</SU> These conclusions are supported by the limitation, “to and from the actual place of performance of the principal activity or activities which (the) employee is employed to perform,” which follows the term “walking, riding or traveling” in section 4(a), and by the additional limitation applicable to all “preliminary” and “postliminary” activities to the effect that the Act may affect them only if they occur “prior to” or “subsequent to” the workday. See, in this connection the statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Conf. Rec. 2121, 2181, 2182, 2363; statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297. See also Senate Report, pp. 47, 48.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45</SU> The report of the Senate Judiciary Committee (p. 48) emphasized that this section of the Act “does not attempt to cover by specific language that many thousands of situations that do not readily fall within the pattern of the ordinary workday.”</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>46</SU> These principles are discussed in part 785 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) An employee who walks, rides or otherwide travels while performing active duties is not engaged in the activities described in section 4(a). An illustration of such travel would be the carrying by a logger of a portable power saw or other heavy equipment (as distinguished from ordinary hand tools) on his trip into the woods to the cutting area. In such a situation, the walking, riding, or traveling is not segreable from the simultaneous performance of his assigned work (the carrying of the equipment, etc.) and it does not constitute travel “to and from the actual place of performance” of the principal activities he is employed to perform. 
<SU>47</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>47</SU> Senator Cooper, after explaining that the “principal” activities referred to include activities which are an integral part of a “principal” activity (Senate Report, pp. 47, 48), that is, those which “are indispensable to the performance of the productive work,” summarized this provision as it appeared in the Senate Bill by stating: “We have clearly eliminated from compensation walking, traveling, riding, and other activities which are not an integral part of the employment for which the worker is employer.” 93 Cong. Rec. 2299.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) The report of the Senate Committee on the Judiciary (p. 47) describes the travel affected by the statute as “Walking, riding, or traveling to and from the actual place of performance of the principal activity or activities within the employer's plant, mine, building, or other place of employment, irrespective of whether such walking, riding, or traveling occur on or off the premises of the employer or before or after the employee has checked in or out.” The phrase, actual place of performance,” as used in section 4(a), thus emphasizes that the ordinary travel at the beginning and end of the workday to which this section relates includes the employee's travel on the employer's premises until he reaches his workbench or other place where he commences the performance of the principal activity or activities, and the return travel from that place at the end of the workday. However where an employee performs his principal activity at various places (common examples would be a telephone lineman, a “trouble-shooter” in a manufacturing plant, a meter reader, or an exterminator) the travel between those places is not travel of the nature described in this section, and the Portal Act has not significance in determining whether the travel time should be counted as time worked.
</P>
<P>(f) Examples of walking, riding, or traveling which may be performed outside the workday and would normally be considered “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities are (1) walking or riding by an employee between the plant gate and the employee's lathe, workbench or other actual place of performance of his principal activity or activities; (2) riding on buses between a town and an outlying mine or factory where the employee is employed; and (3) riding on buses or trains from a logging camp to a particular site at which the logging operations are actually being conducted. 
<SU>48</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48</SU> See Senate Report, p. 47; statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2121, 2182, 3263.</P></FTNT>
<P>(g) Other types of activities which may be performed outside the workday and, when performed under the conditions normally present, would be considered “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities, include checking in and out and waiting in line to do so, changing clothes, washing up or showering, and waiting in line to receive pay checks. 
<SU>49</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>49</SU> See Senate Report p. 47. Washing up after work, like the changing of clothes, may in certain situations be so directly related to the specific work the employee is employed to perform that it would be regarded as an integral part of the employee's “principal activity”. See colloquy between Senators Cooper and McGrath, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297-2298. See also paragraph (h) of this section and § 790.8(c). This does not necessarily mean, however, that travel between the washroom or clothes-changing place and the actual place of performance of the specific work the employee is employed to perform, would be excluded from the type of travel to which section 4(a) refers.</P></FTNT>
<P>(h) As indicated above, an activity which is a “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity under one set of circumstances may be a principal activity under other conditions. 
<SU>50</SU>
<FTREF/> This may be illustrated by the following example: Waiting before the time established for the commencement of work would be regarded as a preliminary activity when the employee voluntarily arrives at his place of employment earlier than he is either required or expected to arrive. Where, however, an employee is required by his employer to report at a particular hour at his workbench or other place where he performs his principal activity, if the employee is there at that hour ready and willing to work but for some reason beyond his control there is no work for him to perform until some time has elapsed, waiting for work would be an integral part of the employee's principal activities. 
<SU>51</SU>
<FTREF/> The difference in the two situations is that in the second the employee was engaged to wait while in the first the employee waited to be engaged. 
<SU>52</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>50</SU> See paragraph (b) of this section. See also footnote 49.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>51</SU> Colloquy between Senators Cooper and McGrath, 93 Cong. Rec. 2298.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>52</SU> See <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 7 WHR 1165.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 7655, Nov. 18, 1947, as amended at 35 FR 7383, May 12, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.8   “Principal” activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer's liabilities and obligations under the Fair Labor Standards Act with respect to the “principal” activities his employees are employed to perform are not changed in any way by section 4 of the Portal Act, and time devoted to such activities must be taken into account in computing hours worked to the same extent as it would if the Portal Act had not been enacted. 
<SU>53</SU>
<FTREF/> But before it can be determined whether an activity is “preliminary or postliminary to (the) principal activity or activities” which the employee is employed to perform, it is generally necessary to determine what are such “principal” activities. 
<SU>54</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>53</SU> See §§ 790.4 through 790.6 of this bulletin and part 785 of this chapter, which discusses the principles for determining hours worked under the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>54</SU> Although certain “preliminary” and “postliminary” activities are expressly mentioned in the statute (see § 790.7(b)), they are described with reference to the place where principal activities are performed. Even as to these activities, therefore, identification of certain other activities as “principal” activities is necessary.</P></FTNT>
<FP>The use by Congress of the plural form “activities” in the statute makes it clear that in order for an activity to be a “principal” activity, it need not be predominant in some way over all other activities engaged in by the employee in performing his job; 
<SU>55</SU>
<FTREF/> rather, an employee may, for purposes of the Portal-to-Portal Act be engaged in several “principal” activities during the workday. The “principal” activities referred to in the statute are activities which the employee is “employed to perform”; 
<SU>56</SU>
<FTREF/> they do not include noncompensable “walking, riding, or traveling” of the type referred to in section 4 of the Act. 
<SU>57</SU>
<FTREF/> Several guides to determine what constitute “principal activities” was suggested in the legislative debates. One of the members of the conference committee stated to the House of Representatives that “the realities of industrial life,” rather than arbitrary standards, “are intended to be applied in defining the term ‘principal activity or activities’,” and that these words should “be interpreted with due regard to generally established compensation practices in the particular industry and trade.” 
<SU>58</SU>
<FTREF/> The legislative history further indicates that Congress intended the words “principal activities” to be construed liberally in the light of the foregoing principles to include any work of consequence performed for an employer, no matter when the work is performed. 
<SU>59</SU>
<FTREF/> A majority member of the committee which introduced this language into the bill explained to the Senate that it was considered “sufficiently broad to embrace within its terms such activities as are indispensable to the performance of productive work.” 
<SU>60</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>55</SU> Cf. <I>Edward F. Allison Co., Inc.</I> v. <I>Commissioner of Internal Revenue,</I> 63 F. (2d) 553 (C.C.A. 8, 1933).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>56</SU> Cf. <I>Armour &amp; Co.</I> v. <I>Wantock,</I> 323 U.S. 126, 132-134; <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 136-137.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>57</SU> See statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>58</SU> Remarks of Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 4389. See also statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297, 2299.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>59</SU> See statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2296-2300. See also Senate Report, p. 48, and the President's message to Congress on approval of the Portal Act, May 14, 1947 (93 Cong. Rec. 5281).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>60</SU> See statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2299.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The term “principal activities” includes all activities which are an integral part of a principal activity. 
<SU>61</SU>
<FTREF/> Two examples of what is meant by an integral part of a principal activity are found in the Report of the Judiciary Committee of the Senate on the Portal-to-Portal Bill. 
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/> They are the following:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>61</SU> Senate Report, p. 48; statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297-2299.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> As stated in the Conference Report (p. 12), by Representative Gwynne in the House of Representatives (93 Cong. Rec. 4388) and by Senator Wiley in the Senate (93 Cong. Rec. 4371), the language of the provision here involved follows that of the Senate bill.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) In connection with the operation of a lathe an employee will frequently at the commencement of his workday oil, grease or clean his machine, or install a new cutting tool. Such activities are an integral part of the principal activity, and are included within such term.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a garment worker in a textile mill, who is required to report 30 minutes before other employees report to commence their principal activities, and who during such 30 minutes distributes clothing or parts of clothing at the work-benches of other employees and gets machines in readiness for operation by other employees, such activities are among the principal activities of such employee.
</P>
<FP>Such preparatory activities, which the Administrator has always regarded as work and as compensable under the Fair Labor Standards Act, remain so under the Portal Act, regardless of contrary custom or contract. 
<SU>63</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>63</SU> Statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297; colloquy between Senators Barkley and Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2350. The fact that a period of 30 minutes was mentioned in the second example given by the committee does not mean that a different rule would apply where such preparatory activities take less time to perform. In a colloquy between Senators McGrath and Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2298, Senator Cooper stated that “There was no definite purpose in using the words ‘30 minutes’ instead of 15 or 10 minutes or 5 minutes or any other number of minutes.” In reply to questions, he indicated that any amount of time spent in preparatory activities of the types referred to in the examples would be regarded as a part of the employee's principal activity and within the compensable workday. Cf. <I>Anderson</I> v. <I>Mt. Clemens Pottery Co.,</I> 328 U.S. 680, 693.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Among the activities included as an integral part of a principal activity are those closely related activities which are indispensable to its performance. 
<SU>64</SU>
<FTREF/> If an employee in a chemical plant, for example, cannot perform his principal activities without putting on certain clothes, 
<SU>65</SU>
<FTREF/> changing clothes on the employer's premises at the beginning and end of the workday would be an integral part of the employee's principal activity. 
<SU>66</SU>
<FTREF/> On the other hand, if changing clothes is merely a convenience to the employee and not directly related to his principal activities, it would be considered as a “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity rather than a principal part of the activity. 
<SU>67</SU> However, activities such as checking in and out and waiting in line to do so would not ordinarily be regarded as integral parts of the principal activity or activities. 
<SU>67</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>64</SU> See statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297-2299, 2377; colloquy between Senators Barkley and Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2350.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>65</SU> Such a situation may exist where the changing of clothes on the employer's premises is required by law, by rules of the employer, or by the nature of the work. See footnote 49.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>66</SU> See colloquy between Senators Cooper and McGrath, 93 Cong. Rec. 2297-2298.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>67</SU> See Senate Report, p. 47; statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2305-2306, 2362; statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2296-2297, 2298.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 7655, Nov. 18, 1947, as amended at 35 FR 7383, May 12, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.9   “Compensable * * * by an express provision of a written or nonwritten contract.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where an employee engages in a “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity of the kind described in section 4(a) of the Portal Act and this activity is “compensable * * * by an express provision of a written or nonwritten contract” applicable to the employment, section 4 does not operate to relieve the employer of liability or punishment under the Fair Labor Standards Act with respect to such activity, 
<SU>68</SU>
<FTREF/> and does not relieve the employer of any obligation he would otherwise have under that Act to include time spent in such activity in computing hours worked. 
<SU>69</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>68</SU> See § 790.4.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>69</SU> See §§ 790.5 and 790.7.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The word “compensable,” is used in subsections (b), (c), and (d) of section 4 without qualification. 
<SU>70</SU>
<FTREF/> It is apparent from these provisions that “compensable” as used in the statute, means compensable in any amount. 
<SU>71</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>70</SU> The word is also so used throughout section 2 of the Act which relates to past claims. See §§ 790.28-790.25.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>71</SU> Cf. Conference Report, pp. 9, 10, 12, 13; message of the President to the Congress on approval of the Portal-to-Portal Act, May 14, 1947 (93 Cong. Rec. 5281).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The phrase “compensable by an express provision of a written or non- written contract” in section 4(b) of the Portal Act offers no difficulty where a written contract states that compensation shall be paid for the specific activities in question, naming them in explicit terms or identifying them through any appropriate language. Such a provision clearly falls within the statutory description. 
<SU>72</SU>
<FTREF/> The existence or nonexistence of an express provision making an activity compensable is more difficult to determine in the case of a nonwritten contract since there may well be conflicting recollections as to the exact terms of the agreement. The words “compensable by an express provision” indicate that both the intent of the parties to contract with respect to the activity in question and their intent to provide compensation for the employee's performance of the activity must satisfactorily appear from the express terms of the agreement.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>72</SU> See colloquy between Senators Donnell and Lodge, 93 Cong. Rec. 2178; colloquies between Senators Donnell and Hawkes, 93 Cong. Rec. 2179, 2181-2182.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) An activity of an employee is not “compensable by * * * a written or nonwritten contract” within the meaning of section 4(b) of the Portal Act unless the contract making the activity compensable is one “between such employee, 
<SU>72</SU> his agent, or collective-bargaining representative and his employer.” 
<SU>73</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, a provision in a contract between a government agency and the employer, relating to compensation of the contractor's employees, would not in itself establish the compensability by “contract” of an activity, for purposes of section 4.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>73</SU> The terms “employee” and “employer” have the same meaning as when used in the Fair Labor Standards Act. Portal-to-Portal Act, section 13(a).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.10   “Compensable * * * by a custom or practice.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) A “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity of the type described in section 4(a) of the Portal Act may be “compensable” within the meaning of section 4(b), by a custom or practice as well as by a contract. If it is so compensable, the relief afforded by section 4 is not available to the employer with respect to such activity, 
<SU>74</SU>
<FTREF/> and section 4(d) does not operate to exclude the time spent in such activity from hours worked under the Fair Labor Standards Act. 
<SU>75</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, in the event that no “express provision of a written or nonwritten contract” makes compensable the activity in question, it is necessary to determine whether the activity is made compensable by a custom or practice, not inconsistent with such a contract, in effect at the establishment or other place where the employee was employed. 
<SU>76</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>74</SU> See § 790.4.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>75</SU> See §§ 790.5 and 790.7.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>76</SU> See Senate Report, p. 49.
</P>
<P>The same is true with respect to the activities referred to in section 2 of the Portal Act in an action or proceeding relating to activities performed before May 14, 1947. See Senate Report, p. 45. See also § 790.23.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The meaning of the word “compensable” is the same, for purposes of the statute, whether a contract or a custom or practice is involved. 
<SU>77</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>77</SU> See § 790.9(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The phrase, “custom or practice,” is one which, in common meaning, is rather broad in scope. The meaning of these words as used in the Portal Act is not stated in the statute; it must be ascertained from their context and from other available evidence of the Congressional intent, with such aid as may be had from the many judicial decisions interpreting the words “custom” and “practice” as used in other connections. Although the legislative history casts little light on the precise limits of these terms, it is believed that the Congressional reference to contract, custom or practice was a deliberate use of non-technical words which are commonly understood and broad enough to cover every normal situation under which an employee works or an employer for compensation. 
<SU>78</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, “custom” and “practice,” as used in section 4(b) of the Portal Act, may be said to be descriptive generally of those situations where an employer, without being compelled to do so by an express provision of a contract, has paid employees for certain activities performed. One of the sponsors of the legislation in the House of Representatives indicated that the intention was not only “to protect every collective bargaining agreement about these activities” but “to protect the agreement between one workman and his employer” and “every practice or custom which we assume must have entered into the minds of the people when they made the contract.” 
<SU>79</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>78</SU> See colloquy between Senators Donnell and Tydings, 93 Cong. Rec. 2125, 2126; colloquy between Senators Donnell, Lodge, and Hawkes, 93 Cong. Rec. 2178, 2179; colloquy between Senators Donnell and Hawkes, 93 Cong. Rec. 2181, 2182. Statements of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 2293.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>79</SU> Statements of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1566.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) The words, “custom or practice,” as used in the Portal Act, do not refer to industry custom or the habits of the community which are familiar to the people; these words are qualified by the phrase “in effect * * * at the establishment or other place where such employee was employed.” The compensability of an activity under custom or practice, for purposes of this Act, is tested by the custom or the practice at the “particular place of business,” “plant,” “mine,” “factory,” “forest,” etc. 
<SU>80</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>80</SU> Senate Report, p. 45; colloquy between Senators Donnell and Hawkes, 93 Cong. Rec. 2179.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) “The custom or practice” by which compensability of an activity is tested under the statute is one “covering such activity.” Thus, a custom or practice to pay for washing up in the plant after the end of the workday, for example, would not necessarily establish the compensability of walking time thereafter from the washroom in the plant to the plant gate. It is enough, however, if there is a custom or practice covering “such activity”; there is no provision, as there is with regard to contracts, that the custom or practice be one “between such employee, his agent, or collective-bargaining representative, and his employer.” 
<SU>81</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>81</SU> See § 790.9(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) Another qualification of the “custom or practice” referred to in the statute is that it be “not inconsistent with a written or non-written contract” of the kind mentioned therein. If the contract is silent on the question of compensability of the activity, a custom or practice to pay for it would not be inconsistent with the contract. 
<SU>82</SU>
<FTREF/> However, the intent of the provision is that a custom or practice which is inconsistent with the terms of any such contract shall not be taken into account in determining whether such an activity is compensable. 
<SU>83</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>82</SU> Senate Report, pp. 45, 49; colloquy between Senators Donnell and Hawkes, 93 Cong. Rec. 2179.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>83</SU> Senate Report, pp. 45, 49.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.11   Contract, custom or practice in effect “at the time of such activity.”</HEAD>
<P>The “contract,” “custom” or “practice” on which the compensability of the activities referred to in section 4 of the Portal Act may be based, is a contract, custom or practice in effect “at the time of such activity.” Thus, the compensability of such an activity, and its inclusion in computation of hours worked, is not determinable by a custom or practice which had been terminated before the activity was engaged in or was adopted some time after the activity was performed. This phrase would also seem to permit recognition of changes in customs, practices and agreements which reflect changes in labor-management relations or policies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.453.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.12   “Portion of the day.”</HEAD>
<P>A “preliminary” or “postliminary” activity of the kind referred to in section 4 of the Portal Act is compensable under a contract, custom, or practice within the meaning of that section “only when it is engaged in during the portion of the day with respect to which it is so made compensable.” 
<SU>84</SU>
<FTREF/> This provision in no way affects the compensability of activities performed within the workday proper or the computation of hours worked within such workday for purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act; 
<SU>85</SU>
<FTREF/> the provision is applicable only to walking, riding, traveling or other “preliminary” or “postliminary” activities of the kind described in section 4(a) of the Portal Act, 
<SU>86</SU>
<FTREF/> which are engaged in outside the workday, during the portions of the day before performance of the first principal activity and after performance of the last principal activity of the employee. 
<SU>87</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>84</SU> Section 4(c) of the Portal Act (set out in full in § 790.3).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>85</SU> See §§ 790.4-790.6.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>86</SU> Conference Report, pp. 12, 13.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>87</SU> See Conference Report, p. 13; §§ 790.4(c) and 790.5(b).
</P>
<P>The scope of section 4(c) is narrower in this respect than that of section 2(b), which is couched in identical language. Cf. Conference Report, pp. 9, 10; pp. 12, 13. See also § 790.23.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="454" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.454" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Defense of Good Faith Reliance on Administrative Regulations, etc.</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.454.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.13   General nature of defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the provisions of sections 9 and 10 of the Portal Act, an employer has a defense against liability or punishment in any action or proceeding brought against him for failure to comply with the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act, where the employer pleads and proves that “the act or omission complained of was in good faith in conformity with and in reliance on any administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval, or interpretation” or “any administrative practice or enforcement policy * * * with respect to the class of employers to which he belonged.” In order to provide a defense with respect to acts or omissions occurring on or after May 14, 1947 (the effective date of the Portal Act), the regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, administrative practice or enforcement policy relied upon and conformed with must be that of the “Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor,” and a regulation, order, ruling, approval, or interpretation of the Administrator may be relied on only if it is in writing. 
<SU>88</SU>
<FTREF/> But where the acts or omissions complained of occurred before May 14, 1947, the employer may show that they were in good faith in conformity with and in reliance on “any” (written or nonwritten) administrative regulation, order, ruling, or interpretation of “any agency of the United States,” or any administrative practice or enforcement policy of “any such agency” with respect to the class of employers to which he belonged. 
<SU>89</SU>
<FTREF/> In all cases, however, the act or omission complained of must be both “in conformity with” 
<SU>90</SU>
<FTREF/> and “in reliance on” 
<SU>91</SU>
<FTREF/> the administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, practice, or enforcement policy, as the case may be, and such conformance and reliance and such act or omission must be “in good faith.” 
<SU>92</SU>
<FTREF/> The relief from liability or punishment provided by sections 9 and 10 of the Portal Act is limited by the statute to employers who both plead and prove all the requirements of the defence. 
<SU>93</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>88</SU> Portal Act, sec. 10; Conference Report, p. 16; statements of Senator Wiley, explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 4270; statements of Representatives Gwynne and Walter, explaining the conference agreement to the House of Representatives, 93 Cong. Rec. 4388, 4389. See also §§ 790.17 and 790.19.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>89</SU> Portal Act, sec. 10; Conference Report, p. 16; statement of Senator Wiley, explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 4270; statements of Representatives Gwynne and Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 4388, 4389. See also § 790.19.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>90</SU> See § 790.14.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>91</SU> See § 790.16.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>92</SU> See § 790.15.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>93</SU> Conference Report, pp. 15, 16; statements of Representatives Gwynne and Walter, explaining the conference agreement to the House of Representatives, 93 Cong. Rec. 4388, 4389; statements of Senators Cooper and Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 4372, 4451, 4452. See also the President's message of May 14, 1947, to the Congress on approval of the Act (93 Cong. Rec. 5281).
</P>
<P>The requirements of the statute as to pleading and proof emphasize the continuing recognition by Congress of the remedial nature of the Fair Labor Standards Act and of the need for safeguarding the protection which Congress intended it to afford employees. See § 790.2; of. statements of Senator Wiley, 93 Cong. Rec. 4270; Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 4452, and Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 4388, 4389.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The distinctions mentioned in paragraph (a) of this section, depending on whether the acts or omissions complained of occurred before or after May 14, 1947, may be illustrated as follows: Assume that an employer, on commencing performance of a contract with X Federal Agency extending from January 1, 1947 to January 1, 1948, received an opinion from the agency that employees working under the contract were not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act. Assume further that the employer may be said to have relied in good faith upon this opinion and therefore did not compensate such employees during the period of the contract in accordance with the provisions of the Act. After completion of the contract on January 1, 1948, the employees, who have learned that they are probably covered by the Act, bring suit against their employer for unpaid overtime compensation which they claim is due them. If the court finds that the employees were performing work subject to the Act, they can recover for the period commencing May 14, 1947, even though the employer pleads and proves that his failure to pay overtime was in good faith in conformity with and in reliance on the opinion of X Agency, because for that period the defense would, under section 10 of the Portal Act, have to be based upon written administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval, or interpretation, or an administrative practice or enforcement policy of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division. The defense would, however, be good for the period from January 1, 1947 to May 14, 1947, and the employer would be freed from liability for that period under the provisions of section 9 of the statute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.454.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.14   “In conformity with.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The “good faith” defense is not available to an employer unless the acts or omissions complained of were “in conformity with” the regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, administrative practice or enforcement policy upon which he relied. 
<SU>94</SU>
<FTREF/> This is true even though the employer erroneously believes he conformed with it and in good faith relied upon it; actual conformity is necessary.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>94</SU> Statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 4451; message of the President to Congress on approval of the Act, May 14, 1947, 93 Cong. Rec. 5281.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) An example of an employer not acting “in conformity with” an administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval, practice, or enforcement policy is a situation where an employer receives a letter from the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, stating that if certain specified circumstances and facts regarding the work performed by the employer's employees exist, the employees are, in his opinion, exempt from provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act. One of these hypothetical circumstances upon which the opinion was based does not exist regarding these employees, but the employer, erroneously assuming that this circumstance is irrelevant, relies upon the Administrator's ruling and fails to compensate the employees in accordance with the Act. Since he did not act “in conformity” with that opinion, he has no defense under section 9 or 10 of the Portal Act.
</P>
<P>(c) As a further example of the requirement of conformity, reference is made to the illustration given in § 790.13(b), where an employer, who had a contract with the X Federal Agency covering the period from January 1, 1947 to January 1, 1948, received an opinion from the agency that employees working on the contract were not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act. Assume (1) that the X Agency's opinion was confined solely and exclusively to activities performed under the particular contract held by the employer with the agency and made no general statement regarding the status under the Act of the employer's employees while performing other work; and (2) that the employer, erroneously believing the reasoning used in the agency's opinion also applied to other and different work performed by his employees, did not compensate them for such different work, relying upon that opinion. As previously pointed out, the opinion from the X Agency, if relied on and conformed with in good faith by the employer, would form the basis of a “good faith” defense for the period prior to May 14, 1947, insofar as the work performed by the employees on this particular contract with that agency was concerned. The opinion would not, however, furnish the employer a defense regarding any other activities of a different nature performed by his employees, because it was not an opinion concerning such activities, and insofar as those activities are concerned, the employer could not act “in conformity” with it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.454.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.15   “Good faith.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) One of the most important requirements of sections 9 and 10 is proof by the employer that the act or omission complained of and his conformance with and reliance upon an administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, practice or enforcement policy, were in good faith. The legislative history of the Portal Act makes it clear that the employer's “good faith” is not to be determined merely from the actual state of his mind. Statements made in the House and Senate indicate that “good faith” also depends upon an objective test—whether the employer, in acting or omitting to act as he did, and in relying upon the regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, administrative practice or enforcement policy, acted as a reasonably prudent man would have acted under the same or similar circumstances. 
<SU>95</SU>
<FTREF/> “Good faith” requires that the employer have honesty of intention and no knowledge of circumstances which ought to put him upon inquiry. 
<SU>96</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>95</SU> Colloquy between Representatives Reeves and Devitt, 93 Cong. Rec. 1593; colloquy between Senators Ferguson and Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 4451-4452.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>96</SU> See statement of Senator McGrath, 93 Cong. Rec. 2254-2255; statement of Representative Keating, 93 Cong. Rec. 4391; statement of Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 4389.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Some situations illustrating the application of the principles stated in paragraph (a) of this section may be mentioned. Assume that a ruling from the Administrator, stating positively that the Fair Labor Standards Act does not apply to certain employees, is received by an employer in response to a request which fully described the duties of the employees and the circumstances surrounding their employment. It is clear that the employer's employment of such employees in such duties and under such circumstances in reliance on the Administrator's ruling, without compensating them in accordance with the Act, would be in good faith so long as the ruling remained unrevoked and the employer had no notice of any facts or circumstances which would lead a reasonably prudent man to make further inquiry as to whether the employees came within the Act's provisions. Assume, however, that the Administrator's ruling was expressly based on certain court decisions holding that employees so engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, and that the employer subsequently learned from his attorney that a higher court had reversed these decisions or had cast doubt on their correctness by holding employees similarly situated to be engaged in an occupation necessary to the production of goods for interstate commerce. Assume further that the employer, after learning of this, made no further inquiry but continued to pay the employees without regard to the requirements of the Act in reliance on the Administrator's earlier ruling. In such a situation, if the employees later brought an action against the employer, the court might determine that they were entitled to the benefits of the Act and might decide that the employer, after learning of the decision of the higher court, knew facts which would put a reasonably prudent man upon inquiry and therefore had not provided his good faith in relying upon the Administrator's ruling after receiving this advice.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to illustrate further the test of “good faith,” suppose that the X Federal Agency published a general bulletin regarding manufacturing, which contained the erroneous statement that all foremen are exempt under the Fair Labor Standards Act as employed in a “bona fide executive * * * capacity.” Suppose also that an employer knowing that the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division is charged with the duties of administering the Fair Labor Standards Act and of defining the phrase “bona fide executive * * * capacity” in that Act, nevertheless relied upon the above bulletin without inquiring further and, inconformity with this advice, failed to compensate his nonexempt foremen in accordance with the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act for work subject to that Act, performed before May 14, 1947. If the employer had inquired of the Administrator or had consulted the Code of Federal Regulations, he would have found that his foremen were not exempt. In a subsequent action brought by employees under section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, the court may decide that the employer knew facts which ought to have put him as a reasonable man upon further inquiry, and, consequently, that he did not rely “in good faith” within the meaning of section 9, upon the bulletin published by the X Agency. 
<SU>97</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>97</SU> See statement of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1563, and colloquy between Senators Connally and Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 4453.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Insofar as the period prior to May 14, 1947, is concerned, the employer may have received an interpretation from an agency which conflicted with an interpretation of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division of which he was also aware. If the employer chose to reply upon the interpretation of the other agency, which interpretation worked to his advantage, considerable weight may well be given to the fact that the employer ignored the interpretation of the agency charged with the administration of the Fair Labor Standards Act and chose instead to rely upon the interpretation of an outside agency. 
<SU>98</SU>
<FTREF/> Under these circumstances “the question could properly be considered as to whether it was a good faith reliance or whether the employer was simply choosing a course which was most favorable to him.” 
<SU>99</SU>
<FTREF/> This problem will not arise in regard to any acts or omissions by the employer occurring on or after May 14, 1947, because section 10 provides that the employer, insofar as the Fair Labor Standards Act is concerned, may rely only upon regulations, orders, rulings, approvals, interpretations, administrative practices and enforcement policies of the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division. 
<SU>100</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>98</SU> This view was expressed several times during the debates. See statements of Representative Keating, 93 Cong. Rec. 1512 and 4391; colloquy between Representatives Keating and Devitt, 93 Cong. Rec. 1515; statement of Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rep. 4389; statement of Representative MacKinnon, 93 Cong. Rec. 4391; statement of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1563; statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 4451; colloquy between Senators Connally and Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 4452-4453.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>99</SU> Statement of Senator Cooper, 93 Cong. Rec. 4451. Representative Walter, a member of the Conference Committee, made the following explanatory statement to the House of Representatives (93 Cong. Rec. 4390): “The defense of good faith is intended to apply only where an employer innocently and to his detriment, followed the law as it was laid down to him by Government agencies, without notice that such interpretations were claimed to be erroneous or invalid. It is not intended that this defense shall apply where an employer had knowledge of conflicting rules and chose to act in accordance with the one most favorable to him.” Representative Gwynne made a similar statement (93 Cong. Rec. 1563).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>100</SU> Statement of Senator Wiley explaining Conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 4270; statement of Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 4389.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.454.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.16   “In reliance on.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to acting (or omitting to act) in good faith and in conformity with an administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, enforcement policy or practice, the employer must also prove that he actually relied upon it. 
<SU>101</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>101</SU> In a colloquy between Senators Thye and Cooper (93 Cong. Rec. 4451), Senator Cooper pointed out that the purpose of section 9 was to provide a defense for an employer who pleads and proves, among other things, that his failure to bring himself under the Act “grew out of reliance upon” the ruling of an agency. See also statement of Representative Keating, 93 Cong. Rec. 1512; colloquy between Representatives Keating and Devitt, 93 Cong. Rec. 1515; cf. colloquy between Senators Donnell and Ball, 93 Cong. Rec. 4372.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Assume, for example, that an employer failed to pay his employees in accordance with the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act. After an employee suit has been brought against him, another employer calls his attention to a letter that had been written by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, in which the opinion was expressed that employees of the type employed by the defendant were exempt from the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act. The defendant had no previous knowledge of this letter. In the pending employee suit, the court may decide that the opinion of the Administrator was erroneous and that the plaintiffs should have been paid in accordance with the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act. Since the employer had no knowledge of the administrator's interpretation at the time of his violations, his failure to comply with the overtime provisions could not have been “in reliance on” that interpretation; consequently, he has no defense under section 9 or section 10 of the Portal Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.454.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.17   “Administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval, or interpretation.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Administrative regulations, orders, rulings, approvals, and interpretations are all grouped together in sections 9 and 10, with no distinction being made in regard to their function under the “good faith” defense. Accordingly, no useful purpose would be served by an attempt to precisely define and distinguish each term from the others, especially since some of these terms are often employed interchangeably as having the same meaning.
</P>
<P>(b) The terms “regulation” and “order” are variously used to connote the great variety of authoritative rules issued pursuant to statute by an administrative agency, which have the binding effect of law, unless set aside upon judicial review as arbitrary, capricious, an abuse of discretion, or otherwise not in accordance with law. 
<SU>102</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>102</SU> See Final Report of Attorney General's Committee on Administrative Procedure, Senate Document No. 8, 77th Cong. 1st sess. (1941) p. 27; 1 Vom Baur, Federal Administrative Law (1942) p. 486; sections 2(c), 2(d) and 10(e) of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C.A. section 1001.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The term “interpretation” has been used to describe a statement “ordinarily of an advisory character, indicating merely the agency's present belief concerning the meaning of applicable statutory language.” 
<SU>103</SU>
<FTREF/> This would include bulletins, releases, and other statements issued by an agency which indicate its interpretation of the provisions of a statute.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>103</SU> Final Report of the Attorney General's Committee on Administrative Procedure, Senate Document No. 8, 77th Cong., 1st sess. (1941), p. 27.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) The term “ruling” commonly refers to an interpretation made by an agency “as a consequence of individual requests for rulings upon particular questions.” 
<SU>104</SU>
<FTREF/> Opinion letters of an agency expressing opinions as to the application of the law to particular facts presented by specific inquiries fall within this description.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>104</SU> Final Report of the Attorney General's Committee, page 27. To the same effect in 1 Vom Baur, Federal Administrative Law (1942), p. 492.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) The term “approval” includes the granting of licenses, permits, certificates or other forms of permission by an agency, pursuant to statutory authority. 
<SU>105</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>105</SU> See section 2(e) of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C.A. sec. 1001.</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) The terms “administrative regulation order, ruling, approval, or interpretation” connote affirmative action on the part of an agency. 
<SU>106</SU>
<FTREF/> A failure to act or a failure to reply to an inquiry on the part of an administrative agency is not a “regulation, order, ruling, approval, or interpretation” within the meaning of sections 9 and 10. 
<SU>107</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, suppose that an employer writes a letter to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, setting forth the facts concerning his business. He goes on to state in his letter that he believes his employees are not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act, and that unless he hears to the contrary from the Administrator, he will not pay them in accordance with its provisions. When the employer does not receive a reply to his letter within what he regards as a reasonable time, he assumes that the Administrator agrees with his (the employer's) interpretation of the Act and he acts accordingly. The employer's reliance under such circumstances is not a reliance upon an administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval or interpretation, within the meaning of sections 9 and 10.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>106</SU> See Final Report of Attorney General's Committee, p. 27; 1 Vom Baur, Federal Administrative Law, pp. 486, 492; Conference Report, p. 16; statements of Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 4389; statements of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1491; statements of Senator Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2185; President's message of May 14, 1947, on approval of the Portal-to-Portal Act (93 Cong. Rec. 5281).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>107</SU> That this is true on and after the effective date of the Act is clear from the requirement in section 10 that the regulation, order, ruling, approval or interpretation relied on must be that of the Administrator in writing. As to section 9, the terms appear to have no different meaning.</P></FTNT>
<P>(g) The affirmative action taken by the agency must be one which actually results in a “regulation, order, ruling, approval, or interpretation.” If for example, the agency declines to express an opinion as to the application of the law in a particular fact situation, the agency is refraining from interpreting the law rather than giving an interpretation. 
<SU>108</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>108</SU> See Final Report of Attorney General's Committee on Administrative Procedure, p. 33.</P></FTNT>
<P>(h) An employer does not have a defense under these two sections unless the regulation, order, ruling, approval, or interpretation, upon which he relies, is in effect and operation at the time of his reliance. To the extent that it has been rescinded, modified, or determined by judicial authority to be invalid, it is no longer a “regulation, order, ruling, approval, or interpretation,” and, consequently, an employer's subsequent reliance upon it offers him no defense under section 9 and 10. 
<SU>109</SU>
<FTREF/> On the other hand, the last sentence in section 9 and in section 10 expressly provides that where the employer's good faith reliance on a regulation, order, ruling, approval or interpretation occurs before it is rescinded, modified, or determined by judicial authority to be invalid, his claim of a “good faith” defense for such earlier period is not defeated by the subsequent rescission or modification or by the subsequent determination of invalidity.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>109</SU> See House Report, p. 7, and statements of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1491, 1492, 1563. It will be noted that the provisions of section 12 of the Act, affording relief of employers who acted in conformity with the invalidated “area of production” regulations, would have been unnecessary if reliance could be placed on a regulation no longer in effect. See statement of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 4388, and cf. remarks of Senator McCarran, discussing the bill before section 12 was added by the conference committee, 93 Cong. Rec. 2247.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) To illustrate these principles, assume that the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, in reply to an inquiry received from a particular employer, sends him a letter, in which the opinion is expressed that employees performing a particular type of work are not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act. The employer relied upon the Administrator's letter and did not pay his employees who were engaged in such work, in accordance with the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act. Several months later the Administrator issues a general statement, published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and given general distribution, that recent court decisions have persuaded him that the class of employees referred to above are within the coverage of the Fair Labor Standards Act. Accordingly, the statement continues, the Administrator hereby rescinds all his previous interpretations and rulings to the contrary. The employer who had received the Administrator's letter, not learning of the Administrator's subsequent published statement rescinding his contrary interpretations, continued to rely upon the Administrator's letter after the effective date of the published statement. Under these circumstances, the employer would, from the date he received the Administrator's letter to the effective date of the published statement rescinding the position expressed in the letter, have a defense under section 9 or 10, assuming he relied upon and conformed with that letter in good faith. However, in spite of the fact that this employer did not receive actual notice of the subsequent published statement, he has no defense for his reliance upon the letter during the period after the effective date of the public statement, because the letter, having been rescinded, was no longer an “administrative * * * ruling * * * or interpretation” within the meaning of sections 9 and 10. 
<SU>110</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>110</SU> See Final Report of Attorney General's Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1563; colloquy between Representative Gwynne and Lee Pressman, Hearings before House Subcommittee on the Judiciary, pp. 156-7.
</P>
<P>The fact that an employer has no defense under section 9 or 10 of the Portal Act in the situation stated in the text would not, of course, preclude a court from finding that he acted in good faith having reasonable grounds to believe he was not in violation of the law. In such event, section 11 of the Act would permit the court to reduce or eliminate the employer's liability for liquidated damages in an employee suit. See § 790.22.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.454.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.18   “Administrative practice or enforcement policy.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms “administrative practice or enforcement policy” refer to courses of conduct or policies which an agency has determined to follow 
<SU>111</SU>
<FTREF/> in the administration and enforcement of a statute, either generally, or with respect to specific classes of situations. 
<SU>112</SU>
<FTREF/> Administrative practices and enforcement policies may be set forth in statements addressed by the agency to the public. 
<SU>113</SU>
<FTREF/> Although they may be, and frequently are, based upon decisions or views which the agency has set forth in its regulations, orders, rulings, approvals, or interpretations, nevertheless administrative practices and enforcement policies differ from these forms of agency action in that such practices or policies are not limited to matters concerned with the meaning or legal effect of the statutes administered by the agency and may be based wholly or in part on other considerations.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>111</SU> The agency may have determined to follow the course of conduct or policy for a limited time only (see paragraphs (c) and (f), this section) or for an indefinite time (see paragraph (b), this section), or for a period terminable by the happening of some contingency, such as a final decision in pending litigation.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>112</SU> See <I>United States</I> v. <I>Minnesota,</I> 270 U.S. 181 (1926); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Boston &amp; Maine R.R. Co.,</I> 279 U.S. 732 (1929); <I>Lucas</I> v. <I>American Code Co.,</I> 280 U.S. 445 (1930); <I>Estate of Sanford</I> v. <I>Commissioner of Internal Revenue,</I> 308 U.S. 39 (1939). See also Final Report of Attorney General's Committee on Administrative Procedure in Government Agencies, pp. 26-29; 1 Von Baur, Federal Administrative Law (1942), p. 474.
</P>
<P>As to requirement that practice or policy be one with respect to a “class of employers,” see paragraph (g) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>113</SU> Pursuant to section 3 of the Administrative Procedure Act, statements of general policy formulated and adopted by the agency for the guidance of the public are published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> An example is the statement of the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, dated June 16, 1947, published in 12 FR 3915.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) To illustrate this distinction, suppose the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division issues a general statement indicating that in his opinion a certain class of employees come within a specified exemption from provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act in any workweek when they do not engage in a substantial amount of nonexempt work. Such a statement is an “interpretation” within the meaning of sections 9 and 10 of the Portal Act. Assume that at the same time, the Administrator states that for purposes of enforcement, until further notice such an employee will be considered as engaged in a substantial amount of nonexempt work in any workweek when he spends in excess of a specified percentage of his time in such nonexempt work. This latter type of statement announces an “administrative practice or enforcement policy” within the meaning of sections 9 and 10 of the Portal Act.
</P>
<P>(c) An administrative practice or enforcement policy may, under certain circumstances be at variance with the agency's current interpretation of the law. For example, suppose the Administrator announces that as a result of court decisions he has changed his view as to coverage of a certain class of employees under the Fair Labor Standards Act. However, he may at the same time announce that in order to give affected employers an opportunity to make the adjustments necessary for compliance with the changed interpretation, the Wage and Hour Division will not commence to enforce the Act on the basis of the new interpretation until the expiration of a specified period.
</P>
<P>(d) In the statement of the managers on the part of the House, accompanying the report of the Conference Committee on the Portal-to-Portal Act, it is indicated (page 16) that under sections 9 and 10 “an employer will be relieved from liability, in an action by an employee, because of reliance in good faith on an administrative practice or enforcement policy only (1) where such practice or policy was based on the ground that an act or omission was not a violation of the (Fair Labor Standards) Act, or (2) where a practice or policy of not enforcing the Act with respect to acts or omissions led the employer to believe in good faith that such acts or omissions were not violations of the Act.”
</P>
<P>(e) The statement explaining the Conference Committee Report goes on to say, “However, the employer will be relieved from criminal proceedings or injunctions brought by the United States, not only in the cases described in the preceding paragraph, but also where the practice or policy was such as to lead him in good faith to believe that he would not be proceeded against by the United States.”
</P>
<P>(f) The statement explaining the Conference Committee Report gives the following illustrations of the above rules:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>An employer will not be relieved from liability under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 to his employees (in an action by them) for the period December 26, 1946, to March 1, 1947, if he is not exempt under the “Area of Production” regulations published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of December 25, 1946, notwithstanding the press release issued by the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor, in which he stated that he would not enforce the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 on account of acts or omissions occurring prior to March 1, 1947. On the other hand, he will, by reason of the enforcement policy set forth in such press releases, have a good defense to a criminal proceeding or injunction brought by the United States based on an act or omission prior to March 1, 1947.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) It is to be noted that, under the language of sections 9 and 10, an employer has a defense for good faith reliance on an administrative practice or an enforcement policy only when such practice or policy is “with respect to the class of employers to which he belonged.” 
<SU>114</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus where an enforcement policy has been announced pertaining to laundries and linen-supply companies serving industrial or commercial establishments the operator of an establishment furnishing window-washing service to industrial and commercial concerns, who relied upon that policy in regard to his employees, has no defense under sections 9 and 10. The enforcement policy upon which he claimed reliance did not pertain to “the class of employers to which he belonged.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>114</SU> This provision, which appeared for the first time in the conference bill, to which the term “practice” was restored after elimination by the Senate, was apparently designed to meet some of the objections which led to elimination of the word “practice” from the bill reported by the Senate judiciary Committee. Cf. remarks of Senator Murray, 93 Cong. Rec. 2238; remarks of Senator Johnston, 93 Cong. Rec. 2373; colloquy between Senators Lucas and Donnell, 93 Cong. Rec. 2185; remarks of Senator McGrath, 93 Cong. Rec. 2254-2256.</P></FTNT>
<P>(h) Administrative practices and enforcement policies, similar to administrative regulations, orders, rulings, approvals and interpretations required affirmative action by an administrative agency. 
<SU>115</SU>
<FTREF/> This should not be construed as meaning that an agency may not have administrative practices or policies to refrain from taking certain action as well as practices or policies contemplating positive acts of some kind. 
<SU>116</SU>
<FTREF/> But before it can be determined that an agency actually has a practice or policy to refrain from acting, there must be evidence of its adoption by the agency through some affirmative action establishing it as the practice or policy of the agency. 
<SU>117</SU>
<FTREF/> Suppose, for example, that shoe factories in a particular area were not investigated by Wage and Hour Division inspectors operating in the area. This fact would not establish the existence of a practice or policy of the Administrator to treat the employees of such establishments, for enforcement purposes, as not subject to the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act, in the absence of proof of some affirmative action by the Administrator adopting such a practice or policy. A failure to inspect might be due to any one of a number of different reasons. It might, for instance, be due entirely to the fact that the inspectors' time was fully occupied in inspections of other industries in the area.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>115</SU> See <I>Union Stockyards &amp; Transit Co.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 308 U.S. 213, 223 (1939); and <I>United States</I> v. <I>American Union Transport, Inc.,</I> 327 U.S. 437, 454 (1946). Cf. <I>Federal Trade Commission</I> v. <I>Bunte Brothers, Inc.,</I> 312 U.S. 349, 351 (1941). See also President's message of May 14, 1947, 93 Cong. Rec. 5281.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>116</SU> See, for example, <I>Mintz</I> v. <I>Baldwin,</I> 289 U.S. 346, 349 (1933), where the Department of Agriculture announced “its policy for the present is to leave the control (of Bang's disease) with the various States.” See also in this connection the statement of June 23, 1947, by the Senate Committee on the Judiciary regarding the President's message of May 14, 1947, on the Portal-to-Portal Act, 93 Cong. Rec. 5281.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>117</SU> <I>Union Stockyards &amp; Transit Co.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> supra. It may be noted in this connection that examples given by the sponsors of the legislation, in discussing the terms “administrative practice or enforcement policy,” involved situations in which affirmative action had been taken by the agency. Conference Report, p. 16; 93 Cong. Rec. 2185, 2198, 4389-4391.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) It was pointed out above that sections 9 and 10 do not offer a defense to the employer who relies upon a regulation, order, ruling, approval or interpretation which at the time of his reliance has been rescinded, modified or determined by judicial authority to be invalid. The same is true regarding administrative practices and enforcement policies. 
<SU>118</SU>
<FTREF/> However, a plea of a “good faith” defense is not defeated by the fact that after the employer's reliance, the practice or policy is rescinded, modified, or declared invalid.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>118</SU> See § 790.17 (h) and (i), and footnotes 111 and 112.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.454.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.19   “Agency of the United States.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to provide a defense under section 9 or section 10 of the Portal Act, the regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, administrative practice or enforcement policy relied upon and conformed with must be that of an “agency of the United States.” Insofar as acts or omissions occurring on or after May 14, 1947 are concerned, it must be that of the “agency of the United States specified in” section 10(b), which, in the case of the Fair Labor Standards Act, is “the Administrator of the Wage and House Division of the Department of Labor.” However, with respect to acts or omissions occurring prior to May 14, 1947, section 9 of the Act permits the employer to show that he relied upon and conformed with a regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, administrative practice or enforcement policy of “any agency of the United States.” 
<SU>119</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>119</SU> The differences in the provisions of the two sections are explained and illustrated in § 790.13.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The Portal Act contains no comprehensive definition of “agency” as used in sections 9 and 10, but an indication of the meaning intended by Congress may be found in section 10. In that section, where the “agency” whose regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, administrative practice or enforcement policy may be relied on is confined to “the agency of the United States” specified in the section, the Act expressly limits the meaning of the term to the official or officials actually vested with final authority under the statutes involved. 
<SU>120</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, the definitions of “agency” in other Federal statutes 
<SU>121</SU>
<FTREF/> indicate that the term has customarily been restricted in its usage by Congress to the persons vested under the statutes with the real power to act for the Government—those who actually have the power to act as (rather than merely for) the highest administrative authority of the Government establishment. 
<SU>122</SU>
<FTREF/> furthermore, it appears from the statement of the managers on the part of the House accompanying the Conference Committee Report, that the term “agency” as appearing in the Portal Act was employed in this sense. As there stated (p. 16), the regulations, orders, ruling, approvals, interpretations, administrative practices and enforcement policies relied upon and conformed with “must be those of an ‘agency’ and not of an individual officer or employee of the agency. Thus, if inspector A tells the employer that the agency interpretation is that the employer is not subject to the (Fair Labor Standards) Act, the employer is not relieved from liability, despite his reliance in good faith on such interpretations, unless it is in fact the interpretation of the agency.” 
<SU>123</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, the Chairman of the Senate Judiciary Committee, in explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, made the following statement concerning the “good faith” defense. “It will be noted that the relief from liability must be based on a ruling of a Federal agency, and not a minor official thereof. I, therefore, feel that the legitimate interest of labor will be adequately protected under such a provision, since the agency will exercise due care in the issuance of any such ruling.” 
<SU>124</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>120</SU> In regard to the Walsh-Healey Act, “agency” is defined in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act as including, in addition to the Secretary of Labor, “any Federal officer utilized by him in the administration of such Act.” The legislative history of the Portal-to-Portal Act (93 Cong. Rec. 2239-2240) reveals that this clause was added because of the language in the Walsh-Healey Act authorizing the Secretary of Labor to administer the Act “and to utilize such Federal officers and employees * * * as he may find necessary in the administration.”</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>121</SU> <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Act, 44 U.S.C. 304; Federal Reports Act, 5 U.S.C. 139; Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 1001.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>122</SU> See <I>Cudahy Packing Co.</I> v. <I>Holland,</I> 315 U.S. 357 (1942); <I>United States</I> v. <I>Watashe,</I> 102 F. (2d) 428 (C.A. 10, 1939); 39 Opinions Attorney General 15 (1925). Cf. <I>Keyser</I> v. <I>Hitz,</I> 133 U.S. 138 (1890); 39 Opinions Attorney General 541 (1933); 13 George Washington Law Review 144 (1945).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>123</SU> See also statement by Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1563; and statement by Senator Wiley explaining the conference agreement to the Senate, 93 Cong. Rec. 4270.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>124</SU> Statement of Senator Wiley, 93 Cong. Rec. 4270.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Accordingly, the defense provided by sections 9 and 10 of the Portal Act is restricted to those situations where the employer can show that the regulation, order, ruling, approval, interpretation, administrative practice or enforcement policy with which he conformed and on which he relied in good faith was actually that of the authority vested with power to issue or adopt regulations, orders, rulings, approvals, interpretations, administrative practices or enforcement policies of a final nature as the official act or policy of the agency. 
<SU>125</SU>
<FTREF/> Statements made by other officials or employees are not regulations, orders, rulings, approvals, interpretations, administrative practices or enforcement policies of the agency within the meaning of sections 9 and 10.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>125</SU> Statement by Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1563; statements by Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 1496-1497, 4389; statement by Representative Robsion, 93 Cong. Rec. 1500; statement by Senator Thye, 93 Cong. Rec. 4452.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="455" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.455" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Restrictions and Limitations on Employee Suits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.455.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.20   Right of employees to sue; restrictions on representative actions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended by section 5 of the Portal Act, no longer permits an employee or employees to designate an agent or representative (other than a member of the affected group) to maintain, an action for and in behalf of all employees similarly situated. Collective actions brought by an employee or employees (a real party in interest) for and in behalf of himself or themselves and other employees similarly situated may still be brought in accordance with the provisions of section 16(b). With respect to these actions, the amendment provides that no employee shall be a party plaintiff to any such action unless he gives his consent in writing to become such a party and such consent is filed in the court in which such action is brought. The amendment is expressly limited to actions which are commenced on or after the date of enactment of the Portal Act. Representative actions which were pending on May 14, 1947 are not affected by this amendment. 
<SU>126</SU>
<FTREF/> However, under sections 6 and 8 of the Portal Act, a collective or representative action commenced prior to such date will be barred as to an individual claimant who was not specifically named as a party plaintiff to the action on or before September 11, 1947, if his written consent to become such a party is not filed with the court within a prescribed period. 
<SU>127</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>126</SU> Conference Report, p. 13.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>127</SU> Conference Report, pp. 14, 15. The claimant must file this consent within the shorter of the following two periods: (1) Two years, or (2) the period prescribed by the applicable State Statute of limitations. See Conference Report, p. 15.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.455.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.21   Time for bringing employee suits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Portal Act 
<SU>128</SU>
<FTREF/> provides a statute of limitations fixing the time limits within which actions by employees under section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act 
<SU>129</SU>
<FTREF/> may be commenced, as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>128</SU> See sections 6-8 inclusive.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>129</SU> Sponsors of the legislation stated that the time limitations prescribed therein apply only to the statutory actions, brought under the special authority contained in section 16(b), in which liquidated damages may be recovered, and do not purport to affect the usual application of State statutes of limitation to other actions brought by employees to recover wages due them under contract, at common law, or under State statutes. Statements of Representative Gwynne, 93 Cong. Rec. 1491, 1557-1588; colloquy between Representative Robsion, Vorys, and Celler, 93 Cong. Rec. 1495.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(1) Actions to enforce causes of action accruing on or after May 14, 1947; two years.
</P>
<P>(2) Actions to enforce causes of action accruing before May 14, 1947. 
<SU>130</SU>
<FTREF/> Two years or period prescribed by applicable State statute of limitations, whichever is shorter.</P></EXTRACT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>130</SU> This refers to actions commenced after September 11, 1947. Such actions commenced on or between May 14, 1947 and September 11, 1947 were left subject to State statutes of limitations. As to collective and representatives actions commenced before May 14, 1947, section 8 of the Portal Act makes the period of limitations stated in the text applicable to the filing, by certain individual claimants, of written consents to become parties plaintiff. See Conference Report, p. 15; § 790.20 of this part.</P></FTNT>
<FP>These are maximum periods for bringing such actions, measured from the time the employee's cause of action accrues to the time his action is commenced. 
<SU>131</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>131</SU> Conference Report, pp. 13-15.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The courts have held that a cause of action under the Fair Labor Standards Act for unpaid minimum wages or unpaid overtime compensation and for liquidated damages “accrues” when the employer fails to pay the required compensation for any workweek at the regular pay day for the period in which the workweek ends. 
<SU>132</SU>
<FTREF/> The Portal Act 
<SU>133</SU>
<FTREF/> provides that an action to enforce such a cause of action shall be considered to be “commenced”:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>132</SU> <I>Reid</I> v. <I>Solar Corp.,</I> 69 F. Supp. 626 (N.D. Iowa); <I>Mid-Continent Petroleum Corp.</I> v. <I>Keen,</I> 157 F. (2d) 310, 316 (C.A. 8). See also <I>Brooklyn Savings Bank</I> v. <I>O'Neil,</I> 324 U.S. 697; <I>Rigopoulos</I> v. <I>Kervan,</I> 140 F. (2d) 506 (C.A. 2).
</P>
<P>In some instances an employee may receive, as a part of his compensation, extra payments under incentive or bonus plans, based on factors which do not permit computation and payment of the sums due for a particular workweek or pay period until some time after the pay day for that period. In such cases it would seem that an employee's cause of action, insofar as it may be based on such payments, would not accrue until the time when such payment should be made. Cf. <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Harnischfeger Corp.,</I> 325 U.S. 427.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>133</SU> Section 7. See also Conference Report, p. 14.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) In individual actions, on the date the complaint is filed;
</P>
<P>(2) In collective or class actions, as to an individual claimant.
</P>
<P>(i) On the date the complaint is filed, if he is specifically named therein as a party plaintiff and his written consent to become such is filed with the court on that date, or
</P>
<P>(ii) On the subsequent date when his written consent to become a party plaintiff is filed in the court, if it was not so filed when the complaint was filed or if he was not then named therein as a party plaintiff. 
<SU>134</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>134</SU> This is also the rule under section 8 of the Portal Act as to individual claimants, in collective or representative actions commenced before May 14, 1947, who were not specifically named as parties plaintiff on or before September 11, 1947.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The statute of limitations in the Portal Act is silent as to whether or not the running of the two-year period of limitations may be suspended for any cause. 
<SU>135</SU>
<FTREF/> In this connection, attention is directed to section 205 of the Soldiers' and Sailors' Civil Relief Act of 1940, 
<SU>136</SU>
<FTREF/> as amended, which provides that the period of military service shall not be included in the period limited by law for the bringing of an action or proceeding, whether the cause of action shall have accrued prior to or during the period of such service.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>135</SU> A limited suspension provision was contained in section 2(d) of the House bill, but was eliminated by the Senate. Neither the Senate debates, the Senate committee report, nor the conference committee report, indicate the reason for this. While the courts have held that in a proper case, a statute of limitations may be suspended by causes not mentioned in the statute itself (<I>Braun</I> v. <I>Sauerwein,</I> 10 Wall. 218, 223; see also <I>Richards</I> v. <I>Maryland Ins. Co.,</I> 8 Cranch 84, 92; <I>Bauserman</I> v. <I>Blunt,</I> 147 U.S. 647), they have also held that when the statute has once commenced to run, its operation is not suspended by a subsequent disability to sue, and that the bar of the statute cannot be postponed by the failure of the creditor (employee) to avail himself of any means within his power to prosecute or to preserve his claim. <I>Bauserman</I> v. <I>Blunt,</I> 147 U.S. 647, 657; <I>Smith</I> v. <I>Continental Oil Co.,</I> 59 F. Supp. 91, 94.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>136</SU> Act of October 17, 1940, ch. 888, 54 Stat. 1178, as amended by the act of October 6, 1942, ch. 581, 56 Stat. 769 (50 U.S.C.A. App. sec. 525).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.49.0.455.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.22   Discretion of court as to assessment of liquidated damages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 11 of the Portal Act provides that in any action brought under the Fair Labor Standards Act to recover unpaid minimum wages, unpaid overtime, compensation, or liquidated damages, the court may, subject to prescribed conditions, in its sound discretion award no liquidated damages or award any amount of such damages not to exceed the amount specified in section 16 (b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act. 
<SU>137</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>137</SU> Section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act provides that an employer who violates the minimum—wage or overtime provisions of the act shall be liable to the affected employees not only for the amount of the unpaid minimum wages or unpaid overtime compensation, as the case may be, but also for an additional equal amount as liquidated damages. The courts have held that this provision is “not penal in its nature” but rather that such damages “constitute compensation for the retention of a workman's pay” where the required wages are not paid “on time.” Under this provision of the law, the courts have held that the liability of an employer for liquidated damages in an amount equal to his underpayments of required wages become fixed at the time he fails to pay such wages when due, and the courts were given no discretion, prior to the enactment of the Portal-to-Portal Act, to relieve him of any portion of this liability. See <I>Brooklyn Savings Bank</I> v. <I>O'Neil,</I> 324 U.S. 697; <I>Overnight Motor Transp. Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The conditions prescribed as prerequisites to such an exercise of discretion by the court are two: (1) The employers must show to the satisfaction of the court that the act or omission giving rise to such action was in good faith; and (2) he must show also, to the satisfaction of the court, that he had reasonable grounds for believing that his act or omission was not a violation of the Fair Labor Standards Act. If these conditions are met by the employer against whom the suit is brought, the court is permitted, but not required, in its sound discretion to reduce or eliminate the liquidated damages which would otherwise be required in any judgment against the employer. This may be done in any action brought under section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, regardless of whether the action was instituted prior to or on or after May 14, 1947, and regardless of when the employee activities on which it is based were engaged in. If, however, the employer does not show to the satisfaction of the court that he has met the two conditions mentioned above, the court is given no discretion by the statute, and it continues to be the duty of the court to award liquidated damages. 
<SU>138</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>138</SU> See Conference Report, p. 17; remarks of Representative Walter, 93 Cong. Rec. 1496-1497; President's message of May 14, 1947, to the Congress on approval of the Portal Act, 93 Cong. Rec. 5281.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) What constitutes good faith on the part of an employer and whether he had reasonable grounds for believing that his act or omission was not a violation of the Fair Labor Standards Act are mixed questions of fact and law, which should be determined by objective tests. 
<SU>139</SU>
<FTREF/> Where an employer makes the required showing, it is for the court to determine in its sound discretion what would be just according to the law on the facts shown.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>139</SU> Cf. §§ 790.13 to 790.16.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Section 11 of the Portal Act does not change the provisions of section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act under which attorney's fees and court costs are recoverable when judgment is awarded to the plaintiff.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="791" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.50" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 791 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="793" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 793—EXEMPTION OF CERTAIN RADIO AND TELEVISION STATION EMPLOYEES FROM OVERTIME PAY REQUIREMENTS UNDER SECTION 13(b)(9) OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 75 Stat. 65; 29 U.S.C. 201-219.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>26 FR 10275, Nov. 2, 1961, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="456" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.456" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Introductory</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.0" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.456.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.0   Purpose of interpretative bulletin.</HEAD>
<P>This part 793 constitutes the official interpretative bulletin of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of section 13(b)(9) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended. This section provides an exemption from the overtime pay provisions of the Act for certain employees employed by certain small market radio and television stations. This exemption was added to the Act by the 1961 amendments. It is the purpose of this bulletin to make available in one place the interpretations of the provisions in section 13(b) (9) which will guide the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator in the performance of their duties under the Act unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude, upon re-examination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.456.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.1   Reliance upon interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The interpretations of the law contained in this part are official interpretations which may be relied upon as provided in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947. All prior opinions, rulings and interpretations which are inconsistent with the interpretations in this bulletin are rescinded and withdrawn.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.456.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.2   General explanatory statement.</HEAD>
<P>Some employees of radio and television stations perform work which may be exempt from the minimum wage and overtime requirements under section 13(a)(1) of the Act. This 13(a)(1) exemption applies to employees employed in a bona fide executive, administrative or professional capacity, or in the capacity of outside salesman, as these terms are defined and delimited by regulations of the Secretary. This exemption continues to be available for employees of radio and television stations who meet the requirements for exemption specified in part 541 of this chapter. The section 13(b) (9) exemption, which is an exemption from the overtime provisions of the Act, but not from the minimum wage requirements, applies to a limited classification of employees employed by small market radio and television stations whose employment meets the requirements for the exemption. These requirements and their meaning and application are discussed in this bulletin. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="457" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.3   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(b) (9) of the Act exempts from the overtime requirements of section 7, but not from the minimum wage provisions of section 6, of the Act:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>any employee employed as an announcer, news editor, or chief engineer by a radio or television station the major studio of which is located (A) in a city or town of one hundred thousand population or less, according to the latest available decennial census figures as compiled by the Bureau of the Census except where such city or town is part of a standard metropolitan statistical area, as defined and designated by the Bureau of the Budget, which has a total population in excess of one hundred thousand, or (B) in a city or town of twenty-five thousand population or less, which is part of such an area but is at least 40 airline miles from the principal city in such area.</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.4   General requirements for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>All of the following requirements must be met in order that an employee may be exempt under section 13(b) (9):
</P>
<P>(a) The employee must be “employed as” an announcer, or a news editor, or a chief engineer.
</P>
<P>(b) The employee must be employed “by” a radio or television station.
</P>
<P>(c) The major studio of such radio or television station must be located in a city or town which meets the prescribed population and locality tests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.5   What determines application of the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The exemption applies only to an employee who is “employed as” an announcer, news editor, or chief engineer under the conditions specified in section 13(b) (9). Although the nature of the employer's business is important in applying the exemption to a particular employee in one of the named occupations, employment in the named occupation is an essential prerequisite for exemption. Whether an employee is exempt therefore depends upon an examination of his duties as well as the nature of the employer's activities. Some employees of the employer may be exempt and others may not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.6   Exemption limited to employees in named occupations.</HEAD>
<P>The legislative history of section 13(b)(9) makes it clear that the exemption is specifically limited to employees employed in the specified occupations (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong. 1st sess., p. 37). To be exempt, therefore, an employee must be employed in the named occupations of announcer, a news editor, or a chief engineer. In applying this test to an employee, his title or job description is not determinative. His aggregate duties, as evidenced by the work which he actually performs in his everyday activities, determines the nature of his occupation. The employee's duties, taken as a whole, must characterize the occupation of the employee as that of announcer, news editor, or chief engineer, if the statutory requirement that he be “employed as” such an employee is to be satisfied (see <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196, cert. denied 328 U.S. 866). This exemption does not apply to employees who are employed in occupations other than those of announcer, news editor, or chief engineer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.7   “Announcer.”</HEAD>
<P>An announcer is an employee who appears before the microphone or camera to introduce programs, read news announcements, present commercial messages, give station identification and time signals, and present other similar routine on-the-air material. In small stations, an announcer may, in addition to these duties, operate the studio control board, give cues to the control room for switching programs, make recordings, make the necessary preparations for the day's programs, play records, or write advertising, promotional or similar type copy. An employee who is primarily engaged in the above described activities and in activities which are an integral part thereof will be considered to be employed as an announcer within the meaning of the exemption in section 13(b)(9).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.8   “News editor.”</HEAD>
<P>A news editor is an employee who gathers, edits and rewrites the news. He may also select and prepare news items for broadcast and present the news on the air. An employee who is primarily engaged in the above duties and in activities which are an integral part thereof will be considered to be employed as a news editor within the meaning of the exemption in section 13(b)(9).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.9" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.9   “Chief engineer.”</HEAD>
<P>A chief engineer is an employee who primarily supervises the operation maintenance and repair of all electronic equipment in the studio and at the transmitter and is licensed by the Federal Communications Commission as a Radio Telephone Operator First Class. In small stations, only one such engineer may be employed, and in some cases he may be assisted by part-time workers from other departments. The engineer in such cases will be regarded as employed as the “chief engineer” for purposes of the section 13(b) (9) exemption provided that he performs the duties described above and is properly licensed by the Federal Communications Commission. Where two or more engineers are employed by a station, only one may qualify as “chief engineer”—that one who, on the basis of the factual situation, is in charge of the engineering work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.10   Primary employment in named occupation.</HEAD>
<P>The legislative history of the exemption is explicit that the exemption applies only to an employee who is employed “primarily” as an announcer, news editor, or chief engineer. Thus the Senate Report states: “The exemption is specifically limited to those employees who are employed primarily in the named occupations * * *” (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., 1st sess., p. 37). No specific rule can be established for determining whether in any given case an employee is employed “primarily” in the named occupations. Generally, however, where an employee spends more than half of the hours he works in a workweek in a named occupation, he will be considered to be primarily employed in such occupation during that workweek. The answer will necessarily depend upon the facts in each case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.11   Combination announcer, news editor and chief engineer.</HEAD>
<P>The 13(b)(9) exemption, as was made clear during the debate on the amendment, is intended to apply to employees employed in the named occupations by small market radio and television stations. It is known at the time of such debate that these stations employ only a small number of employees and that, at times, an employee of such a station may perform a variety of duties in connection with the operation of the station. For example, an employee may perform work both as an announcer and as a news editor. In such cases, the primary employment test under the section 13(b)(9) exemption will be considered to be met by an employee who is employed primarily in any one or any combination of the named occupations. Thus an employee who works both as an announcer and news editor for the greater part of the workweek will be considered to be primarily employed in the named occupations during that week.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.12   Related and incidental work.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who is employed primarily in one or more of the named occupations may also be engaged in other duties pertaining to the operation of the station by which he is employed. The Senate Report states that, for purposes of this exemption, employees who are primarily employed in the named occupation “may engage in related activities, including the sale of broadcasting time for the broadcasting company by which they are employed, as an incident to their principal occupation”, (S. Rept. 145, 87th Cong., 1st sess., p. 37). Time spent in such duties will not be considered to defeat the exemption if the employee is primarily employed in the named occupations and if the other requirements of the exemption are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.13   Limitation on related and incidental work.</HEAD>
<P>The related work which an employee may perform is clearly limited in nature and extent by a number of requirements. One limitation is that the work must be an incident to the employee's primary occupation. The work therefore may not predominate over his primary job. He is not “employed as” an announcer, news editor, or chief engineer if his dominant employment is in work outside such occupations (see <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Haden,</I> 153 F. 2d 196, cert. denied 328 U.S. 866). For instance, an announcer who spends 40 hours of his 48 hour workweek in selling broadcasting time would not be considered to be “incidentally” engaged in such selling. Selling would in such circumstances be his primary occupation. His duties as an announcer must constitute his primary job. Another requirement is that the work of the employees must be performed “for the broadcasting company by which they are employed * * *” (see S. Rept. cited in § 793.12). Sale of broadcasting time for a company which does not employ the employee as an announcer, news editor, or chief engineer, is not exempt work. Work which is not performed for the station by which the employee is employed, is not intended to be exempt. For a discussion of the effect on the exemption of nonexempt work see §§ 793.19 to 793.21.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.14   Employed by.</HEAD>
<P>The application of the exemption is limited to employees “employed by” a radio or television station. The question whether a worker is employed “by” a radio or television station depends on the particular facts. (See <I>Rutherford Food Corporation</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 331 U.S. 722; <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Silk,</I> 331 U.S. 704.) In general, however, an employee is so employed where he is hired by the radio or television station, engages in its work, is paid by the radio or television station and is under its supervision and control. Employees of independent contractors and of others who work for a radio or television station but who are not “employed by” such station are not exempt under this exemption even if they engage in the named occupation. (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kroger,</I> 248, F. 2d 935.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.15" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.15   Duties away from the station.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who is “employed by” a radio or television station in one or more of the named occupations may perform his work at the station or away from the station so long as his activities meet the requirements for exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.16" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.16   “Radio or television station.”</HEAD>
<P>The employee must be employed by a “radio or television station.” A radio or television station is one which is designated and licensed as such by the Federal Communications Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.17" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.17   “Major studio.”</HEAD>
<P>The exemption further depends on whether “the major studio” of the radio or television station which employes the employee is in a city or town as defined in section 13(b)(9). The location of secondary studios of the radio or television station is immaterial. It is the location of the “major” studio that determines the qualification of the employer for the exemption. A major studio for purposes of the exemption is the main studio of the radio or television station as designated on the station's license by the Federal Communications Commission. It is this major studio which must be located in the city or town as defined in section 13(b)(9) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.18" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.457.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.18   Location of “major studio.”</HEAD>
<P>Section (b)(9) specifies that the “major studio” must be located “(A) in a city or town of one hundred thousand population or less according to the latest available decennial census figures as compiled by the Bureau of the Census, except where such city or town is part of a standard metropolitan statistical area, as defined and designated by the Bureau of the Budget, which has a total population in excess of one hundred thousand or (B) in a city or town of twenty-five thousand population or less, which is part of such an area but is at least 40 airline miles from the principal city in such area.” These tests may be summarized as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>A city or town with more than 100,000 population.</I> The exemption does not apply to any employee of a radio or television station the major studio of which is located in any city or town with a population in excess of 100,000.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>A city or town with 100,000 population or less.</I> The exemption may apply if the major studio is located in a city or town of not more than 100,000 population: <I>Provided,</I> That the city or town is not within a standard metropolitan statistical area which has more than 100,000 population.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>A city or town with 25,000 population or less.</I> The exemption may apply even if the major studio is located in a city or town that is within a standard metropolitan statistical area which has more than 100,000 population: <I>Provided,</I> That such city or town has a population or not more than 25,000 and the city or town is at least 40 airline miles from the principal city in such area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sources of information.</I> The Bureau of the Budget issues periodically a booklet entitled “Standard Metropolitan Statistical Areas”, which lists and describes these areas in the United States and Puerto Rico. The booklet lists the standard metropolitan statistical areas by name and shows their population according to the latest available decennial census figures as compiled by the Bureau of the Census. The booklet also lists the major cities within each standard metropolitan statistical area and the population of these cities. From time to time, new areas are designated as “standard metropolitan statistical areas” and areas once designated as such are deleted from the area definitions. This booklet may be purchased, for 25 cents, from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Principal city.</I> The term “principal city”, as used in section 13(b)(9), means the “central city”, or cities, of the standard metropolitan statistical area, which are defined and designated as such by the Bureau of the Census. The name of the “central city” is incorporated in the name of the standard metropolitan statistical area. Where two or more cities are designated by the Bureau of the Census as the “central cities”, the names of such cities appear in the title of the standard metropolitan statistical area. For example, the “Duluth-Superior” standard metropolitan statistical area, has two “central” cities, namely Duluth and Superior; both appear in the title of the standard metropolitan statistical area, and both are regarded as “principal” cities for purposes of the section 13(b)(9) exemption. Where, as in the example, more than one city is designated as the “central” city airline mileage will be measured from that “central” city which is nearest to the city or town in which the major studio of the radio or television station is located.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Determining the population.</I> The population of a city or town, or of a standard metropolitan statistical area, will be determined by the latest available decennial census figures as compiled by the U.S. Bureau of the Census.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Measuring airline miles.</I> Airline miles for purposes of the section 13(b)(9) exemption are measured, with a straight edge on a map, from the zero milestone, or the city hall, of the “central” city, to the zero milestone, or city or town hall, of the city or town in which the major studio of the radio or television station is located.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="458" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.458" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Workweek Application of Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.19" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.458.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.19   Workweek is used in applying the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The unit of time to be used in determining the application of the exemption under section 13(b)(9) to an employee is the workweek. (See <I>Overnight Motor Transportation Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op Ass'n.,</I> 80 F. Supp. 953, affirmed, 181 F. 2d 697.) A workweek is a fixed and regularly recurring period of 7 consecutive 24-hour periods. It may begin at any hour of any day set by the employer and need not coincide with the calendar week. Once the workweek has been set it commences each succeeding week on the same day and at the same hour. The workweek may not be changed for the purpose of evading the requirements of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.458.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.20   Exclusive engagement in exempt work.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who engages exclusively in a workweek in work which is exempt under section 13(b)(9) is exempt from the Act's overtime requirements for the entire week.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.51.0.458.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.21   Exempt and nonexempt work.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee in the same workweek performs work which is exempt from the overtime requirements of the Act under section 13(b)(9), and also engages in work to which the overtime requirements apply, he is not exempt from overtime provisions of the Act in that week. (See <I>McComb</I> v. <I>Puerto Rico Tobacco Marketing Co-op Ass'n.,</I> 80 F. Supp. 953, affirmed, 181 F. 2d 697; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Hunt,</I> 263 F. 2d 913; <I>Abram</I> v. <I>San Joaquin Cotton Oil Co.,</I> 46 F. Supp. 969; <I>McComb</I> v. <I>del Valle,</I> 80 F. Supp. 945; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>Peacock Corp.,</I> 58 F. Supp. 880.) As explained in § 793.13, work which does not come within the occupational duties of an announcer, news editor, or chief engineer, or which is not related and incidental thereto, is not exempt work under section 13(b)(9). The mere isolated or occasional performance of insubstantial amounts of such nonexempt work will not defeat the exemption for the employee. Where, however, an employee, in a particular workweek, performs a substantial amount of nonexempt work to which the overtime provisions of the Act are applicable, the employee is not exempt under section 13(b)(9) in that workweek. For administrative purposes an employee who spends 20 percent or more of the hours he works in a workweek in such nonexempt work, will not be considered exempt under section 13(b)(9) in that workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="794" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 794—PARTIAL OVERTIME EXEMPTION FOR EMPLOYEES OF WHOLESALE OR BULK PETROLEUM DISTRIBUTORS UNDER SECTION 7(b)(3) OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended; 29 U.S.C. 201-219.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 16510, Oct. 22, 1970, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.1.467.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.1   General scope of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, hereinafter referred to as the Act, is a Federal statute of general application which establishes minimum wage, overtime pay, equal pay and child labor requirements that apply as provided in the Act. All employees whose employment has the relationship to interstate or foreign commerce which the Act specifies are subject to the prescribed labor standards unless specifically exempted from them. Employers having such employees are required to comply with the Act's provisions in this regard unless relieved therefrom by some exemption in the Act. Such employers are also required to comply with specified recordkeeping requirements contained in part 516 of this chapter. The law authorizes the Department of Labor to investigate for compliance and, in the event of violations, to supervise the payment of unpaid wages or unpaid overtime compensation owing to any employee. The law also provides for enforcement in the courts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.1.467.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.2   Purpose of this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part 794 constitutes the official interpretation of the Department of Labor with respect to the meaning and application of section 7(b)(3) of the Act. This section provides a limited partial exemption from the overtime provisions of section 7 of the Act (but not from the minimum wage, child labor, equal pay, or recordkeeping provisions) with respect to employees of an independently owned and controlled local enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products, if the enterprise meets certain specified conditions. This exemption was added to the Act by the 1966 Amendments, which repealed a complete overtime exemption previously available for employees of such enterprises (section 13(b)(10) of the Act as amended in 1961). It is the purpose of this part to make available in one place the interpretations of the law governing this exemption which will guide the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator in the performance of their duties under the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.1.467.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.3   Matters discussed in this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part primarily discusses the meaning and application of the section 7(b)(3) exemption. The meaning and application of other provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act are discussed only to make clear their relevance to the 7(b)(3) exemption and are not considered in detail in this part. Interpretations published elsewhere in this title deal with such subjects as the general coverage of the Act (part 776 of this chapter), methods of payment of wages (part 531, subpart C, of this chapter), computation and payment of overtime compensation (part 778 of this chapter), computation and payment of overtime compensation (part 778 of this chapter), retailing of goods or services (part 779 of this chapter), hours worked (part 785 of this chapter), and child labor provisions (part 570 of this chapter). Regulations on recordkeeping are contained in part 516 of this chapter, and regulations defining exempt bona fide executive, administrative, and professional employees are contained in part 541 of this chapter. The equal pay provisions are discussed in part 800 of this chapter. Regulations and interpretations on other subjects concerned with the application of the Act are listed in the table of contents to this chapter. Copies of any of these documents may be obtained from any office of the Wage and Hour Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.1.467.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.4   Significance of official interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The interpretations of the law contained in this part are official interpretations of the Department of Labor with respect to the application under described circumstances of the provisions of law which they discuss. These interpretations indicate the construction of the law which the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator believe to be correct and which will guide them in the performance of their duties under the Act unless and until they are otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or conclude, upon re-examination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect. The interpretations in this part provide statements of general principles applicable to the subjects discussed and illustrations of the application of these principles to situations that frequently arise. They do not and cannot refer specifically to every problem which may be met in the consideration of the exemption discussed. The omission to discuss a particular problem in this part or in interpretations supplementing it should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Secretary of Labor or the Administrator with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice or enforcement policy. Questions on matters not fully covered by this part may be addressed to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210 or to any Regional or Area Office of the Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.1.467.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.5   Basic support for interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate decisions on interpretations of the Act are made by the courts (<I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Zachry,</I> 362 U.S. 310; <I>Kirschbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517). Court decisions supporting interpretations contained in this part are cited where it is believed they may be helpful. On matters which have not been determined by the courts, it is necessary for the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator to reach conclusions as to the meaning and the application of provisions of the law in order to carry out their responsibilities of administration and enforcement (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). In order that these positions may be made known to persons who may be affected by them, official interpretations are issued by the Administrator on the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, as authorized by the Secretary (Reorg. Plan 6 of 1950, 64 Stat. 1263; Gen. Ord. 45A, May 24, 1950, 15 FR 3290). As included in the regulations in this part, these interpretations are believed to express the intent of the law as reflected in its provisions and as construed by the courts and evidenced by its legislative history. References to pertinent legislative history are made in this part where it appears that they will contribute to a better understanding of the interpretations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.1.467.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.6   Reliance on interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>As previously stated, the interpretations of the law contained in this part are official interpretations. So long as they remain effective and are not modified, amended, rescinded or determined by judicial authority to be incorrect, they may be relied upon as provided in section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act of 1947 (63 Stat. 910, 29 U.S.C. 251 <I>et seq.,</I> discussed in part 790 of this chapter). In addition, the Supreme Court has recognized that such interpretations of this Act “provide a practical guide to employers and employees as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it” and “constitute a body of experience and informed judgment to which courts and litigants may properly resort for guidance.” Further, as stated by the Court: “Good administration of the Act and good judicial administration alike require that the standards of public enforcement and those for determining private rights shall be at variance only where justified by very good reasons.” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift,</I> 323 U.S. 134). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.1.467.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.7   Interpretations made, continued, and superseded by this part.</HEAD>
<P>On and after publication of this part in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the interpretations contained therein shall be in effect and shall remain in effect until they are modified, rescinded, or withdrawn. Prior opinions, rulings, and interpretations and prior enforcement policies which are not inconsistent with the interpretations in this part or with the Fair Labor Standards Act as amended by the Fair Labor Standards Amendment of 1966 and which were in effect at the time of such publication are continued in effect; all other opinions, rulings, interpretations, and enforcement policies on the subjects discussed in the interpretations in this part are rescinded and withdrawn.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemption From Overtime Pay Requirements Under Section 7(b)(3) of the Act</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="467" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.467" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Scope and Application in General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.467.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.100   The statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 7(b)(3) of the Act provides a partial exemption from the overtime pay requirements of section 7 (but not from the minimum wage, equal pay or child labor requirements) for any employee employed
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>by an independently owned and controlled local enterprise (including an enterprise with more than one bulk storage establishment) engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products if:
</FP>
<P>(A) The annual gross volume of sales of such enterprise is less than $1 million exclusive of excise taxes;
</P>
<P>(B) More than 75 per centum of such enterprise's annual dollar volume of sales is made within the State in which such enterprise is located, and
</P>
<P>(C) Not more than 25 per centum of the annual dollar volume of sales of such enterprise is to customers who are engaged in the bulk distribution of such products for resale, and such employee receives compensation for employment in excess of 40 hours in any workweek at a rate not less than one and one-half times the minimum wage applicable to him under section 6, and if such employee receives compensation for employment in excess of 12 hours in any workday, or for employment in excess of 56 hours in any workweek, as the case may be, at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.467.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.101   Intended scope of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 7(b)(3) of the Act, the intent of the exemption must be given effect in determining the scope of its application to an enterprise and to the employees of an enterprise. The statutory language must be applied to the facts in a manner consistent with the purpose of the exemption as evidenced by its legislative history. This purpose is to relieve the described enterprises from the application of the Act's general overtime pay requirements (in the limited manner specified in the exemption) to employment in their activities of distributing petroleum products. Such employment was stated to be affected by climatic, seasonal, and other pertinent factors characteristic of business operations in the distribution of such products. (See, in this connection, the following documents of 87th Cong., first sess.; H. Rept. No. 75, pp. 26, 27, 36; 105 Congressional Record (daily edition) p. 4519; S. Rept. No. 145, pp. 37, 50; H. Rept. No. 327, p. 18; Hearings before Senate Subcommittee on Labor on S. 256, S. 879, and S. 895, at pp. 411-424; Hearings before House Special Subcommittee on Labor on H.R. 2935, at pp. 422-425 and 627-629; and these documents of the 89th Cong., second sess.; H. Rept. No. 1366, pp. 12, 13, and 43; Cong. Record (daily edition) p. 10745; S. Rept. No. 1487, pp. 32 and 51.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.467.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.102   Guides for construing exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>It is judicially settled that “The details with which the exemptions in this Act have been made preclude their enlargement by implication” and “no matter how broad the exemption, it is meant to apply only to” the employment specified in the statute. Conditions specified in the language of the Act are “explicit prerequisities to exemption.” Accordingly, it is the well-established rule that exemptions from the Act “are to be narrowly construed against the employer seeking to assert them” and their applications is limited to those who come “plainly and unmistakably within their terms and spirit.” An employer who claims such an exemption has the burden of showing that it applies. See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Lunsford,</I> 404 F. 2d 693 (C.A. 6); <I>Addison</I> v. <I>Holly Hill,</I> 322 U.S. 607; <I>Maneja</I> v. <I>Waialua,</I> 349 U.S. 254; <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 334 U.S. 490; <I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Kentucky Finance Co.,</I> 359 U.S. 290; <I>Walling</I> v. <I>General Industries Co.,</I> 330 U.S. 545.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.467.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.103   Dependence of exemption on engagement in described distribution.</HEAD>
<P>By its terms, section 7(b)(3) provides a partial and contingent exemption from the general overtime pay requirements of the Act applicable to “any employee * * * employed * * * by an * * * enterprise * * * engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum product * * *.” Thus, engagement in the described distribution is an “explicit prerequisite to exemption” (<I>Arnold</I> v. <I>Kanowsky,</I> 361 U.S. 388), as are the other express conditions set forth in the section. A natural reading of the statutory language suggests that the employee as well as the enterprise must be so engaged in order for the exemption to apply (see <I>Porto Rico Light Co.</I> v. <I>Mor,</I> 253 U.S. 345). To the extent that its employees are engaged in the described distribution, the enterprise is itself so engaged (see <I>Kirshbaum</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 316 U.S. 517; and see § 794.104). Also, whenever an enterprise is so engaged, any of its employees will be considered to be “employed by an * * * enterprise * * * engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products” if the duties of his employment require him to perform any operations or provide any services in carrying on such activities of his employer, and if the employee is not engaged in a substantial portion of his workweek in other activities which do not provide a basis for exemption under section 7(b)(3). Such an interpretation of the quoted language is believed necessary to give effect to the intended scope of the exemption as explained in § 794.101. Where an enterprise is exclusively engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products and meets all the other requirements of section 7(b)(3), all of its employees who are paid for their hours of work in accordance with section 6 of the Act and the special pay provisions of section 7(b)(3) (see § 778.602 of this chapter and §§ 794.135 through 794.136) will be exempt from the overtime pay requirements of the Act under the principles stated above. What products are included in the term “petroleum products” and what constitutes the “bulk distribution” of such products within the meaning of section 7(b)(3) are discussed in §§ 794.132 through 794.133.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.467.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.104   Enterprises engaged in described distribution and in other activities.</HEAD>
<P>An enterprise may be engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products, within the meaning of section 7(b)(3), without being exclusively so engaged. Such engagement may be only one of the several related activities, performed through unified operation or common control for a common business purpose, which constitute the enterprise (see § 794.106) under section 3(r) of the Act. If engaging in such distribution is a regular and significant part of its business, an enterprise which meets the other tests for exception under section 7(b)(3) will be relieved of overtime pay obligations with respect to employment of its employees in such distribution activities, in accordance with the intended scope (see § 794.101) of the exemption. The same will be true with respect to employment of its employees in those related activities which are customarily performed as an incident to or in conjunction with the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products in the enterprises of the industry engaged in such distribution. There is no requirement that engaging in such activities constitute any particular percentage of the enterprises's business. However, in the case of an enterprise engaged in other activities as well as in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products (including related activities customarily performed in the enterprises of the industry as an incident thereto or in conjunction therewith), an employee employed in such other activities of the enterprise is not engaged in employment which the exemption was intended to reach (see § 794.101). Such an employee is not brought within the exemption by virtue of the fact that the enterprise by which he is employed is engaged with other employees in the distribution activities described in section 7(b)(3). This accords with the judicial construction of other exemptions in the Act which are similarly worded. See <I>Connecticut Co.</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 154 F. 2d 522, Certiorari denied, 329 U.S. 667; <I>Northwest Airlines</I> v. <I>Jackson,</I> 185 F. 2d 74; <I>Davis</I> v. <I>Goodman Lumber Co.,</I> 133 F. 2d 52; <I>Fleming</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 41 F. Supp. 825, aff'd 131 F. 2d 249.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.467.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.105   Other requirements for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The limited overtime pay exemption provided by section 7(b)(3) applies to any employee compensated in accordance with its terms who is “employed * * * by an * * * enterprise * * * engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products” as explained in §§ 794.103 through 794.104 if the enterprise which employs him meets all of the following requirements: (a) It is a “local” enterprise; (b) it is “independently owned and controlled”; (c) it has an annual gross volume of sales of less than $1 million exclusive of excise taxes; (d) it makes more than 75 percent of its annual dollar volume of sales within the State in which it is located; and (e) not more than 25 percent of such annual dollar volume of sales is to customers who are engaged in the bulk distribution of petroleum products for resale. In order to determine whether all these requirements are met, it is necessary to know what constitutes the “enterprise” to which reference is made, the meaning of “the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products” in which engagement is required as a prerequisite to exemption, what is meant by a “local” enterprise and what characterizes it as “independently owned and controlled”, and the criteria for application of the dollar volume tests. These matters will be discussed in some detail in the sections following.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="468" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.468" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>The “Enterprise”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.468.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.106   Statutory definition of “enterprise.”</HEAD>
<P>The term “enterprise” is defined in section 3(r) of the Act. That definition (insofar as it affects a wholesale or bulk petroleum distributor) is as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>“Enterprise” means the related activities performed (either through unified operation or common control) by any person or persons for a common business purpose, and includes all such activities whether performed in one or more establishments or by one or more corporate or other organizational units including departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements, but shall not include the related activities performed for such enterprise by an independent contractor: <I>Provided,</I> That within the meaning of this subsection, a retail or service establishment which is under independent ownership shall not be deemed to be so operated or controlled as to be other than a separate and distinct enterprise by reason of any arrangement, which includes, but is not necessarily limited to, an agreement (1) that it will sell, or sell only, certain goods specified by a particular manufacturer, distributor, or advertiser, or (2) that it will join with other such establishments in the same industry for the purpose of collective purchasing, or (3) that it will have the exclusive right to sell the goods or use the brand name of a manufacturer, distributor, or advertiser within a specified area, or by reason of the fact that it occupies premises leased to it by a person who also leases premises to other retail or service establishments.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.107" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.468.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.107   “Establishment” distinguished.</HEAD>
<P>The “enterprise” referred to in the section 7(b)(3) exemption is to be distinguished from an “establishment”. As used in the Act, the term “establishment”, which is not specially defined therein, refers to a “distinct physical place of business” rather than to “an entire business or enterprise” which may include several separate places of business. (See <I>Phillips</I> v. <I>Walling,</I> 324 U.S. 490; <I>Mitchell</I> v. <I>Bekins Van &amp; Storage Co.,</I> 352 U.S. 1027; 95 Congressional Record 12505, 12579, 14877; H. Rept. No. 1453, 81st Cong., first session, p. 25.) It will be noted from the definition of “enterprise” in section 3(r), as set forth in § 794.106, that the activities of the enterprise may be “performed in one or more establishments,” and section 7(b)(3) specifies that the enterprises to which its exemption requirements are applicable will include “an enterprise with more than one bulk storage establishment.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.108" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.468.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.108   Scope of enterprise must be known before exemption tests can be applied.</HEAD>
<P>The scope of the “enterprise” as defined by section 3(r) of the Act must be ascertained before it is possible to apply the tests for exemption contained in section 7(b)(3) which are based on the dollar volume of sales of the “enterprise”. The activities included in the enterprise must be known, and any activities not a part of the enterprise must be excluded before the dollar volume of sales derived from the activities of the enterprise can be computed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.109" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.468.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.109   Statutory basis for inclusion of activities in enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>The “enterprise” for purposes of enterprise coverage under section 3(s) and the exemption provision in section 7(b)(3), is defined in section 3(r) (§ 794.106) in terms of the activities in which it is engaged. All the “related activities” which are “performed * * * by any person or persons for a common business purpose” are included if they are performed “either through unified operation or common control.” This is true even if they are performed by more than one person, or in more than one establishment or by more than one corporate or other organizational unit. The definition specifically includes as a part of the enterprise, departments of an establishment operated through leasing arrangements. These statutory criteria are discussed in more detail in subsequent sections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.468.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.110   Activities excluded from the enterprise by the statute.</HEAD>
<P>The circumstances under which certain activities will be excluded from the “enterprise” referred to in the Act are made clear by the definition quoted in § 794.106. The definition distinguishes between the related activities performed through unified operation and common control for a common business purpose by the participants in the enterprise, and activities which are related to these activities but are performed for the enterprise by a bona fide independent contractor (for example, an independent accounting or auditing firm). The latter activities are expressly excluded from the “enterprise” as defined. In addition, the definition contains a proviso detailing certain circumstances under which a retail or service establishment under independent ownership will not lose its status as a separate and distinct enterprise by reason of certain franchise and other arrangements which it may enter into with others. This proviso, the effect of which is more fully explained in parts 776 and 779 of this chapter, may be important to wholesale or bulk distributors of petroleum products in determining whether the effect of particular arrangements which they may make with retailers of their products will be to include activities of the latter with their own activities in the same enterprise for purposes of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.111" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.468.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.111   General characteristics of the statutory enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>As defined in the Act, the term “enterprise” is roughly descriptive of a business rather than of an establishment or of an employer although on occasion the three may coincide. The enterprise, however, is not necessarily coextensive with the entire business activities of an employer. The enterprise may consist of a single establishment which may be operated by one or more employers; or it may be composed of a number of establishments which may be operated by one or more employers. On the other hand, a single employer may operate more than one enterprise. The Act treats as separate enterprises different businesses which are unrelated to each other and lack any common business purpose, even if they are operated by the same employer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="469" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.469" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>“Independently Owned and Controlled Local Enterprise”</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.112" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.469.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.112   Only independent and local enterprises qualify for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The legislative history of the exemption (§ 794.101) shows that the proponents of an amendment to provide the relief which it grants from the overtime pay provisions of the Act were organizations of independent local merchants who did not as a rule engage extensively in interstate operations such as those typical of major oil companies, and who functioned primarily at the local level in distributing petroleum products at wholesale or in bulk. As a result the exemption provided by the Act, like that requested, was limited to enterprises which are “local” (§ 794.113) and are “independently owned and controlled” (§§ 794.114-794.118).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.113" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.469.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.113   The enterprise must be “local.”</HEAD>
<P>It is clear from the language of section 7(b)(3) that the exemption which it provides is available to an enterprise only if it is a “local enterprise”. The other tests of exemption must also, of course be met. A “local” enterprise is not defined in the Act, and the word “local”, which appears in a different context elsewhere in the Act (see clause (2) of the last sentence of section 3(r) and sections 13(b)(7), 13(b)(11)), is likewise given no express definition. There is no fixed legal meaning of the term “local”; it is usually a flexible and comparative term whose meaning may vary in different contexts. As used here, certain guides are available from the context in which it is used, the legislative history surrounding adoption of section 7(b)(3), and the law of which it forms a part. A “local” enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products is clearly intended to embrace the kind of enterprise operated by the merchants who requested the amendment; that is, one which provides farmers, homeowners, country merchants, and others in its locality with petroleum products in bulk quantities or at wholesale. The language of section 7(b)(3) makes it clear also that the enterprise will not be regarded as other than “local” merely because it has more than one bulk storage establishment. On the other hand, the section makes it equally clear that ordinarily an enterprise which is not located within a single State is not a local enterprise of the kind to which the exemption will apply. This follows from the express requirement that more than 75 percent of the enterprise's annual dollar volume of sales must be made “within the State in which such enterprise is located.” The legislative history provides further evidence of this intent. At the hearings before the Senate Labor Subcommittee a proponent of the amendment which eventually was enacted in somewhat different language (sec. 13(b)(10) of the Act which was repealed by the 1966 Amendments to the Act and replaced by section 7(b)(3)), stated with respect to the significance of the word “local”:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * the language which we have suggested in the proposed amendment “locally owned and controlled establishments”, I admit that can point up some trouble and make some work for lawyers.
</P>
<P>We, however, in our endeavor to show our sincerity of only trying to cover local intrastate establishments, went overboard on this language.
</P>
<P>You will note that 75 percent of our business has to be performed in one State. I think that “locally owned and controlled establishments” language should better read “independently owned and controlled local enterprises or establishment.” (Sen. Hearings on amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act, 87th Cong., first session, p. 416.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The same witness also quoted from the Congressional Record of August 18, 1960, the discussion in the course of the consideration of the amendments to the Act by the Senate during the 86th Congress, second session, as follows:
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>These wholesale and bulk distributors of petroleum products, commonly referred to as oil jobbers, are primarily local businessmen who acquire these products from their suppliers' bulk terminal in the State in which the jobber does business and sell these products to service stations, farmers, and homeowners in the State in which they maintain their place of business * * * I am advised that 98.3 percent of all the oil jobbers in the United States sell their products only in the State in which their place of business is located thus qualifying by any definition as local merchants. (Sen. Hearings on amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act 87th Cong., first session, pp. 415-416.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>It thus appears that the word “local” was intended to confine the exemption to enterprises of such local merchants. The enterprise need not, of course, conduct all of its business within the State in which it is physically located, since the exemption specifically provides that it may make a portion of its sales outside the State in which it is located. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.114" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.469.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.114   The enterprise must be “independently owned and controlled.”</HEAD>
<P>Another requirement for exemption under section 7(b)(3) is that the enterprise must be “independently owned and controlled”. Since this requirement is in the conjunctive, it must be established that the enterprise which is engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products is both independently owned and independently controlled. (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Lunsford,</I> 404 F. 2d 693 (C.A. 6).) At the hearing before the Senate Labor Subcommittee, when the amendment was proposed which eventually was incorporated in the Act as section 13(b)(10) by the 1961 amendments (later repealed by the 1966 amendments to the Act and replaced by section 7(b)(3)), a spokesman for proponents of the amendment made the following statement, which bears on this requirement for exemption:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The designation “independent” as applied to an oil jobber means that he owns his own office, bulk storage, and delivery facilities; pays his own personnel, and in all respects conducts his business as any other independent businessman.
</P>
<P>It also means that the jobber is not a subsidiary of nor controlled by any so-called major oil company, although the jobber may sell the branded products of such a company.
</P>
<P>Some jobbers own service stations which they lease to independent dealers and a small percentage of jobbers may operate one or more service stations with their own salaried personnel. (Senate Hearings on the Amendments to the Fair Labor Standards Act, 87th Cong., first session, p. 411.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>It appears, therefore, that the purpose of the requirement limiting the exemption to the enterprises which are “independently owned and controlled,” is to confine the exemption to those petroleum jobbers who own their own facilities and equipment and who are not subsidiaries nor controlled by any producer, refinery, terminal supplier or so-called major oil company. (See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Lunsford,</I> cited above.) The fact that the petroleum jobber sells a branded product of a major oil company will not, of itself, affect the status of his enterprise as one which is “independently owned and controlled”. So also the fact that the jobber owns gasoline service stations, which he leases or which he operates himself, will not affect the status of his enterprise as being “independently owned and controlled”.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.469.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.115   “Independently owned.”</HEAD>
<P>Ownership of the enterprise may be vested in an individual petroleum jobber, or a partnership, or a corporation, so long as such ownership is not shared by a major oil company, or other producer, refiner, distributor or supplier of petroleum products, so as to affect the independent ownership of the enterprise. As noted in § 794.114, an enterprise will not be considered independently owned where it does not own its own office, bulk storage, and delivery facilities. The enterprise may also not be considered “independently owned” where it does not own its stock-in-trade. (See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Lunsford,</I> 404 F.2d 693 (C.A. 6).) It is recognized that, in the ordinary course of business dealings, an independently owned enterprise may purchase its goods on credit and this, of course, will not affect its characterization as being “independently owned” within the meaning of the exemption. However, there may well be a question as to whether the enterprise is “independently owned” where the enterprise receives its petroleum products on consignment and the supplier lays claim to the ownership of the account receivable. Of possible relevance also is the intent evident in the statutory language to provide exemption only for an enterprise which can meet the specified tests which depend on “the sales of such enterprise.” The determination in such cases, as in other cases involving questions of independent ownership, will necessarily depend on all the facts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.116" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.469.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.116   “Independently * * * controlled.”</HEAD>
<P>As explained in § 794.114, the enterprise in addition to being independently owned must also be “independently controlled.” The test here is whether the individual, partnership, or corporation which owns the enterprise also controls the enterprise as an independent businessman, free of control by any so-called major oil company or other person engaged in the petroleum business. Control by others may be evidenced by ownership; but control may exist in the absence of any ownership. For example where an enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products enters into franchise or other arrangements which have the effect of restricting the products it distributes, the prices it may charge, or otherwise controlling the activities of the enterprise in those respects which are the common attributes of an independent businessman, these facts may establish that the enterprise is not “independently controlled” as required by the exemption under section 7(b)(3). (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Lunsford,</I> 404 F. 2d 693 (C.A. 6).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.117" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.469.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.117   Effect of franchises and other arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>Whether a franchise or other contractual arrangement affects the status of the enterprise as “an independently owned and controlled * * * enterprise,” depends upon all the facts including the terms of the agreements and arrangements between the parties as well as the other relationships that have been established. The term “franchise” is not susceptible of precise definition. While it is clear that in every franchise a business surrenders some rights, it is equally clear that every franchise does not necessarily deprive an enterprise of its character as an independently owned and operated business. This matter was the subject of legislative consideration in connection with other provisions of the 1961 amendments to the Act. The Senate Report on the amendments, in discussing the effects of franchises and similar arrangements on the scope of the “enterprise” under section 3(r) of the Act, stated as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>There may be a number of different types of arrangements established in such cases. The key in each case may be found in the answer to the question, “Who receives the profits, suffers the losses, sets the wages and working conditions of employees, or otherwise manages the business in those respects which are the common attributes of an independent businessman operating a business for profit?”
</P><STARS/>
<P>In all of these cases if it is found on the basis of all the facts and circumstances that the arrangements are so restrictive as to products, prices, profits, or management as to deny the “franchised” establishment the essential prerogative of the ordinary independent businessman, the establishment, the dealer, or concessionaire will be considered an integral part of the related activities of the enterprise which grants the franchise, rights or concession. (S. Rep. 145, 87th Cong., first session, p. 42.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Thus there may be a number of different types of arrangements established in such cases and the determination as to whether the arrangements have the effect of depriving the enterprise of its independent ownership or control will necessarily depend on all the facts. The fact that the distributor hires and controls the employees engaged in distribution of the product does not establish the requisite independence of the distributor; it is only one factor to be considered (<I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Lunsford,</I> 404 F. 2d 693 (C.A. 6).) Ultimately the determination of the precise scope of such arrangements and their effect upon the independent ownership and control of the enterprise under section 7(b)(3), as well as on the question whether such arrangements result in creating a larger enterprise, rests with the courts.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.118" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.469.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.118   Effect of unrelated activities.</HEAD>
<P>The term “independently owned and controlled” has reference to independence of ownership and control by others. Accordingly, the fact that the petroleum jobber may himself engage in other businesses which are not related to the enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products, will not affect the question whether the petroleum enterprise is independently owned or controlled. For example, the fact that the wholesale or bulk petroleum distributor also owns or controls a wholly sep- arate tourist lodge enterprise or job printing business will not affect the status of his enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products as an “independently controlled” enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="470" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Annual Gross Volume of Sales</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.119" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.119   Dependence of exemption on sales volume of the enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>It is a requirement of the section 7(b)(3) exemption that the annual gross volume of sales of the enterprise must be less than $1 million exclusive of excise taxes. This dollar volume test is separate and distinct from the $250,000 annual gross volume (of sales made or business done) test in section 3(s)(1) of the Act. This latter test is for the purpose of determining coverage as an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce; whereas the $1 million test is for limiting the 7(b)(3) exemption to enterprises with annual sales of less than that amount.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.120" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.120   Meaning of “annual gross volume of sales.”</HEAD>
<P>The annual gross volume of sales of an enterprise consists of its gross receipts from all types of sales during a 12-month period (§ 794.122). The gross volume derived from all sales transactions is included, and will embrace among other things receipts from service, credit, or similar charges. However, credits for goods returned or exchanged (as distinguished from “trade-ins”), rebates, discounts, and the like are not ordinarily included in the annual gross volume of sales. In determining whether the million dollar limit on annual gross sales volume is or is not exceeded, the sales volume from all the related activities which constitute the enterprise must be included; the dollar volume of the entire business in all establishments is added together. Thus, the gross volume of sales will include the receipts from sales made by any gasoline service stations of the enterprise, as well as the sales made by any other establishments of the enterprise. These principles and their application are considered in more detail in parts 776 and 779 of this chapter, which contain general discussions of “annual gross volume” as used in other provisions of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.121" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.121   Exclusion of excise taxes.</HEAD>
<P>The computation of the annual gross volume of sales of the enterprise for purposes of section 7(b)(3) is made “exclusive of excise taxes.” It will be noted that the excise taxes excludable under section 7(b)(3) are not, like those referred to in section 3(s)(1) and section 13(a)(2), limited to those “at the retail level which are separately stated.” Under section 7(b)(3), therefore, all excise taxes which are included in the sales price may be excluded in computing the annual gross volume of the enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.122" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.122   Ascertainment of “annual” gross sales volume.</HEAD>
<P>The annual gross volume of sales of an enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products consists of its gross dollar volume of sales during a 12-month period. Where a computation of annual gross volume of sales is necessary to determine the status of the enterprise under section 7(b)(3) of the Act, it must be based on the most recent prior experience which it is practicable to use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.123" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.123   Method of computing annual volume of sales.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the enterprise, during the portion of its current income tax year up to the end of the current payroll period, has already had a gross volume of sales in excess of the amount specified in the statute, it is plain that its annual gross volume of sales currently is in excess of the statutory amount.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the enterprise has not yet in such current year exceeded the statutory amount in its gross volume of sales, but has had, in the most recently ended year used by it for income tax purposes, a gross volume of sales in excess of the amount specified in the Act, the enterprise will be deemed to have an annual gross volume of sales in excess of such statutory amount, unless use of the method set forth in paragraph (c) of this section establishes a gross annual volume less than the statutory amount.
</P>
<P>(c) When it is necessary to make a computation of the annual gross volume of sales of the enterprise the following method shall be used: At the beginning of each calendar quarter (Jan. 1-Mar. 31; Apr. 1-June 30; July 1-Sept. 30; Oct. 1-Dec. 31), the gross receipts from all of its sales during the annual period (12 calendar months) which immediately precedes the current calendar quarter, is totaled. In this manner the employer, by calculating the sales of his enterprise, will know whether or not the dollar volume tests have been met for the purpose of complying with the law in the workweeks ending in the current calendar quarter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.124" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.124   Computations on a fiscal year basis.</HEAD>
<P>Some enterprises operate on a fiscal year, consisting of an annual period different from the calendar year, for income tax or sales or other accounting purposes. Such enterprises in applying the method of computation in § 794.123(c) may use the four quarters of the fiscal period instead of the four quarters of the calendar year. Once adopted, the same basis must be used in subsequent calculations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.125" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.125   Grace period of 1 month for compliance.</HEAD>
<P>Where it is not practicable to compute the annual gross volume of sales under § 794.123 or § 794.124 in time to determine obligations under the Act for the current quarter, an enterprise may use a 1-month grace period. If this 1-month grace period is used, the computations made under those sections will determine its obligations under the Act for the 3-month period commencing 1 month after the end of the preceding calendar or fiscal quarter. Once adopted the same basis must be used for each successive 3-month period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.126" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.470.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.126   Computations for a new business.</HEAD>
<P>When a new business is commenced the employer will necessarily be unable for a time to determine its annual dollar volume on the basis of a full 12-month period as described in §§ 794.123 and 794.124. In many cases, it is readily apparent that the enterprise will or will not have the requisite annual dollar volume specified in the Act. For example, the new business may be so large that it is clear from the outset that the business will exceed the $1 million test of the exemption. In other cases, where doubt exists, the gross receipts of the new business during the first quarter year in which it has been in operation will be taken as representative of its annual dollar volume tests for purposes of determining its status under section 7(b)(3) of the Act in workweeks falling in the following quarter-year period. Similarly, for purposes of determining its status under the Act in workweeks falling within ensuing quarter-year periods, the gross receipts of the new business for the completed quarter-year periods will be taken as representative of its annual dollar volume in applying the annual volume tests of the Act. After the new business has been in operation for a full calendar or fiscal year, the analysis can be made by the methods described in §§ 794.123 and 794.124.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="471" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.471" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Sales Made Within the State</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.127" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.471.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.127   Exemption conditioned on making 75 percent of sales within the State.</HEAD>
<P>A further requirement of the section 7(b)(3) exemption is that more than 75 percent of the sales of the enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products (measured by annual dollar volume) must be made “within the State in which such enterprise is located.” This means that over 75 percent of the annual dollar volume of sales must be from sales to customers within the same State in which the enterprise is located. If 25 percent or more of its sales volume is from sales to customers outside the State of its location, the requirement is not met and the enterprise cannot qualify for exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.128" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.471.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.128   Sales made to out-of-State customers.</HEAD>
<P>Whether the sale of goods or services is made to an out-of-State customer is a question of fact. In order for a customer to be considered an out-of-State customer, some specific relationship between him and the seller has to exist to indicate his out-of-State character. On the one hand, sales made to the casual cash-and-carry customer (such as at a gasoline station owned or operated by the enterprise), who, for all practical purposes, is indistinguishable from the mass of customers who visit the establishment, are sales made within the State even though the seller knows or has reason to believe, because of his proximity to the State line or because he is frequented by tourists, that some of the customers who visit his establishment reside outside the State. If the customer is of that type, sales made to him are sales made within the State even if the seller knows in the particular instance that the customer resides outside the State. On the other hand, a sale is made to an out-of-State customer and therefore, is not a sale made “within the State” in which the enterprise is located, if delivery of the goods is made outside that State, or if the relationship with the customer is such as to indicate his out-of-State character. Such a relationship would exist, for example, where an out-of-State company in the regular course of dealing picks up the petroleum products at the bulk storage station of the enterprise and transports them out of the State in its own trucks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.129" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.471.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.129   Sales “made within the State” not limited to noncovered activity.</HEAD>
<P>Sales to customers located in the same State as the establishment are sales made “within the State” even though such sales may constitute activity within the interstate commerce coverage of the Act, as where the sale (a) is made pursuant to prior orders from customers for goods to be obtained from outside the State; (b) contemplates the purchase of goods from outside the State to fill a customer's orders; or (c) is made to a customer for his use in interstate or foreign commerce or in the production of goods for such commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="472" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.472" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Sales Made to Other Bulk Distributors</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.130" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.472.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.130   Not more than 25 percent of sales may be to customers engaged in bulk distribution of petroleum products for resale.</HEAD>
<P>As a further requirement for exemption, section 7(b)(3) limits to not more than 25 percent (measured by annual dollar volume) the sales which an enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products may make to customers who are engaged in the bulk distribution of such products for resale. It should be noted that this limitation does not depend on whether the goods sold by the enterprise to such customers are sold by it for resale, or on whether the goods sold to such customers are petroleum products. It is whether the customer is engaged in selling petroleum products for resale that is controlling. A sale of any goods must be included in this 25 percent limitation so long as it is made to a customer who, as described in section 7(b)(3), can be characterized as one “engaged in the bulk distribution of such products for resale”. It should be also noted that this provision does not in any way limit the sales which the enterprise may make to customers who are not engaged in the bulk distribution of petroleum products for resale. Thus, there is no limitation on the sales the enterprise may make to gasoline service stations which sell such products for resale but do no engage in the “bulk distribution” of the products so sold, or to any other customers except those specified in the exemption in section 7(b)(3). Who is a “customer engaged in the bulk distribution of such products for resale” is discussed in §§ 794.131-794.133.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.131" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.472.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.131   “Customer * * * engaged in bulk distribution”.</HEAD>
<P>A sale to a customer of an enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products will be considered to come within the 25 percent limitation for purposes of the exemption under section 7(b)(3) if it is made to a “customer who is engaged in the bulk distribution of such products for resale”. The identity of such customers is generally well known in the trade. For example, this would generally include other petroleum jobbers, brokers, wholesalers, and any others who engaged in the bulk distribution of petroleum products for resale. Thus a sale to a petroleum jobber who is engaged in selling petroleum products to gasoline stations would clearly be a sale to a customer described in section 7(b)(3). The essential tests are: first, that the customer must be one who is engaged in the distribution of “such products”, which means petroleum products; second, that he must engage in “the bulk distribution” of such products; and finally, that he must be engaged in such distribution “for resale”. These three requirements are discussed in §§ 794.132 through 794.134. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.132" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.472.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.132   “Petroleum products”.</HEAD>
<P>A sale by an enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products will be included in the 25 percent limitation under the exemption only if it is made to a customer who engages in the distribution, in bulk and for resale, of “petroleum products”. The term “petroleum products” as used in section 7(b)(3) includes such products as gasoline, kerosene, diesel fuel, lubricating oils, fuel oils, greases, and liquified-petroleum gas. Sales to customers who are not engaged in the distribution of petroleum products will not be included in the 25 percent limitation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.133" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.472.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.133   “Bulk” distribution.</HEAD>
<P>“Bulk” distribution of petroleum products typically connotes those methods of distribution in which large quantities of the product are distributed in a single delivery or delivery trip. Thus, “bulk” distribution includes deliveries from bulk storage facilities at the establishment to the tank truck of a customer (whether or not at “wholesale”). It also includes deliveries made in series on a single trip on a delivery route to the storage tanks or facilities of a number of customers from a bulk supply of the product transported by tank truck, motor transport, or other motor carrier operated by the enterprise. Such deliveries are to be contrasted with such typical small-quantity individual deliveries as those made into the tank of a motor vehicle for use in its propulsion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.134" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.472.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.134   Distribution “for resale.”</HEAD>
<P>A sale made to a customer engaged in the bulk distribution of petroleum products will be included in the 25 percent limitation only if the customer engages in the bulk distribution of petroleum products “for resale”. Except with respect to a specific exclusion in section 3(n) regarding certain building materials, the word “resale” is not defined in the Act. The common meaning of “resale” is the act of “selling again”. A sale is made for resale when the seller knows or has reasonable cause to believe that what is sold by him will be resold by the purchaser in the same or a different form. Where the sale is thus made for resale, it does not matter what ultimately happens to the subject of the sale. Thus, the fact that goods sold for resale are consumed by fire or no market is found for them and they are therefore never resold does not alter the character of the sale which is made for resale. In considering whether there is a sale of petroleum products for resale in any specific situation, the term “sale” includes, as defined in section 3(k) of the Act, “any sale, exchange, contract to sell, consignment for sale, shipment for sale, or other disposition.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="473" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Application of Exemption to Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.135" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.135   Employees who are exempt.</HEAD>
<P>If an enterprise engaged in distribution of petroleum products satisfies all the conditions specified in section 7(b)(3) as previously discussed, the partial exemption provided by this section from the Act's general overtime pay requirements will be applicable to all employees employed by their employer in activities of the enterprise for which the exemption was intended if, but only if, such employees are compensated in accordance with the compensation requirements of section 7(b)(3) (see § 794.100).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.136" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.136   Employees whose activities may qualify them for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The activities for which the section 7(b)(3) partial exemption was intended are discussed generally in §§ 794.103 through 794.104. In accordance with the principles there set forth, those employees employed in an enterprise which qualifies for application of the exemption, who are engaged in the storage and delivery of petroleum products for the enterprise, and those employees whose work is required for the performance of the activities in the wholesale or bulk distribution of the petroleum products or the related activities customarily performed as an incident to or in conjunction with such distribution in the enterprises of the industry which distributes such products, are employees for whom the employer may take the exemption provided they are paid in accordance with the special compensation provisions of section 7(b)(3). Thus, so long as these payment requirements are met, the exemption is applicable not only to such employees as drivers, helpers, loaders, dispatchers, and warehousemen engaged in the bulk delivery and storage of petroleum products, but also to such employees as office, management, and sales personnel, maintenance, custodial, protective personnel, and any others, who engage in related functions customarily carried on by such enterprises in the industry in conjunction with the wholesale and bulk distribution of the petroleum products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.137" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.137   Effect of activities other than “wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products.”</HEAD>
<P>As previously noted, in some cases the related activities performed through unified operation or common control for a common business purpose which are included in the enterprise under the definition in section 3(r) of the Act may include activities other than the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products. Examples are tire recapping or gasoline station services, the sale and servicing of oil burners, or the distribution of coal, ice, feed, building supplies, paint, etc. In some instances, as in the case of oil-burner servicing, these other activities are customarily performed as an incident to or in conjunction with the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products in the enterprises of the industry engaged in such distribution. As indicated in § 794.104, employees of the enterprise who engage in such activities are within the general scope of the exemption. However, activities which are not customary practices of enterprises in the industry of wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products are not within the scope of the intent of the section 7(b)(3) exemption. For example, construction activities, operation of a sporting goods store, scrap paper and metal activities, the operation of a general repair garage, etc., are not the type of activities for which the section 7(b)(3) exemption was intended. Thus, where an enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products operates a general repair garage, a mechanic servicing the automobiles and trucks brought to the garage by customers will not for that reason be within the exemption provided by section 7(b)(3), although the exemption provided by section 13(a)(2) may apply to him if the garage qualifies as an exempt retail or service establishment under the tests provided in that section of the Act. On the other hand, mechanics employed by an enterprise engaged in the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products for the purpose of keeping the distribution equipment of the enterprise in good repair would come within the 7(b)(3) exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.138" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.138   Workweek unit in applying the exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As is true generally with respect to provisions of the Act concerning compensation for overtime hours of work (see §§ 778.100 through 778.105 of this chapter, <I>Overnight Transportation Co.</I> v. <I>Missel,</I> 316 U.S. 572), the unit of time to be used in determining the application of all provisions of the section 7(b)(3) exemption to an employee is the workweek. As defined in § 778.105 of this chapter, an employee's workweek is a fixed and regularly recurring period of 168 hours—seven consecutive 24-hour periods. It may begin at any hour of any day set by the employer and need not coincide with the calendar week. Once the workweek has been set it commences each succeeding week on the same day and at the same hour. Changing the workweek for the purpose of escaping the requirements of the Act is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) By its terms (§ 794.100), section 7(b)(3) exempts an employer from any statutory responsibility he might otherwise have for a violation of section 7(a) of the Act “by employing any employee for a workweek in excess of that specified in such subsection” without paying the overtime compensation prescribed therein, “if such employee is so employed * * * by an * * * enterprise” qualifying under section 7(b)(3) for application of its provisions to such employment and if such employee receives the compensation which section 7(b)(3) requires. Accordingly, for section 7(b)(3) to apply to any workweek when an employee is employed for hours in excess of those specified in section 7(a), it must be established that in such workweek he is employed by his employer in the exempt activities of an enterprise described in section 7(b)(3) and that the compensation received by him for his work in such workweek satisfies the special pay requirements of section 7(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.139" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.139   Exempt and nonexempt activities in the workweek.</HEAD>
<P>The general nature of the activities of a wholesale or bulk petroleum distribution enterprise in which an employee must be engaged in order to come within the intent of the section 7(b)(3) exemption is discussed in §§ 794.136 through 794.137. In each case where an employee of the enterprise is engaged for a substantial portion of his workweek in activities which do not appear to be a part of the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products, it will be necessary to examine such activities and the manner and extent of their performance to determine whether they are included in or are foreign to the activities customarily performed as an incident to or in conjunction with such distribution in the enterprises of the industry which distributes such products. If they are foreign to the activities thus customarily performed, engagement in them by the employee for a substantial portion of his workweek will render section 7(b)(3) inapplicable to him for that workweek. On the other hand, where an employee, who is otherwise engaged in the exempt activities (the wholesale or bulk distribution of petroleum products, including activities which are a necessary part thereof, and in activities customarily performed in the enterprises of the industry as an incident thereto or in conjunction therewith), devotes an insubstantial amount of time (for administrative purposes, not more than 20 percent in a workweek) to these foreign activities, the section 7(b)(3) exemption will not for that reason be considered inapplicable to him.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.140" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.140   Compensation requirements for a workweek under section 7(b)(3).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Exemption of an employee in any workweek under section 7(b)(3) is expressly conditioned on and limited by the special compensation provisions which it contains. These are set forth in full text in § 794.100. They require payment to the employee of compensation at specified rates for certain periods within the workweek when such periods are included in his hours of work. Their application requires an increase of at least 50 percent in the minimum wage rate otherwise applicable to the employee in such workweek “for employment in excess of forty hours” and, in addition, if such employment is “in excess of twelve hours in any workday, or * * * in excess of fifty-six hours in any workweek, as the case may be,” the employee must be paid overtime compensation “at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed” for all hours worked in the workweek in excess of the specified daily standard or in excess of the specified weekly standard, whichever is the greater number of overtime hours. The sections following discuss separately the application of these provisions to workweeks when the employee's hours of work do not exceed the daily or weekly standard specified in section 7(b)(3), and to workweeks when hours in excess of the daily or the weekly standard are worked.
</P>
<P>(b) The special compensation requirements of section 7(b)(3) apply to an employee otherwise eligible for the exemption whenever he works more than 40 hours in a workweek for an enterprise described in and operating under this subsection. In any workweek in which the employee does not work more than 40 hours for his employer only the minimum wage requirements of section 6 are applicable. This is because section 7(b)(3) operates only as an exemption from the requirement of section 7(a) that compensation at a rate not less than one and one-half times the employee's regular rate must be paid for all hours worked by him in excess of 40 in the workweek. (This general 40-hour workweek standard has been applicable since Feb. 1, 1969, to all employment within the general coverage of the Act, regardless of whether any overtime pay requirements were previously applicable to such employment before the provisions added by the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966 became effective.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.141" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.141   Workweeks when hours worked do not exceed 12 in any day or 56 in the week; compensation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The overtime pay exemption provided by section 7(b)(3) is “limited to 12 hours a day and 56 hours a week” in any workweek; the exemption is provided “for employment up to 12 hours in any workday and up to 56 hours in any workweek” without any payment for overtime hours at one and one-half times the regular rate being required. However, the exemption from any such time-and-one-half payment is limited to workweeks when “no more” than the specified hours are worked and is contingent on payment to the employee in such a workweek of “compensation for hours between 40 and 56” at a rate “not less than one and one-half times the applicable minimum wage.” (H. Rept. No. 1366, pp. 12-13, 43, and S. Rept. No. 1487, p. 32, 89th Cong., second sess.) Thus, the exemption will be applicable to an employee otherwise eligible under the principles previously discussed in this part in any workweek when his hours of work do not exceed 12 in any day or 56 in the week if, and only if, his “compensation for employment in excess of forty hours” is “at a rate not less than one and one-half times the minimum wage rate applicable to him under section 6”, as provided in section 7(b)(3). This means that in addition to the requirement of section 6, under which the first 40 hours of work must be paid for at a rate not less than the minimum hourly wage rate therein specified, the compensation requirements applicable to such an employee for whom the 7(b)(3) exemption is claimed include any increase in his regular straight-time pay rate for the hours worked in excess of 40 which may be necessary in order to raise the wage rate for such hours to a level of 50 percent above the rate required under section 6. Of course, if the employee is employed at a regular straight-time rate for all his hours of work which is as great or greater than one and one-half times the minimum wage applicable to him under section 6, no increase for the hours in excess of 40 will be required under the provisions of section 7(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) The general minimum wage rate applicable to employees in employment that was subject to the minimum wage provisions of the Act prior to the effective date of the Fair Labor Standards Amendments of 1966 is $1.60 an hour. Under section 7(b)(3) an employee of a wholesale or bulk petroleum products distributor to whom this rate is applicable must be paid at least $2.40 an hour for hours worked in excess of 40 in the workweek in order for the exemption to apply. Many employees of such distributors are subject to the $1.60 minimum wage rate under section 6 either because they are traditionally covered as employees individually engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce as defined in the Act or because the enterprise coverage provisions in effect prior to the 1966 amendments (applicable to enterprises with an annual gross volume of $1 million or more including excise taxes) would subject their employment to the minimum wage provisions if the 1966 amendments had not been enacted. In the case, however, of an employee of such a distributor whose employment comes within the minimum wage provisions only because of the 1966 amendments (which reduced the annual gross volume for covered enterprises to $500,000 on Feb. 1, 1967, and to $250,000 on Feb. 1, 1969, exclusive of specified separately stated excise taxes at the retail level), the minimum wage rate applicable under section 6 was $1.30 an hour until February 1, 1970, when it increased to $1.45 an hour. Beginning February 1, 1971, the minimum wage rate applicable to such an employee will be the same ($1.60 an hour) as that presently applicable to employment covered by the provisions of the prior Act. For employees subject to the $1.30 minimum wage rate the rate required for work over 40 hours under section 7(b)(3) was accordingly $1.95 an hour; for those subject to the $1.45 rate beginning February 1, 1970, such rate is $2.175. A discussion of the present and prior coverage of the Act will be found in part 776 of this chapter, when a revision of such part discussing enterprise coverage is published. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.142" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.142   Special compensation when overtime in excess of 12 daily or 56 weekly hours is worked in the workweek.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As noted in § 794.141, the partial exemption provided by section 7(b)(3) from the requirement that overtime hours be paid for at not less than one and one-half times the employee's regular rate applies only to “employment up to 12 hours in any workday and up to 56 hours in any workweek.” The statute makes it plain that in any workweek when an employee otherwise eligible for the exemption works more than the specified daily or weekly hours the exemption applies only “if such employee receives compensation for employment in excess of 12 hours in any workday, or for employment in excess of 56 hours in any workweek, as the case may be, at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed.” Failure of the employer to pay overtime compensation under these special standards defeat the exemption. (See <I>Wirtz</I> v. <I>Osceola Farms Co.,</I> 372 F. 2d 584 (C.A. 5); <I>Holtville Alfalfa Mills</I> v. <I>Wyatt,</I> 230 F. 2d 298 (C.A. 9).)
</P>
<P>(b) Under this provision, the number of hours worked in the workweek which are in excess of 12 in any workday or workdays therein, or the number in excess of 56 in the week, whichever is the greater number, must be compensated as provided in section 7(b)(3). Thus, the requisite time-and-one-half compensation must be paid for all daily overtime hours in excess of 12 per day worked by an employee in a workweek when his hours worked do not exceed 56 in the week; and for all weekly overtime hours in excess of 56 which he works in a workweek when he does not work more than 12 hours in any day. When an employee works in excess of both the daily and weekly maximum hours standards in any workweek for which the exemption is claimed, he must be paid at such overtime rate for all hours worked in the workweek in excess of the applicable daily maximum or in excess of the applicable weekly maximum, whichever number of hours is greater. Thus, if his total hours of work in the workweek which are in excess of the daily maximum are 10 and his hours in excess of the weekly maximum are 8, overtime compensation is required for 10 hours, not 18. As an example, suppose an employee employed at an hourly rate of $2.40 is employed under the other conditions specified for exemption under section 7(b)(3) and works the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">M
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">W
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tot.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Worked</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Number of overtime hours in excess of 56 in the workweek, 12; number of hours in excess of 12 per day, five.</P></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Since the weekly overtime hours are greater, the employee is entitled to overtime pay for 12 hours at $3.60 an hour (1
<FR>1/2</FR> × $2.40), a total of $43.60 for the overtime hours, in addition to pay at his regular rate for the remaining 56 hours (56 × $2.40) in the amount of $134.40, or a total of $177.60 for the week. If the employee had not worked the 8 hours on Saturday, his total hours worked in the week would have been 60, of which five were daily overtime hours, and there would have been 4 weekly overtime hours under the section 7(b) standard. For such a schedule the employee would be entitled to 5 hours of overtime pay at time and one-half (5 × 1
<FR>1/2</FR> × $2.40 = $18) plus the pay at his regular rate for the remaining 55 hours (55 × $2.40 = $132) making a total of $150 due him for the week.
</FP>
<P>(c) The overtime compensation payable to an employee under section 7(b)(3) when his hours worked in the workweek are in excess of 12 in any workday or in excess of 56 in the week must be “at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate at which he is employed.” This extra compensation for the excess hours cannot be said to have been paid to an employee unless all the straight time compensation due him for the nonovertime hours under his contract (express or implied) or under any applicable statute has been paid (§ 778.315 of this chapter). In computing the extra compensation due, the “regular rate” of the employee is calculated in accordance with section 7(e) of the Act, as explained in § 778.107 of this chapter, <I>et seq.,</I> and can in no event be less than the minimum required by the Act (see § 778.107 of this chapter). Since, for exemption from section 7(a) under section 7(b)(3) in workweeks exceeding 40 hours, the Act requires that the employee receive not only compensation for 40 hours at not less than the minimum rate prescribed in section 6 but also “compensation for employment in excess of 40 hours” at a rate not less than one and one-half times such minimum rate, the “regular rate”, on which time-and-one-half overtime pay must be computed for daily hours worked in excess of 12 or weekly hours worked in excess of 56, must be calculated in conformity with these minimum standards.
</P>
<P>(d) The following illustrations of the application of these principles in the case of an employee whose applicable minimum wage rate under section 6 is $1.60 an hour may be helpful. First, suppose the “regular rate” at which such an employee is employed, calculated in accordance with section 7(e) of the Act and part 778 of this chapter, is $2.40 an hour or more. This would be true of an employee employed solely at a single hourly rate of pay of $2.40 or more which he receives as straight time compensation for every hour of work. It would likewise be true of an employee, however compensated (whether by a salary for a fixed or variable number of hours, by commissions, piece rates, day rates or other pay systems or by a combination of these), whose pay for all hours worked in the workweek (except amounts excluded under section 7(e)) yields him average hourly straight-time earnings of $2.40 or more an hour. Since the employee's regular rate received for all nonovertime hours of work is in such a case not less than one and one-half times his applicable minimum rate under section 6, the compensation requirements of section 7(b)(3) are satisfied for all nonovertime as well as overtime hours worked if he receives compensation at his “regular rate” of $2.40 or more an hour for all hours worked in his workweek which are not in excess of 12 in his workday or 56 in his workweek, together with extra compensation for overtime in an amount sufficient to provide compensation for all his hours worked in excess of such daily or weekly hours, whichever are greater, at a rate at least 50 percent higher than such regular rate (at least $3.60 an hour if the regular rate is $2.40 an hour). A somewhat different situation is presented, however, where the employee whose applicable minimum wage under section 6 is $1.60 an hour is paid, as the Act permits, at a wage rate for nonovertime hours up to 40 in the workweek which is not less than the $1.60 minimum but is not as much as the $2.40 required for hours of employment in excess of 40. As an example, suppose he is paid $2 an hour for 40 hours and $2.40 as required by section 7(b)(3) for hours in excess of 40, and works 60 hours in a workweek in which 10 of his hours worked are in excess of 12 in a workday for which overtime compensation must be paid at not less than one and one-half times his regular rate of pay. Since payment of the $2 and $2.40 rates for hours worked up to and in excess of 40, respectively, satisfies the straight-time requirements for compensation under section 7(b)(3), all the compensation requirements for exemption thereunder will be satisfied if, in addition, he is paid for the 10 daily overtime hours an extra sum equal to one-half his “regular rate” multiplied by 10. His regular rate is computed for the workweek by dividing his total straight-time compensation for the week by the number of hours worked for which it is paid and is accordingly $2.133 an hour ($2 × 40 = $80; $2.40 × 20 = $48; $80 + 48 = $128; $128 ÷ 60 = $2.133; see § 778.115 of this chapter). Thus, the section 7(b)(3) compensation requirements are satisfied by payment of straight-time compensation in the amount of $80 for 40 hours of work and in the amount of $48 for the 20 additional hours worked, together with $10.67 as overtime premium for the 10 daily overtime hours ($2.133 × 
<FR>1/2</FR> × 10), or total pay of $138.67 for the week.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.143" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.473.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.143   Work exempt under another section of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Where an employee performs work during his workweek, some of which is exempt under one section of the Act, and the remainder of which is exempt under another section or sections, of the Act, the exemptions may be combined. The employee's combination exemption is controlled in such case by that exemption which is narrower in scope. For example, if part of his work is exempt from both minimum wage and overtime compensation under one section of the Act, and the rest is exempt only from the overtime pay requirements by virtue of section 7(b)(3), the employee is exempt that week from the overtime pay provisions, but not from the minimum wage requirements. Similarly, an employee who spends part of his workweek in work which would, if done throughout the week, exempt him completely from the overtime pay requirements, and the remainder of the week in work exempt from such requirements only to the extent and under the conditions specified in section 7(b)(3), could be exempt from overtime pay only to such extent and under such conditions. Thus where an employee spends part of his workweek in transporting petroleum products by tank truck for an employer in an enterprise described in section 7(b)(3), and the remainder of his workweek in driving a taxicab for the employer's taxi business (work exempt from the overtime provisions under section 13(b)(17)), he is eligible for exemption from overtime pay only if he is compensated in such workweek in accordance with the provisions of section 7(b)(3) and only to the extent which that section provides.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="474" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.474" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records to be Kept by Employers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.144" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.52.2.474.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.144   Records to be maintained.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of records.</I> No particular order or form of records is prescribed by the recordkeeping regulations (part 516 of this chapter). Every employer operating under section 7(b)(3) of the Act is, however, required to maintain and preserve records containing the information and data as set out in §§ 516.2 and 516.21 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="795" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.53" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 795—EMPLOYEE OR INDEPENDENT CONTRACTOR CLASSIFICATION UNDER THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 201-219.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 1741, Jan. 10, 2024




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 795.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.53.0.475.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 795.100   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the Department of Labor's (the Department) general interpretations for determining whether workers are employees or independent contractors under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA or Act). See 29 U.S.C. 201-19. These interpretations are intended to serve as a “practical guide to employers and employees” as to how the Department will seek to apply the Act. <I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 138 (1944). The Administrator of the Department's Wage and Hour Division will use these interpretations to guide the performance of their duties under the Act, unless and until the Administrator is otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts or the Administrator concludes upon reexamination of an interpretation that it is incorrect. To the extent that prior administrative rulings, interpretations, practices, or enforcement policies relating to determining who is an employee or independent contractor under the Act are inconsistent or in conflict with the interpretations stated in this part, they are hereby rescinded. The interpretations stated in this part may be relied upon in accordance with section 10 of the Portal-to-Portal Act, 29 U.S.C. 251-262, notwithstanding that after any act or omission in the course of such reliance, the interpretation is modified or rescinded or is determined by judicial authority to be invalid or of no legal effect. 29 U.S.C. 259.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 795.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.53.0.475.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 795.105   Determining employee or independent contractor classification under the FLSA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relevance of independent contractor or employee status under the Act.</I> The Act's minimum wage, overtime pay, and recordkeeping obligations apply only to workers who are covered employees. Workers who are independent contractors are not covered by these protections. Labeling employees as “independent contractors” does not make these protections inapplicable. A determination of whether a worker is an employee or independent contractor under the Act focuses on the economic realities of the worker's relationship with the worker's potential employer and whether the worker is either economically dependent on the potential employer for work or in business for themself.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Economic dependence as the ultimate inquiry.</I> An “employee” under the Act is an individual whom an employer suffers, permits, or otherwise employs to work. 29 U.S.C. 203(e)(1), (g). “Employer” is defined to “include[ ] any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee.” 29 U.S.C. 203(d). The Act's definitions are meant to encompass as employees all workers who, as a matter of economic reality, are economically dependent on an employer for work. A worker is an independent contractor, as distinguished from an “employee” under the Act, if the worker is, as a matter of economic reality, in business for themself. Economic dependence does not focus on the amount of income the worker earns, or whether the worker has other sources of income.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 795.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.53.0.475.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 795.110   Economic reality test to determine economic dependence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Economic reality test.</I> (1) In order to determine economic dependence, multiple factors assessing the economic realities of the working relationship are used. These factors are tools or guides to conduct a totality-of-the-circumstances analysis. This means that the outcome of the analysis does not depend on isolated factors but rather upon the circumstances of the whole activity to answer the question of whether the worker is economically dependent on the potential employer for work or is in business for themself.
</P>
<P>(2) The six factors described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (6) of this section should guide an assessment of the economic realities of the working relationship and the question of economic dependence. Consistent with a totality-of-the-circumstances analysis, no one factor or subset of factors is necessarily dispositive, and the weight to give each factor may depend on the facts and circumstances of the particular relationship. Moreover, these six factors are not exhaustive. As explained in paragraph (b)(7) of this section, additional factors may be considered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Economic reality factors</I>—(1) <I>Opportunity for profit or loss depending on managerial skill.</I> This factor considers whether the worker has opportunities for profit or loss based on managerial skill (including initiative or business acumen or judgment) that affect the worker's economic success or failure in performing the work. The following facts, among others, can be relevant: whether the worker determines or can meaningfully negotiate the charge or pay for the work provided; whether the worker accepts or declines jobs or chooses the order and/or time in which the jobs are performed; whether the worker engages in marketing, advertising, or other efforts to expand their business or secure more work; and whether the worker makes decisions to hire others, purchase materials and equipment, and/or rent space. If a worker has no opportunity for a profit or loss, then this factor suggests that the worker is an employee. Some decisions by a worker that can affect the amount of pay that a worker receives, such as the decision to work more hours or take more jobs when paid a fixed rate per hour or per job, generally do not reflect the exercise of managerial skill indicating independent contractor status under this factor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investments by the worker and the potential employer.</I> This factor considers whether any investments by a worker are capital or entrepreneurial in nature. Costs to a worker of tools and equipment to perform a specific job, costs of workers' labor, and costs that the potential employer imposes unilaterally on the worker, for example, are not evidence of capital or entrepreneurial investment and indicate employee status. Investments that are capital or entrepreneurial in nature and thus indicate independent contractor status generally support an independent business and serve a business-like function, such as increasing the worker's ability to do different types of or more work, reducing costs, or extending market reach. Additionally, the worker's investments should be considered on a relative basis with the potential employer's investments in its overall business. The worker's investments need not be equal to the potential employer's investments and should not be compared only in terms of the dollar values of investments or the sizes of the worker and the potential employer. Instead, the focus should be on comparing the investments to determine whether the worker is making similar types of investments as the potential employer (even if on a smaller scale) to suggest that the worker is operating independently, which would indicate independent contractor status.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Degree of permanence of the work relationship.</I> This factor weighs in favor of the worker being an employee when the work relationship is indefinite in duration, continuous, or exclusive of work for other employers. This factor weighs in favor of the worker being an independent contractor when the work relationship is definite in duration, non-exclusive, project-based, or sporadic based on the worker being in business for themself and marketing their services or labor to multiple entities. This may include regularly occurring fixed periods of work, although the seasonal or temporary nature of work by itself would not necessarily indicate independent contractor classification. Where a lack of permanence is due to operational characteristics that are unique or intrinsic to particular businesses or industries and the workers they employ, this factor is not necessarily indicative of independent contractor status unless the worker is exercising their own independent business initiative.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nature and degree of control.</I> This factor considers the potential employer's control, including reserved control, over the performance of the work and the economic aspects of the working relationship. Facts relevant to the potential employer's control over the worker include whether the potential employer sets the worker's schedule, supervises the performance of the work, or explicitly limits the worker's ability to work for others. Additionally, facts relevant to the potential employer's control over the worker include whether the potential employer uses technological means to supervise the performance of the work (such as by means of a device or electronically), reserves the right to supervise or discipline workers, or places demands or restrictions on workers that do not allow them to work for others or work when they choose. Whether the potential employer controls economic aspects of the working relationship should also be considered, including control over prices or rates for services and the marketing of the services or products provided by the worker. Actions taken by the potential employer for the sole purpose of complying with a specific, applicable Federal, State, Tribal, or local law or regulation are not indicative of control. Actions taken by the potential employer that go beyond compliance with a specific, applicable Federal, State, Tribal, or local law or regulation and instead serve the potential employer's own compliance methods, safety, quality control, or contractual or customer service standards may be indicative of control. More indicia of control by the potential employer favors employee status; more indicia of control by the worker favors independent contractor status.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Extent to which the work performed is an integral part of the potential employer's business.</I> This factor considers whether the work performed is an integral part of the potential employer's business. This factor does not depend on whether any individual worker in particular is an integral part of the business, but rather whether the function they perform is an integral part of the business. This factor weighs in favor of the worker being an employee when the work they perform is critical, necessary, or central to the potential employer's principal business. This factor weighs in favor of the worker being an independent contractor when the work they perform is not critical, necessary, or central to the potential employer's principal business.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Skill and initiative.</I> This factor considers whether the worker uses specialized skills to perform the work and whether those skills contribute to business-like initiative. This factor indicates employee status where the worker does not use specialized skills in performing the work or where the worker is dependent on training from the potential employer to perform the work. Where the worker brings specialized skills to the work relationship, this fact is not itself indicative of independent contractor status because both employees and independent contractors may be skilled workers. It is the worker's use of those specialized skills in connection with business-like initiative that indicates that the worker is an independent contractor.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Additional factors.</I> Additional factors may be relevant in determining whether the worker is an employee or independent contractor for purposes of the FLSA, if the factors in some way indicate whether the worker is in business for themself, as opposed to being economically dependent on the potential employer for work.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 795.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.2.53.0.475.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 795.115   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>If any provision of this part is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—OTHER LAWS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="801" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 801—APPLICATION OF THE EMPLOYEE POLYGRAPH PROTECTION ACT OF 1988
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 100-347, 102 Stat. 646, 29 U.S.C. 2001-2009; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990); Pub. L. 114-74 at sec. 701, 129 Stat 584.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1.482.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Effective December 27, 1988, the Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 (EPPA or the Act) prohibits most private employers (Federal, State, and local government employers are exempted from the Act) from using any lie detector tests either for pre-employment screening or during the course of employment. Polygraph tests, but no other types of lie detector tests, are permitted under limited circumstances subject to certain restrictions. The purpose of this part is to set forth the regulations to carry out the provisions of EPPA.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part are divided into six subparts. Subpart A contains the provisions generally applicable to covered employers, including the requirements relating to the prohibitions on lie detector use and the posting of notices. Subpart A also sets forth interpretations regarding the effect of section 10 of the Act on other laws or collective bargaining agreements. Subpart B sets forth rules regarding the statutory exemptions from application of the Act. Subpart C sets forth the restrictions on polygraph usage under such exemptions. Subpart D sets forth the recordkeeping requirements and the rules on the disclosure of polygraph test information. Subpart E deals with the authority of the Secretary of Labor and the enforcement provisions under the Act. Subpart F contains the procedures and rules of practice necessary for the administrative enforcement of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1.482.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> or <I>EPPA</I> means the Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 (Pub. L. 100-347, 102 Stat. 646, 29 U.S.C. 2001-2009).
</P>
<P>(b) (1) The term <I>commerce</I> has the meaning provided in section 3(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 203(b)). As so defined, <I>commerce</I> means trade, commerce, transportation, transmission, or communication among the several States or between any State and any place outside thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>State</I> means any of the fifty States and the District of Columbia and any Territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>employer</I> means any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee or prospective employee. A polygraph examiner either employed for or whose services are retained for the sole purpose of administering polygraph tests ordinarily would not be deemed an <I>employer</I> with respect to the examinees.
</P>
<P>(d) (1) The term <I>lie detector</I> means a polygraph, deceptograph, voice stress analyzer, psychological stress evaluator, or any other similar device (whether mechanical or electrical) that is used, or the results of which are used, for the purpose of rendering a diagnostic opinion regarding the honesty or dishonesty of an individual. Voice stress analyzers, or psychological stress evaluators, include any systems that utilize voice stress analysis, whether or not an opinion on honesty or dishonesty is specifically rendered.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>lie detector</I> does not include medical tests used to determine the presence or absence of controlled substances or alcohol in bodily fluids. Also not included in the definition of <I>lie detector</I> are written or oral tests commonly referred to as “honesty” or “paper and pencil” tests, machine-scored or otherwise; and graphology tests commonly referred to as handwriting tests.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>polygraph</I> means an instrument that—
</P>
<P>(1) Records continuously, visually, permanently, and simultaneously changes in cardiovascular, respiratory, and electrodermal patterns as minimum instrumentation standards; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is used, or the results of which are used, for the purpose of rendering a diagnostic opinion regarding the honesty or dishonesty of an individual.
</P>
<P>(f) The terms <I>manufacture, dispense, distribute,</I> and <I>deliver</I> have the meanings set forth in the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 812.
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Wage and Hour Division</I> means the organizational unit of the Department of Labor to which is assigned primary responsibility for enforcement and administration of the Act.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, or authorized representative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991, as amended at 82 FR 2230, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1.482.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.3   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The coverage of the Act extends to “any employer engaged in or affecting commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.” (Section 3 of EPPA; 29 U.S.C. 2002.) In interpreting the phrase “affecting commerce” in other statutes, courts have found coverage to be coextensive with the full scope of the Congressional power to regulate commerce. See, for example, <I>Godwin</I> v. <I>Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission,</I> 540 F. 2d 1013, 1015 (9th Cir. 1976). Since most employers engage in one or more types of activities that would be regarded as “affecting commerce” under the principles established by a large body of court cases, virtually all employers are deemed subject to the provisions of the Act, unless otherwise exempt pursuant to section 7 (a), (b), or (c) of the Act and §§ 801.10 or 801.11 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Act also extends to all employees of covered employers regardless of their citizenship status, and to foreign corporations operating in the United States. Moreover, the provisions of the Act extend to any actions relating to the administration of lie detector, including polygraph, tests which occur within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States, e.g., the preparation of paperwork by a foreign corporation in a Miami office relating to a polygraph test that is to be administered on the high seas or in some foreign location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.4" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1.482.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.4   Prohibitions on lie detector use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3 of EPPA provides that, unless otherwise exempt pursuant to section 7 of the Act and §§ 801.10 through 801.14 of this part, covered employers are prohibited from:
</P>
<P>(1) Requiring, requesting, suggesting or causing, directly or indirectly, any employee or prospective employee to take or submit to a lie detector test;
</P>
<P>(2) Using, accepting, or inquiring about the results of a lie detector test of any employee or prospective employee; and
</P>
<P>(3) Discharging, disciplining, discriminating against, denying employment or promotion, or threatening any employee or prospective employee to take such action for refusal or failure to take or submit to such test, on the basis of the results of a test, for filing a complaint, for testifying in any proceeding, or for exercising any rights afforded by the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer who reports a theft or other incident involving economic loss to police or other law enforcement authorities is not engaged in conduct subject to the prohibitions under paragraph (a) of this section if, during the normal course of a subsequent investigation, such authorities deem it necessary to administer a polygraph test to an employee(s) suspected of involvement in the reported incident. Employers who cooperate with police authorities during the course of their investigations into criminal misconduct are likewise not deemed engaged in prohibitive conduct provided that such cooperation is passive in nature. For example, it is not uncommon for police authorities to request employees suspected of theft or criminal activity to submit to a polygraph test during the employee's tour of duty since, as a general rule, suspect employees are often difficult to locate away from their place of employment. Allowing a test on the employer's premises, releasing an employee during working hours to take a test at police headquarters, and other similar types of cooperation at the request of the police authorities would not be construed as “requiring, requesting, suggesting, or causing, directly or indirectly, any employee * * * to take or submit to a lie detector test.” Cooperation of this type must be distinguished from actual participation in the testing of employees suspected of wrongdoing, either through the administration of a test by the employer at the request or direction of police authorities, or through employer reimbursement of tests administered by police authorities to employees. In some communities, it may be a practice of police authorities to request employer testing of employees before a police investigation is initiated on a reported incident. In other communities, police examiners are available to employers, on a cost reimbursement basis, to conduct tests on employees suspected by an employer of wrongdoing. All such conduct on the part of employers is deemed within the Act's prohibitions.
</P>
<P>(c) The receipt by an employer of information from a polygraph test administered by police authorities pursuant to an investigation is prohibited by section 3(2) of the Act. (See paragraph (a)(2) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(d) The simulated use of a polygraph instrument so as to lead an individual to believe that an actual test is being or may be performed (e.g., to elicit confessions or admissions of guilt) constitutes conduct prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section. Such use includes the connection of an employee or prospective employee to the instrument without any intention of a diagnostic purpose, the placement of the instrument in a room used for interrogation unconnected to the employee or prospective employee, or the mere suggestion that the instrument may be used during the course of the interview.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.5" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1.482.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.5   Effect on other laws or agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 10 of EPPA provides that the Act, except for subsections (a), (b), and (c) of section 7, does not preempt any provision of a State or local law, or any provision of a collective bargaining agreement, that prohibits lie detector tests or is more restrictive with respect to the use of lie detector tests.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) This provision applies to all aspects of the use of lie detector tests, including procedural safeguards, the use of test results, the rights and remedies provided examinees, and the rights, remedies, and responsibilities of examiners and employers.
</P>
<P>(2) For example, if the State prohibits the use of polygraphs in all private employment, polygraph examinations could not be conducted pursuant to the limited exemptions provided in section 7 (d), (e) or (f) of the Act; a collective bargaining agreement that provides greater protection to an examinee would apply in addition to the protection provided in the Act; or more stringent licensing or bonding requirements in a State law would apply in addition to the Federal bonding requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) On the other hand, industry exemptions and applicable restrictions thereon, provided in EPPA, would preempt less restrictive exemptions established by State law for the same industry, e.g., random testing of current employees in the drug industry not prohibited by State law but limited by this Act to tests administered in connection with ongoing investigations.
</P>
<P>(c) EPPA does not impede the ability of State and local governments to enforce existing statutes or to enact subsequent legislation restricting the use of lie detectors with respect to public employees.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in section 10 of the Act restricts or prohibits the Federal Government from administering polygraph tests to its own employees or to experts, consultants, or employees of contractors, as provided in subsections 7(b) and 7(c) of the Act, and § 801.11 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.6" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1.482.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.6   Notice of protection.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer subject to EPPA shall post and keep posted on its premises a notice explaining the Act, as prescribed by the Secretary. Such notice must be posted in a prominent and conspicuous place in every establishment of the employer where it can readily be observed by employees and applicants for employment. Copies of such notice may be obtained from local offices of the Wage and Hour Division.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.7" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1.482.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.7   Authority of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 5 of the Act, the Secretary is authorized to:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue such rules and regulations as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperate with regional, State, local, and other agencies, and cooperate with and furnish technical assistance to employers, labor organizations, and employment agencies to aid in effectuating the purposes of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make investigations and inspections as necessary or appropriate, through complaint or otherwise, including inspection of such records (and copying or transcription thereof), questioning of such persons, and gathering such information as deemed necessary to determine compliance with the Act or these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Require the keeping of records necessary or appropriate for the administration of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5 of the Act also grants the Secretary authority to issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of any evidence in connection with any investigation or hearing under the Act. The Secretary may administer oaths, examine witnesses, and receive evidence. For the purpose of any investigation or hearing provided for in the Act, the authority contained in sections 9 and 10 of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 49, 50), relating to the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, papers, and documents, shall be available to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) In case of disobedience to a subpoena, the Secretary may invoke the aid of a United States District Court which is authorized to issue an order requiring the person to obey such subpoena.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person may report a violation of the Act or these regulations to the Secretary by advising any local office of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, or any authorized representative of the Administrator. The office or person receiving such a report shall refer it to the appropriate office of the Wage and Hour Division for the region or area in which the reported violation is alleged to have occurred.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary shall conduct investigations in a manner which, to the extent practicable, protects the confidentiality of any complainant or other party who provides information to the Secretary in good faith.
</P>
<P>(f) It is a violation of these regulations for any person to resist, oppose, impede, intimidate, or interfere with any official of the Department of Labor assigned to perform an investigation, inspection, or law enforcement function pursuant to the Act during the performance of such duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991, as amended at 82 FR 2230, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.8" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.1.482.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.8   Employment relationship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) EPPA broadly defines “employer” to include “any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relationship to an employee or prospective employee” (EPPA section 2(2)).
</P>
<P>(b) EPPA restrictions apply to State Employment Services, private employment placement agencies, job recruiting firms, and vocational trade schools with respect to persons who may be referred to potential employers. Such entities are not liable for EPPA violations, however, where the referrals are made to employers for whom no reason exists to know that the latter will perform polygraph testing of job applicants or otherwise violate the provisions of EPPA.
</P>
<P>(c) EPPA prohibitions against discrimination apply to former employees of an employer. For example, an employee may quit rather than take a lie detector test. The employer cannot discriminate or threaten to discriminate in any manner against that person (such as by providing bad references in the future) because of that person's refusal to be tested, or because that person files a complaint, institutes a proceeding, testifies in a proceeding, or exercises any right under EPPA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.2.482.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.10   Exclusion for public sector employers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(a) provides an exclusion from the Act's coverage for the United States Government, any State or local government, or any political subdivision of a State or local government, acting in the capacity of an employer. This exclusion from the Act also extends to any interstate governmental agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>United States Government</I> means any agency or instrumentality, civilian or military, of the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of the Federal Government, and includes independent agencies, wholly-owned government corporations, and nonappropriated fund instrumentalities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>any political subdivision of a State or local government</I> means any entity which is either.
</P>
<P>(1) Created directly by a state or local government, or
</P>
<P>(2) Administered by individuals who are responsible to public officials (<I>i.e.</I>, appointed by an elected public official(s) and/or subject to removal procedures for public officials, or to the general electorate.
</P>
<P>(d) This exclusion from the Act applies only to the Federal, State, and local government entity with respect to its own public employees. Except as provided in sections 7 (b) and (c) of the Act, and § 801.11 of the regulations, this exclusion does not extend to contractors or nongovernmental agents of a government entity, nor does it extend to government entities with respect to employees of a private employer with which the government entity has a contractual or other business relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.2.482.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.11   Exemption for national defense and security.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The exemptions allowing for the administration of lie detector tests in the following paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section apply only to the Federal Government; they do not allow private employers/contractors to administer such tests.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7(b)(1) of the Act provides that nothing in the Act shall be construed to prohibit the administration of any lie detector test by the Federal Government, in the performance of any counterintelligence function, to any expert, consultant or employee of any contractor under contract with the Department of Defense; or with the Department of Energy, in connection with the atomic energy defense activities of such Department.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7(b)(2)(A) provides that nothing in the Act shall be construed to prohibit the administration of any lie detector test by the Federal Government, in the performance of any intelligence or counterintelligence function of the National Security Agency, the Defense Intelligence Agency, or the Central Intelligence Agency, to any individual employed by, assigned to, or detailed to any such agency; or any expert or consultant under contract to any such agency; or any employee of a contractor to such agency; or any individual applying for a position in any such agency; or any individual assigned to a space where sensitive cryptologic information is produced, processed, or stored for any such agency.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7(b)(2)(B) provides that nothing in the Act shall be construed to prohibit the administration of any lie detector test by the Federal Government, in the performance of any intelligence or counterintelligence function, to any expert, or consultant (or employee of such expert or consultant) under contract with any Federal Government department, agency, or program whose duties involve access to information that has been classified at the level of top secret or designated as being within a special access program under section 4.2 (a) of Executive Order 12356 (or a successor Executive Order).
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7(c) provides that nothing in the Act shall be construed to prohibit the administration of any lie detector test by the Federal Government, in the performance of any counterintelligence function, to any employee of a contractor of the Federal Bureau of Investigation of the Department of Justice who is engaged in the performance of any work under a contract with the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Counterintelligence</I> for purposes of the above paragraphs means information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage and other clandestine intelligence activities, sabotage, terrorist activities, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign governments, or foreign or domestic organizations or persons.
</P>
<P>(g) Lie detector tests of persons described in the above paragraphs will be administered in accordance with applicable Department of Defense directives and regulations, or other regulations and directives governing the use of such tests by the United States Government, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.12" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.2.482.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.12   Exemption for employers conducting investigations of economic loss or injury.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(d) of the Act provides a limited exemption from the general prohibition on lie detector use in private employment settings for employers conducting ongoing investigations of economic loss or injury to the employer's business. An employer may request an employee, subject to the conditions set forth in sections 8 and 10 of the Act and §§ 801.20, 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, 801.25, 801.26, and 801.35 of this part, to submit to a polygraph test, but no other type of lie detector test, only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The test is administered in connection with an ongoing investigation involving economic loss or injury to the employer's business, such as theft, embezzlement, misappropriation or an act of unlawful industrial espionage or sabotage;
</P>
<P>(2) The employee had access to the property that is the subject of the investigation;
</P>
<P>(3) The employer has a reasonable suspicion that the employee was involved in the incident or activity under investigation;
</P>
<P>(4) The employer provides the examinee with a statement, in a language understood by the examinee, prior to the test which fully explains with particularity the specific incident or activity being investigated and the basis for testing particular employees and which contains, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) An identification with particularity of the specific economic loss or injury to the business of the employer;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the employee's access to the property that is the subject of the investigation;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description in detail of the basis of the employer's reasonable suspicion that the employee was involved in the incident or activity under investigation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Signature of a person (other than a polygraph examiner) authorized to legally bind the employer; and
</P>
<P>(5) The employer retains a copy of the statement and proof of service described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section for at least 3 years and makes it available for inspection by the Wage and Hour Division on request. (See § 801.30(a).)
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1225-0170)
</APPRO>
<P>(b) For the exemption to apply, the condition of an “ongoing investigation” must be met. As used in section 7(d) of the Act, the ongoing investigation must be of a specific incident or activity. Thus, for example, an employer may not request that an employee or employees submit to a polygraph test in an effort to determine whether or not any thefts have occurred. Such random testing by an employer is precluded by the Act. Further, because the exemption is limited to a specific incident or activity, an employer is precluded from using the exemption in situations where the so-called “ongoing investigation” is continuous. For example, the fact that items in inventory are frequently missing from a warehouse would not be a sufficient basis, standing alone, for administering a polygraph test. Even if the employer can establish that unusually high amounts of inventory are missing from the warehouse in a given month, this, in and of itself, would not be a sufficient basis to meet the specific incident requirement. On the other hand, polygraph testing in response to inventory shortages would be permitted where additional evidence is obtained through subsequent investigation of specific items missing through intentional wrongdoing, and a reasonable suspicion that the employee to be polygraphed was involved in the incident under investigation. Administering a polygraph test in circumstances where the missing inventory is merely unspecified, statistical shortages, without identification of a specific incident or activity that produced the inventory shortages and a “reasonable suspicion that the employee was involved,” would amount to little more than a fishing expedition and is prohibited by the Act.
</P>
<P>(c)(1)(i) The terms <I>economic loss or injury to the employer's business</I> include both direct and indirect economic loss or injury.
</P>
<P>(ii) Direct loss or injury includes losses or injuries resulting from theft, embezzlement, misappropriation, industrial espionage or sabotage. These examples, cited in the Act, are intended to be illustrative and not exhaustive. Another specific incident which would constitute direct economic loss or injury is the misappropriation of confidential or trade secret information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Indirect loss or injury includes the use of an employer's business to commit a crime, such as check-kiting or money laundering. In such cases, the ongoing investigation must be limited to criminal activity that has already occurred, and to use of the employer's business operations (and not simply the use of the premises) for such activity. For example, the use of an employer's vehicles, warehouses, computers or equipment to smuggle or facilitate the importing of illegal substances constitutes an indirect loss or injury to the employer's business operations. Conversely, the mere fact that an illegal act occurs on the employer's premises (such as a drug transaction that takes place in the employer's parking lot or rest room) does not constitute an indirect economic loss or injury to the employer.
</P>
<P>(iv) Indirect loss or injury also includes theft or injury to property of another for which the employer exercises fiduciary, managerial or security responsibility, or where the firm has custody of the property (but not property of other firms to which the employees have access by virtue of the business relationship). For example, if a maintenance employee of the manager of an apartment building steals jewelry from a tenant's apartment, the theft results in an indirect economic loss or injury to the employer because of the manager's management responsibility with respect to the tenant's apartment. A messenger on a delivery of confidential business reports for a client firm who steals the reports causes an indirect economic loss or injury to the messenger service because the messenger service is custodian of the client firm's reports, and therefore is responsible for their security. Similarly, the theft of property protected by a security service employer is considered an economic loss or injury to that employer.
</P>
<P>(v) A theft or injury to a client firm does not constitute an indirect loss or injury to an employer unless that employer has custody of, or management, or security responsibility for, the property of the client that was lost or stolen or injured. For example, a cleaning contractor has no responsibility for the money at a client bank. If money is stolen from the bank by one of the cleaning contractor's employees, the cleaning contractor does not suffer an indirect loss or injury.
</P>
<P>(vi) Indirect loss or injury does not include loss or injury which is merely threatened or potential, e.g., a threatened or potential loss of an advantageous business relationship.
</P>
<P>(2) Economic losses or injuries which are the result of unintentional or lawful conduct would not serve as a basis for the administration of a polygraph test. Thus, apparently unintentional losses or injuries stemming from truck, car, workplace, or other similar type accidents or routine inventory or cash register shortages would not meet the economic loss or injury requirement. Any economic loss incident to lawful union or employee activity also would not satisfy this requirement. It makes no difference that an employer may be obligated to directly or indirectly incur the cost of the incident, as through payment of a “deductible” portion under an insurance policy or higher insurance premiums.
</P>
<P>(3) It is the business of the employer which must suffer the economic loss or injury. Thus, a theft committed by one employee against another employee of the same employer would not satisfy the requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) While nothing in the Act prohibits the use of medical tests to determine the presence of controlled substances or alcohol in bodily fluids, the section 7(d) exemption does not permit the use of a polygraph test to learn whether an employee has used drugs or alcohol, even where such possible use may have contributed to an economic loss to the employer (e.g., an accident involving a company vehicle).
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7(d)(2) provides that, as a condition for the use of the exemption, the employee must have had access to the property that is the subject of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(1) The word <I>access,</I> as used in section 7(d)(2), refers to the opportunity which an employee had to cause, or to aid or abet in causing, the specific economic loss or injury under investigation. The term “access”, thus, includes more than direct or physical contact during the course of employment. For example, as a general matter, all employees working in or with authority to enter a warehouse storage area have “access” to unsecured property in the warehouse. All employees with the combination to a safe have “access” to the property in a locked safe. Employees also have “access” who have the ability to divert possession or otherwise affect the disposition of the property that is the subject of investigation. For example, a bookkeeper in a jewelry store with access to inventory records may aid or abet a clerk who steals an expensive watch by removing the watch from the employer's inventory records. In such a situation, it is clear that the bookkeeper effectively has “access” to the property that is the subject of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) As used in section 7(d)(2), <I>property</I> refers to specifically identifiable property, but also includes such things of value as security codes and computer data, and proprietary, financial or technical information, such as trade secrets, which by its availability to competitors or others would cause economic harm to the employer.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) As used in section 7(d)(3), the term <I>reasonable suspicion</I> refers to an observable, articulable basis in fact which indicates that a particular employee was involved in, or responsible for, an economic loss. Access in the sense of possible or potential opportunity, standing alone, does not constitute a basis for “reasonable suspicion”. Information from a co-worker, or an employee's behavior, demeanor, or conduct may be factors in the basis for reasonable suspicion. Likewise, inconsistencies between facts, claims, or statements that surface during an investigation can serve as a sufficient basis for reasonable suspicion. While access or opportunity, standing alone, does not constitute a basis for reasonable suspicion, the totality of circumstances surrounding the access or opportunity (such as its unauthorized or unusual nature or the fact that access was limited to a single individual) may constitute a factor in determining whether there is a reasonable suspicion.
</P>
<P>(2) For example, in an investigation of a theft of an expensive piece of jewelry, an employee authorized to open the establishment's safe no earlier than 9 a.m., in order to place the jewelry in a window display case, is observed opening the safe at 7:30 a.m. In such a situation, the opening of the safe by the employee one and one-half hours prior to the specified time may serve as the basis for reasonable suspicion. On the other hand, in the example given, if the employer asked the employee to bring the piece of jewelry to his or her office at 7:30 a.m., and the employee then opened the safe and reported the jewelry missing, such access, standing alone, would not constitute a basis for reasonable suspicion that the employee was involved in the incident unless access to the safe was limited solely to the employee. If no one other than the employee possessed the combination to the safe, and all other possible explanations for the loss are ruled out, such as a break-in, the employer may formulate a basis for reasonable suspicion based on sole access by one employee.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer has the burden of establishing that the specific individual or individuals to be tested are “reasonably suspected” of involvement in the specific economic loss or injury for the requirement in section 7(d)(3) to be met.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) As discussed in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, section 7(d)(4) of the Act sets forth what information, at a minimum, must be provided to an employee if the employer wishes to claim the exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) The statement required under paragraph (a)(4) of this section must be received by the employee at least 48 hours, excluding weekend days and holidays, prior to the time of the examination. The statement must set forth the time and date of receipt by the employee and be verified by the employee's signature. This will provide the employee with adequate pre-test notice of the specific incident or activity being investigated and afford the employee sufficient time prior to the test to obtain and consult with legal counsel or an employee representative. 
</P>
<P>(3) The statement to be provided to the employee must set forth with particularity the specific incident or activity being investigated and the basis for testing particular employees. Section 7(d)(4)(A) requires specificity beyond the mere assertion of general statements regarding economic loss, employee access, and reasonable suspicion. For example, an employer's assertion that an expensive watch was stolen, and that the employee had access to the watch and is therefore a suspect, would not meet the “with particularity” criterion. If the basis for an employer's requesting an employee (or employees) to take a polygraph test is not articulated with particularity, and reduced to writing, then the standard is not met. The identity of a co-worker or other individual providing information used to establish reasonable suspicion need not be revealed in the statement.
</P>
<P>(4) It is further required that the statement provided to the examinee be signed by the employer, or an employee or other representative of the employer with authority to legally bind the employer. The person signing the statement must not be a polygraph examiner unless the examiner is acting solely in the capacity of an employer with respect to his or her own employees and does not conduct the examination. The standard would not be met, and the exemption would not apply if the person signing the statement is not authorized to legally bind the employer.
</P>
<P>(h) Polygraph tests administered pursuant to this exemption are subject to the limitations set forth in sections 8 and 10 of the Act, as discussed in §§ 801.20, 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, 801.25, 801.26, and 801.35 of this part. As provided in these sections, the exemption will apply only if certain requirements are met. Failure to satisfy any of the specified requirements nullifies the statutory authority for polygraph test administration and may subject the employer to the assessment of civil money penalties and other remedial actions, as provided for in section 6 of the Act (see subpart E, § 801.42 of this part). The administration of such tests is also subject to State or local laws, or collective bargaining agreements, which may either prohibit lie detector tests, or contain more restrictive provisions with respect to polygraph testing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.13" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.2.482.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.13   Exemption of employers authorized to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(f) provides an exemption from the Act's general prohibition regarding the use of polygraph tests for employers authorized to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance listed in schedule I, II, III, or IV of section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 812). This exemption permits the administration of polygraph tests, subject to the conditions set forth in sections 8 and 10 of the Act and §§ 801.21, 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, 801.25, 801.26, and 801.35 of this part, to:
</P>
<P>(1) A prospective employee who would have direct access to the manufacture, storage, distribution, or sale of any such controlled substance; or
</P>
<P>(2) A current employee if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The test is administered in connection with an ongoing investigation of criminal or other misconduct involving, or potentially involving, loss or injury to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any such controlled substance by such employer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee had access to the person or property that is the subject of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The terms <I>manufacture, distribute, distribution, dispense, storage,</I> and <I>sale,</I> for the purposes of this exemption, are construed within the meaning of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 812 <I>et seq.</I>), as administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), U.S. Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption in section 7(f) of the Act applies only to employers who are authorized by DEA to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance. Section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 812) requires every person who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substance to register with the Attorney General (<I>i.e.</I>, with DEA). Common or contract carriers and warehouses whose possession of the controlled substance is in the usual course of their business or employment are not required to register. Since this exemption is intended to apply only to employees and prospective employees of persons or entities registered with DEA, and is not intended to apply to truck drivers employed by persons or entities who are not so registered, it has no application to employees of common or contract carriers or public warehouses. Truck drivers and warehouse employees of the persons or entities registered with DEA and authorized to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, are within the scope of the exemption where they have direct access or access to the controlled substances, as discussed below.
</P>
<P>(c) In order for a polygraph examination to be performed, section 7(f) of the Act requires that a prospective employee have “direct access” to the controlled substance(s) manufactured, dispensed, or distributed by the employer. Where a current employee is to be tested as a part of an ongoing investigation, section 7(f) requires that the employee have “access” to the person or property that is the subject of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(1) A prospective employee would have “direct access” if the position being applied for has responsibilities which include contact with or which affect the disposition of a controlled substance, including participation in the process of obtaining, dispensing, or otherwise distributing a controlled substance. This includes contact or direct involvement in the manufacture, storage, testing, distribution, sale or dispensing of a controlled substance and may include, for example, packaging, repackaging, ordering, licensing, shipping, receiving, taking inventory, providing security, prescribing, and handling of a controlled substance. A prospective employee would have “direct access” if the described job duties would give such person access to the products in question, whether such employee would be in physical proximity to controlled substances or engaged in activity which would permit the employee to divert such substances to his or her possession.
</P>
<P>(2) A current employee would have “access” within the meaning of section 7(f) if the employee had access to the specific person or property which is the subject of the on-going investigation, as discussed in § 801.12(e) of this part. Thus, to test a current employee, the employee need not have had “direct” access to the controlled substance, but may have had only infrequent, random, or opportunistic access. Such access would be sufficient to test the employee if the employee could have caused, or could have aided or abetted in causing, the loss of the specific property which is the subject of the investigation. For example, a maintenance worker in a drug warehouse, whose job duties include the cleaning of areas where the controlled substances which are the subject of the investigation were present, but whose job duties do not include the handling of controlled substances, would be deemed to have “access”, but normally not “direct access”, to the controlled substances. On the other hand, a drug warehouse truck loader, whose job duties include the handling of outgoing shipment orders which contain controlled substances, would have “direct access” to such controlled substances. A pharmacy department in a supermarket is another common situation which is useful in illustrating the distinction between “direct access” and “access”. Store personnel receiving pharmaceutical orders, i.e., the pharmacist, pharmacy intern, and other such employees working in the pharmacy department, would ordinarily have “direct access” to controlled substances. Other store personnel whose job duties and responsibilities do not include the handling of controlled substances but who had occasion to enter the pharmacy department where the controlled substances which are the subject of the investigation were stored, such as maintenance personnel or pharmacy cashiers, would have “access”. Certain other store personnel whose job duties do not permit or require entrance into the pharmacy department for any reason, such as produce or meat clerks, checkout cashiers, or baggers, would not ordinarily have “access.” However, any current employee, regardless of described job duties, may be polygraphed if the employer's investigation of criminal or other misconduct discloses that such employee in fact took action to obtain “access” to the person or property that is the subject of the investigation—e.g., by actually entering the drug storage area in violation of company rules. In the case of “direct access”, the prospective employee's access to controlled substances would be as a part of the manufacturing, dispensing or distribution process, while a current employee's “access” to the controlled substances which are the subject of the investigation need only be opportunistic.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>prospective employee,</I> for the purposes of this section, includes a current employee who presently holds a position which does not entail direct access to controlled substances, and therefore is outside the scope of the exemption's provisions for preemployment polygraph testing, provided the employee has applied for and is being considered for transfer or promotion to another position which entails such direct access. For example, an office secretary may apply for promotion to a position in the vault or cage areas of a drug warehouse, where controlled substances are kept. In such a situation, the current employee would be deemed a “prospective employee” for the purposes of this exemption, and thus could be subject to preemployment polygraph screening, prior to such a change in position. However, any adverse action which is based in part on a polygraph test against a current employee who is considered a “prospective employee” for purposes of this section may be taken only with respect to the prospective position and may not affect the employee's employment in the current position.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7(f) of the Act makes no specific reference to a requirement that employers provide current employees with a written statement prior to polygraph testing. Thus, employers to whom this exemption is available are not required to furnish a written statement such as that specified in section 7(d) of the Act and § 801.12(a)(4) of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) For the section 7(f) exemption to apply, the polygraph testing of current employees must be administered in connection with an ongoing investigation of criminal or other misconduct involving, or potentially involving, loss or injury to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any such controlled substance by such employer.
</P>
<P>(1) Current employees may only be administered polygraph tests in connection with an ongoing investigation of criminal or other misconduct, relating to a specific incident or activity, or potential incident or activity. Thus, an employer is precluded from using the exemption in connection with continuing investigations or on a random basis to determine if thefts are occurring. However, unlike the exemption in section 7(d) of the Act for employers conducting ongoing investigations of economic loss or injury, the section 7(f) exemption includes ongoing investigations of misconduct involving potential drug losses. Nor does the latter exemption include the requirement for “reasonable suspicion” contained in the section 7(d) exemption. Thus, a drug store employer is permitted to polygraph all current employees who have access to a controlled substance stolen from the inventory, or where there is evidence that such a theft is planned. Polygraph testing based on an inventory shortage of the drug during a particular accounting period would not be permitted unless there is extrinsic evidence of misconduct.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the test must be administered in connection with loss or injury, or potential loss or injury, to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance.
</P>
<P>(i) Retail drugstores and wholesale drug warehouses typically carry inventory of so-called health and beauty aids, cosmetics, over-the-counter drugs, and a variety of other similar products, in addition to their product lines of controlled drugs. The noncontrolled products usually constitute the majority of such firms' sales volumes. An economic loss or injury related to such noncontrolled substances would not constitute a basis of applicability of the section 7(f) exemption. For example, an investigation into the theft of a gross of cosmetic products could not be a basis for polygraph testing under section 7(f), but the theft of a container of valium could be.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polygraph testing, with respect to an ongoing investigation concerning products other than controlled substances might be initiated under section 7(d) of the Act and § 801.12 of this part. However, the exemption in section 7(f) of the Act and this section is limited solely to losses or injury associated with controlled substances.
</P>
<P>(g) Polygraph tests administered pursuant to this exemption are subject to the limitations set forth in sections 8 and 10 of the Act, as discussed in §§ 801.21, 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, 801.25, 801.26, and 801.35 of this part. As provided in these sections, the exemption will apply only if certain requirements are met. Failure to satisfy any of the specified requirements nullifies the statutory authority for polygraph test administration and may subject the employer to the assessment of civil money penalties and other remedial actions, as provided for in section 6 of the Act (see subpart E, § 801.40 of this part). The administration of such tests is also subject to State or local laws, or collective bargaining agreements, which may either prohibit lie detector tests, or contain more restrictive provisions with respect to polygraph testing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.14" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.2.482.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.14   Exemption for employers providing security services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(e) of the Act provides an exemption from the general prohibition against polygraph tests for certain armored car, security alarm, and security guard employers. Subject to the conditions set forth in sections 8 and 10 of the Act and §§ 801.21, 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, 801.25, 801.26, and 801.35 of this part, section 7(e) permits the use of polygraph tests on certain prospective employees provided that such employers have as their primary business purpose the providing of armored car personnel, personnel engaged in the design, installation, and maintenance of security alarm systems, or other uniformed or plainclothes security personnel; and provided the employer's function includes protection of:
</P>
<P>(1) Facilities, materials, or operations having a significant impact on the health or safety of any State or political subdivision thereof, or the national security of the United States, such as—
</P>
<P>(i) Facilities engaged in the production, transmission, or distribution of electric or nuclear power,
</P>
<P>(ii) Public water supply facilities,
</P>
<P>(iii) Shipments or storage of radioactive or other toxic waste materials, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Public transportation; or
</P>
<P>(2) Currency, negotiable securities, precious commodities or instruments, or proprietary information.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Section 7(e) permits the administration of polygraph tests only to prospective employees. However, security service employers may administer polygraph tests to current employees in connection with an ongoing investigation, subject to the conditions of section 7(d) of the Act and § 801.12 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>prospective employee</I> generally refers to an individual who is not currently employed by and who is being considered for employment by an employer. However, the term “prospective employee” also includes current employees under circumstances similar to those discussed in paragraph (d) of § 801.13 of this part, i.e., if the employee was initially hired for a position which was not within the exemption provided by section 7(e) of the Act, and subsequently applies for, and is under consideration for, transfer to a position for which pre-employment testing is permitted. Thus, for example, a security guard may be hired for a job outside the scope of the exemption's provisions for pre-employment polygraph testing, such as a position at a supermarket. If subsequently this guard is under consideration for transfer or promotion to a job at a nuclear power plant, this currently-employed individual would be considered to be a “prospective employee” for purposes of this exemption, prior to such proposed transfer or promotion. However, any adverse action which is based in part on a polygraph test against a current employee who is considered to be a “prospective employee” for purposes of this exemption may be taken only with respect to the prospective position and may not affect the employee's employment in the current position. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7(e) applies to certain private employers whose “primary business purpose” consists of providing armored car personnel, personnel engaged in the design, installation, and maintenance of security alarm systems, or other uniformed or plainclothes security personnel. Thus, the exemption is limited to firms primarily in the business of providing such security services, and does not apply to firms primarily in some other business who employ their own security personnel. (For example, a utility company which employs its own security personnel could not qualify.) In the case of diversified firms, the term <I>primary business purpose</I> shall mean that at least 50% of the employer's annual dollar volume of business is derived from the provision of the types of security services specifically identified in section 7(e). Where a parent corporation includes a subsidiary corporation engaged in providing security services, the annual dollar volume of business test is applied to the legal entity (or entities) which is the employer, i.e., the subsidiary corporation, not the parent corporation.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) As used in section 7(e)(1)(A), the terms <I>facilities, materials, or operations having a significant impact on the health or safety of any State or political subdivision thereof, or the national security of the United States</I> include protection of electric or nuclear power plants, public water supply facilities, radioactive or other toxic waste shipments or storage, and public transportation. These examples are intended to be illustrative, and not exhaustive. However, the types of “facilities, materials, or operations” within the scope of the exemption are not to be construed so broadly as to include low priority or minor security interests. The “facilities, materials, or operations” in question consist only of those having a “significant impact” on public health or safety, or national security. However, the “facilities, materials, or operations” may be either privately or publicly owned.
</P>
<P>(2) The specific “facilities, materials, or operations” contemplated by this exemption include those against which acts of sabotage, espionage, terrorism, or other hostile, destructive, or illegal acts could significantly impact on the general public's safety or health, or national security. In addition to the specific examples set forth in the Act and in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the terms would include:
</P>
<P>(i) Facilities, materials, and operations owned or leased by Federal, State, or local governments, including instrumentalities or interstate agencies thereof, for which an authorized public official has determined that a need for security exists, as evidenced by the establishment of security requirements utilizing private armored car, security alarm system, or uniformed or plainclothes security personnel, or a combination thereof. Examples of such facilities, materials and operations include:
</P>
<P>(A) Government office buildings;
</P>
<P>(B) Prisons and correction facilities;
</P>
<P>(C) Public schools;
</P>
<P>(D) Public libraries;
</P>
<P>(E) Water supply;
</P>
<P>(F) Military reservations, installations, posts, camps, arsenals, laboratories, Government-owned and contractor operated (GOCO) or Government-owned and Government-operated (GOGO) industrial plants, and other similar facilities subject to the custody, jurisdiction, or administration of any Department of Defense (DOD) component;
</P>
<P>(ii) Commercial and industrial assets and operations which—
</P>
<P>(A) Are protected pursuant to security requirements established in contracts with the United States or other directives by a Federal agency (such as those of defense contractors and researchers), including factories, plants, buildings, or structures used for researching, designing, testing, manufacturing, producing, processing, repairing, assembling, storing, or distributing products or components related to the national defense; or
</P>
<P>(B) Are protected pursuant to security requirements imposed on registrants under the Controlled Substances Act; or
</P>
<P>(C) Would pose a serious threat to public health or safety in the event of a breach of security (this would include, for example, a plant engaged in the manufacture or processing of hazardous materials or chemicals but would not include a plant engaged in the manufacture of shoes);
</P>
<P>(iii) Public and private energy and precious mineral facilities, supplies, and reserves, including—
</P>
<P>(A) Public or private power plants and utilities;
</P>
<P>(B) Oil or gas refineries and storage facilities;
</P>
<P>(C) Strategic petroleum reserves; and
</P>
<P>(D) Major dams, such as those which provide hydroelectric power;
</P>
<P>(iv) Major public or private transportation and communication facilities and operations, including—
</P>
<P>(A) Airports;
</P>
<P>(B) Train terminals, depots, and switching and control facilities;
</P>
<P>(C) Major bridges and tunnels;
</P>
<P>(D) Communications centers, such as receiving and transmission centers, and control centers;
</P>
<P>(E) Transmission and receiving operations for radio, television, and satellite signals; and
</P>
<P>(F) Network computer systems containing data important to public health and safety or national security;
</P>
<P>(v) The Federal Reserve System and stock and commodity exchanges;
</P>
<P>(vi) Hospitals and health research facilities;
</P>
<P>(vii) Large public events, such as political conventions and major parades, concerts, and sporting events; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Large enclosed shopping centers (malls).
</P>
<P>(3) If an employer believes that “facilities, materials, or operations” which are not listed in this subsection fall within the contemplated purview of this exemption, a request for a ruling may be filed with the Administrator. A ruling that such “facilities, materials, or operations” are included within this exemption must be obtained prior to the administration of a polygraph test or any other action prohibited by section 3 of the Act. It is not possible to exhaustively account for all “facilities, materials, or operations” which fall within the purview of section 7(e) (1) (A). While it is likely that additional entities may fall within the exemption's scope, any such “facilities, materials, or operations” must meet the “significant impact” test. Thus, “facilities, materials, or operations” which would be of vital importance during periods of war or civil emergency, or whose sabotage would greatly affect the public health or safety, could fall within the scope of the term “significant impact”.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Section 7(e)(1)(B) of the Act extends the exemption to firms whose function includes protection of “currency, negotiable securities, precious commodities or instruments, or proprietary information”. These terms collectively are construed to include assets primarily handled by financial institutions such as banks, credit unions, savings and loan institutions, stock and commodity exchanges, brokers, or security dealers.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “currency, negotiable securities, precious commodities or instruments or proprietary information” refer to assets which are typically handled by, protected for and transported between and among commercial and financial institutions. Services provided by the armored car industry are thus clearly within the scope of the exemption, as are security alarm and security guard services provided to financial and similar institutions of the type referred to above. Also included are the cash assets handled by casinos, racetracks, lotteries, or other businesses where the cash constitutes the inventory or stock in trade. Similarly, security services provided to businesses engaged in the sale or exchange of precious commodities such as gold, silver, or diamonds, including jewelry stores that stock such precious commodities prior to transformation into pieces of jewelry, are also included. The term “proprietary information” generally refers to business assets such as trade secrets, manufacturing processes, research and development data, and cost/pricing data. Security alarm or guard services provided to protect the premises of private homes, or businesses not primarily engaged in handling, trading, transferring, or storing currency, negotiable securities, precious commodities or instruments, or proprietary information, on the other hand, are normally outside the scope of the exemption. This is true even though such places may physically house some such assets. However, where such security alarm or guard service is specifically designed or limited to the protection of the types of assets identified above, whether located in businesses or residences, or elsewhere, the security services provided are within the scope of the exemption. For example, a security system specially designed to protect diamonds kept in a home vault of a diamond merchant would be within the exemption. However, a security system installed generally to protect the premises of the home of the same merchant would not be within the exemption. A guard sent to a client firm to secure a restricted office in which only proprietary research data is developed and stored is within the scope of the exemption. Another guard sent to the same firm to protect the building entrance from unwanted intruders is not within the scope of the exemption even though the building contains the restricted room in which the proprietary research data is developed and stored, since the security system is not specifically designed to protect the proprietary information.
</P>
<P>(f) An employer who falls within the scope of the exemption is one “whose function includes” protection of “facilities, materials, or operations”, discussed in paragraph (d) of this section or of “currency, negotiable securities, precious commodities or instruments, or proprietary information” discussed in paragraph (e) of this section. Thus, assuming that the employer has met the “primary business purpose” test, as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, the employer's operations then must simply “include” protection of at least one of the facilities within the scope of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Section 7(e)(2) provides that the exemption shall not apply if a polygraph test is administered to a prospective employee who would not be employed to protect the “facilities, materials, operations, or assets” referred to in section 7(e)(1) of the Act, and discussed in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. Thus, while the exemption applies to employers whose function “includes” protection of certain facilities, employers would not be permitted to administer polygraph tests to prospective employees who are not being employed to protect such functions.
</P>
<P>(2) The phrase “employed to protect” in section 7(e)(2) has reference to a wide spectrum of prospective employees in the security industry, and includes any job applicant who would likely protect the security of any qualifying “facilities, materials, operations, or assets.”
</P>
<P>(3) In many cases, it will be readily apparent that certain positions within security companies would, by virtue of the individual's official job duties, entail “protection”. For example, armored car drivers and guards, security guards, and alarm system installers and maintenance personnel all would be employed to protect in the most direct and literal sense of the term.
</P>
<P>(4) The scope of the exemption is not limited, however, to those security personnel having direct, physical access to the facilities being protected. Various support personnel may also, as a part of their job duties, have access to the process of providing security services due to the position's exposure to knowledge of security plans and operations, employee schedules, delivery schedules, and other such activities. Where a position entails the opportunity to cause or participate in a breach of security, an employee to be hired for the position would also be deemed to be “employed to protect” the facility.
</P>
<P>(i) For example, in the armored car industry, the duties of personnel other than guards and drivers may include taking customer orders for currency and commodity transfers, issuing security badges to guards, coordinating routes of travel and times for pick-up and delivery, issuing access codes to customers, route planning and other sensitive responsibilities. Similarly, in the security alarm industry, several types of employees would have access to the process of providing security services, such as designers of security systems, system monitors, service technicians, and billing clerks (where they review the system design drawings to ensure proper customer billing). In the security industry, generally, administrative employees may have access to customer accounts, schedules, information relating to alarm system failures, and other security information, such as security employee absences due to illness that create “holes” in a security plan. Employees of this type are a part of the overall security services provided by the employer. Such employees possess the ability to affect, on an opportunistic basis, the security of protected operations, by virtue of the knowledge gained through their job duties.
</P>
<P>(ii) On the other hand, there are certainly some types of employees in the security industry who “would not be employed to protect” the facilities or assets within the purview of the exemption, and who would not be in the process of providing exempt security services. For example, custodial and maintenance employees typically would not have access, either directly or indirectly as a part of their job duties, to the operations or clients of the employer. Any employee whose “access” to secured areas or to sensitive information is on a controlled basis, such as by escort, would also be outside the scope of the exemption. In cases where security service companies also provide janitorial, food and beverage, or other services unrelated to security, the exemption would clearly not extend to any employee considered for employment in such activity.
</P>
<P>(5) The phrase “employed to protect” includes any job applicant who, if not hired specifically to protect the listed facilities or assets, would likely be so employed, as through a systematic assignment process, such as rotation of work assignments or selection from a pool of available employees, even if selection for such work is unpredictable or infrequent. A prospective employee whose job assignment to perform qualifying protective functions would be made by selection from a pool of available employees (all of whom have an equal chance of being selected), or an employee who is to be rotated through different job assignments which include some qualifying protective functions, is included within the exemption. However, if there is only a remote possibility that a prospective employee, if hired, would perform exempt protective functions, such as on an emergency basis, or if a prospective employee by reason of his or her position, qualifications, or level of experience or for other reasons, would when hired, not ordinarily be assigned to protect qualifying facilities, such an employee would be deemed to have not been hired to protect such facilities and would be excluded from the exemption.
</P>
<P>(h) Polygraph tests administered pursuant to this exemption are subject to the limitations set forth in sections 8 and 10 of the Act, as discussed in §§ 801.21, 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, 801.25, 801.26, and 801.35 of this part. As provided in these sections, the exemption will apply only if certain requirements are met. Failure to satisfy any of the specified requirements nullifies the statutory authority for polygraph test administration and may subject the employer to the assessment of civil money penalties and other remedial actions, as provided for in section 6 of the Act (see subpart E, § 801.42 of this part). The administration of such tests is also subject to State or local laws, or collective bargaining agreements, which may either prohibit lie detectors test, or contain more restrictive provisions with respect to polygraph testing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Restrictions on Polygraph Usage Under Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.20" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.3.482.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.20   Adverse employment action under ongoing investigation exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 8(a) (1) of the Act provides that the limited exemption in section 7(d) of the Act and § 801.12 of this part for ongoing investigations shall not apply if an employer discharges, disciplines, denies employment or promotion or otherwise discriminates in any manner against a current employee based upon the analysis of a polygraph test chart or the refusal to take a polygraph test, without additional supporting evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) “Additional supporting evidence”, for purposes of section 8(a) of the Act, includes, but is not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Evidence indicating that the employee had access to the missing or damaged property that is the subject of an ongoing investigation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evidence leading to the employer's reasonable suspicion that the employee was involved in the incident or activity under investigation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Admissions or statements made by an employee before, during or following a polygraph examination.
</P>
<P>(c) Analysis of a polygraph test chart or refusal to take a polygraph test may not serve as a basis for adverse employment action, even with additional supporting evidence, unless the employer observes all the requirements of sections 7(d) and 8(b) of the Act, as described in §§ 801.12, 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, and 801.25 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.21" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.3.482.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.21   Adverse employment action under security service and controlled substance exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 8(a) (2) of the Act provides that the security service exemption in section 7(e) of the Act and § 801.14 of this part and the controlled substance exemption in section 7(f) of the Act and § 801.13 of this part shall not apply if an employer discharges, disciplines, denies employment or promotion, or otherwise discriminates in any manner against a current employee or prospective employee based solely on the analysis of a polygraph test chart or the refusal to take a polygraph test.
</P>
<P>(b) Analysis of a polygraph test chart or refusal to take a polygraph test may serve as one basis for adverse employment actions of the type described in paragraph (a) of this section, provided that the adverse action was also based on another bona fide reason, with supporting evidence therefor. For example, traditional factors such as prior employment experience, education, job performance, etc. may be used as a basis for employment decisions. Employment decisions based on admissions or statements made by an employee or prospective employee before, during or following a polygraph examination may, likewise, serve as a basis for such decisions.
</P>
<P>(c) Analysis of a polygraph test chart or the refusal to take a polygraph test may not serve as a basis for adverse employment action, even with another legitimate basis for such action, unless the employer observes all the requirements of section 7 (e) or (f) of the Act, as appropriate, and section 8(b) of the Act, as described in §§ 801.13, 801.14, 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, and 801.25 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.22" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.3.482.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.22   Rights of examinee—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 8(b) of the Act, the limited exemption in section 7(d) of the Act for ongoing investigations, and the security service and controlled substance exemptions in 7(e) and (f) of the Act (described in § 801.12, 801.13, and 801.14 of this part) shall not apply unless all of the requirements set forth in this section and §§ 801.23 through 801.25 of this part are met.
</P>
<P>(b) During all phases of the polygraph testing the person being examined has the following rights:
</P>
<P>(1) The examinee may terminate the test at any time.
</P>
<P>(2) The examinee may not be asked any questions in a degrading or unnecessarily intrusive manner.
</P>
<P>(3) The examinee may not be asked any questions dealing with:
</P>
<P>(i) Religious beliefs or affiliations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Beliefs or opinions regarding racial matters;
</P>
<P>(iii) Political beliefs or affiliations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Sexual preferences or behavior; or
</P>
<P>(v) Beliefs, affiliations, opinions, or lawful activities concerning unions or labor organizations.
</P>
<P>(4) The examinee may not be subjected to a test when there is sufficient written evidence by a physician that the examinee is suffering from any medical or psychological condition or undergoing any treatment that might cause abnormal responses during the actual testing phase. “Sufficient written evidence” shall constitute, at a minimum, a statement by a physician specifically describing the examinee's medical or psychological condition or treatment and the basis for the physician's opinion that the condition or treatment might result in such abnormal responses.
</P>
<P>(5) An employee or prospective employee who exercises the right to terminate the test, or who for medical reasons with sufficient supporting evidence is not administered the test, shall be subject to adverse employment action only on the same basis as one who refuses to take a polygraph test, as described in §§ 801.20 and 801.21 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Any polygraph examination shall consist of one or more pretest phases, actual testing phases, and post-test phases, which must be conducted in accordance with the rights of examinees described in §§ 801.23 through 801.25 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.23" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.3.482.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.23   Rights of examinee—pretest phase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The pretest phase consists of the questioning and other preparation of the prospective examinee before the actual use of the polygraph instrument. During the initial pretest phase, the examinee must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided with written notice, in a language understood by the examinee, as to when and where the examination will take place and that the examinee has the right to consult with counsel or an employee representative before each phase of the test. Such notice shall be received by the examinee at least forty-eight hours, excluding weekend days and holidays, before the time of the examination, except that a prospective employee may, at the employee's option, give written consent to administration of a test anytime within 48 hours but no earlier than 24 hours after receipt of the written notice. The written notice or proof of service must set forth the time and date of receipt by the employee or prospective employee and be verified by his or her signature. The purpose of this requirement is to provide a sufficient opportunity prior to the examination for the examinee to consult with counsel or an employee representative. Provision shall also be made for a convenient place on the premises where the examination will take place at which the examinee may consult privately with an attorney or an employee representative before each phase of the test. The attorney or representative may be excluded from the room where the examination is administered during the actual testing phase.
</P>
<P>(2) Informed orally and in writing of the nature and characteristics of the polygraph instrument and examination, including an explanation of the physical operation of the polygraph instrument and the procedure used during the examination.
</P>
<P>(3) Provided with a written notice prior to the testing phase, in a language understood by the examinee, which shall be read to and signed by the examinee. Use of appendix A to this part, if properly completed, will constitute compliance with the contents of the notice requirement of this paragraph. If a format other than in appendix A is used, it must contain at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether or not the polygraph examination area contains a two-way mirror, a camera, or other device through which the examinee may be observed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether or not any other device, such as those used in conversation or recording will be used during the examination;
</P>
<P>(iii) That both the examinee and the employer have the right, with the other's knowledge, to make a recording of the entire examination;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the examinee has the right to terminate the test at any time;
</P>
<P>(v) That the examinee has the right, and will be given the opportunity, to review all questions to be asked during the test;
</P>
<P>(vi) That the examinee may not be asked questions in a manner which degrades, or needlessly intrudes;
</P>
<P>(vii) That the examinee may not be asked any questions concerning religious beliefs or opinions; beliefs regarding racial matters; political beliefs or affiliations; matters relating to sexual behavior; beliefs, affiliations, opinions, or lawful activities regarding unions or labor organizations;
</P>
<P>(viii) That the test may not be conducted if there is sufficient written evidence by a physician that the examinee is suffering from a medical or psychological condition or undergoing treatment that might cause abnormal responses during the examination;
</P>
<P>(ix) That the test is not and cannot be required as a condition of employment;
</P>
<P>(x) That the employer may not discharge, dismiss, discipline, deny employment or promotion, or otherwise discriminate against the examinee based on the analysis of a polygraph test, or based on the examinee's refusal to take such a test, without additional evidence which would support such action;
</P>
<P>(xi)(A) In connection with an ongoing investigation, that the additional evidence required for the employer to take adverse action against the examinee, including termination, may be evidence that the examinee had access to the property that is the subject of the investigation, together with evidence supporting the employer's reasonable suspicion that the examinee was involved in the incident or activity under investigation;
</P>
<P>(B) That any statement made by the examinee before or during the test may serve as additional supporting evidence for an adverse employment action, as described in paragraph (a)(3)(x) of this section, and that any admission of criminal conduct by the examinee may be transmitted to an appropriate government law enforcement agency;
</P>
<P>(xii) That information acquired from a polygraph test may be disclosed by the examiner or by the employer only:
</P>
<P>(A) To the examinee or any other person specifically designated in writing by the examinee to receive such information;
</P>
<P>(B) To the employer that requested the test;
</P>
<P>(C) To a court, governmental agency, arbitrator, or mediator pursuant to a court order;
</P>
<P>(D) To a U.S. Department of Labor official when specifically designated in writing by the examinee to receive such information;
</P>
<P>(E) By the employer, to an appropriate governmental agency without a court order where, and only insofar as, the information disclosed is an admission of criminal conduct;
</P>
<P>(xiii) That if any of the examinee's rights or protections under the law are violated, the examinee has the right to file a complaint with the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor, or to take action in court against the employer. Employers who violate this law are liable to the affected examinee, who may recover such legal or equitable relief as may be appropriate, including, but not limited to, employment, reinstatement, and promotion, payment of lost wages and benefits, and reasonable costs, including attorney's fees. The Secretary of Labor may also bring action to obtain compliance with the Act, and may assess civil money penalties against the employer;
</P>
<P>(xiv) That the examinee has the right to obtain and consult with legal counsel or other representative before each phase of the test, although the legal counsel or representative may be excluded from the room where the test is administered during the actual testing phase.
</P>
<P>(xv) That the employee's rights under the Act may not be waived, either voluntarily or involuntarily, by contract or otherwise, except as part of a written settlement to a pending action or complaint under the Act, agreed to and signed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(b) During the initial or any subsequent pretest phases, the examinee must be given the opportunity, prior to the actual testing phase, to review all questions in writing that the examiner will ask during each testing phase. Such questions may be presented at any point in time prior to the testing phase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.24" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.3.482.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.24   Rights of examinee—actual testing phase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The actual testing phase refers to that time during which the examiner administers the examination by using a polygraph instrument with respect to the examinee and then analyzes the charts derived from the test. Throughout the actual testing phase, the examiner shall not ask any question that was not presented in writing for review prior to the testing phase. An examiner may, however, recess the testing phase and return to the pre-test phase to review additional relevant questions with the examinee. In the case of an ongoing investigation, the examiner shall ensure that all relevant questions (as distinguished from technical baseline questions) pertain to the investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) No testing period subject to the provisions of the Act shall be less than ninety minutes in length. Such “test period” begins at the time that the examiner begins informing the examinee of the nature and characteristics of the examination and the instruments involved, as prescribed in section 8(b) (2)(B) of the Act and § 801.23 (a)(2) of this part, and ends when the examiner completes the review of the test results with the examinee as provided in § 801.25 of this part. The ninety-minute minimum duration shall not apply if the examinee voluntarily acts to terminate the test before the completion thereof, in which event the examiner may not render an opinion regarding the employee's truthfulness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.25" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.3.482.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.25   Rights of examinee—post-test phase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The post-test phase refers to any questioning or other communication with the examinee following the use of the polygraph instrument, including review of the results of the test with the examinee. Before any adverse employment action, the employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Further interview the examinee on the basis of the test results; and
</P>
<P>(2) Give to the examinee a written copy of any opinions or conclusions rendered in response to the test, as well as the questions asked during the test, with the corresponding charted responses. The term “corresponding charted responses” refers to copies of the entire examination charts recording the employee's physiological responses, and not just the examiner's written report which describes the examinee's responses to the questions as “charted” by the instrument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.26" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.3.482.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.26   Qualifications of and requirements for examiners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 8 (b) and (c) of the Act provides that the limited exemption in section 7(d) of the Act for ongoing investigations, and the security service and controlled substances exemptions in section 7 (e) and (f) of the Act, shall not apply unless the person conducting the polygraph examination meets specified qualifications and requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) An examiner must meet the following qualifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a valid current license, if required by the State in which the test is to be conducted; and
</P>
<P>(2) Carry a minimum bond of $50,000 provided by a surety incorporated under the laws of the United States or of any State, which may under those laws guarantee the fidelity of persons holding positions of trust, or carry an equivalent amount of professional liability coverage.
</P>
<P>(c) An examiner must also, with respect to examinees identified by the employer pursuant to § 801.30(c) of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Observe all rights of examinees, as set out in §§ 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, and 801.25 of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Administer no more than five polygraph examinations in any one calendar day on which a test or tests subject to the provisions of EPPA are administered, not counting those instances where an examinee voluntarily terminates an examination prior to the actual testing phase;
</P>
<P>(3) Administer no polygraph examination subject to the provisions of the Act which is less than ninety minutes in duration, as described in § 801.24(b) of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Render any opinion or conclusion regarding truthfulness or deception in writing. Such opinion or conclusion must be based solely on the polygraph test results. The written report shall not contain any information other than admissions, information, case facts, and interpretation of the charts relevant to the stated purpose of the polygraph test and shall not include any recommendation concerning the employment of the examinee; and
</P>
<P>(5) Maintain all opinions, reports, charts, written questions, lists, and other records relating to the test, including statements signed by examinees advising them of rights under the Act (as described in § 801.23 (a)(3) of this part) and any electronic recordings of examinations, for at least three years from the date of the administration of the test. (See § 801.30 of this part for recordkeeping requirements.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Recordkeeping and Disclosure Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.30" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.4.482.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.30   Records to be preserved for 3 years.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following records shall be kept for a minimum period of three years from the date the polygraph examination is conducted (or from the date the examination is requested if no examination is conducted):
</P>
<P>(1) Each employer who requests an employee to submit to a polygraph examination in connection with an ongoing investigation involving economic loss or injury shall retain a copy of the statement that sets forth the specific incident or activity under investigation and the basis for testing that particular employee, as required by section 7(d)(4) of the Act and described in § 801.12 (a)(4) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Each employer who administers a polygraph examination under the exemption provided by section 7(f) of the Act (described in § 801.13 of this part) in connection with an ongoing investigation of criminal or other misconduct involving, or potentially involving, loss or injury to the manufacture, distribution or dispensing of a controlled substance, shall retain records specifically identifying the loss or injury in question and the nature of the employee's access to the person or property that is the subject of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) Each employer who requests an employee or prospective employee to submit to a polygraph examination pursuant to any of the exemptions under section 7(d), (e) or (f) of the Act (described in §§ 801.12, 801.13, and 801.14) shall retain a copy of the written statement that sets forth the time and place of the examination and the examinee's right to consult with counsel, as required by section 8 (b)(2)(A) of the Act and described in § 801.23(a)(1) of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Each employer shall identify in writing to the examiner persons to be examined pursuant to any of the exemptions under section 7 (d), (e) or (f) of the Act (described in §§ 801.12, 801.13, and 801.14 of this part), and shall retain a copy of such notice.
</P>
<P>(5) Each employer who retains an examiner to administer examinations pursuant to any of the exemptions under section 7 (d), (e) or (f) of the Act (described in §§ 801.12, 801.13, and 801.14 of this part) shall maintain copies of all opinions, reports or other records furnished to the employer by the examiner relating to such examinations.
</P>
<P>(6) Each examiner retained to administer examinations to persons identified by employers under paragraph (a)(4) of this section shall maintain all opinions, reports, charts, written questions, lists, and other records relating to polygraph tests of such persons. In addition, the examiner shall maintain records of the number of examinations conducted during each day in which one or more tests are conducted pursuant to the Act, and, with regard to tests administered to persons identified by their employer under paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the duration of each test period, as defined in § 801.24(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Each employer shall keep the records required by this part safe and accessible at the place or places of employment or at one or more established central recordkeeping offices where employment records are customarily maintained. If the records are maintained at a central recordkeeping office, other than in the place or places of employment, such records shall be made available within 72 hours following notice from the Secretary or an authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(c) Each examiner shall keep the records required by this part safe and accessible at the place or places of business or at one or more established central recordkeeping offices where examination records are customarily maintained. If the records are maintained at a central recordkeeping office, other than in the place or places of business, such records shall be made available within 72 hours following notice from the Secretary or an authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(d) All records shall be available for inspection and copying by the Secretary or an authorized representative. Information for which disclosure is restricted under section 9 of the Act and § 801.35 of this part shall be made available to the Secretary or the Secretary's representative where the examinee has designated the Secretary, in writing, to receive such information, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1235-0005)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991, as amended at 82 FR 2230, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.35" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.4.482.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.35   Disclosure of test information.</HEAD>
<P>Section 9 of the Act prohibits the unauthorized disclosure of any information obtained during a polygraph test by any person, other than the examinee, directly or indirectly, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) A polygraph examiner or an employer (other than an employer exempt under section 7 (a), (b), or (c) of the Act (described in §§ 801.10 and 801.11 of this part)) may disclose information acquired from a polygraph test only to:
</P>
<P>(1) The examinee or an individual specifically designated in writing by the examinee to receive such information;
</P>
<P>(2) The employer that requested the polygraph test pursuant to the provisions of this Act (including management personnel of the employer where the disclosure is relevant to the carrying out of their job responsibilities);
</P>
<P>(3) Any court, governmental agency, arbitrator, or mediator pursuant to an order from a court of competent jurisdiction requiring the production of such information;
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary of Labor, or the Secretary's representative, when specifically designated in writing by the examinee to receive such information.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer may disclose information from the polygraph test at any time to an appropriate governmental agency without the need of a court order where, and only insofar as, the information disclosed is an admission of criminal conduct.
</P>
<P>(c) A polygraph examiner may disclose test charts, without identifying information (but not other examination materials and records), to another examiner(s) for examination and analysis, provided that such disclosure is for the sole purpose of consultation and review of the initial examiner's opinion concerning the indications of truthfulness or deception. Such action would not constitute disclosure under this part provided that the other examiner has no direct or indirect interest in the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.40" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.5.482.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.40   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Secretary believes that the provisions of the Act or these regulations have been violated, such action shall be taken and such proceedings instituted as deemed appropriate, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Petitioning any appropriate District Court of the United States for temporary or permanent injunctive relief to restrain violation of the provisions of the Act or this part by any person, and to require compliance with the Act and this part, including such legal or equitable relief incident thereto as may be appropriate, including, but not limited to, employment, reinstatement, promotion, and the payment of lost wages and benefits;
</P>
<P>(2) Assessing a civil penalty against any employer who violates any provision of the Act or this part in an amount of not more than $10,000 for each violation, in accordance with regulations set forth in this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) Referring any unpaid civil money penalty which has become a final and unappealable order of the Secretary or a final judgment of a court in favor of the Secretary to the Attorney General for recovery.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any employer who violates this Act shall be liable to the employee or prospective employee affected by such violation for such legal or equitable relief as may be appropriate, including, but not limited to, employment, reinstatement, promotion, and the payment of lost wages and benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) An action under this subsection may be maintained against the employer in any Federal or State court of competent jurisdiction by an employee or prospective employee for or on behalf of such employee, prospective employee and others similarly situated. Such action must be commenced within a period not to exceed 3 years after the date of the alleged violation. The court, in its discretion, may allow reasonable costs (including attorney's fees) to the prevailing party.
</P>
<P>(c) The taking of any one of the actions referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall not be a bar to the concurrent taking of any other appropriate action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.41" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.5.482.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.41   Representation of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in section 518(a) of title 28, U.S. Code, relating to litigation before the Supreme Court, the Solicitor of Labor may appear for and represent the Secretary in any civil litigation brought under section 6 of the Act, as described in § 801.40 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Solicitor of Labor, through authorized representatives, shall represent the Administrator in all administrative hearings under the provisions of section 6 of the Act and this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.42" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.5.482.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.42   Civil money penalties—assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A civil money penalty in an amount not to exceed $26,262 for any violation may be assessed against any employer for:
</P>
<P>(1) Requiring, requesting, suggesting or causing an employee or prospective employee to take a lie detector test or using, accepting, referring to or inquiring about the results of any lie detector test of any employee or prospective employee, other than as provided in the Act or this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Taking an adverse action or discriminating in any manner against any employee or prospective employee on the basis of the employee's or prospective employee's refusal to take a lie detector test, other than as provided in the Act or this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Discriminating or retaliating against an employee or prospective employee for the exercise of any rights under the Act;
</P>
<P>(4) Disclosing information obtained during a polygraph test, except as authorized by the Act or this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Failing to maintain the records required by the Act or this part;
</P>
<P>(6) Resisting, opposing, impeding, intimidating, or interfering with an official of the Department of Labor during the performance of an investigation, inspection, or other law enforcement function under the Act or this part; or
</P>
<P>(7) Violating any other provision of the Act or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the amount of penalty to be assessed for any violation of the Act or this part, the Administrator will consider the previous record of the employer in terms of compliance with the Act and regulations, the gravity of the violations, and other pertinent factors. The matters which may be considered include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Previous history of investigation(s) or violation(s) of the Act or this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of employees or prospective employees affected by the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(3) The seriousness of the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(4) Efforts made in good faith to comply with the provisions of the Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(5) If the violations resulted from the actions or inactions of an examiner, the steps taken by the employer to ensure the examiner complied with the Act and the regulations in this part, and the extent to which the employer could reasonably have foreseen the examiner's actions or inactions;
</P>
<P>(6) The explanation of the employer, including whether the violations were the result of a bona fide dispute of doubtful legal certainty;
</P>
<P>(7) The extent to which the employee(s) or prospective employee(s) suffered loss or damage;
</P>
<P>(8) Commitment to future compliance, taking into account the public interest and whether the employer has previously violated the provisions of the Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991, as amended at 81 FR 43452, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 5382, Jan. 18, 2017; 83 FR 13, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 219, Jan. 23, 2019; 85 FR 2298, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2969, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 2335, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2217, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1817, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1861, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.43" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.5.482.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.43   Civil money penalties—payment and collection.</HEAD>
<P>Where the assessment is directed in a final order of the Department, the amount of the penalty is immediately due and payable to the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>The person assessed such penalty shall remit promptly the amount thereof, as finally determined, to the Secretary. Payment shall be made by certified check or money order made payable and delivered or mailed according to the instructions provided by the Department; through the electronic pay portal located at <I>www.pay.gov</I> or any successor system; or by any additional payment method deemed acceptable by the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59931, Nov. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="482" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.482" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.482.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.50   Applicability of procedures and rules.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures and rules contained in this subpart prescribe the administrative process for assessment of civil money penalties for violations of the Act or of these regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="483" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.483" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Relating to Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.51" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.483.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.51   Written notice of determination required.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Administrator determines to assess a civil money penalty for a violation of the Act or this part, the person against whom such penalty is assessed shall be notified in writing of such determination. Such notice shall be served in person or by certified mail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.52" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.483.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.52   Contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>The notice required by § 801.51 of this part shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Set forth the determination of the Administrator and the reason or reasons therefor;
</P>
<P>(b) Set forth a description of each violation and the amount assessed for each violation;
</P>
<P>(c) Set forth the right to request a hearing on such determination;
</P>
<P>(d) Inform any affected person or persons that in the absence of a timely request for a hearing, the determination of the Administrator shall become final and unappealable; and
</P>
<P>(e) Set forth the time and method for requesting a hearing, and the procedures relating thereto, as set forth in § 801.53 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.53" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.483.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.53   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person desiring to request an administrative hearing on a civil money penalty assessment pursuant to this part shall make such request in writing to the official who issued the determination at the Wage and Hour Division address appearing on the determination notice, no later than 30 days after the date of receipt of the notice referred to in § 801.51 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The request for hearing must be received by the Administrator at the address set forth in the notice issued pursuant to § 801.52 of this part, within the time set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. For the affected person's protection, if the request is by mail, it should be by certified mail, return receipt requested.
</P>
<P>(c) No particular form is prescribed for any request for hearing permitted by this subpart. However, any such request shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be typewritten or legibly written;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the issue or issues stated in the notice of determination giving rise to such request;
</P>
<P>(3) State the specific reason or reasons why the person requesting the hearing believes such determination is in error;
</P>
<P>(4) Be signed by the person making the request or by an authorized representative of such person; and
</P>
<P>(5) Include the address at which such person or authorized representative desires to receive further communications relating thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 46531, Sept. 7, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="484" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.484" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Rules of Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.58" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.484.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.58   General.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this subpart, and to the extent they do not conflict with the provisions of this subpart, the “Rules of Practice and Procedure for Administrative Hearings Before the Office of Administrative Law Judges” established by the Secretary at 29 CFR part 18 shall apply to administrative proceedings under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.59" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.484.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.59   Service and computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of documents under this subpart shall be made by personal service to the individual, officer of a corporation, or attorney of record or by mailing the determination to the last known address of the individual, officer, or attorney. If done by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If done by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by addressee.
</P>
<P>(b) Two (2) copies of all pleadings and other documents required for any administrative proceeding provided by this part shall be served on the attorneys for the Department of Labor. One copy shall be served on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, Office of the Solicitor, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210, and one copy on the Attorney representing the Department in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Time will be computed beginning with the day following the action and includes the last day of the period unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or federally-observed holiday, in which case the time period includes the next business day.
</P>
<P>(d) When a request for hearing is served by mail, five (5) days shall be added to the prescribed period during which the party has the right to request a hearing on the determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.60" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.484.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.60   Commencement of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Each administrative proceeding permitted under the Act and these regulations shall be commenced upon receipt of a timely request for hearing filed in accordance with § 801.53 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.61" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.484.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.61   Designation of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each administrative proceeding instituted under the Act and this part shall be identified of record by a number preceded by the year and the letters “EPPA”.
</P>
<P>(b) The number, letter, and designation assigned to each such proceeding shall be clearly displayed on each pleading, motion, brief, or other formal document filed and docketed of record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.62" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.484.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.62   Caption of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each administrative proceeding instituted under the Act and this part shall be captioned in the name of the person requesting such hearing, and shall be styled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In Matter of __________, Respondent.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) For the purposes of administrative proceedings under the Act and this part the “Secretary of Labor” shall be identified as plaintiff and the person requesting such hearing shall be named as respondent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="485" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.485" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Referral for Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.63" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.485.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.63   Referral to Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing filed pursuant to and in accordance with § 801.53 of this part, the Administrator, by the Associate Solicitor for the Division of Fair Labor Standards or by the Regional Solicitor for the Region in which the action arose, shall by Order of Reference, promptly refer a copy of the notice of administrative determination complained of, and the original or a duplicate copy of the request for hearing signed by the person requesting such hearing or the authorized representative of such person, to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, for a determination in an administrative proceeding as provided herein. The notice of administrative determination and request for hearing shall be filed of record in the Office of the Chief Administrative Law Judge and shall, respectively, be given the effect of a complaint and answer thereto for purposes of the administrative proceeding, subject to any amendment that may be permitted under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the Order of Reference, together with a copy of this part, shall be served by counsel for the Secretary upon the person requesting the hearing, in the manner provided in 29 CFR 18.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.64" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.485.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.64   Notice of docketing.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly notify the parties of the docketing of each matter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="486" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.486" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Before Administrative Law Judge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.65" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.486.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.65   Appearances; representation of the Department of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>The Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, or Regional Solicitor shall represent the Department in any proceeding under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.66" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.486.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.66   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding under this part, but prior to the reception of evidence in any such proceeding, a party may move to defer the receipt of any evidence for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such deferment and the duration thereof shall be at the discretion of the Administrative Law Judge, after consideration of the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of an agreement being reached which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice of administrative determination (or amended notice, if one is filed), and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the Administrative Law Judge; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into, in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their authorized representatives or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement for consideration by the Administrative Law Judge; or
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the Administrative Law Judge that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event an agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the Administrative Law Judge, within thirty (30) days thereafter, shall, if satisfied with its form and substance, accept such agreement by issuing a decision based upon the agreed findings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.67" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.486.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.67   Decision and Order of Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Law Judge shall prepare, as promptly as practicable after the expiration of the time set for filing proposed findings and related papers, a decision on the issues referred by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be limited to a determination whether the respondent has violated the Act or these regulations and the appropriateness of the remedy or remedies imposed by the Secretary. The Administrative Law Judge shall not render determinations on the legality of a regulatory provision or the constitutionality of a statutory provision.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge, for purposes of the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504), shall be limited to determinations of attorney fees and/or other litigation expenses in adversary proceedings requested pursuant to § 801.53 of this part which involve the imposition of a civil money penalty assessed for a violation of the Act or this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall include a statement of findings and conclusions, with reasons and basis therefor, upon each material issue presented on the record. The decision shall also include an appropriate order which may be to affirm, deny, reverse, or modify, in whole or in part, the determination of the Secretary. The reason or reasons for such order shall be stated in the decision.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrative Law Judge shall serve copies of the decision on each of the parties.
</P>
<P>(f) If any party desires review of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge, a petition for issuance of a Notice of Intent shall be filed in accordance with § 801.69 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall constitute the final order of the Secretary unless the Secretary, pursuant to § 801.70 of this subpart issues a Notice of Intent to Modify or Vacate the Decision and Order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="487" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.487" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Modification or Vacation of Decision and Order of Administrative Law Judge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.68" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.487.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.68   Authority of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may modify or vacate the Decision and Order of the Administrative Law Judge whenever the Secretary concludes that the Decision and Order:
</P>
<P>(1) Is inconsistent with a policy or precedent established by the Department of Labor;
</P>
<P>(2) Encompasses determinations not within the scope of the authority of the Administrative Law Judge;
</P>
<P>(3) Awards attorney fees and/or other litigation expenses pursuant to the Equal Access to Justice Act which are unjustified or excessive; or
</P>
<P>(4) Otherwise warrants modifying or vacating.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary may modify or vacate a finding of fact only where the Secretary determines that the finding is clearly erroneous.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.69" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.487.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.69   Procedures for initiating review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within twenty (20) days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge, the respondent, the Administrator, or any other party desiring review thereof, may file with the Secretary an original and two copies of a petition for issuance of a Notice of Intent as described under § 801.70. The petition shall be in writing and shall contain a concise and plain statement specifying the grounds on which review is sought. A copy of the Decision and Order of the Administrative Law Judge shall be attached to the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of the petition shall be served upon all parties to the proceeding and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.70" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.487.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.70   Implementation by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Review of the Decision and Order by the Secretary shall not be a matter of right but of the sound discretion of the Secretary. At any time within 30 days after the issuance of the Decision and Order of the Administrative Law Judge the Secretary may, upon the Secretary's own motion or upon the acceptance of a party's petition, issue a Notice of Intent to modify or vacate the Decision and Order in question.
</P>
<P>(b) The Notice of Intent to Modify or Vacate a Decision and Order shall specify the issue or issues to be considered, the form in which submission shall be made (<I>i.e.</I>, briefs, oral argument, etc.), and the time within which such presentation shall be submitted. The Secretary shall closely limit the time within which the briefs must be filed or oral presentations made, so as to avoid unreasonable delay.
</P>
<P>(c) The Notice of Intent shall be issued within thirty (30) days after the date of the Decision and Order in question.
</P>
<P>(d) Service of the Notice of Intent shall be made upon each party to the proceeding, and upon the Chief Administrative Law Judge, in person or by certified mail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.71" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.487.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.71   Filing and service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Filing. All documents submitted to the Secretary shall be filed with the Secretary of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) Number of copies. An original and two copies of all documents shall be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) Computation of time for delivery by mail. Documents are not deemed filed with the Secretary until actually received by the Secretary. All documents, including documents filed by mail, must be received by the Secretary either on or before the due date. No additional time shall be added where service of a document requiring action within a prescribed time thereafter was made by mail.
</P>
<P>(d) Manner and proof of service. A copy of all documents filed with the Secretary shall be served upon all other parties involved in the proceeding. Service under this section shall be by personal delivery or by mail. Service by mail is deemed effected at the time of mailing to the last known address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.72" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.487.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.72   Responsibility of the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of the Secretary's Notice of Intent to Modify or Vacate the Decision and Order of an Administrative Law Judge, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall, within fifteen (15) days, forward a copy of the complete hearing record to the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.73" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.487.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.73   Final decision of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary's final Decision and Order shall be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="488" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.488" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.74" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.488.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.74   Retention of official record.</HEAD>
<P>The official record of every completed administrative hearing provided by this part shall be maintained and filed under the custody and control of the Chief Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 801.75" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.488.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 801.75   Certification of official record.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of timely notice of appeal to a United States District Court of a Decision and Order issued under this part, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly certify and file with the appropriate United States District Court, a full, true, and correct copy of the entire record, including the transcript of proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.54.6.489.23.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 801—Notice to Examinee
</HEAD>
<P>Section 8(b) of the Employee Polygraph Protection Act, and Department of Labor regulations (29 CFR 801.22, 801.23, 801.24, and 801.25) require that you be given the following information before taking a polygraph examination:
</P>
<P>1. (a) The polygraph examination area [does] [does not] contain a two-way mirror, a camera, or other device through which you may be observed.
</P>
<P>(b) Another device, such as those used in conversation or recording, [will] [will not] be used during the examination.
</P>
<P>(c) Both you and the employer have the right, with the other's knowledge, to record electronically the entire examination.
</P>
<P>2. (a) You have the right to terminate the test at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) You have the right, and will be given the opportunity, to review all questions to be asked during the test.
</P>
<P>(c) You may not be asked questions in a manner which degrades, or needlessly intrudes.
</P>
<P>(d) You may not be asked any questions concerning: Religious beliefs or opinions; beliefs regarding racial matters; political beliefs or affiliations; matters relating to sexual preference or behavior; beliefs, affiliations, opinions, or lawful activities regarding unions or labor organizations.
</P>
<P>(e) The test may not be conducted if there is sufficient written evidence by a physician that you are suffering from a medical or psychological condition or undergoing treatment that might cause abnormal responses during the examination.
</P>
<P>(f) You have the right to consult with legal counsel or other representative before each phase of the test, although the legal counsel or other representative may be excluded from the room where the test is administered during the actual testing phase.
</P>
<P>3. (a) The test is not and cannot be required as a condition of employment.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer may not discharge, dismiss, discipline, deny employment or promotion, or otherwise discriminate against you based on the analysis of a polygraph test, or based on your refusal to take such a test without additional evidence which would support such action.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In connection with an ongoing investigation, the additional evidence required for an employer to take adverse action against you, including termination, may be (A) evidence that you had access to the property that is the subject of the investigation, together with (B) the evidence supporting the employer's reasonable suspicion that you were involved in the incident or activity under investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) Any statement made by you before or during the test may serve as additional supporting evidence for an adverse employment action, as described in 3(b) above, and any admission of criminal conduct by you may be transmitted to an appropriate government law enforcement agency.
</P>
<P>4. (a) Information acquired from a polygraph test may be disclosed by the examiner or by the employer only:
</P>
<P>(1) To you or any other person specifically designated in writing by you to receive such information;
</P>
<P>(2) To the employer that requested the test;
</P>
<P>(3) To a court, governmental agency, arbitrator, or mediator that obtains a court order;
</P>
<P>(4) To a U.S. Department of Labor official when specifically designated in writing by you to receive such information.
</P>
<P>(b) Information acquired from a polygraph test may be disclosed by the employer to an appropriate governmental agency without a court order where, and only insofar as, the information disclosed is an admission of criminal conduct.
</P>
<P>5. If any of your rights or protections under the law are violated, you have the right to file a complaint with the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor, or to take action in court against the employer. Employers who violate this law are liable to the affected examinee, who may recover such legal or equitable relief as may be appropriate, including, but not limited to, employment, reinstatement, and promotion, payment of lost wages and benefits, and reasonable costs, including attorney's fees. The Secretary of Labor may also bring action to restrain violations of the Act, or may assess civil money penalties against the employer.
</P>
<P>6. Your rights under the Act may not be waived, either voluntarily or involuntarily, by contract or otherwise, except as part of a written settlement to a pending action or complaint under the Act, and agreed to and signed by the parties.
</P>
<P>I acknowledge that I have received a copy of the above notice, and that it has been read to me.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature)
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9064, Mar. 4, 1991; 56 FR 14469, Apr. 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="810" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 810—HIGH-WAGE COMPONENTS OF THE LABOR VALUE CONTENT REQUIREMENTS UNDER THE UNITED STATES-MEXICO-CANADA AGREEMENT IMPLEMENTATION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>19 U.S.C. 1508(b)(4) and 19 U.S.C. 4535(b); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990); and Pub. L. 114-74 at sec. 701.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 39810, July 1, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.1.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.1   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides the Department of Labor's rules to implement and administer the high-wage components of the labor value content requirements, as provided in the Agreement between the United States of America, the United Mexican States, and Canada, and the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement Implementation Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.1.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The USMCA replaces the 1994 North American Free Trade Agreement. The USMCA Preamble states that the parties to the agreement are resolved to, among other things, “facilitate trade in goods and services between the Parties by preventing, identifying, and eliminating unnecessary technical barriers to trade, enhancing transparency, and promoting good regulatory practices,” and that the Parties are resolved to “promote the protection and enforcement of labor 

rights, the improvement of working conditions, the strengthening of cooperation and the Parties' capacity on labor issues.”
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of the USMCA Implementation Act is to implement the USMCA. Section 202A of the Act, codified at 19 U.S.C. 4532, in part implements Article 7 of the Automotive Appendix. This Article establishes a labor value content requirement for passenger vehicles, light trucks, and heavy trucks, pursuant to which an importer can obtain preferential tariff treatment for a covered vehicle only if it meets certain minimum percentage benchmarks concerning the portion of the vehicle produced by workers who meet certain wage requirements, as described in subparts B, C, and D.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.3" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.1.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.3   Definitions and use of terms.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part—
</P>
<P><I>Administrative law judge.</I> Administrative law judge means a Department of Labor official appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105.
</P>
<P><I>Administrator.</I> Administrator means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, United States Department of Labor, and such authorized representatives as may be designated to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Alternative staging regime.</I> Alternative staging regime means the alternative to the standard staging regime, and provides for a different phase-in of the LVC requirements and additional time to meet those requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Annual purchase value.</I> Annual purchase value, as defined in the Uniform Regulations, means the sum of the values of high-wage materials purchased annually by a producer for use in the production of passenger vehicles, light trucks, or heavy trucks in a plant located in the territory of a USMCA Country.
</P>
<P><I>Automotive Appendix.</I> Automotive Appendix means the Appendix to Annex 4-B of the USMCA.
</P>
<P><I>Automotive good.</I> Automotive good means a covered vehicle or a part, component, or material listed in the Automotive Appendix.
</P>
<P><I>CBP.</I> CBP means United States Customs and Border Protection, including its Commissioner.
</P>
<P><I>Covered vehicle.</I> Covered vehicle means a passenger vehicle, light truck, or heavy truck.
</P>
<P><I>Department.</I> Department means the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>High-wage components of the LVC requirements.</I> High-wage components of the LVC requirements means the high-wage components of material and manufacturing expenditures, information technology expenditures, and assembly expenditures.
</P>
<P><I>LVC.</I> LVC means labor value content.
</P>
<P><I>Plant and/or Facility.</I> These terms are used interchangeably throughout this part and invoke the terms' meanings as found in the USMCA, Uniform Regulations, and applicable CBP guidance and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Producer.</I> Producer means an individual or entity who engages in the production and/or assembly of automotive goods in North America. Except where indicated otherwise, the term “producer” encompasses the terms “importer” and “exporter” and their definitions as found in the Uniform Regulations, CBP regulations, and Appendix 5, Article 5.1 of the USMCA.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary.</I> Secretary means the Secretary of Labor or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Regulations.</I> Uniform Regulations means the regulations agreed upon by the United States of America, the United Mexican States, and Canada, pursuant to Chapter 5, Article 5.16 of the USMCA, regarding, in part, the interpretation, application, and administration of Chapter 4 (Rules of Origin) and Chapter 5 (Origin Procedures) of the USMCA.
</P>
<P><I>USMCA.</I> USMCA means the Agreement between the United States of America, the United Mexican States, and Canada.
</P>
<P><I>USMCA Country(ies).</I> USMCA Country means the United States of America, the United Mexican States, or Canada. USCMA Countries means any combination of the United States of America, the United Mexican States, and Canada. These regulations use these terms interchangeably with the term “North America.”
</P>
<P><I>USMCA Implementation Act.</I> USMCA Implementation Act means the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement Implementation Act, Pub. L. 116-113, 134 Stat. 11 (2020), which is codified at 19 U.S.C. 1508, as amended, and 19 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>WHD.</I> WHD means the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Calculating the High-Wage Component of Material and Manufacturing Expenditures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.100   Scope and purpose of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 202A(e) of the USMCA Implementation Act authorizes the Secretary, in cooperation with the Secretary of the Treasury, to participate in a verification of whether covered vehicle production complies with the high-wage components of the LVC requirements set forth in Article 7 of the Automotive Appendix or, if the producer is subject to the alternative staging regime, under Articles 7 and 8 of the Automotive Appendix. This subpart addresses calculation of the high-wage material and manufacturing expenditures component of the LVC (referred to in the Uniform Regulations as high-wage material and labor expenditures).
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this subpart describe how producers can meet the high-wage-related aspect of the material and manufacturing expenditures component, which concerns whether workers engaged in direct production work at a plant or facility included in a producer's material and manufacturing expenditures calculation earn an average hourly base wage rate of at least US$16 per hour. All other aspects of material and manufacturing expenditures are addressed in the Uniform Regulations and regulations and/or guidance issued by CBP or other federal agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.105   Calculating the average hourly base wage rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The average hourly base wage rate (also referred to in the USMCA as the production wage rate, and in the Uniform Regulations as the average base hourly wage rate) is calculated by dividing the total base wages paid for all hours worked in direct production at a plant or facility by the total number of hours worked in direct production at that plant or facility. The average hourly base wage rate must be at least US$16 per hour for the plant or facility to count toward a producer's LVC obligation.
</P>
<P>(b) The three components of this calculation are computed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Hourly base wage rate</I> is the rate of compensation a worker is paid for each hour worked in direct production.
</P>
<P>(i) Benefits, bonuses, premium payments, incentive pay, overtime premiums, and all other similar payments are excluded from the hourly base wage rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amounts deducted from a worker's pay that are for the benefit of the worker and are reasonable may be included in the hourly base wage rate. The principles in determining whether deductions are for the benefit of the worker and are reasonable, and thus may be included as part of the hourly base wage rate, are explained in more detail in 29 CFR part 531.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hours worked in direct production</I> means all time a worker spends personally involved in the production of passenger vehicles, light trucks, heavy trucks, or parts used in the production of these vehicles at a plant or facility located in a USMCA Country, or directly involved in the set-up, operation, or maintenance of equipment or tools used in the production of those vehicles or parts at that plant or facility. The total number of hours worked in direct production at a plant or facility, as referenced in paragraph (a) of this section, is calculated by adding together hours in direct production (as calculated under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii)) for all workers who perform direct production work at that plant or facility.
</P>
<P>(i) Except for workers described in § 810.130, if at least 85 percent of a worker's total work hours are hours worked in direct production, the worker's total work hours are considered hours worked in direct production, and are included in the average hourly base wage rate calculation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for workers described in § 810.130, if less than 85 percent of a worker's total work hours are hours worked in direct production, only the worker's hours worked in direct production are included in the average hourly base wage rate calculation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total base wages</I> is calculated using a two-step process. First, multiply each worker's hourly base wage rate (for the time period described in paragraph (d) of this section) by that worker's number of hours worked in direct production at that rate (for the same time period). Second, add the values calculated in step one to obtain total base wages paid for all hours worked in direct production at the plant or facility.
</P>
<P>(c) The producer must include all hours worked in direct production at a plant or facility (other than by workers described in § 810.130) when calculating the average hourly base wage rate for that plant or facility. Where a worker is paid by a third party (such as a temporary employment agency), only the wages received by the worker are included in the average hourly base wage rate calculation.
</P>
<P>(d) The producer must elect one of the following periods to calculate the average hourly base wage rate:
</P>
<P>(1) The producer's previous fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(2) The previous calendar year;
</P>
<P>(3) The quarter or month to date in which the vehicle is produced or exported;
</P>
<P>(4) The producer's fiscal year to date in which the vehicle is produced or exported; or
</P>
<P>(5) The calendar year to date in which the vehicle is produced or exported.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.110   Examples of direct production work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Direct production work includes production of passenger vehicles, light trucks, or heavy trucks, or parts for these vehicles, as well as the set-up, operation or maintenance of tools or equipment used in the production of those vehicles and parts. The work may take place on a production line, at a workstation, on the shop floor, or in another production area. Direct production work includes material handling of vehicles or parts; inspections of vehicles or parts, including inspections that are normally categorized as quality control and, for heavy trucks, pre-sale inspections carried out at the place where the vehicle is produced; on-the-job training regarding the execution of a specific production task; and maintaining and ensuring the operation of the production line or production area and the operation of tools and equipment used in the production of vehicles or parts, including the cleaning of the line or production area and the places around it.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for workers described in § 810.130, time spent (by, for example, line supervisors and team leads) providing on-the-job training regarding the execution of a specific production task or relieving a worker in the performance of direct production duties is direct production work. Time spent managing or supervising workers is not direct production work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.115   Paid meal time and paid break time.</HEAD>
<P>Paid meal time and paid break time are counted as direct production work for purposes of determining whether at least 85 percent of a worker's total work hours are hours worked in direct production. However, if less than 85 percent of a worker's total work hours are worked in direct production, paid meal time and paid break time are not included in the average hourly base wage rate calculation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.120" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.120   Part-time, temporary, seasonal, and contract workers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Part-time, temporary, and seasonal workers.</I> Hours of part-time workers, temporary workers, and seasonal workers are treated the same as hours of full-time workers for purposes of calculating the average hourly base wage rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employees.</I> The average hourly base wage rate calculation includes workers' hours regardless of whether the workers have an employment relationship with the producer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.125" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.125   Workers paid on a non-hourly basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If any worker performing direct production work is compensated by a method other than hourly, such as a salary, piece-rate, or day-rate basis, the worker's hourly base wage rate shall be calculated by converting the salary, piece-rate, or day-rate to an hourly equivalent. This hourly equivalent is then multiplied by the number of hours worked in direct production for purposes of calculating the average hourly base wage rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> (1) Where the salary, piece-rate, or day-rate wage is paid to a worker on a weekly or bi-weekly pay period basis, the total salary, piece-rate, or day-rate compensation for that pay period will be divided by the total number of hours worked in the pay period to determine the hourly equivalent.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the salary, piece-rate, or day-rate wage is paid to a worker on a semi-monthly pay period basis, the total salary, piece-rate, or day-rate compensation will be converted to a weekly equivalent by multiplying the compensation by 24 (semi-monthly pay periods in a year) and dividing by 52 (weeks per year). This weekly equivalent will be divided by the total number of hours worked in the week to determine the hourly equivalent.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the salary, piece-rate, or day-rate wage is paid to a worker on a monthly pay period basis, the total salary, piece-rate, or day-rate compensation will be converted to a weekly equivalent by multiplying the compensation by 12 (monthly pay periods in a year) and dividing by 52 (weeks per year). This weekly equivalent will be divided by the total number of hours worked in the week to determine the hourly equivalent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.130" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.130   Executive, Management, Research and Development, Engineering, and Other Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>The average hourly base wage rate does not include any hours worked by:
</P>
<P>(a) Executive or management staff who generally have the authority to make final decisions to hire, fire, promote, transfer and discipline employees;
</P>
<P>(b) Workers engaged in research and development; or
</P>
<P>(c) Engineers, mechanics, or technicians, if such personnel are not responsible for maintaining and ensuring the operation of the production line or tools and equipment used in the production of vehicles or parts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.135" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.135   Interns, students, and trainees.</HEAD>
<P>Hours worked by an intern, student, or trainee who does not have an express or implied compensation agreement with the employer are not considered hours worked in direct production, and therefore are not included in the average hourly base wage rate calculation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.140" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.140   High-wage transportation or related costs for shipping a high-wage part or material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) High-wage transportation or related costs for shipping a high-wage part or material within the USMCA Countries may be used to calculate high-wage material and manufacturing costs if those costs are not otherwise included in the annual purchase value.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are met, the producer may claim in its calculation of high-wage material and manufacturing expenditures high-wage transportation or related costs for shipping a high-wage part or material within the USMCA Countries, for each transportation, logistics, or material handling provider that paid an average hourly base wage rate of at least US$16 per hour to its direct production workers performing these services. Such workers would include drivers and loaders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.145" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.145   Currency exchange.</HEAD>
<P>The high-wage component of material and manufacturing expenditures (and assembly expenditures under § 810.300) is expressed in U.S. dollars—US$16 per hour. Rules governing currency exchange are set forth and addressed in the Uniform Regulations and regulations and/or guidance issued by the Department of the Treasury and/or CBP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.150" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.2.489.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.150   Adjustment of the average hourly base wage rate.</HEAD>
<P>If the USMCA Countries agree to adjust the dollar amount of the average hourly base wage rate requirement, WHD will publish a notice of the adjusted rate in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The regulations in this part will apply with respect to the adjusted rate in the same manner they applied with respect to the US$16 per hour rate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Calculating the High-Wage Technology Expenditures Credit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.3.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.200   High-wage technology expenditures credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A producer may receive a 10 percent credit towards its total LVC requirement by demonstrating that the sum of its annual expenditures in North America on wages for research and development and information technology is equal to or greater than 10 percent of its annual expenditures on production wages in North America. If a producer's annual expenditures in North America on wages for research and development and information technology is less than 10 percent of the producer's annual expenditures in North America on production wages, then the producer is eligible for a credit equal to the actual percentage of the producer's annual expenditures in North America on wages for research and development and information technology as a percentage of its total annual expenditures in North America on production wages.
</P>
<P>(b) The three components of this calculation are computed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual expenditures in North America on wages for research and development</I> means total annual corporate spending in North America on wages for research and development, including prototype development, design, engineering, testing, or certifying operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual expenditures in North America on wages for information technology</I> means total annual corporate spending in North America on wages for information technology, including software development, technology integration, vehicle communications, and information technology support operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Annual expenditures on production wages in North America</I> means total annual corporate spending on wages for production of passenger vehicles, light trucks, and heavy trucks in North America.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Calculating the High-Wage Assembly Expenditures Credit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.4.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.300   High-wage assembly expenditures credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A producer may receive a single credit of five percent towards the total LVC requirement if it demonstrates any one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Operation of (or a long term contract with) a “high-wage” engine assembly plant in North America with a minimum annual production capacity of originating engines;
</P>
<P>(2) Operation of (or a long term contract with) a “high-wage” transmission assembly plant in North America with a minimum annual production capacity of originating transmissions; or
</P>
<P>(3) Operation of (or a long term contract with) a “high-wage” advanced battery assembly plant in North America with a minimum annual production capacity of originating advanced battery packs.
</P>
<P>(b) A plant is “high-wage” for purposes of this section if it has an average hourly base wage rate of at least US$16 per hour for the entire plant. The US$16 per hour average hourly base wage rate for high-wage assembly expenditures credit is determined by calculating the average hourly base wage rate in the same manner as detailed in § 810.105.
</P>
<P>(c) Minimum annual production capacity levels are set forth in the USMCA and in guidance issued by CBP and are outside the Department's authority.
</P>
<P>(d) The definition of “long term contract” is set forth in the Uniform Regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) If a plant used by a producer to satisfy the material and manufacturing expenditures component of the LVC requirement meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, the producer may use that plant to qualify for the high-wage assembly expenditures credit.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Certification Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.400" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.5.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.400   Scope and purpose of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Section 202A(c)(1)(B) of the USMCA Implementation Act requires the Secretary, in consultation with CBP, to ensure that a vehicle producer's LVC certification does not contain omissions or errors before the certification is considered properly filed. The regulations in this subpart describe the scope of the Secretary's review under this statutory provision, and what certification information a vehicle producer submits to CBP related to that review. All matters other than reviewing the high-wage components of the LVC certification for omissions or errors are outside of the Secretary's purview, and are addressed in the Uniform Regulations and regulations and/or guidance issued by CBP or other federal agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.405" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.5.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.405   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To satisfy its certification obligation under section 202A(c)(1)(B)(i) of the USMCA Implementation Act pertaining to the high-wage components of the LVC requirements, WHD will review for omissions or errors the following information relating to the high-wage components of the LVC requirements, which the producer of the covered vehicle (rather than the importer or exporter) submits to CBP.
</P>
<P>(1) The certifying vehicle producer's name, corporate address, Federal Employer Identification Number or alternative unique identification number of the producer's choosing, such as a Business Number (BN) issued by the Canada Revenue Agency, <I>Registro Federal de Contribuyentes</I> (RFC) number issued by Mexico's Tax Administration Service (SAT), Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) number issued by the Global Legal Entity Identifier Foundation (GLEIF), or an identification number issued to the person or enterprise by CBP, and a point of contact for the certifying vehicle producer.
</P>
<P>(2) The vehicle class, model line, and/or other category indicating the motor vehicles covered by the certification.
</P>
<P>(3) The time period the producer of the covered vehicle is using for its LVC calculations. For purposes of calculating the LVC, a producer of the covered vehicle may use any one of the time periods used for calculating the average hourly base wage rate, as described in § 810.105(d).
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address, and Federal Employer Identification Number or alternative unique identification number of the producer's choosing, such as a Business Number (BN) issued by the Canada Revenue Agency, <I>Registro Federal de Contribuyentes</I> (RFC) number issued by Mexico's Tax Administration Service (SAT), Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) number issued by the Global Legal Entity Identifier Foundation (GLEIF), or an identification number issued to the person or enterprise by CBP, for each plant or facility the producer of the covered vehicle is relying on to meet the high-wage material and manufacturing expenditures component of the LVC requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that the average hourly base wage rate, calculated consistent with § 810.105, meets or exceeds US$16 per hour for each plant or facility identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) If applicable, a statement that the producer is using high-wage transportation or related costs to meet the high-wage material and manufacturing expenditures component. If the producer is using high-wage transportation or related costs, the producer must identify the company name, address, and Federal Employer Identification Number or alternative unique identification number of the producer's choosing, such as a Business Number (BN) issued by the Canada Revenue Agency, <I>Registro Federal de Contribuyentes</I> (RFC) number issued by Mexico's Tax Administration Service (SAT), Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) number issued by the Global Legal Entity Identifier Foundation (GLEIF), or an identification number issued to the person or enterprise by CBP, for each company the producer used to calculate its high-wage transportation or related costs.
</P>
<P>(7) If applicable, a statement that the producer is using the high-wage technology expenditures credit to meet the LVC requirements. If the producer is using the high-wage technology expenditures credit, a producer must identify the percentage the producer is claiming as a credit towards the total LVC requirement.
</P>
<P>(8) If applicable, a statement that the producer is using the high-wage assembly expenditures credit to meet the LVC requirements. If the producer is using the high-wage assembly expenditures credit, the producer must identify the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and Federal Employer Identification Number (for U.S. plants) or alternative unique identification number of the producer's choosing, such as a Business Number (BN) issued by the Canada Revenue Agency, <I>Registro Federal de Contribuyentes</I> (RFC) number issued by Mexico's Tax Administration Service (SAT), Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) number issued by the Global Legal Entity Identifier Foundation (GLEIF), or an identification number issued to the person or enterprise by CBP for the assembly plant the producer used to qualify for the high-wage assembly expenditures credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the average hourly base wage rate, calculated consistent with §§ 810.300 and 810.105, meets or exceeds US$16 per hour for the assembly plant used to qualify for the high-wage assembly expenditures credit.
</P>
<P>(b) Producers of covered vehicles must ensure that records are kept of information to support the calculations submitted under paragraphs (a)(5), (7), and (8)(ii). Producers must be able to provide records upon request by the Department, as described in §  810.600(c), but the records may be physically maintained by a supplier or contractor. The Department will accept records directly from a supplier or contractor where, for example, the producer and supplier or contractor have contracted for such an approach.
</P>
<P>(c) This section applies to all producers of covered vehicles during the alternative staging regime period and after the alternative staging regime period ends.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.410" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.5.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.410   Administrator's review for omissions or errors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator will review the information submitted under § 810.405(a) for omissions or errors. If the Administrator determines that the high-wage components of the certification contain no omissions or errors, WHD will notify CBP that the high-wage components of the certification have been properly filed.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Administrator determines that the high-wage components of the certification contain an omission or error, and therefore the certification has not been properly filed, WHD will provide written or electronic notice of the deficiency to CBP. CBP will require the producer of the covered vehicle to respond with a modified certification or otherwise. If, upon review of the response, the Administrator determines that the high-wage components of the certification contain no errors or omissions, WHD will notify CBP that the high-wage components of the certification have been properly filed. If, upon review of the response, the Administrator continues to find an omission or error, or if no response is submitted, WHD will provide written or electronic notification to CBP that the high-wage components of the certification have not been properly filed. The producer may appeal the Administrator's determination pursuant to § 810.700.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Verification of the Labor Value Content's Wage Components</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.500" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.6.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.500   Scope and purpose of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Section 202A(e)(1) of the USMCA Implementation Act gives the Secretary, in conjunction with the Secretary of the Treasury, authority to verify whether a covered vehicle complied with the LVC requirements set forth in Article 7 of the Automotive Appendix, or if the producer is subject to the alternative staging regime, under Articles 7 and 8 of the Automotive Appendix. The Secretary's role in conducting verifications is limited to verifying compliance with the high-wage components of the LVC requirements. All matters other than the high-wage components of the LVC verification are outside of the Secretary's purview and are addressed in the Uniform Regulations and regulations and/or guidance issued by the Department of the Treasury, CBP, or other federal agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.505" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.6.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.505   Scope of verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator may verify, through investigation, whether the producer complied with the high-wage components of any part of the LVC requirements, including material and manufacturing expenditures, technology expenditures, and assembly expenditures. The producer is responsible for all aspects of compliance with the high-wage components of the LVC requirements at its plants and facilities as well as the plants or facilities of the suppliers and contractors listed in the producer's certification.
</P>
<P>(1) For verifications of the wage component of high-wage material and manufacturing expenditures, the Administrator may verify whether the average hourly base wage rate in any plant or facility relied on by the producer in its certification meets the US$16 per hour requirement. If the producer's certification includes transportation or related costs for shipping as part of its LVC calculation, the Administrator may verify whether any transportation, logistics, or material handling provider relied on by the producer in its certification meets the US$16 per hour requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) For verifications of high-wage technology expenditures, the Administrator may verify that a producer properly claimed a credit for annual expenditures on wages for research and development, information technology, and production in North America.
</P>
<P>(3) For verifications of high-wage assembly expenditures, the Administrator may verify whether an engine, transmission, or advanced battery assembly facility that a producer relied on in its certification has an average hourly base wage rate of at least US$16 per hour.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator may, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) Examine, or cause to be examined, upon 30-day notice, any record (including any statement, declaration, document, or electronically generated or machine-readable data) described in the notice with reasonable specificity.
</P>
<P>(2) Request information from any officer, worker, or agent of a producer of automotive goods, as necessary, that may be relevant with respect to whether the production of covered vehicles meets the high-wage components of the LVC requirements set forth in Article 7 of the Automotive Appendix, or if the producer is subject to the alternative staging regime, Articles 7 and 8 of the Automotive Appendix. This information may be obtained under oath, by deposition or otherwise, at the discretion of the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrator is authorized to request and examine records relating to wages, hours, job responsibilities, or any other information in any plant or facility relied on by a producer of covered vehicles to demonstrate that the production of such vehicles by the producer meets the LVC requirements set forth in Article 7 of the Automotive Appendix or, if the producer is subject to the alternative staging regime, Articles 7 and 8 of the Automotive Appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrator will conduct its verification consistent with the timelines set forth in Article 5.9 of the USMCA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.510" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.6.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.510   Notice to a producer that a verification of compliance with labor value content requirements has been initiated.</HEAD>
<P>CBP will notify a producer that a verification of LVC compliance has been initiated, including whether the verification concerns the high-wage components of the producer's LVC certification. This notification applies to verifications of compliance with the LVC referred to the Administrator by CBP, as well as verifications the Administrator has initiated with CBP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.515" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.6.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.515   Conduct of verifications.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator shall conduct verifications as may be appropriate and, in connection therewith, enter and inspect any places, inspect any records and make transcriptions or copies thereof, question any persons, and gather any other information as deemed necessary by the Administrator to determine compliance regarding the matters which are the subject of the verification. Upon request by the Administrator, an employer or other entity whose plant or facility is subject to verification shall make available to the Administrator all records, information, persons, and places that the Administrator deems necessary to copy, transcribe, question, or inspect to determine compliance regarding the matters which are the subject of the verification. In conducting any verifications, the Administrator will coordinate with CBP and other federal agencies (including requesting information from such agencies) as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.520" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.6.489.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.520   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator shall, to the full extent of the law, protect the confidentiality of any person who provides information to the Department in confidence in the course of a verification or otherwise under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.525" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.6.489.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.525   Notice provided to CBP regarding the Administrator's findings.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator will provide verification findings and analysis to CBP, which retains the authority to make the final determination of LVC compliance, based in part on the Administrator's verification findings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.530" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.6.489.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.530   Verification of labor value content compliance for producers subject to alternative staging regime.</HEAD>
<P>The verification procedures outlined in this subpart apply to producers whether or not they are subject to the alternative staging regime, as outlined in Articles 7 and 8 of the Automotive Appendix.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Recordkeeping Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§  810.600" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.7.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§  810.600   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Administrator is authorized by section 206(b)(4)(B) of the USMCA Implementation Act to require a producer to make, keep, and render for examination and inspection, records and supporting documentation related to a producer's certification of compliance with the LVC requirements set forth in Article 7 of the Automotive Appendix or, if the producer is subject to the alternative staging regime, under Articles 7 and 8 of the Automotive Appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of records.</I> No particular order or form of records is required, and records may be maintained in any medium; however, the Administrator prefers electronically generated or machine-readable data.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inspection of records.</I> The records described in this section must be made available to an authorized representative of the Department for inspection, copying, and transcription upon written request to the producer. The request will describe with reasonable specificity the records that are being sought, and the party receiving the request will have 30 days from the date of the written request to provide the requested records, unless the party receiving the request has requested and obtained an extension of this time period at the discretion of the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Period of retention.</I> Importers must ensure that records specified in these regulations are kept for 5 years from the date of importation of any vehicle for which preferential tariff treatment was claimed, and exporters and producers must ensure that records specified in these regulations are kept for 5 years from the date on which the certification of origin was completed, or for a longer period if the USMCA Countries so specify. Producers must be able to provide records upon request by the Department, as described in §  810.600(c), but the records may be physically maintained by a supplier or contractor. The Department will accept records directly from a supplier or contractor where, for example, the producer and supplier or contractor have contracted for such an approach.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records to be preserved to demonstrate compliance with the high-wage material and manufacturing expenditures component and eligibility for the high-wage assembly expenditures credit.</I> The records and information listed in this paragraph must be maintained for each worker for whom records must be maintained pursuant to 29 CFR 516.2 and who worked at any plant or facility relied upon by a producer to meet the high-wage material and manufacturing expenditures component or the high-wage assembly expenditures credit of the LVC requirements, during the time period the producer used for calculating the LVC. For workers who are employed outside the United States, but if employed in the United States would be subject to the recordkeeping requirements under 29 CFR 516.2, the producer must also maintain the records detailed in this paragraph for such workers. These records must also be maintained for any other worker (in any USMCA Country) who performed direct production work at the plant or facility during the time period used for calculating the LVC, even if such workers do not fall within the recordkeeping requirements of 29 CFR 516.2.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Worker information.</I> Full name (and identifying symbol or number if used in place of the worker's name on any time, work, or payroll records), job title, home address, and other available contact information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time records.</I> The total number of daily and weekly hours worked. For workers who work a fixed schedule, the producer may instead maintain records that show the schedule of daily and weekly hours the worker normally works instead of the hours worked each day and each workweek. However, if this method is used, in weeks in which a worker adheres to this schedule, the worker must indicate by check mark, statement or other method that such hours were in fact actually worked, and in weeks in which more or less than the scheduled hours are worked, the records must show the exact number of hours worked each day and each week.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Earnings records.</I> Payroll records showing the date wages were paid and the time period covered by such wage payments, each worker's hourly rate of pay and basis of pay (hourly, salary, piece rate, day rate, etc.), total daily or weekly straight-time earnings, total premium pay for overtime hours (if any), total pay for the pay period, and any deductions taken from each worker's pay, including the amount and reason for the deduction. To the extent that a worker's rate of pay or straight-time earnings include benefits, bonuses, premium payments, incentive pay, or other similar payments excluded from the hourly base wage rate, as defined at § 810.105, records must clearly identify those payments and state the amount of such payments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Certificates, agreements, plans, notices, collective bargaining agreements, etc.</I> Any collective bargaining agreements, written agreements or memoranda, individual contracts, plans, trusts, employment contracts, or written memorandum summarizing oral agreements or understandings applicable to any workers who work in direct production.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Direct production records.</I> A record of all hours that workers have worked in direct production, as defined at § 810.105(b)(2), including the workers' names, type of direct production work performed, hours worked by each worker that constitute direct production, hourly base wage rate paid to each worker for the direct production hours worked, and total wages paid to workers for those direct production hours worked. A producer's records must distinguish hours worked in direct production from other hours worked, to the extent that workers perform both direct production work and work not in direct production during the relevant time period. However, if at least 85 percent of a worker's total work hours are hours worked in direct production, the producer may simply record such workers' total hours worked during the relevant time period, so long as the producer can show that its recordkeeping system indicates when such workers work hours not in direct production when such situations occur.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Records relating to high-wage transportation or related costs for shipping.</I> Producers must maintain any records relied upon to establish the wages their transportation, logistics, or material handling service providers paid to their direct production workers performing these services. Such records may include, for example, contracts for transportation or shipping, union contracts entered into by transportation or shipping providers, and other contracts that reflect the rates paid to workers employed by transportation or shipping contractors that are relied upon by producers to establish transportation or related costs for shipping.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records to be preserved to demonstrate eligibility for the high-wage technology expenditures credit.</I> If a producer is using high-wage technology expenditures to meet the high-wage components of the LVC requirements, the producer must maintain a record of the total wages paid to workers in North America who perform research and development or information technology work, as defined at § 810.200(b)(1) and (2), including the workers' names and type of research and development or information technology work performed. The producer must also maintain a record of the total wages paid to workers in North America who perform direct production work, as defined at § 810.200(b)(3), including the workers' names and type of production work performed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Calculations relating to labor value content requirements.</I> Producers must also maintain any additional records not described in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section that they relied on to support the calculations used to establish they meet the high-wage components of the LVC requirements.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Relation to other recordkeeping requirements.</I> Nothing in this section shall excuse any producer from complying with any recordkeeping or reporting requirement imposed by any other federal, state or local law, ordinance, regulation, or rule. This includes, but is not limited to, any recordkeeping requirements concerning other components of the LVC requirements as set forth in regulations issued by CBP or any other federal agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Administrative Review of the Department's Analysis and Findings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.700" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.8.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.700   Administrative review procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initiation of review.</I> Upon receipt from CBP of a notice of a protest filed under 19 U.S.C. 1514 that meets the requirements of the regulations at 19 CFR part 174 and relates to the Department's analysis of the high-wage components of the LVC requirements, the Department will conduct an administrative review of its initial analysis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for review.</I> Review of the Department's analysis will be conducted by the Administrator, or the Administrator's designee, as the presiding official. When a presiding official is designated by the Administrator, the official must rank higher than the official who issued the decision that is the subject of the protest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proceeding before an administrative law judge.</I> In any case where the presiding official determines, in the discretion of that official, that it is appropriate, and there exist disputed questions of fact, the presiding official may refer those questions to the Chief Administrative Law Judge for a recommended decision.
</P>
<P>(1) Upon receipt from the Administrator, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall designate an administrative law judge to hear the disputed questions of fact.
</P>
<P>(2) Hearings held under this subpart shall be conducted under the Department's rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings found in 29 CFR part 18.
</P>
<P>(3) The recommended decision of the administrative law judge shall be issued within 120 days of when the Administrator referred the questions of fact to the Chief Administrative Law Judge, or longer with consent of the parties.
</P>
<P>(4) The recommended decision shall be limited to a determination of the questions of fact presented by the Administrator, and shall include a statement of findings and recommendations, with reasons and bases therefore, for each question of fact presented by the Administrator.
</P>
<P>(5) The Administrator shall have discretion to accept or reject the findings of the administrative law judge in full or in part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of review.</I> The presiding official, in a review under paragraph (b) of this section, shall have the discretion to consider any evidence relevant to rendering a determination under this section. In the event that new evidence or a new legal argument is made by the protestor in a review under paragraph (b) of this section, the presiding official may request additional information from the protestor, and/or additional verification by WHD.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time frame for review.</I> The Administrator will strive to issue a decision under this section within 1 year from the date the Administrator receives the notice of protest from CBP. This timeframe does not include the time during which any additional verification or collection of additional information may take place in response, for example, to newly raised issues.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Results of review.</I> After considering the relevant evidence and issues, the Administrator shall provide a determination containing the results of the administrative review to CBP.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Whistleblower Protections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.800" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.55.9.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.800   Prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discrimination.</I> (1) It is unlawful to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, or in any other manner discriminate against any person because the person has—
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosed information to a federal agency or to any person relating to a verification of the producer's compliance with the LVC requirements, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Cooperated or sought to cooperate in a verification concerning the producer's compliance with the LVC requirements.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaints.</I> (1) Any person who believes that he or she has been discriminated against in violation of this section may file a complaint alleging such discrimination.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint shall be filed with WHD. A complaint may be filed at any WHD local office; the address and telephone number of local offices may be found in telephone directories or at the following internet address: <I>http://www.dol.gov/whd.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Within 12 months after the alleged discriminatory act occurs, a person who believes that he or she has been discriminated against may file, or have filed by any person on that person's behalf, a complaint alleging such discrimination. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, phone call, or email communication will be considered to be the date of filing. If the complaint is filed in person, by hand-delivery, or other means, the complaint is filed upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(4) No particular form of complaint is required, and complaints may be filed in person, in writing, or over the telephone. If oral, the complaint shall be reduced to writing by the WHD official who receives the complaint. The complaint shall set forth sufficient facts for the Administrator to determine whether there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation as described in paragraph (a) of this section has been committed and, therefore, that an investigation is warranted.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Administrator determines that an investigation of a complaint is warranted, the complaint shall be accepted for filing; an investigation shall be conducted and a determination issued within 30 calendar days of the date of filing. The time for the investigation may be increased with the consent of both parties (the whistleblower and the party that allegedly engaged in discrimination), or if, for reasons outside of the control of the Administrator, the Administrator needs additional time to obtain information from either party or other sources to determine whether a violation has occurred. No hearing or appeal pursuant to this subpart shall be available regarding the Administrator's determination of whether an investigation on a complaint is warranted.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administrator's determination.</I> (1) Following an investigation, the Administrator shall issue a written determination. Such determination shall be served on all known interested parties by personal service or by certified mail at the parties' last known addresses. Where service by certified mail is not accepted by the party, the Administrator may exercise discretion to serve the determination by regular mail.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrator shall file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, a copy of the complaint and the Administrator's determination.
</P>
<P>(3) The Administrator's determination shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Set forth the determination of the Administrator and the reason or reasons therefore, and in the case of a finding of violation(s), prescribe any remedies, including monetary relief, injunctive relief, civil money penalties of up to $60,614 per violation, and/or any other remedies assessed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the interested parties that they may request a hearing pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Inform the interested parties that in the absence of a timely request for a hearing, received by the Chief Administrative Law Judge within 15 calendar days of the date of the determination, the determination of the Administrator shall become final and not appealable.
</P>
<P>(iv) Set forth the procedure for requesting a hearing, and give the addresses of the Chief Administrative Law Judge (with whom the request must be filed) and the representative(s) of the Solicitor of Labor (upon whom copies of the request must be served).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Administrative review of the Administrator's determination.</I> (1) Any party desiring review of a determination issued under paragraph (c) of this section, including judicial review, shall make a request for such an administrative hearing in writing to the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the address stated in the notice of determination. If such a request for an administrative hearing is timely filed, the Administrator's determination shall be inoperative unless and until the case is dismissed or the administrative law judge issues an order affirming the decision.
</P>
<P>(2) The request for such hearing shall be received by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, at the address stated in the Administrator's notice of determination, no later than 15 calendar days after the date of the determination.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of the request for a hearing shall be sent by the requestor to the WHD official who issued the Administrator's notice of determination, to the representative(s) of the Solicitor of Labor identified in the notice of determination, and to all known interested parties.
</P>
<P>(4) The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 18.
</P>
<P>(5) Within 60 calendar days after the date of the hearing, the administrative law judge shall issue a decision. If the Administrator or any party desires review of the decision, including judicial review, a petition for review by the Administrative Review Board shall be filed pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeal of a decision of the administrative law judge.</I> Any party desiring review of the decision of the administrative law judge may appeal that decision by filing a petition for review with the Administrative Review Board within 30 days of the date of the administrative law judge's decision. If a petition for review is filed, the decision of the administrative law judge shall be inoperative unless and until the Administrative Review Board issues an order affirming the decision, or unless and until 30 calendar days have passed after the Administrative Review Board's receipt of the petition for review and the Administrative Review Board has not issued notice to the parties that the Administrative Review Board will review the administrative law judge's decision.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review of an order of the Administrative Review Board.</I> An order of the Administrative Review Board under this subpart is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary of Labor (as provided in Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 39810, July 1, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 2335, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2217, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1817, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1861, Jan. 10, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="825" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 825—THE FAMILY AND MEDICAL LEAVE ACT OF 1993


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 2654; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990); and Pub. L. 114-74 at sec. 701.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Coverage Under the Family and Medical Leave Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.100" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.100   The Family and Medical Leave Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993, as amended, (FMLA or Act) allows eligible employees of a covered employer to take job-protected, unpaid leave, or to substitute appropriate paid leave if the employee has earned or accrued it, for up to a total of 12 workweeks in any 12 months (<I>see</I> § 825.200(b)) because of the birth of a child and to care for the newborn child, because of the placement of a child with the employee for adoption or foster care, because the employee is needed to care for a family member (child, spouse, or parent) with a serious health condition, because the employee's own serious health condition makes the employee unable to perform the functions of his or her job, or because of any qualifying exigency arising out of the fact that the employee's spouse, son, daughter, or parent is a military member on active duty or call to covered active duty status (or has been notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty). In addition, eligible employees of a covered employer may take job-protected, unpaid leave, or substitute appropriate paid leave if the employee has earned or accrued it, for up to a total of 26 workweeks in a single 12-month period to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness. In certain cases, FMLA leave may be taken on an intermittent basis rather than all at once, or the employee may work a part-time schedule.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee on FMLA leave is also entitled to have health benefits maintained while on leave as if the employee had continued to work instead of taking the leave. If an employee was paying all or part of the premium payments prior to leave, the employee would continue to pay his or her share during the leave period. The employer may recover its share only if the employee does not return to work for a reason other than the serious health condition of the employee or the employee's covered family member, the serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember, or another reason beyond the employee's control.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee generally has a right to return to the same position or an equivalent position with equivalent pay, benefits, and working conditions at the conclusion of the leave. The taking of FMLA leave cannot result in the loss of any benefit that accrued prior to the start of the leave.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer generally has a right to advance notice from the employee. In addition, the employer may require an employee to submit certification to substantiate that the leave is due to the serious health condition of the employee or the employee's covered family member, due to the serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember, or because of a qualifying exigency. Failure to comply with these requirements may result in a delay in the start of FMLA leave. Pursuant to a uniformly applied policy, the employer may also require that an employee present a certification of fitness to return to work when the absence was caused by the employee's serious health condition (<I>see</I> §§ 825.312 and 825.313). The employer may delay restoring the employee to employment without such certificate relating to the health condition which caused the employee's absence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.101" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.101   Purpose of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FMLA is intended to allow employees to balance their work and family life by taking reasonable unpaid leave for medical reasons, for the birth or adoption of a child, for the care of a child, spouse, or parent who has a serious health condition, for the care of a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness, or because of a qualifying exigency arising out of the fact that the employee's spouse, son, daughter, or parent is a military member on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status. The Act is intended to balance the demands of the workplace with the needs of families, to promote the stability and economic security of families, and to promote national interests in preserving family integrity. It was intended that the Act accomplish these purposes in a manner that accommodates the legitimate interests of employers, and in a manner consistent with the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment in minimizing the potential for employment discrimination on the basis of sex, while promoting equal employment opportunity for men and women.
</P>
<P>(b) The FMLA was predicated on two fundamental concerns—the needs of the American workforce, and the development of high-performance organizations. Increasingly, America's children and elderly are dependent upon family members who must spend long hours at work. When a family emergency arises, requiring workers to attend to seriously-ill children or parents, or to newly-born or adopted infants, or even to their own serious illness, workers need reassurance that they will not be asked to choose between continuing their employment, and meeting their personal and family obligations or tending to vital needs at home.
</P>
<P>(c) The FMLA is both intended and expected to benefit employers as well as their employees. A direct correlation exists between stability in the family and productivity in the workplace. FMLA will encourage the development of high-performance organizations. When workers can count on durable links to their workplace they are able to make their own full commitments to their jobs. The record of hearings on family and medical leave indicate the powerful productive advantages of stable workplace relationships, and the comparatively small costs of guaranteeing that those relationships will not be dissolved while workers attend to pressing family health obligations or their own serious illness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.102" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> or <I>FMLA</I> means the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993, Public Law 103-3 (February 5, 1993), 107 Stat. 6 (29 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.,</I> <I>as amended</I>).
</P>
<P><I>ADA</I> means the Americans With Disabilities Act (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended).
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor, and includes any official of the Wage and Hour Division authorized to perform any of the functions of the Administrator under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Airline flight crew employee</I> means an airline flight crewmember or flight attendant as those terms are defined in regulations of the Federal Aviation Administration. <I>See also</I> § 825.800(a).
</P>
<P><I>Applicable monthly guarantee</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For an airline flight crew employee who is not on reserve status (line holder), the minimum number of hours for which an employer has agreed to <I>schedule</I> such employee for any given month; and
</P>
<P>(2) For an airline flight crew employee who is on reserve status, the number of hours for which an employer has agreed to <I>pay</I> the employee for any given month. <I>See also</I> § 825.801(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>COBRA</I> means the continuation coverage requirements of Title X of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1986, as amended (Pub. L. 99-272, title X, section 10002; 100 Stat 227; 29 U.S.C. 1161-1168).
</P>
<P><I>Commerce</I> and <I>industry or activity affecting commerce</I> mean any activity, business, or industry in commerce or in which a labor dispute would hinder or obstruct commerce or the free flow of commerce, and include “commerce” and any “industry affecting commerce” as defined in sections 501(1) and 501(3) of the Labor Management Relations Act of 1947, 29 U.S.C. 142(1) and (3).
</P>
<P><I>Contingency operation</I> means a military operation that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designated by the Secretary of Defense as an operation in which members of the Armed Forces are or may become involved in military actions, operations, or hostilities against an enemy of the United States or against an opposing military force; or
</P>
<P>(2) Results in the call or order to, or retention on, active duty of members of the uniformed services under section 688, 12301(a), 12302, 12304, 12305, or 12406 of Title 10 of the United States Code, chapter 15 of Title 10 of the United States Code, or any other provision of law during a war or during a national emergency declared by the President or Congress. <I>See also</I> § 825.126(a)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Continuing treatment by a health care provider</I> means any one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Incapacity and treatment.</I> A period of incapacity of more than three consecutive, full calendar days, and any subsequent treatment or period of incapacity relating to the same condition, that also involves:
</P>
<P>(i) Treatment two or more times, within 30 days of the first day of incapacity, unless extenuating circumstances exist, by a health care provider, by a nurse under direct supervision of a health care provider, or by a provider of health care services (e.g., physical therapist) under orders of, or on referral by, a health care provider; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Treatment by a health care provider on at least one occasion, which results in a regimen of continuing treatment under the supervision of the health care provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) The requirement in paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this definition for treatment by a health care provider means an in-person visit to a health care provider. The first in-person treatment visit must take place within seven days of the first day of incapacity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether additional treatment visits or a regimen of continuing treatment is necessary within the 30-day period shall be determined by the health care provider.
</P>
<P>(v) The term “extenuating circumstances” in paragraph (i) means circumstances beyond the employee's control that prevent the follow-up visit from occurring as planned by the health care provider. Whether a given set of circumstances are extenuating depends on the facts. <I>See also</I> § 825.115(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pregnancy or prenatal care.</I> Any period of incapacity due to pregnancy, or for prenatal care. <I>See also</I> § 825.120.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Chronic conditions.</I> Any period of incapacity or treatment for such incapacity due to a chronic serious health condition. A chronic serious health condition is one which:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires periodic visits (defined as at least twice a year) for treatment by a health care provider, or by a nurse under direct supervision of a health care provider;
</P>
<P>(ii) Continues over an extended period of time (including recurring episodes of a single underlying condition); and
</P>
<P>(iii) May cause episodic rather than a continuing period of incapacity (e.g., asthma, diabetes, epilepsy, etc.).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permanent or long-term conditions.</I> A period of incapacity which is permanent or long-term due to a condition for which treatment may not be effective. The employee or family member must be under the continuing supervision of, but need not be receiving active treatment by, a health care provider. Examples include Alzheimer's, a severe stroke, or the terminal stages of a disease.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Conditions requiring multiple treatments.</I> Any period of absence to receive multiple treatments (including any period of recovery therefrom) by a health care provider or by a provider of health care services under orders of, or on referral by, a health care provider, for:
</P>
<P>(i) Restorative surgery after an accident or other injury; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A condition that would likely result in a period of incapacity of more than three consecutive full calendar days in the absence of medical intervention or treatment, such as cancer (chemotherapy, radiation, etc.), severe arthritis (physical therapy), kidney disease (dialysis).
</P>
<P>(6) Absences attributable to incapacity under paragraphs (2) or (3) of this definition qualify for FMLA leave even though the employee or the covered family member does not receive treatment from a health care provider during the absence, and even if the absence does not last more than three consecutive full calendar days. For example, an employee with asthma may be unable to report for work due to the onset of an asthma attack or because the employee's health care provider has advised the employee to stay home when the pollen count exceeds a certain level. An employee who is pregnant may be unable to report to work because of severe morning sickness.
</P>
<P><I>Covered active duty or call to covered active duty status</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a member of the Regular Armed Forces, duty during the deployment of the member with the Armed Forces to a foreign country; and,
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a member of the Reserve components of the Armed Forces, duty during the deployment of the member with the Armed Forces to a foreign country under a Federal call or order to active duty in support of a contingency operation pursuant to: Section 688 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes ordering to active duty retired members of the Regular Armed Forces and members of the retired Reserve who retired after completing at least 20 years of active service; Section 12301(a) of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes ordering all reserve component members to active duty in the case of war or national emergency; Section 12302 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes ordering any unit or unassigned member of the Ready Reserve to active duty; Section 12304 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes ordering any unit or unassigned member of the Selected Reserve and certain members of the Individual Ready Reserve to active duty; Section 12305 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes the suspension of promotion, retirement or separation rules for certain Reserve components; Section 12406 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes calling the National Guard into Federal service in certain circumstances; chapter 15 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes calling the National Guard and state military into Federal service in the case of insurrections and national emergencies; or any other provision of law during a war or during a national emergency declared by the President or Congress so long as it is in support of a contingency operation. <I>See</I> 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(13)(B). <I>See also</I> § 825.126(a).
</P>
<P><I>Covered servicemember</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A current member of the Armed Forces, including a member of the National Guard or Reserves, who is undergoing medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy, is otherwise in outpatient status, or is otherwise on the temporary disability retired list, for a serious injury or illness, or
</P>
<P>(2) A covered veteran who is undergoing medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy for a serious injury or illness.
</P>
<P><I>Covered veteran</I> means an individual who was a member of the Armed Forces (including a member of the National Guard or Reserves), and was discharged or released under conditions other than dishonorable at any time during the five-year period prior to the first date the eligible employee takes FMLA leave to care for the covered veteran. <I>See</I> § 825.127(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible employee</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee who has been employed for a total of at least 12 months by the employer on the date on which any FMLA leave is to commence, except that an employer need not consider any period of previous employment that occurred more than seven years before the date of the most recent hiring of the employee, <I>unless:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The break in service is occasioned by the fulfillment of the employee's Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA), 38 U.S.C. 4301, <I>et seq.,</I> covered service obligation (the period of absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service must be also counted in determining whether the employee has been employed for at least 12 months by the employer, but this section does not provide any greater entitlement to the employee than would be available under the USERRA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A written agreement, including a collective bargaining agreement, exists concerning the employer's intention to rehire the employee after the break in service (e.g., for purposes of the employee furthering his or her education or for childrearing purposes); and
</P>
<P>(2) Who, on the date on which any FMLA leave is to commence, has met the hours of service requirement by having been employed for at least 1,250 hours of service with such employer during the previous 12-month period, or for an airline flight crew employee, in the previous 12 months, having worked or been paid for not less than 60 percent of the applicable total monthly guarantee and having worked or been paid for not less than 504 hours, not counting personal commute time, or vacation, medical or sick leave (<I>see</I> § 825.801(b)), <I>except that:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) An employee returning from fulfilling his or her USERRA-covered service obligation shall be credited with the hours of service that would have been performed but for the period of absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service in determining whether the employee met the hours of service requirement (accordingly, a person reemployed following absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service has the hours that would have been worked for the employer (or, for an airline flight crew employee, would have been worked for or paid by the employer) added to any hours actually worked (or, for an airline flight crew employee, actually worked or paid) during the previous 12-month period to meet the hours of service requirement); and
</P>
<P>(ii) To determine the hours that would have been worked (or, for an airline flight crew employee, would have been worked or paid) during the period of absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service, the employee's pre-service work schedule can generally be used for calculations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Who is employed in any State of the United States, the District of Columbia or any Territories or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P>(4) Excludes any Federal officer or employee covered under subchapter V of chapter 63 of title 5, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(5) Excludes any employee of the United States House of Representatives or the United States Senate covered by the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1301.
</P>
<P>(6) Excludes any employee who is employed at a worksite at which the employer employs fewer than 50 employees if the total number of employees employed by that employer within 75 miles of that worksite is also fewer than 50.
</P>
<P>(7) Excludes any employee employed in any country other than the United States or any Territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Employ</I> means to suffer or permit to work.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> has the meaning given the same term as defined in section 3(e) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 203(e), as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>employee</I> means any individual employed by an employer;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an individual employed by a public agency, <I>employee</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual employed by the Government of the United States—
</P>
<P>(A) As a civilian in the military departments (as defined in section 102 of Title 5, United States Code),
</P>
<P>(B) In any executive agency (as defined in section 105 of Title 5, United States Code), excluding any Federal officer or employee covered under subchapter V of chapter 63 of Title 5, United States Code,
</P>
<P>(C) In any unit of the legislative or judicial branch of the Government which has positions in the competitive service, excluding any employee of the United States House of Representatives or the United States Senate who is covered by the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995,
</P>
<P>(D) In a nonappropriated fund instrumentality under the jurisdiction of the Armed Forces, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any individual employed by the United States Postal Service or the Postal Regulatory Commission; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any individual employed by a State, political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency, other than such an individual—
</P>
<P>(A) Who is not subject to the civil service laws of the State, political subdivision, or agency which employs the employee; and
</P>
<P>(B) Who—
</P>
<P>(1) Holds a public elective office of that State, political subdivision, or agency,
</P>
<P>(2) Is selected by the holder of such an office to be a member of his personal staff,
</P>
<P>(3) Is appointed by such an officeholder to serve on a policymaking level,
</P>
<P>(4) Is an immediate adviser to such an officeholder with respect to the constitutional or legal powers of the office of such officeholder, or
</P>
<P>(5) Is an employee in the legislative branch or legislative body of that State, political subdivision, or agency and is not employed by the legislative library of such State, political subdivision, or agency.
</P>
<P><I>Employee employed in an instructional capacity. See</I> the definition of <I>Teacher</I> in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means any person engaged in commerce or in an industry or activity affecting commerce who employs 50 or more employees for each working day during each of 20 or more calendar workweeks in the current or preceding calendar year, and includes—
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who acts, directly or indirectly, in the interest of an employer to any of the employees of such employer;
</P>
<P>(2) Any successor in interest of an employer; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any public agency.
</P>
<P><I>Employment benefits</I> means all benefits provided or made available to employees by an employer, including group life insurance, health insurance, disability insurance, sick leave, annual leave, educational benefits, and pensions, regardless of whether such benefits are provided by a practice or written policy of an employer or through an employee benefit plan as defined in section 3(3) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, 29 U.S.C. 1002(3). The term does not include non-employment related obligations paid by employees through voluntary deductions such as supplemental insurance coverage. <I>See also</I> § 825.209(a).
</P>
<P><I>FLSA</I> means the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Group health plan</I> means any plan of, or contributed to by, an employer (including a self-insured plan) to provide health care (directly or otherwise) to the employer's employees, former employees, or the families of such employees or former employees. For purposes of FMLA the term group health plan shall not include an insurance program providing health coverage under which employees purchase individual policies from insurers provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) No contributions are made by the employer;
</P>
<P>(2) Participation in the program is completely voluntary for employees;
</P>
<P>(3) The sole functions of the employer with respect to the program are, without endorsing the program, to permit the insurer to publicize the program to employees, to collect premiums through payroll deductions and to remit them to the insurer;
</P>
<P>(4) The employer receives no consideration in the form of cash or otherwise in connection with the program, other than reasonable compensation, excluding any profit, for administrative services actually rendered in connection with payroll deduction; and,
</P>
<P>(5) The premium charged with respect to such coverage does not increase in the event the employment relationship terminates.
</P>
<P><I>Health care provider</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The Act defines health care provider as:
</P>
<P>(i) A doctor of medicine or osteopathy who is authorized to practice medicine or surgery (as appropriate) by the State in which the doctor practices; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other person determined by the Secretary to be capable of providing health care services.
</P>
<P>(2) Others “capable of providing health care services” include only:
</P>
<P>(i) Podiatrists, dentists, clinical psychologists, optometrists, and chiropractors (limited to treatment consisting of manual manipulation of the spine to correct a subluxation as demonstrated by X-ray to exist) authorized to practice in the State and performing within the scope of their practice as defined under State law;
</P>
<P>(ii) Nurse practitioners, nurse-midwives, clinical social workers and physician assistants who are authorized to practice under State law and who are performing within the scope of their practice as defined under State law;
</P>
<P>(iii) Christian Science Practitioners listed with the First Church of Christ, Scientist in Boston, Massachusetts. Where an employee or family member is receiving treatment from a Christian Science practitioner, an employee may not object to any requirement from an employer that the employee or family member submit to examination (though not treatment) to obtain a second or third certification from a health care provider other than a Christian Science practitioner except as otherwise provided under applicable State or local law or collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any health care provider from whom an employer or the employer's group health plan's benefits manager will accept certification of the existence of a serious health condition to substantiate a claim for benefits; and
</P>
<P>(v) A health care provider listed above who practices in a country other than the United States, who is authorized to practice in accordance with the law of that country, and who is performing within the scope of his or her practice as defined under such law.
</P>
<P>(3) The phrase “authorized to practice in the State” as used in this section means that the provider must be authorized to diagnose and treat physical or mental health conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Incapable of self-care</I> means that the individual requires active assistance or supervision to provide daily self-care in several of the “activities of daily living” (ADLs) or “instrumental activities of daily living” (IADLs). Activities of daily living include adaptive activities such as caring appropriately for one's grooming and hygiene, bathing, dressing and eating. Instrumental activities of daily living include cooking, cleaning, shopping, taking public transportation, paying bills, maintaining a residence, using telephones and directories, using a post office, etc.
</P>
<P><I>Instructional employee:</I> See the definition of <I>Teacher</I> in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Intermittent leave</I> means leave taken in separate periods of time due to a single illness or injury, rather than for one continuous period of time, and may include leave of periods from an hour or more to several weeks. Examples of intermittent leave would include leave taken on an occasional basis for medical appointments, or leave taken several days at a time spread over a period of six months, such as for chemotherapy.
</P>
<P><I>Invitational travel authorization</I> (ITA) or <I>Invitational travel order</I> (ITO) are orders issued by the Armed Forces to a family member to join an injured or ill servicemember at his or her bedside. <I>See also</I> § 825.310(e).
</P>
<P><I>Key employee</I> means a salaried FMLA-eligible employee who is among the highest paid 10 percent of all the employees employed by the employer within 75 miles of the employee's worksite. <I>See also</I> § 825.217.
</P>
<P><I>Mental disability: See</I> the definition of <I>Physical or mental disability</I> in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Military caregiver leave</I> means leave taken to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993. <I>See also</I> § 825.127.
</P>
<P><I>Next of kin of a covered servicemember</I> means the nearest blood relative other than the covered servicemember's spouse, parent, son, or daughter, in the following order of priority: blood relatives who have been granted legal custody of the covered servicemember by court decree or statutory provisions, brothers and sisters, grandparents, aunts and uncles, and first cousins, unless the covered servicemember has specifically designated in writing another blood relative as his or her nearest blood relative for purposes of military caregiver leave under the FMLA. When no such designation is made, and there are multiple family members with the same level of relationship to the covered servicemember, all such family members shall be considered the covered servicemember's next of kin and may take FMLA leave to provide care to the covered servicemember, either consecutively or simultaneously. When such designation has been made, the designated individual shall be deemed to be the covered servicemember's only next of kin. <I>See also</I> § 825.127(d)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Outpatient status</I> means, with respect to a covered servicemember who is a current member of the Armed Forces, the status of a member of the Armed Forces assigned to either a military medical treatment facility as an outpatient; or a unit established for the purpose of providing command and control of members of the Armed Forces receiving medical care as outpatients. <I>See also</I> § 825.127(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Parent</I> means a biological, adoptive, step or foster father or mother, or any other individual who stood in loco parentis to the employee when the employee was a son or daughter as defined below. This term does not include parents “in law.”
</P>
<P><I>Parent of a covered servicemember</I> means a covered servicemember's biological, adoptive, step or foster father or mother, or any other individual who stood in loco parentis to the covered servicemember. This term does not include parents “in law.” <I>See also</I> § 825.127(d)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, or any organized group of persons, and includes a public agency for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Physical or mental disability</I> means a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of an individual. Regulations at 29 CFR part 1630, issued by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), 42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended, define these terms.
</P>
<P><I>Public agency</I> means the government of the United States; the government of a State or political subdivision thereof; any agency of the United States (including the United States Postal Service and Postal Regulatory Commission), a State, or a political subdivision of a State, or any interstate governmental agency. Under section 101(5)(B) of the Act, a public agency is considered to be a “person” engaged in commerce or in an industry or activity affecting commerce within the meaning of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Reduced leave schedule</I> means a leave schedule that reduces the usual number of hours per workweek, or hours per workday, of an employee.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve components of the Armed Forces,</I> for purposes of qualifying exigency leave, include the Army National Guard of the United States, Army Reserve, Navy Reserve, Marine Corps Reserve, Air National Guard of the United States, Air Force Reserve, and Coast Guard Reserve, and retired members of the Regular Armed Forces or Reserves who are called up in support of a contingency operation. <I>See also</I> § 825.126(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or authorized representative.
</P>
<P><I>Serious health condition</I> means an illness, injury, impairment or physical or mental condition that involves inpatient care as defined in § 825.114 or continuing treatment by a health care provider as defined in § 825.115. Conditions for which cosmetic treatments are administered (such as most treatments for acne or plastic surgery) are not serious health conditions unless inpatient hospital care is required or unless complications develop. Restorative dental or plastic surgery after an injury or removal of cancerous growths are serious health conditions provided all the other conditions of this regulation are met. Mental illness or allergies may be serious health conditions, but only if all the conditions of § 825.113 are met.
</P>
<P><I>Serious injury or illness</I> means: (1) In the case of a current member of the Armed Forces, including a member of the National Guard or Reserves, an injury or illness that was incurred by the covered servicemember in the line of duty on active duty in the Armed Forces or that existed before the beginning of the member's active duty and was aggravated by service in the line of duty on active duty in the Armed Forces and that may render the servicemember medically unfit to perform the duties of the member's office, grade, rank, or rating; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a covered veteran, an injury or illness that was incurred by the member in the line of duty on active duty in the Armed Forces (or existed before the beginning of the member's active duty and was aggravated by service in the line of duty on active duty in the Armed Forces) and manifested itself before or after the member became a veteran, and is:
</P>
<P>(i) A continuation of a serious injury or illness that was incurred or aggravated when the covered veteran was a member of the Armed Forces and rendered the servicemember unable to perform the duties of the servicemember's office, grade, rank, or rating; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical or mental condition for which the covered veteran has received a U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Service-Related Disability Rating (VASRD) of 50 percent or greater, and such VASRD rating is based, in whole or in part, on the condition precipitating the need for military caregiver leave; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A physical or mental condition that substantially impairs the covered veteran's ability to secure or follow a substantially gainful occupation by reason of a disability or disabilities related to military service, or would do so absent treatment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An injury, including a psychological injury, on the basis of which the covered veteran has been enrolled in the Department of Veterans Affairs Program of Comprehensive Assistance for Family Caregivers. <I>See also</I> § 825.127(c).
</P>
<P><I>Son or daughter</I> means a biological, adopted, or foster child, a stepchild, a legal ward, or a child of a person standing in loco parentis, who is either under age 18, or age 18 or older and “incapable of self-care because of a mental or physical disability” at the time that FMLA leave is to commence.
</P>
<P><I>Son or daughter of a covered servicemember</I> means a covered servicemember's biological, adopted, or foster child, stepchild, legal ward, or a child for whom the covered servicemember stood in loco parentis, and who is of any age. <I>See also</I> § 825.127(d)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Son or daughter on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status</I> means the employee's biological, adopted, or foster child, stepchild, legal ward, or a child for whom the employee stood in loco parentis, who is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, and who is of any age. <I>See also</I> § 825.126(a)(5).
</P>
<P><I>Spouse,</I> as defined in the statute, means a husband or wife. For purposes of this definition, husband or wife refers to the other person with whom an individual entered into marriage as defined or recognized under state law for purposes of marriage in the State in which the marriage was entered into or, in the case of a marriage entered into outside of any State, if the marriage is valid in the place where entered into and could have been entered into in at least one State. This definition includes an individual in a same-sex or common law marriage that either:
</P>
<P>(1) Was entered into in a State that recognizes such marriages; or
</P>
<P>(2) If entered into outside of any State, is valid in the place where entered into and could have been entered into in at least one State.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State of the United States or the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Teacher</I> (or employee employed in an instructional capacity, or instructional employee) means an employee employed principally in an instructional capacity by an educational agency or school whose principal function is to teach and instruct students in a class, a small group, or an individual setting, and includes athletic coaches, driving instructors, and special education assistants such as signers for the hearing impaired. The term does not include teacher assistants or aides who do not have as their principal function actual teaching or instructing, nor auxiliary personnel such as counselors, psychologists, curriculum specialists, cafeteria workers, maintenance workers, bus drivers, or other primarily noninstructional employees.
</P>
<P><I>TRICARE</I> is the health care program serving active duty servicemembers, National Guard and Reserve members, retirees, their families, survivors, and certain former spouses worldwide.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10000, Feb. 25, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.103" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.103   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.104" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.104   Covered employer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer covered by FMLA is any person engaged in commerce or in any industry or activity affecting commerce, who employs 50 or more employees for each working day during each of 20 or more calendar workweeks in the current or preceding calendar year. Employers covered by FMLA also include any person acting, directly or indirectly, in the interest of a covered employer to any of the employees of the employer, any successor in interest of a covered employer, and any public agency. Public agencies are covered employers without regard to the number of employees employed. Public as well as private elementary and secondary schools are also covered employers without regard to the number of employees employed. <I>See</I> § 825.600.
</P>
<P>(b) The terms commerce and industry affecting commerce are defined in accordance with section 501(1) and (3) of the Labor Management Relations Act of 1947 (LMRA) (29 U.S.C. 142(1) and (3)), as set forth in the definitions at § 825.102 of this part. For purposes of the FMLA, employers who meet the 50-employee coverage test are deemed to be engaged in commerce or in an industry or activity affecting commerce.
</P>
<P>(c) Normally the legal entity which employs the employee is the employer under FMLA. Applying this principle, a corporation is a single employer rather than its separate establishments or divisions.
</P>
<P>(1) Where one corporation has an ownership interest in another corporation, it is a separate employer unless it meets the joint employment test discussed in § 825.106, or the integrated employer test contained in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Separate entities will be deemed to be parts of a single employer for purposes of FMLA if they meet the integrated employer test. Where this test is met, the employees of all entities making up the integrated employer will be counted in determining employer coverage and employee eligibility. A determination of whether or not separate entities are an integrated employer is not determined by the application of any single criterion, but rather the entire relationship is to be reviewed in its totality. Factors considered in determining whether two or more entities are an integrated employer include:
</P>
<P>(i) Common management;
</P>
<P>(ii) Interrelation between operations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Centralized control of labor relations; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Degree of common ownership/financial control.
</P>
<P>(d) An employer includes any person who acts directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer to any of the employer's employees. The definition of employer in section 3(d) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), 29 U.S.C. 203(d), similarly includes any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee. As under the FLSA, individuals such as corporate officers “acting in the interest of an employer” are individually liable for any violations of the requirements of FMLA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 82 FR 2230, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.105" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.105   Counting employees for determining coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definition of employ for purposes of FMLA is taken from the Fair Labor Standards Act, § 3(g), 29 U.S.C. 203(g). The courts have made it clear that the employment relationship under the FLSA is broader than the traditional common law concept of master and servant. The difference between the employment relationship under the FLSA and that under the common law arises from the fact that the term “employ” as defined in the Act includes “to suffer or permit to work.” The courts have indicated that, while “to permit” requires a more positive action than “to suffer,” both terms imply much less positive action than required by the common law. Mere knowledge by an employer of work done for the employer by another is sufficient to create the employment relationship under the Act. The courts have said that there is no definition that solves all problems as to the limitations of the employer-employee relationship under the Act; and that determination of the relation cannot be based on isolated factors or upon a single characteristic or technical concepts, but depends “upon the circumstances of the whole activity” including the underlying “economic reality.” In general an employee, as distinguished from an independent contractor who is engaged in a business of his/her own, is one who “follows the usual path of an employee” and is dependent on the business which he/she serves.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee whose name appears on the employer's payroll will be considered employed each working day of the calendar week, and must be counted whether or not any compensation is received for the week. However, the FMLA applies only to employees who are employed within any State of the United States, the District of Columbia or any Territory or possession of the United States. Employees who are employed outside these areas are not counted for purposes of determining employer coverage or employee eligibility.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees on paid or unpaid leave, including FMLA leave, leaves of absence, disciplinary suspension, etc., are counted as long as the employer has a reasonable expectation that the employee will later return to active employment. If there is no employer/employee relationship (as when an employee is laid off, whether temporarily or permanently) such individual is not counted. Part-time employees, like full-time employees, are considered to be employed each working day of the calendar week, as long as they are maintained on the payroll.
</P>
<P>(d) An employee who does not begin to work for an employer until after the first working day of a calendar week, or who terminates employment before the last working day of a calendar week, is not considered employed on each working day of that calendar week.
</P>
<P>(e) A private employer is covered if it maintained 50 or more employees on the payroll during 20 or more calendar workweeks (not necessarily consecutive workweeks) in either the current or the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(f) Once a private employer meets the 50 employees/20 workweeks threshold, the employer remains covered until it reaches a future point where it no longer has employed 50 employees for 20 (nonconsecutive) workweeks in the current and preceding calendar year. For example, if an employer who met the 50 employees/20 workweeks test in the calendar year as of September 1, 2008, subsequently dropped below 50 employees before the end of 2008 and continued to employ fewer than 50 employees in all workweeks throughout calendar year 2009, the employer would continue to be covered throughout calendar year 2009 because it met the coverage criteria for 20 workweeks of the preceding (<I>i.e.,</I> 2008) calendar year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.106" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.106   Joint employer coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where two or more businesses exercise some control over the work or working conditions of the employee, the businesses may be joint employers under FMLA. Joint employers may be separate and distinct entities with separate owners, managers, and facilities. Where the employee performs work which simultaneously benefits two or more employers, or works for two or more employers at different times during the workweek, a joint employment relationship generally will be considered to exist in situations such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Where there is an arrangement between employers to share an employee's services or to interchange employees;
</P>
<P>(2) Where one employer acts directly or indirectly in the interest of the other employer in relation to the employee; or,
</P>
<P>(3) Where the employers are not completely disassociated with respect to the employee's employment and may be deemed to share control of the employee, directly or indirectly, because one employer controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the other employer.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A determination of whether or not a joint employment relationship exists is not determined by the application of any single criterion, but rather the entire relationship is to be viewed in its totality. For example, joint employment will ordinarily be found to exist when a temporary placement agency supplies employees to a second employer.
</P>
<P>(2) A type of company that is often called a Professional Employer Organization (PEO) contracts with client employers to perform administrative functions such as payroll, benefits, regulatory paperwork, and updating employment policies. The determination of whether a PEO is a joint employer also turns on the economic realities of the situation and must be based upon all the facts and circumstances. A PEO does not enter into a joint employment relationship with the employees of its client companies when it merely performs such administrative functions. On the other hand, if in a particular fact situation, a PEO has the right to hire, fire, assign, or direct and control the client's employees, or benefits from the work that the employees perform, such rights may lead to a determination that the PEO would be a joint employer with the client employer, depending upon all the facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) In joint employment relationships, only the primary employer is responsible for giving required notices to its employees, providing FMLA leave, and maintenance of health benefits. Factors considered in determining which is the primary employer include authority/responsibility to hire and fire, assign/place the employee, make payroll, and provide employment benefits. For employees of temporary placement agencies, for example, the placement agency most commonly would be the primary employer. Where a PEO is a joint employer, the client employer most commonly would be the primary employer.
</P>
<P>(d) Employees jointly employed by two employers must be counted by both employers, whether or not maintained on one of the employer's payroll, in determining employer coverage and employee eligibility. For example, an employer who jointly employs 15 workers from a temporary placement agency and 40 permanent workers is covered by FMLA. (A special rule applies to employees jointly employed who physically work at a facility of the secondary employer for a period of at least one year. <I>See</I> § 825.111(a)(3).) An employee on leave who is working for a secondary employer is considered employed by the secondary employer, and must be counted for coverage and eligibility purposes, as long as the employer has a reasonable expectation that that employee will return to employment with that employer. In those cases in which a PEO is determined to be a joint employer of a client employer's employees, the client employer would only be required to count employees of the PEO (or employees of other clients of the PEO) if the client employer jointly employed those employees.
</P>
<P>(e) Job restoration is the primary responsibility of the primary employer. The secondary employer is responsible for accepting the employee returning from FMLA leave in place of the replacement employee if the secondary employer continues to utilize an employee from the temporary placement agency, and the agency chooses to place the employee with the secondary employer. A secondary employer is also responsible for compliance with the prohibited acts provisions with respect to its jointly employed employees, whether or not the secondary employer is covered by FMLA. <I>See</I> § 825.220(a). The prohibited acts include prohibitions against interfering with an employee's attempt to exercise rights under the Act, or discharging or discriminating against an employee for opposing a practice which is unlawful under FMLA. A covered secondary employer will be responsible for compliance with all the provisions of the FMLA with respect to its regular, permanent workforce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.107" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.107   Successor in interest coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of FMLA, in determining whether an employer is covered because it is a “successor in interest” to a covered employer, the factors used under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act and the Vietnam Era Veterans' Adjustment Act will be considered. However, unlike Title VII, whether the successor has notice of the employee's claim is not a consideration. Notice may be relevant, however, in determining successor liability for violations of the predecessor. The factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>(1) Substantial continuity of the same business operations;
</P>
<P>(2) Use of the same plant;
</P>
<P>(3) Continuity of the work force;
</P>
<P>(4) Similarity of jobs and working conditions;
</P>
<P>(5) Similarity of supervisory personnel;
</P>
<P>(6) Similarity in machinery, equipment, and production methods;
</P>
<P>(7) Similarity of products or services; and
</P>
<P>(8) The ability of the predecessor to provide relief.
</P>
<P>(b) A determination of whether or not a successor in interest exists is not determined by the application of any single criterion, but rather the entire circumstances are to be viewed in their totality.
</P>
<P>(c) When an employer is a successor in interest, employees' entitlements are the same as if the employment by the predecessor and successor were continuous employment by a single employer. For example, the successor, whether or not it meets FMLA coverage criteria, must grant leave for eligible employees who had provided appropriate notice to the predecessor, or continue leave begun while employed by the predecessor, including maintenance of group health benefits during the leave and job restoration at the conclusion of the leave. A successor which meets FMLA's coverage criteria must count periods of employment and hours of service with the predecessor for purposes of determining employee eligibility for FMLA leave.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.108" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.108   Public agency coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer under FMLA includes any public agency, as defined in section 3(x) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 203(x). Section 3(x) of the FLSA defines <I>public agency</I> as the government of the United States; the government of a State or political subdivision of a State; or an agency of the United States, a State, or a political subdivision of a State, or any interstate governmental agency. <I>State</I> is further defined in Section 3(c) of the FLSA to include any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any Territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) The determination of whether an entity is a public agency, as distinguished from a private employer, is determined by whether the agency has taxing authority, or whether the chief administrative officer or board, etc., is elected by the voters-at-large or their appointment is subject to approval by an elected official.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A State or a political subdivision of a State constitutes a single public agency and, therefore, a single employer for purposes of determining employee eligibility. For example, a State is a single employer; a county is a single employer; a city or town is a single employer. Whether two agencies of the same State or local government constitute the same public agency can only be determined on a case-by-case basis. One factor that would support a conclusion that two agencies are separate is whether they are treated separately for statistical purposes in the Census of Governments issued by the Bureau of the Census, U.S. Department of Commerce.
</P>
<P>(2) The Census Bureau takes a census of governments at five-year intervals. Volume I, Government Organization, contains the official counts of the number of State and local governments. It includes tabulations of governments by State, type of government, size, and county location. Also produced is a universe list of governmental units, classified according to type of government. Copies of Volume I, Government Organization, and subsequent volumes are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, U.S. Department of Commerce District Offices, or can be found in Regional and selective depository libraries, or online at <I>http://www.census.gov/govs/www/index.html.</I> For a list of all depository libraries, write to the Government Printing Office, 710 N. Capitol St. NW., Washington, DC 20402.
</P>
<P>(d) All public agencies are covered by the FMLA regardless of the number of employees; they are not subject to the coverage threshold of 50 employees carried on the payroll each day for 20 or more weeks in a year. However, employees of public agencies must meet all of the requirements of eligibility, including the requirement that the employer (e.g., State) employ 50 employees at the worksite or within 75 miles.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.109" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.109   Federal agency coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Most employees of the government of the United States, if they are covered by the FMLA, are covered under Title II of the FMLA (incorporated in Title V, Chapter 63, Subchapter 5 of the United States Code) which is administered by the U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM). OPM has separate regulations at 5 CFR Part 630, Subpart L. Employees of the Government Printing Office are covered by Title II. While employees of the Government Accountability Office and the Library of Congress are covered by Title I of the FMLA, the Comptroller General of the United States and the Librarian of Congress, respectively, have responsibility for the administration of the FMLA with respect to these employees. Other legislative branch employees, such as employees of the Senate and House of Representatives, are covered by the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1301.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal Executive Branch employees within the jurisdiction of these regulations include:
</P>
<P>(1) Employees of the Postal Service;
</P>
<P>(2) Employees of the Postal Regulatory Commission;
</P>
<P>(3) A part-time employee who does not have an established regular tour of duty during the administrative workweek; and,
</P>
<P>(4) An employee serving under an intermittent appointment or temporary appointment with a time limitation of one year or less.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees of other Federal executive agencies are also covered by these regulations if they are not covered by Title II of FMLA.
</P>
<P>(d) Employees of the judicial branch of the United States are covered by these regulations only if they are employed in a unit which has employees in the competitive service. For example, employees of the U.S. Tax Court are covered by these regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) For employees covered by these regulations, the U.S. Government constitutes a single employer for purposes of determining employee eligibility. These employees must meet all of the requirements for eligibility, including the requirement that the Federal Government employ 50 employees at the worksite or within 75 miles.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.110" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.110   Eligible employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An eligible employee is an employee of a covered employer who:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been employed by the employer for at least 12 months, and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been employed for at least 1,250 hours of service during the 12-month period immediately preceding the commencement of the leave (<I>see</I> § 825.801 for special hours of service requirements for airline flight crew employees), and
</P>
<P>(3) Is employed at a worksite where 50 or more employees are employed by the employer within 75 miles of that worksite. <I>See</I> § 825.105(b) regarding employees who work outside the U.S.
</P>
<P>(b) The 12 months an employee must have been employed by the employer need not be consecutive months, <I>provided</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to the exceptions provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, employment periods prior to a break in service of seven years or more need not be counted in determining whether the employee has been employed by the employer for at least 12 months.
</P>
<P>(2) Employment periods preceding a break in service of more than seven years must be counted in determining whether the employee has been employed by the employer for at least 12 months where:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee's break in service is occasioned by the fulfillment of his or her Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA), 38 U.S.C. 4301, <I>et seq.,</I> covered service obligation. The period of absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service must be also counted in determining whether the employee has been employed for at least 12 months by the employer. However, this section does not provide any greater entitlement to the employee than would be available under the USERRA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A written agreement, including a collective bargaining agreement, exists concerning the employer's intention to rehire the employee after the break in service (e.g., for purposes of the employee furthering his or her education or for childrearing purposes).
</P>
<P>(3) If an employee is maintained on the payroll for any part of a week, including any periods of paid or unpaid leave (sick, vacation) during which other benefits or compensation are provided by the employer (e.g., workers' compensation, group health plan benefits, etc.), the week counts as a week of employment. For purposes of determining whether intermittent/occasional/casual employment qualifies as at least 12 months, 52 weeks is deemed to be equal to 12 months.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this section prevents employers from considering employment prior to a continuous break in service of more than seven years when determining whether an employee has met the 12-month employment requirement. However, if an employer chooses to recognize such prior employment, the employer must do so uniformly, with respect to all employees with similar breaks in service.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section and in § 825.801 containing the special hours of service requirement for airline flight crew employees, whether an employee has worked the minimum 1,250 hours of service is determined according to the principles established under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) for determining compensable hours of work. <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 785. The determining factor is the number of hours an employee has worked for the employer within the meaning of the FLSA. The determination is not limited by methods of recordkeeping, or by compensation agreements that do not accurately reflect all of the hours an employee has worked for or been in service to the employer. Any accurate accounting of actual hours worked under FLSA's principles may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) An employee returning from USERRA-covered service shall be credited with the hours of service that would have been performed but for the period of absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service in determining the employee's eligibility for FMLA-qualifying leave. Accordingly, a person reemployed following USERRA-covered service has the hours that would have been worked for the employer added to any hours actually worked during the previous 12-month period to meet the hours of service requirement. In order to determine the hours that would have been worked during the period of absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service, the employee's pre-service work schedule can generally be used for calculations. <I>See</I> § 825.801(c) for special rules applicable to airline flight crew employees.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event an employer does not maintain an accurate record of hours worked by an employee, including for employees who are exempt from FLSA's requirement that a record be kept of their hours worked (e.g., bona fide executive, administrative, and professional employees as defined in FLSA Regulations, 29 CFR part 541), the employer has the burden of showing that the employee has not worked the requisite hours. An employer must be able to clearly demonstrate, for example, that full-time teachers (<I>see</I> § 825.102 for definition) of an elementary or secondary school system, or institution of higher education, or other educational establishment or institution (who often work outside the classroom or at their homes) did not work 1,250 hours during the previous 12 months in order to claim that the teachers are not eligible for FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.801(d) for special rules applicable to airline flight crew employees.
</P>
<P>(d) The determination of whether an employee meets the hours of service requirement and has been employed by the employer for a total of at least 12 months must be made as of the date the FMLA leave is to start. An employee may be on non-FMLA leave at the time he or she meets the 12-month eligibility requirement, and in that event, any portion of the leave taken for an FMLA-qualifying reason after the employee meets the eligibility requirement would be FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.300(b) for rules governing the content of the eligibility notice given to employees.
</P>
<P>(e) Whether 50 employees are employed within 75 miles to ascertain an employee's eligibility for FMLA benefits is determined when the employee gives notice of the need for leave. Whether the leave is to be taken at one time or on an intermittent or reduced leave schedule basis, once an employee is determined eligible in response to that notice of the need for leave, the employee's eligibility is not affected by any subsequent change in the number of employees employed at or within 75 miles of the employee's worksite, for that specific notice of the need for leave. Similarly, an employer may not terminate employee leave that has already started if the employee count drops below 50. For example, if an employer employs 60 employees in August, but expects that the number of employees will drop to 40 in December, the employer must grant FMLA benefits to an otherwise eligible employee who gives notice of the need for leave in August for a period of leave to begin in December.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.111" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.111   Determining whether 50 employees are employed within 75 miles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Generally, a worksite can refer to either a single location or a group of contiguous locations. Structures which form a campus or industrial park, or separate facilities in proximity with one another, may be considered a single site of employment. On the other hand, there may be several single sites of employment within a single building, such as an office building, if separate employers conduct activities within the building. For example, an office building with 50 different businesses as tenants will contain 50 sites of employment. The offices of each employer will be considered separate sites of employment for purposes of FMLA. An employee's worksite under FMLA will ordinarily be the site the employee reports to or, if none, from which the employee's work is assigned.
</P>
<P>(1) Separate buildings or areas which are not directly connected or in immediate proximity are a single worksite if they are in reasonable geographic proximity, are used for the same purpose, and share the same staff and equipment. For example, if an employer manages a number of warehouses in a metropolitan area but regularly shifts or rotates the same employees from one building to another, the multiple warehouses would be a single worksite.
</P>
<P>(2) For employees with no fixed worksite, e.g., construction workers, transportation workers (e.g., truck drivers, seamen, pilots), salespersons, etc., the worksite is the site to which they are assigned as their home base, from which their work is assigned, or to which they report. For example, if a construction company headquartered in New Jersey opened a construction site in Ohio, and set up a mobile trailer on the construction site as the company's on-site office, the construction site in Ohio would be the worksite for any employees hired locally who report to the mobile trailer/company office daily for work assignments, etc. If that construction company also sent personnel such as job superintendents, foremen, engineers, an office manager, etc., from New Jersey to the job site in Ohio, those workers sent from New Jersey continue to have the headquarters in New Jersey as their worksite. The workers who have New Jersey as their worksite would not be counted in determining eligibility of employees whose home base is the Ohio worksite, but would be counted in determining eligibility of employees whose home base is New Jersey. For transportation employees, their worksite is the terminal to which they are assigned, report for work, depart, and return after completion of a work assignment. For example, an airline pilot may work for an airline with headquarters in New York, but the pilot regularly reports for duty and originates or begins flights from the company's facilities located in an airport in Chicago and returns to Chicago at the completion of one or more flights to go off duty. The pilot's worksite is the facility in Chicago. An employee's personal residence is not a worksite in the case of employees, such as salespersons, who travel a sales territory and who generally leave to work and return from work to their personal residence, or employees who work at home, as under the concept of flexiplace or telecommuting. Rather, their worksite is the office to which they report and from which assignments are made.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining that employee's eligibility, when an employee is jointly employed by two or more employers (<I>see</I> § 825.106), the employee's worksite is the primary employer's office from which the employee is assigned or reports, unless the employee has physically worked for at least one year at a facility of a secondary employer, in which case the employee's worksite is that location. The employee is also counted by the secondary employer to determine eligibility for the secondary employer's full-time or permanent employees.
</P>
<P>(b) The 75-mile distance is measured by surface miles, using surface transportation over public streets, roads, highways and waterways, by the shortest route from the facility where the employee needing leave is employed. Absent available surface transportation between worksites, the distance is measured by using the most frequently utilized mode of transportation (e.g., airline miles).
</P>
<P>(c) The determination of how many employees are employed within 75 miles of the worksite of an employee is based on the number of employees maintained on the payroll. Employees of educational institutions who are employed permanently or who are under contract are maintained on the payroll during any portion of the year when school is not in session. <I>See</I> § 825.105(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.112" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.112   Qualifying reasons for leave, general rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Circumstances qualifying for leave.</I> Employers covered by FMLA are required to grant leave to eligible employees:
</P>
<P>(1) For birth of a son or daughter, and to care for the newborn child (<I>see</I> § 825.120);
</P>
<P>(2) For placement with the employee of a son or daughter for adoption or foster care (<I>see</I> § 825.121);
</P>
<P>(3) To care for the employee's spouse, son, daughter, or parent with a serious health condition (<I>see</I> §§ 825.113 and 825.122);
</P>
<P>(4) Because of a serious health condition that makes the employee unable to perform the functions of the employee's job (<I>see</I> §§ 825.113 and 825.123);
</P>
<P>(5) Because of any qualifying exigency arising out of the fact that the employee's spouse, son, daughter, or parent is a military member on covered active duty (or has been notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty status (<I>see</I> §§ 825.122 and 825.126); and
</P>
<P>(6) To care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness if the employee is the spouse, son, daughter, parent, or next of kin of the covered servicemember. <I>See</I> §§ 825.122 and 825.127.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equal application.</I> The right to take leave under FMLA applies equally to male and female employees. A father, as well as a mother, can take family leave for the birth, placement for adoption, or foster care of a child.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Active employee.</I> In situations where the employer/employee relationship has been interrupted, such as an employee who has been on layoff, the employee must be recalled or otherwise be re-employed before being eligible for FMLA leave. Under such circumstances, an eligible employee is immediately entitled to further FMLA leave for a qualifying reason.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.113" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.113   Serious health condition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of FMLA, <I>serious health condition</I> entitling an employee to FMLA leave means an illness, injury, impairment or physical or mental condition that involves inpatient care as defined in § 825.114 or continuing treatment by a health care provider as defined in § 825.115.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>incapacity</I> means inability to work, attend school or perform other regular daily activities due to the serious health condition, treatment therefore, or recovery therefrom.
</P>
<P>(c) The term treatment includes (but is not limited to) examinations to determine if a serious health condition exists and evaluations of the condition. Treatment does not include routine physical examinations, eye examinations, or dental examinations. A regimen of continuing treatment includes, for example, a course of prescription medication (e.g., an antibiotic) or therapy requiring special equipment to resolve or alleviate the health condition (e.g., oxygen). A regimen of continuing treatment that includes the taking of over-the-counter medications such as aspirin, antihistamines, or salves; or bed-rest, drinking fluids, exercise, and other similar activities that can be initiated without a visit to a health care provider, is not, by itself, sufficient to constitute a regimen of continuing treatment for purposes of FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(d) Conditions for which cosmetic treatments are administered (such as most treatments for acne or plastic surgery) are not serious health conditions unless inpatient hospital care is required or unless complications develop. Ordinarily, unless complications arise, the common cold, the flu, ear aches, upset stomach, minor ulcers, headaches other than migraine, routine dental or orthodontia problems, periodontal disease, etc., are examples of conditions that do not meet the definition of a serious health condition and do not qualify for FMLA leave. Restorative dental or plastic surgery after an injury or removal of cancerous growths are serious health conditions provided all the other conditions of this regulation are met. Mental illness or allergies may be serious health conditions, but only if all the conditions of this section are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.114" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.114   Inpatient care.</HEAD>
<P>Inpatient care means an overnight stay in a hospital, hospice, or residential medical care facility, including any period of incapacity as defined in § 825.113(b), or any subsequent treatment in connection with such inpatient care.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.115" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.115   Continuing treatment.</HEAD>
<P>A serious health condition involving continuing treatment by a health care provider includes any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Incapacity and treatment.</I> A period of incapacity of more than three consecutive, full calendar days, and any subsequent treatment or period of incapacity relating to the same condition, that also involves:
</P>
<P>(1) Treatment two or more times, within 30 days of the first day of incapacity, unless extenuating circumstances exist, by a health care provider, by a nurse under direct supervision of a health care provider, or by a provider of health care services (e.g., physical therapist) under orders of, or on referral by, a health care provider; or
</P>
<P>(2) Treatment by a health care provider on at least one occasion, which results in a regimen of continuing treatment under the supervision of the health care provider.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section for treatment by a health care provider means an in-person visit to a health care provider. The first (or only) in-person treatment visit must take place within seven days of the first day of incapacity.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether additional treatment visits or a regimen of continuing treatment is necessary within the 30-day period shall be determined by the health care provider.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>extenuating circumstances</I> in paragraph (a)(1) of this section means circumstances beyond the employee's control that prevent the follow-up visit from occurring as planned by the health care provider. Whether a given set of circumstances are extenuating depends on the facts. For example, extenuating circumstances exist if a health care provider determines that a second in-person visit is needed within the 30-day period, but the health care provider does not have any available appointments during that time period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy or prenatal care.</I> Any period of incapacity due to pregnancy, or for prenatal care. <I>See also</I> § 825.120.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chronic conditions.</I> Any period of incapacity or treatment for such incapacity due to a chronic serious health condition. A chronic serious health condition is one which:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires periodic visits (defined as at least twice a year) for treatment by a health care provider, or by a nurse under direct supervision of a health care provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Continues over an extended period of time (including recurring episodes of a single underlying condition); and
</P>
<P>(3) May cause episodic rather than a continuing period of incapacity (e.g., asthma, diabetes, epilepsy, etc.).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permanent or long-term conditions.</I> A period of incapacity which is permanent or long-term due to a condition for which treatment may not be effective. The employee or family member must be under the continuing supervision of, but need not be receiving active treatment by, a health care provider. Examples include Alzheimer's, a severe stroke, or the terminal stages of a disease.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions requiring multiple treatments.</I> Any period of absence to receive multiple treatments (including any period of recovery therefrom) by a health care provider or by a provider of health care services under orders of, or on referral by, a health care provider, for:
</P>
<P>(1) Restorative surgery after an accident or other injury; or
</P>
<P>(2) A condition that would likely result in a period of incapacity of more than three consecutive, full calendar days in the absence of medical intervention or treatment, such as cancer (chemotherapy, radiation, etc.), severe arthritis (physical therapy), or kidney disease (dialysis).
</P>
<P>(f) Absences attributable to incapacity under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section qualify for FMLA leave even though the employee or the covered family member does not receive treatment from a health care provider during the absence, and even if the absence does not last more than three consecutive, full calendar days. For example, an employee with asthma may be unable to report for work due to the onset of an asthma attack or because the employee's health care provider has advised the employee to stay home when the pollen count exceeds a certain level. An employee who is pregnant may be unable to report to work because of severe morning sickness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 825.116-825.118" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 825.116-825.118   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.119" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.119   Leave for treatment of substance abuse.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Substance abuse may be a serious health condition if the conditions of §§ 825.113 through 825.115 are met. However, FMLA leave may only be taken for treatment for substance abuse by a health care provider or by a provider of health care services on referral by a health care provider. On the other hand, absence because of the employee's use of the substance, rather than for treatment, does not qualify for FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(b) Treatment for substance abuse does not prevent an employer from taking employment action against an employee. The employer may not take action against the employee because the employee has exercised his or her right to take FMLA leave for treatment. However, if the employer has an established policy, applied in a non-discriminatory manner that has been communicated to all employees, that provides under certain circumstances an employee may be terminated for substance abuse, pursuant to that policy the employee may be terminated whether or not the employee is presently taking FMLA leave. An employee may also take FMLA leave to care for a covered family member who is receiving treatment for substance abuse. The employer may not take action against an employee who is providing care for a covered family member receiving treatment for substance abuse.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.120" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.120   Leave for pregnancy or birth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> Eligible employees are entitled to FMLA leave for pregnancy or birth of a child as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Both parents are entitled to FMLA leave for the birth of their child.
</P>
<P>(2) Both parents are entitled to FMLA leave to be with the healthy newborn child (<I>i.e.,</I> bonding time) during the 12-month period beginning on the date of birth. An employee's entitlement to FMLA leave for a birth expires at the end of the 12-month period beginning on the date of the birth. If state law allows, or the employer permits, bonding leave to be taken beyond this period, such leave will not qualify as FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.701 regarding non-FMLA leave which may be available under applicable State laws. Under this section, both parents are entitled to FMLA leave even if the newborn does not have a serious health condition.
</P>
<P>(3) Spouses who are eligible for FMLA leave and are employed by the same covered employer may be limited to a combined total of 12 weeks of leave during any 12-month period if the leave is taken for birth of the employee's son or daughter or to care for the child after birth, for placement of a son or daughter with the employee for adoption or foster care or to care for the child after placement, or to care for the employee's parent with a serious health condition. This limitation on the total weeks of leave applies to leave taken for the reasons specified as long as the spouses are employed by the same employer. It would apply, for example, even though the spouses are employed at two different worksites of an employer located more than 75 miles from each other, or by two different operating divisions of the same company. On the other hand, if one spouse is ineligible for FMLA leave, the other spouse would be entitled to a full 12 weeks of FMLA leave. Where spouses both use a portion of the total 12-week FMLA leave entitlement for either the birth of a child, for placement for adoption or foster care, or to care for a parent, the spouses would each be entitled to the difference between the amount he or she has taken individually and 12 weeks for FMLA leave for other purposes. For example, if each spouse took six weeks of leave to care for a healthy, newborn child, each could use an additional six weeks due to his or her own serious health condition or to care for a child with a serious health condition. Note, too, that many state pregnancy disability laws specify a period of disability either before or after the birth of a child; such periods would also be considered FMLA leave for a serious health condition of the birth mother, and would not be subject to the combined limit.
</P>
<P>(4) The expectant mother is entitled to FMLA leave for incapacity due to pregnancy, for prenatal care, or for her own serious health condition following the birth of the child. Circumstances may require that FMLA leave begin before the actual date of birth of a child. An expectant mother may take FMLA leave before the birth of the child for prenatal care or if her condition makes her unable to work. The expectant mother is entitled to leave for incapacity due to pregnancy even though she does not receive treatment from a health care provider during the absence, and even if the absence does not last for more than three consecutive calendar days. For example, a pregnant employee may be unable to report to work because of severe morning sickness.
</P>
<P>(5) A spouse is entitled to FMLA leave if needed to care for a pregnant spouse who is incapacitated or if needed to care for her during her prenatal care, or if needed to care for her following the birth of a child if she has a serious health condition. <I>See</I> § 825.124.
</P>
<P>(6) Both parents are entitled to FMLA leave if needed to care for a child with a serious health condition if the requirements of §§ 825.113 through 825.115 and 825.122(d) are met. Thus, spouses may each take 12 weeks of FMLA leave if needed to care for their newborn child with a serious health condition, even if both are employed by the same employer, provided they have not exhausted their entitlements during the applicable 12-month FMLA leave period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Intermittent and reduced schedule leave.</I> An eligible employee may use intermittent or reduced schedule leave after the birth to be with a healthy newborn child only if the employer agrees. For example, an employer and employee may agree to a part-time work schedule after the birth. If the employer agrees to permit intermittent or reduced schedule leave for the birth of a child, the employer may require the employee to transfer temporarily, during the period the intermittent or reduced leave schedule is required, to an available alternative position for which the employee is qualified and which better accommodates recurring periods of leave than does the employee's regular position. Transfer to an alternative position may require compliance with any applicable collective bargaining agreement, Federal law (such as the Americans with Disabilities Act), and State law. Transfer to an alternative position may include altering an existing job to better accommodate the employee's need for intermittent or reduced leave. The employer's agreement is not required for intermittent leave required by the serious health condition of the expectant mother or newborn child. <I>See</I> §§ 825.202—825.205 for general rules governing the use of intermittent and reduced schedule leave. <I>See</I> § 825.121 for rules governing leave for adoption or foster care. <I>See</I> § 825.601 for special rules applicable to instructional employees of schools. <I>See</I> § 825.802 for special rules applicable to airline flight crew employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10000, Feb. 25, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.121" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.121   Leave for adoption or foster care.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> Eligible employees are entitled to FMLA leave for placement with the employee of a son or daughter for adoption or foster care as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Employees may take FMLA leave before the actual placement or adoption of a child if an absence from work is required for the placement for adoption or foster care to proceed. For example, the employee may be required to attend counseling sessions, appear in court, consult with his or her attorney or the doctor(s) representing the birth parent, submit to a physical examination, or travel to another country to complete an adoption. The source of an adopted child (e.g., whether from a licensed placement agency or otherwise) is not a factor in determining eligibility for leave for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) An employee's entitlement to leave for adoption or foster care expires at the end of the 12-month period beginning on the date of the placement. If state law allows, or the employer permits, leave for adoption or foster care to be taken beyond this period, such leave will not qualify as FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.701 regarding non-FMLA leave which may be available under applicable State laws. Under this section, the employee is entitled to FMLA leave even if the adopted or foster child does not have a serious health condition.
</P>
<P>(3) Spouses who are eligible for FMLA leave and are employed by the same covered employer may be limited to a combined total of 12 weeks of leave during any 12-month period if the leave is taken for the placement of the employee's son or daughter or to care for the child after placement, for the birth of the employee's son or daughter or to care for the child after birth, or to care for the employee's parent with a serious health condition. This limitation on the total weeks of leave applies to leave taken for the reasons specified as long as the spouses are employed by the same employer. It would apply, for example, even though the spouses are employed at two different worksites of an employer located more than 75 miles from each other, or by two different operating divisions of the same company. On the other hand, if one spouse is ineligible for FMLA leave, the other spouse would be entitled to a full 12 weeks of FMLA leave. Where spouses both use a portion of the total 12-week FMLA leave entitlement for either the birth of a child, for placement for adoption or foster care, or to care for a parent, the spouses would each be entitled to the difference between the amount he or she has taken individually and 12 weeks for FMLA leave for other purposes. For example, if each spouse took six weeks of leave to care for a healthy, newly placed child, each could use an additional six weeks due to his or her own serious health condition or to care for a child with a serious health condition.
</P>
<P>(4) An eligible employee is entitled to FMLA leave in order to care for an adopted or foster child with a serious health condition if the requirements of §§ 825.113 through 825.115 and 825.122(d) are met. Thus, spouses may each take 12 weeks of FMLA leave if needed to care for an adopted or foster child with a serious health condition, even if both are employed by the same employer, provided they have not exhausted their entitlements during the applicable 12-month FMLA leave period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of intermittent and reduced schedule leave.</I> An eligible employee may use intermittent or reduced schedule leave after the placement of a healthy child for adoption or foster care only if the employer agrees. Thus, for example, the employer and employee may agree to a part-time work schedule after the placement for bonding purposes. If the employer agrees to permit intermittent or reduced schedule leave for the placement for adoption or foster care, the employer may require the employee to transfer temporarily, during the period the intermittent or reduced leave schedule is required, to an available alternative position for which the employee is qualified and which better accommodates recurring periods of leave than does the employee's regular position. Transfer to an alternative position may require compliance with any applicable collective bargaining agreement, federal law (such as the Americans with Disabilities Act), and State law. Transfer to an alternative position may include altering an existing job to better accommodate the employee's need for intermittent or reduced leave. The employer's agreement is not required for intermittent leave required by the serious health condition of the adopted or foster child. <I>See</I> §§ 825.202-825.205 for general rules governing the use of intermittent and reduced schedule leave. <I>See</I> § 825.120 for general rules governing leave for pregnancy and birth of a child. <I>See</I> § 825.601 for special rules applicable to instructional employees of schools. <I>See</I> § 825.802 for special rules applicable to airline flight crew employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10000, Feb. 25, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.122" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.122   Definitions of covered servicemember, spouse, parent, son or daughter, next of kin of a covered servicemember, adoption, foster care, son or daughter on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, son or daughter of a covered servicemember, and parent of a covered servicemember.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Covered servicemember means: (1) A current member of the Armed Forces, including a member of the National Guard or Reserves, who is undergoing medical treatment, recuperation or therapy, is otherwise in outpatient status, or is otherwise on the temporary disability retired list, for a serious injury or illness; or
</P>
<P>(2) A covered veteran who is undergoing medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy for a serious injury or illness. <I>Covered veteran</I> means an individual who was a member of the Armed Forces (including a member of the National Guard or Reserves), and was discharged or released under conditions other than dishonorable at any time during the five-year period prior to the first date the eligible employee takes FMLA leave to care for the covered veteran. <I>See</I> § 825.127(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Spouse, as defined in the statute,</I> means a husband or wife. For purposes of this definition, husband or wife refers to the other person with whom an individual entered into marriage as defined or recognized under state law for purposes of marriage in the State in which the marriage was entered into or, in the case of a marriage entered into outside of any State, if the marriage is valid in the place where entered into and could have been entered into in at least one State. This definition includes an individual in a same-sex or common law marriage that either:
</P>
<P>(1) Was entered into in a State that recognizes such marriages; or
</P>
<P>(2) If entered into outside of any State, is valid in the place where entered into and could have been entered into in at least one State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parent.</I> Parent means a biological, adoptive, step or foster father or mother, or any other individual who stood in loco parentis to the employee when the employee was a son or daughter as defined in paragraph (d) of this section. This term does not include parents “in law.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Son or daughter.</I> For purposes of FMLA leave taken for birth or adoption, or to care for a family member with a serious health condition, son or daughter means a biological, adopted, or foster child, a stepchild, a legal ward, or a child of a person standing in loco parentis, who is either under age 18, or age 18 or older and “incapable of self-care because of a mental or physical disability” at the time that FMLA leave is to commence.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Incapable of self-care</I> means that the individual requires active assistance or supervision to provide daily self-care in three or more of the activities of daily living (ADLs) or instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). Activities of daily living include adaptive activities such as caring appropriately for one's grooming and hygiene, bathing, dressing and eating. Instrumental activities of daily living include cooking, cleaning, shopping, taking public transportation, paying bills, maintaining a residence, using telephones and directories, using a post office, etc.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Physical or mental disability</I> means a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of an individual. Regulations at 29 CFR 1630.2(h), (i), and (j), issued by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), 42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.,</I> define these terms.
</P>
<P>(3) Persons who are “in loco parentis” include those with day-to-day responsibilities to care for and financially support a child, or, in the case of an employee, who had such responsibility for the employee when the employee was a child. A biological or legal relationship is not necessary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Next of kin of a covered servicemember</I> means the nearest blood relative other than the covered servicemember's spouse, parent, son, or daughter, in the following order of priority: blood relatives who have been granted legal custody of the covered servicemember by court decree or statutory provisions, brothers and sisters, grandparents, aunts and uncles, and first cousins, unless the covered servicemember has specifically designated in writing another blood relative as his or her nearest blood relative for purposes of military caregiver leave under the FMLA. When no such designation is made, and there are multiple family members with the same level of relationship to the covered servicemember, all such family members shall be considered the covered servicemember's next of kin and may take FMLA leave to provide care to the covered servicemember, either consecutively or simultaneously. When such designation has been made, the designated individual shall be deemed to be the covered servicemember's only next of kin. <I>See</I> § 825.127(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Adoption</I> means legally and permanently assuming the responsibility of raising a child as one's own. The source of an adopted child (e.g., whether from a licensed placement agency or otherwise) is not a factor in determining eligibility for FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.121 for rules governing leave for adoption.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Foster care</I> means 24-hour care for children in substitution for, and away from, their parents or guardian. Such placement is made by or with the agreement of the State as a result of a voluntary agreement between the parent or guardian that the child be removed from the home, or pursuant to a judicial determination of the necessity for foster care, and involves agreement between the State and foster family that the foster family will take care of the child. Although foster care may be with relatives of the child, State action is involved in the removal of the child from parental custody. <I>See</I> § 825.121 for rules governing leave for foster care.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Son or daughter on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status</I> means the employee's biological, adopted, or foster child, stepchild, legal ward, or a child for whom the employee stood in loco parentis, who is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, and who is of any age. <I>See</I> § 825.126(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Son or daughter of a covered servicemember</I> means the covered servicemember's biological, adopted, or foster child, stepchild, legal ward, or a child for whom the covered servicemember stood in loco parentis, and who is of any age. <I>See</I> § 825.127(d)(1).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Parent of a covered servicemember</I> means a covered servicemember's biological, adoptive, step or foster father or mother, or any other individual who stood in loco parentis to the covered servicemember. This term does not include parents “in law.” <I>See</I> § 825.127(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Documenting relationships.</I> For purposes of confirmation of family relationship, the employer may require the employee giving notice of the need for leave to provide reasonable documentation or statement of family relationship. This documentation may take the form of a simple statement from the employee, or a child's birth certificate, a court document, etc. The employer is entitled to examine documentation such as a birth certificate, etc., but the employee is entitled to the return of the official document submitted for this purpose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10001, Feb. 25, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.123" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.123   Unable to perform the functions of the position.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> An employee is unable to perform the functions of the position where the health care provider finds that the employee is unable to work at all or is unable to perform any one of the essential functions of the employee's position within the meaning of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), as amended, 42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.,</I> and the regulations at 29 CFR 1630.2(n). An employee who must be absent from work to receive medical treatment for a serious health condition is considered to be unable to perform the essential functions of the position during the absence for treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statement of functions.</I> An employer has the option, in requiring certification from a health care provider, to provide a statement of the essential functions of the employee's position for the health care provider to review. A sufficient medical certification must specify what functions of the employee's position the employee is unable to perform so that the employer can then determine whether the employee is unable to perform one or more essential functions of the employee's position. For purposes of FMLA, the essential functions of the employee's position are to be determined with reference to the position the employee held at the time notice is given or leave commenced, whichever is earlier. <I>See</I> § 825.306.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.124" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.124   Needed to care for a family member or covered servicemember.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The medical certification provision that an employee is needed to care for a family member or covered servicemember encompasses both physical and psychological care. It includes situations where, for example, because of a serious health condition, the family member is unable to care for his or her own basic medical, hygienic, or nutritional needs or safety, or is unable to transport himself or herself to the doctor. The term also includes providing psychological comfort and reassurance which would be beneficial to a child, spouse or parent with a serious health condition who is receiving inpatient or home care.
</P>
<P>(b) The term also includes situations where the employee may be needed to substitute for others who normally care for the family member or covered servicemember, or to make arrangements for changes in care, such as transfer to a nursing home. The employee need not be the only individual or family member available to care for the family member or covered servicemember.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee's intermittent leave or a reduced leave schedule necessary to care for a family member or covered servicemember includes not only a situation where the condition of the family member or covered servicemember itself is intermittent, but also where the employee is only needed intermittently—such as where other care is normally available, or care responsibilities are shared with another member of the family or a third party. <I>See</I> §§ 825.202-825.205 for rules governing the use of intermittent or reduced schedule leave.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.125" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.125   Definition of health care provider.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act defines <I>health care provider</I> as:
</P>
<P>(1) A doctor of medicine or osteopathy who is authorized to practice medicine or surgery (as appropriate) by the State in which the doctor practices; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other person determined by the Secretary to be capable of providing health care services.
</P>
<P>(b) Others capable of providing health care services include only:
</P>
<P>(1) Podiatrists, dentists, clinical psychologists, optometrists, and chiropractors (limited to treatment consisting of manual manipulation of the spine to correct a subluxation as demonstrated by X-ray to exist) authorized to practice in the State and performing within the scope of their practice as defined under State law;
</P>
<P>(2) Nurse practitioners, nurse-midwives, clinical social workers and physician assistants who are authorized to practice under State law and who are performing within the scope of their practice as defined under State law;
</P>
<P>(3) Christian Science Practitioners listed with the First Church of Christ, Scientist in Boston, Massachusetts. Where an employee or family member is receiving treatment from a Christian Science practitioner, an employee may not object to any requirement from an employer that the employee or family member submit to examination (though not treatment) to obtain a second or third certification from a health care provider other than a Christian Science practitioner except as otherwise provided under applicable State or local law or collective bargaining agreement;
</P>
<P>(4) Any health care provider from whom an employer or the employer's group health plan's benefits manager will accept certification of the existence of a serious health condition to substantiate a claim for benefits; and
</P>
<P>(5) A health care provider listed above who practices in a country other than the United States, who is authorized to practice in accordance with the law of that country, and who is performing within the scope of his or her practice as defined under such law.
</P>
<P>(c) The phrase authorized to practice in the State as used in this section means that the provider must be authorized to diagnose and treat physical or mental health conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.126" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.126   Leave because of a qualifying exigency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eligible employees may take FMLA leave for a qualifying exigency while the employee's spouse, son, daughter, or parent (the military member or member) is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status (or has been notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Covered active duty or call to covered active duty status</I> in the case of a member of the Regular Armed Forces means duty during the deployment of the member with the Armed Forces to a foreign country. The active duty orders of a member of the Regular components of the Armed Forces will generally specify if the member is deployed to a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered active duty or call to covered active duty status</I> in the case of a member of the Reserve components of the Armed Forces means duty during the deployment of the member with the Armed Forces to a foreign country under a Federal call or order to active duty in support of a contingency operation pursuant to: Section 688 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes ordering to active duty retired members of the Regular Armed Forces and members of the retired Reserve who retired after completing at least 20 years of active service; Section 12301(a) of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes ordering all reserve component members to active duty in the case of war or national emergency; Section 12302 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes ordering any unit or unassigned member of the Ready Reserve to active duty; Section 12304 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes ordering any unit or unassigned member of the Selected Reserve and certain members of the Individual Ready Reserve to active duty; Section 12305 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes the suspension of promotion, retirement or separation rules for certain Reserve components; Section 12406 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes calling the National Guard into Federal service in certain circumstances; chapter 15 of Title 10 of the United States Code, which authorizes calling the National Guard and state military into Federal service in the case of insurrections and national emergencies; or any other provision of law during a war or during a national emergency declared by the President or Congress so long as it is in support of a contingency operation. <I>See</I> 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(13)(B).
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, the Reserve components of the Armed Forces include the Army National Guard of the United States, Army Reserve, Navy Reserve, Marine Corps Reserve, Air National Guard of the United States, Air Force Reserve and Coast Guard Reserve, and retired members of the Regular Armed Forces or Reserves who are called up in support of a contingency operation pursuant to one of the provisions of law identified in paragraph (a)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) The active duty orders of a member of the Reserve components will generally specify if the military member is serving in support of a contingency operation by citation to the relevant section of Title 10 of the United States Code and/or by reference to the specific name of the contingency operation and will specify that the deployment is to a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deployment of the member with the Armed Forces to a foreign country</I> means deployment to areas outside of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any Territory or possession of the United States, including international waters.
</P>
<P>(4) A call to covered active duty for purposes of leave taken because of a qualifying exigency refers to a Federal call to active duty. State calls to active duty are not covered unless under order of the President of the United States pursuant to one of the provisions of law identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Son or daughter on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status</I> means the employee's biological, adopted, or foster child, stepchild, legal ward, or a child for whom the employee stood in loco parentis, who is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, and who is of any age.
</P>
<P>(b) An eligible employee may take FMLA leave for one or more of the following qualifying exigencies:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Short-notice deployment.</I> (i) To address any issue that arises from the fact that the military member is notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty seven or less calendar days prior to the date of deployment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Leave taken for this purpose can be used for a period of seven calendar days beginning on the date the military member is notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Military events and related activities.</I> (i) To attend any official ceremony, program, or event sponsored by the military that is related to the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To attend family support or assistance programs and informational briefings sponsored or promoted by the military, military service organizations, or the American Red Cross that are related to the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Childcare and school activities.</I> For the purposes of leave for childcare and school activities listed in (i) through (iv) of this paragraph, a child of the military member must be the military member's biological, adopted, or foster child, stepchild, legal ward, or child for whom the military member stands in loco parentis, who is either under 18 years of age or 18 years of age or older and incapable of self-care because of a mental or physical disability at the time that FMLA leave is to commence. As with all instances of qualifying exigency leave, the military member must be the spouse, son, daughter, or parent of the employee requesting qualifying exigency leave.
</P>
<P>(i) To arrange for alternative childcare for a child of the military member when the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member necessitates a change in the existing childcare arrangement;
</P>
<P>(ii) To provide childcare for a child of the military member on an urgent, immediate need basis (but not on a routine, regular, or everyday basis) when the need to provide such care arises from the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member;
</P>
<P>(iii) To enroll in or transfer to a new school or day care facility a child of the military member when enrollment or transfer is necessitated by the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member; and
</P>
<P>(iv) To attend meetings with staff at a school or a daycare facility, such as meetings with school officials regarding disciplinary measures, parent-teacher conferences, or meetings with school counselors, for a child of the military member, when such meetings are necessary due to circumstances arising from the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Financial and legal arrangements.</I> (i) To make or update financial or legal arrangements to address the military member's absence while on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, such as preparing and executing financial and healthcare powers of attorney, transferring bank account signature authority, enrolling in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS), obtaining military identification cards, or preparing or updating a will or living trust; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To act as the military member's representative before a federal, state, or local agency for purposes of obtaining, arranging, or appealing military service benefits while the military member is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, and for a period of 90 days following the termination of the military member's covered active duty status;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Counseling.</I> To attend counseling provided by someone other than a health care provider, for oneself, for the military member, or for the biological, adopted, or foster child, a stepchild, or a legal ward of the military member, or a child for whom the military member stands in loco parentis, who is either under age 18, or age 18 or older and incapable of self-care because of a mental or physical disability at the time that FMLA leave is to commence, provided that the need for counseling arises from the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rest and Recuperation.</I> (i) To spend time with the military member who is on short-term, temporary, Rest and Recuperation leave during the period of deployment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Leave taken for this purpose can be used for a period of 15 calendar days beginning on the date the military member commences each instance of Rest and Recuperation leave;
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Post-deployment activities.</I> (i) To attend arrival ceremonies, reintegration briefings and events, and any other official ceremony or program sponsored by the military for a period of 90 days following the termination of the military member's covered active duty status; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To address issues that arise from the death of the military member while on covered active duty status, such as meeting and recovering the body of the military member, making funeral arrangements, and attending funeral services;
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Parental care.</I> For purposes of leave for parental care listed in (i) through (iv) of this paragraph, the parent of the military member must be incapable of self-care and must be the military member's biological, adoptive, step, or foster father or mother, or any other individual who stood in loco parentis to the military member when the member was under 18 years of age. A parent who is incapable of self-care means that the parent requires active assistance or supervision to provide daily self-care in three or more of the activities of daily living or instrumental activities of daily living. Activities of daily living include adaptive activities such as caring appropriately for one's grooming and hygiene, bathing, dressing, and eating. Instrumental activities of daily living include cooking, cleaning, shopping, taking public transportation, paying bills, maintaining a residence, using telephones and directories, using a post office, etc. As with all instances of qualifying exigency leave, the military member must be the spouse, son, daughter, or parent of the employee requesting qualifying exigency leave.
</P>
<P>(i) To arrange for alternative care for a parent of the military member when the parent is incapable of self-care and the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member necessitates a change in the existing care arrangement for the parent;
</P>
<P>(ii) To provide care for a parent of the military member on an urgent, immediate need basis (but not on a routine, regular, or everyday basis) when the parent is incapable of self-care and the need to provide such care arises from the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member;
</P>
<P>(iii) To admit to or transfer to a care facility a parent of the military member when admittance or transfer is necessitated by the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member; and
</P>
<P>(iv) To attend meetings with staff at a care facility, such as meetings with hospice or social service providers for a parent of the military member, when such meetings are necessary due to circumstances arising from the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status of the military member but not for routine or regular meetings;
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Additional activities.</I> To address other events which arise out of the military member's covered active duty or call to covered active duty status provided that the employer and employee agree that such leave shall qualify as an exigency, and agree to both the timing and duration of such leave.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.127" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.1.489.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.127   Leave to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness (military caregiver leave).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eligible employees are entitled to FMLA leave to care for a covered servicemember with a serious illness or injury.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered servicemember</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A current member of the Armed Forces, including a member of the National Guard or Reserves, who is undergoing medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy, is otherwise in outpatient status; or is otherwise on the temporary disability retired list, for a serious injury or illness. <I>Outpatient status</I> means the status of a member of the Armed Forces assigned to either a military medical treatment facility as an outpatient or a unit established for the purpose of providing command and control of members of the Armed Forces receiving medical care as outpatients.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered veteran who is undergoing medical treatment, recuperation or therapy for a serious injury or illness. <I>Covered veteran</I> means an individual who was a member of the Armed Forces (including a member of the National Guard or Reserves), and was discharged or released under conditions other than dishonorable at any time during the five-year period prior to the first date the eligible employee takes FMLA leave to care for the covered veteran. An eligible employee must commence leave to care for a covered veteran within five years of the veteran's active duty service, but the single 12-month period described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section may extend beyond the five-year period.
</P>
<P>(i) For an individual who was a member of the Armed Forces (including a member of the National Guard or Reserves) and who was discharged or released under conditions other than dishonorable prior to the effective date of this Final Rule, the period between October 28, 2009 and the effective date of this Final Rule shall not count towards the determination of the five-year period for covered veteran status.
</P>
<P>(c) A <I>serious injury or illness</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a current member of the Armed Forces, including a member of the National Guard or Reserves, means an injury or illness that was incurred by the covered servicemember in the line of duty on active duty in the Armed Forces or that existed before the beginning of the member's active duty and was aggravated by service in the line of duty on active duty in the Armed Forces, and that may render the member medically unfit to perform the duties of the member's office, grade, rank or rating; and,
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a covered veteran, means an injury or illness that was incurred by the member in the line of duty on active duty in the Armed Forces (or existed before the beginning of the member's active duty and was aggravated by service in the line of duty on active duty in the Armed Forces) and manifested itself before or after the member became a veteran, and is:
</P>
<P>(i) a continuation of a serious injury or illness that was incurred or aggravated when the covered veteran was a member of the Armed Forces and rendered the servicemember unable to perform the duties of the servicemember's office, grade, rank, or rating; or
</P>
<P>(ii) a physical or mental condition for which the covered veteran has received a U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Service-Related Disability Rating (VASRD) of 50 percent or greater, and such VASRD rating is based, in whole or in part, on the condition precipitating the need for military caregiver leave; or
</P>
<P>(iii) a physical or mental condition that substantially impairs the covered veteran's ability to secure or follow a substantially gainful occupation by reason of a disability or disabilities related to military service, or would do so absent treatment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) an injury, including a psychological injury, on the basis of which the covered veteran has been enrolled in the Department of Veterans Affairs Program of Comprehensive Assistance for Family Caregivers.
</P>
<P>(d) In order to care for a covered servicemember, an eligible employee must be the spouse, son, daughter, or parent, or next of kin of a covered servicemember.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Son or daughter of a covered servicemember</I> means the covered servicemember's biological, adopted, or foster child, stepchild, legal ward, or a child for whom the covered servicemember stood in loco parentis, and who is of any age.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Parent of a covered servicemember</I> means a covered servicemember's biological, adoptive, step or foster father or mother, or any other individual who stood in loco parentis to the covered servicemember. This term does not include parents “in law.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Next of kin of a covered servicemember</I> means the nearest blood relative, other than the covered servicemember's spouse, parent, son, or daughter, in the following order of priority: blood relatives who have been granted legal custody of the servicemember by court decree or statutory provisions, brothers and sisters, grandparents, aunts and uncles, and first cousins, unless the covered servicemember has specifically designated in writing another blood relative as his or her nearest blood relative for purposes of military caregiver leave under the FMLA. When no such designation is made, and there are multiple family members with the same level of relationship to the covered servicemember, all such family members shall be considered the covered servicemember's next of kin and may take FMLA leave to provide care to the covered servicemember, either consecutively or simultaneously. When such designation has been made, the designated individual shall be deemed to be the covered servicemember's only next of kin. For example, if a covered servicemember has three siblings and has not designated a blood relative to provide care, all three siblings would be considered the covered servicemember's next of kin. Alternatively, where a covered servicemember has a sibling(s) and designates a cousin as his or her next of kin for FMLA purposes, then only the designated cousin is eligible as the covered servicemember's next of kin. An employer is permitted to require an employee to provide confirmation of covered family relationship to the covered servicemember pursuant to § 825.122(k).
</P>
<P>(e) An eligible employee is entitled to 26 workweeks of leave to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness during a single 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(1) The single 12-month period described in paragraph (e) of this section begins on the first day the eligible employee takes FMLA leave to care for a covered servicemember and ends 12 months after that date, regardless of the method used by the employer to determine the employee's 12 workweeks of leave entitlement for other FMLA-qualifying reasons. If an eligible employee does not take all of his or her 26 workweeks of leave entitlement to care for a covered servicemember during this single 12-month period, the remaining part of his or her 26 workweeks of leave entitlement to care for the covered servicemember is forfeited.
</P>
<P>(2) The leave entitlement described in paragraph (e) of this section is to be applied on a per-covered-servicemember, per-injury basis such that an eligible employee may be entitled to take more than one period of 26 workweeks of leave if the leave is to care for different covered servicemembers or to care for the same servicemember with a subsequent serious injury or illness, except that no more than 26 workweeks of leave may be taken within any single 12-month period. An eligible employee may take more than one period of 26 workweeks of leave to care for a covered servicemember with more than one serious injury or illness only when the serious injury or illness is a subsequent serious injury or illness. When an eligible employee takes leave to care for more than one covered servicemember or for a subsequent serious injury or illness of the same covered servicemember, and the single 12-month periods corresponding to the different military caregiver leave entitlements overlap, the employee is limited to taking no more than 26 workweeks of leave in each single 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(3) An eligible employee is entitled to a combined total of 26 workweeks of leave for any FMLA-qualifying reason during the single 12-month period described in paragraph (e) of this section, provided that the employee is entitled to no more than 12 workweeks of leave for one or more of the following: because of the birth of a son or daughter of the employee and in order to care for such son or daughter; because of the placement of a son or daughter with the employee for adoption or foster care; in order to care for the spouse, son, daughter, or parent with a serious health condition; because of the employee's own serious health condition; or because of a qualifying exigency. Thus, for example, an eligible employee may, during the single 12-month period, take 16 workweeks of FMLA leave to care for a covered servicemember and 10 workweeks of FMLA leave to care for a newborn child. However, the employee may not take more than 12 weeks of FMLA leave to care for the newborn child during the single 12-month period, even if the employee takes fewer than 14 workweeks of FMLA leave to care for a covered servicemember.
</P>
<P>(4) In all circumstances, including for leave taken to care for a covered servicemember, the employer is responsible for designating leave, paid or unpaid, as FMLA-qualifying, and for giving notice of the designation to the employee as provided in § 825.300. In the case of leave that qualifies as both leave to care for a covered servicemember and leave to care for a family member with a serious health condition during the single 12-month period described in paragraph (e) of this section, the employer must designate such leave as leave to care for a covered servicemember in the first instance. Leave that qualifies as both leave to care for a covered servicemember and leave taken to care for a family member with a serious health condition during the single 12-month period described in paragraph (e) of this section must not be designated and counted as both leave to care for a covered servicemember and leave to care for a family member with a serious health condition. As is the case with leave taken for other qualifying reasons, employers may retroactively designate leave as leave to care for a covered servicemember pursuant to § 825.301(d).
</P>
<P>(f) Spouses who are eligible for FMLA leave and are employed by the same covered employer may be limited to a combined total of 26 workweeks of leave during the single 12-month period described in paragraph (e) of this section if the leave is taken for birth of the employee's son or daughter or to care for the child after birth, for placement of a son or daughter with the employee for adoption or foster care, or to care for the child after placement, to care for the employee's parent with a serious health condition, or to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness. This limitation on the total weeks of leave applies to leave taken for the reasons specified as long as the spouses are employed by the same employer. It would apply, for example, even though the spouses are employed at two different worksites of an employer located more than 75 miles from each other, or by two different operating divisions of the same company. On the other hand, if one spouse is ineligible for FMLA leave, the other spouse would be entitled to a full 26 workweeks of FMLA leave.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10001, Feb. 25, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Employee Leave Entitlements Under the Family and Medical Leave Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.200" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.200   Amount of leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in the case of leave to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness, an eligible employee's FMLA leave entitlement is limited to a total of 12 workweeks of leave during any 12-month period for any one, or more, of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) The birth of the employee's son or daughter, and to care for the newborn child;
</P>
<P>(2) The placement with the employee of a son or daughter for adoption or foster care, and to care for the newly placed child;
</P>
<P>(3) To care for the employee's spouse, son, daughter, or parent with a serious health condition;
</P>
<P>(4) Because of a serious health condition that makes the employee unable to perform one or more of the essential functions of his or her job; and,
</P>
<P>(5) Because of any qualifying exigency arising out of the fact that the employee's spouse, son, daughter, or parent is a military member on covered active duty status (or has been notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty).
</P>
<P>(b) An employer is permitted to choose any one of the following methods for determining the 12-month period in which the 12 weeks of leave entitlement described in paragraph (a) of this section occurs:
</P>
<P>(1) The calendar year;
</P>
<P>(2) Any fixed 12-month leave year, such as a fiscal year, a year required by State law, or a year starting on an employee's anniversary date;
</P>
<P>(3) The 12-month period measured forward from the date any employee's first FMLA leave under paragraph (a) begins; or,
</P>
<P>(4) A “rolling” 12-month period measured backward from the date an employee uses any FMLA leave as described in paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(c) Under methods in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section an employee would be entitled to up to 12 weeks of FMLA leave at any time in the fixed 12-month period selected. An employee could, therefore, take 12 weeks of leave at the end of the year and 12 weeks at the beginning of the following year. Under the method in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, an employee would be entitled to 12 weeks of leave during the year beginning on the first date FMLA leave is taken; the next 12-month period would begin the first time FMLA leave is taken after completion of any previous 12-month period. Under the method in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the “rolling” 12-month period, each time an employee takes FMLA leave the remaining leave entitlement would be any balance of the 12 weeks which has not been used during the immediately preceding 12 months. For example, if an employee has taken eight weeks of leave during the past 12 months, an additional four weeks of leave could be taken. If an employee used four weeks beginning February 1, 2008, four weeks beginning June 1, 2008, and four weeks beginning December 1, 2008, the employee would not be entitled to any additional leave until February 1, 2009. However, beginning on February 1, 2009, the employee would again be eligible to take FMLA leave, recouping the right to take the leave in the same manner and amounts in which it was used in the previous year. Thus, the employee would recoup (and be entitled to use) one additional day of FMLA leave each day for four weeks, commencing February 1, 2009. The employee would also begin to recoup additional days beginning on June 1, 2009, and additional days beginning on December 1, 2009. Accordingly, employers using the rolling 12-month period may need to calculate whether the employee is entitled to take FMLA leave each time that leave is requested, and employees taking FMLA leave on such a basis may fall in and out of FMLA protection based on their FMLA usage in the prior 12 months. For example, in the example above, if the employee needs six weeks of leave for a serious health condition commencing February 1, 2009, only the first four weeks of the leave would be FMLA protected.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Employers will be allowed to choose any one of the alternatives in paragraph (b) of this section for the leave entitlements described in paragraph (a) of this section provided the alternative chosen is applied consistently and uniformly to all employees. An employer wishing to change to another alternative is required to give at least 60 days notice to all employees, and the transition must take place in such a way that the employees retain the full benefit of 12 weeks of leave under whichever method affords the greatest benefit to the employee. Under no circumstances may a new method be implemented in order to avoid the Act's leave requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) An exception to this required uniformity would apply in the case of a multi-State employer who has eligible employees in a State which has a family and medical leave statute. The State may require a single method of determining the period during which use of the leave entitlement is measured. This method may conflict with the method chosen by the employer to determine any 12 months for purposes of the Federal statute. The employer may comply with the State provision for all employees employed within that State, and uniformly use another method provided by this regulation for the leave entitlements described in paragraph (a) for all other employees.
</P>
<P>(e) If an employer fails to select one of the options in paragraph (b) of this section for measuring the 12-month period for the leave entitlements described in paragraph (a), the option that provides the most beneficial outcome for the employee will be used. The employer may subsequently select an option only by providing the 60-day notice to all employees of the option the employer intends to implement. During the running of the 60-day period any other employee who needs FMLA leave may use the option providing the most beneficial outcome to that employee. At the conclusion of the 60-day period the employer may implement the selected option.
</P>
<P>(f) An eligible employee's FMLA leave entitlement is limited to a total of 26 workweeks of leave during a single 12-month period to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness. An employer shall determine the single 12-month period in which the 26-weeks-of-leave-entitlement described in this paragraph occurs using the 12-month period measured forward from the date an employee's first FMLA leave to care for the covered servicemember begins. <I>See</I> § 825.127(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(g) During the single 12-month period described in paragraph (f), an eligible employee's FMLA leave entitlement is limited to a combined total of 26 workweeks of FMLA leave for any qualifying reason. <I>See</I> § 825.127(e)(3).
</P>
<P>(h) For purposes of determining the amount of leave used by an employee, the fact that a holiday may occur within the week taken as FMLA leave has no effect; the week is counted as a week of FMLA leave. However, if an employee is using FMLA leave in increments of less than one week, the holiday will not count against the employee's FMLA entitlement unless the employee was otherwise scheduled and expected to work during the holiday. Similarly, if for some reason the employer's business activity has temporarily ceased and employees generally are not expected to report for work for one or more weeks (e.g., a school closing two weeks for the Christmas/New Year holiday or the summer vacation or an employer closing the plant for retooling or repairs), the days the employer's activities have ceased do not count against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. Methods for determining an employee's 12-week leave entitlement are also described in § 825.205. <I>See</I> § 825.802 for special calculation of leave rules applicable to airline flight crew employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.201" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.201   Leave to care for a parent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An eligible employee is entitled to FMLA leave if needed to care for the employee's parent with a serious health condition. Care for parents-in-law is not covered by the FMLA. <I>See</I> § 825.122(c) for definition of parent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Same employer limitation.</I> Spouses who are eligible for FMLA leave and are employed by the same covered employer may be limited to a combined total of 12 weeks of leave during any 12-month period if the leave is taken to care for the employee's parent with a serious health condition, for the birth of the employee's son or daughter or to care for the child after the birth, or for placement of a son or daughter with the employee for adoption or foster care or to care for the child after placement. This limitation on the total weeks of leave applies to leave taken for the reasons specified as long as the spouses are employed by the same employer. It would apply, for example, even though the spouses are employed at two different worksites of an employer located more than 75 miles from each other, or by two different operating divisions of the same company. On the other hand, if one spouse is ineligible for FMLA leave, the other spouse would be entitled to a full 12 weeks of FMLA leave. Where the spouses both use a portion of the total 12-week FMLA leave entitlement for either the birth of a child, for placement for adoption or foster care, or to care for a parent, the spouses would each be entitled to the difference between the amount he or she has taken individually and 12 weeks for FMLA leave for other purposes. For example, if each spouse took six weeks of leave to care for a parent, each could use an additional six weeks due to his or her own serious health condition or to care for a child with a serious health condition. <I>See also</I> § 825.127(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10001, Feb. 25, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.202" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.202   Intermittent leave or reduced leave schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> FMLA leave may be taken intermittently or on a reduced leave schedule under certain circumstances. <I>Intermittent leave</I> is FMLA leave taken in separate blocks of time due to a single qualifying reason. A <I>reduced leave schedule</I> is a leave schedule that reduces an employee's usual number of working hours per workweek, or hours per workday. A reduced leave schedule is a change in the employee's schedule for a period of time, normally from full-time to part-time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical necessity.</I> For intermittent leave or leave on a reduced leave schedule taken because of one's own serious health condition, to care for a spouse, parent, son, or daughter with a serious health condition, or to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness, there must be a medical need for leave and it must be that such medical need can be best accommodated through an intermittent or reduced leave schedule. The treatment regimen and other information described in the certification of a serious health condition and in the certification of a serious injury or illness, if required by the employer, addresses the medical necessity of intermittent leave or leave on a reduced leave schedule. <I>See</I> §§ 825.306, 825.310. Leave may be taken intermittently or on a reduced leave schedule when medically necessary for planned and/or unanticipated medical treatment of a serious health condition or of a covered servicemember's serious injury or illness, or for recovery from treatment or recovery from a serious health condition or a covered servicemember's serious injury or illness. It may also be taken to provide care or psychological comfort to a covered family member with a serious health condition or a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness.
</P>
<P>(1) Intermittent leave may be taken for a serious health condition of a spouse, parent, son, or daughter, for the employee's own serious health condition, or a serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember which requires treatment by a health care provider periodically, rather than for one continuous period of time, and may include leave of periods from an hour or more to several weeks. Examples of intermittent leave would include leave taken on an occasional basis for medical appointments, or leave taken several days at a time spread over a period of six months, such as for chemotherapy. A pregnant employee may take leave intermittently for prenatal examinations or for her own condition, such as for periods of severe morning sickness. An example of an employee taking leave on a reduced leave schedule is an employee who is recovering from a serious health condition and is not strong enough to work a full-time schedule.
</P>
<P>(2) Intermittent or reduced schedule leave may be taken for absences where the employee or family member is incapacitated or unable to perform the essential functions of the position because of a chronic serious health condition or a serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember, even if he or she does not receive treatment by a health care provider. <I>See</I> §§ 825.113 and 825.127.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Birth or placement.</I> When leave is taken after the birth of a healthy child or placement of a healthy child for adoption or foster care, an employee may take leave intermittently or on a reduced leave schedule only if the employer agrees. Such a schedule reduction might occur, for example, where an employee, with the employer's agreement, works part-time after the birth of a child, or takes leave in several segments. The employer's agreement is not required, however, for leave during which the expectant mother has a serious health condition in connection with the birth of her child or if the newborn child has a serious health condition. <I>See</I> § 825.204 for rules governing transfer to an alternative position that better accommodates intermittent leave. <I>See also</I> § 825.120 (pregnancy) and § 825.121 (adoption and foster care).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualifying exigency.</I> Leave due to a qualifying exigency may be taken on an intermittent or reduced leave schedule basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10001, Feb. 25, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.203" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.203   Scheduling of intermittent or reduced schedule leave.</HEAD>
<P>Eligible employees may take FMLA leave on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis when medically necessary due to the serious health condition of a covered family member or the employee or the serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember. <I>See</I> § 825.202. Eligible employees may also take FMLA leave on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis when necessary because of a qualifying exigency. If an employee needs leave intermittently or on a reduced leave schedule for planned medical treatment, then the employee must make a reasonable effort to schedule the treatment so as not to disrupt unduly the employer's operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.204" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.204   Transfer of an employee to an alternative position during intermittent leave or reduced schedule leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transfer or reassignment.</I> If an employee needs intermittent leave or leave on a reduced leave schedule that is foreseeable based on planned medical treatment for the employee, a family member, or a covered servicemember, including during a period of recovery from one's own serious health condition, a serious health condition of a spouse, parent, son, or daughter, or a serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember, or if the employer agrees to permit intermittent or reduced schedule leave for the birth of a child or for placement of a child for adoption or foster care, the employer may require the employee to transfer temporarily, during the period that the intermittent or reduced leave schedule is required, to an available alternative position for which the employee is qualified and which better accommodates recurring periods of leave than does the employee's regular position. <I>See</I> § 825.601 for special rules applicable to instructional employees of schools.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance.</I> Transfer to an alternative position may require compliance with any applicable collective bargaining agreement, Federal law (such as the Americans with Disabilities Act), and State law. Transfer to an alternative position may include altering an existing job to better accommodate the employee's need for intermittent or reduced schedule leave.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equivalent pay and benefits.</I> The alternative position must have equivalent pay and benefits. An alternative position for these purposes does not have to have equivalent duties. The employer may increase the pay and benefits of an existing alternative position, so as to make them equivalent to the pay and benefits of the employee's regular job. The employer may also transfer the employee to a part-time job with the same hourly rate of pay and benefits, provided the employee is not required to take more leave than is medically necessary. For example, an employee desiring to take leave in increments of four hours per day could be transferred to a half-time job, or could remain in the employee's same job on a part-time schedule, paying the same hourly rate as the employee's previous job and enjoying the same benefits. The employer may not eliminate benefits which otherwise would not be provided to part-time employees; however, an employer may proportionately reduce benefits such as vacation leave where an employer's normal practice is to base such benefits on the number of hours worked.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employer limitations.</I> An employer may not transfer the employee to an alternative position in order to discourage the employee from taking leave or otherwise work a hardship on the employee. For example, a white collar employee may not be assigned to perform laborer's work; an employee working the day shift may not be reassigned to the graveyard shift; an employee working in the headquarters facility may not be reassigned to a branch a significant distance away from the employee's normal job location. Any such attempt on the part of the employer to make such a transfer will be held to be contrary to the prohibited acts of the FMLA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reinstatement of employee.</I> When an employee who is taking leave intermittently or on a reduced leave schedule and has been transferred to an alternative position no longer needs to continue on leave and is able to return to full-time work, the employee must be placed in the same or equivalent job as the job he or she left when the leave commenced. An employee may not be required to take more leave than necessary to address the circumstance that precipitated the need for leave.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.205" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.205   Increments of FMLA leave for intermittent or reduced schedule leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum increment.</I> (1) When an employee takes FMLA leave on an intermittent or reduced leave schedule basis, the employer must account for the leave using an increment no greater than the shortest period of time that the employer uses to account for use of other forms of leave provided that it is not greater than one hour and provided further that an employee's FMLA leave entitlement may not be reduced by more than the amount of leave actually taken. An employer may not require an employee to take more leave than is necessary to address the circumstances that precipitated the need for the leave, provided that the leave is counted using the shortest increment of leave used to account for any other type of leave. <I>See also</I> § 825.205(a)(2) for the physical impossibility exception, §§ 825.600 and 825.601 for special rules applicable to employees of schools, and § 825.802 for special rules applicable to airline flight crew employees. If an employer uses different increments to account for different types of leave, the employer must account for FMLA leave in the smallest increment used to account for any other type of leave. For example, if an employer accounts for the use of annual leave in increments of one hour and the use of sick leave in increments of one-half hour, then FMLA leave use must be accounted for using increments no larger than one-half hour. If an employer accounts for use of leave in varying increments at different times of the day or shift, the employer may also account for FMLA leave in varying increments, provided that the increment used for FMLA leave is no greater than the smallest increment used for any other type of leave during the period in which the FMLA leave is taken. If an employer accounts for other forms of leave use in increments greater than one hour, the employer must account for FMLA leave use in increments no greater than one hour. An employer may account for FMLA leave in shorter increments than used for other forms of leave. For example, an employer that accounts for other forms of leave in one hour increments may account for FMLA leave in a shorter increment when the employee arrives at work several minutes late, and the employer wants the employee to begin work immediately. Such accounting for FMLA leave will not alter the increment considered to be the shortest period used to account for other forms of leave or the use of FMLA leave in other circumstances. In all cases, employees may not be charged FMLA leave for periods during which they are working.
</P>
<P>(2) Where it is physically impossible for an employee using intermittent leave or working a reduced leave schedule to commence or end work mid-way through a shift, such as where a flight attendant or a railroad conductor is scheduled to work aboard an airplane or train, or a laboratory employee is unable to enter or leave a sealed “clean room” during a certain period of time and no equivalent position is available, the entire period that the employee is forced to be absent is designated as FMLA leave and counts against the employee's FMLA entitlement. The period of the physical impossibility is limited to the period during which the employer is unable to permit the employee to work prior to a period of FMLA leave or return the employee to the same or equivalent position due to the physical impossibility after a period of FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.214.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of leave.</I> (1) When an employee takes leave on an intermittent or reduced leave schedule, only the amount of leave actually taken may be counted toward the employee's leave entitlement. The actual workweek is the basis of leave entitlement. Therefore, if an employee who would otherwise work 40 hours a week takes off eight hours, the employee would use one-fifth (
<FR>1/5</FR>) of a week of FMLA leave. Similarly, if a full-time employee who would otherwise work eight hour days works four-hour days under a reduced leave schedule, the employee would use one-half (
<FR>1/2</FR>) week of FMLA leave. Where an employee works a part-time schedule or variable hours, the amount of FMLA leave that an employee uses is determined on a pro rata or proportional basis. If an employee who would otherwise work 30 hours per week, but works only 20 hours a week under a reduced leave schedule, the employee's 10 hours of leave would constitute one-third (
<FR>1/3</FR>) of a week of FMLA leave for each week the employee works the reduced leave schedule. An employer may convert these fractions to their hourly equivalent so long as the conversion equitably reflects the employee's total normally scheduled hours. An employee does not accrue FMLA-protected leave at any particular hourly rate. An eligible employee is entitled to up to a total of 12 workweeks of leave, or 26 workweeks in the case of military caregiver leave, and the total number of hours contained in those workweeks is necessarily dependent on the specific hours the employee would have worked but for the use of leave. <I>See also</I> §§ 825.601 and 825.602, special rules for schools and § 825.802, special rules for airline flight crew employees.
</P>
<P>(2) If an employer has made a permanent or long-term change in the employee's schedule (for reasons other than FMLA, and prior to the notice of need for FMLA leave), the hours worked under the new schedule are to be used for making this calculation.
</P>
<P>(3) If an employee's schedule varies from week to week to such an extent that an employer is unable to determine with any certainty how many hours the employee would otherwise have worked (but for the taking of FMLA leave), a weekly average of the hours scheduled over the 12 months prior to the beginning of the leave period (including any hours for which the employee took leave of any type) would be used for calculating the employee's leave entitlement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Overtime.</I> If an employee would normally be required to work overtime, but is unable to do so because of a FMLA-qualifying reason that limits the employee's ability to work overtime, the hours which the employee would have been required to work may be counted against the employee's FMLA entitlement. In such a case, the employee is using intermittent or reduced schedule leave. For example, if an employee would normally be required to work for 48 hours in a particular week, but due to a serious health condition the employee is unable to work more than 40 hours that week, the employee would utilize eight hours of FMLA-protected leave out of the 48-hour workweek, or one-sixth (
<FR>1/6</FR>) of a week of FMLA leave. Voluntary overtime hours that an employee does not work due to an FMLA-qualifying reason may not be counted against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.206" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.206   Interaction with the FLSA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Leave taken under FMLA may be unpaid. If an employee is otherwise exempt from minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) as a salaried executive, administrative, professional, or computer employee (under regulations issued by the Secretary, 29 CFR part 541), providing unpaid FMLA-qualifying leave to such an employee will not cause the employee to lose the FLSA exemption. <I>See</I> 29 CFR 541.602(b)(7). This means that under regulations currently in effect, where an employee meets the specified duties test, is paid on a salary basis, and is paid a salary of at least the amount specified in the regulations, the employer may make deductions from the employee's salary for any hours taken as intermittent or reduced FMLA leave within a workweek, without affecting the exempt status of the employee. The fact that an employer provides FMLA leave, whether paid or unpaid, and maintains records required by this part regarding FMLA leave, will not be relevant to the determination whether an employee is exempt within the meaning of 29 CFR part 541.
</P>
<P>(b) For an employee paid in accordance with the fluctuating workweek method of payment for overtime (<I>see</I> 29 CFR 778.114), the employer, during the period in which intermittent or reduced schedule FMLA leave is scheduled to be taken, may compensate an employee on an hourly basis and pay only for the hours the employee works, including time and one-half the employee's regular rate for overtime hours. The change to payment on an hourly basis would include the entire period during which the employee is taking intermittent leave, including weeks in which no leave is taken. The hourly rate shall be determined by dividing the employee's weekly salary by the employee's normal or average schedule of hours worked during weeks in which FMLA leave is not being taken. If an employer chooses to follow this exception from the fluctuating workweek method of payment, the employer must do so uniformly, with respect to all employees paid on a fluctuating workweek basis for whom FMLA leave is taken on an intermittent or reduced leave schedule basis. If an employer does not elect to convert the employee's compensation to hourly pay, no deduction may be taken for FMLA leave absences. Once the need for intermittent or reduced scheduled leave is over, the employee may be restored to payment on a fluctuating workweek basis.
</P>
<P>(c) This special exception to the salary basis requirements of the FLSA exemption or fluctuating workweek payment requirements applies only to employees of covered employers who are eligible for FMLA leave, and to leave which qualifies as FMLA leave. Hourly or other deductions which are not in accordance with 29 CFR part 541 or 29 CFR 778.114 may not be taken, for example, from the salary of an employee who works for an employer with fewer than 50 employees, or where the employee has not worked long enough to be eligible for FMLA leave without potentially affecting the employee's eligibility for exemption. Nor may deductions which are not permitted by 29 CFR part 541 or 29 CFR 778.114 be taken from such an employee's salary for any leave which does not qualify as FMLA leave, for example, deductions from an employee's pay for leave required under State law or under an employer's policy or practice for a reason which does not qualify as FMLA leave, e.g., leave to care for a grandparent or for a medical condition which does not qualify as a serious health condition or serious injury or illness; or for leave which is more generous than provided by FMLA. Employers may comply with State law or the employer's own policy/practice under these circumstances and maintain the employee's eligibility for exemption or for the fluctuating workweek method of pay by not taking hourly deductions from the employee's pay, in accordance with FLSA requirements, or may take such deductions, treating the employee as an hourly employee and pay overtime premium pay for hours worked over 40 in a workweek.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.207" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.207   Substitution of paid leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Generally, FMLA leave is unpaid leave. However, under the circumstances described in this section, FMLA permits an eligible employee to choose to substitute accrued paid leave for FMLA leave. If an employee does not choose to substitute accrued paid leave, the employer may require the employee to substitute accrued paid leave for unpaid FMLA leave. The term substitute means that the paid leave provided by the employer, and accrued pursuant to established policies of the employer, will run concurrently with the unpaid FMLA leave. Accordingly, the employee receives pay pursuant to the employer's applicable paid leave policy during the period of otherwise unpaid FMLA leave. An employee's ability to substitute accrued paid leave is determined by the terms and conditions of the employer's normal leave policy. When an employee chooses, or an employer requires, substitution of accrued paid leave, the employer must inform the employee that the employee must satisfy any procedural requirements of the paid leave policy only in connection with the receipt of such payment. <I>See</I> § 825.300(c). If an employee does not comply with the additional requirements in an employer's paid leave policy, the employee is not entitled to substitute accrued paid leave, but the employee remains entitled to take unpaid FMLA leave. Employers may not discriminate against employees on FMLA leave in the administration of their paid leave policies.
</P>
<P>(b) If neither the employee nor the employer elects to substitute paid leave for unpaid FMLA leave under the above conditions and circumstances, the employee will remain entitled to all the paid leave which is earned or accrued under the terms of the employer's plan.
</P>
<P>(c) If an employee uses paid leave under circumstances which do not qualify as FMLA leave, the leave will not count against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. For example, paid sick leave used for a medical condition which is not a serious health condition or serious injury or illness does not count against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement.
</P>
<P>(d) Leave taken pursuant to a disability leave plan would be considered FMLA leave for a serious health condition and counted in the leave entitlement permitted under FMLA if it meets the criteria set forth above in §§ 825.112 through 825.115. In such cases, the employer may designate the leave as FMLA leave and count the leave against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. Because leave pursuant to a disability benefit plan is not unpaid, the provision for substitution of the employee's accrued paid leave is inapplicable, and neither the employee nor the employer may require the substitution of paid leave. However, employers and employees may agree, where state law permits, to have paid leave supplement the disability plan benefits, such as in the case where a plan only provides replacement income for two-thirds of an employee's salary.
</P>
<P>(e) The Act provides that a serious health condition may result from injury to the employee on or off the job. If the employer designates the leave as FMLA leave in accordance with § 825.300(d), the leave counts against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. Because the workers' compensation absence is not unpaid, the provision for substitution of the employee's accrued paid leave is not applicable, and neither the employee nor the employer may require the substitution of paid leave. However, employers and employees may agree, where state law permits, to have paid leave supplement workers' compensation benefits, such as in the case where workers' compensation only provides replacement income for two-thirds of an employee's salary. If the health care provider treating the employee for the workers' compensation injury certifies the employee is able to return to a light duty job but is unable to return to the same or equivalent job, the employee may decline the employer's offer of a light duty job. As a result the employee may lose workers' compensation payments, but is entitled to remain on unpaid FMLA leave until the employee's FMLA leave entitlement is exhausted. As of the date workers' compensation benefits cease, the substitution provision becomes applicable and either the employee may elect or the employer may require the use of accrued paid leave. <I>See also</I> §§ 825.210(f), 825.216(d), 825.220(d), 825.307(a) and 825.702(d)(1) and (2) regarding the relationship between workers' compensation absences and FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 7(o) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) permits public employers under prescribed circumstances to substitute compensatory time off accrued at one and one-half hours for each overtime hour worked in lieu of paying cash to an employee when the employee works overtime hours as prescribed by the Act. This section of the FLSA limits the number of hours of compensatory time an employee may accumulate depending upon whether the employee works in fire protection or law enforcement (480 hours) or elsewhere for a public agency (240 hours). In addition, under the FLSA, an employer always has the right to cash out an employee's compensatory time or to require the employee to use the time. Therefore, if an employee requests and is permitted to use accrued compensatory time to receive pay for time taken off for an FMLA reason, or if the employer requires such use pursuant to the FLSA, the time taken may be counted against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.208" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.208   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.209" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.209   Maintenance of employee benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During any FMLA leave, an employer must maintain the employee's coverage under any group health plan (as defined in the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 at 26 U.S.C. 5000(b)(1) on the same conditions as coverage would have been provided if the employee had been continuously employed during the entire leave period. All employers covered by FMLA, including public agencies, are subject to the Act's requirements to maintain health coverage. The definition of group health plan is set forth in § 825.102. For purposes of FMLA, the term group health plan shall not include an insurance program providing health coverage under which employees purchase individual policies from insurers provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) No contributions are made by the employer;
</P>
<P>(2) Participation in the program is completely voluntary for employees;
</P>
<P>(3) The sole functions of the employer with respect to the program are, without endorsing the program, to permit the insurer to publicize the program to employees, to collect premiums through payroll deductions and to remit them to the insurer;
</P>
<P>(4) The employer receives no consideration in the form of cash or otherwise in connection with the program, other than reasonable compensation, excluding any profit, for administrative services actually rendered in connection with payroll deduction; and,
</P>
<P>(5) The premium charged with respect to such coverage does not increase in the event the employment relationship terminates.
</P>
<P>(b) The same group health plan benefits provided to an employee prior to taking FMLA leave must be maintained during the FMLA leave. For example, if family member coverage is provided to an employee, family member coverage must be maintained during the FMLA leave. Similarly, benefit coverage during FMLA leave for medical care, surgical care, hospital care, dental care, eye care, mental health counseling, substance abuse treatment, etc., must be maintained during leave if provided in an employer's group health plan, including a supplement to a group health plan, whether or not provided through a flexible spending account or other component of a cafeteria plan.
</P>
<P>(c) If an employer provides a new health plan or benefits or changes health benefits or plans while an employee is on FMLA leave, the employee is entitled to the new or changed plan/benefits to the same extent as if the employee were not on leave. For example, if an employer changes a group health plan so that dental care becomes covered under the plan, an employee on FMLA leave must be given the same opportunity as other employees to receive (or obtain) the dental care coverage. Any other plan changes (e.g., in coverage, premiums, deductibles, etc.) which apply to all employees of the workforce would also apply to an employee on FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(d) Notice of any opportunity to change plans or benefits must also be given to an employee on FMLA leave. If the group health plan permits an employee to change from single to family coverage upon the birth of a child or otherwise add new family members, such a change in benefits must be made available while an employee is on FMLA leave. If the employee requests the changed coverage it must be provided by the employer.
</P>
<P>(e) An employee may choose not to retain group health plan coverage during FMLA leave. However, when an employee returns from leave, the employee is entitled to be reinstated on the same terms as prior to taking the leave, including family or dependent coverages, without any qualifying period, physical examination, exclusion of pre-existing conditions, etc. <I>See</I> § 825.212(c).
</P>
<P>(f) Except as required by the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1986 (COBRA) and for key employees (as discussed below), an employer's obligation to maintain health benefits during leave (and to restore the employee to the same or equivalent employment) under FMLA ceases if and when the employment relationship would have terminated if the employee had not taken FMLA leave (e.g., if the employee's position is eliminated as part of a nondiscriminatory reduction in force and the employee would not have been transferred to another position); an employee informs the employer of his or her intent not to return from leave (including before starting the leave if the employer is so informed before the leave starts); or the employee fails to return from leave or continues on leave after exhausting his or her FMLA leave entitlement in the 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(g) If a key employee (<I>see</I> § 825.218) does not return from leave when notified by the employer that substantial or grievous economic injury will result from his or her reinstatement, the employee's entitlement to group health plan benefits continues unless and until the employee advises the employer that the employee does not desire restoration to employment at the end of the leave period, or the FMLA leave entitlement is exhausted, or reinstatement is actually denied.
</P>
<P>(h) An employee's entitlement to benefits other than group health benefits during a period of FMLA leave (e.g., holiday pay) is to be determined by the employer's established policy for providing such benefits when the employee is on other forms of leave (paid or unpaid, as appropriate).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 82 FR 2230, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.210" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.210   Employee payment of group health benefit premiums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Group health plan benefits must be maintained on the same basis as coverage would have been provided if the employee had been continuously employed during the FMLA leave period. Therefore, any share of group health plan premiums which had been paid by the employee prior to FMLA leave must continue to be paid by the employee during the FMLA leave period. If premiums are raised or lowered, the employee would be required to pay the new premium rates. Maintenance of health insurance policies which are not a part of the employer's group health plan, as described in § 825.209(a), are the sole responsibility of the employee. The employee and the insurer should make necessary arrangements for payment of premiums during periods of unpaid FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(b) If the FMLA leave is substituted paid leave, the employee's share of premiums must be paid by the method normally used during any paid leave, presumably as a payroll deduction.
</P>
<P>(c) If FMLA leave is unpaid, the employer has a number of options for obtaining payment from the employee. The employer may require that payment be made to the employer or to the insurance carrier, but no additional charge may be added to the employee's premium payment for administrative expenses. The employer may require employees to pay their share of premium payments in any of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Payment would be due at the same time as it would be made if by payroll deduction;
</P>
<P>(2) Payment would be due on the same schedule as payments are made under COBRA;
</P>
<P>(3) Payment would be prepaid pursuant to a cafeteria plan at the employee's option;
</P>
<P>(4) The employer's existing rules for payment by employees on leave without pay would be followed, provided that such rules do not require prepayment (<I>i.e.,</I> prior to the commencement of the leave) of the premiums that will become due during a period of unpaid FMLA leave or payment of higher premiums than if the employee had continued to work instead of taking leave; or,
</P>
<P>(5) Another system voluntarily agreed to between the employer and the employee, which may include prepayment of premiums (e.g., through increased payroll deductions when the need for the FMLA leave is foreseeable).
</P>
<P>(d) The employer must provide the employee with advance written notice of the terms and conditions under which these payments must be made. <I>See</I> § 825.300(c).
</P>
<P>(e) An employer may not require more of an employee using unpaid FMLA leave than the employer requires of other employees on leave without pay.
</P>
<P>(f) An employee who is receiving payments as a result of a workers' compensation injury must make arrangements with the employer for payment of group health plan benefits when simultaneously taking FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.207(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.211" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.211   Maintenance of benefits under multi-employer health plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A multi-employer health plan is a plan to which more than one employer is required to contribute, and which is maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements between employee organization(s) and the employers.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer under a multi-employer plan must continue to make contributions on behalf of an employee using FMLA leave as though the employee had been continuously employed, unless the plan contains an explicit FMLA provision for maintaining coverage such as through pooled contributions by all employers party to the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) During the duration of an employee's FMLA leave, coverage by the group health plan, and benefits provided pursuant to the plan, must be maintained at the level of coverage and benefits which were applicable to the employee at the time FMLA leave commenced.
</P>
<P>(d) An employee using FMLA leave cannot be required to use banked hours or pay a greater premium than the employee would have been required to pay if the employee had been continuously employed.
</P>
<P>(e) As provided in § 825.209(f) of this part, group health plan coverage must be maintained for an employee on FMLA leave until:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee's FMLA leave entitlement is exhausted;
</P>
<P>(2) The employer can show that the employee would have been laid off and the employment relationship terminated; or,
</P>
<P>(3) The employee provides unequivocal notice of intent not to return to work.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.212" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.212   Employee failure to pay health plan premium payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In the absence of an established employer policy providing a longer grace period, an employer's obligations to maintain health insurance coverage cease under FMLA if an employee's premium payment is more than 30 days late. In order to drop the coverage for an employee whose premium payment is late, the employer must provide written notice to the employee that the payment has not been received. Such notice must be mailed to the employee at least 15 days before coverage is to cease, advising that coverage will be dropped on a specified date at least 15 days after the date of the letter unless the payment has been received by that date. If the employer has established policies regarding other forms of unpaid leave that provide for the employer to cease coverage retroactively to the date the unpaid premium payment was due, the employer may drop the employee from coverage retroactively in accordance with that policy, provided the 15-day notice was given. In the absence of such a policy, coverage for the employee may be terminated at the end of the 30-day grace period, where the required 15-day notice has been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) An employer has no obligation regarding the maintenance of a health insurance policy which is not a group health plan. <I>See</I> § 825.209(a).
</P>
<P>(3) All other obligations of an employer under FMLA would continue; for example, the employer continues to have an obligation to reinstate an employee upon return from leave.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer may recover the employee's share of any premium payments missed by the employee for any FMLA leave period during which the employer maintains health coverage by paying the employee's share after the premium payment is missed.
</P>
<P>(c) If coverage lapses because an employee has not made required premium payments, upon the employee's return from FMLA leave the employer must still restore the employee to coverage/benefits equivalent to those the employee would have had if leave had not been taken and the premium payment(s) had not been missed, including family or dependent coverage. <I>See</I> § 825.215(d)(1)-(5). In such case, an employee may not be required to meet any qualification requirements imposed by the plan, including any new preexisting condition waiting period, to wait for an open season, or to pass a medical examination to obtain reinstatement of coverage. If an employer terminates an employee's insurance in accordance with this section and fails to restore the employee's health insurance as required by this section upon the employee's return, the employer may be liable for benefits lost by reason of the violation, for other actual monetary losses sustained as a direct result of the violation, and for appropriate equitable relief tailored to the harm suffered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.213" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.213   Employer recovery of benefit costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the circumstances discussed in § 825.212(b), an employer may recover its share of health plan premiums during a period of unpaid FMLA leave from an employee if the employee fails to return to work after the employee's FMLA leave entitlement has been exhausted or expires, unless the reason the employee does not return is due to:
</P>
<P>(1) The continuation, recurrence, or onset of either a serious health condition of the employee or the employee's family member, or a serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember, which would otherwise entitle the employee to leave under FMLA; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other circumstances beyond the employee's control. Examples of other circumstances beyond the employee's control are necessarily broad. They include such situations as where a parent chooses to stay home with a newborn child who has a serious health condition; an employee's spouse is unexpectedly transferred to a job location more than 75 miles from the employee's worksite; a relative or individual other than a covered family member has a serious health condition and the employee is needed to provide care; the employee is laid off while on leave; or, the employee is a key employee who decides not to return to work upon being notified of the employer's intention to deny restoration because of substantial and grievous economic injury to the employer's operations and is not reinstated by the employer. Other circumstances beyond the employee's control would not include a situation where an employee desires to remain with a parent in a distant city even though the parent no longer requires the employee's care, or a parent chooses not to return to work to stay home with a well, newborn child.
</P>
<P>(3) When an employee fails to return to work because of the continuation, recurrence, or onset of either a serious health condition of the employee or employee's family member, or a serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember, thereby precluding the employer from recovering its (share of) health benefit premium payments made on the employee's behalf during a period of unpaid FMLA leave, the employer may require medical certification of the employee's or the family member's serious health condition or the covered servicemember's serious injury or illness. Such certification is not required unless requested by the employer. The cost of the certification shall be borne by the employee, and the employee is not entitled to be paid for the time or travel costs spent in acquiring the certification. The employee is required to provide medical certification in a timely manner which, for purposes of this section, is within 30 days from the date of the employer's request. For purposes of medical certification, the employee may use the optional DOL forms developed for these purposes. <I>See</I> §§ 825.306(b), 825.310(c)-(d). If the employer requests medical certification and the employee does not provide such certification in a timely manner (within 30 days), or the reason for not returning to work does not meet the test of other circumstances beyond the employee's control, the employer may recover 100 percent of the health benefit premiums it paid during the period of unpaid FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(b) Under some circumstances an employer may elect to maintain other benefits, e.g., life insurance, disability insurance, etc., by paying the employee's (share of) premiums during periods of unpaid FMLA leave. For example, to ensure the employer can meet its responsibilities to provide equivalent benefits to the employee upon return from unpaid FMLA leave, it may be necessary that premiums be paid continuously to avoid a lapse of coverage. If the employer elects to maintain such benefits during the leave, at the conclusion of leave, the employer is entitled to recover only the costs incurred for paying the employee's share of any premiums whether or not the employee returns to work.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee who returns to work for at least 30 calendar days is considered to have returned to work. An employee who transfers directly from taking FMLA leave to retirement, or who retires during the first 30 days after the employee returns to work, is deemed to have returned to work.
</P>
<P>(d) When an employee elects or an employer requires paid leave to be substituted for FMLA leave, the employer may not recover its (share of) health insurance or other non-health benefit premiums for any period of FMLA leave covered by paid leave. Because paid leave provided under a plan covering temporary disabilities (including workers' compensation) is not unpaid, recovery of health insurance premiums does not apply to such paid leave.
</P>
<P>(e) The amount that self-insured employers may recover is limited to only the employer's share of allowable premiums as would be calculated under COBRA, excluding the two percent fee for administrative costs.
</P>
<P>(f) When an employee fails to return to work, any health and non-health benefit premiums which this section of the regulations permits an employer to recover are a debt owed by the non-returning employee to the employer. The existence of this debt caused by the employee's failure to return to work does not alter the employer's responsibilities for health benefit coverage and, under a self-insurance plan, payment of claims incurred during the period of FMLA leave. To the extent recovery is allowed, the employer may recover the costs through deduction from any sums due to the employee (e.g., unpaid wages, vacation pay, profit sharing, etc.), provided such deductions do not otherwise violate applicable Federal or State wage payment or other laws. Alternatively, the employer may initiate legal action against the employee to recover such costs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.214" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.214   Employee right to reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P><I>General rule.</I> On return from FMLA leave, an employee is entitled to be returned to the same position the employee held when leave commenced, or to an equivalent position with equivalent benefits, pay, and other terms and conditions of employment. An employee is entitled to such reinstatement even if the employee has been replaced or his or her position has been restructured to accommodate the employee's absence. <I>See also</I> § 825.106(e) for the obligations of joint employers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.215" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.215   Equivalent position.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Equivalent position.</I> An equivalent position is one that is virtually identical to the employee's former position in terms of pay, benefits and working conditions, including privileges, perquisites and status. It must involve the same or substantially similar duties and responsibilities, which must entail substantially equivalent skill, effort, responsibility, and authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions to qualify.</I> If an employee is no longer qualified for the position because of the employee's inability to attend a necessary course, renew a license, fly a minimum number of hours, etc., as a result of the leave, the employee shall be given a reasonable opportunity to fulfill those conditions upon return to work.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equivalent pay.</I> (1) An employee is entitled to any unconditional pay increases which may have occurred during the FMLA leave period, such as cost of living increases. Pay increases conditioned upon seniority, length of service, or work performed must be granted in accordance with the employer's policy or practice with respect to other employees on an equivalent leave status for a reason that does not qualify as FMLA leave. An employee is entitled to be restored to a position with the same or equivalent pay premiums, such as a shift differential. If an employee departed from a position averaging ten hours of overtime (and corresponding overtime pay) each week, an employee is ordinarily entitled to such a position on return from FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(2) Equivalent pay includes any bonus or payment, whether it is discretionary or non-discretionary, made to employees consistent with the provisions of paragraph (c)(1) of this section. However, if a bonus or other payment is based on the achievement of a specified goal such as hours worked, products sold or perfect attendance, and the employee has not met the goal due to FMLA leave, then the payment may be denied, unless otherwise paid to employees on an equivalent leave status for a reason that does not qualify as FMLA leave. For example, if an employee who used paid vacation leave for a non-FMLA purpose would receive the payment, then the employee who used paid vacation leave for an FMLA-protected purpose also must receive the payment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Equivalent benefits.</I> Benefits include all benefits provided or made available to employees by an employer, including group life insurance, health insurance, disability insurance, sick leave, annual leave, educational benefits, and pensions, regardless of whether such benefits are provided by a practice or written policy of an employer through an employee benefit plan as defined in Section 3(3) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, 29 U.S.C. 1002(3).
</P>
<P>(1) At the end of an employee's FMLA leave, benefits must be resumed in the same manner and at the same levels as provided when the leave began, and subject to any changes in benefit levels that may have taken place during the period of FMLA leave affecting the entire workforce, unless otherwise elected by the employee. Upon return from FMLA leave, an employee cannot be required to requalify for any benefits the employee enjoyed before FMLA leave began (including family or dependent coverages). For example, if an employee was covered by a life insurance policy before taking leave but is not covered or coverage lapses during the period of unpaid FMLA leave, the employee cannot be required to meet any qualifications, such as taking a physical examination, in order to requalify for life insurance upon return from leave. Accordingly, some employers may find it necessary to modify life insurance and other benefits programs in order to restore employees to equivalent benefits upon return from FMLA leave, make arrangements for continued payment of costs to maintain such benefits during unpaid FMLA leave, or pay these costs subject to recovery from the employee on return from leave. <I>See</I> § 825.213(b).
</P>
<P>(2) An employee may, but is not entitled to, accrue any additional benefits or seniority during unpaid FMLA leave. Benefits accrued at the time leave began, however, (e.g., paid vacation, sick or personal leave to the extent not substituted for FMLA leave) must be available to an employee upon return from leave.
</P>
<P>(3) If, while on unpaid FMLA leave, an employee desires to continue life insurance, disability insurance, or other types of benefits for which he or she typically pays, the employer is required to follow established policies or practices for continuing such benefits for other instances of leave without pay. If the employer has no established policy, the employee and the employer are encouraged to agree upon arrangements before FMLA leave begins.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to pension and other retirement plans, any period of unpaid FMLA leave shall not be treated as or counted toward a break in service for purposes of vesting and eligibility to participate. Also, if the plan requires an employee to be employed on a specific date in order to be credited with a year of service for vesting, contributions or participation purposes, an employee on unpaid FMLA leave on that date shall be deemed to have been employed on that date. However, unpaid FMLA leave periods need not be treated as credited service for purposes of benefit accrual, vesting and eligibility to participate.
</P>
<P>(5) Employees on unpaid FMLA leave are to be treated as if they continued to work for purposes of changes to benefit plans. They are entitled to changes in benefits plans, except those which may be dependent upon seniority or accrual during the leave period, immediately upon return from leave or to the same extent they would have qualified if no leave had been taken. For example, if the benefit plan is predicated on a pre-established number of hours worked each year and the employee does not have sufficient hours as a result of taking unpaid FMLA leave, the benefit is lost. (In this regard, § 825.209 addresses health benefits.)
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equivalent terms and conditions of employment.</I> An equivalent position must have substantially similar duties, conditions, responsibilities, privileges and status as the employee's original position.
</P>
<P>(1) The employee must be reinstated to the same or a geographically proximate worksite (<I>i.e.,</I> one that does not involve a significant increase in commuting time or distance) from where the employee had previously been employed. If the employee's original worksite has been closed, the employee is entitled to the same rights as if the employee had not been on leave when the worksite closed. For example, if an employer transfers all employees from a closed worksite to a new worksite in a different city, the employee on leave is also entitled to transfer under the same conditions as if he or she had continued to be employed.
</P>
<P>(2) The employee is ordinarily entitled to return to the same shift or the same or an equivalent work schedule.
</P>
<P>(3) The employee must have the same or an equivalent opportunity for bonuses, profit-sharing, and other similar discretionary and non-discretionary payments.
</P>
<P>(4) FMLA does not prohibit an employer from accommodating an employee's request to be restored to a different shift, schedule, or position which better suits the employee's personal needs on return from leave, or to offer a promotion to a better position. However, an employee cannot be induced by the employer to accept a different position against the employee's wishes.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>De minimis exception.</I> The requirement that an employee be restored to the same or equivalent job with the same or equivalent pay, benefits, and terms and conditions of employment does not extend to de minimis, intangible, or unmeasurable aspects of the job.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.216" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.216   Limitations on an employee's right to reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee has no greater right to reinstatement or to other benefits and conditions of employment than if the employee had been continuously employed during the FMLA leave period. An employer must be able to show that an employee would not otherwise have been employed at the time reinstatement is requested in order to deny restoration to employment. For example:
</P>
<P>(1) If an employee is laid off during the course of taking FMLA leave and employment is terminated, the employer's responsibility to continue FMLA leave, maintain group health plan benefits and restore the employee cease at the time the employee is laid off, provided the employer has no continuing obligations under a collective bargaining agreement or otherwise. An employer would have the burden of proving that an employee would have been laid off during the FMLA leave period and, therefore, would not be entitled to restoration. Restoration to a job slated for lay-off when the employee's original position is not would not meet the requirements of an equivalent position.
</P>
<P>(2) If a shift has been eliminated, or overtime has been decreased, an employee would not be entitled to return to work that shift or the original overtime hours upon restoration. However, if a position on, for example, a night shift has been filled by another employee, the employee is entitled to return to the same shift on which employed before taking FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(3) If an employee was hired for a specific term or only to perform work on a discrete project, the employer has no obligation to restore the employee if the employment term or project is over and the employer would not otherwise have continued to employ the employee. On the other hand, if an employee was hired to perform work on a contract, and after that contract period the contract was awarded to another contractor, the successor contractor may be required to restore the employee if it is a successor employer. <I>See</I> § 825.107.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the circumstances explained above, an employer may deny job restoration to salaried eligible employees (key employees, as defined in § 825.217(c)), if such denial is necessary to prevent substantial and grievous economic injury to the operations of the employer; or may delay restoration to an employee who fails to provide a fitness-for-duty certificate to return to work under the conditions described in § 825.312.
</P>
<P>(c) If the employee is unable to perform an essential function of the position because of a physical or mental condition, including the continuation of a serious health condition or an injury or illness also covered by workers' compensation, the employee has no right to restoration to another position under the FMLA. The employer's obligations may, however, be governed by the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), as amended. <I>See</I> § 825.702, state leave laws, or workers' compensation laws.
</P>
<P>(d) An employee who fraudulently obtains FMLA leave from an employer is not protected by FMLA's job restoration or maintenance of health benefits provisions.
</P>
<P>(e) If the employer has a uniformly-applied policy governing outside or supplemental employment, such a policy may continue to apply to an employee while on FMLA leave. An employer which does not have such a policy may not deny benefits to which an employee is entitled under FMLA on this basis unless the FMLA leave was fraudulently obtained as in paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.217" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.217   Key employee, general rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A <I>key employee</I> is a salaried FMLA-eligible employee who is among the highest paid 10 percent of all the employees employed by the employer within 75 miles of the employee's worksite.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>salaried</I> means paid on a salary basis, as defined in 29 CFR 541.602. This is the Department of Labor regulation defining employees who may qualify as exempt from the minimum wage and overtime requirements of the FLSA as executive, administrative, professional, and computer employees.
</P>
<P>(c) A key employee must be among the highest paid 10 percent of all the employees—both salaried and non-salaried, eligible and ineligible—who are employed by the employer within 75 miles of the worksite.
</P>
<P>(1) In determining which employees are among the highest paid 10 percent, year-to-date earnings are divided by weeks worked by the employee (including weeks in which paid leave was taken). Earnings include wages, premium pay, incentive pay, and non-discretionary and discretionary bonuses. Earnings do not include incentives whose value is determined at some future date, e.g., stock options, or benefits or perquisites.
</P>
<P>(2) The determination of whether a salaried employee is among the highest paid 10 percent shall be made at the time the employee gives notice of the need for leave. No more than 10 percent of the employer's employees within 75 miles of the worksite may be key employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.218" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.218   Substantial and grievous economic injury.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to deny restoration to a key employee, an employer must determine that the restoration of the employee to employment will cause substantial and grievous economic injury to the operations of the employer, not whether the absence of the employee will cause such substantial and grievous injury.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer may take into account its ability to replace on a temporary basis (or temporarily do without) the employee on FMLA leave. If permanent replacement is unavoidable, the cost of then reinstating the employee can be considered in evaluating whether substantial and grievous economic injury will occur from restoration; in other words, the effect on the operations of the company of reinstating the employee in an equivalent position.
</P>
<P>(c) A precise test cannot be set for the level of hardship or injury to the employer which must be sustained. If the reinstatement of a key employee threatens the economic viability of the firm, that would constitute substantial and grievous economic injury. A lesser injury which causes substantial, long-term economic injury would also be sufficient. Minor inconveniences and costs that the employer would experience in the normal course of doing business would certainly not constitute substantial and grievous economic injury.
</P>
<P>(d) FMLA's substantial and grievous economic injury standard is different from and more stringent than the undue hardship test under the ADA. <I>See also</I> § 825.702.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.219" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.219   Rights of a key employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer who believes that reinstatement may be denied to a key employee, must give written notice to the employee at the time the employee gives notice of the need for FMLA leave (or when FMLA leave commences, if earlier) that he or she qualifies as a key employee. At the same time, the employer must also fully inform the employee of the potential consequences with respect to reinstatement and maintenance of health benefits if the employer should determine that substantial and grievous economic injury to the employer's operations will result if the employee is reinstated from FMLA leave. If such notice cannot be given immediately because of the need to determine whether the employee is a key employee, it shall be given as soon as practicable after being notified of a need for leave (or the commencement of leave, if earlier). It is expected that in most circumstances there will be no desire that an employee be denied restoration after FMLA leave and, therefore, there would be no need to provide such notice. However, an employer who fails to provide such timely notice will lose its right to deny restoration even if substantial and grievous economic injury will result from reinstatement.
</P>
<P>(b) As soon as an employer makes a good faith determination, based on the facts available, that substantial and grievous economic injury to its operations will result if a key employee who has given notice of the need for FMLA leave or is using FMLA leave is reinstated, the employer shall notify the employee in writing of its determination, that it cannot deny FMLA leave, and that it intends to deny restoration to employment on completion of the FMLA leave. It is anticipated that an employer will ordinarily be able to give such notice prior to the employee starting leave. The employer must serve this notice either in person or by certified mail. This notice must explain the basis for the employer's finding that substantial and grievous economic injury will result, and, if leave has commenced, must provide the employee a reasonable time in which to return to work, taking into account the circumstances, such as the length of the leave and the urgency of the need for the employee to return.
</P>
<P>(c) If an employee on leave does not return to work in response to the employer's notification of intent to deny restoration, the employee continues to be entitled to maintenance of health benefits and the employer may not recover its cost of health benefit premiums. A key employee's rights under FMLA continue unless and until the employee either gives notice that he or she no longer wishes to return to work, or the employer actually denies reinstatement at the conclusion of the leave period.
</P>
<P>(d) After notice to an employee has been given that substantial and grievous economic injury will result if the employee is reinstated to employment, an employee is still entitled to request reinstatement at the end of the leave period even if the employee did not return to work in response to the employer's notice. The employer must then again determine whether there will be substantial and grievous economic injury from reinstatement, based on the facts at that time. If it is determined that substantial and grievous economic injury will result, the employer shall notify the employee in writing (in person or by certified mail) of the denial of restoration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.220" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.2.489.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.220   Protection for employees who request leave or otherwise assert FMLA rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FMLA prohibits interference with an employee's rights under the law, and with legal proceedings or inquiries relating to an employee's rights. More specifically, the law contains the following employee protections:
</P>
<P>(1) An employer is prohibited from interfering with, restraining, or denying the exercise of (or attempts to exercise) any rights provided by the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) An employer is prohibited from discharging or in any other way discriminating against any person (whether or not an employee) for opposing or complaining about any unlawful practice under the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) All persons (whether or not employers) are prohibited from discharging or in any other way discriminating against any person (whether or not an employee) because that person has—
</P>
<P>(i) Filed any charge, or has instituted (or caused to be instituted) any proceeding under or related to this Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Given, or is about to give, any information in connection with an inquiry or proceeding relating to a right under this Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Testified, or is about to testify, in any inquiry or proceeding relating to a right under this Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Any violations of the Act or of these regulations constitute interfering with, restraining, or denying the exercise of rights provided by the Act. An employer may be liable for compensation and benefits lost by reason of the violation, for other actual monetary losses sustained as a direct result of the violation, and for appropriate equitable or other relief, including employment, reinstatement, promotion, or any other relief tailored to the harm suffered. <I>See</I> § 825.400(c). Interfering with the exercise of an employee's rights would include, for example, not only refusing to authorize FMLA leave, but discouraging an employee from using such leave. It would also include manipulation by a covered employer to avoid responsibilities under FMLA, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Transferring employees from one worksite to another for the purpose of reducing worksites, or to keep worksites, below the 50-employee threshold for employee eligibility under the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Changing the essential functions of the job in order to preclude the taking of leave;
</P>
<P>(3) Reducing hours available to work in order to avoid employee eligibility.
</P>
<P>(c) The Act's prohibition against interference prohibits an employer from discriminating or retaliating against an employee or prospective employee for having exercised or attempted to exercise FMLA rights. For example, if an employee on leave without pay would otherwise be entitled to full benefits (other than health benefits), the same benefits would be required to be provided to an employee on unpaid FMLA leave. By the same token, employers cannot use the taking of FMLA leave as a negative factor in employment actions, such as hiring, promotions or disciplinary actions; nor can FMLA leave be counted under no fault attendance policies. <I>See</I> § 825.215.
</P>
<P>(d) Employees cannot waive, nor may employers induce employees to waive, their prospective rights under FMLA. For example, employees (or their collective bargaining representatives) cannot trade off the right to take FMLA leave against some other benefit offered by the employer. This does not prevent the settlement or release of FMLA claims by employees based on past employer conduct without the approval of the Department of Labor or a court. Nor does it prevent an employee's voluntary and uncoerced acceptance (not as a condition of employment) of a light duty assignment while recovering from a serious health condition. <I>See</I> § 825.702(d). An employee's acceptance of such light duty assignment does not constitute a waiver of the employee's prospective rights, including the right to be restored to the same position the employee held at the time the employee's FMLA leave commenced or to an equivalent position. The employee's right to restoration, however, ceases at the end of the applicable 12-month FMLA leave year.
</P>
<P>(e) Individuals, and not merely employees, are protected from retaliation for opposing (e.g., filing a complaint about) any practice which is unlawful under the Act. They are similarly protected if they oppose any practice which they reasonably believe to be a violation of the Act or regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Employee and Employer Rights and Obligations Under the Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.300" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.300   Employer notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General notice.</I> (1) Every employer covered by the FMLA is required to post and keep posted on its premises, in conspicuous places where employees are employed, a notice explaining the Act's provisions and providing information concerning the procedures for filing complaints of violations of the Act with the Wage and Hour Division. The notice must be posted prominently where it can be readily seen by employees and applicants for employment. The poster and the text must be large enough to be easily read and contain fully legible text. Electronic posting is sufficient to meet this posting requirement as long as it otherwise meets the requirements of this section. An employer that willfully violates the posting requirement may be assessed a civil money penalty by the Wage and Hour Division not to exceed $216 for each separate offense.
</P>
<P>(2) Covered employers must post this general notice even if no employees are eligible for FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(3) If an FMLA-covered employer has any eligible employees, it shall also provide this general notice to each employee by including the notice in employee handbooks or other written guidance to employees concerning employee benefits or leave rights, if such written materials exist, or by distributing a copy of the general notice to each new employee upon hiring. In either case, distribution may be accomplished electronically.
</P>
<P>(4) To meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, employers may duplicate the text of the Department's prototype notice (WHD Publication 1420) or may use another format so long as the information provided includes, at a minimum, all of the information contained in that notice. Where an employer's workforce is comprised of a significant portion of workers who are not literate in English, the employer shall provide the general notice in a language in which the employees are literate. Prototypes are available from the nearest office of the Wage and Hour Division or on the Internet at <I>www.dol.gov/whd.</I> Employers furnishing FMLA notices to sensory-impaired individuals must also comply with all applicable requirements under Federal or State law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility notice.</I> (1) When an employee requests FMLA leave, or when the employer acquires knowledge that an employee's leave may be for an FMLA-qualifying reason, the employer must notify the employee of the employee's eligibility to take FMLA leave within five business days, absent extenuating circumstances. <I>See</I> § 825.110 for definition of an eligible employee and § 825.801 for special hours of service eligibility requirements for airline flight crews. Employee eligibility is determined (and notice must be provided) at the commencement of the first instance of leave for each FMLA-qualifying reason in the applicable 12-month period. <I>See</I> §§ 825.127(c) and 825.200(b). All FMLA absences for the same qualifying reason are considered a single leave and employee eligibility as to that reason for leave does not change during the applicable 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(2) The eligibility notice must state whether the employee is eligible for FMLA leave as defined in § 825.110. If the employee is not eligible for FMLA leave, the notice must state at least one reason why the employee is not eligible, including as applicable the number of months the employee has been employed by the employer, the hours of service with the employer during the 12-month period, and whether the employee is employed at a worksite where 50 or more employees are employed by the employer within 75 miles of that worksite. Notification of eligibility may be oral or in writing; employers may use optional Form WH-381 (Notice of Eligibility and Rights and Responsibility) to provide such notification to employees. Prototypes are available from the nearest office of the Wage and Hour Division or on the Internet at <I>www.dol.gov/whd.</I> The employer is obligated to translate this notice in any situation in which it is obligated to do so in § 825.300(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) If, at the time an employee provides notice of a subsequent need for FMLA leave during the applicable 12-month period due to a different FMLA-qualifying reason, and the employee's eligibility status has not changed, no additional eligibility notice is required. If, however, the employee's eligibility status has changed (e.g., if the employee has not met the hours of service requirement in the 12 months preceding the commencement of leave for the subsequent qualifying reason or the size of the workforce at the worksite has dropped below 50 employees), the employer must notify the employee of the change in eligibility status within five business days, absent extenuating circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rights and responsibilities notice.</I> (1) Employers shall provide written notice detailing the specific expectations and obligations of the employee and explaining any consequences of a failure to meet these obligations. The employer is obligated to translate this notice in any situation in which it is obligated to do so in § 825.300(a)(4). This notice shall be provided to the employee each time the eligibility notice is provided pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. If leave has already begun, the notice should be mailed to the employee's address of record. Such specific notice must include, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) That the leave may be designated and counted against the employee's annual FMLA leave entitlement if qualifying (<I>see</I> §§ 825.300(c) and 825.301) and the applicable 12-month period for FMLA entitlement (<I>see</I> §§ 825.127(c), 825.200(b), (f), and (g));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any requirements for the employee to furnish certification of a serious health condition, serious injury or illness, or qualifying exigency arising out of covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, and the consequences of failing to do so (<I>see</I> §§ 825.305, 825.309, 825.310, 825.313);
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's right to substitute paid leave, whether the employer will require the substitution of paid leave, the conditions related to any substitution, and the employee's entitlement to take unpaid FMLA leave if the employee does not meet the conditions for paid leave (<I>see</I> § 825.207);
</P>
<P>(iv) Any requirement for the employee to make any premium payments to maintain health benefits and the arrangements for making such payments (<I>see</I> § 825.210), and the possible consequences of failure to make such payments on a timely basis (<I>i.e.,</I> the circumstances under which coverage may lapse);
</P>
<P>(v) The employee's status as a key employee and the potential consequence that restoration may be denied following FMLA leave, explaining the conditions required for such denial (<I>see</I> § 825.218);
</P>
<P>(vi) The employee's rights to maintenance of benefits during the FMLA leave and restoration to the same or an equivalent job upon return from FMLA leave (<I>see</I> §§ 825.214 and 825.604); and
</P>
<P>(vii) The employee's potential liability for payment of health insurance premiums paid by the employer during the employee's unpaid FMLA leave if the employee fails to return to work after taking FMLA leave (<I>see</I> § 825.213).
</P>
<P>(2) The notice of rights and responsibilities may include other information—e.g., whether the employer will require periodic reports of the employee's status and intent to return to work—but is not required to do so.
</P>
<P>(3) The notice of rights and responsibilities may be accompanied by any required certification form.
</P>
<P>(4) If the specific information provided by the notice of rights and responsibilities changes, the employer shall, within five business days of receipt of the employee's first notice of need for leave subsequent to any change, provide written notice referencing the prior notice and setting forth any of the information in the notice of rights and responsibilities that has changed. For example, if the initial leave period was paid leave and the subsequent leave period would be unpaid leave, the employer may need to give notice of the arrangements for making premium payments.
</P>
<P>(5) Employers are also expected to responsively answer questions from employees concerning their rights and responsibilities under the FMLA.
</P>
<P>(6) A prototype notice of rights and responsibilities may be obtained from local offices of the Wage and Hour Division or from the Internet at <I>www.dol.gov/whd.</I> Employers may adapt the prototype notice as appropriate to meet these notice requirements. The notice of rights and responsibilities may be distributed electronically so long as it otherwise meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Designation notice.</I> (1) The employer is responsible in all circumstances for designating leave as FMLA-qualifying, and for giving notice of the designation to the employee as provided in this section. When the employer has enough information to determine whether the leave is being taken for a FMLA-qualifying reason (e.g., after receiving a certification), the employer must notify the employee whether the leave will be designated and will be counted as FMLA leave within five business days absent extenuating circumstances. Only one notice of designation is required for each FMLA-qualifying reason per applicable 12-month period, regardless of whether the leave taken due to the qualifying reason will be a continuous block of leave or intermittent or reduced schedule leave. If the employer determines that the leave will not be designated as FMLA-qualifying (e.g., if the leave is not for a reason covered by FMLA or the FMLA leave entitlement has been exhausted), the employer must notify the employee of that determination. If the employer requires paid leave to be substituted for unpaid FMLA leave, or that paid leave taken under an existing leave plan be counted as FMLA leave, the employer must inform the employee of this designation at the time of designating the FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(2) If the employer has sufficient information to designate the leave as FMLA leave immediately after receiving notice of the employee's need for leave, the employer may provide the employee with the designation notice at that time.
</P>
<P>(3) If the employer will require the employee to present a fitness-for-duty certification to be restored to employment, the employer must provide notice of such requirement with the designation notice. If the employer will require that the fitness-for-duty certification address the employee's ability to perform the essential functions of the employee's position, the employer must so indicate in the designation notice, and must include a list of the essential functions of the employee's position. <I>See</I> § 825.312. If the employer handbook or other written documents (if any) describing the employer's leave policies clearly provide that a fitness-for-duty certification will be required in specific circumstances (e.g., by stating that fitness-for-duty certification will be required in all cases of back injuries for employees in a certain occupation), the employer is not required to provide written notice of the requirement with the designation notice, but must provide oral notice no later than with the designation notice.
</P>
<P>(4) The designation notice must be in writing. A prototype designation notice may be obtained from local offices of the Wage and Hour Division or from the Internet at <I>www.dol.gov/whd.</I> If the leave is not designated as FMLA leave because it does not meet the requirements of the Act, the notice to the employee that the leave is not designated as FMLA leave may be in the form of a simple written statement.
</P>
<P>(5) If the information provided by the employer to the employee in the designation notice changes (e.g., the employee exhausts the FMLA leave entitlement), the employer shall provide, within five business days of receipt of the employee's first notice of need for leave subsequent to any change, written notice of the change.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer must notify the employee of the amount of leave counted against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. If the amount of leave needed is known at the time the employer designates the leave as FMLA-qualifying, the employer must notify the employee of the number of hours, days, or weeks that will be counted against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement in the designation notice. If it is not possible to provide the hours, days, or weeks that will be counted against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement (such as in the case of unforeseeable intermittent leave), then the employer must provide notice of the amount of leave counted against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement upon the request by the employee, but no more often than once in a 30-day period and only if leave was taken in that period. The notice of the amount of leave counted against the employee's FMLA entitlement may be oral or in writing. If such notice is oral, it shall be confirmed in writing, no later than the following payday (unless the payday is less than one week after the oral notice, in which case the notice must be no later than the subsequent payday). Such written notice may be in any form, including a notation on the employee's pay stub.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consequences of failing to provide notice.</I> Failure to follow the notice requirements set forth in this section may constitute an interference with, restraint, or denial of the exercise of an employee's FMLA rights. An employer may be liable for compensation and benefits lost by reason of the violation, for other actual monetary losses sustained as a direct result of the violation, and for appropriate equitable or other relief, including employment, reinstatement, promotion, or any other relief tailored to the harm suffered <I>See</I> § 825.400(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at at 81 FR 43452, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 5382, Jan. 18, 2017; 82 FR 14, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 219, Jan. 23, 2019; 85 FR 2298, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2969, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 2335, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2217, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1817, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1861, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.301" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.301   Designation of FMLA leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employer responsibilities.</I> The employer's decision to designate leave as FMLA-qualifying must be based only on information received from the employee or the employee's spokesperson (e.g., if the employee is incapacitated, the employee's spouse, adult child, parent, doctor, etc., may provide notice to the employer of the need to take FMLA leave). In any circumstance where the employer does not have sufficient information about the reason for an employee's use of leave, the employer should inquire further of the employee or the spokesperson to ascertain whether leave is potentially FMLA-qualifying. Once the employer has acquired knowledge that the leave is being taken for a FMLA-qualifying reason, the employer must notify the employee as provided in § 825.300(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employee responsibilities.</I> An employee giving notice of the need for FMLA leave does not need to expressly assert rights under the Act or even mention the FMLA to meet his or her obligation to provide notice, though the employee would need to state a qualifying reason for the needed leave and otherwise satisfy the notice requirements set forth in § 825.302 or § 825.303 depending on whether the need for leave is foreseeable or unforeseeable. An employee giving notice of the need for FMLA leave must explain the reasons for the needed leave so as to allow the employer to determine whether the leave qualifies under the Act. If the employee fails to explain the reasons, leave may be denied. In many cases, in explaining the reasons for a request to use leave, especially when the need for the leave was unexpected or unforeseen, an employee will provide sufficient information for the employer to designate the leave as FMLA leave. An employee using accrued paid leave may in some cases not spontaneously explain the reasons or their plans for using their accrued leave. However, if an employee requesting to use paid leave for a FMLA-qualifying reason does not explain the reason for the leave and the employer denies the employee's request, the employee will need to provide sufficient information to establish a FMLA-qualifying reason for the needed leave so that the employer is aware that the leave may not be denied and may designate that the paid leave be appropriately counted against (substituted for) the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. Similarly, an employee using accrued paid vacation leave who seeks an extension of unpaid leave for a FMLA-qualifying reason will need to state the reason. If this is due to an event which occurred during the period of paid leave, the employer may count the leave used after the FMLA-qualifying reason against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disputes.</I> If there is a dispute between an employer and an employee as to whether leave qualifies as FMLA leave, it should be resolved through discussions between the employee and the employer. Such discussions and the decision must be documented.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retroactive designation.</I> If an employer does not designate leave as required by § 825.300, the employer may retroactively designate leave as FMLA leave with appropriate notice to the employee as required by § 825.300 provided that the employer's failure to timely designate leave does not cause harm or injury to the employee. In all cases where leave would qualify for FMLA protections, an employer and an employee can mutually agree that leave be retroactively designated as FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Remedies.</I> If an employer's failure to timely designate leave in accordance with § 825.300 causes the employee to suffer harm, it may constitute an interference with, restraint of, or denial of the exercise of an employee's FMLA rights. An employer may be liable for compensation and benefits lost by reason of the violation, for other actual monetary losses sustained as a direct result of the violation, and for appropriate equitable or other relief, including employment, reinstatement, promotion, or any other relief tailored to the harm suffered. <I>See</I> § 825.400(c). For example, if an employer that was put on notice that an employee needed FMLA leave failed to designate the leave properly, but the employee's own serious health condition prevented him or her from returning to work during that time period regardless of the designation, an employee may not be able to show that the employee suffered harm as a result of the employer's actions. However, if an employee took leave to provide care for a son or daughter with a serious health condition believing it would not count toward his or her FMLA entitlement, and the employee planned to later use that FMLA leave to provide care for a spouse who would need assistance when recovering from surgery planned for a later date, the employee may be able to show that harm has occurred as a result of the employer's failure to designate properly. The employee might establish this by showing that he or she would have arranged for an alternative caregiver for the seriously ill son or daughter if the leave had been designated timely.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.302" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.302   Employee notice requirements for foreseeable FMLA leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing of notice.</I> An employee must provide the employer at least 30 days advance notice before FMLA leave is to begin if the need for the leave is foreseeable based on an expected birth, placement for adoption or foster care, planned medical treatment for a serious health condition of the employee or of a family member, or the planned medical treatment for a serious injury or illness of a covered servicemember. If 30 days notice is not practicable, such as because of a lack of knowledge of approximately when leave will be required to begin, a change in circumstances, or a medical emergency, notice must be given as soon as practicable. For example, an employee's health condition may require leave to commence earlier than anticipated before the birth of a child. Similarly, little opportunity for notice may be given before placement for adoption. For foreseeable leave due to a qualifying exigency notice must be provided as soon as practicable, regardless of how far in advance such leave is foreseeable. Whether FMLA leave is to be continuous or is to be taken intermittently or on a reduced schedule basis, notice need only be given one time, but the employee shall advise the employer as soon as practicable if dates of scheduled leave change or are extended, or were initially unknown. In those cases where the employee is required to provide at least 30 days notice of foreseeable leave and does not do so, the employee shall explain the reasons why such notice was not practicable upon a request from the employer for such information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>As soon as practicable</I> means as soon as both possible and practical, taking into account all of the facts and circumstances in the individual case. When an employee becomes aware of a need for FMLA leave less than 30 days in advance, it should be practicable for the employee to provide notice of the need for leave either the same day or the next business day. In all cases, however, the determination of when an employee could practicably provide notice must take into account the individual facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of notice.</I> An employee shall provide at least verbal notice sufficient to make the employer aware that the employee needs FMLA-qualifying leave, and the anticipated timing and duration of the leave. Depending on the situation, such information may include that a condition renders the employee unable to perform the functions of the job; that the employee is pregnant or has been hospitalized overnight; whether the employee or the employee's family member is under the continuing care of a health care provider; if the leave is due to a qualifying exigency, that a military member is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status (or has been notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty), and that the requested leave is for one of the reasons listed in § 825.126(b); if the leave is for a family member, that the condition renders the family member unable to perform daily activities, or that the family member is a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness; and the anticipated duration of the absence, if known. When an employee seeks leave for the first time for a FMLA-qualifying reason, the employee need not expressly assert rights under the FMLA or even mention the FMLA. When an employee seeks leave due to a FMLA-qualifying reason, for which the employer has previously provided FMLA-protected leave, the employee must specifically reference the qualifying reason for leave or the need for FMLA leave. In all cases, the employer should inquire further of the employee if it is necessary to have more information about whether FMLA leave is being sought by the employee, and obtain the necessary details of the leave to be taken. In the case of medical conditions, the employer may find it necessary to inquire further to determine if the leave is because of a serious health condition and may request medical certification to support the need for such leave. <I>See</I> § 825.305. An employer may also request certification to support the need for leave for a qualifying exigency or for military caregiver leave. <I>See</I> §§ 825.309, 825.310). When an employee has been previously certified for leave due to more than one FMLA-qualifying reason, the employer may need to inquire further to determine for which qualifying reason the leave is needed. An employee has an obligation to respond to an employer's questions designed to determine whether an absence is potentially FMLA-qualifying. Failure to respond to reasonable employer inquiries regarding the leave request may result in denial of FMLA protection if the employer is unable to determine whether the leave is FMLA-qualifying.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Complying with employer policy.</I> An employer may require an employee to comply with the employer's usual and customary notice and procedural requirements for requesting leave, absent unusual circumstances. For example, an employer may require that written notice set forth the reasons for the requested leave, the anticipated duration of the leave, and the anticipated start of the leave. An employee also may be required by an employer's policy to contact a specific individual. Unusual circumstances would include situations such as when an employee is unable to comply with the employer's policy that requests for leave should be made by contacting a specific number because on the day the employee needs to provide notice of his or her need for FMLA leave there is no one to answer the call-in number and the voice mail box is full. Where an employee does not comply with the employer's usual notice and procedural requirements, and no unusual circumstances justify the failure to comply, FMLA-protected leave may be delayed or denied. However, FMLA-protected leave may not be delayed or denied where the employer's policy requires notice to be given sooner than set forth in paragraph (a) of this section and the employee provides timely notice as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Scheduling planned medical treatment.</I> When planning medical treatment, the employee must consult with the employer and make a reasonable effort to schedule the treatment so as not to disrupt unduly the employer's operations, subject to the approval of the health care provider. Employees are ordinarily expected to consult with their employers prior to the scheduling of treatment in order to work out a treatment schedule which best suits the needs of both the employer and the employee. For example, if an employee who provides notice of the need to take FMLA leave on an intermittent basis for planned medical treatment neglects to consult with the employer to make a reasonable effort to arrange the schedule of treatments so as not to unduly disrupt the employer's operations, the employer may initiate discussions with the employee and require the employee to attempt to make such arrangements, subject to the approval of the health care provider. <I>See</I> §§ 825.203 and 825.205.
</P>
<P>(f) Intermittent leave or leave on a reduced leave schedule must be medically necessary due to a serious health condition or a serious injury or illness. An employee shall advise the employer, upon request, of the reasons why the intermittent/reduced leave schedule is necessary and of the schedule for treatment, if applicable. The employee and employer shall attempt to work out a schedule for such leave that meets the employee's needs without unduly disrupting the employer's operations, subject to the approval of the health care provider.
</P>
<P>(g) An employer may waive employees' FMLA notice requirements. <I>See</I> § 825.304.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.303" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.303   Employee notice requirements for unforeseeable FMLA leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing of notice.</I> When the approximate timing of the need for leave is not foreseeable, an employee must provide notice to the employer as soon as practicable under the facts and circumstances of the particular case. It generally should be practicable for the employee to provide notice of leave that is unforeseeable within the time prescribed by the employer's usual and customary notice requirements applicable to such leave. <I>See</I> § 825.303(c). Notice may be given by the employee's spokesperson (e.g., spouse, adult family member, or other responsible party) if the employee is unable to do so personally. For example, if an employee's child has a severe asthma attack and the employee takes the child to the emergency room, the employee would not be required to leave his or her child in order to report the absence while the child is receiving emergency treatment. However, if the child's asthma attack required only the use of an inhaler at home followed by a period of rest, the employee would be expected to call the employer promptly after ensuring the child has used the inhaler.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of notice.</I> An employee shall provide sufficient information for an employer to reasonably determine whether the FMLA may apply to the leave request. Depending on the situation, such information may include that a condition renders the employee unable to perform the functions of the job; that the employee is pregnant or has been hospitalized overnight; whether the employee or the employee's family member is under the continuing care of a health care provider; if the leave is due to a qualifying exigency, that a military member is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status (or has been notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty), that the requested leave is for one of the reasons listed in § 825.126(b), and the anticipated duration of the absence; or if the leave is for a family member that the condition renders the family member unable to perform daily activities or that the family member is a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness; and the anticipated duration of the absence, if known. When an employee seeks leave for the first time for a FMLA-qualifying reason, the employee need not expressly assert rights under the FMLA or even mention the FMLA. When an employee seeks leave due to a qualifying reason, for which the employer has previously provided the employee FMLA-protected leave, the employee must specifically reference either the qualifying reason for leave or the need for FMLA leave. Calling in “sick” without providing more information will not be considered sufficient notice to trigger an employer's obligations under the Act. The employer will be expected to obtain any additional required information through informal means. An employee has an obligation to respond to an employer's questions designed to determine whether an absence is potentially FMLA-qualifying. Failure to respond to reasonable employer inquiries regarding the leave request may result in denial of FMLA protection if the employer is unable to determine whether the leave is FMLA-qualifying.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complying with employer policy.</I> When the need for leave is not foreseeable, an employee must comply with the employer's usual and customary notice and procedural requirements for requesting leave, absent unusual circumstances. For example, an employer may require employees to call a designated number or a specific individual to request leave. However, if an employee requires emergency medical treatment, he or she would not be required to follow the call-in procedure until his or her condition is stabilized and he or she has access to, and is able to use, a phone. Similarly, in the case of an emergency requiring leave because of a FMLA-qualifying reason, written advance notice pursuant to an employer's internal rules and procedures may not be required when FMLA leave is involved. If an employee does not comply with the employer's usual notice and procedural requirements, and no unusual circumstances justify the failure to comply, FMLA-protected leave may be delayed or denied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.304" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.304   Employee failure to provide notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proper notice required.</I> In all cases, in order for the onset of an employee's FMLA leave to be delayed due to lack of required notice, it must be clear that the employee had actual notice of the FMLA notice requirements. This condition would be satisfied by the employer's proper posting of the required notice at the worksite where the employee is employed and the employer's provision of the required notice in either an employee handbook or employee distribution, as required by § 825.300.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreseeable leave—30 days.</I> When the need for FMLA leave is foreseeable at least 30 days in advance and an employee fails to give timely advance notice with no reasonable excuse, the employer may delay FMLA coverage until 30 days after the date the employee provides notice. The need for leave and the approximate date leave would be taken must have been clearly foreseeable to the employee 30 days in advance of the leave. For example, knowledge that an employee would receive a telephone call about the availability of a child for adoption at some unknown point in the future would not be sufficient to establish the leave was clearly foreseeable 30 days in advance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreseeable leave—less than 30 days.</I> When the need for FMLA leave is foreseeable fewer than 30 days in advance and an employee fails to give notice as soon as practicable under the particular facts and circumstances, the extent to which an employer may delay FMLA coverage for leave depends on the facts of the particular case. For example, if an employee reasonably should have given the employer two weeks notice but instead only provided one week notice, then the employer may delay FMLA-protected leave for one week (thus, if the employer elects to delay FMLA coverage and the employee nonetheless takes leave one week after providing the notice (<I>i.e.,</I> a week before the two week notice period has been met) the leave will not be FMLA-protected).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unforeseeable leave.</I> When the need for FMLA leave is unforeseeable and an employee fails to give notice in accordance with § 825.303, the extent to which an employer may delay FMLA coverage for leave depends on the facts of the particular case. For example, if it would have been practicable for an employee to have given the employer notice of the need for leave very soon after the need arises consistent with the employer's policy, but instead the employee provided notice two days after the leave began, then the employer may delay FMLA coverage of the leave by two days.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waiver of notice.</I> An employer may waive employees' FMLA notice obligations or the employer's own internal rules on leave notice requirements. If an employer does not waive the employee's obligations under its internal leave rules, the employer may take appropriate action under its internal rules and procedures for failure to follow its usual and customary notification rules, absent unusual circumstances, as long as the actions are taken in a manner that does not discriminate against employees taking FMLA leave and the rules are not inconsistent with § 825.303(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.305" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.305   Certification, general rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An employer may require that an employee's leave to care for the employee's covered family member with a serious health condition, or due to the employee's own serious health condition that makes the employee unable to perform one or more of the essential functions of the employee's position, be supported by a certification issued by the health care provider of the employee or the employee's family member. An employer may also require that an employee's leave because of a qualifying exigency or to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness be supported by a certification, as described in §§ 825.309 and 825.310, respectively. An employer must give notice of a requirement for certification each time a certification is required; such notice must be written notice whenever required by § 825.300(c). An employer's oral request to an employee to furnish any subsequent certification is sufficient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> In most cases, the employer should request that an employee furnish certification at the time the employee gives notice of the need for leave or within five business days thereafter, or, in the case of unforeseen leave, within five business days after the leave commences. The employer may request certification at some later date if the employer later has reason to question the appropriateness of the leave or its duration. The employee must provide the requested certification to the employer within 15 calendar days after the employer's request, unless it is not practicable under the particular circumstances to do so despite the employee's diligent, good faith efforts or the employer provides more than 15 calendar days to return the requested certification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complete and sufficient certification.</I> The employee must provide a complete and sufficient certification to the employer if required by the employer in accordance with §§ 825.306, 825.309, and 825.310. The employer shall advise an employee whenever the employer finds a certification incomplete or insufficient, and shall state in writing what additional information is necessary to make the certification complete and sufficient. A certification is considered incomplete if the employer receives a certification, but one or more of the applicable entries have not been completed. A certification is considered insufficient if the employer receives a complete certification, but the information provided is vague, ambiguous, or non-responsive. The employer must provide the employee with seven calendar days (unless not practicable under the particular circumstances despite the employee's diligent good faith efforts) to cure any such deficiency. If the deficiencies specified by the employer are not cured in the resubmitted certification, the employer may deny the taking of FMLA leave, in accordance with § 825.313. A certification that is not returned to the employer is not considered incomplete or insufficient, but constitutes a failure to provide certification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consequences.</I> At the time the employer requests certification, the employer must also advise an employee of the anticipated consequences of an employee's failure to provide adequate certification. If the employee fails to provide the employer with a complete and sufficient certification, despite the opportunity to cure the certification as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, or fails to provide any certification, the employer may deny the taking of FMLA leave, in accordance with § 825.313. It is the employee's responsibility either to furnish a complete and sufficient certification or to furnish the health care provider providing the certification with any necessary authorization from the employee or the employee's family member in order for the health care provider to release a complete and sufficient certification to the employer to support the employee's FMLA request. This provision will apply in any case where an employer requests a certification permitted by these regulations, whether it is the initial certification, a recertification, a second or third opinion, or a fitness for duty certificate, including any clarifications necessary to determine if such certifications are authentic and sufficient. <I>See</I> §§ 825.306, 825.307, 825.308, and 825.312.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual medical certification.</I> Where the employee's need for leave due to the employee's own serious health condition, or the serious health condition of the employee's covered family member, lasts beyond a single leave year (as defined in § 825.200), the employer may require the employee to provide a new medical certification in each subsequent leave year. Such new medical certifications are subject to the provisions for authentication and clarification set forth in § 825.307, including second and third opinions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.306" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.306   Content of medical certification for leave taken because of an employee's own serious health condition or the serious health condition of a family member.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> When leave is taken because of an employee's own serious health condition, or the serious health condition of a family member, an employer may require an employee to obtain a medical certification from a health care provider that sets forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, telephone number, and fax number of the health care provider and type of medical practice/specialization;
</P>
<P>(2) The approximate date on which the serious health condition commenced, and its probable duration;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement or description of appropriate medical facts regarding the patient's health condition for which FMLA leave is requested. The medical facts must be sufficient to support the need for leave. Such medical facts may include information on symptoms, diagnosis, hospitalization, doctor visits, whether medication has been prescribed, any referrals for evaluation or treatment (physical therapy, for example), or any other regimen of continuing treatment;
</P>
<P>(4) If the employee is the patient, information sufficient to establish that the employee cannot perform the essential functions of the employee's job as well as the nature of any other work restrictions, and the likely duration of such inability (<I>see</I> § 825.123(b) and (c));
</P>
<P>(5) If the patient is a covered family member with a serious health condition, information sufficient to establish that the family member is in need of care, as described in § 825.124, and an estimate of the frequency and duration of the leave required to care for the family member;
</P>
<P>(6) If an employee requests leave on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis for planned medical treatment of the employee's or a covered family member's serious health condition, information sufficient to establish the medical necessity for such intermittent or reduced schedule leave and an estimate of the dates and duration of such treatments and any periods of recovery;
</P>
<P>(7) If an employee requests leave on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis for the employee's serious health condition, including pregnancy, that may result in unforeseeable episodes of incapacity, information sufficient to establish the medical necessity for such intermittent or reduced schedule leave and an estimate of the frequency and duration of the episodes of incapacity; and
</P>
<P>(8) If an employee requests leave on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis to care for a covered family member with a serious health condition, a statement that such leave is medically necessary to care for the family member, as described in §§ 825.124 and 825.203(b), which can include assisting in the family member's recovery, and an estimate of the frequency and duration of the required leave.
</P>
<P>(b) DOL has developed two optional forms (Form WH-380E and Form WH-380F, as revised) for use in obtaining medical certification, including second and third opinions, from health care providers that meets FMLA's certification requirements. Optional form WH-380E is for use when the employee's need for leave is due to the employee's own serious health condition. Optional form WH-380F is for use when the employee needs leave to care for a family member with a serious health condition. These optional forms reflect certification requirements so as to permit the health care provider to furnish appropriate medical information. Form WH-380-E and WH-380-F, as revised, or another form containing the same basic information, may be used by the employer; however, no information may be required beyond that specified in §§ 825.306, 825.307, and 825.308. In all instances the information on the form must relate only to the serious health condition for which the current need for leave exists. Prototype forms WH-380-E and WH-380-F may be obtained from local offices of the Wage and Hour Division or from the Internet at <I>www.dol.gov/whd.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) If an employee is on FMLA leave running concurrently with a workers' compensation absence, and the provisions of the workers' compensation statute permit the employer or the employer's representative to request additional information from the employee's workers' compensation health care provider, the FMLA does not prevent the employer from following the workers' compensation provisions and information received under those provisions may be considered in determining the employee's entitlement to FMLA-protected leave. Similarly, an employer may request additional information in accordance with a paid leave policy or disability plan that requires greater information to qualify for payments or benefits, provided that the employer informs the employee that the additional information only needs to be provided in connection with receipt of such payments or benefits. Any information received pursuant to such policy or plan may be considered in determining the employee's entitlement to FMLA-protected leave. If the employee fails to provide the information required for receipt of such payments or benefits, such failure will not affect the employee's entitlement to take unpaid FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.207(a).
</P>
<P>(d) If an employee's serious health condition may also be a disability within the meaning of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), as amended, the FMLA does not prevent the employer from following the procedures for requesting medical information under the ADA. Any information received pursuant to these procedures may be considered in determining the employee's entitlement to FMLA-protected leave.
</P>
<P>(e) While an employee may choose to comply with the certification requirement by providing the employer with an authorization, release, or waiver allowing the employer to communicate directly with the health care provider of the employee or his or her covered family member, the employee may not be required to provide such an authorization, release, or waiver. In all instances in which certification is requested, it is the employee's responsibility to provide the employer with complete and sufficient certification and failure to do so may result in the denial of FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.305(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.307" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.307   Authentication and clarification of medical certification for leave taken because of an employee's own serious health condition or the serious health condition of a family member; second and third opinions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Clarification and authentication.</I> If an employee submits a complete and sufficient certification signed by the health care provider, the employer may not request additional information from the health care provider. However, the employer may contact the health care provider for purposes of clarification and authentication of the medical certification (whether initial certification or recertification) after the employer has given the employee an opportunity to cure any deficiencies as set forth in § 825.305(c). To make such contact, the employer must use a health care provider, a human resources professional, a leave administrator, or a management official. Under no circumstances, however, may the employee's direct supervisor contact the employee's health care provider. For purposes of these regulations, <I>authentication</I> means providing the health care provider with a copy of the certification and requesting verification that the information contained on the certification form was completed and/or authorized by the health care provider who signed the document; no additional medical information may be requested. <I>Clarification</I> means contacting the health care provider to understand the handwriting on the medical certification or to understand the meaning of a response. Employers may not ask health care providers for additional information beyond that required by the certification form. The requirements of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (<I>see</I> 45 CFR parts 160 and 164), which governs the privacy of individually-identifiable health information created or held by HIPAA-covered entities, must be satisfied when individually-identifiable health information of an employee is shared with an employer by a HIPAA-covered health care provider. If an employee chooses not to provide the employer with authorization allowing the employer to clarify the certification with the health care provider, and does not otherwise clarify the certification, the employer may deny the taking of FMLA leave if the certification is unclear. <I>See</I> § 825.305(d). It is the employee's responsibility to provide the employer with a complete and sufficient certification and to clarify the certification if necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Second opinion.</I> (1) An employer who has reason to doubt the validity of a medical certification may require the employee to obtain a second opinion at the employer's expense. Pending receipt of the second (or third) medical opinion, the employee is provisionally entitled to the benefits of the Act, including maintenance of group health benefits. If the certifications do not ultimately establish the employee's entitlement to FMLA leave, the leave shall not be designated as FMLA leave and may be treated as paid or unpaid leave under the employer's established leave policies. In addition, the consequences set forth in § 825.305(d) will apply if the employee or the employee's family member fails to authorize his or her health care provider to release all relevant medical information pertaining to the serious health condition at issue if requested by the health care provider designated to provide a second opinion in order to render a sufficient and complete second opinion.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is permitted to designate the health care provider to furnish the second opinion, but the selected health care provider may not be employed on a regular basis by the employer. The employer may not regularly contract with or otherwise regularly utilize the services of the health care provider furnishing the second opinion unless the employer is located in an area where access to health care is extremely limited (e.g., a rural area where no more than one or two doctors practice in the relevant specialty in the vicinity).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Third opinion.</I> If the opinions of the employee's and the employer's designated health care providers differ, the employer may require the employee to obtain certification from a third health care provider, again at the employer's expense. This third opinion shall be final and binding. The third health care provider must be designated or approved jointly by the employer and the employee. The employer and the employee must each act in good faith to attempt to reach agreement on whom to select for the third opinion provider. If the employer does not attempt in good faith to reach agreement, the employer will be bound by the first certification. If the employee does not attempt in good faith to reach agreement, the employee will be bound by the second certification. For example, an employee who refuses to agree to see a doctor in the specialty in question may be failing to act in good faith. On the other hand, an employer that refuses to agree to any doctor on a list of specialists in the appropriate field provided by the employee and whom the employee has not previously consulted may be failing to act in good faith. In addition, the consequences set forth in § 825.305(d) will apply if the employee or the employee's family member fails to authorize his or her health care provider to release all relevant medical information pertaining to the serious health condition at issue if requested by the health care provider designated to provide a third opinion in order to render a sufficient and complete third opinion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copies of opinions.</I> The employer is required to provide the employee with a copy of the second and third medical opinions, where applicable, upon request by the employee. Requested copies are to be provided within five business days unless extenuating circumstances prevent such action.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Travel expenses.</I> If the employer requires the employee to obtain either a second or third opinion the employer must reimburse an employee or family member for any reasonable “out of pocket” travel expenses incurred to obtain the second and third medical opinions. The employer may not require the employee or family member to travel outside normal commuting distance for purposes of obtaining the second or third medical opinions except in very unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Medical certification abroad.</I> In circumstances in which the employee or a family member is visiting in another country, or a family member resides in another country, and a serious health condition develops, the employer shall accept a medical certification as well as second and third opinions from a health care provider who practices in that country. Where a certification by a foreign health care provider is in a language other than English, the employee must provide the employer with a written translation of the certification upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.308" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.308   Recertifications for leave taken because of an employee's own serious health condition or the serious health condition of a family member.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>30-day rule.</I> An employer may request recertification no more often than every 30 days and only in connection with an absence by the employee, unless paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>More than 30 days.</I> If the medical certification indicates that the minimum duration of the condition is more than 30 days, an employer must wait until that minimum duration expires before requesting a recertification, unless paragraph (c) of this section applies. For example, if the medical certification states that an employee will be unable to work, whether continuously or on an intermittent basis, for 40 days, the employer must wait 40 days before requesting a recertification. In all cases, an employer may request a recertification of a medical condition every six months in connection with an absence by the employee. Accordingly, even if the medical certification indicates that the employee will need intermittent or reduced schedule leave for a period in excess of six months (e.g., for a lifetime condition), the employer would be permitted to request recertification every six months in connection with an absence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Less than 30 days.</I> An employer may request recertification in less than 30 days if:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee requests an extension of leave;
</P>
<P>(2) Circumstances described by the previous certification have changed significantly (e.g., the duration or frequency of the absence, the nature or severity of the illness, complications). For example, if a medical certification stated that an employee would need leave for one to two days when the employee suffered a migraine headache and the employee's absences for his or her last two migraines lasted four days each, then the increased duration of absence might constitute a significant change in circumstances allowing the employer to request a recertification in less than 30 days. Likewise, if an employee had a pattern of using unscheduled FMLA leave for migraines in conjunction with his or her scheduled days off, then the timing of the absences also might constitute a significant change in circumstances sufficient for an employer to request a recertification more frequently than every 30 days; or
</P>
<P>(3) The employer receives information that casts doubt upon the employee's stated reason for the absence or the continuing validity of the certification. For example, if an employee is on FMLA leave for four weeks due to the employee's knee surgery, including recuperation, and the employee plays in company softball league games during the employee's third week of FMLA leave, such information might be sufficient to cast doubt upon the continuing validity of the certification allowing the employer to request a recertification in less than 30 days.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing.</I> The employee must provide the requested recertification to the employer within the time frame requested by the employer (which must allow at least 15 calendar days after the employer's request), unless it is not practicable under the particular circumstances to do so despite the employee's diligent, good faith efforts.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content.</I> The employer may ask for the same information when obtaining recertification as that permitted for the original certification as set forth in § 825.306. The employee has the same obligations to participate and cooperate (including providing a complete and sufficient certification or adequate authorization to the health care provider) in the recertification process as in the initial certification process. <I>See</I> § 825.305(d). As part of the information allowed to be obtained on recertification for leave taken because of a serious health condition, the employer may provide the health care provider with a record of the employee's absence pattern and ask the health care provider if the serious health condition and need for leave is consistent with such a pattern.
</P>
<P>(f) Any recertification requested by the employer shall be at the employee's expense unless the employer provides otherwise. No second or third opinion on recertification may be required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.309" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.309   Certification for leave taken because of a qualifying exigency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Active Duty Orders.</I> The first time an employee requests leave because of a qualifying exigency arising out of the covered active duty or call to covered active duty status (or notification of an impending call or order to covered active duty)of a military member (<I>see</I> § 825.126(a)), an employer may require the employee to provide a copy of the military member's active duty orders or other documentation issued by the military which indicates that the military member is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status, and the dates of the military member's covered active duty service. This information need only be provided to the employer once. A copy of new active duty orders or other documentation issued by the military may be required by the employer if the need for leave because of a qualifying exigency arises out of a different covered active duty or call to covered active duty status (or notification of an impending call or order to covered active duty) of the same or a different military member;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required information.</I> An employer may require that leave for any qualifying exigency specified in § 825.126 be supported by a certification from the employee that sets forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement or description, signed by the employee, of appropriate facts regarding the qualifying exigency for which FMLA leave is requested. The facts must be sufficient to support the need for leave. Such facts should include information on the type of qualifying exigency for which leave is requested and any available written documentation which supports the request for leave; such documentation, for example, may include a copy of a meeting announcement for informational briefings sponsored by the military, a document confirming an appointment with a counselor or school official, or a copy of a bill for services for the handling of legal or financial affairs;
</P>
<P>(2) The approximate date on which the qualifying exigency commenced or will commence;
</P>
<P>(3) If an employee requests leave because of a qualifying exigency for a single, continuous period of time, the beginning and end dates for such absence;
</P>
<P>(4) If an employee requests leave because of a qualifying exigency on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis, an estimate of the frequency and duration of the qualifying exigency;
</P>
<P>(5) If the qualifying exigency involves meeting with a third party, appropriate contact information for the individual or entity with whom the employee is meeting (such as the name, title, organization, address, telephone number, fax number, and email address) and a brief description of the purpose of the meeting; and
</P>
<P>(6) If the qualifying exigency involves <I>Rest and Recuperation</I> leave, a copy of the military member's Rest and Recuperation orders, or other documentation issued by the military which indicates that the military member has been granted Rest and Recuperation leave, and the dates of the military member's Rest and Recuperation leave.
</P>
<P>(c) DOL has developed an optional form (Form WH-384) for employees' use in obtaining a certification that meets FMLA's certification requirements. Form WH-384 may be obtained from local offices of the Wage and Hour Division or from the Internet at <I>www.dol.gov/whd.</I> This optional form reflects certification requirements so as to permit the employee to furnish appropriate information to support his or her request for leave because of a qualifying exigency. Form WH-384, or another form containing the same basic information, may be used by the employer; however, no information may be required beyond that specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification.</I> If an employee submits a complete and sufficient certification to support his or her request for leave because of a qualifying exigency, the employer may not request additional information from the employee. However, if the qualifying exigency involves meeting with a third party, the employer may contact the individual or entity with whom the employee is meeting for purposes of verifying a meeting or appointment schedule and the nature of the meeting between the employee and the specified individual or entity. The employee's permission is not required in order to verify meetings or appointments with third parties, but no additional information may be requested by the employer. An employer also may contact an appropriate unit of the Department of Defense to request verification that a military member is on covered active duty or call to covered active duty status (or has been notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty); no additional information may be requested and the employee's permission is not required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.310" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.310   Certification for leave taken to care for a covered servicemember (military caregiver leave).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information from health care provider.</I> When leave is taken to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness, an employer may require an employee to obtain a certification completed by an authorized health care provider of the covered servicemember. For purposes of leave taken to care for a covered servicemember, any one of the following health care providers may complete such a certification:
</P>
<P>(1) A United States Department of Defense (“DOD”) health care provider;
</P>
<P>(2) A United States Department of Veterans Affairs (“VA”) health care provider;
</P>
<P>(3) A DOD TRICARE network authorized private health care provider;
</P>
<P>(4) A DOD non-network TRICARE authorized private health care provider; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any health care provider as defined in § 825.125.
</P>
<P>(b) If the authorized health care provider is unable to make certain military-related determinations outlined below, the authorized health care provider may rely on determinations from an authorized DOD representative (such as a DOD Recovery Care Coordinator) or an authorized VA representative. An employer may request that the health care provider provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and appropriate contact information (telephone number, fax number, and/or email address) of the health care provider, the type of medical practice, the medical specialty, and whether the health care provider is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A DOD health care provider;
</P>
<P>(ii) A VA health care provider;
</P>
<P>(iii) A DOD TRICARE network authorized private health care provider;
</P>
<P>(iv) A DOD non-network TRICARE authorized private health care provider; or
</P>
<P>(v) A health care provider as defined in § 825.125.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the covered servicemember's injury or illness was incurred in the line of duty on active duty or, if not, whether the covered servicemember's injury or illness existed before the beginning of the servicemember's active duty and was aggravated by service in the line of duty on active duty;
</P>
<P>(3) The approximate date on which the serious injury or illness commenced, or was aggravated, and its probable duration;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement or description of appropriate medical facts regarding the covered servicemember's health condition for which FMLA leave is requested. The medical facts must be sufficient to support the need for leave.
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a current member of the Armed Forces, such medical facts must include information on whether the injury or illness may render the covered servicemember medically unfit to perform the duties of the servicemember's office, grade, rank, or rating and whether the member is receiving medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a covered veteran, such medical facts must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Information on whether the veteran is receiving medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy for an injury or illness that is the continuation of an injury or illness that was incurred or aggravated when the covered veteran was a member of the Armed Forces and rendered the servicemember medically unfit to perform the duties of the servicemember's office, grade, rank, or rating; or
</P>
<P>(B) Information on whether the veteran is receiving medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy for an injury or illness that is a physical or mental condition for which the covered veteran has received a U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Service-Related Disability Rating (VASRD) of 50 percent or greater, and that such VASRD rating is based, in whole or in part, on the condition precipitating the need for military caregiver leave; or
</P>
<P>(C) Information on whether the veteran is receiving medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy for an injury or illness that is a physical or mental condition that substantially impairs the covered veteran's ability to secure or follow a substantially gainful occupation by reason of a disability or disabilities related to military service, or would do so absent treatment; or
</P>
<P>(D) Documentation of enrollment in the Department of Veterans Affairs Program of Comprehensive Assistance for Family Caregivers.
</P>
<P>(5) Information sufficient to establish that the covered servicemember is in need of care, as described in § 825.124, and whether the covered servicemember will need care for a single continuous period of time, including any time for treatment and recovery, and an estimate as to the beginning and ending dates for this period of time;
</P>
<P>(6) If an employee requests leave on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis for planned medical treatment appointments for the covered servicemember, whether there is a medical necessity for the covered servicemember to have such periodic care and an estimate of the treatment schedule of such appointments;
</P>
<P>(7) If an employee requests leave on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis to care for a covered servicemember other than for planned medical treatment (e.g., episodic flare-ups of a medical condition), whether there is a medical necessity for the covered servicemember to have such periodic care, which can include assisting in the covered servicemember's recovery, and an estimate of the frequency and duration of the periodic care.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required information from employee and/or covered servicemember.</I> In addition to the information that may be requested under § 825.310(b), an employer may also request that such certification set forth the following information provided by an employee and/or covered servicemember:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the employer of the employee requesting leave to care for a covered servicemember, the name of the employee requesting such leave, and the name of the covered servicemember for whom the employee is requesting leave to care;
</P>
<P>(2) The relationship of the employee to the covered servicemember for whom the employee is requesting leave to care;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the covered servicemember is a current member of the Armed Forces, the National Guard or Reserves, and the covered servicemember's military branch, rank, and current unit assignment;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the covered servicemember is assigned to a military medical facility as an outpatient or to a unit established for the purpose of providing command and control of members of the Armed Forces receiving medical care as outpatients (such as a medical hold or warrior transition unit), and the name of the medical treatment facility or unit;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the covered servicemember is on the temporary disability retired list;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the covered servicemember is a veteran, the date of separation from military service, and whether the separation was other than dishonorable. The employer may require the employee to provide documentation issued by the military which indicates that the covered servicemember is a veteran, the date of separation, and that the separation is other than dishonorable. Where an employer requires such documentation, an employee may provide a copy of the veteran's Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty issued by the U.S. Department of Defense (DD Form 214) or other proof of veteran status. <I>See</I> § 825.127(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the care to be provided to the covered servicemember and an estimate of the leave needed to provide the care.
</P>
<P>(d) DOL has developed optional forms (WH-385, WH-385-V) for employees' use in obtaining certification that meets FMLA's certification requirements, which may be obtained from local offices of the Wage and Hour Division or on the Internet at <I>www.dol.gov/whd.</I> These optional forms reflect certification requirements so as to permit the employee to furnish appropriate information to support his or her request for leave to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness. WH-385, WH-385-V, or another form containing the same basic information, may be used by the employer; however, no information may be required beyond that specified in this section. In all instances the information on the certification must relate only to the serious injury or illness for which the current need for leave exists. An employer may seek authentication and/or clarification of the certification under § 825.307. Second and third opinions under § 825.307 are not permitted for leave to care for a covered servicemember when the certification has been completed by one of the types of health care providers identified in § 825.310(a)(1)-(4). However, second and third opinions under § 825.307 are permitted when the certification has been completed by a health care provider as defined in § 825.125 that is not one of the types identified in § 825.310(a)(1)-(4). Additionally, recertifications under § 825.308 are not permitted for leave to care for a covered servicemember. An employer may require an employee to provide confirmation of covered family relationship to the seriously injured or ill servicemember pursuant to § 825.122(k) of the FMLA.
</P>
<P>(e) An employer requiring an employee to submit a certification for leave to care for a covered servicemember must accept as sufficient certification, in lieu of the Department's optional certification forms (WH-385) or an employer's own certification form, invitational travel orders (ITOs) or invitational travel authorizations (ITAs) issued to any family member to join an injured or ill servicemember at his or her bedside. An ITO or ITA is sufficient certification for the duration of time specified in the ITO or ITA. During that time period, an eligible employee may take leave to care for the covered servicemember in a continuous block of time or on an intermittent basis. An eligible employee who provides an ITO or ITA to support his or her request for leave may not be required to provide any additional or separate certification that leave taken on an intermittent basis during the period of time specified in the ITO or ITA is medically necessary. An ITO or ITA is sufficient certification for an employee entitled to take FMLA leave to care for a covered servicemember regardless of whether the employee is named in the order or authorization.
</P>
<P>(1) If an employee will need leave to care for a covered servicemember beyond the expiration date specified in an ITO or ITA, an employer may request that the employee have one of the authorized health care providers listed under § 825.310(a) complete the DOL optional certification form (WH-385) or an employer's own form, as requisite certification for the remainder of the employee's necessary leave period.
</P>
<P>(2) An employer may seek authentication and clarification of the ITO or ITA under § 825.307. An employer may not utilize the second or third opinion process outlined in § 825.307 or the recertification process under § 825.308 during the period of time in which leave is supported by an ITO or ITA.
</P>
<P>(3) An employer may require an employee to provide confirmation of covered family relationship to the seriously injured or ill servicemember pursuant to § 825.122(k) when an employee supports his or her request for FMLA leave with a copy of an ITO or ITA.
</P>
<P>(f) An employer requiring an employee to submit a certification for leave to care for a covered servicemember must accept as sufficient certification of the servicemember's serious injury or illness documentation indicating the servicemember's enrollment in the Department of Veterans Affairs Program of Comprehensive Assistance for Family Caregivers. Such documentation is sufficient certification of the servicemember's serious injury or illness to support the employee's request for military caregiver leave regardless of whether the employee is the named caregiver in the enrollment documentation.
</P>
<P>(1) An employer may seek authentication and clarification of the documentation indicating the servicemember's enrollment in the Department of Veterans Affairs Program of Comprehensive Assistance for Family Caregivers under § 825.307. An employer may not utilize the second or third opinion process outlined in § 825.307 or the recertification process under § 825.308 when the servicemember's serious injury or illness is shown by documentation of enrollment in this program.
</P>
<P>(2) An employer may require an employee to provide confirmation of covered family relationship to the seriously injured or ill servicemember pursuant to § 825.122(k) when an employee supports his or her request for FMLA leave with a copy of such enrollment documentation. An employer may also require an employee to provide documentation, such as a veteran's Form DD-214, showing that the discharge was other than dishonorable and the date of the veteran's discharge.
</P>
<P>(g) Where medical certification is requested by an employer, an employee may not be held liable for administrative delays in the issuance of military documents, despite the employee's diligent, good-faith efforts to obtain such documents. <I>See</I> § 825.305(b). In all instances in which certification is requested, it is the employee's responsibility to provide the employer with complete and sufficient certification and failure to do so may result in the denial of FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.305(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.311" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.311   Intent to return to work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer may require an employee on FMLA leave to report periodically on the employee's status and intent to return to work. The employer's policy regarding such reports may not be discriminatory and must take into account all of the relevant facts and circumstances related to the individual employee's leave situation.
</P>
<P>(b) If an employee gives unequivocal notice of intent not to return to work, the employer's obligations under FMLA to maintain health benefits (subject to COBRA requirements) and to restore the employee cease. However, these obligations continue if an employee indicates he or she may be unable to return to work but expresses a continuing desire to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) It may be necessary for an employee to take more leave than originally anticipated. Conversely, an employee may discover after beginning leave that the circumstances have changed and the amount of leave originally anticipated is no longer necessary. An employee may not be required to take more FMLA leave than necessary to resolve the circumstance that precipitated the need for leave. In both of these situations, the employer may require that the employee provide the employer reasonable notice (<I>i.e.,</I> within two business days) of the changed circumstances where foreseeable. The employer may also obtain information on such changed circumstances through requested status reports.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.312" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.312   Fitness-for-duty certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a condition of restoring an employee whose FMLA leave was occasioned by the employee's own serious health condition that made the employee unable to perform the employee's job, an employer may have a uniformly-applied policy or practice that requires all similarly-situated employees (<I>i.e.,</I> same occupation, same serious health condition) who take leave for such conditions to obtain and present certification from the employee's health care provider that the employee is able to resume work. The employee has the same obligations to participate and cooperate (including providing a complete and sufficient certification or providing sufficient authorization to the health care provider to provide the information directly to the employer) in the fitness-for-duty certification process as in the initial certification process. <I>See</I> § 825.305(d).
</P>
<P>(b) An employer may seek a fitness-for-duty certification only with regard to the particular health condition that caused the employee's need for FMLA leave. The certification from the employee's health care provider must certify that the employee is able to resume work. Additionally, an employer may require that the certification specifically address the employee's ability to perform the essential functions of the employee's job. In order to require such a certification, an employer must provide an employee with a list of the essential functions of the employee's job no later than with the designation notice required by § 825.300(d), and must indicate in the designation notice that the certification must address the employee's ability to perform those essential functions. If the employer satisfies these requirements, the employee's health care provider must certify that the employee can perform the identified essential functions of his or her job. Following the procedures set forth in § 825.307(a), the employer may contact the employee's health care provider for purposes of clarifying and authenticating the fitness-for-duty certification. Clarification may be requested only for the serious health condition for which FMLA leave was taken. The employer may not delay the employee's return to work while contact with the health care provider is being made. No second or third opinions on a fitness-for-duty certification may be required.
</P>
<P>(c) The cost of the certification shall be borne by the employee, and the employee is not entitled to be paid for the time or travel costs spent in acquiring the certification.
</P>
<P>(d) The designation notice required in § 825.300(d) shall advise the employee if the employer will require a fitness-for-duty certification to return to work and whether that fitness-for-duty certification must address the employee's ability to perform the essential functions of the employee's job.
</P>
<P>(e) An employer may delay restoration to employment until an employee submits a required fitness-for-duty certification unless the employer has failed to provide the notice required in paragraph (d) of this section. If an employer provides the notice required, an employee who does not provide a fitness-for-duty certification or request additional FMLA leave is no longer entitled to reinstatement under the FMLA. <I>See</I> § 825.313(d).
</P>
<P>(f) An employer is not entitled to a certification of fitness to return to duty for each absence taken on an intermittent or reduced leave schedule. However, an employer is entitled to a certification of fitness to return to duty for such absences up to once every 30 days if reasonable safety concerns exist regarding the employee's ability to perform his or her duties, based on the serious health condition for which the employee took such leave. If an employer chooses to require a fitness-for-duty certification under such circumstances, the employer shall inform the employee at the same time it issues the designation notice that for each subsequent instance of intermittent or reduced schedule leave, the employee will be required to submit a fitness-for-duty certification unless one has already been submitted within the past 30 days. Alternatively, an employer can set a different interval for requiring a fitness-for-duty certification as long as it does not exceed once every 30 days and as long as the employer advises the employee of the requirement in advance of the employee taking the intermittent or reduced schedule leave. The employer may not terminate the employment of the employee while awaiting such a certification of fitness to return to duty for an intermittent or reduced schedule leave absence. <I>Reasonable safety concerns</I> means a reasonable belief of significant risk of harm to the individual employee or others. In determining whether reasonable safety concerns exist, an employer should consider the nature and severity of the potential harm and the likelihood that potential harm will occur.
</P>
<P>(g) If State or local law or the terms of a collective bargaining agreement govern an employee's return to work, those provisions shall be applied.
</P>
<P>(h) Requirements under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), as amended, apply. After an employee returns from FMLA leave, the ADA requires any medical examination at an employer's expense by the employer's health care provider be job-related and consistent with business necessity. For example, an attorney could not be required to submit to a medical examination or inquiry just because her leg had been amputated. The essential functions of an attorney's job do not require use of both legs; therefore such an inquiry would not be job related. An employer may require a warehouse laborer, whose back impairment affects the ability to lift, to be examined by an orthopedist, but may not require this employee to submit to an HIV test where the test is not related to either the essential functions of his or her job or to his/her impairment. If an employee's serious health condition may also be a disability within the meaning of the ADA, the FMLA does not prevent the employer from following the procedures for requesting medical information under the ADA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.313" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.3.489.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.313   Failure to provide certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Foreseeable leave.</I> In the case of foreseeable leave, if an employee fails to provide certification in a timely manner as required by § 825.305, then an employer may deny FMLA coverage until the required certification is provided. For example, if an employee has 15 days to provide a certification and does not provide the certification for 45 days without sufficient reason for the delay, the employer can deny FMLA protections for the 30-day period following the expiration of the 15-day time period, if the employee takes leave during such period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unforeseeable leave.</I> In the case of unforeseeable leave, an employer may deny FMLA coverage for the requested leave if the employee fails to provide a certification within 15 calendar days from receipt of the request for certification unless not practicable due to extenuating circumstances. For example, in the case of a medical emergency, it may not be practicable for an employee to provide the required certification within 15 calendar days. Absent such extenuating circumstances, if the employee fails to timely return the certification, the employer can deny FMLA protections for the leave following the expiration of the 15-day time period until a sufficient certification is provided. If the employee never produces the certification, the leave is not FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recertification.</I> An employee must provide recertification within the time requested by the employer (which must allow at least 15 calendar days after the request) or as soon as practicable under the particular facts and circumstances. If an employee fails to provide a recertification within a reasonable time under the particular facts and circumstances, then the employer may deny continuation of the FMLA leave protections until the employee produces a sufficient recertification. If the employee never produces the recertification, the leave is not FMLA leave. Recertification does not apply to leave taken for a qualifying exigency or to care for a covered servicemember.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fitness-for-duty certification.</I> When requested by the employer pursuant to a uniformly applied policy for similarly-situated employees, the employee must provide medical certification, at the time the employee seeks reinstatement at the end of FMLA leave taken for the employee's serious health condition, that the employee is fit for duty and able to return to work (<I>see</I> § 825.312(a)) if the employer has provided the required notice (<I>see</I> § 825.300(e)); the employer may delay restoration until the certification is provided. Unless the employee provides either a fitness-for-duty certification or a new medical certification for a serious health condition at the time FMLA leave is concluded, the employee may be terminated. <I>See also</I> § 825.213(a)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Enforcement Mechanisms</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.400" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.4.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.400   Enforcement, general rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employee has the choice of:
</P>
<P>(1) Filing, or having another person file on his or her behalf, a complaint with the Secretary of Labor, or
</P>
<P>(2) Filing a private lawsuit pursuant to section 107 of FMLA.
</P>
<P>(b) If the employee files a private lawsuit, it must be filed within two years after the last action which the employee contends was in violation of the Act, or three years if the violation was willful.
</P>
<P>(c) If an employer has violated one or more provisions of FMLA, and if justified by the facts of a particular case, an employee may receive one or more of the following: wages, employment benefits, or other compensation denied or lost to such employee by reason of the violation; or, where no such tangible loss has occurred, such as when FMLA leave was unlawfully denied, any actual monetary loss sustained by the employee as a direct result of the violation, such as the cost of providing care, up to a sum equal to 26 weeks of wages for the employee in a case involving leave to care for a covered servicemember or 12 weeks of wages for the employee in a case involving leave for any other FMLA qualifying reason. In addition, the employee may be entitled to interest on such sum, calculated at the prevailing rate. An amount equaling the preceding sums may also be awarded as liquidated damages unless such amount is reduced by the court because the violation was in good faith and the employer had reasonable grounds for believing the employer had not violated the Act. When appropriate, the employee may also obtain appropriate equitable relief, such as employment, reinstatement and promotion. When the employer is found in violation, the employee may recover a reasonable attorney's fee, reasonable expert witness fees, and other costs of the action from the employer in addition to any judgment awarded by the court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.401" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.4.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.401   Filing a complaint with the Federal Government.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complaint may be filed in person, by mail or by telephone, with the Wage and Hour Division, U.S. Department of Labor. A complaint may be filed at any local office of the Wage and Hour Division; the address and telephone number of local offices may be found in telephone directories or on the Department's Web site.
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint filed with the Secretary of Labor should be filed within a reasonable time of when the employee discovers that his or her FMLA rights have been violated. In no event may a complaint be filed more than two years after the action which is alleged to be a violation of FMLA occurred, or three years in the case of a willful violation.
</P>
<P>(c) No particular form of complaint is required, except that a complaint must be reduced to writing and should include a full statement of the acts and/or omissions, with pertinent dates, which are believed to constitute the violation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 8902, Feb. 6, 2013, as amended at 82 FR 2230, Jan. 9, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.402" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.4.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.402   Violations of the posting requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Section 825.300 describes the requirements for covered employers to post a notice for employees that explains the Act's provisions. If a representative of the Department of Labor determines that an employer has committed a willful violation of this posting requirement, and that the imposition of a civil money penalty for such violation is appropriate, the representative may issue and serve a notice of penalty on such employer in person or by certified mail. Where service by certified mail is not accepted, notice shall be deemed received on the date of attempted delivery. Where service is not accepted, the notice may be served by regular mail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.403" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.4.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.403   Appealing the assessment of a penalty for willful violation of the posting requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer may obtain a review of the assessment of penalty from the Wage and Hour Regional Administrator for the region in which the alleged violation(s) occurred. If the employer does not seek such a review or fails to do so in a timely manner, the notice of the penalty constitutes the final ruling of the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain review, an employer may file a petition with the Wage and Hour Regional Administrator for the region in which the alleged violations occurred. No particular form of petition for review is required, except that the petition must be in writing, should contain the legal and factual bases for the petition, and must be mailed to the Regional Administrator within 15 days of receipt of the notice of penalty. The employer may request an oral hearing which may be conducted by telephone.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Regional Administrator constitutes the final order of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.404" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.4.489.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.404   Consequences for an employer when not paying the penalty assessment after a final order is issued.</HEAD>
<P>The Regional Administrator may seek to recover the unpaid penalty pursuant to the Debt Collection Act (DCA), 31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.,</I> and, in addition to seeking recovery of the unpaid final order, may seek interest and penalties as provided under the DCA. The final order may also be referred to the Solicitor of Labor for collection. The Secretary may file suit in any court of competent jurisdiction to recover the monies due as a result of the unpaid final order, interest, and penalties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Recordkeeping Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.500" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.5.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.500   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FMLA provides that covered employers shall make, keep, and preserve records pertaining to their obligations under the Act in accordance with the recordkeeping requirements of section 11(c) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) and in accordance with these regulations. FMLA also restricts the authority of the Department of Labor to require any employer or plan, fund, or program to submit books or records more than once during any 12-month period unless the Department has reasonable cause to believe a violation of FMLA exists or the Department is investigating a complaint. These regulations establish no requirement for the submission of any records unless specifically requested by a Departmental official.
</P>
<P>(b) No particular order or form of records is required. These regulations establish no requirement that any employer revise its computerized payroll or personnel records systems to comply. However, employers must keep the records specified by these regulations for no less than three years and make them available for inspection, copying, and transcription by representatives of the Department of Labor upon request. The records may be maintained and preserved on microfilm or other basic source document of an automated data processing memory provided that adequate projection or viewing equipment is available, that the reproductions are clear and identifiable by date or pay period, and that extensions or transcriptions of the information required herein can be and are made available upon request. Records kept in computer form must be made available for transcription or copying.
</P>
<P>(c) Covered employers who have eligible employees must maintain records that must disclose the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Basic payroll and identifying employee data, including name, address, and occupation; rate or basis of pay and terms of compensation; daily and weekly hours worked per pay period; additions to or deductions from wages; and total compensation paid.
</P>
<P>(2) Dates FMLA leave is taken by FMLA eligible employees (e.g., available from time records, requests for leave, etc., if so designated). Leave must be designated in records as FMLA leave; leave so designated may not include leave required under State law or an employer plan which is not also covered by FMLA.
</P>
<P>(3) If FMLA leave is taken by eligible employees in increments of less than one full day, the hours of the leave.
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of employee notices of leave furnished to the employer under FMLA, if in writing, and copies of all written notices given to employees as required under FMLA and these regulations <I>See</I> § 825.300(b)-(c). Copies may be maintained in employee personnel files.
</P>
<P>(5) Any documents (including written and electronic records) describing employee benefits or employer policies and practices regarding the taking of paid and unpaid leaves.
</P>
<P>(6) Premium payments of employee benefits.
</P>
<P>(7) Records of any dispute between the employer and an eligible employee regarding designation of leave as FMLA leave, including any written statement from the employer or employee of the reasons for the designation and for the disagreement.
</P>
<P>(d) Covered employers with no eligible employees must maintain the records set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Covered employers in a joint employment situation (<I>see</I> § 825.106) must keep all the records required by paragraph (c) of this section with respect to any primary employees, and must keep the records required by paragraph (c)(1) with respect to any secondary employees.
</P>
<P>(f) If FMLA-eligible employees are not subject to FLSA's recordkeeping regulations for purposes of minimum wage or overtime compliance (<I>i.e.,</I> not covered by or exempt from FLSA), an employer need not keep a record of actual hours worked (as otherwise required under FLSA, 29 CFR 516.2(a)(7)), provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligibility for FMLA leave is presumed for any employee who has been employed for at least 12 months; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to employees who take FMLA leave intermittently or on a reduced leave schedule, the employer and employee agree on the employee's normal schedule or average hours worked each week and reduce their agreement to a written record maintained in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Records and documents relating to certifications, recertifications or medical histories of employees or employees' family members, created for purposes of FMLA, shall be maintained as confidential medical records in separate files/records from the usual personnel files. If the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA) is applicable, records and documents created for purposes of FMLA containing family medical history or genetic information as defined in GINA shall be maintained in accordance with the confidentiality requirements of Title II of GINA (<I>see</I> 29 CFR 1635.9), which permit such information to be disclosed consistent with the requirements of FMLA. If the ADA, as amended, is also applicable, such records shall be maintained in conformance with ADA confidentiality requirements (<I>see</I> 29 CFR 1630.14(c)(1)), except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding necessary restrictions on the work or duties of an employee and necessary accommodations;
</P>
<P>(2) First aid and safety personnel may be informed (when appropriate) if the employee's physical or medical condition might require emergency treatment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Government officials investigating compliance with FMLA (or other pertinent law) shall be provided relevant information upon request.
</P>
<P>(h) Special rules regarding recordkeeping apply to employers of airline flight crew employees. <I>See</I> § 825.803.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Special Rules Applicable to Employees of Schools</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.600" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.6.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.600   Special rules for school employees, definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain special rules apply to employees of local educational agencies, including public school boards and elementary and secondary schools under their jurisdiction, and private elementary and secondary schools. The special rules do not apply to other kinds of educational institutions, such as colleges and universities, trade schools, and preschools.
</P>
<P>(b) Educational institutions are covered by FMLA (and these special rules) and the Act's 50-employee coverage test does not apply. The usual requirements for employees to be eligible do apply, however, including employment at a worksite where at least 50 employees are employed within 75 miles. For example, employees of a rural school would not be eligible for FMLA leave if the school has fewer than 50 employees and there are no other schools under the jurisdiction of the same employer (usually, a school board) within 75 miles.
</P>
<P>(c) The special rules affect the taking of intermittent leave or leave on a reduced leave schedule, or leave near the end of an academic term (semester), by instructional employees. <I>Instructional employees</I> are those whose principal function is to teach and instruct students in a class, a small group, or an individual setting. This term includes not only teachers, but also athletic coaches, driving instructors, and special education assistants such as signers for the hearing impaired. It does not include, and the special rules do not apply to, teacher assistants or aides who do not have as their principal job actual teaching or instructing, nor does it include auxiliary personnel such as counselors, psychologists, or curriculum specialists. It also does not include cafeteria workers, maintenance workers, or bus drivers.
</P>
<P>(d) Special rules which apply to restoration to an equivalent position apply to all employees of local educational agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.601" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.6.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.601   Special rules for school employees, limitations on intermittent leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Leave taken for a period that ends with the school year and begins the next semester is leave taken consecutively rather than intermittently. The period during the summer vacation when the employee would not have been required to report for duty is not counted against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. An instructional employee who is on FMLA leave at the end of the school year must be provided with any benefits over the summer vacation that employees would normally receive if they had been working at the end of the school year.
</P>
<P>(1) If an eligible instructional employee needs intermittent leave or leave on a reduced leave schedule to care for a family member with a serious health condition, to care for a covered servicemember, or for the employee's own serious health condition, which is foreseeable based on planned medical treatment, and the employee would be on leave for more than 20 percent of the total number of working days over the period the leave would extend, the employer may require the employee to choose either to:
</P>
<P>(i) Take leave for a period or periods of a particular duration, not greater than the duration of the planned treatment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Transfer temporarily to an available alternative position for which the employee is qualified, which has equivalent pay and benefits and which better accommodates recurring periods of leave than does the employee's regular position.
</P>
<P>(2) These rules apply only to a leave involving more than 20 percent of the working days during the period over which the leave extends. For example, if an instructional employee who normally works five days each week needs to take two days of FMLA leave per week over a period of several weeks, the special rules would apply. Employees taking leave which constitutes 20 percent or less of the working days during the leave period would not be subject to transfer to an alternative position. <I>Periods of a particular duration</I> means a block, or blocks, of time beginning no earlier than the first day for which leave is needed and ending no later than the last day on which leave is needed, and may include one uninterrupted period of leave.
</P>
<P>(b) If an instructional employee does not give required notice of foreseeable FMLA leave (<I>see</I> § 825.302) to be taken intermittently or on a reduced leave schedule, the employer may require the employee to take leave of a particular duration, or to transfer temporarily to an alternative position. Alternatively, the employer may require the employee to delay the taking of leave until the notice provision is met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.602" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.6.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.602   Special rules for school employees, limitations on leave near the end of an academic term.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There are also different rules for instructional employees who begin leave more than five weeks before the end of a term, less than five weeks before the end of a term, and less than three weeks before the end of a term. Regular rules apply except in circumstances when:
</P>
<P>(1) An instructional employee begins leave more than five weeks before the end of a term. The employer may require the employee to continue taking leave until the end of the term if —
</P>
<P>(i) The leave will last at least three weeks, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee would return to work during the three-week period before the end of the term.
</P>
<P>(2) The employee begins leave during the five-week period before the end of a term because of the birth of a son or daughter; the placement of a son or daughter for adoption or foster care; to care for a spouse, son, daughter, or parent with a serious health condition; or to care for a covered servicemember. The employer may require the employee to continue taking leave until the end of the term if—
</P>
<P>(i) The leave will last more than two weeks, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee would return to work during the two-week period before the end of the term.
</P>
<P>(3) The employee begins leave during the three-week period before the end of a term because of the birth of a son or daughter; the placement of a son or daughter for adoption or foster care; to care for a spouse, son, daughter, or parent with a serious health condition; or to care for a covered servicemember. The employer may require the employee to continue taking leave until the end of the term if the leave will last more than five working days.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of these provisions, <I>academic term</I> means the school semester, which typically ends near the end of the calendar year and the end of spring each school year. In no case may a school have more than two academic terms or semesters each year for purposes of FMLA. An example of leave falling within these provisions would be where an employee plans two weeks of leave to care for a family member which will begin three weeks before the end of the term. In that situation, the employer could require the employee to stay out on leave until the end of the term.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.603" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.6.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.603   Special rules for school employees, duration of FMLA leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an employee chooses to take leave for periods of a particular duration in the case of intermittent or reduced schedule leave, the entire period of leave taken will count as FMLA leave.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an employee who is required to take leave until the end of an academic term, only the period of leave until the employee is ready and able to return to work shall be charged against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. The employer has the option not to require the employee to stay on leave until the end of the school term. Therefore, any additional leave required by the employer to the end of the school term is not counted as FMLA leave; however, the employer shall be required to maintain the employee's group health insurance and restore the employee to the same or equivalent job including other benefits at the conclusion of the leave.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.604" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.6.489.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.604   Special rules for school employees, restoration to an equivalent position.</HEAD>
<P>The determination of how an employee is to be restored to an equivalent position upon return from FMLA leave will be made on the basis of “established school board policies and practices, private school policies and practices, and collective bargaining agreements.” The “established policies” and collective bargaining agreements used as a basis for restoration must be in writing, must be made known to the employee prior to the taking of FMLA leave, and must clearly explain the employee's restoration rights upon return from leave. Any established policy which is used as the basis for restoration of an employee to an equivalent position must provide substantially the same protections as provided in the Act for reinstated employees. <I>See</I> § 825.215. In other words, the policy or collective bargaining agreement must provide for restoration to an equivalent position with equivalent employment benefits, pay, and other terms and conditions of employment. For example, an employee may not be restored to a position requiring additional licensure or certification.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Effect of Other Laws, Employer Practices, and Collective Bargaining Agreements on Employee Rights Under FMLA</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.700" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.7.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.700   Interaction with employer's policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer must observe any employment benefit program or plan that provides greater family or medical leave rights to employees than the rights established by the FMLA. Conversely, the rights established by the Act may not be diminished by any employment benefit program or plan. For example, a provision of a CBA which provides for reinstatement to a position that is not equivalent because of seniority (e.g., provides lesser pay) is superseded by FMLA. If an employer provides greater unpaid family leave rights than are afforded by FMLA, the employer is not required to extend additional rights afforded by FMLA, such as maintenance of health benefits (other than through COBRA), to the additional leave period not covered by FMLA.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this Act prevents an employer from amending existing leave and employee benefit programs, provided they comply with FMLA. However, nothing in the Act is intended to discourage employers from adopting or retaining more generous leave policies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.701" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.7.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.701   Interaction with State laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing in FMLA supersedes any provision of State or local law that provides greater family or medical leave rights than those provided by FMLA. The Department of Labor will not, however, enforce State family or medical leave laws, and States may not enforce the FMLA. Employees are not required to designate whether the leave they are taking is FMLA leave or leave under State law, and an employer must comply with the appropriate (applicable) provisions of both. An employer covered by one law and not the other has to comply only with the law under which it is covered. Similarly, an employee eligible under only one law must receive benefits in accordance with that law. If leave qualifies for FMLA leave and leave under State law, the leave used counts against the employee's entitlement under both laws. Examples of the interaction between FMLA and State laws include:
</P>
<P>(1) If State law provides 16 weeks of leave entitlement over two years, an employee needing leave due to his or her own serious health condition would be entitled to take 16 weeks one year under State law and 12 weeks the next year under FMLA. Health benefits maintenance under FMLA would be applicable only to the first 12 weeks of leave entitlement each year. If the employee took 12 weeks the first year, the employee would be entitled to a maximum of 12 weeks the second year under FMLA (not 16 weeks). An employee would not be entitled to 28 weeks in one year.
</P>
<P>(2) If State law provides half-pay for employees temporarily disabled because of pregnancy for six weeks, the employee would be entitled to an additional six weeks of unpaid FMLA leave (or accrued paid leave).
</P>
<P>(3) If State law provides six weeks of leave, which may include leave to care for a seriously-ill grandparent or a “spouse equivalent,” and leave was used for that purpose, the employee is still entitled to his or her full FMLA leave entitlement, as the leave used was provided for a purpose not covered by FMLA. If FMLA leave is used first for a purpose also provided under State law, and State leave has thereby been exhausted, the employer would not be required to provide additional leave to care for the grandparent or “spouse equivalent.”
</P>
<P>(4) If State law prohibits mandatory leave beyond the actual period of pregnancy disability, an instructional employee of an educational agency subject to special FMLA rules may not be required to remain on leave until the end of the academic term, as permitted by FMLA under certain circumstances. <I>See</I> Subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.702" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.7.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.702   Interaction with Federal and State anti-discrimination laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing in FMLA modifies or affects any Federal or State law prohibiting discrimination on the basis of race, religion, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability (e.g., Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act). FMLA's legislative history explains that FMLA is “not intended to modify or affect the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, the regulations concerning employment which have been promulgated pursuant to that statute, or the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 [as amended] or the regulations issued under that act. Thus, the leave provisions of the [FMLA] are wholly distinct from the reasonable accommodation obligations of employers covered under the [ADA], employers who receive Federal financial assistance, employers who contract with the Federal government, or the Federal government itself. The purpose of the FMLA is to make leave available to eligible employees and employers within its coverage, and not to limit already existing rights and protection.” S. Rep. No. 103-3, at 38 (1993). An employer must therefore provide leave under whichever statutory provision provides the greater rights to employees. When an employer violates both FMLA and a discrimination law, an employee may be able to recover under either or both statutes (double relief may not be awarded for the same loss; when remedies coincide a claimant may be allowed to utilize whichever avenue of relief is desired. <I>Laffey</I> v. <I>Northwest Airlines, Inc.,</I> 567 F.2d 429, 445 (D.C. Cir. 1976), <I>cert. denied,</I> 434 U.S. 1086 (1978).
</P>
<P>(b) If an employee is a qualified individual with a disability within the meaning of the ADA, the employer must make reasonable accommodations, etc., barring undue hardship, in accordance with the ADA. At the same time, the employer must afford an employee his or her FMLA rights. ADA's “disability” and FMLA's “serious health condition” are different concepts, and must be analyzed separately. FMLA entitles eligible employees to 12 weeks of leave in any 12-month period due to their own serious health condition, whereas the ADA allows an indeterminate amount of leave, barring undue hardship, as a reasonable accommodation. FMLA requires employers to maintain employees' group health plan coverage during FMLA leave on the same conditions as coverage would have been provided if the employee had been continuously employed during the leave period, whereas ADA does not require maintenance of health insurance unless other employees receive health insurance during leave under the same circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A reasonable accommodation under the ADA might be accomplished by providing an individual with a disability with a part-time job with no health benefits, assuming the employer did not ordinarily provide health insurance for part-time employees. However, FMLA would permit an employee to work a reduced leave schedule until the equivalent of 12 workweeks of leave were used, with group health benefits maintained during this period. FMLA permits an employer to temporarily transfer an employee who is taking leave intermittently or on a reduced leave schedule for planned medical treatment to an alternative position, whereas the ADA allows an accommodation of reassignment to an equivalent, vacant position only if the employee cannot perform the essential functions of the employee's present position and an accommodation is not possible in the employee's present position, or an accommodation in the employee's present position would cause an undue hardship. The examples in the following paragraphs of this section demonstrate how the two laws would interact with respect to a qualified individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(2) A qualified individual with a disability who is also an eligible employee entitled to FMLA leave requests 10 weeks of medical leave as a reasonable accommodation, which the employer grants because it is not an undue hardship. The employer advises the employee that the 10 weeks of leave is also being designated as FMLA leave and will count towards the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. This designation does not prevent the parties from also treating the leave as a reasonable accommodation and reinstating the employee into the same job, as required by the ADA, rather than an equivalent position under FMLA, if that is the greater right available to the employee. At the same time, the employee would be entitled under FMLA to have the employer maintain group health plan coverage during the leave, as that requirement provides the greater right to the employee.
</P>
<P>(3) If the same employee needed to work part-time (a reduced leave schedule) after returning to his or her same job, the employee would still be entitled under FMLA to have group health plan coverage maintained for the remainder of the two-week equivalent of FMLA leave entitlement, notwithstanding an employer policy that part-time employees do not receive health insurance. This employee would be entitled under the ADA to reasonable accommodations to enable the employee to perform the essential functions of the part-time position. In addition, because the employee is working a part-time schedule as a reasonable accommodation, the FMLA's provision for temporary assignment to a different alternative position would not apply. Once the employee has exhausted his or her remaining FMLA leave entitlement while working the reduced (part-time) schedule, if the employee is a qualified individual with a disability, and if the employee is unable to return to the same full-time position at that time, the employee might continue to work part-time as a reasonable accommodation, barring undue hardship; the employee would then be entitled to only those employment benefits ordinarily provided by the employer to part-time employees.
</P>
<P>(4) At the end of the FMLA leave entitlement, an employer is required under FMLA to reinstate the employee in the same or an equivalent position, with equivalent pay and benefits, to that which the employee held when leave commenced. The employer's FMLA obligations would be satisfied if the employer offered the employee an equivalent full-time position. If the employee were unable to perform the essential functions of that equivalent position even with reasonable accommodation, because of a disability, the ADA may require the employer to make a reasonable accommodation at that time by allowing the employee to work part-time or by reassigning the employee to a vacant position, barring undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If FMLA entitles an employee to leave, an employer may not, in lieu of FMLA leave entitlement, require an employee to take a job with a reasonable accommodation. However, ADA may require that an employer offer an employee the opportunity to take such a position. An employer may not change the essential functions of the job in order to deny FMLA leave. <I>See</I> § 825.220(b).
</P>
<P>(2) An employee may be on a workers' compensation absence due to an on-the-job injury or illness which also qualifies as a serious health condition under FMLA. The workers' compensation absence and FMLA leave may run concurrently (subject to proper notice and designation by the employer). At some point the health care provider providing medical care pursuant to the workers' compensation injury may certify the employee is able to return to work in a light duty position. If the employer offers such a position, the employee is permitted but not required to accept the position. <I>See</I> § 825.220(d). As a result, the employee may no longer qualify for payments from the workers' compensation benefit plan, but the employee is entitled to continue on unpaid FMLA leave either until the employee is able to return to the same or equivalent job the employee left or until the 12-week FMLA leave entitlement is exhausted. <I>See</I> § 825.207(e). If the employee returning from the workers' compensation injury is a qualified individual with a disability, he or she will have rights under the ADA.
</P>
<P>(e) If an employer requires certifications of an employee's fitness for duty to return to work, as permitted by FMLA under a uniform policy, it must comply with the ADA requirement that a fitness for duty physical be job-related and consistent with business necessity.
</P>
<P>(f) Under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, an employer should provide the same benefits for women who are pregnant as the employer provides to other employees with short-term disabilities. Because Title VII does not require employees to be employed for a certain period of time to be protected, an employee employed for less than 12 months by the employer (and, therefore, not an eligible employee under FMLA) may not be denied maternity leave if the employer normally provides short-term disability benefits to employees with the same tenure who are experiencing other short-term disabilities.
</P>
<P>(g) Under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA), 38 U.S.C. 4301, <I>et seq.,</I> veterans are entitled to receive all rights and benefits of employment that they would have obtained if they had been continuously employed. Therefore, under USERRA, a returning servicemember would be eligible for FMLA leave if the months and hours that he or she would have worked (or, for airline flight crew employees, would have worked or been paid) for the civilian employer during the period of absence due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service, combined with the months employed and the hours actually worked (or, for airline flight crew employees, actually worked or paid), meet the FMLA eligibility threshold of 12 months of employment and the hours of service requirement. <I>See</I> §§ 825.110(b)(2)(i) and (c)(2) and 825802(c).
</P>
<P>(h) For further information on Federal antidiscrimination laws, including Title VII and the ADA, individuals are encouraged to contact the nearest office of the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Special Rules Applicable to Airline Flight Crew Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.800" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.8.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.800   Special rules for airline flight crew employees, general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain special rules apply only to airline flight crew employees as defined in § 825.102. These special rules affect the hours of service requirement for determining the eligibility of airline flight crew employees, the calculation of leave for those employees, and the recordkeeping requirements for employers of those employees, and are issued pursuant to the Airline Flight Crew Technical Corrections Act (AFCTCA), Public Law 111-119.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, FMLA leave for airline flight crew employees is subject to the requirements of the FMLA as set forth in Part 825, Subparts A through E, and G.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.801" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.8.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.801   Special rules for airline flight crew employees, hours of service requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An airline flight crew employee's eligibility for FMLA leave is to be determined in accordance with § 825.110 except that whether an airline flight crew employee meets the hours of service requirement is to be determined as provided below.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, whether an airline flight crew employee meets the hours of service requirement is determined by assessing the number of hours the employee has worked or been paid over the previous 12 months. An airline flight crew employee will meet the hours of service requirement during the previous 12-month period if he or she has worked or been paid for not less than 60 percent of the employee's applicable monthly guarantee and has worked or been paid for not less than 504 hours.
</P>
<P>(1) The <I>applicable monthly guarantee</I> for an airline flight crew employee who is not on reserve status is the minimum number of hours for which an employer has agreed to schedule such employee for any given month. The <I>applicable monthly guarantee</I> for an airline flight crew employee who is on reserve status is the number of hours for which an employer has agreed to pay the employee for any given month.
</P>
<P>(2) The hours an airline flight crew employee has worked for purposes of the hours of service requirement is the employee's duty hours during the previous 12-month period. The hours an airline flight crew employee has been paid is the number of hours for which an employee received wages during the previous 12-month period. The 504 hours do not include personal commute time or time spent on vacation, medical, or sick leave.
</P>
<P>(c) An airline flight crew employee returning from USERRA-covered service shall be credited with the hours of service that would have been performed but for the period of absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service in determining the employee's eligibility for FMLA-qualifying leave. Accordingly, an airline flight crew employee re-employed following USERRA-covered service has the hours that would have been worked for or paid by the employer added to any hours actually worked or paid during the previous 12-month period to meet the hours of service requirement. In order to determine the hours that would have been worked or paid during the period of absence from work due to or necessitated by USERRA-covered service, the employee's pre-service work schedule can generally be used for calculations.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event an employer of airline flight crew employees does not maintain an accurate record of hours worked or hours paid, the employer has the burden of showing that the employee has not worked or been paid for the requisite hours. Specifically, an employer must be able to clearly demonstrate that an airline flight crew employee has not worked or been paid for 60 percent of his or her applicable monthly guarantee or for 504 hours during the previous 12 months in order to claim that the airline flight crew employee is not eligible for FMLA leave.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.802" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.8.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.802   Special rules for airline flight crew employees, calculation of leave.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount of leave.</I> (1) An eligible airline flight crew employee is entitled to 72 days of FMLA leave during any 12-month period for one, or more, of the FMLA-qualifying reasons set forth in §§ 825.112(a)(1)-(5). This entitlement is based on a uniform six-day workweek for all airline flight crew employees, regardless of time actually worked or paid, multiplied by the statutory 12-workweek entitlement for FMLA leave. For example, if an employee took six weeks of leave for an FMLA-qualifying reason, the employee would use 36 days (6 days × 6 weeks) of the employee's 72-day entitlement.
</P>
<P>(2) An eligible airline flight crew employee is entitled to 156 days of military caregiver leave during a single 12-month period to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness under § 825.112(a)(6). This entitlement is based on a uniform six-day workweek for all airline flight crew employees, regardless of time actually worked or paid, multiplied by the statutory 26-workweek entitlement for military caregiver leave.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Increments of FMLA leave for intermittent or reduced schedule leave.</I> When an airline flight crew employee takes FMLA leave on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis, the employer must account for the leave using an increment no greater than one day. For example, if an airline flight crew employee needs to take FMLA leave for a two-hour physical therapy appointment, the employer may require the employee to use a full day of FMLA leave. The entire amount of leave actually taken (in this example, one day) is designated as FMLA leave and counts against the employee's FMLA entitlement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of § 825.205.</I> The rules governing calculation of intermittent or reduced schedule FMLA leave set forth in § 825.205 do not apply to airline flight crew employees except that airline flight crew employees are subject to § 825.205(a)(2), the physical impossibility provision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 825.803" NODE="29:3.1.1.3.56.8.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 825.803   Special rules for airline flight crew employees, recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers of eligible airline flight crew employees shall make, keep, and preserve records in accordance with the requirements of Subpart E of this Part (§ 825.500).
</P>
<P>(b) Covered employers of airline flight crew employees are required to maintain certain additional records “on file with the Secretary.” To comply with this requirement, those employers shall maintain:
</P>
<P>(1) Records and documents containing information specifying the applicable monthly guarantee with respect to each category of employee to whom such guarantee applies, including copies of any relevant collective bargaining agreements or employer policy documents; and
</P>
<P>(2) Records of hours worked and hours paid, as those terms are defined in § 825.801(b)(2).




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="29:3.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—GARNISHMENT OF EARNINGS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="870" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 870—RESTRICTION ON GARNISHMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 303, 305, 306, 82 Stat. 163, 164; 15 U.S.C. 1673, 1675, 1676, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 8226, May 26, 1970, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.1" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.1.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the procedures and any policies, determinations, and interpretations of general application whereby the Secretary of Labor carries out his duties under section 303 of the CCPA dealing with restrictions on garnishment of earnings, and section 305 permitting exemptions for State-regulated garnishments in certain situations. While the Secretary's duties under section 303 include insuring that certain amounts of earnings are protected, such duties do not include establishing priorities among multiple garnishments, as such priorities are determined by other Federal statutes or by State law.
</P>
<P>(b) Functions of the Secretary under the CCPA to be performed as provided in this part are assigned to the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division (hereinafter referred to as the Administrator), who, under the general direction and control of the Assistant Secretary, Wage and Labor Standards Administration, shall be empowered to take final and binding actions in administering the provisions of this part. The Administrator is empowered to subdelegate any of his duties under this part. Any legal advice and assistance required for administration of this part shall be provided by the Solicitor of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 8226, May 26, 1970, as amended at 44 FR 30684, May 29, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.2" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.1.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.2   Amendments to this part.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may, at any time upon his own motion or upon written request of any interested person setting forth reasonable grounds therefor, amend any rules in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Determinations and Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.10" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.2.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.10   Maximum part of aggregate disposable earnings subject to garnishment under section 303(a).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory provision.</I> Section 303 (a) of the CCPA provides that, with some exceptions,
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>the maximum part of the aggregate disposable earnings of an individual for any workweek which is subjected to garnishment may not exceed
</FP>
<P>(1) 25 per centum of his disposable earnings for that week, or
</P>
<P>(2) the amount by which his disposable earnings for that week exceed thirty times the Federal minimum hourly wage prescribed by section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, in effect at the time the earnings are payable.
</P>
<FP>whichever is less. In the case of earnings for any pay period other than a week, the Secretary of Labor shall by regulation prescribe a multiple of the Federal minimum hourly wage equivalent in effect to that set forth in paragraph (2).</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Weekly pay period.</I> The statutory exemption formula applies directly to the aggregate disposable earnings paid or payable for a pay period of 1 workweek, or a lesser period. Its intent is to protect from garnishment and save to an individual earner the specified amount of compensation for his personal services rendered in the workweek, or a lesser period. Thus:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of an individual's disposable earnings for a workweek or lesser period which may not be garnished is 30 times the Fair Labor Standards Act minimum wage. If an individual's disposable earnings for such a period are equal to or less than 30 times the minimum wage, the individual's earnings may not be garnished in any amount. (When the minimum wage increases, the proportionate amount of earnings which may not be garnished also increases.) On April 1, 1991, the minimum wage increased to $4.25. Accordingly, the amount of disposable weekly earnings which may not be garnished is $127.50 effective April 1, 1991. (For the period April 1, 1990 through March 31, 1991, the amount that may not be garnished is $114 (30 × $3.80).)
</P>
<P>(2) For earnings payable on or after April 1, 1991, if an individual's disposable earnings for a workweek or lesser period are more than $127.50, but less than $170.00, only the amount above $127.50 is subject to garnishment. (For earnings payable during the period April 1, 1990, through March 31, 1991, when the Fair Labor Standards Act minimum wage was $3.80, this range computes to more than $114.00, but less than $152.00.)
</P>
<P>(3) For earnings payable on or after April 1, 1991, if an individual's disposable earnings for a workweek or lesser period are $170.00 or more, 25 percent of his/her disposable earnings is subject to garnishment. (The weekly figure was $152.00 (40 × $3.80) for the period April 1, 1990 through March 31, 1991.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pay for a period longer than 1 week.</I> In the case of disposable earnings which compensate for personal services rendered in a pay period longer than 1 workweek, the weekly statutory exemption formula must be transformed to a formula applicable to such earnings providing equivalent restrictions on wage garnishment.
</P>
<P>(1) The 25 percent part of the formula would apply to the aggregate disposable earnings for all the workweeks or fractions thereof compensated by the pay for such pay period.
</P>
<P>(2) The following formula should be used to calculate the dollar amount of disposable earnings which would not be subject to garnishment: The number of workweeks, or fractions thereof, should be multiplied times the applicable Federal minimum wage and that amount should be multiplied by 30. For example, for the period April 1, 1990 through March 31, 1991 when the Federal minimum wage was $3.80 per hour, the formula should be calculated based on a minimum wage of $3.80 ($3.80 multiplied by 30 equals $114; $114 multiplied by the number of workweeks (or fractions thereof) equals the amount that cannot be garnished). As of April 1, 1991, the $4.25 Federal minimum wage replaces $3.80 in the formula (and the amount which cannot be garnished would then be $127.50 multiplied by the number of workweeks (or fractions thereof)). For purposes of this formula, a calendar month is considered to consist of 4
<FR>1/3</FR> workweeks. Thus, during the period April 1, 1990 through March 31, 1991 when the Federal minimum hourly wage was $3.80 an hour, the amount of disposable earnings for a 2-week period is $228.00 (2 × 30 × $3.80); for a monthly period, $494.00 (4
<FR>1/3</FR> × 30 × $3.80). Effective April 1, 1991, such amounts increased as follows: for a two-week period, $255.00 (2 × 30 × $4.25); for a monthly period, $552.50 (4
<FR>1/3</FR> × 30 × $4.25). The amount of disposable earnings for any other pay period longer than 1 week shall be computed in a manner consistent with section 303(a) of the act and with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(3) Absent any changes to the rate set forth in section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, disposable earnings for individuals paid weekly, biweekly, semimonthly, and monthly may not be garnished unless they are in excess of the following amounts:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weekly amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Biweekly amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Semi-monthly amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monthly rate
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jan. 1, 1981</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$3.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$100.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$201.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$217.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$435.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr. 1, 1990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">114.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">228.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">247.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">494.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr. 1, 1991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">255.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">276.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">552.50</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Absent any changes to the rate set forth in section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, if the disposable earnings are less than the following figures, only the difference between the appropriate figures set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section and the individual's disposable earnings may be garnished.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weekly amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Biweekly amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Semi-monthly amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monthly rate
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jan. 1, 1981</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$3.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$134.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$268.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$290.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$580.67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr. 1, 1990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">152.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">304.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">329.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">658.67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr. 1, 1991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">340.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">368.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">736.67</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>For example, in April of 1990, if an individual's disposable earnings for a biweekly pay period are $274.00, the difference between $228.00 and $274.00 (<I>i.e.</I>, $46.00) may be garnished.
</P>
<P>(5) If disposable earnings are in excess of the figures stated in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, 25% of the disposable earnings may be garnished.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Date wages paid or payable controlling.</I> The date that disposable earnings are paid or payable, and not the date the Court issues the garnishment order, is controlling in determining the amount of disposable earnings that may be garnished. Thus, a garnishment order in November 1990, providing for withholding from wages over a period of time, based on exemptions computed at the $3.80 per hour minimum wage then in effect, would be modified by operation of the change in the law so that wages paid after April 1, 1991, are subject to garnishment to the extent described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section on the basis of a minimum rate of $4.25 per hour. This principle is applicable at the time of the enactment of any further increase in the minimum wage.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 2, Pub. L. 93-259, 84 Stat 55) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 8226, May 26, 1970, as amended at 40 FR 52610, Nov. 11, 1975; 43 FR 28471, June 30, 1978; 43 FR 30276, July 14, 1978; 44 FR 30685, May 29, 1979; 56 FR 32254, July 15, 1991; 56 FR 40660, Aug. 15, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.11" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.2.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.11   Exceptions to the restrictions provided by section 303(a) of the CCPA and priorities among garnishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Section 303(b) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act provides that the restrictions in section 303(a) do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any debt due for any State or Federal tax, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any order of any court of bankruptcy under Chapter XIII of the Bankruptcy Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Accordingly the Consumer Credit Protection Act does not restrict in any way the amount which may be withheld for State or Federal taxes or in Chapter XIII Bankruptcy Act proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Section 303(b) provides the following restrictions on the amount that may be withheld for the support of any person (e.g. alimony or child support):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(A) Where such individual is supporting his spouse or dependent child (other than a spouse or child with respect to whose support such order is issued), 50 per centum of such individual's disposable earnings for that week; and
</P>
<P>(B) Where such individual is not supporting such a spouse or dependent child described in clause (A), 60 per centum of such individual's disposable earnings for that week; except that, with respect to the disposable earnings of any individual for any workweek, the 50 per centum specified in clause (A) shall be deemed to be 55 per centum and the 60 per centum specified in clause (B) shall be deemed to be 65 per centum, if and to the extent that such earnings are subject to garnishment to enforce a support order with respect to a period which is prior to the twelve week period which ends with the beginning of such workweek.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Compliance with the provisions of section 303(a) and (b) may offer problems when there is more than one garnishment. In that event the priority is determined by State law or other Federal laws as the CCPA contains no provisions controlling the priorities of garnishments. However, in no event may the amount of any individual's disposable earnings which may be garnished exceed the percentages specified in section 303. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>(i) If 45% of an individual's disposable earnings were garnished for taxes, and this garnishment has priority, the Consumer Credit Protection Act permits garnishment for the support of any person of only the difference between 45% and the applicable percentage (50 to 65%) in the above quoted section 303(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) If 70% of an individual's disposable earnings were garnished for taxes and/or a Title XIII Bankruptcy debt, and these garnishments have priority, the Consumer Credit Protection Act does not permit garnishment either for the support of any person or for other debts.
</P>
<P>(iii) If 25% of an individual's disposable earnings were withheld pursuant to an ordinary garnishment which is subject to the restrictions of section 303(a), and the garnishment has priority in accordance with State law, the Consumer Credit Protection Act permits the additional garnishment for the support of any person of only the difference between 25% and the applicable percentage (50-65%) in the above quoted section 303(b).
</P>
<P>(iv) If 25% or more of an individual's disposable earnings were withheld pursuant to a garnishment for support, and the support garnishment has priority in accordance with State law, the Consumer Credit Protection Act does not permit the withholding of any additional amounts pursuant to an ordinary garnishment which is subject to the restrictions of section 303(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 30685, May 29, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Exemption for State-Regulated Garnishments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.50" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3.489.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.50   General provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 305 of the CCPA authorizes that Secretary to “exempt from the provisions of section 303(a) garnishments issued under the laws of any State if he determines that the laws of that State provide restrictions on garnishment which are substantially similar to those provided in section 303(a).”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.51" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3.489.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.51   Exemption policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of the Secretary of Labor to permit exemption from section 303(a) of the CCPA garnishments issued under the laws of a State if those laws considered together cover every case of garnishment covered by the Act, and if those laws provide the same or greater protection to individuals. Differences in text between the restrictions of State laws and those in section 303(a) of the Act are not material so long as the State laws provide the same or greater restrictions on the garnishment of individuals' earnings.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether State-regulated garnishments should be exempted from section 303(a) of the CCPA, or whether such an exemption should be terminated, the laws of the State shall be examined with particular regard to the classes of persons and of transactions to which they may apply; the formulas provided for determining the maximum part of an individual's earnings which may be subject to garnishment; restrictions on the application of the formulas; and with regard to procedural burdens placed on the individual whose earnings are subject to garnishment.
</P>
<P>(c) Particular attention is directed to the fact that subsection (a) of section 303, when considered with subsection (c) of that section, is read as not requiring the raising of the subsection (a) restrictions as affirmative defenses in garnishment proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.52" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3.489.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.52   Application for exemption of State-regulated garnishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for the exemption of garnishments issued under the laws of a State may be made in duplicate by a duly authorized representative of the State. The application shall be filed with the Administrator of the Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) Any application for exemption must be accompanied by two copies of all the provisions of the State laws relating to the garnishment of earnings, certified to be true and complete copies by the Attorney General of the State. In addition, the application must be accompanied by a statement, in duplicate, signed by the Attorney General of the State, showing how the laws of the State satisfy the policy expressed in § 870.51(a) and setting forth any other matters which the Attorney General may wish to state concerning the application.
</P>
<P>(c) Notice of the filing of an application for exemption shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Copies of the application shall be available for public inspection and copying during business hours at the national office of the Wage and Hour Division and in the regional office of the Wage and Hour Divison in which the particular State is located. Interested persons shall be afforded an opportunity to submit written comments concerning the application of the State within a period of time to be specified in the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 8226, May 26, 1970, as amended at 35 FR 14315, Sept. 11, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.53" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3.489.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.53   Action upon an application for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall grant or deny within a reasonable time any application for the exemption of State-regulated garnishments. The State representative shall be notified in writing of the decision. In the event of denial, a statement of the grounds for the denial shall be made. To the extent feasible and appropriate, the Administrator may afford to the State representative and to any other interested persons an opportunity to submit orally or in writing data, views, and arguments on the issue of whether or not an exemption should be granted and on any subsidiary issues.
</P>
<P>(b) If an application is denied, the State representative shall have an opportunity to request reconsideration by the Administrator. The request shall be made in writing. The Administrator shall permit argument whenever the opportunity to do so has not been afforded under paragraph (a) of this section, and may permit argument in any other case.
</P>
<P>(c) General notice of every exemption of State-regulated garnishments and of its terms and conditions shall be given by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.54" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3.489.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.54   Standards governing the granting of an application for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may grant any application for the exemption of State-regulated garnishments whenever he finds that the laws of the State satisfy the policy expressed in § 870.51(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.55" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3.489.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.55   Terms and conditions of every exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It shall be a condition of every exemption of State-regulated garnishments that the State representative have the powers and duties
</P>
<P>(1) To represent, and act on behalf of, the State in relation to the Administrator and his representatives, with regard to any matter relating to, or arising out of, the application, interpretation, and enforcement of State laws regulating garnishment of earnings;
</P>
<P>(2) To submit to the Administrator in duplicate and on a current basis, a certified copy of every enactment by the State legislature affecting any of those laws, and a certified copy of any decision in any case involving any of those laws, made by the highest court of the State which has jurisdiction to decide or review cases of its kind, if properly presented to the court; and
</P>
<P>(3) To submit to the Administrator any information relating to the enforcement of those laws, which the Administrator may request.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator may make any exemption subject to additional terms and conditions which he may find appropriate to carry out the purposes of section 303(a) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.56" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3.489.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.56   Termination of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After notice and opportunity to be heard, the Administrator shall terminate any exemption of State-regulated garnishments when he finds that the laws of the State no longer satisfy the purpose of section 303(a) of the Act or the policy expressed in § 870.51(a). Also, after notice and opportunity to be heard, the Administrator may terminate any exemption if he finds that any of its terms or conditions have been violated.
</P>
<P>(b) General notice of the termination of every exemption of State-regulated garnishments shall be given by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 870.57" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.57.3.489.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 870.57   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to section 305 of the CCPA (82 Stat. 164) and in accordance with the provisions of this part, it has been determined that the laws of the following States provide restrictions on garnishment which are substantially similar to those provided in section 303(a) of the CCPA (82 Stat. 163); and that, therefore, garnishments issued under those laws should be, and they hereby are, exempted from the provisions of section 303(a) subject to the terms and conditions of §§ 870.55(a) and 870.56:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>State of Virginia.</I> Effective June 30, 1978, garnishments issued under the laws of the State of Virginia are exempt from the provisions of sections 303(a) and 303(b) of the CCPA under the following additional conditions: (1) Whenever garnishments are ordered in the State of Virginia which are not deemed to be governed by section 34-29 of the Code of Virginia, as amended, and the laws of another State are applied, sections 303(a) and 303(b) of the CCPA shall apply to such garnishments according to the provisions thereof; and (2) whenever the earnings of any individual subject to garnishment are withheld and a suspending or supersedeas bond is undertaken in the course of an appeal from a lower court decision, sections 303(a) and 303(b) of the CCPA shall apply to the withholding of such earnings under this procedure according to the provisions thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 18527, Dec. 5, 1970, as amended at 43 FR 28472, June 30, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="871-899" NODE="29:3.1.1.4.58" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 871-899 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 16, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="4" NODE="29:4" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 4</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ix—</E>Construction Industry Collective Bargaining Commission
</SUBJECT>
<PG>901
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter x—</E>National Mediation Board
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1200
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xii—</E>Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1400
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xiv—</E>Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1600


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="29:4.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="IX" NODE="29:4.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER IX—CONSTRUCTION INDUSTRY COLLECTIVE BARGAINING COMMISSION</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="900" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 900 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="901" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 901—POLICY STATEMENT ON COLLECTIVE BARGAINING DISPUTES AND APPLICABLE PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 11482; 3 CFR, 1969 Comp., p. 139.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 4752, Mar. 19, 1970, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 901.1" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 901.1   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>The Construction Industry Collective Bargaining Commission hereby states its policy and sets forth procedures for handling disputes involving the standard labor and management organizations in the building and construction industry. These procedures are pursuant to the authority set forth in Executive Order 11482, dated September 22, 1969. Section 6 of the order states that, “The Commission is authorized to issue such rules and regulations, and to adopt such procedures governing its affairs, including the conduct of its disputes settlement functions, as shall be necessary and appropriate to effectuate the objectives of this order.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 901.2" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 901.2   Policy of Commission.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3(c) of the Executive order provides that it is an objective of the Commission “to establish more effective machinery for the resolution of disputes over the terms of collective bargaining agreements which at the same time recognizes the interests of each branch of the industry and preserves existing procedures that have been effective.” Accordingly, it is the policy of the Commission:
</P>
<P>(a) To encourage each branch of the industry without such a procedure to establish its own procedures to facilitate the settlement of disputes over the terms and application of collective bargaining agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) To encourage each branch of the industry having such a procedure, but which procedure is limited in application, to expand the application of such procedure.
</P>
<P>(c) To encourage parties in each branch of construction with a procedure to utilize that machinery in all possible cases.
</P>
<P>(d) To encourage the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service to refer disputes wherever possible to such machinery established in various branches of the industry.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 901.3" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 901.3   Participation by Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will consider participation in specific disputes which conform with the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The disputes will have a significant impact on construction activity in the area involved. 
</P>
<P>(2) The dispute concerns negotiations for a new or expiring agreement, or a question of interpretation or application of an existing agreement, where all other internal methods of resolution have been exhausted.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will normally refrain from participating in specific disputes where;
</P>
<P>(1) The dispute involved concerns jurisdiction of work.
</P>
<P>(2) The parties have failed to utilize an independent disputes handling procedure presently in existence or subsequently established. (A number of such procedures exists currently in several branches of the industry.)
</P>
<P>(3) The parties have not fully utilized the service of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service.
</P>
<P>(c) In setting forth a disputes procedure the Commission emphasizes that it is not intended to provide a substitute for the collective bargaining process. Nor is it a means to bypass or neglect existing mediation facilities or industry branch dispute settling procedures. The standard procedure for the Commission to accept cognizance over a collective bargaining dispute is through referral to the Commission by the Director of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service. The Commission will exercise its judgment in accepting or declining specific disputes. The staff of the Commission is directed to maintain close contact with the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service on all aspects of bargaining in the construction industry and to see that critical disputes are brought to the attention of the appropriate International Union and the national offices of an appropriate contractor association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 901.4" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 901.4   Handling of disputes by Commission.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will determine the particular method of dispute handling appropriate for each dispute. Section 5(a) of the Executive order states, 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The Commission or a panel designated by the Commission may, with the assistance of national labor organizations and national contractor associations where appropriate, seek to mediate such dispute, or make an investigation of the facts of the dispute and make such recommendations to the parties for the resolution thereof as it determines appropriate.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 901.5" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 901.5   Agreement to refrain from strike or lockout.</HEAD>
<P>As part of its conditions for entering the dispute, the Commission may request the parties to continue the terms or conditions of employment without the occurrence of a strike or lockout for a 30-day period, as set forth in section 5(a) of the Executive Order, to enhance the functions of mediation and other related activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 901.6" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 901.6   Authority of Executive Director.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission delegates authority to the Executive Director to accept or reject requests for Commission involvement in those instances where a Commission meeting would not occur in sufficient time prior to a contract expiration date to permit such involvement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 901.7" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 901.7   Inquiries and correspondence with Commission.</HEAD>
<P>Inquiries to the Commission about the status of disputes or other matters should be directed as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Executive Director, Construction Industry Collective Bargaining Commission, room 5220, Department of Labor Building, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210. Telephone: (202) 961-3736.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="902-999" NODE="29:4.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 902-999 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="X" NODE="29:4.1.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER X—NATIONAL MEDIATION BOARD</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1200" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1200 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1201" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1201—DEFINITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 Stat. 577, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 151-163. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>11 FR 177A-922, Sept. 11, 1946, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1201.1" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1201.1   Carrier.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>carrier</I> includes any express company, sleeping car company, carrier by railroad, subject to the Interstate Commerce Act (24 Stat. 379, as amended; 49 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), and any company which is directly or indirectly owned or controlled by or under common control with any carrier by railroad and which operates any equipment or facilities or performs any service (other than trucking service) in connection with the transportation, receipt, delivery, elevation, transfer in transit, refrigeration or icing, storage, and handling of property transported by railroad, and any receiver, trustee, or other individual or body, judicial or otherwise, when in the possession of the business of any such “carrier.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1201.2" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1201.2   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “carrier” shall not include any street, interurban, or suburban electric railway, unless such railway is operating as a part of a general steam-railroad system of transportation, but shall not exclude any part of the general steam-railroad system of transportation now or hereafter operated by any other motive power. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term “carrier” shall not include any company by reason of its being engaged in the mining of coal, the supplying of coal to carrier where delivery is not beyond the tipple, and the operation of equipment or facilities therefor or any of such activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1201.3" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1201.3   Determination as to electric lines.</HEAD>
<P>The Interstate Commerce Commission is hereby authorized and directed upon request of the Mediation Board or upon complaint of any part interested to determine after hearing whether any line operated by electric power falls within the terms of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1201.4" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1201.4   Employee.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>employee</I> as used in this part includes every person in the service of a carrier (subject to its continuing authority to supervise and direct the manner of rendition of his service) who performs any work defined as that of an employee or subordinate official in the orders of the Interstate Commerce Commission now in effect, and as the same may be amended or interpreted by orders hereafter entered by the Commission pursuant to the authority which is hereby conferred upon it to enter orders amending or interpreting such existing orders: <I>Provided, however,</I> That no occupational classification made by order of the Interstate Commerce Commission shall be construed to define the crafts according to which railway employees may be organized by their voluntary action, nor shall the jurisdiction or powers of such employee organizations be regarded as in any way limited or defined by the provisions of this Act or by the orders of the Commission. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1201.5" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1201.5   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>The term “employee” shall not include any individual while such individual is engaged in the physical operations consisting of the mining of coal, the preparation of coal, the handling (other than movement by rail with standard locomotives) of coal not beyond the mine tipple, or the loading of coal at the tipple. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1201.6" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1201.6   Representatives.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>representative</I> means any person or persons, labor union, organization, or corporation designated either by a carrier or group of carriers or by its or their employees, to act for it or them. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1202" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1202—RULES OF PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 Stat. 577, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 151-163.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>11 FR 177A-922, Sept. 11, 1946, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1202.1" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.1   Mediation.</HEAD>
<P>The mediation services of the Board may be invoked by the parties, or either party, to a dispute between an employee or group of employees and a carrier concerning changes in rates of pay, rules, or working conditions not adjusted by the parties in conference; also, concerning a dispute not referable to the National Railroad Adjustment Board or appropriate airline adjustment board, when not adjusted in conference between the parties, or where conferences are refused. The National Mediation Board may proffer its services in case any labor emergency is found by it to exist at any time. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.2" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.2   Interpretation of mediation agreements.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 5, Second, of title I of the Railway Labor Act, in any case in which a controversy arises over the meaning or application of any agreement reached through mediation, either party to said agreement, or both, may apply to the National Mediation Board for an interpretation of the meaning or application of such agreement. Upon receipt of such request, the Board shall, after a hearing of both sides, give its interpretation within 30 days. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.3" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.3   Representation disputes.</HEAD>
<P>If any dispute shall arise among a carrier's employees as to who are the representatives of such employees designated and authorized in accordance with the requirements of the Railway Labor Act, it is the duty of the Board, upon request of either party to the dispute, to investigate such dispute and certify to both parties, in writing, the name or names of individuals or organizations that have been designated and authorized to represent the employees involved in the dispute, and to certify the same to the carrier. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.4" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.4   Secret ballot.</HEAD>
<P>In conducting such investigation, the Board is authorized to take a secret ballot of the employees involved, or to utilize any other appropriate method of ascertaining the names of their duly designated and authorized representatives in such manner as shall insure the choice of representatives by the employees without interference, influence, or coercion exercised by the carrier. Except in unusual or extraordinary circumstances, in a secret ballot the Board shall determine the choice of representative based on the majority of valid ballots cast. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 26088, June 10, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.5" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.5   Rules to govern elections.</HEAD>
<P>In the conduct of a representation election, the Board shall designate who may participate in the election, which may include a public hearing on craft or class, and establish the rules to govern the election, or may appoint a committee of three neutral persons who after hearing shall within 10 days designate the employees who may participate in the election. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.6" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.6   Access to carrier records.</HEAD>
<P>Under the Railway Labor Act the Board has access to and has power to make copies of the books and records of the carriers to obtain and utilize such information as may be necessary to fulfill its duties with respect to representatives of carrier employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.7" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.7   Who may participate in elections.</HEAD>
<P>As mentioned in § 1202.3, when disputes arise between parties to a representation dispute, the National Mediation Board is authorized by the Act to determine who may participate in the selection of employees representatives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.8" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.8   Hearings on craft or class.</HEAD>
<P>In the event the contesting parties or organizations are unable to agree on the employees eligible to participate in the selection of representatives, and either party makes application by letter for a formal hearing before the Board to determine the dispute, the Board may in its discretion hold a public hearing, at which all parties interested may present their contentions and argument, and at which the carrier concerned is usually invited to present factual information. At the conclusion of such hearings the Board customarily invites all interested parties to submit briefs supporting their views, and after considering the evidence and briefs, the Board makes a determination or finding, specifying the craft or class of employees eligible to participate in the designation of representatives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.9" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.9   Appointment of arbitrators.</HEAD>
<P>Section 5, Third, (a) of the Railway Labor Act provides in the event mediation of a dispute is unsuccessful, the Board endeavors to induce the parties to submit their controversy to arbitration. If the parties so agree, and the arbitrators named by the parties are unable to agree upon the neutral arbitrator or arbitrators, as provided in section 7 of the Railway Labor Act, it becomes the duty of the Board to name such neutral arbitrators and fix the compensation for such service. In performing this duty, the Board is required to appoint only those whom it deems wholly disinterested in the controversy, and to be impartial and without bias as between the parties thereto. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.10" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.10   Appointment of referees.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3, Third, (e) title I of the act makes it the duty of the National Mediation Board to appoint and fix the compensation for service a neutral person known as a “referee” in any case where a division of the National Railroad Adjustment Board becomes deadlocked on an award, such referee to sit with the division and make an award. The National Mediation Board in appointing referees is bound by the same requirements that apply in the appointment of neutral arbitrators as outlined in § 1202.9 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.11" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.11   Emergency boards.</HEAD>
<P>Under the terms of section 10 of the Railway Labor Act, if a dispute between a carrier and its employees is not adjusted through mediation or the other procedures prescribed by the act, and should, in the judgment of the National Mediation Board, threaten to interrupt interstate commerce to a degree such as to deprive any section of the country of essential transportation service, the Board shall notify the President, who may thereupon, in his discretion, create an emergency board to investigate and report to him respecting such dispute. An emergency board may be composed of such number of persons as the President designates, and persons so designated shall not be pecuniarily or otherwise interested in any organization of employees or any carrier. The compensation of emergency board members is fixed by the President. An emergency board is created separately in each instance, and is required to investigate the facts as to the dispute and report thereon to the President within 30 days from the date of its creation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.12" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.12   National Air Transport Adjustment Board.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 205, title II, of the Railway Labor Act, when in the judgment of the National Mediation Board it becomes necessary to establish a permanent national board of adjustment for the air carriers subject to the act to provide for the prompt and orderly settlement of disputes between the employees and the carriers growing out of grievances, or out of the application or interpretation of working agreements, the Board is empowered by its order made, published, and served, to direct the air carriers and labor organizations, national in scope, to select and designate four representatives to constitute a Board known as the National Air Transport Adjustment Board. Two members each shall be selected by the air carriers and the labor organizations of their employees. Up to the present time, it has not been considered necessary to establish the National Air Transport Adjustment Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.13" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.13   Air carriers.</HEAD>
<P>By the terms of title II of the Railway Labor Act, which was approved April 10, 1936, all of title I, except section 3, which relates to the National Railroad Adjustment Board, was extended to cover every common carrier by air engaged in interstate or foreign commerce, and every carrier by air transporting mail for or under contract with the United States Government, and to all employees or subordinate officials of such air carriers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.14" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.14   Labor members of Adjustment Board.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3, First, (f) of title I of the Railway Labor Act relating to the settlement of disputes among labor organizations as to the qualification of any such organization to participate in the selection of labor members of the Adjustment Board, places certain duties upon the National Mediation Board. This section of the act is quoted below:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(f) In the event a dispute arises as to the right of any national labor organization to participate as per paragraph (c) of this section in the selection and designation of the labor members of the Adjustment Board, the Secretary of Labor shall investigate the claim of such labor organization to participate, and if such claim in the judgment of the Secretary of Labor has merit, the secretary shall notify the Mediation Board accordingly, and within 10 days after receipt of such advice the Mediation Board shall request those national labor organizations duly qualified as per paragraph (c) of this section to participate in the selection and designation of the labor members of the Adjustment Board to select a representative. Such representatives, together with a representative likewise designated by the claimant, and a third or neutral party designated by the Mediation Board, constituting a board of three, shall within 30 days after the appointment of the neutral member investigate the claims of the labor organization desiring participation and decide whether or not it was organized in accordance with section 2, hereof, and is otherwise properly qualified to participate in the selection of the labor members of the Adjustment Board, and the findings of such boards of three shall be final and binding.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.15" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.3.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.15   Length of briefs in NMB hearing proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event briefs are authorized by the Board or the assigned Hearing Officer, principal briefs shall not exceed fifty (50) pages in length and reply briefs, if permitted, shall not exceed twenty-five (25) pages in length unless the participant desiring to submit a brief in excess of such limitation requests a waiver of such limitation from the Board which is received within five (5) days of the date on which the briefs were ordered or, in the case of a reply brief, within five (5) days of receipt of the principal brief, and in such cases the Board may require the filing of a summary of argument, suitably paragraphed which shoud be a succinct, but accurate and clear, condensation of the argument actually made in the brief. 
</P>
<P>(b) The page limitations provided by this section (§ 1202.15) are exclusive of those pages containing the table of contents, tables of citations and any copies of administrative or court decisions which have been cited in the brief. All briefs shall be submitted on standard 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper with double spaced type. 
</P>
<P>(c) Briefs not complying with this section (§ 1202.15) will be returned promptly to their initiators.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 10601, Feb. 22, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1203" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1203—APPLICATIONS FOR SERVICE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 Stat. 577, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 151-163.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1203.1" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.1   Mediation services.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for the mediation services of the National Mediation Board under section 5, First, of the Railway Labor Act, may be made on printed forms N.M.B. 2, copies of which may be secured from the Board's Chief of Staff's Office or on the Internet at <I>www.nmb.gov.</I> Such applications and all correspondence connected therewith should be submitted in duplicate. The application should show the exact nature of the dispute, the number of employees involved, name of the carrier and name of the labor organization, date of agreement between the parties, if any, date and copy of notice served by the invoking party to the other and date of final conference between the parties. Application should be signed by the highest officer of the carrier who has been designated to handle disputes under the Railway Labor Act, or by the chief executive of the labor organization, whichever party files the application. These applications, after preliminary investigation in the Board's offices, are given docket number in series “A” and the cases are assigned for mediation to Board members or to mediators on the Board's staff.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[11 FR 177A-923, Sept. 11, 1946. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948, as amended at 64 FR 40287, July 26, 1999] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.2" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.2   Investigation of representation disputes.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for the services of the National Mediation Board under section 2, Ninth, of the Railway Labor Act to investigate representation disputes among carriers' employees may be made on printed forms NMB-3, copies of which may be secured from the Board's Representation and Legal Department or on the internet at <I>www.nmb.gov.</I> Such applications and all correspondence connected therewith should be filed in duplicate and the applications should be accompanied by signed authorization cards from the employees composing the craft or class involved in the dispute. The applications should show specifically the name or description of the craft or class of employees involved, the name of the invoking organization or employee seeking certification, or the name of the employee seeking decertification, the name of the organization currently representing the employees, if any, and the estimated number of employees in each craft or class involved. The applications should be signed by the chief executive of the invoking organization, some other authorized officer of the organization, or by the invoking employee. These disputes are given docket numbers in the series “R”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35989, July 26, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.3" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.3   Interpretation of mediation agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications may be filed with the Board's Chief of Staff under section 5, Second, of the Railway Labor Act, for the interpretation of agreements reached in mediation under section 5, First. Such applications may be made by letter from either party to the mediation agreement stating the specific question on which an interpretation is desired. 
</P>
<P>(b) This function of the National Mediation Board is not intended to conflict with the provisions of section 3 of the Railway Labor Act. Providing for interpretation of agreements by the National Railroad Adjustment Board. Many complete working agreements are revised with the aid of the Board's mediating services, and it has been the Board's policy that disputes involving the interpretation or application of such agreements should be handled by the Adjustment Board. Under this section of the law the Board when called upon may only consider and render an interpretation on the specific terms of an agreement actually signed in mediation, and not for matters incident or corollary thereto. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[11 FR 177A-923, Sept. 11, 1946. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948, as amended at 64 FR 40287, July 26, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1204" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1204—LABOR CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 Stat. 577, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 151-163. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>11 FR 177A-924, Sept. 11, 1946, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1204.1" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.1   Making and maintaining contracts.</HEAD>
<P>It is the duty of all carriers, their officers, agents, and employees to exert every reasonable effort to make and maintain contracts covering rates of pay, rules, and working conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.2" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.2   Arbitrary changing of contracts.</HEAD>
<P>No carrier, its officers, or agents shall change the rates of pay, rules, or working conditions of its employees, as a class as embodied in agreements except in the manner prescribed in such agreements or in section 6 of the Railway Labor Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.3" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.3   Filing of contracts.</HEAD>
<P>Section 5, Third, (e) of the Railway Labor Act requires all carriers to file with the National Mediation Board copies of all contracts in effect with organizations representing their employees, covering rates of pay, rules, and working conditions. Several thousand of such contracts are on file in the Board's Washington office and are available for inspection by interested parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1205" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1205—NOTICES IN RE: RAILWAY LABOR ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 Stat. 577, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 151-163.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>11 FR 177A-924, Sept. 11, 1946, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1205.1" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1205.1   Handling of disputes.</HEAD>
<P>Section 2, Eighth, of the Railway Labor Act provides that every carrier shall notify its employees by printed notices in such form and posted at such times and places as shall be specified by order of the Mediation Board and requires that all disputes between a carrier and its employees will be handled in accordance with the requirements of the act. In such notices there must be printed verbatim, in large type, the third, fourth, and fifth paragraphs of said section 2, Eighth, of the Railway Labor Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1205.2" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1205.2   Employees' Bill of Rights.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the third, fourth, and fifth paragraphs of section 2 are by law made a part of the contract of employment between the carrier and each employee and shall be binding upon the parties regardless of any other express or implied agreements between them. Under these provisions the employees are guaranteed the right to organize without interference of management, the right to determine who shall represent them, and the right to bargain collectively through such representatives. This section makes it unlawful for any carrier to require any person seeking employment to sign any contract promising to join or not to join a labor organization. Violation of the foregoing provisions is a misdemeanor under the law and subjects the offender to punishment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1205.3" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1205.3   General Order No. 1.</HEAD>
<P>General Order No. 1, issued August 14, 1934, is the only order the Board has issued since its creation in 1934. This order sent to the President of each carrier coming under the act transmitted a sample copy of the Mediation Board's Form MB-1 known as “Notice in re: Railway Labor Act.” The order prescribes that such notices are to be standard as to contents, dimensions of sheet, and size of type and that they shall be posted promptly and maintained continuously in readable condition on all the usual and customary bulletin boards giving information to employees and at such other places as may be necessary to make them accessible to all employees. Such notices must not be hidden by other papers or otherwise obscured from view. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1205.4" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.6.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1205.4   Substantive rules.</HEAD>
<P>The only substantive rules issued by the National Mediation Board are those authorized under section 2, Ninth, of the Railway Labor Act to implement the procedure of determining employee representation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 2451, Apr. 16, 1947. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948, as amended at 64 FR 40287, July 26, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1206" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1206—HANDLING REPRESENTATION DISPUTES UNDER THE RAILWAY LABOR ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 Stat. 577, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 151-163.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>12 FR 3083, May 10, 1947, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1206.1" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.1   Run-off elections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In an election among any craft or class where three or more options (including the option for no representation) receive valid votes, if no option receives a majority of the legal votes cast, or in the event of a tie vote, the Board shall authorize a run-off election.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event a run-off election is authorized by the Board, the two options which received the highest number of votes cast in the first election shall be placed on the run-off ballot. No blank line on which voters may write in the name of any organization, individual, or no representation will be provided on the run-off ballot.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees who were eligible to vote at the conclusion of the first election shall be eligible to vote in the run-off election except:
</P>
<P>(1) Those employees whose employment relationship has terminated; and
</P>
<P>(2) Those employees who are no longer employed in the craft or class.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 75549, Dec. 21, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 35989, July 26, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.2" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.2   Percentage of valid authorizations required to determine existence of a representation dispute.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of an application requesting that an organization or individual be certified as the representative of any craft or class of employees, or to decertify the current representative and have no representative, a showing of proved authorizations (checked and verified as to date, signature, and employment status) from at least fifty (50) percent of the craft or class must be made before the National Mediation Board will authorize an election or otherwise determine the representation desires of the employees under the provisions of section 2, Ninth, of the Railway Labor Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Any intervening individual or organization must also produce proved authorizations (checked and verified as to date, signature, and employment status) from at least fifty (50) percent of the craft or class of employees involved to warrant placing the name of the intervenor on the ballot.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 75549, Dec. 21, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 35989, July 26, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.3" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.3   Age of authorization cards.</HEAD>
<P>Authorizations must be signed and dated in the employee's own handwriting or witnessed mark. No authorizations will be accepted by the National Mediation Board in any employee representation dispute which bear a date prior to one year before the date of the application for the investigation of such dispute. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.4" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.4   Time limits on applications.</HEAD>
<P>Except in unusual or extraordinary circumstances, the National Mediation Board will not accept an application for investigation of a representation dispute among employees of a carrier: 
</P>
<P>(a) For a period of two (2) years from the date of a certification or decertification covering the same craft or class of employees on the same carrier, and
</P>
<P>(b) For a period of one (1) year from the date on which: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board dismissed a docketed application after having conducted an election among the same craft or class of employees on the same carrier and less than a majority of valid ballots cast were for representation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board dismissed a docketed application covering the same craft or class of employees on the same carrier because no dispute existed as defined in § 1206.2 of these rules; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The Board dismissed a docketed application after the applicant withdrew an application covering the same craft or class of employees on the same carrier after the application was docketed by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 10602, Feb. 22, 1979, as amended at 75 FR 26088, May 11, 2010; 84 FR 35989, July 26, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.5" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.5   Decertification of representatives.</HEAD>
<P>Employees who no longer wish to be represented may seek to decertify the current representative of a craft or class in a direct election. The employees must follow the procedure outlines in § 1203.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35989, July 26, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.6" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.6   Eligibility of dismissed employees to vote.</HEAD>
<P>Dismissed employees whose requests for reinstatement account of wrongful dismissal are pending before proper authorities, which includes the National Railroad Adjustment Board or other appropriate adjustment board, are eligible to participate in elections among the craft or class of employees in which they are employed at time of dismissal. This does not include dismissed employees whose guilt has been determined, and who are seeking reinstatement on a leniency basis. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 3083, May 10, 1947. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948, and further redesignated at 77 FR 75549, Dec. 21, 2012. And further redesignated at 84 FR 35989, July 26, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.7" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.7   Construction of this part.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and regulations in this part shall be liberally construed to effectuate the purposes and provisions of the act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 3083, May 10, 1947. Redesignated at 13 FR 8740, Dec. 30, 1948, and further redesignated at 77 FR 75549, Dec. 21, 2012. And further redesignated at 84 FR 35989, July 26, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.8" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.7.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.8   Amendment or rescission of rules in this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board may at any time amend or rescind any rule or regulation in this part by following the public rulemaking procedures under the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) and after providing the opportunity for a public hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to any rule or proposed rule to which the third sentence of section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act applies.
</P>
<P>(c) Any interested person may petition the Board, in writing, for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of a rule or regulation in this part. An original and three copies of such petition shall be filed with the Board in Washington, DC, and shall state the rule or regulation proposed to be issued, amended, or repealed, together with a statement of grounds in support of such petition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 75549, Dec. 21, 2012. Redesignated at 84 FR 35989, July 26, 2019]]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1207" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1207—ESTABLISHMENT OF SPECIAL ADJUSTMENT BOARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 Stat. 577, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 151-163.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>31 FR 14644, Nov. 17, 1966, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1207.1" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1207.1   Establishment of special adjustment boards (PL Boards).</HEAD>
<P>Public Law 89-456 (80 Stat. 208) governs procedures to be followed by carriers and representatives of employees in the establishment and functioning of special adjustment boards, hereinafter referred to as PL Boards. Public Law 89-456 requires action by the National Mediation Board in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of party member of PL Board.</I> Public Law 89-456 provides that within thirty (30) days from the date a written request is made by an employee representative upon a carrier, or by a carrier upon an employee representative, for the establishment of a PL Board, an agreement establishing such a Board shall be made. If, however, one party fails to designate a member of the Board, the party making the request may ask the Mediation Board to designate a member on behalf of the other party. Upon receipt of such request, the Mediation Board will notify the party which failed to designate a partisan member for the establishment of a PL Board of the receipt of the request. The Mediation Board will then designate a representative on behalf of the party upon whom the request was made. This representative will be an individual associated in interest with the party he is to represent. The designee, together with the member appointed by the party requesting the establishment of the PL Board, shall constitute the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appointment of a neutral to determine matters concerning the establishment and/or jurisdiction of a PL Board.</I> (1) When the members of a PL Board constituted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, for the purpose of resolving questions concerning the establishment of the Board and/or its jurisdiction, are unable to resolve these matters, then and in that event, either party may ten (10) days thereafter request the Mediation Board to appoint a neutral member to determine these procedural issues. 
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of this request, the Mediation Board will notify the other party to the PL Board. The Mediation Board will then designate a neutral member to sit with the PL Board and resolve the procedural issues in dispute. When the neutral has determined the procedural issues in dispute, he shall cease to be a member of the PL Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appointment of neutral to sit with PL Boards and dispose of disputes.</I> (1) When the members of a PL Board constituted by agreement of the parties, or by the appointment of a party member by the Mediation Board, as described in paragraph (a) of this section, are unable within ten (10) days after their failure to agree upon an award to agree upon the selection of a neutral person, either member of the Board may request the Mediation Board to appoint such neutral person and upon receipt of such request, the Mediation Board shall promptly make such appointment. 
</P>
<P>(2) A request for the appointment of a neutral under paragraph (b) of this section or this paragraph (c) shall; 
</P>
<P>(i) Show the authority for the request—Public Law 89-456, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Define and list the proposed specific issues or disputes to be heard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1207.2" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1207.2   Requests for Mediation Board action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for the National Mediation Board to appoint neutrals or party representatives should be made on NMB Form 5. 
</P>
<P>(b) Those authorized to sign request on behalf on parties: 
</P>
<P>(1) The “representative of any craft or class of employees of a carrier,” as referred to in Public Law 89-456, making request for Mediation Board action, shall be either the General Chairman, Grand Lodge Officer (or corresponding officer of equivalent rank), or the Chief Executive of the representative involved. A request signed by a General Chairman or Grand Lodge Officer (or corresponding officer of equivalent rank) shall bear the approval of the Chief Executive of the employee representative. 
</P>
<P>(2) The “carrier representative” making such a request for the Mediation Board's action shall be the highest carrier officer designated to handle matters arising under the Railway Labor Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Docketing of PL Board agreements: The National Mediation Board will docket agreements establishing PL Board, which agreements meet the requirements of coverage as specified in Public Law 89-456. No neutral will be appointed under § 1207.1(c) until the agreement establishing the PL Board has been docketed by the Mediation Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1207.3" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1207.3   Compensation of neutrals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Neutrals appointed by the National Mediation Board.</I> All neutral persons appointed by the National Mediation Board under the provisions of § 1207.1 (b) and (c) will be compensated by the Mediation Board in accordance with legislative authority. Certificates of appointment will be issued by the Mediation Board in each instance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Neutrals selected by the parties.</I> (1) In cases where the party members of a PL Board created under Public Law 89-456 mutually agree upon a neutral person to be a member of the Board, the party members will jointly so notify the Mediation Board, which Board will then issue a certificate of appointment to the neutral and arrange to compensate him as under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The same procedure will apply in cases where carrier and employee representatives are unable to agree upon the establishment and jurisdiction of a PL Board, and mutually agree upon a procedural neutral person to sit with them as a member and determine such issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1207.4" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1207.4   Designation of PL Boards, filing of agreements, and disposition of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of PL Boards.</I> All special adjustment boards created under Public Law 89-456 will be designated PL Boards, and will be numbered serially, commencing with No. 1, in the order of their docketing by the National Mediation Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of agreements.</I> The original agreement creating the PL Board under Public Law 89-456 shall be filed with the National Mediation Board at the time it is executed by the parties. A copy of such agreement shall be filed by the parties with the Administrative Officer of the National Railroad Adjustment Board, Chicago, Ill. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disposition of records.</I> Since the provisions of section 2(a) of Public Law 89-456 apply also to the awards of PL Boards created under this Act, two copies of all awards made by the PL Boards, together with the record of proceedings upon which such awards are based, shall be forwarded by the neutrals who are members of such Boards, or by the parties in case of disposition of disputes by PL Boards without participation of neutrals, to the Administrative Officer of the National Railroad Adjustment Board, Chicago, Ill., for filing, safekeeping, and handling under the provisions of section 2(q), as may be required.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1208" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1208—AVAILABILITY OF INFORMATION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>44 Stat. 577, as amended; 45 U.S.C. 151-163.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 8895, Feb. 1, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1208.1" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.1   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to set forth the regulations of the NMB regarding the availability and disclosure of information in its possession and to implement the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA). These regulations establish procedures for requesting access to records maintained by the NMB and should be read together with the FOIA, the 1987 Office of Management and Budget Guidelines for FOIA Fees, Executive Order 12,600, and the NMB's other rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Public policy and the successful effectuation of the NMB's mission require that Board members and the employees of the NMB maintain a reputation for impartiality and integrity. Labor and management and other interested parties participating in mediation efforts must have assurance, as must labor organizations, carriers, and individuals involved in questions of representation, that confidential information disclosed to Board members and employees of the NMB will not be divulged, voluntarily or by compulsion.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding this general policy, the Board will under all circumstances endeavor to make public as much information as can be allowed. The Board will withhold information under the FOIA only if it reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by one of the exemptions described in the FOIA or when disclosure is prohibited by law. When full disclosure is not possible, the NMB will consider whether partial disclosure of information is possible and will take necessary steps to segregate and release nonexempt information.
</P>
<P>(d) The NMB will preserve all correspondence pertaining to requests it receives under the FOIA, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized pursuant to Title 44 of the United States Code or the General Records Schedule 14 of the National Archives and Records Administration. The NMB will not dispose of or destroy records while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.2" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.2   Requests for records or information under the Freedom of Information Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests for records.</I> (1) All requests for NMB records shall be filed in writing by emailing <I>FOIA@nmb.gov</I> or mailing the request to the Chief FOIA Officer, National Mediation Board, 1301 K Street NW., Suite 250E, Washington, DC 20005. Additional information about submitting requests is available at <I>www.nmb.gov.</I> Requesters must provide contact information, such as their phone number, email address, and/or mailing address, to assist in communications about the request.
</P>
<P>(2) The request shall reasonably describe the records being sought in a manner which permits identification and location of the records. To the extent possible, requesters should include specific information that may help the NMB identify the requested records, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, subject matter, case or file number, or reference number. Before submitting a request, a requester may contact the NMB's FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records sought or to receive assistance in describing the records.
</P>
<P>(3) The request shall include any request for waiver of fees, clearly outlining the reasons for any such request.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests may specify the preferred form or format (including electronic formats) for the records sought. The NMB will accommodate such requests if the record is readily reproducible in that form or format.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon receipt of a request for the records, the Chief FOIA Officer shall assign the request a FOIA tracking number and record the date and time received, the name and address of the requester, and the nature of the records requested. If the request will take more than 10 working days to process, the Chief FOIA Officer will acknowledge the request in writing, providing the requester with an individualized tracking number and a brief description of records sought.
</P>
<P>(6) All time limitations established pursuant to this section with respect to processing initial requests and appeals shall commence at the time a written request for records is received at the Board's offices in Washington, DC, or via email.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing the request</I>—(1) <I>Time limits.</I> Within 20 working days after a request for records is received, the Chief FOIA Officer shall determine whether to comply with the request and immediately notify the requester, unless an extension is taken under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The NMB may make one request for additional information from the requester or clarify a fee issue with the requester and may toll the 20-day period while awaiting receipt of the additional information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension of time.</I> In unusual circumstances as specified in this paragraph, the Chief FOIA Officer may extend the time for initial determination on requests up to a total of 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays). Extensions shall be made by written notice to the requester within 20 working days of receipt of the request and shall set forth the reason for the extension, provide the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched, and make available the NMB's Public Liaison to assist with any disputes between the requester and the NMB. Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, the Chief FOIA Officer will notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services. As used in this paragraph “unusual circumstances” means, but only to the extent necessary to the proper processing of the request:
</P>
<P>(i) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The need for consultation, according to the procedures set forth in paragraph (b)(4), with another agency having substantial interest in the determination of the request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited processing.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer shall process a request on an expedited basis whenever a requester demonstrates a compelling need. A request for expedited processing may be made at any time.
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of this section, “compelling need” means that a failure to obtain the requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual or, with respect to a request made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Chief FOIA Officer shall make a determination of whether to provide expedited processing, and notice of the determination shall be provided to the person making the request, within 10 days after the date of the request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consultations and referrals.</I> (i) When the NMB receives a request for a record (or a portion thereof) in its possession that originated with another federal agency, the Chief FOIA Officer shall refer the request and record to that agency for direct response to the requester. The Chief FOIA Officer will notify the requester of any referral and provide the requester with the name and FOIA contact information of the agency to which the request was referred.
</P>
<P>(ii) In instances where a record is requested that originated with the NMB and another federal agency has a significant interest in the record (or a portion thereof), the NMB shall consult with that federal agency before responding to a requester.
</P>
<P>(iii) All consultations and referrals received by the NMB will receive a tracking number and be processed according to the date that the first agency received the request.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requests for business information provided to the NMB.</I> Business information is financial or commercial information obtained by the NMB from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(i) When the NMB has reason to believe that requested information may fall under Exemption 4, it will promptly provide written notice to the submitter. The notice will either describe the requested business information or include a copy of the requested records. The NMB shall provide the submitter with seven days (excepting Saturdays, Sunday, and legal public holidays) to provide a statement of any objection to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The NMB will consider the submitter's objections in deciding whether to disclose business information. If the NMB decides to disclose business information over such objection, it shall provide written notice to the submitter of its reasons for not sustaining the objections, a description of information to be disclosed, and the disclosure date.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the NMB provides a submitter with notice and the opportunity to object under paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, it shall also inform the requestor that the request is being processed according to these provisions and there may be a subsequent delay in processing.
</P>
<P>(iv) A submitter of confidential business information must use good faith efforts to designate any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Response to requests.</I> Within 20 days (excepting Saturdays, Sunday, and legal public holidays) after the receipt of a request, the requester shall be notified of the determination and the right to seek assistance from the NMB's FOIA Public Liaison. If the request for records is not granted in full, the final response letter shall also include:
</P>
<P>(i) A reference to the specific exemption or exemptions under the FOIA authorizing the withholding of the record or parts of the record and a brief explanation of how the exemption applies to the record withheld.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the denial may be appealed within 90 days by writing to the Chairman, by emailing <I>FOIA@nmb.gov,</I> or by writing to National Mediation Board, 1301 K Street NW., Suite 250E, Washington, DC 20005, and that judicial review will thereafter be available in the district in which the requester resides, or has his principal place of business, or the district in which Agency records are situated, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(iii) A notification of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Treatment of delay as a denial.</I> If no determination has been dispatched at the end of the 20-day period, or the last extension thereof, the requester may deem the request denied, and exercise a right of appeal, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. When no determination can be dispatched within the applicable time limit, the Chief FOIA Officer shall continue to process the request and shall inform the requester of the reason for the delay, the date on which a determination may be expected to be dispatched, and of the right to treat the delay as a denial and to appeal to the Chairman of the Board in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeals to the Chairman of the Board.</I> (1) When a request for records has been denied in whole or in part by the Chief FOIA Officer or other person authorized to deny requests, the requester may, within 90 days of its receipt, appeal the denial to the Chairman of the Board. Appeals to the Chairman shall be in writing, addressed to the Chairman, National Mediation Board, Washington, DC 20005 or emailed to <I>FOIA@nmb.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The Chairman of the Board will act upon the appeal within 20 working days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal public holidays) of its receipt unless an extension is made under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In unusual circumstances as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the time for action on an appeal may be extended up to 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal public holidays). Written notice of such extension shall be made prior to the expiration of the 20-day response period, setting forth the reason for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched.
</P>
<P>(4) If no determination on the appeal has been dispatched at the end of the 20-day period or the last extension thereof, the requester is deemed to have exhausted administrative remedies, giving rise to a right of review in a district court of the United States, as specified in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). When no determination can be dispatched within the applicable time limit, the appeal will nevertheless continue to be processed; on expiration of the time limit the requester shall be informed of the reason for the delay, of the date on which a determination may be expected to be dispatched, and of a right to seek judicial review in the United States district court in the district in which they reside or have their principal place of business, the district in which the Board records are situated or the District of Columbia. The requester may be asked to forego judicial review until determination of the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.3" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.9.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.3   Proactive disclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>The NMB shall, in conformance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), maintain and make available for public inspection, by posting on its Web site (unless the Board determines by order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that such publication would be unnecessary or impracticable) the following information: Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions made in representation cases; statements of policy and interpretation made by the NMB but not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>; administrative staff materials, such as the Representation Manual; frequently requested materials, defined as those released in response to a FOIA request and for which the Agency has received at least three requests or those records that because of the nature of their subject matter the Agency determines are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests; and a general index of records available under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.4" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.9.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.4   Material relating to representation function.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The documents constituting the record of a case, such as the notices of hearing, motions, rulings, findings upon investigation, determinations of craft or class, dismissals, withdrawals, and certifications, are matters of official record and shall be made available on the NMB's Web site.
</P>
<P>(b) This part notwithstanding, the NMB will treat as confidential evidence submitted in connection with the showing of interest in a representation dispute, including authorization cards and signature samples, and other personally identifying information received during an investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.5" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.9.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.5   Material relating to mediation function.</HEAD>
<P>All files, reports, letters, memoranda, and documents relating to the mediation function of the NMB, with the exception of procedural or administrative materials, such as applications, docket letters, or public meeting notices, in the custody of the NMB or its employees relating to or acquired in their mediatory capacity under the Railway Labor Act are hereby declared to be confidential. No such confidential documents or the material contained therein shall be disclosed to any unauthorized person, or be taken or withdrawn, copied or removed from the custody of the NMB or its employees by any person or by any agent of such person or their representative without the explicit consent of the NMB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.6" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.9.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.6   Fees under the Freedom of Information Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The NMB will charge for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and with Office of Management and Budget Guidelines. For purposes of assessing fees, the FOIA establishes three categories of requesters: Commercial use requesters, non-commercial scientific or educational institutions or news media requesters, and all other requesters. Different fees are assessed depending on the category. Requesters may seek a fee waiver. The NMB will consider requests for fee waivers in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (k) of this section. To resolve any fee issues that arise under this section, the NMB may contact a requester for additional information. The NMB ordinarily will collect all applicable fees before sending copies of records to a requester. Requesters must pay fees by check or money order made payable to the United States Treasury.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Commercial use request</I> is a request that asks for information for a use or a purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. An agency's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information. The NMB will notify requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> are those expenses that an agency incurs in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records in order to respond to a FOIA request. For example, direct costs include the salary of the employee performing the work (<I>i.e.,</I> the basic rate of pay for the employee, plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating computers and other electronic equipment, such as photocopiers and scanners. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses such as the costs of space, and of heating or lighting a facility.
</P>
<P><I>Duplication</I> is reproducing a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Copies can take the form of paper, audiovisual materials, or electronic records, among others.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> is any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. Agencies may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research, and agencies will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in this paragraph (b) and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use. The NMB will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media</I> is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast “news” to the public at large and publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, including news organizations that disseminate solely on the Internet. A request for records supporting the news-dissemination function of the requester will not be considered to be for a commercial use. “Freelance” journalists who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity will be considered as a representative of the news media. A publishing contract would provide the clearest evidence that publication is expected; however, agencies can also consider a requester's past publication record in making this determination. The NMB will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I> is the examination of a record located in response to a request in order to determine whether any portion of it is exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure, such as doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure, including the process of redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time also includes time spent both obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential business information submitter under § 1208.2(b)(5), but it does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> is the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request. Search time includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and the reasonable efforts expended to locate and retrieve information from electronic records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charging fees.</I> In responding to FOIA requests, the NMB will charge the following fees unless a waiver or reduction of fees has been granted under paragraph (k) of this section. Because the fee amounts provided below already account for the direct costs associated with a given fee type, the NMB will not add any additional costs to charges calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Search.</I> (i) Requests made by educational institutions, noncommercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media are not subject to search fees. The NMB will charge search fees for all other requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (d) of this section. The NMB may properly charge for time spent searching even if it does not locate any responsive records or determines that the records are entirely exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each quarter hour spent by personnel searching for requested records, including electronic searches that do not require new programming, direct costs will be charged.
</P>
<P>(iii) The NMB will also charge direct costs associated with conducting any search that requires the creation of a new computer program to locate the requested records. The NMB will notify the requester of the costs associated with creating such a program, and the requester must agree to pay the associated costs before the costs may be incurred.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duplication.</I> The NMB will charge duplication fees to all requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (d) of this section. The NMB will honor a requester's preference for receiving a record in a particular form or format where it can readily reproduce it in the form or format requested. Where photocopies are supplied, the NMB will provide one copy per request at the cost of 15 cents per page. For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, the NMB will charge the direct costs of producing the copy, including operator time. Where paper documents must be scanned in order to comply with a requester's preference to receive the records in an electronic format, the requester must also pay the direct costs associated with scanning those materials. For other forms of duplication, the NMB will charge the direct costs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> The NMB will charge review fees to requesters who make commercial use requests. Review fees will be assessed in connection with the initial review of the record, <I>i.e.,</I> the review conducted by the NMB to determine whether an exemption applies to a particular record or portion of a record. No charge will be made for review at the administrative appeal stage of exemptions applied at the initial review stage. However, if a particular exemption is deemed to no longer apply, any costs associated with the re-review of the records in order to consider the use of other exemptions may be assessed as review fees. Review fees will be charged at the same rates as those charged for a search under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) When the NMB determines that a requester is an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media, and the records are not sought for commercial use, it will not charge search fees.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If the NMB fails to comply with the time limits described in section 1208.2(b)(1) in which to respond to a request, it may not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the NMB has determined that unusual circumstances as defined in section 1208.2(b)(2) apply and the NMB provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with that section, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the NMB has determined that unusual circumstances apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the NMB may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken. The NMB must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, the NMB may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(3) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
</P>
<P>(4) Except for requesters seeking records for a commercial use, the NMB will provide without charge:
</P>
<P>(i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The first two hours of search.
</P>
<P>(5) No fee will be charged when the total fee, after deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, is equal to or less than $25.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00.</I> (1) When the NMB determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed in accordance with this section will exceed $25.00, the Agency must notify the requester of the actual or estimated amount of the fees, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review or duplication, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. If only a portion of the fee can be estimated readily, the NMB will advise the requester accordingly. If the request is not for noncommercial use, the notice will specify that the requester is entitled to the statutory entitlements of 100 pages of duplication at no charge and, if the requester is charged search fees, two hours of search time at no charge, and will advise the requester whether those entitlements have been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) If the NMB notifies the requester that the actual or estimated fees are in excess of $25.00, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the requester commits in writing to pay the actual or estimated total fee, or designates some amount of fees the requester is willing to pay, or in the case of a noncommercial use requester who has not yet been provided with the requester's statutory entitlements, designates that the requester seeks only that which can be provided by the statutory entitlements. The requester must provide the commitment or designation in writing, and must, when applicable, designate an exact dollar amount the requester is willing to pay. The NMB is not required to accept payments in installments.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester has indicated a willingness to pay some designated amount of fees, but the NMB estimates that the total fee will exceed that amount, it will toll the processing of the request when it notifies the requester of the estimated fees in excess of the amount the requester has indicated a willingness to pay. The NMB will inquire whether the requester wishes to revise the amount of fees the requester is willing to pay or modify the request. Once the requester responds, the time to respond will resume from where it was at the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(4) The NMB will make available its FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA professional to assist any requester in reformulating a request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Charges for other services.</I> Although not required to provide special services, if the NMB chooses to do so as a matter of administrative discretion, the direct costs of providing the service will be charged. Examples of such services include certifying that records are true copies, providing multiple copies of the same document, or sending records by means other than first class mail.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Charging interest.</I> The NMB may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the billing date until payment is received by the Agency. The NMB will follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> When the NMB reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting in concert is attempting to divide a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, it may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The NMB may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made in order to avoid fees. For requests separated by a longer period, the NMB will aggregate them only where there is a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in view of all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters cannot be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Advance payments.</I> (1) For requests other than those described in paragraphs (i)(2) or (i)(3) of this section, the NMB will not require the requester to make an advance payment before work is commenced or continued on a request. Payment owed for work already completed (<I>i.e.,</I> payment before copies are sent to a requester) is not an advance payment.
</P>
<P>(2) When the NMB determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will exceed $250.00, it may require that the requester make an advance payment up to the amount of the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request. The NMB may elect to process the request prior to collecting fees when it receives a satisfactory assurance of full payment from a requester with a history of prompt payment.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee within 30 calendar days of the billing date, the NMB may require that the requester pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest on that prior request, and it may require that the requester make an advance payment of the full amount of any anticipated fee before beginning to process a new request or continuing to process a pending request or any pending appeal. Where the NMB has a reasonable basis to believe that a requester has misrepresented the requester's identity in order to avoid paying outstanding fees, it may require that the requester provide proof of identity.
</P>
<P>(4) In cases in which the NMB requires advance payment, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the required payment is received. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of the fee determination, the request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other statutes specifically providing for fees.</I> The fee schedule of this section does not apply to fees charged under any statute that specifically requires the NMB to set and collect fees for particular types of records. In instances where records responsive to a request are subject to a statutorily-based fee schedule program, the NMB must inform the requester of the contact information for that program.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) Requesters may seek a waiver of fees by submitting a written application demonstrating how disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) The NMB will furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a reduced rate when it determines, based on all available information, that the factors described in paragraphs (k)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested information would shed light on the operations or activities of the government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure of the requested information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. Agencies will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, agencies will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The NMB will identify whether the requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters must be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(B) If there is an identified commercial interest, the NMB must determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request. A waiver or reduction of fees is justified when the requirements of paragraphs (k)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are satisfied and any commercial interest is not the primary interest furthered by the request. The NMB will presume that when a news media requester has satisfied the factors in paragraphs (k)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver will be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted and should address the criteria referenced above. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.7" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.9.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.7   Subpoenas and other requests for testimony and production of documents in legal proceedings where the NMB is not a party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In legal proceedings between private litigants, a subpoena or other demand for the production of records held by the Agency or for oral or written testimony of a current or former NMB employee should be addressed to the General Counsel, National Mediation Board, 1301 K Street NW., Suite 250E, Washington, DC 20005. No other official or employee of the NMB is authorized to accept service of a demand or subpoena on behalf of the Agency.
</P>
<P>(b) No current or former employee may produce official records or information or provide testimony in response to a demand or subpoena unless authorized by the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) The General Counsel may grant an employee permission to testify or produce official records or information in response to a demand or subpoena. In making this determination, the General Counsel shall consider whether:
</P>
<P>(1) Release of the requested records or testimony is prohibited under § 1208.5;
</P>
<P>(2) The disclosure is appropriate under the rules of procedure governing the case or matter;
</P>
<P>(3) The requested testimony or records are privileged under the relevant substantive law concerning privilege;
</P>
<P>(4) Disclosure would violate a statute or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) Disclosure would reveal trade secrets without the owner's consent; and
</P>
<P>(6) Allowing testimony or production of records would be in the best interest of the NMB or the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1209" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1209—PUBLIC OBSERVATION OF NATIONAL MEDIATION BOARD MEETINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552(b)(g).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 60739, Nov. 29, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1209.01" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.01   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part are intended to implement the requirements of section 3(a) of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the policy of the National Mediation Board that the public is entitled to the fullest practicable information regarding its decisionmaking processes. It is the purpose of this part to provide the public with such information while protecting the rights of individuals and the ability of the agency to carry out its responsibilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.02" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The terms <I>Board</I> or <I>Agency</I> mean the National Mediation Board, a collegial body composed of three members appointed by the President with the advice and consent of the Senate.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>meeting</I> means the deliberations of at least two members of the Board where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official agency business, but does not include deliberations required or permitted or with respect to any information proposed to be withheld under by 5 U.S.C. 552b(d) or (e)/5 U.S.C. 552b(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.03" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.03   Conduct of National Mediation Board business.</HEAD>
<P>Members shall not jointly conduct or dispose of agency business other than in accordance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.04" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.04   Open meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Every portion of every Board meeting shall be open to public observation except as otherwise provided by § 1209.05 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.05" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.05   Closing of meetings; reasons therefor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where the Board determines that the public interest requires otherwise, meetings, or portions thereof, shall not be open to public observation where the deliberations concern the issuance of a subponea, the Board's participation in a civil action or proceeding or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct or disposition by the Board of any matter involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing, or any court proceeding collateral or ancillary thereto.
</P>
<P>(b) Except where the Board determines that the public interest requires otherwise, the Board also may close meetings, or portions thereof, when the deliberations concern matters or information falling within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552b (c)(1) (secret matters concerning national defense or foreign policy); (c)(2) (internal personnel rules and practices); (c)(3) (matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute); (c)(4) (trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential); (c)(5) (matters of alleged criminal conduct or formal censure); (c)(6) (personal information where disclosure would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy); (c)(7) (certain materials or information from investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes); or (c)(9)(B) (disclosure would significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.06" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.06   Action necessary to close meetings; record of votes.</HEAD>
<P>A meeting shall be closed to public observation under § 1209.05, only when a majority of the members of the Board who will participate in the meeting vote to take such action.
</P>
<P>(a) When the meeting deliberations concern matters specified in § 1209.05(a), the Board members shall vote at the beginning of the meeting, or portion thereof, on whether to close such meeting, or portion thereof, to public observation, and on whether the public interest requires that a meeting which may properly be closed should nevertheless be open to public observation A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each member of the Board, shall be kept and made available to the public at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(b) When the meeting deliberations concerns matters specified in § 1209.05(b), the Board shall vote on whether to close such meeting, or portion thereof, to public ovservation, and on whether the public interest requires that a meeting which may properly be closed should nevertheless be open to public observation. The vote shall be taken at a time sufficient to permit inclusion of information concerning the open or closed status of the meeting in the public announcement thereof. A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings at which the deliberations will concern the same particular matters where subsequent meetings in the series are scheduled to be held within one day after the vote is taken.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever any person whose interests may be directly affected by deliberations during a meeting, or a portion thereof, requests that the Board close that meeting, or portion thereof, to public observation for any of the reasons specified in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(5) (matters of alleged criminal conduct or formal censure), (c)(6) (personal information where disclosure would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy), or (c)(7) (certain materials or information from investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes), the Board members participating in the meeting upon request of any one member of the Board, shall vote on whether to close such meeting, or any portion thereof, for that reason. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each member of the Board participating in the meeting, shall be kept and made available to the public within one day after the vote is taken.
</P>
<P>(d) After public announcement of a meeting as provided in § 1209.07 of this part, a meeting, or portion thereof, announced as closed may be opened or a meeting, or portion thereof, announced as open may be closed, only if a majority of the members of the Board who will participate in the meeting determine by a recorded vote that Board business so requires and that an earlier announcement of the change was not possible. The change made and the vote of each member on the change shall be announced publicly at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(e) Before a meeting may be closed pursuant to § 1209.05 the General Counsel of the Board shall certify that in his or her opinion the meeting may properly be closed to public observation. The certification shall set forth each applicable exemptive provision for such closing. The certification shall be retained by the agency and made publicly available as soon as practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.07" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.07   Notice of meetings; public announcement and publication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A public announcement setting forth the time, place and subject matter of meetings or portions thereof closed to public observation pursuant to the provisions of § 1209.05(a) of this part, shall be made at the earaliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for meetings closed to public observation pursuant to the provisions of § 1209.05(a) of this part, the agency shall make public announcement of each meeting at least 7 days before the scheduled date of the meeting. The announcement shall specify the time, place and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open to public observation or closed, and the name, address and phone number of an agency official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting. The 7 day period for advance notice may be shortened only upon a determination by a majority of the members of the Board who will participate in the meeting that agency business requires that such meeting be called at an earlier date, in which event the public announcement shall be made at the earliest practicable time. A record of the vote to schedule a meeting at an earlier date shall be kept and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) Within one day after a vote to close a meeting, or any portion thereof, pursuant to the provisions of § 1209.05(b) of this part, the agency shall make publicly available a full written explanation of its action closing the meeting, or portion thereof, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation.
</P>
<P>(d) If after a public announcement required by paragraph (b) of this section has been made, the time and place of the meeting are changed, a public announcement of such changes shall be made at the earliest practicable time. The subject matter of the meeting may be changed after public annmouncment thereof only if a majority of the members of the Board who will participate in the meeting determine that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible. When such a change in subject matter is approved a public announcement of the change shall be made at the earliest practicable time. A record of the vote to change the subject matter of the meeting shall be kept and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(e) All announcements or changes thereof issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section, or pursuant to the provisions of § 1209.06(d), shall be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> immediately following their release to the public.
</P>
<P>(f) Announcement of meeting made pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be posted on a bulletin board maintained for such purpose at the Board's offices, 1425 K Street, NW., Washington, DC. Interested individuals or organizations may request the Chief of Staff, National Mediation Board, Washington, DC 20572 to place them on a mailing list for receipt of such announcements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 60739, Nov. 29, 1977, as amended at 64 FR 40287, July 26, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.08" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.08   Transcripts, recordings or minutes of closed meetings; retention; public availability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For every meeting or portion thereof closed under the provisions of § 1209.05, the presiding officer shall prepare a statement setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, which statement shall be retained by the agency. For each such meeting or portion thereof there also shall be maintained a complete transcript or electronic recording of the proceedings, except that for meetings closed pursuant to § 1209.05(a) the Board may, in lieu of a transcript or electronic recording, maintain a set of minutes fully and accurately summarizing any action taken, the reason therefor and views thereof, documents considered, and the members' vote on each roll call vote.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall maintain a complete verbatim transcript, a complete electronic recording, or a complete set of minutes for each meeting or portion thereof closed to public observation, for a period of at least one year after the close of the agency proceeding of which the meeting was a part, but in no event for a period of less than two years after such meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall make promptly available to the public copies of transcripts, electronic recordings or minutes maintained as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, except to the extent the items therein contain information which the agency determines may be withheld pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552b(c). 
</P>
<P>(d) Upon request in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph and except to the extent they contain information which the agency determines may be withheld pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), copies of transcripts or minutes, or transcriptions of electronic recordings including the identification of speakers, shall be furnished subject to the payment of duplication costs in accordance with the schedule of fees set forth in § 1208.06 of the Board's Rules, and the actual cost of transcription. Requests for copies of transcripts or minutes, or transcriptions of electronic recordings of Board meetings shall be directed to the Chief of Staff, National Mediation Board, Washington, DC 20572. Such requests shall reasonably identify the records sought and include a statement that whatever costs are involved in furnishing the records will be acceptable or, alternatively, that costs will be acceptable up to a specified amount. The Board may determine to require prepayment of such costs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 60739, Nov. 29, 1977, as amended at 64 FR 40287, July 26, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.09" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.09   Requests for records under Freedom of Information Act.</HEAD>
<P>Requests to review or obtain copies of agency records other than notices or records prepared under this part may be pursued in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). Part 1208 of the Board's Rules addresses the requisite procedures under that Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.10" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.10.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.10   Capacity of public observers.</HEAD>
<P>The public may attend open Board meetings for the sole purpose of observation. Observers may not participate in meetings unless expressly invited or otherwise interfere with the conduct and disposition of agency business. When a portion of a meeting is closed to the public, observers will leave the meeting room upon request to enable discussion of the exempt matter therein under consideration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1210-1299" NODE="29:4.1.2.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1210-1299 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XII" NODE="29:4.1.3" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XII—FEDERAL MEDIATION AND CONCILIATION SERVICE</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1400" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1400—STANDARDS OF CONDUCT, RESPONSIBILITIES, AND DISCIPLINE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 11222, 30 FR 6469, 3 CFR, 1965 Supp.; 5 CFR 735.104.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>33 FR 5765, Apr. 13, 1968, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.735-3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.735-3   Advice and counseling service.</HEAD>
<P>The Director will designate a counselor for the Service on all matters relating to the conduct and responsibilities of employees, and special Government employees, under the Executive order. The counselor is responsible for providing individual employees with interpretations on questions of conflicts of interest, and other matters covered by this part. (Due to the small size of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, it is unrealistic to designate deputy counselors, and therefore, all questions concerning matters covered in this part should be directed to the one counselor appointed by the Director.) 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Employees: Ethical and Other Conduct and Responsibilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.735-19" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.735-19   Influencing Members of Congress.</HEAD>
<P>No money appropriated to the Service shall be used by any employee of the Service to pay for any personal service, printed or written matter, or other devices intended to influence any Member of Congress regarding any legislation or appropriation before the Congress. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.735-20" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.735-20   Code of Professional Conduct for FMCS Mediators.</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service has a Code of Professional Conduct for FMCS Mediators. Mediators in the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service are required to conduct themselves in accordance with the responsibilities outlined therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 4728, Jan. 25, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.735-21" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.735-21   Miscellaneous statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Each employee shall acquaint himself with the statutes that relate to his ethical and other conduct as an employee of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service and of the Government. The attention of all employees is directed to the following statutory provisions and to the accompanying chart of penalties and statutory references: 
</P>
<P>(a) House Concurrent Resolution 175, 85th Congress, 2d session, 72 Stat. B12, the “Code of Ethics for Government Service.” 
</P>
<P>(b) Chapter 11 of title 18, United States Code, relating to bribery, graft, and conflicts of interest, as appropriate to the employees concerned. 
</P>
<P>(c) The prohibition against lobbying with appropriated funds (18 U.S.C. 1913). 
</P>
<P>(d) The prohibitions against disloyalty and striking (5 U.S.C. 7311, 18 U.S.C. 1918). 
</P>
<P>(e) The prohibition against the employment of a member of a Communist organization (50 U.S.C. 784). 
</P>
<P>(f) The prohibitions against (1) the disclosure of classified information (18 U.S.C. 798, 50 U.S.C. 783); and (2) the disclosure of confidential information (18 U.S.C. 1905). 
</P>
<P>(g) The provisions relating to the habitual use of intoxicants to excess (5 U.S.C. 7352). 
</P>
<P>(h) The prohibition against the misuse of a Government vehicle (31 U.S.C. 638a (c)). 
</P>
<P>(i) The prohibition against the misuse of the franking privilege (18 U.S.C. 1719). 
</P>
<P>(j) The prohibition against the use of deceit in an examination of personnel action in connection with Government employment (18 U.S.C. 1917). 
</P>
<P>(k) The prohibition against fraud or false statements in a Government matter (18 U.S.C. 1001). 
</P>
<P>(l) The prohibition against mutilating or destroying a public record (18 U.S.C. 2071). 
</P>
<P>(m) The prohibition against counterfeiting and forging transportation requests (18 U.S.C. 508). 
</P>
<P>(n) The prohibitions against (1) embezzlement of Government money or property (18 U.S.C. 641); (2) failing to account for public money (18 U.S.C. 643); and (3) embezzlement of the money or property of another person in the possession of an employee by reason of his employment (18 U.S.C. 654). 
</P>
<P>(o) The prohibition against unauthorized use of documents relating to claims from or by the Government (18 U.S.C. 285). 
</P>
<P>(p) The prohibitions against political activities in subchapter III of chapter 73 of title 5, United States Code and 18 U.S.C. 602, 603, 607, and 608. 
</P>
<P>(q) The prohibition against an employee acting as the agent of a foreign principal registered under the Foreign Agents Registration Act (18 U.S.C. 219). 
</P>
<P>(r) Penalties: The following table, copied from the Federal Personnel Manual, lists maximum penalties for some of the more serious offenses. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Prohibition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statute and United States Code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum penalty
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-1. Gifts to official superiors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 U.S.C. 7351</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-2. Conflicts of interest:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">a. Receiving compensation in relation to claims contracts, etc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000 fine; 2 years imprisonment or both; and removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">b. Prosecuting claims against and other matters affecting the Government</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000 fine; 2 years imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">c. Prosecuting claims involving matters connected with former duties—disqualification of partners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000 fine; 2 years imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">d. Interested persons acting as Government agents</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000 fine; 2 years imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">e. Salaries from other than Government sources</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,000 fine; 1 year imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-3. Lobbying with appropriated funds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 1913</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$500 fine; 1 year imprisonment or both; and removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-4. Denial of rights to petition Congress</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 U.S.C. 7102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No specific penalty provided.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-5. Failure to make return or report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 2075</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-6. Disloyalty and striking</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 U.S.C. 7311; 18 U.S.C. 1918</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000 fine, 1 year and a day imprisonment or both; and removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-7. Employment of member of proscribed communist organization</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 U.S.C. 784 et seq</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000 fine; 5 years imprisonment or both; and removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-8. Disclosure of classified information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 798; 50 U.S.C. 783</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000 fine; 10 years imprisonment or both; and removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-9. Disclosure of confidential information</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 1905</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000 fine; 1 year imprisonment or both; and removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-10. Habitual use of intoxicants to excess</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 U.S.C. 7352</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-11. Misuse of Government vehicles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31 U.S.C. 638a(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-12. Misuse of franking privilege</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 1719</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$300 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-13. Deceit in examinations and personnel actions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 U.S.C. 1917</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000 fine; 1 year imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-14. Fraud and false statements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 1001</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000 fine; 5 years imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-15. Unlawful mutilating or destroying public records</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 2071(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,000 fine; 3 years imprisonment or both; and removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-16. Bribery and graft:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">a. Bribery of public officials</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$20,000 fine or three times the money or thing received, whichever is greater; 15 years imprisonment or both; and removal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">b. Acceptance or solicitation to obtain appointive office</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000 fine; 1 year imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-17. Counterfeiting and forgery of transportation requests</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 508</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,000 fine; 10 years imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-18. Embezzlement and theft:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">a. Taking money, property, or records</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 641</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000 fine; 10 years imprisonment or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">b. Failure to render accounts for public money</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 643</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fine equal to amount embezzled; imprisonment not more than 10 years or both.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">c. Wrongfully converting property of another</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 654</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as penalty immediately above.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-19. Taking or using papers related to claims</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 285</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,000 fine; 5 years imprisonment or both.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Disciplinary Actions and Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.735-60" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.735-60   Disciplinary actions.</HEAD>
<P>The Service shall take prompt disciplinary action against an employee committing prohibited activity, or whose conduct is prejudicial to the best interests of the Service, or of a nature to bring discredit to it. There are four major types of disciplinary action possible, following the above proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Reprimand.</I> An official reprimand usually shall be issued to an employee or special Government employee for a first offense which is not serious. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension.</I> Under Civil Service and Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service regulations, an employee or special Government employee may be suspended without pay during the course of an investigation of alleged criminal, infamous, dishonest, immoral, or notoriously disgraceful conduct. Also, an employee may be suspended without pay for a definite period of time because of some offense of a less serious nature for which more drastic action is not justified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Demotion.</I> When such action will “promote the efficiency of the Service,” an employee or special Government employee may be demoted because of some offense for which more drastic action is not justified. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Separation.</I> The Service is responsible for the prompt dismissal of unsatisfactory, incompetent, or unfit employees. Separation (dismissal or removal) can be the penalty for a single breach of conduct that is extremely serious in nature. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.735-61" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.1.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.735-61   Notice to and appeal of employee.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Administrative Management will prepare charges and institute proceedings, which in all cases will be in accordance with Civil Service procedures for disciplinary actions against status employees. Such proceedings will include notification to the employee of his appeal rights.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1401" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1401—PUBLIC INFORMATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 202, 61 Stat. 136, as amended; 5 U.S.C. 552.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 8169, Feb. 26, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Information in Response to Subpoenas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains the regulations of the Service concerning procedures to be followed when a subpoena, order, or other demand of a court or other authority is issued for the production or disclosure of (a) any material contained in the files of the Service; (b) any information relating to material contained in the files of the Service; or (c) any information or material acquired by any person as a part of the performance of his official duties or because of his official status, while such person was an employee of the Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.2   Production of records or testimony by FMCS employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Public policy and the successful effectuation of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service's mission require that commissioners and employees maintain a reputation for impartiality and integrity. Labor and management or other interested parties participating in mediation efforts must have the assurance and confidence that information disclosed to commissioners and other employees of the Service will not subsequently be divulged, voluntarily or because of compulsion, unless authorized by the Director of the Service. 
</P>
<P>(b) No officer, employee, or other person officially connected in any capacity with the Service, currently or formerly shall, in response to a subpoena, subpoena duces tecum, or other judicial or administrative order, produce any material contained in the files of the Service, disclose any information acquired as part of the performance of his official duties or because of his official status, or testify on behalf of any party to any matter pending in any judicial, arbitral or administrative proceeding, without the prior approval of the Director. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.3   Procedure in the event of a demand for production, disclosure, or testimony.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any request for records of the Service, whether it be by letter, by subpoena duces tecum or by any other written demand, shall be handled pursuant to the procedures established in subpart B of this part, and shall comply with the rules governing public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever any subpoena or subpoena duces tecum calling for production of records or testimony as described above shall have been served upon any officer, employee or other person as noted in § 1401.2(b), he will, unless notified otherwise appear in answer thereto, and unless otherwise expressly directed by the Director, respectfully decline to produce or present such records or to give such testimony, by reason of the prohibitions of this section, and shall state that the production of the record(s) involved will be handled by the procedures established in this part. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Production or Disclosure of Information</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 53543, Sept. 28, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1401.20" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.20   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains the rules that the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (“FMCS” or “the Agency”) follows in processing requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act (“FOIA”), 5 U.S.C. 552. The regulations in this subpart should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Act Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB Guidelines”). Requests made by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, are processed in accordance with Privacy Act criteria as well as under this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.21" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.21   Proactive disclosures and other disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FMCS will make available for public inspection in an electronic format on the Agency's website any record that has been requested 3 or more times. The Agency has a FOIA Public Liaison who can assist individuals in locating records particular to an agency. The FMCS FOIA Public Liaison's contact information is available on the FMCS FOIA web page (<I>www.fmcs.gov/foia</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) The FMCS will withhold information under FOIA only if the Agency “reasonably foresees” that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption or as otherwise allowed by law.
</P>
<P>(c) Partial disclosures are appropriate for use by the FMCS when full disclosure is inappropriate or impossible. If a record contains both disclosable and exempt information, the exempt information will be redacted and the remaining record will be disclosed unless the two are so inextricably intertwined that it is not possible to separate them. Records disclosed in part shall be marked or annotated to show both the amount and the location of the information redacted and the applicable exemption.
</P>
<P>(d) All existing FMCS records are subject to disposition according to Agency record retention schedules and the General Records Schedules promulgated by the National Archives and Records Administration.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.22" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.22   Requirements for making requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> (1) A requester can submit requests through one of the following ways: Submitting a request through the public portal on the FMCS FOIA website; sending an electronic request to the Office of General Counsel, <I>foia@fmcs.gov;</I> or writing directly to the FMCS FOIA office at 250 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20427. Any additional requirements for submitting a request to the Agency are listed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section and in the submitted form available by selecting “FOIA” at the bottom of the FMCS website <I>www.fmcs.gov/foia.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) A requester who is making a request for records about the requester must comply with the verification of identity requirements as determined by the FMCS to include providing documentation and completing a verification of identity form.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a request for records pertains to another individual, a requester may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or a declaration made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 by that individual authorizing disclosure of the records to the requester, or by submitting proof that the individual is deceased (<I>e.g.,</I> a copy of a death certificate or an obituary). As an exercise of administrative discretion, the Agency can require a requester to supply additional information, if necessary, to verify that a particular individual has consented to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of records sought.</I> Requesters must describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable agency personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent possible, requesters should include specific information that may help the Agency identify the requested records, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, subject matter of the record, case number, file designation, or reference number. Before submitting requests, requesters may contact the Agency's FOIA Public Liaison, as identified at <I>www.fmcs.gov/foia,</I> to discuss the records they seek and to receive assistance in describing the records. If after receiving a request the FMCS determines that it does not reasonably describe the records sought, the FMCS will inform the requester what additional information is needed or why the request is otherwise insufficient. If a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, the FMCS's response to the request may be delayed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Format for requests.</I> Requests may specify the preferred form or format (including electronic formats) for the records. The FMCS will accommodate the request if the record is readily reproducible in that form or format.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of requests.</I> Requesters must provide contact information, such as their full name, organization, phone number, email address, and/or mailing address, to assist the Agency in communicating with them and providing released records.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.23" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.23   Responsibility for responding to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Where the FMCS first receives a request for a record and maintains that record, it is responsible for responding to the request. In determining which records are responsive to a request, the Agency ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date that it begins its search. If any other date is used, the Agency must inform the requester of that date. If the FMCS uses any other date due to needing to clarify the request or obtain a fee agreement, it must inform the requester of that date. A record that is excluded from the requirements of the FOIA, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), is not considered responsive to a request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> The Director of FMCS or designee is authorized to grant or to deny any requests for records that are maintained by the Agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation, referral, and coordination.</I> When reviewing records in response to a request, the Agency will determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the Agency must proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consultation.</I> When records originated with the agency processing the request but contain information of interest to another agency or other Federal Government office, the FMCS will generally consult with that other entity prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral.</I> (i) Ordinarily, when the FMCS is the originating agency, it is presumed to be in the best position to make the disclosure determination. When the FMCS believes that a different agency is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, the FMCS typically will request the other agency make the final response to the requester.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the FMCS refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, it will document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name(s) of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA contact information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure in paragraph (c)(2) of this section will not be followed where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. In such instances, FMCS would coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on whether the records should be exempt from disclosure. FMCS will issue the final response to the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Classified information.</I> On receipt of any request involving classified information, the FMCS will determine whether the information is currently and properly classified in accordance with applicable classification rules. Whenever a request involves a record containing information that has been classified or may be appropriate for classification by another agency under any applicable executive order concerning the classification of records, FMCS must refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that information to the agency that classified the information, or that should consider the information for classification. Whenever the FMCS's record contains information that has been derivatively classified (for example, when it contains information classified by another agency), the FMCS must refer the responsibility for responding to that portion of the request to the agency that classified the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing of responses to consultations and referrals.</I> All consultations and referrals received by the FMCS will be handled according to the date that the first agency received the perfected FOIA request.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.24" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.24   Timing of responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The FMCS ordinarily will respond to requests according to their order of receipt. A request may be made directly to the FMCS by referring to procedures described on <I>www.fmcs.gov</I> or by email to <I>foia@fmcs.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of response.</I> The obligation to respond to a request for records arises on the first business day when the request is received by the Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multi-track processing.</I> FMCS designates a specific track for requests that are granted expedited processing, in accordance with the standards set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. FMCS may also designate additional processing tracks that distinguish between simple and more complex requests based on the estimated amount of work or time needed to process the request. Among the factors an agency may consider are the number of records requested, the number of pages involved in processing the request, and the need for consultations or referrals. FMCS must advise requesters of the track into which their request falls and, when appropriate, should offer the requesters an opportunity to narrow or modify their request so that it can be placed in a different processing track.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> Whenever the FMCS cannot meet the statutory time limit for processing a request because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined in the FOIA, and the FMCS extends the time limit on that basis, the FMCS must, before expiration of the 20-day response period, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which the Agency estimates it will complete processing of the request. Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, the FMCS will provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. The FMCS will make available its designated FOIA contact or its FOIA Public Liaison for this purpose. The name and contact information for the FMCS's FOIA Public Liaison is available at <I>www.fmcs.gov</I> by selecting FOIA at the bottom of the screen. FMCS will also alert requesters to the availability of the Office of Government Information Services to provide dispute resolution services. Whenever the FMCS extends the time limits by more than ten additional working days, the FMCS must notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of the Government Information Services (OGIS).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> To satisfy unusual circumstances under the FOIA, agencies may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. Agencies cannot aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) The Agency will process requests and appeals on an expedited basis whenever it is determined that they involve:
</P>
<P>(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited processing could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if made by a person who is primarily engaged in disseminating information.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for expedited processing may be made at any time. When making a request for expedited processing of an administrative appeal, the request should be submitted to the FMCS's Office of the Director via <I>foia@fmcs.gov</I> or through the online portal located at <I>www.fmcs.gov/foia.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for making the request for expedited processing. For example, under paragraph (c) of this section, a requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic. As a matter of administrative discretion, the FMCS may waive the formal certification requirement in this paragraph (f)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) The FMCS must notify the requester within 10 calendar days of the receipt of a request for expedited processing of its decision whether to grant or deny expedited processing. If expedited processing is granted, the request must be given priority, placed in the processing track for expedited requests, and must be processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, the FMCS must act on any appeal of that decision expeditiously.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.25" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.25   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> To the extent practicable, the FMCS will communicate electronically with requesters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgments of requests.</I> The FMCS will acknowledge a request in writing and assign it an individualized tracking number if it will take longer than 10 working days to process.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Estimated dates of completion and interim responses.</I> Upon request, the Agency will provide an estimated date by which it expects to provide a response to the requester. If a request involves a voluminous amount of material, or searches in multiple locations, the FMCS may provide interim responses, releasing the records on a rolling basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grants of requests (fees).</I> Once the Agency determines it will grant a request in full or in part, it will notify the requester in writing. The Agency will also inform the requester of any fees charged under § 1401.30 and will disclose the requested records to the requester promptly upon payment of any applicable fees. The Agency will inform the requester of the availability of its FOIA Public Liaison to offer assistance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adverse determinations of requests.</I> If the Agency makes an adverse determination denying a request in any respect, it must notify the requester of that determination in writing. Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that: The requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of denial.</I> The denial must be signed by the head of the Agency or designee and must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption applied by the Agency in denying the request;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of any records or information withheld, such as the number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation, although such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed under § 1401.27, and a description of the appeal requirements; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement notifying the requester of the assistance available from the Agency's FOIA Public Liaison, and the dispute resolution services offered by Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Markings on released documents.</I> Records disclosed in part must be marked clearly to show the amount of information redacted and the exemption under which the redaction was made unless doing so would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption. The location of the information redacted must also be indicated on the record, if technically feasible.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Use of record exclusions.</I> (1) In the event the FMCS identifies records that may be subject to exclusion from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), the Agency will confer with Department of Justice, Office of Information Policy (OIP), to obtain approval to apply the exclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event the FMCS applies an exclusion, it will maintain an administrative record of the process of invocation and approval of the exclusion by OIP.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.26" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.26   Confidential commercial information (“CCI”).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Confidential commercial information</I> means information obtained by the FMCS from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides confidential commercial information, either directly or indirectly to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> A submitter of confidential commercial information must use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings, at the time of submission, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When notice to submitters is required.</I> (1) The FMCS will promptly notify the submitter in writing whenever such confidential commercial information is requested under the FOIA and the Agency determines that it may be required to disclose the information, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The requested information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The FMCS has a reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4, but has not yet made that determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice must either describe the commercial information requested or include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information. In cases involving a voluminous number of submitters, the Agency may post or publish a notice in a place or manner reasonably likely to inform the submitters of the proposed disclosure, instead of sending individual notifications.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to submitter notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements of this section do not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Agency determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA, or the information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute other than the FOIA or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(3) The designation made by the submitter appears obviously frivolous.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> (1) The FMCS must specify a reasonable time period within which the submitter must respond to the notice referenced in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a submitter has any objections to disclosure, it should provide the Agency a detailed written statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption of the FOIA. In order to rely on Exemption 4 as the basis for nondisclosure, the submitter must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(3) A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. The FMCS is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this subpart may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis of objections.</I> The Agency must consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose the requested information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> Whenever the FMCS decides to disclose information over the objection of a submitter, it must provide the submitter written notice, which must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons why each of the submitter's disclosure objections was not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed or copies of the records as the Agency intends to release them; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which must be within a reasonable time after the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of confidential commercial information, the Agency must promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requester notification.</I> The Agency must notify the requester whenever it provides the submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure; whenever it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.27" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.27   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for making an appeal.</I> A requester may appeal any adverse determinations to the Agency's Deputy Director, FOIA Appeal, Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, 250 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20427; <I>foia@fmcs.gov.</I> Requesters can submit appeals by mail, email, or via the online portal at <I>www.fmcs.gov</I>/foia. The requester must make the appeal in writing, clearly identifying the grounds therefore and providing any supporting documentation. To be considered timely it must be postmarked or, in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted within 90 calendar days after the date of the response. The appeal should clearly identify the determination that is being appealed and the assigned request number, if known. To facilitate handling, the requester should mark both the appeal letter and envelope, or subject line of the electronic transmission, “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudication of appeals.</I> An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on appeals.</I> The Deputy Director of the FMCS or designee will provide a decision on an appeal. A decision that upholds the FMCS's determination in whole or in part must contain a statement that identifies the reasons for the affirmance, including any FOIA exemptions applied. The decision must provide the requester with notification of the statutory right to file a lawsuit and will inform the requester of the dispute resolution services offered by the OGIS as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. If the decision is remanded or modified on appeal, the Deputy Director will notify the requester of that determination in writing. The Office of General Counsel will then further process the request in accordance with that appeal determination and will respond directly to the requester. Alternatively, the Deputy Director may decide to modify the decision and decide the appeal on its merits in a single step.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Engaging in dispute resolution services provided by OGIS.</I> Dispute resolution is a voluntary process. If the Agency agrees to participate in the dispute resolution services provided by OGIS, the Deputy Director or designee will participate on behalf of the FMCS.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When appeal is required.</I> Before seeking review by a court of the Agency's adverse determination, a requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.28" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.28   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>The FMCS must preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this subpart, as well as copies of all requested records, until final disposition of the “request” case: No sooner than 91 days after the final response is sent to the requester to allow for a timely appeal. The Agency must not dispose of or destroy records while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.29" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.29   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) The FMCS will charge for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and with the OMB Guidelines. For purposes of assessing fees, the FOIA establishes three categories of requesters:
</P>
<P>(i) Commercial use requesters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-commercial scientific or educational institutions or news media requesters; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All other requesters.
</P>
<P>(2) Different fees are assessed depending on the category. Requesters may seek a fee waiver. The Agency will consider requests for fee waivers in accordance with the requirements in subsection (k) of the FOIA. To resolve any fee issues that arise under this section, the FMCS may contact a requester for additional information. The Agency is to conduct searches, review, and duplication in an efficient and cost-effective manner. The FMCS ordinarily will collect all applicable fees before sending copies of records to a requester. Requesters must pay fees by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States, or by another method as determined by the Agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Commercial use request</I> is a request that asks for information for a use or a purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. The FMCS's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information. The Agency will notify requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> are those expenses that an agency incurs in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records in order to respond to a FOIA request. For example, direct costs include the salary of the employee performing the work (<I>i.e.,</I> the basic rate of pay for the employee, plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating electronic equipment, such as photocopiers and scanners. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses such as the costs of space, and of heating or lighting a facility.
</P>
<P><I>Duplication</I> is reproducing a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Copies can take the form of paper, audiovisual materials, or electronic records, among others.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> is any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with the requester's role at the educational institution. The FMCS may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research and will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in this paragraph (b) and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use. The FMCS will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media</I> is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast news to the public at large and publishers of periodicals that disseminate news and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, including news organizations that disseminate solely on the internet. A request for records supporting the news-dissemination function of the requester will not be considered to be for a commercial use. Freelance journalists who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity will be considered as a representative of the news media. A publishing contract would provide the clearest evidence that publication is expected. However, the Agency can also consider a requester's past publication record in making this determination. The Agency will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I> is the examination of a record located in response to a request in order to determine whether any portion of it is exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure, such as doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure, including the process of redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time also includes time spent both obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential commercial information submitter under § 1401.26, but it does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> is the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request. Search time includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and the reasonable efforts expended to locate and retrieve information from electronic records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charging fees.</I> In responding to FOIA requests, the Agency will charge the following fees unless a waiver or reduction of fees has been granted under paragraph (k) of this section. Because the fee amounts provided in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section already account for the direct costs associated with a given fee type, the FMCS will not add any additional costs to charges calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Search.</I> (i) Requests made by educational institutions, noncommercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media are not subject to search fees. The FMCS will charge search fees for all other requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (d) of this section. The Agency may properly charge for time spent searching even if it does not locate any responsive records or if the Agency determines that the records are entirely exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each quarter hour spent by personnel searching for requested records, including electronic searches that do not require new programming, the fees will be charged as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The Agency will charge the direct costs associated with conducting any search that requires the creation of a new computer program to locate the requested records. The Agency will notify the requester of the costs associated with creating such a program, and the requester must agree to pay the associated costs before the costs may be incurred.
</P>
<P>(B) For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by the Agency at a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), the Agency will charge additional costs in accordance with the Transactional Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duplication.</I> The FMCS will charge duplication fees to all requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (d) of this section. The Agency must honor a requester's preference for receiving a record in a particular form or format where the Agency can readily reproduce it in the form or format requested. Where photocopies are supplied, the Agency will provide one copy per request at cost ($0.05 per page). For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, the FMCS will charge the direct costs of producing the copy, including operator time. Where paper documents must be scanned in order to comply with a requester's preference to receive the records in an electronic format, the requester must also pay the direct costs associated with scanning those materials. For other forms of duplication, the Agency will charge the direct costs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> The Agency will charge review fees to requesters who make commercial use requests. Review fees will be assessed in connection with the initial review of the record, <I>i.e.,</I> the review conducted to determine whether an exemption applies to a particular record or portion of a record. No charge will be made for review at the administrative appeal stage of exemptions applied at the initial review stage. However, if a particular exemption is deemed to no longer apply, any costs associated with the Agency's re-review of the records in order to consider the use of other exemptions may be assessed as review fees. Review fees will be charged at the same rates as those charged for a search under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) When the FMCS determines that a requester is an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media, and the records are not sought for commercial use, it will not charge search fees.
</P>
<P>(2) FMCS cannot charge fees:
</P>
<P>(i) If the Agency fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, it may not charge search fees or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Agency has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and the Agency provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Agency has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Agency may charge search fees or, in the case of requesters described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken. The Agency must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, and the Agency must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5. U.S.C. 552(a)(6), (B)(ii). If the exception in this paragraph (d)(2)(iii) is satisfied, the Agency may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(3) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
</P>
<P>(4) Except for requesters seeking records for a commercial use, the FMCS will provide without charge:
</P>
<P>(i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The first two hours of search.
</P>
<P>(5) No fee will be charged when the total fee, after deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, is equal to or less than $25.00.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00.</I> (1) When the FMCS determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed in accordance with this section will exceed $25.00, the Agency must notify the requester of the actual or estimated amount of the fees, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review, or duplication, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. If only a portion of the fee can be estimated readily, the Agency will advise the requester accordingly. If the request is for noncommercial use, the notice will specify that the requester is entitled to the statutory entitlements of 100 pages of duplication at no charge and, if the requester is charged search fees, two hours of search time at no charge, and the notice will advise the requester whether those entitlements have been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Agency notifies the requester that the actual or estimated fees are in excess of $25.00, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the requester commits in writing to pay the actual or estimated total fee, or designates some amount of fees the requester is willing to pay, or in the case of a noncommercial use requester who has not yet been provided with the requester's statutory entitlements, designates that the requester seeks only that which can be provided by the statutory entitlements. The requester must provide the commitment or designation in writing and must, when applicable, designate an exact dollar amount the requester is willing to pay. The FMCS is not required to accept payments in installments.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester has indicated a willingness to pay some designated amount of fees, but the Agency estimates that the total fee will exceed that amount, the Agency will toll the processing of the request when it notifies the requester of the estimated fees in excess of the amount the requester has indicated a willingness to pay. The Agency will inquire whether the requester wishes to revise the amount of fees the requester is willing to pay or modify the request. Once the requester responds, the time to respond will resume from where it was at the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(4) The FMCS will make available its FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA professional to assist any requester in reformulating a request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Charges for other services.</I> Although not required to provide special services, if the Agency chooses to do so as a matter of administrative discretion, the direct costs of providing the service will be charged. Examples of such services include certifying that records are true copies, providing multiple copies of the same document, or sending records by means other than first class mail.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Charging interest.</I> The Agency may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the billing date until payment is received by the Agency. The Agency will follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset (see 29 CFR part 1450).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> When the FMCS reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting in concert is attempting to divide a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the Agency may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The Agency may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made in order to avoid fees. For requests separated by a longer period, the Agency will aggregate them only where there is a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in view of all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters cannot be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Advance payments.</I> (1) For requests other than those described in paragraph (i)(2) or (3) of this section, the Agency cannot require the requester to make an advance payment before work on a request starts or continues. Payment owed for work already completed (<I>i.e.,</I> payment before copies are sent to a requester) is not an advance payment.
</P>
<P>(2) When the Agency determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will exceed $250.00, it may require that the requester make an advance payment up to the amount of the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request. The Agency may elect to process the request prior to collecting fees when it receives a satisfactory assurance of full payment from a requester with a history of prompt payment.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to the Agency within 30 calendar days of the billing date, the Agency may require that the requester pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest on that prior request, and the Agency may require that the requester make an advance payment of the full amount of any anticipated fee before the Agency begins to process a new request or continues to process a pending request or any pending appeal. Where the Agency has a reasonable basis to believe that a requester has misrepresented the requester's identity in order to avoid paying outstanding fees, it may require that the requester provide proof of identity.
</P>
<P>(4) In cases in which the Agency requires advance payment, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the required payment is received. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of the Agency's fee determination, the request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other statutes specifically providing for fees.</I> The fee schedule of this section does not apply to fees charged under any statute that specifically requires an agency to set and collect fees for particular types of records. In instances where records responsive to a request are subject to a statutorily-based fee schedule program, the Agency must inform the requester of the contact information for that program.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) Requesters may seek a waiver of fees by submitting a written application demonstrating how disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) The Agency must furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a reduced rate when it determines, based on all available information, that the factors described in paragraphs (k)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested information would shed light on the operations or activities of the government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure of the requested information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. The FMCS will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, the Agency will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The FMCS must identify whether the requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters must be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(B) If there is an identified commercial interest, the Agency must determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request. A waiver or reduction of fees is justified when the requirements of paragraphs (k)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are satisfied and any commercial interest is not the primary interest furthered by the request. The Agency ordinarily will presume that when a news media requester has satisfied paragraphs (k)(2)(i) and (ii), the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver must be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted to the Agency and should address the criteria referenced in paragraphs (k)(1) and (2) of this section. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1401.30" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.2.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.30   Other rights and services.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1402" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1402—PROCEDURES OF THE SERVICE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 202, 61 Stat. 153, sec. 3, 80 Stat. 250, sec. 203, 61 Stat. 153; 5 U.S.C. 552, 29 U.S.C. 172, 173. 




</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1402.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.1   Notice of dispute.</HEAD>
<P>The notice of dispute filed with the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service pursuant to the provisions of section 8(d)(3), of the Labor-Management Relations Act, 1947, as amended, shall be submitted electronically via a platform provided by FMCS. If electronic submission creates an undue hardship, the filer may contact the FMCS Notice Processing office to explain the circumstances and receive assistance. The Form F-7, for use by the parties in filing a notice of dispute, has been prepared by the Service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 50855, Sept. 13, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1403" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1403—FUNCTIONS AND DUTIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 202, 61 Stat. 153, sec. 3, 80 Stat. 250, sec. 203, 61 Stat. 153; 29 U.S.C. 172, 5 U.S.C. 552, 29 U.S.C. 173. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>32 FR 9813, July 6, 1967, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1403.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>commerce</I> means trade, traffic, commerce, transportation, or communication among the several States, or between the District of Columbia or any Territory of the United States and any State or other Territory, or between any foreign country and any State, Territory, or the District of Columbia, or within the District of Columbia, or any Territory, or between points in the same State but through any other State or any Territory or the District of Columbia or any foreign country. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>affecting commerce</I> means in commerce, or burdening or obstructing commerce or the free flow of commerce, or having led or tending to lead to a labor-management dispute burdening or obstructing commerce or the free flow of commerce. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>labor union</I> or <I>labor organization</I> means any organization of any kind, or any agency or employee representation committee or plan, in which employees participate and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>State or other conciliation services</I> means the official and accredited mediation and conciliation establishments of State and local governments, which are wholly or partially supported by public funds. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>proffer its services,</I> as applied to the functions and duties of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, means to make mediation services and facilities available either on its own motion or upon the request of one or more of the parties to a dispute. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.2   Policies of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service: 
</P>
<P>(a) To facilitate and promote the settlement of labor-management disputes through collective bargaining by encouraging labor and management to resolve differences through their own resources. 
</P>
<P>(b) To encourage the States to provide facilities for fostering better labor-management relations and for resolving disputes. 
</P>
<P>(c) To proffer its services in labor-management disputes in any industry affecting commerce, except as to any matter which is subject to the provisions of the Railway Labor Act, as amended, either upon its own motion or upon the request of one or more of the parties to the dispute, whenever in its judgment such dispute threatens to cause a substantial interruption to commerce. 
</P>
<P>(d) To refrain from proffering its services:
</P>
<P>(1) In labor-management disputes affecting intrastate commerce exclusively,
</P>
<P>(2) In labor-management disputes having a minor effect on interstate commerce, if State or other conciliation services are available to the parties, or
</P>
<P>(3) In a labor-management dispute when a substantial question of representation has been raised, or to continue to make its facilities available when a substantial question of representation is raised during the negotiations. 
</P>
<P>(e) To proffer its services in any labor-management dispute directly involving Government procurement contracts necessary to the national defense, or in disputes which imperil or threaten to imperil the national health or safety. 
</P>
<P>(f) To proffer its services to the parties in grievance disputes arising over the application or interpretation of an existing collective-bargaining agreement only as a last resort and in exceptional cases. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.3   Obtaining data on labor-management disputes.</HEAD>
<P>When the existence of a labor-management dispute comes to the attention of the Federal Service upon a request for mediation service from one or more parties to the dispute, through notification under the provisions of section 8(d)(3), title I of the Labor-Management Relations Act, 1947, or otherwise, the Federal Service will examine the information to determine if the Service should proffer its services under its policies. If sufficient data on which to base a determination is not at hand, the Federal Service will inquire into the circumstances surrounding the case. Such inquiry will be conducted for fact-finding purposes only and is not to be interpreted as the Federal Service proffering its services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.4   Assignment of mediators.</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Service will assign one or more mediators to each labor-management dispute in which it has been determined that its services should proffered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.5   Relations with State and local mediation agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If under State or local law a State or local mediation agency must offer its facilities in a labor-management dispute in which the Federal Service is proffering its services, the interests of such agencies will be recognized and their co-operation will be encouraged in order that all efforts may be made to prevent or to effectively minimize industrial strife. 
</P>
<P>(b) If, in a labor-management dispute there is reasonable doubt that the dispute threatens to cause a substantial interruption to commerce or that there is more than a minor effect upon interstate commerce, and State or other conciliation services are available to the parties, the regional director of the Federal Service will endeavor to work out suitable arrangements with the State or other conciliation or mediation agency for mediation of the dispute. Decisions in such cases will take into consideration the desires of the parties, the effectiveness and availability of the respective facilities, and the public welfare, health, and safety. 
</P>
<P>(c) If requested by a State or local mediation agency or the chief executive of a State or local government, the Federal Service may make its services available in a labor-management dispute which would have only a minor effect upon interstate commerce when, in the judgment of the Federal Service, the effect of the dispute upon commerce or the public welfare, health, or safety justifies making available its mediation facilities. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1404" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1404—ARBITRATION SERVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 172 and 29 U.S.C. 173 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 16206, Apr. 18, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Arbitration Policy; Administration of Roster</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.1   Scope and authority.</HEAD>
<P>This chapter is issued by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (FMCS) under Title II of the Labor Management Relations Act of 1947 (Pub. L. 80-101) as amended. It applies to all arbitrators listed on the FMCS Roster of Arbitrators (the Roster), to all applicants for listing on the Roster, and to all persons or parties seeking to obtain from FMCS either names or panels of names of arbitrators listed on the Roster in connection with disputes that are to be submitted to arbitration or fact-finding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The labor policy of the United States promotes and encourages the use of voluntary arbitration to resolve disputes over the interpretation or application of collective bargaining agreements. Voluntary arbitration and fact-finding are important features of constructive employment relations as alternatives to economic strife.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.3   Administrative responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Director.</I> The Director of FMCS has responsibility for all aspects of FMCS arbitration activities and is the final agency authority on all questions concerning the Roster and FMCS arbitration procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Office of Arbitration.</I> The Office of Arbitration (OA) maintains the Roster; administers subpart C of this part (Procedures for Arbitration Services); assists, promotes, and cooperates in the establishment of programs for training and developing new arbitrators; and provides names or panels of names of listed arbitrators to parties requesting them.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Arbitrator Review Board.</I> The Arbitrator Review Board (Board) shall consist of a chair and members appointed by the Director who shall serve at the Director's pleasure. The Board shall be composed entirely of full-time officers or employees of the Federal Government and shall establish procedures for carrying out its duties.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Duties of the Board.</I> The Board shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Review the qualifications of all applicants for listing on the Roster, interpreting and applying the criteria set forth in § 1404.5;
</P>
<P>(ii) Review the status of all persons whose continued eligibility for listing on the Roster has been questioned under § 1404.5;
</P>
<P>(iii) Recommend to the Director the acceptance or rejection of applicants for listing on the Roster, or the withdrawal of listing on the Roster for any of the reasons set forth in this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) At the request of the Director, or upon its own volition, review arbitration policies and procedures, including all regulations and written guidance regarding the use of Roster arbitrators, and make recommendations regarding such policies and procedures to the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Roster of Arbitrators; Admission and Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.4   Roster and status of members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Roster.</I> FMCS shall maintain a Roster of labor arbitrators consisting of persons who meet the criteria for listing contained in § 1404.5 and who remain in good standing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adherence to standards and requirements.</I> Persons listed on the Roster shall comply with FMCS rules and regulations pertaining to arbitration and with such guidelines and procedures as may be issued by OA pursuant to subpart C of this part. Arbitrators shall conform to the ethical standards and procedures set forth in the Code of Professional Responsibility for Arbitrators of Labor Management Disputes, as approved by the National Academy of Arbitrators, FMCS, and the American Arbitration Association (“the Code”).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Status of arbitrators.</I> Persons who are listed on the Roster and are selected or appointed to hear arbitration matters or to serve as factfinders do not become employees of the Federal Government by virtue of their selection or appointment. Following selection or appointment, the arbitrator's relationship is solely with the parties to the dispute, except that arbitrators are subject to certain reporting requirements and to standards of conduct as set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rights of persons listed on the Roster.</I> No person shall have any right to be listed or to remain listed on the Roster. FMCS retains its authority and responsibility to assure that the needs of the parties using its services are served. To accomplish this purpose, FMCS may establish procedures for the preparation of panels or the appointment of arbitrators or factfinders that include consideration of such factors as background and experience, availability, acceptability, geographical location, and the expressed preferences of the parties.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.5   Listing on the Roster, criteria for listing and removal, procedure for removal.</HEAD>
<P>Persons seeking to be listed on the Roster must complete and submit an application available online at <I>https://www.fmcs.gov/services/arbitration/information-joining-arbitrator-roster/.</I> Upon receipt of an executed application, OA will review the application, ensure that it is complete, make such inquiries as are necessary, and submit the application to the Board. The Board will review the completed application under the criteria in paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section, and will forward to the FMCS Director, or Director's designee, its recommendation as to whether or not the applicant meets the criteria for listing on the Roster. The Director shall make all final decisions as to whether an applicant may be listed on the Roster. Each applicant shall be notified in writing of the Director's decision and the reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General criteria.</I> (1) Applicants will be listed on the Roster upon a determination that he or she:
</P>
<P>(i) Is experienced, competent, and acceptable in decision-making roles in the resolution of labor relations disputes; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has extensive and recent experience in relevant positions in collective bargaining; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is capable of conducting an orderly hearing, can analyze testimony and exhibits and can prepare clear and concise findings and awards within reasonable time limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) For applicants who are governmental employees, the following criteria shall also apply:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Federal employees.</I> These applicants must provide OA with written permission from their employer to work as an arbitrator. Federal employees will not be assigned to panels involving the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Governmental employees other than Federal.</I> These applicants must provide OA with written permission from their employer to work as an arbitrator as well as a statement of the jurisdiction(s) in which the applicant is permitted to do this work.
</P>
<P>(2) FMCS may identify certain positions relating to collective bargaining that will substitute for the General Criteria. FMCS may also identify periodic educational requirements for remaining on the Roster.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proof of qualification.</I> Unless waived under exceptional circumstances wholly in the discretion of the Director, applicants must:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit five recent labor arbitration awards that are final and binding, and prepared by the applicant while serving as an impartial arbitrator of record selected by mutual agreement of the parties to labor relations disputes arising under collective bargaining agreements, or by direct designation by an administrative agency, or
</P>
<P>(2) Successfully complete the FMCS labor arbitrator training course and either submit one award as described above or complete an apprenticeship that meets specifications that FMCS may, in its discretion, provide. Applicants must also submit information demonstrating extensive and recent experience in collective bargaining, including at least the position or title held, duties or responsibilities, the name and location of the company or organization, and the dates of employment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advocacy.</I> Any person who at the time of application is an advocate, as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, must agree to cease such activity before being recommended for listing on the Roster by the Board. Except in the case of persons listed on the Roster as advocates before November 17, 1976, any person who did not divulge his or her advocacy at the time of listing or who becomes an advocate while listed on the Roster and who did not request to be placed on inactive status pursuant to § 1404.6 prior to becoming an advocate, shall be recommended for removal by the Board after the fact of advocacy is revealed.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definition of advocacy.</I> (i) An advocate is a person who represents employers, labor organizations, or individuals as an employee, attorney, or consultant, in matters of labor relations or employment relations, including but not limited to the subjects of union representation and recognition matters, collective bargaining, arbitration, unfair labor practices, equal employment opportunity, and other areas generally recognized as constituting labor or employment relations. The definition includes representatives of employers or employees in individual cases or controversies involving worker's compensation, occupational health or safety, minimum wage, or other labor standards matters.
</P>
<P>(ii) This definition of advocate also includes a person who is directly or indirectly associated with an advocate in a business or professional relationship as, for example, partners or employees of a law firm. Individuals engaged only in joint education or training or other non-adversarial activities will not be deemed to be advocates.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Removal from the Roster.</I> Removal from the Roster shall be by decision of the Director of FMCS based upon the recommendations of the Board or upon the Director's own initiative. The Board may recommend for removal, and the Director may remove, any arbitrator listed on the Roster for violation of this part or of the Code. FMCS will provide to the affected arbitrator written notice of removal from the Roster. Complaints about arbitrators should be in writing and sent to the Director of OA. The complaint should cite any specific section(s) of the Code or the FMCS rule the arbitrator has allegedly violated. The following criteria shall be a basis for the Board to recommend and/or the Director to initiate an arbitrator's removal from the Roster:
</P>
<P>(1) No longer meets the criteria for admission;
</P>
<P>(2) Has become an advocate as defined in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Has been repeatedly or flagrantly in violation of one or more provisions of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Has refused to make reasonable and periodic reports in a timely manner to FMCS, as required in subpart C of this part, concerning activities pertaining to arbitration;
</P>
<P>(5) Has been the subject of a complaint by a party who uses FMCS services, or engages in conduct inappropriate for an arbitrator which otherwise comes to the attention of FMCS, and the Board, after appropriate inquiry, concludes that cause for removal has been shown; or
</P>
<P>(6) Has been in an inactive status pursuant to § 1404.6 for longer than two years and has not paid the annual listing fee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedure for removal.</I> Prior to any recommendation by the Board to remove an arbitrator from the Roster, the Board shall conduct an inquiry into the facts of any such recommended removal. When the Board recommends removal of an arbitrator, it shall send the arbitrator a written notice. This notice shall inform the arbitrator of the Board's recommendation and the basis for it, and that he or she has 60 days from the date of such notice to submit a written response or information showing why the arbitrator should not be removed. When the Director removes an arbitrator from the Roster, he or she shall inform the arbitrator of this in writing, stating the effective date of the removal and the length of time of the removal if it is not indefinite. An arbitrator so removed may seek reinstatement to the Roster by making written application to the Director no earlier than two years after the effective date of his or her removal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Suspension.</I> The Director of OA may suspend, for a period not to exceed 180 days, any arbitrator listed on the Roster based on any of the criteria in paragraph (d) of this section. Arbitrators shall be promptly notified of a suspension. The arbitrator may appeal a suspension to the Board, which shall make a recommendation to the Director of FMCS. The decision of the Director of FMCS shall constitute the final action of the agency.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.6" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.6   Inactive status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An arbitrator on the Roster who continues to meet the criteria for listing on the Roster may request that he or she be put in an inactive status on a temporary basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Arbitrators whose schedules do not permit cases to be heard within six months of assignment must make themselves inactive temporarily until their caseload permits the earlier scheduling of cases.
</P>
<P>(c) An arbitrator can remain on inactive status without paying any annual listing fee for a period of two years. If an arbitrator is on inactive status for longer than two (2) years, the arbitrator will be removed from the Roster unless the arbitrator pays the annual listing fee.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.7" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.7   Listing fee.</HEAD>
<P>All arbitrators will be required to pay an annual fee for listing on the Roster, as set forth in the appendix to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Arbitration Services</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.8" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.8   Freedom of choice.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this part should be construed to limit the rights of parties who use FMCS arbitration services to jointly select any arbitrator or arbitration procedure acceptable to them. Once a request is made to OA, all parties are subject to the procedures contained in this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.9" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.9   Procedures for requesting arbitration lists and panels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OA has been delegated the responsibility for administering all requests for labor arbitration services. Requests must be made online at <I>fmcs.gov/services/arbitration/requesting-a-panel/,</I> or via email attaching a completed Form R-43 addressed to <I>arbitration@fmcs.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request, OA will refer a randomly selected panel of seven arbitrators to parties to an agreement to arbitrate or engage in fact-finding, or where labor arbitration or fact-finding may be provided by statute. A biographical sketch will be provided for each member of the panel. This sketch states the background, qualifications, experience, and all fees as furnished to OA by the arbitrator. The parties are encouraged to make joint requests. However, a panel request, whether joint or unilateral, will be honored. Requests for a panel of other than seven (7) names, for a direct appointment of an arbitrator, and/or for special qualifications or other service will not be honored unless jointly submitted or authorized by both parties pursuant to mutual agreement. The issuance of a panel—in response to either joint or unilateral request—is nothing more than a response to a request. Neither issuance of a panel nor appointment of an arbitrator signifies the adoption of any position by FMCS regarding the status of an arbitration agreement, arbitrability of any dispute, or the terms of the parties' contract.
</P>
<P>(c) FMCS has no power to:
</P>
<P>(1) Compel parties to appear before an arbitrator;
</P>
<P>(2) Enforce an agreement to arbitrate;
</P>
<P>(3) Compel parties to arbitrate any issue;
</P>
<P>(4) Influence, alter, or set aside decisions of arbitrators on the Roster; or
</P>
<P>(5) Compel, deny, or modify payment of compensation to an arbitrator.
</P>
<P>(d) OA may decline to submit a panel or to make an appointment of an arbitrator if the request submitted is overly burdensome or otherwise impracticable. OA, in such circumstances, may refer the parties to an FMCS mediator to help in the design of an alternative solution. OA may also decline to service any request from a party based on the party's prior non-payment of arbitrator fees or other behavior that constrains the spirit or operation of the arbitration process.
</P>
<P>(e) Panel requests that contain certain special requirements not found among the selections online, cannot be processed via the agency's internet system; instead, parties must submit the pdf version of the R-43 form via email to OA and specify the additional requirements agreed to by both parties.
</P>
<P>(f) As an alternative to a panel of arbitrators, OA will, upon written request, submit a list of arbitrators and their biographical sketches from a designated geographical area; the parties may then select and deal directly with an arbitrator of their choice, with no further involvement of FMCS with the parties or the arbitrator, and no assigned case number. The parties may also request FMCS to make a direct appointment of their selection. In such a situation, a case number will be assigned.
</P>
<P>(g) OA will charge a fee for all requests for lists, panels, and other major services. Payments for these services must be received with the request for services before the service is delivered and may be paid by either labor or management or both. A schedule of fees is listed in the appendix to this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.10" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.10   Arbitrability.</HEAD>
<P>OA will not decide the merits of a claim by either party that a dispute is not subject to arbitration.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.11" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.11   Nominations of arbitrators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All panels submitted to the parties by OA, and all letters issued by OA making a direct appointment, will have an assigned FMCS case number. All future communications with OA should refer to this case number.
</P>
<P>(b) OA will provide a randomly selected panel of arbitrators located in geographical areas in proximity of the hearing site, as specified in the request. The parties may jointly request special qualification of arbitrators experienced in certain issues or industries or that possess certain backgrounds, or a panel with no geographic restrictions within the U.S. OA has no obligation to put an individual on any given panel or on a minimum number of panels in any fixed period. If at any time both parties request that a name or names be included, or omitted, from a panel, such name or names will be included, or omitted, unless the number of names is excessive. These inclusions/exclusions may not discriminate against anyone because of age, race, color, gender, national origin, disability, genetic information, or religion.
</P>
<P>(c) If the parties do not agree on an arbitrator from the first panel, OA will furnish up to five additional panels to the parties upon joint request, or upon a unilateral request if authorized by the applicable collective bargaining agreement, and payment of additional fees.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.12" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.12   Selection by parties and appointment of arbitrators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After receiving a panel of names, the parties must notify OA of their selection of an arbitrator or of the decision not to proceed with arbitration. Upon notification of the selection of an arbitrator, OA will make a formal appointment of the arbitrator. The arbitrator, upon notification of appointment, shall communicate with the parties within 14 days to arrange for preliminary matters, such as the date and place of hearing. Should an arbitrator be notified directly by the parties that he or she has been selected, the arbitrator must promptly notify OA of the selection. The arbitrator must provide OA with the FMCS case number and other pertinent information for OA to make an appointment. A pattern of failure by an arbitrator to notify FMCS of a selection in an FMCS case may result in suspension or removal from the Roster. If the parties settle a case prior to the hearing, the parties must inform the arbitrator as well as OA. Consistent failure to follow these procedures may lead to a denial of future OA services.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the parties' collective bargaining agreement permits each party to separately notify OA of its ranked order of preference, or is silent on the manner of selecting arbitrators, FMCS will ask each party to advise OA of its order of preference by numbering each name on the panel and submitting the numbered list in writing to OA. Upon receiving the rank order from one party, OA will notify the other party that it has fourteen (14) days in which to submit its selections. Where both parties respond, the name that has the lowest combined number will be appointed. If the other party fails to respond, the first party's choice will be honored.
</P>
<P>(c) OA will make a direct appointment of an arbitrator only upon joint request or as otherwise provided by this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.13" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.13   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>All proceedings conducted by the arbitrators shall conform to the contractual obligations of the parties, and to the Code. The arbitrator shall comply with § 1404.4(b). The conduct of the arbitration proceeding is under the arbitrator's jurisdiction and control, and the arbitrator's decision shall be based upon the evidence and testimony presented at the hearing or otherwise incorporated in the record of the proceeding. The arbitrator may, unless prohibited by law, proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present or to obtain a postponement. An award rendered in an ex parte proceeding of this nature must be based upon evidence presented to the arbitrator.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.14" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.14   Decision and award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Arbitrators shall make awards no later than 60 days from the date of the closing of the record, unless otherwise agreed upon by the parties or specified by the collective bargaining agreement or law. However, failure to meet the 60-day deadline will not invalidate the process or award. A failure to render timely awards reflects upon the performance of an arbitrator and may lead to removal from the FMCS Roster.
</P>
<P>(b) The parties should inform OA whenever a decision is delayed. The arbitrator shall promptly notify OA if and when the arbitrator:
</P>
<P>(1) Cannot schedule or hear a case, and/or render a decision promptly and in accordance with time limits established in this part, or
</P>
<P>(2) Learns a dispute has been settled by the parties prior to the decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 days after an award and/or final invoice has been submitted to the parties, the arbitrator shall submit an online Arbitrator's Report and Fee Statement (Form R-19) to OA showing a breakdown of the fee and expense charges.
</P>
<P>(d) While FMCS encourages the publication of arbitration awards, arbitrators must not publicize awards without the express consent of the parties in conformance with the Code.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.15" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.15   Fees and charges of arbitrators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees to parties.</I> Prior to appointment, the parties should be aware of all significant aspects of the bases for an arbitrator's fees and expenses. Each arbitrator's biographical sketch shall include a statement of the bases for the arbitrator's fees and expenses, which shall conform to this part and the Code. The parties and the arbitrator shall be bound by the arbitrator's statement of the bases for fees and expenses in the biographical sketch for two years from the date of appointment unless they mutually agree otherwise in writing. Arbitrators listed on the Roster may change the bases for their fees and expenses for future appointments if they provide them in writing to OA at least 30 days in advance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Two or more addresses.</I> Arbitrators with more than one business address must bill the parties for expenses from the least expensive business address to the hearing site.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional administrative fee.</I> In cases involving unusual amounts of time and expense relative to the pre-hearing and post-hearing administration of a particular case, the arbitrator may charge an administrative fee. This fee shall be disclosed to the parties as soon as it is foreseeable by the arbitrator.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fee disputes.</I> When a party believes the arbitrator has not followed the requirements of this Part, it should promptly notify OA, which may bring any complaint concerning the fees charged by an arbitrator to the attention of the Board for consideration. Complaints by arbitrators concerning non-payment of fees by a party may lead to the denial of services or other actions by OA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.16" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.16   Reports and biographical sketches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Arbitrators listed on the Roster shall execute and return all documents, forms and reports required by OA and be responsible for updating their account and bio information online, including changes of address, telephone number, and availability. They must also furnish to OA the contact information for a person they know well whom OA may contact if unable to reach the arbitrator, and who has agreed to contact OA if the arbitrator has become incapacitated or deceased. Arbitrators must contact OA directly when they engage, or are accused of engaging, in any business or other connection or relationship involving labor or employment relations and/or which creates or gives the appearance of advocacy as defined in § 1404.5(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) OA reserves the right to decide and approve the format and content of biographical sketches.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Expedited Arbitration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.17" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.17   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>In an effort to reduce the time and expense of some grievance arbitrations, FMCS offers expedited procedures where the parties agree on a streamlined process with short deadlines. Parties may also agree on their own procedures if it is practicable for FMCS.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.18" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.18   Procedures for requesting expedited panels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With the exception of the specific changes noted in this Subpart, all FMCS rules and regulations governing its arbitration services shall apply to Expedited Arbitration.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a joint Request for Arbitration Panel (Form R-43) indicating that both parties desire expedited services, OA will refer a panel of arbitrators which shall be valid for up to 30 days. Only one panel will be submitted per case. If the parties are unable to mutually agree upon an arbitrator or if prioritized selections are not received from both parties within 30 days, OA will make a direct appointment of an arbitrator not on the original panel.
</P>
<P>(c) If the parties mutually select an arbitrator, but the arbitrator is not available, the parties may select a second name from the same panel or OA will make a direct appointment of another arbitrator not listed on the original panel.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1404.19" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.5.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1404.19   Arbitration process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once notified of the expedited case appointment by OA, the arbitrator must contact the parties within seven (7) calendar days.
</P>
<P>(b) The parties and the arbitrator must attempt to schedule a hearing within 30 days of the appointment date.
</P>
<P>(c) Absent mutual agreement, all hearings will be concluded within one day. No transcripts of the proceedings will be made and the filing of post-hearing briefs will not be allowed.
</P>
<P>(d) All awards must be completed within seven (7) working days from the hearing. These awards are expected to be brief and concise, and to not require extensive written opinion or research time.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1405" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1405—PART-TIME EMPLOYMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 95-437, Federal Employees Part-time Career Employment Act of 1978.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 15779, Apr. 13, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations implement Public Law 95-437, the Federal Employees Part-time Career Employment Act of 1978, by establishing a continuing program in the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (FMCS) to provide career part-time employment opportunities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of FMCS to provide career part-time employment opportunities in positions through GS-16 (or equivalent) subject to agency resources and mission requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.3   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>Part-time career employment means regularly scheduled work of from 16 to 32 hours per week performed by employees in competitive or excepted appointments in tenure groups I or II.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.4   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations cover permanent positions which are deemed by management to be appropriately structured on a part-time basis. The regulations do not apply to positions at GS-16 (or equivalent) and above.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Part-time Employment Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.6" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.6   Program coordination.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of Personnel is designated the FMCS Part-time Employment Coordinator with responsibility for:
</P>
<P>(a) Consulting in the part-time employment program with the Director of Equal Employment Opportunity, Federal Women's Program Coordinator, Handicapped Program Coordinator, representatives of employee unions, and other interested parties;
</P>
<P>(b) Responding to requests for advice and assistance on part-time employment within the agency;
</P>
<P>(c) Maintaining liaison with groups interested in promoting part-time employment opportunities;
</P>
<P>(d) Monitoring the agency's part-time employment efforts; and preparing reports on part-time employment for transmittal to OPM and the Congress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.7" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.7   Goals and timetables.</HEAD>
<P>On an annual basis, as part of the manpower and budget process, management will set goals for establishing part-time positions to part-time along with a timetable setting forth interim and final deadlines for achieving the goals. Decisions on part-time employment will be based on such factors as agency mission, occupational mix, workload fluctuations, affirmative actions, geographic dispersion, effect on providing services to the public, and employee interest in part-time employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.8" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.8   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>FMCS will report as required by regulations to the Office of Personnel Management on the part-time employment program. The program will be reviewed through internal personnel management evaluations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.9" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.9   Part-time employment practices.</HEAD>
<P>FMCS will review positions which become vacant for the feasibility of utilizing part-time career appointments. Part-time positions will be advertised in vacancy announcements. Agency employees may request and receive consideration to switch from full-time to part-time schedules. The request should be addressed through the supervisor to the Director of Personnel listing any and all reasons for the request. The Director of Personnel, with input from all affected management officials, will decide whether or not to grant the request. Any employee requesting a change from full-time to part-time employment will be advised of effects on pay and fringe benefits by the Director of Personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.10" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.10   Effect on employment ceilings.</HEAD>
<P>Effective October 1, 1980, part-time employees will be counted on the basis of the fractional part of the 40-hour week actually worked. For example two employees each working twenty hours a week will count as one employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1405.11" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.6.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1405.11   Effect on employee benefits.</HEAD>
<P>Career part-time employees are entitled to coverage under the Federal Employees Group Life Insurance and Federal Employees Health Benefits Programs. The Government contribution for health insurance of eligible part-time employees will be prorated on the basis of the fraction of a full-time schedule worked. 
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1406" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1406—FMCS TERMS OF SERVICE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 172; 29 U.S.C. 173 <I>et seq.;</I> and 5 U.S.C. 574.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 76659, Nov. 7, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1406.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1406.1   General terms of service.</HEAD>
<P>When Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (FMCS) services are used, the recipients of the services have agreed to abide by FMCS's general terms of service as well as any other terms of service provided by FMCS.
</P>
<P>(a) The recipients of a service shall hold FMCS and any FMCS neutrals harmless of any claim arising from the delivery of that FMCS service.
</P>
<P>(b) FMCS will determine the date, time, place, and manner (virtual, in-person, or hybrid) of services provided in accordance with any applicable statutes, regulations, and agreements.
</P>
<P>(c) FMCS may convene the parties for a threatened or actual work stoppage whenever in its judgment such dispute threatens to cause a substantial interruption of commerce.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person shadowing an FMCS neutral agrees to be bound by the same confidentiality standards as the FMCS neutral and such confidentiality standards will be honored by the parties.
</P>
<P>(e) FMCS recognizes the importance of mediator confidentiality to further its mission. Therefore, FMCS will not produce any materials related to a mediation other than the date, parties, location, and mediator, unless required by law. FMCS will not produce materials related to a mediation, materials exchanged in a mediation or facilitation, information related to non-plenary sessions of a facilitation, mediator or facilitator notes, and any internal communications with the mediator of facilitator, unless required by law.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this section shall be construed so as to negate or modify the FMCS's Confidential Commercial Information (CCI) regulation (29 CFR 1401.26).
</P>
<P>(g) FMCS will make a copy of these terms available to all parties upon request.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1406.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1406.2   Terms of service for mediation, facilitation, and other alternative dispute resolution services.</HEAD>
<P>The following Terms of Service additionally apply when the FMCS service is a mediation, facilitation, training, and other alternative dispute resolution service.
</P>
<P>(a) These services are voluntary processes that may be terminated at any time unless otherwise provided by statute or by agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) The neutral has no authority to compel resolution.
</P>
<P>(c) These services are confidential to the extent allowed by law. The obligations imposed by these terms and conditions are in addition to and do not supersede any obligations imposed by applicable state or Federal laws regarding mediation confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(d) The parties agree that they will not record, transcribe, save, or otherwise capture any audio, video, files, documents, chat texts, or any other data that they would not have access to but for the service being provided, unless agreed to by all parties and with prior written approval of FMCS, or as otherwise required by law. They further agree to notify the neutral immediately if recordings, saves or other captures of data occur, to ensure that no further distribution or transfer occurs, and to immediately and permanently delete them.
</P>
<P>(e) Non-parties may attend only with the agreement of the parties and the neutral unless otherwise required by law and are bound by these terms of service.
</P>
<P>(f) If a party inadvertently gains access to any confidential discussions involving another party, the party with inadvertent access shall immediately disclose their presence and exit from the confidential discussions. Any confidential information inadvertently disclosed may not be used by the party with inadvertent access, even within the confines of the alternative dispute resolution session.
</P>
<P>(g) The parties agree not to subpoena or compel the neutral to testify or produce any documents provided by a party in any administrative or judicial proceeding. The neutral will not voluntarily testify or produce documents on behalf of a party in any administrative or judicial proceeding unless otherwise required by law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1406.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1406.3   Virtual services—additional terms of service.</HEAD>
<P>The following Terms of Service additionally apply when the FMCS service is provided virtually.
</P>
<P>(a) Parties may not provide meeting access information to non-parties without permission from the neutral unless the session is open to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) The neutral and all parties must be provided notice of all attendees before or at the time of attendance unless the session is open to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) Parties must ensure the integrity of technology used in virtual meetings. If an attendee is aware of any security breach, that attendee will inform the neutral immediately.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1406.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1406.4   Grievance mediation and Federal sector inter-agency agreement mediation —additional terms of service.</HEAD>
<P>The following Terms of Service additionally apply when the FMCS service is a grievance mediation or Federal sector inter-agency agreement mediation.
</P>
<P>(a) The grievant or complainant is entitled to be present at the mediation.
</P>
<P>(b) The parties agree not to disclose to any non-party oral or written communications made during the mediation process, including settlement terms, proposals, offers, or other statements, whether made privately to the neutral or when all parties are present.
</P>
<P>(c) Evidence that is otherwise admissible or discoverable will not be rendered inadmissible or non-discoverable as a result of its use in the mediation proceedings.
</P>
<P>(d) The neutral has no authority to compel agreement or other resolution of the dispute and will issue no written recommendations or conclusions. At the request of the parties, or on the initiative of the neutral, the neutral may provide an oral recommendation or opinion to resolve the dispute. In that circumstance, the parties may jointly decide to implement that recommendation or opinion but neither party is obligated to do so.
</P>
<P>(e) (For Federal sector inter-agency agreement mediation, if applicable) Any communications between the Agency or Organizational Program/or Alternative Dispute Resolution Coordinator and the neutral(s) and/or the parties are considered dispute resolution communications with a neutral and will be kept confidential.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1406.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1406.5   Training and outreach presentations.</HEAD>
<P>The following Terms of Service additionally apply when the FMCS service is a training or outreach presentation.
</P>
<P>(a) The parties agree that they will not record any FMCS training or outreach presentation (whether delivered in-person or virtually) without the knowledge and consent of the parties and prior written approval of FMCS.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1410" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1410—PRIVACY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Privacy Act 1974, Pub. L. 93-579, 88 Stat. 1896 (5 U.S.C. 552a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 47418, Oct. 8, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1410.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to set forth rules to inform the public about information maintained by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service about individuals, to inform those individuals how they may gain access to and correct or amend information about themselves, and to exempt disclosure of identity of confidential sources of certain records. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, unless otherwise required by the context— 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maintain</I> means maintain, collect, use or disseminate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service including, but not limited to, his education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history, that contains his name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print, or a photograph. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying particular assigned to the individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.3   Individual access requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals who desire to know whether the agency maintains a system of records containing records pertaining to him may submit a written request to the Director of Administration, Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, Washington, DC 20427. The request must include the name and address of the requestor. The Director of Administration, or his designated representative, will advise the requestor in writing within 10 working days whether the records are so maintained and the general category of records maintained within the system. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any individual who desires to inspect or receive copies of any record maintained within the system concerning him shall submit a written request to the Director of Administration, Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, Washington, DC 20427, reasonably identifying the records sought to be inspected or copied. 
</P>
<P>(c) The individual seeking access to his record may also have another person accompanying him during his review of the records. If the requestor desires another person to accompany him during the inspection, the requestor must sign a statement, to be furnished to the Service representative at the time of the inspection authorizing such other person to accompany him. Except as required under the Freedom of Information Act, permitted as a routine use as published in the agency's annual notice, or for internal agency use, disclosure of records will only be made to the individual to whom the record pertains, unless written consent is obtained from that individual. The Director of Administration will verify the signature of the individual requesting or consenting to the disclosure of a record prior to the disclosure thereof to any other person by a comparison of signatures, if the request or consent is not executed within the presence of a designated Service representative. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Director of Administration or his designated representative will advise the requestor in writing within 10 working days of receipt of the request whether, to what extent, and approximately when and where access shall be granted. Within 30 days of receipt of the request, the records will be made available for review at the FMCS National Office in Washington, DC, or one of the Regional Offices. The following is a list of the Regional Office locations:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>1. <I>Eastern Region:</I>
</P>
<P>Address: Jacob K. Javits Federal Building, 26 Federal Plaza, Room 2937, New York, NY 10278.
</P>
<P>Consists of: Maine, New Hampshire, Vermont, Connecticut, Rhode Island, Massachusetts, New York, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Pennsylvania, Delaware, New Jersey, Garrett and Alleghany Counties of Maryland; and Brooke and Hancock Counties of West Virginia.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Central Region:</I>
</P>
<P>Address: Insurance Exchange Building, Room 1641, 175 W. Jackson Street, Chicago, IL 60604.
</P>
<P>Consist of: Illinois (except counties listed under the Southern Region); Indiana (except counties listed under Southern Region); Wisconsin, Minnesota, North Dakota, South Dakota, Michigan, and Ohio (except counties listed under the Southern Region).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Southern Region:</I>
</P>
<P>Address: Suite 400, 1422 W. Peachtree St., NW., Atlanta, GA 30309.
</P>
<P>Consists of: Virginia, Maryland (except counties listed under the Eastern Region); Tennessee; North Carolina; South Carolina; Georgia; Alabama; Florida; Mississippi; Louisiana; Arkansas; Kentucky; Texas (except for Hudspeth and El Paso counties); Oklahoma; Missouri (except for those counties listed for the Western Region); Illinois (in counties of Calhoun, Greene, Jersey, McCoupin, Montgomery, Fayette, Bond, Madison, St. Clair, Monroe, Clinton, Washington, Marion, White, Hamilton, Wayne, Edwards, Wabash, Lawrence, Richland, Clay, Effingham, Jasper, and Crawford); Indiana (the counties of Knox, Daviess, Martin, Orange, Washington, Clark, Floyd, Harrison, Crawford, Perry, Spencer, DuBois, Pike, Gibson, Posey, Vanderburgh, and Warrick); Ohio (the counties of Butler, Hamilton, Warren, Clermont, Brown, Highland, Clinton, Ross, Pike, Adams, Scioto, Lawrence, Ballia, Jackson, Vinton, Hocking, Athens, and Meigs); Kansas (the counties of Bourbon, Crawford, Cherokee, and Ottawa); West Virginia (except counties listed under the Central Region); and the Canal Zone.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Western Region:</I>
</P>
<P>Address: Francisco Bay Building, Suite 235, 50 Francisco Street, San Francisco, CA 94133.
</P>
<P>Consists of: California; Nevada; Arizona; New Mexico; El Paso and Hudspeth Counties (only) in Texas; Hawaii; Guam; Alaska; Washington; Oregon; Colorado; Utah; Wyoming; Montana; Idaho; Nebraska; Kansas; Iowa; Missouri (the counties of Atchinson, Nodaway, Worth, Harrison, Mercer, Putnam, Schuyler, Scotland, Knox, Adair, Sullivan, Grundy, Daviess, Gentry, DeKalb, Andrew, Holt, Buchanan, Clinton, Caldwell, Livingston, Linn, Macon, Shelby, Randolph, Chariton, Carrol, Ray, Clay, Platte, Jackson, Lafayette, Saline, Howard, Boon, Cooper, Pettis, Johnson, Cass, Bates, Henry, St. Clair, Benton, and Morgan); American Somoa; and Wake Island.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 47418, Oct. 8, 1975, as amended at 47 FR 10530, Mar. 11, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.4   Requirements for identification of individuals making requests.</HEAD>
<P>Satisfactory identification (i.e., employ identification number, current address, and verification of signature) must be provided to FMCS prior to review of the record. The requestor will be provided the opportunity to review the records during normal business hours. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.5   Special procedures: Medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If medical records are requested for inspection which, in the opinion of the Director of Administration, may be harmful to the requestor if personally inspected by him, such records will be furnished only to a licensed physician, designated to receive such records by the requestor. Prior to such disclosure, the requestor must furnish a signed written authorization to the Service to make such disclosure and the physician must furnish a written request to the Director of Administration for the physician's receipt of such records. 
</P>
<P>(b) Verification of the requestor's signature will be accomplished by a comparison of signatures if such authorization is not executed within the presence of a Service representative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.6" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.6   Requests for correction or amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the individual disagrees with the information in the record, he may request that the record be amended by addition or deletion. Such a request must be in writing and directed to the Director of Administration, Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, Washington, DC, 20427. The request must also specifically outline the amendment sought. The Director of Administration or his designated representative will acknowledge receipt of the request within 10 working days from the date of receipt of such request. Under normal circumstances, not later than 30 days after receipt of the request for amendments, the Director of Administration will either: 
</P>
<P>(1) Amend the record and notify the requestor in a written letter of determination to what extent the record is amended; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If the amendment or correction is denied in whole or in part, notify the requestor in a written letter of determination the reason for denial and the requestor's right to request review by the Deputy National Director. 
</P>
<P>(b) Routine requests of arbitrators maintained on the Service's roster of arbitrators to amend records for such matters as address, experience, fees charged, may be made in writing to the Director of Arbitration Services, Washington, DC, 20427. If such routine requests are not granted or involve other types of amendments, then the procedure to be followed is that which includes a request in writing to the Director of Administration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.7" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.7   Agency review of refusal to amend a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requestor may appeal any determination of the Director of Administration not to amend a record by submitting a written request for review of refusal to amend a record to the Deputy National Director, Washington, DC 20427. Such a request shall indicate the specific corrections or amendments sought. Not later than 30 days from receipt of a request for review (unless such period is extended by the National Director for good cause shown), the Deputy National Director will complete such a review and make a final determination on the request, and shall advise the requestor in a written letter of determination whether, and to what extent the correction or amendment will be made. If the correction or amendment is denied, in whole or in part, the letter of determination will specify the reasons for such denial. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the Deputy National Director makes a final determination not to amend the record, the individual may provide to the Service a concise written statement explaining the reasons for disagreement with the refusal. 
</P>
<P>(c) In addition, the individual may file a civil action in the U.S. District Court to seek an order compelling the Service to amend the record as requested. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.8" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.8   Notation of dispute.</HEAD>
<P>After an individual has filed a statement of disagreement as described in § 1410.7(b), any disclosure of the contested records must contain a notation of the dispute. In addition, a copy of the individual's statement will be provided to the person or agency to whom the disputed record is disclosed. The Service may also, but it is not required to, provide a statement reflecting the agency's reasons for not making the requested amendments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.9" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.9   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>Upon request, the Service will provide a photostatic copy of the records to the individual to whom they pertain. There will be a charge of $.10 per page. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.10" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.10   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from the Service under false pretenses shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.11" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.11   Standards of review.</HEAD>
<P>Upon a request for inspection of records or a determination on a request for amendment, the Director of Administration, his designated representative, or the Deputy National Director will review the pertinent records and discard any material in them that is not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Relevant and necessary to accomplish a statutory purpose or a purpose not authorized by executive order. 
</P>
<P>(b) Accurate, relevant, timely, and complete, to assure fairness to the individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.12" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.8.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.12   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>With regard to Agency Internal Personnel Records and Arbitrator Personal Data Files, separately described in the system notices, such records will be exempted from section (d) of the Act as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Investigatory material maintained solely for the purposes of determining an individual's qualification, eligibility, or suitability for employment in the Federal civilian service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information, but only to the extent that disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of the source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In order to obtain accurate information pertaining to employee or arbitrator eligibility, the nondisclosure of the identity of such a confidential source is essential. 


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1420" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1420—FEDERAL MEDIATION AND CONCILIATION SERVICE—ASSISTANCE IN THE HEALTH CARE INDUSTRY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 8(d), 201, 203, 204, and 213 of the Labor Management Relations Act, as amended in 1974 (29 U.S.C. 158(d), 171, 173, 174 and 183).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 42683, July 20, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1420.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1420.1   Functions of the Service in health care industry bargaining under the Labor-Management Relations Act, as amended (hereinafter “the Act”).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Dispute mediation.</I> Whenever a collective bargaining dispute involves employees of a health care institution, either party to such collective bargaining must give certain statutory notices to the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (hereinafter “the Service”) before resorting to strike or lockout and before terminating or modifying any existing collective bargaining agreement. Thereafter, the Service will promptly communicate with the parties and use its best efforts, by mediation and conciliation, to bring them to agreement. The parties shall participate fully and promptly in such meetings as may be called by the Service for the purpose of aiding in a settlement of the dispute. (29 U.S.C. 158(d) and 158(g).). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Boards of inquiry.</I> If, in the opinion of the Director of the Service a threatened or actual strike or lockout affecting a health care institution will substantially interrupt the delivery of health care in the locality concerned, the Director may establish within certain statutory time periods an impartial Board of Inquiry. The Board of Inquiry will investigate the issues involved in the dispute and make a written report, containing the findings of fact and the Board's non-binding recommendations for settling the dispute, to the parties within 15 days after the establishment of such a Board. (29 U.S.C. 183.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1420.2-1420.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1420.2-1420.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1420.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.9.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1420.5   Optional input of parties to Board of Inquiry selection.</HEAD>
<P>The Act gives the Director of the Service the authority to select the individual(s) who will serve as the Board of Inquiry if the Director decides to establish a Board of Inquiry in a particular health care industry bargaining dispute (29 U.S.C. 183). If the parties to collective bargaining involving a health care institution(s) desire to have some input to the Service's selection of an individual(s) to serve as a Board of Inquiry (hereinafter “BoI”), they may jointly exercise the following optional procedure: 
</P>
<P>(a) At any time at least 90 days prior to the expiration date of a collective bargaining agreement in a contract renewal dispute, or at any time prior to the notice required under clause (B) of section 8(d) of the Act (29 U.S.C. 158(d)) in an initial contract dispute, the employer(s) and the union(s) in the dispute may jointly submit to the Service a list of arbitrators or other impartial individuals who would be acceptable BoI members both to the employer(s) and to the union(s). Such list submission must identify the dispute(s) involved and must include addresses and telephone numbers of the individuals listed and any information available to the parties as to current and past employment of the individuals listed. The parties may jointly rank the individuals in order of preference if they desire to do so. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Service will make every effort to select any BoI that might be appointed from that jointly submitted list. However, the Service cannot promise that it will select a BoI from such list. The chances of the Service finding one or more individuals on such list available to serve as the BoI will be increased if the list contains a sufficiently large number of names and if it is submitted at as early a date as possible. Nevertheless, the parties can even preselect and submit jointly to the Service one specific individual if that individual agrees to be available for the particular BoI time period. Again the Service will not be bound to appoint that individual, but will be receptive to such a submission by the parties. 
</P>
<P>(c) The jointly submitted list may be worked out and agreed to by (1) A particular set of parties in contemplation of a particular upcoming negotiation dispute between them, or (2) a particular set of parties for use in all future disputes between that set of parties, or (3) a group of various health care institutions and unions in a certain community or geographic area for use in all disputes between any two or more of those parties.
</P>
<P>(d) Submission or receipt of any such list will not in any way constitute an admission of the appropriateness of appointment of a BoI nor an expression of the desirability of a BoI by any party or by the Service. 
</P>
<P>(e) This joint submission procedure is a purely optional one to provide the parties with an opportunity to have input into the selection of a BoI if they so desire. 
</P>
<P>(f) Such jointly submitted lists should be sent jointly by the employer(s) and the union(s) to the appropriate regional office of the Service. The regional offices of the Service are as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>1. <I>Eastern Region:</I>
</P>
<P>Address: Jacob K. Javits Federal Building, 26 Federal Plaza, Room 2937, New York, NY 10278.
</P>
<P>Consists of: Maine, New Hampshire, Vermont, Connecticut, Rhode Island, Massachusetts, New York, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Pennsylvania, Delaware, New Jersey, Garrett and Alleghany Counties of Maryland; and Brooke and Hancock Counties of West Virginia.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Central Region:</I>
</P>
<P>Address: Insurance Exchange Building, Room 1641, 175 W. Jackson Street, Chicago, IL 60604.
</P>
<P>Consist of: Illinois (except counties listed under the Southern Region); Indiana (except counties listed under Southern Region); Wisconsin, Minnesota, North Dakota, South Dakota, Michigan, and Ohio (except counties listed under the Southern Region).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Southern Region:</I>
</P>
<P>Address: Suite 400, 1422 W. Peachtree St., NW., Atlanta, GA 30309.
</P>
<P>Consists of: Virginia, Maryland (except counties listed under the Eastern Region); Tennessee; North Carolina; South Carolina; Georgia; Alabama; Florida; Mississippi; Louisiana; Arkansas; Kentucky; Texas (except for Hudspeth and El Paso counties); Oklahoma; Missouri (except for those counties listed for the Western Region); Illinois (in counties of Calhoun, Greene, Jersey, McCoupin, Montgomery, Fayette, Bond, Madison, St. Clair, Monroe, Clinton, Washington, Marion, White, Hamilton, Wayne, Edwards, Wabash, Lawrence, Richland, Clay, Effingham, Jasper, and Crawford); Indiana (the counties of Knox, Daviess, Martin, Orange, Washington, Clark, Floyd, Harrison, Crawford, Perry, Spencer, DuBois, Pike, Gibson, Posey, Vanderburgh, and Warrick); Ohio (the counties of Butler, Hamilton, Warren, Clermont, Brown, Highland, Clinton, Ross, Pike, Adams, Scioto, Lawrence, Ballia, Jackson, Vinton, Hocking, Athens, and Meigs); Kansas (the counties of Bourbon, Crawford, Cherokee, and Ottawa); West Virginia (except counties listed under the Central Region); and the Canal Zone.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Western Region:</I>
</P>
<P>Address: Francisco Bay Building, Suite 235, 50 Francisco Street, San Francisco, CA 94133.
</P>
<P>Consists of: California; Nevada; Arizona; New Mexico; El Paso and Hudspeth Counties (only) in Texas; Hawaii; Guam; Alaska; Washington; Oregon; Colorado; Utah; Wyoming; Montana; Idaho; Nebraska; Kansas; Iowa; Missouri (the counties of Atchinson, Nodaway, Worth, Harrison, Mercer, Putnam, Schuyler, Scotland, Knox, Adair, Sullivan, Grundy, Daviess, Gentry, DeKalb, Andrew, Holt, Buchanan, Clinton, Caldwell, Livingston, Linn, Macon, Shelby, Randolph, Chariton, Carrol, Ray, Clay, Platte, Jackson, Lafayette, Saline, Howard, Boon, Cooper, Pettis, Johnson, Cass, Bates, Henry, St. Clair, Benton, and Morgan); American Somoa; and Wake Island.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 42683, July 20, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 10530, Mar. 11, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1420.6-1420.7" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.9.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1420.6-1420.7   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1420.8" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.9.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1420.8   FMCS deferral to parties' own private factfinding procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Service will defer to the parties' own privately agreed to factfinding procedure and decline to appoint a Board of Inquiry (BoI) as long as the parties' own procedure meets certain conditions so as to satisfy the Service's responsibilities under the Act. The Service will decline to appoint a BoI and leave the selection and appointment of a factfinder to the parties to a dispute if both the parties have agreed in writing to their own factfinding procedure which meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The factfinding procedure must be invoked automatically at a specified time (for example, at contract expiration if no agreement is reached).
</P>
<P>(2) It must provide a fixed and determinate method for selecting the impartial factfinder(s).
</P>
<P>(3) It must provide that there can be no strike or lockout and no changes in conditions of employment (except by mutual agreement) prior to or during the factfinding procedure and for a period of at least seven days after the factfinding is completed.
</P>
<P>(4) It must provide that the factfinder(s) will make a written report to the parties, containing the findings of fact and the recommendations of the factfinder(s) for settling the dispute, a copy of which is sent to the Service. The parties to a dispute who have agreed to such a factfinding procedure should jointly submit a copy of such agreed upon procedure to the appropriate regional office of the Service at as early a date as possible, but in any event prior to the appointment of a BoI by the Service. See § 1420.5(f) for the addresses of the regional offices.
</P>
<P>(b) Since the Service does not appoint the factfinder under paragraph (a) of this section, the Service cannot pay for such factfinder. In this respect, such deferral by the Service to the parties' own factfinding procedure is different from the use of stipulation agreements between the parties which give to the Service the authority to select and appoint a factfinder at a later date than the date by which a BoI would have to be appointed under the Act. Under such stipulation agreements by which the parties give the Service authority to appoint a factfinder at a later date, the Service can pay for the factfinder. However, in the deferral to the parties' own factfinding procedure, the parties choose their own factfinder and they pay for the factfinder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1420.9" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.9.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1420.9   FMCS deferral to parties' own private interest arbitration procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Service will defer to the parties' own privately agreed to interest arbitration procedure and decline to appoint a Board of Inquiry (BoI) as long as the parties' own procedure meets certain conditions so as to satisfy the Service's responsibilities under the Act. The Service will decline to appoint BoI if the parties to a dispute have agreed in writing to their own interest arbitration procedure which meets the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The interest arbitration procedure must provide that there can be no strike or lockout and no changes in conditions of employment (except by mutual agreement) during the contract negotiation covered by the interest arbitration procedure and the period of any subsequent interest arbitration proceedings.
</P>
<P>(2) It must provide that the award of the arbitrator(s) under the interest arbitration procedure is final and binding on both parties.
</P>
<P>(3) It must provide a fixed and determinate method for selecting the impartial interest arbitrator(s).
</P>
<P>(4) The interest arbitration procedure must provide for a written award by the interest arbitrator(s).
</P>
<P>(b) The parties to a dispute who have agreed to such an interest arbitration procedure should jointly submit a copy of their agreed upon procedure to the appropriate regional office of the Service at as early a date as possible, but in any event prior to the appointment of BoI by the Service. See § 1420.5(f) for the addresses of regional offices.
</P>
<FP>These new regulations are a part of the Service's overall approach to implementing the health care amendments of 1974 in a manner consistent with the Congressional intent of promoting peaceful settlements of labor disputes at our vital health care facilities. The Service will work with the parties in every way possible to be flexible and to tailor its approach so as to accommodate the needs of the parties in the interest of settling the dispute. This was the motivating principle behind these new regulations which permit input by the parties to the Board of Inquiry selection and allow the parties to set up their own factfinding or arbitration procedures in lieu of the Board of Inquiry procedure. We encourage the parties, both unions and management, to take advantage of these and other options and to work with the Service to tailor their approach and procedures to fit the needs of their bargaining situations. 


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1425" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1425—MEDIATION ASSISTANCE IN THE FEDERAL SERVICE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 581(8), 7119, 7134.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 62798, Sept. 22, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1425.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1425.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>The Service</I> means Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Party</I> or <I>Parties</I> means (1) any appropriate activity, facility, geographical subdivision, or combination thereof, of an agency as that term is defined in 5 U.S.C. 7103(3), or (2) a labor organization as that term is defined in 5 U.S.C. 7103(4). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Third-party mediation assistance</I> means mediation by persons other than FMCS commissioners. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Provide its services</I> means to make the services and facilities of the Service available either on its own motion or upon the special request of one or both of the parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1425.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1425.2   Notice to the Service of agreement negotiations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order that the Service may provide assistance to the parties, the party initiating negotiations shall file a notice with the FMCS Notice Processing Unit, 2100 K Street, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20427, at least 30 days prior to the expiration or modification date of an existing agreement, or 30 days prior to the reopener date of an existing agreement. In the case of an initial agreement the notice shall be filed within 30 days after commencing negotiations.
</P>
<P>(b) Parties engaging in mid-term or impact and/or implementation bargaining are encouraged to send a notice to FMCS if assistance is desired. Such notice may be sent by either party or may be submitted jointly. In regard to such notices a brief listing should be general in nature e.g., smoking policies, or Alternative Work Schedules (AWS).
</P>
<P>(c) Parties requesting grievance mediation must send a request signed by both the union and the agency involved. Receipt of such request does not commit FMCS to provide its services. FMCS has the discretion to determine whether or not to perform grievance mediation, as such service may not be appropriate in all cases.
</P>
<P>(d) The guidelines for FMCS grievance mediation are:
</P>
<P>(1) The parties shall submit a joint request, signed by both parties requesting FMCS assistance. The parties agree that grievance mediation is a supplement to, and not a substitute for, the steps of the contractual grievance procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) The grievant is entitled to be present at the grievance mediation conference.
</P>
<P>(3) Any times limits in the parties labor agreement must be waived to permit the grievance to proceed to arbitration should mediation be unsuccessful.
</P>
<P>(4) Proceedings before the mediator will be informal and rules of evidence do not apply. No record, stenographic or tape recordings of the meetings will be made. The mediators notes are confidential and content shall not be revealed.
</P>
<P>(5) The mediator shall conduct the mediation conference utilizing all of the customary techniques associated with mediation including the use of separate caucuses.
</P>
<P>(6) The mediator had no authority to compel resolution of the grievance.
</P>
<P>(7) In the event that no settlement is reached during the mediation conference, the mediator may provide the parties either in separate or joint session with an oral advisory opinion.
</P>
<P>(8) If either party does not accept an advisory opinion, the matter may then proceed to arbitration in the manner form provided in their collective bargaining agreement. Such arbitration hearings will be held as if the grievance mediation effort had not taken place. Nothing said or done by the parties or the mediator during the grievance mediation session can be used during arbitration proceedings.
</P>
<P>(9) When the parties choose the FMCS grievance mediation procedure, they have agreed to abide by these guidelines established by FMCS, and it is understood that the parties and the grievant shall hold FMCS and the mediator appointed by the Service to conduct the mediation conference harmless of any claim of damages arising from the mediation process.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja95.000.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Instructions
</HD1>
<P>Complete this form, please follow these instructions.
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>1.</I> Check the block and give the date if this is for an existing agreement or reopener. The FLRA Certification number should be provided if available. If not known, please leave this item blank. Absence of this number will not impede processing of the Form.
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>2.</I> If other <I>assistance</I> in bargaining is requested please specify: e.g.; impact and implementation bargaining (I&amp;I) and/or mid-term bargaining and provide a brief listing of issues, e.g. Smoking, Alternative Work Schedules (AWS), ground rules, office moves, or if desired, add attached list. This is only if such issues are known at time of filing.
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>3.</I> Please specify the issues to be considered for grievance mediation. Please refer to FMCS guidelines for processing these requests. Please make certain that both parties sign this request!
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>4.</I> List the name of the agency, as follows: The Department, and the subdivision or component. For example: U.S. Dept. of Labor, BLS, or U.S. Dept. of Army, Aberdeen Proving Ground, or Illinois National Guard, Springfield Chapter. If an independent agency is involved, list the agency, e.g. Federal Deposit Insurance Corp. (FDIC) and any subdivision or component, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>5.</I> List the name of the union and its subdivision or component as follows: e.g. Federal Employees Union, Local 23 or Government Workers Union, Western Joint Council.
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>6.</I> Provide the area where the negotiation or mediation will most likely take place, with zip code, e.g., Washington, D.C. 20427. The zip code is important because our cases are routed by computer through zip code, and mediators are assigned on that basis.
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>7.</I> Only the <I>approximate</I> number of employees in the bargaining unit and establishment are requested. The establishment is the entity referred to in item 4 as name of subdivision or component, if any.
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>8.</I> The filing need only be sent by one party unless it is a request for grievance mediation. (See item 9.)
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>9.</I> Please give the title of the official, phone number, address, and zip code.
</P>
<P>In <I>item</I> #<I>10.</I> Both labor and management signatures are required for grievance mediation requests.
</P>
<HD1>Notice
</HD1>
<P>Send original to F.M.C.S.
</P>
<P>Send one copy to opposite party.
</P>
<P>Retain one copy for party filing notice.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 2509, Jan. 10, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1425.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1425.3   Functions of the Service under title VII of the Civil Service Reform Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The service may provide its assistance in any negotiation dispute when earnest efforts by the parties to reach agreement through direct negotiation have failed to resolve the dispute. When the existence of a negotiation dispute comes to the attention of the Service through a specific request for mediation from one or both of the parties, through notification under the provisions of § 1425.2, or otherwise, the Service will examine the information concerning the dispute and if, in its opinion, the need for mediation exists, the Service will use its best efforts to assist the parties to reach agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Service may, at the outset of negotiations or at any time in the dispute, set time limits on its participation. If no settlement of the dispute is reached by the expiration of the time limits, the Service may make suggestions for settlement to the parties. If suggestions for settlement made by the Service are not accepted by the parties within time limits set by the Service, the matter may be referred to the Federal Services Impasses Panel (FSIP). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1425.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1425.4   Duty of parties.</HEAD>
<P>It shall be the duty of the parties to participate fully and promptly in any meetings arranged by the Service for the purpose of assisting in the settlement of a negotiation dispute. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1425.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1425.5   Referral to FSIP.</HEAD>
<P>If the mediation process has been completed and the parties are at a negotiation impasse, the Service or the parties may request consideration of the matter by the Federal Services Impasses Panel. The Service shall not refer a case to FSIP until the mediation process has been exhausted and the parties are at a negotiation impasse. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1425.6" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.10.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1425.6   Use of third-party mediation assistance.</HEAD>
<P>If the parties should mutually agree to third-party mediation assistance other than that of the Service, both parties shall immediately inform the Service in writing of this agreement. Such written communication shall be filed with the regional director of the region in which the negotiation is scheduled, and shall state what alternate assistance the parties have agreed to use. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1430" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1430—FEDERAL MEDIATION AND CONCILIATION SERVICE ADVISORY COMMITTEES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770 (5 U.S.C. App.).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 9433, Mar. 11, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1430.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service's regulations implementing section 8(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770, (5 U.S.C. App.)), which requires each agency head to establish uniform guidelines and management controls for the advisory committees. These regulations supplement the Government-wide guidelines issued jointly by the Office of Management and Budget and the Department of Justice, and should be read in conjunction with them. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations provided under this part do not apply to statutorily created or established advisory committees of the Service, to the extent that such statutes have specific provisions different from those promulgated herein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1430.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>Act</I> means the Federal Advisory Committee Act; 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>advisory committee</I> means any committee, board, commission, counsel, conference, panel, task force, or other similar group, or any subgroup or subcommittee thereof which is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Established by statute or reorganization, plan, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Established or utilized by the President, or 
</P>
<P>(3) Established or utilized by one or more agencies or officers of the Federal Government in the interest of obtaining advice or recommendations for the President or one or more agencies of the Federal Government, except that such term excludes: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Advisory Commission on Intergovernmental Relations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission on Government Procurement; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any committee which is composed wholly of full-time officers or employees of the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>agency</I> has the same meaning as in 5 U.S.C. 552(1); 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>committee management officer</I> means the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service employee or his delegee, officially designated to perform the advisory committee management functions delineated in this part; 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>Service</I> means the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service; 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>OMB</I> means the Office of Management and Budget; 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>Director</I> means the Director of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service; 
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>secretariat</I> means the OMB Committee Management Secretariat. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1430.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.3   Establishment of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Guidelines for establishing advisory committees.</I> The guidelines in establishing advisory committees are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) No advisory committee shall be established if its functions are being or could be performed by an agency or an existing committee; 
</P>
<P>(2) The purpose of the advisory committee shall be clearly defined; 
</P>
<P>(3) The membership of the advisory committee shall be fairly balanced in terms of the points of view represented and the committee's functions; 
</P>
<P>(4) There shall be appropriate safeguards to assure that an advisory committee's advice and recommendations will not be inappropriately influenced by any special interests; and 
</P>
<P>(5) At least once a year, a report shall be prepared for each advisory committee, describing the committee's membership, functions, and actions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advisory committees established by the Service not pursuant to specific statutory authority.</I> (1) Advisory committees established by the Service not pursuant to specific statutory authority may be created by the Director after consultation with the secretariat. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the Director determines that such an advisory committee needs to be established, he shall notify the secretariat of his determination and shall inform the secretariat of the nature and purpose of the committee, the reasons why the committee is needed, and the inability of any existing agency or committee to perform the committee's functions. 
</P>
<P>(3) After the secretariat has determined that establishment of such a committee is in conformance with the Act and has so informed the Director, the Director shall prepare a certification of the committee, stating the committee's nature and purpose, and that it is established in the public interest. That certification shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advisory committees created pursuant to Presidential directive.</I> Advisory committees established by Presidential directive are those created pursuant to Executive Order, executive memorandum, or reorganization plan. The Director shall create such committees in accordance with the provisions of the Presidential directive and shall follow the provisions of this part, to the extent they are not inconsistent with the directive. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advisory committees created pursuant to specific statutory authority.</I> The Director shall create advisory committees established pursuant to specific statutory authority in accordance with the provisions of the statute and shall follow the provisions of this part, to the extent they are not inconsistent with the statute: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the Director need not utilize the procedures described in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advisory committees established by persons outside the Federal Government, but utilized by the Service to obtain advice or opinion.</I> In utilizing such committees, the Director shall follow the provisions of this part and the requirements of the Act. Such committees, to the extent they are utilized by the Service, shall be considered, for the purposes of this part, to be advisory committees established by the Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1430.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.4   Filing of advisory committee charter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing charter with Director.</I> Before an advisory committee takes any action or conducts any business, a charter shall be filed with the Director, the standing committees of Congress with legislative jurisdiction over the Service, and the Library of Congress. Except for a committee in existence on the effective date of the Act, or when authorized by statute, Presidential directive, or by the secretariat, such charter shall be filed no earlier than 30 days after publication of the committee's certification in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charter information.</I> A charter shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The committee's official designation; 
</P>
<P>(2) The committee's objectives and scope of activity; 
</P>
<P>(3) The period of time necessary for the committee to carry out its purposes; 
</P>
<P>(4) The agency or official to whom the advisory committee reports; 
</P>
<P>(5) The agency responsible for providing necessary support; 
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the committee's duties; 
</P>
<P>(7) The estimated number and frequency of committee meetings; 
</P>
<P>(8) The estimated annual operating costs in dollars and man-years; 
</P>
<P>(9) The committee's termination date, if less than two years; and 
</P>
<P>(10) The date the charter is filed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preparation and filing of initial charter.</I> Responsibility for preparation of the initial committee charter shall be with the head of the appropriate program within the Service, in cooperation with the committee management officer. The Director of Administration shall have responsibility for assuring the appropriate filings of such charters. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1430.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.5   Termination of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All nonstatutory advisory committees including those authorized, but not specifically created by statute, shall terminate no later than 2 years after their charters have been filed, unless renewed as provided in § 1430.6. 
</P>
<P>(b) The charter of any committee in existence on the date the Act became effective (January 5, 1973) shall terminate no later than January 5, 1975, unless renewed, as provided in § 1430.6. 
</P>
<P>(c) Advisory committees specifically created by statute shall terminate as provided in the establishing statute. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1430.6" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.6   Renewal of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Renewal of advisory committees not created pursuant to specific statutory authority. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Director may renew an advisory committee not created pursuant to specific statutory authority after consultation with the secretariat. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the Director determines that such an advisory committee should be renewed, he shall so advise the secretariat within 60 days prior to the committee's termination date and shall state the reasons for his determination. 
</P>
<P>(3) Upon concurrence of the secretariat, the Director shall publish notice of the renewal in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and cause a new charter to be prepared and filed in accordance with the provisions of § 1430.3. 
</P>
<P>(b) Renewal of advisory committees established pursuant to specific statutory authority. The Director may renew advisory committees established pursuant to specific statutory authority through the filing of a new charter at appropriate 2-year intervals. 
</P>
<P>(c) No advisory committee shall take any action or conduct any business during the period of time between its termination date and the filing of its renewal charter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1430.7" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.7   Application of the Freedom of Information Act to advisory committee functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to 5 U.S.C. 552, the records, reports, transcripts, minutes, appendices, working papers, drafts, studies, agenda, and other documents which are made available to or are prepared for or by an advisory committee shall be available to the public. 
</P>
<P>(b) Advisory committee meeting conducted in accordance with § 1430.7 may be closed to the public when discussing a matter that is of a 5 U.S.C. 552(b) nature, whether or not the discussion centers on a written document. 
</P>
<P>(c) No record, report, or other document prepared for or by an advisory committee may be withheld from the public unless the Office of the General Counsel determines that the document is properly within the exemptions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b). No committee meeting, or portion thereof, may be closed to the public unless the Office of the General Counsel determines in writing, prior to publication of the meeting in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that such a closing is within the exemptions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1430.8" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.8   Advisory committee meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initiation of meetings.</I> (1) Committee meetings may be called by:
</P>
<P>(i) The Director or the head of the office most directly concerned with the committee's activities; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency officer referred to in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and the committee chairman, jointly; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The committee chairman, with the advance approval of the officer referred to in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Service's committee management officer shall be promptly informed that a meeting has been called. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agenda.</I> Committee meetings shall be based on agenda approved by the officer referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Such agenda shall note those items which may involve matters which have been determined by the Office of the General Counsel as coming within the exemptions to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of meetings.</I> (1) Notice of advisory committee meetings shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least 7 days before the date of the meeting, irrespective of whether a particular meeting will be open to the public. Notice to interested persons shall also be provided in such other reasonable ways as are appropriate under the circumstances, such as press release or letter. Responsibility for preparation of <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and other appropriate notice shall be with the officer referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> shall state all pertinent information related to a meeting and shall be published at least 7 days prior to a meeting. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Presence of agency officer or employee at meetings.</I> No committee shall meet without the presence of the officer referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or his delegate. At his option the officer or employee may elect to chair the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Minutes.</I> Detailed minutes shall be kept of all committee meetings and shall be certified by the chairman of the advisory committee as being accurate. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Adjournment.</I> The officer or employee referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may adjourn a meeting at any time he determines it in the public interest to do so. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Public access to committee meetings.</I> All advisory committee meetings shall be open to the public, except when the Office of the General Counsel determines, in writing, and states his reasons therefor prior to <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice, that a meeting or any part thereof, is concerned with matters related to the exemptions provided in the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b). In such instances, those portions of a committee meeting which come within the section 552(b) exemptions may be closed to the public. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public participation in committee procedures.</I> Interested persons shall be permitted to file statements with advisory committees. Subject to reasonable committee procedures, interested persons may also be permitted to make oral statements on matters germane to the subjects under consideration at the committee meeting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1430.9" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.11.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1430.9   Agency management of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>Consistent with the other provisions of this part, the Service's advisory committee management officer shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Exercise control and supervision over the establishment, procedures, and accomplishments of advisory committees established by the Service; 
</P>
<P>(b) Assemble and maintain the reports, records, and other papers of advisory committees, during their existence; 
</P>
<P>(c) Carry out, with the concurrence of the Office of the General Counsel, the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, as those provisions apply to advisory committees; 
</P>
<P>(d) Have available for public inspection and copying all pertinent documents of advisory committees which are within the purview of the Freedom of Information Act; and 
</P>
<P>(e) When transcripts have been made of advisory committee meetings, provide for such transcripts to be made available to the public at actual cost of duplication, except where prohibited by contractual agreements entered into prior to January 5, 1973, the effective date of the Federal Advisory Committee Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1440" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1440—ARBITRATION OF PESTICIDE DATA DISPUTES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. 136 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended, Pub. L. 95-396, 92 Stat. 819. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 55395, Aug. 19, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1440.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.12.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1440.1   Arbitration of pesticide data disputes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons requesting the appointment of an arbitrator under section 3(c)(1)(D)(ii) and section 3(c)(2)(B)(iii) of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. 136, as amended), shall send such requests in writing to the appropriate American Arbitration Association Regional Office. Such requests must include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute; issue(s) in dispute, the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought; sufficient facts to show that the statutory waiting period has passed, and the appropriate fee provided in the Fee Schedule. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of compliance with the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (hereinafter “the Act”), the roster of arbitrators maintained by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service shall be the roster of commercial arbitrators maintained by the American Arbitration Association. Under this Act, arbitrators will be appointed from that roster. The fees of the American Arbitration Association shall apply, and the procedure and rules of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, applicable to arbitration proceedings under the Act, shall be the FIFRA arbitration rules of the American Arbitration Association, which are hereby made a part of this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.12.0.1.2.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 1440—FIFRA Arbitration Rules
</HEAD>
<HD2>Section 1
</HD2>
<P>These rules shall apply as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> unless modified by FMCS.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 2. Definitions 
</HD2>
<P>For the purpose of these Rules of Procedure the terms are defined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>AAA</I> means the American Arbitration Association. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Act</I> or <I>FIFRA</I> means the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act, 7 U.S.C. 136 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>EPA</I> means the United States Environmental Protection Agency. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Arbitrator(s)</I> means the person or persons appointed to the tribunal constituted by the parties for the settlement of their dispute under these Rules. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Claimant</I> means a person asserting a claim for compensation under these Rules or filing a claim concerning joint development of data. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Compulsory arbitration</I> means arbitration invoked under the mandatory provisions of section 3(c)(1)(d) or 3(c)(2)(B)(iii) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Voluntary arbitration</I> means arbitration voluntarily agreed to by the parties to settle a dispute under section 3(c)(1)(d) or 3(c)(2)(B)(iii) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Director</I> means Director, Registration Division, Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, or any officer or employee of the EPA to whom authority has been or may hereafter be lawfully delegated to act in his stead. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Administator</I> means the AAA, its Tribunal Administrators or such officers or committees as the AAA may direct. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Roster</I> means the Commercial Arbitration Roster of AAA. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>FMCS</I> or <I>Service</I> means the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Party</I> means claimant or respondent. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, association, corporation, or any organized group of persons, whether incorporated or not. 
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Respondent</I> means the person against whom a claim is made under section 3(c)(1)(D) or 3(c)(2)(B)(iii) of the Act. 
</P>
<FP>Terms defined in the Act and not explicitly defined herein are used herein with the meanings given in the Act. 
</FP>
<HD2>Sec. 3. Initiation of Arbitration 
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Under compulsory procedures of FIFRA.</I> Upon the request of a party qualified under FIFRA section 3(c)(1)(D) or 3(c)(2)(B)(iii) for the appointment of an arbitrator, the Service will appoint an arbitrator in accordance with 29 CFR 1440.1 (a) and these rules. Requests shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate AAA Regional Office and must include the names, addresses and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute; issues in dispute; the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought; sufficient facts to show that the statutory waiting period has passed; and the appropriate fee as provided in the Fee Schedule. 
</P>
<FP>AAA shall give notice of filing of a request for arbitration to the other party. If he so desires, the party upon whom the demand for arbitration is made may file an answering statement in duplicate with AAA within seven days after notice, in which event he shall simultaneously send a copy of his answer to the other party. If a monetary claim is made in the answer the appropriate fee provided in the Fee Schedule shall be forwarded with the answer. If no answer is filed within the stated time, it will be assumed that the claim is denied. Failure to file an answer shall not operate to delay the arbitration. 
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Under a Voluntary Submission.</I> Parties to any existing dispute may commence an arbitration under these Rules by filing at any AAA Regional Office two (2) copies of a written agreement to arbitrate under these Rules (Submission), signed by the parties. It shall contain a statement of the matter in dispute, the amount of money involved, if any, and the remedy sought, together with the appropriate administrative fee as provided in the Fee Schedule. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 4. Fixing of Locale
</HD2>
<P>The parties may mutually agree on the locale where the arbitration is to be held. If the locale is not designated within seven days from the date of filing the Demand or Submission the AAA shall have power to determine the locale. Its decision shall be final and binding. If any party requests that the hearing be held in a specific locale and the other party files no objection thereto within seven days after notice of the requests, the locale shall be the one requested.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 5. Qualification of Arbitrator
</HD2>
<P>Any Arbitrator appointed pursuant to these rules shall be neutral, subject to disqualification for the reasons specified in section 11. If the agreement of the parties names an Arbitrator or specifies any other method of appointing an Arbitrator, or if the parties specifically agree in writing, such Arbitrator shall not be subject to disqualification for said reasons.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 6. Appointment From Panel
</HD2>
<P>If the parties have not appointed an Arbitrator and have not provided any other method of appointment, the Arbitrator shall be appointed in the following manner. Immediately after the filing of the Request or Submission, the AAA shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute an identical list of names of persons chosen from the Panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which he objects, number the remaining names indicating the order of his preference, and return the list to the AAA. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named therein shall be deemed acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the AAA shall invite the acceptance of an Arbitrator to serve, and the Service shall appoint the Arbitrator. If the parties fail to agree upon any of the persons named, or if acceptable Arbitrators are unable to act, or if for any other reason the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the FMCS shall have the power to make the appointment from other members of the Panel without the submission of any additional lists.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 7. Direct Appointment by Parties
</HD2>
<P>If the agreement of the parties to a Submission names an Arbitrator or specifies a method of appointment of an Arbitrator, that designation or method shall be followed. The notice of appointment, with name and address of such Arbitrator, shall be filed with the AAA by the appointing party. Upon the request of any such appointing party, the AAA shall submit a list of members from the Panel from which the party may, if he so desires, make the appointment.
</P>
<P>If the agreement specifies a period of time within which an Arbitrator shall be appointed, and any party fails to make such appointment within that period, the AAA shall make the appointment.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 8. Appointment of Neutral Arbitrator by Party Appointed Arbitrators
</HD2>
<P>If the parties have appointed their Arbitrators or if either or both of them have been appointed as provided in section 7, and have authorized such Arbitrators to appoint a neutral Arbitrator within a specified time and no appointment is made within such time or any agreed extension thereof, the FMCS shall appoint a neutral Arbitrator who shall act as Chairman.
</P>
<P>If no period of time is specified for appointment of the neutral Arbitrator and the parties do not make the appointment within seven days from the date of the appointment of the last party-appointed Arbitrator, the FMCS shall appoint such neutral Arbitrator, who shall act as Chairman.
</P>
<P>If the parties have agreed that their Arbitrators shall appoint the neutral Arbitrator from the Panel, the AAA shall furnish to the party-appointed Arbitrators, in the manner prescribed in section 6, a list selected from the Panel, and the appointment of the neutral Arbitrator shall be made as prescribed in such section.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 9. Number of Arbitrators
</HD2>
<P>If the arbitration agreement does not specify the number of Arbitrators, the dispute shall be heard and determined by one Arbitrator, unless the AAA in its discretion, directs that a greater number of Arbitrators be appointed.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 10. Notice to Arbitrator of His or Her Appointment
</HD2>
<P>Notice of the appointment of the neutral Arbitrator, whether appointed by the parties, by the AAA or FMCS shall be mailed to the Arbitrator, together with a copy of these Rules, and the signed acceptance of the Arbitrator shall be filed with AAA prior to the opening of the first hearing.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 11. Disclosure and Challenge Procedure
</HD2>
<P>A person appointed as neutral Arbitrator shall disclose to the AAA any circumstances likely to affect his or her impartiality, including any bias or any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration or any past or present relationship with the parties or their counsel. Upon receipt of such information from such Arbitrator or other source, the AAA shall communicate such information to the parties, and, if it deems it appropriate to do so, to the Arbitrator. Thereafter, the AAA shall make a determination whether the Arbitrator should be disqualified. The determination, however, may be appealed to FMCS. The decision of FMCS shall be conclusive.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 12. Vacancies
</HD2>
<P>If any Arbitrator should resign, die, withdraw, refuse, be disqualified, or be unable to perform the duties of his office, AAA may, on proof satisfactory to it, declare the office vacant. Either party to a compulsory arbitration may request the FMCS to review a declaration of disqualification. Vacancies shall be filled in accordance with the applicable provision of these Rules and the matter shall be reheard unless the parties shall agree otherwise.
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 13. Commencement of Proceeding
</HD2>
<P>(a) Within 60 days from receipt by the parties of notice of the appointment of an arbitrator, the claimant shall file with AAA:
</P>
<P>(1) If appropriate, a detailed statement as to the amount of compensation claimed, the method of computing said amount, and terms of payment, and a list of the test data deemed to be compensable, together with a detailed justification therefore. 
</P>
<P>(2) A certification as to: (i) Whether any court or tribunal has made determinations for payment by any other persons to claimant for use of the same test data and, if so, identification of the persons against whom the 3(c)(2)(B) determinations were issued and the application for registration for which the test data was used; and (ii) whether any other claims against any persons are pending in arbitration or in any court for use of the same test data and, if so, an identification of the persons against whom the claims are pending and the applications for registration on which the claims are being made. 
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed statement of the matter in dispute under 3(c)(2)(B). 
</P>
<P>(b) Within 60 days of service of the documents referred to in subsection (a) the respondent shall file a detailed statement of its position as to the amount of compensation due, method of computation, terms of payment, and list of data deemed to be compensable together with a detailed justification therefore or a detailed statement of the dispute under 3(c)(2)(5). To the extent any portion of the claimant's statement of its claim is not denied or challenged by respondent, it shall be deemed admitted. 
</P>
<P>(c) After respondent's statement is filed, the arbitrator may, upon request by a party, request the Director to supplement the file with additional information, including copies of relevant test data, information contained in a relevant registration file, a statement as to data requirements for registration, or any other information which the arbitrator deems to be relevant. Upon request by a party or other interested person, the arbitrator shall order protective measures to safeguard and restrict access to confidential business information. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 14. Filing and Service 
</HD2>
<P>(a) All documents or papers required or authorized to be filed, shall be filed with the AAA for transmittal to the arbitrator, except as otherwise herein provided, and shall bear the caption of the case and the docket number. At the same time that a party files documents or papers with the AAA, the party shall serve upon all other parties copies thereof, with a certificate of service on or attached to each document or paper, including those filed with the arbitrator. If a party is represented by counsel or other representative, service shall be made on such representative. Service may be made personally or by regular mail, and if made by mail shall be deemed complete on mailing. If filing is accomplished by mail addressed to the AAA, filing shall be deemed timely if the papers are postmarked on the due date. 
</P>
<P>(b) All orders, decisions, or other documents made or signed by the arbitrator shall be served immediately upon all parties. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 15. Time 
</HD2>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by these rules, except as otherwise provided, the day of the act, event, or default from which the designated period of time begins to run shall not be included. Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays shall be included in computing the time allowed for the filing of any document or paper, except that when such time expires on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, such period shall be extended to include the next following business day. 
</P>
<P>(b) When by these rules or by order of the arbitrators, an act is required or allowed to be done at or within a specified time, the arbitrator or AAA for cause shown may at any time in their discretion (1) with or without motion or notice, order the period enlarged if request therefore, which may be made <I>ex parte,</I> is made before the expiration of the period originally prescribed or as extended by a previous order, or (2) on motion made after the expiration of the specified period, permit the act to be done where the failure to act was the result of excusable neglect or other good cause. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 16. Communication with Arbitrator and Serving of Notices 
</HD2>
<P>(a) There shall be no communication between the parties and a neutral arbitrator other than at oral hearings. Any other oral or written communications from the parties to the arbitrator shall be directed to the AAA for transmittal to the arbitrator. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each party to an agreement which provides for arbitration under these Rules shall be deemed to have consented that any papers, notices or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these Rules and for any court action in connection therewith or for the entry of judgment on any award made thereunder may be served upon such party by mail addressed to such party or his attorney at his last known address or by personal service, within or without the State wherein the arbitration is to be held (whether such party be within or without the United States of America): <I>Provided,</I> That reasonable opportunity to be heard with regard thereto has been granted such party. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 17. Time of Award 
</HD2>
<P>The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator and, unless otherwise agreed by the parties, or specified by law, no later than thirty days from the date of closing the hearings, or if oral hearings have been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 18. Appearances 
</HD2>
<P>(a) Parties may appear in person or by counsel or other representative. Persons who appear as counsel or in a representative capacity must conform to the standards of ethical conduct required of practitioners before the courts of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any party to the proceeding who, after being duly notified and without good cause being shown fails to appear at a prehearing conference or fails to respond to correspondence, shall be deemed to have waived his rights with respect thereto and shall be subject to such orders or determinations with respect thereto as the arbitrator shall make. The failure of a party to appear at a hearing shall constitute a waiver of the right to present evidence at such hearing. Where either party fails to appear at a hearing, the arbitrator shall require the presentation by the present party of such evidence as he deems necessary to prepare a decision in conformity with the requirements of the act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend hearings. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 19. Consolidation and Severance 
</HD2>
<P>(a) The AAA may with agreement of all parties consolidate any matters at issue in two or more proceedings docketed under these Rules of Procedure where there exist common parties, common questions of fact and law, and where such consolidation would expedite or simplify consideration of the issues. Consolidation may also be effected where separate claims for use of the same test data are made against different respondents. The arbitrator who presides over the consolidated proceeding shall be chosen in accordance with section 3, <I>supra.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) The arbitrator may, by motion or <I>sua sponte,</I> for good cause shown order any proceeding severed with respect to some or all parties or issues. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 20. Protection of Confidential Information 
</HD2>
<P>(a) The arbitrator shall make such orders as required to protect the secrecy of confidential information or documents such as review <I>in camera.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) The arbitrator shall impose a sanction against any party who violates an order issued under this section. Such sanction may include an award against the offending party. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 21. Scheduling of Hearing 
</HD2>
<P>(a) After consideration of the convenience of the parties, the AAA shall serve upon the parties a notice of hearing setting a time and place for such hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except for good cause shown, no request for postponement of a hearing will be granted. Such request must be received in writing at least a day in advance of the time set for the hearing. In case of postponement, the hearing shall be rescheduled for a date as early as circumstances will permit. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 22. Optional Accelerated Procedure 
</HD2>
<P>(a) In claims involving $25,000 or less, the parties may elect, prior to commencement of hearing, to have the claim processed under an expedited procedure. If no specific amount of claim is stated, a case will be considered to fall within this rule if the amount which the claimant represents in writing that it could recover as a result of any arbitrator's decision favorable to it does not exceed $25,000. Upon such election, a case shall then be processed under this rule unless the respondent objects and shows good cause why the substantive nature of the dispute requires processing under the regular procedures. In cases proceeding under this rule, the parties have waived discovery and briefs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The arbitrator shall schedule the dispute for hearing within thirty (30) days of service of notice to the parties that the dispute will be governed by this accelerated procedure, unless either party requests that the case be submitted without hearing under section 19. 
</P>
<P>(c) Written decision by the arbitrators in cases proceeding under this rule normally will be short and contain summary findings of fact and conclusions only. The arbitrator shall render such decisions promptly, but in no event later than thirty days after the dispute is ready for decision. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 23. Discovery 
</HD2>
<P>(a) Either party may move for permission to serve written interrogatories and requests for production of documents upon the opposing party. The arbitrator shall grant such motion to the extent that such interrogatories and requests are designed to produce relevant evidence and only upon such terms as the arbitrator in his or her discretion considers to be consistent with the objective of securing a just and inexpensive determination of the dispute without unnecessary delay. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon motion by either party, the arbitrator may order a deposition upon a showing of good cause and a finding that the deposition is designed to secure relevant and probative evidence which (1) cannot be obtained by alternative means, or (2) may otherwise not be preserved for presentation at hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a party fails to comply with an order issued under this section, the arbitrator shall draw inferences adverse to that party in connection with the facts sought to be discovered. 
</P>
<P>(d) At least thirty days prior to the hearing, each party shall make available to each other party the names of the expert and other witnesses it intends to call, together with a detailed summary of their expected testimony, and copies of all documents and exhibits which the party intends to introduce into evidence. Thereafter, witnesses, documents, or exhibits may be added and narrative summaries of expected testimony amended only upon motion by a party for good cause shown. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 24. Prehearing Conference 
</HD2>
<P>(a) When it appears that such procedure will expedite the proceeding, the arbitrator at any time prior to the commencement of the hearing may request the parties and their counsel or other representative to appear at a conference before him or her to consider: 
</P>
<P>(i) The possibility of settlement of the case; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The simplification of issues and stipulation of facts not indispute; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The necessity or desirability of amending or supplementing documents in the record; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The possibility of obtaining admissions or stipulations of fact and of documents which will avoid unnecessary proof; 
</P>
<P>(v) The limitation of the number of expert or other witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The setting of a time and place for the hearing, giving consideration to the convenience of all parties and to the public interest; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other matters as may expedite the disposition of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) No transcript of any prehearing conference shall be made unless ordered upon motion of a party or <I>sua sponte</I> by the arbitrator. In the absence of a transcript, the arbitrator shall prepare and file a report of the action taken at such conference. Such report shall incorporate any written stipulations or agreements made by the parties, all rulings upon matters considered at such conference, and appropriate orders containing directions to the parties. Such report shall, as appropriate, direct the subsequent course of the proceeding, unless modified by the arbitrators on motion or <I>sua sponte.</I> 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 25. Evidence 
</HD2>
<P>(a) The arbitrator shall admit all evidence which is relevant, competent, material, not privileged, and not unduly repetitious. The weight to be given evidence shall be determined by its reliability and probative value. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in these Rules of Procedure or by the arbitrator, witnesses shall be examined orally, under oath or affirmation. Parties shall have the right to cross-examine a witness who appears at the hearing provided that such cross-examination is not unduly repetitious. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except where the arbitrator finds it impracticable, an original and two copies of each exhibit shall be filed at the time the exhibit is offered into evidence and a copy shall be furnished to each party. A true copy of an exhibit may be substituted for the original. 
</P>
<P>(d) Official notice may be taken of any matter judicially noticed in the Federal courts. The parties shall be given adequate opportunity to show that such facts are erroneously noticed. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 26. Order of Proceedings
</HD2>
<P>(a) Hearing shall be opened by the filing of the oath of the arbitrator, and by the recording of the place, time and date of the hearing, the presence of the arbitrator, parties, and counsel. 
</P>
<P>(b) The arbitrator may, at the beginning of the hearing, ask for statements clarifying the issues involved. The claimant shall then present his claim and proofs and his witnesses. The respondent shall then present his response and proofs and his witnesses. The arbitrator may in his descretion vary this procedure but he or she shall afford full and equal opportunity to all parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 28. Burden of Presentation; Burden of Persuasion 
</HD2>
<P>The claimant shall have the burden of going forward to establish his entitlement to an amount of compensation that respondent should pay for use of the test data relied upon. Each matter of controversy shall be decided by the arbitrator upon a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 29. Stenographic Record 
</HD2>
<P>Any party may request a stenographic record by making arrangements for same through the AAA. If such transcript is agreed by the parties to be, or in appropriate cases determined by the arbitrator to be, the official record of the proceeding, it must be made available to the arbitrator, and to the other party for inspection, at a time and place determined by the arbitrator. The total cost of such a record shall be shared equally by those parties that order copies. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 30. Filing of Briefs, Proposed Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, and Proposed Order
</HD2>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the arbitrator, each party may within thirty days after delivery of the transcript of a hearing to the arbitrator as provided in section 29, file with AAA and serve upon all other parties a brief together with references to relevant exhibits and the record. Within Fifteen days thereafter each party may file a reply brief concerning matters contained in the opposing brief. Oral argument may be had at the discretion of the arbitrator. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 31. Closing of Hearings 
</HD2>
<P>The Arbitrator shall inquire of all parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearings closed and the time and date shall be recorded. If briefs or other documents are to be filed, the hearings shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for filing with the AAA. The time limit within which the Arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreement by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 32. Arbitrators' Decision 
</HD2>
<P>(a) The arbitrator shall as soon as practicable after the filing of briefs evaluate the record and prepare and file a decision. The decision shall contain findings of fact and conclusions regarding all issues in dispute as well as reasons therefore. 
</P>
<P>(b) The decision shall contain a determination as to the compensation, if any respondent must pay to claimant, or other remedy as appropriate, the method of payment, and may fix such other terms and conditions as may be reasonable under the circumstances, including the furnishing of a bond or other guarantee of payment by the respondent to the claimant. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 33. Reopening of Hearings 
</HD2>
<P>(a) The hearings may be reopened by the arbitrator on his or her own motion, or upon application of a party at any time before the award is made. If the reopening of the hearings would prevent the making of the award within the specific time agreed upon by the parties in the contract out of which the controversy has arisen, the matter may not be reopened, unless the parties agree upon the extension of such time limit. When no specific date is fixed, the arbitrator may reopen the hearings, and the arbitrator shall have thirty days from the closing of the reopened hearings within which to make an award. 
</P>
<P>(b) A motion to reopen a hearing to take further evidence, to rehear or reargue any matter related to such proceeding, or to reconsider the arbitrator's decision, must be made by motion in writing to the arbitrator in accordance with these Rules of Procedure. Every such motion must state the specific grounds upon which relief is sought. 
</P>
<P>(c) A motion to reopen a hearing for the purpose of taking further evidence may be filed at any time prior to the issuance of the arbitrator's decision. Such motion shall state briefly the nature and purpose of the evidence to be adduced, shall show that such evidence is not cumulative, and shall set forth a good reason why such evidence was not adduced at a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) Motions to modify the arbitrator's decision shall be filed within 30 days after the date of service of the decision. Such motion must state specifically one of the following grounds for modification: 
</P>
<P>1. There was a miscalculation of figures or a mistake in the description of any person, thing or property referred to in the award; or 
</P>
<P>2. The arbitrators have awarded upon a matter not submitted to them and the award may be corrected without affecting the merits of the decision upon the issues submitted; or 
</P>
<P>3. The award is imperfect in a matter of form, not affecting the merits of the controversy. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 34. Award Upon Settlement 
</HD2>
<P>If the parties settle their dispute during the course of the arbitration, the arbitrator, upon their request, may set forth the terms of the agreed settlement in an award. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 35. Delivery of Award to Parties 
</HD2>
<P>Parties shall accept as legal delivery of the award the placing of the award or a true copy thereof in the mail by the AAA, addressed to such party at his last known address or to his attorney, or personal service of the award, or the filing of the award in any manner which may be prescribed by law. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 36. Release of Documents for Judicial Proceedings 
</HD2>
<P>The AAA shall, upon the written request of a party, furnish to such party, at his or her expense, certified facsimiles of any papers in the AAA's possession that may be required in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 37. Application to Court 
</HD2>
<P>(a) No judicial proceedings by a party relating to the subject matter of the arbitration shall be deemed a waiver of the party's right to arbitrate. 
</P>
<P>(b) Neither the AAA nor FMCS is a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration. 
</P>
<P>(c) Parties to these Rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any Federal or State Court having jurisdiction thereof. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 38. Administrative Fees 
</HD2>
<P>As a nonprofit organization, the AAA shall prescribe an administrative fee schedule and a refund schedule to compensate it for the cost of providing administrative services. The schedule in effect at the time of filing or the time of refund shall be applicable. 
</P>
<P>The administrative fees shall be advanced by the initiating party or parties, subject to final appointment by the arbitrator in his award. 
</P>
<P>When a matter is withdrawn or settled, the refund shall be made in accordance with the refund schedule. 
</P>
<P>The AAA, in the event of extreme hardship on the part of any party, may defer or reduce the administrative fee. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 39. Fee When Oral Hearings Are Waived 
</HD2>
<P>Where all oral hearings are waived the Administrative Fee Schedule shall apply. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 40. Expenses 
</HD2>
<P>The expenses of witnesses for either side shall be paid by the party producing such witnesses. 
</P>
<P>The cost of the stenographic record, if any is made, and all transcripts thereof, shall be prorated equally among all parties ordering copies unless they shall otherwise agree and shall be paid for by the responsible parties directly to the reporting agency. 
</P>
<P>All other expenses of the arbitration, including required traveling and other expenses of the arbitrator and of AAA representatives, and the expenses of any witness or the cost of any proofs produced at the direct request of the arbitrator, shall be borne equally by the parties. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 41. Arbitrator's Fee 
</HD2>
<P>Any arrangement for the compensation of a neutral arbitrator shall be made through the AAA and not directly by him or her with the parties. Where parties cannot agree, AAA shall fix reasonable compensation. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 42. Deposits 
</HD2>
<P>The AAA may require the parties to deposit in advance such sums of money as it deems necessary to defray the expense of the arbitration, including the arbitrator's fee if any, and shall render an accounting to the parties and return any unexpened balance. 
</P>
<HD2>Sec. 43. Interpretation and Application of Rules 
</HD2>
<P>The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these Rules insofar as they relate to his or her powers and duties. When there is more than one arbitrator and a difference arises among them concerning the meaning or application of any such Rules, it shall be decided by a majority vote. If that is unobtainable, either an arbitrator or a party may refer the question to the AAA for decision. All other Rules shall be interpreted and applied by the AAA. Either party may request that FMCS review any decision of AAA on interpretation or application of these rules. 
</P>
<HD1>Administrative Fee Schedule 
</HD1>
<P>The administrative fee of the AAA is based upon the amount of each claim and counterclaim as disclosed when the claim and counterclaim are filed, and is due and payable at the time of filing. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount of claim
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fee
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to $25,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$25,000 to $100,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$600, plus 1% of excess over $25,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$100,000 to $200,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1350, plus 
<fr>1/2</fr>% of excess over $100,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$200,000 to $5,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1850, plus 
<fr>1/4</fr>% of excess over $200,000.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Where the claim or counter claim exceeds $5 million, an appropriate fee will be determined by the AAA.
</P>
<P>When no amount can be stated at the time of filing, the administrative fee is $500, subject to adjustment in accordance with the above schedule as soon as an amount can be disclosed.
</P>
<P>If there are more than two parties represented in the arbitration, an additional 10% of the initiating fee will be due for each additional represented party.
</P>
<P>Other Service Charges—$50.00 payable by a party causing an adjournment of any scheduled hearing;
</P>
<P>$100 payable by a party causing a second or additional adjournment of any scheduled hearing.
</P>
<P>$25.00 payable by each party for each hearing after the first hearing which is either clerked by the AAA or held in a hearing room provided by the AAA.
</P>
<P>Refund Schedule—If the AAA is notified that a case has been settled or withdrawn before a list of Arbitrators has been sent out, all the fees in excess of $500 will be refunded.
</P>
<P>If the AAA is notified that a case has been settled or withdrawn thereafter but before the due date for the return of the first list, two-thirds of the fee in excess of $500.00 will be refunded.
</P>
<P>If the AAA is notified that a case is settled or withdrawn thereafter but at least 48 hours before the date and time set for the first hearing, one-half of the fee in excess of $500 will be refunded.
</P>
<HD1>Regional Directors
</HD1>
<FP-1>Atlanta (30303), India Johnson—100 Peachtree Street, NW.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boston (02108), Richard M. Reilly—294 Washington Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Charlotte (28218), John A. Ramsey—3235 Eastway Drive, P.O. Box 18591
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chicago (60601), Charles H. Bridge, Jr.—180 N. La Salle Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cincinnati (45202), Philip S. Thompson—2308 Carew Tower
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cleveland (44114), Earle C. Brown—215 Euclid Avenue
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dallas (75201), Helmut O. Wolff—1607 Main Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Detroit (48226), Mary A. Bedikian—1234 City National Bank Building
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Garden City, NY (11530), Ellen Maltz-Brown—585 Stewart Avenue
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hartford (06103), J. Robert Haskell—37 Lewis Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Los Angeles (90020), Jerrold L. Murase—443 Shatto Place
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Miami (33129), Joseph A. Fiorillo—2250 SW. 3rd Avenue
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Minneapolis (55402), Patricia A. Levin—1001 Foshay Tower
</FP-1>
<FP-1>New Brunswick, NJ (08901), Richard Naimark—96 Bayard Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>New York (10020), Robert E. Meade—140 West 51st Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Philadelphia (19102), Arthur R. Mehr—1520 Locust Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phoenix (85004), Paul A. Newnham—222 North Central Avenue
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pittsburgh (15222), John F. Schano—221 Gateway Four
</FP-1>
<FP-1>San Diego (92101), John E. Scrivner—530 Broadway
</FP-1>
<FP-1>San Francisco (94104), Charles A. Cooper—690 Market Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Seattle (98104), Neal M. Blacker—810 Third Avenue
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Syracuse (13203), Deborah A. Brown—731 James Street
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Washington (20036), Garylee Cox—1730 Rhode Island Avenue, NW.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>White Plains, NY (10601), John R. Dacey—34 South Broadway 


</FP-1>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1450" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1450—COLLECTIONS OF CLAIMS OWED THE UNITED STATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3701-3719; 5 U.S.C. 5514; 4 CFR parts 101-105; 5 CFR part 550.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 24817, July 9, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>agency</I> means the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (FMCS) or any other agency of the U.S. Government as stated at § 1450.20.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>agency head</I> means the Director of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service.
</P>
<P>(c) The terms <I>appropriate agency official</I> or <I>designee</I> mean the Director of the Financial Management Staff of FMCS, or such other official as may be named in the future by the Director of FMCS.
</P>
<P>(d) The terms <I>claim</I> and <I>debt</I> are deemed synonymous and interchangeable. They refer to an amount of money or property which has been determined by an appropriate agency official to be owed to the United States from any person, organization or entity, except another Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(e) A debt is considered <I>delinquent</I> if it has not been paid by the date specified in the agency's written notification or applicable contractual agreement, unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made by that date, or if at any time thereafter the debtor fails to satisfy obligations under a payment agreement with the agency.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>referral for litigation</I> means referral to the Department of justice for appropriate legal proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.2   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claims arising from the audit of transportation accounts pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3726 shall be determined, collected, compromised, terminated or settled in accordance with regulations published under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3726 (see 41 CFR part 101-41).
</P>
<P>(b) Claims arising out of acquisition contracts subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR) shall be determined, collected, compromised, terminated, or settled in accordance with those regulations. (See 48 CFR part 32). If not otherwise provided for in the FAR system, contract claims that have been the subject of a contracting officer's final decision in accordance with section 6(a) of the Contract Disputes Act of 1978 (41 U.S.C. 605)(a)), may be determined, collected, compromised, terminated or settled under the provisions of this regulation, except that no additional review of the debt shall be granted beyond that provided by the contracting officer in accordance with the provisions of section 6 of the Contract Disputes Act of 1978 (41 U.S.C. 605), and the amount of any interest, administrative charge, or penalty charge shall be subject to the limitations, if any, contained in the contract out of which the claim arose.
</P>
<P>(c) Claims based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws, or in regard to which there is an indication of fraud, presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any other party having an interest in the claim, shall be referred to the Department of Justice (DOJ) as only the DOJ has authority to compromise, suspend, or terminate collection action on such claims.
</P>
<P>(d) Tax claims are also excluded from the coverage of this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.3   Use of procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures authorized by this regulation (including, but not limited to, disclosure to a consumer reporting agency, contracting for collection services, administrative offset and salary offset) may be used singly or in combination, so long as the requirements of applicable law and regulation are satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.4   Conformance to law and regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of applicable law (31 U.S.C 3701-3719 and 5 U.S.C. 5514 as amended by Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749) have been implemented in Governmentwide standards:
</P>
<P>(a) The Regulations of the Office of Personnel Management (5 CFR part 550),
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal Claims Collection Standards issued jointly by the General Accounting Office and the Department of Justice (4 CFR parts 101-105), and 
</P>
<P>(c) The procedures prescribed by the Office of Management and Budget in Circular A-129 of May 9, 1985.
</P>
<FP>Not every item in the above described standards has been incorporated or referenced in this regulation. To the extent, however, that circumstances arise which are not covered by the terms stated in this regulation, FMCS will proceed in any actions taken in accordance with applicable requirements found in the sources referred to in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.5   Other procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this regulation is intended to require FMCS to duplicate administrative proceedings required by contract or other laws or regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.6" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.6   Informal action.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this regulation is intended to preclude utilization of informal administrative actions or remedies which may be available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.7" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.7   Return of property.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this regulation is intended to deter FMCS from demanding the return of specific property or from demanding, the return of the property or the payment of its value.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.8" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.8   Omissions not a defense.</HEAD>
<P>The failure of FMCS to comply with any provision in this regulation shall not serve as a defense to the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Offset—Consumer Reporting Agencies—Contracting for Collection</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.9" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.9   Demand for payment.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to making an administrative offset, demand for payment will be made as stated below: 
</P>
<P>(a) Written demands shall be made promptly upon a debtor in terms which inform the debtor of the consequences of failure to cooperate. A total of three progressively stronger written demands at not more than 30-day intervals will normally be made unless a response to the first or second demand indicates that a further demand would be futile and the debtor's response does not require rebuttal. In determining the timing of demand letters, FMCS will give due regard to the need to act promptly so that, as a general rule, if necessary to refer the debt to the Department of Justice for litigation, such referral can be made within one year of the agency's final determination of the fact and the amount of the debt. When necessary to protect the Government's interest (for example, to prevent the statute of limitations, 28 U.S.C. 2415, from expiring), written demand may be preceded by other appropriate actions under this subpart including immediate referral for litigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The initial demand letter will inform the debtor of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The basis for the indebtedness and the right of the debtor to request review within the agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicable standards for assessing interest, penalties, and administrative costs (subpart D of this regulation) and 
</P>
<P>(3) The date by which payment is to be made, which normally should be not more than 30 days from the date that the initial demand letter was mailed or hand-delivered. FMCS will exercise care to insure that demand letters are mailed or hand-delivered on the same day that they are actually dated. Apart from this, there is no prescribed format for the demand letters. 
</P>
<P>(c) As appropriate to the circumstances, FMCS may include either in the initial demand letter or in subsequent letters, matters relating to alternative methods of payment, policies with respect to use of consumer reporting agencies and collection services, the agency's intentions with respect to referral of the debt to the Department of Justice for litigation, and, depending on applicable statutory authority, the debtor's entitlement to consideration of waiver. 
</P>
<P>(d) FMCS will respond promptly to communications from the debtor, within 30 days whenever feasible, and will advise debtor who dispute the debt that they must furnish available evidence to support their contentions. 
</P>
<P>(e) If, either prior to the initiations of, at any time during, or after completion of the demand cycle, FMCS determines to pursue administrative offset, then the requirements specified in §§ 1450.10 and 1450.11, as applicable, will be met. The availability of funds for offset and the agency determination to purse it release the agency from the necessity of further compliance with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section. If the agency has not already sent the first demand letter, the agency's written notification of its intent to offset must give the debtor the opportunity to make voluntary payment, a requirement which will be satisfied by compliance with the notice requirements of §§ 1450.10 and 1450.11 as applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.10" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.10   Collection by administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Collection by administrative offset will be undertaken in accordance with these regulations on all claims which are liquidated or certain in amount, in every instance in which such collection is determined to be feasible and not otherwise prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of this section, the term “administrative offset” is the same as stated in 31 U.S.C. 3716(a)(1). 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether collection by administrative offset is feasible is a determination to be made by the agency on a case-by-case basis, in the exercise of sound discretion. FMCS will consider not only whether administrative offset can be accomplished practically, but also whether offset is best suited to further and protect all of the Government's interests. In appropriate circumstances, FMCS may give due consideration to the debtor's financial condition and is not required to use offset in every instance in which there is an available source of funds. FMCS may also consider whether offset would tend to substantially interfere with or defeat the purposes of the program authorizing the payments against which offset is contemplated. For example, under a grant program in which payments are made in advance of the grantee's performance, offset will normally be inappropriate. This concept generally does not apply, however, where payment is in the form of reimbursement. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before the offset is made, a debtor shall be provided with the following: Written notice of the nature and amount of the debt, and the agency's intention to collect by offset; opportunity to inspect and copy agency records pertaining to the debt; opportunity to obtain review within the agency of the determination of indebtedness; and opportunity to enter into a written agreement with the agency to repay the debt. FMCS may also make requests for offset to other agencies holding funds payable to the debtor, and process requests for offset that are received from other agencies. 
</P>
<P>(1) FMCS will exercise sound judgment in determining whether to accept a repayment agreement in lieu of offset. The determination will weigh the Government's interest in collecting the debt against fairness to the debtor. If the debt is delinquent and the debtor has not disputed its existence or amount, FMCS will normally accept a repayment agreement in lieu of offset only if the debtor is able to establish that offset would result in undue financial hardship or would be against equity and good conscience. 
</P>
<P>(2) In cases where the procedural requirements specified in paragraph (b) of this section have previously been provided to the debtor in connection with the same debt under § 1450.9, or some other regulatory or statutory authority, such as pursuant to a notice of audit allowance, the agency is not required to duplicate those requirements before taking administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(3) FMCS may not initiate administrative offset to collect a debt under 31 U.S.C. 3716 more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials of the Government who were charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts. When the debt first accrued is to be determined according to existing law, regarding the accrual of debts, such as 28 U.S.C. 2415.
</P>
<P>(4) FMCS is not authorized by 31 U.S.C. 3716 to use administrative offset with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) Debts owed by any State or local Governments; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Debts arising under or payments made under the Social Security Act, the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, or the tariff laws of the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any case in which collection of the type of debt involved by administrative offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute. However, unless otherwise provided by contract or law, debts or payments which are not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(5) FMCS may effect administrative offset against a payment to be made to a debtor prior to completion of the procedures required by paragraph (b) of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to take the offset would substantially prejudice the Government's ability to collect the debt, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The time before the payment is to be made does not reasonably permit the completion of those procedures. 
</P>
<FP>Such prior offset must be promptly followed by the completion of those procedures. Amounts recovered by offset but later found not to be owed to the Government shall be promptly refunded.
</FP>
<P>(6) FMCS will obtain credit reports on delinquent accounts to identify opportunities for administrative offset of amounts due to a delinquent debtor when other collection techniques have been unsuccessful.
</P>
<P>(c) Type of hearing or review: (1) For purposes of this section, whenever FMCS is required to provide a hearing or review within the agency, the agency shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when:
</P>
<P>(i) An applicable statute authorizes or requires the agency to consider waiver of the indebtedness involved, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and the agency determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity.
</P>
<FP>Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary-type hearing, although the FMCS will carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing.
</FP>
<P>(2) This section does not require an oral hearing with respect to debt collection systems in which determinations of indebtedness or waiver rarely involve issues of credibility or veracity and the agency has determined that review of the written record is ordinarily an adequate means to correct prior mistakes. In administering such a system, the agency is not required to sift through all of the requests received in order to accord oral hearings in those few cases which may involve issues of credibility or veracity. 
</P>
<P>(3) In those cases where an oral hearing is not required by this section, the agency will make its determination on the request for waiver or reconsideration based upon a “paper hearing” that is, a review of the written record.
</P>
<P>(d) Appropriate use will be made of the cooperative efforts of other agencies in effecting collection by administrative offset. Generally, FMCS will not refuse to comply with requests from other agencies to initiate administrative offset to collect debts owed to the United States, unless the requesting agency has not complied with the applicable provisions of these standards or the offset would be otherwise contrary to law. 
</P>
<P>(e) Collection by offset against a judgment obtained by a debtor against the United States shall be accomplished in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3728.
</P>
<P>(f) Whenever the creditor agency is not the agency which is responsible for making the payment against which administrative offset is sought, the latter agency shall not initiate the requested offset until it has been provided by the creditor agency with an appropriate written certification that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that full compliance with the provisions of this section has taken place.
</P>
<P>(g) When collecting multiple debts by administrative offset, FMCS will apply the recovered amounts to those debts in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, paying special attention to applicable statutes of limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.11" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.11   Administrative offset against amounts payable from Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise prohibited by law, FMCS may request that moneys which are due and payable to a debtor from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund be administratively offset in reasonable amounts in order to collect in one full payment, or a minimal number of payments, debts owed to the United States by the debtor. Such requests shall be made to the appropriate officials of the Office of Personnel Management in accordance with such regulations as may be prescribed by the Director of that Office.
</P>
<P>(b) When making a request for administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section, FMCS shall include a written certification that:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor owes the United States a debt, including the amount of the debt; 
</P>
<P>(2) The FMCS has complied with the applicable statutes, regulations, and procedures of the Office of Personnel Management; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The FMCS has complied with the requirements of § 1450.10 of this subpart, including any required hearing or review.
</P>
<P>(c) Once FMCS decides to request adminstrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section, it will make the request as soon as practical after completion of the applicable procedures in order that the Office of Personnel Management may identify and “flag” the debtor's account in anticipation of the time when the debtor requests or become eligible to receive payments from the Fund. This will satisfy any requirement that offset be initiated prior to expiration of the applicable statute of limitations. At such time as the debtor makes a claim for payments from the Fund, if at least a year has elapsed since the offset request was originally made, the debtor should be permitted to offer a satisfactory payment plan in lieu of offset upon establishing that changed financial circumstances would render the offset unjust. 
</P>
<P>(d) If FMCS collects part or all of the debt by other means before deductions are made or completed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, FMCS shall act promptly to modify or terminate its request for offset under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) This section does not require or authorize the Office of Personnel Management to review the merits of the FMCS determination with respect to the amount and validity of the debt, its determination as to waiver under an applicable statute, or its determination to provide or not provide a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.12" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.12   Collection in installments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever feasible, and except as otherwise provided by law, debts owed to the United States, together with interest, penalties, and administrative costs as required by this regulation should be collected in full in one lump sum. This is true whether the debt is being collected by administrative offset or by another method, including voluntary payment. However, if the debtor is financially unable to pay the indebtedness in one lump sum, payment may be accepted in regular installments. FMCS will obtain financial statements from debtors who represent that they are unable to pay the debt in one lump sum. If FMCS agrees to accept payment in regular installments it will obtain a legally enforceable written agreement from the debtor which specifies all of the terms of the arrangement and which contains a provision accelerating the debt in the event the debtor defaults. The size and frequency of installment payments should bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the debtor's ability to pay. If possible, the installment payments should be sufficient in size and frequency to liquidate the Government's claim in not more than 3 years. Installment payments of less than $50 per month will be accepted only if justifiable on the grounds of financial hardship or some other reasonable cause.
</P>
<P>(b) If the debtor owes more than one debt and designates how a voluntary installment payment is to be applied as among those debts, that designation must be followed. If the debtor does not designate the application of the payment, FMCS will apply payments to various debts in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, paying special attention to applicable statutes of limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.13" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.13   Exploration of compromise.</HEAD>
<P>FMCS may attempt to effect compromise, preferably during the course of personal interviews, in accordance with the standards set forth in part 103 of the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR part 103).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.14" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.14   Suspending or termination collection action.</HEAD>
<P>The suspension or termination of collection action shall be made in accordance with the standards set forth in part 104 of the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR part 104).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.15" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.15   Referrals to the Department of Justice or the General Accounting Office.</HEAD>
<P>Referrals to the Department of Justice or the General Accounting Office shall be made in accordance with the standards set forth in part 105 of the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR part 105).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.16" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.16   Use of consumer reporting agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>individual</I> means a natural person, and the term “consumer reporting agency” has the meaning provided in the Federal Claims Collection Act, as amended, at 31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(3) or the Fair Credit Reporting Act, at 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).
</P>
<P>(b) FMCS may disclose to a consumer reporting agency, from a system of records, information that an individual is responsible for a claim if—
</P>
<P>(1) Notice required by section 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(e)(4) indicates that information in the system may be disclosed to a consumer reporting agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim has been reviewed and it is decided that the claim is valid and overdue;
</P>
<P>(3) FMCS has notified the individual in writing—
</P>
<P>(i) That payment of the claim is overdue;
</P>
<P>(ii) That, within not less than 60 days after sending the notice, FMCS intends to disclose to a consumer reporting agency that the individual is responsible for that claim;
</P>
<P>(iii) Of the specific information to be disclosed to the consumer reporting agency; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Of the rights the individual has to a complete explanation of the claim, to dispute information in the records of the agency about the claim, and to administrative appeal or review of the claim; and
</P>
<P>(4) The individual has not—
</P>
<P>(i) Repaid or agreed to repay the claim under a written repayment plan that the individual has signed and the agency has agreed to; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Filed for review of the claim under paragraph (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(c) FMCS will also—(1) Disclose promptly, to each consumer reporting agency to which the original disclosure was made, a substantial change in the condition or amount of the claim;
</P>
<P>(2) Verify or correct promptly information about the claim, on request of a consumer reporting agency for verification of information disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) Get satisfactory assurances from each consumer reporting agency that they are complying with all laws of the United States related to providing consumer credit information; and assure that
</P>
<P>(d) The information disclosed to the consumer reporting agency is limited to (1) Information necessary to establish the identity of the individual, including name, address, and taxpayer identification number;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, status, and history of the claim; and
</P>
<P>(3) The agency or program under which the claim arose.
</P>
<P>(e) All accounts in excess of $100 that have been delinquent more than 31 days will normally be referred to a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Before disclosing information to a consumer reporting agency FMCS shall take reasonable action to locate an individual for whom the head of the agency does not have a current address to send the notice.
</P>
<P>(g) Before disclosing information to a consumer reporting agency FMCS shall provide, on request of an individual alleged by the agency to be responsible for the claim, a review of the obligation of the individual including an opportunity for reconsideration of the initial decision on the claim.
</P>
<P>(h) Under the same provisions as described above in this section, FMCS may disclose to a credit reporting agency, information relating to a debtor other than a natural person. Such commercial debt accounts are not covered, however, by the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.17" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.17   Contracting for collection services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FMCS has authority to contract for collection services to recover delinquent debts, provided that the following conditions are satisfied;
</P>
<P>(1) The authority to resolve disputes, compromise claims, suspend or terminate collection action, and refer the matter for litigation is retained by the agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor shall be subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended to the extent specified in 5 U.S.C. 552a(m), and to applicable Federal and State laws and regulations pertaining to debt collection practices, such as the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, 15 U.S.C. 1692;
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor must be required to account strictly for all amounts collected;
</P>
<P>(4) The contractor must agree that uncollectible accounts shall be returned with appropriate documentation to enable FMCS to determine whether to pursue collection through litigation or to terminate collection efforts, and
</P>
<P>(5) The contractor must agree to provide any data contained in its files relating to paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of § 105.2 of the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR part 105) upon returning an account to FMCS for subsequent referral to the Department of Justice for litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Funding of collection service contracts: (1) FMCS may fund a collection service contract on a fixed-fee basis, that is, payment of a fixed fee determined without regard to the amount actually collected under the contract. Payment of the fee under this type of contract must be charged to available agency appropriations.
</P>
<P>(2) FMCS may also fund a collection service contract on a contingent-fee basis, that is, by including a provision in the contract permitting the contractor to deduct its fee from amounts collected under the contract. The fee should be based on a percentage of the amount collected, consistent with prevailing commercial practice.
</P>
<P>(3) FMCS may enter into a contract under paragraph (b)(1) of this section only if and to the extent provided in advance in its appropriation acts or other legislation, except that this requirement does not apply to the use of a revolving fund authorized by statute.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as authorized under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or unless the receipt qualifies as a refund to the appropriation, or unless otherwise specifically provided by law, FMCS must deposit all amounts recovered under collection service contracts (or by agency employees on behalf of the agency) in the Treasury as miscellaneous receipts pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3302.
</P>
<P>(c) FMCS will consider the use of collection agencies at any time after the account is 61 days past due. In all cases accounts that are six months or more past due shall be turned over to a collection agency unless referred for litigation or unless arrangements have been made for a workout procedure, or the agency has exercised its authority to write off the debt pursuant to § 1450.14.
</P>
<P>(d) FMCS will generally not use a collection agency to collect a delinquent debt owed by a currently employed or retired Federal employee, if collection by salary or annuity offset is available. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Salary Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.18" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.18   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides the standards to be followed by FMCS in implementing 5 U.S.C. 5514 to recover a debt from the pay account of an FMCS employee, and establishes procedural guidelines to recover debts when the employee's creditor and paying agencies are not the same.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.19" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.19   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> This subpart applies to agencies and employees as defined by § 1450.20.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This subpart and 5 U.S.C. 5514 apply in recovering certain debts by offset, except where the employee consents to the recovery, from the current pay account of that employee. Because it is an administrative offset, debt collection procedures for salary offset which are not specified in U.S.C. 5514 and these regulations should be consistent with the provisions of the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR parts 101-105).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Excluded debts or claims.</I> The procedures contained in this subpart do not apply to debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 as amended (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>) or the tariff laws of the United States, or to any case where collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute (e.g., travel advances in 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses in 5 U.S.C. 4108).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver requests and claims to the General Accounting Office.</I> This subpart does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of a salary overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 716, or in any way questioning the amount or validity of a debt by submitting a subsequent claim to the General Accounting Office in accordance with procedures prescribed by the General Accounting Office. Similarly, in the case of other types of debts, it does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver, if waiver is available under any statutory provision pertaining to the particular debt being collected.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limit.</I> Under 4 CFR 102.3(b)(3), offset may not be initiated more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless an exception applies as stated in § 102.3(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.20" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (FMCS) or means any other agency of the U.S. Government as defined by section 105 of title 5 U.S.C., including the U.S. Postal Service, and the U.S. Postal Rate Commission, a military department as defined by section 102 of title 5 U.S.C., an agency or court of the judicial branch, and an agency of the legislative branch, including the U.S. Senate and the U.S. House of Representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means the agency to which the debt is owed.
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> means an amount owed to the United States from sources which include loans insured or guaranteed by the United States and all other amounts due the United States from fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, overpayments, penalties, damages, interests, fines and forfeitures (except those arising under the Uniform Code Military Justice), and all other similar sources.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, or in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld. FMCS will exclude deductions described in 5 CFR 581.105 (b) through (f) to determine disposable pay subject to salary offset.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means a current employee of FMCS or of another agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or a Reserve of the Armed Forces
</P>
<P><I>FCCS</I> means the Federal Claims Collection Standards jointly published by the Justice Department and the General Accounting Office at 4 CFR parts 101-105.
</P>
<P><I>Paying agency</I> means the agency employing the individual and authorizing the payment of his or her current pay.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his or her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to an agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 710, 5 U.S.C. 8346(b), or any other law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.21" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.21   Notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Salary offset deductions shall not be made unless the Director of the Financial Management Staff of FMCS, or such other official as may be named in the future by the Director of FMCS, provides to the employee—at least 30 days before any deduction—a written notice stating at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) The agency's determination that a debt is owed, including the origin, nature, and amount of the debt; 
</P>
<P>(2) The agency's intention to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account; 
</P>
<P>(3) The amount, frequency, proposed beginning date, and duration of the intended deductions; 
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the agency's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs (subpart D of this regulation), a statement that such assessment must be made unless excused in accordance with the FCCS;
</P>
<P>(5) The employee's right to inspect and copy Government records relating to the debt or, if the employee or his or her representative cannot personnally inspect the records, to request and receive a copy of such records; 
</P>
<P>(6) If not previously provided, the opportunity (under terms agreeable to the agency) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or to enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset. The agreement must be writing, signed by both the employee and the Director of the Financial Management Staff of FMCS, and documented in agency files (4 CFR 102.11).
</P>
<P>(7) The employee's right to a hearing conducted by an official arranged by the agency (an administrative law judge or alternatively, a hearing official not under the control of the head of the agency) if a petition is filed as prescribed by § 1450.22. 
</P>
<P>(8) The method and time period for petitioning for a hearing;
</P>
<P>(9) That the timely filing of a petition for hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;
</P>
<P>(10) That a final decision on the hearing (if one is requested) will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(11) That any knowingly false, misleading, or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under chapter 75 of title 5, U.S.C., part 752 of title 5, CFR, or any other applicable status or regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act sections 3729-3731 of title 31, U.S.C., or any other applicable statutory authority; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Criminal penalties under sections 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 of title 18, U.S.C., or any other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(12) Any other right and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and
</P>
<P>(13) Unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, that amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owned to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) Notifications under this section shall be hand delivered with a record made of the date and time of delivery, or shall be mailed by certified mail return receipt requested.
</P>
<P>(c) No notification, hearing, written responses or final decisions under this regulation are required of FMCS for any adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's election of coverage under a Federal benefit program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.22" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.22   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition for hearing.</I> (1) A hearing may be requested by filing a written petition with the Director, Financial Management Staff of FMCS, or such other official as may be named in the future by the Director of FMCS, stating why the employee believes the determination of the agency concerning the existence or the amount of the debt is in error.
</P>
<P>(2) The employee's petition must be signed by the employee and fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence and witnesses, if any, which the employee believes support his or her position.
</P>
<P>(3) The petition must be filed no later than fifteen (15) calendar days from the date that the notification was hand delivered or the date of delivery by certified mail, return receipt requested.
</P>
<P>(4) If a petition is received after the fifteen (15) calendar day deadline referred to above, FMCS will nevertheless accept the petition if the employee can show that the delay was because of circumstances beyond his or her control, or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless otherwise aware of it).
</P>
<P>(5) If a petition is not filed within the time limit specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, and is not accepted pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the employee's right to hearing will be considered waived, and salary offset will be implemented by FMCS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Type of hearing.</I> (1) The form and content of the hearing will be determined by the hearing official who shall be a person outside the control or authority of FMCS. In determining the type of hearing, the hearing officer will consider the nature and complexity of the transaction giving rise to the debt. The hearing may be conducted as an informal conference or interview, in which the agency and employee will be given a full opportunity to present their respective positions, or as a more formal proceeding involving the presentation of evidence, arguments and written submissions.
</P>
<P>(2) The employee may represent himself or herself, or may be represented by an attorney.
</P>
<P>(3) The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) The decision of the hearing officer will be in writing, and will state:
</P>
<P>(i) The facts purported to evidence the nature and origin of the alleged debt;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hearing official's analysis, findings, and conclusions, in the light of the hearing, as to—
</P>
<P>(A) The employee's and/or agency's grounds, 
</P>
<P>(B) The amount and validity of the alleged debt and,
</P>
<P>(C) The repayment schedule, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) The decision of the hearing official shall constitute the final administrative decision of the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.23" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.23   Deduction from pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Deduction by salary offset, from an employee's current disposable pay, shall be subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Ordinarily, debts to the United States should be collected in full, in one lump-sum. This will be done when funds are available. However, if funds are unavailable for payment in one lump sum, or if the amount of the debt exceeds 15 percent of disposable pay for an officially established pay interval, collection will normally be made in installments.
</P>
<P>(2) The installments shall not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made, unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount.
</P>
<P>(3) Deduction will generally commence with the next full pay interval (ordinarily the next biweekly pay period) following written consent by the employee to salary offset, waiver of hearing, or the decision issued by the hearing officer.
</P>
<P>(4) Installment deductions must be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of employment except as provided in § 1450.24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.24" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.24   Liquidation from final check or recovery from other payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the employee retires or resigns or if his or her employment or period of active duty ends before collection of the debt is completed, offset of the entire remaining balance on the debt may be made from a final payment of any nature, including but not limited to, final salary payment or lump-sum leave due to the employee as of the date of separation.
</P>
<P>(b) If the debt cannot be liquidated by offset from a final payment, offset may be made from later payments of any kind due from the United States, including, but not limited to, the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, pursuant to § 1450.11 of this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.25" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.25   Non-waiver of rights by payments.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected under 5 U.S.C. 5514 shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights which the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless statutory or contractual provisions provide to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.26" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.26   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Refunds shall promptly be made when—
</P>
<P>(1) A debt is waived or otherwise found not owing to the United States (unless expressly prohibited by statute or regulation); or
</P>
<P>(2) The employee's paying agency is directed by an administrative or judicial order to refund amounts deducted from his or her current pay.
</P>
<P>(b) Refunds do not bear interest unless required or permitted by law or contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.27" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.27   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>The assessment of interest, penalties and administrative costs shall be in accordance with subpart D of this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.28" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.28   Recovery when paying agency is not creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of creditor agency.</I> Upon completion of the procedures established under 5 U.S.C. 5514, the creditor agency must do the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The creditor agency must certify, in writing, that the employee owes the debt, the amont and basis of the debt, the date on which payment(s) is due, the date the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, and that the creditor agency's regulations implementing 5 U.S.C. 5514 have been approved by OPM. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the collection must be made in installments, the creditor agency also must advise the paying agency of the number of installments to be collected, the amount of each installment, and the commencing date of the first installment (if a date other than the next officially established pay period is required). 
</P>
<P>(3) Unless the employee has consented to the salary offset in writing or signed a statement acknowledging receipt of the required procedures, and the written consent or statement is forwarded to the paying agency, the creditor agency also must advise the paying agency of the action(s) taken under 5 U.S.C. 5514(b) and give the date(s) the action(s) was taken. 
</P>
<P>(4) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the creditor agency must submit a debt claim containing the information specified in paragraphs (a) (1) through (3) of this section and an installment agreement (or other instruction on the payment schedule), if applicable to the employee's paying agency. 
</P>
<P>(5) If the employee is in the process of separating, the creditor agency must submit its claim to the employee's paying agency for collection pursuant to § 1450.24. The paying agency must certify the total amount of its collection and provide copies to the creditor agency and the employee as stated in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. If the paying agency is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, or other similar payments, it must provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that the provisions of this section have been fully compiled with. However, the creditor agency must submit a properly certified claim to the agency responsible for making such payments before collection can be made. 
</P>
<P>(6) If the employee is already separated and all payments from his or her former paying agency have been paid, the creditor agency may request, unless otherwise prohibited, that money due and payable to the employee from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (5 CFR 831.1801 <I>et seq.</I>), or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the debt. (31 U.S.C. 3716 and 102.4 FCCS.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of paying agency</I>—(1) <I>Complete claim.</I> When the paying agency receives a properly certified debt claim from a creditor agency, deductions should be scheduled to begin prospectively at the next officially established pay interval. The employee must receive written notice that the paying agency has received a certified debt claim from the creditor agency (including the amount) and written notice of the date deductions from salary will commence and of the amount of such deductions. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incomplete claim.</I> When the paying agency receives an incomplete debt claim from a creditor agency, the paying agency must return the debt claim with a notice that procedures under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this subpart must be provided, and a properly certified debt claim received, before action will be taken to collect from the employee's current pay account. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> The paying agency is not required or authorized to review the merits of the creditor agency's determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees who transfer from one paying agency to another.</I> (1) If, after the creditor agency has submitted the debt claim to the employee's paying agency, the employee transfers to a position served by a different paying agency before the debt is collected in full, the paying agency from which the employee separates must certify the total amount of the collection made on the debt. One copy of the certification must be furnished to the employee, another to the creditor agency along with notice of employee's transfer. However, the creditor agency must submit a properly certified claim to the new paying agency before collection can be resumed.
</P>
<P>(2) When an employee transfers to another paying agency, the creditor agency need not repeat the due process procedures described by 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this subpart to resume the collection. However, the creditor agency is responsible for reviewing the debt upon receiving the former paying agency's notice of the employee's transfer to make sure the collection is resumed by the new paying agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Interest, Penalties, and Administrative Costs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.29" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.29   Assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, or § 1450.30, FMCS shall assess interest, penalties and administrative costs on debts owed to the United States pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717. Before assessing these charges, FMCS will mail or hand-deliver a written notice to the debtor. This notice shall include a statement of the agency's requirements concerning these charges. (Sections 1450.9 and 1450.21).
</P>
<P>(b) Interest shall accrue from the date on which notice of the debt and the interest requirements is first mailed or hand-delivered to the debtor, using the most current address that is available to the agency. If FMCS should use an “advance billing” procedure—that is, if it mails a bill before the debt is actually owed—it can include the required interest notification in the advance billing, but interest may not start to accrue before the debt is actually owed. FMCS will exercise care to insure that the notices required by this section are dated and mailed or hand-delivered on the same day.
</P>
<P>(c) The rate of interest assessed shall be the rate of the current value of funds to the United States Treasury (i.e., the Treasury tax and loan account rate), as prescribed and published by the Secretary of the Treasury in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the Treasury Fiscal Requirements Manual Bulletins annually or quarterly, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717. FMCS may assess a higher rate of interest if it reasonably determines that a higher rate is necessary to protect the interests of the United States. The rate of interest, as initially assessed, shall remain fixed for the duration of the indebtedness except that where a debtor has defaulted on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, FMCS may set a new interest rate which reflects the current value of funds to the Treasury at the time the new agreement is executed. Interest will not be assessed on interest, penalties, or administrative costs required by this section. However, if the debtor defaults on a previous repayment agreement, charges which accrued but were not collected under the defaulted agreement shall be added to the principal to be paid under a new repayment agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) FMCS shall assess against a debtor charges to cover administrative costs incurred as a result of a delinquent debt—that is, the additional costs incurred in processing and handling the debt because it became delinquent. Calculation of administrative costs shall be based upon actual costs incurred or upon cost analyses establishing an average of actual additional costs incurred by the agency in processing and handling claims against other debtors in similar stages of delinquency. Administrative costs may include costs incurred in obtaining a credit report or in using a private debt collector, to the extent they are attributable to delinquency.
</P>
<P>(e) FMCS shall assess a penalty charge, not to exceed 6 percent a year, on any portion of a debt that is delinquent for more than 90 days. This charge need not be calculated until the 91st day of delinquency, but shall accure from the date that the debt became delinquent.
</P>
<P>(f) When a debt is paid in partial or installment payments, amounts received by the agency shall be applied first to outstanding penalty and administrative cost charges, second to accrued interest, and third to outstanding principal.
</P>
<P>(g) FMCS will waive the collection of interest on the debt or any portion of the debt which is paid within 30 days after the date on which interest began to accrue. FMCS may extend this 30-day period, on a case-by-case basis, if it reasonably determines that such action is appropriate. Also, FMCS may waive, in whole or in part, the collection of interest, penalties, and/or administrative costs assessed under this section under the criteria specified in part 103 of the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR part 103) relating to the compromise of claims (without regard to the amount of the debt), or if the agency determines that collection of these charges would be against equity and good conscience, or not in the best interests of the United States. Waiver under the first sentence of this paragraph (g) is mandatory. Under the second and third sentences, it may be exercised under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Waiver of interest pending consideration of a request for reconsideration, administrative review, or waiver of the underlying debt under a permissive statute, and
</P>
<P>(2) Waiver of interest where FMCS has accepted an installment plan, there is no indication of fault or lack of good faith on the part of the debtor, and the amount of interest is large enough in relation to the size of the installments that the debtor can reasonably afford to pay, that the debt will never be repaid.
</P>
<P>(h) Where a mandatory waiver or review statute applies, interest and related charges may not be assessed for those periods during which collection action must be suspended under § 104.2(c)(1) of the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR part 104).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.30" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.30   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3717 to not apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) To debts owed by any State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2) To debts arising under contracts which were executed prior to, and were in effect on (i.e., were not completed as of), October 25, 1982;
</P>
<P>(3) To debts where an applicable statute, regulation required by statute, loan agreement, or contract either prohibits such charges or explicitly fixes the charges that apply to the debts arising under the Social Security Act, the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, or the tariff laws of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) However, FMCS is authorized to assess interest and related charges on debts which are not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 to the extent authorized under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1450.31" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.13.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1450.31   Other sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>The sanctions stated in this subpart are not intended to be exclusive. Other sanctions which may be imposed by the Director of FMCS include placement of the debtor's name on a list of debarred, suspended or ineligible contractors or grantees; conversion of method of payment under a grant from an advance payment method to a reimbursement method; or revocation of a letter of credit. Notice will be given by FMCS to the debtor regarding the imposition of such other sanctions. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1470" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1470—UNIFORM ADMINISTRATIVE REQUIREMENTS FOR GRANTS AND COOPERATIVE AGREEMENTS TO STATE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 175a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 8087, Mar. 11, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.1" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.1.4.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.1   Purpose and scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes uniform administrative rules for Federal grants and cooperative agreements and subawards to State, local and Indian tribal governments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.2" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.1.4.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.2   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains general rules pertaining to this part and procedures for control of exceptions from this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.3" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.1.4.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accrued expenditures</I> mean the charges incurred by the grantee during a given period requiring the provision of funds for: (1) Goods and other tangible property received; (2) services performed by employees, contractors, subgrantees, subcontractors, and other payees; and (3) other amounts becoming owed under programs for which no current services or performance is required, such as annuities, insurance claims, and other benefit payments.
</P>
<P><I>Accrued income</I> means the sum of: (1) Earnings during a given period from services performed by the grantee and goods and other tangible property delivered to purchasers, and (2) amounts becoming owed to the grantee for which no current services or performance is required by the grantee.
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition cost</I> of an item of purchased equipment means the net invoice unit price of the property including the cost of modifications, attachments, accessories, or auxiliary apparatus necessary to make the property usable for the purpose for which it was acquired. Other charges such as the cost of installation, transportation, taxes, duty or protective in-transit insurance, shall be included or excluded from the unit acquisition cost in accordance with the grantee's regular accounting practices.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative</I> requirements mean those matters common to grants in general, such as financial management, kinds and frequency of reports, and retention of records. These are distinguished from <I>programmatic</I> requirements, which concern matters that can be treated only on a program-by-program or grant-by-grant basis, such as kinds of activities that can be supported by grants under a particular program.
</P>
<P><I>Awarding agency</I> means (1) with respect to a grant, the Federal agency, and (2) with respect to a subgrant, the party that awarded the subgrant.
</P>
<P><I>Cash contributions</I> means the grantee's cash outlay, including the outlay of money contributed to the grantee or subgrantee by other public agencies and institutions, and private organizations and individuals. When authorized by Federal legislation, Federal funds received from other assistance agreements may be considered as grantee or subgrantee cash contributions.
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> means (except as used in the definitions for <I>grant</I> and <I>subgrant</I> in this section and except where qualified by <I>Federal</I>) a procurement contract under a grant or subgrant, and means a procurement subcontract under a contract.
</P>
<P><I>Cost sharing or matching</I> means the value of the third party in-kind contributions and the portion of the costs of a federally assisted project or program not borne by the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Cost-type contract</I> means a contract or subcontract under a grant in which the contractor or subcontractor is paid on the basis of the costs it incurs, with or without a fee.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment</I> means tangible, nonexpendable, personal property having a useful life of more than one year and an acquisition cost of $5,000 or more per unit. A grantee may use its own definition of equipment provided that such definition would at least include all equipment defined above.
</P>
<P><I>Expenditure report</I> means: (1) For nonconstruction grants, the SF-269 “Financial Status Report” (or other equivalent report); (2) for construction grants, the SF-271 “Outlay Report and Request for Reimbursement” (or other equivalent report).
</P>
<P><I>Federally recognized Indian tribal government</I> means the governing body or a governmental agency of any Indian tribe, band, nation, or other organized group or community (including any Native village as defined in section 3 of the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act, 85 Stat 688) certified by the Secretary of the Interior as eligible for the special programs and services provided by him through the Bureau of Indian Affairs.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means a State or local government or a federally recognized Indian tribal government.
</P>
<P><I>Grant</I> means an award of financial assistance, including cooperative agreements, in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, by the Federal Government to an eligible grantee. The term does not include technical assistance which provides services instead of money, or other assistance in the form of revenue sharing, loans, loan guarantees, interest subsidies, insurance, or direct appropriations. Also, the term does not include assistance, such as a fellowship or other lump sum award, which the grantee is not required to account for.
</P>
<P><I>Grantee</I> means the government to which a grant is awarded and which is accountable for the use of the funds provided. The grantee is the entire legal entity even if only a particular component of the entity is designated in the grant award document.
</P>
<P><I>Local government</I> means a county, municipality, city, town, township, local public authority (including any public and Indian housing agency under the United States Housing Act of 1937) school district, special district, intrastate district, council of governments (whether or not incorporated as a nonprofit corporation under State law), any other regional or interstate government entity, or any agency or instrumentality of a local government.
</P>
<P><I>Obligations</I> means the amounts of orders placed, contracts and subgrants awarded, goods and services received, and similar transactions during a given period that will require payment by the grantee during the same or a future period.
</P>
<P><I>OMB</I> means the United States Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P><I>Outlays</I> (expenditures) mean charges made to the project or program. They may be reported on a cash or accrual basis. For reports prepared on a cash basis, outlays are the sum of actual cash disbursement for direct charges for goods and services, the amount of indirect expense incurred, the value of in-kind contributions applied, and the amount of cash advances and payments made to contractors and subgrantees. For reports prepared on an accrued expenditure basis, outlays are the sum of actual cash disbursements, the amount of indirect expense incurred, the value of inkind contributions applied, and the new increase (or decrease) in the amounts owed by the grantee for goods and other property received, for services performed by employees, contractors, subgrantees, subcontractors, and other payees, and other amounts becoming owed under programs for which no current services or performance are required, such as annuities, insurance claims, and other benefit payments.
</P>
<P><I>Percentage of completion method</I> refers to a system under which payments are made for construction work according to the percentage of completion of the work, rather than to the grantee's cost incurred.
</P>
<P><I>Prior approval</I> means documentation evidencing consent prior to incurring specific cost.
</P>
<P><I>Real property</I> means land, including land improvements, structures and appurtenances thereto, excluding movable machinery and equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Share,</I> when referring to the awarding agency's portion of real property, equipment or supplies, means the same percentage as the awarding agency's portion of the acquiring party's total costs under the grant to which the acquisition costs under the grant to which the acquisition cost of the property was charged. Only costs are to be counted—not the value of third-party in-kind contributions.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the several States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, any territory or possession of the United States, or any agency or instrumentality of a State exclusive of local governments. The term does not include any public and Indian housing agency under United States Housing Act of 1937.
</P>
<P><I>Subgrant</I> means an award of financial assistance in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, made under a grant by a grantee to an eligible subgrantee. The term includes financial assistance when provided by contractual legal agreement, but does not include procurement purchases, nor does it include any form of assistance which is excluded from the definition of <I>grant</I> in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Subgrantee</I> means the government or other legal entity to which a subgrant is awarded and which is accountable to the grantee for the use of the funds provided.
</P>
<P><I>Supplies</I> means all tangible personal property other than <I>equipment</I> as defined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Suspension</I> means depending on the context, either (1) temporary withdrawal of the authority to obligate grant funds pending corrective action by the grantee or subgrantee or a decision to terminate the grant, or (2) an action taken by a suspending official in accordance with agency regulations implementing E.O. 12549 to immediately exclude a person from participating in grant transactions for a period, pending completion of an investigation and such legal or debarment proceedings as may ensue.
</P>
<P><I>Termination</I> means permanent withdrawal of the authority to obligate previously-awarded grant funds before that authority would otherwise expire. It also means the voluntary relinquishment of that authority by the grantee or subgrantee. <I>Termination</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Withdrawal of funds awarded on the basis of the grantee's underestimate of the unobligated balance in a prior period; 
</P>
<P>(2) Withdrawal of the unobligated balance as of the expiration of a grant; 
</P>
<P>(3) Refusal to extend a grant or award additional funds, to make a competing or noncompeting continuation, renewal, extension, or supplemental award; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Voiding of a grant upon determination that the award was obtained fraudulently, or was otherwise illegal or invalid from inception.
</P>
<P><I>Terms of a grant or subgrant</I> mean all requirements of the grant or subgrant, whether in statute, regulations, or the award document.
</P>
<P><I>Third party in-kind contributions</I> mean property or services which benefit a federally assisted project or program and which are contributed by non-Federal third parties without charge to the grantee, or a cost-type contractor under the grant agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Unliquidated obligations</I> for reports prepared on a cash basis mean the amount of obligations incurred by the grantee that has not been paid. For reports prepared on an accrued expenditure basis, they represent the amount of obligations incurred by the grantee for which an outlay has not been recorded.
</P>
<P><I>Unobligated balance</I> means the portion of the funds authorized by the Federal agency that has not been obligated by the grantee and is determined by deducting the cumulative obligations from the cumulative funds authorized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.1.4.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.4   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Subparts A through D of this part apply to all grants and subgrants to governments, except where inconsistent with Federal statutes or with regulations authorized in accordance with the exception provision of § 1470.6, or:
</P>
<P>(1) Grants and subgrants to State and local institutions of higher education or State and local hospitals.
</P>
<P>(2) The block grants authorized by the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (Community Services; Preventive Health and Health Services; Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Services; Maternal and Child Health Services; Social Services; Low-Income Home Energy Assistance; States' Program of Community Development Block Grants for Small Cities; and Elementary and Secondary Education other than programs administered by the Secretary of Education under title V, subtitle D, chapter 2, section 583—the Secretary's discretionary grant program) and titles I-III of the Job Training Partnership Act of 1982 and under the Public Health Services Act (section 1921), Alcohol and Drug Abuse Treatment and Rehabilitation Block Grant and part C of title V, Mental Health Service for the Homeless Block Grant).
</P>
<P>(3) Entitlement grants to carry out the following programs of the Social Security Act:
</P>
<P>(i) Aid to Needy Families with Dependent Children (title IV-A of the Act, not including the Work Incentive Program (WIN) authorized by section 402(a)19(G); HHS grants for WIN are subject to this part);
</P>
<P>(ii) Child Support Enforcement and Establishment of Paternity (title IV-D of the Act);
</P>
<P>(iii) Foster Care and Adoption Assistance (title IV-E of the Act);
</P>
<P>(iv) Aid to the Aged, Blind, and Disabled (titles I, X, XIV, and XVI-AABD of the Act); and
</P>
<P>(v) Medical Assistance (Medicaid) (title XIX of the Act) not including the State Medicaid Fraud Control program authorized by section 1903(a)(6)(B).
</P>
<P>(4) Entitlement grants under the following programs of The National School Lunch Act:
</P>
<P>(i) School Lunch (section 4 of the Act),
</P>
<P>(ii) Commodity Assistance (section 6 of the Act),
</P>
<P>(iii) Special Meal Assistance (section 11 of the Act),
</P>
<P>(iv) Summer Food Service for Children (section 13 of the Act), and
</P>
<P>(v) Child Care Food Program (section 17 of the Act).
</P>
<P>(5) Entitlement grants under the following programs of The Child Nutrition Act of 1966:
</P>
<P>(i) Special Milk (section 3 of the Act), and
</P>
<P>(ii) School Breakfast (section 4 of the Act).
</P>
<P>(6) Entitlement grants for State Administrative expenses under The Food Stamp Act of 1977 (section 16 of the Act).
</P>
<P>(7) A grant for an experimental, pilot, or demonstration project that is also supported by a grant listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(8) Grant funds awarded under subsection 412(e) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1522(e)) and subsection 501(a) of the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-422, 94 Stat. 1809), for cash assistance, medical assistance, and supplemental security income benefits to refugees and entrants and the administrative costs of providing the assistance and benefits; 
</P>
<P>(9) Grants to local education agencies under 20 U.S.C. 236 through 241-1(a), and 242 through 244 (portions of the Impact Aid program), except for 20 U.S.C. 238(d)(2)(c) and 240(f) (Entitlement Increase for Handicapped Children); and 
</P>
<P>(10) Payments under the Veterans Administration's State Home Per Diem Program (38 U.S.C. 641(a)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Entitlement programs.</I> Entitlement programs enumerated above in § 1470.4(a) (3) through (8) are subject to subpart E.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.1.4.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.5   Effect on other issuances.</HEAD>
<P>All other grants administration provisions of codified program regulations, program manuals, handbooks and other nonregulatory materials which are inconsistent with this part are superseded, except to the extent they are required by statute, or authorized in accordance with the exception provision in § 1470.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.6" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.1.4.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.6   Additions and exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For classes of grants and grantees subject to this part, Federal agencies may not impose additional administrative requirements except in codified regulations published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(b) Exceptions for classes of grants or grantees may be authorized only by OMB. 
</P>
<P>(c) Exceptions on a case-by-case basis and for subgrantees may be authorized by the affected Federal agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Pre-Award Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.10" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.2.4.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.10   Forms for applying for grants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section prescribes forms and instructions to be used by governmental organizations (except hospitals and institutions of higher education operated by a government) in applying for grants. This section is not applicable, however, to formula grant programs which do not require applicants to apply for funds on a project basis. 
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies only to applications to Federal agencies for grants, and is not required to be applied by grantees in dealing with applicants for subgrants. However, grantees are encouraged to avoid more detailed or burdensome application requirements for subgrants. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorized forms and instructions for governmental organizations.</I> (1) In applying for grants, applicants shall only use standard application forms or those prescribed by the granting agency with the approval of OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980. 
</P>
<P>(2) Applicants are not required to submit more than the original and two copies of preapplications or applications. 
</P>
<P>(3) Applicants must follow all applicable instructions that bear OMB clearance numbers. Federal agencies may specify and describe the programs, functions, or activities that will be used to plan, budget, and evaluate the work under a grant. Other supplementary instructions may be issued only with the approval of OMB to the extent required under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980. For any standard form, except the SF-424 facesheet, Federal agencies may shade out or instruct the applicant to disregard any line item that is not needed. 
</P>
<P>(4) When a grantee applies for additional funding (such as a continuation or supplemental award) or amends a previously submitted application, only the affected pages need be submitted. Previously submitted pages with information that is still current need not be resubmitted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.11" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.2.4.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.11   State plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The statutes for some programs require States to submit plans before receiving grants. Under regulations implementing Executive Order 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs,” States are allowed to simplify, consolidate and substitute plans. This section contains additional provisions for plans that are subject to regulations implementing the Executive order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> A State need meet only Federal administrative or programmatic requirements for a plan that are in statutes or codified regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assurances.</I> In each plan the State will include an assurance that the State shall comply with all applicable Federal statutes and regulations in effect with respect to the periods for which it receives grant funding. For this assurance and other assurances required in the plan, the State may:
</P>
<P>(1) Cite by number the statutory or regulatory provisions requiring the assurances and affirm that it gives the assurances required by those provisions,
</P>
<P>(2) Repeat the assurance language in the statutes or regulations, or
</P>
<P>(3) Develop its own language to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendments.</I> A State will amend a plan whenever necessary to reflect: (1) New or revised Federal statutes or regulations or (2) a material change in any State law, organization, policy, or State agency operation. The State will obtain approval for the amendment and its effective date but need submit for approval only the amended portions of the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.12" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.2.4.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.12   Special grant or subgrant conditions for “high-risk” grantees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A grantee or subgrantee may be considered “high risk” if an awarding agency determines that a grantee or subgrantee:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a history of unsatisfactory performance, or
</P>
<P>(2) Is not financially stable, or
</P>
<P>(3) Has a management system which does not meet the management standards set forth in this part, or 
</P>
<P>(4) Has not conformed to terms and conditions of previous awards, or
</P>
<P>(5) Is otherwise not responsible; and if the awarding agency determines that an award will be made, special conditions and/or restrictions shall correspond to the high risk condition and shall be included in the award.
</P>
<P>(b) Special conditions or restrictions may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Payment on a reimbursement basis;
</P>
<P>(2) Withholding authority to proceed to the next phase until receipt of evidence of acceptable performance within a given funding period;
</P>
<P>(3) Requiring additional, more detailed financial reports;
</P>
<P>(4) Additional project monitoring;
</P>
<P>(5) Requiring the grante or subgrantee to obtain technical or management assistance; or 
</P>
<P>(6) Establishing additional prior approvals.
</P>
<P>(c) If an awarding agency decides to impose such conditions, the awarding official will notify the grantee or subgrantee as early as possible, in writing, of:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of the special conditions/restrictions;
</P>
<P>(2) The reason(s) for imposing them;
</P>
<P>(3) The corrective actions which must be taken before they will be removed and the time allowed for completing the corrective actions and
</P>
<P>(4) The method of requesting reconsideration of the conditions/restrictions imposed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Post-Award Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Financial Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.20" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.4.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.20   Standards for financial management systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State must expand and account for grant funds in accordance with State laws and procedures for expending and accounting for its own funds. Fiscal control and accounting procedures of the State, as well as its subgrantees and cost-type contractors, must be sufficient to—
</P>
<P>(1) Permit preparation of reports required by this part and the statutes authorizing the grant, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Permit the tracing of funds to a level of expenditures adequate to establish that such funds have not been used in violation of the restrictions and prohibitions of applicable statutes.
</P>
<P>(b) The financial management systems of other grantees and subgrantees must meet the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financial reporting.</I> Accurate, current, and complete disclosure of the financial results of financially assisted activities must be made in accordance with the financial reporting requirements of the grant or subgrant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounting records.</I> Grantees and subgrantees must maintain records which adequately identify the source and application of funds provided for financially-assisted activities. These records must contain information pertaining to grant or subgrant awards and authorizations, obligations, unobligated balances, assets, liabilities, outlays or expenditures, and income.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Internal control.</I> Effective control and accountability must be maintained for all grant and subgrant cash, real and personal property, and other assets. Grantees and subgrantees must adequately safeguard all such property and must assure that it is used solely for authorized purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Budget control.</I> Actual expenditures or outlays must be compared with budgeted amounts for each grant or subgrant. Financial information must be related to performance or productivity data, including the development of unit cost information whenever appropriate or specifically required in the grant or subgrant agreement. If unit cost data are required, estimates based on available documentation will be accepted whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Allowable cost.</I> Applicable OMB cost principles, agency program regulations, and the terms of grant and subgrant agreements will be followed in determining the reasonableness, allowability, and allocability of costs.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Source documentation.</I> Accounting records must be supported by such source documentation as cancelled checks, paid bills, payrolls, time and attendance records, contract and subgrant award documents, etc.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Cash management.</I> Procedures for minimizing the time elapsing between the transfer of funds from the U.S. Treasury and disbursement by grantees and subgrantees must be followed whenever advance payment procedures are used. Grantees must establish reasonable procedures to ensure the receipt of reports on subgrantees' cash balances and cash disbursements in sufficient time to enable them to prepare complete and accurate cash transactions reports to the awarding agency. When advances are made by letter-of-credit or electronic transfer of funds methods, the grantee must make drawdowns as close as possible to the time of making disbursements. Grantees must monitor cash drawdowns by their subgrantees to assure that they conform substantially to the same standards of timing and amount as apply to advances to the grantees.
</P>
<P>(c) An awarding agency may review the adequacy of the financial management system of any applicant for financial assistance as part of a preaward review or at any time subsequent to award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.21" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.4.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.21   Payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section prescribes the basic standard and the methods under which a Federal agency will make payments to grantees, and grantees will make payments to subgrantees and contractors. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic standard.</I> Methods and procedures for payment shall minimize the time elapsing between the transfer of funds and disbursement by the grantee or subgrantee, in accordance with Treasury regulations at 31 CFR part 205. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advances.</I> Grantees and subgrantees shall be paid in advance, provided they maintain or demonstrate the willingness and ability to maintain procedures to minimize the time elapsing between the transfer of the funds and their disbursement by the grantee or subgrantee. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reimbursement.</I> Reimbursement shall be the preferred method when the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section are not met. Grantees and subgrantees may also be paid by reimbursement for any construction grant. Except as otherwise specified in regulation, Federal agencies shall not use the percentage of completion method to pay construction grants. The grantee or subgrantee may use that method to pay its construction contractor, and if it does, the awarding agency's payments to the grantee or subgrantee will be based on the grantee's or subgrantee's actual rate of disbursement. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Working capital advances.</I> If a grantee cannot meet the criteria for advance payments described in paragraph (c) of this section, and the Federal agency has determined that reimbursement is not feasible because the grantee lacks sufficient working capital, the awarding agency may provide cash or a working capital advance basis. Under this procedure the awarding agency shall advance cash to the grantee to cover its estimated disbursement needs for an initial period generally geared to the grantee's disbursing cycle. Thereafter, the awarding agency shall reimburse the grantee for its actual cash disbursements. The working capital advance method of payment shall not be used by grantees or subgrantees if the reason for using such method is the unwillingness or inability of the grantee to provide timely advances to the subgrantee to meet the subgrantee's actual cash disbursements. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect of program income, refunds, and audit recoveries on payment.</I> (1) Grantees and subgrantees shall disburse repayments to and interest earned on a revolving fund before requesting additional cash payments for the same activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, grantees and subgrantees shall disburse program income, rebates, refunds, contract settlements, audit recoveries and interest earned on such funds before requesting additional cash payments. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Withholding payments.</I> (1) Unless otherwise required by Federal statute, awarding agencies shall not withhold payments for proper charges incurred by grantees or subgrantees unless— 
</P>
<P>(i) The grantee or subgrantee has failed to comply with grant award conditions or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The grantee or subgrantee is indebted to the United States. 
</P>
<P>(2) Cash withheld for failure to comply with grant award condition, but without suspension of the grant, shall be released to the grantee upon subsequent compliance. When a grant is suspended, payment adjustments will be made in accordance with § 1470.43(c). 
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal agency shall not make payment to grantees for amounts that are withheld by grantees or subgrantees from payment to contractors to assure satisfactory completion of work. Payments shall be made by the Federal agency when the grantees or subgrantees actually disburse the withheld funds to the contractors or to escrow accounts established to assure satisfactory completion of work. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Cash depositories.</I> (1) Consistent with the national goal of expanding the opportunities for minority business enterprises, grantees and subgrantees are encouraged to use minority banks (a bank which is owned at least 50 percent by minority group members). A list of minority owned banks can be obtained from the Minority Business Development Agency, Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230. 
</P>
<P>(2) A grantee or subgrantee shall maintain a separate bank account only when required by Federal-State agreement. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Interest earned on advances.</I> Except for interest earned on advances of funds exempt under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act (31 U.S.C. 6501 <I>et seq.</I>) and the Indian Self-Determination Act (23 U.S.C. 450), grantees and subgrantees shall promptly, but at least quarterly, remit interest earned on advances to the Federal agency. The grantee or subgrantee may keep interest amounts up to $100 per year for administrative expenses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.22" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.4.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.22   Allowable costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitation on use of funds.</I> Grant funds may be used only for:
</P>
<P>(1) The allowable costs of the grantees, subgrantees and cost-type contractors, including allowable costs in the form of payments to fixed-price contractors; and
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable fees or profit to cost-type contractors but not any fee or profit (or other increment above allowable costs) to the grantee or subgrantee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicable cost principles.</I> For each kind of organization, there is a set of Federal principles for determining allowable costs. Allowable costs will be determined in accordance with the cost principles applicable to the organization incurring the costs. The following chart lists the kinds of organizations and the applicable cost principles.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">For the costs of a—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use the principles in—
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">State, local or Indian tribal government</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OMB Circular A-87.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Private nonprofit organization other than an (1) institution of higher education, (2) hospital, or (3) organization named in OMB Circular A-122 as not subject to that circular</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OMB Circular A-122.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Educational institutions.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OMB Circular A-21.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">For-profit organization other than a hospital and an organization named in OBM Circular A-122 as not subject to that circular</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">48 CFR part 31. Contract Cost Principles and Procedures, or uniform cost accounting standards that comply with cost principles acceptable to the Federal agency.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.23" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.4.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.23   Period of availability of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Where a funding period is specified, a grantee may charge to the award only costs resulting from obligations of the funding period unless carryover of unobligated balances is permitted, in which case the carryover balances may be charged for costs resulting from obligations of the subsequent funding period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidation of obligations.</I> A grantee must liquidate all obligations incurred under the award not later than 90 days after the end of the funding period (or as specified in a program regulation) to coincide with the submission of the annual Financial Status Report (SF-269). The Federal agency may extend this deadline at the request of the grantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.24" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.4.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.24   Matching or cost sharing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic rule: Costs and contributions acceptable.</I> With the qualifications and exceptions listed in paragraph (b) of this section, a matching or cost sharing requirement may be satisfied by either or both of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Allowable costs incurred by the grantee, subgrantee or a cost-type contractor under the assistance agreement. This includes allowable costs borne by non-Federal grants or by others cash donations from non-Federal third parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The value of third party in-kind contributions applicable to the period to which the cost sharing or matching requirements applies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifications and exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Costs borne by other Federal grant agreements.</I> Except as provided by Federal statute, a cost sharing or matching requirement may not be met by costs borne by another Federal grant. This prohibition does not apply to income earned by a grantee or subgrantee from a contract awarded under another Federal grant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General revenue sharing.</I> For the purpose of this section, general revenue sharing funds distributed under 31 U.S.C. 6702 are not considered Federal grant funds.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost or contributions counted towards other Federal costs-sharing requirements.</I> Neither costs nor the values of third party in-kind contributions may count towards satisfying a cost sharing or matching requirement of a grant agreement if they have been or will be counted towards satisfying a cost sharing or matching requirement of another Federal grant agreement, a Federal procurement contract, or any other award of Federal funds.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Costs financed by program income.</I> Costs financed by program income, as defined in § 1470.25, shall not count towards satisfying a cost sharing or matching requirement unless they are expressly permitted in the terms of the assistance agreement. (This use of general program income is described in § 1470.25(g).)
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Services or property financed by income earned by contractors.</I> Contractors under a grant may earn income from the activities carried out under the contract in addition to the amounts earned from the party awarding the contract. No costs of services or property supported by this income may count toward satisfying a cost sharing or matching requirement unless other provisions of the grant agreement expressly permit this kind of income to be used to meet the requirement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Records.</I> Costs and third party in-kind contributions counting towards satisfying a cost sharing or matching requirement must be verifiable from the records of grantees and subgrantee or cost-type contractors. These records must show how the value placed on third party in-kind contributions was derived. To the extent feasible, volunteer services will be supported by the same methods that the organization uses to support the allocability of regular personnel costs.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Special standards for third party in-kind contributions.</I> (i) Third party in-kind contributions count towards satisfying a cost sharing or matching requirement only where, if the party receiving the contributions were to pay for them, the payments would be allowable costs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Some third party in-kind contributions are goods and services that, if the grantee, subgrantee, or contractor receiving the contribution had to pay for them, the payments would have been an indirect costs. Costs sharing or matching credit for such contributions shall be given only if the grantee, subgrantee, or contractor has established, along with its regular indirect cost rate, a special rate for allocating to individual projects or programs the value of the contributions.
</P>
<P>(iii) A third party in-kind contribution to a fixed-price contract may count towards satisfying a cost sharing or matching requirement only if it results in:
</P>
<P>(A) An increase in the services or property provided under the contract (without additional cost to the grantee or subgrantee) or
</P>
<P>(B) A cost savings to the grantee or subgrantee.
</P>
<P>(iv) The values placed on third party in-kind contributions for cost sharing or matching purposes will conform to the rules in the succeeding sections of this part. If a third party in-kind contribution is a type not treated in those sections, the value placed upon it shall be fair and reasonable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Valuation of donated services</I>—(1) <I>Volunteer services.</I> Unpaid services provided to a grantee or subgrantee by individuals will be valued at rates consistent with those ordinarily paid for similar work in the grantee's or subgrantee's organization. If the grantee or subgrantee does not have employees performing similar work, the rates will be consistent with those ordinarily paid by other employers for similar work in the same labor market. In either case, a reasonable amount for fringe benefits may be included in the valuation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employees of other organizations.</I> When an employer other than a grantee, subgrantee, or cost-type contractor furnishes free of charge the services of an employee in the employee's normal line of work, the services will be valued at the employee's regular rate of pay exclusive of the employee's fringe benefits and overhead costs. If the services are in a different line of work, paragraph (c)(1) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Valuation of third party donated supplies and loaned equipment or space.</I> (1) If a third party donates supplies, the contribution will be valued at the market value of the supplies at the time of donation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a third party donates the use of equipment or space in a building but retains title, the contribution will be valued at the fair rental rate of the equipment or space.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Valuation of third party donated equipment, buildings, and land.</I> If a third party donates equipment, buildings, or land, and title passes to a grantee or subgrantee, the treatment of the donated property will depend upon the purpose of the grant or subgrant, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Awards for capital expenditures.</I> If the purpose of the grant or subgrant is to assist the grantee or subgrantee in the acquisition of property, the market value of that property at the time of donation may be counted as cost sharing or matching,
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other awards.</I> If assisting in the acquisition of property is not the purpose of the grant or subgrant, paragraphs (e)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section apply:
</P>
<P>(i) If approval is obtained from the awarding agency, the market value at the time of donation of the donated equipment or buildings and the fair rental rate of the donated land may be counted as cost sharing or matching. In the case of a subgrant, the terms of the grant agreement may require that the approval be obtained from the Federal agency as well as the grantee. In all cases, the approval may be given only if a purchase of the equipment or rental of the land would be approved as an allowable direct cost. If any part of the donated property was acquired with Federal funds, only the non-Federal share of the property may be counted as cost-sharing or matching.
</P>
<P>(ii) If approval is not obtained under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, no amount may be counted for donated land, and only depreciation or use allowances may be counted for donated equipment and buildings. The depreciation or use allowances for this property are not treated as third party in-kind contributions. Instead, they are treated as costs incurred by the grantee or subgrantee. They are computed and allocated (usually as indirect costs) in accordance with the cost principles specified in § 1470.22, in the same way as depreciation or use allowances for purchased equipment and buildings. The amount of depreciation or use allowances for donated equipment and buildings is based on the property's market value at the time it was donated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Valuation of grantee or subgrantee donated real property for construction/acquisition.</I> If a grantee or subgrantee donates real property for a construction or facilities acquisition project, the current market value of that property may be counted as cost sharing or matching. If any part of the donated property was acquired with Federal funds, only the non-Federal share of the property may be counted as cost sharing or matching.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appraisal of real property.</I> In some cases under paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this section, it will be necessary to establish the market value of land or a building or the fair rental rate of land or of space in a building. In these cases, the Federal agency may require the market value or fair rental value be set by an independent appraiser, and that the value or rate be certified by the grantee. This requirement will also be imposed by the grantee on subgrantees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.25" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.4.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.25   Program income.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Grantees are encouraged to earn income to defray program costs. Program income includes income from fees for services performed, from the use or rental of real or personal property acquired with grant funds, from the sale of commodities or items fabricated under a grant agreement, and from payments of principal and interest on loans made with grant funds. Except as otherwise provided in regulations of the Federal agency, program income does not include interest on grant funds, rebates, credits, discounts, refunds, etc. and interest earned on any of them. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of program income.</I> Program income means gross income received by the grantee or subgrantee directly generated by a grant supported activity, or earned only as a result of the grant agreement during the grant period. “During the grant period” is the time between the effective date of the award and the ending date of the award reflected in the final financial report. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cost of generating program income.</I> If authorized by Federal regulations or the grant agreement, costs incident to the generation of program income may be deducted from gross income to determine program income. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Governmental revenues.</I> Taxes, special assessments, levies, fines, and other such revenues raised by a grantee or subgrantee are not program income unless the revenues are specifically identified in the grant agreement or Federal agency regulations as program income. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Royalties.</I> Income from royalties and license fees for copyrighted material, patents, and inventions developed by a grantee or subgrantee is program income only if the revenues are specifically identified in the grant agreement or Federal agency regulations as program income. (See § 1470.34.) 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Property.</I> Proceeds from the sale of real property or equipment will be handled in accordance with the requirements of §§ 1470.31 and 1470.32. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of program income.</I> Program income shall be deducted from outlays which may be both Federal and non-Federal as described below, unless the Federal agency regulations or the grant agreement specify another alternative (or a combination of the alternatives). In specifying alternatives, the Federal agency may distinguish between income earned by the grantee and income earned by subgrantees and between the sources, kinds, or amounts of income. When Federal agencies authorize the alternatives in paragraphs (g) (2) and (3) of this section, program income in excess of any limits stipulated shall also be deducted from outlays. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Deduction.</I> Ordinarily program income shall be deducted from total allowable costs to determine the net allowable costs. Program income shall be used for current costs unless the Federal agency authorizes otherwise. Program income which the grantee did not anticipate at the time of the award shall be used to reduce the Federal agency and grantee contributions rather than to increase the funds committed to the project. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Addition.</I> When authorized, program income may be added to the funds committed to the grant agreement by the Federal agency and the grantee. The program income shall be used for the purposes and under the conditions of the grant agreement. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost sharing or matching.</I> When authorized, program income may be used to meet the cost sharing or matching requirement of the grant agreement. The amount of the Federal grant award remains the same. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Income after the award period.</I> There are no Federal requirements governing the disposition of program income earned after the end of the award period (i.e., until the ending date of the final financial report, see paragraph (a) of this section), unless the terms of the agreement or the Federal agency regulations provide otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.26" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.4.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.26   Non-Federal audit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic rule.</I> Grantees and subgrantees are responsible for obtaining audits in accordance with the Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996 (31 U.S.C. 7501-7507) and revised OMB Circular A-133, “Audits of States, Local Governments, and Non-Profit Organizations.” The audits shall be made by an independent auditor in accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards covering financial audits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subgrantees.</I> State or local governments, as those terms are defined for purposes of the Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996, that provide Federal awards to a subgrantee, which expends $300,000 or more (or other amount as specified by OMB) in Federal awards in a fiscal year, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether State or local subgrantees have met the audit requirements of the Act and whether subgrantees covered by OMB Circular A-110, “Uniform Administrative Requirements for Grants and Agreements with Institutions of Higher Education, Hospitals, and Other Non-Profit Organizations,” have met the audit requirements of the Act. Commercial contractors (private for-profit and private and governmental organizations) providing goods and services to State and local governments are not required to have a single audit performed. State and local governments should use their own procedures to ensure that the contractor has complied with laws and regulations affecting the expenditure of Federal funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the subgrantee spent Federal assistance funds provided in accordance with applicable laws and regulations. This may be accomplished by reviewing an audit of the subgrantee made in accordance with the Act, Circular A-110, or through other means (e.g., program reviews) if the subgrantee has not had such an audit; 
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that appropriate corrective action is taken within six months after receipt of the audit report in instance of noncompliance with Federal laws and regulations; 
</P>
<P>(4) Consider whether subgrantee audits necessitate adjustment of the grantee's own records; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Require each subgrantee to permit independent auditors to have access to the records and financial statements. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Auditor selection.</I> In arranging for audit services, § 1470.36 shall be followed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 8087, Mar. 11, 1988, as amended at 62 FR 45939, 45942, Aug. 29, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="5" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Changes, Property, and Subawards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.30" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.30   Changes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Grantees and subgrantees are permitted to rebudget within the approved direct cost budget to meet unanticipated requirements and may make limited program changes to the approved project. However, unless waived by the awarding agency, certain types of post-award changes in budgets and projects shall require the prior written approval of the awarding agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relation to cost principles.</I> The applicable cost principles (see § 1470.22) contain requirements for prior approval of certain types of costs. Except where waived, those requirements apply to all grants and subgrants even if paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section do not.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Budget changes</I>—(1) <I>Nonconstruction projects.</I> Except as stated in other regulations or an award document, grantees or subgrantees shall obtain the prior approval of the awarding agency whenever any of the following changes is anticipated under a nonconstruction award:
</P>
<P>(i) Any revision which would result in the need for additional funding. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless waived by the awarding agency, cumulative transfers among direct cost categories, or, if applicable, among separately budgeted programs, projects, functions, or activities which exceed or are expected to exceed ten percent of the current total approved budget, whenever the awarding agency's share exceeds $100,000.
</P>
<P>(iii) Transfer of funds allotted for training allowances (i.e., from direct payments to trainees to other expense categories).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Construction projects.</I> Grantees and subgrantees shall obtain prior written approval for any budget revision which would result in the need for additional funds.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Combined construction and nonconstruction projects.</I> When a grant or subgrant provides funding for both construction and nonconstruction activities, the grantee or subgrantee must obtain prior written approval from the awarding agency before making any fund or budget transfer from nonconstruction to construction or vice versa.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Programmatic changes.</I> Grantees or subgrantees must obtain the prior approval of the awarding agency whenever any of the following actions is anticipated:
</P>
<P>(1) Any revision of the scope or objectives of the project (regardless of whether there is an associated budget revision requiring prior approval).
</P>
<P>(2) Need to extend the period of availability of funds.
</P>
<P>(3) Changes in key persons in cases where specified in an application or a grant award. In research projects, a change in the project director or principal investigator shall always require approval unless waived by the awarding agency. 
</P>
<P>(4) Under nonconstruction projects, contracting out, subgranting (if authorized by law) or otherwise obtaining the services of a third party to perform activities which are central to the purposes of the award. This approval requirement is in addition to the approval requirements of § 1470.36 but does not apply to the procurement of equipment, supplies, and general support services.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional prior approval requirements.</I> The awarding agency may not require prior approval for any budget revision which is not described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requesting prior approval.</I> (1) A request for prior approval of any budget revision will be in the same budget formal the grantee used in its application and shall be accompanied by a narrative justification for the proposed revision.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for a prior approval under the applicable Federal cost principles (see § 1470.22) may be made by letter.
</P>
<P>(3) A request by a subgrantee for prior approval will be addressed in writing to the grantee. The grantee will promptly review such request and shall approve or disapprove the request in writing. A grantee will not approve any budget or project revision which is inconsistent with the purpose or terms and conditions of the Federal grant to the grantee. If the revision, requested by the subgrantee would result in a change to the grantee's approved project which requires Federal prior approval, the grantee will obtain the Federal agency's approval before approving the subgrantee's request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.31" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.31   Real property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Title.</I> Subject to the obligations and conditions set forth in this section, title to real property acquired under a grant or subgrant will vest upon acquisition in the grantee or subgrantee respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use.</I> Except as otherwise provided by Federal statutes, real property will be used for the originally authorized purposes as long as needed for that purposes, and the grantee or subgrantee shall not dispose of or encumber its title or other interests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disposition.</I> When real property is no longer needed for the originally authorized purpose, the grantee or subgrantee will request disposition instructions from the awarding agency. The instructions will provide for one of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retention of title.</I> Retain title after compensating the awarding agency. The amount paid to the awarding agency will be computed by applying the awarding agency's percentage of participation in the cost of the original purchase to the fair market value of the property. However, in those situations where a grantee or subgrantee is disposing of real property acquired with grant funds and acquiring replacement real property under the same program, the net proceeds from the disposition may be used as an offset to the cost of the replacement property.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sale of property.</I> Sell the property and compensate the awarding agency. The amount due to the awarding agency will be calculated by applying the awarding agency's percentage of participation in the cost of the original purchase to the proceeds of the sale after deduction of any actual and reasonable selling and fixing-up expenses. If the grant is still active, the net proceeds from sale may be offset against the original cost of the property. When a grantee or subgrantee is directed to sell property, sales procedures shall be followed that provide for competition to the extent practicable and result in the highest possible return.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transfer of title.</I> Transfer title to the awarding agency or to a third-party designated/approved by the awarding agency. The grantee or subgrantee shall be paid an amount calculated by applying the grantee or subgrantee's percentage of participation in the purchase of the real property to the current fair market value of the property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.32" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.32   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Title.</I> Subject to the obligations and conditions set forth in this section, title to equipment acquired under a grant or subgrant will vest upon acquisition in the grantee or subgrantee respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>States.</I> A State will use, manage, and dispose of equipment acquired under a grant by the State in accordance with State laws and procedures. Other grantees and subgrantees will follow paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use.</I> (1) Equipment shall be used by the grantee or subgrantee in the program or project for which it was acquired as long as needed, whether or not the project or program continues to be supported by Federal funds. When no longer needed for the original program or project, the equipment may be used in other activities currently or previously supported by a Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The grantee or subgrantee shall also make equipment available for use on other projects or programs currently or previously supported by the Federal Government, providing such use will not interfere with the work on the projects or program for which it was originally acquired. First preference for other use shall be given to other programs or projects supported by the awarding agency. User fees should be considered if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding the encouragement in § 1470.25(a) to earn program income, the grantee or subgrantee must not use equipment acquired with grant funds to provide services for a fee to compete unfairly with private companies that provide equivalent services, unless specifically permitted or contemplated by Federal statute.
</P>
<P>(4) When acquiring replacement equipment, the grantee or subgrantee may use the equipment to be replaced as a trade-in or sell the property and use the proceeds to offset the cost of the replacement property, subject to the approval of the awarding agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Management requirements.</I> Procedures for managing equipment (including replacement equipment), whether acquired in whole or in part with grant funds, until disposition takes place will, as a minimum, meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Property records must be maintained that include a description of the property, a serial number or other identification number, the source of property, who holds title, the acquisition date, and cost of the property, percentage of Federal participation in the cost of the property, the location, use and condition of the property, and any ultimate disposition data including the date of disposal and sale price of the property.
</P>
<P>(2) A physical inventory of the property must be taken and the results reconciled with the property records at least once every two years.
</P>
<P>(3) A control system must be developed to ensure adequate safeguards to prevent loss, damage, or theft of the property. Any loss, damage, or theft shall be investigated.
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate maintenance procedures must be developed to keep the property in good condition.
</P>
<P>(5) If the grantee or subgrantee is authorized or required to sell the property, proper sales procedures must be established to ensure the highest possible return.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disposition.</I> When original or replacement equipment acquired under a grant or subgrant is no longer needed for the original project or program or for other activities currently or previously supported by a Federal agency, disposition of the equipment will be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Items of equipment with a current per-unit fair market value of less than $5,000 may be retained, sold or otherwise disposed of with no further obligation to the awarding agency.
</P>
<P>(2) Items of equipment with a current per unit fair market value in excess of $5,000 may be retained or sold and the awarding agency shall have a right to an amount calculated by multiplying the current market value or proceeds from sale by the awarding agency's share of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) In cases where a grantee or subgrantee fails to take appropriate disposition actions, the awarding agency may direct the grantee or subgrantee to take excess and disposition actions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal equipment.</I> In the event a grantee or subgrantee is provided federally-owned equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) Title will remain vested in the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(2) Grantees or subgrantees will manage the equipment in accordance with Federal agency rules and procedures, and submit an annual inventory listing.
</P>
<P>(3) When the equipment is no longer needed, the grantee or subgrantee will request disposition instructions from the Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Right to transfer title.</I> The Federal awarding agency may reserve the right to transfer title to the Federal Government or a third part named by the awarding agency when such a third party is otherwise eligible under existing statutes. Such transfers shall be subject to the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) The property shall be identified in the grant or otherwise made known to the grantee in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal awarding agency shall issue disposition instruction within 120 calendar days after the end of the Federal support of the project for which it was acquired. If the Federal awarding agency fails to issue disposition instructions within the 120 calendar-day period the grantee shall follow § 1470.32(e).
</P>
<P>(3) When title to equipment is transferred, the grantee shall be paid an amount calculated by applying the percentage of participation in the purchase to the current fair market value of the property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.33" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.33   Supplies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Title.</I> Title to supplies acquired under a grant or subgrant will vest, upon acquisition, in the grantee or subgrantee respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disposition.</I> If there is a residual inventory of unused supplies exceeding $5,000 in total aggregate fair market value upon termination or completion of the award, and if the supplies are not needed for any other federally sponsored programs or projects, the grantee or subgrantee shall compensate the awarding agency for its share.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.34" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.34   Copyrights.</HEAD>
<P>The Federal awarding agency reserves a royalty-free, nonexclusive, and irrevocable license to reproduce, publish or otherwise use, and to authorize others to use, for Federal Government purposes:
</P>
<P>(a) The copyright in any work developed under a grant, subgrant, or contract under a grant or subgrant; and
</P>
<P>(b) Any rights of copyright to which a grantee, subgrantee or a contractor purchases ownership with grant support.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.35" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.35   Subawards to debarred and suspended parties.</HEAD>
<P>Grantees and subgrantees must not make any award or permit any award (subgrant or contract) at any tier to any party which is debarred or suspended or is otherwise excluded from or ineligible for participation in Federal assistance programs under Executive Order 12549, “Debarment and Suspension.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.36" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.36   Procurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>States.</I> When procuring property and services under a grant, a State will follow the same policies and procedures it uses for procurements from its non-Federal funds. The State will ensure that every purchase order or other contract includes any clauses required by Federal statutes and executive orders and their implementing regulations. Other grantees and subgrantees will follow paragraphs (b) through (i) in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procurement standards.</I> (1) Grantees and subgrantees will use their own procurement procedures which reflect applicable State and local laws and regulations, provided that the procurements conform to applicable Federal law and the standards identified in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Grantees and subgrantees will maintain a contract administration system which ensures that contractors perform in accordance with the terms, conditions, and specifications of their contracts or purchase orders.
</P>
<P>(3) Grantees and subgrantees will maintain a written code of standards of conduct governing the performance of their employees engaged in the award and administration of contracts. No employee, officer or agent of the grantee or subgrantee shall participate in selection, or in the award or administration of a contract supported by Federal funds if a conflict of interest, real or apparent, would be involved. Such a conflict would arise when:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee, officer or agent, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any member of his immediate family,
</P>
<P>(iii) His or her partner, or 
</P>
<P>(iv) An organization which employs, or is about to employ, any of the above, has a financial or other interest in the firm selected for award. The grantee's or subgrantee's officers, employees or agents will neither solicit nor accept gratuities, favors or anything of monetary value from contractors, potential contractors, or parties to subagreements. Grantee and subgrantees may set minimum rules where the financial interest is not substantial or the gift is an unsolicited item of nominal intrinsic value. To the extent permitted by State or local law or regulations, such standards or conduct will provide for penalties, sanctions, or other disciplinary actions for violations of such standards by the grantee's and subgrantee's officers, employees, or agents, or by contractors or their agents. The awarding agency may in regulation provide additional prohibitions relative to real, apparent, or potential conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(4) Grantee and subgrantee procedures will provide for a review of proposed procurements to avoid purchase of unnecessary or duplicative items. Consideration should be given to consolidating or breaking out procurements to obtain a more economical purchase. Where appropriate, an analysis will be made of lease versus purchase alternatives, and any other appropriate analysis to determine the most economical approach.
</P>
<P>(5) To foster greater economy and efficiency, grantees and subgrantees are encouraged to enter into State and local intergovernmental agreements for procurement or use of common goods and services.
</P>
<P>(6) Grantees and subgrantees are encouraged to use Federal excess and surplus property in lieu of purchasing new equipment and property whenever such use is feasible and reduces project costs.
</P>
<P>(7) Grantees and subgrantees are encouraged to use value engineering clauses in contracts for construction projects of sufficient size to offer reasonable opportunities for cost reductions. Value engineering is a systematic and creative anaylsis of each contract item or task to ensure that its essential function is provided at the overall lower cost.
</P>
<P>(8) Grantees and subgrantees will make awards only to responsible contractors possessing the ability to perform successfully under the terms and conditions of a proposed procurement. Consideration will be given to such matters as contractor integrity, compliance with public policy, record of past performance, and financial and technical resources.
</P>
<P>(9) Grantees and subgrantees will maintain records sufficient to detail the significant history of a procurement. These records will include, but are not necessarily limited to the following: rationale for the method of procurement, selection of contract type, contractor selection or rejection, and the basis for the contract price.
</P>
<P>(10) Grantees and subgrantees will use time and material type contracts only—
</P>
<P>(i) After a determination that no other contract is suitable, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the contract includes a ceiling price that the contractor exceeds at its own risk.
</P>
<P>(11) Grantees and subgrantees alone will be responsible, in accordance with good administrative practice and sound business judgment, for the settlement of all contractual and administrative issues arising out of procurements. These issues include, but are not limited to source evaluation, protests, disputes, and claims. These standards do not relieve the grantee or subgrantee of any contractual responsibilities under its contracts. Federal agencies will not substitute their judgment for that of the grantee or subgrantee unless the matter is primarily a Federal concern. Violations of law will be referred to the local, State, or Federal authority having proper jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(12) Grantees and subgrantees will have protest procedures to handle and resolve disputes relating to their procurements and shall in all instances disclose information regarding the protest to the awarding agency. A protestor must exhaust all administrative remedies with the grantee and subgrantee before pursuing a protest with the Federal agency. Reviews of protests by the Federal agency will be limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Violations of Federal law or regulations and the standards of this section (violations of State or local law will be under the jurisdiction of State or local authorities) and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations of the grantee's or subgrantee's protest procedures for failure to review a complaint or protest. Protests received by the Federal agency other than those specified above will be referred to the grantee or subgrantee. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Competition.</I> (1) All procurement transactions will be conducted in a manner providing full and open competition consistent with the standards of § 1470.36. Some of the situations considered to be restrictive of competition include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Placing unreasonable requirements on firms in order for them to qualify to do business, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Requiring unnecessary experience and excessive bonding, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Noncompetitive pricing practices between firms or between affiliated companies, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Noncompetitive awards to consultants that are on retainer contracts, 
</P>
<P>(v) Organizational conflicts of interest, 
</P>
<P>(vi) Specifying only a “brand name” product instead of allowing “an equal” product to be offered and describing the performance of other relevant requirements of the procurement, and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Any arbitrary action in the procurement process. 
</P>
<P>(2) Grantees and subgrantees will conduct procurements in a manner that prohibits the use of statutorily or administratively imposed in-State or local geographical preferences in the evaluation of bids or proposals, except in those cases where applicable Federal statutes expressly mandate or encourage geographic preference. Nothing in this section preempts State licensing laws. When contracting for architectural and engineering (A/E) services, geographic location may be a selection criteria provided its application leaves an appropriate number of qualified firms, given the nature and size of the project, to compete for the contract. 
</P>
<P>(3) Grantees will have written selection procedures for procurement transactions. These procedures will ensure that all solicitations: 
</P>
<P>(i) Incorporate a clear and accurate description of the technical requirements for the material, product, or service to be procured. Such description shall not, in competitive procurements, contain features which unduly restrict competition. The description may include a statement of the qualitative nature of the material, product or service to be procured, and when necessary, shall set forth those minimum essential characteristics and standards to which it must conform if it is to satisfy its intended use. Detailed product specifications should be avoided if at all possible. When it is impractical or uneconomical to make a clear and accurate description of the technical requirements, a “brand name or equal” description may be used as a means to define the performance or other salient requirements of a procurement. The specific features of the named brand which must be met by offerors shall be clearly stated; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify all requirements which the offerors must fulfill and all other factors to be used in evaluating bids or proposals. 
</P>
<P>(4) Grantees and subgrantees will ensure that all prequalified lists of persons, firms, or products which are used in acquiring goods and services are current and include enough qualified sources to ensure maximum open and free competition. Also, grantees and subgrantees will not preclude potential bidders from qualifying during the solicitation period. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of procurement to be followed</I>—(1) <I>Procurement by small purchase procedures.</I> Small purchase procedures are those relatively simple and informal procurement methods for securing services, supplies, or other property that do not cost more than the simplified acquisition threshold fixed at 41 U.S.C. 403(11) (currently set at $100,000). If small purchase procedures are used, price or rate quotations shall be obtained from an adequate number of qualified sources. 
</P>
<P>(2) Procurement by <I>sealed bids</I> (formal advertising). Bids are publicly solicited and a firm-fixed-price contract (lump sum or unit price) is awarded to the responsible bidder whose bid, conforming with all the material terms and conditions of the invitation for bids, is the lowest in price. The sealed bid method is the preferred method for procuring construction, if the conditions in § 1470.36(d)(2)(i) apply. 
</P>
<P>(i) In order for sealed bidding to be feasible, the following conditions should be present: 
</P>
<P>(A) A complete, adequate, and realistic specification or purchase description is available; 
</P>
<P>(B) Two or more responsible bidders are willing and able to compete effectively and for the business; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The procurement lends itself to a firm fixed price contract and the selection of the successful bidder can be made principally on the basis of price. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If sealed bids are used, the following requirements apply: 
</P>
<P>(A) The invitation for bids will be publicly advertised and bids shall be solicited from an adequate number of known suppliers, providing them sufficient time prior to the date set for opening the bids; 
</P>
<P>(B) The invitation for bids, which will include any specifications and pertinent attachments, shall define the items or services in order for the bidder to properly respond; 
</P>
<P>(C) All bids will be publicly opened at the time and place prescribed in the invitation for bids; 
</P>
<P>(D) A firm fixed-price contract award will be made in writing to the lowest responsive and responsible bidder. Where specified in bidding documents, factors such as discounts, transportation cost, and life cycle costs shall be considered in determining which bid is lowest. Payment discounts will only be used to determine the low bid when prior experience indicates that such discounts are usually taken advantage of; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Any or all bids may be rejected if there is a sound documented reason. 
</P>
<P>(3) Procurement by <I>competitive proposals.</I> The technique of competitive proposals is normally conducted with more than one source submitting an offer, and either a fixed-price or cost-reimbursement type contract is awarded. It is generally used when conditions are not appropriate for the use of sealed bids. If this method is used, the following requirements apply: 
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for proposals will be publicized and identify all evaluation factors and their relative importance. Any response to publicized requests for proposals shall be honored to the maximum extent practical; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Proposals will be solicited from an adequate number of qualified sources; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Grantees and subgrantees will have a method for conducting technical evaluations of the proposals received and for selecting awardees; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Awards will be made to the responsible firm whose proposal is most advantageous to the program, with price and other factors considered; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Grantees and subgrantees may use competitive proposal procedures for qualifications-based procurement of architectural/engineering (A/E) professional services whereby competitors' qualifications are evaluated and the most qualified competitor is selected, subject to negotiation of fair and reasonable compensation. The method, where price is not used as a selection factor, can only be used in procurement of A/E professional services. It cannot be used to purchase other types of services though A/E firms are a potential source to perform the proposed effort. 
</P>
<P>(4) Procurement by <I>noncompetitive proposals</I> is procurement through solicitation of a proposal from only one source, or after solicitation of a number of sources, competition is determined inadequate. 
</P>
<P>(i) Procurement by noncompetitive proposals may be used only when the award of a contract is infeasible under small purchase procedures, sealed bids or competitive proposals and one of the following circumstances applies: 
</P>
<P>(A) The item is available only from a single source; 
</P>
<P>(B) The public exigency or emergency for the requirement will not permit a delay resulting from competitive solicitation; 
</P>
<P>(C) The awarding agency authorizes noncompetitive proposals; or 
</P>
<P>(D) After solicitation of a number of sources, competition is determined inadequate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Cost analysis, i.e., verifying the proposed cost data, the projections of the data, and the evaluation of the specific elements of costs and profits, is required. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Grantees and subgrantees may be required to submit the proposed procurement to the awarding agency for pre-award review in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contracting with small and minority firms, women's business enterprise and labor surplus area firms.</I> (1) The grantee and subgrantee will take all necessary affirmative steps to assure that minority firms, women's business enterprises, and labor surplus area firms are used when possible.
</P>
<P>(2) Affirmative steps shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Placing qualified small and minority businesses and women's business enterprises on solicitation lists;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assuring that small and minority businesses, and women's business enterprises are solicited whenever they are potential sources;
</P>
<P>(iii) Dividing total requirements, when economically feasible, into smaller tasks or quantities to permit maximum participation by small and minority business, and women's business enterprises;
</P>
<P>(iv) Establishing delivery schedules, where the requirement permits, which encourage participation by small and minority business, and women's business enterprises;
</P>
<P>(v) Using the services and assistance of the Small Business Administration, and the Minority Business Development Agency of the Department of Commerce; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Requiring the prime contractor, if subcontracts are to be let, to take the affirmative steps listed in paragraphs (e)(2) (i) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contract cost and price.</I> (1) Grantees and subgrantees must perform a cost or price analysis in connection with every procurement action including contract modifications. The method and degree of analysis is dependent on the facts surrounding the particular procurement situation, but as a starting point, grantees must make independent estimates before receiving bids or proposals. A cost analysis must be performed when the offeror is required to submit the elements of his estimated cost, e.g., under professional, consulting, and architectural engineering services contracts. A cost analysis will be necessary when adequate price competition is lacking, and for sole source procurements, including contract modifications or change orders, unless price resonableness can be established on the basis of a catalog or market price of a commercial product sold in substantial quantities to the general public or based on prices set by law or regulation. A price analysis will be used in all other instances to determine the reasonableness of the proposed contract price.
</P>
<P>(2) Grantees and subgrantees will negotiate profit as a separate element of the price for each contract in which there is no price competition and in all cases where cost analysis is performed. To establish a fair and reasonable profit, consideration will be given to the complexity of the work to be performed, the risk borne by the contractor, the contractor's investment, the amount of subcontracting, the quality of its record of past performance, and industry profit rates in the surrounding geographical area for similar work.
</P>
<P>(3) Costs or prices based on estimated costs for contracts under grants will be allowable only to the extent that costs incurred or cost estimates included in negotiated prices are consistent with Federal cost principles (see § 1470.22). Grantees may reference their own cost principles that comply with the applicable Federal cost principles.
</P>
<P>(4) The cost plus a percentage of cost and percentage of construction cost methods of contracting shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Awarding agency review.</I> (1) Grantees and subgrantees must make available, upon request of the awarding agency, technical specifications on proposed procurements where the awarding agency believes such review is needed to ensure that the item and/or service specified is the one being proposed for purchase. This review generally will take place prior to the time the specification is incorporated into a solicitation document. However, if the grantee or subgrantee desires to have the review accomplished after a solicitation has been developed, the awarding agency may still review the specifications, with such review usually limited to the technical aspects of the proposed purchase. 
</P>
<P>(2) Grantees and subgrantees must on request make available for awarding agency pre-award review procurement documents, such as requests for proposals or invitations for bids, independent cost estimates, etc. when: 
</P>
<P>(i) A grantee's or subgrantee's procurement procedures or operation fails to comply with the procurement standards in this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The procurement is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold and is to be awarded without competition or only one bid or offer is received in response to a solicitation; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The procurement, which is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold, specifies a “brand name” product; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) The proposed award is more than the simplified acquisition threshold and is to be awarded to other than the apparent low bidder under a sealed bid procurement; or 
</P>
<P>(v) A proposed contract modification changes the scope of a contract or increases the contract amount by more than the simplified acquisition threshold. 
</P>
<P>(3) A grantee or subgrantee will be exempt from the pre-award review in paragraph (g)(2) of this section if the awarding agency determines that its procurement systems comply with the standards of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) A grantee or subgrantee may request that its procurement system be reviewed by the awarding agency to determine whether its system meets these standards in order for its system to be certified. Generally, these reviews shall occur where there is a continuous high-dollar funding, and third-party contracts are awarded on a regular basis. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A grantee or subgrantee may self-certify its procurement system. Such self-certification shall not limit the awarding agency's right to survey the system. Under a self-certification procedure, awarding agencies may wish to rely on written assurances from the grantee or subgrantee that it is complying with these standards. A grantee or subgrantee will cite specific procedures, regulations, standards, etc., as being in compliance with these requirements and have its system available for review. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Bonding requirements.</I> For construction or facility improvement contracts or subcontracts exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold, the awarding agency may accept the bonding policy and requirements of the grantee or subgrantee provided the awarding agency has made a determination that the awarding agency's interest is adequately protected. If such a determination has not been made, the minimum requirements shall be as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>A bid guarantee from each bidder equivalent to five percent of the bid price.</I> The “bid guarantee” shall consist of a firm commitment such as a bid bond, certified check, or other negotiable instrument accompanying a bid as assurance that the bidder will, upon acceptance of his bid, execute such contractual documents as may be required within the time specified. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A performance bond on the part of the contractor for 100 percent of the contract price.</I> A “performance bond” is one executed in connection with a contract to secure fulfillment of all the contractor's obligations under such contract. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>A payment bond on the part of the contractor for 100 percent of the contract price.</I> A “payment bond” is one executed in connection with a contract to assure payment as required by law of all persons supplying labor and material in the execution of the work provided for in the contract. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contract provisions.</I> A grantee's and subgrantee's contracts must contain provisions in paragraph (i) of this section. Federal agencies are permitted to require changes, remedies, changed conditions, access and records retention, suspension of work, and other clauses approved by the Office of Federal Procurement Policy. 
</P>
<P>(1) Administrative, contractual, or legal remedies in instances where contractors violate or breach contract terms, and provide for such sanctions and penalties as may be appropriate. (Contracts more than the simplified acquisition threshold) 
</P>
<P>(2) Termination for cause and for convenience by the grantee or subgrantee including the manner by which it will be effected and the basis for settlement. (All contracts in excess of $10,000) 
</P>
<P>(3) Compliance with Executive Order 11246 of September 24, 1965, entitled “Equal Employment Opportunity,” as amended by Executive Order 11375 of October 13, 1967, and as supplemented in Department of Labor regulations (41 CFR chapter 60). (All construction contracts awarded in excess of $10,000 by grantees and their contractors or subgrantees) 
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance with the Copeland “Anti-Kickback” Act (18 U.S.C. 874) as supplemented in Department of Labor regulations (29 CFR part 3). (All contracts and subgrants for construction or repair) 
</P>
<P>(5) Compliance with the Davis-Bacon Act (40 U.S.C. 276a to 276a-7) as supplemented by Department of Labor regulations (29 CFR part 5). (Construction contracts in excess of $2000 awarded by grantees and subgrantees when required by Federal grant program legislation) 
</P>
<P>(6) Compliance with Sections 103 and 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 327-330) as supplemented by Department of Labor regulations (29 CFR part 5). (Construction contracts awarded by grantees and subgrantees in excess of $2000, and in excess of $2500 for other contracts which involve the employment of mechanics or laborers) 
</P>
<P>(7) Notice of awarding agency requirements and regulations pertaining to reporting. 
</P>
<P>(8) Notice of awarding agency requirements and regulations pertaining to patent rights with respect to any discovery or invention which arises or is developed in the course of or under such contract. 
</P>
<P>(9) Awarding agency requirements and regulations pertaining to copyrights and rights in data. 
</P>
<P>(10) Access by the grantee, the subgrantee, the Federal grantor agency, the Comptroller General of the United States, or any of their duly authorized representatives to any books, documents, papers, and records of the contractor which are directly pertinent to that specific contract for the purpose of making audit, examination, excerpts, and transcriptions. 
</P>
<P>(11) Retention of all required records for three years after grantees or subgrantees make final payments and all other pending matters are closed. 
</P>
<P>(12) Compliance with all applicable standards, orders, or requirements issued under section 306 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 1857(h)), section 508 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1368), Executive Order 11738, and Environmental Protection Agency regulations (40 CFR part 15). (Contracts, subcontracts, and subgrants of amounts in excess of $100,000) 
</P>
<P>(13) Mandatory standards and policies relating to energy efficiency which are contained in the state energy conservation plan issued in compliance with the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (Pub. L. 94-163, 89 Stat. 871). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 8087, Mar. 11, 1988, as amended at 60 FR 19639, 19643, Apr. 19, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.37" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.37   Subgrants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>States.</I> States shall follow State law and procedures when awarding and administering subgrants (whether on a cost reimbursement or fixed amount basis) of financial assistance to local and Indian tribal governments. States shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that every subgrant includes any clauses required by Federal statute and executive orders and their implementing regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that subgrantees are aware of requirements imposed upon them by Federal statute and regulation;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that a provision for compliance with § 1470.42 is placed in every cost reimbursement subgrant; and
</P>
<P>(4) Conform any advances of grant funds to subgrantees substantially to the same standards of timing and amount that apply to cash advances by Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>All other grantees.</I> All other grantees shall follow the provisions of this part which are applicable to awarding agencies when awarding and administering subgrants (whether on a cost reimbursement or fixed amount basis) of financial assistance to local and Indian tribal governments. Grantees shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that every subgrant includes a provision for compliance with this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that every subgrant includes any clauses required by Federal statute and executive orders and their implementing regulations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that subgrantees are aware of requirements imposed upon them by Federal statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> By their own terms, certain provisions of this part do not apply to the award and administration of subgrants:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 1470.10;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 1470.11;
</P>
<P>(3) The letter-of-credit procedures specified in Treasury Regulations at 31 CFR part 205, cited in § 1470.21; and
</P>
<P>(4) Section 1470.50.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Reports, Records Retention, and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.40" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.6.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.40   Monitoring and reporting program performance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Monitoring by grantees.</I> Grantees are responsible for managing the day-to-day operations of grant and subgrant supported activities. Grantees must monitor grant and subgrant supported activities to assure compliance with applicable Federal requirements and that performance goals are being achieved. Grantee monitoring must cover each program, function or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonconstruction performance reports.</I> The Federal agency may, if it decides that performance information available from subsequent applications contains sufficient information to meet its programmatic needs, require the grantee to submit a performance report only upon expiration or termination of grant support. Unless waived by the Federal agency this report will be due on the same date as the final Financial Status Report.
</P>
<P>(1) Grantees shall submit annual performance reports unless the awarding agency requires quarterly or semi-annual reports. However, performance reports will not be required more frequently than quarterly. Annual reports shall be due 90 days after the grant year, quarterly or semi-annual reports shall be due 30 days after the reporting period. The final performance report will be due 90 days after the expiration or termination of grant support. If a justified request is submitted by a grantee, the Federal agency may extend the due date for any performance report. Additionally, requirements for unnecessary performance reports may be waived by the Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(2) Performance reports will contain, for each grant, brief information on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A comparison of actual accomplishments to the objectives established for the period. Where the output of the project can be quantified, a computation of the cost per unit of output may be required if that information will be useful.
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for slippage if established objectives were not met.
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional pertinent information including, when appropriate, analysis and explanation of cost overruns or high unit costs.
</P>
<P>(3) Grantees will not be required to submit more than the original and two copies of performance reports.
</P>
<P>(4) Grantees will adhere to the standards in this section in prescribing performance reporting requirements for subgrantees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction performance reports.</I> For the most part, on-site technical inspections and certified percentage-of-completion data are relied on heavily by Federal agencies to monitor progress under construction grants and subgrants. The Federal agency will require additional formal performance reports only when considered necessary, and never more frequently than quarterly.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Significant developments.</I> Events may occur between the scheduled performance reporting dates which have significant impact upon the grant or subgrant supported activity. In such cases, the grantee must inform the Federal agency as soon as the following types of conditions become known:
</P>
<P>(1) Problems, delays, or adverse conditions which will materially impair the ability to meet the objective of the award. This disclosure must include a statement of the action taken, or contemplated, and any assistance needed to resolve the situation.
</P>
<P>(2) Favorable developments which enable meeting time schedules and objectives sooner or at less cost than anticipated or producing more beneficial results than originally planned.
</P>
<P>(e) Federal agencies may make site visits as warranted by program needs.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waivers, extensions.</I> (1) Federal agencies may waive any performance report required by this part if not needed.
</P>
<P>(2) The grantee may waive any performance report from a subgrantee when not needed. The grantee may extend the due date for any performance report from a subgrantee if the grantee will still be able to meet its performance reporting obligations to the Federal agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.41" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.6.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.41   Financial reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a) (2) and (5) of this section, grantees will use only the forms specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, and such supplementary or other forms as may from time to time be authorized by OMB, for:
</P>
<P>(i) Submitting financial reports to Federal agencies, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Requesting advances or reimbursements when letters of credit are not used.
</P>
<P>(2) Grantees need not apply the forms prescribed in this section in dealing with their subgrantees. However, grantees shall not impose more burdensome requirements on subgrantees.
</P>
<P>(3) Grantees shall follow all applicable standard and supplemental Federal agency instructions approved by OMB to the extend required under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980 for use in connection with forms specified in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section. Federal agencies may issue substantive supplementary instructions only with the approval of OMB. Federal agencies may shade out or instruct the grantee to disregard any line item that the Federal agency finds unnecessary for its decisionmaking purposes. 
</P>
<P>(4) Grantees will not be required to submit more than the original and two copies of forms required under this part. 
</P>
<P>(5) Federal agencies may provide computer outputs to grantees to expedite or contribute to the accuracy of reporting. Federal agencies may accept the required information from grantees in machine usable format or computer printouts instead of prescribed forms. 
</P>
<P>(6) Federal agencies may waive any report required by this section if not needed. 
</P>
<P>(7) Federal agencies may extend the due date of any financial report upon receiving a justified request from a grantee. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial Status Report</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> Grantees will use Standard Form 269 or 269A, Financial Status Report, to report the status of funds for all nonconstruction grants and for construction grants when required in accordance with § 1470.41(e)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounting basis.</I> Each grantee will report program outlays and program income on a cash or accrual basis as prescribed by the awarding agency. If the Federal agency requires accrual information and the grantee's accounting records are not normally kept on the accural basis, the grantee shall not be required to convert its accounting system but shall develop such accrual information through and analysis of the documentation on hand. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency.</I> The Federal agency may prescribe the frequency of the report for each project or program. However, the report will not be required more frequently than quarterly. If the Federal agency does not specify the frequency of the report, it will be submitted annually. A final report will be required upon expiration or termination of grant support. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Due date.</I> When reports are required on a quarterly or semiannual basis, they will be due 30 days after the reporting period. When required on an annual basis, they will be due 90 days after the grant year. Final reports will be due 90 days after the expiration or termination of grant support. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal Cash Transactions Report</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> (i) For grants paid by letter or credit, Treasury check advances or electronic transfer of funds, the grantee will submit the Standard Form 272, Federal Cash Transactions Report, and when necessary, its continuation sheet, Standard Form 272a, unless the terms of the award exempt the grantee from this requirement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) These reports will be used by the Federal agency to monitor cash advanced to grantees and to obtain disbursement or outlay information for each grant from grantees. The format of the report may be adapted as appropriate when reporting is to be accomplished with the assistance of automatic data processing equipment provided that the information to be submitted is not changed in substance. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Forecasts of Federal cash requirements.</I> Forecasts of Federal cash requirements may be required in the “Remarks” section of the report. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cash in hands of subgrantees.</I> When considered necessary and feasible by the Federal agency, grantees may be required to report the amount of cash advances in excess of three days' needs in the hands of their subgrantees or contractors and to provide short narrative explanations of actions taken by the grantee to reduce the excess balances. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Frequency and due date.</I> Grantees must submit the report no later than 15 working days following the end of each quarter. However, where an advance either by letter of credit or electronic transfer of funds is authorized at an annualized rate of one million dollars or more, the Federal agency may require the report to be submitted within 15 working days following the end of each month. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for advance or reimbursement</I>—(1) <I>Advance payments.</I> Requests for Treasury check advance payments will be submitted on Standard Form 270, Request for Advance or Reimbursement. (This form will not be used for drawdowns under a letter of credit, electronic funds transfer or when Treasury check advance payments are made to the grantee automatically on a predetermined basis.) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reimbursements.</I> Requests for reimbursement under nonconstruction grants will also be submitted on Standard Form 270. (For reimbursement requests under construction grants, see paragraph (e)(1) of this section.) 
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency for submitting payment requests is treated in § 1470.41(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Outlay report and request for reimbursement for construction programs</I>—(1) <I>Grants that support construction activities paid by reimbursement method.</I> (i) Requests for reimbursement under construction grants will be submitted on Standard Form 271, Outlay Report and Request for Reimbursement for Construction Programs. Federal agencies may, however, prescribe the Request for Advance or Reimbursement form, specified in § 1470.41(d), instead of this form. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The frequency for submitting reimbursement requests is treated in § 1470.41(b)(3). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Grants that support construction activities paid by letter of credit, electronic funds transfer or Treasury check advance.</I> (i) When a construction grant is paid by letter of credit, electronic funds transfer or Treasury check advances, the grantee will report its outlays to the Federal agency using Standard Form 271, Outlay Report and Request for Reimbursement for Construction Programs. The Federal agency will provide any necessary special instruction. However, frequency and due date shall be governed by § 1470.41(b) (3) and (4). 
</P>
<P>(ii) When a construction grant is paid by Treasury check advances based on periodic requests from the grantee, the advances will be requested on the form specified in § 1470.41(d). 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Federal agency may substitute the Financial Status Report specified in § 1470.41(b) for the Outlay Report and Request for Reimbursement for Construction Programs. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Accounting basis.</I> The accounting basis for the Outlay Report and Request for Reimbursement for Construction Programs shall be governed by § 1470.41(b)(2). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.42" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.6.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.42   Retention and access requirements for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This section applies to all financial and programmatic records, supporting documents, statistical records, and other records of grantees or subgrantees which are: 
</P>
<P>(i) Required to be maintained by the terms of this part, program regulations or the grant agreement, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Otherwise reasonably considered as pertinent to program regulations or the grant agreement. 
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to records maintained by contractors or subcontractors. For a requirement to place a provision concerning records in certain kinds of contracts, see § 1470.36(i)(10). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Length of retention period.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided, records must be retained for three years from the starting date specified in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) If any litigation, claim, negotiation, audit or other action involving the records has been started before the expiration of the 3-year period, the records must be retained until completion of the action and resolution of all issues which arise from it, or until the end of the regular 3-year period, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(3) To avoid duplicate recordkeeping, awarding agencies may make special arrangements with grantees and subgrantees to retain any records which are continuously needed for joint use. The awarding agency will request transfer of records to its custody when it determines that the records possess long-term retention value. When the records are transferred to or maintained by the Federal agency, the 3-year retention requirement is not applicable to the grantee or subgrantee. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Starting date of retention period</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> When grant support is continued or renewed at annual or other intervals, the retention period for the records of each funding period starts on the day the grantee or subgrantee submits to the awarding agency its single or last expenditure report for that period. However, if grant support is continued or renewed quarterly, the retention period for each year's records starts on the day the grantee submits its expenditure report for the last quarter of the Federal fiscal year. In all other cases, the retention period starts on the day the grantee submits its final expenditure report. If an expenditure report has been waived, the retention period starts on the day the report would have been due. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Real property and equipment records.</I> The retention period for real property and equipment records starts from the date of the disposition or replacement or transfer at the direction of the awarding agency. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Records for income transactions after grant or subgrant support.</I> In some cases grantees must report income after the period of grant support. Where there is such a requirement, the retention period for the records pertaining to the earning of the income starts from the end of the grantee's fiscal year in which the income is earned. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Indirect cost rate proposals, cost allocations plans, etc.</I> This paragraph applies to the following types of documents, and their supporting records: indirect cost rate computations or proposals, cost allocation plans, and any similar accounting computations of the rate at which a particular group of costs is chargeable (such as computer usage chargeback rates or composite fringe benefit rates). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>If submitted for negotiation.</I> If the proposal, plan, or other computation is required to be submitted to the Federal Government (or to the grantee) to form the basis for negotiation of the rate, then the 3-year retention period for its supporting records starts from the date of such submission. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>If not submitted for negotiation.</I> If the proposal, plan, or other computation is not required to be submitted to the Federal Government (or to the grantee) for negotiation purposes, then the 3-year retention period for the proposal plan, or computation and its supporting records starts from end of the fiscal year (or other accounting period) covered by the proposal, plan, or other computation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substitution of microfilm.</I> Copies made by microfilming, photocopying, or similar methods may be substituted for the original records. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access to records</I>—(1) <I>Records of grantees and subgrantees.</I> The awarding agency and the Comptroller General of the United States, or any of their authorized representatives, shall have the right of access to any pertinent books, documents, papers, or other records of grantees and subgrantees which are pertinent to the grant, in order to make audits, examinations, excerpts, and transcripts. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expiration of right of access.</I> The rights of access in this section must not be limited to the required retention period but shall last as long as the records are retained. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Restrictions on public access.</I> The Federal Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) does not apply to records Unless required by Federal, State, or local law, grantees and subgrantees are not required to permit public access to their records. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.43" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.6.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.43   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedies for noncompliance.</I> If a grantee or subgrantee materially fails to comply with any term of an award, whether stated in a Federal statute or regulation, an assurance, in a State plan or application, a notice of award, or elsewhere, the awarding agency may take one or more of the following actions, as appropriate in the circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) Temporarily withhold cash payments pending correction of the deficiency by the grantee or subgrantee or more severe enforcement action by the awarding agency, 
</P>
<P>(2) Disallow (that is, deny both use of funds and matching credit for) all or part of the cost of the activity or action not in compliance, 
</P>
<P>(3) Wholly or partly suspend or terminate the current award for the grantee's or subgrantee's program, 
</P>
<P>(4) Withhold further awards for the program, or 
</P>
<P>(5) Take other remedies that may be legally available. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings, appeals.</I> In taking an enforcement action, the awarding agency will provide the grantee or subgrantee an opportunity for such hearing, appeal, or other administrative proceeding to which the grantee or subgrantee is entitled under any statute or regulation applicable to the action involved. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effects of suspension and termination.</I> Costs of grantee or subgrantee resulting from obligations incurred by the grantee or subgrantee during a suspension or after termination of an award are not allowable unless the awarding agency expressly authorizes them in the notice of suspension or termination or subsequently. Other grantee or subgrantee costs during suspension or after termination which are necessary and not reasonably avoidable are allowable if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The costs result from obligations which were properly incurred by the grantee or subgrantee before the effective date of suspension or termination, are not in anticipation of it, and, in the case of a termination, are noncancellable, and, 
</P>
<P>(2) The costs would be allowable if the award were not suspended or expired normally at the end of the funding period in which the termination takes effect. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship to debarment and suspension.</I> The enforcement remedies identified in this section, including suspension and termination, do not preclude grantee or subgrantee from being subject to “Debarment and Suspension” under E.O. 12549 (see § 1470.35). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.44" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.3.6.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.44   Termination for convenience.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 1470.43 awards may be terminated in whole or in part only as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) By the awarding agency with the consent of the grantee or subgrantee in which case the two parties shall agree upon the termination conditions, including the effective date and in the case of partial termination, the portion to be terminated, or 
</P>
<P>(b) By the grantee or subgrantee upon written notification to the awarding agency, setting forth the reasons for such termination, the effective date, and in the case of partial termination, the portion to be terminated. However, if, in the case of a partial termination, the awarding agency determines that the remaining portion of the award will not accomplish the purposes for which the award was made, the awarding agency may terminate the award in its entirety under either § 1470.43 or paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—After-The-Grant Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.50" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.4.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.50   Closeout.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Federal agency will close out the award when it determines that all applicable administrative actions and all required work of the grant has been completed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports.</I> Within 90 days after the expiration or termination of the grant, the grantee must submit all financial, performance, and other reports required as a condition of the grant. Upon request by the grantee, Federal agencies may extend this timeframe. These may include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Final performance or progress report. 
</P>
<P>(2) Financial Status Report (SF-269) or Outlay Report and Request for Reimbursement for Construction Programs (SF-271) (as applicable). 
</P>
<P>(3) Final request for payment (SF-270) (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(4) Invention disclosure (if applicable). 
</P>
<P>(5) Federally-owned property report:
</P>
<FP>In accordance with § 1470.32(f), a grantee must submit an inventory of all federally owned property (as distinct from property acquired with grant funds) for which it is accountable and request disposition instructions from the Federal agency of property no longer needed. 
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Cost adjustment.</I> The Federal agency will, within 90 days after receipt of reports in paragraph (b) of this section, make upward or downward adjustments to the allowable costs. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cash adjustments.</I> (1) The Federal agency will make prompt payment to the grantee for allowable reimbursable costs. 
</P>
<P>(2) The grantee must immediately refund to the Federal agency any balance of unobligated (unencumbered) cash advanced that is not authorized to be retained for use on other grants. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.51" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.4.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.51   Later disallowances and adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>The closeout of a grant does not affect: 
</P>
<P>(a) The Federal agency's right to disallow costs and recover funds on the basis of a later audit or other review; 
</P>
<P>(b) The grantee's obligation to return any funds due as a result of later refunds, corrections, or other transactions; 
</P>
<P>(c) Records retention as required in § 1470.42; 
</P>
<P>(d) Property management requirements in §§ 1470.31 and 1470.32; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Audit requirements in § 1470.26. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1470.52" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.4.7.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1470.52   Collection of amounts due.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any funds paid to a grantee in excess of the amount to which the grantee is finally determined to be entitled under the terms of the award constitute a debt to the Federal Government. If not paid within a reasonable period after demand, the Federal agency may reduce the debt by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Making an adminstrative offset against other requests for reimbursements, 
</P>
<P>(2) Withholding advance payments otherwise due to the grantee, or 
</P>
<P>(3) Other action permitted by law. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except where otherwise provided by statutes or regulations, the Federal agency will charge interest on an overdue debt in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR chapter II). The date from which interest is computed is not extended by litigation or the filing of any form of appeal. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.14.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Entitlements [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1471" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1471—GOVERNMENTWIDE DEBARMENT AND SUSPENSION (NONPROCUREMENT) 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12549 ,3 CFR 1986 Comp., p. 189; E.O. 12698, 3 CFR 1989 Comp., p. 235; sec. 2455, Pub. L. 103-355, 108 Stat. 3327 (31 U.S.C. 6101 note); 29 U.S.C. 175a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 66544, 66603, 66604, Nov. 26, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1471.25" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.0.10.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.25   How is this part organized?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is subdivided into ten subparts. Each subpart contains information related to a broad topic or specific audience with special responsibilities, as shown in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">In subpart . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">You will find provisions related to . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">general information about this rule. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the types of FMCS transactions that are covered by the Governmentwide nonprocurement suspension and debarment system. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the responsibilities of persons who participate in covered transactions. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the responsibilities of FMCS officials who are authorized to enter into covered transactions. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the responsibilities of Federal agencies for the <E T="03">Excluded Parties List System</E> (Disseminated by the General Services Administration). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the general principles governing suspension, debarment, voluntary exclusion and settlement. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">G</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">suspension actions. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">debarment actions. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">definitions of terms used in this part. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">J</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Reserved]</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The following table shows which subparts may be of special interest to you, depending on who you are: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If you are . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">See subpart(s) . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) a participant or principal in a nonprocurement transaction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B, C, and I. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) a respondent in a suspension action</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B, F, G and I. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) a respondent in a debarment action</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B, F, H and I. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) a suspending official</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B, D, E, F, G and I. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) a debarring official</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B, D, E, F, H and I. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) a (n) FMCS official authorized to enter into a covered transaction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B, D, E and I. 


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Reserved</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">J.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.50" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.0.10.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.50   How is this part written?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part uses a “plain language” format to make it easier for the general public and business community to use. The section headings and text, often in the form of questions and answers, must be read together. 
</P>
<P>(b) Pronouns used within this part, such as “I” and “you,” change from subpart to subpart depending on the audience being addressed. The pronoun “we” always is the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service. 
</P>
<P>(c) The “Covered Transactions” diagram in the appendix to this part shows the levels or “tiers” at which the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service enforces an exclusion under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.75" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.0.10.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.75   Do terms in this part have special meanings?</HEAD>
<P>This part uses terms throughout the text that have special meaning. Those terms are defined in subpart I of this part. For example, three important terms are— 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Exclusion or excluded,</I> which refers only to discretionary actions taken by a suspending or debarring official under this part or the Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4); 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disqualification or disqualified,</I> which refers to prohibitions under specific statutes, executive orders (other than Executive Order 12549 and Executive Order 12689), or other authorities. Disqualifications frequently are not subject to the discretion of an agency official, may have a different scope than exclusions, or have special conditions that apply to the disqualification; and 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ineligibility or ineligible,</I> which generally refers to a person who is either excluded or disqualified. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.100" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.100   What does this part do?</HEAD>
<P>This part adopts a governmentwide system of debarment and suspension for FMCS nonprocurement activities. It also provides for reciprocal exclusion of persons who have been excluded under the Federal Acquisition Regulation, and provides for the consolidated listing of all persons who are excluded, or disqualified by statute, executive order, or other legal authority. This part satisfies the requirements in section 3 of Executive Order 12549, “Debarment and Suspension” (3 CFR 1986 Comp., p. 189), Executive Order 12689, “Debarment and Suspension” (3 CFR 1989 Comp., p. 235) and 31 U.S.C. 6101 note (Section 2455, Public Law 103-355, 108 Stat. 3327). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.105" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.105   Does this part apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>Portions of this part (see table at § 1471.25(b)) apply to you if you are a(n)— 
</P>
<P>(a) Person who has been, is, or may reasonably be expected to be, a participant or principal in a covered transaction; 
</P>
<P>(b) Respondent (a person against whom the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service has initiated a debarment or suspension action); 
</P>
<P>(c) FMCS debarring or suspending official; or 
</P>
<P>(d) FMCS official who is authorized to enter into covered transactions with non-Federal parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.110" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.110   What is the purpose of the nonprocurement debarment and suspension system?</HEAD>
<P>(a) To protect the public interest, the Federal Government ensures the integrity of Federal programs by conducting business only with responsible persons. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal agency uses the nonprocurement debarment and suspension system to exclude from Federal programs persons who are not presently responsible. 
</P>
<P>(c) An exclusion is a serious action that a Federal agency may take only to protect the public interest. A Federal agency may not exclude a person or commodity for the purposes of punishment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.115" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.115   How does an exclusion restrict a person's involvement in covered transactions?</HEAD>
<P>With the exceptions stated in §§ 1471.120, 1471.315, and 1471.420, a person who is excluded by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or any other Federal agency may not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Be a participant in a(n) FMCS transaction that is a covered transaction under subpart B of this part; 
</P>
<P>(b) Be a participant in a transaction of any other Federal agency that is a covered transaction under that agency's regulation for debarment and suspension; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Act as a principal of a person participating in one of those covered transactions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.120" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.120   May we grant an exception to let an excluded person participate in a covered transaction?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agency Director may grant an exception permitting an excluded person to participate in a particular covered transaction. If the Agency Director grants an exception, the exception must be in writing and state the reason(s) for deviating from the governmentwide policy in Executive Order 12549. 
</P>
<P>(b) An exception granted by one agency for an excluded person does not extend to the covered transactions of another agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.125" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.125   Does an exclusion under the nonprocurement system affect a person's eligibility for Federal procurement contracts?</HEAD>
<P>If any Federal agency excludes a person under its nonprocurement common rule on or after August 25, 1995, the excluded person is also ineligible to participate in Federal procurement transactions under the FAR. Therefore, an exclusion under this part has reciprocal effect in Federal procurement transactions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.130" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.130   Does exclusion under the Federal procurement system affect a person's eligibility to participate in nonprocurement transactions?</HEAD>
<P>If any Federal agency excludes a person under the FAR on or after August 25, 1995, the excluded person is also ineligible to participate in nonprocurement covered transactions under this part. Therefore, an exclusion under the FAR has reciprocal effect in Federal nonprocurement transactions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.135" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.135   May the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service exclude a person who is not currently participating in a nonprocurement transaction?</HEAD>
<P>Given a cause that justifies an exclusion under this part, we may exclude any person who has been involved, is currently involved, or may reasonably be expected to be involved in a covered transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.140" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.140   How do I know if a person is excluded?</HEAD>
<P>Check the <I>Excluded Parties List System (EPLS)</I> to determine whether a person is excluded. The General Services Administration (GSA) maintains the <I>EPLS</I> and makes it available, as detailed in subpart E of this part. When a Federal agency takes an action to exclude a person under the nonprocurement or procurement debarment and suspension system, the agency enters the information about the excluded person into the <I>EPLS.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.145" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.1.10.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.145   Does this part address persons who are disqualified, as well as those who are excluded from nonprocurement transactions?</HEAD>
<P>Except if provided for in subpart J of this part, this part— 
</P>
<P>(a) Addresses disqualified persons only to— 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide for their inclusion in the <I>EPLS;</I> and 
</P>
<P>(2) State responsibilities of Federal agencies and participants to check for disqualified persons before entering into covered transactions. 
</P>
<P>(b) Does not specify the— 
</P>
<P>(1) FMCS transactions for which a disqualified person is ineligible. Those transactions vary on a case-by-case basis, because they depend on the language of the specific statute, Executive order, or regulation that caused the disqualification; 
</P>
<P>(2) Entities to which the disqualification applies; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Process that the agency uses to disqualify a person. Unlike exclusion, disqualification is frequently not a discretionary action that a Federal agency takes. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Covered Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.200" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.2.10.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.200   What is a covered transaction?</HEAD>
<P>A covered transaction is a nonprocurement or procurement transaction that is subject to the prohibitions of this part. It may be a transaction at— 
</P>
<P>(a) The primary tier, between a Federal agency and a person (see appendix to this part); or 
</P>
<P>(b) A lower tier, between a participant in a covered transaction and another person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.205" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.2.10.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.205   Why is it important if a particular transaction is a covered transaction?</HEAD>
<P>The importance of a covered transaction depends upon who you are. 
</P>
<P>(a) As a participant in the transaction, you have the responsibilities laid out in subpart C of this part. Those include responsibilities to the person or Federal agency at the next higher tier from whom you received the transaction, if any. They also include responsibilities if you subsequently enter into other covered transactions with persons at the next lower tier. 
</P>
<P>(b) As a Federal official who enters into a primary tier transaction, you have the responsibilities laid out in subpart D of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) As an excluded person, you may not be a participant or principal in the transaction unless— 
</P>
<P>(1) The person who entered into the transaction with you allows you to continue your involvement in a transaction that predates your exclusion, as permitted under § 1471.310 or § 1471.415; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A(n) FMCS official obtains an exception from the Agency Director to allow you to be involved in the transaction, as permitted under § 1471.120. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.210" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.2.10.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.210   Which nonprocurement transactions are covered transactions?</HEAD>
<P>All nonprocurement transactions, as defined in § 1471.970, are covered transactions unless listed in § 1471.215. (See appendix to this part.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.215" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.2.10.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.215   Which nonprocurement transactions are not covered transactions?</HEAD>
<P>The following types of nonprocurement transactions are not covered transactions: 
</P>
<P>(a) A direct award to— 
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign government or foreign governmental entity; 
</P>
<P>(2) A public international organization; 
</P>
<P>(3) An entity owned (in whole or in part) or controlled by a foreign government; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity consisting wholly or partially of one or more foreign governments or foreign governmental entities. 
</P>
<P>(b) A benefit to an individual as a personal entitlement without regard to the individual's present responsibility (but benefits received in an individual's business capacity are not excepted). For example, if a person receives social security benefits under the Supplemental Security Income provisions of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1301 <I>et seq.,</I> those benefits are not covered transactions and, therefore, are not affected if the person is excluded. 
</P>
<P>(c) Federal employment. 
</P>
<P>(d) A transaction that the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service needs to respond to a national or agency-recognized emergency or disaster. 
</P>
<P>(e) A permit, license, certificate, or similar instrument issued as a means to regulate public health, safety, or the environment, unless the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service specifically designates it to be a covered transaction. 
</P>
<P>(f) An incidental benefit that results from ordinary governmental operations. 
</P>
<P>(g) Any other transaction if the application of an exclusion to the transaction is prohibited by law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.220" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.2.10.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.220   Are any procurement contracts included as covered transactions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Covered transactions under this part—
</P>
<P>(1) Do not include any procurement contracts awarded directly by a Federal agency; but 
</P>
<P>(2) Do include some procurement contracts awarded by non-Federal participants in nonprocurement covered transactions (see appendix to this part). 
</P>
<P>(b) Specifically, a contract for goods or services is a covered transaction if any of the following applies: 
</P>
<P>(1) The contract is awarded by a participant in a nonprocurement transaction that is covered under § 1471.210, and the amount of the contract is expected to equal or exceed $25,000. 
</P>
<P>(2) The contract requires the consent of a(n) FMCS official. In that case, the contract, regardless of the amount, always is a covered transaction, and it does not matter who awarded it. For example, it could be a subcontract awarded by a contractor at a tier below a nonprocurement transaction, as shown in the appendix to this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) The contract is for federally-required audit services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.225" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.2.10.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.225   How do I know if a transaction in which I may participate is a covered transaction?</HEAD>
<P>As a participant in a transaction, you will know that it is a covered transaction because the agency regulations governing the transaction, the appropriate agency official, or participant at the next higher tier who enters into the transaction with you, will tell you that you must comply with applicable portions of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Responsibilities of Participants Regarding Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Doing Business With Other Persons</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.300" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.10.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.300   What must I do before I enter into a covered transaction with another person at the next lower tier?</HEAD>
<P>When you enter into a covered transaction with another person at the next lower tier, you must verify that the person with whom you intend to do business is not excluded or disqualified. You do this by: 
</P>
<P>(a) Checking the <I>EPLS;</I> or 
</P>
<P>(b) Collecting a certification from that person if allowed by this rule; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Adding a clause or condition to the covered transaction with that person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.305" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.10.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.305   May I enter into a covered transaction with an excluded or disqualified person?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You as a participant may not enter into a covered transaction with an excluded person, unless the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service grants an exception under § 1471.120. 
</P>
<P>(b) You may not enter into any transaction with a person who is disqualified from that transaction, unless you have obtained an exception under the disqualifying statute, Executive order, or regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.310" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.10.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.310   What must I do if a Federal agency excludes a person with whom I am already doing business in a covered transaction?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You as a participant may continue covered transactions with an excluded person if the transactions were in existence when the agency excluded the person. However, you are not required to continue the transactions, and you may consider termination. You should make a decision about whether to terminate and the type of termination action, if any, only after a thorough review to ensure that the action is proper and appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) You may not renew or extend covered transactions (other than no-cost time extensions) with any excluded person, unless the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service grants an exception under § 1471.120. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.315" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.10.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.315   May I use the services of an excluded person as a principal under a covered transaction?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You as a participant may continue to use the services of an excluded person as a principal under a covered transaction if you were using the services of that person in the transaction before the person was excluded. However, you are not required to continue using that person's services as a principal. You should make a decision about whether to discontinue that person's services only after a thorough review to ensure that the action is proper and appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) You may not begin to use the services of an excluded person as a principal under a covered transaction unless the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service grants an exception under § 1471.120. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.320" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.10.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.320   Must I verify that principals of my covered transactions are eligible to participate?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, you as a participant are responsible for determining whether any of your principals of your covered transactions is excluded or disqualified from participating in the transaction. You may decide the method and frequency by which you do so. You may, but you are not required to, check the <I>EPLS.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.325" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.10.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.325   What happens if I do business with an excluded person in a covered transaction?</HEAD>
<P>If as a participant you knowingly do business with an excluded person, we may disallow costs, annul or terminate the transaction, issue a stop work order, debar or suspend you, or take other remedies as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.330" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.10.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.330   What requirements must I pass down to persons at lower tiers with whom I intend to do business?</HEAD>
<P>Before entering into a covered transaction with a participant at the next lower tier, you must require that participant to— 
</P>
<P>(a) Comply with this subpart as a condition of participation in the transaction. You may do so using any method(s), unless § 1471.440 requires you to use specific methods. 
</P>
<P>(b) Pass the requirement to comply with this subpart to each person with whom the participant enters into a covered transaction at the next lower tier. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="11" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.11" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosing Information—Primary Tier Participants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.335" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.335   What information must I provide before entering into a covered transaction with the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service?</HEAD>
<P>Before you enter into a covered transaction at the primary tier, you as the participant must notify the FMCS office that is entering into the transaction with you, if you know that you or any of the principals for that covered transaction:
</P>
<P>(a) Are presently excluded or disqualified; 
</P>
<P>(b) Have been convicted within the preceding three years of any of the offenses listed in § 1471.800(a) or had a civil judgment rendered against you for one of those offenses within that time period; 
</P>
<P>(c) Are presently indicted for or otherwise criminally or civilly charged by a governmental entity (Federal, State or local) with commission of any of the offenses listed in § 1471.800(a); or 
</P>
<P>(d) Have had one or more public transactions (Federal, State, or local) terminated within the preceding three years for cause or default. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.340" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.340   If I disclose unfavorable information required under § 1471.335, will I be prevented from participating in the transaction?</HEAD>
<P>As a primary tier participant, your disclosure of unfavorable information about yourself or a principal under § 1471.335 will not necessarily cause us to deny your participation in the covered transaction. We will consider the information when we determine whether to enter into the covered transaction. We also will consider any additional information or explanation that you elect to submit with the disclosed information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.345" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.345   What happens if I fail to disclose information required under § 1471.335?</HEAD>
<P>If we later determine that you failed to disclose information under § 1471.335 that you knew at the time you entered into the covered transaction, we may— 
</P>
<P>(a) Terminate the transaction for material failure to comply with the terms and conditions of the transaction; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Pursue any other available remedies, including suspension and debarment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.350" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.350   What must I do if I learn of information required under § 1471.335 after entering into a covered transaction with the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service?</HEAD>
<P>At any time after you enter into a covered transaction, you must give immediate written notice to the FMCS office with which you entered into the transaction if you learn either that— 
</P>
<P>(a) You failed to disclose information earlier, as required by § 1471.335; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Due to changed circumstances, you or any of the principals for the transaction now meet any of the criteria in § 1471.335. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="12" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.12" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosing Information—Lower Tier Participants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.355" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.12.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.355   What information must I provide to a higher tier participant before entering into a covered transaction with that participant?</HEAD>
<P>Before you enter into a covered transaction with a person at the next higher tier, you as a lower tier participant must notify that person if you know that you or any of the principals are presently excluded or disqualified. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.360" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.12.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.360   What happens if I fail to disclose the information required under § 1471.355?</HEAD>
<P>If we later determine that you failed to tell the person at the higher tier that you were excluded or disqualified at the time you entered into the covered transaction with that person, we may pursue any available remedies, including suspension and debarment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.365" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.3.12.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.365   What must I do if I learn of information required under § 1471.355 after entering into a covered transaction with a higher tier participant?</HEAD>
<P>At any time after you enter into a lower tier covered transaction with a person at a higher tier, you must provide immediate written notice to that person if you learn either that— 
</P>
<P>(a) You failed to disclose information earlier, as required by § 1471.355; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Due to changed circumstances, you or any of the principals for the transaction now meet any of the criteria in § 1471.355. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Responsibilities of FMCS Officials Regarding Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.400" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.400   May I enter into a transaction with an excluded or disqualified person?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You as an agency official may not enter into a covered transaction with an excluded person unless you obtain an exception under § 1471.120. 
</P>
<P>(b) You may not enter into any transaction with a person who is disqualified from that transaction, unless you obtain a waiver or exception under the statute, Executive order, or regulation that is the basis for the person's disqualification. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.405" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.405   May I enter into a covered transaction with a participant if a principal of the transaction is excluded?</HEAD>
<P>As an agency official, you may not enter into a covered transaction with a participant if you know that a principal of the transaction is excluded, unless you obtain an exception under § 1471.120. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.410" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.410   May I approve a participant's use of the services of an excluded person?</HEAD>
<P>After entering into a covered transaction with a participant, you as an agency official may not approve a participant's use of an excluded person as a principal under that transaction, unless you obtain an exception under § 1471.120. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.415" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.415   What must I do if a Federal agency excludes the participant or a principal after I enter into a covered transaction?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You as an agency official may continue covered transactions with an excluded person, or under which an excluded person is a principal, if the transactions were in existence when the person was excluded. You are not required to continue the transactions, however, and you may consider termination. You should make a decision about whether to terminate and the type of termination action, if any, only after a thorough review to ensure that the action is proper. 
</P>
<P>(b) You may not renew or extend covered transactions (other than no-cost time extensions) with any excluded person, or under which an excluded person is a principal, unless you obtain an exception under § 1471.120. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.420" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.420   May I approve a transaction with an excluded or disqualified person at a lower tier?</HEAD>
<P>If a transaction at a lower tier is subject to your approval, you as an agency official may not approve— 
</P>
<P>(a) A covered transaction with a person who is currently excluded, unless you obtain an exception under § 1471.120; or 
</P>
<P>(b) A transaction with a person who is disqualified from that transaction, unless you obtain a waiver or exception under the statute, Executive order, or regulation that is the basis for the person's disqualification. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.425" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.425   When do I check to see if a person is excluded or disqualified?</HEAD>
<P>As an agency official, you must check to see if a person is excluded or disqualified before you— 
</P>
<P>(a) Enter into a primary tier covered transaction; 
</P>
<P>(b) Approve a principal in a primary tier covered transaction; 
</P>
<P>(c) Approve a lower tier participant if agency approval of the lower tier participant is required; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Approve a principal in connection with a lower tier transaction if agency approval of the principal is required. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.430" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.430   How do I check to see if a person is excluded or disqualified?</HEAD>
<P>You check to see if a person is excluded or disqualified in two ways: 
</P>
<P>(a) You as an agency official must check the <I>EPLS</I> when you take any action listed in § 1471.425. 
</P>
<P>(b) You must review information that a participant gives you, as required by § 1471.335, about its status or the status of the principals of a transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.435" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.435   What must I require of a primary tier participant?</HEAD>
<P>You as an agency official must require each participant in a primary tier covered transaction to— 
</P>
<P>(a) Comply with subpart C of this part as a condition of participation in the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Communicate the requirement to comply with subpart C of this part to persons at the next lower tier with whom the primary tier participant enters into covered transactions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.440" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.440   What method do I use to communicate those requirements to participants?</HEAD>
<P>To communicate the requirement you must include a term or condition in the transaction requiring the participants' compliance with subpart C of this part and requiring them to include a similar term or condition in lower-tier covered transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 66604, Nov. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.445" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.445   What action may I take if a primary tier participant knowingly does business with an excluded or disqualified person?</HEAD>
<P>If a participant knowingly does business with an excluded or disqualified person, you as an agency official may refer the matter for suspension and debarment consideration. You may also disallow costs, annul or terminate the transaction, issue a stop work order, or take any other appropriate remedy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.450" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.450   What action may I take if a primary tier participant fails to disclose the information required under § 1471.335?</HEAD>
<P>If you as an agency official determine that a participant failed to disclose information, as required by § 1471.335, at the time it entered into a covered transaction with you, you may— 
</P>
<P>(a) Terminate the transaction for material failure to comply with the terms and conditions of the transaction; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Pursue any other available remedies, including suspension and debarment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.455" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.4.13.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.455   What may I do if a lower tier participant fails to disclose the information required under § 1471.355 to the next higher tier?</HEAD>
<P>If you as an agency official determine that a lower tier participant failed to disclose information, as required by § 1471.355, at the time it entered into a covered transaction with a participant at the next higher tier, you may pursue any remedies available to you, including the initiation of a suspension or debarment action. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Excluded Parties List System</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.500" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.5.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.500   What is the purpose of the Excluded Parties List System (EPLS)?</HEAD>
<P>The <I>EPLS</I> is a widely available source of the most current information about persons who are excluded or disqualified from covered transactions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.505" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.5.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.505   Who uses the EPLS?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal agency officials use the <I>EPLS</I> to determine whether to enter into a transaction with a person, as required under § 1471.430. 
</P>
<P>(b) Participants also may, but are not required to, use the <I>EPLS</I> to determine if— 
</P>
<P>(1) Principals of their transactions are excluded or disqualified, as required under § 1471.320; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Persons with whom they are entering into covered transactions at the next lower tier are excluded or disqualified. 
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>EPLS</I> is available to the general public. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.510" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.5.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.510   Who maintains the EPLS?</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the OMB guidelines, the General Services Administration (GSA) maintains the <I>EPLS.</I> When a Federal agency takes an action to exclude a person under the nonprocurement or procurement debarment and suspension system, the agency enters the information about the excluded person into the <I>EPLS.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.515" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.5.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.515   What specific information is in the EPLS?</HEAD>
<P>(a) At a minimum, the <I>EPLS</I> indicates— 
</P>
<P>(1) The full name (where available) and address of each excluded or disqualified person, in alphabetical order, with cross references if more than one name is involved in a single action; 
</P>
<P>(2) The type of action; 
</P>
<P>(3) The cause for the action; 
</P>
<P>(4) The scope of the action; 
</P>
<P>(5) Any termination date for the action; 
</P>
<P>(6) The agency and name and telephone number of the agency point of contact for the action; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The Dun and Bradstreet Number (DUNS), or other similar code approved by the GSA, of the excluded or disqualified person, if available. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The database for the <I>EPLS</I> includes a field for the Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) (the social security number (SSN) for an individual) of an excluded or disqualified person. 
</P>
<P>(2) Agencies disclose the SSN of an individual to verify the identity of an individual, only if permitted under the Privacy Act of 1974 and, if appropriate, the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988, as codified in 5 U.S.C. 552(a). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.520" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.5.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.520   Who places the information into the EPLS?</HEAD>
<P>Federal officials who take actions to exclude persons under this part or officials who are responsible for identifying disqualified persons must enter the following information about those persons into the <I>EPLS</I>: 
</P>
<P>(a) Information required by § 1471.515(a); 
</P>
<P>(b) The Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the excluded or disqualified person, including the social security number (SSN) for an individual, if the number is available and may be disclosed under law; 
</P>
<P>(c) Information about an excluded or disqualified person, generally within five working days, after— 
</P>
<P>(1) Taking an exclusion action; 
</P>
<P>(2) Modifying or rescinding an exclusion action; 
</P>
<P>(3) Finding that a person is disqualified; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Finding that there has been a change in the status of a person who is listed as disqualified. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.525" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.5.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.525   Whom do I ask if I have questions about a person in the EPLS?</HEAD>
<P>If you have questions about a person in the <I>EPLS,</I> ask the point of contact for the Federal agency that placed the person's name into the <I>EPLS.</I> You may find the agency point of contact from the <I>EPLS.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.530" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.5.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.530   Where can I find the EPLS?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may access the <I>EPLS</I> through the Internet, currently at <I>http://epls.arnet.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) As of November 26, 2003, you may also subscribe to a printed version. However, we anticipate discontinuing the printed version. Until it is discontinued, you may obtain the printed version by purchasing a yearly subscription from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by calling the Government Printing Office Inquiry and Order Desk at (202) 783-3238. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—General Principles Relating to Suspension and Debarment Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.600" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.600   How do suspension and debarment actions start?</HEAD>
<P>When we receive information from any source concerning a cause for suspension or debarment, we will promptly report and investigate it. We refer the question of whether to suspend or debar you to our suspending or debarring official for consideration, if appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.605" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.605   How does suspension differ from debarment?</HEAD>
<P>Suspension differs from debarment in that— 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A suspending official . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A debarring official . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) Imposes suspension as a temporary status of ineligibility for procurement and nonprocurement transactions, pending completion of an investigation or legal proceedings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Imposes debarment for a specified period as a final determination that a person is not presently responsible. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) Must—
<br/>(1) Have <E T="03">adequate evidence</E> that there may be a cause for debarment of a person; and
<br/>(2) Conclude that <E T="03">immediate action</E> is necessary to protect the Federal interest</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must conclude, based on a <E T="03">preponderance of the evidence,</E> that the person has engaged in conduct that warrants debarment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) Usually imposes the suspension <E T="03">first,</E> and then promptly notifies the suspended person, giving the person an opportunity to contest the suspension and have it lifted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Imposes debarment <E T="03">after</E> giving the respondent notice of the action and an opportunity to contest the proposed debarment.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.610" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.610   What procedures does the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service use in suspension and debarment actions?</HEAD>
<P>In deciding whether to suspend or debar you, we handle the actions as informally as practicable, consistent with principles of fundamental fairness. 
</P>
<P>(a) For suspension actions, we use the procedures in this subpart and subpart G of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) For debarment actions, we use the procedures in this subpart and subpart H of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.615" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.615   How does the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service notify a person of a suspension or debarment action?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The suspending or debarring official sends a written notice to the last known street address, facsimile number, or e-mail address of— 
</P>
<P>(1) You or your identified counsel; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Your agent for service of process, or any of your partners, officers, directors, owners, or joint venturers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The notice is effective if sent to any of these persons. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.620" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.620   Do Federal agencies coordinate suspension and debarment actions?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, when more than one Federal agency has an interest in a suspension or debarment, the agencies may consider designating one agency as the lead agency for making the decision. Agencies are encouraged to establish methods and procedures for coordinating their suspension and debarment actions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.625" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.625   What is the scope of a suspension or debarment?</HEAD>
<P>If you are suspended or debarred, the suspension or debarment is effective as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Your suspension or debarment constitutes suspension or debarment of all of your divisions and other organizational elements from all covered transactions, unless the suspension or debarment decision is limited— 
</P>
<P>(1) By its terms to one or more specifically identified individuals, divisions, or other organizational elements; or 
</P>
<P>(2) To specific types of transactions. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any affiliate of a participant may be included in a suspension or debarment action if the suspending or debarring official— 
</P>
<P>(1) Officially names the affiliate in the notice; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Gives the affiliate an opportunity to contest the action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.630" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.630   May the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service impute conduct of one person to another?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of actions taken under this rule, we may impute conduct as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Conduct imputed from an individual to an organization.</I> We may impute the fraudulent, criminal, or other improper conduct of any officer, director, shareholder, partner, employee, or other individual associated with an organization, to that organization when the improper conduct occurred in connection with the individual's performance of duties for or on behalf of that organization, or with the organization's knowledge, approval or acquiescence. The organization's acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct is evidence of knowledge, approval or acquiescence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conduct imputed from an organization to an individual, or between individuals.</I> We may impute the fraudulent, criminal, or other improper conduct of any organization to an individual, or from one individual to another individual, if the individual to whom the improper conduct is imputed either participated in, had knowledge of, or reason to know of the improper conduct. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conduct imputed from one organization to another organization.</I> We may impute the fraudulent, criminal, or other improper conduct of one organization to another organization when the improper conduct occurred in connection with a partnership, joint venture, joint application, association or similar arrangement, or when the organization to whom the improper conduct is imputed has the power to direct, manage, control or influence the activities of the organization responsible for the improper conduct. Acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct is evidence of knowledge, approval or acquiescence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.635" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.635   May the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service settle a debarment or suspension action?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, we may settle a debarment or suspension action at any time if it is in the best interest of the Federal Government. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.640" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.640   May a settlement include a voluntary exclusion?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, if we enter into a settlement with you in which you agree to be excluded, it is called a voluntary exclusion and has governmentwide effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.645" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.6.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.645   Do other Federal agencies know if the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service agrees to a voluntary exclusion?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Yes, we enter information regarding a voluntary exclusion into the <I>EPLS.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Also, any agency or person may contact us to find out the details of a voluntary exclusion. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Suspension</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.700" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.700   When may the suspending official issue a suspension?</HEAD>
<P>Suspension is a serious action. Using the procedures of this subpart and subpart F of this part, the suspending official may impose suspension only when that official determines that— 
</P>
<P>(a) There exists an indictment for, or other adequate evidence to suspect, an offense listed under § 1471.800(a), or 
</P>
<P>(b) There exists adequate evidence to suspect any other cause for debarment listed under § 1471.800(b) through (d); and 
</P>
<P>(c) Immediate action is necessary to protect the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.705" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.705   What does the suspending official consider in issuing a suspension?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining the adequacy of the evidence to support the suspension, the suspending official considers how much information is available, how credible it is given the circumstances, whether or not important allegations are corroborated, and what inferences can reasonably be drawn as a result. During this assessment, the suspending official may examine the basic documents, including grants, cooperative agreements, loan authorizations, contracts, and other relevant documents. 
</P>
<P>(b) An indictment, conviction, civil judgment, or other official findings by Federal, State, or local bodies that determine factual and/or legal matters, constitutes adequate evidence for purposes of suspension actions. 
</P>
<P>(c) In deciding whether immediate action is needed to protect the public interest, the suspending official has wide discretion. For example, the suspending official may infer the necessity for immediate action to protect the public interest either from the nature of the circumstances giving rise to a cause for suspension or from potential business relationships or involvement with a program of the Federal Government. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.710" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.710   When does a suspension take effect?</HEAD>
<P>A suspension is effective when the suspending official signs the decision to suspend. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.715" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.715   What notice does the suspending official give me if I am suspended?</HEAD>
<P>After deciding to suspend you, the suspending official promptly sends you a Notice of Suspension advising you— 
</P>
<P>(a) That you have been suspended; 
</P>
<P>(b) That your suspension is based on— 
</P>
<P>(1) An indictment; 
</P>
<P>(2) A conviction; 
</P>
<P>(3) Other adequate evidence that you have committed irregularities which seriously reflect on the propriety of further Federal Government dealings with you; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Conduct of another person that has been imputed to you, or your affiliation with a suspended or debarred person; 
</P>
<P>(c) Of any other irregularities in terms sufficient to put you on notice without disclosing the Federal Government's evidence; 
</P>
<P>(d) Of the cause(s) upon which we relied under § 1471.700 for imposing suspension; 
</P>
<P>(e) That your suspension is for a temporary period pending the completion of an investigation or resulting legal or debarment proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(f) Of the applicable provisions of this subpart, subpart F of this part, and any other FMCS procedures governing suspension decision making; and 
</P>
<P>(g) Of the governmentwide effect of your suspension from procurement and nonprocurement programs and activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.720" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.720   How may I contest a suspension?</HEAD>
<P>If you as a respondent wish to contest a suspension, you or your representative must provide the suspending official with information in opposition to the suspension. You may do this orally or in writing, but any information provided orally that you consider important must also be submitted in writing for the official record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.725" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.725   How much time do I have to contest a suspension?</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a respondent you or your representative must either send, or make rrangements to appear and present, the information and argument to the suspending official within 30 days after you receive the Notice of Suspension. 
</P>
<P>(b) We consider the notice to be received by you— 
</P>
<P>(1) When delivered, if we mail the notice to the last known street address, or five days after we send it if the letter is undeliverable; 
</P>
<P>(2) When sent, if we send the notice by facsimile or five days after we send it if the facsimile is undeliverable; or 
</P>
<P>(3) When delivered, if we send the notice by e-mail or five days after we send it if the e-mail is undeliverable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.730" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.730   What information must I provide to the suspending official if I contest a suspension?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to any information and argument in opposition, as a respondent your submission to the suspending official must identify— 
</P>
<P>(1) Specific facts that contradict the statements contained in the Notice of Suspension. A general denial is insufficient to raise a genuine dispute over facts material to the suspension; 
</P>
<P>(2) All existing, proposed, or prior exclusions under regulations implementing E.O. 12549 and all similar actions taken by Federal, state, or local agencies, including administrative agreements that affect only those agencies; 
</P>
<P>(3) All criminal and civil proceedings not included in the Notice of Suspension that grew out of facts relevant to the cause(s) stated in the notice; and 
</P>
<P>(4) All of your affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(b) If you fail to disclose this information, or provide false information, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service may seek further criminal, civil or administrative action against you, as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.735" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.735   Under what conditions do I get an additional opportunity to challenge the facts on which the suspension is based?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You as a respondent will not have an additional opportunity to challenge the facts if the suspending official determines that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Your suspension is based upon an indictment, conviction, civil judgment, or other finding by a Federal, State, or local body for which an opportunity to contest the facts was provided; 
</P>
<P>(2) Your presentation in opposition contains only general denials to information contained in the Notice of Suspension; 
</P>
<P>(3) The issues raised in your presentation in opposition to the suspension are not factual in nature, or are not material to the suspending official's initial decision to suspend, or the official's decision whether to continue the suspension; or 
</P>
<P>(4) On the basis of advice from the Department of Justice, an office of the United States Attorney, a State attorney general's office, or a State or local prosecutor's office, that substantial interests of the government in pending or contemplated legal proceedings based on the same facts as the suspension would be prejudiced by conducting fact-finding. 
</P>
<P>(b) You will have an opportunity to challenge the facts if the suspending official determines that— 
</P>
<P>(1) The conditions in paragraph (a) of this section do not exist; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Your presentation in opposition raises a genuine dispute over facts material to the suspension. 
</P>
<P>(c) If you have an opportunity to challenge disputed material facts under this section, the suspending official or designee must conduct additional proceedings to resolve those facts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.740" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.740   Are suspension proceedings formal?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Suspension proceedings are conducted in a fair and informal manner. The suspending official may use flexible procedures to allow you to present matters in opposition. In so doing, the suspending official is not required to follow formal rules of evidence or procedure in creating an official record upon which the official will base a final suspension decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) You as a respondent or your representative must submit any documentary evidence you want the suspending official to consider. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.745" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.745   How is fact-finding conducted?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If fact-finding is conducted— 
</P>
<P>(1) You may present witnesses and other evidence, and confront any witness presented; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The fact-finder must prepare written findings of fact for the record. 
</P>
<P>(b) A transcribed record of fact-finding proceedings must be made, unless you as a respondent and the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service agree to waive it in advance. If you want a copy of the transcribed record, you may purchase it. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.750" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.750   What does the suspending official consider in deciding whether to continue or terminate my suspension?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The suspending official bases the decision on all information contained in the official record. The record includes— 
</P>
<P>(1) All information in support of the suspending official's initial decision to suspend you; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any further information and argument presented in support of, or opposition to, the suspension; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any transcribed record of fact-finding proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(b) The suspending official may refer disputed material facts to another official for findings of fact. The suspending official may reject any resulting findings, in whole or in part, only after specifically determining them to be arbitrary, capricious, or clearly erroneous. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.755" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.755   When will I know whether the suspension is continued or terminated?</HEAD>
<P>The suspending official must make a written decision whether to continue, modify, or terminate your suspension within 45 days of closing the official record. The official record closes upon the suspending official's receipt of final submissions, information and findings of fact, if any. The suspending official may extend that period for good cause. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.760" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.7.13.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.760   How long may my suspension last?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If legal or debarment proceedings are initiated at the time of, or during your suspension, the suspension may continue until the conclusion of those proceedings. However, if proceedings are not initiated, a suspension may not exceed 12 months. 
</P>
<P>(b) The suspending official may extend the 12 month limit under paragraph (a) of this section for an additional 6 months if an office of a U.S. Assistant Attorney General, U.S. Attorney, or other responsible prosecuting official requests an extension in writing. In no event may a suspension exceed 18 months without initiating proceedings under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The suspending official must notify the appropriate officials under paragraph (b) of this section of an impending termination of a suspension at least 30 days before the 12 month period expires to allow the officials an opportunity to request an extension. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Debarment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.800" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.800   What are the causes for debarment?</HEAD>
<P>We may debar a person for— 
</P>
<P>(a) Conviction of or civil judgment for— 
</P>
<P>(1) Commission of fraud or a criminal offense in connection with obtaining, attempting to obtain, or performing a public or private agreement or transaction; 
</P>
<P>(2) Violation of Federal or State antitrust statutes, including those proscribing price fixing between competitors, allocation of customers between competitors, and bid rigging; 
</P>
<P>(3) Commission of embezzlement, theft, forgery, bribery, falsification or destruction of records, making false statements, tax evasion, receiving stolen property, making false claims, or obstruction of justice; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Commission of any other offense indicating a lack of business integrity or business honesty that seriously and directly affects your present responsibility; 
</P>
<P>(b) Violation of the terms of a public agreement or transaction so serious as to affect the integrity of an agency program, such as— 
</P>
<P>(1) A willful failure to perform in accordance with the terms of one or more public agreements or transactions; 
</P>
<P>(2) A history of failure to perform or of unsatisfactory performance of one or more public agreements or transactions; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A willful violation of a statutory or regulatory provision or requirement applicable to a public agreement or transaction; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any of the following causes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A nonprocurement debarment by any Federal agency taken before October 1, 1988, or a procurement debarment by any Federal agency taken pursuant to 48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4, before August 25, 1995; 
</P>
<P>(2) Knowingly doing business with an ineligible person, except as permitted under § 1471.120; 
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to pay a single substantial debt, or a number of outstanding debts (including disallowed costs and overpayments, but not including sums owed the Federal Government under the Internal Revenue Code) owed to any Federal agency or instrumentality, provided the debt is uncontested by the debtor or, if contested, provided that the debtor's legal and administrative remedies have been exhausted; 
</P>
<P>(4) Violation of a material provision of a voluntary exclusion agreement entered into under § 1471.640 or of any settlement of a debarment or suspension action; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Violation of the provisions of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 (41 U.S.C. 701); or 
</P>
<P>(d) Any other cause of so serious or compelling a nature that it affects your present responsibility. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.805" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.805   What notice does the debarring official give me if I am proposed for debarment?</HEAD>
<P>After consideration of the causes in § 1471.800 of this subpart, if the debarring official proposes to debar you, the official sends you a Notice of Proposed Debarment, pursuant to § 1471.615, advising you— 
</P>
<P>(a) That the debarring official is considering debarring you; 
</P>
<P>(b) Of the reasons for proposing to debar you in terms sufficient to put you on notice of the conduct or transactions upon which the proposed debarment is based; 
</P>
<P>(c) Of the cause(s) under § 1471.800 upon which the debarring official relied for proposing your debarment; 
</P>
<P>(d) Of the applicable provisions of this subpart, subpart F of this part, and any other FMCS procedures governing debarment; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Of the governmentwide effect of a debarment from procurement and nonprocurement programs and activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.810" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.810   When does a debarment take effect?</HEAD>
<P>A debarment is not effective until the debarring official issues a decision. The debarring official does not issue a decision until the respondent has had an opportunity to contest the proposed debarment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.815" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.815   How may I contest a proposed debarment?</HEAD>
<P>If you as a respondent wish to contest a proposed debarment, you or your representative must provide the debarring official with information in opposition to the proposed debarment. You may do this orally or in writing, but any information provided orally that you consider important must also be submitted in writing for the official record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.820" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.820   How much time do I have to contest a proposed debarment?</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a respondent you or your representative must either send, or make arrangements to appear and present, the information and argument to the debarring official within 30 days after you receive the Notice of Proposed Debarment. 
</P>
<P>(b) We consider the Notice of Proposed Debarment to be received by you— 
</P>
<P>(1) When delivered, if we mail the notice to the last known street address, or five days after we send it if the letter is undeliverable; 
</P>
<P>(2) When sent, if we send the notice by facsimile or five days after we send it if the facsimile is undeliverable; or 
</P>
<P>(3) When delivered, if we send the notice by e-mail or five days after we send it if the e-mail is undeliverable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.825" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.825   What information must I provide to the debarring official if I contest a proposed debarment?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to any information and argument in opposition, as a respondent your submission to the debarring official must identify— 
</P>
<P>(1) Specific facts that contradict the statements contained in the Notice of Proposed Debarment. Include any information about any of the factors listed in § 1471.860. A general denial is insufficient to raise a genuine dispute over facts material to the debarment; 
</P>
<P>(2) All existing, proposed, or prior exclusions under regulations implementing E.O. 12549 and all similar actions taken by Federal, State, or local agencies, including administrative agreements that affect only those agencies; 
</P>
<P>(3) All criminal and civil proceedings not included in the Notice of Proposed Debarment that grew out of facts relevant to the cause(s) stated in the notice; and 
</P>
<P>(4) All of your affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(b) If you fail to disclose this information, or provide false information, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service may seek further criminal, civil or administrative action against you, as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.830" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.830   Under what conditions do I get an additional opportunity to challenge the facts on which a proposed debarment is based?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You as a respondent will not have an additional opportunity to challenge the facts if the debarring official determines that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Your debarment is based upon a conviction or civil judgment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Your presentation in opposition contains only general denials to information contained in the Notice of Proposed Debarment; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The issues raised in your presentation in opposition to the proposed debarment are not factual in nature, or are not material to the debarring official's decision whether to debar. 
</P>
<P>(b) You will have an additional opportunity to challenge the facts if the debarring official determines that— 
</P>
<P>(1) The conditions in paragraph (a) of this section do not exist; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Your presentation in opposition raises a genuine dispute over facts material to the proposed debarment. 
</P>
<P>(c) If you have an opportunity to challenge disputed material facts under this section, the debarring official or designee must conduct additional proceedings to resolve those facts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.835" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.835   Are debarment proceedings formal?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Debarment proceedings are conducted in a fair and informal manner. The debarring official may use flexible procedures to allow you as a respondent to present matters in opposition. In so doing, the debarring official is not required to follow formal rules of evidence or procedure in creating an official record upon which the official will base the decision whether to debar. 
</P>
<P>(b) You or your representative must submit any documentary evidence you want the debarring official to consider. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.840" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.840   How is fact-finding conducted?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If fact-finding is conducted— 
</P>
<P>(1) You may present witnesses and other evidence, and confront any witness presented; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The fact-finder must prepare written findings of fact for the record. 
</P>
<P>(b) A transcribed record of fact-finding proceedings must be made, unless you as a respondent and the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service agree to waive it in advance. If you want a copy of the transcribed record, you may purchase it. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.845" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.845   What does the debarring official consider in deciding whether to debar me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The debarring official may debar you for any of the causes in § 1471.800. However, the official need not debar you even if a cause for debarment exists. The official may consider the seriousness of your acts or omissions and the mitigating or aggravating factors set forth at § 1471.860. 
</P>
<P>(b) The debarring official bases the decision on all information contained in the official record. The record includes— 
</P>
<P>(1) All information in support of the debarring official's proposed debarment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any further information and argument presented in support of, or in opposition to, the proposed debarment; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any transcribed record of fact-finding proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(c) The debarring official may refer disputed material facts to another official for findings of fact. The debarring official may reject any resultant findings, in whole or in part, only after specifically determining them to be arbitrary, capricious, or clearly erroneous. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.850" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.850   What is the standard of proof in a debarment action?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any debarment action, we must establish the cause for debarment by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the proposed debarment is based upon a conviction or civil judgment, the standard of proof is met. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.855" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.855   Who has the burden of proof in a debarment action?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We have the burden to prove that a cause for debarment exists. 
</P>
<P>(b) Once a cause for debarment is established, you as a respondent have the burden of demonstrating to the satisfaction of the debarring official that you are presently responsible and that debarment is not necessary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.860" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.860   What factors may influence the debarring official's decision?</HEAD>
<P>This section lists the mitigating and aggravating factors that the debarring official may consider in determining whether to debar you and the length of your debarment period. The debarring official may consider other factors if appropriate in light of the circumstances of a particular case. The existence or nonexistence of any factor, such as one of those set forth in this section, is not necessarily determinative of your present responsibility. In making a debarment decision, the debarring official may consider the following factors: 
</P>
<P>(a) The actual or potential harm or impact that results or may result from the wrongdoing. 
</P>
<P>(b) The frequency of incidents and/or duration of the wrongdoing. 
</P>
<P>(c) Whether there is a pattern or prior history of wrongdoing. For example, if you have been found by another Federal agency or a State agency to have engaged in wrongdoing similar to that found in the debarment action, the existence of this fact may be used by the debarring official in determining that you have a pattern or prior history of wrongdoing. 
</P>
<P>(d) Whether you are or have been excluded or disqualified by an agency of the Federal Government or have not been allowed to participate in State or local contracts or assistance agreements on a basis of conduct similar to one or more of the causes for debarment specified in this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) Whether you have entered into an administrative agreement with a Federal agency or a State or local government that is not governmentwide but is based on conduct similar to one or more of the causes for debarment specified in this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) Whether and to what extent you planned, initiated, or carried out the wrongdoing. 
</P>
<P>(g) Whether you have accepted responsibility for the wrongdoing and recognize the seriousness of the misconduct that led to the cause for debarment. 
</P>
<P>(h) Whether you have paid or agreed to pay all criminal, civil and administrative liabilities for the improper activity, including any investigative or administrative costs incurred by the government, and have made or agreed to make full restitution. 
</P>
<P>(i) Whether you have cooperated fully with the government agencies during the investigation and any court or administrative action. In determining the extent of cooperation, the debarring official may consider when the cooperation began and whether you disclosed all pertinent information known to you. 
</P>
<P>(j) Whether the wrongdoing was pervasive within your organization. 
</P>
<P>(k) The kind of positions held by the individuals involved in the wrongdoing. 
</P>
<P>(l) Whether your organization took appropriate corrective action or remedial measures, such as establishing ethics training and implementing programs to prevent recurrence. 
</P>
<P>(m) Whether your principals tolerated the offense. 
</P>
<P>(n) Whether you brought the activity cited as a basis for the debarment to the attention of the appropriate government agency in a timely manner. 
</P>
<P>(o) Whether you have fully investigated the circumstances surrounding the cause for debarment and, if so, made the result of the investigation available to the debarring official. 
</P>
<P>(p) Whether you had effective standards of conduct and internal control systems in place at the time the questioned conduct occurred. 
</P>
<P>(q) Whether you have taken appropriate disciplinary action against the individuals responsible for the activity which constitutes the cause for debarment. 
</P>
<P>(r) Whether you have had adequate time to eliminate the circumstances within your organization that led to the cause for the debarment. 
</P>
<P>(s) Other factors that are appropriate to the circumstances of a particular case. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.865" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.865   How long may my debarment last?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the debarring official decides to debar you, your period of debarment will be based on the seriousness of the cause(s) upon which your debarment is based. Generally, debarment should not exceed three years. However, if circumstances warrant, the debarring official may impose a longer period of debarment. 
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the period of debarment, the debarring official may consider the factors in § 1471.860. If a suspension has preceded your debarment, the debarring official must consider the time you were suspended. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the debarment is for a violation of the provisions of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988, your period of debarment may not exceed five years. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.870" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.870   When do I know if the debarring official debars me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The debarring official must make a written decision whether to debar within 45 days of closing the official record. The official record closes upon the debarring official's receipt of final submissions, information and findings of fact, if any. The debarring official may extend that period for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(b) The debarring official sends you written notice, pursuant to § 1471.615 that the official decided, either—
</P>
<P>(1) Not to debar you; or 
</P>
<P>(2) To debar you. In this event, the notice: 
</P>
<P>(i) Refers to the Notice of Proposed Debarment; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Specifies the reasons for your debarment; 
</P>
<P>(iii) States the period of your debarment, including the effective dates; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Advises you that your debarment is effective for covered transactions and contracts that are subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR chapter 1), throughout the executive branch of the Federal Government unless an agency head or an authorized designee grants an exception. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.875" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.875   May I ask the debarring official to reconsider a decision to debar me?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, as a debarred person you may ask the debarring official to reconsider the debarment decision or to reduce the time period or scope of the debarment. However, you must put your request in writing and support it with documentation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.880" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.880   What factors may influence the debarring official during reconsideration?</HEAD>
<P>The debarring official may reduce or terminate your debarment based on—
</P>
<P>(a) Newly discovered material evidence; 
</P>
<P>(b) A reversal of the conviction or civil judgment upon which your debarment was based; 
</P>
<P>(c) A bona fide change in ownership or management; 
</P>
<P>(d) Elimination of other causes for which the debarment was imposed; or 
</P>
<P>(e) Other reasons the debarring official finds appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.885" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.8.13.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.885   May the debarring official extend a debarment?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Yes, the debarring official may extend a debarment for an additional period, if that official determines that an extension is necessary to protect the public interest. 
</P>
<P>(b) However, the debarring official may not extend a debarment solely on the basis of the facts and circumstances upon which the initial debarment action was based. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the debarring official decides that a debarment for an additional period is necessary, the debarring official must follow the applicable procedures in this subpart, and subpart F of this part, to extend the debarment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.900" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.900   Adequate evidence.</HEAD>
<P><I>Adequate evidence</I> means information sufficient to support the reasonable belief that a particular act or omission has occurred. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.905" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.905   Affiliate.</HEAD>
<P>Persons are <I>affiliates</I> of each other if, directly or indirectly, either one controls or has the power to control the other or a third person controls or has the power to control both. The ways we use to determine control include, but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(a) Interlocking management or ownership; 
</P>
<P>(b) Identity of interests among family members; 
</P>
<P>(c) Shared facilities and equipment; 
</P>
<P>(d) Common use of employees; or 
</P>
<P>(e) A business entity which has been organized following the exclusion of a person which has the same or similar management, ownership, or principal employees as the excluded person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.910" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.910   Agency.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agency</I> means any United States executive department, military department, defense agency, or any other agency of the executive branch. Other agencies of the Federal government are not considered “agencies” for the purposes of this part unless they issue regulations adopting the governmentwide Debarment and Suspension system under Executive orders 12549 and 12689. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.915" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.915   Agent or representative.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agent or representative</I> means any person who acts on behalf of, or who is authorized to commit, a participant in a covered transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.920" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.920   Civil judgment.</HEAD>
<P><I>Civil judgment</I> means the disposition of a civil action by any court of competent jurisdiction, whether by verdict, decision, settlement, stipulation, other disposition which creates a civil liability for the complained of wrongful acts, or a final determination of liability under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1988 (31 U.S.C. 3801-3812). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.925" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.925   Conviction.</HEAD>
<P><I>Conviction</I> means—
</P>
<P>(a) A judgment or any other determination of guilt of a criminal offense by any court of competent jurisdiction, whether entered upon a verdict or plea, including a plea of nolo contendere; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any other resolution that is the functional equivalent of a judgment, including probation before judgment and deferred prosecution. A disposition without the participation of the court is the functional equivalent of a judgment only if it includes an admission of guilt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.930" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.930   Debarment.</HEAD>
<P><I>Debarment</I> means an action taken by a debarring official under subpart H of this part to exclude a person from participating in covered transactions and transactions covered under the Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR chapter 1). A person so excluded is debarred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.935" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.935   Debarring official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Debarring official</I> means an agency official who is authorized to impose debarment. A debarring official is either—
</P>
<P>(1) The agency head; or
</P>
<P>(2) An official designated by the agency head. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.940" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.940   Disqualified.</HEAD>
<P><I>Disqualified</I> means that a person is prohibited from participating in specified Federal procurement or nonprocurement transactions as required under a statute, Executive order (other than Executive Orders 12549 and 12689) or other authority. Examples of disqualifications include persons prohibited under—
</P>
<P>(a) The Davis-Bacon Act (40 U.S.C. 276(a));
</P>
<P>(b) The equal employment opportunity acts and Executive orders; or 
</P>
<P>(c) The Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7606), Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1368) and Executive Order 11738 (3 CFR, 1973 Comp., p. 799).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.945" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.945   Excluded or exclusion.</HEAD>
<P><I>Excluded or exclusion</I> means—
</P>
<P>(a) That a person or commodity is prohibited from being a participant in covered transactions, whether the person has been suspended; debarred; proposed for debarment under 48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4; voluntarily excluded; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The act of excluding a person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.950" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.950   Excluded Parties List System</HEAD>
<P><I>Excluded Parties List System (EPLS)</I> means the list maintained and disseminated by the General Services Administration (GSA) containing the names and other information about persons who are ineligible. The <I>EPLS</I> system includes the printed version entitled, “List of Parties Excluded or Disqualified from Federal Procurement and Nonprocurement Programs,” so long as published. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.955" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.955   Indictment.</HEAD>
<P><I>Indictment</I> means an indictment for a criminal offense. A presentment, information, or other filing by a competent authority charging a criminal offense shall be given the same effect as an indictment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.960" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.960   Ineligible or ineligibility.</HEAD>
<P><I>Ineligible or ineligibility</I> means that a person or commodity is prohibited from covered transactions because of an exclusion or disqualification. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.965" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.965   Legal proceedings.</HEAD>
<P><I>Legal proceedings</I> means any criminal proceeding or any civil judicial proceeding, including a proceeding under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act (31 U.S.C. 3801-3812), to which the Federal Government or a State or local government or quasi-governmental authority is a party. The term also includes appeals from those proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.970" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.970   Nonprocurement transaction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nonprocurement transaction</I> means any transaction, regardless of type (except procurement contracts), including, but not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Grants. 
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperative agreements. 
</P>
<P>(3) Scholarships. 
</P>
<P>(4) Fellowships. 
</P>
<P>(5) Contracts of assistance. 
</P>
<P>(6) Loans. 
</P>
<P>(7) Loan guarantees. 
</P>
<P>(8) Subsidies. 
</P>
<P>(9) Insurances. 
</P>
<P>(10) Payments for specified uses. 
</P>
<P>(11) Donation agreements. 
</P>
<P>(b) A nonprocurement transaction at any tier does not require the transfer of Federal funds. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.975" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.975   Notice.</HEAD>
<P><I>Notice</I> means a written communication served in person, sent by certified mail or its equivalent, or sent electronically by e-mail or facsimile. (See § 1471.615.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.980" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.980   Participant.</HEAD>
<P><I>Participant</I> means any person who submits a proposal for or who enters into a covered transaction, including an agent or representative of a participant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.985" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.985   Person.</HEAD>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, association, unit of government, or legal entity, however organized. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.990" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.990   Preponderance of the evidence.</HEAD>
<P><I>Preponderance of the evidence</I> means proof by information that, compared with information opposing it, leads to the conclusion that the fact at issue is more probably true than not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.995" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.995   Principal.</HEAD>
<P><I>Principal</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(a) An officer, director, owner, partner, principal investigator, or other person within a participant with management or supervisory responsibilities related to a covered transaction; or 
</P>
<P>(b) A consultant or other person, whether or not employed by the participant or paid with Federal funds, who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Is in a position to handle Federal funds; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is in a position to influence or control the use of those funds; or,
</P>
<P>(3) Occupies a technical or professional position capable of substantially influencing the development or outcome of an activity required to perform the covered transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.1000" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.1000   Respondent.</HEAD>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means a person against whom an agency has initiated a debarment or suspension action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.1005" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.1005   State.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any of the states of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) The District of Columbia; 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any territory or possession of the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Any agency or instrumentality of a state. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this part, <I>State</I> does not include institutions of higher education, hospitals, or units of local government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.1010" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.1010   Suspending official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspending official</I> means an agency official who is authorized to impose suspension. The suspending official is either: 
</P>
<P>(1) The agency head; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An official designated by the agency head. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.1015" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.1015   Suspension.</HEAD>
<P><I>Suspension</I> is an action taken by a suspending official under subpart G of this part that immediately prohibits a person from participating in covered transactions and transactions covered under the Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR chapter 1) for a temporary period, pending completion of an agency investigation and any judicial or administrative proceedings that may ensue. A person so excluded is suspended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1471.1020" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.9.13.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1471.1020   Voluntary exclusion or voluntarily excluded.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Voluntary exclusion</I> means a person's agreement to be excluded under the terms of a settlement between the person and one or more agencies. Voluntary exclusion must have governmentwide effect. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voluntarily excluded</I> means the status of a person who has agreed to a voluntary exclusion. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.15.11.13.1.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 1471—Covered Transactions 

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er26no03.000.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1472" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1472—GOVERNMENTWIDE REQUIREMENTS FOR DRUG-FREE WORKPLACE (FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>41 U.S.C. 701, <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 66557, 66604, 66605, Nov. 26, 2003, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purpose and Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.100" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.1.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.100   What does this part do?</HEAD>
<P>This part carries out the portion of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 (41 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended) that applies to grants. It also applies the provisions of the Act to cooperative agreements and other financial assistance awards, as a matter of Federal Government policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.105" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.1.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.105   Does this part apply to me?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Portions of this part apply to you if you are either— 
</P>
<P>(1) A recipient of an assistance award from the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A(n) FMCS awarding official. (See definitions of award and recipient in §§ 1472.605 and 1472.660, respectively.) 
</P>
<P>(b) The following table shows the subparts that apply to you:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If you are . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">see subparts . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) A recipient who is not an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, B and E. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) A recipient who is an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, C and E. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) A(n) FMCS awarding official</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A, D and E.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.110" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.1.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.110   Are any of my Federal assistance awards exempt from this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part does not apply to any award that the Agency Director determines that the application of this part would be inconsistent with the international obligations of the United States or the laws or regulations of a foreign government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.115" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.1.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.115   Does this part affect the Federal contracts that I receive?</HEAD>
<P>It will affect future contract awards indirectly if you are debarred or suspended for a violation of the requirements of this part, as described in § 1472.510(c). However, this part does not apply directly to procurement contracts. The portion of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 that applies to Federal procurement contracts is carried out through the Federal Acquisition Regulation in chapter 1 of Title 48 of the Code of Federal Regulations (the drug-free workplace coverage currently is in 48 CFR part 23, subpart 23.5). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Recipients Other Than Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.200" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.2.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.200   What must I do to comply with this part?</HEAD>
<P>There are two general requirements if you are a recipient other than an individual. 
</P>
<P>(a) First, you must make a good faith effort, on a continuing basis, to maintain a drug-free workplace. You must agree to do so as a condition for receiving any award covered by this part. The specific measures that you must take in this regard are described in more detail in subsequent sections of this subpart. Briefly, those measures are to—
</P>
<P>(1) Publish a drug-free workplace statement and establish a drug-free awareness program for your employees (see §§ 1472.205 through 1472.220); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Take actions concerning employees who are convicted of violating drug statutes in the workplace (see § 1472.225). 
</P>
<P>(b) Second, you must identify all known workplaces under your Federal awards (see § 1472.230). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.205" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.2.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.205   What must I include in my drug-free workplace statement?</HEAD>
<P>You must publish a statement that—
</P>
<P>(a) Tells your employees that the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance is prohibited in your workplace; 
</P>
<P>(b) Specifies the actions that you will take against employees for violating that prohibition; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Lets each employee know that, as a condition of employment under any award, he or she: 
</P>
<P>(1) Will abide by the terms of the statement; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Must notify you in writing if he or she is convicted for a violation of a criminal drug statute occurring in the workplace and must do so no more than five calendar days after the conviction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.210" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.2.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.210   To whom must I distribute my drug-free workplace statement?</HEAD>
<P>You must require that a copy of the statement described in § 1472.205 be given to each employee who will be engaged in the performance of any Federal award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.215" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.2.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.215   What must I include in my drug-free awareness program?</HEAD>
<P>You must establish an ongoing drug-free awareness program to inform employees about— 
</P>
<P>(a) The dangers of drug abuse in the workplace; 
</P>
<P>(b) Your policy of maintaining a drug-free workplace; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any available drug counseling, rehabilitation, and employee assistance programs; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The penalties that you may impose upon them for drug abuse violations occurring in the workplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.220" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.2.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.220   By when must I publish my drug-free workplace statement and establish my drug-free awareness program?</HEAD>
<P>If you are a new recipient that does not already have a policy statement as described in § 1472.205 and an ongoing awareness program as described in § 1472.215, you must publish the statement and establish the program by the time given in the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">then you . . . 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) The performance period of the award is less than 30 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">must have the policy statement and program in place as soon as possible, but before the date on which performance is expected to be completed. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) The performance period of the award is 30 days or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">must have the policy statement and program in place within 30 days after award. 


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) You believe there are extraordinary circumstances that will require more than 30 days for you to publish the policy statement and establish the awareness program</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">may ask the FMCS awarding official to give you more time to do so. The amount of additional time, if any, to be given is at the discretion of the awarding official.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.225" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.2.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.225   What actions must I take concerning employees who are convicted of drug violations in the workplace?</HEAD>
<P>There are two actions you must take if an employee is convicted of a drug violation in the workplace: 
</P>
<P>(a) First, you must notify Federal agencies if an employee who is engaged in the performance of an award informs you about a conviction, as required by § 1472.205(c)(2), or you otherwise learn of the conviction. Your notification to the Federal agencies must_ 
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Include the employee's position title; 
</P>
<P>(3) Include the identification number(s) of each affected award; 
</P>
<P>(4) Be sent within ten calendar days after you learn of the conviction; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Be sent to every Federal agency on whose award the convicted employee was working. It must be sent to every awarding official or his or her official designee, unless the Federal agency has specified a central point for the receipt of the notices. 
</P>
<P>(b) Second, within 30 calendar days of learning about an employee's conviction, you must either_ 
</P>
<P>(1) Take appropriate personnel action against the employee, up to and including termination, consistent with the requirements of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794), as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the employee to participate satisfactorily in a drug abuse assistance or rehabilitation program approved for these purposes by a Federal, State or local health, law enforcement, or other appropriate agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.230" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.2.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.230   How and when must I identify workplaces?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must identify all known workplaces under each FMCS award. A failure to do so is a violation of your drug-free workplace requirements. You may identify the workplaces_ 
</P>
<P>(1) To the FMCS official that is making the award, either at the time of application or upon award; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In documents that you keep on file in your offices during the performance of the award, in which case you must make the information available for inspection upon request by FMCS officials or their designated representatives. 
</P>
<P>(b) Your workplace identification for an award must include the actual address of buildings (or parts of buildings) or other sites where work under the award takes place. Categorical descriptions may be used (<I>e.g.,</I> all vehicles of a mass transit authority or State highway department while in operation, State employees in each local unemployment office, performers in concert halls or radio studios). 
</P>
<P>(c) If you identified workplaces to the FMCS awarding official at the time of application or award, as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and any workplace that you identified changes during the performance of the award, you must inform the FMCS awarding official. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements for Recipients Who Are Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.300" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.3.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.300   What must I do to comply with this part if I am an individual recipient?</HEAD>
<P>As a condition of receiving a(n) FMCS award, if you are an individual recipient, you must agree that— 
</P>
<P>(a) You will not engage in the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance in conducting any activity related to the award; and 
</P>
<P>(b) If you are convicted of a criminal drug offense resulting from a violation occurring during the conduct of any award activity, you will report the conviction: 
</P>
<P>(1) In writing. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 calendar days of the conviction. 
</P>
<P>(3) To the FMCS awarding official or other designee for each award that you currently have, unless § 1472.301 or the award document designates a central point for the receipt of the notices. When notice is made to a central point, it must include the identification number(s) of each affected award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.301" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.3.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.301   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Responsibilities of FMCS Awarding Officials</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.400" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.4.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.400   What are my responsibilities as a(n) FMCS awarding official?</HEAD>
<P>As a(n) FMCS awarding official, you must obtain each recipient's agreement, as a condition of the award, to comply with the requirements in— 
</P>
<P>(a) Subpart B of this part, if the recipient is not an individual; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart C of this part, if the recipient is an individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Violations of this Part and Consequences</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.500" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.5.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.500   How are violations of this part determined for recipients other than individuals?</HEAD>
<P>A recipient other than an individual is in violation of the requirements of this part if the Agency Director determines, in writing, that— 
</P>
<P>(a) The recipient has violated the requirements of subpart B of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The number of convictions of the recipient's employees for violating criminal drug statutes in the workplace is large enough to indicate that the recipient has failed to make a good faith effort to provide a drug-free workplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.505" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.5.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.505   How are violations of this part determined for recipients who are individuals?</HEAD>
<P>An individual recipient is in violation of the requirements of this part if the Agency Director determines, in writing, that— 
</P>
<P>(a) The recipient has violated the requirements of subpart C of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The recipient is convicted of a criminal drug offense resulting from a violation occurring during the conduct of any award activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.510" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.5.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.510   What actions will the Federal Government take against a recipient determined to have violated this part?</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient is determined to have violated this part, as described in § 1472.500 or § 1472.505, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service may take one or more of the following actions— 
</P>
<P>(a) Suspension of payments under the award; 
</P>
<P>(b) Suspension or termination of the award; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Suspension or debarment of the recipient under 29 CFR part 1471, for a period not to exceed five years. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.515" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.5.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.515   Are there any exceptions to those actions?</HEAD>
<P>The Agency Director may waive with respect to a particular award, in writing, a suspension of payments under an award, suspension or termination of an award, or suspension or debarment of a recipient if the Agency Director determines that such a waiver would be in the public interest. This exception authority cannot be delegated to any other official. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.605" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.605   Award.</HEAD>
<P><I>Award</I> means an award of financial assistance by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or other Federal agency directly to a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(a) The term award includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal grant or cooperative agreement, in the form of money or property in lieu of money. 
</P>
<P>(2) A block grant or a grant in an entitlement program, whether or not the grant is exempted from coverage under the Governmentwide rule 29 CFR part 1470 that implements OMB Circular A-102 (for availability, see 5 CFR 1310.3) and specifies uniform administrative requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term award does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Technical assistance that provides services instead of money. 
</P>
<P>(2) Loans. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan guarantees. 
</P>
<P>(4) Interest subsidies. 
</P>
<P>(5) Insurance. 
</P>
<P>(6) Direct appropriations. 
</P>
<P>(7) Veterans' benefits to individuals (<I>i.e.,</I> any benefit to veterans, their families, or survivors by virtue of the service of a veteran in the Armed Forces of the United States). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.610" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.610   Controlled substance.</HEAD>
<P><I>Controlled substance</I> means a controlled substance in schedules I through V of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 812), and as further defined by regulation at 21 CFR 1308.11 through 1308.15. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.615" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.615   Conviction.</HEAD>
<P><I>Conviction</I> means a finding of guilt (including a plea of nolo contendere) or imposition of sentence, or both, by any judicial body charged with the responsibility to determine violations of the Federal or State criminal drug statutes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.620" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.620   Cooperative agreement.</HEAD>
<P><I>Cooperative agreement</I> means an award of financial assistance that, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6305, is used to enter into the same kind of relationship as a grant (see definition of grant in § 1472.650), except that substantial involvement is expected between the Federal agency and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the award. The term does not include cooperative research and development agreements as defined in 15 U.S.C. 3710a. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.625" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.625   Criminal drug statute.</HEAD>
<P><I>Criminal drug statute</I> means a Federal or non-Federal criminal statute involving the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, use, or possession of any controlled substance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.630" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.630   Debarment.</HEAD>
<P><I>Debarment</I> means an action taken by a Federal agency to prohibit a recipient from participating in Federal Government procurement contracts and covered nonprocurement transactions. A recipient so prohibited is debarred, in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation for procurement contracts (48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4) and the common rule, Government-wide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement), that implements Executive Order 12549 and Executive Order 12689. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.635" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.635   Drug-free workplace.</HEAD>
<P><I>Drug-free workplace</I> means a site for the performance of work done in connection with a specific award at which employees of the recipient are prohibited from engaging in the unlawful manufacture, distribution, dispensing, possession, or use of a controlled substance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.640" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.640   Employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employee</I> means the employee of a recipient directly engaged in the performance of work under the award, including— 
</P>
<P>(1) All direct charge employees; 
</P>
<P>(2) All indirect charge employees, unless their impact or involvement in the performance of work under the award is insignificant to the performance of the award; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Temporary personnel and consultants who are directly engaged in the performance of work under the award and who are on the recipient's payroll. 
</P>
<P>(b) This definition does not include workers not on the payroll of the recipient (<I>e.g.,</I> volunteers, even if used to meet a matching requirement; consultants or independent contractors not on the payroll; or employees of subrecipients or subcontractors in covered workplaces). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.645" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.645   Federal agency or agency.</HEAD>
<P><I>Federal agency or agency</I> means any United States executive department, military department, government corporation, government controlled corporation, any other establishment in the executive branch (including the Executive Office of the President), or any independent regulatory agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.650" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.650   Grant.</HEAD>
<P><I>Grant</I> means an award of financial assistance that, consistent with 31 U.S.C. 6304, is used to enter into a relationship— 
</P>
<P>(a) The principal purpose of which is to transfer a thing of value to the recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States, rather than to acquire property or services for the Federal Government's direct benefit or use; and 
</P>
<P>(b) In which substantial involvement is not expected between the Federal agency and the recipient when carrying out the activity contemplated by the award. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.655" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.655   Individual.</HEAD>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.660" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.660   Recipient.</HEAD>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, association, unit of government (except a Federal agency) or legal entity, however organized, that receives an award directly from a Federal agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.665" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.665   State.</HEAD>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1472.670" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.16.6.13.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1472.670   Suspension.</HEAD>
<P><I>Suspension</I> means an action taken by a Federal agency that immediately prohibits a recipient from participating in Federal Government procurement contracts and covered nonprocurement transactions for a temporary period, pending completion of an investigation and any judicial or administrative proceedings that may ensue. A recipient so prohibited is suspended, in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation for procurement contracts (48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4) and the common rule, Government-wide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement), that implements Executive Order 12549 and Executive Order 12689. Suspension of a recipient is a distinct and separate action from suspension of an award or suspension of payments under an award. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1473-1499" NODE="29:4.1.3.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1473-1499 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XIV" NODE="29:4.1.4" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XIV—EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY COMMISSION</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1600" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1600—EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7301.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1600.101" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.1.0.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1600.101   Cross-reference to employee ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Employees of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) are subject to the executive branch-wide Standards of Ethical Conduct at 5 CFR part 2635, the EEOC regulation at 5 CFR part 7201, which supplements the executive branch-wide standards, and the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 7067, Feb. 26, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1601" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1601—PROCEDURAL REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2000e to 2000e-17; 42 U.S.C. 12111 to 12117; 42 U.S.C. 2000ff to 2000ff-11; 42 U.S.C. 2000gg to 2000gg-6; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note, as amended; Pub. L. 104-134, Sec. 31001(s)(1), 110 Stat. 1373.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1601.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.0.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations set forth in this part contain the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission for carrying out its responsibilities in the administration and enforcement of title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008, and the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act. Section 107 of the Americans with Disabilities Act, section 207 of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, and section 104 of the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act incorporate the powers, remedies and procedures set forth in sections 705, 706, 707, 709 and 710 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Based on its experience in the enforcement of title VII, the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, and the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act, and upon its evaluation of suggestions and petitions for amendments submitted by interested persons, the Commission may from time to time amend and revise these procedures. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.1.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.2   Terms defined in title VII of the Civil Rights Act, the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, and the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act.</HEAD>
<P>The terms <I>person, employer, employment agency, labor organization, employee, commerce, industry affecting commerce, State</I> and <I>religion</I> as used in this part shall have the meanings set forth in section 701 of title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. The term <I>disability</I> shall have the meaning set forth in section 3 of the Americans with Disabilities Act, as amended. The term <I>genetic information</I> shall have the meaning set forth in section 201 of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009, as amended at 85 FR 65217, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.1.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.3   Other definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this part, the term <I>title VII</I> shall mean title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964; the term <I>ADA</I> shall mean the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990; the term <I>GINA</I> shall mean the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008; the term <I>PWFA</I> shall mean the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act; the terms <I>EEOC</I> or <I>Commission</I> shall mean the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission or any of its designated representatives; the term <I>Washington Field Office</I> shall mean the Commission's primary non-Headquarters office serving the District of Columbia and Virginia suburban counties and jurisdictions; the term <I>FEP agency</I> shall mean a State or local agency which the Commission has determined satisfies the criteria stated in section 706(c) of title VII; and the term <I>verified</I> shall mean sworn to or affirmed before a notary public, designated representative of the Commission, or other person duly authorized by law to administer oaths and take acknowledgements, or supported by an unsworn declaration in writing under penalty of perjury. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this part, the terms <I>file, serve, submit, receive, transmit, present, send, issue,</I> and <I>notify</I> shall include all forms of digital transmission.
</P>
<P>(c) The delegations of authority in subpart B of this part are applicable to charges filed pursuant to either section 706 or section 707 of title VII.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26827, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65217, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.1.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.4   Vice Chair's functions.</HEAD>
<P>The member of the Commission designated by the President to serve as Vice Chair shall act as Chair in the absence or incapacity of the Chair or in the event of a vacancy in that office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 65217, Oct. 15, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.1.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.5   District; field; area; local authority.</HEAD>
<P>The term “district” as used herein shall mean that part of the United States or any territory thereof fixed by the Commission as a particular district. The term “district director” shall refer to that person designated as the Commission's chief officer in each district. The term “Washington Field Office Director” shall refer to that person designated as the Commission's chief officer in the Washington Field Office. Any authority of, or delegation of authority to, District Directors shall be deemed to include the Director of the Washington Field Office. The term “field” shall mean that part of the United States within a district fixed by the Commission as a particular subunit of a district, except for the Washington Field Office which is not part of any district fixed by the Commission. The term “field director” shall refer to that person designated as the Commission's chief officer in each field office.  The term “area” shall mean that part of the United States within a district fixed by the Commission as a particular subunit of a district. The term “area director” shall refer to that person designated as the Commission's chief officer in each area office. The term “local office” shall mean an EEOC office with responsibility over a part of the United States within a district fixed by the Commission as a particular subunit of a district. The term “local director” shall refer to that person designated as the Commission's chief officer for the local office. Each district office and the Washington Field Office will operate under the supervision of the Director, Office of Field Programs through the Director of Field Management Programs, and the General Counsel. Each field, area and local office, except for the Washington Field Office, will operate under the supervision of the district director. Any or all delegations, or actions taken, as provided by this part may be revoked and /or exercised by the supervisor in keeping with the supervisory structure described in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 26827, May 9, 2006, as amended at 85 FR 65217, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedure for the Prevention of Unlawful Employment Practices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.6   Submission of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall receive information concerning alleged violations of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA from any person. Where the information discloses that a person is entitled to file a charge with the Commission, the appropriate office shall render assistance in the filing of a charge. Any person or organization may request the issuance of a Commissioner charge for an inquiry into individual or systematic discrimination. Such request, with any pertinent information, should be submitted to the nearest District, Field, Area, or Local office.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who submits data or evidence to the Commission may retain or, on payment of lawfully prescribed costs, procure a copy of transcript thereof, except that a witness may for good cause be limited to inspection of the official transcript of his or her testimony. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 52 FR 26957, July 17, 1987; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.7   Charges by or on behalf of persons claiming to be aggrieved.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A charge that any person has engaged in or is engaging in an unlawful employment practice within the meaning of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA may be made by or on behalf of any person claiming to be aggrieved. A charge on behalf of a person claiming to be aggrieved may be made by any person, agency, or organization. The written charge need not identify by name the person on whose behalf it is made. The person making the charge, however, must provide the Commission with the name and contact information of the person on whose behalf the charge is made During the Commission investigation, Commission personnel shall verify the authorization of such charge by the person on whose behalf the charge is made. Any such person may request that the Commission shall keep his or her identity confidential. However, such request for confidentiality shall not prevent the Commission from disclosing the identity to Federal, State or local agencies that have agreed to keep such information confidential. If this condition is violated by a recipient agency, the Commission may decline to honor subsequent requests for such information.
</P>
<P>(b) The person claiming to be aggrieved has the responsibility to provide the Commission with notice of any change in contact information so that the Commission may communicate with him or her during the Commission's consideration of the charge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65217, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.8   Where to make a charge.</HEAD>
<P>A charge may be made using the EEOC's designated digital systems, in person, by facsimile, or by mail to any EEOC office or to any designated representative of the Commission. The addresses of the EEOC's offices appear at <I>www.eeoc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 65217, Oct. 15, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.9   Form of charge.</HEAD>
<P>A charge shall be in writing and signed and shall be verified.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.10   Withdrawal of a charge by a person claiming to be aggrieved.</HEAD>
<P>A charge filed by or on behalf of a person claiming to be aggrieved may be withdrawn only by the person claiming to be aggrieved and only with the consent of the Commission. The Commission hereby delegates authority to District Directors, Field Directors, Area Directors, Local Directors, the Director of the Office of Field Programs and the Director of Field Management Programs, or their designees, to grant consent to a request to withdraw a charge, other than a Commissioner charge, where the withdrawal of the charge will not defeat the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 4669, Jan. 23, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982; 49 FR 13024, Apr. 2, 1984; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.11   Charges by members of the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any member of the Commission may file a charge with the Commission. Such charge shall be in writing and signed and shall be verified.
</P>
<P>(b) A Commissioner who files a charge under paragraph (a) of this section may withdraw the charge with the consent of the Commission. The Commission may withdraw any charge filed under paragraph (a) of this section by a Commissioner who is no longer holding office when it determines that the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA are no longer served by processing the charge. Commissioner charges may not be withdrawn pursuant to this section after a determination as to reasonable cause has been made. This paragraph does not apply to a charge filed by a Commissioner which is on behalf of a person claiming to be aggrieved within the meaning of § 1601.7 unless such person submits a written request for withdrawal to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 30798, July 18, 1978, as amended at 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.12   Contents of charge; amendment of charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each charge should contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The full name and contact information of the person making the charge except as provided in § 1601.7;
</P>
<P>(2) The full name and contact information of the person against whom the charge is made, if known (hereinafter referred to as the respondent);
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and concise statement of the facts, including pertinent dates, constituting the alleged unlawful employment practices: See § 1601.15(b);
</P>
<P>(4) If known, the approximate number of employees of the respondent employer or the approximate number of members of the respondent labor organization, as the case may be; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement disclosing whether proceedings involving the alleged unlawful employment practice have been commenced before a State or local agency charged with the enforcement of fair employment practice laws and, if so, the date of such commencement and the name of the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, a charge is sufficient when the Commission receives from the person making the charge a written statement sufficiently precise to identify the parties, and to describe generally the action or practices complained of. A charge may be amended to cure technical defects or omissions, including failure to verify the charge, or to clarify and amplify allegations made therein. Such amendments and amendments alleging additional acts which constitute unlawful employment practices related to or growing out of the subject matter of the original charge will relate back to the date the charge was first received. A charge that has been so amended shall not be required to be redeferred.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 85 FR 65217, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.13   Filing; deferrals to State and local agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial presentation of a charge to the Commission.</I> (1) Charges arising in jurisdictions having no FEP agency are filed with the Commission upon receipt. Such charges are timely filed if received by the Commission within 180 days from the date of the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(2) A jurisdiction having a FEP agency without jurisdiction over the statutory basis alleged in the charge (e.g., an agency that does not have enforcement authority over sex discrimination) is equivalent to a jurisdiction having no FEP agency. Charges over which a FEP agency has no jurisdiction over the statutory basis alleged are filed with the Commission upon receipt and are timely filed if received by the Commission within 180 days from the date of the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(3) Charges arising in jurisdictions having a FEP agency with jurisdiction over the statutory basis alleged in the charge are to be processed in accordance with the Commission's deferral policy set in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) and the procedures in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) In order to give full weight to the policy of section 706(c) of title VII, which affords State and local fair employment practice agencies that come within the provisions of that section an opportunity to remedy alleged discrimination concurrently regulated by title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA and State or local law, the Commission adopts the following procedures with respect to allegations of discrimination filed with the Commission. It is the intent of the Commission to thereby encourage the maximum degree of effectiveness in the State and local agencies. The Commission shall endeavor to maintain close communication with the State and local agencies with respect to all matters forwarded to such agencies and shall provide such assistance to State and local agencies as is permitted by law and as is practicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 706(c) of title VII grants States and their political subdivisions the exclusive right to process allegations of discrimination filed by a person other than a Commissioner for a period of 60 days (or 120 days during the first year after the effective date of the qualifying State or local law). This right exists where, as set forth in § 1601.70, a State or local law prohibits the employment practice alleged to be unlawful and a State or local agency has been authorized to grant or seek relief. After the expiration of the exclusive processing period, the Commission may commence processing the allegation of discrimination.
</P>
<P>(iii) A FEP agency may waive its right to the period of exclusive processing of charges provided under section 706(c) of title VII with respect to any charge or category of charges. Copies of all such charges will be forwarded to the appropriate FEP agency.
</P>
<P>(4) The following procedures shall be followed with respect to charges which arise in jurisdictions having a FEP agency with jurisdiction over the statutory basis alleged in the charge:
</P>
<P>(i) Where any document, whether or not verified, is received by the Commission as provided in § 1601.8 which may constitute a charge cognizable under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA, and where the FEP agency has not waived its right to the period of exclusive processing with respect to that document, that document shall be deferred to the appropriate FEP agency as provided in the procedures set forth below:
</P>
<P>(A) The document shall reflect the date and time it was received by the EEOC.
</P>
<P>(B) The original document shall be transmitted by registered mail, return receipt requested, to the appropriate FEP agency, or by any other means acceptable to the FEP agency. State or local proceedings are deemed to have commenced on the date such document is transmitted.
</P>
<P>(C) The person claiming to be aggrieved and any person filing a charge on behalf of such person shall be notified, in writing, that the document which he or she sent to the Commission has been forwarded to the FEP agency pursuant to the provisions of section 706(c) of title VII.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such charges are deemed to be filed with the Commission as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Where the document on its face constitutes a charge within a category of charges over which the FEP agency has waived its rights to the period of exclusive processing referred to in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, the charge is deemed to be filed with the Commission upon receipt of the document. Such filing is timely if the charge is received within 300 days from the date of the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(B) Where the document on its face constitutes a charge which is not within a category of charges over which the FEP agency has waived its right to the period of exclusive processing referred to in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, the Commission shall process the document in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section. The charge shall be deemed to be filed with the Commission upon expiration of 60 (or where appropriate, 120) days after deferral, or upon the termination of FEP agency proceedings, or upon waiver of the FEP agency's right to exclusively process the charge, whichever is earliest. Where the FEP agency earlier terminates its proceedings or waives its right to exclusive processing of a charge, the charge shall be deemed to be filed with the Commission on the date the FEP agency terminated its proceedings or the FEP agency waived its right to exclusive processing of the charge. Such filing is timely if effected within 300 days from the date of the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial presentation of a charge to a FEP agency.</I> (1) When a charge is initially presented to a FEP agency and the charging party requests that the charge be presented to the Commission, the charge will be deemed to be filed with the Commission upon expiration of 60 (or where appropriate, 120) days after a written and signed statement of facts upon which the charge is based was sent to the FEP agency by registered mail or was otherwise received by the FEP agency, or upon the termination of FEP agency proceedings, or upon waiver of the FEP agency's right to exclusively process the charge, whichever is earliest. Such filing is timely if effected within 300 days from the date of the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(2) When a charge is initially presented to a FEP agency but the charging party does not request that the charge be presented to the Commission, the charging party may present the charge to the Commission as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the FEP agency has refused to accept a charge, a subsequent submission of the charge to the Commission will be processed as if it were an initial presentation in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the FEP agency proceedings have terminated, the charge may be timely filed with the Commission within 30 days of receipt of notice that the FEP agency proceedings have been terminated or within 300 days from the date of the alleged violation, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the FEP agency proceedings have not been terminated, the charge may be presented to the Commission within 300 days from the date of the alleged violation. Once presented, such a charge will be deemed to be filed with the Commission upon expiration of 60 (or where appropriate, 120) days after a written and signed statement of facts upon which the charge is based was sent to the FEP agency by registered mail or was otherwise received by the FEP agency, or upon the termination of the FEP agency proceedings, or upon waiver of the FEP agency's right to exclusively process the charge, whichever is earliest. To be timely, however, such filing must be effected within 300 days from the date of the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agreements with Fair Employment Practice agencies.</I> Pursuant to section 705(g)(1) and section 706(b) of title VII, the Commission shall endeavor to enter into agreements with FEP agencies to establish effective and integrated resolution procedures. Such agreements may include, but need not be limited to, cooperative arrangements to provide for processing of certain charges by the Commission, rather than by the FEP agency during the period specified in section 706(c) and section 706(d) of title VII.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preliminary relief.</I> When a charge is filed with the Commission, the Commission may make a preliminary investigation and commence judicial action for immediate, temporary or preliminary relief pursuant to section 706(f)(2) of title VII.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commissioner charges.</I> A charge made by a member of the Commission shall be deemed filed upon receipt by the Commission office responsible for investigating the charge. The Commission will notify a FEP agency when an allegation of discrimination is made by a member of the Commission concerning an employment practice occurring within the jurisdiction of the FEP agency. The FEP agency will be entitled to process the charge exclusively for a period of not less than 60 days if the FEP agency makes a written request to the Commission within 10 days of receiving notice that the allegation has been filed. The 60-day period shall be extended to 120 days during the first year after the effective date of the qualifying State or local law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43039, Aug. 26, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 48189, Oct. 1, 1981; 52 FR 10224, Mar. 31, 1987; 52 FR 18354, May 15, 1987; 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65217, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.14   Service of charge or notice of charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within ten days after the filing of a charge in the appropriate Commission office, the Commission shall serve respondent the charge by digital transmission, by mail, or in person, except when it is determined that providing the charge would impede the law enforcement functions of the Commission. Where the charge is not provided, the respondent will be served with a notice of the charge within ten days after the filing of the charge.  The notice shall include the date, place and circumstances of the alleged unlawful employment practice. Where appropriate, the notice may include the identity of the person or organization filing the charge.
</P>
<P>(b) District Directors, Field Directors, Area Directors, Local Directors, the Director of the Office of Field Programs, and the Director of Field Management Programs, or their designees, are hereby delegated the authority to issue the notice described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 4669, Jan. 23, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982; 49 FR 13024, Apr. 2, 1984; 49 FR 13874, Apr. 9, 1984; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006; 85 FR 65218, Oct. 15, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Investigation of a Charge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.15" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.15   Investigative authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigation of a charge shall be made by the Commission, its investigators, or any other representative designated by the Commission. During the course of such investigation, the Commission may utilize the services of State and local agencies which are charged with the administration of fair employment practice laws or appropriate Federal agencies, and may utilize the information gathered by such authorities or agencies. As part of each investigation, the Commission will accept any statement of position or evidence with respect to the allegations of the charge which the person claiming to be aggrieved, the person making the charge on behalf of such person, if any, or the respondent wishes to submit.
</P>
<P>(b) As part of the Commission's investigation, the Commission may require the person claiming to be aggrieved to provide a statement which includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of each specific harm that the person has suffered and the date on which each harm occurred;
</P>
<P>(2) For each harm, a statement specifying the act, policy or practice which is alleged to be unlawful;
</P>
<P>(3) For each act, policy, or practice alleged to have harmed the person claiming to be aggrieved, a statement of the facts which lead the person claiming to be aggrieved to believe that the act, policy or practice is discriminatory.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may require a fact-finding conference with the parties prior to a determination on a charge of discrimination. The conference is primarily an investigative forum intended to define the issues, to determine which elements are undisputed, to resolve those issues that can be resolved and to ascertain whether there is a basis for negotiated settlement of the charge.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission's authority to investigate a charge is not limited to the procedures outlined in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.16" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.16   Access to and production of evidence; testimony of witnesses; procedure and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To effectuate the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, and the PWFA, any member of the Commission shall have the authority to sign and issue a subpoena requiring:
</P>
<P>(1) The attendance and testimony of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(2) The production of evidence including, but not limited to, books, records, correspondence, or documents, in the possession or under the control of the person subpoenaed; and
</P>
<P>(3) Access to evidence for the purposes of examination and the right to copy.
</P>
<FP>Any District Director, and the Director of the Office of Field Programs, or upon delegation, the Director of Field Management Programs, or any representatives designated by the Commission, may sign and issue a subpoena on behalf of the Commission. The subpoena shall state the name and address of its issuer, identify the person or evidence subpoenaed, the person to whom and the place, date, and the time at which it is returnable or the nature of the evidence to be examined or copied, and the date and time when access is requested. A subpoena shall be returnable to a duly authorized investigator or other representative of the Commission. Neither the person claiming to be aggrieved, the person filing a charge on behalf of such person nor the respondent shall have the right to demand that a subpoena be issued.
</FP>
<P>(b)(1) Any person served with a district director-issued subpoena who intends not to comply shall petition the issuing director to seek its revocation or modification. Any person served with a Commissioner-issued subpoena who intends not to comply shall petition the General Counsel to seek its revocation or modification. Petitions must be transmitted digitally or mailed to the issuing director at the address stated on the subpoena (or, if the subpoena was issued by a Commissioner, to the General Counsel) within five days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal legal holidays) after service of the subpoena. Petitions to the General Counsel pertaining to subpoenas issued by a Commissioner may be transmitted digitally or mailed to 131 M Street NE, Washington, DC 20507 and a copy of the petition shall also be served upon the issuing Commissioner.
</P>
<P>(2) The petition shall separately identify each portion of the subpoena with which the petitioner does not intend to comply and shall state, with respect to each such portion, the basis for noncompliance with the subpoena. A copy of the subpoena shall be attached to the petition and shall be designated “Attachment A.” Within eight calendar days after receipt or as soon as practicable, the General Counsel or Director, as appropriate, shall either grant the petition to revoke or modify in its entirety or make a proposed determination on the petition, stating reasons, and submit the petition and proposed determination to the Commission for its review and final determination. A Commissioner who has issued a subpoena shall abstain from reviewing a petition concerning that subpoena. The Commission shall serve a copy of the final determination on the petitioner. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued under this section, the Commission may utilize the procedures of section 11(2) of the National Labor Relations Act, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 161(2), to compel enforcement of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(d) If a person who is served with a subpoena does not comply with the subpoena and does not petition for its revocation or modification pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the General Counsel or his or her designee may institute proceedings to enforce the subpoena in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section. Likewise, if a person who is served with a subpoena petitions for revocation or modification of the subpoena pursuant to paragraph (b), and the Commission issues a final determination upholding all or part of the subpoena, and the person does not comply with the subpoena, the General Counsel or his or her designee may institute proceedings to enforce the subpoena in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Witnesses who are subpoenaed pursuant to § 1601.16(a) shall be entitled to the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the courts of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 30798, July 18, 1978, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982; 51 FR 29098, Aug. 14, 1986; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 55 FR 14245, Apr. 17, 1990; 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65218, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.17" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.17.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.17   Witnesses for public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To effectuate the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, and the PWFA, any Commissioner, upon approval of the Commission, may demand in writing that a person appear at a stated time and place within the State in which such person resides, transacts business, or is served with the demand, for the purpose of testifying under oath before the Commission or its representative. If there be noncompliance with any such demand, the Commission may utilize the procedures of section 710 of title VII, the ADA, GINA, and the PWFA to compel such person to testify. A transcript of testimony may be made a part of the record of each investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Witnesses who testify as provided in paragraph (a) of this section shall be entitled to the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the courts of the United States. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 13618, Feb. 23, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedure Following Filing of a Charge</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.18" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.18.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.18   Dismissal: Procedure and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a charge on its face, or as amplified by the statements of the person claiming to be aggrieved discloses, or where after investigation the Commission determines, that the charge and every portion thereof is not timely filed, or otherwise fails to state a claim under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA, the Commission shall dismiss the charge. A charge which raises a claim exclusively under section 717 of title VII or the Rehabilitation Act shall not be taken and persons seeking to raise such claims shall be referred to the appropriate Federal agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) Written notice of disposition, pursuant to this section, shall be issued to the person claiming to be aggrieved and to the person making the charge on behalf of such person, where applicable; in the case of a Commissioner charge, to all persons specified in § 1601.28(b)(3)(ii); and to the respondent. The dismissal shall include a notice of rights informing the person claiming to be aggrieved or the person on whose behalf a charge was filed of the right to sue in Federal district court within 90 days of receipt of the determination. Appropriate notices of right to sue shall be issued pursuant to § 1601.28. </P>
<P>(c) The Commission hereby delegates authority to District Directors; the Director of the Office of Field Programs, or upon delegation, the Director of Field Management Programs, as appropriate, to dismiss charges, as limited by § 1601.21(d). The Commission hereby delegates authority to Field Directors, Area Directors and Local Directors, or their designees, to dismiss charges pursuant to paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section, as limited by § 1601.21(d). The authority of the Commission to reconsider decisions and determinations as set forth in § 1601.21 (b) and (d) shall be applicable to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 19165, Apr. 28, 1983; 49 FR 13024, Apr. 2, 1984. Redesignated and amended at 52 FR 26957, July 17, 1987; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 55 FR 26684, June 29, 1990; 56 FR 9624, 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006; 73 FR 3388, Jan. 18, 2008; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65218, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.19" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.18.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.19   No cause determinations: Procedure and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the Commission completes its investigation of a charge and finds that there is not reasonable cause to believe that an unlawful employment practice has occurred or is occurring as to all issues addressed in the determination, the Commission shall issue a determination to all parties to the charge indicating the finding. This determination does not mean the claims in the charge have no merit. The Commission's determination shall be the final determination of the Commission, unless a final determination of no reasonable cause is vacated pursuant to § 1601.19(b). The determination shall inform the person claiming to be aggrieved or the person on whose behalf a charge was filed of the right to sue in Federal district court within 90 days of receipt of the determination. The Commission hereby delegates authority to the Director of the Office of Field Programs, or upon delegation to the Director of Field Management Programs, and District Directors or upon delegation to Field Directors, Area Directors, or Local Directors, or their designees, except in those cases involving issues currently designated by the Commission for priority review, to issue no cause determinations.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may on its own initiative reconsider a final determination of no reasonable cause and a director of the issuing office may, on his or her own initiative, reconsider a final determination of no reasonable cause. If the Commission or the director of the issuing office decides to reconsider a final no cause determination, a notice of intent to reconsider shall promptly issue to all parties to the charge. If such notice of intent to reconsider is issued within 90 days of receipt of the final no cause determination, and the person claiming to be aggrieved or the person on whose behalf a charge was filed has not filed suit and did not request and receive a notice of right to sue pursuant to § 1601.28(a)(1) or (2), the notice of intent to reconsider shall vacate the determination and shall revoke the charging party's right to bring suit within 90 days. If the 90-day suit period has expired, the charging party has filed suit, or the charging party has requested a notice of right to sue pursuant to § 1601.28(a)(1) or (2), the notice of intent to reconsider shall vacate the determination but shall not revoke the charging party's right to sue within 90 days. After reconsideration, the Commission or a director of the issuing office shall issue a new determination. In those circumstances where the charging party's right to bring suit within 90 days was revoked, the determination shall include notice that a new 90-day suit period shall begin upon the charging party's receipt of the determination. Where a member of the Commission has filed a Commissioner charge, he or she shall abstain from making a determination in that case.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 65218, Oct. 15, 2020]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.20" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.18.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.20   Negotiated settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to the issuance of a determination as to reasonable cause the Commission may encourage the parties to settle the charge on terms that are mutually agreeable. District Directors, Field Directors, Area Directors, Local Directors, the Director of the Office of Field Programs, the Director of Field Management Programs, or their designees, shall have the authority to sign any settlement agreement which is agreeable to both parties. When the Commission agrees in any negotiated settlement not to process that charge further, the Commission's agreement shall be in consideration for the promises made by the other parties to the agreement. Such an agreement shall not affect the processing of any other charge, including, but not limited to, a Commissioner charge or a charge, the allegations of which are like or related to the individual allegations settled.
</P>
<P>(b) In the alternative, the Commission may facilitate a settlement between the person claiming to be aggrieved and the respondent by permitting withdrawal of the charge pursuant to § 1601.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 4669, Jan. 23, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982; 49 FR 13024, Apr. 2, 1984; 49 FR 13874, Apr. 9, 1984; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006; 85 FR 65218, Oct. 15, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.21" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.18.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.21   Reasonable cause determination: Procedure and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After completing its investigation, where the Commission has not settled or dismissed a charge or made a no cause finding as to every allegation addressed in the determination under § 1601.19, the Commission shall issue a determination that reasonable cause exists to believe that an unlawful employment practice has occurred or is occurring under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. A determination finding reasonable cause is based on, and limited to, evidence obtained by the Commission and does not reflect any judgment on the merits of allegations not addressed in the determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall provide prompt notification of its determination under paragraph (a) of this section to the person claiming to be aggrieved, the person making the charge on behalf of such person, if any, and the respondent, or in the case of a Commissioner charge, the person named in the charge or identified by the Commission in the third party certificate, if any, and the respondent. The Commission may, however, on its own initiative reconsider its decision or the determination of any of its designated officers who have authority to issue Letters of Determination, except that the Commission will not reconsider determinations of reasonable cause previously issued against a government, governmental entity or political subdivision after a failure of conciliation as set forth in § 1601.25.
</P>
<P>(1) In cases where the Commission decides to reconsider a dismissal or a determination finding reasonable cause to believe a charge is true, a notice of intent to reconsider will promptly issue. If such notice of intent to reconsider is issued within 90 days from receipt of a notice of right to sue and the charging party has not filed suit and did not receive a notice of right to sue pursuant to § 1601.28(a)(1) or (2), the notice of intent to reconsider will vacate the dismissal or letter of determination and revoke the notice of right to sue. If the 90- day period has expired, the charging party has filed suit, or the charging party has requested a notice of right to sue pursuant to § 1601.28(a)(1) or (2), the notice of intent to reconsider will vacate the dismissal or letter of determination, but will not revoke the notice of right to sue. After reconsideration the Commission will issue a determination anew. In those circumstances where the notice of right to sue has been revoked, the Commission will, in accordance with § 1601.28, issue a notice of right to sue anew which will provide the charging party with 90 days within which to bring suit. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission shall provide prompt notification of its intent to reconsider, which is effective upon issuance, and its final decision after reconsideration to the person claiming to be aggrieved, the person making the charge on behalf of such person, if any, and the respondent, or in the case of a Commissioner charge, the person named in the charge or identified by the Commissioner in the third-party certificate, if any, and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a member of the Commission has filed a Commissioner charge, he or she shall abstain from making a determination in that case. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission hereby delegates to District Directors, or upon delegation, Field Directors, Area Directors or Local Directors; and the Director of the Office of Field Programs, or upon delegation, the Director of Field Management Programs, the authority, except in those cases involving issues currently designated by the Commission for priority review, upon completion of an investigation, to make a determination finding reasonable cause, issue a cause letter of determination and serve the determination upon the parties. Each determination issued under this section is final when the letter of determination is issued. However, the Director of the Office of Field Programs, or upon delegation, the Director of Field Management Programs; each District Director; each Field Director; each Area Director and each Local Director, for the determinations issued by his or her office, may on his or her own initiative reconsider such determinations, except that such directors may not reconsider determinations of reasonable cause previously issued against a government, governmental agency or political subdivision after a failure of conciliation as set forth in § 1601.25. 
</P>
<P>(1) In cases where the issuing Director decides to reconsider a dismissal or a determination finding reasonable cause to believe a charge is true, a notice of intent to reconsider will promptly issue. If such notice of intent to reconsider is issued within 90 days from receipt of a notice of right to sue and the charging party has not filed suit and did not request a notice of right to sue pursuant to § 1601.28(a)(1) or (2), the notice of intent to reconsider will vacate the dismissal or letter of determination and revoke the notice of right to sue. If the 90-day period has expired, the charging party has filed suit, or the charging party has received a notice of right to sue pursuant to § 1601.28(a)(1) or (2), the notice of intent to reconsider will vacate the dismissal or letter of determination, but will not revoke the notice of right to sue. After reconsideration the issuing Director will issue a determination anew. In those circumstances where the notice of right to sue has been revoked, the issuing Director will, in accordance with § 1601.28, issue a notice of right to sue anew which will provide the charging party with 90 days within which to bring suit.
</P>
<P>(2) When the issuing Director does reconsider, he or she shall provide prompt notification of his or her intent to reconsider, which is effective upon issuance, and final decision after reconsideration to the person claiming to be aggrieved, the person making the charge on behalf of such person, if any, and the respondent, or in the charge or identified by the Commissioner in the third party certificate, if any, and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(e) In making a determination as to whether reasonable cause exists, substantial weight shall be accorded final findings and orders made by designated FEP agencies to which the Commission defers charges pursuant to § 1601.13. For the purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) “Final findings and orders” shall mean:
</P>
<P>(i) The findings of fact and order incident thereto issued by a FEP agency on the merits of a charge; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The consent order or consent decree entered into by the FEP agency on the merits of a charge.
</P>
<FP><I>Provided, however,</I> That no findings and order of a FEP agency shall be considered final for purposes of this section unless the FEP agency shall have served a copy of such findings and order upon the Commission and upon the person claiming to be aggrieved and shall have informed such person of his or her rights of appeal or to request reconsideration, or rehearing or similar rights; and the time for such appeal, reconsideration, or rehearing request shall have expired or the issues of such appeal, reconsideration or rehearing shall have been determined. 
</FP>
<P>(2) “Substantial weight” shall mean that such full and careful consideration shall be accorded to final findings and orders, as defined above, as is appropriate in light of the facts supporting them when they meet all of the prerequisites set forth below: 
</P>
<P>(i) The proceedings were fair and regular; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The practices prohibited by the State or local law are comparable in scope to the practices prohibited by Federal law; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The final findings and order serve the interest of the effective enforcement of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA: <I>Provided,</I> That giving substantial weight to final findings and orders of a FEP agency does not include according weight, for purposes of applying Federal law, to such Agency's conclusions of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 73036, Nov. 4, 1980; 48 FR 19165, Apr. 28, 1983; 49 FR 13024, Apr. 2, 1984; 51 FR 18778, May 22, 1986; 52 FR 26959, July 17, 1987; 53 FR 3370, Feb. 7, 1988; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 56 FR 9624, 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65218, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.22" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.18.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.22   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>Neither a charge, nor information obtained during the investigation of a charge of employment discrimination under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA, nor information obtained from records required to be kept or reports required to be filed pursuant to title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA, shall be made matters of public information by the Commission prior to the institution of any proceeding under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA involving such charge or information. This provision does not apply to such earlier disclosures to charging parties, or their attorneys, respondents or their attorneys, or witnesses where disclosure is deemed necessary for securing appropriate relief. This provision also does not apply to such earlier disclosures to representatives of interested Federal, State, and local authorities as may be appropriate or necessary to the carrying out of the Commission's function under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA, nor to the publication of data derived from such information in a form which does not reveal the identity of charging parties, respondents, or persons supplying the information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 9624, 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 63982, 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedure To Rectify Unlawful Employment Practices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.23" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.19.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.23   Preliminary or temporary relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the interest of the expeditious procedure required by section 706(f)(2) of title VII, the Commission hereby delegates to the Director of the Office of Field Programs or upon delegation, the Director of Field Management Programs and each District Director the authority, upon the basis of a preliminary investigation, to make the initial determination on its behalf that prompt judicial action is necessary to carry out the purposes of the Act and recommend such action to the General Counsel. The Commission authorizes the General Counsel to institute an appropriate action on behalf of the Commission in such a case not involving a government, governmental agency, or political subdivision.
</P>
<P>(b) In a case involving a government, governmental agency, or political subdivision, any recommendation for preliminary or temporary relief shall be transmitted directly to the Attorney General by the Director of the Office of Field Programs or upon delegation, the Director of Field Management Programs or the District Director.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit private individuals from exercising their rights to seek temporary or preliminary relief on their own motion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.24" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.19.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.24   Conciliation: Procedure and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the Commission determines that there is reasonable cause to believe that an unlawful employment practice has occurred or is occurring, the Commission shall endeavor to eliminate such practice by informal methods of conference, conciliation and persuasion. In conciliating a case in which a determination of reasonable cause has been made, the Commission shall attempt to achieve a just resolution of all violations found and to obtain agreement that the respondent will eliminate the unlawful employment practice and provide appropriate affirmative relief. Where such conciliation attempts are successful, the terms of the conciliation agreement shall be reduced to writing and shall be signed by the Commission's designated representative and the parties. A copy of the signed agreement shall be sent to the respondent and the person claiming to be aggrieved. Where a charge has been filed on behalf of a person claiming to be aggrieved, the conciliation agreement may be signed by the person filing the charge or by the person on whose behalf the charge was filed.
</P>
<P>(b) District Directors; the Director of the Office of Field Programs or the Director of Field Management Programs; or their designees are hereby delegated authority to enter into informal conciliation efforts. District Directors or upon delegation, Field Directors, Area Directors, or Local Directors; the Director of the Office of Field Programs; or the Director of Field Management Programs are hereby delegated the authority to negotiate and sign conciliation agreements. When a suit brought by the Commission is in litigation, the General Counsel is hereby delegated the authority to negotiate and sign conciliation agreements where, pursuant to section 706(f)(1) of title VII, a court has stayed proceedings in the case pending further efforts of the Commission to obtain voluntary compliance.
</P>
<P>(c) Proof of compliance with title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA in accordance with the terms of the agreement shall be obtained by the Commission before the case is closed. In those instances in which a person claiming to be aggrieved or a member of the class claimed to be aggrieved by the practices alleged in the charge is not a party to such an agreement, the agreement shall not extinguish or in any way prejudice the rights of such person to proceed in court under section 706(f)(1) of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 48 FR 19165, Apr. 28, 1983; 49 FR 13024, Apr. 2, 1984; 49 FR 13874, Apr. 9, 1984; 52 FR 26959, July 17, 1987; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 56 FR 9624, 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26828, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65218, Oct. 15, 2020, 86 FR 2985, Jan. 14, 2021; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 12232, Feb. 16, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.25" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.19.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.25   Failure of conciliation; notice.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Commission is unable to obtain voluntary compliance as provided by title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA and it determines that further efforts to do so would be futile or nonproductive, it shall, through the appropriate District Director, the Director of the Office of Field Programs, or Director of Field Management Programs, or their designees, so notify the respondent in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 56 FR 9624, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26829, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.26" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.19.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.26   Confidentiality of endeavors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing that is said or done during and as part of the informal endeavors of the Commission to eliminate unlawful employment practices by informal methods of conference, conciliation, and persuasion may be made a matter of public information by the Commission, its officers or employees, or used as evidence in a subsequent proceeding without the written consent of the persons concerned. This provision does not apply to such disclosures to the representatives of Federal, State or local agencies as may be appropriate or necessary to the carrying out of the Commission's functions under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the Commission may refuse to make disclosures to any such agency which does not maintain the confidentiality of such endeavors in accord with this section or in any circumstances where the disclosures will not serve the purposes of the effective enforcement of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA.
</P>
<P>(b) Factual information obtained by the Commission during such informal endeavors, if such information is otherwise obtainable by the Commission under section 709 of title VII, for disclosure purposes will be considered by the Commission as obtained during the investigatory process. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedure Concerning the Institution of Civil Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.27" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.20.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.27   Civil actions by the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may bring a civil action against any respondent named in a charge not a government, governmental agency or political subdivision, after thirty (30) days from the date of the filing of a charge with the Commission unless a conciliation agreement acceptable to the Commission has been secured: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the Commission may seek preliminary or temporary relief pursuant to section 706(f)(2) of title VII, according to the procedures set forth in § 1601.23 of this part, at any time. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.28" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.20.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.28   Notice of right to sue: Procedure and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of notice of right to sue upon request.</I> (1) When a person claiming to be aggrieved requests, in writing, that a notice of right to sue be issued and the charge to which the request relates is filed against a respondent other than a government, governmental agency or political subdivision, the Commission shall promptly issue such notice as described in § 1601.28(e) to all parties, at any time after the expiration of one hundred eighty (180) days from the date of filing of the charge with the Commission, or in the case of a Commissioner charge 180 days after the filing of the charge or 180 days after the expiration of any period of reference under section 706(d) of title VII as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a person claiming to be aggrieved requests, in writing, that a notice of right to sue be issued, and the charge to which the request relates is filed against a respondent other than a government, governmental agency or political subdivision, the Commission may issue such notice as described in § 1601.28(e) with copies to all parties, at any time prior to the expiration of 180 days from the date of filing of the charge with the Commission; provided that the District Director, the Field Director, the Area Director, the Local Director, the Director of the Office of Field Programs or upon delegation, the Director of Field Management Programs has determined that it is probable that the Commission will be unable to complete its administrative processing of the charge within 180 days from the filing of the charge and has attached a written certificate to that effect.
</P>
<P>(3) Issuance of a notice of right to sue shall terminate further proceeding of any charge that is not a Commissioner charge unless the District Director; Field Director; Area Director; Local Director; Director of the Office of Field Programs or upon delegation, the Director of Field Management Programs; or the General Counsel, determines at that time or at a later time that it would effectuate the purpose of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA to further process the charge. Issuance of a notice of right to sue shall not terminate the processing of a Commissioner charge.
</P>
<P>(4) The issuance of a notice of right to sue does not preclude the Commission from offering such assistance to a person issued such notice as the Commission deems necessary or appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of notice of right to sue following Commission disposition of charge.</I> (1) Where the Commission has found reasonable cause to believe that title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA has been violated, has been unable to obtain voluntary compliance with title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA, and where the Commission has decided not to bring a civil action against the respondent, it will issue a notice of right to sue on the charge as described in § 1601.28(e) to: 
</P>
<P>(i) The person claiming to be aggrieved, or,
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a Commissioner charge, to any member of the class who is named in the charge, identified by the Commissioner in a third-party certificate, or otherwise identified by the Commission as a member of the class and provide a copy thereof to all parties. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Commission has entered into a conciliation agreement to which the person claiming to be aggrieved is not a party, the Commission shall issue a notice of right to sue on the charge to the person claiming to be aggrieved. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where the Commission has dismissed a charge pursuant to § 1601.18, it shall issue a notice of right to sue as described in § 1601.28(e) to: 
</P>
<P>(i) The person claiming to be aggrieved, or, 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a Commissioner charge, to any member of the class who is named in the charge, identified by the Commissioner in a third-party certificate, or otherwise identified by the Commission as a member of the class, and provide a copy thereof to all parties.
</P>
<P>(4) The issuance of a notice of right to sue does not preclude the Commission from offering such assistance to a person issued such notice as the Commission deems necessary or appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission hereby delegates authority to District Directors, Field Directors, Area Directors, Local Directors, the Director of the Office of Field Programs, or Director of Field Management Programs or their designees, to issue notices of right to sue, in accordance with this section, on behalf of the Commission. Where a charge has been filed on behalf of a person claiming to be aggrieved, the notice of right to sue shall be issued in the name of the person or organization who filed the charge.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notices of right to sue for charges against Governmental respondents.</I> In all cases where the respondent is a government, governmental agency, or a political subdivision, the Commission will issue the notice of right to sue when there has been a dismissal of a charge. The notice of right to sue will be issued in accordance with § 1601.28(e). In all other cases where the respondent is a government, governmental agency, or political subdivision, the Attorney General will issue the notice of right to sue, including the following cases: 
</P>
<P>(1) When there has been a finding of reasonable cause by the Commission, there has been a failure of conciliation, and the Attorney General has decided not to file a civil action; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Where a charging party has requested a notice of right to sue pursuant to § 1601.28(a)(1) or (2). In cases where a charge of discrimination results in a finding of cause in part and no cause in part, the case will be treated as a “cause” determination and will be referred to the Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content of notice of right to sue.</I> The notice of right to sue shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Authorization to the aggrieved person to bring a civil action under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA pursuant to section 706(f)(1) of title VII, section 107 of the ADA, section 207 of GINA, or section 104 of the PWFA within 90 days from receipt of such authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) Advice concerning the institution of such civil action by the person claiming to be aggrieved, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(3) The charge;
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission's decision, determination, or dismissal, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 4669, Jan. 23, 1979; 45 FR 73037, Nov. 4, 1980; 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982; 48 FR 19165, Apr. 28, 1983; 49 FR 13024, Apr. 2, 1984; 49 FR 13874, Apr. 9, 1984; 52 FR 26959, July 17, 1987; 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989; 56 FR 9624, 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 71 FR 26829, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65218, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.29" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.2.20.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.29   Referral to the Attorney General.</HEAD>
<P>If the Commission is unable to obtain voluntary compliance in a charge involving a government, governmental agency or political subdivision, it shall inform the Attorney General of the appropriate facts in the case with recommendations for the institution of a civil action by him or her against such respondent or for intervention by him or her in a civil action previously instituted by the person claiming to be aggrieved. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Notices to Employees, Applicants for Employment and Union Members</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.30" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.3.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.30   Notices to be posted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every employer, employment agency, labor organization, and joint labor-management committee controlling an apprenticeship or other training program that has an obligation under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA shall post and keep posted in conspicuous places upon its premises notices in an accessible format, to be prepared or approved by the Commission, describing the applicable provisions of title VII, the ADA, GINA, and the PWFA. Such notice must be posted in prominent and accessible places where notices to employees, applicants and members are customarily maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 711(b) of Title VII and the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act, as amended, make failure to comply with this section punishable by a fine of not more than $698 for each separate offense.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 2518, Jan. 25, 1990; 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 62 FR 26934, May 16, 1997; 74 FR 63982, 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 79 FR 15221, Mar. 19, 2014; 81 FR 35270, June 2, 2016; 82 FR 8813, Jan. 31, 2017; 83 FR 2537, Jan. 18, 2018; 84 FR 10411, Mar. 21, 2019; 85 FR 15376, Mar. 18, 2020; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020; 86 FR 28264, May 26, 2021; 87 FR 10073, Feb. 23, 2022; 88 FR 17373, Mar. 23, 2023; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 12232, Feb. 16, 2024; 90 FR 46767, Sept. 30, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Construction of Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.34" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.4.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.34   Rules to be liberally construed.</HEAD>
<P>These rules and regulations shall be liberally construed to effectuate the purpose and provisions of title VII, the ADA, GINA, and the PWFA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 4670, Jan. 23, 1979. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 9624, 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Issuance, Amendment, or Repeal of Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.35" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.5.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.35   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person may petition the Commission, in writing, for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of a rule or regulation. Such petition shall be filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street, NE., Washington DC 20507, and shall state the rule or regulation proposed to be issued, amended, or repealed, together with a statement of grounds in support of such petition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989. Redesignated at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.36" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.5.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.36   Action on petition.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the filing of such petition, the Commission shall consider the same and may thereupon either grant or deny the petition in whole or in part, conduct an appropriate proceeding thereon, or make other disposition of the petition. Should the petition be denied in whole or in part, prompt notice shall be given of the denial, accompanied by a simple statement of the grounds unless the denial be self-explanatory. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977. Redesignated at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—FEP Agency Designation Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.70" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.70   FEP agency qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) State and local fair employment practice agencies or authorities which qualify under section 706(c) of title VII and this section shall be designated as “FEP agencies.” The qualifications for designation under section 706(c) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) That the state or political subdivision has a fair employment practice law which makes unlawful employment practices based upon race; color; religion; sex; national origin; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; and
</P>
<P>(2) That the State or political subdivision has either established a State or local authority or authorized an existing State or local authority that is empowered with respect to employment practices found to be unlawful, to do one of three things: To grant relief from the practice; to seek relief from the practice; or to institute criminal proceedings with respect to the practice.
</P>
<P>(b) Any State or local agency or authority seeking FEP agency designation should submit a written request to the Chair of the Commission. However, if the Commission is aware that an agency or authority meets the above criteria for FEP agency designation, the Commission shall defer charges to such agency or authority even though no request for FEP agency designation has been made.
</P>
<P>(c) A request for FEP agency designation should include a copy of the agency's fair employment practices law and any rules, regulations and guidelines of general interpretation issued pursuant thereto. Submission of such data will allow the Commission to ascertain which employment practices are made unlawful and which bases are covered by the State or local entity. Agencies or authorities are requested, but not required, to provide the following helpful information:
</P>
<P>(1) A chart of the organization of the agency or authority responsible for administering and enforcing said law;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of funds made available to or allocated by the agency or authority for fair employment purposes;
</P>
<P>(3) The identity and telephone number of the agency (authority) representative whom the Commission may contact with reference to any legal or other questions that may arise regarding designation;
</P>
<P>(4) A detailed statement as to how the agency or authority meets the qualifications of paragraph (a) (1) and (2) of § 1601.70.
</P>
<P>(d) Where both State and local FEP agencies exist, the Commission reserves the right to defer to the State FEP agency only. However, where there exist agencies of concurrent jurisdiction, the Commission may defer to the FEP agency which would best serve the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA, or to both the State and local agencies.
</P>
<P>(e) The Chair or his or her designee, will provide to the Attorney General of the concerned State (and corporation counsel of a concerned local government, if appropriate) an opportunity to comment upon aspects of State or local law which might affect the qualifications of any new agency in that State otherwise cognizable under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 33606, May 20, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 53733, Nov. 29, 1982. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 60 FR 46220, Sept. 6, 1995; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11169, 11170, Feb. 14, 2024; 91 FR 43540, July 16, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.71" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.71   FEP agency notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Commission determines that an agency or authority meets the criteria outlined in section 706(c) of title VII and § 1601.70, the Commission shall so notify the agency by letter and shall notify the public by publication of an updated list of FEP agencies on the Commission's public website, <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/fair-employment-practices-agencies-fepas-and-dual-filing</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Commission determines that an agency or authority does not come within the definition of a FEP agency for purposes of a particular basis of discrimination or where the agency or authority applies for designation as a Notice Agency, the Commission shall notify that agency or authority of the filing of charges for which the agency or authority is not a FEP agency. For such purposes that State or local agency will be deemed a Notice Agency.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the Chair becomes aware of events which lead him or her to believe that a deferral Agency no longer meets the requirements of a FEP agency and should no longer be considered a FEP agency, the Chair will so notify the affected agency and give it 15 days in which to respond to the preliminary findings. If the Chair deems necessary, he or she may convene a hearing for the purpose of clarifying the matter. The Commission shall render a final determination regarding continuation of the agency as a FEP agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 33606, May 20, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 53733, Nov. 29, 1982. Redesignated at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 60 FR 46220, Sept. 6, 1995; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020; 91 FR 43540, July 16, 2026] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1601.72-1601.74" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1601.72-1601.74   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.75" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.75   Certification of designated FEP agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may certify designated FEP agencies based upon the past, satisfactory performance of those agencies. The effect of such certification is that the Commission shall accept the findings and resolutions of designated FEP agencies in regard to cases processed under contracts with those agencies without individual, case-by-case substantial weight review by the Commission except as provided in §§ 1601.76 and 1601.77 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Eligibility criteria for certification of a designated FEP agency are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) That the State or local agency has been a designated FEP agency for 4 years;
</P>
<P>(2) That the State or local designated FEP agency's work product has been evaluated within the past 12 months by State, Local, and Tribal Programs, Office of Field Programs, and found to be in conformance with the Commission's Substantial Weight Review Procedures; and
</P>
<P>(3) That the State or local designated FEP agency's findings and resolutions pursuant to its contract with the Commission, as provided in section 709(b) of title VII, have been accepted by the Commission in at least 95% of the cases processed by the FEP agency in the past 12 months.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon Commission approval of a designated FEP agency for certification, it shall notify the agency of its certification and shall effect such certification by publication of an updated list of FEP agencies on the Commission's public website at <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/fair-employment-practices-agencies-fepas-and-dual-filing</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 50367, Oct. 13, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 32061, Aug. 4, 1989. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020; 91 FR 43540, July 16, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.76" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.76   Right of party to request review.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall notify the parties whose cases are to be processed by the designated, certified FEP agency of their right, if aggrieved by the agency's final action, to request review by the Commission within 15 days of that action. The Commission, on receipt of a request for review, shall conduct such review in accord with the procedures set forth in the Substantial Weight Review Procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 50367, Oct. 13, 1981. Redesignated at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.77" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.77   Review by the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>After a designated FEP agency has been certified, the Commission shall accept the findings and resolutions of that agency as final in regard to all cases processed under contract with the Commission, as provided in section 709(b) of title VII, except that the Commission shall review charges closed by the certified FEP agency for lack of jurisdiction, as a result of unsuccessful conciliation, or where the charge involves an issue currently designated by the Commission for priority review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 50367, Oct. 13, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 18778, May 22, 1986. Redesignated at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.78" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.78   Evaluation of designated FEP agencies certified by the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>To assure that designated FEP agencies certified by the Commission, as provided in § 1601.75 of this part, continue to maintain performance consistent with the Commission's Substantial Weight Review Procedures, the Commission shall provide for the evaluation of such agencies as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Each designated FEP agency certified by the Commission shall be evaluated at least once every 3 years; and
</P>
<P>(b) Each designated FEP agency certified by the Commission shall be evaluated when, as a result of a substantial weight review requested as provided in § 1601.76 of this part or required in regard to cases closed as a result of unsuccessful conciliation or for lack of jurisdiction as provided in § 1601.77 of this part, the Commission rejects more than 5% of a designated FEP agency's findings at the end of the year or 20% or more of its findings for two consecutive quarters. When the Commission rejects 20% or more of a designated FEP agency's findings during any quarter, the Commission shall initiate an inquiry and may conduct an evaluation.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may, on its own motion, require an evaluation at any time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 50367, Oct. 13, 1981. Redesignated at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.79" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.79   Revocation of certification.</HEAD>
<P>Certification of a designated FEP agency is discretionary with the Commission and the Commission may, upon its own motion, withdraw such certification as a result of an evaluation conducted pursuant to § 1601.78 or for any reason which leads the Commission to believe that such certification no longer serves the interest of effective enforcement of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. The Commission will accept comments from any individual or organization concerning the efficacy of the certification of any designated FEP agency. The revocation shall be effected by publication of an updated list of FEP agencies on the Commission's public website at <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/fair-employment-practices-agencies-fepas-and-dual-filing</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 50367, Oct. 13, 1981. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 9624, 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 63982, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11169, Feb. 14, 2024; 91 FR 43540, July 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.80" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.7.21.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.80   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Title VII Interpretations and Opinions by the Commission</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.91" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.8.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.91   Request for title VII interpretation or opinion.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person desiring a written title VII interpretation or opinion from the Commission may make such a request. However, issuance of title VII interpretations or opinions is discretionary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.92" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.8.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.92   Contents of request; where to file.</HEAD>
<P>A request for an “opinion letter” shall be in writing, signed by the person making the request, addressed to the Chair, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street, NE., Washington, DC 20507 and shall contain:
</P>
<P>(a) The names and addresses of the person making the request and of other interested persons.
</P>
<P>(b) A statement of all known relevant facts.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of reasons why the title VII interpretation or opinion should be issued.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 55388, Oct. 14, 1977. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 9625, Mar. 7, 1991; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1601.93" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.2.8.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1601.93   Opinions—title VII.</HEAD>
<P>Only the following may be relied upon as a “written interpretation or opinion of the Commission” within the meaning of section 713 of title VII:
</P>
<P>(a) A letter entitled “opinion letter” and signed by the Legal Counsel on behalf of and as approved by the Commission, or, if issued in the conduct of litigation, by the General Counsel on behalf of and as approved by the Commission, or
</P>
<P>(b) Matter published and specifically designated as such in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> including the Commission's Guidelines on Affirmative Action, or 
</P>
<P>(c) A Commission determination of no reasonable cause, issued, under the circumstances described in § 1608.10 (a) or (b) of the Commission's Guidelines on Affirmative Action, 29 CFR part 1608, when such determination contains a statement that it is a “written interpretation or opinion of the Commission.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 31411, Aug. 7, 1984. Redesignated at 56 FR 9626, Mar. 7, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1602" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1602—RECORDKEEPING AND REPORTING REQUIREMENTS UNDER TITLE VII, THE ADA, GINA, AND THE PWFA
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2000e-8, 2000e-12; 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 12117; 42 U.S.C. 2000ff-6; 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.1.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Section 709 of title VII (42 U.S.C. 2000e-8), section 107 of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) (42 U.S.C. 12117), section 207(a) of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) (42 U.S.C. 2000ff-6), and section 104 of the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act (PWFA) (42 U.S.C 2000gg-2) require the Commission to establish regulations pursuant to which employers, labor organizations, joint labor-management committees, and employment agencies subject to those Acts shall make and preserve certain records and shall furnish specified information to aid in the administration and enforcement of the Acts. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1602.2-1602.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.1.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1602.2-1602.6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Employer Information Report</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.2.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.7   Requirement for filing of report.</HEAD>
<P>On or before September 30 of each year, every employer that is subject to title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, and that has 100 or more employees shall file with the Commission or its delegate executed copies of Standard Form 100, as revised (otherwise known as “Employer Information Report EEO-1”) in conformity with the directions set forth in the form and accompanying instructions. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 1602.14, every such employer shall retain at all times at each reporting unit, or at company or divisional headquarters, a copy of the most recent report filed for each such unit and shall make the same available if requested by an officer, agent, or employee of the Commission under the authority of section 710 of title VII. Appropriate copies of Standard Form 100 in blank will be supplied to every employer known to the Commission to be subject to the reporting requirements, but it is the responsibility of all such employers to obtain necessary supplies of the form from the Commission or its delegate prior to the filing date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9219, May 6, 1972, as amended at 56 FR 35755, July 26, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.2.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.8   Penalty for making of willfully false statements on report.</HEAD>
<P>The making of willfully false statements on Report EEO-1 is a violation of the United States Code, title 18, section 1001, and is punishable by fine or imprisonment as set forth therein. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 2833, Feb. 17, 1966]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.2.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.9   Commission's remedy for employer's failure to file report.</HEAD>
<P>Any employer failing or refusing to file Report EEO-1 when required to do so may be compelled to file by order of a U.S. District Court, upon application of the Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 2833, Feb. 17, 1966]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.2.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.2.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.11   Additional reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission reserves the right to require reports, other than that designated as the Employer Information Report EEO-1, about the employment practices of individual employers or groups of employers whenever, in its judgment, special or supplemental reports are necessary to accomplish the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. Any system for the requirement of such reports will be established in accordance with the procedures referred to in section 709(c) of title VII, section 107 of the ADA, section 207(a) of GINA, or section 104 of the PWFA and as otherwise prescribed by law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 2833, Feb. 17, 1966, as amended at 56 FR 35755, July 26, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Recordkeeping by Employers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.3.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.12   Records to be made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission has not adopted any requirement, generally applicable to employers, that records be made or kept. It reserves the right to impose recordkeeping requirements upon individual employers or groups of employers subject to its jurisdiction whenever, in its judgment, such records (a) are necessary for the effective operation of the EEO-1 reporting system or of any special or supplemental reporting system as described above; or (b) are further required to accomplish the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. Such record-keeping requirements will be adopted in accordance with the procedures referred to in section 709(c) of title VII, section 107 of the ADA, section 207(a) of GINA, or section 104 of the PWFA, and otherwise prescribed by law.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0040)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 2833, Feb. 17, 1966, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35755, July 26, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.3.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.13   Records as to racial or ethnic identity of employees.</HEAD>
<P>Employers may acquire the information necessary for completion of items 5 and 6 of Report EEO-1 either by visual surveys of the work force, or at their option, by the maintenance of post-employment records as to the identity of employees where the same is permitted by State law. In the latter case, however, the Commission recommends the maintenance of a permanent record as to the racial or ethnic identity of an individual for purpose of completing the report form only where the employer keeps such records separately from the employee's basic personnel form or other records available to those responsible for personnel decisions, e.g., as part of an automatic data processing system in the payroll department. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 2833, Feb. 17, 1966]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.3.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.14   Preservation of records made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>Any personnel or employment record made or kept by an employer (including but not necessarily limited to requests for reasonable accommodation, application forms submitted by applicants and other records having to do with hiring, promotion, demotion, transfer, lay-off or termination, rates of pay or other terms of compensation, and selection for training or apprenticeship) shall be preserved by the employer for a period of one year from the date of the making of the record or the personnel action involved, whichever occurs later. In the case of involuntary termination of an employee, the personnel records of the individual terminated shall be kept for a period of one year from the date of termination. Where a charge of discrimination has been filed, or an action brought by the Commission or the Attorney General, against an employer under title VII, the ADA, or GINA, the respondent employer shall preserve all personnel records relevant to the charge or action until final disposition of the charge or the action. The term “personnel records relevant to the charge,” for example, would include personnel or employment records relating to the aggrieved person and to all other employees holding positions similar to that held or sought by the aggrieved person and application forms or test papers completed by an unsuccessful applicant and by all other candidates for the same position as that for which the aggrieved person applied and was rejected. The date of <I>final disposition of the charge or the action</I> means the date of expiration of the statutory period within which the aggrieved person may bring an action in a U.S. District Court or, where an action is brought against an employer either by the aggrieved person, the Commission, or by the Attorney General, the date on which such litigation is terminated. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0040)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9219, May 6, 1972, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35755, July 26, 1991; 77 FR 5398, Feb. 3, 2012; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 46021, May 28, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Apprenticeship Information Report</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.15" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.4.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.15   Requirement for filing and preserving copy of report.</HEAD>
<P>On or before September 30, 1967, and annually thereafter, certain joint labor-management committees subject to title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 which control apprenticeship programs shall file with the Commission, or its delegate, executed copies of Apprenticeship Information Report EEO-2 in conformity with the directions set forth in the form and accompanying instructions. The committees covered by this regulation are those which (a) have five or more apprentices enrolled in the program at any time during August and September of the reporting year, and (b) represent at least one employer sponsor and at least one labor organization sponsor which are themselves subject to title VII. Every such committee shall retain at all times among the records maintained in the ordinary course of its affairs a copy of the most recent report filed, and shall make the same available if requested by an officer, agent, or employee of the Commission under the authority of section 710 of title VII. It is the responsibility of all such committees to obtain from the Commission or its delegate necessary supplies of the form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9220, May 6, 1972] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.16" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.4.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.16   Penalty for making of willfully false statements on report.</HEAD>
<P>The making of willfully false statements on Report EEO-2 is a violation of the U.S. Code, title 18, section 1001, and is punishable by fine or imprisonment as set forth therein. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 10650, July 20, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.17" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.4.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.17   Commission's remedy for failure to file report.</HEAD>
<P>Any person failing or refusing to file Report EEO-2 when required to do so may be compelled to file by order of a U.S. District Court, upon application of the Commission, under authority of section 709(c) of title VII.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9220, May 6, 1972] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.18" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.4.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.18   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.19" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.4.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.19   Additional reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission reserves the right to require reports, other than that designated as Report EEO-2, about apprenticeship procedures of joint labor-management committees, employers, and labor organizations whenever, in its judgment, special or supplemental reports are necessary to accomplish the purpose of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. Any system for the requirement of such reports will be established in accordance with the procedures referred to in section 709(c) of title VII, section 107 of the ADA, section 207(a) of GINA, or section 104 of the PWFA and as otherwise prescribed by law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 10650, July 20, 1967, as amended at 56 FR 35755, July 26, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Apprenticeship Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.20" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.5.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.20   Records to be made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every person required to file Report EEO-2 shall make or keep such records as are necessary for its completion under the conditions and circumstances set forth in the instructions accompanying the report, which are specifically incorporated herein by reference and have the same force and effect as other sections of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Every employer, labor organization, and joint labor-management committee subject to title VII which controls an apprenticeship program (regardless of any joint or individual obligation to file a report) shall beginning August 1, 1967, maintain a list in chronological order containing the names and addresses of all persons who have applied to participate in the apprenticeship program, including the dates on which such applications were received. (See section 709(c), title VII, Civil Rights Act of 1964.) Such list shall, contain a notation of the sex of the applicant and of the applicant's identification as “White,” “Black,” “Hispanic,” “Asian or Pacific Islander” or “American Indian or Alaskan Native.” The methods of making such identification are set forth in the instruction accompanying Report EEO-2. The words “applied,” “applicant” and “application” as used in this section refer to situations involving actual applications only. An applicant is considered to be a person who files a formal application, or in some informal way indicates a specific intention to be considered for admission to the apprenticeship program. A person who casually appears to make an informal inquiry about the program, or about apprenticeship in general, is not considered to be an applicant. The term “apprenticeship program” as used herein refers to programs described in the instructions accompanying Report EEO-2. 
</P>
<P>(c) In lieu of maintaining the chronological list referred to in § 1602.20 (b), persons required to compile the list may maintain on file written applications for participation in the apprenticeship program, provided that the application form contains a notation of the date the form was received, the address of the applicant, and a notation of the sex, and the race, color, or national origin of the applicant as described above.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 10650, July 20, 1967, as amended at 33 FR 282, Jan. 9, 1968; 42 FR 33557, Aug. 10, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.21" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.5.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.21   Preservation of records made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 1602.14, every person subject to § 1602.20 (b) or (c) shall preserve the list of applicants or application forms, as the case may be, for a period of 2 years from the date the application was received, except that in those instances where an annual report is required by the Commission calling for statistics as to the sex, and the race, color, or national origin of apprentices, the person required to file the report shall preserve the list and forms for a period of 2 years or the period of a successful applicant's apprenticeship, whichever is longer. Persons required to file Report EEO-2, or other reports calling for information about the operation of an apprenticeship program similar to that required on Report EEO-2, shall preserve any other record made solely for the purpose of completing such reports for a period of 1 year from the due date thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) Other records: Except to the extent inconsistent with the law or regulation of any State or local fair employment practices agency, or of any other Federal or State agency involved in the enforcement of an antidiscrimination program in apprenticeship, other records relating to apprenticeship made or kept by a person required to file Report EEO-2, including but not necessarily limited to requests for reasonable accommodation, test papers completed by applicants for apprenticeship and records of interviews with applicants, shall be kept for a period of 2 years from the date of the making of the record. Where a charge of discrimination has been filed, or an action brought by the Attorney General under title VII, the ADA, or GINA the respondent shall preserve all records relevant to the charge or action until final disposion of the charge or the action. The term “records relevant to the charge,” for example, would include applications, forms or test papers completed by an unsuccessful applicant and by all other candidates for the same position as that for which the charging party applied and was rejected. The date of “final disposition of the charge or the action” means the date of expiration of the statutory period within which a charging party may bring an action in a U.S. District Court or, where an action is brought either by a charging party or by the Attorney General, the date on which such litigation is terminated. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 10660, July 20, 1967, as amended at 56 FR 35755, July 26, 1991; 77 FR 5398, Feb. 3, 2012; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 46021, May 28, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Local Union Equal Employment Opportunity Report</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.22" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.6.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.22   Requirements for filing and preserving copy of report.</HEAD>
<P>On or before December 31, 1986, and biennially thereafter, every labor organization subject to title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, shall file with the Commission or its delegate an executed copy of Local Union Report EEO-3 in conformity with the directions set forth in the form and accompanying instructions, provided that the labor organization has 100 or more members at any time during the 12 months preceding the due date of the report, and is a “local union” (as that term is commonly understood) or an independent or unaffiliated union. Labor organizations required to report are those which perform, in a specific jurisdiction, the functions ordinarily performed by a local union, whether or not they are so designated. Every local union or a labor organization acting in its behalf, shall retain at all times among the records maintained in the ordinary course of its affairs a copy of the most recent report filed, and shall make the same available if requested by an officer, agent, or employee of the Commission under the authority of section 709 of title VII. It is the responsibility of all persons required to file to obtain from the Commission or its delegate necessary supplies of the form. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0006)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 11018, Apr. 1, 1986] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.23" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.6.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.23   Penalty for making of willfully false statements on reports.</HEAD>
<P>The making of willfully false statements on Report EEO-3 is a violation of the United States Code, title 18, section 1001, and is punishable by fine or imprisonment as set forth herein. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 10651, July 20, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.24" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.6.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.24   Commission's remedy for failure to file report.</HEAD>
<P>Any person failing or refusing to file Report EEO-3 when required to do so may be compelled to file by order of a U.S. District Court, upon application of the Commission, under authority of section 709(c) of title VII.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9220, May 6, 1972] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.25" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.6.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.25   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.26" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.6.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.26   Additional reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission reserves the right to require reports, other than that designated as Report EEO-3, about the membership or referral practices or other procedures of labor organizations, whenever, in its judgment, special or supplemental reports are necessary to accomplish the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. Any system for requirement of such reports will be established in accordance with the procedures referred to in section 709(c) of title VII, section 107 of the ADA, section 207(a) of GINA, or section 104 of the PWFA, and as otherwise prescribed by law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 10651, July 20, 1967, as amended at 56 FR 35755, July 26, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Recordkeeping by Labor Organizations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.27" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.7.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.27   Records to be made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>Those portions of Report EEO-3 calling for information about union policies and practices and for the compilation of statistics on the race, color, national origin, and sex of members, persons referred, and apprentices, are deemed to be “records” within the meaning of section 709(c), title VII, Civil Rights Act of 1964. Every local, independent, or unaffiliated union with 100 or more members (or any agent acting in its behalf, if the agent has responsibility for referral of persons for employment) shall make these records or such other records as are necessary for the completion of Report EEO-3 under the circumstances and conditions set forth in the instructions accompanying it, which are specifically incorporated herein by reference and have the same force and effect as other sections of this part.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0006)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 10651, July 20, 1967, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.28" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.7.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.28   Preservation of records made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All records made by a labor organization or its agent solely for the purpose of completing Report EEO-3 shall be preserved for a period of 1 year from the due date of the report for which they were compiled. Any labor organization identified as a “referral union” in the instructions accompanying Report EEO-3, or agent thereto, shall preserve other membership or referral records (including applications for same) made or kept by it for a period of 1 year from the date of the making of the record. Where a charge of discrimination has been filed, or an action brought by the Commission or the Attorney General, against a labor organization under title VII, the ADA, or GINA, the respondent labor organization shall preserve all records relevant to the charge or action until final disposition of the charge or the action. The date of “final disposition of the charge or the action” means the date of expiration of the statutory period within which the aggrieved person may bring an action in a U.S. District Court or, where an action is brought against a labor organization either by the Commission, the aggrieved person, or by the Attorney General, the date on which such litigation is terminated. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing herein shall relieve any labor organization covered by title VII of the obligations set forth in subpart E, §§ 1602.20 and 1602.21, relating to the establishment and maintenance of a list of applicants wishing to participate in an apprenticeship program controlled by it.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0040)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9220, May 6, 1972, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35755, July 26, 1991; 77 FR 5398, Feb. 3, 2012; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 46021, May 28, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Records and Inquiries as to Race, Color, National Origin, or Sex</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.29" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.8.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.29   Applicability of State or local law.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements imposed by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in these regulations, subparts D through G, supersede any provisions of State or local law which may conflict with them. Any State or local laws prohibiting inquiries and recordkeeping with respect to race, color, national origin, or sex do not apply to inquiries required to be made under these regulations and under the instructions accompanying Reports EEO-2 and EEO-3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 10652, July 20, 1967] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—State and Local Governments Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.30" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.9.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.30   Records to be made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>On or before September 30, 1974, and annually thereafter, every political jurisdiction with 15 or more employees is required to make or keep records and the information therefrom which are or would be necessary for the completion of report EEO-4 under the circumstances set forth in the instructions thereto, whether or not the political jurisdiction is required to file such report under § 1602.32 of the regulations in this part. The instructions are specifically incorporated herein by reference and have the same force and effect as other sections of this part. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Such reports and the information therefrom shall be retained at all times for a period of 3 years at the central office of the political jurisdiction and shall be made available if requested by an officer, agent, or employee of the Commission under section 710 of title VII, as amended. Although agency data are aggregated by functions for purposes of reporting, separate data for each agency must be maintained either by the agency itself or by the office of the political jurisdiction responsible for preparing the EEO-4 form. It is the responsibility of every political jurisdiction to obtain from the Commission or its delegate necessary instructions in order to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <E T="04">Note:</E> Instructions were published as an appendix to the proposed regulations on Mar. 2, 1973 (38 FR 5662).</P></FTNT>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0008)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 12604, May 14, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 30832, Aug. 26, 1974; 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.31" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.9.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.31   Preservation of records made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>Any personnel or employment record made or kept by a political jurisdiction (including but not necessarily limited to requests for reasonable accommodation application forms submitted by applicants and other records having to do with hiring, promotion, demotion, transfer, layoff, or termination, rates of pay or other terms of compensation, and selection for training or apprenticeship) shall be preserved by the political jurisdiction for a period of 2 years from the date of the making of the record or the personnel action involved, whichever occurs later. In the case of involuntary termination of an employee, the personnel records of the individual terminated shall be kept for a period of 2 years from the date of termination. Where a charge of discrimination has been filed, or an action brought by the Attorney General against a political jurisdiction under title VII, the ADA, or GINA, the respondent political jurisdiction shall preserve all personnel records relevant to the charge or action until final disposition of the charge or the action. The term “personnel record relevant to the charge,” for example, would include personnel or employment records relating to the person claiming to be aggrieved and to all other employees holding positions similar to that held or sought by the person claiming to be aggrieved; and application forms or test papers completed by an unsuccessful applicant and by all other candidates for the same position as that for which the person claiming to be aggrieved applied and was rejected. The date of final disposition of the charge or the action means the date of expiration of the statutory period within which a person claiming to be aggrieved may bring an action in a U.S. district court or, where an action is brought against a political jurisdiction either by a person claiming to be aggrieved or by the Attorney General, the date on which such litigation is terminated. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0040)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 12605, May 14, 1973, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991; 77 FR 5398, Feb. 3, 2012; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 46021, May 28, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—State and Local Government Information Report</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 12605, May 14, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1602.32" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.10.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.32   Requirement for filing and preserving copy of report.</HEAD>
<P>On or before September 30, 1993, and biennially thereafter, certain political jurisdictions subject to title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, shall file with the Commission or its delegate executed copies of “State and Local Government Information Report EEO-4” in conformity with the directions set forth in the form and accompanying instructions. The political jurisdictions covered by this section are (a) those which have 100 or more employees, and (b) those other political jurisdictions which have 15 or more employees from whom the Commission requests the filing of reports.
</P>
<P>Every such political jurisdiction shall retain at all times a copy of the most recently filed EEO-4 at the central office of the political jurisdiction for a period of 3 years and shall make the same available if requested by an officer, agent, or employee of the Commission under the authority of section 710 of title VII, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29536, May 21, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.33" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.10.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.33   Penalty for making of willfully false statements on report.</HEAD>
<P>The making of willfully false statements on report EEO-4, is a violation of the United States Code, title 18, section 1001, and is punishable by fine or imprisonment as set forth therein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.34" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.10.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.34   Commission's remedy for political jurisdiction's failure to file report.</HEAD>
<P>Any political jurisdiction failing or refusing to file report EEO-4 when required to do so may be compelled to file by order of a U.S. district court, upon application of the Attorney General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.35" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.10.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.35   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.36" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.10.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.36   Schools exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The recordkeeping and report-filing requirements of subparts I and J of this part shall not apply to State or local educational institutions or to school districts or school systems or any other educational functions. The previous sentence of this section shall not act to bar jurisdiction which otherwise would attach under § 1602.30. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.37" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.10.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.37   Additional reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission reserves the right to require reports, other than that designated as the “State and Local Government Information Report EEO-4,” about the employment practices of individual political jurisdictions or group of political jurisdictions whenever, in its judgment, special or supplemental reports are necessary to accomplish the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. Any system for the requirement of such reports will be established in accordance with the procedures referred to in section 709(c) of title VII, section 107 of the ADA, section 207(a) of GINA, or section 104 of the PWFA and as otherwise prescribed by law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 12605, May 14, 1973, as amended at 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Records and Inquiries as to Race, Color, National Origin, or Sex</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.38" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.11.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.38   Applicability of State or local law.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements imposed by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in these regulations, subparts I and J, supersede any provisions of State or local law which may conflict with them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 12605, May 14, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Elementary and Secondary School Systems, Districts, and Individual Schools Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.39" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.12.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.39   Records to be made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>On or before November 30, 1974, and annually thereafter, every public elementary and secondary school system or district, including every individually or separately administered district within a system, with 15 or more employees and every individual school within such system or district, regardless of the size of the school shall make or keep all records and information therefrom which are or would be necessary for the completion of report EEO-5 whether or not it is required to file such a report under § 1602.41. The instructions for completion of report EEO-5 are specifically incorporated herein by reference and have the same force and effect as other sections of this part. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Such records and the information therefrom shall be retained at all times for a period of 3 years at the central office of the elementary or secondary school system or district, or at the individual school which is the subject of the records and the information therefrom, where more convenient, and shall be made available if requested by an officer, agent, or employee of the Commission under section 710 of title VII, as amended. It is the responsibility of every such school system or district, to obtain from the Commission or its delegate necessary instructions in order to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <E T="04">Note:</E> Instructions were published as an appendix to the proposed regulations on June 12, 1973 (38 FR 15463).</P></FTNT>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0003)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 26719, Sept. 25, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 30832, Aug. 26, 1974; 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.40" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.12.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.40   Preservation of records made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>Any personnel or employment record made or kept by a school system, district, or individual school (including but not necessarily limited to requests for reasonable accommodation, application forms submitted by applicants and other records having to do with hiring, promotion, demotion, transfer, layoff, or termination, rates of pay or other terms of compensation, and selection for training or apprenticeship) shall be preserved by such school system, district, or school, as the case may be, for a period of 2 years from the date of the making of the record or the personnel action involved, whichever occurs later. In the case of involuntary termination of an employee, the personnel records of the individual terminated shall be kept for a period of 2 years from the date of termination. Where a charge of discrimination has been filed, or an action brought against an elementary or secondary school by the Commission or the Attorney General, the respondent elementary or secondary school system, district, or individual school shall preserve similarly at the central office of the system or district or individual school which is the subject of the charge or action, where more convenient, all personnel records relevant to the charge or action until final disposition thereof. The term “personnel record relevant to the charge,” for example, would include personnel or employment records relating to the person claiming to be aggrieved and to all other employees holding positions similar to that held or sought by the person claiming to be aggrieved; and application forms or test papers completed by an unsuccessful applicant and by all other candidates for the same position as that for which the person claiming to be aggrieved applied and was rejected. The date of “final disposition of the charge or the action” means the date of expiration of the statutory period within which a person claiming to be aggrieved may bring an action in a U.S. district court or, where an action is brought against a school system, district, or school either by a person claiming to be aggrieved, the Commission, or the Attorney General, the date on which such litigation is terminated. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0040)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 26719, Sept. 25, 1973, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Elementary-Secondary Staff Information Report</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 26719, Sept. 25, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1602.41" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.13.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.41   Requirement for filing and preserving copy of report.</HEAD>
<P>On or before November 30, 1982, and biennially thereafter, certain public elementary and secondary school systems and districts, including individually or separately administered districts within such systems, shall file with the Commission or its delegate executed copies of Elementary-Secondary Staff Information Report EEO-5 in conformity with the directions set forth in the form and accompanying instructions. The elementary and secondary school systems and districts covered are: 
</P>
<P>(a) Every one of those which have 100 or more employees, and
</P>
<P>(b) Every one of those others which have 15 or more employees from whom the Commission requests the filing of reports.
</P>
<FP>Every such elementary or secondary school system or district shall retain at all times, for a period of 3 years, a copy of the most recently filed report EEO-5 at the central office of the school system or district, and shall make the same available if requested by an officer, agent, or employee of the Commission under the authority of section 710 of title VII, as amended. It is the responsibility of the school systems or districts above described in this section to obtain from the Commission or its delegate necessary supplies of the form.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 8058, Feb. 25, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 33660, June 28, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.42" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.13.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.42   Penalty for making of willfully false statements on report.</HEAD>
<P>The making of willfully false statements on report EEO-5 is a violation of the United States Code, title 18, section 1001, and is punishable by fine or emprisonment as set forth therein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.43" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.13.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.43   Commission's remedy for school systems' or districts' failure to file report.</HEAD>
<P>Any school system or district failing or refusing to file report EEO-5 when required to do so may be compelled to file by order of a U.S. district court, upon application of the Commission or the Attorney General. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 33660, June 28, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.44" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.13.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.44   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.45" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.13.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.45   Additional reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission reserves the right to require reports, other than that designated as the Elementary-Secondary Information Report EEO-5, about the employment practices of private or public individual school systems, districts, or schools, or groups thereof, whenever, in its judgment, special or supplemental reports are necessary to accomplish the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. Any system for the requirement of such reports will be established in accordance with the procedures referred to in section 709(c) of title VII, section 107 of the ADA, section 207(a) of GINA, or section 104 of the PWFA and as otherwise prescribed by law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 27619, Sept. 25, 1973, as amended at 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Records and Inquiries as to Race, Color, National Origin, or Sex</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.46" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.14.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.46   Applicability of State or local law.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements imposed by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in these regulations, subparts L and M of this part, supersede any provisions of State or local law which may conflict with them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 26720, Sept. 25, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Recordkeeping for Institutions of Higher Education</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.47" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.15.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.47   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>Under subparts O and P of this part, the term <I>institution of higher education</I> means an institutional system, college, university, community college, junior college, and any other educational institution which offers an associate degree, baccalaureate degree or higher degree or which offers a two year program of college level studies without degree. The term <I>college level studies</I> means a post secondary program which is wholly or principally creditable toward a baccalaureate degree or terminates in an associate degree. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25188, June 12, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.48" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.15.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.48   Records to be made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>Commencing August 1, 1975, every institution of higher education, whether public or private, with 15 or more employees, shall make or keep all records, and information therefrom, which are or would be necessary for the completion of Higher Education Staff Information Report EEO-6 whether or not it is required to file such a report under § 1602.50. The instructions for completion of Report EEO-6 are specifically incorporated herein by reference and have the same force and effect as other sections of this part. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Such records, and the information therefrom, shall be retained at all times for a period of three years at the central administrative office of the institution of higher education, at the central administrative office of a separate campus or branch, or at an individual school which is the subject of the records and information, where more convenient. Such records, and the information therefrom, shall be made available if requested by the Commission or its representative under section 710 of title VII and 29 U.S.C. 161. It is the responsibility of every institution of higher education to obtain from the Commission or its delegate the necessary instructions in order to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <E T="04">Note:</E> Instructions were published as an appendix to the regulations at 40 FR 25188, June 12, 1975.</P></FTNT>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0009)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25188, June 12, 1975, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.49" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.15.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.49   Preservation of records made or kept.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any personnel or employment record (including but not necessarily limited to requests for reasonable accommodation, application forms submitted by applicants and other records having to do with hiring, promotion, tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, or termination, rates of pay or other terms of compensation, and selection for training) made or kept by an institution of higher education shall be preserved by such institution of higher education for a period of two years from the date of the making of the personnel action or record involved, whichever occurs later. In the case of the involuntary termination of an employee, the personnel records of the individual terminated shall be kept for a period of two years from the date of termination. Where a charge of discrimination has been filed, or a civil action brought against an institution of higher education by the Commission or the Attorney General, the respondent shall preserve similarly at the central administrative office of the institution of higher education, at the central office of a separate campus or branch, or at the individual school which is the subject of the charge or action, where more convenient, all personnel records relevant to the charge or action until final disposition thereof. The term “personnel records relevant to the charge,” for example, would include personnel or employment records relating to the person claiming to be aggrieved and to all other employees holding positions similar to that held or sought by the person claiming to be aggrieved; it would also include application forms or test papers completed by an unsuccessful applicant and by all other candidates for the same position as that for which the person claiming to be aggrieved applied and was rejected. The date of “final disposition of the charge or the action” means the date of expiration of the statutory period within which a person claiming to be aggrieved may bring an action in the United States District Court, or, where an action is brought against an institution of higher education by a person claiming to be aggrieved, the Commission, or the Attorney General, the date on which such litigation is terminated. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to application forms and other preemployment records of non-student applicants for positions known to non-student applicants to be of a temporary or seasonal nature.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0040)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25188, June 12, 1975, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Higher Education Staff Information Report EEO-6</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 25189, June 12, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1602.50" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.16.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.50   Requirement for filing and preserving copy of report.</HEAD>
<P>On or before November 30, 1975, and biennially thereafter, every public and private institution of higher education having fifteen (15) or more employees shall file with the Commission or its delegate executed copies of Higher Education Staff Information Report EEO-6 in conformity with the directions set forth in the form and accompanying instructions. Every institution of higher education shall retain at all times, for a period of three years a copy of the most recently filed Report EEO-6 at its central administrative office, at the central office of a separate campus or branch, or at an individual school which is the subject of the report, where more convenient. An institution of higher education shall make the same available if requested by the Commission or is representative under the authority of section 710 of the Act and 29 U.S.C. 161. It is the responsibility of the institutions above described in this section to obtain from the Commission or its delegate necessary supplies of the form. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.51" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.16.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.51   Penalty for making of willfully false statements on report.</HEAD>
<P>The making of willfully false statements on Report EEO-6 is a violation of the United States Code, title 18, section 1001, and is punishable by fine or imprisonment as set forth therein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.52" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.16.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.52   Commission's remedy for failure to file.</HEAD>
<P>Any institution of higher education failing or refusing to keep records, in accordance with § 1602.48 or § 1602.49 of subpart O of this part, or failing or refusing to file Report EEO-6 when required to do so, in accordance with § 1602.50 of this part, may be compelled to keep records or to file by order of a United States District Court upon application of the Commission, or the Attorney General in a case involving a public institution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.53" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.16.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.53   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.54" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.16.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.54   Additional reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission reserves the right to require reports, other than that designated as the Higher Education Staff Information Report EEO-6, about the employment practices of private or public institutions of higher education whenever, in its judgment, special or supplemental reports are necessary to accomplish the purposes of title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA. Any system for the requirement of such reports will be established in accordance with the procedures referred to in section 709(c) of title VII, section 107 of the ADA, section 207(a) of GINA, or section 104 of the PWFA and as otherwise prescribed by law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25189, June 12, 1975, as amended at 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Records and Inquiries as to Race, Color, National Origin, or Sex</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.55" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.17.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.55   Applicability of State or local law.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements imposed by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in these regulations, subparts O, P, and Q of this part, supersede any provisions of State or local law which may conflict with them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 25189, June 12, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Investigation of Reporting or Recordkeeping Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.56" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.18.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.56   Investigation of reporting or recordkeeping violations.</HEAD>
<P>When it has received an allegation, or has reason to believe, that a person has not complied with the reporting or recordkeeping requirements of this part or of part 1607 of this chapter, the Commission may conduct an investigation of the alleged failure to comply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.19" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Exemption from Reporting Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 1877, Jan. 10, 2025, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1602.57" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.19.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.57   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a filer claims that the preparation or filing of the report would create undue hardship, the filer may apply to the Commission for an exemption from the requirements set forth in this part by submitting a written exemption application according to the applicable collection's accompanying instructions. Filers must demonstrate with specific facts (and supporting documentation, as appropriate) how preparing or filing the report would create undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission hereby delegates to its Chief Data Officer (CDO), or the CDO's designee, authority to make determinations on applications for exemptions under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) The CDO shall expeditiously issue a written determination notifying the filer of the disposition of the exemption application.
</P>
<P>(2) If the CDO denies the application for an exemption, the CDO will notify the filer in writing of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The deadline for filing the report, which will be at least 30 calendar days after the CDO's determination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That the filer may bring a civil action in the United States District Court for the district where the filer's records are kept, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2000e-8(c).
</P>
<P>(c) While an application is pending, the filer must continue to collect and prepare the data required for the report in case the exemption request is denied.
</P>
<P>(d) The CDO will report annually to the Commission the number of exemption applications received and the determinations made on those applications and will make the applications and written determinations available to the Commission.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1602.58" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.3.19.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1602.58   Consideration of exemption requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CDO, or the CDO's designee, will consider the facts and circumstances presented in each application, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and extent of the filer's efforts to collect and retain the required information;
</P>
<P>(2) The degree to which the filer attempted to anticipate and preempt any problems in collecting and retaining the required information;
</P>
<P>(3) The filer's prior data reporting history, including whether the filer previously failed to submit a report or requested an exemption, and if so, whether such exemption was granted;
</P>
<P>(4) The degree to which the circumstances are beyond the filer's control or are extraordinary; and
</P>
<P>(5) The degree to which compliance has been rendered impracticable or impossible (<I>e.g.,</I> due to natural disaster or data loss).
</P>
<P>(b) The filer bears the burden to demonstrate that the reporting requirement would result in undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(c) Circumstances that generally will not form the basis of a finding of undue hardship include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) A filer's number of establishments alone;
</P>
<P>(2) A filer's lack of knowledge about the reporting requirements;
</P>
<P>(3) Routine or purposeful data expungement by the filer or a third party; and
</P>
<P>(4) A filer's failure to plan for adequate data security, maintenance, or transfer (<I>e.g.,</I> data loss due to a change in vendor or employee succession where the filer or vendor failed to back up the data).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1603" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1603—PROCEDURES FOR PREVIOUSLY EXEMPT STATE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEE COMPLAINTS OF EMPLOYMENT DISCRIMINATION UNDER SECTION 304 OF THE GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEE RIGHTS ACT OF 1991
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2000e-12 and-16c; 42 U.S.C. 2000ff-6(b); 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(d).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1603.100" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.0.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the regulations of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (hereinafter the Commission) for processing complaints of discrimination filed under section 304 of the Government Employee Rights Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16c. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 72 FR 5616, Feb. 7, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Administrative Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.101" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.101   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>Section 304 of the Government Employee Rights Act of 1991 applies to employment, which includes application for employment, of any individual chosen or appointed by a person elected to public office in any State or political subdivision of any State by the qualified voters thereof: 
</P>
<P>(a) To be a member of the elected official's personal staff; 
</P>
<P>(b) To serve the elected official on the policymaking level; or 
</P>
<P>(c) To serve the elected official as an immediate advisor with respect to the exercise of the constitutional or legal powers of the office. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 72 FR 5616, Feb. 7, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.102" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.102   Filing a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may make a complaint.</I> Individuals referred to in § 1603.101 who believe they have been discriminated against on the basis of race; color; religion; sex; national origin; age; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; or retaliated against for opposing any practice made unlawful by Federal laws protecting equal employment opportunity or for participating in any stage of administrative or judicial proceedings under those Federal laws, may file a complaint not later than 180 days after the occurrence of the alleged discrimination or retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file a complaint.</I> A complaint may be filed using the Commission's designated digital systems, in person, by facsimile, or by mail to any Commission office or with any designated agent or representative of the Commission. The addresses of the Commission's offices may be found at <I>www.eeoc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of a complaint.</I> A complaint shall be in writing and signed and shall be verified as defined in § 1601.3(a). In addition, each complaint should contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The full name and contact information of the person making the complaint;
</P>
<P>(2) The full name and contact information of the person, governmental entity, or political subdivision against whom the complaint is made, if known (hereinafter referred to as the respondent); 
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and concise statement of the facts, including pertinent dates, constituting the alleged unlawful employment practices (See 29 CFR 1601.15(b)); and 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement disclosing whether proceedings involving the alleged unlawful employment practice have been commenced before a State or local Fair Employment Practices (FEP) agency charged with the enforcement of fair employment practice laws and, if so, the date of such commencement and the name of the agency. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendment of a complaint.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c) of this section, a complaint is sufficient when the Commission receives from the person making the complaint a written statement sufficiently precise to identify the parties and to describe generally the alleged discriminatory action or practices. A complaint may be amended to cure technical defects or omissions, including failure to verify the complaint, or to clarify and amplify its allegations. Such amendments, and amendments alleging additional acts that constitute discriminatory employment practices related to or growing out of the subject matter of the original complaint, will relate back to the date the complaint was first received. A complaint that has been amended after it was referred (see § 1603.103) shall not be again referred to the appropriate State or local FEP agency. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Misfiled complaint.</I> A charge filed pursuant to 29 CFR part 1601 or part 1626 that is later deemed to be a matter under this part shall be processed as a complaint under this part and shall relate back to the date of the initial charge or complaint. A complaint filed under this part that is later deemed to be a matter under 29 CFR part 1601 or part 1626 shall be processed as a charge under the appropriate regulation and shall relate back to the date of the initial complaint. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 71 FR 26829, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024; 89 FR 47851, June 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.103" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.103   Referral of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will notify an FEP agency, as defined in 29 CFR 1601.3(a), when a complaint is filed by a state or local government employee or applicant under this part concerning an employment practice within the jurisdiction of the FEP agency. The FEP agency will be entitled to process the complaint exclusively for a period of not less than 60 days if the FEP agency makes a written request to the Commission within 10 days of receiving notice that the complaint has been filed, unless the complaint names the FEP agency as the respondent. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may enter into an agreement with an FEP agency that authorizes the FEP agency to receive complaints under this part on behalf of the Commission or waives the FEP agency's right to exclusive processing of complaints. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.104" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.104   Service of the complaint.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a complaint, the Commission shall promptly serve the respondent with a copy of the complaint. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.105" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.105   Withdrawal of a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>The complainant may withdraw a complaint at any time by so advising the Commission in writing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.106" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.106   Computation of time generally and for timely receipt by the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All time periods in this part that are stated in terms of days are calendar days unless otherwise stated.
</P>
<P>(2) The first day counted shall be the day after the event from which the time period begins to run, and the last day of the period shall be included unless it falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, in which case the period shall be extended to include the next business day.
</P>
<P>(3) All time limits in this part are subject to waiver, estoppel, and equitable tolling.
</P>
<P>(b) Documents submitted to the Commission are deemed timely received as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A document submitted by digital transmission, by facsimile not exceeding 20 pages, or by personal delivery or commercial delivery service shall be deemed timely if it is received before the expiration of the applicable filing period. A document submitted by digital means shall be deemed received on the date the EEOC's designated digital system records the upload.
</P>
<P>(2) A document submitted by mail shall be deemed timely if it is postmarked before the expiration of the applicable filing period or, in the absence of a legible postmark, if it is received within 5 days of the expiration of the applicable filing period.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this part, the terms <I>file, serve, receive, issue, transmit, send,</I> and any other word forms of these terms, such as <I>filing</I> or <I>serving,</I> when used to describe transmission of documents, shall include all forms of digital transmission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.107" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.107   Dismissals of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a complaint is not timely filed or, except as described in § 1603.102(e), fails to state a claim under this part, the Commission shall dismiss the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) Written notice of dismissal pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall be issued to the complainant and the respondent. The Commission hereby delegates authority to dismiss complaints to the Director, Office of Field Programs or the Director's designees, and to District Directors or their designees.
</P>
<P>(c) A complainant who is dissatisfied with a dismissal issued pursuant to this section may appeal to the Commission in accordance with the procedures in subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.108" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.108   Settlement and alternative dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties are at all times free to settle all or part of a complaint on terms that are mutually agreeable. Any settlement reached shall be in writing and signed by both parties and shall identify the allegations resolved. A copy of any settlement shall be served on the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) With the agreement of the parties, the Commission may refer a complaint to a neutral mediator or to any other alternative dispute resolution process authorized by the Administrative Dispute Resolution Act, 5 U.S.C. 571 to 583, or other statute. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may use the services of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, other federal agencies, appropriate professional organizations, employees of the Commission, and other appropriate sources in selecting neutrals for alternative dispute resolution processes. 
</P>
<P>(d) The alternative dispute resolution process shall be strictly confidential, and no party to a complaint or neutral shall disclose any dispute resolution communication or any information provided in confidence to the neutral except as provided in 5 U.S.C. 574. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.109" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.1.21.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.109   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before referring a complaint to an administrative law judge under section 201 of this part, the Commission may conduct an investigation using an exchange of letters, interrogatories, fact-finding conferences, interviews, on-site visits, or other fact-finding methods that address the matters at issue. 
</P>
<P>(b) During an investigation of a complaint under this part, the Commission shall have the authority to sign and issue a subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses, the production of evidence, and access to evidence for the purposes of examination and the right to copy. The subpoena procedures contained in 29 CFR 1601.16 shall apply to subpoenas issued pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.201" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.201   Referral and scheduling for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon request by the complainant under paragraph (b) of this section or, if the complaint is not dismissed or resolved under subpart A of this part, on behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations shall transmit the complaint file to an administrative law judge, appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105, for a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the complaint has not been referred to an administrative law judge within 180 days after filing, the complainant may request that the complaint be immediately transmitted to an administrative law judge for a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) The administrative law judge shall fix the time, place, and date for the hearing with due regard for the convenience of the parties, their representatives, and their witnesses and shall notify the parties of the same. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.202" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.202   Administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>The administrative law judge shall have all the powers necessary to conduct fair, expeditious, and impartial hearings as provided in 5 U.S.C. 556(c). In addition, the administrative law judge shall have the power to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Change the time, place, or date of the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(b) Enter a default decision against a party failing to appear at a hearing unless the party shows good cause by contacting the administrative law judge either prior to the hearing or within 2 days after the scheduled hearing and presenting arguments as to why the party or the party's representative could not appear; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Take any appropriate action authorized by the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C. appendix). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.203" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.203   Unavailability or withdrawal of administrative law judges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event the administrative law judge designated to conduct the hearing becomes unavailable or withdraws from the adjudication, another administrative law judge may be designated for the purpose of further hearing or issuing a decision on the record as made, or both. At any time administrative law judges deem themselves disqualified, they may withdraw from an adjudication.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to issuance of a decision on the complaint, any party may move that the administrative law judge withdraw on the grounds of personal bias or other disqualification by filing with the administrative law judge an affidavit setting forth in detail the matters alleged to constitute grounds for withdrawal promptly upon discovery of the alleged facts. The administrative law judge shall rule upon the motion for withdrawal. If the administrative law judge concludes that the motion was filed promptly and has merit, the administrative law judge shall immediately withdraw from the adjudication. If the administrative law judge does not withdraw, the adjudication shall proceed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.204" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.204   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Oral or written communications concerning the merits of an adjudication between the administrative law judge or decision-making personnel of the Commission and an interested party to the adjudication without providing the other party a chance to participate are prohibited from the time the matter is assigned to an administrative law judge until the Commission has rendered a final decision. Communications between the administrative law judge or Commission personnel and one party concerning the status of the case, the date of a hearing, the method of transmitting evidence to the Commission, and other purely procedural questions are permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) “Decision-making personnel of the Commission” includes members of the Commission and their staffs as well as personnel in the Office of Federal Operations but does not include investigators and intake staff. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any communication made in violation of this section shall be made part of the record and an opportunity for rebuttal by the other party allowed. If the communication was oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the discussion shall be placed in the record. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where it appears that a party has engaged in prohibited ex parte communications, that party may be required to show cause why, in the interest of justice, the party's claim or defense should not be dismissed, denied, or otherwise adversely affected. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.205" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.205   Separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative law judge may not be responsible to or subject to the supervision or direction of a Commission employee engaged in investigating complaints under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) No Commission employee engaged in investigating complaints under this part shall participate or advise in the decision of the administrative law judge, except as a witness or counsel in the adjudication or its appellate review. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47852, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.206" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.206   Consolidation and severance of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative law judge may, upon motion by a party or upon the administrative law judge's own motion, after providing reasonable notice and opportunity to object to all parties affected, consolidate any or all matters at issue in two or more adjudications docketed under this part where common parties or common factual or legal questions exist; where such consolidation would expedite or simplify consideration of the issues; or where the interests of justice would be served. For purposes of this section, no distinction is made between joinder and consolidation of adjudications. 
</P>
<P>(b) The administrative law judge may, upon motion of a party or upon the administrative law judge's own motion, for good cause shown, order any adjudication severed with respect to some or all parties, claims, or issues. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.207" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.207   Intervention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person or entity that wishes to intervene in any proceeding under this subpart shall file a motion to intervene in accordance with § 1603.208. 
</P>
<P>(b) A motion to intervene shall indicate the question of law or fact common to the movant's claim or defense and the complaint at issue and state all other relevant facts or reasons the movant should be permitted to intervene. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any party may file a response to a motion to intervene within 10 business days after service of the motion to intervene. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.208" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.208   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All motions shall state the specific relief requested. All motions shall be in writing, except that a motion may be made orally during a conference or during the hearing. After providing an opportunity for response, the administrative law judge may rule on an oral motion immediately or may require that it be submitted in writing. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise directed by the administrative law judge, any other party may file a response in support of or in opposition to any written motion within 10 business days after service of the motion. If no response is filed within the response period, the party failing to respond shall be deemed to have waived any objection to the granting of the motion. The moving party shall have no right to reply to a response, unless the administrative law judge exercises discretion to order that a reply be filed. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except for procedural matters, the administrative law judge may not grant a written motion prior to the expiration of the time for filing responses. The administrative law judge may deny a written motion without awaiting a response. The administrative law judge may allow oral argument (including that made by telephone or other digital means) on written motions. Any party adversely affected by the <I>ex parte</I> grant of a motion for a procedural order may request, within 5 business days of service of the order, that the administrative law judge reconsider, vacate, or modify the order. 
</P>
<P>(d) The administrative law judge may summarily deny motions that are repetitive, frivolous, or intended to delay the proceedings. Unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, the filing of a motion does not stay the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(e) All motions and responses must comply with the filing and service requirements of § 1603.209. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.209" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.209   Filing and service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, a signed original of each motion, brief, or other document shall be filed with the administrative law judge, with a certificate of service indicating that a copy has been sent to all other parties and stating the date and manner of service. Digitally submitted documents may be electronically signed. All documents presented in hard copy shall be on standard size (8
<FR>1/2</FR> x 11) paper. Each document filed shall be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(b) Filing and service shall be made by first class mail or other more expeditious means of delivery, including, at the discretion of the administrative law judge, by facsimile, digital transmission, or other means. The administrative law judge may exercise discretion to limit the number of pages that may be filed or served by facsimile. Service shall be made on a party's representative or, if not represented, on the party.
</P>
<P>(c) Every document shall contain a caption including the parties' names, the complaint number or docket number assigned to the matter, a designation of the type of filing (<I>e.g.,</I> motion, brief, etc.), and the filing person's signature and contact information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.210" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.210   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, discovery may begin as soon as the complaint has been transmitted to the administrative law judge pursuant to § 1603.201. Discovery shall be completed as expeditiously as possible within such time as the administrative law judge directs. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, parties may obtain discovery by written interrogatories (not to exceed 20 interrogatories including subparts), depositions upon oral examination or written questions, requests for production of documents or things for inspection or other purposes, requests for admission, or any other method found reasonable and appropriate by the administrative law judge. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except as otherwise specified, the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure shall govern discovery in proceedings under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Neutral mediators who have participated in the alternative dispute resolution process in accordance with § 1603.108 shall not be called as witnesses or be subject to discovery in any adjudication under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.211" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.211   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon written application of any party, the administrative law judge may on behalf of the Commission issue a subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of any evidence, including, but not limited to, books, records, correspondence, or documents, in their possession or under their control. The subpoena shall state the name and address of the party at whose request the subpoena was issued, identify the person and evidence subpoenaed, and state the date and time the subpoena is returnable.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person served with a subpoena who intends not to comply shall, within 5 days after service of the subpoena, petition the administrative law judge in writing to revoke or modify the subpoena. All petitions to revoke or modify shall also be served upon the party at whose request the subpoena was issued. The requestor may file with the administrative law judge a response to the petition to revoke or modify within 5 days after service of the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued under this section, the administrative law judge may refer the matter to the Commission for enforcement in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.16(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.212" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.212   Witness fees.</HEAD>
<P>Witnesses summoned under this part shall receive the same fees and mileage as witnesses in the courts of the United States. Those fees must be paid or offered to the witness by the party requesting the subpoena at the time the subpoena is served, or, if the witness appears voluntarily, at the time of appearance. A federal agency or corporation is not required to pay or offer witness fees and mileage allowances in advance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.213" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.213   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Interlocutory review may not be sought except when the administrative law judge determines either independently or upon motion of a party that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy about which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion; 
</P>
<P>(2) An immediate appeal will materially advance the completion of the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(3) The denial of an immediate appeal will cause irreparable harm to the party or the public.
</P>
<P>(b) Application for interlocutory review shall be filed within 10 days after notice of the administrative law judge's ruling. Any application for review shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Designate the ruling or part thereof from which appeal is being taken; and
</P>
<P>(2) Contain arguments or evidence that tend to establish one or more of the grounds for interlocutory review contained in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Any party opposing the application for interlocutory review shall file a response to the application within 10 days after service of the application. The applicant shall have no right to reply to a response unless the administrative law judge orders that a reply be filed.
</P>
<P>(d) The administrative law judge shall promptly certify in writing any ruling that qualifies for interlocutory review under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) The filing of an application for interlocutory review and the grant of an application shall not stay proceedings before the administrative law judge unless the administrative law judge or the Commission so orders. The Commission shall not consider a motion for a stay unless the motion was first made to the administrative law judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.214" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.214   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>The administrative law judge shall accept relevant non-privileged evidence in accordance with the Federal Rules of Evidence (28 U.S.C. appendix), except that the rules on hearsay will not be strictly applied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.215" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.215   Record of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All hearings shall be audio or video recorded, stenographically reported, or both. All evidence relied upon by the administrative law judge for decision shall be contained in the transcript of testimony, either directly or by appropriate reference. All exhibits introduced as evidence shall be marked for identification, with a copy provided for all parties, if not previously provided, and incorporated into the record. Transcripts may be obtained by the parties from the official reporter at rates fixed by the contract with the reporter.
</P>
<P>(b) Corrections to the official transcript will be permitted upon motion only when errors of substance are involved and upon approval of the administrative law judge. Motions for correction must be submitted within 10 days of the receipt of the transcript unless additional time is permitted by the administrative law judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.216" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.216   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>Upon motion of a party or after notice to the parties, the administrative law judge may issue a summary decision without a hearing if the administrative law judge finds that there is no genuine issue of material fact or that the complaint may be dismissed pursuant to § 1603.107 or any other grounds authorized by this part. A summary decision shall otherwise conform to the requirements of § 1603.217.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.217" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.2.21.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.217   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative law judge shall issue a decision on the merits of the complaint within 270 days after referral of a complaint for hearing, unless the administrative law judge makes a written determination that good cause exists for extending the time for issuing a decision. The decision shall contain findings of fact and conclusions of law, shall order appropriate relief where discrimination is found, and shall provide notice of appeal rights consistent with subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The administrative law judge shall serve the decision promptly on all parties to the proceeding and their counsel. Thereafter, the administrative law judge shall transmit the case file to the Office of Federal Operations including the decision and the record. The record shall include the complaint; the investigative file, if any; referral notice; motions; briefs; rulings; orders; official transcript of the hearing; all discovery; and any other documents submitted by the parties. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.301" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.3.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.301   Appeal to the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>Any party may appeal to the Commission the dismissal of a complaint under § 1603.107, any matter certified for interlocutory review under § 1603.213, or the administrative law judge's decision under § 1603.216 or § 1603.217. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.302" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.3.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.302   Filing an appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An appeal shall be filed within 30 days after the date of the appealable decision or certification for interlocutory review, unless the Commission, upon a showing of good cause, extends the time for filing an appeal for a period not to exceed an additional 30 days. 
</P>
<P>(b) An appeal shall be filed with the Director, Office of Federal Operations, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, by mail to P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013, by personal delivery or commercial delivery service, by digital transmission, or by facsimile to (202) 663-7022.
</P>
<P>(c) The appellant shall furnish a copy of the appeal to the opposing party at the same time it is filed with the Commission. In or attached to the appeal to the Commission, the appellant must certify the date and method by which service was made on the opposing party. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009; 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.303" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.3.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.303   Briefs on appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appellant shall file a brief or other written statement within 30 days after the appeal is filed, unless the Commission otherwise directs. 
</P>
<P>(b) All other parties may file briefs or other written statements within 30 days of service of the appellant's brief or statement. 
</P>
<P>(c) Every brief or statement shall contain a statement of facts and a section setting forth the party's legal arguments. Any brief or statement in support of the appeal shall contain arguments or evidence that tend to establish that the dismissal, order, or decision: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is not supported by substantial evidence; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contains an erroneous interpretation of law, regulation, or material fact, or misapplication of established policy; 
</P>
<P>(3) Contains a prejudicial error of procedure; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Involves a substantial question of law or policy. 
</P>
<P>(d) Appellate briefs shall not exceed 50 pages in length. 
</P>
<P>(e) Filing and service of appellate briefs shall be made in accordance with § 1603.302(b) and (c). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.304" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.3.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.304   Commission decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations shall review the record and the appellate briefs submitted by all the parties. The Office of Federal Operations shall prepare a recommended decision for consideration by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) When an administrative law judge certifies a matter for interlocutory review under § 1603.213, the Commission may, in its discretion, issue a decision on the matter or send the matter back to the administrative law judge without decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will not accept or consider new evidence on appeal unless the Commission, in its discretion, reopens the record on appeal. 
</P>
<P>(d) The decision of the Commission on appeal shall be its final order and shall be served on all parties. 
</P>
<P>(e) In the absence of a timely appeal under § 1603.302, the decision of the administrative law judge under § 1603.217 or a dismissal under § 1603.107 shall become the final order of the Commission. A final order under this paragraph shall not have precedential significance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.305" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.3.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.305   Modification or withdrawal of Commission decision.</HEAD>
<P>At any time, the Commission may modify or withdraw a decision for any reason provided that no petition for review in a United States Court of Appeals has been filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1603.306" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.4.3.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1603.306   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to a complaint who is aggrieved by a final decision under § 1603.304 may obtain a review of such final decision under chapter 158 of title 28 of the United States Code by filing a petition for review with a United States Court of Appeals within 60 days after issuance of the final decision. Such petition for review should be filed in the judicial circuit in which the petitioner resides or has its principal office, or in the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17543, Apr. 10, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 47853, June 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1604" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1604—GUIDELINES ON DISCRIMINATION BECAUSE OF SEX
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 713(b), 78 Stat. 265, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-12. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>37 FR 6836, April 5, 1972, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1604.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.1   General principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) References to “employer” or “employers” in this part 1604 state principles that are applicable not only to employers but also to labor organizations and to employment agencies insofar as their action or inaction may adversely affect employment opportunities. 
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent that the views expressed in prior Commission pronouncements are inconsistent with the views expressed herein, such prior views are hereby overruled. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will continue to consider particular problems relating to sex discrimination on a case-by-case basis. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.2   Sex as a bona fide occupational qualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The commission believes that the bona fide occupational qualification exception as to sex should be interpreted narrowly. Label—“Men's jobs” and “Women's jobs”—tend to deny employment opportunities unnecessarily to one sex or the other. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission will find that the following situations do not warrant the application of the bona fide occupational qualification exception: 
</P>
<P>(i) The refusal to hire a woman because of her sex based on assumptions of the comparative employment characteristics of women in general. For example, the assumption that the turnover rate among women is higher than among men. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The refusal to hire an individual based on stereotyped characterizations of the sexes. Such stereotypes include, for example, that men are less capable of assembling intricate equipment: that women are less capable of aggressive salesmanship. The principle of nondiscrimination requires that individuals be considered on the basis of individual capacities and not on the basis of any characteristics generally attributed to the group. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The refusal to hire an individual because of the preferences of coworkers, the employer, clients or customers except as covered specifically in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where it is necessary for the purpose of authenticity or genuineness, the Commission will consider sex to be a bona fide occupational qualification, e.g., an actor or actress. 
</P>
<P>(b) Effect of sex-oriented State employment legislation. 
</P>
<P>(1) Many States have enacted laws or promulgated administrative regulations with respect to the employment of females. Among these laws are those which prohibit or limit the employment of females, e.g., the employment of females in certain occupations, in jobs requiring the lifting or carrying of weights exceeding certain prescribed limits, during certain hours of the night, for more than a specified number of hours per day or per week, and for certain periods of time before and after childbirth. The Commission has found that such laws and regulations do not take into account the capacities, preferences, and abilities of individual females and, therefore, discriminate on the basis of sex. The Commission has concluded that such laws and regulations conflict with and are superseded by title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Accordingly, such laws will not be considered a defense to an otherwise established unlawful employment practice or as a basis for the application of the bona fide occupational qualification exception. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission has concluded that State laws and regulations which discriminate on the basis of sex with regard to the employment of minors are in conflict with and are superseded by title VII to the extent that such laws are more restrictive for one sex. Accordingly, restrictions on the employment of minors of one sex over and above those imposed on minors of the other sex will not be considered a defense to an otherwise established unlawful employment practice or as a basis for the application of the bona fide occupational qualification exception. 
</P>
<P>(3) A number of States require that minimum wage and premium pay for overtime be provided for female employees. An employer will be deemed to have engaged in an unlawful employment practice if: 
</P>
<P>(i) It refuses to hire or otherwise adversely affects the employment opportunities of female applicants or employees in order to avoid the payment of minimum wages or overtime pay required by State law; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) It does not provide the same benefits for male employees. 
</P>
<P>(4) As to other kinds of sex-oriented State employment laws, such as those requiring special rest and meal periods or physical facilities for women, provision of these benefits to one sex only will be a violation of title VII. An employer will be deemed to have engaged in an unlawful employment practice if: 
</P>
<P>(i) It refuses to hire or otherwise adversely affects the employment opportunities of female applicants or employees in order to avoid the provision of such benefits; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) It does not provide the same benefits for male employees. If the employer can prove that business necessity precludes providing these benefits to both men and women, then the State law is in conflict with and superseded by title VII as to this employer. In this situation, the employer shall not provide such benefits to members of either sex. 
</P>
<P>(5) Some States require that separate restrooms be provided for employees of each sex. An employer will be deemed to have engaged in an unlawful employment practice if it refuses to hire or otherwise adversely affects the employment opportunities of applicants or employees in order to avoid the provision of such restrooms for persons of that sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.3   Separate lines of progression and seniority systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is an unlawful employment practice to classify a job as “male” or “female” or to maintain separate lines of progression or separate seniority lists based on sex where this would adversely affect any employee unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for that job. Accordingly, employment practices are unlawful which arbitrarily classify jobs so that: 
</P>
<P>(1) A female is prohibited from applying for a job labeled “male,” or for a job in a “male” line of progression; and vice versa. 
</P>
<P>(2) A male scheduled for layoff is prohibited from displacing a less senior female on a “female” seniority list; and vice versa. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Seniority system or line of progression which distinguishes between “light” and “heavy” jobs constitutes an unlawful employment practice if it operates as a disguised form of classification by sex, or creates unreasonable obstacles to the advancement by members of either sex into jobs which members of that sex would reasonably be expected to perform. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.4   Discrimination against married women.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission has determined that an employer's rule which forbids or restricts the employment of married women and which is not applicable to married men is a discrimination based on sex prohibited by title VII of the Civil Rights Act. It does not seem to us relevant that the rule is not directed against all females, but only against married females, for so long as sex is a factor in the application of the rule, such application involves a discrimination based on sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) It may be that under certain circumstances, such a rule could be justified within the meaning of section 703(e)(1) of title VII. We express no opinion on this question at this time except to point out that sex as a bona fide occupational qualification must be justified in terms of the peculiar requirements of the particular job and not on the basis of a general principle such as the desirability of spreading work. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.5   Job opportunities advertising.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of title VII for a help-wanted advertisement to indicate a preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on sex unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the particular job involved. The placement of an advertisement in columns classified by publishers on the basis of sex, such as columns headed “Male” or “Female,” will be considered an expression of a preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.6   Employment agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 703(b) of the Civil Rights Act specifically states that it shall be unlawful for an employment agency to discriminate against any individual because of sex. The Commission has determined that private employment agencies which deal exclusively with one sex are engaged in an unlawful employment practice, except to the extent that such agencies limit their services to furnishing employees for particular jobs for which sex is a bona fide occupational qualification. 
</P>
<P>(b) An employment agency that receives a job order containing an unlawful sex specification will share responsibility with the employer placing the job order if the agency fills the order knowing that the sex specification is not based upon a bona fide occupational qualification. However, an employment agency will not be deemed to be in violation of the law, regardless of the determination as to the employer, if the agency does not have reason to believe that the employer's claim of bona fide occupations qualification is without substance and the agency makes and maintains a written record available to the Commission of each such job order. Such record shall include the name of the employer, the description of the job and the basis for the employer's claim of bona fide occupational qualification. 
</P>
<P>(c) It is the responsibility of employment agencies to keep informed of opinions and decisions of the Commission on sex discrimination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.7   Pre-employment inquiries as to sex.</HEAD>
<P>A pre-employment inquiry may ask “Male........., Female.........”; or “Mr. Mrs. Miss,” provided that the inquiry is made in good faith for a nondiscriminatory purpose. Any pre-employment inquiry in connection with prospective employment which expresses directly or indirectly any limitation, specification, or discrimination as to sex shall be unlawful unless based upon a bona fide occupational qualification. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.8   Relationship of title VII to the Equal Pay Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employee coverage of the prohibitions against discrimination based on sex contained in title VII is coextensive with that of the other prohibitions contained in title VII and is not limited by section 703(h) to those employees covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) By virtue of section 703(h), a defense based on the Equal Pay Act may be raised in a proceeding under title VII. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where such a defense is raised the Commission will give appropriate consideration to the interpretations of the Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor, but will not be bound thereby. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.9   Fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) “Fringe benefits,” as used herein, includes medical, hospital, accident, life insurance and retirement benefits; profit-sharing and bonus plans; leave; and other terms, conditions, and privileges of employment. 
</P>
<P>(b) It shall be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to discriminate between men and women with regard to fringe benefits. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where an employer conditions benefits available to employees and their spouses and families on whether the employee is the “head of the household” or “principal wage earner” in the family unit, the benefits tend to be available only to male employees and their families. Due to the fact that such conditioning discriminatorily affects the rights of women employees, and that “head of household” or “principal wage earner” status bears no relationship to job performance, benefits which are so conditioned will be found a prima facie violation of the prohibitions against sex discrimination contained in the act. 
</P>
<P>(d) It shall be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to make available benefits for the wives and families of male employees where the same benefits are not made available for the husbands and families of female employees; or to make available benefits for the wives of male employees which are not made available for female employees; or to make available benefits to the husbands of female employees which are not made available for male employees. An example of such an unlawful employment practice is a situation in which wives of male employees receive maternity benefits while female employees receive no such benefits. 
</P>
<P>(e) It shall not be a defense under title VIII to a charge of sex discrimination in benefits that the cost of such benefits is greater with respect to one sex than the other. 
</P>
<P>(f) It shall be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to have a pension or retirement plan which establishes different optional or compulsory retirement ages based on sex, or which differentiates in benefits on the basis of sex. A statement of the General Counsel of September 13, 1968, providing for a phasing out of differentials with regard to optional retirement age for certain incumbent employees is hereby withdrawn. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.10   Employment policies relating to pregnancy and childbirth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A written or unwritten employment policy or practice which excludes from employment applicants or employees because of pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions is in prima facie violation of title VII. 
</P>
<P>(b) Disabilities caused or contributed to by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, for all job-related purposes, shall be treated the same as disabilities caused or contributed to by other medical conditions, under any health or disability insurance or sick leave plan available in connection with employment. Written or unwritten employment policies and practices involving matters such as the commencement and duration of leave, the availability of extensions, the accrual of seniority and other benefits and privileges, reinstatement, and payment under any health or disability insurance or sick leave plan, formal or informal, shall be applied to disability due to pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions on the same terms and conditions as they are applied to other disabilities. Health insurance benefits for abortion, except where the life of the mother would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term or where medical complications have arisen from an abortion, are not required to be paid by an employer; nothing herein, however, precludes an employer from providing abortion benefits or otherwise affects bargaining agreements in regard to abortion. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where the termination of an employee who is temporarily disabled is caused by an employment policy under which insufficient or no leave is available, such a termination violates the Act if it has a disparate impact on employees of one sex and is not justified by business necessity. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Any fringe benefit program, or fund, or insurance program which is in effect on October 31, 1978, which does not treat women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions the same as other persons not so affected but similar in their ability or inability to work, must be in compliance with the provisions of § 1604.10(b) by April 29, 1979. In order to come into compliance with the provisions of 1604.10(b), there can be no reduction of benefits or compensation which were in effect on October 31, 1978, before October 31, 1979 or the expiration of a collective bargaining agreement in effect on October 31, 1978, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any fringe benefit program implemented after October 31, 1978, must comply with the provisions of § 1604.10(b) upon implementation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 23805, Apr. 20, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1604.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1604.11   Sexual harassment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Harassment on the basis of sex is a violation of section 703 of title VII. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment when (1) submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individual's employment, (2) submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individual, or (3) such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The principles involved here continue to apply to race, color, religion or national origin.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) In determining whether alleged conduct constitutes sexual harassment, the Commission will look at the record as a whole and at the totality of the circumstances, such as the nature of the sexual advances and the context in which the alleged incidents occurred. The determination of the legality of a particular action will be made from the facts, on a case by case basis. 
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to conduct between fellow employees, an employer is responsible for acts of sexual harassment in the workplace where the employer (or its agents or supervisory employees) knows or should have known of the conduct, unless it can show that it took immediate and appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(e) An employer may also be responsible for the acts of non-employees, with respect to sexual harassment of employees in the workplace, where the employer (or its agents or supervisory employees) knows or should have known of the conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action. In reviewing these cases the Commission will consider the extent of the employer's control and any other legal responsibility which the employer may have with respect to the conduct of such non-employees.
</P>
<P>(f) Prevention is the best tool for the elimination of sexual harassment. An employer should take all steps necessary to prevent sexual harassment from occurring, such as affirmatively raising the subject, expressing strong disapproval, developing appropriate sanctions, informing employees of their right to raise and how to raise the issue of harassment under title VII, and developing methods to sensitize all concerned.
</P>
<P>(g) Other related practices: Where employment opportunities or benefits are granted because of an individual's submission to the employer's sexual advances or requests for sexual favors, the employer may be held liable for unlawful sex discrimination against other persons who were qualified for but denied that employment opportunity or benefit.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1604.11—Background Information
</HD1>
<P>The Commission has rescinded § 1604.11(c) of the Guidelines on Sexual Harassment, which set forth the standard of employer liability for harassment by supervisors. That section is no longer valid, in light of the Supreme Court decisions in <I>Burlington Industries, Inc.</I> v. <I>Ellerth,</I> 524 U.S. 742 (1998), and <I>Faragher</I> v. <I>City of Boca Raton,</I> 524 U.S. 775 (1998). The Commission has issued a policy document that examines the Faragher and Ellerth decisions and provides detailed guidance on the issue of vicarious liability for harassment by supervisors. EEOC Enforcement Guidance: Vicarious Employer Liability for Unlawful Harassment by Supervisors (6/18/99), EEOC Compliance Manual (BNA), N:4075 [Binder 3]; also available through EEOC's web site, at <I>www.eeoc.gov.,</I> or by calling the EEOC Publications Distribution Center, at 1-800-669-3362 (voice), 1-800-800-3302 (TTY).</P></EXTRACT>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Title VII, Pub. L. 88-352, 78 Stat. 253 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 74677, Nov. 10, 1980, as amended at 64 FR 58334, Oct. 29, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.5.0.21.12.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 1604—Questions and Answers on the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, Public Law 95-555, 92 Stat. 2076 (1978)
</HEAD>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>On October 31, 1978, President Carter signed into law the <I>Pregnancy Discrimination Act</I> (Pub. L. 95-955). The Act is an amendment to title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 which prohibits, among other things, discrimination in employment on the basis of sex. The <I>Pregnancy Discrimination Act</I> makes it clear that “because of sex” or “on the basis of sex”, as used in title VII, includes “because of or on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions.” Therefore, title VII prohibits discrimination in employment against women affected by pregnancy or related conditions. 
</P>
<P>The basic principle of the Act is that women affected by pregnancy and related conditions must be treated the same as other applicants and employees on the basis of their ability or inability to work. A woman is therefore protected against such practices as being fired, or refused a job or promotion, merely because she is pregnant or has had an abortion. She usually cannot be forced to go on leave as long as she can still work. If other employees who take disability leave are entitled to get their jobs back when they are able to work again, so are women who have been unable to work because of pregnancy. 
</P>
<P>In the area of fringe benefits, such as disability benefits, sick leave and health insurance, the same principle applies. A woman unable to work for pregnancy-related reasons is entitled to disability benefits or sick leave on the same basis as employees unable to work for other medical reasons. Also, any health insurance provided must cover expenses for pregnancy-related conditions on the same basis as expenses for other medical conditions. However, health insurance for expenses arising from abortion is not required except where the life of the mother would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term, or where medical complications have arisen from an abortion. 
</P>
<P>Some questions and answers about the <I>Pregnancy Discrimination Act</I> follow. Although the questions and answers often use only the term “employer,” the Act—and these questions and answers—apply also to unions and other entities covered by title VII. 
</P>
<P>1. Q. What is the effective date of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act? 
</P>
<P>A. The Act became effective on October 31, 1978, except that with respect to fringe benefit programs in effect on that date, the Act will take effect 180 days thereafter, that is, April 29, 1979. 
</P>
<P>To the extent that title VII already required employers to treat persons affected by pregnancy-related conditions the same as persons affected by other medical conditions, the Act does not change employee rights arising prior to October 31, 1978, or April 29, 1979. Most employment practices relating to pregnancy, childbirth and related conditions—whether concerning fringe benefits or other practices—were already controlled by title VII prior to this Act. For example, title VII has always prohibited an employer from firing, or refusing to hire or promote, a woman because of pregnancy or related conditions, and from failing to accord a woman on pregnancy-related leave the same seniority retention and accrual accorded those on other disability leaves. 
</P>
<P>2. Q. If an employer had a sick leave policy in effect on October 31, 1978, by what date must the employer bring its policy into compliance with the Act? 
</P>
<P>A. With respect to payment of benefits, an employer has until April 29, 1979, to bring into compliance any fringe benefit or insurance program, including a sick leave policy, which was in effect on October 31, 1978. However, any such policy or program created after October 31, 1978, must be in compliance when created. 
</P>
<P>With respect to all aspects of sick leave policy other than payment of benefits, such as the terms governing retention and accrual of seniority, credit for vacation, and resumption of former job on return from sick leave, equality of treatment was required by title VII without the Amendment. 
</P>
<P>3. Q. Must an employer provide benefits for pregnancy-related conditions to an employee whose pregnancy begins prior to April 29, 1979, and continues beyond that date? 
</P>
<P>A. As of April 29, 1979, the effective date of the Act's requirements, an employer must provide the same benefits for pregnancy-related conditions as it provides for other conditions, regardless of when the pregnancy began. Thus, disability benefits must be paid for all absences on or after April 29, 1979, resulting from pregnancy-related temporary disabilities to the same extent as they are paid for absences resulting from other temporary disabilities. For example, if an employee gives birth before April 29, 1979, but is still unable to work on or after that date, she is entitled to the same disability benefits available to other employees. Similarily, medical insurance benefits must be paid for pregnancy-related expenses incurred on or after April 29, 1979. 
</P>
<P>If an employer requires an employee to be employed for a predetermined period prior to being eligible for insurance coverage, the period prior to April 29, 1979, during which a pregnant employee has been employed must be credited toward the eligibility waiting period on the same basis as for any other employee. 
</P>
<P>As to any programs instituted for the first time after October 31, 1978, coverage for pregnancy-related conditions must be provided in the same manner as for other medical conditions. 
</P>
<P>4. Q. Would the answer to the preceding question be the same if the employee became pregnant prior to October 31, 1978? 
</P>
<P>A. Yes. 
</P>
<P>5. Q. If, for pregnancy-related reasons, an employee is unable to perform the functions of her job, does the employer have to provide her an alternative job? 
</P>
<P>A. An employer is required to treat an employee temporarily unable to perform the functions of her job because of her pregnancy-related condition in the same manner as it treats other temporarily disabled employees, whether by providing modified tasks, alternative assignments, disability leaves, leaves without pay, etc. For example, a woman's primary job function may be the operation of a machine, and, incidental to that function, she may carry materials to and from the machine. If other employees temporarily unable to lift are relieved of these functions, pregnant employees also unable to lift must be temporarily relieved of the function. 
</P>
<P>6. Q. What procedures may an employer use to determine whether to place on leave as unable to work a pregnant employee who claims she is able to work or deny leave to a pregnant employee who claims that she is disabled from work? 
</P>
<P>A. An employer may not single out pregnancy-related conditions for special procedures for determining an employee's ability to work. However, an employer may use any procedure used to determine the ability of all employees to work. For example, if an employer requires its employees to submit a doctor's statement concerning their inability to work before granting leave or paying sick benefits, the employer may require employees affected by pregnancy-related conditions to submit such statement. Similarly, if an employer allows its employees to obtain doctor's statements from their personal physicians for absences due to other disabilities or return dates from other disabilities, it must accept doctor's statements from personal physicians for absences and return dates connected with pregnancy-related disabilities. 
</P>
<P>7. Q. Can an employer have a rule which prohibits an employee from returning to work for a predetermined length of time after childbirth? 
</P>
<P>A. No. 
</P>
<P>8. Q. If an employee has been absent from work as a result of a pregnancy-related condition and recovers, may her employer require her to remain on leave until after her baby is born? 
</P>
<P>A. No. An employee must be permitted to work at all times during pregnancy when she is able to perform her job. 
</P>
<P>9. Q. Must an employer hold open the job of an employee who is absent on leave because she is temporarily disabled by pregnancy-related conditions? 
</P>
<P>A. Unless the employee on leave has informed the employer that she does not intend to return to work, her job must be held open for her return on the same basis as jobs are held open for employees on sick or disability leave for other reasons. 
</P>
<P>10. Q. May an employer's policy concerning the accrual and crediting of seniority during absences for medical conditions be different for employees affected by pregnancy-related conditions than for other employees? 
</P>
<P>A. No. An employer's seniority policy must be the same for employees absent for pregnancy-related reasons as for those absent for other medical reasons. 
</P>
<P>11. Q. For purposes of calculating such matters as vacations and pay increases, may an employer credit time spent on leave for pregnancy-related reasons differently than time spent on leave for other reasons?
</P>
<P>A. No. An employer's policy with respect to crediting time for the purpose of calculating such matters as vacations and pay increases cannot treat employees on leave for pregnancy-related reasons less favorably than employees on leave for other reasons. For example, if employees on leave for medical reasons are credited with the time spent on leave when computing entitlement to vacation or pay raises, an employee on leave for pregnancy-related disability is entitled to the same kind of time credit.
</P>
<P>12. Q. Must an employer hire a woman who is medically unable, because of a pregnancy-related condition, to perform a necessary function of a job?
</P>
<P>A. An employer cannot refuse to hire a women because of her pregnancy-related condition so long as she is able to perform the major functions necessary to the job. Nor can an employer refuse to hire her because of its preferences against pregnant workers or the preferences of co-workers, clients, or customers.
</P>
<P>13. Q. May an employer limit disability benefits for pregnancy-related conditions to married employees?
</P>
<P>A. No.
</P>
<P>14. Q. If an employer has an all female workforce or job classification, must benefits be provided for pregnancy-related conditions?
</P>
<P>A. Yes. If benefits are provided for other conditions, they must also be provided for pregnancy-related conditions.
</P>
<P>15. Q. For what length of time must an employer who provides income maintenance benefits for temporary disabilities provide such benefits for pregnancy-related disabilities?
</P>
<P>A. Benefits should be provided for as long as the employee is unable to work for medical reasons unless some other limitation is set for all other temporary disabilities, in which case pregnancy-related disabilities should be treated the same as other temporary disabilities. 
</P>
<P>16. Q. Must an employer who provides benefits for long-term or permanent disabilities provide such benefits for pregnancy-related conditions?
</P>
<P>A. Yes. Benefits for long-term or permanent disabilities resulting from pregnancy-related conditions must be provided to the same extent that such benefits are provided for other conditions which result in long-term or permanent disability.
</P>
<P>17. Q. If an employer provides benefits to employees on leave, such as installment purchase disability insurance, payment of premiums for health, life or other insurance, continued payments into pension, saving or profit sharing plans, must the same benefits be provided for those on leave for pregnancy-related conditions?
</P>
<P>A. Yes, the employer must provide the same benefits for those on leave for pregnancy-related conditions as for those on leave for other reasons. 
</P>
<P>18. Q. Can an employee who is absent due to a pregnancy-related disability be required to exhaust vacation benefits before receiving sick leave pay or disability benefits?
</P>
<P>A. No. If employees who are absent because of other disabling causes receive sick leave pay or disability benefits without any requirement that they first exhaust vacation benefits, the employer cannot impose this requirement on an employee absent for a pregnancy-related cause. 
</P>
<P>18 (A). Q. Must an employer grant leave to a female employee for chidcare purposes after she is medically able to return to work following leave necessitated by pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions? 
</P>
<P>A. While leave for childcare purposes is not covered by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, ordinary title VII principles would require that leave for childcare purposes be granted on the same basis as leave which is granted to employees for other non-medical reasons. For example, if an employer allows its employees to take leave without pay or accrued annual leave for travel or education which is not job related, the same type of leave must be granted to those who wish to remain on leave for infant care, even though they are medically able to return to work.
</P>
<P>19. Q. If State law requires an employer to provide disability insurance for a specified period before and after childbirth, does compliance with the State law fulfill the employer's obligation under the Pregnancy Discrimination Act?
</P>
<P>A. Not necessarily. It is an employer's obligation to treat employees temporarily disabled by pregnancy in the same manner as employees affected by other temporary disabilities. Therefore, any restrictions imposed by State law on benefits for pregnancy-related disabilities, but not for other disabilities, do not excuse the employer from treating the individuals in both groups of employees the same. If, for example, a State law requires an employer to pay a maximum of 26 weeks benefits for disabilities other than pregnancy-related ones but only six weeks for pregnancy-related disabilities, the employer must provide benefits for the additional weeks to an employee disabled by pregnancy-related conditions, up to the maximum provided other disabled employees.
</P>
<P>20. Q. If a State or local government provides its own employees income maintenance benefits for disabilities, may it provide different benefits for disabilities arising from pregnancy-related conditions than for disabilities arising from other conditions?
</P>
<P>A. No. State and local governments, as employers, are subject to the Pregnancy Discrimination Act in the same way as private employers and must bring their employment practices and programs into compliance with the Act, including disability and health insurance programs. 
</P>
<P>21. Q. Must an employer provide health insurance coverage for the medical expenses of pregnancy-related conditions of the spouses of male employees? Of the dependents of all employees? 
</P>
<P>A. Where an employer provides no coverage for dependents, the employer is not required to institute such coverage. However, if an employer's insurance program covers the medical expenses of spouses of female employees, then it must equally cover the medical expenses of spouses of male employees, including those arising from pregnancy-related conditions. 
</P>
<P>But the insurance does not have to cover the pregnancy-related conditions of other dependents as long as it excludes the pregnancy-related conditions of the dependents of male and female employees equally. 
</P>
<P>22. Q. Must an employer provide the same level of health insurance coverage for the pregnancy-related medical conditions of the spouses of male employees as it provides for its female employees? 
</P>
<P>A. No. It is not necessary to provide the same level of coverage for the pregnancy-related medical conditions of spouses of male employees as for female employees. However, where the employer provides coverage for the medical conditions of the spouses of its employees, then the level of coverage for pregnancy-related medical conditions of the spouses of male employees must be the same as the level of coverage for all other medical conditions of the spouses of female employees. For example, if the employer covers employees for 100 percent of reasonable and customary expenses sustained for a medical condition, but only covers dependent spouses for 50 percent of reasonable and customary expenses for their medical conditions, the pregnancy-related expenses of the male employee's spouse must be covered at the 50 percent level. 
</P>
<P>23. Q. May an employer offer optional dependent coverage which excludes pregnancy-related medical conditions or offers less coverage for pregnancy-related medical conditions where the total premium for the optional coverage is paid by the employee? 
</P>
<P>A. No. Pregnancy-related medical conditions must be treated the same as other medical conditions under any health or disability insurance or sick leave plan <I>available in connection with employment,</I> regardless of who pays the premiums. 
</P>
<P>24. Q. Where an employer provides its employees a choice among several health insurance plans, must coverage for pregnancy-related conditions be offered in all of the plans? 
</P>
<P>A. Yes. Each of the plans must cover pregnancy-related conditions. For example, an employee with a single coverage policy cannot be forced to purchase a more expensive family coverage policy in order to receive coverage for her own pregnancy-related condition. 
</P>
<P>25. Q. On what basis should an employee be reimbursed for medical expenses arising from pregnancy, childbirth or related conditions? 
</P>
<P>A. Pregnancy-related expenses should be reimbursed in the same manner as are expenses incurred for other medical conditions. Therefore, whether a plan reimburses the employees on a fixed basis, or a percentage of reasonable and customary charge basis, the same basis should be used for reimbursement of expenses incurred for pregnancy-related conditions. Furthermore, if medical costs for pregnancy-related conditions increase, reevaluation of the reimbursement level should be conducted in the same manner as are cost reevaluations of increases for other medical conditions. 
</P>
<P>Coverage provided by a health insurance program for other conditions must be provided for pregnancy-related conditions. For example, if a plan provides major medical coverage, pregnancy-related conditions must be so covered. Similarily, if a plan covers the cost of a private room for other conditions, the plan must cover the cost of a private room for pregnancy-related conditions. Finally, where a health insurance plan covers office visits to physicians, pre-natal and post-natal visits must be included in such coverage. 
</P>
<P>26. Q. May an employer limit payment of costs for pregnancy-related medical conditions to a specified dollar amount set forth in an insurance policy, collective bargaining agreement or other statement of benefits to which an employee is entitled? 
</P>
<P>A. The amounts payable for the costs incurred for pregnancy-related conditions can be limited only to the same extent as are costs for other conditions. Maximum recoverable dollar amounts may be specified for pregnancy-related conditions if such amounts are similarly specified for other conditions, and so long as the specified amounts in all instances cover the same proportion of actual costs. If, in addition to the scheduled amount for other procedures, additional costs are paid for, either directly or indirectly, by the employer, such additional payments must also be paid for pregnancy-related procedures. 
</P>
<P>27. Q. May an employer impose a different deductible for payment of costs for pregnancy-related medical conditions than for costs of other medical conditions?
</P>
<P>A. No. Neither an additional deductible, an increase in the usual deductible, nor a larger deductible can be imposed for coverage for pregnancy-related medical costs, whether as a condition for inclusion of pregnancy-related costs in the policy or for payment of the costs when incurred. Thus, if pregnancy-related costs are the first incurred under the policy, the employee is required to pay only the same deductible as would otherwise be required had other medical costs been the first incurred. Once this deductible has been paid, no additional deductible can be required for other medical procedures. If the usual deductible has already been paid for other medical procedures, no additional deductible can be required when pregnancy-related costs are later incurred.
</P>
<P>28. Q. If a health insurance plan excludes the payment of benefits for any conditions existing at the time the insured's coverage becomes effective (pre-existing condition clause), can benefits be denied for medical costs arising from a pregnancy existing at the time the coverage became effective?
</P>
<P>A. Yes. However, such benefits cannot be denied unless the pre-existing condition clause also excludes benefits for other pre-existing conditions in the same way. 
</P>
<P>29. Q. If an employer's insurance plan provides benefits after the insured's employment has ended (i.e. extended benefits) for costs connected with pregnancy and delivery where conception occurred while the insured was working for the employer, but not for the costs of any other medical condition which began prior to termination of employment, may an employer (a) continue to pay these extended benefits for pregnancy-related medical conditions but not for other medical conditions, or (b) terminate these benefits for pregnancy-related conditions? 
</P>
<P>A. Where a health insurance plan currently provides extended benefits for other medical conditions on a less favorable basis than for pregnancy-related medical conditions, extended benefits must be provided for other medical conditions on the same basis as for pregnancy-related medical conditions. Therefore, an employer can neither continue to provide less benefits for other medical conditions nor reduce benefits currently paid for pregnancy-related medical conditions. 
</P>
<P>30. Q. Where an employer's health insurance plan currently requires total disability as a prerequisite for payment of extended benefits for other medical conditions but not for pregnancy-related costs, may the employer now require total disability for payment of benefits for pregnancy-related medical conditions as well? 
</P>
<P>A. Since extended benefits cannot be reduced in order to come into compliance with the Act, a more stringent prerequisite for payment of extended benefits for pregnancy-related medical conditions, such as a requirement for total disability, cannot be imposed. Thus, in this instance, in order to comply with the Act, the employer must treat other medical conditions as pregnancy-related conditions are treated. 
</P>
<P>31. Q. Can the added cost of bringing benefit plans into compliance with the Act be apportioned between the employer and employee?
</P>
<P>A. The added cost, if any, can be apportioned between the employer and employee in the same proportion that the cost of the fringe benefit plan was apportioned on October 31, 1978, if that apportionment was nondiscriminatory. If the costs were not apportioned on October 31, 1978, they may not be apportioned in order to come into compliance with the Act. However, in no circumstance may male or female employees be required to pay unequal apportionments on the basis of sex or pregnancy. 
</P>
<P>32. Q. In order to come into compliance with the Act, may an employer reduce benefits or compensation?
</P>
<P>A. In order to come into compliance with the Act, benefits or compensation which an employer was paying on October 31, 1978 cannot be reduced before October 31, 1979 or before the expiration of a collective bargaining agreement in effect on October 31, 1978, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>Where an employer has not been in compliance with the Act by the times specified in the Act, and attempts to reduce benefits, or compensation, the employer may be required to remedy its practices in accord with ordinary title VII remedial principles. 
</P>
<P>33. Q. Can an employer self-insure benefits for pregnancy-related conditions if it does not self-insure benefits for other medical conditions? 
</P>
<P>A. Yes, so long as the benefits are the same. In measuring whether benefits are the same, factors other than the dollar coverage paid should be considered. Such factors include the range of choice of physicians and hospitals, and the processing and promptness of payment of claims. 
</P>
<P>34. Q. Can an employer discharge, refuse to hire or otherwise discriminate against a woman because she has had an abortion? 
</P>
<P>A. No. An employer cannot discriminate in its employment practices against a woman who has had an abortion. 
</P>
<P>35. Q. Is an employer required to provide fringe benefits for abortions if fringe benefits are provided for other medical conditions? 
</P>
<P>A. All fringe benefits other than health insurance, such as sick leave, which are provided for other medical conditions, must be provided for abortions. Health insurance, however, need be provided for abortions only where the life of the woman would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term or where medical complications arise from an abortion. 
</P>
<P>36. Q. If complications arise during the course of an abortion, as for instance excessive hemorrhaging, must an employer's health insurance plan cover the additional cost due to the complications of the abortion? 
</P>
<P>A. Yes. The plan is required to pay those additional costs attributable to the complications of the abortion. However, the employer is not required to pay for the abortion itself, except where the life of the mother would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term. 
</P>
<P>37. Q. May an employer elect to provide insurance coverage for abortions? 
</P>
<P>A. Yes. The Act specifically provides that an employer is not precluded from providing benefits for abortions whether directly or through a collective bargaining agreement, but if an employer decides to cover the costs of abortion, the employer must do so in the same manner and to the same degree as it covers other medical conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 23805, Apr. 20, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1605" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1605—GUIDELINES ON DISCRIMINATION BECAUSE OF RELIGION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 72612, Oct. 31, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1605.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.6.0.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.1   “Religious” nature of a practice or belief.</HEAD>
<P>In most cases whether or not a practice or belief is religious is not at issue. However, in those cases in which the issue does exist, the Commission will define religious practices to include moral or ethical beliefs as to what is right and wrong which are sincerely held with the strength of traditional religious views. This standard was developed in <I>United States</I> v. <I>Seeger,</I> 380 U.S. 163 (1965) and <I>Welsh</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 398 U.S. 333 (1970). The Commission has consistently applied this standard in its decisions. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The fact that no religious group espouses such beliefs or the fact that the religious group to which the individual professes to belong may not accept such belief will not determine whether the belief is a religious belief of the employee or prospective employee. The phrase “religious practice” as used in these Guidelines includes both religious observances and practices, as stated in section 701(j), 42 U.S.C. 2000e(j).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See CD 76-104 (1976), CCH ¶ 6500; CD 71-2620 (1971), CCH ¶ 6283; CD 71-779 (1970), CCH ¶ 6180.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.6.0.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.2   Reasonable accommodation without undue hardship as required by section 701(j) of title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose of this section.</I> This section clarifies the obligation imposed by title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, (sections 701(j), 703 and 717) to accommodate the religious practices of employees and prospective employees. This section does not address other obligations under title VII not to discriminate on grounds of religion, nor other provisions of title VII. This section is not intended to limit any additional obligations to accommodate religious practices which may exist pursuant to constitutional, or other statutory provisions; neither is it intended to provide guidance for statutes which require accommodation on bases other than religion such as section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. The legal principles which have been developed with respect to discrimination prohibited by title VII on the bases of race, color, sex, and national origin also apply to religious discrimination in all circumstances other than where an accommodation is required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duty to accommodate.</I> (1) Section 701(j) makes it an unlawful employment practice under section 703(a)(1) for an employer to fail to reasonably accommodate the religious practices of an employee or prospective employee, unless the employer demonstrates that accommodation would result in undue hardship on the conduct of its business. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See <I>Trans World Airlines, Inc.</I> v. <I>Hardison,</I> 432 U.S. 63, 74 (1977).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Section 701(j) in conjunction with section 703(c), imposes an obligation on a labor organization to reasonably accommodate the religious practices of an employee or prospective employee, unless the labor organization demonstrates that accommodation would result in undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 1605.2 is primarily directed to obligations of employers or labor organizations, which are the entities covered by title VII that will most often be required to make an accommodation. However, the principles of § 1605.2 also apply when an accommodation can be required of other entities covered by title VII, such as employment agencies (section 703(b)) or joint labor-management committees controlling apprecticeship or other training or retraining (section 703(d)). (See, for example, § 1605.3(a) “Scheduling of Tests or Other Selection Procedures.”)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasonable accommodation.</I> (1) After an employee or prospective employee notifies the employer or labor organization of his or her need for a religious accommodation, the employer or labor organization has an obligation to reasonably accommodate the individual's religious practices. A refusal to accommodate is justified only when an employer or labor organization can demonstrate that an undue hardship would in fact result from each available alternative method of accommodation. A mere assumption that many more people, with the same religious practices as the person being accommodated, may also need accommodation is not evidence of undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(2) When there is more than one method of accommodation available which would not cause undue hardship, the Commission will determine whether the accommodation offered is reasonable by examining:
</P>
<P>(i) The alternatives for accommodation considered by the employer or labor organization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The alternatives for accommodation, if any, actually offered to the individual requiring accommodation. Some alternatives for accommodating religious practices might disadvantage the individual with respect to his or her employment opportunites, such as compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. Therefore, when there is more than one means of accommodation which would not cause undue hardship, the employer or labor organization must offer the alternative which least disadvantages the individual with respect to his or her employment opportunities. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternatives for accommodating religious practices.</I> (1) Employees and prospective employees most frequently request an accommodation because their religious practices conflict with their work schedules. The following subsections are some means of accommodating the conflict between work schedules and religious practices which the Commission believes that employers and labor organizations should consider as part of the obligation to accommodate and which the Commission will consider in investigating a charge. These are not intended to be all-inclusive. There are often other alternatives which would reasonably accommodate an individual's religious practices when they conflict with a work schedule. There are also employment practices besides work scheduling which may conflict with religious practices and cause an individual to request an accommodation. See, for example, the Commission's finding number (3) from its Hearings on Religious Discrimination, in appendix A to §§ 1605.2 and 1605.3. The principles expressed in these Guidelines apply as well to such requests for accommodation.
</P>
<P>(i) Voluntary Substitutes and “Swaps”.
</P>
<P>Reasonable accommodation without undue hardship is generally possible where a voluntary substitute with substantially similar qualifications is available. One means of substitution is the voluntary swap. In a number of cases, the securing of a substitute has been left entirely up to the individual seeking the accommodation. The Commission believes that the obligation to accommodate requires that employers and labor organizations facilitate the securing of a voluntary substitute with substantially similar qualifications. Some means of doing this which employers and labor organizations should consider are: to publicize policies regarding accommodation and voluntary substitution; to promote an atmosphere in which such substitutions are favorably regarded; to provide a central file, bulletin board or other means for matching voluntary substitutes with positions for which substitutes are needed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Flexible Scheduling.
</P>
<P>One means of providing reasonable accommodation for the religious practices of employees or prospective employees which employers and labor organizations should consider is the creation of a flexible work schedule for individuals requesting accommodation.
</P>
<P>The following list is an example of areas in which flexibility might be introduced: flexible arrival and departure times; floating or optional holidays; flexible work breaks; use of lunch time in exchange for early departure; staggered work hours; and permitting an employee to make up time lost due to the observance of religious practices. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> On September 29, 1978, Congress enacted such a provision for the accommodation of Federal employees' religious practices. See Pub. L. 95-390, 5 U.S.C. 5550a “Compensatory Time Off for Religious Observances.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Lateral Transfer and Change of Job Assignments.
</P>
<P>When an employee cannot be accommodated either as to his or her entire job or an assignment within the job, employers and labor organizations should consider whether or not it is possible to change the job assignment or give the employee a lateral transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment of Dues to a Labor Organization.
</P>
<P>Some collective bargaining agreements include a provision that each employee must join the labor organization or pay the labor organization a sum equivalent to dues. When an employee's religious practices to not permit compliance with such a provision, the labor organization should accommodate the employee by not requiring the employee to join the organization and by permitting him or her to donate a sum equivalent to dues to a charitable organization. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Undue hardship.</I> (1) Cost. An employer may assert undue hardship to justify a refusal to accommodate an employee's need to be absent from his or her scheduled duty hours if the employer can demonstrate that the accommodation would require “more than a <I>de minimis</I> cost”. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> The Commission will determine what constitutes “more than a <I>de minimis</I> cost” with due regard given to the identifiable cost in relation to the size and operating cost of the employer, and the number of individuals who will in fact need a particular accommodation. In general, the Commission interprets this phrase as it was used in the <I>Hardison</I> decision to mean that costs similar to the regular payment of premium wages of substitutes, which was at issue in <I>Hardison,</I> would constitute undue hardship. However, the Commission will presume that the infrequent payment of premium wages for a substitute or the payment of premium wages while a more permanent accommodation is being sought are costs which an employer can be required to bear as a means of providing a reasonable accommodation. Further, the Commission will presume that generally, the payment of administrative costs necessary for providing the accommodation will not constitute more than a <I>de minimis</I> cost. Administrative costs, for example, include those costs involved in rearranging schedules and recording substitutions for payroll purposes.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>Hardison, supra,</I> 432 U.S. at 84.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Seniority Rights. Undue hardship would also be shown where a variance from a bona fide seniority system is necessary in order to accommodate an employee's religious practices when doing so would deny another employee his or her job or shift preference guaranteed by that system. <I>Hardison, supra,</I> 432 U.S. at 80. Arrangements for voluntary substitutes and swaps (see paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section) do not constitute an undue hardship to the extent the arrangements do not violate a bona fide seniority system. Nothing in the Statute or these Guidelines precludes an employer and a union from including arrangements for voluntary substitutes and swaps as part of a collective bargaining agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1605.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.6.0.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1605.3   Selection practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling of tests or other selection procedures.</I> When a test or other selection procedure is scheduled at a time when an employee or prospective employee cannot attend because of his or her religious practices, the user of the test should be aware that the principles enunciated in these guidelines apply and that it has an obligation to accommodate such employee or prospective employee unless undue hardship would result.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inquiries which determine an applicant's availability to work during an employer's scheduled working hours.</I> (1) The duty to accommodate pertains to prospective employees as well as current employees. Consequently, an employer may not permit an applicant's need for a religious accommodation to affect in any way its decision whether to hire the applicant unless it can demonstrate that it cannot reasonably accommodate the applicant's religious practices without undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(2) As a result of the oral and written testimony submitted at the Commission's Hearings on Religious Discrimination, discussions with representatives of organizations interested in the issue of religious discrimination, and the comments received from the public on these Guidelines as proposed, the Commission has concluded that the use of pre-selection inquiries which determine an applicant's availability has an exclusionary effect on the employment opportunities of persons with certain religious practices. The use of such inquiries will, therefore, be considered to violate title VII unless the employer can show that it:
</P>
<P>(i) Did not have an exclusionary effect on its employees or prospective employees needing an accommodation for the same religious practices; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Was otherwise justified by business necessity.
</P>
<FP>Employers who believe they have a legitimate interest in knowing the availability of their applicants prior to selection must consider procedures which would serve this interest and which would have a lesser exclusionary effect on persons whose religious practices need accommodation. An example of such a procedure is for the employer to state the normal work hours for the job and, after making it clear to the applicant that he or she is not required to indicate the need for any absences for religious practices during the scheduled work hours, ask the applicant whether he or she is otherwise available to work those hours. Then, after a position is offered, but before the applicant is hired, the employer can inquire into the need for a religious accommodation and determine, according to the principles of these Guidelines, whether an accommodation is possible. This type of inquiry would provide an employer with information concerning the availability of most of its applicants, while deferring until after a position is offered the identification of the usually small number of applicants who require an accommodation.
</FP>
<P>(3) The Commission will infer that the need for an accommodation discriminatorily influenced a decision to reject an applicant when: (i) prior to an offer of employment the employer makes an inquiry into an applicant's availability without having a business necessity justification; and (ii) after the employer has determined the applicant's need for an accommodation, the employer rejects a qualified applicant. The burden is then on the employer to demonstrate that factors other than the need for an accommodation were the reason for rejecting the qualified applicant, or that a reasonable accommodation without undue hardship was not possible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.6.0.21.4.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to §§ 1605.2 and 1605.3—Background Information
</HEAD>
<P>In 1966, the Commission adopted guidelines on religious discrimination which stated that an employer had an obligation to accommodate the religious practices of its employees or prospective employees unless to do so would create a “serious inconvenience to the conduct of the business”. 29 CFR 1605.1(a)(2), 31 FR 3870 (1966).
</P>
<P>In 1967, the Commission revised these guidelines to state that an employer had an obligation to reasonably accommodate the religious practices of its employees or prospective employees, unless the employer could prove that to do so would create an “undue hardship”. 29 CFR 1605.1(b)(c), 32 FR 10298.
</P>
<P>In 1972, Congress amended title VII to incorporate the obligation to accommodate expressed in the Commission's 1967 Guidelines by adding section 701(j). 
</P>
<P>In 1977, the United States Supreme Court issued its decision in the case of <I>Trans World Airlines, Inc.</I> v. <I>Hardison,</I> 432 U.S. 63 (1977). <I>Hardison</I> was brought under section 703(a)(1) because it involved facts occurring before the enactment of section 701(j). The Court applied the Commission's 1967 Guidelines, but indicated that the result would be the same under section 701(j). It stated that Trans World Airlines had made reasonable efforts to accommodate the religious needs of its employee, Hardison. The Court held that to require Trans World Airlines to make further attempts at accommodations—by unilaterally violating a seniority provision of the collective bargaining agreement, paying premium wages on a regular basis to another employee to replace Hardison, or creating a serious shortage of necessary employees in another department in order to replace Hardison—would create an undue hardship on the conduct of Trans World Airlines' business, and would therefore, exceed the duty to accommodate Hardison. 
</P>
<P>In 1978, the Commission conducted public hearings on religious discrimination in New York City, Milwaukee, and Los Angeles in order to respond to the concerns raised by <I>Hardison.</I> Approximately 150 witnesses testified or submitted written statements. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> The witnesses included employers, employees, representatives of religious and labor organizations and representatives of Federal, State and local governments.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> The transcript of the Commission's Hearings on Religious Discrimination can be examined by the public at: The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street, NE., Washington, DC 20507.</P></FTNT>
<P>The Commission found from the hearings that: 
</P>
<P>(1) There is widespread confusion concerning the extent of accommodation under the <I>Hardison</I> decision. 
</P>
<P>(2) The religious practices of some individuals and some groups of individuals are not being accommodated. 
</P>
<P>(3) Some of those practices which are not being accommodated are: 
</P>
<P>—Observance of a Sabbath or religious holidays; 
</P>
<P>—Need for prayer break during working hours; 
</P>
<P>—Practice of following certain dietary requirements; 
</P>
<P>—Practice of not working during a mourning period for a deceased relative; 
</P>
<P>—Prohibition against medical examinations; 
</P>
<P>—Prohibition against membership in labor and other organizations; and 
</P>
<P>—Practices concerning dress and other personal grooming habits. 
</P>
<P>(4) Many of the employers who testified had developed alternative employment practices which accommodate the religious practices of employees and prospective employees and which meet the employer's business needs. 
</P>
<P>(5) Little evidence was submitted by employers which showed actual attempts to accommodate religious practices with resultant unfavorable consequences to the employer's business. Employers appeared to have substantial anticipatory concerns but no, or very little, actual experience with the problems they theorized would emerge by providing reasonable accommodation for religious practices. 
</P>
<P>Based on these findings, the Commission is revising its Guidelines to clarify the obligation imposed by section 701(j) to accommodate the religious practices of employees and prospective employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 72612, Oct. 31, 1980, as amended at 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1606" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1606—GUIDELINES ON DISCRIMINATION BECAUSE OF NATIONAL ORIGIN
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 85635, Dec. 29, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1606.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7.0.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1606.1   Definition of national origin discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission defines national origin discrimination broadly as including, but not limited to, the denial of equal employment opportunity because of an individual's, or his or her ancestor's, place of origin; or because an individual has the physical, cultural or linguistic characteristics of a national origin group. The Commission will examine with particular concern charges alleging that individuals within the jurisdiction of the Commission have been denied equal employment opportunity for reasons which are grounded in national origin considerations, such as (a) marriage to or association with persons of a national origin group; (b) membership in, or association with an organization identified with or seeking to promote the interests of national origin groups; (c) attendance or participation in schools, churches, temples or mosques, generally used by persons of a national origin group; and (d) because an individual's name or spouse's name is associated with a national origin group. In examining these charges for unlawful national origin discrimination, the Commission will apply general title VII principles, such as disparate treatment and adverse impact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1606.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7.0.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1606.2   Scope of title VII protection.</HEAD>
<P>Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, protects individuals against employment discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin. The title VII principles of disparate treatment and adverse impact equally apply to national origin discrimination. These Guidelines apply to all entities covered by title VII (collectively referred to as “employer”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1606.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7.0.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1606.3   The national security exception.</HEAD>
<P>It is not an unlawful employment practice to deny employment opportunities to any individual who does not fulfill the national security requirements stated in section 703(g) of title VII. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See also, 5 U.S.C. 7532, for the authority of the head of a Federal agency or department to suspend or remove an employee on grounds of national security.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1606.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7.0.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1606.4   The bona fide occupational qualification exception.</HEAD>
<P>The exception stated in section 703(e) of title VII, that national origin may be a bona fide occupational qualification, shall be strictly construed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1606.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7.0.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1606.5   Citizenship requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In those circumstances, where citizenship requirements have the purpose or effect of discriminating against an individual on the basis of national origin, they are prohibited by title VII. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See <I>Espinoza</I> v. <I>Farah Mfg. Co., Inc.,</I> 414 U.S. 86, 92 (1973). See also, E.O. 11935, 5 CFR 7.4; and 31 U.S.C. 699(b), for citizenship requirements in certain Federal employment.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Some State laws prohibit the employment of non-citizens. Where these laws are in conflict with title VII, they are superseded under section 708 of the title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1606.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7.0.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1606.6   Selection procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In investigating an employer's selection procedures (including those identified below) for adverse impact on the basis of national origin, the Commission will apply the <I>Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures</I> (UGESP), 29 CFR part 1607. Employers and other users of selection procedures should refer to the UGESP for guidance on matters, such as adverse impact, validation and recordkeeping requirements for national origin groups.
</P>
<P>(2) Because height or weight requirements tend to exclude individuals on the basis of national origin, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> the user is expected to evaluate these selection procedures for adverse impact, regardless of whether the total selection process has an adverse impact based on national origin. Therefore, height or weight requirements are identified here, as they are in the UGESP, 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> as exceptions to the “bottom line” concept.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See CD 71-1529 (1971), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6231, 3 FEP Cases 952; CD 71-1418 (1971), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6223, 3 FEP Cases 580; CD 74-25 (1973), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6400, 10 FEP Cases 260. <I>Davis</I> v. <I>County of Los Angeles,</I> 566 F. 2d 1334, 1341-42 (9th Cir., 1977) vacated and remanded as moot on other grounds, 440 U.S. 625 (1979). See also, <I>Dothard</I> v. <I>Rawlinson,</I> 433 U.S. 321 (1977).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See section 4C(2) of the <I>Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures,</I> 29 CFR 1607.4C(2).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The Commission has found that the use of the following selection procedures may be discriminatory on the basis of national origin. Therefore, it will carefully investigate charges involving these selection procedures for both disparate treatment and adverse impact on the basis of national origin. However, the Commission does not consider these to be exceptions to the “bottom line” concept:
</P>
<P>(1) Fluency-in-English requirements, such as denying employment opportunities because of an individual's foreign accent, 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> or inability to communicate well in English. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See CD AL68-1-155E (1969), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6008, 1 FEP Cases 921.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See CD YAU9-048 (1969), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6054, 2 FEP Cases 78.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Training or education requirements which deny employment opportunities to an individual because of his or her foreign training or education, or which require an individual to be foreign trained or educated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1606.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7.0.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1606.7   Speak-English-only rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When applied at all times.</I> A rule requiring employees to speak only English at all times in the workplace is a burdensome term and condition of employment. The primary language of an individual is often an essential national origin characteristic. Prohibiting employees at all times, in the workplace, from speaking their primary language or the language they speak most comfortably, disadvantages an individual's employment opportunities on the basis of national origin. It may also create an atmosphere of inferiority, isolation and intimidation based on national origin which could result in a discriminatory working environment. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Therefore, the Commission will presume that such a rule violates title VII and will closely scrutinize it.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See CD 71-446 (1970), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6173, 2 FEP Cases, 1127; CD 72-0281 (1971), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6293.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>When applied only at certain times.</I> An employer may have a rule requiring that employees speak only in English at certain times where the employer can show that the rule is justified by business necessity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of the rule.</I> It is common for individuals whose primary language is not English to inadvertently change from speaking English to speaking their primary language. Therefore, if an employer believes it has a business necessity for a speak-English-only rule at certain times, the employer should inform its employees of the general circumstances when speaking only in English is required and of the consequences of violating the rule. If an employer fails to effectively notify its employees of the rule and makes an adverse employment decision against an individual based on a violation of the rule, the Commission will consider the employer's application of the rule as evidence of discrimination on the basis of national origin.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1606.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.7.0.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1606.8   Harassment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission has consistently held that harassment on the basis of national origin is a violation of title VII. An employer has an affirmative duty to maintain a working environment free of harassment on the basis of national origin. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See CD CL68-12-431 EU (1969), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6085, 2 FEP Cases 295; CD 72-0621 (1971), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6311, 4 FEP Cases 312; CD 72-1561 (1972), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6354, 4 FEP Cases 852; CD 74-05 (1973), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6387, 6 FEP Cases 834; CD 76-41 (1975), CCH EEOC Decisions ¶ 6632. See also, Amendment to <I>Guidelines on Discrimination Because of Sex,</I> § 1604.11(a) n. 1, 45 FR 7476 sy 74677 (November 10, 1980).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Ethnic slurs and other verbal or physical conduct relating to an individual's national origin constitute harassment when this conduct:
</P>
<P>(1) Has the purpose or effect of creating an intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment;
</P>
<P>(2) Has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance; or
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise adversely affects an individual's employment opportunities.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to conduct between fellow employees, an employer is responsible for acts of harassment in the workplace on the basis of national origin, where the employer, its agents or supervisory employees, knows or should have known of the conduct, unless the employer can show that it took immediate and appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(e) An employer may also be responsible for the acts of non-employees with respect to harassment of employees in the workplace on the basis of national origin, where the employer, its agents or supervisory employees, knows or should have known of the conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action. In reviewing these cases, the Commission will consider the extent of the employer's control and any other legal responsibility which the employer may have with respect to the conduct of such non-employees. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1606.8—Background Information
</HD1>
<P>The Commission has rescinded § 1606.8(c) of the Guidelines on National Origin Harassment, which set forth the standard of employer liability for harassment by supervisors. That section is no longer valid, in light of the Supreme Court decisions in <I>Burlington Industries, Inc.</I> v. <I>Ellerth,</I> 524 U.S. 742 (1998), and <I>Faragher</I> v. <I>City of Boca Raton,</I> 524 U.S. 775 (1998). The Commission has issued a policy document that examines the Faragher and Ellerth decisions and provides detailed guidance on the issue of vicarious liability for harassment by supervisors. EEOC Enforcement Guidance: Vicarious Employer Liability for Unlawful Harassment by Supervisors (6/18/99), EEOC Compliance Manual (BNA), N:4075 [Binder 3]; also available through EEOC's web site, at <I>www.eeoc.gov.,</I> or by calling the EEOC Publications Distribution Center, at 1-800-669-3362 (voice), 1-800-800-3302 (TTY).</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 85635, Dec. 29, 1980, as amended at 64 FR 58334, Oct. 29, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1607" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1607—UNIFORM GUIDELINES ON EMPLOYEE SELECTION PROCEDURES (1978) 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 709 and 713, Civil Rights Act of 1964 (78 Stat. 265) as amended by the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 (Pub. L. 92-261); 42 U.S.C. 2000e-8, 2000e-12.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 38295, 38312, Aug. 25, 1978, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="21" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Principles</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.1   Statement of purpose.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Need for uniformity—Issuing agencies.</I> The Federal government's need for a uniform set of principles on the question of the use of tests and other selection procedures has long been recognized. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the Civil Service Commission, the Department of Labor, and the Department of Justice jointly have adopted these uniform guidelines to meet that need, and to apply the same principles to the Federal Government as are applied to other employers.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Purpose of guidelines.</I> These guidelines incorporate a single set of principles which are designed to assist employers, labor organizations, employment agencies, and licensing and certification boards to comply with requirements of Federal law prohibiting employment practices which discriminate on grounds of race, color, religion, sex, and national origin. They are designed to provide a framework for determining the proper use of tests and other selection procedures. These guidelines do not require a user to conduct validity studies of selection procedures where no adverse impact results. However, all users are encouraged to use selection procedures which are valid, especially users operating under merit principles.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Relation to prior guidelines.</I> These guidelines are based upon and supersede previously issued guidelines on employee selection procedures. These guidelines have been built upon court decisions, the previously issued guidelines of the agencies, and the practical experience of the agencies, as well as the standards of the psychological profession. These guidelines are intended to be consistent with existing law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Application of guidelines.</I> These guidelines will be applied by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in the enforcement of title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended by the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 (hereinafter “title VII”); by the Department of Labor, and the contract compliance agencies until the transfer of authority contemplated by the President's Reorganization Plan No. 1 of 1978, in the administration and enforcement of Executive Order 11246, as amended by Executive Order 11375 (hereinafter “Executive Order 11246”); by the Civil Service Commission and other Federal agencies subject to section 717 of title VII; by the Civil Service Commission in exercising its responsibilities toward State and local governments under section 208(b)(1) of the Intergovernmental-Personnel Act; by the Department of Justice in exercising its responsibilities under Federal law; by the Office of Revenue Sharing of the Department of the Treasury under the State and Local Fiscal Assistance Act of 1972, as amended; and by any other Federal agency which adopts them.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Employment decisions.</I> These guidelines apply to tests and other selection procedures which are used as a basis for any employment decision. Employment decisions include but are not limited to hiring, promotion, demotion, membership (for example, in a labor organization), referral, retention, and licensing and certification, to the extent that licensing and certification may be covered by Federal equal employment opportunity law. Other selection decisions, such as selection for training or transfer, may also be considered employment decisions if they lead to any of the decisions listed above.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Selection procedures.</I> These guidelines apply only to selection procedures which are used as a basis for making employment decisions. For example, the use of recruiting procedures designed to attract members of a particular race, sex, or ethnic group, which were previously denied employment opportunities or which are currently underutilized, may be necessary to bring an employer into compliance with Federal law, and is frequently an essential element of any effective affirmative action program; but recruitment practices are not considered by these guidelines to be selection procedures. Similarly, these guidelines do not pertain to the question of the lawfulness of a seniority system within the meaning of section 703(h), Executive Order 11246 or other provisions of Federal law or regulation, except to the extent that such systems utilize selection procedures to determine qualifications or abilities to perform the job. Nothing in these guidelines is intended or should be interpreted as discouraging the use of a selection procedure for the purpose of determining qualifications or for the purpose of selection on the basis of relative qualifications, if the selection procedure had been validated in accord with these guidelines for each such purpose for which it is to be used. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Limitations.</I> These guidelines apply only to persons subject to title VII, Executive Order 11246, or other equal employment opportunity requirements of Federal law. These guidelines do not apply to responsibilities under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended, not to discriminate on the basis of age, or under sections 501, 503, and 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, not to discriminate on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Indian preference not affected.</I> These guidelines do not restrict any obligation imposed or right granted by Federal law to users to extend a preference in employment to Indians living on or near an Indian reservation in connection with employment opportunities on or near an Indian reservation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 38295, 38312, Aug. 25, 1978, as amended at 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.3   Discrimination defined: Relationship between use of selection procedures and discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Procedure having adverse impact constitutes discrimination unless justified.</I> The use of any selection procedure which has an adverse impact on the hiring, promotion, or other employment or membership opportunities of members of any race, sex, or ethnic group will be considered to be discriminatory and inconsistent with these guidelines, unless the procedure has been validated in accordance with these guidelines, or the provisions of section 6 below are satisfied.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Consideration of suitable alternative selection procedures.</I> Where two or more selection procedures are available which serve the user's legitimate interest in efficient and trustworthy workmanship, and which are substantially equally valid for a given purpose, the user should use the procedure which has been demonstrated to have the lesser adverse impact. Accordingly, whenever a validity study is called for by these guidelines, the user should include, as a part of the validity study, an investigation of suitable alternative selection procedures and suitable alternative methods of using the selection procedure which have as little adverse impact as possible, to determine the appropriateness of using or validating them in accord with these guidelines. If a user has made a reasonable effort to become aware of such alternative procedures and validity has been demonstrated in accord with these guidelines, the use of the test or other selection procedure may continue until such time as it should reasonably be reviewed for currency. Whenever the user is shown an alternative selection procedure with evidence of less adverse impact and substantial evidence of validity for the same job in similar circumstances, the user should investigate it to determine the appropriateness of using or validating it in accord with these guidelines. This subsection is not intended to preclude the combination of procedures into a significantly more valid procedure, if the use of such a combination has been shown to be in compliance with the guidelines. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.4   Information on impact.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Records concerning impact.</I> Each user should maintain and have available for inspection records or other information which will disclose the impact which its tests and other selection procedures have upon employment opportunities of persons by identifiable race, sex, or ethnic group as set forth in paragraph B of this section, in order to determine compliance with these guidelines. Where there are large numbers of applicants and procedures are administered frequently, such information may be retained on a sample basis, provided that the sample is appropriate in terms of the applicant population and adequate in size.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Applicable race, sex, and ethnic groups for recordkeeping.</I> The records called for by this section are to be maintained by sex, and the following races and ethnic groups: Blacks (Negroes), American Indians (including Alaskan Natives), Asians (including Pacific Islanders), Hispanic (including persons of Mexican, Puerto Rican, Cuban, Central or South American, or other Spanish origin or culture regardless of race), whites (Caucasians) other than Hispanic, and totals. The race, sex, and ethnic classifications called for by this section are consistent with the Equal Employment Opportunity Standard Form 100, Employer Information Report EEO-1 series of reports. The user should adopt safeguards to insure that the records required by this paragraph are used for appropriate purposes such as determining adverse impact, or (where required) for developing and monitoring affirmative action programs, and that such records are not used improperly. See sections 4E and 17(4), below.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Evaluation of selection rates. The “bottom line.”</I> If the information called for by sections 4A and B above shows that the total selection process for a job has an adverse impact, the individual components of the selection process should be evaluated for adverse impact. If this information shows that the total selection process does not have an adverse impact, the Federal enforcement agencies, in the exercise of their administrative and prosecutorial discretion, in usual circumstances, will not expect a user to evaluate the individual components for adverse impact, or to validate such individual components, and will not take enforcement action based upon adverse impact of any component of that process, including the separate parts of a multipart selection procedure or any separate procedure that is used as an alternative method of selection. However, in the following circumstances the Federal enforcement agencies will expect a user to evaluate the individual components for adverse impact and may, where appropriate, take enforcement action with respect to the individual components: 
</P>
<P>(1) Where the selection procedure is a significant factor in the continuation of patterns of assignments of incumbent employees caused by prior discriminatory employment practices, (2) where the weight of court decisions or administrative interpretations hold that a specific procedure (such as height or weight requirements or no-arrest records) is not job related in the same or similar circumstances. In unusual circumstances, other than those listed in (1) and (2) of this paragraph, the Federal enforcement agencies may request a user to evaluate the individual components for adverse impact and may, where appropriate, take enforcement action with respect to the individual component. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Adverse impact and the “four-fifths rule.”</I> A selection rate for any race, sex, or ethnic group which is less than four-fifths (
<FR>4/5</FR>) (or eighty percent) of the rate for the group with the highest rate will generally be regarded by the Federal enforcement agencies as evidence of adverse impact, while a greater than four-fifths rate will generally not be regarded by Federal enforcement agencies as evidence of adverse impact. Smaller differences in selection rate may nevertheless constitute adverse impact, where they are significant in both statistical and practical terms or where a user's actions have discouraged applicants disproportionately on grounds of race, sex, or ethnic group. Greater differences in selection rate may not constitute adverse impact where the differences are based on small numbers and are not statistically significant, or where special recruiting or other programs cause the pool of minority or female candidates to be atypical of the normal pool of applicants from that group. Where the user's evidence concerning the impact of a selection procedure indicates adverse impact but is based upon numbers which are too small to be reliable, evidence concerning the impact of the procedure over a longer period of time and/or evidence concerning the impact which the selection procedure had when used in the same manner in similar circumstances elsewhere may be considered in determining adverse impact. Where the user has not maintained data on adverse impact as required by the documentation section of applicable guidelines, the Federal enforcement agencies may draw an inference of adverse impact of the selection process from the failure of the user to maintain such data, if the user has an underutilization of a group in the job category, as compared to the group's representation in the relevant labor market or, in the case of jobs filled from within, the applicable work force.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Consideration of user's equal employment opportunity posture.</I> In carrying out their obligations, the Federal enforcement agencies will consider the general posture of the user with respect to equal employment opportunity for the job or group of jobs in question. Where a user has adopted an affirmative action program, the Federal enforcement agencies will consider the provisions of that program, including the goals and timetables which the user has adopted and the progress which the user has made in carrying out that program and in meeting the goals and timetables. While such affirmative action programs may in design and execution be race, color, sex, or ethnic conscious, selection procedures under such programs should be based upon the ability or relative ability to do the work.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0017)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-511, 94 Stat. 2812 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 38295, 38312, Aug. 25, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.5   General standards for validity studies.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Acceptable types of validity studies.</I> For the purposes of satisfying these guidelines, users may rely upon criterion-related validity studies, content validity studies or construct validity studies, in accordance with the standards set forth in the technical standards of these guidelines, section 14 below. New strategies for showing the validity of selection procedures will be evaluated as they become accepted by the psychological profession.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Criterion-related, content, and construct validity.</I> Evidence of the validity of a test or other selection procedure by a criterion-related validity study should consist of empirical data demonstrating that the selection procedure is predictive of or significantly correlated with important elements of job performance. See section 14B below. Evidence of the validity of a test or other selection procedure by a content validity study should consist of data showing that the content of the selection procedure is representative of important aspects of performance on the job for which the candidates are to be evaluated. See 14C below. Evidence of the validity of a test or other selection procedure through a construct validity study should consist of data showing that the procedure measures the degree to which candidates have identifiable characteristics which have been determined to be important in successful performance in the job for which the candidates are to be evaluated. See section 14D below.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Guidelines are consistent with professional standards.</I> The provisions of these guidelines relating to validation of selection procedures are intended to be consistent with generally accepted professional standards for evaluating standardized tests and other selection procedures, such as those described in the Standards for Educational and Psychological Tests prepared by a joint committee of the American Psychological Association, the American Educational Research Association, and the National Council on Measurement in Education (American Psychological Association, Washington, DC, 1974) (hereinafter “A.P.A. Standards”) and standard textbooks and journals in the field of personnel selection.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Need for documentation of validity.</I> For any selection procedure which is part of a selection process which has an adverse impact and which selection procedure has an adverse impact, each user should maintain and have available such documentation as is described in section 15 below. 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Accuracy and standardization.</I> Validity studies should be carried out under conditions which assure insofar as possible the adequacy and accuracy of the research and the report. Selection procedures should be administered and scored under standardized conditions.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Caution against selection on basis of knowledges, skills, or ability learned in brief orientation period.</I> In general, users should avoid making employment decisions on the basis of measures of knowledges, skills, or abilities which are normally learned in a brief orientation period, and which have an adverse impact.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Method of use of selection procedures.</I> The evidence of both the validity and utility of a selection procedure should support the method the user chooses for operational use of the procedure, if that method of use has a greater adverse impact than another method of use. Evidence which may be sufficient to support the use of a selection procedure on a pass/fail (screening) basis may be insufficient to support the use of the same procedure on a ranking basis under these guidelines. Thus, if a user decides to use a selection procedure on a ranking basis, and that method of use has a greater adverse impact than use on an appropriate pass/fail basis (see section 5H below), the user should have sufficient evidence of validity and utility to support the use on a ranking basis. See sections 3B, 14B (5) and (6), and 14C (8) and (9).
</P>
<P>H. <I>Cutoff scores.</I> Where cutoff scores are used, they should normally be set so as to be reasonable and consistent with normal expectations of acceptable proficiency within the work force. Where applicants are ranked on the basis of properly validated selection procedures and those applicants scoring below a higher cutoff score than appropriate in light of such expectations have little or no chance of being selected for employment, the higher cutoff score may be appropriate, but the degree of adverse impact should be considered.
</P>
<P>I. <I>Use of selection procedures for higher level jobs.</I> If job progression structures are so established that employees will probably, within a reasonable period of time and in a majority of cases, progress to a higher level, it may be considered that the applicants are being evaluated for a job or jobs at the higher level. However, where job progression is not so nearly automatic, or the time span is such that higher level jobs or employees' potential may be expected to change in significant ways, it should be considered that applicants are being evaluated for a job at or near the entry level. A “reasonable period of time” will vary for different jobs and employment situations but will seldom be more than 5 years. Use of selection procedures to evaluate applicants for a higher level job would not be appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) If the majority of those remaining employed do not progress to the higher level job;
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a reason to doubt that the higher level job will continue to require essentially similar skills during the progression period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the selection procedures measure knowledges, skills, or abilities required for advancement which would be expected to develop principally from the training or experience on the job. 
</P>
<P>J. <I>Interim use of selection procedures.</I> Users may continue the use of a selection procedure which is not at the moment fully supported by the required evidence of validity, provided: (1) The user has available substantial evidence of validity, and (2) the user has in progress, when technically feasible, a study which is designed to produce the additional evidence required by these guidelines within a reasonable time. If such a study is not technically feasible, see section 6B. If the study does not demonstrate validity, this provision of these guidelines for interim use shall not constitute a defense in any action, nor shall it relieve the user of any obligations arising under Federal law.
</P>
<P>K. <I>Review of validity studies for currency.</I> Whenever validity has been shown in accord with these guidelines for the use of a particular selection procedure for a job or group of jobs, additional studies need not be performed until such time as the validity study is subject to review as provided in section 3B above. There are no absolutes in the area of determining the currency of a validity study. All circumstances concerning the study, including the validation strategy used, and changes in the relevant labor market and the job should be considered in the determination of when a validity study is outdated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.6   Use of selection procedures which have not been validated.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Use of alternate selection procedures to eliminate adverse impact.</I> A user may choose to utilize alternative selection procedures in order to eliminate adverse impact or as part of an affirmative action program. See section 13 below. Such alternative procedures should eliminate the adverse impact in the total selection process, should be lawful and should be as job related as possible.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Where validity studies cannot or need not be performed.</I> There are circumstances in which a user cannot or need not utilize the validation techniques contemplated by these guidelines. In such circumstances, the user should utilize selection procedures which are as job related as possible and which will minimize or eliminate adverse impact, as set forth below.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Where informal or unscored procedures are used.</I> When an informal or unscored selection procedure which has an adverse impact is utilized, the user should eliminate the adverse impact, or modify the procedure to one which is a formal, scored or quantified measure or combination of measures and then validate the procedure in accord with these guidelines, or otherwise justify continued use of the procedure in accord with Federal law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Where formal and scored procedures are used.</I> When a formal and scored selection procedure is used which has an adverse impact, the validation techniques contemplated by these guidelines usually should be followed if technically feasible. Where the user cannot or need not follow the validation techniques anticipated by these guidelines, the user should either modify the procedure to eliminate adverse impact or otherwise justify continued use of the procedure in accord with Federal law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.7   Use of other validity studies.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Validity studies not conducted by the user.</I> Users may, under certain circumstances, support the use of selection procedures by validity studies conducted by other users or conducted by test publishers or distributors and described in test manuals. While publishers of selection procedures have a professional obligation to provide evidence of validity which meets generally accepted professional standards (see section 5C above), users are cautioned that they are responsible for compliance with these guidelines. Accordingly, users seeking to obtain selection procedures from publishers and distributors should be careful to determine that, in the event the user becomes subject to the validity requirements of these guidelines, the necessary information to support validity has been determined and will be made available to the user.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Use of criterion-related validity evidence from other sources.</I> Criterion-related validity studies conducted by one test user, or described in test manuals and the professional literature, will be considered acceptable for use by another user when the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Validity evidence.</I> Evidence from the available studies meeting the standards of section 14B below clearly demonstrates that the selection procedure is valid;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Job similarity.</I> The incumbents in the user's job and the incumbents in the job or group of jobs on which the validity study was conducted perform substantially the same major work behaviors, as shown by appropriate job analyses both on the job or group of jobs on which the validity study was performed and on the job for which the selection procedure is to be used; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fairness evidence.</I> The studies include a study of test fairness for each race, sex, and ethnic group which constitutes a significant factor in the borrowing user's relevant labor market for the job or jobs in question. If the studies under consideration satisfy paragraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph B.,
<FR>1/4</FR> above but do not contain an investigation of test fairness, and it is not technically feasible for the borrowing user to conduct an internal study of test fairness, the borrowing user may utilize the study until studies conducted elsewhere meeting the requirements of these guidelines show test unfairness, or until such time as it becomes technically feasible to conduct an internal study of test fairness and the results of that study can be acted upon. Users obtaining selection procedures from publishers should consider, as one factor in the decision to purchase a particular selection procedure, the availability of evidence concerning test fairness.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Validity evidence from multiunit study.</I> if validity evidence from a study covering more than one unit within an organization statisfies the requirements of section 14B below, evidence of validity specific to each unit will not be required unless there are variables which are likely to affect validity significantly. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Other significant variables.</I> If there are variables in the other studies which are likely to affect validity significantly, the user may not rely upon such studies, but will be expected either to conduct an internal validity study or to comply with section 6 above. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.8   Cooperative studies.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Encouragement of cooperative studies.</I> The agencies issuing these guidelines encourage employers, labor organizations, and employment agencies to cooperate in research, development, search for lawful alternatives, and validity studies in order to achieve procedures which are consistent with these guidelines.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Standards for use of cooperative studies.</I> If validity evidence from a cooperative study satisfies the requirements of section 14 below, evidence of validity specific to each user will not be required unless there are variables in the user's situation which are likely to affect validity significantly. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.9   No assumption of validity.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Unacceptable substitutes for evidence of validity.</I> Under no circumstances will the general reputation of a test or other selection procedures, its author or its publisher, or casual reports of its validity be accepted in lieu of evidence of validity. Specifically ruled out are: assumptions of validity based on a procedure's name or descriptive labels; all forms of promotional literature; data bearing on the frequency of a procedure's usage; testimonial statements and credentials of sellers, users, or consultants; and other nonempirical or anecdotal accounts of selection practices or selection outcomes.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Encouragement of professional supervision.</I> Professional supervision of selection activities is encouraged but is not a substitute for documented evidence of validity. The enforcement agencies will take into account the fact that a thorough job analysis was conducted and that careful development and use of a selection procedure in accordance with professional standards enhance the probability that the selection procedure is valid for the job. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.10   Employment agencies and employment services.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Where selection procedures are devised by agency.</I> An employment agency, including private employment agencies and State employment agencies, which agrees to a request by an employer or labor organization to device and utilize a selection procedure should follow the standards in these guidelines for determining adverse impact. If adverse impact exists the agency should comply with these guidelines. An employment agency is not relieved of its obligation herein because the user did not request such validation or has requested the use of some lesser standard of validation than is provided in these guidelines. The use of an employment agency does not relieve an employer or labor organization or other user of its responsibilities under Federal law to provide equal employment opportunity or its obligations as a user under these guidelines. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Where selection procedures are devised elsewhere.</I> Where an employment agency or service is requested to administer a selection procedure which has been devised elsewhere and to make referrals pursuant to the results, the employment agency or service should maintain and have available evidence of the impact of the selection and referral procedures which it administers. If adverse impact results the agency or service should comply with these guidelines. If the agency or service seeks to comply with these guidelines by reliance upon validity studies or other data in the possession of the employer, it should obtain and have available such information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.11   Disparate treatment.</HEAD>
<P>The principles of disparate or unequal treatment must be distinguished from the concepts of validation. A selection procedure—even though validated against job performance in accordance with these guidelines—cannot be imposed upon members of a race, sex, or ethnic group where other employees, applicants, or members have not been subjected to that standard. Disparate treatment occurs where members of a race, sex, or ethnic group have been denied the same employment, promotion, membership, or other employment opportunities as have been available to other employees or applicants. Those employees or applicants who have been denied equal treatment, because of prior discriminatory practices or policies, must at least be afforded the same opportunities as had existed for other employees or applicants during the period of discrimination. Thus, the persons who were in the class of persons discriminated against during the period the user followed the discriminatory practices should be allowed the opportunity to qualify under less stringent selection procedures previously followed, unless the user demonstrates that the increased standards are required by business necessity. This section does not prohibit a user who has not previously followed merit standards from adopting merit standards which are in compliance with these guidelines; nor does it preclude a user who has previously used invalid or unvalidated selection procedures from developing and using procedures which are in accord with these guidelines.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.12   Retesting of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>Users should provide a reasonable opportunity for retesting and reconsideration. Where examinations are administered periodically with public notice, such reasonable opportunity exists, unless persons who have previously been tested are precluded from retesting. The user may however take reasonable steps to preserve the security of its procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.21.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.13   Affirmative action.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Affirmative action obligations.</I> The use of selection procedures which have been validated pursuant to these guidelines does not relieve users of any obligations they may have to undertake affirmative action to assure equal employment opportunity. Nothing in these guidelines is intended to preclude the use of lawful selection procedures which assist in remedying the effects of prior discriminatory practices, or the achievement of affirmative action objectives.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Encouragement of voluntary affirmative action programs.</I> These guidelines are also intended to encourage the adoption and implementation of voluntary affirmative action programs by users who have no obligation under Federal law to adopt them; but are not intended to impose any new obligations in that regard. The agencies issuing and endorsing these guidelines endorse for all private employers and reaffirm for all governmental employers the Equal Employment Opportunity Coordinating Council's “Policy Statement on Affirmative Action Programs for State and Local Government Agencies” (41 FR 38814, September 13, 1976). That policy statement is attached hereto as appendix, section 17.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Technical Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.22.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.14   Technical standards for validity studies.</HEAD>
<P>The following minimum standards, as applicable, should be met in conducting a validity study. Nothing in these guidelines is intended to preclude the development and use of other professionally acceptable techniques with respect to validation of selection procedures. Where it is not technically feasible for a user to conduct a validity study, the user has the obligation otherwise to comply with these guidelines. See sections 6 and 7 above.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Validity studies should be based on review of information about the job.</I> Any validity study should be based upon a review of information about the job for which the selection procedure is to be used. The review should include a job analysis except as provided in section 14B(3) below with respect to criterion-related validity. Any method of job analysis may be used if it provides the information required for the specific validation strategy used. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Technical standards for criterion-related validity studies</I>—(1) <I>Technical feasibility.</I> Users choosing to validate a selection procedure by a criterion-related validity strategy should determine whether it is technically feasible (as defined in section 16) to conduct such a study in the particular employment context. The determination of the number of persons necessary to permit the conduct of a meaningful criterion-related study should be made by the user on the basis of all relevant information concerning the selection procedure, the potential sample and the employment situation. Where appropriate, jobs with substantially the same major work behaviors may be grouped together for validity studies, in order to obtain an adequate sample. These guidelines do not require a user to hire or promote persons for the purpose of making it possible to conduct a criterion-related study.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Analysis of the job.</I> There should be a review of job information to determine measures of work behavior(s) or performance that are relevant to the job or group of jobs in question. These measures or criteria are relevant to the extent that they represent critical or important job duties, work behaviors or work outcomes as developed from the review of job information. The possibility of bias should be considered both in selection of the criterion measures and their application. In view of the possibility of bias in subjective evaluations, supervisory rating techniques and instructions to raters should be carefully developed. All criterion measures and the methods for gathering data need to be examined for freedom from factors which would unfairly alter scores of members of any group. The relevance of criteria and their freedom from bias are of particular concern when there are significant differences in measures of job performance for different groups.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criterion measures.</I> Proper safeguards should be taken to insure that scores on selection procedures do not enter into any judgments of employee adequacy that are to be used as criterion measures. Whatever criteria are used should represent important or critical work behavior(s) or work outcomes. Certain criteria may be used without a full job analysis if the user can show the importance of the criteria to the particular employment context. These criteria include but are not limited to production rate, error rate, tardiness, absenteeism, and length of service. A standardized rating of overall work performance may be used where a study of the job shows that it is an appropriate criterion. Where performance in training is used as a criterion, success in training should be properly measured and the relevance of the training should be shown either through a comparsion of the content of the training program with the critical or important work behavior(s) of the job(s), or through a demonstration of the relationship between measures of performance in training and measures of job performance. Measures of relative success in training include but are not limited to instructor evaluations, performance samples, or tests. Criterion measures consisting of paper and pencil tests will be closely reviewed for job relevance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Representativeness of the sample.</I> Whether the study is predictive or concurrent, the sample subjects should insofar as feasible be representative of the candidates normally available in the relevant labor market for the job or group of jobs in question, and should insofar as feasible include the races, sexes, and ethnic groups normally available in the relevant job market. In determining the representativeness of the sample in a concurrent validity study, the user should take into account the extent to which the specific knowledges or skills which are the primary focus of the test are those which employees learn on the job.
</P>
<FP>Where samples are combined or compared, attention should be given to see that such samples are comparable in terms of the actual job they perform, the length of time on the job where time on the job is likely to affect performance, and other relevant factors likely to affect validity differences; or that these factors are included in the design of the study and their effects identified.
</FP>
<P>(5) <I>Statistical relationships.</I> The degree of relationship between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should be examined and computed, using professionally acceptable statistical procedures. Generally, a selection procedure is considered related to the criterion, for the purposes of these guidelines, when the relationship between performance on the procedure and performance on the criterion measure is statistically significant at the 0.05 level of significance, which means that it is sufficiently high as to have a probability of no more than one (1) in twenty (20) to have occurred by chance. Absence of a statistically significant relationship between a selection procedure and job performance should not necessarily discourage other investigations of the validity of that selection procedure.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Operational use of selection procedures.</I> Users should evaluate each selection procedure to assure that it is appropriate for operational use, including establishment of cutoff scores or rank ordering. Generally, if other factors reman the same, the greater the magnitude of the relationship (e.g., correlation coefficent) between performance on a selection procedure and one or more criteria of performance on the job, and the greater the importance and number of aspects of job performance covered by the criteria, the more likely it is that the procedure will be appropriate for use. Reliance upon a selection procedure which is significantly related to a criterion measure, but which is based upon a study involving a large number of subjects and has a low correlation coefficient will be subject to close review if it has a large adverse impact. Sole reliance upon a single selection instrument which is related to only one of many job duties or aspects of job performance will also be subject to close review. The appropriateness of a selection procedure is best evaluated in each particular situation and there are no minimum correlation coefficients applicable to all employment situations. In determining whether a selection procedure is appropriate for operational use the following considerations should also be taken into account: The degree of adverse impact of the procedure, the availability of other selection procedures of greater or substantially equal validity.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Overstatement of validity findings.</I> Users should avoid reliance upon techniques which tend to overestimate validity findings as a result of capitalization on chance unless an appropriate safeguard is taken. Reliance upon a few selection procedures or criteria of successful job performance when many selection procedures or criteria of performance have been studied, or the use of optimal statistical weights for selection procedures computed in one sample, are techniques which tend to inflate validity estimates as a result of chance. Use of a large sample is one safeguard: cross-validation is another.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Fairness.</I> This section generally calls for studies of unfairness where technically feasible. The concept of fairness or unfairness of selection procedures is a developing concept. In addition, fairness studies generally require substantial numbers of employees in the job or group of jobs being studied. For these reasons, the Federal enforcement agencies recognize that the obligation to conduct studies of fairness imposed by the guidelines generally will be upon users or groups of users with a large number of persons in a job class, or test developers; and that small users utilizing their own selection procedures will generally not be obligated to conduct such studies because it will be technically infeasible for them to do so.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Unfairness defined.</I> When members of one race, sex, or ethnic group characteristically obtain lower scores on a selection procedure than members of another group, and the differences in scores are not reflected in differences in a measure of job performance, use of the selection procedure may unfairly deny opportunities to members of the group that obtains the lower scores.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investigation of fairness.</I> Where a selection procedure results in an adverse impact on a race, sex, or ethnic group identified in accordance with the classifications set forth in section 4 above and that group is a significant factor in the relevant labor market, the user generally should investigate the possible existence of unfairness for that group if it is technically feasible to do so. The greater the severity of the adverse impact on a group, the greater the need to investigate the possible existence of unfairness. Where the weight of evidence from other studies shows that the selection procedure predicts fairly for the group in question and for the same or similar jobs, such evidence may be relied on in connection with the selection procedure at issue.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General considerations in fairness investigations.</I> Users conducting a study of fairness should review the A.P.A. Standards regarding investigation of possible bias in testing. An investigation of fairness of a selection procedure depends on both evidence of validity and the manner in which the selection procedure is to be used in a particular employment context. Fairness of a selection procedure cannot necessarily be specified in advance without investigating these factors. Investigation of fairness of a selection procedure in samples where the range of scores on selection procedures or criterion measures is severely restricted for any subgroup sample (as compared to other subgroup samples) may produce misleading evidence of unfairness. That factor should accordingly be taken into account in conducting such studies and before reliance is placed on the results.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When unfairness is shown.</I> If unfairness is demonstrated through a showing that members of a particular group perform better or poorer on the job than their scores on the selection procedure would indicate through comparison with how members of other groups perform, the user may either revise or replace the selection instrument in accordance with these guidelines, or may continue to use the selection instrument operationally with appropriate revisions in its use to assure compatibility between the probability of successful job performance and the probability of being selected.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Technical feasibility of fairness studies.</I> In addition to the general conditions needed for technical feasibility for the conduct of a criterion-related study (see section 16, below) an investigation of fairness requires the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) An adequate sample of persons in each group available for the study to achieve findings of statistical significance. Guidelines do not require a user to hire or promote persons on the basis of group classifications for the purpose of making it possible to conduct a study of fairness; but the user has the obligation otherwise to comply with these guidelines.
</P>
<P>(ii) The samples for each group should be comparable in terms of the actual job they perform, length of time on the job where time on the job is likely to affect performance, and other relevant factors likely to affect validity differences; or such factors should be included in the design of the study and their effects identified.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continued use of selection procedures when fairness studies not feasible.</I> If a study of fairness should otherwise be performed, but is not technically feasible, a selection procedure may be used which has otherwise met the validity standards of these guidelines, unless the technical infeasibility resulted from discriminatory employment practices which are demonstrated by facts other than past failure to conform with requirements for validation of selection procedures. However, when it becomes technically feasible for the user to perform a study of fairness and such a study is otherwise called for, the user should conduct the study of fairness.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Technical standards for content validity studies</I>—(1) <I>Appropriateness of content validity studies.</I> Users choosing to validate a selection procedure by a content validity strategy should determine whether it is appropriate to conduct such a study in the particular employment context. A selection procedure can be supported by a content validity strategy to the extent that it is a representative sample of the content of the job. Selection procedures which purport to measure knowledges, skills, or abilities may in certain circumstances be justified by content validity, although they may not be representative samples, if the knowledge, skill, or ability measured by the selection procedure can be operationally defined as provided in section 14C(4) below, and if that knowledge, skill, or ability is a necessary prerequisite to successful job performance.
</P>
<P>A selection procedure based upon inferences about mental processes cannot be supported solely or primarily on the basis of content validity. Thus, a content strategy is not appropriate for demonstrating the validity of selection procedures which purport to measure traits or constructs, such as intelligence, aptitude, personality, commonsense, judgment, leadership, and spatial ability. Content validity is also not an appropriate strategy when the selection procedure involves knowledges, skills, or abilities which an employee will be expected to learn on the job.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Job analysis for content validity.</I> There should be a job analysis which includes an analysis of the important work behavior(s) required for successful performance and their relative importance and, if the behavior results in work product(s), an analysis of the work product(s). Any job analysis should focus on the work behavior(s) and the tasks associated with them. If work behavior(s) are not observable, the job analysis should identify and analyze those aspects of the behavior(s) that can be observed and the observed work products. The work behavior(s) selected for measurement should be critical work behavior(s) and/or important work behavior(s) constituting most of the job.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Development of selection procedures.</I> A selection procedure designed to measure the work behavior may be developed specifically from the job and job analysis in question, or may have been previously developed by the user, or by other users or by a test publisher.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Standards for demonstrating content validity.</I> To demonstrate the content validity of a selection procedure, a user should show that the behavior(s) demonstrated in the selection procedure are a representative sample of the behavior(s) of the job in question or that the selection procedure provides a representative sample of the work product of the job. In the case of a selection procedure measuring a knowledge, skill, or ability, the knowledge, skill, or ability being measured should be operationally defined. In the case of a selection procedure measuring a knowledge, the knowledge being measured should be operationally defined as that body of learned information which is used in and is a necessary prerequisite for observable aspects of work behavior of the job. In the case of skills or abilities, the skill or ability being measured should be operationally defined in terms of observable aspects of work behavior of the job. For any selection procedure measuring a knowledge, skill, or ability the user should show that (a) the selection procedure measures and is a representative sample of that knowledge, skill, or ability; and (b) that knowledge, skill, or ability is used in and is a necessary prerequisite to performance of critical or important work behavior(s). In addition, to be content valid, a selection procedure measuring a skill or ability should either closely approximate an observable work behavior, or its product should closely approximate an observable work product. If a test purports to sample a work behavior or to provide a sample of a work product, the manner and setting of the selection procedure and its level and complexity should closely approximate the work situation. The closer the content and the context of the selection procedure are to work samples or work behaviors, the stronger is the basis for showing content validity. As the content of the selection procedure less resembles a work behavior, or the setting and manner of the administration of the selection procedure less resemble the work situation, or the result less resembles a work product, the less likely the selection procedure is to be content valid, and the greater the need for other evidence of validity. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reliability.</I> The reliability of selection procedures justified on the basis of content validity should be a matter of concern to the user. Whenever it is feasible, appropriate statistical estimates should be made of the reliability of the selection procedure.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prior training or experience.</I> A requirement for or evaluation of specific prior training or experience based on content validity, including a specification of level or amount of training or experience, should be justified on the basis of the relationship between the content of the training or experience and the content of the job for which the training or experience is to be required or evaluated. The critical consideration is the resemblance between the specific behaviors, products, knowledges, skills, or abilities in the experience or training and the specific behaviors, products, knowledges, skills, or abilities required on the job, whether or not there is close resemblance between the experience or training as a whole and the job as a whole.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Content validity of training success.</I> Where a measure of success in a training program is used as a selection procedure and the content of a training program is justified on the basis of content validity, the use should be justified on the relationship between the content of the training program and the content of the job.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Operational use.</I> A selection procedure which is supported on the basis of content validity may be used for a job if it represents a critical work behavior (i.e., a behavior which is necessary for performance of the job) or work behaviors which constitute most of the important parts of the job.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Ranking based on content validity studies.</I> If a user can show, by a job analysis or otherwise, that a higher score on a content valid selection procedure is likely to result in better job performance, the results may be used to rank persons who score above minimum levels. Where a selection procedure supported solely or primarily by content validity is used to rank job candidates, the selection procedure should measure those aspects of performance which differentiate among levels of job performance.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Technical standards for construct validity studies</I>—(1) <I>Appropriateness of construct validity studies.</I> Construct validity is a more complex strategy than either criterion-related or content validity. Construct validation is a relatively new and developing procedure in the employment field, and there is at present a lack of substantial literature extending the concept to employment practices. The user should be aware that the effort to obtain sufficient empirical support for construct validity is both an extensive and arduous effort involving a series of research studies, which include criterion related validity studies and which may include content validity studies. Users choosing to justify use of a selection procedure by this strategy should therefore take particular care to assure that the validity study meets the standards set forth below.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Job analysis for construct validity studies.</I> There should be a job analysis. This job analysis should show the work behavior(s) required for successful performance of the job, or the groups of jobs being studied, the critical or important work behavior(s) in the job or group of jobs being studied, and an identification of the construct(s) believed to underlie successful performance of these critical or important work behaviors in the job or jobs in question. Each construct should be named and defined, so as to distinguish it from other constructs. If a group of jobs is being studied the jobs should have in common one or more critical or important work behav- iors at a comparable level of complexity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship to the job.</I> A selection procedure should then be identified or developed which measures the construct identified in accord with subparagraph (2) above. The user should show by empirical evidence that the selection procedure is validly related to the construct and that the construct is validly related to the performance of critical or important work behavior(s). The relationship between the construct as measured by the selection procedure and the related work behavior(s) should be supported by empirical evidence from one or more criterion-related studies involving the job or jobs in question which satisfy the provisions of section 14B above. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Use of construct validity study without new criterion-related evidence</I>—(a) <I>Standards for use.</I> Until such time as professional literature provides more guidance on the use of construct validity in employment situations, the Federal agencies will accept a claim of construct validity without a criterion-related study which satisfies section 14B above only when the selection procedure has been used elsewhere in a situation in which a criterion-related study has been conducted and the use of a criterion-related validity study in this context meets the standards for transportability of criterion-related validity studies as set forth above in section 7. However, if a study pertains to a number of jobs having common critical or important work behaviors at a comparable level of complexity, and the evidence satisfies subparagraphs 14B (2) and (3) above for those jobs with criterion-related validity evidence for those jobs, the selection procedure may be used for all the jobs to which the study pertains. If construct validity is to be generalized to other jobs or groups of jobs not in the group studied, the Federal enforcement agencies will expect at a minimum additional empirical research evidence meeting the standards of subparagraphs section 14B (2) and (3) above for the additional jobs or groups of jobs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of common work behaviors.</I> In determining whether two or more jobs have one or more work behavior(s) in common, the user should compare the observed work behavior(s) in each of the jobs and should compare the observed work product(s) in each of the jobs. If neither the observed work behavior(s) in each of the jobs nor the observed work product(s) in each of the jobs are the same, the Federal enforcement agencies will presume that the work behavior(s) in each job are different. If the work behaviors are not observable, then evidence of similarity of work products and any other relevant research evidence will be considered in determining whether the work behavior(s) in the two jobs are the same.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Documentation of Impact and Validity Evidence</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.15" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.15   Documentation of impact and validity evidence.</HEAD>
<P>A. <I>Required information.</I> Users of selection procedures other than those users complying with section 15A(1) below should maintain and have available for each job information on adverse impact of the selection process for that job and, where it is determined a selection process has an adverse impact, evidence of validity as set forth below.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Simplified recordkeeping for users with less than 100 employees.</I> In order to minimize recordkeeping burdens on employers who employ one hundred (100) or fewer employees, and other users not required to file EEO-1, <I>et seq.,</I> reports, such users may satisfy the requirements of this section 15 if they maintain and have available records showing, for each year:
</P>
<P>(a) The number of persons hired, promoted, and terminated for each job, by sex, and where appropriate by race and national origin;
</P>
<P>(b) The number of applicants for hire and promotion by sex and where appropriate by race and national origin; and
</P>
<P>(c) The selection procedures utilized (either standardized or not standardized).
</P>
<FP>These records should be maintained for each race or national origin group (see section 4 above) constituting more than two percent (2%) of the labor force in the relevant labor area. However, it is not necessary to maintain records by race and/or national origin (see § 4 above) if one race or national origin group in the relevant labor area constitutes more than ninety-eight percent (98%) of the labor force in the area. If the user has reason to believe that a selection procedure has an adverse impact, the user should maintain any available evidence of validity for that procedure (see sections 7A and 8).
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Information on impact</I>—(a) <I>Collection of information on impact.</I> Users of selection procedures other than those complying with section 15A(1) above should maintain and have available for each job records or other information showing whether the total selection process for that job has an adverse impact on any of the groups for which records are called for by sections 4B above. Adverse impact determinations should be made at least annually for each such group which constitutes at least 2 percent of the labor force in the relevant labor area or 2 percent of the applicable workforce. Where a total selection process for a job has an adverse impact, the user should maintain and have available records or other information showing which components have an adverse impact. Where the total selection process for a job does not have an adverse impact, information need not be maintained for individual components except in circumstances set forth in subsection 15A(2)(b) below. If the determination of adverse impact is made using a procedure other than the “four-fifths rule,” as defined in the first sentence of section 4D above, a justification, consistent with section 4D above, for the procedure used to determine adverse impact should be available. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When adverse impact has been eliminated in the total selection process.</I> Whenever the total selection process for a particular job has had an adverse impact, as defined in section 4 above, in any year, but no longer has an adverse impact, the user should maintain and have available the information on individual components of the selection process required in the preceding paragraph for the period in which there was adverse impact. In addition, the user should continue to collect such information for at least two (2) years after the adverse impact has been eliminated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When data insufficient to determine impact.</I> Where there has been an insufficient number of selections to determine whether there is an adverse impact of the total selection process for a particular job, the user should continue to collect, maintain and have available the information on individual components of the selection process required in section 15(A)(2)(a) above until the information is sufficient to determine that the overall selection process does not have an adverse impact as defined in section 4 above, or until the job has changed substantially.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Documentation of validity evidence</I>—(a) <I>Types of evidence.</I> Where a total selection process has an adverse impact (see section 4 above) the user should maintain and have available for each component of that process which has an adverse impact, one or more of the following types of documentation evidence:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation evidence showing criterion-related validity of the selection procedure (see section 15B, below).
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation evidence showing content validity of the selection procedure (see section 15C, below).
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation evidence showing construct validity of the selection procedure (see section 15D, below).
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation evidence from other studies showing validity of the selection procedure in the user's facility (see section 15E, below).
</P>
<P>(v) Documentation evidence showing why a validity study cannot or need not be performed and why continued use of the procedure is consistent with Federal law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of report.</I> This evidence should be compiled in a reasonably complete and organized manner to permit direct evaluation of the validity of the selection procedure. Previously written employer or consultant reports of validity, or reports describing validity studies completed before the issuance of these guidelines are acceptable if they are complete in regard to the documentation requirements contained in this section, or if they satisfied requirements of guidelines which were in effect when the validity study was completed. If they are not complete, the required additional documentation should be appended. If necessary information is not available the report of the validity study may still be used as documentation, but its adequacy will be evaluated in terms of compliance with the requirements of these guidelines.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Completeness.</I> In the event that evidence of validity is reviewed by an enforcement agency, the validation reports completed after the effective date of these guidelines are expected to contain the information set forth below. Evidence denoted by use of the word “(Essential)” is considered critical. If information denoted essential is not included, the report will be considered incomplete unless the user affirmatively demonstrates either its unavailability due to circumstances beyond the user's control or special circumstances of the user's study which make the information irrelevant. Evidence not so denoted is desirable but its absence will not be a basis for considering a report incomplete. The user should maintain and have available the information called for under the heading “Source Data” in sections 15B(11) and 15D(11). While it is a necessary part of the study, it need not be submitted with the report. All statistical results should be organized and presented in tabular or graphic form to the extent feasible. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Criterion-related validity studies.</I> Reports of criterion-related validity for a selection procedure should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>User(s), location(s), and date(s) of study.</I> Dates and location(s) of the job analysis or review of job information, the date(s) and location(s) of the administration of the selection procedures and collection of criterion data, and the time between collection of data on selection procedures and criterion measures should be provided (Essential). If the study was conducted at several locations, the address of each location, including city and State, should be shown.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Problem and setting.</I> An explicit definition of the purpose(s) of the study and the circumstances in which the study was conducted should be provided. A description of existing selection procedures and cutoff scores, if any, should be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Job anlysis or review of job information.</I> A description of the procedure used to analyze the job or group of jobs, or to review the job information should be provided (Essential). Where a review of job information results in criteria which may be used without a full job analysis (see section 14B(3)), the basis for the selection of these criteria should be reported (Essential). Where a job analysis is required a complete description of the work behavior(s) or work outcome(s), and measures of their criticality or importance should be provided (Essential). The report should describe the basis on which the behavior(s) or outcome(s) were determined to be critical or important, such as the proportion of time spent on the respective behaviors, their level of difficulty, their frequency of performance, the consequences of error, or other appropriate factors (Essential). Where two or more jobs are grouped for a validity study, the information called for in this subsection should be provided for each of the jobs, and the justification for the grouping (see section 14B(1)) should be provided (Essential). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Job titles and codes.</I> It is desirable to provide the user's job title(s) for the job(s) in question and the corresponding job title(s) and code(s) from U.S. Employment Service's Dictionary of Occupational Titles.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Criterion measures.</I> The bases for the selection of the criterion measures should be provided, together with references to the evidence considered in making the selection of criterion measures (essential). A full description of all criteria on which data were collected and means by which they were observed, recorded, evaluated, and quantified, should be provided (essential). If rating techniques are used as criterion measures, the appraisal form(s) and instructions to the rater(s) should be included as part of the validation evidence, or should be explicitly described and available (essential). All steps taken to insure that criterion measures are free from factors which would unfairly alter the scores of members of any group should be described (essential).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sample description.</I> A description of how the research sample was identified and selected should be included (essential). The race, sex, and ethnic composition of the sample, including those groups set forth in section 4A above, should be described (essential). This description should include the size of each subgroup (essential). A description of how the research sample compares with the relevant labor market or work force, the method by which the relevant labor market or work force was defined, and a discussion of the likely effects on validity of differences between the sample and the relevant labor market or work force, are also desirable. Descriptions of educational levels, length of service, and age are also desirable.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Description of selection procedures.</I> Any measure, combination of measures, or procedure studied should be completely and explicitly described or attached (essential). If commercially available selection procedures are studied, they should be described by title, form, and publisher (essential). Reports of reliability estimates and how they were established are desirable. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Techniques and results.</I> Methods used in analyzing data should be described (essential). Measures of central tendency (e.g., means) and measures of dispersion (e.g., standard deviations and ranges) for all selection procedures and all criteria should be reported for each race, sex, and ethnic group which constitutes a significant factor in the relevant labor market (essential). The magnitude and direction of all relationships between selection procedures and criterion measures investigated should be reported for each relevant race, sex, and ethnic group and for the total group (essential). Where groups are too small to obtain reliable evidence of the magnitude of the relationship, need not be reported separately. Statements regarding the statistical significance of results should be made (essential). Any statistical adjustments, such as for less then perfect reliability or for restriction of score range in the selection procedure or criterion should be described and explained; and uncorrected correlation coefficients should also be shown (essential). Where the statistical technique categorizes continuous data, such as biserial correlation and the phi coefficient, the categories and the bases on which they were determined should be described and explained (essential). Studies of test fairness should be included where called for by the requirements of section 14B(8) (essential). These studies should include the rationale by which a selection procedure was determined to be fair to the group(s) in question. Where test fairness or unfairness has been demonstrated on the basis of other studies, a bibliography of the relevant studies should be included (essential). If the bibliography includes unpublished studies, copies of these studies, or adequate abstracts or summaries, should be attached (essential). Where revisions have been made in a selection procedure to assure compatability between successful job performance and the probability of being selected, the studies underlying such revisions should be included (essential). All statistical results should be organized and presented by relevant race, sex, and ethnic group (essential). 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Alternative procedures investigated.</I> The selection procedures investigated and available evidence of their impact should be identified (essential). The scope, method, and findings of the investigation, and the conclusions reached in light of the findings, should be fully described (essential). 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Uses and applications.</I> The methods considered for use of the selection procedure (e.g., as a screening device with a cutoff score, for grouping or ranking, or combined with other procedures in a battery) and available evidence of their impact should be described (essential). This description should include the rationale for choosing the method for operational use, and the evidence of the validity and utility of the procedure as it is to be used (essential). The purpose for which the procedure is to be used (e.g., hiring, transfer, promotion) should be described (essential). If weights are assigned to different parts of the selection procedure, these weights and the validity of the weighted composite should be reported (essential). If the selection procedure is used with a cutoff score, the user should describe the way in which normal expectations of proficiency within the work force were determined and the way in which the cutoff score was determined (essential).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Source data.</I> Each user should maintain records showing all pertinent information about individual sample members and raters where they are used, in studies involving the validation of selection procedures. These records should be made available upon request of a compliance agency. In the case of individual sample members these data should include scores on the selection procedure(s), scores on criterion measures, age, sex, race, or ethnic group status, and experience on the specific job on which the validation study was conducted, and may also include such things as education, training, and prior job experience, but should not include names and social security numbers. Records should be maintained which show the ratings given to each sample member by each rater.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Contact person.</I> The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the person who may be contacted for further information about the validity study should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Accuracy and completeness.</I> The report should describe the steps taken to assure the accuracy and completeness of the collection, analysis, and report of data and results.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Content validity studies.</I> Reports of content validity for a selection procedure should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>User(s), location(s) and date(s) of study.</I> Dates and location(s) of the job analysis should be shown (essential).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Problem and setting.</I> An explicit definition of the purpose(s) of the study and the circumstances in which the study was conducted should be provided. A description of existing selection procedures and cutoff scores, if any, should be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Job analysis—Content of the job.</I> A description of the method used to analyze the job should be provided (essential). The work behavior(s), the associated tasks, and, if the behavior results in a work product, the work products should be completely described (essential). Measures of criticality and/or importance of the work behavior(s) and the method of determining these measures should be provided (essential). Where the job analysis also identified the knowledges, skills, and abilities used in work behavior(s), an operational definition for each knowledge in terms of a body of learned information and for each skill and ability in terms of observable behaviors and outcomes, and the relationship between each knowledge, skill, or ability and each work behavior, as well as the method used to determine this relationship, should be provided (essential). The work situation should be described, including the setting in which work behavior(s) are performed, and where appropriate, the manner in which knowledges, skills, or abilities are used, and the complexity and difficulty of the knowledge, skill, or ability as used in the work behavior(s).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Selection procedure and its content.</I> Selection procedures, including those constructed by or for the user, specific training requirements, composites of selection procedures, and any other procedure supported by content validity, should be completely and explicitly described or attached (essential). If commercially available selection procedures are used, they should be described by title, form, and publisher (essential). The behaviors measured or sampled by the selection procedure should be explicitly described (essential). Where the selection procedure purports to measure a knowledge, skill, or ability, evidence that the selection procedure measures and is a representative sample of the knowledge, skill, or ability should be provided (essential). 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Relationship between the selection procedure and the job.</I> The evidence demonstrating that the selection procedure is a representative work sample, a representative sample of the work behavior(s), or a representative sample of a knowledge, skill, or ability as used as a part of a work behavior and necessary for that behavior should be provided (essential). The user should identify the work behavior(s) which each item or part of the selection procedure is intended to sample or measure (essential). Where the selection procedure purports to sample a work behavior or to provide a sample of a work product, a comparison should be provided of the manner, setting, and the level of complexity of the selection procedure with those of the work situation (essential). If any steps were taken to reduce adverse impact on a race, sex, or ethnic group in the content of the procedure or in its administration, these steps should be described. Establishment of time limits, if any, and how these limits are related to the speed with which duties must be performed on the job, should be explained. Measures of central tend- ency (e.g., means) and measures of dispersion (e.g., standard deviations) and estimates of realibility should be reported for all selection procedures if available. Such reports should be made for relevant race, sex, and ethnic subgroups, at least on a statistically reliable sample basis.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Alternative procedures investigated.</I> The alternative selection procedures investigated and available evidence of their impact should be identified (essential). The scope, method, and findings of the investigation, and the conclusions reached in light of the findings, should be fully described (essential).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Uses and applications.</I> The methods considered for use of the selection procedure (e.g., as a screening device with a cutoff score, for grouping or ranking, or combined with other procedures in a battery) and available evidence of their impact should be described (essential). This description should include the rationale for choosing the method for operational use, and the evidence of the validity and utility of the procedure as it is to be used (essential). The purpose for which the procedure is to be used (e.g., hiring, transfer, promotion) should be described (essential). If the selection procedure is used with a cutoff score, the user should describe the way in which normal expectations of proficiency within the work force were determined and the way in which the cutoff score was determined (essential). In addition, if the selection procedure is to be used for ranking, the user should specify the evidence showing that a higher score on the selection procedure is likely to result in better job performance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Contact person.</I> The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the person who may be contacted for further information about the validity study should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Accuracy and completeness.</I> The report should describe the steps taken to assure the accuracy and completeness of the collection, analysis, and report of data and results.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Construct validity studies.</I> Reports of construct validity for a selection procedure should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>User(s), location(s), and date(s) of study.</I> Date(s) and location(s) of the job analysis and the gathering of other evidence called for by these guidelines should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Problem and setting.</I> An explicit definition of the purpose(s) of the study and the circumstances in which the study was conducted should be provided. A description of existing selection procedures and cutoff scores, if any, should be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Construct definition.</I> A clear definition of the construct(s) which are believed to underlie successful performance of the critical or important work behavior(s) should be provided (essential). This definition should include the levels of construct performance relevant to the job(s) for which the selection procedure is to be used (essential). There should be a summary of the position of the construct in the psychological literature, or in the absence of such a position, a description of the way in which the definition and measurement of the construct was developed and the psychological theory underlying it (essential). Any quantitative data which identify or define the job constructs, such as factor analyses, should be provided (essential). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Job analysis.</I> A description of the method used to analyze the job should be provided (essential). A complete description of the work behavior(s) and, to the extent appropriate, work outcomes and measures of their criticality and/or importance should be provided (essential). The report should also describe the basis on which the behavior(s) or outcomes were determined to be important, such as their level of difficulty, their frequency of performance, the consequences of error or other appropriate factors (essential). Where jobs are grouped or compared for the purposes of generalizing validity evidence, the work behavior(s) and work product(s) for each of the jobs should be described, and conclusions concerning the similarity of the jobs in terms of observable work behaviors or work products should be made (essential).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Job titles and codes.</I> It is desirable to provide the selection procedure user's job title(s) for the job(s) in question and the corresponding job title(s) and code(s) from the United States Employment Service's dictionary of occupational titles.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Selection procedure.</I> The selection procedure used as a measure of the construct should be completely and explicitly described or attached (essential). If commercially available selection procedures are used, they should be identified by title, form and publisher (essential). The research evidence of the relationship between the selection procedure and the construct, such as factor structure, should be included (essential). Measures of central tendency, variability and reliability of the selection procedure should be provided (essential). Whenever feasible, these measures should be provided separately for each relevant race, sex and ethnic group.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Relationship to job performance.</I> The criterion-related study(ies) and other empirical evidence of the relationship between the construct measured by the selection procedure and the related work behavior(s) for the job or jobs in question should be provided (essential). Documentation of the criterion-related study(ies) should satisfy the provisions of section 15B above or section 15E(1) below, except for studies conducted prior to the effective date of these guidelines (essential). Where a study pertains to a group of jobs, and, on the basis of the study, validity is asserted for a job in the group, the observed work behaviors and the observed work products for each of the jobs should be described (essential). Any other evidence used in determining whether the work behavior(s) in each of the jobs is the same should be fully described (essential).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Alternative procedures investigated.</I> The alternative selection procedures investigated and available evidence of their impact should be identified (essential). The scope, method, and findings of the investigation, and the conclusions reached in light of the findings should be fully described (essential).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Uses and applications.</I> The methods considered for use of the selection procedure (e.g., as a screening device with a cutoff score, for grouping or ranking, or combined with other procedures in a battery) and available evidence of their impact should be described (essential). This description should include the rationale for choosing the method for operational use, and the evidence of the validity and utility of the procedure as it is to be used (essential). The purpose for which the procedure is to be used (e.g., hiring, transfer, promotion) should be described (essential). If weights are assigned to different parts of the selection procedure, these weights and the validity of the weighted composite should be reported (essential). If the selection procedure is used with a cutoff score, the user should describe the way in which normal expectations of proficiency within the work force were determined and the way in which the cutoff score was determined (essential).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Accuracy and completeness.</I> The report should describe the steps taken to assure the accuracy and completeness of the collection, analysis, and report of data and results.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Source data.</I> Each user should maintain records showing all pertinent information relating to its study of construct validity.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Contact person.</I> The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the individual who may be contacted for further information about the validity study should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>E. <I>Evidence of validity from other studies.</I> When validity of a selection procedure is supported by studies not done by the user, the evidence from the original study or studies should be compiled in a manner similar to that required in the appropriate section of this section 15 above. In addition, the following evidence should be supplied:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Evidence from criterion-related validity studies</I>—a. <I>Job information.</I> A description of the important job behavior(s) of the user's job and the basis on which the behaviors were determined to be important should be provided (essential). A full description of the basis for determining that these important work behaviors are the same as those of the job in the original study (or studies) should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Relevance of criteria.</I> A full description of the basis on which the criteria used in the original studies are determined to be relevant for the user should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>c. <I>Other variables.</I> The similarity of important applicant pool or sample characteristics reported in the original studies to those of the user should be described (essential). A description of the comparison between the race, sex and ethnic composition of the user's relevant labor market and the sample in the original validity studies should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>d. <I>Use of the selection procedure.</I> A full description should be provided showing that the use to be made of the selection procedure is consistent with the findings of the original validity studies (essential).
</P>
<P>e. <I>Bibliography.</I> A bibliography of reports of validity of the selection procedure for the job or jobs in question should be provided (essential). Where any of the studies included an investigation of test fairness, the results of this investigation should be provided (essential). Copies of reports published in journals that are not commonly available should be described in detail or attached (essential). Where a user is relying upon unpublished studies, a reasonable effort should be made to obtain these studies. If these unpublished studies are the sole source of validity evidence they should be described in detail or attached (essential). If these studies are not available, the name and address of the source, an adequate abstract or summary of the validity study and data, and a contact person in the source organization should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Evidence from content validity studies.</I> See section 14C(3) and section 15C above.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Evidence from construct validity studies.</I> See sections 14D(2) and 15D above.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Evidence of validity from cooperative studies.</I> Where a selection procedure has been validated through a cooperative study, evidence that the study satisfies the requirements of sections 7, 8 and 15E should be provided (essential).
</P>
<P>G. <I>Selection for higher level job.</I> If a selection procedure is used to evaluate candidates for jobs at a higher level than those for which they will initially be employed, the validity evidence should satisfy the documentation provisions of this section 15 for the higher level job or jobs, and in addition, the user should provide: (1) a description of the job progression structure, formal or informal; (2) the data showing how many employees progress to the higher level job and the length of time needed to make this progression; and (3) an identification of any anticipated changes in the higher level job. In addition, if the test measures a knowledge, skill or ability, the user should provide evidence that the knowledge, skill or ability is required for the higher level job and the basis for the conclusion that the knowledge, skill or ability is not expected to develop from the training or experience on the job.
</P>
<P>H. <I>Interim use of selection procedures.</I> If a selection procedure is being used on an interim basis because the procedure is not fully supported by the required evidence of validity, the user should maintain and have available (1) substantial evidence of validity for the procedure, and (2) a report showing the date on which the study to gather the additional evidence commenced, the estimated completion date of the study, and a description of the data to be collected (essential).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0017)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-511, 94 Stat. 2812 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 38295, 38312, Aug. 25, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.16" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.24.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.16   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions shall apply throughout these guidelines:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Ability.</I> A present competence to perform an observable behavior or a behavior which results in an observable product.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Adverse impact.</I> A substantially different rate of selection in hiring, promotion, or other employment decision which works to the disadvantage of members of a race, sex, or ethnic group. See section 4 of these guidelines.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Compliance with these guidelines.</I> Use of a selection procedure is in compliance with these guidelines if such use has been validated in accord with these guidelines (as defined below), or if such use does not result in adverse impact on any race, sex, or ethnic group (see section 4, above), or, in unusual circumstances, if use of the procedure is otherwise justified in accord with Federal law. See section 6B, above.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Content validity.</I> Demonstrated by data showing that the content of a selection procedure is representative of important aspects of performance on the job. See section 5B and section 14C.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Construct validity.</I> Demonstrated by data showing that the selection procedure measures the degree to which candidates have identifiable characteristics which have been determined to be important for successful job performance. See section 5B and section 14D.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Criterion-related validity.</I> Demonstrated by empirical data showing that the selection procedure is predictive of or significantly correlated with important elements of work behavior. See sections 5B and 14B.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Employer.</I> Any employer subject to the provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, including State or local governments and any Federal agency subject to the provisions of section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, and any Federal contractor or subcontractor or federally assisted construction contractor or subcontactor covered by Executive Order 11246, as amended.
</P>
<P>H. <I>Employment agency.</I> Any employment agency subject to the provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended.
</P>
<P>I. <I>Enforcement action.</I> For the purposes of section 4 a proceeding by a Federal enforcement agency such as a lawsuit or an administrative proceeding leading to debarment from or withholding, suspension, or termination of Federal Government contracts or the suspension or withholding of Federal Government funds; but not a finding of reasonable cause or a concil- ation process or the issuance of right to sue letters under title VII or under Executive Order 11246 where such finding, conciliation, or issuance of notice of right to sue is based upon an individual complaint.
</P>
<P>J. <I>Enforcement agency.</I> Any agency of the executive branch of the Federal Government which adopts these guidelines for purposes of the enforcement of the equal employment opportunity laws or which has responsibility for securing compliance with them.
</P>
<P>K. <I>Job analysis.</I> A detailed statement of work behaviors and other information relevant to the job.
</P>
<P>L. <I>Job description.</I> A general statement of job duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>M. <I>Knowledge.</I> A body of information applied directly to the performance of a function.
</P>
<P>N. <I>Labor organization.</I> Any labor organization subject to the provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, and any committee subject thereto controlling apprenticeship or other training.
</P>
<P>O. <I>Observable.</I> Able to be seen, heard, or otherwise perceived by a person other than the person performing the action.
</P>
<P>P. <I>Race, sex, or ethnic group.</I> Any group of persons identifiable on the grounds of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
</P>
<P>Q. <I>Selection procedure.</I> Any measure, combination of measures, or procedure used as a basis for any employment decision. Selection procedures include the full range of assessment techniques from traditional paper and pencil tests, performance tests, training programs, or probationary periods and physical, educational, and work experience requirements through informal or casual interviews and unscored application forms. 
</P>
<P>R. <I>Selection rate.</I> The proportion of applicants or candidates who are hired, promoted, or otherwise selected.
</P>
<P>S. <I>Should.</I> The term “should” as used in these guidelines is intended to connote action which is necessary to achieve compliance with the guidelines, while recognizing that there are circumstances where alternative courses of action are open to users.
</P>
<P>T. <I>Skill.</I> A present, observable competence to perform a learned psychomoter act.
</P>
<P>U. <I>Technical feasibility.</I> The exist- ence of conditions permitting the conduct of meaningful criterion-related validity studies. These conditions include: (1) An adequate sample of persons available for the study to achieve findings of statistical significance; (2) having or being able to obtain a sufficient range of scores on the selection procedure and job performance measures to produce validity results which can be expected to be representative of the results if the ranges normally expected were utilized; and (3) having or being able to devise unbiased, reliable and relevant measures of job performance or other criteria of employee adequacy. See section 14B(2). With respect to investigation of possible unfairness, the same considerations are applicable to each group for which the study is made. See section 14B(8).
</P>
<P>V. <I>Unfairness of selection procedure.</I> A condition in which members of one race, sex, or ethnic group characteristically obtain lower scores on a selection procedure than members of another group, and the differences are not reflected in differences in measures of job performance. See section 14B(7).
</P>
<P>W. <I>User.</I> Any employer, labor organization, employment agency, or licensing or certification board, to the extent it may be covered by Federal equal employment opportunity law, which uses a selection procedure as a basis for any employment decision. Whenever an employer, labor organization, or employment agency is required by law to restrict recruitment for any occupation to those applicants who have met licensing or certification requirements, the licensing or certifying authority to the extent it may be covered by Federal equal employment opportunity law will be considered the user with respect to those licensing or certification requirements. Whenever a State employment agency or service does no more than administer or monitor a procedure as permitted by Department of Labor regulations, and does so without making referrals or taking any other action on the basis of the results, the State employment agency will not be deemed to be a user.
</P>
<P>X. <I>Validated in accord with these guidelines or properly validated.</I> A demonstration that one or more validity study or studies meeting the standards of these guidelines has been conducted, including investigation and, where appropriate, use of suitable alternative selection procedures as contemplated by section 3B, and has produced evidence of validity sufficient to warrant use of the procedure for the intended purpose under the standards of these guidelines.
</P>
<P>Y. <I>Work behavior.</I> An activity performed to achieve the objectives of the job. Work behaviors involve observable (physical) components and unobservable (mental) components. A work behavior consists of the performance of one or more tasks. Knowledges, skills, and abilities are not behaviors, although they may be applied in work behaviors.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Appendix</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.17" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.25.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.17   Policy statement on affirmative action (see section 13B).</HEAD>
<P>The Equal Employment Opportunity Coordinating Council was established by act of Congress in 1972, and charged with responsibility for developing and implementing agreements and policies designed, among other things, to eliminate conflict and inconsistency among the agencies of the Federal Government responsible for administering Federal law prohibiting discrimination on grounds of race, color, sex, religion, and national origin. This statement is issued as an initial response to the requests of a number of State and local officials for clarification of the Government's policies concerning the role of affirmative action in the overall equal employment opportunity program. While the Coordinating Council's adoption of this statement expresses only the views of the signatory agencies concerning this important subject, the principles set forth below should serve as policy guidance for other Federal agencies as well.
</P>
<P>(1) Equal employment opportunity is the law of the land. In the public sector of our society this means that all persons, regardless of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin shall have equal access to positions in the public service limited only by their ability to do the job. There is ample evidence in all sectors of our society that such equal access frequently has been denied to members of certain groups because of their sex, racial, or ethnic characteristics. The remedy for such past and present discrimination is twofold. 
</P>
<P>On the one hand, vigorous enforcement of the laws against discrimination is essential. But equally, and perhaps even more important are affirmative, voluntary efforts on the part of public employers to assure that positions in the public service are genuinely and equally accessible to qualified persons, without regard to their sex, racial, or ethnic characteristics. Without such efforts equal employment opportunity is no more than a wish. The importance of voluntary affirmative action on the part of employers is underscored by title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Executive Order 11246, and related laws and regulations—all of which emphasize voluntary action to achieve equal employment opportunity. 
</P>
<P>As with most management objectives, a systematic plan based on sound organizational analysis and problem identification is crucial to the accomplishment of affirmative action objectives. For this reason, the Council urges all State and local governments to develop and implement results oriented affirmative action plans which deal with the problems so identified.
</P>
<P>The following paragraphs are intended to assist State and local governments by illustrating the kinds of analyses and activities which may be appropriate for a public employer's voluntary affirmative action plan. This statement does not address remedies imposed after a finding of unlawful discrimination.
</P>
<P>(2) Voluntary affirmative action to assure equal employment opportunity is appropriate at any stage of the employment process. The first step in the construction of any affirmative action plan should be an analysis of the employer's work force to determine whether precentages of sex, race, or ethnic groups in individual job classifications are substantially similar to the precentages of those groups available in the relevant job market who possess the basic job-related qualifications.
</P>
<P>When substantial disparities are found through such analyses, each element of the overall selection process should be examined to determine which elements operate to exclude persons on the basis of sex, race, or ethnic group. Such elements include, but are not limited to, recruitment, testing, ranking certification, interview, recommendations for selection, hiring, promotion, etc. The examination of each element of the selection process should at a minimum include a determination of its validity in predicting job performance.
</P>
<P>(3) When an employer has reason to believe that its selection procedures have the exclusionary effect described in paragraph 2 above, it should initiate affirmative steps to remedy the situation. Such steps, which in design and execution may be race, color, sex, or ethnic “conscious,” include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The establishment of a long-term goal, and short-range, interim goals and timetables for the specific job classifications, all of which should take into account the availability of basically qualified persons in the relevant job market;
</P>
<P>(b) A recruitment program designed to attract qualified members of the group in question;
</P>
<P>(c) A systematic effort to organize work and redesign jobs in ways that provide opportunities for persons lacking “journeyman” level knowledge or skills to enter and, with appropriate training, to progress in a career field;
</P>
<P>(d) Revamping selection instruments or procedures which have not yet been validated in order to reduce or eliminate exclusionary effects on particular groups in particular job classifications; 
</P>
<P>(e) The initiation of measures designed to assure that members of the affected group who are qualified to perform the job are included within the pool of persons from which the selecting official makes the selection;
</P>
<P>(f) A systematic effort to provide career advancement training, both classroom and on-the-job, to employees locked into dead end jobs; and
</P>
<P>(g) The establishment of a system for regularly monitoring the effectiveness of the particular affirmative action program, and procedures for making timely adjustments in this program where effectiveness is not demonstrated. 
</P>
<P>(4) The goal of any affirmative action plan should be achievement of genuine equal employment opportunity for all qualified persons. Selection under such plans should be based upon the ability of the applicant(s) to do the work. Such plans should not require the selection of the unqualified, or the unneeded, nor should they require the selection of persons on the basis of race, color, sex, religion, or national origin. Moreover, while the Council believes that this statement should serve to assist State and local employers, as well as Federal agencies, it recognizes that affirmative action cannot be viewed as a standardized program which must be accomplished in the same way at all times in all places.
</P>
<FP>Accordingly, the Council has not attempted to set forth here either the minimum or maximum voluntary steps that employers may take to deal with their respective situations. Rather, the Council recognizes that under applicable authorities, State and local employers have flexibility to formulate affirmative action plans that are best suited to their particular situations. In this manner, the Council believes that affirmative action programs will best serve the goal of equal employment opportunity.
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Respectfully submitted,
</P>
<FRP>Harold R. Tyler, Jr., 
</FRP>
<FP2-3>Deputy Attorney General and Chairman of the Equal Employment Coordinating Council.
</FP2-3>
<FRP>Michael H. Moskow, 
</FRP>
<FP2-3>Under Secretary of Labor.
</FP2-3>
<FRP>Ethel Bent Walsh, 
</FRP>
<FP2-3>Acting Chairman, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
</FP2-3>
<FRP>Robert E. Hampton, 
</FRP>
<FP2-3>Chairman, Civil Service Commission.
</FP2-3>
<FRP>Arthur E. Flemming, 
</FRP>
<FP2-3>Chairman, Commission on Civil Rights.</FP2-3></EXTRACT>
<P>Because of its equal employment opportunity responsibilities under the State and Local Government Fiscal Assistance Act of 1972 (the revenue sharing act), the Department of Treasury was invited to participate in the formulation of this policy statement; and it concurs and joins in the adoption of this policy statement.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Done this 26th day of August 1976.
</P>
<FRP>Richard Albrecht,  
</FRP>
<FRP>General Counsel, 
</FRP>
<FRP>Department of the Treasury.</FRP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1607.18" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.8.0.25.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1607.18   Citations.</HEAD>
<P>The official title of these guidelines is “Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (1978)”. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (1978) are intended to establish a uniform Federal position in the area of prohibiting discrimination in employment practices on grounds of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. These guidelines have been adopted by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the Department of Labor, the Department of Justice, and the Civil Service Commission.
</P>
<P>The official citation is:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Section __, Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedure (1978); 43 FR __ (August 25, 1978).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>The short form citation is:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Section __, U.G.E.S.P. (1978); 43 FR __ (August 25, 1978).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>When the guidelines are cited in connection with the activities of one of the issuing agencies, a specific citation to the regulations of that agency can be added at the end of the above citation. The specific additional citations are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
</FP>
<FP-1>29 CFR part 1607
</FP-1>
<FP>Department of Labor
</FP>
<FP>Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
</FP>
<FP-1>41 CFR part 60-3
</FP-1>
<FP>Department of Justice
</FP>
<FP-1>28 CFR 50.14
</FP-1>
<FP>Civil Service Commission
</FP>
<FP-1>5 CFR 300.103(c)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>Normally when citing these guidelines, the section number immediately preceding the title of the guidelines will be from these guidelines series 1-18. If a section number from the codification for an individual agency is needed it can also be added at the end of the agency citation. For example, section 6A of these guidelines could be cited for EEOC as follows: 
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Section 6A, Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (1978); 43 FR __, (August 25, 1978); 29 CFR part 1607, section 6A.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1608" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1608 [RESERVED]



 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1610" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1610—AVAILABILITY OF RECORDS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2000e-12(a), 5 U.S.C. 552 as amended by Pub. L. 93-502, Pub. L. 99-570, and Pub. L. 105-231; for § 1610.15, nonsearch or copy portions are issued under 31 U.S.C. 9701.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Production or Disclosure Under 5 U.S.C. 552</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Title VII</I> refers to title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended by Public Law 92-261, 42 U.S.C. (Supp. II) 2000e <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commission</I> refers to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Freedom of Information Act</I> refers to 5 U.S.C. 552 (Pub. L. 90-23 as amended by Pub. L. 93-502). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Attestation</I> refers to the authentication of copies of Commission documents by an affidavit or unsworn declaration from the records custodian without the Commission Seal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification</I> refers to the authentication of copies of Commission documents by an affidavit or unsworn declaration from the records custodian under the Commission Seal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Agency record</I> includes any information maintained for an agency by an entity under Government contract, for the purposes of records management.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FOIA Public Liaison</I> means an agency official who is responsible for assisting in reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8171, Feb. 26, 1975, as amended at 52 FR 13830, Apr. 27, 1987; 70 FR 57511, Oct. 3, 2005; 78 FR 36650, June 19, 2013; 81 FR 95870, Dec. 29, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.2   Statutory requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart contains the rules that the Commission will follow in processing requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act (“FOIA”), 5 U.S.C. 552. These rules should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB Guidelines”). Requests made by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, are processed in accordance with the Commission's Privacy Act regulations as well as under this subpart. The Commission should administer the FOIA with a presumption of openness.
</P>
<P>(b) As referenced in this subpart, “component” means each separate office within the Commission that is responsible for processing FOIA requests. The rules described in this regulation that apply to the Commission also apply to its components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 45181, Sept. 28, 2017]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.3   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart contains the regulations of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission implementing 5 U.S.C. 552. The regulations of this subpart provide information concerning the procedures by which records may be obtained from all organizational units within the Commission. Official records of the Commission made available pursuant to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552 shall be furnished to members of the public only as prescribed by this subpart. Officers and employees of the Commission may continue to furnish to the public, informally and without compliance with the procedures prescribed herein, information and records which prior to the enactment of 5 U.S.C. 552 were furnished customarily in the regular performance of their duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95871, Dec. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.4   Public reference facilities and current index.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records that the FOIA requires the Commission to make available for public inspection in an electronic format may be accessed through the Commission's Web site. The Commission is responsible for determining which of its records must be made publicly available, for identifying additional records of interest to the public that are appropriate for public disclosure, and for posting and indexing such records. The Commission must ensure that its Web site of posted records and indices is reviewed and updated on an ongoing basis. The Commission has a FOIA Requester Service Center or FOIA Public Liaison who can assist individuals in locating records particular to the Commission. Contact information is located at <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/eeoc/foia/index.cfm.</I> A list of agency FOIA Public Liaisons is available at <I>http://www.foia.gov/report-makerequest.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission offices designated in § 1610.4(c) shall maintain and make available for public inspection and copying a copy of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission's notices and regulatory amendments which are not yet published in the Code of Federal Regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission's annual reports;
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission's Compliance Manual;
</P>
<P>(4) Blank forms relating to the Commission's procedures as they affect the public;
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission's Orders (agency directives);
</P>
<P>(6) “CCH Equal Employment Opportunity Commission Decisions” (1973 and 1983);
</P>
<P>(7) Commission awarded contracts; and
</P>
<P>(8) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, that because of the nature of their subject matter—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission determines have become, or are likely to become, the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That have been requested 3 or more times.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission's District Offices with public reading areas are:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Atlanta District Office, Sam Nunn Atlanta Federal Center, 100 Alabama Street SW., Suite 4R30, Atlanta, GA 30303 (includes the Savannah Local Office).
</P>
<P>Birmingham District Office, Ridge Park Place, 1130 22nd Street South, Suite 2000, Birmingham, AL 35205-2397 (includes the Jackson Area Office and the Mobile Local Office).
</P>
<P>Charlotte District Office, 129 West Trade Street, Suite 400, Charlotte, NC 28202 (includes the Raleigh Area Office, the Greensboro Local Office, the Greenville Local Office, the Norfolk Local Office, and the Richmond Local Office).
</P>
<P>Chicago District Office, 500 West Madison Street, Suite 2000, Chicago, IL 60661 (includes the Milwaukee Area Office and the Minneapolis Area Office).
</P>
<P>Dallas District Office, 207 S. Houston Street, 3rd Floor, Dallas, TX 75202-4726 (includes the San Antonio Field Office and the El Paso Area Office).
</P>
<P>Houston District Office, Mickey Leland Building, 1919 Smith Street, 6th Floor, Houston, TX 77002 (includes the New Orleans Field Office).
</P>
<P>Indianapolis District Office, 101 West Ohio Street, Suite 1900, Indianapolis, IN 46204-4203 (includes the Detroit Field Office, the Cincinnati Area Office, and the Louisville Area Office).
</P>
<P>Los Angeles District Office, Roybal Federal Building, 255 East Temple Street, 4th Floor, Los Angeles, CA 90012 (includes the Fresno Local Office, the Honolulu Local Office, the Las Vegas Local Office, and the San Diego Local Office).
</P>
<P>Memphis District Office, 1407 Union Avenue, 9th Floor, Memphis, TN 38104 (includes the Little Rock Area Office, and the Nashville Area Office).
</P>
<P>Miami District Office, Miami Tower, 100 SE 2nd Street, Suite 1500, Miami, FL 33131 (includes the Tampa Field Office, and the San Juan Local Office).
</P>
<P>New York District Office, 33 Whitehall Street, 5th Floor, New York, NY 10004 (includes the Boston Area Office, the Newark Area Office, and the Buffalo Local Office).
</P>
<P>Philadelphia District Office, 801 Market Street, Suite 1300, Philadelphia, PA 19107-3127 (includes the Baltimore Field Office, the Cleveland Field Office, and the Pittsburgh Area Office).
</P>
<P>Phoenix District Office, 3300 N. Central Avenue, Suite 690, Phoenix, AZ 85012-2504 (includes the Denver Field Office, and the Albuquerque Area Office).
</P>
<P>San Francisco District Office, 450 Golden Gate Avenue, 5 West, P.O. Box 36025, San Francisco, CA 94102-3661 (includes the Seattle Field Office, the Oakland Local Office, and the San Jose Local Office).
</P>
<P>St. Louis District Office, Robert A. Young Federal Building, 1222 Spruce Street, Room 8100, St. Louis, MO 63103 (includes the Kansas City Area Office, and the Oklahoma City Area Office).</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 36650, June 19, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 95871, Dec. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.5   Request for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> (1) To make a request for records, a requester should write directly to the Commission's FOIA office that maintains the records sought. A request will receive the quickest possible response if it is addressed to the Commission FOIA office that maintains the records sought. Information concerning the Commission's FOIA offices is listed at: <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/eeoc/foia/index.cfm</I> and any additional requirements for submitting a request to the agency are listed at paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section. The Commission's Web site contains instructions for submitting FOIA requests and other resources to assist requesters in determining where to send their requests.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a request for records pertains to another individual, a requester may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or a declaration made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 by that individual authorizing disclosure of the records to the requester, or by submitting proof that the individual is deceased (for example, a copy of a death certificate or an obituary). As an exercise of administrative discretion, the Commission can require a requester to supply additional information if necessary in order to verify that a particular individual has consented to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of records sought.</I> Requesters must describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable Commission personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent possible, requesters should include specific information that may help the Commission identify the requested records, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, subject matter of the record, case number, file designation, or reference number. Before submitting their requests, requesters may contact the Commission's District Office FOIA contact or FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records they seek and to receive assistance in describing the records. If after receiving a request the Commission determines that it does not reasonably describe the records sought, the Commission must inform the requester what additional information is needed or why the request is otherwise insufficient. Requesters who are attempting to reformulate or modify such a request may discuss their request with the Commission's FOIA contact or FOIA Public Liaison. If a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, the agency's response to the request may be delayed.
</P>
<P>(1) A written request for inspection or copying of a record of the Commission may be presented in person, by mail, by fax, by email at <I>FOIA@eeoc.gov,</I> online at <I>https://publicportalfoiapal.eeoc.gov/palMain.aspx,</I> or through the Commission employee designated in § 1610.7.
</P>
<P>(2) A request must be clearly and prominently identified as a request for information under the “Freedom of Information Act.” If submitted by mail, or otherwise submitted under any cover, the envelope or other cover must be similarly identified.
</P>
<P>(3) A respondent must always provide a copy of the “Filed” stamped court complaint when requesting a copy of a charge file. The charging party must provide a copy of the “Filed” stamped court complaint when requesting a copy of the charge file if the Notice of Right to Sue has expired as of the date of the charging party's request.
</P>
<P>(4) Each request must contain information which reasonably describes the records sought and, when known, should contain date, title or name, author, recipient, subject matter of the record, case number, file designation, or reference number and location for the records requested in order to permit the records to be promptly located.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Format.</I> Requests may specify the preferred form or format (including electronic formats) for the records the requester seeks. The Commission will accommodate the request if the records are readily reproducible in that form or format.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requester information.</I> Requesters must provide contact information, such as their phone number, email address, and/or mailing address, to assist the agency in communicating with them and providing released records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 45181, Sept. 28, 2017]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.7   Where to make request; form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Commission or component that first receives a request for a record and maintains that record is responsible for responding to the request. In determining which records are responsive to a request, the Commission ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date that it begins its search. If any other date is used, the Commission must inform the requester of that date. A record that is excluded from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), is not considered responsive to a request. Requests for the following types of records, however, should be submitted to the District Director for the pertinent district, field, area, or local office, at the district office address listed in § 1610.4(c) or, in the case of the Washington Field Office, shall be submitted to the Field Office Director at 131 M Street NE., Fourth Floor, Washington, DC 20507:
</P>
<P>(1) Information about current or former employees of an office;
</P>
<P>(2) Existing non-confidential statistical data related to the case processing of an office;
</P>
<P>(3) Agreements between the Commission and State or local fair employment agencies operating within the jurisdiction of an office; or
</P>
<P>(4) Materials in office investigative files related to charges under: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>); the Equal Pay Act (29 U.S.C. 206(d)); the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (29 U.S.C. 621 <I>et seq.</I>); the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>); the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (42 U.S.C. 2000ff <I>et seq.</I>); or the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act (42 U.S.C. 2000gg <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for other records.</I> A request for any record which does not fall within the ambit of paragraph (a) of this section, or a request for any record the location of which is unknown to the person making the request, shall be submitted in writing to the Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs, U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, by mail to 131 M Street NE., Suite 5NW02E, Washington, DC 20507, by fax to (202) 827-7545, by email to <I>FOIA@eeoc.gov,</I> or by Internet to <I>https://publicportalfoiapal.eeoc.gov/palMain.aspx.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> The Commission has granted this authority to the Legal Counsel. The Legal Counsel is authorized to grant or to deny any requests for records that are maintained by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Re-routing of misdirected requests.</I> Where the Commission determines that a request was misdirected within the agency, the receiving component's FOIA office must route the request to the FOIA office of the proper component(s) within the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consultation, referral, and coordination.</I> When reviewing records located by the Commission in response to a request, the Commission will determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the Commission must proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consultation.</I> When records originated with the Commission, but contain within them information of interest to another agency or other Federal Government office, the Commission will typically consult with that other entity prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral.</I> (i) When the Commission believes that a different agency or component is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, the Commission typically will refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that agency. Ordinarily, the agency that originated the record is presumed to be the best agency to make the disclosure determination. However, if the Commission is processing the request and the originating agency agrees that the Commission is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the Commission refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, it must document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name(s) of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA contact information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. For example, if a non-law enforcement agency responding to a request for records on a living third party locates within its files records originating with a law enforcement agency, and if the existence of that law enforcement interest in the third party was not publicly known, then to disclose that law enforcement interest could cause an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of the third party. Similarly, if the Commission locates within its files material originating with an Intelligence Community agency and the involvement of that agency in the matter is classified and not publicly acknowledged, then to disclose or give attribution to the involvement of that Intelligence Community agency could cause national security harms. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the Commission will coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on the disclosability of the record. The release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination will then be conveyed to the requester by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Classified information.</I> On receipt of any request involving information that is marked classified, the Commission must determine whether the information is currently and properly classified in accordance with applicable classification rules. Whenever a request involves a record containing information that has been marked as classified or may be appropriate for classification by another agency under any applicable executive order concerning the classification of records, the Commission must refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that information to the agency that classified the information, or that should consider the information for classification. Whenever an agency's record contains information that has been derivatively classified (for example, when it contains information classified by another agency), the Commission must refer the responsibility for responding to that portion of the request to the agency that classified the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Timing of responses to consultations and referrals.</I> All consultations and referrals received by the Commission will be handled according to the date that the referring agency received the perfected FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Agreements regarding consultations and referrals.</I> The Commission may establish agreements with other agencies to eliminate the need for consultations or referrals with respect to particular types of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95872, Dec. 29, 2016, as amended at 87 FR 14799, Mar. 16, 2022; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.8   Authority to determine.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs, the District Director, or the District Director's designee, when receiving a request pursuant to these regulations, shall grant or deny such request. That decision shall be final, subject only to administrative review as provided in § 1610.11 of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 36651, June 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.9   Responses: Timing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Commission ordinarily will respond to requests according to their order of receipt. The various ways in which to submit a request to, or check on the status of a request with, EEOC are listed at: <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/eeoc/foia/index.cfm.</I> The information located at <I>www.foia.gov/report-makerequest.html</I> contains a list of all agencies and components that are designated to accept requests. In instances involving misdirected requests that are re-routed pursuant to § 1610.7(d), the response time will commence on the date that the request is received by the proper component office that is designated to receive requests, but in any event not later than 10 working days after the request is first received by the component office that is designated by these regulations to receive requests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> The Commission designates a specific track for requests that are granted expedited processing, in accordance with the standards set forth in paragraph (f) of this section. The Commission also designates additional processing tracks that distinguish between simple and more complex requests based on the estimated amount of work or time needed to process the request. Among the factors considered are the number of records requested, the number of pages involved in processing the request and the need for consultations or referrals. The Commission must advise requesters of the track into which their request falls and, when appropriate, will offer the requesters an opportunity to narrow or modify their request so that it can be placed in a different processing track.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acknowledgment.</I> The Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs, the District Director, or the District Director's designee shall, within 10 days from receipt of a request, notify the requester in writing of the date the Commission received the request, the expected date of issuance of the determination, the individualized FOIA tracking number assigned to the request, and the telephone number or Internet site where requesters may inquire about the status of their request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> Whenever the Commission cannot meet the statutory time limit for processing a request because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined in the FOIA, and the Commission extends the time limit on that basis, the Commission must, before expiration of the 20-day period to respond, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which the agency estimates processing of the request will be completed. Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, the agency must, as described by the FOIA, provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. The Commission must make available its designated FOIA contact or its FOIA Public Liaison for this purpose. The contact information for the EEOC FOIA Public Liaison is located at: <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/eeoc/foia/index.cfm.</I> A list of agency FOIA Public Liaisons is available at: <I>http://www.foia.gov/report-makerequest.html.</I> The Commission must also alert requesters to the availability of the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) to provide dispute resolution services.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> To satisfy unusual circumstances under the FOIA, the Commission may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. The Commission cannot aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) The Commission must process requests and appeals on an expedited basis whenever it is determined that they involve:
</P>
<P>(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited processing could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if made by a person who is primarily engaged in disseminating information.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for expedited processing may be made at any time. Requests based on paragraphs (f)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section must be submitted to the Commission or component of the Commission that maintains the records requested. When making a request for expedited processing of an administrative appeal, the request should be submitted to the Commission's Office of Legal Counsel, the office that adjudicates appeals.
</P>
<P>(3) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for making the request for expedited processing. For example, under paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, a requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally. Depending on the circumstances, the existence of numerous recently published articles on a given subject may be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic. This factor is not dispositive. As a matter of administrative discretion, the Commission may waive the formal certification requirement.
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission must notify the requester within 10 calendar days of the receipt of a request for expedited processing of its decision whether to grant or deny expedited processing. If expedited processing is granted, the request must be given priority, placed in the processing track for expedited requests, and must be processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, the Commission must act on any appeal of that decision expeditiously.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Tolling.</I> The Commission may toll the statutory time period to issue its determination on a FOIA request one time during the processing of the request to obtain clarification from the requester. The statutory time period to issue the determination on disclosure is tolled until EEOC receives the information reasonably requested from the requester. The agency may also toll the statutory time period to issue the determination to clarify with the requester issues regarding fees. There is no limit on the number of times the agency may request clarifying fee information from the requester.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95873, Dec. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.10   Responses: Form and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Commission, to the extent practicable, will communicate with requesters having access to the Internet electronically, such as email or web portal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgments of requests.</I> The Commission must acknowledge the request in writing and assign it an individualized tracking number if it will take longer than 10 working days to process. The Commission must include in the acknowledgment a brief description of the records sought to allow requesters to more easily keep track of their requests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Estimated dates of completion and interim responses.</I> Upon request, the Commission will provide an estimated date by which it expects to provide a response to the requester. If a request involves a voluminous amount of material, or searches in multiple locations, the Commission may provide interim responses, releasing the records on a rolling basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grants of requests.</I> Once the Commission determines it will grant a request in full or in part, it must notify the requester in writing. The agency must also inform the requester of any fees charged under § 1610.15 of this part and must disclose the requested records to the requester promptly upon payment of any applicable fees. The Commission must inform the requester of the availability of its FOIA Public Liaison to offer assistance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adverse determinations of requests.</I> If the Commission makes an adverse determination denying a request in any respect, it must notify the requester of that determination in writing. Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that: The requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of denial.</I> The denial must be signed by the head of the Commission or designee and must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption applied by the Commission in denying the request;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of any records or information withheld, such as the number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation (such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption);
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed under paragraph 1610.11 of this section, and a description of the appeal requirements; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement notifying the requester of the assistance available from the Commission's FOIA Public Liaison and the dispute resolution services offered by OGIS.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Markings on released documents.</I> Records disclosed in part must be marked clearly to show the amount of information deleted and the exemption under which the deletion was made unless doing so would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption. The location of the information deleted must also be indicated on the record, if technically feasible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95874, Dec. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.11   Appeals to the legal counsel from initial denials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for making an appeal.</I> A requester may appeal any adverse determination to the Legal Counsel, or the Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs. Any appeal of a determination issued by a District Director or the District Director's designee must include a copy of the District Director's or the District Director's designee's determination. If a FOIA appeal is misdirected to a District Office, the District Office shall forward the appeal to the Legal Counsel, or the Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs, as appropriate, within 10 business days. Examples of adverse determinations are provided in § 1610.10(e). Requesters can submit appeals by mail, by fax to (202) 827-7545, by email to <I>FOIA@eeoc.gov,</I> or online at <I>https://publicportalfoiapal.eeoc.gov/palMain.aspx.</I> The requester must make the appeal in writing and to be considered timely it must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted, within 90 calendar days after the date of the response. The appeal should clearly identify the Commission determination that is being appealed and the assigned request number. To facilitate handling, the requester should mark both the appeal letter and envelope, or subject line of the electronic transmission, “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudication of appeals.</I> (1) The Legal Counsel or designee, or the Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs, as appropriate, will decide all appeals under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on appeals.</I> The Commission must provide its decision on an appeal in writing. A decision that upholds the Commission's determination in whole or in part must contain a statement that identifies the reasons for the affirmance, including any FOIA exemptions applied. The decision must provide the requester with notification of the statutory right to file a lawsuit and will inform the requester of the dispute resolution services offered by the Office of Government Information Services of the National Archives and Records Administration as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. If the Commission's decision is remanded or modified on appeal, the Commission will notify the requester of that determination in writing. The Commission will then further process the request in accordance with that appeal determination and will respond directly to the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Engaging in dispute resolution services provided by OGIS.</I> Dispute resolution is a voluntary process. If the Commission agrees to participate in the dispute resolution services provided by OGIS, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When appeal is required.</I> Before seeking review by a court of the Commission's adverse determination, a requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(f) No personal appearance, oral argument or hearing will ordinarily be permitted in connection with an appeal to the Legal Counsel or the Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs.
</P>
<P>(g) On appeal, the Legal Counsel or designee, or the Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs, as appropriate, may reduce any fees previously assessed.
</P>
<P>(h) In the event that the Commission terminates its proceedings on a charge after the District Director or the District Director's designee denies a request, in whole or in part, for the charge file but during consideration of the requester's appeal from that denial, the request may be remanded for redetermination. The requester retains a right to appeal to the Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs, from the decision on remand.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 36652, June 19, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 95874, Dec. 29, 2016; 82 FR 45182, Sept. 28, 2017; 87 FR 14799, Mar. 16, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.13   Maintenance of files.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission must preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this subpart, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized pursuant to Title 44 of the United States Code or the General Records Schedule 4.2 of the National Archives and Records Administration. The Commission must not dispose of or destroy records while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 45182, Sept. 28, 2017]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.14   Waiver of user charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Legal Counsel or designee, the Assistant Legal Counsel, FOIA Programs, and the District Directors or designees shall assess fees where applicable in accordance with § 1610.15 for search, review, and duplication of records requested. They shall also have authority to furnish documents without any charge or at a reduced charge if disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) District directors, field directors, area directors, local directors and the librarian are hereby authorized to collect fees where applicable in accordance with § 1610.15 for duplication of records which are to be made available for public inspection and copying in the district, field, area or local office, or in the headquarters library in accordance with § 1610.4(b). District directors, field directors, area directors, local directors and the librarian are hereby authorized to duplicate such records without charge, or at a reduced charge in accordance with the criteria of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 13830, Apr. 27, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 32062, Aug. 4, 1989; 56 FR 29578, June 28, 1991; 63 FR 1342, Jan. 9, 1998; 71 FR 26830, May 9, 2006; 78 FR 36653, June 19, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.15" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.15   Schedule of fees and method of payment for services rendered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) The Commission will charge for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and with the OMB Guidelines. For purposes of assessing fees, the FOIA establishes three categories of requesters:
</P>
<P>(i) Commercial use requesters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-commercial scientific or educational institutions or news media requesters; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All other requesters.
</P>
<P>(2) Different fees are assessed depending on the category. Requesters may seek a fee waiver. The Commission must consider requests for fee waiver in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (k) of this section. To resolve any fee issues that arise under this section, the Commission may contact a requester for additional information. The Commission must ensure that searches, review, and duplication are conducted in the most efficient and the least expensive manner. The Commission ordinarily will collect all applicable fees before sending copies of records to a requester. Requesters must pay fees by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States, or through <I>Pay.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial use request refers to a request that asks for information for a use or a purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. An agency's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information. The Commission will notify requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(2) Direct costs refers to those expenses that the Commission incurs in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records in order to respond to a FOIA request. For example, direct costs include the salary of the employee performing the work (for example, the basic rate of pay for the employee, plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating computers and other electronic equipment, such as photocopiers and scanners. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses such as the costs of space, and of heating or lighting a facility.
</P>
<P>(3) Duplication refers to reproducing a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Copies can take the form of paper, audiovisual materials, or electronic records, among others.
</P>
<P>(4) Educational institution refers to any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. The Commission may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research, and the Commission will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>A request from a professor of sociology at a university for records relating to women in the workplace, written on letterhead of the Department of Sociology, would be presumed to be from an educational institution.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>A request from the same professor of sociology seeking candidate correspondence from the Commission in furtherance of a mystery book she is writing would not be presumed to be an institutional request, regardless of whether it was written on institutional stationery.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>A student who makes a request in furtherance of her coursework or other school-sponsored activities and provides a copy of a course syllabus or other reasonable documentation to indicate the research purpose for the request, would qualify as part of this fee category.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(5) Noncommercial scientific institution is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial basis,” as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use. The Commission will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(6) Representative of the news media is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast “news” to the public at large and publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, including news organizations that disseminate solely on the Internet. A request for records supporting the news-dissemination function of the requester will not be considered to be for a commercial use. “Freelance journalists” who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity will be considered representatives of the news media. A publishing contract would provide the clearest evidence that publication is expected; however, the Commission can also consider a requester's past publication record in making this determination. The Commission will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(7) Review is the examination of a record located in response to a request in order to determine whether any portion of it is exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure, such as doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure, including the process of redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time also includes time spent both obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential commercial information submitter under § 1610.19, but it does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(8) Search is the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request. Search time includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and the reasonable efforts expended to locate and retrieve information from electronic records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charging fees.</I> In responding to FOIA requests, the Commission will charge the following fees unless a waiver or reduction of fees has been granted under paragraph (k) of this section. Because the fee amounts provided below already account for the direct costs associated with a given fee type, the Commission will not add any additional costs to charges calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Search.</I> (i) Requests made by educational institutions, noncommercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media are not subject to search fees. The Commission will charge search fees for all other requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (d) of this section. The Commission may properly charge for time spent searching even if it does not locate any responsive records or if it determines that the records are entirely exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each quarter hour spent by personnel searching for requested records, including electronic searches that do not require new programming, the fees will be charged as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) By clerical personnel—at the rate of $5.00 per quarter hour.
</P>
<P>(B) By paralegals—at the rate of $9.00 per quarter hour.
</P>
<P>(C) By professional personnel—at the rate of $10.00 per quarter hour.
</P>
<P>(D) By managers—at the rate of $17.50 per quarter hour.
</P>
<P>(E) By SES employees—at the rate of $20.00 per quarter hour.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Commission will charge the direct costs associated with conducting any search that requires the creation of a new computer program to locate the requested records. The Commission must notify the requester of the costs associated with creating such a program, and the requester must agree to pay the associated costs before the costs may be incurred.
</P>
<P>(iv) For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by the Commission at a Federal Records Center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), the Commission will charge additional costs in accordance with the Transactional Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA: <I>http://www.archives.gov/dc-metro/suitland/delivery-fees.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duplication.</I> The Commission will charge duplication fees to all requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (d) of this section. The Commission must honor a requester's preference for receiving a record in a particular form or format where the Commission can readily reproduce it in the form or format requested. Where photocopies are supplied, the Commission will provide one copy per request at the cost of $.15/page. For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, agencies will charge the direct costs of producing the copy, including operator time. Where paper documents must be scanned in order to comply with a requester's preference to receive the records in an electronic format, the requester must also pay the direct costs associated with scanning those materials. For other forms of duplication, the Commission will charge the direct costs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> The Commission will charge review fees to requesters who make commercial use requests. Review fees will be assessed in connection with the initial review of the record, for example, the review conducted by an agency to determine whether an exemption applies to a particular record or portion of a record. No charge will be made for review at the administrative appeal stage of exemptions applied at the initial review stage. However, if a particular exemption is deemed to no longer apply, any costs associated with an agency's re-review of the records in order to consider the use of other exemptions may be assessed as review fees. Review fees will be charged at the same rates as those charged for a search under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) When the Commission determines that a requester is an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media, and the records are not sought for commercial use, it will not charge search fees.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If the Commission fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, it may not charge search fees, or, in instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Commission has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and the Commission provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Commission has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Commission may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken. The Commission must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, and the Commission must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email or telephone (or not made less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, the Commission may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(3) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
</P>
<P>(4) Except for requesters seeking records for a commercial use, the Commission must provide without charge:
</P>
<P>(i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The first two hours of search.
</P>
<P>(5) No fee will be charged when the total fee, after deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, is equal to or less than $25.00.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00.</I> (1) When the Commission determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed in accordance with this section will exceed $25.00, the Commission must notify the requester of the actual or estimated amount of the fees, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review, or duplication, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. If only a portion of the fee can be estimated readily, the Commission will advise the requester accordingly. If the request is not for noncommercial use, the notice will specify that the requester is entitled to the statutory entitlements of 100 pages of duplication at no charge and, if the requester is charged search fees, two hours of search time at no charge, and will advise the requester whether those entitlements have been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) If the agency notifies the requester that the actual or estimated fees are in excess of $25.00, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the requester commits in writing to pay the actual or estimated total fee, or designates some amount of fees the requester is willing to pay, or in the case of a noncommercial use requester who has not yet been provided with the requester's statutory entitlements, designates that the requester seeks only that which can be provided by the statutory entitlements. The requester must provide the commitment or designation in writing, and must, when applicable, designate an exact dollar amount the requester is willing to pay. The Commission is not required to accept payments in installments.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester has indicated a willingness to pay some designated amount of fees, but the Commission estimates that the total fee will exceed that amount, the Commission will toll the processing of the request when it notifies the requester of the estimated fees in excess of the amount the requester has indicated a willingness to pay. The Commission will inquire whether the requester wishes to revise the amount of fees the requester is willing to pay or modify the request. Once the requester responds, the time to respond will resume from where it was at the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission must make available its FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA professional to assist any requester in reformulating a request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Charges for other services.</I> Although not required to provide special services, if the Commission chooses to do so as a matter of administrative discretion, the direct costs of providing the service will be charged. Examples of such services include certifying that records are true copies, providing multiple copies of the same document, or sending records by means other than first class mail. The Commission charges for the following special services:
</P>
<P>(1) For attestation of documents—$25.00 per authenticating affidavit or declaration. Additionally, there may be search and review charges assessed in accordance with the rates listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For certification of document—$50.00 per authenticating affidavit or declaration. Additionally, there may be search and review charges assessed in accordance with the rates listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Charging interest.</I> The Commission may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the billing date until payment is received by the agency. Agencies must follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982, 5 U.S.C. 5514, as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> When the Commission reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting in concert is attempting to divide a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the Commission may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The Commission may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made in order to avoid fees. For requests separated by a longer period, the Commission will aggregate them only where there is a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in view of all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters cannot be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Advance payments.</I> (1) For requests other than those described in paragraph (i)(2) or (3) of this section, the Commission cannot require the requester to make an advance payment before work is commenced or continued on a request. Payment owed for work already completed (for example, payment before copies are sent to a requester) is not an advance payment.
</P>
<P>(2) When the Commission determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will exceed $250.00, it may require that the requester make an advance payment up to the amount of the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request. The Commission may elect to process the request prior to collecting fees when it receives a satisfactory assurance of full payment from a requester with a history of prompt payment.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to the Commission within 30 calendar days of the billing date, the Commission may require that the requester pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest on that prior request, and the Commission may require that the requester make an advance payment of the full amount of any anticipated fee before the Commission begins to process a new request or continues to process a pending request or any pending appeal. Where the Commission has a reasonable basis to believe that a requester has misrepresented the requester's identity in order to avoid paying outstanding fees, it may require that the requester provide proof of identity.
</P>
<P>(4) In cases in which the Commission requires advance payment, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the required payment is received. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of the Commission's fee determination, the request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other statutes specifically providing for fees.</I> The fee schedule of this section does not apply to fees charged under any statute that specifically requires an agency to set and collect fees for particular types of records. In instances where records responsive to a request are subject to a statutorily-based fee schedule program, the Commission must inform the requester of the contact information for that program.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) Requesters may seek a waiver of fees by submitting a written application demonstrating how disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission must furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a reduced rate when it determines, based on all available information, that the factors described in paragraphs (k)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested information would shed light on the operations or activities of the government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure of the requested information would be likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. The Commission will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, the Commission will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The Commission must identify whether the requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters must be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(B) If there is an identified commercial interest, the Commission must determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request. A waiver or reduction of fees is justified when the requirements of paragraphs (k)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are satisfied and any commercial interest is not the primary interest furthered by the request. The Commission ordinarily will presume that when a news media requester has satisfied factors set forth in paragraphs (k)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver must be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted to the Commission and should address the criteria referenced above. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95875, Dec. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.16" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.16   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.17" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.17   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) 5 U.S.C. 552 exempts from all of its publication and disclosure requirements nine categories of records which are described in 552(b). These categories include such matters as national defense and foreign policy information, investigatory files, internal procedures and communications, materials exempted from disclosure by other statutes, information given in confidence, and matters involving personal privacy. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall withhold information under the FOIA only if:
</P>
<P>(1) It reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption; or
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Commission shall consider whether partial disclosure of information is possible whenever it determines that a full disclosure of a requested record is not possible; and
</P>
<P>(2) Take reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release nonexempt information.
</P>
<P>(d) Paragraph (c) of this section does not require disclosure of information that is otherwise prohibited from disclosure by law, or otherwise exempted from disclosure under Exemption 3.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 706(b) of title VII provides that the Commission shall not make public charges which have been filed. It also provides that (subsequent to the filing of a charge, an investigation, and a finding that there is reasonable cause to believe that the charge is true) nothing said or done during and as a part of the Commission's endeavors to eliminate any alleged unlawful employment practice by informal methods of conference, conciliation, and persuasion may be made public by the Commission without the written consent of the parties concerned; nor may it be used as evidence in a subsequent proceeding. Any officer or employee of the Commission who shall make public in any manner whatever any information in violation of section 706(b) shall be deemed guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction thereof shall be fined not more than $1,000 or imprisoned not more than 1 year. 
</P>
<P>(f) Section 709 of title VII authorizes the Commission to conduct investigations of charges filed under section 706, engage in cooperative efforts with State and local agencies charged with the administration of State or local fair employment practices laws, and issue regulations concerning reports and record-keeping. Section (e) of section 709 provides that it shall be unlawful for any officer or employee of the Commission to make public in any manner whatever any information obtained by the Commission pursuant to its authority under section 709 prior to the institution of any proceeding under the act involving such information. Any officer or employee of the Commission who shall make public in any manner whatever any information in violation of section 709(e) shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction thereof shall be fined not more than $1,000 or imprisoned not more than 1 year. 
</P>
<P>(g) Special disclosure rules apply to the case files for charging parties, aggrieved persons on whose behalf a charge has been filed, and entities against whom charges have been filed. The special disclosure rules are available in the public reading areas of the Commission. Under sections 706 and 709, case files involved in the administrative process of the Commission are not available to the public. 
</P>
<P>(h) Each executed statistical reporting form required under part 1602 of this chapter, such as Employer Information Report EEO-1, etc., relating to a particular employer is exempt from disclosure to the public prior to the institution of a proceeding under title VII involving information from such form. 
</P>
<P>(i) Section 107 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12117); section 207(a) of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (42 U.S.C. 2000ff-6); and section 104 of the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act (42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2) explicitly adopt the powers, remedies, and procedures set forth in sections 706 and 709 of title VII. Accordingly, the prohibitions on disclosure contained in sections 706 and 709 of title VII as outlined in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, apply with equal force to requests for information related to charges and executed statistical reporting forms filed with the Commission under the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, or the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act.
</P>
<P>(j) Requests for information relating to open case files covering alleged violations of the Equal Pay Act (29 U.S.C. 206(b)) or the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (29 U.S.C. 621 <I>et seq.</I>) will ordinarily be denied under the seventh exemption of the Freedom of Information Act as investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes. 
</P>
<P>(k) The medical, financial, and personnel files of employees of the Commission are exempt from disclosure to the public. 
</P>
<P>(l) The deliberative process privilege attached to Exemption 5 shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8171, Feb. 26, 1975, as amended at 45 FR 40605, June 16, 1980; 56 FR 29579, June 28, 1991; 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 81 FR 95878, Dec. 29, 2016; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.18" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.18   Information to be disclosed.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will provide the following information to the public. This information will also be made available electronically: 
</P>
<P>(a) The Commission will make available for inspection and copying certain tabulations of aggregate industry, area, and other statistics derived from the Commission's reporting programs authorized by section 709(c) of title VII, provide that such tabulations: Were previously compiled by the Commission and are available in documentary form; comprise an aggregation of data from not less than three responding entities; and, do not reveal the identity of an individual or dominant entity in a particular industry or area; 
</P>
<P>(b) All blank forms used by the Commission; 
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to the restrictions and procedures set forth in § 1610.19, all signed contracts, final bids on all signed contracts, and agreements between the Commission and State or local agencies charged with the administration of State or local fair employment practices laws; 
</P>
<P>(d) All final reports that do not contain statutorily confidential material in a recognizable form; 
</P>
<P>(e) All agency correspondence to members of the public, Members of Congress, or other persons not government employees or special government employees, except those containing information that would produce an invasion of privacy if made public; 
</P>
<P>(f) All administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect members of the public unless the materials are promptly published and copies offered for sale; and 
</P>
<P>(g) All final votes of each Commissioner, for every Commission meeting, except for votes pertaining to filing suit against respondents until such litigation is commenced. 
</P>
<P>(h) Underlying annual FOIA report data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 29579, June 28, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 1342, Jan. 9, 1998; 78 FR 36653, June 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.19" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.19   Predisclosure notification procedures for confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) Confidential commercial information means commercial or financial information obtained by the agency from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) Submitter means any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides confidential commercial information, either directly or indirectly to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> A submitter of confidential commercial information must use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings, at the time of submission, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When notice to submitters is required.</I> (1) The Commission must promptly provide written notice to the submitter of confidential commercial information whenever records containing such information are requested under the FOIA if the Commission determines that it may be required to disclose the records, provided—
</P>
<P>(i) The requested information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission has a reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4, but has not yet determined whether the information is protected from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice must either describe the commercial information requested or include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information. In cases involving a voluminous number of submitters, the Commission may post or publish a notice in a place or manner reasonably likely to inform the submitters of the proposed disclosure, instead of sending individual notifications.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to submitter notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements of this section do not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA, and therefore will not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute other than the FOIA or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous. In such case, the Commission must give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information within 10 days prior to a specified disclosure date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> (1) The Commission must specify a reasonable time period within which the submitter must respond to the notice referenced above.
</P>
<P>(2) If a submitter has any objections to disclosure, it should provide the agency a detailed written statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption of the FOIA. In order to rely on Exemption 4 as basis for nondisclosure, the submitter must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is confidential.
</P>
<P>(3) A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. The Commission is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this subpart may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis of objections.</I> The Commission must consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose the requested information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> Whenever the Commission decides to disclose information over the objection of a submitter, the Commission must provide the submitter written notice, which must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons why each of the submitter's disclosure objections was not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed or copies of the records as the Commission intends to release them; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which must be 10 days after the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of confidential commercial information, the Commission must promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requester notification.</I> The Commission must notify the requester whenever it provides the submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure; whenever it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95878, Dec. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.20" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.21" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.1.26.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.21   Annual report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Legal Counsel shall, on or before February 1, submit individual Freedom of Information Act reports for each principal agency FOIA component and one for the entire agency covering the preceding fiscal year to the Attorney General of the United States and to the director of the Office of Information Government Services. The reports shall include those matters required by 5 U.S.C. 552(e), and shall be made available electronically on the agency Web site.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will make each such report available for public inspection in an electronic format. In addition, the Commission will make the raw statistical data used in each report available in a timely manner for public inspection in an electronic format, which will be available—
</P>
<P>(1) Without charge, license, or registration requirement;
</P>
<P>(2) In an aggregated, searchable format; and
</P>
<P>(3) In a format that may be downloaded in bulk.
</P>
<P>(c) When and as directed by the Attorney General, the Chief FOIA Officer, through the Office of the Chair, shall review and report to the Attorney General on the agency's performance in implementing its responsibilities under FOIA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 36653, June 19, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 95879, Dec. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Production in Response to Subpenas or Demands of Courts or Other Authorities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.30" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.30   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains the regulations of the Commission concerning procedures to be followed when a subpena, order, or other demand (hereinafter in this subpart referred to as a “demand”) of a court or other authority is issued for the production or disclosure of (a) any material contained in the files of the Commission; (b) any information relating to material contained in the files of the Commission; or (c) any information or material acquired by any person while such person was an employee of the Commission as a part of the performance of his official duties or because of his official status. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 16261, Nov. 29, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.32" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.32   Production prohibited unless approved by the Legal Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>No employee or former employee of the Commission shall, in response to a demand of a court or other authority, produce any material contained in the files of the Commission or disclose any information or produce any material acquired as part of the performance of his official duties or because of his official status without the prior approval of the Legal Counsel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 16261, Nov. 29, 1967, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.34" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.34   Procedure in the event of a demand for production or disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a demand is made upon an employee or former employee of the Commission for the production of material or the disclosure of information described in § 1610.30, he shall immediately notify the Legal Counsel. If possible, the Legal Counsel shall be notified before the employee or former employee concerned replies to or appears before the court or other authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) If response to the demand is required before instructions from the Legal Counsel are received, an attorney designated for that purpose by the Commission shall appear with the employee or former employee upon whom the demand has been made, and shall furnish the court or other authority with a copy of the regulations contained in this part and inform the court or other authority that the demand has been or is being, as the case may be, referred for prompt consideration by the Legal Counsel. The court or other authority shall be requested respectfully to stay the demand pending receipt of the requested instructions from the Legal Counsel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 16261, Nov. 29, 1967, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982; 63 FR 1342, Jan. 9, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.36" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.10.2.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.36   Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.</HEAD>
<P>If the court or other authority declines to stay the effect of the demand in response to a request made in accordance with § 1610.34(b) pending receipt of instructions from the Legal Counsel, or if the court or other authority rules that the demand must be complied with irrespective of the instructions from the Legal Counsel not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the employee or former employee upon whom the demand has been made shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand (United States ex rel. <I>Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 16261, Nov. 29, 1967, as amended at 47 FR 46275, Oct. 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1611" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1611—PRIVACY ACT REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 7949, Feb. 8, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1611.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the regulations of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (the Commission) implementing the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. It sets forth the basic responsibilities of the Commission under the Privacy Act (the Act) and offers guidance to members of the public who wish to exercise any of the rights established by the Act with regard to records maintained by the Commission. All records contained in system EEOC/GOVT-1, including those maintained by other agencies, are subject to the Commission's Privacy Act regulations. Requests for access to, an accounting of disclosures for, or amendment of records in EEOC/GOVT-1 must be processed by agency personnel in accordance with this part. Commission records that are contained in a government-wide system of records established by the U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM), the General Services Administration (GSA), the Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB), the Office of Government Ethics (OGE) or the Department of Labor (DOL) for which those agencies have published systems notices are subject to the publishing agency's Privacy Act regulations. Where the government-wide systems notices permit access to these records through the employing agency, an individual should submit requests for access to, for amendment of or for an accounting of disclosures to the Commission offices as indicated in § 1611.3(b). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 29580, June 28, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the terms <I>individual, maintain, record,</I> and <I>system of records</I> shall have the meanings set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.3   Procedures for requests pertaining to individual records in a record system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who wishes to be notified if a system of records maintained by the Commission contains any record pertaining to him or her, or to request access to such record or to request an accounting of disclosures made of such record, shall submit a written request, either in person or by mail, in accordance with the instructions set forth in the system notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The request shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the individual making the request; 
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the system of records (as set forth in the system notice to which the request relates); 
</P>
<P>(3) Any other information specified in the system notice; and 
</P>
<P>(4) When the request is for access to records, a statement indicating whether the requester desires to make a personal inspection of the records or be supplied with copies by mail. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests pertaining to records contained in a system of records established by the Commission and for which the Commission has published a system notice should be submitted to the person or office indicated in the system notice. Requests pertaining to Commission records contained in the government-wide systems of records listed below should be submitted as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) For systems OPM/GOVT-1 (General Personnel Records), OPM/GOVT-2 (Employee Performance File System Records), OPM/GOVT-3 (Records of Adverse Actions and Actions Based on Unacceptable Performance), OPM/GOVT-5 (Recruiting, Examining and Placement Records), OPM/GOVT-6 (Personnel Research and Test Validation Records), OPM/GOVT-9 (Files on Position Classification Appeals, Job Grading Appeals and Retained Grade or Pay Appeals), OPM/GOVT-10 (Employee Medical File System Records) and DOL/ESA-13 (Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Federal Employees' Compensation File), to the Director of Personnel Management Services, EEOC, 131 M Street, NE., Washington, DC 20507; 
</P>
<P>(2) For systems OGE/GOVT-1 (Executive Branch Public Financial Disclosure Reports and Other Ethics Program Records), OGE/GOVT-2 (Confidential Statements of Employment and Financial Interests) and MSPB/GOVT-1 (Appeal and Case Records), to the Legal Counsel, EEOC, 131 M Street, NE., Washington, DC 20507; 
</P>
<P>(3) For system OPM/GOVT-7 (Applicant Race, Sex, National Origin, and Disability Status Records), to the Director of the Office of Equal Employment Opportunity, EEOC, 131 M Street NE., Washington, DC 20507; 
</P>
<P>(4) For systems GSA/GOVT-3 (Travel Charge Card Program) and GSA/GOVT-4 (Contracted Travel Services Program) to the Director of Financial and Resource Management Services, EEOC, 131 M Street, NE., Washington, DC 20507. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person whose request for access under paragraph (a) of this section is denied, may appeal that denial in accordance with § 1611.5(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 7949, Feb. 8, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 29581, June 28, 1991; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.4   Times, places, and requirements for identification of individuals making requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person submitting a request for access under § 1611.3 has asked that the Commission authorize a personal inspection of records pertaining to that person, and the appropriate Commission official has granted that request the requester shall present himself or herself at the time and place specified in the Commission's response or arrange another, mutually convenient time with the appropriate Commission official. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to inspection of the records, the requester shall present sufficient personal identification (e.g., driver's license, employee identification card, social security card, credit cards). If the requester is unable to provide such identification, the requester shall complete and sign in the presence of a Commission official a signed statement asserting his or her identity and stipulating that he or she understands that knowingly or willfully seeking or obtaining access to records about another individual under false pretenses is a misdemeanor punishable by fine up to $5,000. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who has requested access under § 1611.3 to records through personal inspection, and who wishes to be accompanied by another person or persons during this inspection, shall submit a written statement authorizing disclosure of the record in such person's or person's presence.
</P>
<P>(d) If an individual submitting a request by mail under § 1611.3 wishes to have copies furnished by mail, he or she must include with the request a signed and notarized statement asserting his or her identity and stipulating that he or she understands that knowlingly or willfully seeking or obtaining access to records about another individual under false pretenses is a misdemeanor punishable by fine up to $5,000.
</P>
<P>(e) A request filed by the parent of any minor or the legal guardian of any incompetent person shall: state the relationship of the requester to the individual to whom the record pertains; present sufficient identification; and, if not evident from information already available to the Commission, present appropriate proof of the relationship or guardianship.
</P>
<P>(f) A person making a request pursuant to a power of attorney must possess a specific power of attorney to make that request.
</P>
<P>(g) No verification of identity will be required where the records sought are publicly available under the Freedom of Information Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.5   Disclosure of requested information to individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of request for notification as to whether the Commission maintains a record about an individual and/or request for access to such record: 
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate Commission official shall acknowledge such request in writing within 10 working days of receipt of the request. Wherever practicable, the acknowledgement should contain the notification and/or determination required in paragraph (a) (2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate Commission official shall provide, within 30 working days of receipt of the request, written notification to the requester as to the existence of the records and/or a determination as to whether or not access will be granted. In some cases, such as where records have to be recalled from the Federal Records Center, notification and/or a determination of access may be delayed. In the event of such a delay, the Commission official shall inform the requester of this fact, the reasons for the delay, and an estimate of the date on which notification and/or a determination will be forthcoming. 
</P>
<P>(3) If access to a record is granted, the determination shall indicate when and where the record will be available for personal inspection. If a copy of the record has been requested, the Commission official shall mail that copy or retain it at the Commission to present to the individual, upon receipt of a check or money order in an amount computed pursuant to § 1611.11. 
</P>
<P>(4) When access to a record is to be granted, the appropriate Commission official will normally provide access within 30 working days of receipt of the request unless, for good cause shown, he or she is unable to do so, in which case the requester shall be informed within 30 working days of receipt of the request as to those reasons and when it is anticipated that access will be granted. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission shall not deny any request under § 1611.3 concerning the existence of records about the requester in any system of records it maintains, or any request for access to such records, unless that system is exempted from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a in §§ 1611.13, 1611.14, or 1611.15. 
</P>
<P>(6) If the Commission receives a request pursuant to § 1611.3 for access to records in a system of records it maintains which is so exempt, the appropriate Commission official shall deny the request. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request, the appropriate Commission official shall make available an accounting of disclosures pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), unless that system is exempted from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a in §§ 1611.13, 1611.14, or 1611.15. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a request for access to records is denied pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the determination shall specify the reasons for the denial and advise the individual how to appeal the denial. If the request pertains to a system of records for which the Commission has published a system notice, any appeal must be submitted in writing to the Legal Counsel, EEOC, 131 M Street, NE., Washington, DC 20507. If the request pertains to a government-wide system of records any appeal should be in writing, identified as a Privacy Act appeal and submitted as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) For systems established by OPM and for which OPM has published a system notice, to the Assistant Director for Workforce Information, Personnel Systems and Oversight Group, OPM, 1900 E Street, NW., Washington, DC 20415. The OPM Privacy Act regulations, 5 CFR 297.207, shall govern such appeals. 
</P>
<P>(2) For systems established by OGE and for which OGE has published a system notice, to the Privacy Act Officer, Office of Government Ethics, 1201 New York Avenue, NW., Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005-3917. The OGE Privacy Act regulations, 5 CFR part 2606, shall govern such appeals. 
</P>
<P>(3) For the system established by MSPB and for which MSPB has published a system notice, to the Deputy Executive Director for Management, U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, 1120 Vermont Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20419. The MSPB Privacy Act regulations, 5 CFR part 1205, shall govern such appeals. 
</P>
<P>(4) For systems established by GSA and for which GSA has published a system notice, to GSA Privacy Act Officer, General Services Administration (ATRAI), Washington, DC 20405. The GSA Privacy Act regulations, 41 CFR 105-64.301-5, shall govern such appeals. 
</P>
<P>(5) For the system established by DOL and for which DOL has published a system notice, to the Solicitor of Labor, Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210. The DOL Privacy Act regulations, 29 CFR 70a.9, shall govern such appeals. 
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that access to a record is denied on appeal by the Legal Counsel or the Legal Counsel's designee, the requestor shall be advised of his or her right to bring a civil action in Federal district court for review of the denial in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(g). 
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in 5 U.S.C. 552a or this part allows an individual access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 7949, Feb. 8, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 29581, June 28, 1991; ; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009; 74 FR 6831, Feb. 11, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.6   Special procedures: Medical records.</HEAD>
<P>In the event the Commission receives a request pursuant to § 1611.3 for access to medical records (including psychological records) whose disclosure of which the appropriate Commission official determines could be harmful to the individual to whom they relate, he or she may refuse to disclose the records directly to the requester but shall transmit them to a physician designated by that individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.7   Request for correction or amendment to record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who wishes to request correction or amendment of any record pertaining to him or her which is contained in a system of records maintained by the Commission, shall submit that request in writing in accordance with the instructions set forth in the system notice for that system of records. If the request is submitted by mail, the envelope should be clearly labeled “Personal Information Amendment.” The request shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the individual making the request; 
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the system of records as set forth in the system notice to which the request relates; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the nature (e.g., modification, addition or deletion) and substance of the correction or amendment requested; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any other information specified in the system notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person submitting a request pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall include sufficient information in support of that request to allow the Commission to apply the standards set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a (e). 
</P>
<P>(c) All requests to amend pertaining to personnel records described in § 1611.3(b) shall conform to the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and may be directed to the appropriate officials as indicated in § 1611.3(b). Such requests may also be directed to the system manager specified in the OPM's systems notices.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person whose request under paragraph (a) of this section is denied may appeal that denial in accordance with § 1611.9(a). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 7949, Feb. 8, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 29581, June 28, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.8   Agency review of request for correction or amendment to record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Commission receives a request for amendment or correction under § 1611.7(a), the appropriate Commission official shall acknowledge that request in writing within 10 working days of receipt. He or she shall promptly either: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine to grant all or any portion of a request for correction or amendment; and: 
</P>
<P>(i) Advise the individual of that determination; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Make the requested correction or amendment; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Inform any person or agency outside the Commission to whom the record has been disclosed, and where an accounting of that disclosure is maintained in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(c), of the occurrence and substance of the correction or amendments, or; 
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the requester of the refusal to amend the record in accordance with the request; the reason for the refusal; and the procedures whereby the requester can appeal the refusal to the Legal Counsel of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commission official informs the requester of the determination within the 10-day deadline, a separate acknowledgement is not required. 
</P>
<P>(c) In conducting the review of a request for correction or amendment, the Commission official shall be guided by the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e). 
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that the Commission receives a notice of correction or amendment from another agency that pertains to records maintained by the Commission, the Commission shall make the appropriate correction or amendment to its records and comply with paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) Requests for amendment or correction of records maintained in the government-wide systems of records listed in § 1611.5(c) shall be governed by the appropriate agency's regulations cited in that paragraph. Requests for amendment or correction of records maintained by other agencies in system EEOC/GOVT-1 shall be governed by the Commission's regulations in this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 7949, Feb. 8, 1977, as amended at 56 FR 29581, June 28, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.9   Appeal of initial adverse agency determination on correction or amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a request for correction or amendment of a record in a system of records established by EEOC is denied, the requester may appeal the determination in writing to the Legal Counsel, EEOC, 131 M Street, NE., Washington, DC 20507. If the request pertains to a record that is contained in the government-wide systems of records listed in § 1611.5(c), an appeal must be made in accordance with the appropriate agency's regulations cited in that paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Legal Counsel or the Legal Counsel's designee shall make a final determination with regard to an appeal submitted under paragraph (a) of this section not later than 30 working days from the date on which the individual requests a review, unless for good cause shown, this 30-day period is extended and the requester is notified of the reasons for the extension and of the estimated date on which a final determination will be made. Such extensions will be used only in exceptional circumstances and will not normally exceed 30 working days. 
</P>
<P>(c) In conducting the review of an appeal submitted under paragraph (a) of this section, the Legal Counsel or the Legal Counsel's designee shall be guided by the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e). 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Legal Counsel or the Legal Counsel's designee determines to grant all or any portion of a request on an appeal submitted under paragraph (a) of this section, he or she shall so inform the requester, and the appropriate Commission official shall comply with the procedures set forth in § 1611.8(a)(1)(ii) and (iii). 
</P>
<P>(e) If the Legal Counsel or the Legal Counsel's designee determines in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section not to grant all or any portion of a request on an appeal submitted under paragraph (a) of this section, he or she shall inform the requester: 
</P>
<P>(1) Of this determination and the reasons for it; 
</P>
<P>(2) Of the requester's right to file a concise statement of reasons for disagreement with the determination of the Legal Counsel or the Legal Counsel's designee; 
</P>
<P>(3) That such statements of disagreement will be made available to anyone to whom the record is subsequently disclosed, together with (if the Legal Counsel or Legal Counsel's designee deems it appropriate) a brief statement summarizing the Legal Counsel or Legal Counsel's designee's reasons for refusing to amend the record; 
</P>
<P>(4) That prior recipients of the disputed record will be provided with a copy of the statement of disagreement together with (if the Legal Counsel or Legal Counsel's designee deems it appropriate) a brief statement of the Legal Counsel or Legal Counsel's designee's reasons for refusing to amend the record, to the extent that an accounting of disclosure is maintained under 5 U.S.C. 552a(c); and 
</P>
<P>(5) Of the requester's right to file a civil action in Federal district court to seek a review of the determination of the Legal Counsel or the Legal Counsel's designee in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(g). 
</P>
<P>(f) The Legal Counsel or the Legal Counsel's designee shall ensure that any statements of disagreement submitted by a requestor are made available or distributed in accordance with paragraphs (e) (3) and (4) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 29582, June 28, 1991, as amended by; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.10   Disclosure of record to person other than the individual to whom it pertains.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall not disclose any record which is contained in a system of records it maintains, by any means of communication to any person or to another agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of the individual to whom the record pertains, unless the disclosure is authorized by one or more provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(b). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.11   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No fee shall be charged for searches necessary to locate records. No charge shall be made if the total fees authorized are less than $1.00. Fees shall be charged for services rendered under this part as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For copies made by photocopy—$0.15 per page (maximum of 10 copies). For copies prepared by computer, such as tapes or printouts, EEOC will charge the direct cost incurred by the agency, including operator time. For other forms of duplication, EEOC will charge the actual costs of that duplication.
</P>
<P>(2) For attestation of documents—$25.00 per authenticating affidavit or declaration.
</P>
<P>(3) For certification of documents—$50.00 per authenticating affidavit or declaration.
</P>
<P>(b) All required fees shall be paid in full prior to issuance of requested copies of records. Fees are payable to “Treasurer of the United States.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 11309, Mar. 7, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.12   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>The criminal penalties which have been established for violations of the Privacy Act of 1974 are set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552a(i). Penalties are applicable to any officer or employee of the Commission; to contractors and employees of such contractors who enter into contracts with the Commission on or after September 27, 1975, and who are considered to be employees of the Commission within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 552a(m); and to any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from the Commission under false pretenses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.13   Specific Exemptions—Charge and complaint files.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to subsection (k)(2) of the Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), systems EEOC-1 (Age and Equal Pay Act Discrimination Case Files), EEOC-3 (Title VII, Americans with Disabilities Act, GINA, and PWFA Discrimination Case Files), EEOC-15 (Internal Harassment Inquiries) and EEOC/GOVT-1 (Equal Employment Opportunity Complaint Records and Appeal Records) are exempt from subsections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f) of the Privacy Act. The Commission has determined to exempt these systems from the above-named provisions of the Privacy Act for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(a) The files in these systems contain information obtained by the Commission and other Federal agencies in the course of harassment inquiries, and investigations of charges and complaints that violations of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act, the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, the Equal Pay Act, the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Rehabilitation Act, the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, and the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act have occurred. It would impede the law enforcement activities of the Commission and other agencies if these provisions of the Act applied to such records.
</P>
<P>(b) The subject individuals of the files in these systems know that the Commission or their employing agencies are maintaining a file on their charge, complaint, or inquiry, and the general nature of the information contained in it.
</P>
<P>(c) Subject individuals of the files in EEOC-1 (Age and Equal Pay Act Discrimination Case Files), EEOC-3 (Title VII, Americans with Disabilities Act, GINA, and PWFA Discrimination Case Files), and EEOC/GOVT-1 (Equal Employment Opportunity Complaint Records and Appeal Records) have been provided a means of access to their records by the Freedom of Information Act. Subject individuals of the charge files in system EEOC-3 have also been provided a means of access to their records by section 83 of the Commission's Compliance Manual. Subject individuals of the case files in system EEOC/GOVT-1 have also been provided a means of access to their records by the Commission's Equal Employment Opportunity in the Federal Government regulation, 29 CFR 1614.108(f).
</P>
<P>(d) Many of the records contained in system EEOC/GOVT-1 are obtained from other systems of records. If such records are incorrect, it would be more appropriate for an individual to seek to amend or correct those records in their primary filing location so that notice of the correction can be given to all recipients of that information.
</P>
<P>(e) Subject individuals of the files in each of these systems have access to relevant information provided by the allegedly discriminating employer, accuser or harasser as part of the investigatory process and are given the opportunity to explain or contradict such information and to submit any responsive evidence of their own. To allow such individuals the additional right to amend or correct the records submitted by the allegedly discriminatory employer, accuser or harasser would undermine the investigative process and destroy the integrity of the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(f) The Commission has determined that the exemption of these four systems of records from subsections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I) and (f) of the Privacy Act is necessary for the agency's law enforcement efforts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 72373, Dec. 5, 2002, as amended at 74 FR 63983, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11170, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.14   Exemptions—Office of Inspector General Files.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The system of records entitled Office of Inspector General Investigative Files consists, in part, of information compiled by the OIG for the purpose of criminal law enforcement investigations. Therefore, to the extent that information in this system falls within the scope of Exemption (j)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), this system of records is exempt from the requirements of the following subsections of the Privacy Act, for the reasons stated below.
</P>
<P>(1) From subsection (c)(3), because release of an accounting of disclosures to an individual who is the subject of an investigation could reveal the nature and scope of the investigation and could result in the altering or destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, and other evasive actions that could impede or compromise the investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) From subsection (d)(1), because release of investigative records to an individual who is the subject of an investigation could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of third parties, reveal the identity of confidential sources, or reveal sensitive investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) From subsection (d)(2), because amendment or correction of investigative records could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, or could impose an impossible administrative and investigative burden by requiring the OIG to continuously retrograde its investigations attempting to resolve questions of accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness.
</P>
<P>(4) From subsection (e)(1), because it is often impossible to determine relevance or necessity of information in the early stages of an investigation. The value of such information is a question of judgment and timing; what appears relevant and necessary when collected may ultimately be evaluated and viewed as irrelevant and unnecessary to an investigation. In addition, the OIG may obtain information concerning the violation of laws other than those within the scope of its jurisdiction. In the interest of effective law enforcement, the OIG should retain this information because it may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity and provide leads for other law enforcement agencies. Further, in obtaining evidence during an investigation, information may be provided to the OIG which relates to matters incidental to the main purpose of the investigation but which may be pertinent to the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. Such information cannot readily be identified.
</P>
<P>(5) From subsection (e)(2), because in a law enforcement investigation it is usually counterproductive to collect information to the greatest extent practicable from the subject thereof. It is not always feasible to rely upon the subject of an investigation as a source for information which may implicate him or her in illegal activities. In addition, collecting information directly from the subject could seriously compromise an investigation by prematurely revealing its nature and scope, or could provide the subject with an opportunity to conceal criminal activities, or intimidate potential sources, in order to avoid apprehension.
</P>
<P>(6) From subsection (e)(3), because providing such notice to the subject of an investigation, or to other individual sources, could seriously compromise the investigation by prematurely revealing its nature and scope, or could inhibit cooperation, permit the subject to evade apprehension, or cause interference with undercover activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific.</I> The system of records entitled Office of Inspector General Investigative Files consists, in part, of investigatory material compiled by the OIG for law enforcement purposes. Therefore, to the extent that information in this system falls within the coverage of exemption (k)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), this system of records is exempt from the requirements of the following subsections of the Privacy Act, for the reasons stated below.
</P>
<P>(1) From subsection (c)(3), because release of an accounting of disclosures to an individual who is the subject of an investigation could reveal the nature and scope of the investigation and could result in the altering or destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, and other evasive actions that could impede or compromise the investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) From subsection (d)(1), because release of investigative records to an individual who is the subject of an investigation could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of third parties, reveal the identity of confidential sources, or reveal sensitive investigative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) From subsection (d)(2), because amendment or correction of investigative records could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, or could impose an impossible administrative and investigative burden by requiring the OIG to continuously retrograde its investigations attempting to resolve questions of accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness.
</P>
<P>(4) From subsection (e)(1), because it is often impossible to determine relevance or necessity of information in the early stages of an investigation. The value of such information is a question of judgment and timing; what appears relevant and necessary when collected may ultimately be evaluated and viewed as irrelevant and unnecessary to investigation. In addition, the OIG may obtain information concerning the violation of laws other than those within the scope of its jurisdiction. In the interest of effective law enforcement, the OIG could retain this information because it may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity and provide leads for other law enforcement agencies. Further, in obtaining evidence during an investigation, information may be provided to the OIG which relates to matters incidental to the main purpose of the investigation but which may be pertinent to the investigative jurisdiction of another agency. Such information cannot readily be identified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 72374, Dec. 5, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1611.15" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.11.0.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1611.15   Exemption—EEOC Personnel Security Files.</HEAD>
<P>EEOC's system of records entitled EEOC Personnel Security Files contains records that document and support decisions regarding suitability, eligibility and fitness for service of applicants for EEOC employment and contract positions. The records include background investigation records. Pursuant to section (k)(5) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), this system of records is exempt from the provisions of sections (c)(3) and (d)(1) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (d)(1), but only to the extent that the accounting of disclosures or the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 6832, Feb. 11, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1612" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1612—GOVERNMENT IN THE SUNSHINE ACT REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552b, sec. 713, 78 Stat. 265; 42 U.S.C. 2000e-12.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 13830, Mar. 14, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1612.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the regulations of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (hereinafter, the Commission) implementing the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976, 5 U.S.C. 552b, which entitles the public to the fullest practicable information regarding the decision-making processes of the Commission. The provisions of this part set forth the basic responsibilities of the Commission with regard to the Commission's compliance with the requirements of the Sunshine Act and offers guidance to members of the public who wish to exercise any of the rights established by the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>agency</I> means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and any subdivision thereof authorized to act on its behalf.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>meeting</I> means the deliberations of at least three of the members of the agency, which is a quorum of Commissioners, where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official agency business (including conference calls), but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Individual members' consideration of official agency business circulated to the members in writing for disposition by notation or other separate, sequential consideration of Commission business by Commissioners,
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberations to decide whether a meeting or portion(s) of a meeting or series of meetings should be open or closed.
</P>
<P>(3) Deliberations to decide whether to withhold from disclosure information pertaining to a meeting or portions of a meeting or a series of meetings, or
</P>
<P>(4) Deliberations pertaining to any change in any meeting or to changes in the public announcement of such meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>member</I> means each Commissioner of the agency.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>entire membership</I> means the number of members holding office at the time of the meeting in question.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>public observation</I> means attendance at any meeting open to the public but does not include participation, or attempted participation, in such meeting in any manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.3   Open meeting policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All meetings of the Commission shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in § 1612.4, every portion of every meeting shall be open to public observation. Public observation does not include participation or disruptive conduct by observers. Any attempted participation or disruptive conduct by observers shall be cause for removal of persons so engaged at the discretion of the presiding member of the agency.
</P>
<P>(c) When holding open meetings, the Commission shall provide ample space, sufficient visibility, and adequate acoustics for persons in attendance at the meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) Observers may take still photographs and use portable sound recorders which do not require electrical outlets. Persons may take pictures only at the beginning of a meeting and may not use flash equipment. Permission to use non-battery operated sound recorders and visual recorders must be sought reasonably in advance of a meeting. Such request must be made in writing to the Commission through the Office of the Executive Secretariat. The Commission may permit such activities to be conducted under specified limitations which insure proper decorum and minimum interference with the meeting. In all cases, audio or visual recording shall not disrupt or otherwise impede the meeting.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.4   Exemptions to open meeting policy.</HEAD>
<P>Except in a case where the agency finds that the public interest requires otherwise, the provisions of § 1612.3 shall not apply to any meeting or portion of a meeting or portion of a meeting where the agency determines that an open meeting or the disclosure of information from such meeting or portions of a meeting is likely to:
</P>
<P>(a) Disclose matters that are (1) specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy and (2) in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order;
</P>
<P>(b) Relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the agency;
</P>
<P>(c) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552), provided that such statute (1) requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or (2) establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;
</P>
<P>(d) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(e) Involve accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
</P>
<P>(f) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(g) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would (1) interfere with enforcement proceedings, (2) deprive a persons of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication, (3) constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, (4) disclose the identity of a confidential source, and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, (5) disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or (6) endanger the life of physical safety of law enforcement personnel;
</P>
<P>(h) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions;
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action, except where the agency has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of the disclosed action, or where the agency is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final agency action on such proposal; or
</P>
<P>(j) Specifically concern the agency's issuance of a subpoena, or the agency's participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition by the agency of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures specified in 5 U.S.C. 554 or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.5   Closed meeting procedures: agency initiated requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any member of the agency, the Legal Counsel, or any other Commission official submitting an agenda item for the subject meeting may request that any meeting or portion thereof be closed to public observation for any of the reasons provided in § 1612.4 of this part by submitting a request in writing to the Commission through the Office of the Executive Secretariat no later than fourteen (14) calendar days prior to the meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of any request made under paragraph (a) of this section, the Executive Secretary shall submit the request to the Legal Counsel for certification in accordance with § 1612.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) No later than seven (7) calendar days prior to the scheduled meeting the members of the agency shall, upon consideration of the request submitted and consideration of the certified opinion of the Legal Counsel, determine by recorded vote whether to close the meeting or portion of the meeting to public observation. The members may vote less than seven days prior to the scheduled meeting where:
</P>
<P>(1) A majority of the members of the Commission determines by recorded vote that agency business requires that any such meeting or series of meetings be held at an earlier date.
</P>
<P>(2) A meeting is closed under the Commission's regulation as set forth in § 1612.13(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) A meeting is closed pursuant to a request made under § 1612.6 of this part and submitted less than seven days prior to the meeting.
</P>
<P>(4) There is a need to change the subject matter or the determination to open or close a meeting previously announced.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commissioner shall, at the same time, vote on whether to withhold any information pertaining to the meeting and otherwise required to be announced (§ 1612.7(a)(3)) or made publicly available (paragraphs (f) (2) and (3) of this section).
</P>
<P>(e) A meeting, portion of a meeting, or series of meetings may be closed to public observation only when a majority of the entire agency membership votes to take such action. Information pertaining to a meeting, portion of a meeting or series of meetings otherwise required to be announced (§ 1612.7(a)(3)) or made publicly available (paragraphs (f) (2) and (3) of this section) shall be withheld only when a majority of the entire agency membership votes to take such action.
</P>
<P>(f) With respect to each vote taken on whether a meeting should be open or closed, the agency shall, within one day of such vote, make publicly available the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A written copy of the vote of each participating Commission member on the question.
</P>
<P>(2) A written explanation of Commission action closing a meeting or portions thereof, and
</P>
<P>(3) The name and affiliation of any persons who are expected to attend a closed meeting.
</P>
<P>(g) The agency shall, within one day, make publicly available the vote of each Commission member on whether or not to withhold any of the information described in paragraphs (f) (2) or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) A separate vote shall be taken for each meeting proposed to be closed to the public and with respect to any information proposed to be withheld from the public. However, a single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings proposed to be closed to the public, and with respect to information concerning such series of meetings, if each meeting involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no later than thirty (30) calendar days after the first meeting in the series.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13830, Mar. 14, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 46276, Oct. 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.6   Closed meeting procedures: request initiated by an interested person.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person as defined in § 1612.2 of this part whose interest may be directly affected by a portion of a meeting may request that the agency close that portion of the meeting to the public for any of the reasons listed in § 1612.4(e), (f) or (g).
</P>
<P>(b) Any person described in paragraph (a) of this section who submits a request that a portion of a meeting be closed, shall submit such request to the Chairman of the agency at the following address: the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street NE., Washington, DC 20507. Such person shall state with particularity that portion of a meeting sought to be closed and the reasons for such request.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chairman, upon receipt of any request made under paragraph (a) of this section, shall furnish a copy of the request to:
</P>
<P>(1) Each member of the agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The Legal Counsel for certification in accordance with § 1612.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Any member of the agency may request agency action upon such request.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission shall, upon the request of any one of its members and consideration of the certified opinion of the Legal Counsel, determine by recorded vote whether to close such meeting or portion thereof.
</P>
<P>(f) The Chairman of the Commission shall promptly communicate to any person making a request to close a meeting or portion of a meeting under this section the agency's final disposition of such request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13830, Mar. 14, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 46276, Oct. 18, 1982; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.7   Public announcement of agency meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Public announcement of each meeting by the agency shall be accomplished by recorded telephone message at telephone number (202) 921-2750, and by posting such announcements on the Commission's public Web site located at <I>http://www.eeoc.gov</I> not later than one week prior to commencement of a meeting or the commencement of the first meeting in a series of meetings, except as otherwise provided in this section, and shall disclose:
</P>
<P>(1) The time of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The place of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) The subject matter of each portion of the meeting or series of meetings.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether any portion(s) of a meeting will be open or closed to public observation.
</P>
<P>(5) The name and telephone number of an official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a meeting is closed to the public, the agency may withhold and not announce the information specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, if and to the extent that it finds that such action is justified under § 1612.4. Information shall be withheld only by a recorded vote of a majority of the entire membership of the agency.
</P>
<P>(c) The announcement described in paragraph (a) of this section may be accomplished less than one week prior to the commencement of any meeting or series of meetings where:
</P>
<P>(1) A majority of the members of the Commission determines by recorded vote that agency business requires that any such meeting or series of meetings be held at an earlier date.
</P>
<P>(2) A meeting is closed under the Commission's regulation as set forth in § 1612.13(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) A meeting is closed pursuant to a request made under § 1612.6 of this part and submitted less than seven days prior to the meeting.
</P>
<P>(4) There has been a change in the subject matter or determination to open or close a meeting previously announced.
</P>
<FP>In these instances, the agency shall make public announcement at the earliest practicable time.
</FP>
<P>(d) Immediately following any public announcement accomplished under the provisions of this section, the agency shall submit a notice for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> disclosing:
</P>
<P>(1) The time of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The place of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) The subject matter of each portion of each meeting or series of meetings.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether any portion(s) of a meeting will be open or closed to public observation. 
</P>
<P>(5) The name and telephone number of an official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13830, Mar. 14, 1977, as amended at 55 FR 8140, Mar. 7, 1990; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009; 74 FR 42025, Aug. 20, 2009; 87 FR 14799, Mar. 16, 2022] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.8   Public announcement of changes in meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency is required to make a public announcement of any changes in its meeting or portion(s) thereof. If, after the announcement provided for in § 1612.7, the time or place of a meeting is changed or the meeting is cancelled, the agency will announce the change at the earliest practicable time. The subject matter or the determination to open or close the meeting may be changed only if (1) a majority of the entire membership of the agency determines by recorded vote that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible and (2) the agency publicly announces the change and the vote of each member upon such change at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(b) Immediately following any public announcement of any change accomplished under the provisions of this section, the agency shall submit a notice for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> disclosing: 
</P>
<P>(1) The time of the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(2) The place of the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(3) The subject matter of each portion of each meeting or series of meetings. 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether any portion(s) of a meeting is open or closed to public observation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any change in paragraphs (b) (1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) The name and telephone number of the official designated to respond to requests for information about any meeting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.9   Legal Counsel's certification in closing a meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon any proper request made pursuant to this part, that the agency close a meeting or portion(s) thereof, the Legal Counsel shall certify in writing to the agency, whether in his or her opinion the closing of a meeting or portion(s) thereof is proper under the provisions of this part and the terms of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b). If, in the opinion of the Legal Counsel, a meeting or portion(s) thereof is proper for closing under this part and the terms of the Government in the Sunshine Act, his or her certification of that opinion shall cite each applicable particular exemption of that Act and provision of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the certification of the Legal Counsel as described in paragraph (a) of this section together with a statement of the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of the relevant meeting or meetings, and the persons present, shall be maintained by the agency in a public file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13830, Mar. 14, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 46276, Oct. 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.10   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of any meeting or portion(s) thereof to be closed to public observation under the provisions of this part, the following records shall be maintained by the Executive Secretary of the agency: 
</P>
<P>(1) The certification of the Legal Counsel pursuant to § 1612.9 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement from the presiding officer of the meeting or portion(s) thereof setting forth the time and place of the meeting, and the persons present; 
</P>
<P>(3) A complete electronic recording adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting closed to the public observation, except that in a meeting closed pursuant to paragraph (h) or (j) of § 1612.4, the agency may maintain minutes in lieu of a recording. Such minutes shall fully, and clearly describe all matters discussed and shall provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any roll call vote. All documents considered in connection with any item shall be identified in the minutes. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the agency has determined that the meeting or portion(s) thereof may properly be closed to the public, the electronic recording or minutes shall not be made available to the public until such future time, if any, as it is determined by the Commission upon request, that the reasons for closing the meeting no longer pertain; Provided, however, that any separable portion of a recording or minutes will be made promptly available to the public if that portion does not contain information properly withheld under § 1612.4. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall maintain a copy of the electronic recording or minutes for a period of two years after the meeting, or until one year after the conclusion of the proceeding to which the meeting relates, whichever occurs later.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13830, Mar. 14, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 46276, Oct. 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.11   Public access to records.</HEAD>
<P>All requests for information shall be submitted in writing to the Chairman of the agency. Requests to inspect or copy the electronic recordings or minutes of agency meetings or portions thereof will be considered under the provisions of § 1612.4 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.12   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records provided to the public under this part shall be furnished at the expense of the party requesting copies of the recording or minutes, upon payment of the actual cost of duplication. 
</P>
<P>(b) All required fees shall be paid in full prior to issuance of requested copies of records. Fees are payable to the “Treasurer of the United States.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.13   Meetings closed by regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This paragraph constitutes the Commission's regulation promulgated pursuant to paragraph (d)(4) of the Government in the Sunshine Act and may be invoked by the agency to close meetings or portions thereof where the subject matter of such meeting or portion of a meeting is likely to involve: 
</P>
<P>(1) Matters pertaining to the issuance of subpoenas; 
</P>
<P>(2) Subpoena modification and revocation requests, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The Agency's participation in civil actions or proceedings pertaining thereto. 
</P>
<P>(b) When closing a meeting or portion thereof under the Commission's regulation set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, a majority of the Commission membership shall vote at or before the beginning of such meeting or portion thereof to do so. The vote to close a meeting by regulation shall be recorded and made publicly available. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission's determination to promulgate the regulation in paragraph (a) of this section is based upon a review of the agenda of Commission meetings for the two years prior to the promulgation of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(1) Since the Commission's practice of conducting weekly meetings began in 1975, proposed litigation against title VII respondents has been a regular agenda item. The tenth exemption of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(10), exempts the discussion of these matters from the open meeting requirements of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) Thus, the Commission has determined that a majority of its meetings or portions thereof may properly be closed to the public under the tenth exemption of the Sunshine Act, and that paragraph (d)(4) of the Sunshine Act is properly relied upon in promulgating the Commission's regulation in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1612.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.12.0.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1612.14   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may bring an action in a United States District Court to challenge or enforce the provisions of this part. Such action may be brought prior to or within sixty (60) calendar days after the meeting in question, except that if proper public announcement of the meeting is not made, the action may be instituted at any time within sixty (60) days after such announcement is made. An action may be brought where the agency meeting was held or in the District of Columbia. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1614" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1614—FEDERAL SECTOR EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 206(d), 633a, 791 and 794a; 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16, 2000ff-6(e), and 2000gg-2(e); E.O. 10577, 3 CFR, 1954-1958 Comp., p. 218; E.O. 11222, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 306; E.O. 11478, 3 CFR, 1969 Comp., p. 133; E.O. 12106, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 263; Reorg. Plan No. 1 of 1978, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 321.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Agency Program To Promote Equal Employment Opportunity</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.101" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.101   General policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of the Government of the United States to provide equal opportunity in employment for all persons, to prohibit discrimination in employment because of race; color; religion; sex; national origin; age; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; and to promote the full realization of equal employment opportunity through a continuing affirmative program in each agency.
</P>
<P>(b) No person shall be subject to retaliation for opposing any practice made unlawful by title VII of the Civil Rights Act (title VII) (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>), the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) (29 U.S.C. 621 <I>et seq.</I>), the Equal Pay Act (29 U.S.C. 206(d)), the Rehabilitation Act (29 U.S.C. 791 <I>et seq.</I>), the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) (42 U.S.C. 2000ff <I>et seq.</I>), or the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act (PWFA) (42 U.S.C. 2000gg <I>et seq.</I>) or for participating in any stage of administrative or judicial proceedings under those statutes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 11171, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.102" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.102   Agency program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall maintain a continuing affirmative program to promote equal opportunity and to identify and eliminate discriminatory practices and policies. In support of this program, the agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide sufficient resources to its equal employment opportunity program to ensure efficient and successful operation;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for the prompt, fair and impartial processing of complaints in accordance with this part and the instructions contained in the Commission's Management Directives;
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct a continuing campaign to eradicate every form of prejudice or discrimination from the agency's personnel policies, practices and working conditions;
</P>
<P>(4) Communicate the agency's equal employment opportunity policy and program and its employment needs to all sources of job candidates without regard to race; color; religion; sex; national origin; age; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; and solicit their recruitment assistance on a continuing basis;
</P>
<P>(5) Review, evaluate and control managerial and supervisory performance in such a manner as to insure a continuing affirmative application and vigorous enforcement of the policy of equal opportunity, and provide orientation, training and advice to managers and supervisors to assure their understanding and implementation of the equal employment opportunity policy and program;
</P>
<P>(6) Take appropriate disciplinary action against employees who engage in discriminatory practices;
</P>
<P>(7) Make reasonable accommodation to the religious needs of applicants and employees when those accommodations can be made without undue hardship on the business of the agency;
</P>
<P>(8) Make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of qualified applicants and employees with handicaps unless the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the agency's program;
</P>
<P>(9) Provide recognition to employees, supervisors, managers and units demonstrating superior accomplishment in equal employment opportunity;
</P>
<P>(10) Establish a system for periodically evaluating the effectiveness of the agency's overall equal employment opportunity effort;
</P>
<P>(11) Provide the maximum feasible opportunity to employees to enhance their skills through on-the-job training, work-study programs and other training measures so that they may perform at their highest potential and advance in accordance with their abilities;
</P>
<P>(12) Inform its employees and recognized labor organizations of the affirmative equal employment opportunity policy and program and enlist their cooperation; and 
</P>
<P>(13) Participate at the community level with other employers, with schools and universities and with other public and private groups in cooperative action to improve employment opportunities and community conditions that affect employability.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to implement its program, each agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop the plans, procedures and regulations necessary to carry out its program;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish or make available an alternative dispute resolution program. Such program must be available for both the pre-complaint process and the formal complaint process.
</P>
<P>(3) Appraise its personnel operations at regular intervals to assure their conformity with its program, this part 1614 and the instructions contained in the Commission's management directives;
</P>
<P>(4) Designate a Director of Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO Director), EEO Officer(s), and such Special Emphasis Program Managers (e.g., People With Disabilities Program, Federal Women's Program and Hispanic Employment Program), clerical and administrative support as may be necessary to carry out the functions described in this part in all organizational units of the agency and at all agency installations. The EEO Director shall be under the immediate supervision of the agency head;
</P>
<P>(5) Make written materials available to all employees and applicants informing them of the variety of equal employment opportunity programs and administrative and judicial remedial procedures available to them and prominently post such written materials in all personnel and EEO offices and throughout the workplace;
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that full cooperation is provided by all agency employees to EEO Counselors and agency EEO personnel in the processing and resolution of pre-complaint matters and complaints within an agency and that full cooperation is provided to the Commission in the course of appeals, including granting the Commission routine access to personnel records of the agency when required in connection with an investigation; and
</P>
<P>(7) Publicize to all employees and post at all times the names, business telephone numbers and business addresses of the EEO Counselors (unless the counseling function is centralized, in which case only the telephone number and address need be publicized and posted), a notice of the time limits and necessity of contacting a Counselor before filing a complaint and the telephone numbers and addresses of the EEO Director, EEO Officer(s) and Special Emphasis Program Managers.
</P>
<P>(c) Under each agency program, the EEO Director shall be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Advising the head of the agency with respect to the preparation of national and regional equal employment opportunity plans, procedures, regulations, reports and other matters pertaining to the policy in § 1614.101 and the agency program;
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluating from time to time the sufficiency of the total agency program for equal employment opportunity and reporting to the head of the agency with recommendations as to any improvement or correction needed, including remedial or disciplinary action with respect to managerial, supervisory or other employees who have failed in their responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(3) When authorized by the head of the agency, making changes in programs and procedures designed to eliminate discriminatory practices and to improve the agency's program for equal employment opportunity;
</P>
<P>(4) Providing for counseling of aggrieved individuals and for the receipt and processing of individual and class complaints of discrimination; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Assuring that individual complaints are fairly and thoroughly investigated and that final action is taken in a timely manner in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Directives, instructions, forms and other Commission materials referenced in this part may be obtained in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR 1610.7 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Agency programs shall comply with this part and the Management Directives and Bulletins that the Commission issues. The Commission will review agency programs from time to time to ascertain whether they are in compliance. If an agency program is found not to be in compliance, efforts shall be undertaken to obtain compliance. If those efforts are not successful, the Chair may issue a notice to the head of any federal agency whose programs are not in compliance and publicly identify each non-compliant agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Unless prohibited by law or executive order, the Commission, in its discretion and for good cause shown, may grant agencies prospective variances from the complaint processing procedures prescribed in this Part. Variances will permit agencies to conduct pilot projects of proposed changes to the complaint processing requirements of this Part that may later be made permanent through regulatory change. Agencies requesting variances must identify the specific section(s) of this Part from which they wish to deviate and exactly what they propose to do instead, explain the expected benefit and expected effect on the process of the proposed pilot project, indicate the proposed duration of the pilot project, and discuss the method by which they intend to evaluate the success of the pilot project. Variances will not be granted for individual cases and will usually not be granted for more than 24 months. The Director of the Office of Federal Operations for good cause shown may grant requests for extensions of variances for up to an additional 12 months. Pilot projects must require that participants knowingly and voluntarily opt-in to the pilot project. Requests for variances should be addressed to the Director, Office of Federal Operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37655, July 12, 1999; 67 FR 35735, May 21, 2002; 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009; 77 FR 43504, July 25, 2012; 89 FR 11171, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.103" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.103   Complaints of discrimination covered by this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individual and class complaints of employment discrimination and retaliation prohibited by title VII (discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex and national origin), the ADEA (discrimination on the basis of age when the aggrieved individual is at least 40 years of age), the Rehabilitation Act (discrimination on the basis of disability), the Equal Pay Act (sex-based wage discrimination), GINA (discrimination on the basis of genetic information), or the PWFA (discrimination on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions) shall be processed in accordance with this part. Complaints alleging retaliation prohibited by these statutes are considered to be complaints of discrimination for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) Military departments as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102;
</P>
<P>(2) Executive agencies as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105;
</P>
<P>(3) The United States Postal Service, Postal Rate Commission and Tennessee Valley Authority; 
</P>
<P>(4) All units of the judicial branch of the Federal government having positions in the competitive service, except for complaints under the Rehabilitation Act;
</P>
<P>(5) The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Commissioned Corps;
</P>
<P>(6) The Government Printing Office except for complaints under the Rehabilitation Act; and
</P>
<P>(7) The Smithsonian Institution.
</P>
<P>(c) Within the covered departments, agencies and units, this part applies to all employees and applicants for employment, and to all employment policies or practices affecting employees or applicants for employment including employees and applicants who are paid from nonappropriated funds, unless otherwise excluded.
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Uniformed members of the military departments referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(2) Employees of the General Accounting Office;
</P>
<P>(3) Employees of the Library of Congress;
</P>
<P>(4) Aliens employed in positions, or who apply for positions, located outside the limits of the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Equal Pay Act complaints of employees whose services are performed within a foreign country or certain United States territories as provided in 29 U.S.C. 213(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37655, July 12, 1999; 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009; 77 FR 43504, July 25, 2012; 89 FR 11171, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.104" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.104   Agency processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency subject to this part shall adopt procedures for processing individual and class complaints of discrimination that include the provisions contained in §§ 1614.105 through 1614.110 and in § 1614.204, and that are consistent with all other applicable provisions of this part and the instructions for complaint processing contained in the Commission's Management Directives.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall periodically review agency resources and procedures to ensure that an agency makes reasonable efforts to resolve complaints informally, to process complaints in a timely manner, to develop adequate factual records, to issue decisions that are consistent with acceptable legal standards, to explain the reasons for its decisions, and to give complainants adequate and timely notice of their rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.105" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.105   Pre-complaint processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aggrieved persons who believe they have been discriminated against on the basis of race; color; religion; sex; national origin; age; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions must consult a Counselor prior to filing a complaint in order to try to informally resolve the matter.
</P>
<P>(1) An aggrieved person must initiate contact with a Counselor within 45 days of the date of the matter alleged to be discriminatory or, in the case of personnel action, within 45 days of the effective date of the action.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency or the Commission shall extend the 45-day time limit in paragraph (a)(1) of this section when the individual shows that he or she was not notified of the time limits and was not otherwise aware of them, that he or she did not know and reasonably should not have been known that the discriminatory matter or personnel action occurred, that despite due diligence he or she was prevented by circumstances beyond his or her control from contacting the counselor within the time limits, or for other reasons considered sufficient by the agency or the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) At the initial counseling session, Counselors must advise individuals in writing of their rights and responsibilities, including the right to request a hearing or an immediate final decision after an investigation by the agency in accordance with § 1614.108(f), election rights pursuant to §§ 1614.301 and 1614.302, the right to file a notice of intent to sue pursuant to § 1614.201(a) and a lawsuit under the ADEA instead of an administrative complaint of age discrimination under this part, the duty to mitigate damages, administrative and court time frames, and that only the claims raised in precomplaint counseling (or issues or claims like or related to issues or claims raised in pre-complaint counseling) may be alleged in a subsequent complaint filed with the agency. Counselors must advise individuals of their duty to keep the agency and Commission informed of their current address and to serve copies of appeal papers on the agency. The notice required by paragraphs (d) or (e) of this section shall include a notice of the right to file a class complaint. If the aggrieved person informs the Counselor that he or she wishes to file a class complaint, the Counselor shall explain the class complaint procedures and the responsibilities of a class agent.
</P>
<P>(2) Counselors shall advise aggrieved persons that, where the agency agrees to offer ADR in the particular case, they may choose between participation in the alternative dispute resolution program and the counseling activities provided for in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Counselors shall conduct counseling activities in accordance with instructions contained in Commission Management Directives. When advised that a complaint has been filed by an aggrieved person, the Counselor shall submit a written report within 15 days to the agency office that has been designated to accept complaints and the aggrieved person concerning the issues discussed and actions taken during counseling.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the aggrieved person agrees to a longer counseling period under paragraph (e) of this section, or the aggrieved person chooses an alternative dispute resolution procedure in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Counselor shall conduct the final interview with the aggrieved person within 30 days of the date the aggrieved person contacted the agency's EEO office to request counseling. If the matter has not been resolved, the aggrieved person shall be informed in writing by the Counselor, not later than the thirtieth day after contacting the Counselor, of the right to file a discrimination complaint. The notice shall inform the complainant of the right to file a discrimination complaint within 15 days of receipt of the notice, of the appropriate official with whom to file a complaint and of the complainant's duty to assure that the agency is informed immediately if the complainant retains counsel or a representative.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior to the end of the 30-day period, the aggrieved person may agree in writing with the agency to postpone the final interview and extend the counseling period for an additional period of no more than 60 days. If the matter has not been resolved before the conclusion of the agreed extension, the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section shall be issued.
</P>
<P>(f) Where the aggrieved person chooses to participate in an alternative dispute resolution procedure in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the pre-complaint processing period shall be 90 days. If the claim has not been resolved before the 90th day, the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section shall be issued.
</P>
<P>(g) The Counselor shall not attempt in any way to restrain the aggrieved person from filing a complaint. The Counselor shall not reveal the identity of an aggrieved person who consulted the Counselor, except when authorized to do so by the aggrieved person, or until the agency has received a discrimination complaint under this part from that person involving that same matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37656, July 12, 1999; 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11171, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.106" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.106   Individual complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complaint must be filed with the agency that allegedly discriminated against the complainant.
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint must be filed within 15 days of receipt of the notice required by § 1614.105 (d), (e) or (f).
</P>
<P>(c) A complaint must contain a signed statement from the person claiming to be aggrieved or that person's attorney. This statement must be sufficiently precise to identify the aggrieved individual and the agency and to describe generally the action(s) or practice(s) that form the basis of the complaint. The complaint must also contain a telephone number and address where the complainant or the representative can be contacted.
</P>
<P>(d) A complainant may amend a complaint at any time prior to the conclusion of the investigation to include issues or claims like or related to those raised in the complaint. After requesting a hearing, a complainant may file a motion with the administrative judge to amend a complaint to include issues or claims like or related to those raised in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(e) The agency shall acknowledge receipt of a complaint or an amendment to a complaint in writing and inform the complainant of the date on which the complaint or amendment was filed. The agency shall advise the complainant in the acknowledgment of the EEOC office and its address where a request for a hearing shall be sent. Such acknowledgment shall also advise the complainant that:
</P>
<P>(1) The complainant has the right to appeal the final action on or dismissal of a complaint; and
</P>
<P>(2) The agency is required to conduct an impartial and appropriate investigation of the complaint within 180 days of the filing of the complaint unless the parties agree in writing to extend the time period. When a complaint has been amended, the agency shall complete its investigation within the earlier of 180 days after the last amendment to the complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, except that the complainant may request a hearing from an administrative judge on the consolidated complaints any time after 180 days from the date of the first filed complaint.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37656, July 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.107" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.107   Dismissals of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to a request for a hearing in a case, the agency shall dismiss an entire complaint:
</P>
<P>(1) That fails to state a claim under § 1614.103 or § 1614.106(a) or states the same claim that is pending before or has been decided by the agency or Commission;
</P>
<P>(2) That fails to comply with the applicable time limits contained in §§ 1614.105, 1614.106 and 1614.204(c), unless the agency extends the time limits in accordance with § 1614.604(c), or that raises a matter that has not been brought to the attention of a Counselor and is not like or related to a matter that has been brought to the attention of a Counselor;
</P>
<P>(3) That is the basis of a pending civil action in a United States District Court in which the complainant is a party provided that at least 180 days have passed since the filing of the administrative complaint, or that was the basis of a civil action decided by a United States District Court in which the complainant was a party;
</P>
<P>(4) Where the complainant has raised the matter in a negotiated grievance procedure that permits allegations of discrimination or in an appeal to the Merit Systems Protection Board and § 1614.301 or § 1614.302 indicates that the complainant has elected to pursue the non-EEO process; 
</P>
<P>(5) That is moot or alleges that a proposal to take a personnel action, or other preliminary step to taking a personnel action, is discriminatory, unless the complaint alleges that the proposal or preliminary step is retaliatory; 
</P>
<P>(6) Where the complainant cannot be located, provided that reasonable efforts have been made to locate the complainant and the complainant has not responded within 15 days to a notice of proposed dismissal sent to his or her last known address; 
</P>
<P>(7) Where the agency has provided the complainant with a written request to provide relevant information or otherwise proceed with the complaint, and the complainant has failed to respond to the request within 15 days of its receipt or the complainant's response does not address the agency's request, provided that the request included a notice of the proposed dismissal. Instead of dismissing for failure to cooperate, the complaint may be adjudicated if sufficient information for that purpose is available; 
</P>
<P>(8) That alleges dissatisfaction with the processing of a previously filed complaint; or
</P>
<P>(9) Where the agency, strictly applying the criteria set forth in Commission decisions, finds that the complaint is part of a clear pattern of misuse of the EEO process for a purpose other than the prevention and elimination of employment discrimination. A clear pattern of misuse of the EEO process requires:
</P>
<P>(i) Evidence of multiple complaint filings; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Allegations that are similar or identical, lack specificity or involve matters previously resolved; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence of circumventing other administrative processes, retaliating against the agency's in-house administrative processes or overburdening the EEO complaint system.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the agency believes that some but not all of the claims in a complaint should be dismissed for the reasons contained in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section, the agency shall notify the complainant in writing of its determination, the rationale for that determination and that those claims will not be investigated, and shall place a copy of the notice in the investigative file. A determination under this paragraph is reviewable by an administrative judge if a hearing is requested on the remainder of the complaint, but is not appealable until final action is taken on the remainder of the complaint.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37656, July 12, 1999; 77 FR 43504, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.108" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.108   Investigation of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigation of complaints shall be conducted by the agency against which the complaint has been filed. 
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with instructions contained in Commission Management Directives, the agency shall develop an impartial and appropriate factual record upon which to make findings on the claims raised by the written complaint. An appropriate factual record is one that allows a reasonable fact finder to draw conclusions as to whether discrimination occurred. Agencies may use an exchange of letters or memoranda, interrogatories, investigations, fact-finding conferences or any other fact-finding methods that efficiently and thoroughly address the matters at issue. Agencies are encouraged to incorporate alternative dispute resolution techniques into their investigative efforts in order to promote early resolution of complaints.
</P>
<P>(c) The procedures in paragraphs (c) (1) through (3) of this section apply to the investigation of complaints:
</P>
<P>(1) The complainant, the agency, and any employee of a Federal agency shall produce such documentary and testimonial evidence as the investigator deems necessary. 
</P>
<P>(2) Investigators are authorized to administer oaths. Statements of witnesses shall be made under oath or affirmation or, alternatively, by written statement under penalty of perjury. 
</P>
<P>(3) When the complainant, or the agency against which a complaint is filed, or its employees fail without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to requests for documents, records, comparative data, statistics, affidavits, or the attendance of witness(es), the investigator may note in the investigative record that the decisionmaker should, or the Commission on appeal may, in appropriate circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information, or the testimony of the requested witness, would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information or witness;
</P>
<P>(iv) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or
</P>
<P>(v) Take such other actions as it deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) Any investigation will be conducted by investigators with appropriate security clearances. The Commission will, upon request, supply the agency with the name of an investigator with appropriate security clearances.
</P>
<P>(e) The agency shall complete its investigation within 180 days of the date of filing of an individual complaint or within the time period contained in an order from the Office of Federal Operations on an appeal from a dismissal pursuant to § 1614.107. By written agreement within those time periods, the complainant and the respondent agency may voluntarily extend the time period for not more than an additional 90 days. The agency may unilaterally extend the time period or any period of extension for not more than 30 days where it must sanitize a complaint file that may contain information classified pursuant to Exec. Order No. 12356, or successor orders, as secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, provided the investigating agency notifies the parties of the extension.
</P>
<P>(f) Within 180 days from the filing of the complaint, or where a complaint was amended, within the earlier of 180 days after the last amendment to the complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, within the time period contained in an order from the Office of Federal Operations on an appeal from a dismissal, or within any period of extension provided for in paragraph (e) of this section, the agency shall provide the complainant with a copy of the investigative file, and shall notify the complainant that, within 30 days of receipt of the investigative file, the complainant has the right to request a hearing and decision from an administrative judge or may request an immediate final decision pursuant to § 1614.110 from the agency with which the complaint was filed. The notice that the complainant has the right to request a hearing and decision from an administrative judge shall inform the complainant that the hearing request may be filed using the EEOC Public Portal, available at <I>https://publicportal.eeoc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) If the agency does not send the notice required in paragraph (f) of this section within the applicable time limits, it shall, within those same time limits, issue a written notice to the complainant informing the complainant that it has been unable to complete its investigation within the time limits required by § 1614.108(f) and estimating a date by which the investigation will be completed. Further, the notice must explain that if the complainant does not want to wait until the agency completes the investigation, he or she may request a hearing in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section, or file a civil action in an appropriate United States District Court in accordance with § 1614.407(b). Such notice shall contain information about the hearing procedures.
</P>
<P>(h) Where the complainant has received the notice required in paragraph (f) of this section or at any time after 180 days have elapsed from the filing of the complaint, the complainant may request a hearing by submitting a written request for a hearing directly to the EEOC office indicated in the agency's acknowledgment letter, or by filing a request for a hearing through the EEOC Public Portal.

The complainant shall send a copy of the request for a hearing to the agency EEO office. Within 15 days of receipt of the request for a hearing, the agency shall provide a copy of the complaint file to EEOC and, if not previously provided, to the complainant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37656, July 12, 1999; 77 FR 43505, July 25, 2012; 88 FR 57881, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.109" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.109   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a complainant requests a hearing, the Commission shall appoint an administrative judge to conduct a hearing in accordance with this section. Upon appointment, the administrative judge shall assume full responsibility for the adjudication of the complaint, including overseeing the development of the record. Any hearing will be conducted by an administrative judge or hearing examiner with appropriate security clearances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dismissals.</I> Administrative judges may dismiss complaints pursuant to § 1614.107, on their own initiative, after notice to the parties, or upon an agency's motion to dismiss a complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offer of resolution.</I> (1) Any time after the filing of the written complaint but not later than the date an administrative judge is appointed to conduct a hearing, the agency may make an offer of resolution to a complainant who is represented by an attorney.
</P>
<P>(2) Any time after the parties have received notice that an administrative judge has been appointed to conduct a hearing, but not later than 30 days prior to the hearing, the agency may make an offer of resolution to the complainant, whether represented by an attorney or not.
</P>
<P>(3) The offer of resolution shall be in writing and shall include a notice explaining the possible consequences of failing to accept the offer. The agency's offer, to be effective, must include attorney's fees and costs and must specify any non-monetary relief. With regard to monetary relief, an agency may make a lump sum offer covering all forms of monetary liability, or it may itemize the amounts and types of monetary relief being offered. The complainant shall have 30 days from receipt of the offer of resolution to accept it. If the complainant fails to accept an offer of resolution and the relief awarded in the administrative judge's decision, the agency's final decision, or the Commission decision on appeal is not more favorable than the offer, then, except where the interest of justice would not be served, the complainant shall not receive payment from the agency of attorney's fees or costs incurred after the expiration of the 30-day acceptance period. An acceptance of an offer must be in writing and will be timely if postmarked or received within the 30-day period. Where a complainant fails to accept an offer of resolution, an agency may make other offers of resolution and either party may seek to negotiate a settlement of the complaint at any time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discovery.</I> The administrative judge shall notify the parties of the right to seek discovery prior to the hearing and may issue such discovery orders as are appropriate. Unless the parties agree in writing concerning the methods and scope of discovery, the party seeking discovery shall request authorization from the administrative judge prior to commencing discovery. Both parties are entitled to reasonable development of evidence on matters relevant to the issues raised in the complaint, but the administrative judge may limit the quantity and timing of discovery. Evidence may be developed through interrogatories, depositions, and requests for admissions, stipulations or production of documents. It shall be grounds for objection to producing evidence that the information sought by either party is irrelevant, overburdensome, repetitious, or privileged. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conduct of hearing.</I> Agencies shall provide for the attendance at a hearing of all employees approved as witnesses by an administrative judge. Attendance at hearings will be limited to persons determined by the administrative judge to have direct knowledge relating to the complaint. Hearings are part of the investigative process and are thus closed to the public. The administrative judge shall have the power to regulate the conduct of a hearing, limit the number of witnesses where testimony would be repetitious, and exclude any person from the hearing for contumacious conduct or misbehavior that obstructs the hearing. The administrative judge shall receive into evidence information or documents relevant to the complaint. Rules of evidence shall not be applied strictly, but the administrative judge shall exclude irrelevant or repetitious evidence. The administrative judge or the Commission may refer to the Disciplinary Committee of the appropriate Bar Association any attorney or, upon reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard, suspend or disqualify from representing complainants or agencies in EEOC hearings any representative who refuses to follow the orders of an administrative judge, or who otherwise engages in improper conduct. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) The complainant, an agency, and any employee of a Federal agency shall produce such documentary and testimonial evidence as the administrative judge deems necessary. The administrative judge shall serve all orders to produce evidence on both parties.
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative judges are authorized to administer oaths. Statements of witnesses shall be made under oath or affirmation or, alternatively, by written statement under penalty of perjury.
</P>
<P>(3) When the complainant, or the agency against which a complaint is filed, or its employees fail without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to an order of an administrative judge, or requests for the investigative file, for documents, records, comparative data, statistics, affidavits, or the attendance of witness(es), the administrative judge shall, in appropriate circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information, or the testimony of the requested witness, would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) Exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information or witness;
</P>
<P>(iv) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or
</P>
<P>(v) Take such other actions as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Summary judgment.</I> (1) If a party believes that some or all material facts are not in genuine dispute and there is no genuine issue as to credibility, the party may, at least 15 days prior to the date of the hearing or at such earlier time as required by the administrative judge, file a statement with the administrative judge prior to the hearing setting forth the fact or facts and referring to the parts of the record relied on to support the statement. The statement must demonstrate that there is no genuine issue as to any such material fact. The party shall serve the statement on the opposing party.
</P>
<P>(2) The opposing party may file an opposition within 15 days of receipt of the statement in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The opposition may refer to the record in the case to rebut the statement that a fact is not in dispute or may file an affidavit stating that the party cannot, for reasons stated, present facts to oppose the request. After considering the submissions, the administrative judge may order that discovery be permitted on the fact or facts involved, limit the hearing to the issues remaining in dispute, issue a decision without a hearing or make such other ruling as is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) If the administrative judge determines upon his or her own initiative that some or all facts are not in genuine dispute, he or she may, after giving notice to the parties and providing them an opportunity to respond in writing within 15 calendar days, issue an order limiting the scope of the hearing or issue a decision without holding a hearing.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Record of hearing.</I> The hearing shall be recorded and the agency shall arrange and pay for verbatim transcripts. All documents submitted to, and accepted by, the administrative judge at the hearing shall be made part of the record of the hearing. If the agency submits a document that is accepted, it shall furnish a copy of the document to the complainant. If the complainant submits a document that is accepted, the administrative judge shall make the document available to the agency representative for reproduction.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Decisions by administrative judges.</I> Unless the administrative judge makes a written determination that good cause exists for extending the time for issuing a decision, an administrative judge shall issue a decision on the complaint, and shall order appropriate remedies and relief where discrimination is found, within 180 days of receipt by the administrative judge of the complaint file from the agency. The administrative judge shall transmit copies of the hearing record, including the transcript, and the decision to the parties. If an agency does not issue a final order within 40 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision in accordance with 1614.110, then the decision of the administrative judge shall become the final action of the agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37657, July 12, 1999; 77 FR 43505, July 25, 2012; 88 FR 57881, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.110" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.1.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.110   Final action by agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Final action by an agency following a decision by an administrative judge.</I> When an administrative judge has issued a decision under § 1614.109(b), (g) or (i), the agency shall take final action on the complaint by issuing a final order within 40 days of receipt of the hearing file and the administrative judge's decision. The final order shall notify the complainant whether or not the agency will fully implement the decision of the administrative judge and shall contain notice of the complainant's right to appeal to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the right to file a civil action in federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. If the final order does not fully implement the decision of the administrative judge, then the agency shall simultaneously file an appeal in accordance with § 1614.403 and append a copy of the appeal to the final order. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final action by an agency in all other circumstances.</I> When an agency dismisses an entire complaint under § 1614.107, receives a request for an immediate final decision or does not receive a reply to the notice issued under § 1614.108(f), the agency shall take final action by issuing a final decision. The final decision shall consist of findings by the agency on the merits of each issue in the complaint, or, as appropriate, the rationale for dismissing any claims in the complaint and, when discrimination is found, appropriate remedies and relief in accordance with subpart E of this part. The agency shall issue the final decision within 60 days of receiving notification that a complainant has requested an immediate decision from the agency, or within 60 days of the end of the 30-day period for the complainant to request a hearing or an immediate final decision where the complainant has not requested either a hearing or a decision. The final action shall contain notice of the right to appeal the final action to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the right to file a civil action in federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final action.
</P>
<P>(c) When an agency takes final action by issuing a final order or decision that requires the agency to include a notice that the complainant has the right to file an appeal with the EEOC, the notice shall inform the complainant that the appeal may be filed using the EEOC Public Portal, available at <I>https://publicportal.eeoc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 37657, July 12, 1999, as amended at 88 FR 57881, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Provisions Applicable to Particular Complaints</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.201" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.201   Age Discrimination in Employment Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As an alternative to filing a complaint under this part, an aggrieved individual may file a civil action in a United States district court under the ADEA against the head of an alleged discriminating agency after giving the Commission not less than 30 days' notice of the intent to file such an action. Such notice must be filed in writing with EEOC, at P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013, or by personal delivery or facsimile within 180 days of the occurrence of the alleged unlawful practice.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may exempt a position from the provisions of the ADEA if the Commission establishes a maximum age requirement for the position on the basis of a determination that age is a bona fide occupational qualification necessary to the performance of the duties of the position.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37658, July 12, 1999; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009; 85 FR 35561, June 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.202" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.202   Equal Pay Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In its enforcement of the Equal Pay Act, the Commission has the authority to investigate an agency's employment practices on its own initiative at any time in order to determine compliance with the provisions of the Act. The Commission will provide notice to the agency that it will be initiating an investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Complaints alleging violations of the Equal Pay Act shall be processed under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.203" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.203   Rehabilitation Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>ADA</I> means title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12101 through 12117), title V of the Americans with Disabilities Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12201 through 12213), as it applies to employment, and the regulations of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission implementing titles I and V of the ADA at part 1630 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>disability</I> means disability as defined under § 1630.2(g) through (l) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>hiring authority that takes disability into account</I> means a hiring authority that permits an agency to consider disability status during the hiring process, including the hiring authority for individuals with intellectual disabilities, severe physical disabilities, or psychiatric disabilities, as set forth at 5 CFR 213.3102(u); the Veterans' Recruitment Appointment authority, as set forth at 5 CFR part 307; and the 30% or More Disabled Veteran authority, as set forth at 5 CFR 316.302(b)(4), 316.402(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>personal assistance service provider</I> means an employee or independent contractor whose primary job functions include provision of personal assistance services.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>personal assistance services</I> means assistance with performing activities of daily living that an individual would typically perform if he or she did not have a disability, and that is not otherwise required as a reasonable accommodation, including, for example, assistance with removing and putting on clothing, eating, and using the restroom.
</P>
<P>(6) The term <I>Plan</I> means an affirmative action plan for the hiring, placement, and advancement of individuals with disabilities, as required under 29 U.S.C. 791(b).
</P>
<P>(7) The term <I>Schedule A hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities</I> means the hiring authority for individuals with intellectual disabilities, severe physical disabilities, or psychiatric disabilities, as set forth at 5 CFR 213.3102(u).
</P>
<P>(8) The term <I>Section 501</I> means section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(9) The term <I>targeted disability</I> means a disability that is designated as a “targeted disability or health condition” on the Office of Personnel Management's Standard Form 256 or that falls under one of the first 12 categories of disability listed in Part A of question 5 of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's Demographic Information on Applicants form.
</P>
<P>(10) The term <I>undue hardship</I> has the meaning set forth in part 1630 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> Federal agencies shall not discriminate on the basis of disability in regard to the hiring, advancement or discharge of employees, employee compensation, job training, or other terms, conditions, and privileges of employment. The standards used to determine whether Section 501 has been violated in a complaint alleging employment discrimination under this part shall be the standards applied under the ADA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Model employer.</I> The Federal Government shall be a model employer of individuals with disabilities. Agencies shall give full consideration to the hiring, advancement, and retention of qualified individuals with disabilities in the federal workforce. Agencies shall also take affirmative action to promote the recruitment, hiring, and advancement of qualified individuals with disabilities, with the goal of eliminating under-representation of individuals with disabilities in the federal workforce.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Affirmative action plan.</I> Pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 791, each agency shall adopt and implement a Plan that provides sufficient assurances, procedures, and commitments to provide adequate hiring, placement, and advancement opportunities for individuals with disabilities at all levels of federal employment. An agency fails to satisfy this requirement unless it has adopted and implemented a Plan that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disability hiring and advancement program</I>—(i) <I>Recruitment.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to take specific steps to ensure that a broad range of individuals with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, will be aware of and be encouraged to apply for job vacancies when eligible. Such steps shall include, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Use of programs and resources that identify job applicants with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, who are eligible to be appointed under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, consistent with applicable OPM regulations, examples of which could include programs that provide the qualifications necessary for particular positions within the agency to individuals with disabilities, databases of individuals with disabilities who previously applied to the agency but were not hired for the positions they applied for, and training and internship programs that lead directly to employment for individuals with disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(B) Establishment and maintenance of contacts (which may include formal agreements) with organizations that specialize in providing assistance to individuals with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, in securing and maintaining employment, such as American Job Centers, State Vocational Rehabilitation Agencies, the Veterans' Vocational Rehabilitation and Employment Program, Centers for Independent Living, and Employment Network service providers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application process.</I> The Plan shall ensure that the agency has designated sufficient staff to handle any disability-related issues that arise during the application and selection processes, and shall require the agency to provide such individuals with sufficient training, support, and other resources to carry out their responsibilities under this section. Such responsibilities shall include, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Ensuring that disability-related questions from members of the public regarding the agency's application and selection processes are answered promptly and correctly, including questions about reasonable accommodations needed by job applicants during the application and selection processes and questions about how individuals may apply for appointment under hiring authorities that take disability into account;
</P>
<P>(B) Processing requests for reasonable accommodations needed by job applicants during the application and placement processes, and ensuring that the agency provides such accommodations when required to do so under the standards set forth in part 1630 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(C) Accepting applications for appointment under hiring authorities that take disability into account, consistent with applicable OPM regulations;
</P>
<P>(D) If an individual has applied for appointment to a particular position under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, determining whether the individual is eligible for appointment under such authority, and, if so, forwarding the individual's application to the relevant hiring officials with an explanation of how and when the individual may be appointed, consistent with all applicable laws;
</P>
<P>(E) Overseeing any other agency programs designed to increase hiring of individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Advancement program.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to take specific steps to ensure that current employees with disabilities have sufficient opportunities for advancement. Such steps may include, for example—
</P>
<P>(A) Efforts to ensure that employees with disabilities are informed of and have opportunities to enroll in relevant training, including management training when eligible;
</P>
<P>(B) Development or maintenance of a mentoring program for employees with disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(C) Administration of exit interviews that include questions on how the agency could improve the recruitment, hiring, inclusion, and advancement of individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disability anti-harassment policy.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to state specifically in its anti-harassment policy that harassment based on disability is prohibited, and to include in its training materials examples of the types of conduct that would constitute disability-based harassment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reasonable accommodation</I>—(i) <I>Procedures.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to adopt, post on its public Web site, and make available to all job applicants and employees in written and accessible formats, reasonable accommodation procedures that are easy to understand and that, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Explain relevant terms such as “reasonable accommodation,” “disability,” “interactive process,” “qualified,” and “undue hardship,” consistent with applicable statutory and regulatory definitions, using examples where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(B) Explain that reassignment to a vacant position for which an employee is qualified, and not just permission to compete for such position, is a reasonable accommodation, and that the agency must consider providing reassignment to a vacant position as a reasonable accommodation when it determines that no other reasonable accommodation will permit an employee with a disability to perform the essential functions of his or her current position;
</P>
<P>(C) Notify supervisors and other relevant agency employees how and where they are to conduct searches for available vacancies when considering reassignment as a reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(D) Explain that an individual may request a reasonable accommodation orally or in writing at any time, need not fill out any specific form in order for the interactive process to begin, and need not have a particular accommodation in mind before making a request, and that the request may be made to a supervisor or manager in the individual's chain of command, the office designated by the agency to oversee the reasonable accommodation process, any agency employee connected with the application process, or any other individual designated by the agency to accept such requests;
</P>
<P>(E) Include any forms the agency uses in connection with a reasonable accommodation request as attachments, and indicate that such forms are available in alternative formats that are accessible to people with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(F) Describe the agency's process for determining whether to provide a reasonable accommodation, including the interactive process, and provide contact information for the individual or program office from whom requesters will receive a final decision;
</P>
<P>(G) Provide guidance to supervisors on how to recognize requests for reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(H) Require that decision makers communicate, early in the interactive process and periodically throughout the process, with individuals who have requested a reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(I) Explain when the agency may require an individual who requests a reasonable accommodation to provide medical information that is sufficient to explain the nature of the individual's disability, his or her need for reasonable accommodation, and how the requested accommodation, if any, will assist the individual to apply for a job, perform the essential functions of a job, or enjoy the benefits and privileges of the workplace;
</P>
<P>(J) Explain the agency's right to request relevant supplemental medical information if the information submitted by the requester is insufficient for the purposes specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(I) of this section;
</P>
<P>(K) Explain the agency's right to have medical information reviewed by a medical expert of the agency's choosing at the agency's expense;
</P>
<P>(L) Explain the agency's obligation to keep medical information confidential, in accordance with applicable laws and regulations, and the limited circumstances under which such information may be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(M) Designate the maximum amount of time the agency has, absent extenuating circumstances, to either provide a requested accommodation or deny the request, and explain that the time limit begins to run when the accommodation is first requested;
</P>
<P>(N) Explain that the agency will not be expected to adhere to its usual timelines if an individual's health professional fails to provide needed documentation in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>(O) Explain that, where a particular reasonable accommodation can be provided in less than the maximum amount of time permitted under paragraph (d)(3)(i)(M) of this section, failure to provide the accommodation in a prompt manner may result in a violation of the Rehabilitation Act;
</P>
<P>(P) Provide for expedited processing of requests for reasonable accommodations that are needed sooner than the maximum allowable time frame permitted under paragraph (d)(3)(i)(M) of this section;
</P>
<P>(Q) Explain that, when all the facts and circumstances known to the agency make it reasonably likely that an individual will be entitled to a reasonable accommodation, but the accommodation cannot be provided immediately, the agency shall provide an interim accommodation that allows the individual to perform some or all of the essential functions of his or her job, if it is possible to do so without imposing undue hardship on the agency;
</P>
<P>(R) Inform applicants and employees how they may track the processing of requests for reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(S) Explain that, where there is a delay in either processing a request for or providing a reasonable accommodation, the agency must notify the individual of the reason for the delay, including any extenuating circumstances that justify the delay;
</P>
<P>(T) Explain that individuals who have been denied reasonable accommodations have the right to file complaints pursuant to 29 CFR 1614.106;
</P>
<P>(U) Encourage the use of voluntary informal dispute resolution processes that individuals may use to obtain prompt reconsideration of denied requests for reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(V) Provide that the agency shall give the requester a notice consistent with the requirements of paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section at the time a request for reasonable accommodation is denied; and
</P>
<P>(W) Provide information on how to access additional information regarding reasonable accommodation, including, at a minimum, Commission guidance and technical assistance documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cost of accommodations.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to take specific steps to ensure that requests for reasonable accommodation are not denied for reasons of cost, and that individuals with disabilities are not excluded from employment due to the anticipated cost of a reasonable accommodation, if the resources available to the agency as a whole, excluding those designated by statute for a specific purpose that does not include reasonable accommodation, would enable it to provide an effective reasonable accommodation without undue hardship. Such steps shall be reasonably designed to, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Ensure that anyone who is authorized to grant or deny requests for reasonable accommodation or to make hiring decisions is aware that, pursuant to the regulations implementing the undue hardship defense at 29 CFR part 1630, all resources available to the agency as a whole, excluding those designated by statute for a specific purpose that does not include reasonable accommodation, are considered when determining whether a denial of reasonable accommodation based on cost is lawful; and
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that anyone authorized to grant or deny requests for reasonable accommodation or to make hiring decisions is aware of, and knows how to arrange for the use of, agency resources available to provide the accommodation, including any centralized fund the agency may have for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notification of basis for denial.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to provide a job applicant or employee who is denied a reasonable accommodation with a written notice at the time of the denial, in an accessible format when requested, that—
</P>
<P>(A) Explains the reasons for the denial and notifies the job applicant or employee of any available internal appeal or informal dispute resolution processes;
</P>
<P>(B) Informs the job applicant or employee of the right to challenge the denial by filing a complaint of discrimination under this part;
</P>
<P>(C) Provides instructions on how to file such a complaint; and
</P>
<P>(D) Explains that, pursuant to 29 CFR 1614.105, the right to file a complaint will be lost unless the job applicant or employee initiates contact with an EEO Counselor within 45 days of the denial, regardless of whether the applicant or employee participates in an informal dispute resolution process.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Accessibility of facilities and technology</I>—(i) <I>Notice of rights.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to adopt, post on its public Web site, and make available to all employees in written and accessible formats, a notice that—
</P>
<P>(A) Explains their rights under Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 794d, concerning the accessibility of agency technology, and the Architectural Barriers Act, 42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157, concerning the accessibility of agency building and facilities;
</P>
<P>(B) Provides contact information for an agency employee who is responsible for ensuring the physical accessibility of the agency's facilities under the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, and an agency employee who is responsible for ensuring that the electronic and information technology purchased, maintained, or used by the agency is readily accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities, as required by Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973; and
</P>
<P>(C) Provides instructions on how to file complaints alleging violations of the accessibility requirements of the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968 and Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Assistance with filing complaints at other agencies.</I> If an agency's investigation of a complaint filed under Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 or the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968 shows that a different entity is responsible for the alleged violation, the Plan shall require the agency to inform the individual who filed the complaint where he or she may file a complaint against the other entity, if possible.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal assistance services allowing employees to participate in the workplace</I>—(i) <I>Obligation to provide personal assistance services.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to provide an employee with, in addition to professional services required as a reasonable accommodation under the standards set forth in part 1630 of this chapter, personal assistance services during work hours and job-related travel if—
</P>
<P>(A) The employee requires such services because of a targeted disability;
</P>
<P>(B) Provision of such services would, together with any reasonable accommodations required under the standards set forth in part 1630 of this chapter, enable the employee to perform the essential functions of his or her position; and
</P>
<P>(C) Provision of such services would not impose undue hardship on the agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Service providers.</I> The Plan shall state that personal assistance services required under paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section must be performed by a personal assistance service provider. The Plan may permit the agency to require personal assistance service providers to provide personal assistance services to more than one individual. The Plan may also permit the agency to require personal assistance service providers to perform tasks unrelated to personal assistance services, but only to the extent that doing so does not result in failure to provide personal assistance services required under paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No adverse action.</I> The Plan shall prohibit the agency from taking adverse actions against job applicants or employees based on their need for, or perceived need for, personal assistance services.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Selection of personal assistance service providers.</I> The Plan shall require the agency, when selecting someone who will provide personal assistance services to a single individual, to give primary consideration to the individual's preferences to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Written procedures.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to adopt, post on its public Web site, and make available to all job applicants and employees in written and accessible formats, procedures for processing requests for personal assistance services. An agency may satisfy this requirement by stating, in the procedures required under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, that the process for requesting personal assistance services, the process for determining whether such services are required, and the agency's right to deny such requests when provision of the services would pose an undue hardship, are the same as for reasonable accommodations.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Utilization analysis</I>—(i) <I>Current utilization.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to perform a workforce analysis annually to determine the percentage of its employees at each grade and salary level who have disabilities, and the percentage of its employees at each grade and salary level who have targeted disabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Source of data.</I> For purposes of the analysis required under paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section, an employee may be classified as an individual with a disability or an individual with a targeted disability on the basis of—
</P>
<P>(A) The individual's self-identification as an individual with a disability or an individual with a targeted disability on a form, including but not limited to the Office of Personnel Management's Standard Form 256, which states that the information collected will be kept confidential and used only for statistical purposes, and that completion of the form is voluntary;
</P>
<P>(B) Records relating to the individual's appointment under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(C) Records relating to the individual's requests for reasonable accommodation, if any.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data accuracy.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to take steps to ensure that data collected pursuant to paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section are accurate.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Goals</I>—(i) <I>Adoption.</I> The Plan shall commit the agency to the goal of ensuring that—
</P>
<P>(A) No less than 12% of employees at the GS-11 level and above, together with employees who are not paid under the General Schedule but who have salaries equal to or greater than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(B) No less than 12% of employees at the GS-10 level and below, together with employees who are not paid under the General Schedule but who have salaries less than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(C) No less than 2% of employees at the GS-11 level and above, together with employees who are not paid under the General Schedule but who have salaries equal to or greater than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with targeted disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(D) No less than 2% of employees at the GS-10 level and below, together with employees who are not paid under the General Schedule but who have salaries less than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with targeted disabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Progression toward goals.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to take specific steps that are reasonably designed to gradually increase the number of persons with disabilities or targeted disabilities employed at the agency until it meets the goals established pursuant to paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section. Examples of such steps include, but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(A) Increased use of hiring authorities that take disability into account to hire or promote individuals with disabilities or targeted disabilities, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent permitted by applicable laws, consideration of disability or targeted disability status as a positive factor in hiring, promotion, or assignment decisions;
</P>
<P>(C) Disability-related training and education campaigns for all employees in the agency;
</P>
<P>(D) Additional outreach or recruitment efforts;
</P>
<P>(E) Increased efforts to hire and retain individuals who require supported employment because of a disability, who have retained the services of a job coach at their own expense or at the expense of a third party, and who may be given permission to use the job coach during work hours as a reasonable accommodation without imposing undue hardship on the agency; and
</P>
<P>(F) Adoption of training, mentoring, or internship programs for individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> The Plan shall require the agency to keep records that it may use to determine whether it is complying with the nondiscrimination and affirmative action requirements imposed under Section 501, and to make such records available to the Commission upon the Commission's request, including, at a minimum, records of—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of job applications received from individuals with disabilities, and the number of individuals with disabilities who were hired by the agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of job applications received from individuals with targeted disabilities, and the number of individuals with targeted disabilities who were hired by the agency;
</P>
<P>(iii) All rescissions of conditional job offers, demotions, and terminations taken against applicants or employees as a result of medical examinations or inquiries;
</P>
<P>(iv) All agency employees hired under the Schedule A hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities, and each such employee's date of hire, entering grade level, probationary status, and current grade level;
</P>
<P>(v) The number of employees appointed under the Schedule A hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities who have been converted to career or career-conditional appointments in the competitive service, and the number of such employees who were terminated prior to being converted to a career or career-conditional appointment in the competitive service; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Details about each request for reasonable accommodation including, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) The specific reasonable accommodation requested, if any;
</P>
<P>(B) The job (occupational series, grade level, and agency component) sought by the requesting applicant or held by the requesting employee;
</P>
<P>(C) Whether the accommodation was needed to apply for a job, perform the essential functions of a job, or enjoy the benefits and privileges of employment;
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the request was granted (which may include an accommodation different from the one requested) or denied;
</P>
<P>(E) The identity of the deciding official;
</P>
<P>(F) If denied, the basis for such denial; and
</P>
<P>(G) The number of days taken to process the request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting</I>—(1) <I>Submission to the Commission.</I> On an annual basis, each federal agency shall submit to the Commission for approval, at such time and in such manner as the Commission deems appropriate—
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of its current Plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of the two most recent workforce analyses performed pursuant to paragraph (d)(6) of this section showing the percentage of employees with disabilities and employees with targeted disabilities in each of the designated pay groups;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of individuals appointed to positions within the agency under the Schedule A hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities during the previous year, and the total number of employees whose employment at the agency began by appointment under the Schedule A hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of changes made to the Plan since the prior submission, if any, and an explanation of why those changes were made.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability to the public.</I> Each agency shall make the information submitted to the Commission pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section available to the public by, at a minimum, posting a copy of the submission on its public Web site and providing a means by which members of the public may request copies of the submission in accessible formats.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Commission approval and disapproval</I>—(1) <I>Basis for approval.</I> If the Commission determines that an agency has adopted and implemented a Plan that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, the Commission shall approve the Plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Basis for disapproval.</I> If the Commission determines that an agency has failed to adopt and implement a Plan that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, the Commission shall disapprove the Plan as required by 29 U.S.C. 791(b). Failure to achieve a goal set forth in paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section, by itself, is not grounds for disapproval unless the Plan fails to require the agency to take specific steps that are reasonably designed to achieve the goal.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 677, Jan. 3, 2017]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.204" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.2.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.204   Class complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) A <I>class</I> is a group of employees, former employees or applicants for employment who, it is alleged, have been or are being adversely affected by an agency personnel management policy or practice that discriminates against the group on the basis of their race; color; religion; sex; national origin; age; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>class complaint</I> is a written complaint of discrimination filed on behalf of a class by the agent of the class alleging that:
</P>
<P>(i) The class is so numerous that a consolidated complaint of the members of the class is impractical;
</P>
<P>(ii) There are questions of fact common to the class;
</P>
<P>(iii) The claims of the agent of the class are typical of the claims of the class;
</P>
<P>(iv) The agent of the class, or, if represented, the representative, will fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class.
</P>
<P>(3) An <I>agent of the class</I> is a class member who acts for the class during the processing of the class complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pre-complaint processing.</I> An employee or applicant who wishes to file a class complaint must seek counseling and be counseled in accordance with § 1614.105. A complainant may move for class certification at any reasonable point in the process when it becomes apparent that there are class implications to the claim raised in an individual complaint. If a complainant moves for class certification after completing the counseling process contained in § 1614.105, no additional counseling is required. The administrative judge shall deny class certification when the complainant has unduly delayed in moving for certification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing and presentation of a class complaint.</I> (1) A class complaint must be signed by the agent or representative and must identify the policy or practice adversely affecting the class as well as the specific action or matter affecting the class agent.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint must be filed with the agency that allegedly discriminated not later than 15 days after the agent's receipt of the notice of right to file a class complaint.
</P>
<P>(3) The complaint shall be processed promptly; the parties shall cooperate and shall proceed at all times without undue delay.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acceptance or dismissal.</I> (1) Within 30 days of an agency's receipt of a complaint, the agency shall: Designate an agency representative who shall not be any of the individuals referenced in § 1614.102(b)(3), and forward the complaint, along with a copy of the Counselor's report and any other information pertaining to timeliness or other relevant circumstances related to the complaint, to the Commission. The Commission shall assign the complaint to an administrative judge or complaints examiner with a proper security clearance when necessary. The administrative judge may require the complainant or agency to submit additional information relevant to the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The administrative judge may dismiss the complaint, or any portion, for any of the reasons listed in § 1614.107 or because it does not meet the prerequisites of a class complaint under § 1614.204(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) If the allegation is not included in the Counselor's report, the administrative judge shall afford the agent 15 days to state whether the matter was discussed with the Counselor and, if not, explain why it was not discussed. If the explanation is not satisfactory, the administrative judge shall dismiss the allegation. If the explanation is satisfactory, the administrative judge shall refer the allegation to the agency for further counseling of the agent. After counseling, the allegation shall be consolidated with the class complaint.
</P>
<P>(4) If an allegation lacks specificity and detail, the administrative judge shall afford the agent 15 days to provide specific and detailed information. The administrative judge shall dismiss the complaint if the agent fails to provide such information within the specified time period. If the information provided contains new allegations outside the scope of the complaint, the administrative judge shall advise the agent how to proceed on an individual or class basis concerning these allegations.
</P>
<P>(5) The administrative judge shall extend the time limits for filing a complaint and for consulting with a Counselor in accordance with the time limit extension provisions contained in §§ 1614.105(a)(2) and 1614.604.
</P>
<P>(6) When appropriate, the administrative judge may decide that a class be divided into subclasses and that each subclass be treated as a class, and the provisions of this section then shall be construed and applied accordingly.
</P>
<P>(7) The administrative judge shall transmit his or her decision to accept or dismiss a complaint to the agency and the agent. The agency shall take final action by issuing a final order within 40 days of receipt of the hearing record and administrative judge's decision. The final order shall notify the agent whether or not the agency will implement the decision of the administrative judge. If the final order does not implement the decision of the administrative judge, the agency shall simultaneously appeal the administrative judge's decision in accordance with § 1614.403 and append a copy of the appeal to the final order. A dismissal of a class complaint shall inform the agent either that the complaint is being filed on that date as an individual complaint of discrimination and will be processed under subpart A or that the complaint is also dismissed as an individual complaint in accordance with § 1614.107. In addition, it shall inform the agent of the right to appeal the dismissal of the class complaint to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission or to file a civil action and shall include EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification.</I> (1) Within 15 days of receiving notice that the administrative judge has accepted a class complaint or a reasonable time frame specified by the administrative judge, the agency shall use reasonable means, such as delivery, mailing to last known address or distribution, to notify all class members of the acceptance of the class complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) Such notice shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the agency or organizational segment, its location, and the date of acceptance of the complaint;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the issues accepted as part of the class complaint;
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the binding nature of the final decision or resolution of the complaint on class members; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The name, address and telephone number of the class representative.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Obtaining evidence concerning the complaint.</I> (1) The administrative judge shall notify the agent and the agency representative of the time period that will be allowed both parties to prepare their cases. This time period will include at least 60 days and may be extended by the administrative judge upon the request of either party. Both parties are entitled to reasonable development of evidence on matters relevant to the issues raised in the complaint. Evidence may be developed through interrogatories, depositions, and requests for admissions, stipulations or production of documents. It shall be grounds for objection to producing evidence that the information sought by either party is irrelevant, overburdensome, repetitious, or privileged.
</P>
<P>(2) If mutual cooperation fails, either party may request the administrative judge to rule on a request to develop evidence. If a party fails without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to a request made or approved by the administrative judge for documents, records, comparative data, statistics or affidavits, and the information is solely in the control of one party, such failure may, in appropriate circumstances, caused the administrative judge:
</P>
<P>(i) To draw an adverse inference that the requested information would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information;
</P>
<P>(ii) To consider the matters to which the requested information pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) To exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information;
</P>
<P>(iv) To recommend that a decision be entered in favor of the opposing party; or
</P>
<P>(v) To take such other actions as the administrative judge deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) During the period for development of evidence, the administrative judge may, in his or her discretion, direct that an investigation of facts relevant to the complaint or any portion be conducted by an agency certified by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(4) Both parties shall furnish to the administrative judge copies of all materials that they wish to be examined and such other material as may be requested.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Opportunity for resolution of the complaint.</I> (1) The administrative judge shall furnish the agent and the representative of the agency a copy of all materials obtained concerning the complaint and provide opportunity for the agent to discuss materials with the agency representative and attempt resolution of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint may be resolved by agreement of the agency and the agent at any time pursuant to the notice and approval procedure contained in paragraph (g)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the complaint is resolved, the terms of the resolution shall be reduced to writing and signed by the agent and the agency.
</P>
<P>(4) Notice of the resolution shall be given to all class members in the same manner as notification of the acceptance of the class complaint and to the administrative judge. It shall state the relief, if any, to be granted by the agency and the name and address of the EEOC administrative judge assigned to the case. It shall state that within 30 days of the date of the notice of resolution, any member of the class may petition the administrative judge to vacate the resolution because it benefits only the class agent, or is otherwise not fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole. The administrative judge shall review the notice of resolution and consider any petitions to vacate filed. If the administrative judge finds that the proposed resolution is not fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole, the administrative judge shall issue a decision vacating the agreement and may replace the original class agent with a petitioner or some other class member who is eligible to be the class agent during further processing of the class complaint. The decision shall inform the former class agent or the petitioner of the right to appeal the decision to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and include EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition. If the administrative judge finds that the resolution is fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole, the resolution shall bind all members of the class.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing.</I> On expiration of the period allowed for preparation of the case, the administrative judge shall set a date for hearing. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with 29 CFR 1614.109 (a) through (f).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Decisions:</I> The administrative judge shall transmit to the agency and class agent a decision on the complaint, including findings, systemic relief for the class and any individual relief, where appropriate, with regard to the personnel action or matter that gave rise to the complaint. If the administrative judge finds no class relief appropriate, he or she shall determine if a finding of individual discrimination is warranted and, if so, shall order appropriate relief.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Agency final action.</I> (1) Within 60 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision on the complaint, the agency shall take final action by issuing a final order. The final order shall notify the class agent whether or not the agency will fully implement the decision of the administrative judge and shall contain notice of the class agent's right to appeal to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the right to file a civil action in federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit, and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. If the final order does not fully implement the decision of the administrative judge, then the agency shall simultaneously file an appeal in accordance with § 1614.403 and append a copy of the appeal to the final order. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final order. When an agency takes final action by issuing a final order or decision that requires the agency to include a notice that the class agent has the right to file an appeal with the EEOC, the notice shall inform the class agent that the appeal may be filed using the EEOC Public Portal, available at <I>https://publicportal.eeoc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) If an agency does not issue a final order within 60 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision, then the decision of the administrative judge shall become the final action of the agency.
</P>
<P>(3) A final order on a class complaint shall, subject to subpart D of this part, be binding on all members of the class and the agency.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notification of final action:</I> The agency shall notify class members of the final action and relief awarded, if any, through the same media employed to give notice of the existence of the class complaint. The notice, where appropriate, shall include information concerning the rights of class members to seek individual relief, and of the procedures to be followed. Notice shall be given by the agency within 10 days of the transmittal of the final action to the agent.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Relief for individual class members.</I> (1) When discrimination is found, an agency must eliminate or modify the employment policy or practice out of which the complaint arose and provide individual relief, including an award of attorney's fees and costs, to the agent in accordance with § 1614.501.
</P>
<P>(2) When class-wide discrimination is not found, but it is found that the class agent is a victim of discrimination, § 1614.501 shall apply. The agency shall also, within 60 days of the issuance of the final order finding no class-wide discrimination, issue the acknowledgement of receipt of an individual complaint as required by § 1614.106(d) and process in accordance with the provisions of subpart A of this part, each individual complaint that was subsumed into the class complaint.
</P>
<P>(3) When discrimination is found in the final order and a class member believes that he or she is entitled to individual relief, the class member may file a written claim with the head of the agency or its EEO Director within 30 days of receipt of notification by the agency of its final order. Administrative judges shall retain jurisdiction over the complaint in order to resolve any disputed claims by class members. The claim must include a specific detailed showing that the claimant is a class member who was affected by the discriminatory policy or practice, and that this discriminatory action took place within the period of time for which class-wide discrimination was found in the final order. Where a finding of discrimination against a class has been made, there shall be a presumption of discrimination as to each member of the class. The agency must show by clear and convincing evidence that any class member is not entitled to relief. The administrative judge may hold a hearing or otherwise supplement the record on a claim filed by a class member. The agency or the Commission may find class-wide discrimination and order remedial action for any policy or practice in existence within 45 days of the agent's initial contact with the Counselor. Relief otherwise consistent with this part may be ordered for the time the policy or practice was in effect. The agency shall issue a final order on each such claim within 90 days of filing. Such decision must include a notice of the right to file an appeal or a civil action in accordance with subpart D of this part and the applicable time limits. When an agency takes final action by issuing a final order or decision that requires the agency to include a notice that the class member has the right to file an appeal with the EEOC, the notice shall inform the class member that the appeal may be filed using the EEOC Public Portal, available at <I>https://publicportal.eeoc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37658, July 12, 1999; 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009; 77 FR 43505, July 25, 2012; 88 FR 57881, Aug. 24, 2023; 89 FR 11171, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Related Processes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.301" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.301   Relationship to negotiated grievance procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a person is employed by an agency subject to 5 U.S.C. 7121(d) and is covered by a collective bargaining agreement that permits allegations of discrimination to be raised in a negotiated grievance procedure, a person wishing to file a complaint or a grievance on a matter of alleged employment discrimination must elect to raise the matter under either part 1614 or the negotiated grievance procedure, but not both. An election to proceed under this part is indicated only by the filing of a written complaint; use of the pre-complaint process as described in § 1614.105 does not constitute an election for purposes of this section. An aggrieved employee who files a complaint under this part may not thereafter file a grievance on the same matter. An election to proceed under a negotiated grievance procedure is indicated by the filing of a timely written grievance. An aggrieved employee who files a grievance with an agency whose negotiated agreement permits the acceptance of grievances which allege discrimination may not thereafter file a complaint on the same matter under this part 1614 irrespective of whether the agency has informed the individual of the need to elect or of whether the grievance has raised an issue of discrimination. Any such complaint filed after a grievance has been filed on the same matter shall be dismissed without prejudice to the complainant's right to proceed through the negotiated grievance procedure including the right to appeal to the Commission from a final decision as provided in subpart D of this part. The dismissal of such a complaint shall advise the complainant of the obligation to raise discrimination in the grievance process and of the right to appeal the final grievance decision to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) When a person is not covered by a collective bargaining agreement that permits allegations of discrimination to be raised in a negotiated grievance procedure, allegations of discrimination shall be processed as complaints under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) When a person is employed by an agency not subject to 5 U.S.C 7121(d) and is covered by a negotiated grievance procedure, allegations of discrimination shall be processed as complaints under this part, except that the time limits for processing the complaint contained in § 1614.106 and for appeal to the Commission contained in § 1614.402 may be held in abeyance during processing of a grievance covering the same matter as the complaint if the agency notifies the complainant in writing that the complaint will be held in abeyance pursuant to this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.302" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.302   Mixed case complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Mixed case complaint.</I> A mixed case complaint is a complaint of employment discrimination filed with a federal agency based on race; color; religion; sex; national origin; age; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions related to or stemming from an action that can be appealed to the Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB). The complaint may contain only an allegation of employment discrimination or it may contain additional allegations that the MSPB has jurisdiction to address.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mixed case appeals.</I> A mixed case appeal is an appeal filed with the MSPB that alleges that an appealable agency action was effected, in whole or in part, because of discrimination on the basis of race; color; religion; sex; national origin; disability; age; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Election.</I> An aggrieved person may initially file a mixed case complaint with an agency pursuant to this part or an appeal on the same matter with the MSPB pursuant to 5 CFR 1201.151, but not both. An agency shall inform every employee who is the subject of an action that is appealable to the MSPB and who has either orally or in writing raised the issue of discrimination during the processing of the action of the right to file either a mixed case complaint with the agency or to file a mixed case appeal with the MSPB. The person shall be advised that he or she may not initially file both a mixed case complaint and an appeal on the same matter and that whichever is filed first shall be considered an election to proceed in that forum. If a person files a mixed case appeal with the MSPB instead of a mixed case complaint and the MSPB dismisses the appeal for jurisdictional reasons, the agency shall promptly notify the individual in writing of the right to contact an EEO counselor within 45 days of receipt of this notice and to file an EEO complaint, subject to § 1614.107. The date on which the person filed his or her appeal with MSPB shall be deemed to be the date of initial contact with the counselor. If a person files a timely appeal with MSPB from the agency's processing of a mixed case complaint and the MSPB dismisses it for jurisdictional reasons, the agency shall reissue a notice under § 1614.108(f) giving the individual the right to elect between a hearing before an administrative judge and an immediate final decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dismissal.</I> (1) An agency may dismiss a mixed case complaint for the reasons contained in, and under the conditions prescribed in, § 1614.107.
</P>
<P>(2) An agency decision to dismiss a mixed case complaint on the basis of the complainant's prior election of the MSPB procedures shall be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Where neither the agency nor the MSPB administrative judge questions the MSPB's jurisdiction over the appeal on the same matter, it shall dismiss the mixed case complaint pursuant to § 1614.107(a)(4) and shall advise the complainant that he or she must bring the allegations of discrimination contained in the rejected complaint to the attention of the MSPB, pursuant to 5 CFR 1201.155. The dismissal of such a complaint shall advise the complainant of the right to petition the EEOC to review the MSPB's final decision on the discrimination issue. A dismissal of a mixed case complaint is not appealable to the Commission except where it is alleged that § 1614.107(a)(4) has been applied to a non-mixed case matter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the agency or the MSPB administrative judge questions the MSPB's jurisdiction over the appeal on the same matter, the agency shall hold the mixed case complaint in abeyance until the MSPB's administrative judge rules on the jurisdictional issue, notify the complainant that it is doing so, and instruct him or her to bring the allegation of discrimination to the attention of the MSPB. During this period of time, all time limitations for processing or filing under this part will be tolled. An agency decision to hold a mixed case complaint in abeyance is not appealable to EEOC. If the MSPB's administrative judge finds that MSPB has jurisdiction over the matter, the agency shall dismiss the mixed case complaint pursuant to § 1614.107(a)(4), and advise the complainant of the right to petition the EEOC to review the MSPB's final decision on the discrimination issue. If the MSPB's administrative judge finds that MSPB does not have jurisdiction over the matter, the agency shall recommence processing of the mixed case complaint as a non-mixed case EEO complaint.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for agency processing of mixed case complaints.</I> When a complainant elects to proceed initially under this part rather than with the MSPB, the procedures set forth in subpart A shall govern the processing of the mixed case complaint with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) At the time the agency advises a complainant of the acceptance of a mixed case complaint, it shall also advise the complainant that:
</P>
<P>(i) If a final decision is not issued within 120 days of the date of filing of the mixed case complaint, the complainant may appeal the matter to the MSPB at any time thereafter as specified at 5 CFR 1201.154(b)(2) or may file a civil action as specified at § 1614.310(g), but not both; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the complainant is dissatisfied with the agency's final decision on the mixed case complaint, the complainant may appeal the matter to the MSPB (not EEOC) within 30 days of receipt of the agency's final decision;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon completion of the investigation, the notice provided the complainant in accordance with § 1614.108(f) will advise the complainant that a final decision will be issued within 45 days without a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(3) At the time that the agency issues its final decision on a mixed case complaint, the agency shall advise the complainant of the right to appeal the matter to the MSPB (not EEOC) within 30 days of receipt and of the right to file a civil action as provided at § 1614.310(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 61 FR 17576, Apr. 22, 1996; 64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999; 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009; 77 FR 43505, July 25, 2012; 89 FR 11171, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.303" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.303   Petitions to the EEOC from MSPB decisions on mixed case appeals and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> Individuals who have received a final decision from the MSPB on a mixed case appeal or on the appeal of a final decision on a mixed case complaint under 5 CFR part 1201, subpart E and 5 U.S.C. 7702 may petition EEOC to consider that decision. The EEOC will not accept appeals from MSPB dismissals without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of filing.</I> Filing shall be made by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the Office of Federal Operations, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time to file.</I> A petition must be filed with the Commission either within 30 days of receipt of the final decision of the MSPB or within 30 days of when the decision of a MSPB field office becomes final.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service.</I> The petition for review must be served upon all individuals and parties on the MSPB's service list by certified mail on or before the filing with the Commission, and the Clerk of the Board, MSPB, 1615 M Street, NW., Washington, DC 20419, and the petitioner must certify as to the date and method of service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 51470, Aug. 24, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.304" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.304   Contents of petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> Petitions must be written or typed, but may use any format including a simple letter format. Petitioners are encouraged to use EEOC Form 573, Notice Of Appeal/Petition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> Petitions must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the petitioner's representative, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the reasons why the decision of the MSPB is alleged to be incorrect, in whole or in part, only with regard to issues of discrimination based on race; color; religion; sex; national origin; age; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions;
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the decision issued by the MSPB; and
</P>
<P>(5) The signature of the petitioner or representative, if any.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11171, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.305" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.305   Consideration procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once a petition is filed, the Commission will examine it and determine whether the Commission will consider the decision of the MSPB. An agency may oppose the petition, either on the basis that the Commission should not consider the MSPB's decision or that the Commission should concur in the MSPB's decision, by filing any such argument with the Office of Federal Operations and serving a copy on the petitioner within 15 days of receipt by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall determine whether to consider the decision of the MSPB within 30 days of receipt of the petition by the Commission's Office of Federal Operations. A determination of the Commission not to consider the decision shall not be used as evidence with respect to any issue of discrimination in any judicial proceeding concerning that issue.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commission makes a determination to consider the decision, the Commission shall within 60 days of the date of its determination, consider the entire record of the proceedings of the MSPB and on the basis of the evidentiary record before the Board as supplemented in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, either:
</P>
<P>(1) Concur in the decision of the MSPB; or
</P>
<P>(2) Issue in writing a decision that differs from the decision of the MSPB to the extent that the Commission finds that, as a matter of law:
</P>
<P>(i) The decision of the MSPB constitutes an incorrect interpretation of any provision of any law, rule, regulation, or policy directive referred to in 5 U.S.C. 7702(a)(1)(B); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The decision involving such provision is not supported by the evidence in the record as a whole.
</P>
<P>(d) In considering any decision of the MSPB, the Commission, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7702(b)(4), may refer the case to the MSPB for the taking of additional evidence within such period as permits the Commission to make a decision within the 60-day period prescribed or provide on its own for the taking of additional evidence to the extent the Commission considers it necessary to supplement the record.
</P>
<P>(e) Where the EEOC has differed with the decision of the MSPB under § 1614.305(c)(2), the Commission shall refer the matter to the MSPB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.306" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.306   Referral of case to Special Panel.</HEAD>
<P>If the MSPB reaffirms its decision under 5 CFR 1201.162(a)(2) with or without modification, the matter shall be immediately certified to the Special Panel established pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7702(d). Upon certification, the Board shall, within five days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays), transmit to the Chairman of the Special Panel and to the Chairman of the EEOC the administrative record in the proceeding including—
</P>
<P>(a) The factual record compiled under this section, which shall include a transcript of any hearing(s);
</P>
<P>(b) The decisions issued by the Board and the Commission under 5 U.S.C. 7702; and
</P>
<P>(c) A transcript of oral arguments made, or legal brief(s) filed, before the Board and the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.307" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.307   Organization of Special Panel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Special Panel is composed of:
</P>
<P>(1) A Chairman appointed by the President with the advice and consent of the Senate, and whose term is 6 years;
</P>
<P>(2) One member of the MSPB designated by the Chairman of the Board each time a panel is convened; and
</P>
<P>(3) One member of the EEOC designated by the Chairman of the Commission each time a panel is convened.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of Special Panel member</I>—(1) <I>Time of designation.</I> Within five days of certification of the case to the Special Panel, the Chairman of the MSPB and the Chairman of the EEOC shall each designate one member from their respective agencies to serve on the Special Panel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Manner of designation.</I> Letters of designation shall be served on the Chairman of the Special Panel and the parties to the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.308" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.308   Practices and procedures of the Special Panel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The rules in this subpart apply to proceedings before the Special Panel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension of rules in this subpart.</I> In the interest of expediting a decision, or for good cause shown, the Chairman of the Special Panel may, except where the rule in this subpart is required by statute, suspend the rules in this subpart on application of a party, or on his or her own motion, and may order proceedings in accordance with his or her direction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limit for proceedings.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7702(d)(2)(A), the Special Panel shall issue a decision within 45 days of the matter being certified to it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Administrative assistance to Special Panel.</I> (1) The MSPB and the EEOC shall provide the Panel with such reasonable and necessary administrative resources as determined by the Chairman of the Special Panel.
</P>
<P>(2) Assistance shall include, but is not limited to, processing vouchers for pay and travel expenses.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board and the EEOC shall be responsible for all administrative costs incurred by the Special Panel and, to the extent practicable, shall equally divide the costs of providing such administrative assistance. The Chairman of the Special Panel shall resolve the manner in which costs are divided in the event of a disagreement between the Board and the EEOC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Maintenance of the official record.</I> The Board shall maintain the official record. The Board shall transmit two copies of each submission filed to each member of the Special Panel in an expeditious manner.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Filing and service of pleadings.</I> (1) The parties shall file the original and six copies of all submissions with the Clerk, Merit Systems Protection Board, 1120 Vermont Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20419. One copy of each submission shall be served on the other parties.
</P>
<P>(2) A certificate of service specifying how and when service was made must accompany all submissions of the parties.
</P>
<P>(3) Service may be by mail or by personal delivery during normal business hours (8:15 a.m.-4:45 p.m.). Due to the short statutory time limit, parties are required to file their submissions by overnight delivery service should they file by mail.
</P>
<P>(4) The date of filing shall be determined by the date of mailing as indicated by the order date for the overnight delivery service. If the filing is by personal delivery, it shall be considered filed on that date it is received in the office of the Clerk, MSPB.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Briefs and responsive pleadings.</I> If the parties wish to submit written argument, briefs shall be filed with the Special Panel within 15 days of the date of the Board's certification order. Due to the short statutory time limit responsive pleadings will not ordinarily be permitted.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Oral argument.</I> The parties have the right to oral argument if desired. Parties wishing to exercise this right shall so indicate at the time of filing their brief, or if no brief is filed, within 15 days of the date of the Board's certification order. Upon receipt of a request for argument, the Chairman of the Special Panel shall determine the time and place for argument and the time to be allowed each side, and shall so notify the parties.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Post-argument submissions.</I> Due to the short statutory time limit, no post-argument submissions will be permitted except by order of the Chairman of the Special Panel.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Procedural matters.</I> Any procedural matters not addressed in this subpart shall be resolved by written order of the Chairman of the Special Panel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.309" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.309   Enforcement of Special Panel decision.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall, upon receipt of the decision of the Special Panel, order the agency concerned to take any action appropriate to carry out the decision of the Panel. The Board's regulations regarding enforcement of a final order of the Board shall apply. These regulations are set out at 5 CFR part 1201, subpart E.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.310" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.3.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.310   Right to file a civil action.</HEAD>
<P>An individual who has a complaint processed pursuant to 5 CFR part 1201, subpart E or this subpart is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 7702 to file a civil action in an appropriate United States District Court:
</P>
<P>(a) Within 30 days of receipt of a final decision issued by an agency on a complaint unless an appeal is filed with the MSPB; or
</P>
<P>(b) Within 30 days of receipt of notice of the final decision or action taken by the MSPB if the individual does not file a petition for consideration with the EEOC; or
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 days of receipt of notice that the Commission has determined not to consider the decision of the MSPB; or
</P>
<P>(d) Within 30 days of receipt of notice that the Commission concurs with the decision of the MSPB; or
</P>
<P>(e) If the Commission issues a decision different from the decision of the MSPB, within 30 days of receipt of notice that the MSPB concurs in and adopts in whole the decision of the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(f) If the MSPB does not concur with the decision of the Commission and reaffirms its initial decision or reaffirms its initial decision with a revision, within 30 days of the receipt of notice of the decision of the Special Panel; or
</P>
<P>(g) After 120 days from the date of filing a formal complaint if there is no final action or appeal to the MSPB; or
</P>
<P>(h) After 120 days from the date of filing an appeal with the MSPB if the MSPB has not yet made a decision; or
</P>
<P>(i) After 180 days from the date of filing a petition for consideration with Commission if there is no decision by the Commission, reconsideration decision by the MSPB or decision by the Special Panel.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Appeals and Civil Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.401" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.401   Appeals to the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complainant may appeal an agency's final action or dismissal of a complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) An agency may appeal as provided in § 1614.110(a).
</P>
<P>(c) A class agent or an agency may appeal an administrative judge's decision accepting or dismissing all or part of a class complaint; a class agent may appeal an agency's final action or an agency may appeal an administrative judge's decision on a class complaint; a class member may appeal a final decision on a claim for individual relief under a class complaint; and a class member, a class agent or an agency may appeal a final decision on a petition pursuant to § 1614.204(g)(4).
</P>
<P>(d) A grievant may appeal the final decision of the agency, the arbitrator or the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA) on the grievance when an issue of employment discrimination was raised in a negotiated grievance procedure that permits such issues to be raised. A grievant may not appeal under this part, however, when the matter initially raised in the negotiated grievance procedure is still ongoing in that process, is in arbitration, is before the FLRA, is appealable to the MSPB or if 5 U.S.C. 7121(d) is inapplicable to the involved agency.
</P>
<P>(e) A complainant, agent or individual class claimant may appeal to the Commission an agency's alleged noncompliance with a settlement agreement or final decision in accordance with § 1614.504.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999; 77 FR 43505, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.402" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.402   Time for appeals to the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appeals described in § 1614.401(a) and (c) must be filed within 30 days of receipt of the dismissal, final action or decision. Appeals described in § 1614.401(b) must be filed within 40 days of receipt of the hearing file and decision. Appeals described in § 1614.401(d) must be filed within 30 days of receipt of the final decision of the agency, the arbitrator or the Federal Labor Relations Authority. Where a complainant has notified the EEO Director of alleged noncompliance with a settlement agreement in accordance with § 1614.504, the complainant may file an appeal 35 days after service of the allegations of noncompliance, but no later than 30 days after receipt of an agency's determination.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant is represented by an attorney of record, then the 30-day time period provided in paragraph (a) of this section within which to appeal shall be calculated from the receipt of the required document by the attorney. In all other instances, the time within which to appeal shall be calculated from the receipt of the required document by the complainant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999; 77 FR 43505, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.403" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.403   How to appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The complainant, agency, agent, grievant or individual class claimant (hereinafter appellant) must file an appeal with the Director, Office of Federal Operations, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, at P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013, or electronically, by email, or through FedSEP or the EEOC's Public Portal, as applicable, or by personal delivery or facsimile. The appellant should use EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition, and should indicate what is being appealed.
</P>
<P>(b) The appellant shall furnish a copy of the appeal to the opposing party at the same time it is filed with the Commission. In or attached to the appeal to the Commission, the appellant must certify the date and method by which service was made on the opposing party.
</P>
<P>(c) If an appellant does not file an appeal within the time limits of this subpart, the appeal shall be dismissed by the Commission as untimely.
</P>
<P>(d) Any statement or brief on behalf of a complainant in support of the appeal must be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations within 30 days of filing the notice of appeal. Any statement or brief on behalf of the agency in support of its appeal must be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations within 20 days of filing the notice of appeal. The Office of Federal Operations will accept statements or briefs in support of an appeal by facsimile transmittal, provided they are no more than 10 pages long.
</P>
<P>(e) The agency must submit the complaint file to the Office of Federal Operations within 30 days of initial notification that the complainant has filed an appeal or within 30 days of submission of an appeal by the agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Any statement or brief in opposition to an appeal must be submitted to the Commission and served on the opposing party within 30 days of receipt of the statement or brief supporting the appeal, or, if no statement or brief supporting the appeal is filed, within 60 days of receipt of the appeal. The Office of Federal Operations will accept statements or briefs in opposition to an appeal by facsimile provided they are no more than 10 pages long.
</P>
<P>(g) Agencies are required to submit appeals, complaint files, and other filings to the Office of Federal Operations in a digital format acceptable to the Commission, absent a showing of good cause why an agency cannot submit digital records. Appellants are encouraged, but not required, to submit digital appeals and supporting documentation to the Office of Federal Operations in a format acceptable to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999, as amended at 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009; 77 FR 43505, July 25, 2012; 88 FR 57881, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.404" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.404   Appellate procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations shall review the complaint file and all written statements and briefs from either party. The Commission may supplement the record by an exchange of letters or memoranda, investigation, remand to the agency or other procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Office of Federal Operations requests information from one or both of the parties to supplement the record, each party providing information shall send a copy of the information to the other party.
</P>
<P>(c) When either party to an appeal fails without good cause shown to comply with the requirements of this section or to respond fully and in timely fashion to requests for information, the Office of Federal Operations shall, in appropriate circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information;
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party;
</P>
<P>(3) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or
</P>
<P>(4) Take such other actions as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.405" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.405   Decisions on appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of Federal Operations, on behalf of the Commission, shall issue a written decision setting forth its reasons for the decision. The Commission shall dismiss appeals in accordance with §§ 1614.107, 1614.403(c) and 1614.409. The decision shall be based on the preponderance of the evidence. The decision on an appeal from an agency's final action shall be based on a de novo review, except that the review of the factual findings in a decision by an administrative judge issued pursuant to § 1614.109(i) shall be based on a substantial evidence standard of review. If the decision contains a finding of discrimination, appropriate remedy(ies) shall be included and, where appropriate, the entitlement to interest, attorney's fees or costs shall be indicated. The decision shall reflect the date of its issuance, inform the complainant of his or her civil action rights, and be transmitted to the complainant and the agency. For complainants who are not registered with the EEOC Public Portal, the decision will be transmitted by first class mail. For complainants who are registered with the Public Portal, the decision will be transmitted via the Portal provided the complainant affirmatively consents to receive the decision through the Portal. For registered complainants who do not provide affirmative consent, and for complainants who affirmatively consent but subsequently notify the Commission that they withdraw their consent, the decision will be transmitted by first class mail. The Commission will transmit the decision to the agency via FedSEP.
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of Federal Operations, on behalf of the Commission, shall issue decisions on appeals of decisions to accept or dismiss a class complaint issued pursuant to § 1614.204(d)(7) within 90 days of receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) A decision issued under paragraph (a) of this section is final within the meaning of § 1614.407 unless a timely request for reconsideration is filed by a party to the case. A party may request reconsideration within 30 days of receipt of a decision of the Commission, which the Commission in its discretion may grant, if the party demonstrates that:
</P>
<P>(1) The appellate decision involved a clearly erroneous interpretation of material fact or law; or
</P>
<P>(2) The decision will have a substantial impact on the policies, practices or operations of the agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999; 77 FR 43505, July 25, 2012; 88 FR 57881, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.406" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.406   Time limits. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.407" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.407   Civil action: Title VII, Age Discrimination in Employment Act, Rehabilitation Act, Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, and Pregnant Workers Fairness Act.</HEAD>
<P>A complainant who has filed an individual complaint, an agent who has filed a class complaint or a claimant who has filed a claim for individual relief pursuant to a class complaint is authorized under title VII, the ADEA, the Rehabilitation Act, Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, and the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act to file a civil action in an appropriate United States District Court:
</P>
<P>(a) Within 90 days of receipt of the agency final action on an individual or class complaint;
</P>
<P>(b) After 180 days from the date of filing an individual or class complaint if agency final action has not been taken;
</P>
<P>(c) Within 90 days of receipt of the Commission's final decision on an appeal; or
</P>
<P>(d) After 180 days from the date of filing an appeal with the Commission if there has been no final decision by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) After filing an appeal with the Commission from an agency final action, the complainant, class agent, or class claimant may withdraw the appeal and file a civil action within 90 days of receipt of the agency final action. If the complainant, class agent, or class claimant files an appeal with the Commission from a final agency action and more than 90 days have passed since receipt of the agency final action, the appellant may file a civil action only in accordance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) After filing a request for reconsideration of a Commission decision on an appeal, the complainant, class agent, or class claimant may withdraw the request and file a civil action within 90 days of receipt of the Commission's decision on the appeal. If the complainant, class agent, or class claimant files a request for reconsideration of a Commission decision on an appeal and more than 90 days have passed since the appellant received the Commission's decision on the appeal, the appellant may file a civil action only in accordance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) A complainant, class agent, or class claimant who follows the procedures described in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section shall be deemed to have exhausted his or her administrative remedies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992. Redesignated and amended at 64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999; 85 FR 35561, June 11, 2020; 89 FR 11171, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.408" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.408   Civil action: Equal Pay Act.</HEAD>
<P>A complainant is authorized under section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 216(b)) to file a civil action in a court of competent jurisdiction within two years or, if the violation is willful, three years of the date of the alleged violation of the Equal Pay Act regardless of whether he or she pursued any administrative complaint processing. Recovery of back wages is limited to two years prior to the date of filing suit, or to three years if the violation is deemed willful; liquidated damages in an equal amount may also be awarded. The filing of a complaint or appeal under this part shall not toll the time for filing a civil action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992. Redesignated at 64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.409" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.4.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.409   Effect of filing a civil action.</HEAD>
<P>Filing a civil action under § 1614.407 or § 1614.408 shall terminate Commission processing of the appeal. A Commission decision on an appeal issued after a complainant files suit in district court will not be enforceable by the Commission. If private suit is filed subsequent to the filing of an appeal and prior to a final Commission decision, the complainant should notify the Commission in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 35562, June 11, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Remedies and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.501" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.5.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.501   Remedies and relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an agency, or the Commission, in an individual case of discrimination, finds that an applicant or an employee has been discriminated against, the agency shall provide full relief which shall include the following elements in appropriate circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Notification to all employees of the agency in the affected facility of their right to be free of unlawful discrimination and assurance that the particular types of discrimination found will not recur;
</P>
<P>(2) Commitment that corrective, curative or preventive action will be taken, or measures adopted, to ensure that violations of the law similar to those found will not recur;
</P>
<P>(3) An unconditional offer to each identified victim of discrimination of placement in the position the person would have occupied but for the discrimination suffered by that person, or a substantially equivalent position;
</P>
<P>(4) Payment to each identified victim of discrimination on a make whole basis for any loss of earnings the person may have suffered as a result of the discrimination; and
</P>
<P>(5) Commitment that the agency shall cease from engaging in the specific unlawful employment practice found in the case.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relief for an applicant.</I> (1)(i) When an agency, or the Commission, finds that an applicant for employment has been discriminated against, the agency shall offer the applicant the position that the applicant would have occupied absent discrimination or, if justified by the circumstances, a substantially equivalent position unless clear and convincing evidence indicates that the applicant would not have been selected even absent the discrimination. The offer shall be made in writing. The individual shall have 15 days from receipt of the offer within which to accept or decline the offer. Failure to accept the offer within the 15-day period will be considered a declination of the offer, unless the individual can show that circumstances beyond his or her control prevented a response within the time limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the offer is accepted, appointment shall be retroactive to the date the applicant would have been hired. Back pay, computed in the manner prescribed by 5 CFR 550.805, shall be awarded from the date the individual would have entered on duty until the date the individual actually enters on duty unless clear and convincing evidence indicates that the applicant would not have been selected even absent discrimination. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation where sovereign immunity has been waived. The individual shall be deemed to have performed service for the agency during this period for all purposes except for meeting service requirements for completion of a required probationary or trial period.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the offer of employment is declined, the agency shall award the individual a sum equal to the back pay he or she would have received, computed in the manner prescribed by 5 CFR 550.805, from the date he or she would have been appointed until the date the offer was declined, subject to the limitation of paragraph (b)(3) of this section. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation. The agency shall inform the applicant, in its offer of employment, of the right to this award in the event the offer is declined.
</P>
<P>(2) When an agency, or the Commission, finds that discrimination existed at the time the applicant was considered for employment but also finds by clear and convincing evidence that the applicant would not have been hired even absent discrimination, the agency shall nevertheless take all steps necessary to eliminate the discriminatory practice and ensure it does not recur.
</P>
<P>(3) Back pay under this paragraph (b) for complaints under title VII or the Rehabilitation Act may not extend from a date earlier than two years prior to the date on which the complaint was initially filed by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relief for an employee.</I> When an agency, or the Commission, finds that an employee of the agency was discriminated against, the agency shall provide relief, which shall include, but need not be limited to, one or more of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Nondiscriminatory placement, with back pay computed in the manner prescribed by 5 CFR 550.805, unless clear and convincing evidence contained in the record demonstrates that the personnel action would have been taken even absent the discrimination. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation where sovereign immunity has been waived. The back pay liability under title VII or the Rehabilitation Act is limited to two years prior to the date the discrimination complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(2) If clear and convincing evidence indicates that, although discrimination existed at the time the personnel action was taken, the personnel action would have been taken even absent discrimination, the agency shall nevertheless eliminate any discriminatory practice and ensure it does not recur.
</P>
<P>(3) Cancellation of an unwarranted personnel action and restoration of the employee.
</P>
<P>(4) Expunction from the agency's records of any adverse materials relating to the discriminatory employment practice.
</P>
<P>(5) Full opportunity to participate in the employee benefit denied (e.g., training, preferential work assignments, overtime scheduling).
</P>
<P>(d) The agency has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the complainant has failed to mitigate his or her damages.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Attorney's fees or costs</I>—(1) <I>Awards of attorney's fees or costs.</I> The provisions of this paragraph relating to the award of attorney's fees or costs shall apply to allegations of discrimination prohibited by title VII and the Rehabilitation Act. In a decision or final action, the agency, administrative judge, or Commission may award the applicant or employee reasonable attorney's fees (including expert witness fees) and other costs incurred in the processing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(i) A finding of discrimination raises a presumption of entitlement to an award of attorney's fees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any award of attorney's fees or costs shall be paid by the agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) Attorney's fees are allowable only for the services of members of the Bar and law clerks, paralegals or law students under the supervision of members of the Bar, except that no award is allowable for the services of any employee of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(iv) Attorney's fees shall be paid for services performed by an attorney after the filing of a written complaint, provided that the attorney provides reasonable notice of representation to the agency, administrative judge or Commission, except that fees are allowable for a reasonable period of time prior to the notification of representation for any services performed in reaching a determination to represent the complainant. Agencies are not required to pay attorney's fees for services performed during the pre-complaint process, except that fees are allowable when the Commission affirms on appeal an administrative judge's decision finding discrimination after an agency takes final action by not implementing an administrative judge's decision. Written submissions to the agency that are signed by the representative shall be deemed to constitute notice of representation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount of awards.</I> (i) When the agency, administrative judge or the Commission determines an entitlement to attorney's fees or costs, the complainant's attorney shall submit a verified statement of attorney's fees (including expert witness fees) and other costs, as appropriate, to the agency or administrative judge within 30 days of receipt of the decision and shall submit a copy of the statement to the agency. A statement of attorney's fees and costs shall be accompanied by an affidavit executed by the attorney of record itemizing the attorney's charges for legal services. The agency may respond to a statement of attorney's fees and costs within 30 days of its receipt. The verified statement, accompanying affidavit and any agency response shall be made a part of the complaint file.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The agency or administrative judge shall issue a decision determining the amount of attorney's fees or costs due within 60 days of receipt of the statement and affidavit. The decision shall include a notice of right to appeal to the EEOC along with EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition and shall include the specific reasons for determining the amount of the award.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of attorney's fees shall be calculated using the following standards: The starting point shall be the number of hours reasonably expended multiplied by a reasonable hourly rate. There is a strong presumption that this amount represents the reasonable fee. In limited circumstances, this amount may be reduced or increased in consideration of the degree of success, quality of representation, and long delay caused by the agency.
</P>
<P>(C) The costs that may be awarded are those authorized by 28 U.S.C. 1920 to include: Fees of the reporter for all or any of the stenographic transcript necessarily obtained for use in the case; fees and disbursements for printing and witnesses; and fees for exemplification and copies necessarily obtained for use in the case.
</P>
<P>(iii) Witness fees shall be awarded in accordance with the provisions of 28 U.S.C. 1821, except that no award shall be made for a Federal employee who is in a duty status when made available as a witness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 43372, Aug. 21, 1995; 64 FR 37659, July 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.502" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.5.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.502   Compliance with final Commission decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Relief ordered in a final Commission decision is mandatory and binding on the agency except as provided in this section. Failure to implement ordered relief shall be subject to judicial enforcement as specified in § 1614.503(g).
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, when the agency requests reconsideration and the case involves removal, separation, or suspension continuing beyond the date of the request for reconsideration, and when the decision orders retroactive restoration, the agency shall comply with the decision to the extent of the temporary or conditional restoration of the employee to duty status in the position specified by the Commission, pending the outcome of the agency request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(1) Service under the temporary or conditional restoration provisions of this paragraph (b) shall be credited toward the completion of a probationary or trial period, eligibility for a within-grade increase, or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure, if the Commission upholds its decision after reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) When the agency requests reconsideration, it may delay the payment of any amounts ordered to be paid to the complainant until after the request for reconsideration is resolved. If the agency delays payment of any amount pending the outcome of the request to reconsider and the resolution of the request requires the agency to make the payment, then the agency shall pay interest from the date of the original appellate decision until payment is made.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency shall notify the Commission and the employee in writing at the same time it requests reconsideration that the relief it provides is temporary or conditional and, if applicable, that it will delay the payment of any amounts owed but will pay interest as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Failure of the agency to provide notification will result in the dismissal of the agency's request.
</P>
<P>(c) When no request for reconsideration is filed or when a request for reconsideration is denied, the agency shall provide the relief ordered and there is no further right to delay implementation of the ordered relief. The relief shall be provided in full not later than 120 days after receipt of the final decision unless otherwise ordered in the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37660, July 12, 1999; 77 FR 43506, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.503" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.5.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.503   Enforcement of final Commission decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition for enforcement.</I> A complainant may petition the Commission for enforcement of a decision issued under the Commission's appellate jurisdiction. The petition shall be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations. The petition shall specifically set forth the reasons that lead the complainant to believe that the agency is not complying with the decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance.</I> On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations shall take all necessary action to ascertain whether the agency is implementing the decision of the Commission. If the agency is found not to be in compliance with the decision, efforts shall be undertaken to obtain compliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clarification.</I> On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations may, on its own motion or in response to a petition for enforcement or in connection with a timely request for reconsideration, issue a clarification of a prior decision. A clarification cannot change the result of a prior decision or enlarge or diminish the relief ordered but may further explain the meaning or intent of the prior decision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Referral to the Commission.</I> Where the Director, Office of Federal Operations, is unable to obtain satisfactory compliance with the final decision, the Director shall submit appropriate findings and recommendations for enforcement to the Commission, or, as directed by the Commission, refer the matter to another appropriate agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commission notice to show cause.</I> The Commission may issue a notice to the head of any Federal agency that has failed to comply with a decision to show cause why there is noncompliance. Such notice may request the head of the agency or a representative to appear before the Commission or to respond to the notice in writing with adequate evidence of compliance or with compelling reasons for non-compliance.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Certification to the Office of Special Counsel.</I> Where appropriate and pursuant to the terms of a memorandum of understanding, the Commission may refer the matter to the Office of Special Counsel for enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification to complainant of completion of administrative efforts.</I> Where the Commission has determined that an agency is not complying with a prior decision, or where an agency has failed or refused to submit any required report of compliance, the Commission shall notify the complainant of the right to file a civil action for enforcement of the decision pursuant to Title VII, the ADEA, the Equal Pay Act, the Rehabilitation Act, the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, or the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act and to seek judicial review of the agency's refusal to implement the ordered relief pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.,</I> and the mandamus statute, 28 U.S.C. 1361, or to commence de novo proceedings pursuant to the appropriate statutes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 89 FR 11172, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.504" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.5.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.504   Compliance with settlement agreements and final action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any settlement agreement knowingly and voluntarily agreed to by the parties, reached at any stage of the complaint process, shall be binding on both parties. Final action that has not been the subject of an appeal or civil action shall be binding on the agency. If the complainant believes that the agency has failed to comply with the terms of a settlement agreement or decision, the complainant shall notify the EEO Director, in writing, of the alleged noncompliance within 30 days of when the complainant knew or should have known of the alleged noncompliance. The complainant may request that the terms of settlement agreement be specifically implemented or, alternatively, that the complaint be reinstated for further processing from the point processing ceased.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall resolve the matter and respond to the complainant, in writing. If the agency has not responded to the complainant, in writing, or if the complainant is not satisfied with the agency's attempt to resolve the matter, the complainant may appeal to the Commission for a determination as to whether the agency has complied with the terms of the settlement agreement or decision. The complainant may file such an appeal 35 days after he or she has served the agency with the allegations of noncompliance, but must file an appeal within 30 days of his or her receipt of an agency's determination. The complainant must serve a copy of the appeal on the agency and the agency may submit a response to the Commission within 30 days of receiving notice of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to rendering its determination, the Commission may request that parties submit whatever additional information or documentation it deems necessary or may direct that an investigation or hearing on the matter be conducted. If the Commission determines that the agency is not in compliance with a decision or settlement agreement, and the noncompliance is not attributable to acts or conduct of the complainant, it may order such compliance with the decision or settlement agreement, or, alternatively, for a settlement agreement, it may order that the complaint be reinstated for further processing from the point processing ceased. Allegations that subsequent acts of discrimination violate a settlement agreement shall be processed as separate complaints under § 1614.106 or § 1614.204, as appropriate, rather than under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37660, July 12, 1999; 77 FR 43506, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.505" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.5.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.505   Interim relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When the agency appeals and the case involves removal, separation, or suspension continuing beyond the date of the appeal, and when the administrative judge's decision orders retroactive restoration, the agency shall comply with the decision to the extent of the temporary or conditional restoration of the employee to duty status in the position specified in the decision, pending the outcome of the agency appeal. The employee may decline the offer of interim relief.
</P>
<P>(2) Service under the temporary or conditional restoration provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be credited toward the completion of a probationary or trial period, eligibility for a within-grade increase, or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure, if the Commission upholds the decision on appeal. Such service shall not be credited toward the completion of any applicable probationary or trial period or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure if the Commission reverses the decision on appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) When the agency appeals, it may delay the payment of any amount, other than prospective pay and benefits, ordered to be paid to the complainant until after the appeal is resolved. If the agency delays payment of any amount pending the outcome of the appeal and the resolution of the appeal requires the agency to make the payment, then the agency shall pay interest from the date of the original decision until payment is made.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency shall notify the Commission and the employee in writing at the same time it appeals that the relief it provides is temporary or conditional and, if applicable, that it will delay the payment of any amounts owed but will pay interest as specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Failure of the agency to provide notification will result in the dismissal of the agency's appeal.
</P>
<P>(5) The agency may, by notice to the complainant, decline to return the complainant to his or her place of employment if it determines that the return or presence of the complainant will be unduly disruptive to the work environment. However, prospective pay and benefits must be provided. The determination not to return the complainant to his or her place of employment is not reviewable. A grant of interim relief does not insulate a complainant from subsequent disciplinary or adverse action.
</P>
<P>(b) If the agency files an appeal and has not provided required interim relief, the complainant may request dismissal of the agency's appeal. Any such request must be filed with the Office of Federal Operations within 25 days of the date of service of the agency's appeal. A copy of the request must be served on the agency at the same time it is filed with EEOC. The agency may respond with evidence and argument to the complainant's request to dismiss within 15 days of the date of service of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 37660, July 12, 1999, as amended at 85 FR 35562, June 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Matters of General Applicability</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.601" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.6.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.601   EEO group statistics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall establish a system to collect and maintain accurate employment information on the race, national origin, sex and disability of its employees.
</P>
<P>(b) Data on race, national origin and sex shall be collected by voluntary self-identification. If an employee does not voluntarily provide the requested information, the agency shall advise the employee of the importance of the data and of the agency's obligation to report it. If the employee still refuses to provide the information, the agency must make visual identification and inform the employee of the data it will be reporting. If an agency believes that information provided by an employee is inaccurate, the agency shall advise the employee about the solely statistical purpose for which the data is being collected, the need for accuracy, the agency's recognition of the sensitivity of the information and the existence of procedures to prevent its unauthorized disclosure. If, thereafter, the employee declines to change the apparently inaccurate self-identification, the agency must accept it.
</P>
<P>(c) The information collected under paragraph (b) of this section shall be disclosed only in the form of gross statistics. An agency shall not collect or maintain any information on the race, national origin or sex of individual employees except when an automated data processing system is used in accordance with standards and requirements prescribed by the Commission to insure individual privacy and the separation of that information from personnel record.
</P>
<P>(d) Each system is subject to the following controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Only those categories of race and national origin prescribed by the Commission may be used;
</P>
<P>(2) Only the specific procedures for the collection and maintenance of data that are prescribed or approved by the Commission may be used;
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission shall review the operation of the agency system to insure adherence to Commission procedures and requirements. An agency may make an exception to the prescribed procedures and requirements only with the advance written approval of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) The agency may use the data only in studies and analyses which contribute affirmatively to achieving the objectives of the equal employment opportunity program. An agency shall not establish a quota for the employment of persons on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.


</P>
<P>(f) Data on disabilities shall be collected using a method permitted under § 1614.203(d)(6)(ii) and § 1614.203(d)(6)(iii).




</P>
<P>(g) An agency shall report to the Commission on employment by race, national origin, sex and disability in the form and at such times as the Commission may require.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009; 82 FR 681, Jan. 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.602" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.6.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.602   Reports to the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall report to the Commission information concerning pre-complaint counseling and the status, processing and disposition of complaints under this part at such times and in such manner as the Commission prescribes.
</P>
<P>(b) Each agency shall advise the Commission whenever it is served with a Federal court complaint based upon a complaint that is pending on appeal at the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) Each agency shall submit annually for the review and approval of the Commission written national and regional equal employment opportunity plans of action. Plans shall be submitted in a format prescribed by the Commission and shall include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Provision for the establishment of training and education programs designed to provide maximum opportunity for employees to advance so as to perform at their highest potential;
</P>
<P>(2) Description of the qualifications, in terms of training and experience relating to equal employment opportunity, of the principal and operating officials concerned with administration of the agency's equal employment opportunity program; and
</P>
<P>(3) Description of the allocation of personnel and resources proposed by the agency to carry out its equal employment opportunity program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.603" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.6.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.603   Voluntary settlement attempts.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency shall make reasonable efforts to voluntarily settle complaints of discrimination as early as possible in, and throughout, the administrative processing of complaints, including the pre-complaint counseling stage. Any settlement reached shall be in writing and signed by both parties and shall identify the claims resolved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37661, July 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.604" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.6.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.604   Filing and computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All time periods in this part that are stated in terms of days are calendar days unless otherwise stated.
</P>
<P>(b) A document shall be deemed timely if it is received or postmarked before the expiration of the applicable filing period, or, in the absence of a legible postmark, if it is received by mail within five days of the expiration of the applicable filing period.
</P>
<P>(c) A hearing request, appeal, brief, or other document filed by a complainant using the EEOC Public Portal, or filed by an agency using FedSEP, shall be deemed filed on the date the document is uploaded to the Public Portal or FedSEP. The timeliness of documents submitted through the Public Portal and FedSEP will be determined based on the time zone from which the document was submitted.
</P>
<P>(d) An EEOC decision that is transmitted to a complainant through the Public Portal or by email shall be deemed to be received when the decision is accessed on the Portal or when received if transmitted via email, or within five days of when the decision is uploaded to the Portal or emailed, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of §§ 1614.108, 1614.109, 1614.204(i), and 1614.401 through 1614.405, the terms <I>accept, file,</I> <I>filed, filing,</I> <I>issue, issuance,</I> <I>issuing, notify,</I> <I>notified, receive,</I> <I>receipt, send,</I> <I>serve, served,</I> <I>service, submit,</I> <I>submission, submitted,</I> <I>transmit,</I> and <I>transmitted,</I> shall include digital transmissions made through FedSEP, the EEOC Public Portal, or by email.
</P>
<P>(f) The time limits in this part are subject to waiver, estoppel and equitable tolling.
</P>
<P>(g) The first day counted shall be the day after the event from which the time period begins to run and the last day of the period shall be included, unless it falls on a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday, in which case the period shall be extended to include the next business day.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37661, July 12, 1999; 88 FR 57881, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.605" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.6.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.605   Representation and official time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any stage in the processing of a complaint, including the counseling stage § 1614.105, the complainant shall have the right to be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative of complainant's choice.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant is an employee of the agency, he or she shall have a reasonable amount of official time, if otherwise on duty, to prepare the complaint and to respond to agency and EEOC requests for information. If the complainant is an employee of the agency and he designates another employee of the agency as his or her representative, the representative shall have a reasonable amount of official time, if otherwise on duty, to prepare the complaint and respond to agency and EEOC requests for information. The agency is not obligated to change work schedules, incur overtime wages, or pay travel expenses to facilitate the choice of a specific representative or to allow the complainant and representative to confer. The complainant and representative, if employed by the agency and otherwise in a pay status, shall be on official time, regardless of their tour of duty, when their presence is authorized or required by the agency or the Commission during the investigation, informal adjustment, or hearing on the complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) In cases where the representation of a complainant or agency would conflict with the official or collateral duties of the representative, the Commission or the agency may, after giving the representative an opportunity to respond, disqualify the representative.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the complainant states otherwise in writing, after the agency has received written notice of the name, address and telephone number of a representative for the complainant, all official correspondence shall be with the representative with copies to the complainant. When the complainant designates an attorney as representative, service of all official correspondence shall be made on the attorney and the complainant, but time frames for receipt of materials shall be computed from the time of receipt by the attorney. The complainant must serve all official correspondence on the designated representative of the agency.
</P>
<P>(e) The Complainant shall at all times be responsible for proceeding with the complaint whether or not he or she has designated a representative.
</P>
<P>(f) Witnesses who are Federal employees, regardless of their tour of duty and regardless of whether they are employed by the respondent agency or some other Federal agency, shall be in a duty status when their presence is authorized or required by Commission or agency officials in connection with a complaint.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 37661, July 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.606" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.6.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.606   Joint processing and consolidation of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>Complaints of discrimination filed by two or more complainants consisting of substantially similar allegations of discrimination or relating to the same matter may be consolidated by the agency or the Commission for joint processing after appropriate notification to the parties. Two or more complaints of discrimination filed by the same complainant shall be consolidated by the agency for joint processing after appropriate notification to the complainant. When a complaint has been consolidated with one or more earlier filed complaints, the agency shall complete its investigation within the earlier of 180 days after the filing of the last complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, except that the complainant may request a hearing from an administrative judge on the consolidated complaints any time after 180 days from the date of the first filed complaint. Administrative judges or the Commission may, in their discretion, consolidate two or more complaints of discrimination filed by the same complainant. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 37661, July 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.607" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.6.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.607   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>An agency head may delegate authority under this part, to one or more designees. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Procedures Under the Notification and Federal Employee Antidiscrimination and Retaliation Act of 2002 (No FEAR Act)</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 303, Pub. L. 107-174, 116 Stat. 574.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 43650, Aug. 2, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1614.701" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.7.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.701   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements Title III of the Notification and Federal Employee Antidiscrimination and Retaliation Act of 2002 (No FEAR Act), Pub. L. 107-174. It sets forth the basic responsibilities of Federal agencies and the Commission to post certain information on their public Web sites.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.702" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.7.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.702   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>Federal agency</I> or <I>agency</I> means an Executive agency (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105), the United States Postal Service, and the Postal Rate Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Commission</I> means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and any subdivision thereof authorized to act on its behalf.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>investigation</I> refers to the step of the federal sector EEO process described in 29 CFR 1614.108 and 1614.106(e)(2) and, for purposes of this subpart, it commences when the complaint is filed and ceases when the complainant is given notice under § 1614.108(f) of the right to request a hearing or to receive an immediate final decision without a hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>hearing</I> refers to the step of the federal sector EEO process described in 29 CFR 1614.109 and, for purposes of § 1614.704(l)(2)(ii), it commences on the date the agency is informed by the complainant or EEOC, whichever occurs first, that the complainant has requested a hearing and ends on the date the agency receives from the EEOC notice that the EEOC Administrative Judge (AJ) is returning the case to the agency to take final action. For all other purposes under this subpart, a hearing commences when the AJ receives the complaint file from the agency and ceases when the AJ returns the case to the agency to take final action.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of § 1614.704(i), (j), and (k) the phrase without a hearing refers to a final action by an agency that is rendered:
</P>
<P>(1) When an agency does not receive a reply to a notice issued under § 1614.108(f);
</P>
<P>(2) After a complainant requests an immediate final decision;
</P>
<P>(3) After a complainant withdraws a request for a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(4) After an administrative judge cancels a hearing and remands the matter to the agency.
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of § 1614.704(i), (j), and (k), the term <I>after a hearing</I> refers to a final action by an agency that is rendered following a decision by an administrative judge under § 1614.109(f)(3)(iv), (g) or (i).
</P>
<P>(g) The phrase <I>final action by an agency</I> refers to the step of the federal sector EEO process described in 29 CFR 1614.110 and, for purposes of this subpart, it commences when the agency receives a decision by an Administrative Judge (AJ), receives a request from the complainant for an immediate final decision without a hearing or fails to receive a response to a notice issued under § 1614.108(f) and ceases when the agency issues a final order or final decision on the complaint.
</P>
<P>(h) The phrase <I>final action by an agency involving a finding of discrimination</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A final order issued by an agency pursuant to § 1614.110(a) following a finding of discrimination by an administrative judge; and
</P>
<P>(2) A final decision issued by an agency pursuant to § 1614.110(b) in which the agency finds discrimination.
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>appeal</I> refers to the step of the federal sector EEO process described in 29 CFR 1614.401 and, for purposes of this subpart, it commences when the appeal is received by the Commission and ceases when the appellate decision is issued.
</P>
<P>(j) The term basis of alleged discrimination refers to the individual's protected status (<I>i.e.,</I> race; color; religion; reprisal; sex; national origin; Equal Pay Act; age; disability; genetic information; or pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions). Only those bases protected by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.,</I> the Equal Pay Act of 1963, 29 U.S.C. 206(d), the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 621 <I>et seq.,</I> the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 791 <I>et seq.,</I> the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000ff <I>et seq.,</I> and the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg <I>et seq.,</I> are covered by the Federal EEO process.
</P>
<P>(k) The term <I>issue of alleged discrimination</I> means one of the following challenged agency actions affecting a term or condition of employment as listed on EEOC Standard Form 462 (“Annual Federal Equal Employment Opportunity Statistical Report of Discrimination Complaints”): Appointment/hire; assignment of duties; awards; conversion to full time; disciplinary action/demotion; disciplinary action/reprimand; disciplinary action/suspension; disciplinary action/removal; duty hours; evaluation/appraisal; examination/test; harassment/non-sexual; harassment/sexual; medical examination; pay/overtime; promotion/non-selection; reassignment/denied; reassignment/directed; reasonable accommodation; reinstatement; retirement; termination; terms/conditions of employment; time and attendance; training; and, other.
</P>
<P>(l) The term <I>subordinate component</I> refers to any organizational sub-unit directly below the agency or department level which has 1,000 or more employees and is required to submit EEOC Form 715-01 to EEOC pursuant to EEOC Equal Employment Opportunity Management Directive 715.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 12646, Apr. 10, 1992, as amended at 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009; 89 FR 11172, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.703" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.7.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.703   Manner and format of data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies shall post their statistical data in the following two formats: Portable Document Format (PDF); and an accessible text format that complies with section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies shall prominently post the date they last updated the statistical information on the Web site location containing the statistical data.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to providing aggregate agency-wide data, an agency shall include separate data for each subordinate component. Such data shall be identified as pertaining to the particular subordinate component.
</P>
<P>(d) Data posted under this subpart will be titled “Equal Employment Opportunity Data Posted Pursuant to Title III of the Notification and Federal Employee Antidiscrimination and Retaliation Act of 2002 (No FEAR Act), Pub. L. 107-174,” and a hyperlink to the data, entitled “No FEAR Act Data” will be posted on the homepage of an agency's public Web site. In the case of agencies with subordinate components, the data shall be made available by hyperlinks from the homepages of the Web sites (if any exist) of the subordinate components as well as the homepage of the Web site of the parent agency.
</P>
<P>(e) Agencies shall post cumulative data pursuant to § 1614.704 for the current fiscal year. Agencies may not post separate quarterly statistics for the current fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(f) Data posted pursuant to § 1614.704 by agencies having 100 or more employees, and all subordinate component data posted pursuant to subsection 1614.703(c), shall be presented in the manner and order set forth in the template EEOC has placed for this purpose on its public Web site.
</P>
<P>(1) Cumulative quarterly and fiscal year data shall appear in vertical columns. The oldest fiscal year data shall be listed first, reading left to right, with the other fiscal years appearing in the adjacent columns in chronological order. The current cumulative quarterly or year-end data shall appear in the last, or far-right, column.
</P>
<P>(2) The categories of data as set forth in § 1614.704(a) through (m) of this subpart shall appear in horizontal rows. When reading from top to bottom, the order of the categories shall be in the same order as those categories appear in § 1614.704(a) through (m).
</P>
<P>(3) When posting data pursuant to § 1614.704(d) and (j), bases of discrimination shall be arranged in the order in which they appear in § 1614.702(j). The category “non-EEO basis” shall be posted last, after the basis of “disability.”
</P>
<P>(4) When posting data pursuant to § 1614.704(e) and (k), issues of discrimination shall be arranged in the order in which they appear in § 1614.702(k). Only those issues set forth in § 1614.702(k) shall be listed.
</P>
<P>(g) Agencies shall ensure that the data they post under this subpart can be readily accessed through one or more commercial search engines.
</P>
<P>(h) Within 60 days of the effective date of this rule, an agency shall provide the Commission the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) for the data it posts under this subpart. Thereafter, new or changed URLs shall be provided within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(i) Processing times required to be posted under this subpart shall be recorded using number of days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.704" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.7.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.704   Information to be posted—all Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Commencing on January 31, 2004 and thereafter no later than 30 days after the end of each fiscal quarter beginning on or after January 1, 2004, each Federal agency shall post the following current fiscal year statistics on its public Internet Web site regarding EEO complaints filed under 29 CFR part 1614.
</P>
<P>(a) The number of complaints filed in such fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(b) The number of individuals filing those complaints (including as the agent of a class).
</P>
<P>(c) The number of individuals who filed two or more of those complaints.
</P>
<P>(d) The number of those complaints, whether initially or through amendment, raising each of the various bases of alleged discrimination and the number of complaints in which a non-EEO basis is alleged.
</P>
<P>(e) The number of those complaints, whether initially or through amendment, raising each of the various issues of alleged discrimination.
</P>
<P>(f) The average length of time it has taken an agency to complete, respectively, investigation and final action by an agency for:
</P>
<P>(1) All complaints pending for any length of time during such fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(2) All complaints pending for any length of time during such fiscal year in which a hearing was not requested; and
</P>
<P>(3) All complaints pending for any length of time during such fiscal year in which a hearing was requested.
</P>
<P>(g) The number of complaints dismissed by an agency pursuant to 29 CFR 1614.107(a), and the average length of time such complaints had been pending prior to dismissal.
</P>
<P>(h) The number of complaints withdrawn by complainants.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) The total number of final actions by an agency rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination and, of that number,
</P>
<P>(2) The number and percentage that were rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(3) The number and percentage that were rendered after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(j) Of the total number of final actions by an agency rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination,
</P>
<P>(1) The number and percentage of those based on each respective basis,
</P>
<P>(2) The number and percentage for each respective basis that were rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(3) The number and percentage for each respective basis that were rendered after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(k) Of the total number of final actions by an agency rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination,
</P>
<P>(1) The number and percentage for each respective issue,
</P>
<P>(2) The number and percentage for each respective issue that were rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(3) The number and percentage for each respective issue that were rendered after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(l) Of the total number of complaints pending for any length of time in such fiscal year,
</P>
<P>(1) The number that were first filed before the start of the then current fiscal year,
</P>
<P>(2) Of those complaints falling within subsection (l)(1),
</P>
<P>(i) The number of individuals who filed those complaints, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The number that are pending, respectively, at the investigation, hearing, final action by an agency, and appeal step of the process.
</P>
<P>(m) Of the total number of complaints pending for any length of time in such fiscal year, the total number of complaints in which the agency has not completed its investigation within the time required by 29 CFR 1614.106(e)(2) plus any extensions authorized by that section or § 1614.108(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.705" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.7.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.705   Comparative data—all Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Commencing on January 31, 2004 and no later than January 31 of each year thereafter, each Federal agency shall post year-end data corresponding to that required to be posted by § 1614.704 for each of the five immediately preceding fiscal years (or, if not available for all five fiscal years, for however many of those five fiscal years for which data are available). For each category of data, the agency shall post a separate figure for each fiscal year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.706" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.7.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.706   Other data.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies shall not include or otherwise post with the data required to be posted under § 1614.704 and 1614.705 of this subpart any other data, whether or not EEO related, but may post such other data on another, separate, Web page.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1614.707" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.13.7.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1614.707   Data to be posted by EEOC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commencing on January 31, 2004 and thereafter no later than 30 days after the end of each fiscal quarter beginning on or after January 1, 2004, the Commission shall post the following current fiscal year statistics on its public Internet Web site regarding hearings requested under this part 1614.
</P>
<P>(1) The number of hearings requested in such fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(2) The number of individuals filing those requests.
</P>
<P>(3) The number of individuals who filed two or more of those requests.
</P>
<P>(4) The number of those hearing requests involving each of the various bases of alleged discrimination.
</P>
<P>(5) The number of those hearing requests involving each of the various issues of alleged discrimination.
</P>
<P>(6) The average length of time it has taken EEOC to complete the hearing step for all cases pending at the hearing step for any length of time during such fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) The total number of administrative judge (AJ) decisions rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination and, of that number,
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage that were rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and percentage that were rendered after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(8) Of the total number of AJ decisions rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination,
</P>
<P>(i) The number and percentage of those based on each respective basis,
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage for each respective basis that were rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and percentage for each respective basis that were rendered after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(9) Of the total number of AJ decisions rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination,
</P>
<P>(i) The number and percentage for each respective issue,
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage for each respective issue that were rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and percentage for each respective issue that were rendered after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(10) Of the total number of hearing requests pending for any length of time in such fiscal year,
</P>
<P>(i) The number that were first filed before the start of the then current fiscal year, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of individuals who filed those hearing requests in earlier fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(11) Of the total number of hearing requests pending for any length of time in such fiscal year, the total number in which the Commission failed to complete the hearing step within the time required by § 1614.109(i).
</P>
<P>(b) Commencing on January 31, 2004 and thereafter no later than 30 days after the end of each fiscal quarter beginning on or after January 1, 2004, the Commission shall post the following current fiscal year statistics on its public Internet Web site regarding EEO appeals filed under part 1614.
</P>
<P>(1) The number of appeals filed in such fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(2) The number of individuals filing those appeals (including as the agent of a class).
</P>
<P>(3) The number of individuals who filed two or more of those appeals.
</P>
<P>(4) The number of those appeals raising each of the various bases of alleged discrimination.
</P>
<P>(5) The number of those appeals raising each of the various issues of alleged discrimination.
</P>
<P>(6) The average length of time it has taken EEOC to issue appellate decisions for:
</P>
<P>(i) All appeals pending for any length of time during such fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(ii) All appeals pending for any length of time during such fiscal year in which a hearing was not requested; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All appeals pending for any length of time during such fiscal year in which a hearing was requested.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) The total number of appellate decisions rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination and, of that number,
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage that involved a final action by an agency rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and percentage that involved a final action by an agency after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(8) Of the total number of appellate decisions rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination,
</P>
<P>(i) The number and percentage of those based on each respective basis of discrimination,
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage for each respective basis that involved a final action by an agency rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and percentage for each respective basis that involved a final action by an agency rendered after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(9) Of the total number of appellate decisions rendered in such fiscal year involving a finding of discrimination,
</P>
<P>(i) The number and percentage for each respective issue of discrimination,
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage for each respective issue that involved a final action by an agency rendered without a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and percentage for each respective issue that involved a final action by an agency rendered after a hearing.
</P>
<P>(10) Of the total number of appeals pending for any length of time in such fiscal year,
</P>
<P>(i) The number that were first filed before the start of the then current fiscal year, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of individuals who filed those appeals in earlier fiscal years.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1615" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1615—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF DISABILITY IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY COMMISSION AND IN ACCESSIBILITY OF COMMISSION ELECTRONIC AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794 and 29 U.S.C. 794d(f)(2).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 22749, May 26, 1989, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1615 appear at 73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1615.101" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of this part is also to effectuate section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act, which requires that when Federal departments and agencies develop, procure, maintain, or use electronic and information technology, they shall ensure accessibility by individuals with disabilities who are Federal employees or applicants, or members of the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 22749, May 26, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.102" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the Commission and to its development, procurement, maintenance, and use of electronic and information technology.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.103" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the Commission. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired ability to reach or grasp include goose neck telephone headsets, mechanical page turners, and raised or lowered furniture. These examples are not intended to be exclusive either as to the persons who are entitled to such aids or as to the type of aids that may be required. Although auxiliary aids are required explicitly only by § 1615.160(a)(1), they may also be necessary to meet other requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. 
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the Commission's actions in sufficient detail to inform the Commission of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504 or section 508. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic and Information technology.</I> Includes information technology and any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the creation, conversion, or duplication of data or information. The term electronic and information technology includes, but is not limited to, telecommunications products (such as telephones), information kiosks and transaction machines, World Wide Web sites, multimedia, and office equipment such as copiers and fax machines. The term does not include any equipment that contains embedded information technology that is used as an integral part of the product, but the principal function of which is not the acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information. For example, HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) equipment such as thermostats or temperature control devices, and medical equipment where information technology is integral to its operation, are not information technology. 
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property. 
</P>
<P><I>Individual with disabilities</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term “physical or mental impairment” includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic. visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having such an impairment</I> means—(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having an impairment. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with a disability</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any Commission program or activity (except employment), an individual with a disability who, with or without modifications or aids required by this part, meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to employment, a qualified individual with a disability as defined in 29 CFR 1630.2(m), which is made applicable to this part by § 1615.140. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955) and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 508</I> means section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-112, Title V, § 508, as added Pub. L. 99-506, Title VI, § 603(a), Oct. 21, 1986, 100 Stat. 1830, and amended Pub. L. 100-630, Title II, § 206(f), Nov. 7, 1988, 102 Stat. 3312; Pub. L. 102-569, Title V, § 509(a), Oct. 29, 1992, 106 Stat. 4430; Pub. L. 105-220, Title IV, § 408(b), Aug. 7, 1998, 112 Stat. 1203.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 22749, May 26, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1615.104-1615.110" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1615.104-1615.110   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.111" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the Commission, and make such information available to them in such manner as the Chair of the Commission finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 22749, May 26, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1615.112-1615.129" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1615.112-1615.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.130" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with disabilities shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Commission, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, certifying, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability —
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified individual with disabilities an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with disabilities with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with disabilities or to any class of individuals with disabilities than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with disabilities in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may not deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—(i) Subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—(i) Exclude individuals with disabilities from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of individuals without disabilities from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to individuals with disabilities or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with disabilities from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with disabilities is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 22749, May 26, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1615.131-1615.134" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1615.131-1615.134   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.135" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.135   Electronic and information technology requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Development, procurement, maintenance, or use of electronic and information technology.—When developing, procuring, maintaining, or using electronic and information technology, the Commission shall ensure, unless an undue burden would be imposed on it, that the electronic and information technology allows, regardless of the type of medium of the technology—
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals with disabilities who are Commission employees to have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of the information and data by Commission employees who are not individuals with disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals with disabilities who are members of the public seeking information or services from the Commission to have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of the information and data by such members of the public who are not individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Alternative means of access when undue burden is imposed.—When development, procurement, maintenance, or use of electronic and information technology that meets the standards published by the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board at 36 CFR part 1194 would impose an undue burden, the Commission shall provide individuals with disabilities covered by this section with the information and data involved by an alternative means of access that allows the individual to use the information and data. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1615.136-1615.139" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1615.136-1615.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.140" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the Commission. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by this Commission in 29 CFR part 1614, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities. As noted in 29 CFR 1614.203(b), the standards used to determine whether section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act has been violated in a complaint alleging non-affirmative action employment discrimination under part 1614 shall be the standards applied under Title I and Title V (sections 501 through 504 and 510) of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12101, 12111, 12201) as such sections relate to employment. These standards are set forth in the Commission's ADA regulations at 29 CFR part 1630. If a section 501 complaint is filed against the Commission in the part 1614 process and it is found to include a separate section 508 claim, the part 1614 process will be used to process the section 501 claim. The section 508 claim will be processed separately in accordance with the procedures set forth at § 1615.170.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1615.141-1615.148" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1615.141-1615.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.149" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.149   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 1615.150, no qualified individual with disabilities shall, because the Commission's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.150" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.150   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Commission shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the Commission to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Require the Commission to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where Commission personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the Commission has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1615.150(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Chair of the Commission after considering all Commission resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Commission shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> The Commission may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The Commission is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The Commission, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the Commission shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 22749, May 26, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 39868, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.151" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.151   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Commission shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR subpart 101-19.6, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1615.152-1615.159" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1615.152-1615.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.160" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with disabilities an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the Commission shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Commission communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission shall provide signs at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the Commission to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where Commission personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the Commission has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1615.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Chair of the Commission after considering all Commission resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Commission shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 22749, May 26, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 39866, July 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1615.161-1615.169" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1615.161-1615.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1615.170" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1615.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by the Commission in violation of section 504. This section also applies to all complaints alleging a violation of the agency's responsibility to procure electronic and information technology under section 508 whether filed by members of the public or EEOC employees or applicants.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by EEOC in 29 CFR part 1614 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791). With regard to employee claims concerning agency procurements made in violation of section 508, the procedures set out in paragraphs (d) through (m) of this section shall be used.
</P>
<P>(c) Responsibility for implementation and operation of this section shall be vested in the Director, Office of Equal Opportunity (Director of OEO).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing a complaint.</I> (1) Any person who believes that he or she has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part or that the agency's procurement of electronic and information technology has violated section 508, or authorized representative of such person, may file a complaint with the Director of OEO. Any person who believes that any specific class of persons has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part and who is a member of that class or the authorized representative of a member of that class may file a complaint with the Director. A charge on behalf of a person or member of a class of persons claiming to be aggrieved may be made by any person, agency or organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Where and when to file.</I> Complaints shall be filed with the Director of OEO within one hundred and eighty calendar days of the alleged acts of discrimination. A complaint shall be deemed filed on the date it is postmarked, or, in the absence of a postmark, on the date it is received in the Office of the Director. The Commission shall extend the time period for filing a complaint upon a showing of good cause. For example, the Commission shall extend this time limit if a complainant shows that he or she was not notified of the time limits and was not otherwise aware of them, or that he or she was prevented by circumstances beyond his or her control from submitting the matter within the time limits. A technically incomplete complaint shall be deemed timely if the complainant cures any defect upon request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Acceptance of complaint.</I> (1) The Commission shall accept a complete complaint that is filed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and over which it has jurisdiction. The Director, Office of Equal Opportunity shall notify the complainant and the respondent of receipt and acceptance of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Director, Office of Equal Opportunity receives a complaint that is not complete, he or she shall notify the complainant, within 30 days of receipt of the incomplete complaint, that additional information is needed. If the complainant fails to complete the complaint within 30 days of receipt of this notice, the Director shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice and shall so inform the complainant.
</P>
<P>(f) If the Commission receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(g) The Commission shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(h) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the Commission shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(i) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed with the Chair of the Commission by the complainant within ninety calendar days of receipt from the Commission of the letter required by § 1615.170(h). The Commission shall extend this time for good cause when a complainant shows that he or she was not notified of the prescribed time limit and was not otherwise aware of it or that circumstances beyond his or her control prevented the filing of an appeal within the prescribed time limit. An appeal shall be deemed filed on the date it is postmarked, or, in the absence of a postmark, on the date it is received by the Chair at EEOC headquarters. It should be clearly marked “Appeal of section 504 decision” or “Appeal of section 508 decision” and should contain specific objections explaining why the person believes the initial decision was factually or legally wrong. Attached to the appeal letter should be a copy of the initial decision being appealed.
</P>
<P>(j) Timely appeals shall be decided by the Chair of the Commission unless the Commission determines that an appeal raises a policy issue which should be addressed by the full Commission.
</P>
<P>(1) The Chair will draft a decision within 30 days of receipt of an appeal and circulate it to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) If a Commissioner believes an appeal raises a policy issue that should be addressed by the full Commission, he or she shall so inform the Chair by notice in writing within ten calendar days of the circulation of the draft decision on appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Chair does not receive such written notice, the decision on appeal shall be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) If the Chair receives written notice as described in subparagraph (2), the Commission shall resolve the appeal through a vote.
</P>
<P>(k) The Commission shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within ninety calendar days of the receipt of the appeal from the complainant. If the Commission determines that it needs additional information from the complainant, it shall have sixty days from the date it receives the additional information to make its determination on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(l) The time limits cited in paragraphs (h) and (k) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(m) The Commission may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, or may contract with non-Federal entities to conduct such investigations except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Civil actions.</I> The remedies, procedures, and rights set forth in sections 505(a)(2) and 505(b) of the Rehabilitation Act, 29 U.S.C. 794a(a)(2) and 794a(b) shall be the remedies, procedures, and rights available to any individual with a disability filing a complaint under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 22749, May 26, 1989, as amended at 71 FR 26830, May 9, 2006; 73 FR 39868, July 11, 2008]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1615.171-1615.999" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.14.0.26.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1615.171-1615.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1620" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1620—THE EQUAL PAY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended; sec. 10, 61 Stat. 84; Pub. L. 88-38, 77 Stat. 56 (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>); sec. 1, Reorg. Plan No. 1 of 1978, 43 FR 19807; E.O. 12144, 44 FR 37193.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 29819, Aug. 20, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1620.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.1   Basic applicability of the Equal Pay Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Since the Equal Pay Act, 29 U.S.C. 206(d) (hereinafter referred to as the EPA), is a part of the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 201, <I>et seq.</I> (hereinafter referred to as the FLSA), it has the same basic coverage as the FLSA with two principal exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) The EPA applies to executive, administrative, and professional employees who are normally exempted from the FLSA for most purposes by section 13(a)(1) of that statute, and
</P>
<P>(2) The EPA covers all State and local government employees unless they are specifically exempted under section 3(e)(2)(C) of the FLSA.
</P>
<P>(b) The EPA does not apply where the employer has no employees who are engaged in commerce or in the handling of goods that have moved in commerce and the employer is not an enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce.
</P>
<P>(c) Men are protected under the Act equally with women. While the EPA was motivated by concern for the weaker bargaining position of women, the Act by its express terms applies to both sexes.
</P>
<P>(d) Most employees of the United States Government, as described in section 3(e)(2) (A) and (B) of the FLSA, are covered by the EPA. Accordingly, these interpretations and principles may generally be applied to Federal sector employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.2   General coverage of employees “engaged in commerce.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Like the FLSA, the EPA applies to employees “engaged in commerce.” “Commerce” is broadly defined in section 3(b) of the FLSA. It includes both interstate and foreign commerce and is not limited to transportation across State lines, or to activity of a commercial character. All parts of the movement among the several States, or between any State and any place outside thereof, of persons or things, tangibles or intangibles, including communication of information and intelligence, constitute movement in “commerce” within the statutory definition. This includes those parts of any such activity which take place wholly within a single State. In addition, the instrumentalities for carrying on such commerce are so inseparable from the commerce itself that employees working on such instrumentalities within the borders of a single State, by virtue of the contribution made by their work to the movement of the commerce, are “engaged in commerce” within the meaning of the FLSA.
</P>
<P>(b) Consistent with the purpose of the FLSA to apply Federal standards “throughout the farthest reaches of the channels of interstate commerce,” the courts have made it clear that the employees “engaged in commerce” include every employee employed in the channels of such commerce or in activities so closely related to such commerce as to be considered a part of it as a practical matter. Engaging “in commerce” includes activities connected therewith such as management and control of the various physical processes, together with the accompanying accounting and clerical activities. Thus, employees engaged in interstate or foreign commerce will typically include, among others, employees in distributing industries such as wholesaling or retailing who sell, transport, handle, or otherwise work on goods moving in interstate or foreign commerce as well as workers who order, receive, guard, pack, ship or keep records of such goods; employees who handle payroll or personnel functions for workers engaged in such activities; clerical and other workers who regularly use the mails, telephone, or telegraph for communication across State lines; and employees who regularly travel across State lines while working. For other examples, see 29 CFR part 776.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.3   General coverage of employees “engaged in * * * the production of goods for commerce.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Like the FLSA, the EPA applies to employees “engaged in * * * the production of goods for commerce.” The broad meaning of “commerce” as defined in section 3(b) of the FLSA has been outlind in § 1620.2. “Goods” is also comprehensively defined in section 3(i) of the FLSA and includes “articles or subjects of commerce of any character, or any part or ingredient thereof” not expressly excepted by the statute. The activities constituting “production” of the goods for commerce are defined in section 3(j) of the FLSA. These are not limited to such work as manufacturing but include handling or otherwise working on goods intended for shipment out of the State either directly or indirectly or for use within the State to serve the needs of the instrumentalities or facilities by which interstate or foreign commerce is carried on. Employees engaged in any closely related process or occupation directly essential to such production of any goods, whether employed by the producer or by an independent employer, are also engaged, by definition, in “production.” Thus, employees engaged in the administration, planning, management, and control of the various physical processes together with the accompanying clerical and accounting activities are, from a productive standpoint and for purposes of the FLSA, “engaged in the production of goods for commerce.”
</P>
<P>(b) Employees engaged in the production of goods for interstate or foreign commerce include those who work in manufacturing, processing, and distributing establishments, including wholesale and retail establishments that “produce” (including handling or working on) goods for such commerce. This includes everyone employed in such establishments, or elsewhere in the enterprises by which they are operated, whose activities constitute “production” of such goods under the principles outlined in paragraph (a) of this section. Thus, employees who sell, process, load, pack, or otherwise handle or work on goods which are to be shipped or delivered outside the State either by their employer or by another firm, and either in the same form or as a part or ingredient of other goods, are engaged in the production of goods for commerce within the coverage of the FLSA. So also are the office, management, sales, and shipping personnel, and maintenance, custodial, and protective employees who perform as a part of the integrated effort for the production of the goods for commerce, services related to such production or to such goods or to the plant, equipment, or personnel by which the production is accomplished.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.4   “Closely related” and “directly essential” activities.</HEAD>
<P>An employee is engaged in the production of goods for interstate or foreign commerce within the meaning of the FLSA even if the employees's work is not an actual and direct part of such production, so long as the employee is engaged in a process or occupation which is “closely related” and “directly essential” to it. This is true whether the employee is employed by the producer of the goods or by someone else who provides goods or services to the producer. Typical of employees covered under these principles are computer operators, bookkeepers, stenographers, clerks, accountants, and auditors and other office and whitecollar workers, and employees doing payroll, timekeeping, and time study work for the producer of goods; employees in the personnel, labor relations, employee benefits, safety and health, advertising, promotion, and public relations activities of the producing enterprise; work instructors for the producers; employees maintaining, servicing, repairing or improving the buildings, machinery, equipment, vehicles or other facilities used in the production of goods for commerce, and such custodial and productive employees as watchmen, guards, firemen, patrolmen, caretakers, stockroom workers and warehousemen; and transportation workers bringing supplies, materials, or equipment to the producer's premises, removing waste materials therefrom, or transporting materials or other goods, or performing such other transportation activities, as the needs of production may require. These examples are illustrative, rather than exhaustive, of the employees who are “engaged in the production of goods for commerce” by reason of performing activities closely related and directly essential to such production.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.5   What goods are considered as “produced for commerce.”</HEAD>
<P>Goods (as defined in section 3(i) of the FLSA) are “produced for commerce” if they are “produced, manufactured, mined, handled or in any other manner worked on” in any State for sale, trade, transportation, transmission, shipment, or delivery, to any place outside thereof. Goods are produced for commerce where the producer intends, hopes, expects, or has reason to believe that the goods or any unsegregated part of them will move (in the same or in an altered form or as a part of ingredient of other goods) in interstate or foreign commerce. If such movement of the goods in commerce can reasonably be anticipated by the producer when the goods are produced, it makes no difference whether the producer or the person to whom the goods are transferred puts the goods in interstate or foreign commerce. The fact that goods do move in interstate or foreign commerce is strong evidence that the producer intended, hoped, expected, or had reason to believe that they would so move. Goods may also be produced “for commerce” where they are to be used within the State and not transported in any form across State lines. This is true where the goods are used to serve the needs of the instrumentalities or facilities by which interstate or foreign commerce is carried on within the State. For examples, see 29 CFR 776.20.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.6   Coverage is not based on amount of covered activity.</HEAD>
<P>The FLSA makes no distinction as to the percentage, volume, or amount of activities of either the employee or the employer which constitute engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. Every employee whose activities in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce, even though small in amount, are regular and recurring, is considered “engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.7   “Enterprise” coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms “enterprise” and “enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce” are defined in subsections 3(r) and 3(s) of the FLSA. Under the enterprise concept, if a business is an “enterprise engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce,” every employee employed in such enterprise or by such enterprise is within the coverage of the EPA unless specifically exempted in the FLSA, regardless of whether the individual employee is actually engaged in commerce or in the production of goods for commerce. The term “enterprise” is not synonymous with the terms “employer” or “establishment” although on occasion the three terms may apply to the same business entity. An enterprise may consist of a single establishment operated by one or more employers. (See definitions of “employer” and “establishment” in §§ 1620.8 and 1620.9.)
</P>
<P>(b) In order to constitute an enterprise, the activities sought to be aggregated must be related to each other, they must be performed under a unified operation or common control, and they must be performed for a common business purpose. Activities are related when they are the same or similar, or when they are auxiliary services necessary to the operation and maintenance of the particular business. Activities constitute a unified operation when the activities are operated as a single business unit or economic entity. Activities are performed under common control when the power to direct, restrict, regulate, govern or administer the performance of the activities resides in a single person or entity or when it is shared by a group of persons or entities. Activities are performed for a common business purpose when they are directed to the same or similar business objectives. A determination whether the statutory characteristics of an enterprise are present in any particular case must be made on a case-by-case basis. See generally, subpart C of 29 CFR part 779 for a detailed discussion of the term “enterprise” under the FLSA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.8   “Employer,” “employee,” and “employ” defined.</HEAD>
<P>The words “employer,” “employee,” and “employ” as used in the EPA are defined in the FLSA. Economic reality rather than technical concepts determines whether there is employment within the meaning of the EPA. The common law test based upon the power to control the manner of performance is not applicable to the determination of whether an employment relationship subject to the EPA exists. An “employer,” as defined in section 3(d) of the FLSA, means “any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee” and includes a “public agency,” as defined in section 3(x). An “employee,” as defined in section 3(e) of the FLSA, “means any individual employed by an employer.” “Employ,” as used in the EPA, is defined in section 3(g) of the FLSA to include “to suffer or permit to work.” Two or more employers may be both jointly or severally responsible for compliance with the statutory requirements applicable to employment of a particular employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.9   Meaning of “establishment.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Although not expressly defined in the FLSA, the term “establishment” had acquired a well settled meaning by the time of enactment of the Equal Pay Act. It refers to a distinct physical place of business rather than to an entire business or “enterprise” which may include several separate places of business. Accordingly, each physically separate place of business is ordinarily considered a separate establishment. 
</P>
<P>(b) In unusual circumstances, two or more portions of a business enterprise, even though located in a single physical place of business, may constitute more than one establishment. For example, the facts might reveal that these portions of the enterprise are physically segregated, engaged in functionally separate operations, and have separate employees and maintain separate records. Conversely, unusual circumstances may call for two or more distinct physical portions of a business enterprise being treated as a single establishment. For example, a central administrative unit may hire all employees, set wages, and assign the location of employment; employees may frequently interchange work locations; and daily duties may be virtually identical and performed under similar working conditions. Barring unusual circumstances, however, the term “establishment” will be applied as described in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.10   Meaning of “wages.”</HEAD>
<P>Under the EPA, the term “wages” generally includes all payments made to [or on behalf of] an employee as remuneration for employment. The term includes all forms of compensation irrespective of the time of payment, whether paid periodically or deferred until a later date, and whether called wages, salary, profit sharing, expense account, monthly minimum, bonus, uniform cleaning allowance, hotel accommodations, use of company car, gasoline allowance, or some other name. Fringe benefits are deemed to be remuneration for employment. “Wages” as used in the EPA (the purpose of which is to assure men and women equal remuneration for equal work) will therefore include payments which may not be counted under section 3(m) of the FLSA toward the minimum wage (the purpose of which is to assure employees a minimum amount of remuneration unconditionally available in cash or in board, lodging or other facilities). Similarly, the provisions of section 7(e) of the FLSA under which some payments may be excluded in computing an employee's “regular rate” of pay for purposes of section 7 do not authorize the exclusion of any such remuneration from the “wages” of an employee in applying the EPA. Thus, vacation and holiday pay, and premium payments for work on Saturdays, Sundays, holidays, regular days of rest or other days or hours in excess or outside of the employee's regular days or hours of work are deemed remuneration for employment and therefore wage payments that must be considered in applying the EPA, even though not a part of the employee's “regular rate.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.11   Fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) “Fringe benefits” includes, e.g., such terms as medical, hospital, accident, life insurance and retirement benefits; profit sharing and bonus plans; leave; and other such concepts.
</P>
<P>(b) It is unlawful for an employer to discriminate between men and women performing equal work with regard to fringe benefits. Differences in the application of fringe benefit plans which are based upon sex-based actuarial studies cannot be justified as based on “any other factor other than sex.”
</P>
<P>(c) Where an employer conditions benefits available to employees and their spouses and families on whether the employee is the “head of the household” or “principal wage earner” in the family unit, the overall implementation of the plan will be closely scrutinized.
</P>
<P>(d) It is unlawful for an employer to make available benefits for the spouses or families of employees of one gender where the same benefits are not made available for the spouses or families of opposite gender employees.
</P>
<P>(e) It shall not be a defense under the EPA to a charge of sex discrimination in benefits that the cost of such benefits is greater with respect to one sex than the other.
</P>
<P>(f) It is unlawful for an employer to have a pension or retirement plan which, with respect to benefits, establishes different optional or compulsory retirement ages based on sex or which otherwise differentiates in benefits on the basis of sex.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 29816, Aug. 20, 1986; 51 FR 32636, Sept. 15, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.12   Wage “rate.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term wage “rate,” as used in the EPA, refers to the standard or measure by which an employee's wage is determined and is considered to encompass all rates of wages whether calculated on a time, commission, piece, job incentive, profit sharing, bonus, or other basis. The term includes the rate at which overtime compensation or other special remuneration is paid as well as the rate at which straight time compensation for ordinary work is paid. It further includes the rate at which a draw, advance, or guarantee is paid against a commission settlement.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a higher wage rate is paid to one gender than the other for the performance of equal work, the higher rate serves as a wage standard. When a violation of the Act is established, the higher rate paid for equal work is the standard to which the lower rate must be raised to remedy a violation of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.13   “Equal Work”—What it means.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The EPA prohibits discrimination by employers on the basis of sex in the wages paid for “equal work on jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, effort and responsibility and which are performed under similar working conditions * * *.” The word “requires” does not connote that an employer must formally assign the equal work to the employee; the EPA applies if the employer knowingly allows the employee to perform the equal work. The equal work standard does not require that compared jobs be identical, only that they be substantially equal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>“Male jobs” and “female jobs.”</I> (1) Wage classification systems which designate certain jobs as “male jobs” and other jobs as “female jobs” frequently specify markedly lower rates for the “females jobs.” Such practices indicate a pay practice of discrimination based on sex. It should also be noted that it is an unlawful employment practice under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to classify a job as “male” or “female” unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the job.
</P>
<P>(2) The EPA prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in the payment of wages to employees for work on jobs which are equal under the standards which the Act provides. For example, where an employee of one sex is hired or assigned to a particular job to replace an employee of the opposite sex but receives a lower rate of pay than the person replaced, a prima facie violation of the EPA exists. When a prima facie violation of the EPA exists, it is incumbent on the employer to show that the wage differential is justified under one or more of the Act's four affirmative defenses.
</P>
<P>(3) The EPA applies when all employees of one sex are removed from a particular job (by transfer or discharge) so as to retain employees of only one sex in a job previously performed interchangeably or concurrently by employees of both sexes. If a prohibited sex-based wage differential had been established or maintained in violation of the EPA when the job was being performed by employees of both sexes, the employer's obligation to pay the higher rate for the job cannot be avoided or evaded by the device of later confining the job to members of the lower paid sex.
</P>
<P>(4) If a person of one sex succeeds a person of the opposite sex on a job at a higher rate of pay than the predecessor, and there is no reason for the higher rate other than difference in gender, a violation as to the predecessor is established and that person is entitled to recover the difference between his or her pay and the higher rate paid the successor employee. 
</P>
<P>(5) It is immaterial that a member of the higher paid sex ceased to be employed prior to the period covered by the applicable statute of limitations period for filing a timely suit under the EPA. The employer's continued failure to pay the member of the lower paid sex the wage rate paid to the higher paid predecessor constitutes a prima facie continuing violation. Also, it is no defense that the unequal payments began prior to the statutory period. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards for determining rate of pay.</I> The rate of pay must be equal for persons performing equal work on jobs requiring equal skill, effort, and responsibility, and performed under similar working conditions. When factors such as seniority, education, or experience are used to determine the rate of pay, then those standards must be applied on a sex neutral basis. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inequalities in pay that raise questions under the Act.</I> It is necessary to scrutinize those inequalities in pay between employees of opposite sexes which may indicate a pattern of discrimination in wage payment that is based on sex. Thus, a serious question would be raised where such an inequality, allegedly based on a difference in job content, is in fact one in which the employee occupying the job purportedly requiring the higher degree of skill, effort, or responsibility receives the lower wage rate. Likewise, because the EPA was designed to eliminate wage rate differentials which are based on sex, situations will be carefully scrutinized where employees of only one sex are concentrated in the lower levels of the wage scale, and where there does not appear to be any material relationship other than sex between the lower wage rates paid to such employees and the higher rates paid to employees of the opposite sex. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Job content controlling.</I> Application of the equal pay standard is not dependent on job classifications or titles but depends rather on actual job requirements and performance. For example, the fact that jobs performed by male and female employees may have the same total point value under an evaluation system in use by the employer does not in itself mean that the jobs concerned are equal according to the terms of the statute. Conversely, although the point values allocated to jobs may add up to unequal totals, it does not necessarily follow that the work being performed in such jobs is unequal when the statutory tests of the equal pay standard are applied. Job titles are frequently of such a general nature as to provide very little guidance in determining the application of the equal pay standard. For example, the job title “clerk” may be applied to employees who perform a variety of duties so dissimilar as to place many of them beyond the scope of comparison under the Act. Similarly, jobs included under the title “stock clerk” may include an employee of one sex who spends all or most of his or her working hours in shifting and moving goods in the establishment whereas another employee, of the opposite sex, may also be described as a “stock clerk” but be engaged entirely in checking inventory. In the case of jobs identified by the general title “retail clerk”, the facts may show that equal skill, effort, and responsibility are required in the jobs of male and female employees notwithstanding that they are engaged in selling different kinds of merchandise. In all such situations, the application of the equal pay standard will have to be determined by applying the terms of the Act to the specific facts involved. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.14   Testing equality of jobs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> What constitutes equal skill, equal effort, or equal responsibility cannot be precisely defined. In interpreting these key terms of the statute, the broad remedial purpose of the law must be taken into consideration. The terms constitute separate tests, each of which must be met in order for the equal pay standard to apply. It should be kept in mind that “equal” does not mean “identical.” Insubstantial or minor differences in the degree or amount of skill, or effort, or responsibility required for the performance of jobs will not render the equal pay standard inapplicable. On the other hand, substantial differences, such as those customarily associated with differences in wage levels when the jobs are performed by persons of one sex only, will ordinarily demonstrate an inequality as between the jobs justifying differences in pay. However, differences in skill, effort or responsibility which might be sufficient to justify a finding that two jobs are not equal within the meaning of the EPA if the greater skill, effort, or responsibility has been required of the higher paid sex, do not justify such a finding where the greater skill, effort, or responsibility is required of the lower paid sex. In determining whether job differences are so substantial as to make jobs unequal, it is pertinent to inquire whether and to what extent significance has been given to such differences in setting the wage levels for such jobs. Such an inquiry may, for example, disclose that apparent differences between jobs have not been recognized as relevant for wage purposes and that the facts as a whole support the conclusion that the differences are too insubstantial to prevent the jobs from being equal in all significant respects under the law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Illustrations of the concept.</I> Where employees of opposite sexes are employed in jobs in which the duties they are required to perform and the working conditions are substantially the same, except that an employee of one sex is required to perform some duty or duties involving a higher skill which an employee of the other sex is not required to perform, the fact that the duties are different in this respect is insufficient to remove the jobs from the application of the equal pay standard if it also appears that the employer is paying a lower wage rate to the employee performing the additional duties notwithstanding the additional skill which they involve. In other situations, where employees of the opposite sex are employed in jobs which are equal in the levels of skill, effort, and responsibility required for their performance, it may be alleged that the assignment to employees of one sex but not the other of certain duties requiring less skill makes the jobs too different for comparison under the equal pay provisions. But so long as the higher level of skill is required for the performance of the jobs occupied by employees of both sexes, the fact that some of the duties assigned to employees of one sex require less skill than the employee must have for the job as a whole does not warrant any conclusion that the jobs are outside the purview of the equal pay standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determining equality of job content in general.</I> In determining whether employees are performing equal work within the meaning of the EPA, the amounts of time which employees spend in the performance of different duties are not the sole criteria. It is also necessary to consider the degree of difference in terms of skill, effort, and responsibility. These factors are related in such a manner that a general standard to determine equality of jobs cannot be set up solely on the basis of a percentage of time. Consequently, a finding that one job requires employees to expend greater effort for a certain percentage of their working time than employees performing another job, would not in itself establish that the two jobs do not constitute equal work. Similarly, the performance of jobs on different machines or equipment would not necessarily result in a determination that the work so performed is unequal within the meaning of the statute if the equal pay provisions otherwise apply. If the difference in skill or effort required for the operation of such equipment is inconsequential, payment of a higher wage rate to employees of one sex because of a difference in machines or equipment would constitute a prohibited wage rate differential. Where greater skill or effort is required from the lower paid sex, the fact that the machines or equipment used to perform substantially equal work are different does not defeat a finding that the EPA has been violated. Likewise, the fact that jobs are performed in different departments or locations within the establishment would not necessarily be sufficient to demonstrate that unequal work is involved where the equal pay standard otherwise applies. This is particularly true in the case of retail establishments, and unless a showing can be made by the employer that the sale of one article requires such higher degree of skill or effort than the sale of another article as to render the equal pay standard inapplicable, it will be assumed that the salesmen and saleswomen concerned are performing equal work. Although the equal pay provisions apply on an establishment basis and the jobs to be compared are those in the particular establishment, all relevant evidence that may demonstrate whether the skill, effort, and responsibility required in the jobs in the particular establishment are equal should be considered, whether this relates to the performance of like jobs in other establishments or not.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.15" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.15   Jobs requiring equal skill in performance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The jobs to which the equal pay standard is applicable are jobs requiring equal skill in their performance. Where the amount or degree of skill required to perform one job is substantially greater than that required to perform another job, the equal pay standard cannot apply even though the jobs may be equal in all other respects. Skill includes consideration of such factors as experience, training, education, and ability. <I>It must be measured in terms of the performance requirements of the job.</I> If an employee must have essentially the same skill in order to perform either of two jobs, the jobs will qualify under the EPA as jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, even though the employee in one of the jobs may not exercise the required skill as frequently or during as much of his or her working time as the employee in the other job. <I>Possession of a skill not needed to meet the requirements of the job cannot be considered in making a determination regarding equality of skill.</I> The efficiency of the employee's performance in the job is not in itself an appropriate factor to consider in evaluating skill.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comparing skill requirements of jobs.</I> As a simple illustration of the principle of equal skill, suppose that a man and a woman have jobs classified as administrative assistants. Both jobs require them to spend two-thirds of their working time facilitating and supervising support-staff duties, and the remaining one-third of their time in diversified tasks, not necessarily the same. Since there is no difference in the skills required for the vast majority of their work, whether or not these jobs require equal skill in performance will depend upon the nature of the work performed during the latter period to meet the requirements of the jobs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.16" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.16   Jobs requiring equal effort in performance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The jobs to which the equal pay standard is applicable are jobs that require equal effort to perform. Where substantial differences exist in the amount or degree of effort required to be expended in the performance of jobs, the equal pay standard cannot apply even though the jobs may be equal in all other respects. Effort is concerned with the measurement of the physical or mental exertion needed for the performance of a job. Job factors which cause mental fatigue and stress, as well as those which alleviate fatigue, are to be considered in determining the effort required by the job. “Effort” encompasses the total requirements of a job. Where jobs are otherwise equal under the EPA, and there is no substantial difference in the amount or degree of effort which must be expended in performing the jobs under comparison, the jobs may require equal effort in their performance even though the effort may be exerted in different ways on the two jobs. Differences only in the kind of effort required to be expended in such a situation will not justify wage differentials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comparing effort requirements of jobs.</I> To illustrate the principle of equal effort exerted in different ways, suppose that a male checker employed by a supermarket is required to spend part of his time carrying out heavy packages or replacing stock involving the lifting of heavy items whereas a female checker is required to devote an equal degree of effort during a similar portion of her time to performing fill-in work requiring greater dexterity—such as rearranging displays of spices or other small items. The difference in kind of effort required of the employees does not appear to make their efforts unequal in any respect which would justify a wage differential, where such differences in kind of effort expended to perform the job are not ordinarily considered a factor in setting wage levels. Further, the occasional or sporadic performance of an activity which may require extra physical or mental exertion is not alone sufficient to justify a finding of unequal effort. Suppose, however, that men and women are working side by side on a line assembling parts. Suppose further that one of the men who performs the operations at the end of the line must also lift the assembly, as he completes his part of it, and places it on a waiting pallet. In such a situation, a wage rate differential might be justified for the person (but only for the person) who is required to expend the extra effort in the performance of his job, provided that the extra effort so expended is substantial and is performed over a considerable portion of the work cycle. In general, a wage rate differential based on differences in the degree or amount of effort required for performance of jobs must be applied uniformly to men and women. For example, if all women and some men performing a particular type of job never perform heavy lifting, but some men do, payment of a higher wage rate to all of the men would constitute a prohibited wage rate differential if the equal pay provisions otherwise apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.17" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.17   Jobs requiring equal responsibility in performance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The equal pay standard applies to jobs the performance of which requires equal responsibility. Responsibility is concerned with the degree of accountability required in the performance of the job, with emphasis on the importance of the job obligation. Differences in the degree of responsibility required in the performance of otherwise equal jobs cover a wide variety of situations. The following illustrations in subsection (b), while by no means exhaustive, may suggest the nature or degree of differences in responsibility which will constitute unequal work.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comparing responsibility requirements of jobs.</I> (1) There are many situations where one employee of a group performing jobs which are equal in other respects is required from time to time to assume supervisory duties for reasons such as the absence of the regular supervisor. Suppose, for instance, that it is the employer's practice to pay a higher wage rate to such a “relief” supervisor with the understanding that during the intervals in which the employee performs supervisory duties the employee is in training for a supervisory position. In such a situation, payment of the higher rate to the employee might well be based solely on the additional responsibility required to perform the job and the equal pay provisions would not require the same rates to be paid to an employee of the opposite sex in the group who does not have an equal responsibility. There would clearly be no question concerning such a wage rate differential if the employer pays the higher rate to both men and women who are called upon from time to time to assume such supervisory responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) Other differences in responsibilities of employees in generally similar jobs may require similar conclusions. Sales clerks, for example, who are engaged primarily in selling identical or similar merchandise may be given different responsibilities. Suppose that one employee of such a group (who may be either a man or a woman) is authorized and required to determine whether to accept payment for purchases by personal checks of customers. The person having this authority to accept personal checks may have a considerable, additional degree of responsibility which may materially affect the business operations of the employer. In this situation, payment of a higher wage rate to this employee would be permissible. 
</P>
<P>(3) On the other hand, there are situations where one employee of the group may be given some minor responsibility which the others do not have (e.g., turning out the lights in his or her department at the end of the business day) but which is not of sufficient consequence or importance to justify a finding of unequal responsibility. As another example of a minor difference in responsibility, suppose that office employees of both sexes work in jobs essentially alike but at certain intervals a male and female employee performing otherwise equal work within the meaning of the statute are responsible for the office payroll. One of these employees may be assigned the job of checking time cards and compiling the payroll list. The other, of the opposite sex, may be required to make out paychecks, or divide up cash and put the proper amounts into pay envelopes after drawing a payroll check. In such circumstances, although some of the employees' duties are occasionally dissimilar, the difference in responsibility involved would not appear to be of a kind that is recognized in wage administration as a significant factor in determining wage rates. Under such circumstances, this difference would seem insufficient to justify a wage rate differential between the man's and woman's job if the equal pay provisions otherwise apply. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.18" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.18   Jobs performed under similar working conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In order for the equal pay standard to apply, the jobs are required to be performed under similar working conditions. It should be noted that the EPA adopts the flexible standard of similarity as a basis for testing this requirement. In determining whether the requirement is met, a practical judgment is required in light of whether the differences in working conditions are the kind customarily taken into consideration in setting wage levels. The mere fact that jobs are in different departments of an establishment will not necessarily mean that the jobs are performed under dissimilar working conditions. This may or may not be the case. The term “similar working conditions” encompasses two subfactors: “surroundings” and “hazards.” “Surroundings” measure the elements, such as toxic chemicals or fumes, regularly encountered by a worker, their intensity and their frequency. “Hazards” take into account the physical hazards regularly encountered, their frequency and the severity of injury they can cause. The phrase “working conditions” does not encompass shift differentials. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining similarity of working conditions.</I> Generally, employees performing jobs requiring equal skill, effort, and responsibility are likely to be performing them under similar working conditions. However, in situations where some employees performing work meeting these standards have working conditions substantially different from those required for the performance of other jobs, the equal pay principle would not apply. On the other hand, slight or inconsequential differences in working conditions which are not usually taken into consideration by employers or in collective bargaining in setting wage rates would not justify a differential in pay. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.19" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.19   Equality of wages—application of the principle.</HEAD>
<P>Equal wages must be paid in the same medium of exchange. In addition, an employer would be prohibited from paying higher hourly rates to all employees of one sex and then attempting to equalize the differential by periodically paying employees of the opposite sex a bonus. Comparison can be made for equal pay purposes between employees employed in equal jobs in the same establishment although they work in different departments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.20" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.20   Pay differentials claimed to be based on extra duties.</HEAD>
<P>Additional duties may not be a defense to the payment of higher wages to one sex where the higher pay is not related to the extra duties. The Commission will scrutinize such a defense to determine whether it is bona fide. For example, an employer cannot successfully assert an extra duties defense where:
</P>
<P>(a) Employees of the higher paid sex receive the higher pay without doing the extra work;
</P>
<P>(b) Members of the lower paid sex also perform extra duties requiring equal skill, effort, and responsibility;
</P>
<P>(c) The proffered extra duties do not in fact exist;
</P>
<P>(d) The extra task consumes a minimal amount of time and is of peripheral importance; or
</P>
<P>(e) Third persons (i.e., individuals who are not in the two groups of employees being compared) who do the extra task as their primary job are paid less than the members of the higher paid sex for whom there is an attempt to justify the pay differential.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.21" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.21   Head of household.</HEAD>
<P>Since a “head of household” or “head of family” status bears no relationship to the requirements of the job or to the individual's performance on the job, such a claimed defense to an alleged EPA violation will be closely scrutinized as stated in § 1620.11(c). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.22" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.22   Employment cost not a “factor other than sex.”</HEAD>
<P>A wage differential based on claimed differences between the average cost of employing workers of one sex as a group and the average cost of employing workers of the opposite sex as a group is discriminatory and does not qualify as a differential based on any “factor other than sex,” and will result in a violation of the equal pay provisions, if the equal pay standard otherwise applies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.23" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.23   Collective bargaining agreements not a defense.</HEAD>
<P>The establishment by collective bargaining or inclusion in a collective bargaining agreement of unequal rates of pay does not constitute a defense available to either an employer or to a labor organization. Any and all provisions in a collective bargaining agreement which provide unequal rates of pay in conflict with the requirements of the EPA are null and void and of no effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.24" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.24   Time unit for determining violations.</HEAD>
<P>In applying the various tests of equality to the requirements for the performance of particular jobs, it is necessary to scrutinize each job as a whole and to look at the characteristics of the jobs being compared over a full work cycle. For the purpose of such a comparison, the appropriate work cycle to be determined would be that performed by members of the lower paid sex and a comparison then made with job duties performed by members of the higher paid sex during a similar work cycle. The appropriate work cycle will be determined by an examination of the facts of each situation. For example, where men and women custodial workers in a school system perform equal work during the academic year, but the men perform additional duties in the summer months, the appropriate work cycle for EPA purposes would be the academic year. In that instance, the additional summer duties would not preclude the application of the equal pay standard or justify the higher wage rate for men for the period when the work was equal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.25" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.25   Equalization of rates.</HEAD>
<P>Under the express terms of the EPA, when a prohibited sex-based wage differential has been proved, an employer can come into compliance only by raising the wage rate of the lower paid sex. The rate-reduction provision of the EPA prohibits an employer from attempting to cure a violation by hiring or transferring employees to perform the previously lower-paid job at the lower rate. Similarly, the departure of the higher paid sex from positions where a violation occurred, leaving only members of the lower paid sex being paid equally among themselves, does not cure the EPA violations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.26" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.26   Red circle rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “red circle” rate is used to describe certain unusual, higher than normal, wage rates which are maintained for reasons unrelated to sex. An example of bona fide use of a “red circle” rate might arise in a situation where a company wishes to transfer a long-service employee, who can no longer perform his or her regular job because of ill health, to different work which is now being performed by opposite gender-employees. Under the “red circle” principle the employer may continue to pay the employee his or her present salary, which is greater than that paid to the opposite gender employees, for the work both will be doing. Under such circumstances, maintaining an employee's established wage rate, despite a reassignment to a less demanding job, is a valid reason for the differential even though other employees performing the less demanding work would be paid at a lower rate, since the differential is based on a factor other than sex. However, where wage rate differentials have been or are being paid on the basis of sex to employees performing equal work, rates of the higher paid employees may not be “red circled” in order to comply with the EPA. To allow this would only continue the inequities which the EPA was intended to cure.
</P>
<P>(b) For a variety of reasons an employer may require an employee, for a short period, to perform the work of a job classification other than the employee's regular classification. If the employee's rate for his or her regular job is higher than the rate usually paid for the work to which the employee is temporarily reassigned, the employer may continue to pay the higher rate under the “red circle” principle. For instance, an employer who must reduce help in a skilled job may transfer employees to less demanding work without reducing their pay, in order to have them available when they are again needed for their former jobs. Although employees traditionally engaged in performing the less demanding work would be paid at a lower rate than those employees transferred from the more skilled jobs, the resultant wage differential would not constitute a violation of the equal pay provisions since the differential is based on factors other than sex. This would be true during the period of time for which the “red circle” rate is bona fide. Temporary reassignments may also involve the opposite relationship of wage rates. Thus, an employee may be required, during the period of temporary reassignment, to perform work for which employees of the opposite sex are paid a higher wage rate than that paid for the duties of the employee's regular job classification. In such a situation, the employer may continue to pay the reassigned employee at the lower rate, if the rate is not based on quality or quantity of production , and if the reassignment is in fact a temporary one. If, however, a piece rate is paid employees of the opposite sex who perform the work to which the employee in question is reassigned, failure to pay the reassigned employee the same piece rate paid such other employees would raise questions of discrimination based on sex. Also, failure to pay the higher rate to a reassigned employee after it becomes known that the reassignment will not be of a temporary nature would raise a question whether sex rather than the temporary nature of the assignment is the real basis for the wage differential. Generally, failure to pay the higher rate to an employee reassigned for a period longer than one month will raise questions as to whether the reassignment was in fact intended to be temporary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.27" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.27   Relationship to the Equal Pay Act of title VII of the Civil Rights Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In situations where the jurisdictional prerequisites of both the EPA and title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 200e <I>et seq.</I>, are satisfied, any violation of the Equal Pay Act is also a violation of title VII. However, title VII covers types of wage discrimination not actionable under the EPA. Therefore, an act or practice of an employer or labor organization that is not a violation of the EPA may nevertheless be a violation of title VII. 
</P>
<P>(b) Recovery for the same period of time may be had under both the EPA and title VII so long as the same individual does not receive duplicative relief for the same wrong. Relief is computed to give each individual the highest benefit which entitlement under either statute would provide. (e.g., liquidated damages may be available under the EPA but not under title VII.) Relief for the same individual may be computed under one statute for one or more periods of the violation and under the other statute for other periods of the violation. 
</P>
<P>(c) The right to equal pay under the Equal Pay Act has no relationship to whether the employee is in the lower paying job as a result of discrimination in violation of title VII. Under the EPA a prima facie violation is established upon a showing that an employer pays different wages to employees of opposite sexes for equal work on jobs requiring equal skill, effort and responsibility, and which are performed under similar working conditions. Thus, the availability of a remedy under title VII which would entitle the lower paid employee to be hired into, or to transfer to, the higher paid job does not defeat the right of each person employed on the lower paid job to the same wages as are paid to a member of the opposite sex who receives higher pay for equal work. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.28" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.28   Relationship to other equal pay laws.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of various State or local laws may differ from the equal pay provisions set forth in the FLSA. No provisions of the EPA will excuse noncompliance with any State or other law establishing fewer defenses or more liberal work criteria than those of the EPA. On the other hand, compliance with other applicable legislation will not excuse violations of the EPA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.29" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.29   Relationship to other labor laws.</HEAD>
<P>If a higher minimum wage than that required under the FLSA is applicable to a particular sex pursuant to State law, and the employer pays the higher State minimum wage to male or female employees, it must also pay the higher rate to employees of the opposite sex for equal work in order to comply with the EPA. Similarly, if overtime premiums are paid to members of one sex because of a legal requirement, such premiums must also be paid to employees of the other sex.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.30" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.30   Investigations and compliance assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As provided in sections 9, 11, 16, and 17 of the FLSA, the Commission and its authorized representatives under the Act may (1) investigate and gather data; (2) enter and inspect establishments and records, and make transcriptions thereof, and interview individuals; (3) advise employers regarding any changes necessary or desirable to comply with the Act; (4) subpoena witnesses and order production of documents and other evidence; (5) supervise the payment of amounts owing pursuant to section 16(c) of the FLSA; (6) initiate and conduct litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel, District Directors, Washington Field Office Director, and the Program Director, Office of Program Operations, or the designees of any of them are hereby delegated authority to exercise the powers enumerated in paragraphs (a) (1), (2), (3), and (5) of this section and to serve subpoenas. The General Counsel is delegated authority to seek preliminary relief under the Act. The General Counsel is hereby delegated authority to initiate other litigation at the direction of the Commission and to conduct such litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) The identity or identifying details of persons giving information in confidence as to violations of the Act shall not be disclosed unless necessary in a court proceeding. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 4888, Jan. 19, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 46276, Oct. 18, 1982; 50 FR 30700, July 29, 1985. Redesignated at 51 FR 29819, Aug. 20, 1986, and amended at 54 FR 32063, Aug. 4, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.31" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.31   Issuance of subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to the enforcement of the Equal Pay Act, any member of the Commission shall have the authority to sign a subpoena requiring:
</P>
<P>(1) The attendance and testimony of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(2) The production of evidence including, but not limited to, books, records, correspondence, or documents, in the possession or under the control of the person subpoenaed; and
</P>
<P>(3) Access to evidence for the purposes of examination and the right to copy.
</P>
<P>(b) There is no right of appeal to the Commission from the issuance of such a subpoena.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued under this section, the Commission may utilize the provisions of sections 49 and 50 of title 15 of the United States Code to compel enforcement of the subpoena.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 4888, Jan. 19, 1981. Redesignated at 51 FR 29819, Aug. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.32" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.32   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers having employees subject to the Act are required to keep records in accordance with U.S. Department of Labor regulations found at 29 CFR part 516 (Records To Be Kept by Employers Under the FLSA). The regulations of that part are adopted herein by reference. 
</P>
<P>(b) Every employer subject to the equal pay provisions of the Act shall maintain and preserve all records required by the applicable sections of 29 CFR part 516 and in addition, shall preserve any records which he makes in the regular course of his business operation which relate to the payment of wages, wage rates, job evaluations, job descriptions, merit systems, seniority systems, collective bargaining agreements, description of practices or other matters which describe or explain the basis for payment of any wage differential to employees of the opposite sex in the same establishment, and which may be pertinent to a determination whether such differential is based on a factor other than sex.
</P>
<P>(c) Each employer shall preserve for at least two years the records he makes of the kind described in § 1620.32(b) which explain the basis for payment of any wage differential to employees of the opposite sex in the same establishment.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0019)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-511, 94 Stat. 2812 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 4888, Jan. 19, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981. Redesignated at 51 FR 29819, Aug. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.33" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.33   Recovery of wages due; injunctions; penalties for willful violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wages withheld in violation of the Act have the status of unpaid minimum wages or unpaid overtime compensation under the FLSA. This is true both of the additional wages required by the Act to be paid to an employee to meet the equal pay standard, and of any wages that the employer should have paid an employee whose wages he reduced in violation of the Act in an attempt to equalize his or her pay with that of an employee of the opposite sex performing equal work, on jobs subject to the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The following methods are provided under sections 16 and 17 of the FLSA for recovery of unpaid wages: The Commission may supervise payment of the back wages and may bring suit for back pay and an equal amount as liquidated damages. The employee may sue for back pay and an additional sum, up to the amount of back pay, as liquidated damages, plus attorney's fees and court costs. The employee may not bring suit if he or she has been paid back wages in full under supervision of the Commission, or if the Commission has filed suit under the Act to collect the wages due the employee. The Commission may also obtain a court injunction to restrain any person from violating the law, including the unlawful withholding by an employer of proper compensation. A 2-year statute of limitations applies to the recovery of unpaid wages, except that an action on a cause of action arising out of a willful violation may be commenced within 3 years after the cause of action accrued.
</P>
<P>(c) Willful violations of the Act may be prosecuted criminally and the violator fined up to $10,000. A second conviction for such a violation may result in imprisonment.
</P>
<P>(d) Violation of any provision of the Act by any person, including any labor organization or agent thereof, is unlawful, as provided in section 15(a) of the FLSA. Accordingly, any labor organization, or agent thereof, who violates any provision of the Act is subject to injunction proceedings in accordance with the applicable provisions of section 17 of the FLSA. Any such labor organization, or agent thereof, who willfully violates the provisions of section 15 is liable to the penalties set forth in section 16(a) of the FLSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 4888, Jan. 19, 1981. Redesignated at 51 FR 29819, Aug. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1620.34" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.15.0.26.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1620.34   Rules to be liberally construed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These rules and regulations shall be liberally construed to effectuate the purpose and provisions of this Act and any other Act administered by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person claiming to be aggrieved or the agent for such person may advise the Commission of the statute or statutes under which he or she wishes the Commission to commence its inquiry.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the Commission is investigating a charge or allegation relating to a possible violation of one of the statutes which it administers and finds a violation of one or more of the other statutes which it administers, the Commission may seek to remedy such violation in accordance with the procedures of all relevant statutes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 4888, Jan. 19, 1981. Redesignated at 51 FR 29819, Aug. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1621" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1621—PROCEDURES—THE EQUAL PAY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1-19, 52 Stat. 1060, as amended, secs. 10-16, 61 Stat. 84, Pub. L. 88-38, 77 Stat. 56 (29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>); sec. 1, Reorgan. Plan No. 1 of 1978, 43 FR 19807; E. O. 12144, 44 FR 37193.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 31411, Aug. 7, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1621.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.16.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1621.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations set forth in this part contain the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission for issuing opinion letters under the Equal Pay Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1621.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.16.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1621.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term <I>the Act</I> shall mean the Equal Pay Act the <I>Commission</I> shall mean the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission or any of its designated representatives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1621.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.16.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1621.3   Procedure for requesting an opinion letter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request for an opinion letter should be submitted in writing to the Chairman, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street, NE., Washington, DC 20507, and shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise statement of the issues for which an opinion is requested;
</P>
<P>(2) A full statement of the relevant facts and law; and
</P>
<P>(3) The names and addresses of the person(s) making the request and other interested persons.
</P>
<P>(b) Issuance of an opinion letter by the Commission is discretionary. 
</P>
<P>(c) Informal advice: When the Commission, at its discretion, determines that it will not issue an opinion letter as defined in § 1621.4, the Commission may provide informal advice or guidance to the requestor. An informal letter of advice does not represent the formal position of the Commission and does not commit the Commission to the views expressed therein. Any letter other than those defined in § 1621.4 will be considered a letter of advice and may not be relied upon by any employer within the meaning of section 10 of the Portal to Portal Act of 1947, 29 U.S.C. 255.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 31411, Aug. 7, 1984, as amended at 71 FR 26831, May 9, 2006; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1621.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.16.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1621.4   Effect of opinions and interpretations of the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 10 of the Portal to Portal Act of 1947, 29 U.S.C. 255, which applies to the Equal Pay Act of 1963, 29 U.S.C. 206(d), provides that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In any action or proceeding based on any act or omission on or after the date of the enactment of this Act, no employer shall be subject to any liability or punishment * * * if he pleads and proves that the act or omission complained of was in good faith in conformity with and in reliance on any written administrative regulation, order, ruling, approval or interpretation * * * or any administrative practice or enforcement policy of [the Commission].</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The Commission has determined that only the following documents may be relied upon by any employer as a “ruling, approval or interpretation” or as “evidence of any administrative practice or enforcement policy” of the Commission within the meaning of the statutory provisions quoted above.
</FP>
<P>(1) A written document, entitled “opinion letter,” signed by the Legal Counsel on behalf of and as approved by the Commission;
</P>
<P>(2) A written document issued in the conduct of litigation, entitled “opinion letter,” signed by the General Counsel on behalf of and as approved by the Commission;
</P>
<P>(3) A matter published and specifically designated as such in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) An opinion letter issued pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, when issued to a specific addressee, has no effect upon circumstances beyond the situation of the specific addressee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1625" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1625—AGE DISCRIMINATION IN EMPLOYMENT ACT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 621-634; 5 U.S.C. 301; Pub. L. 99-502, 100 Stat. 3342; Secretary's Order No. 10-68; Secretary's Order No. 11-68; sec. 2, Reorg. Plan No. 1 of 1978, 43 FR 19807; Executive Order 12067, 43 FR 28967.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 47726, Sept. 29, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission is hereinafter referred to as the <I>Commission.</I> The terms <I>person, employer, employment agency, labor organization,</I> and <I>employee</I> shall have the meanings set forth in section 11 of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 621 <I>et seq.,</I> hereinafter referred to as the <I>Act.</I> References to <I>employers</I> in this part state principles that are applicable not only to employers but also to labor organizations and to employment agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.2   Discrimination prohibited by the Act.</HEAD>
<P>It is unlawful for an employer to discriminate against an individual in any aspect of employment because that individual is 40 years old or older, unless one of the statutory exceptions applies. Favoring an older individual over a younger individual because of age is not unlawful discrimination under the ADEA, even if the younger individual is at least 40 years old. However, the ADEA does not require employers to prefer older individuals and does not affect applicable state, municipal, or local laws that prohibit such preferences.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 36875, July 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.3   Employment agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As long as an employment agency regularly procures employees for at least one covered employer, it qualifies under section 11(c) of the Act as an employment agency with respect to all of its activities whether or not such activities are for employers covered by the act.
</P>
<P>(b) The prohibitions of section 4(b) of the Act apply not only to the referral activities of a covered employment agency but also to the agency's own employment practices, regardless of the number of employees the agency may have.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.4   Help wanted notices or advertisements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Help wanted notices or advertisements may not contain terms and phrases that limit or deter the employment of older individuals. Notices or advertisements that contain terms such as <I>age 25 to 35, young, college student, recent college graduate, boy, girl,</I> or others of a similar nature violate the Act unless one of the statutory exceptions applies. Employers may post help wanted notices or advertisements expressing a preference for older individuals with terms such as <I>over age 60, retirees,</I> or <I>supplement your pension.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Help wanted notices or advertisements that ask applicants to disclose or state their age do not, in themselves, violate the Act. But because asking applicants to state their age may tend to deter older individuals from applying, or otherwise indicate discrimination against older individuals, employment notices or advertisements that include such requests will be closely scrutinized to assure that the requests were made for a lawful purpose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 36875, July 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.5   Employment applications.</HEAD>
<P>A request on the part of an employer for information such as <I>Date of Birth</I> or <I>age</I> on an employment application form is not, in itself, a violation of the Act. But because the request that an applicant state his age may tend to deter older applicants or otherwise indicate discrimination against older individuals, employment application forms that request such information will be closely scrutinized to assure that the request is for a permissible purpose and not for purposes proscribed by the Act. That the purpose is not one proscribed by the statute should be made known to the applicant by a reference on the application form to the statutory prohibition in language to the following effect:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 prohibits discrimination on the basis of age with respect to individuals who are at least 40 years of age,” or by other means. The term “employment applications,” refers to all written inquiries about employment or applications for employment or promotion including, but not limited to, résumés or other summaries of the applicant's background. It relates not only to written preemployment inquiries, but to inquiries by employees concerning terms, conditions, or privileges of employment as specified in section 4 of the Act.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 47726, Sept. 29, 1981, as amended at 53 FR 5972, Feb. 29, 1988; 72 FR 36875, July 6, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.6   Bona fide occupational qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whether occupational qualifications will be deemed to be “bona fide” to a specific job and “reasonably necessary to the normal operation of the particular business,” will be determined on the basis of all the pertinent facts surrounding each particular situation. It is anticipated that this concept of a bona fide occupational qualification will have limited scope and application. Further, as this is an exception to the Act it must be narrowly construed.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer asserting a BFOQ defense has the burden of proving that (1) the age limit is reasonably necessary to the essence of the business, and either (2) that all or substantially all individuals excluded from the job involved are in fact disqualified, or (3) that some of the individuals so excluded possess a disqualifying trait that cannot be ascertained except by reference to age. If the employer's objective in asserting a BFOQ is the goal of public safety, the employer must prove that the challenged practice does indeed effectuate that goal and that there is no acceptable alternative which would better advance it or equally advance it with less discriminatory impact.
</P>
<P>(c) Many State and local governments have enacted laws or administrative regulations which limit employment opportunities based on age. Unless these laws meet the standards for the establishment of a valid bona fide occupational qualification under section 4(f)(1) of the Act, they will be considered in conflict with and effectively superseded by the ADEA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.7   Differentiations based on reasonable factors other than age.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 4(f)(1) of the Act provides that
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * it shall not be unlawful for an employer, employment agency, or labor organization * * * to take any action otherwise prohibited under paragraphs (a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section * * * where the differentiation is based on reasonable factors other than age * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) When an employment practice uses age as a limiting criterion, the defense that the practice is justified by a reasonable factor other than age is unavailable.
</P>
<P>(c) Any employment practice that adversely affects individuals within the protected age group on the basis of older age is discriminatory unless the practice is justified by a “reasonable factor other than age.” An individual challenging the allegedly unlawful practice is responsible for isolating and identifying the specific employment practice that allegedly causes any observed statistical disparities.
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever the “reasonable factors other than age” defense is raised, the employer bears the burdens of production and persuasion to demonstrate the defense. The “reasonable factors other than age” provision is not available as a defense to a claim of disparate treatment.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A reasonable factor other than age is a non-age factor that is objectively reasonable when viewed from the position of a prudent employer mindful of its responsibilities under the ADEA under like circumstances. Whether a differentiation is based on reasonable factors other than age must be decided on the basis of all the particular facts and circumstances surrounding each individual situation. To establish the RFOA defense, an employer must show that the employment practice was both reasonably designed to further or achieve a legitimate business purpose and administered in a way that reasonably achieves that purpose in light of the particular facts and circumstances that were known, or should have been known, to the employer.
</P>
<P>(2) Considerations that are relevant to whether a practice is based on a reasonable factor other than age include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which the factor is related to the employer's stated business purpose;
</P>
<P>(ii) The extent to which the employer defined the factor accurately and applied the factor fairly and accurately, including the extent to which managers and supervisors were given guidance or training about how to apply the factor and avoid discrimination;
</P>
<P>(iii) The extent to which the employer limited supervisors' discretion to assess employees subjectively, particularly where the criteria that the supervisors were asked to evaluate are known to be subject to negative age-based stereotypes;
</P>
<P>(iv) The extent to which the employer assessed the adverse impact of its employment practice on older workers; and
</P>
<P>(v) The degree of the harm to individuals within the protected age group, in terms of both the extent of injury and the numbers of persons adversely affected, and the extent to which the employer took steps to reduce the harm, in light of the burden of undertaking such steps.
</P>
<P>(3) No specific consideration or combination of considerations need be present for a differentiation to be based on reasonable factors other than age. Nor does the presence of one of these considerations automatically establish the defense.
</P>
<P>(f) A differentiation based on the average cost of employing older employees as a group is unlawful except with respect to employee benefit plans which qualify for the section 4(f)(2) exception to the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 47726, Sept. 29, 1981, as amended at 77 FR 19095, Mar. 30, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.8   Bona fide seniority systems.</HEAD>
<P>Section 4(f)(2) of the Act provides that 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * It shall not be unlawful for an employer, employment agency, or labor organization * * * to observe the terms of a bona fide seniority system * * * which is not a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this Act except that no such seniority system * * * shall require or permit the involuntary retirement of any individual specified by section 12(a) of this Act because of the age of such individual. * * *</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(a) Though a seniority system may be qualified by such factors as merit, capacity, or ability, any bona fide seniority system must be based on length of service as the primary criterion for the equitable allocation of available employment opportunities and prerogatives among younger and older workers.
</P>
<P>(b) Adoption of a purported seniority system which gives those with longer service lesser rights, and results in discharge or less favored treatment to those within the protection of the Act, may, depending upon the circumstances, be a “subterfuge to evade the purposes” of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the essential terms and conditions of an alleged seniority system have been communicated to the affected employees and can be shown to be applied uniformly to all of those affected, regardless of age, it will not be considered a bona fide seniority system within the meaning of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) It should be noted that seniority systems which segregate, classify, or otherwise discriminate against individuals on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin, are prohibited under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, where that Act otherwise applies. The “bona fides” of such a system will be closely scrutinized to ensure that such a system is, in fact, bona fide under the ADEA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15673, May 3, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.9   Prohibition of involuntary retirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) As originally enacted in 1967, section 4(f)(2) of the Act provided: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>It shall not be unlawful * * * to observe the terms of a bona fide seniority system or any bona fide employee benefit plan such as a retirement, pension, or insurance plan, which is not a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this Act, except that no such employee benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire any individual * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The Department of Labor interpreted the provision as “Authoriz[ing] involuntary retirement irrespective of age: <I>Provided,</I> That such retirement is pursuant to the terms of a retirement or pension plan meeting the requirements of section 4(f)(2).” See 34 FR 9709 (June 21, 1969). The Department took the position that in order to meet the requirements of section 4(f)(2), the involuntary retirement provision had to be (i) contained in a bona fide pension or retirement plan, (ii) required by the terms of the plan and not optional, and (iii) essential to the plan's economic survival or to some other legitimate business purpose—i.e., the provision was not in the plan as the result of arbitrary discrimination on the basis of age.
</FP>
<P>(2) As revised by the 1978 amendments, section 4(f)(2) was amended by adding the following clause at the end: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>and no such seniority system or employee benefit plan shall require or permit the involuntary retirement of any individual specified by section 12(a) of this Act because of the age of such individual * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The Conference Committee Report expressly states that this amendment is intended “to make absolutely clear one of the original purposes of this provision, namely, that the exception does not authorize an employer to require or permit involuntary retirement of an employee within the protected age group on account of age” (H.R. Rept. No. 95-950, p. 8).
</FP>
<P>(b)(1) The amendment applies to all new and existing seniority systems and employee benefit plans. Accordingly, any system or plan provision requiring or permitting involuntary retirement is unlawful, regardless of whether the provision antedates the 1967 Act or the 1978 amendments.
</P>
<P>(2) Where lawsuits pending on the date of enactment (April 6, 1978) or filed thereafter challenge involuntary retirements which occurred either before or after that date, the amendment applies.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The amendment protects all individuals covered by section 12(a) of the Act. Section 12(a) was amended in October of 1986 by the Age Discrimination in Employment Amendments of 1986, Pub. L. 99-592, 100 Stat. 3342 (1986), which removed the age 70 limit. Section 12(a) provides that the Act's prohibitions shall be limited to individuals who are at least forty years of age. Accordingly, unless a specific exemption applies, an employer can no longer force retirement or otherwise discriminate on the basis of age against an individual because (s)he is 70 or older. 
</P>
<P>(2) The amendment to section 12(a) of the Act became effective on January 1, 1987, except with respect to any employee subject to a collective bargaining agreement containing a provision that would be superseded by such amendment that was in effect on June 30, 1986, and which terminates after January 1, 1987. In that case, the amendment is effective on the termination of the agreement or January 1, 1990, whichever comes first. 
</P>
<P>(d) Neither section 4(f)(2) nor any other provision of the Act makes it unlawful for a plan to permit individuals to elect early retirement at a specified age at their own option. Nor is it unlawful for a plan to require early retirement for reasons other than age. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 47726, Sept. 29, 1981, as amended at 52 FR 23811, June 25, 1987; 53 FR 5973, Feb. 29, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.10   Costs and benefits under employee benefit plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>General.</I> Section 4(f)(2) of the Act provides that it is not unlawful for an employer, employment agency, or labor organization
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>to observe the terms of * * * any bona fide employee benefit plan such as a retirement, pension, or insurance plan, which is not a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this Act, except that no such employee benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire any individual, and no such * * * employee benefit plan shall require or permit the involuntary retirement of any individual specified by section 12(a) of this Act because of the age of such individuals.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The legislative history of this provision indicates that its purpose is to permit age-based reductions in employee benefit plans where such reductions are justified by significant cost considerations. Accordingly, section 4(f)(2) does not apply, for example, to paid vacations and uninsured paid sick leave, since reductions in these benefits would not be justified by significant cost considerations. Where employee benefit plans do meet the criteria in section 4(f)(2), benefit levels for older workers may be reduced to the extent necessary to achieve approximate equivalency in cost for older and younger workers. A benefit plan will be considered in compliance with the statute where the actual amount of payment made, or cost incurred, in behalf of an older worker is equal to that made or incurred in behalf of a younger worker, even though the older worker may thereby receive a lesser amount of benefits or insurance coverage. Since section 4(f)(2) is an exception from the general non-discrimination provisions of the Act, the burden is on the one seeking to invoke the exception to show that every element has been clearly and unmistakably met. The exception must be narrowly construed. The following sections explain three key elements of the exception: 
</FP>
<P>(i) What a “bona fide employee benefit plan” is;
</P>
<P>(ii) What it means to “observe the terms” of such a plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) What kind of plan, or plan provision, would be considered “a subterfuge to evade the purposes of [the] Act.”
</P>
<FP>There is also a discussion of the application of the general rules governing all plans with respect to specific kinds of employee benefit plans. 
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Relation of section 4(f)(2) to sections 4(a), 4(b) and 4(c).</I> Sections 4(a), 4(b) and 4(c) prohibit specified acts of discrimination on the basis of age. Section 4(a) in particular makes it unlawful for an employer to “discriminate against any individual with respect to his compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, because of such individual's age * * *.” Section 4(f)(2) is an exception to this general prohibition. Where an employer under an employee benefit plan provides the same level of benefits to older workers as to younger workers, there is no violation of section 4(a), and accordingly the practice does not have to be justified under section 4(f)(2). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bona fide employee benefit plan.</I> Section 4(f)(2) applies only to bona fide employee benefit plans. A plan is considered “bona fide” if its terms (including cessation of contributions or accruals in the case of retirement income plans) have been accurately described in writing to all employees and if it actually provides the benefits in accordance with the terms of the plan. Notifying employees promptly of the provisions and changes in an employee benefit plan is essential if they are to know how the plan affects them. For these purposes, it would be sufficient under the ADEA for employers to follow the disclosure requirements of ERISA and the regulations thereunder. The plan must actually provide the benefits its provisions describe, since otherwise the notification of the provisions to employees is misleading and inaccurate. An “employee benefit plan” is a plan, such as a retirement, pension, or insurance plan, which provides employees with what are frequently referred to as “fringe benefits.” The term does not refer to wages or salary in cash; neither section 4(f)(2) nor any other section of the Act excuses the payment of lower wages or salary to older employees on account of age. Whether or not any particular employee benefit plan may lawfully provide lower benefits to older employees on account of age depends on whether all of the elements of the exception have been met. An “employee-pay-all” employee benefit plan is one of the “terms, conditions, or privileges of employment” with respect to which discrimination on the basis of age is forbidden under section 4(a)(1). In such a plan, benefits for older workers may be reduced only to the extent and according to the same principles as apply to other plans under section 4(f)(2). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>“To observe the terms” of a plan.</I> In order for a bona fide employee benefit plan which provides lower benefits to older employees on account of age to be within the section 4(f)(2) exception, the lower benefits must be provided in “observ[ance of] the terms of” the plan. As this statutory text makes clear, the section 4(f)(2) exception is limited to otherwise discriminatory actions which are actually prescribed by the terms of a bona fide employee benefit plan. Where the employer, employment agency, or labor organization is not required by the express provisions of the plan to provide lesser benefits to older workers, section 4(f)(2) does not apply. Important purposes are served by this requirement. Where a discriminatory policy is an express term of a benefit plan, employees presumably have some opportunity to know of the policy and to plan (or protest) accordingly. Moreover, the requirement that the discrimination actually be prescribed by a plan assures that the particular plan provision will be equally applied to all employees of the same age. Where a discriminatory provision is an optional term of the plan, it permits individual, discretionary acts of discrimination, which do not fall within the section 4(f)(2) exception.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subterfuge.</I> In order for a bona fide employee benefit plan which prescribes lower benefits for older employees on account of age to be within the section 4(f)(2) exception, it must not be “a subterfuge to evade the purposes of [the] Act.” In general, a plan or plan provision which prescribes lower benefits for older employees on account of age is not a “subterfuge” within the meaning of section 4(f)(2), provided that the lower level of benefits is justified by age-related cost considerations. (The only exception to this general rule is with respect to certain retirement plans. See paragraph (f)(4) of this section.) There are certain other requirements that must be met in order for a plan not to be a subterfuge. These requirements are set forth below.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cost data—general.</I> Cost data used in justification of a benefit plan which provides lower benefits to older employees on account of age must be valid and reasonable. This standard is met where an employer has cost data which show the actual cost to it of providing the particular benefit (or benefits) in question over a representative period of years. An employer may rely in cost data for its own employees over such a period, or on cost data for a larger group of similarly situated employees. Sometimes, as a result of experience rating or other causes, an employer incurs costs that differ significantly from costs for a group of similarly situated employees. Such an employer may not rely on cost data for the similarly situated employees where such reliance would result in significantly lower benefits for its own older employees. Where reliable cost information is not available, reasonable projections made from existing cost data meeting the standards set forth above will be considered acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cost data—Individual benefit basis and “benefit package” basis.</I> Cost comparisons and adjustments under section 4(f)(2) must be made on a benefit-by-benefit basis or on a “benefit package” basis, as described below.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Benefit-by-benefit basis.</I> Adjustments made on a benefit-by-benefit basis must be made in the amount or level of a specific form of benefit for a specific event or contingency. For example, higher group term life insurance costs for older workers would justify a corresponding reduction in the amount of group term life insurance coverage for older workers, on the basis of age. However, a benefit-by-benefit approach would not justify the substitution of one form of benefit for another, even though both forms of benefit are designed for the same contingency, such as death. See paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>“Benefit package” basis.</I> As an alternative to the benefit-by-benefit basis, cost comparisons and adjustments under section 4(f)(2) may be made on a limited “benefit package” basis. Under this approach, subject to the limitations described below, cost comparisons and adjustments can be made with respect to section 4(f)(2) plans in the aggregate. This alternative basis provides greater flexibility than a benefit-by-benefit basis in order to carry out the declared statutory purpose “to help employers and workers find ways of meeting problems arising from the impact of age on employment.” A “benefit package” approach is an alternative approach consistent with this purpose and with the general purpose of section 4(f)(2) only if it is not used to reduce the cost to the employer or the favorability to the employees of overall employee benefits for older employees. A “benefit package” approach used for either of these purposes would be a subterfuge to evade the purposes of the Act. In order to assure that such a “benefit package” approach is not abused and is consistent with the legislative intent, it is subject to the limitations described in paragraph (f), which also includes a general example.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost data—five year maximum basis.</I> Cost comparisons and adjustments under section 4(f)(2) may be made on the basis of age brackets of up to 5 years. Thus a particular benefit may be reduced for employees of any age within the protected age group by an amount no greater than that which could be justified by the additional cost to provide them with the same level of the benefit as younger employees within a specified five-year age group immediately preceding theirs. For example, where an employer chooses to provide unreduced group term life insurance benefits until age 60, benefits for employees who are between 60 and 65 years of age may be reduced only to the extent necessary to achieve approximate equivalency in costs with employees who are 55 to 60 years old. Similarly, any reductions in benefit levels for 65 to 70 year old employees cannot exceed an amount which is proportional to the additional costs for their coverage over 60 to 65 year old employees.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee contributions in support of employee benefit plans</I>—(i) <I>As a condition of employment.</I> An older employee within the protected age group may not be required as a condition of employment to make greater contributions than a younger employee in support of an employee benefit plan. Such a requirement would be in effect a mandatory reduction in take-home pay, which is never authorized by section 4(f)(2), and would impose an impediment to employment in violation of the specific restrictions in section 4(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>As a condition of participation in a voluntary employee benefit plan.</I> An older employee within the protected age group may be required as a condition of participation in a voluntary employee benefit plan to make a greater contribution than a younger employee only if the older employee is not thereby required to bear a greater proportion of the total premium cost (employer-paid and employee-paid) than the younger employee. Otherwise the requirement would discriminate against the older employee by making compensation in the form of an employer contribution available on less favorable terms than for the younger employee and denying that compensation altogether to an older employee unwilling or unable to meet the less favorable terms. Such discrimination is not authorized by section 4(f)(2). This principle applies to three different contribution arrangements as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Employee-pay-all plans.</I> Older employees, like younger employees, may be required to contribute as a condition of participation up to the full premium cost for their age.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Non-contributory (“employer-pay-all”) plans.</I> Where younger employees are not required to contribute any portion of the total premium cost, older employees may not be required to contribute any portion. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Contributory plans.</I> In these plans employers and participating employees share the premium cost. The required contributions of participants may increase with age so long as the <I>proportion</I> of the total premium required to be paid by the participants does not increase with age.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>As an option in order to receive an unreduced benefit.</I> An older employee may be given the option, as an individual, to make the additional contribution necessary to receive the same level of benefits as a younger employee (provided that the contemplated reduction in benefits is otherwise justified by section 4(f)(2)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Forfeiture clauses.</I> Clauses in employee benefit plans which state that litigation or participation in any manner in a formal proceeding by an employee will result in the forfeiture of his rights are unlawful insofar as they may be applied to those who seek redress under the Act. This is by reason of section 4(d) which provides that it is unlawful for an employer, employment agency, or labor organization to discriminate against any individual because such individual “has made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or litigation under this Act.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Refusal to hire clauses.</I> Any provision of an employee benefit plan which requires or permits the refusal to hire an individual specified in section 12(a) of the Act on the basis of age is a subterfuge to evade the purposes of the Act and cannot be excused under section 4(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Involuntary retirement clauses.</I> Any provision of an employee benefit plan which requires or permits the involuntary retirement of any individual specified in section 12(a) of the Act on the basis of age is a subterfuge to evade the purpose of the Act and cannot be excused under section 4(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Benefits provided by the Government.</I> An employer does not violate the Act by permitting certain benefits to be provided by the Government, even though the availability of such benefits may be based on age. For example, it is not necessary for an employer to provide health benefits which are otherwise provided to certain employees by Medicare. However, the availability of benefits from the Government will not justify a reduction in employer-provided benefits if the result is that, taking the employer-provided and Government-provided benefits together, an older employee is entitled to a lesser benefit of any type (including coverage for family and/or dependents) than a similarly situated younger employee. For example, the availability of certain benefits to an older employee under Medicare will not justify denying an older employee a benefit which is provided to younger employees and is not provided to the older employee by Medicare. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application of section 4(f)(2) to various employee benefit plans</I>—(1) <I>Benefit-by-benefit approach.</I> This portion of the interpretation discusses how a benefit-by-benefit approach would apply to four of the most common types of employee benefit plans.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Life insurance.</I> It is not uncommon for life insurance coverage to remain constant until a specified age, frequently 65, and then be reduced. This practice will not violate the Act (even if reductions start before age 65), provided that the reduction for an employee of a particular age is no greater than is justified by the increased cost of coverage for that employee's specific age bracket encompassing no more than five years. It should be noted that a total denial of life insurance, on the basis of age, would not be justified under a benefit-by-benefit analysis. However, it is not unlawful for life insurance coverage to cease upon separation from service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Long-term disability.</I> Under a benefit-by-benefit approach, where employees who are disabled at younger ages are entitled to long-term disability benefits, there is no cost—based justification for denying such benefits altogether, on the basis of age, to employees who are disabled at older ages. It is not unlawful to cut off long-term disability benefits and coverage on the basis of some non-age factor, such as recovery from disability. Reductions on the basis of age in the level or duration of benefits available for disability are justifiable only on the basis of age-related cost considerations as set forth elsewhere in this section. An employer which provides long-term disability coverage to all employees may avoid any increases in the cost to it that such coverage for older employees would entail by reducing the level of benefits available to older employees. An employer may also avoid such cost increases by reducing the duration of benefits available to employees who become disabled at older ages, without reducing the level of benefits. In this connection, the Department would not assert a violation where the level of benefits is not reduced and the duration of benefits is reduced in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to disabilities which occur at age 60 or less, benefits cease at age 65. 
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to disabilities which occur after age 60, benefits cease 5 years after disablement. Cost data may be produced to support other patterns of reduction as well.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Retirement plans</I>—(A) <I>Participation.</I> No employee hired prior to normal retirement age may be excluded from a defined contribution plan. With respect to defined benefit plans not subject to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), Pub. L. 93-406, 29 U.S.C. 1001, 1003 (a) and (b), an employee hired at an age more than 5 years prior to normal retirement age may not be excluded from such a plan unless the exclusion is justifiable on the basis of cost considerations as set forth elsewhere in this section. With respect to defined benefit plans subject to ERISA, such an exclusion would be unlawful in any case. An employee hired less than 5 years prior to normal retirement age may be excluded from a defined benefit plan, regardless of whether or not the plan is covered by ERISA. Similarly, any employee hired after normal retirement age may be excluded from a defined benefit plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>“Benefit package” approach.</I> A “benefit package” approach to compliance under section 4(f)(2) offers greater flexibility than a benefit-by-benefit approach by permitting deviations from a benefit-by-benefit approach so long as the overall result is no lesser cost to the employer <I>and</I> no less favorable benefits for employees. As previously noted, in order to assure that such an approach is used for the benefit of older workers and not to their detriment, and is otherwise consistent with the legislative intent, it is subject to limitations as set forth below:
</P>
<P>(i) A benefit package approach shall apply only to employee benefit plans which fall within section 4(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) A benefit package approach shall not apply to a retirement or pension plan. The 1978 legislative history sets forth specific and comprehensive rules governing such plans, which have been adopted above. These rules are not tied to actuarially significant cost considerations but are intended to deal with the special funding arrangements of retirement or pension plans. Variations from these special rules are therefore not justified by variations from the cost-based benefit-by-benefit approach in other benefit plans, nor may variations from the special rules governing pension and retirement plans justify variations from the benefit-by-benefit approach in other benefit plans.
</P>
<P>(iii) A benefit package approach shall not be used to justify reductions in health benefits greater than would be justified under a benefit-by-benefit approach. Such benefits appear to be of particular importance to older workers in meeting “problems arising from the impact of age” and were of particular concern to Congress. Therefore, the “benefit package” approach may not be used to reduce health insurance benefits by more than is warranted by the increase in the cost to the employer of those benefits alone. Any greater reduction would be a subterfuge to evade the purpose of the Act.
</P>
<P>(iv) A benefit reduction greater than would be justified under a benefit-by-benefit approach must be offset by another benefit available to the same employees. No employees may be deprived because of age of one benefit without an offsetting benefit being made available to them.
</P>
<P>(v) Employers who wish to justify benefit reductions under a benefit package approach must be prepared to produce data to show that those reductions are fully justified. Thus employers must be able to show that deviations from a benefit-by-benefit approach do not result in lesser cost to them or less favorable benefits to their employees. A general example consistent with these limitations may be given. Assume two employee benefit plans, providing Benefit “A” and Benefit “B.” Both plans fall within section 4(f)(2), and neither is a retirement or pension plan subject to special rules. Both benefits are available to all employees. Age-based cost increases would justify a 10% decrease in both benefits on a benefit-by-benefit basis. The affected employees would, however, find it more favorable—that is, more consistent with meeting their needs—for no reduction to be made in Benefit “A” and a greater reduction to be made in Benefit “B.” This “trade-off” would not result in a reduction in health benefits. The “trade-off” may therefore be made. The details of the “trade-off” depend on data on the relative cost to the employer of the two benefits. If the data show that Benefit “A” and Benefit “B” cost the same, Benefit “B” may be reduced up to 20% if Benefit “A” is unreduced. If the data show that Benefit “A” costs only half as much as Benefit “B”, however, Benefit “B” may be reduced up to only 15% if Benefit “A” is unreduced, since a greater reduction in Benefit “B” would result in an impermissible reduction in total benefit costs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Relation of ADEA to State laws.</I> The ADEA does not preempt State age discrimination in employment laws. However, the failure of the ADEA to preempt such laws does not affect the issue of whether section 514 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) preempts State laws which related to employee benefit plans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 30658, May 25, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 8448, Mar. 18, 1987. Redesignated and amended at 52 FR 23812, June 25, 1987; 53 FR 5973, Feb. 29, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.11   Exemption for employees serving under a contract of unlimited tenure.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Section 12(d) of the Act, added by the 1986 amendments, provides:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit compulsory retirement of any employee who has attained 70 years of age, and who is serving under a contract of unlimited tenure (or similar arrangement providing for unlimited tenure) at an institution of higher education (as defined by section 1201(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) This exemption from the Act's protection of covered individuals took effect on January 1, 1987, and is repealed on December 31, 1993 (see section 6 of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1986, Pub. L. 99-592, 100 Stat. 3342). The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission is required to enter into an agreement with the National Academy of Sciences, for the conduct of a study to analyze the potential consequences of the elimination of mandatory retirement on institutions of higher education.
</P>
<P>(b) Since section 12(d) is an exemption from the nondiscrimination requirements of the Act, the burden is on the one seeking to invoke the exemption to show that every element has been clearly and unmistakably met. Moreover, as with other exemptions from the ADEA, this exemption must be narrowly construed. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 1201(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended, and set forth in 20 U.S.C. 1141(a), provides in pertinent part:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The term <I>institution of higher education</I> means an educational institution in any State which (1) admits as regular students only persons having a certificate of graduation from a school providing secondary education, or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate, (2) is legally authorized within such State to provide a program of education beyond secondary education, (3) provides an educational program for which it awards a bachelor's degree or provides not less than a two-year program which is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree, (4) is a public or other nonprofit institution, and (5) is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association or, if not so accredited, (A) is an institution with respect to which the Commissioner has determined that there is satisfactory assurance, considering the resources available to the institution, the period of time, if any, during which it has operated, the effort it is making to meet accreditation standards, and the purpose for which this determination is being made, that the institution will meet the accreditation standards of such an agency or association within a reasonable time, or (B) is an institution whose credits are accepted, on transfer, by not less than three institutions which are so accredited, for credit on the same basis as if transferred from an institution so accredited.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The definition encompasses almost all public and private universities and two and four year colleges. The omitted portion of the text of section 1201(a) refers largely on one-year technical schools which generally do not grant tenure to employees but which, if they do, are also eligible to claim the exemption.
</FP>
<P>(d)(1) Use of the term <I>any employee</I> indicates that application of the exemption is not limited to teachers, who are traditional recipients of tenure. The exemption may also be available with respect to other groups, such as academic deans, scientific researchers, professional librarians and counseling staff, who frequently have tenured status. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Conference Committee Report on the 1978 amendments expressly states that the exemption does not apply to Federal employees covered by section 15 of the Act (H.R. Rept. No. 95-950, p. 10). 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The phrase <I>unlimited tenure</I> is not defined in the Act. However, the almost universally accepted definition of academic “tenure” is an arrangement under which certain appointments in an institution of higher education are continued until retirement for age of physical disability, subject to dismissal for adequate cause or under extraordinary circumstances on account of financial exigency or change of institutional program. Adopting that definition, it is evident that the word <I>unlimited</I> refers to the duration of tenure. Therefore, a contract (or other similar arrangement) which is limited to a specific term (for example, one year or 10 years) will not meet the requirements of the exemption. 
</P>
<P>(2) The legislative history shows that Congress intented the exemption to apply only where the minimum rights and privileges traditionally associated with tenure are guaranteed to an employee by contract or similar arrangement. While tenure policies and practices vary greatly from one institution to another, the minimum standards set forth in the 1940 Statement of Principles on Academic Freedom and Tenure, jointly developed by the Association of American Colleges and the American Association of University Professors, have enjoyed widespread adoption or endorsement. The 1940 Statement of Principles on academic tenure provides as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(a) After the expiration of a probationary period, teachers or investigators should have permanent or continuous tenure, and their service should be terminated only for adequate cause, except in the case of retirement for age, or under extraordinary circumstances because of financial exigencies. 
</P>
<P>In the interpretation of this principle it is understood that the following represents acceptable academic practice: 
</P>
<P>(1) The precise terms and conditions of every appointment should be stated in writing and be in the possession of both institution and teacher before the appointment is consumated. 
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning with appointment to the rank of full-time instructor or a higher rank, the probationary period should not exceed seven years, including within this period full-time service in all institutions of higher education; but subject to the proviso that when, after a term of probationary service of more than three years in one or more institutions, a teacher is called to another institution it may be agreed in writing that his new appointment is for a probationary period of not more than four years, even though thereby the person's total probationary period in the academic profession is extended beyond the normal maximum of seven years. Notice should be given at least one year prior to the expiration of the probationary period if the teacher is not to be continued in service after the expiration of that period. 
</P>
<P>(3) During the probationary period a teacher should have the academic freedom that all other members of the faculty have.
</P>
<P>(4) Termination for cause of a continuous appointment, or the dismissal for cause of a teacher previous to the expiration of a term appointment, should, if possible, be considered by both a faculty committee and the governing board of the institution. In all cases where the facts are in dispute, the accused teacher should be informed before the hearing in writing of the charges against him and should have the opportunity to be heard in his own defense by all bodies that pass judgment upon his case. He should be permitted to have with him an advisor of his own choosing who may act as counsel. There should be a full stenographic record of the hearing available to the parties concerned. In the hearing of charges of incompetence the testimony should include that of teachers and other scholars, either from his own or from other institutions. Teachers on continuous appointment who are dismissed for reasons not involving moral turpitude should receive their salaries for at least a year from the date of notification of dismissal whether or not they are continued in their duties at the institution.
</P>
<P>(5) Termination of a continuous appointment because of financial exigency should be demonstrably bona fide.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) A contract or similar arrangement which meets the standards in the 1940 Statement of Principles will satisfy the tenure requirements of the exemption. However, a tenure arrangement will not be deemed inadequate solely because it fails to meet these standards in every respect. For example, a tenure plan will not be deemed inadequate solely because it includes a probationary period somewhat longer than seven years. Of course, the greater the deviation from the standards in the 1940 Statement of Principles, the less likely it is that the employee in question will be deemed subject to “unlimited tenure” within the meaning of the exemption. Whether or not a tenure arrangement is adequate to satisfy the requirements of the exemption must be determined on the basis of the facts of each case.
</P>
<P>(f) Employees who are not assured of a continuing appointment either by contract of unlimited tenure or other similar arrangement (such as a State statute) would not, of course, be exempted from the prohibitions against compulsory retirement, even if they perform functions identical to those performed by employees with appropriate tenure.
</P>
<P>(g) An employee within the exemption can lawfully be forced to retire on account of age at age 70 (see paragraph (a)(1) of this section). In addition, the employer is free to retain such employees, either in the same position or status or in a different position or status: <I>Provided,</I> That the employee voluntarily accepts this new position or status. For example, an employee who falls within the exemption may be offered a nontenured position or part-time employment. An employee who accepts a nontenured position or part-time employment, however, may not be treated any less favorably, on account of age, than any similarly situated younger employee (unless such less favorable treatment is excused by an exception to the Act). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 66799, Nov. 21, 1979; 45 FR 43704, June 30, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 5973, Feb. 29, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.1.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.12   Exemption for bona fide executive or high policymaking employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 12(c)(1) of the Act, added by the 1978 amendments and as amended in 1984 and 1986, provides: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit compulsory retirement of any employee who has attained 65 years of age, and who, for the 2-year period immediately before retirement, is employed in a bona fide executive or higher policymaking position, if such employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan, or any combination of such plans, of the employer of such employee which equals, in the aggregate, at least $44,000.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Since this provision is an exemption from the non-discrimination requirements of the Act, the burden is on the one seeking to invoke the exemption to show that every element has been clearly and unmistakably met. Moreover, as with other exemptions from the Act, this exemption must be narrowly construed.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee within the exemption can lawfully be forced to retire on account of age at age 65 or above. In addition, the employer is free to retain such employees, either in the same position or status or in a different position or status. For example, an employee who falls within the exemption may be offered a position of lesser status or a part-time position. An employee who accepts such a new status or position, however, may not be treated any less favorably, on account of age, than any similarly situated younger employee.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) In order for an employee to qualify as a “bona fide executive,” the employer must initially show that the employee satisfies the definition of a bona fide executive set forth in § 541.1 of this chapter. Each of the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (e) of § 541.1 must be satisfied, regardless of the level of the employee's salary or compensation.
</P>
<P>(2) Even if an employee qualifies as an executive under the definition in § 541.1 of this chapter, the exemption from the ADEA may not be claimed unless the employee also meets the further criteria specified in the Conference Committee Report in the form of examples (see H.R. Rept. No. 95-950, p. 9). The examples are intended to make clear that the exemption does not apply to middle-management employees, no matter how great their retirement income, but only to a very few top level employees who exercise substantial executive authority over a significant number of employees and a large volume of business. As stated in the Conference Report (H.R. Rept. No. 95-950, p. 9):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Typically the head of a significant and substantial local or regional operation of a corporation [or other business organization], such as a major production facility or retail establishment, but not the head of a minor branch, warehouse or retail store, would be covered by the term “bona fide executive.” Individuals at higher levels in the corporate organizational structure who possess comparable or greater levels of responsibility and authority as measured by established and recognized criteria would also be covered.
</P>
<P>The heads of major departments or divisions of corporations [or other business organizations] are usually located at corporate or regional headquarters. With respect to employees whose duties are associated with corporate headquarters operations, such as finance, marketing, legal, production and manufacturing (or in a corporation organized on a product line basis, the management of product lines), the definition would cover employees who head those divisions.
</P>
<P>In a large organization the immediate subordinates of the heads of these divisions sometimes also exercise executive authority, within the meaning of this exemption. The conferees intend the definition to cover such employees if they possess responsibility which is comparable to or greater than that possessed by the head of a significant and substantial local operation who meets the definition.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The phrase “high policymaking position,” according to the Conference Report (H.R. Rept. No. 95-950, p. 10), is limited to “* * * certain top level employees who are not ‘bona fide executives’ * * *.” Specifically, these are:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * individuals who have little or no line authority but whose position and responsibility are such that they play a significant role in the development of corporate policy and effectively recommend the implementation thereof. 
</P>
<P>For example, the chief economist or the chief research scientist of a corporation typically has little line authority. His duties would be primarily intellectual as opposed to executive or managerial. His responsibility would be to evaluate significant economic or scientific trends and issues, to develop and recommend policy direction to the top executive officers of the corporation, and he would have a significant impact on the ultimate decision on such policies by virtue of his expertise and direct access to the decisionmakers. Such an employee would meet the definition of a “high policymaking” employee.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>On the other hand, as this description makes clear, the support personnel of a “high policymaking” employee would not be subject to the exemption even if they supervise the development, and draft the recommendation, of various policies submitted by their supervisors. 
</FP>
<P>(f) In order for the exemption to apply to a particular employee, the employee must have been in a “bona fide executive or high policymaking position,” as those terms are defined in this section, for the two-year period immediately before retirement. Thus, an employee who holds two or more different positions during the two-year period is subject to the exemption only if each such job is an executive or high policymaking position. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Conference Committee Report expressly states that the exemption is not applicable to Federal employees covered by section 15 of the Act (H.R. Rept. No. 95-950, p. 10). 
</P>
<P>(h) The “annual retirement benefit,” to which covered employees must be entitled, is the sum of amounts payable during each one-year period from the date on which such benefits first become receivable by the retiree. Once established, the annual period upon which calculations are based may not be changed from year to year. 
</P>
<P>(i) The annual retirement benefit must be immediately available to the employee to be retired pursuant to the exemption. For purposes of determining compliance, “immediate” means that the payment of plan benefits (in a lump sum or the first of a series of periodic payments) must occur not later than 60 days after the effective date of the retirement in question. The fact that an employee will receive benefits only after expiration of the 60-day period will not preclude his retirement pursuant to the exemption, if the employee could have elected to receive benefits within that period. 
</P>
<P>(j)(1) The annual retirement benefit must equal, in the aggregate, at least $44,000. The manner of determining whether this requirement has been satisfied is set forth in § 1627.17(c).
</P>
<P>(2) In determining whether the aggregate annual retirement benefit equals at least $44,000, the only benefits which may be counted are those authorized by and provided under the terms of a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan. (Regulations issued pursuant to section 12(c)(2) of the Act, regarding the manner of calculating the amount of qualified retirement benefits for purposes of the exemption, are set forth in § 1627.17 of this chapter.)
</P>
<P>(k)(1) The annual retirement benefit must be “nonforfeitable.” Accordingly, the exemption may not be applied to any employee subject to plan provisions which could cause the cessation of payments to a retiree or result in the reduction of benefits to less than $44,000 in any one year. For example, where a plan contains a provision under which benefits would be suspended if a retiree engages in litigation against the former employer, or obtains employment with a competitor of the former employer, the retirement benefit will be deemed to be forfeitable. However, retirement benefits will not be deemed forfeitable solely because the benefits are discontinued or suspended for reasons permitted under section 411(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(2) An annual retirement benefit will not be deemed forfeitable merely because the minimum statutory benefit level is not guaranteed against the possibility of plan bankruptcy or is subject to benefit restrictions in the event of early termination of the plan in accordance with Treasury Regulation 1.401-4(c). However, as of the effective date of the retirement in question, there must be at least a reasonable expectation that the plan will meet its obligations. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 12(c)(1) of the Age Discrimination In Employment Act of 1967, as amended by sec. 802(c)(1) of the Older Americans Act Amendments of 1984, Pub. L. 98-459, 98 Stat. 1792))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 66800, Nov. 21, 1979; 45 FR 43704, June 30, 1980, as amended at 50 FR 2544, Jan. 17, 1985; 53 FR 5973, Feb. 29, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Substantive Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.21" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.21   Apprenticeship programs.</HEAD>
<P>All apprenticeship programs, including those apprenticeship programs created or maintained by joint labor-management organizations, are subject to the prohibitions of sec. 4 of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 623. Age limitations in apprenticeship programs are valid only if excepted under sec. 4(f)(1) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 623(f)(1), or exempted by the Commission under sec. 9 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 628, in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR 1625.30.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 60540, Oct. 7, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.22" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.22   Waivers of rights and claims under the ADEA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> (1) Congress amended the ADEA in 1990 to clarify the prohibitions against discrimination on the basis of age. In Title II of OWBPA, Congress addressed waivers of rights and claims under the ADEA, amending section 7 of the ADEA by adding a new subsection (f).
</P>
<P>(2) Section 7(f)(1) of the ADEA expressly provides that waivers may be valid and enforceable under the ADEA only if the waiver is “knowing and voluntary”. Sections 7(f)(1) and 7(f)(2) of the ADEA set out the minimum requirements for determining whether a waiver is knowing and voluntary.
</P>
<P>(3) Other facts and circumstances may bear on the question of whether the waiver is knowing and voluntary, as, for example, if there is a material mistake, omission, or misstatement in the information furnished by the employer to an employee in connection with the waiver.
</P>
<P>(4) The rules in this section apply to all waivers of ADEA rights and claims, regardless of whether the employee is employed in the private or public sector, including employment by the United States Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Wording of Waiver Agreements.</I> (1) Section 7(f)(1)(A) of the ADEA provides, as part of the minimum requirements for a knowing and voluntary waiver, that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The waiver is part of an agreement between the individual and the employer that is written in a manner calculated to be understood by such individual, or by the average individual eligible to participate.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The entire waiver agreement must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(3) Waiver agreements must be drafted in plain language geared to the level of understanding of the individual party to the agreement or individuals eligible to participate. Employers should take into account such factors as the level of comprehension and education of typical participants. Consideration of these factors usually will require the limitation or elimination of technical jargon and of long, complex sentences.
</P>
<P>(4) The waiver agreement must not have the effect of misleading, misinforming, or failing to inform participants and affected individuals. Any advantages or disadvantages described shall be presented without either exaggerating the benefits or minimizing the limitations.
</P>
<P>(5) Section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA, relating to exit incentive or other employment termination programs offered to a group or class of employees, also contains a requirement that information be conveyed “in writing in a manner calculated to be understood by the average participant.” The same standards applicable to the similar language in section 7(f)(1)(A) of the ADEA apply here as well.
</P>
<P>(6) Section 7(f)(1)(B) of the ADEA provides, as part of the minimum requirements for a knowing and voluntary waiver, that “the waiver specifically refers to rights or claims under this Act.” Pursuant to this subsection, the waiver agreement must refer to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) by name in connection with the waiver.
</P>
<P>(7) Section 7(f)(1)(E) of the ADEA requires that an individual must be “advised in writing to consult with an attorney prior to executing the agreement.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver of future rights.</I> (1) Section 7(f)(1)(C) of the ADEA provides that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>A waiver may not be considered knowing and voluntary unless at a minimum . . . the individual does not waive rights or claims that may arise after the date the waiver is executed.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The waiver of rights or claims that arise following the execution of a waiver is prohibited. However, section 7(f)(1)(C) of the ADEA does not bar, in a waiver that otherwise is consistent with statutory requirements, the enforcement of agreements to perform future employment-related actions such as the employee's agreement to retire or otherwise terminate employment at a future date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consideration.</I> (1) Section 7(f)(1)(D) of the ADEA states that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>A waiver may not be considered knowing and voluntary unless at a minimum * * * the individual waives rights or claims only in exchange for consideration in addition to anything of value to which the individual already is entitled.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) “Consideration in addition” means anything of value in addition to that to which the individual is already entitled in the absence of a waiver.
</P>
<P>(3) If a benefit or other thing of value was eliminated in contravention of law or contract, express or implied, the subsequent offer of such benefit or thing of value in connection with a waiver will not constitute “consideration” for purposes of section 7(f)(1) of the ADEA. Whether such elimination as to one employee or group of employees is in contravention of law or contract as to other employees, or to that individual employee at some later time, may vary depending on the facts and circumstances of each case.
</P>
<P>(4) An employer is not required to give a person age 40 or older a greater amount of consideration than is given to a person under the age of 40, solely because of that person's membership in the protected class under the ADEA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time periods.</I> (1) Section 7(f)(1)(F) of the ADEA states that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>A waiver may not be considered knowing and voluntary unless at a minimum * * *
</P>
<P>(i) The individual is given a period of at least 21 days within which to consider the agreement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If a waiver is requested in connection with an exit incentive or other employment termination program offered to a group or class of employees, the individual is given a period of at least 45 days within which to consider the agreement.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Section 7(f)(1)(G) of the ADEA states:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>A waiver may not be considered knowing and voluntary unless at a minimum . . . the agreement provides that for a period of at least 7 days following the execution of such agreement, the individual may revoke the agreement, and the agreement shall not become effective or enforceable until the revocation period has expired.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The term “exit incentive or other employment termination program” includes both voluntary and involuntary programs.
</P>
<P>(4) The 21 or 45 day period runs from the date of the employer's final offer. Material changes to the final offer restart the running of the 21 or 45 day period; changes made to the final offer that are not material do not restart the running of the 21 or 45 day period. The parties may agree that changes, whether material or immaterial, do not restart the running of the 21 or 45 day period.
</P>
<P>(5) The 7 day revocation period cannot be shortened by the parties, by agreement or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(6) An employee may sign a release prior to the end of the 21 or 45 day time period, thereby commencing the mandatory 7 day revocation period. This is permissible as long as the employee's decision to accept such shortening of time is knowing and voluntary and is not induced by the employer through fraud, misrepresentation, a threat to withdraw or alter the offer prior to the expiration of the 21 or 45 day time period, or by providing different terms to employees who sign the release prior to the expiration of such time period. However, if an employee signs a release before the expiration of the 21 or 45 day time period, the employer may expedite the processing of the consideration provided in exchange for the waiver.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Informational requirements.</I> (1) Introduction. (i) Section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA provides that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>A waiver may not be considered knowing and voluntary unless at a minimum . . . if a waiver is requested in connection with an exit incentive or other employment termination program offered to a group or class of employees, the employer (at the commencement of the period specified in subparagraph (F)) [which provides time periods for employees to consider the waiver] informs the individual in writing in a manner calculated to be understood by the average individual eligible to participate, as to—
</P>
<P>(i) Any class, unit, or group of individuals covered by such program, any eligibility factors for such program, and any time limits applicable to such program; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The job titles and ages of all individuals eligible or selected for the program, and the ages of all individuals in the same job classification or organizational unit who are not eligible or selected for the program.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA addresses two principal issues: to whom information must be provided, and what information must be disclosed to such individuals.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA references two types of “programs” under which employers seeking waivers must make written disclosures: “exit incentive programs” and “other employment termination programs.” Usually an “exit incentive program” is a voluntary program offered to a group or class of employees where such employees are offered consideration in addition to anything of value to which the individuals are already entitled (hereinafter in this section, “additional consideration”) in exchange for their decision to resign voluntarily and sign a waiver. Usually “other employment termination program” refers to a group or class of employees who were involuntarily terminated and who are offered additional consideration in return for their decision to sign a waiver.
</P>
<P>(B) The question of the existence of a “program” will be decided based upon the facts and circumstances of each case. A “program” exists when an employer offers additional consideration for the signing of a waiver pursuant to an exit incentive or other employment termination (e.g., a reduction in force) to two or more employees. Typically, an involuntary termination program is a standardized formula or package of benefits that is available to two or more employees, while an exit incentive program typically is a standardized formula or package of benefits designed to induce employees to sever their employment voluntarily. In both cases, the terms of the programs generally are not subject to negotiation between the parties.
</P>
<P>(C) Regardless of the type of program, the scope of the terms “class,” “unit,” “group,” “job classification,” and “organizational unit” is determined by examining the “decisional unit” at issue. (See paragraph (f)(3) of this section, “The Decisional Unit.”)
</P>
<P>(D) A “program” for purposes of the ADEA need not constitute an “employee benefit plan” for purposes of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA). An employer may or may not have an ERISA severance plan in connection with its OWBPA program.
</P>
<P>(iv) The purpose of the informational requirements is to provide an employee with enough information regarding the program to allow the employee to make an informed choice whether or not to sign a waiver agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) To whom must the information be given. The required information must be given to each person in the decisional unit who is asked to sign a waiver agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) The decisional unit. (i)(A) The terms “class,” “unit,” or “group” in section 7(f)(1)(H)(i) of the ADEA and “job classification or organizational unit” in section 7(f)(1)(H)(ii) of the ADEA refer to examples of categories or groupings of employees affected by a program within an employer's particular organizational structure. The terms are not meant to be an exclusive list of characterizations of an employer's organization.
</P>
<P>(B) When identifying the scope of the “class, unit, or group,” and “job classification or organizational unit,” an employer should consider its organizational structure and decision-making process. A “decisional unit” is that portion of the employer's organizational structure from which the employer chose the persons who would be offered consideration for the signing of a waiver and those who would not be offered consideration for the signing of a waiver. The term “decisional unit” has been developed to reflect the process by which an employer chose certain employees for a program and ruled out others from that program.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The variety of terms used in section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA demonstrates that employers often use differing terminology to describe their organizational structures. When identifying the population of the decisional unit, the employer acts on a case-by-case basis, and thus the determination of the appropriate class, unit, or group, and job classification or organizational unit for purposes of section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA also must be made on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(B) The examples in paragraph (f)(3)(iii), of this section demonstrate that in appropriate cases some subgroup of a facility's work force may be the decisional unit. In other situations, it may be appropriate for the decisional unit to comprise several facilities. However, as the decisional unit is typically no broader than the facility, in general the disclosure need be no broader than the facility. “Facility” as it is used throughout this section generally refers to place or location. However, in some circumstances terms such as “school,” “plant,” or “complex” may be more appropriate.
</P>
<P>(C) Often, when utilizing a program an employer is attempting to reduce its workforce at a particular facility in an effort to eliminate what it deems to be excessive overhead, expenses, or costs from its organization at that facility. If the employer's goal is the reduction of its workforce at a particular facility and that employer undertakes a decision-making process by which certain employees of the facility are selected for a program, and others are not selected for a program, then that facility generally will be the decisional unit for purposes of section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA.
</P>
<P>(D) However, if an employer seeks to terminate employees by exclusively considering a particular portion or subgroup of its operations at a specific facility, then that subgroup or portion of the workforce at that facility will be considered the decisional unit.
</P>
<P>(E) Likewise, if the employer analyzes its operations at several facilities, specifically considers and compares ages, seniority rosters, or similar factors at differing facilities, and determines to focus its workforce reduction at a particular facility, then by the nature of that employer's decision-making process the decisional unit would include all considered facilities and not just the facility selected for the reductions.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following examples are not all-inclusive and are meant only to assist employers and employees in determining the appropriate decisional unit. Involuntary reductions in force typically are structured along one or more of the following lines:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Facility-wide:</I> Ten percent of the employees in the Springfield facility will be terminated within the next ten days;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Division-wide:</I> Fifteen of the employees in the Computer Division will be terminated in December;
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Department-wide:</I> One-half of the workers in the Keyboard Department of the Computer Division will be terminated in December;
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Reporting:</I> Ten percent of the employees who report to the Vice President for Sales, wherever the employees are located, will be terminated immediately;
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Job Category:</I> Ten percent of all accountants, wherever the employees are located, will be terminated next week.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the examples in paragraph (f)(3)(iii) of this section, the decisional units are, respectively:
</P>
<P>(A) The Springfield facility;
</P>
<P>(B) The Computer Division;
</P>
<P>(C) The Keyboard Department;
</P>
<P>(D) All employees reporting to the Vice President for Sales; and
</P>
<P>(E) All accountants.
</P>
<P>(v) While the particular circumstances of each termination program will determine the decisional unit, the following examples also may assist in determining when the decisional unit is other than the entire facility:
</P>
<P>(A) A number of small facilities with interrelated functions and employees in a specific geographic area may comprise a single decisional unit;
</P>
<P>(B) If a company utilizes personnel for a common function at more than one facility, the decisional unit for that function (i.e., accounting) may be broader than the one facility;
</P>
<P>(C) A large facility with several distinct functions may comprise a number of decisional units; for example, if a single facility has distinct internal functions with no employee overlap (i.e., manufacturing, accounting, human resources), and the program is confined to a distinct function, a smaller decisional unit may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) For purposes of this section, higher level review of termination decisions generally will not change the size of the decisional unit unless the reviewing process alters its scope. For example, review by the Human Resources Department to monitor compliance with discrimination laws does not affect the decisional unit. Similarly, when a regional manager in charge of more than one facility reviews the termination decisions regarding one of those facilities, the review does not alter the decisional unit, which remains the one facility under consideration.
</P>
<P>(B) However, if the regional manager in the course of review determines that persons in other facilities should also be considered for termination, the decisional unit becomes the population of all facilities considered. Further, if, for example, the regional manager and his three immediate subordinates jointly review the termination decisions, taking into account more than one facility, the decisional unit becomes the populations of all facilities considered.
</P>
<P>(vii) This regulatory section is limited to the requirements of section 7(f)(1)(H) and is not intended to affect the scope of discovery or of substantive proceedings in the processing of charges of violation of the ADEA or in litigation involving such charges.
</P>
<P>(4) Presentation of information. (i) The information provided must be in writing and must be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average individual eligible to participate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information regarding ages should be broken down according to the age of each person eligible or selected for the program and each person not eligible or selected for the program. The use of age bands broader than one year (such as “age 20-30”) does not satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<P>(iii) In a termination of persons in several established grade levels and/or other established subcategories within a job category or job title, the information shall be broken down by grade level or other subcategory.
</P>
<P>(iv) If an employer in its disclosure combines information concerning both voluntary and involuntary terminations, the employer shall present the information in a manner that distinguishes between voluntary and involuntary terminations.
</P>
<P>(v) If the terminees are selected from a subset of a decisional unit, the employer must still disclose information for the entire population of the decisional unit. For example, if the employer decides that a 10% RIF in the Accounting Department will come from the accountants whose performance is in the bottom one-third of the Division, the employer still must disclose information for all employees in the Accounting Department, even those who are the highest rated.
</P>
<P>(vi) An involuntary termination program in a decisional unit may take place in successive increments over a period of time. Special rules apply to this situation. Specifically, information supplied with regard to the involuntary termination program should be cumulative, so that later terminees are provided ages and job titles or job categories, as appropriate, for all persons in the decisional unit at the beginning of the program and all persons terminated to date. There is no duty to supplement the information given to earlier terminees so long as the disclosure, at the time it is given, conforms to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) The following example demonstrates one way in which the required information could be presented to the employees. (This example is not presented as a prototype notification agreement that automatically will comply with the ADEA. Each information disclosure must be structured based upon the individual case, taking into account the corporate structure, the population of the decisional unit, and the requirements of section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA): Example: Y Corporation lost a major construction contract and determined that it must terminate 10% of the employees in the Construction Division. Y decided to offer all terminees $20,000 in severance pay in exchange for a waiver of all rights. The waiver provides the section 7(f)(1)(H) of the ADEA information as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The decisional unit is the Construction Division.
</P>
<P>(B) All persons in the Construction Division are eligible for the program. All persons who are being terminated in our November RIF are selected for the program.
</P>
<P>(C) All persons who are being offered consideration under a waiver agreement must sign the agreement and return it to the Personnel Office within 45 days after receiving the waiver. Once the signed waiver is returned to the Personnel Office, the employee has 7 days to revoke the waiver agreement.
</P>
<P>(D) The following is a listing of the ages and job titles of persons in the Construction Division who were and were not selected for termination and the offer of consideration for signing a waiver:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Job Title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No. Selected
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No. not selected
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Mechanical Engineers, I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Mechanical Engineers, II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Etc., for all ages
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Structural Engineers, I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Etc., for all ages
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Structural Engineers, II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Etc., for all ages
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Purchasing Agents</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Etc., for all ages</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) <I>Waivers settling charges and lawsuits.</I> (1) Section 7(f)(2) of the ADEA provides that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>A waiver in settlement of a charge filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, or an action filed in court by the individual or the individual's representative, alleging age discrimination of a kind prohibited under section 4 or 15 may not be considered knowing and voluntary unless at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Subparagraphs (A) through (E) of paragraph (1) have been met; and
</P>
<P>(B) The individual is given a reasonable period of time within which to consider the settlement agreement.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The language in section 7(f)(2) of the ADEA, “discrimination of a kind prohibited under section 4 or 15” refers to allegations of age discrimination of the type prohibited by the ADEA.
</P>
<P>(3) The standards set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section for complying with the provisions of section 7(f)(1)(A)-(E) of the ADEA also will apply for purposes of complying with the provisions of section 7(f)(2)(A) of the ADEA.
</P>
<P>(4) The term “reasonable time within which to consider the settlement agreement” means reasonable under all the circumstances, including whether the individual is represented by counsel or has the assistance of counsel.
</P>
<P>(5) However, while the time periods under section 7(f)(1) of the ADEA do not apply to subsection 7(f)(2) of the ADEA, a waiver agreement under this subsection that provides an employee the time periods specified in section 7(f)(1) of the ADEA will be considered “reasonable” for purposes of section 7(f)(2)(B) of the ADEA.
</P>
<P>(6) A waiver agreement in compliance with this section that is in settlement of an EEOC charge does not require the participation or supervision of EEOC.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Burden of proof.</I> In any dispute that may arise over whether any of the requirements, conditions, and circumstances set forth in section 7(f) of the ADEA, subparagraph (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H) of paragraph (1), or subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (2), have been met, the party asserting the validity of a waiver shall have the burden of proving in a court of competent jurisdiction that a waiver was knowing and voluntary pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2) of section 7(f) of the ADEA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>EEOC's enforcement powers.</I> (1) Section 7(f)(4) of the ADEA states:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>No waiver agreement may affect the Commission's rights and responsibilities to enforce [the ADEA]. No waiver may be used to justify interfering with the protected right of an employee to file a charge or participate in an investigation or proceeding conducted by the Commission.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) No waiver agreement may include any provision prohibiting any individual from:
</P>
<P>(i) Filing a charge or complaint, including a challenge to the validity of the waiver agreement, with EEOC, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Participating in any investigation or proceeding conducted by EEOC.
</P>
<P>(3) No waiver agreement may include any provision imposing any condition precedent, any penalty, or any other limitation adversely affecting any individual's right to:
</P>
<P>(i) File a charge or complaint, including a challenge to the validity of the waiver agreement, with EEOC, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Participate in any investigation or proceeding conducted by EEOC.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Effective date of this section.</I> (1) This section is effective July 6, 1998.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to waivers offered by employers on or after the effective date specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No inference is to be drawn from this section regarding the validity of waivers offered prior to the effective date.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Statutory authority.</I> The regulations in this section are legislative regulations issued pursuant to section 9 of the ADEA and Title II of OWBPA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 30628, June 5, 1998, as amended at 79 FR 13547, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.23" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.23   Waivers of rights and claims: Tender back of consideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual alleging that a waiver agreement, covenant not to sue, or other equivalent arrangement was not knowing and voluntary under the ADEA is not required to tender back the consideration given for that agreement before filing either a lawsuit or a charge of discrimination with EEOC or any state or local fair employment practices agency acting as an EEOC referral agency for purposes of filing the charge with EEOC. Retention of consideration does not foreclose a challenge to any waiver agreement, covenant not to sue, or other equivalent arrangement; nor does the retention constitute the ratification of any waiver agreement, covenant not to sue, or other equivalent arrangement. 
</P>
<P>(b) No ADEA waiver agreement, covenant not to sue, or other equivalent arrangement may impose any condition precedent, any penalty, or any other limitation adversely affecting any individual's right to challenge the agreement. This prohibition includes, but is not limited to, provisions requiring employees to tender back consideration received, and provisions allowing employers to recover attorneys' fees and/or damages because of the filing of an ADEA suit. This rule is not intended to preclude employers from recovering attorneys' fees or costs specifically authorized under federal law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restitution, recoupment, or setoff.</I> (1) Where an employee successfully challenges a waiver agreement, covenant not to sue, or other equivalent arrangement, and prevails on the merits of an ADEA claim, courts have the discretion to determine whether an employer is entitled to restitution, recoupment or setoff (hereinafter, “reduction”) against the employee's monetary award. A reduction never can exceed the amount recovered by the employee, or the consideration the employee received for signing the waiver agreement, covenant not to sue, or other equivalent arrangement, whichever is less. 
</P>
<P>(2) In a case involving more than one plaintiff, any reduction must be applied on a plaintiff-by-plaintiff basis. No individual's award can be reduced based on the consideration received by any other person. 
</P>
<P>(d) No employer may abrogate its duties to any signatory under a waiver agreement, covenant not to sue, or other equivalent arrangement, even if one or more of the signatories or the EEOC successfully challenges the validity of that agreement under the ADEA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 77446, Dec. 11, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Exemptions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 72 FR 72944, Dec. 26, 2007.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1625.30" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.30   Administrative exemptions; procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 9 of the Act provides that, 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In accordance with the provisions of subchapter II of chapter 5, of title 5, United States Code, the Secretary of Labor * * * may establish such reasonable exemptions to and from any or all provisions of this Act as he may find necessary and proper in the public interest.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The authority conferred on the Commission by section 9 of the Act to establish reasonable exemptions will be exercised with caution and due regard for the remedial purpose of the statute to promote employment of older persons based on their ability rather than age and to prohibit arbitrary age discrimination in employment. Administrative action consistent with this statutory purpose may be taken under this section, with or without a request therefor, when found necessary and proper in the public interest in accordance with the statutory standards. No formal procedures have been prescribed for requesting such action. However, a reasonable exemption from the Act's provisions will be granted only if it is decided, after notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> giving all interested persons an opportunity to present data, views, or arguments, that a strong and affirmative showing has been made that such exemption is in fact necessary and proper in the public interest. Request for such exemption shall be submitted in writing to the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.31" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.3.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.31   Special employment programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to the authority contained in section 9 of the Act and in accordance with the procedure provided therein and in § 1625.30(b) of this part, it has been found necessary and proper in the public interest to exempt from all prohibitions of the Act all activities and programs under Federal contracts or grants, or carried out by the public employment services of the several States, designed exclusively to provide employment for, or to encourage the employment of, persons with special employment problems, including employment activities and programs under the Manpower Development and Training Act of 1962, Pub. L. No. 87-415, 76 Stat. 23 (1962), as amended, and the Economic Opportunity Act of 1964, Pub. L. No. 88-452, 78 Stat. 508 (1964), as amended, for persons among the long-term unemployed, individuals with disabilities, members of minority groups, older workers, or youth. Questions concerning the application of this exemption shall be referred to the Commission for decision.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employer, employment agency, or labor organization the activities of which are exempt from the prohibitions of the Act under paragraph (a) of this section shall maintain and preserve records containing the same information and data that is required of employers, employment agencies, and labor organizations under §§ 1627.3, 1627.4, and 1627.5, respectively. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 32296, Aug. 27, 1987; 55 FR 24078, June 14, 1990; 57 FR 4158, Feb. 4, 1992; 72 FR 72944, Dec. 26, 2007; 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1625.32" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.17.3.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1625.32   Coordination of retiree health benefits with Medicare and State health benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Employee benefit plan</I> means an employee benefit plan as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(3).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medicare</I> means the health insurance program available pursuant to Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Comparable State health benefit plan</I> means a State-sponsored health benefit plan that, like Medicare, provides retired participants who have attained a minimum age with health benefits, whether or not the type, amount or value of those benefits is equivalent to the type, amount or value of the health benefits provided under Medicare.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption.</I> Some employee benefit plans provide health benefits for retired participants that are altered, reduced or eliminated when the participant is eligible for Medicare health benefits or for health benefits under a comparable State health benefit plan, whether or not the participant actually enrolls in the other benefit program. Pursuant to the authority contained in section 9 of the Act, and in accordance with the procedures provided therein and in § 1625.30(b) of this part, it is hereby found necessary and proper in the public interest to exempt from all prohibitions of the Act such coordination of retiree health benefits with Medicare or a comparable State health benefit plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope of exemption.</I> This exemption shall be narrowly construed. No other aspects of ADEA coverage or employment benefits other than those specified in paragraph (b) of this section are affected by the exemption. Thus, for example, the exemption does not apply to the use of eligibility for Medicare or a comparable State health benefit plan in connection with any act, practice or benefit of employment not specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Nor does it apply to the use of the age of eligibility for Medicare or a comparable State health benefit plan in connection with any act, practice or benefit of employment not specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix to § 1625.32—Questions and Answers Regarding Coordination of Retiree Health Benefits With Medicare and State Health Benefits
</HD1>
<P>Q1. Why is the Commission issuing an exemption from the Act?
</P>
<P>A1. The Commission recognizes that while employers are under no legal obligation to offer retiree health benefits, some employers choose to do so in order to maintain a competitive advantage in the marketplace—using these and other benefits to attract and retain the best talent available to work for their organizations. Further, retiree health benefits clearly benefit workers, allowing such individuals to acquire affordable health insurance coverage at a time when private health insurance coverage might otherwise be cost prohibitive. The Commission believes that it is in the best interest of both employers and employees for the Commission to pursue a policy that permits employers to offer these benefits to the greatest extent possible.
</P>
<P>Q2. Does the exemption mean that the Act no longer applies to retirees?
</P>
<P>A2. No. Only the practice of coordinating retiree health benefits with Medicare (or a comparable State health benefit plan) as specified in paragraph (b) of this section is exempt from the Act. In all other contexts, the Act continues to apply to retirees to the same extent that it did prior to the issuance of this section.
</P>
<P>Q3. May an employer offer a “carve-out plan” for retirees who are eligible for Medicare or a comparable State health plan?
</P>
<P>A3. Yes. A “carve-out plan” reduces the benefits available under an employee benefit plan by the amount payable by Medicare or a comparable State health plan. Employers may continue to offer such “carve-out plans”and make Medicare or a comparable State health plan the primary payer of health benefits for those retirees eligible for Medicare or the comparable State health plan.
</P>
<P>Q4. Does the exemption also apply to dependent and/or spousal health benefits that are included as part of the health benefits provided for retired participants?
</P>
<P>A4. Yes. Because dependent and/or spousal health benefits are benefits provided to the retired participant, the exemption applies to these benefits, just as it does to the health benefits for the retired participant. However, dependent and/or spousal benefits need not be identical to the health benefits provided for retired participants. Consequently, dependent and/or spousal benefits may be altered, reduced or eliminated pursuant to the exemption whether or not the health benefits provided for retired participants are similarly altered, reduced or eliminated.
</P>
<P>Q5. Does the exemption address how the ADEA may apply to other acts, practices or employment benefits not specified in the rule?
</P>
<P>A5. No. The exemption only applies to the practice of coordinating employer-sponsored retiree health benefits with eligibility for Medicare or a comparable State health benefit program. No other aspects of ADEA coverage or employment benefits other than retiree health benefits are affected by the exemption.
</P>
<P>Q6. Does the exemption apply to existing, as well as to newly created, employee benefit plans?
</P>
<P>A6. Yes. The exemption applies to all retiree health benefits that coordinate with Medicare (or a comparable State health benefit plan) as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, whether those benefits are provided for in an existing or newly created employee benefit plan.
</P>
<P>Q7. Does the exemption apply to health benefits that are provided to current employees who are at or over the age of Medicare eligibility (or the age of eligibility for a comparable State health benefit plan)?
</P>
<P>A7. No. The exemption applies only to retiree health benefits, not to health benefits that are provided to current employees. Thus, health benefits for current employees must be provided in a manner that comports with the requirements of the Act. Moreover, under the laws governing the Medicare program, an employer must offer to current employees who are at or over the age of Medicare eligibility the same health benefits, under the same conditions, that it offers to any current employee under the age of Medicare eligibility.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 72945, Dec. 26, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1626" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1626—PROCEDURES—AGE DISCRIMINATION IN EMPLOYMENT ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 9, 81 Stat. 605, 29 U.S.C. 628; sec. 2, Reorg. Plan No. 1 of 1978, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 321.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1626.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations set forth in this part contain the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission for carrying out its responsibilities in the administration and enforcement of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.2   Terms defined in the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended.</HEAD>
<P>The terms <I>person, employer, employment agency, labor organization, employee, commerce, industry affecting commerce,</I> and <I>State</I> as used herein shall have the meanings set forth in section 11 of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.3   Other definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this part, the term <I>the Act</I> shall mean the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended; the <I>EEOC</I> or <I>Commission</I> shall mean the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission or any of its designated representatives; <I>charge</I> shall mean a statement filed with the Commission by or on behalf of an aggrieved person which alleges that the named prospective defendant has engaged in or is about to engage in actions in violation of the Act; <I>complaint</I> shall mean information received from any source, that is not a charge, which alleges that a named prospective defendant has engaged in or is about to engage in actions in violation of the Act; <I>charging party</I> means the person filing a charge; <I>complainant</I> means the person filing a complaint; and <I>respondent</I> means the person named as a prospective defendant in a charge or complaint, or as a result of a Commission-initiated investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983, as amended at 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.4   Information concerning alleged violations of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, on its own initiative, conduct investigations of employers, employment agencies and labor organizations, in accordance with the powers vested in it pursuant to sections 6 and 7 of the Act. The Commission shall also receive information concerning alleged violations of the Act, including charges and complaints, from any source. Where the information discloses a possible violation, the appropriate Commission office may render assistance in the filing of a charge. The identity of a complainant, confidential witness, or aggrieved person on whose behalf a charge was filed will ordinarily not be disclosed without prior written consent, unless necessary in a court proceeding. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.5   Where to submit complaints and charges.</HEAD>
<P>Complaints and charges may be made through the EEOC's designated digital systems, in person, by telephone, by facsimile, or by mail to any EEOC office or any designated representative of the Commission. The current addresses of the EEOC's offices appear at <I>www.eeoc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.6   Form of charge.</HEAD>
<P>A charge shall be in writing and shall name the prospective respondent and shall generally allege the discriminatory act(s). Charges received in person or by telephone shall be reduced to writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.7   Timeliness of charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Potential charging parties will be advised that, pursuant to section 7(d) (1) and (2) of the Act, no civil suit may be commenced by an individual until 60 days after a charge has been filed on the subject matter of the suit, and such charge shall be filed with the Commission or its designated agent within 180 days of the alleged discriminatory action, or, in a case where the alleged discriminatory action occurs in a State which has its own age discrimination law and authority administering that law, within 300 days of the alleged discriminatory action, or 30 days after receipt of notice of termination of State proceedings, whichever is earlier. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of determining the date of filing with the Commission, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) Charges filed digitally: Date of transmission;
</P>
<P>(2) Charges filed by mail: 
</P>
<P>(i) Date of postmark, if legible, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of letter, if postmark is illegible, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of receipt by Commission, or its designated agent, if postmark and letter date are illegible and/or cannot be accurately affixed;
</P>
<P>(3) Written charges filed in person: Date of receipt;
</P>
<P>(4) Oral charges filed in person or by telephone, as reduced to writing: Date of oral communication received by Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983, as amended at 68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.8   Contents of charge; amendment of charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the requirements of § 1626.6, each charge should contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The full name and contact information of the person making the charge except as provided in § 1626.8(d) below;
</P>
<P>(2) The full name and contact information of the person against whom the charge is made, if known (hereinafter referred to as the respondent);
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and concise statement of the facts, including pertinent dates, constituting the alleged unlawful employment practices;
</P>
<P>(4) If known, the approximate number of employees of the prospective defendant employer or members of the prospective defendant labor organization.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement disclosing whether proceedings involving the alleged unlawful employment practice have been commenced before a State agency charged with the enforcement of fair employment practice laws and, if so, the date of such commencement and the name of the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, a charge is sufficient when the Commission receives from the person making the charge either a written statement or information reduced to writing by the Commission that conforms to the requirements of § 1626.6.
</P>
<P>(c) A charge may be amended to clarify or amplify allegations made therein. Such amendments and amendments alleging additional acts which constitute unlawful employment practices related to or growing out of the subject matter of the original charge will relate back to the date the charge was first received. A charge that has been so amended shall not again be referred to the appropriate State agency.
</P>
<P>(d) A charge that any person has engaged in or is engaging in an unlawful employment practice within the meaning of the ADEA may be made by or on behalf of any person claiming to be aggrieved. A charge on behalf of a person claiming to be aggrieved may be made by any person, agency, or organization. The written charge need not identify by name the person on whose behalf it is made. The person making the charge, however, must provide the Commission with the name and contact information of the person on whose behalf the charge is made. During the Commission investigation, Commission personnel shall verify the authorization of such charge by the person on whose behalf the charge is made. Any such person may request that the Commission shall keep his or her identity confidential. However, such request for confidentiality shall not prevent the Commission from disclosing the identity to Federal, State or local agencies that have agreed to keep such information confidential. If this condition is violated by a recipient agency, the Commission may decline to honor subsequent requests for such information.
</P>
<P>(e) The person claiming to be aggrieved has the responsibility to provide the Commission with notice of a change in contact information so that he or she can be contacted when necessary during the Commission's consideration of the charge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983, as amended at 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.9   Referral to and from State agencies; referral States.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may refer all charges to any appropriate State agency and will encourage State agencies to refer charges to the Commission in order to assure that the prerequisites for private law suits, as set out in section 14(b) of the Act, are met. Charges so referred shall be deemed to have been filed with the Commission in accordance with the specifications contained in § 1626.7(b). The Commission may process any charge at any time, notwithstanding provisions for referral to and from appropriate State agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983, as amended at 68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.10   Agreements with State or local fair employment practices agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to sections 6 and 7 of the ADEA and section 11(b) of the FLSA, the Commission may enter into agreements with State or local fair employment practices agencies to cooperate in enforcement, technical assistance, research, or public informational activities, and may engage the services of such agencies in processing charges assuring the safeguard of the Federal rights of aggrieved persons.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may enter into agreements with State or local agencies which authorize such agencies to receive charges and complaints pursuant to § 1626.5 and in accordance with the specifications contained in §§ 1626.7 and 1626.8.
</P>
<P>(c) When a worksharing agreement with a State agency is in effect, the State agency will act on certain charges and the Commission will promptly process charges which the State agency does not pursue. Charges received by one agency under the agreement shall be deemed received by the other agency for purposes of § 1626.7


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.11   Notice of charge.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a charge, the Commission shall promptly notify the respondent that a charge has been filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.12   Conciliation efforts pursuant to section 7(d) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a charge, the Commission shall promptly attempt to eliminate any alleged unlawful practice by informal methods of conciliation, conference and persuasion. Upon failure of such conciliation the Commission will notify the charging party. Such notification enables the charging party or any person aggrieved by the subject matter of the charge to commence action to enforce their rights without waiting for the lapse of 60 days. Notification under this section is not a Notice of Dismissal or Termination under § 1626.17.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 12232, Feb. 16, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.13   Withdrawal of charge.</HEAD>
<P>Charging parties may request withdrawal of a charge. Because the Commission has independent investigative authority, see § 1626.4, it may continue any investigation and may secure relief for all affected persons notwithstanding a request by a charging party to withdraw a charge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.14   Right to inspect or copy data.</HEAD>
<P>A person who submits data or evidence to the Commission may retain or, on payment of lawfully prescribed costs, procure a copy or transcript thereof, except that a witness may for good cause be limited to inspection of the official transcript of his or her testimony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.15" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.15   Commission enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As provided in sections 9, 11, 16 and 17 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (29 U.S.C. 209, 211, 216 and 217) (FLSA) and sections 6 and 7 of this Act, the Commission and its authorized representatives may (1) investigate and gather data; (2) enter and inspect establishments and records and make transcripts thereof; (3) interview employees; (4) impose on persons subject to the Act appropriate recordkeeping and reporting requirements; (5) advise employers, employment agencies and labor organizations with regard to their obligations under the Act and any changes necessary in their policies, practices and procedures to assure compliance with the Act; (6) subpoena witnesses and require the production of documents and other evidence; (7) supervise the payment of amounts owing pursuant to section 16(c) of the FLSA, and (8) institute action under section 16(c) or section 17 of the FLSA or both to obtain appropriate relief.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Commission has a reasonable basis to conclude that a violation of the Act has occurred or will occur, it may commence conciliation under section 7(b) of the Act. Notice of commencement of will ordinarily be issued in the form of a letter of violation; provided, however, that failure to issue a written violation letter shall in no instance be construed as a finding of no violation. The Commission will ordinarily notify the respondent and aggrieved persons of its determination. In the process of conducting any investigation or conciliation under this Act, the identity of persons who have provided information in confidence shall not be disclosed except in accordance with § 1626.4. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any agreement reached as a result of efforts undertaken pursuant to this section shall, as far as practicable, require the respondent to eliminate the unlawful practice(s) and provide appropriate affirmative relief. Such agreement shall be reduced to writing and will ordinarily be signed by the Commission's delegated representative, the respondent, and the charging party, if any. The signed agreement shall be sent to all the signatories thereto.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the failure of informal conciliation, conference and persuasion under section 7(b) of the Act, the Commission may initiate and conduct litigation.
</P>
<P>(e) The District Directors, Field Directors, Area Directors, and Local Directors, the Director of the Office of Field Programs or their designees, are hereby delegated authority to exercise the powers enumerated in § 1626.15(a) (1) through (7) and (b) and (c). The General Counsel or his/her designee is hereby delegated the authority to exercise the powers in paragraph (a) of this section and at the direction of the Commission to initiate and conduct litigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 32063, Aug. 4, 1989; 54 FR 33503, Aug. 15, 1989; 68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003; 71 FR 26831, May 9, 2006; 85 FR 65219, Oct. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2985, Jan. 14, 2021; 89 FR 12233, Feb. 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.16" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.16   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To effectuate the purposes of the Act the Commission shall have the authority to issue a subpoena requiring:
</P>
<P>(1) The attendance and testimony of witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(2) The production of evidence including, but not limited to, books, records, correspondence, or documents, in the possession or under the control of the person subpoenaed; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Access to evidence for the purpose of examination and the right to copy. 
</P>
<P>(b) The power to issue subpoenas has been delegated by the Commission, pursuant to section 6(a) of the Act, to the General Counsel, the District Directors, Field Directors, Area Directors, and Local Directors, the Director of the Office of Field Programs, or their designees. The subpoena shall state the name, address and title of the issuer, identify the person or evidence subpoenaed, the name of the person to whom the subpoena is returnable, the date, time and place that testimony is to be given or that documents are to be provided or access provided.
</P>
<P>(c) A subpoena issued by the Commission or its designee pursuant to the Act is not subject to review or appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued under this section, the Commission may utilize the provisions of sections 9 and 10 of the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 49 and 50, to compel compliance with the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons subpoenaed shall be entitled to the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the courts of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 32063, Aug. 4, 1989; 71 FR 26831, May 9, 2006; 85 FR 65220, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.17" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.17   Notice of dismissal or termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of Notice of Dismissal or Termination.</I> (1) Where a charge filed with the Commission under the ADEA is dismissed or the Commission's proceedings are otherwise terminated, the Commission will issue a Notice of Dismissal or Termination on the charge as described in paragraph (c) of this section to the person(s) claiming to be aggrieved. In the case of a charge concerning more than one aggrieved person, the Commission will only issue a Notice of Dismissal or Termination when the charge is dismissed or proceedings are otherwise terminated as to all aggrieved persons. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the charge has been filed under the ADEA and title VII, the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA), or the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act (PWFA), the Commission will issue a Notice of Dismissal or Termination under the ADEA at the same time it issues the Notice of Right to Sue under title VII, the ADA, GINA, or the PWFA, in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.28. 
</P>
<P>(3) The issuance of a Notice of Dismissal or Termination does not preclude the Commission from offering such assistance to a person receiving the notice as the Commission deems necessary or appropriate. The issuance does not preclude or interfere with the Commission's continuing right to investigate and litigate the same matter or any ADEA matter under its enforcement authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delegation of Authority To Issue Notices of Dismissal or Termination.</I> The Commission hereby delegates authority to issue Notices of Dismissal or Termination, in accordance with this section, to: Directors of District, Field, Area and Local offices; the Director of the Office of Field Programs; the Director of Field Management Programs, Office of Field Programs; the General Counsel; or their designees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of the Notice of Dismissal or Termination.</I> The Notice of Dismissal or Termination shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the charge; 
</P>
<P>(2) Notification that the charge has been dismissed or the Commission's proceedings have otherwise been terminated; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Notification that the aggrieved person's right to file a civil action against the respondent on the subject charge under the ADEA will expire 90 days after receipt of such notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003, as amended at 71 FR 26831, May 9, 2006; 85 FR 65220, Oct. 15, 2020; 89 FR 11172, Feb. 14, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.18" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.18   Filing of private lawsuit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An aggrieved person may file a civil action against the respondent named in the charge in either Federal or State court under section 7 of the ADEA. 
</P>
<P>(b) An aggrieved person whose claims are the subject of a timely pending charge may file a civil action at any time after 60 days have elapsed from the filing of the charge with the Commission (or as provided in § 1626.12) without waiting for a Notice of Dismissal or Termination to be issued. 
</P>
<P>(c) The right of an aggrieved person to file suit expires 90 days after receipt of the Notice of Dismissal or Termination or upon commencement of an action by the Commission to enforce the right of such person. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commission becomes aware that the aggrieved person whose claim is the subject of a pending ADEA charge has filed an ADEA lawsuit against the respondent named in the charge, it shall terminate further processing of the charge or portion of the charge affecting that person unless the District Director; Field Director; Area Director; Local Director; Director of the Office of Field Programs; the General Counsel; the Director of Field Management Programs; or their designees determine at that time or at a later time that it would effectuate the purpose of the ADEA to further process the charge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003, as amended at 71 FR 26831, May 9, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.19" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.19   Filing of Commission lawsuit.</HEAD>
<P>The right of the Commission to file a civil action under the ADEA is not dependent on the filing of a charge and is not affected by the issuance of a Notice of Dismissal or Termination to any aggrieved person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.20" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.20   Procedure for requesting an opinion letter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request for an opinion letter should be submitted in writing to the Chair, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street, NE., Washington DC 20507, and shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(1) A concise statement of the issues on which an opinion is requested;
</P>
<P>(2) As full a statement as possible of relevant facts and law; and
</P>
<P>(3) The names and addresses of the person making the request and other interested persons.
</P>
<P>(b) Issuance of an opinion letter by the Commission is discretionary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Informal advice.</I> When the Commission, at its discretion, determines that it will not issue an opinion letter as defined in § 1626.21, the Commission may provide informal advice or guidance to the requestor. An informal letter of advice does not represent the formal position of the Commission and does not commit the Commission to the views expressed therein. Any letter other than those defined in § 1626.21(a)(1) will be considered a letter of advice and may not be relied upon by any employer within the meaning of section 10 of the Portal to Portal Act of 1947, incorporated into the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 through section 7(e)(1) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 32063, Aug. 4, 1989. Redesignated at 68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003; 74 FR 3430, Jan. 21, 2009 ; 85 FR 65220, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.21" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.21   Effect of opinions and interpretations of the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 10 of the Portal to Portal Act of 1947, incorporated into the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 through section 7(e)(1) of the Act, provides that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In any action or proceeding based on any act or omission on or after the date of the enactment of this Act, no employer shall be subject to any liability or punishment * * * if he pleads and proves that the act or omission complained of was in good faith in conformity with and in reliance on any written administrative regulations, order, ruling, approval or interpretation * * * or any administrative practice or enforcement policy of [the Commission].</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The Commission has determined that only (1) a written document, entitled “opinion letter,” signed by the Legal Counsel on behalf of and as approved by the Commission, or (2) a written document issued in the conduct of litigation, entitled “opinion letter,” signed by the General Counsel on behalf of and as approved by the Commission, or (3) matter published and specifically designated as such in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> may be relied upon by any employer as a “written regulation, order, ruling, approval or interpretation” or “evidence of any administrative practice or enforcement policy” of the Commission “with respect to the class of employers to which he belongs,” within the meaning of the statutory provisions quoted above.
</FP>
<P>(b) An opinion letter issued pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, when issued to the specific addressee, has no effect upon situations other than that of the specific addressee.
</P>
<P>(c) When an opinion letter, as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, is requested, the procedure stated in § 1626.20 shall be followed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983. Redesignated at 68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003; 85 FR 65220, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1626.22" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.18.0.26.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1626.22   Rules to be liberally construed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These rules and regulations shall be liberally construed to effectuate the purposes and provisions of this Act and any other acts administered by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Commission receives a charge or obtains information relating to possible violations of one of the statutes which it administers and the charge or information reveals possible violations of one or more of the other statutes which it administers, the Commission will treat such charges or information in accordance with all such relevant statutes.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever a charge is filed under one statute and it is subsequently believed that the alleged discrimination constitutes an unlawful employment practice under another statute administered and enforced by the Commission, the charge may be so amended and timeliness determined from the date of filing of the original charge. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 140, Jan. 3, 1983. Redesignated at 68 FR 70152, Dec. 17, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1627" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1627—RECORDS TO BE MADE OR KEPT RELATING TO AGE: NOTICES TO BE POSTED
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 7, 81 Stat. 604; 29 U.S.C. 626; sec. 11, 52 Stat. 1066, 29 U.S.C. 211; sec. 12, 29 U.S.C. 631, Pub. L. 99-592, 100 Stat. 3342; sec. 2, Reorg. Plan No. 1 of 1978, 43 FR 19807.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7 of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (hereinafter referred to in this part as the Act) empowers the Commission to require the keeping of records which are necessary or appropriate for the administration of the Act in accordance with the powers contained in section 11 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938. Subpart B of this part sets forth the recordkeeping and posting requirements which are prescribed by the Commission for employers, employment agencies, and labor organizations which are subject to the Act. Reference should be made to section 11 of the Act for definitions of the terms “employer”, “employment agency”, and “labor organization”. General interpretations of the Act and of this part are published in part 1625 of this chapter. This part also reflects pertinent delegations of the Commission's duties. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart D of this part sets forth the Commission's regulations issued pursuant to section 12(c)(2) of the Act, providing that the Secretary of Labor, after consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury, shall prescribe the manner of calculating the amount of qualified retirement benefits for purposes of the exemption in section 12(c)(1) of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, as amended at 44 FR 66797, Nov. 21, 1979; 72 FR 72944, Dec. 26, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Records To Be Made or Kept Relating to Age; Notices To Be Posted</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.2   Forms of records.</HEAD>
<P>No particular order or form of records is required by the regulations in this part 1627. It is required only that the records contain in some form the information specified. If the information required is available in records kept for other purposes, or can be obtained readily by recomputing or extending data recorded in some other form, no further records are required to be made or kept on a routine basis by this part 1627. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.3   Records to be kept by employers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every employer shall make and keep for 3 years payroll or other records for each of his employees which contain: 
</P>
<P>(1) Name;
</P>
<P>(2) Address; 
</P>
<P>(3) Date of birth; 
</P>
<P>(4) Occupation; 
</P>
<P>(5) Rate of pay, and 
</P>
<P>(6) Compensation earned each week. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Every employer who, in the regular course of his business, makes, obtains, or uses, any personnel or employment records related to the following, shall, except as provided in paragraphs (b) (3) and (4) of this section, keep them for a period of 1 year from the date of the personnel action to which any records relate: 
</P>
<P>(i) Job applications, resumes, or any other form of employment inquiry whenever submitted to the employer in response to his advertisement or other notice of existing or anticipated job openings, including records pertaining to the failure or refusal to hire any individual, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Promotion, demotion, transfer, selection for training, layoff, recall, or discharge of any employee,
</P>
<P>(iii) Job orders submitted by the employer to an employment agency or labor organization for recruitment of personnel for job openings, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Test papers completed by applicants or candidates for any position which disclose the results of any employer-administered aptitude or other employment test considered by the employer in connection with any personnel action, 
</P>
<P>(v) The results of any physical examination where such examination is considered by the employer in connection with any personnel action, 
</P>
<P>(vi) Any advertisements or notices to the public or to employees relating to job openings, promotions, training programs, or opportunities for overtime work. 
</P>
<P>(2) Every employer shall keep on file any employee benefit plans such as pension and insurance plans, as well as copies of any seniority systems and merit systems which are in writing, for the full period the plan or system is in effect, and for at least 1 year after its termination. If the plan or system is not in writing, a memorandum fully outlining the terms of such plan or system and the manner in which it has been communicated to the affected employees, together with notations relating to any changes or revisions thereto, shall be kept on file for a like period. 
</P>
<P>(3) When an enforcement action is commenced under section 7 of the Act regarding a particular applicant or employee, the Commission or its authorized representative shall require the employer to retain any record required to be kept under paragraph (b) (1) or (2) of this section which is relative to such action until the final disposition thereof.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0018)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-511, 94 Stat. 2812 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.4   Records to be kept by employment agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Every employment agency which, in the regular course of its business, makes, obtains, or uses, any records related to the following, shall, except as provided in paragraphs (a) (2) and (3) of this section, keep them for a period of 1 year from the date of the action to which the records relate: 
</P>
<P>(i) Placements; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Referrals, where an individual is referred to an employer for a known or reasonably anticipated job opening; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Job orders from employers seeking individuals for job openings; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Job applications, resumes, or any other form of employment inquiry or record of any individual which identifies his qualifications for employment, whether for a known job opening at the time of submission or for future referral to an employer; 
</P>
<P>(v) Test papers completed by applicants or candidates for any position which disclose the results of any agency-administered aptitude or other employment test considered by the agency in connection with any referrals; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Advertisements or notices relative to job openings. 
</P>
<P>(2) When an enforcement action is commenced under section 7 of the Act regarding a particular applicant, the Commission or its authorized representative shall require the employment agency to retain any record required to be kept under paragraph (a)(1) of this section which is relative to such action until the final disposition thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever an employment agency has an obligation as an “employer” or a “labor organization” under the Act, the employment agency must also comply with the recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 1627.3 or § 1627.5, as appropriate.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0018)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-511, 94 Stat. 2812 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.5   Records to be kept by labor organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every labor organization shall keep current records identifying its members by name, address, and date of birth. 
</P>
<P>(b) Every labor organization shall, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, keep for a period of 1 year from the making thereof, a record of the name, address, and age of any individual seeking membership in the organization. An individual seeking membership is considered to be a person who files an application for membership or who, in some other manner, indicates a specific intention to be considered for membership, but does not include any individual who is serving for a stated limited probationary period prior to permanent employment and formal union membership. A person who merely makes an inquiry about the labor organization or, for example, about its general program, is not considered to be an individual seeking membership in a labor organization. 
</P>
<P>(c) When an enforcement action is commenced under section 7 of the Act regarding a labor organization, the Commission or its authorized representative shall require the labor organization to retain any record required to be kept under paragraph (b) of this section which is relative to such action until the final disposition thereof. 
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever a labor organization has an obligation as an “employer” or as an “employment agency” under the Act, the labor organization must also comply with the recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 1627.3 or § 1627.4, as appropriate.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0018)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-511, 94 Stat. 2812 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981; 56 FR 35756, July 26, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.6   Availability of records for inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Place records are to be kept.</I> The records required to be kept by this part shall be kept safe and accessible at the place of employment or business at which the individual to whom they relate is employed or has applied for employment or membership, or at one or more established central recordkeeping offices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection of records.</I> All records required by this part to be kept shall be made available for inspection and transcription by authorized representatives of the Commission during business hours generally observed by the office at which they are kept or in the community generally. Where records are maintained at a central recordkeeping office pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, such records shall be made available at the office at which they would otherwise be required to be kept within 72 hours following request from the Commission or its authorized representative.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0018)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-511, 94 Stat. 2812 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.7   Transcriptions and reports.</HEAD>
<P>Every person required to maintain records under the Act shall make such extension, recomputation or transcriptions of his records and shall submit such reports concerning actions taken and limitations and classifications of individuals set forth in records as the Commission or its authorized representative may request in writing.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3046-0018)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-511, 94 Stat. 2812 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 38459, July 2, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 63268, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1627.8-1627.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1627.8-1627.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.10   Notices to be posted.</HEAD>
<P>Every employer, employment agency, and labor organization which has an obligation under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 shall post and keep posted in conspicuous places upon its premises the notice pertaining to the applicability of the Act prescribed by the Commission or its authorized representative. Such a notice must be posted in prominent and accessible places where it can readily be observed by employees, applicants for employment and union members. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.2.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.11   Petitions for recordkeeping exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of petitions for relief.</I> Each employer, employment agency, or labor organization who for good cause wishes to maintain records in a manner other than required in this part, or to be relieved of preserving certain records for the period or periods prescribed in this part, may submit in writing a petition to the Commission requesting such relief setting forth the reasons therefor and proposing alternative recordkeeping or record-retention procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action on petitions.</I> If, no review of the petition and after completion of any necessary or appropriate investigation supplementary thereto, the Commission shall find that the alternative procedure proposed, if granted, will not hamper or interfere with the enforcement of the Act, and will be of equivalent usefulness in its enforcement, the Commission may grant the petition subject to such conditions as it may determine appropriate and subject to revocation. Whenever any relief granted to any person is sought to be revoked for failure to comply with the conditions of the Commission, that person shall be notified in writing of the facts constituting such failure and afforded an opportunity to achieve or demonstrate compliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance after submission of petitions.</I> The submission of a petition or any delay of the Commission in acting upon such petition shall not relieve any employer, employment agency, or labor organization from any obligations to comply with this part. However, the Commission shall give notice of the denial of any petition with due promptness. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Statutory Exemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1627.17" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.19.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1627.17   Calculating the amount of qualified retirement benefits for purposes of the exemption for bona fide executives or high policymaking employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 12(c)(1) of the Act, added by the 1978 amendments and amended in 1984 and 1986, provides: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit compulsory retirement of any employee who has attained 65 years of age, and who, for the 2-year period immediately before retirement, is employed in a bona fide executive or high policymaking position, if such employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan, or any combination of such plans, of the employer of such employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at least $44,000.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The Commission's interpretative statements regarding this exemption are set forth in section 1625 of this chapter.
</FP>
<P>(b) Section 12(c)(2) of the Act provides: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In applying the retirement benefit test of paragraph (a) of this subsection, if any such retirement benefit is in a form other than a straight life annuity (with no ancillary benefits), or if employees contribute to any such plan or make rollover contributions, such benefit shall be adjusted in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Commission, after consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury, so that the benefit is the equivalent of a straight life annuity (with no ancillary benefits) under a plan to which employees do not contribute and under which no rollover contributions are made.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c)(1) The requirement that an employee be entitled to the equivalent of a $44,000 straight life annuity (with no ancillary benefits) is statisfied in any case where the employee has the option of receiving, during each year of his or her lifetime following retirement, an annual payment of at least $44,000, or periodic payments on a more frequent basis which, in the aggregate, equal at least $44,000 per year: Provided, however, that the portion of the retirement income figure attributable to Social Security, employee contributions, rollover contributions and contributions of prior employers is excluded in the manner described in paragraph (e) of this section. (A retirement benefit which excludes these amounts is sometimes referred to herein as a “qualified” retirement benefit.)
</P>
<P>(2) The requirment is also met where the employee has the option of receiving, upon retirement, a lump sum payment with which it is possible to purchase a single life annuity (with no ancillary benefits) yielding at least $44,000 per year as adjusted.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement is also satisfied where the employee is entitled to receive, upon retirement, benefits whose aggregate value, as of the date of the employee's retirement, with respect to those payments which are scheduled to be made within the period of life expectancy of the employee, is $44,000 per year as adjusted.
</P>
<P>(4) Where an employee has one or more of the options described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, but instead selects another option (or options), the test is also met. On the other hand, where an employee has no choice but to have certain benefits provided after his or her death, the value of these benefits may not be included in this determination.
</P>
<P>(5) The determination of the value of those benefits which may be counted towards the $44,000 requirement must be made on the basis of reasonable actuarial assumptions with respect to mortality and interest. For purposes of excluding from this determination any benefits which are available only after death, it is not necessary to determine the life expectancy of each person on an individual basis. A reasonable actuarial assumption with respect to mortality will suffice.
</P>
<P>(6) The benefits computed under paragraphs (c)(1), (2) and (3) of this section shall be aggregated for purposes of determining whether the $44,000 requirement has been met.
</P>
<P>(d) The only retirement benefits which may be counted towards the $44,000 annual benefit are those from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan, or any combination of such plans. Such plans include, but are not limited to, stock bonus, thrift and simplified employee pensions. The value of benefits from any other employee benefit plans, such as health or life insurance, may not be counted.
</P>
<P>(e) In calculating the value of a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan (or any combination of such plans), amounts attributable to Social Security, employee contributions, contributions of prior employers, and rollover contributions must be excluded. Specific rules are set forth below.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Social Security.</I> Amounts attributable to Social Security must be excluded. Since these amounts are readily determinable, no specific rules are deemed necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee contributions.</I> Amounts attributable to employee contributions must be excluded. The regulations governing this requirement are based on section 411(c) of the Internal Revenue Code and Treasury Regulations thereunder (§ 1.411(c)-(1)), relating to the allocation of accrued benefits between employer and employee contributions. Different calculations are needed to determine the amount of employee contributions, depending upon whether the retirement income plan is a defined contribution plan or a defined benefit plan. Defined contribution plans (also referred to as individual account plans) generally provide that each participant has an individual account and the participant's benefits are based solely on the account balance. No set benefit is promised in defined contribution plans, and the final amount is a result not only of the actual contributions, but also of other factors, such as investment gains and losses. Any retirement income plan which is not an individual account plan is a defined benefit plan. Defined benefit plans generally provide a definitely determinable benefit, by specifying either a flat monthly payment or a schedule of payments based on a formula (frequently involving salary and years of service), and they are funded according to actuarial principles over the employee's period of participation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Defined contribution plans</I>—(A) <I>Separate accounts maintained.</I> If a separate account is maintained with respect to an employee's contributions and all income, expenses, gains and losses attributable thereto, the balance in such an account represents the amount attributable to employee contributions.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Separate accounts not maintained.</I> If a separate account is not maintained with respect to an employee's contributions and the income, expenses, gains and losses attributable thereto, the proportion of the total benefit attributable to employee contributions is determined by multiplying that benefit by a fraction:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The numerator of which is the total amount of the employee's contributions under the plan (less withdrawals), and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The denominator of which is the sum of the numerator and the total contributions made under the plan by the employer on behalf of the employee (less withdrawals).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>A defined contribution plan does not maintain separate accounts for employee contributions. An employee's annual retirement benefit under the plan is $40,000. The employee has contributed $96,000 and the employer has contributed $144,000 to the employee's individual account; no withdrawals have been made. The amount of the $40,000 annual benefit attributable to employee contributions is $40,000 × $96,000/$96,000 + $144,000 = $16,000. Hence the employer's share of the $40,000 annual retirement benefit is $40,000 minus $16,000 or $24,000—too low to fall within the exemption.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(ii) <I>Defined benefit plans</I>—(A) <I>Separate accounts maintained.</I> If a separate account is maintained with respect to an employee's contributions and all income, expenses, gains and losses attributable thereto, the balance in such an account represents the amount attributable to employee contributions.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Separate accounts not maintained.</I> If a separate account is not maintained with respect to an employee's contributions and the income, expenses, gains and losses attributable thereto, all of the contributions made by an employee must be converted actuarially to a single life annuity (without ancillary benefits) commencing at the age of forced retirement. An employee's accumulated contributions are the sum of all contributions (mandatory and, if not separately accounted for, voluntary) made by the employee, together with interest on the sum of all such contributions compounded annually at the rate of 5 percent per annum from the time each such contribution was made until the date of retirement. <I>Provided, however,</I> That prior to the date any plan became subject to section 411(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, interest will be credited at the rate (if any) specified in the plan. The amount of the employee's accumulated contribution described in the previous sentence must be multiplied by an “appropriate conversion factor” in order to convert it to a single life annuity (without ancillary benefits) commencing at the age of actual retirement. The appropriate conversion factor depends upon the age of retirement. In accordance with Rev. Rul. 76-47, 1976-2 C.B. 109, the following conversion factors shall be used with respect to the specified retirement ages:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retirement age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conversion factor percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65 through 66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67 through 68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>An employee is scheduled to receive a pension from a defined benefit plan of $50,000 per year. Over the years he has contributed $150,000 to the plan, and at age 65 this amount, when contributions have been compounded at appropriate annual interest rates, is equal to $240,000. In accordance with Rev. Rul. 76-47, 10 percent is an appropriate conversion factor. When the $240,000 is multiplied by this conversion factor, the product is $24,000, which represents that part of the $50,000 annual pension payment which is attributable to employee contributions. The difference—$26,000—represents the employer's contribution, which is too low to meet the test in the exemption.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Contributions of prior employers.</I> Amounts attributable to contributions of prior employers must be excluded.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Current employer distinguished from prior employers.</I> Under the section 12(c) exemption, for purposes of excluding contributions of prior employers, a prior employer is every previous employer of the employee except those previous employers which are members of a “controlled group of corporations” with, or “under common control” with, the employer which forces the employee to retire, as those terms are used in sections 414 (b) and 414(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, as modified by section 414(h) (26 U.S.C. 414(b), (c) and (h)).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benefits attributable to current employer and to prior employers.</I> Where the current employer maintains or contributes to a plan which is separate from plans maintained or contributed to by prior employers, the amount of the employee's benefit attributable to those prior employers can be readily determined. However, where the current employer maintains or contributes to the same plan as prior employers, the following rule shall apply. The benefit attributable to the current employer shall be the total benefit received by the employee, reduced by the benefit that the employee would have received from the plan if he or she had never worked for the current employer. For purposes of this calculation, it shall be assumed that all benefits have always been vested, even if benefits accrued as a result of service with a prior employer had not in fact been vested.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rollover contributions.</I> Amounts attributable to rollover contributions must be excluded. For purposes of § 1627.17(e), a rollover contribution (as defined in sections 402(a)(5), 403(a)(4), 408(d)(3) and 409(b)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code) shall be treated as an employee contribution. These amounts have already been excluded as a result of the computations set forth in § 1627.17(e)(2). Accordingly, no separate calculation is necessary to comply with this requirement. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 12(c)(1) of the Age Discrimination In Employment Act of 1967, as amended by sec. 802(c)(1) of the Older Americans Act Amendments of 1984, Pub. L. 98-459, 98 Stat. 1792))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 66797, Nov. 21, 1979, as amended at 50 FR 2544, Jan. 17, 1985; 53 FR 5973, Feb. 29, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1630" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1630—REGULATIONS TO IMPLEMENT THE EQUAL EMPLOYMENT PROVISIONS OF THE AMERICANS WITH DISABILITIES ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 12116 and 12205a of the Americans with Disabilities Act, as amended.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 35734, July 26, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1630.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.1   Purpose, applicability, and construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), as amended by the ADA Amendments Act of 2008 (ADAAA or Amendments Act), 42 U.S.C. 12101, <I>et seq.,</I> requiring equal employment opportunities for individuals with disabilities. The ADA as amended, and these regulations, are intended to provide a clear and comprehensive national mandate for the elimination of discrimination against individuals with disabilities, and to provide clear, strong, consistent, enforceable standards addressing discrimination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to “covered entities” as defined at § 1630.2(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, this part does not apply a lesser standard than the standards applied under title V of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 790-794a, as amended), or the regulations issued by Federal agencies pursuant to that title.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relationship to other laws.</I> This part does not invalidate or limit the remedies, rights, and procedures of any Federal law or law of any State or political subdivision of any State or jurisdiction that provides greater or equal protection for the rights of individuals with disabilities than is afforded by this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State workers' compensation laws and disability benefit programs.</I> Nothing in this part alters the standards for determining eligibility for benefits under State workers' compensation laws or under State and Federal disability benefit programs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Broad coverage.</I> The primary purpose of the ADAAA is to make it easier for people with disabilities to obtain protection under the ADA. Consistent with the Amendments Act's purpose of reinstating a broad scope of protection under the ADA, the definition of “disability” in this part shall be construed broadly in favor of expansive coverage to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of the ADA. The primary object of attention in cases brought under the ADA should be whether covered entities have complied with their obligations and whether discrimination has occurred, not whether the individual meets the definition of disability. The question of whether an individual meets the definition of disability under this part should not demand extensive analysis. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 16999, Mar. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commission</I> means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission established by section 705 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e-4). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered Entity</I> means an employer, employment agency, labor organization, or joint labor management committee. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Person, labor organization, employment agency, commerce and industry affecting commerce</I> shall have the same meaning given those terms in section 701 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State</I> means each of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employer</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The term employer means a person engaged in an industry affecting commerce who has 15 or more employees for each working day in each of 20 or more calendar weeks in the current or preceding calendar year, and any agent of such person, except that, from July 26, 1992 through July 25, 1994, an employer means a person engaged in an industry affecting commerce who has 25 or more employees for each working day in each of 20 or more calendar weeks in the current or preceding year and any agent of such person. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The term employer does not include— 
</P>
<P>(i) The United States, a corporation wholly owned by the government of the United States, or an Indian tribe; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A bona fide private membership club (other than a labor organization) that is exempt from taxation under section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employee</I> means an individual employed by an employer. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Definition of “disability”</I>—(1) <I>In general. Disability</I> means, with respect to an individual—
</P>
<P>(i) A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of such individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) A record of such an impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Being regarded as having such an impairment as described in paragraph (l) of this section. This means that the individual has been subjected to an action prohibited by the ADA as amended because of an actual or perceived impairment that is not both “transitory and minor.”
</P>
<P>(2) An individual may establish coverage under any one or more of these three prongs of the definition of disability, i.e., paragraphs (g)(1)(i) (the “actual disability” prong), (g)(1)(ii) (the “record of” prong), and/or (g)(1)(iii) (the “regarded as” prong) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Where an individual is not challenging a covered entity's failure to make reasonable accommodations and does not require a reasonable accommodation, it is generally unnecessary to proceed under the “actual disability” or “record of” prongs, which require a showing of an impairment that substantially limits a major life activity or a record of such an impairment. In these cases, the evaluation of coverage can be made solely under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability, which does not require a showing of an impairment that substantially limits a major life activity or a record of such an impairment. An individual may choose, however, to proceed under the “actual disability” and/or “record of” prong regardless of whether the individual is challenging a covered entity's failure to make reasonable accommodations or requires a reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>):</HED>
<P>See § 1630.3 for exceptions to this definition.</P></NOTE>
<P>(h) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more body systems, such as neurological, musculoskeletal, special sense organs, respiratory (including speech organs), cardiovascular, reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, immune, circulatory, hemic, lymphatic, skin, and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as an intellectual disability (formerly termed “mental retardation”), organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Major life activities</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Major life activities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, sitting, reaching, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating, interacting with others, and working; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of a major bodily function, including functions of the immune system, special sense organs and skin; normal cell growth; and digestive, genitourinary, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain, respiratory, circulatory, cardiovascular, endocrine, hemic, lymphatic, musculoskeletal, and reproductive functions. The operation of a major bodily function includes the operation of an individual organ within a body system.
</P>
<P>(2) In determining other examples of major life activities, the term “major” shall not be interpreted strictly to create a demanding standard for disability. ADAAA section 2(b)(4) (Findings and Purposes). Whether an activity is a “major life activity” is not determined by reference to whether it is of “central importance to daily life.”
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Substantially limits</I>—(1) <I>Rules of construction.</I> The following rules of construction apply when determining whether an impairment substantially limits an individual in a major life activity:
</P>
<P>(i) The term “substantially limits” shall be construed broadly in favor of expansive coverage, to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of the ADA. “Substantially limits” is not meant to be a demanding standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) An impairment is a disability within the meaning of this section if it substantially limits the ability of an individual to perform a major life activity as compared to most people in the general population. An impairment need not prevent, or significantly or severely restrict, the individual from performing a major life activity in order to be considered substantially limiting. Nonetheless, not every impairment will constitute a disability within the meaning of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The primary object of attention in cases brought under the ADA should be whether covered entities have complied with their obligations and whether discrimination has occurred, not whether an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity. Accordingly, the threshold issue of whether an impairment “substantially limits” a major life activity should not demand extensive analysis.
</P>
<P>(iv) The determination of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity requires an individualized assessment. However, in making this assessment, the term “substantially limits” shall be interpreted and applied to require a degree of functional limitation that is lower than the standard for “substantially limits” applied prior to the ADAAA.
</P>
<P>(v) The comparison of an individual's performance of a major life activity to the performance of the same major life activity by most people in the general population usually will not require scientific, medical, or statistical analysis. Nothing in this paragraph is intended, however, to prohibit the presentation of scientific, medical, or statistical evidence to make such a comparison where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(vi) The determination of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity shall be made without regard to the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures. However, the ameliorative effects of ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses shall be considered in determining whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity.
</P>
<P>(vii) An impairment that is episodic or in remission is a disability if it would substantially limit a major life activity when active.
</P>
<P>(viii) An impairment that substantially limits one major life activity need not substantially limit other major life activities in order to be considered a substantially limiting impairment.
</P>
<P>(ix) The six-month “transitory” part of the “transitory and minor” exception to “regarded as” coverage in § 1630.15(f) does not apply to the definition of “disability” under paragraphs (g)(1)(i) (the “actual disability” prong) or (g)(1)(ii) (the “record of” prong) of this section. The effects of an impairment lasting or expected to last fewer than six months can be substantially limiting within the meaning of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-applicability to the “regarded as” prong.</I> Whether an individual's impairment “substantially limits” a major life activity is not relevant to coverage under paragraph (g)(1)(iii) (the “regarded as” prong) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Predictable assessments</I>—(i) The principles set forth in paragraphs (j)(1)(i) through (ix) of this section are intended to provide for more generous coverage and application of the ADA's prohibition on discrimination through a framework that is predictable, consistent, and workable for all individuals and entities with rights and responsibilities under the ADA as amended.
</P>
<P>(ii) Applying the principles set forth in paragraphs (j)(1)(i) through (ix) of this section, the individualized assessment of some types of impairments will, in virtually all cases, result in a determination of coverage under paragraphs (g)(1)(i) (the “actual disability” prong) or (g)(1)(ii) (the “record of” prong) of this section. Given their inherent nature, these types of impairments will, as a factual matter, virtually always be found to impose a substantial limitation on a major life activity. Therefore, with respect to these types of impairments, the necessary individualized assessment should be particularly simple and straightforward.
</P>
<P>(iii) For example, applying the principles set forth in paragraphs (j)(1)(i) through (ix) of this section, it should easily be concluded that the following types of impairments will, at a minimum, substantially limit the major life activities indicated: Deafness substantially limits hearing; blindness substantially limits seeing; an intellectual disability (formerly termed mental retardation) substantially limits brain function; partially or completely missing limbs or mobility impairments requiring the use of a wheelchair substantially limit musculoskeletal function; autism substantially limits brain function; cancer substantially limits normal cell growth; cerebral palsy substantially limits brain function; diabetes substantially limits endocrine function; epilepsy substantially limits neurological function; Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection substantially limits immune function; multiple sclerosis substantially limits neurological function; muscular dystrophy substantially limits neurological function; and major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder, and schizophrenia substantially limit brain function. The types of impairments described in this section may substantially limit additional major life activities not explicitly listed above.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Condition, manner, or duration</I>—
</P>
<P>(i) At all times taking into account the principles in paragraphs (j)(1)(i) through (ix) of this section, in determining whether an individual is substantially limited in a major life activity, it may be useful in appropriate cases to consider, as compared to most people in the general population, the condition under which the individual performs the major life activity; the manner in which the individual performs the major life activity; and/or the duration of time it takes the individual to perform the major life activity, or for which the individual can perform the major life activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consideration of facts such as condition, manner, or duration may include, among other things, consideration of the difficulty, effort, or time required to perform a major life activity; pain experienced when performing a major life activity; the length of time a major life activity can be performed; and/or the way an impairment affects the operation of a major bodily function. In addition, the non-ameliorative effects of mitigating measures, such as negative side effects of medication or burdens associated with following a particular treatment regimen, may be considered when determining whether an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity.
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining whether an individual has a disability under the “actual disability” or “record of” prongs of the definition of disability, the focus is on how a major life activity is substantially limited, and not on what outcomes an individual can achieve. For example, someone with a learning disability may achieve a high level of academic success, but may nevertheless be substantially limited in the major life activity of learning because of the additional time or effort he or she must spend to read, write, or learn compared to most people in the general population.
</P>
<P>(iv) Given the rules of construction set forth in paragraphs (j)(1)(i) through (ix) of this section, it may often be unnecessary to conduct an analysis involving most or all of these types of facts. This is particularly true with respect to impairments such as those described in paragraph (j)(3)(iii) of this section, which by their inherent nature should be easily found to impose a substantial limitation on a major life activity, and for which the individualized assessment should be particularly simple and straightforward.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples of mitigating measures</I>—Mitigating measures include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Medication, medical supplies, equipment, or appliances, low-vision devices (defined as devices that magnify, enhance, or otherwise augment a visual image, but not including ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses), prosthetics including limbs and devices, hearing aid(s) and cochlear implant(s) or other implantable hearing devices, mobility devices, and oxygen therapy equipment and supplies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of assistive technology;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reasonable accommodations or “auxiliary aids or services” (as defined by 42 U.S.C. 12103(1));
</P>
<P>(iv) Learned behavioral or adaptive neurological modifications; or
</P>
<P>(v) Psychotherapy, behavioral therapy, or physical therapy.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses</I>—<I>defined.</I> Ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses are lenses that are intended to fully correct visual acuity or to eliminate refractive error.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An individual has a record of a disability if the individual has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Broad construction.</I> Whether an individual has a record of an impairment that substantially limited a major life activity shall be construed broadly to the maximum extent permitted by the ADA and should not demand extensive analysis. An individual will be considered to have a record of a disability if the individual has a history of an impairment that substantially limited one or more major life activities when compared to most people in the general population, or was misclassified as having had such an impairment. In determining whether an impairment substantially limited a major life activity, the principles articulated in paragraph (j) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reasonable accommodation.</I> An individual with a record of a substantially limiting impairment may be entitled, absent undue hardship, to a reasonable accommodation if needed and related to the past disability. For example, an employee with an impairment that previously limited, but no longer substantially limits, a major life activity may need leave or a schedule change to permit him or her to attend follow-up or “monitoring” appointments with a health care provider.
</P>
<P>(l) “<I>Is regarded as having such an impairment.”</I> The following principles apply under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability (paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this section) above:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in § 1630.15(f), an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” if the individual is subjected to a prohibited action because of an actual or perceived physical or mental impairment, whether or not that impairment substantially limits, or is perceived to substantially limit, a major life activity. Prohibited actions include but are not limited to refusal to hire, demotion, placement on involuntary leave, termination, exclusion for failure to meet a qualification standard, harassment, or denial of any other term, condition, or privilege of employment
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in § 1630.15(f), an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” any time a covered entity takes a prohibited action against the individual because of an actual or perceived impairment, even if the entity asserts, or may or does ultimately establish, a defense to such action.
</P>
<P>(3) Establishing that an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” does not, by itself, establish liability. Liability is established under title I of the ADA only when an individual proves that a covered entity discriminated on the basis of disability within the meaning of section 102 of the ADA, 42 U.S.C. 12112.
</P>
<P>(m) The term “<I>qualified,”</I> with respect to an individual with a disability, means that the individual satisfies the requisite skill, experience, education and other job-related requirements of the employment position such individual holds or desires and, with or without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of such position. See § 1630.3 for exceptions to this definition. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Essential functions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The term <I>essential functions</I> means the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual with a disability holds or desires. The term “essential functions” does not include the marginal functions of the position. 
</P>
<P>(2) A job function may be considered essential for any of several reasons, including but not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The function may be essential because the reason the position exists is to perform that function; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The function may be essential because of the limited number of employees available among whom the performance of that job function can be distributed; and/or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The function may be highly specialized so that the incumbent in the position is hired for his or her expertise or ability to perform the particular function. 
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence of whether a particular function is essential includes, but is not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer's judgment as to which functions are essential; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Written job descriptions prepared before advertising or interviewing applicants for the job; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of time spent on the job performing the function; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The consequences of not requiring the incumbent to perform the function; 
</P>
<P>(v) The terms of a collective bargaining agreement; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The work experience of past incumbents in the job; and/or 
</P>
<P>(vii) The current work experience of incumbents in similar jobs. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Reasonable accommodation.</I> (1) The term <I>reasonable accommodation</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Modifications or adjustments to a job application process that enable a qualified applicant with a disability to be considered for the position such qualified applicant desires; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Modifications or adjustments to the work environment, or to the manner or circumstances under which the position held or desired is customarily performed, that enable an individual with a disability who is qualified to perform the essential functions of that position; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Modifications or adjustments that enable a covered entity's employee with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment as are enjoyed by its other similarly situated employees without disabilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasonable accommodation</I> may include but is not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Making existing facilities used by employees readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Job restructuring; part-time or modified work schedules; reassignment to a vacant position; acquisition or modifications of equipment or devices; appropriate adjustment or modifications of examinations, training materials, or policies; the provision of qualified readers or interpreters; and other similar accommodations for individuals with disabilities. 
</P>
<P>(3) To determine the appropriate reasonable accommodation it may be necessary for the covered entity to initiate an informal, interactive process with the individual with a disability in need of the accommodation. This process should identify the precise limitations resulting from the disability and potential reasonable accommodations that could overcome those limitations. 
</P>
<P>(4) A covered entity is required, absent undue hardship, to provide a reasonable accommodation to an otherwise qualified individual who meets the definition of disability under the “actual disability” prong (paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section), or “record of” prong (paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section), but is not required to provide a reasonable accommodation to an individual who meets the definition of disability solely under the “regarded as” prong (paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Undue hardship</I>—(1) <I>In general. Undue hardship</I> means, with respect to the provision of an accommodation, significant difficulty or expense incurred by a covered entity, when considered in light of the factors set forth in paragraph (p)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors to be considered.</I> In determining whether an accommodation would impose an undue hardship on a covered entity, factors to be considered include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The nature and net cost of the accommodation needed under this part, taking into consideration the availability of tax credits and deductions, and/or outside funding; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The overall financial resources of the facility or facilities involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodation, the number of persons employed at such facility, and the effect on expenses and resources; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The overall financial resources of the covered entity, the overall size of the business of the covered entity with respect to the number of its employees, and the number, type and location of its facilities; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The type of operation or operations of the covered entity, including the composition, structure and functions of the workforce of such entity, and the geographic separateness and administrative or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities in question to the covered entity; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The impact of the accommodation upon the operation of the facility, including the impact on the ability of other employees to perform their duties and the impact on the facility's ability to conduct business. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Qualification standards</I> means the personal and professional attributes including the skill, experience, education, physical, medical, safety and other requirements established by a covered entity as requirements which an individual must meet in order to be eligible for the position held or desired. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Direct Threat</I> means a significant risk of substantial harm to the health or safety of the individual or others that cannot be eliminated or reduced by reasonable accommodation. The determination that an individual poses a “direct threat” shall be based on an individualized assessment of the individual's present ability to safely perform the essential functions of the job. This assessment shall be based on a reasonable medical judgment that relies on the most current medical knowledge and/or on the best available objective evidence. In determining whether an individual would pose a direct threat, the factors to be considered include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The duration of the risk; 
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and severity of the potential harm; 
</P>
<P>(3) The likelihood that the potential harm will occur; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The imminence of the potential harm. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 35734, July 26, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 16999, Mar. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.3   Exceptions to the definitions of “Disability” and “Qualified Individual with a Disability.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms <I>disability</I> and <I>qualified individual with a disability</I> do not include individuals currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs, when the covered entity acts on the basis of such use. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Drug</I> means a controlled substance, as defined in schedules I through V of section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C 812) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Illegal use of drugs</I> means the use of drugs the possession or distribution of which is unlawful under the Controlled Substances Act, as periodically updated by the Food and Drug Administration. This term does not include the use of a drug taken under the supervision of a licensed health care professional, or other uses authorized by the Controlled Substances Act or other provisions of Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(b) However, the terms <I>disability</I> and <I>qualified</I> individual with a disability may not exclude an individual who: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has successfully completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs, or has otherwise been rehabilitated successfully and is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is participating in a supervised rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in such use; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Is erroneously regarded as engaging in such use, but is not engaging in such use. 
</P>
<P>(c) It shall not be a violation of this part for a covered entity to adopt or administer reasonable policies or procedures, including but not limited to drug testing, designed to ensure that an individual described in paragraph (b) (1) or (2) of this section is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs. (See § 1630.16(c) Drug testing). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disability</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Transvestism, transsexualism, pedophilia, exhibitionism, voyeurism, gender identity disorders not resulting from physical impairments, or other sexual behavior disorders; 
</P>
<P>(2) Compulsive gambling, kleptomania, or pyromania; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from current illegal use of drugs. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Homosexuality and bisexuality</I> are not impairments and so are not disabilities as defined in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.4   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) It is unlawful for a covered entity to discriminate on the basis of disability against a qualified individual in regard to:
</P>
<P>(i) Recruitment, advertising, and job application procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, right of return from layoff, and rehiring;
</P>
<P>(iii) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation and changes in compensation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Job assignments, job classifications, organizational structures, position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists;
</P>
<P>(v) Leaves of absence, sick leave, or any other leave;
</P>
<P>(vi) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the covered entity;
</P>
<P>(vii) Selection and financial support for training, including: apprenticeships, professional meetings, conferences and other related activities, and selection for leaves of absence to pursue training;
</P>
<P>(viii) Activities sponsored by a covered entity, including social and recreational programs; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment.
</P>
<P>(2) The term discrimination includes, but is not limited to, the acts described in §§ 1630.4 through 1630.13 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims of no disability.</I> Nothing in this part shall provide the basis for a claim that an individual without a disability was subject to discrimination because of his lack of disability, including a claim that an individual with a disability was granted an accommodation that was denied to an individual without a disability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 17002, Mar. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.5   Limiting, segregating, and classifying.</HEAD>
<P>It is unlawful for a covered entity to limit, segregate, or classify a job applicant or employee in a way that adversely affects his or her employment opportunities or status on the basis of disability. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.6   Contractual or other arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> It is unlawful for a covered entity to participate in a contractual or other arrangement or relationship that has the effect of subjecting the covered entity's own qualified applicant or employee with a disability to the discrimination prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contractual or other arrangement defined.</I> The phrase <I>contractual or other arrangement or relationship</I> includes, but is not limited to, a relationship with an employment or referral agency; labor union, including collective bargaining agreements; an organization providing fringe benefits to an employee of the covered entity; or an organization providing training and apprenticeship programs. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to a covered entity, with respect to its own applicants or employees, whether the entity offered the contract or initiated the relationship, or whether the entity accepted the contract or acceded to the relationship. A covered entity is not liable for the actions of the other party or parties to the contract which only affect that other party's employees or applicants. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.7   Standards, criteria, or methods of administration.</HEAD>
<P>It is unlawful for a covered entity to use standards, criteria, or methods of administration, which are not job-related and consistent with business necessity, and: 
</P>
<P>(a) That have the effect of discriminating on the basis of disability; or 
</P>
<P>(b) That perpetuate the discrimination of others who are subject to common administrative control. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.8   Relationship or association with an individual with a disability.</HEAD>
<P>It is unlawful for a covered entity to exclude or deny equal jobs or benefits to, or otherwise discriminate against, a qualified individual because of the known disability of an individual with whom the qualified individual is known to have a family, business, social or other relationship or association. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.9   Not making reasonable accommodation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is unlawful for a covered entity not to make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of an otherwise qualified applicant or employee with a disability, unless such covered entity can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its business. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is unlawful for a covered entity to deny employment opportunities to an otherwise qualified job applicant or employee with a disability based on the need of such covered entity to make reasonable accommodation to such individual's physical or mental impairments. 
</P>
<P>(c) A covered entity shall not be excused from the requirements of this part because of any failure to receive technical assistance authorized by section 507 of the ADA, including any failure in the development or dissemination of any technical assistance manual authorized by that Act.
</P>
<P>(d) An individual with a disability is not required to accept an accommodation, aid, service, opportunity or benefit which such qualified individual chooses not to accept. However, if such individual rejects a reasonable accommodation, aid, service, opportunity or benefit that is necessary to enable the individual to perform the essential functions of the position held or desired, and cannot, as a result of that rejection, perform the essential functions of the position, the individual will not be considered qualified. 
</P>
<P>(e) A covered entity is required, absent undue hardship, to provide a reasonable accommodation to an otherwise qualified individual who meets the definition of disability under the “actual disability” prong (§ 1630.2(g)(1)(i)), or “record of” prong (§ 1630.2(g)(1)(ii)), but is not required to provide a reasonable accommodation to an individual who meets the definition of disability solely under the “regarded as” prong (§ 1630.2(g)(1)(iii)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 35734, July 26, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 17002, Mar. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.10   Qualification standards, tests, and other selection criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> It is unlawful for a covered entity to use qualification standards, employment tests or other selection criteria that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities, on the basis of disability, unless the standard, test, or other selection criteria, as used by the covered entity, is shown to be job related for the position in question and is consistent with business necessity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualification standards and tests related to uncorrected vision.</I> Notwithstanding § 1630.2(j)(1)(vi) of this part, a covered entity shall not use qualification standards, employment tests, or other selection criteria based on an individual's uncorrected vision unless the standard, test, or other selection criterion, as used by the covered entity, is shown to be job related for the position in question and is consistent with business necessity. An individual challenging a covered entity's application of a qualification standard, test, or other criterion based on uncorrected vision need not be a person with a disability, but must be adversely affected by the application of the standard, test, or other criterion. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 17002, Mar. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.11   Administration of tests.</HEAD>
<P>It is unlawful for a covered entity to fail to select and administer tests concerning employment in the most effective manner to ensure that, when a test is administered to a job applicant or employee who has a disability that impairs sensory, manual or speaking skills, the test results accurately reflect the skills, aptitude, or whatever other factor of the applicant or employee that the test purports to measure, rather than reflecting the impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills of such employee or applicant (except where such skills are the factors that the test purports to measure). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.12   Retaliation and coercion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retaliation.</I> It is unlawful to discriminate against any individual because that individual has opposed any act or practice made unlawful by this part or because that individual made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing to enforce any provision contained in this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coercion, interference or intimidation.</I> It is unlawful to coerce, intimidate, threaten, harass or interfere with any individual in the exercise or enjoyment of, or because that individual aided or encouraged any other individual in the exercise of, any right granted or protected by this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.13   Prohibited medical examinations and inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-employment examination or inquiry.</I> Except as permitted by § 1630.14, it is unlawful for a covered entity to conduct a medical examination of an applicant or to make inquiries as to whether an applicant is an individual with a disability or as to the nature or severity of such disability. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examination or inquiry of employees.</I> Except as permitted by § 1630.14, it is unlawful for a covered entity to require a medical examination of an employee or to make inquiries as to whether an employee is an individual with a disability or as to the nature or severity of such disability. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.14" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.14   Medical examinations and inquiries specifically permitted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable pre-employment inquiry.</I> A covered entity may make pre-employment inquiries into the ability of an applicant to perform job-related functions, and/or may ask an applicant to describe or to demonstrate how, with or without reasonable accommodation, the applicant will be able to perform job-related functions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employment entrance examination.</I> A covered entity may require a medical examination (and/or inquiry) after making an offer of employment to a job applicant and before the applicant begins his or her employment duties, and may condition an offer of employment on the results of such examination (and/or inquiry), if all entering employees in the same job category are subjected to such an examination (and/or inquiry) regardless of disability. 
</P>
<P>(1) Information obtained under paragraph (b) of this section regarding the medical condition or history of the applicant shall be collected and maintained on separate forms and in separate medical files and be treated as a confidential medical record, except that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding necessary restrictions on the work or duties of the employee and necessary accommodations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, when appropriate, if the disability might require emergency treatment; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Government officials investigating compliance with this part shall be provided relevant information on request. 
</P>
<P>(2) The results of such examination shall not be used for any purpose inconsistent with this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) Medical examinations conducted in accordance with this section do not have to be job-related and consistent with business necessity. However, if certain criteria are used to screen out an employee or employees with disabilities as a result of such an examination or inquiry, the exclusionary criteria must be job-related and consistent with business necessity, and performance of the essential job functions cannot be accomplished with reasonable accommodation as required in this part. (See § 1630.15(b) Defenses to charges of discriminatory application of selection criteria.) 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examination of employees.</I> A covered entity may require a medical examination (and/or inquiry) of an employee that is job-related and consistent with business necessity. A covered entity may make inquiries into the ability of an employee to perform job-related functions. 
</P>
<P>(1) Information obtained under paragraph (c) of this section regarding the medical condition or history of any employee shall be collected and maintained on separate forms and in separate medical files and be treated as a confidential medical record, except that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding necessary restrictions on the work or duties of the employee and necessary accommodations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, when appropriate, if the disability might require emergency treatment; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Government officials investigating compliance with this part shall be provided relevant information on request. 
</P>
<P>(2) Information obtained under paragraph (c) of this section regarding the medical condition or history of any employee shall not be used for any purpose inconsistent with this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other acceptable examinations and inquiries.</I> A covered entity may conduct voluntary medical examinations and activities, including voluntary medical histories, which are part of an employee health program available to employees at the work site. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Employee health program.</I> An employee health program, including any disability-related inquiries or medical examinations that are part of such program, must be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. A program satisfies this standard if it has a reasonable chance of improving the health of, or preventing disease in, participating employees, and it is not overly burdensome, is not a subterfuge for violating the ADA or other laws prohibiting employment discrimination, and is not highly suspect in the method chosen to promote health or prevent disease. A program consisting of a measurement, test, screening, or collection of health-related information without providing results, follow-up information, or advice designed to improve the health of participating employees is not reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease, unless the collected information actually is used to design a program that addresses at least a subset of the conditions identified. A program also is not reasonably designed if it exists mainly to shift costs from the covered entity to targeted employees based on their health or simply to give an employer information to estimate future health care costs. Whether an employee health program is reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease is evaluated in light of all the relevant facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Voluntary.</I> An employee health program that includes disability-related inquiries or medical examinations (including disability-related inquiries or medical examinations that are part of a health risk assessment) is voluntary as long as a covered entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not require employees to participate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not deny coverage under any of its group health plans or particular benefits packages within a group health plan for non-participation, or limit the extent of benefits (except as allowed under paragraph (d)(3) of this section) for employees who do not participate;
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not take any adverse employment action or retaliate against, interfere with, coerce, intimidate, or threaten employees within the meaning of Section 503 of the ADA, codified at 42 U.S.C. 12203; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides employees with a notice that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is written so that the employee from whom medical information is being obtained is reasonably likely to understand it;
</P>
<P>(B) Describes the type of medical information that will be obtained and the specific purposes for which the medical information will be used; and
</P>
<P>(C) Describes the restrictions on the disclosure of the employee's medical information, the employer representatives or other parties with whom the information will be shared, and the methods that the covered entity will use to ensure that medical information is not improperly disclosed (including whether it complies with the measures set forth in the HIPAA regulations codified at 45 CFR parts 160 and 164).
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4)(i) <I>Confidentiality.</I> Information obtained under paragraph (d) of this section regarding the medical condition or history of any employee shall be collected and maintained on separate forms and in separate medical files and be treated as a confidential medical record, except that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding necessary restrictions on the work or duties of the employee and necessary accommodations; 
</P>
<P>(B) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, when appropriate, if the disability might require emergency treatment; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Government officials investigating compliance with this part shall be provided relevant information on request. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information obtained under paragraph (d) of this section regarding the medical condition or history of any employee shall not be used for any purpose inconsistent with this part. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as permitted under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section and as is necessary to administer the health plan, information obtained under this paragraph (d) regarding the medical information or history of any individual may only be provided to an ADA covered entity in aggregate terms that do not disclose, or are not reasonably likely to disclose, the identity of any employee.
</P>
<P>(iv) A covered entity shall not require an employee to agree to the sale, exchange, sharing, transfer, or other disclosure of medical information (except to the extent permitted by this part to carry out specific activities related to the wellness program), or to waive any confidentiality protections in this part as a condition for participating in a wellness program or for earning any incentive the covered entity offers in connection with such a program.
</P>
<P>(5) Compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (d), including the limit on incentives under the ADA, does not relieve a covered entity from the obligation to comply in all respects with the nondiscrimination provisions of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.,</I> the Equal Pay Act of 1963, 29 U.S.C. 206(d), the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, 29 U.S.C. 621 <I>et seq.,</I> Title II of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 2000ff, <I>et seq.,</I> or other sections of Title I of the ADA.
</P>
<P>(6) The “safe harbor” provisions in § 1630.16(f) of this part applicable to health insurance, life insurance, and other benefit plans do not apply to wellness programs, even if such plans are part of a covered entity's health plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 35734, July 26, 1991, as amended at 81 FR 31139, May 17, 2016; 83 FR 65296, Dec. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.15" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.15   Defenses.</HEAD>
<P>Defenses to an allegation of discrimination under this part may include, but are not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Disparate treatment charges.</I> It may be a defense to a charge of disparate treatment brought under §§ 1630.4 through 1630.8 and 1630.11 through 1630.12 that the challenged action is justified by a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charges of discriminatory application of selection criteria</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> It may be a defense to a charge of discrimination, as described in § 1630.10, that an alleged application of qualification standards, tests, or selection criteria that screens out or tends to screen out or otherwise denies a job or benefit to an individual with a disability has been shown to be job-related and consistent with business necessity, and such performance cannot be accomplished with reasonable accommodation, as required in this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Direct threat as a qualification standard.</I> The term “qualification standard” may include a requirement that an individual shall not pose a direct threat to the health or safety of the individual or others in the workplace. (See § 1630.2(r) defining direct threat.) 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other disparate impact charges.</I> It may be a defense to a charge of discrimination brought under this part that a uniformly applied standard, criterion, or policy has a disparate impact on an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities that the challenged standard, criterion or policy has been shown to be job-related and consistent with business necessity, and such performance cannot be accomplished with reasonable accommodation, as required in this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charges of not making reasonable accommodation.</I> It may be a defense to a charge of discrimination, as described in § 1630.9, that a requested or necessary accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the covered entity's business. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conflict with other Federal laws.</I> It may be a defense to a charge of discrimination under this part that a challenged action is required or necessitated by another Federal law or regulation, or that another Federal law or regulation prohibits an action (including the provision of a particular reasonable accommodation) that would otherwise be required by this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Claims based on transitory and minor impairments under the “regarded as” prong.</I> It may be a defense to a charge of discrimination by an individual claiming coverage under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability that the impairment is (in the case of an actual impairment) or would be (in the case of a perceived impairment) “transitory and minor.” To establish this defense, a covered entity must demonstrate that the impairment is both “transitory” and “minor.” Whether the impairment at issue is or would be “transitory and minor” is to be determined objectively. A covered entity may not defeat “regarded as” coverage of an individual simply by demonstrating that it subjectively believed the impairment was transitory and minor; rather, the covered entity must demonstrate that the impairment is (in the case of an actual impairment) or would be (in the case of a perceived impairment) both transitory and minor. For purposes of this section, “transitory” is defined as lasting or expected to last six months or less. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional defenses.</I> It may be a defense to a charge of discrimination under this part that the alleged discriminatory action is specifically permitted by § 1630.14 or § 1630.16. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 35734, July 26, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 17003, Mar. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1630.16" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1630.16   Specific activities permitted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Religious entities.</I> A religious corporation, association, educational institution, or society is permitted to give preference in employment to individuals of a particular religion to perform work connected with the carrying on by that corporation, association, educational institution, or society of its activities. A religious entity may require that all applicants and employees conform to the religious tenets of such organization. However, a religious entity may not discriminate against a qualified individual, who satisfies the permitted religious criteria, on the basis of his or her disability. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulation of alcohol and drugs.</I> A covered entity: 
</P>
<P>(1) May prohibit the illegal use of drugs and the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees; 
</P>
<P>(2) May require that employees not be under the influence of alcohol or be engaging in the illegal use of drugs at the workplace; 
</P>
<P>(3) May require that all employees behave in conformance with the requirements established under the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 (41 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>); 
</P>
<P>(4) May hold an employee who engages in the illegal use of drugs or who is an alcoholic to the same qualification standards for employment or job performance and behavior to which the entity holds its other employees, even if any unsatisfactory performance or behavior is related to the employee's drug use or alcoholism; 
</P>
<P>(5) May require that its employees employed in an industry subject to such regulations comply with the standards established in the regulations (if any) of the Departments of Defense and Transportation, and of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, regarding alcohol and the illegal use of drugs; and 
</P>
<P>(6) May require that employees employed in sensitive positions comply with the regulations (if any) of the Departments of Defense and Transportation and of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission that apply to employment in sensitive positions subject to such regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Drug testing</I>—(1) <I>General policy.</I> For purposes of this part, a test to determine the illegal use of drugs is not considered a medical examination. Thus, the administration of such drug tests by a covered entity to its job applicants or employees is not a violation of § 1630.13 of this part. However, this part does not encourage, prohibit, or authorize a covered entity to conduct drug tests of job applicants or employees to determine the illegal use of drugs or to make employment decisions based on such test results. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transportation employees.</I> This part does not encourage, prohibit, or authorize the otherwise lawful exercise by entities subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of Transportation of authority to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Test employees of entities in, and applicants for, positions involving safety sensitive duties for the illegal use of drugs or for on-duty impairment by alcohol; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Remove from safety-sensitive positions persons who test positive for illegal use of drugs or on-duty impairment by alcohol pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Confidentiality.</I> Any information regarding the medical condition or history of any employee or applicant obtained from a test to determine the illegal use of drugs, except information regarding the illegal use of drugs, is subject to the requirements of § 1630.14(b) (2) and (3) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Regulation of smoking.</I> A covered entity may prohibit or impose restrictions on smoking in places of employment. Such restrictions do not violate any provision of this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Infectious and communicable diseases; food handling jobs</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Under title I of the ADA, section 103(d)(1), the Secretary of Health and Human Services is to prepare a list, to be updated annually, of infectious and communicable diseases which are transmitted through the handling of food. (Copies may be obtained from Center for Infectious Diseases, Centers for Disease Control, 1600 Clifton Road, NE., Mailstop C09, Atlanta, GA 30333.) If an individual with a disability is disabled by one of the infectious or communicable diseases included on this list, and if the risk of transmitting the disease associated with the handling of food cannot be eliminated by reasonable accommodation, a covered entity may refuse to assign or continue to assign such individual to a job involving food handling. However, if the individual with a disability is a current employee, the employer must consider whether he or she can be accommodated by reassignment to a vacant position not involving food handling. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect on State or other laws.</I> This part does not preempt, modify, or amend any State, county, or local law, ordinance or regulation applicable to food handling which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is in accordance with the list, referred to in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, of infectious or communicable diseases and the modes of transmissibility published by the Secretary of Health and Human Services; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is designed to protect the public health from individuals who pose a significant risk to the health or safety of others, where that risk cannot be eliminated by reasonable accommodation. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Health insurance, life insurance, and other benefit plans</I>—(1) An insurer, hospital, or medical service company, health maintenance organization, or any agent or entity that administers benefit plans, or similar organizations may underwrite risks, classify risks, or administer such risks that are based on or not inconsistent with State law. 
</P>
<P>(2) A covered entity may establish, sponsor, observe or administer the terms of a bona fide benefit plan that are based on underwriting risks, classifying risks, or administering such risks that are based on or not inconsistent with State law. 
</P>
<P>(3) A covered entity may establish, sponsor, observe, or administer the terms of a bona fide benefit plan that is not subject to State laws that regulate insurance. 
</P>
<P>(4) The activities described in paragraphs (f) (1), (2), and (3) of this section are permitted unless these activities are being used as a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 35734, July 26, 1991, 76 FR 17003, Mar. 25, 2011]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.20.0.26.17.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 1630—Interpretive Guidance on Title I of the Americans With Disabilities Act


</HEAD>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) is a landmark piece of civil rights legislation signed into law on July 26, 1990, and amended effective January 1, 2009. See 42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended. In passing the ADA, Congress recognized that “discrimination against individuals with disabilities continues to be a serious and pervasive social problem” and that the “continuing existence of unfair and unnecessary discrimination and prejudice denies people with disabilities the opportunity to compete on an equal basis and to pursue those opportunities for which our free society is justifiably famous, and costs the United States billions of dollars in unnecessary expenses resulting from dependency and nonproductivity.” 42 U.S.C. 12101(a)(2), (8). Discrimination on the basis of disability persists in critical areas such as housing, public accommodations, education, transportation, communication, recreation, institutionalization, health services, voting, access to public services, and employment. 42 U.S.C. 12101(a)(3). Accordingly, the ADA prohibits discrimination in a wide range of areas, including employment, public services, and public accommodations.
</P>
<P>Title I of the ADA prohibits disability-based discrimination in employment. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (the Commission or the EEOC) is responsible for enforcement of title I (and parts of title V) of the ADA. Pursuant to the ADA as amended, the EEOC is expressly granted the authority and is expected to amend these regulations. 42 U.S.C. 12205a. Under title I of the ADA, covered entities may not discriminate against qualified individuals on the basis of disability in regard to job application procedures, the hiring, advancement or discharge of employees, employee compensation, job training, or other terms, conditions, and privileges of employment. 42 U.S.C. 12112(a). For these purposes, “discriminate” includes (1) limiting, segregating, or classifying a job applicant or employee in a way that adversely affects the opportunities or status of the applicant or employee; (2) participating in a contractual or other arrangement or relationship that has the effect of subjecting a covered entity's qualified applicants or employees to discrimination; (3) utilizing standards, criteria, or other methods of administration that have the effect of discrimination on the basis of disability; (4) not making reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of an otherwise qualified individual with a disability, unless the covered entity can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the business of the covered entity; (5) denying employment opportunities to a job applicant or employee who is otherwise qualified, if such denial is based on the need to make reasonable accommodation; (6) using qualification standards, employment tests or other selection criteria that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities unless the standard, test or other selection criterion is shown to be job related for the position in question and is consistent with business necessity; and (7) subjecting applicants or employees to prohibited medical inquiries or examinations. See 42 U.S.C. 12112(b), (d).
</P>
<P>As with other civil rights laws, individuals seeking protection under these anti-discrimination provisions of the ADA generally must allege and prove that they are members of the “protected class.” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Under the ADA, this typically means they have to show that they meet the statutory definition of “disability.” 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 5. However, “Congress did not intend for the threshold question of disability to be used as a means of excluding individuals from coverage.” Id.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Claims of improper disability-related inquiries or medical examinations, improper disclosure of confidential medical information, or retaliation may be brought by any applicant or employee, not just individuals with disabilities. See, e.g., <I>Cossette</I> v. <I>Minnesota Power &amp; Light,</I> 188 F.3d 964, 969-70 (8th Cir. 1999); <I>Fredenburg</I> v. <I>Contra Costa County Dep't of Health Servs.,</I> 172 F.3d 1176, 1182 (9th Cir. 1999); <I>Griffin</I> v. <I>Steeltek, Inc.,</I> 160 F.3d 591, 594 (10th Cir. 1998). Likewise, a nondisabled applicant or employee may challenge an employment action that is based on the disability of an individual with whom the applicant or employee is known to have a relationship or association. See 42 U.S.C. 12112(b)(4).</P></FTNT>
<P>In the original ADA, Congress defined “disability” as (1) a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities of an individual; (2) a record of such an impairment; or (3) being regarded as having such an impairment. 42 U.S.C. 12202(2). Congress patterned these three parts of the definition of disability—the “actual,” “record of,” and “regarded as” prongs—after the definition of “handicap” found in the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 6. By doing so, Congress intended that the relevant case law developed under the Rehabilitation Act would be generally applicable to the term “disability” as used in the ADA. H.R. Rep. No. 485 part 3, 101st Cong., 2d Sess. 27 (1990) (1990 House Judiciary Report or House Judiciary Report); See also S. Rep. No. 116, 101st Cong., 1st Sess. 21 (1989) (1989 Senate Report or Senate Report); H.R. Rep. No. 485 part 2, 101st Cong., 2d Sess. 50 (1990) (1990 House Labor Report or House Labor Report). Congress expected that the definition of disability and related terms, such as “substantially limits” and “major life activity,” would be interpreted under the ADA “consistently with how courts had applied the definition of a handicapped individual under the Rehabilitation Act”—i.e., expansively and in favor of broad coverage. ADA Amendments Act of 2008 (ADAAA or Amendments Act) at section 2(a)(1)-(8) and (b)(1)-(6) (Findings and Purposes); See also Senate Statement of the Managers to Accompany S. 3406 (2008 Senate Statement of Managers) at 3 (“When Congress passed the ADA in 1990, it adopted the functional definition of disability from section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, in part, because after 17 years of development through case law the requirements of the definition were well understood. Within this framework, with its generous and inclusive definition of disability, courts treated the determination of disability as a threshold issue but focused primarily on whether unlawful discrimination had occurred.”); 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 6 &amp; n.6 (noting that courts had interpreted this Rehabilitation Act definition “broadly to include persons with a wide range of physical and mental impairments”).
</P>
<P>That expectation was not fulfilled. ADAAA section 2(a)(3). The holdings of several Supreme Court cases sharply narrowed the broad scope of protection Congress originally intended under the ADA, thus eliminating protection for many individuals whom Congress intended to protect. Id. For example, in <I>Sutton</I> v. <I>United Air Lines, Inc.,</I> 527 U.S. 471 (1999), the Court ruled that whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity is to be determined with reference to the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures. In <I>Sutton,</I> the Court also adopted a restrictive reading of the meaning of being “regarded as” disabled under the ADA's definition of disability. Subsequently, in <I>Toyota Motor Mfg., Ky., Inc.</I> v. <I>Williams,</I> 534 U.S. 184 (2002), the Court held that the terms “substantially” and “major” in the definition of disability “need to be interpreted strictly to create a demanding standard for qualifying as disabled” under the ADA, and that to be substantially limited in performing a major life activity under the ADA, “an individual must have an impairment that prevents or severely restricts the individual from doing activities that are of central importance to most people's daily lives.”
</P>
<P>As a result of these Supreme Court decisions, lower courts ruled in numerous cases that individuals with a range of substantially limiting impairments were not individuals with disabilities, and thus not protected by the ADA. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 3 (“After the Court's decisions in <I>Sutton</I> that impairments must be considered in their mitigated state and in <I>Toyota</I> that there must be a demanding standard for qualifying as disabled, lower courts more often found that an individual's impairment did not constitute a disability. As a result, in too many cases, courts would never reach the question whether discrimination had occurred.”). Congress concluded that these rulings imposed a greater degree of limitation and expressed a higher standard than it had originally intended, and coupled with the EEOC's 1991 ADA regulations which had defined the term “substantially limits” as “significantly restricted,” unduly precluded many individuals from being covered under the ADA. Id. (“[t]hus, some 18 years later we are faced with a situation in which physical or mental impairments that would previously have been found to constitute disabilities are not considered disabilities under the Supreme Court's narrower standard” and “[t]he resulting court decisions contribute to a legal environment in which individuals must demonstrate an inappropriately high degree of functional limitation in order to be protected from discrimination under the ADA”).
</P>
<P>Consequently, Congress amended the ADA with the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act of 2008. The ADAAA was signed into law on September 25, 2008, and became effective on January 1, 2009. This legislation is the product of extensive bipartisan efforts, and the culmination of collaboration and coordination between legislators and stakeholders, including representatives of the disability, business, and education communities. See Statement of Representatives Hoyer and Sensenbrenner, 154 Cong. Rec. H8294-96 (daily ed. Sept. 17, 2008) (Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Congressional Record Statement); Senate Statement of Managers at 1. The express purposes of the ADAAA are, among other things:
</P>
<P>(1) To carry out the ADA's objectives of providing “a clear and comprehensive national mandate for the elimination of discrimination” and “clear, strong, consistent, enforceable standards addressing discrimination” by reinstating a broad scope of protection under the ADA;
</P>
<P>(2) To reject the requirement enunciated in <I>Sutton</I> and its companion cases that whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity is to be determined with reference to the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures;
</P>
<P>(3) To reject the Supreme Court's reasoning in <I>Sutton</I> with regard to coverage under the third prong of the definition of disability and to reinstate the reasoning of the Supreme Court in <I>School Board of Nassau County</I> v. <I>Arline,</I> 480 U.S. 273 (1987), which set forth a broad view of the third prong of the definition of handicap under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973;
</P>
<P>(4) To reject the standards enunciated by the Supreme Court in <I>Toyota</I> that the terms “substantially” and “major” in the definition of disability under the ADA “need to be interpreted strictly to create a demanding standard for qualifying as disabled,” and that to be substantially limited in performing a major life activity under the ADA “an individual must have an impairment that prevents or severely restricts the individual from doing activities that are of central importance to most people's daily lives”;
</P>
<P>(5) To convey congressional intent that the standard created by the Supreme Court in <I>Toyota</I> for “substantially limits,” and applied by lower courts in numerous decisions, has created an inappropriately high level of limitation necessary to obtain coverage under the ADA;
</P>
<P>(6) To convey that it is the intent of Congress that the primary object of attention in cases brought under the ADA should be whether entities covered under the ADA have complied with their obligations, and to convey that the question of whether an individual's impairment is a disability under the ADA should not demand extensive analysis; and
</P>
<P>(7) To express Congress' expectation that the EEOC will revise that portion of its current regulations that defines the term “substantially limits” as “significantly restricted” to be consistent with the ADA as amended.
</P>
<P>ADAAA section 2(b). The findings and purposes of the ADAAA “give[] clear guidance to the courts and * * * [are] intend[ed] to be applied appropriately and consistently.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 5.
</P>
<P>The EEOC has amended its regulations to reflect the ADAAA's findings and purposes. The Commission believes that it is essential also to amend its appendix to the original regulations at the same time, and to reissue this interpretive guidance as amended concurrently with the issuance of the amended regulations. This will help to ensure that individuals with disabilities understand their rights, and to facilitate and encourage compliance by covered entities under this part.
</P>
<P>Accordingly, this amended appendix addresses the major provisions of this part and explains the major concepts related to disability-based employment discrimination. This appendix represents the Commission's interpretation of the issues addressed within it, and the Commission will be guided by this appendix when resolving charges of employment discrimination. 
</P>
<HD1>Note on Certain Terminology Used
</HD1>
<P>The ADA, the EEOC's ADA regulations, and this appendix use the term “disabilities” rather than the term “handicaps” which was originally used in the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 701-796. Substantively, these terms are equivalent. As originally noted by the House Committee on the Judiciary, “[t]he use of the term ‘disabilities' instead of the term ‘handicaps' reflects the desire of the Committee to use the most current terminology. It reflects the preference of persons with disabilities to use that term rather than ‘handicapped' as used in previous laws, such as the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 * * *.” 1990 House Judiciary Report at 26-27; See also 1989 Senate Report at 21; 1990 House Labor Report at 50-51.
</P>
<P>In addition, consistent with the Amendments Act, revisions have been made to the regulations and this appendix to refer to “individual with a disability” and “qualified individual” as separate terms, and to change the prohibition on discrimination to “on the basis of disability” instead of prohibiting discrimination against a qualified individual “with a disability because of the disability of such individual.” “This ensures that the emphasis in questions of disability discrimination is properly on the critical inquiry of whether a qualified person has been discriminated against on the basis of disability, and not unduly focused on the preliminary question of whether a particular person is a ‘person with a disability.’ ” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 11.
</P>
<P>The use of the term “Americans” in the title of the ADA, in the EEOC's regulations, or in this appendix as amended is not intended to imply that the ADA only applies to United States citizens. Rather, the ADA protects all qualified individuals with disabilities, regardless of their citizenship status or nationality, from discrimination by a covered entity.
</P>
<P>Finally, the terms “employer” and “employer or other covered entity” are used interchangeably throughout this appendix to refer to all covered entities subject to the employment provisions of the ADA.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.1 Purpose, Applicability and Construction
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 1630.1(a) Purpose
</HD3>
<P>The express purposes of the ADA as amended are to provide a clear and comprehensive national mandate for the elimination of discrimination against individuals with disabilities; to provide clear, strong, consistent, enforceable standards addressing discrimination against individuals with disabilities; to ensure that the Federal Government plays a central role in enforcing the standards articulated in the ADA on behalf of individuals with disabilities; and to invoke the sweep of congressional authority to address the major areas of discrimination faced day-to-day by people with disabilities. 42 U.S.C. 12101(b). The EEOC's ADA regulations are intended to implement these Congressional purposes in simple and straightforward terms.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.1(b) Applicability
</HD3>
<P>The EEOC's ADA regulations as amended apply to all “covered entities” as defined at § 1630.2(b). The ADA defines “covered entities” to mean an employer, employment agency, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee. 42 U.S.C. 12111(2). All covered entities are subject to the ADA's rules prohibiting discrimination. 42 U.S.C. 12112.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.1(c) Construction
</HD3>
<P>The ADA must be construed as amended. The primary purpose of the Amendments Act was to make it easier for people with disabilities to obtain protection under the ADA. See Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement on the Origins of the ADA Restoration Act of 2008, H.R. 3195 (reviewing provisions of H.R. 3195 as revised following negotiations between representatives of the disability and business communities) (Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement) at 2. Accordingly, under the ADA as amended and the EEOC's regulations, the definition of “disability” “shall be construed in favor of broad coverage of individuals under [the ADA], to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of [the ADA].” 42 U.S.C. 12102(4)(A); See also 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 3 (“The ADA Amendments Act * * * reiterates that Congress intends that the scope of the [ADA] be broad and inclusive.”). This construction is also intended to reinforce the general rule that civil rights statutes must be broadly construed to achieve their remedial purpose. Id. at 2; See also 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 19 (this rule of construction “directs courts to construe the definition of ‘disability' broadly to advance the ADA's remedial purposes” and thus “brings treatment of the ADA's definition of disability in line with treatment of other civil rights laws, which should be construed broadly to effectuate their remedial purposes”).
</P>
<P>The ADAAA and the EEOC's regulations also make clear that the primary object of attention in cases brought under the ADA should be whether entities covered under the ADA have complied with their obligations, not whether the individual meets the definition of disability. ADAAA section 2(b)(5). This means, for example, examining whether an employer has discriminated against an employee, including whether an employer has fulfilled its obligations with respect to providing a “reasonable accommodation” to an individual with a disability; or whether an employee has met his or her responsibilities under the ADA with respect to engaging in the reasonable accommodation “interactive process.” See also 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 4 (“[L]ower court cases have too often turned solely on the question of whether the plaintiff is an individual with a disability rather than the merits of discrimination claims, such as whether adverse decisions were impermissibly made by the employer on the basis of disability, reasonable accommodations were denied, or qualification standards were unlawfully discriminatory.”); 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 6 (“An individual who does not qualify as disabled * * * does not meet th[e] threshold question of coverage in the protected class and is therefore not permitted to attempt to prove his or her claim of discriminatory treatment.”).
</P>
<P>Further, the question of whether an individual has a disability under this part “should not demand extensive analysis.” ADAAA section 2(b)(5). See also House Education and Labor Committee Report at 9 (“The Committee intends that the establishment of coverage under the ADA should not be overly complex nor difficult. * * *”).
</P>
<P>In addition, unless expressly stated otherwise, the standards applied in the ADA are intended to provide at least as much protection as the standards applied under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
</P>
<P>The ADA does not preempt any Federal law, or any State or local law, that grants to individuals with disabilities protection greater than or equivalent to that provided by the ADA. This means that the existence of a lesser standard of protection to individuals with disabilities under the ADA will not provide a defense to failing to meet a higher standard under another law. Thus, for example, title I of the ADA would not be a defense to failing to prepare and maintain an affirmative action program under section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act. On the other hand, the existence of a lesser standard under another law will not provide a defense to failing to meet a higher standard under the ADA. See 1990 House Labor Report at 135; 1990 House Judiciary Report at 69-70.
</P>
<P>This also means that an individual with a disability could choose to pursue claims under a State discrimination or tort law that does not confer greater substantive rights, or even confers fewer substantive rights, if the potential available remedies would be greater than those available under the ADA and this part. The ADA does not restrict an individual with a disability from pursuing such claims in addition to charges brought under this part. 1990 House Judiciary Report at 69-70.
</P>
<P>The ADA does not automatically preempt medical standards or safety requirements established by Federal law or regulations. It does not preempt State, county, or local laws, ordinances or regulations that are consistent with this part and designed to protect the public health from individuals who pose a direct threat to the health or safety of others that cannot be eliminated or reduced by reasonable accommodation. However, the ADA does preempt inconsistent requirements established by State or local law for safety or security sensitive positions. See 1989 Senate Report at 27; 1990 House Labor Report at 57.
</P>
<P>An employer allegedly in violation of this part cannot successfully defend its actions by relying on the obligation to comply with the requirements of any State or local law that imposes prohibitions or limitations on the eligibility of individuals with disabilities who are qualified to practice any occupation or profession. For example, suppose a municipality has an ordinance that prohibits individuals with tuberculosis from teaching school children. If an individual with dormant tuberculosis challenges a private school's refusal to hire him or her on the basis of the tuberculosis, the private school would not be able to rely on the city ordinance as a defense under the ADA.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c)(3) is consistent with language added to section 501 of the ADA by the ADA Amendments Act. It makes clear that nothing in this part is intended to alter the determination of eligibility for benefits under state workers' compensation laws or Federal and State disability benefit programs. State workers' compensation laws and Federal disability benefit programs, such as programs that provide payments to veterans with service-connected disabilities and the Social Security Disability Insurance program, have fundamentally different purposes than title I of the ADA. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.2 Definitions
</HD2>
<HD3>Sections 1630.2(a)-(f) Commission, Covered Entity, etc.
</HD3>
<P>The definitions section of part 1630 includes several terms that are identical, or almost identical, to the terms found in title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Among these terms are “Commission,” “Person,” “State,” and “Employer.” These terms are to be given the same meaning under the ADA that they are given under title VII. In general, the term “employee” has the same meaning that it is given under title VII. However, the ADA's definition of “employee” does not contain an exception, as does title VII, for elected officials and their personal staffs. It should further be noted that all State and local governments are covered by title II of the ADA whether or not they are also covered by this part. Title II, which is enforced by the Department of Justice, became effective on January 26, 1992. See 28 CFR part 35.
</P>
<P>The term “covered entity” is not found in title VII. However, the title VII definitions of the entities included in the term “covered entity” (e.g., employer, employment agency, labor organization, etc.) are applicable to the ADA. 
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(g) Disability
</HD3>
<P>In addition to the term “covered entity,” there are several other terms that are unique to the ADA as amended. The first of these is the term “disability.” “This definition is of critical importance because as a threshold issue it determines whether an individual is covered by the ADA.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 6.
</P>
<P>In the original ADA, “Congress sought to protect anyone who experiences discrimination because of a current, past, or perceived disability.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 6. Accordingly, the definition of the term “disability” is divided into three prongs: An individual is considered to have a “disability” if that individual (1) has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of that person's major life activities (the “actual disability” prong); (2) has a record of such an impairment (the “record of” prong); or (3) is regarded by the covered entity as an individual with a disability as defined in § 1630.2(l) (the “regarded as” prong). The ADAAA retained the basic structure and terms of the original definition of disability. However, the Amendments Act altered the interpretation and application of this critical statutory term in fundamental ways. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 1 (“The bill maintains the ADA's inherently functional definition of disability” but “clarifies and expands the definition's meaning and application.”).
</P>
<P>As noted above, the primary purpose of the ADAAA is to make it easier for people with disabilities to obtain protection under the ADA. See Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 2. Accordingly, the ADAAA provides rules of construction regarding the definition of disability. Consistent with the congressional intent to reinstate a broad scope of protection under the ADA, the ADAAA's rules of construction require that the definition of “disability” “shall be construed in favor of broad coverage of individuals under [the ADA], to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of [the ADA].” 42 U.S.C. 12102(4)(A). The legislative history of the ADAAA is replete with references emphasizing this principle. See Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 2 (“[The bill] establishes that the definition of disability must be interpreted broadly to achieve the remedial purposes of the ADA”); 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 1 (the ADAAA's purpose is to “enhance the protections of the [ADA]” by “expanding the definition, and by rejecting several opinions of the United States Supreme Court that have had the effect of restricting the meaning and application of the definition of disability”); id. (stressing the importance of removing barriers “to construing and applying the definition of disability more generously”); id. at 4 (“The managers have introduced the [ADAAA] to restore the proper balance and application of the ADA by clarifying and broadening the definition of disability, and to increase eligibility for the protections of the ADA.”); id. (“It is our expectation that because the bill makes the definition of disability more generous, some people who were not covered before will now be covered.”); id. (warning that “the definition of disability should not be unduly used as a tool for excluding individuals from the ADA's protections”); id. (this principle “sends a clear signal of our intent that the courts must interpret the definition of disability broadly rather than stringently”); 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 5 (“The purpose of the bill is to restore protection for the broad range of individuals with disabilities as originally envisioned by Congress by responding to the Supreme Court's narrow interpretation of the definition of disability.”).
</P>
<P>Further, as the purposes section of the ADAAA explicitly cautions, the “primary object of attention” in cases brought under the ADA should be whether entities covered under the ADA have complied with their obligations. As noted above, this means, for example, examining whether an employer has discriminated against an employee, including whether an employer has fulfilled its obligations with respect to providing a “reasonable accommodation” to an individual with a disability; or whether an employee has met his or her responsibilities under the ADA with respect to engaging in the reasonable accommodation “interactive process.” ADAAA section 2(b)(5); See also 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 4 (“[L]ower court cases have too often turned solely on the question of whether the plaintiff is an individual with a disability rather than the merits of discrimination claims, such as whether adverse decisions were impermissibly made by the employer on the basis of disability, reasonable accommodations were denied, or qualification standards were unlawfully discriminatory.”); 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report (criticizing pre-ADAAA court decisions which “prevented individuals that Congress unquestionably intended to cover from ever getting a chance to prove their case”). Accordingly, the threshold coverage question of whether an individual's impairment is a disability under the ADA “should not demand extensive analysis.” ADAAA section 2(b)(5).
</P>
<P>Section 1630.2(g)(2) provides that an individual may establish coverage under any one or more (or all three) of the prongs in the definition of disability. However, to be an individual with a disability, an individual is only required to satisfy one prong.
</P>
<P>As § 1630.2(g)(3) indicates, in many cases it may be unnecessary for an individual to resort to coverage under the “actual disability” or “record of” prongs. Where the need for a reasonable accommodation is not at issue—for example, where there is no question that the individual is “qualified” without a reasonable accommodation and is not seeking or has not sought a reasonable accommodation—it would not be necessary to determine whether the individual is substantially limited in a major life activity (under the actual disability prong) or has a record of a substantially limiting impairment (under the record of prong). Such claims could be evaluated solely under the “regarded as” prong of the definition. In fact, Congress expected the first and second prongs of the definition of disability “to be used only by people who are affirmatively seeking reasonable accommodations * * *” and that “[a]ny individual who has been discriminated against because of an impairment—short of being granted a reasonable accommodation * * *—should be bringing a claim under the third prong of the definition which will require no showing with regard to the severity of his or her impairment.” Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 4. An individual may choose, however, to proceed under the “actual disability” and/or “record of” prong regardless of whether the individual is challenging a covered entity's failure to make reasonable accommodation or requires a reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>To fully understand the meaning of the term “disability,” it is also necessary to understand what is meant by the terms “physical or mental impairment,” “major life activity,” “substantially limits,” “record of,” and “regarded as.” Each of these terms is discussed below.
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(h) Physical or Mental Impairment
</HD3>
<P>Neither the original ADA nor the ADAAA provides a definition for the terms “physical or mental impairment.” However, the legislative history of the Amendments Act notes that Congress “expect[s] that the current regulatory definition of these terms, as promulgated by agencies such as the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), the Department of Justice (DOJ) and the Department of Education Office of Civil Rights (DOE OCR) will not change.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 6. The definition of “physical or mental impairment” in the EEOC's regulations remains based on the definition of the term “physical or mental impairment” found in the regulations implementing section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act at 34 CFR part 104. However, the definition in EEOC's regulations adds additional body systems to those provided in the section 504 regulations and makes clear that the list is non-exhaustive.
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<P>It is important to distinguish between conditions that are impairments and physical, psychological, environmental, cultural, and economic characteristics that are not impairments. The definition of the term “impairment” does not include physical characteristics such as eye color, hair color, left-handedness, or height, weight, or muscle tone that are within “normal” range and are not the result of a physiological disorder. The definition, likewise, does not include characteristic predisposition to illness or disease. Other conditions, such as pregnancy, that are not the result of a physiological disorder are also not impairments. However, a pregnancy-related impairment that substantially limits a major life activity is a disability under the first prong of the definition. Alternatively, a pregnancy-related impairment may constitute a “record of” a substantially limiting impairment,” or may be covered under the “regarded as” prong if it is the basis for a prohibited employment action and is not “transitory and minor.”
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<P>The definition of an impairment also does not include common personality traits such as poor judgment or a quick temper where these are not symptoms of a mental or psychological disorder. Environmental, cultural, or economic disadvantages such as poverty, lack of education, or a prison record are not impairments. Advanced age, in and of itself, is also not an impairment. However, various medical conditions commonly associated with age, such as hearing loss, osteoporosis, or arthritis would constitute impairments within the meaning of this part. See 1989 Senate Report at 22-23; 1990 House Labor Report at 51-52; 1990 House Judiciary Report at 28-29.
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(i) Major Life Activities
</HD3>
<P>The ADAAA provided significant new guidance and clarification on the subject of “major life activities.” As the legislative history of the Amendments Act explains, Congress anticipated that protection under the ADA would now extend to a wider range of cases, in part as a result of the expansion of the category of major life activities. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 8 n.17.
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<P>For purposes of clarity, the Amendments Act provides an illustrative list of major life activities, including caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating, and working. The ADA Amendments expressly made this statutory list of examples of major life activities non-exhaustive, and the regulations include sitting, reaching, and interacting with others as additional examples. Many of these major life activities listed in the ADA Amendments Act and the regulations already had been included in the EEOC's 1991 now-superseded regulations implementing title I of the ADA and in sub-regulatory documents, and already were recognized by the courts.
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<P>The ADA as amended also explicitly defines “major life activities” to include the operation of “major bodily functions.” This was an important addition to the statute. This clarification was needed to ensure that the impact of an impairment on the operation of a major bodily function would not be overlooked or wrongly dismissed as falling outside the definition of “major life activities” under the ADA. 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 16; See also 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 8 (“for the first time [in the ADAAA], the category of ‘major life activities' is defined to include the operation of major bodily functions, thus better addressing chronic impairments that can be substantially limiting”).
</P>
<P>The regulations include all of those major bodily functions identified in the ADA Amendments Act's non-exhaustive list of examples and add a number of others that are consistent with the body systems listed in the regulations' definition of “impairment” (at § 1630.2(h)) and with the U.S. Department of Labor's nondiscrimination and equal employment opportunity regulations implementing section 188 of the Workforce Investment Act of 1998, 29 U.S.C. 2801, <I>et seq.</I> Thus, special sense organs, skin, genitourinary, cardiovascular, hemic, lymphatic, and musculoskeletal functions are major bodily functions not included in the statutory list of examples but included in § 1630.2(i)(1)(ii). The Commission has added these examples to further illustrate the non-exhaustive list of major life activities, including major bodily functions, and to emphasize that the concept of major life activities is to be interpreted broadly consistent with the Amendments Act. The regulations also provide that the operation of a major bodily function may include the operation of an individual organ within a body system. This would include, for example, the operation of the kidney, liver, pancreas, or other organs.
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<P>The link between particular impairments and various major bodily functions should not be difficult to identify. Because impairments, by definition, affect the functioning of body systems, they will generally affect major bodily functions. For example, cancer affects an individual's normal cell growth; diabetes affects the operation of the pancreas and also the function of the endocrine system; and Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection affects the immune system. Likewise, sickle cell disease affects the functions of the hemic system, lymphedema affects lymphatic functions, and rheumatoid arthritis affects musculoskeletal functions.
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<P>In the legislative history of the ADAAA, Congress expressed its expectation that the statutory expansion of “major life activities” to include major bodily functions (along with other statutory changes) would lead to more expansive coverage. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 8 n.17 (indicating that these changes will make it easier for individuals to show that they are eligible for the ADA's protections under the first prong of the definition of disability). The House Education and Labor Committee explained that the inclusion of major bodily functions would “affect cases such as <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Happy Time Day Care Ctr.</I> in which the courts struggled to analyze whether the impact of HIV infection substantially limits various major life activities of a five-year-old child, and recognizing, among other things, that ‘there is something inherently illogical about inquiring whether' a five-year-old's ability to procreate is substantially limited by his HIV infection; <I>Furnish</I> v. <I>SVI Sys., Inc,</I> in which the court found that an individual with cirrhosis of the liver caused by Hepatitis B is not disabled because liver function—unlike eating, working, or reproducing—‘is not integral to one's daily existence;' and <I>Pimental</I> v. <I>Dartmouth-Hitchcock Clinic,</I> in which the court concluded that the plaintiff's stage three breast cancer did not substantially limit her ability to care for herself, sleep, or concentrate. The Committee expects that the plaintiffs in each of these cases could establish a [substantial limitation] on major bodily functions that would qualify them for protection under the ADA.” 2008 House Education and Labor Committee Report at 12.
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<P>The examples of major life activities (including major bodily functions) in the ADAAA and the EEOC's regulations are illustrative and non-exhaustive, and the absence of a particular life activity or bodily function from the examples does not create a negative implication as to whether an omitted activity or function constitutes a major life activity under the statute. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 8; See also 2008 House Committee on Educ. and Labor Report at 11; 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 17.
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<P>The Commission anticipates that courts will recognize other major life activities, consistent with the ADA Amendments Act's mandate to construe the definition of disability broadly. As a result of the ADA Amendments Act's rejection of the holding in <I>Toyota Motor Mfg., Ky., Inc.</I> v. <I>Williams,</I> 534 U.S. 184 (2002), whether an activity is a “major life activity” is not determined by reference to whether it is of “central importance to daily life.” See Toyota, 534 U.S. at 197 (defining “major life activities” as activities that are of “central importance to most people's daily lives”). Indeed, this holding was at odds with the earlier Supreme Court decision of <I>Bragdon</I> v. <I>Abbott,</I> 524 U.S. 624 (1998), which held that a major life activity (in that case, reproduction) does not have to have a “public, economic or daily aspect.” Id. at 639.
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<P>Accordingly, the regulations provide that in determining other examples of major life activities, the term “major” shall not be interpreted strictly to create a demanding standard for disability. Cf. 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7 (indicating that a person is considered an individual with a disability for purposes of the first prong when one or more of the individual's “important life activities” are restricted) (citing 1989 Senate Report at 23). The regulations also reject the notion that to be substantially limited in performing a major life activity, an individual must have an impairment that prevents or severely restricts the individual from doing “activities that are of central importance to most people's daily lives.” Id.; see also 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 5 n.12.
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<P>Thus, for example, lifting is a major life activity regardless of whether an individual who claims to be substantially limited in lifting actually performs activities of central importance to daily life that require lifting. Similarly, the Commission anticipates that the major life activity of performing manual tasks (which was at issue in <I>Toyota</I>) could have many different manifestations, such as performing tasks involving fine motor coordination, or performing tasks involving grasping, hand strength, or pressure. Such tasks need not constitute activities of central importance to most people's daily lives, nor must an individual show that he or she is substantially limited in performing all manual tasks.
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(j) Substantially Limits
</HD3>
<P>In any case involving coverage solely under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of “disability” (e.g., cases where reasonable accommodation is not at issue), it is not necessary to determine whether an individual is “substantially limited” in any major life activity. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 10; id. at 13 (“The functional limitation imposed by an impairment is irrelevant to the third ‘regarded as' prong.”). Indeed, Congress anticipated that the first and second prongs of the definition of disability would “be used only by people who are affirmatively seeking reasonable accommodations * * * ” and that “[a]ny individual who has been discriminated against because of an impairment—short of being granted a reasonable accommodation * * *—should be bringing a claim under the third prong of the definition which will require no showing with regard to the severity of his or her impairment.” Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 4. Of course, an individual may choose, however, to proceed under the “actual disability” and/or “record of” prong regardless of whether the individual is challenging a covered entity's failure to make reasonable accommodations or requires a reasonable accommodation. The concept of “substantially limits” is only relevant in cases involving coverage under the “actual disability” or “record of” prong of the definition of disability. Thus, the information below pertains to these cases only.
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1) Rules of Construction
</HD3>
<P>It is clear in the text and legislative history of the ADAAA that Congress concluded the courts had incorrectly construed “substantially limits,” and disapproved of the EEOC's now-superseded 1991 regulation defining the term to mean “significantly restricts.” See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 6 (“We do not believe that the courts have correctly instituted the level of coverage we intended to establish with the term ‘substantially limits' in the ADA” and “we believe that the level of limitation, and the intensity of focus, applied by the Supreme Court in <I>Toyota</I> goes beyond what we believe is the appropriate standard to create coverage under this law.”). Congress extensively deliberated over whether a new term other than “substantially limits” should be adopted to denote the appropriate functional limitation necessary under the first and second prongs of the definition of disability. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 6-7. Ultimately, Congress affirmatively opted to retain this term in the Amendments Act, rather than replace it. It concluded that “adopting a new, undefined term that is subject to widely disparate meanings is not the best way to achieve the goal of ensuring consistent and appropriately broad coverage under this Act.” Id. Instead, Congress determined “a better way * * * to express [its] disapproval of <I>Sutton</I> and <I>Toyota</I> (along with the current EEOC regulation) is to retain the words ‘substantially limits,' but clarify that it is not meant to be a demanding standard.” Id. at 7. To achieve that goal, Congress set forth detailed findings and purposes and “rules of construction” to govern the interpretation and application of this concept going forward. See ADAAA Sections 2-4; 42 U.S.C. 12102(4).
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<P>The Commission similarly considered whether to provide a new definition of “substantially limits” in the regulation. Following Congress's lead, however, the Commission ultimately concluded that a new definition would inexorably lead to greater focus and intensity of attention on the threshold issue of coverage than intended by Congress. Therefore, the regulations simply provide rules of construction that must be applied in determining whether an impairment substantially limits (or substantially limited) a major life activity. These are each discussed in greater detail below.
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(i) Broad Construction; not a Demanding Standard
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(i) states: “The term ‘substantially limits’ shall be construed broadly in favor of expansive coverage, to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of the ADA. ‘Substantially limits’ is not meant to be a demanding standard.”
</P>
<P>Congress stated in the ADA Amendments Act that the definition of disability “shall be construed in favor of broad coverage,” and that “the term ‘substantially limits' shall be interpreted consistently with the findings and purposes of the ADA Amendments Act of 2008.” 42 U.S.C. 12101(4)(A)-(B), as amended. “This is a textual provision that will legally guide the agencies and courts in properly interpreting the term ‘substantially limits.’ ” Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Congressional Record Statement at H8295. As Congress noted in the legislative history of the ADAAA, “[t]o be clear, the purposes section conveys our intent to clarify not only that ‘substantially limits’ should be measured by a lower standard than that used in <I>Toyota,</I> but also that the definition of disability should not be unduly used as a tool for excluding individuals from the ADA's protections.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 5 (also stating that “[t]his rule of construction, together with the rule of construction providing that the definition of disability shall be construed in favor of broad coverage of individuals sends a clear signal of our intent that the courts must interpret the definition of disability broadly rather than stringently”). Put most succinctly, “substantially limits” “is not meant to be a demanding standard.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7.
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(ii) Significant or Severe Restriction Not Required; Nonetheless, Not Every Impairment Is Substantially Limiting
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(ii) states: “An impairment is a disability within the meaning of this section if it substantially limits the ability of an individual to perform a major life activity as compared to most people in the general population. An impairment need not prevent, or significantly or severely restrict, the individual from performing a major life activity in order to be considered substantially limiting. Nonetheless, not every impairment will constitute a ‘disability’ within the meaning of this section.”
</P>
<P>In keeping with the instruction that the term “substantially limits” is not meant to be a demanding standard, the regulations provide that an impairment is a disability if it substantially limits the ability of an individual to perform a major life activity as compared to most people in the general population. However, to be substantially limited in performing a major life activity an individual need not have an impairment that prevents or significantly or severely restricts the individual from performing a major life activity. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 2, 6-8 &amp; n.14; 2008 House Committee on Educ. and Labor Report at 9-10 (“While the limitation imposed by an impairment must be important, it need not rise to the level of severely restricting or significantly restricting the ability to perform a major life activity to qualify as a disability.”); 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 16 (similarly requiring an “important” limitation). The level of limitation required is “substantial” as compared to most people in the general population, which does not require a significant or severe restriction. Multiple impairments that combine to substantially limit one or more of an individual's major life activities also constitute a disability. Nonetheless, not every impairment will constitute a “disability” within the meaning of this section. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 4 (“We reaffirm that not every individual with a physical or mental impairment is covered by the first prong of the definition of disability in the ADA.”)
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(iii) Substantial Limitation Should Not Be Primary Object of Attention; Extensive Analysis Not Needed
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(iii) states: “The primary object of attention in cases brought under the ADA should be whether covered entities have complied with their obligations, not whether an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity. Accordingly, the threshold issue of whether an impairment ‘substantially limits' a major life activity should not demand extensive analysis.”
</P>
<P>Congress retained the term “substantially limits” in part because it was concerned that adoption of a new phrase—and the resulting need for further judicial scrutiny and construction—would not “help move the focus from the threshold issue of disability to the primary issue of discrimination.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7.
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<P>This was the primary problem Congress sought to solve in enacting the ADAAA. It recognized that “clearing the initial [disability] threshold is critical, as individuals who are excluded from the definition ‘never have the opportunity to have their condition evaluated in light of medical evidence and a determination made as to whether they [are] ‘otherwise qualified.’ ” 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 7; See also id. (expressing concern that “[a]n individual who does not qualify as disabled does not meet th[e] threshold question of coverage in the protected class and is therefore not permitted to attempt to prove his or her claim of discriminatory treatment”); 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 4 (criticizing pre-ADAAA lower court cases that “too often turned solely on the question of whether the plaintiff is an individual with a disability rather than the merits of discrimination claims, such as whether adverse decisions were impermissibly made by the employer on the basis of disability, reasonable accommodations were denied, or qualification standards were unlawfully discriminatory”).
</P>
<P>Accordingly, the Amendments Act and the amended regulations make plain that the emphasis in ADA cases now should be squarely on the merits and not on the initial coverage question. The revised regulations therefore provide that an impairment is a disability if it substantially limits the ability of an individual to perform a major life activity as compared to most people in the general population and deletes the language to which Congress objected. The Commission believes that this provides a useful framework in which to analyze whether an impairment satisfies the definition of disability. Further, this framework better reflects Congress's expressed intent in the ADA Amendments Act that the definition of the term “disability” shall be construed broadly, and is consistent with statements in the Amendments Act's legislative history. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7 (stating that “adopting a new, undefined term” and the “resulting need for further judicial scrutiny and construction will not help move the focus from the threshold issue of disability to the primary issue of discrimination,” and finding that “ ‘substantially limits' as construed consistently with the findings and purposes of this legislation establishes an appropriate functionality test of determining whether an individual has a disability” and that “using the correct standard—one that is lower than the strict or demanding standard created by the Supreme Court in <I>Toyota</I>—will make the disability determination an appropriate threshold issue but not an onerous burden for those seeking accommodations or modifications”).
</P>
<P>Consequently, this rule of construction makes clear that the question of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity should not demand extensive analysis. As the legislative history explains, “[w]e expect that courts interpreting [the ADA] will not demand such an extensive analysis over whether a person's physical or mental impairment constitutes a disability.” Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Congressional Record Statement at H8295; see id. (“Our goal throughout this process has been to simplify that analysis.”)
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(iv) Individualized Assessment Required, But With Lower Standard Than Previously Applied
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(iv) states: “The determination of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity requires an individualized assessment. However, in making this assessment, the term ‘substantially limits' shall be interpreted and applied to require a degree of functional limitation that is lower than the standard for ‘substantially limits' applied prior to the ADAAA.”
</P>
<P>By retaining the essential elements of the definition of disability including the key term “substantially limits,” Congress reaffirmed that not every individual with a physical or mental impairment is covered by the first prong of the definition of disability in the ADA. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 4. To be covered under the first prong of the definition, an individual must establish that an impairment substantially limits a major life activity. That has not changed—nor will the necessity of making this determination on an individual basis. Id. However, what the ADAAA changed is the standard required for making this determination. Id. at 4-5.
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<P>The Amendments Act and the EEOC's regulations explicitly reject the standard enunciated by the Supreme Court in <I>Toyota Motor Mfg., Ky., Inc.</I> v. <I>Williams,</I> 534 U.S. 184 (2002), and applied in the lower courts in numerous cases. See ADAAA section 2(b)(4). That previous standard created “an inappropriately high level of limitation necessary to obtain coverage under the ADA.” Id. at section 2(b)(5). The Amendments Act and the EEOC's regulations reject the notion that “substantially limits” should be interpreted strictly to create a demanding standard for qualifying as disabled. Id. at section 2(b)(4). Instead, the ADAAA and these regulations establish a degree of functional limitation required for an impairment to constitute a disability that is consistent with what Congress originally intended. 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7. This will make the disability determination an appropriate threshold issue but not an onerous burden for those seeking to prove discrimination under the ADA. Id.
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<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(v) Scientific, Medical, or Statistical Analysis Not Required, But Permissible When Appropriate
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(v) states: “The comparison of an individual's performance of a major life activity to the performance of the same major life activity by most people in the general population usually will not require scientific, medical, or statistical analysis. Nothing in this paragraph is intended, however, to prohibit the presentation of scientific, medical, or statistical evidence to make such a comparison where appropriate.”
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<P>The term “average person in the general population,” as the basis of comparison for determining whether an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity, has been changed to “most people in the general population.” This revision is not a substantive change in the concept, but rather is intended to conform the language to the simpler and more straightforward terminology used in the legislative history to the Amendments Act. The comparison between the individual and “most people” need not be exacting, and usually will not require scientific, medical, or statistical analysis. Nothing in this subparagraph is intended, however, to prohibit the presentation of scientific, medical, or statistical evidence to make such a comparison where appropriate.
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<P>The comparison to most people in the general population continues to mean a comparison to other people in the general population, not a comparison to those similarly situated. For example, the ability of an individual with an amputated limb to perform a major life activity is compared to other people in the general population, not to other amputees. This does not mean that disability cannot be shown where an impairment, such as a learning disability, is clinically diagnosed based in part on a disparity between an individual's aptitude and that individual's actual versus expected achievement, taking into account the person's chronological age, measured intelligence, and age-appropriate education. Individuals diagnosed with dyslexia or other learning disabilities will typically be substantially limited in performing activities such as learning, reading, and thinking when compared to most people in the general population, particularly when the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures, including therapies, learned behavioral or adaptive neurological modifications, assistive devices (e.g., audio recordings, screen reading devices, voice activated software), studying longer, or receiving more time to take a test, are disregarded as required under the ADA Amendments Act.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(vi) Mitigating Measures
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(vi) states: “The determination of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity shall be made without regard to the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures. However, the ameliorative effects of ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses shall be considered in determining whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity.”
</P>
<P>The ameliorative effects of mitigating measures shall not be considered in determining whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity. Thus, “[w]ith the exception of ordinary eyeglasses and contact lenses, impairments must be examined in their unmitigated state.” See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 5.
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<P>This provision in the ADAAA and the EEOC's regulations “is intended to eliminate the catch-22 that exist[ed] * * * where individuals who are subjected to discrimination on the basis of their disabilities [we]re frequently unable to invoke the ADA's protections because they [we]re not considered people with disabilities when the effects of their medication, medical supplies, behavioral adaptations, or other interventions [we]re considered.” Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 2; See also 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 9 (“This provision is intended to eliminate the situation created under [prior] law in which impairments that are mitigated [did] not constitute disabilities but [were the basis for discrimination].”). To the extent cases pre-dating the 2008 Amendments Act reasoned otherwise, they are contrary to the law as amended. See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 9 &amp; nn.25, 20-21 (citing, e.g., <I>McClure</I> v. <I>General Motors Corp.,</I> 75 F. App'x 983 (5th Cir. 2003) (court held that individual with muscular dystrophy who, with the mitigating measure of “adapting” how he performed manual tasks, had successfully learned to live and work with his disability was therefore not an individual with a disability); <I>Orr</I> v. <I>Wal-Mart Stores, Inc.,</I> 297 F.3d 720 (8th Cir. 2002) (court held that <I>Sutton</I> v. <I>United Air Lines, Inc.,</I> 527 U.S. 471 (1999), required consideration of the ameliorative effects of plaintiff's careful regimen of medicine, exercise and diet, and declined to consider impact of uncontrolled diabetes on plaintiff's ability to see, speak, read, and walk); <I>Gonzales</I> v. <I>National Bd. of Med. Examiners,</I> 225 F.3d 620 (6th Cir. 2000) (where the court found that an individual with a diagnosed learning disability was not substantially limited after considering the impact of self-accommodations that allowed him to read and achieve academic success); <I>McMullin</I> v. <I>Ashcroft,</I> 337 F. Supp. 2d 1281 (D. Wyo. 2004) (individual fired because of clinical depression not protected because of the successful management of the condition with medication for fifteen years); <I>Eckhaus</I> v. <I>Consol. Rail Corp.,</I> 2003 WL 23205042 (D.N.J. Dec. 24, 2003) (individual fired because of a hearing impairment was not protected because a hearing aid helped correct that impairment); <I>Todd</I> v. <I>Academy Corp.,</I> 57 F. Supp. 2d 448, 452 (S.D. Tex. 1999) (court held that because medication reduced the frequency and intensity of plaintiff's seizures, he was not disabled)).
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<P>An individual who, because of the use of a mitigating measure, has experienced no limitations, or only minor limitations, related to the impairment may still be an individual with a disability, where there is evidence that in the absence of an effective mitigating measure the individual's impairment would be substantially limiting. For example, someone who began taking medication for hypertension before experiencing substantial limitations related to the impairment would still be an individual with a disability if, without the medication, he or she would now be substantially limited in functions of the cardiovascular or circulatory system.
</P>
<P>Evidence showing that an impairment would be substantially limiting in the absence of the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures could include evidence of limitations that a person experienced prior to using a mitigating measure, evidence concerning the expected course of a particular disorder absent mitigating measures, or readily available and reliable information of other types. However, we expect that consistent with the Amendments Act's command (and the related rules of construction in the regulations) that the definition of disability “should not demand extensive analysis,” covered entities and courts will in many instances be able to conclude that a substantial limitation has been shown without resort to such evidence.
</P>
<P>The Amendments Act provides an “illustrative but non-comprehensive list of the types of mitigating measures that are not to be considered.” See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 9. Section 1630.2(j)(5) of the regulations includes all of those mitigating measures listed in the ADA Amendments Act's illustrative list of mitigating measures, including reasonable accommodations (as applied under title I) or “auxiliary aids or services” (as defined by 42 U.S.C. 12103(1) and applied under titles II and III).
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<P>Since it would be impossible to guarantee comprehensiveness in a finite list, the list of examples of mitigating measures provided in the ADA and the regulations is non-exhaustive. See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 20. The absence of any particular mitigating measure from the list in the regulations should not convey a negative implication as to whether the measure is a mitigating measure under the ADA. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 9.
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<P>For example, the fact that mitigating measures include “reasonable accommodations” generally makes it unnecessary to mention specific kinds of accommodations. Nevertheless, the use of a service animal, job coach, or personal assistant on the job would certainly be considered types of mitigating measures, as would the use of any device that could be considered assistive technology, and whether individuals who use these measures have disabilities would be determined without reference to their ameliorative effects. See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 20; 2008 House Educ. &amp; Labor Rep. at 15. Similarly, adaptive strategies that might mitigate, or even allow an individual to otherwise avoid performing particular major life activities, are mitigating measures and also would not be considered in determining whether an impairment is substantially limiting. Id.
</P>
<P>The determination of whether or not an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity is unaffected by whether the individual chooses to forgo mitigating measures. For individuals who do not use a mitigating measure (including for example medication or reasonable accommodation that could alleviate the effects of an impairment), the availability of such measures has no bearing on whether the impairment substantially limits a major life activity. The limitations posed by the impairment on the individual and any negative (non-ameliorative) effects of mitigating measures used determine whether an impairment is substantially limiting. The origin of the impairment, whether its effects can be mitigated, and any ameliorative effects of mitigating measures in fact used may not be considered in determining if the impairment is substantially limiting. However, the use or non-use of mitigating measures, and any consequences thereof, including any ameliorative and non-ameliorative effects, may be relevant in determining whether the individual is qualified or poses a direct threat to safety.
</P>
<P>The ADA Amendments Act and the regulations state that “ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses” <I>shall</I> be considered in determining whether someone has a disability. This is an exception to the rule that the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures are not to be taken into account. “The rationale behind this exclusion is that the use of ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses, without more, is not significant enough to warrant protection under the ADA.” Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 2. Nevertheless, as discussed in greater detail below at § 1630.10(b), if an applicant or employee is faced with a qualification standard that requires uncorrected vision (as the plaintiffs in the <I>Sutton</I> case were), and the applicant or employee who is adversely affected by the standard brings a challenge under the ADA, an employer will be required to demonstrate that the qualification standard is job related and consistent with business necessity. 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 9.
</P>
<P>The ADAAA and the EEOC's regulations both define the term “ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses” as lenses that are “intended to fully correct visual acuity or eliminate refractive error.” So, if an individual with severe myopia uses eyeglasses or contact lenses that are intended to fully correct visual acuity or eliminate refractive error, they are ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses, and therefore any inquiry into whether such individual is substantially limited in seeing or reading would be based on how the individual sees or reads with the benefit of the eyeglasses or contact lenses. Likewise, if the only visual loss an individual experiences affects the ability to see well enough to read, and the individual's ordinary reading glasses are intended to completely correct for this visual loss, the ameliorative effects of using the reading glasses must be considered in determining whether the individual is substantially limited in seeing. Additionally, eyeglasses or contact lenses that are the wrong prescription or an outdated prescription may nevertheless be “ordinary” eyeglasses or contact lenses, if a proper prescription would fully correct visual acuity or eliminate refractive error.
</P>
<P>Both the statute and the regulations distinguish “ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses” from “low vision devices,” which function by magnifying, enhancing, or otherwise augmenting a visual image, and which are not considered when determining whether someone has a disability. The regulations do not establish a specific level of visual acuity (e.g., 20/20) as the basis for determining whether eyeglasses or contact lenses should be considered “ordinary” eyeglasses or contact lenses. Whether lenses fully correct visual acuity or eliminate refractive error is best determined on a case-by-case basis, in light of current and objective medical evidence. Moreover, someone who uses ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses is not automatically considered to be outside the ADA's protection. Such an individual may demonstrate that, even with the use of ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses, his vision is still substantially limited when compared to most people.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(vii) Impairments That Are Episodic or in Remission
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(vii) states: “An impairment that is episodic or in remission is a disability if it would substantially limit a major life activity when active.”
</P>
<P>An impairment that is episodic or in remission is a disability if it would substantially limit a major life activity in its active state. “This provision is intended to reject the reasoning of court decisions concluding that certain individuals with certain conditions—such as epilepsy or post traumatic stress disorder—were not protected by the ADA because their conditions were episodic or intermittent.” Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 2-3. The legislative history provides: “This * * * rule of construction thus rejects the reasoning of the courts in cases like <I>Todd</I> v. <I>Academy Corp.</I> [57 F. Supp. 2d 448, 453 (S.D. Tex. 1999)] where the court found that the plaintiff's epilepsy, which resulted in short seizures during which the plaintiff was unable to speak and experienced tremors, was not sufficiently limiting, at least in part because those seizures occurred episodically. It similarly rejects the results reached in cases [such as <I>Pimental</I> v. <I>Dartmouth-Hitchock Clinic,</I> 236 F. Supp. 2d 177, 182-83 (D.N.H. 2002)] where the courts have discounted the impact of an impairment [such as cancer] that may be in remission as too short-lived to be substantially limiting. It is thus expected that individuals with impairments that are episodic or in remission (e.g., epilepsy, multiple sclerosis, cancer) will be able to establish coverage if, when active, the impairment or the manner in which it manifests (e.g., seizures) substantially limits a major life activity.” 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 19-20.
</P>
<P>Other examples of impairments that may be episodic include, but are not limited to, hypertension, diabetes, asthma, major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizophrenia. See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 19-20. The fact that the periods during which an episodic impairment is active and substantially limits a major life activity may be brief or occur infrequently is no longer relevant to determining whether the impairment substantially limits a major life activity. For example, a person with post-traumatic stress disorder who experiences intermittent flashbacks to traumatic events is substantially limited in brain function and thinking.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(viii) Substantial Limitation in Only One Major Life Activity Required
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(viii) states: “An impairment that substantially limits one major life activity need not substantially limit other major life activities in order to be considered a substantially limiting impairment.”
</P>
<P>The ADAAA explicitly states that an impairment need only substantially limit one major life activity to be considered a disability under the ADA. See ADAAA Section 4(a); 42 U.S.C. 12102(4)(C). “This responds to and corrects those courts that have required individuals to show that an impairment substantially limits more than one life activity.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 8. In addition, this rule of construction is “intended to clarify that the ability to perform one or more particular tasks within a broad category of activities does not preclude coverage under the ADA.” Id. To the extent cases pre-dating the applicability of the 2008 Amendments Act reasoned otherwise, they are contrary to the law as amended. Id. (citing <I>Holt</I> v. <I>Grand Lake Mental Health Ctr., Inc.,</I> 443 F. 3d 762 (10th Cir. 2006) (holding an individual with cerebral palsy who could not independently perform certain specified manual tasks was not substantially limited in her ability to perform a “broad range” of manual tasks)); See also 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 19 &amp; n.52 (this legislatively corrects court decisions that, with regard to the major life activity of performing manual tasks, “have offset substantial limitation in the performance of some tasks with the ability to perform others” (citing <I>Holt</I>)).
</P>
<P>For example, an individual with diabetes is substantially limited in endocrine function and thus an individual with a disability under the first prong of the definition. He need not also show that he is substantially limited in eating to qualify for coverage under the first prong. An individual whose normal cell growth is substantially limited due to lung cancer need not also show that she is substantially limited in breathing or respiratory function. And an individual with HIV infection is substantially limited in the function of the immune system, and therefore is an individual with a disability without regard to whether his or her HIV infection substantially limits him or her in reproduction.
</P>
<P>In addition, an individual whose impairment substantially limits a major life activity need not additionally demonstrate a resulting limitation in the ability to perform activities of central importance to daily life in order to be considered an individual with a disability under § 1630.2(g)(1)(i) or § 1630.2(g)(1)(ii), as cases relying on the Supreme Court's decision in <I>Toyota Motor Mfg., Ky., Inc.</I> v. <I>Williams,</I> 534 U.S. 184 (2002), had held prior to the ADA Amendments Act.
</P>
<P>Thus, for example, someone with an impairment resulting in a 20-pound lifting restriction that lasts or is expected to last for several months is substantially limited in the major life activity of lifting, and need not also show that he is unable to perform activities of daily living that require lifting in order to be considered substantially limited in lifting. Similarly, someone with monocular vision whose depth perception or field of vision would be substantially limited, with or without any compensatory strategies the individual may have developed, need not also show that he is unable to perform activities of central importance to daily life that require seeing in order to be substantially limited in seeing.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(ix) Effects of an Impairment Lasting Fewer Than Six Months Can Be Substantially Limiting
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.2(j)(1)(ix) states: “The six-month ‘transitory' part of the ‘transitory and minor' exception to ‘regarded as' coverage in § 1630.2(l) does not apply to the definition of ‘disability' under § 1630.2(g)(1)(i) or § 1630.2(g)(1)(ii). The effects of an impairment lasting or expected to last fewer than six months can be substantially limiting within the meaning of this section.”
</P>
<P>The regulations include a clear statement that the definition of an impairment as transitory, that is, “lasting or expected to last for six months or less,” only applies to the “regarded as” (third) prong of the definition of “disability” as part of the “transitory and minor” defense to “regarded as” coverage. It does not apply to the first or second prong of the definition of disability. See Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 3 (“[T]here is no need for the transitory and minor exception under the first two prongs because it is clear from the statute and the legislative history that a person can only bring a claim if the impairment substantially limits one or more major life activities or the individual has a record of an impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.”).
</P>
<P>Therefore, an impairment does not have to last for more than six months in order to be considered substantially limiting under the first or the second prong of the definition of disability. For example, as noted above, if an individual has a back impairment that results in a 20-pound lifting restriction that lasts for several months, he is substantially limited in the major life activity of lifting, and therefore covered under the first prong of the definition of disability. At the same time, “[t]he duration of an impairment is one factor that is relevant in determining whether the impairment substantially limits a major life activity. Impairments that last only for a short period of time are typically not covered, although they may be covered if sufficiently severe.” Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 5.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(3) Predictable Assessments
</HD3>
<P>As the regulations point out, disability is determined based on an individualized assessment. There is no “per se” disability. However, as recognized in the regulations, the individualized assessment of some kinds of impairments will virtually always result in a determination of disability. The inherent nature of these types of medical conditions will in virtually all cases give rise to a substantial limitation of a major life activity. Cf. <I>Heiko</I> v. <I>Columbo Savings Bank, F.S.B.,</I> 434 F.3d 249, 256 (4th Cir. 2006) (stating, even pre-ADAAA, that “certain impairments are by their very nature substantially limiting: the major life activity of seeing, for example, is always substantially limited by blindness”). Therefore, with respect to these types of impairments, the necessary individualized assessment should be particularly simple and straightforward.
</P>
<P>This result is the consequence of the combined effect of the statutory changes to the definition of disability contained in the Amendments Act and flows from application of the rules of construction set forth in §§ 1630.2(j)(1)(i)-(ix) (including the lower standard for “substantially limits”; the rule that major life activities include major bodily functions; the principle that impairments that are episodic or in remission are disabilities if they would be substantially limiting when active; and the requirement that the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures (other than ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses) must be disregarded in assessing whether an individual has a disability).
</P>
<P>The regulations at § 1630.2(j)(3)(iii) provide examples of the types of impairments that should easily be found to substantially limit a major life activity. The legislative history states that Congress modeled the ADA definition of disability on the definition contained in the Rehabilitation Act, and said it wished to return courts to the way they had construed that definition. See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 6. Describing this goal, the legislative history states that courts had interpreted the Rehabilitation Act definition “broadly to include persons with a wide range of physical and mental impairments such as epilepsy, diabetes, multiple sclerosis, and intellectual and developmental disabilities * * * even where a mitigating measure—like medication or a hearing aid—might lessen their impact on the individual.” Id.; See also id. at 9 (referring to individuals with disabilities that had been covered under the Rehabilitation Act and that Congress intended to include under the ADA—“people with serious health conditions like epilepsy, diabetes, cancer, cerebral palsy, multiple sclerosis, intellectual and developmental disabilities”); id. at n.6 (citing cases also finding that cerebral palsy, hearing impairments, mental retardation, heart disease, and vision in only one eye were disabilities under the Rehabilitation Act); id. at 10 (citing testimony from Rep. Steny H. Hoyer, one of the original lead sponsors of the ADA in 1990, stating that “we could not have fathomed that people with diabetes, epilepsy, heart conditions, cancer, mental illnesses and other disabilities would have their ADA claims denied because they would be considered too functional to meet the definition of disability”); 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 3 (explaining that “we [we]re faced with a situation in which physical or mental impairments that would previously [under the Rehabilitation Act] have been found to constitute disabilities [we]re not considered disabilities” and citing individuals with impairments such as amputation, intellectual disabilities, epilepsy, multiple sclerosis, diabetes, muscular dystrophy, and cancer as examples).
</P>
<P>Of course, the impairments listed in subparagraph 1630.2(j)(3)(iii) may substantially limit a variety of other major life activities in addition to those listed in the regulation. For example, mobility impairments requiring the use of a wheelchair substantially limit the major life activity of walking. Diabetes may substantially limit major life activities such as eating, sleeping, and thinking. Major depressive disorder may substantially limit major life activities such as thinking, concentrating, sleeping, and interacting with others. Multiple sclerosis may substantially limit major life activities such as walking, bending, and lifting.
</P>
<P>By using the term “brain function” to describe the system affected by various mental impairments, the Commission is expressing no view on the debate concerning whether mental illnesses are caused by environmental or biological factors, but rather intends the term to capture functions such as the ability of the brain to regulate thought processes and emotions.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(j)(4) Condition, Manner, or Duration
</HD3>
<P>The regulations provide that facts such as the “condition, manner, or duration” of an individual's performance of a major life activity may be useful in determining whether an impairment results in a substantial limitation. In the legislative history of the ADAAA, Congress reiterated what it had said at the time of the original ADA: “A person is considered an individual with a disability for purposes of the first prong of the definition when [one or more of] the individual's important life activities are restricted as to the conditions, manner, or duration under which they can be performed in comparison to most people.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7 (citing 1989 Senate Report at 23). According to Congress: “We particularly believe that this test, which articulated an analysis that considered whether a person's activities are limited in condition, duration and manner, is a useful one. We reiterate that using the correct standard—one that is lower than the strict or demanding standard created by the Supreme Court in <I>Toyota</I>—will make the disability determination an appropriate threshold issue but not an onerous burden for those seeking accommodations * * *. At the same time, plaintiffs should not be constrained from offering evidence needed to establish that their impairment is substantially limiting.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7.
</P>
<P>Consistent with the legislative history, an impairment may substantially limit the “condition” or “manner” under which a major life activity can be performed in a number of ways. For example, the condition or manner under which a major life activity can be performed may refer to the way an individual performs a major life activity. Thus, the condition or manner under which a person with an amputated hand performs manual tasks will likely be more cumbersome than the way that someone with two hands would perform the same tasks.
</P>
<P>Condition or manner may also describe how performance of a major life activity affects the individual with an impairment. For example, an individual whose impairment causes pain or fatigue that most people would not experience when performing that major life activity may be substantially limited. Thus, the condition or manner under which someone with coronary artery disease performs the major life activity of walking would be substantially limiting if the individual experiences shortness of breath and fatigue when walking distances that most people could walk without experiencing such effects. Similarly, condition or manner may refer to the extent to which a major life activity, including a major bodily function, can be performed. For example, the condition or manner under which a major bodily function can be performed may be substantially limited when the impairment “causes the operation [of the bodily function] to over-produce or under-produce in some harmful fashion.” See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 17.
</P>
<P>“Duration” refers to the length of time an individual can perform a major life activity or the length of time it takes an individual to perform a major life activity, as compared to most people in the general population. For example, a person whose back or leg impairment precludes him or her from standing for more than two hours without significant pain would be substantially limited in standing, since most people can stand for more than two hours without significant pain. However, a person who can walk for ten miles continuously is not substantially limited in walking merely because on the eleventh mile, he or she begins to experience pain because most people would not be able to walk eleven miles without experiencing some discomfort. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7 (citing 1989 Senate Report at 23).
</P>
<P>The regulations provide that in assessing substantial limitation and considering facts such as condition, manner, or duration, the non-ameliorative effects of mitigating measures may be considered. Such “non-ameliorative effects” could include negative side effects of medicine, burdens associated with following a particular treatment regimen, and complications that arise from surgery, among others. Of course, in many instances, it will not be necessary to assess the negative impact of a mitigating measure in determining that a particular impairment substantially limits a major life activity. For example, someone with end-stage renal disease is substantially limited in kidney function, and it thus is not necessary to consider the burdens that dialysis treatment imposes.
</P>
<P>Condition, manner, or duration may also suggest the amount of time or effort an individual has to expend when performing a major life activity because of the effects of an impairment, even if the individual is able to achieve the same or similar result as someone without the impairment. For this reason, the regulations include language which says that the outcome an individual with a disability is able to achieve is not determinative of whether he or she is substantially limited in a major life activity.
</P>
<P>Thus, someone with a learning disability may achieve a high level of academic success, but may nevertheless be substantially limited in the major life activity of learning because of the additional time or effort he or she must spend to read, write, or learn compared to most people in the general population. As Congress emphasized in passing the Amendments Act, “[w]hen considering the condition, manner, or duration in which an individual with a specific learning disability performs a major life activity, it is critical to reject the assumption that an individual who has performed well academically cannot be substantially limited in activities such as learning, reading, writing, thinking, or speaking.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 8. Congress noted that: “In particular, some courts have found that students who have reached a high level of academic achievement are not to be considered individuals with disabilities under the ADA, as such individuals may have difficulty demonstrating substantial limitation in the major life activities of learning or reading relative to ‘most people.' When considering the condition, manner or duration in which an individual with a specific learning disability performs a major life activity, it is critical to reject the assumption that an individual who performs well academically or otherwise cannot be substantially limited in activities such as learning, reading, writing, thinking, or speaking. As such, the Committee rejects the findings in <I>Price</I> v. <I>National Board of Medical Examiners, Gonzales</I> v. <I>National Board of Medical Examiners,</I> and <I>Wong</I> v. <I>Regents of University of California.</I> The Committee believes that the comparison of individuals with specific learning disabilities to ‘most people' is not problematic unto itself, but requires a careful analysis of the method and manner in which an individual's impairment limits a major life activity. For the majority of the population, the basic mechanics of reading and writing do not pose extraordinary lifelong challenges; rather, recognizing and forming letters and words are effortless, unconscious, automatic processes. Because specific learning disabilities are neurologically-based impairments, the process of reading for an individual with a reading disability (e.g. dyslexia) is word-by-word, and otherwise cumbersome, painful, deliberate and slow—throughout life. The Committee expects that individuals with specific learning disabilities that substantially limit a major life activity will be better protected under the amended Act.” 2008 House Educ. &amp; Labor Rep. at 10-11.
</P>
<P>It bears emphasizing that while it may be useful in appropriate cases to consider facts such as condition, manner, or duration, it is always necessary to consider and apply the rules of construction in § 1630.2(j)(1)(i)-(ix) that set forth the elements of broad coverage enacted by Congress. 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 6. Accordingly, while the Commission's regulations retain the concept of “condition, manner, or duration,” they no longer include the additional list of “substantial limitation” factors contained in the previous version of the regulations (i.e., the nature and severity of the impairment, duration or expected duration of the impairment, and actual or expected permanent or long-term impact of or resulting from the impairment).
</P>
<P>Finally, “condition, manner, or duration” are not intended to be used as a rigid three-part standard that must be met to establish a substantial limitation. “Condition, manner, or duration” are not required “factors” that must be considered as a talismanic test. Rather, in referring to “condition, manner, <I>or</I> duration,” the regulations make clear that these are merely the types of facts that may be considered in appropriate cases. To the extent such aspects of limitation may be useful or relevant to show a substantial limitation in a particular fact pattern, some or all of them (and related facts) may be considered, but evidence relating to each of these facts may not be necessary to establish coverage.
</P>
<P>At the same time, individuals seeking coverage under the first or second prong of the definition of disability should not be constrained from offering evidence needed to establish that their impairment is substantially limiting. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 7. Of course, covered entities may defeat a showing of “substantial limitation” by refuting whatever evidence the individual seeking coverage has offered, or by offering evidence that shows an impairment does not impose a substantial limitation on a major life activity. However, a showing of substantial limitation is not defeated by facts related to “condition, manner, or duration” that are not pertinent to the substantial limitation the individual has proffered.
</P>
<HD3>Sections 1630.2(j)(5) and (6) Examples of Mitigating Measures; Ordinary Eyeglasses or Contact Lenses
</HD3>
<P>These provisions of the regulations provide numerous examples of mitigating measures and the definition of “ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses.” These definitions have been more fully discussed in the portions of this interpretive guidance concerning the rules of construction in § 1630.2(j)(1).
</P>
<HD3>Substantially Limited in Working
</HD3>
<P>The Commission has removed from the text of the regulations a discussion of the major life activity of working. This is consistent with the fact that no other major life activity receives special attention in the regulation, and with the fact that, in light of the expanded definition of disability established by the Amendments Act, this major life activity will be used in only very targeted situations.
</P>
<P>In most instances, an individual with a disability will be able to establish coverage by showing substantial limitation of a major life activity other than working; impairments that substantially limit a person's ability to work usually substantially limit one or more other major life activities. This will be particularly true in light of the changes made by the ADA Amendments Act. See, e.g., <I>Corley</I> v. <I>Dep't of Veterans Affairs ex rel Principi,</I> 218 F. App'x. 727, 738 (10th Cir. 2007) (employee with seizure disorder was not substantially limited in working because he was not foreclosed from jobs involving driving, operating machinery, childcare, military service, and other jobs; employee would now be substantially limited in neurological function); <I>Olds</I> v. <I>United Parcel Serv., Inc.,</I> 127 F. App'x. 779, 782 (6th Cir. 2005) (employee with bone marrow cancer was not substantially limited in working due to lifting restrictions caused by his cancer; employee would now be substantially limited in normal cell growth); <I>Williams</I> v. <I>Philadelphia Hous. Auth. Police Dep't,</I> 380 F.3d 751, 763-64 (3d Cir. 2004) (issue of material fact concerning whether police officer's major depression substantially limited him in performing a class of jobs due to restrictions on his ability to carry a firearm; officer would now be substantially limited in brain function).
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> In addition, many cases previously analyzed in terms of whether the plaintiff was “substantially limited in working” will now be analyzed under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability as revised by the Amendments Act. See, e.g., <I>Cannon</I> v. <I>Levi Strauss &amp; Co.,</I> 29 F. App'x. 331 (6th Cir. 2002) (factory worker laid off due to her carpal tunnel syndrome not regarded as substantially limited in working because her job of sewing machine operator was not a “broad class of jobs”; she would now be protected under the third prong because she was fired because of her impairment, carpal tunnel syndrome); <I>Bridges</I> v. <I>City of Bossier,</I> 92 F.3d 329 (5th Cir. 1996) (applicant not hired for firefighting job because of his mild hemophilia not regarded as substantially limited in working; applicant would now be protected under the third prong because he was not hired because of his impairment, hemophilia).</P></FTNT>
<P>In the rare cases where an individual has a need to demonstrate that an impairment substantially limits him or her in working, the individual can do so by showing that the impairment substantially limits his or her ability to perform a class of jobs or broad range of jobs in various classes as compared to most people having comparable training, skills, and abilities. In keeping with the findings and purposes of the Amendments Act, the determination of coverage under the law should not require extensive and elaborate assessment, and the EEOC and the courts are to apply a lower standard in determining when an impairment substantially limits a major life activity, including the major life activity of working, than they applied prior to the Amendments Act. The Commission believes that the courts, in applying an overly strict standard with regard to “substantially limits” generally, have reached conclusions with regard to what is necessary to demonstrate a substantial limitation in the major life activity of working that would be inconsistent with the changes now made by the Amendments Act. Accordingly, as used in this section the terms “class of jobs” and “broad range of jobs in various classes” will be applied in a more straightforward and simple manner than they were applied by the courts prior to the Amendments Act.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> In analyzing working as a major life activity in the past, some courts have imposed a complex and onerous standard that would be inappropriate under the Amendments Act. See, e.g., <I>Duncan</I> v. <I>WMATA,</I> 240 F.3d 1110, 1115 (DC Cir. 2001) (manual laborer whose back injury prevented him from lifting more than 20 pounds was not substantially limited in working because he did not present evidence of the number and types of jobs available to him in the Washington area; testimony concerning his inquiries and applications for truck driving jobs that all required heavy lifting was insufficient); <I>Taylor</I> v. <I>Federal Express Corp.,</I> 429 F.3d 461, 463-64 (4th Cir. 2005) (employee's impairment did not substantially limit him in working because, even though evidence showed that employee's injury disqualified him from working in numerous jobs in his geographic region, it also showed that he remained qualified for many other jobs). Under the Amendments Act, the determination of whether a person is substantially limited in working is more straightforward and simple than it was prior to the Act.</P></FTNT>
<P>Demonstrating a substantial limitation in performing the unique aspects of a single specific job is not sufficient to establish that a person is substantially limited in the major life activity of working.
</P>
<P>A class of jobs may be determined by reference to the nature of the work that an individual is limited in performing (such as commercial truck driving, assembly line jobs, food service jobs, clerical jobs, or law enforcement jobs) or by reference to job-related requirements that an individual is limited in meeting (for example, jobs requiring repetitive bending, reaching, or manual tasks, jobs requiring repetitive or heavy lifting, prolonged sitting or standing, extensive walking, driving, or working under conditions such as high temperatures or noise levels).
</P>
<P>For example, if a person whose job requires heavy lifting develops a disability that prevents him or her from lifting more than fifty pounds and, consequently, from performing not only his or her existing job but also other jobs that would similarly require heavy lifting, that person would be substantially limited in working because he or she is substantially limited in performing the class of jobs that require heavy lifting.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(k) Record of a Substantially Limiting Impairment
</HD3>
<P>The second prong of the definition of “disability” provides that an individual with a record of an impairment that substantially limits or limited a major life activity is an individual with a disability. The intent of this provision, in part, is to ensure that people are not discriminated against because of a history of disability. For example, the “record of” provision would protect an individual who was treated for cancer ten years ago but who is now deemed by a doctor to be free of cancer, from discrimination based on that prior medical history. This provision also ensures that individuals are not discriminated against because they have been misclassified as disabled. For example, individuals misclassified as having learning disabilities or intellectual disabilities (formerly termed “mental retardation”) are protected from discrimination on the basis of that erroneous classification. Senate Report at 23; House Labor Report at 52-53; House Judiciary Report at 29; 2008 House Judiciary Report at 7-8 &amp; n.14. Similarly, an employee who in the past was misdiagnosed with bipolar disorder and hospitalized as the result of a temporary reaction to medication she was taking has a record of a substantially limiting impairment, even though she did not actually have bipolar disorder.
</P>
<P>This part of the definition is satisfied where evidence establishes that an individual has had a substantially limiting impairment. The impairment indicated in the record must be an impairment that would substantially limit one or more of the individual's major life activities. There are many types of records that could potentially contain this information, including but not limited to, education, medical, or employment records.
</P>
<P>Such evidence that an individual has a past history of an impairment that substantially limited a major life activity is all that is necessary to establish coverage under the second prong. An individual may have a “record of” a substantially limiting impairment—and thus be protected under the “record of” prong of the statute—even if a covered entity does not specifically know about the relevant record. Of course, for the covered entity to be liable for discrimination under title I of the ADA, the individual with a “record of” a substantially limiting impairment must prove that the covered entity discriminated on the basis of the record of the disability.
</P>
<P>The terms “substantially limits” and “major life activity” under the second prong of the definition of “disability” are to be construed in accordance with the same principles applicable under the “actual disability” prong, as set forth in § 1630.2(j).
</P>
<P>Individuals who are covered under the “record of” prong will often be covered under the first prong of the definition of disability as well. This is a consequence of the rule of construction in the ADAAA and the regulations providing that an individual with an impairment that is episodic or in remission can be protected under the first prong if the impairment would be substantially limiting when active. See 42 U.S.C. 12102(4)(D); § 1630.2(j)(1)(vii). Thus, an individual who has cancer that is currently in remission is an individual with a disability under the “actual disability” prong because he has an impairment that would substantially limit normal cell growth when active. He is also covered by the “record of” prong based on his history of having had an impairment that substantially limited normal cell growth.
</P>
<P>Finally, this section of the EEOC's regulations makes it clear that an individual with a record of a disability is entitled to a reasonable accommodation currently needed for limitations resulting from or relating to the past substantially limiting impairment. This conclusion, which has been the Commission's long-standing position, is confirmed by language in the ADA Amendments Act stating that individuals covered only under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability are not entitled to reasonable accommodation. See 42 U.S.C. 12201(h). By implication, this means that individuals covered under the first or second prongs are otherwise eligible for reasonable accommodations. See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 22 (“This makes clear that the duty to accommodate . . . arises only when an individual establishes coverage under the first or second prong of the definition.”). Thus, as the regulations explain, an employee with an impairment that previously substantially limited but no longer substantially limits, a major life activity may need leave or a schedule change to permit him or her to attend follow-up or “monitoring” appointments from a health care provider.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(l) Regarded as Substantially Limited in a Major Life Activity
</HD3>
<P>Coverage under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability should not be difficult to establish. See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 17 (explaining that Congress never expected or intended it would be a difficult standard to meet). Under the third prong of the definition of disability, an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” if the individual is subjected to an action prohibited by the ADA because of an actual or perceived impairment that is not “transitory and minor.”
</P>
<P>This third prong of the definition of disability was originally intended to express Congress's understanding that “unfounded concerns, mistaken beliefs, fears, myths, or prejudice about disabilities are often just as disabling as actual impairments, and [its] corresponding desire to prohibit discrimination founded on such perceptions.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 9; 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 17 (same). In passing the original ADA, Congress relied extensively on the reasoning of <I>School Board of Nassau County</I> v. <I>Arline</I> 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> “that the negative reactions of others are just as disabling as the actual impact of an impairment.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 9. The ADAAA reiterates Congress's reliance on the broad views enunciated in that decision, and Congress “believe[s] that courts should continue to rely on this standard.” Id.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> 480 U.S. at 282-83.</P></FTNT>
<P>Accordingly, the ADA Amendments Act broadened the application of the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability. 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 9-10. In doing so, Congress rejected court decisions that had required an individual to establish that a covered entity perceived him or her to have an impairment that substantially limited a major life activity. This provision is designed to restore Congress's intent to allow individuals to establish coverage under the “regarded as” prong by showing that they were treated adversely because of an impairment, without having to establish the covered entity's beliefs concerning the severity of the impairment. Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 3.
</P>
<P>Thus it is not necessary, as it was prior to the ADA Amendments Act, for an individual to demonstrate that a covered entity perceived him as substantially limited in the ability to perform a major life activity in order for the individual to establish that he or she is covered under the “regarded as” prong. Nor is it necessary to demonstrate that the impairment relied on by a covered entity is (in the case of an actual impairment) or would be (in the case of a perceived impairment) substantially limiting for an individual to be “regarded as having such an impairment.” In short, to qualify for coverage under the “regarded as” prong, an individual is not subject to any functional test. See 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 13 (“The functional limitation imposed by an impairment is irrelevant to the third ‘regarded as' prong.”); 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 17 (that is, “the individual is not required to show that the perceived impairment limits performance of a major life activity”). The concepts of “major life activities” and “substantial limitation” simply are not relevant in evaluating whether an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment.”
</P>
<P>To illustrate how straightforward application of the “regarded as” prong is, if an employer refused to hire an applicant because of skin graft scars, the employer has regarded the applicant as an individual with a disability. Similarly, if an employer terminates an employee because he has cancer, the employer has regarded the employee as an individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>A “prohibited action” under the “regarded as” prong refers to an action of the type that would be unlawful under the ADA (but for any defenses to liability). Such prohibited actions include, but are not limited to, refusal to hire, demotion, placement on involuntary leave, termination, exclusion for failure to meet a qualification standard, harassment, or denial of any other term, condition, or privilege of employment.
</P>
<P>Where an employer bases a prohibited employment action on an actual or perceived impairment that is not “transitory and minor,” the employer regards the individual as disabled, whether or not myths, fears, or stereotypes about disability motivated the employer's decision. Establishing that an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” does not, by itself, establish liability. Liability is established only if an individual meets the burden of proving that the covered entity discriminated unlawfully within the meaning of section 102 of the ADA, 42 U.S.C. 12112.
</P>
<P>Whether a covered entity can ultimately establish a defense to liability is an inquiry separate from, and follows after, a determination that an individual was regarded as having a disability. Thus, for example, an employer who terminates an employee with angina from a manufacturing job that requires the employee to work around machinery, believing that the employee will pose a safety risk to himself or others if he were suddenly to lose consciousness, has regarded the individual as disabled. Whether the employer has a defense (e.g., that the employee posed a direct threat to himself or coworkers) is a separate inquiry.
</P>
<P>The fact that the “regarded as” prong requires proof of causation in order to show that a person is covered does not mean that proving a “regarded as” claim is complex. While a person must show, for both coverage under the “regarded as” prong and for ultimate liability, that he or she was subjected to a prohibited action because of an actual or perceived impairment, this showing need only be made once. Thus, evidence that a covered entity took a prohibited action because of an impairment will establish coverage and will be relevant in establishing liability, although liability may ultimately turn on whether the covered entity can establish a defense.
</P>
<P>As prescribed in the ADA Amendments Act, the regulations provide an exception to coverage under the “regarded as” prong where the impairment on which a prohibited action is based is both transitory (having an actual or expected duration of six months or less) and minor. The regulations make clear (at § 1630.2(l)(2) and § 1630.15(f)) that this exception is a defense to a claim of discrimination. “Providing this exception responds to concerns raised by employer organizations and is reasonable under the ‘regarded as' prong of the definition because individuals seeking coverage under this prong need not meet the functional limitation requirement contained in the first two prongs of the definition.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 10; See also 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 18 (explaining that “absent this exception, the third prong of the definition would have covered individuals who are regarded as having common ailments like the cold or flu, and this exception responds to concerns raised by members of the business community regarding potential abuse of this provision and misapplication of resources on individuals with minor ailments that last only a short period of time”). However, as an exception to the general rule for broad coverage under the “regarded as” prong, this limitation on coverage should be construed narrowly. 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 18.
</P>
<P>The relevant inquiry is whether the actual or perceived impairment on which the employer's action was based is objectively “transitory and minor,” not whether the employer claims it subjectively believed the impairment was transitory and minor. For example, an employer who terminates an employee whom it believes has bipolar disorder cannot take advantage of this exception by asserting that it believed the employee's impairment was transitory and minor, since bipolar disorder is not objectively transitory and minor. At the same time, an employer that terminated an employee with an objectively “transitory and minor” hand wound, mistakenly believing it to be symptomatic of HIV infection, will nevertheless have “regarded” the employee as an individual with a disability, since the covered entity took a prohibited employment action based on a perceived impairment (HIV infection) that is not “transitory and minor.”
</P>
<P>An individual covered only under the “regarded as” prong is not entitled to reasonable accommodation. 42 U.S.C. 12201(h). Thus, in cases where reasonable accommodation is not at issue, the third prong provides a more straightforward framework for analyzing whether discrimination occurred. As Congress observed in enacting the ADAAA: “[W]e expect [the first] prong of the definition to be used only by people who are affirmatively seeking reasonable accommodations or modifications. Any individual who has been discriminated against because of an impairment—short of being granted a reasonable accommodation or modification—should be bringing a claim under the third prong of the definition which will require no showing with regard to the severity of his or her impairment.” Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 6.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(m) Qualified Individual
</HD3>
<P>The ADA prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability against a qualified individual. The determination of whether an individual with a disability is “qualified” should be made in two steps. The first step is to determine if the individual satisfies the prerequisites for the position, such as possessing the appropriate educational background, employment experience, skills, licenses, etc. For example, the first step in determining whether an accountant who is paraplegic is qualified for a certified public accountant (CPA) position is to examine the individual's credentials to determine whether the individual is a licensed CPA. This is sometimes referred to in the Rehabilitation Act caselaw as determining whether the individual is “otherwise qualified” for the position. See Senate Report at 33; House Labor Report at 64-65. (See § 1630.9 Not Making Reasonable Accommodation).
</P>
<P>The second step is to determine whether or not the individual can perform the essential functions of the position held or desired, with or without reasonable accommodation. The purpose of this second step is to ensure that individuals with disabilities who can perform the essential functions of the position held or desired are not denied employment opportunities because they are not able to perforn marginal functions of the position. House Labor Report at 55.
</P>
<P>The determination of whether an individual with a disability is qualified is to be made at the time of the employment decision. This determination should be based on the capabilities of the individual with a disability at the time of the employment decision, and should not be based on speculation that the employee may become unable in the future or may cause increased health insurance premiums or workers compensation costs.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(n) Essential Functions 
</HD3>
<P>The determination of which functions are essential may be critical to the determination of whether or not the individual with a disability is qualified. The essential functions are those functions that the individual who holds the position must be able to perform unaided or with the assistance of a reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>The inquiry into whether a particular function is essential initially focuses on whether the employer actually requires employees in the position to perform the functions that the employer asserts are essential. For example, an employer may state that typing is an essential function of a position. If, in fact, the employer has never required any employee in that particular position to type, this will be evidence that typing is not actually an essential function of the position.
</P>
<P>If the individual who holds the position is actually required to perform the function the employer asserts is an essential function, the inquiry will then center around whether removing the function would fundamentally alter that position. This determination of whether or not a particular function is essential will generally include one or more of the following factors listed in part 1630.
</P>
<P>The first factor is whether the position exists to perform a particular function. For example, an individual may be hired to proofread documents. The ability to proofread the documents would then be an essential function, since this is the only reason the position exists.
</P>
<P>The second factor in determining whether a function is essential is the number of other employees available to perform that job function or among whom the performance of that job function can be distributed. This may be a factor either because the total number of available employees is low, or because of the fluctuating demands of the business operation. For example, if an employer has a relatively small number of available employees for the volume of work to be performed, it may be necessary that each employee perform a multitude of different functions. Therefore, the performance of those functions by each employee becomes more critical and the options for reorganizing the work become more limited. In such a situation, functions that might not be essential if there were a larger staff may become essential because the staff size is small compared to the volume of work that has to be done. See <I>Treadwell</I> v. <I>Alexander,</I> 707 F.2d 473 (11th Cir. 1983).
</P>
<P>A similar situation might occur in a larger work force if the workflow follows a cycle of heavy demand for labor intensive work followed by low demand periods. This type of workflow might also make the performance of each function during the peak periods more critical and might limit the employer's flexibility in reorganizing operating procedures. See <I>Dexler</I> v. <I>Tisch,</I> 660 F. Supp. 1418 (D. Conn. 1987).
</P>
<P>The third factor is the degree of expertise or skill required to perform the function. In certain professions and highly skilled positions the employee is hired for his or her expertise or ability to perform the particular function. In such a situation, the performance of that specialized task would be an essential function.
</P>
<P>Whether a particular function is essential is a factual determination that must be made on a case by case basis. In determining whether or not a particular function is essential, all relevant evidence should be considered. Part 1630 lists various types of evidence, such as an established job description, that should be considered in determining whether a particular function is essential. Since the list is not exhaustive, other relevant evidence may also be presented. Greater weight will not be granted to the types of evidence included on the list than to the types of evidence not listed.
</P>
<P>Although part 1630 does not require employers to develop or maintain job descriptions, written job descriptions prepared before advertising or interviewing applicants for the job, as well as the employer's judgment as to what functions are essential are among the relevant evidence to be considered in determining whether a particular function is essential. The terms of a collective bargaining agreement are also relevant to the determination of whether a particular function is essential. The work experience of past employees in the job or of current employees in similar jobs is likewise relevant to the determination of whether a particular function is essential. See H.R. Conf. Rep. No. 101-596, 101st Cong., 2d Sess. 58 (1990) [hereinafter Conference Report]; House Judiciary Report at 33-34. See also <I>Hall</I> v. <I>U.S. Postal Service,</I> 857 F.2d 1073 (6th Cir. 1988).
</P>
<P>The time spent performing the particular function may also be an indicator of whether that function is essential. For example, if an employee spends the vast majority of his or her time working at a cash register, this would be evidence that operating the cash register is an essential function. The consequences of failing to require the employee to perform the function may be another indicator of whether a particular function is essential. For example, although a firefighter may not regularly have to carry an unconscious adult out of a burning building, the consequence of failing to require the firefighter to be able to perform this function would be serious.
</P>
<P>It is important to note that the inquiry into essential functions is not intended to second guess an employer's business judgment with regard to production standards, whether qualitative or quantitative, nor to require employers to lower such standards. (See § 1630.10 Qualification Standards, Tests and Other Selection Criteria). If an employer requires its typists to be able to accurately type 75 words per minute, it will not be called upon to explain why an inaccurate work product, or a typing speed of 65 words per minute, would not be adequate. Similarly, if a hotel requires its service workers to thoroughly clean 16 rooms per day, it will not have to explain why it requires thorough cleaning, or why it chose a 16 room rather than a 10 room requirement. However, if an employer does require accurate 75 word per minute typing or the thorough cleaning of 16 rooms, it will have to show that it actually imposes such requirements on its employees in fact, and not simply on paper. It should also be noted that, if it is alleged that the employer intentionally selected the particular level of production to exclude individuals with disabilities, the employer may have to offer a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for its selection.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(o) Reasonable Accommodation 
</HD3>
<P>An individual with a disability is considered “qualified” if the individual can perform the essential functions of the position held or desired with or without reasonable accommodation. A covered entity is required, absent undue hardship, to provide reasonable accommodation to an otherwise qualified individual with a substantially limiting impairment or a “record of” such an impairment. However, a covered entity is not required to provide an accommodation to an individual who meets the definition of disability solely under the “regarded as” prong.
</P>
<P>The legislative history of the ADAAA makes clear that Congress included this provision in response to various court decisions that had held (pre-Amendments Act) that individuals who were covered solely under the “regarded as” prong were eligible for reasonable accommodations. In those cases, the plaintiffs had been found not to be covered under the first prong of the definition of disability “because of the overly stringent manner in which the courts had been interpreting that prong.” 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 11. The legislative history goes on to explain that “[b]ecause of [Congress's] strong belief that accommodating individuals with disabilities is a key goal of the ADA, some members [of Congress] continue to have reservations about this provision.” Id. However, Congress ultimately concluded that clarifying that individuals covered solely under the “regarded as” prong are not entitled to reasonable accommodations “is an acceptable compromise given our strong expectation that such individuals would now be covered under the first prong of the definition [of disability], properly applied”). Further, individuals covered only under the third prong still may bring discrimination claims (other than failure-to-accommodate claims) under title I of the ADA. 2008 Senate Statement of Managers at 9-10.
</P>
<P>In general, an accommodation is any change in the work environment or in the way things are customarily done that enables an individual with a disability to enjoy equal employment opportunities. There are three categories of reasonable accommodation. These are (1) accommodations that are required to ensure equal opportunity in the application process; (2) accommodations that enable the employer's employees with disabilities to perform the essential functions of the position held or desired; and (3) accommodations that enable the employer's employees with disabilities to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment as are enjoyed by employees without disabilities. It should be noted that nothing in this part prohibits employers or other covered entities from providing accommodations beyond those required by this part.
</P>
<P>Part 1630 lists the examples, specified in title I of the ADA, of the most common types of accommodation that an employer or other covered entity may be required to provide. There are any number of other specific accommodations that may be appropriate for particular situations but are not specifically mentioned in this listing. This listing is not intended to be exhaustive of accommodation possibilities. For example, other accommodations could include permitting the use of accrued paid leave or providing additional unpaid leave for necessary treatment, making employer provided transportation accessible, and providing reserved parking spaces. Providing personal assistants, such as a page turner for an employee with no hands or a travel attendant to act as a sighted guide to assist a blind employee on occasional business trips, may also be a reasonable accommodation. Senate Report at 31; House Labor Report at 62; House Judiciary Report at 39.
</P>
<P>It may also be a reasonable accommodation to permit an individual with a disability the opportunity to provide and utilize equipment, aids or services that an employer is not required to provide as a reasonable accommodation. For example, it would be a reasonable accommodation for an employer to permit an individual who is blind to use a guide dog at work, even though the employer would not be required to provide a guide dog for the employee.
</P>
<P>The accommodations included on the list of reasonable accommodations are generally self explanatory. However, there are a few that require further explanation. One of these is the accommodation of making existing facilities used by employees readily accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities. This accommodation includes both those areas that must be accessible for the employee to perform essential job functions, as well as non-work areas used by the employer's employees for other purposes. For example, accessible break rooms, lunch rooms, training rooms, restrooms etc., may be required as reasonable accommodations.
</P>
<P>Another of the potential accommodations listed is “job restructuring.” An employer or other covered entity may restructure a job by reallocating or redistributing nonessential, marginal job functions. For example, an employer may have two jobs, each of which entails the performance of a number of marginal functions. The employer hires an individual with a disability who is able to perform some of the marginal functions of each job but not all of the marginal functions of either job. As an accommodation, the employer may redistribute the marginal functions so that all of the marginal functions that the individual with a disability can perform are made a part of the position to be filled by the individual with a disability. The remaining marginal functions that the individual with a disability cannot perform would then be transferred to the other position. See Senate Report at 31; House Labor Report at 62.
</P>
<P>An employer or other covered entity is not required to reallocate essential functions. The essential functions are by definition those that the individual who holds the job would have to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation, in order to be considered qualified for the position. For example, suppose a security guard position requires the individual who holds the job to inspect identification cards. An employer would not have to provide an individual who is legally blind with an assistant to look at the identification cards for the legally blind employee. In this situation the assistant would be performing the job for the individual with a disability rather than assisting the individual to perform the job. See <I>Coleman</I> v. <I>Darden,</I> 595 F.2d 533 (10th Cir. 1979).
</P>
<P>An employer or other covered entity may also restructure a job by altering when and/or how an essential function is performed. For example, an essential function customarily performed in the early morning hours may be rescheduled until later in the day as a reasonable accommodation to a disability that precludes performance of the function at the customary hour. Likewise, as a reasonable accommodation, an employee with a disability that inhibits the ability to write, may be permitted to computerize records that were customarily maintained manually.
</P>
<P>Reassignment to a vacant position is also listed as a potential reasonable accommodation. In general, reassignment should be considered only when accommodation within the individual's current position would pose an undue hardship. Reassignment is not available to applicants. An applicant for a position must be qualified for, and be able to perform the essential functions of, the position sought with or without reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>Reassignment may not be used to limit, segregate, or otherwise discriminate against employees with disabilities by forcing reassignments to undesirable positions or to designated offices or facilities. Employers should reassign the individual to an equivalent position, in terms of pay, status, etc., if the individual is qualified, and if the position is vacant within a reasonable amount of time. A “reasonable amount of time” should be determined in light of the totality of the circumstances. As an example, suppose there is no vacant position available at the time that an individual with a disability requests reassignment as a reasonable accommodation. The employer, however, knows that an equivalent position for which the individual is qualified, will become vacant next week. Under these circumstances, the employer should reassign the individual to the position when it becomes available. 
</P>
<P>An employer may reassign an individual to a lower graded position if there are no accommodations that would enable the employee to remain in the current position and there are no vacant equivalent positions for which the individual is qualified with or without reasonable accommodation. An employer, however, is not required to maintain the reassigned individual with a disability at the salary of the higher graded position if it does not so maintain reassigned employees who are not disabled. It should also be noted that an employer is not required to promote an individual with a disability as an accommodation. See Senate Report at 31-32; House Labor Report at 63.
</P>
<P>The determination of which accommodation is appropriate in a particular situation involves a process in which the employer and employee identify the precise limitations imposed by the disability and explore potential accommodations that would overcome those limitations. This process is discussed more fully in § 1630.9 Not Making Reasonable Accommodation.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(p) Undue Hardship 
</HD3>
<P>An employer or other covered entity is not required to provide an accommodation that will impose an undue hardship on the operation of the employer's or other covered entity's business. The term “undue hardship” means significant difficulty or expense in, or resulting from, the provision of the accommodation. The “undue hardship” provision takes into account the financial realities of the particular employer or other covered entity. However, the concept of undue hardship is not limited to financial difficulty. “Undue hardship” refers to any accommodation that would be unduly costly, extensive, substantial, or disruptive, or that would fundamentally alter the nature or operation of the business. See Senate Report at 35; House Labor Report at 67.
</P>
<P>For example, suppose an individual with a disabling visual impairment that makes it extremely difficult to see in dim lighting applies for a position as a waiter in a nightclub and requests that the club be brightly lit as a reasonable accommodation. Although the individual may be able to perform the job in bright lighting, the nightclub will probably be able to demonstrate that that particular accommodation, though inexpensive, would impose an undue hardship if the bright lighting would destroy the ambience of the nightclub and/or make it difficult for the customers to see the stage show. The fact that that particular accommodation poses an undue hardship, however, only means that the employer is not required to provide that accommodation. If there is another accommodation that will not create an undue hardship, the employer would be required to provide the alternative accommodation.
</P>
<P>An employer's claim that the cost of a particular accommodation will impose an undue hardship will be analyzed in light of the factors outlined in part 1630. In part, this analysis requires a determination of whose financial resources should be considered in deciding whether the accommodation is unduly costly. In some cases the financial resources of the employer or other covered entity in its entirety should be considered in determining whether the cost of an accommodation poses an undue hardship. In other cases, consideration of the financial resources of the employer or other covered entity as a whole may be inappropriate because it may not give an accurate picture of the financial resources available to the particular facility that will actually be required to provide the accommodation. See House Labor Report at 68-69; House Judiciary Report at 40-41; see also Conference Report at 56-57.
</P>
<P>If the employer or other covered entity asserts that only the financial resources of the facility where the individual will be employed should be considered, part 1630 requires a factual determination of the relationship between the employer or other covered entity and the facility that will provide the accommodation. As an example, suppose that an independently owned fast food franchise that receives no money from the franchisor refuses to hire an individual with a hearing impairment because it asserts that it would be an undue hardship to provide an interpreter to enable the individual to participate in monthly staff meetings. Since the financial relationship between the franchisor and the franchise is limited to payment of an annual franchise fee, only the financial resources of the franchise would be considered in determining whether or not providing the accommodation would be an undue hardship. See House Labor Report at 68; House Judiciary Report at 40.
</P>
<P>If the employer or other covered entity can show that the cost of the accommodation would impose an undue hardship, it would still be required to provide the accommodation if the funding is available from another source, <I>e.g.,</I> a State vocational rehabilitation agency, or if Federal, State or local tax deductions or tax credits are available to offset the cost of the accommodation. If the employer or other covered entity receives, or is eligible to receive, monies from an external source that would pay the entire cost of the accommodation, it cannot claim cost as an undue hardship. In the absence of such funding, the individual with a disability requesting the accommodation should be given the option of providing the accommodation or of paying that portion of the cost which constitutes the undue hardship on the operation of the business. To the extent that such monies pay or would pay for only part of the cost of the accommodation, only that portion of the cost of the accommodation that could not be recovered—the final net cost to the entity—may be considered in determining undue hardship. (See § 1630.9 Not Making Reasonable Accommodation). See Senate Report at 36; House Labor Report at 69.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.2(r) Direct Threat 
</HD3>
<P>An employer may require, as a qualification standard, that an individual not pose a direct threat to the health or safety of himself/herself or others. Like any other qualification standard, such a standard must apply to all applicants or employees and not just to individuals with disabilities. If, however, an individual poses a direct threat as a result of a disability, the employer must determine whether a reasonable accommodation would either eliminate the risk or reduce it to an acceptable level. If no accommodation exists that would either eliminate or reduce the risk, the employer may refuse to hire an applicant or may discharge an employee who poses a direct threat.
</P>
<P>An employer, however, is not permitted to deny an employment opportunity to an individual with a disability merely because of a slightly increased risk. The risk can only be considered when it poses a significant risk, <I>i.e.,</I> high probability, of substantial harm; a speculative or remote risk is insufficient. See Senate Report at 27; House Report Labor Report at 56-57; House Judiciary Report at 45.
</P>
<P>Determining whether an individual poses a significant risk of substantial harm to others must be made on a case by case basis. The employer should identify the specific risk posed by the individual. For individuals with mental or emotional disabilities, the employer must identify the specific behavior on the part of the individual that would pose the direct threat. For individuals with physical disabilities, the employer must identify the aspect of the disability that would pose the direct threat. The employer should then consider the four factors listed in part 1630:
</P>
<P>(1) The duration of the risk; 
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and severity of the potential harm; 
</P>
<P>(3) The likelihood that the potential harm will occur; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The imminence of the potential harm.
</P>
<P>Such consideration must rely on objective, factual evidence—not on subjective perceptions, irrational fears, patronizing attitudes, or stereotypes—about the nature or effect of a particular disability, or of disability generally. See Senate Report at 27; House Labor Report at 56-57; House Judiciary Report at 45-46. See also <I>Strathie</I> v. <I>Department of Transportation,</I> 716 F.2d 227 (3d Cir. 1983). Relevant evidence may include input from the individual with a disability, the experience of the individual with a disability in previous similar positions, and opinions of medical doctors, rehabilitation counselors, or physical therapists who have expertise in the disability involved and/or direct knowledge of the individual with the disability.
</P>
<P>An employer is also permitted to require that an individual not pose a direct threat of harm to his or her own safety or health. If performing the particular functions of a job would result in a high probability of substantial harm to the individual, the employer could reject or discharge the individual unless a reasonable accommodation that would not cause an undue hardship would avert the harm. For example, an employer would not be required to hire an individual, disabled by narcolepsy, who frequently and unexpectedly loses consciousness for a carpentry job the essential functions of which require the use of power saws and other dangerous equipment, where no accommodation exists that will reduce or eliminate the risk.
</P>
<P>The assessment that there exists a high probability of substantial harm to the individual, like the assessment that there exists a high probability of substantial harm to others, must be strictly based on valid medical analyses and/or on other objective evidence. This determination must be based on individualized factual data, using the factors discussed above, rather than on stereotypic or patronizing assumptions and must consider potential reasonable accommodations. Generalized fears about risks from the employment environment, such as exacerbation of the disability caused by stress, cannot be used by an employer to disqualify an individual with a disability. For example, a law firm could not reject an applicant with a history of disabling mental illness based on a generalized fear that the stress of trying to make partner might trigger a relapse of the individual's mental illness. Nor can generalized fears about risks to individuals with disabilities in the event of an evacuation or other emergency be used by an employer to disqualify an individual with a disability. See Senate Report at 56; House Labor Report at 73-74; House Judiciary Report at 45. See also <I>Mantolete</I> v. <I>Bolger,</I> 767 F.2d 1416 (9th Cir. 1985); <I>Bentivegna</I> v. <I>U.S. Department of Labor,</I> 694 F.2d 619 (9th Cir.1982).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.3 Exceptions to the Definitions of “Disability” and “Qualified Individual with a Disability” 
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 1630.3 (a) through (c) Illegal Use of Drugs 
</HD3>
<P>Part 1630 provides that an individual currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs is not an individual with a disability for purposes of this part when the employer or other covered entity acts on the basis of such use. Illegal use of drugs refers both to the use of unlawful drugs, such as cocaine, and to the unlawful use of prescription drugs.
</P>
<P>Employers, for example, may discharge or deny employment to persons who illegally use drugs, on the basis of such use, without fear of being held liable for discrimination. The term “currently engaging” is not intended to be limited to the use of drugs on the day of, or within a matter of days or weeks before, the employment action in question. Rather, the provision is intended to apply to the illegal use of drugs that has occurred recently enough to indicate that the individual is actively engaged in such conduct. See Conference Report at 64. 
</P>
<P>Individuals who are erroneously perceived as engaging in the illegal use of drugs, but are not in fact illegally using drugs are not excluded from the definitions of the terms “disability” and “qualified individual with a disability.” Individuals who are no longer illegally using drugs and who have either been rehabilitated successfully or are in the process of completing a rehabilitation program are, likewise, not excluded from the definitions of those terms. The term “rehabilitation program” refers to both in-patient and out-patient programs, as well as to appropriate employee assistance programs, professionally recognized self-help programs, such as Narcotics Anonymous, or other programs that provide professional (not necessarily medical) assistance and counseling for individuals who illegally use drugs. See Conference Report at 64; see also House Labor Report at 77; House Judiciary Report at 47.
</P>
<P>It should be noted that this provision simply provides that certain individuals are not excluded from the definitions of “disability” and “qualified individual with a disability.” Consequently, such individuals are still required to establish that they satisfy the requirements of these definitions in order to be protected by the ADA and this part. An individual erroneously regarded as illegally using drugs, for example, would have to show that he or she was regarded as a drug addict in order to demonstrate that he or she meets the definition of “disability” as defined in this part. 
</P>
<P>Employers are entitled to seek reasonable assurances that no illegal use of drugs is occurring or has occurred recently enough so that continuing use is a real and ongoing problem. The reasonable assurances that employers may ask applicants or employees to provide include evidence that the individual is participating in a drug treatment program and/or evidence, such as drug test results, to show that the individual is not currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs. An employer, such as a law enforcement agency, may also be able to impose a qualification standard that excludes individuals with a history of illegal use of drugs if it can show that the standard is job-related and consistent with business necessity. (See § 1630.10 Qualification Standards, Tests and Other Selection Criteria) See Conference Report at 64.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.4 Discrimination Prohibited
</HD2>
<P>Paragraph (a) of this provision prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability against a qualified individual in all aspects of the employment relationship. The range of employment decisions covered by this nondiscrimination mandate is to be construed in a manner consistent with the regulations implementing section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b) makes it clear that the language “on the basis of disability” is not intended to create a cause of action for an individual without a disability who claims that someone with a disability was treated more favorably (disparate treatment), or was provided a reasonable accommodation that an individual without a disability was not provided. See 2008 House Judiciary Committee Report at 21 (this provision “prohibits reverse discrimination claims by disallowing claims based on the lack of disability”). Additionally, the ADA and this part do not affect laws that may require the affirmative recruitment or hiring of individuals with disabilities, or any voluntary affirmative action employers may undertake on behalf of individuals with disabilities. However, part 1630 is not intended to limit the ability of covered entities to choose and maintain a qualified workforce. Employers can continue to use criteria that are job related and consistent with business necessity to select qualified employees, and can continue to hire employees who can perform the essential functions of the job.
</P>
<P>The Amendments Act modified title I's nondiscrimination provision to replace the prohibition on discrimination “against a qualified individual with a disability because of the disability of such individual” with a prohibition on discrimination “against a qualified individual on the basis of disability.” As the legislative history of the ADAAA explains: “[T]he bill modifies the ADA to conform to the structure of Title VII and other civil rights laws by requiring an individual to demonstrate discrimination ‘on the basis of disability' rather than discrimination ‘against an individual with a disability' because of the individual's disability. We hope this will be an important signal to both lawyers and courts to spend less time and energy on the minutia of an individual's impairment, and more time and energy on the merits of the case—including whether discrimination occurred because of the disability, whether an individual was qualified for a job or eligible for a service, and whether a reasonable accommodation or modification was called for under the law.” Joint Hoyer-Sensenbrenner Statement at 4; See also 2008 House Judiciary Report at 21 (“This change harmonizes the ADA with other civil rights laws by focusing on whether a person who has been discriminated against has proven that the discrimination was based on a personal characteristic (disability), not on whether he or she has proven that the characteristic exists.”). 
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.5 Limiting, Segregating and Classifying 
</HD2>
<P>This provision and the several provisions that follow describe various specific forms of discrimination that are included within the general prohibition of § 1630.4. The capabilities of qualified individuals must be determined on an individualized, case by case basis. Covered entities are also prohibited from segregating qualified employees into separate work areas or into separate lines of advancement on the basis of their disabilities.
</P>
<P>Thus, for example, it would be a violation of this part for an employer to limit the duties of an employee with a disability based on a presumption of what is best for an individual with such a disability, or on a presumption about the abilities of an individual with such a disability. It would be a violation of this part for an employer to adopt a separate track of job promotion or progression for employees with disabilities based on a presumption that employees with disabilities are uninterested in, or incapable of, performing particular jobs. Similarly, it would be a violation for an employer to assign or reassign (as a reasonable accommodation) employees with disabilities to one particular office or installation, or to require that employees with disabilities only use particular employer provided non-work facilities such as segregated break-rooms, lunch rooms, or lounges. It would also be a violation of this part to deny employment to an applicant or employee with a disability based on generalized fears about the safety of an individual with such a disability, or based on generalized assumptions about the absenteeism rate of an individual with such a disability.
</P>
<P>In addition, it should also be noted that this part is intended to require that employees with disabilities be accorded equal access to whatever health insurance coverage the employer provides to other employees. This part does not, however, affect pre-existing condition clauses included in health insurance policies offered by employers. Consequently, employers may continue to offer policies that contain such clauses, even if they adversely affect individuals with disabilities, so long as the clauses are not used as a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>So, for example, it would be permissible for an employer to offer an insurance policy that limits coverage for certain procedures or treatments to a specified number per year. Thus, if a health insurance plan provided coverage for five blood transfusions a year to all covered employees, it would not be discriminatory to offer this plan simply because a hemophiliac employee may require more than five blood transfusions annually. However, it would not be permissible to limit or deny the hemophiliac employee coverage for other procedures, such as heart surgery or the setting of a broken leg, even though the plan would not have to provide coverage for the additional blood transfusions that may be involved in these procedures. Likewise, limits may be placed on reimbursements for certain procedures or on the types of drugs or procedures covered (e.g. limits on the number of permitted X-rays or non-coverage of experimental drugs or procedures), but that limitation must be applied equally to individuals with and without disabilities. See Senate Report at 28-29; House Labor Report at 58-59; House Judiciary Report at 36.
</P>
<P>Leave policies or benefit plans that are uniformly applied do not violate this part simply because they do not address the special needs of every individual with a disability. Thus, for example, an employer that reduces the number of paid sick leave days that it will provide to all employees, or reduces the amount of medical insurance coverage that it will provide to all employees, is not in violation of this part, even if the benefits reduction has an impact on employees with disabilities in need of greater sick leave and medical coverage. Benefits reductions adopted for discriminatory reasons are in violation of this part. See <I>Alexander</I> v. <I>Choate,</I> 469 U.S. 287 (1985). See Senate Report at 85; House Labor Report at 137. (See also, the discussion at § 1630.16(f) Health Insurance, Life Insurance, and Other Benefit Plans).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.6 Contractual or Other Arrangements 
</HD2>
<P>An employer or other covered entity may not do through a contractual or other relationship what it is prohibited from doing directly. This provision does not affect the determination of whether or not one is a “covered entity” or “employer” as defined in § 1630.2.
</P>
<P>This provision only applies to situations where an employer or other covered entity has entered into a contractual relationship that has the effect of discriminating against its own employees or applicants with disabilities. Accordingly, it would be a violation for an employer to participate in a contractual relationship that results in discrimination against the employer's employees with disabilities in hiring, training, promotion, or in any other aspect of the employment relationship. This provision applies whether or not the employer or other covered entity intended for the contractual relationship to have the discriminatory effect.
</P>
<P>Part 1630 notes that this provision applies to parties on either side of the contractual or other relationship. This is intended to highlight that an employer whose employees provide services to others, like an employer whose employees receive services, must ensure that those employees are not discriminated against on the basis of disability. For example, a copier company whose service representative is a dwarf could be required to provide a stepstool, as a reasonable accommodation, to enable him to perform the necessary repairs. However, the employer would not be required, as a reasonable accommodation, to make structural changes to its customer's inaccessible premises.
</P>
<P>The existence of the contractual relationship adds no new obligations under part 1630. The employer, therefore, is not liable through the contractual arrangement for any discrimination by the contractor against the contractors own employees or applicants, although the contractor, as an employer, may be liable for such discrimination.
</P>
<P>An employer or other covered entity, on the other hand, cannot evade the obligations imposed by this part by engaging in a contractual or other relationship. For example, an employer cannot avoid its responsibility to make reasonable accommodation subject to the undue hardship limitation through a contractual arrangement. See Conference Report at 59; House Labor Report at 59-61; House Judiciary Report at 36-37.
</P>
<P>To illustrate, assume that an employer is seeking to contract with a company to provide training for its employees. Any responsibilities of reasonable accommodation applicable to the employer in providing the training remain with that employer even if it contracts with another company for this service. Thus, if the training company were planning to conduct the training at an inaccessible location, thereby making it impossible for an employee who uses a wheelchair to attend, the employer would have a duty to make reasonable accommodation unless to do so would impose an undue hardship. Under these circumstances, appropriate accommodations might include (1) having the training company identify accessible training sites and relocate the training program; (2) having the training company make the training site accessible; (3) directly making the training site accessible or providing the training company with the means by which to make the site accessible; (4) identifying and contracting with another training company that uses accessible sites; or (5) any other accommodation that would result in making the training available to the employee.
</P>
<P>As another illustration, assume that instead of contracting with a training company, the employer contracts with a hotel to host a conference for its employees. The employer will have a duty to ascertain and ensure the accessibility of the hotel and its conference facilities. To fulfill this obligation the employer could, for example, inspect the hotel first-hand or ask a local disability group to inspect the hotel. Alternatively, the employer could ensure that the contract with the hotel specifies it will provide accessible guest rooms for those who need them and that all rooms to be used for the conference, including exhibit and meeting rooms, are accessible. If the hotel breaches this accessibility provision, the hotel may be liable to the employer, under a non-ADA breach of contract theory, for the cost of any accommodation needed to provide access to the hotel and conference, and for any other costs accrued by the employer. (In addition, the hotel may also be independently liable under title III of the ADA). However, this would not relieve the employer of its responsibility under this part nor shield it from charges of discrimination by its own employees. See House Labor Report at 40; House Judiciary Report at 37.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.8 Relationship or Association With an Individual With a Disability
</HD2>
<P>This provision is intended to protect any qualified individual, whether or not that individual has a disability, from discrimination because that person is known to have an association or relationship with an individual who has a known disability. This protection is not limited to those who have a familial relationship with an individual with a disability. 
</P>
<P>To illustrate the scope of this provision, assume that a qualified applicant without a disability applies for a job and discloses to the employer that his or her spouse has a disability. The employer thereupon declines to hire the applicant because the employer believes that the applicant would have to miss work or frequently leave work early in order to care for the spouse. Such a refusal to hire would be prohibited by this provision. Similarly, this provision would prohibit an employer from discharging an employee because the employee does volunteer work with people who have AIDS, and the employer fears that the employee may contract the disease. 
</P>
<P>This provision also applies to other benefits and privileges of employment. For example, an employer that provides health insurance benefits to its employees for their dependents may not reduce the level of those benefits to an employee simply because that employee has a dependent with a disability. This is true even if the provision of such benefits would result in increased health insurance costs for the employer. 
</P>
<P>It should be noted, however, that an employer need not provide the applicant or employee without a disability with a reasonable accommodation because that duty only applies to qualified applicants or employees with disabilities. Thus, for example, an employee would not be entitled to a modified work schedule as an accommodation to enable the employee to care for a spouse with a disability. See Senate Report at 30; House Labor Report at 61-62; House Judiciary Report at 38-39. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.9 Not Making Reasonable Accommodation 
</HD2>
<P>The obligation to make reasonable accommodation is a form of non-discrimination. It applies to all employment decisions and to the job application process. This obligation does not extend to the provision of adjustments or modifications that are primarily for the personal benefit of the individual with a disability. Thus, if an adjustment or modification is job-related, <I>e.g.,</I> specifically assists the individual in performing the duties of a particular job, it will be considered a type of reasonable accommodation. On the other hand, if an adjustment or modification assists the individual throughout his or her daily activities, on and off the job, it will be considered a personal item that the employer is not required to provide. Accordingly, an employer would generally not be required to provide an employee with a disability with a prosthetic limb, wheelchair, or eyeglasses. Nor would an employer have to provide as an accommodation any amenity or convenience that is not job-related, such as a private hot plate, hot pot or refrigerator that is not provided to employees without disabilities. See Senate Report at 31; House Labor Report at 62. 
</P>
<P>It should be noted, however, that the provision of such items may be required as a reasonable accommodation where such items are specifically designed or required to meet job-related rather than personal needs. An employer, for example, may have to provide an individual with a disabling visual impairment with eyeglasses specifically designed to enable the individual to use the office computer monitors, but that are not otherwise needed by the individual outside of the office. 
</P>
<P>The term “supported employment,” which has been applied to a wide variety of programs to assist individuals with severe disabilities in both competitive and non-competitive employment, is not synonymous with reasonable accommodation. Examples of supported employment include modified training materials, restructuring essential functions to enable an individual to perform a job, or hiring an outside professional (“job coach”) to assist in job training. Whether a particular form of assistance would be required as a reasonable accommodation must be determined on an individualized, case by case basis without regard to whether that assistance is referred to as “supported employment.” For example, an employer, under certain circumstances, may be required to provide modified training materials or a temporary “job coach” to assist in the training of an individual with a disability as a reasonable accommodation. However, an employer would not be required to restructure the essential functions of a position to fit the skills of an individual with a disability who is not otherwise qualified to perform the position, as is done in certain supported employment programs. See 34 CFR part 363. It should be noted that it would not be a violation of this part for an employer to provide any of these personal modifications or adjustments, or to engage in supported employment or similar rehabilitative programs. 
</P>
<P>The obligation to make reasonable accommodation applies to all services and programs provided in connection with employment, and to all non-work facilities provided or maintained by an employer for use by its employees. Accordingly, the obligation to accommodate is applicable to employer sponsored placement or counseling services, and to employer provided cafeterias, lounges, gymnasiums, auditoriums, transportation and the like. 
</P>
<P>The reasonable accommodation requirement is best understood as a means by which barriers to the equal employment opportunity of an individual with a disability are removed or alleviated. These barriers may, for example, be physical or structural obstacles that inhibit or prevent the access of an individual with a disability to job sites, facilities or equipment. Or they may be rigid work schedules that permit no flexibility as to when work is performed or when breaks may be taken, or inflexible job procedures that unduly limit the modes of communication that are used on the job, or the way in which particular tasks are accomplished.
</P>
<P>The term “otherwise qualified” is intended to make clear that the obligation to make reasonable accommodation is owed only to an individual with a disability who is qualified within the meaning of § 1630.2(m) in that he or she satisfies all the skill, experience, education and other job-related selection criteria. An individual with a disability is “otherwise qualified,” in other words, if he or she is qualified for a job, except that, because of the disability, he or she needs a reasonable accommodation to be able to perform the job's essential functions.
</P>
<P>For example, if a law firm requires that all incoming lawyers have graduated from an accredited law school and have passed the bar examination, the law firm need not provide an accommodation to an individual with a visual impairment who has not met these selection criteria. That individual is not entitled to a reasonable accommodation because the individual is not “otherwise qualified” for the position.
</P>
<P>On the other hand, if the individual has graduated from an accredited law school and passed the bar examination, the individual would be “otherwise qualified.” The law firm would thus be required to provide a reasonable accommodation, such as a machine that magnifies print, to enable the individual to perform the essential functions of the attorney position, unless the necessary accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the law firm. See Senate Report at 33-34; House Labor Report at 64-65.
</P>
<P>The reasonable accommodation that is required by this part should provide the individual with a disability with an equal employment opportunity. Equal employment opportunity means an opportunity to attain the same level of performance, or to enjoy the same level of benefits and privileges of employment as are available to the average similarly situated employee without a disability. Thus, for example, an accommodation made to assist an employee with a disability in the performance of his or her job must be adequate to enable the individual to perform the essential functions of the relevant position. The accommodation, however, does not have to be the “best” accommodation possible, so long as it is sufficient to meet the job-related needs of the individual being accommodated. Accordingly, an employer would not have to provide an employee disabled by a back impairment with a state-of-the art mechanical lifting device if it provided the employee with a less expensive or more readily available device that enabled the employee to perform the essential functions of the job. See Senate Report at 35; House Labor Report at 66; see also <I>Carter</I> v. <I>Bennett,</I> 840 F.2d 63 (DC Cir. 1988).
</P>
<P>Employers are obligated to make reasonable accommodation only to the physical or mental limitations resulting from the disability of an individual with a disability that is known to the employer. Thus, an employer would not be expected to accommodate disabilities of which it is unaware. If an employee with a known disability is having difficulty performing his or her job, an employer may inquire whether the employee is in need of a reasonable accommodation. In general, however, it is the responsibility of the individual with a disability to inform the employer that an accommodation is needed. When the need for an accommodation is not obvious, an employer, before providing a reasonable accommodation, may require that the individual with a disability provide documentation of the need for accommodation.
</P>
<P>See Senate Report at 34; House Labor Report at 65.
</P>
<HD3>Process of Determining the Appropriate Reasonable Accommodation
</HD3>
<P>Once an individual with a disability has requested provision of a reasonable accommodation, the employer must make a reasonable effort to determine the appropriate accommodation. The appropriate reasonable accommodation is best determined through a flexible, interactive process that involves both the employer and the individual with a disability. Although this process is described below in terms of accommodations that enable the individual with a disability to perform the essential functions of the position held or desired, it is equally applicable to accommodations involving the job application process, and to accommodations that enable the individual with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment. See Senate Report at 34-35; House Labor Report at 65-67.
</P>
<P>When an individual with a disability has requested a reasonable accommodation to assist in the performance of a job, the employer, using a problem solving approach, should:
</P>
<P>(1) Analyze the particular job involved and determine its purpose and essential functions;
</P>
<P>(2) Consult with the individual with a disability to ascertain the precise job-related limitations imposed by the individual's disability and how those limitations could be overcome with a reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(3) In consultation with the individual to be accommodated, identify potential accommodations and assess the effectiveness each would have in enabling the individual to perform the essential functions of the position; and
</P>
<P>(4) Consider the preference of the individual to be accommodated and select and implement the accommodation that is most appropriate for both the employee and the employer.
</P>
<P>In many instances, the appropriate reasonable accommodation may be so obvious to either or both the employer and the individual with a disability that it may not be necessary to proceed in this step-by-step fashion. For example, if an employee who uses a wheelchair requests that his or her desk be placed on blocks to elevate the desktop above the arms of the wheelchair and the employer complies, an appropriate accommodation has been requested, identified, and provided without either the employee or employer being aware of having engaged in any sort of “reasonable accommodation process.”
</P>
<P>However, in some instances neither the individual requesting the accommodation nor the employer can readily identify the appropriate accommodation. For example, the individual needing the accommodation may not know enough about the equipment used by the employer or the exact nature of the work site to suggest an appropriate accommodation. Likewise, the employer may not know enough about the individual's disability or the limitations that disability would impose on the performance of the job to suggest an appropriate accommodation. Under such circumstances, it may be necessary for the employer to initiate a more defined problem solving process, such as the step-by-step process described above, as part of its reasonable effort to identify the appropriate reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>This process requires the individual assessment of both the particular job at issue, and the specific physical or mental limitations of the particular individual in need of reasonable accommodation. With regard to assessment of the job, “individual assessment” means analyzing the actual job duties and determining the true purpose or object of the job. Such an assessment is necessary to ascertain which job functions are the essential functions that an accommodation must enable an individual with a disability to perform.
</P>
<P>After assessing the relevant job, the employer, in consultation with the individual requesting the accommodation, should make an assessment of the specific limitations imposed by the disability on the individual's performance of the job's essential functions. This assessment will make it possible to ascertain the precise barrier to the employment opportunity which, in turn, will make it possible to determine the accommodation(s) that could alleviate or remove that barrier.
</P>
<P>If consultation with the individual in need of the accommodation still does not reveal potential appropriate accommodations, then the employer, as part of this process, may find that technical assistance is helpful in determining how to accommodate the particular individual in the specific situation. Such assistance could be sought from the Commission, from State or local rehabilitation agencies, or from disability constituent organizations. It should be noted, however, that, as provided in § 1630.9(c) of this part, the failure to obtain or receive technical assistance from the Federal agencies that administer the ADA will not excuse the employer from its reasonable accommodation obligation.
</P>
<P>Once potential accommodations have been identified, the employer should assess the effectiveness of each potential accommodation in assisting the individual in need of the accommodation in the performance of the essential functions of the position. If more than one of these accommodations will enable the individual to perform the essential functions or if the individual would prefer to provide his or her own accommodation, the preference of the individual with a disability should be given primary consideration. However, the employer providing the accommodation has the ultimate discretion to choose between effective accommodations, and may choose the less expensive accommodation or the accommodation that is easier for it to provide. It should also be noted that the individual's willingness to provide his or her own accommodation does not relieve the employer of the duty to provide the accommodation should the individual for any reason be unable or unwilling to continue to provide the accommodation. 
</P>
<HD3>Reasonable Accommodation Process Illustrated 
</HD3>
<P>The following example illustrates the informal reasonable accommodation process. Suppose a Sack Handler position requires that the employee pick up fifty pound sacks and carry them from the company loading dock to the storage room, and that a sack handler who is disabled by a back impairment requests a reasonable accommodation. Upon receiving the request, the employer analyzes the Sack Handler job and determines that the essential function and purpose of the job is not the requirement that the job holder physically lift and carry the sacks, but the requirement that the job holder cause the sack to move from the loading dock to the storage room.
</P>
<P>The employer then meets with the sack handler to ascertain precisely the barrier posed by the individual's specific disability to the performance of the job's essential function of relocating the sacks. At this meeting the employer learns that the individual can, in fact, lift the sacks to waist level, but is prevented by his or her disability from carrying the sacks from the loading dock to the storage room. The employer and the individual agree that any of a number of potential accommodations, such as the provision of a dolly, hand truck, or cart, could enable the individual to transport the sacks that he or she has lifted. 
</P>
<P>Upon further consideration, however, it is determined that the provision of a cart is not a feasible effective option. No carts are currently available at the company, and those that can be purchased by the company are the wrong shape to hold many of the bulky and irregularly shaped sacks that must be moved. Both the dolly and the hand truck, on the other hand, appear to be effective options. Both are readily available to the company, and either will enable the individual to relocate the sacks that he or she has lifted. The sack handler indicates his or her preference for the dolly. In consideration of this expressed preference, and because the employer feels that the dolly will allow the individual to move more sacks at a time and so be more efficient than would a hand truck, the employer ultimately provides the sack handler with a dolly in fulfillment of the obligation to make reasonable accommodation. 
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.9(b)
</HD3>
<P>This provision states that an employer or other covered entity cannot prefer or select a qualified individual without a disability over an equally qualified individual with a disability merely because the individual with a disability will require a reasonable accommodation. In other words, an individual's need for an accommodation cannot enter into the employer's or other covered entity's decision regarding hiring, discharge, promotion, or other similar employment decisions, unless the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the employer. See House Labor Report at 70.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.9(d)
</HD3>
<P>The purpose of this provision is to clarify that an employer or other covered entity may not compel an individual with a disability to accept an accommodation, where that accommodation is neither requested nor needed by the individual. However, if a necessary reasonable accommodation is refused, the individual may not be considered qualified. For example, an individual with a visual impairment that restricts his or her field of vision but who is able to read unaided would not be required to accept a reader as an accommodation. However, if the individual were not able to read unaided and reading was an essential function of the job, the individual would not be qualified for the job if he or she refused a reasonable accommodation that would enable him or her to read. See Senate Report at 34; House Labor Report at 65; House Judiciary Report at 71-72.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.9(e)
</HD3>
<P>The purpose of this provision is to incorporate the clarification made in the ADA Amendments Act of 2008 that an individual is not entitled to reasonable accommodation under the ADA if the individual is only covered under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of “individual with a disability.” However, if the individual is covered under both the “regarded as” prong and one or both of the other two prongs of the definition of disability, the ordinary rules concerning the provision of reasonable accommodation apply.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.10 Qualification Standards, Tests, and Other Selection Criteria
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 1630.10(a)—In General
</HD3>
<P>The purpose of this provision is to ensure that individuals with disabilities are not excluded from job opportunities unless they are actually unable to do the job. It is to ensure that there is a fit between job criteria and an applicant's (or employee's) actual ability to do the job. Accordingly, job criteria that even unintentionally screen out, or tend to screen out, an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities because of their disability may not be used unless the employer demonstrates that those criteria, as used by the employer, are job related for the position to which they are being applied and are consistent with business necessity. The concept of “business necessity” has the same meaning as the concept of “business necessity” under section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
</P>
<P>Selection criteria that exclude, or tend to exclude, an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities because of their disability but do not concern an essential function of the job would not be consistent with business necessity.
</P>
<P>The use of selection criteria that are related to an essential function of the job may be consistent with business necessity. However, selection criteria that are related to an essential function of the job may not be used to exclude an individual with a disability if that individual could satisfy the criteria with the provision of a reasonable accommodation. Experience under a similar provision of the regulations implementing section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act indicates that challenges to selection criteria are, in fact, often resolved by reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>This provision is applicable to all types of selection criteria, including safety requirements, vision or hearing requirements, walking requirements, lifting requirements, and employment tests. See 1989 Senate Report at 37-39; House Labor Report at 70-72; House Judiciary Report at 42. As previously noted, however, it is not the intent of this part to second guess an employer's business judgment with regard to production standards. See § 1630.2(n) (Essential Functions). Consequently, production standards will generally not be subject to a challenge under this provision.
</P>
<P>The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP) 29 CFR part 1607 do not apply to the Rehabilitation Act and are similarly inapplicable to this part.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.10(b)—Qualification Standards and Tests Related to Uncorrected Vision
</HD3>
<P>This provision allows challenges to qualification standards based on uncorrected vision, even where the person excluded by a standard has fully corrected vision with ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses. An individual challenging a covered entity's application of a qualification standard, test, or other criterion based on uncorrected vision need not be a person with a disability. In order to have standing to challenge such a standard, test, or criterion, however, a person must be adversely affected by such standard, test or criterion. The Commission also believes that such individuals will usually be covered under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability. Someone who wears eyeglasses or contact lenses to correct vision will still have an impairment, and a qualification standard that screens the individual out because of the impairment by requiring a certain level of uncorrected vision to perform a job will amount to an action prohibited by the ADA based on an impairment. (See § 1630.2(l); appendix to § 1630.2(l).)
</P>
<P>In either case, a covered entity may still defend a qualification standard requiring a certain level of uncorrected vision by showing that it is job related and consistent with business necessity. For example, an applicant or employee with uncorrected vision of 20/100 who wears glasses that fully correct his vision may challenge a police department's qualification standard that requires all officers to have uncorrected vision of no less than 20/40 in one eye and 20/100 in the other, and visual acuity of 20/20 in both eyes with correction. The department would then have to establish that the standard is job related and consistent with business necessity.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.11 Administration of Tests 
</HD2>
<P>The intent of this provision is to further emphasize that individuals with disabilities are not to be excluded from jobs that they can actually perform merely because a disability prevents them from taking a test, or negatively influences the results of a test, that is a prerequisite to the job. Read together with the reasonable accommodation requirement of section 1630.9, this provision requires that employment tests be administered to eligible applicants or employees with disabilities that impair sensory, manual, or speaking skills in formats that do not require the use of the impaired skill.
</P>
<P>The employer or other covered entity is, generally, only required to provide such reasonable accommodation if it knows, prior to the administration of the test, that the individual is disabled and that the disability impairs sensory, manual or speaking skills. Thus, for example, it would be unlawful to administer a written employment test to an individual who has informed the employer, prior to the administration of the test, that he is disabled with dyslexia and unable to read. In such a case, as a reasonable accommodation and in accordance with this provision, an alternative oral test should be administered to that individual. By the same token, a written test may need to be substituted for an oral test if the applicant taking the test is an individual with a disability that impairs speaking skills or impairs the processing of auditory information. 
</P>
<P>Occasionally, an individual with a disability may not realize, prior to the administration of a test, that he or she will need an accommodation to take that particular test. In such a situation, the individual with a disability, upon becoming aware of the need for an accommodation, must so inform the employer or other covered entity. For example, suppose an individual with a disabling visual impairment does not request an accommodation for a written examination because he or she is usually able to take written tests with the aid of his or her own specially designed lens. When the test is distributed, the individual with a disability discovers that the lens is insufficient to distinguish the words of the test because of the unusually low color contrast between the paper and the ink, the individual would be entitled, at that point, to request an accommodation. The employer or other covered entity would, thereupon, have to provide a test with higher contrast, schedule a retest, or provide any other effective accommodation unless to do so would impose an undue hardship. 
</P>
<P>Other alternative or accessible test modes or formats include the administration of tests in large print or braille, or via a reader or sign interpreter. Where it is not possible to test in an alternative format, the employer may be required, as a reasonable accommodation, to evaluate the skill to be tested in another manner (<I>e.g.,</I> through an interview, or through education license, or work experience requirements). An employer may also be required, as a reasonable accommodation, to allow more time to complete the test. In addition, the employer's obligation to make reasonable accommodation extends to ensuring that the test site is accessible. (See § 1630.9 Not Making Reasonable Accommodation) See Senate Report at 37-38; House Labor Report at 70-72; House Judiciary Report at 42; see also <I>Stutts</I> v. <I>Freeman,</I> 694 F.2d 666 (11th Cir. 1983); <I>Crane</I> v. <I>Dole,</I> 617 F. Supp. 156 (D.D.C. 1985). 
</P>
<P>This provision does not require that an employer offer every applicant his or her choice of test format. Rather, this provision only requires that an employer provide, upon advance request, alternative, accessible tests to individuals with disabilities that impair sensory, manual, or speaking skills needed to take the test. 
</P>
<P>This provision does not apply to employment tests that require the use of sensory, manual, or speaking skills where the tests are intended to measure those skills. Thus, an employer could require that an applicant with dyslexia take a written test for a particular position if the ability to read is the skill the test is designed to measure. Similarly, an employer could require that an applicant complete a test within established time frames if speed were one of the skills for which the applicant was being tested. However, the results of such a test could not be used to exclude an individual with a disability unless the skill was necessary to perform an essential function of the position and no reasonable accommodation was available to enable the individual to perform that function, or the necessary accommodation would impose an undue hardship. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.13 Prohibited Medical Examinations and Inquiries 
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 1630.13(a) Pre-employment Examination or Inquiry 
</HD3>
<P>This provision makes clear that an employer cannot inquire as to whether an individual has a disability at the pre-offer stage of the selection process. Nor can an employer inquire at the pre-offer stage about an applicant's workers' compensation history. 
</P>
<P>Employers may ask questions that relate to the applicant's ability to perform job-related functions. However, these questions should not be phrased in terms of disability. An employer, for example, may ask whether the applicant has a driver's license, if driving is a job function, but may not ask whether the applicant has a visual disability. Employers may ask about an applicant's ability to perform both essential and marginal job functions. Employers, though, may not refuse to hire an applicant with a disability because the applicant's disability prevents him or her from performing marginal functions. See Senate Report at 39; House Labor Report at 72-73; House Judiciary Report at 42-43. 
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.13(b) Examination or Inquiry of Employees 
</HD3>
<P>The purpose of this provision is to prevent the administration to employees of medical tests or inquiries that do not serve a legitimate business purpose. For example, if an employee suddenly starts to use increased amounts of sick leave or starts to appear sickly, an employer could not require that employee to be tested for AIDS, HIV infection, or cancer unless the employer can demonstrate that such testing is job-related and consistent with business necessity. See Senate Report at 39; House Labor Report at 75; House Judiciary Report at 44. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.14 Medical Examinations and Inquiries Specifically Permitted 
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 1630.14(a) Pre-employment Inquiry 
</HD3>
<P>Employers are permitted to make pre-employment inquiries into the ability of an applicant to perform job-related functions. This inquiry must be narrowly tailored. The employer may describe or demonstrate the job function and inquire whether or not the applicant can perform that function with or without reasonable accommodation. For example, an employer may explain that the job requires assembling small parts and ask if the individual will be able to perform that function, with or without reasonable accommodation. See Senate Report at 39; House Labor Report at 73; House Judiciary Report at 43. 
</P>
<P>An employer may also ask an applicant to describe or to demonstrate how, with or without reasonable accommodation, the applicant will be able to perform job-related functions. Such a request may be made of all applicants in the same job category regardless of disability. Such a request may also be made of an applicant whose known disability may interfere with or prevent the performance of a job-related function, whether or not the employer routinely makes such a request of all applicants in the job category. For example, an employer may ask an individual with one leg who applies for a position as a home washing machine repairman to demonstrate or to explain how, with or without reasonable accommodation, he would be able to transport himself and his tools down basement stairs. However, the employer may not inquire as to the nature or severity of the disability. Therefore, for example, the employer cannot ask how the individual lost the leg or whether the loss of the leg is indicative of an underlying impairment. 
</P>
<P>On the other hand, if the known disability of an applicant will not interfere with or prevent the performance of a job-related function, the employer may only request a description or demonstration by the applicant if it routinely makes such a request of all applicants in the same job category. So, for example, it would not be permitted for an employer to request that an applicant with one leg demonstrate his ability to assemble small parts while seated at a table, if the employer does not routinely request that all applicants provide such a demonstration. 
</P>
<P>An employer that requires an applicant with a disability to demonstrate how he or she will perform a job-related function must either provide the reasonable accommodation the applicant needs to perform the function or permit the applicant to explain how, with the accommodation, he or she will perform the function. If the job-related function is not an essential function, the employer may not exclude the applicant with a disability because of the applicant's inability to perform that function. Rather, the employer must, as a reasonable accommodation, either provide an accommodation that will enable the individual to perform the function, transfer the function to another position, or exchange the function for one the applicant is able to perform. 
</P>
<P>An employer may not use an application form that lists a number of potentially disabling impairments and ask the applicant to check any of the impairments he or she may have. In addition, as noted above, an employer may not ask how a particular individual became disabled or the prognosis of the individual's disability. The employer is also prohibited from asking how often the individual will require leave for treatment or use leave as a result of incapacitation because of the disability. However, the employer may state the attendance requirements of the job and inquire whether the applicant can meet them. 
</P>
<P>An employer is permitted to ask, on a test announcement or application form, that individuals with disabilities who will require a reasonable accommodation in order to take the test so inform the employer within a reasonable established time period prior to the administration of the test. The employer may also request that documentation of the need for the accommodation accompany the request. Requested accommodations may include accessible testing sites, modified testing conditions and accessible test formats. (See § 1630.11 Administration of Tests).
</P>
<P>Physical agility tests are not medical examinations and so may be given at any point in the application or employment process. Such tests must be given to all similarly situated applicants or employees regardless of disability. If such tests screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities, the employer would have to demonstrate that the test is job-related and consistent with business necessity and that performance cannot be achieved with reasonable accommodation. (See § 1630.9 Not Making Reasonable Accommodation: Process of Determining the Appropriate Reasonable Accommodation). 
</P>
<P>As previously noted, collecting information and inviting individuals to identify themselves as individuals with disabilities as required to satisfy the affirmative action requirements of section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act is not restricted by this part. (See § 1630.1 (b) and (c) Applicability and Construction). 
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.14(b) Employment Entrance Examination 
</HD3>
<P>An employer is permitted to require post-offer medical examinations before the employee actually starts working. The employer may condition the offer of employment on the results of the examination, provided that all entering employees in the same job category are subjected to such an examination, regardless of disability, and that the confidentiality requirements specified in this part are met. 
</P>
<P>This provision recognizes that in many industries, such as air transportation or construction, applicants for certain positions are chosen on the basis of many factors including physical and psychological criteria, some of which may be identified as a result of post-offer medical examinations given prior to entry on duty. Only those employees who meet the employer's physical and psychological criteria for the job, with or without reasonable accommodation, will be qualified to receive confirmed offers of employment and begin working. 
</P>
<P>Medical examinations permitted by this section are not required to be job-related and consistent with business necessity. However, if an employer withdraws an offer of employment because the medical examination reveals that the employee does not satisfy certain employment criteria, either the exclusionary criteria must not screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities, or they must be job-related and consistent with business necessity. As part of the showing that an exclusionary criteria is job-related and consistent with business necessity, the employer must also demonstrate that there is no reasonable accommodation that will enable the individual with a disability to perform the essential functions of the job. See Conference Report at 59-60; Senate Report at 39; House Labor Report at 73-74; House Judiciary Report at 43. 
</P>
<P>As an example, suppose an employer makes a conditional offer of employment to an applicant, and it is an essential function of the job that the incumbent be available to work every day for the next three months. An employment entrance examination then reveals that the applicant has a disabling impairment that, according to reasonable medical judgment that relies on the most current medical knowledge, will require treatment that will render the applicant unable to work for a portion of the three month period. Under these circumstances, the employer would be able to withdraw the employment offer without violating this part. 
</P>
<P>The information obtained in the course of a permitted entrance examination or inquiry is to be treated as a confidential medical record and may only be used in a manner not inconsistent with this part. State workers' compensation laws are not preempted by the ADA or this part. These laws require the collection of information from individuals for State administrative purposes that do not conflict with the ADA or this part. Consequently, employers or other covered entities may submit information to State workers' compensation offices or second injury funds in accordance with State workers' compensation laws without violating this part.
</P>
<P>Consistent with this section and with § 1630.16(f) of this part, information obtained in the course of a permitted entrance examination or inquiry may be used for insurance purposes described in § 1630.16(f).
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.14(c) Examination of Employees 
</HD3>
<P>This provision permits employers to make inquiries or require medical examinations (fitness for duty exams) when there is a need to determine whether an employee is still able to perform the essential functions of his or her job. The provision permits employers or other covered entities to make inquiries or require medical examinations necessary to the reasonable accommodation process described in this part. This provision also permits periodic physicals to determine fitness for duty or other medical monitoring if such physicals or monitoring are required by medical standards or requirements established by Federal, State, or local law that are consistent with the ADA and this part (or in the case of a Federal standard, with section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act) in that they are job-related and consistent with business necessity.
</P>
<P>Such standards may include Federal safety regulations that regulate bus and truck driver qualifications, as well as laws establishing medical requirements for pilots or other air transportation personnel. These standards also include health standards promulgated pursuant to the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, the Federal Coal Mine Health and Safety Act of 1969, or other similar statutes that require that employees exposed to certain toxic and hazardous substances be medically monitored at specific intervals. See House Labor Report at 74-75.
</P>
<P>The information obtained in the course of such examination or inquiries is to be treated as a confidential medical record and may only be used in a manner not inconsistent with this part. 


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.14(d)(1): Health Program
</HD3>
<P>Part 1630 permits voluntary medical examinations and inquiries, including voluntary medical histories, as part of employee health programs. These health programs include many wellness programs, which often incorporate, for example: A health risk assessment (HRA) consisting of a medical questionnaire, with or without medical examinations, to determine risk factors; medical screening for high blood pressure, cholesterol, or glucose; classes to help employees stop smoking or lose weight; physical activities in which employees can engage (such as walking or exercising daily); coaching to help employees meet health goals; and/or the administration of flu shots. Many employers offer wellness programs as part of a group health plan as a means of improving overall employee health with the goal of realizing lower health care costs. Other employers offer wellness programs that are available to all employees, regardless of whether they are in enrolled in a group health plan, while some employers offer wellness programs but do not sponsor a group health plan or group health insurance.
</P>
<P>It is not sufficient for a covered entity merely to claim that its collection of medical information is part of a wellness program; the program, including any disability-related inquiries and medical examinations that are part of such program, must be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. In order to meet this standard, the program must have a reasonable chance of improving the health of, or preventing disease in, participating employees, and must not be overly burdensome, a subterfuge for violating the ADA or other laws prohibiting employment discrimination, or highly suspect in the method chosen to promote health or prevent disease. Asking employees to complete a HRA and/or undergo a biometric screening for the purpose of alerting them to health risks of which they may have been unaware would meet this standard, as would the use of aggregate information from HRAs by an employer to design and offer health programs aimed at specific conditions identified by the information collected. An employer might conclude from aggregate information, for example, that a significant number of its employees have diabetes or high blood pressure and might design specific programs that would enable employees to treat or manage these conditions. On the other hand, collecting medical information on a health questionnaire without providing employees meaningful follow-up information or advice, such as providing feedback about specific risk factors or using aggregate information to design programs or treat any specific conditions, would not be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. Additionally, a program is not reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease if it imposes, as a condition to obtaining a reward, an overly burdensome amount of time for participation, requires unreasonably intrusive procedures, or places significant costs related to medical examinations on employees. A program also is not reasonably designed if it exists mainly to shift costs from the covered entity to targeted employees based on their health or simply to give an employer information to estimate future health care costs.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.14(d)(2): Definition of “Voluntary”
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.14(d)(2)(i) through (iii) of this part says that participation in employee health programs that include disability-related inquiries or medical examinations (such as disability-related inquiries or medical examinations that are part of a HRA) must be voluntary in order to comply with the ADA. This means that covered entities may not require employees to participate in such programs, may not deny employees access to health coverage under any of their group health plans or particular benefits packages within a group health plan for non-participation, may not limit coverage under their health plans for such employees, except to the extent the limitation (<I>e.g.,</I> having to pay a higher deductible) may be the result of forgoing a financial incentive permissible under § 1630.14(d)(3), and may not take any other adverse action against employees who choose not to answer disability-related inquiries or undergo medical examinations. Additionally, covered entities may not retaliate against, interfere with, coerce, intimidate, or threaten employees within the meaning of Section 503 of the ADA, codified at 42 U.S.C. 12203. For example, an employer may not retaliate against an employee who declines to participate in a health program or files a charge with the EEOC concerning the program, may not coerce an employee into participating in a health program or into giving the employer access to medical information collected as part of the program, and may not threaten an employee with discipline if the employee does not participate in a health program. <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12203(a),(b); 29 CFR 1630.12.
</P>
<P>Section 1630.14(d)(2)(iv) of this part also states that for a wellness program that includes disability-related inquiries or medical examinations to be voluntary, an employer must provide employees with a notice clearly explaining what medical information will be obtained, how the medical information will be used, who will receive the medical information, the restrictions on its disclosure, and the methods the covered entity uses to prevent improper disclosure of medical information.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.14(d)(4)(i) Through (v): Confidentiality
</HD3>
<P>Paragraphs (d)(4)(i) and (ii) say that medical records developed in the course of providing voluntary health services to employees, including wellness programs, must be maintained in a confidential manner and must not be used for any purpose in violation of this part, such as limiting insurance eligibility. <I>See</I> House Labor Report at 75; House Judiciary Report at 43-44. Further, although an exception to confidentiality that tracks the language of the ADA itself states that information gathered in the course of providing employees with voluntary health services may be disclosed to managers and supervisors in connection with necessary work restrictions or accommodations, such an exception would rarely, if ever, apply to medical information collected as part of a wellness program, and sharing such information could be inconsistent with the definition of an employee health program. In addition, as described more fully below, certain disclosures that are permitted for employee health programs generally may not be permissible under the HIPAA Privacy Rule for wellness programs that are part of a group health plan without the written authorization of the individual.
</P>
<P>Section 1630.14(d)(4)(iii) says that a covered entity only may receive information collected as part of an employee health program in aggregate form that does not disclose, and is not reasonably likely to disclose, the identity of specific individuals except as is necessary to administer the plan or as permitted by § 1630.14(d)(4)(i). Notably, both employers that sponsor employee health programs and the employee health programs themselves (if they are administered by the employer or qualify as the employer's agent) are responsible for ensuring compliance with this provision.
</P>
<P>Where a wellness program is part of a group health plan, the individually identifiable health information collected from or created about participants as part of the wellness program is protected health information (PHI) under the HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules. (45 CFR parts 160 and 164.) The HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules apply to HIPAA covered entities, which include group health plans, and generally protect identifiable health information maintained by or on behalf of such entities, by among other provisions, setting limits and conditions on the uses and disclosures that may be made of such information.
</P>
<P>PHI is information, including demographic data that identifies the individual or for which there is a reasonable basis to believe it can be used to identify the individual (including, for example, address, birth date, or social security number), and that relates to: An individual's past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition; the provision of health care to the individual; or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to the individual. HIPAA covered entities may not disclose PHI to an individual's employer except in limited circumstances. For example, as discussed more fully below, an employer that sponsors a group health plan may receive PHI to administer the plan (without authorization of the individual), but only if the employer certifies to the plan that it will safeguard the information and not improperly use or share the information. <I>See Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information</I> (“Privacy Rule”), Public Law 104-191; 45 CFR part 160 and Part 164, Subparts A and E. However, there are no restrictions on the use or disclosure of health information that has been de-identified in accordance with the HIPAA Privacy Rule. Individuals may file a complaint with HHS if they believe a health plan fails to comply with privacy requirements and HHS may require corrective action or impose civil money penalties for noncompliance.
</P>
<P>A wellness program that is part of a HIPAA covered entity likely will be able to comply with its obligation under § 1630.14(d)(4)(iii) by complying with the HIPAA Privacy Rule. An employer that is a health plan sponsor and receives individually identifiable health information from or on behalf of the group health plan, as permitted by HIPAA when the plan sponsor is administering aspects of the plan, may generally satisfy its requirement to comply with § 1630.14(d)(4)(iii) by certifying to the group health plan, as provided by 45 CFR 164.504(f)(2)(ii), that it will not use or disclose the information for purposes not permitted by its plan documents and the Privacy Rule, such as for employment purposes, and abiding by that certification. Further, if an employer is not performing plan administration functions on behalf of the group health plan, it may receive aggregate information from the wellness program under § 1630.14(d)(4)(iii) only so long as the information is de-identified in accordance with the HIPAA Privacy Rule. In addition, disclosures of protected health information from the wellness program may only be made in accordance with the Privacy Rule. Thus, certain disclosures that are otherwise permitted under § 1630.14(d)(4)(i) and (ii) for employee health programs generally may not be permissible under the Privacy Rule for wellness programs that are part of a group health plan without the written authorization of the individual. For example, the ADA allows disclosures of medical information when an employee needs a reasonable accommodation or requires emergency treatment at work.
</P>
<P>Section 1630.14(d)(4)(iv) says that a covered entity may not require an employee to agree to the sale, exchange, sharing, transfer, or other disclosure of medical information (except to the extent permitted by this part to carry out specific activities related to the wellness program), or waive confidentiality protections available under the ADA as a condition for participating in a wellness program or receiving a wellness program incentive.
</P>
<P>Employers and wellness program providers must take steps to protect the confidentiality of employee medical information provided as part of an employee health program. Some of the following steps may be required by law; others may be best practices. It is critical to properly train all individuals who handle medical information about the requirements of the ADA and, as applicable, HIPAA's privacy, security, and breach requirements and any other privacy laws. Employers and program providers should have clear privacy policies and procedures related to the collection, storage, and disclosure of medical information. On-line systems and other technology should guard against unauthorized access, such as through use of encryption for medical information stored electronically. Breaches of confidentiality should be reported to affected employees immediately and should be thoroughly investigated. Employers should make clear that individuals responsible for disclosures of confidential medical information will be disciplined and should consider discontinuing relationships with vendors responsible for breaches of confidentiality.
</P>
<P>Individuals who handle medical information that is part of an employee health program should not be responsible for making decisions related to employment, such as hiring, termination, or discipline. Use of a third-party vendor that maintains strict confidentiality and data security procedures may reduce the risk that medical information will be disclosed to individuals who make employment decisions, particularly for employers whose organizational structure makes it difficult to provide adequate safeguards. If an employer uses a third-party vendor, it should be familiar with the vendor's privacy policies for ensuring the confidentiality of medical information. Employers that administer their own wellness programs need adequate firewalls in place to prevent unintended disclosure. If individuals who handle medical information obtained through a wellness program do act as decision-makers (which may be the case for a small employer that administers its own wellness program), they may not use the information to discriminate on the basis of disability in violation of the ADA.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.14(d)(5): Compliance With Other Employment Nondiscrimination Laws
</HD3>
<P>Section 1630.14(d)(5) clarifies that compliance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, including the limits on incentives applicable under the ADA, does not mean that a covered entity complies with other federal employment nondiscrimination laws, such as Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.,</I> the Equal Pay Act of 1963, 29 U.S.C. 206(d), the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, 29 U.S.C. 621 <I>et seq.,</I> Title II of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 2000ff <I>et seq.,</I> and other sections of Title I of the ADA. Thus, even though an employer's wellness program might comply with the incentive limits set out in paragraph (d)(3), the employer would violate federal nondiscrimination statutes if that program discriminates on the basis of race, sex (including pregnancy, gender identity, transgender status, and sexual orientation), color, religion, national origin, or age. Additionally, if a wellness program requirement (such as a particular blood pressure or glucose level or body mass index) disproportionately affects individuals on the basis of some protected characteristic, an employer may be able to avoid a disparate impact claim by offering and providing a reasonable alternative standard.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.14(d)(6): Inapplicability of the ADA's Safe Harbor Provision
</HD3>
<P>Finally, section 1630.14(d)(6) states that the “safe harbor” provision, set forth in section 501(c) of the ADA, 42 U.S.C. 12201(c), that allows insurers and benefit plans to classify, underwrite, and administer risks, does not apply to wellness programs, even if such programs are part of a covered entity's health plan. The safe harbor permits insurers and employers (as sponsors of health or other insurance benefits) to treat individuals differently based on disability, but only where justified according to accepted principles of risk classification (some of which became unlawful subsequent to passage of the ADA). <I>See</I> Senate Report at 85-86; House Education and Labor Report at 137-38. It does not apply simply because a covered entity asserts that it used information collected as part of a wellness program to estimate, or to try to reduce, its risks or health care costs.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.15 Defenses 
</HD2>
<P>The section on defenses in part 1630 is not intended to be exhaustive. However, it is intended to inform employers of some of the potential defenses available to a charge of discrimination under the ADA and this part.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.15(a) Disparate Treatment Defenses 
</HD3>
<P>The “traditional” defense to a charge of disparate treatment under title VII, as expressed in <I>McDonnell Douglas Corp.</I> v. <I>Green,</I> 411 U.S. 792 (1973), <I>Texas Department of Community Affairs</I> v. <I>Burdine,</I> 450 U.S. 248 (1981), and their progeny, may be applicable to charges of disparate treatment brought under the ADA. See <I>Prewitt</I> v. <I>U.S. Postal Service,</I> 662 F.2d 292 (5th Cir. 1981). Disparate treatment means, with respect to title I of the ADA, that an individual was treated differently on the basis of his or her disability. For example, disparate treatment has occurred where an employer excludes an employee with a severe facial disfigurement from staff meetings because the employer does not like to look at the employee. The individual is being treated differently because of the employer's attitude towards his or her perceived disability. Disparate treatment has also occurred where an employer has a policy of not hiring individuals with AIDS regardless of the individuals' qualifications.
</P>
<P>The crux of the defense to this type of charge is that the individual was treated differently not because of his or her disability but for a legitimate nondiscriminatory reason such as poor performance unrelated to the individual's disability. The fact that the individual's disability is not covered by the employer's current insurance plan or would cause the employer's insurance premiums or workers' compensation costs to increase, would not be a legitimate nondiscriminatory reason justifying disparate treatment of an individual with a disability. Senate Report at 85; House Labor Report at 136 and House Judiciary Report at 70. The defense of a legitimate nondiscriminatory reason is rebutted if the alleged nondiscriminatory reason is shown to be pretextual. 


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.15 (b) and (c) Disparate Impact Defenses 
</HD3>
<P>Disparate impact means, with respect to title I of the ADA and this part, that uniformly applied criteria have an adverse impact on an individual with a disability or a disproportionately negative impact on a class of individuals with disabilities. Section 1630.15(b) clarifies that an employer may use selection criteria that have such a disparate impact, <I>i.e.,</I> that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities only when they are job-related and consistent with business necessity. 
</P>
<P>For example, an employer interviews two candidates for a position, one of whom is blind. Both are equally qualified. The employer decides that while it is not essential to the job it would be convenient to have an employee who has a driver's license and so could occasionally be asked to run errands by car. The employer hires the individual who is sighted because this individual has a driver's license. This is an example of a uniformly applied criterion, having a driver's permit, that screens out an individual who has a disability that makes it impossible to obtain a driver's permit. The employer would, thus, have to show that this criterion is job-related and consistent with business necessity. See House Labor Report at 55. 
</P>
<P>However, even if the criterion is job-related and consistent with business necessity, an employer could not exclude an individual with a disability if the criterion could be met or job performance accomplished with a reasonable accommodation. For example, suppose an employer requires, as part of its application process, an interview that is job-related and consistent with business necessity. The employer would not be able to refuse to hire a hearing impaired applicant because he or she could not be interviewed. This is so because an interpreter could be provided as a reasonable accommodation that would allow the individual to be interviewed, and thus satisfy the selection criterion. 
</P>
<P>With regard to safety requirements that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities, an employer must demonstrate that the requirement, as applied to the individual, satisfies the “direct threat” standard in § 1630.2(r) in order to show that the requirement is job-related and consistent with business necessity. 
</P>
<P>Section 1630.15(c) clarifies that there may be uniformly applied standards, criteria and policies not relating to selection that may also screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or a class of individuals with disabilities. Like selection criteria that have a disparate impact, non-selection criteria having such an impact may also have to be job-related and consistent with business necessity, subject to consideration of reasonable accommodation. 
</P>
<P>It should be noted, however, that some uniformly applied employment policies or practices, such as leave policies, are not subject to challenge under the adverse impact theory. “No-leave” policies (<I>e.g.,</I> no leave during the first six months of employment) are likewise not subject to challenge under the adverse impact theory. However, an employer, in spite of its “no-leave” policy, may, in appropriate circumstances, have to consider the provision of leave to an employee with a disability as a reasonable accommodation, unless the provision of leave would impose an undue hardship. See discussion at § 1630.5 Limiting, Segregating and Classifying, and § 1630.10 Qualification Standards, Tests, and Other Selection Criteria. 


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.15(d) Defense To Not Making Reasonable Accommodation 
</HD3>
<P>An employer or other covered entity alleged to have discriminated because it did not make a reasonable accommodation, as required by this part, may offer as a defense that it would have been an undue hardship to make the accommodation. 
</P>
<P>It should be noted, however, that an employer cannot simply assert that a needed accommodation will cause it undue hardship, as defined in § 1630.2(p), and thereupon be relieved of the duty to provide accommodation. Rather, an employer will have to present evidence and demonstrate that the accommodation will, in fact, cause it undue hardship. Whether a particular accommodation will impose an undue hardship for a particular employer is determined on a case by case basis. Consequently, an accommodation that poses an undue hardship for one employer at a particular time may not pose an undue hardship for another employer, or even for the same employer at another time. Likewise, an accommodation that poses an undue hardship for one employer in a particular job setting, such as a temporary construction worksite, may not pose an undue hardship for another employer, or even for the same employer at a permanent worksite. See House Judiciary Report at 42.
</P>
<P>The concept of undue hardship that has evolved under section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act and is embodied in this part is unlike the “undue hardship” defense associated with the provision of religious accommodation under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. To demonstrate undue hardship pursuant to the ADA and this part, an employer must show substantially more difficulty or expense than would be needed to satisfy the “de minimis” title VII standard of undue hardship. For example, to demonstrate that the cost of an accommodation poses an undue hardship, an employer would have to show that the cost is undue as compared to the employer's budget. Simply comparing the cost of the accommodation to the salary of the individual with a disability in need of the accommodation will not suffice. Moreover, even if it is determined that the cost of an accommodation would unduly burden an employer, the employer cannot avoid making the accommodation if the individual with a disability can arrange to cover that portion of the cost that rises to the undue hardship level, or can otherwise arrange to provide the accommodation. Under such circumstances, the necessary accommodation would no longer pose an undue hardship. See Senate Report at 36; House Labor Report at 68-69; House Judiciary Report at 40-41.
</P>
<P>Excessive cost is only one of several possible bases upon which an employer might be able to demonstrate undue hardship. Alternatively, for example, an employer could demonstrate that the provision of a particular accommodation would be unduly disruptive to its other employees or to the functioning of its business. The terms of a collective bargaining agreement may be relevant to this determination. By way of illustration, an employer would likely be able to show undue hardship if the employer could show that the requested accommodation of the upward adjustment of the business' thermostat would result in it becoming unduly hot for its other employees, or for its patrons or customers. The employer would thus not have to provide this accommodation. However, if there were an alternate accommodation that would not result in undue hardship, the employer would have to provide that accommodation.
</P>
<P>It should be noted, moreover, that the employer would not be able to show undue hardship if the disruption to its employees were the result of those employees fears or prejudices toward the individual's disability and not the result of the provision of the accommodation. Nor would the employer be able to demonstrate undue hardship by showing that the provision of the accommodation has a negative impact on the morale of its other employees but not on the ability of these employees to perform their jobs.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.15(e) Defense—Conflicting Federal Laws and Regulations 
</HD3>
<P>There are several Federal laws and regulations that address medical standards and safety requirements. If the alleged discriminatory action was taken in compliance with another Federal law or regulation, the employer may offer its obligation to comply with the conflicting standard as a defense. The employer's defense of a conflicting Federal requirement or regulation may be rebutted by a showing of pretext, or by showing that the Federal standard did not require the discriminatory action, or that there was a nonexclusionary means to comply with the standard that would not conflict with this part. See House Labor Report at 74.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.15(f) Claims Based on Transitory and Minor Impairments Under the “Regarded As” Prong
</HD3>
<P>It may be a defense to a charge of discrimination where coverage would be shown solely under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability that the impairment is (in the case of an actual impairment) or would be (in the case of a perceived impairment) both transitory and minor. Section 1630.15(f)(1) explains that an individual cannot be “regarded as having such an impairment” if the impairment is both transitory (defined by the ADAAA as lasting or expected to last less than six months) and minor. Section 1630.15(f)(2) explains that the determination of “transitory and minor” is made objectively. For example, an individual who is denied a promotion because he has a minor back injury would be “regarded as” an individual with a disability if the back impairment lasted or was expected to last more than six months. Although minor, the impairment is not transitory. Similarly, if an employer discriminates against an employee based on the employee's bipolar disorder (an impairment that is not transitory and minor), the employee is “regarded as” having a disability even if the employer subjectively believes that the employee's disorder is transitory and minor.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1630.16 Specific Activities Permitted 


</HD2>
<HD3>Section 1630.16(a) Religious Entities 
</HD3>
<P>Religious organizations are not exempt from title I of the ADA or this part. A religious corporation, association, educational institution, or society may give a preference in employment to individuals of the particular religion, and may require that applicants and employees conform to the religious tenets of the organization. However, a religious organization may not discriminate against an individual who satisfies the permitted religious criteria because that individual is disabled. The religious entity, in other words, is required to consider individuals with disabilities who are qualified and who satisfy the permitted religious criteria on an equal basis with qualified individuals without disabilities who similarly satisfy the religious criteria. See Senate Report at 42; House Labor Report at 76-77; House Judiciary Report at 46.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.16(b) Regulation of Alcohol and Drugs 
</HD3>
<P>This provision permits employers to establish or comply with certain standards regulating the use of drugs and alcohol in the workplace. It also allows employers to hold alcoholics and persons who engage in the illegal use of drugs to the same performance and conduct standards to which it holds all of its other employees. Individuals disabled by alcoholism are entitled to the same protections accorded other individuals with disabilities under this part. As noted above, individuals currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs are not individuals with disabilities for purposes of part 1630 when the employer acts on the basis of such use.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.16(c) Drug Testing 
</HD3>
<P>This provision reflects title I's neutrality toward testing for the illegal use of drugs. Such drug tests are neither encouraged, authorized nor prohibited. The results of such drug tests may be used as a basis for disciplinary action. Tests for the illegal use of drugs are not considered medical examinations for purposes of this part. If the results reveal information about an individual's medical condition beyond whether the individual is currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs, this additional information is to be treated as a confidential medical record. For example, if a test for the illegal use of drugs reveals the presence of a controlled substance that has been lawfully prescribed for a particular medical condition, this information is to be treated as a confidential medical record. See House Labor Report at 79; House Judiciary Report at 47.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.16(e) Infectious and Communicable Diseases; Food Handling Jobs 
</HD3>
<P>This provision addressing food handling jobs applies the “direct threat” analysis to the particular situation of accommodating individuals with infectious or communicable diseases that are transmitted through the handling of food. The Department of Health and Human Services is to prepare a list of infectious and communicable diseases that are transmitted through the handling of food. If an individual with a disability has one of the listed diseases and works in or applies for a position in food handling, the employer must determine whether there is a reasonable accommodation that will eliminate the risk of transmitting the disease through the handling of food. If there is an accommodation that will not pose an undue hardship, and that will prevent the transmission of the disease through the handling of food, the employer must provide the accommodation to the individual. The employer, under these circumstances, would not be permitted to discriminate against the individual because of the need to provide the reasonable accommodation and would be required to maintain the individual in the food handling job.
</P>
<P>If no such reasonable accommodation is possible, the employer may refuse to assign, or to continue to assign the individual to a position involving food handling. This means that if such an individual is an applicant for a food handling position the employer is not required to hire the individual. However, if the individual is a current employee, the employer would be required to consider the accommodation of reassignment to a vacant position not involving food handling for which the individual is qualified. Conference Report at 61-63. (See § 1630.2(r) Direct Threat).


</P>
<HD3>Section 1630.16(f) Health Insurance, Life Insurance, and Other Benefit Plans 
</HD3>
<P>This provision is a limited exemption that is only applicable to those who establish, sponsor, observe or administer benefit plans, such as health and life insurance plans. It does not apply to those who establish, sponsor, observe or administer plans not involving benefits, such as liability insurance plans.
</P>
<P>The purpose of this provision is to permit the development and administration of benefit plans in accordance with accepted principles of risk assessment. This provision is not intended to disrupt the current regulatory structure for self-insured employers. These employers may establish, sponsor, observe, or administer the terms of a bona fide benefit plan not subject to State laws that regulate insurance. This provision is also not intended to disrupt the current nature of insurance underwriting, or current insurance industry practices in sales, underwriting, pricing, administrative and other services, claims and similar insurance related activities based on classification of risks as regulated by the States.
</P>
<P>The activities permitted by this provision do not violate part 1630 even if they result in limitations on individuals with disabilities, provided that these activities are not used as a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this part. Whether or not these activities are being used as a subterfuge is to be determined without regard to the date the insurance plan or employee benefit plan was adopted.
</P>
<P>However, an employer or other covered entity cannot deny an individual with a disability who is qualified equal access to insurance or subject an individual with a disability who is qualified to different terms or conditions of insurance based on disability alone, if the disability does not pose increased risks. Part 1630 requires that decisions not based on risk classification be made in conformity with non-discrimination requirements. See Senate Report at 84-86; House Labor Report at 136-138; House Judiciary Report at 70-71. See the discussion of § 1630.5 Limiting, Segregating and Classifying.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 35734, July 26, 1991, as amended at 65 FR 36327, June 8, 2000; 76 FR 17003, Mar. 25, 2011; 81 FR 31140, May 17, 2016; 89 FR 55521, July 5, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1635" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1635—GENETIC INFORMATION NONDISCRIMINATION ACT OF 2008
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>110 Stat. 233; 42 U.S.C. 2000ff.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 68932, Nov. 9, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1635.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to implement Title II of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 2000ff, <I>et seq.</I> Title II of GINA:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibits use of genetic information in employment decision-making;
</P>
<P>(2) Restricts employers and other entities subject to Title II of GINA from requesting, requiring, or purchasing genetic information;
</P>
<P>(3) Requires that genetic information be maintained as a confidential medical record, and places strict limits on disclosure of genetic information; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provides remedies for individuals whose genetic information is acquired, used, or disclosed in violation of its protections.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to actions of covered entities that do not pertain to an individual's status as an employee, member of a labor organization, or participant in an apprenticeship program. For example, this part would not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) A medical examination of an individual for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment unrelated to employment, which is conducted by a health care professional at the hospital or other health care facility where the individual is an employee; or
</P>
<P>(2) Activities of a covered entity carried on in its capacity as a law enforcement agency investigating criminal conduct, even where the subject of the investigation is an employee of the covered entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.2   Definitions—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commission</I> means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, as established by section 705 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered Entity</I> means an employer, employing office, employment agency, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee</I> means an individual employed by a covered entity, as well as an applicant for employment and a former employee. An employee, including an applicant for employment and a former employee, is:
</P>
<P>(1) As defined by section 701 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e, an individual employed by a person engaged in an industry affecting commerce who has fifteen or more employees for each working day in each of twenty or more calendar weeks in the current or preceding calendar year and any agent of such a person;
</P>
<P>(2) As defined by section 304(a) of the Government Employee Rights Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16c(a), a person chosen or appointed by an individual elected to public office by a State or political subdivision of a State to serve as part of the personal staff of the elected official, to serve the elected official on a policy-making level, or to serve the elected official as the immediate advisor on the exercise of the elected official's constitutional or legal powers.
</P>
<P>(3) As defined by section 101 of the Congressional Accountability Act, 2 U.S.C. 1301, any employee of the House of Representatives, the Senate, the Capitol Guide Service, the Capitol Police, the Congressional Budget Office, the Office of the Architect of the Capitol, the Office of the Attending Physician, the Office of Compliance, or the Office of Technology Assessment;
</P>
<P>(4) As defined by, and subject to the limitations in, section 2(a) of the Presidential and Executive Office Accountability Act, 3 U.S.C. 411(c), any employee of the executive branch not otherwise covered by section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16, section 15 of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, 29 U.S.C. 633a, or section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 791, whether appointed by the President or any other appointing authority in the executive branch, including an employee of the Executive Office of the President;
</P>
<P>(5) As defined by, and subject to the limitations in, section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16, and regulations of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission at 29 CFR 1614.103, an employee of a federal executive agency, the United States Postal Service and the Postal Rate Commission, the Tennessee Valley Authority, the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Commissioned Corps, the Government Printing Office, and the Smithsonian Institution; an employee of the federal judicial branch having a position in the competitive service; and an employee of the Library of Congress.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employer</I> means any person that employs an employee defined in § 1635.2(c) of this part, and any agent of such person, except that, as limited by section 701(b)(1) and (2) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e(b)(1) and (2), an employer does not include an Indian tribe, or a bona fide private club (other than a labor organization) that is exempt from taxation under section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employing office</I> is defined in the Congressional Accountability Act, 2 U.S.C. 1301(9), to mean the personal office of a Member of the House of Representatives or of a Senator; a committee of the House of Representatives or the Senate or a joint committee; any other office headed by a person with the final authority to appoint, hire, discharge, and set the terms, conditions, or privileges of the employment of an employee of the House of Representatives or the Senate; or the Capitol Guide Board, the Capitol Police Board, the Congressional Budget Office, the Office of the Architect of the Capitol, the Office of the Attending Physician, the Office of Compliance, and the Office of Technology Assessment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employment agency</I> is defined in 42 U.S.C. 2000e(c) to mean any person regularly undertaking with or without compensation to procure employees for an employer or to procure for employees opportunities to work for an employer and includes an agent of such a person.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Joint labor-management committee</I> is defined as an entity that controls apprenticeship or other training or retraining programs, including on-the-job training programs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Labor organization</I> is defined at 42 U.S.C. 2000e(d) to mean an organization with fifteen or more members engaged in an industry affecting commerce, and any agent of such an organization in which employees participate and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours, or other terms or conditions of employment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Member</I> includes, with respect to a labor organization, an applicant for membership.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Person</I> is defined at 42 U.S.C. 2000e(a) to mean one or more individuals, governments, governmental agencies, political subdivisions, labor unions, partnerships, associations, corporations, legal representatives, mutual companies, joint-stock companies, trusts, unincorporated organizations, trustees, trustees in cases under title 11, or receivers.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>State</I> is defined at 42 U.S.C. 2000e(i) and includes a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Canal Zone, and Outer Continental Shelf lands defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (43 U.S.C. 1331 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.3   Definitions specific to GINA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Family member</I> means with respect to any individual:
</P>
<P>(1) A person who is a dependent of that individual as the result of marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption; or
</P>
<P>(2) A first-degree, second-degree, third-degree, or fourth-degree relative of the individual, or of a dependent of the individual as defined in § 1635.3(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(i) First-degree relatives include an individual's parents, siblings, and children.
</P>
<P>(ii) Second-degree relatives include an individual's grandparents, grandchildren, uncles, aunts, nephews, nieces, and half-siblings.
</P>
<P>(iii) Third-degree relatives include an individual's great-grandparents, great grandchildren, great uncles/aunts, and first cousins.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fourth-degree relatives include an individual's great-great-grandparents, great-great-grandchildren, and first cousins once-removed (i.e., the children of the individual's first cousins).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Family medical history.</I> Family medical history means information about the manifestation of disease or disorder in family members of the individual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Genetic information.</I> (1) Genetic information means information about:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual's genetic tests;
</P>
<P>(ii) The genetic tests of that individual's family members;
</P>
<P>(iii) The manifestation of disease or disorder in family members of the individual (family medical history);
</P>
<P>(iv) An individual's request for, or receipt of, genetic services, or the participation in clinical research that includes genetic services by the individual or a family member of the individual; or
</P>
<P>(v) The genetic information of a fetus carried by an individual or by a pregnant woman who is a family member of the individual and the genetic information of any embryo legally held by the individual or family member using an assisted reproductive technology.
</P>
<P>(2) Genetic information does not include information about the sex or age of the individual, the sex or age of family members, or information about the race or ethnicity of the individual or family members that is not derived from a genetic test.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Genetic monitoring</I> means the periodic examination of employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased occurrence of mutations, caused by the toxic substances they use or are exposed to in performing their jobs, in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to the effects of, or to control adverse environmental exposures in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Genetic services.</I> Genetic services means a genetic test, genetic counseling (including obtaining, interpreting, or assessing genetic information), or genetic education.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Genetic test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> “Genetic test” means an analysis of human DNA, RNA, chromosomes, proteins, or metabolites that detects genotypes, mutations, or chromosomal changes.
</P>
<P>(2) Genetic tests include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) A test to determine whether someone has the BRCA1 or BRCA2 variant evidencing a predisposition to breast cancer, a test to determine whether someone has a genetic variant associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, and a test for a genetic variant for Huntington's Disease;
</P>
<P>(ii) Carrier screening for adults using genetic analysis to determine the risk of conditions such as cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, spinal muscular atrophy, or fragile X syndrome in future offspring;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amniocentesis and other evaluations used to determine the presence of genetic abnormalities in a fetus during pregnancy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Newborn screening analysis that uses DNA, RNA, protein, or metabolite analysis to detect or indicate genotypes, mutations, or chromosomal changes, such as a test for PKU performed so that treatment can begin before a disease manifests;
</P>
<P>(v) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis performed on embryos created using invitro fertilization;
</P>
<P>(vi) Pharmacogenetic tests that detect genotypes, mutations, or chromosomal changes that indicate how an individual will react to a drug or a particular dosage of a drug;
</P>
<P>(vii) DNA testing to detect genetic markers that are associated with information about ancestry; and
</P>
<P>(viii) DNA testing that reveals family relationships, such as paternity.
</P>
<P>(3) The following are examples of tests or procedures that are not genetic tests:
</P>
<P>(i) An analysis of proteins or metabolites that does not detect genotypes, mutations, or chromosomal changes;
</P>
<P>(ii) A medical examination that tests for the presence of a virus that is not composed of human DNA, RNA, chromosomes, proteins, or metabolites;
</P>
<P>(iii) A test for infectious and communicable diseases that may be transmitted through food handling;
</P>
<P>(iv) Complete blood counts, cholesterol tests, and liver-function tests.
</P>
<P>(4) Alcohol and Drug Testing—
</P>
<P>(i) A test for the presence of alcohol or illegal drugs is not a genetic test.
</P>
<P>(ii) A test to determine whether an individual has a genetic predisposition for alcoholism or drug use is a genetic test.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Manifestation</I> or <I>manifested</I> means, with respect to a disease, disorder, or pathological condition, that an individual has been or could reasonably be diagnosed with the disease, disorder, or pathological condition by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved. For purposes of this part, a disease, disorder, or pathological condition is not manifested if the diagnosis is based principally on genetic information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.4   Prohibited practices—in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is unlawful for an employer to discriminate against an individual on the basis of the genetic information of the individual in regard to hiring, discharge, compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment.
</P>
<P>(b) It is unlawful for an employment agency to fail or refuse to refer any individual for employment or otherwise discriminate against any individual because of genetic information of the individual.
</P>
<P>(c) It is unlawful for a labor organization to exclude or to expel from the membership of the organization, or otherwise to discriminate against, any member because of genetic information with respect to the member.
</P>
<P>(d) It is an unlawful employment practice for any employer, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee controlling apprenticeship or other training or retraining programs, including on-the-job training programs to discriminate against any individual because of the individual's genetic information in admission to, or employment in, any program established to provide apprenticeship or other training or retraining.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.5   Limiting, segregating, and classifying.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered entity may not limit, segregate, or classify an individual, or fail or refuse to refer for employment any individual, in any way that would deprive or tend to deprive the individual of employment opportunities or otherwise affect the status of the individual as an employee, because of genetic information with respect to the individual. A covered entity will not be deemed to have violated this section if it limits or restricts an employee's job duties based on genetic information because it was required to do so by a law or regulation mandating genetic monitoring, such as regulations administered by the Occupational and Safety Health Administration (OSHA). See 1635.8(b)(5) and 1635.11(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding any language in this part, a cause of action for disparate impact within the meaning of section 703(k) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-2(k), is not available under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.6   Causing a covered entity to discriminate.</HEAD>
<P>A covered entity may not cause or attempt to cause another covered entity, or its agent, to discriminate against an individual in violation of this part, including with respect to the individual's participation in an apprenticeship or other training or retraining program, or with respect to a member's participation in a labor organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.7   Retaliation.</HEAD>
<P>A covered entity may not discriminate against any individual because such individual has opposed any act or practice made unlawful by this title or because such individual made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.8   Acquisition of genetic information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General prohibition.</I> A covered entity may not request, require, or purchase genetic information of an individual or family member of the individual, except as specifically provided in paragraph (b) of this section. “Request” includes conducting an Internet search on an individual in a way that is likely to result in a covered entity obtaining genetic information; actively listening to third-party conversations or searching an individual's personal effects for the purpose of obtaining genetic information; and making requests for information about an individual's current health status in a way that is likely to result in a covered entity obtaining genetic information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The general prohibition against requesting, requiring, or purchasing genetic information does not apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Where a covered entity inadvertently requests or requires genetic information of the individual or family member of the individual.
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for Medical Information:
</P>
<P>(A) If a covered entity acquires genetic information in response to a lawful request for medical information, the acquisition of genetic information will not generally be considered inadvertent unless the covered entity directs the individual and/or health care provider from whom it requested medical information (in writing, or verbally, where the covered entity does not typically make requests for medical information in writing) not to provide genetic information.
</P>
<P>(B) If a covered entity uses language such as the following, any receipt of genetic information in response to the request for medical information will be deemed inadvertent: “The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA) prohibits employers and other entities covered by GINA Title II from requesting or requiring genetic information of an individual or family member of the individual, except as specifically allowed by this law. To comply with this law, we are asking that you not provide any genetic information when responding to this request for medical information. ‘Genetic information' as defined by GINA, includes an individual's family medical history, the results of an individual's or family member's genetic tests, the fact that an individual or an individual's family member sought or received genetic services, and genetic information of a fetus carried by an individual or an individual's family member or an embryo lawfully held by an individual or family member receiving assistive reproductive services.”
</P>
<P>(C) A covered entity's failure to give such a notice or to use this or similar language will not prevent it from establishing that a particular receipt of genetic information was inadvertent if its request for medical information was not “likely to result in a covered entity obtaining genetic information” (for example, where an overly broad response is received in response to a tailored request for medical information).
</P>
<P>(D) Situations to which the requirements of subsection (b)(1)(i) apply include, but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Where a covered entity requests documentation to support a request for reasonable accommodation under Federal, State, or local law, as long as the covered entity's request for such documentation is lawful. A request for documentation supporting a request for reasonable accommodation is lawful only when the disability and/or the need for accommodation is not obvious; the documentation is no more than is sufficient to establish that an individual has a disability and needs a reasonable accommodation; and the documentation relates only to the impairment that the individual claims to be a disability that requires reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where an employer requests medical information from an individual as required, authorized, or permitted by Federal, State, or local law, such as where an employee requests leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) to attend to the employee's own serious health condition or where an employee complies with the FMLA's employee return to work certification requirements; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where a covered entity requests documentation to support a request for leave that is not governed by Federal, State, or local laws requiring leave, as long as the documentation required to support the request otherwise complies with the requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act and other laws limiting a covered entity's access to medical information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The exception for inadvertent acquisition of genetic information also applies in, but is not necessarily limited to, situations where—
</P>
<P>(A) A manager, supervisor, union representative, or employment agency representative learns genetic information about an individual by overhearing a conversation between the individual and others;
</P>
<P>(B) A manager, supervisor, union representative, or employment agency representative learns genetic information about an individual by receiving it from the individual or third-parties during a casual conversation, including in response to an ordinary expression of concern that is the subject of the conversation. For example, the exception applies when the covered entity, acting through a supervisor or other official, receives family medical history directly from an individual following a general health inquiry (e.g., “How are you?” or “Did they catch it early?” asked of an employee who was just diagnosed with cancer) or a question as to whether the individual has a manifested condition. Similarly, a casual question between colleagues, or between a supervisor and subordinate, concerning the general well-being of a parent or child would not violate GINA (<I>e.g.,</I> “How's your son feeling today?”, “Did they catch it early?” asked of an employee whose family member was just diagnosed with cancer, or “Will your daughter be OK?”). However, this exception does not apply where an employer follows up a question concerning a family member's general health with questions that are probing in nature, such as whether other family members have the condition, or whether the individual has been tested for the condition, because the covered entity should know that these questions are likely to result in the acquisition of genetic information;
</P>
<P>(C) A manager, supervisor, union representative, or employment agency representative learns genetic information from the individual or a third-party without having solicited or sought the information (<I>e.g.,</I> where a manager or supervisor receives an unsolicited email about the health of an employee's family member from a co-worker); or
</P>
<P>(D) A manager, supervisor, union representative, or employment agency representative inadvertently learns genetic information from a social media platform which he or she was given permission to access by the creator of the profile at issue (<I>e.g.,</I> a supervisor and employee are connected on a social networking site and the employee provides family medical history on his page).
</P>
<P>(2) Where a covered entity offers health or genetic services, including such services offered as part of a voluntary wellness program.
</P>
<P>(i) This exception applies only where—
</P>
<P>(A) The health or genetic services, including any acquisition of genetic information that is part of those services, are reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. A program satisfies this standard if it has a reasonable chance of improving the health of, or preventing disease in, participating individuals, and it is not overly burdensome, is not a subterfuge for violating Title II of GINA or other laws prohibiting employment discrimination, and is not highly suspect in the method chosen to promote health or prevent disease. A program is not reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease if it imposes a penalty or disadvantage on an individual because a spouse's manifestation of disease or disorder prevents or inhibits the spouse from participating or from achieving a certain health outcome. For example, an employer may not deny an employee an inducement for participation of either the employee or the spouse in an employer-sponsored wellness program because the employee's spouse has blood pressure, a cholesterol level, or a blood glucose level that the employer considers too high. In addition, a program consisting of a measurement, test, screening, or collection of health-related information without providing participants with results, follow-up information, or advice designed to improve the participant's health is not reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease, unless the collected information actually is used to design a program that addresses at least a subset of conditions identified. Whether health or genetic services are reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease is evaluated in light of all the relevant facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(B) The provision of genetic information by the individual is voluntary, meaning the covered entity neither requires the individual to provide genetic information nor penalizes those who choose not to provide it;
</P>
<P>(C) The individual provides prior knowing, voluntary, and written authorization, which may include authorization in electronic format. This requirement is only met if the covered entity uses an authorization form that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is written so that the individual from whom the genetic information is being obtained is reasonably likely to understand it;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Describes the type of genetic information that will be obtained and the general purposes for which it will be used; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Describes the restrictions on disclosure of genetic information;
</P>
<P>(D) Individually identifiable genetic information is provided only to the individual (or family member if the family member is receiving genetic services) and the licensed health care professionals or board certified genetic counselors involved in providing such services, and is not accessible to managers, supervisors, or others who make employment decisions, or to anyone else in the workplace; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any individually identifiable genetic information provided under paragraph (b)(2) of this section is only available for purposes of such services and is not disclosed to the covered entity except in aggregate terms that do not disclose the identity of specific individuals (a covered entity will not violate the requirement that it receive information only in aggregate terms if it receives information that, for reasons outside the control of the provider or the covered entity (such as the small number of participants), makes the genetic information of a particular individual readily identifiable with no effort on the covered entity's part).
</P>
<P>(ii) Consistent with, and in addition to, the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, a covered entity may not offer an inducement (financial or in-kind), whether in the form of a reward or penalty, for individuals to provide genetic information, except as described in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) and (iv) of this section, but may offer inducements for completion of health risk assessments that include questions about family medical history or other genetic information, provided the covered entity makes clear, in language reasonably likely to be understood by those completing the health risk assessment, that the inducement will be made available whether or not the participant answers questions regarding genetic information.
</P>
<P>(A) A covered entity offers $150 to employees who complete a health risk assessment with 100 questions, the last 20 of them concerning family medical history and other genetic information. The instructions for completing the health risk assessment make clear that the inducement will be provided to all employees who respond to the first 80 questions, whether or not the remaining 20 questions concerning family medical history and other genetic information are answered. This health risk assessment does not violate Title II of GINA.
</P>
<P>(B) Same facts as the previous example, except that the instructions do not indicate which questions request genetic information; nor does the assessment otherwise make clear which questions must be answered in order to obtain the inducement. This health risk assessment violates Title II of GINA.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) A covered entity may not, however, condition participation in an employer-sponsored wellness program or provide any inducement to an employee, or the spouse or other covered dependent of the employee, in exchange for an agreement permitting the sale, exchange, sharing, transfer, or other disclosure of genetic information, including information about the manifestation of disease or disorder of an employee's family member (except to the extent permitted by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D)) of this section, or otherwise waiving the protections of § 1635.9.
</P>
<P>(v) A covered entity may not deny access to health insurance or any package of health insurance benefits to an employee, or the spouse or other covered dependent of the employee, or retaliate against an employee, due to a spouse's refusal to provide information about his or her manifestation of disease or disorder to an employer-sponsored wellness program.
</P>
<P>(vi) A covered entity may offer financial inducements to encourage individuals who have voluntarily provided genetic information (<I>e.g.,</I> family medical history) that indicates that they are at increased risk of acquiring a health condition in the future to participate in disease management programs or other programs that promote healthy lifestyles, and/or to meet particular health goals as part of a health or genetic service. However, to comply with Title II of GINA, these programs must also be offered to individuals with current health conditions and/or to individuals whose lifestyle choices put them at increased risk of developing a condition. For example:
</P>
<P>(A) Employees who voluntarily disclose a family medical history of diabetes, heart disease, or high blood pressure on a health risk assessment that meets the requirements of (b)(2)(ii) of this section and employees who have a current diagnosis of one or more of these conditions are offered $150 to participate in a wellness program designed to encourage weight loss and a healthy lifestyle. This does not violate Title II of GINA.
</P>
<P>(B) The program in the previous example offers an additional inducement to individuals who achieve certain health outcomes. Participants may earn points toward “prizes” totaling $150 in a single year for lowering their blood pressure, glucose, and cholesterol levels, or for losing weight. This inducement would not violate Title II of GINA.
</P>
<P>(vii) Nothing contained in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) through (v) of this section limits the rights or protections of an individual under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), as amended, or other applicable civil rights laws, or under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), as amended by GINA. For example, if an employer offers an inducement for participation in disease management programs or other programs that promote healthy lifestyles and/or require individuals to meet particular health goals, the employer must make reasonable accommodations to the extent required by the ADA; that is, the employer must make modifications or adjustments that enable a covered entity's employee with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment as are enjoyed by its other similarly situated employees without disabilities unless such covered entity can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its business. <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(o)(1)(iii) and 29 CFR 1630.9(a). In addition, if the employer's wellness program provides (directly, through reimbursement, or otherwise) medical care (including genetic counseling), the program may constitute a group health plan and must comply with the special requirements for employer-sponsored wellness programs that condition rewards on an individual satisfying a standard related to a health factor, including the requirement to provide an individual with a reasonable alternative (or waiver of the otherwise applicable standard) under HIPAA, when it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to satisfy or medically inadvisable to attempt to satisfy the otherwise applicable standard. <I>See</I> section 9802 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 9802, 26 CFR 54.9802-1 and 54.9802-3T), section 702 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1182, 29 CFR 2590.702 and 2590.702-1), and section 2705 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act (45 CFR 146.121, 146.122, and 147.110), as amended by section 1201 of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the covered entity requests family medical history to comply with the certification provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) or State or local family and medical leave laws, or pursuant to a policy (even in the absence of requirements of Federal, State, or local leave laws) that permits the use of leave to care for a sick family member and that requires all employees to provide information about the health condition of the family member to substantiate the need for leave.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the covered entity acquires genetic information from documents that are commercially and publicly available for review or purchase, including newspapers, magazines, periodicals, or books, or through electronic media, such as information communicated through television, movies, or the Internet, except that this exception does not apply—
</P>
<P>(i) To medical databases, court records, or research databases available to scientists on a restricted basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) To genetic information acquired through sources with limited access, such as social networking sites and other media sources which require permission to access from a specific individual or where access is conditioned on membership in a particular group, unless the covered entity can show that access is routinely granted to all who request it;
</P>
<P>(iii) To genetic information obtained through commercially and publicly available sources if the covered entity sought access to those sources with the intent of obtaining genetic information; or
</P>
<P>(iv) To genetic information obtained through media sources, whether or not commercially and publicly available, if the covered entity is likely to acquire genetic information by accessing those sources, such as Web sites and on-line discussion groups that focus on issues such as genetic testing of individuals and genetic discrimination.
</P>
<P>(5) Where the covered entity acquires genetic information for use in the genetic monitoring of the biological effects of toxic substances in the workplace. In order for this exception to apply, the covered entity must provide written notice of the monitoring to the individual and the individual must be informed of the individual monitoring results. The covered entity may not retaliate or otherwise discriminate against an individual due to his or her refusal to participate in genetic monitoring that is not required by federal or state law. This exception further provides that such monitoring:
</P>
<P>(i) Is either required by federal or state law or regulation, or is conducted only where the individual gives prior knowing, voluntary and written authorization. The requirement for individual authorization is only met if the covered entity uses an authorization form that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is written so that the individual from whom the genetic information is being obtained is reasonably likely to understand the form;
</P>
<P>(B) Describes the genetic information that will be obtained; and
</P>
<P>(C) Describes the restrictions on disclosure of genetic information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is conducted in compliance with any Federal genetic monitoring regulations, including any regulations that may be promulgated by the Secretary of Labor pursuant to the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I>), or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>); or State genetic monitoring regulations, in the case of a State that is implementing genetic monitoring regulations under the authority of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for reporting of the results of the monitoring to the covered entity, excluding any licensed health care professional or board certified genetic counselor involved in the genetic monitoring program, only in aggregate terms that do not disclose the identity of specific individuals.
</P>
<P>(6) Where an employer conducts DNA analysis for law enforcement purposes as a forensic laboratory or for purposes of human remains identification and requests or requires genetic information of its employees, apprentices, or trainees, but only to the extent that the genetic information is used for analysis of DNA identification markers for quality control to detect sample contamination and is maintained and disclosed in a manner consistent with such use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inquiries Made of Family Members Concerning a Manifested Disease, Disorder, or Pathological Condition.</I> (1) A covered entity does not violate this section when it requests, requires, or purchases information about a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition of an employee, member, or apprenticeship program participant whose family member is an employee for the same employer, a member of the same labor organization, or a participant in the same apprenticeship program. For example, an employer will not violate this section by asking someone whose sister also works for the employer to take a post-offer medical examination that does not include requests for genetic information.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered entity does not violate this section when it requests, requires, or purchases genetic information or information about the manifestation of a disease, disorder, or pathological condition of an individual's family member who is receiving health or genetic services on a voluntary basis, as long as the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including those concerning authorization and inducements, are met. For example, an employer does not unlawfully acquire genetic information about an employee when it asks the employee's family member who is receiving health services from the employer if her diabetes is under control. Nor does an employer unlawfully acquire genetic information about an employee when it seeks information—through a medical questionnaire, a medical examination, or both—about the manifestation of disease, disorder, or pathological condition of the employee's family member who is completing a health risk assessment on a voluntary basis in connection with the family member's receipt of health or genetic services (including health or genetic services provided as part of an employer-sponsored wellness program) offered by the employer in compliance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Medical examinations related to employment.</I> The prohibition on acquisition of genetic information, including family medical history, applies to medical examinations related to employment. A covered entity must tell health care providers not to collect genetic information, including family medical history, as part of a medical examination intended to determine the ability to perform a job, and must take additional reasonable measures within its control if it learns that genetic information is being requested or required. Such reasonable measures may depend on the facts and circumstances under which a request for genetic information was made, and may include no longer using the services of a health care professional who continues to request or require genetic information during medical examinations after being informed not to do so.
</P>
<P>(e) A covered entity may not use genetic information obtained pursuant to subparagraphs (b) or (c) of this section to discriminate, as defined by §§ 1635.4, 1635.5, or 1635.6, and must keep such information confidential as required by § 1635.9.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 68932, Nov. 9, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 31157, May 17, 2016; 83 FR 65297, Dec. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.9   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of genetic information.</I> (1) A covered entity that possesses genetic information in writing about an employee or member must maintain such information on forms and in medical files (including where the information exists in electronic forms and files) that are separate from personnel files and treat such information as a confidential medical record.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered entity may maintain genetic information about an employee or member in the same file in which it maintains confidential medical information subject to section 102(d)(3)(B) of the Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 U.S.C. 12112(d)(3)(B).
</P>
<P>(3) Genetic information that a covered entity receives orally need not be reduced to writing, but may not be disclosed, except as permitted by this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Genetic information that a covered entity acquires through sources that are commercially and publicly available, as provided by, and subject to the limitations in, 1635.8(b)(4) of this part, is not considered confidential genetic information, but may not be used to discriminate against an individual as described in §§ 1635.4, 1635.5, or 1635.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Genetic information placed in personnel files prior to November 21, 2009 need not be removed and a covered entity will not be liable under this part for the mere existence of the information in the file. However, the prohibitions on use and disclosure of genetic information apply to all genetic information that meets the statutory definition, including genetic information requested, required, or purchased prior to November 21, 2009.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions to limitations on disclosure.</I> A covered entity that possesses any genetic information, regardless of how the entity obtained the information (except for genetic information acquired through commercially and publicly available sources), may not disclose it except:
</P>
<P>(1) To the employee or member (or family member if the family member is receiving the genetic services) about whom the information pertains upon receipt of the employee's or member's written request;
</P>
<P>(2) To an occupational or other health researcher if the research is conducted in compliance with the regulations and protections provided for under 45 CFR part 46;
</P>
<P>(3) In response to an order of a court, except that the covered entity may disclose only the genetic information expressly authorized by such order; and if the court order was secured without the knowledge of the employee or member to whom the information refers, the covered entity shall inform the employee or member of the court order and any genetic information that was disclosed pursuant to such order;
</P>
<P>(4) To government officials investigating compliance with this title if the information is relevant to the investigation;
</P>
<P>(5) To the extent that such disclosure is made in support of an employee's compliance with the certification provisions of section 103 of the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2613) or such requirements under State family and medical leave laws; or
</P>
<P>(6) To a Federal, State, or local public health agency only with regard to information about the manifestation of a disease or disorder that concerns a contagious disease that presents an imminent hazard of death or life-threatening illness, provided that the individual whose family member is the subject of the disclosure is notified of such disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relationship to HIPAA Privacy Regulations.</I> Pursuant to § 1635.11(d) of this part, nothing in this section shall be construed as applying to the use or disclosure of genetic information that is protected health information subject to the regulations issued pursuant to section 264(c) of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.10   Enforcement and remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Powers and procedures:</I> The following powers and procedures shall apply to allegations that Title II of GINA has been violated:
</P>
<P>(1) The powers and procedures provided to the Commission, the Attorney General, or any person by sections 705 through 707 and 709 through 711 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-4 through 2000e-6 and 2000e-8 through 2000e-10, where the alleged discrimination is against an employee defined in 1635.2(c)(1) of this part or against a member of a labor organization;
</P>
<P>(2) The powers and procedures provided to the Commission and any person by sections 302 and 304 of the Government Employees Rights Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16b and 2000e-16c, and in regulations at 29 CFR part 1603, where the alleged discrimination is against an employee as defined in § 1635.2(c)(2) of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The powers and procedures provided to the Board of Directors of the Office of Compliance and to any person under the Congressional Accountability Act, 2 U.S.C. 1301 <I>et seq.</I> (including the provisions of Title 3 of that act, 2 U.S.C. 1381 <I>et seq.</I>), where the alleged discrimination is against an employee defined in § 1635.2(c)(3) of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) The powers and procedures provided in 3 U.S.C. 451 <I>et seq.,</I> to the President, the Commission, or any person in connection with an alleged violation of section 3 U.S.C. 411(a)(1), where the alleged discrimination is against an employee defined in § 1635.2(c)(4) of this part;
</P>
<P>(5) The powers and procedures provided to the Commission, the Librarian of Congress, and any person by section 717 of the Civil Rights Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16, where the alleged discrimination is against an employee defined in § 1635.2(c)(5) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Remedies.</I> The following remedies are available for violations of GINA sections 202, 203, 204, 205, 206, and 207(f):
</P>
<P>(1) Compensatory and punitive damages as provided for, and limited by, 42 U.S.C. 1981a(a)(1) and (b);
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable attorney's fees, including expert fees, as provided for, and limited by, 42 U.S.C. 1988(b) and (c); and
</P>
<P>(3) Injunctive relief, including reinstatement and hiring, back pay, and other equitable remedies as provided for, and limited by, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-5(g).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Posting of Notices.</I> (1) Every covered entity shall post and keep posted in conspicuous places upon its premises where notices to employees, applicants for employment, and members are customarily posted a notice to be prepared or approved by the Commission setting forth excerpts from or, summaries of, the pertinent provisions of this regulation and information pertinent to the filing of a complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) A willful violation of this requirement shall be punishable by a fine of not more than $100 for each separate offense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.11   Construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationship to other laws, generally.</I> This part does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Limit the rights or protections of an individual under any other Federal, State, or local law that provides equal or greater protection to an individual than the rights or protections provided for under this part, including the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>), the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>), and State and local laws prohibiting genetic discrimination or discrimination on the basis of disability;
</P>
<P>(2) Apply to the Armed Forces Repository of Specimen Samples for the Identification of Remains;
</P>
<P>(3) Limit or expand the protections, rights, or obligations of employees or employers under applicable workers' compensation laws;
</P>
<P>(4) Limit the authority of a Federal department or agency to conduct or sponsor occupational or other health research in compliance with the regulations and protections provided for under 45 CFR part 46;
</P>
<P>(5) Limit the statutory or regulatory authority of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration or the Mine Safety and Health Administration to promulgate or enforce workplace safety and health laws and regulations; or
</P>
<P>(6) Require any specific benefit for an employee or member or a family member of an employee or member (such as additional coverage for a particular health condition that may have a genetic basis) under any group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relation to certain Federal laws governing health coverage</I>—(1) <I>General:</I> Nothing in GINA Title II provides for enforcement of, or penalties for, violation of any requirement or prohibition of a covered entity subject to enforcement under:
</P>
<P>(i) Amendments made by Title I of GINA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 701(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (29 U.S.C. 1181) (ERISA), section 2704(a) of the Public Health Service Act, and section 9801(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 9801(a)), as such sections apply with respect to genetic information pursuant to section 701(b)(1)(B) of ERISA, section 2704(b)(1)(B) of the Public Health Service Act, and section 9801(b)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code, respectively, of such sections, which prohibit a group health plan or a health insurance issuer in the group market from imposing a preexisting condition exclusion based solely on genetic information, in the absence of a diagnosis of a condition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 702(a)(1)(F) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1182(a)(1)(F)), section 2705(a)(6) of the PHS Act, as amended by section 1201 of the Affordable Care Act and section 9802(a)(1)(F) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 9802(a)(1)(F)), which prohibit a group health plan or a health insurance issuer in the group or individual market from discriminating against individuals in eligibility and continued eligibility for benefits based on genetic information; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 702(b)(1) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1182(b)(1)), section 2705(b)(1) of the PHS Act, as amended by section 1201 of the Affordable Care Act and section 9802(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 9802(b)(1)), as such sections apply with respect to genetic information as a health status-related factor, which prohibit a group health plan or a health insurance issuer in the group or individual market from discriminating against individuals in premium or contribution rates under the plan or coverage based on genetic information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> The application of paragraph (b)(1) of this section is intended to prevent Title II causes of action from being asserted regarding matters subject to enforcement under Title I or the other genetics provisions for group coverage in ERISA, the Public Health Service Act, and the Internal Revenue Code. The firewall seeks to ensure that health plan or issuer provisions or actions are addressed and remedied through ERISA, the Public Health Service Act, or the Internal Revenue Code, while actions taken by employers and other GINA Title II covered entities are remedied through GINA Title II. Employers and other GINA Title II covered entities would remain liable for any of their actions that violate Title II, even where those actions involve access to health benefits, because such benefits are within the definition of compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. For example, an employer that fires an employee because of anticipated high health claims based on genetic information remains subject to liability under Title II. On the other hand, health plan or issuer provisions or actions related to the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion; a health plan's or issuer's discrimination in health plan eligibility, benefits, or premiums based on genetic information; a health plan's or issuer's request that an individual undergo a genetic test; and/or a health plan's or issuer's collection of genetic information remain subject to enforcement under Title I exclusively. For example:
</P>
<P>(i) If an employer contracts with a health insurance issuer to request genetic information, the employer has committed a Title II violation. In addition, the issuer may have violated Title I of GINA.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employer directs his employees to undergo mandatory genetic testing in order to be eligible for health benefits, the employer has committed a Title II violation.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an employer or union amends a health plan to require an individual to undergo a genetic test, then the employer or union is liable for a violation of Title II. In addition, the health plan's implementation of the requirement may subject the health plan to liability under Title I.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relationship to authorities under GINA Title I.</I> GINA Title II does not prohibit any group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan from engaging in any action that is authorized under any provision of law noted in § 1635.11(b) of this part, including any implementing regulations noted in § 1635.11(b).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship to HIPAA Privacy Regulations.</I> This part does not apply to genetic information that is protected health information subject to the regulations issued by the Secretary of Health and Human Services pursuant to section 264(c) of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 68932, Nov. 9, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 31159, May 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1635.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.21.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1635.12   Medical information that is not genetic information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Medical information about a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition.</I> (1) A covered entity shall not be considered to be in violation of this part based on the use, acquisition, or disclosure of medical information that is not genetic information about a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition of an employee or member, even if the disease, disorder, or pathological condition has or may have a genetic basis or component.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the acquisition, use, and disclosure of medical information that is not genetic information about a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition is subject to applicable limitations under sections 103(d)(1)-(4) of the Americans with Disabilities Act (42 U.S.C. 12112(d)(1)-(4)), and regulations at 29 CFR 1630.13, 1630.14, and 1630.16.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Genetic information related to a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, genetic information about a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition is subject to the requirements and prohibitions in sections 202 through 206 of GINA and §§ 1635.4 through 1635.9 of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1636" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1636—PREGNANT WORKERS FAIRNESS ACT


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2000gg <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 29182, Apr. 19, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1636.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to implement the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg <I>et seq.</I> (PWFA).
</P>
<P>(b) The PWFA:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires a covered entity to make reasonable accommodation to the known limitations of a qualified employee related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, absent undue hardship;
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibits a covered entity from requiring a qualified employee to accept an accommodation, other than a reasonable accommodation arrived at through the interactive process;
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibits the denial of employment opportunities based on the need of the covered entity to make reasonable accommodation to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of a qualified employee;
</P>
<P>(4) Prohibits a covered entity from requiring a qualified employee to take leave if another reasonable accommodation can be provided to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of the employee;
</P>
<P>(5) Prohibits a covered entity from taking adverse actions in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment against a qualified employee on account of the employee requesting or using a reasonable accommodation for known limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions;
</P>
<P>(6) Prohibits discrimination against an employee for opposing unlawful discrimination under the PWFA or participating in a proceeding under the PWFA;
</P>
<P>(7) Prohibits coercion of individuals in the exercise of their rights under the PWFA; and
</P>
<P>(8) Provides remedies for individuals whose rights under the PWFA are violated.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.2   Definitions—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commission</I> means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission established by section 705 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered entity</I> means <I>respondent</I> as defined in section 701(n) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e(n), and includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Employer,</I> which is a person engaged in an industry affecting commerce who has 15 or more employees, as defined in section 701(b) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e(b);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employing office,</I> as defined in section 101 of the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1301, and 3 U.S.C. 411(c);
</P>
<P>(3) An entity employing a State employee (or the employee of a political subdivision of a State) described in section 304(a) of the Government Employee Rights Act of 1991, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16c(a); and
</P>
<P>(4) An entity to which section 717(a) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16(a), applies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee (including an applicant), as defined in section 701(f) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e(f);
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) A covered employee (including an applicant), as defined in 3 U.S.C. 411(c);
</P>
<P>(4) A State employee (including an applicant) (or the employee or applicant of a political subdivision of a State) described in section 304(a) of the Government Employee Rights Act of 1991, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16c(a); and
</P>
<P>(5) An employee (including an applicant) to which section 717(a) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16(a), applies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Person</I> means person as defined by section 701(a) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e(a).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.3   Definitions—specific to the PWFA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Known limitation. Known limitation</I> means a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions that the employee or the employee's representative has communicated to the covered entity, whether or not such condition meets the definition of disability specified in section 3 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, 42 U.S.C. 12102.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Known,</I> in terms of limitation, means the employee or the employee's representative has communicated the limitation to the employer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitation</I> means a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, of the specific employee in question. “Physical or mental condition” is an impediment or problem that may be modest, minor, and/or episodic. The physical or mental condition may be that an employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions has a need or a problem related to maintaining their health or the health of the pregnancy. The definition also includes when an employee is seeking health care related to pregnancy, childbirth, or a related medical condition itself. The physical or mental condition can be a limitation whether or not such condition meets the definition of disability specified in section 3 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, 42 U.S.C. 12102.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.</I> “Pregnancy” and “childbirth” refer to the pregnancy or childbirth of the specific employee in question and include, but are not limited to, current pregnancy; past pregnancy; potential or intended pregnancy (which can include infertility, fertility treatment, and the use of contraception); labor; and childbirth (including vaginal and cesarean delivery). “Related medical conditions” are medical conditions relating to the pregnancy or childbirth of the specific employee in question. The following are examples of conditions that are, or may be, “related medical conditions”: termination of pregnancy, including via miscarriage, stillbirth, or abortion; ectopic pregnancy; preterm labor; pelvic prolapse; nerve injuries; cesarean or perineal wound infection; maternal cardiometabolic disease; gestational diabetes; preeclampsia; HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets) syndrome; hyperemesis gravidarum; anemia; endometriosis; sciatica; lumbar lordosis; carpal tunnel syndrome; chronic migraines; dehydration; hemorrhoids; nausea or vomiting; edema of the legs, ankles, feet, or fingers; high blood pressure; infection; antenatal (during pregnancy) anxiety, depression, or psychosis; postpartum depression, anxiety, or psychosis; frequent urination; incontinence; loss of balance; vision changes; varicose veins; changes in hormone levels; vaginal bleeding; menstruation; and lactation and conditions related to lactation, such as low milk supply, engorgement, plugged ducts, mastitis, or fungal infections. This list is non-exhaustive.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee's representative. Employee's representative</I> means a family member, friend, union representative, health care provider, or other representative of the employee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Communicated to the employer. Communicated to the employer,</I> with respect to a known limitation, means an employee or the employee's representative has made the employer aware of the limitation by communicating with a supervisor, a manager, someone who has supervisory authority for the employee or who regularly directs the employee's tasks (or the equivalent for an applicant), human resources personnel, or another appropriate official, or by following the steps in the covered entity's policy to request an accommodation.
</P>
<P>(1) The communication may be made orally, in writing, or by another effective means.
</P>
<P>(2) The communication need not be in writing, be in a specific format, use specific words, or be on a specific form in order for it to be considered “communicated to the employer.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consideration of mitigating measures.</I> (1) The determination of whether an employee has a limitation shall be made without regard to the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures.
</P>
<P>(2) The non-ameliorative effects of mitigating measures, such as negative side effects of medication or burdens associated with following a particular treatment regimen, may be considered when determining whether an employee has a limitation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Qualified employee. Qualified employee</I> with respect to an employee with a known limitation under the PWFA means:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee who, with or without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of the employment position. With respect to leave as an accommodation, the relevant inquiry is whether the employee is reasonably expected to be able to perform the essential functions, with or without a reasonable accommodation, at the end of the leave, if time off is granted, or if the employee is qualified as set out in paragraph (f)(2) of this section after returning from leave.
</P>
<P>(2) Additionally, an employee shall be considered qualified if they cannot perform one or more essential functions if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any inability to perform an essential function(s) is for a temporary period, where “temporary” means lasting for a limited time, not permanent, and may extend beyond “in the near future”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The essential function(s) could be performed in the near future. This determination is made on a case-by-case basis. If the employee is pregnant, it is presumed that the employee could perform the essential function(s) in the near future because they could perform the essential function(s) within generally 40 weeks of its suspension; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The inability to perform the essential function(s) can be reasonably accommodated. This may be accomplished by temporary suspension of the essential function(s) and the employee performing the remaining functions of their position or, depending on the position, other arrangements, including, but not limited to: the employee performing the remaining functions of their position and other functions assigned by the covered entity; the employee performing the functions of a different job to which the covered entity temporarily transfers or assigns the employee; or the employee being assigned to light duty or modified duty or participating in the covered entity's light or modified duty program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Essential functions. Essential functions</I> mean the fundamental job duties of the employment position the employee with a known limitation under the PWFA holds or desires. The term “essential functions” does not include the marginal functions of the position.
</P>
<P>(1) A job function may be considered essential for any of several reasons, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The function may be essential because the reason the position exists is to perform that function;
</P>
<P>(ii) The function may be essential because of the limited number of employees available among whom the performance of that job function can be distributed; and/or
</P>
<P>(iii) The function may be highly specialized so that the incumbent in the position is hired for their expertise or ability to perform the particular function.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence of whether a particular function is essential includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer's judgment as to which functions are essential;
</P>
<P>(ii) Written job descriptions prepared before advertising or interviewing applicants for the job;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of time that would be spent on the job performing the function during the time the requested accommodation will be in effect;
</P>
<P>(iv) The consequences of not requiring the incumbent to perform the function;
</P>
<P>(v) The terms of a collective bargaining agreement;
</P>
<P>(vi) The work experience of past incumbents in the job; and/or
</P>
<P>(vii) The current work experience of incumbents in similar jobs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reasonable accommodation—generally.</I> (1) With respect to an employee or applicant with a known limitation under the PWFA, reasonable accommodation includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Modifications or adjustments to a job application process that enable a qualified applicant with a known limitation under the PWFA to be considered for the position such qualified applicant desires;
</P>
<P>(ii) Modifications or adjustments to the work environment, or to the manner or circumstances under which the position held or desired is customarily performed, that enable a qualified employee with a known limitation under the PWFA to perform the essential functions of that position;
</P>
<P>(iii) Modifications or adjustments that enable a covered entity's employee with a known limitation under the PWFA to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment as are enjoyed by its other similarly situated employees without known limitations; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Temporary suspension of essential function(s) and/or modifications or adjustments that permit the temporary suspension of essential function(s).
</P>
<P>(2) To request a reasonable accommodation, the employee or the employee's representative need only communicate to the covered entity that the employee needs an adjustment or change at work due to their limitation (a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions).
</P>
<P>(i) The communication may be made to any of the individuals in paragraph (d) of this section. The provisions of paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, which define what it means to communicate a limitation to a covered entity, apply to communications under this paragraph (h)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee's request does not have to identify a medical condition, whether from paragraph (b) of this section or otherwise, or use medical terms.
</P>
<P>(3) To determine the appropriate reasonable accommodation, it may be necessary for the covered entity to initiate an informal, interactive process as explained in paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reasonable accommodation—examples.</I> Reasonable accommodation may include, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Making existing facilities used by employees readily accessible to and usable by employees with known limitations under the PWFA;
</P>
<P>(2) Job restructuring; part-time or modified work schedules; reassignment to a vacant position; breaks for use of the restroom, drinking, eating, and/or resting; acquisition or modification of equipment, uniforms, or devices, including devices that assist with lifting or carrying for jobs that involve lifting or carrying; modifying the work environment; providing seating for jobs that require standing, or allowing standing for jobs that require sitting; appropriate adjustment or modifications of examinations or policies; permitting the use of paid leave (whether accrued, as part of a short-term disability program, or any other employer benefit) or providing unpaid leave for reasons including, but not limited to, recovery from childbirth, miscarriage, stillbirth, or medical conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth, or to attend health care appointments or receive health care treatment related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; placement in the covered entity's light or modified duty program or assignment to light duty or modified work; telework, remote work, or change of work site; adjustments to allow an employee to work without increased pain or increased risk to the employee's health or the health of the pregnancy; temporarily suspending one or more essential functions of the position; providing a reserved parking space if the employee is otherwise entitled to use employer-provided parking; and other similar accommodations for employees with known limitations under the PWFA.
</P>
<P>(3) The reasonable accommodation of leave includes, but is not limited to, the examples in paragraphs (i)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The ability to use paid leave (whether accrued, short-term disability, or another employer benefit) or unpaid leave, including, but not limited to, leave during pregnancy; to recover from childbirth, miscarriage, stillbirth, or other related medical conditions; and to attend health care appointments or receive health care treatments related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ability to use paid leave (whether accrued, short-term disability, or another employer benefit) or unpaid leave for a known limitation under the PWFA; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The ability to choose whether to use paid leave (whether accrued, short-term disability or another employer benefit) or unpaid leave to the extent that the covered entity allows employees using leave for reasons not related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions to choose between the use of paid leave and unpaid leave.
</P>
<P>(4) Reasonable accommodation related to lactation includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Breaks, a space for lactation, and other related modifications as required under the Providing Urgent Maternal Protections for Nursing Mothers Act (PUMP Act) (Pub. L. 117-328, Div. KK, 136 Stat. 4459, 6093 (2022)), if not otherwise provided under the PUMP Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Accommodations related to pumping, such as, but not limited to, ensuring that the area for lactation is in reasonable proximity to the employee's usual work area; that it is a place other than a bathroom; that it is shielded from view and free from intrusion; that it is regularly cleaned; that it has electricity, appropriate seating, and a surface sufficient to place a breast pump; and that it is in reasonable proximity to a sink, running water, and a refrigerator for storing milk;
</P>
<P>(iii) Accommodations related to nursing during work hours (where the regular location of the employee's workplace makes nursing during work hours a possibility because the child is in close proximity); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other reasonable accommodations, including those listed in paragraphs (i)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The temporary suspension of one or more essential functions of the position in question, as defined in paragraph (g) of this section, is a reasonable accommodation if an employee with a known limitation under the PWFA is unable to perform one or more essential functions with or without a reasonable accommodation and the conditions set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Undue hardship</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Undue hardship means, with respect to the provision of an accommodation, significant difficulty or expense incurred by a covered entity, when considered in light of the factors set forth in paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors to be considered.</I> In determining whether an accommodation would impose an undue hardship on a covered entity, factors to be considered, with no one factor to be dispositive, include:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature and net cost of the accommodation needed under the PWFA;
</P>
<P>(ii) The overall financial resources of the facility or facilities involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodation, the number of persons employed at such facility, and the effect on expenses and resources;
</P>
<P>(iii) The overall financial resources of the covered entity, the overall size of the business of the covered entity with respect to the number of its employees, and the number, type, and location of its facilities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The type of operation or operations of the covered entity, including the composition, structure, and functions of the workforce of such entity, and the geographic separateness and administrative or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities in question to the covered entity; and
</P>
<P>(v) The impact of the accommodation upon the operation of the facility, including the impact on the ability of other employees to perform their duties and the impact on the facility's ability to conduct business.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Temporary suspension of an essential function(s).</I> If an employee with a known limitation under the PWFA meets the definition of “qualified employee” under paragraph (f)(2) of this section and needs one or more essential functions of the relevant position to be temporarily suspended, the covered entity must provide the accommodation unless doing so would impose an undue hardship on the covered entity when considered in light of the factors provided in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) through (v) of this section as well as the following additional factors where they are relevant and with no one factor to be dispositive:
</P>
<P>(i) The length of time that the employee will be unable to perform the essential function(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether, through the factors listed in paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section or otherwise, there is work for the employee to accomplish;
</P>
<P>(iii) The nature of the essential function(s), including its frequency;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the covered entity has provided other employees in similar positions who are unable to perform the essential function(s) of their position with temporary suspensions of the essential function(s);
</P>
<P>(v) If necessary, whether there are other employees, temporary employees, or third parties who can perform or be hired to perform the essential function(s); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the essential function(s) can be postponed or remain unperformed for any length of time and, if so, for how long.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Predictable assessments.</I> The individualized assessment of whether a modification listed in paragraphs (j)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section is a reasonable accommodation that would cause undue hardship will, in virtually all cases, result in a determination that the four modifications are reasonable accommodations that will not impose an undue hardship under the PWFA when they are requested as workplace accommodations by an employee who is pregnant. Therefore, with respect to these modifications, the individualized assessment should be particularly simple and straightforward:
</P>
<P>(i) Allowing an employee to carry or keep water near and drink, as needed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Allowing an employee to take additional restroom breaks, as needed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Allowing an employee whose work requires standing to sit and whose work requires sitting to stand, as needed; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Allowing an employee to take breaks to eat and drink, as needed.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Interactive process. Interactive process</I> means an informal, interactive process between the covered entity and the employee seeking an accommodation under the PWFA. This process should identify the known limitation under the PWFA and the adjustment or change at work that is needed due to the limitation, if either of these is not clear from the request, and potential reasonable accommodations. There are no rigid steps that must be followed.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Limits on supporting documentation.</I> (1) A covered entity is not required to seek supporting documentation. A covered entity may seek supporting documentation from an employee who requests an accommodation under the PWFA only when it is reasonable under the circumstances for the covered entity to determine whether the employee has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation) and needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation. The following situations are examples of when it is not reasonable under the circumstances to seek supporting documentation:
</P>
<P>(i) When the physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation), and the adjustment or change at work needed due to the limitation are obvious and the employee provides self-confirmation as defined in paragraph (l)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the employer already has sufficient information to determine whether the employee has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation) and needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation;
</P>
<P>(iii) When the employee is pregnant and seeks one of the modifications listed in paragraphs (j)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section due to a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy (a limitation) and the employee provides self-confirmation as defined in paragraph (l)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) When the reasonable accommodation is related to a time and/or place to pump at work, other modifications related to pumping at work, or a time to nurse during work hours (where the regular location of the employee's workplace makes nursing during work hours a possibility because the child is in close proximity), and the employee provides self-confirmation, as defined in paragraph (l)(4) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(v) When the requested accommodation is available to employees without known limitations under the PWFA pursuant to a covered entity's policies or practices without submitting supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(2) When it is reasonable under the circumstances, based on paragraph (l)(1) of this section, to seek supporting documentation, the covered entity is limited to seeking reasonable documentation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reasonable documentation</I> means the minimum that is sufficient to:
</P>
<P>(A) Confirm the physical or mental condition (<I>i.e.,</I> an impediment or problem that may be modest, minor, and/or episodic; a need or a problem related to maintaining the employee's health or the health of the pregnancy; or an employee seeking health care related to pregnancy, childbirth, or a related medical condition itself) whether or not such condition meets the definition of disability specified in section 3 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, 42 U.S.C. 12102;
</P>
<P>(B) Confirm that the physical or mental condition is related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (together with paragraph (l)(2)(i)(A) of this section, “a limitation”); and
</P>
<P>(C) Describe the adjustment or change at work that is needed due to the limitation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Covered entities may not require that supporting documentation be submitted on a specific form.
</P>
<P>(3) When it is reasonable under the circumstances, based on paragraph (l)(1) of this section, to seek supporting documentation, a covered entity may require that the reasonable documentation comes from a health care provider, which may include, but is not limited to: doctors, midwives, nurses, nurse practitioners, physical therapists, lactation consultants, doulas, occupational therapists, vocational rehabilitation specialists, therapists, industrial hygienists, licensed mental health professionals, psychologists, or psychiatrists. The health care provider may be a telehealth provider. The covered entity may not require that the health care provider submitting documentation be the provider treating the condition at issue. The covered entity may not require that the employee seeking the accommodation be examined by a health care provider selected by the covered entity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Self-confirmation</I> means a simple statement where the employee confirms, for purposes of paragraph (l)(1)(i), (iii), or (iv) of this section, the physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation), and the adjustment or change at work needed due to the limitation. The statement can be made in any manner and can be made as part of the request for reasonable accommodation under paragraph (h)(2) of this section. A covered entity may not require that the statement be in a specific format, use specific words, or be on a specific form.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.4   Nondiscrimination with regard to reasonable accommodations related to pregnancy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is an unlawful employment practice for a covered entity not to make reasonable accommodations to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of a qualified employee, unless such covered entity can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the business of such covered entity.
</P>
<P>(1) An unnecessary delay in providing a reasonable accommodation to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of a qualified employee may result in a violation of the PWFA, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1), even if the covered entity eventually provides the reasonable accommodation. In determining whether there has been an unnecessary delay, factors to be considered, with no one factor to be dispositive, include:
</P>
<P>(i) The reason for the delay;
</P>
<P>(ii) The length of the delay;
</P>
<P>(iii) The length of time that the accommodation is needed. If the accommodation is needed for a short time, unnecessary delay in providing it may effectively mean failure to provide the accommodation;
</P>
<P>(iv) How much the employee and the covered entity each contributed to the delay;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the covered entity was engaged in actions related to the reasonable accommodation request during the delay;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the accommodation was or would be simple or complex to provide. There are certain accommodations, set forth in § 1636.3(j)(4), that are common and easy to provide. Delay in providing these accommodations will virtually always result in a finding of unnecessary delay; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether the covered entity offered the employee an interim reasonable accommodation during the interactive process or while waiting for the covered entity's response. For the purposes of this factor, the interim reasonable accommodation should be one that allows the employee to continue working. Leave will not be considered an interim reasonable accommodation supporting this factor, unless the employee selects or requests leave as an interim reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>(2) An employee with known limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions is not required to accept an accommodation. However, if such employee rejects a reasonable accommodation that is necessary to enable the employee to perform an essential function(s) of the position held or desired or to apply for the position, or rejects the temporary suspension of an essential function(s) if the employee is qualified under § 1636.3(f)(2), and, as a result of that rejection, cannot perform an essential function(s) of the position, or cannot apply, the employee will not be considered “qualified.”
</P>
<P>(3) A covered entity cannot justify failing to provide a reasonable accommodation or the unnecessary delay in providing a reasonable accommodation to a qualified employee with known limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions based on the employee failing to provide supporting documentation, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered entity seeks the supporting documentation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Seeking the supporting documentation is reasonable under the circumstances as set out in § 1636.3(l)(1);
</P>
<P>(iii) The supporting documentation is “reasonable documentation” as defined in § 1636.3(l)(2); and
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered entity provides the employee sufficient time to obtain and provide the supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(4) When choosing among effective accommodations, the covered entity must choose an accommodation that provides the qualified employee with known limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions equal employment opportunity to attain the same level of performance, or to enjoy the same level of benefits and privileges as are available to the average employee without a known limitation who is similarly situated. The similarly situated average employee without a known limitation may include the employee requesting an accommodation at a time prior to communicating the limitation.
</P>
<P>(b) It is an unlawful employment practice for a covered entity to require a qualified employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions to accept an accommodation other than any reasonable accommodation arrived at through the interactive process referred to in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(7) and described in § 1636.3(k).
</P>
<P>(c) It is an unlawful employment practice for a covered entity to deny employment opportunities to a qualified employee if such denial is based on the need, or potential need, of the covered entity to make reasonable accommodations to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of the qualified employee.
</P>
<P>(d) It is an unlawful employment practice for a covered entity:
</P>
<P>(1) To require a qualified employee to take leave, whether paid or unpaid, if another reasonable accommodation can be provided to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of the qualified employee that does not result in an undue hardship for the covered entity; but
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in paragraph (d)(1) of this section prohibits leave as a reasonable accommodation if that is the reasonable accommodation requested or selected by the employee, or if it is the only reasonable accommodation that does not cause an undue hardship.
</P>
<P>(e) It is an unlawful employment practice for a covered entity:
</P>
<P>(1) To take adverse action in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment against a qualified employee on account of the employee requesting or using a reasonable accommodation to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in paragraph (e)(1) of this section limits the rights available under 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.5   Remedies and enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employees covered by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in sections 705, 706, 707, 709, 710, and 711 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-4 <I>et seq.,</I> to the Commission, the Attorney General, or any person alleging a violation of Title VII of such Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.,</I> shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission, the Attorney General, or any person, respectively, alleging an unlawful employment practice in violation of the PWFA against an employee described in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(3)(A), except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs and fees.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in subsections (b) and (c) of section 722 of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1988, shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission, the Attorney General, or any person alleging such practice.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Damages.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in section 1977A of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a, including the limitations contained in subsection (b)(3) of such section 1977A, shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission, the Attorney General, or any person alleging such practice (not an employment practice specifically excluded from coverage under section 1977A(a)(1) of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a(a)(1)).
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees covered by Chapter 5 of Title 3, United States Code</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in chapter 5 of title 3, United States Code, to the President, the Commission, the Merit Systems Protection Board, or any person alleging a violation of section 411(a)(1) of such title shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures this section provides to the President, the Commission, the Board, or any person, respectively, alleging an unlawful employment practice in violation of this section against an employee described in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(3)(C), except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs and fees.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in subsections (b) and (c) of section 722 of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1988, shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures this section provides to the President, the Commission, the Board, or any person alleging such practice.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Damages.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in section 1977A of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a, including the limitations contained in subsection (b)(3) of such section 1977A, shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures this section provides to the President, the Commission, the Board, or any person alleging such practice (not an employment practice specifically excluded from coverage under section 1977A(a)(1) of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a(a)(1)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employees covered by Government Employee Rights Act of 1991</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in sections 302 and 304 of the Government Employee Rights Act of 1991, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16b and 2000e-16c, to the Commission or any person alleging a violation of section 302(a)(1) of such Act, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16b(a)(1), shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission or any person, respectively, alleging an unlawful employment practice in violation of the PWFA against an employee described in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(3)(D), except as provided in paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs and fees.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in subsections (b) and (c) of section 722 of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1988, shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission or any person alleging such practice.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Damages.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in section 1977A of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a, including the limitations contained in subsection (b)(3) of such section 1977A, shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission or any person alleging such practice (not an employment practice specifically excluded from coverage under section 1977A(a)(1) of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a(a)(1)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employees covered by Section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16, to the Commission, the Attorney General, the Librarian of Congress, or any person alleging a violation of that section shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission, the Attorney General, the Librarian of Congress, or any person, respectively, alleging an unlawful employment practice in violation of the PWFA against an employee described in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(3)(E), except as provided in paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs and fees.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in subsections (b) and (c) of section 722 of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1988, shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission, the Attorney General, the Librarian of Congress, or any person alleging such practice.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Damages.</I> The powers, remedies, and procedures provided in section 1977A of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a, including the limitations contained in subsection (b)(3) of such section 1977A, shall be the powers, remedies, and procedures the PWFA provides to the Commission, the Attorney General, the Librarian of Congress, or any person alleging such practice (not an employment practice specifically excluded from coverage under section 1977A(a)(1) of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a(a)(1)).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibition against retaliation</I>—(1) <I>Prohibition against retaliation.</I> No person shall discriminate against any employee because such employee has opposed any act or practice made unlawful by the PWFA or because such employee made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under the PWFA.
</P>
<P>(i) An employee need not be a qualified employee with a known limitation under the PWFA to bring an action under this paragraph (f)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for reasonable accommodation for a known limitation under the PWFA constitutes protected activity under this paragraph (f)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee does not actually have to be deterred from exercising or enjoying rights under the PWFA in order for the retaliation to be actionable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibition against coercion.</I> It shall be unlawful to coerce, intimidate, threaten, harass, or interfere with any individual in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of such individual having exercised or enjoyed, or on account of such individual having aided or encouraged any other individual in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right granted or protected by the PWFA.
</P>
<P>(i) An individual need not be a qualified employee with a known limitation under the PWFA to bring an action under this paragraph (f)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual does not actually have to be deterred from exercising or enjoying rights under the PWFA for the coercion, intimidation, threats, harassment, or interference to be actionable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Remedy.</I> The remedies and procedures otherwise provided for under this section shall be available to aggrieved individuals with respect to violations of this section regarding retaliation or coercion.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Limitation on monetary damages.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(3), (c)(3), (d)(3), and (e)(3) of this section, if an unlawful employment practice involves the provision of a reasonable accommodation pursuant to the PWFA or this part, damages may not be awarded under section 1977A of the Revised Statutes, 42 U.S.C. 1981a, if the covered entity demonstrates good faith efforts, in consultation with the qualified employee with known limitations related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions who has informed the covered entity that accommodation is needed, to identify and make a reasonable accommodation that would provide such employee with an equally effective opportunity and would not cause an undue hardship on the operation of the business of the covered entity.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.6   Waiver of State immunity.</HEAD>
<P>A State shall not be immune under the 11th Amendment to the Constitution from an action in a Federal or State court of competent jurisdiction for a violation of the PWFA. In any action against a State for a violation of the PWFA, remedies (including remedies both at law and in equity) are available for such a violation to the same extent such remedies are available for such a violation in an action against any public or private entity other than a State.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.7   Relationship to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) The PWFA and this part do not invalidate or limit the powers, remedies, and procedures under any Federal law, State law, or the law of any political subdivision of any State or jurisdiction that provides greater or equal protection for individuals affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) The PWFA and this part do not require an employer-sponsored health plan to pay for or cover any particular item, procedure, or treatment, or affect any right or remedy available under any other Federal, State, or local law with respect to any such payment or coverage requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rule of construction.</I> The PWFA and this part are subject to the applicability to religious employment set forth in section 702(a) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-1(a).
</P>
<P>(1) Nothing in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-5(b) or this part should be interpreted to limit a covered entity's rights under the U.S. Constitution.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-5(b) or this part should be interpreted to limit an employee's rights under other civil rights statutes.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1636.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1636.8   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission intends that, if any provision of the PWFA or the application of that provision to particular persons or circumstances is held invalid or found to be unconstitutional, the remainder of the statute and the application of that provision to other persons or circumstances shall not be affected.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission intends that, if any provision of this part that uses the same language as the statute, or the application of that provision to particular persons or circumstances, is held invalid or found to be unconstitutional, the remainder of this part and the application of that provision to other persons or circumstances shall not be affected.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission intends that, if any provision of this part or the interpretive guidance in appendix A to this part that provides additional guidance to implement the PWFA, including examples of reasonable accommodations, or the application of that provision to particular persons or circumstances, is held invalid or found to be unconstitutional, the remainder of this part or the interpretive guidance and the application of that provision to other persons or circumstances shall not be affected.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.22.0.26.9.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1636—Interpretive Guidance on the Pregnant Workers Fairness Act
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>1. The Pregnant Workers Fairness Act (PWFA) requires a covered entity to provide reasonable accommodations to a qualified employee's known limitation related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, absent undue hardship on the operation of the business of the covered entity. Although employees affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions have certain rights under existing civil rights laws, including Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Title VII), as amended by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 (PDA), 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.,</I> and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA), as amended by the ADA Amendments Act of 2008 (ADAAA or Amendments Act), 42 U.S.C. 12111 <I>et seq.,</I>
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Congress determined that the legal protections offered by these two statutes, particularly as interpreted by the courts, were “insufficient to ensure that pregnant workers receive the accommodations they need.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> References to the ADA throughout this part and the Interpretive Guidance in this appendix are intended to apply equally to the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as all nondiscrimination standards under title I of the ADA also apply to Federal agencies under section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act. <I>See</I> 29 U.S.C. 791(f).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 12 (2021).</P></FTNT>
<P>2. The PWFA, at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-3, directs the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC or Commission) to promulgate regulations to implement the PWFA.
</P>
<P>3. This Interpretive Guidance addresses the major provisions of the PWFA and its regulation and explains the major concepts pertaining to nondiscrimination with respect to reasonable accommodations for known limitations (physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions) under the statute. The Interpretive Guidance represents the Commission's interpretation of the issues addressed within it, and the Commission will be guided by the regulation and the Interpretive Guidance when enforcing the PWFA.
</P>
<HD1>II. General Information and Terms Used in the Regulation and Interpretive Guidance
</HD1>
<P>1. The PWFA at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(3) uses the term “employee (including an applicant)” in its definition of “employee.” 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, throughout the statute, the final regulation, and this Interpretive Guidance, the term “employee” should be understood to include “applicant” where relevant. Because the PWFA relies on Title VII for its definition of “employee,” that term also includes “former employee,” where relevant.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> The PWFA defines “covered entity” using the definition of “employer” from different statutes, including Title VII.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus “covered entities” under the PWFA include public or private employers with 15 or more employees, unions, employment agencies, and the Federal Government.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> In the regulation and this Interpretive Guidance, the Commission uses the terms “covered entity” and “employer” interchangeably.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(3).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>Robinson</I> v. <I>Shell Oil Co.,</I> 519 U.S. 337, 346 (1997).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(2)(A), (B)(i), (B)(iii), (B)(iv). The other statutes are the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995 and 3 U.S.C. 411(c).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(2) provides that the term “covered entity” has the meaning given the term “respondent” under 42 U.S.C. 2000e(n) and includes employers as defined in 42 U.S.C. 2000e(b), 2000e-16c(a), and 2000e-16(a). The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-5(b) provides as a rule of construction that the chapter is subject to the applicability to religious employment set forth in 42 U.S.C. 2000e-1(a) [section 702(a) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964].</P></FTNT>
<P>2. This Interpretive Guidance contains many examples to illustrate situations under the PWFA. The examples do not, and are not intended to, cover every limitation or possible accommodation under the PWFA. Depending on the facts in the examples, the same facts could lead to claims also being brought under other statutes that the Commission enforces, such as Title VII and the ADA. Moreover, the situations in specific examples could implicate other Federal laws, including, but not limited to, the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993, 29 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I> (FMLA); the Occupational Safety and Health Act, 29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I> (OSH Act); and the Providing Urgent Maternal Protections for Nursing Mothers Act (PUMP Act) (Pub. L. 117-328, Div. KK, 136 Stat. 4459, 6093 (2022)).
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Finally, although some examples state that the described actions “would violate” the PWFA, additional facts not described in the examples could change that determination.
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> To the extent that an accommodation in an example is required under another law, like the OSH Act, the example should not be read to suggest that such a requirement is not applicable.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> In this part and the Interpretive Guidance, the Commission uses the terms “leave” and “time off” and intends those terms to cover leave however it is identified by the specific employer. Additionally, in this part and the Interpretive Guidance, the Commission uses the term “light duty.” The Commission recognizes that “light duty” programs, or other programs providing modified duties, can vary depending on the covered entity. <I>See</I> EEOC, <I>Enforcement Guidance: Workers' Compensation and the ADA,</I> text preceding Question 27 (1996) [hereinafter <I>Enforcement Guidance: Workers' Compensation</I>], <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-workers-compensation-and-ada.</I> The Commission intends “light duty” to include the types of programs included in Questions 27 and 28 of the <I>Enforcement Guidance: Workers' Compensation</I> and any other policy, practice, or system that a covered entity has for accommodating employees, including when one or more essential functions of a position are temporarily excused.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>III. 1636. Definitions—Specific to the PWFA
</HD1>
<HD2>1636.3(a) Known Limitation
</HD2>
<P>1. Section 1636.3(a) reiterates the definition of “known limitation” from 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4) of the PWFA and then provides definitions for the operative terms.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(a)(1) Known
</HD2>
<P>2. Paragraph (a)(1) adopts the definition of “known” from the PWFA and thus defines it to mean that the employee, or the employee's representative, has communicated the limitation to the covered entity.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(a)(2) Limitation
</HD2>
<P>3. Paragraph (a)(2) adopts the definition of “limitation” from the PWFA and thus defines it to mean a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> The limitation must be of the specific employee in question. The “physical or mental condition” that is the limitation may be a modest, minor, and/or episodic impediment or problem. The definition encompasses when an employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions has a need or a problem related to maintaining their health or the health of the pregnancy.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> In § 1636.3(a)(2) and the Interpretive Guidance, the Commission uses the phrase “maintaining their health or the health of the pregnancy.” This includes avoiding risk to the employee's health or to the health of the pregnancy.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. The definition of “limitation” also includes when an employee is seeking health care related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or a related medical condition itself. Under the ADA, when an individual has an actual or a record of a disability, employers often may be required to provide the reasonable accommodation of leave so that an employee can obtain medical treatment.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, under the PWFA, an employee may require a reasonable accommodation of leave to attend health care appointments or receive treatment for or recover from their pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> In passing the PWFA, Congress sought, in part, to help pregnant employees maintain their health.
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, the PWFA covers situations when an employee requests an accommodation in order to maintain their health or the health of their pregnancy and avoid negative consequences, and when an employee seeks health care for their pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. Practically, allowing for accommodations to maintain health and attend medical appointments may decrease the need for a more extensive accommodation because the employee may be able to avoid more serious complications.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> EEOC, <I>Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation and Undue Hardship under the ADA,</I> at text after n.49 (2002) [hereinafter <I>Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation</I>], <I>http://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-reasonable-accommodation-and-undue-hardship-under-ada.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> U.S. Dep't of Health &amp; Hum. Servs., Off. of Women's Health, <I>Prenatal Care, https://www.womenshealth.gov/a-z-topics/prenatal-care</I> (last updated Feb. 22, 2021) (stating that during pregnancy usually visits are once a month until week 28, twice a month from weeks 28-36 and once a week from week 36 to birth); Am. Coll. of Obstetricians &amp; Gynecologists, Comm. Opinion No. 736, <I>Optimizing Postpartum Care</I> (reaff'd 2021), <I>https://www.acog.org/clinical/clinical-guidance/committee-opinion/articles/2018/05/optimizing-postpartum-care</I> (stating the importance of regular postpartum care); and Opinion No. 826, <I>Protecting and Expanding Medicaid to Improve Women's Health</I> (2021), <I>https://www.acog.org/clinical/clinical-guidance/committee-opinion/articles/2021/06/protecting-and-expanding-medicaid-to-improve-womens-health</I> (encouraging the expansion of Medicaid to improve postpartum care).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> <I>See</I> Markup of the Paycheck Fairness Act; Pregnant Workers Fairness Act; Workplace Violence Prevention for Health Care and Social Service Workers Act, YouTube (2021), at 54:46 (statement of Rep. Kathy E. Manning) (stating that a goal of the PWFA is to help pregnant workers “deliver healthy babies while maintaining their jobs”); at 21:50 (statement of Rep. Robert C. Scott) (“[W]ithout [these] basic protections, too many workers are forced to choose between a healthy pregnancy and their paychecks.”); at 1:35:01 (statement of Rep. Lucy McBath) (“[N]o mother should ever have to choose between the health of herself/themselves and their child or a paycheck.”); and at 1:37:38 (statement of Rep. Suzanne Bonamici) (“[P]regnant workers should not have to choose between a healthy pregnancy and a paycheck.”), <I>https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=p6Ie2S9sTxs; see also</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 12 (workers whose pregnancy-related impairments substantially limit a major life activity are covered by the ADA; “this standard leaves women with less serious pregnancy-related impairments, and who need accommodations, without legal recourse”); <I>id.</I> at 22-23 (accommodations are frequently needed by, and should be provided to, people with healthy pregnancies); <I>id.</I> at 23 (example of an “uneventful pregnancy” in which a woman needed more bathroom breaks); <I>id.</I> at 14-21 (outlining the gaps created by court interpretations of Title VII and the ADA that the PWFA is intended to fill so that pregnant workers can receive reasonable accommodations); <I>id.</I> at 56 (noting that a “minor limitation” can be covered because it presumably requires only minor accommodations).</P></FTNT>
<P>5. The physical or mental condition (the limitation) required to trigger the obligation to provide a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA does not need to meet the definition of a “disability” under the ADA.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> In other words, an employee need not have an impairment that substantially limits a major life activity to be entitled to a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA, nor does an employee need to have an “impairment” as defined in the regulation implementing the ADA.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> The PWFA can cover physical or mental conditions that also are covered under the ADA. In these situations, an individual may be entitled to an accommodation under the ADA as well as the PWFA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(h).</P></FTNT>
<P>6. The PWFA does not create a right to reasonable accommodation based on an individual's association with someone else who may have a PWFA-covered limitation. Nor is a qualified employee entitled to accommodation because they have a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of someone else's pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. For example, a spouse experiencing anxiety due to a partner's pregnancy is not covered by the PWFA. Time for bonding or time for childcare also is not covered by the PWFA.
</P>
<P>7. Whether an employee has a “physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions” shall be construed broadly to the maximum extent permitted by the PWFA.
</P>
<HD3>Related to, Affected by, or Arising Out of
</HD3>
<P>8. The PWFA's use of the inclusive terms “related to, affected by, or arising out of” 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> means that pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions do not need to be the sole, the original, or a substantial cause of the physical or mental condition at issue for the physical or mental condition to be “related to, affected by, or arising out of” pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4) defines the term “known limitation” as a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. Most of the prohibited acts in the statute, however, use the phrase “known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.” <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1), (3)-(5). Thus, the Commission will define “related to, affected by, or arising out of” as one phrase and will not attempt to define each of the parts of it separately.</P></FTNT>
<P>9. Whether a physical or mental condition is related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions will be apparent in the majority of cases. Pregnancy and childbirth cause systemic changes that not only create new physical and mental conditions but also can exacerbate preexisting conditions and can cause additional pain or risk.
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, a connection between an employee's physical or mental condition and their pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions will be readily ascertained when an employee is currently pregnant or the employee is experiencing or has just experienced childbirth.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> Danforth's Obstetrics &amp; Gynecology 286 (Ronald S. Gibbs et al. eds., 10th ed. 2008) (“Normal pregnancy entails many physiologic changes . . . .”); Clinical Anesthesia 1138 (Paul G. Barash et al. eds., 6th ed. 2009) (“During pregnancy, there are major alterations in nearly every maternal organ system.”)</P></FTNT>
<P>10. For example, if an employee is pregnant and as a result has pain when standing for long periods of time, the employee's physical or mental condition (pain when standing for a protracted period) is related to, affected by, or arising out of the employee's pregnancy. An employee who is pregnant and because of the pregnancy cannot lift more than 20 pounds has a physical condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, because lifting is associated with low back pain and musculoskeletal disorders that may be exacerbated by physical changes associated with pregnancy.
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> An employee who is pregnant and seeks time off for prenatal health care appointments is attending medical appointments related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy. An employee who requests an accommodation to attend therapy appointments for postpartum depression has a medical condition related to pregnancy or childbirth (postpartum depression) and is obtaining health care related to, affected by, or arising out of a related medical condition. A pregnant employee who is seeking an accommodation to limit exposure to secondhand smoke to protect the health of their pregnancy has a physical or mental condition (trying to maintain the employee's health or the health of their pregnancy, or to address increased sensitivity to secondhand smoke) related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy. A lactating employee who seeks an accommodation to take breaks to eat has a related medical condition (lactation) and a physical condition related to, affected by, or arising out of it (increased nutritional needs). A pregnant employee seeking time off in order to have an amniocentesis procedure is attending a medical appointment related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy. An employee who requests leave for in vitro fertilization (IVF) treatment for the employee to get pregnant has a limitation, either related to potential or intended pregnancy or a medical condition related to pregnancy (difficulty in becoming pregnant or infertility), and is seeking health care related to, affected by, or arising out of it. An employee whose pregnancy is causing fatigue has a physical condition (fatigue) related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy. An employee whose pregnancy is causing back pain has a physical condition (back pain) related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy. This is not by any means a complete list of physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, but rather a discussion of examples to illustrate application of the legal rule.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> Am. Coll. of Obstetricians &amp; Gynecologists, Comm. Opinion No. 733, <I>Employment Considerations During Pregnancy and the Postpartum Period</I> (reaff'd 2023), <I>https://www.acog.org/clinical/clinical-guidance/committee-opinion/articles/2018/04/employment-considerations-during-pregnancy-and-the-postpartum-period.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>11. The Commission recognizes that some physical or mental conditions (which can be “limitations” as defined by the PWFA 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/>), including some of those in the examples in paragraph 10 of this section, may occur even if they are not related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (e.g., attending medical appointments, increased nutritional needs, constraints on lifting). The Commission anticipates that confirming whether a physical or mental condition is related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions usually will be straightforward and can be accomplished through the interactive process. If a physical or mental condition is not covered by the PWFA, it may be that the physical or mental condition constitutes a disability that is covered by the ADA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4) (providing that a “known limitation” is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions that the employee or employee's representative has communicated to the employer).</P></FTNT>
<P>12. There may be situations where a physical or mental condition begins as something that is related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, and, once the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions resolve, the physical or mental condition remains, evolves, or worsens. To confirm whether the employee's physical or mental condition is still related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, the employer and the employee can engage in the interactive process.
</P>
<P>13. There will be situations where an individual with a physical or mental condition that is no longer related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions has an “actual” or “record of” disability under the ADA. In those situations, an individual may seek an accommodation under the ADA and the reasonable accommodation process would follow the ADA.
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(o)(3); 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(o)(3) and 1630.9.</P></FTNT>
<P>14. Finally, there may be situations where the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions exacerbate existing conditions that may be disabilities under the ADA. In those situations, an employee can seek an accommodation under the PWFA or the ADA, or both statutes.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(b) Pregnancy, Childbirth, or Related Medical Conditions
</HD2>
<P>15. The PWFA uses the term “pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions,” which appears in Title VII's definition of “sex.” 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/> Because Congress chose to write the PWFA using the same language as Title VII, § 1636.3(b) gives the term “pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions” the same meaning as under Title VII.
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000e(k).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> <I>See, e.g., Tex. Dep't of Hous. &amp; Cmty. Affs.</I> v. <I>Inclusive Cmtys. Project, Inc.,</I> 576 U.S. 519, 536 (2015) (“If a word or phrase has been . . . given a uniform interpretation by inferior courts . . . , a later version of that act perpetuating the wording is presumed to carry forward that interpretation.”) (omissions in original) (quoting Antonin Scalia &amp; Bryan A. Garner, <I>Reading Law: The Interpretation of Legal Texts</I> 322 (2012)); <I>Bragdon</I> v. <I>Abbott,</I> 524 U.S. 624, 645 (1998) (“When administrative and judicial interpretations have settled the meaning of an existing statutory provision, repetition of the same language in a new statute indicates, as a general matter, the intent to incorporate its administrative and judicial interpretations as well.”); <I>Lorillard</I> v. <I>Pons,</I> 434 U.S. 575, 581 (1978) (“[W]here, as here, Congress adopts a new law incorporating sections of a prior law, Congress normally can be presumed to have had knowledge of the interpretation given to the incorporated law, at least insofar as it affects the new statute.”); <I>Hall</I> v. <I>U.S. Dep't of Agric.,</I> 984 F.3d 825, 840 (9th Cir. 2020) (“Congress is presumed to be aware of an agency's interpretation of a statute. We most commonly apply that presumption when an agency's interpretation of a statute has been officially published and consistently followed. If Congress thereafter reenacts the same language, we conclude that it has adopted the agency's interpretation.”) (internal citations and quotation marks omitted); Antonin Scalia &amp; Bryan A. Garner, <I>Reading Law: The Interpretation of Legal Texts</I> 323 (2012) (“[W]hen a statute uses the very same terminology as an earlier statute—especially in the very same field, such as securities law or civil-rights law—it is reasonable to believe that the terminology bears a consistent meaning.”); H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 11-17 (discussing the history of the passage of the PDA; explaining that, due to court decisions, the PDA did not fulfill its promise to protect pregnant employees; and that the PWFA was intended to rectify this problem and protect the same employees covered by the PDA).</P></FTNT>
<P>16. The non-exhaustive list of examples in § 1636.3(b) for the definition of “pregnancy” and “childbirth” includes current pregnancy, past pregnancy, potential or intended pregnancy (which can include infertility, fertility treatments, and the use of contraception), and labor and childbirth (including vaginal delivery and cesarean section).
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> EEOC, <I>Enforcement Guidance on Pregnancy Discrimination and Related Issues,</I> (I)(A) (2015) [hereinafter <I>Enforcement Guidance on Pregnancy Discrimination</I>], <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-pregnancy-discrimination-and-related-issues</I> (providing that the phrase “pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions” includes current pregnancy, past pregnancy, potential or intended pregnancy, infertility treatment, use of contraception, lactation, breastfeeding, and the decision to have or not have an abortion, among other conditions); <I>see, e.g., Kocak</I> v. <I>Cmty. Health Partners of Ohio, Inc.,</I> 400 F.3d 466, 470 (6th Cir. 2005) (reasoning that the plaintiff “cannot be refused employment on the basis of her potential pregnancy”); <I>Piraino</I> v. <I>Int'l Orientation Res., Inc.,</I> 84 F.3d 270, 274 (7th Cir. 1996) (rejecting “surprising claim” by the defendant that no pregnancy discrimination can be shown where the challenged action occurred after the birth of the plaintiff's baby); <I>Pacourek</I> v. <I>Inland Steel Co.,</I> 858 F. Supp. 1393, 1397, 1402-04 (N.D. Ill. 1994) (observing that the PDA gives a woman “the right . . . to be financially and legally protected before, during, and after her pregnancy” and stating “[a]s a general matter, a woman's medical condition rendering her unable to become pregnant naturally is a medical condition related to pregnancy and childbirth for purposes of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act”) (internal citations and quotation marks omitted); <I>Donaldson</I> v. <I>Am. Banco Corp., Inc.,</I> 945 F. Supp. 1456, 1464 (D. Colo. 1996) (“It would make little sense to prohibit an employer from firing a woman during her pregnancy but permit the employer to terminate her the day after delivery if the reason for termination was that the woman became pregnant in the first place. The plain language of the statute does not require it, and common sense precludes it.”); <I>Neessen</I> v. <I>Arona Corp.,</I> 708 F. Supp. 2d 841, 851 (N.D. Iowa 2010) (finding the plaintiff covered by the PDA where the defendant allegedly refused to hire her because she had recently been pregnant and given birth); EEOC, <I>Commission Decision on Coverage of Contraception,</I> at (I)(A) (Dec. 14, 2000), <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/commission-decision-coverage-contraception</I> (“The PDA's prohibition on discrimination against women based on their ability to become pregnant thus necessarily includes a prohibition on discrimination related to a woman's use of contraceptives.”); <I>Cooley</I> v. <I>DaimlerChrysler Corp.,</I> 281 F. Supp. 2d 979, 984-85 (E.D. Mo. 2003) (determining that, although the defendant employer's policy was facially neutral, denying a prescription medication that allows an employee to control their potential to become pregnant is “necessarily a sex-based exclusion” that violates Title VII, as amended by the PDA, because only people who have the capacity to become pregnant use prescription contraceptives, and the exclusion of prescription contraceptives may treat medication needed for a sex-specific condition less favorably than medication necessary for other medical conditions); <I>Erickson</I> v. <I>Bartell Drug Co.,</I> 141 F. Supp. 2d 1266, 1271-72 (W.D. Wash. 2001) (determining that the selective exclusion of prescription contraceptives from an employer's generally comprehensive prescription drug plan violated the PDA because only people who have the capacity to become pregnant use prescription contraceptives).</P></FTNT>
<P>17. “Related medical conditions” are medical conditions that relate to pregnancy or childbirth.
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/> To be a related medical condition, the medical condition need not be caused solely, originally, or substantially by pregnancy or childbirth.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> <I>Enforcement Guidance on Pregnancy Discrimination, supra</I> note 24, at (I)(A)(4).</P></FTNT>
<P>18. There are some medical conditions where the relation to pregnancy will be readily apparent. They can include, but are not limited to, lactation (including breastfeeding and pumping), miscarriage, stillbirth, having or choosing not to have an abortion, preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets) syndrome.
<FTREF/>
<SU>26</SU> Pregnancy causes systemic changes that can create new medical conditions and risks and can exacerbate preexisting conditions and the risks posed by such conditions.
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, the fact that a medical condition is related to pregnancy will usually be evident when the medical condition develops, is exacerbated, or poses a new risk during an employee's current pregnancy. Additionally, the relation will be apparent in many cases where the medical condition develops, is exacerbated, or poses a new risk during an employee's childbirth or during the employee's postpartum period.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> <I>Id.; see also Hicks</I> v. <I>City of Tuscaloosa,</I> 870 F.3d 1253, 1259-60 (11th Cir. 2017) (finding lactation and breastfeeding covered under the PDA, and asserting that “[t]he PDA would be rendered a nullity if women were protected during a pregnancy but then could be readily terminated for breastfeeding—an important pregnancy-related `physiological process' ”) (internal citation omitted); <I>EEOC</I> v. <I>Houston Funding II, Ltd.,</I> 717 F.3d 425, 428 (5th Cir. 2013) (holding that “lactation is a related medical condition of pregnancy for purposes of the PDA”); <I>Doe</I> v. <I>C.A.R.S. Prot. Plus, Inc.,</I> 527 F.3d 358, 364 (3d Cir. 2008) (holding that the PDA prohibits an employer from discriminating against a female employee because she has exercised her right to have an abortion); <I>Turic</I> v. <I>Holland Hosp., Inc.,</I> 85 F.3d 1211, 1214 (6th Cir. 1996) (finding the termination of the employment of a pregnant employee because she contemplated having an abortion violated the PDA); <I>Carney</I> v. <I>Martin Luther Home, Inc.,</I> 824 F.2d 643, 648 (8th Cir. 1987) (referencing the PDA's legislative history and noting commentator agreement that “[b]y broadly defining pregnancy discrimination, Congress clearly intended to extend protection beyond the simple fact of an employee's pregnancy to include `related medical conditions' such as nausea or potential miscarriage”) (internal citations and quotation marks omitted); <I>Ducharme</I> v. <I>Crescent City Déjà Vu, LLC,</I> 406 F. Supp. 3d 548, 556 (E.D. La. 2019) (finding that “abortion is encompassed within the statutory text prohibiting adverse employment actions `because of or on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions' ”); 29 CFR part 1604, appendix, Questions 34-37 (1979) (addressing coverage of abortion under the PDA); H.R. Rep. No. 95-1786, at 4 (1978), <I>as reprinted in</I> 1978 U.S.C.C.A.N. 4749, 4766 (“Because the bill applies to all situations in which women are `affected by pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions,' its basic language covers decisions by women who chose to terminate their pregnancies. Thus, no employer may, for example, fire or refuse to hire a woman simply because she has exercised her right to have an abortion.”).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> <I>See supra</I> note 18.</P></FTNT>
<P>19. However, simply because a condition is listed as one that may be a related medical condition does not mean it necessarily meets the definition of “related medical conditions” for the purposes of the PWFA. To be a related medical condition for the PWFA, the employee's medical condition must relate to pregnancy or childbirth. If an employee has a condition but, in their situation, it does not relate to pregnancy or childbirth, the condition is not covered under the PWFA. For example, if an employee who gave birth 2 weeks ago is vomiting because of food poisoning, that medical condition is not related to pregnancy or childbirth and the employee is not eligible on that basis for a PWFA reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>20. Related medical conditions may include conditions that existed before pregnancy or childbirth and for which an individual may already receive an ADA reasonable accommodation. Pregnancy or childbirth may exacerbate the condition, such that additional or different accommodations are needed. For example, an employee who received extra breaks to eat or drink due to Type 2 diabetes before pregnancy (an ADA reasonable accommodation) may need additional accommodations during pregnancy to monitor and manage the diabetes more closely to avoid or minimize adverse health consequences to the employee or the pregnancy. As another example, an employee may have had high blood pressure that could be managed with medication prior to pregnancy, but once the employee is pregnant, the high blood pressure may pose a risk to the employee or their pregnancy such that the employee needs bed rest. In these situations, an employee could request a continued or an additional accommodation under the ADA and/or an accommodation under the PWFA.
</P>
<P>21. The Commission emphasizes that the list of “pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions” in § 1636.3(b) is non-exhaustive; to receive an accommodation a qualified employee does not have to specify a condition on this list or use medical terms to describe a condition.
</P>
<P>22. When an employer has received a request for an accommodation under the PWFA, the employer and employee can engage in the interactive process, if necessary, in order to confirm whether a medical condition is related to pregnancy or childbirth.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(c) Employee's Representative
</HD2>
<P>23. The limitation may be communicated to the covered entity by the employee or the employee's representative. The term “employee's representative” encompasses any representative of the employee, including a family member, friend, union representative, health care provider, or other representative. In most instances, the Commission expects that the representative will have the employee's permission before communicating the limitation to the covered entity, but there may be some situations, for example if the employee is incapacitated, where that is not the case. Once the covered entity is made aware of the limitation, the representative's participation in any aspect of the reasonable accommodation process is at the discretion of the employee, and the employee may decide not to have the representative participate at any time. In most instances, the Commission expects that the covered entity will engage directly with the employee, even where the employee's representative began the process, but acknowledges that in some situations, for example, when the employee is incapacitated or the representative is the employee's attorney, the covered entity will need to continue to engage with the representative rather than the employee.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(d) Communicated to the Employer and 1636.3(h)(2) How To Request a Reasonable Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>24. Section 1636.3(d) and (h)(2) sets out how an employee informs a covered entity of their limitation in order to make it “known” and how an employee requests a reasonable accommodation. In practice, the Commission expects that these actions—communicating the limitation to the employer and requesting a reasonable accommodation—will take place at the same time.
</P>
<P>25. Informing the employer of the limitation and requesting a reasonable accommodation should not be complicated or difficult. The covered entity must permit an employee to do both through various avenues and means, as set forth in § 1636.3(d). Given that many accommodations requested under the PWFA will be straightforward—like additional bathroom breaks or access to water—the Commission emphasizes the importance of employees being able to obtain accommodations by communicating with the employer representative(s) with whom they would normally consult if they had questions or concerns about work matters. Employees should not be made to wait for a reasonable accommodation, especially one that is simple and imposes negligible cost or is temporary, because they spoke to the “wrong” supervisor. The individuals to whom an employee can communicate to seek accommodation include persons with supervisory authority for or who regularly direct the employee's work (or the equivalent for the applicant) and human resources personnel. Depending on the situation, employees also may communicate with other appropriate officials such as an agent of the employer (e.g., a search firm, staffing agency, or third-party benefits administrator).
</P>
<P>26. Section 1636.3(d)(1) and (2) explains that the communication informing the covered entity of the limitation does not need to be in writing, be in a specific format, use specific words, or be on a specific form in order for it to be considered “communicated to the employer.”
</P>
<P>27. Just as the communication informing the covered entity of the limitation does not need to be in writing or use specific phrases, the same is true for the request for a reasonable accommodation. Employees may inform the employer of the limitation and request an accommodation in a conversation or may use another mode of communication to inform the employer.
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> A covered entity may choose to confirm a request in writing or may ask the employee to fill out a form or otherwise confirm the request in writing. However, the covered entity cannot ignore or close an initial request that satisfies § 1636.3(h)(2) if the employee does not complete such confirmation procedures, because that initial request is sufficient to place the employer on notice.
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/> If a form is used, the form should be a simple one that does not deter the employee from pursuing the request and does not delay the provision of an accommodation. Additionally, although employees are not required to communicate limitations or request reasonable accommodations in writing, an employee may choose email or other written means to submit a request for an accommodation, which can promote clarity and create a record of their request. Finally, the request for accommodation does not need to be in the form of a “request,” <I>i.e.,</I> an employee does not need to “ask” but may provide a statement of their need for an accommodation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Questions 1-3 (addressing requests for accommodation under the ADA).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> <I>See id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>28. The requirement that no specific words or phrases are necessary to communicate a limitation or request a reasonable accommodation includes not needing to specifically identify whether a condition is “pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions” or whether it is a “physical or mental condition.” The statutory definition of “limitation” uses the words “condition” and “related” twice (“known limitation” means a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.).
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> Under § 1636.3(d), “physical or mental conditions” are impediments or problems affecting an employee that may be modest or minor.
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> A “physical or mental condition” includes when an employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions has a need or a problem related to maintaining their health or the health of the pregnancy; or is seeking health care related to pregnancy, childbirth, or a related medical condition itself.
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> “Related medical conditions” are conditions related to the pregnancy or childbirth of the specific employee in question.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4); 29 CFR 1636.3(a)(2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> 29 CFR 1636.3(a)(2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>29. Many, but not all, conditions related to pregnancy and childbirth can be both a “limitation” and a “related medical condition.” For example, hyperemesis gravidarum experienced during pregnancy is a “condition” that could be classified as either a “limitation” (nausea and vomiting that arises out of pregnancy), or a “related medical condition” (a condition that is related to pregnancy); similarly, incontinence could be a “limitation” (for example, when someone who is pregnant becomes less able to comfortably hold urine and thus requires more frequent bathroom breaks), or a “related medical condition” (for example, when the medical condition of incontinence arises out of or is exacerbated as a result of pregnancy or childbirth).
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> Either way, such needs can be a reason for a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> By contrast, normal weight gain during pregnancy that necessitates a larger uniform would be a “limitation” but not a “related medical condition.”</P></FTNT>
<P>30. Because the statute uses the same term (“condition”) to define both “limitation” and “related medical conditions” and because some “conditions” can be both a “limitation” and a “related medical condition,” an employee does not have to identify whether a particular condition is a “limitation” or a “related medical condition” when requesting a reasonable accommodation. For example, where an employee is experiencing nausea and vomiting in connection with a pregnancy, the employee need not determine whether this is a “limitation” or a “related medical condition” in order to request an accommodation under the PWFA. Similarly, there is no need for the employer to make such a determination before granting an accommodation under the PWFA.
</P>
<P>31. Finally, PWFA limitations also may be ADA disabilities.
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/> Therefore, an employee is not required to identify the statute under which they are requesting a reasonable accommodation. Doing so would require that employees seeking accommodations use specific words or phrases, which § 1636.3(d) prohibits.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4); <I>see also infra</I> in the Interpretive Guidance in section <I>1636.7(a)(1)</I> under <I>The PWFA and the ADA.</I></P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(e) Consideration of Mitigating Measures
</HD2>
<P>32. There may be steps that an employee can take to mitigate, or lessen, the effects of a known limitation such as taking medication, getting extra rest, or using a reasonable accommodation. Paragraph (e) of § 1636.3 explains that the ameliorative, or positive, effects of “mitigating measures,” as that term is defined in the ADA,
<SU>35</SU>
<FTREF/> shall not be considered when determining whether the employee has a limitation under the PWFA. By contrast, the detrimental or non-ameliorative effects of mitigating measures, such as negative side effects of medication, the burden of following a particular treatment regimen, and complications that arise from surgery, may be considered when determining whether an employee has a limitation under the PWFA.
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> Both the positive and negative effects of mitigating measures may be considered when determining what accommodation an employee may need.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>35</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12102(4)(E).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(j)(1)(vi) and (j)(4)(ii); <I>see also</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(j)(1)(vi).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(f) Qualified Employee
</HD2>
<P>33. An employee must meet the definition of “qualified” in the PWFA in one of two ways.
<SU>37</SU>
<FTREF/> Paragraph (f) of § 1636.3 reiterates the statutory language that “qualified employee” means an employee who, with or without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of the position.
<SU>38</SU>
<FTREF/> Additionally, following the statute, § 1636.3(f) also states that an employee shall be considered qualified if: (1) any inability to perform an essential function(s) is for a temporary period; (2) the essential function(s) could be performed in the near future; and (3) the inability to perform the essential function(s) can be reasonably accommodated.
<SU>39</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>37</SU> The PWFA does not address prerequisites for a position. Whether an employee is qualified for the position in question is determined based on whether the employee can perform the essential functions of the position, with or without a reasonable accommodation, or based on the second part of the PWFA's definition of “qualified.” 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>38</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>39</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6)(A)-(C).</P></FTNT>
<P>34. For both definitions of qualified, the determination of whether an employee with a known limitation is qualified should be based on the capabilities of the employee at the time of the relevant employment decision.
<SU>40</SU>
<FTREF/> The determination of qualified should not be based on speculation that the employee may become unable in the future to perform certain tasks, may cause increased health insurance premiums or workers' compensation costs, or may require leave.
<SU>41</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>40</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(m).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>41</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(m).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(f)(1) Qualified Employee—With or Without Reasonable Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>35. The first way that an employee can be “qualified” under 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6) is if they can perform the essential functions of their job with or without reasonable accommodation, which is the same language as in the ADA and is interpreted accordingly. “Reasonable” has the same meaning as under the ADA on this topic—an accommodation that “seems reasonable on its face, <I>i.e.,</I> ordinarily or in the run of cases,” “feasible,” or “plausible.” 
<SU>42</SU>
<FTREF/> Many employees will meet this part of the PWFA definition of qualified. For example, a pregnant cashier who needs a stool to perform the job will be qualified with the reasonable accommodation of a stool. A teacher recovering from childbirth who needs additional bathroom breaks will be qualified with a reasonable accommodation that allows such breaks.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>42</SU> <I>US Airways, Inc.</I> v. <I>Barnett,</I> 535 U.S. 391, 401-02 (2002); <I>see, e.g., Shapiro</I> v. <I>Twp. of Lakewood,</I> 292 F.3d 356, 360 (3d Cir. 2002) (citing the definition from <I>Barnett</I>); <I>Osborne</I> v. <I>Baxter Healthcare Corp.,</I> 798 F.3d 1260, 1267 (10th Cir. 2015) (citing the definition from <I>Barnett</I>); <I>EEOC</I> v. <I>United Airlines, Inc.,</I> 693 F.3d 760, 762 (7th Cir. 2012) (citing the definition from <I>Barnett</I>); <I>see also Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text accompanying nn.8-9 (citing the definition from <I>Barnett</I>).</P></FTNT>
<HD3>“Qualified” for the Reasonable Accommodation of Leave
</HD3>
<P>36. When determining whether an employee who needs leave as a reasonable accommodation meets the definition of “qualified,” the relevant inquiry is whether the employee would be able to perform the essential functions of the position, with or without reasonable accommodation (or, if not, if the inability to perform the essential function(s) is for a temporary period, the essential function(s) could be performed in the near future, and the inability to perform the essential function(s) can be reasonably accommodated), with the benefit of a period of leave (e.g., intermittent leave, part-time work, or a period of leave or time off). Thus, an employee who needs some form of leave to recover from a known limitation related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions can readily meet the definition of “qualified” under the first part of the PWFA definition because it is reasonable to conclude that once they return from the period of leave (or during the time they are working if it is intermittent leave), they will be able to perform the essential functions of the job, with or without additional reasonable accommodations, or will be “qualified” under the second part of the PWFA definition.
<SU>43</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>43</SU> If the employee will not be able to perform all of the essential functions at the end of the leave period, with or without accommodation, the employee may still be qualified under the second part of the PWFA's definition of qualified employee. 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(f)(2) Qualified Employee—Temporary Suspension of an Essential Function(s)
</HD2>
<P>37. The PWFA provides that an employee can meet the definition of “qualified” even if they cannot perform one or more essential functions of the position in question with or without a reasonable accommodation, provided three conditions are met: (1) the inability to perform an essential function(s) is for a temporary period; (2) the essential function(s) could be performed in the near future; and (3) the inability to perform the essential function(s) can be reasonably accommodated.
<SU>44</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>44</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6); <I>see</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 27 (“[T]he temporary inability to perform essential functions due to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions does not render a worker `unqualified.' . . . [T]here may be a need for a pregnant worker to temporarily perform other tasks or otherwise be excused from performing essential functions before fully returning to her position once she is able.”).</P></FTNT>
<P>38. Based on the overall structure and wording of the statute, the second part of the definition of “qualified” is relevant only when an employee cannot perform one or more essential functions of the job in question, even with a reasonable accommodation, due to a known limitation under the PWFA. It is not relevant in any other circumstance. If the employee can perform the essential functions of the position with or without a reasonable accommodation, the first definition of “qualified” applies (<I>i.e.,</I> able to do the job with or without a reasonable accommodation). For example, if a pregnant employee requests additional restroom breaks, they are qualified if they can perform the essential functions of the job with the reasonable accommodation of additional restroom breaks, and, if so, there is no need to reach the second part of the definition of “qualified,” <I>i.e.,</I> to apply definitions of “temporary” or “in the near future,” or to determine whether the inability to perform an essential function(s) can be reasonably accommodated (as no such inability exists).
</P>
<P>39. By contrast, some examples of situations where the second part of the definition of “qualified” may be relevant include: (1) a pregnant construction worker is told by their health care provider to avoid lifting more than 20 pounds during the second through ninth months of pregnancy, an essential function of the worker's job requires lifting more than 20 pounds, and there is not a reasonable accommodation that will allow the employee to perform that function without lifting more than 20 pounds; and (2) a pregnant police officer is unable because of their pregnancy to perform patrol duties during the third through ninth months of pregnancy, patrol duties are an essential function of the job, and there is not a reasonable accommodation that will allow the employee to perform the patrol duties.
</P>
<P>40. This definition is solely concerned with determining whether an individual is “qualified.” An employer may still defend the failure to provide the reasonable accommodation based on undue hardship.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(f)(2)(i) Temporary
</HD2>
<P>41. “Temporary” means that the need to suspend one or more essential functions is “lasting for a limited time,
<SU>45</SU>
<FTREF/> not permanent, and may extend beyond `in the near future.' ” How long it may take before the essential function(s) can be performed is further limited by the definition of “in the near future.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45</SU> <I>Temporary,</I><I> Merriam-Webster.com</I>, <I>https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/temporary</I> (last visited Mar. 13, 2024) (defining “temporary” as “lasting for a limited time”). This definition is consistent with logic in the House Report, which states that “the temporary inability to perform essential functions due to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions does not render a worker `unqualified' ” and cites to <I>Robert</I> v. <I>Board of County Commissioners of Brown County,</I> 691 F.3d 1211, 1218 (10th Cir. 2012). <I>See</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 27, n.109.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(f)(2)(ii) In the Near Future
</HD2>
<P>42. An employee can be qualified under the exception in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6)(A)-(C) if they could perform the essential function(s) “in the near future.” In explaining the inclusion of this additional definition of “qualified,” the House Report analogized the suspension of an essential function under the PWFA to cases under the ADA regarding leave; “in the near future” is a term some courts have used in the context of determining whether an employee can perform the essential functions of the job with a reasonable accommodation of leave and, therefore, is qualified under the ADA.
<SU>46</SU>
<FTREF/> These ADA leave cases provide some helpful guideposts to interpret this term in the PWFA. Under the ADA, courts have concluded that an employee who needs indefinite leave (that is, leave for a period of time that they cannot reasonably estimate under the circumstances) cannot perform essential job functions “in the near future.” 
<SU>47</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, the Commission concludes that a need under the PWFA to indefinitely suspend an essential function(s) cannot reasonably be considered to meet the standard of an employee who could perform the essential function(s) “in the near future.” 
<SU>48</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>46</SU> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 27-28. As explained <I>infra,</I> this definition of “qualified” at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6)(A)-(C) is not used to determine “qualified” for the purposes of leave under the PWFA.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>47</SU> <I>See, e.g., Herrmann</I> v. <I>Salt Lake City Corp.,</I> 21 F.4th 666, 676-77 (10th Cir. 2021); <I>Cisneros</I> v. <I>Wilson,</I> 226 F.3d 1113, 1129 (10th Cir. 2000), <I>overruled on other grounds by Bd. of Trs. of Univ. of Ala.</I> v. <I>Garrett,</I> 531 U.S. 356 (2001). The Commission cites these ADA cases because they use the term “in the near future” in a related context (employees are “qualified” for leave under the ADA because the leave will allow them to return to work and perform essential functions “in the near future”). The Commission emphasizes its position, as discussed below, that under both the PWFA and the ADA, leave provided as an accommodation does not constitute a suspension of an essential function. Thus, under the PWFA, in determining whether an essential function could be performed “in the near future,” the period of time during which an employee may be on leave is not included in the assessment. Likewise, in determining whether an individual is qualified for leave as a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA, the statutory term “in the near future” is not relevant.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48</SU> However, the Commission notes that the employee's inability to pinpoint the exact date when they expect to be able to perform the essential functions of the position, or their ability to provide only an estimated range of dates, does not make the temporary suspension of the essential function(s) “indefinite” or mean that they cannot perform the job's essential functions “in the near future.” The fact that an exact date is not necessary is supported by the language in the statute, which requires that the essential function(s) “could” be performed in the near future. 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6)(B).</P></FTNT>
<P>43. Pregnancy is a temporary condition with an ascertainable end date; the request to temporarily suspend an essential function(s) due to a current pregnancy will never be indefinite and will not be more than generally 40 weeks. Thus, for a current pregnancy, § 1636.3(f) defines “in the near future” to mean generally 40 weeks from the start of the temporary suspension of an essential function(s). To define “in the near future” as less than generally 40 weeks—<I>i.e.,</I> the duration of a full-term pregnancy—would run counter to a central purpose of the PWFA of keeping pregnant employees in the workforce even when pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions necessitate the reasonable accommodation of temporarily suspending the performance of one or more essential functions of a job.
<SU>49</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>49</SU> <I>See</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 5 (“When pregnant workers do not have access to reasonable workplace accommodations, they are often forced to choose between their financial security and a healthy pregnancy. Ensuring that pregnant workers have access to reasonable accommodations will promote the economic well-being of working mothers and their families and promote healthy pregnancies.”); <I>id.</I> at 22 (“When pregnant workers are not provided reasonable accommodations on the job, they are oftentimes forced to choose between economic security and their health or the health of their babies.”); <I>id.</I> at 24 (“Ensuring pregnant workers have reasonable accommodations helps ensure that pregnant workers remain healthy and earn an income when they need it the most.”); <I>id.</I> at 33 (“The PWFA is about ensuring that pregnant workers can stay safe and healthy on the job by being provided reasonable accommodations for pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions . . . . The PWFA is one crucial step needed to reduce the disparities pregnant workers face by ensuring that pregnant women, and especially pregnant women of color, can remain safe and healthy at work.”).</P></FTNT>
<P>44. The Commission emphasizes that the definition in § 1636.3(f)(2)(ii) does not mean that the essential function(s) always must be suspended for 40 weeks, or that if an employee seeks the temporary suspension of an essential function(s) for 40 weeks the employer must automatically grant it. The actual length of the temporary suspension of the essential function(s) will depend upon what the employee requires, and the covered entity always has available the defense that it would create an undue hardship. However, the mere fact that the temporary suspension of one or more essential functions is needed for any time period up to and including generally 40 weeks for a pregnant employee will not, on its own, render an employee unqualified under the PWFA.
</P>
<P>45. For conditions other than a current pregnancy, the Commission is not setting a specific length of time for “in the near future” because, unlike a current pregnancy, there is not a consistent measure of how long these diverse conditions can generally last, and thus, what “in the near future” might mean in different instances.
</P>
<P>46. The Commission notes that beyond an agreement that an indefinite amount of time does not meet the standard of “in the near future,” how long a period of leave may be under the ADA and still be a reasonable accommodation (thus, allowing the individual to remain qualified) varies.
<FTREF/>
<SU>50</SU> The Commission believes, however, that depending on the facts of a case, leave cases that allow for a longer period are more relevant to the determination of “in the near future” under the PWFA for three reasons. First, what constitutes “in the near future” may differ depending on factors, including but not limited to, the known limitation and the employee's position. For example, an employee whose essential job functions require lifting only during the summer months would remain qualified even if unable to lift during a 7-month period over the fall, winter, and spring months because the employee could perform the essential function “in the near future” (in this case, as soon as the employee was required to perform that function). Second, the determination of whether the employee could resume the essential functions of their position in the near future is only one step in the definition of qualified; standing alone, it does not require the employer to provide an accommodation. If the temporary suspension cannot be reasonably accommodated, or if the temporary suspension causes an undue hardship, the employer is not required to provide it.
<SU>51</SU>
<FTREF/> Third, as detailed in the notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), especially in the first year after giving birth, employees may experience serious health issues related to their pregnancy that may prevent them from performing the essential functions of their positions.
<SU>52</SU>
<FTREF/> Accommodating these situations and allowing employees to stay employed are among the key purposes of the PWFA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>50</SU> <I>See, e.g., Robert,</I> 691 F.3d at 1218 (citing a case in which a 6-month leave request was too long to be a reasonable accommodation but declining to address whether, in the instant case, a further exemption following the 6-month temporary accommodation at issue would exceed “reasonable durational bounds”) (citing <I>Epps</I> v. <I>City of Pine Lawn,</I> 353 F.3d 588, 593 (8th Cir. 2003)); <I>see also Blanchet</I> v. <I>Charter Commc'ns, LLC,</I> 27 F.4th 1221, 1225-26, 1230-31 (6th Cir. 2022) (determining that a pregnant employee who developed postpartum depression and requested a 5-month leave after her initial return date, and was fired after requesting an additional 60 days of leave could still be “qualified,” as additional leave could have been a reasonable accommodation); <I>Cleveland</I> v. <I>Fed. Express Corp.,</I> 83 F. App'x 74, 76-81 (6th Cir. 2003) (declining “to adopt a bright-line rule defining a maximum duration of leave that can constitute a reasonable accommodation” and determining that a 6-month medical leave for a pregnant employee with systemic lupus could be a reasonable accommodation); <I>Garcia-Ayala</I> v. <I>Lederle Parenterals, Inc.,</I> 212 F.3d 638, 641-42, 646-49 (1st Cir. 2000) (reversing the district court's finding that a secretary was not a “qualified individual” under the ADA because additional months of unpaid leave could be a reasonable accommodation, even though she had already taken over year of medical leave for breast cancer treatment, and rejecting per se rules as to when additional medical leave is unreasonable); <I>Nunes</I> v. <I>Wal-Mart Stores, Inc.,</I> 164 F.3d 1243, 1245-1247 (9th Cir. 1999) (opining that, because extending leave to 9 months to treat a fainting disorder could be a reasonable accommodation, an employee's inability to work during that period of leave did not automatically render her unqualified); <I>Cayetano</I> v. <I>Fed. Express Corp.,</I> No. 1:19-CV-10619, 2022 WL 2467735, at *1-*2, *4-*7 (S.D.N.Y. July 6, 2022) (determining that an employee who underwent shoulder surgery could be “qualified” because 6 months of leave is not per se unreasonable as a matter of law); <I>Durrant</I> v. <I>Chemical/Chase Bank/Manhattan Bank, N.A.,</I> 81 F. Supp. 2d 518, 519, 521-22 (S.D.N.Y. 2000) (concluding that an employee who was on leave for nearly 1 year due to a leg injury and extended her leave to treat a psychiatric condition could be “qualified” under the ADA with the accommodation of additional leave of reasonable duration).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>51</SU> The Commission is aware of and disagrees with ADA cases that held, for example, that 2 to 3 months of leave following a 12-week FMLA period was presumptively unreasonable as an accommodation. <I>See, e.g., Severson</I> v. <I>Heartland Woodcraft, Inc.,</I> 872 F.3d 476, 481 (7th Cir. 2017). In any event, such cases have no bearing on the determination of “in the near future” under the definition of “qualified” for the PWFA because this definition expressly contemplates temporarily suspending one or more essential functions.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>52</SU> 88 FR 54724-25; <I>see, e.g.,</I> Susanna Trost et al., U.S. Dep't of Health &amp; Hum. Servs., Ctrs. for Disease Control &amp; Prevention, <I>Pregnancy-Related Deaths: Data from Maternal Mortality Review Committees in 36 U.S. States, 2017-2019</I> (2022), <I>https://www.cdc.gov/reproductivehealth/maternal-mortality/erase-mm/data-mmrc.html</I> (stating that 53% of pregnancy-related deaths occurred from one week to one year after delivery, and 30% occurred one- and one-half months to one year postpartum).</P></FTNT>
<P>47. Further, the Commission recognizes that employees may need an essential function(s) temporarily suspended because of a current pregnancy; take leave to recover from childbirth; and, upon returning to work, need the same essential function(s) or a different one temporarily suspended due to the same or a different physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. In keeping with the requirement that the determination of whether an individual is qualified under the PWFA should be made at the time of the employment decision,
<SU>53</SU>
<FTREF/> the determination of “in the near future” should be made when the employee asks for each accommodation that requires the suspension of one or more essential functions. Thus, an employee who is 3 months pregnant and who is seeking an accommodation of the temporary suspension of an essential function(s) due to a limitation related to pregnancy will meet the definition of “in the near future” because the inability to perform the essential function(s) will end in less than 40 weeks. When the employee returns to work from leave after childbirth, if the employee needs an essential function temporarily suspended for a reason related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, there should be a new determination made as to whether the employee is qualified under § 1636.3(f)(2). In other words, there is a new calculation of “in the near future” with the new employment decision that involves the temporary suspension of an essential function(s).
<SU>54</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>53</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(m).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>54</SU> There is a new calculation regardless of whether the employee seeks to temporarily suspend the same essential function that was suspended during pregnancy or a different one.</P></FTNT>
<P>48. Determining “in the near future” in the definition of “qualified” when the employment decision is made is necessary because it would often be difficult, if not impossible, for a pregnant employee to predict what their limitations (if any) will be when returning to work after pregnancy. While pregnant, they may not know whether and, if so, for how long, they will have a known limitation or need an accommodation. They also may not know whether an accommodation after returning to work will require the temporary suspension of an essential function(s), and, if so, for how long. All of these questions may be relevant under the PWFA's second definition of “qualified.”
</P>
<P>49. Leave as a reasonable accommodation (e.g., for recovery from pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions or any other purpose) does not count as time when an essential function(s) is suspended and, thus, is not relevant for the second part of the definition of “qualified” (§ 1636.3(f)(2)). If an individual needs leave as a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA or, indeed, any reasonable accommodation other than the temporary suspension of an essential function(s), only the first part of the definition of “qualified” is relevant (§ 1636.3(f)(1)). In the case of leave, the question would be whether the employee, after returning from the requested period of leave, would be able to perform the essential functions of the position with or without reasonable accommodation (or, if not, if the inability to perform the essential function(s) is for a temporary period, the essential function(s) could be performed in the near future, and the inability to perform the essential function(s) can be reasonably accommodated). Furthermore, for some employees, leave to recover from childbirth will not require a reasonable accommodation because they have a right to leave under Federal, State, or local law or under an employer's policy.
<SU>55</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>55</SU> For additional information on how leave should be addressed under the PWFA, <I>see infra</I> in the Interpretive Guidance in section <I>1636.3(h)</I> under <I>Particular Matters Regarding Leave as a Reasonable Accommodation.</I> </P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(f)(2)(iii) Can Be Reasonably Accommodated
</HD2>
<P>50. The second part of the PWFA's definition of “qualified” further requires that the suspension “can be reasonably accommodated.” 
<SU>56</SU>
<FTREF/> For some positions, this may mean that one or more essential functions are temporarily suspended, with or without assigning the essential function(s) to someone else, and the employee continues to perform the remaining functions of the job. For other positions, some of the essential function(s) may be temporarily suspended, with or without assigning the essential function(s) to someone else, and the employee may be given other tasks to replace them. In other situations, one or more essential functions may be temporarily suspended, with or without giving the essential function(s) to someone else, and the employee may perform the functions of a different job to which the employer temporarily transfers or moves them, or the employee may participate in the employer's light or modified duty program.
<SU>57</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>56</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6)(C).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>57</SU> <I>See</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 27 (“[T]he temporary inability to perform essential functions due to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions does not render a worker `unqualified.' . . . [T]here may be a need for a pregnant worker to temporarily perform other tasks or otherwise be excused from performing essential functions before fully returning to her position once she is able.”).</P></FTNT>
<P>51. Examples Regarding § 1636.3(f)(2):
</P>
<P><I>Example #1/Definition of “Qualified”:</I> One month into pregnancy, Akira, an employee in a paint manufacturing plant, is told by her health care provider that she should avoid certain chemicals for the remainder of the pregnancy. One of several essential functions of the job involves regular exposure to these chemicals. Akira talks to her supervisor, explains her limitation, and asks that she be allowed to continue to perform her other tasks that do not require exposure to the chemicals.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for accommodation: Akira's need to avoid exposure to chemicals is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Akira needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; and Akira has communicated this information to her employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: If modifications that would allow Akira to continue to perform the essential functions of her position (such as enclosing the chemicals, providing a local exhaust vent, or providing additional personal protective gear) are not effective or cause an undue hardship, Akira can still be qualified under the definition that allows for a temporary suspension of an essential function(s).
</P>
<P>a. Akira's inability to perform the essential function(s) is temporary.
</P>
<P>b. Akira can perform the essential function(s) of her job in the near future because she is pregnant and needs an essential function(s) suspended for less than 40 weeks.
</P>
<P>c. Akira's inability to perform the essential function(s) may be reasonably accommodated. The employer can suspend the essential function(s) that requires her to work with the chemicals, while allowing her to do the remainder of her job.
</P>
<P><I>Example #2/Definition of “Qualified”:</I> Two months into a pregnancy, Lydia, a delivery driver, is told by her health care provider that she should adhere to clinical guidelines for lifting during pregnancy, which means she should not continue to lift 30-40 pounds, which she routinely did at work when moving packages as part of the job. She discusses the limitation with her employer. The employer is unable to provide Lydia with assistance in lifting packages, and Lydia requests placement in the employer's light duty program, which is used for drivers who have on-the-job injuries.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for accommodation: Lydia's lifting restriction is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; she needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; and she has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Lydia needs the temporary suspension of an essential function(s).
</P>
<P>a. Lydia's inability to perform the essential function(s) is temporary.
</P>
<P>b. Lydia can perform the essential function(s) of her job in the near future because Lydia is pregnant and needs an essential function(s) suspended for less than 40 weeks.
</P>
<P>c. Lydia's need to temporarily suspend an essential function(s) of her job may be reasonably accommodated through the existing light duty program.
</P>
<P><I>Example #3/Definition of “Qualified”:</I> Olga's position as a carpenter involves lifting heavy wood that weighs more than 20 pounds. Upon returning to work after giving birth, Olga tells her supervisor that she has a lifting restriction of 10 pounds due to her cesarean delivery. The restriction is for 8 weeks. The employer does not have an established light duty program but does have other design or administrative duties that Olga can perform.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for accommodation: Olga's lifting restriction is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; she needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; and she has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Olga needs the temporary suspension of an essential function(s).
</P>
<P>a. Olga's inability to perform the essential function(s) is temporary.
</P>
<P>b. Olga can perform the essential function(s) of her job in the near future because she needs the essential function(s) suspended for 8 weeks.
<SU>58</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>58</SU> <I>See Cehrs</I> v. <I>Ne. Ohio Alzheimer's Rsch. Ctr.,</I> 155 F.3d 775, 781-783 (6th Cir. 1998) (determining that an employee suffering from severe psoriasis who was on an 8-week leave of absence and requested an additional 1-month leave could be “otherwise qualified” under the ADA).</P></FTNT>
<P>c. Olga's need to temporarily suspend an essential function(s) of her job may be reasonably accommodated by temporarily suspending the essential function(s) and temporarily assigning Olga to design or administrative duties.
</P>
<P><I>Example #4/Definition of “Qualified”:</I> One of the essential functions of Elena's position as a park ranger involves patrolling the park. Park rangers also answer questions for guests, sell merchandise, and explain artifacts and maps. Due to her postpartum depression, Elena is experiencing an inability to sleep, severe anxiety, and fatigue. Her anti-depressant medication also is causing dizziness and blurred vision, which make it difficult to drive. Elena seeks the temporary suspension of the essential function of patrolling the park for 12 weeks.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for accommodation: Elena's inability to sleep, anxiety, fatigue, dizziness, and blurred vision are physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; she needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; and she has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Elena needs the temporary suspension of an essential function(s).
</P>
<P>a. Elena's inability to perform the essential function(s) is temporary.
</P>
<P>b. Elena can perform the essential function(s) of her job in the near future because she needs an essential function(s) suspended for 12 weeks.
<SU>59</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>59</SU> <I>See Criado</I> v. <I>IBM Corp.,</I> 145 F.3d 437, 443-43 (1st Cir. 1998) (concluding that an employee with severe anxiety and depression who was on leave for approximately 6 weeks and requested an extension of temporary leave was “qualified” under the ADA); <I>Durrant,</I> 81 F. Supp. 2d at 519, 521-22 (concluding that an employee who was on leave for nearly 11 months due to a leg injury and extended her leave to treat a psychiatric condition could be “qualified” under the ADA); <I>Powers</I> v. <I>Polygram Holding,</I> 40 F. Supp. 2d 195, 199 (S.D.N.Y. 1999) (determining that an employee experiencing bipolar disorder who requested a total of 17 weeks of leave could be “qualified” under the ADA).</P></FTNT>
<P>c. Elena's need to temporarily suspend an essential function(s) of her job may be reasonably accommodated by temporarily suspending the essential function(s) and temporarily assigning Elena to duties such as answering questions and selling merchandise at the visitor's center.
</P>
<P><I>Example #5/Definition of “Qualified”:</I> Tamara's position at a retail establishment involves working as a cashier and folding and putting away clothing. In her final trimester of pregnancy, Tamara develops carpal tunnel syndrome that makes gripping objects and buttoning clothing difficult. Tamara seeks the temporary suspension of the essential functions of folding and putting away clothing. The employer provides the accommodation and temporarily assigns Tamara to greeting and assisting customers, tasks that cashiers are normally assigned to on a rotating basis. When she returns to work after she gives birth, Tamara continues to experience carpal tunnel symptoms, which her doctor believes will cease in approximately 16 weeks.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for accommodation: Tamara's inability to grip objects and button clothing are physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; she needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; and she has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Tamara needs the temporary suspension of an essential function(s).
</P>
<P>a. Tamara's inability to perform the essential function(s) is temporary.
</P>
<P>b. Tamara can perform the essential functions of her job in the near future because she needs an essential function(s) suspended for 16 weeks.
<SU>60</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>60</SU> <I>See Rascon</I> v. <I>U.S. W. Commc'ns, Inc.,</I> 143 F.3d 1324, 1333 (10th Cir. 1998) (agreeing that an employee diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder who requested a 4-month leave for a treatment program was a “qualified” individual under the ADA), <I>abrogated on other grounds by New Hampshire</I> v. <I>Maine,</I> 532 U.S. 742 (2001).</P></FTNT>
<P>c. Tamara's need to temporarily suspend an essential function(s) of her job may be reasonably accommodated by temporarily suspending the essential function(s) and temporarily assigning Tamara to duties such as greeting and assisting customers.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(g) Essential Functions
</HD2>
<P>52. Section 1636.3(g) adopts the Commission's definition of “essential functions” contained in the regulation implementing the ADA.
<SU>61</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, in determining whether something is an essential function, the first consideration is whether employees in the position actually are required to perform the function. This consideration will generally include one or more of the factors listed in § 1636.3(g)(1), although this list is non-exhaustive. Relevant evidence as to whether a particular function is essential includes, but is not limited to, information from the employer (such as the position description) and information from incumbents (including the employee requesting the accommodation) about what they actually do on the job.
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/> This includes whether employees in the position actually will be required to perform the function during the time for which an accommodation is expected to be needed. The list of factors in § 1636.3(g)(2) is not exhaustive, and other relevant evidence also may be presented. No single factor is dispositive, and greater weight will not be granted to the types of evidence included on the list than to the types of evidence not listed.
<SU>63</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>61</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(n).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(n); 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(n).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>63</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(n).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(h) Reasonable Accommodation—Generally
</HD2>
<HD2>1636.3(h)(1) Definition of Reasonable Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>53. The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(7) states that the term “reasonable accommodation” has the meaning given to it in section 101 of the ADA 
<SU>64</SU>
<FTREF/> and shall be construed as it is construed under the ADA and the Commission's regulation implementing the PWFA. Thus, under the PWFA, as under the ADA, the obligation to make reasonable accommodation is a form of non-discrimination and is therefore best understood as a means by which barriers to the equal employment opportunity are removed or alleviated.
<SU>65</SU>
<FTREF/> A modification or adjustment is reasonable if it “seems reasonable on its face, <I>i.e.,</I> ordinarily or in the run of cases”; this means it is “reasonable” if it appears to be “feasible” or “plausible.” 
<SU>66</SU>
<FTREF/> An accommodation also must be effective in meeting the qualified employee's needs, meaning it removes a work-related barrier and provides the employee with equal employment opportunity.
<SU>67</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>64</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12111(9).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>65</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix 1630.9.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>66</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at General Principles (quoting <I>Barnett,</I> 535 U.S. at 403-06).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>67</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at General Principles &amp; Question 9; 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.9.</P></FTNT>
<P>54. Under the PWFA, “reasonable accommodation” has the same definition as under the ADA, with the exceptions noted in items (1) through (3) of this paragraph.
<SU>68</SU>
<FTREF/> Therefore, like the ADA, reasonable accommodation under the PWFA includes: (1) modifications or adjustments to the job application process that enable a qualified applicant with a known limitation to be considered for the position; (2) modifications or adjustments to the work environment, or to the manner or circumstances under which the position is preformed to allow a qualified employee with a known limitation to perform the essential functions of the job; and (3) modifications or adjustments that enable an employee with a known limitation to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment as are enjoyed by its other similarly situated employees without known limitations.
<SU>69</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>68</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(7).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>69</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(o)(1)(i) through (iii). The requirement for employers to provide reasonable accommodations when requested that provide for equal benefits and privileges encompasses the requirement that an accommodation should provide the individual with an equal employment opportunity. 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.9. This requirement stems from the ADA's prohibition on discrimination in “terms, conditions, and privileges of employment.” 42 U.S.C. 12112(a). The PWFA prohibits adverse action in the terms, conditions, or privileges of employment against a qualified employee for using or requesting an accommodation and Title VII—which applies to employees affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions—prohibits discrimination in the terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000e-2(a)(1). Based on the text of the PWFA, Title VII, and the requirement under the PWFA that reasonable accommodation has the same definition as in the ADA, the same requirement applies. Thus, a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA includes a change to allow employees affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions nondiscrimination in the terms, conditions, or privileges of employment or, in shorthand, to enjoy equal benefits and privileges. <I>See also</I> EEOC, <I>Compliance Manual Section 613 Terms, Conditions, and Privileges of Employment,</I> 613.1(a) (1982) [hereinafter <I>Compliance Manual on Terms, Conditions, and Privileges of Employment</I>], <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/cm-613-terms-conditions-and-privileges-employment</I> (providing that “terms, conditions, and privileges of employment” are “to be read in the broadest possible terms” and “a distinction is rarely made between terms of employment, conditions of employment, or privileges of employment”).</P></FTNT>
<P>55. Because the PWFA also provides for reasonable accommodations when a qualified employee temporarily cannot perform one or more essential functions of a position but can meet the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6)(A)-(C), reasonable accommodations under the PWFA also include modifications or adjustments that allow a qualified employee with a known limitation to temporarily suspend one or more essential functions of the position. This can be either through the essential function(s) being suspended or through the essential function(s) being suspended and the employee doing other work as set out in § 1636.3(f)(2)(iii).
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(h)(2) How To Request a Reasonable Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>56. To request a reasonable accommodation, the employee (or the employee's representative) must communicate to the employer that they need an adjustment or change at work due to their known limitation (a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions). Section 1636.3(d) applies to communications to request a reasonable accommodation. An employee may use plain language and need not mention the PWFA. An employee does not have to use the phrases “reasonable accommodation,” “limitation,” “known limitation,” “qualified,” or “essential function”; use any medical terminology; provide a specific medical condition; use any other specific words or phrases; or put the explanation of the need for accommodation in the form of a request.
</P>
<P>57. In these examples, the employee is communicating both their limitation and that they need an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation. The Commission expects that in the vast majority of cases these two communications will happen at the same time. All of these are examples of requests for reasonable accommodations under the PWFA.
</P>
<P><I>Example #6:</I> A pregnant employee tells her supervisor, “I'm having trouble getting to work at my scheduled starting time because of morning sickness.”
</P>
<P><I>Example #7:</I> An employee who gave birth 3 months ago tells the person who assigns her work at the employment agency, “I need an hour off once a week for treatments to help with my back problem that started during my pregnancy.”
</P>
<P><I>Example #8:</I> An employee tells a human resources specialist that they are worried about continuing to lift heavy boxes because they are concerned that it will harm their pregnancy.
</P>
<P><I>Example #9:</I> At the employee's request, an employee's spouse requests light duty for the employee because the employee has a lifting restriction related to pregnancy; the employee's spouse uses the employer's established process for requesting a reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P><I>Example #10:</I> An employee tells a manager of her need for more frequent bathroom breaks, explains that the breaks are needed because the employee is pregnant, but does not complete the employer's online form for requesting an accommodation.
</P>
<P><I>Example #11:</I> An employee tells a supervisor that she needs time off to recover from childbirth.
</P>
<HD3>Alleviating Increased Pain or Risk to Health Due to the Known Limitation
</HD3>
<P>58. One reason an employee may seek a reasonable accommodation is to alleviate increased pain or risk to health that is attributable to the physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions that has been communicated to the employer (the known limitation).
<SU>70</SU>
<FTREF/> When dealing with requests for accommodation concerning the alleviation of increased pain or risk to health associated with a known limitation, the goal is to provide an accommodation that allows the qualified employee to alleviate the identified pain or risk to health.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>70</SU> Depending on the facts of the case, the accommodation sought will allow an applicant to apply for the position, or an employee to perform the essential functions of the job, to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment, or to temporarily suspend an essential function(s) of the job.</P></FTNT>
<P>59. Examples Regarding Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health Due to the Known Limitation:
</P>
<P><I>Example #12/Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health:</I> Celia is a factory worker whose job requires her to regularly move boxes that weigh 50 pounds. Prior to her pregnancy, Celia occasionally felt pain in her knee when she walked for extended periods of time. When Celia returns to work after giving birth, which was by cesarean section, Celia requests that she limit tasks to those that do not require moving boxes of more than 30 pounds for 3 months because heavier lifting could increase the risk to her health and her continued recovery from childbirth. Under the PWFA, the employer is required to provide the requested accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship. However, under the PWFA, the employer would not be required to provide an accommodation for Celia's knee pain unless it was related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. The employer also may have accommodation responsibilities regarding Celia's knee pain and lifting restrictions under the ADA.
</P>
<P><I>Example #13/Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health:</I> Emily is a candidate for a police officer position. The application process takes place over several months and has multiple steps, one of which is a physical agility test. By the time it is Emily's turn to take the test, she is 7 months pregnant. To avoid risk to her health and the health of her pregnancy, Emily asks that the test be postponed and that her application be kept active so that once she has recovered from childbirth, she can resume the application process and not have to re-apply. Under the PWFA, the employer is required to provide the requested accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #14/Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health:</I> Jackie's position at a fabrication plant involves working with certain chemicals, which Jackie thinks is the reason she has a nagging cough and chapped skin on her hands. For the one year when she is nursing, Jackie seeks the accommodation of a temporary suspension of an essential function—working with the chemicals—because of the risk that the chemicals will contaminate the milk she produces. The employer provides the accommodation. After Jackie stops nursing, she no longer has any known limitations. Thus, under the PWFA, she can be assigned to work with the chemicals again even if she would prefer not to do that work, because the PWFA requires an employer to provide an accommodation only if it is needed due to a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. Jackie's employer may have accommodation responsibilities under the ADA.
</P>
<P><I>Example #15/Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health:</I> Margaret is a retail worker who is pregnant. Because of her pregnancy, Margaret feels pain in her back and legs when she has to move stacks of clothing from one area to the other, one of the essential functions of her position. She can still manage to move the clothes, but, because of the pain, she requests a cart to use when she is moving the garments. Under the PWFA, the employer is required to provide the requested accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #16/Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health:</I> Lourdes is pregnant and works outdoors as a farmworker. The conditions where she works expose her to certain chemicals and the conditions can be slippery. Because of her pregnancy, Lourdes has a problem with her balance and is more likely to slip and fall, and she needs to avoid exposure to the chemicals that she is normally exposed to at work. She seeks the accommodation of working indoors, which will allow her to avoid the conditions that could lead her to slip and fall and will allow her to avoid exposure to the chemicals. There is indoor work, which Lourdes is occasionally assigned to perform, available at the farm, as well as work that does not involve chemicals. Under the PWFA, the employer is required to provide the requested accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #17/Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health:</I> Avery works as an administrative assistant and is pregnant. Avery normally works in the office and commutes by driving and public transportation. Due to pregnancy, Avery is experiencing sciatica; commuting is painful because it requires Avery to sit and stand in one position for an extended period of time. Avery seeks the accommodation of teleworking or changing the start and end time of the workday in order to commute during less crowded times and reduce the commute time and thereby reduce the pain. Under the PWFA, the employer is required to provide the requested accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #18/Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health:</I> Arya is pregnant and works in a warehouse. When it is hot outside, the temperature in the warehouse increases to a level that creates a risk to Arya and her pregnancy.
<SU>71</SU>
<FTREF/> Arya seeks an accommodation of a portable cooling device to reduce the risk to her health and the health of her pregnancy because of the heat in her workplace. Under the PWFA, the employer is required to provide the requested accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>71</SU> U.S. Dep't of Health &amp; Hum. Servs., Ctrs. for Disease Control &amp; Prevention, <I>Heat and Pregnant Women</I> (Aug. 25, 2022), <I>https://www.cdc.gov/disasters/extremeheat/heat_and_pregnant_women.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<P><I>Example #19/Alleviating Pain or Risk to Health:</I> Talia is a nurse and is pregnant. The community where she lives is experiencing a surge in cases of a contagious respiratory viral disease that has been shown to increase the risk of negative outcomes for pregnancy. To reduce her risk and the risk to her pregnancy, Talia requests additional protective gear and to not be assigned to patients exhibiting symptoms of this virus. Under the PWFA, the employer is required to provide the requested accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<HD3>Particular Matters Regarding Leave as a Reasonable Accommodation
</HD3>
<P>60. Under the PWFA, leave may be a reasonable accommodation.
<SU>72</SU>
<FTREF/> If an employee requests leave as an accommodation or if there is no other reasonable accommodation that does not cause an undue hardship, the covered entity should evaluate whether to offer leave as a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA. This is the case even if the covered entity does not offer leave as an employee benefit,
<SU>73</SU>
<FTREF/> the employee is not eligible for leave under the employer's leave policy, or the employee has exhausted the leave the covered entity provides as a benefit (including leave exhausted under a workers' compensation program, the FMLA, or similar State or local laws).
<SU>74</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>72</SU> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 29 (noting that “leave is one possible accommodation under the PWFA, including time off to recover from delivery”).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>73</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text preceding Question 17 (explaining that if an employee with a disability needs 15 days of leave and an employer only provides 10 days of paid leave, the employer should allow the employee to use 10 days of paid leave and 5 days of unpaid leave). The Commission has stated in a technical assistance document regarding leave and the ADA that an employer should consider providing unpaid leave to an employee with a disability as a reasonable accommodation even when the employer does not offer leave as an employee benefit. <I>See</I> EEOC, <I>Employer-Provided Leave and the Americans with Disabilities Act,</I> at text above Example 4 (2016) [hereinafter <I>Technical Assistance on Employer-Provided Leave</I>], <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/employer-provided-leave-and-americans-disabilities-act.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>74</SU> <I>See supra</I> note 73. If an employee has a right to leave under the FMLA, an employer policy, or a State or local law, the employee is entitled to leave regardless of whether they request leave as a reasonable accommodation. An employee who needs leave beyond what they are entitled to under those laws or policies may request a reasonable accommodation.</P></FTNT>
<P>61. The Commission recognizes that there may be situations where an employer provides a reasonable accommodation to a qualified pregnant employee (e.g., a stool, additional breaks, or temporary suspension of one or more essential functions) under the PWFA, and then the employee requests leave as a reasonable accommodation (e.g., to recover from childbirth). In these situations, the covered entity should consider the request for the reasonable accommodation of leave to recover from childbirth in the same manner that it would any other request for leave as a reasonable accommodation. This requires first considering whether the employee will be able to perform the essential functions of the position with or without a reasonable accommodation after the period of leave, or, if not, whether, after the period of leave, the employee will meet the definition of “qualified” under § 1636.3(f)(2).
<SU>75</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>75</SU> These considerations are relevant only if the leave is needed as a reasonable accommodation. The covered entity should first consider if there is a leave program that covers the need for leave to recover from childbirth and for which the employee is eligible. If there is a leave program that covers the request, the covered entity may not need to assess the employee's ability to perform essential functions upon return from leave under the PWFA.</P></FTNT>
<P>62. A qualified employee with a known limitation who is granted leave as a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA is entitled to return to their same position unless the employer demonstrates that holding open the position would impose an undue hardship.
<SU>76</SU>
<FTREF/> When the employee is ready to return to work, the employer must allow the individual to return to the same position (assuming that there was no undue hardship in holding it open) if the employee is still qualified (<I>i.e.,</I> the employee can perform the essential functions of the position with or without reasonable accommodation under § 1636.3(f)(1) or if the employee meets the definition of “qualified” under § 1636.3(f)(2)).
<SU>77</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>76</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 18. As under the ADA, if an employer cannot hold a position open during the entire leave period without incurring undue hardship, the employer should consider whether it has a vacant, equivalent position for which the employee is qualified and to which the employee can be reassigned to continue their leave for a specific period of time and then, at the conclusion of the leave, can be returned to this new position.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>77</SU> <I>See id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>63. Under the PWFA, an employer does not have to provide a reasonable accommodation if it causes an undue hardship—a significant difficulty or expense. Thus, if an employer can demonstrate that the impact of the leave requested as a reasonable accommodation poses an undue hardship under the factors set out in § 1636.3(j)(2)—for example, because of the impact of its length, frequency, or unpredictable nature, or because of another factor that causes significant difficulty or expense—it does not have to provide the requested leave under the PWFA.
</P>
<P>64. Employees must be permitted to choose whether to use paid leave (whether accrued, as part of a short-term disability program, or as part of any other employee benefit) or unpaid leave to the same extent that the covered entity allows employees to choose between these types of leave when they are using leave for reasons unrelated to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
<SU>78</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, an employer must continue an employee's health insurance benefits during their leave period to the extent that it does so for other employees in a similar leave status, such as paid or unpaid leave. An employer is not required to provide additional paid leave under the PWFA beyond the amount provided to similarly situated employees.
<SU>79</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>78</SU> A failure to allow an employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions to use paid or unpaid leave to the same extent that the covered entity allows employees using leave for reasons unrelated to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions to do so or a failure to continue health care insurance for an employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions to the same extent that a covered entity does for other employees may be a violation of Title VII as well.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>79</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text after n.48.</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Ensuring That Employees Are Not Penalized for Using Reasonable Accommodations
</HD3>
<P>65. Generally, covered entities are not required to lower production standards for qualified employees receiving accommodations under the PWFA.
<SU>80</SU>
<FTREF/> However, for example, when the reasonable accommodation is leave, the employee may not be able to meet a production standard during the period of leave or, depending on the length of the leave, meet that standard for a defined period of time (e.g., the production standard measures production in 1 year and the employee was on leave for 4 months). Thus, if the reasonable accommodation is leave, the production standard may need to be prorated to account for the reduced amount of time the qualified employee worked.
<SU>81</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>80</SU> <I>See id.</I> at text accompanying n.14.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>81</SU> <I>See id.</I> at Question 19.</P></FTNT>
<P>66. In addition, covered entities making reasonable accommodations must ensure that their ordinary workplace policies or practices—including, but not limited to, attendance policies, productivity quotas, and requirements for mandatory overtime—do not operate to penalize qualified employees for utilizing PWFA accommodations.
<SU>82</SU>
<FTREF/> When a reasonable accommodation involves a pause in work—such as a break, a part-time or other reduced work schedule, or leave—a qualified employee cannot be penalized, or threatened with a penalty, for failing to perform work during that non-work period, including through actions like the assessment of penalty points for time off or discipline for failing to meet a production quota. For example, if a call center employee with a known limitation requests and is granted 2 hours of unpaid leave in the afternoon for rest, the employee's required number of calls may need to be reduced proportionately. Alternatively, the accommodation could allow for the qualified employee to make up the time at a different time during the day so that the employee's production standards and pay would not be reduced, as long as this would not make the accommodation ineffective.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>82</SU> <I>See id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>67. Similarly, policies that monitor employees for time on task (whether through automated means or otherwise) and penalize them for being off task may need to be modified to avoid imposing penalties for non-work periods that the qualified employee was granted as a reasonable accommodation. This includes situations in which hours worked or time on task are used to measure traits like “productivity,” “focus,” “availability,” or “contributions.” For example, if, as a reasonable accommodation, a qualified employee is excused from working overtime, and “availability” or “contribution” is measured by an employee's overtime hours, a qualified employee should not be penalized in those categories.
</P>
<P>68. If an accommodation under the PWFA involves the temporary suspension of an essential function(s) of the position, a covered entity may not penalize a qualified employee for not performing the essential function(s) that has been temporarily suspended. So, for example, a covered entity must not penalize a qualified employee for not meeting a production standard related to the performance of the essential function(s) that has been temporarily suspended.
</P>
<P>69. Penalizing an employee in these situations could render the accommodation ineffective, thus making the covered entity liable for failing to make reasonable accommodation.
<SU>83</SU>
<FTREF/> It also may be an adverse action in the terms, conditions, or privileges of employment or retaliation.
<SU>84</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>83</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 19; <I>see also</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) and the regulations in this part.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>84</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5); 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f).</P></FTNT>
<P>70. The following examples illustrate situations where penalizing an employee may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (failing to make reasonable accommodation absent undue hardship), (5) (prohibiting employers from taking adverse action against an employee on account of the employee using a reasonable accommodation), and/or section 2000gg-2(f) (prohibiting retaliation).
</P>
<P><I>Example #20/Not Penalizing Employees:</I> Arisa works in a fulfillment center that tracks employee productivity using personal tracking devices that monitor an employee's time on task and how long it takes an employee to complete a task. If the technology determines that an employee is spending insufficient time on task or taking too long to complete a task, the employee receives a warning, which can escalate to a reprimand and further discipline. Arisa is pregnant and, as a reasonable accommodation, is permitted to take bathroom breaks as necessary. Because the wearable technology determines that due to the approved additional bathroom breaks Arisa is spending insufficient time on task, Arisa receives a warning.
</P>
<P><I>Example #21/Not Penalizing Employees:</I> Hanh works in a call center that has a “no-fault” attendance policy where employees accrue penalty points for all absences and late arrivals, regardless of the reason for the lateness or absence. The policy allows for discipline or termination when an employee accrues enough points within a certain time period. Hanh gave birth and has had some complications that involve heavy vaginal bleeding for which she occasionally needs time off, and she also needs to attend related medical appointments. She sought, and her employer provided, the reasonable accommodations of being able to arrive up to 1 hour late on certain days with time to attend medical appointments. Despite the reasonable accommodations, because of the no-fault policy, Hanh accrues penalty points under the policy, subjecting her to possible discipline or termination.
</P>
<P><I>Example #22/Not Penalizing Employees:</I> Afefa, a customer service agent who is pregnant, requests two additional 10-minute rest breaks and additional bathroom breaks, as needed, during the workday. The employer determines that these breaks would not pose an undue hardship and grants the request. Because of the additional breaks, Afefa responds to three fewer calls during a shift. Afefa's supervisor gives her a lower performance rating because of her decrease in productivity.
</P>
<HD3>Personal Use
</HD3>
<P>71. The obligation to provide reasonable accommodation under the PWFA, like that under the ADA, does not extend to the provision of adjustments or modifications that are primarily for the personal benefit of the qualified employee with a known limitation. However, adjustments or modifications that might otherwise be considered personal may be required as reasonable accommodations “where such items are specifically designed or required to meet job-related rather than personal needs.” 
<SU>85</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>85</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.9.</P></FTNT>
<P>72. For example, if a warehouse employee is pregnant and is having difficulty sleeping, the PWFA would not require as a reasonable accommodation for the employer to provide a pregnancy pillow to help with sleeping because that is strictly for an employee's personal use. However, allowing the employee some flexibility in start times for the workday may be a reasonable accommodation because it modifies an employment-related policy. In a different context, if the employee who is having trouble sleeping works at a job that involves sleeping between shifts on-site, such as a job as a firefighter, sailor, emergency responder, health care worker, or truck driver, a pregnancy pillow may be a reasonable accommodation because the employee is having difficulty sleeping because of the pregnancy, the employer is providing pillows for all employees required to sleep on-site, and the employee needs a modification of the pillows provided.
</P>
<HD3>All Services and Programs
</HD3>
<P>73. Under the PWFA, as under the ADA, the obligation to make reasonable accommodations applies to all services and programs provided in connection with employment and to all non-work facilities provided or maintained by an employer for use by its employees, so that employees with known limitations can enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment.
<SU>86</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, the obligation to provide reasonable accommodations, barring undue hardship, includes providing access to employer-sponsored placement or counseling services, such as employee assistance programs, to employer-provided cafeterias, lounges, gymnasiums, auditoriums, transportation, and to similar facilities, services, or programs.
<SU>87</SU>
<FTREF/> This includes situations where an employee is traveling for work and may need, for example, accommodations at a different work site or during travel.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>86</SU> <I>See id.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>87</SU> <I>See id.</I></P></FTNT>
<HD3>Interim Reasonable Accommodations
</HD3>
<P>74. An interim reasonable accommodation can be used when there is a delay in providing the reasonable accommodation. For example, an interim reasonable accommodation may be sought when: there is a sudden onset of a known limitation under the PWFA, sometimes as an emergency, including one that makes it unsafe, risky, or dangerous to continue performing the normal tasks of the job; while the interactive process is ongoing, such as when an employer is waiting for the arrival of ordered equipment; or when the employee is waiting for the employer's decision on the accommodation request.
</P>
<P>75. Providing an interim reasonable accommodation is a best practice under the PWFA and may help limit a covered entity's exposure to liability under 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (§ 1636.4(a)(1)), or 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)).
</P>
<P>76. For example, consider a situation where an employee lets their supervisor know that they are pregnant and need to avoid working with certain chemicals in the workplace. Given the chemicals and the fact that the employee is pregnant, the employee needs the change immediately. In this situation, the best practice is to provide the employee with an interim reasonable accommodation that meets the employee's needs or limitations and allows the employee to perform tasks for the benefit of the employer while the employer determines its response. This is the best possible situation for both the employer and the employee, and the one that the Commission strongly encourages. In addition, this type of interim reasonable accommodation could help mitigate a claim of delay by the employee.
<SU>88</SU>
<FTREF/> The shortcomings and risks of two other approaches an employer might take are addressed in the following scenarios.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>88</SU> Section 1636.4(a)(1)(vii).</P></FTNT>
<P>• Require the employee to continue to work with the chemicals while the employer determines its response. In this situation, the employee would be forced to work outside of their restrictions. In addition to placing the employee in a situation that the PWFA was enacted to prevent—choosing between their health and the health of their pregnancy on one hand and a paycheck on the other—the covered entity may be risking liability under 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (if there is an unnecessary delay in providing the accommodation), and/or State and Federal workplace health and safety laws.
</P>
<P>• Require the employee to take leave while the employer determines its response. In this situation, the employee is not exposed to the chemicals, so the risk is mitigated. However, depending on the facts, this option can have a severely detrimental effect on the employee—either because the leave is unpaid or because the employee is forced to use their paid leave. Meanwhile, the employee is unable to perform tasks for the employer.
</P>
<P>77. Moreover, depending on the facts, requiring an employee to take unpaid leave or use their leave after they ask for an accommodation and are awaiting a response could lead to a violation of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f). For example, if the employee is put on unpaid leave, even though there is paid work that the employer reasonably could have given the employee, the employer's decision could be retaliatory because it might well dissuade a reasonable person from engaging in protected activity, such as asking for an accommodation under the PWFA. If the employer's actions were challenged, the employer would have to produce a legitimate, non-discriminatory reason for its actions. The employee could then show that the real reason for the action was retaliation.
<SU>89</SU>
<FTREF/> Because the claim would arise under 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f), the employee would not have to show that they are qualified under 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(6), and the employer would not have recourse to an undue hardship defense.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>89</SU> <I>See</I> EEOC, <I>Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation and Related Issues,</I> (II)(C)(1)-(3) (discussing causation standard and evidence of causation), (4) (discussing facts that would defeat a claim of retaliation), and (III) (discussing ADA interference claims) (2016) [hereinafter <I>Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation</I>], <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-retaliation-and-related-issues.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>78. The possible connection between requiring leave as an interim reasonable accommodation and a potential violation of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) is in keeping with the purposes of the PWFA. The PWFA recognizes that historically employees with limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions have been required to take leave to their detriment. Thus, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(4) limits the use of leave as a reasonable accommodation, prohibiting employers from requiring qualified employees with known limitations to take leave as a reasonable accommodation where there is another reasonable accommodation that will allow them to remain at work that does not result in an undue hardship.
</P>
<P>79. Examples Regarding Interim Reasonable Accommodations:
</P>
<P><I>Example #23/Interim Reasonable Accommodation:</I> Alicia is pregnant and works in a fulfillment center. Her job involves regularly moving boxes that weigh 15 to 20 pounds. On her Saturday shift, she informs her supervisor, Michelle, that she is pregnant and that she is worried about lifting these packages while she is pregnant. Michelle recognizes that Alicia is requesting a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA. While Michelle tells Alicia that she needs to wait until Monday to consult with human resources on the next steps, Michelle also immediately offers Alicia a cart to help move the boxes and assigns her to a line that has lighter packages. On Monday, Michelle tells Alicia that she will be provided with a hoist to help Alicia lift packages, but it will take a few days before it is installed. In the meantime, Alicia can continue to use the cart and work the lighter line. Once the hoist arrives, Alicia is able to use it while working on her usual line. If there were an unnecessary delay in providing the reasonable accommodation, and if Alicia were to challenge the delay as constituting a failure to make an accommodation, the employer could argue that the interim reasonable accommodation mitigates its liability.
</P>
<P><I>Example #24/Interim Reasonable Accommodation:</I> Nour is pregnant, and she drives a delivery van. Her employer uses vans that do not have air conditioning. It is summer and the temperature is over 100 degrees. Nour tells her supervisor she is pregnant and needs a change at work because of the risk to her health and the health of her pregnancy because of the excessive heat. Her supervisor orders equipment that will help Nour, such as a personal cooling vest or neck fan. While waiting for the equipment to be delivered, the employer does not have other possible work that Nour can do. In this situation, the employer could tell Nour that she may take leave while waiting for the equipment to arrive.
</P>
<P><I>Example #25/Interim Reasonable Accommodation:</I> The scenario is the same as described in Example #24, but there is office work that Nour could perform while waiting for the equipment. Further, there is evidence that the supervisor and others at the covered entity discussed the idea of giving Nour office work but decided against it because then “every woman is going to come in here and demand it.” In this situation, failing to provide Nour the opportunity to work in the office could be a violation of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f).
</P>
<P>80. Covered entities that do not provide interim reasonable accommodations are reminded that an unnecessary delay in making a reasonable accommodation, including in responding to the initial request, in the interactive process, or in providing the accommodation may result in a violation of the PWFA if the delay constitutes an unlawful failure to make reasonable accommodation, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (§ 1636.4(a)(1)).
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(i) Reasonable Accommodation—Examples
</HD2>
<P>81. The definition of “reasonable accommodation” in § 1636.3(h)(1) tracks the meaning of the term from the ADA statute, regulation, and EEOC guidance documents.
<SU>90</SU>
<FTREF/> The PWFA, at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-3, directs the Commission to issue regulations providing examples of reasonable accommodations addressing known limitations related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. The Commission notes that a qualified employee may need more than one of these accommodations at the same time, as a pregnancy progresses, or before, during, or after pregnancy. This list of possible reasonable accommodations is non-exhaustive.
<SU>91</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>90</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12111(9); 29 CFR 1630.2(o); <I>Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>91</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 29 (stating that “[t]he Job Accommodation Network (JAN), an ADA technical assistance center . . . lists numerous potential accommodations . . . including more than 20 suggested accommodations just for lifting restrictions related to pregnancy”).</P></FTNT>
<P>• Frequent breaks. The Commission has long construed the ADA to require additional breaks as a reasonable accommodation, absent undue hardship.
<SU>92</SU>
<FTREF/> Under the PWFA, for example, a pregnant employee might need more frequent breaks due to shortness of breath; an employee recovering from childbirth might need more frequent restroom breaks or breaks due to fatigue; an employee who is nursing during work hours, where the regular location of the employee's workplace makes nursing during work hours a possibility because the child is in close proximity (for example, if the employee normally works from home and the child is there or the child is at a nearby or onsite day care center), may need additional breaks to nurse during the workday; 
<SU>93</SU>
<FTREF/> or an employee who is lactating might need more frequent breaks for water, for food, or to pump.
<SU>94</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>92</SU> <I>Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 22; <I>see also</I> H.R. Rep. 117-27, pt. 1, at 22; 168 Cong. Rec. S7,048 (daily ed. Dec. 8, 2022) (statement of Sen. Robert P. Casey, Jr.); 168 Cong. Rec. S10,081 (daily ed. Dec. 22, 2022) (statement of Sen. Robert P. Casey, Jr.).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>93</SU> The Commission cautions that this provision is intended to address situations where the employee and child are in close proximity in the normal course of business. It is not intended to state that there is a right to create proximity to nurse because of an employee's preference. Of course, there may be limitations that would allow an employee to request as a reasonable accommodation the creation of proximity (e.g., a limitation that made pumping difficult or unworkable).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>94</SU> Breaks may be paid or unpaid depending on the employer's normal policies and other applicable laws. Breaks may exceed the number that an employer normally provides because reasonable accommodations may require an employer to alter its policies, barring undue hardship.</P></FTNT>
<P>• Sitting/Standing. The Commission has recognized the provision of seating for jobs that require standing and standing for those that require sitting as potential reasonable accommodations under the ADA.
<SU>95</SU>
<FTREF/> Under the PWFA, reasonable accommodation of these needs might include, but is not limited to, policy modifications and the provision of equipment, such as seating, a sit/stand desk, or anti-fatigue floor matting, among other possibilities.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>95</SU> <I>Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at General Principles, Example B; <I>see also</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 11, 22, 29.</P></FTNT>
<P>• Schedule changes, part-time work, and paid and unpaid leave. Permitting the use of paid leave (whether accrued, as part of a short-term disability program, or as part of any other employee benefit) or providing unpaid leave is a potential reasonable accommodation under the ADA.
<SU>96</SU>
<FTREF/> Additionally, leave for medical treatment can be a reasonable accommodation.
<SU>97</SU>
<FTREF/> By way of example, under the PWFA an employee could need a schedule change to attend a round of IVF appointments to get pregnant; a part-time schedule to address fatigue during pregnancy; or unpaid leave for recovery from childbirth, medical treatment, postpartum treatment or recuperation related to a cesarean section, episiotomy, infection, depression, thyroiditis, or preeclampsia.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>96</SU> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(o); <I>see also Technical Assistance on Employer-Provided Leave, supra</I> note 73. Additionally, an employer prohibiting an employee from using accrued leave for pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions while allowing other employees to use leave for similar reasons also may violate Title VII.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>97</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(o).</P></FTNT>
<P>• Telework. Telework (or “remote work” or “work from home”) has been recognized by the Commission as a potential reasonable accommodation under the ADA.
<SU>98</SU>
<FTREF/> Under the PWFA, telework could be used to accommodate, for example, a period of bed rest, a mobility impairment, or a need to avoid heightened health risk, such as from a communicable disease.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>98</SU> <I>See, e.g., Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 34.</P></FTNT>
<P>• Parking. Providing a reserved parking space if the employee is otherwise entitled to use employer-provided parking may be a reasonable accommodation to assist an employee who is experiencing fatigue or limited mobility related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
</P>
<P>• Light duty. Assignment to light duty or placement in a light duty program has been recognized by the Commission as a potential reasonable accommodation, even if the employer's light duty positions are normally reserved for those injured on-the-job and the person seeking a light duty position as an accommodation does not have an on-the-job injury.
<SU>99</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>99</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance: Workers' Compensation, supra</I> note 8, at Question 28; <I>see also</I> 168 Cong. Rec. S7,048 (daily ed. Dec. 8, 2022) (statement of Sen. Robert P. Casey, Jr.) (“What are other types of reasonable accommodations that pregnant workers might request? Light duty is a common example.”); <I>id.</I> at S7,049 (statement of Sen. Patty Murray) (noting that workers need accommodations because “their doctors say they need to avoid heavy lifting”); H.R. Rep. 117-27, pt. 1, at 14-17 (discussing <I>Young</I> v. <I>United Parcel Serv., Inc.,</I> 575 U.S. 206 (2015), a case involving light duty for pregnant employees).</P></FTNT>
<P>• Making existing facilities accessible or modifying the work environment.
<SU>100</SU>
<FTREF/> Examples of reasonable accommodations might include allowing access to an elevator not normally used by employees; moving the employee's workspace closer to a bathroom; providing a fan to regulate temperature; moving a pregnant or lactating employee to a different workspace to avoid exposure to chemical fumes; changing the assigned worksite of the employee; or modifying the work space by providing local exhaust ventilation or providing enhanced personal protective equipment and training to reduce exposure to chemical hazards.
<SU>101</SU>
<FTREF/> As noted in the regulation, this also may include modifications of the work environment to allow an employee to pump breast milk at work.
<SU>102</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>100</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12111(9); 29 CFR 1630.2(o)(1)(ii) and (o)(2)(i).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>101</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> U.S. Dep't of Lab., Occupational Health &amp; Safety Admin., <I>Recommended Practices for Safety and Health Programs, https://www.osha.gov/safety-management/hazard-prevention</I> (last visited Mar. 18, 2024).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>102</SU> On December 29, 2022, President Biden signed the Providing Urgent Maternal Protections for Nursing Mothers Act (PUMP Act) (Pub. L. 117-328, Div. KK, 136 Stat. 4459, 6093). The law extended coverage of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (FLSA), 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.,</I> protections for nursing employees to apply to most employees. The FLSA provides most employees with the right to break time and a place to pump breast milk at work for a year following the child's birth. 29 U.S.C. 218d; U.S. Dep't of Lab., <I>Field Assistance Bulletin No. 2023-02: Enforcement of Protections for Employees to Pump Breast Milk at Work</I> (May 17, 2023), <I>https://www.dol.gov/sites/dolgov/files/WHD/fab/2023-2.pdf;</I> U.S. Dep't of Lab., <I>Fact Sheet #73: FLSA Protections for Employees to Pump Breast Milk at Work</I> (Jan. 2023), <I>https://www.dol.gov/agencies/whd/fact-sheets/73-flsa-break-time-nursing-mothers.</I> Employees who are not covered by the PUMP Act or employees who seek to pump longer than 1 year may seek reasonable accommodations regarding pumping under the PWFA. Further, whether or not employees are covered by the PUMP Act, employees may seek under the PWFA any reasonable accommodations needed for lactation, including things not necessarily required by the PUMP Act such as access to a sink, a refrigerator, and electricity. <I>See, e.g.,</I> U.S. Dep't of Lab., <I>Notice on Reasonable Break Time for Nursing Mothers,</I> 75 FR 80073, 80075-76 (Dec. 21, 2010) (discussing space requirements and noting factors such as the location of the area for pumping compared to the employee's workspace, the availability of a sink and running water, the location of a refrigerator to store milk, and electricity may affect the amount of break time needed). The PUMP Act is enforced by the Department of Labor, not the EEOC.</P></FTNT>
<P>• Job restructuring.
<SU>103</SU>
<FTREF/> Job restructuring might involve, for example, removing a marginal function (any nonessential job function) that requires a pregnant employee to climb a ladder or occasionally retrieve boxes from a supply closet, or providing assistance with manual labor.
<SU>104</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>103</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12111(9)(B); 29 CFR 1630.2(o)(2)(ii).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>104</SU> <I>See</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 29.</P></FTNT>
<P>• Temporarily suspending one or more essential function(s). For some positions, this may mean that one or more essential function(s) are temporarily suspended, and the employee continues to perform the remaining functions of the job. For others, the essential function(s) will be temporarily suspended, and the employee may be assigned other tasks. For still others, the essential function(s) will be temporarily suspended, and the employee may perform the functions of a different job to which the employer temporarily transfers or assigns them. For yet others, the essential function(s) will be temporarily suspended, and the employee will participate in the employer's light or modified duty program.
</P>
<P>• Acquiring or modifying equipment, uniforms, or devices.
<SU>105</SU>
<FTREF/> Examples of reasonable accommodations might include providing uniforms and equipment, including safety equipment, that account for changes in body size during and after pregnancy, including during lactation; providing devices to assist with mobility, lifting, carrying, reaching, and bending; or providing an ergonomic keyboard to accommodate pregnancy-related hand swelling or tendonitis.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>105</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12111(9)(B); 29 CFR 1630.2(o)(2)(ii); <I>see also</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 28.</P></FTNT>
<P>• Adjusting or modifying examinations or policies.
<SU>106</SU>
<FTREF/> Examples of reasonable accommodations include allowing employees with a known limitations to postpone examinations that require physical exertion. Adjustments to policies also could include increasing the time or frequency of breaks to eat or drink or to use the restroom.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>106</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12111(9)(B); 29 CFR 1630.2(o)(2)(ii); <I>see also</I> H.R. Rep. No. 117-27, pt. 1, at 28.</P></FTNT>
<P>82. Pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-3, the following are further examples of types of reasonable accommodations and how they can be analyzed.
<SU>107</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>107</SU> As with all the examples in this Interpretive Guidance, these examples are illustrative only and are not intended to suggest that these are the only conditions under which an employee may receive a reasonable accommodation, or that the reasonable accommodations sought or given in the examples are the only ones that should be selected in similar situations.
</P>
<P>For further examples, see the Job Accommodation Network (JAN), which provides free assistance regarding workplace accommodation issues. <I>See generally</I> Job Accommodation Network [hereinafter JAN], <I>https://askjan.org/</I> (last visited Mar. 25, 2024). Covered entities and employees also may seek additional information from the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH). <I>See</I> U.S. Dep't of Health &amp; Hum. Servs., Ctrs. for Disease Control &amp; Prevention, Nat'l Inst. for Occupational Safety &amp; Health, <I>Reproductive Health and The Workplace, https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/topics/repro/default.html</I> (last reviewed May 1, 2023).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Example #26/Telework:</I> Gabriela, a billing specialist in a doctor's office, experiences nausea and vomiting beginning in her first trimester of pregnancy. Because the nausea makes commuting extremely difficult, Gabriela makes a verbal request to her manager stating she has nausea and vomiting due to her pregnancy and requests that she be permitted to work from home for the next 2 months so that she can avoid the difficulty of commuting. The billing work can be done from her home or in the office.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Gabriela's nausea and vomiting is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Gabriela needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Gabriela has communicated the information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Gabriela can perform the essential functions of the job with the reasonable accommodation of telework.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #27/Temporary Suspension of an Essential Function:</I> Nisha, a nurse assistant working in a large elder care facility, is advised in the fourth month of her pregnancy to stop lifting more than 25 pounds for the remainder of the pregnancy. One of the essential functions of the job is to assist patients in dressing, bathing, and moving from and to their beds, tasks that typically require lifting more than 25 pounds. Nisha sends an email to human resources asking that she not be required to lift more than 25 pounds for the remainder of her pregnancy and requesting a place in the established light duty program under which employees who are hurt on the job take on different duties while coworkers take on their temporarily suspended duties.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Nisha's lifting restriction is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Nisha needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Nisha has communicated that information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Nisha is asking for the temporary suspension of an essential function. The suspension is temporary, and Nisha can perform the essential functions of the job “in the near future” (generally within 40 weeks). It appears that the inability to perform the function can be reasonably accommodated through its temporary suspension and Nisha's placement in the light duty program.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the reasonable accommodation of temporarily suspending the essential function (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship. As part of the temporary suspension, the employer may assign Nisha to the light duty program.
</P>
<P><I>Example #28:</I> The scenario is the same as described in Example #27 of this appendix, except that the employer establishes that the light duty program is limited to 10 slots and all 10 slots are filled for the next 6 months. In these circumstances, the employer should consider other possible reasonable accommodations, such as the temporary suspension of an essential function without assigning Nisha to the light duty program, or job restructuring outside of the established light duty program. If such accommodations cannot be provided without undue hardship, then the employer should consider providing a temporary reassignment to a vacant position for which Nisha is qualified, with or without reasonable accommodation. For example, if the employer has a vacant position that does not require lifting patients which Nisha could perform with or without a reasonable accommodation, the employer must offer her the temporary reassignment as a reasonable accommodation, absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #29/Temporary Suspension of Essential Function(s):</I> Fatima's position as a farmworker usually involves working outdoors in the field although there also is indoor work such as sorting produce. After she returns from giving birth, Fatima develops postpartum thyroiditis, which has made her extremely sensitive to heat, and has contributed to muscle weakness and fatigue. She seeks the accommodation of a 7-month temporary suspension of the essential function of working outdoors in hot weather.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Fatima's sensitivity to heat, muscle weakness, and fatigue are physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Fatima needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Fatima has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Fatima is asking for the temporary suspension of an essential function. The suspension is temporary, and Fatima could perform the essential functions of the job in the near future (7 months). It appears that the inability to perform the essential function can be reasonably accommodated by temporarily assigning Fatima indoor work, such as sorting produce.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation of temporarily suspending the essential function (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #30/Assistance with Performing an Essential Function:</I> Mei, a warehouse worker, uses her employer's online accommodation portal to ask for a dolly to assist her for 3 months in moving items that are bulky, in order to accommodate lifting and carrying restrictions due to her cesarean section.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Mei's lifting and carrying restrictions are physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Mei needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Mei has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Mei can perform the essential functions of the job with the reasonable accommodation of a dolly.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #31/Appropriate Uniform and Safety Gear:</I> Ava is a police officer and is pregnant. They ask their union representative for help getting a larger size uniform and larger size bullet proof vest in order to cover their growing pregnancy. The union representative asks management for an appropriately-sized uniform and vest for Ava.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Ava's inability to wear the standard uniform and safety gear is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Ava needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Ava's representative has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Ava can perform the essential functions of the job with the reasonable accommodation of appropriate gear.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #32/Temporary Suspension of Essential Function(s):</I> Darina is a police officer and is 3 months pregnant. She talks to human resources about being taken off of patrol and put on light duty for the remainder of her pregnancy to avoid physical altercations and the need to physically subdue suspects, which may harm her pregnancy. The department has an established light duty program that it uses for officers with injuries that occurred on the job.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Darina's inability to perform certain patrol duties is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Darina needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Darina has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: The suspension of the essential functions of patrol duties is temporary, and Darina can perform the essential functions of the job in the near future (within generally 40 weeks). It appears that the temporary suspension of the essential functions can be accommodated through the light duty program.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #33/Temporary Suspension of Essential Function(s):</I> Rory works in a fulfillment center where she is usually assigned to a line that requires moving 20-pound packages. After returning from work after giving birth, Rory lets her supervisor know that she has a lifting restriction of 10 pounds due to sciatica during her pregnancy that continues postpartum. The restriction is for 6 months. The employer does not have an established light duty program. There are other lines in the warehouse that do not require lifting more than 10 pounds.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Rory's lifting restriction is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Rory needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Rory has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: The suspension of the essential function of lifting packages that weigh up to 10 pounds is temporary, and Rory can perform the essential function in the near future (6 months). It appears that the temporary suspension of the essential function could be accommodated by temporarily assigning her to a different line.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #34/Unpaid Leave:</I> Tallah, a newly hired cashier at a small bookstore, has a miscarriage in the third month of pregnancy and asks a supervisor for 10 days of leave to recover. As a new employee, Tallah has only earned 2 days of paid leave, she is not covered by the FMLA, and the employer does not have a company policy regarding the provision of unpaid leave. Nevertheless, Tallah is covered by the PWFA.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Tallah's need for time for recovery is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Tallah needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Tallah has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: After the reasonable accommodation of leave, Tallah will be able to perform the essential functions of the job with or without accommodation.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation of unpaid leave (or another reasonable accommodation) absent an undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #35/Unpaid Leave for Prenatal Appointments:</I> Margot started working at a retail store shortly after she became pregnant. She has an uncomplicated pregnancy. Because she has not worked at the store very long, she has earned very little leave and is not covered by the FMLA. In her fifth month of pregnancy, she asks her supervisor for the reasonable accommodation of unpaid time off beyond the leave she has earned to attend her regularly scheduled prenatal appointments.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Margot's need to attend health care appointments is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Margot needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Margot has communicated the information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Margot can perform the essential functions of the job with the reasonable accommodation of leave to attend health care appointments.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation of unpaid time off (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #36/Unpaid Leave for Recovery from Childbirth:</I> Sofia, a custodian, is pregnant and will need 6 to 8 weeks of leave to recover from childbirth. Sofia is nervous about asking for leave, so Sofia asks her mother, who knows the owner, to do it for her. The employer has a sick leave policy, but no policy for longer periods of leave. Sofia is not eligible for FMLA leave because her employer is not covered by the FMLA.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Sofia's need to recover from childbirth is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Sofia needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Sofia's representative has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: After the reasonable accommodation of leave, Sofia will be able to perform the essential functions of the job with or without reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation of unpaid leave (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #37/Unpaid Leave for Medical Appointments:</I> Taylor, a newly hired member of the waitstaff, requests time off to attend therapy appointments for postpartum depression. As a new employee, Taylor has not yet accrued sick or personal leave and is not covered by the FMLA. Taylor asks her manager if there is some way that she can take time off.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Taylor's need to attend health care appointments is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Taylor needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Taylor has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Taylor can perform the essential functions of the job with a reasonable accommodation of time off to attend the health care appointments.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent an undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #38/Unpaid Leave:</I> Claudine is 6 months pregnant and asks for leave so that she can attend her regular check-ups. The clinic where Claudine gets her health care is an hour drive away, the clinic frequently gets delayed, and Claudine has to wait for her appointment. Depending on the time of day, between commuting to the appointment, waiting for the appointment, and seeing her provider, Claudine may miss all or most of an assigned day at work. Claudine's employer is not covered by the FMLA, and Claudine does not have any sick leave left. Claudine asks human resources for time off as a reasonable accommodation so she can attend her medical appointments.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Claudine's need to attend health care appointments is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Claudine needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Claudine has communicated that information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Claudine can perform the essential functions of the job with a reasonable accommodation of time off to attend health care appointments.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #39/Telework:</I> Raim, a social worker, is pregnant. As her third trimester starts, she is feeling more fatigue and needs more rest. She asks her supervisor if she can telework and see clients virtually so she can lie down and take rest breaks between client appointments.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Raim's fatigue is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Raim needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Raim has communicated that information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Assuming the appointments can be conducted virtually, Raim can perform the essential functions of the job with the reasonable accommodation of working virtually. If there are certain appointments that must be done in person, the reasonable accommodation could be a few days of telework a week and then other accommodations that would give Raim time to rest, such as assigning Raim in-person appointments at times when traffic will be light so that they are easy to get to, or setting up Raim's assignments so that on the days when she has in-person appointments she has breaks between them. Or the reasonable accommodation can be the temporary suspension of the essential function of in-person appointments.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #40/Temporary Workspace/Possible Temporary Suspension of Essential Function(s):</I> Brooke, a research assistant who is in her first trimester of pregnancy, asks the lead researcher in the laboratory for a temporary workspace that would allow her to work in a well-ventilated area because her work involves hazardous chemicals that her health care provider has told her to avoid. There are several research projects she can work on that do not involve exposure to hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Brooke's need to avoid the chemicals related to maintaining her health or the health of her pregnancy is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Brooke needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Brooke has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: If working with hazardous chemicals is an essential function of the job, Brooke may be able to perform that function with the accommodation of a well-ventilated work area, a chemical fume hood, local exhaust ventilation, and/or personal protective equipment such as chemical-resistant gloves, a lab coat, and a powered air-purifying respirator. If providing these modifications would be an undue hardship or would not be effective, Brooke can still be qualified with the temporary suspension of the essential function of working with the hazardous chemicals because Brooke's inability to work with hazardous chemicals is temporary, and Brooke can perform the essential functions of the job in the near future (within generally 40 weeks). Her need to avoid exposure to hazardous chemicals also can be accommodated by allowing her to focus on the other research projects.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation), absent undue hardship. If the employer cannot accommodate Brooke in a way that allows Brooke to continue to perform the essential function(s) of the position, the employer should consider providing alternative reasonable accommodations, including temporarily suspending one or more essential functions, absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #41/Temporary Transfer to Different Location:</I> Katherine, a budget analyst who has cancer also is pregnant, which creates complications for her cancer treatment. She asks her manager for a temporary transfer so that she can work out of an office in a larger city that has a medical center that can address her medical needs due to the combination of cancer and pregnancy. Katherine is able to do all her essential functions for the original office from the employer's other location and can continue to work full-time while obtaining treatment.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Katherine's need for treatment at a particular medical facility related to maintaining her health or the health of the pregnancy is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Katherine needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Katherine has communicated that information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Katherine is able to perform the essential functions of the job and work full-time with the reasonable accommodation of a temporary transfer to a different location.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship. A reasonable accommodation can include a workplace change to facilitate medical treatment, including accommodations such as leave, a schedule change, or a temporary transfer to a different work location needed in order to obtain treatment.
</P>
<P><I>Example #42/Pumping Breast Milk:</I> Salma gave birth 13 months ago and wants to be able to pump breast milk at work. Salma works for an employment agency that sends her to different jobs for a day or week at a time. Salma asks the person at the agency who makes her assignments to ensure she will be able to take breaks and have a space to pump breast milk at work at her various assignments.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Salma's need to express breast milk is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Salma needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Salma has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Salma is able to perform the essential functions of the jobs to which she is assigned with the reasonable accommodation of being assigned to workplaces where she can pump at work.
</P>
<P>3. The agency must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #43/Commuting:</I> Jayde is a retail clerk who gave birth 2 months ago. Because of childbirth, Jayde is experiencing urinary incontinence, constipation, and hemorrhoids. Jayde normally commutes by driving 45 minutes; because of the limitations due to childbirth, it is painful for Jayde to sit in one position for an extended period, and Jayde may need a bathroom during the commute. Jayde requests the reasonable accommodation of working at a different, closer store for 2 months. The commute to this other store is only 10 minutes.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Jayde's urinary incontinence, constipation, and hemorrhoids are physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Jayde needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Jayde has communicated this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Jayde can perform the essential functions of the job with the reasonable accommodation of a temporary assignment to a different location.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #44/Medications Affected by Pregnancy:</I> Riya is a data analyst who is pregnant, and her health care provider recommended that she stop taking her current ADHD medication and switch to another medication. As Riya is adjusting to her new medication, she finds it more difficult to concentrate and asks for more frequent breaks, a quiet place to work, and for her tasks to be divided up into smaller duties.
</P>
<P>1. Known limitation and request for reasonable accommodation: Riya's difficulty concentrating due to her change in medication is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions; Riya needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation; Riya has provided this information to the employer.
</P>
<P>2. Qualified: Riya can perform the essential functions of the job with the reasonable accommodation of more frequent breaks, a quiet place to work, and division of her tasks into smaller duties.
</P>
<P>3. The employer must grant the accommodation (or another reasonable accommodation) absent undue hardship.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(j) Undue Hardship
</HD2>
<HD2>1636.3(j)(1) Undue Hardship—In General
</HD2>
<P>83. The PWFA provides that “undue hardship” shall be construed under the PWFA as it is under the ADA and as set forth in this part.
<SU>108</SU>
<FTREF/> This part, at § 1636.3(j)(1), reiterates the definition of undue hardship provided in the ADA statute and regulation, which explains that undue hardship means significant difficulty or expense incurred by a covered entity.
<SU>109</SU>
<FTREF/> Because the definition of undue hardship under the PWFA follows the ADA, under the PWFA the term “undue hardship” means significant difficulty or expense in, or resulting from, the provision of the accommodation. The “undue hardship” provision takes into account the financial realities of the particular employer or other covered entity. However, the concept of undue hardship is not limited to financial difficulty. “Undue hardship” refers to any accommodation that would be unduly costly, extensive, substantial, or disruptive, or that would fundamentally alter the nature or operation of the business.
<SU>110</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>108</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(7).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>109</SU> 42 U.S.C. 12111(10)(A); 29 CFR 1630.2(p); <I>see Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text after n.112.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>110</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(p). The ADA defines “undue hardship” at 42 U.S.C. 12111(10).</P></FTNT>
<P>84. As under the ADA, if an employer asserts undue hardship based on cost, then there will be a determination made regarding whose financial resources should be considered.
<SU>111</SU>
<FTREF/> Further, in determining whether an accommodation causes an undue hardship an employer cannot simply assert that a needed accommodation will cause it undue hardship and thereupon be relieved of the duty to provide accommodation. Rather, an employer will have to present evidence and demonstrate that the accommodation will, in fact, cause it undue hardship. Whether a particular accommodation will impose an undue hardship for a particular employer is determined on a case-by-case basis. Consequently, an accommodation that poses an undue hardship for one employer at a particular time may not pose an undue hardship for another employer, or even for the same employer at another time.
<SU>112</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>111</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(p).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>112</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.15(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>85. As the Commission has stated under the ADA, “[u]ndue hardship must be based on an individualized assessment of current circumstances that show that a specific reasonable accommodation would cause significant difficulty or expense.” 
<SU>113</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>113</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text accompanying n.113.</P></FTNT>
<P>86. Additionally, an employer cannot demonstrate undue hardship based on employees', clients', or customers' fears or prejudices toward the employee's pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, nor can an employer demonstrate undue hardship based on the possibility that the provision of an accommodation would negatively impact the morale of other employees.
<SU>114</SU>
<FTREF/> Employers, however, may be able to show undue hardship where the provision of an accommodation would be unduly disruptive to other employees' ability to work.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>114</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.15(d) (explaining that under the ADA an employer cannot show undue hardship based on employees' fears or prejudices toward the individual's disability or by showing that the provision of the accommodation has a negative impact on the morale of its other employees but not on the ability of these employees to perform their jobs); <I>Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text surrounding n.117; <I>cf. Groff</I> v. <I>DeJoy,</I> 600 U.S. 447, 472 (2023) (providing that, under the Title VII undue hardship standard, an employer may not justify refusal to accommodate based on other employees' bias or hostility).</P></FTNT>
<P>87. Consistent with the ADA, a covered entity asserting that a reasonable accommodation will cause an undue hardship must offer other reasonable accommodations that it can provide, absent undue hardship.
<SU>115</SU>
<FTREF/> Additionally, if the employer can provide only part of the reasonable accommodation absent undue hardship—for example, the employer can provide 6 weeks of leave absent undue hardship but the 8 weeks that the employee is seeking would cause undue hardship—the employer must provide the reasonable accommodation up to the point of undue hardship. Thus, in the example, the employer would have to provide 6 weeks of leave and then consider whether there are other reasonable accommodations it could provide for the remaining 2 weeks that would not cause an undue hardship.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>115</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text after n.116.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(j)(2) Undue Hardship Factors
</HD2>
<P>88. Section 1636.3(j)(2) sets out factors to be considered when determining whether a particular accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the covered entity using the factors from the ADA regulation.
<SU>116</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>116</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(p).</P></FTNT>
<P>89. Examples Regarding Undue Hardship:
</P>
<P><I>Example #45/Undue Hardship:</I> Patricia, a convenience store clerk, requests that she be allowed to switch from full-time to part-time work for the last 3 months of her pregnancy due to extreme fatigue. The store assigns two clerks per shift. If Patricia's hours are reduced, the other clerk's workload will increase significantly beyond his ability to handle his responsibilities. The store determines that such an arrangement will result in inadequate coverage to serve customers in a timely manner, keep the shelves stocked, and maintain store security. It also would be infeasible for the store to hire a temporary worker on short notice at this time. Based on these facts, the employer likely can show undue hardship based on the significant disruption to its operations and, therefore, can refuse to reduce Patricia's hours. The employer, however, must offer other reasonable accommodations, such as providing a stool and allowing rest breaks throughout the shift, assuming they do not cause undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #46/Undue Hardship:</I> Shirin, a dental hygienist who is undergoing IVF treatments, needs to attend medical appointments for the IVF treatment near her house every other day and is fatigued. She asks her supervisor if the essential function of seeing patients can be temporarily suspended, so that she does not see patients 3 days a week and instead can work from home on those days assisting with billing and insurance claims, work for which she is qualified. Temporarily suspending the essential function of seeing patients and allowing Shirin to work at home may be an undue hardship for the employer because there is only one other hygienist and there is not enough work for Shirin to do remotely. However, the employer must offer other reasonable accommodations, such as a schedule that would allow Shirin breaks between patients, part-time work, permitting her to work from home for 1 or 2 days, or a reduced schedule, assuming they do not cause undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #47/Undue Hardship:</I> Cynthia, an office manager working in a large building, has asthma that she controls with medication. Because of her pregnancy, her asthma becomes worse, and she requests a ban on airborne irritants and chemicals (e.g., fragrances, sprays, cleaning products) in the building. The employer could potentially show that ensuring a workplace completely free of any scents or irritants would impose a significant financial and administrative burden on it, as a ban would be difficult to enforce and encompass a wide variety of hygiene and cleaning products. Nevertheless, the employer must offer alternative accommodations, such as providing an air purifier, minimizing the use of irritants in her vicinity, or allowing her to telework, assuming they do not cause undue hardship.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(j)(3) Undue Hardship—Temporary Suspension of an Essential Function(s)
</HD2>
<P>90. In certain circumstances, the PWFA requires an employer to accommodate an employee's temporary inability to perform one or more essential functions. Therefore, § 1636.3(j)(3) provides additional factors that may be considered when determining whether the temporary suspension of one or more essential functions causes an undue hardship. These additional factors include: the length of time that the employee will be unable to perform the essential function(s); whether, through the methods listed in § 1636.3(f)(2)(iii) (describing potential reasonable accommodations related to the temporary suspension of essential function(s)) or otherwise, there is work for the employee to accomplish; 
<SU>117</SU>
<FTREF/> the nature of the essential function(s), including its frequency; whether the covered entity has provided other employees in similar positions who are unable to perform essential function(s) of their positions with temporary suspensions of those function(s) and other duties; if necessary, whether or not there are other employees, temporary employees, or third parties who can perform or be temporarily hired to perform the essential function(s) in question; and whether the essential function(s) can be postponed or remain unperformed for any length of time and, if so, for how long.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>117</SU> The employer is not required to make up work for an employee.</P></FTNT>
<P>91. As with other reasonable accommodations, if the covered entity can establish that accommodating an employee's temporary suspension of an essential function(s) would impose an undue hardship if extended beyond a certain period of time, the covered entity would only be required to provide that accommodation for the period of time that it does not impose an undue hardship. For example, consider the situation where an employee seeks to have an essential function suspended for 6 months. The employer can go without the function being accomplished for 4 months, but after that, it will create an undue hardship. The employer must accommodate the employee's inability to perform the essential function for 4 months and then consider whether there are other reasonable accommodations that it can provide, absent undue hardship, for the remaining time.
</P>
<P>92. Section 1636.3(j)(3)(iv) is intended to account for situations where the covered entity has provided a similar accommodation to other employees. If the covered entity has temporarily suspended essential functions for other employees in similar positions before, it would tend to demonstrate that the accommodation is not an undue hardship. The reverse, however, is not true. A covered entity's failure to temporarily suspend an essential function(s) in the past does not tend to demonstrate that the accommodation creates an undue hardship because reasonable accommodation can include changing workplace procedures or rules.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(j)(4) Undue Hardship—Predictable Assessments <E T="51">118</E>
<FTREF/>
</HD2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>118</SU> The term “predictable assessments” also is seen in the ADA regulations, where it applies to establishing coverage. In the ADA, “predictable assessments” are impairments that will “in virtually all cases” be considered a disability covered by the ADA. 29 CFR 1630.2(j)(3). As used in this PWFA rule, however, the term relates to accommodations, not limitations or disabilities.</P></FTNT>
<P>93. The Commission has identified a limited number of simple modifications that will, in virtually all cases, be found to be reasonable accommodations that do not impose an undue hardship when requested by a qualified employee due to pregnancy.
</P>
<P>94. These modifications are: (1) allowing an employee to carry or keep water near and drink, as needed; (2) allowing an employee to take additional restroom breaks, as needed; (3) allowing an employee whose work requires standing to sit and whose work requires sitting to stand, as needed; and (4) allowing an employee to take breaks to eat and drink, as needed.
<SU>119</SU>
<FTREF/> These accommodations are low cost and unlikely to affect the overall financial resources of the covered entity, the operations of the facility, or the ability of the facility to conduct business.
<SU>120</SU>
<FTREF/> By identifying these predictable assessments, the Commission seeks to improve how quickly employees will be able to receive certain simple, common accommodations for pregnancy under the PWFA and thereby reduce litigation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>119</SU> The first and fourth categories of predictable assessments are related but separate. The first category of accommodations addresses an employee's ability to carry water on the employee's person while they perform their job duties, or their ability to have water nearby while working, without requiring the employee to take a break to access and drink it. The fourth category of accommodations addresses an employee's ability to take additional, short breaks in performing work (either at the employee's work location or a break location) to eat and drink (including beverages that are not water). Additionally, depending on the worksite, any employee may be able to eat or drink at the work location without taking a break.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>120</SU> As explained in the NPRM, the Commission identified these modifications based on the legislative history of the PWFA and analogous State laws. 88 FR 54734.</P></FTNT>
<P>95. The Commission emphasizes that the predictable assessments provision does not alter the meaning of the term “reasonable accommodation” or “undue hardship.” Employers should still conduct an individualized assessment when one of these accommodations is requested by a pregnant employee to determine if the requested accommodation causes an undue hardship, and employers may still bring forward facts to demonstrate that the proposed accommodation imposes an undue hardship for its business under its own particular circumstances. Instead, the provision informs covered entities that the individualized assessment of whether one of the straightforward and simple modifications listed in paragraphs (j)(4)(i) through (iv) is a reasonable accommodation that would cause undue hardship will, in virtually all cases, result in a determination that the four modifications are reasonable accommodations that will not impose an undue hardship under the PWFA when they are requested as workplace accommodations by an employee who is pregnant.
</P>
<P>96. Examples Regarding Predictable Assessments:
</P>
<P><I>Example #48/Predictable Assessments:</I> Amara, a quality inspector for a manufacturing company, experiences painful swelling in her legs, ankles, and feet during the final 3 months of her pregnancy. Her job requires standing for long periods of time, although it can be performed sitting as well. Amara asks the person who assigns her daily work for a stool to sit on while she performs her job. Amara's swelling in her legs and ankles is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy. Amara's request is for a modification that will virtually always be a reasonable accommodation that does not impose an undue hardship. The employer argues that it has never provided a stool to any other worker who complained of difficulty standing, but points to nothing that suggests that this modification is not reasonable or that it would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the employer's business. The employer has not established that providing Amara a stool imposes an undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #49/Predictable Assessments:</I> Jazmin, a pregnant teacher who typically is only able to use the bathroom when her class is at lunch, requests additional bathroom breaks during her sixth month of pregnancy. Jazmin's need for additional bathroom breaks is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy. The employer argues that finding an adult to watch over the Jazmin's class when she needs to take a bathroom break imposes an undue hardship. However, there are several teachers in nearby classrooms, aides in some classes, and an administrative assistant in the front office, any of whom, with a few minutes' notice, would be able to provide supervision either by standing in the hallway between classes or sitting in Jazmin's classroom to allow Jazmin a break to use bathroom. The employer has not established that providing Jazmin with additional bathroom breaks imposes an undue hardship.
</P>
<P><I>Example #50/Predictable Assessments:</I> Addison, a clerk responsible for receiving and filing construction plans for development proposals, needs to maintain a regular intake of water throughout the day to maintain a healthy pregnancy. They ask their manager if an exception can be made to the office policy prohibiting liquids at workstations. Addison's need to maintain a regular intake of water is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy. Here, although the manager decides against allowing Addison to bring water into their workstation, he proposes that a table be placed just outside the workstation and gives permission for Addison to access water placed on the table as needed. The employer has satisfied its obligation to provide a reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<HD3>Undue Hardship—Consideration of Prior or Future Accommodations
</HD3>
<P>97. An employer may consider the current impact of past and current cumulative costs or burdens of accommodations that have already been granted to other employees or the same employee, when considering whether a new request for the same or a similar accommodation imposes an undue hardship. For example, where an employer is already allowing two of the three employees who are able to open the store to arrive after opening time on certain days, it could pose an undue hardship to grant the accommodation of a delayed arrival time to the third employee on those same days.
</P>
<P>98. The fact that an employer has provided the same or similar accommodations in the past may indicate that the accommodation can be provided without causing an undue hardship. Additionally, even if an employer previously failed to provide an employee a similar type of accommodation, if the employer intends to assert that providing the accommodation to another employee would pose an undue hardship, the employer should engage in the interactive process with the employee regarding the currently requested accommodation and determine whether the same conditions that previously imposed an undue hardship still exist. Ultimately, whether a particular accommodation will impose an undue hardship for an employer is determined on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>99. While an employer may consider the impact of prior accommodations granted to the employee currently seeking an accommodation, the mere fact that an employee previously received an accommodation or, indeed, several accommodations, does not establish that it would impose an undue hardship on the employer to grant a new accommodation.
</P>
<P>100. Thus, for example, the fact that an employer already has provided an employee with an accommodation, such as the temporary suspension of an essential function due to their pregnancy, does not establish that providing this accommodation due to a post-pregnancy limitation would be an undue hardship. Instead, the employer would have to provide evidence showing that continuing the temporary suspension would impose an undue hardship. This showing could include, for example, evidence demonstrating why and how the cumulative impact of having already provided the accommodation during pregnancy makes the current impact of providing it post-pregnancy rise to the level of significant difficulty or expense.
</P>
<P>101. A covered entity cannot demonstrate that a reasonable accommodation imposes an undue hardship based on the possibility—whether speculative or near certain—that it will have to provide the accommodation to other employees in the future.
<SU>121</SU>
<FTREF/> Relatedly, a covered entity that receives numerous requests for the same or similar accommodations at the same time (for example, parking spaces closer to the factory) cannot fail to provide all of them simply because processing the volume of current or anticipated requests is, or would be, burdensome or because it cannot grant all of them. Rather, the covered entity must evaluate and provide reasonable accommodations on a case-by-case basis unless, or until, doing so imposes an undue hardship.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>121</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at n.113.</P></FTNT>
<P>102. Finally, for the purposes of an employer asserting undue hardship based on the impact of prior or future accommodations, as with any assertion of an undue hardship, “[g]eneralized conclusions will not suffice to support a claim of undue hardship. Instead, undue hardship must be based on an individualized assessment of current circumstances that show that a specific reasonable accommodation would cause significant difficulty or expense.” 
<SU>122</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>122</SU> <I>See id.,</I> text at n.113.</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Undue Hardship and Safety
</HD3>
<P>103. An employer's contention that the accommodation an employee requests would cause a safety risk to co-workers or clients will be assessed under the PWFA's undue hardship standard. For example, consider a qualified pregnant employee in a busy fulfillment center that has narrow aisles between the shelves of products. The employee asks for the reasonable accommodation of a cart to use while they are walking through the aisles filling orders. The employer's assertion that the aisles are too narrow and its concern for the safety of other workers being bumped by the cart could be raised as a defense based on undue hardship, specifically § 1636.3(j)(2)(v), but the employer will have to demonstrate that the accommodation would actually pose an undue hardship.
</P>
<P>104. If a particular reasonable accommodation causes an undue hardship because of safety, just as with any other situation where an employer cannot provide the requested accommodation, the employer must provide an alternative reasonable accommodation, if there is one available that does not impose an undue hardship. Importantly, assertions by employers that employees create a safety risk merely by being pregnant (as opposed to a safety risk that stems from an accommodation for a pregnancy-related limitation) should be addressed under Title VII's bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) standard and not under the PWFA.
<SU>123</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>123</SU> <I>See, e.g., UAW</I> v. <I>Johnson Controls,</I> 499 U.S. 187, 211 (1991) (striking down the employer's fetal protection policy that limited the opportunities of women); <I>Everts</I> v. <I>Sushi Brokers LLC,</I> 247 F. Supp. 3d 1075, 1082-83 (D. Ariz. 2017) (relying on <I>Johnson Controls</I> and denying BFOQ defense in a case regarding a pregnant employee as a restaurant server, noting that, “[u]nlike cases involving prisoners and dangers to customers where a BFOQ defense might be colorable, the present situation is exactly the type of case that Title VII guards against”); <I>EEOC</I> v. <I>New Prime, Inc.,</I> 42 F. Supp. 3d 1201, 1213-14 (W.D. Mo. 2014) (relying on <I>Johnson Controls</I> and denying a policy allegedly in place for the “privacy” and “safety” of women employees was a BFOQ); <I>Enforcement Guidance on Pregnancy Discrimination, supra</I> note 24, at (I)(B)(1)(c).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(k) Interactive Process
</HD2>
<P>105. The PWFA states that the interactive process will typically be used to determine an appropriate reasonable accommodation.
<SU>124</SU>
<FTREF/> Section 1636.3(k) largely adopts the explanation of the interactive process in the regulation implementing the ADA.
<SU>125</SU>
<FTREF/> Section 1636.3(k) defines the interactive process as an informal, interactive process and states that the process should identify the known limitation and the adjustment or change at work that is needed due to the limitation, if either of these are not clear from the request, as well as potential reasonable accommodations.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>124</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(7).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>125</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.2(o)(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>106. There are no rigid steps that must be followed when engaging in the interactive process under the PWFA, and information provided by the employee does not need to be in any specific format, include specific words, or be on a specific form.
</P>
<P>107. In many instances, the appropriate reasonable accommodation may be obvious to either or both the employer and the employee with the known limitation so that the interactive process can be a brief discussion. The request and granting of the accommodation can occur in a single informal conversation or short email exchange.
<SU>126</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>126</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(2) (§ 1636.4(b)) prohibits a covered entity from requiring a qualified employee with a PWFA limitation to accept an accommodation other than any reasonable accommodation arrived at through the interactive process.</P></FTNT>
<P>108. Examples Regarding the Interactive Process:
</P>
<P><I>Example #51/Interactive Process:</I> Marge works at an assembly plant. She is 5 weeks pregnant. She knows that staying hydrated is important during pregnancy. She texts her supervisor that she is pregnant and that she needs to carry water with her and use the bathroom more frequently. Her supervisor explains how Marge can call for a substitute when she needs a break, and Marge uses that system when she needs to drink water or go to the bathroom.
</P>
<P><I>Example #52/Interactive Process:</I> Launa is a customer service representative. She is 6 weeks pregnant. Some mornings she has morning sickness. She has found that eating small amounts during the morning helps to control it. Launa uses the company's internal message system to tell her supervisor that she is pregnant and either needs to take breaks to eat or needs to eat in her cubicle, and that she may need a break if she is feeling nauseous. Her supervisor agrees.
</P>
<P>109. In some instances, for example to determine an appropriate reasonable accommodation, the employer and employee may engage further in the interactive process. The process is not composed of rigid steps but is an opportunity for the covered entity and employee to participate in a dialogue to quickly identify a reasonable accommodation that enables the employee to address their limitation through a reasonable accommodation that does not pose an undue hardship. The interactive process also may provide an opportunity for the covered entity and the employee to discuss how different accommodations will provide the employee with equal employment opportunity and what accommodation the employee prefers.
<SU>127</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>127</SU> During the interactive process, especially if it is lengthened due to, for example, equipment being ordered or the employee waiting for information from or an appointment with a health care provider, the employer should determine how to address the employee's needs while the interactive process is ongoing. <I>See, e.g., Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at n.89 (discussing a situation when the employee is waiting for reassignment). The Commission has discussed a similar situation with regard to postponing an employee's evaluation pending the employee receiving a requested reasonable accommodation. EEOC, <I>Technical Assistance on Applying Performance and Conduct Standards to Employees with Disabilities,</I> Examples 8 &amp; 11 (2008) <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/applying-performance-and-conduct-standards-employees-disabilities. See also supra</I> in the Interpretive Guidance in section <I>1636.3(h)</I> under <I>Interim Reasonable Accommodations.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>110. While the interactive process is an informal exchange of information, there are still certain rules that apply. The ADA restrictions on when employers are permitted to ask disability-related questions and require medical examinations apply to all such inquiries or examinations, whether employers make them of people with or without disabilities, including questions that an employer asks during the interactive process under the PWFA.
<SU>128</SU>
<FTREF/> For example, an employer who requires an employee who requests an accommodation due to a pregnancy-related limitation to fill out a form identifying their physical and mental impairments would have difficulty demonstrating that this disability-related inquiry is job-related and consistent with business necessity, as required by the ADA.
<SU>129</SU>
<FTREF/> Further, if a covered entity has sufficient information from the employee to determine whether they have a PWFA limitation and need an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation, requiring the employee to provide additional information could be a violation of the PWFA's anti-retaliation provision (42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f)) (§ 1636.5(f)) or the PWFA's prohibition on taking adverse action in response to a request for reasonable accommodation (42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5)) (§ 1636.4(e)). If an employer decides to seek supporting documentation in response to a request for a PWFA reasonable accommodation, the restrictions limiting supporting documentation set forth in § 1636.3(l) apply. Finally, any medical information obtained during the interactive process under the PWFA must be maintained on separate forms and in separate medical files and be treated as a confidential medical record, in accordance with the ADA's rules on the confidentiality of medical information, as explained in section <I>1636.7(a)(1)</I> of this appendix under <I>Prohibition on Disability-Related Inquiries and Medical Examinations and Protection of Medical Information.</I> Of particular relevance to the PWFA, the fact that an employee is pregnant, has recently been pregnant, or has a medical condition related to pregnancy or childbirth is medical information. Similarly, disclosing that an employee is receiving or has requested an accommodation under the PWFA or has limitations for which they requested or are receiving a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA, usually amounts to a disclosure that the employee is pregnant, has recently been pregnant, or has a related medical condition.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>128</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d); 29 CFR 1630.13, 1630.14.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>129</SU> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d)(4)(A); 29 CFR 1630.14(c).</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Recommendations for an Interactive Process
</HD3>
<P>111. Appropriate reasonable accommodations are best determined through a flexible interactive process that includes both the employer and the employee with the known limitation. Employers and employees may use some of the steps noted in paragraph 112 of this section, if warranted, to address requests for reasonable accommodations under the PWFA, but the Commission emphasizes that, as under the ADA, a covered entity and an employee do not have to complete all or even some of these steps. The Commission expects that typically a simple conversation will be sufficient for employers to obtain all the information needed to determine the appropriate reasonable accommodation. As with the ADA, a covered entity should respond expeditiously to a request for reasonable accommodation and act promptly to provide the reasonable accommodation.
<SU>130</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>130</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 10. Following the steps laid out for the interactive process is not a defense to liability if the employer fails to provide a reasonable accommodation that it could have provided absent undue hardship.</P></FTNT>
<P>112. If an employer has not obtained enough information to determine the appropriate reasonable accommodation through the initial request or a simple conversation or email exchange, the flexible interactive process may continue. For example, when an employee with a known limitation has requested a reasonable accommodation regarding the performance of the essential functions of the job, the covered entity, using a problem-solving approach, may, as needed:
</P>
<P>a. Analyze the particular job involved and determine its purpose and essential functions;
</P>
<P>b. Consult with the employee with a known limitation to ascertain what kind of accommodation is necessary given the known limitation;
</P>
<P>c. In consultation with the employee with the known limitation, identify potential accommodations and assess the effectiveness each would have in enabling the employee to perform the essential functions of the position. If the employee's limitation means that they are temporarily unable to perform one or more essential functions of the position, the parties also must consider whether suspending the performance of one or more essential functions may be a part of the reasonable accommodation if the known limitation is temporary and the employee could perform the essential function(s) in the near future; and
</P>
<P>d. Consider the preference of the employee to be accommodated and select and implement the accommodation that is most appropriate for both the employee and the covered entity.
<SU>131</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>131</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.9.</P></FTNT>
<P>113. Steps (b) to (d) outlined in paragraph 112 of this section can be adapted and applied to requests for reasonable accommodations related to the application process and to benefits and privileges of employment. In those situations, in step (c), the consideration should be how to enable the applicant with a known limitation to be considered for the position in question or how to provide an employee with a known limitation with the ability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment.
</P>
<P>114. In some instances, neither the employee requesting the accommodation nor the covered entity may be able to readily identify an appropriate accommodation. For example, an applicant needing an accommodation may not know enough about the equipment used by the covered entity or the exact nature of the work site to suggest an appropriate accommodation. Likewise, the covered entity may not know enough about an employee's known limitation and its effect on the performance of the job to suggest an appropriate accommodation. In these situations, the steps in paragraph 112 of this section may be helpful as part of the employer's reasonable effort to identify the appropriate reasonable accommodation. In addition, parties may consult outside resources such as State or local entities, non-profit organizations, or the Job Accommodation Network (JAN) for ideas regarding potential reasonable accommodations.
<SU>132</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>132</SU> <I>See</I> JAN, <I>supra</I> note 107. <I>See also</I> U.S. Dep't of Lab., Occupational Safety &amp; Health Admin., <I>Ergonomics-Solutions to Control Hazards, https://www.osha.gov/ergonomics/control-hazards</I> (last visited Apr. 3, 2024); U.S. Dep't of Health &amp; Hum. Servs., Ctrs. for Disease Control &amp; Prevention, Nat'l Inst. for Occupational Safety &amp; Health, <I>Reproductive Health and The Workplace, https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/topics/repro/</I> (last reviewed May 1, 2023).</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Engaging in the Interactive Process
</HD3>
<P>115. A covered entity's failure to engage in the interactive process, in and of itself, is not a violation of the PWFA, just as it is not a violation of the ADA. However, a covered entity's failure to initiate or participate in the interactive process with the employee after receiving a request for reasonable accommodation could result in liability if the employee does not receive a reasonable accommodation even though one is available that would not have posed an undue hardship.
<SU>133</SU>
<FTREF/> Relatedly, an employee's unilateral withdrawal from or refusal to participate in the interactive process can constitute sufficient grounds for failing to provide the reasonable accommodation.
<SU>134</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>133</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 6.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>134</SU> <I>See id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>116. In situations where employers are permitted to seek supporting documentation, because employees may experience difficulty obtaining appointments with health care providers, especially early in pregnancy, the covered entity should be aware that it may take time for the employee to find a health care provider and provide documentation. Delay caused by the difficulty an employee faces in obtaining information from a health care provider in these circumstances should not be considered a withdrawal from or refusal to participate in the interactive process. If there is such a delay, an employer should consider providing an interim reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>117. As set out in Example #53 of this appendix, if an employee requests an accommodation but then is unable to engage in the interactive process because of an emergency, an employer should not penalize the employee but rather should wait and restart the interactive process once the employee returns.
</P>
<P><I>Example #53/Interruption of Interactive Process:</I> Beryl is a quality control inspector at a labware manufacturing plant. She is in the early stage of pregnancy, and Beryl's employer does not know that she is pregnant. In the middle of her shift, Beryl suddenly experiences cramping and bleeding. She tells her supervisor that she thinks she is having a miscarriage and needs to leave. The next afternoon, Beryl's partner calls the supervisor and explains that Beryl will be resting at home for the next 24 hours. Following time at home, Beryl returns to the workplace and follows up with her supervisor regarding her emergency departure.
</P>
<P>The bleeding and cramping Beryl experienced is a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, and Beryl identified an adjustment or change needed at work (leave). Thus, Beryl made a request for a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA, and it serves to start the PWFA interactive process.
</P>
<P>The employer received Beryl's request, but the interactive process was interrupted by the emergency situation that required immediate action. The interactive process resumed when Beryl's partner spoke with the supervisor and provided further information regarding Beryl's condition. When Beryl spoke with her supervisor upon her return, she reengaged in the interactive process. Through this continued conversation, the employer was able to gather sufficient information to determine that Beryl had a limitation under the PWFA and was entitled to a reasonable accommodation. The employer must grant Beryl leave for the time she took off because of her miscarriage unless it can establish that doing so would be an undue hardship. Moreover, if the employer is one that automatically assigns points or penalizes employees for unexcused absences, Beryl should not be penalized for using the leave because she was entitled to the accommodation of leave.
<SU>135</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>135</SU> There also may be other types of situations where the employer is on notice of the need for accommodation but then the interactive process is interrupted. <I>See, e.g., King</I> v. <I>Steward Trumbull Mem'l Hosp., Inc.,</I> 30 F.4th 551, 568 (6th Cir. 2022) (“Anti-discrimination laws sometimes require employers to accommodate unexpected circumstances. Sudden illnesses and episodic flare-ups are, by nature, difficult to plan for and can be quite disruptive to those who fall ill and those around them. But that does not mean that accommodating a sudden flare-up will cause undue hardship merely because handling these situations requires more flexibility.”)
</P>
<P>Some workplace attendance policies explicitly provide for unexpected absences by, for example, not penalizing workers who experience an emergency health situation. <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text accompanying n.74. Providing this type of leave to some workers but not to workers affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions could be a violation of Title VII. Finally, if the worker does not qualify for coverage under the PWFA, there may be other laws, like the ADA or the FMLA, that would apply.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(l) Limits on Supporting Documentation
</HD2>
<P>118. A covered entity is not required to seek supporting documentation from an employee who requests an accommodation under the PWFA. If a covered entity decides to seek supporting documentation, the covered entity is permitted to do so only when reasonable under the circumstances to determine whether the employee has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation) and needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation. When seeking documentation is reasonable, the employer is limited to seeking documentation that itself is reasonable.
</P>
<P>119. The restrictions on a covered entity seeking supporting documentation are enforceable through different parts of the PWFA. As set out in § 1636.4(a)(3), as part of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1), a covered entity may not fail to provide a reasonable accommodation based on the employee's failure to provide supporting documentation if the covered entity's request for supporting documentation violates the standards set out in § 1636.3(l). Moreover, as discussed in section <I>1636.5(f)</I> of this appendix under <I>Possible Violations of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)) Based on Seeking Supporting Documentation During the Reasonable Accommodation Process and Disclosure of Medical Information,</I> a covered entity may violate the PWFA's retaliation provisions by seeking documentation or information in circumstances beyond those that are permitted under § 1636.3(l). This is the case whether or not the employee provides the documentation or information sought by the employer and whether or not the employer grants the accommodation.
</P>
<P>120. In addition to the PWFA regulation, covered entities are reminded that the ADA's limitations on disability-related inquiries and medical exams apply to all ADA-covered employers.
<SU>136</SU>
<FTREF/> These ADA limitations protect all of the covered entity's employees whether they have disabilities or not and whether they are seeking an ADA reasonable accommodation or not. Thus, employers responding to reasonable accommodation requests under the PWFA should be mindful of the ADA's limitations on the employer's ability to make disability-related inquiries or require medical exams in response to these requests.
<SU>137</SU>
<FTREF/> For example, separate from requirements imposed by the PWFA and § 1636.3(l), a covered entity may not ask an employee who requests an accommodation under the PWFA if the employee has asked for other reasonable accommodations in the past or whether the employee has preexisting conditions, because these questions are disability-related inquiries, <I>i.e.,</I> questions that are likely to elicit disability-related information, and they are not job-related and consistent with business necessity in these circumstances. Further, an employer may not require that an employee seeking an accommodation under the PWFA complete specific forms that ask for information regarding “impairments” or “major life activities.” These are disability-related inquiries and, because they are not job-related and consistent with business necessity in these circumstances, they would violate the ADA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>136</SU> The PWFA and title I of the ADA apply to the same entities. Therefore, all entities covered by title I of the ADA also are covered by the PWFA.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>137</SU> For further discussion of this topic, <I>see infra</I> section <I>1636.7(a)(1)</I> of this appendix under <I>Prohibition on Disability-Related Inquiries and Medical Examinations and Protection of Medical Information.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>121. The Commission notes that pregnant employees may experience limitations and, therefore, require accommodations, before they have had any pregnancy-related medical appointments. Pregnant employees also may experience difficulty obtaining an immediate appointment with a health care provider early in a pregnancy or finding a health care provider at all. The Commission encourages employers who choose to seek supporting documentation, when that is permitted under § 1636.3(l), to consider the best practice of granting interim reasonable accommodations if an employee indicates that they have tried to obtain documentation and it will be provided at a later date.
</P>
<HD2/>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(1) Seeking Supporting Documentation Only When Reasonable Under the Circumstances
</HD2>
<P>122. The Commission expects that most PWFA interactive processes will consist of simple exchanges of information between employees and employers, such as brief conversations or emails, and that many of these will be concluded very shortly after the employee with a known limitation requests a reasonable accommodation, without any requests for further information. Once an employer has determined an appropriate reasonable accommodation, such as through these types of simple communications, no further interactive process is necessary.
</P>
<P>123. The PWFA does not require employers to seek supporting documentation from employees requesting accommodations. Under the PWFA, a covered entity may seek supporting documentation only if it is reasonable under the circumstances for the covered entity to determine whether the employee has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation) and needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation.
</P>
<P>124. Under § 1636.3(l), situations when it would be reasonable under the circumstances for a covered entity to seek supporting documentation include, for example, if a pregnant employee asks for the temporary suspension of an essential function(s) that involves climbing ladders due to dizziness and the danger of falling, then the employer may, but is not required to, seek reasonable documentation, which is the minimum that is sufficient to confirm the physical or mental condition—<I>i.e.,</I> dizziness and increased risk related to falling; confirm that the physical or mental condition is related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (together “a limitation”); and describe the adjustment or change at work needed due to the limitation—<I>i.e.,</I> how high the employee may climb, the types of actions the employee should avoid, and how long the modification will be needed. As another example, if an employee requests an accommodation for a known limitation but has only a vague idea of what type of accommodation would be effective and the employer also does not know of a potential accommodation, it would be reasonable under the circumstances for the employer to seek supporting documentation describing the adjustment or change at work needed due to the limitation to help identify the needed accommodation. The employer also may consult resources such as JAN.
<SU>138</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>138</SU> <I>See</I> JAN, <I>supra</I> note 107.</P></FTNT>
<P>125. Section 1636.3(l) provides five examples of when it would not be reasonable under the circumstances for the employer to seek supporting documentation.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(1)(i)—Obvious
</HD2>
<P>126. Under the PWFA, it is not reasonable under the circumstances for an employer to seek supporting documentation when the physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (the limitation) and the adjustment or change at work that is needed due to the limitation are obvious.
</P>
<P>127. In practice, the Commission expects this example will usually apply when the employee is obviously pregnant.
<SU>139</SU>
<FTREF/> Whether someone is “obviously” pregnant can depend on a number of factors, and not everyone who is pregnant looks the same, but there is a large subset of pregnant workers who most individuals would agree are “obviously” pregnant, <I>i.e.,</I> the pregnancy is showing and onlookers easily notice by looking. To limit problems that can arise in some instances when employers attempt to determine if someone is pregnant by looking at them, the regulation requires the employee to confirm the limitation and the adjustment or change at work needed due to the limitation through self-confirmation as defined in § 1636.3(l)(4). This may happen in the same conversation where the employee requests an accommodation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>139</SU> “Obvious” means that the condition is apparent without being mentioned. In terms of pregnancy itself, this may depend on physical appearance, <I>i.e.,</I> whether the pregnancy is “showing.” This is a concept that the Commission has used previously regarding pregnancy discrimination. <I>Enforcement Guidance on Pregnancy Discrimination, supra</I> note 24, at (I)(A)(1)(a) (discussing the “obviousness” of pregnancy and a discrimination claim).</P></FTNT>
<P>128. Thus, for example, when an obviously pregnant employee confirms they are pregnant and asks for a different size uniform or related safety gear, the limitation and the adjustment or change at work needed due to the limitation are obvious, and the employer may not seek supporting documentation. In situations where some information is obvious and other information is not, the employer may seek supporting documentation relevant only to the non-obvious issue. Thus, if an obviously pregnant employee requests the reasonable accommodation of leave related to childbirth and recovery and confirms that they are pregnant, it may be reasonable under the circumstances for the employer to seek supporting documentation about the length of leave for recovery, but it would not be reasonable to seek supporting documentation regarding the limitation. Of course, the employer does not have to seek supporting documentation and can simply engage the employee in a discussion about how much leave the employee will need and when they will need it.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(1)(ii)—Known
</HD2>
<P>129. The second example of when it would not be reasonable to seek supporting documentation is when the employer already has sufficient information to determine that the employee has a PWFA limitation and the adjustment or change at work needed due to the limitation. For example, if an employee already provided documentation stating that because of their recent cesarean section they should not lift over 20 pounds for 2 months, the employer may not seek further supporting documentation during those 2 months because the employer already has sufficient information.
<SU>140</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>140</SU> This example does not mean that when it is otherwise reasonable in the circumstances to seek supporting documentation, an employer is prohibited from doing so because the employee has simply stated that they have a limitation and need an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation. However, the employer also is not required to seek documentation and can accept the employee's statement.</P></FTNT>
<P>130. This principle also applies to episodic conditions. If an employer already has sufficient information to determine that the employee has a PWFA limitation that is episodic (e.g., migraines that are related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions), and the adjustment or change at work needed periodically due to the limitation (breaks or time off), the employer cannot seek additional or new supporting documentation every time the condition arises.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(1)(iii)—Predictable Assessments
</HD2>
<P>131. The third example of when it is not reasonable under the circumstances for an employer to seek supporting documentation is based on the common types of pregnancy modifications sought under the PWFA. Specifically, it is not reasonable under the circumstances for an employer to seek supporting documentation when an employee, at any time during their pregnancy, seeks one of the following modifications, due to their pregnancy: (1) carrying or keeping water near for drinking, as needed; (2) taking additional restroom breaks, as needed; (3) sitting, for those whose work requires standing, and standing, for those whose work requires sitting, as needed; and (4) taking breaks to eat and drink, as needed. In these situations, an employee must provide self-confirmation as defined in § 1636.3(l)(4). Example #10 of this appendix shows how this can be part of the request for an accommodation. It is not reasonable to seek supporting documentation when an employee is pregnant, seeks one of the four listed modifications, and provides self-confirmation as defined in paragraph (l)(4) because these are a small set of commonly sought modifications that are widely known to be needed during an uncomplicated pregnancy.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(1)(iv)—Lactation
</HD2>
<P>132. The fourth example of when it is not reasonable under the circumstances to seek supporting documentation concerns lactation and pumping at work or nursing during work hours. Specifically, it is not reasonable under the circumstances to seek supporting documentation when the reasonable accommodation is related to a time and/or place to pump or any other modification related to pumping at work,
<SU>141</SU>
<FTREF/> and the employee has provided a self-confirmation as set out in § 1636.3(l)(4). Likewise, it is not reasonable under the circumstances to seek supporting documentation when the reasonable accommodation is related to time to nurse during work hours when the regular location of the employee's workplace makes nursing during work hours a possibility because the child is in close proximity and the employee has provided self-confirmation as set out in paragraph (l)(4).
<SU>142</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>141</SU> <I>See supra</I> note 102 for discussion of the PUMP Act and the types of accommodations that may be requested with regard to pumping.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>142</SU> “Nursing during work hours” could include, for example, when an employee who always teleworks from home and has their child at home takes a break to nurse the child, or when an employee takes a break to travel to a nearby daycare center to nurse.</P></FTNT>
<P>133. It is not reasonable to seek supporting documentation regarding pumping or nursing at work because lactation beginning around or shortly after birth is an obvious fact. Additionally, and pragmatically, health care providers may not be able to provide supporting documentation about the details of how a specific employee is managing nursing or pumping, as this is not something necessarily discussed with a health care provider. This example does not, however, apply to all reasonable accommodations related to lactation; thus, this example would not apply if a lactating employee requested full-time remote work due to a condition that makes pumping difficult.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(1)(v)—Employer's Own Policies or Practices
</HD2>
<P>134. The fifth example of when it would not be reasonable under the circumstances for a covered entity to seek supporting documentation relates to an employer's own policies or practices. If the requested accommodation is one that is available to employees without known limitations pursuant to the covered entity's policies or practices without submitting supporting documentation, then it is not reasonable for the employer to seek supporting documentation from an employee seeking a similar accommodation under the PWFA. For example, if an employer has a policy or practice of requiring supporting documentation only for the use of leave for 3 or more consecutive days, it would not be reasonable to ask someone who is using the same type of leave due to a known limitation under the PWFA to submit supporting documentation when they request leave for 2 or fewer days.
<SU>143</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>143</SU> Conversely, if regular employer policies or practices would require documentation when the PWFA would not, or would require more documentation than the PWFA would allow in a situation where the employee is requesting an accommodation under the PWFA, the PWFA's restrictions on supporting documentation would apply.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(2) Reasonable Documentation
</HD2>
<P>135. Under the PWFA, reasonable accommodations are available for physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. When it is reasonable under the circumstances for the covered entity to seek supporting documentation, the covered entity is limited to seeking documentation that is itself reasonable. When it is reasonable under the circumstances for the covered entity to seek supporting documentation, the covered entity may require that the supporting documentation come from a health care provider.
</P>
<P>136. Confirming the physical or mental condition requires only a simple statement that the physical or mental condition meets the first part of the definition of “limitation” at § 1636.3(a)(2), (<I>i.e.,</I> the physical or mental condition is: an impediment or problem, including ones that are modest, minor, or episodic; a need or a problem related to maintaining the health of the employee or the pregnancy, or that the employee is seeking health care related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or a related medical condition itself).
<SU>144</SU>
<FTREF/> The physical or mental condition can be a PWFA limitation whether or not such condition is an impairment or a disability under the ADA.
<SU>145</SU>
<FTREF/> Some examples of physical or mental conditions that could be limitations are that the employee: has a back injury; has swollen ankles; is experiencing vomiting; has a lifting restriction; is experiencing fatigue; should not be exposed to a certain chemical; should avoid working in the heat; needs to avoid certain physical tasks such as walking, running, or physical confrontation because of increased risk; needs to attend a health care appointment; or needs to recover from a health care procedure. Because the physical or mental condition can be something like fatigue or vomiting, there is no need for the statement to contain a medical diagnosis. Thus, documentation is sufficient under § 1636.3(l)(2) even if it does not contain a medical diagnosis, as long as it has a simple statement of the physical or mental condition.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>144</SU> Section 1636.3(a)(2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>145</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4); <I>see</I> 29 CFR 1630.3(h).</P></FTNT>
<P>137. The supporting documentation should confirm that the physical or mental condition is related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. The supporting documentation need not state that the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions are the sole, the original, or a substantial cause of the physical or mental condition at issue because the statute only requires that the physical or mental condition be “related to, affected by, or arising out of” pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.
<SU>146</SU>
<FTREF/> If relevant, the documentation should include confirmation that the “related medical condition” is related to pregnancy or childbirth.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>146</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4); <I>see supra</I> in section <I>1636.3(a)(2)</I> of this appendix under <I>Related to, Affected by, or Arising Out of.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>138. The employer also may seek reasonable documentation to describe the adjustment or change at work that is needed due to the limitation and an estimate of the expected duration of the need for the adjustment or change. This may be, for example: no heavy lifting for approximately 4 months; cannot stand for more than 30 minutes at a time until the end of the pregnancy; the maximum amount of weight involved in the lifting restriction and the approximate length of the restriction; the approximate number of and length of breaks; the kind of support or equipment needed and for approximately how long; a change in the type of protective equipment or ventilation needed and for approximately how long it will be needed; the need to limit movement and be allowed to lie down when necessary and for approximately how long the employee will need to limit movement; a change in work location and the approximate length of time of the change; a period of leave expected to be needed for recovery or to attend health care appointments; or the essential function(s) that should be temporarily suspended and for how long.
</P>
<P>139. Where the supporting documentation meets the standards described in this section, it is sufficient to determine whether the employee has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation) and needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation. Accordingly, a covered entity that has received sufficient documentation but fails to provide an accommodation based on the failure to provide sufficient documentation, or continues to seek additional documentation or information, risks liability under 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (§ 1636.4(a)(3)) and/or 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)).
</P>
<P>140. Examples Regarding Documentation: 
<SU>147</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>147</SU> The conditions described in these examples also may be disabilities under the ADA and therefore may entitle the employee to an accommodation under the ADA, regardless of whether they are entitled to one under the PWFA.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Example #54/Reasonable Documentation:</I> Amelia recently returns to work after giving birth and recovery from childbirth. Amelia requests that she not be required to lift more than 30 pounds due to a back injury arising out of her pregnancy. Amelia's employer can use the interactive process to identify Amelia's limitation and what accommodation will address her limitation. Amelia's employer may, but is not required to, seek supporting documentation; in this situation, the employer decides to seek supporting documentation from Amelia. At Amelia's request, her obstetrician emails the human resources department, explaining that Amelia's recent pregnancy has caused a back injury and that she should avoid lifting more than 30 pounds for approximately the next 3 months. This is sufficient documentation to confirm that Amelia has a limitation—a physical or mental condition (a back injury, which is an impediment or problem) related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions—and to describe an adjustment or change at work that is needed due to the limitation (avoid lifting more than 30 pounds for approximately the next three months). Because this is sufficient documentation, the covered entity failing to provide Amelia an accommodation based on a lack of documentation may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (§ 1636.4(a)(3)), and the covered entity trying to obtain additional documentation or information related to Amelia's request for a reasonable accommodation may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)).
</P>
<P><I>Example #55 Reasonable Documentation:</I> Rachna is 6 months pregnant and has just learned that she has preeclampsia. She requires limited activity and bed rest for the remainder of her pregnancy to limit the risks to her health and the health of her pregnancy. Rachna's employer can use the interactive process to identify Rachna's limitation and what accommodation will address her limitation. Rachna's employer may, but is not required to, seek supporting documentation; in this situation, the employer decides to seek supporting documentation from Rachna. Rachna provides her employer with a note from her midwife saying that, because of risks related to her health and the health of her pregnancy, Rachna needs to limit activities that involve sitting or standing, needs bed rest as much as possible, and should not commute to work for the remaining 3 months of her pregnancy. This is sufficient documentation to confirm that Rachna has a limitation—a physical or mental condition (maintaining the health of the employee or the employee's pregnancy) related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions—and to describe the change at work that is needed (limiting activities involving sitting and standing, lying down as much as possible, and not commuting for the remainder of her pregnancy). Because this is sufficient documentation, the covered entity failing to provide Rachna an accommodation based on a lack of documentation may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (§ 1636.4(a)(3)), and the covered entity trying to obtain additional documentation or information related to her request for a reasonable accommodation may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)).
</P>
<P>141. Because a covered entity is limited to the minimum supporting documentation necessary, a covered entity may not require that a pregnancy be confirmed through a specific test or method. Moreover, such a requirement could implicate the ADA's provisions that medical examinations only are permitted when they are job-related and consistent with business necessity.
<SU>148</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>148</SU> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d)(4)(A).</P></FTNT>
<P>142. Additionally, covered entities may not require that supporting documentation be submitted on a specific form, but only that documentation meets the requirements of § 1636.3(l)(2). If covered entities offer an optional form for employees to use in submitting supporting documentation, the covered entities may wish to review preexisting forms they have for reasonable accommodations or leave to ensure their compliance with the PWFA. For example, the PWFA does not require that an employee have a “serious health condition” and the statute does not use the term “major life activity,” so employer forms or other employer communications seeking supporting documentation for PWFA-related reasonable accommodations should not use this terminology.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(3) Limitations on a Covered Entity Seeking Supporting Documentation From a Health Care Provider
</HD2>
<P>143. When it is reasonable under the circumstances for the covered entity to seek supporting documentation, a covered entity may require that the supporting documentation comes from a health care provider. The regulation contains a non-exhaustive list of possible health care providers that is based on the non-exhaustive list provided in the Commission's ADA policy guidance.
<SU>149</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>149</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 6.</P></FTNT>
<P>144. The covered entity may not require that the health care provider who is submitting documentation be the provider treating the employee for the condition at issue, as long as the health care provider is able to confirm the physical or mental condition; confirm that the physical or mental condition is related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (together “a limitation”); and describe the adjustment or change at work that is needed due to the limitation. The covered entity may not require that an employee be examined by a health care provider of the covered entity's choosing.
</P>
<HD2>1636.3(l)(4) Self-Confirmation of Pregnancy or Lactation
</HD2>
<P>145. For the purposes of supporting documentation under the PWFA, self-confirmation is a simple statement in which the employee confirms, as set forth in § 1636.3(l)(1)(i), (iii) and (iv), the limitation and adjustment or change that is needed at work due to the limitation. The self-confirmation statement can be made in any manner and can be made as part of the request for reasonable accommodation under § 1636.3(h)(2). For example, self-confirmation may be spoken, it may be recorded or live, or it may be written on paper or electronically, such as in an email or text. Self-confirmation does not need to use any particular words or format, does not need to be written on a form, does not need to be a particular length, does not need to be notarized or otherwise verified, and does not need to be accompanied by documentary or physical evidence. In many instances, the self-confirmation will be part of what the employee communicates when they start the reasonable accommodation process. Example #10 of this appendix, where an employee tells a manager of her need for more frequent bathroom breaks and explains that the breaks are needed because the employee is pregnant, is an example of self-confirmation of pregnancy.
</P>
<HD3>Interaction Between the PWFA and the ADA
</HD3>
<P>146. Employers covered by the PWFA also are covered by the ADA.
<SU>150</SU>
<FTREF/> The ADA's statutory text includes express restrictions on when a covered entity may require medical exams and make disability-related inquiries.
<SU>151</SU>
<FTREF/> These restrictions apply to all the interactions between covered entities and their employees, regardless of whether an individual has a disability. Thus, for example, if an employee is requesting a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA, the ADA's restrictions apply and prevent an employer from seeking the employee's entire medical record or asking the employee if they have received accommodations in the past because these inquiries are likely to elicit information about a disability and are not job-related and consistent with business necessity in these circumstances. Independent of these ADA restrictions, § 1636.3(l)(2) also prohibits seeking this type of documentation under the PWFA because it goes beyond the definition of reasonable documentation. Finally, depending on the facts, seeking such information could violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>150</SU> 42 U.S.C 12111(5) (ADA); 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(2) (PWFA).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>151</SU> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d), 12112(d)(4)(A).</P></FTNT>
<P>147. The ADA provides for the confidentiality of medical information, subject to limited disclosure rules.
<SU>152</SU>
<FTREF/> These rules apply to medical information in the employer's possession, including information obtained by an employer from disability-related inquiries or medical exams, or information obtained as part of the reasonable accommodation process.
<SU>153</SU>
<FTREF/> That an employee is pregnant, has recently been pregnant, or has a medical condition related to pregnancy or childbirth is medical information. The ADA requires that employers keep such information confidential and only disclose it within the confines of the ADA's limited disclosure rules. Similarly, disclosing that an employee is receiving or has requested a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA usually amounts to a disclosure that the employee is pregnant, has recently been pregnant, or has a related medical condition and thus must be treated as confidential medical information as well. This is explained further in section <I>1636.7(a)(1)</I> of this appendix under <I>Prohibition on Disability-Related Inquiries and Medical Examinations and Protection of Medical Information.</I>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>152</SU> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d)(3)(B); 29 CFR 1630.14(b)(1), (c)(1), (d)(4); EEOC, <I>Enforcement Guidance on Disability-Related Inquiries and Medical Examinations of Employees Under the ADA,</I> at text accompanying nn.9-10 (2000) [hereinafter <I>Enforcement Guidance on Disability-Related Inquiries</I>], <I>http://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-disability-related-inquiries-and-medical-examinations-employees</I> (“The ADA requires employers to treat any medical information obtained from a disability-related inquiry or medical examination . . . as well as any medical information voluntarily disclosed by an employee, as a confidential medical record. Employers may share such information only in limited circumstances with supervisors, managers, first aid and safety personnel, and government officials investigating compliance with the ADA.”); EEOC, <I>Enforcement Guidance: Preemployment Disability-Related Questions and Medical Examinations,</I> at text accompanying n.6 (1995) [hereinafter <I>Enforcement Guidance: Preemployment Disability-Related Questions</I>], <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-preemployment-disability-related-questions-and-medical. https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-preemployment-disability-related-questions-and-medical</I> (“Medical information must be kept confidential.”). In addition, Federal agencies are covered by the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and many Federal agencies maintain equal employment opportunity records subject to a Privacy Act System of Records Notice.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>153</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Disability-Related Inquiries, supra</I> note 152, at General Principles (“The ADA requires employers to treat any medical information obtained from a disability-related inquiry or medical examination (including medical information from voluntary health or wellness programs), as well as any medical information voluntarily disclosed by an employee, as a confidential medical record.”) and text after n.12 (“[T]he ADA's restrictions on inquiries and examinations apply to all employees, not just those with disabilities.”).</P></FTNT>
<P>148. If there is a situation where an employee requests an accommodation and both the PWFA and the ADA could apply, the employer should apply the provision that it would be less demanding for the employee to satisfy. For example, assume a pregnant employee has diabetes that is exacerbated by the pregnancy and needs breaks to eat or drink. Under the PWFA, the covered entity cannot seek supporting documentation (as set forth in § 1636.3(l)(1)(iii)) and this is the provision that the employer should apply.
</P>
<HD1>IV. 1636.4 Nondiscrimination With Regard to Reasonable Accommodations Related to Pregnancy
</HD1>
<HD2>1636.4(a) Failing To Provide Reasonable Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>1. The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) prohibits a covered entity from not making a reasonable accommodation for a qualified employee with a known limitation related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions unless the covered entity can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its business. This provision of the PWFA uses the same language as the ADA, and the rule likewise uses the language from the corresponding ADA regulation.
<SU>154</SU>
<FTREF/> Because 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) uses the same operative language as the ADA, it should be interpreted in a similar manner.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>154</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12112(b)(5)(A); 29 CFR 1630.9(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>2. This section is violated when a covered entity fails to make reasonable accommodation to a qualified employee with a known limitation, absent undue hardship.
<SU>155</SU>
<FTREF/> However, a covered entity does not violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) merely by refusing to engage in the interactive process; for a violation, there also must have been a reasonable accommodation that the employer could have provided absent undue hardship.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>155</SU> The regulation in § 1636.4, following the language in the statute, uses the phrase “known limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.” 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1), (3)-(5). Given the definition in the statute of “known limitation” (42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4)), the phrase “known limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions” in § 1636.4 and 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1 should be understood to mean that the known limitations are related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions or that “known limitations” mean physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.4(a)(1) Unnecessary Delay in Providing a Reasonable Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>3. An unnecessary delay in providing a reasonable accommodation to the known limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of a qualified employee may result in a violation of the PWFA if the delay constitutes a failure to provide a reasonable accommodation. This can be true even if the reasonable accommodation is eventually provided, when the delay was unnecessary. Unnecessary delay that can be actionable under this section can occur at any time during the accommodation process including, but not limited to, responding to the initial request, during the interactive process, or in implementing the accommodation once the request is approved. Delay by a third-party administrator acting on behalf of the covered entity is attributable to the covered entity.
</P>
<P>4. Section 1636.4(a)(1) sets out the factors that are used when determining whether a delay in the provision of a reasonable accommodation violates the PWFA. Section 1636.4(a)(1) sets out the factors already identified in the ADA guidance 
<SU>156</SU>
<FTREF/> and adds three additional factors, described in paragraphs 5, 6, and 7 of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>156</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 10 &amp; n.38. The <I>Enforcement Guidance</I> notes that these are “relevant factors” but not that these are the only factors.</P></FTNT>
<P>5. First, whether providing the accommodation was simple or complex is a factor to be considered. Under the PWFA, there are certain modifications, set forth in § 1636.3(j)(4), that will virtually always be found to be reasonable accommodations that do not impose an undue hardship: (1) allowing a pregnant employee to carry or keep water near and drink, as needed; (2) allowing a pregnant employee to take additional restroom breaks, as needed; (3) allowing a pregnant employee whose work requires standing to sit and whose work requires sitting to stand, as needed; and (4) allowing a pregnant employee to take breaks to eat and drink, as needed. If there is delay in providing these accommodations to a qualified employee with a known limitation, it will virtually always be found to be unnecessary because of the presumption that these modifications will be reasonable accommodations that do not impose an undue hardship.
</P>
<P>6. Second, whether the covered entity offered the employee an interim reasonable accommodation during the interactive process is a factor to be considered. The offer of an interim reasonable accommodation can be made at any time following the request for accommodation. The provision of an interim accommodation will decrease the likelihood that an unnecessary delay will be found. Under this factor, the interim reasonable accommodation should be one that enables the employee to keep working as much as possible; the provision of leave will not be considered as a factor that can excuse delay, unless the employee selects, or requests, leave as an interim reasonable accommodation.
<SU>157</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>157</SU> The restriction on using leave as an interim accommodation is based on 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(4) and 2000gg-2(f).</P></FTNT>
<P>7. Third, the length of time for which the employee will need the reasonable accommodation is another factor to be considered. Given that limitations related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions are frequently temporary, an unnecessary delay in providing an accommodation may mean that the period necessitating the accommodation could pass without action simply because of the delay.
</P>
<HD2>1636.4(a)(2) Refusing an Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>8. An employee with a known limitation is not required to accept a reasonable accommodation. However, if the rejection of the reasonable accommodation results in the employee being unable to perform the essential functions of the job, the employee is not qualified. This provision mirrors the language from a similar provision in the ADA regulation,
<SU>158</SU>
<FTREF/> with the inclusion of employees who are qualified under § 1636.3(f)(2).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>158</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.9(d).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.4(a)(3) Covered Entity Failing To Provide a Reasonable Accommodation Due to Lack of Supporting Documentation
</HD2>
<P>9. A covered entity cannot defend the failure to provide an accommodation based on the lack of supporting documentation if: the covered entity did not seek supporting documentation; seeking supporting documentation was not reasonable under the circumstances as defined in § 1636.3(l)(1); the covered entity sought documentation beyond that which is reasonable as defined in § 1636.3(l)(2); or the covered entity did not provide the employee sufficient time to obtain and provide the supporting documentation sought.
</P>
<HD2>1636.4(a)(4) Choosing Among Possible Accommodations
</HD2>
<P>10. The covered entity must provide an effective accommodation, <I>i.e.,</I> one that meets the employee's needs or limitations. If there is more than one effective accommodation, the employee's preference should be given primary consideration.
<SU>159</SU>
<FTREF/> However, the employer providing the accommodation has the ultimate discretion to choose among effective reasonable accommodations.
<SU>160</SU>
<FTREF/> The employer may choose, for example, the less expensive accommodation, the accommodation that is easier for it to provide, or, generally, the accommodation that imposes the least hardship.
<SU>161</SU>
<FTREF/> In the situation where the employer is choosing among effective reasonable accommodations and does not provide the accommodation that is the employee's preferred accommodation, the employer does not have to show that it is an undue hardship to provide the employee's preferred accommodation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>159</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.9.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>160</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>161</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>11. A covered entity's “ultimate discretion” in choosing a reasonable accommodation is limited by certain other considerations. First, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1 (§ 1636.4(a)(4)) requires that the accommodation must provide the qualified employee with a known limitation with equal employment opportunity.
<SU>162</SU>
<FTREF/> By this, the Commission means an opportunity to attain the same level of performance, experience the same level of benefits, or otherwise enjoy the same terms, conditions, and privileges of employment as are available to the average similarly situated employee without a known limitation, which includes the individual who needs the accommodation when they are without the known limitation.
<SU>163</SU>
<FTREF/> This may be shown by evidence of the opportunities that would have been available to the employee seeking the accommodation had they not identified a known limitation or sought an accommodation, or other evidence that tends to demonstrate that the accommodation provided to the employee did not provide equal employment opportunity. Depending on the facts, selecting the accommodation that does not provide equal opportunity could violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1), 2000gg-1(5), or 2000gg-2(f).
<SU>164</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>162</SU> <I>See also Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 9, Example B.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>163</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.9; 29 CFR part 1630, appendix, 1630.2(o) (explaining that reassignment should be to a position with equivalent pay, status, etc., if the individual is qualified, and if the position is vacant within a reasonable amount of time); <I>see also Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at text following n.80 (“However, if both the employer and the employee voluntarily agree that transfer is preferable to remaining in the current position with some form of reasonable accommodation, then the employer may transfer the employee.”); <I>cf.</I> EEOC, <I>Compliance Manual on Religious Discrimination,</I> (12-IV)(A)(3) (2021) [hereinafter <I>Compliance Manual on Religious Discrimination</I>], <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/section-12-religious-discrimination</I> (stating that in the context of a religious accommodation, an accommodation would not be reasonable “if it requires the employee to accept a reduction in pay rate or some other loss of a benefit or privilege of employment and there is an alternative accommodation that does not do so”); EEOC, <I>Enforcement Guidance: Unlawful Disparate Treatment of Workers With Caregiving Responsibilities,</I> Example 5 (2007), <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-unlawful-disparate-treatment-workers-caregiving-responsibilities</I> (explaining how a worker can be a comparator for themselves).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>164</SU> Depending on the facts, this could be a violation of Title VII's prohibition on sex discrimination as well.</P></FTNT>
<P>12. Second, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(2) prohibits a covered entity from requiring a qualified employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions to accept an accommodation other than any reasonable accommodation arrived at through the interactive process.
</P>
<P>13. Third, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(4) prohibits a covered entity from requiring a qualified employee with a known limitation to take leave, whether paid or unpaid, if there is a reasonable accommodation that will allow the employee to continue to work, absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P>14. Fourth, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5) prohibits a covered entity from taking adverse action in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment against a qualified employee on account of the employee requesting or using a reasonable accommodation to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of the employee.
</P>
<P>15. Fifth, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) prohibits retaliation and coercion by covered entities.
</P>
<P>16. These limitations to the “ultimate discretion” of a covered entity to choose among effective accommodations are described in the discussions of §§ 1636.4(b), (d), and (e) and 1636.5(f).
</P>
<P>17. Example Regarding Failing To Provide Equal Employment Opportunity:
</P>
<P><I>Example #56/Failing To Provide Equal Employment Opportunity:</I> Yasmin's job requires her to travel to meet with clients. Because of her pregnancy, she is not able to travel for 3 months. She asks that she be allowed to conduct her client meetings via video conferencing. Although this accommodation would allow her to perform her essential job functions and would not impose an undue hardship, her employer reassigns her to smaller, local accounts. Being assigned only to these accounts is not an effective accommodation because it limits Yasmin's opportunity to compete for promotions and bonuses as she had in the past. This could be a violation of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1), because Yasmin is denied an equal opportunity to compete for promotions; thus, her employer has failed to provide her a reasonable accommodation. The employer's actions also could violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5) and 2000gg-2(f), or Title VII's prohibition against pregnancy discrimination.
</P>
<HD2>1636.4(b) Requiring a Qualified Employee To Accept an Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>18. The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(2) prohibits a covered entity from requiring a qualified employee to accept an accommodation other than any reasonable accommodation arrived at through the interactive process. Pursuant to this provision in the PWFA and § 1636.4(b), a covered entity cannot require a qualified employee to accept an accommodation such as light duty or a temporary transfer, or delay of an examination that is part of the application process, without engaging in the interactive process, even if the covered entity's motivation is concern for the employee's health or pregnancy.
</P>
<P>19. The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(2) does not require that the employee have a limitation, known or not; thus, a violation of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(2) could occur if a covered entity believes that a qualified employee is pregnant and decides, without engaging in the interactive process with the employee, that the employee needs a particular accommodation, and unilaterally requires the employee to accept the accommodation, even though the employee has not requested it and can perform the essential functions of the job without it. For example, this provision could be violated if an employment agency, without discussing the situation with the candidate, decides that a candidate recovering from a miscarriage needs an accommodation in the form of not being sent to certain jobs that the agency views as too physical. Similarly, a violation could result if an employer decides to excuse a qualified pregnant employee from overtime as an accommodation without the employee seeking an accommodation and the employer and the employee engaging in the interactive process.
<SU>165</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>165</SU> These actions also could violate Title VII's prohibition of disparate treatment based on sex. <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Pregnancy Discrimination, supra</I> note 24, at (I)(B)(1).</P></FTNT>
<P>20. Additionally, a violation could occur if a covered entity receives a request for a reasonable accommodation and unilaterally imposes an accommodation that was not requested by the qualified employee without engaging in the interactive process.
</P>
<P>21. Example Regarding Requiring an Employee To Accept an Accommodation:
</P>
<P><I>Example #57/Requiring an Employee To Accept an Accommodation:</I> Kia, a restaurant server, is pregnant. She asks for additional breaks during her shifts as her pregnancy progresses because she feels tired, and her feet are swelling. Her employer, without engaging in the interactive process with Kia, directs Kia to take host shifts for the remainder of her pregnancy, because it allows her to sit for long periods. The employer has violated 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(2) (§ 1636.4(b)), because it required Kia to accept an accommodation other than one arrived at through the interactive process, even if Kia's earnings did not decrease and her terms, conditions, and privileges of employment were not harmed.
</P>
<P>Moreover, if the host shift does not provide Kia with equal terms, conditions, and privileges of employment (e.g., Kia's wages decrease or Kia no longer can earn tips), the covered entity also may have violated 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (requiring reasonable accommodation absent undue hardship); 2000gg-1(5) (prohibiting adverse action in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment); and/or 2000gg-2(f) (prohibiting retaliation) (§§ 1636.4(a) and (e) and 1636.5(f)).
</P>
<P>22. Finally, this provision also could be violated if a covered entity has a rule that requires all qualified pregnant employees to stop a certain function—such as traveling—automatically, without any evidence that the particular employee is unable to perform that function.
</P>
<HD2>1636.4(c) Denying Opportunities to Qualified Employees
</HD2>
<P>23. The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(3) prohibits a covered entity from denying employment opportunities to a qualified employee with a known limitation if the denial is based on the need of the covered entity to make reasonable accommodations to the known limitations related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of the qualified employee. Thus, an employee's known limitation and need for a reasonable accommodation cannot be part of the covered entity's decision regarding hiring, discharge, promotion, or other employment decisions, unless the reasonable accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the covered entity.
</P>
<P>24. This provision in the PWFA uses language similar to that of the ADA, and § 1636.4(c) likewise uses language similar to the corresponding ADA regulation.
<SU>166</SU>
<FTREF/> Section 1636.4(c) encompasses situations where the covered entity's decision is based on the future possibility that a reasonable accommodation will be needed, <I>i.e.,</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(3) prohibits a covered entity from making a decision based on its belief that an employee may need a reasonable accommodation in the future regardless of whether the employee has asked for one or not. Thus, under § 1636.4(c), this prohibition would include situations where a covered entity refuses to hire a pregnant applicant because the covered entity believes that the applicant will need leave to recover from childbirth, regardless of whether the covered entity knows the exact amount of leave the applicant will require, or whether the applicant has mentioned the need for leave as a reasonable accommodation to the covered entity.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>166</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12112(b)(5)(B); 29 CFR 1630.9(b).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.4(d) Requiring a Qualified Employee To Take Leave
</HD2>
<P>25. A covered entity may not require a qualified employee to take leave, whether paid or unpaid, if another reasonable accommodation can be provided to the employee's known limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions absent undue hardship.
</P>
<P>26. This provision does not prohibit a covered entity from offering leave as a reasonable accommodation if leave is the reasonable accommodation requested or selected by the qualified employee, or if it is the only reasonable accommodation that does not cause an undue hardship. As provided in § 1636.3(i)(3), both paid leave (accrued, short-term disability, or another employer benefit) and unpaid leave are potential reasonable accommodations under the PWFA.
</P>
<HD2>1636.4(e) Adverse Action on Account of Requesting or Using a Reasonable Accommodation
</HD2>
<P>27. The PWFA contains overlapping provisions that protect employees, applicants, and former employees seeking or using reasonable accommodations. Importantly, nothing in the PWFA limits which provision an employee may use to protect their rights.
</P>
<P>28. One of these provisions is 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5), which prohibits adverse action in the terms, conditions, or privileges of employment against a qualified employee on account of the employee requesting or using a reasonable accommodation to the known limitations related to the pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions of the employee.
</P>
<P>29. The protections provided by 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5) are likely to have significant overlap with 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f), which prohibits retaliation. However, the PWFA's anti-retaliation provisions apply to a broader group of individuals and actions than 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5) does.
</P>
<P>30. “Terms, conditions, or privileges of employment” is a term from Title VII, and the Commission has interpreted it to encompass a wide range of activities or practices that occur in the workplace including, but not limited to: discriminatory work environment or atmosphere; duration of work (such as the length of an employment contract, hours of work, or attendance); work rules; job assignments and duties; and job advancement (such as training, support, and performance evaluations).
<SU>167</SU>
<FTREF/> In addition, for the purposes of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5), “terms, conditions, or privileges of employment” can include hiring, discharge, or compensation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>167</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000e-2(a)(1); <I>Compliance Manual on Terms, Conditions, and Privileges of Employment, supra</I> note 69, at 613.1(a) (stating that the language is to be read in the broadest possible terms and providing a list of examples).</P></FTNT>
<P>31. This provision prohibits a covered entity from taking a harmful action against a qualified employee. For example, this provision prohibits a covered entity from penalizing an employee for having requested or used an accommodation that the covered entity had granted previously.
</P>
<P>32. Examples Regarding Adverse Action in Terms, Conditions, or Privileges of Employment:
</P>
<P><I>Example #58/Adverse Action in Terms, Conditions, or Privileges of Employment:</I> Nava took leave to recover from childbirth as a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA, and, as a result, failed to meet the sales quota for that quarter, which led to a negative performance appraisal. The negative appraisal could be a violation of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5) because Nava received it due to the use of a reasonable accommodation. If an employee receives the reasonable accommodation of leave, a production standard, such as a sales quota, may need to be prorated to account for the reduced amount of time the employee works.
<SU>168</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>168</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Reasonable Accommodation, supra</I> note 12, at Question 19.</P></FTNT>
<P>33. Also, an employer may violate this provision if there is more than one reasonable accommodation that does not impose an undue hardship, and the employer, after the interactive process, chooses the accommodation that causes an adverse action with respect to the terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, despite the existence of an alternative accommodation that would not do so.
</P>
<P><I>Example #59/Adverse Action in Terms, Conditions, or Privileges of Employment:</I> Ivy asks for additional bathroom breaks during the workday because of pregnancy, including during overtime shifts. After talking to Ivy, Ivy's supervisor decides Ivy should simply not work overtime, because during the overtime shift there are fewer employees and the supervisor does not want to bother figuring out coverage for Ivy's bathroom breaks, although it would not be an undue hardship to do so. As a result, Ivy is not assigned overtime and loses earnings. The employer's actions could violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5) because Ivy suffered the adverse action of not being assigned to overtime and losing wages because she used a reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P><I>Example #60/Adverse Action in Terms, Conditions, or Privileges of Employment:</I> Leah asks for telework due to morning sickness. Through the interactive process, it is determined that either telework or a later schedule combined with an hour rest break in the afternoon would allow Leah to perform the essential functions of her job without imposing an undue hardship. Although Leah prefers telework, the employer would rather Leah be in the office. It would not be a violation of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(5) to offer Leah the schedule change/rest break, instead of telework, as a reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P>34. The facts set out in Examples #58 and #59 of this appendix also could violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) and 2000gg-2(f).
</P>
<HD1>V. 1636.5 Remedies and Enforcement
</HD1>
<P>1. In crafting the PWFA remedies and enforcement section, Congress recognized the advisability of using the existing mechanisms for redress of other forms of employment discrimination. The regulation at § 1636.5(a), (c), (d), and (e) follows the language of the statute.
</P>
<HD2>1636.5(a) Remedies and Enforcement Under Title VII
</HD2>
<P>2. The enforcement mechanisms, procedures, and remedies available to employees and others covered by Title VII apply to the PWFA.
<SU>169</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, employees covered by section 706 of Title VII may file charges alleging violations of the PWFA with the Commission, and the Commission will investigate them using the same process as set out in Title VII.
<SU>170</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, the Commission will use the same rules to determine the time limits for filing a charge; if the State or locality in which the charge has been filed has a law prohibiting sex discrimination, pregnancy discrimination, or specifically providing accommodations for pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, the deadline to file a charge will be 300 days.
<SU>171</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>169</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(a), (d), (e).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>170</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 1601.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>171</SU> <I>See EEOC</I> v. <I>Dolgencorp, LLC,</I> 899 F.3d 428, 433-34 (6th Cir. 2018) (applying the 300-day time limit to a charge alleging failure to provide a reasonable accommodation under the ADA filed in Tennessee where the state statute prohibited discrimination against individuals with disabilities but did not provide for reasonable accommodations, noting, “[t]he relevant question is whether the state agency has the power to entertain the claimant's disability discrimination claim, not whether state law recognizes the same theories of discrimination as federal law”).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.5(e) Remedies and Enforcement Under Section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
</HD2>
<P>3. The applicable procedures and available remedies for employees covered by section 717 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-16, apply under the PWFA. Employees covered by section 717 of Title VII may file complaints with the relevant Federal agency which will investigate them, and the Commission will process appeals using the same process as set out in Title VII for Federal employees. Thus, the Commission's implementing regulations found at 29 CFR part 1614 (Federal sector equal employment opportunity) apply to the PWFA as well.
</P>
<HD3>Damages
</HD3>
<P>4. As with other Federal employment discrimination laws, the PWFA provides for recovery of pecuniary and non-pecuniary damages, including compensatory and punitive damages. The statute's adoption by reference of section 1977A of the Revised Statutes of the United States, 42 U.S.C. 1981a, also imports the limitations on the recovery of compensatory damages and punitive damages generally applicable in employment discrimination cases, depending on the size of the employer. Punitive damages are not available in actions against a government, government agency, or political subdivision. This part lays out these requirements involving damages in separate paragraphs under § 1636.5(a) through (e).
</P>
<HD2>1636.5(f) Prohibition Against Retaliation
</HD2>
<P>5. The anti-retaliation provisions of the PWFA should be interpreted broadly, like those of Title VII and the ADA, to effectuate Congress' broad remedial purpose in enacting these laws.
<SU>172</SU>
<FTREF/> The protections of these provisions extend beyond qualified employees with known limitations and cover activity that may not yet have occurred, such as a circumstance in which a covered entity threatens an employee with termination if they file a charge or requires an employee to sign an agreement that prohibits such individual from filing a charge with the Commission.
<SU>173</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>172</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation and Related Issues, supra</I> note 89, at (II)(A)(1) (describing the broad protection of the participation clause); <I>id.</I> at (II)(A)(2), (2)(a) (describing the broad protection of the opposition clause).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>173</SU> <I>See</I> EEOC, <I>Enforcement Guidance on Non-Waivable Employee Rights under EEOC Enforced Statutes,</I> (II) (1997), <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/enforcement-guidance-non-waivable-employee-rights-under-eeoc-enforced-statutes</I> (“[P]romises not to file a charge or participate in an EEOC proceeding are null and void as a matter of public policy. Agreements extracting such promises from employees may also amount to separate and discrete violations of the anti-retaliation provisions of the civil rights statutes.”).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.5(f)(1) Prohibition Against Retaliation
</HD2>
<P>6. The types of conduct prohibited, the standard for determining what constitutes retaliatory conduct, and the individuals protected under the PWFA are the same as they are under Title VII.
<SU>174</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, this provision prohibits discrimination against employees who engage in protected activity, which includes “`participating' in an EEO process or `opposing' discrimination.” 
<SU>175</SU>
<FTREF/> Title VII's anti-retaliation provision is broad and protects an employee from conduct, whether related to employment or not, that a reasonable person would have found “materially adverse,” meaning that the action “well might have dissuaded a reasonable worker from making or supporting a charge of discrimination.” 
<SU>176</SU>
<FTREF/> Additionally, Title VII's anti-retaliation provision protects employees, applicants, and former employees.
<SU>177</SU>
<FTREF/> The same interpretations apply to the PWFA's anti-retaliation provision.
<SU>178</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>174</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f)(1) (using the same language as 42 U.S.C. 2000e-3(a)).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>175</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation, supra</I> note 89, at (II)(A); <I>see also id.</I> at (II)(A)(1), (2) (describing protected activity under Title VII's anti-retaliation clause).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>176</SU> <I>Burlington N. &amp; Santa Fe Ry. Co.</I> v. <I>White,</I> 548 U.S. 53, 68 (2006) (internal citations and quotation marks omitted).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>177</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000e-3(a). The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f)(1) applies to an “employee” which 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(3) defines to include applicants. The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(3) relies on the Title VII definition of employee, which includes former employees, where relevant. <I>See also Robinson</I> v. <I>Shell Oil Co.,</I> 519 U.S. 337, 346 (1997) (finding former employees are protected under Title VII's anti-retaliation provision).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>178</SU> All retaliatory conduct under Title VII (and the ADA), including retaliation that takes the form of harassment, is evaluated under the legal standard for retaliation. <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation, supra</I> note 89, at (II)(B)(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>7. Section 1636.5(f) contains three other provisions based on the statutory language and established anti-retaliation concepts under Title VII and the ADA.
</P>
<P>8. First, 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f)(1) protects “any employee,” not only “a qualified employee with a known limitation”; therefore, an employee, applicant, or former employee need not establish that they have a known limitation or are qualified (as those terms are defined in the PWFA) to bring a claim under 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f)(1).
<SU>179</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>179</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation, supra</I> note 89, at (II)(A)(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>9. Second, a request for a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA constitutes protected activity, and therefore retaliation for such a request is prohibited.
<SU>180</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>180</SU> <I>See id.</I> at (II)(A)(2)(e) and Example 10.</P></FTNT>
<P>10. Third, an employee, applicant, or former employee does not have to be actually deterred from exercising or enjoying rights under this section for the retaliation to be actionable.
<SU>181</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>181</SU> <I>See id.</I> at (II)(B)(1), (2) (stating that the retaliation “standard can be satisfied even if the individual was not in fact deterred” and that “[i]f the employer's action would be reasonably likely to deter protected activity, it can be challenged as retaliation even if it falls short of its goal”).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>1636.5(f)(2) Prohibition Against Coercion
</HD2>
<P>11. The PWFA's anti-coercion provision uses the same language as the ADA's interference provision, with one minor variation in the title of the section.
<SU>182</SU>
<FTREF/> The scope of the PWFA anti-coercion provision is broader than the anti-retaliation provision; it reaches those instances “when conduct does not meet the `materially adverse' standard required for retaliation.” 
<SU>183</SU>
<FTREF/> Following the language of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f)(2) and consistent with the ADA's analogous interference provision, § 1636.5(f)(2) protects individuals, not qualified employees with a known limitation under the PWFA. Thus, the individual need not be an employee, applicant, or former employee and need not establish that they have a known limitation or that they are qualified (as those terms are defined in the PWFA) to bring a claim for coercion under the PWFA.
<SU>184</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>182</SU> The ADA uses the phrase “Interference, coercion, or intimidation” to preface the prohibition against interference (42 U.S.C. 12203(b)), whereas the PWFA uses “Prohibition against coercion” (42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f)(2)). The language of the prohibitions is otherwise identical.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>183</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation, supra</I> note 89, at (III).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>184</SU> <I>See id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>12. The purpose of this provision is to ensure that employees are free to avail themselves of the protections of the statute. Thus, consistent with the ADA regulation for the analogous provision, § 1636.5(f)(2) includes “harass” in the list of prohibitions; the inclusion is intended to characterize the type of adverse treatment that may in some circumstances violate the coercion provision.
<SU>185</SU>
<FTREF/> Section 1636.5(f)(2) also states that an individual does not actually have to be deterred from exercising or enjoying rights under this section for the coercion to be actionable.
<SU>186</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>185</SU> <I>See</I> 29 CFR 1630.12(b); <I>see also Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation, supra</I> note 89, at text accompanying n.177 (stating, with regard to the ADA, that “[t]he statute, regulations, and court decisions have not separately defined the terms `coerce,' `intimidate,' `threaten,' and `interfere.' Rather, as a group, these terms have been interpreted to include at least certain types of actions which, whether or not they rise to the level of unlawful retaliation, are nevertheless actionable as interference.”).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>186</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Retaliation, supra</I> note 89, at (II)(B)(1), (2) (noting that actions can be challenged as retaliatory even if the person was not deterred from engaging in protected activity).</P></FTNT>
<P>13. Importantly the coercion provision does not apply to any and all conduct or statements that an individual finds intimidating; it only prohibits conduct that is reasonably likely to interfere with the exercise or enjoyment of PWFA rights.
<SU>187</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>187</SU> <I>See id</I> at (III) (discussing the ADA's interference provision).</P></FTNT>
<P>Some examples of coercion include:
</P>
<P>• coercing an individual to relinquish or forgo an accommodation to which they are otherwise entitled;
</P>
<P>• intimidating an applicant from requesting an accommodation for the application process by indicating that such a request will result in the applicant not being hired;
</P>
<P>• issuing a policy or requirement that purports to limit an employee's rights to invoke PWFA protections (e.g., a fixed leave policy that states “no exceptions will be made for any reason”);
</P>
<P>• interfering with a former employee's right to file a PWFA lawsuit against a former employer by stating that a negative job reference will be given to prospective employers if the suit is filed; and
</P>
<P>• subjecting an employee to unwarranted discipline, demotion, or other adverse treatment because they assisted a coworker in requesting a reasonable accommodation.
<SU>188</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>188</SU> <I>See id.</I></P></FTNT>
<HD3>Possible Violations of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)) Based on Seeking Supporting Documentation During the Reasonable Accommodation Process and Disclosure of Medical Information
</HD3>
<P>14. Seeking documentation or information that goes beyond the parameters laid out in § 1636.3(l) when an employee requests a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)) because seeking such information or documentation might well dissuade a reasonable person from engaging in protected activity, such as requesting a reasonable accommodation, or might constitute coercion. Circumstances under which going beyond the parameters of § 1636.3(l) may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)) include:
</P>
<P>• Seeking supporting documentation or information in response to an employee's request for reasonable accommodation when it is not reasonable under the circumstances for the covered entity to determine whether the employee has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation) and needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation, whether or not the employee provides the documentation or information and whether or not the employer grants the accommodation.
</P>
<P>• Continued efforts to obtain more information or supporting documentation when sufficient information or supporting documentation has already been provided to allow the employer to determine whether the employee has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation) and the adjustment or change at work that is needed due to the limitation, whether or not the employee provides the documentation or information and whether or not the employer grants the accommodation.
<SU>189</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>189</SU> This is based on a similar policy adopted under the ADA. <I>See Enforcement Guidance on Disability-Related Inquiries, supra</I> note 152, at Question 11 (“[W]hen an employee provides sufficient evidence of the existence of a disability and the need for reasonable accommodation, continued efforts by the employer to require that the individual provide more documentation and/or submit to a medical examination could be considered retaliation.”). The Commission notes that if the covered entity can show that it had a good faith belief that the submitted documentation was insufficient and thus sought additional documentation, its actions would not be retaliatory because they would lack the requisite intent.</P></FTNT>
<P>15. Disclosing medical information, threatening to disclose medical information, or requiring an employee to share their medical information other than in the limited situations set out in section <I>1636.7(a)(1)</I> of this appendix under <I>Prohibition on Disability-Related Inquiries and Medical Examinations and Protection of Medical Information</I> also may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)) because such actions might well dissuade a reasonable person from engaging in protected activity, such as requesting a reasonable accommodation, or might constitute coercion.
<SU>190</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>190</SU> As described in detail <I>infra</I> in section <I>1636.7(a)(1)</I> of this appendix under <I>Prohibition on Disability-Related Inquiries and Medical Examinations and Protection of Medical Information,</I> the ADA's rules on medical confidentiality apply to medical information obtained under the PWFA and allow for disclosure of such information only in specific, limited circumstances. <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d)(3); 29 CFR 1630.14; <I>Enforcement Guidance on Disability-Related Inquiries, supra</I> note 152, at text accompanying nn.9-10; <I>Enforcement Guidance: Preemployment Disability-Related Questions, supra</I> note 152, at text accompanying n.6.</P></FTNT>
<P>16. Actions that the courts or the Commission have previously determined may be retaliation or interference under Title VII or the ADA may violate the retaliation and coercion provisions of the PWFA as well. Depending on the facts, a covered entity's retaliation for activity protected under the PWFA also may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (because these actions may make the accommodation ineffective) or 2000gg-1(5) (prohibiting adverse actions) (§ 1636.4(a) and (e)).
</P>
<P>17. The following examples could violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) and also may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1), (5) or other laws.
</P>
<P><I>Example #61/Retaliatory Performance Appraisal:</I> Perrin requests a stool to sit on due to her pregnancy which makes standing difficult. Lucy, Perrin's supervisor, denies Perrin's request. The corporate human resources department instructs Lucy to grant the request because there is no undue hardship. Angry about being told to provide the reasonable accommodation, Lucy thereafter gives Perrin an unjustified poor performance rating and denies Perrin's request to attend training that Lucy approves for Perrin's coworkers.
</P>
<P><I>Example #62/Retaliatory Surveillance:</I> Marisol files an EEOC charge after Cyrus, her supervisor, refuses to provide her with the reasonable accommodation of help with lifting following her cesarean section. Marisol also alleges that after she requested the accommodation, Cyrus asked two coworkers to: conduct surveillance on Marisol, including watching her at work; note with whom she associated in the workplace; suggest to other employees that they should avoid her; and report her breaks to Cyrus, who said he kept a record of this information “just in case.”
</P>
<P><I>Example #63/Seeking Supporting Documentation Beyond § 1636.3(l):</I> Mara provides her employer with a note from her health care provider explaining that she is pregnant and will need the functions of her position that require her to be around certain chemicals to be temporarily suspended. Mara's supervisor requires that Mara confirm the pregnancy through an ultrasound, even though the employer already has sufficient information to determine whether Mara has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions (a limitation) and needs an adjustment or change at work due to the limitation.
</P>
<P><I>Example #64/Dissuaded from Requesting an Accommodation:</I> During an interview at an employment agency, Arden tells the human resources staffer, Stanley, that Arden is dealing with complications from their recent childbirth and may need time off for doctor's appointments during their first few weeks at work. Stanley counsels Arden that needing leave so soon after starting will be a “black mark” on their application and that it would be a waste of time for the employment agency to try to find work for Arden.
</P>
<P><I>Example #65/Threatening Future Employment:</I> Merritt, who gets jobs through an employment agency, is fired after requesting an accommodation under the PWFA. The employment agency refuses to refer Merritt to other employers, telling Merritt that the agency only refers workers who will not cause any trouble.
</P>
<P><I>Example #66/Disciplined for Assisting Other Employees:</I> Jessie, a factory union steward, ensures that workers know about their rights under the PWFA and encourages employees with known limitations to ask for reasonable accommodations. Jessie helps employees navigate the reasonable accommodation process and provides suggestions of possible reasonable accommodations. Factory supervisors, annoyed by the number of PWFA reasonable accommodation requests, write up Jessie for trivial timekeeping violations and other actions that had not been deemed worthy of discipline prior to Jessie assisting other employees with their PWFA accommodation requests.
</P>
<P><I>Example #67/Negative Reference:</I> While she was pregnant, Laila requested and received the reasonable accommodation of a temporary suspension of the essential function of moving heavy boxes and placement in the light duty program. After giving birth, Laila tells her employer that she has decided to resign and stay home for a year. Her employer responds that if Laila follows through and resigns now, the employer will have no choice but to give her a negative reference because Laila demanded an accommodation but did not have the loyalty to come back after having her baby.
</P>
<P><I>Example #68/Seeking Supporting Documentation Beyond § 1636.3(l):</I> Robbie, a retail worker, is pregnant. Her job requires her to stand at a cash register. Because of her pregnancy, Robbie has difficulty standing for long periods of time. Robbie explains the situation to the manager, who requires Robbie to produce a signed doctor's note saying that Robbie is pregnant and needs to sit. Because Robbie is pregnant and has requested one of the simple modifications that will virtually always be found to be a reasonable accommodation that does not impose an undue hardship, and she has confirmed the limitation and her need for the modification due to the limitation, the manager is not permitted to seek supporting documentation, as set forth in § 1636.3(l)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>Example #69/Disciplined Through Workplace Policy:</I> Tina gave birth and started a new job. She is experiencing urinary incontinence related to, affected by, or arising out of childbirth and needs time to attend a medical appointment. Her new employer has a policy that employees cannot be absent during the first 90 days of work. Tina requests and is given the reasonable accommodation of time to attend her medical appointment, but then is issued a disciplinary write-up for missing work during her first 90 days.
</P>
<P><I>Example #70/Retaliatory Failure to Provide Interim Reasonable Accommodation:</I> Dominique is lactating and, based on the recommendation of her health care provider, requests additional safety gear and protection to reduce the risk that chemicals she works with will contaminate her breast milk. The equipment has to be ordered, and the employer puts Dominique on unpaid leave while waiting for the equipment, although there is available work that Dominique could perform that would not require her to be around the chemicals while she waits for the additional safety gear. Additionally, her supervisor tells human resources staff that he is tired of accommodating Dominique because she asked for accommodations during her pregnancy as well and there has to be an end to her requests.
</P>
<P><I>Example #71/Retaliation for Requesting Safety Information:</I> Wynne is pregnant and is in a probationary period as a janitor. She asks her supervisor for safety information about the cleaning products that she handles as part of her job and explains it is to help her determine if she needs to ask for a reasonable accommodation regarding exposure to the chemicals. Her supervisor tells her not to worry and warns her that trying to get this kind of information will mark her as a troublemaker. During her first review near the end of the probationary period, the supervisor notes that, for an entry-level janitor, Wynne asks many questions and behaves like a troublemaker. The supervisor terminates Wynne even though she was performing satisfactorily.
</P>
<P><I>Example #72/Seeking Supporting Documentation Beyond § 1636.3(l):</I> An employer adopts a policy requiring everyone who requests a reasonable accommodation to provide medical documentation in support of the request. Cora, a production worker who is 8 months pregnant, requests additional bathroom breaks. The employer applies the policy to her, refusing to provide the accommodation until she submits supporting documentation, even though under § 1636.3(l)(1)(iii) the employer is not permitted to seek documentation in this situation.
</P>
<P><I>Example #73/Seeking Supporting Documentation Beyond § 1636.3(l) and Failure to Provide Accommodation:</I> An employer adopts a policy requiring everyone who requests a reasonable accommodation to provide supporting documentation. Fourteen months after giving birth, Alex wants to continue to pump at work, which is beyond the length of time the PUMP Act requires. She explains her request to her supervisor and asks that she have breaks to pump and that the room provided have a chair, a table, access to electricity and running water. Alex's employer refuses to grant the accommodations unless Alex provides supporting documentation from her health care provider. Alex cannot provide the information, so she stops pumping. In addition to potentially violating 42 U.S.C 2000gg-2(f), the employer cannot use the lack of supporting documentation as a defense to the failure to provide the accommodations because seeking documentation was not reasonable under the circumstances as set forth in § 1636.3(l)(1)(iv) and thus these actions may violate 42 U.S.C 2000gg-1(1) (§ 1636.4(a)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Example #74/Retaliatory Waiver of Rights:</I> An employer adopts a policy under which an employee who files a claim with the EEOC or another outside agency automatically waives their right to have a complaint processed through the employer's internal complaint procedure. Rebecca submitted an internal complaint to her supervisor after her request for a reasonable accommodation was denied and, a month later, filed a charge with the EEOC. The employer notified her that it would stop investigating her internal complaint until the EEOC matter was resolved, but that she would be free to pursue the internal resolution of her complaint if she withdrew her EEOC charge. The employer's policy is retaliatory because it adversely affects the employee by stripping her of an employment privilege for filing a charge with the EEOC.
</P>
<P><I>Example #75/Disclosure of Medical Information:</I> Caroline requested and received an accommodation under the PWFA in the form of a lifting restriction due to a back injury related to her pregnancy. Caroline's accommodation was granted early in her third trimester. Two weeks after her accommodation went into effect, during a team meeting, Caroline's supervisor went around the table describing each team members' duties, sighing as she explained that Caroline had a back injury due to pregnancy that prevented her from lifting and that Caroline's injury was the reason that other team members had extra duties. At each biweekly team meeting for the next two months, Caroline's supervisor noted that team members continued to be assigned extra duties because of Caroline's back injury. In addition to potential violation 42 U.S.C 2000gg-2(f), this disclosure of medical information violates the ADA's confidentiality rules, as it does not fit within any of the five disclosure exceptions.
</P>
<P><I>Example #76/Retaliatory Harassment:</I> Benita requested and received an accommodation under the PWFA in the form of a one-hour delayed start time due to morning sickness related to her pregnancy. Benita's coworkers are aware that she is receiving the accommodation due to a condition related to her pregnancy. A few days after Benita's accommodation is granted, her coworkers start to make unwelcome, critical comments about her “late” arrivals on a frequent basis, including that other pregnant individuals were able to start work on time during their pregnancies, that being able to “work during pregnancy is mind over matter,” and calling her “lazy” and a “slacker.” The coworkers schedule meetings that begin a half hour before Benita arrives in the office and complain to Benita's supervisor that she arrives late to those meetings. Because she cannot attend the meetings, Benita falls behind on her work.
</P>
<HD2>1636.5(g) Limitation on Monetary Damages
</HD2>
<P>18. The PWFA at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(g), using the language of the Civil Rights Act of 1991, 42 U.S.C. 1981a(a)(3), provides a limitation on damages based on a “good faith effort” to provide a reasonable accommodation. The covered entity bears the burden of proof for this affirmative defense. This limitation on damages applies to violations of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1) (§ 1636.4(a)) only. It does not apply to any other provisions of the PWFA.
</P>
<HD1>VI. 1636.7 Relationship to Other Laws
</HD1>
<HD2>1636.7(a)(1) Relationship to Other Laws in General
</HD2>
<P>1. The PWFA does not limit the rights of individuals affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions under a Federal, State, or local law that provides greater or equal protection. It is equally true that a Federal, State, or local law that provides less protection for individuals affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions than the PWFA does not limit the rights provided by the PWFA.
</P>
<P>2. Federal laws, including, but not limited to, Title VII, the ADA, the FMLA, the Rehabilitation Act, the PUMP Act, and Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, 20 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.,</I> provide protections for employees affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. Numerous States and localities also have laws that provide accommodations for pregnant employees.
<SU>191</SU>
<FTREF/> All of the protections for employees affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions in these laws are unaffected by the PWFA. If these laws provide greater protections than the PWFA, the greater protections will apply. For example, the State of Washington's Healthy Starts Act provides that certain accommodations, including lifting restrictions of 17 pounds or more, cannot be the subject of an undue hardship defense.
<SU>192</SU>
<FTREF/> If an employee in Washington is seeking a lifting restriction as a reasonable accommodation for a pregnancy-related reason under the Healthy Starts Act, an employer in Washington cannot argue that a lifting restriction of 20 pounds is an undue hardship, even though that defense could be raised if the claim were brought under the PWFA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>191</SU> U.S. Dep't of Lab., Women's Bureau, <I>Employment Protections for Workers Who Are Pregnant or Nursing, www.dol.gov/agencies/wb/pregnant-nursing-employment-protections</I> (last visited Mar. 25, 2024).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>192</SU> Wash. Rev. Code 43.10.005(1)(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>3. Section 1636.7(a) also applies to Federal or State occupational health and safety laws and collective bargaining agreements (CBAs). Thus, nothing in the PWFA limits an employee's rights under laws such as the OSH Act or under a CBA if either of those provide protection greater than or equal to that of the PWFA.
</P>
<HD3>The PWFA and Title VII
</HD3>
<P>4. The PWFA uses many terms and definitions from Title VII, and conduct that is the subject of PWFA claims also may give rise to claims under Title VII. For example, a qualified pregnant employee who sought leave for recovery from childbirth and was terminated may have a claim under both Title VII for sex discrimination and the PWFA for failure to accommodate, adverse employment action, or retaliation.
<SU>193</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>193</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-1(1), (5); 2000gg-2(f).</P></FTNT>
<P>5. Under Title VII, employees affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions may be able to receive accommodations if they can identify a comparator similar in their ability or inability to work.
<SU>194</SU>
<FTREF/> Under the PWFA, qualified employees with physical or mental conditions related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions are entitled to reasonable accommodations (absent undue hardship) whether or not other employees have those accommodations and whether or not the affected employees are similar in their ability or inability to work as employees not so affected. Additionally, if the covered entity offers a neutral reason or policy to explain why qualified employees affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions cannot access a specific benefit, the qualified employee with a known limitation under the PWFA still may ask for a waiver of that policy as a reasonable accommodation. Under the PWFA, the employer must grant the waiver, or another reasonable accommodation, absent undue hardship. If, for example, an employer denies a qualified pregnant employee's request to join its light duty program as a reasonable accommodation because the program is for employees with on-the-job injuries, it may be a reasonable accommodation for the employer's light duty program policy to be waived. Finally, employers in this situation should remember that if there are others to whom the benefit is extended, the Supreme Court stated in <I>Young</I> v. <I>UPS</I> that “[the employer's] reason [for refusing to accommodate a pregnant employee] normally cannot consist simply of a claim that it is more expensive or less convenient to add pregnant women to the category of those . . . whom the employer accommodates.” 
<SU>195</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, if the undue hardship defense of the employer under the PWFA is based solely on cost or convenience, that defense could, under certain fact patterns, nonetheless lead to liability under Title VII.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>194</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000e(k).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>195</SU> 575 U.S. at 229.</P></FTNT>
<P>6. Finally, nothing in the PWFA, this part, or this Interpretive Guidance should be interpreted to reduce or limit any protections provided by Title VII.
</P>
<HD3>The PWFA and the ADA
</HD3>
<P>7. The PWFA uses many terms and definitions from the ADA. Conduct that is the subject of PWFA claims also may give rise to claims under the ADA. For example, an employee with postpartum depression seeking a reasonable accommodation to attend treatment whose employer fails to provide the accommodation may have a claim under both the PWFA and the ADA (and possibly also Title VII). Similarly, an employee who has a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions may have both a known limitation under the PWFA and a disability under the ADA (where the physical or mental condition substantially limits a major life activity, including a major bodily function—in other words, the individual would have an “actual” ADA disability).
<SU>196</SU>
<FTREF/> In such case, the employee may be entitled to accommodation, absent undue hardship, under both the PWFA and the ADA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>196</SU> 42 U.S.C. 12102(1); 29 CFR 1630.2(g).</P></FTNT>
<P>8. While it will depend on the specific facts, if an employee could be covered under either the PWFA or the ADA, a covered entity's analysis, in most cases, should begin with the PWFA because the definition of “known limitation” under the PWFA covers situations when the ADA does not apply.
<SU>197</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>197</SU> 42 U.S.C. 2000gg(4).</P></FTNT>
<P>9. Requests for accommodation under the PWFA may be indistinguishable from requests for accommodation under the ADA and there will be situations in which both statutes apply. In one instance, the PWFA known limitation also may be an ADA disability. In another, employees with existing disabilities may seek ADA coverage for those, while also invoking the PWFA to address limitations related to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions interacting with an existing disability. In these situations, employees with disabilities may require additional or different accommodations and are entitled to them, absent undue hardship, under the PWFA and/or the ADA.
</P>
<P>10. There also will be situations where an employee with a disability who has an accommodation under the ADA seeks and is granted an accommodation under the PWFA. For example, an employee who uses an adaptive keyboard as an ADA reasonable accommodation temporarily may be assigned to a new position as part of an accommodation under the PWFA because an essential function of their original position has been temporarily suspended. In this situation, the employer must continue to provide the adaptive keyboard as an ADA reasonable accommodation if it is necessary for the employee to perform the essential functions of the new position.
</P>
<P>11. Because an individual may be covered by both the ADA and the PWFA, and the PWFA provides at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-5(a)(1) that nothing in the statute shall be construed to invalidate or limit the powers, remedies, and procedures under any Federal law that provides greater or equal protection for individuals affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions, a covered entity must apply the law that provides the worker the most protection.
</P>
<P>12. Examples Regarding Disability and Pregnancy:
</P>
<P><I>Example #77/Disability and Pregnancy:</I> Roxy is an accountant who has developed gestational hypertension and preeclampsia late in her pregnancy, causing damage to her kidneys. As a result, Roxy needs leave for periodic medical appointments to protect her own health and the health of her pregnancy. Because Roxy's condition is both a physical or mental condition related to, affected by, or arising out of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions and a condition that substantially limits one of her major bodily functions (kidney function), it qualifies as both a limitation under the PWFA and a disability under the ADA. Absent undue hardship, the employer must provide Roxy with the accommodation she requires due to her pregnancy (under the PWFA) and her disability (under the ADA). Of course, one effective accommodation may be sufficient to satisfy requirements under both statutes in this instance.
</P>
<P><I>Example #78/Disability and Pregnancy:</I> Farah is a nurse who has diabetes, and her employer has provided her with the accommodation of breaks to eat small meals throughout the day and breaks to check her insulin levels. When Farah becomes pregnant, she experiences morning sickness that makes it difficult for her to eat in the morning. As a result, she needs more breaks for eating later in the day and occasionally needs a break to rest while at work. Absent undue hardship, the employer must provide Farah with the additional accommodations she requires due to her pregnancy under the PWFA.
</P>
<P>13. In cases where both the ADA and PWFA apply, if an employer fails to provide an accommodation the employee could potentially file a claim for failure to accommodate under both the ADA and the PWFA. They also could file a separate ADA claim if they experienced disparate treatment based on a disability.
</P>
<HD3>Prohibition on Disability-Related Inquiries and Medical Examinations and Protection of Medical Information
</HD3>
<P>14. Important protections from the ADA that apply to all covered employees continue to apply when employees are seeking accommodations under the PWFA. First, the rules limiting the ability of covered entities to make disability-related inquiries or require medical exams in the ADA apply to all disability-related inquiries and medical exams including those made in the context of requests for PWFA accommodation.
<SU>198</SU>
<FTREF/> For example, a covered entity may not ask an employee who is seeking an accommodation under the PWFA whether the employee has asked for other accommodations in the past or has preexisting conditions because these questions are likely to elicit information about a disability and are not job-related and consistent with business necessity in this context. Similarly, an employer's response to an employee's request for accommodation under the PWFA that requires the employee to complete a release permitting the employer to obtain the employee's complete medical records would not be job-related or consistent with business necessity.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>198</SU> <I>See</I> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d); 29 CFR 1630.13, 1630.14.</P></FTNT>
<P>15. Second, under the ADA, covered entities are required to keep medical information of all applicants, employees, and former employees (whether or not those individuals have disabilities) confidential, with limited exceptions.
<SU>199</SU>
<FTREF/> The Commission has repeatedly stated that the requirement applies to all medical information in the employer's possession, whether obtained through inquiries pursuant to the ADA or otherwise.
<SU>200</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, this protection applies to medical information obtained under the PWFA, including medical information provided voluntarily and medical information provided as part of the reasonable accommodation process. Moreover, as a practical matter, in many circumstances under the PWFA, the medical information obtained by an employer may involve a condition that could be a disability; rather than an employer attempting to parse out whether to keep certain information confidential or not, all medical information should be kept confidential.
<SU>201</SU>
<FTREF/> Therefore, medical information obtained under the PWFA is subject to the ADA requirement that information regarding the medical condition or history of any employee be collected and maintained on separate forms and in separate medical files and be treated as a confidential medical record.
<SU>202</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>199</SU> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d)(3)(B); 29 CFR 1630.14(b)(1)(i) through (iii), (c)(1), (d)(4); <I>Enforcement Guidance on Disability-Related Inquiries, supra</I> note 152, at text accompanying nn.9-10 (“The ADA requires employers to treat any medical information obtained from a disability-related inquiry or medical examination . . ., as well as any medical information voluntarily disclosed by an employee, as a confidential medical record. Employers may share such information only in limited circumstances with supervisors, managers, first aid and safety personnel, and government officials investigating compliance with the ADA.”) and text after n.12 (“[T]he ADA's restrictions on inquiries and examinations apply to all employees, not just those with disabilities.”); <I>Enforcement Guidance: Preemployment Disability-Related Questions, supra</I> note 152, at text accompanying n.6 (“Medical information must be kept confidential.”).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>200</SU> <I>See supra</I> note 199. This policy also appears in numerous EEOC technical assistance documents. <I>See, e.g.,</I> EEOC, <I>Visual Disabilities in the Workplace and the Americans with Disabilities Act,</I> at text preceding n.43 (2023), <I>https://www.eeoc.gov/laws/guidance/visual-disabilities-workplace-and-americans-disabilities-act#q8</I> (“With limited exceptions, an employer must keep confidential any medical information it learns about an applicant or employee.”).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>201</SU> Requests for accommodation under the PWFA also may overlap with FMLA issues, and the FMLA requires medical information to be kept confidential as well. 29 CFR 825.500(g).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>202</SU> 42 U.S.C. 12112(d)(3)(B); 29 CFR 1630.14(b)(1), (c)(1), and (d)(4)(i); <I>see Enforcement Guidance: Preemployment Disability-Related Questions, supra</I> note 152, at text accompanying the question “Can medical information be kept in an employee's regular personnel file?”</P></FTNT>
<P>16. That an employee is pregnant, has recently been pregnant, or has a medical condition related to pregnancy or childbirth is medical information. The ADA requires that employers keep such information confidential and only disclose it within the confines of the limited disclosure rules described in paragraphs 17 and 18 of this section. Similarly, disclosing that an employee is receiving or has requested an accommodation under the PWFA, or has limitations for which they requested or are receiving a reasonable accommodation under the PWFA, usually amounts to a disclosure that the employee is pregnant, has recently been pregnant, or has a related medical condition.
</P>
<P>17. As set forth at 29 CFR 1630.14, under the ADA, medical information must be collected and maintained on separate forms and in separate medical files and be treated as a confidential medical record, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding necessary restrictions on the work or duties of the employee and necessary accommodations;
</P>
<P>(ii) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, when appropriate, if the disability might require emergency treatment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Government officials investigating compliance with the ADA shall be provided relevant information on request.
</P>
<P>18. In addition to what is stated in the ADA regulation: covered entities (iv) may disclose the medical information to State workers' compensation offices, State second injury funds, or workers' compensation insurance carriers in accordance with State workers' compensation laws; and (v) may use the medical information for insurance purposes.
<SU>203</SU>
<FTREF/> All these disclosure exceptions apply to medical information obtained under the PWFA. Disclosing medical information in any circumstances, other than those set forth in these five recognized disclosure exceptions, violates the ADA's confidentiality rule.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>203</SU> <I>See Enforcement Guidance: Preemployment Disability-Related Questions, supra</I> note 152, at text accompanying the heading “Confidentiality.”</P></FTNT>
<P>19. In addition, as explained in section <I>1636.5(f)</I> of this appendix under <I>Possible Violations of 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)) Based on Seeking Supporting Documentation During the Reasonable Accommodation Process and Disclosure of Medical Information,</I> disclosing medical information, threatening to disclose medical information, or requiring an employee to share their medical information other than in the limited situations set out in paragraphs 17 and 18 of this section also may violate 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f) (§ 1636.5(f)).
<SU>204</SU>
<FTREF/> Given the protections for confidential medical information under the ADA and the potential of violating 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-2(f), if a covered entity is under an obligation to disclose medical information received under the PWFA in any circumstances other than those provided in this Interpretive Guidance, before doing so it should inform the individual to whom the information relates of its intent to disclose the information; identify the specific reason for the disclosure; and provide sufficient time for the individual to object.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>204</SU> <I>See, e.g., Haire</I> v. <I>Farm &amp; Fleet of Rice Lake, Inc.,</I> No. 2:21-CV-10967, 2022 WL 128815, at *8-*9 (E.D. Mich. Jan. 12, 2022) (disclosing personal and confidential information about an employee's medical condition and mental health episodes to her coworkers could constitute retaliation under Title VII); <I>Holtrey</I> v. <I>Collier Cnty. Bd. of Cnty. Comm'rs,</I> No. 2:16-CV-00034, 2017 WL 119649, at *3 (M.D. Fla. Jan. 12, 2017) (determining that an employer's disclosure of its employee's confidential medical information about his genito-urinary system to his coworkers and subordinates could constitute retaliation under FMLA, relying on Title VII's definition of “materially adverse action”).</P></FTNT>
<P>20. Finally, nothing in the PWFA, this part, or this Interpretive Guidance should be interpreted to reduce or limit any protections provided by the ADA.
</P>
<HD2>1636.7(a)(2) Limitations Related to Employer-Sponsored Health Plans
</HD2>
<P>21. The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-5(a)(2) states that nothing in the PWFA shall be construed to require an employer-sponsored health plan to pay for or cover any item, procedure, or treatment and, further, that nothing in the PWFA shall be construed to affect any right or remedy available under any other Federal, State, or local law with respect to any such payment or coverage requirement. For example, nothing in the PWFA requires, or forbids, an employer to pay for health insurance benefits for an abortion.
</P>
<HD2>1636.7(b) Rule of Construction
</HD2>
<P>22. The statute at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-5(b) provides a “rule of construction” stating that the PWFA is “subject to the applicability to religious employment” set forth in section 702(a) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-1(a). The relevant portion of section 702(a) provides that Title VII shall not apply to a religious corporation, association, educational institution, or society with respect to the employment of individuals of a particular religion to perform work connected with the carrying on by such corporation, association, educational institution, or society of its activities.
<SU>205</SU>
<FTREF/> Section 1636.7(b) reiterates the PWFA statutory language and adds that nothing in 42 U.S.C. 2000g-5(b) or this part should be interpreted to limit the rights of a covered entity under the U.S. Constitution or the rights of an employee under other civil rights statutes. As with assertions of section 702(a) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 in Title VII matters, when 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-5(b) is asserted by a respondent employer, the Commission will consider the application of the provision on a case-by-case basis.
<SU>206</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>205</SU> The PWFA makes no mention of section 703(e)(2) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which provides a second statutory exemption for religious educational institutions in certain circumstances.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>206</SU> The case-by-case analysis of religious defenses asserted in response to a charge under the PWFA is consistent with the Commission's framework evaluating similar defenses under other statutes the Commission enforces. <I>See Compliance Manual on Religious Discrimination, supra</I> note 163, at (12-I)(C).</P></FTNT>
<HD1>VII. 1636.8 Severability
</HD1>
<P>1. The PWFA at 42 U.S.C. 2000gg-6 contains a severability provision regarding the statute. Section 1636.8 repeats the statutory provision and also addresses the Commission's intent regarding the severability of the Commission's regulations in this part and this Interpretive Guidance.
</P>
<P>2. Following Congress' rule for the statute, in places where this part uses the same language as the statute, if any of those identical regulatory provisions, or the application of those provisions to particular persons or circumstances, is held invalid or found to be unconstitutional, the remainder of this part and the application of that provision of this part to other persons or circumstances shall not be affected.
</P>
<P>3. In other places, where this part or this Interpretive Guidance provide additional guidance to carry out the PWFA, including examples of reasonable accommodations, following Congress' intent regarding the severability of the provisions of the statute, it is the Commission's intent that if any of those regulatory provisions or the Interpretive Guidance or the application of those provisions or the Interpretive Guidance to particular persons or circumstances is held invalid or found to be unconstitutional, the remainder of this part or the Interpretive Guidance and the application of that provision of this part or the Interpretive Guidance to other persons or circumstances shall not be affected.




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1640" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1640—PROCEDURES FOR COORDINATING THE INVESTIGATION OF COMPLAINTS OR CHARGES OF EMPLOYMENT DISCRIMINATION BASED ON DISABILITY SUBJECT TO THE AMERICANS WITH DISABILITIES ACT AND SECTION 504 OF THE REHABILITATION ACT OF 1973
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 29 U.S.C. 794(d); 42 U.S.C. 12117(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 39904, 39908, Aug. 4, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1640.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.1   Purpose and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the procedures to be followed by the Federal agencies responsible for processing and resolving complaints or charges of employment discrimination filed against recipients of Federal financial assistance when jurisdiction exists under both section 504 and title I. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part also repeats the provisions established by 28 CFR 35.171 for determining which Federal agency shall process and resolve complaints or charges of employment discrimination: 
</P>
<P>(1) That fall within the overlapping jurisdiction of titles I and II (but are not covered by section 504); and 
</P>
<P>(2) That are covered by title II, but not title I (whether or not they are also covered by section 504). 
</P>
<P>(c) This part also describes the procedures to be followed when a complaint or charge arising solely under section 504 or title I is filed with a section 504 agency or the EEOC. 
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to complaints or charges against Federal contractors under section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) This part does not create rights in any person or confer agency jurisdiction not created or conferred by the ADA or section 504 over any complaint or charge. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990</I> or <I>ADA</I> means the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-336, 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C. 12101-12213 and 47 U.S.C. 225 and 611). 
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> refers to the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice, or his or her designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Chairman of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission</I> refers to the Chairman of the United States Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, or his or her designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Civil Rights Division</I> means the Civil Rights Division of the United States Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P><I>Designated agency</I> means any one of the eight agencies designated under § 35.190 of 28 CFR part 35 (the Department's title II regulation) to implement and enforce title II of the ADA with respect to the functional areas within their jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P><I>Dual-filed complaint or charge</I> means a complaint or charge of employment discrimination that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Arises under both section 504 and title I; 
</P>
<P>(2) Has been filed with both a section 504 agency that has jurisdiction under section 504 and with the EEOC, which has jurisdiction under title I; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Alleges the same facts and raises the same issues in both filings. 
</P>
<P><I>Due weight</I> shall mean, with respect to the weight a section 504 agency or the EEOC shall give to the other agency's findings and conclusions, such full and careful consideration as is appropriate, taking into account such factors as: 
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which the underlying investigation is complete and the evidence is supportive of the findings and conclusions; 
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and results of any subsequent proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the findings, conclusions and any actions taken: 
</P>
<P>(i) Under title I are consistent with the effective enforcement of section 504; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Under section 504 are consistent with the effective enforcement of title I; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The section 504 agency's responsibilities under section 504 or the EEOC's responsibilities under title I. 
</P>
<P><I>Equal Employment Opportunity Commission</I> or <I>EEOC</I> refers to the United States Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, and, when appropriate, to any of its headquarters, district, area, local, or field offices. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> shall have the meaning, with respect to each section 504 agency, as defined in such agency's regulations implementing section 504 for Federally- assisted programs. 
</P>
<P><I>Program or activity</I> shall have the meaning defined in the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394, 29 U.S.C. 794), as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Public entity</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any State or local government; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or States or local government; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The National Railroad Passenger Corporation, and any commuter authority (as defined in section 103(8) of the Rail Passenger Service Act, 45 U.S.C. 502(8)). 
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State, political subdivision of any State, or instrumentality of any State or political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any individual, in any State, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient, for any program, including any successor, assignee, or transferee thereof, but such term does not include any ultimate beneficiary under such program. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394, 29 U.S.C. 794), as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 504 agency</I> means any Federal department or agency that extends Federal financial assistance to programs or activities of recipients. 
</P>
<P><I>Title I</I> means title I of the ADA. 
</P>
<P><I>Title II</I> means subtitle A of title II of the ADA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.3   Exchange of information.</HEAD>
<P>The EEOC, section 504 agencies, and designated agencies shall share any information relating to the employment policies and practices of a respondent that may assist each agency in carrying out its responsibilities, to the extent permissible by law. Such information shall include, but is not limited to, complaints, charges, investigative files, compliance review reports and files, affirmative action programs, and annual employment reports. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.4   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a section 504 agency or a designated agency receives information obtained by the EEOC, such agency shall observe the confidentiality requirements of section 706(b) and section 709(e) of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2000e-5(b) and 2000e-8(e)), as incorporated by section 107(a) of the ADA, to the same extent as these provisions would bind the EEOC, except when the agency receives the same information from a source independent of the EEOC. Agency questions concerning the confidentiality requirements of title I shall be directed to the Associate Legal Counsel for Legal Services, Office of Legal Counsel, the EEOC. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the EEOC receives information from a section 504 or a designated agency, the EEOC shall observe any confidentiality requirements applicable to that information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.5   Date of receipt.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint or charge of employment discrimination is deemed to be filed, for purposes of determining timeliness, on the date the complaint or charge is first received by a Federal agency with section 504 or ADA jurisdiction, regardless of whether it is subsequently transferred to another agency for processing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.6   Processing of complaints of employment discrimination filed with an agency other than the EEOC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency determination of jurisdiction.</I> Upon receipt of a complaint of employment discrimination, an agency other than the EEOC shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether it has jurisdiction over the complaint under section 504 or under title II of the ADA; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the EEOC may have jurisdiction over the complaint under title I of the ADA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referral to the Civil Rights Division.</I> If the agency determines that it does not have jurisdiction under section 504 or title II, and determines that the EEOC does not have jurisdiction under title I, the agency shall promptly refer the complaint to the Civil Rights Division. The Civil Rights Division shall determine if another Federal agency may have jurisdiction over the complaint under section 504 or title II, and, if so, shall promptly refer the complaint to a section 504 or a designated agency with jurisdiction over the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referral to the EEOC</I>—(1) <I>Referral by an agency without jurisdiction.</I> If an agency determines that it does not have jurisdiction over a complaint of employment discrimination under either section 504 or title II and determines that the EEOC may have jurisdiction under title I, the agency shall promptly refer the complaint to the EEOC for investigation and processing under title I of the ADA. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral by a section 504 agency.</I> (i) A section 504 agency that otherwise has jurisdiction over a complaint of employment discrimination under section 504 shall promptly refer to the EEOC, for investigation and processing under title I of the ADA, any complaint of employment discrimination that solely alleges discrimination against an individual (and that does not allege discrimination in both employment and in other practices or services of the respondent or a pattern or practice of employment discrimination), unless: 
</P>
<P>(A) The section 504 agency determines that the EEOC does not have jurisdiction over the complaint under title I; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The EEOC has jurisdiction over the complaint under title I, but the complainant, either independently, or following receipt of the notification letter required to be sent to the complainant pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, specifically requests that the complaint be investigated by the section 504 agency. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to referring an individual complaint of employment discrimination to the EEOC pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section (but not prior to making such a referral pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section), a section 504 agency that otherwise has jurisdiction over the complaint shall promptly notify the complainant, in writing, of its intention to make such a referral. The notice letter shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) Inform the complainant that, unless the agency receives a written request from the complainant within twenty days of the date of the notice letter requesting that the agency retain the complaint for investigation, the agency will forward the complaint to the EEOC for investigation and processing; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Describe the basic procedural differences between an investigation under section 504 and an investigation under title I, and inform the complainant of the potential for differing remedies under each statute. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Referral by a designated agency.</I> A designated agency that does not have section 504 jurisdiction over a complaint of employment discrimination and that has determined that the EEOC may have jurisdiction over the complaint under title I shall promptly refer the complaint to the EEOC. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Processing of complaints referred to the EEOC.</I> (i) A complaint referred to the EEOC in accordance with this section by an agency with jurisdiction over the complaint under section 504 shall be deemed to be a dual-filed complaint under section 504 and title I. When a section 504 agency with jurisdiction over a complaint refers the complaint to the EEOC, the section 504 agency shall defer its processing of the complaint pursuant to § 1640.10, pending resolution by the EEOC. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A complaint referred to the EEOC by an agency that has jurisdiction over the complaint solely under title II (and not under section 504) will be treated as a complaint filed under title I only. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any complaint referred to the EEOC pursuant to this section shall be processed by the EEOC under its title I procedures. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention by the agency for investigation</I>—(1) <I>Retention by a section 504 agency.</I> A section 504 agency shall retain a complaint for investigation when the agency determines that it has jurisdiction over the complaint under section 504, and one or more of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) The EEOC does not have jurisdiction over the complaint under title I; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The EEOC has jurisdiction over the complaint, but the complainant elects to have the section 504 agency process the complaint and the section 504 agency receives a written request from the complainant for section 504 agency processing within twenty days of the date of the notice letter required to be sent pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The complaint alleges discrimination in both employment and in other practices or services of the respondent that are covered by section 504; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) The complaint alleges a pattern or practice of employment discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retention by a designated agency.</I> A designated agency that does not have jurisdiction over the complaint under section 504 shall retain a complaint for investigation when the agency determines that it has jurisdiction over the complaint under title II of the ADA and that the EEOC does not have jurisdiction over the complaint under title I. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Processing of complaints retained by an agency.</I> Any complaint retained for investigation and processing by an agency pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section will be investigated and processed under section 504, title II, or both, as applicable, and will not be considered to be dual filed under title I. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.7   Processing of charges of employment discrimination filed with the EEOC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>EEOC determination of jurisdiction.</I> Upon receipt of a charge of employment discrimination, the EEOC shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether it has jurisdiction over the charge under title I of the ADA. If it has jurisdiction, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the EEOC shall process the charge pursuant to title I procedures. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the EEOC determines that it does not have jurisdiction under title I, the EEOC shall promptly refer the charge to the Civil Rights Division. The Civil Rights Division shall determine if a Federal agency may have jurisdiction over the charge under section 504 or title II, and, if so, shall refer the charge to a section 504 agency or to a designated agency with jurisdiction over the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention by the EEOC for investigation.</I> (1) The EEOC shall retain a charge for investigation when it determines that it has jurisdiction over the charge under title I. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral to an agency.</I> Any charge retained by the EEOC for investigation and processing will be investigated and processed under title I only, and will not be deemed dual filed under section 504, except that ADA cause charges (as defined in 29 CFR 1601.21) that also fall within the jurisdiction of a section 504 agency and that the EEOC (or the Civil Rights Division, if such a charge is against a government, governmental agency, or political subdivision) has declined to litigate shall be referred to the appropriate section 504 agency for review of the file and any administrative or other action deemed appropriate under section 504. Such charges shall be deemed complaints, dual filed under section 504, solely for the purposes of the agency review and action described in this paragraph. The date of such dual filing shall be deemed to be the date the complaint was received by the EEOC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.8   Processing of complaints or charges of employment discrimination filed with both the EEOC and a section 504 agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for handling dual-filed complaints or charges.</I> As between the EEOC and a section 504 agency, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a complaint or charge of employment discrimination that is dual filed with both the EEOC and a section 504 agency shall be processed as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>EEOC processing.</I> The EEOC shall investigate and process the charge when the EEOC determines that it has jurisdiction over the charge under title I and the charge solely alleges employment discrimination against an individual, unless the charging party elects to have the section 504 agency process the charge and the section 504 agency receives a written request from the complainant for section 504 agency processing within twenty days of the date of the notice letter required to be sent pursuant to § 1640.6(c)(2)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Section 504 agency processing.</I> A section 504 agency shall investigate and process the complaint when the agency determines that it has jurisdiction over the complaint under section 504, and: 
</P>
<P>(i) The complaint alleges discrimination in both employment and in other practices or services of the respondent; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The complaint alleges a pattern or practice of discrimination in employment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a complaint solely alleging employment discrimination against an individual, the complainant elects to have a section 504 agency process the complaint and the section 504 agency receives a written request from the complainant for section 504 agency processing within twenty days of the date of the notice letter required to be sent pursuant to § 1640.6(c)(2)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referral to the Civil Rights Division.</I> If the EEOC determines that it does not have jurisdiction under title I, and the section 504 agency determines that it does not have jurisdiction under section 504 or title II, the complaint or charge shall be promptly referred to the Civil Rights Division. The Civil Rights Division shall determine if another Federal agency may have jurisdiction over the complaint under section 504 or title II, and, if so, shall promptly refer the complaint to a section 504 or a designated agency with jurisdiction over the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for determining whether a complaint or charge has been dual filed.</I> The EEOC and each agency with jurisdiction to investigate and process complaints of employment discrimination under section 504 shall jointly develop procedures for determining whether complaints or charges of discrimination have been dual filed with the EEOC and with one or more other agencies. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of deferral.</I> The agency required to process a dual-filed complaint or charge under this section shall notify the complainant or charging party and the respondent that the complaint or charge was dual filed with one or more other agencies and that such other agencies have agreed to defer processing and will take no further action except as provided in § 1640.10 or § 1640.11, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions.</I> When special circumstances make deferral as provided in this section inappropriate, the EEOC, and an agency with investigative authority under section 504, may jointly determine to reallocate investigative responsibilities. Special circumstances include, but are not limited to, cases in which the EEOC has already commenced its investigation at the time that the agency discovers that the complaint or charge is a dual-filed complaint or charge in which the complainant has elected section 504 processing, alleged discrimination in both employment and in other practices or services of the respondent, or alleged a pattern or practice of employment discrimination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.9   Processing of complaints or charges of employment discrimination filed with a designated agency and either a section 504 agency, the EEOC, or both.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designated agency processing.</I> A designated agency shall investigate and process a complaint that has been filed with it and with the EEOC, a section 504 agency, or both, when either of the following conditions is met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The designated agency determines that it has jurisdiction over the complaint under title II and that neither the EEOC nor a section 504 agency (other than the designated agency, if the designated agency is also a section 504 agency) has jurisdiction over the complaint; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The designated agency determines that it has jurisdiction over the complaint under section 504 and the complaint meets the requirements for processing by a section 504 agency set forth in § 1640.8(a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referral by a designated agency.</I> A designated agency that has jurisdiction over a complaint solely under title II (and not under section 504) shall forward a complaint that has been filed with it and with the EEOC, a section 504 agency, or both, to either the EEOC or to a section 504 agency, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the designated agency determines that the EEOC is the sole agency, other than the designated agency, with jurisdiction over the complaint, the designated agency shall forward the complaint to the EEOC for processing under title I; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If the designated agency determines that the section 504 agency is the sole agency, other than the designated agency, with jurisdiction over the complaint, the designated agency shall forward the complaint to the section 504 agency for processing under section 504; or 
</P>
<P>(3) If the designated agency determines that both the EEOC and a section 504 agency have jurisdiction over the complaint, the designated agency shall forward the complaint to the EEOC if it determines that the complaint solely alleges employment discrimination against an individual, or it shall forward the complaint to the section 504 agency if it determines that the complaint meets the requirements for processing by a section 504 agency set out in § 1640.8(a)(2)(i) or (a)(2)(ii). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.10   Section 504 agency review of deferred complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Deferral by the section 504 agency.</I> When a section 504 agency refers a complaint to the EEOC pursuant to § 1640.6(c)(2) or when it is determined that, as between the EEOC and a section 504 agency, the EEOC is the agency that shall process a dual-filed complaint or charge under § 1640.8(a)(1) or § 1640.8(e), the section 504 agency shall defer further action until: 
</P>
<P>(1) The EEOC issues a no cause finding and a notice of right-to-sue pursuant to 29 CFR 1601.19; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The EEOC enters into a conciliation agreement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The EEOC issues a cause finding and a notice of failure of conciliation pursuant to 29 CFR 1601.21, and: 
</P>
<P>(i) If the recipient is not a government, governmental agency, or political subdivision, the EEOC completes enforcement proceedings or issues a notice of right-to-sue in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.28; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the recipient is a government, governmental agency, or political subdivision, the EEOC refers the charge to the Civil Rights Division in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.29, and the Civil Rights Division completes enforcement proceedings or issues a notice of right-to-sue in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.28(d); or 
</P>
<P>(4) The EEOC or, when a case has been referred pursuant to 29 CFR 1601.29, the Civil Rights Division, otherwise resolves the charge. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of the deferring agency.</I> The EEOC or the Civil Rights Division, as appropriate, shall notify the agency that has deferred processing of the charge upon resolution of any dual-filed complaint or charge. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency review.</I> After receipt of notification that the EEOC or the Civil Rights Division, as appropriate, has resolved the complaint or charge, the agency shall promptly determine what further action by the agency is warranted. In reaching that determination, the agency shall give due weight to the findings and conclusions of the EEOC and to those of the Civil Rights Division, as applicable. If the agency proposes to take an action inconsistent with the EEOC's or the Civil Rights Division's findings and conclusions as to whether a violation has occurred, the agency shall notify in writing the Assistant Attorney General, the Chairman of the EEOC, and the head of the EEOC office that processed the complaint. In the written notification, the agency shall state the action that it proposes to take and the basis of its decision to take such action. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Provision of information.</I> Upon written request, the EEOC or the Civil Rights Division shall provide the section 504 agency with any materials relating to its resolution of the charge, including its findings and conclusions, investigative reports and files, and any conciliation agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.11   EEOC review of deferred charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Deferral by the EEOC.</I> When it is determined that a section 504 agency is the agency that shall process a dual-filed complaint or charge under § 1640.8(a)(2) or § 1640.8(e), the EEOC shall defer further action until the section 504 agency takes one of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Makes a finding that a violation has not occurred;
</P>
<P>(2) Enters into a voluntary compliance agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) Following a finding that a violation has occurred, refers the complaint to the Civil Rights Division for judicial enforcement and the Civil Rights Division resolves the complaint;
</P>
<P>(4) Following a finding that a violation has occurred, resolves the complaint through final administrative enforcement action; or
</P>
<P>(5) Otherwise resolves the charge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of the EEOC.</I> The section 504 agency shall notify the EEOC upon resolution of any dual-filed complaint or charge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency review.</I> After receipt of notification that the section 504 agency has resolved the complaint, the EEOC shall promptly determine what further action by the EEOC is warranted. In reaching that determination, the EEOC shall give due weight to the section 504 agency's findings and conclusions. If the EEOC proposes to take an action inconsistent with the section 504 agency's findings and conclusions as to whether a violation has occurred, the EEOC shall notify in writing the Assistant Attorney General, the Chairman of the EEOC, and the head of the section 504 agency that processed the complaint. In the written notification, the EEOC shall state the action that it proposes to take and the basis of its decision to take such action.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Provision of information.</I> Upon written request, the section 504 agency shall provide the EEOC with any materials relating to its resolution of the complaint, including its conclusions, investigative reports and files, and any voluntary compliance agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.12   Standards.</HEAD>
<P>In any investigation, compliance review, hearing or other proceeding, the standards used to determine whether section 504 has been violated in a complaint alleging employment discrimination shall be the standards applied under title I of the ADA and the provisions of sections 501 through 504, and 510, of the ADA, as such sections relate to employment. Section 504 agencies shall consider the regulations and appendix implementing title I of the ADA, set forth at 29 CFR part 1630, and case law arising under such regulations, in determining whether a recipient of Federal financial assistance has engaged in an unlawful employment practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1640.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.23.0.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1640.13   Agency specific memoranda of understanding.</HEAD>
<P>When a section 504 agency amends its regulations to make them consistent with title I of the ADA, the EEOC and the individual section 504 agency may elect to enter into a memorandum of understanding providing for the investigation and processing of complaints dual filed under both section 504 and title I of the ADA by the section 504 agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1641" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1641—PROCEDURES FOR COMPLAINTS/CHARGES OF EMPLOYMENT DISCRIMINATION BASED ON DISABILITY FILED AGAINST EMPLOYERS HOLDING GOVERNMENT CONTRACTS OR SUBCONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 12117(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 2962, 2964, Jan. 24, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1641.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1641.1   Purpose and application.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement procedures for processing and resolving complaints/charges of employment discrimination filed against employers holding government contracts or subcontracts, where the complaints/charges fall within the jurisdiction of both section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (hereinafter “Section 503”) and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (hereinafter “ADA”). The promulgation of this part is required pursuant to section 107(b) of the ADA. Nothing in this part should be deemed to affect the Department of Labor's (hereinafter “DOL”) Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs' (hereinafter “OFCCP”) conduct of compliance reviews of government contractors and subcontractors under section 503. Nothing in this part is intended to create rights in any person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1641.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1641.2   Exchange of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) EEOC and OFCCP shall share any information relating to the employment policies and practices of employers holding government contracts or subcontracts that may assist each office in carrying out its responsibilities. Such information shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, affirmative action programs, annual employment reports, complaints, charges, investigative files, and compliance review reports and files.
</P>
<P>(b) All requests by third parties for disclosure of the information described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be coordinated with the agency which initially compiled or collected the information.
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph (b) of this section is not applicable to requests for data in EEOC files made by any State or local agency designated as a “FEP agency” with which EEOC has a charge resolution contract and a work-sharing agreement containing the confidentiality requirements of sections 706(b) and 709(e) of title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>). However, such an agency shall not disclose any of the information, initially compiled by OFCCP, to the public without express written approval by the Director of OFCCP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1641.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1641.3   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>When the Department of Labor receives information obtained by EEOC, the Department of Labor shall observe the confidentiality requirements of sections 706(b) and 709(e) of title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as incorporated by section 107(a) of the ADA, as would EEOC, except in cases where DOL receives the same information from a source independent of EEOC. Questions concerning confidentiality shall be directed to the Associate Legal Counsel for Legal Services, Office of Legal Counsel of EEOC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1641.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1641.4   Standards for investigations, hearings, determinations and other proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>In any OFCCP investigation, hearing, determination or other proceeding involving a complaint/charge that is dual filed under both section 503 and the ADA, OFCCP will utilize legal standards consistent with those applied under the ADA in determining whether an employer has engaged in an unlawful employment practice. EEOC and OFCCP will coordinate the arrangement of any necessary training regarding the substantive or procedural provisions of the ADA, and of EEOC's implementing regulations (29 CFR part 1630 and 29 CFR part 1601).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1641.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1641.5   Processing of complaints filed with OFCCP.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Complaints of employment discrimination filed with OFCCP will be considered charges, simultaneously dual filed, under the ADA whenever the complaints also fall within the jurisdiction of the ADA. OFCCP will act as EEOC's agent for the sole purposes of receiving, investigating and processing the ADA charge component of a section 503 complaint dual filed under the ADA, except as otherwise set forth in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Within ten days of receipt of a complaint of employment discrimination under section 503 (charge under the ADA), OFCCP shall notify the contractor/respondent that it has received a complaint of employment discrimination under section 503 (charge under the ADA). This notification shall state the date, place and circumstances of the alleged unlawful employment practice.
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to work-sharing agreements between EEOC and State and local agencies designated as FEP agencies, the deferral period for section 503 complaints/ADA charges dual filed with OFCCP will be waived.
</P>
<P>(d) OFCCP shall transfer promptly to EEOC a complaint of employment discrimination over which it does not have jurisdiction but over which EEOC may have jurisdiction. At the same time, OFCCP shall notify the complainant and the contractor/respondent of the transfer, the reason for the transfer, the location of the EEOC office to which the complaint was transferred and that the date OFCCP received the complaint will be deemed the date it was received by EEOC.
</P>
<P>(e) OFCCP shall investigate and process as set forth in this section all section 503 complaints/ADA charges dual filed with OFCCP, except as specifically provided in this paragraph. Section 503 complaints/ADA charges raising Priority List issues, those which also include allegations of discrimination of an individual nature on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin, and those which also include an allegation of discrimination on the basis of age will be referred in their entirety by OFCCP to EEOC for investigation, processing and final resolution, provided that such complaints/charges do not include allegations of violation of affirmative action requirements under section 503. In such a situation, OFCCP will bifurcate the complaints/charges and refer to EEOC the Priority List issues or allegations of discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, or age. OFCCP shall normally retain, investigate, process and resolve all allegations of discrimination, over which it has jurisdiction, of a systemic or class nature on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin that it receives. However, in appropriate cases the EEOC may request that it be referred such allegations so as to avoid duplication of effort and assure effective law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>No cause section 503 complaints/ADA charges.</I> If the OFCCP investigation of the section 503 complaint/ADA charge results in a finding of no violation under section 503 (no cause under the ADA), OFCCP will issue a determination of no violation/no cause under both section 503 and the ADA, and issue a right-to-sue letter under the ADA, closing the complaint/charge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cause section 503 complaints/ADA charges</I>—(i) <I>Successful conciliation.</I> If the OFCCP investigation of the section 503 complaint/ADA charge results in a finding of violation under section 503 (cause under the ADA), OFCCP will issue a finding of violation/cause under both section 503 and ADA. OFCCP shall attempt conciliation to obtain appropriate full relief for the complainant (charging party), consistent with EEOC's standards for remedies. If conciliation is successful and the contractor/respondent agrees to provide full relief, the section 503 complaint/ADA charge will be closed and the conciliation agreement will state that the complainant (charging party) agrees to waive the right to pursue the subject issues further under section 503 and/or the ADA.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unsuccessful conciliation.</I> All section 503 complaints/ADA charges not successfully conciliated will be considered for OFCCP administrative litigation under section 503, consistent with OFCCP's usual procedures. (See 41 CFR part 60-741, subpart B.) If OFCCP pursues administrative litigation under section 503, OFCCP will close the complaint/charge at the conclusion of the litigation process (including the imposition of appropriate sanctions), unless the complaint/charge is dismissed on procedural grounds or because of a lack of jurisdiction, or the contractor/respondent fails to comply with an order to provide make whole relief. In these three cases, OFCCP will refer the matter to EEOC for any action it deems appropriate. If EEOC declines to pursue further action, it will issue a notice of right-to-sue. If OFCCP does not pursue administrative enforcement, it will close the section 503 component of the complaint/charge and refer the ADA charge component to EEOC for litigation review under the ADA. If EEOC declines to litigate, EEOC will close the ADA charge and issue a notice of right-to-sue.
</P>
<P>(f) Consistent with the ADA procedures set forth at 29 CFR 1601.28, OFCCP shall promptly issue upon request a notice of right-to-sue after 180 days from the date the complaint/charge was filed. Issuance of a notice of right-to-sue shall terminate further OFCCP processing of any complaint/charge unless it is determined at that time or at a later time that it would effectuate the purposes of section 503 and/or the ADA to further process the complaint/charge.
</P>
<P>(g) If an individual who has already filed a section 503 complaint with OFCCP subsequently attempts to file or files an ADA charge with EEOC covering the same facts and issues, EEOC will decline to accept the charge (or, alternatively, dismiss a charge that has been filed) on the grounds that such charge has already been filed under the ADA, simultaneous with the filing of the earlier section 503 complaint, and will be processed by OFCCP in accordance with the provisions of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1641.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1641.6   Processing of charges filed with EEOC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>ADA cause charges falling within the jurisdiction of section 503 that the Commission has declined to litigate.</I> ADA cause charges that also fall within the jurisdiction of section 503 and that the Commission has declined to litigate will be referred to OFCCP for review of the file and any administrative action deemed appropriate under section 503. Such charges will be considered to be complaints, simultaneously dual filed under section 503, solely for the purposes of OFCCP review and administrative action described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ADA charges which also include allegations of failure to comply with section 503 affirmative action requirements.</I> ADA charges filed with EEOC, in which both allegations of discrimination under the ADA and violation of affirmative action requirements under section 503 are made, will be referred in their entirety to OFCCP for processing and resolution under section 503 and the ADA, unless the charges also include allegations of discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin or age, or include allegations involving Priority List issues, or the charges are otherwise deemed of particular importance to EEOC's enforcement of the ADA. In such situations, EEOC will bifurcate the charges and retain the ADA component of the charges (and when applicable, the allegations pertaining to discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin or age), referring the section 503 affirmative action component of the charges to OFCCP for processing and resolution under section 503. ADA charges which raise both discrimination issues under the ADA and section 503 affirmative action issues will be considered complaints, simultaneously dual filed under section 503, solely for the purposes of referral to OFCCP for processing, as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) EEOC shall transfer promptly to OFCCP a charge of disability-related employment discrimination over which it does not have jurisdiction, but over which OFCCP may have jurisdiction. At the same time, EEOC shall notify the charging party and the contractor/respondent of the transfer, the reason for the transfer, the location of the OFCCP office to which the charge was transferred and that the date EEOC received the charge will be deemed the date it was received by OFCCP.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as otherwise stated in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, individuals alleging violations of laws enforced by DOL and over which EEOC has no jurisdiction will be referred to DOL to file a complaint.
</P>
<P>(e) If an individual who has already filed an ADA charge with EEOC subsequently attempts to file or files a section 503 complaint with OFCCP covering the same facts and issues, OFCCP will accept the complaint, but will adopt as a disposition of the complaint EEOC's resolution of the ADA charge (including EEOC's termination of proceedings upon its issuance of a notice of right-to-sue).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1641.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1641.7   Review of this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part shall be reviewed by the Chairman of the EEOC and the Director of OFCCP periodically, and as appropriate, to determine whether changes to the part are necessary or desirable, and whether the part should remain in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1641.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.24.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1641.8   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term:
</P>
<P><I>ADA</I> refers to title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Affirmative action requirements</I> refers to affirmative action requirements required by DOL pursuant to section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, that go beyond the nondiscrimination requirements imposed by the ADA.
</P>
<P><I>Chairman of the EEOC</I> refers to the Chairman of the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Complaint/Charge</I> means a section 503 complaint/ADA charge. The terms are used interchangeably.
</P>
<P><I>Director of the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs</I> refers to that individual or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>DOL</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor, and where appropriate, any of its headquarters or regional offices.
</P>
<P><I>EEOC</I> means the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, and where appropriate, any of its headquarters, district, area, local, or field offices.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the government of the United States of America.
</P>
<P><I>Priority List</I> refers to a document listing a limited number of controversial topics under the ADA on which there is not yet definitive guidance setting forth EEOC's position. The Priority List will be jointly developed and periodically reviewed by EEOC and DOL. Any policy documents involving Priority List issues will be coordinated between DOL and EEOC pursuant to Executive Order 12067 (3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 206) prior to final approval by EEOC.
</P>
<P><I>OFCCP</I> means the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, and where appropriate, any of its regional or district offices.
</P>
<P><I>Section 503</I> refers to section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 793).
</P>
<P><I>Section 503 complaint/ADA charge</I> refers to a complaint that has been filed with OFCCP under section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act, and has been deemed to be simultaneously dual filed with EEOC under the ADA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1650" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1650—DEBT COLLECTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE><P>Subpart A also issued under 5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR 550.1101.
</P><P>Subpart B also issued under 31 U.S.C. 3720A; 31 CFR 285.5(d)(4).
</P><P>Subpart C also issued under 31 U.S.C. 3716.
</P><P>Subpart D also issued under 31 U.S.C. 3720D.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 49093, Aug. 20, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Procedures for the Collection of Debts by Salary Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.101" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the procedures to be followed in the collection by salary offset of debts owed to the United States under 5 U.S.C. 5514. The general standards and procedures governing the collection, compromise, termination, and referral to the Department of Justice of claims for money and property that are prescribed in the regulations issued jointly by the Secretary of the Treasury and the Attorney General of the United States, the Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR Parts 900-904), apply to the administrative collection activities of the EEOC. Debts owed by current federal employees to Government travel charge card contractors will be collected in accordance with the regulations issued by the General Services Administration at 41 CFR part 301-54.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.102" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.102   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Chair delegated to the Chief Human Capital Officer the authority to collect debts owed by current EEOC employees, and to the Chief Financial Officer the authority to collect debts owed by former EEOC employees and non-EEOC employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.103" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.103   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies to the collection of certain debts by salary offset against an employee's disposable pay.
</P>
<P>(1) This subpart applies to collections by the EEOC from:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal employees who are indebted to the EEOC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) EEOC employees who are indebted to other agencies.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart does not apply:
</P>
<P>(i) To debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), the Social Security Act 42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.,</I> or the tariff laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) In any case where collection of a debt is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute (<I>e.g.</I>, travel advances in 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses in 5 U.S.C. 4108).
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this subpart precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions where appropriate under the standards implementing the Federal Claims Collection Act, 31 U.S.C. 3711, namely, 31 CFR Parts 900-904; or the waiver of a debt where appropriate under 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 5 U.S.C. 5524a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.104" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.104   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart, terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An Executive agency as defined in section 105 of title 5, United States Code, including the U.S. Postal Service and the U.S. Postal Rate Commission;
</P>
<P>(2) A military department as defined in section 102 of title 5, United States Code;
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or court in the judicial branch, including a court as defined in section 610 of title 28, United States Code, the District Court for the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Judicial Panel on Multidistrict Litigation;
</P>
<P>(4) An agency of the legislative branch, including the U.S. Senate and the U.S. House of Representatives; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other independent establishments that are entities of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commission</I> means those officers, employees, and agents of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission who are responsible for debt collection activities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Debt</I> means money owed by an employee of the Federal Government to an agency of the Federal Government, including direct loans, loans insured or guaranteed by the United States and all other amounts due the Government from fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, overpayments, penalties, damages, interest, fines and forfeitures (except those arising under the Uniform Code of Military Justice), erroneous salary payments, and all other similar amounts owing to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, or, in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld. Deductions described in 5 CFR 581.105(b) through (f) will be used to determine disposable pay subject to salary offset.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employee</I> means a current employee of an agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or a Reserve of the Armed Forces (Reserves).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Salary Offset</I> means the collection of a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his or her consent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.105" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.105   Notice of Debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing and contents of notice.</I> Notice of the Commission's intent to collect a debt by salary offset shall be given at least 30 days before salary offset deductions are to begin. The written notice shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission's determination that a debt is owed, including the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission's intention to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account until the debt and all accumulated interest, penalties, and administrative costs are paid in full;
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated amount, frequency, beginning date, and duration of the intended deductions;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the Commission's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs;
</P>
<P>(5) The employee's right to inspect and copy the Commission's records pertaining to the debt or to receive copies of such records if the employee is unable personally to inspect the records, due to geographical or other constraints;
</P>
<P>(6) The opportunity to propose a voluntary repayment schedule and agreement that is acceptable to the Commission in lieu of the proposed offset;
</P>
<P>(7) The employee's right to a hearing conducted by an impartial hearing official (an Administrative Law Judge or an individual not under the supervision or control of the Chair) with respect to the existence and amount of the debt claimed or the repayment schedule (<I>i.e.</I>, the percentage of disposable pay to be deducted each pay period); the method and time period for requesting a hearing; that the timely request for a hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings; and that a final decision will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after receipt of the hearing request;
</P>
<P>(8) The employee's right to request a waiver under 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 5 U.S.C. 5524a, or compromise under 31 U.S.C. 3711;
</P>
<P>(9) The making of any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729 <I>et seq.,</I> or under any other applicable statutory authority; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 or under any other applicable statutory authority; and
</P>
<P>(10) Unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, amounts paid on or deducted from debts that are later waived or found not to be owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception to the advance notice requirement.</I> Advance notice under paragraph (a) of this section is not required:
</P>
<P>(1) Where an adjustment to pay arises out of an employee's election of coverage, or change in coverage, under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from the employee's pay and the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less;
</P>
<P>(2) Where a routine intra-agency adjustment of pay is made to correct an overpayment of pay attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment and, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment;
</P>
<P>(3) Where any adjustment of pay to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less is made, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or
</P>
<P>(4) Where an employee consents to withholdings from his or her current pay account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Receipt of notice of debt.</I> The Notice of Debt will be sent by certified mail, return-receipt requested. The date on which the return-receipt is signed is the date on which the employee is deemed to have received the Notice of Debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.106" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.106   Right to inspect and copy records related to the debt.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who desires to inspect or copy Commission records related to the debt must send a request to the official designated in the Notice of Debt. In response, the Commission will notify the employee of the location and time when the employee may inspect and copy the records or send copies of such records to the employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.107" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.107   Voluntary repayment agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a Notice of Debt, an employee may propose a written repayment schedule in lieu of the proposed salary offset. Any proposal under this subsection must be received by the office of the official designated in the notice within 15 calendar days after receipt of the Notice of Debt.
</P>
<P>(b) It is within the Commission's discretion to accept or reject a voluntary repayment proposal. The Commission shall send the employee a written decision.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commission decides that the proposed repayment schedule is unacceptable, and that the written proposed repayment schedule was timely received, the employee shall have a further 15 days from the date he or she received the decision on the proposed repayment schedule in which to file a request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commission decides that the proposed repayment schedule is acceptable, the agreement shall be put in writing and signed by both the employee and the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.108" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.108   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may waive debts, to the extent authorized by 5 U.S.C. 5584, arising out of erroneous payments of pay, when collection would be against equity and good conscience and not in the best interests of the United States, and so long as there is no indication of fraud, fault, or lack of good faith on the part of the employee. Interest, penalties, and administrative costs may also be waived under 31 U.S.C. 3717(h) and 31 CFR 901.9(g), on a case-by-case basis, if collection would be against equity and good conscience and not in the best interests of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.109" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.109   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for a hearing.</I> An employee who wants a hearing on the existence of the debt, its amount, or on the proposed offset schedule must send a written request to the official designated in the Notice of Debt. The request for a hearing must be received by the designated office on or before the 15th calendar day following receipt by the employee of the Notice of Debt. The request must be signed by the employee and must contain a brief summary of the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, that the employee believes support his or her position. If the employee wants an oral hearing, the request must also explain why the matter cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone (<I>e.g.</I>, how an issue of credibility or veracity is involved). Because proof of the existence or amount of a debt rarely requires an evaluation of the credibility of witnesses, oral hearings will only rarely be granted. The timely filing of a request for hearing shall automatically stay the commencement of collection proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to timely submit.</I> If the request for hearing is late, the Commission may still grant the request if the employee can show that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond his or her control or that he or she failed to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Hearing official.</I> The hearing official will be an Administrative Law Judge or an individual who is not under the supervision or control of the Chair.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice.</I> The hearing official shall notify the employee whether the hearing will be oral or documentary. If the hearing will be oral, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing, which must occur no more than 30 days after the request is received. If the hearing will be conducted by examination of documents, the employee shall be notified that he or she should submit evidence and arguments in writing to the hearing official by a specified date after which the record shall be closed. This date shall give the employee reasonable time to submit documentation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Oral hearing.</I> The hearing official may grant a request for an oral hearing if he or she determines that the issues raised by the employee cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone (<I>e.g.</I>, when credibility or veracity are at issue). An oral hearing is not required to be an adversarial adjudication, and the hearing official is not required to apply rules of evidence. Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official in which the employee and agency representative are given a full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;
</P>
<P>(ii) Informal meetings in which the hearing examiner interviews the employee and, as necessary, others with relevant evidence; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Formal written submissions followed by an opportunity for oral presentation. Witnesses who testify in oral hearings shall do so under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Documentary hearing.</I> If an oral hearing is not necessary, the hearing official shall make the determination based upon a review of the written record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date of decision.</I> The hearing official shall issue a written decision as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for hearing was received by the Commission, unless the hearing was delayed at the request of the employee, in which case the 60 day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of decision.</I> The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the facts concerning the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The revised terms of any repayment schedule, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Failure to appear.</I> In the absence of good cause, if the employee or the representative of the agency fails to appear, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and make his or her determination based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentation submitted by both parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.110" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.110   Implementation of salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of collection.</I> A debt will be collected in a lump sum or by installment deductions at officially established pay intervals from an employee's current pay account, unless the employee and the Commission agree in writing to alternate arrangements for repayment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Source of deductions.</I> Deductions will be made only from basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay or in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of deductions.</I> Debts will be collected in one lump sum when possible to minimize interest costs and administrative processing fees for the employee. If the employee is financially unable to pay in one lump sum and the amount of debt exceeds 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay for an officially established pay interval, collection by offset will be made in installments. Such installment deductions will be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of active duty or employment of the employee and, except in rare circumstances, not to exceed 3 years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitation on amount of deductions.</I> The size and frequency of installment deductions will bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. The amount deducted for any period, however, will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made, unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. Installment payments of less than $25 will be accepted only in the most unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When deductions may begin.</I> (1) If the employee files a timely request for hearing, or a proposed voluntary repayment agreement, deductions will begin in the next bi-weekly salary payment after a final decision is issued on the request or repayment proposal.
</P>
<P>(2) If the employee fails to submit a timely request for hearing or proposal for a voluntary repayment agreement, deductions will commence in the next bi-weekly salary payment after the expiration of 30 days following the employee's receipt of the Notice of Debt under 1650.105(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Lump-sum deduction from final check.</I> When the employee retires, resigns, or ends his or her period of active duty before the debt is collected in full, the employee's debt will be automatically deducted from the final payments (<I>e.g.</I>, final salary payment, lump-sum leave, etc.) due the employee to the extent necessary to liquidate the debt. If the employee's final pay is not sufficient to permit all deductions to be made, the order of precedence for the deductions will be: Retirement and FICA; Medicare; Federal income taxes; health benefits; group life insurance; indebtedness due to the United States; State income taxes; and voluntary deductions and allotments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.111" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.111   Recovery from other payments due a separated employee.</HEAD>
<P>When a debt owed to EEOC has not been completely liquidated through salary offset and the employee has separated from EEOC, the Commission shall, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 and the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 31 CFR parts 900-904, seek to offset the balance of the debt against any financial payment due the employee from the U.S. Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.112" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.112   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>Unless a debt is paid in full within 30 days of receipt of the Notice of Debt, the Commission will charge interest at the rate established in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717 effective on the date of delinquency, and a processing charge pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717. The Commission will charge a penalty, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717(e)(2) not to exceed 6 percent a year, on the amount due on a debt that is delinquent more than 90 days. This charge shall accrue from the date of delinquency. If an employee files a timely proposal for a repayment agreement, request for waiver, or a request for a hearing, interest, penalties, and administrative costs will be suspended during the time the Commission is considering such request(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.113" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.113   Non-waiver of rights by payments.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's payment of all or any portion of a debt collected by salary offset will not be construed as a waiver of any right the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.114" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.1.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.114   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>Amounts paid, or deducted by salary offset, by an employee for a debt that is waived or otherwise not found owing to the United States will be refunded promptly to the employee. Refunds do not bear interest unless required by law or contract.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for the Collection of Debts by Federal Tax Refund Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.201" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.201   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes procedures for EEOC to refer past-due legally enforceable debts to the Department of the Treasury (Treasury) for offset against the income tax refunds of persons owing debts to EEOC pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3720A and 31 CFR 285.2. The general standards and procedures governing the collection, compromise, termination, and referral to the Department of Justice of claims for money and property that are prescribed in the regulations issued jointly by the Secretary of the Treasury and the Attorney General of the United States, the Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR parts 900-904), apply to the administrative collection activities of the EEOC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.202" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.202   Past-due legally enforceable debt.</HEAD>
<P>A past due, legally enforceable debt is a debt:
</P>
<P>(a) That accrued within ten years of referral to Treasury;
</P>
<P>(b) That is at least $25.00; and
</P>
<P>(c) That the agency has made reasonable efforts to collect by:
</P>
<P>(1) Submitting the debt to Treasury, Financial Management Service, for collection by Administrative Offset and complying with 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) and related regulations, to the extent that collection by administrative offset is not prohibited by statute;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifying, or making a reasonable attempt to notify, the debtor that the debt is past-due, and unless repaid within 60 days after the date of the notice, will be referred to Treasury for tax refund offset;
</P>
<P>(3) Giving the debtor at least 60 days from the date of notification to present evidence that all or part of the debt is not past-due or legally enforceable, considering any evidence presented by such debtor, and determining that an amount of such debt is past-due and legally enforceable; and
</P>
<P>(4) Providing the debtor with an opportunity to make a written agreement to repay the amount of the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.203" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.203   Notification of intent to collect.</HEAD>
<P>EEOC's notification of intent to collect by tax refund offset shall provide:
</P>
<P>(a) The amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(b) That unless the debt is repaid within 60 days from the date of EEOC's notification of intent, EEOC intends to collect the debt by requesting Treasury to offset an amount equal to the amount of the debt and all accumulating interest and other charges against any overpayment of tax after liabilities subject to 26 U.S.C. 6402(a) and (c) have been satisfied;
</P>
<P>(c) A mailing address for forwarding any written correspondence and a contact and a telephone number for any questions;
</P>
<P>(d) That the debtor may make a written agreement with EEOC to repay the amount of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(e) That the debtor may present evidence within 60 days to EEOC that all or part of the debt is not past due or legally enforceable by:
</P>
<P>(1) Sending a written request for a review of the evidence to the address provided in the notification;
</P>
<P>(2) Stating in the request for review the amount disputed and the reasons why the debtor believes that the debt is not past-due or is not legally enforceable; and
</P>
<P>(3) Including in the request for review any documents that the debtor wishes to be considered, or stating that the additional information will be submitted within the remainder of the 60 day period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.204" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.2.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.204   Reasonable attempt to notify.</HEAD>
<P>In order to constitute a reasonable attempt to notify the debtor, EEOC may use the last known address on record with the EEOC. In addition, the EEOC may attempt to obtain a more current address from notices returned by the United States Postal Service, or by using the Treasury's Internal Revenue Service (IRS) address inquiry. If the debtor cannot be notified by EEOC through these procedures, the debt will be sent to Treasury for collection.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.205" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.2.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.205   Consideration of evidence submitted as a result of notification of intent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consideration of evidence.</I> If, as a result of the notification of intent, EEOC receives notice that the debtor will submit additional evidence or receives additional evidence from the debtor within the prescribed time period, collection will be stayed until EEOC:
</P>
<P>(1) Considers the evidence presented by the debtor;
</P>
<P>(2) Determines whether all or a portion of the debt is still past-due and legally enforceable; and
</P>
<P>(3) Notifies the debtor of its determination.
</P>
<FP>Failure to submit the evidence within 60 days from the date of notification of intent will result in a referral of the debt to Treasury.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Notification to the debtor.</I> Following its review of the evidence, EEOC will issue a written decision notifying the debtor whether EEOC has sustained, amended, or canceled its determination that the debt is past-due and legally enforceable. The notice will advise the debtor of any further action to be taken, such as any modification of the debt amount and/or referral of the debt to Treasury, and explain the supporting rationale for the decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.206" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.2.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.206   Notification to Treasury.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When referring a debt to Treasury, EEOC will certify that the debt meets all of the requirements in § 1650.202 and will provide the name, taxpayer identifying number (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 6109) of the debtor, the amount of the debt, the date on which the debt became past-due, and the designation of EEOC as the agency referring the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) After EEOC's initial notification and referral of a debt to Treasury for offset against a debtor's Federal income tax refund, EEOC will promptly notify Treasury of any changes in the notification, if EEOC:
</P>
<P>(1) Determines that an error has been made with respect to the information contained in the notification;
</P>
<P>(2) Receives a payment or credits a payment to the account of the debtor named in the notification that reduces the amount of the debt referred to Treasury for offset; or
</P>
<P>(3) Refunds all or part of the offset amount to the debtor.
</P>
<P>(c) When EEOC requests Treasury to increase the amount of a debt owed by a debtor named in EEOC's original notification to Treasury, EEOC will certify that the additional amount meets all of the requirements in § 1650.202.
</P>
<P>(d) If the amount of a debt is reduced after referral by EEOC and offset by the Treasury, EEOC will refund to the debtor any excess amount and will promptly notify the Treasury of any refund made by EEOC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.207" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.2.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.207   Administrative charges.</HEAD>
<P>All administrative charges incurred in connection with the referral of a debt to the Treasury and all costs of collection of the debt will be assessed on the debt and thus increase the amount of the offset.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Collection of Debts by Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.301" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.301   Purpose and regulatory procedures for the collection of debts by administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission hereby adopts by cross-reference the administrative offset regulation issued by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 285.5. The general standards and procedures governing the collection, compromise, termination, and referral to the Department of Justice of claims for money and property that are prescribed in the regulations issued jointly by the Secretary of the Treasury and the Attorney General of the United States, the Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR Parts 900-904), apply to the administrative collection activities of the EEOC. The authority to collect debts by administrative offset is delegated to the CFO.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures for the Collection of Debts by Administrative Wage Garnishment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1650.401" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.25.4.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1650.401   Purpose and regulatory procedures for the collection of debts by administrative wage garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission hereby adopts by cross-reference the administrative wage garnishment regulation issued by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 285.11. The general standards and procedures governing the collection, compromise, termination, and referral to the Department of Justice of claims for money and property that are prescribed in the regulations issued jointly by the Secretary of the Treasury and the Attorney General of the United States, the Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR Parts 900-904), apply to the administrative collection activities of the EEOC. The authority to collect debts by administrative wage garnishment is delegated to the CFO.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1690" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1690—PROCEDURES ON INTERAGENCY COORDINATION OF EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY ISSUANCES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 715 of title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 2000e-14); Reorganization Plan No. 1 of 1978, 43 FR 19807; E.O. 12067, 43 FR 28967. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 68361, Oct. 14, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.101" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.101   Subject.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures on Interagency Coordination of Equal Employment Opportunity Issuances. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.102" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.102   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations prescribe the means by which review and consultation shall occur between the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and other Federal agencies having responsibility for enforcement of Federal statutes, Executive Orders, regulations and policies which require equal employment opportunity without regard to race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age or disability. Subsequent regulations will expand on standards for the coordination of specific matters referenced or alluded to herein. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68361, Oct. 14, 1980, as amended at 74 FR 63984, Dec. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.103" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.103   Supersession.</HEAD>
<P>None. These regulations are the first in a series of instructions issued by EEOC pursuant to its authority under Executive Order 12067. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.104" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.1.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.104   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations are prepared pursuant to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's obligation and authority under sections 1-303 and 1-304 of Executive Order 12067 (Providing for Coordination of Federal Equal Employment Opportunity Programs) 43 FR 28967, July 5, 1978. (These regulations will also appear as EEOC Management Directive No. 1000). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.105" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.1.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.105   Policy intent.</HEAD>
<P>These procedures will govern the conduct of such agencies in the development of uniform standards, guidelines and policies for defining discrimination, uniform procedures for investigations and compliance reviews and uniform recordkeeping and reporting requirements and training programs. These procedures will also facilitate information sharing and programs to develop appropriate publications and other cooperative programs. The goals of uniformity and consistency are to be achieved with the maximum participation and review on both an informal and formal basis by the relevant Federal agencies and, finally, by the public. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.106" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.1.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.106   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations apply to Federal agencies having equal employment opportunity program responsibilities or authority other than equal employment responsibilities for their own Federal employees or applicants for employment. Its provisions do not apply to issuances related to internal management or administration of the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.107" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.1.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.107   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Affected agency</I> means any agency whose programs, policies, procedures, authority or other statutory mandates (including coverage of groups of employers, unions, State and local governments or other organizations mandated by statute or Executive Order) indicate that the agency may have an interest in the proposed issuance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agencies</I> means those Executive and independent agencies, agency components, regulatory commissions, and advisory bodies having equal employment opportunity program responsibilities or authority other than equal employment opportunity responsibilities for their own Federal employees. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation</I> means the exchange of advice and opinions on a subject occurring among the EEOC and affected agencies before formal submission of the issuance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Formal submission</I> means the transmittal of a written, publication-ready document by the issuing agency to the EEOC and other affected agencies for at least 15 working days from date of receipt. The formal submission shall take place before the publication of any issuance as a final document. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Internal or administrative documents,</I> pursuant to 1-304 of the Order, may include, but are not limited to, forms for internal audit and recordkeeping; forms for performance and program evaluation; internal directives dealing with program accountability; routine intra-agency budget forms; intra-agency agreements; correspondence which does not transmit significant new policy interpretations or program standards having an impact upon other Federal agencies; tables of organization; and other documents setting forth administrative procedures for the conduct of programs. Internal or administrative documents do not include compliance manuals, training materials, publications or any other internal documents setting forth procedures for the resolution of complaints, standards of review or proof, or any other policies, standards or directives having implications for non-Federal employees. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Issuance</I> refers to any rule, regulation, guideline, order, policy directive, procedural directive, legislative proposal, publication, or data collection or recordkeeping instrument. It also includes agency documents as described above, or revisions of such documents, developed pursuant to court order. <I>Issuance</I> does not include orders issued to specific parties as a result of adjudicatory-type processes. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Order</I> means Executive Order 12067 (Providing for Coordination of Federal Equal Employment Opportunity Programs).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public announcement</I> means the publication of a document in final form in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or any other promulgation for general agency or public reference.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Significant issuance</I> means any issuance which the public must be afforded an opportunity to comment upon. In determining whether an issuance is significant, the EEOC shall apply the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The type and number of individuals, businesses, organizations, employers, labor unions, or State and local governments affected;
</P>
<P>(2) The compliance and reporting requirements likely to be involved;
</P>
<P>(3) The impact on the identification and elimination of discrimination in employment;
</P>
<P>(4) The relationship of the proposed issuance to those of other programs and agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68361, Oct. 14, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 71799, Oct. 30, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Responsibilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.201" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.201   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Associate Legal Counsel, Coordination and Guidance Services is responsible for coordinating the consultation and review process with other agencies on any issuances covered by the Order.
</P>
<P>(b) All Federal agencies shall advise and offer to consult with the EEOC during the development of any proposed issuances, concerning equal employment opportunity which affect the obligations of employers, labor organizations, employment agencies or other Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission shall advise and offer to consult with the affected Federal agencies during the development of any proposed issuances concerning equal employment opportunity which affect the obligations of employers, labor organizations, employment agencies or other Federal agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68361, Oct. 14, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 46276, Oct. 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Policies and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.301" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.301   Notification to EEOC during development of issuances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies shall notify the Commission whenever they intend to develop a significant issuance or an issuance affecting other agencies so that potential duplication, overlap, or inconsistency with the proposed issuances of other agencies can be identified before substantial agency time and resources have been expended. The requirement for consultation applies whether or not the agency plans to publish the issuance in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever an agency of the Federal government (initiating agency) develops a proposed issuance which will require consultation among the affected agencies, a responsible official of that agency or agency component shall initiate consultation by submitting an early draft of the appropriate documents, preferably after review at the first or second supervisory level, to the chair of the EEOC (ATTN: Associate Legal Counsel, Coordination and Guidance Services). The submission shall be made prior to the point that the issuance is deemed final and ready for publication and shall indicate the appropriate office or person responsible for development of the issuance.
</P>
<P>(c) EEOC recognizes that subsequent intra-agency clearance activities may change the policies outlined in the issuance and may add or delete items included in prior drafts. Therefore, during this period of policy development, an initiating agency shall not be bound by the contents of drafts which precede the final draft.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in § 1690.307, in no instance shall there be formal submission to the EEOC or the affected agencies without prior consultation pursuant to section 1-304 of the Order.
</P>
<P>(e) Where an agency issuance is related to the internal management or administration of the agency, the issuance is exempt from the consultation process under the Order. The initiating agencies will make the determination of what must be submitted. When the agencies are in doubt, EEOC will determine the extent to which a particular issuance is covered by this exemption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68361, Oct. 14, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 46276, Oct. 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.302" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.302   Issuances proposed by EEOC.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the EEOC proposes to develop a significant issuance or any issuance requiring consultation, the procedure outlined in these regulations, shall also apply, as set forth in section 1-303 of the Order. The EEOC shall advise and consult with other affected agencies whenever it develops an issuance, in the same manner and to the same extent as other agencies are required to do in § 1690.301 of this part, and in other sections below.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.303" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.303   Consultation with affected agencies.</HEAD>
<P>At the start of consultation, the EEOC shall determine which other agencies would be affected by the proposed issuance, and the initiating agency shall consult with such agencies. Initiating agencies shall also consult with other agencies which claim that their internal equal employment opportunity or personnel programs are affected by proposed issuances otherwise directed at external equal employment opportunity efforts. Agencies may consult with any other agencies that they believe would be affected by the issuance. The consultation period shall be determined by the parties. During the consultation period, the EEOC shall seek to resolve any disputes with the initiating agency before publication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.304" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.304   Coordination of proposed issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure for publication of proposed issuance.</I> (1) If the initiating agency, after consultation with EEOC, proposes to publish the issuance for purposes of receiving comments from the public, it shall confer with EEOC and agree on a mutually agreeable length of time, no less than 15 working days, during which the proposal shall be submitted to all affected Federal agencies pursuant to section 1-304 of the Order. The period of review shall be sufficient to allow all affected agencies reasonable time in which to properly review the proposal.
</P>
<P>(2) When an affected agency wishes an extension of the review period, it shall make such request of the initiating agency. If the initiating agency does not grant the request, the affected agency may then make that request of EEOC. EEOC may, at its discretion, grant the additional time requested, whereupon EEOC will inform the initiating agency which shall extend the review period. EEOC shall also inform the initiating agency of the reasons for the extension.
</P>
<P>(3) After 15 working days, if the EEOC has not requested an extension of time or otherwise communicated the need for more time to review the proposal, the initiating agency may proceed to publication of the proposed significant issuance for public comment for at least 60 days.
</P>
<P>(4) During this public comment period, certain issues may be submitted to employer and employee representatives for comment pursuant to section 2(c) of Executive Order 12044 (Improving Government Regulations) which requires that agencies give the public an early and meaningful opportunity to participate in the development of significant regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for publication of final issuance.</I> After the period for public comment has closed, the initiating agency shall then incorporate the changes it deems appropriate and forward to EEOC for review, a copy of the document as published, a copy of the document as amended, with changes highlighted, any staff analysis, and a list of commentors. EEOC or affected agencies may review and copy the comments received. The time needed to review these materials shall be agreed on by the EEOC and the initiating agency. After completion of this review, the initiating agency shall formally submit the proposed final issuance to all affected agencies for at least 15 working days prior to publication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.305" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.305   Nondisclosure of proposed issuances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the interest of encouraging full interagency discussion of these matters and expediting the coordination process, the EEOC will not discuss the proposed issuances of other agencies at an open Commission meeting where disclosure of information would be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action. The Commission will make this determination on a case by case basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests by the public for drafts of proposed issuances of another agency will be coordinated, in appropriate circumstances, with that agency and the person submitting the request shall be so notified. The decision made by that agency with respect to such proposed issuances will be honored by the Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68361, Oct. 14, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 71799, Oct. 30, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.306" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.306   Formal submission in absence of consultation.</HEAD>
<P>If an initiating agency has an issuance which was already under development on or before July 1, 1978, when Executive Order 12067 became effective, and on which there has been no consultation, the agency shall immediately notify the EEOC of the existence of such proposals and the following procedure shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) EEOC shall confer with the initiating agency and shall determine whether the proposal should be the subject of informal consultation and/or formal submission to other affected Federal agencies pursuant to section 1-304 of the Order. This does not preclude the right of the agency to consult with any other agency it wishes.
</P>
<P>(b) If the EEOC decides that informal consultation and/or formal submission is necessary, it shall confer with the proposing agency and agree on a mutually acceptable length of time for one or both (the informal consultation and/or formal submission).
</P>
<P>(c) The period of formal submission shall be sufficient to allow all affected agencies time in which to properly review the proposal. While such period may be longer, in no instance may it be shorter than 15 working days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.307" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.307   Temporary waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that the proposed issuance is of great length or complexity, the EEOC may, at its discretion, grant a temporary waiver of the requirements contained in § 1690.303 or § 1690.304. Such waivers may be granted if:
</P>
<P>(1) The period of consultation and thorough review required for these documents would be so long as to disrupt normal agency operations; or
</P>
<P>(2) The initiating agency is issuing a document to meet an immediate statutory deadline; or
</P>
<P>(3) The initiating agency presents other compelling reasons why interim issuance is essential.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event of a waiver, the initiating agency shall clearly indicate that the issuance is interim, has been published pursuant to a wavier, and is subject to review. EEOC reserves the right, after publication, to review the document in light of the objectives of the Order. The initiating agency may make substantive conforming changes in light of comments by EEOC and other affected agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68361, Oct. 14, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 71799, Oct. 30, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.308" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.308   Notice of unresolved disputes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The disputes resolution mechanism in section 1-307 of the Executive Order should be used only in extraordinary circumstances, and only when further good faith efforts on the part of the EEOC and the agency involved would be ineffective in achieving a resolution of the dispute. Before using the disputes resolution mechanism, the EEOC or the initiating agency must have fully participated in the coordination process, including giving notification to the EEOC and the affected agencies of its intention to publish in final within 15 working days.
</P>
<P>(b) EEOC or the affected agency shall then send written notification of the dispute and the reasons for it to the EEOC and to the other affected agencies. Thereafter, but within the 15 day notice period, the EEOC or the affected agency may refer the dispute to the Executive Office of the President. Such reference may be made by the Chair of the EEOC or the head of the Federal agency. If no reference is made within 15 working days, the decision of the agency which initiated the proposed issuance will become effective. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.309" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.3.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.309   Interpretation of the Order.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the dispute resolution procedures set forth above and in accordance with the objectives set forth in 1-201 and the procedures in 1-303 of the Order, the EEOC shall interpret the meaning and intent of the Order. EEOC also will issue procedural changes under the Order, as appropriate, after advice and consultation with affected agencies as provided for in these procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1690.401" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.26.4.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1690.401   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations do not establish reporting requirements other than the required notices of proposed rulemaking and formal and informal review. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1691" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1691—PROCEDURES FOR COMPLAINTS OF EMPLOYMENT DISCRIMINATION FILED AGAINST RECIPIENTS OF FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12250, 45 FR 72995 (November 4, 1980) and E.O. 12067, 43 FR 28967 (June 30, 1978).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 3574, Jan. 25, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1691.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.1   Purpose and application.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this regulation is to implement procedures for processing and resolving complaints of employment discrimination filed against recipients of Federal financial assistance subject to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, the State and Local Fiscal Assistance Act of 1972, as amended, and provisions similar to title VI and title IX in Federal grant statutes. Enforcement of such provisions in Federal grant statutes is covered by this regulation to the extent they relate to prohibiting employment discrimination on the ground of race, color, national origin, religion or sex in programs receiving Federal financial assistance of the type subject to title VI or title IX. This regulation does not, however, apply to the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968, as amended, the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act, as amended, the Comprehensive Employment Training Act of 1973, as amended, or Executive Order 11246. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.2   Exchange of information.</HEAD>
<P>EEOC and agencies shall share any information relating to the employment policies and practices of recipients of Federal financial assistance that may assist each office in carrying out its responsibilities. Such information shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, affirmative action programs, annual employment reports, complaints, investigative files, conciliation or compliance agreements, and compliance review reports and files. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.3   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>When an agency receives information obtained by EEOC, the agency shall observe the confidentiality requirements of sections 706(b) and 709(e) of title VII as would EEOC, except in cases where the agency receives the same information from a source independent of EEOC or has referred a joint complaint to EEOC under this regulation. In such cases, the agency may use independent source information or information obtained by EEOC under the agency's investigative authority in a subsequent title VI, title IX or revenue sharing act enforcement proceeding. Agency questions concerning confidentiality shall be directed to the Deputy Legal Counsel, EEOC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 3574, Jan. 25, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 4902, Feb. 18, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.4   Standards for investigation, reviews and hearings.</HEAD>
<P>In any investigation, compliance review, hearing or other proceeding, agencies shall consider title VII case law and EEOC Guidelines, 29 CFR parts 1604-1607, unless inapplicable, in determining whether a recipient of Federal financial assistance has engaged in an unlawful employment practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.5   Agency processing of complaints of employment discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within ten days of receipt of a complaint of employment discrimination, an agency shall notify the respondent that it has received a complaint of employment discrimination, including the date, place and circumstances of the alleged unlawful employment practice.
</P>
<P>(b) Within thirty days of receipt of a complaint of employment discrimination an agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether it has jurisdiction over the complaint under title VI, title IX, or the revenue sharing act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether EEOC may have jurisdiction over the complaint under title VII or the Equal Pay Act.
</P>
<P>(c) An agency shall transfer to EEOC a complaint of employment discrimination over which it does not have jurisdiction but over which EEOC may have jurisdiction within thirty days of receipt of a complaint. At the same time, the agency shall notify the complainant and the respondent of the transfer, the reason for the transfer, the location of the EEOC office to which the complaint was transferred and that the date the agency received the complaint will be deemed the date it was received by EEOC.
</P>
<P>(d) If an agency determines that a complaint of employment discrimination is a joint complaint, then the agency may refer the complaint to EEOC. The agency need not consult with EEOC prior to such a referral. An agency referral of a joint complaint should occur within thirty days of receipt of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(e) An agency shall refer to EEOC all joint complaints solely alleging employment discrimination against an individual. If an agency determines that special circumstances warrant its investigation of such a joint complaint, then the agency shall determine whether the complainant has filed a similar charge of employment discrimination with EEOC.
</P>
<P>(1) If an agency determines that the complainant has filed a similar charge of employment discrimination with EEOC, then the agency may investigate the complaint if EEOC agrees to defer its investigation pending the agency investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If an agency determines that the complainant has not filed a similar charge of employment discrimination with EEOC, then the agency may investigate the complaint if special circumstances warrant such action. In such cases, EEOC shall defer its investigation of the referred joint complaint pending the agency investigation.
</P>
<P>(f) An agency shall not refer to EEOC a joint complaint alleging a pattern or practice of employment discrimination unless special circumstances warrant agency referral of the complaint to EEOC.
</P>
<P>(g) If a joint complaint alleges discrimination in employment and in other practices of a recipient, an agency should, absent special circumstances, handle the entire complaint under the agency's own investigation procedures. In such cases, the agency shall determine whether the complainant has filed a similar charge of employment discrimination with EEOC. If such a charge has been filed, the agency and EEOC shall coordinate their activities. Upon agency request, EEOC should ordinarily defer its investigation pending the agency investigation.
</P>
<P>(h) When a joint complaint is referred to EEOC for investigation, the agency shall advise EEOC of the relevant civil rights provision(s) applicable to the employment practices of the recipient, whether the agency wants to receive advance notice of any conciliation negotiations, whether the agency wants EEOC to seek information concerning the relationship between the alleged discrimination and the recipient's Federally assisted programs or activities and, where appropriate, whether a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is to provide employment. The agency shall also notify the complainant and the recipient of the referral, the location of the EEOC office to which the complaint was referred, the identity of the civil rights provision(s) involved, the authority of EEOC under this regulation and that the date the agency received the complaint will be deemed the date it was received by EEOC. Specifically, the notice shall inform the recipient that the agency has delegated to EEOC its investigative authority under title VI, title IX, or the revenue sharing act, and the relevant act's implementing regulations. The agency, therefore, may use information obtained by EEOC under the agency's investigative authority in a subsequent title VI, title IX or revenue sharing act enforcement proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.6   General rules concerning EEOC action on complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complaint of employment discrimination filed with an agency, which is transferred or referred to EEOC under this regulation, shall be deemed a charge received by EEOC. For all purposes under title VII and the Equal Pay Act, the date such a complaint was received by an agency shall be deemed the date it was received by EEOC.
</P>
<P>(b) When EEOC investigates a joint complaint it shall, where appropriate, seek sufficient information to allow the referring agency to determine whether the alleged employment discrimination is in a program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance and/or whether the alleged employment discrimination causes discrimination with respect to beneficiaries or potential beneficiaries of the assisted program.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon referral of a joint complaint alleging a pattern or practice of employment discrimination, EEOC generally will limit its investigation to the allegation(s) which directly affect the complainant. 
</P>
<P>(d) If EEOC, in the course of an investigation of a joint complaint, is unable to obtain information from a recipient through voluntary means, EEOC shall consult with the referring agency to determine an appropriate course of action.
</P>
<P>(e) If EEOC agrees to defer its investigation of a complaint of employment discrimination pending an agency investigation of the complaint, then EEOC shall give due weight to the agency's determination concerning the complaint. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.7   EEOC dismissals of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>If EEOC determines that the title VII allegations of a joint complaint should be dismissed, EEOC shall notify the complainant and the recipient of the reason for the dismissal and the effect the dismissal has on the complainant's rights under the relevant civil rights provision(s) of the referring agency, and issue a notice of right to sue under title VII. At the same time, EEOC shall transmit to the referring agency a copy of EEOC's file. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.8   Agency action on complaints dismissed by EEOC.</HEAD>
<P>Upon EEOC's transmittal of a dismissal under § 1691.7 of this part, the referring agency shall determine within thirty days, what, if any, action the agency intends to take with respect to the complaint and then notify the complainant and the recipient. In reaching that determination, the referring agency shall give due weight to EEOC's determination that the title VII allegations of the joint complaint should be dismissed. If the referring agency decides to take action with respect to a complaint that EEOC has dismissed for lack of reasonable cause to believe that title VII has been violated, the agency shall notify the Assistant Attorney General and the Chairman of the EEOC in writing of the action it plans to take and the basis of its decision to take such action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.9   EEOC reasonable cause determinations and conciliation efforts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If EEOC, after investigation of a joint complaint, determines that reasonable cause exists to believe that title VII has been violated, EEOC shall advise the referring agency, the complainant and the recipient of that determination and attempt to resolve the complaint by informal methods of conference, conciliation and persuasion. If EEOC would like the referring agency to participate in conciliation negotiations, EEOC shall so notify the agency and the agency shall participate. EEOC shall provide advance notice of any conciliation negotiations to referring agencies that request such notice, whether or not EEOC requests their participation in the negotiations.
</P>
<P>(b) If EEOC's efforts to resolve the complaint by informal methods of conference, conciliation and persuasion fail, EEOC shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue a notice of failure of conciliation to the recipient in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.25;
</P>
<P>(2) Transmit to the referring agency a copy of EEOC's investigative file, including its Letter of Determination and notice of failure of conciliation;
</P>
<P>(3) If the recipient is not a government, governmental entity or political subdivision, determine whether EEOC will bring suit under title VII and, in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.28, issue a notice of right to sue under title VII;
</P>
<P>(4) If the recipient is a government, governmental entity or political subdivision, refer the matter to the Attorney General in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.29. The Attorney General, or his or her delegate, will determine whether the Department of Justice will bring suit under title VII and, in accordance with 29 CFR 1601.28, issue a notice of right to sue under title VII.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.10   Agency enforcement of unresolved complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon EEOC's transmittal of a reasonable cause determination and notice of failure of conciliation under § 1691.9(b)(2) of this regulation, the referring agency shall determine, within thirty days, whether the recipient has violated any applicable civil rights provision(s) which the agency has a responsibility to enforce. The referring agency shall give due weight to EEOC's determination that reasonable cause exists to believe that title VII has been violated.
</P>
<P>(b) If the referring agency determines that the recipient has violated any applicable civil rights provision(s) which the agency has a responsibility to enforce, the agency shall so notify the complainant and the recipient and determine whether further efforts to obtain voluntary compliance are warranted. In reaching that determination, the agency shall give due weight to the failure of EEOC's efforts to resolve the complaint by informal methods. If the referring agency determines that further efforts to obtain voluntary compliance are not warranted or if such further efforts fail, the agency shall initiate appropriate enforcement proceedings under its own regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) If the referring agency determines that the recipient has not violated any applicable civil rights provision(s) which the agency has a responsibility to enforce, the agency shall notify the complainant, the recipient, the Assistant Attorney General and the Chairman of the EEOC in writing of the basis of that determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.11" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.11   EEOC negotiated settlements and conciliation agreements.</HEAD>
<P>If the parties enter into a negotiated settlement (as described in 29 CFR 1601.20) prior to a determination or a conciliation agreement (as described in 29 CFR 1601.24) after a determination, EEOC shall notify the referring agency that the complaint has been settled. The agency shall take no further action on the complaint of employment discrimination thereafter except that the agency may take the existence of the complaint into account in scheduling the recipient for a review under the agency's regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.12" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.12   Interagency consultation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before investigating whether the employment practices of a recipient of Federal financial assistance constitute a pattern or practice of unlawful discrimination or initiating formal administrative enforcement procedures on that basis, an agency shall, to the extent practical, consult with the Chairman of the EEOC and the Assistant Attorney General to assure that duplication of effort will be minimized.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to the initiation of any legal action against a recipient of Federal financial assistance alleging unlawful employment practices, the Department of Justice and/or EEOC shall, to the extent practical, notify the appropriate agency or agencies of the proposed action and the substance of the allegations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1691.13" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.27.0.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1691.13   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this regulation, the term:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means any Federal department or agency which extends Federal financial assistance subject to any civil rights provision(s) to which this regulation applies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistant Attorney General</I> refers to the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice, or his or her delegate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chairman of the EEOC</I> refers to the Chairman of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, or his or her delegate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>EEOC</I> means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and, where appropriate, any of its District Offices and its Washington Field Office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal financial assistance</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Grants and loans of Federal funds,
</P>
<P>(2) The grant or donation of Federal property and interests in property, 
</P>
<P>(3) The detail of Federal personnel,
</P>
<P>(4) The sale and lease of, and the permission to use (on other than a casual or transient basis), Federal property or any interest in such property without consideration or at a nominal consideration, or at a consideration which is reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient, or in recognition of the public interest to be served by such sale or lease to the recipient, and
</P>
<P>(5) Any Federal agreement, arrangement, or other contract which has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance.
</P>
<FP>For purposes of this regulation, the term <I>Federal financial assistance</I> also includes funds disbursed under the revenue sharing act.
</FP>
<P>(f) <I>Joint complaint</I> means a complaint of employment discrimination covered by title VII or the Equal Pay Act and by title VI, title IX, or the revenue sharing act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Recipient</I> means any State, political subdivision of any State, or instrumentality of any State or political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any individual, in any State, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient, for any program, including any successor, assign, or transferee thereof, but such term does not include any ultimate beneficiary under such program.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Revenue sharing act</I> refers to the State and Local Fiscal Assistance Act of 1972, as amended, 31 U.S.C. 1221 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Title VI</I> refers to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000d to 2000d-4. Where appropriate, <I>title VI</I> also refers to the civil rights provisions of other Federal statutes or regulations to the extent that they prohibit employment discrimination on the grounds of race, color, religion, sex or national origin in programs receiving Federal financial assistance of the type subject to title VI itself.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Title VII</I> refers to title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2000e, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Title IX</I> refers to title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, 20 U.S.C. 1681 to 1683. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 3574, Jan. 25, 1983, as amended at 54 FR 32063, Aug. 4, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1692-1694" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1692-1694 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1695" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1695—GUIDANCE PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 553, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-12, 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.,</I> 29 U.S.C. 628, 42 U.S.C. 12116, 42 U.S.C. 2000ff-10; E.O. 13891, 84 FR 55235; OMB Memorandum M-20-02.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 69170, Nov. 2, 2020, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1695.0" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.0   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes general procedures that apply to guidance documents of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC or Commission) under all statutes enforced by the Commission.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.1" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Guidance document</I> means any statement of Commission policy or interpretation concerning a statute, regulation, or technical matter within its jurisdiction that is intended to have general applicability and future effect, but which is not intended to be binding in its own right and is not otherwise required by statute to satisfy the rulemaking procedures specified in 5 U.S.C. 553 or 5 U.S.C. 556. The term is not confined to formal written documents, and may include letters, memoranda, circulars, bulletins, and advisories that set forth for the first time a new regulatory policy. It may also include equivalent video, audio, and web-based formats. The definition does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Rules promulgated pursuant to notice and comment requirements under 5 U.S.C. 553 or similar statutory provisions.
</P>
<P>(2) Rules exempt from rulemaking requirements under 5 U.S.C. 553(a);
</P>
<P>(3) Rules of Commission organization, procedure, or practice;
</P>
<P>(4) Decisions of Commission adjudications under 5 U.S.C. 554 or similar statutory provisions;
</P>
<P>(5) Internal executive branch legal advice or legal advisory opinions addressed to executive branch officials;
</P>
<P>(6) Commission statements of specific applicability, including advisory or legal opinions directed to particular parties about circumstance-specific questions, notices regarding particular locations or facilities, and correspondence with individual persons or entities;
</P>
<P>(7) Legal briefs, other court filings, or positions taken in litigation or enforcement actions;
</P>
<P>(8) Commission statements that do not set forth a policy on a statutory, regulatory, or technical issue or an interpretation of a statute or regulation, including speeches and individual presentations, PowerPoint slides, editorials, media interviews, press materials, or congressional testimony that do not set forth for the first time a new regulatory policy;
</P>
<P>(9) Guidance pertaining to military or foreign affairs functions;
</P>
<P>(10) Grant solicitations and awards;
</P>
<P>(11) Contract solicitations and awards; or
</P>
<P>(12) Purely internal Commission policies or guidance directed solely to EEOC employees or contractors or to other Federal agencies that are not anticipated to have substantial future effect on the behavior of regulated parties outside of the government; for example, Volume I of the Commission's Compliance Manual, which is only for internal use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significant guidance document.</I> (1) <I>Significant guidance document</I> means a guidance document that will be disseminated to regulated entities or the general public and that may reasonably be anticipated:
</P>
<P>(i) To lead to an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the U.S. economy, a sector of the U.S. economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities;
</P>
<P>(ii) To create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another Federal agency;
</P>
<P>(iii) To alter materially the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or
</P>
<P>(iv) To raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in E.O. 12866, as further amended.
</P>
<P>(2) It does not include any other category of guidance documents exempted in writing by OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.2" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.2   Guidance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each guidance document shall comply with all relevant statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) It shall be written in plain and understandable English and avoid using mandatory language, such as “shall,” “must,” “required,” or “requirement,” unless the language describes an established statutory or regulatory requirement or is addressed to EEOC staff and will not foreclose the Commission's consideration of positions advanced by affected private parties;
</P>
<P>(c) It shall identify or include:
</P>
<P>(1) The term “guidance” or its functional equivalent and that the Commission is issuing the document;
</P>
<P>(2) A unique identifier that provides information on whether the document was subject to a vote (CV) or not (NVTA), the year of issuance, and unique number of its issuance and, if applicable, a Z-RIN;
</P>
<P>(3) The activity or entities to which the guidance applies;
</P>
<P>(4) A short summary of the subject matter covered in the guidance document at the top of the document.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement noting whether the guidance is intended to revise or replace any previously issued guidance and, if so, sufficient information to identify the previously issued guidance; and
</P>
<P>(6) Citations to applicable statutes and regulations;
</P>
<P>(7)(i) A clear and prominent statement of the following: “The contents of this document do not have the force and effect of law and are not meant to bind the public in any way. This document is intended only to provide clarity to the public regarding existing requirements under the law or Commission policies.”
</P>
<P>(ii) When binding guidance is authorized by law or is incorporated into contract, the language in paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this section may be modified to reflect either of those facts.
</P>
<P>(d) If the guidance document sets forth the Commission's position on a legal principle for the first time or changes the Commission's legal position on any issue, the Commission must approve the guidance document by majority vote. Any significant guidance or guidance that is otherwise subject to notice and comment procedures must be approved by a Commission vote. Any guidance document that requires a vote of the Commission to be approved shall be circulated to the Commissioners, and, if approved, shall be signed by the Chair on behalf of the Commission. If the document is not setting forth a new or changed legal position, is reiterating already established Commission policies, or is otherwise simply providing technical assistance on the laws the Commission enforces without announcing any new policy or legal position, it shall be circulated to the Commission for informational purposes for a period of not less than five days, unless emergency circumstances do not allow, and shall only require approval, but not signature, by the Chair.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.3" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.3   Good faith cost estimates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A good faith effort shall be made, to the extent practicable, to estimate the likely economic cost impact of the guidance document to determine whether the document might be significant. It may, however, be difficult to predict with precision the economic impact of voluntary guidance.
</P>
<P>(b) When determining the likely economic cost impact, the same level of analysis should be given as that required for a major determination under the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I>) and the economic impact on small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.4" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.4   Significance determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to issuance, the Commission shall provide OIRA with an opportunity to review a guidance document to determine if it meets the definition of “significant guidance document.”
</P>
<P>(b) If the guidance document is determined not to be significant, the Commission shall proceed with issuance of the guidance without going through the procedures described in § 1695.5.
</P>
<P>(c) In emergency situations, or when required by statutory deadline or court order to act more quickly than normal review procedures allow, the Chair shall notify OIRA and all Commissioners as soon as possible and, to the extent practicable, comply with the requirements of this part at the earliest opportunity.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.5" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.5   Significant guidance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each proposed significant guidance document shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) Approved by the Commission before issuance and assigned a Z-RIN through the Regulatory Management System (RMS), or a successor data management system.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the applicable requirements for regulations, including significant regulatory actions, in E.O. 12866, E.O. 13563, E.O. 13609, E.O. 13771, and E.O. 13777.
</P>
<P>(3) Submitted to OMB for coordinated review. Proposed guidance documents that are otherwise important to the Commission's interests may also be submitted for review.
</P>
<P>(4) Reviewed by OIRA under E.O. 12866 before issuance.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chair may determine that it is appropriate to coordinate with OMB in the review of guidance documents that are otherwise of importance to the Commission's interests.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.6" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.6   Notice and public comment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each proposed significant guidance document shall have a period of notice and public comment of at least 30 days, unless the Commission, in consultation with OIRA, finds good cause that such notice and public comment are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, and incorporates such finding and a brief statement of reasons therefor into the guidance document.
</P>
<P>(b) Notice shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing that a draft of the proposed guidance document is publicly available on the Federal e-regulation website, and the proposed significant guidance document also shall be posted on the Commission website.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission shall prepare and post a public response to major concerns raised in the comments, as appropriate, either before or when the significant guidance document is finalized and issued.
</P>
<P>(d) When appropriate, the Chair may determine that a guidance document that is not otherwise required to go through notice and public comment shall also be subject to a period of public comment following the document's approval by the Commission before the document becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(e) Unless otherwise determined in writing by the Chair, upon issuing a significant guidance document, a report shall be submitted to Congress and GAO in accordance with the procedures described in 5 U.S.C. 801 (the “Congressional Review Act”).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.7" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.7   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person may petition the Commission, in writing, for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of a guidance. Such petition shall state the guidance, regulation, or rule, together with a statement of grounds in support of such petition.
</P>
<P>(b) Petitions may be filed with the EEOC, Office of Executive Secretariat, either electronically at the EEOC guidance portal, <I>http://www.eeoc.gov/guidance,</I> or in hard copy to U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, Executive Secretariat, 131 M Street NE, Washington, DC 20507.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the filing of such petition, the Commission shall consider the same and may thereupon either grant or deny the petition in whole or in part, conduct an appropriate proceeding thereon, or make other disposition of the petition.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission should respond to all petitions in a timely manner, but no later than 90 days after receipt of the petition, as to how it intends to proceed. Should the petition be denied in whole or in part, prompt notice shall be given of the denial, accompanied by a simple statement of the grounds unless the denial be self-explanatory.
</P>
<P>(e) The issuance, amendment, or repeal of a guidance in response to a petition shall be considered by the Commission pursuant to its regular procedures.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.8" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.8   Public access to current guidance documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All current guidance documents shall be published with a unique identifier including, at a minimum, the document's title, date of issuance or revision, and its Z-RIN (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(b) All current guidance documents shall made available through a single “guidance portal” on the Commission website, together with a single, searchable, indexed database available to the public;
</P>
<P>(c) The guidance portal shall include a statement that guidance documents lack the force and effect of law, except as authorized by law or as incorporated into a contract;
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission shall maintain and advertise on its website a means for the public to comment electronically on any guidance documents that are subject to the notice and comment procedures described in § 1695.6 and to submit requests electronically for issuance, reconsideration, modification, or rescission of guidance documents in accordance with § 1695.7; and
</P>
<P>(e) Designate an office to receive and address complaints from the public that the Commission is not following the relevant requirements for issuing guidance or is improperly treating a guidance document as a binding requirement.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.9" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.9   Rescinded guidance.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall not cite, use, or rely on guidance documents that are rescinded, except to establish historical facts.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1695.10" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.29.0.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1695.10   No judicial review or enforceable rights.</HEAD>
<P>This part is intended to improve the internal management of the Commission. As such, it is for the use of EEOC personnel only and is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its agencies or other entities, its officers or employees, or any other person.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1696-1899" NODE="29:4.1.4.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1696-1899 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Jan. 8, 2026 (fm)
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="5" NODE="29:5" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 5</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)</E> 
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvii</E>—Occupational Safety and Health Administration, Department of Labor
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1902


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="29:5.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="XVII" NODE="29:5.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVII—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1900-1901" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1900-1901 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1902" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1902—STATE PLANS FOR THE DEVELOPMENT AND ENFORCEMENT OF STATE STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 18, 84 Stat. 1608 (29 U.S.C. 667); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 20751, Oct. 29, 1971, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.1" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies the provisions of section 18 of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (hereinafter referred to as the Act) relating to State plans for the development and enforcement of State occupational safety and health standards. The provisions of the part set forth the procedures by which the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health (hereinafter referred to as the Assistant Secretary) under a delegation of authority from the Secretary of Labor (Secretary's Order No. 12-71, 36 FR 8754, May 12, 1971) will approve or reject State plans submitted to the Secretary. In the Act, Congress declared it to be its purpose and policy “* * * to assure so far as possible every working man and woman in the Nation safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve our human resources” by, among other actions and programs, “* * * encouraging the State to assume the fullest responsibility for the administration and enforcement of their occupational safety and health laws. Section 18(a) of the Act is read as preventing any State agency or court from asserting jurisdiction under State law over any occupational safety or health issue with respect to which a Federal standard has been issued under section 6 of the Act. However, section 18(b) provides that any State that desires to assume responsibility for the development and enforcement therein of occupational safety and health standards relating to issues covered by corresponding standards promulgated under section 6 of the Act shall submit a plan for doing so to the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 18(c) of the Act sets out certain criteria that a plan which is submitted under section 18(b) of the Act must meet, either initially or upon modification, if it is to be approved. Foremost among these criteria is the requirement that the plan must provide for the development of State standards and the enforcement of such standards which are or will be at least as effective in providing safe and healthful employment and places of employment as the standards promulgated under section 6 of the Act which relate to the same issues.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If the Assistant Secretary approves a State plan submitted under section 18(b), he may, but is not required to, exercise his enforcement authority with respect to Federal standards corresponding to standards approved under the plan until he determines, in accordance with section 18(e) of the Act, on the basis of actual operations under the plan, that the State is applying the criteria of section 18(c) of the Act. The Assistant Secretary shall not make this determination (i) for at least 3 years after initial approval of the plan, and (ii) in the case of a developmental plan approved under § 1902.2(b), until the State has completed all the steps specified in its plan which are designed to make it at least as effective as the Federal program and the Assistant Secretary has had at least 1 year in which to evaluate the program on the basis of actual operations. After the determination that the State is applying the criteria of section 18(c) of the Act, the Assistant Secretary's enforcement authority shall not apply with respect to any occupational safety or health issue covered by the plan. Notwithstanding plan approval and a determination under section 18(e) that the section 18(c) criteria are being followed, the Assistant Secretary shall make a continuing evaluation, as provided in section 18(f) of the Act, of the manner in which the State is carrying out the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal enforcement authority which must be retained by the Assistant Secretary until actual operations prove the State plan to be at least as effective as the Federal program, will be exercised to the degree necessary to assure occupational safety and health. Factors to be considered in determining the level of Federal effort during this period include:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the plan is developmental (i.e., approved under § 1902.2(b)) or complete (i.e., approved under § 1902.2 (a)).
</P>
<P>(ii) Results of evaluations conducted by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever the Assistant Secretary determines, after giving notice and affording the State an opportunity for a hearing, that in the administration of the State plan there is a failure to comply substantially with any provision of the plan or any assurance contained therein, he shall withdraw approval of such plan in whole or in part, and upon notice the State shall cease operations under any disapproved plan or part thereof, except that it will be permitted to retain jurisdiction as to any case commenced before withdrawal of approval whenever the issues involved do not relate to the reasons for the withdrawal of the plan.
</P>
<P>(4) A determination of approval of a State plan under section 18(e) does not affect the authority and responsibility of the Assistant Secretary to enforce Federal standards covering issues not included under the State plan.
</P>
<P>(d) The policy of the Act is to encourage the assumption by the States of the fullest responsibility for the development and enforcement of their own occupational safety and health standards. This assumption of responsibility is considered to include State development and enforcement of standards on as many occupational safety and health issues as possible. To these ends, the Assistant Secretary intends to cooperate with the States so that they can obtain approval of plans for the development and enforcement of State standards which are or will be at least as effective as the Federal standards and enforcement.
</P>
<P>(e) After the Assistant Secretary has approved a plan, he may approve one or more grants under section 23(g) of the Act to assist the State in administering and enforcing its program for occupational safety and health in accordance with appropriate instructions or procedures to be promulgated by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 20751, Oct. 29, 1971, as amended at 61 FR 9230, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.2" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.1.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.2   General policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> The Assistant Secretary will approve a State plan which provides for an occupational safety and health program with respect to covered issues that in his judgment meets or will meet the criteria set forth in § 1902.3. Included among these criteria is the requirement that the State plan provide for the development and enforcement of standards relating to issues covered by the plan which are or will be at least as effective in providing safe and healthful employment and places of employment as standards promulgated and enforced under section 6 of the Act on the same issues. In determining whether a State plan satisfies the requirement of effectiveness, the Assistant Secretary will measure the plan against the indices of effectiveness set forth in § 1902.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Developmental plan.</I> A State plan for an occupational safety and health program may be approved although, upon submission it does not fully meet the criteria set forth in § 1902.3, if it includes satisfactory assurances by the State that it will take the necessary steps to bring the State program into conformity with these criteria within the 3-year period immediately following the commencement of the plan's operation. In such case, the State plan shall include the specific actions it proposes to take and a time schedule for their accomplishment not to exceed 3 years, at the end of which the State plan will meet the criteria in § 1902.3. A developmental plan shall include the date or dates within which intermediate and final action will be accomplished. If necessary program changes require legislative action by a State, a copy of a bill or a draft of legislation that will be or has been proposed for enactment shall be submitted, accompanied by (1) a statement of the Governor's support of the legislation and (2) a statement of legal opinion that the proposed legislation will meet the requirements of the Act and this part in a manner consistent with the State's constitution and laws. On the basis of the State's submission the Assistant Secretary will approve the plan if he finds that there is a reasonable expectation that the State plan will meet the criteria in § 1902.3 within the indicated 3-year period. In such case, the Assistant Secretary shall not make a determination under section 18(e) of the Act that a State is fully applying the criteria in § 1902.3 until the State has completed all the developmental steps specified in its plan which are designed to make it at least as effective as the Federal program, and the Assistant Secretary has had at least 1 year to evaluate the plan on the basis of actual operations. If at the end of 3 years from the date of commencement of the plan's development, the State is found by the Assistant Secretary, after affording the State notice and opportunity for a hearing, not to have substantially completed the developmental steps of the plan, the Assistant Secretary shall withdraw the approval of the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope of State plan.</I> (1) A State plan may cover any occupational safety and health issue with respect to which a Federal standard has been promulgated under section 6 of the Act. An “issue” is considered to be an industrial, occupational or hazard grouping which is at least as comprehensive as a corresponding grouping contained in (i) one or more sections in subpart B or R of part 1910 of this chapter, or (ii) one or more of the remaining subparts of part 1910. However, for cause shown the Assistant Secretary may approve a plan relating to other industrial, occupational or hazard groupings if he determines that the plan is administratively practicable and that such groupings would not conflict with the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Each State plan shall describe the occupational safety and health issue or issues and the State standard or standards applicable to each such issue or issues over which it desires to assume enforcement responsibility in terms of the corresponding Federal industrial, occupational or hazard groupings and set forth the reasons, supported with appropriate data, for any variations the State proposes from the coverage of Federal standards.
</P>
<P>(3) The State plan shall apply to all employers and employees within the affected industry, occupational or hazard grouping unless the Assistant Secretary finds that the State has shown good cause why any group or groups of employers or employees should be excluded. Any employers or employees so excluded shall be covered by applicable Federal standards and enforcement provisions in the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Criteria for State Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.3" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.3   Specific criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A State plan must meet the specific criteria set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of State agency.</I> (1) The State plan shall designate a State agency or agencies as the agency or agencies responsible for administering the plan throughout the State.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan shall also describe the authority and responsibilities vested in such agency or agencies. The plan shall contain assurances that any other responsibilities of the designated agency shall not detract significantly from the resources and priorities assigned to administration of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) A State agency or agencies must be designated with overall responsibility for administering the plan throughout the State. However, political subdivisions of the State may have the responsibility and authority for the development and enforcement of standards, provided that the State agency or agencies are given adequate authority by statute, regulation, or agreement, to insure that the commitments of the State under the plan will be fulfilled.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards.</I> (1) The State plan shall include or provide for the development or adoption of, and contain assurances that the State will continue to develop or adopt, standards which are or will be at least as effective as those promulgated under section 6 of the Act. Indices of the effectiveness of standards and procedures for the development or adoption of standards against which the Assistant Secretary will measure the State plan in determining whether it is approvable are set forth in § 1902.4(b).
</P>
<P>(2) The State plan shall not include standards for products distributed or used in interstate commerce which are different from Federal standards for such products unless such standards are required by compelling local conditions and do not unduly burden interstate commerce. This provision, reflecting section 18(c)(2) of the Act, is interpreted as not being applicable to customized products or parts not normally available on the open market, or to the optional parts or additions to products which are ordinarily available with such optional parts or additions. In situations where section 18(c)(2) is considered applicable, and provision is made for the adoption of product standards, the requirements of section 18(c)(2), as they relate to undue burden on interstate commerce, shall be treated as a condition subsequent in light of the facts and circumstances which may be involved.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement.</I> (1) The State plan shall provide a program for the enforcement of the State standards which is, or will be, at least as effective as that provided in the Act, and provide assurances that the State's enforcement program will continue to be at least as effective as the Federal program. Indices of the effectiveness of a State's enforcement plan against which the Assistant Secretary will measure the State plan in determining whether it is approvable are set forth in § 1902.4(c).
</P>
<P>(2) The State plan shall require employers to comply with all applicable State occupational safety and health standards covered by the plan and all applicable rules issued thereunder, and employees to comply with all standards, rules, and orders applicable to their conduct.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Right of entry and inspection.</I> The State plan shall contain adequate assurance that inspectors will have a right to enter and inspect covered workplaces which is, or will be, at least as effective as that provided in section 8 of the Act. Where such entry or inspection is refused, the State agency or agencies shall have the authority, through appropriate legal process, to compel such entry and inspection.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibition against advance notice.</I> The State plan shall contain a prohibition against advance notice of inspections. Any exceptions must be expressly authorized by the head of the designated agency or agencies or his representative and such exceptions may be no broader than those authorized under the Act and the rules published in part 1903 of this chapter relating to advance notice.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Legal authority.</I> The State plan shall contain satisfactory assurances that the designated agency or agencies have, or will have, the legal authority necessary for the enforcement of its standards.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Personnel.</I> The State plan shall provide assurance that the designated agency or agencies have, or will have, a sufficient number of adequately trained and qualified personnel necessary for the enforcement of the standards. For this purpose qualified personnel means persons employed on a merit basis, including all persons engaged in the development of standards and the administration of the State plan. Conformity with the Standards for a Merit System of Personnel Administration, 45 CFR part 70, issued by the Secretary of Labor, including any amendments thereto, and any standards prescribed by the U.S. Civil Service Commission pursuant to section 208 of the Intergovernmental Personnel Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-648; 84 Stat. 1915) modifying or superseding such standards, will be deemed to meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Resources.</I> The State plan shall contain satisfactory assurances through the use of budget, organizational description, and any other appropriate means that the State will devote adequate funds to the administration and enforcement of the program. The Assistant Secretary will make periodic evaluations of the adequacy of the State resources devoted to the plan.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Employer records and reports.</I> The State plan shall provide assurances that employers covered by the plan will maintain records and make reports to the Assistant Secretary in the same manner and to the same extent as if the plan were not in effect.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>State agency reports to the Assistant Secretary.</I> The State plan shall provide assurances that the designated agency or agencies shall make such reasonable reports to the Assistant Secretary in such form and containing such information as he may from time to time require. The agency or agencies shall establish specific goals, consistent with the goals of the Act, including measures of performance, output and results which will determine the efficiency and effectiveness of the State program, and shall make periodic reports to the Assistant Secretary on the extent to which the State, in implementation of its plan, has attained these goals. Reports will also include data and information on the implementation of the specific inspection and voluntary compliance activities included within the State plan. Further, these reports shall contain such statistical information pertaining to work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses in employments and places of employment covered by the plan as the Assistant Secretary may from time to time require.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1218-0004) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 20751, Oct. 29, 1971, as amended at 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989; 80 FR 49901, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.4" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.2.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.4   Indices of effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In order to satisfy the requirements of effectiveness under § 1902.3 (c)(1) and (d)(1), the State plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish the same standards, procedures, criteria and rules as have been established by the Assistant Secretary under the Act, or;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish alternative standards, procedures, criteria, and rules which will be measured against each of the indices of effectiveness in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section to determine whether the alternatives are at least as effective as the Federal program with respect to the subject of each index. For each index the State must demonstrate by the presentation of factual or other appropriate information that its plan is or will be at least as effective as the Federal program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards.</I> (1) The indices for measurement of a State plan with regard to standards follow in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The Assistant Secretary will determine whether the State plan satisfies the requirements of effectiveness with regard to each index as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary will determine whether the State plan:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides for State standards with respect to specific issues which are or will be at least as effective as the standards promulgated under section 6 of the Act relating to the same issues. In the case of any State standards dealing with toxic materials or harmful physical agents, they should adequately assure, to the extent feasible, that no employee will suffer material impairment of health or functional capacity even if such employee has regular exposure to the hazard dealt with by such standard for the period of his working life, by such means as, in the development and promulgation of standards, obtaining the best available evidence through research, demonstrations, experiments, and experience under this and other safety and health laws.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides an adequate method to assure that its standards will continue to be at least as effective as Federal standards, including Federal standards relating to issues covered by the plan, which become effective subsequent to any approval of the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides a procedure for the development and promulgation of standards which allows for the consideration of pertinent factual information and affords interested persons, including employees, employers and the public, an opportunity to participate in such processes, by such means as establishing procedures for consideration of expert technical knowledge, and providing interested persons, including employers, employees, recognized standards-producing organizations, and the public an opportunity to submit information requesting the development or promulgation of new standards or the modification or revocation of existing standards and to participate in any hearings. This index may also be satisfied by such means as the adoption of Federal standards, in which case the procedures at the Federal level before adoption of a standard under section 6 may be considered to meet the conditions of this index.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides authority for the granting of variances from State standards, upon application of an employer or employers which correspond to variances authorized under the Act, and for consideration of the views of interested parties, by such means as giving affected employees notice of each application and an opportunity to request and participate in hearings or other appropriate proceedings relating to applications for variances.
</P>
<P>(v) Provides for prompt and effective standards setting actions for the protection of employees against new and unforseen hazards, by such means as the authority to promulgate emergency temporary standards.
</P>
<P>(vi) Provides that State standards contain appropriate provision for the furnishing to employees of information regarding hazards in the workplace, including information about suitable precautions, relevant symptoms, and emergency treatment in case of exposure, by such means as labeling, posting, and, where appropriate, medical examination at no cost to employees, with the results of such examinations being furnished only to appropriate State officials and, if the employee so requests, to his physician.
</P>
<P>(vii) Provides that State standards, where appropriate, contain specific provision for the protection of employees from exposure to hazards, by such means as containing appropriate provision for use of suitable protective equipment and for control or technological procedures with respect to such hazards, including monitoring or measuring such exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement.</I> (1) The indices for measurement of a State plan with regard to enforcement follow in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The Assistant Secretary will determine whether the State plan satisfies the requirements of effectiveness with regard to each index as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary will determine whether the State plan:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides for inspection of covered workplaces in the State, including inspections in response to complaints, where there are reasonable grounds to believe a hazard exists, in order to assure, so far as possible, safe and healthful working conditions for covered employees, by such means as providing for inspections under conditions such as those provided in section 8 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides an opportunity for employees and their representatives, before, during, and after inspections, to bring possible violations to the attention of the State agency with enforcement responsibility in order to aid inspections, by such means as affording a representative of the employer and a representative authorized by employees an opportunity to accompany the State representative during the physical inspection of the workplace, or where there is no authorized representative, by providing for consultation by the State representative with a reasonable number of employees.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for the notification of employees, or their representatives, when the State decides not to take compliance action as a result of violations alleged by such employees or their representatives and further provides for informal review of such decisions, by such means as written notification of decisions not to take compliance action and the reasons therefor, and procedures for informal review of such decisions and written statements of the disposition of such review.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides that employees be informed of their protections and obligations under the Act, including the provisions of applicable standards, by such means as the posting of notices or other appropriate sources of information.
</P>
<P>(v) Provides necessary and appropriate protection to an employee against discharge or discrimination in terms and conditions of employment because he has filed a complaint, testified, or otherwise acted to exercise rights under the Act for himself or others, by such means as providing for appropriate sanctions against the employer for such actions and by providing for the withholding, upon request, of the names of complainants from the employer.
</P>
<P>(vi) Provides that employees have access to information on their exposure to toxic materials or harmful physical agents and receive prompt information when they have been or are being exposed to such materials or agents in concentrations or at levels in excess of those prescribed by the applicable safety and health standards, by such means as the observation by employees of the monitoring or measuring of such materials or agents, employee access to the records of such monitoring or measuring, prompt notification by an employer to any employee who has been or is being exposed to such agents or materials in excess of the applicable standards, and information to such employee of corrective action being taken.
</P>
<P>(vii) Provides procedures for the prompt restraint or elimination of any conditions or practices in covered places of employment which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the imminence of such danger can be eliminated through the enforcement procedures otherwise provided for in the plan, by such means as immediately informing employees and employers of such hazards, taking steps to obtain immediate abatement of the hazard by the employer, and where appropriate, authority to initiate necessary legal proceedings to require such abatement.
</P>
<P>(viii) Provides adequate safeguards to protect trade secrets, by such means as limiting access to such trade secrets to authorized State officers or employees concerned with carrying out the plan and by providing for the issuance of appropriate orders to protect the confidentiality of trade secrets.
</P>
<P>(ix) Provides that the State agency (or agencies) will have the necessary legal authority for the enforcement of standards, by such means as provisions for appropriate compulsory process to obtain necessary evidence or testimony in connection with inspection and enforcement proceedings.
</P>
<P>(x) Provides for prompt notice to employers and employees when an alleged violation of standards has occurred, including the proposed abatement requirements, by such means as the issuance of a written citation to the employer and posting of the citation at or near the site of the violation; further provides for advising the employer of any proposed sanctions, by such means as a notice to the employer by certified mail within a reasonable time of any proposed sanctions.
</P>
<P>(xi) Provides effective sanctions against employers who violate State standards and orders, such as those set forth in the Act, and in 29 CFR 1903.15(d).
</P>
<P>(xii) Provides for an employer to have the right of review of violations alleged by the State, abatement periods, and proposed penalties and for employees or their representatives to have an opportunity to participate in review proceedings, by such means as providing for administrative or judicial review, with an opportunity for a full hearing on the issues.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Provides that the State will undertake programs to encourage voluntary compliance by employers and employees by such means as conducting training and consultation with employers and employees.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State and local government employee programs.</I> (1) Each approved State plan must contain satisfactory assurances that the State will, to the extent permitted by its law, establish and maintain an effective and comprehensive occupational safety and health program applicable to all employees of public agencies of the State and its political subdivisions which program is as effective as the standards contained in an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(2) This criterion for approved State plans is interpreted to require the following elements with regard to coverage, standards, and enforcement:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Coverage.</I> The program must cover all public employees over which the State has legislative authority under its constitution. The language in section 18(c)(6) which only requires such coverage to the extent permitted by the State's law specifically recognizes the situation where local governments exclusively control their own employees, such as under certain home rule charters.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Standards.</I> The program must be as effective as the standards contained in the approved plan applicable to private employers. Thus, the same criteria and indices of standards effectiveness contained in §§ 1902.3(c) and 1902.4(a) and (b) would apply to the public employee program. Where hazards are unique to public employment, all appropriate indices of effectiveness, such as those dealing with temporary emergency standards, development of standards, employee information, variances, and protective equipment, would be applicable to standards for such hazards.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Enforcement.</I> Although section 18(c)(6) of the Act requires State public employee programs to be as effective as standards contained in the State plan, minimum enforcement elements are required to ensure an effective and comprehensive public employee program as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Regular inspections of workplaces, including inspections in response to valid employee complaints;
</P>
<P>(B) A means for employees to bring possible violations to the attention of inspectors;
</P>
<P>(C) Notification to employees, or their representatives, of decisions that no violations are found as a result of complaints by such employees or their representatives, and informal review of such decisions;
</P>
<P>(D) A means of informing employees of their protections and obligations under the Act;
</P>
<P>(E) Protection for employees against discharge of discrimination because of the exercise of rights under the Act;
</P>
<P>(F) Employee access to information on their exposure to toxic materials or harmful physical agents and prompt notification to employees when they have been or are being exposed to such materials or agents at concentrations or levels above those specified by the applicable standards;
</P>
<P>(G) Procedures for the prompt restraint or elimination of imminent danger situations;
</P>
<P>(H) A means of promptly notifying employers and employees when an alleged violation has occurred, including the proposed abatement requirements;
</P>
<P>(I) A means of establishing timetables for the correction of violations;
</P>
<P>(J) A program for encouraging voluntary compliance; and
</P>
<P>(K) Such other additional enforcement provisions under State law as may have been included in the State plan.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with § 1902.3(b)(3), the State agency or agencies designated to administer the plan throughout the State must retain overall responsibility for the entire plan. Political subdivisions may have the responsibility and authority for the development and enforcement of standards: <I>Provided,</I> that the designated State agency or agencies have adequate authority by statute, regulation, or agreement to insure that the commitments of the State under the plan will be fulfilled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional indices.</I> Upon his own motion or after con<I>s</I>ideration of data, views and arguments received in any proceeding held under subpart C of this part, the Assistant Secretary may prescribe additional indices for any State plan which shall be in furtherance of the purpose of this part, as expressed in § 1902.1.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 20751, Oct. 29, 1971, as amended at 80 FR 49901, Aug. 18, 2015; 81 FR 43452, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.5" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.2.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.5   Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968.</HEAD>
<P>This part shall be construed in a manner consistent with the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4201-4233), and any regulations pursuant thereto.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.6" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.2.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.6   Consultation with the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary will consult, as appropriate, with the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health with regard to plans submitted by the States under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.7" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.2.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.7   Injury and illness recording and reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Injury and illness recording and reporting requirements promulgated by State-Plan States must be substantially identical to those in 29 CFR part 1904 on recording and reporting occupational injuries and illnesses. State-Plan States must promulgate recording and reporting requirements that are the same as the Federal requirements for determining which injuries and illnesses will be entered into the records and how they are entered. All other injury and illness recording and reporting requirements that are promulgated by State-Plan States may be more stringent than, or supplemental to, the Federal requirements, but, because of the unique nature of the national recordkeeping program, States must consult with OSHA and obtain approval of such additional or more stringent reporting and recording requirements to ensure that they will not interfere with uniform reporting objectives. State-Plan States must extend the scope of their regulation to State and local government employers.
</P>
<P>(b) A State may not grant a variance to the injury and illness recording and reporting requirements for private sector employers. Such variances may only be granted by Federal OSHA to assure nationally consistent workplace injury and illness statistics. A State may only grant a variance to the injury and illness recording and reporting requirements for State or local government entities in that State after obtaining approval from Federal OSHA.
</P>
<P>(c) A State must recognize any variance issued by Federal OSHA.
</P>
<P>(d) As provided in section 18(c)(7) of the Act, State Plan States must adopt requirements identical to those in 29 CFR 1904.41 in their recordkeeping and reporting regulations as enforceable State requirements. The data collected by OSHA as authorized by § 1904.41 will be made available to the State Plan States. Nothing in any State plan shall affect the duties of employers to comply with § 1904.41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 49902, Aug. 18, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 29694, May 12, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.8" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.2.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.8   Variations and variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The power of the Secretary of Labor under section 16 of the Act to provide reasonable limitations and variations, tolerances, and exemptions to and from any or all provisions of the Act as he may find necessary and proper to avoid serious impairment of the national defense is reserved.
</P>
<P>(b) No action by a State under a plan shall be inconsistent with action by the Secretary under this section of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a State standard is identical to a Federal standard addressed to the same hazard, an employer or group of employers seeking a temporary or permanent variance from such standard, or portion thereof, to be applicable to employment or places of employment in more than one State, including at least one State with an approved plan, may elect to apply to the Assistant Secretary for such variance under the provisions of 29 CFR part 1905.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by the Assistant Secretary with respect to such application for a variance, such as interim orders, with respect thereto, the granting, denying, or issuing any modification or extension thereof, will be deemed prospectively an authoritative interpretation of the employer or employers' compliance obligations with regard to the State standard, or portion thereof, identical to the Federal standard, or portion thereof, affected by the action in the employment or places of employment covered by the application.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing herein shall affect the option of an employer or employers seeking a temporary or permanent variance with applicability to employment or places of employment in more than one State to apply for such variance either to the Assistant Secretary or the individual State agencies involved. However, the filing with, as well as granting, denial, modification, or revocation of a variance request or interim order by, either authority (Federal or State) shall preclude any further substantive consideration of such application on the same material facts for the same employment or place of employment by the other authority.
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing herein shall affect either Federal or State authority and obligations to cite for noncompliance with standards in employment or places of employment where no interim order, variance, or modification or extension thereof, granted under State or Federal law applies, or to cite for noncompliance with such Federal or State variance action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 49902, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.9" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.2.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.9   Requirements for approval of State posters.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In order to inform employees of their protections and obligations under applicable State law, of the issues not covered by State law, and of the continuing availability of Federal monitoring under section 18(f) of the Act, States with approved plans shall develop and require employers to post a State poster meeting the requirements set out in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Such poster shall be substituted for the Federal poster under section 8(c)(1) of the Act and § 1903.2 of this chapter where the State attains operational status for the enforcement of State standards as defined in § 1954.3(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a State has distributed its poster and has enabling legislation as defined in § 1954.3(b)(1) of this chapter but becomes nonoperational under the provisions of § 1954.3(f)(1) of this chapter because of failure to be at least as effective as the Federal program, the approved State poster may, at the discretion of the Assistant Secretary, continue to be substituted for the Federal poster in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) A State may, for good cause shown, request, under 29 CFR part 1953, approval of an alternative to a State poster for informing employees of their protections and obligations under the State plans, provided such alternative is consistent with the Act, § 1902.4(c)(2)(iv) and applicable State law. In order to qualify as a substitute for the Federal poster under this paragraph (a), such alternative must be shown to be at least as effective as the Federal poster requirements in informing employees of their protections and obligations and address the items listed in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) In developing the poster, the State shall address but not be limited to the following items:
</P>
<P>(i) Responsibilities of the State, employers and employees;
</P>
<P>(ii) The right of employees or their representatives to request workplace inspections;
</P>
<P>(iii) The right of employees making such requests to remain anonymous;
</P>
<P>(iv) The right of employees to participate in inspections;
</P>
<P>(v) Provisions for prompt notice to employers and employees when alleged violations occur;
</P>
<P>(vi) Protection for employees against discharge or discrimination for the exercise of their rights under Federal and State law;
</P>
<P>(vii) Sanctions;
</P>
<P>(viii) A means of obtaining further information on State law and standards and the address of the State agency;
</P>
<P>(ix) The right to file complaints with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration about State program administration;
</P>
<P>(x) A list of the issues as defined in § 1902.2(c) which will not be covered by State plan;
</P>
<P>(xi) The address of the Regional Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Such additional employee protection provisions and obligations under State law as may have been included in the approved State plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Posting of the State poster shall be recognized as compliance with the posting requirements in section 8(c)(1) of the Act and § 1903.2 of this chapter, provided that the poster has been approved in accordance with subpart B of part 1953 of this chapter. Continued Federal recognition of the State poster is also subject to pertinent findings of effectiveness with regard to the State program under 29 CFR part 1954.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 49902, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Submission, Approval and Rejection of State Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.10" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.10   Submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An authorized representative of the State agency or agencies responsible for administering the plan shall submit one copy of the plan to the appropriate Assistant Regional Director of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor. The State plan shall include supporting papers conforming to the requirements specified in the subpart B of this part, and the State occupational safety and health standards to be included in the plan, including a copy of any specific or enabling State laws and regulations relating to such standards. If any of the representations concerning the requirements of subpart B of this part are dependent upon any judicial or administrative interpretations of the State standards or enforcement provisions, the State shall furnish citations to any pertinent judicial decisions and the text of any pertinent administrative decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of the State plan the Assistant Regional Director shall make a preliminary examination of the plan. If his examination reveals any defect in the plan, the Assistant Regional Director shall offer assistance to the State agency and shall provide the agency an opportunity to cure such defect. After his preliminary examination, and after affording the State agency such opportunity to cure defects, the Assistant Regional Director shall submit the plan to the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of the plan from the Assistant Regional Director, the Assistant Secretary shall examine the plan and supporting materials. If the examination discloses no cause for rejecting the plan, the Assistant Secretary shall follow the procedure prescribed in § 1902.11. If the examination discloses cause for rejection of the plan, the Assistant Secretary shall follow the procedure prescribed in § 1902.17.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 20751, Oct. 29, 1971, as amended at 80 FR 49903, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="9" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedure for Proposed or Possible Approval of Plan</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.11" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.11   General notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a State plan submitted by an Assistant Regional Director under § 1902.10 whenever the Assistant Secretary proposes to approve the plan, or to give notice that such approval is an issue before him, he shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice meeting the requirements of the remaining paragraphs of this section. No later than 5 days following the publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the applying State agency shall publish, or cause to be published, within the State reasonable notice containing the same information.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice shall indicate the submission of the plan and its contents, and any proposals, subjects, or issues involved.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice shall provide that the plan, or copies thereof, shall be available for inspection and copying at the office of the Director, Office of State Programs, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, office of the Assistant Regional Director in whose region the State is located, and an office of the State which shall be designated by the State for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(d) The notice shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit in writing, data, views, and arguments on the proposal, subjects, or issues involved within 30 days after publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Thereafter the written comments received or copies thereof shall be available for public inspection and copying at the office of the Director, Office of State Programs, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, office of the Assistant Regional Director in whose region the State is located, and an office of the State which shall be designated by the State for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon his own initiative, the Assistant Secretary may give notice of an informal or formal hearing affording an opportunity for oral comments concerning the plan.
</P>
<P>(f) In the event no notice of hearing is provided under paragraph (e) of this section it shall be provided that any interested person may request an informal hearing concerning the proposed plan, or any part thereof, whenever particularized written objections thereto are filed within 30 days following publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If the Assistant Secretary finds that substantial objections have been filed, he shall afford a formal or informal hearing on the subjects and issues involved under § 1902.13 or § 1902.14, or shall commence a proceeding under § 1902.17.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 20751, Oct. 29, 1971, as amended at 80 FR 49903, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.12" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.12   Opportunity for modifications and clarifications.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary may afford the State an opportunity to modify or clarify its plan on the basis of any comments received under § 1902.11 or § 1902.13, before commencing a proceeding to reject the plan. In this connection, the State may informally discuss any issues raised by such comments with the staff of the Office of Federal and State Operations. The Assistant Secretary may afford an additional opportunity for public comment, particularly when such an opportunity would not unduly delay final action on the plan and when the comments could be expected to elicit new relevant matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 12605, May 14, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.13" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.13   Informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any informal hearing shall be legislative in type. The procedures for informal hearings may take a variety of forms. The appropriateness of any particular form will turn largely upon the proposals, subjects, or issues involved. The rules of procedure for each hearing shall be published with the notice thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.14" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.14   Formal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any formal hearing provided for under § 1902.11 (e) and (f) shall be commenced upon the publication of reasonable notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and similar notice by the State. The hearing shall conform with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 556 and 557. The terms for filing proposed findings and conclusions and exceptions to any tentative decision, or objections to a tentative decision, shall be set forth in the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.15" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.15   Certification of the record of a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon completion of any formal or informal hearing, the transcript thereof, together with written submissions, exhibits filed during the hearing, and any post-hearing presentations shall be certified by the officer presiding at the hearing to the Assistant Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.16" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.16   Partial approval of State plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary may partially approve a plan under this part whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) The portion to be approved meets the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The plan covers more than one occupational safety and health issue; and
</P>
<P>(3) Portions of the plan to be approved are reasonably separable from the remainder of the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Assistant Secretary approves only a portion of a State plan, he may give notice to the State of an opportunity to show cause why a proceeding should not be commenced for disapproval of the remainder of the plan under subpart C of this part before commencing such a proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 49903, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedure for Proposed or Possible Rejection of Plan</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.17" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.10.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.17   The proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever as a result of (a) an initial examination of a plan, or (b) written or oral comments concerning a plan submitted in an informal rulemaking proceeding concerning a proposed approval of a plan or any subject or issue concerning the plan, the Assistant Secretary proposes to reject a plan or rejection remains in issue for any reason, he shall follow the procedures prescribed in the remaining sections of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.18" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.10.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.18   Previous hearing or other opportunity for comment on plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever an informal hearing has been held under §§ 1902.11 and 1902.13, any evidence submitted in such a hearing shall be considered and may be relied upon whenever it is found that no party will be prejudiced thereby because
</P>
<P>(1) Of a lack of an opportunity for cross-examination afforded in the informal hearing on the issues involved, or
</P>
<P>(2) The veracity and demeanor of witnesses are not important with respect to the type of evidence involved (e.g., extensive technical or statistical data), or
</P>
<P>(3) For any other reason.
</P>
<P>(b) Any written comments received in response to a notice issued under § 1902.11 shall be a part of the record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever a formal hearing has been held under § 1902.14 the Assistant Secretary shall hold no additional hearing, and shall proceed to issue a tentative decision under § 1902.21.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.19" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.10.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.19   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Assistant Secretary has issued no previous notice concerning the plan, or only informal rule making proceedings have been conducted concerning the plan, the Assistant Secretary shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> an appropriate notice concerning the plan and provide an opportunity for formal hearing and decision on the possible rejection of the plan and on any subsidiary issues. The notice also shall set forth such rules as may be necessary so as to assure compliance with 5 U.S.C. 556 and 557 in the conduct of the proceeding. The time for filing proposed findings and conclusions and exceptions to any tentative decision shall be set forth in the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) Not later than 5 days following the publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> required by paragraph (a) of this section, the applying State agency shall publish, or cause to be published, within the State reasonable notice containing the same information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="11" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.11" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.20" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.20   Decision following informal proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section deals with a situation where the Assistant Secretary has
</P>
<P>(1) Afforded interested persons an opportunity to submit written data, views, or arguments concerning a proposal, subject, or issue concerning a plan; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has in addition provided an informal hearing concerning a proposal, subject, or issue concerning a plan.
</P>
<P>(b)(1)(i) After consideration of all relevant information which has been presented, if the Assistant Secretary approves a plan he shall issue a decision to that effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the plan is approved under § 1902.2(b), the decision shall state that the plan does not fully meet the criteria set forth in § 1902.3, and shall summarize the schedule and any other measures for bringing the plan up to the level of such criteria.
</P>
<P>(iii) The decision shall also reflect the Assistant Secretary's intention as to continued Federal enforcement of Federal standards in areas covered by the plan. Provisions for continued Federal enforcement shall take into consideration:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Whether the plan is approved under § 1902.2(a) or § 1902.2(b);
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The schedule for coming up to Federal standards in any § 1902.2(b) plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Any other relevant matters.
</P>
<P>(2) After consideration of all relevant information contained in any written or oral comments received in any informal proceeding, if the Assistant Secretary proposes to disapprove a plan, or the disposition of a subject or issue permits the possible disapproval of a plan, he shall publish a notice to that effect, and commence a proceeding meeting the requirements of § 1902.19.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.21" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.21   Tentative decision following formal proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On the basis of the whole record of any hearing held under § 1902.14 or § 1902.19, the Assistant Secretary shall issue a tentative decision either approving or disapproving the plan. The tentative decision shall include a statement of the findings and conclusions and reasons or bases therefor on all material issues of fact, law, or discretion which have been presented. The tentative decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) The State agency and other interested persons participating in the hearing may waive the tentative decision. In such event the Assistant Secretary shall issue a final decision under § 1902.22.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.22" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.22   Final decision following formal proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except when interested persons participating in the hearing have waived the tentative decision under § 1902.21(b) interested persons participating in the hearing shall have an opportunity to file exceptions to a tentative decision and objections to such exceptions within periods of time to be specified in the tentative decision. An original and four copies of any exception or objections shall be filed.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Thereafter the Assistant Secretary shall issue a final decision ruling upon each exception and objection filed. The final decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(2) Any final decision approving a plan shall contain the provisions prescribed in § 1902.20(b)(1)(iii) concerning Federal enforcement in areas covered by the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.23" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.3.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.23   Publication of decisions.</HEAD>
<P>All decisions approving or disapproving a plan shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures for Determinations Under section 18(e) of the Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 54782, Nov. 26, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="12" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.12" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.30" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.30   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains procedures and criteria under which the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health (hereinafter referred to as the Assistant Secretary) under a delegation of authority from the Secretary of Labor (Secretary's Order 12-71, 36 FR 8754) will make his determination on whether to grant final approval to State plans in accordance with the provisions of section 18(e) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 667) (hereinafter referred to as the Act).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.31" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.31   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.)</I>
</P>
<P><I>Affirmative 18(e) determination</I> means an affirmative determination under section 18(e) of the Act that the State plan or any modification thereof, is in actual operation meeting the criteria and indices of section 18(c) of the Act and subpart B of this part so as to warrant the withdrawal of the application of discretionary Federal enforcement and standards authority from issues covered by the plan, or by any modification thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Regional Director</I> means the Assistant Regional Director for Occupational Safety and Health for the region in which a State is located.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of a case</I> under section 18(e) of the Act means, for the purpose of retaining Federal jurisdiction despite an affirmative 18(e) determination, the issuance of a citation, and in the case of an imminent danger, the initiation of enforcement proceedings under section 13 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of plan operations</I> means the beginning of operations under a plan following the approval of the plan by the Assistant Secretary and in no case may be later than the effective date of the initial funding grant provided under section 23(g) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Development step</I> includes, but is not limited to, those items listed in the published developmental schedule, or any revisions thereof, for each plan. A developmental step also includes those items specified in the plan as approved under section 18(c) of the Act for completion by the State, as well as those items which under the approval decision were subject to evaluations and changes deemed necessary as a result thereof to make the State program at least as effective as the Federal program within the 3 years developmental period. (See 29 CFR 1953.4(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Initial approval</I> means approval of a State plan, or any modification thereof, under section 18(c) of the Act and subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, organized group of individuals, or any agency, authority or instrumentality of the United States or of a State.
</P>
<P><I>Separable portion of a plan</I> for purposes of an 18(e) determination generally means more than one industrial, occupational or hazard grouping as defined in § 1902.2(c)(1) which is administratively practicable and reasonably separable from the remainder of the plan. (See 29 CFR 1952.6(a).)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 54782, Nov. 26, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 60128, Sept. 25, 2002; 80 FR 49903, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.32" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.32   General policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sections 18 (e) and (f) of the Act provide for the continuing evaluation and monitoring of State plans approved under section 18(c) of the Act. The Assistant Secretary's decision whether to grant an affirmative 18(e) determination will be based, in part, on the results of these evaluations. Section 18(e) provides that a period of not less than 3 years shall have passed before the Assistant Secretary may make a determination that the State program in actual operations is applying the criteria of section 18(c) of the Act. In the case of a developmental plan, § 1902.2(b) of this part requires that the Assistant Secretary must have at least one year in which to evaluate the plan's actual operations following the completion of all developmental steps specified in the plan. Thus, to be considered for an 18(e) determination, at least three years shall have passed following commencement of operations after the initial approval of a State's occupational safety and health plan by the Assistant Secretary. In the case of a developmental plan, at least one year shall have passed following the completion of all developmental steps, but, in any event, at least three years must have passed following initial approval of the plan before discretionary Federal enforcement authority and standards may be withdrawn from issues covered by an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(b) In making an 18(e) determination, the Assistant Secretary will determine if actual operations under a State's plan, or under a separable portion of the plan, indicate that the State is applying the criteria of section 18(c) of the Act and the indices of effectiveness of subpart B of this part in a manner which renders operations under the plan “at least as effective as” operations under the Federal program in providing safe and healthful employment and places of employment within the State. In making this determination, the Assistant Secretary may consider such information which he deems appropriate for an informed decision.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Assistant Secretary makes an affirmative 18(e) determination, the Federal enforcement provisions of sections 5(a) (2), 8 (except for the purposes of continuing evaluations under section 18(f) of the Act), 9, 10, 13 and 17 and standards promulgated under section 6 of the Act shall not apply with respect to those occupational safety and health issues covered under the plan which have been given an affirmative 18(e) determination. However, the Assistant Secretary may retain jurisdiction over proceedings commenced under sections 9, 10 and 13 of the Act before the date of his determination. In addition, the Assistant Secretary shall retain his jurisdiction under the anti-discrimination provisions of section 11(c) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Assistant Secretary determines that a State plan, or any portion thereof, has not met the criteria for an 18(e) determination, he shall retain his authority under the enforcement provisions of sections 5(a) (2), 8, 9, 10, 13, and 17 and his standards authority under section 6 of the Act in the issues found ineligible for an 18(e) determination. In addition, his decision may result in the commencement of proceedings for withdrawal of approval of the plan, or any separable portion thereof, under 29 CFR part 1955.
</P>
<P>(e) Once a State's plan, or any modification thereof, has been given an affirmative 18(e) determination, the State is required to maintain a program which will meet the requirements of section 18 (c) and will continue to be “at least as effective as” the Federal program operations in the issues covered by the determination. As the Federal program changes and thereby becomes more effective, the State is correspondingly required to adjust its program at a level which would provide a program for workplace safety and health which would be “at least as effective as” the improvements in the Federal program. A failure to comply with this requirement may result in the revocation of the affirmative 18(e) determination and the resumption of Federal enforcement and standards authority and/or in the commencement of proceedings for the withdrawal of approval of the plan, or any portion thereof, pursuant to 29 CFR part 1955.
</P>
<P>(f) The Assistant Secretary may reconsider and, if necessary, rescind or revoke all or a separable portion of an affirmative 18(e) determination and reinstate concurrent Federal enforcement authority if he finds that a State does not maintain its commitment to provide a program for employee safety and health protection meeting the requirements of section 18(c) of the Act. This authority is designed to be used in instances where operations under a State program are found to be less effective than under the Federal program because of unusual circumstances which are temporary in nature. The Assistant Secretary may also use this procedure to reinstate Federal enforcement authority in conjunction with plan withdrawal proceedings in order to ensure that there is no serious gap in his commitment to assure safe and healthful working conditions so far as possible for every employee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="13" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.13" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Completion of Developmental Steps—Certification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.33" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.33   Developmental period.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the commencement of plan operations after the initial approval of a State's plan by the Assistant Secretary, a State has three years in which to complete all of the developmental steps specified in the plan as approved. Section 1953.4 of this chapter sets forth the procedures for the submission and consideration of developmental changes by OSHA. Generally, whenever a State completes a developmental step, it must submit the resulting plan change as a supplement to its plan to OSHA for approval. OSHA's approval of such changes is then published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 49904, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.34" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.34   Certification of completion of developmental steps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the completion of all of the developmental steps in a State's plan, which is to be accomplished not later than three years following commencement of plan operations after approval of the plan by the Assistant Secretary under section 18(c), the Assistant Regional Director shall certify, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, that all developmental steps in the plan have been met and that the State's program is to be evaluated on the basis of its eligibility for an 18(e) determination after at least one year of evaluations of the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon determining that a State has completed all of its developmental steps, the Assistant Regional Director shall prepare a certification which he shall promptly forward to the Assistant Secretary. The certification shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following;
</P>
<P>(1) A list of all developmental steps or revisions thereof, plan amendments or changes which result in the completion of the steps or revisions thereof, and the dates the Assistant Secretary's or the Assistant Regional Director's approval of each change was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(2) Substantive changes, if any, in the State program which were approved by the Assistant Secretary and their dates of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation that the legal basis for the applicable State merit system has been approved by the U.S. Civil Service Commission and that the actual operations of the State merit system has been found acceptable by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration with the advice of the U.S. Civil Service Commission; and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the issues which are covered by the State plan. Where applicable, the certification shall include a description of those separable portions of the plan which have been certified for 18(e) evaluation purposes as well as those portions of the plan which were not certified by the Assistant Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(c) After a review of the certification and the State's plan, if the Assistant Secretary finds that the State has completed all the developmental steps specified in the plan, he shall publish the certification in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 54782, Nov. 26, 1975, as amended at 80 FR 49904, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.35" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.35   Effect of certification.</HEAD>
<P>Publication of the certification acknowledging the completion of all of the developmental steps in a State's plan will automatically initiate the evaluation of a State's plan for the purposes of an 18(e) determination. Evaluation for the purposes of an 18(e) determination will continue for at least one year after the publication of the certification in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Federal enforcement authority under sections 5(a)(2), 8, 9, 10, 11(c), 13, and 17 of the Act and Federal standards authority under section 6 of the Act will not be relinquished during the evaluation period. Evaluation conducted for 18(e) determination purposes will be based on the criteria set forth in §§ 1902.37 and 1902.38.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="14" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Basis for 18(<E T="01">e</E>) Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.36" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.14.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.36   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In making his evaluation of the actual operations of a State's plan for the purposes of an 18(e) determination, the Assistant Secretary shall consider all relevant data which will aid him in making an effective determination. In his evaluation he shall consider whether the requirements of section 18(c) of the Act and the criteria for State plans outlined in subpart B of this part as well as those in § 1902.37 are being applied in actual operations for a reasonable period of time in a manner which warrants the termination of concurrent Federal enforcement authority and standards in issues covered under the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary's evaluation for an 18(e) determination will be addressed to consideration of whether the criteria and indices in § 1902.37(a) are being applied by the State in such a manner as to render its program in operation at least as effective as operations under the Federal program. In considering the question of such application, the Assistant Secretary shall also consider the factors provided under § 1902.37(b). The Assistant Secretary's evaluation may include such other information on the application of the criteria and indices in § 1902.37 such as information developed from comments received from the public and the results of any hearings which may have been held under § 1902.40 concerning the proposed 18(e) determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.37" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.14.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.37   Factors for determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary shall determine if the State has applied and implemented all the specific criteria and indices of effectiveness of §§ 1902.3 and 1902.4 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether a State has applied the criteria and indices of effectiveness in paragraph (a) of this section in actual operations, the Assistant Secretary will, among other things related to the application of the criteria and indices, consider whether:
</P>
<P>(1) The State has a sufficient number of adequately trained and competent personnel to discharge its responsibilities under the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The State has adhered to the procedures which it has adopted and which have been approved either under the State plan or in State plan changes or under any other procedures for approval authorized by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) The State has timely adopted all Federal standards, and amendments thereto, for issues covered under the plan or has timely developed and promulgated standards which are at least as effective as the comparable Federal standards and amendments thereto.
</P>
<P>(4) If the State has adopted Federal standards, the State's interpretation and application of such standards have been consistent with the applicable Federal interpretation and application. Where the State has developed and promulgated its own standards, such standards have been interpreted and applied in a manner which is at least as effective as the interpretation and application of comparable Federal standards. This requirement acknowledges that State standards may have been approved by the Assistant Regional Director, but emphasizes the requirement that the standards are to be at least as effective as the comparable Federal standards in actual operations.
</P>
<P>(5) If any State standard, whether it is an adopted Federal standard or a standard developed by a State, has been subject to administrative or judicial challenge, the State has taken the necessary administrative, judicial or legislative action to correct any deficiencies in its program resulting from such challenge.
</P>
<P>(6) In granting permanent variances from a standard the State has assured that the employer provides conditions of employment which are as safe and healthful as those which would prevail if he complied with the standard.
</P>
<P>(7) In granting temporary variances from a standard, the State has ensured that the recipient of the variance has come into compliance with the standard as early as possible.
</P>
<P>(8) The State inspection program is being implemented in a manner which allows a sufficient allocation of resources to be directed toward target industries and target health hazards as designated by the State while providing adequate attention to all other workplaces covered under the plan, or any modification thereof.
</P>
<P>(9) The State exercises the authority through appropriate means, to enforce its right of entry and inspection wherever such right of entry or inspection is refused.
</P>
<P>(10) Inspections of workplaces are conducted by State inspectors in a competent manner, following approved enforcement procedures. This includes a requirement that the inspectors obtain adequate information to support any citations which may be issued.
</P>
<P>(11) The State issues citations, proposed penalties and notices for failure to abate in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(12) The State proposes penalties in a manner at least as effective as under the Federal program, including the proposing of penalties for first instance violations and the consideration of factors comparable to those required to be considered under the Federal program.
</P>
<P>(13) The State ensures the abatement of hazards for which a citation has been issued, including the issuance of notices of failure to abate and appropriate penalties.
</P>
<P>(14) Wherever appropriate, the State agency has sought administrative and judicial review of adverse adjudications. This factor also addresses whether the State has taken the appropriate and necessary administrative, legislative or judicial action to correct any deficiencies in its enforcement program resulting from an adverse administrative or judicial determination.
</P>
<P>(15) Insofar as it is available, analysis of the annual occupational safety and health survey by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, as well as of other available Federal and State measurements of program impact on worker safety and health, which analysis also takes into consideration various local factors, indicates that trends in worker safety and health injury and illness rates under the State program compare favorably to those under the Federal program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 54782, Nov. 26, 1975; 40 FR 58143, Dec. 15, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures for 18(<E T="01">e</E>) Determination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.38" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.38   Evaluation of plan following certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following the publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 1902.34 of the certification acknowledging the completion of all developmental steps specified in the plan, or any portion thereof, the Assistant Secretary will evaluate and monitor the actual operations under the State plan for at least 1 year before determining whether the State is eligible for an 18(e) determination. The evaluation will assess the actual operation of the State's fully implemented program in accordance with the criteria in § 1902.37 and take into account any information available to the Assistant Secretary affecting the State's program.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Regional Director shall prepare a semi-annual report of his evaluation of the actual operations under the State plan or any portion thereof in narrative form. The Assistant Regional Director's evaluation report will be transmitted to the Assistant Secretary who will then transmit the report to the State. The State shall be afforded an opportunity to respond to each evaluation report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 54782, Nov. 26, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 58746, Nov. 11, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.39" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.39   Completion of evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After evaluating the actual operations of the State plan, or any portion thereof, for at least 1 year following publication of the certification in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 1902.34, the Assistant Secretary shall notify the State whenever he determines that the State will be eligible for an 18(e) determination. In addition, a State may request an 18(e) determination following the evaluation period noted above. In no case shall this determination of eligibility be later than 2 years following the publication of the certification of the completion of developmental steps in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 1902.34. In the case of a plan which was not developmental, the determination of eligibility shall not be sooner than 3 years following the date of commencement of operations under the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) After it has been determined that a State will be eligible for an 18(e) determination, the Assistant Regional Director shall prepare a final report of his evaluation of the actual operations under a State's plan or portion thereof which may be subject to the 18(e) determination. The Assistant Regional Director's report shall be transmitted to the Assistant Secretary. The Assistant Secretary shall transmit such report to the State and the State shall have an opportunity to respond to the report.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever it has been determined that a State's plan, or separable portion thereof, is eligible for an 18(e) determination, the Assistant Secretary shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall meet the requirements of the remaining paragraphs of this section. No later than 10 days following the publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the affected State agency shall publish, or cause to be published, within the State, reasonable notice containing the same information.
</P>
<P>(d) The notice shall indicate that the plan, or any separable portion thereof, is in issue before the Assistant Secretary for a determination as to whether the criteria in section 18(c) of the Act are being applied in actual operation, and indicate the particular substantive issues, if any, for consideration in making such determination. Where a portion of a plan is in issue for such a determination, the notice shall specify such portions of the plan as well as those portions of the plan which are not in issue for the determination.
</P>
<P>(e) The notice shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit in writing, data, views, and arguments on the proposed 18(e) determination, and the affected State an opportunity to respond to such submissions.
</P>
<P>(f) The notice shall also state that any interested person or the affected State may request an informal hearing concerning the proposed 18(e) determination whenever particularized written objections thereto are filed within 35 days following publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(g) If the Assistant Secretary finds that substantial objections are filed which relate to the proposed 18(e) determination, the Assistant Secretary shall, and in any other case may, publish a notice of informal hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> not later than 30 days after the last day for filing written views or comments. The notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the time, place and nature of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A specification of the substantial issues which have been raised and on which an informal hearing has been requested;
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement for the filing of an intention to appear at the hearing, together with a statement of the position to be taken with regard to the issues specified, and of the evidence to be adduced in support of the position;
</P>
<P>(4) The designation of a presiding officer to conduct the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other appropriate provisions with regard to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(h) Not later than 10 days following the publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> required by paragraph (g) of this section, the affected agency shall publish, or cause to be published, within the State reasonable notice containing the same information.
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 43 FR 11196, Mar. 17, 1978, § 1902.39(a) was suspended indefinitely, effective Jan. 20, 1978.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.40" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.40   Informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any hearing conducted under this section shall be legislative in type. However, fairness may require an opportunity for cross-examination on pertinent issues. The presiding officer is empowered to permit cross-examination under such circumstances. The essential intent is to provide an opportunity for participation and comment by interested persons which can be carried out expeditiously and without rigid procedures which might unduly impede or protract the 18(e) determination process.
</P>
<P>(b) Although the hearing shall be informal and legislative in type, this section is intended to provide more than the bare essentials of informal proceedings under 5 U.S.C. 553. The additional requirements are the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The presiding officer shall be a hearing examiner appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer shall provide an opportunity for cross-examination on pertinent issues.
</P>
<P>(3) The hearing shall be reported verbatim, and a transcript shall be available to any interested person on such terms as the presiding officer may provide.
</P>
<P>(c) The officer presiding at a hearing shall have all the power necessary or appropriate to conduct a fair and full hearing, including the powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To regulate the course of the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(2) To dispose of procedural requests, objections, and comparable matters;
</P>
<P>(3) To confine the presentation to the issues specified in the notice of hearing, or, where appropriate, to matters pertinent to the issue before the Assistant Secretary;
</P>
<P>(4) To regulate the conduct of those present at the hearing by appropriate means;
</P>
<P>(5) To take official notice of material facts not appearing in the evidence in the record, as long as the parties are afforded an opportunity to show evidence to the contrary;
</P>
<P>(6) In his discretion, to keep the record open for a reasonable and specified time to receive additional written recommendations with supporting reasons and any additional data, views, and arguments from any person who has participated in the oral proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the completion of the oral presentations, the transcripts thereof, together with written submissions on the proceedings, exhibits filed during the hearing, and all posthearing comments, recommendations, and supporting reasons shall be certified by the officer presiding at the hearing to the Assistant Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.41" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.41   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within a reasonable time generally within 120 days after the expiration of the period provided for the submission of written data, views, and arguments on the issues on which no hearing is held, or within a reasonable time, generally not to exceed 120 days after the certification of the record of a hearing, the Assistant Secretary shall publish his decision in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> His decision shall state whether or not an affirmative 18(e) determination has been made for the State plan or any separable portion thereof, or whether he intends to withdraw approval of the plan or any portion thereof pursuant to part 1955 of this chapter. The action of the Assistant Secretary shall be taken after consideration of all information, including his evaluations of the actual operations of the plan, and information presented in written submissions and in any hearings held under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Any decision under this section shall incorporate a concise statement of its grounds and purpose and shall respond to any substantial issues which may have been raised in written submissions or at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) All decisions concerning the Assistant Secretary's determination under section 18(e) of the Act shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 54782, Nov. 26, 1975, as amended at 80 FR 49904, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.42" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.42   Effect of affirmative 18(e) determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In making an affirmative 18(e) determination, the Assistant Secretary determines that a State has applied the provisions of its plan, or any modification thereof, in accordance with the criteria of section 18(c) of the Act and that the State has applied the provisions of this part in a manner which renders the actual operations of the State program “at least as effective as” operations under the Federal program.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an affirmative 18(e) determination of a separable portion(s) of a plan, the Assistant Secretary determines that the State has applied the separable portion(s) of the plan in accordance with the criteria of section 18(c) of the Act in a manner comparable to Federal operations covering such portions and that the criteria of this part are being applied in a manner which renders the actual operations of such separable portion(s) of the State program “at least as effective as” operations of such portions under the Federal program.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon making an affirmative 18(e) determination, the standards promulgated under section 6 of the Act and the enforcement provisions of section 5(a)(2), 8 (except for the purpose of continuing evaluations under section 18(f) of the Act), 9, 10, 13 and 17 of the Act shall not apply with respect to those occupational safety and health issues covered under the plan for which an affirmative 18(e) determination has been granted. The Assistant Secretary shall retain his authority under the above sections for those issues covered in the plan which have not been granted an affirmative 18(e) determination.
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary will retain jurisdiction under the citation and contest provisions of sections 9 and 10 of the Act and the imminent-danger provisions of section 13 where such proceedings have been commenced prior to the date of his determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.43" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.43   Affirmative 18(e) decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In publishing his affirmative 18(e) decision in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the Assistant Secretary's notice shall include, but shall not be limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Those issues under the plan over which the Assistant Secretary is withdrawing his standards and enforcement authority;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the Assistant Secretary retains his authority under section 11(c) of the Act with regard to complaints alleging discrimination against employees because of the exercise of any right afforded to the employee by the Act;
</P>
<P>(3) An amendment to the appropriate section of part 1952 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the Assistant Secretary is not precluded from revoking his determination and reinstating his standards and enforcement authority under § 1902.47 <I>et seq.,</I> if his continuing evaluations under section 18(f) of the Act show that the State has substantially failed to maintain a program which is at least as effective as operations under the Federal program, or if the State does not submit program change supplements to its plan to the Assistant Secretary as required by 29 CFR part 1953.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 54782, Nov. 26, 1975, as amended at 80 FR 49904, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.44" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.44   Requirements applicable to State plans granted affirmative 18(e) determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State whose plan, or modification thereof, has been granted an affirmative 18(e) determination will be required to maintain a program within the scope of such determination which will be “at least as effective as” operations under the Federal program in providing employee safety and health protection at covered workplaces within the comparable scope of the Federal program. This requirement includes submitting all required reports to the Assistant Secretary, as well as submitting supplements to the Assistant Secretary for his approval whenever there is a change in the State's program, whenever the results of evaluations conducted under section 18(f) show that some portion of a State plan has an adverse impact on the operations of the State plan or whenever the Assistant Secretary determines that any alteration in the Federal program could have an adverse impact on the “at least as effective as” status of the State program. See part 1953 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) A substantial failure to comply with the requirements of this section may result in the revocation of the affirmative 18(e) determination and the resumption of Federal enforcement authority, and may also result in proceedings for the withdrawal of approval of the plan or any portion thereof pursuant to part 1955 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.45" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.45   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.46" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.15.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.46   Negative 18(e) determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section sets out the procedures which shall be followed whenever the Assistant Secretary determines that a State's plan, or any separate portion thereof, has not met the criteria for an affirmative 18(e) determination.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Assistant Secretary determines that a State plan, or a separable portion thereof, has not met the criteria of section 18(c) of the Act and that actual operations under the plan, or portion thereof, have not met the criteria for an affirmative determination set forth in § 1902.37, he shall retain his standards authority under section 6 of the Act and his enforcement authority under sections 5(a)(2), 8, 9, 10, 13, and 17 of the Act for those issues covered under the plan or such portions of the plan which were subject to his negative determination.
</P>
<P>(c) A decision under this section may result in the commencement of proceedings for withdrawal of approval of the plan or any separable portion thereof pursuant to part 1955 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Where the Assistant Secretary determines that operations under a State plan or any separable portion thereof have not met the criteria for an affirmative 18(e) determination, but are not of such a nature as to warrant the initiation of withdrawal proceedings, the Assistant Secretary may, at his discretion, afford the State a reasonable time to meet the criteria for an affirmative 18(e) determination after which time he may initiate proceedings for withdrawal of plan approval. This discretionary authority will be applied in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon determining that a State shall be subject to a final 18(e) determination, the Assistant Secretary shall notify the agency designated by the State to administer its program, within the State of his decision that the State's program, or a separable portion thereof, shall be subject to a final 18(e) determination. The Assistant Secretary shall give the State a reasonable time, generally not less than 1 year, in which to meet the criteria for an affirmative 18(e) determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary shall also publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> outlining his reasons for not making an affirmative 18(e) determination at the time. The notice will also set forth the reasonable time the State was granted to meet the criteria for an affirmative 18(e) determination and set forth such conditions as the Assistant Secretary deems proper for the continuation of the State's plan or such portions subject to this action.
</P>
<P>(3) The State shall be afforded an opportunity to agree to the conditions of the Assistant Secretary's decision.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon the expiration of the time granted to a State to meet the criteria for an affirmative 18(e) determination under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the Assistant Secretary may initiate proceedings to determine whether a State shall be granted an affirmative 18(e) determination. The procedures outlined in this subpart shall be applicable to any proceedings initiated under this paragraph.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="16" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.16" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedure for Reconsideration and Revocation of an Affirmative 18(<E T="01">e</E>) Determination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.47" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.16.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.47   Reconsideration of an affirmative 18(e) determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary may at any time reconsider on his own initiative or on petition of an interested person his decision granting an affirmative 18(e) determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Such reconsideration shall be based on results of his continuing evaluation of a State plan after it has been granted an affirmative 18(e) determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.48" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.16.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.48   The proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever, as a result of his reconsideration, the Assistant Secretary proposes to revoke his affirmative 18(e) determination, he shall follow the procedures in the remaining sections of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.49" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.16.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.49   General notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Assistant Secretary proposes to revoke an affirmative 18(e) determination, he shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> meeting the requirements of the remaining paragraphs of this section. No later than 10 days following the publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the affected State agency shall publish, or cause to be published, reasonable notice within the State containing the same information.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice shall indicate the reasons for the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice shall afford interested persons including the affected State, an opportunity to submit in writing, data, views, and arguments on the proposal within 35 days after publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall also provide that any interested person may request an informal hearing concerning the proposed revocation whenever particularized written objections thereto are filed within 35 days following publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If the Assistant Secretary finds that substantial objections have been filed, he shall afford an informal hearing on the proposed revocation under § 1902.50.
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary may, upon his own initiative, give notice of an informal hearing affording an opportunity for oral comments concerning the proposed revocation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.50" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.16.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.50   Informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any informal hearing shall be legislative in type. The rules of procedure for each hearing shall be those contained in § 1902.40 and will be published with the notice thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.51" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.16.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.51   Certification of the records of a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon completion of an informal hearing, the transcript thereof, together with written submissions, exhibits filed during the hearing, and any post-hearing presentations shall be certified by the officer presiding at the hearing to the Assistant Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.52" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.16.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.52   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After consideration of all relevant information which has been presented, the Assistant Secretary shall issue a decision on the continuation or revocation of the affirmative 18(e) determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision revoking the determination shall also reflect the Assistant Secretary's determination that concurrent Federal enforcement and standards authority will be reinstated within the State for a reasonable time until he has withdrawn his approval of the plan, or any separable portion thereof, pursuant to part 1955 of this chapter or he has determined that the State has met the criteria for an 18(e) determination pursuant to the applicable procedures of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1902.53" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.2.4.16.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1902.53   Publication of decisions.</HEAD>
<P>All decisions on the reconsideration of an affirmative 18(e) determination shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1903" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1903—INSPECTIONS, CITATIONS AND PROPOSED PENALTIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393); and 5 U.S.C. 553.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1903.1" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (84 Stat. 1590 <I>et seq.,</I> 29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>) requires, in part, that every employer covered under the Act furnish to his employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees. The Act also requires that employers comply with occupational safety and health standards promulgated under the Act, and that employees comply with standards, rules, regulations and orders issued under the Act which are applicable to their own actions and conduct. The Act authorizes the Department of Labor to conduct inspections, and to issue citations and proposed penalties for alleged violations. The Act, under section 20(b), also authorizes the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare to conduct inspections and to question employers and employees in connection with research and other related activities. The Act contains provisions for adjudication of violations, periods prescribed for the abatement of violations, and proposed penalties by the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission, if contested by an employer or by an employee or authorized representative of employees, and for judicial review. The purpose of this part 1903 is to prescribe rules and to set forth general policies for enforcement of the inspection, citation, and proposed penalty provisions of the Act. In situations where this part 1903 sets forth general enforcement policies rather than substantive or procedural rules, such policies may be modified in specific circumstances where the Secretary or his designee determines that an alternative course of action would better serve the objectives of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.2" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.2   Posting of notice; availability of the Act, regulations and applicable standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each employer shall post and keep posted a notice or notices, to be furnished by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, informing employees of the protections and obligations provided for in the Act, and that for assistance and information, including copies of the Act and of specific safety and health standards, employees should contact the employer or the nearest office of the Department of Labor. Such notice or notices shall be posted by the employer in each establishment in a conspicuous place or places where notices to employees are customarily posted. Each employer shall take steps to insure that such notices are not altered, defaced, or covered by other material.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a State has an approved poster informing employees of their protections and obligations as defined in § 1902.9 of this chapter, such poster, when posted by employers covered by the State plan, shall constitute compliance with the posting requirements of section 8(c)(1) of the Act. Employers whose operations are not within the issues covered by the State plan must comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Reproductions or facsimiles of such Federal or State posters shall constitute compliance with the posting requirements of section 8(c)(1) of the Act where such reproductions or facsimiles are at least 8
<FR>1/2</FR> inches by 14 inches, and the printing size is at least 10 pt. Whenever the size of the poster increases, the size of the print shall also increase accordingly. The caption or heading on the poster shall be in large type, generally not less than 36 pt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment</I> means a single physical location where business is conducted or where services or industrial operations are performed. (For example: A factory, mill, store, hotel, restaurant, movie theatre, farm, ranch, bank, sales office, warehouse, or central administrative office.) Where distinctly separate activities are performed at a single physical location (such as contract construction activities from the same physical location as a lumber yard), each activity shall be treated as a separate physical establishment, and a separate notice or notices shall be posted in each such establishment, to the extent that such notices have been furnished by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor. Where employers are engaged in activities which are physically dispersed, such as agriculture, construction, transportation, communications, and electric, gas and sanitary services, the notice or notices required by this section shall be posted at the location to which employees report each day. Where employees do not usually work at, or report to, a single establishment, such as longshoremen, traveling salesmen, technicians, engineers, etc., such notice or notices shall be posted at the location from which the employees operate to carry out their activities. In all cases, such notice or notices shall be posted in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Copies of the Act, all regulations published in this chapter and all applicable standards will be available at all Area Offices of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor. If an employer has obtained copies of these materials, he shall make them available upon request to any employee or his authorized representative for review in the establishment where the employee is employed on the same day the request is made or at the earliest time mutually convenient to the employee or his authorized representative and the employer.
</P>
<P>(d) Any employer failing to comply with the provisions of this section shall be subject to citation and penalty in accordance with the provisions of § 1903.15(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, as amended at 39 FR 39036, Nov. 5, 1974; 80 FR 49904, Aug. 18, 2015; 81 FR 43452, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.3" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.3   Authority for inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Compliance Safety and Health Officers of the Department of Labor are authorized to enter without delay and at reasonable times any factory, plant, establishment, construction site, or other area, workplace or environment where work is performed by an employee of an employer; to inspect and investigate during regular working hours and at other reasonable times, and within reasonable limits and in a reasonable manner, any such place of employment, and all pertinent conditions, structures, machines, apparatus, devices, equipment and materials therein; to question privately any employer, owner, operator, agent or employee; and to review records required by the Act and regulations published in this chapter, and other records which are directly related to the purpose of the inspection. Representatives of the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare are authorized to make inspections and to question employers and employees in order to carry out the functions of the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare under the Act. Inspections conducted by Department of Labor Compliance Safety and Health Officers and representatives of the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare under section 8 of the Act and pursuant to this part 1903 shall not affect the authority of any State to conduct inspections in accordance with agreements and plans under section 18 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to inspecting areas containing information which is classified by an agency of the United States Government in the interest of national security, Compliance Safety and Health Officers shall have obtained the appropriate security clearance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.4" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.4   Objection to inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon a refusal to permit the Compliance Safety and Health Officer, in exercise of his official duties, to enter without delay and at reasonable times any place of employment or any place therein, to inspect, to review records, or to question any employer, owner, operator, agent, or employee, in accordance with § 1903.3 or to permit a representative of employees to accompany the Compliance Safety and Health Officer during the physical inspection of any workplace in accordance with § 1903.8, the Safety and Health Officer shall terminate the inspection or confine the inspection to other areas, conditions, structures, machines, apparatus, devices, equipment, materials, records, or interviews concerning which no objection is raised. The Compliance Safety and Health Officer shall endeavor to ascertain the reason for such refusal, and shall immediately report the refusal and the reason therefor to the Area Director. The Area Director shall consult with the Regional Solicitor, who shall take appropriate action, including compulsory process, if necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) Compulsory process shall be sought in advance of an attempted inspection or investigation if, in the judgment of the Area Director and the Regional Solicitor, circumstances exist which make such preinspection process desirable or necessary. Some examples of circumstances in which it may be desirable or necessary to seek compulsory process in advance of an attempt to inspect or investigate include (but are not limited to):
</P>
<P>(1) When the employer's past practice either implicitly or explicitly puts the Secretary on notice that a warrantless inspection will not be allowed;
</P>
<P>(2) When an inspection is scheduled far from the local office and procuring a warrant prior to leaving to conduct the inspection would avoid, in case of refusal of entry, the expenditure of significant time and resources to return to the office, obtain a warrant and return to the worksite;
</P>
<P>(3) When an inspection includes the use of special equipment or when the presence of an expert or experts is needed in order to properly conduct the inspection, and procuring a warrant prior to an attempt to inspect would alleviate the difficulties or costs encountered in coordinating the availability of such equipment or expert.
</P>
<P>(c) With the approval of the Regional Administrator and the Regional Solicitor, compulsory process may also be obtained by the Area Director or his designee.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, the term compulsory process shall mean the institution of any appropriate action, including <I>ex parte</I> application for an inspection warrant or its equivalent. <I>Ex parte</I> inspection warrants shall be the preferred form of compulsory process in all circumstances where compulsory process is relied upon to seek entry to a workplace under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65923, Oct. 3, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.5" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.5   Entry not a waiver.</HEAD>
<P>Any permission to enter, inspect, review records, or question any person, shal not imply or be conditioned upon a waiver of any cause of action, citation, or penalty under the Act. Compliance Safety and Health Officers are not authorized to grant any such waiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.6" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.6   Advance notice of inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Advance notice of inspections may not be given, except in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) In cases of apparent imminent danger, to enable the employer to abate the danger as quickly as possible;
</P>
<P>(2) In circumstances where the inspection can most effectively be conducted after regular business hours or where special preparations are necessary for an inspection;
</P>
<P>(3) Where necessary to assure the presence of representatives of the employer and employees or the appropriate personnel needed to aid in the inspection; and
</P>
<P>(4) In other circumstances where the Area Director determines that the giving of advance notice would enhance the probability of an effective and thorough inspection.
</P>
<P>(b) In the situations described in paragraph (a) of this section, advance notice of inspections may be given only if authorized by the Area Director, except that in cases of apparent imminent danger, advance notice may be given by the Compliance Safety and Health Officer without such authorization if the Area Director is not immediately available. When advance notice is given, it shall be the employer's responsibility promptly to notify the authorized representative of employees of the inspection, if the identity of such representative is known to the employer. (See § 1903.8(b) as to situations where there is no authorized representative of employees.) Upon the request of the employer, the Compliance Safety and Health Officer will inform the authorized representative of employees of the inspection, provided that the employer furnishes the Compliance Safety and Health Officer with the identity of such representative and with such other information as is necessary to enable him promptly to inform such representative of the inspection. An employer who fails to comply with his obligation under this paragraph promptly to inform the authorized representative of employees of the inspection or to furnish such information as is necessary to enable the Compliance Safety and Health Officer promptly to inform such representative of the inspection, may be subject to citation and penalty in accordance with § 1903.15(d)(4). Advance notice in any of the situations described in paragraph (a) of this section shall not be given more than 24 hours before the inspection is scheduled to be conducted, except in apparent imminent danger situations and in other unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) The Act provides in section 17(f) that any person who gives advance notice of any inspection to be conducted under the Act, without authority from the Secretary or his designees, shall, upon conviction, be punished by fine of not more than $1,000 or by imprisonment for not more than 6 months, or by both.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, as amended at 81 FR 43452, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.7" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.7   Conduct of inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the provisions of § 1903.3, inspections shall take place at such times and in such places of employment as the Area Director or the Compliance Safety and Health Officer may direct. At the beginning of an inspection, Compliance Safety and Health Officers shall present their credentials to the owner, operator, or agent in charge at the establishment; explain the nature and purpose of the inspection; and indicate generally the scope of the inspection and the records specified in § 1903.3 which they wish to review. However, such designation of records shall not preclude access to additional records specified in § 1903.3.
</P>
<P>(b) Compliance Safety and Health Officers shall have authority to take environmental samples and to take or obtain photographs related to the purpose of the inspection, employ other reasonable investigative techniques, and question privately any employer, owner, operator, agent or employee of an establishment. (See § 1903.9 on trade secrets.) As used herein, the term <I>employ other reasonable investigative techniques</I> includes, but is not limited to, the use of devices to measure employee exposures and the attachment of personal sampling equipment such as dosimeters, pumps, badges and other similar devices to employees in order to monitor their exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) In taking photographs and samples, Compliance Safety and Health Officers shall take reasonable precautions to insure that such actions with flash, spark-producing, or other equipment would not be hazardous. Compliance Safety and Health Officers shall comply with all employer safety and health rules and practices at the establishment being inspected, and they shall wear and use appropriate protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(d) The conduct of inspections shall be such as to preclude unreasonable disruption of the operations of the employer's establishment.
</P>
<P>(e) At the conclusion of an inspection, the Compliance Safety and Health Officer shall confer with the employer or his representative and informally advise him of any apparent safety or health violations disclosed by the inspection. During such conference, the employer shall be afforded an opportunity to bring to the attention of the Compliance Safety and Health Officer any pertinent information regarding conditions in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(f) Inspections shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 14, 1971, as amended at 47 FR 6533, Feb. 12, 1982; 47 FR 55481, Dec. 10, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.8" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.8   Representatives of employers and employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Compliance Safety and Health Officers shall be in charge of inspections and questioning of persons. A representative of the employer and a representative authorized by his employees shall be given an opportunity to accompany the Compliance Safety and Health Officer during the physical inspection of any workplace for the purpose of aiding such inspection. A Compliance Safety and Health Officer may permit additional employer representatives and additional representatives authorized by employees to accompany him where he determines that such additional representatives will further aid the inspection. A different employer and employee representative may accompany the Compliance Safety and Health Officer during each different phase of an inspection if this will not interfere with the conduct of the inspection.
</P>
<P>(b) Compliance Safety and Health Officers shall have authority to resolve all disputes as to who is the representative authorized by the employer and employees for the purpose of this section. If there is no authorized representative of employees, or if the Compliance Safety and Health Officer is unable to determine with reasonable certainty who is such representative, he shall consult with a reasonable number of employees concerning matters of safety and health in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(c) The representative(s) authorized by employees may be an employee of the employer or a third party. When the representative(s) authorized by employees is not an employee of the employer, they may accompany the Compliance Safety and Health Officer during the inspection if, in the judgment of the Compliance Safety and Health Officer, good cause has been shown why accompaniment by a third party is reasonably necessary to the conduct of an effective and thorough physical inspection of the workplace (including but not limited to because of their relevant knowledge, skills, or experience with hazards or conditions in the workplace or similar workplaces, or language or communication skills).










</P>
<P>(d) Compliance Safety and Health Officers are authorized to deny the right of accompaniment under this section to any person whose conduct interferes with a fair and orderly inspection. The right of accompaniment in areas containing trade secrets shall be subject to the provisions of § 1903.9(d). With regard to information classified by an agency of the U.S. Government in the interest of national security, only persons authorized to have access to such information may accompany a Compliance Safety and Health Officer in areas containing such information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, as amended at 89 FR 22601, Apr. 1, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.9" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.9   Trade secrets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 15 of the Act provides: “All information reported to or otherwise obtained by the Secretary or his representative in connection with any inspection or proceeding under this Act which contains or which might reveal a trade secret referred to in section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code shall be considered confidential for the purpose of that section, except that such information may be disclosed to other officers or employees concerned with carrying out this Act or when relevant in any proceeding under this Act. In any such proceeding the Secretary, the Commission, or the court shall issue such orders as may be appropriate to protect the confidentiality of trade secrets.” Section 15 of the Act is considered a statute within the meaning of section 552(b)(3) of title 5 of the United States Code, which exempts from the disclosure requirements matters that are “specifically exempted from disclosure by statute.”
</P>
<P>(b) Section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code provides: “Whoever, being an officer or employee of the United States or of any department or agency thereof, publishes, divulges, discloses, or makes known in any manner or to any extent not authorized by law any information coming to him in the course of his employment or official duties or by reason of any examination or investigation made by, or return, report or record made to or filed with, such department or agency or officer or employee thereof, which information concerns or relates to the trade secrets, processes, operations, style of work, or apparatus, or to the identity, confidential statistical data, amount or source of any income, profits, losses, or expenditures of any person, firm, partnership, corporation, or association; or permits any income return or copy thereof or any book containing any abstract or particulars thereof to be seen or examined by any person except as provided by law; shall be fined not more than $1,000, or imprisoned not more than 1 year, or both; and shall be removed from office or employment.”
</P>
<P>(c) At the commencement of an inspection, the employer may identify areas in the establishment which contain or which might reveal a trade secret. If the Compliance Safety and Health Officer has no clear reason to question such identification, information obtained in such areas, including all negatives and prints of photographs, and environmental samples, shall be labeled “confidential—trade secret” and shall not be disclosed except in accordance with the provisions of section 15 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the request of an employer, any authorized representative of employees under § 1903.8 in an area containing trade secrets shall be an employee in that area or an employee authorized by the employer to enter that area. Where there is no such representative or employee, the Compliance Safety and Health Officer shall consult with a reasonable number of employees who work in that area concerning matters of safety and health.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.10" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.10   Consultation with employees.</HEAD>
<P>Compliance Safety and Health Officers may consult with employees concerning matters of occupational safety and health to the extent they deem necessary for the conduct of an effective and thorough inspection. During the course of an inspection, any employee shall be afforded an opportunity to bring any violation of the Act which he has reason to believe exists in the workplace to the attention of the Compliance Safety and Health Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.11" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.11   Complaints by employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employee or representative of employees who believe that a violation of the Act exists in any workplace where such employee is employed may request an inspection of such workplace by giving notice of the alleged violation to the Area Director or to a Compliance Safety and Health Officer. Any such notice shall be reduced to writing, shall set forth with reasonable particularity the grounds for the notice, and shall be signed by the employee or representative of employees. A copy shall be provided the employer or his agent by the Area Director or Compliance Safety and Health Officer no later than at the time of inspection, except that, upon the request of the person giving such notice, his name and the names of individual employees referred to therein shall not appear in such copy or on any record published, released, or made available by the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If upon receipt of such notification the Area Director determines that the complaint meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, and that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the alleged violation exists, he shall cause an inspection to be made as soon as practicable, to determine if such alleged violation exists. Inspections under this section shall not be limited to matters referred to in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to or during any inspection of a workplace, any employee or representative of employees employed in such workplace may notify the Compliance Safety and Health Officer, in writing, of any violation of the Act which they have reason to believe exists in such workplace. Any such notice shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 11(c)(1) of the Act provides: “No person shall discharge or in any manner discriminate against any employee because such employee has filed any complaint or instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to this Act or has testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding or because of the exercise by such employee on behalf of himself or others of any right afforded by this Act.”
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1218-0064) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1973, as amended at 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.12" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.12   Inspection not warranted; informal review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Area Director determines that an inspection is not warranted because there are no reasonable grounds to believe that a violation or danger exists with respect to a complaint under § 1903.11, he shall notify the complaining party in writing of such determination. The complaining party may obtain review of such determination by submitting a written statement of position with the Assistant Regional Director and, at the same time, providing the employer with a copy of such statement by certified mail. The employer may submit an opposing written statement of position with the Assistant Regional Director and, at the same time, provide the complaining party with a copy of such statement by certified mail. Upon the request of the complaining party or the employer, the Assistant Regional Director, at his discretion, may hold an informal conference in which the complaining party and the employer may orally present their views. After considering all written and oral views presented, the Assistant Regional Director shall affirm, modify, or reverse the determination of the Area Director and furnish the complaining party and the employer and written notification of this decision and the reasons therefor. The decision of the Assistant Regional Director shall be final and not subject to further review.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Area Director determines that an inspection is not warranted because the requirements of § 1903.11(a) have not been met, he shall notify the complaining party in writing of such determination. Such determination shall be without prejudice to the filing of a new complaint meeting the requirements of § 1903.11(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.13" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.13   Imminent danger.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever and as soon as a Compliance Safety and Health Officer concludes on the basis of an inspection that conditions or practices exist in any place of employment which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the imminence of such danger can be eliminated through the enforcement procedures otherwise provided by the Act, he shall inform the affected employees and employers of the danger and that he is recommending a civil action to restrain such conditions or practices and for other appropriate relief in accordance with the provisions of section 13(a) of the Act. Appropriate citations and notices of proposed penalties may be issued with respect to an imminent danger even though, after being informed of such danger by the Compliance Safety and Health Officer, the employer immediately eliminates the imminence of the danger and initiates steps to abate such danger.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.14" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.14   Citations; notices of de minimis violations; policy regarding employee rescue activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Area Director shall review the inspection report of the Compliance Safety and Health Officer. If, on the basis of the report the Area Director believes that the employer has violated a requirement of section 5 of the Act, of any standard, rule or order promulgated pursuant to section 6 of the Act, or of any substantive rule published in this chapter, he shall, if appropriate, consult with the Regional Solicitor, and he shall issue to the employer either a citation or a notice of de minimis violations which have no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health. An appropriate citation or notice of de minimis violations shall be issued even though after being informed of an alleged violation by the Compliance Safety and Health Officer, the employer immediately abates, or initiates steps to abate, such alleged violation. Any citation or notice of de minimis violations shall be issued with reasonable promptness after termination of the inspection. No citation may be issued under this section after the expiration of 6 months following the occurrence of any alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(b) Any citation shall describe with particularity the nature of the alleged violation, including a reference to the provision(s) of the Act, standard, rule, regulation, or order alleged to have been violated. Any citation shall also fix a reasonable time or times for the abatement of the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(c) If a citation or notice of de minimis violations is issued for a violation alleged in a request for inspection under § 1903.11(a) or a notification of violation under § 1903.11(c), a copy of the citation or notice of de minimis violations shall also be sent to the employee or representative of employees who made such request or notification.
</P>
<P>(d) After an inspection, if the Area Director determines that a citation is not warranted with respect to a danger or violation alleged to exist in a request for inspection under § 1903.11(a) or a notification of violation under § 1903.11(c), the informal review procedures prescribed in § 1903.12(a) shall be applicable. After considering all views presented, the Assistant Regional Director shall affirm the determination of the Area Director, order a reinspection, or issue a citation if he believes that the inspection disclosed a violation. The Assistant Regional Director shall furnish the complaining party and the employer with written notification of his determination and the reasons therefor. The determination of the Assistant Regional Director shall be final and not subject to review.
</P>
<P>(e) Every citation shall state that the issuance of a citation does not constitute a finding that a violation of the Act has occurred unless there is a failure to contest as provided for in the Act or, if contested, unless the citation is affirmed by the Review Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) No citation may be issued to an employer because of a rescue activity undertaken by an employee of that employer with respect to an individual in imminent danger unless:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Such employee is designated or assigned by the employer to have responsibility to perform or assist in rescue operations, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer fails to provide protection of the safety and health of such employee, including failing to provide appropriate training and rescue equipment; or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Such employee is directed by the employer to perform rescue activities in the course of carrying out the employee's job duties, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer fails to provide protection of the safety and health of such employee, including failing to provide appropriate training and rescue equipment; or
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Such employee is employed in a workplace that requires the employee to carry out duties that are directly related to a workplace operation where the likelihood of life-threatening accidents is foreseeable, such as a workplace operation where employees are located in confined spaces or trenches, handle hazardous waste, respond to emergency situations, perform excavations, or perform construction over water; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such employee has not been designated or assigned to perform or assist in rescue operations and voluntarily elects to rescue such an individual; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer has failed to instruct employees not designated or assigned to perform or assist in rescue operations of the arrangements for rescue, not to attempt rescue, and of the hazards of attempting rescue without adequate training or equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this policy, the term “imminent danger” means the existence of any condition or practice that could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm before such condition or practice can be abated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, as amended at 59 FR 66613, Dec. 27, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.14a" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.14a   Petitions for modification of abatement date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer may file a petition for modification of abatement date when he has made a good faith effort to comply with the abatement requirements of a citation, but such abatement has not been completed because of factors beyond his reasonable control.
</P>
<P>(b) A petition for modification of abatement date shall be in writing and shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All steps taken by the employer, and the dates of such action, in an effort to achieve compliance during the prescribed abatement period.
</P>
<P>(2) The specific additional abatement time necessary in order to achieve compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) The reasons such additional time is necessary, including the unavailability of professional or technical personnel or of materials and equipment, or because necessary construction or alteration of facilities cannot be completed by the original abatement date.
</P>
<P>(4) All available interim steps being taken to safeguard the employees against the cited hazard during the abatement period.
</P>
<P>(5) A certification that a copy of the petition has been posted and, if appropriate, served on the authorized representative of affected employees, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section and a certification of the date upon which such posting and service was made.
</P>
<P>(c) A petition for modification of abatement date shall be filed with the Area Director of the United States Department of Labor who issued the citation no later than the close of the next working day following the date on which abatement was originally required. A later-filed petition shall be accompanied by the employer's statement of exceptional circumstances explaining the delay.
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of such petition shall be posted in a conspicuous place where all affected employees will have notice thereof or near such location where the violation occurred. The petition shall remain posted for a period of ten (10) working days. Where affected employees are represented by an authorized representative, said representative shall be served with a copy of such petition.
</P>
<P>(2) Affected employees or their representatives may file an objection in writing to such petition with the aforesaid Area Director. Failure to file such objection within ten (10) working days of the date of posting of such petition or of service upon an authorized representative shall constitute a waiver of any further right to object to said petition.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary or his duly authorized agent shall have the authority to approve any petition for modification of abatement date filed pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Such uncontested petitions shall become final orders pursuant to sections 10 (a) and (c) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary or his authorized representative shall not exercise his approval power until the expiration of fifteen (15) working days from the date the petition was posted or served pursuant to paragraphs (c) (1) and (2) of this section by the employer.
</P>
<P>(d) Where any petition is objected to by the Secretary or affected employees, the petition, citation, and any objections shall be forwarded to the Commission within three (3) working days after the expiration of the fifteen (15) day period set out in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 6334, Feb. 11, 1975; 40 FR 11351, Mar. 11, 1975]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.15" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.15   Proposed penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After, or concurrent with, the issuance of a citation, and within a reasonable time after the termination of the inspection, the Area Director shall notify the employer by certified mail or by personal service by the Compliance Safety and Health Officer of the proposed penalty in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, or that no penalty is being proposed. Any notice of proposed penalty shall state that the proposed penalty shall be deemed to be the final order of the Review Commission and not subject to review by any court or agency unless, within 15 working days from the date of receipt of such notice, the employer notifies the Area Director in writing that he intends to contest the citation or the notification of proposed penalty before the Review Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The Area Director shall determine the amount of any proposed penalty, giving due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the size of the business of the employer being charged, the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the employer, and the history of previous violations, in accordance with the provisions of section 17 of the Act and paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Appropriate penalties may be proposed with respect to an alleged violation even though after being informed of such alleged violation by the Compliance Safety and Health Officer, the employer immediately abates, or initiates steps to abate, such alleged violation. Penalties shall not be proposed for de minimis violations which have no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjusted civil monetary penalties.</I> The adjusted civil penalties for penalties proposed after January 15, 2025 are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Willful violation.</I> The penalty per willful violation under section 17(a) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 666(a), shall not be less than $11,823 and shall not exceed $165,514.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Repeated violation.</I> The penalty per repeated violation under section 17(a) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 666(a), shall not exceed $165,514.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Serious violation.</I> The penalty for a serious violation under section 17(b) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 666(b), shall not exceed $16,550.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other-than-serious violation.</I> The penalty for an other-than-serious violation under section 17(c) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 666(c), shall not exceed $16,550.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Failure to correct violation.</I> The penalty for a failure to correct a violation under section 17(d) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 666(d), shall not exceed $16,550 per day.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Posting requirement violation.</I> The penalty for a posting requirement violation under section 17(i) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 666(i), shall not exceed $16,550.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, as amended at 81 FR 43453, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 5382, Jan. 18, 2017; 83 FR 14, Jan. 2, 2018; 84 FR 219, Jan. 23, 2019; 85 FR 2298, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2969, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 2336, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2217, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1817, Jan. 11, 2024; 90 FR 1861, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.16" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.16   Posting of citations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of any citation under the Act, the employer shall immediately post such citation, or a copy thereof, unedited, at or near each place an alleged violation referred to in the citation occurred, except as provided below. Where, because of the nature of the employer's operations, it is not practicable to post the citation at or near each place of alleged violation, such citation shall be posted, unedited, in a prominent place where it will be readily observable by all affected employees. For example, where employers are engaged in activities which are physically dispersed (see § 1903.2(b)), the citation may be posted at the location to which employees report each day. Where employees do not primarily work at or report to a single location (see § 1903.2(b)), the citation may be posted at the location from which the employees operate to carry out their activities. The employer shall take steps to ensure that the citation is not altered, defaced, or covered by other material. Notices of de minimis violations need not be posted.
</P>
<P>(b) Each citation, or a copy thereof, shall remain posted until the violation has been abated, or for 3 working days, whichever is later. The filing by the employer of a notice of intention to contest under § 1903.17 shall not affect his posting responsibility under this section unless and until the Review Commission issues a final order vacating the citation.
</P>
<P>(c) An employer to whom a citation has been issued may post a notice in the same location where such citation is posted indicating that the citation is being contested before the Review Commission, and such notice may explain the reasons for such contest. The employer may also indicate that specified steps have been taken to abate the violation.
</P>
<P>(d) Any employer failing to comply with the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall be subject to citation and penalty in accordance with § 1903.15(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, as amended at 81 FR 43453, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.17" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.17   Employer and employee contests before the Review Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employer to whom a citation or notice of proposed penalty has been issued may, under section 10(a) of the Act, notify the Area Director in writing that he intends to contest such citation or proposed penalty before the Review Commission. Such notice of intention to contest shall be postmarked within 15 working days of the receipt by the employer of the notice of proposed penalty. Every notice of intention to contest shall specify whether it is directed to the citation or to the proposed penalty, or both. The Area Director shall immediately transmit such notice to the Review Commission in accordance with the rules of procedure prescribed by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee or representative of employees of an employer to whom a citation has been issued may, under section 10(c) of the Act, file a written notice with the Area Director alleging that the period of time fixed in the citation for the abatement of the violation is unreasonable. Such notice shall be postmarked within 15 working days of the receipt by the employer of the notice of proposed penalty or notice that no penalty is being proposed. The Area Director shall immediately transmit such notice to the Review Commission in accordance with the rules of procedure prescribed by the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.18" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.18   Failure to correct a violation for which a citation has been issued.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an inspection discloses that an employer has failed to correct an alleged violation for which a citation has been issued within the period permitted for its correction, the Area Director shall, if appropriate, consult with the Regional Solicitor, and he shall notify the employer by certified mail or by personal service by the Compliance Safety and Health Officer of such failure and of the additional penalty proposed under § 1903.15(d)(5) by reason of such failure. The period for the correction of a violation for which a citation has been issued shall not begin to run until the entry of a final order of the Review Commission in the case of any review proceedings initiated by the employer in good faith and not solely for delay or avoidance of penalties.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employer receiving a notification of failure to correct a violation and of proposed additional penalty may, under section 10(b) of the Act, notify the Area Director in writing that he intends to contest such notification or proposed additional penalty before the Review Commission. Such notice of intention to contest shall be postmarked within 15 working days of the receipt by the employer of the notification of failure to correct a violation and of proposed additional penalty. The Area Director shall immediately transmit such notice to the Review Commission in accordance with the rules of procedure prescribed by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) Each notification of failure to correct a violation and of proposed additional penalty shall state that it shall be deemed to be the final order of the Review Commission and not subject to review by any court or agency unless, within 15 working days from the date of receipt of such notification, the employer notifies the Area Director in writing that he intends to contest the notification or the proposed additional penalty before the Review Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, as amended at 81 FR 43453, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.19" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.19   Abatement verification.</HEAD>
<P><I>Purpose.</I> OSHA's inspections are intended to result in the abatement of violations of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (the OSH Act). This section sets forth the procedures OSHA will use to ensure abatement. These procedures are tailored to the nature of the violation and the employer's abatement actions.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to employers who receive a citation for a violation of the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Abatement</I> means action by an employer to comply with a cited standard or regulation or to eliminate a recognized hazard identified by OSHA during an inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Abatement date</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) For an uncontested citation item, the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date in the citation for abatement of the violation;
</P>
<P>(B) The date approved by OSHA or established in litigation as a result of a petition for modification of the abatement date (PMA); or
</P>
<P>(C) The date established in a citation by an informal settlement agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a contested citation item for which the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) has issued a final order affirming the violation, the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date identified in the final order for abatement; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date computed by adding the period allowed in the citation for abatement to the final order date;
</P>
<P>(C) The date established by a formal settlement agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affected employees</I> means those employees who are exposed to the hazard(s) identified as violation(s) in a citation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Final order date</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) For an uncontested citation item, the fifteenth working day after the employer's receipt of the citation;
</P>
<P>(ii) For a contested citation item:
</P>
<P>(A) The thirtieth day after the date on which a decision or order of a commission administrative law judge has been docketed with the commission, unless a member of the commission has directed review; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where review has been directed, the thirtieth day after the date on which the Commission issues its decision or order disposing of all or pertinent part of a case; or
</P>
<P>(C) The date on which a federal appeals court issues a decision affirming the violation in a case in which a final order of OSHRC has been stayed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Movable equipment</I> means a hand-held or non-hand-held machine or device, powered or unpowered, that is used to do work and is moved within or between worksites.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Abatement certification.</I> (1) Within 10 calendar days after the abatement date, the employer must certify to OSHA (the Agency) that each cited violation has been abated, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is not required to certify abatement if the OSHA Compliance Officer, during the on-site portion of the inspection:
</P>
<P>(i) Observes, within 24 hours after a violation is identified, that abatement has occurred; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notes in the citation that abatement has occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer's certification that abatement is complete must include, for each cited violation, in addition to the information required by paragraph (h) of this section, the date and method of abatement and a statement that affected employees and their representatives have been informed of the abatement.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix A contains a sample Abatement Certification Letter.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) <I>Abatement documentation.</I> (1) The employer must submit to the Agency, along with the information on abatement certification required by paragraph (c)(3) of this section, documents demonstrating that abatement is complete for each willful or repeat violation and for any serious violation for which the Agency indicates in the citation that such abatement documentation is required.
</P>
<P>(2) Documents demonstrating that abatement is complete may include, but are not limited to, evidence of the purchase or repair of equipment, photographic or video evidence of abatement, or other written records.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Abatement plans.</I> (1) The Agency may require an employer to submit an abatement plan for each cited violation (except an other-than-serious violation) when the time permitted for abatement is more than 90 calendar days. If an abatement plan is required, the citation must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must submit an abatement plan for each cited violation within 25 calendar days from the final order date when the citation indicates that such a plan is required. The abatement plan must identify the violation and the steps to be taken to achieve abatement, including a schedule for completing abatement and, where necessary, how employees will be protected from exposure to the violative condition in the interim until abatement is complete.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix B contains a Sample Abatement Plan form.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>Progress reports.</I> (1) An employer who is required to submit an abatement plan may also be required to submit periodic progress reports for each cited violation. The citation must indicate:
</P>
<P>(i) That periodic progress reports are required and the citation items for which they are required;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which an initial progress report must be submitted, which may be no sooner than 30 calendar days after submission of an abatement plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether additional progress reports are required; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The date(s) on which additional progress reports must be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) For each violation, the progress report must identify, in a single sentence if possible, the action taken to achieve abatement and the date the action was taken.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix B contains a Sample Progress Report form.</P></NOTE>
<P>(g) <I>Employee notification.</I> (1) The employer must inform affected employees and their representative(s) about abatement activities covered by this section by posting a copy of each document submitted to the Agency or a summary of the document near the place where the violation occurred.
</P>
<P>(2) Where such posting does not effectively inform employees and their representatives about abatement activities (for example, for employers who have mobile work operations), the employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Post each document or a summary of the document in a location where it will be readily observable by affected employees and their representatives; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Take other steps to communicate fully to affected employees and their representatives about abatement activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must inform employees and their representatives of their right to examine and copy all abatement documents submitted to the Agency.
</P>
<P>(i) An employee or an employee representative must submit a request to examine and copy abatement documents within 3 working days of receiving notice that the documents have been submitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must comply with an employee's or employee representative's request to examine and copy abatement documents within 5 working days of receiving the request.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer must ensure that notice to employees and employee representatives is provided at the same time or before the information is provided to the Agency and that abatement documents are:
</P>
<P>(i) Not altered, defaced, or covered by other material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Remain posted for three working days after submission to the Agency.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Transmitting abatement documents.</I> (1) The employer must include, in each submission required by this section, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer's name and address;
</P>
<P>(ii) The inspection number to which the submission relates;
</P>
<P>(iii) The citation and item numbers to which the submission relates;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the information submitted is accurate; and
</P>
<P>(v) The signature of the employer or the employer's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) The date of postmark is the date of submission for mailed documents. For documents transmitted by other means, the date the Agency receives the document is the date of submission.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Movable equipment.</I> (1) For serious, repeat, and willful violations involving movable equipment, the employer must attach a warning tag or a copy of the citation to the operating controls or to the cited component of equipment that is moved within the worksite or between worksites.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>Attaching a copy of the citation to the equipment is deemed by OSHA to meet the tagging requirement of paragraph (i)(1) of this section as well as the posting requirement of 29 CFR 1903.16.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The employer must use a warning tag that properly warns employees about the nature of the violation involving the equipment and identifies the location of the citation issued.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Non-Mandatory Appendix C contains a sample tag that employers may use to meet this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) If the violation has not already been abated, a warning tag or copy of the citation must be attached to the equipment:
</P>
<P>(i) For hand-held equipment, immediately after the employer receives the citation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For non-hand-held equipment, prior to moving the equipment within or between worksites.
</P>
<P>(4) For the construction industry, a tag that is designed and used in accordance with 29 CFR 1926.20(b)(3) and 29 CFR 1926.200(h) is deemed by OSHA to meet the requirements of this section when the information required by paragraph (i)(2) is included on the tag.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer must assure that the tag or copy of the citation attached to movable equipment is not altered, defaced, or covered by other material.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer must assure that the tag or copy of the citation attached to movable equipment remains attached until:
</P>
<P>(i) The violation has been abated and all abatement verification documents required by this regulation have been submitted to the Agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cited equipment has been permanently removed from service or is no longer within the employer's control; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Commission issues a final order vacating the citation.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendices to § 1903.19—Abatement Verification</HD1></EXTRACT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Appendices A through C provide information and nonmandatory guidelines to assist employers and employees in complying with the appropriate requirements of this section.</P></NOTE>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to Section 1903.19—Sample Abatement-Certification Letter (Nonmandatory)
</HD1>
<FP>(Name), Area Director
</FP>
<FP>U. S. Department of Labor—OSHA
</FP>
<FP>Address of the Area Office (on the citation)
</FP>
<FP>[Company's Name]
</FP>
<FP>[Company's Address]
</FP>
<P>The hazard referenced in Inspection Number [insert 9-digit #] for violation identified as:
</P>
<FP>Citation [insert #] and item [insert #] was corrected on [insert date] by:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Citation [insert #] and item [insert #] was corrected on [insert date] by:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Citation [insert #] and item [insert #] was corrected on [insert date] by:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Citation [insert #] and item [insert #] was corrected on [insert date] by:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Citation [insert #] and item [insert #] was corrected on [insert date] by:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Citation [insert #] and item [insert #] was corrected on [insert date] by:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Citation [insert #] and item [insert #] was corrected on insert date by:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Citation [insert #] and item [insert #] was corrected on [insert date] by:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>I attest that the information contained in this document is accurate.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>Signature
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>Typed or Printed Name</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to Section 1903.19—Sample Abatement Plan or Progress Report (Nonmandatory)
</HD1>
<FP>(Name), Area Director
</FP>
<FP>U. S. Department of Labor—OSHA
</FP>
<FP>Address of Area Office (on the citation)
</FP>
<FP>[Company's Name]
</FP>
<FP>[Company's Address]
</FP>
<FP>Check one:
</FP>
<P>Abatement Plan [ ]
</P>
<P>Progress Report [ ]
</P>
<FP-DASH>Inspection Number
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Page __ of ____
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Citation Number(s)*
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item Number(s)*
</FP-DASH>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Action
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proposed Completion Date (for abatement plans only)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Completion Date (for progress reports only)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP-DASH>Date required for final abatement:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>I attest that the information contained in this document is accurate.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>Signature
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>Typed or Printed Name
</P>
<FP>Name of primary point of contact for questions: [optional]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Telephone number:
</FP-DASH>
<P>*Abatement plans or progress reports for more than one citation item may be combined in a single abatement plan or progress report if the abatement actions, proposed completion dates, and actual completion dates (for progress reports only) are the same for each of the citation items.</P></EXTRACT>
<TCAP><E T="15">Appendix C to Section 1903.19—Sample Warning Tag (Nonmandatory)</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.000.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 15337, Mar. 31, 1997]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.20" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.20   Informal conferences.</HEAD>
<P>At the request of an affected employer, employee, or representative of employees, the Assistant Regional Director may hold an informal conference for the purpose of discussing any issues raised by an inspection, citation, notice of proposed penalty, or notice of intention to contest. The settlement of any issue at such conference shall be subject to the rules of procedure prescribed by the Review Commission. If the conference is requested by the employer, an affected employee or his representative shall be afforded an opportunity to participate, at the discretion of the Assistant Regional Director. If the conference is requested by an employee or representative of employees, the employer shall be afforded an opportunity to participate, at the discretion of the Assistant Regional Director. Any party may be represented by counsel at such conference. No such conference or request for such conference shall operate as a stay of any 15-working-day period for filing a notice of intention to contest as prescribed in § 1903.17.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971. Redesignated at 62 FR 15337, Mar. 31, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.21" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.21   State administration.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part 1903 shall preempt the authority of any State to conduct inspections, to initiate enforcement proceedings or otherwise to implement the applicable provisions of State law with respect to State occupational safety and health standards in accordance with agreements and plans under section 18 of the Act and parts 1901 and 1902 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971. Redesignated at 62 FR 15337, Mar. 31, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1903.22" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.3.0.17.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1903.22   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970. (84 Stat. 1590 <I>et seq.,</I> 29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions and interpretations contained in section 3 of the Act shall be applicable to such terms when used in this part 1903.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Working days</I> means Mondays through Fridays but shall not include Saturdays, Sundays, or Federal holidays. In computing 15 working days, the day of receipt of any notice shall not be included, and the last day of the 15 working days shall be included.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance Safety and Health Officer</I> means a person authorized by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, to conduct inspections.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area Director</I> means the employee or officer regularly or temporarily in charge of an Area Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, or any other person or persons who are authorized to act for such employee or officer. The latter authorizations may include general delegations of the authority of an Area Director under this part to a Compliance Safety and Health Officer or delegations to such an officer for more limited purposes, such as the exercise of the Area Director's duties under § 1903.14(a). The term also includes any employee or officer exercising supervisory responsibilities over an Area Director. A supervisory employee or officer is considered to exercise concurrent authority with the Area Director.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Assistant Regional Director</I> means the employee or officer regularly or temporarily in charge of a Region of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, or any other person or persons who are specifically designated to act for such employee or officer in his absence. The term also includes any employee or officer in the Occupational Safety and Health Administration exercising supervisory responsibilities over the Assistant Regional Director. Such supervisory employee or officer is considered to exercise concurrent authority with the Assistant Regional Director. No delegation of authority under this paragraph shall adversely affect the procedures for independent informal review of investigative determinations prescribed under § 1903.12 of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Inspection</I> means any inspection of an employer's factory, plant, establishment, construction site, or other area, workplace or environment where work is performed by an employee of an employer, and includes any inspection conducted pursuant to a complaint filed under § 1903.11 (a) and (c), any reinspection, followup inspection, accident investigation or other inspection conducted under section 8(a) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17850, Sept. 4, 1971, as amended at 38 FR 22624, Aug. 23, 1973. Redesignated at 62 FR 15337, Mar. 31, 1997]












</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1904" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1904—RECORDING AND REPORTING OCCUPATIONAL INJURIES AND ILLNESSES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 657, 658, 660, 666, 669, 673, Secretary of Labor's Orders No. 3-2000 (65 FR 50017) and 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable, and 5 U.S.C. 553.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 82 FR 20548, May 3, 2017, as required by the Congressional Review Act and Public Law 115-21, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration removed all amendments to part 1904 published at 81 FR 91792, Dec. 19, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purpose</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.0" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.1.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.0   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this rule (part 1904) is to require employers to record and report work-related fatalities, injuries, and illnesses.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1904.0:</HED>
<P>Recording or reporting a work-related injury, illness, or fatality does not mean that the employer or employee was at fault, that an OSHA rule has been violated, or that the employee is eligible for workers' compensation or other benefits.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 20548, May 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Scope</HEAD>

<NOTE>
<HED>Note to subpart B:</HED>
<P>All employers covered by the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act) are covered by these part 1904 regulations. However, most employers do not have to keep OSHA injury and illness records unless OSHA or the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) informs them in writing that they must keep records. For example, employers with 10 or fewer employees and business establishments in certain industry classifications are partially exempt from keeping OSHA injury and illness records.</P></NOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1904.1" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.2.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.1   Partial exemption for employers with 10 or fewer employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> (1) If your company had 10 or fewer employees at all times during the last calendar year, you do not need to keep OSHA injury and illness records unless OSHA or the Bureau of Labor Statistics informs you in writing that you must keep records under § 1904.41 or § 1904.42. However, as required by § 1904.39, all employers covered by the OSH Act must report to OSHA any work-related incident that results in a fatality, the in-patient hospitalization of one or more employees, an employee amputation, or an employee loss of an eye. 
</P>
<P>(2) If your company had more than ten (10) employees at any time during the last calendar year, you must keep OSHA injury and illness records unless your establishment is classified as a partially exempt industry under § 1904.2. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>Is the partial exemption for size based on the size of my entire company or on the size of an individual business establishment?</I> The partial exemption for size is based on the number of employees in the entire company. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How do I determine the size of my company to find out if I qualify for the partial exemption for size?</I> To determine if you are exempt because of size, you need to determine your company's peak employment during the last calendar year. If you had no more than 10 employees at any time in the last calendar year, your company qualifies for the partial exemption for size. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 85 FR 8731, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.2" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.2.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.2   Partial exemption for establishments in certain industries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> (1) If your business establishment is classified in a specific industry group listed in appendix A to this subpart, you do not need to keep OSHA injury and illness records unless the government asks you to keep the records under § 1904.41 or § 1904.42. However, all employers must report to OSHA any workplace incident that results in an employee's fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye (see § 1904.39).
</P>
<P>(2) If one or more of your company's establishments are classified in a non-exempt industry, you must keep OSHA injury and illness records for all of such establishments unless your company is partially exempted because of size under § 1904.1. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>Is the partial industry classification exemption based on the industry classification of my entire company or on the classification of individual business establishments operated by my company?</I> The partial industry classification exemption applies to individual business establishments. If a company has several business establishments engaged in different classes of business activities, some of the company's establishments may be required to keep records, while others may be partially exempt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How do I determine the correct NAICS code for my company or for individual establishments?</I> You can determine your NAICS code by using one of three methods, or you may contact your nearest OSHA office or State agency for help in determining your NAICS code:
</P>
<P>(i) You can use the search feature at the U.S. Census Bureau NAICS main Web page: <I>http://www.census.gov/eos/www/naics/.</I> In the search box for the most recent NAICS, enter a keyword that describes your kind of business. A list of primary business activities containing that keyword and the corresponding NAICS codes will appear. Choose the one that most closely corresponds to your primary business activity, or refine your search to obtain other choices.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rather than searching through a list of primary business activities, you may also view the most recent complete NAICS structure with codes and titles by clicking on the link for the most recent NAICS on the U.S. Census Bureau NAICS main Web page: <I>http://www.census.gov/eos/www/naics/.</I> Then click on the two-digit Sector code to see all the NAICS codes under that Sector. Then choose the six-digit code of your interest to see the corresponding definition, as well as cross-references and index items, when available.
</P>
<P>(iii) If you know your old SIC code, you can also find the appropriate 2002 NAICS code by using the detailed conversion (concordance) between the 1987 SIC and 2002 NAICS available in Excel format for download at the “Concordances” link at the U.S. Census Bureau NAICS main Web page: <I>http://www.census.gov/eos/www/naics/.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 79 FR 56186, Sept. 18, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.3" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.2.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.3   Keeping records for more than one agency.</HEAD>
<P>If you create records to comply with another government agency's injury and illness recordkeeping requirements, OSHA will consider those records as meeting OSHA's part 1904 recordkeeping requirements if OSHA accepts the other agency's records under a memorandum of understanding with that agency, or if the other agency's records contain the same information as this part 1904 requires you to record. You may contact your nearest OSHA office or State agency for help in determining whether your records meet OSHA's requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.2.17.4.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Non-Mandatory Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 1904—Partially Exempt Industries 
</HEAD>
<P>Employers are not required to keep OSHA injury and illness records for any establishment classified in the following North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes, unless they are asked in writing to do so by OSHA, the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), or a state agency operating under the authority of OSHA or the BLS. All employers, including those partially exempted by reason of company size or industry classification, must report to OSHA any employee's fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye (see § 1904.39).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NAICS Code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4412</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Motor Vehicle Dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4431</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronics and Appliance Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4461</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Health and Personal Care Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4471</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gasoline Stations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4481</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clothing Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4482</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shoe Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4483</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jewelry, Luggage, and Leather Goods Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4511</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sporting Goods, Hobby, and Musical Instrument Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4512</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Book, Periodical, and Music Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4531</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Florists.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4532</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office Supplies, Stationery, and Gift Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4812</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nonscheduled Air Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4861</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pipeline Transportation of Crude Oil.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4862</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pipeline Transportation of Natural Gas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4869</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Pipeline Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4879</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scenic and Sightseeing Transportation, Other.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4885</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Freight Transportation Arrangement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Newspaper, Periodical, Book, and Directory Publishers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Software Publishers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motion Picture and Video Industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sound Recording Industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radio and Television Broadcasting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except Satellite).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5173</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Telecommunications Resellers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Telecommunications.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Internet Service Providers and Web Search Portals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data Processing, Hosting, and Related Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Information Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monetary Authorities—Central Bank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Depository Credit Intermediation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nondepository Credit Intermediation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Activities Related to Credit Intermediation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Securities and Commodity Contracts Intermediation and Brokerage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Securities and Commodity Exchanges.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Financial Investment Activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insurance Carriers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agencies, Brokerages, and Other Insurance Related Activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5251</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insurance and Employee Benefit Funds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5259</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Investment Pools and Funds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5312</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices of Real Estate Agents and Brokers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5331</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lessors of Nonfinancial Intangible Assets (except Copyrighted Works).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5411</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5412</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accounting, Tax Preparation, Bookkeeping, and Payroll Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5413</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Architectural, Engineering, and Related Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5414</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialized Design Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5415</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer Systems Design and Related Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5416</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Management, Scientific, and Technical Consulting Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5417</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scientific Research and Development Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5418</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Advertising and Related Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5511</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Management of Companies and Enterprises.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5611</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office Administrative Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5614</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business Support Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5615</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Travel Arrangement and Reservation Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5616</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investigation and Security Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elementary and Secondary Schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Junior Colleges.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colleges, Universities, and Professional Schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business Schools and Computer and Management Training.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Technical and Trade Schools.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6116</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Schools and Instruction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Educational Support Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices of Physicians.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices of Dentists.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offices of Other Health Practitioners.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outpatient Care Centers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6215</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medical and Diagnostic Laboratories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Child Day Care Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agents and Managers for Artists, Athletes, Entertainers, and Other Public Figures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Independent Artists, Writers, and Performers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rooming and Boarding Houses.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full-Service Restaurants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limited-Service Eating Places.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7224</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drinking Places (Alcoholic Beverages).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electronic and Precision Equipment Repair and Maintenance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personal and Household Goods Repair and Maintenance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Personal Care Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Death Care Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Religious Organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grantmaking and Giving Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Social Advocacy Organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Civic and Social Organizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business, Professional, Labor, Political, and Similar Organizations.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 56186, Sept. 18, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Recordkeeping Forms and Recording Criteria</HEAD>

<NOTE>
<HED>Note to subpart C:</HED>
<P>This subpart describes the work-related injuries and illnesses that an employer must enter into the OSHA records and explains the OSHA forms that employers must use to record work-related fatalities, injuries, and illnesses.</P></NOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1904.4" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.4   Recording criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> Each employer required by this part to keep records of fatalities, injuries, and illnesses must record each fatality, injury and illness that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is work-related; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Is a new case; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Meets one or more of the general recording criteria of § 1904.7 or the application to specific cases of §§ 1904.8 through 1904.12. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>What sections of this rule describe recording criteria for recording work-related injuries and illnesses?</I> The table below indicates which sections of the rule address each topic. 
</P>
<P>(i) Determination of work-relatedness. See § 1904.5. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Determination of a new case. See § 1904.6. 
</P>
<P>(iii) General recording criteria. See § 1904.7. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Additional criteria. (Needlestick and sharps injury cases, tuberculosis cases, hearing loss cases, medical removal cases, and musculoskeletal disorder cases). See §§ 1904.8 through 1904.12. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How do I decide whether a particular injury or illness is recordable?</I> The decision tree for recording work-related injuries and illnesses below shows the steps involved in making this determination. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19ja01.098.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 91809, Dec. 19, 2016; 82 FR 20548, May 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.5" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.5   Determination of work-relatedness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> You must consider an injury or illness to be work-related if an event or exposure in the work environment either caused or contributed to the resulting condition or significantly aggravated a pre-existing injury or illness. Work-relatedness is presumed for injuries and illnesses resulting from events or exposures occurring in the work environment, unless an exception in § 1904.5(b)(2) specifically applies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation.</I> (1) What is the “work environment”? OSHA defines the work environment as “the establishment and other locations where one or more employees are working or are present as a condition of their employment. The work environment includes not only physical locations, but also the equipment or materials used by the employee during the course of his or her work.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Are there situations where an injury or illness occurs in the work environment and is not considered work-related?</I> Yes, an injury or illness occurring in the work environment that falls under one of the following exceptions is not work-related, and therefore is not recordable.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1904.5(b)(2) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">You are not required to record injuries and illnesses if . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At the time of the injury or illness, the employee was present in the work environment as a member of the general public rather than as an employee. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The injury or illness involves signs or symptoms that surface at work but result solely from a non-work-related event or exposure that occurs outside the work environment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The injury or illness results solely from voluntary participation in a wellness program or in a medical, fitness, or recreational activity such as blood donation, physical examination, flu shot, exercise class, racquetball, or baseball. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The injury or illness is solely the result of an employee eating, drinking, or preparing food or drink for personal consumption (whether bought on the employer's premises or brought in). For example, if the employee is injured by choking on a sandwich while in the employer's establishment, the case would not be considered work-related. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="02">Note:</E> If the employee is made ill by ingesting food contaminated by workplace contaminants (such as lead), or gets food poisoning from food supplied by the employer, the case would be considered work-related. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The injury or illness is solely the result of an employee doing personal tasks (unrelated to their employment) at the establishment outside of the employee's assigned working hours. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The injury or illness is solely the result of personal grooming, self medication for a non-work-related condition, or is intentionally self-inflicted. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The injury or illness is caused by a motor vehicle accident and occurs on a company parking lot or company access road while the employee is commuting to or from work. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The illness is the common cold or flu (Note: contagious diseases such as tuberculosis, brucellosis, hepatitis A, or plague are considered work-related if the employee is infected at work). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The illness is a mental illness. Mental illness will not be considered work-related unless the employee voluntarily provides the employer with an opinion from a physician or other licensed health care professional with appropriate training and experience (psychiatrist, psychologist, psychiatric nurse practitioner, etc.) stating that the employee has a mental illness that is work-related.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>How do I handle a case if it is not obvious whether the precipitating event or exposure occurred in the work environment or occurred away from work?</I> In these situations, you must evaluate the employee's work duties and environment to decide whether or not one or more events or exposures in the work environment either caused or contributed to the resulting condition or significantly aggravated a pre-existing condition. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>How do I know if an event or exposure in the work environment “significantly aggravated” a preexisting injury or illness?</I> A preexisting injury or illness has been significantly aggravated, for purposes of OSHA injury and illness recordkeeping, when an event or exposure in the work environment results in any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Death, provided that the preexisting injury or illness would likely not have resulted in death but for the occupational event or exposure. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Loss of consciousness, provided that the preexisting injury or illness would likely not have resulted in loss of consciousness but for the occupational event or exposure. 
</P>
<P>(iii) One or more days away from work, or days of restricted work, or days of job transfer that otherwise would not have occurred but for the occupational event or exposure. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Medical treatment in a case where no medical treatment was needed for the injury or illness before the workplace event or exposure, or a change in medical treatment was necessitated by the workplace event or exposure. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Which injuries and illnesses are considered pre-existing conditions?</I> An injury or illness is a preexisting condition if it resulted solely from a non-work-related event or exposure that occured outside the work environment. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>How do I decide whether an injury or illness is work-related if the employee is on travel status at the time the injury or illness occurs?</I> Injuries and illnesses that occur while an employee is on travel status are work-related if, at the time of the injury or illness, the employee was engaged in work activities “in the interest of the employer.” Examples of such activities include travel to and from customer contacts, conducting job tasks, and entertaining or being entertained to transact, discuss, or promote business (work-related entertainment includes only entertainment activities being engaged in at the direction of the employer). 
</P>
<P>Injuries or illnesses that occur when the employee is on travel status do not have to be recorded if they meet one of the exceptions listed below.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1904.5 (b)(6) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the employee has . . . 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">You may use the following to determine if an injury or illness is work-related 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">checked into a hotel or motel for one or more days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When a traveling employee checks into a hotel, motel, or into an other temporary residence, he or she establishes a “home away from home.” You must evaluate the employee's activities after he or she checks into the hotel, motel, or other temporary residence for their work-relatedness in the same manner as you evaluate the activities of a non-traveling employee. When the employee checks into the temporary residence, he or she is considered to have left the work environment. When the employee begins work each day, he or she re-enters the work environment. If the employee has established a “home away from home” and is reporting to a fixed worksite each day, you also do not consider injuries or illnesses work-related if they occur while the employee is commuting between the temporary residence and the job location. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">taken a detour for personal reasons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Injuries or illnesses are not considered work-related if they occur while the employee is on a personal detour from a reasonably direct route of travel (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> has taken a side trip for personal reasons).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(7) <I>How do I decide if a case is work-related when the employee is working at home?</I> Injuries and illnesses that occur while an employee is working at home, including work in a home office, will be considered work-related if the injury or illness occurs while the employee is performing work for pay or compensation in the home, and the injury or illness is directly related to the performance of work rather than to the general home environment or setting. For example, if an employee drops a box of work documents and injures his or her foot, the case is considered work-related. If an employee's fingernail is punctured by a needle from a sewing machine used to perform garment work at home, becomes infected and requires medical treatment, the injury is considered work-related. If an employee is injured because he or she trips on the family dog while rushing to answer a work phone call, the case is not considered work-related. If an employee working at home is electrocuted because of faulty home wiring, the injury is not considered work-related.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.6" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.6   Determination of new cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> You must consider an injury or illness to be a “new case” if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The employee has not previously experienced a recorded injury or illness of the same type that affects the same part of the body, or 
</P>
<P>(2) The employee previously experienced a recorded injury or illness of the same type that affected the same part of the body but had recovered completely (all signs and symptoms had disappeared) from the previous injury or illness and an event or exposure in the work environment caused the signs or symptoms to reappear. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>When an employee experiences the signs or symptoms of a chronic work-related illness, do I need to consider each recurrence of signs or symptoms to be a new case?</I> No, for occupational illnesses where the signs or symptoms may recur or continue in the absence of an exposure in the workplace, the case must only be recorded once. Examples may include occupational cancer, asbestosis, byssinosis and silicosis. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When an employee experiences the signs or symptoms of an injury or illness as a result of an event or exposure in the workplace, such as an episode of occupational asthma, must I treat the episode as a new case?</I> Yes, because the episode or recurrence was caused by an event or exposure in the workplace, the incident must be treated as a new case. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>May I rely on a physician or other licensed health care professional to determine whether a case is a new case or a recurrence of an old case?</I> You are not required to seek the advice of a physician or other licensed health care professional. However, if you do seek such advice, you must follow the physician or other licensed health care professional's recommendation about whether the case is a new case or a recurrence. If you receive recommendations from two or more physicians or other licensed health care professionals, you must make a decision as to which recommendation is the most authoritative (best documented, best reasoned, or most authoritative), and record the case based upon that recommendation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.7" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.7   General recording criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> You must consider an injury or illness to meet the general recording criteria, and therefore to be recordable, if it results in any of the following: death, days away from work, restricted work or transfer to another job, medical treatment beyond first aid, or loss of consciousness. You must also consider a case to meet the general recording criteria if it involves a significant injury or illness diagnosed by a physician or other licensed health care professional, even if it does not result in death, days away from work, restricted work or job transfer, medical treatment beyond first aid, or loss of consciousness. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>How do I decide if a case meets one or more of the general recording criteria?</I> A work-related injury or illness must be recorded if it results in one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Death. See § 1904.7(b)(2). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Days away from work. See § 1904.7(b)(3). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Restricted work or transfer to another job. See § 1904.7(b)(4). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Medical treatment beyond first aid. See § 1904.7(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(v) Loss of consciousness. See § 1904.7(b)(6). 
</P>
<P>(vi) A significant injury or illness diagnosed by a physician or other licensed health care professional. See § 1904.7(b)(7).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How do I record a work-related injury or illness that results in the employee's death?</I> You must record an injury or illness that results in death by entering a check mark on the OSHA 300 Log in the space for cases resulting in death. You must also report any work-related fatality to OSHA within eight (8) hours, as required by § 1904.39. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>How do I record a work-related injury or illness that results in days away from work?</I> When an injury or illness involves one or more days away from work, you must record the injury or illness on the OSHA 300 Log with a check mark in the space for cases involving days away and an entry of the number of calendar days away from work in the number of days column. If the employee is out for an extended period of time, you must enter an estimate of the days that the employee will be away, and update the day count when the actual number of days is known. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Do I count the day on which the injury occurred or the illness began?</I> No, you begin counting days away on the day after the injury occurred or the illness began. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>How do I record an injury or illness when a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends that the worker stay at home but the employee comes to work anyway?</I> You must record these injuries and illnesses on the OSHA 300 Log using the check box for cases with days away from work and enter the number of calendar days away recommended by the physician or other licensed health care professional. If a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends days away, you should encourage your employee to follow that recommendation. However, the days away must be recorded whether the injured or ill employee follows the physician or licensed health care professional's recommendation or not. If you receive recommendations from two or more physicians or other licensed health care professionals, you may make a decision as to which recommendation is the most authoritative, and record the case based upon that recommendation. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>How do I handle a case when a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends that the worker return to work but the employee stays at home anyway?</I> In this situation, you must end the count of days away from work on the date the physician or other licensed health care professional recommends that the employee return to work. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>How do I count weekends, holidays, or other days the employee would not have worked anyway?</I> You must count the number of calendar days the employee was unable to work as a result of the injury or illness, regardless of whether or not the employee was scheduled to work on those day(s). Weekend days, holidays, vacation days or other days off are included in the total number of days recorded if the employee would not have been able to work on those days because of a work-related injury or illness. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>How do I record a case in which a worker is injured or becomes ill on a Friday and reports to work on a Monday, and was not scheduled to work on the weekend?</I> You need to record this case only if you receive information from a physician or other licensed health care professional indicating that the employee should not have worked, or should have performed only restricted work, during the weekend. If so, you must record the injury or illness as a case with days away from work or restricted work, and enter the day counts, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>How do I record a case in which a worker is injured or becomes ill on the day before scheduled time off such as a holiday, a planned vacation, or a temporary plant closing?</I> You need to record a case of this type only if you receive information from a physician or other licensed health care professional indicating that the employee should not have worked, or should have performed only restricted work, during the scheduled time off. If so, you must record the injury or illness as a case with days away from work or restricted work, and enter the day counts, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Is there a limit to the number of days away from work I must count?</I> Yes, you may “cap” the total days away at 180 calendar days. You are not required to keep track of the number of calendar days away from work if the injury or illness resulted in more than 180 calendar days away from work and/or days of job transfer or restriction. In such a case, entering 180 in the total days away column will be considered adequate. 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>May I stop counting days if an employee who is away from work because of an injury or illness retires or leaves my company?</I> Yes, if the employee leaves your company for some reason unrelated to the injury or illness, such as retirement, a plant closing, or to take another job, you may stop counting days away from work or days of restriction/job transfer. If the employee leaves your company because of the injury or illness, you must estimate the total number of days away or days of restriction/job transfer and enter the day count on the 300 Log. 
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>If a case occurs in one year but results in days away during the next calendar year, do I record the case in both years?</I> No, you only record the injury or illness once. You must enter the number of calendar days away for the injury or illness on the OSHA 300 Log for the year in which the injury or illness occurred. If the employee is still away from work because of the injury or illness when you prepare the annual summary, estimate the total number of calendar days you expect the employee to be away from work, use this number to calculate the total for the annual summary, and then update the initial log entry later when the day count is known or reaches the 180-day cap. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>How do I record a work-related injury or illness that results in restricted work or job transfer?</I> When an injury or illness involves restricted work or job transfer but does not involve death or days away from work, you must record the injury or illness on the OSHA 300 Log by placing a check mark in the space for job transfer or restriction and an entry of the number of restricted or transferred days in the restricted workdays column. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>How do I decide if the injury or illness resulted in restricted work?</I> Restricted work occurs when, as the result of a work-related injury or illness: 
</P>
<P>(A) You keep the employee from performing one or more of the routine functions of his or her job, or from working the full workday that he or she would otherwise have been scheduled to work; or 
</P>
<P>(B) A physician or other licensed health care professional recommends that the employee not perform one or more of the routine functions of his or her job, or not work the full workday that he or she would otherwise have been scheduled to work. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>What is meant by “routine functions”?</I> For recordkeeping purposes, an employee's routine functions are those work activities the employee regularly performs at least once per week. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Do I have to record restricted work or job transfer if it applies only to the day on which the injury occurred or the illness began?</I> No, you do not have to record restricted work or job transfers if you, or the physician or other licensed health care professional, impose the restriction or transfer only for the day on which the injury occurred or the illness began. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>If you or a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends a work restriction, is the injury or illness automatically recordable as a “restricted work” case?</I> No, a recommended work restriction is recordable only if it affects one or more of the employee's routine job functions. To determine whether this is the case, you must evaluate the restriction in light of the routine functions of the injured or ill employee's job. If the restriction from you or the physician or other licensed health care professional keeps the employee from performing one or more of his or her routine job functions, or from working the full workday the injured or ill employee would otherwise have worked, the employee's work has been restricted and you must record the case. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>How do I record a case where the worker works only for a partial work shift because of a work-related injury or illness?</I> A partial day of work is recorded as a day of job transfer or restriction for recordkeeping purposes, except for the day on which the injury occurred or the illness began. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>If the injured or ill worker produces fewer goods or services than he or she would have produced prior to the injury or illness but otherwise performs all of the routine functions of his or her work, is the case considered a restricted work case?</I> No, the case is considered restricted work only if the worker does not perform all of the routine functions of his or her job or does not work the full shift that he or she would otherwise have worked. 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>How do I handle vague restrictions from a physician or other licensed health care professional, such as that the employee engage only in “light duty” or “take it easy for a week”?</I> If you are not clear about the physician or other licensed health care professional's recommendation, you may ask that person whether the employee can do all of his or her routine job functions and work all of his or her normally assigned work shift. If the answer to both of these questions is “Yes,” then the case does not involve a work restriction and does not have to be recorded as such. If the answer to one or both of these questions is “No,” the case involves restricted work and must be recorded as a restricted work case. If you are unable to obtain this additional information from the physician or other licensed health care professional who recommended the restriction, record the injury or illness as a case involving restricted work. 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>What do I do if a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends a job restriction meeting OSHA's definition, but the employee does all of his or her routine job functions anyway?</I> You must record the injury or illness on the OSHA 300 Log as a restricted work case. If a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends a job restriction, you should ensure that the employee complies with that restriction. If you receive recommendations from two or more physicians or other licensed health care professionals, you may make a decision as to which recommendation is the most authoritative, and record the case based upon that recommendation. 
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>How do I decide if an injury or illness involved a transfer to another job?</I> If you assign an injured or ill employee to a job other than his or her regular job for part of the day, the case involves transfer to another job. Note: This does not include the day on which the injury or illness occurred. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Are transfers to another job recorded in the same way as restricted work cases?</I> Yes, both job transfer and restricted work cases are recorded in the same box on the OSHA 300 Log. For example, if you assign, or a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends that you assign, an injured or ill worker to his or her routine job duties for part of the day and to another job for the rest of the day, the injury or illness involves a job transfer. You must record an injury or illness that involves a job transfer by placing a check in the box for job transfer. 
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>How do I count days of job transfer or restriction?</I> You count days of job transfer or restriction in the same way you count days away from work, using § 1904.7(b)(3)(i) to (viii), above. The only difference is that, if you permanently assign the injured or ill employee to a job that has been modified or permanently changed in a manner that eliminates the routine functions the employee was restricted from performing, you may stop the day count when the modification or change is made permanent. You must count at least one day of restricted work or job transfer for such cases. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>How do I record an injury or illness that involves medical treatment beyond first aid?</I> If a work-related injury or illness results in medical treatment beyond first aid, you must record it on the OSHA 300 Log. If the injury or illness did not involve death, one or more days away from work, one or more days of restricted work, or one or more days of job transfer, you enter a check mark in the box for cases where the employee received medical treatment but remained at work and was not transferred or restricted. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>What is the definition of medical treatment?</I> “Medical treatment” means the management and care of a patient to combat disease or disorder. For the purposes of part 1904, medical treatment does not include: 
</P>
<P>(A) Visits to a physician or other licensed health care professional solely for observation or counseling; 
</P>
<P>(B) The conduct of diagnostic procedures, such as x-rays and blood tests, including the administration of prescription medications used solely for diagnostic purposes (<I>e.g.,</I> eye drops to dilate pupils); or 
</P>
<P>(C) “First aid” as defined in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>What is “first aid”?</I> For the purposes of part 1904, “first aid” means the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) Using a non-prescription medication at nonprescription strength (for medications available in both prescription and non-prescription form, a recommendation by a physician or other licensed health care professional to use a non-prescription medication at prescription strength is considered medical treatment for recordkeeping purposes); 
</P>
<P>(B) Administering tetanus immunizations (other immunizations, such as Hepatitis B vaccine or rabies vaccine, are considered medical treatment); 
</P>
<P>(C) Cleaning, flushing or soaking wounds on the surface of the skin; 
</P>
<P>(D) Using wound coverings such as bandages, Band-Aids 
<SU>TM</SU>, gauze pads, etc.; or using butterfly bandages or Steri-Strips 
<SU>TM</SU> (other wound closing devices such as sutures, staples, etc., are considered medical treatment); 
</P>
<P>(E) Using hot or cold therapy; 
</P>
<P>(F) Using any non-rigid means of support, such as elastic bandages, wraps, non-rigid back belts, etc. (devices with rigid stays or other systems designed to immobilize parts of the body are considered medical treatment for recordkeeping purposes); 
</P>
<P>(G) Using temporary immobilization devices while transporting an accident victim (<I>e.g.,</I> splints, slings, neck collars, back boards, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(H) Drilling of a fingernail or toenail to relieve pressure, or draining fluid from a blister; 
</P>
<P>(I) Using eye patches; 
</P>
<P>(J) Removing foreign bodies from the eye using only irrigation or a cotton swab; 
</P>
<P>(K) Removing splinters or foreign material from areas other than the eye by irrigation, tweezers, cotton swabs or other simple means; 
</P>
<P>(L) Using finger guards; 
</P>
<P>(M) Using massages (physical therapy or chiropractic treatment are considered medical treatment for recordkeeping purposes); or 
</P>
<P>(N) Drinking fluids for relief of heat stress. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Are any other procedures included in first aid?</I> No, this is a complete list of all treatments considered first aid for part 1904 purposes. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Does the professional status of the person providing the treatment have any effect on what is considered first aid or medical treatment?</I> No, OSHA considers the treatments listed in § 1904.7(b)(5)(ii) of this part to be first aid regardless of the professional status of the person providing the treatment. Even when these treatments are provided by a physician or other licensed health care professional, they are considered first aid for the purposes of part 1904. Similarly, OSHA considers treatment beyond first aid to be medical treatment even when it is provided by someone other than a physician or other licensed health care professional. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>What if a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends medical treatment but the employee does not follow the recommendation?</I> If a physician or other licensed health care professional recommends medical treatment, you should encourage the injured or ill employee to follow that recommendation. However, you must record the case even if the injured or ill employee does not follow the physician or other licensed health care professional's recommendation. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Is every work-related injury or illness case involving a loss of consciousness recordable?</I> Yes, you must record a work-related injury or illness if the worker becomes unconscious, regardless of the length of time the employee remains unconscious. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>What is a “significant” diagnosed injury or illness that is recordable under the general criteria even if it does not result in death, days away from work, restricted work or job transfer, medical treatment beyond first aid, or loss of consciousness?</I> Work-related cases involving cancer, chronic irreversible disease, a fractured or cracked bone, or a punctured eardrum must always be recorded under the general criteria at the time of diagnosis by a physician or other licensed health care professional. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1904.7:</HED>
<P>OSHA believes that most significant injuries and illnesses will result in one of the criteria listed in § 1904.7(a): death, days away from work, restricted work or job transfer, medical treatment beyond first aid, or loss of consciousness. However, there are some significant injuries, such as a punctured eardrum or a fractured toe or rib, for which neither medical treatment nor work restrictions may be recommended. In addition, there are some significant progressive diseases, such as byssinosis, silicosis, and some types of cancer, for which medical treatment or work restrictions may not be recommended at the time of diagnosis but are likely to be recommended as the disease progresses. OSHA believes that cancer, chronic irreversible diseases, fractured or cracked bones, and punctured eardrums are generally considered significant injuries and illnesses, and must be recorded at the initial diagnosis even if medical treatment or work restrictions are not recommended, or are postponed, in a particular case.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.8" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.8   Recording criteria for needlestick and sharps injuries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> You must record all work-related needlestick injuries and cuts from sharp objects that are contaminated with another person's blood or other potentially infectious material (as defined by 29 CFR 1910.1030). You must enter the case on the OSHA 300 Log as an injury. To protect the employee's privacy, you may not enter the employee's name on the OSHA 300 Log (see the requirements for privacy cases in paragraphs 1904.29(b)(6) through 1904.29(b)(9)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>What does “other potentially infectious material” mean?</I> The term “other potentially infectious materials” is defined in the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens standard at § 1910.1030(b). These materials include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Human bodily fluids, tissues and organs, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Other materials infected with the HIV or hepatitis B (HBV) virus such as laboratory cultures or tissues from experimental animals. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Does this mean that I must record all cuts, lacerations, punctures, and scratches?</I> No, you need to record cuts, lacerations, punctures, and scratches only if they are work-related and involve contamination with another person's blood or other potentially infectious material. If the cut, laceration, or scratch involves a clean object, or a contaminant other than blood or other potentially infectious material, you need to record the case only if it meets one or more of the recording criteria in § 1904.7. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>If I record an injury and the employee is later diagnosed with an infectious bloodborne disease, do I need to update the OSHA 300 Log?</I> Yes, you must update the classification of the case on the OSHA 300 Log if the case results in death, days away from work, restricted work, or job transfer. You must also update the description to identify the infectious disease and change the classification of the case from an injury to an illness. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>What if one of my employees is splashed or exposed to blood or other potentially infectious material without being cut or scratched? Do I need to record this incident?</I> You need to record such an incident on the OSHA 300 Log as an illness if: 
</P>
<P>(i) It results in the diagnosis of a bloodborne illness, such as HIV, hepatitis B, or hepatitis C; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) It meets one or more of the recording criteria in § 1904.7. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.9" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.9   Recording criteria for cases involving medical removal under OSHA standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> If an employee is medically removed under the medical surveillance requirements of an OSHA standard, you must record the case on the OSHA 300 Log. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>How do I classify medical removal cases on the OSHA 300 Log?</I> You must enter each medical removal case on the OSHA 300 Log as either a case involving days away from work or a case involving restricted work activity, depending on how you decide to comply with the medical removal requirement. If the medical removal is the result of a chemical exposure, you must enter the case on the OSHA 300 Log by checking the “poisoning” column. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Do all of OSHA's standards have medical removal provisions?</I> No, some OSHA standards, such as the standards covering bloodborne pathogens and noise, do not have medical removal provisions. Many OSHA standards that cover specific chemical substances have medical removal provisions. These standards include, but are not limited to, lead, cadmium, methylene chloride, formaldehyde, and benzene. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Do I have to record a case where I voluntarily removed the employee from exposure before the medical removal criteria in an OSHA standard are met?</I> No, if the case involves voluntary medical removal before the medical removal levels required by an OSHA standard, you do not need to record the case on the OSHA 300 Log. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.10" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.10   Recording criteria for cases involving occupational hearing loss.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> If an employee's hearing test (audiogram) reveals that the employee has experienced a work-related Standard Threshold Shift (STS) in hearing in one or both ears, and the employee's total hearing level is 25 decibels (dB) or more above audiometric zero (averaged at 2000, 3000, and 4000 Hz) in the same ear(s) as the STS, you must record the case on the OSHA 300 Log. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>What is a Standard Threshold Shift?</I> A Standard Threshold Shift, or STS, is defined in the occupational noise exposure standard at 29 CFR 1910.95(g)(10)(i) as a change in hearing threshold, relative to the baseline audiogram for that employee, of an average of 10 decibels (dB) or more at 2000, 3000, and 4000 hertz (Hz) in one or both ears. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How do I evaluate the current audiogram to determine whether an employee has an STS and a 25-dB hearing level?</I>—(i) <I>STS.</I> If the employee has never previously experienced a recordable hearing loss, you must compare the employee's current audiogram with that employee's baseline audiogram. If the employee has previously experienced a recordable hearing loss, you must compare the employee's current audiogram with the employee's revised baseline audiogram (the audiogram reflecting the employee's previous recordable hearing loss case). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>25-dB loss.</I> Audiometric test results reflect the employee's overall hearing ability in comparison to audiometric zero. Therefore, using the employee's current audiogram, you must use the average hearing level at 2000, 3000, and 4000 Hz to determine whether or not the employee's total hearing level is 25 dB or more. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>May I adjust the current audiogram to reflect the effects of aging on hearing?</I> Yes. When you are determining whether an STS has occurred, you may age adjust the employee's current audiogram results by using Tables F-1 or F-2, as appropriate, in appendix F of 29 CFR 1910.95. You may not use an age adjustment when determining whether the employee's total hearing level is 25 dB or more above audiometric zero. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Do I have to record the hearing loss if I am going to retest the employee's hearing?</I> No, if you retest the employee's hearing within 30 days of the first test, and the retest does not confirm the recordable STS, you are not required to record the hearing loss case on the OSHA 300 Log. If the retest confirms the recordable STS, you must record the hearing loss illness within seven (7) calendar days of the retest. If subsequent audiometric testing performed under the testing requirements of the § 1910.95 noise standard indicates that an STS is not persistent, you may erase or line-out the recorded entry. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Are there any special rules for determining whether a hearing loss case is work-related?</I> No. You must use the rules in § 1904.5 to determine if the hearing loss is work-related. If an event or exposure in the work environment either caused or contributed to the hearing loss, or significantly aggravated a pre-existing hearing loss, you must consider the case to be work related. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>If a physician or other licensed health care professional determines the hearing loss is not work-related, do I still need to record the case?</I> If a physician or other licensed health care professional determines, following the rules set out in § 1904.5, that the hearing loss is not work-related or that occupational noise exposure did not significantly aggravate the hearing loss, you do not have to consider the case work-related or record the case on the OSHA 300 Log.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>How do I complete the 300 Log for a hearing loss case?</I> When you enter a recordable hearing loss case on the OSHA 300 Log, you must check the 300 Log column for hearing loss. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>(Note:</HED>
<P>§ 1904.10(b)(7) is effective beginning January 1, 2004.)</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 44047, July 1, 2002, as amended at 67 FR 77170, Dec. 17, 2002; 84 FR 21457, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.11" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.11   Recording criteria for work-related tuberculosis cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> If any of your employees has been occupationally exposed to anyone with a known case of active tuberculosis (TB), and that employee subsequently develops a tuberculosis infection, as evidenced by a positive skin test or diagnosis by a physician or other licensed health care professional, you must record the case on the OSHA 300 Log by checking the “respiratory condition” column. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>Do I have to record, on the Log, a positive TB skin test result obtained at a pre-employment physical?</I> No, you do not have to record it because the employee was not occupationally exposed to a known case of active tuberculosis in your workplace. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>May I line-out or erase a recorded TB case if I obtain evidence that the case was not caused by occupational exposure?</I> Yes, you may line-out or erase the case from the Log under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) The worker is living in a household with a person who has been diagnosed with active TB; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Public Health Department has identified the worker as a contact of an individual with a case of active TB unrelated to the workplace; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A medical investigation shows that the employee's infection was caused by exposure to TB away from work, or proves that the case was not related to the workplace TB exposure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1904.13-1904.28" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1904.13-1904.28   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.29" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.3.17.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.29   Forms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> You must use OSHA 300, 300-A, and 301 forms, or equivalent forms, for recordable injuries and illnesses. The OSHA 300 form is called the Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, the 300-A is the Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, and the OSHA 301 form is called the Injury and Illness Incident Report. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>What do I need to do to complete the OSHA 300 Log?</I> You must enter information about your business at the top of the OSHA 300 Log, enter a one or two line description for each recordable injury or illness, and summarize this information on the OSHA 300-A at the end of the year. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>What do I need to do to complete the OSHA 301 Incident Report?</I> You must complete an OSHA 301 Incident Report form, or an equivalent form, for each recordable injury or illness entered on the OSHA 300 Log. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>How quickly must each injury or illness be recorded?</I> You must enter each recordable injury or illness on the OSHA 300 Log and 301 Incident Report within seven (7) calendar days of receiving information that a recordable injury or illness has occurred.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>What is an equivalent form?</I> An equivalent form is one that has the same information, is as readable and understandable, and is completed using the same instructions as the OSHA form it replaces. Many employers use an insurance form instead of the OSHA 301 Incident Report, or supplement an insurance form by adding any additional information required by OSHA. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>May I keep my records on a computer?</I> Yes, if the computer can produce equivalent forms when they are needed, as described under §§ 1904.35 and 1904.40, you may keep your records using the computer system. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Are there situations where I do not put the employee's name on the forms for privacy reasons?</I> Yes, if you have a “privacy concern case,” you may not enter the employee's name on the OSHA 300 Log. Instead, enter “privacy case” in the space normally used for the employee's name. This will protect the privacy of the injured or ill employee when another employee, a former employee, or an authorized employee representative is provided access to the OSHA 300 Log under § 1904.35(b)(2). You must keep a separate, confidential list of the case numbers and employee names for your privacy concern cases so you can update the cases and provide the information to the government if asked to do so. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>How do I determine if an injury or illness is a privacy concern case?</I> You must consider the following injuries or illnesses to be privacy concern cases: 
</P>
<P>(i) An injury or illness to an intimate body part or the reproductive system; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An injury or illness resulting from a sexual assault; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Mental illnesses; 
</P>
<P>(iv) HIV infection, hepatitis, or tuberculosis; 
</P>
<P>(v) Needlestick injuries and cuts from sharp objects that are contaminated with another person's blood or other potentially infectious material (see § 1904.8 for definitions); and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Other illnesses, if the employee voluntarily requests that his or her name not be entered on the log. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>May I classify any other types of injuries and illnesses as privacy concern cases?</I> No, this is a complete list of all injuries and illnesses considered privacy concern cases for part 1904 purposes. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>If I have removed the employee's name, but still believe that the employee may be identified from the information on the forms, is there anything else that I can do to further protect the employee's privacy?</I> Yes, if you have a reasonable basis to believe that information describing the privacy concern case may be personally identifiable even though the employee's name has been omitted, you may use discretion in describing the injury or illness on both the OSHA 300 and 301 forms. You must enter enough information to identify the cause of the incident and the general severity of the injury or illness, but you do not need to include details of an intimate or private nature. For example, a sexual assault case could be described as “injury from assault,” or an injury to a reproductive organ could be described as “lower abdominal injury.” 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>What must I do to protect employee privacy if I wish to provide access to the OSHA Forms 300 and 301 to persons other than government representatives, employees, former employees or authorized representatives?</I> If you decide to voluntarily disclose the Forms to persons other than government representatives, employees, former employees or authorized representatives (as required by §§ 1904.35 and 1904.40), you must remove or hide the employees' names and other personally identifying information, except for the following cases. You may disclose the Forms with personally identifying information only: 
</P>
<P>(i) to an auditor or consultant hired by the employer to evaluate the safety and health program; 
</P>
<P>(ii) to the extent necessary for processing a claim for workers' compensation or other insurance benefits; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) to a public health authority or law enforcement agency for uses and disclosures for which consent, an authorization, or opportunity to agree or object is not required under Department of Health and Human Services Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information, 45 CFR 164.512. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 52034, Oct. 12, 2001; 67 FR 77170, Dec. 17, 2002; 68 FR 38607, June 30, 2003; 81 FR 91809, Dec. 19, 2016; 82 FR 20548, May 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Other OSHA Injury and Illness Recordkeeping Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.30" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.30   Multiple business establishments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> You must keep a separate OSHA 300 Log for each establishment that is expected to be in operation for one year or longer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>Do I need to keep OSHA injury and illness records for short-term establishments (i.e., establishments that will exist for less than a year)?</I> Yes, however, you do not have to keep a separate OSHA 300 Log for each such establishment. You may keep one OSHA 300 Log that covers all of your short-term establishments. You may also include the short-term establishments' recordable injuries and illnesses on an OSHA 300 Log that covers short-term establishments for individual company divisions or geographic regions. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>May I keep the records for all of my establishments at my headquarters location or at some other central location?</I> Yes, you may keep the records for an establishment at your headquarters or other central location if you can: 
</P>
<P>(i) Transmit information about the injuries and illnesses from the establishment to the central location within seven (7) calendar days of receiving information that a recordable injury or illness has occurred; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Produce and send the records from the central location to the establishment within the time frames required by §§ 1904.35 and 1904.40 when you are required to provide records to a government representative, employees, former employees or employee representatives. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Some of my employees work at several different locations or do not work at any of my establishments at all. How do I record cases for these employees?</I> You must link each of your employees with one of your establishments, for recordkeeping purposes. You must record the injury and illness on the OSHA 300 Log of the injured or ill employee's establishment, or on an OSHA 300 Log that covers that employee's short-term establishment. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>How do I record an injury or illness when an employee of one of my establishments is injured or becomes ill while visiting or working at another of my establishments, or while working away from any of my establishments?</I> If the injury or illness occurs at one of your establishments, you must record the injury or illness on the OSHA 300 Log of the establishment at which the injury or illness occurred. If the employee is injured or becomes ill and is not at one of your establishments, you must record the case on the OSHA 300 Log at the establishment at which the employee normally works. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.31" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.31   Covered employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> You must record on the OSHA 300 Log the recordable injuries and illnesses of all employees on your payroll, whether they are labor, executive, hourly, salary, part-time, seasonal, or migrant workers. You also must record the recordable injuries and illnesses that occur to employees who are not on your payroll if you supervise these employees on a day-to-day basis. If your business is organized as a sole proprietorship or partnership, the owner or partners are not considered employees for recordkeeping purposes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>If a self-employed person is injured or becomes ill while doing work at my business, do I need to record the injury or illness?</I> No, self-employed individuals are not covered by the OSH Act or this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>If I obtain employees from a temporary help service, employee leasing service, or personnel supply service, do I have to record an injury or illness occurring to one of those employees?</I> You must record these injuries and illnesses if you supervise these employees on a day-to-day basis. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>If an employee in my establishment is a contractor's employee, must I record an injury or illness occurring to that employee?</I> If the contractor's employee is under the day-to-day supervision of the contractor, the contractor is responsible for recording the injury or illness. If you supervise the contractor employee's work on a day-to-day basis, you must record the injury or illness. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Must the personnel supply service, temporary help service, employee leasing service, or contractor also record the injuries or illnesses occurring to temporary, leased or contract employees that I supervise on a day-to-day basis?</I> No, you and the temporary help service, employee leasing service, personnel supply service, or contractor should coordinate your efforts to make sure that each injury and illness is recorded only once: either on your OSHA 300 Log (if you provide day-to-day supervision) or on the other employer's OSHA 300 Log (if that company provides day-to-day supervision). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.32" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.32   Annual summary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> At the end of each calendar year, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Review the OSHA 300 Log to verify that the entries are complete and accurate, and correct any deficiencies identified;
</P>
<P>(2) Create an annual summary of injuries and illnesses recorded on the OSHA 300 Log;
</P>
<P>(3) Certify the summary; and
</P>
<P>(4) Post the annual summary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>How extensively do I have to review the OSHA 300 Log entries at the end of the year?</I> You must review the entries as extensively as necessary to make sure that they are complete and correct.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How do I complete the annual summary?</I> You must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Total the columns on the OSHA 300 Log (if you had no recordable cases, enter zeros for each column total); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Enter the calendar year covered, the company's name, establishment name, establishment address, annual average number of employees covered by the OSHA 300 Log, and the total hours worked by all employees covered by the OSHA 300 Log. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If you are using an equivalent form other than the OSHA 300-A summary form, as permitted under § 1904.29(b)(4), the summary you use must also include the employee access and employer penalty statements found on the OSHA 300-A Summary form.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>How do I certify the annual summary?</I> A company executive must certify that he or she has examined the OSHA 300 Log and that he or she reasonably believes, based on his or her knowledge of the process by which the information was recorded, that the annual summary is correct and complete. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Who is considered a company executive?</I> The company executive who certifies the log must be one of the following persons: 
</P>
<P>(i) An owner of the company (only if the company is a sole proprietorship or partnership); 
</P>
<P>(ii) An officer of the corporation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The highest ranking company official working at the establishment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The immediate supervisor of the highest ranking company official working at the establishment. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>How do I post the annual summary?</I> You must post a copy of the annual summary in each establishment in a conspicuous place or places where notices to employees are customarily posted. You must ensure that the posted annual summary is not altered, defaced or covered by other material. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>When do I have to post the annual summary?</I> You must post the summary no later than February 1 of the year following the year covered by the records and keep the posting in place until April 30. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 91810, Dec. 19, 2016; 82 FR 20548, May 3, 2017; 85 FR 8731, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.33" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.33   Retention and updating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> You must save the OSHA 300 Log, the privacy case list (if one exists), the annual summary, and the OSHA 301 Incident Report forms for five (5) years following the end of the calendar year that these records cover. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>Do I have to update the OSHA 300 Log during the five-year storage period?</I> Yes, during the storage period, you must update your stored OSHA 300 Logs to include newly discovered recordable injuries or illnesses and to show any changes that have occurred in the classification of previously recorded injuries and illnesses. If the description or outcome of a case changes, you must remove or line out the original entry and enter the new information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Do I have to update the annual summary?</I> No, you are not required to update the annual summary, but you may do so if you wish.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Do I have to update the OSHA 301 Incident Reports?</I> No, you are not required to update the OSHA 301 Incident Reports, but you may do so if you wish.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 91810, Dec. 19, 2016; 82 FR 20548, May 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.34" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.34   Change in business ownership.</HEAD>
<P>If your business changes ownership, you are responsible for recording and reporting work-related injuries and illnesses only for that period of the year during which you owned the establishment. You must transfer the part 1904 records to the new owner. The new owner must save all records of the establishment kept by the prior owner, as required by § 1904.33 of this part, but need not update or correct the records of the prior owner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 20549, May 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.35" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.35   Employee involvement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> Your employees and their representatives must be involved in the recordkeeping system in several ways.
</P>
<P>(1) You must inform each employee of how he or she is to report a work-related injury or illness to you.
</P>
<P>(2) You must provide employees with the information described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) You must provide access to your injury and illness records for your employees and their representatives as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>What must I do to make sure that employees report work-related injuries and illnesses to me?</I> (i) You must establish a reasonable procedure for employees to report work-related injuries and illnesses promptly and accurately. A procedure is not reasonable if it would deter or discourage a reasonable employee from accurately reporting a workplace injury or illness;
</P>
<P>(ii) You must inform each employee of your procedure for reporting work-related injuries and illnesses;
</P>
<P>(iii) You must inform each employee that:
</P>
<P>(A) Employees have the right to report work-related injuries and illnesses; and
</P>
<P>(B) Employers are prohibited from discharging or in any manner discriminating against employees for reporting work-related injuries or illnesses; and
</P>
<P>(iv) You must not discharge or in any manner discriminate against any employee for reporting a work-related injury or illness.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Do I have to give my employees and their representatives access to the OSHA injury and illness records?</I> Yes, your employees, former employees, their personal representatives, and their authorized employee representatives have the right to access the OSHA injury and illness records, with some limitations, as discussed below.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Who is an authorized employee representative?</I> An authorized employee representative is an authorized collective bargaining agent of employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Who is a “personal representative” of an employee or former employee?</I> A personal representative is:
</P>
<P>(A) Any person that the employee or former employee designates as such, in writing; or
</P>
<P>(B) The legal representative of a deceased or legally incapacitated employee or former employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>If an employee or representative asks for access to the OSHA 300 Log, when do I have to provide it?</I> When an employee, former employee, personal representative, or authorized employee representative asks for copies of your current or stored OSHA 300 Log(s) for an establishment the employee or former employee has worked in, you must give the requester a copy of the relevant OSHA 300 Log(s) by the end of the next business day.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>May I remove the names of the employees or any other information from the OSHA 300 Log before I give copies to an employee, former employee, or employee representative?</I> No, you must leave the names on the 300 Log. However, to protect the privacy of injured and ill employees, you may not record the employee's name on the OSHA 300 Log for certain “privacy concern cases,” as specified in § 1904.29(b)(6) through (9).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>If an employee or representative asks for access to the OSHA 301 Incident Report, when do I have to provide it?</I> (A) When an employee, former employee, or personal representative asks for a copy of the OSHA 301 Incident Report describing an injury or illness to that employee or former employee, you must give the requester a copy of the OSHA 301 Incident Report containing that information by the end of the next business day.
</P>
<P>(B) When an authorized employee representative asks for copies of the OSHA 301 Incident Reports for an establishment where the agent represents employees under a collective bargaining agreement, you must give copies of those forms to the authorized employee representative within 7 calendar days. You are only required to give the authorized employee representative information from the OSHA 301 Incident Report section titled “Tell us about the case.” You must remove all other information from the copy of the OSHA 301 Incident Report or the equivalent substitute form that you give to the authorized employee representative.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>May I charge for the copies?</I> No, you may not charge for these copies the first time they are provided. However, if one of the designated persons asks for additional copies, you may assess a reasonable charge for retrieving and copying the records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29691, May 12, 2016; 81 FR 31854, May 20, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 91810, Dec. 19, 2016; 82 FR 20549, May 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.36" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.36   Prohibition against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to § 1904.35, section 11(c) of the OSH Act also prohibits you from discriminating against an employee for reporting a work-related fatality, injury, or illness. That provision of the Act also protects the employee who files a safety and health complaint, asks for access to the part 1904 records, or otherwise exercises any rights afforded by the OSH Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29692, May 12, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.37" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.37   State recordkeeping regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> Some States operate their own OSHA programs, under the authority of a State plan as approved by OSHA. States operating OSHA-approved State plans must have occupational injury and illness recording and reporting requirements that are substantially identical to the requirements in this part (see 29 CFR 1902.3(j), 29 CFR 1902.7, and 29 CFR 1956.10(i)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation.</I> (1) State-Plan States must have the same requirements as Federal OSHA for determining which injuries and illnesses are recordable and how they are recorded. 
</P>
<P>(2) For other part 1904 provisions (for example, industry exemptions, reporting of fatalities and hospitalizations, record retention, or employee involvement), State-Plan State requirements may be more stringent than or supplemental to the Federal requirements, but because of the unique nature of the national recordkeeping program, States must consult with and obtain approval of any such requirements. 
</P>
<P>(3) Although State and local government employees are not covered Federally, all State-Plan States must provide coverage, and must develop injury and illness statistics, for these workers. State Plan recording and reporting requirements for State and local government entities may differ from those for the private sector but must meet the requirements of paragraphs 1904.37(b)(1) and (b)(2). 
</P>
<P>(4) A State-Plan State may not issue a variance to a private sector employer and must recognize all variances issued by Federal OSHA. 
</P>
<P>(5) A State Plan State may only grant an injury and illness recording and reporting variance to a State or local government employer within the State after obtaining approval to grant the variance from Federal OSHA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 80 FR 49904, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.38" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.4.17.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.38   Variances from the recordkeeping rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> If you wish to keep records in a different manner from the manner prescribed by the part 1904 regulations, you may submit a variance petition to the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. You can obtain a variance only if you can show that your alternative recordkeeping system: 
</P>
<P>(1) Collects the same information as this part requires; 
</P>
<P>(2) Meets the purposes of the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Does not interfere with the administration of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>What do I need to include in my variance petition?</I> You must include the following items in your petition: 
</P>
<P>(i) Your name and address; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of the State(s) where the variance would be used; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The address(es) of the business establishment(s) involved; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of why you are seeking a variance; 
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the different recordkeeping procedures you propose to use; 
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of how your proposed procedures will collect the same information as would be collected by this part and achieve the purpose of the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement that you have informed your employees of the petition by giving them or their authorized representative a copy of the petition and by posting a statement summarizing the petition in the same way as notices are posted under § 1903.2(a). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How will the Assistant Secretary handle my variance petition?</I> The Assistant Secretary will take the following steps to process your variance petition. 
</P>
<P>(i) The Assistant Secretary will offer your employees and their authorized representatives an opportunity to submit written data, views, and arguments about your variance petition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Assistant Secretary may allow the public to comment on your variance petition by publishing the petition in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If the petition is published, the notice will establish a public comment period and may include a schedule for a public meeting on the petition. 
</P>
<P>(iii) After reviewing your variance petition and any comments from your employees and the public, the Assistant Secretary will decide whether or not your proposed recordkeeping procedures will meet the purposes of the Act, will not otherwise interfere with the Act, and will provide the same information as the part 1904 regulations provide. If your procedures meet these criteria, the Assistant Secretary may grant the variance subject to such conditions as he or she finds appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the Assistant Secretary grants your variance petition, OSHA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> to announce the variance. The notice will include the practices the variance allows you to use, any conditions that apply, and the reasons for allowing the variance. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>If I apply for a variance, may I use my proposed recordkeeping procedures while the Assistant Secretary is processing the variance petition?</I> No, alternative recordkeeping practices are only allowed after the variance is approved. You must comply with the part 1904 regulations while the Assistant Secretary is reviewing your variance petition. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>If I have already been cited by OSHA for not following the part 1904 regulations, will my variance petition have any effect on the citation and penalty?</I> No, in addition, the Assistant Secretary may elect not to review your variance petition if it includes an element for which you have been cited and the citation is still under review by a court, an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ), or the OSH Review Commission. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>If I receive a variance, may the Assistant Secretary revoke the variance at a later date?</I> Yes, the Assistant Secretary may revoke your variance if he or she has good cause. The procedures revoking a variance will follow the same process as OSHA uses for reviewing variance petitions, as outlined in paragraph 1904.38(b)(2). Except in cases of willfulness or where necessary for public safety, the Assistant Secretary will: 
</P>
<P>(i) Notify you in writing of the facts or conduct that may warrant revocation of your variance; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide you, your employees, and authorized employee representatives with an opportunity to participate in the revocation procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Reporting Fatality, Injury and Illness Information to the Government</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 657, 673, 5 U.S.C. 553, and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 08-2020 (85 FR 58393, Sept. 18, 2020) or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012), as applicable.




</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1904.39" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.5.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.39   Reporting fatalities, hospitalizations, amputations, and losses of an eye as a result of work-related incidents to OSHA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> (1) Within eight (8) hours after the death of any employee as a result of a work-related incident, you must report the fatality to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(2) Within twenty-four (24) hours after the in-patient hospitalization of one or more employees or an employee's amputation or an employee's loss of an eye, as a result of a work-related incident, you must report the in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye to OSHA.
</P>
<P>(3) You must report the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye using one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By telephone or in person to the OSHA Area Office that is nearest to the site of the incident.
</P>
<P>(ii) By telephone to the OSHA toll-free central telephone number, 1-800-321-OSHA (1-800-321-6742).
</P>
<P>(iii) By electronic submission using the reporting application located on OSHA's public Web site at <I>www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>If the Area Office is closed, may I report the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye by leaving a message on OSHA's answering machine, faxing the Area Office, or sending an email?</I> No, if the Area Office is closed, you must report the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye using either the 800 number or the reporting application located on OSHA's public Web site at <I>www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>What information do I need to give to OSHA about the in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye?</I> You must give OSHA the following information for each fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye:
</P>
<P>(i) The establishment name;
</P>
<P>(ii) The location of the work-related incident;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time of the work-related incident;
</P>
<P>(iv) The type of reportable event (<I>i.e.</I>, fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye);
</P>
<P>(v) The number of employees who suffered a fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye;
</P>
<P>(vi) The names of the employees who suffered a fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye;
</P>
<P>(vii) Your contact person and his or her phone number; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A brief description of the work-related incident.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Do I have to report the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye if it resulted from a motor vehicle accident on a public street or highway?</I> If the motor vehicle accident occurred in a construction work zone, you must report the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye. If the motor vehicle accident occurred on a public street or highway, but not in a construction work zone, you do not have to report the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye to OSHA. However, the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye must be recorded on your OSHA injury and illness records, if you are required to keep such records.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Do I have to report the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye if it occurred on a commercial or public transportation system?</I> No, you do not have to report the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye to OSHA if it occurred on a commercial or public transportation system (e.g., airplane, train, subway, or bus). However, the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye must be recorded on your OSHA injury and illness records, if you are required to keep such records.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Do I have to report a work-related fatality or in-patient hospitalization caused by a heart attack?</I> Yes, your local OSHA Area Office director will decide whether to investigate the event, depending on the circumstances of the heart attack.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>What if the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye does not occur during or right after the work-related incident?</I> You must only report a fatality to OSHA if the fatality occurs within thirty (30) days of the work-related incident. For an in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye, you must only report the event to OSHA if it occurs within twenty-four (24) hours of the work-related incident. However, the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye must be recorded on your OSHA injury and illness records, if you are required to keep such records.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>What if I don't learn about a reportable fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye right away?</I> If you do not learn about a reportable fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye at the time it takes place, you must make the report to OSHA within the following time period after the fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye is reported to you or to any of your agent(s): Eight (8) hours for a fatality, and twenty-four (24) hours for an in-patient hospitalization, an amputation, or a loss of an eye.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>What if I don't learn right away that the reportable fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye was the result of a work-related incident?</I> If you do not learn right away that the reportable fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye was the result of a work-related incident, you must make the report to OSHA within the following time period after you or any of your agent(s) learn that the reportable fatality, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye was the result of a work-related incident: Eight (8) hours for a fatality, and twenty-four (24) hours for an in-patient hospitalization, an amputation, or a loss of an eye.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>How does OSHA define “in-patient hospitalization”?</I> OSHA defines in-patient hospitalization as a formal admission to the in-patient service of a hospital or clinic for care or treatment.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Do I have to report an in-patient hospitalization that involves only observation or diagnostic testing?</I> No, you do not have to report an in-patient hospitalization that involves only observation or diagnostic testing. You must only report to OSHA each in-patient hospitalization that involves care or treatment.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>How does OSHA define “amputation”?</I> An amputation is the traumatic loss of a limb or other external body part. Amputations include a part, such as a limb or appendage, that has been severed, cut off, amputated (either completely or partially); fingertip amputations with or without bone loss; medical amputations resulting from irreparable damage; amputations of body parts that have since been reattached. Amputations do not include avulsions, enucleations, deglovings, scalpings, severed ears, or broken or chipped teeth.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 56187, Sept. 18, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.40" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.5.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.40   Providing records to government representatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> When an authorized government representative asks for the records you keep under part 1904, you must provide copies of the records within four (4) business hours.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>What government representatives have the right to get copies of my part 1904 records?</I> The government representatives authorized to receive the records are: 
</P>
<P>(i) A representative of the Secretary of Labor conducting an inspection or investigation under the Act; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A representative of the Secretary of Health and Human Services (including the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health—NIOSH) conducting an investigation under section 20(b) of the Act, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A representative of a State agency responsible for administering a State plan approved under section 18 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Do I have to produce the records within four (4) hours if my records are kept at a location in a different time zone?</I> OSHA will consider your response to be timely if you give the records to the government representative within four (4) business hours of the request. If you maintain the records at a location in a different time zone, you may use the business hours of the establishment at which the records are located when calculating the deadline. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 91810, Dec. 19, 2016; 82 FR 20549, May 3, 2017]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.41" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.5.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.41   Electronic submission of Employer Identification Number (EIN) and injury and illness records to OSHA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirements</I>—(1) <I>Annual electronic submission of information from OSHA Form 300A Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses.</I> (i) If your establishment had 20-249 employees at any time during the previous calendar year, and your establishment is classified in an industry listed in appendix A to subpart E of this part, then you must electronically submit information from OSHA Form 300A Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses to OSHA or OSHA's designee. You must submit the information once a year, no later than the date listed in paragraph (c) of this section of the year after the calendar year covered by the form.
</P>
<P>(ii) If your establishment had 250 or more employees at any time during the previous calendar year, and this part requires your establishment to keep records, then you must electronically submit information from OSHA Form 300A Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses to OSHA or OSHA's designee. You must submit the information once a year, no later than the date listed in paragraph (c) of this section of the year after the calendar year covered by the form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual electronic submission of information from OSHA Form 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses and OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report by establishments with 100 or more employees in designated industries.</I> If your establishment had 100 or more employees at any time during the previous calendar year, and your establishment is classified in an industry listed in appendix B to subpart E of this part, then you must electronically submit information from OSHA Forms 300 and 301 to OSHA or OSHA's designee. You must submit the information once a year, no later than the date listed in paragraph (c) of this section of the year after the calendar year covered by the forms.


















</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electronic submission of part 1904 records upon notification.</I> Upon notification, you must electronically submit the requested information from your part 1904 records to OSHA or OSHA's designee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic submission of the Employer Identification Number (EIN).</I> For each establishment that is subject to these reporting requirements, you must provide the EIN used by the establishment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>Does every employer have to routinely make an annual electronic submission of information from part 1904 injury and illness recordkeeping forms to OSHA?</I> No, only three categories of employers must routinely submit information from these forms. The first category is establishments that had 20-249 employees at any time during the previous calendar year, and are classified in an industry listed in appendix A to this subpart; establishments in this category must submit the required information from Form 300A to OSHA once a year. The second category is establishments that had 250 or more employees at any time during the previous calendar year, and are required by this part to keep records; establishments in this category must submit the required information from Form 300A to OSHA once a year. The third category is establishments that had 100 or more employees at any time during the previous calendar year, and are classified in an industry listed in appendix B to this subpart; establishments in this category must also submit the required information from Forms 300 and 301 to OSHA once a year, in addition to the required information from Form 300A. Employers in these three categories must submit the required information by the date listed in paragraph (c) of this section of the year after the calendar year covered by the form (for example, 2024 for the 2023 form(s)). If your establishment is not in any of these three categories, then you must submit the information to OSHA only if OSHA notifies you to do so for an individual data collection.










</P>
<P>(2) <I>Do part-time, seasonal, or temporary workers count as employees in the criteria for number of employees in paragraph (a) of this section?</I> Yes, each individual employed in the establishment at any time during the calendar year counts as one employee, including full-time, part-time, seasonal, and temporary workers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>How will OSHA notify me that I must submit information as part of an individual data collection under paragraph (a)(3) of this section?</I> OSHA will notify you by mail if you will have to submit information as part of an individual data collection under paragraph (a)(3). OSHA will also announce individual data collections through publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the OSHA newsletter, and announcements on the OSHA website. If you are an employer who must routinely submit the information, then OSHA will not notify you about your routine submittal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>When do I have to submit the information?</I> If you are required to submit information under paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, then you must submit the information once a year, by the date listed in paragraph (c) of this section of the year after the calendar year covered by the form (for example, 2019 for the 2018 form). If you are submitting information because OSHA notified you to submit information as part of an individual data collection under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, then you must submit the information as specified in the notification.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>How do I submit the information?</I> You must submit the information electronically. OSHA will provide a secure website for the electronic submission of information. For individual data collections under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, OSHA will include the website's location in the notification for the data collection.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Do I have to submit information if my establishment is partially exempt from keeping OSHA injury and illness records?</I> If you are partially exempt from keeping injury and illness records under §§ 1904.1 and/or 1904.2, then you do not have to routinely submit information under paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section. You will have to submit information under paragraph (a)(3) of this section if OSHA informs you in writing that it will collect injury and illness information from you. If you receive such a notification, then you must keep the injury and illness records required by this part and submit information as directed.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Do I have to submit information if I am located in a State Plan State?</I> Yes, the requirements apply to employers located in State Plan States.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>May an enterprise or corporate office electronically submit information for its establishment(s)?</I> Yes, if your enterprise or corporate office had ownership of or control over one or more establishments required to submit information under paragraph (a) of this section, then the enterprise or corporate office may collect and electronically submit the information for the establishment(s).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>If I have to submit information under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, do I have to submit all of the information from the recordkeeping forms?</I> No, you are required to submit all of the information from the forms <I>except</I> the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (OSHA Form 300): Employee name (column B).
</P>
<P>(ii) Injury and Illness Incident Report (OSHA Form 301): Employee name (field 1), employee address (field 2), name of physician or other health care professional (field 6), facility name and address if treatment was given away from the worksite (field 7).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>My company uses numbers or codes to identify our establishments. May I use numbers or codes as the establishment name in my submission?</I> Yes, you may use numbers or codes as the establishment name. However, the submission must include a legal company name, either as part of the establishment name or separately as the company name.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting dates.</I> Establishments that are required to submit under paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section must submit all of the required information by March 2 of the year after the calendar year covered by the form(s) (for example, by March 2, 2024, for the forms covering 2023).




















</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29692, May 12, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 55765, Nov. 24, 2017; 84 FR 405, Jan. 25, 2019; 88 FR 47346, July 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.42" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.5.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.42   Requests from the Bureau of Labor Statistics for data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> If you receive a Survey of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses Form from the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), or a BLS designee, you must promptly complete the form and return it following the instructions contained on the survey form. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>Does every employer have to send data to the BLS?</I> No, each year, the BLS sends injury and illness survey forms to randomly selected employers and uses the information to create the Nation's occupational injury and illness statistics. In any year, some employers will receive a BLS survey form and others will not. You do not have to send injury and illness data to the BLS unless you receive a survey form. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>If I get a survey form from the BLS, what do I have to do?</I> If you receive a Survey of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses Form from the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), or a BLS designee, you must promptly complete the form and return it, following the instructions contained on the survey form. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Do I have to respond to a BLS survey form if I am normally exempt from keeping OSHA injury and illness records?</I> Yes, even if you are exempt from keeping injury and illness records under § 1904.1 to § 1904.3, the BLS may inform you in writing that it will be collecting injury and illness information from you in the coming year. If you receive such a letter, you must keep the injury and illness records required by § 1904.5 to § 1904.15 and make a survey report for the year covered by the survey. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Do I have to answer the BLS survey form if I am located in a State-Plan State?</I> Yes, all employers who receive a survey form must respond to the survey, even those in State-Plan States. 





</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.5.17.5.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart E of Part 1904—Designated Industries for § 1904.41(a)(1)(i) Annual Electronic Submission of Information From OSHA Form 300A Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses by Establishments With 20-249 Employees in Designated Industries
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NAICS
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing and Hunting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Utilities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Construction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31-33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wholesale Trade.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4413</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive Parts, Accessories, and Tire Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4421</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furniture Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4422</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Home Furnishings Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4441</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Building Material and Supplies Dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4442</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lawn and Garden Equipment and Supplies Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4451</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grocery Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4452</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialty Food Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4522</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Department Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4523</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Merchandise Stores, including Warehouse Clubs and Supercenters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4533</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Used Merchandise Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4542</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vending Machine Operators.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4543</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct Selling Establishments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4811</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scheduled Air Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4841</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Freight Trucking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4842</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialized Freight Trucking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4851</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Urban Transit Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4852</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interurban and Rural Bus Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4853</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Taxi and Limousine Service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4854</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">School and Employee Bus Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4855</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Charter Bus Industry.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4859</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Transit and Ground Passenger Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4871</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scenic and Sightseeing Transportation, Land.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4881</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Air Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4882</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Rail Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4883</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Water Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4884</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Road Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4889</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Support Activities for Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4911</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Postal Service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4921</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Couriers and Express Delivery Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4922</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Local Messengers and Local Delivery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4931</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Warehousing and Storage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cable and Other Subscription Programming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5311</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lessors of Real Estate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5321</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive Equipment Rental and Leasing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5322</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Consumer Goods Rental.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5323</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Rental Centers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5617</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Services to Buildings and Dwellings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5621</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waste Collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5622</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waste Treatment and Disposal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5629</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remediation and Other Waste Management Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Ambulatory Health Care Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Medical and Surgical Hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Psychiatric and Substance Abuse Hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialty (except Psychiatric and Substance Abuse) Hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nursing Care Facilities (Skilled Nursing Facilities).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residential Intellectual and Developmental Disability, Mental Health, and Substance Abuse Facilities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Continuing Care Retirement Communities and Assisted Living Facilities for the Elderly
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Residential Care Facilities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Community Food and Housing, and Emergency and Other Relief Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vocational Rehabilitation Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Performing Arts Companies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spectator Sports.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Museums, Historical Sites, and Similar Institutions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amusement Parks and Arcades.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gambling Industries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Traveler Accommodation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RV (Recreational Vehicle) Parks and Recreational Camps.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special Food Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercial and Industrial Machinery and Equipment (except Automotive and Electronic) Repair and Maintenance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drycleaning and Laundry Services.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 47347, July 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.5.17.5.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart E of Part 1904—Designated Industries for § 1904.41(a)(2) Annual Electronic Submission of Information From OSHA Form 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses and OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report by Establishments With 100 or More Employees in Designated Industries
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NAICS
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oilseed and Grain Farming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vegetable and Melon Farming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fruit and Tree Nut Farming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greenhouse, Nursery, and Floriculture Production.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1119</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Crop Farming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cattle Ranching and Farming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hog and Pig Farming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poultry and Egg Production.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Animal Production.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Logging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fishing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hunting and Trapping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Crop Production.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Animal Production.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Forestry.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water, Sewage and Other Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2381</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Foundation, Structure, and Building Exterior Contractors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Animal Food Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sugar and Confectionery Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fruit and Vegetable Preserving and Specialty Food Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dairy Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3116</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Animal Slaughtering and Processing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seafood Product Preparation and Packaging.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3118</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bakeries and Tortilla Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3119</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Food Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beverage Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3161</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leather and Hide Tanning and Finishing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3162</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Footwear Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sawmills and Wood Preservation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Veneer, Plywood, and Engineered Wood Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Wood Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3261</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plastics Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3262</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rubber Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3271</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clay Product and Refractory Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3272</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Glass and Glass Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3273</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cement and Concrete Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3279</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Nonmetallic Mineral Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3312</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Steel Product Manufacturing from Purchased Steel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3314</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nonferrous Metal (except Aluminum) Production and Processing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3315</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Foundries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3321</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Forging and Stamping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3323</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Architectural and Structural Metals Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3324</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boiler, Tank, and Shipping Container Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3325</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hardware Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3326</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spring and Wire Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3327</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Machine Shops; Turned Product; and Screw, Nut, and Bolt Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3328</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coating, Engraving, Heat Treating, and Allied Activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3331</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agriculture, Construction, and Mining Machinery Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3335</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metalworking Machinery Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3361</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor Vehicle Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3362</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor Vehicle Body and Trailer Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3363</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor Vehicle Parts Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3366</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ship and Boat Building.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3371</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Household and Institutional Furniture and Kitchen Cabinet Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3372</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office Furniture (including Fixtures) Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3379</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Furniture Related Product Manufacturing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motor Vehicle and Motor Vehicle Parts and Supplies Merchant Wholesalers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lumber and Other Construction Materials Merchant Wholesalers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal and Mineral (except Petroleum) Merchant Wholesalers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miscellaneous Durable Goods Merchant Wholesalers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grocery and Related Product Merchant Wholesalers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beer, Wine, and Distilled Alcoholic Beverage Merchant Wholesalers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4413</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automotive Parts, Accessories, and Tire Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4422</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Home Furnishings Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4441</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Building Material and Supplies Dealers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4442</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lawn and Garden Equipment and Supplies Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4451</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grocery Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4522</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Department Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4523</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Merchandise Stores, including Warehouse Clubs and Supercenters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4533</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Used Merchandise Stores.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4543</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct Selling Establishments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4811</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scheduled Air Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4841</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Freight Trucking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4842</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialized Freight Trucking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4851</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Urban Transit Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4852</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interurban and Rural Bus Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4853</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Taxi and Limousine Service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4854</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">School and Employee Bus Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4859</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Transit and Ground Passenger Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4871</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scenic and Sightseeing Transportation, Land.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4881</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Air Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4883</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Support Activities for Water Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4889</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Support Activities for Transportation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4911</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Postal Service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4921</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Couriers and Express Delivery Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4931</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Warehousing and Storage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5322</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Consumer Goods Rental.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5621</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waste Collection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5622</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waste Treatment and Disposal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Ambulatory Health Care Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6221</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Medical and Surgical Hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Psychiatric and Substance Abuse Hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialty (except Psychiatric and Substance Abuse) Hospitals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nursing Care Facilities (Skilled Nursing Facilities).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residential Intellectual and Developmental Disability, Mental Health, and Substance Abuse Facilities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Continuing Care Retirement Communities and Assisted Living Facilities for the Elderly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other Residential Care Facilities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vocational Rehabilitation Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Performing Arts Companies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spectator Sports.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amusement Parks and Arcades.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Traveler Accommodation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RV (Recreational Vehicle) Parks and Recreational Camps.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special Food Services.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 47348, July 21, 2023]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Transition From the Former Rule</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.43" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.6.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.43   Summary and posting of the 2001 data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirement.</I> If you were required to keep OSHA 200 Logs in 2001, you must post a 2000 annual summary from the OSHA 200 Log of occupational injuries and illnesses for each establishment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>What do I have to include in the summary?</I> (i) You must include a copy of the totals from the 2001 OSHA 200 Log and the following information from that form: 
</P>
<P>(A) The calendar year covered; 
</P>
<P>(B) Your company name; 
</P>
<P>(C) The name and address of the establishment; and 
</P>
<P>(D) The certification signature, title and date. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If no injuries or illnesses occurred at your establishment in 2001, you must enter zeros on the totals line and post the 2001 summary. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When am I required to summarize and post the 2001 information?</I> (i) You must complete the summary by February 1, 2002; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) You must post a copy of the summary in each establishment in a conspicuous place or places where notices to employees are customarily posted. You must ensure that the summary is not altered, defaced or covered by other material. 
</P>
<P>(3) You must post the 2001 summary from February 1, 2002 to March 1, 2002. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.44" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.6.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.44   Retention and updating of old forms.</HEAD>
<P>You must save your copies of the OSHA 200 and 101 forms for five years following the year to which they relate and continue to provide access to the data as though these forms were the OSHA 300 and 301 forms. You are not required to update your old 200 and 101 forms. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.45" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.6.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.45   OMB control numbers under the Paperwork Reduction Act</HEAD>
<P>The following sections each contain a collection of information requirement which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the control number listed 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">29 CFR citation 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB Control No. 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1904.4-35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0176 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1904.39-41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0176 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1904.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1220-0045 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1904.43-44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0176</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1904.46" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.4.7.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1904.46   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>The Act.</I> The Act means the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>). The definitions contained in section 3 of the Act (29 U.S.C. 652) and related interpretations apply to such terms when used in this part 1904. 
</P>
<P><I>Establishment.</I> An establishment is a single physical location where business is conducted or where services or industrial operations are performed. For activities where employees do not work at a single physical location, such as construction; transportation; communications, electric, gas and sanitary services; and similar operations, the establishment is represented by main or branch offices, terminals, stations, etc. that either supervise such activities or are the base from which personnel carry out these activities. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Can one business location include two or more establishments?</I> Normally, one business location has only one establishment. Under limited conditions, the employer may consider two or more separate businesses that share a single location to be separate establishments. An employer may divide one location into two or more establishments only when: 
</P>
<P>(i) Each of the establishments represents a distinctly separate business; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each business is engaged in a different economic activity; 
</P>
<P>(iii) No one industry description in the North American Industry Classification System (2007) codes applies to the joint activities of the establishments; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Separate reports are routinely prepared for each establishment on the number of employees, their wages and salaries, sales or receipts, and other business information. For example, if an employer operates a construction company at the same location as a lumber yard, the employer may consider each business to be a separate establishment. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Can an establishment include more than one physical location?</I> Yes, but only under certain conditions. An employer may combine two or more physical locations into a single establishment only when: 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer operates the locations as a single business operation under common management; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The locations are all located in close proximity to each other; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer keeps one set of business records for the locations, such as records on the number of employees, their wages and salaries, sales or receipts, and other kinds of business information. For example, one manufacturing establishment might include the main plant, a warehouse a few blocks away, and an administrative services building across the street. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>If an employee telecommutes from home, is his or her home considered a separate establishment?</I> No, for employees who telecommute from home, the employee's home is not a business establishment and a separate 300 Log is not required. Employees who telecommute must be linked to one of your establishments under § 1904.30(b)(3). 
</P>
<P><I>Injury or illness.</I> An injury or illness is an abnormal condition or disorder. Injuries include cases such as, but not limited to, a cut, fracture, sprain, or amputation. Illnesses include both acute and chronic illnesses, such as, but not limited to, a skin disease, respiratory disorder, or poisoning. (Note: Injuries and illnesses are recordable only if they are new, work-related cases that meet one or more of the part 1904 recording criteria.) 
</P>
<P><I>Physician or Other Licensed Health Care Professional.</I> A physician or other licensed health care professional is an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.,</I> license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently perform, or be delegated the responsibility to perform, the activities described by this regulation. 
</P>
<P><I>You.</I> “You” means an employer as defined in section 3 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 652).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2001, as amended at 85 FR 8731, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1905" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1905—RULES OF PRACTICE FOR VARIANCES, LIMITATIONS, VARIATIONS, TOLERANCES, AND EXEMPTIONS UNDER THE WILLIAMS-STEIGER OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ACT OF 1970
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 6, 8, 16, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 655, 657, 665), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), or 9-83 (48 FR 35736) as applicable.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 12290, June 30, 1971, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.1" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.1.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains rules of practice for administrative proceedings
</P>
<P>(1) To grant variances and other relief under sections 6(b)(6)(A) and 6(d) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, and
</P>
<P>(2) To provide limitations, variations, tolerances, and exemptions under section 16 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) These rules shall be construed to secure a prompt and just conclusion of proceedings subject thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) The rules of practice in this part do not apply to the granting of variances under section 6(b)(6)(C). Whenever appropriate, the procedure for granting such a variance shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.2" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.1.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context clearly requires otherwise—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, and organized group of individuals, or an agency, authority, or instrumentality of the United States or of a State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Party</I> means a person admitted to participate in a hearing conducted in accordance with subpart C of this part. An applicant for relief and any affected employee shall be entitled to be named parties. The Department of Labor, represented by the Office of the Solicitor, shall be deemed to be a party without the necessity of being named.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Affected employee</I> means an employee who would be affected by the grant or denial of a variance, limitation, variation, tolerance, or exemption, or any one of his authorized representatives, such as his collective bargaining agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.3" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.1.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.3   Petitions for amendments to this part.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may at any time petition the Assistant Secretary in writing to revise, amend, or revoke any provisions of this part. The petition should set forth either the terms or the substance of the rule desired, with a concise statement of the reasons therefor and the effects thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.4" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.1.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.4   Amendments to this part.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary may at any time revise, amend, or revoke any provisions of this part, on his own motion or upon the written petition of any person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.5" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.1.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.5   Effect of variances.</HEAD>
<P>All variances granted pursuant to this part shall have only future effect. In his discretion, the Assistant Secretary may decline to entertain an application for a variance on a subject or issue concerning which a citation has been issued to the employer involved and a proceeding on the citation or a related issue concerning a proposed penalty or period of abatement is pending before the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission or appropriate State review authority until the completion of such proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 12290, June 30, 1971, as amended at 40 FR 25449, June 16, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.6" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.1.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.6   Public notice of a granted variance, limitation, variation, tolerance, or exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Every final action granting a variance, limitation, variation, tolerance, or exemption under this part shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Every such final action shall specify the alternative to the standard involved which the particular variance permits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.7" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.1.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.7   Form of documents; subscription; copies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No particular form is prescribed for applications and other papers which may be filed in proceedings under this part. However, any applications and other papers shall be clearly legible. An original and six copies of any application or other papers shall be filed. The original shall be typewritten. Clear carbon copies, or printed or processed copies are acceptable copies.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application or other paper which is filed in proceedings under this part shall be subscribed by the person filing the same or by his attorney or other authorized representative.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Applications for Variances, Limitations, Variations, Tolerances, Exemptions and Other Relief</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.10" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.2.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.10   Variances and other relief under section 6(b)(6)(A).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for variance.</I> Any employer, or class of employers, desiring a variance from a standard, or portion thereof, authorized by section 6(b)(6)(A) of the Act may file a written application containing the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section with the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> An application filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) The address of the place or places of employment involved;
</P>
<P>(3) A specification of the standard or portion thereof from which the applicant seeks a variance;
</P>
<P>(4) A representation by the applicant, supported by representations from qualified persons having first-hand knowledge of the facts represented, that he is unable to comply with the standard or portion thereof by its effective date and a detailed statement of the reasons therefor;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of the steps the applicant has taken and will take, with specific dates where appropriate, to protect employees against the hazard covered by the standard;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of when the applicant expects to be able to comply with the standard and of what steps he has taken and will take, with specific dates where appropriate, to come into compliance with the standard;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement of the facts the applicant would show to establish that
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant is unable to comply with a standard by its effective date because of unavailability of professional or technical personnel or of materials and equipment needed to come into compliance with the standard or because necessary construction or alteration of facilities cannot be completed by the effective date;
</P>
<P>(ii) He is taking all available steps to safeguard his employees against the hazards covered by the standard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) He has an effective program for coming into compliance with the standard as quickly as practicable;
</P>
<P>(8) Any request for a hearing, as provided in this part;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that the applicant has informed his affected employees of the application by giving a copy thereof to their authorized representative, posting a statement, giving a summary of the application and specifying where a copy may be examined, at the place or places where notices to employees are normally posted, and by other appropriate means; and
</P>
<P>(10) A description of how affected employees have been informed of the application and of their right to petition the Assistant Secretary for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(11) Where the requested variance would be applicable to employment or places of employment in more than one State, including at least one State with a State plan approved under section 18 of the Act, and involves a standard, or portion thereof, identical to a State standard effective under such plan:
</P>
<P>(i) A side-by-side comparison of the Federal standard, or portion thereof, involved with the State standard, or portion thereof, identical in substance and requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) A certification that the employer or employers have not filed for such variance on the same material facts for the same employment or place of employment with any State authority having jurisdiction under an approval plan over any employment or place of employment covered in the application; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement as to whether, with an identification of, any citations for violations of the State standard, or portion thereof, involved have been issued to the employer or employers by any of the State authorities enforcing the standard under a plan, and are pending.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interim order</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> An application may also be made for an interim order to be effective until a decision is rendered on the application for the variance filed previously or concurrently. An application for an interim order may include statements of fact and arguments as to why the order should be granted. The Assistant Secretary may rule ex parte upon the application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of denial of application.</I> If an application filed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section is denied, the applicant shall be given prompt notice of the denial, which shall include, or be accompanied by, a brief statement of the grounds therefor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of the grant of an interim order.</I> If an interim order is granted, a copy of the order shall be served upon the applicant for the order and other parties and the terms of the order shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> It shall be a condition of the order that the affected employer shall give notice thereof to affected employees by the same means to be used to inform them of an application for a variance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 12290, June 30, 1971, as amended at 40 FR 25449, June 16, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.11" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.2.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.11   Variances and other relief under section 6(d).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for variance.</I> Any employer, or class of employers, desiring a variance authorized by section 6(d) of the Act may file a written application containing the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section, with the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> An application filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) The address of the place or places of employment involved;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the conditions, practices, means, methods, operations, or processes used or proposed to be used by the applicant:
</P>
<P>(4) A statement showing how the conditions, practices, means, methods, operations, or processes used or proposed to be used would provide employment and places of employment to employees which are as safe and healthful as those required by the standard from which a variance is sought:
</P>
<P>(5) A certification that the applicant has informed his employees of the application by
</P>
<P>(i) Giving a copy thereof to their authorized representative;
</P>
<P>(ii) Posting a statement giving a summary of the application and specifying where a copy may be examined, at the place or places where notices to employees are normally posted (or in lieu of such summary, the posting of the application itself); and
</P>
<P>(iii) By other appropriate means;
</P>
<P>(6) Any request for a hearing, as provided in this part; and
</P>
<P>(7) A description of how employees have been informed of the application and of their right to petition the Assistant Secretary for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(8) Where the requested variance would be applicable to employment or places of employment in more than one State, including at least one State with a State plan approved under section 18 of the Act, and involves a standard, or portion thereof, identical to a State standard effective under such plan:
</P>
<P>(i) A side-by-side comparison of the Federal standard, or portion thereof, involved with the State standard, or portion thereof, identical in substance and requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) A certification that the employer or employers have not filed for such variance on the same material facts for the same employment or place of employment with any State authority having jurisdiction under an approved plan over any employment or place of employment covered in the application; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement as to whether, with an identification of, any citations for violations of the State standard, or portion thereof, involved have been issued to the employer or employers by any of the State authorities enforcing the standard under a plan, and are pending.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interim order</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> An application may also be made for an interim order to be effective until a decision is rendered on the application for the variance filed previously or concurrently. An application for an interim order may include statements of fact and arguments as to why the order should be granted. The Assistant Secretary may rule ex parte upon the application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of denial of application.</I> If an application filed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section is denied, the applicant shall be given prompt notice of the denial, which shall include, or be accompanied by; a brief statement of the grounds therefor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of the grant of an interim order.</I> If an interim order is granted, a copy of the order shall be served upon the applicant for the order and other parties, and the terms of the order shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> It shall be a condition of the order that the affected employer shall give notice thereof to affected employees by the same means to be used to inform them of an application for a variance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 12290, June 30, 1971, as amended at 40 FR 25449, June 16, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.12" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.2.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.12   Limitations, variations, tolerances, or exemptions under section 16.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> Any person, or class of persons, desiring a limitation, variation, tolerance, or exemption authorized by section 16 of the Act may file an application containing the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section, with the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> An application filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) The address of the place or places of employment involved;
</P>
<P>(3) A specification of the provision of the Act to or from which the applicant seeks a limitation, variation, tolerance, or exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) A representation showing that the limitation, variation, tolerance, or exemption sought is necessary and proper to avoid serious impairment of the national defense;
</P>
<P>(5) Any request for a hearing, as provided in this part; and
</P>
<P>(6) A description of how employees have been informed of the application and of their right to petition the Assistant Secretary for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interim order</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> An application may also be made for an interim order to be effective until a decision is rendered on the application for the limitation, variation, tolerance, or exemption filed previously or concurrently. An application for an interim order may include statements of fact and arguments as to why the order should be granted. The Assistant Secretary may rule ex parte upon the application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of denial of application.</I> If an application filed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section is denied, the applicant shall be given prompt notice of the denial, which shall include, or be accompanied, by a brief statement of the grounds therefor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of the grant of an interim order.</I> If an interim order is granted, a copy of the order shall be served upon the applicant for the order and other parties, and the terms of the order shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> It shall be a condition of the order that the affected employer shall give notice thereof to affected employees by the same means to be used to inform them of an application for a variance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.13" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.2.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.13   Modification, revocation, and renewal of rules or orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Modification or revocation.</I> (1) An affected employer or an affected employee may apply in writing to the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health for a modification or revocation of a rule or order issued under section 6(b) (6) (A), 6(d), or 16 of the Act. The application shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the relief which is sought;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement setting forth with particularity the grounds for relief;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the applicant is an employer, a certification that the applicant has informed his affected employees of the application by:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Giving a copy thereof to their authorized representative;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Posting at the place or places where notices to employees are normally posted, a statement giving a summary of the application and specifying where a copy of the full application may be examined (or, in lieu of the summary, posting the application itself); and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Other appropriate means.
</P>
<P>(v) If the applicant is an affected employee, a certification that a copy of the application has been furnished to the employer; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any request for a hearing, as provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary may on his own motion proceed to modify or revoke a rule or order issued under section 6(b) (6) (A), 6(d), or 16 of the Act. In such event, the Assistant Secretary shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of his intention, affording interested persons an opportunity to submit written data, views, or arguments regarding the proposal and informing the affected employer and employees of their right to request a hearing, and shall take such other action as may be appropriate to give actual notice to affected employees. Any request for a hearing shall include a short and plain statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) How the proposed modification or revocation would affect the requesting party; and
</P>
<P>(ii) What the requesting party would seek to show on the subjects or issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Renewal.</I> Any final rule or order issued under section 6(b) (6) (A) or 16 of the Act may be renewed or extended as permitted by the applicable section and in the manner prescribed for its issuance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multi-state variances.</I> Where a Federal variance has been granted with multi-state applicability, including applicability in a State operating under a State plan approved under section 18 of the Act, from a standard, or portion thereof, identical to a State standard, or portion thereof, without filing the information required in § 1905.10(b)(11) or § 1905.11(b)(8) of this chapter, such variance shall likewise be deemed an authoritative interpretation of the employer(s)' compliance obligations with regard to the State standard, or portion thereof, upon filing the information required under § 1905.10(b)(11) or § 1905.11(b)(8) of this chapter, provided no objections of substance are found to be interposed by the State authority under § 1905.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 12290, June 30, 1971, as amended at 40 FR 25449, June 16, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.14" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.2.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.14   Action on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Defective applications.</I> (1) If an application filed pursuant to § 1905.10(a), § 1905.11(a), § 1905.12(a), or § 1905.13 does not conform to the applicable section, the Assistant Secretary may deny the application.
</P>
<P>(2) Prompt notice of the denial of an application shall be given to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of denial shall include, or be accompanied by, a brief statement of the grounds for the denial.
</P>
<P>(4) A denial of an application pursuant to this paragraph shall be without prejudice to the filing of another application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adequate applications.</I> (1) If an application has not been denied pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the Assistant Secretary shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the filing of the application.
</P>
<P>(2) A notice of the filing of an application shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms, or an accurate summary, of the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reference to the section of the Act under which the application has been filed;
</P>
<P>(iii) An invitation to interested persons to submit within a stated period of time written data, views, or arguments regarding the application; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information to affected employers, employees, and appropriate State authority having jurisdiction over employment or places of employment covered in the application of any right to request a hearing on the application.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the requested variance, or any proposed modification or extension thereof, involves a Federal standard, or any portion thereof, identical to a State standard, or any portion thereof, as provided in §§ 1905.10(b)(11) and 1905.11(b)(8) of this chapter, the Assistant Secretary will promptly furnish a copy of the application to the appropriate State authority and provide an opportunity for comment, including the opportunity to participate as a party, on the application by such authority, which shall be taken into consideration in determining the merits of the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of each final decision of the Assistant Secretary with respect to an application filed under § 1905.10, § 1905.11, or § 1905.13 shall be furnished, within 10 days of issuance, the State authorities having jurisdiction over the employment or place of employment covered in the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 12290, June 30, 1971, as amended at 40 FR 25449, June 16, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.15" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.2.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.15   Requests for hearings on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for hearing.</I> Within the time allowed by a notice of the filing of an application, any affected employer, employee, or appropriate State agency having jurisdiction over employment or places of employment covered in an application may file with the Assistant Secretary, in quadruplicate, a request for a hearing on the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of a request for a hearing.</I> A request for a hearing filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise statement of facts showing how the employer or employee would be affected by the relief applied for;
</P>
<P>(2) A specification of any statement or representation in the application which is denied, and a concise summary of the evidence that would be adduced in support of each denial; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any views or arguments on any issue of fact or law presented.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 12290, June 30, 1971, as amended at 40 FR 25450, June 16, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.16" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.2.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.16   Consolidation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary on his own motion or that of any party may consolidate or contemporaneously consider two or more proceedings which involve the same or closely related issues.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.20" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.20   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> Upon request for a hearing as provided in this part, or upon his own initiative, the Assistant Secretary shall serve, or cause to be served, a reasonable notice of hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> A notice of hearing served under paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The time, place, and nature of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority under which the hearing is to be held;
</P>
<P>(3) A specification of issues of fact and law; and
</P>
<P>(4) A designation of a hearing examiner appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105 to preside over the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referral to hearing examiner.</I> A copy of a notice of hearing served pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall be referred to the hearing examiner designated therein, together with the original application and any written request for a hearing thereon filed pursuant to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.21" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.21   Manner of service.</HEAD>
<P>Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery of, or by mailing, a copy of the document to the last known address of the party. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and the date of the service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.22" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.22   Hearing examiners; powers and duties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Powers.</I> A hearing examiner designated to preside over a hearing shall have all powers necessary or appropriate to conduct a fair, full, and impartial hearing, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(3) To provide for discovery and to determine its scope;
</P>
<P>(4) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel therein;
</P>
<P>(5) To consider and rule upon procedural requests;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties;
</P>
<P>(7) To make, or to cause to be made, an inspection of the employment or place of employment involved.
</P>
<P>(8) To make decisions in accordance with the Act, this part, and the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. Ch. 5); and
</P>
<P>(9) To take any other appropriate action authorized by the Act, this part, or the Administrative Procedure Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Private consultation.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters, a hearing examiner may not consult a person or a party on any fact at issue, unless upon notice and opportunity for all parties to participate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disqualification.</I> (1) When a hearing examiner deems himself disqualified to preside over a particular hearing, he shall withdraw therefrom by notice on the record directed to the Chief Hearing Examiner.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party who deems a hearing examiner for any reason to be disqualified to preside, or to continue to preside, over a particular hearing, may file with the Chief Hearing Examiner of the Department of Labor a motion to disqualify and remove the hearing examiner, such motion to be supported by affidavits setting forth the alleged grounds for disqualification. The Chief Hearing Examiner shall rule upon the motion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contumacious conduct; failure or refusal to appear or obey the rulings of a presiding hearing examiner.</I> (1) Contumacious conduct at any hearing before the hearing examiner shall be grounds for exclusion from the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If a witness or a party refuses to answer a question after being directed to do so, or refuses to obey an order to provide or permit discovery, the hearing examiner may make such orders with regard to the refusal as are just and appropriate, including an order denying the application of an applicant or regulating the contents of the record of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Referral to Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.</I> On any procedural question not regulated by this part, the Act, or the Administrative Procedure Act, a hearing examiner shall be guided to the extent practicable by any pertinent provisions of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.23" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.23   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Convening a conference.</I> Upon his own motion or the motion of a party, the hearing examiner may direct the parties or their counsel to meet with him for a conference to consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Necessity or desirability of amendments to documents for purposes of clarification, simplification, or limitation;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and of contents and authenticity of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of parties and of expert witnesses; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the disposition of the proceeding, and to assure a just conclusion thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record of conference.</I> The hearing examiner shall make an order which recites the action taken at the conference, the amendments allowed to any documents which have been filed, and the agreements made between the parties as to any of the matters considered, and which limits the issues for hearing to those not disposed of by admissions or agreements; and such order when entered controls the subsequent course of the hearing, unless modified at the hearing, to prevent manifest injustice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.24" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.24   Consent findings and rules or orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time before the reception of evidence in any hearing, or during any hearing a reasonable opportunity may be afforded to permit negotiation by the parties of an agreement containing consent findings and a rule or order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such opportunity and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the presiding hearing examiner, after consideration of the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of an agreement which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and rule or order disposing of a proceeding shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the rule or order shall have the same force and effect as if made after a full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any rule or order may be based shall consist solely of the application and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the hearing examiner and the Assistant Secretary; and
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and of the rule or order made in accordance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement to the presiding hearing examiner for his consideration; or
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the presiding hearing examiner that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event an agreement containing consent findings and rule or order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the presiding hearing examiner may accept such agreement by issuing his decision based upon the agreed findings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.25" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.25   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Depositions.</I> (1) For reasons of unavailability or for other good cause shown, the testimony of any witness may be taken by deposition. Depositions may be taken orally or upon written interrogatories before any person designated by the presiding hearing examiner and having power to administer oaths.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> Any party desiring to take the deposition of a witness may make application in writing to the presiding hearing examiner, setting forth:
</P>
<P>(i) The reasons why such deposition should be taken;
</P>
<P>(ii) The time when, the place where, and the name and post office address of the person before whom the deposition is to be taken;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and address of each witness; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The subject matter concerning which each witness is expected to testify.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice.</I> Such notice as the presiding hearings examiner may order shall be given by the party taking the deposition to every other party.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Taking and receiving in evidence.</I> Each witness testifying upon deposition shall be sworn, and the parties not calling him shall have the right to cross-examine him. The questions propounded and the answers thereto, together with all objections made, shall be reduced to writing, read to the witness, subscribed by him, and certified by the officer before whom the deposition is taken. Thereafter, the officer shall seal the deposition, with two copies thereof, in an envelope and mail the same by registered mail to the presiding hearing examiner. Subject to such objections to the questions and answers as were noted at the time of taking the deposition and would be valid were the witness personally present and testifying, such deposition may be read and offered in evidence by the party taking it as against any party who was present, represented at the taking of the deposition, or who had due notice thereof. No part of a deposition shall be admitted in evidence unless there is a showing that the reasons for the taking of the deposition in the first instance exist at the time of hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other discovery.</I> Whenever appropriate to a just disposition of any issue in a hearing, the presiding hearing examiner may allow discovery by any other appropriate procedure, such as by written interrogatories upon a party, production of documents by a party, or by entry for inspection of the employment or place of employment involved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.26" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.26   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Order of proceeding.</I> Except as may be ordered otherwise by the presiding hearing examiner, the party applicant for relief shall proceed first at a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The party applicant shall have the burden of proof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evidence</I>—(1) <I>Admissibility.</I> A party shall be entitled to present his case or defense by oral or documentary evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts. Any oral or documentary evidence may be received, but a presiding hearing examiner shall exclude evidence which is irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Testimony of witnesses.</I> The testimony of a witness shall be upon oath or affirmation administered by the presiding hearing examiner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Objections.</I> If a party objects to the admission or rejection of any evidence, or to the limitation of the scope of any examination or cross-examination, or to the failure to limit such scope, he shall state briefly the grounds for such objection. Rulings on all objections shall appear in the record. Only objections made before the presiding hearing examiner may be relied upon subsequently in a proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions.</I> Formal exception to an adverse ruling is not required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Official notice.</I> Official notice may be taken of any material fact not appearing in evidence in the record, which is among the traditional matters of judicial notice or concerning which the Department of Labor by reason of its functions is presumed to be expert: <I>Provided,</I> That the parties shall be given adequate notice, at the hearing or by reference in the presiding hearing examiner's decision, of the matters so noticed, and shall be given adequate opportunity to show the contrary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transcript.</I> Hearings shall be stenographically reported. Copies of the transcript may be obtained by the parties upon written application filed with the reporter, and upon the payment of fees at the rate provided in the agreement with the reporter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.27" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.27   Decisions of hearing examiners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and rules or orders.</I> Within 10 days after receipt of notice that the transcript of the testimony has been filed or such additional time as the presiding hearing examiner may allow, each party may file with the hearing examiner proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and rule or order, together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and brief shall be served on all other parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the hearing examiner.</I> Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and rule or order, the presiding hearing examiner shall make and serve upon each party his decision, which shall become final upon the 20th day after service thereof, unless exceptions are filed thereto, as provided in § 1905.28. The decision of the hearing examiner shall include (1) a statement of findings and conclusions, with reasons and bases therefor, upon each material issue of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record, and (2) the appropriate rule, order, relief, or denial thereof. The decision of the hearing examiner shall be based upon a consideration of the whole record and shall state all facts officially noticed and relied upon. It shall be made on the basis of a preponderance of reliable and probative evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.28" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.28   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>Within 20 days after service of a decision of a presiding hearing examiner, any party may file with the hearing examiner written exceptions thereto with supporting reasons. Such exceptions shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or terms of the rule or order excepted to, the specific pages of transcript relevant to the suggestions, and shall suggest corrected findings of fact, conclusions of law, or terms of the rule or order. Upon receipt of any exceptions, the hearing examiner shall fix a time for filing any objections to the exceptions and any supporting reasons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.29" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.29   Transmission of record.</HEAD>
<P>If exceptions are filed, the hearing examiner shall transmit the record of the proceeding to the Assistant Secretary for review. The record shall include: The application, any request for hearing thereon, motions and requests filed in written form, rulings thereon, the transcript of the testimony taken at the hearing, together with the exhibits admitted in evidence, any documents or papers filed in connection with prehearing conferences, such proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, rules or orders, and supporting reasons, as may have been filed, the hearing examiner's decision, and such exceptions, statements of objections, and briefs in support thereof, as may have been filed in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.30" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.3.17.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.30   Decision of the Assistant Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>If exceptions to a decision of a hearing examiner are taken pursuant to § 1905.28, the Assistant Secretary shall upon consideration thereof, together with the record references and authorities cited in support thereof, and any objections to exceptions and supporting reasons, make his decision. The decision may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or part, the findings, conclusions, and the rule or order contained in the decision of the presiding hearing examiner, and shall include a statement of reasons or bases for the actions taken on each exception presented.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Summary Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.40" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.4.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.40   Motion for summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party may, at least 20 days before the date fixed for any hearing under subpart C of this part, move with or without supporting affidavits for a summary decision in his favor on all or any part of the proceeding. Any other party may, within 10 days after service of the motion, serve opposing affidavits or countermove for summary decision. The presiding hearing examiner may, in his discretion, set the matter for argument and call for the submission of briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) The filing of any documents under paragraph (a) of this section shall be with the hearing examiner, and copies of any such documents shall be served in accordance with § 1905.21.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing examiner may grant such motion if the pleadings, affidavits, material obtained by discovery or otherwise obtained, or matters officially noticed show that there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and that a party is entitled to summary decision. The hearing examiner may deny such motion whenever the moving party denies access to information by means of discovery to a party opposing the motion.
</P>
<P>(d) Affidavits shall set forth such facts as would be admissible in evidence in a proceeding subject to 5 U.S.C. 556 and 557 and shall show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated therein. When a motion for summary decision is made and supported as provided in this section, a party opposing the motion may not rest upon the mere allegations or denials of his pleading; his response must set forth specific facts showing that there is a genuine issue of fact for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) Should it appear from the affidavits of a party opposing the motion that he cannot for reasons stated present by affidavit facts essential to justify his opposition, the hearing examiner may deny the motion for summary decision or may order a continuance to permit affidavits to be obtained or discovery to be had or may make such other order as is just.
</P>
<P>(f) The denial of all or any part of a motion for summary decision by the hearing examiner shall not be subject to interlocutory appeal to the Assistant Secretary unless the hearing examiner certifies in writing (1) that the ruling involves an important question of law or policy as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion, and (2) that an immediate appeal from the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding. The allowance of such an interlocutory appeal shall not stay the proceeding before the hearing examiner unless the Assistant Secretary shall so order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.41" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.4.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.41   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No genuine issue of material fact.</I> (1) Where no genuine issue of a material fact is found to have been raised, the hearing examiner may issue an initial decision to become final 20 days after service thereof, unless, within such period of time any party has filed written exceptions to the decision. If any timely exception is filed, the hearing examiner shall fix a time for filing any objections to the exception and any supporting reasons. Thereafter, the Assistant Secretary, after consideration of the exceptions and any supporting briefs filed therewith and of any objections to the exceptions and any supporting reasons, may issue a final decision.
</P>
<P>(2) An initial decision and a final decision made under this paragraph shall include a statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) Findings and conclusions, and the reasons or bases therefor, on all issues presented; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The terms and conditions of the rule or order made.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of an initial decision and a final decision under this paragraph shall be served on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings on issues of fact.</I> Where a genuine material question of fact is raised, the hearing examiner shall, and in any other case he may, set the case for an evidentiary hearing in accordance with subpart C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Effect of Initial Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.50" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.5.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.50   Effect of appeal of a hearing examiner's decision.</HEAD>
<P>A hearing examiner's decision under this part shall not be operative pending a decision on appeal by the Assistant Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1905.51" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.5.5.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1905.51   Finality for purposes of judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Only a decision by the Assistant Secretary shall be deemed final agency action for purposes of judicial review. A decision by a hearing examiner which becomes final for lack of appeal is not deemed final agency action for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 704.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1906" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1906—ADMINISTRATION WITNESSES AND DOCUMENTS IN PRIVATE LITIGATION [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1908" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1908—CONSULTATION AGREEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 7(c), 8, 21(d), Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 656, 657, 670) and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 6-96 (62 FR 111, January 2, 1997).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1908.1" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains requirements for Cooperative Agreements between states and the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) under sections 21(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>) and section 21(d), the Occupational Safety and Health Administration Compliance Assistance Authorization Act of 1998 (which amends the Occupational Safety and Health Act,) under which OSHA will utilize state personnel to provide consultative services to employers. Priority in scheduling such consultation visits must be assigned to requests received from small businesses which are in higher hazard industries or have the most hazardous conditions at issue in the request. Consultation programs operated under the authority of a state plan approved under section 18 of the Act (and funded under section 23(g), rather than under a Cooperative Agreement) which provide consultative services to private sector employers, must be “at least as effective as” the section 21(d) Cooperative Agreement programs established by this part. The service will be made available at no cost to employers to assist them in establishing effective occupational safety and health programs for providing employment and places of employment which are safe and healthful. The overall goal is to prevent the occurrence of injuries and illnesses which may result from exposure to hazardous workplace conditions and from hazardous work practices. The principal assistance will be provided at the employer's worksite, but off-site assistance may also be provided by telephone and correspondence and at locations other than the employer's worksite, such as the consultation project offices. At the worksite, the consultant will, within the scope of the employer's request, evaluate the employer's program for providing employment and a place of employment which is safe and healthful, as well as identify specific hazards in the workplace, and will provide appropriate advice and assistance in establishing or improving the employer's safety and health program and in correcting any hazardous conditions identified.
</P>
<P>(b) Assistance may include education and training of the employer, the employer's supervisors, and the employer's other employees as needed to make the employer self-sufficient in ensuring safe and healthful work and working conditions. Although onsite consultation will be conducted independent of any OSHA enforcement activity, and the discovery of hazards will not mandate citation or penalties, the employer remains under a statutory obligation to protect employees, and in certain instances will be required to take necessary protective action. Employer correction of hazards identified by the consultant during a comprehensive workplace survey, and implementation of certain core elements of an effective safety and health program and commitment to the completion of others may serve as the basis for employer exemption from certain OSHA enforcement activities. States entering into Agreements under this part will receive ninety percent Federal reimbursement for allowable costs, and will provide consultation to employers requesting the service, subject to scheduling priorities, available resources, and any other limitations established by the Assistant Secretary as part of the Cooperative Agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) States operating approved Plans under section 18 of the Act shall, in accord with section 18(b), establish enforcement policies applicable to the safety and health issues covered by the State Plan which are at least as effective as the enforcement policies established by this part, including a recognition and exemption program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, as amended at 65 FR 64290, Oct. 26, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.2" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.
</P>
<P><I>Compliance Officer</I> means a Federal compliance safety and health officer.
</P>
<P><I>Consultant</I> means an employee under a Cooperative Agreement pursuant to this part who provides consultation.
</P>
<P><I>Consultation</I> means all activities related to the provision of consultative assistance under this part, including offsite consultation and onsite consultation.
</P>
<P><I>Cooperative Agreement</I> means the legal instrument which enables the States to collaborate with OSHA to provide consultation in accord with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Designee</I> means the State official designated by the Governor to be responsible for entering into a Cooperative Agreement in accord with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Education</I> means planned and organized activity by a consultant to impart information to employers and employees to enable them to establish and maintain employment and a place of employment which is safe and healthful.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an employee of an employer who is employed in the business of that employer which affects interstate commerce. 
</P>
<P><I>Employee representative,</I> as used in the OSHA consultation program under this part, means the authorized representative of employees at a site where there is a recognized labor organization representing employees. 
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means a person engaged in a business who has employees, but does not include the United States (not including the United States Postal Service,) or any state or political subdivision of a state.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard correction</I> means the elimination or control of a workplace hazard in accord with the requirements of applicable Federal or State statutes, regulations or standards.
</P>
<P><I>Imminent danger</I> means any conditions or practices in a place of employment which are such that a danger exists which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the imminence of such danger can be eliminated through the procedures set forth in § 1908.6(e)(4), (f) (2) and (3), and (g).
</P>
<P><I>List of Hazards</I> means a list of all serious hazards that are identified by the consultant and the correction due dates agreed upon by the employer and the consultant. Serious hazards include hazards addressed under section 5(a)(1) of the OSH Act and recordkeeping requirements classified as serious. The List of Hazards will accompany the consultant's written report but is separate from the written report to the employer. 
</P>
<P><I>Offsite consultation</I> means the provision of consultative assistance on occupational safety and health issues away from an employer's worksite by such means as telephone and correspondence, and at locations other than the employer's worksite, such as the consultation project offices. It may, under limited conditions specified by the Assistant Secretary, include training and education.
</P>
<P><I>Onsite consultation</I> means the provision of consultative assistance on an employer's occupational safety and health program and on specific workplace hazards through a visit to an employer's worksite. It includes a written report to the employer on the findings and recommendations resulting from the visit. It may include training and education needed to address hazards, or potential hazards, at the worksite.
</P>
<P><I>OSHA</I> means the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration or the State agency responsible under a Plan approved under section 18 of the Act for the enforcement of occupational safety and health standards in that State.
</P>
<P><I>Other-than-serious hazard</I> means any condition or practice which would be classified as an other-than-serious violation of applicable federal or state statutes, regulations or standards, based on criteria contained in the current OSHA field instructions or approved State Plan counterpart.
</P>
<P><I>Programmed inspection</I> means OSHA worksite inspections which are scheduled based upon objective or neutral criteria. These inspections do not include imminent danger, fatality/catastrophe, and formal complaints. 
</P>
<P><I>Programmed inspection schedule</I> means OSHA inspections scheduled in accordance with criteria contained in the current OSHA field instructions or approved State Plan counterpart.
</P>
<P><I>RA</I> means the Regional Administrator for Occupational Safety and Health of the Region in which the State concerned is located.
</P>
<P><I>Recognition and exemption program</I> means an achievement recognition program of the OSHA consultation services which recognizes small employers who operate, at a particular worksite, an exemplary program that results in the immediate and long term prevention of job related injuries and illnesses. 
</P>
<P><I>Serious hazard</I> means any condition or practice which would be classified as a serious violation of applicable federal or state statutes, regulations or standards, based on criteria contained in the current OSHA field instructions or approved State Plan counterpart, except that the element of employer knowledge shall not be considered.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> includes a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Training</I> means the planned and organized activity of a consultant to impart skills, techniques and methodologies to employers and their employees to assist them in establishing and maintaining employment and a place of employment which is safe and healthful.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, as amended at 65 FR 64290, Oct. 26, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.3" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.3   Eligibility and funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State eligibility.</I> Any state may enter into an agreement with the Assistant Secretary to perform consultation for private sector employers; except that a state having a plan approved under section 18 of the Act is eligible to participate in the program only if that Plan does not include provisions for federally funded consultation to private sector employers as a part of its plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reimbursement.</I> (1) The Assistant Secretary will reimburse 90 percent of the costs incurred under a Cooperative Agreement entered into pursuant to this part. Approved training of State staff operating under a Cooperative Agreement and specified out-of-State travel by such staff will be fully reimbursed.
</P>
<P>(2) Reimbursement to States under this part is limited to costs incurred in providing consultation to private sector employers only.
</P>
<P>(i) In all States with Plans approved under section 18 of the Act, consultation provided to State and local governments, as well as the remaining range of voluntary compliance activities referred to in 29 CFR 1902.4(c)(2)(xiii), will not be affected by the provisions of this part. Federal reimbursement for these activities will be made in accordance with the provisions of section 23(g) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) In States without Plans approved under section 18, no Federal reimbursement for consultation provided to State and local governments will be allowed, although this activity may be conducted independently by a State with 100 percent State funding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, as amended at 65 FR 64291, Oct. 26, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.4" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.4   Offsite consultation.</HEAD>
<P>The State may provide consultative services to employers on occupational safety and health issues by telephone and correspondence, and at locations other than the employer's worksite, such as the consultation project offices. It may, under limited conditions specified by the Assistant Secretary, include training and education.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.5" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.5   Requests and scheduling for onsite consultation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Encouraging requests</I>—(1) <I>State responsibility.</I> The State shall be responsible for encouraging employers to request consultative assistance and shall publicize the availability of its consultative service and the scope of the service which will be provided. The Assistant Secretary will also engage in activities to publicize and promote the program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Promotional methods.</I> To inform employers of the availability of its consultative service and to encourage requests, the State may use methods such as the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Paid newspaper advertisements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Newspaper, magazine, and trade publication articles;
</P>
<P>(iii) Special direct mailings or telephone solicitations to establishments based on workers' compensation data or other appropriate listings;
</P>
<P>(iv) In-person visits to workplaces to explain the availability of the service, and participation at employer conferences and seminars;
</P>
<P>(v) Solicitation of support from State business and labor organizations and leaders, and public officials;
</P>
<P>(vi) Solicitation of publicizing by employers and employees who have received consultative services;
</P>
<P>(vii) Preparation and dissemination of publications, descriptive materials, and other appropriate items on consultative services;
</P>
<P>(viii) Free public service announcements on radio and television.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scope of service.</I> In its publicity for the program, in response to any inquiry, and before an employer's request for a consultative visit may be accepted, the state shall clearly explain that the service is provided at no cost to an employer with federal and state funds for the purpose of assisting the employer in establishing and maintaining effective programs for providing safe and healthful places of employment for employees, in accord with the requirements of the applicable state or federal laws and regulations. The state shall explain that while utilizing this service, an employer remains under a statutory obligation to provide safe and healthful work and working conditions for employees. In addition, while the identification of hazards by a consultant will not mandate the issuance of citations or penalties, the employer is required to take necessary action to eliminate employee exposure to a hazard which in the judgment of the consultant represents an imminent danger to employees, and to take action to correct within a reasonable time any serious hazards that are identified. The state shall emphasize, however, that the discovery of such a hazard will not initiate any enforcement activity, and that referral will not take place, unless the employer fails to eliminate the identified hazard within the established time frame. The state shall also explain the requirements for participation in the recognition and exemption program as set forth in § 1908.7(b)(4), and shall ensure that the employer understands his or her obligation to post the List of Hazards accompanying the consultant's written report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employer requests.</I> (1) An onsite consultative visit will be provided only at the request of the employer, and shall not result from the enforcement of any right of entry under state law.
</P>
<P>(2) When making a request, an employer in a small, high hazard establishment shall generally be encouraged to include within the scope of such request all working conditions at the worksite and the employer's entire safety and health program. However, a more limited scope may be encouraged in larger and less hazardous establishments. Moreover, any employer may specify a more limited scope for the visit by indicating working conditions, hazards, or situations on which onsite consultation will be focused. When such limited requests are at issue, the consultant will limit review and provide assistance only with respect to those working conditions, hazards, or situations specified; except that if the consultant observes, in the course of the onsite visit, hazards which are outside the scope of the request, the consultant must treat such hazards as though they were within the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(3) Employers may request onsite consultation to assist in the abatement of hazards cited during an OSHA enforcement inspection. However, an onsite consultative visit may not take place after an inspection until the conditions set forth in § 1908.7(b)(3) have been met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scheduling priority.</I> Priority shall be assigned to requests from businesses with the most hazardous operations, with primary attention to smaller businesses. Preference shall be given to the smaller businesses which are in higher hazard industries or which have the most hazardous conditions at issue in the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, as amended at 65 FR 64291, Oct. 26, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.6" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.6   Conduct of a visit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation.</I> (1) An onsite consultative visit shall be made only after appropriate preparation by the consultant. Prior to the visit, the consultant shall become familiar with as many factors concerning the establishment's operation as possible. The consultant shall review all applicable codes and standards. In addition, the consultant shall assure that all necessary technical and personal protective equipment is available and functioning properly.
</P>
<P>(2) At the time of any promotional visit conducted by a consultant to encourage the use of the onsite consultative services, a consultation may be performed without delay if the employer so requests and the consultant is otherwise prepared to conduct such consultation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Structured format.</I> An initial onsite consultative visit will consist of an opening conference, an examination of those aspects of the employer's safety and health program which relate to the scope of the visit, a walkthrough of the workplace, and a closing conference. An initial visit may include training and education for employers and employees, if the need for such training and education is revealed by the walkthrough of the workplace and the examination of the employer's safety and health program, and if the employer so requests. The visit shall be followed by a written report to the employer. Additional visits may be conducted at the employer's request to provide needed education and training, assistance with the employer's safety and health program, technical assistance in the correction of hazards, or as necessary to verify the correction of serious hazards identified during previous visits. A compliance inspection may in some cases be the basis for a visit limited to education and training, assistance with the employer's safety and health program, or technical assistance in the correction of hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee participation.</I> (1) The consultant shall retain the right to confer with individual employees during the course of the visit in order to identify and judge the nature and extent of particular hazards within the scope of the employer's request, and to evaluate the employer's safety and health program. The consultant shall explain the necessity for this contact to the employer during the opening conference, and an employer must agree to permit such contact before a visit can proceed.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) In addition, an employee representative of affected employees must be afforded an opportunity to accompany the consultant and the employer's representative during the physical inspection of the workplace. The consultant may permit additional employees (such as representatives of a joint safety and health committee, if one exists at the worksite) to participate in the walkaround, where the consultant determines that such additional representatives will further aid the visit. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is no employee representative, or if the consultant is unable with reasonable certainty to determine who is such a representative, or if the employee representative declines the offer to participate, the consultant must confer with a reasonable number of employees concerning matters of occupational safety and health. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The consultant is authorized to deny the right to accompany under this section to any person whose conduct interferes with the orderly conduct of the visit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Opening and closing conferences.</I> (1) The consultant will encourage a joint opening conference with employer and employee representatives. If there is an objection to a joint conference, the consultant will conduct separate conferences with employer and employee representatives. The consultant must inform affected employees, with whom he confers, of the purpose of the consultation visit. 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, the consultant will, in the opening conference, explain to the employer the relationship between onsite consultation and OSHA enforcement activity, explain the obligation to protect employees in the event that certain hazardous conditions are identified, and emphasize the employer's obligation to post the List of Hazards accompanying the consultant's written report as described in paragraph (e)(8) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) At the conclusion of the consultation visit, the consultant will conduct a closing conference with employer and employee representatives, jointly or separately. The consultant will describe hazards identified during the visit and other pertinent issues related to employee safety and health.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Onsite activity.</I> (1) Activity during the onsite consultative visit will focus primarily on those areas, conditions, or hazards regarding which the employer has requested assistance. An employer may expand or reduce the scope of the request at any time during the onsite visit. The consultant shall, if prepared and if scheduling priorities permit, expand the scope of the visit at the time of the request. If the employer's request for expansion necessitates further preparation by the consultant or the expertise of another consultant, or if other employer requests may merit higher priority, the consultant shall refer the request to the consultation manager for scheduling. In all cases in which the scope of the visit is reduced, the consultant remains obligated to work with the employer to ensure correction of those serious hazards which are identified during the visit.
</P>
<P>(2) The consultant shall advise the employer as to the employer's obligations and responsibilities under applicable Federal or State law and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Within the scope of the employer's request, consultants shall review the employer's safety and health program and provide advice on modifications or additions to make such programs more effective.
</P>
<P>(4) Consultants shall identify and provide advice on correction of those hazards included in the employer's request and any other safety or health hazards observed in the workplace during the course of the onsite consultative visit. This advice shall include basic information indicating the possibility of a solution and describing the general form of the solution. The consultant shall conduct sampling and testing, with subsequent analyses. as may be necessary to confirm the existence of safety and health hazards.
</P>
<P>(5) Advice and technical assistance on the correction of identified safety and health hazards may be provided to employers during and after the onsite consultative visit. Descriptive materials may be provided on approaches, means, techniques, and other appropriate items commonly utilized for the elimination or control of such hazards. The consultants shall also advise the employers of additional sources of assistance, if known.
</P>
<P>(6) When a hazard is identified in the workplace, the consultant shall indicate to the employer the consultant's best judgment as to whether the situation would be classified as a “serious” or “other-than-serious” hazard.
</P>
<P>(7) At the time the consultant determines that a serious hazard exists, the consultant will assist the employer to develop a specific plan to correct the hazard, affording the employer a reasonable period of time to complete the necessary action. The state must provide, upon request from the employer within 15 working days of receipt of the consultant's report, a prompt opportunity for an informal discussion with the consultation manager regarding the period of time established for the correction of a hazard or any other substantive finding of the consultant. 
</P>
<P>(8) As a condition for receiving the consultation service, the employer must agree to post the List of Hazards accompanying the consultant's written report, and to notify affected employees when hazards are corrected. When received, the List of Hazards must be posted, unedited, in a prominent place where it is readily observable by all affected employees for 3 working days, or until the hazards are corrected, whichever is later. A copy of the List of Hazards must be made available to the employee representative who participates in the visit. In addition, the employer must agree to make information on the corrective actions proposed by the consultant, as well as other-than-serious hazards identified, available at the worksite for review by affected employees or the employee representative. OSHA will not schedule a compliance inspection in response to a complaint based upon a posted List of Hazards unless the employer fails to meet his obligations under paragraph (f) of this section, or fails to provide interim protection for exposed employees.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employer obligations.</I> (1) An employer must take immediate action to eliminate employee exposure to a hazard which, in the judgment of the consultant, presents an imminent danger to employees. If the employer fails to take the necessary action, the consultant must immediately notify the affected employees and the appropriate OSHA enforcement authority and provide the relevant information.
</P>
<P>(2) An employer must also take the necessary action in accordance with the plan developed under paragraph (e)(7) of this section to eliminate or control employee exposure to any identified serious hazard, and meet the posting requirements of paragraph (e)(8) of this section. In order to demonstrate that the necessary action is being taken, an employer may be required to submit periodic reports, permit a follow-up visit, or take similar action that achieves the same end.
</P>
<P>(3) An employer may request, and the consultation manager may grant, an extension of the time frame established for correction of a serious hazard when the employer demonstrates having made a good faith effort to correct the hazard within the established time frame; shows evidence that correction has not been completed because of factors beyond the employer's reasonable control; and shows evidence that the employer is taking all available interim steps to safeguard the employees against the hazard during the correction period.
</P>
<P>(4) If the employer fails to take the action necessary to correct a serious hazard within the established time frame or any extensions thereof, the consultation manager shall immediately notify the appropriate OSHA enforcement authority and provide the relevant information. The OSHA enforcement authority will make a determination, based on a review of the facts, whether enforcement activity is warranted.
</P>
<P>(5) After correction of all serious hazards, the employer shall notify the consultation manager by written confirmation of the correction of the hazards, unless correction of the serious hazards is verified by direct observation by the consultant.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Written report.</I> (1) A written report shall be prepared for each visit which results in substantive findings or recommendations, and shall be sent to the employer. The timing and format of the report shall be approved by the Assistant Secretary. The report shall restate the employer's request and describe the working conditions examined by the consultant; shall, within the scope of the request, evaluate the employer's program for ensuring safe and healthful employment and provide recommendations for making such programs effective; shall identify specific hazards and describe their nature, including reference to applicable standards or codes; shall identify the seriousness of the hazards; and, to the extent possible, shall include suggested means or approaches to their correction. Additional sources of assistance shall also be indicated, if known, including the possible need to procure specific engineering consultation, medical advice and assistance, and other appropriate items. The report shall also include reference to the completion dates for the situations described in § 1908.6(f) (1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(2) Because the consultant's written report contains information considered confidential, and because disclosure of such reports would adversely affect the operation of the OSHA consultation program, the state shall not disclose the consultant's written report except to the employer for whom it was prepared and as provided for in § 1908.7(a)(3). The state may also disclose information contained in the consultant's written report to the extent required by 29 CFR 1910.1020 or other applicable OSHA standards or regulations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Confidentiality.</I> (1) The consultant shall preserve the confidentiality of information obtained as the result of a consultative visit which contains or might reveal a trade secret of the employer.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure of consultation program information which identifies employers who have requested the services of a consultant would adversely affect the operation of the OSHA consultation program as well as breach the confidentiality of commercial information not customarily disclosed by the employer. Accordingly, the state shall keep such information confidential. The state shall provide consultation program information requested by OSHA, including information which identifies employers who have requested consultation services. OSHA may use such information to administer the consultation program and to evaluate state and federal performance under that program, but shall, to the maximum extent permitted by law, treat information which identifies specific employers as exempt from public disclosure.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1218-0110) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989; 65 FR 64291, Oct. 26, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.7" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.7   Relationship to enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Independence.</I> (1) Consultative activity by a State shall be conducted independently of any OSHA enforcement activity.
</P>
<P>(2) The consultative activity shall have its own identifiable managerial staff. In States with Plans approved under section 18 of the Act, this staff will be separate from the managing of compliance inspections and scheduling.
</P>
<P>(3) The identity of employers requesting onsite consultation, as well as the file of the consultant's visit, shall not be provided to OSHA for use in any compliance activity, except as provided for in § 1908.6(f)(1) (failure to eliminate imminent danger,) § 1908.6(f)(4) (failure to eliminate serious hazards,) paragraph (b)(1) of this section (inspection deferral) and paragraph (b)(4) of this section (recognition and exemption program).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect upon scheduling.</I> (1) An onsite consultative visit already in progress will have priority over OSHA compliance inspections except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The consultant and the employer shall notify the compliance officer of the visit in progress and request delay of the inspection until after the visit is completed. An onsite consultative visit shall be considered “in progress” in relation to the working conditions, hazards, or situations covered by the visit from the beginning of the opening conference through the end of the correction due dates and any extensions thereof. OSHA may, in exercising its authority to schedule compliance inspections, assign a lower priority to worksites where consultation visits are scheduled.
</P>
<P>(2) The consultant shall terminate an onsite consultative visit already in progress where one of the following kinds of OSHA compliance inspections is about to take place:
</P>
<P>(i) Imminent danger investigations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fatality/catastrophe investigations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Complaint investigations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Other critical inspections as determined by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) An onsite consultation visit may not take place while an OSHA enforcement inspection is in progress at the establishment. An enforcement inspection shall be deemed “in progress” from the time a compliance officer initially seeks entry to the workplace to the end of the closing conference. An enforcement inspection will also be considered “in progress” in cases where entry is refused, until such times as: the inspection is conducted; the RA determines that a warrant to require entry to the workplace will not be sought; or the RA determines that allowing a consultative visit to proceed is in the best interest of employee safety and health. An onsite consultative visit shall not take place subsequent to an OSHA enforcement inspection until a determination has been made that no citation will be issued, or if a citation is issued, onsite consultation shall only take place with regard to those citation items which have become final orders.
</P>
<P>(4) The recognition and exemption program operated by the OSHA consultation projects provide incentives and support to smaller, high-hazard employers to work with their employees to develop, implement, and continuously improve the effectiveness of their workplace safety and health management system. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Programmed Inspection Schedule.</I> (A) When an employer requests participation in a recognition and exemption program, and undergoes a consultative visit covering all conditions and operations in the place of employment related to occupational safety and health; corrects all hazards that were identified during the course of the consultative visit within established time frames; has began to implement all the elements of an effective safety and health program; and agrees to request a consultative visit if major changes in working conditions or work processes occur which may introduce new hazards, OSHA's Programmed Inspections at that particular site may be deferred while the employer is working to achieve recognition and exemption status. 
</P>
<P>(B) Employers who meet all the requirements for recognition and exemption will have the names of their establishments removed from OSHA's Programmed Inspection Schedule for a period of not less than one year. The exemption period will extend from the date of issuance by the Regional Office of the certificate of recognition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inspections.</I> OSHA will continue to make inspections in the following categories at sites that achieved recognition status and have been granted exemption from OSHA's Programmed Inspection Schedule; and at sites granted inspection deferrals as provided for under paragraph (b)(4)(i)(A) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(A) Imminent danger. 
</P>
<P>(B) Fatality/Catastrophe. 
</P>
<P>(C) Formal Complaints. 
</P>
<P>(5) When an employer requests consideration for participation in the recognition and exemption program under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the provisions of § 1908.6(e)(7), (e)(8), (f)(3), and (f)(5) shall apply to other-than-serious hazards as well as serious hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect upon enforcement.</I> (1) The advice of the consultant and the consultant's written report will not be binding on a compliance officer in a subsequent enforcement inspection. In a subsequent inspection, a compliance officer is not precluded from finding hazardous conditions, or violations of standards, rules or regulations, for which citations would be issued and penalties proposed.
</P>
<P>(2) The hazard identification and correction assistance given by a State consultant, or the failure of a consultant to point out a specific hazard, or other possible errors or omissions by the consultant, shall not be binding upon a compliance officer and need not affect the regular conduct of a compliance inspection or preclude the finding of alleged violations and the issuance of citations, or constitute a defense to any enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event of a subsequent inspection, the employer is not required to inform the compliance officer of the prior visit. The employer is not required to provide a copy of the state consultant's written report to the compliance officer, except to the extent that disclosure of information contained in the report is required by 29 CFR 1910.1020 or other applicable OSHA standard or regulation. If, during a subsequent enforcement investigation, OSHA independently determines there is reason to believe that the employer: failed to correct serious hazards identified during the course of a consultation visit; created the same hazard again; or made false statements to the state or OSHA in connection with participation in the consultation program, OSHA may exercise its authority to obtain the consultation report. 
</P>
<P>(4) If, however, the employer chooses to provide a copy of the consultant's report to a compliance officer, it may be used as a factor in determining the extent to which an inspection is required and as a factor in determining proposed penalties. When, during the course of a compliance inspection, an OSHA compliance officer identifies the existence of serious hazards previously identified as a result of a consultative visit, the Area Director shall have authority to assess minimum penalties if the employer is in good faith complying with the recommendations of a consultant after such consultative visit.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1218-0110) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989; 65 FR 64292, Oct. 26, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.8" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.8   Consultant specifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Number.</I> (1) The number of consultant positions which will be funded under a Cooperative Agreement pursuant to this part for the purpose of providing consultation to private sector employers will be determined by the Assistant Secretary on the basis of program performance, demand for services, industrial mix, resources available, and the recommendation of the RA, and may be adjusted periodically.
</P>
<P>(2) States shall make efforts to utilize consultants with the safety and health expertise necessary to properly meet the demand for consultation by the various industries within a State. The RA will determine and negotiate a reasonable balance with the State on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifications.</I> (1) All consultants utilized under Cooperative Agreements pursuant to this part shall be employees of the State, qualified under State requirements for employment in occupational safety and health. They must demonstrate adequate education and experience to satisfy the RA before assignment to work under an Agreement, and annually thereafter, that they meet the requirements set out in § 1908.8(b)(2), and that they have the ability to perform satisfactorily pursuant to the Cooperative Agreement. Persons who have the potential but do not yet demonstrate adequate education and experience to satisfy the RA that they have the ability to perform consultant duties independently may, with RA approval, be trained under a Cooperative Agreement to perform consultant duties. Such persons may not, however, perform consultant duties independently until it has been determined by the RA that they meet the requirements and have the ability indicated. All consultants shall be selected in accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 11246 of September 24, 1965, as amended, entitled “Equal Employment Opportunity.”
</P>
<P>(2) Minimum requirements of consultants shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The ability to identify hazards; the ability to assess employee exposure and risk; knowledge of OSHA standards; knowledge of hazard correction techniques and practices; knowledge of workplace safety and health program requirements; and the ability to effectively communicate, both orally and in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consultants shall meet any additional degree and/or experience requirements as may be established by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training.</I> As necessary, the Assistant Secretary will specify immediate and continuing training requirements for consultants. Expenses for training which is required by the Assistant Secretary or approved by the RA will be reimbursed in full.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.9" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.9   Monitoring and evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assistant Secretary responsibility.</I> A State's performance under a Cooperative Agreement will be regularly monitored and evaluated by the Assistant Secretary as part of a systematic Federal plan for this activity. The Assistant Secretary may require changes as a result of these evaluations to foster conformance with consultation policy. If the State policies or practices which require change are such that the State's assurance of correction of serious hazards and of the effectiveness of employers' safety and health programs is in doubt, the Assistant Secretary may, pending the completion of the changes, suspend recognition of a State's consultative visits as a basis for exemption from compliance inspection as permitted under § 1908.7(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consultant performance</I>—(1) <I>State activity.</I> The State shall establish and maintain an organized consultant performance monitoring system under the Cooperative Agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Operation of the system shall conform to all requirements established by the Assistant Secretary. The system shall be approved by the Assistant Secretary before it is placed in operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) A performance evaluation of each State consultant performing consultation services for employers shall be prepared annually. All aspects of a consultant's performance shall be reviewed at that time. Recommendation for remedial action shall be made and acted upon. The annual evaluation report shall be a confidential State personnel record and may be timed to coincide with regular personnel evaluations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance of individual consultants shall be measured in terms of their ability to identify hazards in the workplaces which they have visited; their ability to determine employee exposure and risk, and in particular their performance under § 1908.6 (e) and (f); their knowledge and application of applicable Federal or State statutes, regulations or standards; their knowledge and application of appropriate hazard correction techniques and approaches; their knowledge and application of the requirements of an effective workplace safety and health program; and their ability to communicate effectively their findings and recommendations and the reasons for them to employers, and relevant information, skills and techniques to employers and employees.
</P>
<P>(iv) Accompanied visits to observe consultants during onsite consultative visits shall be conducted periodically in accord with a plan established in each annual Cooperative Agreement. The State may also conduct unaccompanied visits to workplaces which received onsite consultation, for the purpose of evaluating consultants. A written report of each visit shall be provided to the consultant. These visits shall be conducted only with the expressed permission of the employer who requests the onsite consultative visit.
</P>
<P>(v) The State will report quarterly to the RA on system operations, including copies of accompanied visit reports completed that quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal activity.</I> State consultant performance monitoring as set out in § 1908.9(b)(1) shall not preclude Federal monitoring activity by methods determined to be appropriate by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State reporting.</I> For Federal monitoring and evaluation purposes, the State shall compile and submit such factual and statistical data in the format and at the frequency required by the Assistant Secretary. The State shall prepare and submit to the RA any narrative reports, including copies of written reports to employers as may be required by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1218-0110) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.10" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.10   Cooperative Agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may make Agreements.</I> The Assistant Secretary may make a Cooperative Agreement under this part with the Governor of a State or with any State agency designated for that purpose by the Governor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Negotiations.</I> (1) Procedures for negotiations may be obtained through the RA who will negotiate for the Assistant Secretary and make final recommendations on each Agreement to the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) States with Plans approved under section 18 of the Act may initiate negotiations in anticipation of the withdrawal from the Plan of Federally funded onsite consultation services to private sector employers.
</P>
<P>(3) Renegotiation of existing Agreements funded under this part shall be initiated within 30 days of the effective date of these revisions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of Cooperative Agreement.</I> (1) Any Agreement and subsequent modifications shall be in writing and signed by both parties.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Agreement shall provide that the State will conform its operations under the Agreement to:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirements contained in this part 1908;
</P>
<P>(ii) All related formal directives subsequently issued by the Assistant Secretary implementing this regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) Each Agreement shall contain such other explicit written commitments in conformance with the provisions of this part as may be required by the Assistant Secretary. Each Agreement shall also include a budget of the State's anticipated expenditures under the Agreement, in the detail and format required by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Location of sample Cooperative Agreement.</I> A sample Agreement is available for inspection at all Regional Offices of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Action upon requests.</I> The State will be notified within a reasonable period of time of any decision concerning its request for a Cooperative Agreement. If a request is denied, the State will be informed in writing of the reasons supporting the decision. If a Cooperative Agreement is negotiated, the initial finding will specify the period for the Agreement. Additional funds may be added at a later time provided the activity is satisfactorily carried out and appropriations are available. The State may also be required to amend the Agreement for continued support.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Termination.</I> Either party may terminate a Cooperative Agreement under this part upon 30 days' written notice to the other party.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1218-0110) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25094, June 19, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1908.11" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.7.0.17.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1908.11   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>A Cooperative Agreement under this part will not restrict in any manner the authority and responsibility of the Assistant Secretary under sections 8, 9, 10, 13, and 17 of the Act, or any corresponding State authority.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1910" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1910—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>33 U.S.C. 941; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754); 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), 08-2020 (85 FR 58393), or 07-2025 (90 FR 27878); 29 CFR part 1911; and 5 U.S.C. 553, as applicable.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order Numbers 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736),1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.
</PSPACE><P>Sections 1910.6, 1910.7, 1910.8 and 1910.9 also issued under 29 CFR 1911. Section 1910.7(f) also issued under 31 U.S.C. 9701; 29 U.S.C. 9a; 5 U.S.C. 553; Public Law 106-113 (113 Stat. 1501A-222); Public Law 11-8 and 111-317; and OMB Circular A-25 (dated July 8, 1993) (58 FR 38142, July 15, 1993).




</P></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 6(a) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (84 Stat. 1593) provides that “without regard to chapter 5 of title 5, United States Code, or to the other subsections of this section, the Secretary shall, as soon as practicable during the period beginning with the effective date of this Act and ending 2 years after such date, by rule promulgate as an occupational safety or health standard any national concensus standard, and any established Federal standard, unless he determines that the promulgation of such a standard would not result in improved safety or health for specifically designated employees.” The legislative purpose of this provision is to establish, as rapidly as possible and without regard to the rule-making provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, standards with which industries are generally familiar, and on whose adoption interested and affected persons have already had an opportunity to express their views. Such standards are either (1) national concensus standards on whose adoption affected persons have reached substantial agreement, or (2) Federal standards already established by Federal statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) This part carries out the directive to the Secretary of Labor under section 6(a) of the Act. It contains occupational safety and health standards which have been found to be national consensus standards or established Federal standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.2" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (84 Stat. 1590).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistant Secretary of Labor</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer</I> means a person engaged in a business affecting commerce who has employees, but does not include the United States or any State or political subdivision of a State;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee</I> means an employee of an employer who is employed in a business of his employer which affects commerce;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commerce</I> means trade, traffic, commerce, transportation, or communication among the several States, or between a State and any place outside thereof, or within the District of Columbia, or a possession of the United States (other than the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands), or between points in the same State but through a point outside thereof;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Standard</I> means a standard which requires conditions, or the adoption or use of one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes, reasonably necessary or appropriate to provide safe or healthful employment and places of employment;
</P>
<P>(g) <I>National consensus standard</I> means any standard or modification thereof which (1) has been adopted and promulgated by a nationally recognized standards-producing organization under procedures whereby it can be determined by the Secretary of Labor or by the Assistant Secretary of Labor that persons interested and affected by the scope or provisions of the standard have reached substantial agreement on its adoption, (2) was formulated in a manner which afforded an opportunity for diverse views to be considered, and (3) has been designated as such a standard by the Secretary or the Assistant Secretary, after consultation with other appropriate Federal agencies; and
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Established Federal standard</I> means any operative standard established by any agency of the United States and in effect on April 28, 1971, or contained in any Act of Congress in force on the date of enactment of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.3" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.3   Petitions for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of a standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person may petition in writing the Assistant Secretary of Labor to promulgate, modify, or revoke a standard. The petition should set forth the terms or the substance of the rule desired, the effects thereof if promulgated, and the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The relevant legislative history of the Act indicates congressional recognition of the American National Standards Institute and the National Fire Protection Association as the major sources of national consensus standards. National consensus standards adopted on May 29, 1971, pursuant to section 6(a) of the Act are from those two sources. However, any organization which deems itself a producer of national consensus standards, within the meaning of section 3(9) of the Act, is invited to submit in writing to the Assistant Secretary of Labor at any time prior to February 1, 1973, all relevant information which may enable the Assistant Secretary to determine whether any of its standards satisfy the requirements of the definition of “national consensus standard” in section 3(9) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Within a reasonable time after the receipt of a submission pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Assistant Secretary of Labor shall publish or cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of such submission, and shall afford interested persons a reasonable opportunity to present written data, views, or arguments with regard to the question whether any standards of the organization making the submission are national consensus standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.4" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.4   Amendments to this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary of Labor shall have all of the authority of the Secretary of Labor under sections 3(9) and 6(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary of Labor may at any time before April 28, 1973, on his own motion or upon the written petition of any person, by rule promulgate as a standard any national consensus standard and any established Federal standard, pursuant to and in accordance with section 6(a) of the Act, and, in addition, may modify or revoke any standard in this part 1910. In the event of conflict among any such standards, the Assistant Secretary of Labor shall take the action necessary to eliminate the conflict, including the revocation or modification of a standard in this part, so as to assure the greatest protection of the safety or health of the affected employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.5" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.5   Applicability of standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the standards contained in this Part shall apply with respect to employments performed in a workplace in a State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Wake Island, Outer Continental Shelf lands defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act, and Johnston Island.
</P>
<P>(b) None of the standards in this part shall apply to working conditions of employees with respect to which Federal agencies other than the Department of Labor, or State agencies acting under section 274 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2021), exercise statutory authority to prescribe or enforce standards or regulations affecting occupational safety or health.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If a particular standard is specifically applicable to a condition, practice, means, method, operation, or process, it shall prevail over any different general standard which might otherwise be applicable to the same condition, practice, means, method, operation, or process. For example, § 1915.23(c)(3) of this title prescribes personal protective equipment for certain ship repairmen working in specified areas. Such a standard shall apply, and shall not be deemed modified nor superseded by any different general standard whose provisions might otherwise be applicable, to the ship repairmen working in the areas specified in § 1915.23(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) On the other hand, any standard shall apply according to its terms to any employment and place of employment in any industry, even though particular standards are also prescribed for the industry, as in subpart B or subpart R of this part, to the extent that none of such particular standards applies. To illustrate, the general standard regarding noise exposure in § 1910.95 applies to employments and places of employment in pulp, paper, and paperboard mills covered by § 1910.261.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event a standard protects on its face a class of persons larger than employees, the standard shall be applicable under this part only to employees and their employment and places of employment.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) An employer who is in compliance with any standard in this part shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirement of section 5(a)(1) of the Act, but only to the extent of the condition, practice, means, method, operation, or process covered by the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 58 FR 35308, June 30, 1993; 85 FR 8732, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.6" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.6   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public.
</P>
<P>(i) The standards of agencies of the U.S. Government, and organizations which are not agencies of the U.S. Government which are incorporated by reference in this part, have the same force and effect as other standards in this part. Only the mandatory provisions (<I>i.e.,</I> provisions containing the word “shall” or other mandatory language) of standards incorporated by reference are adopted as standards under the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any changes in the standards incorporated by reference in this part and an official historic file of such changes are available for inspection in the Docket Office at the national office of OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627).
</P>
<P>(2) All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at OSHA and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
</P>
<P>(i) Contact OSHA at any Regional Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), or at the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3508, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627).
</P>
<P>(ii) For information on the availability of these standards at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) The IBR material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section or from one or more private resellers listed in this paragraph (a)(3). For material that is no longer commercially available, contact OSHA (see paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section).
</P>
<P>(i) Accuris Standards Store, 321 Inverness Drive, South Englewood, CO 80112; phone: (800) 332-6077; website: <I>https://store.accuristech.com</I>.
</P>
<P>(ii) American National Standards Institute (see paragraph (e) for contact information).
</P>
<P>(iii) GlobalSpec, 257 Fuller Road, Suite NFE 1100, Albany, NY 12203-3621; phone: (800) 261-2052; website: <I>https://standards.globalspec.com</I>.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nimonik Document Center, 401 Roland Way, Suite 224, Oakland, CA 94624; phone (650)591-7600; email: info@document-center.com; website: <I>www.document-center.com</I>.
</P>
<P>(v) Techstreet, phone: (855) 999-9870; email: <I>store@techstreet.com</I>; website: <I>www.techstreet.com</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) The following material is available for purchase from the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH), 1014 Broadway, Cincinnati OH 45202:
</P>
<P>(1) “Industrial Ventilation: A Manual of Recommended Practice” (22nd ed., 1995), incorporation by reference (IBR) approved for § 1910.124(b)(4)(iii).
</P>
<P>(2) Threshold Limit Values and Biological Exposure Indices for 1986-87 (1986), IBR approved for § 1910.120, PEL definition.
</P>
<P>(c) The following material is available for purchase from the American Society of Agricultural Engineers (ASAE), 2950 Niles Road, Post Office Box 229, St. Joseph, MI 49085:
</P>
<P>(1) ASAE Emblem for Identifying Slow Moving Vehicles, ASAE S276.2 (1968), IBR approved for § 1910.145(d)(10).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) The following material is available for purchase from the Agriculture Ammonia Institute-Rubber Manufacturers (AAI-RMA) Association, 1400 K St. NW, Washington DC 20005:
</P>
<P>(1) AAI-RMA Specifications for Anhydrous Ammonia Hose, IBR approved for § 1910.111(b)(8)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd Street, Fourth Floor, New York, NY 10036-7417; phone: (212) 642-4980; email: <I>info@ansi.org</I>; website: <I>www.ansi.org</I>.
</P>
<P>(1)-(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI A11.1-65 (R 70) Practice for Industrial Lighting, IBR approved for §§ 1910.219(c)(5)(iii); 1910.261 (a)(3)(i), (c)(10), and (k)(21); and 1910.265(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI A11.1-65 Practice for Industrial Lighting, IBR approved for §§ 1910.262(c)(6) and 1910.265(d)(2)(i)(a).
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI A13.1-56 Scheme for the Identification of Piping Systems, IBR approved for §§ 1910.253(d)(4)(ii); 1910.261(a)(3)(iii); 1910.262(c)(7).
</P>
<P>(7) ANSI A14.1-68 Safety Code for Portable Wood Ladders, Supplemented by ANSI A14.1a-77, IBR approved for § 1910.261 (a)(3)(iv) and (c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(8) ANSI A14.2-56 Safety Code for Portable Metal Ladders, Supplemented by ANSI A14.2a-77, IBR approved for § 1910.261 (a)(3)(v) and (c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(9) ANSI A14.3-56 Safety Code for Fixed Ladders, IBR approved for §§ 1910.68(b)(4); and 1910.261 (a)(3)(vi) and (c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(10) ANSI A17.1-65 Safety Code for Elevators, Dumbwaiters and Moving Walks, Including Supplements, A17.1a (1967); A17.1b (1968); A17.1c (1969); A17.1d (1970), IBR approved for § 1910.261 (a)(3)(vii), (g)(11)(i), and (l)(4).
</P>
<P>(11) ANSI A17.2-60 Practice for the Inspection of Elevators, Including Supplements, A17.2a (1965), A17.2b (1967), IBR approved for § 1910.261(a)(3)(viii).
</P>
<P>(12) ANSI A90.1-69 Safety Standard for Manlifts, IBR approved for § 1910.68(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(13) ANSI A92.2-69 Standard for Vehicle Mounted Elevating and Rotating Work Platforms, IBR approved for § 1910.67 (b)(1), (2), (c)(3), and (4) and 1910.268(s)(1)(v).
</P>
<P>(14) ANSI A120.1-70 Safety Code for Powered Platforms for Exterior Building Maintenance, IBR approved for § 1910.66 app. D (b) through (d).
</P>
<P>(15) ANSI B7.1-70 Safety Code for the Use, Care and Protection of Abrasive Wheels, IBR approved for §§ 1910.215(b)(12) and 1910.218(j).
</P>
<P>(16) ANSI B15.1-53 (R 58) Safety Code for Mechanical Power Transmission Apparatus, IBR approved for §§ 1910.68(b)(4) and 1910.261 (a)(3)(ix), (b)(1), (e)(3), (e)(9), (f)(4), (j)(5)(iv), (k)(12), and (l)(3).
</P>
<P>(17) ANSI B20.1-57 Safety Code for Conveyors, Cableways, and Related Equipment, IBR approved for §§ 1910.218(j)(3); 1910.261 (a)(3)(x), (b)(1), (c)(15)(iv), (f)(4), and (j)(2); 1910.265(c)(18)(i).
</P>
<P>(18) ANSI B30.2-43 (R 52) Safety Code for Cranes, Derricks, and Hoists, IBR approved for § 1910.261 (a)(3)(xi), (c)(2)(vi), and (c)(8) (i) and (iv).
</P>
<P>(19) ANSI B30.2.0-67 Safety Code for Overhead and Gantry Cranes, IBR approved for §§ 1910.179(b)(2); 1910.261 (a)(3)(xii), (c)(2)(v), and (c)(8) (i) and (iv).
</P>
<P>(20) ANSI B30.5-68 Safety Code for Crawler, Locomotive, and Truck Cranes, IBR approved for §§ 1910.180(b)(2) and 1910.261(a)(3)(xiii).
</P>
<P>(21) ANSI B30.6-69 Safety Code for Derricks, IBR approved for §§ 1910.181(b)(2) and 1910.268(j)(4)(iv) (E) and (H).
</P>
<P>(22) ANSI B31.1-55 Code for Pressure Piping, IBR approved for § 1910.261(g)(18)(iii).
</P>
<P>(23) ANSI B31.1-67, IBR approved for § 1910.253(d)(1)(i)(A)
</P>
<P>(24) ANSI B31.1a-63 Addenda to ANSI B31.1 (1955), IBR approved for § 1910.261(g)(18)(iii).
</P>
<P>(25) ANSI B31.1-67 and Addenda B31.1 (1969) Code for Pressure Piping, IBR approved for §§ 1910.103(b)(1)(iii)(b); 1910.104(b)(5)(ii); 1910.218 (d)(4) and (e)(1)(iv); and 1910.261 (a)(3)(xiv) and (g)(18)(iii).
</P>
<P>(26) ANSI B31.2-68 Fuel Gas Piping, IBR approved for § 1910.261(g)(18)(iii).
</P>
<P>(27) ANSI B31.3-66 Petroleum Refinery Piping, IBR approved for § 1910.103(b)(3)(v)(b).
</P>
<P>(28) ANSI B31.5-66 Addenda B31.5a (1968) Refrigeration Piping, IB approved for §§ 1910.103(b)(3)(v)(b) and 1910.111(b)(7)(iii).
</P>
<P>(29) ANSI B56.1-69 Safety Standard for Powered Industrial Trucks, IBR approved for §§ 1910.178(a) (2) and (3) and 1910.261 (a)(3)(xv), (b)(6), (m)(2), and (m)(5)(iii).
</P>
<P>(30) ANSI B57.1-65 Compressed Gas Cylinder Valve Outlet and Inlet Connections, IBR approved for § 1910.253(b)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(31) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(32) ANSI B175.1-1991, Safety Requirements for Gasoline-Powered Chain Saws 1910.266(e)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(33) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(34) ANSI C33.2-56 Safety Standard for Transformer-Type Arc Welding Machines, IBR approved for § 1910.254(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(35) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(36) ANSI H23.1-70 Seamless Copper Water Tube Specification, IBR approved for § 1910.110(b) (8)(ii) and (13)(ii)(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(37) ANSI H38.7-69 Specification for Aluminum Alloy Seamless Pipe and Seamless Extruded Tube, IBR approved for § 1910.110(b)(8)(i).
</P>
<P>(38) ANSI J6.4-71 Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Blankets, IBR approved for § 1910.268 (f)(1) and (n)(11)(v).
</P>
<P>(39) ANSI J6.6-71 Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Gloves, IBR approved for § 1910.268 (f)(1) and (n)(11)(iv).
</P>
<P>(40) ANSI K13.1-67 Identification of Gas Mask Canisters, IBR approved for § 1910.261 (a)(3)(xvi) and (h)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(41) ANSI K61.1-60 Safety Requirements for the Storage and Handling of Anhydrous Ammonia, IBR approved for § 1910.111(b)(11)(i).
</P>
<P>(42) ANSI K61.1-66 Safety Requirements for the Storage and Handling of Anhydrous Ammonia, IBR approved for § 1910.111(b)(11)(i).
</P>
<P>(43) ANSI O1.1-54 (R 61) Safety Code for Woodworking Machinery, IBR approved for § 1910.261 (a)(3)(xvii), (e)(7), and (i)(2).
</P>
<P>(44) ANSI S1.4-71 (R 76) Specification for Sound Level Meters, IBR approved for § 1910.95 appendixes D and I.
</P>
<P>(45) ANSI S1.11-71 (R 76) Specification for Octave, Half-Octave and Third-Octave Band Filter Sets, IBR approved for § 1910.95 appendix D.
</P>
<P>(46) ANSI S3.6-69 Specifications for Audiometers, IBR approved for § 1910.95(h)(2) and (5)(ii) and appendix D.
</P>
<P>(47) ANSI Z4.1-68 Requirements for Sanitation in Places of Employment, IBR approved for § 1910.261 (a)(3)(xviii) and (g)(15)(vi).
</P>
<P>(48) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(49) ANSI Z9.1-51 Safety Code for Ventilation and Operation of Open Surface Tanks, IBR approved for 1910.261(a)(3)(xix), (g)(18)(v), and (h)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(50) ANSI Z9.1-71 Practices for Ventilation and Operation of Open-Surface Tanks, IBR approved for § 1910.124(b)(4)(iv).
</P>
<P>(51) ANSI Z9.2-60 Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, IBR approved for §§ 1910.94(a)(4)(i) introductory text, (a)(6) introductory text, (b)(3)(ix), (b)(4)(i) and (ii), (c)(3)(i) introductory text, (c)(5)(iii)(b), and (c)(7)(iv)(a); 1910.261(a)(3)(xx), (g)(1)(i) and (iii), and (h)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(52) ANSI Z9.2-79 Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, IBR approved for § 1910.124(b)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(53) ANSI Z12.12-68 Standard for the Prevention of Sulfur Fires and Explosions, IBR approved for § 1910.261 (a)(3)(xxi), (d)(1)(i), (f)(2)(iv), and (g)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(54) ANSI Z12.20-62 (R 69) Code for the Prevention of Dust Explosions in Woodworking and Wood Flour Manufacturing Plants, IBR approved for § 1910.265(c)(20)(i).
</P>
<P>(55) ANSI Z21.30-64 Requirements for Gas Appliances and Gas Piping Installations, IBR approved for § 1910.265(c)(15).
</P>
<P>(56) ANSI Z24.22-57 Method of Measurement of Real-Ear Attenuation of Ear Protectors at Threshold, IBR approved for § 1910.261(a)(3)(xxii).
</P>
<P>(57) ANSI Z33.1-61 Installation of Blower and Exhaust Systems for Dust, Stock, and Vapor Removal or Conveying, IBR approved for §§ 1910.94(a)(4)(i); 1910.261 (a)(3)(xxiii) and (f)(5); and 1910.265(c)(20)(i).
</P>
<P>(58) ANSI Z33.1-66 Installation of Blower and Exhaust Systems for Dust, Stock, and Vapor Removal or Conveying, IBR approved for § 1910.94(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(59) ANSI Z35.1-1968, Specifications for Accident Prevention Signs; IBR approved for § 1910.261(c). Copies available for purchase from the IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 1-877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(60) ANSI Z41-1999, American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear; IBR approved for § 1910.136(b)(1)(ii). Copies of ANSI Z41-1999 are available for purchase only from the National Safety Council, P.O. Box 558, Itasca, IL 60143-0558; telephone: 1-800-621-7619; fax: 708-285-0797; Web site: <I>http://www.nsc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(61) ANSI Z41-1991, American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear; IBR approved for § 1910.136(b)(1)(iii). Copies of ANSI Z41-1991 are available for purchase only from the National Safety Council, P.O. Box 558, Itasca, IL 60143-0558; telephone: 1-800-621-7619; fax: 708-285-0797; Web site: <I>http://www.nsc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(62)-(63) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(64) ANSI Z49.1-67 Safety in Welding and Cutting, IBR approved for § 1910.252(c)(1)(iv) (A) and (B).
</P>
<P>(65) USAS Z53.1-1967 (also referred to as ANSI Z53.1-1967), Safety Color Code for Marking Physical Hazards, ANSI approved October 9, 1967; IBR approved for § 1910.97(a) and 1910.145(d). Copies available for purchase from the IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 1-877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(66) ANSI Z535.1-2006 (R2011), Safety Colors, reaffirmed July 19, 2011; IBR approved for §§ 1910.97(a) and 1910.145(d). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: 877-699-9277; Web site: <I>www.techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(67) ANSI Z535.2-2011, Environmental and Facility Safety Signs, published September 15, 2011; IBR approved for § 1910.261(c). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: 877-699-9277; Web site: <I>www.techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(68) ANSI Z54.1-63 Safety Standard for Non-Medical X-Ray and Sealed Gamma Ray Sources, IBR approved for § 1910.252(d) (1)(vii) and (2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(69) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, Approved April 13, 2010; IBR approved for § 1910.133(b). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(70) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Personal Protection Devices Approved June 19, 2003; IBR approved for §§ 1910.133(b). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(71) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, Reaffirmation approved January 4, 1999; IBR approved for § 1910.133(b). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org</I>/;
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(72) ANSI Z88.2-1969, Practices for Respiratory Protection; IBR approved for §§ 1910.94(c)(6)(iii)(<I>a</I>), 1910.134(c); and 1910.261(a)(3)(xxvi), (b)(2), (f)(5), (g)(15)(v), (h)(2)(iii), (h)(2)(iv), and (i)(4).
</P>
<P>(73) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection, approved January 26, 2009; IBR approved for § 1910.135(b)(1)(i). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2009 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(74) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection; IBR approved for § 1910.135(b)(1)(ii). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2003 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(75) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements; IBR approved for § 1910.135(b)(1)(iii). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-1997 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(76) ANSI Z41.1-1967 Men's Safety Toe Footwear; IBR approved for § 1910.261(i)(4).
</P>
<P>(77) ANSI Z87.1-1968 Practice of Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection; IBR approved for § 1910.261(a)(3)(xxv), (d)(1)(ii), (f)(5), (g)(1), (g)(15)(v), (g)(18)(ii), and (i)(4).
</P>
<P>(78) ANSI Z89.1-1969 Safety Requirements for Industrial Head Protection; IBR approved for § 1910.261(a)(3)(xxvii), (b)(2), (g)(15)(v), and (i)(4).
</P>
<P>(79) ANSI Z89.2-1971 Safety Requirements for Industrial Protective Helmets for Electrical Workers, Class B; IBR approved for § 1910.268(i)(1).
</P>
<P>(f) The following material is available for purchase from the American Petroleum Institute (API), 1220 L Street NW, Washington DC 20005:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(2) API 12B (May 1958) Specification for Bolted Production Tanks, 11th Ed., With Supplement No. 1, Mar. 1962, IBR approved for § 1910.106(b)(1)(i)(<I>a</I>)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) API 12D (Aug. 1957) Specification for Large Welded Production Tanks, 7th Ed., IBR approved for § 1910.106(b)(1)(i)(<I>a</I>)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>(4) API 12F (Mar. 1961) Specification for Small Welded Production Tanks, 5th Ed., IBR approved for § 1910.106(b)(1)(i)(<I>a</I>)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>(5) API 620, Fourth Ed. (1970) Including appendix R, Recommended Rules for Design and Construction of Large Welded Low Pressure Storage Tanks, IBR approved for §§ 1910.103(c)(1)(i)(<I>a</I>); 1910.106(b)(1)(iv)(b)(1); and 1910.111(<I>d</I>)(<I>1</I>) (ii) and (iii).
</P>
<P>(6) API 650 (1966) Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage, 3rd Ed., IBR approved for § 1910.106(b)(1)(iii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>2</I>).
</P>
<P>(7) API 1104 (1968) Standard for Welding Pipelines and Related Facilities, IBR approved for § 1910.252(d)(1)(v).
</P>
<P>(8) API 2000 (1968) Venting Atmospheric and Low Pressure Storage Tanks, IBR approved for § 1910.106(b)(2)(iv)(<I>b</I>)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>(9) API 2201 (1963) Welding or Hot Tapping on Equipment Containing Flammables, IBR approved for § 1910.252(d)(1)(vi).
</P>
<P>(g) The following material is available for purchase from the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), United Engineering Center, 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017:
</P>
<P>(1) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Sec. VIII, 1949, 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, and 1962 Ed., IBR approved for §§ 1910.110 (b)(10)(iii) (Table H-26), (d)(2) (Table H-31); (e)(3)(i) (Table H-32), (h)(2) (Table H-34); and 1910.111(b)(2)(vi);
</P>
<P>(2) ASME Code for Pressure Vessels, 1968 Ed., IBR approved for §§ 1910.106(i)(3)(i); 1910.110(g)(2)(iii)(<I>b</I>)(<I>2</I>); and 1910.217(b)(12);
</P>
<P>(3) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Sec. VIII, 1968, IBR approved for §§ 1910.103; 1910.104(b)(4)(ii); 1910.106 (b)(1)(iv)(<I>b</I>)(<I>2</I>) and (<I>i</I>)(3)(ii); 1910.107; 1910.110(b)(11) (i)(<I>b</I>) and (iii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>); 1910.111(b)(2) (i), (ii), and (iv); and 1910.169(a)(2) (i) and (ii);
</P>
<P>(4) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Sec. VIII, Paragraph UG-84, 1968, IBR approved for § 1910.104 (b)(4)(ii) and (b)(5)(iii);
</P>
<P>(5) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Sec. VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels, Including Addenda (1969), IBR approved for §§ 1910.261; 1910.262; 1910.263(i)(24)(ii);
</P>
<P>(6) Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels for Petroleum Liquids and Gases of the API and the ASME, 1951 Ed., IBR approved for § 1910.110(b)(3)(iii); and
</P>
<P>(7) ASME B56.6-1992 (with addenda), Safety Standard for Rough Terrain Forklift Trucks, IBR approved for § 1910.266(f)(4).
</P>
<P>(h) ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; phone: (610) 832-9585; email: <I>service@astm.org;</I> website: <I>www.astm.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM A 47-68, Malleable Iron Castings, IBR approved for § 1910.111.
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM A 53-69, Welded and Seamless Steel Pipe, IBR approved for §§ 1910.110 and 1910.111.
</P>
<P>(3) ASTM A 126-66, Gray Iron Casting for Valves, Flanges and Pipe Fitting, IBR approved for § 1910.111.
</P>
<P>(4) ASTM A 391-65 (ANSI G61.1-1968), Alloy Steel Chain, IBR approved for § 1910.184.
</P>
<P>(5) ASTM A 395-68, Ductile Iron for Use at Elevated Temperatures, IBR approved for § 1910.111.
</P>
<P>(6) ASTM B 88-66A, Seamless Copper Water Tube, IBR approved for § 1910.252.
</P>
<P>(7) ASTM B 88-69, Seamless Copper Water Tube, IBR approved for § 1910.110.
</P>
<P>(8) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) ASTM B 210-68, Aluminum-Alloy Drawn Seamless Tubes, IBR approved for § 1910.110.
</P>
<P>(10) ASTM B 241-69, Standard Specifications for Aluminum-Alloy Seamless Pipe and Seamless Extruded Tube, IBR approved for § 1910.110.
</P>
<P>(11) ASTM D 5-65, Test for Penetration by Bituminous Materials, IBR approved for § 1910.106.
</P>
<P>(12) ASTM D 56-70, Test for Flash Point by Tag Closed Tester, IBR approved for § 1910.106.
</P>
<P>(13) ASTM D 56-05, Standard Test Method for Flash Point by Tag Closed Cup Tester, Approved May 1, 2005, IBR approved for Appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(14) ASTM D 86-62, Test for Distillation of Petroleum Products, IBR approved for §§ 1910.106 and 1910.119.
</P>
<P>(15) ASTM D 86-07a, Standard Test Method for Distillation of Petroleum Products at Atmospheric Pressure, Approved April 1, 2007, IBR approved for Appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(16) ASTM D 88-56, Test for Saybolt Viscosity, IBR approved for § 1910.106.
</P>
<P>(17) ASTM D 93-71, Test for Flash Point by Pensky Martens, IBR approved for § 1910.106.
</P>
<P>(18) ASTM D 93-08, Standard Test Methods for Flash Point by Pensky-Martens Closed Cup Tester, Approved Oct. 15, 2008, IBR approved for Appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(19) ASTM D 240-02 (Reapproved 2007), Standard Test Method for Heat of Combustion of Liquid Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter, Approved May 1, 2007, IBR approved for Appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(20) ASTM D 323-68, Standard Test Method of Test for Vapor Pressure of Petroleum Products (Reid Method), IBR approved for § 1910.106.
</P>
<P>(21) ASTM D 445-65, Test for Viscosity of Transparent and Opaque Liquids, IBR approved for § 1910.106.
</P>
<P>(22) ASTM D 1078-05, Standard Test Method for Distillation Range of Volatile Organic Liquids, Approved May 15, 2005, IBR approved for Appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(23) ASTM D 1692-68, Test for Flammability of Plastic Sheeting and Cellular Plastics, IBR approved for § 1910.103.
</P>
<P>(24) ASTM D 2161-66, Conversion Tables for SUS, IBR approved for § 1910.106.
</P>
<P>(25) ASTM D 3278-96 (Reapproved 2004) E1, Standard Test Methods for Flash Point of Liquids by Small Scale Closed-Cup Apparatus, Approved November 1, 2004, IBR approved for Appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(26) ASTM D 3828-07a, Standard Test Methods for Flash Point by Small Scale Closed Cup Tester, Approved July 15, 2007, IBR approved for Appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(27) ASTM D4359-90 (Reapproved 2019), Standard Test Method for Determining Whether a Material is a Liquid or a Solid, approved July 1, 2019, IBR approved for § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(28) ASTM F-2412-2005, Standard Test Methods for Foot Protection, IBR approved for § 1910.136.
</P>
<P>(29) ASTM F-2413-2005, Standard Specification for Performance Requirements for Protective Footwear, IBR approved for § 1910.136.
</P>
<P>(i) The following material is available at the American Thoracic Society (ATS), 25 Broadway, 18th Floor New York, NY 10004; website: <I>www.atsjournals.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Spirometric Reference Values from a Sample of the General U.S. Population. Hankinson JL, Odencrantz JR, Fedan KB. American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 159:179-187, 1999, IBR approved for § 1910.1043(h).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) The following material is available for purchase from the American Welding Society (AWS), 550 NW, LeJeune Road, P.O. Box 351040, Miami FL 33135:
</P>
<P>(1)-(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(3) AWS B3.0-41 Standard Qualification Procedure, IBR approved for § 1910.67(c)(5)(i).
</P>
<P>(4) AWS D1.0-1966 Code for Welding in Building Construction, IBR approved for § 1910.27(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(5) AWS D2.0-69 Specifications for Welding Highway and Railway Bridges, IBR approved for § 1910.67(c)(5)(iv).
</P>
<P>(6) AWS D8.4-61 Recommended Practices for Automotive Welding Design, IBR approved for § 1910.67(c)(5)(ii).
</P>
<P>(7) AWS D10.9-69 Standard Qualification of Welding Procedures and Welders for Piping and Tubing, IBR approved for § 1910.67(c)(5)(iii).
</P>
<P>(k) The following material is available for purchase from the Department of Commerce:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Publication “Model Performance Criteria for Structural Fire Fighters' Helmets,” IBR approved for § 1910.156(e)(5)(i).
</P>
<P>(l) The following material is available for purchase from the Compressed Gas Association (CGA), 1235 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, VA 22202:
</P>
<P>(1) CGA C-6 (1968) Standards for Visual Inspection of Compressed Gas Cylinders, IBR approved for § 1910.101(a).
</P>
<P>(2) CGA C-8 (1962) Standard for Requalification of ICC-3HT Cylinders, IBR approved for § 1910.101(a).
</P>
<P>(3) CGA G-1-2009 Acetylene, Twelfth Edition, IBR approved for § 1910.102(a). Copies of CGA Pamphlet G-1-2009 are available for purchase from the: Compressed Gas Association, Inc., 4221 Walney Road, 5th Floor, Chantilly, VA 20151; telephone: (703) 788-2700; fax: (703) 961-1831; email: <I>cga@cganet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) CGA G-7.1 (1966) Commodity Specification, IBR approved for § 1910.134(d)(1).
</P>
<P>(5) CGA G-8.1 (1964) Standard for the Installation of Nitrous Oxide Systems at Consumer Sites, IBR approved for § 1910.105.
</P>
<P>(6) CGA P-1 (1965) Safe Handling of Compressed Gases, IBR approved for § 1910.101(b).
</P>
<P>(7) CGA P-3 (1963) Specifications, Properties, and Recommendations for Packaging, Transportation, Storage and Use of Ammonium Nitrate, IBR approved for § 1910.109(i)(1)(ii)(<I>b</I>).
</P>
<P>(8) CGA S-1.1 (1963) and 1965 Addenda. Safety Release Device Standards—Cylinders for Compressed Gases, IBR approved for §§ 1910.101(c); 1910.103(c)(1)(iv)(<I>a</I>)(<I>2</I>).
</P>
<P>(9) CGA S-1.2 (1963) Safety Release Device Standards, Cargo and Portable Tanks for Compressed Gases, IBR approved for §§ 1910.101(c); 1910.103(c)(1)(iv)(<I>a</I>)(<I>2</I>).
</P>
<P>(10) CGA S-1.3 (1959) Safety Release Device Standards-Compressed Gas Storage Containers, IBR approved for §§ 1910.103(c)(1)(iv)(<I>a</I>)(<I>2</I>); 1910.104(b)(6)(iii); and 1910.111(d)(4)(ii)(<I>b</I>).
</P>
<P>(11) CGA 1957 Standard Hose Connection Standard, IBR approved for § 1910.253(e) (4)(v) and (5)(iii).
</P>
<P>(12) CGA and RMA (Rubber Manufacturer's Association) Specification for Rubber Welding Hose (1958), IBR approved for § 1910.253(e)(5)(i).
</P>
<P>(13) CGA 1958 Regulator Connection Standard, IBR approved for § 1910.253(e) (4)(iv) and (6).
</P>
<P>(m) The following material is available for purchase from the Crane Manufacturer's Association of America, Inc. (CMAA), 1 Thomas Circle NW, Washington DC 20005:
</P>
<P>(1) CMAA Specification 1B61, Specifications for Electric Overhead Traveling Cranes, IBR approved for § 1910.179(b)(6)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(n) German Institute for Standardization (DIN) (Beuth Verlag GmbH) Am DIN-Platz Burggrafenstraße 6 10787 Berlin, Germany; phone: +49 30 58885 70070; website: <I>https://din.de/en/about-standards/buy-standard</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) DIN 51794:2003-05—Determining the ignition temperature of petroleum products, May 2003, IBR approved for appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) The following material is available for purchase from the Fertilizer Institute, 1015 18th Street NW, Washington, DC 20036:
</P>
<P>(1) Standard M-1 (1953, 1955, 1957, 1960, 1961, 1963, 1965, 1966, 1967, 1968), Superseded by ANSI K61.1-1972, IBR approved for § 1910.111(b)(1) (i) and (iii).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(p) The following material is available for purchase from the General Services Administration:
</P>
<P>(1) GSA Pub. GG-B-0067b, Air Compressed for Breathing Purposes, or Interim Federal Specifications, Apr. 1965, IBR approved for § 1910.134(d)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(q) International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC), IEC Secretariat, 3 rue de Varembé, PO Box 131, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland; phone: +41 22 919 02 11; email: <I>sales@iec.ch</I>; website: <I>https://www.iec.ch</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) IEC 60079-20-1, Explosive atmospheres—Part 20-1: Material characteristics for gas and vapor classification—Test methods and data, Edition 1.0, 2010-01; IBR approved for appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(r) The following material is available for purchase from the: International Code Council, Chicago District Office, 4051 W. Flossmoor Rd., Country Club Hills, IL 60478; <I>telephone:</I> 708-799-2300, x3-3801; <I>facsimile:</I> 001-708-799-4981; <I>e-mail: order@iccsafe.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IFC-2009, International Fire Code, copyright 2009, IBR approved for §§ 1910.34, 1910.35, 1910.36, and 1910.37.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(s) The following material is available for purchase from the Department of Health and Human Services:
</P>
<P>(1) Publication No. 76-120 (1975), List of Personal Hearing Protectors and Attenuation Data, IBR approved for § 1910.95 App. B.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(t) The following material is available for purchase from the Institute of Makers of Explosives (IME), 420 Lexington Avenue, New York, NY 10017:
</P>
<P>(1) IME Pamphlet No. 17, 1960, Safety in the Handling and Use of Explosives, IBR approved for §§ 1910.261 (a)(4)(iii) and (c)(14)(ii).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(u) The following material is available from the International Labour Organization (ILO), 4 route des Morillons, CH-1211 Genève 22, Switzerland; telephone: +41 (0) 22 799 6111; fax: +41 (0) 22 798 8685; website: <I>www.ilo.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised Edition 2011, Occupational safety and health series; 22 (Rev.2011), IBR approved for § 1910.1001.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(v) International Organization for Standardization (ISO), ISO Central Secretariat, Chemin de Blandonnet 8 CP 401—1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland; phone: +41 22 749 01 11; email: <I>central@iso.org</I>; website: <I>www.iso.org/store.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) ISO 817:2014(E), Refrigerants—Designation and safety classification, Third edition, 2014-04-15; IBR approved for appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(2) ISO 10156:1996 (E), Gases and Gas Mixtures—Determination of Fire Potential and Oxidizing Ability for the Selection of Cylinder Valve Outlets, Second Edition, Feb. 15, 1996; IBR approved for appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(3) ISO 10156:2017(E), Gas Cylinders—Gases and gas mixtures—Determination of fire potential and oxidizing ability for the selection of cylinder valve outlets, Fourth edition, 2017-07; IBR approved for appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(4) ISO 10156-2:2005 (E), Gas cylinders—Gases and Gas Mixtures—Part 2: Determination of Oxidizing Ability of Toxic and Corrosive Gases and Gas Mixtures, First Edition, Aug. 1, 2005; IBR approved for appendix B to subpart Z.
</P>
<P>(5) ISO 13943:2000 (E/F); Fire Safety—Vocabulary, First Edition, April, 15, 2000, IBR approved for appendix B to § 1910.1200.


</P>
<P>(w) The following material is available for purchase from the National Electrical Manufacturer's Association (NEMA):
</P>
<P>(1) NEMA EW-1 (1962) Requirements for Electric Arc Welding Apparatus, IBR approved for §§ 1910.254(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(x) The following material is available for purchase from the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269; Telephone: 800-344-3555 or 617-770-3000; Fax: 1-800-593-6372 or 1-508-895-8301; Email: <I>custserv@nfpa.org;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.nfpa.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFPA 30 (1969) Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, IBR approved for § 1910.178(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) NFPA 32-1970 Standard for Dry Cleaning Plants, IBR approved for § 1910.106(j)(6)(i).
</P>
<P>(3) NFPA 33-1969 Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable and Combustible Material, IBR approved for § 1910.94(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) NFPA 34-1966 Standard for Dip Tanks Containing Flammable or Combustible Liquids, IBR approved for § 1910.124(b)(4)(iv).
</P>
<P>(5) NFPA 34-1995 Standard for Dip Tanks Containing Flammable or Combustible Liquids, IBR approved for § 1910.124(b)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>(6) NFPA 35-1970 Standard for the Manufacture of Organic Coatings, IBR approved for § 1910.106(j)(6)(ii).
</P>
<P>(7) NFPA 36-1967 Standard for Solvent Extraction Plants, IBR approved for § 1910.106(j)(6)(iii).
</P>
<P>(8) NFPA 37-1970 Standard for the Installation and Use of Stationary Combustion Engines and Gas Turbines, IBR approved for §§ 1910.106(j)(6)(iv) and 1910.110 (b)(20)(iv)(c) and (e)(11).
</P>
<P>(9) NFPA 51B-1962 Standard for Fire Protection in Use of Cutting and Welding Processes, IBR approved for § 1910.252(a)(1) introductory text.
</P>
<P>(10) NFPA 54-1969 Standard for the Installation of Gas Appliances and Gas Piping, IBR approved for § 1910.110(b)(20)(iv)(a).
</P>
<P>(11) NFPA 54A-1969 Standard for the Installation of Gas Piping and Gas Equipment on Industrial Premises and Certain Other Premises, IBR approved for § 1910.110(b)(20)(iv)(b).
</P>
<P>(12) NFPA 58-1969 Standard for the Storage and Handling of Liquefied Petroleum Gases (ANSI Z106.1-1970), IBR approved for §§ 1910.110 (b)(3)(iv) and (i)(3) (i) and (ii); and 1910.178(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(13) NFPA 59-1968 Standard for the Storage and Handling of Liquefied Petroleum Gases at Utility Gas Plants, IBR approved for §§ 1910.110 (b)(3)(iv) and (i)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>(14) NFPA 62-1967 Standard for the Prevention of Dust Explosions in the Production, Packaging, and Handling of Pulverized Sugar and Cocoa, IBR approved for § 1910.263(k)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(15) NFPA 68-1954 Guide for Explosion Venting, IBR approved for § 1910.94(a)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(16) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(17) NFPA 78-1968 Lightning Protection Code, IBR approved for § 1910.109(i)(6)(ii).
</P>
<P>(18) NFPA 80-1968 Standard for Fire Doors and Windows, IBR approved for § 1910.106(d)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(19) NFPA 80-1970 Standard for the Installation of Fire Doors and Windows, IBR approved for § 1910.253(f)(6)(i)(I).
</P>
<P>(20) NFPA 86A-1969 Standard for Oven and Furnaces Design, Location and Equipment, IBR approved for §§ 1910.107 (j)(1) and (l)(3) and 1910.108 (b)(2) and (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(21) NFPA 91-1961 Standard for the Installation of Blower and Exhaust Systems for Dust, Stock, and Vapor Removal or Conveying (ANSI Z33.1-61), IBR approved for § 1910.107(d)(1).
</P>
<P>(22) NFPA 91-1969 Standards for Blower and Exhaust Systems, IBR approved for § 1910.108(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(23) NFPA 96-1970 Standard for the Installation of Equipment for the Removal of Smoke and Grease Laden Vapors from Commercial Cooking Equipment, IBR approved for § 1910.110(b)(20)(iv)(d).
</P>
<P>(24) NFPA 101-1970 Code for Life Safety From Fire in Buildings and Structures, IBR approved for § 1910.261(a)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>(25) NFPA 101-2009, Life Safety Code, 2009 edition, IBR approved for §§ 1910.34, 1910.35, 1910.36, and 1910.37.
</P>
<P>(26) NFPA 203M-1970 Manual on Roof Coverings, IBR approved for § 1910.109(i)(1)(iii)(c).
</P>
<P>(27) NFPA 251-1969 Standard Methods of Fire Tests of Building Construction and Materials, IBR approved for §§ 1910.106 (d)(3)(ii) introductory text and (d)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(28) NFPA 302-1968 Fire Protection Standard for Motor-Craft (Pleasure and Commercial), IBR approved for § 1910.265(d)(2)(iv) introductory text.
</P>
<P>(29) NFPA 385-1966 Recommended Regulatory Standard for Tank Vehicles for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, IBR approved for § 1910.106(g)(1)(i)(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(30) NFPA 496-1967 Standard for Purged Enclosures for Electrical Equipment in Hazardous Locations, IBR approved for § 1910.103(c)(1)(ix)(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(31) NFPA 505-1969 Standard for Type Designations, Areas of Use, Maintenance, and Operation of Powered Industrial Trucks, IBR approved for § 1910.110(e)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>(32) NFPA 566-1965 Standard for the Installation of Bulk Oxygen Systems at Consumer Sites, IBR approved for §§ 1910.253 (b)(4)(iv) and (c)(2)(v).
</P>
<P>(33) NFPA 656-1959 Code for the Prevention of Dust Ignition in Spice Grinding Plants, IBR approved for § 1910.263(k)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(34) NFPA 1971-1975 Protective Clothing for Structural Fire Fighting, IBR approved for § 1910.156(e)(3)(ii) introductory text.
</P>
<P>(35) NFPA 51A (2001) Standard for Acetylene Cylinder Charging Plants, IBR approved for § 1910.102(b) and (c). Copies of NFPA 51A-2001 are available for purchase from the: National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169-7471; telephone: 1-800-344-35557; e-mail: <I>custserv@nfpa.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(36) NFPA 51A (2006) Standard for Acetylene Cylinder Charging Plants, IBR approved for § 1910.102(b) and (c). Copies of NFPA 51A-2006 are available for purchase from the: National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169-7471; telephone: 1-800-344-35557; e-mail: <I>custserv@nfpa.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(37) NFPA 30B, Code for the Manufacture and Storage of Aerosol Products, 2007 Edition, Approved August 17, 2006, IBR approved for Appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(y) The following material is available for purchase from the National Food Plant Institute, 1700 K St. NW., Washington, DC 20006:
</P>
<P>(1) Definition and Test Procedures for Ammonium Nitrate Fertilizer (Nov. 1964), IBR approved for § 1910.109 Table H-22, ftn. 3.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(z) The following material is available for purchase from the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH):
</P>
<P>(1) Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances, 1978, IBR approved for § 1910.20(c)(13)(i) and appendix B.
</P>
<P>(2) Development of Criteria for Fire Fighters Gloves; Vol. II, part II; Test Methods, 1976, IBR approved for § 1910.156(e)(4)(i) introductory text.
</P>
<P>(3) NIOSH Recommendations for Occupational Safety and Health Standards (Sept. 1987), IBR approved for § 1910.120 PEL definition.
</P>
<P>(aa) The following material is available for purchase from the Public Health Service:
</P>
<P>(1) U.S. Pharmacopeia, IBR approved for § 1910.134(d)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) Publication No. 934 (1962), Food Service Sanitation Ordinance and Code, part V of the Food Service Sanitation Manual, IBR approved for § 1910.142(i)(1).
</P>
<P>(bb) The following material is available for purchase from the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), 485 Lexington Avenue, New York, NY 10017:
</P>
<P>(1) SAE J185, June 1988, Recommended Practice for Access Systems for Off-Road Machines, IBR approved for § 1910.266(f)(5)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) SAE J231, January 1981, Minimum Performance Criteria for Falling Object Protective Structure (FOPS), IBR approved for § 1910.266(f)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(3) SAE J386, June 1985, Operator Restraint Systems for Off-Road Work Machines, IBR approved for § 1910.266(d)(3)(iv).
</P>
<P>(4) SAE J397, April 1988, Deflection Limiting Volume-ROPS/FOPS Laboratory Evaluation, IBR approved for § 1910.266(f)(3)(iv).
</P>
<P>(5) SAE 765 (1961) SAE Recommended Practice: Crane Loading Stability Test Code, IBR approved for § 1910.180 (c)(1)(iii) and (e)(2)(iii)(<I>a</I>).
</P>
<P>(6) SAE J1040, April 1988, Performance Criteria for Rollover Protective Structures (ROPS) for Construction, Earthmoving, Forestry and Mining Machines, IBR approved for § 1910.266(f)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(cc) The following material is available for purchase from Underwriters Laboratories (UL), 207 East Ohio Street, Chicago, IL 60611:
</P>
<P>(1) UL 58-61 Steel Underground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, 5th Ed., IBR approved for § 1910.106(b)(1)(iii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) UL 80-63 Steel Inside Tanks for Oil-Burner Fuel, IBR approved for § 1910.106(b)(1)(iii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) UL 142-68 Steel Above Ground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, IBR approved for § 1910.106(b)(1)(iii)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>(dd) United Nations (UN), United Nations Publications, P.O. Box 960 Herndon, VA 20172; phone: (703) 661-1571;; email: <I>order@un.org</I>; website: <I>https://shop.un.org/</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) ADR 2019, European Agreement Concerning the International Carriage of Dangerous Goods by Road; Annex A: General provisions and provisions concerning dangerous substances and articles; (Volumes I and II) including December 2018 corrigendum to Volume II, applicable January 1, 2019; IBR approved for § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(2) ST/SG/AC.10/Rev.4 (“UN ST/SG/AC.10/Rev.4”), The UN Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods, Manual of Tests and Criteria, Fourth Revised Edition, 2003; IBR approved for appendix B to § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(3) ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (“UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6”), Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods: Manual of Tests and Criteria, sixth revised edition, copyright 2015; IBR approved for appendix B to § 1910.1200.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1910.6, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.7" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.7   Definition and requirements for a nationally recognized testing laboratory.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section shall apply only when the term <I>nationally recognized testing laboratory</I> is used in other sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Laboratory requirements.</I> The term <I>nationally recognized testing laboratory</I> (NRTL) means an organization which is recognized by OSHA in accordance with appendix A of this section and which tests for safety, and lists or labels or accepts, equipment or materials and which meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) For each specified item of equipment or material to be listed, labeled or accepted, the NRTL has the capability (including proper testing equipment and facilities, trained staff, written testing procedures, and calibration and quality control programs) to perform:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing and examining of equipment and materials for workplace safety purposes to determine conformance with appropriate test standards; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Experimental testing and examining of equipment and materials for workplace safety purposes to determine conformance with appropriate test standards or performance in a specified manner.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRTL shall provide, to the extent needed for the particular equipment or materials listed, labeled, or accepted, the following controls or services:
</P>
<P>(i) Implements control procedures for identifying the listed and labeled equipment or materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspects the run of production of such items at factories for product evaluation purposes to assure conformance with the test standards; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Conducts field inspections to monitor and to assure the proper use of its identifying mark or labels on products;
</P>
<P>(3) The NRTL is completely independent of employers subject to the tested equipment requirements, and of any manufacturers or vendors of equipment or materials being tested for these purposes; and,
</P>
<P>(4) The NRTL maintains effective procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Producing creditable findings or reports that are objective and without bias; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Handling complaints and disputes under a fair and reasonable system.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Test standards.</I> An <I>appropriate test standard</I> referred to in § 1910.7(b)(1) (i) and (ii) is a document which specifies the safety requirements for specific equipment or class of equipment and is:
</P>
<P>(1) Recognized in the United States as a safety standard providing an adequate level of safety, and
</P>
<P>(2) Compatible with and maintained current with periodic revisions of applicable national codes and installation standards, and
</P>
<P>(3) Developed by a standards developing organization under a method providing for input and consideration of views of industry groups, experts, users, consumers, governmental authorities, and others having broad experience in the safety field involved, or
</P>
<P>(4) In lieu of paragraphs (c) (1), (2), and (3), the standard is currently designated as an American National Standards Institute (ANSI) safety-designated product standard or an American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) test standard used for evaluation of products or materials.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative test standard.</I> If a testing laboratory desires to use a test standard other than one allowed under paragraph (c) of this section, then the Assistant Secretary of Labor shall evaluate the proposed standard to determine that it provides an adequate level of safety before it is used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Implementation.</I> A testing organization desiring recognition by OSHA as an NRTL shall request that OSHA evaluate its testing and control programs against the requirements in this section for any equipment or material it may specify. The recognition procedure shall be conducted in accordance with appendix A to this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fees.</I> (1) Each applicant for NRTL recognition and each NRTL must pay fees for services provided by OSHA in advance of the provision of those services. OSHA will assess fees for the following services: 
</P>
<P>(i) Processing of applications for initial recognition, expansion of recognition, or renewal of recognition, including on-site reviews; review and evaluation of the applications; and preparation of reports, evaluations and <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Audits of sites. 
</P>
<P>(2) The fee schedule established by OSHA reflects the full cost of performing the activities for each service listed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. OSHA calculates the fees based on either the average or actual time required to perform the work necessary; the staff costs per hour (which include wages, fringe benefits, and expenses other than travel for personnel that perform or administer the activities covered by the fees); and the average or actual costs for travel when on-site reviews are involved. The formula for the fee calculation is as follows: 
</P>
<FP-2>Activity Fee = [Average (or Actual) Hours to Complete the Activity × Staff Costs per Hour] + Average (or Actual) Travel Costs 
</FP-2>
<P>(3)(i) OSHA will review the full costs periodically and will propose a revised fee schedule, if warranted. In its review, OSHA will apply the formula established in paragraph (f)(2) of this section to the current estimated full costs for the NRTL Program. If a change is warranted, OSHA will follow the implementation shown in paragraph (f)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) OSHA will publish all fee schedules in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Once published, a fee schedule remains in effect until it is superseded by a new fee schedule. Any member of the public may request a change to the fees included in the current fee schedule. Such a request must include appropriate documentation in support of the suggested change. OSHA will consider such requests during its annual review of the fee schedule. 
</P>
<P>(4) OSHA will implement periodic review, and fee assessment, collection, and payment, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Milestones/Dates
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Action required
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">I. Periodic Review of Fee Schedule</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">When review completed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA will publish any proposed new fee schedule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if OSHA determines that costs warrant changes in the fee schedule.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fifteen days after publication</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Comments due on the proposed new fee schedule.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">When OSHA approves the fee schedule</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA will publish the final fee schedule in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> making the fee schedule effective on a specific date.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">II. Application Processing Fees</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time of application</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicant must pay the applicable fees in the fee schedule that are due when submitting an application; OSHA will not begin processing the application until it receives the fees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Before assessment performed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicant must pay the estimated staff time and travel costs for its assessment based on the fees in effect at the time of the assessment. Applicant also must pay the fees for the final report and <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice, and other applicable fees, as specified in the fee schedule. OSHA may cancel an application if the applicant does not pay these fees, or any balance of these fees, when due.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">III. Audit Fees</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Before audit performed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NRTL must pay the estimated staff time and travel costs for its audit based on the fees in effect at the time of the audit. NRTL also must pay other applicable fees, as specified in the fee schedule. After the audit, OSHA adjusts the audit fees to account for the actual costs for travel and staff time.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On due date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NRTL must pay the estimated audit fees, or any balance due, by the due date established by OSHA; OSHA will assess a late fee if NRTL does not pay audit fees (or any balance of fees due) by the due date. OSHA may still perform the audit when an NRTL does not pay the fees or does not pay them on time.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thirty days after due date or, if earlier, date NRTL refuses to pay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA will begin processing a notice for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its plan to revoke recognition for NRTLs that do not pay the estimated audit fees and any balance of audit fees due.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Note: For the purposes of 29 CFR 1910.7(f)(4), “days” means “calendar days,” and “applicant” means “the NRTL” or “an applicant for NRTL recognition.”</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) OSHA will provide details about how to pay the fees through appropriate OSHA Program Directives, which will be available on the OSHA web site.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.7—OSHA Recognition Process for Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratories
</HD1>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>This appendix provides requirements and criteria which OSHA will use to evaluate and recognize a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory (NRTL). This process will include the evaluation of the product evaluation and control programs being operated by the NRTL, as well as the NRTL's testing facilities being used in its program. In the evaluation of the NRTLs, OSHA will use either consensus-based standards currently in use nationally, or other standards or criteria which may be considered appropriate. This appendix implements the definition of NRTL in 29 CFR 1910.7 which sets out the criteria that a laboratory must meet to be recognized by OSHA (initially and on a continuing basis). The appendix is broader in scope, providing procedures for renewal, expansion and revocation of OSHA recognition. Except as otherwise provided, the burden is on the applicant to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that it is entitled to recognition as an NRTL. If further detailing of these requirements and criteria will assist the NRTLs or OSHA in this activity, this detailing will be done through appropriate OSHA Program Directives.
</P>
<HD2>I. Procedures for Initial OSHA Recognition
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Applications.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Eligibility.</I> a. Any testing agency or organization considering itself to meet the definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory as specified in § 1910.7 may apply for OSHA recognition as an NRTL.
</P>
<P>b. However, in determining eligibility for a foreign-based testing agency or organization, OSHA shall take into consideration the policy of the foreign government regarding both the acceptance in that country of testing data, equipment acceptances, and listings, and labeling, which are provided through nationally recognized testing laboratories recognized by the Assistant Secretary, and the accessibility to government recognition or a similar system in that country by U.S.-based safety-related testing agencies, whether recognized by the Assistant Secretary or not, if such recognition or a similar system is required by that country.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of application.</I> a. The applicant shall provide sufficient information and detail demonstrating that it meets the requirements set forth in § 1910.7, in order for an informed decision concerning recognition to be made by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>b. The applicant also shall identify the scope of the NRTL-related activity for which the applicant wishes to be recognized. This will include identifying the testing methods it will use to test or judge the specific equipment and materials for which recognition is being requested, unless such test methods are already specified in the test standard. If requested to do so by OSHA, the applicant shall provide documentation of the efficacy of these testing methods.
</P>
<P>c. The applicant may include whatever enclosures, attachments, or exhibits the applicant deems appropriate. The application need not be submitted on a Federal form.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Filing office location.</I> The application shall be filed with: NRTL Recognition Program, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Amendments and withdrawals.</I> a. An application may be revised by an applicant at any time prior to the completion of activity under paragraph I.B.4. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. An application may be withdrawn by an applicant, without prejudice, at any time prior to the final decision by the Assistant Secretary in paragraph I.B.7.c. of this appendix.


</P>
<HD3>B. Review and Decision Process; Issuance or Renewal.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Acceptance and on-site review.</I> a. Applications submitted by eligible testing agencies will be accepted by OSHA, and their receipt acknowledged in writing. After receipt of an application, OSHA may request additional information if it believes information relevant to the requirements for recognition has been omitted.
</P>
<P>b. OSHA shall, as necessary, conduct an on-site review of the testing facilities of the applicant, as well as the applicant's administrative and technical practices, and, if necessary, review any additional documentation underlying the application.
</P>
<P>c. These on-site reviews will be conducted by qualified individuals technically expert in these matters, including, as appropriate, non-Federal consultants/contractors acceptable to OSHA. The protocol for each review will be based on appropriate national consensus standards or international guides, with such additions, changes, or deletions as may be considered necessary and appropriate in each case by OSHA. A written report shall be made of each on-site review and a copy shall be provided to the applicant.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Positive finding by staff.</I> If, after review of the application, and additional information, and the on-site review report, the applicant appears to have met the requirements for recognition, a written recommendation shall be submitted by the responsible OSHA personnel to the Assistant Secretary that the application be approved, accompanied by a supporting explanation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Negative finding by staff.</I>—a. <I>Notification to applicant.</I> If, after review of the application, any additional information and the on-site review report, the applicant does not appear to have met the requirements for recognition, the responsible OSHA personnel shall notify the applicant in writing, listing the specific requirements of § 1910.7 and this appendix which the applicant has not met, and allow a reasonable period for response.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Revision of application.</I> (i) After receipt of a notification of negative finding (i.e., for intended disapproval of the application), and within the response period provided, the applicant may:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Submit a revised application for further review, which could result in a positive finding by the responsible OSHA personnel pursuant to subsection I.B.2. of this appendix; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Request that the original application be submitted to the Assistant Secretary with an attached statement of reasons, supplied by the applicant of why the application should be approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) This procedure for applicant notification and potential revision shall be used only once during each recognition process.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Preliminary finding by Assistant Secretary.</I> a. The Assistant Secretary, or a special designee for this purpose, will make a preliminary finding as to whether the applicant has or has not met the requirements for recognition, based on the completed application file, the written staff recommendation, and the statement of reasons supplied by the applicant if there remains a staff recommendation of disapproval.
</P>
<P>b. Notification of this preliminary finding will be sent to the applicant and subsequently published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>c. This preliminary finding shall not be considered an official decision by the Assistant Secretary or OSHA, and does not confer any change in status or any interim or temporary recognition for the applicant.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Public review and comment period</I>—a. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of preliminary finding will provide a period of not less than 30 calendar days for written comments on the applicant's fulfillment of the requirements for recognition. The application, supporting documents, staff recommendation, statement of applicant's reasons, and any comments received, will be available for public inspection in the OSHA Docket Office.
</P>
<P>b. Any member of the public, including the applicant, may supply detailed reasons and evidence supporting or challenging the sufficiency of the applicant's having met the requirements of the definition in 29 CFR § 1910.7 and this appendix. Submission of pertinent documents and exhibits shall be made in writing by the close of the comment period.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Action after public comment</I>—a. <I>Final decision by Assistant Secretary.</I> Where the public review and comment record supports the Assistant Secretary's preliminary finding concerning the application, i.e., absent any serious objections or substantive claims contrary to the preliminary finding having been received in writing from the public during the comment period, the Assistant Secretary will proceed to final written decision on the application. The reasons supporting this decision shall be derived from the evidence available as a result of the full application, the supporting documentation, the staff finding, and the written comments and evidence presented during the public review and comment period.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Public announcement.</I> A copy of the Assistant Secretary's final decision will be provided to the applicant. Subsequently, a notification of the final decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The publication date will be the effective date of the recognition.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Review of final decision.</I> There will be no further review activity available within the Department of Labor from the final decision of the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Action after public objection</I>—a. <I>Review of negative information.</I> At the discretion of the Assistant Secretary or his designee, OSHA may authorize Federal or contract personnel to initiate a special review of any information provided in the public comment record which appears to require resolution, before a final decision can be made.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Supplementation of record.</I> The contents and results of special reviews will be made part of this record by the Assistant Secretary by either:
</P>
<P>(i) Reopening the written comment period for public comments on these reviews; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Convening an informal hearing to accept public comments on these reviews, conducted under applicable OSHA procedures for similar hearings.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Final decision by the Assistant Secretary.</I> The Assistant Secretary shall issue a decision as to whether it has been demonstrated, based on a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant meets the requirements for recognition. The reasons supporting this decision shall be derived from the evidence available as a result of the full application, the supporting documentation, the staff finding, the comments and evidence presented during the public review and comment period, and written to transcribed evidence received during any subsequent reopening of the written comment period or informal public hearing held.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Public announcement.</I> A copy of the Assistant Secretary's final decision will be provided to the applicant, and a notification will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> subsequently announcing the decision.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Review of final decision.</I> There will be no further review activity available within the Department of Labor from the final decision of the Assistant Secretary.


</P>
<HD3>C. Terms and Conditions of Recognition.
</HD3>
<P>1. The following terms and conditions shall be part of every recognition:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Letter of recognition.</I> The recognition by OSHA of any NRTL will be evidenced by a letter of recognition from OSHA. The letter will provide the specific details of the scope of the OSHA recognition, including the specific equipment or materials for which OSHA recognition has been granted, as well as any specific conditions imposed by OSHA.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Period of recognition.</I> The recognition by OSHA of each NRTL will be valid for five years, unless terminated before the expiration of the period. The dates of the period of recognition will be stated in the recognition letter.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Constancy in operations.</I> The recognized NRTL shall continue to satisfy all the requirements or limitations in the letter of recognition during the period of recognition.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Accurate publicity.</I> The OSHA-recognized NRTL shall not engage in or permit others to engage in misrepresentation of the scope or conditions of its recognition.
</P>
<P>2. [Reserved]


</P>
<HD2>II. Supplementary Procedures.
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Test standard changes.
</HD3>
<P>A recognized NRTL may change a testing standard or elements incorporated in the standard such as testing methods or pass-fail criteria by notifying the Assistant Secretary of the change, certifying that the revised standard will be at least as effective as the prior standard, and providing the supporting data upon which its conclusions are based. The NRTL need not inform the Assistant Secretary of minor deviations from a test standard such as the use of new instrumentation that is more accurate or sensitive than originally called for in the standard. The NRTL also need not inform the Assistant Secretary of its adoption of revisions to third-party testing standards meeting the requirements of § 1910.7(c)(4), if such revisions have been developed by the standards developing organization, or of its adoption of revisions to other third-party test standards which the developing organization has submitted to OSHA. If, upon review, the Assistant Secretary or his designee determines that the proposed revised standard is not “substantially equivalent” to the previous version with regard to the level of safety obtained, OSHA will not accept the proposed testing standard by the recognized NRTL, and will initiate discontinuance of that aspect of OSHA-recognized activity by the NRTL by modification of the official letter of recognition. OSHA will publicly announce this action and the NRTL will be required to communicate this OSHA decision directly to affected manufacturers.
</P>
<HD3>B. Expansion of current recognition
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Eligibility.</I> A recognized NRTL may apply to OSHA for an expansion of its current recognition to cover other categories of NRTL testing in addition to those included in the current recognition.
</P>
<P>2. Procedure. a. OSHA will act upon and process the application for expansion in accordance with subsection I.B. of this appendix, except that the period for written comments, specified in paragraph 5.a of subsection I.B. of this appendix, will be not less than 15 calendar days.
</P>
<P>b. In that process, OSHA may decide not to conduct an on-site review, where the substantive scope of the request to expand recognition is closely related to the current area of recognition.
</P>
<P>c. The expiration date for each expansion of recognition shall coincide with the expiration date of the current basic recognition period.
</P>
<HD3>C. Renewal of OSHA recognition
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Eligibility.</I> A recognized NRTL may renew its recognition by filing a renewal request at the address in paragraph I.A.3. of this appendix not less than nine months, nor more than one year, before the expiration date of its current recognition.
</P>
<P>2. Procedure. a. OSHA will process the renewal request in accordance with subsection I.B. of this appendix, except that the period for written comments, specified in paragraph 5.a of subsection I.B. of this appendix, will be not less than 15 calendar days.
</P>
<P>b. In that process, OSHA may determine not to conduct the on-site reviews in I.B.1.a. where appropriate.
</P>
<P>c. When a recognized NRTL has filed a timely and sufficient renewal request, its current recognition will not expire until a final decision has been made by OSHA on the request.
</P>
<P>d. After the first renewal has been granted to the NRTL, the NRTL shall apply for a continuation of its recognition status every five years by submitting a renewal request. In lieu of submitting a renewal request after the initial renewal, the NRTL may certify its continuing compliance with the terms of its letter of recognition and 29 CFR 1910.7.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Alternative procedure.</I> After the initial recognition and before the expiration thereof, OSHA may (for good cause) determine that there is a sufficient basis to dispense with the renewal requirement for a given laboratory and will so notify the laboratory of such a determination in writing. In lieu of submitting a renewal request, any laboratory so notified shall certify its continuing compliance with the terms of its letter of recognition and 29 CFR 1910.7.
</P>
<HD3>D. Voluntary termination of recognition.
</HD3>
<P>At any time, a recognized NRTL may voluntarily terminate its recognition, either in its entirety or with respect to any area covered in its recognition, by giving written notice to OSHA. The written notice shall state the date as of which the termination is to take effect. The Assistant Secretary shall inform the public of any voluntary termination by <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice.
</P>
<HD3>E. Revocation of recognition by OSHA.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Potential causes.</I> If an NRTL either has failed to continue to substantially satisfy the requirements of § 1910.7 or this appendix, or has not been reasonably performing the NRTL testing requirements encompassed within its letter of recognition, or has materially misrepresented itself in its applications or misrepresented the scope or conditions of its recognition, the Assistant Secretary may revoke the recognition of a recognized NRTL, in whole or in part. OSHA may initiate revocation procedures on the basis of information provided by any interested person.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedure.</I> a. Before proposing to revoke recognition, the Agency will notify the recognized NRTL in writing, giving it the opportunity to rebut or correct the alleged deficiencies which would form the basis of the proposed revocation, within a reasonable period.
</P>
<P>b. If the alleged deficiencies are not corrected or reconciled within a reasonable period, OSHA will propose, in writing to the recognized NRTL, to revoke recognition. If deemed appropriate, no other announcement need be made by OSHA.
</P>
<P>c. The revocation shall be effective in 60 days unless within that period the recognized NRTL corrects the deficiencies or requests a hearing in writing.
</P>
<P>d. If a hearing is requested, it shall be held before an administrative law judge of the Department of Labor pursuant to the rules specified in 29 CFR part 1905, subpart C.
</P>
<P>e. The parties shall be OSHA and the recognized NRTL. The Assistant Secretary may allow other interested persons to participate in these hearings if such participation would contribute to the resolution of issues germane to the proceeding and not cause undue delay.
</P>
<P>f. The burden of proof shall be on OSHA to demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that the recognition should be revoked because the NRTL is not meeting the requirements for recognition, has not been reasonably performing the product testing functions as required by § 1910.7, this appendix A, or the letter of recognition, or has materially misrepresented itself in its applications or publicity.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Final decision.</I> a. After the hearing, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue a decision stating the reasons based on the record as to whether it has been demonstrated, based on a preponderance of evidence, that the applicant does not continue to meet the requirements for its current recognition.
</P>
<P>b. Upon issuance of the decision, any party to the hearing may file exceptions within 20 days pursuant to 29 CFR 1905.28. If no exceptions are filed, this decision is the final decision of the Assistant Secretary. If objections are filed, the Administrative Law Judge shall forward the decision, exceptions and record to the Assistant Secretary for the final decision on the proposed revocation.
</P>
<P>c. The Assistant Secretary will review the record, the decision by the Administrative Law Judge, and the exceptions filed. Based on this, the Assistant Secretary shall issue the final decision as to whether it has been demonstrated, by a preponderance of evidence, that the recognized NRTL has not continued to meet the requirements for OSHA recognition. If the Assistant Secretary finds that the NRTL does not meet the NRTL recognition requirements, the recognition will be revoked.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Public announcement.</I> A copy of the Assistant Secretary's final decision will be provided to the applicant, and a notification will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing the decision, and the availability of the complete record of this proceeding at OSHA. The effective date of any revocation will be the date the final decision copy is sent to the NRTL.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Review of final decision.</I> There will be no further review activity available within the Department of Labor from the final decision of the Assistant Secretary.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 12120, Apr. 12, 1988; 53 FR 16838, May 11, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989; 65 FR 46818, 46819, July 31, 2000; 76 FR 10515, Feb. 25, 2011; 85 FR 8732, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.8" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.8   OMB control numbers under the Paperwork Reduction Act.</HEAD>
<P>The following sections or paragraphs each contain a collection of information requirement which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the control number listed.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">29 CFR citation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB control No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0147
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0199
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0199
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0199


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0121
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.67(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0230
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0226
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0048
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0208
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0202
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0205
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0099
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0190
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0096
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0203
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.156</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0075
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.157(e)(3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.157(f)(16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0218
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.177(d)(3)(iv)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0219
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.179(j)(2)(iii) and (iv)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0224
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.179(m)(1) and (m)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0224
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.180(d)(6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0221
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.180(g)(1) and (g)(2)(ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0221
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.181(g)(1) and (g)(3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0222
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.184(e)(4), (f)(4) and (i)(8)(ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0223
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.217(e)(1)(i) and (ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0229
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.217(g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0070
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.217(h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0143
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.218(a)(2)(i) and (ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0228
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.252(a)(2)(xiii)(<E T="03">c</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0207
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.255(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0207
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.266</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.268</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0225
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.269</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0190
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.272</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0206
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.302</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.303</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.304</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.305</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.306</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.307</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.308</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0256
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.420</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.423</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.440</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0133
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0085
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0084
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0086
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0083
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0087
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0089
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0082
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0090
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0079
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0088
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0044
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0081
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0065
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0267


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0092
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0252
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1027</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0185
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0129
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1029</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0128
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1030</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1044</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0101
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1047</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0108
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0145
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0184
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1051</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0170
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1052</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0179
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1053</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0266
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1096</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0103
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0072
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.1450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0131</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 29668, June 2, 1997; 62 FR 42666, Aug. 8, 1997; 62 FR 43581, Aug. 14, 1997; 62 FR 65203, Dec. 11, 1997; 63 FR 13340, Mar. 19, 1998; 63 FR 17093, Apr. 8, 1998; 71 FR 38086, July 5, 2006; 72 FR 40075, July 23, 2007; 81 FR 48710, July 26, 2016; 82 FR 31253, July 6, 2017; 83 FR 9702, Mar. 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.9" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.1.33.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.9   Compliance duties owed to each employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Standards in this part requiring the employer to provide personal protective equipment (PPE), including respirators and other types of PPE, because of hazards to employees impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must provide PPE to each employee required to use the PPE, and each failure to provide PPE to an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training.</I> Standards in this part requiring training on hazards and related matters, such as standards requiring that employees receive training or that the employer train employees, provide training to employees, or institute or implement a training program, impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must train each affected employee in the manner required by the standard, and each failure to train an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 75583, Dec. 12, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Adoption and Extension of Established Federal Standards</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Walsh-Healey Act, 41 U.S.C. 35 <I>et seq.;</I> Service Contract Act of 1965, 41 U.S.C. 351 <I>et seq.;</I> Sec.107, Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (Construction Safety Act), 40 U.S.C. 333; Sec. 41, Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, 33 U.S.C. 941; National Foundation of Arts and Humanities Act, 20 U.S.C. 951 <I>et seq.;</I> Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 1911), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), or 6-96 (62 FR 111), as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.11" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.2.33.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.11   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this subpart B adopt and extend the applicability of, established Federal standards in effect on April 28, 1971, with respect to every employer, employee, and employment covered by the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) It bears emphasis that only standards (i.e., substantive rules) relating to safety or health are adopted by any incorporations by reference of standards prescribed elsewhere in this chapter or this title. Other materials contained in the referenced parties are not adopted. Illustrations of the types of materials which are not adopted are these. The incorporations by reference of parts 1915, 1916, 1917, 1918 in §§ 1910.13, 1910.14, 1910.15, and 1910.16 are not intended to include the discussion in those parts of the coverage of the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act or the penalty provisions of the Act. Similarly, the incorporation by reference of part 1926 in § 1910.12 is not intended to include references to interpretative rules having relevance to the application of the Construction Safety Act, but having no relevance to the application to the Occupational Safety and Health Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.12" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.2.33.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.12   Construction work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards.</I> The standards prescribed in part 1926 of this chapter are adopted as occupational safety and health standards under section 6 of the Act and shall apply, according to the provisions thereof, to every employment and place of employment of every employee engaged in construction work. Each employer shall protect the employment and places of employment of each of his employees engaged in construction work by complying with the appropriate standards prescribed in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>Construction work</I> means work for construction, alteration, and/or repair, including painting and decorating. See discussion of these terms in § 1926.13 of this title.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction Safety Act distinguished.</I> This section adopts as occupational safety and health standards under section 6 of the Act the standards which are prescribed in part 1926 of this chapter. Thus, the standards (substantive rules) published in subpart C and the following subparts of part 1926 of this chapter are applied. This section does not incorporate subparts A and B of part 1926 of this chapter. Subparts A and B have pertinence only to the application of section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (the Construction Safety Act). For example, the interpretation of the term “subcontractor” in paragraph (c) of § 1926.13 of this chapter is significant in discerning the coverage of the Construction Safety Act and duties thereunder. However, the term “subcontractor” has no significance in the application of the Act, which was enacted under the Commerce Clause and which establishes duties for “employers” which are not dependent for their application upon any contractual relationship with the Federal Government or upon any form of Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purposes of this part, to the extent that it may not already be included in paragraph (b) of this section, “construction work” includes the erection of new electric transmission and distribution lines and equipment, and the alteration, conversion, and improvement of the existing transmission and distribution lines and equipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.15" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.2.33.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.15   Shipyard employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adoption and extension of established safety and health standards for shipyard employment.</I> The standards prescribed by part 1915 (formerly parts 1501-1503) of this title and in effect on April 28, 1971 (as revised), are adopted as occupational safety or health standards under section 6(a) of the Act and shall apply, according to the provisions thereof, to every employment and place of employment of every employee engaged in ship repair, shipbreaking, and shipbuilding, or a related employment. Each employer shall protect the employment and places of employment of each of his employees engaged in ship repair, shipbreaking, and shipbuilding, or a related employment, by complying with the appropriate standards prescribed by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Ship repair</I> means any repair of a vessel, including, but not restricted to, alterations, conversions, installations, cleaning, painting, and maintenance work;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shipbreaking</I> means any breaking down of a vessel's structure for the purpose of scrapping the vessel, including the removal of gear, equipment, or any component of a vessel;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Shipbuilding</I> means the construction of a vessel, including the installation of machinery and equipment;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Related employment</I> means any employment performed as an incident to, or in conjunction with, ship repair, shipbreaking, and shipbuilding work, including, but not restricted to, inspection, testing, and employment as a watchman; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Vessel</I> includes every description of watercraft or other artificial contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on water, including special purpose floating structures not primarily designed for, or used as a means of, transportation on water.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35308, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.16" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.2.33.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.16   Longshoring and marine terminals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Safety and health standards for longshoring.</I> (1) Part 1918 of this chapter shall apply exclusively, according to the provisions thereof, to all employment of every employee engaged in longshoring operations or related employment aboard any vessel. All cargo transfer accomplished with the use of shore-based material handling devices shall be governed by part 1917 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Part 1910 does not apply to longshoring operations except for the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Access to employee exposure and medical records.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1020;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Commercial diving operations.</I> Subpart T;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Electrical.</I> Subpart S when shore-based electrical installations provide power for use aboard vessels;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Hazard communication.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1200;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Ionizing radiation.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1096;
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Noise.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.95;
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Nonionizing radiation.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.97;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">vii</E>):</HED>
<P>Exposures to nonionizing radiation emissions from commercial vessel transmitters are considered hazardous under the following conditions: (1) where the radar is transmitting, the scanner is stationary, and the exposure distance is 18.7 feet (6 m.) or less; or (2) where the radar is transmitting, the scanner is rotating, and the exposure distance is 5.2 feet (1.8 m.) or less.</P></NOTE>
<P>(viii) <I>Respiratory protection.</I> Subpart I, § 1910.134;
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Toxic and hazardous substances.</I> Subpart Z applies to marine cargo handling activities except for the following:
</P>
<P>(A) When a substance or cargo is contained within a sealed, intact means of packaging or containment complying with Department of Transportation or International Maritime Organization requirements;
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The International Maritime Organization publishes the International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code to aid compliance with the international legal requirements of the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, 1960.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Bloodborne pathogens, § 1910.1030;
</P>
<P>(C) Carbon monoxide, § 1910.1000 (See § 1918.94 (a)); and
</P>
<P>(D) Hydrogen sulfide, § 1910.1000 (See § 1918.94 (f)).
</P>
<P>(x) Powered industrial truck operator training, Subpart N, § 1910.178(l).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safety and health standards for marine terminals.</I> Part 1917 of this chapter shall apply exclusively, according to the provisions thereof, to employment within a marine terminal, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of part 1917 of this chapter do not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Facilities used solely for the bulk storage, handling, and transfer of flammable and combustible liquids and gases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilities subject to the regulations of the Office of Pipeline Safety of the Research and Special Programs Administration, Department of Transportation (49 CFR chapter I, subchapter D), to the extent such regulations apply to specific working conditions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fully automated bulk coal handling facilities contiguous to electrical power generating plants.
</P>
<P>(2) Part 1910 does not apply to marine terminals except for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Abrasive blasting.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.94(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Access to employee exposure and medical records.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1020;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Commercial diving operations.</I> Subpart T;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Electrical.</I> Subpart S;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Grain handling facilities.</I> Subpart R, § 1910.272;
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Hazard communication.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1200;
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Ionizing radiation.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1096;
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Noise.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.95;
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Nonionizing radiation.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.97.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Respiratory protection.</I> Subpart I, § 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Safety requirements for scaffolding.</I> Subpart D, § 1910.28;
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Servicing multi-piece and single piece rim wheels.</I> Subpart N, § 1910.177;
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Toxic and hazardous substances.</I> Subpart Z applies to marine cargo handling activities except for the following:
</P>
<P>(A) When a substance or cargo is contained within a sealed, intact means of packaging or containment complying with Department of Transportation or International Maritime Organization requirements; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The International Maritime Organization publishes the International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code to aid compliance with the international legal requirements of the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, 1960.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Bloodborne pathogens, § 1910.1030;
</P>
<P>(C) Carbon monoxide, § 1910.1000 (See § 1917.24(a)); and
</P>
<P>(D) Hydrogen sulfide, § 1910.1000 (See § 1917.73(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(xiv) Powered industrial truck operator training, subpart N, § 1910.178(l).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Longshoring operation</I> means the loading, unloading, moving, or handling of, cargo, ship's stores, gear, etc., into, in, on, or out of any vessel;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Related employment</I> means any employment performed as an incident to or in conjunction with, longshoring operations including, but not restricted to, securing cargo, rigging, and employment as a porter, checker, or watchman; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vessel</I> includes every description of watercraft or other artificial contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on water, including special purpose floating structures not primarily designed for, or used as a means of, transportation on water.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Marine terminal</I> means wharves, bulkheads, quays, piers, docks and other berthing locations and adjacent storage or adjacent areas and structures associated with the primary movement of cargo or materials from vessel to shore or shore to vessel including structures which are devoted to receiving, handling, holding, consolidation and loading or delivery of waterborne shipments or passengers, including areas devoted to the maintenance of the terminal or equipment. The term does not include production or manufacturing areas having their own docking facilities and located at a marine terminal nor does the term include storage facilities directly associated with those production or manufacturing areas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 48 FR 30908, July 5, 1983; 52 FR 36026, Sept. 25, 1987; 62 FR 40195, July 25, 1997; 63 FR 66270, Dec. 1, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.17" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.2.33.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.17   Effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a)-(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Except whenever any employment or place of employment is, or becomes, subject to any safety and health standard prescribed in part 1915, 1916, 1917, 1918, or 1926 of this title on a date before August 27, 1971, by virtue of the Construction Safety Act or the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, that occupational safety and health standard as incorporated by reference in this subpart shall also become effective under the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 on that date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 61 FR 9235, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.18" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.2.33.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.18   Changes in established Federal standards.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever an occupational safety and health standard adopted and incorporated by reference in this subpart B is changed pursuant to section 6(b) of the Act and the statute under which the standard was originally promulgated, and in accordance with part 1911 of this chapter, the standard shall be deemed changed for purposes of that statute and this subpart B, and shall apply under this subpart B. For the purposes of this section, a change in a standard includes any amendment, addition, or repeal, in whole or in part, of any standard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.19" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.2.33.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.19   Special provisions for air contaminants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite dust.</I> Section 1910.1001 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite dust in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.16, in lieu of any different standard on exposure to asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite dust which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of any of those sections.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vinyl chloride.</I> Section 1910.1017 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to vinyl chloride in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.12, § 1910.13, § 1910.14, § 1910.15, or § 1910.16, in lieu of any different standard on exposure to vinyl chloride which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of any of those sections.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acrylonitrile.</I> Section 1910.1045 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to acrylonitrile in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.12, § 1910.13, § 1910.14, § 1910.15, or § 1910.16, in lieu of any different standard on exposure to acrylonitrile which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of any of those sections.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inorganic arsenic.</I> Section 1910.1018 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to inorganic arsenic in every employment covered by § 1910.12, § 1910.13, § 1910.14, § 1910.15, or § 1910.16, in lieu of any different standard on exposure to inorganic arsenic which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of any of those sections.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lead.</I> Section 1910.1025 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to lead in every employment and place of employment covered by §§ 1910.13, 1910.14, 1910.15, and 1910.16, in lieu of any different standard on exposure to lead which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of those sections.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Ethylene oxide.</I> Section 1910.1047 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to ethylene oxide in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.12, § 1910.13, § 1910.14, § 1910.15, or § 1910.16, in lieu of any different standard on exposure to ethylene oxide which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of those sections.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>4,4′-Methylenedianiline (MDA).</I> Section 1910.1050 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to MDA in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.13, § 1910.14, § 1910.15, or § 1910.16, in lieu of any different standard on exposure to MDA which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of those sections.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Formaldehyde.</I> Section 1910.1048 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to formaldehyde in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.12, § 1910.13, § 1910.14, § 1910.15 or § 1910.16 in lieu of any different standard on exposure to formaldehyde which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of those sections.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cadmium.</I> Section 1910.1027 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to cadmium in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.16 in lieu of any different standard on exposures to cadmium that would otherwise be applicable by virtue of those sections.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>1,3-Butadiene (BD).</I> Section 1910.1051 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to BD in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.12, § 1910.13, § 1910.14, § 1910.15, or § 1910.16, in lieu of any different standard on exposure to BD which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of those sections.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Methylene chloride (MC).</I> Section 1910.1052 shall apply to the exposure of every employee to MC in every employment and place of employment covered by § 1910.16 in lieu of any different standard on exposure to MC which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of that section when it is not present in sealed, intact containers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 28473, June 30, 1978, as amended at 43 FR 45809, Oct. 3, 1978; 43 FR 53007, Nov. 14, 1978; 44 FR 5447, Jan. 26, 1979; 46 FR 32022, June 19, 1981; 49 FR 25796, June 22, 1984; 50 FR 51173, Dec. 13, 1985; 52 FR 46291, Dec. 4, 1987; 57 FR 35666, Aug. 10, 1992; 57 FR 42388, Sept. 14, 1992; 59 FR 41057, Aug. 10, 1994; 61 FR 56831, Nov. 4, 1996; 62 FR 1600, Jan. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Walking-Working Surfaces</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), and 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 82981, Nov. 18, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.21" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.21   Scope and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to all general industry workplaces. It covers all walking-working surfaces unless specifically excluded by an individual section of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Alternating tread-type stair</I> means a type of stairway consisting of a series of treads that usually are attached to a center support in an alternating manner such that an employee typically does not have both feet on the same level while using the stairway.
</P>
<P><I>Anchorage</I> means a secure point of attachment for equipment such as lifelines, lanyards, deceleration devices, and rope descent systems.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized</I> means an employee who the employer assigns to perform a specific type of duty, or allows in a specific location or area.
</P>
<P><I>Cage</I> means an enclosure mounted on the side rails of a fixed ladder or fastened to a structure behind the fixed ladder that is designed to surround the climbing space of the ladder. A cage also is called a “cage guard” or “basket guard.”
</P>
<P><I>Carrier</I> means the track of a ladder safety system that consists of a flexible cable or rigid rail attached to the fixed ladder or immediately adjacent to it.
</P>
<P><I>Combination</I> <I>ladder</I> means a portable ladder that can be used as a stepladder, extension ladder, trestle ladder, or stairway ladder. The components of a combination ladder also may be used separately as a single ladder.
</P>
<P><I>Dangerous equipment</I> means equipment, such as vats, tanks, electrical equipment, machinery, equipment or machinery with protruding parts, or other similar units, that, because of their function or form, may harm an employee who falls into or onto the equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Designated area</I> means a distinct portion of a walking-working surface delineated by a warning line in which employees may perform work without additional fall protection.
</P>
<P><I>Dockboard</I> means a portable or fixed device that spans a gap or compensates for a difference in elevation between a loading platform and a transport vehicle. Dockboards include, but are not limited to, bridge plates, dock plates, and dock levelers.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent</I> means alternative designs, equipment, materials, or methods, that the employer can demonstrate will provide an equal or greater degree of safety for employees compared to the designs, equipment, materials, or methods specified in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Extension ladder</I> means a non-self-supporting portable ladder that is adjustable in length.
</P>
<P><I>Failure</I> means a load refusal, breakage, or separation of component parts. A load refusal is the point at which the ultimate strength of a component or object is exceeded.
</P>
<P><I>Fall hazard</I> means any condition on a walking-working surface that exposes an employee to a risk of harm from a fall on the same level or to a lower level.
</P>
<P><I>Fall protection</I> means any equipment, device, or system that prevents an employee from falling from an elevation or mitigates the effect of such a fall.
</P>
<P><I>Fixed ladder</I> means a ladder with rails or individual rungs that is permanently attached to a structure, building, or equipment. Fixed ladders include individual-rung ladders, but not ship stairs, step bolts, or manhole steps.
</P>
<P><I>Grab bar</I> means an individual horizontal or vertical handhold installed to provide access above the height of the ladder.
</P>
<P><I>Guardrail system</I> means a barrier erected along an unprotected or exposed side, edge, or other area of a walking-working surface to prevent employees from falling to a lower level.
</P>
<P><I>Handrail</I> means a rail used to provide employees with a handhold for support.
</P>
<P><I>Hoist area</I> means any elevated access opening to a walking-working surface through which equipment or materials are loaded or received.
</P>
<P><I>Hole</I> means a gap or open space in a floor, roof, horizontal walking-working surface, or similar surface that is at least 2 inches (5 cm) in its least dimension.
</P>
<P><I>Individual-rung ladder</I> means a ladder that has rungs individually attached to a building or structure. An individual-rung ladder does not include manhole steps.
</P>
<P><I>Ladder</I> means a device with rungs, steps, or cleats used to gain access to a different elevation.
</P>
<P><I>Ladder safety system</I> means a system designed to eliminate or reduce the possibility of falling from a ladder. A ladder safety system usually consists of a carrier, safety sleeve, lanyard, connectors, and body harness. Cages and wells are not ladder safety systems.
</P>
<P><I>Low-slope roof</I> means a roof that has a slope less than or equal to a ratio of 4 in 12 (vertical to horizontal).
</P>
<P><I>Lower level</I> means a surface or area to which an employee could fall. Such surfaces or areas include, but are not limited to, ground levels, floors, roofs, ramps, runways, excavations, pits, tanks, materials, water, equipment, and similar surfaces and structures, or portions thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Manhole steps</I> means steps that are individually attached to, or set into, the wall of a manhole structure.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum intended load</I> means the total load (weight and force) of all employees, equipment, vehicles, tools, materials, and other loads the employer reasonably anticipates to be applied to a walking-working surface at any one time.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile</I> means manually propelled or moveable.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile ladder stand</I> (ladder stand) means a mobile, fixed-height, self-supporting ladder that usually consists of wheels or casters on a rigid base and steps leading to a top step. A mobile ladder stand also may have handrails and is designed for use by one employee at a time.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile ladder stand platform</I> means a mobile, fixed-height, self-supporting unit having one or more standing platforms that are provided with means of access or egress.
</P>
<P><I>Open riser</I> means the gap or space between treads of stairways that do not have upright or inclined members (risers).
</P>
<P><I>Opening</I> means a gap or open space in a wall, partition, vertical walking-working surface, or similar surface that is at least 30 inches (76 cm) high and at least 18 inches (46 cm) wide, through which an employee can fall to a lower level.
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system</I> means a system used to arrest an employee in a fall from a walking-working surface. It consists of a body harness, anchorage, and connector. The means of connection may include a lanyard, deceleration device, lifeline, or a suitable combination of these.
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall protection system</I> means a system (including all components) an employer uses to provide protection from falling or to safely arrest an employee's fall if one occurs. Examples of personal fall protection systems include personal fall arrest systems, positioning systems, and travel restraint systems.
</P>
<P><I>Platform</I> means a walking-working surface that is elevated above the surrounding area.
</P>
<P><I>Portable ladder</I> means a ladder that can readily be moved or carried, and usually consists of side rails joined at intervals by steps, rungs, or cleats.
</P>
<P><I>Positioning system</I> (work-positioning system) means a system of equipment and connectors that, when used with a body harness or body belt, allows an employee to be supported on an elevated vertical surface, such as a wall or window sill, and work with both hands free. Positioning systems also are called “positioning system devices” and “work-positioning equipment.”
</P>
<P><I>Qualified</I> describes a person who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience has successfully demonstrated the ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.
</P>
<P><I>Ramp</I> means an inclined walking-working surface used to access another level.
</P>
<P><I>Riser</I> means the upright (vertical) or inclined member of a stair that is located at the back of a stair tread or platform and connects close to the front edge of the next higher tread, platform, or landing.
</P>
<P><I>Rope descent system</I> means a suspension system that allows an employee to descend in a controlled manner and, as needed, stop at any point during the descent. A rope descent system usually consists of a roof anchorage, support rope, a descent device, carabiner(s) or shackle(s), and a chair (seatboard). A rope descent system also is called controlled descent equipment or apparatus. Rope descent systems do not include industrial rope access systems.
</P>
<P><I>Rung, step, or cleat</I> means the cross-piece of a ladder on which an employee steps to climb up and down.
</P>
<P><I>Runway</I> means an elevated walking-working surface, such as a catwalk, a foot walk along shafting, or an elevated walkway between buildings.
</P>
<P><I>Scaffold</I> means any temporary elevated or suspended platform and its supporting structure, including anchorage points, used to support employees, equipment, materials, and other items. For purposes of this subpart, a scaffold does not include a crane-suspended or derrick-suspended personnel platform or a rope descent system.
</P>
<P><I>Ship stair</I> (ship ladder) means a stairway that is equipped with treads, stair rails, and open risers, and has a slope that is between 50 and 70 degrees from the horizontal.
</P>
<P><I>Side-step ladder</I> means a type of fixed ladder that requires an employee to step sideways from it in order to reach a walking-working surface, such as a landing.
</P>
<P><I>Spiral stairs</I> means a series of treads attached to a vertical pole in a winding fashion, usually within a cylindrical space.
</P>
<P><I>Stair rail or stair rail system</I> means a barrier erected along the exposed or open side of stairways to prevent employees from falling to a lower level.
</P>
<P><I>Stairway (stairs)</I> means risers and treads that connect one level with another, and includes any landings and platforms in between those levels. Stairways include standard, spiral, alternating tread-type, and ship stairs.
</P>
<P><I>Standard stairs</I> means a fixed or permanently installed stairway. Ship, spiral, and alternating tread-type stairs are not considered standard stairs.
</P>
<P><I>Step bolt</I> (pole step) means a bolt or rung attached at intervals along a structural member used for foot placement and as a handhold when climbing or standing.
</P>
<P><I>Stepladder</I> means a self-supporting, portable ladder that has a fixed height, flat steps, and a hinged back.
</P>
<P><I>Stepstool</I> means a self-supporting, portable ladder that has flat steps and side rails. For purposes of the final rule, stepstool includes only those ladders that have a fixed height, do not have a pail shelf, and do not exceed 32 inches (81 cm) in overall height to the top cap, although side rails may extend above the top cap. A stepstool is designed so an employee can climb and stand on all of the steps and the top cap.
</P>
<P><I>Through ladder</I> means a type of fixed ladder that allows the employee to step through the side rails at the top of the ladder to reach a walking-working surface, such as a landing.
</P>
<P><I>Tieback</I> means an attachment between an anchorage (<I>e.g.,</I> structural member) and a supporting device (<I>e.g.,</I> parapet clamp or cornice hook).
</P>
<P><I>Toeboard</I> means a low protective barrier that is designed to prevent materials, tools, and equipment from falling to a lower level, and protect employees from falling.
</P>
<P><I>Travel restraint system</I> means a combination of an anchorage, anchorage connector, lanyard (or other means of connection), and body support that an employer uses to eliminate the possibility of an employee going over the edge of a walking-working surface.
</P>
<P><I>Tread</I> means a horizontal member of a stair or stairway, but does not include landings or platforms.
</P>
<P><I>Unprotected sides and edges</I> mean any side or edge of a walking-working surface (except at entrances and other points of access) where there is no wall, guardrail system, or stair rail system to protect an employee from falling to a lower level.
</P>
<P><I>Walking-working surface</I> means any horizontal or vertical surface on or through which an employee walks, works, or gains access to a work area or workplace location.
</P>
<P><I>Warning line</I> means a barrier erected to warn employees that they are approaching an unprotected side or edge, and which designates an area in which work may take place without the use of other means of fall protection.
</P>
<P><I>Well</I> means a permanent, complete enclosure around a fixed ladder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.22" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.22   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Surface conditions.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) All places of employment, passageways, storerooms, service rooms, and walking-working surfaces are kept in a clean, orderly, and sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(2) The floor of each workroom is maintained in a clean and, to the extent feasible, in a dry condition. When wet processes are used, drainage must be maintained and, to the extent feasible, dry standing places, such as false floors, platforms, and mats must be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) Walking-working surfaces are maintained free of hazards such as sharp or protruding objects, loose boards, corrosion, leaks, spills, snow, and ice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loads.</I> The employer must ensure that each walking-working surface can support the maximum intended load for that surface.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access and egress.</I> The employer must provide, and ensure each employee uses, a safe means of access and egress to and from walking-working surfaces.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inspection, maintenance, and repair.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Walking-working surfaces are inspected, regularly and as necessary, and maintained in a safe condition;
</P>
<P>(2) Hazardous conditions on walking-working surfaces are corrected or repaired before an employee uses the walking-working surface again. If the correction or repair cannot be made immediately, the hazard must be guarded to prevent employees from using the walking-working surface until the hazard is corrected or repaired; and
</P>
<P>(3) When any correction or repair involves the structural integrity of the walking-working surface, a qualified person performs or supervises the correction or repair.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.23" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.23   Ladders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> The employer must ensure that each ladder used meets the requirements of this section. This section covers all ladders, except when the ladder is:
</P>
<P>(1) Used in emergency operations such as firefighting, rescue, and tactical law enforcement operations, or training for these operations; or
</P>
<P>(2) Designed into or is an integral part of machines or equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements for all ladders.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Ladder rungs, steps, and cleats are parallel, level, and uniformly spaced when the ladder is in position for use;
</P>
<P>(2) Ladder rungs, steps, and cleats are spaced not less than 10 inches (25 cm) and not more than 14 inches (36 cm) apart, as measured between the centerlines of the rungs, cleats, and steps, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Ladder rungs and steps in elevator shafts must be spaced not less than 6 inches (15 cm) apart and not more than 16.5 inches (42 cm) apart, as measured along the ladder side rails; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Fixed ladder rungs and steps on telecommunication towers must be spaced not more than 18 inches (46 cm) apart, measured between the centerlines of the rungs or steps;
</P>
<P>(3) Steps on stepstools are spaced not less than 8 inches (20 cm) apart and not more than 12 inches (30 cm) apart, as measured between the centerlines of the steps;
</P>
<P>(4) Ladder rungs, steps, and cleats have a minimum clear width of 11.5 inches (29 cm) on portable ladders and 16 inches (41 cm) (measured before installation of ladder safety systems) for fixed ladders, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) The minimum clear width does not apply to ladders with narrow rungs that are not designed to be stepped on, such as those located on the tapered end of orchard ladders and similar ladders;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rungs and steps of manhole entry ladders that are supported by the manhole opening must have a minimum clear width of 9 inches (23 cm);
</P>
<P>(iii) Rungs and steps on rolling ladders used in telecommunication centers must have a minimum clear width of 8 inches (20 cm); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Stepstools have a minimum clear width of 10.5 inches (26.7 cm);
</P>
<P>(5) Wooden ladders are not coated with any material that may obscure structural defects;
</P>
<P>(6) Metal ladders are made with corrosion-resistant material or protected against corrosion;
</P>
<P>(7) Ladder surfaces are free of puncture and laceration hazards;
</P>
<P>(8) Ladders are used only for the purposes for which they were designed;
</P>
<P>(9) Ladders are inspected before initial use in each work shift, and more frequently as necessary, to identify any visible defects that could cause employee injury;
</P>
<P>(10) Any ladder with structural or other defects is immediately tagged “Dangerous: Do Not Use” or with similar language in accordance with § 1910.145 and removed from service until repaired in accordance with § 1910.22(d), or replaced;
</P>
<P>(11) Each employee faces the ladder when climbing up or down it;
</P>
<P>(12) Each employee uses at least one hand to grasp the ladder when climbing up and down it; and
</P>
<P>(13) No employee carries any object or load that could cause the employee to lose balance and fall while climbing up or down the ladder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Portable ladders.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Rungs and steps of portable metal ladders are corrugated, knurled, dimpled, coated with skid-resistant material, or otherwise treated to minimize the possibility of slipping;
</P>
<P>(2) Each stepladder or combination ladder used in a stepladder mode is equipped with a metal spreader or locking device that securely holds the front and back sections in an open position while the ladder is in use;
</P>
<P>(3) Ladders are not loaded beyond the maximum intended load;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>The maximum intended load, as defined in § 1910.21(b), includes the total load (weight and force) of the employee and all tools, equipment, and materials being carried.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) Ladders are used only on stable and level surfaces unless they are secured or stabilized to prevent accidental displacement;
</P>
<P>(5) No portable single rail ladders are used;
</P>
<P>(6) No ladder is moved, shifted, or extended while an employee is on it;
</P>
<P>(7) Ladders placed in locations such as passageways, doorways, or driveways where they can be displaced by other activities or traffic:
</P>
<P>(i) Are secured to prevent accidental displacement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are guarded by a temporary barricade, such as a row of traffic cones or caution tape, to keep the activities or traffic away from the ladder;
</P>
<P>(8) The cap (if equipped) and top step of a stepladder are not used as steps;
</P>
<P>(9) Portable ladders used on slippery surfaces are secured and stabilized;
</P>
<P>(10) The top of a non-self-supporting ladder is placed so that both side rails are supported, unless the ladder is equipped with a single support attachment;
</P>
<P>(11) Portable ladders used to gain access to an upper landing surface have side rails that extend at least 3 feet (0.9 m) above the upper landing surface (see Figure D-1 of this section);
</P>
<P>(12) Ladders and ladder sections are not tied or fastened together to provide added length unless they are specifically designed for such use;
</P>
<P>(13) Ladders are not placed on boxes, barrels, or other unstable bases to obtain additional height.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.346.gif"/>
<P>(d) <I>Fixed ladders.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Fixed ladders are capable of supporting their maximum intended load;
</P>
<P>(2) The minimum perpendicular distance from the centerline of the steps or rungs, or grab bars, or both, to the nearest permanent object in back of the ladder is 7 inches (18 cm), except for elevator pit ladders, which have a minimum perpendicular distance of 4.5 inches (11 cm);
</P>
<P>(3) Grab bars do not protrude on the climbing side beyond the rungs of the ladder that they serve;
</P>
<P>(4) The side rails of through or side-step ladders extend at least 42 inches (1.1 m) above the top of the access level or landing platform served by the ladder. For parapet ladders, the access level is:
</P>
<P>(i) The roof, if the parapet is cut to permit passage through the parapet; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The top of the parapet, if the parapet is continuous;
</P>
<P>(5) For through ladders, the steps or rungs are omitted from the extensions, and the side rails are flared to provide not less than 24 inches (61cm) and not more than 30 inches (76 cm) of clearance. When a ladder safety system is provided, the maximum clearance between side rails of the extension must not exceed 36 inches (91 cm);
</P>
<P>(6) For side-step ladders, the side rails, rungs, and steps must be continuous in the extension (see Figure D-2 of this section);
</P>
<P>(7) Grab bars extend 42 inches (1.1 m) above the access level or landing platforms served by the ladder;
</P>
<P>(8) The minimum size (cross-section) of grab bars is the same size as the rungs of the ladder.
</P>
<P>(9) When a fixed ladder terminates at a hatch (see Figure D-3 of this section), the hatch cover:
</P>
<P>(i) Opens with sufficient clearance to provide easy access to or from the ladder; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Opens at least 70 degrees from horizontal if the hatch is counterbalanced;
</P>
<P>(10) Individual-rung ladders are constructed to prevent the employee's feet from sliding off the ends of the rungs (see Figure D-4 of this section);
</P>
<P>(11) Fixed ladders having a pitch greater than 90 degrees from the horizontal are not used;
</P>
<P>(12) The step-across distance from the centerline of the rungs or steps is:
</P>
<P>(i) For through ladders, not less than 7 inches (18 cm) and not more than 12 inches (30 cm) to the nearest edge of the structure, building, or equipment accessed from the ladders;
</P>
<P>(ii) For side-step ladders, not less than 15 inches (38 cm) and not more than 20 inches (51 cm) to the access points of the platform edge;
</P>
<P>(13) Fixed ladders that do not have cages or wells have:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear width of at least 15 inches (38 cm) on each side of the ladder centerline to the nearest permanent object; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A minimum perpendicular distance of 30 inches (76 cm) from the centerline of the steps or rungs to the nearest object on the climbing side. When unavoidable obstructions are encountered, the minimum clearance at the obstruction may be reduced to 24 inches (61 cm), provided deflector plates are installed (see Figure D-5 of this section).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED>
<P>Section 1910.28 establishes the employer's duty to provide fall protection for employees on fixed ladders, and § 1910.29 specifies the criteria for fall protection systems for fixed ladders.</P></NOTE>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.347.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.348.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>Mobile ladder stands and mobile ladder stand platforms</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Mobile ladder stands and platforms have a step width of at least 16 inches (41 cm);
</P>
<P>(ii) The steps and platforms of mobile ladder stands and platforms are slip resistant. Slip-resistant surfaces must be either an integral part of the design and construction of the mobile ladder stand and platform, or provided as a secondary process or operation, such as dimpling, knurling, shotblasting, coating, spraying, or applying durable slip-resistant tapes;
</P>
<P>(iii) Mobile ladder stands and platforms are capable of supporting at least four times their maximum intended load;
</P>
<P>(iv) Wheels or casters under load are capable of supporting their proportional share of four times the maximum intended load, plus their proportional share of the unit's weight;
</P>
<P>(v) Unless otherwise specified in this section, mobile ladder stands and platforms with a top step height of 4 feet (1.2 m) or above have handrails with a vertical height of 29.5 inches (75 cm) to 37 inches (94 cm), measured from the front edge of a step. Removable gates or non-rigid members, such as chains, may be used instead of handrails in special-use applications;
</P>
<P>(vi) The maximum work-surface height of mobile ladder stands and platforms does not exceed four times the shortest base dimension, without additional support. For greater heights, outriggers, counterweights, or comparable means that stabilize the mobile ladder stands and platforms and prevent overturning must be used;
</P>
<P>(vii) Mobile ladder stands and platforms that have wheels or casters are equipped with a system to impede horizontal movement when an employee is on the stand or platform; and
</P>
<P>(viii) No mobile ladder stand or platform moves when an employee is on it.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design requirements for mobile ladder stands.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Steps are uniformly spaced and arranged, with a rise of not more than 10 inches (25 cm) and a depth of not less than 7 inches (18 cm). The slope of the step stringer to which the steps are attached must not be more than 60 degrees, measured from the horizontal;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mobile ladder stands with a top step height above 10 feet (3 m) have the top step protected on three sides by a handrail with a vertical height of at least 36 inches (91 cm); and top steps that are 20 inches (51 cm) or more, front to back, have a midrail and toeboard. Removable gates or non-rigid members, such as chains, may be used instead of handrails in special-use applications; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The standing area of mobile ladder stands is within the base frame.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design requirements for mobile ladder stand platforms.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Steps of mobile ladder stand platforms meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section. When the employer demonstrates that the requirement is not feasible, steeper slopes or vertical rung ladders may be used, provided the units are stabilized to prevent overturning;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mobile ladder stand platforms with a platform height of 4 to 10 feet (1.2 m to 3 m) have, in the platform area, handrails with a vertical height of at least 36 inches (91 cm) and midrails; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All ladder stand platforms with a platform height above 10 feet (3 m) have guardrails and toeboards on the exposed sides and ends of the platform.
</P>
<P>(iv) Removable gates or non-rigid members, such as chains, may be used on mobile ladder stand platforms instead of handrails and guardrails in special-use applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 82981, Nov. 18, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 68795, Dec. 17, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.24" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.24   Step bolts and manhole steps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Step bolts.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Each step bolt installed on or after January 17, 2017 in an environment where corrosion may occur is constructed of, or coated with, material that protects against corrosion;
</P>
<P>(2) Each step bolt is designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent the employee's foot from slipping off the end of the step bolt;
</P>
<P>(3) Step bolts are uniformly spaced at a vertical distance of not less than 12 inches (30 cm) and not more than 18 inches (46 cm) apart, measured center to center (see Figure D-6 of this section). The spacing from the entry and exit surface to the first step bolt may differ from the spacing between the other step bolts;
</P>
<P>(4) Each step bolt has a minimum clear width of 4.5 inches (11 cm);
</P>
<P>(5) The minimum perpendicular distance between the centerline of each step bolt to the nearest permanent object in back of the step bolt is 7 inches (18 cm). When the employer demonstrates that an obstruction cannot be avoided, the distance must be at least 4.5 inches (11 cm);
</P>
<P>(6) Each step bolt installed before January 17, 2017 is capable of supporting its maximum intended load;
</P>
<P>(7) Each step bolt installed on or after January 17, 2017 is capable of supporting at least four times its maximum intended load;
</P>
<P>(8) Each step bolt is inspected at the start of the workshift and maintained in accordance with § 1910.22; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any step bolt that is bent more than 15 degrees from the perpendicular in any direction is removed and replaced with a step bolt that meets the requirements of this section before an employee uses it.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.349.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Manhole steps.</I> (1) The employer must ensure that each manhole step is capable of supporting its maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure that each manhole step installed on or after January 17, 2017:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a corrugated, knurled, dimpled, or other surface that minimizes the possibility of an employee slipping;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is constructed of, or coated with, material that protects against corrosion if the manhole step is located in an environment where corrosion may occur;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a minimum clear step width of 10 inches (25 cm);
</P>
<P>(iv) Is uniformly spaced at a vertical distance not more than 16 inches (41 cm) apart, measured center to center between steps. The spacing from the entry and exit surface to the first manhole step may differ from the spacing between the other steps.
</P>
<P>(v) Has a minimum perpendicular distance between the centerline of the manhole step to the nearest permanent object in back of the step of at least 4.5 inches (11 cm); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Is designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent the employee's foot from slipping or sliding off the end.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must ensure that each manhole step is inspected at the start of the work shift and maintained in accordance with § 1910.22.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.25" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.25   Stairways.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section covers all stairways (including standard, spiral, ship, and alternating tread-type stairs), except for articulated stairs (stairs that change pitch due to change in height at the point of attachment) such as those serving floating roof tanks, stairs on scaffolds, stairs designed into machines or equipment, and stairs on self-propelled motorized equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Handrails, stair rail systems, and guardrail systems are provided in accordance with § 1910.28;
</P>
<P>(2) Vertical clearance above any stair tread to any overhead obstruction is at least 6 feet, 8 inches (203 cm), as measured from the leading edge of the tread. Spiral stairs must meet the vertical clearance requirements in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Stairs have uniform riser heights and tread depths between landings;
</P>
<P>(4) Stairway landings and platforms are at least the width of the stair and at least 30 inches (76 cm) in depth, as measured in the direction of travel;
</P>
<P>(5) When a door or a gate opens directly on a stairway, a platform is provided, and the swing of the door or gate does not reduce the platform's effective usable depth to:
</P>
<P>(i) Less than 20 inches (51 cm) for platforms installed before January 17, 2017; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Less than 22 inches (56 cm) for platforms installed on or after January 17, 2017 (see Figure D-7 of this section);
</P>
<P>(6) Each stair can support at least five times the normal anticipated live load, but never less than a concentrated load of 1,000 pounds (454 kg) applied at any point;
</P>
<P>(7) Standard stairs are used to provide access from one walking-working surface to another when operations necessitate regular and routine travel between levels, including access to operating platforms for equipment. Winding stairways may be used on tanks and similar round structures when the diameter of the tank or structure is at least 5 feet (1.5 m).
</P>
<P>(8) Spiral, ship, or alternating tread-type stairs are used only when the employer can demonstrate that it is not feasible to provide standard stairs.
</P>
<P>(9) When paragraph (b)(8) of this section allows the use of spiral, ship, or alternating tread-type stairs, they are installed, used, and maintained in accordance with manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.350.gif"/>
<P>(c) <I>Standard stairs.</I> In addition to paragraph (b) of this section, the employer must ensure standard stairs:
</P>
<P>(1) Are installed at angles between 30 to 50 degrees from the horizontal;
</P>
<P>(2) Have a maximum riser height of 9.5 inches (24 cm);
</P>
<P>(3) Have a minimum tread depth of 9.5 inches (24 cm); and
</P>
<P>(4) Have a minimum width of 22 inches (56 cm) between vertical barriers (see Figure D-8 of this section).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exception to paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) do not apply to standard stairs installed prior to January 17, 2017. OSHA will deem those stairs in compliance if they meet the dimension requirements specified in Table D-1 of this section or they use a combination that achieves the angle requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.351.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17de19.018.gif"/>
<P>(d) <I>Spiral stairs.</I> In addition to paragraph (b) of this section, the employer must ensure spiral stairs:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a minimum clear width of 26 inches (66 cm);
</P>
<P>(2) Have a maximum riser height of 9.5 inches (24 cm);
</P>
<P>(3) Have a minimum headroom above spiral stair treads of at least 6 feet, 6 inches (2 m), measured from the leading edge of the tread;
</P>
<P>(4) Have a minimum tread depth of 7.5 inches (19 cm), measured at a point 12 inches (30 cm) from the narrower edge;
</P>
<P>(5) Have a uniform tread size;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Ship stairs.</I> In addition to paragraph (b) of this section, the employer must ensure ship stairs (see Figure D-9 of this section):
</P>
<P>(1) Are installed at a slope of 50 to 70 degrees from the horizontal;
</P>
<P>(2) Have open risers with a vertical rise between tread surfaces of 6.5 to 12 inches (17 to 30 cm);
</P>
<P>(3) Have minimum tread depth of 4 inches (10 cm); and
</P>
<P>(4) Have a minimum tread width of 18 inches (46 cm).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.353.gif"/>
<P>(f) <I>Alternating tread-type stairs.</I> In addition to paragraph (b) of this section, the employer must ensure alternating tread-type stairs:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a series of treads installed at a slope of 50 to 70 degrees from the horizontal;
</P>
<P>(2) Have a distance between handrails of 17 to 24 inches (51 to 61 cm);
</P>
<P>(3) Have a minimum tread depth of 8.5 inches (22 cm); and
</P>
<P>(4) Have open risers if the tread depth is less than 9.5 inches (24 cm);
</P>
<P>(5) Have a minimum tread width of 7 inches (18 cm), measured at the leading edge of the tread (<I>i.e.,</I> nosing).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.354.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 82981, Nov. 18, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 68795, Dec. 17, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.26" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.26   Dockboards.</HEAD>
<P>The employer must ensure that each dockboard used meets the requirements of this section. The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(a) Dockboards are capable of supporting the maximum intended load in accordance with § 1910.22(b);
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Dockboards put into initial service on or after January 17, 2017 are designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent transfer vehicles from running off the dockboard edge;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception to paragraph (b)(1) of this section.</I> When the employer demonstrates there is no hazard of transfer vehicles running off the dockboard edge, the employer may use dockboards that do not have run-off protection.
</P>
<P>(c) Portable dockboards are secured by anchoring them in place or using equipment or devices that prevent the dockboard from moving out of a safe position. When the employer demonstrates that securing the dockboard is not feasible, the employer must ensure there is sufficient contact between the dockboard and the surface to prevent the dockboard from moving out of a safe position;
</P>
<P>(d) Measures, such as wheel chocks or sand shoes, are used to prevent the transport vehicle (<I>e.g.</I> a truck, semi-trailer, trailer, or rail car) on which a dockboard is placed, from moving while employees are on the dockboard; and
</P>
<P>(e) Portable dockboards are equipped with handholds or other means to permit safe handling of dockboards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.27" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.27   Scaffolds and rope descent systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scaffolds.</I> Scaffolds used in general industry must meet the requirements in 29 CFR part 1926, subpart L (Scaffolds).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rope descent systems</I>—(1) <I>Anchorages.</I> (i) Before any rope descent system is used, the building owner must inform the employer, in writing that the building owner has identified, tested, certified, and maintained each anchorage so it is capable of supporting at least 5,000 pounds (2,268 kg), in any direction, for each employee attached. The information must be based on an annual inspection by a qualified person and certification of each anchorage by a qualified person, as necessary, and at least every 10 years.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that no employee uses any anchorage before the employer has obtained written information from the building owner that each anchorage meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. The employer must keep the information for the duration of the job.
</P>
<P>(iii) The requirements in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section must be implemented no later than November 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of rope descent systems.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) No rope descent system is used for heights greater than 300 feet (91 m) above grade unless the employer demonstrates that it is not feasible to access such heights by any other means or that those means pose a greater hazard than using a rope descent system;
</P>
<P>(ii) The rope descent system is used in accordance with instructions, warnings, and design limitations set by the manufacturer or under the direction of a qualified person;
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee who uses the rope descent system is trained in accordance with § 1910.30;
</P>
<P>(iv) The rope descent system is inspected at the start of each workshift that it is to be used. The employer must ensure damaged or defective equipment is removed from service immediately and replaced;
</P>
<P>(v) The rope descent system has proper rigging, including anchorages and tiebacks, with particular emphasis on providing tiebacks when counterweights, cornice hooks, or similar non-permanent anchorages are used;
</P>
<P>(vi) Each employee uses a separate, independent personal fall arrest system that meets the requirements of subpart I of this part;
</P>
<P>(vii) All components of each rope descent system, except seat boards, are capable of sustaining a minimum rated load of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN). Seat boards must be capable of supporting a live load of 300 pounds (136 kg);
</P>
<P>(viii) Prompt rescue of each employee is provided in the event of a fall;
</P>
<P>(ix) The ropes of each rope descent system are effectively padded or otherwise protected, where they can contact edges of the building, anchorage, obstructions, or other surfaces, to prevent them from being cut or weakened;
</P>
<P>(x) Stabilization is provided at the specific work location when descents are greater than 130 feet (39.6 m);
</P>
<P>(xi) No employee uses a rope descent system when hazardous weather conditions, such as storms or gusty or excessive wind, are present;
</P>
<P>(xii) Equipment, such as tools, squeegees, or buckets, is secured by a tool lanyard or similar method to prevent it from falling; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) The ropes of each rope descent system are protected from exposure to open flames, hot work, corrosive chemicals, and other destructive conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 82981, Nov. 18, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 68796, Dec. 17, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.28" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.28   Duty to have fall protection and falling object protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) This section requires employers to provide protection for each employee exposed to fall and falling object hazards. Unless stated otherwise, the employer must ensure that all fall protection and falling object protection required by this section meet the criteria in § 1910.29, except that personal fall protection systems required by this section meet the criteria of § 1910.140.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply:
</P>
<P>(i) To portable ladders;
</P>
<P>(ii) When employers are inspecting, investigating, or assessing workplace conditions or work to be performed prior to the start of work or after all work has been completed. This exemption does not apply when fall protection systems or equipment meeting the requirements of § 1910.29 have been installed and are available for workers to use for pre-work and post-work inspections, investigations, or assessments;
</P>
<P>(iii) To fall hazards presented by the exposed perimeters of entertainment stages and the exposed perimeters of rail-station platforms;
</P>
<P>(iv) To powered platforms covered by § 1910.66(j);
</P>
<P>(v) To aerial lifts covered by § 1910.67(c)(2)(v);
</P>
<P>(vi) To telecommunications work covered by § 1910.268(n)(7) and (8); and
</P>
<P>(vii) To electric power generation, transmission, and distribution work covered by § 1910.269(g)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protection from fall hazards</I>—(1) <I>Unprotected sides and edges.</I> (i) Except as provided elsewhere in this section, the employer must ensure that each employee on a walking-working surface with an unprotected side or edge that is 4 feet (1.2 m) or more above a lower level is protected from falling by one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Guardrail systems;
</P>
<P>(B) Safety net systems; or
</P>
<P>(C) Personal fall protection systems, such as personal fall arrest, travel restraint, or positioning systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the employer can demonstrate that it is not feasible or creates a greater hazard to use guardrail, safety net, or personal fall protection systems on residential roofs, the employer must develop and implement a fall protection plan that meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.502(k) and training that meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.503(a) and (c).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>There is a presumption that it is feasible and will not create a greater hazard to use at least one of the above-listed fall protection systems specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. Accordingly, the employer has the burden of establishing that it is not feasible or creates a greater hazard to provide the fall protection systems specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) and that it is necessary to implement a fall protection plan that complies with § 1926.502(k) in the particular work operation, in lieu of implementing any of those systems.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) When the employer can demonstrate that the use of fall protection systems is not feasible on the working side of a platform used at a loading rack, loading dock, or teeming platform, the work may be done without a fall protection system, provided:
</P>
<P>(A) The work operation for which fall protection is infeasible is in process;
</P>
<P>(B) Access to the platform is limited to authorized employees; and,
</P>
<P>(C) The authorized employees are trained in accordance with § 1910.30.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hoist areas.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee in a hoist area is protected from falling 4 feet (1.2 m) or more to a lower level by:
</P>
<P>(A) A guardrail system;
</P>
<P>(B) A personal fall arrest system; or
</P>
<P>(C) A travel restraint system.
</P>
<P>(ii) When any portion of a guardrail system, gate, or chains is removed, and an employee must lean through or over the edge of the access opening to facilitate hoisting, the employee is protected from falling by a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(iii) If grab handles are installed at hoist areas, they meet the requirements of § 1910.29(l).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Holes.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee is protected from falling through any hole (including skylights) that is 4 feet (1.2 m) or more above a lower level by one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Covers;
</P>
<P>(B) Guardrail systems;
</P>
<P>(C) Travel restraint systems; or
</P>
<P>(D) Personal fall arrest systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee is protected from tripping into or stepping into or through any hole that is less than 4 feet (1.2 m) above a lower level by covers or guardrail systems.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee is protected from falling into a stairway floor hole by a fixed guardrail system on all exposed sides, except at the stairway entrance. However, for any stairway used less than once per day where traffic across the stairway floor hole prevents the use of a fixed guardrail system (<I>e.g.,</I> holes located in aisle spaces), the employer may protect employees from falling into the hole by using a hinged floor hole cover that meets the criteria in § 1910.29 and a removable guardrail system on all exposed sides, except at the entrance to the stairway.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each employee is protected from falling into a ladderway floor hole or ladderway platform hole by a guardrail system and toeboards erected on all exposed sides, except at the entrance to the hole, where a self-closing gate or an offset must be used.
</P>
<P>(v) Each employee is protected from falling through a hatchway and chute-floor hole by:
</P>
<P>(A) A hinged floor-hole cover that meets the criteria in § 1910.29 and a fixed guardrail system that leaves only one exposed side. When the hole is not in use, the employer must ensure the cover is closed or a removable guardrail system is provided on the exposed sides;
</P>
<P>(B) A removable guardrail system and toeboards on not more than two sides of the hole and a fixed guardrail system on all other exposed sides. The employer must ensure the removable guardrail system is kept in place when the hole is not in use; or
</P>
<P>(C) A guardrail system or a travel restraint system when a work operation necessitates passing material through a hatchway or chute floor hole.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Dockboards.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that each employee on a dockboard is protected from falling 4 feet (1.2 m) or more to a lower level by a guardrail system or handrails.
</P>
<P>(ii) A guardrail system or handrails are not required when:
</P>
<P>(A) Dockboards are being used solely for materials-handling operations using motorized equipment;
</P>
<P>(B) Employees engaged in these operations are not exposed to fall hazards greater than 10 feet (3 m); and
</P>
<P>(C) Those employees have been trained in accordance with § 1910.30.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Runways and similar walkways.</I> (i) The employer must ensure each employee on a runway or similar walkway is protected from falling 4 feet (1.2 m) or more to a lower level by a guardrail system.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the employer can demonstrate that it is not feasible to have guardrails on both sides of a runway used exclusively for a special purpose, the employer may omit the guardrail on one side of the runway, provided the employer ensures:
</P>
<P>(A) The runway is at least 18 inches (46 cm) wide; and
</P>
<P>(B) Each employee is provided with and uses a personal fall arrest system or travel restraint system.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Dangerous equipment.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee less than 4 feet (1.2 m) above dangerous equipment is protected from falling into or onto the dangerous equipment by a guardrail system or a travel restraint system, unless the equipment is covered or guarded to eliminate the hazard.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee 4 feet (1.2 m) or more above dangerous equipment must be protected from falling by:
</P>
<P>(A) Guardrail systems;
</P>
<P>(B) Safety net systems;
</P>
<P>(C) Travel restraint systems; or
</P>
<P>(D) Personal fall arrest systems.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Openings.</I> The employer must ensure that each employee on a walking-working surface near an opening, including one with a chute attached, where the inside bottom edge of the opening is less than 39 inches (99 cm) above that walking-working surface and the outside bottom edge of the opening is 4 feet (1.2 m) or more above a lower level is protected from falling by the use of:
</P>
<P>(i) Guardrail systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety net systems;
</P>
<P>(iii) Travel restraint systems; or,
</P>
<P>(iv) Personal fall arrest systems.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Repair pits, service pits, and assembly pits less than 10 feet in depth.</I> The use of a fall protection system is not required for a repair pit, service pit, or assembly pit that is less than 10 feet (3 m) deep, provided the employer:
</P>
<P>(i) Limits access within 6 feet (1.8 m) of the edge of the pit to authorized employees trained in accordance with § 1910.30;
</P>
<P>(ii) Applies floor markings at least 6 feet (1.8 m) from the edge of the pit in colors that contrast with the surrounding area; or places a warning line at least 6 feet (1.8 m) from the edge of the pit as well as stanchions that are capable of resisting, without tipping over, a force of at least 16 pounds (71 N) applied horizontally against the stanchion at a height of 30 inches (76 cm); or places a combination of floor markings and warning lines at least 6 feet (1.8 m) from the edge of the pit. When two or more pits in a common area are not more than 15 feet (4.5m) apart, the employer may comply by placing contrasting floor markings at least 6 feet (1.8 m) from the pit edge around the entire area of the pits; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Posts readily visible caution signs that meet the requirements of § 1910.145 and state “Caution—Open Pit.”
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Fixed ladders (that extend more than 24 feet (7.3 m) above a lower level).</I> (i) For fixed ladders that extend more than 24 feet (7.3 m) above a lower level, the employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Existing fixed ladders.</I> Each fixed ladder installed before November 19, 2018 is equipped with a personal fall arrest system, ladder safety system, cage, or well;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>New fixed ladders.</I> Each fixed ladder installed on and after November 19, 2018, is equipped with a personal fall arrest system or a ladder safety system;
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Replacement.</I> When a fixed ladder, cage, or well, or any portion of a section thereof, is replaced, a personal fall arrest system or ladder safety system is installed in at least that section of the fixed ladder, cage, or well where the replacement is located; and
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Final deadline.</I> On and after November 18, 2036, all fixed ladders are equipped with a personal fall arrest system or a ladder safety system.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a one-section fixed ladder is equipped with a personal fall protection or a ladder safety system or a fixed ladder is equipped with a personal fall arrest or ladder safety system on more than one section, the employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(A) The personal fall arrest system or ladder safety system provides protection throughout the entire vertical distance of the ladder, including all ladder sections; and
</P>
<P>(B) The ladder has rest platforms provided at maximum intervals of 150 feet (45.7 m).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure ladder sections having a cage or well:
</P>
<P>(A) Are offset from adjacent sections; and
</P>
<P>(B) Have landing platforms provided at maximum intervals of 50 feet (15.2 m).
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer may use a cage or well in combination with a personal fall arrest system or ladder safety system provided that the cage or well does not interfere with the operation of the system.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Outdoor advertising (billboards).</I> (i) The requirements in paragraph (b)(9) of this section, and other requirements in subparts D and I of this part, apply to fixed ladders used in outdoor advertising activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an employee engaged in outdoor advertising climbs a fixed ladder before November 19, 2018 that is not equipped with a cage, well, personal fall arrest system, or a ladder safety system the employer must ensure the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Receives training and demonstrates the physical capability to perform the necessary climbs in accordance with § 1910.29(h);
</P>
<P>(B) Wears a body harness equipped with an 18-inch (46 cm) rest lanyard;
</P>
<P>(C) Keeps both hands free of tools or material when climbing on the ladder; and
</P>
<P>(D) Is protected by a fall protection system upon reaching the work position.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Stairways.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee exposed to an unprotected side or edge of a stairway landing that is 4 feet (1.2 m) or more above a lower level is protected by a guardrail or stair rail system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each flight of stairs having at least 3 treads and at least 4 risers is equipped with stair rail systems and handrails as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.355.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Each ship stairs and alternating tread type stairs is equipped with handrails on both sides.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Scaffolds and rope descent systems.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee on a scaffold is protected from falling in accordance 29 CFR part 1926, subpart L; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee using a rope descent system 4 feet (1.2 m) or more above a lower level is protected from falling by a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Work on low-slope roofs.</I> (i) When work is performed less than 6 feet (1.6 m) from the roof edge, the employer must ensure each employee is protected from falling by a guardrail system, safety net system, travel restraint system, or personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(ii) When work is performed at least 6 feet (1.6 m) but less than 15 feet (4.6 m) from the roof edge, the employer must ensure each employee is protected from falling by using a guardrail system, safety net system, travel restraint system, or personal fall arrest system. The employer may use a designated area when performing work that is both infrequent and temporary.
</P>
<P>(iii) When work is performed 15 feet (4.6 m) or more from the roof edge, the employer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Protect each employee from falling by a guardrail system, safety net system, travel restraint system, or personal fall arrest system or a designated area. The employer is not required to provide any fall protection, provided the work is both infrequent and temporary; and
</P>
<P>(B) Implement and enforce a work rule prohibiting employees from going within 15 feet (4.6 m) of the roof edge without using fall protection in accordance with paragraphs (b)(13)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Slaughtering facility platforms.</I> (i) The employer must protect each employee on the unprotected working side of a slaughtering facility platform that is 4 feet (1.2 m) or more above a lower level from falling by using:
</P>
<P>(A) Guardrail systems; or
</P>
<P>(B) Travel restraint systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the employer can demonstrate the use of a guardrail or travel restraint system is not feasible, the work may be done without those systems provided:
</P>
<P>(A) The work operation for which fall protection is infeasible is in process;
</P>
<P>(B) Access to the platform is limited to authorized employees; and
</P>
<P>(C) The authorized employees are trained in accordance with § 1910.30.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Walking-working surfaces not otherwise addressed.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this section or by other subparts of this part, the employer must ensure each employee on a walking-working surface 4 feet (1.2 m) or more above a lower level is protected from falling by:
</P>
<P>(i) Guardrail systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety net systems; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Personal fall protection systems, such as personal fall arrest, travel restraint, or positioning systems.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection from falling objects.</I> When an employee is exposed to falling objects, the employer must ensure that each employee wears head protection that meets the requirements of subpart I of this part. In addition, the employer must protect employees from falling objects by implementing one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Erecting toeboards, screens, or guardrail systems to prevent objects from falling to a lower level;
</P>
<P>(2) Erecting canopy structures and keeping potential falling objects far enough from an edge, hole, or opening to prevent them from falling to a lower level; or
</P>
<P>(3) Barricading the area into which objects could fall, prohibiting employees from entering the barricaded area, and keeping objects far enough from an edge or opening to prevent them from falling to a lower level.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.29" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.29   Fall protection systems and falling object protection—criteria and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure each fall protection system and falling object protection, other than personal fall protection systems, that this part requires meets the requirements in this section. The employer must ensure each personal fall protection system meets the requirements in subpart I of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide and install all fall protection systems and falling object protection this subpart requires, and comply with the other requirements in this subpart before any employee begins work that necessitates fall or falling object protection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guardrail systems.</I> The employer must ensure guardrail systems meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The top edge height of top rails, or equivalent guardrail system members, are 42 inches (107 cm), plus or minus 3 inches (8 cm), above the walking-working surface. The top edge height may exceed 45 inches (114 cm), provided the guardrail system meets all other criteria of paragraph (b) of this section (see Figure D-11 of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, solid panels, or equivalent intermediate members are installed between the walking-working surface and the top edge of the guardrail system as follows when there is not a wall or parapet that is at least 21 inches (53 cm) high:
</P>
<P>(i) Midrails are installed at a height midway between the top edge of the guardrail system and the walking-working surface;
</P>
<P>(ii) Screens and mesh extend from the walking-working surface to the top rail and along the entire opening between top rail supports;
</P>
<P>(iii) Intermediate vertical members (such as balusters) are installed no more than 19 inches (48 cm) apart; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other equivalent intermediate members (such as additional midrails and architectural panels) are installed so that the openings are not more than 19 inches (48 cm) wide.
</P>
<P>(3) Guardrail systems are capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 200 pounds (890 N) applied in a downward or outward direction within 2 inches (5 cm) of the top edge, at any point along the top rail.
</P>
<P>(4) When the 200-pound (890-N) test load is applied in a downward direction, the top rail of the guardrail system must not deflect to a height of less than 39 inches (99 cm) above the walking-working surface.
</P>
<P>(5) Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, solid panels, and other equivalent intermediate members are capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 150 pounds (667 N) applied in any downward or outward direction at any point along the intermediate member.
</P>
<P>(6) Guardrail systems are smooth-surfaced to protect employees from injury, such as punctures or lacerations, and to prevent catching or snagging of clothing.
</P>
<P>(7) The ends of top rails and midrails do not overhang the terminal posts, except where the overhang does not pose a projection hazard for employees.
</P>
<P>(8) Steel banding and plastic banding are not used for top rails or midrails.
</P>
<P>(9) Top rails and midrails are at least 0.25-inches (0.6 cm) in diameter or in thickness.
</P>
<P>(10) When guardrail systems are used at hoist areas, a removable guardrail section, consisting of a top rail and midrail, are placed across the access opening between guardrail sections when employees are not performing hoisting operations. The employer may use chains or gates instead of a removable guardrail section at hoist areas if the employer demonstrates the chains or gates provide a level of safety equivalent to guardrails.
</P>
<P>(11) When guardrail systems are used around holes, they are installed on all unprotected sides or edges of the hole.
</P>
<P>(12) For guardrail systems used around holes through which materials may be passed:
</P>
<P>(i) When materials are being passed through the hole, not more than two sides of the guardrail system are removed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) When materials are not being passed through the hole, the hole must be guarded by a guardrail system along all unprotected sides or edges or closed over with a cover.
</P>
<P>(13) When guardrail systems are used around holes that serve as points of access (such as ladderways), the guardrail system opening:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a self-closing gate that slides or swings away from the hole, and is equipped with a top rail and midrail or equivalent intermediate member that meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is offset to prevent an employee from walking or falling into the hole;
</P>
<P>(14) Guardrail systems on ramps and runways are installed along each unprotected side or edge.
</P>
<P>(15) Manila or synthetic rope used for top rails or midrails are inspected as necessary to ensure that the rope continues to meet the strength requirements in paragraphs (b)(3) and (5) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>The criteria and practices requirements for guardrail systems on scaffolds are contained in 29 CFR part 1926, subpart L.</P></NOTE>
<img src="/graphics/er17de19.019.gif"/>
<P>(c) <I>Safety net systems.</I> The employer must ensure each safety net system meets the requirements in 29 CFR part 1926, subpart M.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Designated areas.</I> (1) When the employer uses a designated area, the employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Employees remain within the designated area while work operations are underway; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The perimeter of the designated area is delineated with a warning line consisting of a rope, wire, tape, or chain that meets the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure each warning line:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a minimum breaking strength of 200 pounds (0.89 kN);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is installed so its lowest point, including sag, is not less than 34 inches (86 cm) and not more than 39 inches (99 cm) above the walking-working surface;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is supported in such a manner that pulling on one section of the line will not result in slack being taken up in adjacent sections causing the line to fall below the limits specified in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is clearly visible from a distance of 25 feet (7.6 m) away, and anywhere within the designated area;
</P>
<P>(v) Is erected as close to the work area as the task permits; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Is erected not less than 6 feet (1.8 m) from the roof edge for work that is both temporary and infrequent, or not less than 15 feet (4.6 m) for other work.
</P>
<P>(3) When mobile mechanical equipment is used to perform work that is both temporary and infrequent in a designated area, the employer must ensure the warning line is erected not less than 6 feet (1.8 m) from the unprotected side or edge that is parallel to the direction in which the mechanical equipment is operated, and not less than 10 feet (3 m) from the unprotected side or edge that is perpendicular to the direction in which the mechanical equipment is operated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Covers.</I> The employer must ensure each cover for a hole in a walking-working surface:
</P>
<P>(1) Is capable of supporting without failure, at least twice the maximum intended load that may be imposed on the cover at any one time; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is secured to prevent accidental displacement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Handrails and stair rail systems.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Height criteria.</I> (i) Handrails are not less than 30 inches (76 cm) and not more than 38 inches (97 cm), as measured from the leading edge of the stair tread to the top surface of the handrail (see Figure D-12 of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) The height of stair rail systems meets the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The height of stair rail systems installed before January 17, 2017 is not less than 30 inches (76 cm) from the leading edge of the stair tread to the top surface of the top rail; and
</P>
<P>(B) The height of stair rail systems installed on or after January 17, 2017 is not less than 42 inches (107 cm) from the leading edge of the stair tread to the top surface of the top rail.
</P>
<P>(iii) The top rail of a stair rail system may serve as a handrail only when:
</P>
<P>(A) The height of the stair rail system is not less than 36 inches (91 cm) and not more than 38 inches (97 cm) as measured at the leading edge of the stair tread to the top surface of the top rail (see Figure D-13 of this section); and
</P>
<P>(B) The top rail of the stair rail system meets the other handrail requirements in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Finger clearance.</I> The minimum clearance between handrails and any other object is 2.25 inches (5.7 cm).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Surfaces.</I> Handrails and stair rail systems are smooth-surfaced to protect employees from injury, such as punctures or lacerations, and to prevent catching or snagging of clothing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Openings in stair rails.</I> No opening in a stair rail system exceeds 19 inches (48 cm) at its least dimension.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Handhold.</I> Handrails have the shape and dimension necessary so that employees can grasp the handrail firmly.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Projection hazards.</I> The ends of handrails and stair rail systems do not present any projection hazards.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Strength criteria.</I> Handrails and the top rails of stair rail systems are capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 200 pounds (890 N) applied in any downward or outward direction within 2 inches (5 cm) of any point along the top edge of the rail.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.357.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-13—Combination Handrail and Stair Rail</E></BCAP>
<P>(g) <I>Cages, wells, and platforms used with fixed ladders.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Cages and wells installed on fixed ladders are designed, constructed, and maintained to permit easy access to, and egress from, the ladder that they enclose (see Figures D-14 and D-15 of this section);
</P>
<P>(2) Cages and wells are continuous throughout the length of the fixed ladder, except for access, egress, and other transfer points;
</P>
<P>(3) Cages and wells are designed, constructed, and maintained to contain employees in the event of a fall, and to direct them to a lower landing; and
</P>
<P>(4) Platforms used with fixed ladders provide a horizontal surface of at least 24 inches by 30 inches (61 cm by 76 cm).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>):</HED>
<P>Section 1910.28 establishes the requirements that employers must follow on the use of cages and wells as a means of fall protection.</P></NOTE>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.358.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.359.gif"/>
<P>(h) <I>Outdoor advertising.</I> This paragraph (h) applies only to employers engaged in outdoor advertising operations (see § 1910.28(b)(10)). Employers must ensure that each employee who climbs a fixed ladder without fall protection:
</P>
<P>(1) Is physically capable, as demonstrated through observations of actual climbing activities or by a physical examination, to perform the duties that may be assigned, including climbing fixed ladders without fall protection;
</P>
<P>(2) Has successfully completed a training or apprenticeship program that includes hands-on training on the safe climbing of ladders and is retrained as necessary to maintain the necessary skills;
</P>
<P>(3) Has the skill to climb ladders safely, as demonstrated through formal classroom training or on-the-job training, and performance observation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Performs climbing duties as a part of routine work activity.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Ladder safety systems.</I> The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(1) Each ladder safety system allows the employee to climb up and down using both hands and does not require that the employee continuously hold, push, or pull any part of the system while climbing;
</P>
<P>(2) The connection between the carrier or lifeline and the point of attachment to the body harness or belt does not exceed 9 inches (23 cm);
</P>
<P>(3) Mountings for rigid carriers are attached at each end of the carrier, with intermediate mountings spaced, as necessary, along the entire length of the carrier so the system has the strength to stop employee falls;
</P>
<P>(4) Mountings for flexible carriers are attached at each end of the carrier and cable guides for flexible carriers are installed at least 25 feet (7.6 m) apart but not more than 40 feet (12.2 m) apart along the entire length of the carrier;
</P>
<P>(5) The design and installation of mountings and cable guides does not reduce the design strength of the ladder; and
</P>
<P>(6) Ladder safety systems and their support systems are capable of withstanding, without failure, a drop test consisting of an 18-inch (41-cm) drop of a 500-pound (227-kg) weight.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Personal fall protection systems.</I> Body belts, harnesses, and other components used in personal fall arrest systems, work positioning systems, and travel restraint systems must meet the requirements of § 1910.140.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Protection from falling objects.</I> (1) The employers must ensure toeboards used for falling object protection:
</P>
<P>(i) Are erected along the exposed edge of the overhead walking-working surface for a length that is sufficient to protect employees below.
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a minimum vertical height of 3.5 inches (9 cm) as measured from the top edge of the toeboard to the level of the walking-working surface.
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not have more than a 0.25-inch (0.5-cm) clearance or opening above the walking-working surface.
</P>
<P>(iv) Are solid or do not have any opening that exceeds 1 inch (3 cm) at its greatest dimension.
</P>
<P>(v) Have a minimum height of 2.5 inches (6 cm) when used around vehicle repair, service, or assembly pits. Toeboards may be omitted around vehicle repair, service, or assembly pits when the employer can demonstrate that a toeboard would prevent access to a vehicle that is over the pit.
</P>
<P>(vi) Are capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 50 pounds (222 N) applied in any downward or outward direction at any point along the toeboard.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure:
</P>
<P>(i) Where tools, equipment, or materials are piled higher than the top of the toeboard, paneling or screening is installed from the toeboard to the midrail of the guardrail system and for a length that is sufficient to protect employees below. If the items are piled higher than the midrail, the employer also must install paneling or screening to the top rail and for a length that is sufficient to protect employees below; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All openings in guardrail systems are small enough to prevent objects from falling through the opening.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must ensure canopies used for falling object protection are strong enough to prevent collapse and to prevent penetration by falling objects.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Grab handles.</I> The employer must ensure each grab handle:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not less than 12 inches (30 cm) long;
</P>
<P>(2) Is mounted to provide at least 3 inches (8 cm) of clearance from the framing or opening; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of withstanding a maximum horizontal pull-out force equal to two times the maximum intended load or 200 pounds (890 N), whichever is greater.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 82981, Nov. 18, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 68796, Dec. 17, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.30" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.4.33.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.30   Training requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fall hazards.</I> (1) Before any employee is exposed to a fall hazard, the employer must provide training for each employee who uses personal fall protection systems or who is required to be trained as specified elsewhere in this subpart. Employers must ensure employees are trained in the requirements of this paragraph on or before May 17, 2017.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure that each employee is trained by a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must train each employee in at least the following topics:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the fall hazards in the work area and how to recognize them;
</P>
<P>(ii) The procedures to be followed to minimize those hazards;
</P>
<P>(iii) The correct procedures for installing, inspecting, operating, maintaining, and disassembling the personal fall protection systems that the employee uses; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The correct use of personal fall protection systems and equipment specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, including, but not limited to, proper hook-up, anchoring, and tie-off techniques, and methods of equipment inspection and storage, as specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment hazards.</I> (1) The employer must train each employee on or before May 17, 2017 in the proper care, inspection, storage, and use of equipment covered by this subpart before an employee uses the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must train each employee who uses a dockboard to properly place and secure it to prevent unintentional movement.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must train each employee who uses a rope descent system in proper rigging and use of the equipment in accordance with § 1910.27.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer must train each employee who uses a designated area in the proper set-up and use of the area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retraining.</I> The employer must retrain an employee when the employer has reason to believe the employee does not have the understanding and skill required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. Situations requiring retraining include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) When changes in the workplace render previous training obsolete or inadequate;
</P>
<P>(2) When changes in the types of fall protection systems or equipment to be used render previous training obsolete or inadequate; or
</P>
<P>(3) When inadequacies in an affected employee's knowledge or use of fall protection systems or equipment indicate that the employee no longer has the requisite understanding or skill necessary to use equipment or perform the job safely.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Training must be understandable.</I> The employer must provide information and training to each employee in a manner that the employee understands.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exit Routes and Emergency Planning</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), or 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), as applicable; and 29 CFR 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.33" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5.33.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.33   Table of contents.</HEAD>
<P>This section lists the sections and paragraph headings contained in §§ 1910.34 through 1910.39. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD2>§ 1910.34 Coverage and definitions. 
</HD2>
<FP-2>(a) Every employer is covered. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Exit routes are covered. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) Definitions. 
</FP-2>
<HD2>§ 1910.35 Compliance with Alternate Exit Route Codes.
</HD2>
<HD2>§ 1910.36 Design and construction requirements for exit routes. 
</HD2>
<FP-2>(a) Basic requirements. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) The number of exit routes must be adequate. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) Exit discharge. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) An exit door must be unlocked. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) A side-hinged exit door must be used. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(f) The capacity of an exit route must be adequate. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(g) An exit route must meet minimum height and width requirements. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(h) An outdoor exit route is permitted. 
</FP-2>
<HD2>§ 1910.37 Maintenance, safeguards, and operational features for exit routes. 
</HD2>
<FP-2>(a) The danger to employees must be minimized. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Lighting and marking must be adequate and appropriate. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) The fire retardant properties of paints or solutions must be maintained. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) Exit routes must be maintained during construction, repairs, or alterations. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) An employee alarm system must be operable. 
</FP-2>
<HD2>§ 1910.38 Emergency action plans. 
</HD2>
<FP-2>(a) Application. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Written and oral emergency action plans. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) Minimum elements of an emergency action plan. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) Employee alarm system. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) Training. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(f) Review of emergency action plan. 
</FP-2>
<HD2>§ 1910.39 Fire prevention plans. 
</HD2>
<FP-2>(a) Application. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Written and oral fire prevention plans. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) Minimum elements of a fire prevention plan.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) Employee information.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67961, Nov. 7, 2002, as amended at 76 FR 33606, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.34" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5.33.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.34   Coverage and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Every employer is covered.</I> Sections 1910.34 through 1910.39 apply to workplaces in general industry except mobile workplaces such as vehicles or vessels. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exits routes are covered.</I> The rules in §§ 1910.34 through 1910.39 cover the minimum requirements for exit routes that employers must provide in their workplace so that employees may evacuate the workplace safely during an emergency. Sections 1910.34 through 1910.39 also cover the minimum requirements for emergency action plans and fire prevention plans. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Electroluminescent</I> means a light-emitting capacitor. Alternating current excites phosphor atoms when placed between the electrically conductive surfaces to produce light. This light source is typically contained inside the device. 
</P>
<P><I>Exit</I> means that portion of an exit route that is generally separated from other areas to provide a protected way of travel to the exit discharge. An example of an exit is a two-hour fire resistance-rated enclosed stairway that leads from the fifth floor of an office building to the outside of the building. 
</P>
<P><I>Exit access</I> means that portion of an exit route that leads to an exit. An example of an exit access is a corridor on the fifth floor of an office building that leads to a two-hour fire resistance-rated enclosed stairway (the Exit). 
</P>
<P><I>Exit discharge</I> means the part of the exit route that leads directly outside or to a street, walkway, refuge area, public way, or open space with access to the outside. An example of an exit discharge is a door at the bottom of a two-hour fire resistance-rated enclosed stairway that discharges to a place of safety outside the building. 
</P>
<P><I>Exit route</I> means a continuous and unobstructed path of exit travel from any point within a workplace to a place of safety (including refuge areas). An exit route consists of three parts: The exit access; the exit; and, the exit discharge. (An exit route includes all vertical and horizontal areas along the route.) 
</P>
<P><I>High hazard area</I> means an area inside a workplace in which operations include high hazard materials, processes, or contents. 
</P>
<P><I>Occupant load</I> means the total number of persons that may occupy a workplace or portion of a workplace at any one time. The occupant load of a workplace is calculated by dividing the gross floor area of the workplace or portion of the workplace by the occupant load factor for that particular type of workplace occupancy. Information regarding the “Occupant load” is located in NFPA 101-2009, Life Safety Code, and in IFC-2009, International Fire Code (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6). 
</P>
<P><I>Refuge area</I> means either: 
</P>
<P>(1) A space along an exit route that is protected from the effects of fire by separation from other spaces within the building by a barrier with at least a one-hour fire resistance-rating; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A floor with at least two spaces, separated from each other by smoke-resistant partitions, in a building protected throughout by an automatic sprinkler system that complies with § 1910.159 of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Self-luminous</I> means a light source that is illuminated by a self-contained power source (<I>e.g.,</I> tritium) and that operates independently from external power sources. Batteries are not acceptable self-contained power sources. The light source is typically contained inside the device. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67961, Nov. 7, 2002, as amended at 76 FR 33606, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.35" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5.33.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.35   Compliance with alternate exit-route codes.</HEAD>
<P>OSHA will deem an employer demonstrating compliance with the exit-route provisions of NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, 2009 edition, or the exit-route provisions of the International Fire Code, 2009 edition, to be in compliance with the corresponding requirements in §§ 1910.34, 1910.36, and 1910.37 (incorporated by reference, see section § 1910.6). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 33606, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.36" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5.33.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.36   Design and construction requirements for exit routes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic requirements.</I> Exit routes must meet the following design and construction requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>An exit route must be permanent.</I> Each exit route must be a permanent part of the workplace. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>An exit must be separated by fire resistant materials.</I> Construction materials used to separate an exit from other parts of the workplace must have a one-hour fire resistance-rating if the exit connects three or fewer stories and a two-hour fire resistance-rating if the exit connects four or more stories. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Openings into an exit must be limited.</I> An exit is permitted to have only those openings necessary to allow access to the exit from occupied areas of the workplace, or to the exit discharge. An opening into an exit must be protected by a self-closing fire door that remains closed or automatically closes in an emergency upon the sounding of a fire alarm or employee alarm system. Each fire door, including its frame and hardware, must be listed or approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. Section 1910.155(c)(3)(iv)(A) of this part defines “listed” and § 1910.7 of this part defines a “nationally recognized testing laboratory.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The number of exit routes must be adequate</I>—(1) <I>Two exit routes.</I> At least two exit routes must be available in a workplace to permit prompt evacuation of employees and other building occupants during an emergency, except as allowed in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. The exit routes must be located as far away as practical from each other so that if one exit route is blocked by fire or smoke, employees can evacuate using the second exit route. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>More than two exit routes.</I> More than two exit routes must be available in a workplace if the number of employees, the size of the building, its occupancy, or the arrangement of the workplace is such that all employees would not be able to evacuate safely during an emergency. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>A single exit route.</I> A single exit route is permitted where the number of employees, the size of the building, its occupancy, or the arrangement of the workplace is such that all employees would be able to evacuate safely during an emergency. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED> Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>For assistance in determining the number of exit routes necessary for your workplace, consult NFPA 101-2009, Life Safety Code, or IFC-2009, International Fire Code (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6).</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Exit discharge.</I> (1) Each exit discharge must lead directly outside or to a street, walkway, refuge area, public way, or open space with access to the outside. 
</P>
<P>(2) The street, walkway, refuge area, public way, or open space to which an exit discharge leads must be large enough to accommodate the building occupants likely to use the exit route. 
</P>
<P>(3) Exit stairs that continue beyond the level on which the exit discharge is located must be interrupted at that level by doors, partitions, or other effective means that clearly indicate the direction of travel leading to the exit discharge. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>An exit door must be unlocked.</I> (1) Employees must be able to open an exit route door from the inside at all times without keys, tools, or special knowledge. A device such as a panic bar that locks only from the outside is permitted on exit discharge doors. 
</P>
<P>(2) Exit route doors must be free of any device or alarm that could restrict emergency use of the exit route if the device or alarm fails. 
</P>
<P>(3) An exit route door may be locked from the inside only in mental, penal, or correctional facilities and then only if supervisory personnel are continuously on duty and the employer has a plan to remove occupants from the facility during an emergency. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>A side-hinged exit door must be used.</I> (1) A side-hinged door must be used to connect any room to an exit route. 
</P>
<P>(2) The door that connects any room to an exit route must swing out in the direction of exit travel if the room is designed to be occupied by more than 50 people or if the room is a high hazard area (<I>i.e.,</I> contains contents that are likely to burn with extreme rapidity or explode). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>The capacity of an exit route must be adequate.</I> (1) Exit routes must support the maximum permitted occupant load for each floor served. 
</P>
<P>(2) The capacity of an exit route may not decrease in the direction of exit route travel to the exit discharge. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED> Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>Information regarding the “Occupant load” is located in NFPA 101-2009, Life Safety Code, and in IFC-2009, International Fire Code (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6).</P></NOTE>
<P>(g) <I>An exit route must meet minimum height and width requirements.</I> (1) The ceiling of an exit route must be at least seven feet six inches (2.3 m) high. Any projection from the ceiling must not reach a point less than six feet eight inches (2.0 m) from the floor. 
</P>
<P>(2) An exit access must be at least 28 inches (71.1 cm) wide at all points. Where there is only one exit access leading to an exit or exit discharge, the width of the exit and exit discharge must be at least equal to the width of the exit access. 
</P>
<P>(3) The width of an exit route must be sufficient to accommodate the maximum permitted occupant load of each floor served by the exit route. 
</P>
<P>(4) Objects that project into the exit route must not reduce the width of the exit route to less than the minimum width requirements for exit routes. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>An outdoor exit route is permitted.</I> Each outdoor exit route must meet the minimum height and width requirements for indoor exit routes and must also meet the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) The outdoor exit route must have guardrails to protect unenclosed sides if a fall hazard exists; 
</P>
<P>(2) The outdoor exit route must be covered if snow or ice is likely to accumulate along the route, unless the employer can demonstrate that any snow or ice accumulation will be removed before it presents a slipping hazard; 
</P>
<P>(3) The outdoor exit route must be reasonably straight and have smooth, solid, substantially level walkways; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The outdoor exit route must not have a dead-end that is longer than 20 feet (6.2 m). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67961, Nov. 7, 2002, as amended at 76 FR 33606, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.37" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5.33.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.37   Maintenance, safeguards, and operational features for exit routes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The danger to employees must be minimized.</I> (1) Exit routes must be kept free of explosive or highly flammable furnishings or other decorations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Exit routes must be arranged so that employees will not have to travel toward a high hazard area, unless the path of travel is effectively shielded from the high hazard area by suitable partitions or other physical barriers. 
</P>
<P>(3) Exit routes must be free and unobstructed. No materials or equipment may be placed, either permanently or temporarily, within the exit route. The exit access must not go through a room that can be locked, such as a bathroom, to reach an exit or exit discharge, nor may it lead into a dead-end corridor. Stairs or a ramp must be provided where the exit route is not substantially level. 
</P>
<P>(4) Safeguards designed to protect employees during an emergency (<I>e.g.,</I> sprinkler systems, alarm systems, fire doors, exit lighting) must be in proper working order at all times. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lighting and marking must be adequate and appropriate.</I> (1) Each exit route must be adequately lighted so that an employee with normal vision can see along the exit route. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each exit must be clearly visible and marked by a sign reading “Exit.” 
</P>
<P>(3) Each exit route door must be free of decorations or signs that obscure the visibility of the exit route door. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the direction of travel to the exit or exit discharge is not immediately apparent, signs must be posted along the exit access indicating the direction of travel to the nearest exit and exit discharge. Additionally, the line-of-sight to an exit sign must clearly be visible at all times. 
</P>
<P>(5) Each doorway or passage along an exit access that could be mistaken for an exit must be marked “Not an Exit” or similar designation, or be identified by a sign indicating its actual use (<I>e.g.,</I> closet). 
</P>
<P>(6) Each exit sign must be illuminated to a surface value of at least five foot-candles (54 lux) by a reliable light source and be distinctive in color. Self-luminous or electroluminescent signs that have a minimum luminance surface value of at least .06 footlamberts (0.21 cd/m
<SU>2</SU>) are permitted. 
</P>
<P>(7) Each exit sign must have the word “Exit” in plainly legible letters not less than six inches (15.2 cm) high, with the principal strokes of the letters in the word “Exit” not less than three-fourths of an inch (1.9 cm) wide. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The fire retardant properties of paints or solutions must be maintained.</I> Fire retardant paints or solutions must be renewed as often as necessary to maintain their fire retardant properties. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exit routes must be maintained during construction, repairs, or alterations.</I> (1) During new construction, employees must not occupy a workplace until the exit routes required by this subpart are completed and ready for employee use for the portion of the workplace they occupy. 
</P>
<P>(2) During repairs or alterations, employees must not occupy a workplace unless the exit routes required by this subpart are available and existing fire protections are maintained, or until alternate fire protection is furnished that provides an equivalent level of safety. 
</P>
<P>(3) Employees must not be exposed to hazards of flammable or explosive substances or equipment used during construction, repairs, or alterations, that are beyond the normal permissible conditions in the workplace, or that would impede exiting the workplace. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>An employee alarm system must be operable.</I> Employers must install and maintain an operable employee alarm system that has a distinctive signal to warn employees of fire or other emergencies, unless employees can promptly see or smell a fire or other hazard in time to provide adequate warning to them. The employee alarm system must comply with § 1910.165. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67961, Nov. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.38" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5.33.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.38   Emergency action plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> An employer must have an emergency action plan whenever an OSHA standard in this part requires one. The requirements in this section apply to each such emergency action plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written and oral emergency action plans.</I> An emergency action plan must be in writing, kept in the workplace, and available to employees for review. However, an employer with 10 or fewer employees may communicate the plan orally to employees. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum elements of an emergency action plan.</I> An emergency action plan must include at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) Procedures for reporting a fire or other emergency; 
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for emergency evacuation, including type of evacuation and exit route assignments; 
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures to be followed by employees who remain to operate critical plant operations before they evacuate; 
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures to account for all employees after evacuation; 
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures to be followed by employees performing rescue or medical duties; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The name or job title of every employee who may be contacted by employees who need more information about the plan or an explanation of their duties under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee alarm system.</I> An employer must have and maintain an employee alarm system. The employee alarm system must use a distinctive signal for each purpose and comply with the requirements in § 1910.165. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training.</I> An employer must designate and train employees to assist in a safe and orderly evacuation of other employees. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review of emergency action plan.</I> An employer must review the emergency action plan with each employee covered by the plan: 
</P>
<P>(1) When the plan is developed or the employee is assigned initially to a job; 
</P>
<P>(2) When the employee's responsibilities under the plan change; and 
</P>
<P>(3) When the plan is changed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67961, Nov. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.39" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5.33.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.39   Fire prevention plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> An employer must have a fire prevention plan when an OSHA standard in this part requires one. The requirements in this section apply to each such fire prevention plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written and oral fire prevention plans.</I> A fire prevention plan must be in writing, be kept in the workplace, and be made available to employees for review. However, an employer with 10 or fewer employees may communicate the plan orally to employees. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum elements of a fire prevention plan.</I> A fire prevention plan must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A list of all major fire hazards, proper handling and storage procedures for hazardous materials, potential ignition sources and their control, and the type of fire protection equipment necessary to control each major hazard; 
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures to control accumulations of flammable and combustible waste materials; 
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures for regular maintenance of safeguards installed on heat-producing equipment to prevent the accidental ignition of combustible materials; 
</P>
<P>(4) The name or job title of employees responsible for maintaining equipment to prevent or control sources of ignition or fires; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The name or job title of employees responsible for the control of fuel source hazards. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee information.</I> An employer must inform employees upon initial assignment to a job of the fire hazards to which they are exposed. An employer must also review with each employee those parts of the fire prevention plan necessary for self-protection. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67961, Nov. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.5.33.8.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Subpart E of Part 1910—Exit Routes, Emergency Action Plans, and Fire Prevention Plans
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix serves as a nonmandatory guideline to assist employers in complying with the appropriate requirements of subpart E.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.38 Employee emergency plans.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Emergency action plan elements.</I> The emergency action plan should address emergencies that the employer may reasonably expect in the workplace. Examples are: fire; toxic chemical releases; hurricanes; tornadoes; blizzards; floods; and others. The elements of the emergency action plan presented in paragraph 1910.38(c) can be supplemented by the following to more effectively achieve employee safety and health in an emergency. The employer should list in detail the procedures to be taken by those employees who have been selected to remain behind to care for essential plant operations until their evacuation becomes absolutely necessary. Essential plant operations may include the monitoring of plant power supplies, water supplies, and other essential services which cannot be shut down for every emergency alarm. Essential plant operations may also include chemical or manufacturing processes which must be shut down in stages or steps where certain employees must be present to assure that safe shut down procedures are completed.
</P>
<P>The use of floor plans or workplace maps which clearly show the emergency escape routes should be included in the emergency action plan. Color coding will aid employees in determining their route assignments.
</P>
<P>The employer should also develop and explain in detail what rescue and medical first aid duties are to be performed and by whom. All employees are to be told what actions they are to take in these emergency situations that the employer anticipates may occur in the workplace.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Emergency evacuation.</I> At the time of an emergency, employees should know what type of evacuation is necessary and what their role is in carrying out the plan. In some cases where the emergency is very grave, total and immediate evacuation of all employees is necessary. In other emergencies, a partial evacuation of nonessential employees with a delayed evacuation of others may be necessary for continued plant operation. In some cases, only those employees in the immediate area of the fire may be expected to evacuate or move to a safe area such as when a local application fire suppression system discharge employee alarm is sounded. Employees must be sure that they know what is expected of them in all such emergency possibilities which have been planned in order to provide assurance of their safety from fire or other emergency.
</P>
<P>The designation of refuge or safe areas for evacuation should be determined and identified in the plan. In a building divided into fire zones by fire walls, the refuge area may still be within the same building but in a different zone from where the emergency occurs.
</P>
<P>Exterior refuge or safe areas may include parking lots, open fields or streets which are located away from the site of the emergency and which provide sufficient space to accommodate the employees. Employees should be instructed to move away from the exit discharge doors of the building, and to avoid congregating close to the building where they may hamper emergency operations.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Emergency action plan training.</I> The employer should assure that an adequate number of employees are available at all times during working hours to act as evacuation wardens so that employees can be swiftly moved from the danger location to the safe areas. Generally, one warden for each twenty employees in the workplace should be able to provide adequate guidance and instruction at the time of a fire emergency. The employees selected or who volunteer to serve as wardens should be trained in the complete workplace layout and the various alternative escape routes from the workplace. All wardens and fellow employees should be made aware of handicapped employees who may need extra assistance, such as using the buddy system, and of hazardous areas to be avoided during emergencies. Before leaving, wardens should check rooms and other enclosed spaces in the workplace for employees who may be trapped or otherwise unable to evacuate the area.
</P>
<P>After the desired degree of evacuation is completed, the wardens should be able to account for or otherwise verify that all employees are in the safe areas.
</P>
<P>In buildings with several places of employment, employers are encouraged to coordinate their plans with the other employers in the building. A building-wide or standardized plan for the whole building is acceptable provided that the employers inform their respective employees of their duties and responsibilities under the plan. The standardized plan need not be kept by each employer in the multi-employer building, provided there is an accessible location within the building where the plan can be reviewed by affected employees. When multi-employer building-wide plans are not feasible, employers should coordinate their plans with the other employers within the building to assure that conflicts and confusion are avoided during times of emergencies. In multi-story buildings where more than one employer is on a single floor, it is essential that these employers coordinate their plans with each other to avoid conflicts and confusion.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fire prevention housekeeping.</I> The standard calls for the control of accumulations of flammable and combustible waste materials.
</P>
<P>It is the intent of this standard to assure that hazardous accumulations of combustible waste materials are controlled so that a fast developing fire, rapid spread of toxic smoke, or an explosion will not occur. This does not necessarily mean that each room has to be swept each day. Employers and employees should be aware of the hazardous properties of materials in their workplaces, and the degree of hazard each poses. Certainly oil soaked rags have to be treated differently than general paper trash in office areas. However, large accumulations of waste paper or corrugated boxes, etc., can pose a significant fire hazard. Accumulations of materials which can cause large fires or generate dense smoke that are easily ignited or may start from spontaneous combustion, are the types of materials with which this standard is concerned. Such combustible materials may be easily ignited by matches, welder's sparks, cigarettes and similar low level energy ignition sources.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Maintenance of equipment under the fire prevention plan.</I> Certain equipment is often installed in workplaces to control heat sources or to detect fuel leaks. An example is a temperature limit switch often found on deep-fat food fryers found in restaurants. There may be similar switches for high temperature dip tanks, or flame failure and flashback arrester devices on furnaces and similar heat producing equipment. If these devices are not properly maintained or if they become inoperative, a definite fire hazard exists. Again employees and supervisors should be aware of the specific type of control devices on equipment involved with combustible materials in the workplace and should make sure, through periodic inspection or testing, that these controls are operable. Manufacturers' recommendations should be followed to assure proper maintenance procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60714, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Powered Platforms, Manlifts, and Vehicle-Mounted Work Platforms</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.66" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.6.33.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.66   Powered platforms for building maintenance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section covers powered platform installations permanently dedicated to interior or exterior building maintenance of a specific structure or group of structures. This section does not apply to suspended scaffolds (swinging scaffolds) used to service buildings on a temporary basis and covered under subpart D of this part, nor to suspended scaffolds used for construction work and covered under subpart L of 29 CFR part 1926. Building maintenance includes, but is not limited to, such tasks as window cleaning, caulking, metal polishing and reglazing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application</I>—(1) <I>New installations.</I> This section applies to all permanent installations completed after July 23, 1990. Major modifications to existing installations completed after that date are also considered new installations under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Existing installations.</I> (i) Permanent installations in existence and/or completed before July 23, 1990 shall comply with paragraphs (g), (h), (i), (j) and appendix C to subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, permanent installations completed after August 27, 1971, and in existence and/or completed before July 23, 1990, shall comply with appendix D of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assurance.</I> (1) Building owners of new installations shall inform the employer before each use in writing that the installation meets the requirements of paragraphs (e)(1) and (f)(1) of this section and the additional design criteria contained in other provisions of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section relating to: required load sustaining capabilities of platforms, building components, hoisting and supporting equipment; stability factors for carriages, platforms and supporting equipment; maximum horizontal force for movement of carriages and davits; design of carriages, hoisting machines, wire rope and stabilization systems; and design criteria for electrical wiring and equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Building owners shall base the information required in paragraph (c)(1) of this section on the results of a field test of the installation before being placed into service and following any major alteration to an existing installation, as required in paragraph (g)(1) of this section. The assurance shall also be based on all other relevant available information, including, but not limited to, test data, equipment specifications and verification by a registered professional engineer.
</P>
<P>(3) Building owners of all installations, new and existing, shall inform the employer in writing that the installation has been inspected, tested, and maintained in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section and that all anchorages meet the requirements of § 1910.140(c)(13).
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall not permit employees to use the installation prior to receiving assurance from the building owner that the installation meets the requirements contained in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Anemometer</I> means an instrument for measuring wind velocity.
</P>
<P><I>Angulated roping</I> means a suspension method where the upper point of suspension is inboard from the attachments on the suspended unit, thus causing the suspended unit to bear against the face of the building.
</P>
<P><I>Building face roller</I> means a rotating cylindrical member designed to ride on the face of the building wall to prevent the platform from abrading the face of the building and to assist in stabilizing the platform.
</P>
<P><I>Building maintenance</I> means operations such as window cleaning, caulking, metal polishing, reglazing, and general maintenance on building surfaces.
</P>
<P><I>Cable</I> means a conductor, or group of conductors, enclosed in a weatherproof sheath, that may be used to supply electrical power and/or control current for equipment or to provide voice communication circuits.
</P>
<P><I>Carriage</I> means a wheeled vehicle used for the horizontal movement and support of other equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Certification</I> means a written, signed and dated statement confirming the performance of a requirement of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Combination cable</I> means a cable having both steel structural members capable of supporting the platform, and copper or other electrical conductors insulated from each other and the structural members by nonconductive barriers.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means a person who, because of training and experience, is capable of identifying hazardous or dangerous conditions in powered platform installations and of training employees to identify such conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Continuous pressure</I> means the need for constant manual actuation for a control to function.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means a mechanism used to regulate or guide the operation of the equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Davit</I> means a device, used singly or in pairs, for suspending a powered platform from work, storage and rigging locations on the building being serviced. Unlike outriggers, a davit reacts its operating load into a single roof socket or carriage attachment.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent</I> means alternative designs, materials or methods which the employer can demonstrate will provide an equal or greater degree of safety for employees than the methods, materials or designs specified in the standard.
</P>
<P><I>Ground rigging</I> means a method of suspending a working platform starting from a safe surface to a point of suspension above the safe surface.
</P>
<P><I>Ground rigged davit</I> means a davit which cannot be used to raise a suspended working platform above the building face being serviced.
</P>
<P><I>Guide button</I> means a building face anchor designed to engage a guide track mounted on a platform.
</P>
<P><I>Guide roller</I> means a rotating cylindrical member, operating separately or as part of a guide assembly, designed to provide continuous engagement between the platform and the building guides or guideways.
</P>
<P><I>Guide shoe</I> means a device attached to the platform designed to provide a sliding contact between the platform and the building guides.
</P>
<P><I>Hoisting machine</I> means a device intended to raise and lower a suspended or supported unit.
</P>
<P><I>Hoist rated load</I> means the hoist manufacturer's maximum allowable operating load.
</P>
<P><I>Installation</I> means all the equipment and all affected parts of a building which are associated with the performance of building maintenance using powered platforms.
</P>
<P><I>Interlock</I> means a device designed to ensure that operations or motions occur in proper sequence.
</P>
<P><I>Intermittent stabilization</I> means a method of platform stabilization in which the angulated suspension wire rope(s) are secured to regularly spaced building anchors.
</P>
<P><I>Lanyard</I> means a flexible line of rope, wire rope or strap which is used to secure the body belt or body harness to a deceleration device, lifeline or anchorage.
</P>
<P><I>Lifeline</I> means a component consisting of a flexible line for connection to an anchorage at one end to hang vertically (vertical lifeline), or for connection to anchorages at both ends to stretch horizontally (horizontal lifeline), and which serves as a means for connecting other components of a personal fall arrest system to the anchorage.
</P>
<P><I>Live load</I> means the total static weight of workers, tools, parts, and supplies that the equipment is designed to support.
</P>
<P><I>Obstruction detector</I> means a control that will stop the suspended or supported unit in the direction of travel if an obstruction is encountered, and will allow the unit to move only in a direction away from the obstruction.
</P>
<P><I>Operating control</I> means a mechanism regulating or guiding the operation of equipment that ensures a specific operating mode.
</P>
<P><I>Operating device</I> means a device actuated manually to activate a control.
</P>
<P><I>Outrigger</I> means a device, used singly or in pairs, for suspending a working platform from work, storage, and rigging locations on the building being serviced. Unlike davits, an outrigger reacts its operating moment load as at least two opposing vertical components acting into two or more distinct roof points and/or attachments.
</P>
<P><I>Platform rated load</I> means the combined weight of workers, tools, equipment and other material which is permitted to be carried by the working platform at the installation, as stated on the load rating plate.
</P>
<P><I>Poured socket</I> means the method of providing wire rope terminations in which the ends of the rope are held in a tapered socket by means of poured spelter or resins.
</P>
<P><I>Primary brake</I> means a brake designed to be applied automatically whenever power to the prime mover is interrupted or discontinued.
</P>
<P><I>Prime mover</I> means the source of mechanical power for a machine.
</P>
<P><I>Rated load</I> means the manufacturer's recommended maximum load.
</P>
<P><I>Rated strength</I> means the strength of wire rope, as designated by its manufacturer or vendor, based on standard testing procedures or acceptable engineering design practices.
</P>
<P><I>Rated working load</I> means the combined static weight of men, materials, and suspended or supported equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Registered professional engineer</I> means a person who has been duly and currently registered and licensed by an authority within the United States or its territories to practice the profession of engineering.
</P>
<P><I>Roof powered platform</I> means a working platform where the hoist(s) used to raise or lower the platform is located on the roof.
</P>
<P><I>Roof rigged davit</I> means a davit used to raise the suspended working platform above the building face being serviced. This type of davit can also be used to raise a suspended working platform which has been ground-rigged.
</P>
<P><I>Rope</I> means the equipment used to suspend a component of an equipment installation, i.e., wire rope.
</P>
<P><I>Safe surface</I> means a horizontal surface intended to be occupied by personnel, which is so protected by a fall protection system that it can be reasonably assured that said occupants will be protected against falls.
</P>
<P><I>Secondary brake</I> means a brake designed to arrest the descent of the suspended or supported equipment in the event of an overspeed condition.
</P>
<P><I>Self powered platform</I> means a working platform where the hoist(s) used to raise or lower the platform is mounted on the platform.
</P>
<P><I>Speed reducer</I> means a positive type speed reducing machine.
</P>
<P><I>Stability factor</I> means the ratio of the stabilizing moment to the overturning moment.
</P>
<P><I>Stabilizer tie</I> means a flexible line connecting the building anchor and the suspension wire rope supporting the platform.
</P>
<P><I>Supported equipment</I> means building maintenance equipment that is held or moved to its working position by means of attachment directly to the building or extensions of the building being maintained.
</P>
<P><I>Suspended equipment</I> means building maintenance equipment that is suspended and raised or lowered to its working position by means of ropes or combination cables attached to some anchorage above the equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Suspended scaffold (swinging scaffold)</I> means a scaffold supported on wire or other ropes, used for work on, or for providing access to, vertical sides of structures on a temporary basis. Such scaffold is not designed for use on a specific structure or group of structures.
</P>
<P><I>Tail line</I> means the nonsupporting end of the wire rope used to suspend the platform.
</P>
<P><I>Tie-in guides</I> means the portion of a building that provides continuous positive engagement between the building and a suspended or supported unit during its vertical travel on the face of the building.
</P>
<P><I>Traction hoist</I> means a type of hoisting machine that does not accumulate the suspension wire rope on the hoisting drum or sheave, and is designed to raise and lower a suspended load by the application of friction forces between the suspension wire rope and the drum or sheave.
</P>
<P><I>Transportable outriggers</I> means outriggers designed to be moved from one work location to another.
</P>
<P><I>Trolley carriage</I> means a carriage suspended from an overhead track structure.
</P>
<P><I>Verified</I> means accepted by design, evaluation, or inspection by a registered professional engineer.
</P>
<P><I>Weatherproof</I> means so constructed that exposure to adverse weather conditions will not affect or interfere with the proper use or functions of the equipment or component.
</P>
<P><I>Winding drum hoist</I> means a type of hoisting machine that accumulates the suspension wire rope on the hoisting drum.
</P>
<P><I>Working platform</I> means suspended or supported equipment intended to provide access to the face of a building and manned by persons engaged in building maintenance.
</P>
<P><I>Wrap</I> means one complete turn of the suspension wire rope around the surface of a hoist drum.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Powered platform installations—Affected parts of buildings</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The following requirements apply to affected parts of buildings which utilize working platforms for building maintenance.
</P>
<P>(i) Structural supports, tie-downs, tie-in guides, anchoring devices and any affected parts of the building included in the installation shall be designed by or under the direction of a registered professional engineer experienced in such design;
</P>
<P>(ii) Exterior installations shall be capable of withstanding prevailing climatic conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) The building installation shall provide safe access to, and egress from, the equipment and sufficient space to conduct necessary maintenance of the equipment;
</P>
<P>(iv) The affected parts of the building shall have the capability of sustaining all the loads imposed by the equipment; and,
</P>
<P>(v) The affected parts of the building shall be designed so as to allow the equipment to be used without exposing employees to a hazardous condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tie-in guides.</I> (i) The exterior of each building shall be provided with tie-in guides unless the conditions in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) or (e)(2)(iii) of this section are met.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See figure 1 in appendix B of this section for a description of a typical continuous stabilization system utilizing tie-in guides.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) If angulated roping is employed, tie-in guides required in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section may be eliminated for not more than 75 feet (22.9 m) of the uppermost elevation of the building, if infeasible due to exterior building design, provided an angulation force of at least 10 pounds (44.4 n) is maintained under all conditions of loading.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tie-in guides required in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section may be eliminated if one of the guide systems in paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A), (e)(2)(iii)(B) or (e)(2)(iii)(C) of this section is provided, or an equivalent.
</P>
<P>(A) Intermittent stabilization system. The system shall keep the equipment in continuous contact with the building facade, and shall prevent sudden horizontal movement of the platform. The system may be used together with continuous positive building guide systems using tie-in guides on the same building, provided the requirements for each system are met.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The maximum vertical interval between building anchors shall be three floors or 50 feet (15.3 m), whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Building anchors shall be located vertically so that attachment of the stabilizer ties will not cause the platform suspension ropes to angulate the platform horizontally across the face of the building. The anchors shall be positioned horizontally on the building face so as to be symmetrical about the platform suspension ropes.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Building anchors shall be easily visible to employees and shall allow a stabilizer tie attachment for each of the platform suspension ropes at each vertical interval. If more than two suspension ropes are used on a platform, only the two building-side suspension ropes at the platform ends shall require a stabilizer attachment.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Building anchors which extend beyond the face of the building shall be free of sharp edges or points. Where cables, suspension wire ropes and lifelines may be in contact with the building face, external building anchors shall not interfere with their handling or operation.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The intermittent stabilization system building anchors and components shall be capable of sustaining without failure at least four times the maximum anticipated load applied or transmitted to the components and anchors. The minimum design wind load for each anchor shall be 300 (1334 n) pounds, if two anchors share the wind load.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The building anchors and stabilizer ties shall be capable of sustaining anticipated horizontal and vertical loads from winds specified for roof storage design which may act on the platform and wire ropes if the platform is stranded on a building face. If the building anchors have different spacing than the suspension wire rope or if the building requires different suspension spacings on one platform, one building anchor and stabilizer tie shall be capable of sustaining the wind loads.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See figure 2 in appendix B of this section for a description of a typical intermittent stabilization system.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Button guide stabilization system.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Guide buttons shall be coordinated with platform mounted equipment of paragraph (f)(5)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Guide buttons shall be located horizontally on the building face so as to allow engagement of each of the guide tracks mounted on the platform.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Guide buttons shall be located in vertical rows on the building face for proper engagement of the guide tracks mounted on the platform.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Two guide buttons shall engage each guide track at all times except for the initial engagement.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Guide buttons which extend beyond the face of the building shall be free of sharp edges or points. Where cables, ropes and lifelines may be in contact with the building face, guide buttons shall not interfere with their handling or operation.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Guide buttons, connections and seals shall be capable of sustaining without damage at least the weight of the platform, or provision shall be made in the guide tracks or guide track connectors to prevent the platform and its attachments from transmitting the weight of the platform to the guide buttons, connections and seals. In either case, the minimum design load shall be 300 pounds (1334 n) per building anchor.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See paragraph (f)(5)(vi) of this section for relevant equipment provisions.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See figure 3 in appendix B of this section for a description of a typical button guide stabilization system.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) System utilizing angulated roping and building face rollers. The system shall keep the equipment in continuous contact with the building facade, and shall prevent sudden horizontal movement of the platform. This system is acceptable only where the suspended portion of the equipment in use does not exceed 130 feet (39.6 m) above a safe surface or ground level, and where the platform maintains no less than 10 pounds (44.4 n) angulation force on the building facade.
</P>
<P>(iv) Tie-in guides for building interiors (atriums) may be eliminated when a registered professional engineer determines that an alternative stabilization system, including systems in paragraphs (e)(2)(iii) (A), (B) and (C), or a platform tie-off at each work station will provide equivalent safety.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Roof guarding.</I> (i) Employees working on roofs while performing building maintenance shall be protected by a perimeter guarding system which meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of § 1910.23 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The perimeter guard shall not be more than six inches (152 mm) inboard of the inside face of a barrier, i.e. the parapet wall, or roof edge curb of the building being serviced; however, the perimeter guard location shall not exceed an 18 inch (457 mm) setback from the exterior building face.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equipment stops.</I> Operational areas for trackless type equipment shall be provided with structural stops, such as curbs, to prevent equipment from traveling outside its intended travel areas and to prevent a crushing or shearing hazard.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Maintenance access.</I> Means shall be provided to traverse all carriages and their suspended equipment to a safe area for maintenance and storage.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Elevated track.</I> (i) An elevated track system which is located four feet (1.2 m) or more above a safe surface, and traversed by carriage supported equipment, shall be provided with a walkway and guardrail system; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The working platform shall be capable of being lowered, as part of its normal operation, to the lower safe surface for access and egress of the personnel and shall be provided with a safe means of access and egress to the lower safe surface.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Tie-down anchors.</I> Imbedded tie-down anchors, fasteners, and affected structures shall be resistant to corrosion.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cable stabilization.</I> (i) Hanging lifelines and all cables not in tension shall be stabilized at each 200 foot (61 m) interval of vertical travel of the working platform beyond an initial 200 foot (61 m) distance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hanging cables, other than suspended wire ropes, which are in constant tension shall be stabilized when the vertical travel exceeds an initial 600 foot (183 m) distance, and at further intervals of 600 feet (183 m) or less.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Emergency planning.</I> A written emergency action plan shall be developed and implemented for each kind of working platform operation. This plan shall explain the emergency procedures which are to be followed in the event of a power failure, equipment failure or other emergencies which may be encountered. The plan shall also explain that employees inform themselves about the building emergency escape routes, procedures and alarm systems before operating a platform. Upon initial assignment and whenever the plan is changed the employer shall review with each employee those parts of the plan which the employee must know to protect himself or herself in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Building maintenance.</I> Repairs or major maintenance of those building portions that provide primary support for the suspended equipment shall not affect the capability of the building to meet the requirements of this standard.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Electrical requirements.</I> The following electrical requirements apply to buildings which utilize working platforms for building maintenance.
</P>
<P>(i) General building electrical installations shall comply with §§ 1910.302 through 1910.308 of this part, unless otherwise specified in this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Building electrical wiring shall be of such capacity that when full load is applied to the equipment power circuit not more than a five percent drop from building service-vault voltage shall occur at any power circuit outlet used by equipment regulated by this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The equipment power circuit shall be an independent electrical circuit that shall remain separate from all other equipment within or on the building, other than power circuits used for hand tools that will be used in conjunction with the equipment. If the building is provided with an emergency power system, the equipment power circuit may also be connected to this system;
</P>
<P>(iv) The power circuit shall be provided with a disconnect switch that can be locked in the “OFF” and “ON” positions. The switch shall be conveniently located with respect to the primary operating area of the equipment to allow the operators of the equipment access to the switch;
</P>
<P>(v) The disconnect switch for the power circuit shall be locked in the “ON” position when the equipment is in use; and
</P>
<P>(vi) An effective two-way voice communication system shall be provided between the equipment operators and persons stationed within the building being serviced. The communications facility shall be operable and shall be manned at all times by persons stationed within the building whenever the platform is being used.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Powered platform installations—Equipment</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The following requirements apply to equipment which are part of a powered platform installation, such as platforms, stabilizing components, carriages, outriggers, davits, hoisting machines, wire ropes and electrical components.
</P>
<P>(i) Equipment installations shall be designed by or under the direction of a registered professional engineer experienced in such design;
</P>
<P>(ii) The design shall provide for a minimum live load of 250 pounds (113.6 kg) for each occupant of a suspended or supported platform;
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment that is exposed to wind when not in service shall be designed to withstand forces generated by winds of at least 100 miles per hour (44.7 m/s) at 30 feet (9.2 m) above grade; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Equipment that is exposed to wind when in service shall be designed to withstand forces generated by winds of at least 50 miles per hour (22.4 m/s) for all elevations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Construction requirements.</I> Bolted connections shall be self-locking or shall otherwise be secured to prevent loss of the connections by vibration.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Suspension methods.</I> Elevated building maintenance equipment shall be suspended by a carriage, outriggers, davits or an equivalent method.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Carriages.</I> Carriages used for suspension of elevated building maintenance equipment shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The horizontal movement of a carriage shall be controlled so as to ensure its safe movement and allow accurate positioning of the platform for vertical travel or storage;
</P>
<P>(B) Powered carriages shall not exceed a traversing speed of 50 feet per minute (0.3 m/s);
</P>
<P>(C) The initiation of a traversing movement for a manually propelled carriage on a smooth level surface shall not require a person to exert a horizontal force greater than 40 pounds (444.8 n);
</P>
<P>(D) Structural stops and curbs shall be provided to prevent the traversing of the carriage beyond its designed limits of travel;
</P>
<P>(E) Traversing controls for a powered carriage shall be of a continuous pressure weatherproof type. Multiple controls when provided shall be arranged to permit operation from only one control station at a time. An emergency stop device shall be provided on each end of a powered carriage for interrupting power to the carriage drive motors;
</P>
<P>(F) The operating controls(s) shall be so connected that in the case of suspended equipment, traversing of a carriage is not possible until the suspended portion of the equipment is located at its uppermost designed position for traversing; and is free of contact with the face of the building or building guides. In addition, all protective devices and interlocks are to be in the proper position to allow traversing of the carriage;
</P>
<P>(G) Stability for underfoot supported carriages shall be obtained by gravity, by an attachment to a structural support, or by a combination of gravity and a structural support. The use of flowing counterweights to achieve stability is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The stability factor against overturning shall not be less than two for horizontal traversing of the carriage, including the effects of impact and wind.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The carriages and their anchorages shall be capable of resisting accidental over-tensioning of the wire ropes suspending the working platform, and this calculated value shall include the effect of one and one-half times the stall capacity of the hoist motor. All parts of the installation shall be capable of withstanding without damage to any part of the installation the forces resulting from the stall load of the hoist and one half the wind load.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Roof carriages which rely on having tie-down devices secured to the building to develop the required stability against overturning shall be provided with an interlock which will prevent vertical platform movement unless the tie-down is engaged;
</P>
<P>(H) An automatically applied braking or locking system, or equivalent, shall be provided that will prevent unintentional traversing of power traversed or power assisted carriages;
</P>
<P>(I) A manual or automatic braking or locking system or equivalent, shall be provided that will prevent unintentional traversing of manually propelled carriages;
</P>
<P>(J) A means to lock out the power supply for the carriage shall be provided;
</P>
<P>(K) Safe access to and egress from the carriage shall be provided from a safe surface. If the carriage traverses an elevated area, any operating area on the carriage shall be protected by a guardrail system in compliance with the provisions of paragraph (f)(5)(i)(F) of this section. Any access gate shall be self-closing and self-latching, or provided with an interlock;
</P>
<P>(L) Each carriage work station position shall be identified by location markings and/or position indicators; and
</P>
<P>(M) The motors shall stall if the load on the hoist motors is at any time in excess of three times that necessary for lifting the working platform with its rated load.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transportable outriggers.</I> (A) Transportable outriggers may be used as a method of suspension for ground rigged working platforms where the point of suspension does not exceed 300 feet (91.5 m) above a safe surface. Tie-in guide system(s) shall be provided which meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Transportable outriggers shall be used only with self-powered, ground rigged working platforms.
</P>
<P>(C) Each transportable outrigger shall be secured with a tie-down to a verified anchorage on the building during the entire period of its use. The anchorage shall be designed to have a stability factor of not less than four against overturning or upsetting of the outrigger.
</P>
<P>(D) Access to and egress from the working platform shall be from and to a safe surface below the point of suspension.
</P>
<P>(E) Each transportable outrigger shall be designed for lateral stability to prevent roll-over in the event an accidental lateral load is applied to the outrigger. The accidental lateral load to be considered in this design shall be not less than 70 percent of the rated load of the hoist.
</P>
<P>(F) Each transportable outrigger shall be designed to support an ultimate load of not less than four times the rated load of the hoist.
</P>
<P>(G) Each transportable outrigger shall be so located that the suspension wire ropes for two point suspended working platforms are hung parallel.
</P>
<P>(H) A transportable outrigger shall be tied-back to a verified anchorage on the building with a rope equivalent in strength to the suspension rope.
</P>
<P>(I) The tie-back rope shall be installed parallel to the centerline of the outrigger.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Davits.</I> (A) Every davit installation, fixed or transportable, rotatable or non-rotatable shall be designed and installed to insure that it has a stability factor against overturning of not less than four.
</P>
<P>(B) The following requirements apply to roof rigged davit systems:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Access to and egress from the working platform shall be from a safe surface. Access or egress shall not require persons to climb over a building's parapet or guard railing; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The working platform shall be provided with wheels, casters or a carriage for traversing horizontally.
</P>
<P>(C) The following requirements apply to ground rigged davit systems:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The point of suspension shall not exceed 300 feet (91.5 m) above a safe surface. Guide system(s) shall be provided which meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Access and egress to and from the working platform shall only be from a safe surface below the point of suspension.
</P>
<P>(D) A rotating davit shall not require a horizontal force in excess of 40 pounds (177.9 n) per person to initiate a rotating movement.
</P>
<P>(E) The following requirements shall apply to transportable davits:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A davit or part of a davit weighing more than 80 pounds (36 kg) shall be provided with a means for its transport, which shall keep the center of gravity of the davit at or below 36 inches (914 mm) above the safe surface during transport;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A davit shall be provided with a pivoting socket or with a base that will allow the insertion or removal of a davit at a position of not more than 35 degrees above the horizontal, with the complete davit inboard of the building face being serviced; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Means shall be provided to lock the davit to its socket or base before it is used to suspend the platform.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hoisting machines.</I> (i) Raising and lowering of suspended or supported equipment shall be performed only by a hoisting machine.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each hoisting machine shall be capable of arresting any overspeed descent of the load.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each hoisting machine shall be powered only by air, electric or hydraulic sources.
</P>
<P>(iv) Flammable liquids shall not be carried on the working platform.
</P>
<P>(v) Each hoisting machine shall be capable of raising or lowering 125 percent of the rated load of the hoist.
</P>
<P>(vi) Moving parts of a hoisting machine shall be enclosed or guarded in compliance with paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of § 1910.212 of this part.
</P>
<P>(vii) Winding drums, traction drums and sheaves and directional sheaves used in conjunction with hoisting machines shall be compatible with, and sized for, the wire rope used.
</P>
<P>(viii) Each winding drum shall be provided with a positive means of attaching the wire rope to the drum. The attachment shall be capable of developing at least four times the rated load of the hoist.
</P>
<P>(ix) Each hoisting machine shall be provided with a primary brake and at least one independent secondary brake, each capable of stopping and holding not less than 125 percent of the lifting capacity of the hoist.
</P>
<P>(A) The primary brake shall be directly connected to the drive train of the hoisting machine, and shall not be connected through belts, chains, clutches, or set screw type devices. The brake shall automatically set when power to the prime mover is interrupted.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The secondary brake shall be an automatic emergency type of brake that, if actuated during each stopping cycle, shall not engage before the hoist is stopped by the primary brake.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When a secondary brake is actuated, it shall stop and hold the platform within a vertical distance of 24 inches (609.6 mm).
</P>
<P>(x) Any component of a hoisting machine which requires lubrication for its protection and proper functioning shall be provided with a means for that lubrication to be applied.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Suspended equipment</I>—(i) <I>General requirements.</I> (A) Each suspended unit component, except suspension ropes and guardrail systems, shall be capable of supporting, without failure, at least four times the maximum intended live load applied or transmitted to that component.
</P>
<P>(B) Each suspended unit component shall be constructed of materials that will withstand anticipated weather conditions.
</P>
<P>(C) Each suspended unit shall be provided with a load rating plate, conspicuously located, stating the unit weight and rated load of the suspended unit.
</P>
<P>(D) When the suspension points on a suspended unit are not at the unit ends, the unit shall be capable of remaining continuously stable under all conditions of use and position of the live load, and shall maintain at least a 1.5 to 1 stability factor against unit upset.
</P>
<P>(E) Guide rollers, guide shoes or building face rollers shall be provided, and shall compensate for variations in building dimensions and for minor horizontal out-of-level variations of each suspended unit.
</P>
<P>(F) Each working platform of a suspended unit shall be secured to the building facade by one or more of the following methods, or by an equivalent method:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Continuous engagement to building anchors as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Intermittent engagement to building anchors as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Button guide engagement as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Angulated roping and building face rollers as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(G) Each working platform of a suspended unit shall be provided with a guardrail system on all sides which shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The system shall consist of a top guardrail, midrail, and a toeboard;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The top guardrail shall not be less than 36 inches (914 mm) high and shall be able to withstand at least a 100-pound (444 n) force in any downward or outward direction;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The midrail shall be able to withstand at least a 75-pound (333 n) force in any downward or outward direction; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The areas between the guardrail and toeboard on the ends and outboard side, and the area between the midrail and toeboard on the inboard side, shall be closed with a material that is capable of withstanding a load of 100 pounds (45.4 KG.) applied horizontally over any area of one square foot (.09 m
<SU>2</SU>). The material shall have all openings small enough to reject passage of life lines and potential falling objects which may be hazardous to persons below.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Toeboards shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 50 pounds (222 n) applied in any downward or horizontal direction at any point along the toeboard.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Toeboards shall be three and one-half inches (9 cm) minimum in length from their top edge to the level of the platform floor.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Toeboards shall be securely fastened in place at the outermost edge of the platform and have no more than one-half inch (1.3 cm) clearance above the platform floor.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Toeboards shall be solid or with an opening not over one inch (2.5 cm) in the greatest dimension.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Two and four-point suspended working platforms.</I> (A) The working platform shall be not less than 24 inches (610 mm) wide and shall be provided with a minimum of a 12 inch (305 mm) wide passage at or past any obstruction on the platform.
</P>
<P>(B) The flooring shall be of a slip-resistant type and shall contain no opening that would allow the passage of life lines, cables and other potential falling objects. If a larger opening is provided, it shall be protected by placing a material under the opening which shall prevent the passage of life lines, cables and potential falling objects.
</P>
<P>(C) The working platfrom shall be provided with a means of suspension that will restrict the platform's inboard to outboard roll about its longitudinal axis to a maximum of 15 degrees from a horizontal plane when moving the live load from the inboard to the outboard side of the platform.
</P>
<P>(D) Any cable suspended from above the platform shall be provided with a means for storage to prevent accumulation of the cable on the floor of the platform.
</P>
<P>(E) All operating controls for the vertical travel of the platform shall be of the continuous-pressure type, and shall be located on the platform.
</P>
<P>(F) Each operating station of every working platform shall be provided with a means of interrupting the power supply to all hoist motors to stop any further powered ascent or descent of the platform.
</P>
<P>(G) The maximum rated speed of the platform shall not exceed 50 feet per minute (0.3 ms) with single speed hoists, nor 75 feet per minute (0.4 ms) with multi-speed hoists.
</P>
<P>(H) Provisions shall be made for securing all tools, water tanks, and other accessories to prevent their movement or accumulation on the floor of the platform.
</P>
<P>(I) Portable fire extinguishers conforming to the provisions of §§ 1910.155 and 1910.157 of this part shall be provided and securely attached on all working platforms.
</P>
<P>(J) Access to and egress from a working platfrom, except for those that land directly on a safe surface, shall be provided by stairs, ladders, platforms and runways conforming to the provisions of subpart D of this part. Access gates shall be self-closing and self-latching.
</P>
<P>(K) Means of access to or egress from a working platform which is 48 inches (1.2 m) or more above a safe surface shall be provided with a guardrail system or ladder handrails that conform to the provisions of subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(L) The platform shall be provided with a secondary wire rope suspension system if the platform contains overhead structures which restrict the emergency egress of employees. A horizontal lifeline or a direct connection anchorage shall be provided as part of a personal fall arrest system that meets the requirements of subpart I of this part for each employee on such a platform.
</P>
<P>(M) A vertical lifeline shall be provided as part of a personal fall arrest system that meets the requirements of subpart I of this part for each employee on a working platform suspended by two or more wire ropes, if the failure of one wire rope or suspension attachment will cause the platform to upset. If a secondary wire rope suspension is used, vertical lifelines are not required for the personal fall arrest system, provided that each employee is attached to a horizontal lifeline anchored to the platform.
</P>
<P>(N) An emergency electric operating device shall be provided on roof powered platforms near the hoisting machine for use in the event of failure of the normal operating device located on the working platform, or failure of the cable connected to the platform. The emergency electric operating device shall be mounted in a secured compartment, and the compartment shall be labeled with instructions for use. A means for opening the compartment shall be mounted in a break-glass receptable located near the emergency electric operating device or in an equivalent secure and accessible location.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Single point suspended working platforms.</I> (A) The requirements of paragraphs (f)(5)(ii) (A) through (K) of this section shall also apply to a single point working platform.
</P>
<P>(B) Each single point suspended working platform shall be provided with a secondary wire rope suspension system which will prevent the working platform from falling should there be a failure of the primary means of support, or if the platform contains overhead structures which restrict the egress of the employees. A horizontal life line or a direct connection anchorage shall be provided as part of a personal fall arrest system that meets the requirements of subpart I of this part for each employee on the platform.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Ground-rigged working platforms.</I> (A) Groundrigged working platforms shall comply with all the requirements of paragraphs (f)(5)(ii) (A) through (M) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) After each day's use, the power supply within the building shall be disconnected from a ground-rigged working platform, and the platform shall be either disengaged from its suspension points or secured and stored at grade.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Intermittently stabilized platforms.</I> (A) The platform shall comply with paragraphs (F)(5)(ii) (A) through (M) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Each stabilizer tie shall be equipped with a “quick connect-quick disconnect” device which cannot be accidently disengaged, for attachment to the building anchor, and shall be resistant to adverse environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(C) The platform shall be provided with a stopping device that will interrupt the hoist power supply in the event the platform contacts a stabilizer tie during its ascent.
</P>
<P>(D) Building face rollers shall not be placed at the anchor setting if exterior anchors are used on the building face.
</P>
<P>(E) Stabilizer ties used on intermittently stabilized platforms shall allow for the specific attachment length needed to effect the predetermined angulation of the suspended wire rope. The specific attachment length shall be maintained at all building anchor locations.
</P>
<P>(F) The platform shall be in continuous contact with the face of the building during ascent and descent.
</P>
<P>(G) The attachment and removal of stabilizer ties shall not require the horizontal movement of the platform.
</P>
<P>(H) The platform-mounted equipment and its suspension wire ropes shall not be physically damaged by the loads from the stabilizer tie or its building anchor. The platform, platform mounted equipment and wire ropes shall be able to withstand a load that is at least twice the ultimate strength of the stabilizer tie.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See figure II in appendix B of this section for a description of a typical intermittent stabilization system.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) <I>Button-guide stabilized platforms.</I> (A) The platform shall comply with paragraphs (f)(5)(ii) (A) through (M) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Each guide track on the platform shall engage a minimum of two guide buttons during any vertical travel of the platform following the initial button engagement.
</P>
<P>(C) Each guide track on a platform that is part of a roof rigged system shall be provided with a storage position on the platform.
</P>
<P>(D) Each guide track on the platform shall be sufficiently maneuverable by platform occupants to permit easy engagement of the guide buttons, and easy movement into and out of its storage position on the platform.
</P>
<P>(E) Two guide tracks shall be mounted on the platform and shall provide continuous contact with the building face.
</P>
<P>(F) The load carrying components of the button guide stabilization system which transmit the load into the platform shall be capable of supporting the weight of the platform, or provision shall be made in the guide track connectors or platform attachments to prevent the weight of the platform from being transmitted to the platform attachments.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See figure III in appendix B of this section for a description of a typical button guide stabilization system.</P></NOTE>
<P>(6) <I>Supported equipment.</I> (i) Supported equipment shall maintain a vertical position in respect to the face of the building by means other than friction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cog wheels or equivalent means shall be incorporated to provide climbing traction between the supported equipment and the building guides. Additional guide wheels or shoes shall be incorporated as may be necessary to ensure that the drive wheels are continuously held in positive engagement with the building guides.
</P>
<P>(iii) Launch guide mullions indexed to the building guides and retained in alignment with the building guides shall be used to align drive wheels entering the building guides.
</P>
<P>(iv) Manned platforms used on supported equipment shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (f)(5)(ii)(A), (f)(5)(ii)(B), and (f)(5)(ii) (D) through (K) of this section covering suspended equipment.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Suspension wire ropes and rope connections.</I> (i) Each specific installation shall use suspension wire ropes or combination cable and connections meeting the specification recommended by the manufacturer of the hoisting machine used. Connections shall be capable of developing at least 80 percent of the rated breaking strength of the wire rope.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each suspension rope shall have a “Design Factor” of at least 10. The “Design Factor” is the ratio of the rated strength of the suspension wire rope to the rated working load, and shall be calculated using the following formula:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="30" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er25se06.005.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>F = Design factor
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S = Manufacturer's rated strength of one suspension rope
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = Number of suspension ropes under load
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = Rated working load on all ropes at any point of travel</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Suspension wire rope grade shall be at least improved plow steel or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(iv) Suspension wire ropes shall be sized to conform with the required design factor, but shall not be less than 
<FR>5/16</FR> inch (7.94 mm) in diameter.
</P>
<P>(v) No more than one reverse bend in six wire rope lays shall be permitted.
</P>
<P>(vi) A corrosion-resistant tag shall be securely attached to one of the wire rope fastenings when a suspension wire rope is to be used at a specific location and will remain in that location. This tag shall bear the following wire rope data:
</P>
<P>(A) The diameter (inches and/or mm);
</P>
<P>(B) Construction classification;
</P>
<P>(C) Whether non-preformed or preformed;
</P>
<P>(D) The grade of material;
</P>
<P>(E) The manufacturer's rated strength;
</P>
<P>(F) The manufacturer's name;
</P>
<P>(G) The month and year the ropes were installed; and
</P>
<P>(H) The name of the person or company which installed the ropes.
</P>
<P>(vii) A new tag shall be installed at each rope renewal.
</P>
<P>(viii) The original tag shall be stamped with the date of the resocketing, or the original tag shall be retained and a supplemental tag shall be provided when ropes are resocketed. The supplemental tag shall show the date of resocketing and the name of the person or company that resocketed the rope.
</P>
<P>(ix) Winding drum type hoists shall contain at least three wraps of the suspension wire rope on the drum when the suspended unit has reached the lowest possible point of its vertical travel.
</P>
<P>(x) Traction drum and sheave type hoists shall be provided with a wire rope of sufficient length to reach the lowest possible point of vertical travel of the suspended unit, and an additional length of the wire rope of at least four feet (1.2 m).
</P>
<P>(xi) The lengthening or repairing of suspension wire ropes is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xii) Babbitted fastenings for suspension wire rope are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Control circuits, power circuits and their components.</I> (i) Electrical wiring and equipment shall comply with subpart S of this part, except as otherwise required by this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical runway conductor systems shall be of a type designed for use in exterior locations, and shall be located so that they do not come into contact with accumulated snow or water.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cables shall be protected against damage resulting from overtensioning or from other causes.
</P>
<P>(iv) Devices shall be included in the control system for the equipment which will provide protection against electrical overloads, three phase reversal and phase failure. The control system shall have a separate method, independent of the direction control circuit, for breaking the power circuit in case of an emergency or malfunction.
</P>
<P>(v) Suspended or supported equipment shall have a control system which will require the operator of the equipment to follow predetermined procedures.
</P>
<P>(vi) The following requirements shall apply to electrical protection devices:
</P>
<P>(A) On installations where the carriage does not have a stability factor of at least four against overturning, electrical contact(s) shall be provided and so connected that the operating devices for the suspended or supported equipment shall be operative only when the carriage is located and mechanically retained at an established operating point.
</P>
<P>(B) Overload protection shall be provided in the hoisting or suspension system to protect against the equipment operating in the “up” direction with a load in excess of 125 percent of the rated load of the platform; and
</P>
<P>(C) An automatic detector shall be provided for each suspension point that will interrupt power to all hoisting motors for travel in the “down” direction, and apply the primary brakes if any suspension wire rope becomes slack. A continuous-pressure rigging-bypass switch designed for use during rigging is permitted. This switch shall only be used during rigging.
</P>
<P>(vii) Upper and lower directional switches designed to prevent the travel of suspended units beyond safe upward and downward levels shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(viii) Emergency stop switches shall be provided on remote controlled, roof-powered manned platforms adjacent to each control station on the platform.
</P>
<P>(ix) Cables which are in constant tension shall have overload devices which will prevent the tension in the cable from interfering with the load limiting device required in paragraph (f)(8)(vi)(B) of this section, or with the platform roll limiting device required in paragraph (f)(5)(ii)(C) of this section. The setting of these devices shall be coordinated with other overload settings at the time of design of the system, and shall be clearly indicated on or near the device. The device shall interrupt the equipment travel in the “down” direction.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Inspection and tests</I>—(1) <I>Installations and alterations.</I> All completed building maintenance equipment installations shall be inspected and tested in the field before being placed in initial service to determine that all parts of the installation conform to applicable requirements of this standard, and that all safety and operating equipment is functioning as required. A similar inspection and test shall be made following any major alteration to an existing installation. No hoist in an installation shall be subjected to a load in excess of 125 percent of its rated load.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic inspections and tests.</I> (i) Related building supporting structures shall undergo periodic inspection by a competent person at intervals not exceeding 12 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) All parts of the equipment including control systems shall be inspected, and, where necessary, tested by a competent person at intervals specified by the manufacturer/supplier, but not to exceed 12 months, to determine that they are in safe operating condition. Parts subject to wear, such as wire ropes, bearings, gears, and governors shall be inspected and/or tested to determine that they have not worn to such an extent as to affect the safe operation of the installation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The building owner shall keep a certification record of each inspection and test required under paragraphs (g)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. The certification record shall include the date of the inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection, and the number, or other identifier, of the building support structure and equipment which was inspected. This certification record shall be kept readily available for review by the Assistant Secretary of Labor or the Assistant Secretary's representative and by the employer.
</P>
<P>(iv) Working platforms and their components shall be inspected by the employer for visible defects before every use and after each occurrence which could affect the platform's structural integrity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Maintenance inspections and tests.</I> (i) A maintenance inspection and, where necessary, a test shall be made of each platform installation every 30 days, or where the work cycle is less than 30 days such inspection and/or test shall be made prior to each work cycle. This inspection and test shall follow procedures recommended by the manufacturer, and shall be made by a competent person.
</P>
<P>(ii) The building owner shall keep a certification record of each inspection and test performed under paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section. The certification record shall include the date of the inspection and test, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and/or test, and an identifier for the platform installation which was inspected. The certification record shall be kept readily available for review by the Assistant Secretary of Labor or the Assistant Secretary's representative and by the employer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special inspection of governors and secondary brakes.</I> (i) Governors and secondary brakes shall be inspected and tested at intervals specified by the manufacturer/supplier but not to exceed every 12 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of the inspection and test shall confirm that the initiating device for the secondary braking system operates at the proper overspeed.
</P>
<P>(iii) The results of the inspection and test shall confirm that the secondary brake is functioning properly.
</P>
<P>(iv) If any hoisting machine or initiating device for the secondary brake system is removed from the equipment for testing, all reinstalled and directly related components shall be reinspected prior to returning the equipment installation to service.
</P>
<P>(v) Inspection of governors and secondary brakes shall be performed by a competent person.
</P>
<P>(vi) The secondary brake governor and actuation device shall be tested before each day's use. Where testing is not feasible, a visual inspection of the brake shall be made instead to ensure that it is free to operate.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Suspension wire rope maintenance, inspection and replacement.</I> (i) Suspension wire rope shall be maintained and used in accordance with procedures recommended by the wire rope manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Suspension wire rope shall be inspected by a competent person for visible defects and gross damage to the rope before every use and after each occurrence which might affect the wire rope's integrity.
</P>
<P>(iii) A thorough inspection of suspension wire ropes in service shall be made once a month. Suspension wire ropes that have been inactive for 30 days or longer shall have a thorough inspection before they are placed into service. These thorough inspections of suspension wire ropes shall be performed by a competent person.
</P>
<P>(iv) The need for replacement of a suspension wire rope shall be determined by inspection and shall be based on the condition of the wire rope. Any of the following conditions or combination of conditions will be cause for removal of the wire rope:
</P>
<P>(A) Broken wires exceeding three wires in one strand or six wires in one rope lay;
</P>
<P>(B) Distortion of rope structure such as would result from crushing or kinking;
</P>
<P>(C) Evidence of heat damage;
</P>
<P>(D) Evidence of rope deterioration from corrosion;
</P>
<P>(E) A broken wire within 18 inches (460.8 mm) of the end attachments;
</P>
<P>(F) Noticeable rusting and pitting;
</P>
<P>(G) Evidence of core failure (a lengthening of rope lay, protrusion of the rope core and a reduction in rope diameter suggests core failure); or
</P>
<P>(H) More than one valley break (broken wire).
</P>
<P>(I) Outer wire wear exceeds one-third of the original outer wire diameter.
</P>
<P>(J) Any other condition which the competent person determines has significantly affected the integrity of the rope.
</P>
<P>(v) The building owner shall keep a certification record of each monthly inspection of a suspension wire rope as required in paragraph (g)(5)(iii) of this section. The record shall include the date of the inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection, and a number, or other identifier, of the wire rope which was inspected. This record of inspection shall be made available for review by the Assistant Secretary of Labor or the Assistant Secretary's representative and by the employer.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Hoist inspection.</I> Before lowering personnel below the top elevation of the building, the hoist shall be tested each day in the lifting direction with the intended load to make certain it has sufficient capacity to raise the personnel back to the boarding level.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Maintenance</I>—(1) <I>General maintenance.</I> All parts of the equipment affecting safe operation shall be maintained in proper working order so that they may perform the functions for which they were intended. The equipment shall be taken out of service when it is not in proper working order.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning.</I> (i) Control or power contactors and relays shall be kept clean.
</P>
<P>(ii) All other parts shall be kept clean if their proper functioning would be affected by the presence of dirt or other contaminants.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic resocketing of wire rope fastenings.</I> (i) Hoisting ropes utilizing poured socket fastenings shall be resocketed at the non-drum ends at intervals not exceeding 24 months. In resocketing the ropes, a sufficient length shall be cut from the end of the rope to remove damaged or fatigued portions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Resocketed ropes shall conform to the requirements of paragraph (f)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Limit switches affected by the resocketed ropes shall be reset, if necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periodic reshackling of suspension wire ropes.</I> The hoisting ropes shall be reshackled at the nondrum ends at intervals not exceeding 24 months. When reshackling the ropes, a sufficient length shall be cut from the end of the rope to remove damaged or fatigued portions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Roof systems.</I> Roof track systems, tie-downs, or similar equipment shall be maintained in proper working order so that they perform the function for which they were intended.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Building face guiding members.</I> T-rails, indented mullions, or equivalent guides located in the face of a building shall be maintained in proper working order so that they perform the functions for which they were intended. Brackets for cable stabilizers shall similarly be maintained in proper working order.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Inoperative safety devices.</I> No person shall render a required safety device or electrical protective device inoperative, except as necessary for tests, inspections, and maintenance. Immediately upon completion of such tests, inspections and maintenance, the device shall be restored to its normal operating condition.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Operations</I>—(1) <I>Training.</I> (i) Working platforms shall be operated only by persons who are proficient in the operation, safe use and inspection of the particular working platform to be operated.
</P>
<P>(ii) All employees who operate working platforms shall be trained in the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Recognition of, and preventive measures for, the safety hazards associated with their individual work tasks.
</P>
<P>(B) General recognition and prevention of safety hazards associated with the use of working platforms, including the provisions in the section relating to the particular working platform to be operated.
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency action plan procedures required in paragraph (e)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Work procedures required in paragraph (i)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) Personal fall arrest system inspection, care, use and system performance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Training of employees in the operation and inspection of working platforms shall be done by a competent person.
</P>
<P>(iv) Written work procedures for the operation, safe use and inspection of working platforms shall be provided for employee training. Pictorial methods of instruction, may be used, in lieu of written work procedures, if employee communication is improved using this method. The operating manuals supplied by manufacturers for platform system components can serve as the basis for these procedures.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall certify that employees have been trained in operating and inspecting a working platform by preparing a certification record which includes the identity of the person trained, the signature of the employer or the person who conducted the training and the date that training was completed. The certification record shall be prepared at the completion of the training required in paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section, and shall be maintained in a file for the duration of the employee's employment. The certification record shall be kept readily available for review by the Assistant Secretary of Labor or the Assistant Secretary's representative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use.</I> (i) Working platforms shall not be loaded in excess of the rated load, as stated on the platform load rating plate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees shall be prohibited from working on snow, ice, or other slippery material covering platforms, except for the removal of such materials.
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate precautions shall be taken to protect the platform, wire ropes and life lines from damage due to acids or other corrosive substances, in accordance with the recommendations of the corrosive substance producer, supplier, platform manufacturer or other equivalent information sources. Platform members which have been exposed to acids or other corrosive substances shall be washed down with a neutralizing solution, at a frequency recommended by the corrosive substance producer or supplier.
</P>
<P>(iv) Platform members, wire ropes and life lines shall be protected when using a heat producing process. Wire ropes and life lines which have been contacted by the heat producing process shall be considered to be permanently damaged and shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(v) The platform shall not be operated in winds in excess of 25 miles per hour (40.2 km/hr) except to move it from an operating to a storage position. Wind speed shall be determined based on the best available information, which includes on-site anemometer readings and local weather forecasts which predict wind velocities for the area.
</P>
<P>(vi) On exterior installations, an anemometer shall be mounted on the platform to provide information of on-site wind velocities prior to and during the use of the platform. The anemometer may be a portable (hand held) unit which is temporarily mounted during platform use.
</P>
<P>(vii) Tools, materials and debris not related to the work in progress shall not be allowed to accumulate on platforms. Stabilizer ties shall be located so as to allow unencumbered passage along the full length of the platform and shall be of such length so as not to become entangled in rollers, hoists or other machinery.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Personal fall protection.</I> Employees on working platforms shall be protected by a personal fall arrest system meeting the requirements of subpart I of this part and as otherwise provided by this standard.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.66, Guidelines (Advisory)
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Use of the Appendix.</I> Appendix A provides examples of equipment and methods to assist the employer in meeting the requirements of the indicated provision of the standard. Employers may use other equipment or procedures which conform to the requirements of the standard. This appendix neither adds to nor detracts from the mandatory requirements set forth in § 1910.66.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assurance.</I> Paragraph (c) of the standard requires the building owner to inform the employer in writing that the powered platform installation complies with certain requirements of the standard, since the employer may not have the necessary information to make these determinations. The employer, however, remains responsible for meeting these requirements which have not been set off in paragraph (c)(1).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Design Requirements.</I> The design requirements for each installation should be based on the limitations (stresses, deflections, etc.), established by nationally recognized standards as promulgated by the following organizations, or to equivalent standards:
</P>
<FP-1>AA—The Aluminum Association, 818 Connecticut Avenue, NW., Washington, DC, 20006
</FP-1>
<FP>Aluminum Construction Manual
</FP>
<FP>Specifications For Aluminum Structures
</FP>
<FP>Aluminum Standards and Data
</FP>
<FP-1>AGMA—American Gear Manufacturers Association, 101 North Fort Meyer Dr., Suite 1000, Arlington, VA 22209
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AISC—American Institute of Steel Construction, 400 North Michigan Avenue, Chicago, IL 60611
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ANSI—American National Standards Institute, Inc., 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASCE—American Society of Civil Engineers, 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASME—American Society of Mechanical Engineers, 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASTM—American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AWS—American Welding Society, Inc., Box 351040, 550 NW. LeJeunne Road, Miami, FL 33126
</FP-1>
<FP-1>JIC—Joint Industrial Council, 2139 Wisconsin Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20007
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NEMA—National Electric Manufacturers Association, 2101 L Street, NW., Washington, DC 20037
</FP-1>
<P>4. <I>Tie-in-guides.</I> Indented mullions, T-rails or other equivalent guides are acceptable as tie-in guides in a building face for a continuous stabilization system. Internal guides are embedded in other building members with only the opening exposed (see Figure 1 of appendix B). External guides, however, are installed external to the other building members and so are fully exposed. The minimum opening for tie-in guides is three-quarters of an inch (19 mm), and the minimum inside dimensions are one-inch (25 mm) deep and two inches (50 mm) wide.
</P>
<P>Employers should be aware of the hazards associated with tie-in guides in a continuous stabilization system which was not designed properly. For example, joints in these track systems may become extended or discontinuous due to installation or building settlement. If this alignment problem is not corrected, the system could jam when a guide roller or guide shoe strikes a joint and this would cause a hazardous situation for employees. In another instance, faulty design will result in guide rollers being mounted in a line so they will jam in the track at the slightest misalignment.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Building anchors (intermittent stabilization system).</I> In the selection of the vertical distance between building anchors, certain factors should be given consideration. These factors include building height and architectural design, platform length and weight, wire rope angulation, and the wind velocities in the building area. Another factor to consider is the material of the building face, since this material may be adversely affected by the building rollers.
</P>
<P>External or indented type building anchors are acceptable. Receptacles in the building facade used for the indented type should be kept clear of extraneous materials which will hinder their use. During the inspection of the platform installation, evidence of a failure or abuse of the anchors should be brought to the attention of the employer.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Stabilizer tie length.</I> A stabilizer tie should be long enough to provide for the planned angulation of the suspension cables. However, the length of the tie should not be excessive and become a problem by possibly becoming entangled in the building face rollers or parts of the platform machinery.
</P>
<P>The attachment length may vary due to material elongation and this should be considered when selecting the material to be used. Consideration should also be given to the use of ties which are easily installed by employees, since this will encourage their use.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Intermittent stabilization system.</I> Intermittent stabilization systems may use different equipment, tie-in devices and methods to restrict the horizontal movement of a powered platform with respect to the face of the building. One acceptable method employs corrosion-resistant building anchors secured in the face of the building in vertical rows every third floor or 50 feet (15.3 m), whichever is less. The anchors are spaced horizontally to allow a stabilization attachment (stabilizer tie) for each of the two platform suspension wire ropes. The stabilizer tie consists of two parts. One part is a quick connect-quick disconnect device which utilizes a corrosion-resistant yoke and retainer spring that is designed to fit over the building anchors. The second part of the stabilizer tie is a lanyard which is used to maintain a fixed distance between the suspension wire rope and the face of the building.
</P>
<P>In this method, as the suspended powered platform descends past the elevation of each anchor, the descent is halted and each of the platform occupants secures a stabilizer tie between a suspension wire rope and a building anchor. The procedure is repeated as each elevation of a building anchor is reached during the descent of the powered platform.
</P>
<P>As the platform ascends, the procedure is reversed; that is, the stabilizer ties are removed as each elevation of a building anchor is reached. The removal of each stabilizer tie is assured since the platform is provided with stopping devices which will interrupt power to its hoist(s) in the event either stopping device contacts a stabilizer during the ascent of the platform.
</P>
<P>Figure 2 of appendix B illustrates another type of acceptable intermittent stabilization system which utilizes retaining pins as the quick connect-quick disconnect device in the stabilizer tie.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Wire Rope Inspection.</I> The inspection of the suspension wire rope is important since the rope gradually loses strength during its useful life. The purpose of the inspection is to determine whether the wire rope has sufficient integrity to support a platform with the required design factor.
</P>
<P>If there is any doubt concerning the condition of a wire rope or its ability to perform the required work, the rope should be replaced. The cost of wire rope replacement is quite small if compared to the cost in terms of human injuries, equipment down time and replacement.
</P>
<P>No listing of critical inspection factors, which serve as a basis for wire rope replacement in the standard, can be a substitute for an experienced inspector of wire rope. The listing serves as a user's guide to the accepted standards by which ropes must be judged.
</P>
<P>Rope life can be prolonged if preventive maintenance is performed regularly. Cutting off an appropriate length of rope at the end termination before the core degrades and valley breaks appear minimizes degradation at these sections.
</P>
<P>9. <I>General Maintenance.</I> In meeting the general maintenance requirement in paragraph (h)(1) of the standard, the employer should undertake the prompt replacement of broken, worn and damaged parts, switch contacts, brushes, and short flexible conductors of electrical devices. The components of the electrical service system and traveling cables should be replaced when damaged or significantly abraded. In addition, gears, shafts, bearings, brakes and hoisting drums should be kept in proper alignment.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Training.</I> In meeting the training requirement of paragraph (i)(1) of the standard, employers should use both on the job training and formal classroom training. The written work procedures used for this training should be obtained from the manufacturer, if possible, or prepared as necessary for the employee's information and use.
</P>
<P>Employees who will operate powered platforms with intermittent stabilization systems should receive instruction in the specific ascent and descent procedures involving the assembly and disassembly of the stabilizer ties.
</P>
<P>An acceptable training program should also include employee instruction in basic inspection procedures for the purpose of determining the need for repair and replacement of platform equipment. In addition, the program should cover the inspection, care and use of the personal fall protection equipment required in paragraph (j)(1) of the standard.
</P>
<P>In addition, the training program should also include emergency action plan elements. OSHA brochure #1B3088 (Rev.) 1985, “How to Prepare for Workplace Emergencies,” details the basic steps needed to prepare to handle emergencies in the workplace.
</P>
<P>Following the completion of a training program, the employee should be required to demonstrate competency in operating the equipment safely. Supplemental training of the employee should be provided by the employer, as necessary, if the equipment used or other working conditions should change.
</P>
<P>An employee who is required to work with chemical products on a platform should receive training in proper cleaning procedures, and in the hazards, care and handling of these products. In addition, the employee should be supplied with the appropriate personal protective equipment, such as gloves and eye and face protection.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Suspension and Securing of Powered Platforms (Equivalency).</I> One acceptable method of demonstrating the equivalency of a method of suspending or securing a powered platform, as required in paragraphs (e)(2)(iii), (f)(3) and (f)(5)(i)(F), is to provide an engineering analysis by a registered professional engineer. The analysis should demonstrate that the proposed method will provide an equal or greater degree of safety for employees than any one of the methods specified in the standard.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.66—Exhibits (Advisory)
</HD1>
<P>The three drawings in appendix B illustrate typical platform stabilization systems which are addressed in the standard. The drawings are to be used for reference purposes only, and do not illustrate all the mandatory requirements for each system.</P></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.014.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.66 [Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.66—Existing Installations (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD2>Use of the Appendix
</HD2>
<P>Appendix D sets out the mandatory building and equipment requirements for applicable permanent installations completed after August 27, 1971, and no later than July 23, 1990 which are exempt from the paragraphs (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this standard. The requirements in appendix D are essentially the same as unrevised building and equipment provisions which previously were designated as 29 CFR 1910.66 (a), (b), (c) and (d) and which were effective on August 27, 1971.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>All existing installations subject to this appendix shall also comply with paragraphs (g), (h), (i), (j) and appendix C of the standard 29 CFR 1910.66.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this appendix</I>—(1) <I>Angulated roping.</I> A system of platform suspension in which the upper wire rope sheaves or suspension points are closer to the plane of the building face than the corresponding attachment points on the platform, thus causing the platform to press against the face of the building during its vertical travel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ANSI.</I> American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Babbitted fastenings.</I> The method of providing wire rope attachments in which the ends of the wire strands are bent back and are held in a tapered socket by means of poured molten babbitt metal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Brake—disc type.</I> A brake in which the holding effect is obtained by frictional resistance between one or more faces of discs keyed to the rotating member to be held and fixed discs keyed to the stationary or housing member (pressure between the discs being applied axially).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Brake—self-energizing band type.</I> An essentially undirectional brake in which the holding effect is obtained by the snubbing action of a flexible band wrapped about a cylindrical wheel or drum affixed to the rotating member to be held, the connections and linkages being so arranged that the motion of the brake wheel or drum will act to increase the tension or holding force of the band.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Brake—shoe type.</I> A brake in which the holding effect is obtained by applying the direct pressure of two or more segmental friction elements held to a stationary member against a cylindrical wheel or drum affixed to the rotating member to be held.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Building face rollers.</I> A specialized form of guide roller designed to contact a portion of the outer face or wall structure of the building, and to assist in stabilizing the operators' platform during vertical travel.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Continuous pressure.</I> Operation by means of buttons or switches, any one of which may be used to control the movement of the working platform or roof car, only as long as the button or switch is manually maintained in the actuating position.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Control.</I> A system governing starting, stopping, direction, acceleration, speed, and retardation of moving members.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Controller.</I> A device or group of devices, usually contained in a single enclosure, which serves to control in some predetermined manner the apparatus to which it is connected.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Electrical ground.</I> A conducting connection between an electrical circuit or equipment and the earth, or some conducting body which serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Guide roller.</I> A rotating, bearing-mounted, generally cylindrical member, operating separately or as part of a guide shoe assembly, attached to the platform, and providing rolling contact with building guideways, or other building contact members.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Guide shoe.</I> An assembly of rollers, slide members, or the equivalent, attached as a unit to the operators' platform, and designed to engage with the building members provided for the vertical guidance of the operators' platform.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Interlock.</I> A device actuated by the operation of some other device with which it is directly associated, to govern succeeding operations of the same or allied devices.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Operating device.</I> A pushbutton, lever, or other manual device used to actuate a control.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Powered platform.</I> Equipment to provide access to the exterior of a building for maintenance, consisting of a suspended power-operated working platform, a roof car, or other suspension means, and the requisite operating and control devices.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Rated load.</I> The combined weight of employees, tools, equipment, and other material which the working platform is designed and installed to lift.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Relay, direction.</I> An electrically energized contactor responsive to an initiating control circuit, which in turn causes a moving member to travel in a particular direction.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Relay, potential for vertical travel.</I> An electrically energized contactor responsive to initiating control circuit, which in turn controls the operation of a moving member in both directions. This relay usually operates in conjunction with direction relays, as covered under the definition, “relay, direction.”
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Roof car.</I> A structure for the suspension of a working platform, providing for its horizontal movement to working positions.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Roof-powered platform.</I> A powered platform having the raising and lowering mechanism located on a roof car.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Self-powered platform.</I> A powered platform having the raising and lowering mechanism located on the working platform.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Traveling cable.</I> A cable made up of electrical or communication conductors or both, and providing electrical connection between the working platform and the roof car or other fixed point.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Weatherproof.</I> Equipment so constructed or protected that exposure to the weather will not interfere with its proper operation.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Working platform.</I> The suspended structure arranged for vertical travel which provides access to the exterior of the building or structure.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Yield point.</I> The stress at which the material exhibits a permanent set of 0.2 percent.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Zinced fastenings.</I> The method of providing wire rope attachments in which the splayed or fanned wire ends are held in a tapered socket by means of poured molten zinc.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Design requirements. All powered platform installations for exterior building maintenance completed as of August 27, 1971, but no later than [insert date, 180 days after the effective date], shall meet all of the design, construction and installation requirements of part II and III of the “American National Standard Safety Requirements for Powered Platforms for Exterior Building Maintenance ANSI A120.1-1970” and of this appendix. References shall be made to appropriate parts of ANSI A120.1-1970 for detail specifications for equipment and special installations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitation.</I> The requirements of this appendix apply only to electric powered platforms. It is not the intent of this appendix to prohibit the use of other types of power. Installation of powered platforms using other types of power is permitted, provided such platforms have adequate protective devices for the type of power used, and otherwise provide for reasonable safety of life and limb to users of equipment and to others who may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of powered platforms.</I> (i) For the purpose of applying this appendix, powered platforms are divided into two basic types, Type F and Type T.
</P>
<P>(ii) Powered platforms designated as Type F shall meet all the requirements in part II of ANSI A 120.1-1970, American National Standard Safety Requirements for Powered Platforms for Exterior Building Maintenance. A basic requirement of Type F equipment is that the work platform is suspended by at least four wire ropes and designed so that failure of any one wire rope will not substantially alter the normal position of the working platform. Another basic requirement of Type F equipment is that only one layer of hoisting rope is permitted on winding drums. Type F powered platforms may be either roof-powered or self-powered.
</P>
<P>(iii) Powered platforms designated as Type T shall meet all the requirements in part III of ANSI A120.1-1970 American National Standard Safety Requirements for Powered Platforms for Exterior Building Maintenance, except for section 28, Safety Belts and Life Lines. A basic requirement of Type T equipment is that the working platform is suspended by at least two wire ropes. Failure of one wire rope would not permit the working platform to fall to the ground, but would upset its normal position. Type T powered platforms may be either roof-powered or self-powered.
</P>
<P>(iv) The requirements of this section apply to powered platforms with winding drum type hoisting machines. It is not the intent of this section to prohibit powered platforms using other types of hoisting machines such as, but not limited to, traction drum hoisting machines, air powered machines, hydraulic powered machines, and internal combustion machines. Installation of powered platforms with other types of hoisting machines is permitted, provided adequate protective devices are used, and provided reasonable safety of life and limb to users of the equipment and to others who may be exposed is assured.
</P>
<P>(v) Both Type F and Type T powered platforms shall comply with the requirements of appendix C of this standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Type F powered platforms</I>—(1) <I>Roof car, general.</I> (i) A roof car shall be provided whenever it is necessary to move the working platform horizontally to working or storage positions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum rated speed at which a power traversed roof car may be moved in a horizontal direction shall be 50 feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Movement and positioning of roof car.</I> (i) Provision shall be made to protect against having the roof car leave the roof or enter roof areas not designed for travel.
</P>
<P>(ii) The horizontal motion of the roof cars shall be positively controlled so as to insure proper movement and positioning of the roof car.
</P>
<P>(iii) Roof car positioning devices shall be provided to insure that the working platform is placed and retained in proper position for vertical travel and during storage.
</P>
<P>(iv) Mechanical stops shall be provided to prevent the traversing of the roof car beyond its normal limits of travel. Such stops shall be capable of withstanding a force equal to 100 percent of the inertial effect of the roof car in motion with traversing power applied.
</P>
<P>(v)(a) The operating device of a power-operated roof car for traversing shall be located on the roof car, the working platform, or both, and shall be of the continuous pressure weather-proof electric type. If more than one operating device is provided, they shall be so arranged that traversing is possible only from one operating device at a time.
</P>
<P>(b) The operating device shall be so connected that it is not operable until:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The working platform is located at its uppermost position of travel and is not in contact with the building face or fixed vertical guides in the face of the building; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All protective devices and interlocks are in a position for traversing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Roof car stability.</I> Roof car stability shall be determined by either paragraph (c)(3) (i) or (ii) of this appendix, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(i) The roof car shall be continuously stable, considering overturning moment as determined by 125 percent rated load, plus maximum dead load and the prescribed wind loading.
</P>
<P>(ii) The roof car and its anchorages shall be capable of resisting accidental over-tensioning of the wire ropes suspending the working platform and this calculated value shall include the effect of one and one-half times the value. For this calculation, the simultaneous effect of one-half wind load shall be included, and the design stresses shall not exceed those referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the load on the motors is at any time in excess of three times that required for lifting the working platform with its rated load the motor shall stall.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Access to the roof car.</I> Safe access to the roof car and from the roof car to the working platform shall be provided. If the access to the roof car at any point of its travel is not over the roof area or where otherwise necessary for safety, then self-closing, self-locking gates shall be provided. Access to and from roof cars must comply with the requirements of subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Means for maintenance, repair, and storage.</I> Means shall be provided to run the roof car away from the roof perimeter, where necessary, and to provide a safe area for maintenance, repairs, and storage. Provisions shall be made to secure the machine in the stored position. For stored machines subject to wind forces, see special design and anchorage requirements for “wind forces” in part II, section 10.5.1.1 of ANSI A120.1-1970 American National Standard Safety Requirements for Powered Platforms for Exterior Building Maintenance.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>General requirements for working platforms.</I> The working platform shall be of girder or truss construction and shall be adequate to support its rated load under any position of loading, and comply with the provisions set forth in section 10 of ANSI A120.1-1970, American National Standard Safety Requirements for Powered Platforms for Exterior Building Maintenance.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Load rating plate.</I> Each working platform shall bear a manufacturer's load rating plate, conspicuously posted; stating the maximum permissible rated load. Load rating plates shall be made of noncorrosive material and shall have letters and figures stamped, etched, or cast on the surface. The minimum height of the letters and figures shall be one-fourth inch.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Minimum size.</I> The working platform shall have a minimum net width of 24 inches.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Guardrails.</I> Working platforms shall be furnished with permanent guard rails not less than 36 inches high, and not more than 42 inches high at the front (building side). At the rear, and on the sides, the rail shall not be less than 42 inches high. An intermediate guardrail shall be provided around the entire platform between the top guardrail and the toeboard.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Toeboards.</I> A four-inch toeboard shall be provided along all sides of the working platform.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Open spaces between guardrails and toeboards.</I> The spaces between the intermediate guardrail and platform toeboard on the building side of the working platform, and between the top guardrail and the toeboard on other sides of the platform, shall be filled with metalic mesh or similar material that will reject a ball one inch in diameter. The installed mesh shall be capable of withstanding a load of 100 pounds applied horizontally over any area of 144 square inches. If the space between the platform and the building face does not exceed eight inches, and the platform is restrained by guides, the mesh may be omitted on the front side.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Flooring.</I> The platform flooring shall be of the nonskid type, and if of open construction, shall reject a 
<FR>9/16</FR>-inch diameter ball, or be provided with a screen below the floor to reject a 
<FR>9/16</FR>-inch diameter ball.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Access gates.</I> Where access gates are provided, they shall be self-closing and self-locking.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Operating device for vertical movement of the working platform.</I> (i) The normal operating device for the working platform shall be located on the working platform and shall be of the continuous pressure weatherproof electric type.
</P>
<P>(ii) The operating device shall be operable only when all electrical protective devices and interlocks on the working platform are in position for normal service and, the roof car, if provided, is at an established operating point.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Emergency electric operative device.</I> (i) In addition, on roof-powered platforms, an emergency electric operating device shall be provided near the hoisting machine for use in the event of failure of the normal operating device for the working platform, or failure of the traveling cable system. The emergency operating device shall be mounted in a locked compartment and shall have a legend mounted thereon reading: “For Emergency Operation Only. Establish Communication With Personnel on Working Platform Before Use.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A key for unlocking the compartment housing the emergency operating device shall be mounted in a break-glass receptacle located near the emergency operating device.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Manual cranking for emergency operation.</I> Emergency operation of the main drive machine may be provided to allow manual cranking. This provision for manual operation shall be designed so that not more than two persons will be required to perform this operation. The access to this provision shall include a means to automatically make the machine inoperative electrically while under the emergency manual operation. The design shall be such that the emergency brake is operative at or below governor tripping speed during manual operation.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Arrangement and guarding of hoisting equipment.</I> (i) Hoisting equipment shall consist of a power-driven drum or drum contained in the roof car (roof-powered platforms) or contained on the working platform (self-powered platform).
</P>
<P>(ii) The hoisting equipment shall be power-operated in both up and down directions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Guard or other protective devices shall be installed wherever rotating shafts or other mechanisms or gears may expose personnel to a hazard.
</P>
<P>(iv) Friction devices or clutches shall not be used for connecting the main driving mechanism to the drum or drums. Belt or chain-driven machines are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Hoisting motors.</I> (i) Hoisting motors shall be electric and of weather-proof construction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hoisting motors shall be in conformance with applicable provisions of paragraph (c)(22) of this appendix, Electric Wiring and Equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hoisting motors shall be directly connected to the hoisting machinery. Motor couplings, if used, shall be of steel construction.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Brakes.</I> The hoisting machine(s) shall have two independent braking means, each designed to stop and hold the working platform with 125 percent of rated load.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Hoisting ropes and rope connections.</I> (i) Working platforms shall be suspended by wire ropes of either 6 × 19 or 6 × 37 classification, preformed or nonpreformed.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) The minimum factor of safety shall be 10, and shall be calculated by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>F = S × N/W
</FP-2>
<FP>Where
</FP>
<FP-2>S = Manufacturer's rated breaking strength of one rope.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = Number of ropes under load.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = Maximum static load on all ropes with the platform and its rated load at any point of its travel.
</FP-2>
<P>(iv) Hoisting ropes shall be sized to conform with the required factor of safety, but in no case shall the size be less than 
<FR>5/16</FR> inch diameter.
</P>
<P>(v) Winding drums shall have at least three turns of rope remaining when the platform has landed at the lowest possible point of its travel.
</P>
<P>(vi) The lengthening or repairing of wire rope by the joining of two or more lengths is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(vii) The nondrum ends of the hoisting ropes shall be provided with individual shackle rods which will permit individual adjustment of rope lengths, if required.
</P>
<P>(viii) More than two reverse bends in each rope is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Rope tag data.</I> (i) A metal data tag shall be securely attached to one of the wire rope fastenings. This data tag shall bear the following wire rope data:
</P>
<P>(a) The diameter in inches.
</P>
<P>(b) Construction classification.
</P>
<P>(c) Whether nonpreformed or preformed.
</P>
<P>(d) The grade of material used.
</P>
<P>(e) The manufacturer's rated breaking strength.
</P>
<P>(f) Name of the manufacturer of the rope.
</P>
<P>(g) The month and year the ropes were installed.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Electrical wiring and equipment.</I> (i) All electrical equipment and wiring shall conform to the requirements of subpart S of this Part, except as modified by ANSI A120.1—1970 “American National Standard Safety Requirements for Powered Platforms for Exterior Building Maintenance” (see § 1910.6). For detail design specifications for electrical equipment, see part 2, ANSI A120.1-1970.
</P>
<P>(ii) All motors and operation and control equipment shall be supplied from a single power source.
</P>
<P>(iii) The power supply for the powered platform shall be an independent circuit supplied through a fused disconnect switch.
</P>
<P>(iv) Electrical conductor parts of the power supply system shall be protected against accidental contact.
</P>
<P>(v) Electrical grounding shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(a) Provisions for electrical grounding shall be included with the power-supply system.
</P>
<P>(b) Controller cabinets, motor frames, hoisting machines, the working platform, roof car and roof car track system, and noncurrent carrying parts of electrical equipment, where provided, shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(c) The controller, where used, shall be so designed and installed that a single ground or short circuit will not prevent both the normal and final stopping device from stopping the working platform.
</P>
<P>(d) Means shall be provided on the roof car and working platform for grounding portable electric tools.
</P>
<P>(e) The working platform shall be grounded through a grounding connection in a traveling cable. Electrically powered tools utilized on the working platform shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(vi) Electrical receptacles located on the roof or other exterior location shall be of a weatherproof type and shall be located so as not to be subject to contact with water or accumulated snow. The receptacles shall be grounded and the electric cable shall include a grounding conductor. The receptacle and plug shall be a type designed to avoid hazard to persons inserting or withdrawing the plug. Provision shall be made to prevent application of cable strain directly to the plug and receptacle.
</P>
<P>(vii) Electric runway conductor systems shall be of the type designed for use in exterior locations and shall be located so as not to be subject to contact with water or accumulated snow. The conductors, collectors, and disconnecting means shall conform to the same requirements as those for cranes and hoists in subpart S of this Part. A grounded conductor shall parallel the power conductors and be so connected that it cannot be opened by the disconnecting means. The system shall be designed to avoid hazard to persons in the area.
</P>
<P>(viii) Electrical protective devices and interlocks of the weatherproof type shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ix) Where the installation includes a roof car, electric contact(s) shall be provided and so connected that the operating devices for the working platform shall be operative only when the roof car is located and mechanically retained at an established operating point.
</P>
<P>(x) Where the powered platform includes a powered-operated roof car, the operating device for the roof car shall be inoperative when the roof car is mechanically retained at an established operating point.
</P>
<P>(xi) An electric contact shall be provided and so connected that it will cause the down direction relay for vertical travel to open if the tension in the traveling cable exceeds safe limits.
</P>
<P>(xii) An automatic overload device shall be provided to cut off the electrical power to the circuit in all hoisting motors for travel in the up direction, should the load applied to the hoisting ropes at either end of the working platform exceed 125 percent of its normal tension with rated load, as shown on the manufacturer's data plate on the working platform.
</P>
<P>(xiii) An automatic device shall be provided for each hoisting rope which will cut off the electrical power to the hoisting motor or motors in the down direction and apply the brakes if any hoisting rope becomes slack.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Upper and lower directional limit devices shall be provided to prevent the travel of the working platform beyond the normal upper and lower limits of travel.
</P>
<P>(xv) Operation of a directional limit device shall prevent further motion in the appropriate direction, if the normal limit of travel has been reached.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Directional limit devices, if driven from the hoisting machine by chains, tapes, or cables, shall incorporate a device to disconnect the electric power from the hoisting machine and apply both the primary and secondary brakes in the event of failure of the driving means.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Final terminal stopping devices of the working platform:
</P>
<P>(a) Final terminal stopping devices for the working platform shall be provided as a secondary means of preventing the working platform from over-traveling at the terminals.
</P>
<P>(b) The device shall be set to function as close to each terminal landing as practical, but in such a way that under normal operating conditions it will not function when the working platform is stopped by the normal terminal stopping device.
</P>
<P>(c) Operation of the final terminal stopping device shall open the potential relay for vertical travel, thereby disconnecting the electric power from the hoisting machine, and applying both the primary and secondary brakes.
</P>
<P>(d) The final terminal stopping device for the upper limit of travel shall be mounted so that it is operated directly by the motion of the working platform itself.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Emergency stop switches shall be provided in or adjacent to each operating device.
</P>
<P>(xix) Emergency stop switches shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Have red operating buttons or handles.
</P>
<P>(b) Be conspicuously and permanently marked “Stop.”
</P>
<P>(c) Be the manually opened and manually closed type.
</P>
<P>(d) Be positively opened with the opening not solely dependent on springs.
</P>
<P>(xx) The manual operation of an emergency stop switch associated with an operating device for the working platform shall open the potential relay for vertical travel, thereby disconnecting the electric power from the hoisting machine and applying both the primary and secondary brakes.
</P>
<P>(xxi) The manual operation of the emergency stop switch associated with the operating device for a power-driven roof car shall cause the electrical power to the traverse machine to be interrupted, and the traverse machine brake to apply.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Requirements for emergency communications.</I> (i) Communication equipment shall be provided for each powered platform for use in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two-way communication shall be established between personnel on the roof and personnel on the stalled working platform before any emergency operation of the working platform is undertaken by personnel on the roof.
</P>
<P>(iii) The equipment shall permit two-way voice communication between the working platform and
</P>
<P>(a) Designated personnel continuously available while the powered platform is in use; and
</P>
<P>(b) Designated personnel on roof-powered platforms, undertaking emergency operation of the working platform by means of the emergency operating device located near the hoisting machine.
</P>
<P>(iv) The emergency communication equipment shall be one of the following types:
</P>
<P>(a) Telephone connected to the central telephone exchange system; or
</P>
<P>(b) Telephones on a limited system or an approved two-way radio system, provided designated personnel are available to receive a message during the time the powered platform is in use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Type T powered platforms</I>—(1) <I>Roof car.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this appendix shall apply to Type T powered platforms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Working platform.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (c)(6) through (c)(16) of this appendix apply to Type T powered platforms.
</P>
<P>(i) The working platform shall be suspended by at least two wire ropes.
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum rated speed at which the working platform of self-powered platforms may be moved in a vertical direction shall not exceed 35 feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hoisting equipment.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (c) (17) and (18) of this appendix shall apply to Type T powered platforms.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Brakes.</I> Brakes requirements of paragraph (c)(19) of this appendix shall apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hoisting ropes and rope connections.</I> (i) Paragraphs (c)(20) (i) through (vi) and (viii) of this appendix shall apply to Type T powered platforms.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustable shackle rods in subparagraph (c)(20)(vii) of this appendix shall apply to Type T powered platforms, if the working platform is suspended by more than two wire ropes.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Electrical wiring and equipment.</I> (i) The requirements of paragraphs (c)(22) (i) through (vi) of this appendix shall apply to Type T powered platforms. “Circuit protection limitation,” “powered platform electrical service system,” all operating services and control equipment shall comply with the specifications contained in part 2, section 26, ANSI A120.1-1970.
</P>
<P>(ii) For electrical protective devices the requirements of paragraphs (c)(22) (i) through (viii) of this appendix shall apply to Type T powered platforms. Requirements for the “circuit potential limitation” shall be in accordance with specifications contained in part 2, section 26, of ANSI A120.1-1970.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Emergency communications.</I> All the requirements of paragraph (c)(23) of this appendix shall apply to Type T powered platforms.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31456, July 28, 1989, as amended at 61 FR 9235, Mar. 7, 1996; 72 FR 7190, Feb. 14, 2007; 81 FR 82998, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.67" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.6.33.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.67   Vehicle-mounted elevating and rotating work platforms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section</I>—(1) <I>Aerial device.</I> Any vehicle—mounted device, telescoping or articulating, or both, which is used to position personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aerial ladder.</I> An aerial device consisting of a single- or multiple-section extensible ladder.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Articulating boom platform.</I> An aerial device with two or more hinged boom sections.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Extensible boom platform.</I> An aerial device (except ladders) with a telescopic or extensible boom. Telescopic derricks with personnel platform attachments shall be considered to be extensible boom platforms when used with a personnel platform.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Insulated aerial device.</I> An aerial device designed for work on energized lines and apparatus.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Mobile unit.</I> A combination of an aerial device, its vehicle, and related equipment.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Platform.</I> Any personnel-carrying device (basket or bucket) which is a component of an aerial device.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Vehicle.</I> Any carrier that is not manually propelled.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Vertical tower.</I> An aerial device designed to elevate a platform in a substantially vertical axis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Unless otherwise provided in this section, aerial devices (aerial lifts) acquired on or after July 1, 1975, shall be designed and constructed in conformance with the applicable requirements of the American National Standard for “Vehicle Mounted Elevating and Rotating Work Platforms,” ANSI A92.2—1969, including appendix, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. Aerial lifts acquired for use before July 1, 1975 which do not meet the requirements of ANSI A92.2—1969, may not be used after July 1, 1976, unless they shall have been modified so as to conform with the applicable design and construction requirements of ANSI A92.2—1969. Aerial devices include the following types of vehicle-mounted aerial devices used to elevate personnel to jobsites above ground: (i) Extensible boom platforms, (ii) aerial ladders, (iii) articulating boom platforms, (iv) vertical towers, and (v) a combination of any of the above. Aerial equipment may be made of metal, wood, fiberglass reinforced plastic (FRP), or other material; may be powered or manually operated; and are deemed to be aerial lifts whether or not they are capable of rotating about a substantially vertical axis.
</P>
<P>(2) Aerial lifts may be “field modified” for uses other than those intended by the manufacturer, provided the modification has been certified in writing by the manufacturer or by any other equivalent entity, such as a nationally recognized testing laboratory, to be in conformity with all applicable provisions of ANSI A92.2—1969 and this section, and to be at least as safe as the equipment was before modification.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements of this section do not apply to firefighting equipment or to the vehicles upon which aerial devices are mounted, except with respect to the requirement that a vehicle be a stable support for the aerial device.
</P>
<P>(4) For operations near overhead electric lines, see § 1910.333(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(1) <I>Ladder trucks and tower trucks.</I> Before the truck is moved for highway travel, aerial ladders shall be secured in the lower traveling position by the locking device above the truck cab, and the manually operated device at the base of the ladder, or by other equally effective means (e.g., cradles which prevent rotation of the ladder in combination with positive acting linear actuators).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extensible and articulating boom platforms.</I> (i) Lift controls shall be tested each day prior to use to determine that such controls are in safe working condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) Only trained persons shall operate an aerial lift.
</P>
<P>(iii) Belting off to an adjacent pole, structure, or equipment while working from an aerial lift shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employees shall always stand firmly on the floor of the basket, and shall not sit or climb on the edge of the basket or use planks, ladders, or other devices for a work position.
</P>
<P>(v) A personal fall arrest or travel restraint system that meets the requirements in subpart I of this part shall be worn and attached to the boom or basket when working from an aerial lift.
</P>
<P>(vi) Boom and basket load limits specified by the manufacturer shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(vii) The brakes shall be set and outriggers, when used, shall be positioned on pads or a solid surface. Wheel chocks shall be installed before using an aerial lift on an incline.
</P>
<P>(viii) An aerial lift truck may not be moved when the boom is elevated in a working position with men in the basket, except for equipment which is specifically designed for this type of operation in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) Articulating boom and extensible boom platforms, primarily designed as personnel carriers, shall have both platform (upper) and lower controls. Upper controls shall be in or beside the platform within easy reach of the operator. Lower controls shall provide for overriding the upper controls. Controls shall be plainly marked as to their function. Lower level controls shall not be operated unless permission has been obtained from the employee in the lift, except in case of emergency.
</P>
<P>(x) Climbers shall not be worn while performing work from an aerial lift.
</P>
<P>(xi) The insulated portion of an aerial lift shall not be altered in any manner that might reduce its insulating value.
</P>
<P>(xii) Before moving an aerial lift for travel, the boom(s) shall be inspected to see that it is properly cradled and outriggers are in stowed position, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electrical tests.</I> Electrical tests shall be made in conformance with the requirements of ANSI A92.2—1969, Section 5. However, equivalent DC voltage tests may be used in lieu of the AC voltage test specified in A92.2—1969. DC voltage tests which are approved by the equipment manufacturer or equivalent entity shall be considered an equivalent test for the purpose of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bursting safety factor.</I> All critical hydraulic and pneumatic components shall comply with the provisions of the American National Standards Institute standard, ANSI A92.2—1969, Section 4.9 Bursting Safety Factor. Critical components are those in which a failure would result in a free fall or free rotation of the boom. All noncritical components shall have a bursting safety factor of at least two to one.
</P>
<P>(5) “<I>Welding standards.”</I> All welding shall conform to the following American Welding Society (AWS) Standards which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Standard Qualification Procedure, AWS B3.0—41.
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommended Practices for Automotive Welding Design, AWS D8.4-61.
</P>
<P>(iii) Standard Qualification of Welding Procedures and Welders for Piping and Tubing, AWS D10.9-69.
</P>
<P>(iv) Specifications for Welding Highway and Railway Bridges, AWS D2.0-69.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 13439, Mar. 26, 1975; 55 FR 32014, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9235, Mar. 7, 1996; 79 FR 37190, July 1, 2014; 81 FR 82999, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.68" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.6.33.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.68   Manlifts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section</I>—(1) <I>Handhold (Handgrip).</I> A handhold is a device attached to the belt which can be grasped by the passenger to provide a means of maintaining balance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Open type.</I> One which has a handgrip surface fully exposed and capable of being encircled by the passenger's fingers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Closed type.</I> A cup-shaped device, open at the top in the direction of travel of the step for which it is to be used, and closed at the bottom, into which the passenger may place his fingers.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limit switch.</I> A device, the purpose of which is to cut off the power to the motor and apply the brake to stop the carrier in the event that a loaded step passes the terminal landing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Manlift.</I> A device consisting of a power-driven endless belt moving in one direction only, and provided with steps or platforms and handholds attached to it for the transportation of personnel from floor to floor.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rated speed.</I> Rated speed is the speed for which the device is designed and installed.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Split-rail switch.</I> An electric limit switch operated mechanically by the rollers on the manlift steps. It consists of an additional hinged or “split” rail, mounted on the regular guide rail, over which the step rollers pass. It is springloaded in the “split” position. If the step supports no load, the rollers will “bump” over the switch; if a loaded step should pass over the section, the split rail will be forced straight, tripping the switch and opening the electrical circuit.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Step (platform).</I> A step is a passenger carrying unit.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Travel.</I> The travel is the distance between the centers of the top and bottom pulleys.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to the construction, maintenance, inspection, and operation of manlifts in relation to accident hazards. Manlifts covered by this section consist of platforms or brackets and accompanying handholds mounted on, or attached to an endless belt, operating vertically in one direction only and being supported by, and driven through pulleys, at the top and bottom. These manlifts are intended for conveyance of persons only. It is not intended that this section cover moving stairways, elevators with enclosed platforms (“Paternoster” elevators), gravity lifts, nor conveyors used only for conveying material. This section applies to manlifts used to carry only personnel trained and authorized by the employer in their use.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to provide reasonable safety for life and limb.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design requirements.</I> All new manlift installations and equipment installed after the effective date of these regulations shall meet the design requirements of the “American National Safety Standard for Manlifts ANSI A90.1-1969”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, and the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reference to other codes and subparts.</I> The following codes and subparts of this part are applicable to this section: Safety Code for Mechanical Power Transmission Apparatus, ANSI B15.1-1953 (R 1958); Safety Code for Fixed Ladders, ANSI A14.3-1956; and subparts D, O, and S. The preceding ANSI standards are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Floor openings</I>—(i) <I>Allowable size.</I> Floor openings for both the “up” and “down” runs shall be not less than 28 inches nor more than 36 inches in width for a 12-inch belt; not less than 34 inches nor more than 38 inches for a 14-inch belt; and not less than 36 inches nor more than 40 inches for a 16-inch belt and shall extend not less than 24 inches, nor more than 28 inches from the face of the belt.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Uniformity.</I> All floor openings for a given manlift shall be uniform in size and shall be approximately circular, and each shall be located vertically above the opening below it.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Landing</I>—(i) <I>Vertical clearance.</I> The clearanace between the floor or mounting platform and the lower edge for the conical guard above it required by subparagraph (7) of this paragraph shall not be less than 7 feet 6 inches. Where this clearance cannot be obtained no access to the manlift shall be provided and the manlift runway shall be enclosed where it passes through such floor.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clear landing space.</I> The landing space adjacent to the floor openings shall be free from obstruction and kept clear at all times. This landing space shall be at least 2 feet in width from the edge of the floor opening used for mounting and dismounting.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lighting and landing.</I> Adequate lighting, not less than 5-foot candles, shall be provided at each floor landing at all times when the lift is in operation.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Landing surface.</I> The landing surfaces at the entrances and exits to the manlift shall be constructed and maintained as to provide safe footing at all times.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Emergency landings.</I> Where there is a travel of 50 feet or more between floor landings, one or more emergency landings shall be provided so that there will be a landing (either floor or emergency) for every 25 feet or less of manlift travel.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Emergency landings shall be accessible from both the “up” and “down” rungs of the manlift and shall give access to the ladder required in subparagraph (12) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Emergency landings shall be completely enclosed with a standard railing and toeboard.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Platforms constructed to give access to bucket elevators or other equipment for the purpose of inspection, lubrication, and repair may also serve as emergency landings under this rule. All such platforms will then be considered part of the emergency landing and shall be provided with standard railings and toeboards.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Guards on underside of floor openings</I>—(i) <I>Fixed type.</I> On the ascending side of the manlift floor openings shall be provided with a bevel guard or cone meeting the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The cone shall make an angle of not less than 45° with the horizontal. An angle of 60° or greater shall be used where ceiling heights permit.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The lower edge of this guard shall extend at least 42 inches outward from any handhold on the belt. It shall not extend beyond the upper surface of the floor above.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The cone shall be made of not less than No. 18 U.S. gauge sheet steel or material of equivalent strength or stiffness. The lower edge shall be rolled to a minimum diameter of one-half inch and the interior shall be smooth with no rivets, bolts or screws protruding.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Floating type.</I> In lieu of the fixed guards specified in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph a floating type safety cone may be used, such floating cones to be mounted on hinges at least 6 inches below the underside of the floor and so constructed as to actuate a limit switch should a force of 2 pounds be applied on the edge of the cone closest to the hinge. The depth of this floating cone need not exceed 12 inches.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Protection of entrances and exits</I>—(i) <I>Guard rail requirement.</I> The entrances and exits at all floor landings affording access to the manlift shall be guarded by a maze (staggered railing) or a handrail equipped with self-closing gates.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> The rails shall be standard guardrails with toeboards that meet the requirements in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Gates.</I> Gates, if used, shall open outward and shall be self-closing. Corners of gates shall be rounded.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maze.</I> Maze or staggered openings shall offer no direct passage between enclosure and outer floor space.
</P>
<P>(v) Except where building layout prevents, entrances at all landings shall be in the same relative position.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Guards for openings</I>—(i) <I>Construction.</I> The floor opening at each landing shall be guarded on sides not used for entrance or exit by a wall, a railing and toeboard or by panels of wire mesh of suitable strength.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Height and location.</I> Such rails or guards shall be at least 42 inches in height on the up-running side and 66 inches on the down-running side.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Bottom arrangement</I>—(i) <I>Bottom landing.</I> At the bottom landing the clear area shall be not smaller than the area enclosed by the guardrails on the floors above, and any wall in front of the down-running side of the belt shall be not less than 48 inches from the face of the belt. This space shall not be encroached upon by stairs or ladders.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Location of lower pulley.</I> The lower (boot) pulley shall be installed so that it is supported by the lowest landing served. The sides of the pulley support shall be guarded to prevent contact with the pulley or the steps.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Mounting platform.</I> A mounting platform shall be provided in front or to one side of the uprun at the lowest landing, unless the floor level is such that the following requirement can be met: The floor or platform shall be at or above the point at which the upper surface of the ascending step completes its turn and assumes a horizontal position.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Guardrails.</I> To guard against persons walking under a descending step, the area on the downside of the manlift shall be guarded in accordance with subparagraph (8) of this paragraph. To guard against a person getting between the mounting platform and an ascending step, the area between the belt and the platform shall be protected by a guardrail.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Top arrangements</I>—(i) <I>Clearance from floor.</I> A top clearance shall be provided of at least 11 feet above the top terminal landing. This clearance shall be maintained from a plane through each face of the belt to a vertical cylindrical plane having a diameter 2 feet greater than the diameter of the floor opening, extending upward from the top floor to the ceiling on the up-running side of the belt. No encroachment of structural or machine supporting members within this space will be permitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Pulley clearance.</I> (<I>a</I>) There shall be a clearance of at least 5 feet between the center of the head pulley shaft and any ceiling obstruction.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The center of the head pulley shaft shall be not less than 6 feet above the top terminal landing.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Emergency grab rail.</I> An emergency grab bar or rail and platform shall be provided at the head pulley when the distance to the head pulley is over 6 feet above the top landing, otherwise only a grab bar or rail is to be provided to permit the rider to swing free should the emergency stops become inoperative.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Emergency exit ladder.</I> A fixed metal ladder accessible from both the “up” and “down” run of the manlift shall be provided for the entire travel of the manlift. Such ladders shall meet the requirements in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Superstructure bracing.</I> Manlift rails shall be secured in such a manner as to avoid spreading, vibration, and misalinement.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Illumination</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Both runs of the manlift shall be illuminated at all times when the lift is in operation. An intensity of not less than 1-foot candle shall be maintained at all points. (However, see subparagraph (6)(iii) of this paragraph for illumination requirements at landings.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Control of illumination.</I> Lighting of manlift runways shall be by means of circuits permanently tied in to the building circuits (no switches), or shall be controlled by switches at each landing. Where separate switches are provided at each landing, any switch shall turn on all lights necessary to illuminate the entire runway.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Weather protection.</I> The entire manlift and its driving mechanism shall be protected from the weather at all times.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanical requirements</I>—(1) <I>Machines, general</I>—(i) <I>Brakes.</I> Brakes provided for stopping and holding a manlift shall be inherently self-engaging, by requiring power or force from an external source to cause disengagement. The brake shall be electrically released, and shall be applied to the motor shaft for direct-connected units or to the input shaft for belt-driven units. The brake shall be capable of stopping and holding the manlift when the descending side is loaded with 250 lb on each step.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Belt.</I> (<I>a</I>) The belts shall be of hard-woven canvas, rubber-coated canvas, leather, or other material meeting the strength requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section and having a coefficient of friction such that when used in conjunction with an adequate tension device it will meet the brake test specified in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The width of the belt shall be not less than 12 inches for a travel not exceeding 100 feet, not less than 14 inches for a travel greater than 100 feet but not exceeding 150 feet and 16 inches for a travel exceeding 150 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A belt that has become torn while in use on a manlift shall not be spliced and put back in service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Speed</I>—(i) <I>Maximum speed.</I> No manlift designed for a speed in excess of 80 feet per minute shall be installed.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Platforms or steps</I>—(i) <I>Minimum depth.</I> Steps or platforms shall be not less than 12 inches nor more than 14 inches deep, measured from the belt to the edge of the step or platform.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Width.</I> The width of the step or platform shall be not less than the width of the belt to which it is attached.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Distance between steps.</I> The distance between steps shall be equally spaced and not less than 16 feet measured from the upper surface of one step to the upper surface of the next step above it.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Angle of step.</I> The surface of the step shall make approximately a right angle with the “up” and “down” run of the belt, and shall travel in the approximate horizontal position with the “up” and “down” run of the belt.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Surfaces.</I> The upper or working surfaces of the step shall be of a material having inherent nonslip characteristics (coefficient of friction not less than 0.5) or shall be covered completely by a nonslip tread securely fastened to it.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Strength of step supports.</I> When subjected to a load of 400 pounds applied at the approximate center of the step, step frames, or supports and their guides shall be of adequate strength to:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Prevent the disengagement of any step roller.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Prevent any appreciable misalinement.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Prevent any visible deformation of the steps or its support.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Prohibition of steps without handholds.</I> No steps shall be provided unless there is a corresponding handhold above or below it meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(4) of this section. If a step is removed for repairs or permanently, the handholds immediately above and below it shall be removed before the lift is again placed in service.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Handholds</I>—(i) <I>Location.</I> Handholds attached to the belt shall be provided and installed so that they are not less than 4 feet nor more than 4 feet 8 inches above the step tread. These shall be so located as to be available on the both “up” and “down” run of the belt.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Size.</I> The grab surface of the handhold shall be not less than 4
<FR>1/2</FR> inches in width, not less than 3 inches in depth, and shall provide 2 inches of clearance from the belt. Fastenings for handholds shall be located not less than 1 inch from the edge of the belt.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Strength.</I> The handhold shall be capable of withstanding, without damage, a load of 300 pounds applied parallel to the run of the belt.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Prohibition of handhold without steps.</I> No handhold shall be provided without a corresponding step. If a handhold is removed permanently or temporarily, the corresponding step and handhold for the opposite direction of travel shall also be removed before the lift is again placed in service.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Type.</I> All handholds shall be of the closed type.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Up limit stops</I>—(i) <I>Requirements.</I> Two separate automatic stop devices shall be provided to cut off the power and apply the brake when a loaded step passes the upper terminal landing. One of these shall consist of a split-rail switch mechanically operated by the step roller and located not more than 6 inches above the top terminal landing. The second automatic stop device may consist of any of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Any split-rail switch placed 6 inches above and on the side opposite the first limit switch.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) An electronic device.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A switch actuated by a lever, rod, or plate, the latter to be placed on the “up” side of the head pulley so as to just clear a passing step.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Manual reset location.</I> After the manlift has been stopped by a stop device it shall be necessary to reset the automatic stop manually. The device shall be so located that a person resetting it shall have a clear view of both the “up” and “down” runs of the manlift. It shall not be possible to reset the device from any step or platform.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Cut-off point.</I> The initial limit stop device shall function so that the manlift will be stopped before the loaded step has reached a point 24 inches above the top terminal landing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Electrical requirements.</I> (<I>a</I>) Where such switches open the main motor circuit directly they shall be of the multipole type.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where electronic devices are used they shall be so designed and installed that failure will result in shutting off the power to the driving motor.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where flammable vapors or combustible dusts may be present, electrical installations shall be in accordance with the requirements of subpart S of this part for such locations.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Unless of the oil-immersed type controller contacts carrying the main motor current shall be copper to carbon or equal, except where the circuit is broken at two or more points simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Emergency stop</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> An emergency stop means shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Location.</I> This stop means shall be within easy reach of the ascending and descending runs of the belt.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Operation.</I> This stop means shall be so connected with the control lever or operating mechanism that it will cut off the power and apply the brake when pulled in the direction of travel.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Rope.</I> If rope is used, it shall be not less than three-eights inch in diameter. Wire rope, unless marlin-covered, shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Instruction and warning signs</I>—(i) <I>Instruction signs at landings or belts.</I> Signs of conspicuous and easily read style giving instructions for the use of the manlift shall be posted at each landing or stenciled on the belt.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The instructions shall read approximately as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Face the Belt.
</FP>
<FP>Use the Handholds.
</FP>
<FP>To Stop—Pull Rope.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Top floor warning sign and light.</I> (<I>a</I>) At the top floor an illuminated sign shall be displayed bearing the following wording:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>“TOP FLOOR—GET OFF”</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>Signs shall be in block letters not less than 2 inches in height. This sign shall be located within easy view of an ascending passenger and not more than 2 feet above the top terminal landing.
</FP>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In addition to the sign required by paragraph (c)(7)(ii)(<I>a</I>) of this section, a red warning light of not less than 40- watt rating shall be provided immediately below the upper landing terminal and so located as to shine in the passenger's face.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Visitor warning.</I> A conspicuous sign having the following legend—AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY—shall be displayed at each landing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operating rules</I>—(1) <I>Proper use of manlifts.</I> No freight, packaged goods, pipe, lumber, or construction materials of any kind shall be handled on any manlift.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Periodic inspection</I>—(1) <I>Frequency.</I> All manlifts shall be inspected by a competent designated person at intervals of not more than 30 days. Limit switches shall be checked weekly. Manlifts found to be unsafe shall not be operated until properly repaired.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Items covered.</I> This periodic inspection shall cover but is not limited to the following items:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Steps.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Step Fastenings.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rails.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rail Supports and Fastenings.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rollers and Slides.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Belt and Belt Tension.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Handholds and Fastenings.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Floor Landings.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guardrails.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lubrication.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Limit Switches.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Warning Signs and Lights.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Illumination.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Drive Pulley.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bottom (boot) Pulley and Clearance.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pulley Supports.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Motor.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Driving Mechanism.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brake.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Electrical Switches.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vibration and Misalignment.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Skip” on up or down run when mounting step (indicating worn gears).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Inspection record.</I> A certification record shall be kept of each inspection which includes the date of the inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and the serial number, or other identifier, of the manlift which was inspected. This record of inspection shall be made available to the Assistant Secretary of Labor or a duly authorized representative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49746, Oct. 24, 1978; 51 FR 34560, Sept. 29, 1986; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 55 FR 32014, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9235, Mar. 7, 1996; 72 FR 71068, Dec. 14, 2007; 81 FR 82999, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Occupational Health and Environmental Control</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 50017), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.94" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.7.33.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.94   Ventilation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Abrasive blasting</I>—(1) <I>Definitions applicable to this paragraph</I>—(i) <I>Abrasive.</I> A solid substance used in an abrasive blasting operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Abrasive-blasting respirator.</I> A respirator constructed so that it covers the wearer's head, neck, and shoulders to protect the wearer from rebounding abrasive.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Blast cleaning barrel.</I> A complete enclosure which rotates on an axis, or which has an internal moving tread to tumble the parts, in order to expose various surfaces of the parts to the action of an automatic blast spray.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Blast cleaning room.</I> A complete enclosure in which blasting operations are performed and where the operator works inside of the room to operate the blasting nozzle and direct the flow of the abrasive material.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Blasting cabinet.</I> An enclosure where the operator stands outside and operates the blasting nozzle through an opening or openings in the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Clean air.</I> Air of such purity that it will not cause harm or discomfort to an individual if it is inhaled for extended periods of time.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Dust collector.</I> A device or combination of devices for separating dust from the air handled by an exhaust ventilation system.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Exhaust ventilation system.</I> A system for removing contaminated air from a space, comprising two or more of the following elements (<I>a</I>) enclosure or hood, (<I>b</I>) duct work, (<I>c</I>) dust collecting equipment, (<I>d</I>) exhauster, and (<I>e</I>) discharge stack.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Particulate-filter respirator.</I> An air purifying respirator, commonly referred to as a dust or a fume respirator, which removes most of the dust or fume from the air passing through the device.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Respirable dust.</I> Airborne dust in sizes capable of passing through the upper respiratory system to reach the lower lung passages.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Rotary blast cleaning table.</I> An enclosure where the pieces to be cleaned are positioned on a rotating table and are passed automatically through a series of blast sprays.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Abrasive blasting.</I> The forcible application of an abrasive to a surface by pneumatic pressure, hydraulic pressure, or centrifugal force.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dust hazards from abrasive blasting.</I> (i) Abrasives and the surface coatings on the materials blasted are shattered and pulverized during blasting operations and the dust formed will contain particles of respirable size. The composition and toxicity of the dust from these sources shall be considered in making an evaluation of the potential health hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) The concentration of respirable dust or fume in the breathing zone of the abrasive-blasting operator or any other worker shall be kept below the levels specified in § 1910.1000.
</P>
<P>(iii) Organic abrasives which are combustible shall be used only in automatic systems. Where flammable or explosive dust mixtures may be present, the construction of the equipment, including the exhaust system and all electric wiring, shall conform to the requirements of American National Standard Installation of Blower and Exhaust Systems for Dust, Stock, and Vapor Removal or Conveying, Z33.1-1961 (NFPA 91-1961), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, and subpart S of this part. The blast nozzle shall be bonded and grounded to prevent the build up of static charges. Where flammable or explosive dust mixtures may be present, the abrasive blasting enclosure, the ducts, and the dust collector shall be constructed with loose panels or explosion venting areas, located on sides away from any occupied area, to provide for pressure relief in case of explosion, following the principles set forth in the National Fire Protection Association Explosion Venting Guide, NFPA 68-1954, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Blast-cleaning enclosures.</I> (i) Blast-cleaning enclosures shall be exhaust ventilated in such a way that a continuous inward flow of air will be maintained at all openings in the enclosure during the blasting operation.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) All air inlets and access openings shall be baffled or so arranged that by the combination of inward air flow and baffling the escape of abrasive or dust particules into an adjacent work area will be minimized and visible spurts of dust will not be observed.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The rate of exhaust shall be sufficient to provide prompt clearance of the dust-laden air within the enclosure after the cessation of blasting.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Before the enclosure is opened, the blast shall be turned off and the exhaust system shall be run for a sufficient period of time to remove the dusty air within the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Safety glass protected by screening shall be used in observation windows, where hard deep-cutting abrasives are used.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Slit abrasive-resistant baffles shall be installed in multiple sets at all small access openings where dust might escape, and shall be inspected regularly and replaced when needed.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Doors shall be flanged and tight when closed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Doors on blast-cleaning rooms shall be operable from both inside and outside, except that where there is a small operator access door, the large work access door may be closed or opened from the outside only.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exhaust ventilation systems.</I> (i) The construction, installation, inspection, and maintenance of exhaust systems shall conform to the principles and requirements set forth in American National Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960, and ANSI Z33.1-1961, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When dust leaks are noted, repairs shall be made as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The static pressure drop at the exhaust ducts leading from the equipment shall be checked when the installation is completed and periodically thereafter to assure continued satisfactory operation. Whenever an appreciable change in the pressure drop indicates a partial blockage, the system shall be cleaned and returned to normal operating condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) In installations where the abrasive is recirculated, the exhaust ventilation system for the blasting enclosure shall not be relied upon for the removal of fines from the spent abrasive instead of an abrasive separator. An abrasive separator shall be provided for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) The air exhausted from blast-cleaning equipment shall be discharged through dust collecting equipment. Dust collectors shall be set up so that the accumulated dust can be emptied and removed without contaminating other working areas.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> (i) Employers must use only respirators approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) under 42 CFR part 84 to protect employees from dusts produced during abrasive-blasting operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Abrasive-blasting respirators shall be worn by all abrasive-blasting operators:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When working inside of blast-cleaning rooms, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When using silica sand in manual blasting operations where the nozzle and blast are not physically separated from the operator in an exhaust ventilated enclosure, or
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where concentrations of toxic dust dispersed by the abrasive blasting may exceed the limits set in § 1910.1000 and the nozzle and blast are not physically separated from the operator in an exhaust-ventilated enclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Properly fitted particulate-filter respirators, commonly referred to as dust-filter respirators, may be used for short, intermittent, or occasional dust exposures such as cleanup, dumping of dust collectors, or unloading shipments of sand at a receiving point when it is not feasible to control the dust by enclosure, exhaust ventilation, or other means. The respirators used must be approved by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84 for protection against the specific type of dust encountered.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Dust-filter respirators may be used to protect the operator of outside abrasive-blasting operations where nonsilica abrasives are used on materials having low toxicities.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Dust-filter respirators shall not be used for continuous protection where silica sand is used as the blasting abrasive, or toxic materials are blasted.
</P>
<P>(iv) For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(v) Operators shall be equipped with heavy canvas or leather gloves and aprons or equivalent protection to protect them from the impact of abrasives. Safety shoes shall be worn to protect against foot injury where heavy pieces of work are handled.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Protective footwear must comply with the requirements specified by 29 CFR 1910.136(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Equipment for protection of the eyes and face shall be supplied to the operator when the respirator design does not provide such protection and to any other personnel working in the vicinity of abrasive blasting operations. This equipment shall conform to the requirements of § 1910.133.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Air supply and air compressors.</I> Air for abrasive-blasting respirators must be free of harmful quantities of dusts, mists, or noxious gases, and must meet the requirements for supplied-air quality and use specified in 29 CFR 1910.134(i).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Operational procedures and general safety.</I> Dust shall not be permitted to accumulate on the floor or on ledges outside of an abrasive-blasting enclosure, and dust spills shall be cleaned up promptly. Aisles and walkways shall be kept clear of steel shot or similar abrasive which may create a slipping hazard.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph (a) applies to all operations where an abrasive is forcibly applied to a surface by pneumatic or hydraulic pressure, or by centrifugal force. It does not apply to steam blasting, or steam cleaning, or hydraulic cleaning methods where work is done without the aid of abrasives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grinding, polishing, and buffing operations</I>—(1) <I>Definitions applicable to this paragraph</I>—(i) <I>Abrasive cutting-off wheels.</I> Organic-bonded wheels, the thickness of which is not more than one forty-eighth of their diameter for those up to, and including, 20 inches in diameter, and not more than one-sixtieth of their diameter for those larger than 20 inches in diameter, used for a multitude of operations variously known as cutting, cutting off, grooving, slotting, coping, and jointing, and the like. The wheels may be “solid” consisting of organic-bonded abrasive material throughout, “steel centered” consisting of a steel disc with a rim of organic-bonded material moulded around the periphery, or of the “inserted tooth” type consisting of a steel disc with organic-bonded abrasive teeth or inserts mechanically secured around the periphery.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Belts.</I> All power-driven, flexible, coated bands used for grinding, polishing, or buffing purposes.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Branch pipe.</I> The part of an exhaust system piping that is connected directly to the hood or enclosure.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Cradle.</I> A movable fixture, upon which the part to be ground or polished is placed.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Disc wheels.</I> All power-driven rotatable discs faced with abrasive materials, artificial or natural, and used for grinding or polishing on the side of the assembled disc.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Entry loss.</I> The loss in static pressure caused by air flowing into a duct or hood. It is usually expressed in inches of water gauge.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Exhaust system.</I> A system consisting of branch pipes connected to hoods or enclosures, one or more header pipes, an exhaust fan, means for separating solid contaminants from the air flowing in the system, and a discharge stack to outside.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Grinding wheels.</I> All power-driven rotatable grinding or abrasive wheels, except disc wheels as defined in this standard, consisting of abrasive particles held together by artificial or natural bonds and used for peripheral grinding.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Header pipe (main pipe).</I> A pipe into which one or more branch pipes enter and which connects such branch pipes to the remainder of the exhaust system.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Hoods and enclosures.</I> The partial or complete enclosure around the wheel or disc through which air enters an exhaust system during operation.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Horizontal double-spindle disc grinder.</I> A grinding machine carrying two power-driven, rotatable, coaxial, horizontal spindles upon the inside ends of which are mounted abrasive disc wheels used for grinding two surfaces simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Horizontal single-spindle disc grinder.</I> A grinding machine carrying an abrasive disc wheel upon one or both ends of a power-driven, rotatable single horizontal spindle.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Polishing and buffing wheels.</I> All power-driven rotatable wheels composed all or in part of textile fabrics, wood, felt, leather, paper, and may be coated with abrasives on the periphery of the wheel for purposes of polishing, buffing, and light grinding.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Portable grinder.</I> Any power-driven rotatable grinding, polishing, or buffing wheel mounted in such manner that it may be manually manipulated.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Scratch brush wheels.</I> All power-driven rotatable wheels made from wire or bristles, and used for scratch cleaning and brushing purposes.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Swing-frame grinder.</I> Any power-driven rotatable grinding, polishing, or buffing wheel mounted in such a manner that the wheel with its supporting framework can be manipulated over stationary objects.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Velocity pressure (vp).</I> The kinetic pressure in the direction of flow necessary to cause a fluid at rest to flow at a given velocity. It is usually expressed in inches of water gauge.
</P>
<P>(xviii) <I>Vertical spindle disc grinder.</I> A grinding machine having a vertical, rotatable power-driven spindle carrying a horizontal abrasive disc wheel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> Wherever dry grinding, dry polishing or buffing is performed, and employee exposure, without regard to the use of respirators, exceeds the permissible exposure limits prescribed in § 1910.1000 or other sections of this part, a local exhaust ventilation system shall be provided and used to maintain employee exposures within the prescribed limits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hood and branch pipe requirements.</I> (i) Hoods connected to exhaust systems shall be used, and such hoods shall be designed, located, and placed so that the dust or dirt particles shall fall or be projected into the hoods in the direction of the air flow. No wheels, discs, straps, or belts shall be operated in such manner and in such direction as to cause the dust and dirt particles to be thrown into the operator's breathing zone.
</P>
<P>(ii) Grinding wheels on floor stands, pedestals, benches, and special-purpose grinding machines and abrasive cutting-off wheels shall have not less than the minimum exhaust volumes shown in Table G-4 with a recommended minimum duct velocity of 4,500 feet per minute in the branch and 3,500 feet per minute in the main. The entry losses from all hoods except the vertical-spindle disc grinder hood, shall equal 0.65 velocity pressure for a straight takeoff and 0.45 velocity pressure for a tapered takeoff. The entry loss for the vertical-spindle disc grinder hood is shown in figure G-1 (following § 1910.94(b)).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-4—Grinding and Abrasive Cutting-Off Wheels
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel width (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum exhaust volume (feet
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">To 9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9 to 16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 16 to 19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 to 24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 24 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>For any wheel wider than wheel diameters shown in Table G-4, increase the exhaust volume by the ratio of the new width to the width shown.
</FP>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>If wheel width = 4
<FR>1/2</FR> inches, then
</PSPACE>
<FP-2>4.5 ÷ 4 × 610 = 686 (rounded to 690).</FP-2></EXAMPLE>
<P>(iii) Scratch-brush wheels and all buffing and polishing wheels mounted on floor stands, pedestals, benches, or special-purpose machines shall have not less than the minimum exhaust volume shown in Table G-5.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-5—Buffing and Polishing Wheels
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel width (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum exhaust volume (feet
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">To 9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9 to 16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 16 to 19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 to 24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 24 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) Grinding wheels or discs for horizontal single-spindle disc grinders shall be hooded to collect the dust or dirt generated by the grinding operation and the hoods shall be connected to branch pipes having exhaust volumes as shown in Table G-6.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-6—Horizontal Single-Spindle Disc Grinder
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Disc diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust volume (ft.
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 12 to 19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) Grinding wheels or discs for horizontal double-spindle disc grinders shall have a hood enclosing the grinding chamber and the hood shall be connected to one or more branch pipes having exhaust volumes as shown in Table G-7.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-7—Horizontal Double-Spindle Disc Grinder
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Disc diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust volume (ft.
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 to 25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 25 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53 to 72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,280</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) Grinding wheels or discs for vertical single-spindle disc grinders shall be encircled with hoods to remove the dust generated in the operation. The hoods shall be connected to one or more branch pipes having exhaust volumes as shown in Table G-8.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-8—Vertical Spindle Disc Grinder
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Disc diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">One-half or more of disc covered
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Disc not covered
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust foot
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust foot
<sup>3</sup>/min.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 20 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,480
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,530
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53 to 72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,010
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Number of exhaust outlets around periphery of hood, or equal distribution provided by other means.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vii) Grinding and polishing belts shall be provided with hoods to remove dust and dirt generated in the operations and the hoods shall be connected to branch pipes having exhaust volumes as shown in Table G-9.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-9—Grinding and Polishing Belts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Belts width (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust volume (ft.
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 3 to 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 5 to 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 7 to 9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9 to 11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 11 to 13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(viii) Cradles and swing-frame grinders. Where cradles are used for handling the parts to be ground, polished, or buffed, requiring large partial enclosures to house the complete operation, a minimum average air velocity of 150 feet per minute shall be maintained over the entire opening of the enclosure. Swing-frame grinders shall also be exhausted in the same manner as provided for cradles. (See fig. G-3)
</P>
<P>(ix) Where the work is outside the hood, air volumes must be increased as shown in American Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960 (section 4, exhaust hoods).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exhaust systems.</I> (i) Exhaust systems for grinding, polishing, and buffing operations should be designed in accordance with American Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exhaust systems for grinding, polishing, and buffing operations shall be tested in the manner described in American Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960.
</P>
<P>(iii) All exhaust systems shall be provided with suitable dust collectors.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hood and enclosure design.</I> (i)(<I>a</I>) It is the dual function of grinding and abrasive cutting-off wheel hoods to protect the operator from the hazards of bursting wheels, as well as to provide a means for the removal of dust and dirt generated. All hoods shall be not less in structural strength than specified in Tables O-1 and O-9 of § 1910.215.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Due to the variety of work and types of grinding machines employed, it is necessary to develop hoods adaptable to the particular machine in question, and such hoods shall be located as close as possible to the operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exhaust hoods for floor stands, pedestals, and bench grinders shall be designed in accordance with figure G-2. The adjustable tongue shown in the figure shall be kept in working order and shall be adjusted within one-fourth inch of the wheel periphery at all times.
</P>
<P>(iii) Swing-frame grinders shall be provided with exhaust booths as indicated in figure G-3.
</P>
<P>(iv) Portable grinding operations, whenever the nature of the work permits, shall be conducted within a partial enclosure. The opening in the enclosure shall be no larger than is actually required in the operation and an average face air velocity of not less than 200 feet per minute shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(v) Hoods for polishing and buffing and scratch-brush wheels shall be constructed to conform as closely to figure G-4 as the nature of the work will permit.
</P>
<P>(vi) Cradle grinding and polishing operations shall be performed within a partial enclosure similar to figure G-5. The operator shall be positioned outside the working face of the opening of the enclosure. The face opening of the enclosure should not be any greater in area than that actually required for the performance of the operation and the average air velocity into the working face of the enclosure shall not be less than 150 feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(vii) Hoods for horizontal single-spindle disc grinders shall be constructed to conform as closely as possible to the hood shown in figure G-6. It is essential that there be a space between the back of the wheel and the hood, and a space around the periphery of the wheel of at least 1 inch in order to permit the suction to act around the wheel periphery. The opening on the side of the disc shall be no larger than is required for the grinding operation, but must never be less than twice the area of the branch outlet.
</P>
<P>(viii) Horizontal double-spindle disc grinders shall have a hood encircling the wheels and grinding chamber similar to that illustrated in figure G-7. The openings for passing the work into the grinding chamber should be kept as small as possible, but must never be less than twice the area of the branch outlets.
</P>
<P>(ix) Vertical-spindle disc grinders shall be encircled with a hood so constructed that the heavy dust is drawn off a surface of the disc and the lighter dust exhausted through a continuous slot at the top of the hood as shown in figure G-1.
</P>
<P>(x) Grinding and polishing belt hoods shall be constructed as close to the operation as possible. The hood should extend almost to the belt, and 1-inch wide openings should be provided on either side. Figure G-8 shows a typical hood for a belt operation.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.015.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Dia <E T="03">D.</E> inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Exhaust <E T="03">E</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Volume Exhausted at 4,500 ft/min ft
<sup>3</sup>/min
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Note
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No Pipes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dia.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When one-half or more of the disc can be hooded, use exhaust ducts as shown at the left.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,140
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When no hood can be used over disc, use exhaust ducts as shown at left.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,480
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,530
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,010
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 1.0 slot velocity pressure + 0.5 branch velocity pressure.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Minimum slot velocity = 2,000 ft/min—
<fr>1/2</fr>-inch slot width.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.016.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Wheel dimension, inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Exhaust outlet, inches <E T="03">E</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Volume of air at 4,500 ft/min
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Width, Max
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min=<E T="03">d</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max=<E T="03">D</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff 0.65 velocity pressure for straight takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.018.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_description">Standard Buffing and Polishing Hood
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Wheel dimension, inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Exhaust outlet, inches <E T="03">E</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Volume of air at 4,500 ft/min
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Width, Max
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min=<E T="03">d</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max=<E T="03">D</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.200
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.15 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff; 0.65 velocity pressure for straight takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.020.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Dia <E T="03">D,</E> inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Exhaust <E T="03">E,</E> dia. inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Volume exhausted at 4,500 ft/min ft
<sup>3</sup>/min
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> If grinding wheels are used for disc grinding purposes, hoods must conform to structural strength and materials as described in 9.1.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.021.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Disc dia. inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Exhaust E
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Volume exhaust at 4,500 ft/min. ft
<sup>3</sup>/min
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Note
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No Pipes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dia.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When width “W” permits, exhaust ducts should be as near heaviest grinding as possible.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,280
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.022.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Belt width W. Inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust volume. ft.
<sup>1</sup>/min
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 to 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 to 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 to 9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 to 11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 to 13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Minimum duct velocity = 4,500 ft/min branch, 3,500 ft/min main.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff; 0.65 velocity pressure for straight takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph (b), prescribes the use of exhaust hood enclosures and systems in removing dust, dirt, fumes, and gases generated through the grinding, polishing, or buffing of ferrous and nonferrous metals.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Spray finishing operations</I>—(1) <I>Definitions applicable to this paragraph</I>—(i) <I>Spray-finishing operations.</I> Spray-finishing operations are employment of methods wherein organic or inorganic materials are utilized in dispersed form for deposit on surfaces to be coated, treated, or cleaned. Such methods of deposit may involve either automatic, manual, or electrostatic deposition but do not include metal spraying or metallizing, dipping, flow coating, roller coating, tumbling, centrifuging, or spray washing and degreasing as conducted in self-contained washing and degreasing machines or systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Spray booth.</I> Spray booths are defined and described in § 1910.107(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Spray room.</I> A spray room is a room in which spray-finishing operations not conducted in a spray booth are performed separately from other areas.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Minimum maintained velocity.</I> Minimum maintained velocity is the velocity of air movement which must be maintained in order to meet minimum specified requirements for health and safety.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location and application.</I> Spray booths or spray rooms are to be used to enclose or confine all operations. Spray-finishing operations shall be located as provided in sections 201 through 206 of the Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable and Combustible Materials, NFPA No. 33-1969.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design and construction of spray booths.</I> (i) Spray booths shall be designed and constructed in accordance with § 1910.107(b)(1) through (b)(4) and (b)(6) through (b)(10). For a more detailed discussion of fundamentals relating to this subject, see ANSI Z9.2-1960, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Lights, motors, electrical equipment, and other sources of ignition shall conform to the requirements of § 1910.107(b)(10) and (c).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In no case shall combustible material be used in the construction of a spray booth and supply or exhaust duct connected to it.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unobstructed walkways shall not be less than 6
<FR>1/2</FR> feet high and shall be maintained clear of obstruction from any work location in the booth to a booth exit or open booth front. In booths where the open front is the only exit, such exits shall be not less than 3 feet wide. In booths having multiple exits, such exits shall not be less than 2 feet wide, provided that the maximum distance from the work location to the exit is 25 feet or less. Where booth exits are provided with doors, such doors shall open outward from the booth.
</P>
<P>(iii) Baffles, distribution plates, and dry-type overspray collectors shall conform to the requirements of § 1910.107(b)(4) and (b)(5).
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Overspray filters shall be installed and maintained in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.107(b)(5), and shall only be in a location easily accessible for inspection, cleaning, or replacement.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where effective means, independent of the overspray filters, are installed which will result in design air distribution across the booth cross section, it is permissible to operate the booth without the filters in place.
</P>
<P>(iv) (<I>a</I>) For wet or water-wash spray booths, the water-chamber enclosure, within which intimate contact of contaminated air and cleaning water or other cleaning medium is maintained, if made of steel, shall be 18 gage or heavier and adequately protected against corrosion.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Chambers may include scrubber spray nozzles, headers, troughs, or other devices. Chambers shall be provided with adequate means for creating and maintaining scrubbing action for removal of particulate matter from the exhaust air stream.
</P>
<P>(v) Collecting tanks shall be of welded steel construction or other suitable non-combustible material. If pits are used as collecting tanks, they shall be concrete, masonry, or other material having similar properties.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Tanks shall be provided with weirs, skimmer plates, or screens to prevent sludge and floating paint from entering the pump suction box. Means for automatically maintaining the proper water level shall also be provided. Fresh water inlets shall not be submerged. They shall terminate at least one pipe diameter above the safety overflow level of the tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Tanks shall be so constructed as to discourage accumulation of hazardous deposits.
</P>
<P>(vi) Pump manifolds, risers, and headers shall be adequately sized to insure sufficient water flow to provide efficient operation of the water chamber.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Design and construction of spray rooms.</I> (i) Spray rooms, including floors, shall be constructed of masonry, concrete, or other noncombustible material.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spray rooms shall have noncombustible fire doors and shutters.
</P>
<P>(iii) Spray rooms shall be adequately ventilated so that the atmosphere in the breathing zone of the operator shall be maintained in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Spray rooms used for production spray-finishing operations shall conform to the requirements for spray booths.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Ventilation.</I> (i) Ventilation shall be provided in accordance with provisions of § 1910.107(d), and in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Where a fan plenum is used to equalize or control the distribution of exhaust air movement through the booth, it shall be of sufficient strength or rigidity to withstand the differential air pressure or other superficially imposed loads for which the equipment is designed and also to facilitate cleaning. Construction specifications shall be at least equivalent to those of paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Inlet or supply ductwork used to transport makeup air to spray booths or surrounding areas shall be constructed of noncombustible materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) If negative pressure exists within inlet ductwork, all seams and joints shall be sealed if there is a possibility of infiltration of harmful quantities of noxious gases, fumes, or mists from areas through which ductwork passes.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Inlet ductwork shall be sized in accordance with volume flow requirements and provide design air requirements at the spray booth.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Inlet ductwork shall be adequately supported throughout its length to sustain at least its own weight plus any negative pressure which is exerted upon it under normal operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) Exhaust ductwork shall be adequately supported throughout its length to sustain its weight plus any normal accumulation in interior during normal operating conditions and any negative pressure exerted upon it.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Exhaust ductwork shall be sized in accordance with good design practice which shall include consideration of fan capacity, length of duct, number of turns and elbows, variation in size, volume, and character of materials being exhausted. See American National Standard Z9.2-1960 for further details and explanation concerning elements of design.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Longitudinal joints in sheet steel ductwork shall be either lock-seamed, riveted, or welded. For other than steel construction, equivalent securing of joints shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Circumferential joints in ductwork shall be substantially fastened together and lapped in the direction of airflow. At least every fourth joint shall be provided with connecting flanges, bolted together, or of equivalent fastening security.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Inspection or clean-out doors shall be provided for every 9 to 12 feet of running length for ducts up to 12 inches in diameter, but the distance between cleanout doors may be greater for larger pipes. A clean-out door or doors shall be provided for servicing the fan, and where necessary, a drain shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Where ductwork passes through a combustible roof or wall, the roof or wall shall be protected at the point of penetration by open space or fire-resistive material between the duct and the roof or wall. When ducts pass through firewalls, they shall be provided with automatic fire dampers on both sides of the wall, except that three-eighth-inch steel plates may be used in lieu of automatic fire dampers for ducts not exceeding 18 inches in diameter.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Ductwork used for ventilating any process covered in this standard shall not be connected to ducts ventilating any other process or any chimney or flue used for conveying any products of combustion.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Velocity and air flow requirements.</I> (i) Except where a spray booth has an adequate air replacement system, the velocity of air into all openings of a spray booth shall be not less than that specified in Table G-10 for the operating conditions specified. An adequate air replacement system is one which introduces replacement air upstream or above the object being sprayed and is so designed that the velocity of air in the booth cross section is not less than that specified in Table G-10 when measured upstream or above the object being sprayed.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-10—Minimum Maintained Velocities Into Spray Booths
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Operating conditions for objects completely inside booth
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Crossdraft, f.p.m.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Airflow velocities, f.p.m.
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Design
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Range
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrostatic and automatic airless operation contained in booth without operator</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Negligible</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 large booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 small booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-operated guns, manual or automatic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 large booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 small booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125-175
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-operated guns, manual or automatic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 large booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125-175
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 small booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150-250
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (1) Attention is invited to the fact that the effectiveness of the spray booth is dependent upon the relationship of the depth of the booth to its height and width.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (2) Crossdrafts can be eliminated through proper design and such design should be sought. Crossdrafts in excess of 100fpm (feet per minute) should not be permitted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (3) Excessive air pressures result in loss of both efficiency and material waste in addition to creating a backlash that may carry overspray and fumes into adjacent work areas.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (4) Booths should be designed with velocities shown in the column headed “Design.” However, booths operating with velocities shown in the column headed “Range” are in compliance with this standard.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section the total air volume exhausted through a spray booth shall be such as to dilute solvent vapor to at least 25 percent of the lower explosive limit of the solvent being sprayed. An example of the method of calculating this volume is given below.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>To determine the lower explosive limits of the most common solvents used in spray finishing, see Table G-11. Column 1 gives the number of cubic feet of vapor per gallon of solvent and column 2 gives the lower explosive limit (LEL) in percentage by volume of air. Note that the quantity of solvent will be diminished by the quantity of solids and nonflammables contained in the finish.
</PSPACE><P>To determine the volume of air in cubic feet necessary to dilute the vapor from 1 gallon of solvent to 25 percent of the lower explosive limit, apply the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>Dilution volume required per gallon of solvent = 4 (100−LEL) (cubic feet of vapor per gallon) ÷ LEL
</FP-2>
<FP>Using toluene as the solvent.
</FP><PSPACE>(1) LEL of toluene from Table G-11, column 2, is 1.4 percent.
</PSPACE><P>(2) Cubic feet of vapor per gallon from Table G-11, column 1, is 30.4 cubic feet per gallon.
</P><P>(3) Dilution volume required=
</P>
<FP-2>4 (100−1.4) 30.4 ÷ 1.4 = 8,564 cubic feet.
</FP-2><PSPACE>(4) To convert to cubic feet per minute of required ventilation, multiply the dilution volume required per gallon of solvent by the number of gallons of solvent evaporated per minute.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-11—Lower Explosive Limit of Some Commonly Used Solvents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Solvent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cubic feet per gallon of vapor of liquid at 70 °F.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lower explosive limit in percent by volume of air at 70 °F
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Column 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Column 2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amyl Acetate (iso)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amyl Alcohol (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amyl Alcohol (iso)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl Acetate (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl Alcohol (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl Cellosolve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellosolve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellosolve Acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1 Dichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2 Dichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl Acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl Alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl Lactate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Cellosolve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Ethyl Ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl n-Propyl Ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphtha (VM&amp;P) (76° Naphtha)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphtha (100 °Flash) Safety Solvent—Stoddard Solvent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Acetate (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Acetate (iso)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Alcohol (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Alcohol (iso)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turpentine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylene (o)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At 212 °F.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) When an operator is in a booth downstream from the object being sprayed, an air-supplied respirator or other type of respirator must be used by employees that has been approved by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84 for the material being sprayed.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where downdraft booths are provided with doors, such doors shall be closed when spray painting.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Make-up air.</I> (i) Clean fresh air, free of contamination from adjacent industrial exhaust systems, chimneys, stacks, or vents, shall be supplied to a spray booth or room in quantities equal to the volume of air exhausted through the spray booth.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where a spray booth or room receives make-up air through self-closing doors, dampers, or louvers, they shall be fully open at all times when the booth or room is in use for spraying. The velocity of air through such doors, dampers, or louvers shall not exceed 200 feet per minute. If the fan characteristics are such that the required air flow through the booth will be provided, higher velocities through the doors, dampers, or louvers may be used.
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) Where the air supply to a spray booth or room is filtered, the fan static pressure shall be calculated on the assumption that the filters are dirty to the extent that they require cleaning or replacement.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The rating of filters shall be governed by test data supplied by the manufacturer of the filter. A pressure gage shall be installed to show the pressure drop across the filters. This gage shall be marked to show the pressure drop at which the filters require cleaning or replacement. Filters shall be replaced or cleaned whenever the pressure drop across them becomes excessive or whenever the air flow through the face of the booth falls below that specified in Table G-10.
</P>
<P>(iv)(<I>a</I>) Means for heating make-up air to any spray booth or room, before or at the time spraying is normally performed, shall be provided in all places where the outdoor temperature may be expected to remain below 55 °F. for appreciable periods of time during the operation of the booth except where adequate and safe means of radiant heating for all operating personnel affected is provided. The replacement air during the heating seasons shall be maintained at not less than 65 °F. at the point of entry into the spray booth or spray room. When otherwise unheated make-up air would be at a temperature of more than 10 °F. below room temperature, its temperature shall be regulated as provided in section 3.6.3 of ANSI Z9.2-1960.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) As an alternative to an air replacement system complying with the preceding section, general heating of the building in which the spray room or booth is located may be employed provided that all occupied parts of the building are maintained at not less than 65 °F. when the exhaust system is in operation or the general heating system supplemented by other sources of heat may be employed to meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) No means of heating make-up air shall be located in a spray booth.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Where make-up air is heated by coal or oil, the products of combustion shall not be allowed to mix with the make-up air, and the products of combustion shall be conducted outside the building through a flue terminating at a point remote from all points where make-up air enters the building.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Where make-up air is heated by gas, and the products of combustion are not mixed with the make-up air but are conducted through an independent flue to a point outside the building remote from all points where make-up air enters the building, it is not necessary to comply with paragraph (c)(7)(iv)(<I>f</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Where make-up air to any manually operated spray booth or room is heated by gas and the products of combustion are allowed to mix with the supply air, the following precautions must be taken:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The gas must have a distinctive and strong enough odor to warn workmen in a spray booth or room of its presence if in an unburned state in the make-up air.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The maximum rate of gas supply to the make-up air heater burners must not exceed that which would yield in excess of 200 p.p.m. (parts per million) of carbon monoxide or 2,000 p.p.m. of total combustible gases in the mixture if the unburned gas upon the occurrence of flame failure were mixed with all of the make-up air supplied.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A fan must be provided to deliver the mixture of heated air and products of combustion from the plenum chamber housing the gas burners to the spray booth or room.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Scope.</I> Spray booths or spray rooms are to be used to enclose or confine all spray finishing operations covered by this paragraph (c). This paragraph does not apply to the spraying of the exteriors of buildings, fixed tanks, or similar structures, nor to small portable spraying apparatus not used repeatedly in the same location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 23073, May 28, 1975; 40 FR 24522, June 9, 1975; 43 FR 49746, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 58 FR 35308, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9236, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 1269, Jan. 8, 1998; 64 FR 13909, Mar. 23, 1999; 72 FR 71069, Dec. 14, 2007; 74 FR 46356, Sept. 9, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.95" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.7.33.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.95   Occupational noise exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Protection against the effects of noise exposure shall be provided when the sound levels exceed those shown in Table G-16 when measured on the A scale of a standard sound level meter at slow response. When noise levels are determined by octave band analysis, the equivalent A-weighted sound level may be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.023.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure G-9</E></BCAP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Equivalent sound level contours. Octave band sound pressure levels may be converted to the equivalent A-weighted sound level by plotting them on this graph and noting the A-weighted sound level corresponding to the point of highest penetration into the sound level contours. This equivalent A-weighted sound level, which may differ from the actual A-weighted sound level of the noise, is used to determine exposure limits from Table 1.G-16.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b)(1) When employees are subjected to sound exceeding those listed in Table G-16, feasible administrative or engineering controls shall be utilized. If such controls fail to reduce sound levels within the levels of Table G-16, personal protective equipment shall be provided and used to reduce sound levels within the levels of the table.
</P>
<P>(2) If the variations in noise level involve maxima at intervals of 1 second or less, it is to be considered continuous.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-16—Permissible Noise Exposures 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Duration per day, hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sound level dBA slow response
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr> or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> When the daily noise exposure is composed of two or more periods of noise exposure of different levels, their combined effect should be considered, rather than the individual effect of each. If the sum of the following fractions: <E T="03">C</E><E T="52">1</E>/<E T="03">T</E><E T="52">1</E> + <E T="03">C</E><E T="52">2</E>/<E T="03">T</E><E T="52">2</E><E T="03">C</E><E T="54">n</E>/<E T="03">T</E><E T="54">n</E> exceeds unity, then, the mixed exposure should be considered to exceed the limit value. <E T="03">Cn</E> indicates the total time of exposure at a specified noise level, and <E T="03">Tn</E> indicates the total time of exposure permitted at that level.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Exposure to impulsive or impact noise should not exceed 140 dB peak sound pressure level.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing conservation program.</I> (1) The employer shall administer a continuing, effective hearing conservation program, as described in paragraphs (c) through (o) of this section, whenever employee noise exposures equal or exceed an 8-hour time-weighted average sound level (TWA) of 85 decibels measured on the A scale (slow response) or, equivalently, a dose of fifty percent. For purposes of the hearing conservation program, employee noise exposures shall be computed in accordance with appendix A and Table G-16a, and without regard to any attenuation provided by the use of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraphs (c) through (n) of this section, an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels or a dose of fifty percent shall also be referred to as the action level.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Monitoring.</I> (1) When information indicates that any employee's exposure may equal or exceed an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels, the employer shall develop and implement a monitoring program.
</P>
<P>(i) The sampling strategy shall be designed to identify employees for inclusion in the hearing conservation program and to enable the proper selection of hearing protectors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where circumstances such as high worker mobility, significant variations in sound level, or a significant component of impulse noise make area monitoring generally inappropriate, the employer shall use representative personal sampling to comply with the monitoring requirements of this paragraph unless the employer can show that area sampling produces equivalent results.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) All continuous, intermittent and impulsive sound levels from 80 decibels to 130 decibels shall be integrated into the noise measurements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Instruments used to measure employee noise exposure shall be calibrated to ensure measurement accuracy.
</P>
<P>(3) Monitoring shall be repeated whenever a change in production, process, equipment or controls increases noise exposures to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(i) Additional employees may be exposed at or above the action level; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The attenuation provided by hearing protectors being used by employees may be rendered inadequate to meet the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employee notification.</I> The employer shall notify each employee exposed at or above an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels of the results of the monitoring.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their representatives with an opportunity to observe any noise measurements conducted pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Audiometric testing program.</I> (1) The employer shall establish and maintain an audiometric testing program as provided in this paragraph by making audiometric testing available to all employees whose exposures equal or exceed an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels.
</P>
<P>(2) The program shall be provided at no cost to employees.
</P>
<P>(3) Audiometric tests shall be performed by a licensed or certified audiologist, otolaryngologist, or other physician, or by a technician who is certified by the Council of Accreditation in Occupational Hearing Conservation, or who has satisfactorily demonstrated competence in administering audiometric examinations, obtaining valid audiograms, and properly using, maintaining and checking calibration and proper functioning of the audiometers being used. A technician who operates microprocessor audiometers does not need to be certified. A technician who performs audiometric tests must be responsible to an audiologist, otolaryngologist or physician.
</P>
<P>(4) All audiograms obtained pursuant to this section shall meet the requirements of appendix C: <I>Audiometric Measuring Instruments.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Baseline audiogram.</I> (i) Within 6 months of an employee's first exposure at or above the action level, the employer shall establish a valid baseline audiogram against which subsequent audiograms can be compared.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Mobile test van exception.</I> Where mobile test vans are used to meet the audiometric testing obligation, the employer shall obtain a valid baseline audiogram within 1 year of an employee's first exposure at or above the action level. Where baseline audiograms are obtained more than 6 months after the employee's first exposure at or above the action level, employees shall wearing hearing protectors for any period exceeding six months after first exposure until the baseline audiogram is obtained.
</P>
<P>(iii) Testing to establish a baseline audiogram shall be preceded by at least 14 hours without exposure to workplace noise. Hearing protectors may be used as a substitute for the requirement that baseline audiograms be preceded by 14 hours without exposure to workplace noise.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall notify employees of the need to avoid high levels of non-occupational noise exposure during the 14-hour period immediately preceding the audiometric examination.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Annual audiogram.</I> At least annually after obtaining the baseline audiogram, the employer shall obtain a new audiogram for each employee exposed at or above an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Evaluation of audiogram.</I> (i) Each employee's annual audiogram shall be compared to that employee's baseline audiogram to determine if the audiogram is valid and if a standard threshold shift as defined in paragraph (g)(10) of this section has occurred. This comparison may be done by a technician.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the annual audiogram shows that an employee has suffered a standard threshold shift, the employer may obtain a retest within 30 days and consider the results of the retest as the annual audiogram.
</P>
<P>(iii) The audiologist, otolaryngologist, or physician shall review problem audiograms and shall determine whether there is a need for further evaluation. The employer shall provide to the person performing this evaluation the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the requirements for hearing conservation as set forth in paragraphs (c) through (n) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The baseline audiogram and most recent audiogram of the employee to be evaluated;
</P>
<P>(C) Measurements of background sound pressure levels in the audiometric test room as required in appendix D: Audiometric Test Rooms.
</P>
<P>(D) Records of audiometer calibrations required by paragraph (h)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Follow-up procedures.</I> (i) If a comparison of the annual audiogram to the baseline audiogram indicates a standard threshold shift as defined in paragraph (g)(10) of this section has occurred, the employee shall be informed of this fact in writing, within 21 days of the determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless a physician determines that the standard threshold shift is not work related or aggravated by occupational noise exposure, the employer shall ensure that the following steps are taken when a standard threshold shift occurs:
</P>
<P>(A) Employees not using hearing protectors shall be fitted with hearing protectors, trained in their use and care, and required to use them.
</P>
<P>(B) Employees already using hearing protectors shall be refitted and retrained in the use of hearing protectors and provided with hearing protectors offering greater attenuation if necessary.
</P>
<P>(C) The employee shall be referred for a clinical audiological evaluation or an otological examination, as appropriate, if additional testing is necessary or if the employer suspects that a medical pathology of the ear is caused or aggravated by the wearing of hearing protectors.
</P>
<P>(D) The employee is informed of the need for an otological examination if a medical pathology of the ear that is unrelated to the use of hearing protectors is suspected.
</P>
<P>(iii) If subsequent audiometric testing of an employee whose exposure to noise is less than an 8-hour TWA of 90 decibels indicates that a standard threshold shift is not persistent, the employer:
</P>
<P>(A) Shall inform the employee of the new audiometric interpretation; and
</P>
<P>(B) May discontinue the required use of hearing protectors for that employee.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Revised baseline.</I> An annual audiogram may be substituted for the baseline audiogram when, in the judgment of the audiologist, otolaryngologist or physician who is evaluating the audiogram:
</P>
<P>(i) The standard threshold shift revealed by the audiogram is persistent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The hearing threshold shown in the annual audiogram indicates significant improvement over the baseline audiogram.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Standard threshold shift.</I> (i) As used in this section, a standard threshold shift is a change in hearing threshold relative to the baseline audiogram of an average of 10 dB or more at 2000, 3000, and 4000 Hz in either ear.
</P>
<P>(ii) In determining whether a standard threshold shift has occurred, allowance may be made for the contribution of aging (presbycusis) to the change in hearing level by correcting the annual audiogram according to the procedure described in appendix F: <I>Calculation and Application of Age Correction to Audiograms.</I>
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Audiometric test requirements.</I> (1) Audiometric tests shall be pure tone, air conduction, hearing threshold examinations, with test frequencies including as a minimum 500, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, and 6000 Hz. Tests at each frequency shall be taken separately for each ear.
</P>
<P>(2) Audiometric tests shall be conducted with audiometers (including microprocessor audiometers) that meet the specifications of, and are maintained and used in accordance with, American National Standard Specification for Audiometers, S3.6-1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(3) Pulsed-tone and self-recording audiometers, if used, shall meet the requirements specified in appendix C: <I>Audiometric Measuring Instruments.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) Audiometric examinations shall be administered in a room meeting the requirements listed in appendix D: <I>Audiometric Test Rooms.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Audiometer calibration.</I> (i) The functional operation of the audiometer shall be checked before each day's use by testing a person with known, stable hearing thresholds, and by listening to the audiometer's output to make sure that the output is free from distorted or unwanted sounds. Deviations of 10 decibels or greater require an acoustic calibration.
</P>
<P>(ii) Audiometer calibration shall be checked acoustically at least annually in accordance with appendix E: <I>Acoustic Calibration of Audiometers.</I> Test frequencies below 500 Hz and above 6000 Hz may be omitted from this check. Deviations of 15 decibels or greater require an exhaustive calibration.
</P>
<P>(iii) An exhaustive calibration shall be performed at least every two years in accordance with sections 4.1.2; 4.1.3.; 4.1.4.3; 4.2; 4.4.1; 4.4.2; 4.4.3; and 4.5 of the American National Standard Specification for Audiometers, S3.6-1969. Test frequencies below 500 Hz and above 6000 Hz may be omitted from this calibration.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hearing protectors.</I> (1) Employers shall make hearing protectors available to all employees exposed to an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels or greater at no cost to the employees. Hearing protectors shall be replaced as necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) Employers shall ensure that hearing protectors are worn:
</P>
<P>(i) By an employee who is required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section to wear personal protective equipment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) By any employee who is exposed to an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels or greater, and who:
</P>
<P>(A) Has not yet had a baseline audiogram established pursuant to paragraph (g)(5)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(B) Has experienced a standard threshold shift.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees shall be given the opportunity to select their hearing protectors from a variety of suitable hearing protectors provided by the employer.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall provide training in the use and care of all hearing protectors provided to employees.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure proper initial fitting and supervise the correct use of all hearing protectors.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hearing protector attenuation.</I> (1) The employer shall evaluate hearing protector attenuation for the specific noise environments in which the protector will be used. The employer shall use one of the evaluation methods described in appendix B: <I>Methods for Estimating the Adequacy of Hearing Protection Attenuation.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Hearing protectors must attenuate employee exposure at least to an 8-hour time-weighted average of 90 decibels as required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For employees who have experienced a standard threshold shift, hearing protectors must attenuate employee exposure to an 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels or below.
</P>
<P>(4) The adequacy of hearing protector attenuation shall be re-evaluated whenever employee noise exposures increase to the extent that the hearing protectors provided may no longer provide adequate attenuation. The employer shall provide more effective hearing protectors where necessary.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Training program.</I> (1) The employer shall train each employee who is exposed to noise at or above an 8-hour time weighted average of 85 decibels in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(2) The training program shall be repeated annually for each employee included in the hearing conservation program. Information provided in the training program shall be updated to be consistent with changes in protective equipment and work processes.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The effects of noise on hearing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purpose of hearing protectors, the advantages, disadvantages, and attenuation of various types, and instructions on selection, fitting, use, and care; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purpose of audiometric testing, and an explanation of the test procedures.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Access to information and training materials.</I> (1) The employer shall make available to affected employees or their representatives copies of this standard and shall also post a copy in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall provide to affected employees any informational materials pertaining to the standard that are supplied to the employer by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials related to the employer's training and education program pertaining to this standard to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> The employer shall maintain an accurate record of all employee exposure measurements required by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Audiometric tests.</I> (i) The employer shall retain all employee audiometric test records obtained pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section:
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and job classification of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) Date of the audiogram;
</P>
<P>(C) The examiner's name;
</P>
<P>(D) Date of the last acoustic or exhaustive calibration of the audiometer; and
</P>
<P>(E) Employee's most recent noise exposure assessment.
</P>
<P>(F) The employer shall maintain accurate records of the measurements of the background sound pressure levels in audiometric test rooms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Record retention.</I> The employer shall retain records required in this paragraph (m) for at least the following periods.
</P>
<P>(i) Noise exposure measurement records shall be retained for two years.
</P>
<P>(ii) Audiometric test records shall be retained for the duration of the affected employee's employment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Access to records.</I> All records required by this section shall be provided upon request to employees, former employees, representatives designated by the individual employee, and the Assistant Secretary. The provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a)-(e) and (g)-(i) apply to access to records under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transfer of records.</I> If the employer ceases to do business, the employer shall transfer to the successor employer all records required to be maintained by this section, and the successor employer shall retain them for the remainder of the period prescribed in paragraph (m)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Appendices.</I> (1) Appendices A, B, C, D, and E to this section are incorporated as part of this section and the contents of these appendices are mandatory.
</P>
<P>(2) Appendices F and G to this section are informational and are not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Exemptions.</I> Paragraphs (c) through (n) of this section shall not apply to employers engaged in oil and gas well drilling and servicing operations.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.95—Noise Exposure Computation
</HD1>
<HD2>This appendix is Mandatory
</HD2>
<HD1>I. Computation of Employee Noise Exposure
</HD1>
<P>(1) Noise dose is computed using Table G-16a as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When the sound level, L, is constant over the entire work shift, the noise dose, D, in percent, is given by: D = 100 C/T where C is the total length of the work day, in hours, and T is the reference duration corresponding to the measured sound level, L, as given in Table G-16a or by the formula shown as a footnote to that table.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the workshift noise exposure is composed of two or more periods of noise at different levels, the total noise dose over the work day is given by:
</P>
<FP-2>D = 100(C<E T="52">1</E> / T<E T="52">1</E> + C<E T="52">2</E> / T<E T="52">2</E> + C<E T="52">n</E> / T<E T="52">n</E>),
</FP-2>
<FP>where C<E T="52">n</E> indicates the total time of exposure at a specific noise level, and T<E T="52">n</E> indicates the reference duration for that level as given by Table G-16a.
</FP>
<P>(2) The eight-hour time-weighted average sound level (TWA), in decibels, may be computed from the dose, in percent, by means of the formula: TWA = 16.61 log<E T="52">10</E> (D/100) + 90. For an eight-hour workshift with the noise level constant over the entire shift, the TWA is equal to the measured sound level.
</P>
<P>(3) A table relating dose and TWA is given in Section II.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-16a
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A-weighted sound level, L (decibel)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference duration, T (hour)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.095
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.082
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.072
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.063
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.054
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.047
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.041
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.036
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.031</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>In the above table the reference duration, T, is computed by
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="27" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er25se06.008.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where L is the measured A-weighted sound level.
</FP>
<HD1>II. Conversion Between “Dose” and “8-Hour Time-Weighted Average” Sound Level
</HD1>
<P>Compliance with paragraphs (c)-(r) of this regulation is determined by the amount of exposure to noise in the workplace. The amount of such exposure is usually measured with an audiodosimeter which gives a readout in terms of “dose.” In order to better understand the requirements of the amendment, dosimeter readings can be converted to an “8-hour time-weighted average sound level.” (TWA).
</P>
<P>In order to convert the reading of a dosimeter into TWA, see Table A-1, below. This table applies to dosimeters that are set by the manufacturer to calculate dose or percent exposure according to the relationships in Table G-16a. So, for example, a dose of 91 percent over an eight hour day results in a TWA of 89.3 dB, and, a dose of 50 percent corresponds to a TWA of 85 dB.
</P>
<P>If the dose as read on the dosimeter is less than or greater than the values found in Table A-1, the TWA may be calculated by using the formula: TWA=16.61 log<E T="52">10</E> (D/100) + 90 where TWA = 8-hour time-weighted average sound level and D = accumulated dose in percent exposure.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-1—Conversion From “Percent Noise Exposure” or “Dose” to “8-Hour Time-Weighted Average Sound Level” (TWA)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dose or percent noise exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TWA
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">195</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">310</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">340</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">390</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">410</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">440</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">460</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">470</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">510</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">520</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">610</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">660</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">680</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">690</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">720</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">730</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">740</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">760</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">770</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">780</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">790</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">810</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">820</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">830</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">840</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">860</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">870</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">880</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">890</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">910</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">920</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">930</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">940</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">970</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">980</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.95—Methods for Estimating the Adequacy of Hearing Protector Attenuation
</HD1>
<HD2>This appendix is Mandatory
</HD2>
<P>For employees who have experienced a significant threshold shift, hearing protector attenuation must be sufficient to reduce employee exposure to a TWA of 85 dB. Employers must select one of the following methods by which to estimate the adequacy of hearing protector attenuation.
</P>
<P>The most convenient method is the Noise Reduction Rating (NRR) developed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). According to EPA regulation, the NRR must be shown on the hearing protector package. The NRR is then related to an individual worker's noise environment in order to assess the adequacy of the attenuation of a given hearing protector. This appendix describes four methods of using the NRR to determine whether a particular hearing protector provides adequate protection within a given exposure environment. Selection among the four procedures is dependent upon the employer's noise measuring instruments.
</P>
<P>Instead of using the NRR, employers may evaluate the adequacy of hearing protector attenuation by using one of the three methods developed by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), which are described in the “List of Personal Hearing Protectors and Attenuation Data,” HEW Publication No. 76-120, 1975, pages 21-37. These methods are known as NIOSH methods #1B1, #1B2 and #1B3. The NRR described below is a simplification of NIOSH method #1B2. The most complex method is NIOSH method #1B1, which is probably the most accurate method since it uses the largest amount of spectral information from the individual employee's noise environment. As in the case of the NRR method described below, if one of the NIOSH methods is used, the selected method must be applied to an individual's noise environment to assess the adequacy of the attenuation. Employers should be careful to take a sufficient number of measurements in order to achieve a representative sample for each time segment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The employer must remember that calculated attenuation values reflect realistic values only to the extent that the protectors are properly fitted and worn.</P></NOTE>
<P>When using the NRR to assess hearing protector adequacy, one of the following methods must be used:
</P>
<P>(i) When using a dosimeter that is capable of C-weighted measurements:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtain the employee's C-weighted dose for the entire workshift, and convert to TWA (see appendix A, II).
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract the NRR from the C-weighted TWA to obtain the estimated A-weighted TWA under the ear protector.
</P>
<P>(ii) When using a dosimeter that is not capable of C-weighted measurements, the following method may be used:
</P>
<P>(A) Convert the A-weighted dose to TWA (see appendix A).
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract 7 dB from the NRR.
</P>
<P>(C) Subtract the remainder from the A-weighted TWA to obtain the estimated A-weighted TWA under the ear protector.
</P>
<P>(iii) When using a sound level meter set to the A-weighting network:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtain the employee's A-weighted TWA.
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract 7 dB from the NRR, and subtract the remainder from the A-weighted TWA to obtain the estimated A-weighted TWA under the ear protector.
</P>
<P>(iv) When using a sound level meter set on the C-weighting network:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtain a representative sample of the C-weighted sound levels in the employee's environment.
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract the NRR from the C-weighted average sound level to obtain the estimated A-weighted TWA under the ear protector.
</P>
<P>(v) When using area monitoring procedures and a sound level meter set to the A-weighing network.
</P>
<P>(A) Obtain a representative sound level for the area in question.
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract 7 dB from the NRR and subtract the remainder from the A-weighted sound level for that area.
</P>
<P>(vi) When using area monitoring procedures and a sound level meter set to the C-weighting network:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtain a representative sound level for the area in question.
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract the NRR from the C-weighted sound level for that area.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.95—Audiometric Measuring Instruments
</HD1>
<HD2>This appendix is Mandatory
</HD2>
<P>1. In the event that pulsed-tone audiometers are used, they shall have a tone on-time of at least 200 milliseconds.
</P>
<P>2. Self-recording audiometers shall comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The chart upon which the audiogram is traced shall have lines at positions corresponding to all multiples of 10 dB hearing level within the intensity range spanned by the audiometer. The lines shall be equally spaced and shall be separated by at least 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch. Additional increments are optional. The audiogram pen tracings shall not exceed 2 dB in width.
</P>
<P>(B) It shall be possible to set the stylus manually at the 10-dB increment lines for calibration purposes.
</P>
<P>(C) The slewing rate for the audiometer attenuator shall not be more than 6 dB/sec except that an initial slewing rate greater than 6 dB/sec is permitted at the beginning of each new test frequency, but only until the second subject response.
</P>
<P>(D) The audiometer shall remain at each required test frequency for 30 seconds (±3 seconds). The audiogram shall be clearly marked at each change of frequency and the actual frequency change of the audiometer shall not deviate from the frequency boundaries marked on the audiogram by more than ±3 seconds.
</P>
<P>(E) It must be possible at each test frequency to place a horizontal line segment parallel to the time axis on the audiogram, such that the audiometric tracing crosses the line segment at least six times at that test frequency. At each test frequency the threshold shall be the average of the midpoints of the tracing excursions.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.95—Audiometric Test Rooms
</HD1>
<HD2>This appendix is Mandatory
</HD2>
<P>Rooms used for audiometric testing shall not have background sound pressure levels exceeding those in Table D-1 when measured by equipment conforming at least to the Type 2 requirements of American National Standard Specification for Sound Level Meters, S1.4-1971 (R1976), and to the Class II requirements of American National Standard Specification for Octave, Half-Octave, and Third-Octave Band Filter Sets, S1.11-1971 (R1976).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-1—Maximum Allowable Octave-Band Sound Pressure Levels for Audiometric Test Rooms
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octave-band center frequency (Hz)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sound pressure level (dB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1910.95—Acoustic Calibration of Audiometers
</HD1>
<HD2>This appendix is Mandatory
</HD2>
<P>Audiometer calibration shall be checked acoustically, at least annually, according to the procedures described in this appendix. The equipment necessary to perform these measurements is a sound level meter, octave-band filter set, and a National Bureau of Standards 9A coupler. In making these measurements, the accuracy of the calibrating equipment shall be sufficient to determine that the audiometer is within the tolerances permitted by American Standard Specification for Audiometers, S3.6-1969.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sound Pressure Output Check</I>
</P>
<P>A. Place the earphone coupler over the microphone of the sound level meter and place the earphone on the coupler.
</P>
<P>B. Set the audiometer's hearing threshold level (HTL) dial to 70 dB.
</P>
<P>C. Measure the sound pressure level of the tones at each test frequency from 500 Hz through 6000 Hz for each earphone.
</P>
<P>D. At each frequency the readout on the sound level meter should correspond to the levels in Table E-1 or Table E-2, as appropriate, for the type of earphone, in the column entitled “sound level meter reading.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Linearity Check</I>
</P>
<P>A. With the earphone in place, set the frequency to 1000 Hz and the HTL dial on the audiometer to 70 dB.
</P>
<P>B. Measure the sound levels in the coupler at each 10-dB decrement from 70 dB to 10 dB, noting the sound level meter reading at each setting.
</P>
<P>C. For each 10-dB decrement on the audiometer the sound level meter should indicate a corresponding 10 dB decrease.
</P>
<P>D. This measurement may be made electrically with a voltmeter connected to the earphone terminals.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tolerances</I>
</P>
<P>When any of the measured sound levels deviate from the levels in Table E-1 or Table E-2 by ±3 dB at any test frequency between 500 and 3000 Hz, 4 dB at 4000 Hz, or 5 dB at 6000 Hz, an exhaustive calibration is advised. An exhaustive calibration is required if the deviations are greater than 15 dB or greater at any test frequency.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-1—Reference Threshold Levels for Telephonics—TDH-39 Earphones
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Frequency, Hz
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference threshold level for TDH-39 earphones, dB
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sound level meter reading, dB
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-2—Reference Threshold Levels for Telephonics—TDH-49 Earphones
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Frequency, Hz
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference threshold level for TDH-49 earphones, dB
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sound level meter reading, dB
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1910.95—Calculations and Application of Age Corrections to Audiograms
</HD1>
<HD2>This appendix Is Non-Mandatory
</HD2>
<P>In determining whether a standard threshold shift has occurred, allowance may be made for the contribution of aging to the change in hearing level by adjusting the most recent audiogram. If the employer chooses to adjust the audiogram, the employer shall follow the procedure described below. This procedure and the age correction tables were developed by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health in the criteria document entitled “Criteria for a Recommended Standard . . . Occupational Exposure to Noise,” ((HSM)-11001).
</P>
<P>For each audiometric test frequency;
</P>
<P>(i) Determine from Tables F-1 or F-2 the age correction values for the employee by:
</P>
<P>(A) Finding the age at which the most recent audiogram was taken and recording the corresponding values of age corrections at 1000 Hz through 6000 Hz;
</P>
<P>(B) Finding the age at which the baseline audiogram was taken and recording the corresponding values of age corrections at 1000 Hz through 6000 Hz.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subtract the values found in step (i)(B) from the value found in step (i)(A).
</P>
<P>(iii) The differences calculated in step (ii) represented that portion of the change in hearing that may be due to aging.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>Employee is a 32-year-old male. The audiometric history for his right ear is shown in decibels below.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Employee's age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Audiometric test frequency (Hz)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6000
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">*27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">*32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The audiogram at age 27 is considered the baseline since it shows the best hearing threshold levels. Asterisks have been used to identify the baseline and most recent audiogram. A threshold shift of 20 dB exists at 4000 Hz between the audiograms taken at ages 27 and 32.
</P>
<P>(The threshold shift is computed by subtracting the hearing threshold at age 27, which was 5, from the hearing threshold at age 32, which is 25). A retest audiogram has confirmed this shift. The contribution of aging to this change in hearing may be estimated in the following manner:
</P>
<P>Go to Table F-1 and find the age correction values (in dB) for 4000 Hz at age 27 and age 32.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Frequency (Hz)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6000
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Age 32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Age 27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Difference</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The difference represents the amount of hearing loss that may be attributed to aging in the time period between the baseline audiogram and the most recent audiogram. In this example, the difference at 4000 Hz is 3 dB. This value is subtracted from the hearing level at 4000 Hz, which in the most recent audiogram is 25, yielding 22 after adjustment. Then the hearing threshold in the baseline audiogram at 4000 Hz (5) is subtracted from the adjusted annual audiogram hearing threshold at 4000 Hz (22). Thus the age-corrected threshold shift would be 17 dB (as opposed to a threshold shift of 20 dB without age correction).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-1—Age Correction Values in Decibels for Males
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Years
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Audiometric Test Frequencies (Hz)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6000
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 or younger</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60 or older</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-2—Age Correction Values in Decibels for Females
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Years
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Audiometric Test Frequencies (Hz)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6000
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 or younger</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60 or older</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix G to § 1910.95—Monitoring Noise Levels Non-Mandatory Informational Appendix
</HD1>
<P>This appendix provides information to help employers comply with the noise monitoring obligations that are part of the hearing conservation amendment.
</P>
<P><E T="04">What is the purpose of noise monitoring?</E>
</P>
<P>This revised amendment requires that employees be placed in a hearing conservation program if they are exposed to average noise levels of 85 dB or greater during an 8 hour workday. In order to determine if exposures are at or above this level, it may be necessary to measure or monitor the actual noise levels in the workplace and to estimate the noise exposure or “dose” received by employees during the workday.
</P>
<P><E T="04">When is it necessary to implement a noise monitoring program?</E>
</P>
<P>It is not necessary for every employer to measure workplace noise. Noise monitoring or measuring must be conducted only when exposures are at or above 85 dB. Factors which suggest that noise exposures in the workplace may be at this level include employee complaints about the loudness of noise, indications that employees are losing their hearing, or noisy conditions which make normal conversation difficult. The employer should also consider any information available regarding noise emitted from specific machines. In addition, actual workplace noise measurements can suggest whether or not a monitoring program should be initiated.
</P>
<P><E T="04">How is noise measured?</E>
</P>
<P>Basically, there are two different instruments to measure noise exposures: the sound level meter and the dosimeter. A sound level meter is a device that measures the intensity of sound at a given moment. Since sound level meters provide a measure of sound intensity at only one point in time, it is generally necessary to take a number of measurements at different times during the day to estimate noise exposure over a workday. If noise levels fluctuate, the amount of time noise remains at each of the various measured levels must be determined.
</P>
<P>To estimate employee noise exposures with a sound level meter it is also generally necessary to take several measurements at different locations within the workplace. After appropriate sound level meter readings are obtained, people sometimes draw “maps” of the sound levels within different areas of the workplace. By using a sound level “map” and information on employee locations throughout the day, estimates of individual exposure levels can be developed. This measurement method is generally referred to as <I>area</I> noise monitoring.
</P>
<P>A dosimeter is like a sound level meter except that it stores sound level measurements and integrates these measurements over time, providing an average noise exposure reading for a given period of time, such as an 8-hour workday. With a dosimeter, a microphone is attached to the employee's clothing and the exposure measurement is simply read at the end of the desired time period. A reader may be used to read-out the dosimeter's measurements. Since the dosimeter is worn by the employee, it measures noise levels in those locations in which the employee travels. A sound level meter can also be positioned within the immediate vicinity of the exposed worker to obtain an individual exposure estimate. Such procedures are generally referred to as <I>personal</I> noise monitoring.
</P>
<P>Area monitoring can be used to estimate noise exposure when the noise levels are relatively constant and employees are not mobile. In workplaces where employees move about in different areas or where the noise intensity tends to fluctuate over time, noise exposure is generally more accurately estimated by the personal monitoring approach.
</P>
<P>In situations where personal monitoring is appropriate, proper positioning of the microphone is necessary to obtain accurate measurements. With a dosimeter, the microphone is generally located on the shoulder and remains in that position for the entire workday. With a sound level meter, the microphone is stationed near the employee's head, and the instrument is usually held by an individual who follows the employee as he or she moves about.
</P>
<P>Manufacturer's instructions, contained in dosimeter and sound level meter operating manuals, should be followed for calibration and maintenance. To ensure accurate results, it is considered good professional practice to calibrate instruments before and after each use.
</P>
<P><E T="04">How often is it necessary to monitor noise levels?</E>
</P>
<P>The amendment requires that when there are significant changes in machinery or production processes that may result in increased noise levels, remonitoring must be conducted to determine whether additional employees need to be included in the hearing conservation program. Many companies choose to remonitor periodically (once every year or two) to ensure that all exposed employees are included in their hearing conservation programs.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Where can equipment and technical advice be obtained?</E>
</P>
<P>Noise monitoring equipment may be either purchased or rented. Sound level meters cost about $500 to $1,000, while dosimeters range in price from about $750 to $1,500. Smaller companies may find it more economical to rent equipment rather than to purchase it. Names of equipment suppliers may be found in the telephone book (Yellow Pages) under headings such as: “Safety Equipment,” “Industrial Hygiene,” or “Engineers-Acoustical.” In addition to providing information on obtaining noise monitoring equipment, many companies and individuals included under such listings can provide professional advice on how to conduct a valid noise monitoring program. Some audiological testing firms and industrial hygiene firms also provide noise monitoring services. Universities with audiology, industrial hygiene, or acoustical engineering departments may also provide information or may be able to help employers meet their obligations under this amendment.
</P>
<P>Free, on-site assistance may be obtained from OSHA-supported state and private consultation organizations. These safety and health consultative entities generally give priority to the needs of small businesses.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix H to § 1910.95—Availability of Referenced Documents
</HD1>
<P>Paragraphs (c) through (o) of 29 CFR 1910.95 and the accompanying appendices contain provisions which incorporate publications by reference. Generally, the publications provide criteria for instruments to be used in monitoring and audiometric testing. These criteria are intended to be mandatory when so indicated in the applicable paragraphs of § 1910.95 and appendices.
</P>
<P>It should be noted that OSHA does not require that employers purchase a copy of the referenced publications. Employers, however, may desire to obtain a copy of the referenced publications for their own information.
</P>
<P>The designation of the paragraph of the standard in which the referenced publications appear, the titles of the publications, and the availability of the publications are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Paragraph designation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Referenced publication
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Available from—
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Appendix B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“List of Personal Hearing Protectors and Attenuation Data,” HEW Pub. No. 76-120, 1975. NTIS-PB267461</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Technical Information Service, Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Appendix D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Specification for Sound Level Meters,” S1.4-1971 (R1976)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">American National Standards Institute, Inc., 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 1910.95(k)(2), appendix E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Specifications for Audiometers,” S3.6-1969</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">American National Standards Institute, Inc., 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Appendix D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Specification for Octave, Half-Octave and Third-Octave Band Filter Sets,” S1.11-1971 (R1976)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Back Numbers Department, Dept. STD, American Institute of Physics, 333 E. 45th St., New York, NY 10017; American National Standards Institute, Inc., 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The referenced publications (or a microfiche of the publications) are available for review at many universities and public libraries throughout the country. These publications may also be examined at the OSHA Technical Data Center, Room N2439, United States Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210, (202) 219-7500 or at any OSHA Regional Office (see telephone directories under United States Government—Labor Department).</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix I to § 1910.95—Definitions
</HD1>
<P>These definitions apply to the following terms as used in paragraphs (c) through (n) of 29 CFR 1910.95.
</P>
<FP-1>Action level—An 8-hour time-weighted average of 85 decibels measured on the A-scale, slow response, or equivalently, a dose of fifty percent.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Audiogram—A chart, graph, or table resulting from an audiometric test showing an individual's hearing threshold levels as a function of frequency.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Audiologist—A professional, specializing in the study and rehabilitation of hearing, who is certified by the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association or licensed by a state board of examiners.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Baseline audiogram—The audiogram against which future audiograms are compared.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Criterion sound level—A sound level of 90 decibels.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Decibel (dB)—Unit of measurement of sound level.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hertz (Hz)—Unit of measurement of frequency, numerically equal to cycles per second.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Medical pathology—A disorder or disease. For purposes of this regulation, a condition or disease affecting the ear, which should be treated by a physician specialist.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Noise dose—The ratio, expressed as a percentage, of (1) the time integral, over a stated time or event, of the 0.6 power of the measured SLOW exponential time-averaged, squared A-weighted sound pressure and (2) the product of the criterion duration (8 hours) and the 0.6 power of the squared sound pressure corresponding to the criterion sound level (90 dB).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Noise dosimeter—An instrument that integrates a function of sound pressure over a period of time in such a manner that it directly indicates a noise dose.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Otolaryngologist—A physician specializing in diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the ear, nose and throat.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Representative exposure—Measurements of an employee's noise dose or 8-hour time-weighted average sound level that the employers deem to be representative of the exposures of other employees in the workplace.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sound level—Ten times the common logarithm of the ratio of the square of the measured A-weighted sound pressure to the square of the standard reference pressure of 20 micropascals. Unit: decibels (dB). For use with this regulation, SLOW time response, in accordance with ANSI S1.4-1971 (R1976), is required.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sound level meter—An instrument for the measurement of sound level.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Time-weighted average sound level—That sound level, which if constant over an 8-hour exposure, would result in the same noise dose as is measured.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 46 FR 4161, Jan. 16, 1981; 46 FR 62845, Dec. 29, 1981; 48 FR 9776, Mar. 8, 1983; 48 FR 29687, June 28, 1983; 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989; 61 FR 9236, Mar. 7, 1996; 71 FR 16672, Apr. 3, 2006; 73 FR 75584, Dec. 12, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.97" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.7.33.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.97   Nonionizing radiation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electromagnetic radiation</I>—(1) <I>Definitions applicable to this paragraph.</I> (i) The term <I>electromagnetic radiation</I> is restricted to that portion of the spectrum commonly defined as the radio frequency region, which for the purpose of this specification shall include the microwave frequency region.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial body irradiation.</I> Pertains to the case in which part of the body is exposed to the incident electromagnetic energy.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Radiation protection guide.</I> Radiation level which should not be exceeded without careful consideration of the reasons for doing so.
</P>
<P>(iv) The word “symbol” as used in this specification refers to the overall design, shape, and coloring of the rf radiation sign shown in figure G-11.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Whole body irradiation.</I> Pertains to the case in which the entire body is exposed to the incident electromagnetic energy or in which the cross section of the body is smaller than the cross section of the incident radiation beam.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Radiation protection guide.</I> (i) For normal environmental conditions and for incident electromagnetic energy of frequencies from 10 MHz to 100 GHz, the radiation protection guide is 10 mW/cm.
<SU>2</SU> (milliwatt per square centimeter) as averaged over any possible 0.1-hour period. This means the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Power density: 10 mW./cm.
<SU>2</SU> for periods of 0.1-hour or more.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Energy density: 1 mW.-hr./cm.
<SU>2</SU> (milliwatt hour per square centimeter) during any 0.1-hour period.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>This guide applies whether the radiation is continuous or intermittent.
</FP>
<P>(ii) These formulated recommendations pertain to both whole body irradiation and partial body irradiation. Partial body irradiation must be included since it has been shown that some parts of the human body (e.g., eyes, testicles) may be harmed if exposed to incident radiation levels significantly in excess of the recommended levels.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Warning symbol.</I> (i) The warning symbol for radio frequency radiation hazards shall consist of a red isosceles triangle above an inverted black isosceles triangle, separated and outlined by an aluminum color border. The words “Warning—Radio-Frequency Radiation Hazard” shall appear in the upper triangle. See figure G-11.
</P>
<P>(ii) ANSI Z53.1-1967 or ANSI Z535.1-2006(R2011), incorporated by reference in § 1910.6, is for use for color specification. All lettering and the border shall be of aluminum color.
</P>
<P>(iii) The inclusion and choice of warning information or precautionary instructions is at the discretion of the user. If such information is included it shall appear in the lower triangle of the warning symbol.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.024.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure G-11—Radio-Frequency Radiation Hazard Warning Symbol</E></BCAP>
<P>(4) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all radiations originating from radio stations, radar equipment, and other possible sources of electromagnetic radiation such as used for communication, radio navigation, and industrial and scientific purposes. This section does not apply to the deliberate exposure of patients by, or under the direction of, practitioners of the healing arts.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 61 FR 9236, Mar. 7, 1996; 78 FR 35566, June 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.98" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.7.33.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.98   Effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this subpart G shall become effective on August 27, 1971, except as provided in the remaining paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The following provisions shall become effective on February 15, 1972:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>§ 1910.94 (a)(2)(iii), (a)(3), (a)(4), (b), (c)(2), (c)(3), (c)(4), (c)(5), (c)(6)(i), (c)(6)(ii), (d)(1)(ii), (d)(3), (d)(4), (d)(5), and (d)(7).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding anything in paragraph (a), (b), or (d) of this section, any provision in any other section of this subpart which contains in itself a specific effective date or time limitation shall become effective on such date or shall apply in accordance with such limitation.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding anything in paragraph (a) of this section, if any standard in 41 CFR part 50-204, other than a national consensus standard incorporated by reference in § 50-204.2(a)(1), is or becomes applicable at any time to any employment and place of employment, by virtue of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act, or the Service Contract Act of 1965, or the National Foundation on Arts and Humanities Act of 1965, any corresponding established Federal standard in this subpart G which is derived from 41 CFR part 50-204 shall also become effective, and shall be applicable to such employment and place of employment, on the same date.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Hazardous Materials</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), or 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355) or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE><P>Sections 1910.103, 1910.106 through 1910.111, and 1910.119, 1910.120, and 1910.122 through 1910.126 also issued under 29 CFR part 1911.
</P><P>Section 1910.119 also issued under Section 304, Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-549), reprinted at 29 U.S.C.A. 655 Note.
</P><P>Section 1910.120 also issued under Section 126, Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 as amended (29 U.S.C.A. 655 Note), and 5 U.S.C. 553.


</P></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.101" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.101   Compressed gases (general requirements).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inspection of compressed gas cylinders.</I> Each employer shall determine that compressed gas cylinders under his control are in a safe condition to the extent that this can be determined by visual inspection. Visual and other inspections shall be conducted as prescribed in the Hazardous Materials Regulations of the Department of Transportation (49 CFR parts 171-179 and 14 CFR part 103). Where those regulations are not applicable, visual and other inspections shall be conducted in accordance with Compressed Gas Association Pamphlets C-6-1968 and C-8-1962, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compressed gases.</I> The in-plant handling, storage, and utilization of all compressed gases in cylinders, portable tanks, rail tankcars, or motor vehicle cargo tanks shall be in accordance with Compressed Gas Association Pamphlet P-1-1965, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safety relief devices for compressed gas containers.</I> Compressed gas cylinders, portable tanks, and cargo tanks shall have pressure relief devices installed and maintained in accordance with Compressed Gas Association Pamphlets S-1.1-1963 and 1965 addenda and S-1.2-1963, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 61 FR 9236, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.102" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.102   Acetylene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cylinders.</I> Employers must ensure that the in-plant transfer, handling, storage, and use of acetylene in cylinders comply with the provisions of CGA Pamphlet G-1-2009 (“Acetylene”) (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Piped systems.</I> (1) Employers must comply with Chapter 9 (“Acetylene Piping”) of NFPA 51A-2006 (“Standard for Acetylene Charging Plants”) (National Fire Protection Association, 2006 ed., 2006).
</P>
<P>(2) When employers can demonstrate that the facilities, equipment, structures, or installations used to generate acetylene or to charge (fill) acetylene cylinders were installed prior to February 16, 2006, these employers may comply with the provisions of Chapter 7 (“Acetylene Piping”) of NFPA 51A-2001 (“Standard for Acetylene Charging Plants”) (National Fire Protection Association, 2001 ed., 2001).
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions of § 1910.102(b)(2) also apply when the facilities, equipment, structures, or installations used to generate acetylene or to charge (fill) acetylene cylinders were approved for construction or installation prior to February 16, 2006, but constructed and installed on or after that date.
</P>
<P>(4) For additional information on acetylene piping systems, <I>see</I> CGA G-1.2-2006, part 3 (“Acetylene piping”) (Compressed Gas Association, Inc., 3rd ed., 2006).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Generators and filling cylinders.</I> (1) Employers must ensure that facilities, equipment, structures, or installations used to generate acetylene or to charge (fill) acetylene cylinders comply with the provisions of NFPA 51A-2006 (“Standard for Acetylene Charging Plants”) (National Fire Protection Association, 2006 ed., 2006).
</P>
<P>(2) When employers can demonstrate that the facilities, equipment, structures, or installations used to generate acetylene or to charge (fill) of acetylene cylinders were constructed or installed prior to February 16, 2006, these employers may comply with the provisions of NFPA 51A-2001 (“Standard for Acetylene Charging Plants”) (National Fire Protection Association, 2001 ed., 2001).
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions of § 1910.102(c)(2) also apply when the facilities, equipment, structures, or installations were approved for construction or installation prior to February 16, 2006, but constructed and installed on or after that date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 40447, Aug. 11, 2009, as amended at 76 FR 75786, Dec. 5, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.103" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.103   Hydrogen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section 
</P>
<P>(i) Gaseous hydrogen system is one in which the hydrogen is delivered, stored and discharged in the gaseous form to consumer's piping. The system includes stationary or movable containers, pressure regulators, safety relief devices, manifolds, interconnecting piping and controls. The system terminates at the point where hydrogen at service pressure first enters the consumer's distribution piping.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approved—Means, unless otherwise indicated, listed or approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. Refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(iii) Listed—See “approved”.
</P>
<P>(iv) ASME—American Society of Mechanical Engineers.
</P>
<P>(v) DOT Specifications—Regulations of the Department of Transportation published in 49 CFR Chapter I.
</P>
<P>(vi) DOT regulations—See § 1910.103 (a)(1)(v).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope</I>—(i) <I>Gaseous hydrogen systems.</I> (<I>a</I>) Paragraph (b) of this section applies to the installation of gaseous hydrogen systems on consumer premises where the hydrogen supply to the consumer premises originates outside the consumer premises and is delivered by mobile equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to gaseous hydrogen systems having a total hydrogen content of less than 400 cubic feet, nor to hydrogen manufacturing plants or other establishments operated by the hydrogen supplier or his agent for the purpose of storing hydrogen and refilling portable containers, trailers, mobile supply trucks, or tank cars.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liquefied hydrogen systems.</I> (<I>a</I>) Paragraph (c) of this section applies to the installation of liquefied hydrogen systems on consumer premises.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to liquefied hydrogen portable containers of less than 150 liters (39.63 gallons) capacity; nor to liquefied hydrogen manufacturing plants or other establishments operated by the hydrogen supplier or his agent for the sole purpose of storing liquefied hydrogen and refilling portable containers, trailers, mobile supply trucks, or tank cars.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Gaseous hydrogen systems</I>—(1) <I>Design</I>—(i) <I>Containers.</I> (<I>a</I>) Hydrogen containers shall comply with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Designed, constructed, and tested in accordance with appropriate requirements of ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, section VIII—Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Designed, constructed, tested and maintained in accordance with U.S. Department of Transportation Specifications and Regulations.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Permanently installed containers shall be provided with substantial noncombustible supports on firm noncombustible foundations.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Each portable container shall be legibly marked with the name “Hydrogen” in accordance with the marking requirements set forth in § 1910.253(b)(1)(ii). Each manifolded hydrogen supply unit shall be legibly marked with the name “Hydrogen” or a legend such as “This unit contains hydrogen.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safety relief devices.</I> (<I>a</I>) Hydrogen containers shall be equipped with safety relief devices as required by the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, section VIII Unfired Pressure Vessels, 1968 or the DOT Specifications and Regulations under which the container is fabricated.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Safety relief devices shall be arranged to discharge upward and unobstructed to the open air in such a manner as to prevent any impingement of escaping gas upon the container, adjacent structure or personnel. This requirement does not apply to DOT Specification containers having an internal volume of 2 cubic feet or less.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Safety relief devices or vent piping shall be designed or located so that moisture cannot collect and freeze in a manner which would interfere with proper operation of the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Piping, tubing, and fittings.</I> (<I>a</I>) Piping, tubing, and fittings shall be suitable for hydrogen service and for the pressures and temperatures involved. Cast iron pipe and fittings shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Piping and tubing shall conform to section 2—“Industrial Gas and Air Piping”—Code for Pressure Piping, ANSI B31.1-1967 with addenda B31.1-1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Joints in piping and tubing may be made by welding or brazing or by use of flanged, threaded, socket, or compression fittings. Gaskets and thread sealants shall be suitable for hydrogen service.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Equipment assembly.</I> (<I>a</I>) Valves, gauges, regulators, and other accessories shall be suitable for hydrogen service.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Installation of hydrogen systems shall be supervised by personnel familiar with proper practices with reference to their construction and use.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Storage containers, piping, valves, regulating equipment, and other accessories shall be readily accessible, and shall be protected against physical damage and against tampering.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Cabinets or housings containing hydrogen control or operating equipment shall be adequately ventilated.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Each mobile hydrogen supply unit used as part of a hydrogen system shall be adequately secured to prevent movement.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Mobile hydrogen supply units shall be electrically bonded to the system before discharging hydrogen.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Marking.</I> The hydrogen storage location shall be permanently placarded as follows: “HYDROGEN—FLAMMABLE GAS—NO SMOKING—NO OPEN FLAMES,” or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Testing.</I> After installations, all piping, tubing, and fittings shall be tested and proved hydrogen gas tight at maximum operating pressure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> (<I>a</I>) The system shall be located so that it is readily accessible to delivery equipment and to authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Systems shall be located above ground.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Systems shall not be located beneath electric power lines.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Systems shall not be located close to flammable liquid piping or piping of other flammable gases.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Systems near aboveground flammable liquid storage shall be located on ground higher than the flammable liquid storage except when dikes, diversion curbs, grading, or separating solid walls are used to prevent accumulation of flammable liquids under the system.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specific requirements.</I> (<I>a</I>) The location of a system, as determined by the maximum total contained volume of hydrogen, shall be in the order of preference as indicated by Roman numerals in Table H-1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nature of location
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Size of hydrogen system
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Less than 3,000 CF
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3,000 CF to 15,000 CF
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">In excess of 15,000 CF
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IDI.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In a separate building</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In a special room</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not permitted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inside buildings not in a special room and exposed to other occupancies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not permitted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not permitted.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The minimum distance in feet from a hydrogen system of indicated capacity located outdoors, in separate buildings or in special rooms to any specified outdoor exposure shall be in accordance with Table H-2.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The distances in Table H-2 Items 1 and 3 to 10 inclusive do not apply where protective structures such as adequate fire walls are located between the system and the exposure.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Type of outdoor exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Size of hydrogen system
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Less than 3,000 CF
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3,000 CF to 15,000 CF
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">In excess of 15,000 CF
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Building or structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wood frame construction 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heavy timber, noncombustible or ordinary construction 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fire-resistive construction 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Wall openings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not above any part of a system</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above any part of a system</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Flammable liquids above ground.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 1,000 gallons
<br/>In excess of 1,000 gallons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<br/>25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
<br/>50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
<br/>50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Flammable liquids below ground—0 to 1,000 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tank
<br/>Vent or fill opening of tank</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<br/>25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<br/>25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<br/>25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Flammable liquids below ground—in excess of 1,000 gallons.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tank
<br/>Vent or fill opening of tank</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
<br/>25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
<br/>25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
<br/>25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Flammable gas storage, either high pressure or low pressure.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 15,000 CF capacity
<br/>In excess of 15,000 CF capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<br/>25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
<br/>50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
<br/>50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Oxygen storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12,000 CF or less 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 12,000 CF 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">8. Fast burning solids such as ordinary lumber, excelsior or paper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">9. Slow burning solids such as heavy timber or coal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">10. Open flames and other sources of ignition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">11. Air compressor intakes or inlets to ventilating or air-conditioning equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">12. Concentration of people 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Refer to NFPA No. 220 Standard Types of Building Construction for definitions of various types of construction. (1969 Ed.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> But not less than one-half the height of adjacent side wall of the structure.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> In congested areas such as offices, lunchrooms, locker rooms, time-clock areas.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Refer to NFPA No. 51, gas systems for welding and cutting (1969).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Refer to NFPA No. 566, bulk oxygen systems at consumer sites (1969).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Hydrogen systems of less than 3,000 CF when located inside buildings and exposed to other occupancies shall be situated in the building so that the system will be as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In an adequately ventilated area as in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Twenty feet from stored flammable materials or oxidizing gases.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Twenty-five feet from open flames, ordinary electrical equipment or other sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Twenty-five feet from concentrations of people.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Fifty feet from intakes of ventilation or air-conditioning equipment and air compressors.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Fifty feet from other flammable gas storage.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Protected against damage or injury due to falling objects or working activity in the area.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) More than one system of 3,000 CF or less may be installed in the same room, provided the systems are separated by at least 50 feet. Each such system shall meet all of the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design consideration at specific locations</I>—(i) <I>Outdoor locations.</I> (<I>a</I>) Where protective walls or roofs are provided, they shall be constructed of noncombustible materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where the enclosing sides adjoin each other, the area shall be properly ventilated.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Electrical equipment within 15 feet shall be in accordance with subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Separate buildings.</I> (<I>a</I>) Separate buildings shall be built of at least noncombustible construction. Windows and doors shall be located so as to be readily accessible in case of emergency. Windows shall be of glass or plastic in metal frames.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Adequate ventilation to the outdoors shall be provided. Inlet openings shall be located near the floor in exterior walls only. Outlet openings shall be located at the high point of the room in exterior walls or roof. Inlet and outlet openings shall each have minimum total area of one (1) square foot per 1,000 cubic feet of room volume. Discharge from outlet openings shall be directed or conducted to a safe location.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Explosion venting shall be provided in exterior walls or roof only. The venting area shall be equal to not less than 1 square foot per 30 cubic feet of room volume and may consist of any one or any combination of the following: Walls of light, noncombustible material, preferably single thickness, single strength glass; lightly fastened hatch covers; lightly fastened swinging doors in exterior walls opening outward; lightly fastened walls or roof designed to relieve at a maximum pressure of 25 pounds per square foot.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) There shall be no sources of ignition from open flames, electrical equipment, or heating equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Electrical equipment shall be in accordance with subpart S of this part for Class I, Division 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Heating, if provided, shall be by steam, hot water, or other indirect means.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special rooms.</I> (<I>a</I>) Floor, walls, and ceiling shall have a fire-resistance rating of at least 2 hours. Walls or partitions shall be continuous from floor to ceiling and shall be securely anchored. At least one wall shall be an exterior wall. Openings to other parts of the building shall not be permitted. Windows and doors shall be in exterior walls and shall be located so as to be readily accessible in case of emergency. Windows shall be of glass or plastic in metal frames.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Ventilation shall be as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Explosion venting shall be as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) There shall be no sources of ignition from open flames, electrical equipment, or heating equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Electric equipment shall be in accordance with the requirements of subpart S of this part for Class I, Division 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Heating, if provided, shall be by steam, hot water, or indirect means.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operating instructions.</I> For installations which require any operation of equipment by the user, legible instructions shall be maintained at operating locations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Maintenance.</I> The equipment and functioning of each charged gaseous hydrogen system shall be maintained in a safe operating condition in accordance with the requirements of this section. The area within 15 feet of any hydrogen container shall be kept free of dry vegetation and combustible material.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liquefied hydrogen systems</I>—(1) <I>Design</I>—(i) <I>Containers.</I> (<I>a</I>) Hydrogen containers shall comply with the following: Storage containers shall be designed, constructed, and tested in accordance with appropriate requirements of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, section VIII—Unfired Pressure Vessels (1968) or applicable provisions of API Standard 620, Recommended Rules for Design and Construction of Large, Welded, Low-Pressure Storage Tanks, Second Edition (June 1963) and appendix R (April 1965), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Portable containers shall be designed, constructed and tested in accordance with DOT Specifications and Regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Supports.</I> Permanently installed containers shall be provided with substantial noncombustible supports securely anchored on firm noncombustible foundations. Steel supports in excess of 18 inches in height shall be protected with a protective coating having a 2-hour fire-resistance rating.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Marking.</I> Each container shall be legibly marked to indicate “LIQUEFIED HYDROGEN—FLAMMABLE GAS.”
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Safety relief devices.</I> (<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) Stationary liquefied hydrogen containers shall be equipped with safety relief devices sized in accordance with CGA Pamphlet S-1, part 3, Safety Relief Device Standards for Compressed Gas Storage Containers, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Portable liquefied hydrogen containers complying with the U.S. Department of Transportation Regulations shall be equipped with safety relief devices as required in the U.S. Department of Transportation Specifications and Regulations. Safety relief devices shall be sized in accordance with the requirements of CGA Pamphlet S-1, Safety Relief Device Standards, part 1, Compressed Gas Cylinders and part 2, Cargo and Portable Tank Containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Safety relief devices shall be arranged to discharge unobstructed to the outdoors and in such a manner as to prevent impingement of escaping liquid or gas upon the container, adjacent structures or personnel. See paragraph (c)(2)(i)(<I>f</I>) of this section for venting of safety relief devices in special locations.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Safety relief devices or vent piping shall be designed or located so that moisture cannot collect and freeze in a manner which would interfere with proper operation of the device.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Safety relief devices shall be provided in piping wherever liquefied hydrogen could be trapped between closures.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Piping, tubing, and fittings.</I> (<I>a</I>) Piping, tubing, and fittings and gasket and thread sealants shall be suitable for hydrogen service at the pressures and temperatures involved. Consideration shall be given to the thermal expansion and contraction of piping systems when exposed to temperature fluctuations of ambient to liquefied hydrogen temperatures.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Gaseous hydrogen piping and tubing (above −20 °F.) shall conform to the applicable sections of Pressure Piping section 2—Industrial Gas and Air Piping, ANSI B31.1-1967 with addenda B31.1-1969. Design of liquefied hydrogen or cold (−20 °F. or below) gas piping shall use Petroleum Refinery Piping ANSI B31.3-1966 or Refrigeration Piping ANSI B31.5-1966 with addenda B31.5a-1968 as a guide, which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Joints in piping and tubing shall preferably be made by welding or brazing; flanged, threaded, socket, or suitable compression fittings may be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Means shall be provided to minimize exposure of personnel to piping operating at low temperatures and to prevent air condensate from contacting piping, structural members, and surfaces not suitable for cryogenic temperatures. Only those insulating materials which are rated nonburning in accordance with ASTM Procedures D1692-68, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, may be used. Other protective means may be used to protect personnel. The insulation shall be designed to have a vapor-tight seal in the outer covering to prevent the condensation of air and subsequent oxygen enrichment within the insulation. The insulation material and outside shield shall also be of adequate design to prevent attrition of the insulation due to normal operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Uninsulated piping and equipment which operate at liquefied-hydrogen temperature shall not be installed above asphalt surfaces or other combustible materials in order to prevent contact of liquid air with such materials. Drip pans may be installed under uninsulated piping and equipment to retain and vaporize condensed liquid air.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Equipment assembly.</I> (<I>a</I>) Valves, gauges, regulators, and other accessories shall be suitable for liquefied hydrogen service and for the pressures and temperatures involved.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Installation of liquefied hydrogen systems shall be supervised by personnel familiar with proper practices and with reference to their construction and use.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Storage containers, piping, valves, regulating equipment, and other accessories shall be readily accessible and shall be protected against physical damage and against tampering. A shutoff valve shall be located in liquid product withdrawal lines as close to the container as practical. On containers of over 2,000 gallons capacity, this shutoff valve shall be of the remote control type with no connections, flanges, or other appurtenances (other than a welded manual shutoff valve) allowed in the piping between the shutoff valve and its connection to the inner container.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Cabinets or housings containing hydrogen control equipment shall be ventilated to prevent any accumulation of hydrogen gas.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Testing.</I> (<I>a</I>) After installation, all field-erected piping shall be tested and proved hydrogen gas-tight at operating pressure and temperature.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Containers if out of service in excess of 1 year shall be inspected and tested as outlined in (<I>a</I>) of this subdivision. The safety relief devices shall be checked to determine if they are operable and properly set.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Liquefied hydrogen vaporizers.</I> (<I>a</I>) The vaporizer shall be anchored and its connecting piping shall be sufficiently flexible to provide for the effect of expansion and contraction due to temperature changes.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The vaporizer and its piping shall be adequately protected on the hydrogen and heating media sections with safety relief devices.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Heat used in a liquefied hydrogen vaporizer shall be indirectly supplied utilizing media such as air, steam, water, or water solutions.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A low temperature shutoff switch shall be provided in the vaporizer discharge piping to prevent flow of liquefied hydrogen in the event of the loss of the heat source.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Electrical systems.</I> (<I>a</I>) Electrical wiring and equipment located within 3 feet of a point where connections are regularly made and disconnected, shall be in accordance with subpart S of this part, for Class I, Group B, Division 1 locations.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Except as provided in (<I>a</I>) of this subdivision, electrical wiring, and equipment located within 25 feet of a point where connections are regularly made and disconnected or within 25 feet of a liquid hydrogen storage container, shall be in accordance with subpart S of this part, for Class I, Group B, Division 2 locations. When equipment approved for class I, group B atmospheres is not commercially available, the equipment may be—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Purged or ventilated in accordance with NFPA No. 496-1967, Standard for Purged Enclosures for Electrical Equipment in Hazardous Locations,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Intrinsically safe, or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Approved for Class I, Group C atmospheres. This requirement does not apply to electrical equipment which is installed on mobile supply trucks or tank cars from which the storage container is filled.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Bonding and grounding.</I> The liquefied hydrogen container and associated piping shall be electrically bonded and grounded.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location of liquefied hydrogen storage</I>—(i) <I>General requirements.</I> (<I>a</I>) The storage containers shall be located so that they are readily accessible to mobile supply equipment at ground level and to authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The containers shall not be exposed by electric power lines, flammable liquid lines, flammable gas lines, or lines carrying oxidizing materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) When locating liquified hydrogen storage containers near above-ground flammable liquid storage or liquid oxygen storage, it is advisable to locate the liquefied hydrogen container on ground higher than flammable liquid storage or liquid oxygen storage.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Where it is necessary to locate the liquefied hydrogen container on ground that is level with or lower than adjacent flammable liquid storage or liquid oxygen storage, suitable protective means shall be taken (such as by diking, diversion curbs, grading), with respect to the adjacent flammable liquid storage or liquid oxygen storage, to prevent accumulation of liquids within 50 feet of the liquefied hydrogen container.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Storage sites shall be fenced and posted to prevent entrance by unauthorized personnel. Sites shall also be placarded as follows: “Liquefied Hydrogen—Flammable Gas—No Smoking—No Open Flames.”
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) If liquified hydrogen is located in (as specified in Table H-3) a separate building, in a special room, or inside buildings when not in a special room and exposed to other occupancies, containers shall have the safety relief devices vented unobstructed to the outdoors at a minimum elevation of 25 feet above grade to a safe location as required in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specific requirements.</I> (<I>a</I>) The location of liquefied hydrogen storage, as determined by the maximum total quantity of liquified hydrogen, shall be in the order of preference as indicated by Roman numerals in the following Table H-3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-3—Maximum Total Quantity of Liquefied Hydrogen Storage Permitted
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nature of location
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Size of hydrogen storage (capacity in gallons)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">39.63 (150 liters) to 50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">51 to 300
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">301 to 600
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">In excess of 600
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In a separate building</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not permitted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In a special room</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not permitted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inside buildings not in a special room and exposed to other occupancies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not permitted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> This table does not apply to the storage in dewars of the type generally used in laboratories for experimental purposes.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The minimum distance in feet from liquefied hydrogen systems of indicated storage capacity located outdoors, in a separate building, or in a special room to any specified exposure shall be in accordance with Table H-4.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-4—Minimum Distance (Feet) From Liquefied Hydrogen Systems to Exposure 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Type of exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Liquefied hydrogen storage (capacity in gallons)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">39.63 (150 liters) to 3,500
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3,501 to 15,000
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">15,001 to 30,000
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Fire-resistive building and fire walls 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Noncombustible building 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Other buildings 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Wall openings, air-compressor intakes, inlets for air-conditioning or ventilating equipment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Flammable liquids (above ground and vent or fill openings if below ground) (see 513 and 514)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Between stationary liquefied hydrogen containers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Flammable gas storage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Liquid oxygen storage and other oxidizers (see 513 and 514)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Combustible solids</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Open flames, smoking and welding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Concentrations of people</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The distance in Nos. 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, and 12 in Table H-4 may be reduced where protective structures, such as firewalls equal to height of top of the container, to safeguard the liquefied hydrogen storage system, are located between the liquefied hydrogen storage installation and the exposure.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Where protective structures are provided, ventilation and confinement of product should be considered. The 5-foot distance in Nos. 1 and 6 facilitates maintenance and enhances ventilation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Refer to Standard Types of Building Construction, NFPA No. 220-1969 for definitions of various types of construction.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">In congested areas such as offices, lunchrooms, locker rooms, time-clock areas.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Handling of liquefied hydrogen inside buildings other than separate buildings and special rooms.</I> Portable liquefied hydrogen containers of 50 gallons or less capacity as permitted in Table H-3 and in compliance with subdivision (i)(f) of this subparagraph when housed inside buildings not located in a special room and exposed to other occupancies shall comply with the following minimum requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Be located 20 feet from flammable liquids and readily combustible materials such as excelsior or paper.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Be located 25 feet from ordinary electrical equipment and other sources of ignition including process or analytical equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Be located 25 feet from concentrations of people.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Be located 50 feet from intakes of ventilation and air-conditioning equipment or intakes of compressors.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Be located 50 feet from storage of other flammable-gases or storage of oxidizing gases.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Containers shall be protected against damage or injury due to falling objects or work activity in the area.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Containers shall be firmly secured and stored in an upright position.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Welding or cutting operations, and smoking shall be prohibited while hydrogen is in the room.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The area shall be adequately ventilated. Safety relief devices on the containers shall be vented directly outdoors or to a suitable hood. See paragraphs (c)(1)(iv)(b) and (c)(2)(i)(f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design considerations at specific locations</I>—(i) <I>Outdoor locations.</I> (<I>a</I>) Outdoor location shall mean outside of any building or structure, and includes locations under a weather shelter or canopy provided such locations are not enclosed by more than two walls set at right angles and are provided with vent-space between the walls and vented roof or canopy.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Roadways and yard surfaces located below liquefied hydrogen piping, from which liquid air may drip, shall be constructed of noncombustible materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) If protective walls are provided, they shall be constructed of noncombustible materials and in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>a</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Electrical wiring and equipment shall comply with paragraph (c)(1)(ix) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Adequate lighting shall be provided for nighttime transfer operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Separate buildings.</I> (<I>a</I>) Separate buildings shall be of light noncombustible construction on a substantial frame. Walls and roofs shall be lightly fastened and designed to relieve at a maximum internal pressure of 25 pounds per square foot. Windows shall be of shatterproof glass or plastic in metal frames. Doors shall be located in such a manner that they will be readily accessible to personnel in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Adequate ventilation to the outdoors shall be provided. Inlet openings shall be located near the floor level in exterior walls only. Outlet openings shall be located at the high point of the room in exterior walls or roof. Both the inlet and outlet vent openings shall have a minimum total area of 1 square foot per 1,000 cubic feet of room volume. Discharge from outlet openings shall be directed or conducted to a safe location.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) There shall be no sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Electrical wiring and equipment shall comply with paragraphs (c)(1)(ix) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section except that the provisions of paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(<I>b</I>) of this section shall apply to all electrical wiring and equipment in the separate building.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Heating, if provided, shall be by steam, hot water, or other indirect means.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special rooms.</I> (<I>a</I>) Floors, walls, and ceilings shall have a fire resistance rating of at least 2 hours. Walls or partitions shall be continuous from floor to ceiling and shall be securely anchored. At least one wall shall be an exterior wall. Openings to other parts of the building shall not be permitted. Windows and doors shall be in exterior walls and doors shall be located in such a manner that they will be accessible in an emergency. Windows shall be of shatterproof glass or plastic in metal frames.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Ventilation shall be as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Explosion venting shall be provided in exterior walls or roof only. The venting area shall be equal to not less than 1 square foot per 30 cubic feet of room volume and may consist of any one or any combination of the following: Walls of light noncombustible material; lightly fastened hatch covers; lightly fastened swinging doors opening outward in exterior walls; lightly fastened walls or roofs designed to relieve at a maximum pressure of 25 pounds per square foot.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) There shall be no sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Electrical wiring and equipment shall comply with paragraph (c)(1)(ix) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section except that the provision of paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(<I>b</I>) of this section shall apply to all electrical wiring and equipment in the special room.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Heating, if provided, shall be steam, hot water, or by other indirect means.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operating instructions</I>—(i) <I>Written instructions.</I> For installation which require any operation of equipment by the user, legible instructions shall be maintained at operating locations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Attendant.</I> A qualified person shall be in attendance at all times while the mobile hydrogen supply unit is being unloaded.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Security.</I> Each mobile liquefied hydrogen supply unit used as part of a hydrogen system shall be adequately secured to prevent movement.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Grounding.</I> The mobile liquefied hydrogen supply unit shall be grounded for static electricity.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Maintenance.</I> The equipment and functioning of each charged liquefied hydrogen system shall be maintained in a safe operating condition in accordance with the requirements of this section. Weeds or similar combustibles shall not be permitted within 25 feet of any liquefied hydrogen equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49746, Oct. 24, 1978; 53 FR 12121, Apr. 12, 1988; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 58 FR 35309, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9236, 9237, Mar. 7, 1996; 69 FR 31881, June 8, 2004; 72 FR 71069, Dec. 14, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.104" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.104   Oxygen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to the installation of bulk oxygen systems on industrial and institutional consumer premises. This section does not apply to oxygen manufacturing plants or other establishments operated by the oxygen supplier or his agent for the purpose of storing oxygen and refilling portable containers, trailers, mobile supply trucks, or tank cars, nor to systems having capacities less than those stated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bulk oxygen systems</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> As used in this section: A bulk oxygen system is an assembly of equipment, such as oxygen storage containers, pressure regulators, safety devices, vaporizers, manifolds, and interconnecting piping, which has storage capacity of more than 13,000 cubic feet of oxygen, Normal Temperature and Pressure (NTP), connected in service or ready for service, or more than 25,000 cubic feet of oxygen (NTP) including unconnected reserves on hand at the site. The bulk oxygen system terminates at the point where oxygen at service pressure first enters the supply line. The oxygen containers may be stationary or movable, and the oxygen may be stored as gas or liquid.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Bulk oxygen storage systems shall be located above ground out of doors, or shall be installed in a building of noncombustible construction, adequately vented, and used for that purpose exclusively. The location selected shall be such that containers and associated equipment shall not be exposed by electric power lines, flammable or combustible liquid lines, or flammable gas lines.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Accessibility.</I> The system shall be located so that it is readily accessible to mobile supply equipment at ground level and to authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Leakage.</I> Where oxygen is stored as a liquid, noncombustible surfacing shall be provided in an area in which any leakage of liquid oxygen might fall during operation of the system and filling of a storage container. For purposes of this paragraph, asphaltic or bituminous paving is considered to be combustible.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Elevation.</I> When locating bulk oxygen systems near above-ground flammable or combustible liquid storage which may be either indoors or outdoors, it is advisable to locate the system on ground higher than the flammable or combustible liquid storage.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dikes.</I> Where it is necessary to locate a bulk oxygen system on ground lower than adjacent flammable or combustible liquid storage suitable means shall be taken (such as by diking, diversion curbs, or grading) with respect to the adjacent flammable or combustible liquid storage to prevent accumulation of liquids under the bulk oxygen system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Distance between systems and exposures</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The minimum distance from any bulk oxygen storage container to exposures, measured in the most direct line except as indicated in paragraphs (b)(3) (vi) and (viii) of this section, shall be as indicated in paragraphs (b)(3) (ii) to (xviii) of this section inclusive.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Combustible structures.</I> Fifty feet from any combustible structures.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fire resistive structures.</I> Twenty-five feet from any structures with fire-resistive exterior walls or sprinklered buildings of other construction, but not less than one-half the height of adjacent side wall of the structure.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Openings.</I> At least 10 feet from any opening in adjacent walls of fire resistive structures. Spacing from such structures shall be adequate to permit maintenance, but shall not be less than 1 foot.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Flammable liquid storage above-ground.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance (feet)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capacity (gallons)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 1000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1001 or more.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) <I>Flammable liquid storage below-ground.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance measured horizontally from oxygen storage container to flammable liquid tank (feet)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance from oxygen storage container to filling and vent connections or openings to flammable liquid tank (feet)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capacity gallons
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 1000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1001 or more.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vii) <I>Combustible liquid storage above-ground.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance (feet)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capacity (gallons)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 1000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1001 or more.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(viii) <I>Combustible liquid storage belowground.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance measured horizontally from oxygen storage container to combustible liquid tank (feet)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance from oxygen storage container to filling and vent connections or openings to combustible liquid tank (feet)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ix) <I>Flammable gas storage.</I> (Such as compressed flammable gases, liquefied flammable gases and flammable gases in low pressure gas holders):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance (feet)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capacity (cu. ft. NTP)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 5000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5000 or more.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(x) <I>Highly combustible materials.</I> Fifty feet from solid materials which burn rapidly, such as excelsior or paper.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Slow-burning materials.</I> Twenty-five feet from solid materials which burn slowly, such as coal and heavy timber.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Ventilation.</I> Seventy-five feet in one direction and 35 feet in approximately 90° direction from confining walls (not including firewalls less than 20 feet high) to provide adequate ventilation in courtyards and similar confining areas.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Congested areas.</I> Twenty-five feet from congested areas such as offices, lunchrooms, locker rooms, time clock areas, and similar locations where people may congregate.
</P>
<P>(xiv)-(xvii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xviii) <I>Exceptions.</I> The distances in paragraphs (b)(3) (ii), (iii), (v) to (xi) inclusive, of this section do not apply where protective structures such as firewalls of adequate height to safeguard the oxygen storage systems are located between the bulk oxygen storage installation and the exposure. In such cases, the bulk oxygen storage installation may be a minimum distance of 1 foot from the firewall.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Storage containers</I>—(i) <I>Foundations and supports.</I> Permanently installed containers shall be provided with substantial noncombustible supports on firm noncombustible foundations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction—liquid.</I> Liquid oxygen storage containers shall be fabricated from materials meeting the impact test requirements of paragraph UG-84 of ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, section VIII—Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. Containers operating at pressures above 15 pounds per square inch gage (p.s.i.g.) shall be designed, constructed, and tested in accordance with appropriate requirements of ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, section VII—Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968. Insulation surrounding the liquid oxygen container shall be noncombustible.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Construction—gaseous.</I> High- pressure gaseous oxygen containers shall comply with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Designed, constructed, and tested in accordance with appropriate requirements of ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII—Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Designed, constructed, tested, and maintained in accordance with DOT Specifications and Regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Piping, tubing, and fittings</I>—(i) <I>Selection.</I> Piping, tubing, and fittings shall be suitable for oxygen service and for the pressures and temperatures involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specification.</I> Piping and tubing shall conform to section 2—Gas and Air Piping Systems of Code for Pressure Piping, ANSI, B31.1-1967 with addenda B31.10a-1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fabrication.</I> Piping or tubing for operating temperatures below −20 °F. shall be fabricated from materials meeting the impact test requirements of paragraph UG-84 of ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII—Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968, when tested at the minimum operating temperature to which the piping may be subjected in service.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safety relief devices</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Bulk oxygen storage containers, regardless of design pressure shall be equipped with safety relief devices as required by the ASME code or the DOT specifications and regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>DOT containers.</I> Bulk oxygen storage containers designed and constructed in accordance with DOT specification shall be equipped with safety relief devices as required thereby.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>ASME containers.</I> Bulk oxygen storage containers designed and constructed in accordance with the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, section VIII—Unfired Pressure Vessel—1968 shall be equipped with safety relief devices meeting the provisions of the Compressed Gas Association Pamphlet “Safety Relief Device Standards for Compressed Gas Storage Containers,” S-1, part 3, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Insulation.</I> Insulation casings on liquid oxygen containers shall be equipped with suitable safety relief devices.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Reliability.</I> All safety relief devices shall be so designed or located that moisture cannot collect and freeze in a manner which would interfere with proper operation of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Liquid oxygen vaporizers</I>—(i) <I>Mounts and couplings.</I> The vaporizer shall be anchored and its connecting piping be sufficiently flexible to provide for the effect of expansion and contraction due to temperature changes.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Relief devices.</I> The vaporizer and its piping shall be adequately protected on the oxygen and heating medium sections with safety relief devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Heating.</I> Heat used in an oxygen vaporizer shall be indirectly supplied only through media such as steam, air, water, or water solutions which do not react with oxygen.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Grounding.</I> If electric heaters are used to provide the primary source of heat, the vaporizing system shall be electrically grounded.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Equipment assembly and installation</I>—(i) <I>Cleaning.</I> Equipment making up a bulk oxygen system shall be cleaned in order to remove oil, grease or other readily oxidizable materials before placing the system in service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Joints.</I> Joints in piping and tubing may be made by welding or by use of flanged, threaded, slip, or compression fittings. Gaskets or thread sealants shall be suitable for oxygen service.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accessories.</I> Valves, gages, regulators, and other accessories shall be suitable for oxygen service.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Installation.</I> Installation of bulk oxygen systems shall be supervised by personnel familiar with proper practices with reference to their construction and use.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Testing.</I> After installation all field erected piping shall be tested and proved gas tight at maximum operating pressure. Any medium used for testing shall be oil free and nonflammable.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Security.</I> Storage containers, piping, valves, regulating equipment, and other accessories shall be protected against physical damage and against tampering.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Venting.</I> Any enclosure containing oxygen control or operating equipment shall be adequately vented.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Placarding.</I> The bulk oxygen storage location shall be permanently placarded to indicate: “OXYGEN—NO SMOKING—NO OPEN FLAMES”, or an equivalent warning.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Electrical wiring.</I> Bulk oxygen installations are not hazardous locations as defined and covered in subpart S of this part. Therefore, general purpose or weatherproof types of electrical wiring and equipment are acceptable depending upon whether the installation is indoors or outdoors. Such equipment shall be installed in accordance with the applicable provisions of subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Operating instructions.</I> For installations which require any operation of equipment by the user, legible instructions shall be maintained at operating locations.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Maintenance.</I> The equipment and functioning of each charged bulk oxygen system shall be maintained in a safe operating condition in accordance with the requirements of this section. Wood and long dry grass shall be cut back within 15 feet of any bulk oxygen storage container.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49746, Oct. 24, 1978; 61 FR 9237, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.105" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.105   Nitrous oxide.</HEAD>
<P>The piped systems for the in-plant transfer and distribution of nitrous oxide shall be designed, installed, maintained, and operated in accordance with Compressed Gas Association Pamphlet G-8.1-1964, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 61 FR 9237, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.106" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.106   Flammable liquids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Aerosol shall mean a material which is dispensed from its container as a mist, spray, or foam by a propellant under pressure.
</P>
<P>(2) Atmospheric tank shall mean a storage tank which has been designed to operate at pressures from atmospheric through 0.5 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(3) Automotive service station shall mean that portion of property where flammable liquids used as motor fuels are stored and dispensed from fixed equipment into the fuel tanks of motor vehicles and shall include any facilities available for the sale and service of tires, batteries, and accessories, and for minor automotive maintenance work. Major automotive repairs, painting, body and fender work are excluded.
</P>
<P>(4) Basement shall mean a story of a building or structure having one-half or more of its height below ground level and to which access for fire fighting purposes is unduly restricted.
</P>
<P>(5) Boiling point shall mean the boiling point of a liquid at a pressure of 14.7 pounds per square inch absolute (p.s.i.a.) (760 mm.). Where an accurate boiling point is unavailable for the material in question, or for mixtures which do not have a constant boiling point, for purposes of this section the 10 percent point of a distillation performed in accordance with the Standard Method of Test for Distillation of Petroleum Products, ASTM D-86-62, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, may be used as the boiling point of the liquid.
</P>
<P>(6) Boilover shall mean the expulsion of crude oil (or certain other liquids) from a burning tank. The light fractions of the crude oil burnoff producing a heat wave in the residue, which on reaching a water strata may result in the expulsion of a portion of the contents of the tank in the form of froth.
</P>
<P>(7) Bulk plant shall mean that portion of a property where flammable liquids are received by tank vessel, pipelines, tank car, or tank vehicle, and are stored or blended in bulk for the purpose of distributing such liquids by tank vessel, pipeline, tank car, tank vehicle, or container.
</P>
<P>(8) Chemical plant shall mean a large integrated plant or that portion of such a plant other than a refinery or distillery where flammable liquids are produced by chemical reactions or used in chemical reactions.
</P>
<P>(9) Closed container shall mean a container as herein defined, so sealed by means of a lid or other device that neither liquid nor vapor will escape from it at ordinary temperatures.
</P>
<P>(10) Crude petroleum shall mean hydrocarbon mixtures that have a flash point below 150 °F. and which have not been processed in a refinery.
</P>
<P>(11) Distillery shall mean a plant or that portion of a plant where flammable liquids produced by fermentation are concentrated, and where the concentrated products may also be mixed, stored, or packaged.
</P>
<P>(12) Fire area shall mean an area of a building separated from the remainder of the building by construction having a fire resistance of at least 1 hour and having all communicating openings properly protected by an assembly having a fire resistance rating of at least 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(13) Flammable aerosol shall mean a flammable aerosol as defined by Appendix B to § 1910.1200—Physical Hazard Criteria. For the purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, such aerosols are considered Category 1 flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Flashpoint</I> means the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off vapor within a test vessel in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface of the liquid, and shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a liquid which has a viscosity of less than 45 SUS at 100 °F (37.8 °C), does not contain suspended solids, and does not have a tendency to form a surface film while under test, the procedure specified in the Standard Method of Test for Flashpoint by Tag Closed Tester (ASTM D-56-70), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, or an equivalent test method as defined in Appendix B to § 1910.1200—Physical Hazard Criteria, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a liquid which has a viscosity of 45 SUS or more at 100 °F (37.8 °C), or contains suspended solids, or has a tendency to form a surface film while under test, the Standard Method of Test for Flashpoint by Pensky-Martens Closed Tester (ASTM D-93-71) or an equivalent method as defined by Appendix B to § 1910.1200—Physical Hazard Criteria, shall be used except that the methods specified in Note 1 to section 1.1 of ASTM D-93-71 may be used for the respective materials specified in the Note. The preceding ASTM standard is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a liquid that is a mixture of compounds that have different volatilities and flashpoints, its flashpoint shall be determined by using the procedure specified in paragraph (a)(14)(i) or (ii) of this section on the liquid in the form it is shipped.
</P>
<P>(iv) Organic peroxides, which undergo autoaccelerating thermal decomposition, are excluded from any of the flashpoint determination methods specified in this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(15) Hotel shall mean buildings or groups of buildings under the same management in which there are sleeping accommodations for hire, primarily used by transients who are lodged with or without meals including but not limited to inns, clubs, motels, and apartment hotels.
</P>
<P>(16) Institutional occupancy shall mean the occupancy or use of a building or structure or any portion thereof by persons harbored or detained to receive medical, charitable or other care or treatment, or by persons involuntarily detained.
</P>
<P>(17) Liquid shall mean, for the purpose of this section, any material which has a fluidity greater than that of 300 penetration asphalt when tested in accordance with ASTM Test for Penetration for Bituminous Materials, D-5-65, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. 
</P>
<P>(18) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Flammable liquid</I> means any liquid having a flashpoint at or below 199.4 °F (93 °C). Flammable liquids are divided into four categories as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Category 1 shall include liquids having flashpoints below 73.4 °F (23 °C) and having a boiling point at or below 95 °F (35 °C).
</P>
<P>(ii) Category 2 shall include liquids having flashpoints below 73.4 °F (23 °C) and having a boiling point above 95 °F (35 °C).
</P>
<P>(iii) Category 3 shall include liquids having flashpoints at or above 73.4 °F (23 °C) and at or below 140 °F (60 °C). When a Category 3 liquid with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) is heated for use to within 30 °F (16.7 °C) of its flashpoint, it shall be handled in accordance with the requirements for a Category 3 liquid with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C).
</P>
<P>(iv) Category 4 shall include liquids having flashpoints above 140 °F (60 °C) and at or below 199.4 °F (93 °C). When a Category 4 flammable liquid is heated for use to within 30 °F (16.7 °C) of its flashpoint, it shall be handled in accordance with the requirements for a Category 3 liquid with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C).
</P>
<P>(v) When liquid with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) is heated for use to within 30 °F (16.7 °C) of its flashpoint, it shall be handled in accordance with the requirements for a Category 4 flammable liquid.
</P>
<P>(20) Unstable (reactive) liquid shall mean a liquid which in the pure state or as commercially produced or transported will vigorously polymerize, decompose, condense, or will become self-reactive under conditions of shocks, pressure, or temperature.
</P>
<P>(21) Low-pressure tank shall mean a storage tank which has been designed to operate at pressures above 0.5 p.s.i.g. but not more than 15 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(22) Marine service station shall mean that portion of a property where flammable liquids used as fuels are stored and dispensed from fixed equipment on shore, piers, wharves, or floating docks into the fuel tanks of self-propelled craft, and shall include all facilities used in connection therewith.
</P>
<P>(23) Mercantile occupancy shall mean the occupancy or use of a building or structure or any portion thereof for the displaying, selling, or buying of goods, wares, or merchandise.
</P>
<P>(24) Office occupancy shall mean the occupancy or use of a building or structure or any portion thereof for the transaction of business, or the rendering or receiving of professional services.
</P>
<P>(25) Portable tank shall mean a closed container having a liquid capacity over 60 U.S. gallons and not intended for fixed installation.
</P>
<P>(26) Pressure vessel shall mean a storage tank or vessel which has been designed to operate at pressures above 15 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(27) Protection for exposure shall mean adequate fire protection for structures on property adjacent to tanks, where there are employees of the establishment.
</P>
<P>(28) Refinery shall mean a plant in which flammable liquids are produced on a commercial scale from crude petroleum, natural gasoline, or other hydrocarbon sources.
</P>
<P>(29) Safety can shall mean an approved container, of not more than 5 gallons capacity, having a spring-closing lid and spout cover and so designed that it will safely relieve internal pressure when subjected to fire exposure.
</P>
<P>(30) Vapor pressure shall mean the pressure, measured in pounds per square inch (absolute) exerted by a volatile liquid as determined by the “Standard Method of Test for Vapor Pressure of Petroleum Products (Reid Method),” American Society for Testing and Materials ASTM D323-68, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(31) Ventilation as specified in this section is for the prevention of fire and explosion. It is considered adequate if it is sufficient to prevent accumulation of significant quantities of vapor-air mixtures in concentration over one-fourth of the lower flammable limit.
</P>
<P>(32) Storage: Flammable liquids shall be stored in a tank or in a container that complies with paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(33) Barrel shall mean a volume of 42 U.S. gallons.
</P>
<P>(34) Container shall mean any can, barrel, or drum.
</P>
<P>(35) Approved unless otherwise indicated, approved, or listed by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. Refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(36) Listed see “approved” in § 1910.106(a)(35).
</P>
<P>(37) <I>SUS</I> means Saybolt Universal Seconds as determined by the Standard Method of Test for Saybolt Viscosity (ASTM D-88-56), and may be determined by use of the SUS conversion tables specified in ASTM Method D2161-66 following determination of viscosity in accordance with the procedures specified in the Standard Method of Test for Viscosity of Transparent and Opaque Liquids (ASTM D445-65).
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Viscous</I> means a viscosity of 45 SUS or more.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tank storage</I>—(1) <I>Design and construction of tanks</I>—(i) <I>Materials.</I> (<I>a</I>) Tanks shall be built of steel except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) (<I>b</I>) through (<I>e</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Tanks may be built of materials other than steel for installation underground or if required by the properties of the liquid stored. Tanks located above ground or inside buildings shall be of noncombustible construction.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Tanks built of materials other than steel shall be designed to specifications embodying principles recognized as good engineering design for the material used.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Unlined concrete tanks may be used for storing flammable liquids having a gravity of 40° API or heavier. Concrete tanks with special lining may be used for other services provided the design is in accordance with sound engineering practice.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Special engineering consideration shall be required if the specific gravity of the liquid to be stored exceeds that of water or if the tanks are designed to contain flammable liquids at a liquid temperature below 0 °F.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fabrication.</I> (<I>a</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Metal tanks shall be welded, riveted, and caulked, brazed, or bolted, or constructed by use of a combination of these methods. Filler metal used in brazing shall be nonferrous metal or an alloy having a melting point above 1000 °F. and below that of the metal joined.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Atmospheric tanks.</I> (<I>a</I>) Atmospheric tanks shall be built in accordance with acceptable good standards of design. Atmospheric tanks may be built in accordance with the following consensus standards that are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc., Subjects No. 142, Standard for Steel Aboveground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, 1968; No. 58, Standard for Steel Underground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, Fifth Edition, December 1961; or No. 80, Standard for Steel Inside Tanks for Oil-Burner Fuel, September 1963.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) American Petroleum Institute Standards No. 650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage, Third Edition, 1966.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) American Petroleum Institute Standards No. 12B, Specification for Bolted Production Tanks, Eleventh Edition, May 1958, and Supplement 1, March 1962; No. 12D, Specification for Large Welded Production Tanks, Seventh Edition, August 1957; or No. 12F, Specification for Small Welded Production Tanks, Fifth Edition, March 1961. Tanks built in accordance with these standards shall be used only as production tanks for storage of crude petroleum in oil-producing areas.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Tanks designed for underground service not exceeding 2,500 gallons capacity may be used aboveground.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Low-pressure tanks and pressure vessels may be used as atmospheric tanks.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Atmospheric tanks shall not be used for the storage of a flammable liquid at a temperature at or above its boiling point.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Low pressure tanks.</I> (<I>a</I>) The normal operating pressure of the tank shall not exceed the design pressure of the tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Low-pressure tanks shall be built in accordance with acceptable standards of design. Low-pressure tanks may be built in accordance with the following consensus standards that are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) American Petroleum Institute Standard No. 620. Recommended Rules for the Design and Construction of Large, Welded, Low-Pressure Storage Tanks, Third Edition, 1966.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The principles of the Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels, Section VIII of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessels Code, 1968.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Atmospheric tanks built according to Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc., requirements in subdivision (iii)(<I>a</I>) of and shall be limited to 2.5 p.s.i.g. under emergency venting conditions.
</P>
<FP>This paragraph may be used for operating pressures not exceeding 1 p.s.i.g.
</FP>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Pressure vessels may be used as low-pressure tanks.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Pressure vessels.</I> (<I>a</I>) The normal operating pressure of the vessel shall not exceed the design pressure of the vessel.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Pressure vessels shall be built in accordance with the Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels, Section VIII of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code 1968.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Provisions for internal corrosion.</I> When tanks are not designed in accordance with the American Petroleum Institute, American Society of Mechanical Engineers, or the Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc.'s, standards, or if corrosion is anticipated beyond that provided for in the design formulas used, additional metal thickness or suitable protective coatings or linings shall be provided to compensate for the corrosion loss expected during the design life of the tank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation of outside aboveground tanks.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Spacing (shell-to-shell) between aboveground tanks.</I> (<I>a</I>) The distance between any two flammable liquid storage tanks shall not be less than 3 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section, the distance between any two adjacent tanks shall not be less than one-sixth the sum of their diameters. When the diameter of one tank is less than one-half the diameter of the adjacent tank, the distance between the two tanks shall not be less than one-half the diameter of the smaller tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where crude petroleum in conjunction with production facilities are located in noncongested areas and have capacities not exceeding 126,000 gallons (3,000 barrels), the distance between such tanks shall not be less than 3 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Where unstable flammable liquids are stored, the distance between such tanks shall not be less than one-half the sum of their diameters.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) When tanks are compacted in three or more rows or in an irregular pattern, greater spacing or other means shall be provided so that inside tanks are accessible for firefighting purposes.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The minimum separation between a liquefied petroleum gas container and a flammable liquid storage tank shall be 20 feet, except in the case of flammable liquid tanks operating at pressures exceeding 2.5 p.s.i.g. or equipped with emergency venting which will permit pressures to exceed 2.5 p.s.i.g. in which case the provisions of subdivisions (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this subdivision shall apply. Suitable means shall be taken to prevent the accumulation of flammable liquids under adjacent liquefied petroleum gas containers such as by diversion curbs or grading. When flammable liquid storage tanks are within a diked area, the liquefied petroleum gas containers shall be outside the diked area and at least 10 feet away from the centerline of the wall of the diked area. The foregoing provisions shall not apply when liquefied petroleum gas containers of 125 gallons or less capacity are installed adjacent to fuel oil supply tanks of 550 gallons or less capacity.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Normal venting for aboveground tanks.</I> (<I>a</I>) Atmospheric storage tanks shall be adequately vented to prevent the development of vacuum or pressure sufficient to distort the roof of a cone roof tank or exceeding the design pressure in the case of other atmospheric tanks, as a result of filling or emptying, and atmospheric temperature changes.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Normal vents shall be sized either in accordance with: (<I>1</I>) The American Petroleum Institute Standard 2000 (1968), Venting Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage Tanks, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6; or (<I>2</I>) other accepted standard; or (<I>3</I>) shall be at least as large as the filling or withdrawal connection, whichever is larger but in no case less than 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch nominal inside diameter.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Low-pressure tanks and pressure vessels shall be adequately vented to prevent development of pressure or vacuum, as a result of filling or emptying and atmospheric temperature changes, from exceeding the design pressure of the tank or vessel. Protection shall also be provided to prevent overpressure from any pump discharging into the tank or vessel when the pump discharge pressure can exceed the design pressure of the tank or vessel.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) If any tank or pressure vessel has more than one fill or withdrawal connection and simultaneous filling or withdrawal can be made, the vent size shall be based on the maximum anticipated simultaneous flow.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Unless the vent is designed to limit the internal pressure 2.5 p.s.i. or less, the outlet of vents and vent drains shall be arranged to discharge in such a manner as to prevent localized overheating of any part of the tank in the event vapors from such vents are ignited.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>)(<I>1</I>) Tanks and pressure vessels storing Category 1 flammable liquids shall be equipped with venting devices which shall be normally closed except when venting to pressure or vacuum conditions. Tanks and pressure vessels storing Category 2 flammable liquids and Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C) shall be equipped with venting devices which shall be normally closed except when venting under pressure or vacuum conditions, or with approved flame arresters.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Exemption: Tanks of 3,000 bbls (barrels). capacity or less containing crude petroleum in crude-producing areas and outside aboveground atmospheric tanks under 1,000 gallons capacity containing other than Category 1 flammable liquids may have open vents. (<I>See</I> paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(<I>b</I>) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Flame arresters or venting devices required in paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(<I>f</I>) of this section may be omitted for Category 2 flammable liquids and Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C) where conditions are such that their use may, in case of obstruction, result in tank damage.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Emergency relief venting for fire exposure for aboveground tanks.</I> (<I>a</I>) Every aboveground storage tank shall have some form of construction or device that will relieve excessive internal pressure caused by exposure fires.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In a vertical tank the construction referred to in subdivision (<I>a</I>) of this subdivision may take the form of a floating roof, lifter roof, a weak roof-to-shell seam, or other approved pressure relieving construction. The weak roof-to-shell seam shall be constructed to fail preferential to any other seam.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where entire dependence for emergency relief is placed upon pressure relieving devices, the total venting capacity of both normal and emergency vents shall be enough to prevent rupture of the shell or bottom of the tank if vertical, or of the shell or heads if horizontal. If unstable liquids are stored, the effects of heat or gas resulting from polymerization, decomposition, condensation, or self-reactivity shall be taken into account. The total capacity of both normal and emergency venting devices shall be not less than that derived from Table H-10 except as provided in subdivision (<I>e</I>) or (<I>f</I>) of this subdivision. Such device may be a self-closing manhole cover, or one using long bolts that permit the cover to lift under internal pressure, or an additional or larger relief valve or valves. The wetted area of the tank shall be calculated on the basis of 55 percent of the total exposed area of a sphere or spheroid, 75 percent of the total exposed area of a horizontal tank and the first 30 feet above grade of the exposed shell area of a vertical tank.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-10—Wetted Area Versus Cubic Feet Free Air Per Hour
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[14.7 psia and 60 °F.]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Square feet
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFH
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Square feet
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFH
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Square feet
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFH
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">524,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">239,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">557,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">265,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">587,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">614,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">312,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">639,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">354,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">662,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">392,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">704,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">428,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">742,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">462,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">and
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">493,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">over
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">147,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">524,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>d</I>) For tanks and storage vessels designed for pressure over 1 p.s.i.g., the total rate of venting shall be determined in accordance with Table H-10, except that when the exposed wetted area of the surface is greater than 2,800 square feet, the total rate of venting shall be calculated by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>CFH = 1,107A 
<SU>0.82</SU>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where;
</FP>
<FP-2><I>CFH</I> = Venting requirement, in cubic feet of free air per hour.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I> = Exposed wetted surface, in square feet.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The foregoing formula is based on <I>Q = 21,000A</I>
<SU>0.82</SU>.</P></NOTE>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The total emergency relief venting capacity for any specific stable liquid may be determined by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>V = 1337 ÷ <I>L√M</I>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2><I>V</I> = Cubic feet of free air per hour from Table H-10.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L</I> = Latent heat of vaporization of specific liquid in B.t.u. per pound.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>M</I> = Molecular weight of specific liquids.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The required airflow rate of subdivision (<I>c</I>) or (<I>e</I>) of this subdivision may be multiplied by the appropriate factor listed in the following schedule when protection is provided as indicated. Only one factor may be used for any one tank.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>0.5 for drainage in accordance with subdivision (vii)(<I>b</I>) of this subparagraph for tanks over 200 square feet of wetted area.
</P>
<P>0.3 for approved water spray.
</P>
<P>0.3 for approved insulation.
</P>
<P>0.15 for approved water spray with approved insulation.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The outlet of all vents and vent drains on tanks equipped with emergency venting to permit pressures exceeding 2.5 p.s.i.g. shall be arranged to discharge in such a way as to prevent localized overheating of any part of the tank, in the event vapors from such vents are ignited.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Each commercial tank venting device shall have stamped on it the opening pressure, the pressure at which the valve reaches the full open position, and the flow capacity at the latter pressure, expressed in cubic feet per hour of air at 60 °F. and at a pressure of 14.7 p.s.i.a.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The flow capacity of tank venting devices 12 inches and smaller in nominal pipe size shall be determined by actual test of each type and size of vent. These flow tests may be conducted by the manufacturer if certified by a qualified impartial observer, or may be conducted by an outside agency. The flow capacity of tank venting devices larger than 12 inches nominal pipe size, including manhole covers with long bolts or equivalent, may be calculated provided that the opening pressure is actually measured, the rating pressure and corresponding free orifice area are stated, the word “calculated” appears on the nameplate, and the computation is based on a flow coefficient of 0.5 applied to the rated orifice area.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Vent piping for aboveground tanks.</I> (<I>a</I>) Vent piping shall be constructed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where vent pipe outlets for tanks storing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are adjacent to buildings or public ways, they shall be located so that the vapors are released at a safe point outside of buildings and not less than 12 feet above the adjacent ground level. In order to aid their dispersion, vapors shall be discharged upward or horizontally away from closely adjacent walls. Vent outlets shall be located so that flammable vapors will not be trapped by eaves or other obstructions and shall be at least five feet from building openings.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) When tank vent piping is manifolded, pipe sizes shall be such as to discharge, within the pressure limitations of the system, the vapors they may be required to handle when manifolded tanks are subject to the same fire exposure.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Drainage, dikes, and walls for aboveground tanks—(a) Drainage and diked areas.</I> The area surrounding a tank or a group of tanks shall be provided with drainage as in subdivision (<I>b</I>) of this subdivision, or shall be diked as provided in subdivision (<I>c</I>) of this subdivision, to prevent accidental discharge of liquid from endangering adjoining property or reaching waterways.
</P>
<P>(<I>b) Drainage.</I> Where protection of adjoining property or waterways is by means of a natural or manmade drainage system, such systems shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The drainage system shall terminate in vacant land or other area or in an impounding basin having a capacity not smaller than that of the largest tank served. This termination area and the route of the drainage system shall be so located that, if the flammable liquids in the drainage system are ignited, the fire will not seriously expose tanks or adjoining property.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Diked areas.</I> Where protection of adjoining property or waterways is accomplished by retaining the liquid around the tank by means of a dike, the volume of the diked area shall comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in subdivision (<I>2</I>) of this subdivision, the volumetric capacity of the diked area shall not be less than the greatest amount of liquid that can be released from the largest tank within the diked area, assuming a full tank. The capacity of the diked area enclosing more than one tank shall be calculated by deducting the volume of the tanks other than the largest tank below the height of the dike.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a tank or group of tanks with fixed roofs containing crude petroleum with boilover characteristics, the volumetric capacity of the diked area shall be not less than the capacity of the largest tank served by the enclosure, assuming a full tank. The capacity of the diked enclosure shall be calculated by deducting the volume below the height of the dike of all tanks within the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Walls of the diked area shall be of earth, steel, concrete or solid masonry designed to be liquidtight and to withstand a full hydrostatic head. Earthen walls 3 feet or more in height shall have a flat section at the top not less than 2 feet wide. The slope of an earthen wall shall be consistent with the angle of repose of the material of which the wall is constructed.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The walls of the diked area shall be restricted to an average height of 6 feet above interior grade.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) No loose combustible material, empty or full drum or barrel, shall be permitted within the diked area.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Tank openings other than vents for aboveground tanks.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)-(<I>c</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Openings for gaging shall be provided with a vaportight cap or cover.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) For Category 2 flammable liquids and Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), other than crude oils, gasolines, and asphalts, the fill pipe shall be so designed and installed as to minimize the possibility of generating static electricity. A fill pipe entering the top of a tank shall terminate within 6 inches of the bottom of the tank and shall be installed to avoid excessive vibration.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Filling and emptying connections which are made and broken shall be located outside of buildings at a location free from any source of ignition and not less than 5 feet away from any building opening. Such connection shall be closed and liquidtight when not in use. The connection shall be properly identified.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Installation of underground tanks</I>— (i) <I>Location.</I> Excavation for underground storage tanks shall be made with due care to avoid undermining of foundations of existing structures. Underground tanks or tanks under buildings shall be so located with respect to existing building foundations and supports that the loads carried by the latter cannot be transmitted to the tank. The distance from any part of a tank storing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), to the nearest wall of any basement or pit shall be not less than 1 foot, and to any property line that may be built upon, not less than 3 feet. The distance from any part of a tank storing Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids to the nearest wall of any basement, pit or property line shall be not less than 1 foot.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Depth and cover.</I> Underground tanks shall be set on firm foundations and surrounded with at least 6 inches of noncorrosive, inert materials such as clean sand, earth, or gravel well tamped in place. The tank shall be placed in the hole with care since dropping or rolling the tank into the hole can break a weld, puncture or damage the tank, or scrape off the protective coating of coated tanks. Tanks shall be covered with a minimum of 2 feet of earth, or shall be covered with not less than 1 foot of earth, on top of which shall be placed a slab of reinforced concrete not less than 4 inches thick. When underground tanks are, or are likely to be, subject to traffic, they shall be protected against damage from vehicles passing over them by at least 3 feet of earth cover, or 18 inches of well-tamped earth, plus 6 inches of reinforced concrete or 8 inches of asphaltic concrete. When asphaltic or reinforced concrete paving is used as part of the protection, it shall extend at least 1 foot horizontally beyond the outline of the tank in all directions.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Corrosion protection.</I> Corrosion protection for the tank and its piping shall be provided by one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Use of protective coatings or wrappings;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Cathodic protection; or,
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Corrosion resistant materials of construction.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Vents.</I> (<I>a</I>) Location and arrangement of vents for Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C). Vent pipes from tanks storing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be so located that the discharge point is outside of buildings, higher than the fill pipe opening, and not less than 12 feet above the adjacent ground level. Vent pipes shall discharge only upward in order to disperse vapors. Vent pipes 2 inches or less in nominal inside diameter shall not be obstructed by devices that will cause excessive back pressure. Vent pipe outlets shall be so located that flammable vapors will not enter building openings, or be trapped under eaves or other obstructions. If the vent pipe is less than 10 feet in length, or greater than 2 inches in nominal inside diameter, the outlet shall be provided with a vacuum and pressure relief device or there shall be an approved flame arrester located in the vent line at the outlet or within the approved distance from the outlet.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Size of vents. Each tank shall be vented through piping adequate in size to prevent blow-back of vapor or liquid at the fill opening while the tank is being filled. Vent pipes shall be not less than 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch nominal inside diameter.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-11—Vent Line Diameters
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Maximum flow GPM
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Pipe length 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50 feet
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100 feet
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">200 feet
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Inches </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Inches </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Inches 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Vent lines of 50 ft., 100 ft., and 200 ft. of pipe plus 7 ells.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Location and arrangement of vents for Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids. Vent pipes from tanks storing Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids shall terminate outside of the building and higher than the fill pipe opening. Vent outlets shall be above normal snow level. They may be fitted with return bends, coarse screens or other devices to minimize ingress of foreign material.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Vent piping shall be constructed in accordance with paragraph (<I>c</I>) of this section. Vent pipes shall be so laid as to drain toward the tank without sags or traps in which liquid can collect. They shall be located so that they will not be subjected to physical damage. The tank end of the vent pipe shall enter the tank through the top.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) When tank vent piping is manifolded, pipe sizes shall be such as to discharge, within the pressure limitations of the system, the vapors they may be required to handle when manifolded tanks are filled simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Tank openings other than vents.</I> (<I>a</I>) Connections for all tank openings shall be vapor or liquid tight.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Openings for manual gaging, if independent of the fill pipe, shall be provided with a liquid-tight cap or cover. If inside a building, each such opening shall be protected against liquid overflow and possible vapor release by means of a spring loaded check valve or other approved device.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fill and discharge lines shall enter tanks only through the top. Fill lines shall be sloped toward the tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) For Category 2 flammable liquids and Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), other than crude oils, gasolines, and asphalts, the fill pipe shall be so designed and installed as to minimize the possibility of generating static electricity by terminating within 6 inches of the bottom of the tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Filling and emptying connections which are made and broken shall be located outside of buildings at a location free from any source of ignition and not less than 5 feet away from any building opening. Such connection shall be closed and liquidtight when not in use. The connection shall be properly identified.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Installation of tanks inside of buildings</I>—(i) <I>Location.</I> Tanks shall not be permitted inside of buildings except as provided in paragraphs (e), (g), (h), or (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Vents.</I> Vents for tanks inside of buildings shall be as provided in subparagraphs (2) (iv), (v), (vi)(<I>b</I>), and (3)(iv) of this paragraph, except that emergency venting by the use of weak roof seams on tanks shall not be permitted. Vents shall discharge vapors outside the buildings.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Vent piping.</I> Vent piping shall be constructed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Tank openings other than vents.</I> (<I>a</I>) Connections for all tank openings shall be vapor or liquidtight. Vents are covered in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Each connection to a tank inside of buildings through which liquid can normally flow shall be provided with an internal or an external valve located as close as practical to the shell of the tank. Such valves, when external, and their connections to the tank shall be of steel except when the chemical characteristics of the liquid stored are incompatible with steel. When materials other than steel are necessary, they shall be suitable for the pressures, structural stresses, and temperatures involved, including fire exposures.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Flammable liquid tanks located inside of buildings, except in one-story buildings designed and protected for flammable liquid storage, shall be provided with an automatic-closing heat-actuated valve on each withdrawal connection below the liquid level, except for connections used for emergency disposal, to prevent continued flow in the event of fire in the vicinity of the tank. This function may be incorporated in the valve required in (<I>b</I>) of this subdivision, and if a separate valve, shall be located adjacent to the valve required in (<I>b</I>) of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Openings for manual gaging, if independent of the fill pipe (see (<I>f</I>) of this subdivision), shall be provided with a vaportight cap or cover. Each such opening shall be protected against liquid overflow and possible vapor release by means of a spring loaded check valve or other approved device.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) For Category 2 flammable liquids and Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), other than crude oils, gasoline, and asphalts, the fill pipe shall be so designed and installed as to minimize the possibility of generating static electricity by terminating within 6 inches of the bottom of the tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The fill pipe inside of the tank shall be installed to avoid excessive vibration of the pipe.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The inlet of the fill pipe shall be located outside of buildings at a location free from any source of ignition and not less than 5 feet away from any building opening. The inlet of the fill pipe shall be closed and liquidtight when not in use. The fill connection shall be properly identified.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Tanks inside buildings shall be equipped with a device, or other means shall be provided, to prevent overflow into the building.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Supports, foundations, and anchorage for all tank locations</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Tank supports shall be installed on firm foundations. Tank supports shall be of concrete, masonry, or protected steel. Single wood timber supports (not cribbing) laid horizontally may be used for outside aboveground tanks if not more than 12 inches high at their lowest point.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fire resistance.</I> Steel supports or exposed piling shall be protected by materials having a fire resistance rating of not less than 2 hours, except that steel saddles need not be protected if less than 12 inches high at their lowest point. Water spray protection or its equivalent may be used in lieu of fire-resistive materials to protect supports.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Spheres.</I> The design of the supporting structure for tanks such as spheres shall receive special engineering consideration.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Load distribution.</I> Every tank shall be so supported as to prevent the excessive concentration of loads on the supporting portion of the shell.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Foundations.</I> Tanks shall rest on the ground or on foundations made of concrete, masonry, piling, or steel. Tank foundations shall be designed to minimize the possibility of uneven settling of the tank and to minimize corrosion in any part of the tank resting on the foundation.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Flood areas.</I> Where a tank is located in an area that may be subjected to flooding, the applicable precautions outlined in this subdivision shall be observed.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) No aboveground vertical storage tank containing a flammable liquid shall be located so that the allowable liquid level within the tank is below the established maximum flood stage, unless the tank is provided with a guiding structure such as described in (<I>m</I>), (<I>n</I>), and (<I>o</I>) of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Independent water supply facilities shall be provided at locations where there is no ample and dependable public water supply available for loading partially empty tanks with water.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In addition to the preceding requirements, each tank so located that more than 70 percent, but less than 100 percent, of its allowable liquid storage capacity will be submerged at the established maximum flood stage, shall be safeguarded by one of the following methods: Tank shall be raised, or its height shall be increased, until its top extends above the maximum flood stage a distance equivalent to 30 percent or more of its allowable liquid storage capacity: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the submerged part of the tank shall not exceed two and one-half times the diameter. Or, as an alternative to the foregoing, adequate noncombustible structural guides, designed to permit the tank to float vertically without loss of product, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Each horizontal tank so located that more than 70 percent of its storage capacity will be submerged at the established flood stage, shall be anchored, attached to a foundation of concrete or of steel and concrete, of sufficient weight to provide adequate load for the tank when filled with flammable liquid and submerged by flood waters to the established flood stage, or adequately secured by other means.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) At locations where there is no ample and dependable water supply, or where filling of underground tanks with liquids is impracticable because of the character of their contents, their use, or for other reasons, each tank shall be safeguarded against movement when empty and submerged by high ground water or flood waters by anchoring, weighting with concrete or other approved solid loading material, or securing by other means. Each such tank shall be so constructed and installed that it will safely resist external pressures due to high ground water or flood waters.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) At locations where there is an ample and dependable water supply available, underground tanks containing flammable liquids, so installed that more than 70 percent of their storage capacity will be submerged at the maximum flood stage, shall be so anchored, weighted, or secured by other means, as to prevent movement of such tanks when filled with flammable liquids, and submerged by flood waters to the established flood stage.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Pipe connections below the allowable liquid level in a tank shall be provided with valves or cocks located as closely as practicable to the tank shell. Such valves and their connections to tanks shall be of steel or other material suitable for use with the liquid being stored. Cast iron shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) At locations where an independent water supply is required, it shall be entirely independent of public power and water supply. Independent source of water shall be available when flood waters reach a level not less than 10 feet below the bottom of the lowest tank on a property.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) The self-contained power and pumping unit shall be so located or so designed that pumping into tanks may be carried on continuously throughout the rise in flood waters from a level 10 feet below the lowest tank to the level of the potential flood stage.
</P>
<P>(<I>k</I>) Capacity of the pumping unit shall be such that the rate of rise of water in all tanks shall be equivalent to the established potential average rate of rise of flood waters at any stage.
</P>
<P>(<I>l</I>) Each independent pumping unit shall be tested periodically to insure that it is in satisfactory operating condition.
</P>
<P>(<I>m</I>) Structural guides for holding floating tanks above their foundations shall be so designed that there will be no resistance to the free rise of a tank, and shall be constructed of noncombustible material.
</P>
<P>(<I>n</I>) The strength of the structure shall be adequate to resist lateral movement of a tank subject to a horizontal force in any direction equivalent to not less than 25 pounds per square foot acting on the projected vertical cross-sectional area of the tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>o</I>) Where tanks are situated on exposed points or bends in a shoreline where swift currents in flood waters will be present, the structures shall be designed to withstand a unit force of not less than 50 pounds per square foot.
</P>
<P>(<I>p</I>) The filling of a tank to be protected by water loading shall be started as soon as flood waters reach a dangerous flood stage. The rate of filling shall be at least equal to the rate of rise of the floodwaters (or the established average potential rate of rise).
</P>
<P>(<I>q</I>) Sufficient fuel to operate the water pumps shall be available at all times to insure adequate power to fill all tankage with water.
</P>
<P>(<I>r</I>) All valves on connecting pipelines shall be closed and locked in closed position when water loading has been completed.
</P>
<P>(<I>s</I>) Where structural guides are provided for the protection of floating tanks, all rigid connections between tanks and pipelines shall be disconnected and blanked off or blinded before the floodwaters reach the bottom of the tank, unless control valves and their connections to the tank are of a type designed to prevent breakage between the valve and the tank shell.
</P>
<P>(<I>t</I>) All valves attached to tanks other than those used in connection with water loading operations shall be closed and locked.
</P>
<P>(<I>u</I>) If a tank is equipped with a swing line, the swing pipe shall be raised to and secured at its highest position.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Inspections. The Assistant Secretary or his designated representative shall make periodic inspections of all plants where the storage of flammable liquids is such as to require compliance with the foregoing requirements, in order to assure the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That all flammable liquid storage tanks are in compliance with these requirements and so maintained.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That detailed printed instructions of what to do in flood emergencies are properly posted.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) That station operators and other employees depended upon to carry out such instructions are thoroughly informed as to the location and operation of such valves and other equipment necessary to effect these requirements.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Earthquake areas.</I> In areas subject to earthquakes, the tank supports and connections shall be designed to resist damage as a result of such shocks.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sources of ignition.</I> In locations where flammable vapors may be present, precautions shall be taken to prevent ignition by eliminating or controlling sources of ignition. Sources of ignition may include open flames, lightning, smoking, cutting and welding, hot surfaces, frictional heat, sparks (static, electrical, and mechanical), spontaneous ignition, chemical and physical-chemical reactions, and radiant heat.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Testing</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> All tanks, whether shop built or field erected, shall be strength tested before they are placed in service in accordance with the applicable paragraphs of the code under which they were built. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) code stamp, American Petroleum Institute (API) monogram, or the label of the Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc., on a tank shall be evidence of compliance with this strength test. Tanks not marked in accordance with the above codes shall be strength tested before they are placed in service in accordance with good engineering principles and reference shall be made to the sections on testing in the codes listed in subparagraphs (1) (iii)(<I>a</I>), (iv)(<I>b</I>), or (v)(<I>b</I>) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Strength.</I> When the vertical length of the fill and vent pipes is such that when filled with liquid the static head imposed upon the bottom of the tank exceeds 10 pounds per square inch, the tank and related piping shall be tested hydrostatically to a pressure equal to the static head thus imposed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Tightness.</I> In addition to the strength test called for in subdivisions (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph, all tanks and connections shall be tested for tightness. Except for underground tanks, this tightness test shall be made at operating pressure with air, inert gas, or water prior to placing the tank in service. In the case of field-erected tanks the strength test may be considered to be the test for tank tightness. Underground tanks and piping, before being covered, enclosed, or placed in use, shall be tested for tightness hydrostatically, or with air pressure at not less than 3 pounds per square inch and not more than 5 pounds per square inch.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Repairs.</I> All leaks or deformations shall be corrected in an acceptable manner before the tank is placed in service. Mechanical caulking is not permitted for correcting leaks in welded tanks except pinhole leaks in the roof.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Derated operations.</I> Tanks to be operated at pressures below their design pressure may be tested by the applicable provisions of subdivision (i) or (ii) of this subparagraph, based upon the pressure developed under full emergency venting of the tank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Piping, valves, and fittings</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Design.</I> The design (including selection of materials) fabrication, assembly, test, and inspection of piping systems containing flammable liquids shall be suitable for the expected working pressures and structural stresses. Conformity with the applicable provisions of Pressure Piping, ANSI B31 series and the provisions of this paragraph, shall be considered prima facie evidence of compliance with the foregoing provisions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> This paragraph does not apply to any of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Tubing or casing on any oil or gas wells and any piping connected directly thereto.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Motor vehicle, aircraft, boat, or portable or stationary engines.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Piping within the scope of any applicable boiler and pressures vessel code.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this paragraph, piping systems consist of pipe, tubing, flanges, bolting, gaskets, valves, fittings, the pressure containing parts of other components such as expansion joints and strainers, and devices which serve such purposes as mixing, separating, snubbing, distributing, metering, or controlling flow.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Materials for piping, valves, and fittings</I>—(i) <I>Required materials.</I> Materials for piping, valves, or fittings shall be steel, nodular iron, or malleable iron, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> Materials other than steel, nodular iron, or malleable iron may be used underground, or if required by the properties of the flammable liquid handled. Material other than steel, nodular iron, or malleable iron shall be designed to specifications embodying principles recognized as good engineering practices for the material used.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Linings.</I> Piping, valves, and fittings may have combustible or noncombustible linings.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Low-melting materials.</I> When low-melting point materials such as aluminum and brass or materials that soften on fire exposure such as plastics, or non-ductile materials such as cast iron, are necessary, special consideration shall be given to their behavior on fire exposure. If such materials are used in above ground piping systems or inside buildings, they shall be suitably protected against fire exposure or so located that any spill resulting from the failure of these materials could not unduly expose persons, important buildings or structures or can be readily controlled by remote valves.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pipe joints.</I> Joints shall be made liquid tight. Welded or screwed joints or approved connectors shall be used. Threaded joints and connections shall be made up tight with a suitable lubricant or piping compound. Pipe joints dependent upon the friction characteristics of combustible materials for mechanical continuity of piping shall not be used inside buildings. They may be used outside of buildings above or below ground. If used above ground, the piping shall either be secured to prevent disengagement at the fitting or the piping system shall be so designed that any spill resulting from such disengagement could not unduly expose persons, important buildings or structures, and could be readily controlled by remote valves.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supports.</I> Piping systems shall be substantially supported and protected against physical damage and excessive stresses arising from settlement, vibration, expansion, or contraction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Protection against corrosion.</I> All piping for flammable liquids, both aboveground and underground, where subject to external corrosion, shall be painted or otherwise protected.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Valves.</I> Piping systems shall contain a sufficient number of valves to operate the system properly and to protect the plant. Piping systems in connection with pumps shall contain a sufficient number of valves to control properly the flow of liquid in normal operation and in the event of physical damage. Each connection to pipelines, by which equipments such as tankcars or tank vehicles discharge liquids by means of pumps into storage tanks, shall be provided with a check valve for automatic protection against backflow if the piping arrangement is such that backflow from the system is possible.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Testing.</I> All piping before being covered, enclosed, or placed in use shall be hydrostatically tested to 150 percent of the maximum anticipated pressure of the system, or pneumatically tested to 110 percent of the maximum anticipated pressure of the system, but not less than 5 pounds per square inch gage at the highest point of the system. This test shall be maintained for a sufficient time to complete visual inspection of all joints and connections, but for at least 10 minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Container and portable tank storage</I>—(1) <I>Scope</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> This paragraph shall apply only to the storage of flammable liquids in drums or other containers (including flammable aerosols) not exceeding 60 gallons individual capacity and those portable tanks not exceeding 660 gallons individual capacity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> This paragraph shall not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Storage of containers in bulk plants, service stations, refineries, chemical plants, and distilleries;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids in the fuel tanks of a motor vehicle, aircraft, boat, or portable or stationary engine;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Flammable paints, oils, varnishes, and similar mixtures used for painting or maintenance when not kept for a period in excess of 30 days;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Beverages when packaged in individual containers not exceeding 1 gallon in size.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design, construction, and capacity of containers</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Only approved containers and portable tanks shall be used. Metal containers and portable tanks meeting the requirements of and containing products authorized by chapter I, title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations (regulations issued by the Hazardous Materials Regulations Board, Department of Transportation), shall be deemed to be acceptable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Emergency venting.</I> Each portable tank shall be provided with one or more devices installed in the top with sufficient emergency venting capacity to limit internal pressure under fire exposure conditions to 10 p.s.i.g., or 30 percent of the bursting pressure of the tank, whichever is greater. The total venting capacity shall be not less than that specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(v) (<I>c</I>) or (<I>e</I>) of this section. At least one pressure-activated vent having a minimum capacity of 6,000 cubic feet of free air (14.7 p.s.i.a. and 60 °F.) shall be used. It shall be set to open at not less than 5 p.s.i.g. If fusible vents are used, they shall be actuated by elements that operate at a temperature not exceeding 300 °F.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Size.</I> Flammable liquid containers shall be in accordance with Table H-12, except that glass or plastic containers of no more than 1-gallon capacity may be used for a Category 1 or 2 flammable liquid if:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) Such liquid either would be rendered unfit for its intended use by contact with metal or would excessively corrode a metal container so as to create a leakage hazard; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The user's process either would require more than 1 pint of a Category 1 flammable liquid or more than 1 quart of a Category 2 flammable liquid of a single assay lot to be used at one time, or would require the maintenance of an analytical standard liquid of a quality which is not met by the specified standards of liquids available, and the quantity of the analytical standard liquid required to be used in any one control process exceeds one-sixteenth the capacity of the container allowed under Table H-12 for the category of liquid; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The containers are intended for direct export outside the United States.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-12—Maximum Allowable Size of Containers and Portable Tanks for Flammable Liquids
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Container type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 4
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glass or approved plastic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 pt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 qt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 gal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Metal (other than DOT drums)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 gal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Safety cans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 gal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Metal drums (DOT specifications)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 gal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Approved portable tanks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">660 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">660 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">660 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">660 gal.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Container exemptions: (a) Medicines, beverages, foodstuffs, cosmetics, and other common consumer items, when packaged according to commonly accepted practices, shall be exempt from the requirements of 1910.106(d)(2)(i) and (ii).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Design, construction, and capacity of storage cabinets</I>—(i) <I>Maximum capacity.</I> Not more than 60 gallons of Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids, nor more than 120 gallons of Category 4 flammable liquids may be stored in a storage cabinet.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fire resistance.</I> Storage cabinets shall be designed and constructed to limit the internal temperature to not more than 325 °F. when subjected to a 10-minute fire test using the standard time-temperature curve as set forth in Standard Methods of Fire Tests of Building Construction and Materials, NFPA 251-1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. All joints and seams shall remain tight and the door shall remain securely closed during the fire test. Cabinets shall be labeled in conspicuous lettering, “Flammable—Keep Fire Away.”
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Metal cabinets constructed in the following manner shall be deemed to be in compliance. The bottom, top, door, and sides of cabinet shall be at least No. 18 gage sheet iron and double walled with 1
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch air space. Joints shall be riveted, welded or made tight by some equally effective means. The door shall be provided with a three-point lock, and the door sill shall be raised at least 2 inches above the bottom of the cabinet.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Wooden cabinets constructed in the following manner shall be deemed in compliance. The bottom, sides, and top shall be constructed of an approved grade of plywood at least 1 inch in thickness, which shall not break down or delaminate under fire conditions. All joints shall be rabbetted and shall be fastened in two directions with flathead woodscrews. When more than one door is used, there shall be a rabbetted overlap of not less than 1 inch. Hinges shall be mounted in such a manner as not to lose their holding capacity due to loosening or burning out of the screws when subjected to the fire test.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Design and construction of inside storage rooms</I>—(i) <I>Construction.</I> Inside storage rooms shall be constructed to meet the required fire-resistive rating for their use. Such construction shall comply with the test specifications set forth in Standard Methods of Fire Tests of Building Construction and Materials, NFPA 251-1969. Where an automatic sprinkler system is provided, the system shall be designed and installed in an acceptable manner. Openings to other rooms or buildings shall be provided with noncombustible liquid-tight raised sills or ramps at least 4 inches in height, or the floor in the storage area shall be at least 4 inches below the surrounding floor. Openings shall be provided with approved self-closing fire doors. The room shall be liquid-tight where the walls join the floor. A permissible alternate to the sill or ramp is an open-grated trench inside of the room which drains to a safe location. Where other portions of the building or other properties are exposed, windows shall be protected as set forth in the Standard for Fire Doors and Windows, NFPA No. 80-1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, for Class E or F openings. Wood at least 1 inch nominal thickness may be used for shelving, racks, dunnage, scuffboards, floor overlay, and similar installations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Rating and capacity.</I> Storage in inside storage rooms shall comply with Table H-13.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-13—Storage in Inside Rooms
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fire protection 
<sup>1</sup> provided
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fire resistance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total allowable quantities (gals./sq. ft./floor area)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 hours</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 sq. ft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 hours</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 sq. ft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 sq. ft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 hour</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 sq. ft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Fire protection system shall be sprinkler, water spray, carbon dioxide, or other system.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Wiring.</I> Electrical wiring and equipment located in inside storage rooms used for Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be approved under subpart S of this part for Class I, Division 2 Hazardous Locations; for Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) and Category 4 flammable liquids, shall be approved for general use.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Ventilation.</I> Every inside storage room shall be provided with either a gravity or a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. Such system shall be designed to provide for a complete change of air within the room at least six times per hour. If a mechanical exhaust system is used, it shall be controlled by a switch located outside of the door. The ventilating equipment and any lighting fixtures shall be operated by the same switch. A pilot light shall be installed adjacent to the switch if Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are dispensed within the room. Where gravity ventilation is provided, the fresh air intake, as well as the exhaust outlet from the room, shall be on the exterior of the building in which the room is located.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Storage in inside storage rooms.</I> In every inside storage room there shall be maintained one clear aisle at least 3 feet wide. Containers over 30 gallons capacity shall not be stacked one upon the other. Dispensing shall be by approved pump or self-closing faucet only.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Storage inside building</I>—(i) <I>Egress.</I> Flammable liquids, including stock for sale, shall not be stored so as to limit use of exits, stairways, or areas normally used for the safe egress of people.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Containers.</I> The storage of flammable liquids in containers or portable tanks shall comply with subdivisions (iii) through (v) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Office occupancies.</I> Storage shall be prohibited except that which is required for maintenance and operation of building and operation of equipment. Such storage shall be kept in closed metal containers stored in a storage cabinet or in safety cans or in an inside storage room not having a door that opens into that portion of the building used by the public.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Mercantile occupancies and other retail stores.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)-(<I>d</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Leaking containers shall be removed to a storage room or taken to a safe location outside the building and the contents transferred to an undamaged container.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>General purpose public warehouses.</I> Storage shall be in accordance with Table H-14 or H-15 and in buildings or in portions of such buildings cut off by standard firewalls. Material creating no fire exposure hazard to the flammable liquids may be stored in the same area.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr12.054.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr12.055.gif"/>
<P>(vi) <I>Flammable liquid warehouses or storage buildings.</I> (<I>a</I>) If the storage building is located 50 feet or less from a building or line of adjoining property that may be built upon, the exposing wall shall be a blank wall having a fire-resistance rating of at least 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The total quantity of liquids within a building shall not be restricted, but the arrangement of storage shall comply with Table H-14 or H-15.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Containers in piles shall be separated by pallets or dunnage where necessary to provide stability and to prevent excessive stress on container walls.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Portable tanks stored over one tier high shall be designed to nest securely, without dunnage, and adequate materials handing equipment shall be available to handle tanks safely at the upper tier level.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) No pile shall be closer than 3 feet to the nearest beam, chord, girder, or other obstruction, and shall be 3 feet below sprinkler deflectors or discharge orifices of water spray, or other overhead fire protection systems.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Aisles of at least 3 feet wide shall be provided where necessary for reasons of access to doors, windows or standpipe connections.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Storage outside buildings</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Storage outside buildings shall be in accordance with Table H-16 or H-17, and subdivisions (ii) and (iv) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr12.056.gif"/>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum storage.</I> A maximum of 1,100 gallons of flammable liquids may be located adjacent to buildings located on the same premises and under the same management provided the provisions of subdivisions (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this subdivision are complied with.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where quantity stored exceeds 1,100 gallons, or provisions of subdivision (a) of this subdivision cannot be met, a minimum distance of 10 feet between buildings and nearest container of flammable liquid shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Spill containment.</I> The storage area shall be graded in a manner to divert possible spills away from buildings or other exposures or shall be surrounded by a curb at least 6 inches high. When curbs are used, provisions shall be made for draining of accumulations of ground or rain water or spills of flammable liquids. Drains shall terminate at a safe location and shall be accessible to operation under fire conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Security.</I> The storage area shall be protected against tampering or trespassers where necessary and shall be kept free of weeds, debris and other combustible material not necessary to the storage.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Fire control</I>—(i) <I>Extinguishers.</I> Suitable fire control devices, such as small hose or portable fire extinguishers, shall be available at locations where flammable liquids are stored.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr12.057.gif"/>
<P>(<I>a</I>) At least one portable fire extinguisher having a rating of not less than 12-B units shall be located outside of, but not more than 10 feet from, the door opening into any room used for storage.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) At least one portable fire extinguisher having a rating of not less than 12-B units must be located not less than 10 feet, nor more than 25 feet, from any Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquid storage area located outside of a storage room but inside a building.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sprinklers.</I> When sprinklers are provided, they shall be installed in accordance with § 1910.159.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Open flames and smoking.</I> Open flames and smoking shall not be permitted in flammable liquid storage areas.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Water reactive materials.</I> Materials which will react with water shall not be stored in the same room with flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Industrial plants</I>—(1) <I>Scope</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph shall apply to those industrial plants where:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The use of flammable liquids is incidental to the principal business, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where flammable liquids are handled or used only in unit physical operations such as mixing, drying, evaporating, filtering, distillation, and similar operations which do not involve chemical reaction. This paragraph shall not apply to chemical plants, refineries or distilleries.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> Where portions of such plants involve chemical reactions such as oxidation, reduction, halogenation, hydrogenation, alkylation, polymerization, and other chemical processes, those portions of the plant shall be in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incidental storage or use of flammable liquids</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> This subparagraph shall be applicable to those portions of an industrial plant where the use and handling of flammable liquids is only incidental to the principal business, such as automobile assembly, construction of electronic equipment, furniture manufacturing, or other similar activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Containers.</I> Flammable liquids shall be stored in tanks or closed containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Except as provided in subdivisions (<I>b</I>) and (<I>c</I>) of this subdivision, all storage shall comply with paragraph (d) (3) or (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The quantity of liquid that may be located outside of an inside storage room or storage cabinet in a building or in any one fire area of a building shall not exceed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 25 gallons of Category 1 flammable liquids in containers
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 120 gallons of Category 2, 3, or 4 flammable liquids in containers
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 660 gallons of Category 2, 3, or 4 flammable liquids in a single portable tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where large quantities of flammable liquids are necessary, storage may be in tanks which shall comply with the applicable requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Separation and protection.</I> Areas in which flammable liquids are transferred from one tank or container to another container shall be separated from other operations in the building by adequate distance or by construction having adequate fire resistance. Drainage or other means shall be provided to control spills. Adequate natural or mechanical ventilation shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Handling liquids at point of final use.</I> (<I>a</I>) Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be kept in covered containers when not actually in use.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where flammable liquids are used or handled, except in closed containers, means shall be provided to dispose promptly and safely of leakage or spills.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), may be used only where there are no open flames or other sources of ignition within the possible path of vapor travel.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Flammable liquids shall be drawn from or transferred into vessels, containers, or portable tanks within a building only through a closed piping system, from safety cans, by means of a device drawing through the top, or from a container or portable tanks by gravity through an approved self-closing valve. Transferring by means of air pressure on the container or portable tanks shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unit physical operations</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> This subparagraph shall be applicable in those portions of industrial plants where flammable liquids are handled or used in unit physical operations such as mixing, drying, evaporating, filtering, distillation, and similar operations which do not involve chemical change. Examples are plants compounding cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, solvents, cleaning fluids, insecticides, and similar types of activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Location.</I> Industrial plants shall be located so that each building or unit of equipment is accessible from at least one side for firefighting and fire control purposes. Buildings shall be located with respect to lines of adjoining property which may be built upon as set forth in paragraph (h)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section except that the blank wall referred to in paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section shall have a fire resistance rating of at least 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Chemical processes.</I> Areas where unstable liquids are handled or small scale unit chemical processes are carried on shall be separated from the remainder of the plant by a fire wall of 2-hour minimum fire resistance rating.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Drainage.</I> (<I>a</I>) Emergency drainage systems shall be provided to direct flammable liquid leakage and fire protection water to a safe location. This may require curbs, scuppers, or special drainage systems to control the spread of fire; see paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Emergency drainage systems, if connected to public sewers or discharged into public waterways, shall be equipped with traps or separator.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Ventilation</I>—(<I>a</I>) Areas as defined in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section using Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be ventilated at a rate of not less than 1 cubic foot per minute per square foot of solid floor area. This shall be accomplished by natural or mechanical ventilation with discharge or exhaust to a safe location outside of the building. Provision shall be made for introduction of makeup air in such a manner as not to short circuit the ventilation. Ventilation shall be arranged to include all floor areas or pits where flammable vapors may collect.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Equipment used in a building and the ventilation of the building shall be designed so as to limit flammable vapor-air mixtures under normal operating conditions to the interior of equipment, and to not more than 5 feet from equipment which exposes Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), to the air. Examples of such equipment are dispensing stations, open centrifuges, plate and frame filters, open vacuum filters, and surfaces of open equipment.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Storage and handling.</I> The storage, transfer, and handling of liquid shall comply with paragraph (h)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tank vehicle and tank car loading and unloading.</I> (i) Tank vehicle and tank car loading or unloading facilities shall be separated from aboveground tanks, warehouses, other plant buildings or nearest line of adjoining property which may be built upon by a distance of 25 feet for Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), and 15 feet for Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) and Category 4 flammable liquids, measured from the nearest position of any fill stem. Buildings for pumps or shelters for personnel may be a part of the facility. Operations of the facility shall comply with the appropriate portions of paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fire control</I>—(i) <I>Portable and special equipment.</I> Portable fire extinguishment and control equipment shall be provided in such quantities and types as are needed for the special hazards of operation and storage.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Water supply.</I> Water shall be available in volume and at adequate pressure to supply water hose streams, foam-producing equipment, automatic sprinklers, or water spray systems as the need is indicated by the special hazards of operation, dispensing and storage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special extinguishers.</I> Special extinguishing equipment such as that utilizing foam, inert gas, or dry chemical shall be provided as the need is indicated by the special hazards of operation dispensing and storage.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Special hazards.</I> Where the need is indicated by special hazards of operation, flammable liquid processing equipment, major piping, and supporting steel shall be protected by approved water spray systems, deluge systems, approved fire-resistant coatings, insulation, or any combination of these.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Maintenance.</I> All plant fire protection facilities shall be adequately maintained and periodically inspected and tested to make sure they are always in satisfactory operating condition, and they will serve their purpose in time of emergency.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sources of ignition</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Adequate precautions shall be taken to prevent the ignition of flammable vapors. Sources of ignition include but are not limited to open flames; lightning; smoking; cutting and welding; hot surfaces; frictional heat; static, electrical, and mechanical sparks; spontaneous ignition, including heat-producing chemical reactions; and radiant heat.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Grounding.</I> Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall not be dispensed into containers unless the nozzle and container are electrically interconnected. Where the metallic floorplate on which the container stands while filling is electrically connected to the fill stem or where the fill stem is bonded to the container during filling operations by means of a bond wire, the provisions of this section shall be deemed to have been complied with.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Electrical</I>—(i) <I>Equipment.</I> (<I>a</I>) All electrical wiring and equipment shall be installed according to the requirements of subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Locations where flammable vapor-air mixtures may exist under normal operations shall be classified Class I, Division 1 according to the requirements of subpart S of this part. For those pieces of equipment installed in accordance with subparagraph (3)(v)(<I>b</I>) of this paragraph, the Division 1 area shall extend 5 feet in all directions from all points of vapor liberation. All areas within pits shall be classified Division 1 if any part of the pit is within a Division 1 or 2 classified area, unless the pit is provided with mechanical ventilation.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Locations where flammable vapor-air mixtures may exist under abnormal conditions and for a distance beyond Division 1 locations shall be classified Division 2 according to the requirements of subpart S of this part. These locations include an area within 20 feet horizontally, 3 feet vertically beyond a Division 1 area, and up to 3 feet above floor or grade level within 25 feet, if indoors, or 10 feet if outdoors, from any pump, bleeder, withdrawal fitting, meter, or similar device handling Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C). Pits provided with adequate mechanical ventilation within a Division 1 or 2 area shall be classified Division 2. If only Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids are handled, then ordinary electrical equipment is satisfactory though care shall be used in locating electrical apparatus to prevent hot metal from falling into open equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Where the provisions of subdivisions (<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), and (<I>c</I>), of this subdivision require the installation of electrical equipment suitable for Class I, Division 1 or Division 2 locations, ordinary electrical equipment including switchgear may be used if installed in a room or enclosure which is maintained under positive pressure with respect to the hazardous area. Ventilation makeup air shall be uncontaminated by flammable vapors.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Repairs to equipment.</I> Hot work, such as welding or cutting operations, use of spark-producing power tools, and chipping operations shall be permitted only under supervision of an individual in responsible charge. The individual in responsible charge shall make an inspection of the area to be sure that it is safe for the work to be done and that safe procedures will be followed for the work specified.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Maintenance and operating practices shall be in accordance with established procedures which will tend to control leakage and prevent the accidental escape of flammable liquids. Spills shall be cleaned up promptly.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Access.</I> Adequate aisles shall be maintained for unobstructed movement of personnel and so that fire protection equipment can be brought to bear on any part of flammable liquid storage, use, or any unit physical operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Waste and residue.</I> Combustible waste material and residues in a building or unit operating area shall be kept to a minimum, stored in covered metal receptacles and disposed of daily.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Clear zone.</I> Ground area around buildings and unit operating areas shall be kept free of weeds, trash, or other unnecessary combustible materials.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Bulk plants</I>—(1)(i) <I>Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C).</I> Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be stored in closed containers, or in storage tanks above ground outside of buildings, or underground in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) and Category 4 flammable liquids.</I> Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) and Category 4 flammable liquids shall be stored in containers, or in tanks within buildings or above ground outside of buildings, or underground in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Piling containers.</I> Containers of flammable liquids when piled one upon the other shall be separated by dunnage sufficient to provide stability and to prevent excessive stress on container walls. The height of the pile shall be consistent with the stability and strength of containers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Buildings</I>—(i) <I>Exits.</I> Rooms in which flammable liquids are stored or handled by pumps shall have exit facilities arranged to prevent occupants from being trapped in the event of fire.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Heating.</I> Rooms in which Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are stored or handled shall be heated only by means not constituting a source of ignition, such as steam or hot water. Rooms containing heating appliances involving sources of ignition shall be located and arranged to prevent entry of flammable vapors.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Ventilation.</I> (<I>a</I>) Ventilation shall be provided for all rooms, buildings, or enclosures in which Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are pumped or dispensed. Design of ventilation systems shall take into account the relatively high specific gravity of the vapors. Ventilation may be provided by adequate openings in outside walls at floor level unobstructed except by louvers or coarse screens. Where natural ventilation is inadequate, mechanical ventilation shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall not be stored or handled within a building having a basement or pit into which flammable vapors may travel, unless such area is provided with ventilation designed to prevent the accumulation of flammable vapors therein.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Containers of Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall not be drawn from or filled within buildings unless provision is made to prevent the accumulation of flammable vapors in hazardous concentrations. Where mechanical ventilation is required, it shall be kept in operation while flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C) are being handled.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loading and unloading facilities</I>— (i) <I>Separation.</I> Tank vehicle and tank car loading or unloading facilities shall be separated from aboveground tanks, warehouses, other plant buildings or nearest line of adjoining property that may be built upon by a distance of 25 feet for Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), and 15 feet for Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) and Category 4 flammable liquids measured from the nearest position of any fill spout. Buildings for pumps or shelters for personnel may be a part of the facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Category restriction.</I> Equipment such as piping, pumps, and meters used for the transfer of Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), between storage tanks and the fill stem of the loading rack shall not be used for the transfer of Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Valves.</I> Valves used for the final control for filling tank vehicles shall be of the self-closing type and manually held open except where automatic means are provided for shutting off the flow when the vehicle is full or after filling of a preset amount.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Static protection.</I> (<I>a</I>) Bonding facilities for protection against static sparks during the loading of tank vehicles through open domes shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Where Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are loaded, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids are loaded into vehicles which may contain vapors from previous cargoes of Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Protection as required in (<I>a</I>) of this subdivision (iv) shall consist of a metallic bond wire permanently electrically connected to the fill stem or to some part of the rack structure in electrical contact with the fill stem. The free end of such wire shall be provided with a clamp or equivalent device for convenient attachment to some metallic part in electrical contact with the cargo tank of the tank vehicle.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Such bonding connection shall be made fast to the vehicle or tank before dome covers are raised and shall remain in place until filling is completed and all dome covers have been closed and secured.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Bonding as specified in (<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), and (<I>c</I>) of this subdivision is not required:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Where vehicles are loaded exclusively with products not having a static accumulating tendency, such as asphalt, most crude oils, residual oils, and water soluble liquids;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where no Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are handled at the loading facility and the tank vehicles loaded are used exclusively for Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) and Category 4 flammable liquids; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where vehicles are loaded or unloaded through closed bottom or top connections.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Filling through open domes into the tanks of tank vehicles or tank cars, that contain vapor-air mixtures within the flammable range or where the liquid being filled can form such a mixture, shall be by means of a downspout which extends near the bottom of the tank. This precaution is not required when loading liquids which are nonaccumulators of static charges.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Stray currents.</I> Tank car loading facilities where Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are loaded through open domes shall be protected against stray currents by bonding the pipe to at least one rail and to the rack structure if of metal. Multiple lines entering the rack area shall be electrically bonded together. In addition, in areas where excessive stray currents are known to exist, all pipe entering the rack area shall be provided with insulating sections to electrically isolate the rack piping from the pipelines. No bonding between the tank car and the rack or piping is required during either loading or unloading of Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Container filling facilities.</I> Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall not be dispensed into containers unless the nozzle and container are electrically interconnected. Where the metallic floorplate on which the container stands while filling is electrically connected to the fill stem or where the fill stem is bonded to the container during filling operations by means of a bond wire, the provisions of this section shall be deemed to have been complied with.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Wharves</I>—(i) <I>Definition, application.</I> The term wharf shall mean any wharf, pier, bulkhead, or other structure over or contiguous to navigable water used in conjunction with a bulk plant, the primary function of which is the transfer of flammable liquid cargo in bulk between the bulk plant and any tank vessel, ship, barge, lighter boat, or other mobile floating craft; and this subparagraph shall apply to all such installations except Marine Service Stations as covered in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii)-(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Design and construction.</I> Substructure and deck shall be substantially designed for the use intended. Deck may employ any material which will afford the desired combination of flexibility, resistance to shock, durability, strength, and fire resistance. Heavy timber construction is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Pumps.</I> Loading pumps capable of building up pressures in excess of the safe working pressure of cargo hose or loading arms shall be provided with bypasses, relief valves, or other arrangement to protect the loading facilities against excessive pressure. Relief devices shall be tested at not more than yearly intervals to determine that they function satisfactorily at the pressure at which they are set.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Hoses and couplings.</I> All pressure hoses and couplings shall be inspected at intervals appropriate to the service. The hose and couplings shall be tested with the hose extended and using the “inservice maximum operating pressures.” Any hose showing material deteriorations, signs of leakage, or weakness in its carcass or at the couplings shall be withdrawn from service and repaired or discarded.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Piping and fittings.</I> Piping, valves, and fittings shall be in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, with the following exceptions and additions:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Flexibility of piping shall be assured by appropriate layout and arrangement of piping supports so that motion of the wharf structure resulting from wave action, currents, tides, or the mooring of vessels will not subject the pipe to repeated strain beyond the elastic limit.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Pipe joints depending upon the friction characteristics of combustible materials or grooving of pipe ends for mechanical continuity of piping shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Swivel joints may be used in piping to which hoses are connected, and for articulated swivel-joint transfer systems, provided that the design is such that the mechanical strength of the joint will not be impaired if the packing material should fail, as by exposure to fire.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Piping systems shall contain a sufficient number of valves to operate the system properly and to control the flow of liquid in normal operation and in the event of physical damage.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(viii)(<I>d</I>) of this section, each line conveying Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), leading to a wharf shall be provided with a readily accessible block valve located on shore near the approach to the wharf and outside of any diked area. Where more than one line is involved, the valves shall be grouped in one location.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Means of easy access shall be provided for cargo line valves located below the wharf deck.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Pipelines on flammable liquids wharves shall be adequately bonded and grounded. If excessive stray currents are encountered, insulating joints shall be installed. Bonding and grounding connections on all pipelines shall be located on wharfside of hose-riser insulating flanges, if used, and shall be accessible for inspection.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Hose or articulated swivel-joint pipe connections used for cargo transfer shall be capable of accommodating the combined effects of change in draft and maximum tidal range, and mooring lines shall be kept adjusted to prevent the surge of the vessel from placing stress on the cargo transfer system.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Hose shall be supported so as to avoid kinking and damage from chafing.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Fire protection.</I> Suitable portable fire extinguishers with a rating of not less than 12-BC shall be located within 75 feet of those portions of the facility where fires are likely to occur, such as hose connections, pumps, and separator tanks.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Where piped water is available, ready-connected fire hose in size appropriate for the water supply shall be provided so that manifolds where connections are made and broken can be reached by at least one hose stream.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Material shall not be placed on wharves in such a manner as to obstruct access to firefighting equipment, or important pipeline control valves.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where the wharf is accessible to vehicle traffic, an unobstructed roadway to the shore end of the wharf shall be maintained for access of firefighting apparatus.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Operations control.</I> Loading or discharging shall not commence until the wharf superintendent and officer in charge of the tank vessel agree that the tank vessel is properly moored and all connections are properly made. Mechanical work shall not be performed on the wharf during cargo transfer, except under special authorization based on a review of the area involved, methods to be employed, and precautions necessary.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electrical equipment</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph (f)(5)(i) shall apply to areas where Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are stored or handled. For areas where only Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids are stored or handled, the electrical equipment may be installed in accordance with the provisions of Subpart S of this part, for ordinary locations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conformance.</I> All electrical equipment and wiring shall be of a type specified by and shall be installed in accordance with subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Classification.</I> So far as it applies Table H-18 shall be used to delineate and classify hazardous areas for the purpose of installation of electrical equipment under normal circumstances. In Table H-18 a classified area shall not extend beyond an unpierced wall, roof, or other solid partition. The area classifications listed shall be based on the premise that the installation meets the applicable requirements of this section in all respects.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sources of ignition.</I> Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall not be handled, drawn, or dispensed where flammable vapors may reach a source of ignition. Smoking shall be prohibited except in designated localities. “No Smoking” signs shall be conspicuously posted where hazard from flammable liquid vapors is normally present.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Drainage and waste disposal.</I> Provision shall be made to prevent flammable liquids which may be spilled at loading or unloading points from entering public sewers and drainage systems, or natural waterways. Connection to such sewers, drains, or waterways by which flammable liquids might enter shall be provided with separator boxes or other approved means whereby such entry is precluded. Crankcase drainings and flammable liquids shall not be dumped into sewers, but shall be stored in tanks or tight drums outside of any building until removed from the premises.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Fire control.</I> Suitable fire-control devices, such as small hose or portable fire extinguishers, shall be available to locations where fires are likely to occur. Additional fire-control equipment may be required where a tank of more than 50,000 gallons individual capacity contains Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), and where an unusual exposure hazard exists from surrounding property. Such additional fire-control equipment shall be sufficient to extinguish a fire in the largest tank. The design and amount of such equipment shall be in accordance with approved engineering standards.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Service stations</I>—(1) <I>Storage and handling</I>—(i) <I>General provisions.</I> (<I>a</I>) Liquids shall be stored in approved closed containers not exceeding 60 gallons capacity, in tanks located underground, in tanks in special enclosures as described in paragraph (g)(i) of this section, or in aboveground tanks as provided for in paragraphs (g)(4)(ii), (<I>b</I>), (<I>c</I>) and (<I>d</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Aboveground tanks, located in an adjoining bulk plant, may be connected by piping to service station underground tanks if, in addition to valves at aboveground tanks, a valve is also installed within control of service station personnel.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Apparatus dispensing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), into the fuel tanks of motor vehicles of the public shall not be located at a bulk plant unless separated by a fence or similar barrier from the area in which bulk operations are conducted.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The provisions of paragraph (g)(1)(i)(<I>a</I>) of this section shall not prohibit the dispensing of flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C) in the open from a tank vehicle to a motor vehicle. Such dispensing shall be permitted provided:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The tank vehicle complies with the requirements covered in the Standard on Tank Vehicles for Flammable Liquids, NFPA 385-1966.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The dispensing is done on premises not open to the public.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The dispensing hose does not exceed 50 feet in length.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The dispensing nozzle is a listed automatic-closing type without a latchopen device.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall not be stored or handled within a building having a basement or pit into which flammable vapors may travel, unless such area is provided with ventilation designed to prevent the accumulation of flammable vapors therein.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-18—Electrical Equipment Hazardous Areas—Bulk Plants
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Location
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class I Group D division
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Extent of classified area
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tank vehicle and tank car: 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Loading through open dome</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 3 feet of edge of dome, extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Area between 3 feet and 5 feet from edge of dome, extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Loading through bottom connections with atmospheric venting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 3 feet of point of venting to atmosphere extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Area between 3 feet and 5 feet from point of venting to atmosphere, extending in all directions. Also up to 18 inches above grade within a horizontal radius of 10 feet from point of loading connection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Loading through closed dome with atmospheric venting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 3 feet of open end of vent, extending in all directions.
<br/>Area between 3 feet and 5 feet from open end of vent, extending in all directions. Also within 3 feet of edge of dome, extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Loading through closed dome with vapor recovery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 3 feet of point of connection of both fill and vapor lines, extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Bottom loading with vapor recovery or any bottom unloading</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 3 feet of point of connections extending in all directions. Also up to 18 inches above grade with in a horizontal radius of 10 feet from point of connection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Drum and container filling:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Outdoors, or indoors with adequate ventilation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 3 feet of vent and fill opening, extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Area between 3 feet and 5 feet from vent or fill opening, extending in all directions. Also up to 18 inches above floor or grade level within a horizontal radius of 10 feet from vent or fill opening.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Outdoors, or indoors with adequate ventilation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 3 feet of vent and fill opening, extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Area between 3 feet and 5 feet from vent or fill opening, extending in all directions. Also up to 18 inches above floor or grade level within a horizontal radius of 10 feet from vent or fill opening.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tank—Aboveground:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Shell, ends, or roof and dike area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 10 feet from shell, ends, or roof of tank, Area inside dikes to level of top of dike.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 5 feet of open end of vent, extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Area between 5 feet and 10 feet from open end of vent, extending in all directions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Floating roof</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Area above the roof and within the shell.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pits:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Without mechanical ventilation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire area within pit if any part is within a Division 1 or 2 classified area.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">With mechanical ventilation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire area within pit if any part is within a Division 1 or 2 classified area.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Containing valves, fittings or piping, and not within a Division 1 or 2 classified area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire pit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pumps, bleeders, withdrawal fittings, meters and similar devices:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Indoors</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 5 feet of any edge of such devices, extending in all directions. Also up to 3 feet above floor or grade level within 25 feet horizontally from any edge of such devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Outdoors</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 3 feet of any edge of such devices, extending in all directions. Also up to 18 inches above grade level within 10 feet horizontally from any edge of such devices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Storage and repair garage for tank vehicles</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All pits or spaces below floor level.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Area up to 18 inches above floor or grade level for entire storage or repair garage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Drainage ditches, separators, impounding basins</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Area up to 18 inches above ditch, separator or basin. Also up to 18 inches above grade within 15 feet horizontally from any edge.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Garages for other than tank vehicles</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup> )</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If there is any opening to these rooms within the extent of an outdoor classified area, the entire room shall be classified the same as the area classification at the point of the opening.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Outdoor drum storage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup> )
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Indoor warehousing where there is no flammable liquid transfer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup> )</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If there is any opening to these rooms within the extent of an indoor classified are, the room shall be classified the same as if the wall, curb or partition did not exist.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Office and rest rooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup> )
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> When classifying the extent of the area, consideration shall be given to the fact that tank cars or tank vehicles may be spotted at varying points. Therefore, the extremities of the loading or unloading positions shall be used.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Ordinary.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Special enclosures.</I> (<I>a</I>) When installation of tanks in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section is impractical because of property or building limitations, tanks for flammable liquids may be installed in buildings if properly enclosed.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The enclosure shall be substantially liquid and vaportight without backfill. Sides, top, and bottom of the enclosure shall be of reinforced concrete at least 6 inches thick, with openings for inspection through the top only. Tank connections shall be so piped or closed that neither vapors nor liquid can escape into the enclosed space. Means shall be provided whereby portable equipment may be employed to discharge to the outside any liquid or vapors which might accumulate should leakage occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Inside buildings.</I> (<I>a</I>) Except where stored in tanks as provided in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section, no Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be stored within any service station building except in closed containers of aggregate capacity not exceeding 60 gallons. One container not exceeding 60 gallons capacity equipped with an approved pump is permitted.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), may be transferred from one container to another in lubrication or service rooms of a service station building provided the electrical installation complies with Table H-19 and provided that any heating equipment complies with paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) and Category 4 flammable liquids may be stored and dispensed inside service station buildings from tanks of not more than 120 gallons capacity each.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dispensing into portable containers.</I> No delivery of any Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be made into portable containers unless the container is constructed of metal, has a tight closure with screwed or spring cover, and is fitted with a spout or so designed so the contents can be poured without spilling.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dispensing systems</I>—(i) <I>Location.</I> Dispensing devices at automotive service stations shall be so located that all parts of the vehicle being served will be on the premises of the service station.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inside location.</I> Approved dispensing units may be located inside of buildings. The dispensing area shall be separated from other areas in an approved manner. The dispensing unit and its piping shall be mounted either on a concrete island or protected against collision damage by suitable means and shall be located in a position where it cannot be struck by a vehicle descending a ramp or other slope out of control. The dispensing area shall be provided with an approved mechanical or gravity ventilation system. When dispensing units are located below grade, only approved mechanical ventilation shall be used and the entire dispensing area shall be protected by an approved automatic sprinkler system. Ventilating systems shall be electrically interlocked with gasoline dispensing units so that the dispensing units cannot be operated unless the ventilating fan motors are energized.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Emergency power cutoff.</I> A clearly identified and easily accessible switch(es) or a circuit breaker(s) shall be provided at a location remote from dispensing devices, including remote pumping systems, to shut off the power to all dispensing devices in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Dispensing units.</I> (<I>a</I>) Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be transferred from tanks by means of fixed pumps so designed and equipped as to allow control of the flow and to prevent leakage or accidental discharge.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>)(<I>1</I>) Only listed devices may be used for dispensing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C). No such device may be used if it shows evidence of having been dismantled.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Every dispensing device for Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), installed after December 31, 1978, shall contain evidence of listing so placed that any attempt to dismantle the device will result in damage to such evidence, visible without disassembly or dismounting of the nozzle.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall not be dispensed by pressure from drums, barrels, and similar containers. Approved pumps taking suction through the top of the container or approved self-closing faucets shall be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The dispensing units, except those attached to containers, shall be mounted either on a concrete island or protected against collision damage by suitable means.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Remote pumping systems.</I> (<I>a</I>) This paragraph (g)(3)(v) shall apply to systems for dispensing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), where such liquids are transferred from storage to individual or multiple dispensing units by pumps located elsewhere than at the dispensing units.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Pumps shall be designed or equipped so that no part of the system will be subjected to pressures above its allowable working pressure. Pumps installed above grade, outside of buildings, shall be located not less than 10 feet from lines of adjoining property which may be built upon, and not less than 5 feet from any building opening. When an outside pump location is impractical, pumps may be installed inside of buildings, as provided for dispensers in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, or in pits as provided in subdivision (<I>c</I>) of this subdivision. Pumps shall be substantially anchored and protected against physical damage by vehicles.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Pits for subsurface pumps or piping manifolds of submersible pumps shall withstand the external forces to which they may be subjected without damage to the pump, tank, or piping. The pit shall be no larger than necessary for inspection and maintenance and shall be provided with a fitted cover.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A control shall be provided that will permit the pump to operate only when a dispensing nozzle is removed from its bracket on the dispensing unit and the switch on this dispensing unit is manually actuated. This control shall also stop the pump when all nozzles have been returned to their brackets.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) An approved impact valve, incorporating a fusible link, designed to close automatically in the event of severe impact or fire exposure shall be properly installed in the dispensing supply line at the base of each individual dispensing device.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Testing. After the completion of the installation, including any paving, that section of the pressure piping system between the pump discharge and the connection for the dispensing facility shall be tested for at least 30 minutes at the maximum operating pressure of the system. Such tests shall be repeated at 5-year intervals thereafter.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Delivery nozzles.</I> (<I>a</I>) A listed manual or automatic-closing type hose nozzle valve shall be provided on dispensers used for the dispensing of Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Manual-closing type valves shall be held open manually during dispensing. Automatic-closing type valves may be used in conjunction with an approved latch-open device.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Marine service stations</I>—(i) <I>Dispensing.</I> (<I>a</I>) The dispensing area shall be located away from other structures so as to provide room for safe ingress and egress of craft to be fueled. Dispensing units shall in all cases be at least 20 feet from any activity involving fixed sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Dispensing shall be by approved dispensing units with or without integral pumps and may be located on open piers, wharves, or floating docks or on shore or on piers of the solid fill type.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Dispensing nozzles shall be automatic-closing without a hold-open latch.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Tanks and pumps.</I> (<I>a</I>) Tanks, and pumps not integral with the dispensing unit, shall be on shore or on a pier of the solid fill type, except as provided in paragraphs (g)(4)(ii) (<I>b</I>) and (<I>c</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where shore location would require excessively long supply lines to dispensers, tanks may be installed on a pier provided that applicable portions of paragraph (b) of this section relative to spacing, diking, and piping are complied with and the quantity so stored does not exceed 1,100 gallons aggregate capacity.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Shore tanks supplying marine service stations may be located above ground, where rock ledges or high water table make underground tanks impractical.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Where tanks are at an elevation which would produce gravity head on the dispensing unit, the tank outlet shall be equipped with a pressure control valve positioned adjacent to and outside the tank block valve specified in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(<I>b</I>) of this section, so adjusted that liquid cannot flow by gravity from the tank in case of piping or hose failure.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Piping.</I> (<I>a</I>) Piping between shore tanks and dispensing units shall be as described in paragraph (<I>c</I>) of this section, except that, where dispensing is from a floating structure, suitable lengths of oil-resistant flexible hose may be employed between the shore piping and the piping on the floating structure as made necessary by change in water level or shoreline.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr12.058.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr12.059.gif"/>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A readily accessible valve to shut off the supply from shore shall be provided in each pipeline at or near the approach to the pier and at the shore end of each pipeline adjacent to the point where flexible hose is attached.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Piping shall be located so as to be protected from physical damage.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Piping handling Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be grounded to control stray currents.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electrical equipment</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph (g)(5) shall apply to areas where Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are stored or handled. For areas where Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids are stored or handled the electrical equipment may be installed in accordance with the provisions of subpart S of this part, for ordinary locations.
</P>
<P>(ii) All electrical equipment and wiring shall be of a type specified by and shall be installed in accordance with subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) So far as it applies. Table H-19 shall be used to delineate and classify hazardous areas for the purpose of installation of electrical equipment under normal circumstances. A classified area shall not extend beyond an unpierced wall, roof, or other solid partition.
</P>
<P>(iv) The area classifications listed shall be based on the assumption that the installation meets the applicable requirements of this section in all respects.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Heating equipment</I>—(i) <I>Conformance.</I> Heating equipment shall be installed as provided in paragraphs (g)(6) (ii) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application.</I> Heating equipment may be installed in the conventional manner in an area except as provided in paragraph (g)(6) (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special room.</I> Heating equipment may be installed in a special room separated from an area classified by Table H-19 by walls having a fire resistance rating of at least 1 hour and without any openings in the walls within 8 feet of the floor into an area classified in Table H-19. This room shall not be used for combustible storage and all air for combustion purposes shall come from outside the building.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Work areas.</I> Heating equipment using gas or oil fuel may be installed in the lubrication, sales, or service room where there is no dispensing or transferring of Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids or 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), provided the bottom of the combustion chamber is at least 18 inches above the floor and the heating equipment is protected from physical damage by vehicles. Heating equipment using gas or oil fuel listed for use in garages may be installed in the lubrication or service room where Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are dispensed provided the equipment is installed at least 8 feet above the floor.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Electric heat.</I> Electrical heating equipment shall conform to paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Drainage and waste disposal.</I> Provision shall be made in the area where Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are dispensed to prevent spilled liquids from flowing into the interior of service station buildings. Such provision may be by grading driveways, raising door sills, or other equally effective means. Crankcase drainings and flammable liquids shall not be dumped into sewers but shall be stored in tanks or drums outside of any building until removed from the premises.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Sources of ignition.</I> In addition to the previous restrictions of this paragraph, the following shall apply: There shall be no smoking or open flames in the areas used for fueling, servicing fuel systems for internal combustion engines, receiving or dispensing of flammable liquids. Conspicuous and legible signs prohibiting smoking shall be posted within sight of the customer being served. The motors of all equipment being fueled shall be shut off during the fueling operation.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Fire control.</I> Each service station shall be provided with at least one fire extinguisher having a minimum approved classification of 6 B, C, located so that an extinguisher, will be within 75 feet of each pump, dispenser, underground fill pipe opening, and lubrication or service room.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Processing plants</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph shall apply to those plants or buildings which contain chemical operations such as oxidation, reduction, halogenation, hydrogenation, alkylation, polymerization, and other chemical processes but shall not apply to chemical plants, refineries or distilleries.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location</I>—(i) <I>Classification.</I> The location of each processing vessel shall be based upon its flammable liquid capacity.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Processing building</I>—(i) <I>Construction.</I> (<I>a</I>) Processing buildings shall be of fire-resistance or noncombustible construction, except heavy timber construction with load-bearing walls may be permitted for plants utilizing only stable Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids. Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section or in the case of explosion resistant walls used in conjunction with explosion relieving facilities, see paragraph (h)(3)(iv) of this section, load-bearing walls are prohibited. Buildings shall be without basements or covered pits.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Areas shall have adequate exit facilities arranged to prevent occupants from being trapped in the event of fire. Exits shall not be exposed by the drainage facilities described in paragraph (h)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Drainage.</I> (<I>a</I>) Emergency drainage systems shall be provided to direct flammable liquid leakage and fire protection water to a safe location. This may require curbs, scuppers, or special drainage systems to control the spread of fire, see paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Emergency drainage systems, if connected to public sewers or discharged into public waterways, shall be equipped with traps or separators.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Ventilation.</I> (<I>a</I>) Enclosed processing buildings shall be ventilated at a rate of not less than 1 cubic foot per minute per square foot of solid floor area. This shall be accomplished by natural or mechanical ventilation with discharge or exhaust to a safe location outside of the building. Provisions shall be made for introduction of makeup air in such a manner as not to short circuit the ventilation. Ventilation shall be arranged to include all floor areas or pits where flammable vapors may collect.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Equipment used in a building and the ventilation of the building shall be designed so as to limit flammable vapor-air mixtures under normal operating conditions to the interior of equipment, and to not more than 5 feet from equipment which exposes Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), to the air. Examples of such equipment are dispensing stations, open centrifuges, plate and frame filters, open vacuum filters, and surfaces of open equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Explosion relief.</I> Areas where Category 1 or unstable liquids are processed shall have explosion venting through one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Open air construction.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Lightweight walls and roof.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Lightweight wall panels and roof hatches.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Windows of explosion venting type.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Liquid handling</I>—(i) <I>Storage.</I> (<I>a</I>) The storage of flammable liquids in tanks shall be in accordance with the applicable provisions of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If the storage of flammable liquids in outside aboveground or underground tanks is not practical because of temperature or production considerations, tanks may be permitted inside of buildings or structures in accordance with the applicable provisions of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Storage tanks inside of buildings shall be permitted only in areas at or above grade which have adequate drainage and are separated from the processing area by construction having a fire resistance rating of at least 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The storage of flammable liquids in containers shall be in accordance with the applicable provisions of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Piping, valves, and fittings.</I> (<I>a</I>) Piping, valves, and fittings shall be in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Approved flexible connectors may be used where vibration exists or where frequent movement is necessary. Approved hose may be used at transfer stations.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Piping containing flammable liquids shall be identified.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Transfer.</I> (<I>a</I>) The transfer of large quantities of flammable liquids shall be through piping by means of pumps or water displacement. Except as required in process equipment, gravity flow shall not be used. The use of compressed air as a transferring medium is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Positive displacement pumps shall be provided with pressure relief discharging back to the tank or to pump suction.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Equipment.</I> (<I>a</I>) Equipment shall be designed and arranged to prevent the unintentional escape of liquids and vapors and to minimize the quantity escaping in the event of accidental release.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where the vapor space of equipment is usually within the flammable range, the probability of explosion damage to the equipment can be limited by inerting, by providing an explosion suppression system, or by designing the equipment to contain the peak explosion pressure which may be modified by explosion relief. Where the special hazards of operation, sources of ignition, or exposures indicate a need, consideration shall be given to providing protection by one or more of the above means.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tank vehicle and tank car loading and unloading.</I> Tank vehicle and tank car loading or unloading facilities shall be separated from aboveground tanks, warehouses, other plant buildings, or nearest line of adjoining property which may be built upon by a distance of 25 feet for Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), and 15 feet for Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) and Category 4 flammable liquids measured from the nearest position of any fill stem. Buildings for pumps or shelters for personnel may be a part of the facility. Operations of the facility shall comply with the appropriate portions of paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Fire control</I>—(i) <I>Portable extinguishers.</I> Approved portable fire extinguishers of appropriate size, type, and number shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other controls.</I> Where the special hazards of operation or exposure indicate a need, the following fire control provision shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A reliable water supply shall be available in pressure and quantity adequate to meet the probable fire demands.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Hydrants shall be provided in accordance with accepted good practice.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Hose connected to a source of water shall be installed so that all vessels, pumps, and other equipment containing flammable liquids can be reached with at least one hose stream. Nozzles that are capable of discharging a water spray shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Processing plants shall be protected by an approved automatic sprinkler system or equivalent extinguishing system. If special extinguishing systems including but not limited to those employing foam, carbon dioxide, or dry chemical are provided, approved equipment shall be used and installed in an approved manner.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Alarm systems.</I> An approved means for prompt notification of fire to those within the plant and any public fire department available shall be provided. It may be advisable to connect the plant system with the public system where public fire alarm system is available.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maintenance.</I> All plant fire protection facilities shall be adequately maintained and periodically inspected and tested to make sure they are always in satisfactory operating condition and that they will serve their purpose in time of emergency.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Sources of ignition</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> (<I>a</I>) Precautions shall be taken to prevent the ignition of flammable vapors. Sources of ignition include but are not limited to open flames; lightning; smoking; cutting and welding; hot surfaces; frictional heat; static, electrical, and mechanical sparks; spontaneous ignition, including heat-producing chemical reactions; and radiant heat.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall not be dispensed into containers unless the nozzle and container are electrically interconnected. Where the metallic floorplate on which the container stands while filling is electrically connected to the fill stem or where the fill stem is bonded to the container during filling operations by means of a bond wire, the provisions of this section shall be deemed to have been complied with.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maintenance and repair.</I> (<I>a</I>) When necessary to do maintenance work in a flammable liquid processing area, the work shall be authorized by a responsible representative of the employer.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Hot work, such as welding or cutting operations, use of spark-producing power tools, and chipping operations shall be permitted only under supervision of an individual in responsible charge who shall make an inspection of the area to be sure that it is safe for the work to be done and that safe procedures will be followed for the work specified.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Electrical.</I> (<I>a</I>) All electric wiring and equipment shall be installed in accordance with subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Locations where flammable vapor-air mixtures may exist under normal operations shall be classified Class I, Division 1 according to the requirements of subpart S of this part. For those pieces of equipment installed in accordance with paragraph (h)(3)(iii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, the Division 1 area shall extend 5 feet in all directions from all points of vapor liberation. All areas within pits shall be classified Division 1 if any part of the pit is within a Division 1 or 2 classified area, unless the pit is provided with mechanical ventilation.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Locations where flammable vapor-air mixtures may exist under abnormal conditions and for a distance beyond Division 1 locations shall be classified Division 2 according to the requirements of subpart S of this part. These locations include an area within 20 feet horizontally, 3 feet vertically beyond a Division 1 area, and up to 3 feet above floor or grade level within 25 feet, if indoors, or 10 feet if outdoors, from any pump, bleeder, withdrawal fitting, meter, or similar device handling Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C). Pits provided with adequate mechanical ventilation within a Division 1 or 2 area shall be classified Division 2. If Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids only are handled, then ordinary electrical equipment is satisfactory though care shall be used in locating electrical apparatus to prevent hot metal from falling into open equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Where the provisions of paragraphs (h)(7)(iii) (<I>a</I>), (<I>b</I>), and (<I>c</I>) of this section require the installation of explosion-proof equipment, ordinary electrical equipment including switchgear may be used if installed in a room or enclosure which is maintained under positive pressure with respect to the hazardous area. Ventilation makeup air shall be uncontaminated by flammable vapors.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Maintenance and operating practices shall be in accordance with established procedures which will tend to control leakage and prevent the accidental escape of flammable liquids. Spills shall be cleaned up promptly.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Access.</I> Adequate aisles shall be maintained for unobstructed movement of personnel and so that fire protection equipment can be brought to bear on any part of the processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Waste and residues.</I> Combustible waste material and residues in a building or operating area shall be kept to a minimum, stored in closed metal waste cans, and disposed of daily.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Clear zone.</I> Ground area around buildings and operating areas shall be kept free of tall grass, weeds, trash, or other combustible materials.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Refineries, chemical plants, and distilleries</I>—(1) <I>Storage tanks.</I> Flammable liquids shall be stored in tanks, in containers, or in portable tanks. Tanks shall be installed in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. Tanks for the storage of flammable liquids in tank farms and in locations other than process areas shall be located in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wharves.</I> Wharves handling flammable liquids shall be in accordance with paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fired and unfired pressure vessels</I>—(i) <I>Fired vessels.</I> Fired pressure vessels shall be constructed in accordance with the Code for Fired Pressure Vessels, Section I of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code—1968.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unfired vessels shall be constructed in accordance with the Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels, Section VIII of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code—1968.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Location of process units.</I> Process units shall be located so that they are accessible from at least one side for the purpose of fire control.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fire control</I>—(i) <I>Portable equipment.</I> Portable fire extinguishment and control equipment shall be provided in such quantities and types as are needed for the special hazards of operation and storage.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Water supply.</I> Water shall be available in volume and at adequate pressure to supply water hose streams, foam producing equipment, automatic sprinklers, or water spray systems as the need is indicated by the special hazards of operation and storage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special equipment.</I> Special extinguishing equipment such as that utilizing foam, inert gas, or dry chemical shall be provided as the need is indicated by the special hazards of operation and storage.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to the handling, storage, and use of flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or below 199.4 °F (93 °C) unless otherwise noted. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Bulk transportation of flammable liquids;
</P>
<P>(2) Storage, handling, and use of fuel oil tanks and containers connected with oil burning equipment;
</P>
<P>(3) Storage of flammable liquids on farms;
</P>
<P>(4) Liquids without flashpoints that may be flammable under some conditions, such as certain halogenated hydrocarbons and mixtures containing halogenated hydrocarbons;
</P>
<P>(5) Mists, sprays, or foams, except flammable aerosols covered in paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(6) Installations made in accordance with requirements of the following standards that are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6:
</P>
<P>(i) National Fire Protection Association Standard for Drycleaning Plants, NFPA No. 32-1970;
</P>
<P>(ii) National Fire Protection Association Standard for the Manufacture of Organic Coatings, NFPA No. 35-1970;
</P>
<P>(iii) National Fire Protection Association Standard for Solvent Extraction Plants, NFPA No. 36-1967; or
</P>
<P>(iv) National Fire Protection Association Standard for the Installation and Use of Stationary Combustion Engines and Gas Turbines, NFPA No. 37-1970.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 3982, Jan. 27, 1975; 40 FR 23743, June 2, 1975; 43 FR 49746, Oct. 24, 1978; 43 FR 51759, Nov. 7, 1978; 47 FR 39164, Sept. 7, 1982; 51 FR 34560, Sept. 29, 1986; 53 FR 12121, Apr. 12, 1988; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9237, Mar. 7, 1996; 70 FR 53929, Sept. 13, 2005; 77 FR 17765, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.107" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.107   Spray finishing using flammable and combustible materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section</I>—(1) <I>Aerated solid powders.</I> Aerated powders shall mean any powdered material used as a coating material which shall be fluidized within a container by passing air uniformly from below. It is common practice to fluidize such materials to form a fluidized powder bed and then dip the part to be coated into the bed in a manner similar to that used in liquid dipping. Such beds are also used as sources for powder spray operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spraying area.</I> Any area in which dangerous quantities of flammable vapors or mists, or combustible residues, dusts, or deposits are present due to the operation of spraying processes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Spray booth.</I> A power-ventilated structure provided to enclose or accommodate a spraying operation to confine and limit the escape of spray, vapor, and residue, and to safely conduct or direct them to an exhaust system.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Waterwash spray booth.</I> A spray booth equipped with a water washing system designed to minimize dusts or residues entering exhaust ducts and to permit the recovery of overspray finishing material.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dry spray booth.</I> A spray booth not equipped with a water washing system as described in subparagraph (4) of this paragraph. A dry spray booth may be equipped with (i) distribution or baffle plates to promote an even flow of air through the booth or cause the deposit of overspray before it enters the exhaust duct; or (ii) overspray dry filters to minimize dusts; or (iii) overspray dry filters to minimize dusts or residues entering exhaust ducts; or (iv) overspray dry filter rolls designed to minimize dusts or residues entering exhaust ducts; or (v) where dry powders are being sprayed, with powder collection systems so arranged in the exhaust to capture oversprayed material.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Fluidized bed.</I> A container holding powder coating material which is aerated from below so as to form an air-supported expanded cloud of such material through which the preheated object to be coated is immersed and transported.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Electrostatic fluidized bed.</I> A container holding powder coating material which is aerated from below so as to form an air-supported expanded cloud of such material which is electrically charged with a charge opposite to the charge of the object to be coated; such object is transported, through the container immediately above the charged and aerated materials in order to be coated.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Approved.</I> Shall mean approved and listed by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. Refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Listed.</I> See “approved” in § 1910.107(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Spray booths</I>—(1) <I>Construction.</I> Spray booths shall be substantially constructed of steel, securely and rigidly supported, or of concrete or masonry except that aluminum or other substantial noncombustible material may be used for intermittent or low volume spraying. Spray booths shall be designed to sweep air currents toward the exhaust outlet.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interiors.</I> The interior surfaces of spray booths shall be smooth and continuous without edges and otherwise designed to prevent pocketing of residues and facilitate cleaning and washing without injury.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Floors.</I> The floor surface of a spray booth and operator's working area, if combustible, shall be covered with noncombustible material of such character as to facilitate the safe cleaning and removal of residues.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Distribution or baffle plates.</I> Distribution or baffle plates, if installed to promote an even flow of air through the booth or cause the deposit of overspray before it enters the exhaust duct, shall be of noncombustible material and readily removable or accessible on both sides for cleaning. Such plates shall not be located in exhaust ducts.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dry type overspray collectors—(exhaust air filters).</I> In conventional dry type spray booths, overspray dry filters or filter rolls, if installed, shall conform to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The spraying operations except electrostatic spraying operations shall be so designed, installed and maintained that the average air velocity over the open face of the booth (or booth cross section during spraying operations) shall be not less than 100 linear feet per minute. Electrostatic spraying operations may be conducted with an air velocity over the open face of the booth of not less than 60 linear feet per minute, or more, depending on the volume of the finishing material being applied and its flammability and explosion characteristics. Visible gauges or audible alarm or pressure activated devices shall be installed to indicate or insure that the required air velocity is maintained. Filter rolls shall be inspected to insure proper replacement of filter media.
</P>
<P>(ii) All discarded filter pads and filter rolls shall be immediately removed to a safe, well-detached location or placed in a water-filled metal container and disposed of at the close of the day's operation unless maintained completely in water.
</P>
<P>(iii) The location of filters in a spray booth shall be so as to not reduce the effective booth enclosure of the articles being sprayed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Space within the spray booth on the downstream and upstream sides of filters shall be protected with approved automatic sprinklers.
</P>
<P>(v) Filters or filter rolls shall not be used when applying a spray material known to be highly susceptible to spontaneous heating and ignition.
</P>
<P>(vi) Clean filters or filter rolls shall be noncombustible or of a type having a combustibility not in excess of class 2 filters as listed by Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc. Filters and filter rolls shall not be alternately used for different types of coating materials, where the combination of materials may be conducive to spontaneous ignition. See also paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Frontal area.</I> Each spray booth having a frontal area larger than 9 square feet shall have a metal deflector or curtain not less than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> inches deep installed at the upper outer edge of the booth over the opening.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Conveyors.</I> Where conveyors are arranged to carry work into or out of spray booths, the openings therefor shall be as small as practical.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Separation of operations.</I> Each spray booth shall be separated from other operations by not less than 3 feet, or by a greater distance, or by such partition or wall as to reduce the danger from juxtaposition of hazardous operations. See also paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Cleaning.</I> Spray booths shall be so installed that all portions are readily accessible for cleaning. A clear space of not less than 3 feet on all sides shall be kept free from storage or combustible construction.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Illumination.</I> When spraying areas are illuminated through glass panels or other transparent materials, only fixed lighting units shall be used as a source of illumination. Panels shall effectively isolate the spraying area from the area in which the lighting unit is located, and shall be of a noncombustible material of such a nature or so protected that breakage will be unlikely. Panels shall be so arranged that normal accumulations of residue on the exposed surface of the panel will not be raised to a dangerous temperature by radiation or conduction from the source of illumination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electrical and other sources of ignition</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> All electrical equipment, open flames and other sources of ignition shall conform to the requirements of this paragraph, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Electrostatic apparatus shall conform to the requirements of paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Drying, curing, and fusion apparatus shall conform to the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Automobile undercoating spray operations in garages shall conform to the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Powder-coating equipment shall conform to the requirements of paragraph (l)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum separation.</I> There shall be no open flame or spark producing equipment in any spraying area nor within 20 feet thereof, unless separated by a partition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hot surfaces.</I> Space-heating appliances, steampipes, or hot surfaces shall not be located in a spraying area where deposits of combustible residues may readily accumulate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Wiring conformance.</I> Electrical wiring and equipment shall conform to the provisions of this paragraph and shall otherwise be in accordance with subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Combustible residues, areas.</I> Unless specifically approved for locations containing both deposits of readily ignitable residue and explosive vapors, there shall be no electrical equipment in any spraying area, whereon deposits of combustible residues may readily accumulate, except wiring in rigid conduit or in boxes or fittings containing no taps, splices, or terminal connections.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Wiring type approved.</I> Electrical wiring and equipment not subject to deposits of combustible residues but located in a spraying area as herein defined shall be of explosion-proof type approved for Class I, group D locations and shall otherwise conform to the provisions of subpart S of this part, for Class I, Division 1, Hazardous Locations. Electrical wiring, motors, and other equipment outside of but within twenty (20) feet of any spraying area, and not separated therefrom by partitions, shall not produce sparks under normal operating conditions and shall otherwise conform to the provisions of subpart S of this part for Class I, Division 2 Hazardous Locations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Lamps.</I> Electric lamps outside of, but within twenty (20) feet of any spraying area, and not separated therefrom by a partition, shall be totally enclosed to prevent the falling of hot particles and shall be protected from mechanical injury by suitable guards or by location.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Portable lamps.</I> Portable electric lamps shall not be used in any spraying area during spraying operations. Portable electric lamps, if used during cleaning or repairing operations, shall be of the type approved for hazardous Class I locations.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Grounding.</I> (i) All metal parts of spray booths, exhaust ducts, and piping systems conveying flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) or aerated solids shall be properly electrically grounded in an effective and permanent manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ventilation</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> Ventilating and exhaust systems shall be in accordance with the Standard for Blower and Exhaust Systems for Vapor Removal, NFPA No. 91-1961, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, where applicable and shall also conform to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> All spraying areas shall be provided with mechanical ventilation adequate to remove flammable vapors, mists, or powders to a safe location and to confine and control combustible residues so that life is not endangered. Mechanical ventilation shall be kept in operation at all times while spraying operations are being conducted and for a sufficient time thereafter to allow vapors from drying coated articles and drying finishing material residue to be exhausted.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Independent exhaust.</I> Each spray booth shall have an independent exhaust duct system discharging to the exterior of the building, except that multiple cabinet spray booths in which identical spray finishing material is used with a combined frontal area of not more than 18 square feet may have a common exhaust. If more than one fan serves one booth, all fans shall be so interconnected that one fan cannot operate without all fans being operated.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fan-rotating element.</I> The fan-rotating element shall be nonferrous or nonsparking or the casing shall consist of or be lined with such material. There shall be ample clearance between the fan-rotating element and the fan casing to avoid a fire by friction, necessary allowance being made for ordinary expansion and loading to prevent contact between moving parts and the duct or fan housing. Fan blades shall be mounted on a shaft sufficiently heavy to maintain perfect alignment even when the blades of the fan are heavily loaded, the shaft preferably to have bearings outside the duct and booth. All bearings shall be of the self-lubricating type, or lubricated from the outside duct.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electric motors.</I> Electric motors driving exhaust fans shall not be placed inside booths or ducts. See also paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Belts.</I> Belts shall not enter the duct or booth unless the belt and pulley within the duct or booth are thoroughly enclosed.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exhaust ducts.</I> Exhaust ducts shall be constructed of steel and shall be substantially supported. Exhaust ducts without dampers are preferred; however, if dampers are installed, they shall be maintained so that they will be in a full open position at all times the ventilating system is in operation.
</P>
<P>(i) Exhaust ducts shall be protected against mechanical damage and have a clearance from unprotected combustible construction or other combustible material of not less than 18 inches.
</P>
<P>(ii) If combustible construction is provided with the following protection applied to all surfaces within 18 inches, clearances may be reduced to the distances indicated:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">a</E>) 28-gage sheet metal on 
<fr>1/4</fr>-inch asbestos mill board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 inches.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">b</E>) 28-gage sheet metal on 
<fr>1/8</fr>-inch asbestos mill board spaced out 1 inch on noncombustible spacers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 inches.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">c</E>) 22-gage sheet metal on 1-inch rockwool batts reinforced with wire mesh or the equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 inches.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">d</E>) Where ducts are protected with an approved automatic sprinkler system, properly maintained, the clearance required in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph may be reduced to 6 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) <I>Discharge clearance.</I> Unless the spray booth exhaust duct terminal is from a water-wash spray booth, the terminal discharge point shall be not less than 6 feet from any combustible exterior wall or roof nor discharge in the direction of any combustible construction or unprotected opening in any noncombustible exterior wall within 25 feet.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Air exhaust.</I> Air exhaust from spray operations shall not be directed so that it will contaminate makeup air being introduced into the spraying area or other ventilating intakes, nor directed so as to create a nuisance. Air exhausted from spray operations shall not be recirculated.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Access doors.</I> When necessary to facilitate cleaning, exhaust ducts shall be provided with an ample number of access doors.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Room intakes.</I> Air intake openings to rooms containing spray finishing operations shall be adequate for the efficient operation of exhaust fans and shall be so located as to minimize the creation of dead air pockets.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Drying spaces.</I> Freshly sprayed articles shall be dried only in spaces provided with adequate ventilation to prevent the formation of explosive vapors. In the event adequate and reliable ventilation is not provided such drying spaces shall be considered a spraying area. See also paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Flammable liquids and liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C)</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> The storage of flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) in connection with spraying operations shall conform to the requirements of § 1910.106, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quantity.</I> The quantity of flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) kept in the vicinity of spraying operations shall be the minimum required for operations and should ordinarily not exceed a supply for 1 day or one shift. Bulk storage of portable containers of flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) shall be in a separate, constructed building detached from other important buildings or cut off in a standard manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Containers.</I> Original closed containers, approved portable tanks, approved safety cans or a properly arranged system of piping shall be used for bringing flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) into spray finishing room. Open or glass containers shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transferring liquids.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(5) of this section the withdrawal of flammable liquids and liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) from containers having a capacity of greater than 60 gallons shall be by approved pumps. The withdrawal of flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) from containers and the filling of containers, including portable mixing tanks, shall be done only in a suitable mixing room or in a spraying area when the ventilating system is in operation. Adequate precautions shall be taken to protect against liquid spillage and sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Spraying containers.</I> Containers supplying spray nozzles shall be of closed type or provided with metal covers kept closed. Containers not resting on floors shall be on metal supports or suspended by wire cables. Containers supplying spray nozzles by gravity flow shall not exceed 10 gallons capacity. Original shipping containers shall not be subject to air pressure for supplying spray nozzles. Containers under air pressure supplying spray nozzles shall be of limited capacity, not exceeding that necessary for 1 day's operation; shall be designed and approved for such use; shall be provided with a visible pressure gage; and shall be provided with a relief valve set to operate in conformance with the requirements of the Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels, Section VIII of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code—1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. Containers under air pressure supplying spray nozzles, air-storage tanks and coolers shall conform to the standards of the Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels, Section VIII of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code—1968 for construction, tests, and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Pipes and hoses.</I> (i) All containers or piping to which is attached a hose or flexible connection shall be provided with a shutoff valve at the connection. Such valves shall be kept shut when spraying operations are not being conducted.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a pump is used to deliver products, automatic means shall be provided to prevent pressure in excess of the design working pressure of accessories, piping, and hose.
</P>
<P>(iii) All pressure hose and couplings shall be inspected at regular intervals appropriate to this service. The hose and couplings shall be tested with the hose extended, and using the “inservice maximum operating pressures.” Any hose showing material deteriorations, signs of leakage, or weakness in its carcass or at the couplings, shall be withdrawn from service and repaired or discarded.
</P>
<P>(iv) Piping systems conveying flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) shall be of steel or other material having comparable properties of resistance to heat and physical damage. Piping systems shall be properly bonded and grounded.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Spray liquid heaters.</I> Electrically powered spray liquid heaters shall be approved and listed for the specific location in which used (see paragraph (c) of this section). Heaters shall not be located in spray booths nor other locations subject to the accumulation of deposits or combustible residue. If an electric motor is used, see paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Pump relief.</I> If flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) are supplied to spray nozzles by positive displacement pumps, the pump discharge line shall be provided with an approved relief valve discharging to a pump suction or a safe detached location, or a device provided to stop the prime mover if the discharge pressure exceeds the safe operating pressure of the system.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Grounding.</I> Whenever flammable liquids or liquids with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) are transferred from one container to another, both containers shall be effectively bonded and grounded to prevent discharge sparks of static electricity.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Protection</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> In sprinklered buildings, the automatic sprinkler system in rooms containing spray finishing operations shall conform to the requirements of § 1910.159. In unsprinklered buildings where sprinklers are installed only to protect spraying areas, the installation shall conform to such standards insofar as they are applicable. Sprinkler heads shall be located so as to provide water distribution throughout the entire booth.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Valve access.</I> Automatic sprinklers protecting each spray booth (together with its connecting exhaust) shall be under an accessibly located separate outside stem and yoke (OS&amp;Y) subcontrol valve.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning of heads.</I> Sprinklers protecting spraying areas shall be kept as free from deposits as practical by cleaning daily if necessary. (See also paragraph (g) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Portable extinguishers.</I> An adequate supply of suitable portable fire extinguishers shall be installed near all spraying areas.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Operations and maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Spraying.</I> Spraying shall not be conducted outside of predetermined spraying areas.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning.</I> All spraying areas shall be kept as free from the accumulation of deposits of combustible residues as practical, with cleaning conducted daily if necessary. Scrapers, spuds, or other such tools used for cleaning purposes shall be of nonsparking material.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Residue disposal.</I> Residue scrapings and debris contaminated with residue shall be immediately removed from the premises and properly disposed of. Approved metal waste cans shall be provided wherever rags or waste are impregnated with finishing material and all such rags or waste deposited therein immediately after use. The contents of waste cans shall be properly disposed of at least once daily or at the end of each shift.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Clothing storage.</I> Spray finishing employees' clothing shall not be left on the premises overnight unless kept in metal lockers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cleaning solvents.</I> The use of solvents for cleaning operations shall be restricted to those having flashpoints not less than 100 °F.; however, for cleaning spray nozzles and auxiliary equipment, solvents having flashpoints not less than those normally used in spray operations may be used. Such cleaning shall be conducted inside spray booths and ventilating equipment operated during cleaning.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Hazardous materials combinations.</I> Spray booths shall not be alternately used for different types of coating materials, where the combination of the materials may be conducive to spontaneous ignition, unless all deposits of the first used material are removed from the booth and exhaust ducts prior to spraying with the second used material.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>“No Smoking” signs.</I> “No smoking” signs in large letters on contrasting color background shall be conspicuously posted at all spraying areas and paint storage rooms.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fixed electrostatic apparatus</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> Where installation and use of electrostatic spraying equipment is used, such installation and use shall conform to all other paragraphs of this section, and shall also conform to the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Type approval.</I> Electrostatic apparatus and devices used in connection with coating operations shall be of approved types.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Location.</I> Transformers, power packs, control apparatus, and all other electrical portions of the equipment, with the exception of high-voltage grids, electrodes, and electrostatic atomizing heads and their connections, shall be located outside of the spraying area, or shall otherwise conform to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Support.</I> Electrodes and electrostatic atomizing heads shall be adequately supported in permanent locations and shall be effectively insulated from the ground. Electrodes and electrostatic atomizing heads which are permanently attached to their bases, supports, or reciprocators, shall be deemed to comply with this section. Insulators shall be nonporous and noncombustible.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Insulators, grounding.</I> High-voltage leads to electrodes shall be properly insulated and protected from mechanical injury or exposure to destructive chemicals. Electrostatic atomizing heads shall be effectively and permanently supported on suitable insulators and shall be effectively guarded against accidental contact or grounding. An automatic means shall be provided for grounding the electrode system when it is electrically deenergized for any reason. All insulators shall be kept clean and dry.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safe distance.</I> A safe distance shall be maintained between goods being painted and electrodes or electrostatic atomizing heads or conductors of at least twice the sparking distance. A suitable sign indicating this safe distance shall be conspicuously posted near the assembly.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Conveyors required.</I> Goods being painted using this process are to be supported on conveyors. The conveyors shall be so arranged as to maintain safe distances between the goods and the electrodes or electrostatic atomizing heads at all times. Any irregularly shaped or other goods subject to possible swinging or movement shall be rigidly supported to prevent such swinging or movement which would reduce the clearance to less than that specified in paragraph (h)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Prohibition.</I> This process is not acceptable where goods being coated are manipulated by hand. When finishing materials are applied by electrostatic equipment which is manipulated by hand, see paragraph (i) of this section for applicable requirements.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Fail-safe controls.</I> Electrostatic apparatus shall be equipped with automatic controls which will operate without time delay to disconnect the power supply to the high voltage transformer and to signal the operator under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Stoppage of ventilating fans or failure of ventilating equipment from any cause.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stoppage of the conveyor carrying goods through the high voltage field.
</P>
<P>(iii) Occurrence of a ground or of an imminent ground at any point on the high voltage system.
</P>
<P>(iv) Reduction of clearance below that specified in paragraph (h)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Guarding.</I> Adequate booths, fencing, railings, or guards shall be so placed about the equipment that they, either by their location or character or both, assure that a safe isolation of the process is maintained from plant storage or personnel. Such railings, fencing, and guards shall be of conducting material, adequately grounded.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Ventilation.</I> Where electrostatic atomization is used the spraying area shall be so ventilated as to insure safe conditions from a fire and health standpoint.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Fire protection.</I> All areas used for spraying, including the interior of the booth, shall be protected by automatic sprinklers where this protection is available. Where this protection is not available, other approved automatic extinguishing equipment shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Electrostatic hand spraying equipment</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph shall apply to any equipment using electrostatically charged elements for the atomization and/or, precipitation of materials for coatings on articles, or for other similar purposes in which the atomizing device is hand held and manipulated during the spraying operation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conformance.</I> Electrostatic hand spraying equipment shall conform with the other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equipment approval and specifications.</I> Electrostatic hand spray apparatus and devices used in connection with coating operations shall be of approved types. The high voltage circuits shall be designed so as to not produce a spark of sufficient intensity to ignite any vapor-air mixtures nor result in appreciable shock hazard upon coming in contact with a grounded object under all normal operating conditions. The electrostatically charged exposed elements of the handgun shall be capable of being energized only by a switch which also controls the coating material supply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electrical support equipment.</I> Transformers, powerpacks, control apparatus, and all other electrical portions of the equipment, with the exception of the handgun itself and its connections to the power supply shall be located outside of the spraying area or shall otherwise conform to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Spray gun ground.</I> The handle of the spraying gun shall be electrically connected to ground by a metallic connection and to be so constructed that the operator in normal operating position is in intimate electrical contact with the grounded handle.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Grounding—general.</I> All electrically conductive objects in the spraying area shall be adequately grounded. This requirement shall apply to paint containers, wash cans, and any other objects or devices in the area. The equipment shall carry a prominent permanently installed warning regarding the necessity for this grounding feature.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Maintenance of grounds.</I> Objects being painted or coated shall be maintained in metallic contact with the conveyor or other grounded support. Hooks shall be regularly cleaned to insure this contact and areas of contact shall be sharp points or knife edges where possible. Points of support of the object shall be concealed from random spray where feasible and where the objects being sprayed are supported from a conveyor, the point of attachment to the conveyor shall be so located as to not collect spray material during normal operation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Interlocks.</I> The electrical equipment shall be so interlocked with the ventilation of the spraying area that the equipment cannot be operated unless the ventilation fans are in operation.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Ventilation.</I> The spraying operation shall take place within a spray area which is adequately ventilated to remove solvent vapors released from the operation.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Drying, curing, or fusion apparatus</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> Drying, curing, or fusion apparatus in connection with spray application of flammable and combustible finishes shall conform to the Standard for Ovens and Furnaces, NFPA 86A-1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, where applicable and shall also conform with the following requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternate use prohibited.</I> Spray booths, rooms, or other enclosures used for spraying operations shall not alternately be used for the purpose of drying by any arrangement which will cause a material increase in the surface temperature of the spray booth, room, or enclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjacent system interlocked.</I> Except as specifically provided in paragraph (j)(4) of this section, drying, curing, or fusion units utilizing a heating system having open flames or which may produce sparks shall not be installed in a spraying area, but may be installed adjacent thereto when equipped with an interlocked ventilating system arranged to:
</P>
<P>(i) Thoroughly ventilate the drying space before the heating system can be started;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain a safe atmosphere at any source of ignition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Automatically shut down the heating system in the event of failure of the ventilating system.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternate use permitted.</I> Automobile refinishing spray booths or enclosures, otherwise installed and maintained in full conformity with this section, may alternately be used for drying with portable electrical infrared drying apparatus when conforming with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Interior (especially floors) of spray enclosures shall be kept free of overspray deposits.
</P>
<P>(ii) During spray operations, the drying apparatus and electrical connections and wiring thereto shall not be located within spray enclosure nor in any other location where spray residues may be deposited thereon.
</P>
<P>(iii) The spraying apparatus, the drying apparatus, and the ventilating system of the spray enclosure shall be equipped with suitable interlocks so arranged that:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The spraying apparatus cannot be operated while the drying apparatus is inside the spray enclosure.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The spray enclosure will be purged of spray vapors for a period of not less than 3 minutes before the drying apparatus can be energized.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The ventilating system will maintain a safe atmosphere within the enclosure during the drying process and the drying apparatus will automatically shut off in the event of failure of the ventilating system.
</P>
<P>(iv) All electrical wiring and equipment of the drying apparatus shall conform with the applicable sections of subpart S of this part. Only equipment of a type approved for Class I, Division 2 hazardous locations shall be located within 18 inches of floor level. All metallic parts of the drying apparatus shall be properly electrically bonded and grounded.
</P>
<P>(v) The drying apparatus shall contain a prominently located, permanently attached warning sign indicating that ventilation should be maintained during the drying period and that spraying should not be conducted in the vicinity that spray will deposit on apparatus.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Automobile undercoating in garages.</I> Automobile undercoating spray operations in garages, conducted in areas having adequate natural or mechanical ventilation, are exempt from the requirements pertaining to spray finishing operations, when using undercoating materials not more hazardous than kerosene (as listed by Underwriters' Laboratories in respect to fire hazard rating 30-40) or undercoating materials using only solvents listed as having a flash point in excess of 100 °F. Undercoating spray operations not conforming to these provisions are subject to all requirements of this section pertaining to spray finishing operations.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Powder coating</I>—(1) <I>Electrical and other sources of ignition.</I> Electrical equipment and other sources of ignition shall conform to the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) (i)-(iv), (8) and (9)(i) of this section and subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ventilation.</I> (i) In addition to the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section, where applicable, exhaust ventilation shall be sufficient to maintain the atmosphere below the lowest explosive limits for the materials being applied. All nondeposited air-suspended powders shall be safely removed via exhaust ducts to the powder recovery cyclone or receptacle. Each installation shall be designed and operated to meet the foregoing performance specification.
</P>
<P>(ii) Powders shall not be released to the outside atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Drying, curing, or fusion equipment.</I> The provisions of the Standard for ovens and furnaces, NFPA No. 86A-1969 shall apply where applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operation and maintenance.</I> (i) All areas shall be kept free of the accumulation of powder coating dusts, particularly such horizontal surfaces as ledges, beams, pipes, hoods, booths, and floors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Surfaces shall be cleaned in such manner as to avoid scattering dust to other places or creating dust clouds.
</P>
<P>(iii) “No Smoking” signs in large letters on contrasting color background shall be conspicuously posted at all powder coating areas and powder storage rooms.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fixed electrostatic spraying equipment.</I> The provisions of paragraph (h) of this section and other subparagraphs of this paragraph shall apply to fixed electrostatic equipment, except that electrical equipment not covered therein shall conform to paragraph (l)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Electrostatic hand spraying equipment.</I> The provisions of paragraph (i) of this section and other subparagraphs of this paragraph, shall apply to electrostatic handguns when used in powder coating, except that electrical equipment not covered therein shall conform to paragraph (l)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Electrostatic fluidized beds.</I> (i) Electrostatic fluidized beds and associated equipment shall be of approved types. The maximum surface temperature of this equipment in the coating area shall not exceed 150 °F. The high voltage circuits shall be so designed as to not produce a spark of sufficient intensity to ignite any powder-air mixtures nor result in appreciable shock hazard upon coming in contact with a grounded object under normal operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transformers, powerpacks, control apparatus, and all other electrical portions of the equipment, with the exception of the charging electrodes and their connections to the power supply shall be located outside of the powder coating area or shall otherwise conform to the requirements of paragraph (l)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) All electrically conductive objects within the charging influence of the electrodes shall be adequately grounded. The powder coating equipment shall carry a prominent, permanently installed warning regarding the necessity for grounding these objects.
</P>
<P>(iv) Objects being coated shall be maintained in contact with the conveyor or other support in order to insure proper grounding. Hangers shall be regularly cleaned to insure effective contact and areas of contact shall be sharp points or knife edges where possible.
</P>
<P>(v) The electrical equipment shall be so interlocked with the ventilation system that the equipment cannot be operated unless the ventilation fans are in operation.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Organic peroxides and dual component coatings</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> All spraying operations involving the use of organic peroxides and other dual component coatings shall be conducted in approved sprinklered spray booths meeting the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Smoking.</I> Smoking shall be prohibited and “No Smoking” signs shall be prominently displayed and only nonsparking tools shall be used in any area where organic peroxides are stored, mixed or applied.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to flammable and combustible finishing materials when applied as a spray by compressed air, “airless” or “hydraulic atomization,” steam, electrostatic methods, or by any other means in continuous or intermittent processes. The section also covers the application of combustible powders by powder spray guns, electrostatic powder spray guns, fluidized beds, or electrostatic fluidized beds. The section does not apply to outdoor spray application of buildings, tanks, or other similar structures, nor to small portable spraying apparatus not used repeatedly in the same location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 45 FR 60704, Sept. 12, 1980; 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 53 FR 12121, Apr. 12, 1988; 61 FR 9237, Mar. 7, 1996; 72 FR 71069, Dec. 14, 2007; 77 FR 17776, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.108" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.108   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.109" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.109   Explosives and blasting agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section</I>—(1) <I>Blasting agent.</I> Blasting agent—any material or mixture, consisting of a fuel and oxidizer, intended for blasting, not otherwise classified as an explosive and in which none of the ingredients are classified as an explosive, provided that the finished product, as mixed and packaged for use or shipment, cannot be detonated by means of a No. 8 test blasting cap when unconfined.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Explosive-actuated power devices.</I> Explosive-actuated power device—any tool or special mechanized device which is actuated by explosives, but not including propellant-actuated power devices. Examples of explosive-actuated power devices are jet tappers and jet perforators.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Explosive.</I> Explosive—any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion, i.e., with substantially instantaneous release of gas and heat, unless such compound, mixture, or device is otherwise specifically classified by the U.S. Department of Transportation; see 49 CFR chapter I. The term “explosives” shall include all material which is classified as Class A, Class B, and Class C explosives by the U.S. Department of Transportation, and includes, but is not limited to dynamite, black powder, pellet powders, initiating explosives, blasting caps, electric blasting caps, safety fuse, fuse lighters, fuse igniters, squibs, cordeau detonant fuse, instantaneous fuse, igniter cord, igniters, small arms ammunition, small arms ammunition primers, smokeless propellant, cartridges for propellant-actuated power devices, and cartridges for industrial guns. Commercial explosives are those explosives which are intended to be used in commercial or industrial operations.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>Classification of explosives is described by the U.S. Department of Transportation as follows (see 49 CFR chapter I):</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Class A explosives.</I> Possessing, detonating, or otherwise maximum hazard; such as dynamite, nitroglycerin, picric acid, lead azide, fulminate of mercury, black powder, blasting caps, and detonating primers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Class B explosives.</I> Possessing flammable hazard, such as propellant explosives (including some smokeless propellants), photographic flash powders, and some special fireworks.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Class C explosives.</I> Includes certain types of manufactured articles which contain Class A or Class B explosives, or both, as components but in restricted quantities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Forbidden or not acceptable explosives.</I> Explosives which are forbidden or not acceptable for transportation by common carriers by rail freight, rail express, highway, or water in accordance with the regulations of the U.S. Department of Transportation, 49 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Highway.</I> Highway—any public street, public alley, or public road.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Magazine.</I> Magazine—any building or structure, other than an explosives manufacturing building, used for the storage of explosives.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Motor vehicle.</I> Motor vehicle—any self-propelled vehicle, truck, tractor, semitrailer, or truck-full trailers used for the transportation of freight over public highways.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Propellant-actuated power devices.</I> Propellant-actuated power devices—any tool or special mechanized device or gas generator system which is actuated by a smokeless propellant or which releases and directs work through a smokeless propellant charge.
</P>
<P>(9) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Pyrotechnics.</I> Pyrotechnics—any combustible or explosive compositions or manufactured articles designed and prepared for the purpose of producing audible or visible effects which are commonly referred to as fireworks.
</P>
<P>(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Semiconductive hose.</I> Semiconductive hose—a hose with an electrical resistance high enough to limit flow of stray electric currents to safe levels, yet not so high as to prevent drainage of static electric charges to ground; hose of not more than 2 megohms resistance over its entire length and of not less than 5,000 ohms per foot meets the requirement.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Small arms ammunition.</I> Small arms ammunition—any shotgun, rifle, pistol, or revolver cartridge, and cartridges for propellant-actuated power devices and industrial guns. Military-type ammunition containing explosive-bursting charges, incendiary, tracer, spotting, or pyrotechnic projectiles is excluded from this definition.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Small arms ammunition primers.</I> Small arms ammunition primers—small percussion-sensitive explosive charges, encased in a cup, used to ignite propellant powder.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Smokeless propellants.</I> Smokeless propellants—solid propellants, commonly called smokeless powders in the trade, used in small arms ammunition, cannon, rockets, propellant-actuated power devices, etc.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Special industrial explosives devices.</I> Special industrial explosives devices—explosive-actuated power devices and propellant-actuated power devices.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Special industrial explosives materials.</I> Special industrial explosives materials—shaped materials and sheet forms and various other extrusions, pellets, and packages of high explosives, which include dynamite, trinitrotoluene (TNT), pentaerythritol tetranitrate (PETN), hexahydro-1,3,5-trinitro-s-triazine (RDX), and other similar compounds used for high-energy-rate forming, expanding, and shaping in metal fabrication, and for dismemberment and quick reduction of scrap metal.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Water gels or slurry explosives.</I> These comprise a wide variety of materials used for blasting. They all contain substantial proportions of water and high proportions of ammonium nitrate, some of which is in solution in the water. Two broad classes of water gels are (i) those which are sensitized by a material classed as an explosive, such as TNT or smokeless powder, (ii) those which contain no ingredient classified as an explosive; these are sensitized with metals such as aluminum or with other fuels. Water gels may be premixed at an explosives plant or mixed at the site immediately before delivery into the borehole.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>DOT specifications.</I> Regulations of the Department of Transportation published in 49 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Miscellaneous provisions</I>—(1) <I>General hazard.</I> No person shall store, handle, or transport explosives or blasting agents when such storage, handling, and transportation of explosives or blasting agents constitutes an undue hazard to life.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Storage of explosives</I>—(1) <I>General provisions.</I> (i) All Class A, Class B, Class C explosives, and special industrial explosives, and any newly developed and unclassified explosives, shall be kept in magazines which meet the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Blasting caps, electric blasting caps, detonating primers, and primed cartridges shall not be stored in the same magazine with other explosives.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ground around magazines shall slope away for drainage. The land surrounding magazines shall be kept clear of brush, dried grass, leaves, and other materials for a distance of at least 25 feet.
</P>
<P>(iv) Magazines as required by this paragraph shall be of two classes; namely, Class I magazines, and Class II magazines.
</P>
<P>(v) Class I magazines shall be required where the quantity of explosives stored is more than 50 pounds. Class II magazines may be used where the quantity of explosives stored is 50 pounds or less.
</P>
<P>(vi) Class I magazines shall be located away from other magazines in conformity with Table H-21.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-21—American Table of Distances for Storage of Explosives <E T="51">1-5</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[As revised and approved by the Institute of Makers of Explosives, June 5, 1964]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Explosives
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Distances in feet when storage is barricaded: Separation of magazines
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pounds over
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pounds not over
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">119
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">145
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">155
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">185
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">205
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">140,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">235
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">160,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">255
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">170,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">265
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">190,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">285
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">295
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">210,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">315
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">275,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">385
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> “Natural barricade” means natural features of the ground, such as hills, or timber of sufficient density that the surrounding exposures which require protection cannot be seen from the magazine when the trees are bare of leaves.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> “Artificial barricade” means an artificial mound or revetted wall of earth of a minimum thickness of three feet.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> “Barricaded” means that a building containing explosives is effectually screened from a magazine, building, railway, or highway, either by a natural barricade, or by an artificial barricade of such height that a straight line from the top of any sidewall of the building containing explosives to the eave line of any magazine, or building, or to a point 12 feet above the center of a railway or highway, will pass through such intervening natural or artificial barricade.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> When two or more storage magazines are located on the same property, each magazine must comply with the minimum distances specified from inhabited buildings, railways, and highways, and in addition, they should be separated from each other by not less than the distances shown for “Separation of Magazines,” except that the quantity of explosives contained in cap magazines shall govern in regard to the spacing of said cap magazines from magazines containing other explosives. If any two or more magazines are separated from each other by less than the specified “Separation of Magazines” distances, then such two or more magazines, as a group, must be considered as one magazine, and the total quantity of explosives stored in such group must be treated as if stored in a single magazine located on the site of any magazine of the group, and must comply with the minimum of distances specified from other magazines, inhabited buildings, railways, and highways.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> This table applies only to the permanent storage of commercial explosives. It is not applicable to transportation of explosives, or any handling or temporary storage necessary or incident thereto. It is not intended to apply to bombs, projectiles, or other heavily encased explosives.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vii) Except as provided in subdivision (viii) of this subparagraph, class II magazines shall be located in conformity with Table H-21, but may be permitted in warehouses and in wholesale and retail establishments when located on a floor which has an entrance at outside grade level and the magazine is located not more than 10 feet from such an entrance. Two class II magazines may be located in the same building when one is used only for blasting caps in quantities not in excess of 5,000 caps and a distance of 10 feet is maintained between magazines.
</P>
<P>(viii) When used for temporary storage at a site for blasting operations, class II magazines shall be located away from other magazines. A distance of at least one hundred and fifty (150) feet shall be maintained between class II magazines and the work in progress when the quantity of explosives kept therein is in excess of 25 pounds, and at least 50 feet when the quantity of explosives is 25 pounds, or less.
</P>
<P>(ix) This paragraph (c) does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Stocks of small arms ammunition, propellant-actuated power cartridges, small arms ammunition primers in quantities of less than 750,000, or of smokeless propellants in quantities less than 750 pounds;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Explosive-actuated power devices when in quantities less than 50 pounds net weight of explosives;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fuse lighters and fuse igniters;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Safety fuses other than cordeau detonant fuses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Construction of magazines—general.</I> (i) Magazines shall be constructed in conformity with the provisions of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Magazines for the storage of explosives, other than black powder, Class B and Class C explosives shall be bullet resistant, weather resistant, fire resistant, and ventilated sufficiently to protect the explosive in the specific locality. Magazines used only for storage of black powder, Class B and Class C explosives shall be weather resistant, fire-resistant, and have ventilation. Magazines for storage of blasting and electric blasting caps shall be weather resistant, fire-resistant, and ventilated.
</P>
<P>(iii) Property upon which Class I magazines are located and property where Class II magazines are located outside of buildings shall be posted with signs reading “Explosives—Keep Off.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Magazines requiring heat shall be heated by either hot-water radiant heating with the magazine building; or air directed into the magazine building over either hot water or low pressure steam (15 p.s.i.g.) coils located outside the magazine building.
</P>
<P>(v) The magazine heating systems shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The radiant heating coils within the building shall be installed in such a manner that the explosives or explosives containers cannot contact the coils and air is free to circulate between the coils and the explosives or explosives containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The heating ducts shall be installed in such a manner that the hot-air discharge from the duct is not directed against the explosives or explosives containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The heating device used in connection with a magazine shall have controls which prevent the ambient building temperature from exceeding 130 °F.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The electric fan or pump used in the heating system for a magazine shall be mounted outside and separate from the wall of the magazine and shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The electric fan motor and the controls for electrical heating devices used in heating water or steam shall have overloads and disconnects, which comply with subpart S of this part. All electrical switch gear shall be located a minimum distance of 25 feet from the magazine.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The heating source for water or steam shall be separated from the magazine by a distance of not less than 25 feet when electrical and 50 feet when fuel fired. The area between the heating unit and the magazine shall be cleared of all combustible materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The storage of explosives and explosives containers in the magazine shall allow uniform air circulation so product temperature uniformity can be maintained.
</P>
<P>(vi) When lights are necessary inside the magazine, electric safety flashlight, or electric safety lanterns shall be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Construction of Class I magazines.</I> (i) Class I magazines shall be of masonry construction or of wood or of metal construction, or a combination of these types. Thickness of masonry units shall not be less than 8 inches. Hollow masonry units used in construction required to be bullet resistant shall have all hollow spaces filled with weak cement or well-tamped sand. Wood constructed walls, required to be bullet resistant, shall have at least a 6-inch space between interior and exterior sheathing and the space between sheathing shall be filled with well-tamped sand. Metal wall construction, when required to be bullet resistant, shall be lined with brick at least 4 inches in thickness or shall have at least a 6-inch sandfill between interior and exterior walls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Floors and roofs of masonry magazines may be of wood construction. Wood floors shall be tongue and grooved lumber having a nominal thickness of 1 inch.
</P>
<P>(iii) Roofs required to be bullet resistant shall be protected by a sand tray located at the line of eaves and covering the entire area except that necessary for ventilation. Sand in the sand tray shall be maintained at a depth of not less than 4 inches.
</P>
<P>(iv) All wood at the exterior of magazines, including eaves, shall be protected by being covered with black or galvanized steel or aluminum metal of thickness of not less than No. 26 gage. All nails exposed to the interior of magazines shall be well countersunk.
</P>
<P>(v) Foundations for magazines shall be of substantial construction and arranged to provide good cross ventilation.
</P>
<P>(vi) Magazines shall be ventilated sufficiently to prevent dampness and heating of stored explosives. Ventilating openings shall be screened to prevent the entrance of sparks.
</P>
<P>(vii) Openings to magazines shall be restricted to that necessary for the placement and removal of stocks of explosives. Doors for openings in magazines for Class A explosives shall be bullet resistant. Doors for magazines not required to be bullet resistant shall be designed to prevent unauthorized entrance to the magazine.
</P>
<P>(viii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ix) Provisions shall be made to prevent the piling of stocks of explosives directly against masonry walls, brick-lined or sand-filled metal walls and single-thickness metal walls; such protection, however, shall not interfere with proper ventilation at the interior of side and end walls.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Construction of Class II magazines.</I> (i) Class II magazines shall be of wood or metal construction, or a combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wood magazines of this class shall have sides, bottom, and cover constructed of 2-inch hardwood boards well braced at corners and protected by being entirely covered with sheet metal of not less than No. 20 gage. All nails exposed to the interior of the magazine shall be well countersunk. All metal magazines of this class shall have sides, bottom, and cover constructed of sheet metal, and shall be lined with three-eighths-inch plywood or equivalent. Edges of metal covers shall overlap sides at least 1 inch.
</P>
<P>(iii) Covers for both wood- and metal-constructed magazines of this class shall be provided with substantial strap hinges and shall be provided with substantial means for locking.
</P>
<P>(iv) Magazines of this class shall be painted red and shall bear lettering in white, on all sides and top, at least 3 inches high, “Explosives—Keep Fire Away.” Class II magazines when located in warehouses, and in wholesale and retail establishments shall be provided with substantial wheels or casters to facilitate easy removal in the case of fire. Where necessary due to climatic conditions, Class II magazines shall be ventilated.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Storage within magazines.</I> (i) Packages of explosives shall be laid flat with top side up. Black powder when stored in magazines with other explosives shall be stored separately. Black powder stored in kegs shall be stored on ends, bungs down, or on side, seams down. Corresponding grades and brands shall be stored together in such a manner that brands and grade marks show. All stocks shall be stored so as to be easily counted and checked. Packages of explosives shall be piled in a stable manner. When any kind of explosive is removed from a magazine for use, the oldest explosive of that particular kind shall always be taken first.
</P>
<P>(ii) Packages of explosives shall not be unpacked or repacked in a magazine nor within 50 feet of a magazine or in close proximity to other explosives. Tools used for opening packages of explosives shall be constructed of nonsparking materials, except that metal slitters may be used for opening fiberboard boxes. A wood wedge and a fiber, rubber, or wood mallet shall be used for opening or closing wood packages of explosives. Opened packages of explosives shall be securely closed before being returned to a magazine.
</P>
<P>(iii) Magazines shall not be used for the storage of any metal tools nor any commodity except explosives, but this restriction shall not apply to the storage of blasting agents and blasting supplies.
</P>
<P>(iv) Magazine floors shall be regularly swept, kept clean, dry, free of grit, paper, empty used packages, and rubbish. Brooms and other cleaning utensils shall not have any spark-producing metal parts. Sweepings from floors of magazines shall be properly disposed of. Magazine floors stained with nitroglycerin shall be cleaned according to instructions by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(v) When any explosive has deteriorated to an extent that it is in an unstable or dangerous condition, or if nitroglycerin leaks from any explosives, then the person in possession of such explosive shall immediately proceed to destroy such explosive in accordance with the instructions of the manufacturer. Only experienced persons shall be allowed to do the work of destroying explosives.
</P>
<P>(vi) When magazines need inside repairs, all explosives shall be removed therefrom and the floors cleaned. In making outside repairs, if there is a possibility of causing sparks or fire the explosives shall be removed from the magazine. Explosives removed from a magazine under repair shall either be placed in another magazine or placed a safe distance from the magazine where they shall be properly guarded and protected until repairs have been completed, when they shall be returned to the magazine.
</P>
<P>(vii) Smoking, matches, open flames, spark-producing devices, and firearms (except firearms carried by guards) shall not be permitted inside of or within 50 feet of magazines. The land surrounding a magazine shall be kept clear of all combustible materials for a distance of at least 25 feet. Combustible materials shall not be stored within 50 feet of magazines.
</P>
<P>(viii) Magazines shall be in the charge of a competent person at all times and who shall be held responsible for the enforcement of all safety precautions.
</P>
<P>(ix) Explosives recovered from blasting misfires shall be placed in a separate magazine until competent personnel has determined from the manufacturer the method of disposal. Caps recovered from blasting misfires shall not be reused. Such explosives and caps shall then be disposed of in the manner recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transportation of explosives</I>—(1) <I>General provisions.</I> (i) No employee shall be allowed to smoke, carry matches or any other flame-producing device, or carry any firearms or loaded cartridges while in or near a motor vehicle transporting explosives; or drive, load, or unload such vehicle in a careless or reckless manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Explosives shall not be transferred from one vehicle to another within the confines of any jurisdiction (city, county, State, or other area) without informing the fire and police departments thereof. In the event of breakdown or collision the local fire and police departments shall be promptly notified to help safeguard such emergencies. Explosives shall be transferred from the disabled vehicle to another only, when proper and qualified supervision is provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) Blasting caps or electric blasting caps shall not be transported over the highways on the same vehicles with other explosives, unless packaged, segregated, and transported in accordance with the Department of Transportation's Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 177-180).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transportation vehicles.</I> (i) Vehicles used for transporting explosives shall be strong enough to carry the load without difficulty and be in good mechanical condition. If vehicles do not have a closed body, the body shall be covered with a flameproof and moistureproof tarpaulin or other effective protection against moisture and sparks. All vehicles used for the transportation of explosives shall have tight floors and any exposed spark-producing metal on the inside of the body shall be covered with wood or other nonsparking materials to prevent contact with packages of explosives. Packages of explosives shall not be loaded above the sides of an open-body vehicle.
</P>
<P>(ii) Every vehicle used for transporting explosives and oxidizing materials listed in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(<I>a</I>) of this section shall be marked as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Exterior markings or placards required on applicable vehicles shall be as follows for the various classes of commodities:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Commodity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of marking or placard
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Explosives, Class A, any quantity or a combination of Class A and Class B explosives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Explosives A (Red letters on white background).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Explosives, Class B, and quantity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Explosives B (Red letters on white background).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxidizing material (blasting agents, ammonium nitrate, etc.), 1,000 pounds or more gross weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oxidizers (Yellow letters on black background).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Such markings or placards shall be displayed at the front, rear, and on each side of the motor vehicle or trailer, or other cargo carrying body while it contains explosives or other dangerous articles of such type and in such quantity as specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(<I>a</I>) of this subdivision. The front marking or placard may be displayed on the front of either the truck, truck body, truck tractor or the trailer.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Any motor vehicle, trailer, or other cargo-carrying body containing more than one kind of explosive as well as an oxidizing material requiring a placard under the provisions of paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(<I>a</I>), the aggregate gross weight of which totals 1,000 pounds or more, shall be marked or placarded “Dangerous” as well as “Explosive A” or “Explosive B” as appropriate. If explosives Class A and explosives Class B are loaded on the same vehicle, the “Explosives B” marking need not be displayed.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) In any combination of two or more vehicles containing explosives or other dangerous articles each vehicle shall be marked or placarded as to its contents and in accordance with paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>c</I>) of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each motor vehicle used for transporting explosives shall be equipped with a minimum of two extinguishers, each having a rating of at least 10-BC.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Only extinguishers listed or approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory shall be deemed suitable for use on explosives-carrying vehicles. Refer to § 1910.155(c)(3)(iv)(A) for definition of listed, and § 1910.7 for nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Extinguishers shall be filled and ready for immediate use and located near the driver's seat. Extinguishers shall be examined periodically by a competent person.
</P>
<P>(iv) A motor vehicle used for transporting explosives shall be given the following inspection to determine that it is in proper condition for safe transportation of explosives:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Fire extinguishers shall be filled and in working order.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) All electrical wiring shall be completely protected and securely fastened to prevent short-circuiting.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Chassis, motor, pan, and underside of body shall be reasonably clean and free of excess oil and grease.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Fuel tank and feedline shall be secure and have no leaks.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Brakes, lights, horn, windshield wipers, and steering apparatus shall function properly.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Tires shall be checked for proper inflation and defects.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The vehicle shall be in proper condition in every other respect and acceptable for handling explosives.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Operation of transportation vehicles.</I> (i) Vehicles transporting explosives shall only be driven by and be in the charge of a driver who is familiar with the traffic regulations, State laws, and the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except under emergency conditions, no vehicle transporting explosives shall be parked before reaching its destination, even though attended, on any public street adjacent to or in proximity to any place where people work.
</P>
<P>(iii) Every motor vehicle transporting any quantity of Class A or Class B explosives shall, at all times, be attended by a driver or other attendant of the motor carrier. This attendant shall have been made aware of the class of the explosive material in the vehicle and of its inherent dangers, and shall have been instructed in the measures and procedures to be followed in order to protect the public from those dangers. He shall have been made familiar with the vehicle he is assigned, and shall be trained, supplied with the necessary means, and authorized to move the vehicle when required.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) For the purpose of this subdivision, a motor vehicle shall be deemed “attended” only when the driver or other attendant is physically on or in the vehicle, or has the vehicle within his field of vision and can reach it quickly and without any kind of interference “attended” also means that the driver or attendant is awake, alert, and not engaged in other duties or activities which may divert his attention from the vehicle, except for necessary communication with public officers, or representatives of the carrier shipper, or consignee, or except for necessary absence from the vehicle to obtain food or to provide for his physical comfort.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) However, an explosive-laden vehicle may be left unattended if parked within a securely fenced or walled area with all gates or entrances locked where parking of such vehicle is otherwise permissible, or at a magazine site established solely for the purpose of storing explosives.
</P>
<P>(iv) No spark-producing metal, spark-producing metal tools, oils, matches, firearms, electric storage batteries, flammable substances, acids, oxidizing materials, or corrosive compounds shall be carried in the body of any motor truck and/or vehicle transporting explosives, unless the loading of such dangerous articles and the explosives comply with U.S. Department of Transportation regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) Vehicles transporting explosives shall avoid congested areas and heavy traffic. Where routes through congested areas have been designated by local authorities such routes shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(vi) Delivery shall only be made to authorized persons and into authorized magazines or authorized temporary storage or handling areas.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of explosives and blasting agents</I>—(1) <I>General provisions.</I> (i) While explosives are being handled or used, smoking shall not be permitted and no one near the explosives shall possess matches, open light or other fire or flame. No person shall be allowed to handle explosives while under the influence of intoxicating liquors, narcotics, or other dangerous drugs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Original containers or Class II magazines shall be used for taking detonators and other explosives from storage magazines to the blasting area.
</P>
<P>(iii) When blasting is done in congested areas or in close proximity to a structure, or any other installation that may be damaged, the blast shall be covered before firing with a mat constructed so that it is capable of preventing fragments from being thrown.
</P>
<P>(iv) Persons authorized to prepare explosive charges or conduct blasting operations shall use every reasonable precaution, including but not limited to warning signals, flags, barricades, or woven wire mats to insure the safety of the general public and workmen.
</P>
<P>(v) Blasting operations shall be conducted during daylight hours.
</P>
<P>(vi) Whenever blasting is being conducted in the vicinity of gas, electric, water, fire alarm, telephone, telegraph, and steam utilities, the blaster shall notify the appropriate representatives of such utilities at least 24 hours in advance of blasting, specifying the location and intended time of such blasting. Verbal notice shall be confirmed with written notice.
</P>
<P>(vii) Due precautions shall be taken to prevent accidental discharge of electric blasting caps from current induced by radar, radio transmitters, lightning, adjacent powerlines, dust storms, or other sources of extraneous electricity. These precautions shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The suspension of all blasting operations and removal of persons from the blasting area during the approach and progress of an electric storm.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The posting of signs warning against the use of mobile radio transmitters on all roads within 350 feet of the blasting operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Storage at use sites.</I> (i) Empty containers and paper and fiber packing materials which have previously contained explosive materials shall be disposed of in a safe manner, or reused in accordance with the Department of Transportation's Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 177-180).
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers of explosives shall not be opened in any magazine or within 50 feet of any magazine. In opening kegs or wooden cases, no sparking metal tools shall be used; wooden wedges and either wood, fiber or rubber mallets shall be used. Nonsparking metallic slitters may be used for opening fiberboard cases.
</P>
<P>(iii) Explosives or blasting equipment that are obviously deteriorated or damaged shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) No explosives shall be abandoned.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loading of explosives in blast holes.</I> (i) All drill holes shall be sufficiently large to admit freely the insertion of the cartridges of explosives.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tamping shall be done only with wood rods without exposed metal parts, but nonsparking metal connectors may be used for jointed poles. Violent tamping shall be avoided. Primed cartridges shall not be tamped.
</P>
<P>(iii) When loading blasting agents pneumatically over electric blasting caps, semiconductive delivery hose shall be used and the equipment shall be bonded and grounded.
</P>
<P>(iv) No holes shall be loaded except those to be fired in the next round of blasting. After loading, all remaining explosives shall be immediately returned to an authorized magazine.
</P>
<P>(v) Drilling shall not be started until all remaining butts of old holes are examined with a wooden stick for unexploded charges, and if any are found, they shall be refired before work proceeds.
</P>
<P>(vi) No person shall be allowed to deepen drill holes which have contained explosives.
</P>
<P>(vii) After loading for a blast is completed, all excess blasting caps or electric blasting caps and other explosives shall immediately be returned to their separate storage magazines.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Initiation of explosive charges.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) When fuse is used, the blasting cap shall be securely attached to the safety fuse with a standard-ring type cap crimper. All primers shall be assembled at least 50 feet from any magazine.
</P>
<P>(iii) Primers shall be made up only as required for each round of blasting.
</P>
<P>(iv) No blasting cap shall be inserted in the explosives without first making a hole in the cartridge for the cap with a wooden punch of proper size or standard cap crimper.
</P>
<P>(v) Explosives shall not be extracted from a hole that has once been charged or has misfired unless it is impossible to detonate the unexploded charge by insertion of a fresh additional primer.
</P>
<P>(vi) If there are any misfires while using cap and fuse, all persons shall be required to remain away from the charge for at least 1 hour. If electric blasting caps are used and a misfire occurs, this waiting period may be reduced to 30 minutes. Misfires shall be handled under the direction of the person in charge of the blasting and all wires shall be carefully traced and search made for unexploded charges.
</P>
<P>(vii) Blasters, when testing circuits to charged holes, shall use only blasting galvanometers designed for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(viii) Only the employee making leading wire connections in electrical firing shall be allowed to fire the shot. Leading wires shall remain shorted and not be connected to the blasting machine or other source of current until the charge is to be fired.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Warning required.</I> Before a blast is fired, the employer shall require that a loud warning signal be given by the person in charge, who has made certain that all surplus explosives are in a safe place, all persons and vehicles are at a safe distance or under sufficient cover, and that an adequate warning has been given.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Explosives at piers, railway stations, and cars or vessels not otherwise specified in this standard</I>—(1) <I>Railway cars.</I> Except in an emergency and with permission of the local authority, no person shall have or keep explosives in a railway car unless said car and contents and methods of loading are in accordance with the U.S. Department of Transportation Regulations for the Transportation of Explosives, 49 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Packing and marking.</I> No person shall deliver any explosive to any carrier unless such explosive conforms in all respects, including marking and packing, to the U.S. Department of Transportation Regulations for the Transportation of Explosives.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Marking cars.</I> Every railway car containing explosives which has reached its designation, or is stopped in transit so as no longer to be in interstate commerce, shall have attached to both sides and ends of the car, cards with the words “Explosives—Handle Carefully—Keep Fire Away” in red letters at least 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches high on a white background.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Storage.</I> Any explosives at a railway facility, truck terminal, pier, wharf harbor facility, or airport terminal whether for delivery to a consignee, or forwarded to some other destination shall be kept in a safe place, isolated as far as practicable and in such manner that they can be easily and quickly removed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hours of transfer.</I> Explosives shall not be delivered to or received from any railway station, truck terminal, pier, wharf, harbor facility, or airport terminal between the hours of sunset and sunrise.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Blasting agents</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise set forth in this paragraph, blasting agents, excluding water gels, shall be transported, stored, and used in the same manner as explosives. Water gels are covered in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fixed location mixing.</I> (i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Buildings used for the mixing of blasting agents shall conform to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Buildings shall be of noncombustible construction or sheet metal on wood studs.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Floors in a mixing plant shall be of concrete or of other nonabsorbent materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) All fuel oil storage facilities shall be separated from the mixing plant and located in such a manner that in case of tank rupture, the oil will drain away from the mixing plant building.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The building shall be well ventilated.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Heating units which do not depend on combustion processes, when properly designed and located, may be used in the building. All direct sources of heat shall be provided exclusively from units located outside the mixing building.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) All internal-combustion engines used for electric power generation shall be located outside the mixing plant building, or shall be properly ventilated and isolated by a firewall. The exhaust systems on all such engines shall be located so any spark emission cannot be a hazard to any materials in or adjacent to the plant.
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment used for mixing blasting agents shall conform to the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The design of the mixer shall minimize the possibility of frictional heating, compaction, and especially confinement. All bearings and drive assemblies shall be mounted outside the mixer and protected against the accumulation of dust. All surfaces shall be accessible for cleaning.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Mixing and packaging equipment shall be constructed of materials compatible with the fuel-ammonium nitrate composition.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Suitable means shall be provided to prevent the flow of fuel oil to the mixer in case of fire. In gravity flow systems an automatic spring-loaded shutoff valve with fusible link shall be installed.
</P>
<P>(iv) The provisions of this subdivision shall be considered when determining blasting agent compositions.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The sensitivity of the blasting agent shall be determined by means of a No. 8 test blasting cap at regular intervals and after every change in formulation.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Oxidizers of small particle size, such as crushed ammonium nitrate prills or fines, may be more sensitive than coarser products and shall, therefore, be handled with greater care.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) No hydrocarbon liquid fuel with flashpoint lower than that of No. 2 diesel fuel oil 125 °F. minimum shall be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Crude oil and crankcase oil shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Metal powders such as aluminum shall be kept dry and shall be stored in containers or bins which are moisture-resistant or weathertight. Solid fuels shall be used in such manner as to minimize dust explosion hazards.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Peroxides and chlorates shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(v) All electrical switches, controls, motors, and lights located in the mixing room shall conform to the requirements in subpart S of this part for Class II, Division 2 locations; otherwise they shall be located outside the mixing room. The frame of the mixer and all other equipment that may be used shall be electrically bonded and be provided with a continuous path to the ground.
</P>
<P>(vi) Safety precautions at mixing plants shall include the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Floors shall be constructed so as to eliminate floor drains and piping into which molten materials could flow and be confined in case of fire.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The floors and equipment of the mixing and packaging room shall be cleaned regularly and thoroughly to prevent accumulation of oxidizers or fuels and other sensitizers.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The entire mixing and packaging plant shall be cleaned regularly and thoroughly to prevent excessive accumulation of dust.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Smoking, matches, open flames, spark-producing devices, and firearms (except firearms carried by guards) shall not be permitted inside of or within 50 feet of any building or facility used for the mixing of blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The land surrounding the mixing plant shall be kept clear of brush, dried grass, leaves, and other materials for a distance of at least 25 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Empty ammonium nitrate bags shall be disposed of daily in a safe manner.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) No welding shall be permitted or open flames used in or around the mixing or storage area of the plant unless the equipment or area has been completely washed down and all oxidizer material removed.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Before welding or repairs to hollow shafts, all oxidizer material shall be removed from the outside and inside of the shaft and the shaft vented with a minimum one-half inch diameter opening.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Explosives shall not be permitted inside of or within 50 feet of any building or facility used for the mixing of blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bulk delivery and mixing vehicles.</I> (i) The provisions of this paragraph shall apply to off-highway private operations as well as to all public highway movements.
</P>
<P>(ii) A bulk vehicle body for delivering and mixing blasting agents shall conform with the requirements of this paragraph (ii).
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The body shall be constructed of noncombustible materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Vehicles used to transport bulk premixed blasting agents on public highways shall have closed bodies.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) All moving parts of the mixing system shall be designed as to prevent a heat buildup. Shafts or axles which contact the product shall have outboard bearings with 1-inch minimum clearance between the bearings and the outside of the product container. Particular attention shall be given to the clearances on all moving parts.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A bulk delivery vehicle shall be strong enough to carry the load without difficulty and be in good mechanical condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Operation of bulk delivery vehicles shall conform to the requirements of this subdivision. These include the placarding requirements as specified by Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The operator shall be trained in the safe operation of the vehicle together with its mixing, conveying, and related equipment. The employer shall assure that the operator is familiar with the commodities being delivered and the general procedure for handling emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The hauling of either blasting caps or other explosives but not both, shall be permitted on bulk trucks provided that a special wood or nonferrous-lined container is installed for the explosives. Such blasting caps or other explosives shall be in DOT-specified shipping containers: see 49 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) No person shall smoke, carry matches or any flame-producing device, or carry any firearms while in or about bulk vehicles effecting the mixing transfer or down-the-hole loading of blasting agents at or near the blasting site.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Caution shall be exercised in the movement of the vehicle in the blasting area to avoid driving the vehicle over or dragging hoses over firing lines, cap wires, or explosive materials. The employer shall assure that the driver, in moving the vehicle, has assistance of a second person to guide his movements.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) No intransit mixing of materials shall be performed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pneumatic loading from bulk delivery vehicles into blastholes primed with electric blasting caps or other static-sensitive systems shall conform to the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A positive grounding device shall be used to prevent the accumulation of static electricity.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A discharge hose shall be used that has a resistance range that will prevent conducting stray currents, but that is conductive enough to bleed off static buildup.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A qualified person shall evaluate all systems to determine if they will adequately dissipate static under potential field conditions.
</P>
<P>(v) Repairs to bulk delivery vehicles shall conform to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) No welding or open flames shall be used on or around any part of the delivery equipment unless it has been completely washed down and all oxidizer material removed.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Before welding or making repairs to hollow shafts, the shaft shall be thoroughly cleaned inside and out and vented with a minimum one-half-inch diameter opening.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bulk storage bins.</I> (i) The bin, including supports, shall be constructed of compatible materials, waterproof, and adequately supported and braced to withstand the combination of all loads including impact forces arising from product movement within the bin and accidental vehicle contact with the support legs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bin discharge gate shall be designed to provide a closure tight enough to prevent leakage of the stored product. Provision shall also be made so that the gate can be locked.
</P>
<P>(iii) Bin loading manways or access hatches shall be hinged or otherwise attached to the bin and be designed to permit locking.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any electrically driven conveyors for loading or unloading bins shall conform to the requirements of subpart S of this part. They shall be designed to minimize damage from corrosion.
</P>
<P>(v) Bins containing blasting agent shall be located, with respect to inhabited buildings, passenger railroads, and public highways, in accordance with Table-21 and separation from other blasting agent storage and explosives storage shall be in conformity with Table H-22.
</P>
<P>(vi) Bins containing ammonium nitrate shall be separated from blasting agent storage and explosives storage in conformity with Table H-22.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-22—Table of Recommended Separation Distances of Ammonium Nitrate and Blasting Agents From Explosives or Blasting Agents <E T="51">1-6</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Donor weight
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum separation distance of receptor when barricaded 
<sup>2</sup> (ft.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Minimum thickness of artificial barricades 
<sup>5</sup> (in.)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pounds over
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pounds not over
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ammonium nitrate 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Blasting agent 
<sup>4</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">140,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">160,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">158</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">220,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">216</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">275,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> These distances apply to the separation of stores only. Table H-21 shall be used in determining separation distances from inhabited buildings, passenger railways, and public highways.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> When the ammonium nitrate and/or blasting agent is not barricaded, the distances shown in the table shall be multiplied by six. These distances allow for the possibility of high velocity metal fragments from mixers, hoppers, truck bodies, sheet metal structures, metal container, and the like which may enclose the “donor”. Where storage is in bullet-resistant magazines recommended for explosives or where the storage is protected by a bullet-resistant wall, distances, and barricade thicknesses in excess of those prescribed in Table H-21 are not required.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The distances in the table apply to ammonium nitrate that passes the insensitivity test prescribed in the definition of ammonium nitrate fertilizer promulgated by the National Plant Food Institute*; and ammonium nitrate failing to pass said test shall be stored at separation distances determined by competent persons. (*Definition and Test Procedures for Ammonium Nitrate Fertilizer, National Plant Food Institute, November 1964.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> These distances apply to nitro-carbo-nitrates and blasting agents which pass the insensitivity test prescribed in the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Earth, or sand dikes, or enclosures filled with the prescribed minimum thickness of earth or sand are acceptable artificial barricades. Natural barricades, such as hills or timber of sufficient density that the surrounding exposures which require protection cannot be seen from the “donor” when the trees are bare of leaves, are also acceptable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> When the ammonium nitrate must be counted in determining the distances to be maintained from inhabited buildings, passenger railways and public highways, it may be counted at one-half its actual weight because its blast effect is lower.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note 7:</E> Guide to use of table of recommended separation distances of ammonium nitrate and blasting agents from explosives or blasting agents.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(a) Sketch location of all potential donor and acceptor materials together with the maximum mass of material to be allowed in that vicinity. (Potential donors are high explosives, blasting agents, and combination of masses of detonating materials. Potential acceptors are high explosives, blasting agents, and ammonium nitrate.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(b) Consider separately each donor mass in combination with each acceptor mass. If the masses are closer than table allowance (distances measured between nearest edges), the combination of masses becomes a new potential donor of weight equal to the total mass. When individual masses are considered as donors, distances to potential acceptors shall be measured between edges. When combined masses within propagating distance of each other are considered as a donor, the appropriate distance to the edge of potential acceptors shall be computed as a weighted distance from the combined masses.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Calculation of weighted distance from combined masses:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Let <E T="03">M</E><E T="52">2</E>, <E T="03">M</E><E T="52">3</E> . . . <E T="03">M</E><E T="52">n</E> be donor masses to be combined.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">M</E><E T="52">1</E> is a potential acceptor mass.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">D</E><E T="52">1</E><E T="52">2</E> is distance from M<E T="52">1</E> to M<E T="52">2</E> (edge to edge).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">D</E><E T="52">1</E><E T="52">3</E> is distance from M<E T="52">1</E> to M<E T="52">3</E> (edge to edge), etc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">To find weighted distance [<E T="03">D</E><E T="52">1</E>(<E T="52">2</E>,<E T="52">3</E> . . . <E T="52">n</E>)] from combined masses to <E T="03">M</E><E T="52">1</E>, add the products of the individual masses and distances and divide the total by the sum of the masses thus:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">D</E><E T="52">1</E>(<E T="52">2</E>, <E T="52">3</E> . . . <E T="54">n</E>)=<E T="03">M</E><E T="52">2</E> × <E T="03">D</E><E T="52">12</E> + <E T="03">M</E><E T="52">3</E> × <E T="03">D</E><E T="52">12</E> . . . + <E T="03">M</E><E T="54">n</E> × <E T="03">D</E><E T="52">12</E><E T="03">M</E><E T="52">2</E> + <E T="03">M</E><E T="52">3</E> . . . + <E T="03">M</E><E T="54">n</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Propagation is possible if either an individual donor mass is less than the tabulated distance from an acceptor or a combined mass is less than the weighted distance from an acceptor.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(c) In determining the distances separating highways, railroads, and inhabited buildings from potential explosions (as prescribed in Table H-21), the sum of all masses which may propagate (i.e., lie at distances less than prescribed in the Table) from <E T="03">either</E> individual or combined donor masses are included. However, when the ammonium nitrate must be included, only 50 percent of its weight shall be used because of its reduced blast effects. In applying Table H-21 to distances from highways, railroads, and inhabited buildings, distances are measured from the nearest edge of potentially explodable material as prescribed in Table H-21, Note 5.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(d) When all or part of a potential acceptor comprises Explosives Class A as defined in DOT regulations, storage in bullet-resistant magazines is required. Safe distances to stores in bullet-resistant magazines may be obtained from the intermagazine distances prescribed in Table H-21.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(e) Barricades must not have line-of-sight openings between potential donors and acceptors which permit blast or missiles to move directly between masses.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(f) Good housekeeping practices shall be maintained around any bin containing ammonium nitrate or blasting agent. This includes keeping weeds and other combustible materials cleared within 25 feet of such bin. Accumulation of spilled product on the ground shall be prevented.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Storage of blasting agents and supplies.</I> (i) Blasting agents and oxidizers used for mixing of blasting agents shall be stored in the manner set forth in this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Blasting agents or ammonium nitrate, when stored in conjunction with explosives, shall be stored in the manner set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for explosives. The mass of blasting agents and one-half the mass of ammonium nitrate shall be included when computing the total quantity of explosives for determining distance requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Blasting agents, when stored entirely separate from explosives, may be stored in the manner set forth in paragraph (c) of this section or in one-story warehouses (without basements) which shall be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Noncombustible or fire resistive;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Constructed so as to eliminate open floor drains and piping into which molten materials could flow and be confined in case of fire;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Weather resistant;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Well ventilated; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Equipped with a strong door kept securely locked except when open for business.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Semitrailer or full-trailer vans used for highway or onsite transportation of the blasting agents are satisfactory for temporarily storing these materials, provided they are located in accordance with Table H-22 with respect to one another. Trailers shall be provided with substantial means for locking, and the trailer doors shall be kept locked, except during the time of placement and removal of stocks of blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(ii) Warehouses used for the storage of blasting agents separate from explosives shall be located as set forth in this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Warehouses used for the storage of blasting agents shall be located in Table H-22 with respect to one another.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If both blasting agents and ammonium nitrate are handled or stored within the distance limitations prescribed through paragraph (g)(2) of this section, one-half the mass of the ammonium nitrate shall be added to the mass of the blasting agent when computing the total quantity of explosives for determining the proper distance for compliance with Table H-21.
</P>
<P>(iii) Smoking, matches, open flames, spark producing devices, and firearms are prohibited inside of or within 50 feet of any warehouse used for the storage of blasting agents. Combustible materials shall not be stored within 50 feet of warehouses used for the storage of blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(iv) The interior of warehouses used for the storage of blasting agents shall be kept clean and free from debris and empty containers. Spilled materials shall be cleaned up promptly and safely removed. Combustible materials, flammable liquids, corrosive acids, chlorates, or nitrates shall not be stored in any warehouse used for blasting agents unless separated therefrom by a fire resistive separation of not less than 1 hour resistance. The provisions of this subdivision shall not prohibit the storage of blasting agents together with nonexplosive blasting supplies.
</P>
<P>(v) Piles of ammonium nitrate and warehouses containing ammonium nitrate shall be adequately separated from readily combustible fuels.
</P>
<P>(vi) Caked oxidizers, either in bags or in bulk, shall not be loosened by blasting.
</P>
<P>(vii) Every warehouse used for the storage of blasting agents shall be under the supervision of a competent person.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transportation of packaged blasting agents.</I> (i) When blasting agents are transported in the same vehicle with explosives, all of the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section shall be complied with.
</P>
<P>(ii) Vehicles transporting blasting agents shall only be driven by and be in charge of a driver in possession of a valid motor vehicle operator's license. Such a person shall also be familiar with the State's vehicle and traffic laws.
</P>
<P>(iii) No matches, firearms, acids, or other corrosive liquids shall be carried in the bed or body of any vehicle containing blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(iv) No person shall be permitted to ride upon, drive, load, or unload a vehicle containing blasting agents while smoking or under the influence of intoxicants, narcotics, or other dangerous drugs.
</P>
<P>(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) Vehicles transporting blasting agents shall be in safe operating condition at all times.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Use of blasting agents.</I> Persons using blasting agents shall comply with all of the applicable provisions of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Water gel (Slurry) explosives and blasting agents</I>—(1) <I>General provisions.</I> Unless otherwise set forth in this paragraph, water gels shall be transported, stored and used in the same manner as explosives or blasting agents in accordance with the classification of the product.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types and classifications.</I> (i) Water gels containing a substance in itself classified as an explosive shall be classified as an explosive and manufactured, transported, stored, and used as specified for “explosives” in this section, except as noted in subdivision (iv) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Water gels containing no substance in itself classified as an explosive and which are cap-sensitive as defined in paragraph (a) of this section under Blasting Agent shall be classified as an explosive and manufactured, transported, stored and used as specified for “explosives” in this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Water gels containing no substance in itself classified as an explosive and which are not cap-sensitive as defined in paragraph (a) of this section under Blasting Agent shall be classified as blasting agents and manufactured, transported, stored, and used as specified for “blasting agents” in this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) When tests on specific formulations of water gels result in Department of Transportation classification as a Class B explosive, bullet-resistant magazines are not required, see paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fixed location mixing.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Buildings used for the mixing of water gels shall conform to the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Buildings shall be of noncombustible construction or sheet metal on wood studs.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Floors in a mixing plant shall be of concrete or of other nonabsorbent materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where fuel oil is used all fuel oil storage facilities shall be separated from the mixing plant and located in such a manner that in case of tank rupture, the oil will drain away from the mixing plant building.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The building shall be well ventilated.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Heating units that do not depend on combustion processes, when properly designed and located, may be used in the building. All direct sources of heat shall be provided exclusively from units located outside of the mixing building.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) All internal-combustion engines used for electric power generation shall be located outside the mixing plant building, or shall be properly ventilated and isolated by a firewall. The exhaust systems on all such engines shall be located so any spark emission cannot be a hazard to any materials in or adjacent to the plant.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ingredients of water gels shall conform to the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Ingredients in themselves classified as Class A or Class B explosives shall be stored in conformity with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Nitrate-water solutions may be stored in tank cars, tank trucks, or fixed tanks without quantity or distance limitations. Spills or leaks which may contaminate combustible materials shall be cleaned up immediately.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Metal powders such as aluminum shall be kept dry and shall be stored in containers or bins which are moisture-resistant or weathertight. Solid fuels shall be used in such manner as to minimize dust explosion hazards.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Ingredients shall not be stored with incompatible materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Peroxides and chlorates shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) Mixing equipment shall comply with the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The design of the processing equipment, including mixing and conveying equipment, shall be compatible with the relative sensitivity of the materials being handled. Equipment shall be designed to minimize the possibility of frictional heating, compaction, overloading, and confinement.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Both equipment and handling procedures shall be designed to prevent the introduction of foreign objects or materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Mixers, pumps, valves, and related equipment shall be designed to permit regular and periodic flushing, cleaning, dismantling, and inspection.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) All electrical equipment including wiring, switches, controls, motors, and lights, shall conform to the requirements of subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) All electric motors and generators shall be provided with suitable overload protection devices. Electrical generators, motors, proportioning devices, and all other electrical enclosures shall be electrically bonded. The grounding conductor to all such electrical equipment shall be effectively bonded to the service-entrance ground connection and to all equipment ground connections in a manner so as to provide a continuous path to ground.
</P>
<P>(v) Mixing facilities shall comply with the fire prevention requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The mixing, loading, and ingredient transfer areas where residues or spilled materials may accumulate shall be cleaned periodically. A cleaning and collection system for dangerous residues shall be provided. ,
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A daily visual inspection shall be made of mixing, conveying, and electrical equipment to establish that such equipment is in good operating condition. A program of systematic maintenance shall be conducted on regular schedule.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Heaters which are not dependent on the combustion process within the heating unit may be used within the confines of processing buildings, or compartments, if provided with temperature and safety controls and located away from combustible materials and the finished product.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bulk delivery and mixing vehicles.</I> (i) The design of vehicles shall comply with the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Vehicles used over public highways for the bulk transportation of water gels or of ingredients classified as dangerous commodities, shall meet the requirements of the Department of Transportation and shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (d) and (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When electric power is supplied by a self-contained motor generator located on the vehicle the generator shall be at a point separate from where the water gel is discharged.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The design of processing equipment and general requirements shall conform to subparagraphs (3) (iii) and (iv) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A positive action parking brake, which will set the wheel brakes on at least one axle shall be provided on vehicles when equipped with air brakes and shall be used during bulk delivery operations. Wheel chocks shall supplement parking brakes whenever conditions may require.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operation of bulk delivery and mixing vehicles shall comply with the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The placarding requirements contained in DOT regulations apply to vehicles carrying water gel explosives or blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The operator shall be trained in the safe operation of the vehicle together with its mixing, conveying, and related equipment. He shall be familiar with the commodities being delivered and the general procedure for handling emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The hauling of either blasting caps or other explosives, but not both, shall be permitted on bulk trucks provided that a special wood or nonferrous-lined container is installed for the explosives. Such blasting caps or other explosives shall be in DOT-specified shipping containers; see 49 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) No person shall be allowed to smoke, carry matches or any flame-producing device, or carry any firearms while in or about bulk vehicles effecting the mixing, transfer, or down-the-hole loading of water gels at or near the blasting site.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Caution shall be exercised in the movement of the vehicle in the blasting area to avoid driving the vehicle over or dragging hoses over firing lines, cap wires, or explosive materials. The employer shall furnish the driver the assistance of a second person to guide the driver's movements.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) No intransit mixing of materials shall be performed.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The location chosen for water gel or ingredient transfer from a support vehicle into the borehole loading vehicle shall be away from the blasthole site when the boreholes are loaded or in the process of being loaded.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Storage of ammonium nitrate</I>—(1) <I>Scope and definitions.</I> (i)(<I>a</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(1)(i)(<I>d</I>) of this paragraph applies to the storage of ammonium nitrate in the form of crystals, flakes, grains, or prills including fertilizer grade, dynamite grade, nitrous oxide grade, technical grade, and other mixtures containing 60 percent or more ammonium nitrate by weight but does not apply to blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) This paragraph does not apply to the transportation of ammonium nitrate.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) This paragraph does not apply to storage under the jurisdiction of and in compliance with the regulations of the U.S. Coast Guard (see 46 CFR parts 146-149).
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The storage of ammonium nitrate and ammonium nitrate mixtures that are more sensitive than allowed by the “Definition of Test Procedures for Ammonium Nitrate Fertilizer” is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The standards for ammonium nitrate (nitrous oxide grade) are those found in the “Specifications, Properties, and Recommendations for Packaging, Transportation, Storage, and Use of Ammonium Nitrate”, available from the Compressed Gas Association, Inc., which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General provisions.</I> (i) This paragraph applies to all persons storing, having, or keeping ammonium nitrate, and to the owner or lessee of any building, premises, or structure in which ammonium nitrate is stored in quantities of 1,000 pounds or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approval of large quantity storage shall be subject to due consideration of the fire and explosion hazards, including exposure to toxic vapors from burning or decomposing ammonium nitrate.
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) Storage buildings shall not have basements unless the basements are open on at least one side. Storage buildings shall not be over one story in height.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Storage buildings shall have adequate ventilation or be of a construction that will be self-ventilating in the event of fire.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The wall on the exposed side of a storage building within 50 feet of a combustible building, forest, piles of combustible materials and similar exposure hazards shall be of fire-resistive construction. In lieu of the fire-resistive wall, other suitable means of exposure protection such as a free standing wall may be used. The roof coverings shall be Class C or better, as defined in the Manual on Roof Coverings, NFPA 203M-1970, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) All flooring in storage and handling areas, shall be of noncombustible material or protected against impregnation by ammonium nitrate and shall be without open drains, traps, tunnels, pits, or pockets into which any molten ammonium nitrate could flow and be confined in the event of fire.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The continued use of an existing storage building or structure not in strict conformity with this paragraph may be approved in cases where such continued use will not constitute a hazard to life.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Buildings and structures shall be dry and free from water seepage through the roof, walls, and floors.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Storage of ammonium nitrate in bags, drums, or other containers.</I> (i)(<I>a</I>) Bags and containers used for ammonium nitrate must comply with specifications and standards required for use in interstate commerce (see 49 CFR chapter I).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Containers used on the premises in the actual manufacturing or processing need not comply with provisions of paragraph (i)(3)(i)(<I>a</I>) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) Containers of ammonium nitrate shall not be accepted for storage when the temperature of the ammonium nitrate exceeds 130 °F.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Bags of ammonium nitrate shall not be stored within 30 inches of the storage building walls and partitions.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The height of piles shall not exceed 20 feet. The width of piles shall not exceed 20 feet and the length 50 feet except that where the building is of noncombustible construction or is protected by automatic sprinklers the length of piles shall not be limited. In no case shall the ammonium nitrate be stacked closer than 36 inches below the roof or supporting and spreader beams overhead.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Aisles shall be provided to separate piles by a clear space of not less than 3 feet in width. At least one service or main aisle in the storage area shall be not less than 4 feet in width.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Storage of bulk ammonium nitrate.</I> (i)(<I>a</I>) Warehouses shall have adequate ventilation or be capable of adequate ventilation in case of fire.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Unless constructed of noncombustible material or unless adequate facilities for fighting a roof fire are available, bulk storage structures shall not exceed a height of 40 feet.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) Bins shall be clean and free of materials which may contaminate ammonium nitrate.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Due to the corrosive and reactive properties of ammonium nitrate, and to avoid contamination, galvanized iron, copper, lead, and zinc shall not be used in a bin construction unless suitably protected. Aluminum bins and wooden bins protected against impregnation by ammonium nitrate are permissible. The partitions dividing the ammonium nitrate storage from other products which would contaminate the ammonium nitrate shall be of tight construction.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The ammonium nitrate storage bins or piles shall be clearly identified by signs reading “Ammonium Nitrate” with letters at least 2 inches high.
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) Piles or bins shall be so sized and arranged that all material in the pile is moved out periodically in order to minimize possible caking of the stored ammonium nitrate.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Height or depth of piles shall be limited by the pressure-setting tendency of the product. However, in no case shall the ammonium nitrate be piled higher at any point than 36 inches below the roof or supporting and spreader beams overhead.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Ammonium nitrate shall not be accepted for storage when the temperature of the product exceeds 130 °F.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Dynamite, other explosives, and blasting agents shall not be used to break up or loosen caked ammonium nitrate.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Contaminants.</I> (i)(<I>a</I>) Ammonium nitrate shall be in a separate building or shall be separated by approved type firewalls of not less than 1 hour fire-resistance rating from storage of organic chemicals, acids, or other corrosive materials, materials that may require blasting during processing or handling, compressed flammable gases, flammable and combustible materials or other contaminating substances, including but not limited to animal fats, baled cotton, baled rags, baled scrap paper, bleaching powder, burlap or cotton bags, caustic soda, coal, coke, charcoal, cork, camphor, excelsior, fibers of any kind, fish oils, fish meal, foam rubber, hay, lubricating oil, linseed oil, or other oxidizable or drying oils, naphthalene, oakum, oiled clothing, oiled paper, oiled textiles, paint, straw, sawdust, wood shavings, or vegetable oils. Walls referred to in this subdivision need extend only to the underside of the roof.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In lieu of separation walls, ammonium nitrate may be separated from the materials referred to in paragraph (<I>a</I>) of this section by a space of at least 30 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Flammable liquids such as gasoline, kerosene, solvents, and light fuel oils shall not be stored on the premises except when such storage conforms to § 1910.106, and when walls and sills or curbs are provided in accordance with paragraphs (i)(5)(i) (<I>a</I>) or (<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) LP-Gas shall not be stored on the premises except when such storage conforms to § 1910.110.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) Sulfur and finely divided metals shall not be stored in the same building with ammonium nitrate except when such storage conforms to paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Explosives and blasting agents shall not be stored in the same building with ammonium nitrate except on the premises of makers, distributors, and user-compounders of explosives or blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where explosives or blasting agents are stored in separate buildings, other than on the premises of makers, distributors, and user-compounders of explosives or blasting agents, they shall be separated from the ammonium nitrate by the distances and/or barricades specified in Table H-22 of this subpart, but by not less than 50 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Storage and/or operations on the premises of makers, distributors, and user-compounders of explosives or blasting agents shall be in conformity with paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>General precautions.</I> (i) Electrical installations shall conform to the requirements of subpart S of this part, for ordinary locations. They shall be designed to minimize damage from corrosion.
</P>
<P>(ii) In areas where lightning storms are prevalent, lightning protection shall be provided. (See the Lightning Protection Code, NFPA 78-1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Provisions shall be made to prevent unauthorized personnel from entering the ammonium nitrate storage area.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Fire protection.</I> (i) Not more than 2,500 tons (2270 tonnes) of bagged ammonium nitrate shall be stored in a building or structure not equipped with an automatic sprinkler system. Sprinkler systems shall be of the approved type and installed in accordance with § 1910.159.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) Suitable fire control devices such as small hose or portable fire extinguishers shall be provided throughout the warehouse and in the loading and unloading areas. Suitable fire control devices shall comply with the requirements of §§ 1910.157 and 1910.158.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Water supplies and fire hydrants shall be available in accordance with recognized good practices.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Small arms ammunition, small arms primers, and small arms propellants</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph does not apply to in-process storage and intraplant transportation during manufacture of small arms ammunition, small arms primers, and smokeless propellants.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Small arms ammunition.</I> (i) No quantity limitations are imposed on the storage of small arms ammunition in warehouses, retail stores, and other general occupancy facilities, except those imposed by limitations of storage facilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Small arms ammunition shall be separated from flammable liquids, flammable solids as classified in 49 CFR part 172, and from oxidizing materials, by a fire-resistive wall of 1-hour rating or by a distance of 25 feet.
</P>
<P>(iii) Small arms ammunition shall not be stored together with Class A or Class B explosives unless the storage facility is adequate for this latter storage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Smokeless propellants.</I> (i) All smokeless propellants shall be stored in shipping containers specified in 49 CFR 173.93 for smokeless propellants.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Commercial stocks of smokeless propellants over 20 pounds and not more than 100 pounds shall be stored in portable wooden boxes having walls of at least 1 inch nominal thickness.
</P>
<P>(iv) Commercial stocks in quantities not to exceed 750 pounds shall be stored in nonportable storage cabinets having wooden walls of at least 1 inch nominal thickness. Not more than 400 pounds shall be permitted in any one cabinet.
</P>
<P>(v) Quantities in excess of 750 pounds shall be stored in magazines in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Small arms ammunition primers.</I> (i) Small arms ammunition primers shall not be stored except in the original shipping container in accordance with the requirements of 49 CFR 173.107 for small arms ammunition primers.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Small arms ammunition primers shall be separated from flammable liquids, flammable solids as classified in 49 CFR part 172, and oxidizing materials by a fire-resistive wall of 1-hour rating or by a distance of 25 feet.
</P>
<P>(iv) Not more than 750,000 small arms ammunition primers shall be stored in any one building, except as provided in paragraph (j)(4)(v) of this paragraph. Not more than 100,000 shall be stored in any one pile. Piles shall be at least 15 feet apart.
</P>
<P>(v) Quantities of small arms ammunition primers in excess of 750,000 shall be stored in magazines in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section applies to the manufacture, keeping, having, storage, sale, transportation, and use of explosives, blasting agents, and pyrotechnics. The section does not apply to the sale and use (public display) of pyrotechnics, commonly known as fireworks, nor the use of explosives in the form prescribed by the official U.S. Pharmacopeia.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacture of explosives as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall also meet the requirements contained in § 1910.119.
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacture of pyrotechnics as defined in paragraph (a)(10) of this section shall also meet the requirements contained in § 1910.119.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49747, Oct. 24, 1978; 45 FR 60704, Sept. 12, 1980; 53 FR 12122, Apr. 12, 1988; 57 FR 6403, Feb. 24, 1992; 58 FR 35309, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9237, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 33466, June 18, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.110" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.110   Storage and handling of liquefied petroleum gases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) API-ASME container—A container constructed in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) ASME container—A container constructed in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Container assembly—An assembly consisting essentially of the container and fittings for all container openings, including shutoff valves, excess flow valves, liquid-level gaging devices, safety relief devices, and protective housing.
</P>
<P>(4) Containers—All vessels, such as tanks, cylinders, or drums, used for transportation or storing liquefied petroleum gases.
</P>
<P>(5) DOT—Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(6) DOT container—A container constructed in accordance with the applicable requirements of 49 CFR chapter 1.
</P>
<P>(7) “Liquified petroleum gases”—“LPG” and “LP-Gas”—Any material which is composed predominantly of any of the following hydrocarbons, or mixtures of them; propane, propylene, butanes (normal butane or iso-butane), and butylenes.
</P>
<P>(8) Movable fuel storage tenders or farm carts—Containers not in excess of 1,200 gallons water capacity, equipped with wheels to be towed from one location of usage to another. They are basically nonhighway vehicles, but may occasionally be moved over public roads or highways. They are used as a fuel supply for farm tractors, construction machinery and similar equipment.
</P>
<P>(9) P.S.I.G.—pounds per square inch gauge.
</P>
<P>(10) P.S.I.A.—pounds per square inch absolute.
</P>
<P>(11) Systems—an assembly of equipment consisting essentially of the container or containers, major devices such as vaporizers, safety relief valves, excess flow valves, regulators, and piping connecting such parts.
</P>
<P>(12) Vaporizer-burner—an integral vaporizer-burner unit, dependent upon the heat generated by the burner as the source of heat to vaporize the liquid used for dehydrators or dryers.
</P>
<P>(13) Ventilation, adequate—when specified for the prevention of fire during normal operation, ventilation shall be considered adequate when the concentration of the gas in a gas-air mixture does not exceed 25 percent of the lower flammable limit.
</P>
<P>(14) Approved—unless otherwise indicated, listing or approval by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. Refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(15) Listed—see “approved” in § 1910.110(14).
</P>
<P>(16) DOT Specifications—regulations of the Department of Transportation published in 49 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(17)-(18) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(19) DOT cylinders—cylinders meeting the requirements of 49 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic rules</I>—(1) <I>Odorizing gases.</I> (i) All liquefied petroleum gases shall be effectively odorized by an approved agent of such character as to indicate positively, by distinct odor, the presence of gas down to concentration in air of not over one-fifth the lower limit of flammability. Odorization, however, is not required if harmful in the use of further processing of the liquefied petroleum gas, or if odorization will serve no useful purpose as a warning agent in such use or further processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The odorization requirement of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall be considered to be met by the use of 1.0 pounds of ethyl mercaptan, 1.0 pounds of thiophane or 1.4 pounds of amyl mercaptan per 10,000 gallons of LP-Gas. However, this listing of odorants and quantities shall not exclude the use of other odorants that meet the odorization requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval of equipment and systems.</I> (i) Each system utilizing DOT containers in accordance with 49 CFR part 178 shall have its container valves, connectors, manifold valve assemblies, and regulators approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each system for domestic or commercial use utilizing containers of 2,000 gallons or less water capacity, other than those constructed in accordance with 49 CFR part 178, shall consist of a container assembly and one or more regulators, and may include other parts. The system as a unit or the container assembly as a unit, and the regulator or regulators, shall be individually listed.
</P>
<P>(iii) In systems utilizing containers of over 2,000 gallons water capacity, each regulator, container valve, excess flow valve, gaging device, and relief valve installed on or at the container, shall have its correctness as to design, construction, and performance determined by listing by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. Refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for construction and original test of containers.</I> (i) Containers used with systems embodied in paragraphs (d), (e), (g), and (h) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (e)(3)(iii) and (g)(2)(i) of this section, shall be designed, constructed, and tested in accordance with the Rules for Construction of Unfired Pressure Vessels, section VIII, Division 1, American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, 1968 edition, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers constructed according to the 1949 and earlier editions of the ASME Code do not have to comply with paragraphs U-2 through U-10 and U-19 thereof. Containers constructed according to paragraph U-70 in the 1949 and earlier editions are not authorized.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers designed, constructed, and tested prior to July 1, 1961, according to the Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels for Petroleum Liquids and Gases, 1951 edition with 1954 Addenda, of the American Petroleum Institute and the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, shall be considered in conformance. Containers constructed according to API-ASME Code do not have to comply with section I or with appendix to section I. Paragraphs W-601 to W-606 inclusive in the 1943 and earlier editions do not apply.
</P>
<P>(iv) The provisions of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section shall not be construed as prohibiting the continued use or reinstallation of containers constructed and maintained in accordance with the standard for the Storage and Handling of Liquefied Petroleum Gases NFPA No. 58 in effect at the time of fabrication.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers used with systems embodied in paragraph (b), (d)(3)(iii), and (f) of this section, shall be constructed, tested, and stamped in accordance with DOT specifications effective at the date of their manufacture.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Welding of containers.</I> (i) Welding to the shell, head, or any other part of the container subject to internal pressure, shall be done in compliance with the code under which the tank was fabricated. Other welding is permitted only on saddle plates, lugs, or brackets attached to the container by the tank manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where repair or modification involving welding of DOT containers is required, the container shall be returned to a qualified manufacturer making containers of the same type, and the repair or modification made in compliance with DOT regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Markings on containers.</I> (i) Each container covered in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section shall be marked as specified in the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) With a marking identifying compliance with, and other markings required by, the rules of the reference under which the container is constructed; or with the stamp and other markings required by the National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) With notation as to whether the container is designed for underground or aboveground installation or both. If intended for both and different style hoods are provided, the marking shall indicate the proper hood for each type of installation.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) With the name and address of the supplier of the container, or with the trade name of the container.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) With the water capacity of the container in pounds or gallons, U.S. Standard.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) With the pressure in p.s.i.g., for which the container is designed.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) With the wording “This container shall not contain a product having a vapor pressure in excess of __ p.s.i.g. at 100 °F.,” see subparagraph (14)(viii) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) With the tare weight in pounds or other identified unit of weight for containers with a water capacity of 300 pounds or less.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) With marking indicating the maximum level to which the container may be filled with liquid at temperatures between 20 °F. and 130 °F., except on containers provided with fixed maximum level indicators or which are filled by weighing. Markings shall be increments of not more than 20 °F. This marking may be located on the liquid level gaging device.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) With the outside surface area in square feet.
</P>
<P>(ii) Markings specified shall be on a metal nameplate attached to the container and located in such a manner as to remain visible after the container is installed.
</P>
<P>(iii) When LP-Gas and one or more other gases are stored or used in the same area, the containers shall be marked to identify their content. Marking shall conform to the marking requirements set forth in § 1910.253(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Location of containers and regulating equipment.</I> (i) Containers, and first stage regulating equipment if used, shall be located outside of buildings, except under one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) In buildings used exclusively for container charging, vaporization pressure reduction, gas mixing, gas manufacturing, or distribution.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When portable use is necessary and in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) LP-Gas fueled stationary or portable engines in accordance with paragraph (e) (11) or (12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) LP-Gas fueled industrial trucks used in accordance with paragraph (e)(13) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) LP-Gas fueled vehicles garaged in accordance with paragraph (e)(14) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Containers awaiting use or resale when stored in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each individual container shall be located with respect to the nearest important building or group of buildings in accordance with Table H-23.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-23
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Water capacity per container
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Minimum distances
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Containers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Between aboveground containers
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Underground
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aboveground
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 125 gals. 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125 to 250 gals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">251 to 500 gals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 2,000 gals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 feet 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 feet 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,001 to 30,000 gals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30,001 to 70,000 gals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75 feet. 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70,001 to 90,000 gals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 feet. 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the aggregate water capacity of a multi-container installation at a consumer site is 501 gallons or greater, the minimum distance shall comply with the appropriate portion of this table, applying the aggregate capacity rather than the capacity per container. If more than one installation is made, each installation shall be separated from another installation by at least 25 feet. Do not apply the MINIMUM DISTANCES BETWEEN ABOVE-GROUND CONTAINERS to such installations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The above distance requirements may be reduced to not less than 10 feet for a single container of 1,200 gallons water capacity or less, providing such a container is at least 25 feet from any other LP-Gas container of more than 125 gallons water capacity.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> 
<fr>1/4</fr> of sum of diameters of adjacent containers.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Containers installed for use shall not be stacked one above the other.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of buildings devoted exclusively to gas manufacturing and distributing operations, the distances required by Table H-23 may be reduced provided that in no case shall containers of water capacity exceeding 500 gallons be located closer than 10 feet to such gas manufacturing and distributing buildings.
</P>
<P>(vi) Readily ignitible material such as weeds and long dry grass shall be removed within 10 feet of any container.
</P>
<P>(vii) The minimum separation between liquefied petroleum gas containers and flammable liquid tanks shall be 20 feet, and the minimum separation between a container and the centerline of the dike shall be 10 feet. The foregoing provision shall not apply when LP-Gas containers of 125 gallons or less capacity are installed adjacent to Class III flammable liquid tanks of 275 gallons or less capacity.
</P>
<P>(viii) Suitable means shall be taken to prevent the accumulation of flammable liquids under adjacent liquified petroleum gas containers, such as by diking, diversion curbs, or grading.
</P>
<P>(ix) When dikes are used with flammable liquid tanks, no liquefied petroleum gas containers shall be located within the diked area.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Container valves and container accessories.</I> (i) Valves, fittings, and accessories connected directly to the container including primary shutoff valves, shall have a rated working pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g. and shall be of material and design suitable for LP-Gas service. Cast iron shall not be used for container valves, fittings, and accessories. This does not prohibit the use of container valves made of malleable or nodular iron.
</P>
<P>(ii) Connections to containers, except safety relief connections, liquid level gaging devices, and plugged openings, shall have shutoff valves located as close to the container as practicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Excess flow valves, where required shall close automatically at the rated flows of vapor or liquid as specified by the manufacturer. The connections or line including valves, fittings, etc., being protected by an excess flow valve shall have a greater capacity than the rated flow of the excess flow valve.
</P>
<P>(iv) Liquid level gaging devices which are so constructed that outward flow of container contents shall not exceed that passed by a No. 54 drill size opening, need not be equipped with excess flow valves.
</P>
<P>(v) Openings from container or through fittings attached directly on container to which pressure gage connection is made, need not be equipped with shutoff or excess flow valves if such openings are restricted to not larger than No. 54 drill size opening.
</P>
<P>(vi) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(i)(<I>b</I>) of this section, excess flow and back pressure check valves where required by this section shall be located inside of the container or at a point outside where the line enters the container; in the latter case, installation shall be made in such manner that any undue strain beyond the excess flow or back pressure check valve will not cause breakage between the container and such valve.
</P>
<P>(vii) Excess flow valves shall be designed with a bypass, not to exceed a No. 60 drill size opening to allow equalization of pressures.
</P>
<P>(viii) Containers of more than 30 gallons water capacity and less than 2,000 gallons water capacity, filled on a volumetric basis, and manufactured after December 1, 1963, shall be equipped for filling into the vapor space.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Piping—including pipe, tubing, and fittings.</I> (i) Pipe, except as provided in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (g)(10)(iii), of this section shall be wrought iron or steel (black or galvanized), brass, copper, or aluminum alloy. Aluminum alloy pipe shall be at least Schedule 40 in accordance with the specifications for Aluminum Alloy Pipe, American National Standards Institute (ANSI) H38.7-1969 (ASTM, B241-69), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, except that the use of alloy 5456 is prohibited and shall be suitably marked at each end of each length indicating compliance with American National Standard Institute Specifications. Aluminum Alloy pipe shall be protected against external corrosion when it is in contact with dissimilar metals other than galvanized steel, or its location is subject to repeated wetting by such liquids as water (except rain water), detergents, sewage, or leaking from other piping, or it passes through flooring, plaster, masonry, or insulation. Galvanized sheet steel or pipe, galvanized inside and out, may be considered suitable protection. The maximum nominal pipe size for aluminum pipe shall be three-fourths inch and shall not be used for pressures exceeding 20 p.s.i.g. Aluminum alloy pipe shall not be installed within 6 inches of the ground.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Vapor piping with operating pressures not exceeding 125 p.s.i.g. shall be suitable for a working pressure of at least 125 p.s.i.g. Pipe shall be at least Schedule 40 (ASTM A-53-69, Grade B Electric Resistance Welded and Electric Flash Welded Pipe, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, or equal).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Vapor piping with operating pressures over 125 p.s.i.g. and all liquid piping shall be suitable for a working pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g. Pipe shall be at least Schedule 80 if joints are threaded or threaded and back welded. At least Schedule 40 (ASTM A-53-69 Grade B Electric Resistance Welded and Electric Flash Welded Pipe or equal) shall be used if joints are welded, or welded and flanged.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tubing shall be seamless and of copper, brass, steel, or aluminum alloy. Copper tubing shall be of type K or L or equivalent as covered in the Specification for Seamless Copper Water Tube, ANSI H23.1-1970 (ASTM B88-69), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. Aluminum alloy tubing shall be of Type A or B or equivalent as covered in Specification ASTM B210-68 (which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6) and shall be suitably marked every 18 inches indicating compliance with ASTM Specifications. The minimum nominal wall thickness of copper tubing and aluminum alloy tubing shall be as specified in Table H-24 and Table H-25.
</P>
<FP>Aluminum alloy tubing shall be protected against external corrosion when it is in contact with dissimilar metals other than galvanized steel, or its location is subject to repeated wetting by liquids such as water (except rainwater), detergents, sewage, or leakage from other piping, or it passes through flooring, plaster, masonry, or insulation. Galvanized sheet steel or pipe, galvanized inside and out, may be considered suitable protection. The maximum outside diameter for aluminum alloy tubing shall be three-fourths inch and shall not be used for pressures exceeding 20 p.s.i.g. Aluminum alloy tubing shall not be installed within 6 inches of the ground.
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-24—Wall Thickness of Copper Tubing 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Standard size (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nominal outside diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Nominal wall thickness (inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type K
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type L
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.035</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.030
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.035
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.042
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.875</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.045
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.375</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.055
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.060
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.083</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.070
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Based on data in Specification for Seamless Copper Water Tube, ANSI H23.1-1970 (ASTM B-88-69).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> The standard size by which tube is designated is 
<fr>1/8</fr> inch smaller than its nominal outside diameter.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-25—Wall Thickness of Aluminum Alloy Tubing 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Outside diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Nominal wall thickness (inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type B
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr>   </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.035</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr>   </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.035</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr>   </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.042</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr>   </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.058
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Based on data in Standard Specification for Aluminum-Alloy Drawn Seamless Coiled Tubes for Special Purpose Applications, ASTM B210-68.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) In systems where the gas in liquid form without pressure reduction enters the building, only heavy walled seamless brass or copper tubing with an internal diameter not greater than three thirty-seconds inch, and a wall thickness of not less than three sixty-fourths inch shall be used. This requirement shall not apply to research and experimental laboratories, buildings, or separate fire divisions of buildings used exclusively for housing internal combustion engines, and to commercial gas plants or bulk stations where containers are charged, nor to industrial vaporizer buildings, nor to buildings, structures, or equipment under construction or undergoing major renovation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pipe joints may be screwed, flanged, welded, soldered, or brazed with a material having a melting point exceeding 1,000 °F. Joints on seamless copper, brass, steel, or aluminum alloy gas tubing shall be made by means of approved gas tubing fittings, or soldered or brazed with a material having a melting point exceeding 1,000 °F.
</P>
<P>(v) For operating pressures of 125 p.s.i.g. or less, fittings shall be designed for a pressure of at least 125 p.s.i.g. For operating pressures above 125 p.s.i.g., fittings shall be designed for a minimum of 250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(vi) The use of threaded cast iron pipe fittings such as ells, tees, crosses, couplings, and unions is prohibited. Aluminum alloy fittings shall be used with aluminum alloy pipe and tubing. Insulated fittings shall be used where aluminum alloy pipe or tubing connects with a dissimilar metal.
</P>
<P>(vii) Strainers, regulators, meters, compressors, pumps, etc., are not to be considered as pipe fittings. This does not prohibit the use of malleable, nodular, or higher strength gray iron for such equipment.
</P>
<P>(viii) All materials such as valve seats, packing, gaskets, diaphragms, etc., shall be of such quality as to be resistant to the action of liquefied petroleum gas under the service conditions to which they are subjected.
</P>
<P>(ix) All piping, tubing, or hose shall be tested after assembly and proved free from leaks at not less than normal operating pressures. After installation, piping and tubing of all domestic and commercial systems shall be tested and proved free of leaks using a manometer or equivalent device that will indicate a drop in pressure. Test shall not be made with a flame.
</P>
<P>(x) Provision shall be made to compensate for expansion, contraction, jarring, and vibration, and for settling. This may be accomplished by flexible connections.
</P>
<P>(xi) Piping outside buildings may be buried, above ground, or both, but shall be well supported and protected against physical damage. Where soil conditions warrant, all piping shall be protected against corrosion. Where condensation may occur, the piping shall be pitched back to the container, or suitable means shall be provided for revaporization of the condensate.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Hose specifications.</I> (i) Hose shall be fabricated of materials that are resistant to the action of LP-Gas in the liquid and vapor phases. If wire braid is used for reinforcing the hose, it shall be of corrosion-resistant material such as stainless steel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hose subject to container pressure shall be marked “LP-Gas” or “LPG” at not greater than 10-foot intervals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hose subject to container pressure shall be designed for a bursting pressure of not less than 1,250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hose subject to container pressure shall have its correctness as to design construction and performance determined by being listed (see § 1910.110(a)(15)).
</P>
<P>(v) Hose connections subject to container pressure shall be capable of withstanding, without leakage, a test pressure of not less than 500 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(vi) Hose and hose connections on the low-pressure side of the regulator or reducing valve shall be designed for a bursting pressure of not less than 125 p.s.i.g. or five times the set pressure of the relief devices protecting that portion of the system, whichever is higher.
</P>
<P>(vii) Hose may be used on the low-pressure side of regulators to connect to other than domestic and commercial gas appliances under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The appliances connected with hose shall be portable and need a flexible connection.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For use inside buildings the hose shall be of minimum practical length, but shall not exceed 6 feet except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(i)(<I>g</I>) of this section and shall not extend from one room to another, nor pass through any walls, partitions, ceilings, or floors. Such hose shall not be concealed from view or used in a concealed location. For use outside of buildings, the hose may exceed this length but shall be kept as short as practical.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The hose shall be approved and shall not be used where it is likely to be subjected to temperatures above 125 °F. The hose shall be securely connected to the appliance and the use of rubber slip ends shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The shutoff valve for an appliance connected by hose shall be in the metal pipe or tubing and not at the appliance end of the hose. When shutoff valves are installed close to each other, precautions shall be taken to prevent operation of the wrong valve.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Hose used for connecting to wall outlets shall be protected from physical damage.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Safety devices.</I> (i) Every container except those constructed in accordance with DOT specifications and every vaporizer (except motor fuel vaporizers and except vaporizers described in paragraph (b)(11)(ii)(<I>c</I>) of this section and paragraph (d)(4)(v)(<I>a</I>) of this section) whether heated by artificial means or not, shall be provided with one or more safety relief valves of spring-loaded or equivalent type. These valves shall be arranged to afford free vent to the outer air with discharge not less than 5 feet horizontally away from any opening into the building which is below such discharge. The rate of discharge shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(10)(ii) or (b)(10)(iii) of this section in the case of vaporizers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimum required rate of discharge in cubic feet per minute of air at 120 percent of the maximum permitted start to discharge pressure for safety relief valves to be used on containers other than those constructed in accordance with DOT specification shall be as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Surface area (sq. ft.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow rate CFM air
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">626
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">751
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">872
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">990
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,330
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,430
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,540
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,640
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,950
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,340
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,440
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,530
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,630
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,720
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,810
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,990
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,170
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,260
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,350
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,440
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,530
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,620
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,790
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,960
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">195</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,470
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,630
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,960
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,290
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,450
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,760
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">310</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,920
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,230
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">340</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,540
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,690
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,840
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">390</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,760
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,470
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,170
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,860
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,550
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,540
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,190
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,830
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,470
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,720
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,350
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,960
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,380
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,980
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,160
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,740
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,320
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,470
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,620
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,310</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Surface area = total outside surface area of container in square feet.
</FP-2>
<P>When the surface area is not stamped on the nameplate or when the marking is not legible, the area can be calculated by using one of the following formulas:
</P>
<P>(1) Cylindrical container with hemispherical heads:
</P>
<FP-2>Area = Overall length × outside diameter × 3.1416.
</FP-2>
<P>(2) Cylindrical container with other than hemispherical heads:
</P>
<FP-2>Area = (Overall length + 0.3 outside diameter) × outside diameter × 3.1416.
</FP-2>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This formula is not exact, but will give results within the limits of practical accuracy for the sole purpose of sizing relief valves.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) Spherical container:
</P>
<FP-2>Area = Outside diameter squared × 3.1416.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Flow Rate-CFM Air = Required flow capacity in cubic feet per minute of air at standard conditions, 60 F. and atmospheric pressure (14.7 p.s.i.a.).
</FP-2>
<P>The rate of discharge may be interpolated for intermediate values of surface area. For containers with total outside surface area greater than 2,000 square feet, the required flow rate can be calculated using the formula, Flow Rate-CFM Air = 53.632 A0.82.
</P>
<P>A = total outside surface area of the container in square feet.
</P>
<P>Valves not marked “Air” have flow rate marking in cubic feet per minute of liquefied petroleum gas. These can be converted to ratings in cubic feet per minute of air by multiplying the liquefied petroleum gas ratings by factors listed below. Air flow ratings can be converted to ratings in cubic feet per minute of liquefied petroleum gas by dividing the air ratings by the factors listed below.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Air Conversion Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Container type</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air conversion factor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.078</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.010</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Minimum Required Rate of Discharge for Safety Relief Valves for Liquefied Petroleum Gas Vaporizers (Steam Heated, Water Heated, and Direct Fired).
</P>
<FP>The minimum required rate of discharge for safety relief valves shall be determined as follows:
</FP>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Obtain the total surface area by adding the surface area of vaporizer shell in square feet directly in contact with LP-Gas and the heat exchanged surface area in square feet directly in contact with LP-Gas.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Obtain the minimum required rate of discharge in cubic feet of air per minute, at 60 °F. and 14.7 p.s.i.a. from paragraph (b)(10)(ii) of this section, for this total surface area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Container and vaporizer safety relief valves shall be set to start-to-discharge, with relation to the design pressure of the container, in accordance with Table H-26.
</P>
<P>(v) Safety relief devices used with systems employing containers other than those constructed according to DOT specifications shall be so constructed as to discharge at not less than the rates shown in paragraph (b)(10)(ii) of this section, before the pressure is in excess of 120 percent of the maximum (not including the 10 percent referred to in paragraph (b)(10)(iv) of this section) permitted start to discharge pressure setting of the device.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-26
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Containers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ASME Code; Par. U-68, U-69—1949 and earlier editions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ASME Code; Par. U-200, U-201—1949 edition</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ASME Code—1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965 and 1968 (Division I) editions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">API—ASME Code—all editions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DOT—As prescribed in 49 CFR Chapter I
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Manufacturers of safety relief valves are allowed a plus tolerance not exceeding 10 percent of the set pressure marked on the valve.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) In certain locations sufficiently sustained high temperatures prevail which require the use of a lower vapor pressure product to be stored or the use of a higher designed pressure vessel in order to prevent the safety valves opening as the result of these temperatures. As an alternative the tanks may be protected by cooling devices such as by spraying, by shading, or other effective means.
</P>
<P>(vii) Safety relief valves shall be arranged so that the possibility of tampering will be minimized. If pressure setting or adjustment is external, the relief valves shall be provided with approved means for sealing adjustment.
</P>
<P>(viii) Shutoff valves shall not be installed between the safety relief devices and the container, or the equipment or piping to which the safety relief device is connected except that a shutoff valve may be used where the arrangement of this valve is such that full required capacity flow through the safety relief device is always afforded.
</P>
<P>(ix) Safety relief valves shall have direct communication with the vapor space of the container at all times.
</P>
<P>(x) Each container safety relief valve used with systems covered by paragraphs (d), (e), (g), and (h) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section shall be plainly and permanently marked with the following: “Container Type” of the pressure vessel on which the valve is designed to be installed; the pressure in p.s.i.g. at which the valve is set to discharge; the actual rate of discharge of the valve in cubic feet per minute of air at 60 °F. and 14.7 p.s.i.a.; and the manufacturer's name and catalog number, for example: T200-250-4050 AIR—indicating that the valve is suitable for use on a Type 200 container, that it is set to start to discharge at 250 p.s.i.g.; and that its rate of discharge is 4,050 cubic feet per minute of air as determined in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(xi) Safety relief valve assemblies, including their connections, shall be of sufficient size so as to provide the rate of flow required for the container on which they are installed.
</P>
<P>(xii) A hydrostatic relief valve shall be installed between each pair of shut-off valves on liquefied petroleum gas liquid piping so as to relieve into a safe atmosphere. The start-to-discharge pressure setting of such relief valves shall not be in excess of 500 p.s.i.g. The minimum setting on relief valves installed in piping connected to other than DOT containers shall not be lower than 140 percent of the container relief valve setting and in piping connected to DOT containers not lower than 400 p.s.i.g. The start-to-discharge pressure setting of such a relief valve, if installed on the discharge side of a pump, shall be greater than the maximum pressure permitted by the recirculation device in the system.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The discharge from any safety relief device shall not terminate in or beneath any building, except relief devices covered by paragraphs (b)(6)(i) (<I>a</I>) through (<I>e</I>) of this section, or paragraphs (c) (4)(i) or (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Container safety relief devices and regulator relief vents shall be located not less than five (5) feet in any direction from air openings into sealed combustion system appliances or mechanical ventilation air intakes.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Vaporizer and housing.</I> (i) Indirect fired vaporizers utilizing steam, water, or other heating medium shall be constructed and installed as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Vaporizers shall be constructed in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) (i)-(iii) of this section and shall be permanently marked as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) With the code marking signifying the specifications to which the vaporizer is constructed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) With the allowable working pressure and temperature for which the vaporizer is designed.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) With the sum of the outside surface area and the inside heat exchange surface area expressed in square feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) With the name or symbol of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Vaporizers having an inside diameter of 6 inches or less exempted by the ASME Unfired Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code—1968 shall have a design pressure not less than 250 p.s.i.g. and need not be permanently marked.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Heating or cooling coils shall not be installed inside a storage container.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Vaporizers may be installed in buildings, rooms, sheds, or lean-tos used exclusively for gas manufacturing or distribution, or in other structures of light, noncombustible construction or equivalent, well ventilated near the floor line and roof.
</P>
<FP>When vaporizing and/or mixing equipment is located in a structure or building not used exclusively for gas manufacturing or distribution, either attached to or within such a building, such structure or room shall be separated from the remainder of the building by a wall designed to withstand a static pressure of at least 100 pounds per square foot. This wall shall have no openings or pipe or conduit passing through it. Such structure or room shall be provided with adequate ventilation and shall have a roof or at least one exterior wall of lightweight construction.
</FP>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Vaporizers shall have, at or near the discharge, a safety relief valve providing an effective rate of discharge in accordance with paragraph (b)(10)(iii) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (d)(4)(v)(<I>a</I>), of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The heating medium lines into and leaving the vaporizer shall be provided with suitable means for preventing the flow of gas into the heat systems in the event of tube rupture in the vaporizer. Vaporizers shall be provided with suitable automatic means to prevent liquid passing through the vaporizers to the gas discharge piping.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The device that supplies the necessary heat for producing steam, hot water, or other heating medium may be installed in a building, compartment, room, or lean-to which shall be ventilated near the floorline and roof to the outside. The device location shall be separated from all compartments or rooms containing liquefied petroleum gas vaporizers, pumps, and central gas mixing devices by a wall designed to withstand a static pressure of at least 100 pounds per square foot. This wall shall have no openings or pipes or conduit passing through it. This requirement does not apply to the domestic water heaters which may supply heat for a vaporizer in a domestic system.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Gas-fired heating systems supplying heat exclusively for vaporization purposes shall be equipped with automatic safety devices to shut off the flow of gas to main burners, if the pilot light should fail.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Vaporizers may be an integral part of a fuel storage container directly connected to the liquid section or gas section or both.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Vaporizers shall not be equipped with fusible plugs.
</P>
<P>(<I>k</I>) Vaporizer houses shall not have unprotected drains to sewers or sump pits.
</P>
<P>(ii) Atmospheric vaporizers employing heat from the ground or surrounding air shall be installed as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Buried underground, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Located inside the building close to a point at which pipe enters the building provided the capacity of the unit does not exceed 1 quart.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Vaporizers of less than 1 quart capacity heated by the ground or surrounding air, need not be equipped with safety relief valves provided that adequate tests demonstrate that the assembly is safe without safety relief valves.
</P>
<P>(iii) Direct gas-fired vaporizers shall be constructed, marked, and installed as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>) In accordance with the requirements of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code—1968 that are applicable to the maximum working conditions for which the vaporizer is designed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) With the name of the manufacturer; rated BTU input to the burner; the area of the heat exchange surface in square feet; the outside surface of the vaporizer in square feet; and the maximum vaporizing capacity in gallons per hour.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>)(<I>1</I>) Vaporizers may be connected to the liquid section or the gas section of the storage container, or both; but in any case there shall be at the container a manually operated valve in each connection to permit completely shutting off when desired, of all flow of gas or liquid from container to vaporizer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Vaporizers with capacity not exceeding 35 gallons per hour shall be located at least 5 feet from container shutoff valves. Vaporizers having capacity of more than 35 gallons but not exceeding 100 gallons per hour shall be located at least 10 feet from the container shutoff valves. Vaporizers having a capacity greater than 100 gallons per hour shall be located at least 15 feet from container shutoff valves.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Vaporizers may be installed in buildings, rooms, housings, sheds, or lean-tos used exclusively for vaporizing or mixing of liquefied petroleum gas. Vaporizing housing structures shall be of noncombustible construction, well ventilated near the floorline and the highest point of the roof. When vaporizer and/or mixing equipment is located in a structure or room attached to or within a building, such structure or room shall be separated from the remainder of the building by a wall designed to withstand a static pressure of at least 100 pounds per square foot. This wall shall have no openings or pipes or conduit passing through it. Such structure or room shall be provided with adequate ventilation, and shall have a roof or at least one exterior wall of lightweight construction.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Vaporizers shall have at or near the discharge, a safety relief valve providing an effective rate of discharge in accordance with paragraph (b)(10)(iii) of this section. The relief valve shall be so located as not to be subjected to temperatures in excess of 140 °F.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Vaporizers shall be provided with suitable automatic means to prevent liquid passing from the vaporizer to the gas discharge piping of the vaporizer.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Vaporizers shall be provided with means for manually turning off the gas to the main burner and pilot.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Vaporizers shall be equipped with automatic safety devices to shut off the flow of gas to main burners if the pilot light should fail. When the flow through the pilot exceeds 2,000 B.t.u. per hour, the pilot also shall be equipped with an automatic safety device to shut off the flow of gas to the pilot should the pilot flame be extinguished.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Pressure regulating and pressure reducing equipment if located within 10 feet of a direct fire vaporizer shall be separated from the open flame by a substantially airtight noncombustible partition or partitions.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Except as provided in (<I>c</I>) of this subdivision, the following minimum distances shall be maintained between direct fired vaporizers and the nearest important building or group of buildings:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ten feet for vaporizers having a capacity of 15 gallons per hour or less vaporizing capacity.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Twenty-five feet for vaporizers having a vaporizing capacity of 16 to 100 gallons per hour.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fifty feet for vaporizers having a vaporizing capacity exceeding 100 gallons per hour.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Direct fired vaporizers shall not raise the product pressure above the design pressure of the vaporizer equipment nor shall they raise the product pressure within the storage container above the pressure shown in the second column of Table H-31.
</P>
<P>(<I>k</I>) Vaporizers shall not be provided with fusible plugs.
</P>
<P>(<I>l</I>) Vaporizers shall not have unprotected drains to sewers or sump pits.
</P>
<P>(iv) Direct gas-fired tank heaters shall be constructed and installed as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Direct gas-fired tank heaters, and tanks to which they are applied, shall only be installed above ground.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Tank heaters shall be permanently marked with the name of the manufacturer, the rated B.t.u. input to the burner, and the maximum vaporizing capacity in gallons per hour.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Tank heaters may be an integral part of a fuel storage container directly connected to the container liquid section, or vapor section, or both.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Tank heaters shall be provided with a means for manually turning off the gas to the main burner and pilot.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Tank heaters shall be equipped with an automatic safety device to shut off the flow of gas to main burners, if the pilot light should fail. When flow through pilot exceeds 2,000 B.t.u. per hour, the pilot also shall be equipped with an automatic safety device to shut off the flow of gas to the pilot should the pilot flame be extinguished.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Pressure regulating and pressure reducing equipment if located within 10 feet of a direct fired tank heater shall be separated from the open flame by a substantially airtight noncombustible partition.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The following minimum distances shall be maintained between a storage tank heated by a direct fired tank heater and the nearest important building or group of buildings:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Ten feet for storage containers of less than 500 gallons water capacity.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Twenty-five feet for storage containers of 500 to 1,200 gallons water capacity.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fifty feet for storage containers of over 1,200 gallons water capacity.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>h</I>) No direct fired tank heater shall raise the product pressure within the storage container over 75 percent of the pressure set out in the second column of Table H-31.
</P>
<P>(v) The vaporizer section of vaporizer-burners used for dehydrators or dryers shall be located outside of buildings; they shall be constructed and installed as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Vaporizer-burners shall have a minimum design pressure of 250 p.s.i.g. with a factor of safety of five.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Manually operated positive shut-off valves shall be located at the containers to shut off all flow to the vaporizer-burners.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Minimum distances between storage containers and vaporizer-burners shall be as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water capacity per container (gallons)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum distances (feet)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 501</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The vaporizer section of vaporizer-burners shall be protected by a hydrostatic relief valve. The relief valve shall be located so as not to be subjected to temperatures in excess of 140 °F. The start-to-discharge pressure setting shall be such as to protect the components involved, but not less than 250 p.s.i.g. The discharge shall be directed upward and away from component parts of the equipment and away from operating personnel.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Vaporizer-burners shall be provided with means for manually turning off the gas to the main burner and pilot.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Vaporizer-burners shall be equipped with automatic safety devices to shut off the flow of gas to the main burner and pilot in the event the pilot is extinguished.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Pressure regulating and control equipment shall be located or protected so that the temperatures surrounding this equipment shall not exceed 140 °F. except that equipment components may be used at higher temperatures if designed to withstand such temperatures.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Pressure regulating and control equipment when located downstream of the vaporizer shall be designed to withstand the maximum discharge temperature of the vapor.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The vaporizer section of vaporizer-burners shall not be provided with fusible plugs.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Vaporizer coils or jackets shall be made of ferrous metal or high temperature alloys.
</P>
<P>(<I>k</I>) Equipment utilizing vaporizer-burners shall be equipped with automatic shutoff devices upstream and downstream of the vaporizer section connected so as to operate in the event of excessive temperature, flame failure, and, if applicable, insufficient airflow.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Filling densities.</I> (i) The “filling density” is defined as the percent ratio of the weight of the gas in a container to the weight of water the container will hold at 60 °F. All containers shall be filled according to the filling densities shown in Table H-27.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-27—Maximum Permitted Filling Density
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Specific gravity at 60 °F. (15.6 °C.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Above ground containers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Under ground containers, all capacities
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0 to 1,200 U.S. gals. (1,000 imp. gal., 4,550 liters) total water cap.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Over 1,200 U.S. gals. (1,000 imp. gal., 4,550 liters) total water cap.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Percent </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Percent </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Percent 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 .496-0 .503</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .504- .510</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .511- .519</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .520- .527</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .528- .536</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .537- .544</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .545- .552</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .553- .560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .561- .568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .569- .576</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .577- .584</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .585- .592</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> .593- .600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(12)(iii) of this section, any container including mobile cargo tanks and portable tank containers regardless of size or construction, shipped under DOT jurisdiction or constructed in accordance with 49 CFR chapter I Specifications shall be charged according to 49 CFR chapter I requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Portable containers not subject to DOT jurisdiction (such as, but not limited to, motor fuel containers on industrial and lift trucks, and farm tractors covered in paragraph (e) of this section, or containers recharged at the installation) may be filled either by weight, or by volume using a fixed length dip tube gaging device.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>LP-Gas in buildings.</I> (i) Vapor shall be piped into buildings at pressures in excess of 20 p.s.i.g. only if the buildings or separate areas thereof, (<I>a</I>) are constructed in accordance with this section; (<I>b</I>) are used excusively to house equipment for vaporization, pressure reduction, gas mixing, gas manufacturing, or distribution, or to house internal combustion engines, industrial processes, research and experimental laboratories, or equipment and processes using such gas and having similar hazard; (<I>c</I>) buildings, structures, or equipment under construction or undergoing major renovation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liquid may be permitted in buildings as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Buildings, or separate areas of buildings, used exclusively to house equipment for vaporization, pressure reduction, gas mixing, gas manufacturing, or distribution, or to house internal combustion engines, industrial processes, research and experimental laboratories, or equipment and processes using such gas and having similar hazard; and when such buildings, or separate areas thereof are constructed in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Buildings, structures, or equipment under construction or undergoing major renovation provided the temporary piping meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Liquid piping inside the building shall conform to the requirements of paragraph (b)(8) of this section, and shall not exceed three-fourths iron pipe size. Copper tubing with an outside diameter of three-fourths inch or less may be used provided it conforms to Type K of Specifications for Seamless Water Tube, ANSI H23.1-1970 (ASTM B88-69) (see Table H-24). All such piping shall be protected against construction hazards. Liquid piping inside buildings shall be kept to a minimum. Such piping shall be securely fastened to walls or other surfaces so as to provide adequate protection from breakage and so located as to subject the liquid line to lowest ambient temperatures.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A shutoff valve shall be installed in each intermediate branch line where it takes off the main line and shall be readily accessible. A shutoff valve shall also be placed at the appliance end of the intermediate branch line. Such shutoff valve shall be upstream of any flexible connector used with the appliance.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Suitable excess flow valves shall be installed in the container outlet line supplying liquid LP-Gas to the building. A suitable excess flow valve shall be installed immediately downstream of each shutoff valve. Suitable excess flow valves shall be installed where piping size is reduced and shall be sized for the reduced size piping.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Hydrostatic relief valves shall be installed in accordance with paragraph (b)(10)(xii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The use of hose to carry liquid between the container and the building or at any point in the liquid line, except at the appliance connector, shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Where flexible connectors are necessary for appliance installation, such connectors shall be as short as practicable and shall comply with paragraph (b)(8)(ii) or (9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Release of fuel when any section of piping or appliances is disconnected shall be minimized by either of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Using an approved automatic quick-closing coupling (a type closing in both directions when coupled in the fuel line), or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Closing the valve nearest to the appliance and allowing the appliance to operate until the fuel in the line is consumed.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Portable containers shall not be taken into buildings except as provided in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Transfer of liquids.</I> The employer shall assure that (i) at least one attendant shall remain close to the transfer connection from the time the connections are first made until they are finally disconnected, during the transfer of the product.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers shall be filled or used only upon authorization of the owner.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers manufactured in accordance with specifications of 49 CFR part 178 and authorized by 49 CFR chapter 1 as a “single trip” or “nonrefillable container” shall not be refilled or reused in LP-Gas service.
</P>
<P>(iv) Gas or liquid shall not be vented to the atmosphere to assist in transferring contents of one container to another, except as provided in paragraph (e)(5)(iv) of this section and except that this shall not preclude the use of listed pump utilizing LP-Gas in the vapor phase as a source of energy and venting such gas to the atmosphere at a rate not to exceed that from a No. 31 drill size opening and provided that such venting and liquid transfer shall be located not less than 50 feet from the nearest important building.
</P>
<P>(v) Filling of fuel containers for industrial trucks or motor vehicles from industrial bulk storage containers shall be performed not less than 10 feet from the nearest important masonry-walled building or not less than 25 feet from the nearest important building or other construction and, in any event, not less than 25 feet from any building opening.
</P>
<P>(vi) Filling of portable containers, containers mounted on skids, fuel containers on farm tractors, or similar applications, from storage containers used in domestic or commercial service, shall be performed not less than 50 feet from the nearest important building.
</P>
<P>(vii) The filling connection and the vent from the liquid level gages in containers, filled at point of installation, shall not be less than 10 feet in any direction from air openings into sealed combustion system appliances or mechanical ventilation air intakes.
</P>
<P>(viii) Fuel supply containers shall be gaged and charged only in the open air or in buildings especially provided for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(ix) The maximum vapor pressure of the product at 100 °F. which may be transferred into a container shall be in accordance with paragraphs (d)(2) and (e)(3) of this section. (For DOT containers use DOT requirements.)
</P>
<P>(x) Marketers and users shall exercise precaution to assure that only those gases for which the system is designed, examined, and listed, are employed in its operation, particularly with regard to pressures.
</P>
<P>(xi) Pumps or compressors shall be designed for use with LP-Gas. When compressors are used they shall normally take suction from the vapor space of the container being filled and discharge to the vapor space of the container being emptied.
</P>
<P>(xii) Pumping systems, when equipped with a positive displacement pump, shall include a recirculating device which shall limit the differential pressure on the pump under normal operating conditions to the maximum differential pressure rating of the pump. The discharge of the pumping system shall be protected so that pressure does not exceed 350 p.s.i.g. If a recirculation system discharges into the supply tank and contains a manual shutoff valve, an adequate secondary safety recirculation system shall be incorporated which shall have no means of rendering it inoperative. Manual shutoff valves in recirculation systems shall be kept open except during an emergency or when repairs are being made to the system.
</P>
<P>(xiii) When necessary, unloading piping or hoses shall be provided with suitable bleeder valves for relieving pressure before disconnection.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Agricultural air moving equipment, including crop dryers, shall be shut down when supply containers are being filled unless the air intakes and sources of ignition on the equipment are located 50 feet or more from the container.
</P>
<P>(xv) Agricultural equipment employing open flames or equipment with integral containers, such as flame cultivators, weed burners, and, in addition, tractors, shall be shut down during refueling.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Tank car or transport truck loading or unloading points and operations.</I> (i) The track of tank car siding shall be relatively level.
</P>
<P>(ii) A “Tank Car Connected” sign, as covered by DOT rules, shall be installed at the active end or ends of the siding while the tank car is connected.
</P>
<P>(iii) While cars are on sidetrack for loading or unloading, the wheels at both ends shall be blocked on the rails.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall insure that an employee is in attendance at all times while the tank car, cars, or trucks are being loaded or unloaded.
</P>
<P>(v) A backflow check valve, excess-flow valve, or a shutoff valve with means of remote closing, to protect against uncontrolled discharge of LP-Gas from storage tank piping shall be installed close to the point where the liquid piping and hose or swing joint pipe is connected.
</P>
<P>(vi) Where practical, the distance of the unloading or loading point shall conform to the distances in subparagraph (6)(ii) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Instructions.</I> Personnel performing installation, removal, operation, and maintenance work shall be properly trained in such function.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Electrical equipment and other sources of ignition.</I> (i) Electrical equipment and wiring shall be of a type specified by and shall be installed in accordance with subpart S of this part, for ordinary locations except that fixed electrical equipment in classified areas shall comply with subparagraph (18) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Open flames or other sources of ignition shall not be permitted in vaporizer rooms (except those housing direct-fired vaporizers), pumphouses, container charging rooms or other similar locations. Direct-fired vaporizers shall not be permitted in pumphouses or container charging rooms.
</P>
<P>(iii) Liquefied petroleum gas storage containers do not require lightning protection.
</P>
<P>(iv) Since liquefied petroleum gas is contained in a closed system of piping and equipment, the system need not be electrically conductive or electrically bonded for protection against static electricity.
</P>
<P>(v) Open flames (except as provided for in paragraph (b)(11) of this section), cutting or welding, portable electric tools, and extension lights capable of igniting LP-Gas, shall not be permitted within classified areas specified in Table H-28 unless the LP-Gas facilities have been freed of all liquid and vapor, or special precautions observed under carefully controlled conditions.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-28
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Part
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Location
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Extent of classified area 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment shall be suitable for Class 1, Group D 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Storage containers other than DOT cylinders</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 15 feet in all directions from connections, except connections otherwise covered in Table H-28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tank vehicle and tank car loading and unloading 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 5 feet in all directions from connections regularly made or disconnected for product transfer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beyond 5 feet but within 15 feet in all directions from a point where connections are regularly made or disconnected and within the cylindrical volume between the horizontal equator of the sphere and grade. (See Figure H-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gage vent openings other than those on DOT cylinders</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 5 feet in all directions from point of discharge
<br/>Beyond 5 feet but within 15 feet in all directions from point of discharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Relief valve discharge other than those on DOT cylinders</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within direct path of discharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 5 feet in all directions from point of discharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beyond 5 feet but within 15 feet in all directions from point of discharge except within the direct path of discharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pumps, compressors, gas-air mixers and vaporizers other than direct fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoors without ventilation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire room and any adjacent room not separated by a gastight partition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 15 feet of the exterior side of any exterior wall or roof that is not vaportight or within 15 feet of any exterior opening</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoors with adequate ventilation 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire room and any adjacent room not separated by a gastight partition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outdoors in open air at or abovegrade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 15 feet in all directions from this equipment and within the cylindrical volume between the horizontal equator of the sphere and grade. See Figure H-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service Station Dispensing Units</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire space within dispenser enclosure, and 18 inches horizontally from enclosure exterior up to an elevation 4 ft. above dispenser base. Entire pit or open space beneath dispenser</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 18 inches abovegrade within 20 ft. horizontally from any edge of enclosure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="04">Note:</E> For pits within this area, see part F of this table.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">G</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pits or trenches containing or located beneath LP-Gas valves, pumps, compressors, regulators, and similar equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Without mechanical ventilation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire pit or trench</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire room and any adjacent room not separated by a gastight partition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 15 feet in all directions from pit or trench when located outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">With adequate mechanical ventilation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire pit or trench</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire room and any adjacent room not separated by a gastight partition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 15 feet in all directions from pit or trench when located outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special buildings or rooms for storage of portable containers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire room</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pipelines and connections containing operational bleeds, drips, vents or drains</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 5 ft. in all directions from point of discharge
<br/>Beyond 5 ft. from point of discharge, same as part E of this table</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">J</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Container filling:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoors without ventilation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entire room</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoors with adequate ventilation 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 5 feet in all directions from connections regularly made or disconnected for product transfer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beyond 5 feet and entire room</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outdoors in open air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 5 feet in all directions from connections regularly made or disconnected for product transfer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beyond 5 feet but within 15 feet in all directions from a point where connections are regularly made or disconnected and within the cylindrical volume between the horizontal equator of the sphere and grade. (See Figure H-1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Division 2.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The classified area shall not extend beyond an unpierced wall, roof, or solid vaportight partition.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> See subpart S of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> When classifying extent of hazardous area, consideration shall be given to possible variations in the spotting of tank cars and tank vehicles at the unloading points and the effect these variations of actual spotting point may have on the point of connection.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Ventilation, either natural or mechanical, is considered adequate when the concentration of the gas in a gas-air mixture does not exceed 25 percent of the lower flammable limit under normal operating conditions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.025.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure H-1</E></BCAP>
<P>(18) <I>Fixed electrical equipment in classified areas.</I> Fixed electrical equipment and wiring installed within classified areas specified in Table H-28 shall comply with Table H-28 and shall be installed in accordance with subpart S of this part. This provision does not apply to fixed electrical equipment at residential or commercial installations of LP-Gas systems or to systems covered by paragraph (e) or (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Liquid-level gaging device.</I> (i) Each container manufactured after December 31, 1965, and filled on a volumetric basis shall be equipped with a fixed liquid-level gage to indicate the maximum permitted filling level as provided in paragraph (b)(19)(v) of this section. Each container manufactured after December 31, 1969, shall have permanently attached to the container adjacent to the fixed level gage a marking showing the percentage full that will be shown by that gage. When a variable liquid-level gage is also provided, the fixed liquid-level gage will also serve as a means for checking the variable gage. These gages shall be used in charging containers as required in paragraph (b)(12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) All variable gaging devices shall be arranged so that the maximum liquid level for butane, for a 50-50 mixture of butane and propane, and for propane, to which the container may be charged is readily determinable. The markings indicating the various liquid levels from empty to full shall be on the system nameplate or gaging device or part may be on the system nameplate and part on the gaging device. Dials of magnetic or rotary gages shall show whether they are for cylindrical or spherical containers and whether for aboveground or underground service. The dials of gages intended for use only on aboveground containers of over 1,200 gallons water capacity shall be so marked.
</P>
<P>(iii) Gaging devices that require bleeding of the product to the atmosphere, such as the rotary tube, fixed tube, and slip tube, shall be designed so that the bleed valve maximum opening is not larger than a No. 54 drill size, unless provided with excess flow valve.
</P>
<P>(iv) Gaging devices shall have a design working pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(v) Length of tube or position of fixed liquid-level gage shall be designed to indicate the maximum level to which the container may be filled for the product contained. This level shall be based on the volume of the product at 40 °F. at its maximum permitted filling density for aboveground containers and at 50 °F. for underground containers. The employer shall calculate the filling point for which the fixed liquid level gage shall be designed according to the method in this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) It is impossible to set out in a table the length of a fixed dip tube for various capacity tanks because of the varying tank diameters and lengths and because the tank may be installed either in a vertical or horizontal position. Knowing the maximum permitted filling volume in gallons, however, the length of the fixed tube can be determined by the use of a strapping table obtained from the container manufacturer. The length of the fixed tube should be such that when its lower end touches the surface of the liquid in the container, the contents of the container will be the maximum permitted volume as determined by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>[(Water capacity (gals.) of container* × filling density**) ÷ (Specific gravity of LP-Gas* × volume correction factor × 100)] = Maximum volume of LP-Gas
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<P>*Measured at 60 °F.
</P>
<P>**From subparagraph (12) of this paragraph “Filling Densities.”
</P>
<P>For aboveground containers the liquid temperature is assumed to be 40 °F. and for underground containers the liquid temperature is assumed to be 50 °F. To correct the liquid volumes at these temperatures to 60 °F. the following factors shall be used.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Formula for determining maximum volume of liquefied petroleum gas for which a fixed length of dip tube shall be set:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-29—Volume Correction Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specific gravity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aboveground
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Underground
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.033</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.017
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.510</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.031</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.016
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.520</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.029</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.014
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.010</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The maximum volume of LP-Gas which can be placed in a container when determining the length of the dip tube expressed as a percentage of total water content of the container is calculated by the following formula.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The maximum weight of LP-Gas which may be placed in a container <I>for determining the length of a fixed dip tube</I> is determined by multiplying the maximum volume of liquefied petroleum gas obtained by the formula in paragraph (b)(19)(<I>b</I>) of this section by the pounds of liquefied petroleum gas in a gallon at 40 °F. for abovegound and at 50 °F. for underground containers. For example, typical pounds per gallon are specified below:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>Assume a 100-gallon total water capacity tank for aboveground storage of propane having a specific gravity of 0.510 of 60 °F.
</PSPACE>
<FP-2>[(100 (gals.) × 42 (filling density from subparagraph (12) of this paragraph)) ÷ (0.510 × 1.031 (correction factor from Table H-29) × 100)] = (4200 ÷ 52.6)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(4200 ÷ 52.6) = 79.8 gallons propane, the maximum amount permitted to be placed in a 100-gallon total water capacity aboveground container equipped with a fixed dip tube.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>[(Maximum volume of LP-Gas (from formula in subdivision (<I>b</I>) of this subdivision) × 100) ÷ Total water content of container in gallons] = Maximum percent of LP-Gas</FP-2></EXAMPLE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aboveground, pounds per gallon
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Underground, pounds per gallon
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N Butane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.92</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) Fixed liquid-level gages used on containers other than DOT containers shall be stamped on the exterior of the gage with the letters “DT” followed by the vertical distance (expressed in inches and carried out to one decimal place) from the top of container to the end of the dip tube or to the centerline of the gage when it is located at the maximum permitted filling level. For portable containers that may be filled in the horizontal and/or vertical position the letters “DT” shall be followed by “V” with the vertical distance from the top of the container to the end of the dip tube for vertical filling and with “H” followed by the proper distance for horizontal filling. For DOT containers the stamping shall be placed both on the exterior of the gage and on the container. On above-ground or cargo containers where the gages are positioned at specific levels, the marking may be specified in percent of total tank contents and the marking shall be stamped on the container.
</P>
<P>(vii) Gage glasses of the columnar type shall be restricted to charging plants where the fuel is withdrawn in the liquid phase only. They shall be equipped with valves having metallic handwheels, with excess flow valves, and with extra-heavy glass adequately protected with a metal housing applied by the gage manufacturer. They shall be shielded against the direct rays of the sun. Gage glasses of the columnar type are prohibited on tank trucks, and on motor fuel tanks, and on containers used in domestic, commercial, and industrial installations.
</P>
<P>(viii) Gaging devices of the float, or equivalent type which do not require flow for their operation and having connections extending to a point outside the container do not have to be equipped with excess flow valves provided the piping and fittings are adequately designed to withstand the container pressure and are properly protected against physical damage and breakage.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Requirements for appliances.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(20)(ii) of this section, new commercial and industrial gas consuming appliances shall be approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any appliance that was originally manufactured for operation with a gaseous fuel other than LP-Gas and is in good condition may be used with LP-Gas only after it is properly converted, adapted, and tested for performance with LP-Gas before the appliance is placed in use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unattended heaters used inside buildings for the purpose of animal or poultry production or care shall be equipped with an approved automatic device designed to shut off the flow of gas to the main burners, and pilot if used, in the event of flame extinguishment.
</P>
<P>(iv) All commercial, industrial, and agricultural appliances or equipment shall be installed in accordance with the requirements of this section and in accordance with the following NFPA consensus standards, which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Domestic and commercial appliances—NFPA 54-1969, Standard for the Installation of Gas Appliances and Gas Piping.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Industrial appliances—NFPA 54A-1969, Standard for the Installation of Gas Piping and Gas Equipment on Industrial Premises and Certain Other Premises.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Standard for the Installation and Use of Stationary Combustion Engines and Gas Turbines—NFPA 37-1970.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Standard for the Installation of Equipment for the Removal of Smoke and Grease-Laden Vapors from Commercial Cooking Equipment, NFPA 96-1970.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cylinder systems</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph applies specifically to systems utilizing containers constructed in accordance with DOT Specifications. All requirements of paragraph (b) of this section apply to this paragraph unless otherwise noted in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Marking of containers.</I> Containers shall be marked in accordance with DOT regulations. Additional markings not in conflict with DOT regulations may be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Description of a system.</I> A system shall include the container base or bracket, containers, container valves, connectors, manifold valve assembly, regulators, and relief valves.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Containers and regulating equipment installed outside of buildings or structures.</I> (i) Containers shall not be buried below ground. However, this shall not prohibit the installation in a compartment or recess below grade level such as a niche in a slope or terrace wall which is used for no other purpose, providing that the container and regulating equipment are not in contact with the ground and the compartment or recess is drained and ventilated horizontally to the outside air from its lowest level, with the outlet at least 3 feet away from any building opening which is below the level of such outlet.
</P>
<FP>Except as provided in paragraph (b)(10)(xiii) of this section, the discharge from safety relief devices shall be located not less than 3 feet horizontally away from any building opening which is below the level of such discharge and shall not terminate beneath any building unless such space is well ventilated to the outside and is not enclosed on more than two sides.
</FP>
<P>(ii) Containers shall be set upon firm foundation or otherwise firmly secured; the possible effect on the outlet piping of settling shall be guarded against by a flexible connection or special fitting.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Containers and equipment used inside of buildings or structures.</I> (i) When operational requirements make portable use of containers necessary and their location outside of buildings or structure is impracticable, containers and equipment are permitted to be used inside of buildings or structures in accordance with (<I>a</I>) through (<I>l</I>) of this subdivision, and, in addition, such other provisions of this subparagraph as are applicable to the particular use or occupancy.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Containers in use shall mean connected for use.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Systems utilizing containers having a water capacity greater than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds (nominal 1 pound LP-Gas capacity) shall be equipped with excess flow valves. Such excess flow valves shall be either integral with the container valves or in the connections to the container valve outlets. In either case, an excess flow valve shall be installed in such a manner that any undue strain beyond the excess flow valve will not cause breakage between the container and the excess flow valve. The installation of excess flow valves shall take into account the type of valve protection provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Regulators, if used, shall be either directly connected to the container valves or to manifolds connected to the container values. The regulator shall be suitable for use with LP-Gas. Manifolds and fittings connecting containers to pressure regulator inlets shall be designed for at least 250 p.s.i.g. service pressure.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Valves on containers having a water capacity greater than 50 pounds (nominal 20 pounds LP-Gas capacity) shall be protected while in use.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Containers shall be marked in accordance with paragraph (b)(5)(iii) of this section and paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Pipe or tubing shall conform to paragraph (b)(8) of this section except that aluminum pipe or tubing shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>)(<I>1</I>) Hose shall be designed for a working pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g. Hose and hose connections shall have their correctness as to design, construction and performance determined by listing by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. The hose length may exceed the length specified in paragraph (b)(9)(vii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, but shall be as short as practicable. Refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Hose shall be long enough to permit compliance with spacing provisions of this subparagraph without kinking or straining or causing hose to be so close to a burner as to be damaged by heat.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Portable heaters, including salamanders, shall be equipped with an approved automatic device to shut off the flow of gas to the main burner, and pilot if used, in the event of flame extinguishment. Such heaters having inputs above 50,000 B.t.u. manufactured on or after May 17, 1967, and such heaters having inputs above 100,000 B.t.u. manufactured before May 17, 1967, shall be equipped with either.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A pilot which must be lighted and proved before the main burner can be turned on; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An electric ignition system.
</P>
<FP>The provisions of this paragraph (<I>h</I>) do not apply to tar kettle burners, torches, melting pots, nor do they apply to portable heaters under 7,500 B.t.u.h. input when used with containers having a maximum water capacity of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds. Container valves, connectors, regulators, manifolds, piping, and tubing shall not be used as structural supports for heaters.
</FP>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Containers, regulating equipment, manifolds, pipe, tubing, and hose shall be located so as to minimize exposure to abnormally high temperatures (such as may result from exposure to convection or radiation from heating equipment or installation in confined spaces), physical damage, or tampering by unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Heat producing equipment shall be located and used so as to minimize the possibility of ignition of combustibles.
</P>
<P>(<I>k</I>) Containers having a water capacity greater than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds (nominal 1 pound LP-Gas capacity) connected for use, shall stand on a firm and substantially level surface and, when necessary, shall be secured in an upright position.
</P>
<P>(<I>l</I>) Containers, including the valve protective devices, shall be installed so as to minimize the probability of impingement of discharge of safety relief devices upon containers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers having a maximum water capacity of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds (nominal 1 pound LP-Gas capacity) are permitted to be used inside of buildings as part of approved self-contained hand torch assemblies or similar appliances.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers having a maximum water capacity of 12 pounds (nominal 5 pounds LP-Gas capacity) are permitted to be used temporarily inside of buildings for public exhibition or demonstration purposes, including use for classroom demonstrations.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) Containers are permitted to be used in buildings or structures under construction or undergoing major renovation when such buildings or structures are not occupied by the public, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The maximum water capacity of individual containers shall be 245 pounds (nominal 100 pounds LP-Gas capacity).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For temporary heating such as curing concrete, drying plaster and similar applications, heaters (other than integral heater-container units) shall be located at least 6 feet from any LP-Gas container. This shall not prohibit the use of heaters specifically designed for attachment to the container or to a supporting standard, provided they are designed and installed so as to prevent direct or radiant heat application from the heater onto the container. Blower and radiant type heaters shall not be directed toward any LP-Gas container within 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) If two or more heater-container units, of either the integral or nonintegral type, are located in an unpartitioned area on the same floor, the container or containers of each unit shall be separated from the container or containers of any other unit by at least 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When heaters are connected to containers for use in an unpartitioned area on the same floor, the total water capacity of containers manifolded together for connection to a heater or heaters shall not be greater than 735 pounds (nominal 300 pounds LP-Gas capacity). Such manifolds shall be separated by at least 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) On floors on which heaters are not connected for use, containers are permitted to be manifolded together for connection to a heater or heaters on another floor, <I>Provided:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The total water capacity of containers connected to any one manifold is not greater than 2,450 pounds (nominal 1,000 pounds LP-Gas capacity) and;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where more than one manifold having a total water capacity greater than 735 pounds (nominal 300 pounds LP-Gas capacity) are located in the same unpartitioned area, they shall be separated by at least 50 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Storage of containers awaiting use shall be in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) Containers are permitted to be used in industrial occupancies for processing, research, or experimental purposes as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The maximum water capacity of individual containers shall be 245 pounds (nominal 100 pounds LP-Gas capacity).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Containers connected to a manifold shall have a total water capacity not greater than 735 pounds (nominal 300 pounds LP-Gas capacity) and not more than one such manifold may be located in the same room unless separated at least 20 feet from a similar unit.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The amount of LP-Gas in containers for research and experimental use shall be limited to the smallest practical quantity.
</P>
<P>(vii)(<I>a</I>) Containers are permitted to be used in industrial occupancies with essentially noncombustible contents where portable equipment for space heating is essential and where a permanent heating installation is not practical, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Containers and heaters shall comply with and be used in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Containers are permitted to be used in buildings for temporary emergency heating purposes, if necessary to prevent damage to the buildings or contents, when the permanent heating system is temporarily out of service, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Containers and heaters shall comply with and be used in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The temporary heating equipment shall not be left unattended.
</P>
<P>(ix) Containers are permitted to be used temporarily in buildings for training purposes related in installation and use of LP-Gas systems, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The maximum water capacity of individual containers shall be 245 pounds (nominal 100 pounds LP-Gas capacity), but the maximum quantity of LP-Gas that may be placed in each container shall be 20 pounds.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If more than one such container is located in the same room, the containers shall be separated by at least 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Container valves and accessories.</I> (i) Valves in the assembly of multiple container systems shall be arranged so that replacement of containers can be made without shutting off the flow of gas in the system.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This provision is not to be construed as requiring an automatic changeover device.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Regulators and low-pressure relief devices shall be rigidly attached to the cylinder valves, cylinders, supporting standards, the building walls or otherwise rigidly secured and shall be so installed or protected that the elements (sleet, snow, or ice) will not affect their operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Valves and connections to the containers shall be protected while in transit, in storage, and while being moved into final utilization, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) By setting into the recess of the container to prevent the possibility of their being struck if the container is dropped upon a flat surface, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) By ventilated cap or collar, fastened to the container capable of withstanding a blow from any direction equivalent to that of a 30-pound weight dropped 4 feet. Construction must be such that a blow will not be transmitted to the valve or other connection.
</P>
<P>(iv) When containers are not connected to the system, the outlet valves shall be kept tightly closed or plugged, even though containers are considered empty.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers having a water capacity in excess of 50 pounds (approximately 21 pounds LP-Gas capacity), recharged at the installation, shall be provided with excess flow or backflow check valves to prevent the discharge of container contents in case of failure of the filling or equalizing connection.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Safety devices.</I> (i) Containers shall be provided with safety devices as required by DOT regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) A final stage regulator of an LP-Gas system (excluding any appliance regulator) shall be equipped on the low-pressure side with a relief valve which is set to start to discharge within the limits specified in Table H-30.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-30
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Regulator delivery pressure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Relief valve start-to-discharge pressure setting (percent of regulator delivery pressure)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 p.s.i.g. or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above 1 p.s.i.g. but not over 3 p.s.i.g</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above 3 p.s.i.g</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) When a regulator or pressure relief valve is used inside a building for other than purposes specified in paragraphs (b)(6)(i) (<I>a</I>)-(<I>g</I>) of this section, the relief valve and the space above the regulator and relief valve diaphragms shall be vented to the outside air with the discharge outlet located not less than 3 feet horizontally away from any building opening which is below such discharge. These provisions do not apply to individual appliance regulators when protection is otherwise provided nor to paragraph (c)(5) of this section and paragraph (b)(10)(xiii) of this section. In buildings devoted exclusively to gas distribution purposes, the space above the diaphragm need not be vented to the outside.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Reinstallation of containers.</I> Containers shall not be reinstalled unless they are requalified in accordance with DOT regulations.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Permissible product.</I> A product shall not be placed in a container marked with a service pressure less than four-fifths of the maximum vapor pressure of product at 130 °F.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Systems utilizing containers other than DOT containers</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph applies specifically to systems utilizing storage containers other than those constructed in accordance with DOT specifications. Paragraph (b) of this section applies to this paragraph unless otherwise noted in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design pressure and classification of storage containers.</I> Storage containers shall be designed and classified in accordance with Table H-31.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-31
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Container type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">For gases with vapor press. Not to exceed lb. per sq. in. gage at 100 °F. (37.8 °C.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum design pressure of container, lb. per sq. in. gage
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1949 and earlier editions of ASME Code (Par. U-68, U-69)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1949 edition of ASME Code (Par. U-200, U-201); 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965, and 1968 (Division 1) editions of ASME Code; All editions of API-ASME Code 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>1</sup> 80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">156
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">187
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">219
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>2</sup> 200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> New storage containers of the 80 type have not been authorized since Dec. 31, 1947.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Container type may be increased by increments of 25. The minimum design pressure of containers shall be 100% of the container type designation when constructed under 1949 or earlier editions of the ASME Code (Par. U-68 and U-69). The minimum design pressure of containers shall be 125% of the container type designation when constructed under: (1) the 1949 ASME Code (Par. U-200 and U-201), (2) 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965, and 1968 (Division 1) editions of the ASME Code, and (3) all editions of the API-ASME Code.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Construction of containers under the API-ASME Code is not authorized after July 1, 1961.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Container valves and accessories, filler pipes, and discharge pipes.</I> (i) The filling pipe inlet terminal shall not be located inside a building. For containers with a water capacity of 125 gallons or more, such terminals shall be located not less than 10 feet from any building (see paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section), and preferably not less than 5 feet from any driveway, and shall be located in a protective housing built for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) The filling connection shall be fitted with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Combination back-pressure check valve and excess flow valve.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) One double or two single back-pressure check valves.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A positive shutoff valve, in conjunction with either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An internal back-pressure valve, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An internal excess flow valve.
</P>
<P>(iii) All openings in a container shall be equipped with approved automatic excess flow valves except in the following: Filling connections as provided in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section; safety relief connections, liquid-level gaging devices as provided in paragraphs (b)(7)(iv), (19)(iii), and (19)(viii) of this section; pressure gage connections as provided in paragraph (b)(7)(v) of this section, as provided in paragraphs (d) (iv), (vi), and (vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) An excess flow valve is not required in the withdrawal service line providing the following are complied with:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Such systems' total water capacity does not exceed 2,000 U.S. gallons.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The discharge from the service outlet is controlled by a suitable manually operated shutoff valve which is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Threaded directly into the service outlet of the container; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is an integral part of a substantial fitting threaded into or on the service outlet of the container; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Threaded directly into a substantial fitting threaded into or on the service outlet of the container.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The shutoff valve is equipped with an attached handwheel or the equivalent.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The controlling orifice between the contents of the container and the outlet of the shutoff valve does not exceed five-sixteenths inch in diameter for vapor withdrawal systems and one-eighth inch in diameter for liquid withdrawal systems.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) An approved pressure-reducing regulator is directly attached to the outlet of the shutoff valve and is rigidly supported, or that an approved pressure-reducing regulator is attached to the outlet of the shutoff valve by means of a suitable flexible connection, provided the regulator is adequately supported and properly protected on or at the tank.
</P>
<P>(v) All inlet and outlet connections except safety relief valves, liquid level gaging devices and pressure gages on containers of 2,000 gallons water capacity, or more, and on any container used to supply fuel directly to an internal combustion engine, shall be labeled to designate whether they communicate with vapor or liquid space. Labels may be on valves.
</P>
<P>(vi) In lieu of an excess flow valve openings may be fitted with a quick-closing internal valve which, except during operating periods shall remain closed. The internal mechanism for such valves may be provided with a secondary control which shall be equipped with a fusible plug (not over 220 °F. melting point) which will cause the internal valve to close automatically in case of fire.
</P>
<P>(vii) Not more than two plugged openings shall be permitted on a container of 2,000 gallons or less water capacity.
</P>
<P>(viii) Containers of 125 gallons water capacity or more manufactured after July 1, 1961, shall be provided with an approved device for liquid evacuation, the size of which shall be three-fourths inch National Pipe Thread minimum. A plugged opening will not satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Safety devices.</I> (i) All safety devices shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) All container safety relief devices shall be located on the containers and shall have direct communication with the vapor of space of the container.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In industrial and gas manufacturing plants, discharge pipe from safety relief valves on pipe lines within a building shall discharge vertically upward and shall be piped to a point outside a building.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Safety relief device discharge terminals shall be so located as to provide protection against physical damage and such discharge pipes shall be fitted with loose raincaps. Return bends and restrictive pipefittings shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) If desired, discharge lines from two or more safety relief devices located on the same unit, or similar lines from two or more different units, may be run into a common discharge header, provided that the cross-sectional area of such header be at least equal to the sum of the cross-sectional area of the individual discharge lines, and that the setting of safety relief valves are the same.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Each storage container of over 2,000 gallons water capacity shall be provided with a suitable pressure gage.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) A final stage regulator of an LP-Gas system (excluding any appliance regulator) shall be equipped on the low-pressure side with a relief valve which is set to start to discharge within the limits specified in Table H-30.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) When a regulator or pressure relief valve is installed inside a building, the relief valve and the space above the regulator and relief valve diaphragms shall be vented to the outside air with the discharge outlet located not less than 3 feet horizontally away from any opening into the building which is below such discharge. (These provisions do not apply to individual appliance regulators when protection is otherwise provided. In buildings devoted exclusively to gas distribution purposes, the space above the diaphragm need not be vented to the outside.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety devices for aboveground containers shall be provided as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Containers of 1,200 gallons water capacity or less which may contain liquid fuel when installed above ground shall have the rate of discharge required by paragraph (b)(10)(ii) of this section provided by a spring-loaded relief valve or valves. In addition to the required spring-loaded relief valve(s), suitable fuse plug(s) may be used provided the total discharge area of the fuse plug(s) for each container does not exceed 0.25 square inch.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The fusible metal of the fuse plugs shall have a yield temperature of 208 °F. minimum and 220 °F. maximum. Relief valves and fuse plugs shall have direct communication with the vapor space of the container.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) On a container having a water capacity greater than 125 gallons, but not over 2,000 gallons, the discharge from the safety relief valves shall be vented away from the container vertically upwards and unobstructed to the open air in such a manner as to prevent any impingement of escaping gas upon the container; loose-fitting rain caps shall be used. Suitable provision shall be made for draining condensate which may accumulate in the relief valve or its discharge pipe.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) On containers of 125 gallons water capacity or less, the discharge from safety relief devices shall be located not less than 5 feet horizontally away from any opening into the building below the level of such discharge.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) On a container having a water capacity greater than 2,000 gallons, the discharge from the safety relief valves shall be vented away from the container vertically upwards to a point at least 7 feet above the container, and unobstructed to the open air in such a manner as to prevent any impingement of escaping gas upon the container; loose-fitting rain caps shall be used. Suitable provision shall be made so that any liquid or condensate that may accumulate inside of the safety relief valve or its discharge pipe will not render the valve inoperative. If a drain is used, a means shall be provided to protect the container, adjacent containers, piping, or equipment against impingement of flame resulting from ignition of product escaping from the drain.
</P>
<P>(iii) On all containers which are installed underground and which contain no liquid fuel until buried and covered, the rate of discharge of the spring-loaded relief valve installed thereon may be reduced to a minimum of 30 percent of the rate of discharge specified in paragraph (b)(10)(ii) of this section. Containers so protected shall not be uncovered after installation until the liquid fuel has been removed therefrom. Containers which may contain liquid fuel before being installed under ground and before being completely covered with earth are to be considered aboveground containers when determining the rate of discharge requirement of the relief valves.
</P>
<P>(iv) On underground containers of more than 2,000 gallons water capacity, the discharge from safety relief devices shall be piped vertically and directly upward to a point at least 7 feet above the ground.
</P>
<FP>Where there is a probability of the manhole or housing becoming flooded, the discharge from regulator vent lines shall be above the highest probable water level. All manholes or housings shall be provided with ventilated louvers or their equivalent, the area of such openings equaling or exceeding the combined discharge areas of the safety relief valves and other vent lines which discharge their content into the manhole housing.
</FP>
<P>(v) Safety devices for vaporizers shall be provided as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Vaporizers of less than 1 quart total capacity, heated by the ground or the surrounding air, need not be equipped with safety relief valves provided that adequate tests certified by any of the authorities referred to in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, demonstrate that the assembly is safe without safety relief valves.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) No vaporizer shall be equipped with fusible plugs.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In industrial and gas manufacturing plants, safety relief valves on vaporizers within a building shall be piped to a point outside the building and be discharged upward.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reinstallation of containers.</I> Containers may be reinstalled if they do not show any evidence of harmful external corrosion or other damage. Where containers are reinstalled underground, the corrosion resistant coating shall be put in good condition (see paragraph (c)(7)(vi) of this section). Where containers are reinstalled above ground, the safety devices and gaging devices shall comply with paragraph (c)(4) of this section and paragraph (b)(19) of this section respectively for aboveground containers.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Capacity of containers.</I> A storage container shall not exceed 90,000 gallons water capacity.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Installation of storage containers.</I> (i) Containers installed above ground, except as provided in paragraph (c)(7)(vii) of this section, shall be provided with substantial masonry or noncombustible structural supports on firm masonry foundation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Aboveground containers shall be supported as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Horizontal containers shall be mounted on saddles in such a manner as to permit expansion and contraction. Structural metal supports may be employed when they are protected against fire in an approved manner. Suitable means of preventing corrosion shall be provided on that portion of the container in contact with the foundations or saddles.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Containers of 2,000 gallons water capacity or less may be installed with nonfireproofed ferrous metal supports if mounted on concrete pads or footings, and if the distance from the outside bottom of the container shell to the concrete pad, footing, or the ground does not exceed 24 inches.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any container may be installed with nonfireproofed ferrous metal supports if mounted on concrete pads or footings, and if the distance from the outside bottom of the container to the ground does not exceed 5 feet, provided the container is in an isolated location.
</P>
<P>(iv) Containers may be partially buried providing the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The portion of the container below the surface and for a vertical distance not less than 3 inches above the surface of the ground is protected to resist corrosion, and the container is protected against settling and corrosion as required for fully buried containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Spacing requirements shall be as specified for underground tanks in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Relief valve capacity shall be as required for aboveground containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Container is located so as not to be subject to vehicular damage, or is adequately protected against such damage.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Filling densities shall be as required for above-ground containers.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers buried underground shall be placed so that the top of the container is not less than 6 inches below grade. Where an underground container might be subject to abrasive action or physical damage due to vehicular traffic or other causes, then it shall be:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Placed not less than 2 feet below grade, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Otherwise protected against such physical damage.
</P>
<FP>It will not be necessary to cover the portion of the container to which manhole and other connections are affixed; however, where necessary, protection shall be provided against vehicular damage. When necessary to prevent floating, containers shall be securely anchored or weighted.
</FP>
<P>(vi)(<I>a</I>) Containers shall be given a protective coating before being placed under ground. This coating shall be equivalent to hot-dip galvanizing or to two coatings of red lead followed by a heavy coating of coal tar or asphalt. In lowering the container into place, care shall be exercised to prevent damage to the coating. Any damage to the coating shall be repaired before backfilling.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Containers shall be set on a firm foundation (firm earth may be used) and surrounded with earth or sand firmly tamped in place.
</P>
<P>(vii) Containers with foundations attached (portable or semiportable containers with suitable steel “runners” or “skids” and popularly known in the industry as “skid tanks”) shall be designed, installed, and used in accordance with these rules subject to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) If they are to be used at a given general location for a temporary period not to exceed 6 months they need not have fire-resisting foundations or saddles but shall have adequate ferrous metal supports.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) They shall not be located with the outside bottom of the container shell more than 5 feet above the surface of the ground unless fire-resisting supports are provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The bottom of the skids shall not be less than 2 inches or more than 12 inches below the outside bottom of the container shell.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Flanges, nozzles, valves, fittings, and the like, having communication with the interior of the container, shall be protected against physical damage.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) When not permanently located on fire-resisting foundations, piping connections shall be sufficiently flexible to minimize the possibility of breakage or leakage of connections if the container settles, moves, or is otherwise displaced.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Skids, or lugs for attachment of skids, shall be secured to the container in accordance with the code or rules under which the container is designed and built (with a minimum factor of safety of four) to withstand loading in any direction equal to four times the weight of the container and attachments when filled to the maximum permissible loaded weight.
</P>
<P>(viii) Field welding where necessary shall be made only on saddle plates or brackets which were applied by the manufacturer of the tank.
</P>
<P>(ix) For aboveground containers, secure anchorage or adequate pier height shall be provided against possible container flotation wherever sufficiently high floodwater might occur.
</P>
<P>(x) When permanently installed containers are interconnected, provision shall be made to compensate for expansion, contraction, vibration, and settling of containers, and interconnecting piping. Where flexible connections are used, they shall be of an approved type and shall be designed for a bursting pressure of not less than five times the vapor pressure of the product at 100 °F. The use of nonmetallic hose is prohibited for permanently interconnecting such containers.
</P>
<P>(xi) Container assemblies listed for interchangeable installation above ground or under ground shall conform to the requirements for aboveground installations with respect to safety relief capacity and filling density. For installation above ground all other requirements for aboveground installations shall apply. For installation under ground all other requirements for underground installations shall apply.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Protection of container accessories.</I> (i) Valves, regulating, gaging, and other container accessory equipment shall be protected against tampering and physical damage. Such accessories shall also be so protected during the transit of containers intended for installation underground.
</P>
<P>(ii) On underground or combination aboveground-underground containers, the service valve handwheel, the terminal for connecting the hose, and the opening through which there can be a flow from safety relief valves shall be at least 4 inches above the container and this opening shall be located in the dome or housing. Underground systems shall be so installed that all the above openings, including the regulator vent, are located above the normal maximum water table.
</P>
<P>(iii) All connections to underground containers shall be located within a substantial dome, housing, or manhole and with access thereto protected by a substantial cover.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Drips for condensed gas.</I> Where vaporized gas on the low-pressure side of the system may condense to a liquid at normal operating temperatures and pressures, suitable means shall be provided for revaporization of the condensate.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Damage from vehicles.</I> When damage to LP-Gas systems from vehicular traffic is a possibility, precautions against such damage shall be taken.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Drains.</I> No drains or blowoff lines shall be directed into or in proximity to sewer systems used for other purposes.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>General provisions applicable to systems in industrial plants (of 2,000 gallons water capacity and more) and to bulk filling plants.</I> (i) When standard watch service is provided, it shall be extended to the LP-Gas installation and personnel properly trained.
</P>
<P>(ii) If loading and unloading are normally done during other than daylight hours, adequate lights shall be provided to illuminate storage containers, control valves, and other equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Suitable roadways or means of access for extinguishing equipment such as wheeled extinguishers or fire department apparatus shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) To minimize trespassing or tampering, the area which includes container appurtenances, pumping equipment, loading and unloading facilities, and cylinder-filling facilities shall be enclosed with at least a 6-foot-high industrial type fence unless otherwise adequately protected. There shall be at least two means of emergency access.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Container-charging plants.</I> (i) The container-charging room shall be located not less than:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Ten feet from bulk storage containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Tank truck filling station outlets shall be located not less than:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Ten feet from pumps and compressors if housed in one or more separate buildings.
</P>
<P>(iii) The pumps or compressors may be located in the container-charging room or building, in a separate building, or outside of buildings. When housed in a separate building, such building (a small noncombustible weather cover is not to be construed as a building) shall be located not less than:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Ten feet from bulk storage tanks.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Twenty-five feet from sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(iv) When a part of the container-charging building is to be used for a boiler room or where open flames or similar sources of ignition exist or are employed, the space to be so occupied shall be separated from container charging room by a partition wall or walls of fire-resistant construction continuous from floor to roof or ceiling. Such separation walls shall be without openings and shall be joined to the floor, other walls, and ceiling or roof in a manner to effect a permanent gas-tight joint.
</P>
<P>(v) Electrical equipment and installations shall conform with paragraphs (b) (17) and (18) of this section.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Fire protection.</I> (i) Each bulk plant shall be provided with at least one approved portable fire extinguisher having a minimum rating of 12-B, C.
</P>
<P>(ii) In industrial installations involving containers of 150,000 gallons aggregate water capacity or more, provision shall be made for an adequate supply of water at the container site for fire protection in the container area, unless other adequate means for fire control are provided. Water hydrants shall be readily accessible and so spaced as to provide water protection for all containers. Sufficient lengths of firehose shall be provided at each hydrant location on a hose cart, or other means provided to facilitate easy movement of the hose in the container area. It is desirable to equip the outlet of each hose line with a combination fog nozzle. A shelter shall be provided to protect the hose and its conveyor from the weather.
</P>
<P>(15) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Lighting.</I> Electrical equipment and installations shall conform to paragraphs (b) (17) and (18) of this section.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Vaporizers for internal combustion engines.</I> The provisions of paragraph (e)(8) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Gas regulating and mixing equipment for internal combustion engines.</I> The provisions of paragraph (e)(9) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Liquefied petroleum gas as a motor fuel</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> (i) This paragraph applies to internal combustion engines, fuel containers, and pertinent equipment for the use of liquefied petroleum gases as a motor fuel on easily movable, readily portable units including self-propelled vehicles.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fuel containers and pertinent equipment for internal combustion engines using liquefied petroleum gas where installation is of the stationary type are covered by paragraph (d) of this section. This paragraph does not apply to containers for transportation of liquefied petroleum gases nor to marine fuel use. All requirements of paragraph (b) of this section apply to this paragraph, unless otherwise noted in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> (i) Fuel may be used from the cargo tank of a truck while in transit, but not from cargo tanks on trailers or semitrailers. The use of fuel from the cargo tanks to operate stationary engines is permitted providing wheels are securely blocked.
</P>
<P>(ii) Passenger-carrying vehicles shall not be fueled while passengers are on board.
</P>
<P>(iii) Industrial trucks (including lift trucks) equipped with permanently mounted fuel containers shall be charged outdoors. Charging equipment shall comply with the provisions of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) LP-Gas fueled industrial trucks shall comply with the Standard for Type Designations, Areas of Use, Maintenance and Operation of Powered Industrial Trucks, NFPA 505-1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(v) Engines on vehicles shall be shut down while fueling if the fueling operation involves venting to the atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design pressure and classification of fuel containers.</I> (i) Except as covered in paragraphs (e)(3) (ii) and (iii) of this section, containers shall be in accordance with Table H-32.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fuel containers for use in industrial trucks (including lift trucks) shall be either DOT containers authorized for LP-Gas service having a minimum service pressure of 240 p.s.i.g. or minimum Container Type 250. Under 1950 and later ASME codes, this means a 312.5-p.s.i.g. design pressure container.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-32
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Container type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">For gases with vapor press. Not to exceed lb. per sq. in. gage at 100 °F. (37.8 °C.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum design pressure of container, lb. per sq. in. gage
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1949 and earlier editions of ASME Code (Par. U-68, U-69)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1949 edition of ASME Code (Par. U-200, U-201); 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965, and 1968 (Division 1) editions of ASME Code; All editions of API-ASME Code 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>1</sup> 200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215Z</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Container type may be increased by increments of 25. The minimum design pressure of containers shall be 100% of the container type designation when constructed under 1949 or earlier editions of the ASME Code (Par. U-68 and U-69). The minimum design pressure of containers shall be 125% of the container type designation when constructed under: (1) the 1949 ASME Code (Par. U-200 and U-201), (2) 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965, and 1968 (Division 1) editions of the ASME Code, and (3) all editions of the API-ASME Code.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Construction of containers under the API-ASME Code is not authorized after July 1, 1961.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Containers manufactured and maintained under DOT specifications and regulations may be used as fuel containers. When so used they shall conform to all requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iv) All container inlets and outlets except safety relief valves and gaging devices shall be labeled to designate whether they communicate with vapor or liquid space. Labels may be on valves.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Installation of fuel containers.</I> (i) Containers shall be located in a place and in a manner to minimize the possibility of damage to the container. Containers located in the rear of trucks and buses, when protected by substantial bumpers, will be considered in conformance with this requirement. Fuel containers on passenger-carrying vehicles shall be installed as far from the engine as is practicable, and the passenger space and any space containing radio equipment shall be sealed from the container space to prevent direct seepage of gas to these spaces. The container compartment shall be vented to the outside. In case the fuel container is mounted near the engine or the exhaust system, the container shall be shielded against direct heat radiation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers shall be installed with as much clearance as practicable but never less than the minimum road clearance of the vehicle under maximum spring deflection. This minimum clearance shall be to the bottom of the container or to the lowest fitting on the container or housing, whichever is lower.
</P>
<P>(iii) Permanent and removable fuel containers shall be securely mounted to prevent jarring loose, slipping, or rotating, and the fastenings shall be designed and constructed to withstand static loading in any direction equal to twice the weight of the tank and attachments when filled with fuel using a safety factor of not less than four based on the ultimate strength of the material to be used. Field welding, when necessary, shall be made only on saddle plates, lugs or brackets, originally attached to the container by the tank manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fuel containers on buses shall be permanently installed.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers from which vapor only is to be withdrawn shall be installed and equipped with suitable connections to minimize the accidental withdrawal of liquid.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Valves and accessories.</I> (i) Container valves and accessories shall have a rated working pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g., and shall be of a type suitable for liquefied petroleum gas service.
</P>
<P>(ii) The filling connection shall be fitted with an approved double back-pressure check valve, or a positive shutoff in conjunction with an internal back-pressure check valve. On a removable container the filler valve may be a hand operated shutoff valve with an internal excess flow valve. Main shutoff valves on the container on liquid and vapor lines must be readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(iii) With the exceptions of paragraph (e)(5)(iv)(<I>c</I>) of this section, filling connections equipped with approved automatic back-pressure check valves, and safety relief valves, all connections to containers having openings for the flow of gas in excess of a No. 54 drill size shall be equipped with approved automatic excess flow valves to prevent discharge of content in case connections are broken.
</P>
<P>(iv) Liquid-level gaging devices:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Variable liquid-level gages which require the venting of fuel to the atmosphere shall not be used on fuel containers of industrial trucks (including lift trucks).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) On portable containers that may be filled in the vertical and/or horizontal position, the fixed liquid-level gage must indicate maximum permitted filling level for both vertical and horizontal filling with the container oriented to place the safety relief valve in communication with the vapor space.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) In the case of containers used solely in farm tractor service, and charged at a point at least 50 feet from any important building, the fixed liquid-level gaging device may be so constructed that the outward flow of container content exceeds that passed by a No. 54 drill size opening, but in no case shall the flow exceed that passed by a No. 31 drill-size opening. An excess flow valve is not required. Fittings equipped with such restricted drill size opening and container on which they are used shall be marked to indicate the size of the opening.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) All valves and connections on containers shall be adequately protected to prevent damage due to accidental contact with stationary objects or from loose objects thrown up from the road, and all valves shall be safeguarded against damage due to collision, overturning or other accident. For farm tractors where parts of the vehicle provide such protection to valves and fittings, the foregoing requirements shall be considered fulfilled. However, on removable type containers the protection for the fittings shall be permanently attached to the container.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) When removable fuel containers are used, means shall be provided in the fuel system to minimize the escape of fuel when the containers are exchanged. This may be accomplished by either of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Using an approved automatic quick-closing coupling (a type closing in both directions when uncoupled) in the fuel line, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Closing the valve at the fuel container and allowing the engine to run until the fuel in the line is consumed.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Piping—including pipe, tubing, and fittings.</I> (i) Pipe from fuel container to first-stage regulator shall be not less than schedule 80 wrought iron or steel (black or galvanized), brass or copper; or seamless copper, brass, or steel tubing. Steel tubing shall have a minimum wall thickness of 0.049 inch. Steel pipe or tubing shall be adequately protected against exterior corrosion. Copper tubing shall be types K or L or equivalent having a minimum wall thickness of 0.032 inch. Approved flexible connections may be used between container and regulator or between regulator and gas-air mixer within the limits of approval. The use of aluminum pipe or tubing is prohibited. In the case of removable containers an approved flexible connection shall be used between the container and the fuel line.
</P>
<P>(ii) All piping shall be installed, braced, and supported so as to reduce to a minimum the possibility of vibration strains or wear.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Safety devices.</I> (i) Spring-loaded internal type safety relief valves shall be used on all motor fuel containers.
</P>
<P>(ii) The discharge outlet from safety relief valves shall be located on the outside of enclosed spaces and as far as practicable from possible sources of ignition, and vented upward within 45 degrees of the vertical in such a manner as to prevent impingement of escaping gas upon containers, or parts of vehicles, or on vehicles in adjacent lines of traffic. A rain cap or other protector shall be used to keep water and dirt from collecting in the valve.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a discharge line from the container safety relief valve is used, the line shall be metallic, other than aluminum, and shall be sized, located, and maintained so as not to restrict the required flow of gas from the safety relief valve. Such discharge line shall be able to withstand the pressure resulting from the discharge of vapor when the safety relief valve is in the full open position. When flexibility is necessary, flexible metal hose or tubing shall be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) Portable containers equipped for volumetric filling may be filled in either the vertical or horizontal position only when oriented to place the safety relief valve in communication with the vapor space.
</P>
<P>(v) Paragraph (b)(10)(xii) of this section for hydrostatic relief valves shall apply.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Vaporizers.</I> (i) Vaporizers and any part thereof and other devices that may be subjected to container pressure shall have a design pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each vaporizer shall have a valve or suitable plug which will permit substantially complete draining of the vaporizer. It shall be located at or near the lowest portion of the section occupied by the water or other heating medium.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vaporizers shall be securely fastened so as to minimize the possibility of becoming loosened.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each vaporizer shall be permanently marked at a visible point as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) With the design pressure of the fuel-containing portion in p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) With the water capacity of the fuel-containing portion of the vaporizer in pounds.
</P>
<P>(v) Devices to supply heat directly to a fuel container shall be equipped with an automatic device to cut off the supply of heat before the pressure inside the fuel container reaches 80 percent of the start to discharge pressure setting of the safety relief device on the fuel container.
</P>
<P>(vi) Engine exhaust gases may be used as a direct source of heat supply for the vaporization of fuel if the materials of construction of those parts of the vaporizer in contact with exhaust gases are resistant to the corrosive action of exhaust gases and the vaporizer system is designed to prevent excessive pressures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Vaporizers shall not be equipped with fusible plugs.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Gas regulating and mixing equipment.</I> (i) Approved automatic pressure reducing equipment shall be installed in a secure manner between the fuel supply container and gas-air mixer for the purpose of reducing the pressure of the fuel delivered to the gas-air mixer.
</P>
<P>(ii) An approved automatic shutoff valve shall be provided in the fuel system at some point ahead of the inlet of the gas-air mixer, designed to prevent flow of fuel to the mixer when the ignition is off and the engine is not running. In the case of industrial trucks and engines operating in buildings other than those used exclusively to house engines, the automatic shutoff valve shall be designed to operate if the engine should stop. Atmospheric type regulators (zero governors) shall be considered adequate as an automatic shutoff valve only in cases of outdoor operation such as farm tractors, construction equipment, irrigation pump engines, and other outdoor stationary engine installations.
</P>
<P>(iii) The source of the air for combustion shall be completely isolated from the passenger compartment, ventilating system, or air-conditioning system.
</P>
<P>(10) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Stationary engines in buildings.</I> Stationary engines and gas turbines installed in buildings, including portable engines used instead of or to supplement stationary engines, shall comply with the Standard for the Institution and Use of Stationary Combustion Engines and Gas Turbines, NFPA 37-1970, and the appropriate provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Portable engines in buildings.</I> (i) Portable engines may be used in buildings only for emergency use, except as provided by subparagraph (11) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exhaust gases shall be discharged to outside the building or to an area where they will not constitute a hazard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provision shall be made to supply sufficient air for combustion and cooling.
</P>
<P>(iv) An approved automatic shutoff valve shall be provided in the fuel system ahead of the engine, designed to prevent flow of fuel to the engine when the ignition is off or if the engine should stop.
</P>
<P>(v) The capacity of LP-Gas containers used with such engines shall comply with the applicable occupancy provision of paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Industrial trucks inside buildings.</I> (i) LP-Gas-fueled industrial trucks are permitted to be used in buildings and structures.
</P>
<P>(ii) No more than two LP-Gas containers shall be used on an industrial truck for motor fuel purposes.
</P>
<P>(iii)-(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) Industrial trucks shall not be parked and left unattended in areas of possible excessive heat or sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Garaging LP-Gas-fueled vehicles.</I> (i) LP-Gas-fueled vehicles may be stored or serviced inside garages provided there are no leaks in the fuel system and the fuel tanks are not filled beyond the maximum filling capacity specified in paragraph (b)(12)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) LP-Gas-fueled vehicles being repaired in garages shall have the container shutoff valve closed except when fuel is required for engine operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Such vehicles shall not be parked near sources of heat, open flames, or similar sources of ignition or near open pits unless such pits are adequately ventilated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Storage of containers awaiting use or resale</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph shall apply to the storage of portable containers not in excess of 1,000 pounds water capacity, filled or partially filled, at user location but not connected for use, or in storage for resale by dealers or resellers. This paragraph shall not apply to containers stored at charging plants or at plants devoted primarily to the storage and distribution of LP-Gas or other petroleum products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> (i) Containers in storage shall be located so as to minimize exposure to excessive temperature rise, physical damage, or tampering by unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers when stored inside shall not be located near exits, stairways, or in areas normally used or intended for the safe exit of people.
</P>
<P>(iii) Container valves shall be protected while in storage as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) By setting into recess of container to prevent the possibility of their being struck if the container is dropped upon a flat surface, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) By ventilated cap or collar, fastened to container capable of withstanding blow from any direction equivalent to that of a 30-pound weight dropped 4 feet. Construction must be such that a blow will not be transmitted to a valve or other connection.
</P>
<P>(iv) The outlet valves of containers in storage shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(v) Empty containers which have been in LP-Gas service when stored inside, shall be considered as full containers for the purpose of determining the maximum quantity of LP-Gas permitted by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Storage within buildings not frequented by the public (such as industrial buildings).</I> (i) The quantity of LP-Gas stored shall not exceed 300 pounds (approximately 2,550 cubic feet in vapor form) except as provided in subparagraph (5) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers carried as a part of service equipment on highway mobile vehicles are not to be considered in the total storage capacity in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph provided such vehicles are stored in private garages, and are limited to one container per vehicle with an LP-Gas capacity of not more than 100 pounds. All container valves shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Storage within special buildings or rooms.</I> (i) The quantity of LP-Gas stored in special buildings or rooms shall not exceed 10,000 pounds.
</P>
<P>(ii) The walls, floors, and ceilings of container storage rooms that are within or adjacent to other parts of the building shall be constructed of material having at least a 2-hour fire resistance rating.
</P>
<P>(iii) A portion of the exterior walls or roof having an area not less than 10 percent of that of the combined area of the enclosing walls and roof shall be of explosion relieving construction.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each opening from such storage rooms to other parts of the building shall be protected by a 1
<FR>1/2</FR> hour (B) fire door listed by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. Refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(v) Such rooms shall have no open flames for heating or lighting.
</P>
<P>(vi) Such rooms shall be adequately ventilated both top and bottom to the outside only. The openings from such vents shall be at least 5 feet away from any other opening into any building.
</P>
<P>(vii) The floors of such rooms shall not be below ground level. Any space below the floor shall be of solid fill or properly ventilated to the open air.
</P>
<P>(viii) Such storage rooms shall not be located adjoining the line of property occupied by schools, churches, hospitals, athletic fields or other points of public gathering.
</P>
<P>(ix) Fixed electrical equipment shall be installed in accordance with paragraph (b)(18) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Storage outside of buildings.</I> (i) Storage outside of buildings, for containers awaiting use or resale, shall be located in accordance with Table H-33 with respect to:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The nearest important building or group of buildings;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Busy thoroughfares;
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-33
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quantity of LP-Gas Stored
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500 pounds or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 2,500 pounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,501 to 6,000 pounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6,001 to 10,000 pounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 feet
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 10,000 pounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25 feet
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Container or containers shall be at least 10 feet from any building on adjoining property, any sidewalk, or any of the exposures described in § 1910.110(f)(6)(i) (<E T="03">c</E>) or (<E T="03">d</E>) of this paragraph.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Containers shall be in a suitable enclosure or otherwise protected against tampering.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Fire protection.</I> Storage locations other than supply depots separated and located apart from dealer, reseller, or user establishments shall be provided with at least one approved portable fire extinguisher having a minimum rating of 8-B, C.
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Liquefied petroleum gas service stations</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph applies to storage containers, and dispensing devices, and pertinent equipment in service stations where LP-Gas is stored and is dispensed into fuel tanks of motor vehicles. See paragraph (e) of this section for requirements covering use of LP-Gas as a motor fuel. All requirements of paragraph (b) of this section apply to this paragraph unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design pressure and classification of storage containers.</I> Storage containers shall be designed and classified in accordance with Table H-34.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-34
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Container type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">For gases with vapor press. Not to exceed lb. per sq. in. gage at 100 °F. (37.8 °C.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum design pressure of container, lb. per sq. in. gage
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1949 and earlier editions of ASME Code (Par. U-68, U-69)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1949 edition of ASME Code (Par. U-200, U-201); 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965, and 1968 (Division 1) editions of ASME Code; All editions of API-ASME Code 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>1</sup> 200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Container type may be increased by increments of 25. The minimum design pressure of containers shall be 100 percent of the container type designation when constructed under 1949 or earlier editions of the ASME Code (Par. U-68 and U-69). The minimum design pressure of containers shall be 125 percent of the container type designation when constructed under: (1) The 1949 ASME Code (Paragraphs U-200 and U-201), (2) 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965, and 1968 (Division 1) editions of the ASME Code, and (3) all editions of the API-ASME Code.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Construction of containers under the API-ASME Code is not authorized after July 1, 1961.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Container valves and accessories.</I> (i) A filling connection on the container shall be fitted with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A combination back-pressure check and excess flow valve.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) One double or two single back-pressure valves.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A positive shutoff valve, in conjunction with either,
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An internal back-pressure valve, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) On internal excess flow valve.
</P>
<FP>In lieu of an excess flow valve, filling connections may be fitted with a quick-closing internal valve, which shall remain closed except during operating periods. The mechanism for such valves may be provided with a secondary control which will cause it to close automatically in case of fire. When a fusible plug is used its melting point shall not exceed 220 °F.
</FP>
<P>(ii) A filling pipe inlet terminal not on the container shall be fitted with a positive shutoff valve in conjunction with either;
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A black pressure check valve, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) An excess flow check valve.
</P>
<P>(iii) All openings in the container except those listed below shall be equipped with approved excess flow check valves:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Filling connections as provided in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Safety relief connections as provided in paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Liquid-level gaging devices as provided in paragraphs (b)(7)(iv) and (19)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Pressure gage connections as provided in paragraph (b)(7)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) All container inlets and outlets except those listed below shall be labeled to designate whether they connect with vapor or liquid (labels may be on valves):
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Safety relief valves.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Liquid-level gaging devices.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Pressure gages.
</P>
<P>(v) Each storage container shall be provided with a suitable pressure gage.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Safety-relief valves.</I> (i) All safety-relief devices shall be installed as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) On the container and directly connected with the vapor space.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Safety-relief valves and discharge piping shall be protected against physical damage. The outlet shall be provided with loose-fitting rain caps. There shall be no return bends or restrictions in the discharge piping.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The discharge from two or more safety relief valves having the same pressure settings may be run into a common discharge header. The cross-sectional area of such header shall be at least equal to the sum of the cross-sectional areas of the individual discharges.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Discharge from any safety relief device shall not terminate in any building nor beneath any building.
</P>
<P>(ii) Aboveground containers shall be provided with safety relief valves as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The rate of discharge, which may be provided by one or more valves, shall be not less than that specified in paragraph (b)(10)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The discharge from safety relief valves shall be vented to the open air unobstructed and vertically upwards in such a manner as to prevent any impingement of escaping gas upon the container; loose-fitting rain caps shall be used. On a container having a water capacity greater than 2,000 gallons, the discharge from the safety relief valves shall be vented away from the container vertically upwards to a point at least 7 feet above the container. Suitable provisions shall be made so that any liquid or condensate that may accumulate inside of the relief valve or its discharge pipe will not render the valve inoperative. If a drain is used, a means shall be provided to protect the container, adjacent containers, piping, or equipment against impingement of flame resulting from ignition of the product escaping from the drain.
</P>
<P>(iii) Underground containers shall be provided with safety relief valves as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The discharge from safety-relief valves shall be piped vertically upward to a point at least 10 feet above the ground. The discharge lines or pipes shall be adequately supported and protected against physical damage.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) If no liquid is put into a container until after it is buried and covered, the rate of discharge of the relief valves may be reduced to not less than 30 percent of the rate shown in paragraph (b)(10)(ii) of this section. If liquid fuel is present during installation of containers, the rate of discharge shall be the same as for aboveground containers. Such containers shall not be uncovered until emptied of liquid fuel.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Capacity of liquid containers.</I> Individual liquid storage containers shall not exceed 30,000 gallons water capacity.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Installation of storage containers.</I> (i)(<I>a</I>) Each storage container used exclusively in service station operation shall comply with the following table which specifies minimum distances to a building and groups of buildings.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Water capacity per container (gallons)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum distances
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aboveground and underground (feet)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Between aboveground containers (feet)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> The above distances may be reduced to not less than 10 feet for service station buildings of other than wood frame construction.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Readily ignitible material including weeds and long dry grass, shall be removed within 10 feet of containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The minimum separation between LP-Gas containers and flammable liquid tanks shall be 20 feet and the minimum separation between a container and the centerline of the dike shall be 10 feet.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) LP-Gas containers located near flammable liquid containers shall be protected against the flow or accumulation of flammable liquids by diking, diversion curbs, or grading.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) LP-Gas containers shall not be located within diked areas for flammable liquid containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Field welding is permitted only on saddle plates or brackets which were applied by the container manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) When permanently installed containers are interconnected, provision shall be made to compensate for expansion, contraction, vibration, and settling of containers and interconnecting piping. Where flexible connections are used, they shall be of an approved type and shall be designed for a bursting pressure of not less than five times the vapor pressure of the product at 100 °F. The use of nonmetallic hose is prohibited for interconnecting such containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Where high water table or flood conditions may be encountered protection against container flotation shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Aboveground containers shall be installed in accordance with this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Containers may be installed horizontally or vertically.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Containers shall be protected by crash rails or guards to prevent physical damage unless they are so protected by virtue of their location. Vehicles shall not be serviced within 10 feet of containers.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Container foundations shall be of substantial masonry or other noncombustible material. Containers shall be mounted on saddles which shall permit expansion and contraction, and shall provide against the excessive concentration of stresses. Corrosion protection shall be provided for tank-mounting areas. Structural metal container supports shall be protected against fire. This protection is not required on prefabricated storage and pump assemblies, mounted on a common base, with container bottom not more than 24 inches above ground and whose water capacity is 2,000 gallons or less if the piping connected to the storage and pump assembly is sufficiently flexible to minimize the possibility of breakage or leakage in the event of failure of the container supports.
</P>
<P>(iii) Underground containers shall be installed in accordance with this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Containers shall be given a protective coating before being placed under ground. This coating shall be equivalent to hot-dip galvanizing or to two coatings of red lead followed by a heavy coating of coal tar or asphalt. In lowering the container into place, care shall be exercised to minimize abrasion or other damage to the coating. Damage to the coating shall be repaired before back-filling.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Containers shall be set on a firm foundation (firm earth may be used) and surrounded with earth or sand firmly tamped in place. Backfill should be free of rocks or other abrasive materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A minimum of 2 feet of earth cover shall be provided. Where ground conditions make compliance with this requirement impractical, equivalent protection against physical damage shall be provided. The portion of the container to which manhole and other connections are attached need not be covered. If the location is subjected to vehicular traffic, containers shall be protected by a concrete slab or other cover adequate to prevent the weight of a loaded vehicle imposing concentrated direct loads on the container shell.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Protection of container fittings.</I> Valves, regulators, gages, and other container fittings shall be protected against tampering and physical damage.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Transport truck unloading point.</I> (i) During unloading, the transport truck shall not be parked on public thoroughfares and shall be at least 5 feet from storage containers, and shall be positioned so that shutoff valves are readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(ii) The filling pipe inlet terminal shall not be located within a building nor within 10 feet of any building or driveway. It shall be protected against physical damage.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Piping, valves, and fittings.</I> (i) Piping may be underground, above ground, or a combination of both. It shall be well supported and protected against physical damage and corrosion.
</P>
<P>(ii) Piping laid beneath driveways shall be installed to prevent physical damage by vehicles.
</P>
<P>(iii) Piping shall be wrought iron or steel (black or galvanized), brass or copper pipe; or seamless copper, brass, or steel tubing and shall be suitable for a minimum pressure of 250 p.s.i.g. Pipe joints may be screwed, flanged, brazed, or welded. The use of aluminum alloy piping or tubing is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(iv) All shutoff valves (liquid or gas) shall be suitable for liquefied petroleum gas service and designed for not less than the maximum pressure to which they may be subjected. Valves which may be subjected to container pressure shall have a rated working pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(v) All materials used for valve seats, packing, gaskets, diaphragms, etc., shall be resistant to the action of LP-Gas.
</P>
<P>(vi) Fittings shall be steel, malleable iron, or brass having a minimum working pressure of 250 p.s.i.g. Cast iron pipe fittings, such as ells, tees, and unions shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(vii) All piping shall be tested after assembly and proved free from leaks at not less than normal operating pressures.
</P>
<P>(viii) Provision shall be made for expansion, contraction, jarring, and vibration, and for settling. This may be accomplished by flexible connections.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Pumps and accessories.</I> All pumps and accessory equipment shall be suitable for LP-Gas service, and designed for not less than the maximum pressure to which they may be subjected. Accessories shall have a minimum rated working pressure of 250 p.s.i.g. Positive displacement pumps shall be equipped with suitable pressure actuated bypass valves permitting flow from pump discharge to storage container or pump suction.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Dispensing devices.</I> (i) Meters, vapor separators, valves, and fittings in the dispenser shall be suitable for LP-Gas service and shall be designed for a minimum working pressure of 250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provisions shall be made for venting LP-Gas contained in a dispensing device to a safe location.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pumps used to transfer LP-Gas shall be equipped to allow control of the flow and to prevent leakage or accidental discharge. Means shall be provided outside the dispensing device to readily shut off the power in the event of fire or accident.
</P>
<P>(iv) A manual shutoff valve and an excess flow check valve shall be installed downstream of the pump and ahead of the dispenser inlet.
</P>
<P>(v)(<I>a</I>) Dispensing hose shall be resistant to the action of LP-Gas in the liquid phase and designed for a minimum bursting pressure of 1,250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) An excess flow check valve or automatic shutoff valve shall be installed at the terminus of the liquid line at the point of attachment of the dispensing hose.
</P>
<P>(vi)(<I>a</I>) LP-Gas dispensing devices shall be located not less than 10 feet from aboveground storage containers greater than 2,000 gallons water capacity. The dispensing devices shall not be less than 20 feet from any building (not including canopies), basement, cellar, pit, or line of adjoining property which may be built upon and not less than 10 feet from sidewalks, streets, or thoroughfares. No drains or blowoff lines shall be directed into or in proximity to the sewer systems used for other purposes.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) LP-Gas dispensing devices shall be installed on a concrete foundation or as part of a complete storage and dispensing assembly mounted on a common base, and shall be adequately protected from physical damage.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) LP-Gas dispensing devices shall not be installed within a building except that they may be located under a weather shelter or canopy provided this area is not enclosed on more than two sides. If the enclosing sides are adjacent to each other, the area shall be properly ventilated.
</P>
<P>(vii) The dispensing of LP-Gas into the fuel container of a vehicle shall be performed by a competent attendant who shall remain at the LP-Gas dispenser during the entire transfer operation.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Additional rules.</I> There shall be no smoking on the driveway of service stations in the dispensing areas or transport truck unloading areas. Conspicuous signs prohibiting smoking shall be posted within sight of the customer being served. Letters on such signs shall be not less than 4 inches high. The motors of all vehicles being fueled shall be shut off during the fueling operations.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Electrical.</I> Electrical equipment and installations shall conform to paragraphs (b) (17) and (18) of this section.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Fire protection.</I> Each service station shall be provided with at least one approved portable fire extinguisher having at least an 8-B, C, rating.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> (i) Paragraph (b) of this section applies to installations made in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c), (d), (e), (g), and (h) of this section, except as noted in each of those paragraphs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraphs (c) through (h) of this section apply as provided in each of those paragraphs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inapplicability.</I> This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Marine and pipeline terminals, natural gas processing plants, refineries, or tank farms other than those at industrial sites.
</P>
<P>(ii) LP-Gas refrigerated storage systems;
</P>
<P>(iii) LP-Gas when used with oxygen. The requirements of § 1910.253 shall apply to such use;
</P>
<P>(iv) LP-Gas when used in utility gas plants. The National Fire Protection Association Standard for the Storage and Handling of Liquefied Petroleum Gases at Utility Gas Plants, NFPA No. 59-1968, shall apply to such use;
</P>
<P>(v) Low-pressure (not in excess of one-half pound per square inch or 14 inches water column) LP-Gas piping systems, and the installation and operation of residential and commercial appliances including their inlet connections, supplied through such systems. For such systems, the National Fire Protection Association Standard for the Installation of Gas Appliances and Gas Piping, NFPA 54-1969 shall apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retroactivity.</I> Unless otherwise stated, it is not intended that the provisions of this section be retroactive.
</P>
<P>(i) Existing plants, appliances, equipment, buildings, structures, and installations for the storage, handling or use of LP-Gas, which were in compliance with the current provisions of the National Fire Protection Association Standard for the Storage and Handling of Liquefied Petroleum Gases NFPA No. 58, at the time of manufacture or installation may be continued in use, if such continued use does not constitute a recognized hazard that is causing or is likely to cause death or serious physical harm to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stocks of equipment and appliances on hand in such locations as manufacturers' storage, distribution warehouses, and dealers' storage and showrooms, which were in compliance with the current provisions of the National Fire Protection Association Standard for the Storage and Handling of Liquefied Petroleum Gases, NFPA No. 58, at the time of manufacture, may be placed in service, if such use does not constitute a recognized hazard that is causing or is likely to cause death or serious physical harm to employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49747, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 53 FR 12122, Apr. 12, 1988; 55 FR 25094, June 20, 1990; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 58 FR 35309, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9237, 9238, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 33466, June 18, 1998; 72 FR 71069, Dec. 14, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.111" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.111   Storage and handling of anhydrous ammonia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> (i) This standard is intended to apply to the design, construction, location, installation, and operation of anhydrous ammonia systems including refrigerated ammonia storage systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) This standard does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Ammonia manufacturing plants.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Refrigeration plants where ammonia is used solely as a refrigerant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Appurtenances.</I> All devices such as pumps, compressors, safety relief devices, liquid-level gaging devices, valves and pressure gages.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cylinder.</I> A container of 1,000 pounds of water capacity or less constructed in accordance with Department of Transportation specifications.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Code.</I> The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME)—1968.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Container.</I> Includes all vessels, tanks, cylinders, or spheres used for transportation, storage, or application of anhydrous ammonia.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>DOT.</I> U.S. Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Design pressure</I> is identical to the term <I>Maximum Allowable Working Pressure</I> used in the Code.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Farm vehicle</I> (implement of husbandry). A vehicle for use on a farm on which is mounted a container of not over 1,200 gallons water capacity.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Filling density.</I> the percent ratio of the weight of the gas in a container to the weight of water at 60 °F. that the container will hold.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Gas.</I> Anhydrous ammonia in either the gaseous or liquefied state.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Gas masks.</I> Gas masks must be approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) under 42 CFR part 84 for use with anhydrous ammonia.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Capacity.</I> Total volume of the container in standard U.S. gallons.
</P>
<P>(xii) DOT specifications—Regulations of the Department of Transportation published in 49 CFR chapter I.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic rules.</I> This paragraph applies to all paragraphs of this section unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Approval of equipment and systems.</I> Each appurtenance shall be approved in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) It was installed before February 8, 1973, and was approved, tested, and installed in accordance with either the provisions of the American National Standard for the Storage and Handling of Anhydrous Ammonia, K61.1, or the Fertilizer Institute Standards for the Storage and Handling of Agricultural Anhydrous Ammonia, M-1, (both of which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6) in effect at the time of installation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) It is accepted, or certified, or listed, or labeled, or otherwise determined to be safe by a nationally recognized testing laboratory; or
</P>
<P>(iii) It is a type which no nationally recognized testing laboratory does, or will undertake to, accept, certify, list, label, or determine to be safe; and such equipment is inspected or tested by any Federal, State, municipal, or other local authority responsible for enforcing occupational safety provisions of a Federal, State, municipal or other local law, code, or regulation pertaining to the storage, handling, transport, and use of anhydrous ammonia, and found to be in compliance with either the provisions of the American National Standard for the Storage and Handling of Anhydrous Ammonia, K61.1, or the Fertilizer Institute Standards for the Storage and Handling of Agricultural Anhydrous Ammonia, M-1, in effect at the time of installation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) It is a custom-designed and custom-built unit, which no nationally recognized testing laboratory, or Federal, State, municipal or local authority responsible for the enforcement of a Federal, State, municipal, or local law, code or regulation pertaining to the storage, transportation and use of anhydrous ammonia is willing to undertake to accept, certify, list, label or determine to be safe, and the employer has on file a document attesting to its safe condition following the conduct of appropriate tests. The document shall be signed by a registered professional engineer or other person having special training or experience sufficient to permit him to form an opinion as to safety of the unit involved. The document shall set forth the test bases, test data and results, and also the qualifications of the certifying person.
</P>
<P>(v) For the purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), the word <I>listed</I> means that equipment is of a kind mentioned in a list which is published by a nationally recognized laboratory which makes periodic inspection of the production of such equipment, and states such equipment meets nationally recognized standards or has been tested and found safe for use in a specified manner. <I>Labeled</I> means there is attached to it a label, symbol, or other identifying mark of a nationally recognized testing laboratory which, makes periodic inspections of the production of such equipment, and whose labeling indicates compliance with nationally recognized standards or tests to determine safe use in a specified manner. <I>Certified</I> means it has been tested and found by a nationally recognized testing laboratory to meet nationally recognized standards or to be safe for use in a specified manner, or is of a kind whose production is periodically inspected by a nationally recognized testing laboratory, and it bears a label, tag, or other record of certification.
</P>
<P>(vi) For the purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for construction, original test and requalification of nonrefrigerated containers.</I> (i) Containers used with systems covered in paragraphs (c), (f), (g), and (h) of this section shall be constructed and tested in accordance with the Code except that construction under Table UW12 at a basic joint efficiency of under 80 percent is not authorized.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers built according to the Code do not have to comply with Paragraphs UG125 to UG128 inclusive, and Paragraphs UG132 and UG133 of the Code.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers exceeding 36 inches in diameter or 250 gallons water capacity shall be constructed to comply with one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Containers shall be stress relieved after fabrication in accordance with the Code, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Cold-form heads when used, shall be stress relieved, or
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Hot-formed heads shall be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) Welding to the shell, head, or any other part of the container subject to internal pressure shall be done in compliance with the Code. Other welding is permitted only on saddle plates, lugs, or brackets attached to the container by the container manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers used with systems covered in paragraph (e) of this section shall be constructed and tested in accordance with the DOT specifications.
</P>
<P>(vi) The provisions of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph shall not be construed as prohibiting the continued use or reinstallation of containers constructed and maintained in accordance with the 1949, 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, and 1962 editions of the Code or any revisions thereof in effect at the time of fabrication.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Marking nonrefrigerated containers.</I> (i) System nameplates, when required, shall be permanently attached to the system so as to be readily accessible for inspection and shall include markings as prescribed in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each container or system covered in paragraphs (c), (f), (g), and (h) of this section shall be marked as specified in the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) With a notation “Anhydrous Ammonia.”
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) With a marking identifying compliance with the rules of the Code under which the container is constructed.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Under ground: Container and system nameplate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Above ground: Container.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>c</I>) With a notation whether the system is designed for underground or aboveground installation or both.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) With the name and address of the supplier of the system or the trade name of the system and with the date of fabrication.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Under ground and above ground: System nameplate.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>e</I>) With the water capacity of the container in pounds at 60 °F. or gallons, U.S. Standard.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Under ground: Container and system nameplate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Above ground: Container.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>f</I>) With the design pressure in pounds per square inch.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Under ground: Container and system nameplate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Above ground: Container.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>g</I>) With the wall thickness of the shell and heads.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Under ground: Container and system nameplate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Above ground: Container.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>h</I>) With marking indicating the maximum level to which the container may be filled with liquid anhydrous ammonia at temperatures between 20 °F. and 130 °F. except on containers provided with fixed level indicators, such as fixed length dip tubes, or containers that are filled with weight. Markings shall be in increments of not more than 20 °F.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Above ground and under ground: System nameplate or on liquid-level gaging device.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>i</I>) With the total outside surface area of the container in square feet.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Under ground: System nameplate.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Above ground: No requirement.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Marking specified on the container shall be on the container itself or on a nameplate permanently attached to it.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Marking refrigerated containers.</I> Each refrigerated container shall be marked with nameplate on the outer covering in an accessible place as specified in the following:
</P>
<P>(i) With the notation, “Anhydrous Ammonia.”
</P>
<P>(ii) With the name and address of the builder and the date of fabrication.
</P>
<P>(iii) With the water capacity of the container in gallons, U.S. Standard.
</P>
<P>(iv) With the design pressure.
</P>
<P>(v) With the minimum temperature in degrees Fahrenheit for which the container was designed.
</P>
<P>(vi) The maximum allowable water level to which the container may be filled for test purposes.
</P>
<P>(vii) With the density of the product in pounds per cubic foot for which the container was designed.
</P>
<P>(viii) With the maximum level to which the container may be filled with liquid anhydrous ammonia.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Location of containers.</I> (i) Consideration shall be given to the physiological effects of ammonia as well as to adjacent fire hazards in selecting the location for a storage container. Containers shall be located outside of buildings or in buildings or sections thereof especially provided for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) Permanent storage containers shall be located at least 50 feet from a dug well or other sources of potable water supply, unless the container is a part of a water-treatment installation.
</P>
<P>(iii)-(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) Storage areas shall be kept free of readily ignitible materials such as waste, weeds, and long dry grass.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Container appurtenances.</I> (i) All appurtenances shall be designed for not less than the maximum working pressure of that portion of the system on which they are installed. All appurtenances shall be fabricated from materials proved suitable for anhydrous ammonia service.
</P>
<P>(ii) All connections to containers except safety relief devices, gaging devices, or those fitted with No. 54 drill-size orifice shall have shutoff valves located as close to the container as practicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Excess flow valves where required by these standards shall close automatically at the rated flows of vapor or liquid as specified by the manufacturer. The connections and line including valves and fittings being protected by an excess flow valve shall have a greater capacity than the rated flow of the excess flow valve so that the valve will close in case of failure of the line or fittings.
</P>
<P>(iv) Liquid-level gaging devices that require bleeding of the product to the atmosphere and which are so constructed that outward flow will not exceed that passed by a No. 54 drill-size opening need not be equipped with excess flow valves.
</P>
<P>(v) Openings from the container or through fittings attached directly on the container to which pressure gage connections are made need not be equipped with excess flow valves if such openings are not larger than No. 54 drill size.
</P>
<P>(vi) Excess flow and back pressure check valves where required by the standards in this section shall be located inside of the container or at a point outside as close as practicable to where the line enters the container. In the latter case installation shall be made in such manner that any undue strain beyond the excess flow or back pressure check valve will not cause breakage between the container and the valve.
</P>
<P>(vii) Excess flow valves shall be designed with a bypass, not to exceed a No. 60 drill-size opening to allow equalization of pressures.
</P>
<P>(viii) All excess flow valves shall be plainly and permanently marked with the name or trademark of the manufacturer, the catalog number, and the rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Piping, tubing, and fittings.</I> (i) All piping, tubing, and fittings shall be made of material suitable for anhydrous ammonia service.
</P>
<P>(ii) All piping, tubing, and fittings shall be designed for a pressure not less than the maximum pressure to which they may be subjected in service.
</P>
<P>(iii) All refrigerated piping shall conform to the Refrigeration Piping Code, American National Standards Institute, B31.5-1966 with addenda B31.1a-1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, as it applies to ammonia.
</P>
<P>(iv) Piping used on non-refrigerated systems shall be at least American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) A-53-69 Grade B Electric Resistance Welded and Electric Flash Welded Pipe, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, or equal. Such pipe shall be at least schedule 40 when joints are welded, or welded and flanged. Such pipe shall be at least schedule 80 when joints are threaded. Threaded connections shall not be back-welded. Brass, copper, or galvanized steel pipe shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(v) Tubing made of brass, copper, or other material subject to attack by ammonia shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Cast iron fittings shall not be used but this shall not prohibit the use of fittings made specifically for ammonia service of malleable, nodular, or high strength gray iron meeting American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) A47-68, ASTM 395-68, or ASTM A126-66 Class B or C all of which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(vii) Joint compounds shall be resistant to ammonia.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hose specifications.</I> (i) Hose used in ammonia service shall conform to the joint Agricultural Ammonia Institute—Rubber Manufacturers Association Specifications for Anhydrous Ammonia Hose.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hose subject to container pressure shall be designed for a minimum working pressure of 350 p.s.i.g. and a minimum burst pressure of 1,750 p.s.i.g. Hose assemblies, when made up, shall be capable of withstanding a test pressure of 500 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hose and hose connections located on the low-pressure side of flow control of pressure-reducing valves shall be designed for a bursting pressure of not less than 5 times the pressure setting of the safety relief devices protecting that portion of the system but not less than 125 p.s.i.g. All connections shall be so designed and constructed that there will be no leakage when connected.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where hose is to be used for transferring liquid from one container to another, “wet” hose is recommended. Such hose shall be equipped with approved shutoff valves at the discharge end. Provision shall be made to prevent excessive pressure in the hose.
</P>
<P>(v) On all hose one-half inch outside diameter and larger, used for the transfer of anhydrous ammonia liquid or vapor, there shall be etched, cast, or impressed at 5-foot intervals the following information.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>“Anhydrous Ammonia” xxx p.s.i.g. (maximum working pressure), manufacturer's name or trademark, year of manufacture.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>In lieu of this requirement the same information may be contained on a nameplate permanently attached to the hose.
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-36
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Minimum required rate of discharge in cubic feet per minute of air at 120 percent of the maximum permitted start to discharge pressure of safety relief valves]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Surface area (sq. ft.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow rate CFM air
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">310
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">408
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">455
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">501
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">547
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">635
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">678
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">720
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">762
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">804
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">845
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">885
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">925
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">965
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,090
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,160
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,280
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,310
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,350
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,420
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,460
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,530
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,640
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">195</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,670
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,710
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,920
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,980
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">290</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,320
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,380
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">310</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,450
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,510
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">340</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,640
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,760
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,830
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,890
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">390</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,950
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,320
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,620
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,910
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,480
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,760
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,590
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,850
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,380
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,640
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,160
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,410
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,660
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,910
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,160
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,410
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,650
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,140
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,380
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,620
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,860
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,090
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,330
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,560
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,030
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,260
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,490
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,720
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,950
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,630
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,850
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,520</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Surface Area = total outside surface area of container in square feet. When the surface area is not stamped on the nameplate or when the marking is not legible the area can be calculated by using one of the following formulas:
</P>
<P>(1) Cylindrical container with hemispherical heads:
</P>
<FP-2>Area = overall length in feet times outside diameter in feet times 3.1416.
</FP-2>
<P>(2) Cylindrical container with other than hemispherical heads:
</P>
<FP-2>Area = (overall length in feet plus 0.3 outside diameter in feet) times outside diameter in feet times 3.1416.
</FP-2>
<P>(3) Spherical container:
</P>
<FP-2>Area = outside diameter in feet squared times 3.1416.
</FP-2>
<P>Flow Rate—CFM Air = cubic feet per minute of air required at standard conditions, 60 °F. and atmospheric pressure (14.7 p.s.i.a.).
</P>
<P>The rate of discharge may be interpolated for intermediate values of surface area. For containers with total outside surface area greater than 2,500 square feet, the required flow rate can be calculated using the formula: Flow Rate CFM Air = 22.11 A
<SU>0 82</SU>, where A = outside surface area of the container in square feet.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(9) <I>Safety relief devices.</I> (i) Every container used in systems covered by paragraphs (c), (f), (g), and (h) of this section shall be provided with one or more safety relief valves of the spring-loaded or equivalent type. The discharge from safety-relief valves shall be vented away from the container upward and unobstructed to the atmosphere. All relief-valve discharge openings shall have suitable rain caps that will allow free discharge of the vapor and prevent entrance of water. Provision shall be made for draining condensate which may accumulate. The rate of the discharge shall be in accordance with the provisions of Table H-36.
</P>
<P>(ii) Container safety-relief valves shall be set to start-to-discharge as follows, with relation to the design pressure of the container:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Containers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ASME-U-68, U-69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ASME-U-200, U-201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ASME 1959, 1956, 1952, or 1962</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">API-ASME</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Coast Guard</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>As required by DOT Regulations.
</FP>
<P>(iii) Safety relief devices used in systems covered by paragraphs (c), (f), (g), and (h) of this section shall be constructed to discharge at not less than the rates required in paragraph (b)(9)(i) of this section before the pressure is in excess of 120 percent (not including the 10 percent tolerance referred to in paragraph (b)(9)(ii) of this section) of the maximum permitted start-to-discharge pressure setting of the device.
</P>
<P>(iv) Safety-relief valves shall be so arranged that the possibility of tampering will be minimized. If the pressure setting adjustment is external, the relief valves shall be provided with means for sealing the adjustment.
</P>
<P>(v) Shutoff valves shall not be installed between the safety-relief valves and the container; except, that a shutoff valve may be used where the arrangement of this valve is such as always to afford full required capacity flow through the relief valves.
</P>
<P>(vi) Safety-relief valves shall have direct communication with the vapor space of the container.
</P>
<P>(vii) Each container safety-relief valve used with systems covered by paragraphs (c), (f), (g), and (h) of this section shall be plainly and permanently marked with the symbol “NH<E T="52">3</E>” or “AA”; with the pressure in pounds-per-square-inch gage at which the valve is set to start-to-discharge; with the actual rate of discharge of the valve at its full open position in cubic feet per minute of air at 60 °F. and atmospheric pressure; and with the manufacturer's name and catalog number. Example: “NH<E T="52">3</E> 250-4050 Air” indicates that the valve is suitable for use on an anhydrous ammonia container, is set to start-to-discharge at a pressure of 250 p.s.i.g., and that its rate of discharge at full open position (subdivisions (ii) and (iii) of this subparagraph) is 4,050 cubic feet per minute of air.
</P>
<P>(viii) The flow capacity of the relief valve shall not be restricted by any connection to it on either the upstream or downstream side.
</P>
<P>(ix) A hydrostatic relief valve shall be installed between each pair of valves in the liquid ammonia piping or hose where liquid may be trapped so as to relieve into the atmosphere at a safe location.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>General.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Stationary storage installations must have at least two suitable gas masks in readily-accessible locations. Full-face masks with ammonia canisters that have been approved by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84 are suitable for emergency action involving most anhydrous ammonia leaks, particularly leaks that occur outdoors. For respiratory protection in concentrated ammonia atmospheres, a self-contained breathing apparatus is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Stationary storage installations shall have an easily accessible shower or a 50-gallon drum of water.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each vehicle transporting ammonia in bulk except farm applicator vehicles shall carry a container of at least 5 gallons of water and shall be equipped with a full face mask.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Charging of containers.</I> (i) The filling densities for containers that are not refrigerated shall not exceed the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of container
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent by weight
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent by volume
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aboveground-Uninsulated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aboveground-Uninsulated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aboveground-Insulated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Underground-Uninsulated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DOT—In accord with DOT regulations.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Aboveground uninsulated containers may be charged 87.5 percent by volume provided the temperature of the anhydrous ammonia being charged is determined to be not lower than 30 °F. or provided the charging of the container is stopped at the first indication of frost or ice formation on its outside surface and is not resumed until such frost or ice has disappeared.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Transfer of liquids.</I> (i) Anhydrous ammonia shall always be at a temperature suitable for the material of construction and the design of the receiving container.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall require the continuous presence of an attendant in the vicinity of the operation during such time as ammonia is being transferred.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers shall be charged or used only upon authorization of the owner.
</P>
<P>(iv) Containers shall be gaged and charged only in the open atmosphere or in buildings or areas thereof provided for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(v) Pumps used for transferring ammonia shall be those manufactured for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Pumps shall be designed for at least 250 p.s.i.g. working pressure.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Positive displacement pumps shall have, installed off the discharged port, a constant differential relief valve discharging into the suction port of the pump through a line of sufficient size to carry the full capacity of the pump at relief valve setting, which setting and installation shall be according to the pump manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) On the discharge side of the pump, before the relief valve line, there shall be installed a pressure gage graduated from 0 to 400 p.s.i.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Plant piping shall contain shutoff valves located as close as practical to pump connections.
</P>
<P>(vi) Compressors used for transferring or refrigerating ammonia shall be recommended for ammonia service by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Compressors shall be designed for at least 250 p.s.i.g. working pressure.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Plant piping shall contain shutoff valves located as close as practical to compressor connections.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A relief valve large enough to discharge the full capacity of the compressor shall be connected to the discharge before any shutoff valve.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Compressors shall have pressure gages at suction and discharge graduated to at least one and one-half times the maximum pressure that can be developed.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Adequate means, such as drainable liquid trap, shall be provided on the compressor suction to minimize the entry of liquid into the compressor.
</P>
<P>(vii) Loading and unloading systems shall be protected by suitable devices to prevent emptying of the storage container or the container being loaded or unloaded in the event of severance of the hose. Backflow check valves or properly sized excess flow valves shall be installed where necessary to provide such protection. In the event that such valves are not practical, remotely operated shutoff valves may be installed.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Tank car unloading points and operations.</I> (i) Provisions for unloading tank cars shall conform to the applicable recommendations contained in the DOT regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall insure that unloading operations are performed by reliable persons properly instructed and given the authority to monitor careful compliance with all applicable procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) Caution signs shall be so placed on the track or car as to give necessary warning to persons approaching the car from open end or ends of siding and shall be left up until after the car is unloaded and disconnected from discharge connections. Signs shall be of metal or other suitable material, at least 12 by 15 inches in size and bear the words “STOP—Tank Car Connected” or “STOP—Men at Work” the word, “STOP,” being in letters at least 4 inches high and the other words in letters at least 2 inches high.
</P>
<P>(iv) The track of a tank car siding shall be substantially level.
</P>
<P>(v) Brakes shall be set and wheels blocked on all cars being unloaded.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Liquid-level gaging device.</I> (i) Each container except those filled by weight shall be equipped with an approved liquid-level gaging device. A thermometer well shall be provided in all containers not utilizing a fixed liquid-level gaging device.
</P>
<P>(ii) All gaging devices shall be arranged so that the maximum liquid level to which the container is filled is readily determined.
</P>
<P>(iii) Gaging devices that require bleeding of the product to the atmosphere such as the rotary tube, fixed tube, and slip tube devices shall be designed so that the maximum opening of the bleed valve is not larger than No. 54 drill size unless provided with an excess flow valve. (This requirement does not apply to farm vehicles used for the application of ammonia as covered in paragraph (h) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(iv) Gaging devices shall have a design pressure equal to or greater than the design pressure of the container on which they are installed.
</P>
<P>(v) Fixed tube liquid-level gages shall be designed and installed to indicate that level at which the container is filled to 85 percent of its water capacity in gallons.
</P>
<P>(vi) Gage glasses of the columnar type shall be restricted to stationary storage installations. They shall be equipped with shutoff valves having metallic handwheels, with excess-flow valves, and with extra heavy glass adequately protected with a metal housing applied by the gage manufacturer. They shall be shielded against the direct rays of the sun.
</P>
<P>(15) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Electrical equipment and wiring.</I> (i) Electrical equipment and wiring for use in ammonia installations shall be general purpose or weather resistant as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical systems shall be installed and maintained in accordance with subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Systems utilizing stationary, nonrefrigerated storage containers.</I> This paragraph applies to stationary, nonrefrigerated storage installations utilizing containers other than those covered in paragraph (e) of this section. Paragraph (b) of this section applies to this paragraph unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Design pressure and construction of containers.</I> The minimum design pressure for nonrefrigerated containers shall be 250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Container valves and accessories, filling and discharge connections.</I> (i) Each filling connection shall be provided with combination back-pressure check valve and excess-flow valve; one double or two single back-pressure check valves; or a positive shutoff valve in conjunction with either an internal back-pressure check valve or an internal excess flow valve.
</P>
<P>(ii) All liquid and vapor connections to containers except filling pipes, safety relief connections, and liquid-level gaging and pressure gage connections provided with orifices not larger than No. 54 drill size as required in paragraphs (b)(6) (iv) and (v) of this section shall be equipped with excess-flow valves.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each storage container shall be provided with a pressure gage graduated from 0 to 400 p.s.i. Gages shall be designated for use in ammonia service.
</P>
<P>(iv) All containers shall be equipped with vapor return valves.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safety-relief devices.</I> (i) Every container shall be provided with one or more safety-relief valves of the spring-loaded or equivalent type in accordance with paragraph (b)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rate of discharge of spring-loaded safety relief valves installed on underground containers may be reduced to a minimum of 30 percent of the rate of discharge specified in Table H-36. Containers so protected shall not be uncovered after installation until the liquid ammonia has been removed. Containers which may contain liquid ammonia before being installed underground and before being completely covered with earth are to be considered aboveground containers when determining the rate of discharge requirements of the safety-relief valves.
</P>
<P>(iii) On underground installations where there is a probability of the manhole or housing becoming flooded, the discharge from vent lines shall be located above the high water level. All manholes or housings shall be provided with ventilated louvers or their equivalent, the area of such openings equalling or exceeding combined discharge areas of safety-relief valves and vent lines which discharge their content into the manhole housing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vent pipes, when used, shall not be restricted or of smaller diameter than the relief-valve outlet connection.
</P>
<P>(v) If desired, vent pipes from two or more safety-relief devices located on the same unit, or similar lines from two or more different units may be run into a common discharge header, provided the capacity of such header is at least equal to the sum of the capacities of the individual discharge lines.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reinstallation of containers.</I> (i) Containers once installed under ground shall not later be reinstalled above ground or under ground, unless they successfully withstand hydrostatic pressure retests at the pressure specified for the original hydrostatic test as required by the code under which constructed and show no evidence of serious corrosion.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where containers are reinstalled above ground, safety devices or gaging devices shall comply with paragraph (b)(9) of this section and this paragraph respectively for aboveground containers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Installation of storage containers.</I> (i) Containers installed above ground, except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section shall be provided with substantial concrete or masonry supports, or structural steel supports on firm concrete or masonry foundations. All foundations shall extend below the frost line.
</P>
<P>(ii) Horizontal aboveground containers shall be so mounted on foundations as to permit expansion and contraction. Every container shall be supported to prevent the concentration of excessive loads on the supporting portion of the shell. That portion of the container in contact with foundations or saddles shall be protected against corrosion.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers installed under ground shall be so placed that the top of the container is below the frost line and in no case less than 2 feet below the surface of the ground. Should ground conditions make compliance with these requirements impracticable, installation shall be made otherwise to prevent physical damage. It will not be necessary to cover the portion of the container to which manhole and other connections are affixed. When necessary to prevent floating, containers shall be securely anchored or weighted.
</P>
<P>(iv) Underground containers shall be set on a firm foundation (firm earth may be used) and surrounded with earth or sand well tamped in place. The container, prior to being placed under ground, shall be given a corrosion resisting protective coating. The container thus coated shall be so lowered into place as to prevent abrasion or other damage to the coating.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers with foundations attached (portable or semiportable tank containers with suitable steel “runners” or “skids” and commonly known in the industry as “skid tanks”) shall be designed and constructed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) Secure anchorage or adequate pier height shall be provided against container flotation wherever sufficiently high flood water might occur.
</P>
<P>(vii) The distance between underground containers of over 2,000 gallons capacity shall be at least 5 feet.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Protection of appurtenances.</I> (i) Valves, regulating, gaging, and other appurtenances shall be protected against tampering and physical damage. Such appurtenances shall also be protected during transit of containers.
</P>
<P>(ii) All connections to underground containers shall be located within a dome, housing, or manhole and with access thereto by means of a substantial cover.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Damage from vehicles.</I> Precaution shall be taken against damage to ammonia systems from vehicles.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Refrigerated storage systems.</I> This paragraph applies to systems utilizing containers with the storage of anhydrous ammonia under refrigerated conditions. All applicable rules of paragraph (b) of this section apply to this paragraph unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Design of containers.</I> (i) The design temperature shall be the minimum temperature to which the container will be refrigerated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers with a design pressure exceeding 15 p.s.i.g. shall be constructed in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and the materials shall be selected from those listed in API Standard 620, Recommended Rules for Design and Construction of Large, Welded, Low-Pressure Storage Tanks, Fourth Edition, 1970, Tables 2.02, R2.2, R2.2(A), R2.2.1, or R2.3 which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers with a design pressure of 15 p.s.i.g. and less shall be constructed in accordance with the applicable requirements of API Standard 620 including its appendix R.
</P>
<P>(iv) When austenitic steels or nonferrous materials are used, the Code shall be used as a guide in the selection of materials for use at the design temperature.
</P>
<P>(v) The filling density for refrigerated storage containers shall be such that the container will not be liquid full at a liquid temperature corresponding to the vapor pressure at the start-to-discharge pressure setting of the safety-relief valve.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation of refrigerated storage containers.</I> (i) Containers shall be supported on suitable noncombustible foundations designed to accommodate the type of container being used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate protection against flotation or other water damage shall be provided wherever high flood water might occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers for product storage at less than 32 °F. shall be supported in such a way, or heat shall be supplied, to prevent the effects of freezing and consequent frost heaving.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Shutoff valves.</I> When operating conditions make it advisable, a check valve shall be installed on the fill connection and a remotely operated shutoff valve on other connections located below the maximum liquid level.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Safety relief devices.</I> (i) Safety relief valves shall be set to start-to-discharge at a pressure not in excess of the design pressure of the container and shall have a total relieving capacity sufficient to prevent a maximum pressure in the container of more than 120 percent of the design pressure. Relief valves for refrigerated storage containers shall be self-contained spring-loaded, weight-loaded, or self-contained pilot-operated type.
</P>
<P>(ii) The total relieving capacity shall be the larger of:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Possible refrigeration system upset such as (<I>1</I>) cooling water failure, (<I>2</I>) power failure, (<I>3</I>) instrument air or instrument failure, (<I>4</I>) mechanical failure of any equipment, (<I>5</I>) excessive pumping rates.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fire exposure determined in accordance with Compressed Gas Association (CGA) S-1, part 3, Safety Relief Device Standards for Compressed Gas Storage Containers, 1959, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, except that “A” shall be the total exposed surface area in square feet up to 25 foot above grade or to the equator of the storage container if it is a sphere, whichever is greater. If the relieving capacity required for fire exposure is greater than that required by (<I>a</I>) of this subdivision, the additional capacity may be provided by weak roof to shell seams in containers operating at essentially atmospheric pressure and having an inherently weak roof-to-shell seam. The weak roof-to-shell seam is not to be considered as providing any of the capacity required in (<I>a</I>) of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(iii) If vent lines are installed to conduct the vapors from the relief valve, the back pressure under full relieving conditions shall not exceed 50 percent of the start-to-discharge pressure for pressure balanced valves or 10 percent of the start-to-discharge pressure for conventional valves. The vent lines shall be installed to prevent accumulation of liquid in the lines.
</P>
<P>(iv) The valve or valve installation shall provide weather protection.
</P>
<P>(v) Atmospheric storage shall be provided with vacuum breakers. Ammonia gas, nitrogen, methane, or other inert gases can be used to provide a pad.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Protection of container appurtenances.</I> Appurtenances shall be protected against tampering and physical damage.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reinstallation of refrigerated storage containers.</I> Containers of such size as to require field fabrication shall, when moved and reinstalled, be reconstructed and reinspected in complete accordance with the requirements under which they were constructed. The containers shall be subjected to a pressure retest and if rerating is necessary, rerating shall be in accordance with applicable requirements.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Damage from vehicles.</I> Precaution shall be taken against damage from vehicles.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Refrigeration load and equipment.</I> (i) The total refrigeration load shall be computed as the sum of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Load imposed by heat flow into the container caused by the temperature differential between design ambient temperature and storage temperature.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Load imposed by heat flow into the container caused by maximum sun radiation.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Maximum load imposed by filling the container with ammonia warmer than the design storage temperature.
</P>
<P>(ii) More than one storage container may be handled by the same refrigeration system.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Compressors.</I> (i) A minimum of two compressors shall be provided either of which shall be of sufficient size to handle the loads listed in paragraphs (d)(8)(i) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section. Where more than two compressors are provided minimum standby equipment equal to the largest normally operating equipment shall be installed. Filling compressors may be used as standby equipment for holding compressors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compressors shall be sized to operate with a suction pressure at least 10 percent below the minimum setting of the safety valve(s) on the storage container and shall withstand a suction pressure at least equal to 120 percent of the design pressure of the container.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Compressor drives.</I> (i) Each compressor shall have its individual driving unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) An emergency source of power of sufficient capacity to handle the loads listed in paragraphs (d)(8)(i) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section shall be provided unless facilities are available to safely dispose of vented vapors while the refrigeration system is not operating.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Automatic control equipment.</I> (i) The refrigeration system shall be arranged with suitable controls to govern the compressor operation in accordance with the load as evidenced by the pressure in the container(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) An emergency alarm system shall be installed to function in the event the pressure in the container(s) rises to the maximum allowable operating pressure.
</P>
<P>(iii) An emergency alarm and shutoff shall be located in the condenser system to respond to excess discharge pressure caused by failure of the cooling medium.
</P>
<P>(iv) All automatic controls shall be installed in a manner to preclude operation of alternate compressors unless the controls will function with the alternate compressors.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Separators for compressors.</I> (i) An entrainment separator of suitable size and design pressure shall be installed in the compressor suction line of lubricated compression. The separator shall be equipped with a drain and gaging device.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Condensers.</I> The condenser system may be cooled by air or water or both. The condenser shall be designed for at least 250 p.s.i.g. Provision shall be made for purging noncondensibles either manually or automatically.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Receiver and liquid drain.</I> A receiver shall be provided with a liquid-level control to discharge the liquid ammonia to storage. The receiver shall be designed for at least 250 p.s.i.g. and be equipped with the necessary connections, safety valves, and gaging device.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Insulation.</I> Refrigerated containers and pipelines which are insulated shall be covered with a material of suitable quality and thickness for the temperatures encountered. Insulation shall be suitably supported and protected against the weather. Weatherproofing shall be of a type which will not support flame propagation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Systems utilizing portable DOT containers</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> Cylinders shall comply with DOT specifications and shall be maintained, filled, packaged, marked, labeled, and shipped to comply with 49 CFR chapter I and the marking requirements set forth in § 1910.253(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Storage.</I> Cylinders shall be stored in an area free from ignitable debris and in such manner as to prevent external corrosion. Storage may be indoors or outdoors.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Heat protection.</I> Cylinders filled in accordance with DOT regulations will become liquid full at 145 °F. Cylinders shall be protected from heat sources such as radiant flame and steampipes. Heat shall not be applied directly to cylinders to raise the pressure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection.</I> Cylinders shall be stored in such manner as to protect them from moving vehicles or external damage.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Valve cap.</I> Any cylinder which is designed to have a valve protection cap shall have the cap securely in place when the cylinder is not in service.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Tank motor vehicles for the transportation of ammonia.</I> (1) This paragraph applies to containers and pertinent equipment mounted on tank motor vehicles including semitrailers and full trailers used for the transportation of ammonia. This paragraph does not apply to farm vehicles. For requirements covering farm vehicles, refer to paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section.
</P>
<FP>Paragraph (b) of this section applies to this paragraph unless otherwise noted. Containers and pertinent equipment for tank motor vehicles for the transportation of anhydrous ammonia, in addition to complying with the requirements of this section, shall also comply with the requirements of DOT.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Design pressure and construction of containers.</I> (i) The minimum design pressure for containers shall be that specified in the regulations of the DOT.
</P>
<P>(ii) The shell or head thickness of any container shall not be less than three-sixteenth inch.
</P>
<P>(iii) All container openings, except safety relief valves, liquid-level gaging devices, and pressure gages, shall be labeled to designate whether they communicate with liquid or vapor space.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Container appurtenances.</I> (i) All appurtenances shall be protected against physical damage.
</P>
<P>(ii) All connections to containers, except filling connections, safety relief devices, and liquid-level and pressure gage connections, shall be provided with suitable automatic excess flow valves, or in lieu thereof, may be fitted with quick-closing internal valves, which shall remain closed except during delivery operations. The control mechanism for such valves may be provided with a secondary control remote from the delivery connections and such control mechanism shall be provided with a fusible section (melting point 208 °F. to 220 °F.) which will permit the internal valve to close automatically in case of fire.
</P>
<P>(iii) Filling connections shall be provided with automatic back-pressure check valves, excess-flow valves, or quick-closing internal valves, to prevent back-flow in case the filling connection is broken. Where the filling and discharge connect to a common opening in the container shell and that opening is fitted with a quick-closing internal valve as specified in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section, the automatic valve shall not be required.
</P>
<P>(iv) All containers shall be equipped for spray loading (filling in the vapor space) or with an approved vapor return valve of adequate capacity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Piping and fittings.</I> (i) All piping, tubing, and fittings shall be securely mounted and protected against damage. Means shall be provided to protect hoses while the vehicle is in motion.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fittings shall comply with paragraph (b)(6) of this section. Pipe shall be Schedule 80.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Safety relief devices.</I> (i) The discharge from safety relief valves shall be vented away from the container upward and unobstructed to the open air in such a manner as to prevent any impingement of escaping gas upon the container; loose-fitting rain caps shall be used. Size of discharge lines from safety valves shall not be smaller than the nominal size of the safety-relief valve outlet connection. Suitable provision shall be made for draining condensate which may accumulate in the discharge pipe.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any portion of liquid ammonia piping which at any time may be closed at both ends shall be provided with a hydrostatic relief valve.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfer of liquids.</I> (i) The content of tank motor vehicle containers shall be determined by weight, by a suitable liquid-level gaging device, or other approved methods. If the content of a container is to be determined by liquid-level measurement, the container shall have a thermometer well so that the internal liquid temperature can be easily determined. This volume when converted to weight shall not exceed the filling density specified by the DOT.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any pump, except a constant speed centrifugal pump, shall be equipped with a suitable pressure actuated bypass valve permitting flow from discharge to suction when the discharge pressure rises above a predetermined point. Pump discharge shall also be equipped with a spring-loaded safety relief valve set at a pressure not more than 135 percent of the setting of the bypass valve or more than 400 p.s.i.g., whichever is larger.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compressors shall be equipped with manually operated shutoff valves on both suction and discharge connections. Pressure gages of bourdon-tube type shall be installed on the suction and discharge of the compressor before the shutoff valves. The compressor shall not be operated if either pressure gage is removed or is inoperative. A spring-loaded, safety-relief valve capable of discharging to atmosphere the full flow of gas from the compressor at a pressure not exceeding 300 p.s.i.g. shall be connected between the compressor discharge and the discharge shutoff valve.
</P>
<P>(iv) Valve functions shall be clearly and legibly identified by metal tags or nameplates permanently affixed to each valve.
</P>
<P>(7)-(8) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Chock blocks.</I> At least two chock blocks shall be provided. These blocks shall be placed to prevent rolling of the vehicle whenever it is parked during loading and unloading operations.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Portable tank containers (skid tanks).</I> Where portable tank containers are used for farm storage they shall comply with paragraph (c)(1) of this section. When portable tank containers are used in lieu of cargo tanks and are permanently mounted on tank motor vehicles for the transportation of ammonia, they shall comply with the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Systems mounted on farm vehicles other than for the application of ammonia</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph applies to containers of 1,200 gallons capacity or less and pertinent equipment mounted on farm vehicles (implements of husbandry) and used other than for the application of ammonia to the soil. Paragraph (b) of this section applies to this paragraph unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design pressure and classification of containers.</I> (i) The minimum design pressure for containers shall be 250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(ii) The shell or head thickness of any container shall be not less than three-sixteenths of an inch.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mounting containers.</I> (i) A suitable “stop” or “stops” shall be mounted on the vehicle or on the container in such a way that the container shall not be dislodged from its mounting due to the vehicle coming to a sudden stop. Back slippage shall also be prevented by proper methods.
</P>
<P>(ii) A suitable “hold down” device shall be provided which will anchor the container to the vehicle at one or more places on each side of the container.
</P>
<P>(iii) When containers are mounted on four-wheel trailers, care shall be taken to insure that the weight is distributed evenly over both axles.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the cradle and the tank are not welded together suitable material shall be used between them to eliminate metal-to-metal friction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Container appurtenances.</I> (i) All containers shall be equipped with a fixed liquid-level gage.
</P>
<P>(ii) All containers with a capacity exceeding 250 gallons shall be equipped with a pressure gage having a dial graduated from 0-400 p.s.i.
</P>
<P>(iii) The filling connection shall be fitted with combination back-pressure check valve and excess-flow valve; one double or two single back-pressure check valves; or a positive shutoff valve in conjunction with either an internal back-pressure check valve or an internal excess flow valve.
</P>
<P>(iv) All containers with a capacity exceeding 250 gallons shall be equipped for spray loading or with an approved vapor return valve.
</P>
<P>(v) All vapor and liquid connections except safety-relief valves and those specifically exempted by paragraph (b)(6)(v) of this section shall be equipped with approved excess-flow valves or may be fitted with quick-closing internal valves which, except during operating periods, shall remain closed.
</P>
<P>(vi) Fittings shall be adequately protected from damage by a metal box or cylinder with open top securely fastened to the container or by rigid guards, well braced, welded to the container on both sides of the fittings or by a metal dome. If a metal dome is used, the relief valve shall be properly vented through the dome.
</P>
<P>(vii) If a liquid withdrawal line is installed in the bottom of a container, the connections thereto, including hose, shall not be lower than the lowest horizontal edge of the vehicle axle.
</P>
<P>(viii) Provision shall be made to secure both ends of the hose while in transit.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Marking the container.</I> There shall appear on each side and on the rear end of the container in letters at least 4 inches high, the words, “Caution—Ammonia” or the container shall be marked in accordance with DOT regulations.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Farm vehicles.</I> (i) Farm vehicles shall conform with State regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) All trailers shall be securely attached to the vehicle drawing them by means of drawbars supplemented by suitable safety chains.
</P>
<P>(iii) A trailer shall be constructed so that it will follow substantially in the path of the towing vehicle and will not whip or swerve dangerously from side to side.
</P>
<P>(iv) All vehicles shall carry a can containing 5 gallons or more of water.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Systems mounted on farm vehicles for the application of ammonia.</I> (1) This paragraph applies to systems utilizing containers of 250 gallons capacity or less which are mounted on farm vehicles (implement of husbandry) and used for the application of ammonia to the soil. Paragraph (b) of this section applies to this paragraph unless otherwise noted. Where larger containers are used, they shall comply with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design pressure and classification of containers.</I> (i) The minimum design pressure for containers shall be 250 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(ii) The shell or head thickness of any container shall not be less than three-sixteenths inch.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mounting of containers.</I> All containers and flow-control devices shall be securely mounted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Container valves and accessories.</I> (i) Each container shall have a fixed liquid-level gage.
</P>
<P>(ii) The filling connection shall be fitted with a combination back-pressure check valve and an excess-flow valve; one double or two single back-pressure check valves: or a positive shutoff valve in conjunction with an internal back-pressure check valve or an internal excess-flow valve.
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicator tank may be filled by venting to open air provided the bleeder valve orifice does not exceed seven-sixteenths inch in diameter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Regulation equipment may be connected directly to the tank coupling or flange, in which case a flexible connection shall be used between such regulating equipment and the remainder of the liquid withdrawal system. Regulating equipment not so installed shall be flexibly connected to the container shutoff valve.
</P>
<P>(v) No excess flow valve is required in the liquid withdrawal line provided the controlling orifice between the contents of the container and the outlet of the shutoff valve does not exceed seven-sixteenths inch in diameter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49748, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 53 FR 12122, Apr. 12, 1988; 61 FR 9238, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 1269, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 33466, June 18, 1998; 72 FR 71069, Dec. 14, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1910.112-1910.113" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1910.112-1910.113   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.119" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.119   Process safety management of highly hazardous chemicals.</HEAD>
<P><I>Purpose.</I> This section contains requirements for preventing or minimizing the consequences of catastrophic releases of toxic, reactive, flammable, or explosive chemicals. These releases may result in toxic, fire or explosion hazards.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> (1) This section applies to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A process which involves a chemical at or above the specified threshold quantities listed in appendix A to this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A process which involves a Category 1 flammable gas (as defined in 1910.1200(c)) or a flammable liquid with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C) on site in one location, in a quantity of 10,000 pounds (4535.9 kg) or more except for:
</P>
<P>(A) Hydrocarbon fuels used solely for workplace consumption as a fuel (e.g., propane used for comfort heating, gasoline for vehicle refueling), if such fuels are not a part of a process containing another highly hazardous chemical covered by this standard;
</P>
<P>(B) Flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C) stored in atmospheric tanks or transferred which are kept below their normal boiling point without benefit of chilling or refrigeration.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Retail facilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Oil or gas well drilling or servicing operations; or,
</P>
<P>(iii) Normally unoccupied remote facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Atmospheric tank</I> means a storage tank which has been designed to operate at pressures from atmospheric through 0.5 p.s.i.g. (pounds per square inch gauge, 3.45 Kpa).
</P>
<P><I>Boiling point</I> means the boiling point of a liquid at a pressure of 14.7 pounds per square inch absolute (p.s.i.a.) (760 mm.). For the purposes of this section, where an accurate boiling point is unavailable for the material in question, or for mixtures which do not have a constant boiling point, the 10 percent point of a distillation performed in accordance with the Standard Method of Test for Distillation of Petroleum Products, ASTM D-86-62, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, may be used as the boiling point of the liquid.
</P>
<P><I>Catastrophic release</I> means a major uncontrolled emission, fire, or explosion, involving one or more highly hazardous chemicals, that presents serious danger to employees in the workplace.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means the buildings, containers or equipment which contain a process.
</P>
<P><I>Highly hazardous chemical</I> means a substance possessing toxic, reactive, flammable, or explosive properties and specified by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Hot work</I> means work involving electric or gas welding, cutting, brazing, or similar flame or spark-producing operations.
</P>
<P><I>Normally unoccupied remote facility</I> means a facility which is operated, maintained or serviced by employees who visit the facility only periodically to check its operation and to perform necessary operating or maintenance tasks. No employees are permanently stationed at the facility.
</P>
<P>Facilities meeting this definition are not contiguous with, and must be geographically remote from all other buildings, processes or persons.
</P>
<P><I>Process</I> means any activity involving a highly hazardous chemical including any use, storage, manufacturing, handling, or the on-site movement of such chemicals, or combination of these activities. For purposes of this definition, any group of vessels which are interconnected and separate vessels which are located such that a highly hazardous chemical could be involved in a potential release shall be considered a single process.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement in kind</I> means a replacement which satisfies the design specification.
</P>
<P><I>Trade secret</I> means any confidential formula, pattern, process, device, information or compilation of information that is used in an employer's business, and that gives the employer an opportunity to obtain an advantage over competitors who do not know or use it. <I>See</I> Appendix E to § 1910.1200—Definition of a Trade Secret (which sets out the criteria to be used in evaluating trade secrets).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee participation.</I> (1) Employers shall develop a written plan of action regarding the implementation of the employee participation required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) Employers shall consult with employees and their representatives on the conduct and development of process hazards analyses and on the development of the other elements of process safety management in this standard.
</P>
<P>(3) Employers shall provide to employees and their representatives access to process hazard analyses and to all other information required to be developed under this standard.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Process safety information.</I> In accordance with the schedule set forth in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the employer shall complete a compilation of written process safety information before conducting any process hazard analysis required by the standard. The compilation of written process safety information is to enable the employer and the employees involved in operating the process to identify and understand the hazards posed by those processes involving highly hazardous chemicals. This process safety information shall include information pertaining to the hazards of the highly hazardous chemicals used or produced by the process, information pertaining to the technology of the process, and information pertaining to the equipment in the process.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Information pertaining to the hazards of the highly hazardous chemicals in the process.</I> This information shall consist of at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Toxicity information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Permissible exposure limits;
</P>
<P>(iii) Physical data;
</P>
<P>(iv) Reactivity data;
</P>
<P>(v) Corrosivity data;
</P>
<P>(vi) Thermal and chemical stability data; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Hazardous effects of inadvertent mixing of different materials that could foreseeably occur.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Safety data sheets meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.1200(g) may be used to comply with this requirement to the extent they contain the information required by this subparagraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Information pertaining to the technology of the process.</I> (i) Information concerning the technology of the process shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A block flow diagram or simplified process flow diagram (see appendix B to this section);
</P>
<P>(B) Process chemistry;
</P>
<P>(C) Maximum intended inventory;
</P>
<P>(D) Safe upper and lower limits for such items as temperatures, pressures, flows or compositions; and,
</P>
<P>(E) An evaluation of the consequences of deviations, including those affecting the safety and health of employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the original technical information no longer exists, such information may be developed in conjunction with the process hazard analysis in sufficient detail to support the analysis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information pertaining to the equipment in the process.</I> (i) Information pertaining to the equipment in the process shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) Materials of construction;
</P>
<P>(B) Piping and instrument diagrams (P&amp;ID's);
</P>
<P>(C) Electrical classification;
</P>
<P>(D) Relief system design and design basis;
</P>
<P>(E) Ventilation system design;
</P>
<P>(F) Design codes and standards employed;
</P>
<P>(G) Material and energy balances for processes built after May 26, 1992; and,
</P>
<P>(H) Safety systems (e.g. interlocks, detection or suppression systems).
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall document that equipment complies with recognized and generally accepted good engineering practices.
</P>
<P>(iii) For existing equipment designed and constructed in accordance with codes, standards, or practices that are no longer in general use, the employer shall determine and document that the equipment is designed, maintained, inspected, tested, and operating in a safe manner.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Process hazard analysis.</I> (1) The employer shall perform an initial process hazard analysis (hazard evaluation) on processes covered by this standard. The process hazard analysis shall be appropriate to the complexity of the process and shall identify, evaluate, and control the hazards involved in the process. Employers shall determine and document the priority order for conducting process hazard analyses based on a rationale which includes such considerations as extent of the process hazards, number of potentially affected employees, age of the process, and operating history of the process. The process hazard analysis shall be conducted as soon as possible, but not later than the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(i) No less than 25 percent of the initial process hazards analyses shall be completed by May 26, 1994;
</P>
<P>(ii) No less than 50 percent of the initial process hazards analyses shall be completed by May 26, 1995;
</P>
<P>(iii) No less than 75 percent of the initial process hazards analyses shall be completed by May 26, 1996;
</P>
<P>(iv) All initial process hazards analyses shall be completed by May 26, 1997.
</P>
<P>(v) Process hazards analyses completed after May 26, 1987 which meet the requirements of this paragraph are acceptable as initial process hazards analyses. These process hazard analyses shall be updated and revalidated, based on their completion date, in accordance with paragraph (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall use one or more of the following methodologies that are appropriate to determine and evaluate the hazards of the process being analyzed.
</P>
<P>(i) What-If;
</P>
<P>(ii) Checklist;
</P>
<P>(iii) What-If/Checklist;
</P>
<P>(iv) Hazard and Operability Study (HAZOP):
</P>
<P>(v) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA);
</P>
<P>(vi) Fault Tree Analysis; or
</P>
<P>(vii) An appropriate equivalent methodology.
</P>
<P>(3) The process hazard analysis shall address:
</P>
<P>(i) The hazards of the process;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identification of any previous incident which had a likely potential for catastrophic consequences in the workplace;
</P>
<P>(iii) Engineering and administrative controls applicable to the hazards and their interrelationships such as appropriate application of detection methodologies to provide early warning of releases. (Acceptable detection methods might include process monitoring and control instrumentation with alarms, and detection hardware such as hydrocarbon sensors.);
</P>
<P>(iv) Consequences of failure of engineering and administrative controls;
</P>
<P>(v) Facility siting;
</P>
<P>(vi) Human factors; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A qualitative evaluation of a range of the possible safety and health effects of failure of controls on employees in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(4) The process hazard analysis shall be performed by a team with expertise in engineering and process operations, and the team shall include at least one employee who has experience and knowledge specific to the process being evaluated. Also, one member of the team must be knowledgeable in the specific process hazard analysis methodology being used.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall establish a system to promptly address the team's findings and recommendations; assure that the recommendations are resolved in a timely manner and that the resolution is documented; document what actions are to be taken; complete actions as soon as possible; develop a written schedule of when these actions are to be completed; communicate the actions to operating, maintenance and other employees whose work assignments are in the process and who may be affected by the recommendations or actions.
</P>
<P>(6) At least every five (5) years after the completion of the initial process hazard analysis, the process hazard analysis shall be updated and revalidated by a team meeting the requirements in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, to assure that the process hazard analysis is consistent with the current process.
</P>
<P>(7) Employers shall retain process hazards analyses and updates or revalidations for each process covered by this section, as well as the documented resolution of recommendations described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section for the life of the process.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Operating procedures.</I> (1) The employer shall develop and implement written operating procedures that provide clear instructions for safely conducting activities involved in each covered process consistent with the process safety information and shall address at least the following elements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Steps for each operating phase:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Initial startup;
</P>
<P>(B) Normal operations;
</P>
<P>(C) Temporary operations;
</P>
<P>(D) Emergency shutdown including the conditions under which emergency shutdown is required, and the assignment of shutdown responsibility to qualified operators to ensure that emergency shutdown is executed in a safe and timely manner.
</P>
<P>(E) Emergency Operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Normal shutdown; and,
</P>
<P>(G) Startup following a turnaround, or after an emergency shutdown.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Operating limits:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Consequences of deviation; and
</P>
<P>(B) Steps required to correct or avoid deviation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Safety and health considerations:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Properties of, and hazards presented by, the chemicals used in the process;
</P>
<P>(B) Precautions necessary to prevent exposure, including engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(C) Control measures to be taken if physical contact or airborne exposure occurs;
</P>
<P>(D) Quality control for raw materials and control of hazardous chemical inventory levels; and,
</P>
<P>(E) Any special or unique hazards.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Safety systems and their functions.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Operating procedures shall be readily accessible to employees who work in or maintain a process.
</P>
<P>(3) The operating procedures shall be reviewed as often as necessary to assure that they reflect current operating practice, including changes that result from changes in process chemicals, technology, and equipment, and changes to facilities. The employer shall certify annually that these operating procedures are current and accurate.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall develop and implement safe work practices to provide for the control of hazards during operations such as lockout/tagout; confined space entry; opening process equipment or piping; and control over entrance into a facility by maintenance, contractor, laboratory, or other support personnel. These safe work practices shall apply to employees and contractor employees.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Training</I>—(1) <I>Initial training.</I> (i) Each employee presently involved in operating a process, and each employee before being involved in operating a newly assigned process, shall be trained in an overview of the process and in the operating procedures as specified in paragraph (f) of this section. The training shall include emphasis on the specific safety and health hazards, emergency operations including shutdown, and safe work practices applicable to the employee's job tasks.
</P>
<P>(ii) In lieu of initial training for those employees already involved in operating a process on May 26, 1992, an employer may certify in writing that the employee has the required knowledge, skills, and abilities to safely carry out the duties and responsibilities as specified in the operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Refresher training.</I> Refresher training shall be provided at least every three years, and more often if necessary, to each employee involved in operating a process to assure that the employee understands and adheres to the current operating procedures of the process. The employer, in consultation with the employees involved in operating the process, shall determine the appropriate frequency of refresher training.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Training documentation.</I> The employer shall ascertain that each employee involved in operating a process has received and understood the training required by this paragraph. The employer shall prepare a record which contains the identity of the employee, the date of training, and the means used to verify that the employee understood the training.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Contractors</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph applies to contractors performing maintenance or repair, turnaround, major renovation, or specialty work on or adjacent to a covered process. It does not apply to contractors providing incidental services which do not influence process safety, such as janitorial work, food and drink services, laundry, delivery or other supply services.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employer responsibilities.</I> (i) The employer, when selecting a contractor, shall obtain and evaluate information regarding the contract employer's safety performance and programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall inform contract employers of the known potential fire, explosion, or toxic release hazards related to the contractor's work and the process.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall explain to contract employers the applicable provisions of the emergency action plan required by paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall develop and implement safe work practices consistent with paragraph (f)(4) of this section, to control the entrance, presence and exit of contract employers and contract employees in covered process areas.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall periodically evaluate the performance of contract employers in fulfilling their obligations as specified in paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall maintain a contract employee injury and illness log related to the contractor's work in process areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contract employer responsibilities.</I> (i) The contract employer shall assure that each contract employee is trained in the work practices necessary to safely perform his/her job.
</P>
<P>(ii) The contract employer shall assure that each contract employee is instructed in the known potential fire, explosion, or toxic release hazards related to his/her job and the process, and the applicable provisions of the emergency action plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contract employer shall document that each contract employee has received and understood the training required by this paragraph. The contract employer shall prepare a record which contains the identity of the contract employee, the date of training, and the means used to verify that the employee understood the training.
</P>
<P>(iv) The contract employer shall assure that each contract employee follows the safety rules of the facility including the safe work practices required by paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The contract employer shall advise the employer of any unique hazards presented by the contract employer's work, or of any hazards found by the contract employer's work.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Pre-startup safety review.</I> (1) The employer shall perform a pre-startup safety review for new facilities and for modified facilities when the modification is significant enough to require a change in the process safety information.
</P>
<P>(2) The pre-startup safety review shall confirm that prior to the introduction of highly hazardous chemicals to a process:
</P>
<P>(i) Construction and equipment is in accordance with design specifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety, operating, maintenance, and emergency procedures are in place and are adequate;
</P>
<P>(iii) For new facilities, a process hazard analysis has been performed and recommendations have been resolved or implemented before startup; and modified facilities meet the requirements contained in management of change, paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(iv) Training of each employee involved in operating a process has been completed.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Mechanical integrity</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> Paragraphs (j)(2) through (j)(6) of this section apply to the following process equipment:
</P>
<P>(i) Pressure vessels and storage tanks;
</P>
<P>(ii) Piping systems (including piping components such as valves);
</P>
<P>(iii) Relief and vent systems and devices;
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergency shutdown systems;
</P>
<P>(v) Controls (including monitoring devices and sensors, alarms, and interlocks) and,
</P>
<P>(vi) Pumps.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written procedures.</I> The employer shall establish and implement written procedures to maintain the on-going integrity of process equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Training for process maintenance activities.</I> The employer shall train each employee involved in maintaining the on-going integrity of process equipment in an overview of that process and its hazards and in the procedures applicable to the employee's job tasks to assure that the employee can perform the job tasks in a safe manner.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Inspection and testing.</I> (i) Inspections and tests shall be performed on process equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection and testing procedures shall follow recognized and generally accepted good engineering practices.
</P>
<P>(iii) The frequency of inspections and tests of process equipment shall be consistent with applicable manufacturers' recommendations and good engineering practices, and more frequently if determined to be necessary by prior operating experience.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall document each inspection and test that has been performed on process equipment. The documentation shall identify the date of the inspection or test, the name of the person who performed the inspection or test, the serial number or other identifier of the equipment on which the inspection or test was performed, a description of the inspection or test performed, and the results of the inspection or test.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Equipment deficiencies.</I> The employer shall correct deficiencies in equipment that are outside acceptable limits (defined by the process safety information in paragraph (d) of this section) before further use or in a safe and timely manner when necessary means are taken to assure safe operation.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Quality assurance.</I> (i) In the construction of new plants and equipment, the employer shall assure that equipment as it is fabricated is suitable for the process application for which they will be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate checks and inspections shall be performed to assure that equipment is installed properly and consistent with design specifications and the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that maintenance materials, spare parts and equipment are suitable for the process application for which they will be used.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Hot work permit.</I> (1) The employer shall issue a hot work permit for hot work operations conducted on or near a covered process.
</P>
<P>(2) The permit shall document that the fire prevention and protection requirements in 29 CFR 1910.252(a) have been implemented prior to beginning the hot work operations; it shall indicate the date(s) authorized for hot work; and identify the object on which hot work is to be performed. The permit shall be kept on file until completion of the hot work operations.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Management of change.</I> (1) The employer shall establish and implement written procedures to manage changes (except for “replacements in kind”) to process chemicals, technology, equipment, and procedures; and, changes to facilities that affect a covered process.
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures shall assure that the following considerations are addressed prior to any change:
</P>
<P>(i) The technical basis for the proposed change;
</P>
<P>(ii) Impact of change on safety and health;
</P>
<P>(iii) Modifications to operating procedures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Necessary time period for the change; and,
</P>
<P>(v) Authorization requirements for the proposed change.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees involved in operating a process and maintenance and contract employees whose job tasks will be affected by a change in the process shall be informed of, and trained in, the change prior to start-up of the process or affected part of the process.
</P>
<P>(4) If a change covered by this paragraph results in a change in the process safety information required by paragraph (d) of this section, such information shall be updated accordingly.
</P>
<P>(5) If a change covered by this paragraph results in a change in the operating procedures or practices required by paragraph (f) of this section, such procedures or practices shall be updated accordingly.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Incident investigation.</I> (1) The employer shall investigate each incident which resulted in, or could reasonably have resulted in a catastrophic release of highly hazardous chemical in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(2) An incident investigation shall be initiated as promptly as possible, but not later than 48 hours following the incident.
</P>
<P>(3) An incident investigation team shall be established and consist of at least one person knowledgeable in the process involved, including a contract employee if the incident involved work of the contractor, and other persons with appropriate knowledge and experience to thoroughly investigate and analyze the incident.
</P>
<P>(4) A report shall be prepared at the conclusion of the investigation which includes at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Date of incident;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date investigation began;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the incident;
</P>
<P>(iv) The factors that contributed to the incident; and,
</P>
<P>(v) Any recommendations resulting from the investigation.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall establish a system to promptly address and resolve the incident report findings and recommendations. Resolutions and corrective actions shall be documented.
</P>
<P>(6) The report shall be reviewed with all affected personnel whose job tasks are relevant to the incident findings including contract employees where applicable.
</P>
<P>(7) Incident investigation reports shall be retained for five years.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Emergency planning and response.</I> The employer shall establish and implement an emergency action plan for the entire plant in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.38. In addition, the emergency action plan shall include procedures for handling small releases. Employers covered under this standard may also be subject to the hazardous waste and emergency response provisions contained in 29 CFR 1910.120 (a), (p) and (q).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Compliance Audits.</I> (1) Employers shall certify that they have evaluated compliance with the provisions of this section at least every three years to verify that the procedures and practices developed under the standard are adequate and are being followed.
</P>
<P>(2) The compliance audit shall be conducted by at least one person knowledgeable in the process.
</P>
<P>(3) A report of the findings of the audit shall be developed.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall promptly determine and document an appropriate response to each of the findings of the compliance audit, and document that deficiencies have been corrected.
</P>
<P>(5) Employers shall retain the two (2) most recent compliance audit reports.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Trade secrets.</I> (1) Employers shall make all information necessary to comply with the section available to those persons responsible for compiling the process safety information (required by paragraph (d) of this section), those assisting in the development of the process hazard analysis (required by paragraph (e) of this section), those responsible for developing the operating procedures (required by paragraph (f) of this section), and those involved in incident investigations (required by paragraph (m) of this section), emergency planning and response (paragraph (n) of this section) and compliance audits (paragraph (o) of this section) without regard to possible trade secret status of such information.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude the employer from requiring the persons to whom the information is made available under paragraph (p)(1) of this section to enter into confidentiality agreements not to disclose the information as set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to the rules and procedures set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1200(i)(1) through 1910.1200(i)(12), employees and their designated representatives shall have access to trade secret information contained within the process hazard analysis and other documents required to be developed by this standard.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.119—List of Highly Hazardous Chemicals, Toxics and Reactives (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>This appendix contains a listing of toxic and reactive highly hazardous chemicals which present a potential for a catastrophic event at or above the threshold quantity.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chemical name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CAS *
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TQ **
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-07-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrolein (2-Propenal)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-02-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylyl Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">814-68-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-05-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-11-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alkylaluminums</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Varies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonia, Anhydrous</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonia solutions (&gt;44% ammonia by weight)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium Perchlorate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7790-98-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium Permanganate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7787-36-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsine (also called Arsenic Hydride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7784-42-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bis(Chloromethyl) Ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542-88-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boron Trichloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10294-34-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boron Trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7637-07-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7726-95-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13863-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine Pentafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7789-30-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine Trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7787-71-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3-Bromopropyne (also called Propargyl Bromide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-96-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl Hydroperoxide (Tertiary)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-91-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl Perbenzoate (Tertiary)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">614-45-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbonyl Chloride (see Phosgene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-44-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbonyl Fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">353-50-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose Nitrate (concentration &gt;12.6% nitrogen)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9004-70-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-50-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine Dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10049-04-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine Pentrafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13637-63-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine Trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7790-91-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorodiethylaluminum (also called Diethylaluminum Chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-10-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Chloro-2,4-Dinitrobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97-00-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloromethyl Methyl Ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-30-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloropicrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-06-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloropicrin and Methyl Bromide mixture</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloropicrin and Methyl Chloride mixture</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumene Hydroperoxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-15-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">460-19-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanogen Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">506-77-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanuric Fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">675-14-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diacetyl Peroxide (Concentration &gt;70%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-22-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diazomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">334-88-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibenzoyl Peroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-36-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19287-45-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl Peroxide (Tertiary)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-05-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloro Acetylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7572-29-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorosilane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4109-96-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylzinc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">557-20-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisopropyl Peroxydicarbonate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105-64-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dilaluroyl Peroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105-74-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyldichlorosilane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-78-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylhydrazine, 1,1-</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-14-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylamine, Anhydrous</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124-40-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4-Dinitroaniline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97-02-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl Methyl Ketone Peroxide (also Methyl Ethyl Ketone Peroxide; concentration &gt;60%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1338-23-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl Nitrite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-95-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-04-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene Fluorohydrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">371-62-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene Oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-21-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyleneimine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151-56-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-41-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde (Formalin)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-00-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-00-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexafluoroacetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">684-16-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrochloric Acid, Anhydrous</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7647-01-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrofluoric Acid, Anhydrous</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen Bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10035-10-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7647-01-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen Cyanide, Anhydrous</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-90-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen Fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen Peroxide (52% by weight or greater)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7722-84-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen Selenide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-07-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen Sulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-06-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroxylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-49-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron, Pentacarbonyl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13463-40-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-31-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ketene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">463-51-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methacrylaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-85-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methacryloyl Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">920-46-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methacryloyloxyethyl Isocyanate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30674-80-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Acrylonitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126-98-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylamine, Anhydrous</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-89-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-83-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-87-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Chloroformate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-22-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Ethyl Ketone Peroxide (concentration &gt;60%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1338-23-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Fluoroacetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">453-18-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Fluorosulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">421-20-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Hydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-34-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Iodide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-88-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Isocyanate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">624-83-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-93-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Vinyl Ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-94-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyltrichlorosilane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-79-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel Carbonly (Nickel Tetracarbonyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13463-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitric Acid (94.5% by weight or greater)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7697-37-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitric Oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-43-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitroaniline (para Nitroaniline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-01-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-52-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen Dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-44-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen Oxides (NO; NO<E T="0732">2</E>; N204; N203)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-44-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen Tetroxide (also called Nitrogen Peroxide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10544-72-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen Trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-54-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen Trioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10544-73-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oleum (65% to 80% by weight; also called Fuming Sulfuric Acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8014-95-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium Tetroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20816-12-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxygen Difluoride (Fluorine Monoxide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ozone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10028-15-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19624-22-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peracetic Acid (concentration &gt;60% Acetic Acid; also called Peroxyacetic Acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-21-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloric Acid (concentration &gt;60% by weight)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7601-90-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloromethyl Mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594-42-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloryl Fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7616-94-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peroxyacetic Acid (concentration &gt;60% Acetic Acid; also called Peracetic Acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-21-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosgene (also called Carbonyl Chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-44-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphine (Hydrogen Phosphide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-51-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus Oxychloride (also called Phosphoryl Chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10025-87-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus Trichloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7719-12-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoryl Chloride (also called Phosphorus Oxychloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10025-87-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propargyl Bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-96-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Nitrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">627-3-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sarin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-44-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium Hexafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-79-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stibine (Antimony Hydride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-52-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur Dioxide (liquid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7446-09-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur Pentafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5714-22-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur Tetrafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-60-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur Trioxide (also called Sulfuric Anhydride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7446-11-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfuric Anhydride (also called Sulfur Trioxide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7446-11-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium Hexafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-80-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrafluoroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">116-14-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrafluorohydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10036-47-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethyl Lead</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-74-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thionyl Chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7719-09-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloro (chloromethyl) Silane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1558-25-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloro (dichlorophenyl) Silane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27137-85-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichlorosilane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10025-78-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trifluorochloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-38-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trimethyoxysilane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2487-90-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Chemical Abstract Service Number.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** Threshold Quantity in Pounds (Amount necessary to be covered by this standard).</P></DIV></DIV>
<TCAP><E T="15">Appendix B to § 1910.119—Block Flow Diagram and Simplified Process Flow Diagram (Nonmandatory)</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.026.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.027.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.119—Compliance Guidelines and Recommendations for Process Safety Management (Nonmandatory)
</HD1>
<P>This appendix serves as a nonmandatory guideline to assist employers and employees in complying with the requirements of this section, as well as provides other helpful recommendations and information. Examples presented in this appendix are not the only means of achieving the performance goals in the standard. This appendix neither adds nor detracts from the requirements of the standard.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Introduction to Process Safety Management.</I> The major objective of process safety management of highly hazardous chemicals is to prevent unwanted releases of hazardous chemicals especially into locations which could expose employees and others to serious hazards. An effective process safety management program requires a systematic approach to evaluating the whole process. Using this approach the process design, process technology, operational and maintenance activities and procedures, nonroutine activities and procedures, emergency preparedness plans and procedures, training programs, and other elements which impact the process are all considered in the evaluation. The various lines of defense that have been incorporated into the design and operation of the process to prevent or mitigate the release of hazardous chemicals need to be evaluated and strengthened to assure their effectiveness at each level. Process safety management is the proactive identification, evaluation and mitigation or prevention of chemical releases that could occur as a result of failures in process, procedures or equipment.
</P>
<P>The process safety management standard targets highly hazardous chemicals that have the potential to cause a catastrophic incident. This standard as a whole is to aid employers in their efforts to prevent or mitigate episodic chemical releases that could lead to a catastrophe in the workplace and possibly to the surrounding community. To control these types of hazards, employers need to develop the necessary expertise, experiences, judgement and proactive initiative within their workforce to properly implement and maintain an effective process safety management program as envisioned in the OSHA standard. This OSHA standard is required by the Clean Air Act Amendments as is the Environmental Protection Agency's Risk Management Plan. Employers, who merge the two sets of requirements into their process safety management program, will better assure full compliance with each as well as enhancing their relationship with the local community.
</P>
<P>While OSHA believes process safety management will have a positive effect on the safety of employees in workplaces and also offers other potential benefits to employers (increased productivity), smaller businesses which may have limited resources available to them at this time, might consider alternative avenues of decreasing the risks associated with highly hazardous chemicals at their workplaces. One method which might be considered is the reduction in the inventory of the highly hazardous chemical. This reduction in inventory will result in a reduction of the risk or potential for a catastrophic incident. Also, employers including small employers may be able to establish more efficient inventory control by reducing the quantities of highly hazardous chemicals on site below the established threshold quantities. This reduction can be accomplished by ordering smaller shipments and maintaining the minimum inventory necessary for efficient and safe operation. When reduced inventory is not feasible, then the employer might consider dispersing inventory to several locations on site. Dispersing storage into locations where a release in one location will not cause a release in another location is a practical method to also reduce the risk or portential for catastrophic incidents.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Employee Involvement in Process Safety Management.</I> Section 304 of the Clean Air Act Amendments states that employers are to consult with their employees and their representatives regarding the employers efforts in the development and implementation of the process safety management program elements and hazard assessments. Section 304 also requires employers to train and educate their employees and to inform affected employees of the findings from incident investigations required by the process safety management program. Many employers, under their safety and health programs, have already established means and methods to keep employees and their representatives informed about relevant safety and health issues and employers may be able to adapt these practices and procedures to meet their obligations under this standard. Employers who have not implemented an occupational safety and health program may wish to form a safety and health committee of employees and management representatives to help the employer meet the obligations specified by this standard. These committees can become a significant ally in helping the employer to implement and maintain an effective process safety management program for all employees.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Process Safety Information.</I> Complete and accurate written information concerning process chemicals, process technology, and process equipment is essential to an effective process safety management program and to a process hazards analysis. The compiled information will be a necessary resource to a variety of users including the team that will perform the process hazards analysis as required under paragraph (e); those developing the training programs and the operating procedures; contractors whose employees will be working with the process; those conducting the pre-startup reviews; local emergency preparedness planners; and insurance and enforcement officials.
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<P>The information to be compiled about the chemicals, including process intermediates, needs to be comprehensive enough for an accurate assessment of the fire and explosion characteristics, reactivity hazards, the safety and health hazards to workers, and the corrosion and erosion effects on the process equipment and monitoring tools. Current safety data sheet (SDS) information can be used to help meet this requirement which must be supplemented with process chemistry information including runaway reaction and over pressure hazards if applicable.
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<P>Process technology information will be a part of the process safety information package and it is expected that it will include diagrams of the type shown in appendix B of this section as well as employer established criteria for maximum inventory levels for process chemicals; limits beyond which would be considered upset conditions; and a qualitative estimate of the consequences or results of deviation that could occur if operating beyond the established process limits. Employers are encouraged to use diagrams which will help users understand the process.
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<P>A block flow diagram is used to show the major process equipment and interconnecting process flow lines and show flow rates, stream composition, temperatures, and pressures when necessary for clarity. The block flow diagram is a simplified diagram.
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<P>Process flow diagrams are more complex and will show all main flow streams including valves to enhance the understanding of the process, as well as pressures and temperatures on all feed and product lines within all major vessels, in and out of headers and heat exchangers, and points of pressure and temperature control. Also, materials of construction information, pump capacities and pressure heads, compressor horsepower and vessel design pressures and temperatures are shown when necessary for clarity. In addition, major components of control loops are usually shown along with key utilities on process flow diagrams.
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<P>Piping and instrument diagrams (P&amp;IDs) may be the more appropriate type of diagrams to show some of the above details and to display the information for the piping designer and engineering staff. The P&amp;IDs are to be used to describe the relationships between equipment and instrumentation as well as other relevant information that will enhance clarity. Computer software programs which do P&amp;IDs or other diagrams useful to the information package, may be used to help meet this requirement.
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<P>The information pertaining to process equipment design must be documented. In other words, what were the codes and standards relied on to establish good engineering practice. These codes and standards are published by such organizations as the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, American Petroleum Institute, American National Standards Institute, National Fire Protection Association, American Society for Testing and Materials, National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors, National Association of Corrosion Engineers, American Society of Exchange Manufacturers Association, and model building code groups.
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<P>In addition, various engineering societies issue technical reports which impact process design. For example, the American Institute of Chemical Engineers has published technical reports on topics such as two phase flow for venting devices. This type of technically recognized report would constitute good engineering practice.
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<P>For existing equipment designed and constructed many years ago in accordance with the codes and standards available at that time and no longer in general use today, the employer must document which codes and standards were used and that the design and construction along with the testing, inspection and operation are still suitable for the intended use. Where the process technology requires a design which departs from the applicable codes and standards, the employer must document that the design and construction is suitable for the intended purpose.
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<P>4. <I>Process Hazard Analysis.</I> A process hazard analysis (PHA), sometimes called a process hazard evaluation, is one of the most important elements of the process safety management program. A PHA is an organized and systematic effort to identify and analyze the significance of potential hazards associated with the processing or handling of highly hazardous chemicals. A PHA provides information which will assist employers and employees in making decisions for improving safety and reducing the consequences of unwanted or unplanned releases of hazardous chemicals. A PHA is directed toward analyzing potential causes and consequences of fires, explosions, releases of toxic or flammable chemicals and major spills of hazardous chemicals. The PHA focuses on equipment, instrumentation, utilities, human actions (routine and nonroutine), and external factors that might impact the process. These considerations assist in determining the hazards and potential failure points or failure modes in a process.
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<P>The selection of a PHA methodology or technique will be influenced by many factors including the amount of existing knowledge about the process. Is it a process that has been operated for a long period of time with little or no innovation and extensive experience has been generated with its use? Or, is it a new process or one which has been changed frequently by the inclusion of innovative features? Also, the size and complexity of the process will influence the decision as to the appropriate PHA methodology to use. All PHA methodologies are subject to certain limitations. For example, the checklist methodology works well when the process is very stable and no changes are made, but it is not as effective when the process has undergone extensive change. The checklist may miss the most recent changes and consequently the changes would not be evaluated. Another limitation to be considered concerns the assumptions made by the team or analyst. The PHA is dependent on good judgement and the assumptions made during the study need to be documented and understood by the team and reviewer and kept for a future PHA.
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<P>The team conducting the PHA need to understand the methodology that is going to be used. A PHA team can vary in size from two people to a number of people with varied operational and technical backgrounds. Some team members may only be a part of the team for a limited time. The team leader needs to be fully knowledgeable in the proper implementation of the PHA methodology that is to be used and should be impartial in the evaluation. The other full or part time team members need to provide the team with expertise in areas such as process technology, process design, operating procedures and practices, including how the work is actually performed, alarms, emergency procedures, instrumentation, maintenance procedures, both routine and nonroutine tasks, including how the tasks are authorized, procurement of parts and supplies, safety and health, and any other relevant subject as the need dictates. At least one team member must be familiar with the process.
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<P>The ideal team will have an intimate knowledge of the standards, codes, specifications and regulations applicable to the process being studied. The selected team members need to be compatible and the team leader needs to be able to manage the team, and the PHA study. The team needs to be able to work together while benefiting from the expertise of others on the team or outside the team, to resolve issues, and to forge a consensus on the findings of the study and recommendations.
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<P>The application of a PHA to a process may involve the use of different methodologies for various parts of the process. For example, a process involving a series of unit operation of varying sizes, complexities, and ages may use different methodologies and team members for each operation. Then the conclusions can be integrated into one final study and evaluation. A more specific example is the use of a checklist PHA for a standard boiler or heat exchanger and the use of a Hazard and Operability PHA for the overall process. Also, for batch type processes like custom batch operations, a generic PHA of a representative batch may be used where there are only small changes of monomer or other ingredient ratios and the chemistry is documented for the full range and ratio of batch ingredients. Another process that might consider using a generic type of PHA is a gas plant. Often these plants are simply moved from site to site and therefore, a generic PHA may be used for these movable plants. Also, when an employer has several similar size gas plants and no sour gas is being processed at the site, then a generic PHA is feasible as long as the variations of the individual sites are accounted for in the PHA. Finally, when an employer has a large continuous process which has several control rooms for different portions of the process such as for a distillation tower and a blending operation, the employer may wish to do each segment separately and then integrate the final results.
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<P>Additionally, small businesses which are covered by this rule, will often have processes that have less storage volume, less capacity, and less complicated than processes at a large facility. Therefore, OSHA would anticipate that the less complex methodologies would be used to meet the process hazard analysis criteria in the standard. These process hazard analyses can be done in less time and with a few people being involved. A less complex process generally means that less data, P&amp;IDs, and process information is needed to perform a process hazard analysis.
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<P>Many small businesses have processes that are not unique, such as cold storage lockers or water treatment facilities. Where employer associations have a number of members with such facilities, a generic PHA, evolved from a checklist or what-if questions, could be developed and used by each employer effectively to reflect his/her particular process; this would simplify compliance for them.
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<P>When the employer has a number of processes which require a PHA, the employer must set up a priority system of which PHAs to conduct first. A preliminary or gross hazard analysis may be useful in prioritizing the processes that the employer has determined are subject to coverage by the process safety management standard. Consideration should first be given to those processes with the potential of adversely affecting the largest number of employees. This prioritizing should consider the potential severity of a chemical release, the number of potentially affected employees, the operating history of the process such as the frequency of chemical releases, the age of the process and any other relevant factors. These factors would suggest a ranking order and would suggest either using a weighing factor system or a systematic ranking method. The use of a preliminary hazard analysis would assist an employer in determining which process should be of the highest priority and thereby the employer would obtain the greatest improvement in safety at the facility.
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<P>Detailed guidance on the content and application of process hazard analysis methodologies is available from the American Institute of Chemical Engineers' Center for Chemical Process Safety (see appendix D).
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<P>5. <I>Operating Procedures and Practices.</I> Operating procedures describe tasks to be performed, data to be recorded, operating conditions to be maintained, samples to be collected, and safety and health precautions to be taken. The procedures need to be technically accurate, understandable to employees, and revised periodically to ensure that they reflect current operations. The process safety information package is to be used as a resource to better assure that the operating procedures and practices are consistent with the known hazards of the chemicals in the process and that the operating parameters are accurate. Operating procedures should be reviewed by engineering staff and operating personnel to ensure that they are accurate and provide practical instructions on how to actually carry out job duties safely.
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<P>Operating procedures will include specific instructions or details on what steps are to be taken or followed in carrying out the stated procedures. These operating instructions for each procedure should include the applicable safety precautions and should contain appropriate information on safety implications. For example, the operating procedures addressing operating parameters will contain operating instructions about pressure limits, temperature ranges, flow rates, what to do when an upset condition occurs, what alarms and instruments are pertinent if an upset condition occurs, and other subjects. Another example of using operating instructions to properly implement operating procedures is in starting up or shutting down the process. In these cases, different parameters will be required from those of normal operation. These operating instructions need to clearly indicate the distinctions between startup and normal operations such as the appropriate allowances for heating up a unit to reach the normal operating parameters. Also the operating instructions need to describe the proper method for increasing the temperature of the unit until the normal operating temperature parameters are achieved.
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<P>Computerized process control systems add complexity to operating instructions. These operating instructions need to describe the logic of the software as well as the relationship between the equipment and the control system; otherwise, it may not be apparent to the operator.
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<P>Operating procedures and instructions are important for training operating personnel. The operating procedures are often viewed as the standard operating practices (SOPs) for operations. Control room personnel and operating staff, in general, need to have a full understanding of operating procedures. If workers are not fluent in English then procedures and instructions need to be prepared in a second language understood by the workers. In addition, operating procedures need to be changed when there is a change in the process as a result of the management of change procedures. The consequences of operating procedure changes need to be fully evaluated and the information conveyed to the personnel. For example, mechanical changes to the process made by the maintenance department (like changing a valve from steel to brass or other subtle changes) need to be evaluated to determine if operating procedures and practices also need to be changed. All management of change actions must be coordinated and integrated with current operating procedures and operating personnel must be oriented to the changes in procedures before the change is made. When the process is shut down in order to make a change, then the operating procedures must be updated before startup of the process.
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<P>Training in how to handle upset conditions must be accomplished as well as what operating personnel are to do in emergencies such as when a pump seal fails or a pipeline ruptures. Communication between operating personnel and workers performing work within the process area, such as nonroutine tasks, also must be maintained. The hazards of the tasks are to be conveyed to operating personnel in accordance with established procedures and to those performing the actual tasks. When the work is completed, operating personnel should be informed to provide closure on the job.
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<P>6. <I>Employee Training.</I> All employees, including maintenance and contractor employees, involved with highly hazardous chemicals need to fully understand the safety and health hazards of the chemicals and processes they work with for the protection of themselves, their fellow employees and the citizens of nearby communities. Training conducted in compliance with § 1910.1200, the Hazard Communication standard, will help employees to be more knowledgeable about the chemicals they work with as well as familiarize them with reading and understanding SDSs. However, additional training in subjects such as operating procedures and safety work practices, emergency evacuation and response, safety procedures, routine and nonroutine work authorization activities, and other areas pertinent to process safety and health will need to be covered by an employer's training program.
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<P>In establishing their training programs, employers must clearly define the employees to be trained and what subjects are to be covered in their training. Employers in setting up their training program will need to clearly establish the goals and objectives they wish to achieve with the training that they provide to their employees. The learning goals or objectives should be written in clear measurable terms before the training begins. These goals and objectives need to be tailored to each of the specific training modules or segments. Employers should describe the important actions and conditions under which the employee will demonstrate competence or knowledge as well as what is acceptable performance.
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<P>Hands-on-training where employees are able to use their senses beyond listening, will enhance learning. For example, operating personnel, who will work in a control room or at control panels, would benefit by being trained at a simulated control panel or panels. Upset conditions of various types could be displayed on the simulator, and then the employee could go through the proper operating procedures to bring the simulator panel back to the normal operating parameters. A training environment could be created to help the trainee feel the full reality of the situation but, of course, under controlled conditions. This realistic type of training can be very effective in teaching employees correct procedures while allowing them to also see the consequences of what might happen if they do not follow established operating procedures. Other training techniques using videos or on-the-job training can also be very effective for teaching other job tasks, duties, or other important information. An effective training program will allow the employee to fully participate in the training process and to practice their skill or knowledge.
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<P>Employers need to periodically evaluate their training programs to see if the necessary skills, knowledge, and routines are being properly understood and implemented by their trained employees. The means or methods for evaluating the training should be developed along with the training program goals and objectives. Training program evaluation will help employers to determine the amount of training their employees understood, and whether the desired results were obtained. If, after the evaluation, it appears that the trained employees are not at the level of knowledge and skill that was expected, the employer will need to revise the training program, provide retraining, or provide more frequent refresher training sessions until the deficiency is resolved. Those who conducted the training and those who received the training should also be consulted as to how best to improve the training process. If there is a language barrier, the language known to the trainees should be used to reinforce the training messages and information.
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<P>Careful consideration must be given to assure that employees including maintenance and contract employees receive current and updated training. For example, if changes are made to a process, impacted employees must be trained in the changes and understand the effects of the changes on their job tasks (e.g., any new operating procedures pertinent to their tasks). Additionally, as already discussed the evaluation of the employee's absorption of training will certainly influence the need for training.
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<P>7. <I>Contractors.</I> Employers who use contractors to perform work in and around processes that involve highly hazardous chemicals, will need to establish a screening process so that they hire and use contractors who accomplish the desired job tasks without compromising the safety and health of employees at a facility. For contractors, whose safety performance on the job is not known to the hiring employer, the employer will need to obtain information on injury and illness rates and experience and should obtain contractor references. Additionally, the employer must assure that the contractor has the appropriate job skills, knowledge and certifications (such as for pressure vessel welders). Contractor work methods and experiences should be evaluated. For example, does the contractor conducting demolition work swing loads over operating processes or does the contractor avoid such hazards?
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<P>Maintaining a site injury and illness log for contractors is another method employers must use to track and maintain current knowledge of work activities involving contract employees working on or adjacent to covered processes. Injury and illness logs of both the employer's employees and contract employees allow an employer to have full knowledge of process injury and illness experience. This log will also contain information which will be of use to those auditing process safety management compliance and those involved in incident investigations.
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<P>Contract employees must perform their work safely. Considering that contractors often perform very specialized and potentially hazardous tasks such as confined space entry activities and nonroutine repair activities it is quite important that their activities be controlled while they are working on or near a covered process. A permit system or work authorization system for these activities would also be helpful to all affected employers. The use of a work authorization system keeps an employer informed of contract employee activities, and as a benefit the employer will have better coordination and more management control over the work being performed in the process area. A well run and well maintained process where employee safety is fully recognized will benefit all of those who work in the facility whether they be contract employees or employees of the owner.
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<P>8. <I>Pre-Startup Safety.</I> For new processes, the employer will find a PHA helpful in improving the design and construction of the process from a reliability and quality point of view. The safe operation of the new process will be enhanced by making use of the PHA recommendations before final installations are completed. P&amp;IDs are to be completed along with having the operating procedures in place and the operating staff trained to run the process before startup. The initial startup procedures and normal operating procedures need to be fully evaluated as part of the pre-startup review to assure a safe transfer into the normal operating mode for meeting the process parameters.
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<P>For existing processes that have been shutdown for turnaround, or modification, etc., the employer must assure that any changes other than “replacement in kind” made to the process during shutdown go through the management of change procedures. P&amp;IDs will need to be updated as necessary, as well as operating procedures and instructions. If the changes made to the process during shutdown are significant and impact the training program, then operating personnel as well as employees engaged in routine and nonroutine work in the process area may need some refresher or additional training in light of the changes. Any incident investigation recommendations, compliance audits or PHA recommendations need to be reviewed as well to see what impacts they may have on the process before beginning the startup.
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<P>9. <I>Mechanical Integrity.</I> Employers will need to review their maintenance programs and schedules to see if there are areas where “breakdown” maintenance is used rather than an on-going mechanical integrity program. Equipment used to process, store, or handle highly hazardous chemicals needs to be designed, constructed, installed and maintained to minimize the risk of releases of such chemicals. This requires that a mechanical integrity program be in place to assure the continued integrity of process equipment. Elements of a mechanical integrity program include the identification and categorization of equipment and instrumentation, inspections and tests, testing and inspection frequencies, development of maintenance procedures, training of maintenance personnel, the establishment of criteria for acceptable test results, documentation of test and inspection results, and documentation of manufacturer recommendations as to meantime to failure for equipment and instrumentation.
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<P>The first line of defense an employer has available is to operate and maintain the process as designed, and to keep the chemicals contained. This line of defense is backed up by the next line of defense which is the controlled release of chemicals through venting to scrubbers or flares, or to surge or overflow tanks which are designed to receive such chemicals, etc. These lines of defense are the primary lines of defense or means to prevent unwanted releases. The secondary lines of defense would include fixed fire protection systems like sprinklers, water spray, or deluge systems, monitor guns, etc., dikes, designed drainage systems, and other systems which would control or mitigate hazardous chemicals once an unwanted release occurs. These primary and secondary lines of defense are what the mechanical integrity program needs to protect and strengthen these primary and secondary lines of defenses where appropriate.
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<P>The first step of an effective mechanical integrity program is to compile and categorize a list of process equipment and instrumentation for inclusion in the program. This list would include pressure vessels, storage tanks, process piping, relief and vent systems, fire protection system components, emergency shutdown systems and alarms and interlocks and pumps. For the categorization of instrumentation and the listed equipment the employer would prioritize which pieces of equipment require closer scrutiny than others. Meantime to failure of various instrumentation and equipment parts would be known from the manufacturers data or the employer's experience with the parts, which would then influence the inspection and testing frequency and associated procedures. Also, applicable codes and standards such as the National Board Inspection Code, or those from the American Society for Testing and Material, American Petroleum Institute, National Fire Protection Association, American National Standards Institute, American Society of Mechanical Engineers, and other groups, provide information to help establish an effective testing and inspection frequency, as well as appropriate methodologies.
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<P>The applicable codes and standards provide criteria for external inspections for such items as foundation and supports, anchor bolts, concrete or steel supports, guy wires, nozzles and sprinklers, pipe hangers, grounding connections, protective coatings and insulation, and external metal surfaces of piping and vessels, etc. These codes and standards also provide information on methodologies for internal inspection, and a frequency formula based on the corrosion rate of the materials of construction. Also, erosion both internal and external needs to be considered along with corrosion effects for piping and valves. Where the corrosion rate is not known, a maximum inspection frequency is recommended, and methods of developing the corrosion rate are available in the codes. Internal inspections need to cover items such as vessel shell, bottom and head; metallic linings; nonmetallic linings; thickness measurements for vessels and piping; inspection for erosion, corrosion, cracking and bulges; internal equipment like trays, baffles, sensors and screens for erosion, corrosion or cracking and other deficiencies. Some of these inspections may be performed by state of local government inspectors under state and local statutes. However, each employer needs to develop procedures to ensure that tests and inspections are conducted properly and that consistency is maintained even where different employees may be involved. Appropriate training is to be provided to maintenance personnel to ensure that they understand the preventive maintenance program procedures, safe practices, and the proper use amd application of special equipment or unique tools that may be required. This training is part of the overall training program called for in the standard.
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<P>A quality assurance system is needed to help ensure that the proper materials of construction are used, that fabrication and inspection procedures are proper, and that installation procedures recognize field installation concerns. The quality assurance program is an essential part of the mechanical integrity program and will help to maintain the primary and secondary lines of defense that have been designed into the process to prevent unwanted chemical releases or those which control or mitigate a release. “As built” drawings, together with certifications of coded vessels and other equipment, and materials of construction need to be verified and retained in the quality assurance documentation. Equipment installation jobs need to be properly inspected in the field for use of proper materials and procedures and to assure that qualified craftsmen are used to do the job. The use of appropriate gaskets, packing, bolts, valves, lubricants and welding rods need to be verified in the field. Also procedures for installation of safety devices need to be verified, such as the torque on the bolts on ruptured disc installations, uniform torque on flange bolts, proper installation of pump seals, etc. If the quality of parts is a problem, it may be appropriate to conduct audits of the equipment supplier's facilities to better assure proper purchases of required equipment which is suitable for its intended service. Any changes in equipment that may become necessary will need to go through the management of change procedures.
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<P>10. <I>Nonroutine Work Authorizations.</I> Nonroutine work which is conducted in process areas needs to be controlled by the employer in a consistent manner. The hazards identified involving the work that is to be accomplished must be communicated to those doing the work, but also to those operating personnel whose work could affect the safety of the process. A work authorization notice or permit must have a procedure that describes the steps the maintenance supervisor, contractor representative or other person needs to follow to obtain the necessary clearance to get the job started. The work authorization procedures need to reference and coordinate, as applicable, lockout/tagout procedures, line breaking procedures, confined space entry procedures and hot work authorizations. This procedure also needs to provide clear steps to follow once the job is completed in order to provide closure for those that need to know the job is now completed and equipment can be returned to normal.
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<P>11. <I>Managing Change.</I> To properly manage changes to process chemicals, technology, equipment and facilities, one must define what is meant by change. In this process safety management standard, change includes all modifications to equipment, procedures, raw materials and processing conditions other than “replacement in kind”. These changes need to be properly managed by identifying and reviewing them prior to implementation of the change. For example, the operating procedures contain the operating parameters (pressure limits, temperature ranges, flow rates, etc.) and the importance of operating within these limits. While the operator must have the flexibility to maintain safe operation within the established parameters, any operation outside of these parameters requires review and approval by a written management of change procedure.
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<P>Management of change covers such as changes in process technology and changes to equipment and instrumentation. Changes in process technology can result from changes in production rates, raw materials, experimentation, equipment unavailability, new equipment, new product development, change in catalyst and changes in operating conditions to improve yield or quality. Equipment changes include among others change in materials of construction, equipment specifications, piping pre-arrangements, experimental equipment, computer program revisions and changes in alarms and interlocks. Employers need to establish means and methods to detect both technical changes and mechanical changes.
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<P>Temporary changes have caused a number of catastrophes over the years, and employers need to establish ways to detect temporary changes as well as those that are permanent. It is important that a time limit for temporary changes be established and monitored since, without control, these changes may tend to become permanent. Temporary changes are subject to the management of change provisions. In addition, the management of change procedures are used to insure that the equipment and procedures are returned to their original or designed conditions at the end of the temporary change. Proper documentation and review of these changes is invaluable in assuring that the safety and health considerations are being incorporated into the operating procedures and the process.
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<P>Employers may wish to develop a form or clearance sheet to facilitate the processing of changes through the management of change procedures. A typical change form may include a description and the purpose of the change, the technical basis for the change, safety and health considerations, documentation of changes for the operating procedures, maintenance procedures, inspection and testing, P&amp;IDs, electrical classification, training and communications, pre-startup inspection, duration if a temporary change, approvals and authorization. Where the impact of the change is minor and well understood, a check list reviewed by an authorized person with proper communication to others who are affected may be sufficient. However, for a more complex or significant design change, a hazard evaluation procedure with approvals by operations, maintenance, and safety departments may be appropriate. Changes in documents such as P&amp;IDs, raw materials, operating procedures, mechanical integrity programs, electrical classifications, etc., need to be noted so that these revisions can be made permanent when the drawings and procedure manuals are updated. Copies of process changes need to be kept in an accessible location to ensure that design changes are available to operating personnel as well as to PHA team members when a PHA is being done or one is being updated.
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<P>12. <I>Investigation of Incidents.</I> Incident investigation is the process of identifying the underlying causes of incidents and implementing steps to prevent similar events from occurring. The intent of an incident investigation is for employers to learn from past experiences and thus avoid repeating past mistakes. The incidents for whicn OSHA expects employers to become aware and to investigate are the types of events which result in or could reasonably have resulted in a catastrophic release. Some of the events are sometimes referred to as “near misses,” meaning that a serious consequence did not occur, but could have.
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<P>Employers need to develop in-house capability to investigate incidents that occur in their facilities. A team needs to be assembled by the employer and trained in the techniques of investigation including how to conduct interviews of witnesses, needed documentation and report writing. A multi-disciplinary team is better able to gather the facts of the event and to analyze them and develop plausible scenarios as to what happened, and why. Team members should be selected on the basis of their training, knowledge and ability to contribute to a team effort to fully investigate the incident. Employees in the process area where the incident occurred should be consulted, interviewed or made a member of the team. Their knowledge of the events form a significant set of facts about the incident which occurred. The report, its findings and recommendations are to be shared with those who can benefit from the information. The cooperation of employees is essential to an effective incident investigation. The focus of the investigation should be to obtain facts, and not to place blame. The team and the investigation process should clearly deal with all involved individuals in a fair, open and consistent manner.
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<P>13. <I>Emergency Preparedness.</I> Each employer must address what actions employees are to take when there is an unwanted release of highly hazardous chemicals. Emergency preparedness or the employer's tertiary (third) lines of defense are those that will be relied on along with the secondary lines of defense when the primary lines of defense which are used to prevent an unwanted release fail to stop the release. Employers will need to decide if they want employees to handle and stop small or minor incidental releases. Whether they wish to mobilize the available resources at the plant and have them brought to bear on a more significant release. Or whether employers want their employees to evacuate the danger area and promptly escape to a preplanned safe zone area, and allow the local community emergency response organizations to handle the release. Or whether the employer wants to use some combination of these actions. Employers will need to select how many different emergency preparedness or tertiary lines of defense they plan to have and then develop the necessary plans and procedures, and appropriately train employees in their emergency duties and responsibilities and then implement these lines of defense.
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<P>Employers at a minimum must have an emergency action plan which will facilitate the prompt evacuation of employees due to an unwanted release of a highly hazardous chemical. This means that the employer will have a plan that will be activated by an alarm system to alert employees when to evacuate and, that employees who are physically impaired, will have the necessary support and assistance to get them to the safe zone as well. The intent of these requirements is to alert and move employees to a safe zone quickly. Delaying alarms or confusing alarms are to be avoided. The use of process control centers or similar process buildings in the process area as safe areas is discouraged. Recent catastrophes have shown that a large life loss has occurred in these structures because of where they have been sited and because they are not necessarily designed to withstand over-pressures from shockwaves resulting from explosions in the process area.
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<P>Unwanted incidental releases of highly hazardous chemicals in the process area must be addressed by the employer as to what actions employees are to take. If the employer wants employees to evacuate the area, then the emergency action plan will be activated. For outdoor processes where wind direction is important for selecting the safe route to a refuge area, the employer should place a wind direction indicator such as a wind sock or pennant at the highest point that can be seen throughout the process area. Employees can move in the direction of cross wind to upwind to gain safe access to the refuge area by knowing the wind direction.
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<P>If the employer wants specific employees in the release area to control or stop the minor emergency or incidental release, these actions must be planned for in advance and procedures developed and implemented. Preplanning for handling incidental releases for minor emergencies in the process area needs to be done, appropriate equipment for the hazards must be provided, and training conducted for those employees who will perform the emergency work before they respond to handle an actual release. The employer's training program, including the Hazard Communication standard training is to address the training needs for employees who are expected to handle incidental or minor releases.
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<P>Preplanning for releases that are more serious than incidental releases is another important line of defense to be used by the employer. When a serious release of a highly hazardous chemical occurs, the employer through preplanning will have determined in advance what actions employees are to take. The evacuation of the immediate release area and other areas as necessary would be accomplished under the emergency action plan. If the employer wishes to use plant personnel such as a fire brigade, spill control team, a hazardous materials team, or use employees to render aid to those in the immediate release area and control or mitigate the incident, these actions are covered by § 1910.120, the Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER) standard. If outside assistance is necessary, such as through mutual aid agreements between employers or local government emergency response organizations, these emergency responders are also covered by HAZWOPER. The safety and health protections required for emergency responders are the responsibility of their employers and of the on-scene incident commander.
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<P>Responders may be working under very hazardous conditions and therefore the objective is to have them competently led by an on-scene incident commander and the commander's staff, properly equipped to do their assigned work safely, and fully trained to carry out their duties safely before they respond to an emergency. Drills, training exercises, or simulations with the local community emergency response planners and responder organizations is one means to obtain better preparedness. This close cooperation and coordination between plant and local community emergency preparedness managers will also aid the employer in complying with the Environmental Protection Agency's Risk Management Plan criteria.
</P>
<P>One effective way for medium to large facilities to enhance coordination and communication during emergencies for on plant operations and with local community organizations is for employers to establish and equip an emergency control center. The emergency control center would be sited in a safe zone area so that it could be occupied throughout the duration of an emergency. The center would serve as the major ccommunication link between the on-scene incident commander and plant or corporate management as well as with the local community officials. The communication equipment in the emergency control center should include a network to receive and transmit information by telephone, radio or other means. It is important to have a backup communication network in case of power failure or one communication means fails. The center should also be equipped with the plant layout and community maps, utility drawings including fire water, emergency lighting, appropriate reference materials such as a government agency notification list, company personnel phone list, SARA Title III reports and safety data sheets, emergency plans and procedures manual, a listing with the location of emergency response equipment, mutual aid information, and access to meteorological or weather condition data and any dispersion modeling data.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Compliance Audits.</I> Employers need to select a trained individual or assemble a trained team of people to audit the process safety management system and program. A small process or plant may need only one knowledgeable person to conduct an audit. The audit is to include an evaluation of the design and effectiveness of the process safety management system and a field inspection of the safety and health conditions and practices to verify that the employer's systems are effectively implemented. The audit should be conducted or lead by a person knowledgeable in audit techniques and who is impartial towards the facility or area being audited. The essential elements of an audit program include planning, staffing, conduting the audit, evaluation and corrective action, follow-up and documentation.
</P>
<P>Planning in advance is essential to the success of the auditing process. Each employer needs to establish the format, staffing, scheduling and verification methods prior to conducting the audit. The format should be designed to provide the lead auditor with a procedure or checklist which details the requirements of each section of the standard. The names of the audit team members should be listed as part of the format as well. The checklist, if properly designed, could serve as the verification sheet which provides the auditor with the necessary information to expedite the review and assure that no requirements of the standard are omitted. This verification sheet format could also identify those elements that will require evaluation or a response to correct deficiencies. This sheet could also be used for developing the follow-up and documentation requirements.
</P>
<P>The selection of effective audit team members is critical to the success of the program. Team members should be chosen for their experience, knowledge, and training and should be familiar with the processes and with auditing techniques, practices and procedures. The size of the team will vary depending on the size and complexity of the process under consideration. For a large, complex, highly instrumented plant, it may be desirable to have team members with expertise in process engineering and design, process chemistry, instrumentation and computer controls, electrical hazards and classifications, safety and health disciplines, maintenance, emergency preparedness, warehousing or shipping, and process safety auditing. The team may use part-time members to provide for the depth of expertise required as well as for what is actually done or followed, compared to what is written.
</P>
<P>An effective audit includes a review of the relevant documentation and process safety information, inspection of the physical facilities, and interviews with all levels of plant personnel. Utilizing the audit procedure and checklist developed in the preplanning stage, the audit team can systematically analyze compliance with the provisions of the standard and any other corporate policies that are relevant. For example, the audit team will review all aspects of the training program as part of the overall audit. The team will review the written training program for adequacy of content, frequency of training, effectiveness of training in terms of its goals and objectives as well as to how it fits into meeting the standard's requirements, documentation, etc. Through interviews, the team can determine the employee's knowledge and awareness of the safety procedures, duties, rules, emergency response assignments, etc. During the inspection, the team can observe actual practices such as safety and health policies, procedures, and work authorization practices. This approach enables the team to identify deficiencies and determine where corrective actions or improvements are necessary.
</P>
<P>An audit is a technique used to gather sufficient facts and information, including statistical information, to verify compliance with standards. Auditors should select as part of their preplanning a sample size sufficient to give a degree of confidence that the audit reflects the level of compliance with the standard. The audit team, through this systematic analysis, should document areas which require corrective action as well as those areas where the process safety management system is effective and working in an effective manner. This provides a record of the audit procedures and findings, and serves as a baseline of operation data for future audits. It will assist future auditors in determining changes or trends from previous audits.
</P>
<P>Corrective action is one of the most important parts of the audit. It includes not only addressing the identified deficiencies, but also planning, followup, and documentation. The corrective action process normally begins with a management review of the audit findings. The purpose of this review is to determine what actions are appropriate, and to establish priorities, timetables, resource allocations and requirements and responsibilities. In some cases, corrective action may involve a simple change in procedure or minor maintenance effort to remedy the concern. Management of change procedures need to be used, as appropriate, even for what may seem to be a minor change. Many of the deficiencies can be acted on promptly, while some may require engineering studies or indepth review of actual procedures and practices. There may be instances where no action is necessary and this is a valid response to an audit finding. All actions taken, including an explanation where no action is taken on a finding, needs to be documented as to what was done and why.
</P>
<P>It is important to assure that each deficiency identified is addressed, the corrective action to be taken noted, and the audit person or team responsible be properly documented by the employer. To control the corrective action process, the employer should consider the use of a tracking system. This tracking system might include periodic status reports shared with affected levels of management, specific reports such as completion of an engineering study, and a final implementation report to provide closure for audit findings that have been through management of change, if appropriate, and then shared with affected employees and management. This type of tracking system provides the employer with the status of the corrective action. It also provides the documentation required to verify that appropriate corrective actions were taken on deficiencies identified in the audit.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.119—Sources of Further Information (Nonmandatory)
</HD1>
<P>1. Center for Chemical Process Safety, American Institute of Chemical Engineers, 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017, (212) 705-7319.
</P>
<P>2. “Guidelines for Hazard Evaluation Procedures,” American Institute of Chemical Engineers; 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017.
</P>
<P>3. “Guidelines for Technical Management of Chemical Process Safety,” Center for Chemical Process Safety of the American Institute of Chemical Engineers; 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017.
</P>
<P>4. “Evaluating Process Safety in the Chemical Industry,” Chemical Manufacturers Association; 2501 M Street NW, Washington, DC 20037.
</P>
<P>5. “Safe Warehousing of Chemicals,” Chemical Manufacturers Association; 2501 M Street NW, Washington, DC 20037.
</P>
<P>6. “Management of Process Hazards,” American Petroleum Institute (API Recommended Practice 750); 1220 L Street, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20005.
</P>
<P>7. “Improving Owner and Contractor Safety Performance,” American Petroleum Institute (API Recommended Practice 2220); API, 1220 L Street N.W., Washington, D.C. 20005.
</P>
<P>8. Chemical Manufacturers Association (CMA's Manager Guide), First Edition, September 1991; CMA, 2501 M Street, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20037.
</P>
<P>9. “Improving Construction Safety Performance,” Report A-3, The Business Roundtable; The Business Roundtable, 200 Park Avenue, New York, NY 10166. (Report includes criteria to evaluate contractor safety performance and criteria to enhance contractor safety performance).
</P>
<P>10. “Recommended Guidelines for Contractor Safety and Health,” Texas Chemical Council; Texas Chemical Council, 1402 Nueces Street, Austin, TX 78701-1534.
</P>
<P>11. “Loss Prevention in the Process Industries,” Volumes I and II; Frank P. Lees, Butterworth; London 1983.
</P>
<P>12. “Safety and Health Program Management Guidelines,” 1989; U.S. Department of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
</P>
<P>13. “Safety and Health Guide for the Chemical Industry,” 1986, (OSHA 3091); U.S. Department of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration; 200 Constitution Avenue, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20210.
</P>
<P>14. “Review of Emergency Systems,” June 1988; U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Office of Solid Waste and Emergency Response, Washington, DC 20460.
</P>
<P>15. “Technical Guidance for Hazards Analysis, Emergency Planning for Extremely Hazardous Substances,” December 1987; U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Federal Emergency Management Administration (FEMA) and U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), Washington, DC 20460.
</P>
<P>16. “Accident Investigation * * * A New Approach,” 1983, National Safety Council; 444 North Michigan Avenue, Chicago, IL 60611-3991.
</P>
<P>17. “Fire &amp; Explosion Index Hazard Classification Guide,” 6th Edition, May 1987, Dow Chemical Company; Midland, Michigan 48674.
</P>
<P>18. “Chemical Exposure Index,” May 1988, Dow Chemical Company; Midland, Michigan 48674.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 6403, Feb. 24, 1992; 57 FR 7847, Mar. 4, 1992, as amended at 61 FR 9238, Mar. 7, 1996; 67 FR 67964, Nov. 7, 2002; 76 FR 80738, Dec. 27, 2011; 77 FR 17776, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 9313, Feb. 8, 2013; 84 FR 15102, Apr. 15, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.120" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.120   Hazardous waste operations and emergency response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope, application, and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section covers the following operations, unless the employer can demonstrate that the operation does not involve employee exposure or the reasonable possibility for employee exposure to safety or health hazards:
</P>
<P>(i) Clean-up operations required by a governmental body, whether Federal, state, local or other involving hazardous substances that are conducted at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites (including, but not limited to, the EPA's National Priority Site List (NPL), state priority site lists, sites recommended for the EPA NPL, and initial investigations of government identified sites which are conducted before the presence or absence of hazardous substances has been ascertained);
</P>
<P>(ii) Corrective actions involving clean-up operations at sites covered by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA) as amended (42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Voluntary clean-up operations at sites recognized by Federal, state, local or other governmental bodies as uncontrolled hazardous waste sites;
</P>
<P>(iv) Operations involving hazardous wastes that are conducted at treatment, storage, and disposal (TSD) facilities regulated by 40 CFR parts 264 and 265 pursuant to RCRA; or by agencies under agreement with U.S.E.P.A. to implement RCRA regulations; and
</P>
<P>(v) Emergency response operations for releases of, or substantial threats of releases of, hazardous substances without regard to the location of the hazard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> (i) All requirements of part 1910 and part 1926 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations apply pursuant to their terms to hazardous waste and emergency response operations whether covered by this section or not. If there is a conflict or overlap, the provision more protective of employee safety and health shall apply without regard to 29 CFR 1910.5(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) Hazardous substance clean-up operations within the scope of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iii) of this section must comply with all paragraphs of this section except paragraphs (p) and (q).
</P>
<P>(iii) Operations within the scope of paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section must comply only with the requirements of paragraph (p) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notes and Exceptions:</HED>
<P>(A) All provisions of paragraph (p) of this section cover any treatment, storage or disposal (TSD) operation regulated by 40 CFR parts 264 and 265 or by state law authorized under RCRA, and required to have a permit or interim status from EPA pursuant to 40 CFR 270.1 or from a state agency pursuant to RCRA.
</P>
<P>(B) Employers who are not required to have a permit or interim status because they are conditionally exempt small quantity generators under 40 CFR 261.5 or are generators who qualify under 40 CFR 262.34 for exemptions from regulation under 40 CFR parts 264, 265 and 270 (“excepted employers”) are not covered by paragraphs (p)(1) through (p)(7) of this section. Excepted employers who are required by the EPA or state agency to have their employees engage in emergency response or who direct their employees to engage in emergency response are covered by paragraph (p)(8) of this section, and cannot be exempted by (p)(8)(i) of this section. Excepted employers who are not required to have employees engage in emergency response, who direct their employees to evacuate in the case of such emergencies and who meet the requirements of paragraph (p)(8)(i) of this section are exempt from the balance of paragraph (p)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) If an area is used primarily for treatment, storage or disposal, any emergency response operations in that area shall comply with paragraph (p)(8) of this section. In other areas not used primarily for treatment, storage, or disposal, any emergency response operations shall comply with paragraph (q) of this section. Compliance with the requirements of paragraph (q) of this section shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (p)(8) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) Emergency response operations for releases of, or substantial threats of releases of, hazardous substances which are not covered by paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section must only comply with the requirements of paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions—Buddy system</I> means a system of organizing employees into work groups in such a manner that each employee of the work group is designated to be observed by at least one other employee in the work group. The purpose of the buddy system is to provide rapid assistance to employees in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P><I>Clean-up operation</I> means an operation where hazardous substances are removed, contained, incinerated, neutralized, stabilized, cleared-up, or in any other manner processed or handled with the ultimate goal of making the site safer for people or the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination</I> means the removal of hazardous substances from employees and their equipment to the extent necessary to preclude the occurrence of foreseeable adverse health affects.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency response</I> or <I>responding to emergencies</I> means a response effort by employees from outside the immediate release area or by other designated responders (i.e., mutual-aid groups, local fire departments, etc.) to an occurrence which results, or is likely to result, in an uncontrolled release of a hazardous substance. Responses to incidental releases of hazardous substances where the substance can be absorbed, neutralized, or otherwise controlled at the time of release by employees in the immediate release area, or by maintenance personnel are not considered to be emergency responses within the scope of this standard. Responses to releases of hazardous substances where there is no potential safety or health hazard (i.e., fire, explosion, or chemical exposure) are not considered to be emergency responses.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means (A) any building, structure, installation, equipment, pipe or pipeline (including any pipe into a sewer or publicly owned treatment works), well, pit, pond, lagoon, impoundment, ditch, storage container, motor vehicle, rolling stock, or aircraft, or (B) any site or area where a hazardous substance has been deposited, stored, disposed of, or placed, or otherwise come to be located; but does not include any consumer product in consumer use or any water-borne vessel.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous materials response (HAZMAT) team</I> means an organized group of employees, designated by the employer, who are expected to perform work to handle and control actual or potential leaks or spills of hazardous substances requiring possible close approach to the substance. The team members perform responses to releases or potential releases of hazardous substances for the purpose of control or stabilization of the incident. A HAZMAT team is not a fire brigade nor is a typical fire brigade a HAZMAT team. A HAZMAT team, however, may be a separate component of a fire brigade or fire department.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous substance</I> means any substance designated or listed under paragraphs (A) through (D) of this definition, exposure to which results or may result in adverse affects on the health or safety of employees:
</P>
<P>(A) Any substance defined under section 103(14) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) (42 U.S.C. 9601).
</P>
<P>(B) Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent which after release into the environment and upon exposure, ingestion, inhalation, or assimilation into any person, either directly from the environment or indirectly by ingestion through food chains, will or may reasonably be anticipated to cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction) or physical deformations in such persons or their offspring;
</P>
<P>(C) Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as hazardous materials under 49 CFR 172.101 and appendices; and
</P>
<P>(D) Hazardous waste as herein defined.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste</I> means—
</P>
<P>(A) A waste or combination of wastes as defined in 40 CFR 261.3, or
</P>
<P>(B) Those substances defined as hazardous wastes in 49 CFR 171.8.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste operation</I> means any operation conducted within the scope of this standard.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste site</I> or <I>Site</I> means any facility or location within the scope of this standard at which hazardous waste operations take place.
</P>
<P><I>Health hazard</I> means a chemical or a pathogen where acute or chronic health effects may occur in exposed employees. It also includes stress due to temperature extremes. The term <I>health hazard</I> includes chemicals that are classified in accordance with the Hazard Communication Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1200, as posing one of the following hazardous effects: Acute toxicity (any route of exposure); skin corrosion or irritation; serious eye damage or eye irritation; respiratory or skin sensitization; germ cell mutagenicity; carcinogenicity; reproductive toxicity; specific target organ toxicity (single or repeated exposure); aspiration toxicity or simple asphyxiant. (<I>See</I> Appendix A to § 1910.1200—Health Hazard Criteria (Mandatory) for the criteria for determining whether a chemical is classified as a health hazard.)
</P>
<P><I>IDLH</I> or<I>Immediately dangerous to life or health</I> means an atmospheric concentration of any toxic, corrosive or asphyxiant substance that poses an immediate threat to life or would cause irreversible or delayed adverse health effects or would interfere with an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere.
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen deficiency</I> means that concentration of oxygen by volume below which atmosphere supplying respiratory protection must be provided. It exists in atmospheres where the percentage of oxygen by volume is less than 19.5 percent oxygen.
</P>
<P><I>Permissible exposure limit</I> means the exposure, inhalation or dermal permissible exposure limit specified in 29 CFR part 1910, subparts G and Z.
</P>
<P><I>Published exposure level</I> means the exposure limits published in “NIOSH Recommendations for Occupational Health Standards” dated 1986, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6 or if none is specified, the exposure limits published in the standards specified by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists in their publication “Threshold Limit Values and Biological Exposure Indices for 1987-88” dated 1987, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P><I>Post emergency response</I> means that portion of an emergency response performed after the immediate threat of a release has been stabilized or eliminated and clean-up of the site has begun. If post emergency response is performed by an employer's own employees who were part of the initial emergency response, it is considered to be part of the initial response and not post emergency response. However, if a group of an employer's own employees, separate from the group providing initial response, performs the clean-up operation, then the separate group of employees would be considered to be performing post-emergency response and subject to paragraph (q)(11) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person</I> means a person with specific training, knowledge and experience in the area for which the person has the responsibility and the authority to control.
</P>
<P><I>Site safety and health supervisor (or official)</I> means the individual located on a hazardous waste site who is responsible to the employer and has the authority and knowledge necessary to implement the site safety and health plan and verify compliance with applicable safety and health requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Small quantity qenerator</I> means a generator of hazardous wastes who in any calendar month generates no more than 1,000 kilograms (2,205 pounds) of hazardous waste in that month.
</P>
<P><I>Uncontrolled hazardous waste site,</I> means an area identified as an uncontrolled hazardous waste site by a governmental body, whether Federal, state, local or other where an accumulation of hazardous substances creates a threat to the health and safety of individuals or the environment or both. Some sites are found on public lands such as those created by former municipal, county or state landfills where illegal or poorly managed waste disposal has taken place. Other sites are found on private property, often belonging to generators or former generators of hazardous substance wastes. Examples of such sites include, but are not limited to, surface impoundments, landfills, dumps, and tank or drum farms. Normal operations at TSD sites are not covered by this definition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safety and health program.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Safety and health programs developed and implemented to meet other Federal, state, or local regulations are considered acceptable in meeting this requirement if they cover or are modified to cover the topics required in this paragraph. An additional or separate safety and health program is not required by this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Employers shall develop and implement a written safety and health program for their employees involved in hazardous waste operations. The program shall be designed to identify, evaluate, and control safety and health hazards, and provide for emergency response for hazardous waste operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written safety and health program shall incorporate the following:
</P>
<P>(A) An organizational structure;
</P>
<P>(B) A comprehensive workplan;
</P>
<P>(C) A site-specific safety and health plan which need not repeat the employer's standard operating procedures required in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(F) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) The safety and health training program;
</P>
<P>(E) The medical surveillance program;
</P>
<P>(F) The employer's standard operating procedures for safety and health; and
</P>
<P>(G) Any necessary interface between general program and site specific activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Site excavation.</I> Site excavations created during initial site preparation or during hazardous waste operations shall be shored or sloped as appropriate to prevent accidental collapse in accordance with subpart P of 29 CFR part 1926.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Contractors and sub-contractors.</I> An employer who retains contractor or sub-contractor services for work in hazardous waste operations shall inform those contractors, sub-contractors, or their representatives of the site emergency response procedures and any potential fire, explosion, health, safety or other hazards of the hazardous waste operation that have been identified by the employer, including those identified in the employer's information program.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Program availability.</I> The written safety and health program shall be made available to any contractor or subcontractor or their representative who will be involved with the hazardous waste operation; to employees; to employee designated representatives; to OSHA personnel, and to personnel of other Federal, state, or local agencies with regulatory authority over the site.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Organizational structure part of the site program.</I> (i) The organizationa1 structure part of the program shall establish the specific chain of command and specify the overall responsibilities of supervisors and employees. It shall include, at a minimum, the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A general supervisor who has the responsibility and authority to direct all hazardous waste operations.
</P>
<P>(B) A site safety and health supervisor who has the responsibility and authority to develop and implement the site safety and health plan and verify compliance.
</P>
<P>(C) All other personnel needed for hazardous waste site operations and emergency response and their general functions and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(D) The lines of authority, responsibility, and communication.
</P>
<P>(ii) The organizational structure shall be reviewed and updated as necessary to reflect the current status of waste site operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Comprehensive workplan part of the site program.</I> The comprehensive workplan part of the program shall address the tasks and objectives of the site operations and the logistics and resources required to reach those tasks and objectives.
</P>
<P>(i) The comprehensive workplan shall address anticipated clean-up activities as well as normal operating procedures which need not repeat the employer's procedures available elsewhere.
</P>
<P>(ii) The comprehensive workplan shall define work tasks and objectives and identify the methods for accomplishing those tasks and objectives.
</P>
<P>(iii) The comprehensive workplan shall establish personnel requirements for implementing the plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The comprehensive workplan shall provide for the implementation of the training required in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The comprehensive workplan shall provide for the implementation of the required informational programs required in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The comprehensive workplan shall provide for the implementation of the medical surveillance program described in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Site-specific safety and health plan part of the program</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The site safety and health plan, which must be kept on site, shall address the safety and health hazards of each phase of site operation and include the requirements and procedures for employee protection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Elements.</I> The site safety and health plan, as a minimum, shall address the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A safety and health risk or hazard analysis for each site task and operation found in the workplan.
</P>
<P>(B) Employee training assignments to assure compliance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Personal protective equipment to be used by employees for each of the site tasks and operations being conducted as required by the personal protective equipment program in paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Medical surveillance requirements in accordance with the program in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) Frequency and types of air monitoring, personnel monitoring, and environmental sampling techniques and instrumentation to be used, including methods of maintenance and calibration of monitoring and sampling equipment to be used.
</P>
<P>(F) Site control measures in accordance with the site control program required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(G) Decontamination procedures in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(H) An emergency response plan meeting the requirements of paragraph (l) of this section for safe and effective responses to emergencies, including the necessary PPE and other equipment.
</P>
<P>(I) Confined space entry procedures.
</P>
<P>(J) A spill containment program meeting the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Pre-entry briefing.</I> The site specific safety and health plan shall provide for pre-entry briefings to be held prior to initiating any site activity, and at such other times as necessary to ensure that employees are apprised of the site safety and health plan and that this plan is being followed. The information and data obtained from site characterization and analysis work required in paragraph (c) of this section shall be used to prepare and update the site safety and health plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Effectiveness of site safety and health plan.</I> Inspections shall be conducted by the site safety and health supervisor or, in the absence of that individual, another individual who is knowledgeable in occupational safety and health, acting on behalf of the employer as necessary to determine the effectiveness of the site safety and health plan. Any deficiencies in the effectiveness of the site safety and health plan shall be corrected by the employer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Site characterization and analysis</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Hazardous waste sites shall be evaluated in accordance with this paragraph to identify specific site hazards and to determine the appropriate safety and health control procedures needed to protect employees from the identified hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preliminary evaluation.</I> A preliminary evaluation of a site's characteristics shall be performed prior to site entry by a qualified person in order to aid in the selection of appropriate employee protection methods prior to site entry. Immediately after initial site entry, a more detailed evaluation of the site's specific characteristics shall be performed by a qualified person in order to further identify existing site hazards and to further aid in the selection of the appropriate engineering controls and personal protective equipment for the tasks to be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hazard identification.</I> All suspected conditions that may pose inhalation or skin absorption hazards that are immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH), or other conditions that may cause death or serious harm, shall be identified during the preliminary survey and evaluated during the detailed survey. Examples of such hazards include, but are not limited to, confined space entry, potentially explosive or flammable situations, visible vapor clouds, or areas where biological indicators such as dead animals or vegetation are located.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Required information.</I> The following information to the extent available shall be obtained by the employer prior to allowing employees to enter a site:
</P>
<P>(i) Location and approximate size of the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of the response activity and/or the job task to be performed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Duration of the planned employee activity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Site topography and accessibility by air and roads.
</P>
<P>(v) Safety and health hazards expected at the site.
</P>
<P>(vi) Pathways for hazardous substance dispersion.
</P>
<P>(vii) Present status and capabilities of emergency response teams that would provide assistance to hazardous waste clean-up site employees at the time of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(viii) Hazardous substances and health hazards involved or expected at the site, and their chemical and physical properties.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Personal protective equipment (PPE) shall be provided and used during initial site entry in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Based upon the results of the preliminary site evaluation, an ensemble of PPE shall be selected and used during initial site entry which will provide protection to a level of exposure below permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels for known or suspected hazardous substances and health hazards, and which will provide protection against other known and suspected hazards identified during the preliminary site evaluation. If there is no permissible exposure limit or published exposure level, the employer may use other published studies and information as a guide to appropriate personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus is not used as part of the entry ensemble, and if respiratory protection is warranted by the potential hazards identified during the preliminary site evaluation, an escape self-contained breathing apparatus of at least five minute's duration shall be carried by employees during initial site entry.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preliminary site evaluation does not produce sufficient information to identify the hazards or suspected hazards of the site, an ensemble providing protection equivalent to Level B PPE shall be provided as minimum protection, and direct reading instruments shall be used as appropriate for identifying IDLH conditions. (See appendix B for a description of Level B hazards and the recommendations for Level B protective equipment.)
</P>
<P>(iv) Once the hazards of the site have been identified, the appropriate PPE shall be selected and used in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Monitoring.</I> The following monitoring shall be conducted during initial site entry when the site evaluation produces information that shows the potential for ionizing radiation or IDLH conditions, or when the site information is not sufficient reasonably to eliminate these possible conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring with direct reading instruments for hazardous levels of ionizing radiation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitoring the air with appropriate direct reading test equipment (i.e., combustible gas meters, detector tubes) for IDLH and other conditions that may cause death or serious harm (combustible or explosive atmospheres, oxygen deficiency, toxic substances).
</P>
<P>(iii) Visually observing for signs of actual or potential IDLH or other dangerous conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) An ongoing air monitoring program in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section shall be implemented after site characterization has determined the site is safe for the start-up of operations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Risk identification.</I> Once the presence and concentrations of specific hazardous substances and health hazards have been established, the risks associated with these substances shall be identified. Employees who will be working on the site shall be informed of any risks that have been identified. In situations covered by the Hazard Communication Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1200, training required by that standard need not be duplicated.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(7):</HED>
<P>Risks to consider include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Exposures exceeding the permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(b) IDLH concentrations.
</P>
<P>(c) Potential skin absorption and irritation sources.
</P>
<P>(d) Potential eye irritation sources.
</P>
<P>(e) Explosion sensitivity and flammability ranges.
</P>
<P>(f) Oxygen deficiency.</P></NOTE>
<P>(8) <I>Employee notification.</I> Any information concerning the chemical, physical, and toxicologic properties of each substance known or expected to be present on site that is available to the employer and relevant to the duties an employee is expected to perform shall be made available to the affected employees prior to the commencement of their work activities. The employer may utilize information developed for the hazard communication standard for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Site control</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Appropriate site control procedures shall be implemented to control employee exposure to hazardous substances before clean-up work begins.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Site control program.</I> A site control program for protecting employees which is part of the employer's site safety and health program required in paragraph (b) of this section shall be developed during the planning stages of a hazardous waste clean-up operation and modified as necessary as new information becomes available.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Elements of the site control program.</I> The site control program shall, as a minimum, include: A site map; site work zones; the use of a “buddy system”; site communications including alerting means for emergencies; the standard operating procedures or safe work practices; and, identification of the nearest medical assistance. Where these requirements are covered elsewhere they need not be repeated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) All employees working on site (such as but not limited to equipment operators, general laborers and others) exposed to hazardous substances, health hazards, or safety hazards and their supervisors and management responsible for the site shall receive training meeting the requirements of this paragraph before they are permitted to engage in hazardous waste operations that could expose them to hazardous substances, safety, or health hazards, and they shall receive review training as specified in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees shall not be permitted to participate in or supervise field activities until they have been trained to a level required by their job function and responsibility.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements to be covered.</I> The training shall thoroughly cover the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Names of personnel and alternates responsible for site safety and health;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety, health and other hazards present on the site;
</P>
<P>(iii) Use of personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(iv) Work practices by which the employee can minimize risks from hazards;
</P>
<P>(v) Safe use of engineering controls and equipment on the site;
</P>
<P>(vi) Medical surveillance requirements, including recognition of symptoms and signs which might indicate overexposure to hazards; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The contents of paragraphs (G) through (J) of the site safety and health plan set forth in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial training.</I> (i) General site workers (such as equipment operators, general laborers and supervisory personnel) engaged in hazardous substance removal or other activities which expose or potentially expose workers to hazardous substances and health hazards shall receive a minimum of 40 hours of instruction off the site, and a minimum of three days actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Workers on site only occasionally for a specific limited task (such as, but not limited to, ground water monitoring, land surveying, or geo-physical surveying) and who are unlikely to be exposed over permissible exposure limits and published exposure limits shall receive a minimum of 24 hours of instruction off the site, and the minimum of one day actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Workers regularly on site who work in areas which have been monitored and fully characterized indicating that exposures are under permissible exposure limits and published exposure limits where respirators are not necessary, and the characterization indicates that there are no health hazards or the possibility of an emergency developing, shall receive a minimum of 24 hours of instruction off the site and the minimum of one day actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
</P>
<P>(iv) Workers with 24 hours of training who are covered by paragraphs (e)(3)(ii) and (e)(3)(iii) of this section, and who become general site workers or who are required to wear respirators, shall have the additional 16 hours and two days of training necessary to total the training specified in paragraph (e)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Management and supervisor training.</I> On-site management and supervisors directly responsible for, or who supervise employees engaged in, hazardous waste operations shall receive 40 hours initial training, and three days of supervised field experience (the training may be reduced to 24 hours and one day if the only area of their responsibility is employees covered by paragraphs (e)(3)(ii) and (e)(3)(iii)) and at least eight additional hours of specialized training at the time of job assignment on such topics as, but not limited to, the employer's safety and health program and the associated employee training program, personal protective equipment program, spill containment program, and health hazard monitoring procedure and techniques.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Qualifications for trainers.</I> Trainers shall be qualified to instruct employees about the subject matter that is being presented in training. Such trainers shall have satisfactorily completed a training program for teaching the subjects they are expected to teach, or they shall have the academic credentials and instructional experience necessary for teaching the subjects. Instructors shall demonstrate competent instructional skills and knowledge of the applicable subject matter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Training certification.</I> Employees and supervisors that have received and successfully completed the training and field experience specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(4) of this section shall be certified by their instructor or the head instructor and trained supervisor as having successfully completed the necessary training. A written certificate shall be given to each person so certified. Any person who has not been so certified or who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(9) of this section shall be prohibited from engaging in hazardous waste operations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Emergency response.</I> Employees who are engaged in responding to hazardous emergency situations at hazardous waste clean-up sites that may expose them to hazardous substances shall be trained in how to respond to such expected emergencies.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Refresher training.</I> Employees specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and managers and supervisors specified in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, shall receive eight hours of refresher training annually on the items specified in paragraph (e)(2) and/or (e)(4) of this section, any critique of incidents that have occurred in the past year that can serve as training examples of related work, and other relevant topics.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Equivalent training.</I> Employers who can show by documentation or certification that an employee's work experience and/or training has resulted in training equivalent to that training required in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(4) of this section shall not be required to provide the initial training requirements of those paragraphs to such employees and shall provide a copy of the certification or documentation to the employee upon request. However, certified employees or employees with equivalent training new to a site shall receive appropriate, site specific training before site entry and have appropriate supervised field experience at the new site. Equivalent training includes any academic training or the training that existing employees might have already received from actual hazardous waste site work experience.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Employers engaged in operations specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section and not covered by (a)(2)(iii) exceptions and employers of employees specified in paragraph (q)(9) shall institute a medical surveillance program in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employees covered.</I> The medical surveillance program shall be instituted by the employer for the following employees:
</P>
<P>(i) All employees who are or may be exposed to hazardous substances or health hazards at or above the permissible exposure limits or, if there is no permissible exposure limit, above the published exposure levels for these substances, without regard to the use of respirators, for 30 days or more a year;
</P>
<P>(ii) All employees who wear a respirator for 30 days or more a year or as required by § 1910.134;
</P>
<P>(iii) All employees who are injured, become ill or develop signs or symptoms due to possible overexposure involving hazardous substances or health hazards from an emergency response or hazardous waste operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Members of HAZMAT teams.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency of medical examinations and consultations.</I> Medical examinations and consultations shall be made available by the employer to each employee covered under paragraph (f)(2) of this section on the following schedules:
</P>
<P>(i) For employees covered under paragraphs (f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(ii), and (f)(2)(iv):
</P>
<P>(A) Prior to assignment;
</P>
<P>(B) At least once every twelve months for each employee covered unless the attending physician believes a longer interval (not greater than biennially) is appropriate;
</P>
<P>(C) At termination of employment or reassignment to an area where the employee would not be covered if the employee has not had an examination within the last six months;
</P>
<P>(D) As soon as possible upon notification by an employee that the employee has developed signs or symptoms indicating possible overexposure to hazardous substances or health hazards, or that the employee has been injured or exposed above the permissible exposure limits or published exposure levels in an emergency situation;
</P>
<P>(E) At more frequent times, if the examining physician determines that an increased frequency of examination is medically necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) For employees covered under paragraph (f)(2)(iii) and for all employees including those of employers covered by paragraph (a)(1)(v) who may have been injured, received a health impairment, developed signs or symptoms which may have resulted from exposure to hazardous substances resulting from an emergency incident, or exposed during an emergency incident to hazardous substances at concentrations above the permissible exposure limits or the published exposure levels without the necessary personal protective equipment being used:
</P>
<P>(A) As soon as possible following the emergency incident or development of signs or symptoms;
</P>
<P>(B) At additional times, if the examining physician determines that follow-up examinations or consultations are medically necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Content of medical examinations and consultations.</I> (i) Medical examinations required by paragraph (f)(3) of this section shall include a medical and work history (or updated history if one is in the employee's file) with special emphasis on symptoms related to the handling of hazardous substances and health hazards, and to fitness for duty including the ability to wear any required PPE under conditions (i.e., temperature extremes) that may be expected at the work site.
</P>
<P>(ii) The content of medical examinations or consultations made available to employees pursuant to paragraph (f) shall be determined by the attending physician. The guidelines in the <I>Occupational Safety and Health Guidance Manual for Hazardous Waste Site Activities</I> (See appendix D, Reference #10) should be consulted.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examination by a physician and costs.</I> All medical examinations and procedures shall be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, preferably one knowledgeable in occupational medicine, and shall be provided without cost to the employee, without loss of pay, and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide one copy of this standard and its appendices to the attending physician, and in addition the following for each employee:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's exposure levels or anticipated exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from previous medical examinations of the employee which is not readily available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(v) Information required by § 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain and furnish the employee with a copy of a written opinion from the attending physician containing the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from work in hazardous waste operations or emergency response, or from respirator use.
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's recommended limitations upon the employee's assigned work.
</P>
<P>(C) The results of the medical examination and tests if requested by the employee.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions which require further examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written opinion obtained by the employer shall not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposures.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (i) An accurate record of the medical surveillance required by paragraph (f) of this section shall be retained. This record shall be retained for the period specified and meet the criteria of 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record required in paragraph (f)(8)(i) of this section shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) Physician's written opinions, recommended limitations, and results of examinations and tests;
</P>
<P>(C) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to hazardous substances;
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the information provided to the examining physician by the employer, with the exception of the standard and its appendices.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Engineering controls, work practices, and personal protective equipment for employee protection.</I> Engineering controls, work practices, personal protective equipment, or a combination of these shall be implemented in accordance with this paragraph to protect employees from exposure to hazardous substances and safety and health hazards.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Engineering controls, work practices and PPE for substances regulated in subparts G and Z.</I> (i) Engineering controls and work practices shall be instituted to reduce and maintain employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limits for substances regulated by 29 CFR part 1910, to the extent required by subpart Z, except to the extent that such controls and practices are not feasible.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Engineering controls which may be feasible include the use of pressurized cabs or control booths on equipment, and/or the use of remotely operated material handling equipment. Work practices which may be feasible are removing all non-essential employees from potential exposure during opening of drums, wetting down dusty operations and locating employees upwind of possible hazards.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Whenever engineering controls and work practices are not feasible or not required, any reasonable combination of engineering controls, work practices and PPE shall be used to reduce and maintain employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limits or dose limits for substances regulated by 29 CFR part 1910, subpart Z.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall not implement a schedule of employee rotation as a means of compliance with permissible exposure limits or dose limits except when there is no other feasible way of complying with the airborne or dermal dose limits for ionizing radiation.
</P>
<P>(iv) The provisions of 29 CFR, subpart G, shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engineering controls, work practices, and PPE for substances not regulated in subparts G and Z.</I> An appropriate combination of engineering controls, work practices and personal protective equipment shall be used to reduce and maintain employee exposure to or below published exposure levels for hazardous substances and health hazards not regulated by 29 CFR part 1910, subparts G and Z. The employer may use the published literature and SDS as a guide in making the employer's determination as to what level of protection the employer believes is appropriate for hazardous substances and health hazards for which there is no permissible exposure limit or published exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personal protective equipment selection.</I> (i) Personal protective equipment (PPE) shall be selected and used which will protect employees from the hazards and potential hazards they are likely to encounter as identified during the site characterization and analysis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal protective equipment selection shall be based on an evaluation of the performance characteristics of the PPE relative to the requirements and limitations of the site, the task-specific conditions and duration, and the hazards and potential hazards identified at the site.
</P>
<P>(iii) Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, or positive pressure air-line respirators equipped with an escape air supply, shall be used when chemical exposure levels present will create a substantial possibility of immediate death, immediate serious illness or injury, or impair the ability to escape.
</P>
<P>(iv) Totally-encapsulating chemical protective suits (protection equivalent to Level A protection as recommended in appendix B) shall be used in conditions where skin absorption of a hazardous substance may result in a substantial possibility of immediate death, immediate serious illness or injury, or impair the ability to escape.
</P>
<P>(v) The level of protection provided by PPE selection shall be increased when additional information on site conditions indicates that increased protection is necessary to reduce employee exposures below permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels for hazardous substances and health hazards. (See appendix B for guidance on selecting PPE ensembles.)
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>The level of employee protection provided may be decreased when additional information or site conditions show that decreased protection will not result in hazardous exposures to employees.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) Personal protective equipment shall be selected and used to meet the requirements of 29 CFR part 1910, subpart I, and additional requirements specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Totally-encapsulating chemical protective suits.</I> (i) Totally-encapsulating suits shall protect employees from the particular hazards which are identified during site characterization and analysis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Totally-encapsulating suits shall be capable of maintaining positive air pressure. (See appendix A for a test method which may be used to evaluate this requirement.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Totally-encapsulating suits shall be capable of preventing inward test gas leakage of more than 0.5 percent. (See appendix A for a test method which may be used to evaluate this requirement.)
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal protective equipment (PPE) program.</I> A written personal protective equipment program, which is part of the employer's safety and health program required in paragraph (b) of this section or required in paragraph (p)(1) of this section and which is also a part of the site-specific safety and health plan shall be established. The PPE program shall address the elements listed below. When elements, such as donning and doffing procedures, are provided by the manufacturer of a piece of equipment and are attached to the plan, they need not be rewritten into the plan as long as they adequately address the procedure or element.
</P>
<P>(i) PPE selection based upon site hazards,
</P>
<P>(ii) PPE use and limitations of the equipment,
</P>
<P>(iii) Work mission duration,
</P>
<P>(iv) PPE maintenance and storage,
</P>
<P>(v) PPE decontamination and disposal,
</P>
<P>(vi) PPE training and proper fitting,
</P>
<P>(vii) PPE donning and doffing procedures,
</P>
<P>(viii) PPE inspection procedures prior to, during, and after use,
</P>
<P>(ix) Evaluation of the effectiveness of the PPE program, and
</P>
<P>(x) Limitations during temperature extremes, heat stress, and other appropriate medical considerations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Monitoring shall be performed in accordance with this paragraph where there may be a question of employee exposure to hazardous concentrations of hazardous substances in order to assure proper selection of engineering controls, work practices and personal protective equipment so that employees are not exposed to levels which exceed permissible exposure limits, or published exposure levels if there are no permissible exposure limits, for hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>(ii) Air monitoring shall be used to identify and quantify airborne levels of hazardous substances and safety and health hazards in order to determine the appropriate level of employee protection needed on site.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial entry.</I> Upon initial entry, representative air monitoring shall be conducted to identify any IDLH condition, exposure over permissible exposure limits or published exposure levels, exposure over a radioactive material's dose limits or other dangerous condition such as the presence of flammable atmospheres or oxygen-deficient environments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring.</I> Periodic monitoring shall be conducted when the possibility of an IDLH condition or flammable atmosphere has developed or when there is indication that exposures may have risen over permissible exposure limits or published exposure levels since prior monitoring. Situations where it shall be considered whether the possibility that exposures have risen are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When work begins on a different portion of the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) When contaminants other than those previously identified are being handled.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a different type of operation is initiated (e.g., drum opening as opposed to exploratory well drilling).
</P>
<P>(iv) When employees are handling leaking drums or containers or working in areas with obvious liquid contamination (e.g., a spill or lagoon).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Monitoring of high-risk employees.</I> After the actual clean-up phase of any hazardous waste operation commences; for example, when soil, surface water or containers are moved or disturbed; the employer shall monitor those employees likely to have the highest exposures to hazardous substances and health hazards likely to be present above permissible exposure limits or published exposure levels by using personal sampling frequently enough to characterize employee exposures. If the employees likely to have the highest exposure are over permissible exposure limits or published exposure limits, then monitoring shall continue to determine all employees likely to be above those limits. The employer may utilize a representative sampling approach by documenting that the employees and chemicals chosen for monitoring are based on the criteria stated above.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>):</HED>
<P>It is not required to monitor employees engaged in site characterization operations covered by paragraph (c) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Informational programs.</I> Employers shall develop and implement a program, which is part of the employer's safety and health program required in paragraph (b) of this section, to inform employees, contractors, and subcontractors (or their representative) actually engaged in hazardous waste operations of the nature, level and degree of exposure likely as a result of participation in such hazardous waste operations. Employees, contractors and subcontractors working outside of the operations part of a site are not covered by this standard.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Handling drums and containers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Hazardous substances and contaminated soils, liquids, and other residues shall be handled, transported, labeled, and disposed of in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Drums and containers used during the clean-up shall meet the appropriate DOT, OSHA, and EPA regulations for the wastes that they contain.
</P>
<P>(iii) When practical, drums and containers shall be inspected and their integrity shall be assured prior to being moved. Drums or containers that cannot be inspected before being moved because of storage conditions (i.e., buried beneath the earth, stacked behind other drums, stacked several tiers high in a pile, etc.) shall be moved to an accessible location and inspected prior to further handling.
</P>
<P>(iv) Unlabelled drums and containers shall be considered to contain hazardous substances and handled accordingly until the contents are positively identified and labeled.
</P>
<P>(v) Site operations shall be organized to minimize the amount of drum or container movement.
</P>
<P>(vi) Prior to movement of drums or containers, all employees exposed to the transfer operation shall be warned of the potential hazards associated with the contents of the drums or containers.
</P>
<P>(vii) U.S. Department of Transportation specified salvage drums or containers and suitable quantities of proper absorbent shall be kept available and used in areas where spills, leaks, or ruptures may occur.
</P>
<P>(viii) Where major spills may occur, a spill containment program, which is part of the employer's safety and health program required in paragraph (b) of this section, shall be implemented to contain and isolate the entire volume of the hazardous substance being transferred.
</P>
<P>(ix) Drums and containers that cannot be moved without rupture, leakage, or spillage shall be emptied into a sound container using a device classified for the material being transferred.
</P>
<P>(x) A ground-penetrating system or other type of detection system or device shall be used to estimate the location and depth of buried drums or containers.
</P>
<P>(xi) Soil or covering material shall be removed with caution to prevent drum or container rupture.
</P>
<P>(xii) Fire extinguishing equipment meeting the requirements of 29 CFR part 1910, subpart L, shall be on hand and ready for use to control incipient fires.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opening drums and containers.</I> The following procedures shall be followed in areas where drums or containers are being opened:
</P>
<P>(i) Where an airline respirator system is used, connections to the source of air supply shall be protected from contamination and the entire system shall be protected from physical damage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees not actually involved in opening drums or containers shall be kept a safe distance from the drums or containers being opened.
</P>
<P>(iii) If employees must work near or adjacent to drums or containers being opened, a suitable shield that does not interfere with the work operation shall be placed between the employee and the drums or containers being opened to protect the employee in case of accidental explosion.
</P>
<P>(iv) Controls for drum or container opening equipment, monitoring equipment, and fire suppression equipment shall be located behind the explosion-resistant barrier.
</P>
<P>(v) When there is a reasonable possibility of flammable atmospheres being present, material handling equipment and hand tools shall be of the type to prevent sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(vi) Drums and containers shall be opened in such a manner that excess interior pressure will be safely relieved. If pressure can not be relieved from a remote location, appropriate shielding shall be placed between the employee and the drums or containers to reduce the risk of employee injury.
</P>
<P>(vii) Employees shall not stand upon or work from drums or containers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Material handling equipment.</I> Material handiing equipment used to transfer drums and containers shall be selected, positioned and operated to minimize sources of ignition related to the equipment from igniting vapors released from ruptured drums or containers.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Radioactive wastes.</I> Drums and containers containing radioactive wastes shall not be handled until such time as their hazard to employees is properly assessed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shock sensitive wastes.</I> As a minimum, the following special precautions shall be taken when drums and containers containing or suspected of containing shock-sensitive wastes are handled:
</P>
<P>(i) All non-essential employees shall be evacuated from the area of transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Material handling equipment shall be provided with explosive containment devices or protective shields to protect equipment operators from exploding containers.
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee alarm system capable of being perceived above surrounding light and noise conditions shall be used to signal the commencement and completion of explosive waste handling activities.
</P>
<P>(iv) Continuous communications (i.e., portable radios, hand signals, telephones, as appropriate) shall be maintained between the employee-in-charge of the immediate handling area and both the site safety and health supervisor and the command post until such time as the handling operation is completed. Communication equipment or methods that could cause shock sensitive materials to explode shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(v) Drums and containers under pressure, as evidenced by bulging or swelling, shall not be moved until such time as the cause for excess pressure is determined and appropriate containment procedures have been implemented to protect employees from explosive relief of the drum.
</P>
<P>(vi) Drums and containers containing packaged laboratory wastes shall be considered to contain shock-sensitive or explosive materials until they have been characterized.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Caution:</E> Shipping of shock sensitive wastes may be prohibited under U.S. Department of Transportation regulations. Employers and their shippers should refer to 49 CFR 173.21 and 173.50.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>Laboratory waste packs.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (j)(5) of this section, the following precautions shall be taken, as a minimum, in handling laboratory waste packs (lab packs):
</P>
<P>(i) Lab packs shall be opened only when necessary and then only by an individual knowledgeable in the inspection, classification, and segregation of the containers within the pack according to the hazards of the wastes.
</P>
<P>(ii) If crystalline material is noted on any container, the contents shall be handled as a shock-sensitive waste until the contents are identified.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Sampling of drum and container contents.</I> Sampling of containers and drums shall be done in accordance with a sampling procedure which is part of the site safety and health plan developed for and available to employees and others at the specific worksite.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Shipping and transport.</I> (i) Drums and containers shall be identified and classified prior to packaging for shipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Drum or container staging areas shall be kept to the minimum number necessary to identify and classify materials safely and prepare them for transport.
</P>
<P>(iii) Staging areas shall be provided with adequate access and egress routes.
</P>
<P>(iv) Bulking of hazardous wastes shall be permitted only after a thorough characterization of the materials has been completed.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Tank and vault procedures.</I> (i) Tanks and vaults containing hazardous substances shall be handled in a manner similar to that for drums and containers, taking into consideration the size of the tank or vault.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate tank or vault entry procedures as described in the employer's safety and health plan shall be followed whenever employees must enter a tank or vault.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Decontamination</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Procedures for all phases of decontamination shall be developed and implemented in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decontamination procedures.</I> (i) A decontamination procedure shall be developed, communicated to employees and implemented before any employees or equipment may enter areas on site where potential for exposure to hazardous substances exists.
</P>
<P>(ii) Standard operating procedures shall be developed to minimize employee contact with hazardous substances or with equipment that has contacted hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>(iii) All employees leaving a contaminated area shall be appropriately decontaminated; all contaminated clothing and equipment leaving a contaminated area shall be appropriately disposed of or decontaminated.
</P>
<P>(iv) Decontamination procedures shall be monitored by the site safety and health supervisor to determine their effectiveness. When such procedures are found to be ineffective, appropriate steps shall be taken to correct any deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Location.</I> Decontamination shall be performed in geographical areas that will minimize the exposure of uncontaminated employees or equipment to contaminated employees or equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equipment and solvents.</I> All equipment and solvents used for decontamination shall be decontaminated or disposed of properly.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal protective clothing and equipment.</I> (i) Protective clothing and equipment shall be decontaminated, cleaned, laundered, maintained or replaced as needed to maintain their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees whose non-impermeable clothing becomes wetted with hazardous substances shall immediately remove that clothing and proceed to shower. The clothing shall be disposed of or decontaminated before it is removed from the work zone.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Unauthorized employees.</I> Unauthorized employees shall not remove protective clothing or equipment from change rooms.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Commercial laundries or cleaning establishments.</I> Commercial laundries or cleaning establishments that decontaminate protective clothing or equipment shall be informed of the potentially harmful effects of exposures to hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Showers and change rooms.</I> Where the decontamination procedure indicates a need for regular showers and change rooms outside of a contaminated area, they shall be provided and meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.141. If temperature conditions prevent the effective use of water, then other effective means for cleansing shall be provided and used.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Emergency response by employees at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites</I>—(1) <I>Emergency response plan.</I> (i) An emergency response plan shall be developed and implemented by all employers within the scope of paragraphs (a)(1) (i)-(ii) of this section to handle anticipated emergencies prior to the commencement of hazardous waste operations. The plan shall be in writing and available for inspection and copying by employees, their representatives, OSHA personnel and other governmental agencies with relevant responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers who will evacuate their employees from the danger area when an emergency occurs, and who do not permit any of their employees to assist in handling the emergency, are exempt from the requirements of this paragraph if they provide an emergency action plan complying with 29 CFR 1910.38.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements of an emergency response plan.</I> The employer shall develop an emergency response plan for emergencies which shall address, as a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-emergency planning.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personnel roles, lines of authority, and communication.
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency recognition and prevention.
</P>
<P>(iv) Safe distances and places of refuge.
</P>
<P>(v) Site security and control.
</P>
<P>(vi) Evacuation routes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Decontamination procedures which are not covered by the site safety and health plan.
</P>
<P>(viii) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
</P>
<P>(ix) Emergency alerting and response procedures.
</P>
<P>(x) Critique of response and follow-up.
</P>
<P>(xi) PPE and emergency equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures for handling emergency incidents.</I> (i) In addition to the elements for the emergency response plan required in paragraph (l)(2) of this section, the following elements shall be included for emergency response plans:
</P>
<P>(A) Site topography, layout, and prevailing weather conditions.
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for reporting incidents to local, state, and federal governmental agencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) The emergency response plan shall be a separate section of the Site Safety and Health Plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The emergency response plan shall be compatible and integrated with the disaster, fire and/or emergency response plans of local, state, and federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(iv) The emergency response plan shall be rehearsed regularly as part of the overall training program for site operations.
</P>
<P>(v) The site emergency response plan shall be reviewed periodically and, as necessary, be amended to keep it current with new or changing site conditions or information.
</P>
<P>(vi) An employee alarm system shall be installed in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.165 to notify employees of an emergency situation; to stop work activities if necessary; to lower background noise in order to speed communication; and to begin emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Based upon the information available at time of the emergency, the employer shall evaluate the incident and the site response capabilities and proceed with the appropriate steps to implement the site emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Illumination.</I> Areas accessible to employees shall be lighted to not less than the minimum illumination intensities listed in the following Table H-120.1 while any work is in progress:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-120.1—Minimum Illumination Intensities in Foot-Candles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foot-candles
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Area or operations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General site areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Excavation and waste areas, accessways, active storage areas, loading platforms, refueling, and field maintenance areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoors: Warehouses, corridors, hallways, and exitways.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tunnels, shafts, and general underground work areas. (Exception: Minimum of 10 foot-candles is required at tunnel and shaft heading during drilling mucking, and scaling. Mine Safety and Health Administration approved cap lights shall be acceptable for use in the tunnel heading.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General shops (e.g., mechanical and electrical equipment rooms, active storerooms, barracks or living quarters, locker or dressing rooms, dining areas, and indoor toilets and workrooms.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First aid stations, infirmaries, and offices.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(n) <I>Sanitation at temporary workplaces</I>—(1) <I>Potable water.</I> (i) An adequate supply of potable water shall be provided on the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) Portable containers used to dispense drinking water shall be capable of being tightly closed, and equipped with a tap. Water shall not be dipped from containers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any container used to distribute drinking water shall be clearly marked as to the nature of its contents and not used for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where single service cups (to be used but once) are supplied, both a sanitary container for the unused cups and a receptacle for disposing of the used cups shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonpotable water.</I> (i) Outlets for nonpotable water, such as water for firefighting purposes, shall be identified to indicate clearly that the water is unsafe and is not to be used for drinking, washing, or cooking purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) There shall be no cross-connection, open or potential, between a system furnishing potable water and a system furnishing nonpotable water.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Toilet facilities.</I> (i) Toilets shall be provided for employees according to the following Table H-120.2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-120.2—Toilet Facilities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of employees
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of facilities
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 or fewer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 20, fewer than 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One toilet seat and one urinal per 40 employees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One toilet seat and one urinal per 50 employees.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Under temporary field conditions, provisions shall be made to assure that at least one toilet facility is available.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hazardous waste sites not provided with a sanitary sewer shall be provided with the following toilet facilities unless prohibited by local codes:
</P>
<P>(A) Chemical toilets;
</P>
<P>(B) Recirculating toilets;
</P>
<P>(C) Combustion toilets; or
</P>
<P>(D) Flush toilets.
</P>
<P>(iv) The requirements of this paragraph for sanitation facilities shall not apply to mobile crews having transportation readily available to nearby toilet facilities.
</P>
<P>(v) Doors entering toilet facilities shall be provided with entrance locks controlled from inside the facility.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Food handling.</I> All food service facilities and operations for employees shall meet the applicable laws, ordinances, and regulations of the jurisdictions in which they are located.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Temporary sleeping quarters.</I> When temporary sleeping quarters are provided, they shall be heated, ventilated, and lighted.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Washing facilities.</I> The employer shall provide adequate washing facilities for employees engaged in operations where hazardous substances may be harmful to employees. Such facilities shall be in near proximity to the worksite; in areas where exposures are below permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels and which are under the controls of the employer; and shall be so equipped as to enable employees to remove hazardous substances from themselves.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Showers and change rooms.</I> When hazardous waste clean-up or removal operations commence on a site and the duration of the work will require six months or greater time to complete, the employer shall provide showers and change rooms for all employees exposed to hazardous substances and health hazards involved in hazardous waste clean-up or removal operations.
</P>
<P>(i) Showers shall be provided and shall meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.141(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) Change rooms shall be provided and shall meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.141(e). Change rooms shall consist of two separate change areas separated by the shower area required in paragraph (n)(7)(i) of this section. One change area, with an exit leading off the worksite, shall provide employees with a clean area where they can remove, store, and put on street clothing. The second area, with an exit to the worksite, shall provide employees with an area where they can put on, remove and store work clothing and personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Showers and change rooms shall be located in areas where exposures are below the permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels. If this cannot be accomplished, then a ventilation system shall be provided that will supply air that is below the permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employers shall assure that employees shower at the end of their work shift and when leaving the hazardous waste site.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>New technology programs.</I> (1) The employer shall develop and implement procedures for the introduction of effective new technologies and equipment developed for the improved protection of employees working with hazardous waste clean-up operations, and the same shall be implemented as part of the site safety and health program to assure that employee protection is being maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) New technologies, equipment or control measures available to the industry, such as the use of foams, absorbents, adsorbents, neutralizers, or other means to suppress the level of air contaminates while excavating the site or for spill control, shall be evaluated by employers or their representatives. Such an evaluation shall be done to determine the effectiveness of the new methods, materials, or equipment before implementing their use on a large scale for enhancing employee protection. Information and data from manufacturers or suppliers may be used as part of the employer's evaluation effort. Such evaluations shall be made available to OSHA upon request.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Certain Operations Conducted Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA).</I> Employers conducting operations at treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) facilities specified in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section shall provide and implement the programs specified in this paragraph. See the “Notes and Exceptions” to paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section for employers not covered.)”.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Safety and health program.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a written safety and health program for employees involved in hazardous waste operations that shall be available for inspection by employees, their representatives and OSHA personnel. The program shall be designed to identify, evaluate and control safety and health hazards in their facilities for the purpose of employee protection, to provide for emergency response meeting the requirements of paragraph (p)(8) of this section and to address as appropriate site analysis, engineering controls, maximum exposure limits, hazardous waste handling procedures and uses of new technologies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hazard communication program.</I> The employer shall implement a hazard communication program meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.1200 as part of the employer's safety and program.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1910.120:</HED>
<P>The exemption for hazardous waste provided in § 1910.1200 is applicable to this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance program.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a medical surveillance program meeting the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decontamination program.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a decontamination procedure meeting the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>New technology program.</I> The employer shall develop and implement procedures meeting the requirements of paragraph (o) of this section for introducing new and innovative equipment into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Material handling program.</I> Where employees will be handling drums or containers, the employer shall develop and implement procedures meeting the requirements of paragraphs (j)(1) (ii) through (viii) and (xi) of this section, as well as (j)(3) and (j)(8) of this section prior to starting such work.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Training program</I>—(i) <I>New employees.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a training program, which is part of the employer's safety and health program, for employees exposed to health hazards or hazardous substances at TSD operations to enable the employees to perform their assigned duties and functions in a safe and healthful manner so as not endanger themselves or other employees. The initial training shall be for 24 hours and refresher training shall be for eight hours annually. Employees who have received the initial training required by this paragraph shall be given a written certificate attesting that they have successfully completed the necessary training.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Current employees.</I> Employers who can show by an employee's previous work experience and/or training that the employee has had training equivalent to the initial training required by this paragraph, shall be considered as meeting the initial training requirements of this paragraph as to that employee. Equivalent training includes the training that existing employees might have already received from actual site work experience. Current employees shall receive eight hours of refresher training annually.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Trainers.</I> Trainers who teach initial training shall have satisfactorily completed a training course for teaching the subjects they are expected to teach or they shall have the academic credentials and instruction experience necessary to demonstrate a good command of the subject matter of the courses and competent instructional skills.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Emergency response program</I>—(i) <I>Emergency response plan.</I> An emergency response plan shall be developed and implemented by all employers. Such plans need not duplicate any of the subjects fully addressed in the employer's contingency planning required by permits, such as those issued by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, provided that the contingency plan is made part of the emergency response plan. The emergency response plan shall be a written portion of the employer's safety and health program required in paragraph (p)(1) of this section. Employers who will evacuate their employees from the worksite location when an emergency occurs and who do not permit any of their employees to assist in handling the emergency are exempt from the requirements of paragraph (p)(8) if they provide an emergency action plan complying with 29 CFR 1910.38. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Elements of an emergency response plan.</I> The employer shall develop an emergency response plan for emergencies which shall address, as a minimum, the following areas to the extent that they are not addressed in any specific program required in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(A) Pre-emergency planning and coordination with outside parties.
</P>
<P>(B) Personnel roles, lines of authority, and communication.
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency recognition and prevention.
</P>
<P>(D) Safe distances and places of refuge.
</P>
<P>(E) Site security and control.
</P>
<P>(F) Evacuation routes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) Decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
</P>
<P>(I) Emergency alerting and response procedures.
</P>
<P>(J) Critique of response and follow-up.
</P>
<P>(K) PPE and emergency equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Training.</I> (A) Training for emergency response employees shall be completed before they are called upon to perform in real emergencies. Such training shall include the elements of the emergency response plan, standard operating procedures the employer has established for the job, the personal protective equipment to be worn and procedures for handling emergency incidents.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Exception #1:</I> An employer need not train all employees to the degree specified if the employer divides the work force in a manner such that a sufficient number of employees who have responsibility to control emergencies have the training specified, and all other employees, who may first respond to an emergency incident, have sufficient awareness training to recognize that an emergency response situation exists and that they are instructed in that case to summon the fully trained employees and not attempt control activities for which they are not trained.
</P>
<P><I>Exception #2:</I> An employer need not train all employees to the degree specified if arrangements have been made in advance for an outside fully-trained emergency response team to respond in a reasonable period and all employees, who may come to the incident first, have sufficient awareness training to recognize that an emergency response situation exists and they have been instructed to call the designated outside fully-trained emergency response team for assistance.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Employee members of TSD facility emergency response organizations shall be trained to a level of competence in the recognition of health and safety hazards to protect themselves and other employees. This would include training in the methods used to minimize the risk from safety and health hazards; in the safe use of control equipment; in the selection and use of appropriate personal protective equipment; in the safe operating procedures to be used at the incident scene; in the techniques of coordination with other employees to minimize risks; in the appropriate response to over exposure from health hazards or injury to themselves and other employees; and in the recognition of subsequent symptoms which may result from over exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) The employer shall certify that each covered employee has attended and successfully completed the training required in paragraph (p)(8)(iii) of this section, or shall certify the employee's competency at least yearly. The method used to demonstrate competency for certification of training shall be recorded and maintained by the employer.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Procedures for handling emergency incidents.</I> (A) In addition to the elements for the emergency response plan required in paragraph (p)(8)(ii) of this section, the following elements shall be included for emergency response plans to the extent that they do not repeat any information already contained in the emergency response plan:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Site topography, layout, and prevailing weather conditions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Procedures for reporting incidents to local, state, and federal governmental agencies.
</P>
<P>(B) The emergency response plan shall be compatible and integrated with the disaster, fire and/or emergency response plans of local, state, and federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(C) The emergency response plan shall be rehearsed regularly as part of the overall training program for site operations.
</P>
<P>(D) The site emergency response plan shall be reviewed periodically and, as necessary, be amended to keep it current with new or changing site conditions or information.
</P>
<P>(E) An employee alarm system shall be installed in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.165 to notify employees of an emergency situation; to stop work activities if necessary; to lower background noise in order to speed communication; and to begin emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(F) Based upon the information available at time of the emergency, the employer shall evaluate the incident and the site response capabilities and proceed with the appropriate steps to implement the site emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Emergency response to hazardous substance releases.</I> This paragraph covers employers whose employees are engaged in emergency response no matter where it occurs except that it does not cover employees engaged in operations specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section. Those emergency response organizations who have developed and implemented programs equivalent to this paragraph for handling releases of hazardous substances pursuant to section 303 of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, 42 U.S.C. 11003) shall be deemed to have met the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Emergency response plan.</I> An emergency response plan shall be developed and implemented to handle anticipated emergencies prior to the commencement of emergency response operations. The plan shall be in writing and available for inspection and copying by employees, their representatives and OSHA personnel. Employers who will evacuate their employees from the danger area when an emergency occurs, and who do not permit any of their employees to assist in handling the emergency, are exempt from the requirements of this paragraph if they provide an emergency action plan in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.38. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements of an emergency response plan.</I> The employer shall develop an emergency response plan for emergencies which shall address, as a minimum, the following to the extent that they are not addressed elsewhere:
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-emergency planning and coordination with outside parties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personnel roles, lines of authority, training, and communication.
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency recognition and prevention.
</P>
<P>(iv) Safe distances and places of refuge.
</P>
<P>(v) Site security and control.
</P>
<P>(vi) Evacuation routes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Decontamination.
</P>
<P>(viii) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
</P>
<P>(ix) Emergency alerting and response procedures.
</P>
<P>(x) Critique of response and follow-up.
</P>
<P>(xi) PPE and emergency equipment.
</P>
<P>(xii) Emergency response organizations may use the local emergency response plan or the state emergency response plan or both, as part of their emergency response plan to avoid duplication. Those items of the emergency response plan that are being properly addressed by the SARA Title III plans may be substituted into their emergency plan or otherwise kept together for the employer and employee's use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures for handling emergency response.</I> (i) The senior emergency response official responding to an emergency shall become the individual in charge of a site-specific Incident Command System (ICS). All emergency responders and their communications shall be coordinated and controlled through the individual in charge of the ICS assisted by the senior official present for each employer.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>The “senior official” at an emergency response is the most senior official on the site who has the responsibility for controlling the operations at the site. Initially it is the senior officer on the first-due piece of responding emergency apparatus to arrive on the incident scene. As more senior officers arrive (i.e., battalion chief, fire chief, state law enforcement official, site coordinator, etc.) the position is passed up the line of authority which has been previously established.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) The individual in charge of the ICS shall identify, to the extent possible, all hazardous substances or conditions present and shall address as appropriate site analysis, use of engineering controls, maximum exposure limits, hazardous substance handling procedures, and use of any new technologies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Based on the hazardous substances and/or conditions present, the individual in charge of the ICS shall implement appropriate emergency operations, and assure that the personal protective equipment worn is appropriate for the hazards to be encountered. However, personal protective equipment shall meet, at a minimum, the criteria contained in 29 CFR 1910.156(e) when worn while performing fire fighting operations beyond the incipient stage for any incident.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to hazardous substances presenting an inhalation hazard or potential inhalation hazard shall wear positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus while engaged in emergency response, until such time that the individual in charge of the ICS determines through the use of air monitoring that a decreased level of respiratory protection will not result in hazardous exposures to employees.
</P>
<P>(v) The individual in charge of the ICS shall limit the number of emergency response personnel at the emergency site, in those areas of potential or actual exposure to incident or site hazards, to those who are actively performing emergency operations. However, operations in hazardous areas shall be performed using the buddy system in groups of two or more.
</P>
<P>(vi) Back-up personnel shall stand by with equipment ready to provide assistance or rescue. Advance first aid support personnel, as a minimum, shall also stand by with medical equipment and transportation capability.
</P>
<P>(vii) The individual in charge of the ICS shall designate a safety official, who is knowledgable in the operations being implemented at the emergency response site, with specific responsibility to identify and evaluate hazards and to provide direction with respect to the safety of operations for the emergency at hand.
</P>
<P>(viii) When activities are judged by the safety official to be an IDLH condition and/or to involve an imminent danger condition, the safety official shall have the authority to alter, suspend, or terminate those activities. The safety official shall immediately inform the individual in charge of the ICS of any actions needed to be taken to correct these hazards at the emergency scene.
</P>
<P>(ix) After emergency operations have terminated, the individual in charge of the ICS shall implement appropriate decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(x) When deemed necessary for meeting the tasks at hand, approved self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus may be used with approved cylinders from other approved self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus provided that such cylinders are of the same capacity and pressure rating. All compressed air cylinders used with self-contained breathing apparatus shall meet U.S. Department of Transportation and National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health criteria.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Skilled support personnel.</I> Personnel, not necessarily an employer's own employees, who are skilled in the operation of certain equipment, such as mechanized earth moving or digging equipment or crane and hoisting equipment, and who are needed temporarily to perform immediate emergency support work that cannot reasonably be performed in a timely fashion by an employer's own employees, and who will be or may be exposed to the hazards at an emergency response scene, are not required to meet the training required in this paragraph for the employer's regular employees. However, these personnel shall be given an initial briefing at the site prior to their participation in any emergency response. The initial briefing shall include instruction in the wearing of appropriate personal protective equipment, what chemical hazards are involved, and what duties are to be performed. All other appropriate safety and health precautions provided to the employer's own employees shall be used to assure the safety and health of these personnel.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Specialist employees.</I> Employees who, in the course of their regular job duties, work with and are trained in the hazards of specific hazardous substances, and who will be called upon to provide technical advice or assistance at a hazardous substance release incident to the individual in charge, shall receive training or demonstrate competency in the area of their specialization annually.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Training.</I> Training shall be based on the duties and function to be performed by each responder of an emergency response organization. The skill and knowledge levels required for all new responders, those hired after the effective date of this standard, shall be conveyed to them through training before they are permitted to take part in actual emergency operations on an incident. Employees who participate, or are expected to participate, in emergency response, shall be given training in accordance with the following paragraphs:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>First responder awareness level.</I> First responders at the awareness level are individuals who are likely to witness or discover a hazardous substance release and who have been trained to initiate an emergency response sequence by notifying the proper authorities of the release. They would take no further action beyond notifying the authorities of the release. First responders at the awareness level shall have sufficient training or have had sufficient experience to objectively demonstrate competency in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(A) An understanding of what hazardous substances are, and the risks associated with them in an incident.
</P>
<P>(B) An understanding of the potential outcomes associated with an emergency created when hazardous substances are present.
</P>
<P>(C) The ability to recognize the presence of hazardous substances in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(D) The ability to identify the hazardous substances, if possible.
</P>
<P>(E) An understanding of the role of the first responder awareness individual in the employer's emergency response plan including site security and control and the U.S. Department of Transportation's Emergency Response Guidebook.
</P>
<P>(F) The ability to realize the need for additional resources, and to make appropriate notifications to the communication center.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>First responder operations level.</I> First responders at the operations level are individuals who respond to releases or potential releases of hazardous substances as part of the initial response to the site for the purpose of protecting nearby persons, property, or the environment from the effects of the release. They are trained to respond in a defensive fashion without actually trying to stop the release. Their function is to contain the release from a safe distance, keep it from spreading, and prevent exposures. First responders at the operational level shall have received at least eight hours of training or have had sufficient experience to objectively demonstrate competency in the following areas in addition to those listed for the awareness level and the employer shall so certify:
</P>
<P>(A) Knowledge of the basic hazard and risk assessment techniques.
</P>
<P>(B) Know how to select and use proper personal protective equipment provided to the first responder operational level.
</P>
<P>(C) An understanding of basic hazardous materials terms.
</P>
<P>(D) Know how to perform basic control, containment and/or confinement operations within the capabilities of the resources and personal protective equipment available with their unit.
</P>
<P>(E) Know how to implement basic decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(F) An understanding of the relevant standard operating procedures and termination procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Hazardous materials technician.</I> Hazardous materials technicians are individuals who respond to releases or potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release. They assume a more aggressive role than a first responder at the operations level in that they will approach the point of release in order to plug, patch or otherwise stop the release of a hazardous substance. Hazardous materials technicians shall have received at least 24 hours of training equal to the first responder operations level and in addition have competency in the following areas and the employer shall so certify:
</P>
<P>(A) Know how to implement the employer's emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(B) Know the classification, identification and verification of known and unknown materials by using field survey instruments and equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Be able to function within an assigned role in the Incident Command System.
</P>
<P>(D) Know how to select and use proper specialized chemical personal protective equipment provided to the hazardous materials technician.
</P>
<P>(E) Understand hazard and risk assessment techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) Be able to perform advance control, containment, and/or confinement operations within the capabilities of the resources and personal protective equipment available with the unit.
</P>
<P>(G) Understand and implement decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) Understand termination procedures.
</P>
<P>(I) Understand basic chemical and toxicological terminology and behavior.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Hazardous materials specialist.</I> Hazardous materials specialists are individuals who respond with and provide support to hazardous materials technicians. Their duties parallel those of the hazardous materials technician, however, those duties require a more directed or specific knowledge of the various substances they may be called upon to contain. The hazardous materials specialist would also act as the site liaison with Federal, state, local and other government authorities in regards to site activities. Hazardous materials specialists shall have received at least 24 hours of training equal to the technician level and in addition have competency in the following areas and the employer shall so certify:
</P>
<P>(A) Know how to implement the local emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(B) Understand classification, identification and verification of known and unknown materials by using advanced survey instruments and equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Know of the state emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(D) Be able to select and use proper specialized chemical personal protective equipment provided to the hazardous materials specialist.
</P>
<P>(E) Understand in-depth hazard and risk techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) Be able to perform specialized control, containment, and/or confinement operations within the capabilities of the resources and personal protective equipment available.
</P>
<P>(G) Be able to determine and implement decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) Have the ability to develop a site safety and control plan.
</P>
<P>(I) Understand chemical, radiological and toxicological terminology and behavior.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>On scene incident commander.</I> Incident commanders, who will assume control of the incident scene beyond the first responder awareness level, shall receive at least 24 hours of training equal to the first responder operations level and in addition have competency in the following areas and the employer shall so certify:
</P>
<P>(A) Know and be able to implement the employer's incident command system.
</P>
<P>(B) Know how to implement the employer's emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(C) Know and understand the hazards and risks associated with employees working in chemical protective clothing.
</P>
<P>(D) Know how to implement the local emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(E) Know of the state emergency response plan and of the Federal Regional Response Team.
</P>
<P>(F) Know and understand the importance of decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Trainers.</I> Trainers who teach any of the above training subjects shall have satisfactorily completed a training course for teaching the subjects they are expected to teach, such as the courses offered by the U.S. National Fire Academy, or they shall have the training and/or academic credentials and instructional experience necessary to demonstrate competent instructional skills and a good command of the subject matter of the courses they are to teach.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Refresher training.</I> (i) Those employees who are trained in accordance with paragraph (q)(6) of this section shall receive annual refresher training of sufficient content and duration to maintain their competencies, or shall demonstrate competency in those areas at least yearly.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement shall be made of the training or competency, and if a statement of competency is made, the employer shall keep a record of the methodology used to demonstrate competency.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Medical surveillance and consultation.</I> (i) Members of an organized and designated HAZMAT team and hazardous materials specialists shall receive a baseline physical examination and be provided with medical surveillance as required in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any emergency response employees who exhibits signs or symptoms which may have resulted from exposure to hazardous substances during the course of an emergency incident, either immediately or subsequently, shall be provided with medical consultation as required in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Chemical protective clothing.</I> Chemical protective clothing and equipment to be used by organized and designated HAZMAT team members, or to be used by hazardous materials specialists, shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (g) (3) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Post-emergency response operations.</I> Upon completion of the emergency response, if it is determined that it is necessary to remove hazardous substances, health hazards, and materials contaminated with them (such as contaminated soil or other elements of the natural environment) from the site of the incident, the employer conducting the clean-up shall comply with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet all of the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (o) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the clean-up is done on plant property using plant or workplace employees, such employees shall have completed the training requirements of the following: 29 CFR 1910.38, 1910.134, 1910.1200, and other appropriate safety and health training made necessary by the tasks they are expected to perform such as personal protective equipment and decontamination procedures. All equipment to be used in the performance of the clean-up work shall be in serviceable condition and shall have been inspected prior to use.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendices to § 1910.120—Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response</HD1></EXTRACT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The following appendices serve as non-mandatory guidelines to assist employees and employers in complying with the appropriate requirements of this section. However paragraph 1910.120(g) makes mandatory in certain circumstances the use of Level A and Level B PPE protection.</P></NOTE>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.120—Personal Protective Equipment Test Methods
</HD1>
<P>This appendix sets forth the non-mandatory examples of tests which may be used to evaluate compliance with § 1910.120 (g)(4) (ii) and (iii). Other tests and other challenge agents may be used to evaluate compliance.
</P>
<HD2>A. Totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit pressure test
</HD2>
<P>1.0—Scope
</P>
<P>1.1 This practice measures the ability of a gas tight totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit material, seams, and closures to maintain a fixed positive pressure. The results of this practice allow the gas tight integrity of a totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit to be evaluated.
</P>
<P>1.2 Resistance of the suit materials to permeation, penetration, and degradation by specific hazardous substances is not determined by this test method.
</P>
<P>2.0—Definition of terms
</P>
<P>2.1 <I>Totally-encapsulated chemical protective suit (TECP suit)</I> means a full body garment which is constructed of protective clothing materials; covers the wearer's torso, head, arms, legs and respirator; may cover the wearer's hands and feet with tightly attached gloves and boots; completely encloses the wearer and respirator by itself or in combination with the wearer's gloves and boots.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Protective clothing material</I> means any material or combination of materials used in an item of clothing for the purpose of isolating parts of the body from direct contact with a potentially hazardous liquid or gaseous chemicals.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Gas tight</I> means, for the purpose of this test method, the limited flow of a gas under pressure from the inside of a TECP suit to atmosphere at a prescribed pressure and time interval.
</P>
<P>3.0—Summary of test method
</P>
<P>3.1 The TECP suit is visually inspected and modified for the test. The test apparatus is attached to the suit to permit inflation to the pre-test suit expansion pressure for removal of suit wrinkles and creases. The pressure is lowered to the test pressure and monitored for three minutes. If the pressure drop is excessive, the TECP suit fails the test and is removed from service. The test is repeated after leak location and repair.
</P>
<P>4.0—Required Supplies
</P>
<P>4.1 Source of compressed air.
</P>
<P>4.2 Test apparatus for suit testing, including a pressure measurement device with a sensitivity of at least 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch water gauge.
</P>
<P>4.3 Vent valve closure plugs or sealing tape.
</P>
<P>4.4 Soapy water solution and soft brush.
</P>
<P>4.5 Stop watch or appropriate timing device.
</P>
<P>5.0—Safety Precautions
</P>
<P>5.1 Care shall be taken to provide the correct pressure safety devices required for the source of compressed air used.
</P>
<P>6.0—Test Procedure
</P>
<P>6.1 Prior to each test, the tester shall perform a visual inspection of the suit. Check the suit for seam integrity by visually examining the seams and gently pulling on the seams. Ensure that all air supply lines, fittings, visor, zippers, and valves are secure and show no signs of deterioration.
</P>
<P>6.1.1 Seal off the vent valves along with any other normal inlet or exhaust points (such as umbilical air line fittings or face piece opening) with tape or other appropriate means (caps, plugs, fixture, etc.). Care should be exercised in the sealing process not to damage any of the suit components.
</P>
<P>6.1.2 Close all closure assemblies.
</P>
<P>6.1.3 Prepare the suit for inflation by providing an improvised connection point on the suit for connecting an airline. Attach the pressure test apparatus to the suit to permit suit inflation from a compressed air source equipped with a pressure indicating regulator. The leak tightness of the pressure test apparatus should be tested before and after each test by closing off the end of the tubing attached to the suit and assuring a pressure of three inches water gauge for three minutes can be maintained. If a component is removed for the test, that component shall be replaced and a second test conducted with another component removed to permit a complete test of the ensemble.
</P>
<P>6.1.4 The pre-test expansion pressure (A) and the suit test pressure (B) shall be supplied by the suit manufacturer, but in no case shall they be less than: (A) = three inches water gauge; and (B) = two inches water gauge. The ending suit pressure (C) shall be no less than 80 percent of the test pressure (B); i.e., the pressure drop shall not exceed 20 percent of the test pressure (B).
</P>
<P>6.1.5 Inflate the suit until the pressure inside is equal to pressure (A), the pre-test expansion suit pressure. Allow at least one minute to fill out the wrinkles in the suit. Release sufficient air to reduce the suit pressure to pressure (B), the suit test pressure. Begin timing. At the end of three minutes, record the suit pressure as pressure (C), the ending suit pressure. The difference between the suit test pressure and the ending suit test pressure (B − C) shall be defined as the suit pressure drop.
</P>
<P>6.1.6 If the suit pressure drop is more than 20 percent of the suit test pressure (B) during the three-minute test period, the suit fails the test and shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>7.0—Retest Procedure
</P>
<P>7.1 If the suit fails the test check for leaks by inflating the suit to pressure (A) and brushing or wiping the entire suit (including seams, closures, lens gaskets, glove-to-sleeve joints, etc.) with a mild soap and water solution. Observe the suit for the formation of soap bubbles, which is an indication of a leak. Repair all identified leaks.
</P>
<P>7.2 Retest the TECP suit as outlined in Test procedure 6.0.
</P>
<P>8.0—Report
</P>
<P>8.1 Each TECP suit tested by this practice shall have the following information recorded:
</P>
<P>8.1.1 Unique identification number, identifying brand name, date of purchase, material of construction, and unique fit features, e.g., special breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P>8.1.2 The actual values for test pressures (A), (B), and (C) shall be recorded along with the specific observation times. If the ending pressure (C) is less than 80 percent of the test pressure (B), the suit shall be identified as failing the test. When possible, the specific leak location shall be identified in the test records. Retest pressure data shall be recorded as an additional test.
</P>
<P>8.1.3 The source of the test apparatus used shall be identified and the sensitivity of the pressure gauge shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>8.1.4 Records shall be kept for each pressure test even if repairs are being made at the test location.
</P>
<HD1>Caution
</HD1>
<P>Visually inspect all parts of the suit to be sure they are positioned correctly and secured tightly before putting the suit back into service. Special care should be taken to examine each exhaust valve to make sure it is not blocked.
</P>
<P>Care should also be exercised to assure that the inside and outside of the suit is completely dry before it is put into storage.
</P>
<HD2>B. Totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit qualitative leak test
</HD2>
<P>1.0—Scope
</P>
<P>1.1 This practice semi-qualitatively tests gas tight totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit integrity by detecting inward leakage of ammonia vapor. Since no modifications are made to the suit to carry out this test, the results from this practice provide a realistic test for the integrity of the entire suit.
</P>
<P>1.2 Resistance of the suit materials to permeation, penetration, and degradation is not determined by this test method. ASTM test methods are available to test suit materials for these characteristics and the tests are usually conducted by the manufacturers of the suits.
</P>
<P>2.0—Definition of terms
</P>
<P>2.1 <I>Totally-encapsulated chemical protective suit (TECP suit)</I> means a full body garment which is constructed of protective clothing materials; covers the wearer's torso, head, arms, legs and respirator; may cover the wearer's hands and feet with tightly attached gloves and boots; completely encloses the wearer and respirator by itself or in combination with the wearer's gloves, and boots.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Protective clothing material</I> means any material or combination of materials used in an item of clothing for the purpose of isolating parts of the body from direct contact with a potentially hazardous liquid or gaseous chemicals.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Gas tight</I> means, for the purpose of this test method, the limited flow of a gas under pressure from the inside of a TECP suit to atmosphere at a prescribed pressure and time interval.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Intrusion Coefficient</I> means a number expressing the level of protection provided by a gas tight totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit. The intrusion coefficient is calculated by dividing the test room challenge agent concentration by the concentration of challenge agent found inside the suit. The accuracy of the intrusion coefficient is dependent on the challenge agent monitoring methods. The larger the intrusion coefficient the greater the protection provided by the TECP suit.
</P>
<P>3.0—Summary of recommended practice
</P>
<P>3.1 The volume of concentrated aqueous ammonia solution (ammonia hydroxide NH<E T="52">4</E> OH) required to generate the test atmosphere is determined using the directions outlined in 6.1. The suit is donned by a person wearing the appropriate respiratory equipment (either a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus or a positive pressure supplied air respirator) and worn inside the enclosed test room. The concentrated aqueous ammonia solution is taken by the suited individual into the test room and poured into an open plastic pan. A two-minute evaporation period is observed before the test room concentration is measured, using a high range ammonia length of stain detector tube. When the ammonia vapor reaches a concentration of between 1000 and 1200 ppm, the suited individual starts a standardized exercise protocol to stress and flex the suit. After this protocol is completed, the test room concentration is measured again. The suited individual exits the test room and his stand-by person measures the ammonia concentration inside the suit using a low range ammonia length of stain detector tube or other more sensitive ammonia detector. A stand-by person is required to observe the test individual during the test procedure; aid the person in donning and doffing the TECP suit; and monitor the suit interior. The intrusion coefficient of the suit can be calculated by dividing the average test area concentration by the interior suit concentration. A colorimetric ammonia indicator strip of bromophenol blue or equivalent is placed on the inside of the suit face piece lens so that the suited individual is able to detect a color change and know if the suit has a significant leak. If a color change is observed the individual shall leave the test room immediately.
</P>
<P>4.0—Required supplies
</P>
<P>4.1 A supply of concentrated aqueous ammonium hydroxide (58% by weight).
</P>
<P>4.2 A supply of bromophenol/blue indicating paper or equivalent, sensitive to 5-10 ppm ammonia or greater over a two-minute period of exposure. [pH 3.0 (yellow) to pH 4.6 (blue)]
</P>
<P>4.3 A supply of high range (0.5-10 volume percent) and low range (5-700 ppm) detector tubes for ammonia and the corresponding sampling pump. More sensitive ammonia detectors can be substituted for the low range detector tubes to improve the sensitivity of this practice.
</P>
<P>4.4 A shallow plastic pan (PVC) at least 12″:14″:1″ and a half pint plastic container (PVC) with tightly closing lid.
</P>
<P>4.5 A graduated cylinder or other volumetric measuring device of at least 50 milliliters in volume with an accuracy of at least ±1 milliliters.
</P>
<P>5.0—Safety precautions
</P>
<P>5.1 Concentrated aqueous ammonium hydroxide, NH<E T="52">4</E> OH, is a corrosive volatile liquid requiring eye, skin, and respiratory protection. The person conducting the test shall review the SDS for aqueous ammonia.
</P>
<P>5.2 Since the established permissible exposure limit for ammonia is 35 ppm as a 15 minute STEL, only persons wearing a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus or a positive pressure supplied air respirator shall be in the chamber. Normally only the person wearing the totally-encapsulating suit will be inside the chamber. A stand-by person shall have a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, or a positive pressure supplied air respirator available to enter the test area should the suited individual need assistance.
</P>
<P>5.3 A method to monitor the suited individual must be used during this test. Visual contact is the simplest but other methods using communication devices are acceptable.
</P>
<P>5.4 The test room shall be large enough to allow the exercise protocol to be carried out and then to be ventilated to allow for easy exhaust of the ammonia test atmosphere after the test(s) are completed.
</P>
<P>5.5 Individuals shall be medically screened for the use of respiratory protection and checked for allergies to ammonia before participating in this test procedure.
</P>
<P>6.0—Test procedure
</P>
<P>6.1.1 Measure the test area to the nearest foot and calculate its volume in cubic feet. Multiply the test area volume by 0.2 milliliters of concentrated aqueous ammonia solution per cubic foot of test area volume to determine the approximate volume of concentrated aqueous ammonia required to generate 1000 ppm in the test area.
</P>
<P>6.1.2 Measure this volume from the supply of concentrated aqueous ammonia and place it into a closed plastic container.
</P>
<P>6.1.3 Place the container, several high range ammonia detector tubes, and the pump in the clean test pan and locate it near the test area entry door so that the suited individual has easy access to these supplies.
</P>
<P>6.2.1 In a non-contaminated atmosphere, open a pre-sealed ammonia indicator strip and fasten one end of the strip to the inside of the suit face shield lens where it can be seen by the wearer. Moisten the indicator strip with distilled water. Care shall be taken not to contaminate the detector part of the indicator paper by touching it. A small piece of masking tape or equivalent should be used to attach the indicator strip to the interior of the suit face shield.
</P>
<P>6.2.2 If problems are encountered with this method of attachment, the indicator strip can be attached to the outside of the respirator face piece lens being used during the test.
</P>
<P>6.3 Don the respiratory protective device normally used with the suit, and then don the TECP suit to be tested. Check to be sure all openings which are intended to be sealed (zippers, gloves, etc.) are completely sealed. DO NOT, however, plug off any venting valves.
</P>
<P>6.4 Step into the enclosed test room such as a closet, bathroom, or test booth, equipped with an exhaust fan. No air should be exhausted from the chamber during the test because this will dilute the ammonia challenge concentrations.
</P>
<P>6.5 Open the container with the pre-measured volume of concentrated aqueous ammonia within the enclosed test room, and pour the liquid into the empty plastic test pan. Wait two minutes to allow for adequate volatilization of the concentrated aqueous ammonia. A small mixing fan can be used near the evaporation pan to increase the evaporation rate of the ammonia solution.
</P>
<P>6.6 After two minutes a determination of the ammonia concentration within the chamber should be made using the high range colorimetric detector tube. A concentration of 1000 ppm ammonia or greater shall be generated before the exercises are started.
</P>
<P>6.7 To test the integrity of the suit the following four minute exercise protocol should be followed:
</P>
<P>6.7.1 Raising the arms above the head with at least 15 raising motions completed in one minute.
</P>
<P>6.7.2 Walking in place for one minute with at least 15 raising motions of each leg in a one-minute period.
</P>
<P>6.7.3 Touching the toes with a least 10 complete motions of the arms from above the head to touching of the toes in a one-minute period.
</P>
<P>6.7.4 Knee bends with at least 10 complete standing and squatting motions in a one-minute period.
</P>
<P>6.8 If at any time during the test the colorimetric indicating paper should change colors, the test should be stopped and section 6.10 and 6.12 initiated (See ¶ 4.2).
</P>
<P>6.9 After completion of the test exercise, the test area concentration should be measured again using the high range colorimetric detector tube.
</P>
<P>6.10 Exit the test area.
</P>
<P>6.11 The opening created by the suit zipper or other appropriate suit penetration should be used to determine the ammonia concentration in the suit with the low range length of stain detector tube or other ammonia monitor. The internal TECP suit air should be sampled far enough from the enclosed test area to prevent a false ammonia reading.
</P>
<P>6.12 After completion of the measurement of the suit interior ammonia concentration the test is concluded and the suit is doffed and the respirator removed.
</P>
<P>6.13 The ventilating fan for the test room should be turned on and allowed to run for enough time to remove the ammonia gas. The fan shall be vented to the outside of the building.
</P>
<P>6.14 Any detectable ammonia in the suit interior (five ppm ammonia (NH<E T="52">3</E>) or more for the length of stain detector tube) indicates that the suit has failed the test. When other ammonia detectors are used a lower level of detection is possible, and it should be specified as the pass/fail criteria.
</P>
<P>6.15 By following this test method, an intrusion coefficient of approximately 200 or more can be measured with the suit in a completely operational condition. If the intrusion coefficient is 200 or more, then the suit is suitable for emergency response and field use.
</P>
<P>7.0—Retest procedures
</P>
<P>7.1 If the suit fails this test, check for leaks by following the pressure test in test A above.
</P>
<P>7.2 Retest the TECP suit as outlined in the test procedure 6.0.
</P>
<P>8.0—Report
</P>
<P>8.1 Each gas tight totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit tested by this practice shall have the following information recorded.
</P>
<P>8.1.1 Unique identification number, identifying brand name, date of purchase, material of construction, and unique suit features; e.g., special breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P>8.1.2 General description of test room used for test.
</P>
<P>8.1.3 Brand name and purchase date of ammonia detector strips and color change data.
</P>
<P>8.1.4 Brand name, sampling range, and expiration date of the length of stain ammonia detector tubes. The brand name and model of the sampling pump should also be recorded. If another type of ammonia detector is used, it should be identified along with its minimum detection limit for ammonia.
</P>
<P>8.1.5 Actual test results shall list the two test area concentrations, their average, the interior suit concentration, and the calculated intrusion coefficient. Retest data shall be recorded as an additional test.
</P>
<P>8.2 The evaluation of the data shall be specified as “suit passed” or “suit failed,” and the date of the test. Any detectable ammonia (five ppm or greater for the length of stain detector tube) in the suit interior indicates the suit has failed this test. When other ammonia detectors are used, a lower level of detection is possible and it should be specified as the pass fail criteria.
</P>
<HD1>Caution
</HD1>
<P>Visually inspect all parts of the suit to be sure they are positioned correctly and secured tightly before putting the suit back into service. Special care should be taken to examine each exhaust valve to make sure it is not blocked.
</P>
<P>Care should also be exercised to assure that the inside and outside of the suit is completely dry before it is put into storage.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.120—General Description and Discussion of the Levels of Protection and Protective Gear
</HD1>
<P>This appendix sets forth information about personal protective equipment (PPE) protection levels which may be used to assist employers in complying with the PPE requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>As required by the standard, PPE must be selected which will protect employees from the specific hazards which they are likely to encounter during their work on-site.
</P>
<P>Selection of the appropriate PPE is a complex process which should take into consideration a variety of factors. Key factors involved in this process are identification of the hazards, or suspected hazards; their routes of potential hazard to employees (inhalation, skin absorption, ingestion, and eye or skin contact); and the performance of the PPE <I>materials</I> (and seams) in providing a barrier to these hazards. The amount of protection provided by PPE is material-hazard specific. That is, protective equipment materials will protect well against some hazardous substances and poorly, or not at all, against others. In many instances, protective equipment materials cannot be found which will provide continuous protection from the particular hazardous substance. In these cases the breakthrough time of the protective material should exceed the work durations.
</P>
<P>Other factors in this selection process to be considered are matching the PPE to the employee's work requirements and task-specific conditions. The durability of PPE materials, such as tear strength and seam strength, should be considered in relation to the employee's tasks. The effects of PPE in relation to heat stress and task duration are a factor in selecting and using PPE. In some cases layers of PPE may be necessary to provide sufficient protection, or to protect expensive PPE inner garments, suits or equipment.
</P>
<P>The more that is known about the hazards at the site, the easier the job of PPE selection becomes. As more information about the hazards and conditions at the site becomes available, the site supervisor can make decisions to up-grade or down-grade the level of PPE protection to match the tasks at hand.
</P>
<P>The following are guidelines which an employer can use to begin the selection of the appropriate PPE. As noted above, the site information may suggest the use of combinations of PPE selected from the different protection levels (i.e., A, B, C, or D) as being more suitable to the hazards of the work. It should be cautioned that the listing below does not fully address the performance of the specific PPE material in relation to the specific hazards at the job site, and that PPE selection, evaluation and re-selection is an ongoing process until sufficient information about the hazards and PPE performance is obtained.
</P>
<P><I>Part A.</I> Personal protective equipment is divided into four categories based on the degree of protection afforded. (See part B of this appendix for further explanation of Levels A, B, C, and D hazards.)
</P>
<P>I. <I>Level A</I>—To be selected when the greatest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection is required.
</P>
<P>The following constitute Level A equipment; it may be used as appropriate;
</P>
<P>1. Positive pressure, full face-piece self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA), or positive pressure supplied air respirator with escape SCBA, approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
</P>
<P>2. Totally-encapsulating chemical-protective suit.
</P>
<P>3. Coveralls. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>4. Long underwear. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>5. Gloves, outer, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>6. Gloves, inner, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>7. Boots, chemical-resistant, steel toe and shank.
</P>
<P>8. Hard hat (under suit). 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>9. Disposable protective suit, gloves and boots (depending on suit construction, may be worn over totally-encapsulating suit).
</P>
<P>II. <I>Level B</I>—The highest level of respiratory protection is necessary but a lesser level of skin protection is needed.
</P>
<P>The following constitute Level B equipment; it may be used as appropriate.
</P>
<P>1. Positive pressure, full-facepiece self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA), or positive pressure supplied air respirator with escape SCBA (NIOSH approved).
</P>
<P>2. Hooded chemical-resistant clothing (overalls and long-sleeved jacket; coveralls; one or two-piece chemical-splash suit; disposable chemical-resistant overalls).
</P>
<P>3. Coveralls. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>4. Gloves, outer, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>5. Gloves, inner, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>6. Boots, outer, chemical-resistant steel toe and shank.
</P>
<P>7. Boot-covers, outer, chemical-resistant (disposable). 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>8. Hard hat. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>9. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>10. Face shield. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>III. <I>Level C</I>—The concentration(s) and type(s) of airborne substance(s) is known and the criteria for using air purifying respirators are met.
</P>
<P>The following constitute Level C equipment; it may be used as appropriate.
</P>
<P>1. Full-face or half-mask, air purifying respirators (NIOSH approved).
</P>
<P>2. Hooded chemical-resistant clothing (overalls; two-piece chemical-splash suit; disposable chemical-resistant overalls).
</P>
<P>3. Coveralls. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Optional, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. Gloves, outer, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>5. Gloves, inner, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>6. Boots (outer), chemical-resistant steel toe and shank. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>7. Boot-covers, outer, chemical-resistant (disposable) 
<SU>1</SU>.
</P>
<P>8. Hard hat. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>9. Escape mask. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>10. Face shield. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>IV. <I>Level D</I>—A work uniform affording minimal protection, used for nuisance contamination only.
</P>
<P>The following constitute Level D equipment; it may be used as appropriate:
</P>
<P>1. Coveralls.
</P>
<P>2. Gloves. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>3. Boots/shoes, chemical-resistant steel toe and shank.
</P>
<P>4. Boots, outer, chemical-resistant (disposable). 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>5. Safety glasses or chemical splash goggles*.
</P>
<P>6. Hard hat. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>7. Escape mask. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>8. Face shield. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P><I>Part B.</I> The types of hazards for which levels A, B, C, and D protection are appropriate are described below:
</P>
<P>I. <I>Level A</I>—Level A protection should be used when:
</P>
<P>1. The hazardous substance has been identified and requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes, and the respiratory system based on either the measured (or potential for) high concentration of atmospheric vapors, gases, or particulates; or the site operations and work functions involve a high potential for splash, immersion, or exposure to unexpected vapors, gases, or particulates of materials that are harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through the skin;
</P>
<P>2. Substances with a high degree of hazard to the skin are known or suspected to be present, and skin contact is possible; or
</P>
<P>3. Operations are being conducted in confined, poorly ventilated areas, and the absence of conditions requiring Level A have not yet been determined.
</P>
<P>II. <I>Level B</I>—Level B protection should be used when:
</P>
<P>1. The type and atmospheric concentration of substances have been identified and require a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection;
</P>
<P>2. The atmosphere contains less than 19.5 percent oxygen; or
</P>
<P>3. The presence of incompletely identified vapors or gases is indicated by a direct-reading organic vapor detection instrument, but vapors and gases are not suspected of containing high levels of chemicals harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through the skin.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This involves atmospheres with IDLH concentrations of specific substances that present severe inhalation hazards and that do not represent a severe skin hazard; or that do not meet the criteria for use of air-purifying respirators.</P></NOTE>
<P>III. <I>Level C</I>—Level C protection should be used when:
</P>
<P>1. The atmospheric contaminants, liquid splashes, or other direct contact will not adversely affect or be absorbed through any exposed skin;
</P>
<P>2. The types of air contaminants have been identified, concentrations measured, and an air-purifying respirator is available that can remove the contaminants; and
</P>
<P>3. All criteria for the use of air-purifying respirators are met.
</P>
<P>IV. <I>Level D</I>—Level D protection should be used when:
</P>
<P>1. The atmosphere contains no known hazard; and
</P>
<P>2. Work functions preclude splashes, immersion, or the potential for unexpected inhalation of or contact with hazardous levels of any chemicals.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>As stated before, combinations of personal protective equipment other than those described for Levels A, B, C, and D protection may be more appropriate and may be used to provide the proper level of protection.</P></NOTE>
<P>As an aid in selecting suitable chemical protective clothing, it should be noted that the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has developed standards on chemical protective clothing. The standards that have been adopted by include:
</P>
<P>NFPA 1991—Standard on Vapor-Protective Suits for Hazardous Chemical Emergencies (EPA Level A Protective Clothing).
</P>
<P>NFPA 1992—Standard on Liquid Splash-Protective Suits for Hazardous Chemical Emergencies (EPA Level B Protective Clothing).
</P>
<P>NFPA 1993—Standard on Liquid Splash-Protective Suits for Non-emergency, Non-flammable Hazardous Chemical Situations (EPA Level B Protective Clothing).
</P>
<P>These standards apply documentation and performance requirements to the manufacture of chemical protective suits. Chemical protective suits meeting these requirements are labelled as compliant with the appropriate standard. It is recommended that chemical protective suits that meet these standards be used.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.120—Compliance Guidelines
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Occupational Safety and Health Program.</I> Each hazardous waste site clean-up effort will require an occupational safety and health program headed by the site coordinator or the employer's representative. The purpose of the program will be the protection of employees at the site and will be an extension of the employer's overall safety and health program. The program will need to be developed before work begins on the site and implemented as work proceeds as stated in paragraph (b). The program is to facilitate coordination and communication of safety and health issues among personnel responsible for the various activities which will take place at the site. It will provide the overall means for planning and implementing the needed safety and health training and job orientation of employees who will be working at the site. The program will provide the means for identifying and controlling worksite hazards and the means for monitoring program effectiveness. The program will need to cover the responsibilities and authority of the site coordinator or the employer's manager on the site for the safety and health of employees at the site, and the relationships with contractors or support services as to what each employer's safety and health responsibilities are for their employees on the site. Each contractor on the site needs to have its own safety and health program so structured that it will smoothly interface with the program of the site coordinator or principal contractor.
</P>
<P>Also those employers involved with treating, storing or disposal of hazardous waste as covered in paragraph (p) must have implemented a safety and health program for their employees. This program is to include the hazard communication program required in paragraph (p)(1) and the training required in paragraphs (p)(7) and (p)(8) as parts of the employers comprehensive overall safety and health program. This program is to be in writing.
</P>
<P>Each site or workplace safety and health program will need to include the following: (1) Policy statements of the line of authority and accountability for implementing the program, the objectives of the program and the role of the site safety and health supervisor or manager and staff; (2) means or methods for the development of procedures for identifying and controlling workplace hazards at the site; (3) means or methods for the development and communication to employees of the various plans, work rules, standard operating procedures and practices that pertain to individual employees and supervisors; (4) means for the training of supervisors and employees to develop the needed skills and knowledge to perform their work in a safe and healthful manner; (5) means to anticipate and prepare for emergency situations; and (6) means for obtaining information feedback to aid in evaluating the program and for improving the effectiveness of the program. The management and employees should be trying continually to improve the effectiveness of the program thereby enhancing the protection being afforded those working on the site.
</P>
<P>Accidents on the site or workplace should be investigated to provide information on how such occurrences can be avoided in the future. When injuries or illnesses occur on the site or workplace, they will need to be investigated to determine what needs to be done to prevent this incident from occurring again. Such information will need to be used as feedback on the effectiveness of the program and the information turned into positive steps to prevent any reoccurrence. Receipt of employee suggestions or complaints relating to safety and health issues involved with site or workplace activities is also a feedback mechanism that can be used effectively to improve the program and may serve in part as an evaluative tool(s).
</P>
<P>For the development and implementation of the program to be the most effective, professional safety and health personnel should be used. Certified Safety Professionals, Board Certified Industrial Hygienists or Registered Professional Safety Engineers are good examples of professional stature for safety and health managers who will administer the employer's program.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Training.</I> The training programs for employees subject to the requirements of paragraph (e) of this standard should address: the safety and health hazards employees should expect to find on hazardous waste clean-up sites; what control measures or techniques are effective for those hazards; what monitoring procedures are effective in characterizing exposure levels; what makes an effective employer's safety and health program; what a site safety and health plan should include; hands on training with personal protective equipment and clothing they may be expected to use; the contents of the OSHA standard relevant to the employee's duties and function; and, employee's responsibilities under OSHA and other regulations. Supervisors will need training in their responsibilities under the safety and health program and its subject areas such as the spill containment program, the personal protective equipment program, the medical surveillance program, the emergency response plan and other areas.
</P>
<P>The training programs for employees subject to the requirements of paragraph (p) of this standard should address: the employers safety and health program elements impacting employees; the hazard communication program; the medical surveillance program; the hazards and the controls for such hazards that employees need to know for their job duties and functions. All require annual refresher training.
</P>
<P>The training programs for employees covered by the requirements of paragraph (q) of this standard should address those competencies required for the various levels of response such as: the hazards associated with hazardous substances; hazard identification and awareness; notification of appropriate persons; the need for and use of personal protective equipment including respirators; the decontamination procedures to be used; preplanning activities for hazardous substance incidents including the emergency reponse plan; company standard operating procedures for hazardous substance emergency responses; the use of the incident command system and other subjects. Hands-on training should be stressed whenever possible. Critiques done after an incident which include an evaluation of what worked and what did not and how could the incident be better handled the next time may be counted as training time.
</P>
<P>For hazardous materials specialists (usually members of hazardous materials teams), the training should address the care, use and/or testing of chemical protective clothing including totally encapsulating suits, the medical surveillance program, the standard operating procedures for the hazardous materials team including the use of plugging and patching equipment and other subject areas.
</P>
<P>Officers and leaders who may be expected to be in charge at an incident should be fully knowledgeable of their company's incident command system. They should know where and how to obtain additional assistance and be familiar with the local district's emergency response plan and the state emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>Specialist employees such as technical experts, medical experts or environmental experts that work with hazardous materials in their regular jobs, who may be sent to the incident scene by the shipper, manufacturer or governmental agency to advise and assist the person in charge of the incident should have training on an annual basis. Their training should include the care and use of personal protective equipment including respirators; knowledge of the incident command system and how they are to relate to it; and those areas needed to keep them current in their respective field as it relates to safety and health involving specific hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>Those skilled support personnel, such as employees who work for public works departments or equipment operators who operate bulldozers, sand trucks, backhoes, etc., who may be called to the incident scene to provide emergency support assistance, should have at least a safety and health briefing before entering the area of potential or actual exposure. These skilled support personnel, who have not been a part of the emergency response plan and do not meet the training requirements, should be made aware of the hazards they face and should be provided all necessary protective clothing and equipment required for their tasks.
</P>
<P>There are two National Fire Protection Association standards, NFPA 472—“Standard for Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Material Incidents” and NFPA 471—“Recommended Practice for Responding to Hazardous Material Incidents”, which are excellent resource documents to aid fire departments and other emergency response organizations in developing their training program materials. NFPA 472 provides guidance on the skills and knowledge needed for first responder awareness level, first responder operations level, hazmat technicians, and hazmat specialist. It also offers guidance for the officer corp who will be in charge of hazardous substance incidents.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Decontamination.</I> Decontamination procedures should be tailored to the specific hazards of the site, and may vary in complexity and number of steps, depending on the level of hazard and the employee's exposure to the hazard. Decontamination procedures and PPE decontamination methods will vary depending upon the specific substance, since one procedure or method may not work for all substances. Evaluation of decontamination methods and procedures should be performed, as necessary, to assure that employees are not exposed to hazards by re-using PPE. References in appendix D may be used for guidance in establishing an effective decontamination program. In addition, the U.S. Coast Guard's Manual, “Policy Guidance for Response to Hazardous Chemical Releases,” U.S. Department of Transportation, Washington, DC (COMDTINST M16465.30) is a good reference for establishing an effective decontamination program.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Emergency response plans.</I> States, along with designated districts within the states, will be developing or have developed local emergency response plans. These state and district plans should be utilized in the emergency response plans called for in the standard. Each employer should assure that its emergency response plan is compatible with the local plan. The major reference being used to aid in developing the state and local district plans is the <I>Hazardous Materials Emergency Planning Guide,</I> NRT-1. The current Emergency Response Guidebook from the U.S. Department of Transportation, CMA's CHEMTREC and the Fire Service Emergency Management Handbook may also be used as resources.
</P>
<P>Employers involved with treatment, storage, and disposal facilities for hazardous waste, which have the required contingency plan called for by their permit, would not need to duplicate the same planning elements. Those items of the emergency response plan that are properly addressed in the contingency plan may be substituted into the emergency response plan required in 1910.120 or otherwise kept together for employer and employee use.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Personal protective equipment programs.</I> The purpose of personal protective clothing and equipment (PPE) is to shield or isolate individuals from the chemical, physical, and biologic hazards that may be encountered at a hazardous substance site.
</P>
<P>As discussed in appendix B, no single combination of protective equipment and clothing is capable of protecting against all hazards. Thus PPE should be used in conjunction with other protective methods and its effectiveness evaluated periodically.
</P>
<P>The use of PPE can itself create significant worker hazards, such as heat stress, physical and psychological stress, and impaired vision, mobility, and communication. For any given situation, equipment and clothing should be selected that provide an adequate level of protection. However, over-protection, as well as under-protection, can be hazardous and should be avoided where possible.
</P>
<P>Two basic objectives of any PPE program should be to protect the wearer from safety and health hazards, and to prevent injury to the wearer from incorrect use and/or malfunction of the PPE. To accomplish these goals, a comprehensive PPE program should include hazard identification, medical monitoring, environmental surveillance, selection, use, maintenance, and decontamination of PPE and its associated training.
</P>
<P>The written PPE program should include policy statements, procedures, and guidelines. Copies should be made available to all employees, and a reference copy should be made available at the worksite. Technical data on equipment, maintenance manuals, relevant regulations, and other essential information should also be collected and maintained.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Incident command system (ICS).</I> Paragraph 1910.120(q)(3)(ii) requires the implementation of an ICS. The ICS is an organized approach to effectively control and <I>manage</I> operations at an emergency incident. The individual in charge of the ICS is the senior official responding to the incident. The ICS is not much different than the “command post” approach used for many years by the fire service. During large complex fires involving several companies and many pieces of apparatus, a command post would be established. This enabled <I>one</I> individual to be in charge of managing the incident, rather than having several officers from different companies making separate, and sometimes conflicting, decisions. The individual in charge of the command post would delegate responsibility for performing various tasks to subordinate officers. Additionally, all communications were routed through the command post to reduce the number of radio transmissions and eliminate confusion. However, strategy, tactics, and all decisions were made by one individual.
</P>
<P>The ICS is a very similar system, except it is implemented for emergency response to all incidents, both large and small, that involve hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>For a small incident, the individual in charge of the ICS may perform many tasks of the ICS. There may not be any, or little, delegation of tasks to subordinates. For example, in response to a small incident, the individual in charge of the ICS, in addition to normal command activities, may become the safety officer and may designate only one employee (with proper equipment) as a back-up to provide assistance if needed. OSHA does recommend, however, that at least two employees be designated as back-up personnel since the assistance needed may include rescue.
</P>
<P>To illustrate the operation of the ICS, the following scenario might develop during a small incident, such as an overturned tank truck with a small leak of flammable liquid.
</P>
<P>The first responding senior officer would implement and take command of the ICS. That person would size-up the incident and determine if additional personnel and apparatus were necessary; would determine what actions to take to control the leak; and, determine the proper level of personal protective equipment. If additional assistance is not needed, the individual in charge of the ICS would implement actions to stop and control the leak using the fewest number of personnel that can effectively accomplish the tasks. The individual in charge of the ICS then would designate himself as the safety officer and two other employees as a back-up in case rescue may become necessary. In this scenario, decontamination procedures would not be necessary.
</P>
<P>A large complex incident may require many employees and difficult, time-consuming efforts to control. In these situations, the individual in charge of the ICS will want to delegate different tasks to subordinates in order to maintain a span of control that will keep the number of subordinates, that are reporting, to a manageable level.
</P>
<P>Delegation of task at large incidents may be by location, where the incident scene is divided into sectors, and subordinate officers coordinate activities within the sector that they have been assigned.
</P>
<P>Delegation of tasks can also be by function. Some of the functions that the individual in charge of the ICS may want to delegate at a large incident are: medical services; evacuation; water supply; resources (equipment, apparatus); media relations; safety; and, site control (integrate activities with police for crowd and traffic control). Also for a large incident, the individual in charge of the ICS will designate several employees as back-up personnel; and a number of safety officers to monitor conditions and recommend safety precautions.
</P>
<P>Therefore, no matter what size or complexity an incident may be, by implementing an ICS there will be <I>one individual in charge</I> who makes the decisions and gives directions; and, all actions, and communications are coordinated through one central point of command. Such a system should reduce confusion, improve safety, organize and coordinate actions, and should facilitate effective management of the incident.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Site Safety and Control Plans.</I> The safety and security of response personnel and others in the area of an emergeny response incident site should be of primary concern to the incident commander. The use of a site safety and control plan could greatly assist those in charge of assuring the safety and health of employees on the site.
</P>
<P>A comprehensive site safety and control plan should include the following: summary analysis of hazards on the site and a risk analysis of those hazards; site map or sketch; site work zones (clean zone, transition or decontamination zone, work or hot zone); use of the buddy system; site communications; command post or command center; standard operating procedures and safe work practices; medical assistance and triage area; hazard monitoring plan (air contaminate monitoring, etc.); decontamination procedures and area; and other relevant areas. This plan should be a part of the employer's emergency response plan or an extension of it to the specific site.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Medical surveillance programs.</I> Workers handling hazardous substances may be exposed to toxic chemicals, safety hazards, biologic hazards, and radiation. Therefore, a medical surveillance program is essential to assess and monitor workers' health and fitness for employment in hazardous waste operations and during the course of work; to provide emergency and other treatment as needed; and to keep accurate records for future reference.
</P>
<P>The <I>Occupational Safety and Health Guidance Manual for Hazardous Waste Site Activities</I> developed by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), the U.S. Coast Guard (USCG), and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA); October 1985 provides an excellent example of the types of medical testing that should be done as part of a medical surveillance program.
</P>
<P>9. <I>New Technology and Spill Containment Programs.</I> Where hazardous substances may be released by spilling from a container that will expose employees to the hazards of the materials, the employer will need to implement a program to contain and control the spilled material. Diking and ditching, as well as use of absorbents like diatomaceous earth, are traditional techniques which have proven to be effective over the years. However, in recent years new products have come into the marketplace, the use of which complement and increase the effectiveness of these traditional methods. These new products also provide emergency responders and others with additional tools or agents to use to reduce the hazards of spilled materials.
</P>
<P>These agents can be rapidly applied over a large area and can be uniformly applied or otherwise can be used to build a small dam, thus improving the workers' ability to control spilled material. These application techniques enhance the intimate contact between the agent and the spilled material allowing for the quickest effect by the agent or quickest control of the spilled material. Agents are available to solidify liquid spilled materials, to suppress vapor generation from spilled materials, and to do both. Some special agents, which when applied as recommended by the manufacturer, will react in a controlled manner with the spilled material to neutralize acids or caustics, or greatly reduce the level of hazard of the spilled material.
</P>
<P>There are several modern methods and devices for use by emergency response personnel or others involved with spill control efforts to safely apply spill control agents to control spilled material hazards. These include portable pressurized applicators similar to hand-held portable fire extinguishing devices, and nozzle and hose systems similar to portable fire fighting foam systems which allow the operator to apply the agent without having to come into contact with the spilled material. The operator is able to apply the agent to the spilled material from a remote position.
</P>
<P>The solidification of liquids provides for rapid containment and isolation of hazardous substance spills. By directing the agent at run-off points or at the edges of the spill, the reactant solid will automatically create a barrier to slow or stop the spread of the material. Clean-up of hazardous substances is greatly improved when solidifying agents, acid or caustic neutralizers, or activated carbon adsorbents are used. Properly applied, these agents can totally solidify liquid hazardous substances or neutralize or absorb them, which results in materials which are less hazardous and easier to handle, transport, and dispose of. The concept of spill treatment, to create less hazardous substances, will improve the safety and level of protection of employees working at spill clean-up operations or emergency response operations to spills of hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>The use of vapor suppression agents for volatile hazardous substances, such as flammable liquids and those substances which present an inhalation hazard, is important for protecting workers. The rapid and uniform distribution of the agent over the surface of the spilled material can provide quick vapor knockdown. There are temporary and long-term foam-type agents which are effective on vapors and dusts, and activated carbon adsorption agents which are effective for vapor control and soaking-up of the liquid. The proper use of hose lines or hand-held portable pressurized applicators provides good mobility and permits the worker to deliver the agent from a safe distance without having to step into the untreated spilled material. Some of these systems can be recharged in the field to provide coverage of larger spill areas than the design limits of a single charged applicator unit. Some of the more effective agents can solidify the liquid flammable hazardous substances and at the same time elevate the flashpoint above 140 °F so the resulting substance may be handled as a nonhazardous waste material if it meets the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's 40 CFR part 261 requirements (See particularly § 261.21).
</P>
<P>All workers performing hazardous substance spill control work are expected to wear the proper protective clothing and equipment for the materials present and to follow the employer's established standard operating procedures for spill control. All involved workers need to be trained in the established operating procedures; in the use and care of spill control equipment; and in the associated hazards and control of such hazards of spill containment work.
</P>
<P>These new tools and agents are the things that employers will want to evaluate as part of their new technology program. The treatment of spills of hazardous substances or wastes at an emergency incident as part of the immediate spill containment and control efforts is sometimes acceptable to EPA and a permit exception is described in 40 CFR 264.1(g)(8) and 265.1(c)(11).</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.120—References
</HD1>
<P>The following references may be consulted for further information on the subject of this standard:
</P>
<P>1. OSHA Instruction DFO CPL 2.70—January 29, 1986, <I>Special Emphasis Program: Hazardous Waste Sites.</I>
</P>
<P>2. OSHA Instruction DFO CPL 2-2.37A—January 29, 1986, <I>Technical Assistance and Guidelines for Superfund and Other Hazardous Waste Site Activities.</I>
</P>
<P>3. OSHA Instruction DTS CPL 2.74—January 29, 1986, <I>Hazardous Waste Activity Form, OSHA 175.</I>
</P>
<P>4. <I>Hazardous Waste Inspections Reference Manual,</I> U.S. Department of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, 1986.
</P>
<P>5. Memorandum of Understanding Among the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, the United States Coast Guard, and the United States Environmental Protection Agency, <I>Guidance for Worker Protection During Hazardous Waste Site Investigations and Clean-up and Hazardous Substance Emergencies.</I> December 18, 1980.
</P>
<P>6. <I>National Priorities List,</I> 1st Edition, October 1984; U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Revised periodically.
</P>
<P>7. <I>The Decontamination of Response Personnel,</I> Field Standard Operating Procedures (F.S.O.P.) 7; U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Emergency and Remedial Response, Hazardous Response Support Division, December 1984.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Preparation of a Site Safety Plan,</I> Field Standard Operating Procedures (F.S.O.P.) 9; U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Emergency and Remedial Response, Hazardous Response Support Division, April 1985.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Standard Operating Safety Guidelines;</I> U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Emergency and Remedial Response, Hazardous Response Support Division, Environmental Response Team; November 1984.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Occupational Safety and Health Guidance Manual for Hazardous Waste Site Activities,</I> National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), U.S. Coast Guard (USCG), and Environmental Protection Agency (EPA); October 1985.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Protecting Health and Safety at Hazardous Waste Sites: An Overview,</I> U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA/625/9-85/006; September 1985.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Hazardous Waste Sites and Hazardous Substance Emergencies,</I> NIOSH Worker Bulletin, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Centers for Disease Control, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health; December 1982.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Personal Protective Equipment for Hazardous Materials Incidents: A Selection Guide;</I> U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Centers for Disease Control, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health; October 1984.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Fire Service Emergency Management Handbook,</I> International Association of Fire Chiefs Foundation, 101 East Holly Avenue, Unit 10B, Sterling, VA 22170, January 1985.
</P>
<P>15. <I>Emergency Response Guidebook,</I> U.S Department of Transportation, Washington, DC, 1987.
</P>
<P>16. <I>Report to the Congress on Hazardous Materials Training, Planning and Preparedness,</I> Federal Emergency Management Agency, Washington, DC, July 1986.
</P>
<P>17. <I>Workbook for Fire Command,</I> Alan V. Brunacini and J. David Beageron, National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269, 1985.
</P>
<P>18. <I>Fire Command,</I> Alan V. Brunacini, National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park,, Quincy, MA 02269, 1985.
</P>
<P>19. <I>Incident Command System,</I> Fire Protection Publications, Oklahoma State University, Stillwater, OK 74078, 1983.
</P>
<P>20. <I>Site Emergency Response Planning,</I> Chemical Manufacturers Association, Washington, DC 20037, 1986.
</P>
<P>21. <I>Hazardous Materials Emergency Planning Guide,</I> NRT-1, Environmental Protection Agency, Washington, DC, March 1987.
</P>
<P>22. <I>Community Teamwork: Working Together to Promote Hazardous Materials Transportation Safety.</I> U.S. Department of Transportation, Washington, DC, May 1983.
</P>
<P>23. <I>Disaster Planning Guide for Business and Industry,</I> Federal Emergency Management Agency, Publication No. FEMA 141, August 1987.</P></EXTRACT>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(The Office of Management and Budget has approved the information collection requirements in this section under control number 1218-0139)
</APPRO>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1910.120—Training Curriculum Guidelines
</HD1>
<P>The following non-mandatory general criteria may be used for assistance in developing site-specific training curriculum used to meet the training requirements of 29 CFR 1910.120(e); 29 CFR 1910.120(p)(7), (p)(8)(iii); and 29 CFR 1910.120(q)(6), (q)(7), and (q)(8). These are generic guidelines and they are not presented as a complete training curriculum for any specific employer. Site-specific training programs must be developed on the basis of a needs assessment of the hazardous waste site, RCRA/TSDF, or emergency response operation in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.120.
</P>
<P>It is noted that the legal requirements are set forth in the regulatory text of § 1910.120. The guidance set forth here presents a highly effective program that in the areas covered would meet or exceed the regulatory requirements. In addition, other approaches could meet the regulatory requirements.
</P>
<HD2>Suggested General Criteria
</HD2>
<P><I>Definitions:</I>
</P>
<P>“Competent” means possessing the skills, knowledge, experience, and judgment to perform assigned tasks or activities satisfactorily as determined by the employer.
</P>
<P>“Demonstration” means the showing by actual use of equipment or procedures.
</P>
<P>“Hands-on training” means training in a simulated work environment that permits each student to have experience performing tasks, making decisions, or using equipment appropriate to the job assignment for which the training is being conducted.
</P>
<P>“Initial training” means training required prior to beginning work.
</P>
<P>“Lecture” means an interactive discourse with a class lead by an instructor.
</P>
<P>“Proficient” means meeting a stated level of achievement.
</P>
<P>“Site-specific” means individual training directed to the operations of a specific job site.
</P>
<P>“Training hours” means the number of hours devoted to lecture, learning activities, small group work sessions, demonstration, evaluations, or hands-on experience.
</P>
<P><I>Suggested core criteria:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Training facility.</I> The training facility should have available sufficient resources, equipment, and site locations to perform didactic and hands-on training when appropriate. Training facilities should have sufficient organization, support staff, and services to conduct training in each of the courses offered.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Training Director.</I> Each training program should be under the direction of a training director who is responsible for the program. The Training Director should have a minimum of two years of employee education experience.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Instructors.</I> Instructors should be deem competent on the basis of previous documented experience in their area of instruction, successful completion of a “train-the-trainer” program specific to the topics they will teach, and an evaluation of instructional competence by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>Instructors should be required to maintain professional competency by participating in continuing education or professional development programs or by completing successfully an annual refresher course and having an annual review by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>The annual review by the Training Director should include observation of an instructor's delivery, a review of those observations with the trainer, and an analysis of any instructor or class evaluations completed by the students during the previous year.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Course materials.</I> The Training Director should approve all course materials to be used by the training provider. Course materials should be reviewed and updated at least annually. Materials and equipment should be in good working order and maintained properly.
</P>
<P>All written and audio-visual materials in training curricula should be peer reviewed by technically competent outside reviewers or by a standing advisory committee.
</P>
<P>Reviews should possess expertise in the following disciplines were applicable: occupational health, industrial hygiene and safety, chemical/environmental engineering, employee education, or emergency response. One or more of the peer reviewers should be an employee experienced in the work activities to which the training is directed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Students.</I> The program for accepting students should include:
</P>
<P>a. Assurance that the student is or will be involved in work where chemical exposures are likely and that the student possesses the skills necessary to perform the work.
</P>
<P>b. A policy on the necessary medical clearance.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Ratios.</I> Student-instructor ratios should not exceed 30 students per instructor. Hands-on activity requiring the use of personal protective equipment should have the following student-instructor ratios. For Level C or Level D personal protective equipment the ratio should be 10 students per instructor. For Level A or Level B personal protective equipment the ratio should be 5 students per instructor.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Proficiency assessment.</I> Proficiency should be evaluated and documented by the use of a written assessment and a skill demonstration selected and developed by the Training Director and training staff. The assessment and demonstration should evaluate the knowledge and individual skills developed in the course of training. The level of minimum achievement necessary for proficiency shall be specified in writing by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>If a written test is used, there should be a minimum of 50 questions. If a written test is used in combination with a skills demonstration, a minimum of 25 questions should be used. If a skills demonstration is used, the tasks chosen and the means to rate successful completion should be fully documented by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>The content of the written test or of the skill demonstration shall be relevant to the objectives of the course. The written test and skill demonstration should be updated as necessary to reflect changes in the curriculum and any update should be approved by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>The proficiency assessment methods, regardless of the approach or combination of approaches used, should be justified, documented and approved by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>The proficiency of those taking the additional courses for supervisors should be evaluated and documented by using proficiency assessment methods acceptable to the Training Director. These proficiency assessment methods must reflect the additional responsibilities borne by supervisory personnel in hazardous waste operations or emergency response.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Course certificate.</I> Written documentation should be provided to each student who satisfactorily completes the training course. The documentation should include:
</P>
<P>a. Student's name.
</P>
<P>b. Course title.
</P>
<P>c. Course date.
</P>
<P>d. Statement that the student has successfully completed the course.
</P>
<P>e. Name and address of the training provider.
</P>
<P>f. An individual identification number for the certificate.
</P>
<P>g. List of the levels of personal protective equipment used by the student to complete the course.
</P>
<P>This documentation may include a certificate and an appropriate wallet-sized laminated card with a photograph of the student and the above information. When such course certificate cards are used, the individual identification number for the training certificate should be shown on the card.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Training providers should maintain records listing the dates courses were presented, the names of the individual course attenders, the names of those students successfully completing each course, and the number of training certificates issued to each successful student. These records should be maintained for a minimum of five years after the date an individual participated in a training program offered by the training provider. These records should be available and provided upon the student's request or as mandated by law.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Program quality control.</I> The Training Director should conduct or direct an annual written audit of the training program. Program modifications to address deficiencies, if any, should be documented, approved, and implemented by the training provider. The audit and the program modification documents should be maintained at the training facility.
</P>
<HD2>Suggested Program Quality Control Criteria
</HD2>
<P>Factors listed here are suggested criteria for determining the quality and appropriateness of employee health and safety training for hazardous waste operations and emergency response.
</P>
<P><I>A. Training Plan.</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of the training program's curriculum development, instructor training, distribution of course materials, and direct student training should be considered, including
</P>
<P>1. The duration of training, course content, and course schedules/agendas;
</P>
<P>2. The different training requirements of the various target populations, as specified in the appropriate generic training curriculum;
</P>
<P>3. The process for the development of curriculum, which includes appropriate technical input, outside review, evaluation, program pretesting.
</P>
<P>4. The adequate and appropriate inclusion of hands-on, demonstration, and instruction methods;
</P>
<P>5. Adequate monitoring of student safety, progress, and performance during the training.
</P>
<P><I>B. Program management, Training Director, staff, and consultants.</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of staff performance and delivering an effective training program should be considered, including
</P>
<P>1. Demonstration of the training director's leadership in assuring quality of health and safety training.
</P>
<P>2. Demonstration of the competency of the staff to meet the demands of delivering high quality hazardous waste employee health and safety training.
</P>
<P>3. Organization charts establishing clear lines of authority.
</P>
<P>4. Clearly defined staff duties including the relationship of the training staff to the overall program.
</P>
<P>5. Evidence that the training organizational structure suits the needs of the training program.
</P>
<P>6. Appropriateness and adequacy of the training methods used by the instructors.
</P>
<P>7. Sufficiency of the time committed by the training director and staff to the training program.
</P>
<P>8. Adequacy of the ratio of training staff to students.
</P>
<P>9. Availability and commitment of the training program of adequate human and equipment resources in the areas of
</P>
<P>a. Health effects,
</P>
<P>b. Safety,
</P>
<P>c. Personal protective equipment (PPE),
</P>
<P>d. Operational procedures,
</P>
<P>e. Employee protection practices/procedures.
</P>
<P>10. Appropriateness of management controls.
</P>
<P>11. Adequacy of the organization and appropriate resources assigned to assure appropriate training.
</P>
<P>12. In the case of multiple-site training programs, adequacy of satellite centers management.
</P>
<P><I>C. Training facilities and resources.</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of the facilities and resources for supporting the training program should be considered, including,
</P>
<P>1. Space and equipment to conduct the training.
</P>
<P>2. Facilities for representative hands-on training.
</P>
<P>3. In the case of multiple-site programs, equipment and facilities at the satellite centers.
</P>
<P>4. Adequacy and appropriateness of the quality control and evaluations program to account for instructor performance.
</P>
<P>5. Adequacy and appropriateness of the quality control and evaluation program to ensure appropriate course evaluation, feedback, updating, and corrective action.
</P>
<P>6. Adequacy and appropriateness of disciplines and expertise being used within the quality control and evaluation program.
</P>
<P>7. Adequacy and appropriateness of the role of student evaluations to provide feedback for training program improvement.
</P>
<P><I>D. Quality control and evaluation.</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of quality control and evaluation plans for training programs should be considered, including:
</P>
<P>1. A balanced advisory committee and/or competent outside reviewers to give overall policy guidance;
</P>
<P>2. Clear and adequate definition of the composition and active programmatic role of the advisory committee or outside reviewers.
</P>
<P>3. Adequacy of the minutes or reports of the advisory committee or outside reviewers' meetings or written communication.
</P>
<P>4. Adequacy and appropriateness of the quality control and evaluations program to account for instructor performance.
</P>
<P>5. Adequacy and appropriateness of the quality control and evaluation program to ensure appropriate course evaluation, feedback, updating, and corrective action.
</P>
<P>6. Adequacy and appropriateness of disciplines and expertise being used within the quality control and evaluation program.
</P>
<P>7. Adequacy and appropriateness of the role of student evaluations to provide feedback for training program improvement.
</P>
<P><I>E. Students</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of the program for accepting students should be considered, including
</P>
<P>1. Assurance that the student already possess the necessary skills for their job, including necessary documentation.
</P>
<P>2. Appropriateness of methods the program uses to ensure that recruits are capable of satisfactorily completing training.
</P>
<P>3. Review and compliance with any medical clearance policy.
</P>
<P><I>F. Institutional Environment and Administrative Support</I>
</P>
<P>The adequacy and appropriateness of the institutional environment and administrative support system for the training program should be considered, including
</P>
<P>1. Adequacy of the institutional commitment to the employee training program.
</P>
<P>2. Adequacy and appropriateness of the administrative structure and administrative support.
</P>
<P><I>G. Summary of Evaluation Questions</I>
</P>
<P>Key questions for evaluating the quality and appropriateness of an overall training program should include the following:
</P>
<P>1. Are the program objectives clearly stated?
</P>
<P>2. Is the program accomplishing its objectives?
</P>
<P>3. Are appropriate facilities and staff available?
</P>
<P>4. Is there an appropriate mix of classroom, demonstration, and hands-on training?
</P>
<P>5. Is the program providing quality employee health and safety training that fully meets the intent of regulatory requirements?
</P>
<P>6. What are the program's main strengths?
</P>
<P>7. What are the program's main weaknesses?
</P>
<P>8. What is recommended to improve the program?
</P>
<P>9. Are instructors instructing according to their training outlines?
</P>
<P>10. Is the evaluation tool current and appropriate for the program content?
</P>
<P>11. Is the course material current and relevant to the target group?
</P>
<HD2>Suggested Training Curriculum Guidelines
</HD2>
<P>The following training curriculum guidelines are for those operations specifically identified in 29 CFR 1910.120 as requiring training. Issues such as qualifications of instructors, training certification, and similar criteria appropriate to all categories of operations addressed in 1910.120 have been covered in the preceding section and are not re-addressed in each of the generic guidelines. Basic core requirements for training programs that are addressed include
</P>
<P>1. General Hazardous Waste Operations
</P>
<P>2. RCRA operations—Treatment, storage, and disposal facilities.
</P>
<P>3. Emergency Response.
</P>
<P><I>A. General Hazardous Waste Operations and Site-specific Training</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Off-site training.</I>Training course content for hazardous waste operations, required by 29 CFR 1910.120(e), should include the following topics or procedures:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Regulatory knowledge.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) An review of 29 CFR 1910.120 and the core elements of an occupational safety and health program.
</P>
<P>(2) The content of a medical surveillance program as outlined in 29 CFR 1910.120(f).
</P>
<P>(3) The content of an effective site safety and health plan consistent with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.120(b)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>(4) Emergency response plan and procedures as outlined in 29 CFR 1910.38 and 29 CFR 1910.120(l).
</P>
<P>(5) Adequate illumination.
</P>
<P>(6) Sanitation recommendation and equipment.
</P>
<P>(7) Review and explanation of OSHA's hazard-communication standard (29 CFR 1910.1200) and lock-out-tag-out standard (29 CFR 1910.147).
</P>
<P>(8) Review of other applicable standards including but not limited to those in the construction standards (29 CFR part 1926).
</P>
<P>(9) Rights and responsibilities of employers and employees under applicable OSHA and EPA laws.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Technical knowledge.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Type of potential exposures to chemical, biological, and radiological hazards; types of human responses to these hazards and recognition of those responses; principles of toxicology and information about acute and chronic hazards; health and safety considerations of new technology.
</P>
<P>(2) Fundamentals of chemical hazards including but not limited to vapor pressure, boiling points, flash points, ph, other physical and chemical properties.
</P>
<P>(3) Fire and explosion hazards of chemicals.
</P>
<P>(4) General safety hazards such as but not limited to electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, walking-working surface hazards, excavation hazards, and hazards associated with working in hot and cold temperature extremes.
</P>
<P>(5) Review and knowledge of confined space entry procedures in 29 CFR 1910.146.
</P>
<P>(6) Work practices to minimize employee risk from site hazards.
</P>
<P>(7) Safe use of engineering controls, equipment, and any new relevant safety technology or safety procedures.
</P>
<P>(8) Review and demonstration of competency with air sampling and monitoring equipment that may be used in a site monitoring program.
</P>
<P>(9) Container sampling procedures and safeguarding; general drum and container handling procedures including special requirement for laboratory waste packs, shock-sensitive wastes, and radioactive wastes.
</P>
<P>(10) The elements of a spill control program.
</P>
<P>(11) Proper use and limitations of material handling equipment.
</P>
<P>(12) Procedures for safe and healthful preparation of containers for shipping and transport.
</P>
<P>(13) Methods of communication including those used while wearing respiratory protection.
</P>
<P><I>c. Technical skills.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Selection, use maintenance, and limitations of personal protective equipment including the components and procedures for carrying out a respirator program to comply with 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(2) Instruction in decontamination programs including personnel, equipment, and hardware; hands-on training including level A, B, and C ensembles and appropriate decontamination lines; field activities including the donning and doffing of protective equipment to a level commensurate with the employee's anticipated job function and responsibility and to the degree required by potential hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) Sources for additional hazard information; exercises using relevant manuals and hazard coding systems.
</P>
<P><I>d. Additional suggested items.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) A laminated, dated card or certificate with photo, denoting limitations and level of protection for which the employee is trained should be issued to those students successfully completing a course.
</P>
<P>(2) Attendance should be required at all training modules, with successful completion of exercises and a final written or oral examination with at least 50 questions.
</P>
<P>(3) A minimum of one-third of the program should be devoted to hands-on exercises.
</P>
<P>(4) A curriculum should be established for the 8-hour refresher training required by 29 CFR 1910.120(e)(8), with delivery of such courses directed toward those areas of previous training that need improvement or reemphasis.
</P>
<P>(5) A curriculum should be established for the required 8-hour training for supervisors. Demonstrated competency in the skills and knowledge provided in a 40-hour course should be a prerequisite for supervisor training.
</P>
<P><I>2. Refresher training.</I>
</P>
<P>The 8-hour annual refresher training required in 29 CFR 1910.120(e)(8) should be conducted by qualified training providers. Refresher training should include at a minimum the following topics and procedures:
</P>
<P>(a) Review of and retraining on relevant topics covered in the 40-hour program, as appropriate, using reports by the students on their work experiences.
</P>
<P>(b) Update on developments with respect to material covered in the 40-hour course.
</P>
<P>(c) Review of changes to pertinent provisions of EPA or OSHA standards or laws.
</P>
<P>(d) Introduction of additional subject areas as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Hands-on review of new or altered PPE or decontamination equipment or procedures. Review of new developments in personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(f) Review of newly developed air and contaminant monitoring equipment.
</P>
<P><I>3. On-site training.</I>
</P>
<P>a. The employer should provide employees engaged in hazardous waste site activities with information and training prior to initial assignment into their work area, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of the hazard communication program including the location and availability of the written program, required lists of hazardous chemicals, and safety data sheets.
</P>
<P>(2) Activities and locations in their work area where hazardous substance may be present.
</P>
<P>(3) Methods and observations that may be used to detect the present or release of a hazardous chemical in the work area (such as monitoring conducted by the employer, continuous monitoring devices, visual appearances, or other evidence (sight, sound or smell) of hazardous chemicals being released, and applicable alarms from monitoring devices that record chemical releases.
</P>
<P>(4) The physical and health hazards of substances known or potentially present in the work area.
</P>
<P>(5) The measures employees can take to help protect themselves from work-site hazards, including specific procedures the employer has implemented.
</P>
<P>(6) An explanation of the labeling system and safety data sheets and how employees can obtain and use appropriate hazard information.
</P>
<P>(7) The elements of the confined space program including special PPE, permits, monitoring requirements, communication procedures, emergency response, and applicable lock-out procedures.
</P>
<P>b. The employer should provide hazardous waste employees information and training and should provide a review and access to the site safety and plan as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Names of personnel and alternate responsible for site safety and health.
</P>
<P>(2) Safety and health hazards present on the site.
</P>
<P>(3) Selection, use, maintenance, and limitations of personal protective equipment specific to the site.
</P>
<P>(4) Work practices by which the employee can minimize risks from hazards.
</P>
<P>(5) Safe use of engineering controls and equipment available on site.
</P>
<P>(6) Safe decontamination procedures established to minimize employee contact with hazardous substances, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Employee decontamination,
</P>
<P>(B) Clothing decontamination, and
</P>
<P>(C) Equipment decontamination.
</P>
<P>(7) Elements of the site emergency response plan, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Pre-emergency planning.
</P>
<P>(B) Personnel roles and lines of authority and communication.
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency recognition and prevention.
</P>
<P>(D) Safe distances and places of refuge.
</P>
<P>(E) Site security and control.
</P>
<P>(F) Evacuation routes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) Decontamination procedures not covered by the site safety and health plan.
</P>
<P>(H) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
</P>
<P>(I) Emergency equipment and procedures for handling emergency incidents.
</P>
<P>c. The employer should provide hazardous waste employees information and training on personal protective equipment used at the site, such as the following:
</P>
<P>(1) PPE to be used based upon known or anticipated site hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) PPE limitations of materials and construction; limitations during temperature extremes, heat stress, and other appropriate medical considerations; use and limitations of respirator equipment as well as documentation procedures as outlined in 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(3) PPE inspection procedures prior to, during, and after use.
</P>
<P>(4) PPE donning and doffing procedures.
</P>
<P>(5) PPE decontamination and disposal procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) PPE maintenance and storage.
</P>
<P>(7) Task duration as related to PPE limitations.
</P>
<P>d. The employer should instruct the employee about the site medical surveillance program relative to the particular site, including
</P>
<P>(1) Specific medical surveillance programs that have been adapted for the site.
</P>
<P>(2) Specific signs and symptoms related to exposure to hazardous materials on the site.
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency and extent of periodic medical examinations that will be used on the site.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintenance and availability of records.
</P>
<P>(5) Personnel to be contacted and procedures to be followed when signs and symptoms of exposures are recognized.
</P>
<P>e. The employees will review and discuss the site safety plan as part of the training program. The location of the site safety plan and all written programs should be discussed with employees including a discussion of the mechanisms for access, review, and references described.
</P>
<P><I>B. RCRA Operations Training for Treatment, Storage and Disposal Facilities.</I>
</P>
<P>1. As a minimum, the training course required in 29 CFR 1910.120 (p) should include the following topics:
</P>
<P>(a) Review of the applicable paragraphs of 29 CFR 1910.120 and the elements of the employer's occupational safety and health plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Review of relevant hazards such as, but not limited to, chemical, biological, and radiological exposures; fire and explosion hazards; thermal extremes; and physical hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) General safety hazards including those associated with electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, lock-out-tag-out procedures, motor vehicle hazards and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(d) Confined-space hazards and procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) Work practices to minimize employee risk from workplace hazards.
</P>
<P>(f) Emergency response plan and procedures including first aid meeting the requirements of paragraph (p)(8).
</P>
<P>(g) A review of procedures to minimize exposure to hazardous waste and various type of waste streams, including the materials handling program and spill containment program.
</P>
<P>(h) A review of hazard communication programs meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(i) A review of medical surveillance programs meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.120(p)(3) including the recognition of signs and symptoms of overexposure to hazardous substance including known synergistic interactions.
</P>
<P>(j) A review of decontamination programs and procedures meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.120(p)(4).
</P>
<P>(k) A review of an employer's requirements to implement a training program and its elements.
</P>
<P>(l) A review of the criteria and programs for proper selection and use of personal protective equipment, including respirators.
</P>
<P>(m) A review of the applicable appendices to 29 CFR 1910.120.
</P>
<P>(n) Principles of toxicology and biological monitoring as they pertain to occupational health.
</P>
<P>(o) Rights and responsibilities of employees and employers under applicable OSHA and EPA laws.
</P>
<P>(p) Hands-on exercises and demonstrations of competency with equipment to illustrate the basic equipment principles that may be used during the performance of work duties, including the donning and doffing of PPE.
</P>
<P>(q) Sources of reference, efficient use of relevant manuals, and knowledge of hazard coding systems to include information contained in hazardous waste manifests.
</P>
<P>(r) At least 8 hours of hands-on training.
</P>
<P>(s) Training in the job skills required for an employee's job function and responsibility before they are permitted to participate in or supervise field activities.
</P>
<P>2. The individual employer should provide hazardous waste employees with information and training prior to an employee's initial assignment into a work area. The training and information should cover the following topics:
</P>
<P>(a) The Emergency response plan and procedures including first aid.
</P>
<P>(b) A review of the employer's hazardous waste handling procedures including the materials handling program and elements of the spill containment program, location of spill response kits or equipment, and the names of those trained to respond to releases.
</P>
<P>(c) The hazardous communication program meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(d) A review of the employer's medical surveillance program including the recognition of signs and symptoms of exposure to relevant hazardous substance including known synergistic interactions.
</P>
<P>(e) A review of the employer's decontamination program and procedures.
</P>
<P>(f) An review of the employer's training program and the parties responsible for that program.
</P>
<P>(g) A review of the employer's personal protective equipment program including the proper selection and use of PPE based upon specific site hazards.
</P>
<P>(h) All relevant site-specific procedures addressing potential safety and health hazards. This may include, as appropriate, biological and radiological exposures, fire and explosion hazards, thermal hazards, and physical hazards such as electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, lock-out-tag-out hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(i) Safe use engineering controls and equipment on site.
</P>
<P>(j) Names of personnel and alternates responsible for safety and health.
</P>
<P><I>C. Emergency response training.</I>
</P>
<P>Federal OSHA standards in 29 CFR 1910.120(q) are directed toward private sector emergency responders. Therefore, the guidelines provided in this portion of the appendix are directed toward that employee population. However, they also impact indirectly through State OSHA or USEPA regulations some public sector emergency responders. Therefore, the guidelines provided in this portion of the appendix may be applied to both employee populations.
</P>
<P>States with OSHA state plans must cover their employees with regulations at least as effective as the Federal OSHA standards. Public employees in states without approved state OSHA programs covering hazardous waste operations and emergency response are covered by the U.S. EPA under 40 CFR 311, a regulation virtually identical to § 1910.120.
</P>
<P>Since this is a non-mandatory appendix and therefore not an enforceable standard, OSHA recommends that those employers, employees or volunteers in public sector emergency response organizations outside Federal OSHA jurisdiction consider the following criteria in developing their own training programs. A unified approach to training at the community level between emergency response organizations covered by Federal OSHA and those not covered directly by Federal OSHA can help ensure an effective community response to the release or potential release of hazardous substances in the community.
</P>
<P>a. <I>General considerations.</I>
</P>
<P>Emergency response organizations are required to consider the topics listed in § 1910.120(q)(6). Emergency response organizations may use some or all of the following topics to supplement those mandatory topics when developing their response training programs. Many of the topics would require an interaction between the response provider and the individuals responsible for the site where the response would be expected.
</P>
<P>(1) Hazard recognition, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Nature of hazardous substances present,
</P>
<P>(B) Practical applications of hazard recognition, including presentations on biology, chemistry, and physics.
</P>
<P>(2) Principles of toxicology, biological monitoring, and risk assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) Safe work practices and general site safety.
</P>
<P>(4) Engineering controls and hazardous waste operations.
</P>
<P>(5) Site safety plans and standard operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) Decontamination procedures and practices.
</P>
<P>(7) Emergency procedures, first aid, and self-rescue.
</P>
<P>(8) Safe use of field equipment.
</P>
<P>(9) Storage, handling, use and transportation of hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>(10) Use, care, and limitations of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(11) Safe sampling techniques.
</P>
<P>(12) Rights and responsibilities of employees under OSHA and other related laws concerning right-to-know, safety and health, compensations and liability.
</P>
<P>(13) Medical monitoring requirements.
</P>
<P>(14) Community relations.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Suggested criteria for specific courses.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>First responder awareness level.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Review of and demonstration of competency in performing the applicable skills of 29 CFR 1910.120(q).
</P>
<P>(B) Hands-on experience with the U.S. Department of Transportation's Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) and familiarization with OSHA standard 29 CFR 1910.1201.
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the principles and practices for analyzing an incident to determine both the hazardous substances present and the basic hazard and response information for each hazardous substance present.
</P>
<P>(D) Review of procedures for implementing actions consistent with the local emergency response plan, the organization's standard operating procedures, and the current edition of DOT's ERG including emergency notification procedures and follow-up communications.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of the expected hazards including fire and explosions hazards, confined space hazards, electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(F) Awareness and knowledge of the competencies for the First Responder at the Awareness Level covered in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 472, <I>Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>First responder operations level.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Review of and demonstration of competency in performing the applicable skills of 29 CFR 1910.120(q).
</P>
<P>(B) Hands-on experience with the U.S. Department of Transportation's Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG), manufacturer safety data sheets, CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, shipper or manufacturer contacts, and other relevant sources of information addressing hazardous substance releases. Familiarization with OSHA standard 29 CFR 1910.1201.
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the principles and practices for analyzing an incident to determine the hazardous substances present, the likely behavior of the hazardous substance and its container, the types of hazardous substance transportation containers and vehicles, the types and selection of the appropriate defensive strategy for containing the release.
</P>
<P>(D) Review of procedures for implementing continuing response actions consistent with the local emergency response plan, the organization's standard operating procedures, and the current edition of DOT's ERG including extended emergency notification procedures and follow-up communications.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of the principles and practice for proper selection and use of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(F) Review of the principles and practice of personnel and equipment decontamination.
</P>
<P>(G) Review of the expected hazards including fire and explosions hazards, confined space hazards, electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(H) Awareness and knowledge of the competencies for the First Responder at the Operations Level covered in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 472, <I>Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hazardous materials technician.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Review of and demonstration of competency in performing the applicable skills of 29 CFR 1910.120(q).
</P>
<P>(B) Hands-on experience with written and electronic information relative to response decision making including but not limited to the U.S. Department of Transportation's <I>Emergency Response Guidebook</I> (ERG), manufacturer safety data sheets, CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, shipper or manufacturer contacts, computer data bases and response models, and other relevant sources of information addressing hazardous substance releases. Familiarization with OSHA standard 29 CFR 1910.1201.
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the principles and practices for analyzing an incident to determine the hazardous substances present, their physical and chemical properties, the likely behavior of the hazardous substance and its container, the types of hazardous substance transportation containers and vehicles involved in the release, the appropriate strategy for approaching release sites and containing the release.
</P>
<P>(D) Review of procedures for implementing continuing response actions consistent with the local emergency response plan, the organization's standard operating procedures, and the current edition of DOT's ERG including extended emergency notification procedures and follow-up communications.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of the principles and practice for proper selection and use of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(F) Review of the principles and practices of establishing exposure zones, proper decontamination and medical surveillance stations and procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) Review of the expected hazards including fire and explosions hazards, confined space hazards, electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(H) Awareness and knowledge of the competencies for the Hazardous Materials Technician covered in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 472, <I>Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hazardous materials specialist.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Review of and demonstration of competency in performing the applicable skills of 29 CFR 1910.120(q).
</P>
<P>(B) Hands-on experience with retrieval and use of written and electronic information relative to response decision making including but not limited to the U.S. Department of Transportation's <I>Emergency Response Guidebook</I> (ERG), manufacturer safety data sheets, CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, shipper or manufacturer contacts, computer data bases and response models, and other relevant sources of information addressing hazardous substance releases. Familiarization with OSHA standard 29 CFR 1910.1201.
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the principles and practices for analyzing an incident to determine the hazardous substances present, their physical and chemical properties, and the likely behavior of the hazardous substance and its container, vessel, or vehicle.
</P>
<P>(D) Review of the principles and practices for identification of the types of hazardous substance transportation containers, vessels and vehicles involved in the release; selecting and using the various types of equipment available for plugging or patching transportation containers, vessels or vehicles; organizing and directing the use of multiple teams of hazardous material technicians and selecting the appropriate strategy for approaching release sites and containing or stopping the release.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of procedures for implementing continuing response actions consistent with the local emergency response plan, the organization's standard operating procedures, including knowledge of the available public and private response resources, establishment of an incident command post, direction of hazardous material technician teams, and extended emergency notification procedures and follow-up communications.
</P>
<P>(F) Review of the principles and practice for proper selection and use of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(G) Review of the principles and practices of establishing exposure zones and proper decontamination, monitoring and medical surveillance stations and procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) Review of the expected hazards including fire and explosions hazards, confined space hazards, electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(I) Awareness and knowledge of the competencies for the Off-site Specialist Employee covered in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 472, <I>Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Incident commander.</I>
</P>
<P>The incident commander is the individual who, at any one time, is responsible for and in control of the response effort. This individual is the person responsible for the direction and coordination of the response effort. An incident commander's position should be occupied by the most senior, appropriately trained individual present at the response site. Yet, as necessary and appropriate by the level of response provided, the position may be occupied by many individuals during a particular response as the need for greater authority, responsibility, or training increases. It is possible for the first responder at the awareness level to assume the duties of incident commander until a more senior and appropriately trained individual arrives at the response site.
</P>
<P>Therefore, any emergency responder expected to perform as an incident commander should be trained to fulfill the obligations of the position at the level of response they will be providing including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Ability to analyze a hazardous substance incident to determine the magnitude of the response problem.
</P>
<P>(B) Ability to plan and implement an appropriate response plan within the capabilities of available personnel and equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Ability to implement a response to favorably change the outcome of the incident in a manner consistent with the local emergency response plan and the organization's standard operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(D) Ability to evaluate the progress of the emergency response to ensure that the response objectives are being met safely, effectively, and efficiently.
</P>
<P>(E) Ability to adjust the response plan to the conditions of the response and to notify higher levels of response when required by the changes to the response plan.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 9317, Mar. 6, 1989, as amended at 55 FR 14073, Apr. 13, 1990; 56 FR 15832, Apr. 18, 1991; 59 FR 43270, Aug. 22, 1994; 61 FR 9238, Mar. 7, 1996; 67 FR 67964, Nov. 7, 2002; 71 FR 16672, Apr. 3, 2006; 76 FR 80738, Dec. 27, 2011; 77 FR 17776, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 9313, Feb. 8, 2013; 84 FR 21597, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.121" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.121   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="33" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Dipping and Coating Operations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 13909, Mar. 23, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.122" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.122   Table of contents.</HEAD>
<P>This section lists the paragraph headings contained in §§ 1910.123 through 1910.126.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD2>§ 1910.123 Dipping and coating operations: Coverage and definitions.
</HD2>
<P>(a) Does this rule apply to me?
</P>
<P>(b) What operations are covered?
</P>
<P>(c) What operations are not covered?
</P>
<P>(d) How are terms used in §§ 1910.123 through 1910.126 defined?
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.124 General requirements for dipping and coating operations.
</HD2>
<P>(a) What construction requirements apply to dip tanks?
</P>
<P>(b) What ventilation requirements apply to vapor areas?
</P>
<P>(c) What requirements must I follow to recirculate exhaust air into the workplace?
</P>
<P>(d) What must I do when I use an exhaust hood?
</P>
<P>(e) What requirements must I follow when an employee enters a dip tank?
</P>
<P>(f) What first-aid procedures must my employees know?
</P>
<P>(g) What hygiene facilities must I provide?
</P>
<P>(h) What treatment and first aid must I provide?
</P>
<P>(i) What must I do before an employee cleans a dip tank?
</P>
<P>(j) What must I do to inspect and maintain my dipping or coating operation?
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.125 Additional requirements for dipping and coating operations that use flammable or combustible liquids.
</HD2>
<P>(a) What type of construction material must be used in making my dip tank?
</P>
<P>(b) When must I provide overflow piping?
</P>
<P>(c) When must I provide a bottom drain?
</P>
<P>(d) When must my conveyer system shut down automatically?
</P>
<P>(e) What ignition and fuel sources must be controlled?
</P>
<P>(f) What fire protection must I provide?
</P>
<P>(g) To what temperature may I heat a liquid in a dip tank?
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.126 Additional requirements for special dipping and coating operations.
</HD2>
<P>(a) What additional requirements apply to hardening or tempering tanks?
</P>
<P>(b) What additional requirements apply to flow coating?
</P>
<P>(c) What additional requirements apply to roll coating, roll spreading, or roll impregnating?
</P>
<P>(d) What additional requirements apply to vapor degreasing tanks?
</P>
<P>(e) What additional requirements apply to cyanide tanks?
</P>
<P>(f) What additional requirements apply to spray cleaning tanks and spray degreasing tanks?
</P>
<P>(g) What additional requirements apply to electrostatic paint detearing?</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.123" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.123   Dipping and coating operations: Coverage and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Does this rule apply to me? (1) This rule (§§ 1910.123 through 1910.126) applies when you use a dip tank containing a liquid other than water. It applies when you use the liquid in the tank or its vapor to:
</P>
<P>(i) Clean an object;
</P>
<P>(ii) Coat an object;
</P>
<P>(iii) Alter the surface of an object; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Change the character of an object.
</P>
<P>(2) This rule also applies to the draining or drying of an object you have dipped or coated.
</P>
<P>(b) What operations are covered? Examples of covered operations are paint dipping, electroplating, pickling, quenching, tanning, degreasing, stripping, cleaning, roll coating, flow coating, and curtain coating.
</P>
<P>(c) What operations are not covered? You are not covered by this rule if your dip-tank operation only uses a molten material (a molten metal, alloy, or salt, for example).
</P>
<P>(d) How are terms used in §§ 1910.123 through 1910.126 defined?
</P>
<P><I>Adjacent area</I> means any area within 20 feet (6.1 m) of a vapor area that is not separated from the vapor area by tight partitions.
</P>
<P><I>Approved</I> means that the equipment so designated is listed or approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory, as defined by § 1910.7.
</P>
<P><I>Autoignition temperature</I> means the minimum temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion, independent of any other source of heat.
</P>
<P><I>Dip tank</I> means a container holding a liquid other than water and that is used for dipping or coating. An object may be immersed (or partially immersed) in a dip tank or it may be suspended in a vapor coming from the tank.
</P>
<P><I>Flammable liquid</I> means any liquid having a flashpoint at or below 199.4  °F (93 °C).
</P>
<P><I>Flashpoint</I> means the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off a vapor in sufficient concentration to ignite if tested in accordance with the test methods in Appendix B to § 1910.1200—Physical Hazard Criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Lower flammable limit (LFL)</I> means the lowest concentration of a material that will propagate a flame. The LFL is usually expressed as a percent by volume of the material in air (or other oxidant).
</P>
<P><I>Vapor area</I> means any space containing a dip tank, including its drain boards, associated drying or conveying equipment, and any surrounding area where the vapor concentration exceeds 25% of the LFL of the liquid in the tank.
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means the employer, as defined by the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 13909, Mar. 23, 1999, as amended at 77 FR 17777, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.124" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.124   General requirements for dipping and coating operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) What construction requirements apply to dip tanks? Any container that you use as a dip tank must be strong enough to withstand any expected load.
</P>
<P>(b) What ventilation requirements apply to vapor areas? (1) The ventilation that you provide to a vapor area must keep the airborne concentration of any substance below 25% of its LFL.
</P>
<P>(2) When a liquid in a dip tank creates an exposure hazard covered by a standard listed in subpart Z of this part, you must control worker exposure as required by that standard.
</P>
<P>(3) You may use a tank cover or material that floats on the surface of the liquid in a dip tank to replace or supplement ventilation. The method or combination of methods you choose must maintain the airborne concentration of the hazardous material and the worker's exposure within the limits specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) When you use mechanical ventilation, it must conform to the following standards that are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6:
</P>
<P>(i) ANSI Z9.2-1979, Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) NFPA 34-1995, Standard for Dip Tanks Containing Flammable or Combustible Liquids;
</P>
<P>(iii) ACGIH's “Industrial Ventilation: A Manual of Recommended Practice” (22nd ed., 1995); or
</P>
<P>(iv) ANSI Z9.1-1971, Practices for Ventilation and Operation of Open-Surface Tanks, and NFPA 34-1966, Standard for Dip Tanks Containing Flammable or Combustible Liquids.
</P>
<P>(5) When you use mechanical ventilation, it must draw the flow of air into a hood or exhaust duct.
</P>
<P>(6) When you use mechanical ventilation, each dip tank must have an independent exhaust system unless the combination of substances being removed will not cause a:
</P>
<P>(i) Fire;
</P>
<P>(ii) Explosion; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Chemical reaction.
</P>
<P>(c) What requirements must I follow to recirculate exhaust air into the workplace? (1) You may not recirculate exhaust air when any substance in that air poses a health hazard to employees or exceeds 25% of its LFL.
</P>
<P>(2) You must ensure that any exhaust air re-circulated from a dipping or coating operation using flammable liquids or liquids with flashpoints greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) is:
</P>
<P>(i) Free of any solid particulate that poses a health or safety hazard for employees; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitored by approved equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) You must have a system that sounds an alarm and automatically shuts down the operation when the vapor concentration for any substance in the exhaust airstream exceeds 25% of its LFL.
</P>
<P>(d) What must I do when I use an exhaust hood? You must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide each room having exhaust hoods with a volume of outside air that is at least 90 percent of the volume of the exhaust air; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the outside air supply does not damage exhaust hoods.
</P>
<P>(e) What requirements must I follow when an employee enters a dip tank? When an employee enters a dip tank, you must meet the entry requirements of § 1910.146, OSHA's standard for Permit-Required Confined Spaces, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) What first-aid procedures must my employees know? Your employees must know the first-aid procedures that are appropriate to the dipping or coating hazards to which they are exposed.
</P>
<P>(g) What hygiene facilities must I provide? When your employees work with liquids that may burn, irritate, or otherwise harm their skin, you must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) Locker space or other storage space to prevent contamination of the employee's street clothes;
</P>
<P>(2) An emergency shower and eye-wash station close to the dipping or coating operation. In place of this equipment, you may use a water hose that is at least 4 feet (1.22 m) long and at least 
<FR>3/4</FR> of an inch (18 mm) thick with a quick-opening valve and carrying a pressure of 25 pounds per square inch (1.62 k/cm
<SU>2</SU>) or less; and
</P>
<P>(3) At least one basin with a hot-water faucet for every 10 employees who work with such liquids. (See paragraph (d) of § 1910.141.)
</P>
<P>(h) What treatment and first aid must I provide? When your employees work with liquids that may burn, irritate, or otherwise harm their skin, you must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) A physician's approval before an employee with a sore, burn, or other skin lesion that requires medical treatment works in a vapor area;
</P>
<P>(2) Treatment by a properly designated person of any small skin abrasion, cut, rash, or open sore;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate first-aid supplies that are located near the dipping or coating operation; and
</P>
<P>(4) For employees who work with chromic acid, periodic examinations of their exposed body parts, especially their nostrils.
</P>
<P>(i) What must I do before an employee cleans a dip tank? Before permitting an employee to clean the interior of a dip tank, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Drain the contents of the tank and open the cleanout doors; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ventilate and clear any pockets where hazardous vapors may have accumulated.
</P>
<P>(j) What must I do to inspect and maintain my dipping or coating operation? You must:
</P>
<P>(1) Inspect the hoods and ductwork of the ventilation system for corrosion or damage:
</P>
<P>(i) At least quarterly during operation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to operation after a prolonged shutdown.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the airflow is adequate:
</P>
<P>(i) At least quarterly during operation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to operation after a prolonged shutdown.
</P>
<P>(3) Periodically inspect all dipping and coating equipment, including covers, drains, overflow piping, and electrical and fire-extinguishing systems, and promptly correct any deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide mechanical ventilation or respirators (selected and used as specified in § 1910.134, OSHA's Respiratory Protection standard) to protect employees in the vapor area from exposure to toxic substances released during welding, burning, or open-flame work; and
</P>
<P>(5) Have dip tanks thoroughly cleaned of solvents and vapors before permitting welding, burning, or open-flame work on them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 13909, Mar. 23, 1999, as amended at 77 FR 17777, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.125" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.125   Additional requirements for dipping and coating operations that use flammable liquids or liquids with flashpoints greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C).</HEAD>
<P>If you use flammable liquids, you must comply with the requirements of this section as well as the requirements of §§ 1910.123, 1910.124, and 1910.126, as applicable.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">You must also comply with this section if:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">And:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• The flashpoint of the liquid is 199.4 °F (93 °C) or above</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• The liquid is heated as part of the operation; or
<br/>• A heated object is placed in the liquid.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(a) What type of construction material must be used in making my dip tank? Your dip tank must be made of noncombustible material.
</P>
<P>(b) When must I provide overflow piping? (1) You must provide properly trapped overflow piping that discharges to a safe location for any dip tank having:
</P>
<P>(i) A capacity greater than 150 gallons (568 L); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A liquid surface area greater than 10 feet 
<SU>2</SU> (0.95 m
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P>(2) You must also ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any overflow piping is at least 3 inches (7.6 cm) in diameter and has sufficient capacity to prevent the dip tank from overflowing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Piping connections on drains and overflow pipes allow ready access to the interior of the pipe for inspection and cleaning; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The bottom of the overflow connection is at least 6 inches (15.2 cm) below the top of the dip tank.
</P>
<P>(c) When must I provide a bottom drain? (1) You must provide a bottom drain for dip tanks that contain more than 500 gallons (1893 L) of liquid, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The dip tank is equipped with an automatic closing cover meeting the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The viscosity of the liquid at normal atmospheric temperature does not allow the liquid to flow or be pumped easily.
</P>
<P>(2) You must ensure that the bottom drain required by this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Will empty the dip tank during a fire;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is properly trapped;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has pipes that permit the dip tank's contents to be removed within five minutes after a fire begins; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Discharges to a safe location.
</P>
<P>(3) Any bottom drain you provide must be capable of manual and automatic operation, and manual operation must be from a safe and accessible location.
</P>
<P>(4) You must ensure that automatic pumps are used when gravity flow from the bottom drain is impractical.
</P>
<P>(d) When must my conveyor system shut down automatically? If your conveyor system is used with a dip tank, the system must shut down automatically:
</P>
<P>(1) If there is a fire; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the ventilation rate drops below what is required by paragraph (b) of § 1910.124.
</P>
<P>(e) What ignition and fuel sources must be controlled? (1) In each vapor area and any adjacent area, you must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) All electrical wiring and equipment conform to the applicable hazardous (classified)-area requirements of subpart S of this part (except as specifically permitted in paragraph (g) of § 1910.126); and
</P>
<P>(ii) There are no flames, spark-producing devices, or other surfaces that are hot enough to ignite vapors.
</P>
<P>(2) You must ensure that any portable container used to add liquid to the tank is electrically bonded to the dip tank and positively grounded to prevent static electrical sparks or arcs.
</P>
<P>(3) You must ensure that a heating system that is used in a drying operation and could cause ignition:
</P>
<P>(i) Is installed in accordance with NFPA 86A-1969, Standard for Ovens and Furnaces (which is incorporated by reference in § 1910.6 of this part);
</P>
<P>(ii) Has adequate mechanical ventilation that operates before and during the drying operation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Shuts down automatically if any ventilating fan fails to maintain adequate ventilation.
</P>
<P>(4) You also must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) All vapor areas are free of combustible debris and as free as practicable of combustible stock;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rags and other material contaminated with liquids from dipping or coating operations are placed in approved waste cans immediately after use; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Waste can contents are properly disposed of at the end of each shift.
</P>
<P>(5) You must prohibit smoking in a vapor area and must post a readily visible “No Smoking” sign near each dip tank.
</P>
<P>(f) What fire protection must I provide? (1) You must provide the fire protection required by this paragraph (f) for:
</P>
<P>(i) Any dip tank having a capacity of at least 150 gallons (568 L) or a liquid surface area of at least 4 feet 
<SU>2</SU> (0.38 m 
<SU>1</SU>); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any hardening or tempering tank having a capacity of at least 500 gallons (1893 L) or a liquid surface area of at least 25 feet 
<SU>2</SU> (2.37 m 
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P>(2) For every vapor area, you must provide:
</P>
<P>(i) Manual fire extinguishers that are suitable for flammable and combustible liquid fires and that conform to the requirements of § 1910.157; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An automatic fire-extinguishing system that conforms to the requirements of subpart L of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) You may substitute a cover that is closed by an approved automatic device for the automatic fire-extinguishing system if the cover:
</P>
<P>(i) Can also be activated manually;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is noncombustible or tin-clad, with the enclosing metal applied with locked joints; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is kept closed when the dip tank is not in use.
</P>
<P>(g) To what temperature may I heat a liquid in a dip tank? You must maintain the temperature of the liquid in a dip tank:
</P>
<P>(1) Below the liquid's boiling point; and
</P>
<P>(2) At least 100 °F (37.8 °C) below the liquid's autoignition temperature.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 13909, Mar. 23, 1999, as amended at 77 FR 17777, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.126" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.8.33.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.126   Additional requirements for special dipping and coating operations.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements in §§ 1910.123 through 1910.125, you must comply with any requirement in this section that applies to your operation.
</P>
<P>(a) What additional requirements apply to hardening or tempering tanks?
</P>
<P>(1) You must ensure that hardening or tempering tanks:
</P>
<P>(i) Are located as far as practicable from furnaces;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are on noncombustible flooring; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Have noncombustible hoods and vents (or equivalent devices) for venting to the outside. For this purpose, vent ducts must be treated as flues and kept away from combustible materials, particularly roofs.
</P>
<P>(2) You must equip each tank with an alarm that will sound if the temperature of the liquid comes within 50 °F (10 °C) of its flashpoint (the alarm set point).
</P>
<P>(3) When practicable, you must also provide each tank with a limit switch to shut down the conveyor supplying work to the tank.
</P>
<P>(4) If the temperature of the liquid can exceed the alarm set point, you must equip the tank with a circulating cooling system.
</P>
<P>(5) If the tank has a bottom drain, the bottom drain may be combined with the oil-circulating system.
</P>
<P>(6) You must not use air under pressure when you fill the dip tank or agitate the liquid in the dip tank.
</P>
<P>(b) What additional requirements apply to flow coating? (1) You must use a direct low-pressure pumping system or a 10-gallon (38 L) or smaller gravity tank to supply the paint for flow coating. In case of fire, an approved heat-actuated device must shut down the pumping system.
</P>
<P>(2) You must ensure that the piping is substantial and rigidly supported.
</P>
<P>(c) What additional requirements apply to roll coating, roll spreading, or roll impregnating? When these operations use a flammable liquid that has a flashpoint below 140 °F (60 °C), you must prevent sparking of static electricity by:
</P>
<P>(1) Bonding and grounding all metallic parts (including rotating parts) and installing static collectors; or
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining a conductive atmosphere (for example, one with a high relative humidity) in the vapor area.
</P>
<P>(d) What additional requirements apply to vapor degreasing tanks? (1) You must ensure that the condenser or vapor-level thermostat keeps the vapor level at least 36 inches (91 cm) or one-half the tank width, whichever is less, below the top of the vapor degreasing tank.
</P>
<P>(2) When you use gas as a fuel to heat the tank liquid, you must prevent solvent vapors from entering the air-fuel mixture. To do this, you must make the combustion chamber airtight (except for the flue opening).
</P>
<P>(3) The flue must be made of corrosion-resistant material, and it must extend to the outside. You must install a draft diverter if mechanical exhaust is used on the flue.
</P>
<P>(4) You must not allow the temperature of the heating element to cause a solvent or mixture to decompose or to generate an excessive amount of vapor.
</P>
<P>(e) What additional requirements apply to cyanide tanks? You must ensure that cyanide tanks have a dike or other safeguard to prevent cyanide from mixing with an acid if a dip tank fails.
</P>
<P>(f) What additional requirements apply to spray cleaning tanks and spray degreasing tanks? If you spray a liquid in the air over an open-surface cleaning or degreasing tank, you must control the spraying to the extent feasible by:
</P>
<P>(1) Enclosing the spraying operation; and
</P>
<P>(2) Using mechanical ventilation to provide enough inward air velocity to prevent the spray from leaving the vapor area.
</P>
<P>(g) What additional requirements apply to electrostatic paint detearing? (1) You must use only approved electrostatic equipment in paint-detearing operations. Electrodes in such equipment must be substantial, rigidly supported, permanently located, and effectively insulated from ground by nonporous, noncombustible, clean, dry insulators.
</P>
<P>(2) You must use conveyors to support any goods being paint deteared.
</P>
<P>(3) You must ensure that goods being electrostatically deteared are not manually handled.
</P>
<P>(4) Between goods being electrostatically deteared and the electrodes or conductors of the electrostatic equipment, you must maintain a minimum distance of twice the sparking distance. This minimum distance must be displayed conspicuously on a sign located near the equipment.
</P>
<P>(5) You must ensure that the electrostatic equipment has automatic controls that immediately disconnect the power supply to the high-voltage transformer and signal the operator if:
</P>
<P>(i) Ventilation or the conveyors fail to operate;
</P>
<P>(ii) A ground (or imminent ground) occurs anywhere in the high-voltage system; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Goods being electrostatically deteared come within twice the sparking distance of the electrodes or conductors of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(6) You must use fences, rails, or guards, made of conducting material and adequately grounded, to separate paint-detearing operations from storage areas and from personnel.
</P>
<P>(7) To protect paint-detearing operations from fire, you must have in place:
</P>
<P>(i) Automatic sprinklers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An automatic fire-extinguishing system conforming to the requirements of subpart L of this part.
</P>
<P>(8) To collect paint deposits, you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide drip plates and screens; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Clean these plates and screens in a safe location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 13909, Mar. 23, 1999, as amended at 77 FR 17777, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Personal Protective Equipment</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable, and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.132" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.132   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> Protective equipment, including personal protective equipment for eyes, face, head, and extremities, protective clothing, respiratory devices, and protective shields and barriers, shall be provided, used, and maintained in a sanitary and reliable condition wherever it is necessary by reason of hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants encountered in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any part of the body through absorption, inhalation or physical contact.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employee-owned equipment.</I> Where employees provide their own protective equipment, the employer shall be responsible to assure its adequacy, including proper maintenance, and sanitation of such equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Design.</I> All personal protective equipment shall be of safe design and construction for the work to be performed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hazard assessment and equipment selection.</I> (1) The employer shall assess the workplace to determine if hazards are present, or are likely to be present, which necessitate the use of personal protective equipment (PPE). If such hazards are present, or likely to be present, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Select, and have each affected employee use, the types of PPE that will protect the affected employee from the hazards identified in the hazard assessment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Communicate selection decisions to each affected employee; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) Select PPE that properly fits each affected employee.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Non-mandatory appendix B contains an example of procedures that would comply with the requirement for a hazard assessment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The employer shall verify that the required workplace hazard assessment has been performed through a written certification that identifies the workplace evaluated; the person certifying that the evaluation has been performed; the date(s) of the hazard assessment; and, which identifies the document as a certification of hazard assessment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Defective and damaged equipment.</I> Defective or damaged personal protective equipment shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Training.</I> (1) The employer shall provide training to each employee who is required by this section to use PPE. Each such employee shall be trained to know at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) When PPE is necessary;
</P>
<P>(ii) What PPE is necessary;
</P>
<P>(iii) How to properly don, doff, adjust, and wear PPE;
</P>
<P>(iv) The limitations of the PPE; and,
</P>
<P>(v) The proper care, maintenance, useful life and disposal of the PPE.
</P>
<P>(2) Each affected employee shall demonstrate an understanding of the training specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and the ability to use PPE properly, before being allowed to perform work requiring the use of PPE.
</P>
<P>(3) When the employer has reason to believe that any affected employee who has already been trained does not have the understanding and skill required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the employer shall retrain each such employee. Circumstances where retraining is required include, but are not limited to, situations where:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes in the workplace render previous training obsolete; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in the types of PPE to be used render previous training obsolete; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Inadequacies in an affected employee's knowledge or use of assigned PPE indicate that the employee has not retained the requisite understanding or skill.
</P>
<P>(g) Paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section apply only to §§ 1910.133, 1910.135, 1910.136, 1910.138, and 1910.140. Paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section do not apply to §§ 1910.134 and 1910.137.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Payment for protective equipment.</I> (1) Except as provided by paragraphs (h)(2) through (h)(6) of this section, the protective equipment, including personal protective equipment (PPE), used to comply with this part, shall be provided by the employer at no cost to employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is not required to pay for non-specialty safety-toe protective footwear (including steel-toe shoes or steel-toe boots) and non-specialty prescription safety eyewear, provided that the employer permits such items to be worn off the job-site.
</P>
<P>(3) When the employer provides metatarsal guards and allows the employee, at his or her request, to use shoes or boots with built-in metatarsal protection, the employer is not required to reimburse the employee for the shoes or boots.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer is not required to pay for:
</P>
<P>(i) The logging boots required by 29 CFR 1910.266(d)(1)(v);
</P>
<P>(ii) Everyday clothing, such as long-sleeve shirts, long pants, street shoes, and normal work boots; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Ordinary clothing, skin creams, or other items, used solely for protection from weather, such as winter coats, jackets, gloves, parkas, rubber boots, hats, raincoats, ordinary sunglasses, and sunscreen.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer must pay for replacement PPE, except when the employee has lost or intentionally damaged the PPE.
</P>
<P>(6) Where an employee provides adequate protective equipment he or she owns pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the employer may allow the employee to use it and is not required to reimburse the employee for that equipment. The employer shall not require an employee to provide or pay for his or her own PPE, unless the PPE is excepted by paragraphs (h)(2) through (h)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) This paragraph (h) shall become effective on February 13, 2008. Employers must implement the PPE payment requirements no later than May 15, 2008.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1910.132(<E T="01">h</E>):</HED>
<P>When the provisions of another OSHA standard specify whether or not the employer must pay for specific equipment, the payment provisions of that standard shall prevail.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 59 FR 16334, Apr. 6, 1994; 59 FR 33910, July 1, 1994; 72 FR 64428, Nov. 15, 2007; 76 FR 33606, June 8, 2011; 81 FR 82999, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.133" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.133   Eye and face protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses appropriate eye or face protection when exposed to eye or face hazards from flying particles, molten metal, liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, or potentially injurious light radiation.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses eye protection that provides side protection when there is a hazard from flying objects. Detachable side protectors (e.g. clip-on or slide-on side shields) meeting the pertinent requirements of this section are acceptable.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee who wears prescription lenses while engaged in operations that involve eye hazards wears eye protection that incorporates the prescription in its design, or wears eye protection that can be worn over the prescription lenses without disturbing the proper position of the prescription lenses or the protective lenses.
</P>
<P>(4) Eye and face PPE shall be distinctly marked to facilitate identification of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses equipment with filter lenses that have a shade number appropriate for the work being performed for protection from injurious light radiation. The following is a listing of appropriate shade numbers for various operations.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Filter Lenses for Protection Against Radiant Energy
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Electrode Size 
<fr>1/32</fr> in.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arc Current
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum* Protective Shade
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shielded metal arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3-5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60-160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5-8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">160-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250-550</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas metal arc welding and flux cored arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">less than 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60-160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">160-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250-500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Tungsten arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">less than 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50-150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150-500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air carbon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Light)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">less than 500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arc cutting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Heavy)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500-1000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">less than 20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20-100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100-400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400-800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma arc cutting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(light)**</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">less than 300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(medium)**</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300-400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(heavy)**</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400-800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torch brazing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torch soldering</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Filter Lenses for Protection Against Radiant Energy
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Plate thickness—inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Plate thickness—mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum* Protective Shade
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Welding:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Light</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 1/8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Medium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/8 to 1/2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 to 12.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Heavy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 1/2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 12.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxygen cutting:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Light</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Medium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 to 150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Heavy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* As a rule of thumb, start with a shade that is too dark to see the weld zone. Then go to a lighter shade which gives sufficient view of the weld zone without going below the minimum. In oxyfuel gas welding or cutting where the torch produces a high yellow light, it is desirable to use a filter lens that absorbs the yellow or sodium line in the visible light of the (spectrum) operation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** These values apply where the actual arc is clearly seen. Experience has shown that lighter filters may be used when the arc is hidden by the workpiece.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for protective eye and face protection.</I> (1) Protective eye and face protection devices must comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1910.6;
</P>
<P>(ii) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1910.6; or
</P>
<P>(iii) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, incorporated by reference in § 1910.6;
</P>
<P>(2) Protective eye and face protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as protective eye and face protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 16360, Apr. 6, 1994; 59 FR 33911, July 1, 1994, as amended at 61 FR 9238, Mar. 7, 1996; 61 FR 19548, May 2, 1996; 74 FR 46356, Sept. 9, 2009; 81 FR 16090, Mar. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.134" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.134   Respiratory protection.</HEAD>
<P>This section applies to General Industry (part 1910), Shipyards (part 1915), Marine Terminals (part 1917), Longshoring (part 1918), and Construction (part 1926).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Permissible practice.</I> (1) In the control of those occupational diseases caused by breathing air contaminated with harmful dusts, fogs, fumes, mists, gases, smokes, sprays, or vapors, the primary objective shall be to prevent atmospheric contamination. This shall be accomplished as far as feasible by accepted engineering control measures (for example, enclosure or confinement of the operation, general and local ventilation, and substitution of less toxic materials). When effective engineering controls are not feasible, or while they are being instituted, appropriate respirators shall be used pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A respirator shall be provided to each employee when such equipment is necessary to protect the health of such employee. The employer shall provide the respirators which are applicable and suitable for the purpose intended. The employer shall be responsible for the establishment and maintenance of a respiratory protection program, which shall include the requirements outlined in paragraph (c) of this section. The program shall cover each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions are important terms used in the respiratory protection standard in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Air-purifying respirator</I> means a respirator with an air-purifying filter, cartridge, or canister that removes specific air contaminants by passing ambient air through the air-purifying element.
</P>
<P><I>Assigned protection factor (APF)</I> means the workplace level of respiratory protection that a respirator or class of respirators is expected to provide to employees when the employer implements a continuing, effective respiratory protection program as specified by this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Atmosphere-supplying respirator</I> means a respirator that supplies the respirator user with breathing air from a source independent of the ambient atmosphere, and includes supplied-air respirators (SARs) and self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) units.
</P>
<P><I>Canister or cartridge</I> means a container with a filter, sorbent, or catalyst, or combination of these items, which removes specific contaminants from the air passed through the container.
</P>
<P><I>Demand respirator</I> means an atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece only when a negative pressure is created inside the facepiece by inhalation.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency situation</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment that may or does result in an uncontrolled significant release of an airborne contaminant.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means exposure to a concentration of an airborne contaminant that would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protection.
</P>
<P><I>End-of-service-life indicator (ESLI)</I> means a system that warns the respirator user of the approach of the end of adequate respiratory protection, for example, that the sorbent is approaching saturation or is no longer effective.
</P>
<P><I>Escape-only respirator</I> means a respirator intended to be used only for emergency exit.
</P>
<P><I>Filter or air purifying element</I> means a component used in respirators to remove solid or liquid aerosols from the inspired air.
</P>
<P><I>Filtering facepiece</I> (dust mask) means a negative pressure particulate respirator with a filter as an integral part of the facepiece or with the entire facepiece composed of the filtering medium.
</P>
<P><I>Fit factor</I> means a quantitative estimate of the fit of a particular respirator to a specific individual, and typically estimates the ratio of the concentration of a substance in ambient air to its concentration inside the respirator when worn.
</P>
<P><I>Fit test</I> means the use of a protocol to qualitatively or quantitatively evaluate the fit of a respirator on an individual. (See also Qualitative fit test QLFT and Quantitative fit test QNFT.)
</P>
<P><I>Helmet</I> means a rigid respiratory inlet covering that also provides head protection against impact and penetration.
</P>
<P><I>High efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter</I> means a filter that is at least 99.97% efficient in removing monodisperse particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter. The equivalent NIOSH 42 CFR 84 particulate filters are the N100, R100, and P100 filters.
</P>
<P><I>Hood</I> means a respiratory inlet covering that completely covers the head and neck and may also cover portions of the shoulders and torso.
</P>
<P><I>Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)</I> means an atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere.
</P>
<P><I>Interior structural firefighting</I> means the physical activity of fire suppression, rescue or both, inside of buildings or enclosed structures which are involved in a fire situation beyond the incipient stage. (See 29 CFR 1910.155)
</P>
<P><I>Loose-fitting facepiece</I> means a respiratory inlet covering that is designed to form a partial seal with the face.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum use concentration (MUC)</I> means the maximum atmospheric concentration of a hazardous substance from which an employee can be expected to be protected when wearing a respirator, and is determined by the assigned protection factor of the respirator or class of respirators and the exposure limit of the hazardous substance. The MUC can be determined mathematically by multiplying the assigned protection factor specified for a respirator by the required OSHA permissible exposure limit, short-term exposure limit, or ceiling limit. When no OSHA exposure limit is available for a hazardous substance, an employer must determine an MUC on the basis of relevant available information and informed professional judgment. 
</P>
<P><I>Negative pressure respirator (tight fitting)</I> means a respirator in which the air pressure inside the facepiece is negative during inhalation with respect to the ambient air pressure outside the respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen deficient atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere with an oxygen content below 19.5% by volume.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional (PLHCP)</I> means an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.,</I> license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide, or be delegated the responsibility to provide, some or all of the health care services required by paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Positive pressure respirator</I> means a respirator in which the pressure inside the respiratory inlet covering exceeds the ambient air pressure outside the respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)</I> means an air-purifying respirator that uses a blower to force the ambient air through air-purifying elements to the inlet covering.
</P>
<P><I>Pressure demand respirator</I> means a positive pressure atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece when the positive pressure is reduced inside the facepiece by inhalation.
</P>
<P><I>Qualitative fit test (QLFT)</I> means a pass/fail fit test to assess the adequacy of respirator fit that relies on the individual's response to the test agent.
</P>
<P><I>Quantitative fit test (QNFT)</I> means an assessment of the adequacy of respirator fit by numerically measuring the amount of leakage into the respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Respiratory inlet covering</I> means that portion of a respirator that forms the protective barrier between the user's respiratory tract and an air-purifying device or breathing air source, or both. It may be a facepiece, helmet, hood, suit, or a mouthpiece respirator with nose clamp.
</P>
<P><I>Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)</I> means an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the breathing air source is designed to be carried by the user.
</P>
<P><I>Service life</I> means the period of time that a respirator, filter or sorbent, or other respiratory equipment provides adequate protection to the wearer.
</P>
<P><I>Supplied-air respirator (SAR) or airline respirator</I> means an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the source of breathing air is not designed to be carried by the user.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this respiratory protection standard.
</P>
<P><I>Tight-fitting facepiece</I> means a respiratory inlet covering that forms a complete seal with the face.
</P>
<P><I>User seal check</I> means an action conducted by the respirator user to determine if the respirator is properly seated to the face.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> This paragraph requires the employer to develop and implement a written respiratory protection program with required worksite-specific procedures and elements for required respirator use. The program must be administered by a suitably trained program administrator. In addition, certain program elements may be required for voluntary use to prevent potential hazards associated with the use of the respirator. The Small Entity Compliance Guide contains criteria for the selection of a program administrator and a sample program that meets the requirements of this paragraph. Copies of the Small Entity Compliance Guide will be available on or about April 8, 1998 from the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's Office of Publications, Room N 3101, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW, Washington, DC, 20210 (202-219-4667).
</P>
<P>(1) In any workplace where respirators are necessary to protect the health of the employee or whenever respirators are required by the employer, the employer shall establish and implement a written respiratory protection program with worksite-specific procedures. The program shall be updated as necessary to reflect those changes in workplace conditions that affect respirator use. The employer shall include in the program the following provisions of this section, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Procedures for selecting respirators for use in the workplace;
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical evaluations of employees required to use respirators;
</P>
<P>(iii) Fit testing procedures for tight-fitting respirators;
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures for proper use of respirators in routine and reasonably foreseeable emergency situations;
</P>
<P>(v) Procedures and schedules for cleaning, disinfecting, storing, inspecting, repairing, discarding, and otherwise maintaining respirators;
</P>
<P>(vi) Procedures to ensure adequate air quality, quantity, and flow of breathing air for atmosphere-supplying respirators;
</P>
<P>(vii) Training of employees in the respiratory hazards to which they are potentially exposed during routine and emergency situations;
</P>
<P>(viii) Training of employees in the proper use of respirators, including putting on and removing them, any limitations on their use, and their maintenance; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Procedures for regularly evaluating the effectiveness of the program.
</P>
<P>(2) Where respirator use is not required:
</P>
<P>(i) An employer may provide respirators at the request of employees or permit employees to use their own respirators, if the employer determines that such respirator use will not in itself create a hazard. If the employer determines that any voluntary respirator use is permissible, the employer shall provide the respirator users with the information contained in appendix D to this section (“Information for Employees Using Respirators When Not Required Under the Standard”); and
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, the employer must establish and implement those elements of a written respiratory protection program necessary to ensure that any employee using a respirator voluntarily is medically able to use that respirator, and that the respirator is cleaned, stored, and maintained so that its use does not present a health hazard to the user. Exception: Employers are not required to include in a written respiratory protection program those employees whose only use of respirators involves the voluntary use of filtering facepieces (dust masks).
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall designate a program administrator who is qualified by appropriate training or experience that is commensurate with the complexity of the program to administer or oversee the respiratory protection program and conduct the required evaluations of program effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall provide respirators, training, and medical evaluations at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Selection of respirators.</I> This paragraph requires the employer to evaluate respiratory hazard(s) in the workplace, identify relevant workplace and user factors, and base respirator selection on these factors. The paragraph also specifies appropriately protective respirators for use in IDLH atmospheres, and limits the selection and use of air-purifying respirators.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The employer shall select and provide an appropriate respirator based on the respiratory hazard(s) to which the worker is exposed and workplace and user factors that affect respirator performance and reliability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall select a NIOSH-certified respirator. The respirator shall be used in compliance with the conditions of its certification.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall identify and evaluate the respiratory hazard(s) in the workplace; this evaluation shall include a reasonable estimate of employee exposures to respiratory hazard(s) and an identification of the contaminant's chemical state and physical form. Where the employer cannot identify or reasonably estimate the employee exposure, the employer shall consider the atmosphere to be IDLH.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall select respirators from a sufficient number of respirator models and sizes so that the respirator is acceptable to, and correctly fits, the user.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirators for IDLH atmospheres.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the following respirators for employee use in IDLH atmospheres:
</P>
<P>(A) A full facepiece pressure demand SCBA certified by NIOSH for a minimum service life of thirty minutes, or
</P>
<P>(B) A combination full facepiece pressure demand supplied-air respirator (SAR) with auxiliary self-contained air supply.
</P>
<P>(ii) Respirators provided only for escape from IDLH atmospheres shall be NIOSH-certified for escape from the atmosphere in which they will be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) All oxygen-deficient atmospheres shall be considered IDLH. Exception: If the employer demonstrates that, under all foreseeable conditions, the oxygen concentration can be maintained within the ranges specified in Table II of this section (i.e., for the altitudes set out in the table), then any atmosphere-supplying respirator may be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirators for atmospheres that are not IDLH.</I> (i) The employer shall provide a respirator that is adequate to protect the health of the employee and ensure compliance with all other OSHA statutory and regulatory requirements, under routine and reasonably foreseeable emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Assigned Protection Factors (APFs).</I> Employers must use the assigned protection factors listed in Table 1 to select a respirator that meets or exceeds the required level of employee protection. When using a combination respirator (e.g., airline respirators with an air-purifying filter), employers must ensure that the assigned protection factor is appropriate to the mode of operation in which the respirator is being used. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Assigned Protection Factors 
<sup>5</sup> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of respirator 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quarter mask
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Half mask
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Full facepiece
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Helmet/hood
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loose-fitting facepiece
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Air-Purifying Respirator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Powered Air-Purifying Respirator (PAPR)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>4</sup> 25/1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Supplied-Air Respirator (SAR) or Airline Respirator 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">• Demand mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">• Continuous flow mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>4</sup> 25/1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">• Pressure-demand or other positive-pressure mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">• Demand mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">• Pressure-demand or other positive-pressure mode (e.g., open/closed circuit)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E> 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Employers may select respirators assigned for use in higher workplace concentrations of a hazardous substance for use at lower concentrations of that substance, or when required respirator use is independent of concentration. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The assigned protection factors in Table 1 are only effective when the employer implements a continuing, effective respirator program as required by this section (29 CFR 1910.134), including training, fit testing, maintenance, and use requirements. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> This APF category includes filtering facepieces, and half masks with elastomeric facepieces. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The employer must have evidence provided by the respirator manufacturer that testing of these respirators demonstrates performance at a level of protection of 1,000 or greater to receive an APF of 1,000. This level of performance can best be demonstrated by performing a WPF or SWPF study or equivalent testing. Absent such testing, all other PAPRs and SARs with helmets/hoods are to be treated as loose-fitting facepiece respirators, and receive an APF of 25. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> These APFs do not apply to respirators used solely for escape. For escape respirators used in association with specific substances covered by 29 CFR 1910 subpart Z, employers must refer to the appropriate substance-specific standards in that subpart. Escape respirators for other IDLH atmospheres are specified by 29 CFR 1910.134 (d)(2)(ii).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) <I>Maximum Use Concentration (MUC).</I> (<I>1</I>) The employer must select a respirator for employee use that maintains the employee's exposure to the hazardous substance, when measured outside the respirator, at or below the MUC.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Employers must not apply MUCs to conditions that are immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH); instead, they must use respirators listed for IDLH conditions in paragraph (d)(2) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) When the calculated MUC exceeds the IDLH level for a hazardous substance, or the performance limits of the cartridge or canister, then employers must set the maximum MUC at that lower limit. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The respirator selected shall be appropriate for the chemical state and physical form of the contaminant.
</P>
<P>(iii) For protection against gases and vapors, the employer shall provide:
</P>
<P>(A) An atmosphere-supplying respirator, or
</P>
<P>(B) An air-purifying respirator, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The respirator is equipped with an end-of-service-life indicator (ESLI) certified by NIOSH for the contaminant; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If there is no ESLI appropriate for conditions in the employer's workplace, the employer implements a change schedule for canisters and cartridges that is based on objective information or data that will ensure that canisters and cartridges are changed before the end of their service life. The employer shall describe in the respirator program the information and data relied upon and the basis for the canister and cartridge change schedule and the basis for reliance on the data.
</P>
<P>(iv) For protection against particulates, the employer shall provide:
</P>
<P>(A) An atmosphere-supplying respirator; or
</P>
<P>(B) An air-purifying respirator equipped with a filter certified by NIOSH under 30 CFR part 11 as a high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter, or an air-purifying respirator equipped with a filter certified for particulates by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84; or
</P>
<P>(C) For contaminants consisting primarily of particles with mass median aerodynamic diameters (MMAD) of at least 2 micrometers, an air-purifying respirator equipped with any filter certified for particulates by NIOSH.
</P>
<HD1>Table I—Assigned Protection Factors [Reserved]
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table II
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Altitude (ft.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oxygen deficient Atmospheres (% 0<E T="52">2</E>) for which the employer may rely on atmosphere-supplying respirators
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 3,001</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0-19.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,001-4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16.4-19.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,001-5,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">17.1-19.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,001-6,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">17.8-19.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6,001-7,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18.5-19.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,001-8,000 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">19.3-19.5.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Above 8,000 feet the exception does not apply. Oxygen-enriched breathing air must be supplied above 14,000 feet.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Medical evaluation.</I> Using a respirator may place a physiological burden on employees that varies with the type of respirator worn, the job and workplace conditions in which the respirator is used, and the medical status of the employee. Accordingly, this paragraph specifies the minimum requirements for medical evaluation that employers must implement to determine the employee's ability to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall provide a medical evaluation to determine the employee's ability to use a respirator, before the employee is fit tested or required to use the respirator in the workplace. The employer may discontinue an employee's medical evaluations when the employee is no longer required to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical evaluation procedures.</I> (i) The employer shall identify a physician or other licensed health care professional (PLHCP) to perform medical evaluations using a medical questionnaire or an initial medical examination that obtains the same information as the medical questionnaire.
</P>
<P>(ii) The medical evaluation shall obtain the information requested by the questionnaire in Sections 1 and 2, part A of appendix C of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Follow-up medical examination.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that a follow-up medical examination is provided for an employee who gives a positive response to any question among questions 1 through 8 in Section 2, part A of appendix C or whose initial medical examination demonstrates the need for a follow-up medical examination.
</P>
<P>(ii) The follow-up medical examination shall include any medical tests, consultations, or diagnostic procedures that the PLHCP deems necessary to make a final determination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Administration of the medical questionnaire and examinations.</I> (i) The medical questionnaire and examinations shall be administered confidentially during the employee's normal working hours or at a time and place convenient to the employee. The medical questionnaire shall be administered in a manner that ensures that the employee understands its content.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide the employee with an opportunity to discuss the questionnaire and examination results with the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Supplemental information for the PLHCP.</I> (i) The following information must be provided to the PLHCP before the PLHCP makes a recommendation concerning an employee's ability to use a respirator:
</P>
<P>(A) The type and weight of the respirator to be used by the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The duration and frequency of respirator use (including use for rescue and escape);
</P>
<P>(C) The expected physical work effort;
</P>
<P>(D) Additional protective clothing and equipment to be worn; and
</P>
<P>(E) Temperature and humidity extremes that may be encountered.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any supplemental information provided previously to the PLHCP regarding an employee need not be provided for a subsequent medical evaluation if the information and the PLHCP remain the same.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide the PLHCP with a copy of the written respiratory protection program and a copy of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(5)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>When the employer replaces a PLHCP, the employer must ensure that the new PLHCP obtains this information, either by providing the documents directly to the PLHCP or having the documents transferred from the former PLHCP to the new PLHCP. However, OSHA does not expect employers to have employees medically reevaluated solely because a new PLHCP has been selected.</P></NOTE>
<P>(6) <I>Medical determination.</I> In determining the employee's ability to use a respirator, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain a written recommendation regarding the employee's ability to use the respirator from the PLHCP. The recommendation shall provide only the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Any limitations on respirator use related to the medical condition of the employee, or relating to the workplace conditions in which the respirator will be used, including whether or not the employee is medically able to use the respirator;
</P>
<P>(B) The need, if any, for follow-up medical evaluations; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the PLHCP has provided the employee with a copy of the PLHCP's written recommendation.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the respirator is a negative pressure respirator and the PLHCP finds a medical condition that may place the employee's health at increased risk if the respirator is used, the employer shall provide a PAPR if the PLHCP's medical evaluation finds that the employee can use such a respirator; if a subsequent medical evaluation finds that the employee is medically able to use a negative pressure respirator, then the employer is no longer required to provide a PAPR.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Additional medical evaluations.</I> At a minimum, the employer shall provide additional medical evaluations that comply with the requirements of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) An employee reports medical signs or symptoms that are related to ability to use a respirator;
</P>
<P>(ii) A PLHCP, supervisor, or the respirator program administrator informs the employer that an employee needs to be reevaluated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information from the respiratory protection program, including observations made during fit testing and program evaluation, indicates a need for employee reevaluation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A change occurs in workplace conditions (e.g., physical work effort, protective clothing, temperature) that may result in a substantial increase in the physiological burden placed on an employee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fit testing.</I> This paragraph requires that, before an employee may be required to use any respirator with a negative or positive pressure tight-fitting facepiece, the employee must be fit tested with the same make, model, style, and size of respirator that will be used. This paragraph specifies the kinds of fit tests allowed, the procedures for conducting them, and how the results of the fit tests must be used.
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall ensure that employees using a tight-fitting facepiece respirator pass an appropriate qualitative fit test (QLFT) or quantitative fit test (QNFT) as stated in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that an employee using a tight-fitting facepiece respirator is fit tested prior to initial use of the respirator, whenever a different respirator facepiece (size, style, model or make) is used, and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall conduct an additional fit test whenever the employee reports, or the employer, PLHCP, supervisor, or program administrator makes visual observations of, changes in the employee's physical condition that could affect respirator fit. Such conditions include, but are not limited to, facial scarring, dental changes, cosmetic surgery, or an obvious change in body weight.
</P>
<P>(4) If after passing a QLFT or QNFT, the employee subsequently notifies the employer, program administrator, supervisor, or PLHCP that the fit of the respirator is unacceptable, the employee shall be given a reasonable opportunity to select a different respirator facepiece and to be retested.
</P>
<P>(5) The fit test shall be administered using an OSHA-accepted QLFT or QNFT protocol. The OSHA-accepted QLFT and QNFT protocols and procedures are contained in appendix A of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) QLFT may only be used to fit test negative pressure air-purifying respirators that must achieve a fit factor of 100 or less.
</P>
<P>(7) If the fit factor, as determined through an OSHA-accepted QNFT protocol, is equal to or greater than 100 for tight-fitting half facepieces, or equal to or greater than 500 for tight-fitting full facepieces, the QNFT has been passed with that respirator.
</P>
<P>(8) Fit testing of tight-fitting atmosphere-supplying respirators and tight-fitting powered air-purifying respirators shall be accomplished by performing quantitative or qualitative fit testing in the negative pressure mode, regardless of the mode of operation (negative or positive pressure) that is used for respiratory protection.
</P>
<P>(i) Qualitative fit testing of these respirators shall be accomplished by temporarily converting the respirator user's actual facepiece into a negative pressure respirator with appropriate filters, or by using an identical negative pressure air-purifying respirator facepiece with the same sealing surfaces as a surrogate for the atmosphere-supplying or powered air-purifying respirator facepiece.
</P>
<P>(ii) Quantitative fit testing of these respirators shall be accomplished by modifying the facepiece to allow sampling inside the facepiece in the breathing zone of the user, midway between the nose and mouth. This requirement shall be accomplished by installing a permanent sampling probe onto a surrogate facepiece, or by using a sampling adapter designed to temporarily provide a means of sampling air from inside the facepiece.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any modifications to the respirator facepiece for fit testing shall be completely removed, and the facepiece restored to NIOSH-approved configuration, before that facepiece can be used in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of respirators.</I> This paragraph requires employers to establish and implement procedures for the proper use of respirators. These requirements include prohibiting conditions that may result in facepiece seal leakage, preventing employees from removing respirators in hazardous environments, taking actions to ensure continued effective respirator operation throughout the work shift, and establishing procedures for the use of respirators in IDLH atmospheres or in interior structural firefighting situations.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Facepiece seal protection.</I> (i) The employer shall not permit respirators with tight-fitting facepieces to be worn by employees who have:
</P>
<P>(A) Facial hair that comes between the sealing surface of the facepiece and the face or that interferes with valve function; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any condition that interferes with the face-to-facepiece seal or valve function.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employee wears corrective glasses or goggles or other personal protective equipment, the employer shall ensure that such equipment is worn in a manner that does not interfere with the seal of the facepiece to the face of the user.
</P>
<P>(iii) For all tight-fitting respirators, the employer shall ensure that employees perform a user seal check each time they put on the respirator using the procedures in appendix B-1 or procedures recommended by the respirator manufacturer that the employer demonstrates are as effective as those in appendix B-1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Continuing respirator effectiveness.</I> (i) Appropriate surveillance shall be maintained of work area conditions and degree of employee exposure or stress. When there is a change in work area conditions or degree of employee exposure or stress that may affect respirator effectiveness, the employer shall reevaluate the continued effectiveness of the respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees leave the respirator use area:
</P>
<P>(A) To wash their faces and respirator facepieces as necessary to prevent eye or skin irritation associated with respirator use; or
</P>
<P>(B) If they detect vapor or gas breakthrough, changes in breathing resistance, or leakage of the facepiece; or
</P>
<P>(C) To replace the respirator or the filter, cartridge, or canister elements.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee detects vapor or gas breakthrough, changes in breathing resistance, or leakage of the facepiece, the employer must replace or repair the respirator before allowing the employee to return to the work area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures for IDLH atmospheres.</I> For all IDLH atmospheres, the employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) One employee or, when needed, more than one employee is located outside the IDLH atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(ii) Visual, voice, or signal line communication is maintained between the employee(s) in the IDLH atmosphere and the employee(s) located outside the IDLH atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee(s) located outside the IDLH atmosphere are trained and equipped to provide effective emergency rescue;
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer or designee is notified before the employee(s) located outside the IDLH atmosphere enter the IDLH atmosphere to provide emergency rescue;
</P>
<P>(v) The employer or designee authorized to do so by the employer, once notified, provides necessary assistance appropriate to the situation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Employee(s) located outside the IDLH atmospheres are equipped with:
</P>
<P>(A) Pressure demand or other positive pressure SCBAs, or a pressure demand or other positive pressure supplied-air respirator with auxiliary SCBA; and either
</P>
<P>(B) Appropriate retrieval equipment for removing the employee(s) who enter(s) these hazardous atmospheres where retrieval equipment would contribute to the rescue of the employee(s) and would not increase the overall risk resulting from entry; or
</P>
<P>(C) Equivalent means for rescue where retrieval equipment is not required under paragraph (g)(3)(vi)(B).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Procedures for interior structural firefighting.</I> In addition to the requirements set forth under paragraph (g)(3), in interior structural fires, the employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) At least two employees enter the IDLH atmosphere and remain in visual or voice contact with one another at all times;
</P>
<P>(ii) At least two employees are located outside the IDLH atmosphere; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All employees engaged in interior structural firefighting use SCBAs.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>):</HED>
<P>One of the two individuals located outside the IDLH atmosphere may be assigned to an additional role, such as incident commander in charge of the emergency or safety officer, so long as this individual is able to perform assistance or rescue activities without jeopardizing the safety or health of any firefighter working at the incident.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>):</HED>
<P>Nothing in this section is meant to preclude firefighters from performing emergency rescue activities before an entire team has assembled.</P></NOTE>
<P>(h) <I>Maintenance and care of respirators.</I> This paragraph requires the employer to provide for the cleaning and disinfecting, storage, inspection, and repair of respirators used by employees.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cleaning and disinfecting.</I> The employer shall provide each respirator user with a respirator that is clean, sanitary, and in good working order. The employer shall ensure that respirators are cleaned and disinfected using the procedures in appendix B-2 of this section, or procedures recommended by the respirator manufacturer, provided that such procedures are of equivalent effectiveness. The respirators shall be cleaned and disinfected at the following intervals:
</P>
<P>(i) Respirators issued for the exclusive use of an employee shall be cleaned and disinfected as often as necessary to be maintained in a sanitary condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Respirators issued to more than one employee shall be cleaned and disinfected before being worn by different individuals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Respirators maintained for emergency use shall be cleaned and disinfected after each use; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Respirators used in fit testing and training shall be cleaned and disinfected after each use.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Storage.</I> The employer shall ensure that respirators are stored as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) All respirators shall be stored to protect them from damage, contamination, dust, sunlight, extreme temperatures, excessive moisture, and damaging chemicals, and they shall be packed or stored to prevent deformation of the facepiece and exhalation valve.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (h)(2)(i) of this section, emergency respirators shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) Kept accessible to the work area;
</P>
<P>(B) Stored in compartments or in covers that are clearly marked as containing emergency respirators; and
</P>
<P>(C) Stored in accordance with any applicable manufacturer instructions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inspection.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that respirators are inspected as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) All respirators used in routine situations shall be inspected before each use and during cleaning;
</P>
<P>(B) All respirators maintained for use in emergency situations shall be inspected at least monthly and in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations, and shall be checked for proper function before and after each use; and
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency escape-only respirators shall be inspected before being carried into the workplace for use.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that respirator inspections include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A check of respirator function, tightness of connections, and the condition of the various parts including, but not limited to, the facepiece, head straps, valves, connecting tube, and cartridges, canisters or filters; and
</P>
<P>(B) A check of elastomeric parts for pliability and signs of deterioration.
</P>
<P>(iii) In addition to the requirements of paragraphs (h)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, self-contained breathing apparatus shall be inspected monthly. Air and oxygen cylinders shall be maintained in a fully charged state and shall be recharged when the pressure falls to 90% of the manufacturer's recommended pressure level. The employer shall determine that the regulator and warning devices function properly.
</P>
<P>(iv) For respirators maintained for emergency use, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Certify the respirator by documenting the date the inspection was performed, the name (or signature) of the person who made the inspection, the findings, required remedial action, and a serial number or other means of identifying the inspected respirator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provide this information on a tag or label that is attached to the storage compartment for the respirator, is kept with the respirator, or is included in inspection reports stored as paper or electronic files. This information shall be maintained until replaced following a subsequent certification.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Repairs.</I> The employer shall ensure that respirators that fail an inspection or are otherwise found to be defective are removed from service, and are discarded or repaired or adjusted in accordance with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) Repairs or adjustments to respirators are to be made only by persons appropriately trained to perform such operations and shall use only the respirator manufacturer's NIOSH-approved parts designed for the respirator;
</P>
<P>(ii) Repairs shall be made according to the manufacturer's recommendations and specifications for the type and extent of repairs to be performed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reducing and admission valves, regulators, and alarms shall be adjusted or repaired only by the manufacturer or a technician trained by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Breathing air quality and use.</I> This paragraph requires the employer to provide employees using atmosphere-supplying respirators (supplied-air and SCBA) with breathing gases of high purity.
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall ensure that compressed air, compressed oxygen, liquid air, and liquid oxygen used for respiration accords with the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) Compressed and liquid oxygen shall meet the United States Pharmacopoeia requirements for medical or breathing oxygen; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Compressed breathing air shall meet at least the requirements for Grade D breathing air described in ANSI/Compressed Gas Association Commodity Specification for Air, G-7.1-1989, to include:
</P>
<P>(A) Oxygen content (v/v) of 19.5-23.5%;
</P>
<P>(B) Hydrocarbon (condensed) content of 5 milligrams per cubic meter of air or less;
</P>
<P>(C) Carbon monoxide (CO) content of 10 ppm or less;
</P>
<P>(D) Carbon dioxide content of 1,000 ppm or less; and
</P>
<P>(E) Lack of noticeable odor.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that compressed oxygen is not used in atmosphere-supplying respirators that have previously used compressed air.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that oxygen concentrations greater than 23.5% are used only in equipment designed for oxygen service or distribution.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall ensure that cylinders used to supply breathing air to respirators meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Cylinders are tested and maintained as prescribed in the Shipping Container Specification Regulations of the Department of Transportation (49 CFR part 180);
</P>
<P>(ii) Cylinders of purchased breathing air have a certificate of analysis from the supplier that the breathing air meets the requirements for Grade D breathing air; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The moisture content in the cylinder does not exceed a dew point of −50 °F (−45.6 °C) at 1 atmosphere pressure.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure that compressors used to supply breathing air to respirators are constructed and situated so as to:
</P>
<P>(i) Prevent entry of contaminated air into the air-supply system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimize moisture content so that the dew point at 1 atmosphere pressure is 10 degrees F (5.56 °C) below the ambient temperature;
</P>
<P>(iii) Have suitable in-line air-purifying sorbent beds and filters to further ensure breathing air quality. Sorbent beds and filters shall be maintained and replaced or refurbished periodically following the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Have a tag containing the most recent change date and the signature of the person authorized by the employer to perform the change. The tag shall be maintained at the compressor.
</P>
<P>(6) For compressors that are not oil-lubricated, the employer shall ensure that carbon monoxide levels in the breathing air do not exceed 10 ppm.
</P>
<P>(7) For oil-lubricated compressors, the employer shall use a high-temperature or carbon monoxide alarm, or both, to monitor carbon monoxide levels. If only high-temperature alarms are used, the air supply shall be monitored at intervals sufficient to prevent carbon monoxide in the breathing air from exceeding 10 ppm.
</P>
<P>(8) The employer shall ensure that breathing air couplings are incompatible with outlets for nonrespirable worksite air or other gas systems. No asphyxiating substance shall be introduced into breathing air lines.
</P>
<P>(9) The employer shall use only the respirator manufacturer's NIOSH-approved breathing-gas containers, marked and maintained in accordance with the Quality Assurance provisions of the NIOSH approval for the SCBA as issued in accordance with the NIOSH respirator-certification standard at 42 CFR part 84.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Identification of filters, cartridges, and canisters.</I> The employer shall ensure that all filters, cartridges and canisters used in the workplace are labeled and color coded with the NIOSH approval label and that the label is not removed and remains legible.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Training and information.</I> This paragraph requires the employer to provide effective training to employees who are required to use respirators. The training must be comprehensive, understandable, and recur annually, and more often if necessary. This paragraph also requires the employer to provide the basic information on respirators in appendix D of this section to employees who wear respirators when not required by this section or by the employer to do so.
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall ensure that each employee can demonstrate knowledge of at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Why the respirator is necessary and how improper fit, usage, or maintenance can compromise the protective effect of the respirator;
</P>
<P>(ii) What the limitations and capabilities of the respirator are;
</P>
<P>(iii) How to use the respirator effectively in emergency situations, including situations in which the respirator malfunctions;
</P>
<P>(iv) How to inspect, put on and remove, use, and check the seals of the respirator;
</P>
<P>(v) What the procedures are for maintenance and storage of the respirator;
</P>
<P>(vi) How to recognize medical signs and symptoms that may limit or prevent the effective use of respirators; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The general requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The training shall be conducted in a manner that is understandable to the employee.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall provide the training prior to requiring the employee to use a respirator in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(4) An employer who is able to demonstrate that a new employee has received training within the last 12 months that addresses the elements specified in paragraph (k)(1)(i) through (vii) is not required to repeat such training provided that, as required by paragraph (k)(1), the employee can demonstrate knowledge of those element(s). Previous training not repeated initially by the employer must be provided no later than 12 months from the date of the previous training.
</P>
<P>(5) Retraining shall be administered annually, and when the following situations occur:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes in the workplace or the type of respirator render previous training obsolete;
</P>
<P>(ii) Inadequacies in the employee's knowledge or use of the respirator indicate that the employee has not retained the requisite understanding or skill; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other situation arises in which retraining appears necessary to ensure safe respirator use.
</P>
<P>(6) The basic advisory information on respirators, as presented in appendix D of this section, shall be provided by the employer in any written or oral format, to employees who wear respirators when such use is not required by this section or by the employer.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Program evaluation.</I> This section requires the employer to conduct evaluations of the workplace to ensure that the written respiratory protection program is being properly implemented, and to consult employees to ensure that they are using the respirators properly.
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall conduct evaluations of the workplace as necessary to ensure that the provisions of the current written program are being effectively implemented and that it continues to be effective.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall regularly consult employees required to use respirators to assess the employees' views on program effectiveness and to identify any problems. Any problems that are identified during this assessment shall be corrected. Factors to be assessed include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Respirator fit (including the ability to use the respirator without interfering with effective workplace performance);
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate respirator selection for the hazards to which the employee is exposed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Proper respirator use under the workplace conditions the employee encounters; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Proper respirator maintenance.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> This section requires the employer to establish and retain written information regarding medical evaluations, fit testing, and the respirator program. This information will facilitate employee involvement in the respirator program, assist the employer in auditing the adequacy of the program, and provide a record for compliance determinations by OSHA.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Medical evaluation.</I> Records of medical evaluations required by this section must be retained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fit testing.</I> (i) The employer shall establish a record of the qualitative and quantitative fit tests administered to an employee including:
</P>
<P>(A) The name or identification of the employee tested;
</P>
<P>(B) Type of fit test performed;
</P>
<P>(C) Specific make, model, style, and size of respirator tested;
</P>
<P>(D) Date of test; and
</P>
<P>(E) The pass/fail results for QLFTs or the fit factor and strip chart recording or other recording of the test results for QNFTs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fit test records shall be retained for respirator users until the next fit test is administered.
</P>
<P>(3) A written copy of the current respirator program shall be retained by the employer.
</P>
<P>(4) Written materials required to be retained under this paragraph shall be made available upon request to affected employees and to the Assistant Secretary or designee for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Effective date.</I> Paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(A) and (d)(3)(i)(B) of this section become effective November 22, 2006. 
</P>
<P>(o) Appendices. Compliance with appendix A, appendix B-1, appendix B-2, appendix C, and appendix D to this section are mandatory.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.134—Fit Testing Procedures (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD1>Part I. OSHA-Accepted Fit Test Protocols
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Fit Testing Procedures—General Requirements
</HD2>
<P>The employer shall conduct fit testing using the following procedures. The requirements in this appendix apply to all OSHA-accepted fit test methods, both QLFT and QNFT.
</P>
<P>1. The test subject shall be allowed to pick the most acceptable respirator from a sufficient number of respirator models and sizes so that the respirator is acceptable to, and correctly fits, the user.
</P>
<P>2. Prior to the selection process, the test subject shall be shown how to put on a respirator, how it should be positioned on the face, how to set strap tension and how to determine an acceptable fit. A mirror shall be available to assist the subject in evaluating the fit and positioning of the respirator. This instruction may not constitute the subject's formal training on respirator use, because it is only a review.
</P>
<P>3. The test subject shall be informed that he/she is being asked to select the respirator that provides the most acceptable fit. Each respirator represents a different size and shape, and if fitted and used properly, will provide adequate protection.
</P>
<P>4. The test subject shall be instructed to hold each chosen facepiece up to the face and eliminate those that obviously do not give an acceptable fit.
</P>
<P>5. The more acceptable facepieces are noted in case the one selected proves unacceptable; the most comfortable mask is donned and worn at least five minutes to assess comfort. Assistance in assessing comfort can be given by discussing the points in the following item A.6. If the test subject is not familiar with using a particular respirator, the test subject shall be directed to don the mask several times and to adjust the straps each time to become adept at setting proper tension on the straps.
</P>
<P>6. Assessment of comfort shall include a review of the following points with the test subject and allowing the test subject adequate time to determine the comfort of the respirator:
</P>
<P>(a) Position of the mask on the nose
</P>
<P>(b) Room for eye protection
</P>
<P>(c) Room to talk
</P>
<P>(d) Position of mask on face and cheeks
</P>
<P>7. The following criteria shall be used to help determine the adequacy of the respirator fit:
</P>
<P>(a) Chin properly placed;
</P>
<P>(b) Adequate strap tension, not overly tightened;
</P>
<P>(c) Fit across nose bridge;
</P>
<P>(d) Respirator of proper size to span distance from nose to chin;
</P>
<P>(e) Tendency of respirator to slip;
</P>
<P>(f) Self-observation in mirror to evaluate fit and respirator position.
</P>
<P>8. The test subject shall conduct a user seal check, either the negative and positive pressure seal checks described in appendix B-1 of this section or those recommended by the respirator manufacturer which provide equivalent protection to the procedures in appendix B-1. Before conducting the negative and positive pressure checks, the subject shall be told to seat the mask on the face by moving the head from side-to-side and up and down slowly while taking in a few slow deep breaths. Another facepiece shall be selected and retested if the test subject fails the user seal check tests.
</P>
<P>9. The test shall not be conducted if there is any hair growth between the skin and the facepiece sealing surface, such as stubble beard growth, beard, mustache or sideburns which cross the respirator sealing surface. Any type of apparel which interferes with a satisfactory fit shall be altered or removed.
</P>
<P>10. If a test subject exhibits difficulty in breathing during the tests, she or he shall be referred to a physician or other licensed health care professional, as appropriate, to determine whether the test subject can wear a respirator while performing her or his duties.
</P>
<P>11. If the employee finds the fit of the respirator unacceptable, the test subject shall be given the opportunity to select a different respirator and to be retested.
</P>
<P>12. Exercise regimen. Prior to the commencement of the fit test, the test subject shall be given a description of the fit test and the test subject's responsibilities during the test procedure. The description of the process shall include a description of the test exercises that the subject will be performing. The respirator to be tested shall be worn for at least 5 minutes before the start of the fit test.
</P>
<P>13. The fit test shall be performed while the test subject is wearing any applicable safety equipment that may be worn during actual respirator use which could interfere with respirator fit.
</P>
<P>14. Test Exercises. (a) Employers must perform the following test exercises for all fit testing methods prescribed in this appendix, except for the two modified ambient aerosol CNC quantitative fit testing protocols, the CNP quantitative fit testing protocol, and the CNP REDON quantitative fit testing protocol. For the modified ambient aerosol CNC quantitative fit testing protocols, employers shall ensure that the test subjects (<I>i.e.,</I> employees) perform the exercise procedure specified in Part I.C.4(b) of this appendix for full-facepiece and half-mask elastomeric respirators, or the exercise procedure specified in Part I.C.5(b) for filtering facepiece respirators. Employers shall ensure that the test subjects (<I>i.e.,</I> employees) perform the exercise procedure specified in Part I.C.6(b) of this appendix for the CNP quantitative fit testing protocol, or the exercise procedure described in Part I.C.7(b) of this appendix for the CNP REDON quantitative fit testing protocol. For the remaining fit testing methods, employers shall ensure that the test exercises are performed in the appropriate test environment in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Normal breathing. In a normal standing position, without talking, the subject shall breathe normally.
</P>
<P>(2) Deep breathing. In a normal standing position, the subject shall breathe slowly and deeply, taking caution so as not to hyperventilate.
</P>
<P>(3) Turning head side to side. Standing in place, the subject shall slowly turn his/her head from side to side between the extreme positions on each side. The head shall be held at each extreme momentarily so the subject can inhale at each side.
</P>
<P>(4) Moving head up and down. Standing in place, the subject shall slowly move his/her head up and down. The subject shall be instructed to inhale in the up position (i.e., when looking toward the ceiling).
</P>
<P>(5) Talking. The subject shall talk out loud slowly and loud enough so as to be heard clearly by the test conductor. The subject can read from a prepared text such as the Rainbow Passage, count backward from 100, or recite a memorized poem or song.
</P>
<HD2>Rainbow Passage
</HD2>
<P>When the sunlight strikes raindrops in the air, they act like a prism and form a rainbow. The rainbow is a division of white light into many beautiful colors. These take the shape of a long round arch, with its path high above, and its two ends apparently beyond the horizon. There is, according to legend, a boiling pot of gold at one end. People look, but no one ever finds it. When a man looks for something beyond reach, his friends say he is looking for the pot of gold at the end of the rainbow.
</P>
<P>(6) Grimace. The test subject shall grimace by smiling or frowning. (This applies only to QNFT testing; it is not performed for QLFT)
</P>
<P>(7) Bending over. The test subject shall bend at the waist as if he/she were to touch his/her toes. Jogging in place shall be substituted for this exercise in those test environments such as shroud type QNFT or QLFT units that do not permit bending over at the waist.
</P>
<P>(8) Normal breathing. Same as exercise (1).
</P>
<P>(b) Each test exercise shall be performed for one minute except for the grimace exercise which shall be performed for 15 seconds. The test subject shall be questioned by the test conductor regarding the comfort of the respirator upon completion of the protocol. If it has become unacceptable, another model of respirator shall be tried. The respirator shall not be adjusted once the fit test exercises begin. Any adjustment voids the test, and the fit test must be repeated.
</P>
<HD2>B. Qualitative Fit Test (QLFT) Protocols
</HD2>
<HD3>1. General
</HD3>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure that persons administering QLFT are able to prepare test solutions, calibrate equipment and perform tests properly, recognize invalid tests, and ensure that test equipment is in proper working order.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall ensure that QLFT equipment is kept clean and well maintained so as to operate within the parameters for which it was designed.
</P>
<HD3>2. Isoamyl Acetate Protocol
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This protocol is not appropriate to use for the fit testing of particulate respirators. If used to fit test particulate respirators, the respirator must be equipped with an organic vapor filter.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) Odor Threshold Screening
</P>
<P>Odor threshold screening, performed without wearing a respirator, is intended to determine if the individual tested can detect the odor of isoamyl acetate at low levels.
</P>
<P>(1) Three 1 liter glass jars with metal lids are required.
</P>
<P>(2) Odor-free water (e.g., distilled or spring water) at approximately 25 °C (77 °F) shall be used for the solutions.
</P>
<P>(3) The isoamyl acetate (IAA) (also known at isopentyl acetate) stock solution is prepared by adding 1 ml of pure IAA to 800 ml of odor-free water in a 1 liter jar, closing the lid and shaking for 30 seconds. A new solution shall be prepared at least weekly.
</P>
<P>(4) The screening test shall be conducted in a room separate from the room used for actual fit testing. The two rooms shall be well-ventilated to prevent the odor of IAA from becoming evident in the general room air where testing takes place.
</P>
<P>(5) The odor test solution is prepared in a second jar by placing 0.4 ml of the stock solution into 500 ml of odor-free water using a clean dropper or pipette. The solution shall be shaken for 30 seconds and allowed to stand for two to three minutes so that the IAA concentration above the liquid may reach equilibrium. This solution shall be used for only one day.
</P>
<P>(6) A test blank shall be prepared in a third jar by adding 500 cc of odor-free water.
</P>
<P>(7) The odor test and test blank jar lids shall be labeled (e.g., 1 and 2) for jar identification. Labels shall be placed on the lids so that they can be peeled off periodically and switched to maintain the integrity of the test.
</P>
<P>(8) The following instruction shall be typed on a card and placed on the table in front of the two test jars (i.e., 1 and 2): “The purpose of this test is to determine if you can smell banana oil at a low concentration. The two bottles in front of you contain water. One of these bottles also contains a small amount of banana oil. Be sure the covers are on tight, then shake each bottle for two seconds. Unscrew the lid of each bottle, one at a time, and sniff at the mouth of the bottle. Indicate to the test conductor which bottle contains banana oil.”
</P>
<P>(9) The mixtures used in the IAA odor detection test shall be prepared in an area separate from where the test is performed, in order to prevent olfactory fatigue in the subject.
</P>
<P>(10) If the test subject is unable to correctly identify the jar containing the odor test solution, the IAA qualitative fit test shall not be performed.
</P>
<P>(11) If the test subject correctly identifies the jar containing the odor test solution, the test subject may proceed to respirator selection and fit testing.
</P>
<P>(b) Isoamyl Acetate Fit Test
</P>
<P>(1) The fit test chamber shall be a clear 55-gallon drum liner suspended inverted over a 2-foot diameter frame so that the top of the chamber is about 6 inches above the test subject's head. If no drum liner is available, a similar chamber shall be constructed using plastic sheeting. The inside top center of the chamber shall have a small hook attached.
</P>
<P>(2) Each respirator used for the fitting and fit testing shall be equipped with organic vapor cartridges or offer protection against organic vapors.
</P>
<P>(3) After selecting, donning, and properly adjusting a respirator, the test subject shall wear it to the fit testing room. This room shall be separate from the room used for odor threshold screening and respirator selection, and shall be well-ventilated, as by an exhaust fan or lab hood, to prevent general room contamination.
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the test exercises and any prepared text from which the subject is to read shall be taped to the inside of the test chamber.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon entering the test chamber, the test subject shall be given a 6-inch by 5-inch piece of paper towel, or other porous, absorbent, single-ply material, folded in half and wetted with 0.75 ml of pure IAA. The test subject shall hang the wet towel on the hook at the top of the chamber. An IAA test swab or ampule may be substituted for the IAA wetted paper towel provided it has been demonstrated that the alternative IAA source will generate an IAA test atmosphere with a concentration equivalent to that generated by the paper towel method.
</P>
<P>(6) Allow two minutes for the IAA test concentration to stabilize before starting the fit test exercises. This would be an appropriate time to talk with the test subject; to explain the fit test, the importance of his/her cooperation, and the purpose for the test exercises; or to demonstrate some of the exercises.
</P>
<P>(7) If at any time during the test, the subject detects the banana-like odor of IAA, the test is failed. The subject shall quickly exit from the test chamber and leave the test area to avoid olfactory fatigue.
</P>
<P>(8) If the test is failed, the subject shall return to the selection room and remove the respirator. The test subject shall repeat the odor sensitivity test, select and put on another respirator, return to the test area and again begin the fit test procedure described in (b) (1) through (7) above. The process continues until a respirator that fits well has been found. Should the odor sensitivity test be failed, the subject shall wait at least 5 minutes before retesting. Odor sensitivity will usually have returned by this time.
</P>
<P>(9) If the subject passes the test, the efficiency of the test procedure shall be demonstrated by having the subject break the respirator face seal and take a breath before exiting the chamber.
</P>
<P>(10) When the test subject leaves the chamber, the subject shall remove the saturated towel and return it to the person conducting the test, so that there is no significant IAA concentration buildup in the chamber during subsequent tests. The used towels shall be kept in a self-sealing plastic bag to keep the test area from being contaminated.
</P>
<HD3>3. Saccharin Solution Aerosol Protocol
</HD3>
<P>The entire screening and testing procedure shall be explained to the test subject prior to the conduct of the screening test.
</P>
<P>(a) Taste threshold screening. The saccharin taste threshold screening, performed without wearing a respirator, is intended to determine whether the individual being tested can detect the taste of saccharin.
</P>
<P>(1) During threshold screening as well as during fit testing, subjects shall wear an enclosure about the head and shoulders that is approximately 12 inches in diameter by 14 inches tall with at least the front portion clear and that allows free movements of the head when a respirator is worn. An enclosure substantially similar to the 3M hood assembly, parts # FT 14 and # FT 15 combined, is adequate.
</P>
<P>(2) The test enclosure shall have a 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch (1.9 cm) hole in front of the test subject's nose and mouth area to accommodate the nebulizer nozzle.
</P>
<P>(3) The test subject shall don the test enclosure. Throughout the threshold screening test, the test subject shall breathe through his/her slightly open mouth with tongue extended. The subject is instructed to report when he/she detects a sweet taste.
</P>
<P>(4) Using a DeVilbiss Model 40 Inhalation Medication Nebulizer or equivalent, the test conductor shall spray the threshold check solution into the enclosure. The nozzle is directed away from the nose and mouth of the person. This nebulizer shall be clearly marked to distinguish it from the fit test solution nebulizer.
</P>
<P>(5) The threshold check solution is prepared by dissolving 0.83 gram of sodium saccharin USP in 100 ml of warm water. It can be prepared by putting 1 ml of the fit test solution (see (b)(5) below) in 100 ml of distilled water.
</P>
<P>(6) To produce the aerosol, the nebulizer bulb is firmly squeezed so that it collapses completely, then released and allowed to fully expand.
</P>
<P>(7) Ten squeezes are repeated rapidly and then the test subject is asked whether the saccharin can be tasted. If the test subject reports tasting the sweet taste during the ten squeezes, the screening test is completed. The taste threshold is noted as ten regardless of the number of squeezes actually completed.
</P>
<P>(8) If the first response is negative, ten more squeezes are repeated rapidly and the test subject is again asked whether the saccharin is tasted. If the test subject reports tasting the sweet taste during the second ten squeezes, the screening test is completed. The taste threshold is noted as twenty regardless of the number of squeezes actually completed.
</P>
<P>(9) If the second response is negative, ten more squeezes are repeated rapidly and the test subject is again asked whether the saccharin is tasted. If the test subject reports tasting the sweet taste during the third set of ten squeezes, the screening test is completed. The taste threshold is noted as thirty regardless of the number of squeezes actually completed.
</P>
<P>(10) The test conductor will take note of the number of squeezes required to solicit a taste response.
</P>
<P>(11) If the saccharin is not tasted after 30 squeezes (step 10), the test subject is unable to taste saccharin and may not perform the saccharin fit test.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph 3(<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>If the test subject eats or drinks something sweet before the screening test, he/she may be unable to taste the weak saccharin solution.</P></NOTE>
<P>(12) If a taste response is elicited, the test subject shall be asked to take note of the taste for reference in the fit test.
</P>
<P>(13) Correct use of the nebulizer means that approximately 1 ml of liquid is used at a time in the nebulizer body.
</P>
<P>(14) The nebulizer shall be thoroughly rinsed in water, shaken dry, and refilled at least each morning and afternoon or at least every four hours.
</P>
<P>(b) Saccharin solution aerosol fit test procedure.
</P>
<P>(1) The test subject may not eat, drink (except plain water), smoke, or chew gum for 15 minutes before the test.
</P>
<P>(2) The fit test uses the same enclosure described in 3. (a) above.
</P>
<P>(3) The test subject shall don the enclosure while wearing the respirator selected in section I. A. of this appendix. The respirator shall be properly adjusted and equipped with a particulate filter(s).
</P>
<P>(4) A second DeVilbiss Model 40 Inhalation Medication Nebulizer or equivalent is used to spray the fit test solution into the enclosure. This nebulizer shall be clearly marked to distinguish it from the screening test solution nebulizer.
</P>
<P>(5) The fit test solution is prepared by adding 83 grams of sodium saccharin to 100 ml of warm water.
</P>
<P>(6) As before, the test subject shall breathe through the slightly open mouth with tongue extended, and report if he/she tastes the sweet taste of saccharin.
</P>
<P>(7) The nebulizer is inserted into the hole in the front of the enclosure and an initial concentration of saccharin fit test solution is sprayed into the enclosure using the same number of squeezes (either 10, 20 or 30 squeezes) based on the number of squeezes required to elicit a taste response as noted during the screening test. A minimum of 10 squeezes is required.
</P>
<P>(8) After generating the aerosol, the test subject shall be instructed to perform the exercises in section I. A. 14. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(9) Every 30 seconds the aerosol concentration shall be replenished using one half the original number of squeezes used initially (e.g., 5, 10 or 15).
</P>
<P>(10) The test subject shall indicate to the test conductor if at any time during the fit test the taste of saccharin is detected. If the test subject does not report tasting the saccharin, the test is passed.
</P>
<P>(11) If the taste of saccharin is detected, the fit is deemed unsatisfactory and the test is failed. A different respirator shall be tried and the entire test procedure is repeated (taste threshold screening and fit testing).
</P>
<P>(12) Since the nebulizer has a tendency to clog during use, the test operator must make periodic checks of the nebulizer to ensure that it is not clogged. If clogging is found at the end of the test session, the test is invalid.
</P>
<HD3>4. Bitrex 
<SU>TM</SU> (Denatonium Benzoate) Solution Aerosol Qualitative Fit Test Protocol
</HD3>
<P>The Bitrex 
<SU>TM</SU> (Denatonium benzoate) solution aerosol QLFT protocol uses the published saccharin test protocol because that protocol is widely accepted. Bitrex is routinely used as a taste aversion agent in household liquids which children should not be drinking and is endorsed by the American Medical Association, the National Safety Council, and the American Association of Poison Control Centers. The entire screening and testing procedure shall be explained to the test subject prior to the conduct of the screening test.
</P>
<P>(a) Taste Threshold Screening.
</P>
<P>The Bitrex taste threshold screening, performed without wearing a respirator, is intended to determine whether the individual being tested can detect the taste of Bitrex.
</P>
<P>(1) During threshold screening as well as during fit testing, subjects shall wear an enclosure about the head and shoulders that is approximately 12 inches (30.5 cm) in diameter by 14 inches (35.6 cm) tall. The front portion of the enclosure shall be clear from the respirator and allow free movement of the head when a respirator is worn. An enclosure substantially similar to the 3M hood assembly, parts # FT 14 and # FT 15 combined, is adequate.
</P>
<P>(2) The test enclosure shall have a 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch (1.9 cm) hole in front of the test subject's nose and mouth area to accommodate the nebulizer nozzle.
</P>
<P>(3) The test subject shall don the test enclosure. Throughout the threshold screening test, the test subject shall breathe through his or her slightly open mouth with tongue extended. The subject is instructed to report when he/she detects a bitter taste.
</P>
<P>(4) Using a DeVilbiss Model 40 Inhalation Medication Nebulizer or equivalent, the test conductor shall spray the Threshold Check Solution into the enclosure. This Nebulizer shall be clearly marked to distinguish it from the fit test solution nebulizer.
</P>
<P>(5) The Threshold Check Solution is prepared by adding 13.5 milligrams of Bitrex to 100 ml of 5% salt (NaCl) solution in distilled water.
</P>
<P>(6) To produce the aerosol, the nebulizer bulb is firmly squeezed so that the bulb collapses completely, and is then released and allowed to fully expand.
</P>
<P>(7) An initial ten squeezes are repeated rapidly and then the test subject is asked whether the Bitrex can be tasted. If the test subject reports tasting the bitter taste during the ten squeezes, the screening test is completed. The taste threshold is noted as ten regardless of the number of squeezes actually completed.
</P>
<P>(8) If the first response is negative, ten more squeezes are repeated rapidly and the test subject is again asked whether the Bitrex is tasted. If the test subject reports tasting the bitter taste during the second ten squeezes, the screening test is completed. The taste threshold is noted as twenty regardless of the number of squeezes actually completed.
</P>
<P>(9) If the second response is negative, ten more squeezes are repeated rapidly and the test subject is again asked whether the Bitrex is tasted. If the test subject reports tasting the bitter taste during the third set of ten squeezes, the screening test is completed. The taste threshold is noted as thirty regardless of the number of squeezes actually completed.
</P>
<P>(10) The test conductor will take note of the number of squeezes required to solicit a taste response.
</P>
<P>(11) If the Bitrex is not tasted after 30 squeezes (step 10), the test subject is unable to taste Bitrex and may not perform the Bitrex fit test.
</P>
<P>(12) If a taste response is elicited, the test subject shall be asked to take note of the taste for reference in the fit test.
</P>
<P>(13) Correct use of the nebulizer means that approximately 1 ml of liquid is used at a time in the nebulizer body.
</P>
<P>(14) The nebulizer shall be thoroughly rinsed in water, shaken to dry, and refilled at least each morning and afternoon or at least every four hours.
</P>
<P>(b) Bitrex Solution Aerosol Fit Test Procedure.
</P>
<P>(1) The test subject may not eat, drink (except plain water), smoke, or chew gum for 15 minutes before the test.
</P>
<P>(2) The fit test uses the same enclosure as that described in 4. (a) above.
</P>
<P>(3) The test subject shall don the enclosure while wearing the respirator selected according to section I. A. of this appendix. The respirator shall be properly adjusted and equipped with any type particulate filter(s).
</P>
<P>(4) A second DeVilbiss Model 40 Inhalation Medication Nebulizer or equivalent is used to spray the fit test solution into the enclosure. This nebulizer shall be clearly marked to distinguish it from the screening test solution nebulizer.
</P>
<P>(5) The fit test solution is prepared by adding 337.5 mg of Bitrex to 200 ml of a 5% salt (NaCl) solution in warm water.
</P>
<P>(6) As before, the test subject shall breathe through his or her slightly open mouth with tongue extended, and be instructed to report if he/she tastes the bitter taste of Bitrex.
</P>
<P>(7) The nebulizer is inserted into the hole in the front of the enclosure and an initial concentration of the fit test solution is sprayed into the enclosure using the same number of squeezes (either 10, 20 or 30 squeezes) based on the number of squeezes required to elicit a taste response as noted during the screening test.
</P>
<P>(8) After generating the aerosol, the test subject shall be instructed to perform the exercises in section I. A. 14. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(9) Every 30 seconds the aerosol concentration shall be replenished using one half the number of squeezes used initially (e.g., 5, 10 or 15).
</P>
<P>(10) The test subject shall indicate to the test conductor if at any time during the fit test the taste of Bitrex is detected. If the test subject does not report tasting the Bitrex, the test is passed.
</P>
<P>(11) If the taste of Bitrex is detected, the fit is deemed unsatisfactory and the test is failed. A different respirator shall be tried and the entire test procedure is repeated (taste threshold screening and fit testing).
</P>
<HD3>5. Irritant Smoke (Stannic Chloride) Protocol
</HD3>
<P>This qualitative fit test uses a person's response to the irritating chemicals released in the “smoke” produced by a stannic chloride ventilation smoke tube to detect leakage into the respirator.
</P>
<P>(a) General Requirements and Precautions
</P>
<P>(1) The respirator to be tested shall be equipped with high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) or P100 series filter(s).
</P>
<P>(2) Only stannic chloride smoke tubes shall be used for this protocol.
</P>
<P>(3) No form of test enclosure or hood for the test subject shall be used.
</P>
<P>(4) The smoke can be irritating to the eyes, lungs, and nasal passages. The test conductor shall take precautions to minimize the test subject's exposure to irritant smoke. Sensitivity varies, and certain individuals may respond to a greater degree to irritant smoke. Care shall be taken when performing the sensitivity screening checks that determine whether the test subject can detect irritant smoke to use only the minimum amount of smoke necessary to elicit a response from the test subject.
</P>
<P>(5) The fit test shall be performed in an area with adequate ventilation to prevent exposure of the person conducting the fit test or the build-up of irritant smoke in the general atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(b) Sensitivity Screening Check
</P>
<P>The person to be tested must demonstrate his or her ability to detect a weak concentration of the irritant smoke.
</P>
<P>(1) The test operator shall break both ends of a ventilation smoke tube containing stannic chloride, and attach one end of the smoke tube to a low flow air pump set to deliver 200 milliliters per minute, or an aspirator squeeze bulb. The test operator shall cover the other end of the smoke tube with a short piece of tubing to prevent potential injury from the jagged end of the smoke tube.
</P>
<P>(2) The test operator shall advise the test subject that the smoke can be irritating to the eyes, lungs, and nasal passages and instruct the subject to keep his/her eyes closed while the test is performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The test subject shall be allowed to smell a weak concentration of the irritant smoke before the respirator is donned to become familiar with its irritating properties and to determine if he/she can detect the irritating properties of the smoke. The test operator shall carefully direct a small amount of the irritant smoke in the test subject's direction to determine that he/she can detect it.
</P>
<P>(c) Irritant Smoke Fit Test Procedure
</P>
<P>(1) The person being fit tested shall don the respirator without assistance, and perform the required user seal check(s).
</P>
<P>(2) The test subject shall be instructed to keep his/her eyes closed.
</P>
<P>(3) The test operator shall direct the stream of irritant smoke from the smoke tube toward the faceseal area of the test subject, using the low flow pump or the squeeze bulb. The test operator shall begin at least 12 inches from the facepiece and move the smoke stream around the whole perimeter of the mask. The operator shall gradually make two more passes around the perimeter of the mask, moving to within six inches of the respirator.
</P>
<P>(4) If the person being tested has not had an involuntary response and/or detected the irritant smoke, proceed with the test exercises.
</P>
<P>(5) The exercises identified in section I.A. 14. of this appendix shall be performed by the test subject while the respirator seal is being continually challenged by the smoke, directed around the perimeter of the respirator at a distance of six inches.
</P>
<P>(6) If the person being fit tested reports detecting the irritant smoke at any time, the test is failed. The person being retested must repeat the entire sensitivity check and fit test procedure.
</P>
<P>(7) Each test subject passing the irritant smoke test without evidence of a response (involuntary cough, irritation) shall be given a second sensitivity screening check, with the smoke from the same smoke tube used during the fit test, once the respirator has been removed, to determine whether he/she still reacts to the smoke. Failure to evoke a response shall void the fit test.
</P>
<P>(8) If a response is produced during this second sensitivity check, then the fit test is passed.
</P>
<HD2>C. Quantitative Fit Test (QNFT) Protocols
</HD2>
<P>The following quantitative fit testing procedures have been demonstrated to be acceptable: Quantitative fit testing using a non-hazardous test aerosol (such as corn oil, polyethylene glycol 400 [PEG 400], di-2-ethyl hexyl sebacate [DEHS], or sodium chloride) generated in a test chamber, and employing instrumentation to quantify the fit of the respirator; Quantitative fit testing using ambient aerosol as the test agent and appropriate instrumentation (condensation nuclei counter) to quantify the respirator fit; Quantitative fit testing using controlled negative pressure and appropriate instrumentation to measure the volumetric leak rate of a facepiece to quantify the respirator fit.
</P>
<HD3>1. General
</HD3>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure that persons administering QNFT are able to calibrate equipment and perform tests properly, recognize invalid tests, calculate fit factors properly and ensure that test equipment is in proper working order.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall ensure that QNFT equipment is kept clean, and is maintained and calibrated according to the manufacturer's instructions so as to operate at the parameters for which it was designed.
</P>
<HD3>2. Generated Aerosol Quantitative Fit Testing Protocol
</HD3>
<P>(a) Apparatus.
</P>
<P>(1) Instrumentation. Aerosol generation, dilution, and measurement systems using particulates (corn oil, polyethylene glycol 400 [PEG 400], di-2-ethyl hexyl sebacate [DEHS] or sodium chloride) as test aerosols shall be used for quantitative fit testing.
</P>
<P>(2) Test chamber. The test chamber shall be large enough to permit all test subjects to perform freely all required exercises without disturbing the test agent concentration or the measurement apparatus. The test chamber shall be equipped and constructed so that the test agent is effectively isolated from the ambient air, yet uniform in concentration throughout the chamber.
</P>
<P>(3) When testing air-purifying respirators, the normal filter or cartridge element shall be replaced with a high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) or P100 series filter supplied by the same manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(4) The sampling instrument shall be selected so that a computer record or strip chart record may be made of the test showing the rise and fall of the test agent concentration with each inspiration and expiration at fit factors of at least 2,000. Integrators or computers that integrate the amount of test agent penetration leakage into the respirator for each exercise may be used provided a record of the readings is made.
</P>
<P>(5) The combination of substitute air-purifying elements, test agent and test agent concentration shall be such that the test subject is not exposed in excess of an established exposure limit for the test agent at any time during the testing process, based upon the length of the exposure and the exposure limit duration.
</P>
<P>(6) The sampling port on the test specimen respirator shall be placed and constructed so that no leakage occurs around the port (e.g., where the respirator is probed), a free air flow is allowed into the sampling line at all times, and there is no interference with the fit or performance of the respirator. The in-mask sampling device (probe) shall be designed and used so that the air sample is drawn from the breathing zone of the test subject, midway between the nose and mouth and with the probe extending into the facepiece cavity at least 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch.
</P>
<P>(7) The test setup shall permit the person administering the test to observe the test subject inside the chamber during the test.
</P>
<P>(8) The equipment generating the test atmosphere shall maintain the concentration of test agent constant to within a 10 percent variation for the duration of the test.
</P>
<P>(9) The time lag (interval between an event and the recording of the event on the strip chart or computer or integrator) shall be kept to a minimum. There shall be a clear association between the occurrence of an event and its being recorded.
</P>
<P>(10) The sampling line tubing for the test chamber atmosphere and for the respirator sampling port shall be of equal diameter and of the same material. The length of the two lines shall be equal.
</P>
<P>(11) The exhaust flow from the test chamber shall pass through an appropriate filter (i.e., high efficiency particulate filter) before release.
</P>
<P>(12) When sodium chloride aerosol is used, the relative humidity inside the test chamber shall not exceed 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(13) The limitations of instrument detection shall be taken into account when determining the fit factor.
</P>
<P>(14) Test respirators shall be maintained in proper working order and be inspected regularly for deficiencies such as cracks or missing valves and gaskets.
</P>
<P>(b) Procedural Requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) When performing the initial user seal check using a positive or negative pressure check, the sampling line shall be crimped closed in order to avoid air pressure leakage during either of these pressure checks.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of an abbreviated screening QLFT test is optional. Such a test may be utilized in order to quickly identify poor fitting respirators that passed the positive and/or negative pressure test and reduce the amount of QNFT time. The use of the CNC QNFT instrument in the count mode is another optional method to obtain a quick estimate of fit and eliminate poor fitting respirators before going on to perform a full QNFT.
</P>
<P>(3) A reasonably stable test agent concentration shall be measured in the test chamber prior to testing. For canopy or shower curtain types of test units, the determination of the test agent's stability may be established after the test subject has entered the test environment.
</P>
<P>(4) Immediately after the subject enters the test chamber, the test agent concentration inside the respirator shall be measured to ensure that the peak penetration does not exceed 5 percent for a half mask or 1 percent for a full facepiece respirator.
</P>
<P>(5) A stable test agent concentration shall be obtained prior to the actual start of testing.
</P>
<P>(6) Respirator restraining straps shall not be over-tightened for testing. The straps shall be adjusted by the wearer without assistance from other persons to give a reasonably comfortable fit typical of normal use. The respirator shall not be adjusted once the fit test exercises begin.
</P>
<P>(7) The test shall be terminated whenever any single peak penetration exceeds 5 percent for half masks and 1 percent for full facepiece respirators. The test subject shall be refitted and retested.
</P>
<P>(8) Calculation of fit factors.
</P>
<P>(i) The fit factor shall be determined for the quantitative fit test by taking the ratio of the average chamber concentration to the concentration measured inside the respirator for each test exercise except the grimace exercise.
</P>
<P>(ii) The average test chamber concentration shall be calculated as the arithmetic average of the concentration measured before and after each test (i.e., 7 exercises) or the arithmetic average of the concentration measured before and after each exercise or the true average measured continuously during the respirator sample.
</P>
<P>(iii) The concentration of the challenge agent inside the respirator shall be determined by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) Average peak penetration method means the method of determining test agent penetration into the respirator utilizing a strip chart recorder, integrator, or computer. The agent penetration is determined by an average of the peak heights on the graph or by computer integration, for each exercise except the grimace exercise. Integrators or computers that calculate the actual test agent penetration into the respirator for each exercise will also be considered to meet the requirements of the average peak penetration method.
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) Maximum peak penetration method means the method of determining test agent penetration in the respirator as determined by strip chart recordings of the test. The highest peak penetration for a given exercise is taken to be representative of average penetration into the respirator for that exercise.
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) Integration by calculation of the area under the individual peak for each exercise except the grimace exercise. This includes computerized integration.
</P>
<P>(<I>D</I>) The calculation of the overall fit factor using individual exercise fit factors involves first converting the exercise fit factors to penetration values, determining the average, and then converting that result back to a fit factor. This procedure is described in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja98.006.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where ff<E T="52">1</E>, ff<E T="52">2</E>, ff<E T="52">3</E>, etc. are the fit factors for exercises 1, 2, 3, etc.
</FP-2>
<P>(9) The test subject shall not be permitted to wear a half mask or quarter facepiece respirator unless a minimum fit factor of 100 is obtained, or a full facepiece respirator unless a minimum fit factor of 500 is obtained.
</P>
<P>(10) Filters used for quantitative fit testing shall be replaced whenever increased breathing resistance is encountered, or when the test agent has altered the integrity of the filter media.
</P>
<HD3>3. Ambient aerosol condensation nuclei counter (CNC) quantitative fit testing protocol.
</HD3>
<P>The ambient aerosol condensation nuclei counter (CNC) quantitative fit testing (PortaCount®) protocol quantitatively fit tests respirators with the use of a probe. The probed respirator is only used for quantitative fit tests. A probed respirator has a special sampling device, installed on the respirator, that allows the probe to sample the air from inside the mask. A probed respirator is required for each make, style, model, and size that the employer uses and can be obtained from the respirator manufacturer or distributor. The primary CNC instrument manufacturer, TSI Incorporated, also provides probe attachments (TSI mask sampling adapters) that permit fit testing in an employee's own respirator. A minimum fit factor pass level of at least 100 is necessary for a half-mask respirator (elastomeric or filtering facepiece), and a minimum fit factor pass level of at least 500 is required for a full-facepiece elastomeric respirator. The entire screening and testing procedure shall be explained to the test subject prior to the conduct of the screening test.
</P>
<P>(a) PortaCount® Fit Test Requirements. (1) Check the respirator to make sure the sampling probe and line are properly attached to the facepiece and that the respirator is fitted with a particulate filter capable of preventing significant penetration by the ambient particles used for the fit test (e.g., NIOSH 42 CFR 84 series 100, series 99, or series 95 particulate filter) per manufacturer's instruction.
</P>
<P>(2) Instruct the person to be tested to don the respirator for five minutes before the fit test starts. This purges the ambient particles trapped inside the respirator and permits the wearer to make certain the respirator is comfortable. This individual shall already have been trained on how to wear the respirator properly.
</P>
<P>(3) Check the following conditions for the adequacy of the respirator fit: Chin properly placed; Adequate strap tension, not overly tightened; Fit across nose bridge; Respirator of proper size to span distance from nose to chin; Tendency of the respirator to slip; Self-observation in a mirror to evaluate fit and respirator position.
</P>
<P>(4) Have the person wearing the respirator do a user seal check. If leakage is detected, determine the cause. If leakage is from a poorly fitting facepiece, try another size of the same model respirator, or another model of respirator.
</P>
<P>(5) Follow the manufacturer's instructions for operating the Portacount® and proceed with the test.
</P>
<P>(6) The test subject shall be instructed to perform the exercises in section I. A. 14. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(7) After the test exercises, the test subject shall be questioned by the test conductor regarding the comfort of the respirator upon completion of the protocol. If it has become unacceptable, another model of respirator shall be tried.
</P>
<P>(b) PortaCount® Test Instrument.
</P>
<P>(1) The PortaCount® will automatically stop and calculate the overall fit factor for the entire set of exercises. The overall fit factor is what counts. The Pass or Fail message will indicate whether or not the test was successful. If the test was a Pass, the fit test is over.
</P>
<P>(2) Since the pass or fail criterion of the PortaCount® is user programmable, the test operator shall ensure that the pass or fail criterion meet the requirements for minimum respirator performance in this Appendix.
</P>
<P>(3) A record of the test needs to be kept on file, assuming the fit test was successful. The record must contain the test subject's name; overall fit factor; make, model, style, and size of respirator used; and date tested.
</P>
<HD3>4. Modified ambient aerosol condensation nuclei counter (CNC) quantitative fit testing protocol for full-facepiece and half-mask elastomeric respirators.
</HD3>
<P>(a) When administering this protocol to test subjects, employers shall comply with the requirements specified in Part I.C.3 of this appendix (ambient aerosol condensation nuclei counter (CNC) quantitative fit testing protocol), except they shall use the test exercises described below in paragraph (b) of this protocol instead of the test exercises specified in section I.C.3(a)(6) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Employers shall ensure that each test subject being fit tested using this protocol follows the exercise and duration procedures, including the order of administration, described in Table A-1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-1— Modified Ambient Aerosal CNC Quantitative Fit Testing Protocol for Full Facepiece and Half-Mask Elastomeric Respirators
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exercises 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exercise procedure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measurement procedure
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bending Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The test subject shall bend at the waist, as if going to touch his/her toes for 50 seconds and inhale 2 times at the bottom 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 20 second ambient sample, followed by a 30 second mask sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jogging-in-Place</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The test subject shall jog in place comfortably for 30 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 30 second mask sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Head Side-to-Side</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The test subject shall stand in place, slowly turning his/her head from side to side for 30 seconds and inhale 2 times at each extreme 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 30 second mask sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Head Up-and-Down</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The test subject shall stand in place, slowly moving his/her head up and down for 39 seconds and inhale 2 times at each extreme 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 30 second mask sample followed by a 9 second ambient sample.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Exercises are listed in the order in which they are to be administered.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> It is optional for test subjects to take additional breaths at other times during this exercise.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>5. Modified ambient aerosol condensation nuclei counter (CNC) quantitative fit testing protocol for filtering facepiece respirators.
</HD3>
<P>(a) When administering this protocol to test subjects, employers shall comply with the requirements specified in Part I.C.3 of this appendix (ambient aerosol condensation nuclei counter (CNC) quantitative fit testing protocol), except they shall use the test exercises described below in paragraph (b) of this protocol instead of the test exercises specified in section I.C.3(a)(6) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Employers shall ensure that each test subject being fit tested using this protocol follows the exercise and duration procedures, including the order of administration, described in Table A-2 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-2— Modified Ambient Aerosal CNC Quantitative Fit Testing Protocol for Filtering Facepiece Respirators
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exercises 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exercise
<br/>procedure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measurement
<br/>procedure
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bending Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The test subject shall bend at the waist, as if going to touch his/her toes for 50 seconds and inhale 2 times at the bottom 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 20 second ambient sample, followed by a 30 second mask sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Talking</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The test subject shall talk out loud slowly and loud enough so as to be heard clearly by the test conductor for 30 seconds. He/she will either read from a prepared text such as the Rainbow Passage, count backward from 100, or recite a memorized poem or song</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 30 second mask sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Head Side-to-Side</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The test subject shall stand in place, slowly turning his/her head from side to side for 30 seconds and inhale 2 times at each extreme 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 30 second mask sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Head Up-and-Down</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The test subject shall stand in place, slowly moving his/her head up and down for 39 seconds and inhale 2 times at each extreme 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 30 second mask sample followed by a 9 second ambient sample.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Exercises are listed in the order in which they are to be administered.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> It is optional for test subjects to take additional breaths at other times during this exercise.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>6. Controlled negative pressure (CNP) quantitative fit testing protocol.
</HD3>
<P>The CNP protocol provides an alternative to aerosol fit test methods. The CNP fit test method technology is based on exhausting air from a temporarily sealed respirator facepiece to generate and then maintain a constant negative pressure inside the facepiece. The rate of air exhaust is controlled so that a constant negative pressure is maintained in the respirator during the fit test. The level of pressure is selected to replicate the mean inspiratory pressure that causes leakage into the respirator under normal use conditions. With pressure held constant, air flow out of the respirator is equal to air flow into the respirator. Therefore, measurement of the exhaust stream that is required to hold the pressure in the temporarily sealed respirator constant yields a direct measure of leakage air flow into the respirator. The CNP fit test method measures leak rates through the facepiece as a method for determining the facepiece fit for negative pressure respirators. The CNP instrument manufacturer Occupational Health Dynamics of Birmingham, Alabama also provides attachments (sampling manifolds) that replace the filter cartridges to permit fit testing in an employee's own respirator. To perform the test, the test subject closes his or her mouth and holds his/her breath, after which an air pump removes air from the respirator facepiece at a pre-selected constant pressure. The facepiece fit is expressed as the leak rate through the facepiece, expressed as milliliters per minute. The quality and validity of the CNP fit tests are determined by the degree to which the in-mask pressure tracks the test pressure during the system measurement time of approximately five seconds. Instantaneous feedback in the form of a real-time pressure trace of the in-mask pressure is provided and used to determine test validity and quality. A minimum fit factor pass level of 100 is necessary for a half-mask respirator and a minimum fit factor of at least 500 is required for a full facepiece respirator. The entire screening and testing procedure shall be explained to the test subject prior to the conduct of the screening test.
</P>
<P>(a) CNP Fit Test Requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) The instrument shall have a non-adjustable test pressure of 15.0 mm water pressure.
</P>
<P>(2) The CNP system defaults selected for test pressure shall be set at −15 mm of water (-0.58 inches of water) and the modeled inspiratory flow rate shall be 53.8 liters per minute for performing fit tests.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>CNP systems have built-in capability to conduct fit testing that is specific to unique work rate, mask, and gender situations that might apply in a specific workplace. Use of system default values, which were selected to represent respirator wear with medium cartridge resistance at a low-moderate work rate, will allow inter-test comparison of the respirator fit.)</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) The individual who conducts the CNP fit testing shall be thoroughly trained to perform the test.
</P>
<P>(4) The respirator filter or cartridge needs to be replaced with the CNP test manifold. The inhalation valve downstream from the manifold either needs to be temporarily removed or propped open.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer must train the test subject to hold his or her breath for at least 10 seconds.
</P>
<P>(6) The test subject must don the test respirator without any assistance from the test administrator who is conducting the CNP fit test. The respirator must not be adjusted once the fit-test exercises begin. Any adjustment voids the test, and the test subject must repeat the fit test.
</P>
<P>(7) The QNFT protocol shall be followed according to section I. C. 1. of this appendix with an exception for the CNP test exercises.
</P>
<P>(b) CNP Test Exercises.
</P>
<P>(1) Normal breathing. In a normal standing position, without talking, the subject shall breathe normally for 1 minute. After the normal breathing exercise, the subject needs to hold head straight ahead and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during the test measurement.
</P>
<P>(2) Deep breathing. In a normal standing position, the subject shall breathe slowly and deeply for 1 minute, being careful not to hyperventilate. After the deep breathing exercise, the subject shall hold his or her head straight ahead and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during test measurement.
</P>
<P>(3) Turning head side to side. Standing in place, the subject shall slowly turn his or her head from side to side between the extreme positions on each side for 1 minute. The head shall be held at each extreme momentarily so the subject can inhale at each side. After the turning head side to side exercise, the subject needs to hold head full left and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during test measurement. Next, the subject needs to hold head full right and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during test measurement.
</P>
<P>(4) Moving head up and down. Standing in place, the subject shall slowly move his or her head up and down for 1 minute. The subject shall be instructed to inhale in the up position (i.e., when looking toward the ceiling). After the moving head up and down exercise, the subject shall hold his or her head full up and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during test measurement. Next, the subject shall hold his or her head full down and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during test measurement.
</P>
<P>(5) Talking. The subject shall talk out loud slowly and loud enough so as to be heard clearly by the test conductor. The subject can read from a prepared text such as the Rainbow Passage, count backward from 100, or recite a memorized poem or song for 1 minute. After the talking exercise, the subject shall hold his or her head straight ahead and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during the test measurement.
</P>
<P>(6) Grimace. The test subject shall grimace by smiling or frowning for 15 seconds.
</P>
<P>(7) Bending Over. The test subject shall bend at the waist as if he or she were to touch his or her toes for 1 minute. Jogging in place shall be substituted for this exercise in those test environments such as shroud-type QNFT units that prohibit bending at the waist. After the bending over exercise, the subject shall hold his or her head straight ahead and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during the test measurement.
</P>
<P>(8) Normal Breathing. The test subject shall remove and re-don the respirator within a one-minute period. Then, in a normal standing position, without talking, the subject shall breathe normally for 1 minute. After the normal breathing exercise, the subject shall hold his or her head straight ahead and hold his or her breath for 10 seconds during the test measurement. After the test exercises, the test subject shall be questioned by the test conductor regarding the comfort of the respirator upon completion of the protocol. If it has become unacceptable, another model of a respirator shall be tried.
</P>
<P>(c) CNP Test Instrument.
</P>
<P>(1) The test instrument must have an effective audio-warning device, or a visual-warning device in the form of a screen tracing, that indicates when the test subject fails to hold his or her breath during the test. The test must be terminated and restarted from the beginning when the test subject fails to hold his or her breath during the test. The test subject then may be refitted and retested.
</P>
<P>(2) A record of the test shall be kept on file, assuming the fit test was successful. The record must contain the test subject's name; overall fit factor; make, model, style and size of respirator used; and date tested.
</P>
<HD3>7. Controlled negative pressure (CNP) REDON quantitative fit testing protocol.
</HD3>
<P>(a) When administering this protocol to test subjects, employers must comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (a) and (c) of part I.C.6 of this appendix (“Controlled negative pressure (CNP) quantitative fit testing protocol,”) as well as use the test exercises described below in paragraph (b) of this protocol instead of the test exercises specified in paragraph (b) of part I.C.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Employers must ensure that each test subject being fit tested using this protocol follows the exercise and measurement procedures, including the order of administration described in Table A-3 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-3—CNP REDON Quantitative Fit Testing Protocol
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exercises 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exercise procedure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measurement procedure
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Facing Forward</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stand and breathe normally, without talking, for 30 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Face forward, while holding breath for 10 seconds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bending Over</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bend at the waist, as if going to touch his or her toes, for 30 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Face parallel to the floor, while holding breath for 10 seconds
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Head Shaking</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For about three seconds, shake head back and forth vigorously several times while shouting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Face forward, while holding breath for 10 seconds
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">REDON 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove the respirator mask, loosen all facepiece straps, and then redon the respirator mask</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Face forward, while holding breath for 10 seconds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">REDON 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove the respirator mask, loosen all facepiece straps, and then redon the respirator mask again</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Face forward, while holding breath for 10 seconds.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Exercises are listed in the order in which they are to be administered.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) After completing the test exercises, the test administrator must question each test subject regarding the comfort of the respirator. When a test subject states that the respirator is unacceptable, the employer must ensure that the test administrator repeats the protocol using another respirator model.
</P>
<P>(d) Employers must determine the overall fit factor for each test subject by calculating the harmonic mean of the fit testing exercises as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="25" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er04au04.001.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>N = The number of exercises;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FF<E T="52">1</E> = The fit factor for the first exercise;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FF<E T="52">2</E> = The fit factor for the second exercise; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FF<E T="52">N</E> = The fit factor for the nth exercise.
</FP-2>
<HD1>Part II. New Fit Test Protocols
</HD1>
<P>A. Any person may submit to OSHA an application for approval of a new fit test protocol. If the application meets the following criteria, OSHA will initiate a rulemaking proceeding under section 6(b)(7) of the OSH Act to determine whether to list the new protocol as an approved protocol in this appendix A.
</P>
<P>B. The application must include a detailed description of the proposed new fit test protocol. This application must be supported by either:
</P>
<P>1. A test report prepared by an independent government research laboratory (e.g., Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory, Los Alamos National Laboratory, the National Institute for Standards and Technology) stating that the laboratory has tested the protocol and had found it to be accurate and reliable; or
</P>
<P>2. An article that has been published in a peer-reviewed industrial hygiene journal describing the protocol and explaining how test data support the protocol's accuracy and reliability.
</P>
<P>C. If OSHA determines that additional information is required before the Agency commences a rulemaking proceeding under this section, OSHA will so notify the applicant and afford the applicant the opportunity to submit the supplemental information. Initiation of a rulemaking proceeding will be deferred until OSHA has received and evaluated the supplemental information.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B-1 to § 1910.134: User Seal Check Procedures (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>The individual who uses a tight-fitting respirator is to perform a user seal check to ensure that an adequate seal is achieved each time the respirator is put on. Either the positive and negative pressure checks listed in this appendix, or the respirator manufacturer's recommended user seal check method shall be used. User seal checks are not substitutes for qualitative or quantitative fit tests.
</P>
<HD2>I. Facepiece Positive and/or Negative Pressure Checks
</HD2>
<P>A. <I>Positive pressure check.</I> Close off the exhalation valve and exhale gently into the facepiece. The face fit is considered satisfactory if a slight positive pressure can be built up inside the facepiece without any evidence of outward leakage of air at the seal. For most respirators this method of leak testing requires the wearer to first remove the exhalation valve cover before closing off the exhalation valve and then carefully replacing it after the test.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Negative pressure check.</I> Close off the inlet opening of the canister or cartridge(s) by covering with the palm of the hand(s) or by replacing the filter seal(s), inhale gently so that the facepiece collapses slightly, and hold the breath for ten seconds. The design of the inlet opening of some cartridges cannot be effectively covered with the palm of the hand. The test can be performed by covering the inlet opening of the cartridge with a thin latex or nitrile glove. If the facepiece remains in its slightly collapsed condition and no inward leakage of air is detected, the tightness of the respirator is considered satisfactory.
</P>
<HD2>II. Manufacturer's Recommended User Seal Check Procedures
</HD2>
<P>The respirator manufacturer's recommended procedures for performing a user seal check may be used instead of the positive and/or negative pressure check procedures provided that the employer demonstrates that the manufacturer's procedures are equally effective.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B-2 to § 1910.134: Respirator Cleaning Procedures (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>These procedures are provided for employer use when cleaning respirators. They are general in nature, and the employer as an alternative may use the cleaning recommendations provided by the manufacturer of the respirators used by their employees, provided such procedures are as effective as those listed here in appendix B-2. Equivalent effectiveness simply means that the procedures used must accomplish the objectives set forth in appendix B-2, i.e., must ensure that the respirator is properly cleaned and disinfected in a manner that prevents damage to the respirator and does not cause harm to the user.
</P>
<HD2>I. Procedures for Cleaning Respirators
</HD2>
<P>A. Remove filters, cartridges, or canisters. Disassemble facepieces by removing speaking diaphragms, demand and pressure-demand valve assemblies, hoses, or any components recommended by the manufacturer. Discard or repair any defective parts.
</P>
<P>B. Wash components in warm (43 °C [110 °F] maximum) water with a mild detergent or with a cleaner recommended by the manufacturer. A stiff bristle (not wire) brush may be used to facilitate the removal of dirt.
</P>
<P>C. Rinse components thoroughly in clean, warm (43 °C [110 °F] maximum), preferably running water. Drain.
</P>
<P>D. When the cleaner used does not contain a disinfecting agent, respirator components should be immersed for two minutes in one of the following:
</P>
<P>1. Hypochlorite solution (50 ppm of chlorine) made by adding approximately one milliliter of laundry bleach to one liter of water at 43 °C (110 °F); or,
</P>
<P>2. Aqueous solution of iodine (50 ppm iodine) made by adding approximately 0.8 milliliters of tincture of iodine (6-8 grams ammonium and/or potassium iodide/100 cc of 45% alcohol) to one liter of water at 43 °C (110 °F); or,
</P>
<P>3. Other commercially available cleansers of equivalent disinfectant quality when used as directed, if their use is recommended or approved by the respirator manufacturer.
</P>
<P>E. Rinse components thoroughly in clean, warm (43 °C [110 °F] maximum), preferably running water. Drain. The importance of thorough rinsing cannot be overemphasized. Detergents or disinfectants that dry on facepieces may result in dermatitis. In addition, some disinfectants may cause deterioration of rubber or corrosion of metal parts if not completely removed.
</P>
<P>F. Components should be hand-dried with a clean lint-free cloth or air-dried.
</P>
<P>G. Reassemble facepiece, replacing filters, cartridges, and canisters where necessary.
</P>
<P>H. Test the respirator to ensure that all components work properly.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.134: OSHA Respirator Medical Evaluation Questionnaire (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>To the employer: Answers to questions in Section 1, and to question 9 in Section 2 of part A, do not require a medical examination.
</P>
<P>To the employee:
</P>
<P>Your employer must allow you to answer this questionnaire during normal working hours, or at a time and place that is convenient to you. To maintain your confidentiality, your employer or supervisor must not look at or review your answers, and your employer must tell you how to deliver or send this questionnaire to the health care professional who will review it.
</P>
<P>Part A. Section 1. (Mandatory) The following information must be provided by every employee who has been selected to use any type of respirator (please print).
</P>
<FP-DASH>1. Today's date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>2. Your name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>3. Your age (to nearest year):
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>4. Sex (circle one): Male/Female
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5. Your height: __ ft. __ in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>6. Your weight: __ lbs.
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>7. Your job title:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>8. A phone number where you can be reached by the health care professional who reviews this questionnaire (include the Area Code): ___
</FP-1>
<FP-1>9. The best time to phone you at this number: __
</FP-1>
<FP-1>10. Has your employer told you how to contact the health care professional who will review this questionnaire (circle one): Yes/No
</FP-1>
<FP-1>11. Check the type of respirator you will use (you can check more than one category):
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>a. __ N, R, or P disposable respirator (filter-mask, non-cartridge type only).
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. __ Other type (for example, half- or full-facepiece type, powered-air purifying, supplied-air, self-contained breathing apparatus).
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>12. Have you worn a respirator (circle one): Yes/No
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>7 If “yes,” what type(s):
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>Part A. Section 2. (Mandatory) Questions 1 through 9 below must be answered by every employee who has been selected to use any type of respirator (please circle “yes” or “no”).
</P>
<FP-2>1. Do you <I>currently</I> smoke tobacco, or have you smoked tobacco in the last month: Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2. Have you <I>ever had</I> any of the following conditions?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Seizures: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Diabetes (sugar disease): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Allergic reactions that interfere with your breathing: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. Claustrophobia (fear of closed-in places): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. Trouble smelling odors: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>3. Have you <I>ever had</I> any of the following pulmonary or lung problems?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Asbestosis: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Asthma: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Chronic bronchitis: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. Emphysema: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. Pneumonia: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>f. Tuberculosis: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>g. Silicosis: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>h. Pneumothorax (collapsed lung): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>i. Lung cancer: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>j. Broken ribs: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>k. Any chest injuries or surgeries: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>l. Any other lung problem that you've been told about: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>4. Do you <I>currently</I> have any of the following symptoms of pulmonary or lung illness?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Shortness of breath: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Shortness of breath when walking fast on level ground or walking up a slight hill or incline: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Shortness of breath when walking with other people at an ordinary pace on level ground: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. Have to stop for breath when walking at your own pace on level ground: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. Shortness of breath when washing or dressing yourself: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>f. Shortness of breath that interferes with your job: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>g. Coughing that produces phlegm (thick sputum): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>h. Coughing that wakes you early in the morning: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>i. Coughing that occurs mostly when you are lying down: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>j. Coughing up blood in the last month: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>k. Wheezing: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>l. Wheezing that interferes with your job: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>m. Chest pain when you breathe deeply: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>n. Any other symptoms that you think may be related to lung problems: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>5. Have you <I>ever had</I> any of the following cardiovascular or heart problems?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Heart attack: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Stroke: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Angina: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. Heart failure: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. Swelling in your legs or feet (not caused by walking): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>f. Heart arrhythmia (heart beating irregularly): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>g. High blood pressure: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>h. Any other heart problem that you've been told about: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>6. Have you <I>ever had</I> any of the following cardiovascular or heart symptoms?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Frequent pain or tightness in your chest: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Pain or tightness in your chest during physical activity: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Pain or tightness in your chest that interferes with your job: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. In the past two years, have you noticed your heart skipping or missing a beat: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. Heartburn or indigestion that is not related to eating: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>f. Any other symptoms that you think may be related to heart or circulation problems: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>7. Do you <I>currently</I> take medication for any of the following problems?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Breathing or lung problems: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Heart trouble: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Blood pressure: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<P>d. Seizures: Yes/No</P>
<FP-2>8. If you've used a respirator, have you <I>ever had</I> any of the following problems? (If you've never used a respirator, check the following space and go to question 9:)
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Eye irritation: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Skin allergies or rashes: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Anxiety: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. General weakness or fatigue: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. Any other problem that interferes with your use of a respirator: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>9. Would you like to talk to the health care professional who will review this questionnaire about your answers to this questionnaire: Yes/No
</FP-2>
<P>Questions 10 to 15 below must be answered by every employee who has been selected to use either a full-facepiece respirator or a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). For employees who have been selected to use other types of respirators, answering these questions is voluntary.
</P>
<FP-2>10. Have you <I>ever lost</I> vision in either eye (temporarily or permanently): Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-2>11. Do you <I>currently</I> have any of the following vision problems?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Wear contact lenses: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Wear glasses: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Color blind: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. Any other eye or vision problem: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>12. Have you <I>ever had</I> an injury to your ears, including a broken ear drum: Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-2>13. Do you <I>currently</I> have any of the following hearing problems?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Difficulty hearing: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Wear a hearing aid: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Any other hearing or ear problem: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>14. Have you <I>ever had</I> a back injury: Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-2>15. Do you <I>currently</I> have any of the following musculoskeletal problems?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Weakness in any of your arms, hands, legs, or feet: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Back pain: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Difficulty fully moving your arms and legs: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. Pain or stiffness when you lean forward or backward at the waist: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. Difficulty fully moving your head up or down: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>f. Difficulty fully moving your head side to side: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>g. Difficulty bending at your knees: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>h. Difficulty squatting to the ground: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>i. Climbing a flight of stairs or a ladder carrying more than 25 lbs: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>j. Any other muscle or skeletal problem that interferes with using a respirator: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<P>Part B Any of the following questions, and other questions not listed, may be added to the questionnaire at the discretion of the health care professional who will review the questionnaire.
</P>
<FP-2>1. In your present job, are you working at high altitudes (over 5,000 feet) or in a place that has lower than normal amounts of oxygen: Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>If “yes,” do you have feelings of dizziness, shortness of breath, pounding in your chest, or other symptoms when you're working under these conditions: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>2. At work or at home, have you ever been exposed to hazardous solvents, hazardous airborne chemicals (<I>e.g.,</I> gases, fumes, or dust), or have you come into skin contact with hazardous chemicals: Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH> If “yes,” name the chemicals if you know them:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>3. Have you ever worked with any of the materials, or under any of the conditions, listed below:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Asbestos: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Silica (<I>e.g.,</I> in sandblasting): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Tungsten/cobalt (<I>e.g.,</I> grinding or welding this material): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. Beryllium: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. Aluminum: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>f. Coal (for example, mining): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>g. Iron: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>h. Tin: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>i. Dusty environments: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>j. Any other hazardous exposures: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-DASH> If “yes,” describe these exposures:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>4. List any second jobs or side businesses you have:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>5. List your previous occupations:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>6. List your current and previous hobbies:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>7. Have you been in the military services? Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>If “yes,” were you exposed to biological or chemical agents (either in training or combat): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>8. Have you ever worked on a HAZMAT team? Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-2>9. Other than medications for breathing and lung problems, heart trouble, blood pressure, and seizures mentioned earlier in this questionnaire, are you taking any other medications for any reason (including over-the-counter medications): Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH> If “yes,” name the medications if you know them:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>10. Will you be using any of the following items with your respirator(s)?
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. HEPA Filters: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Canisters (for example, gas masks): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Cartridges: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>11. How often are you expected to use the respirator(s) (circle “yes” or “no” for all answers that apply to you)?:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. Escape only (no rescue): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>b. Emergency rescue only: Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>c. Less than 5 hours <I>per week:</I> Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>d. Less than 2 hours <I>per day:</I> Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>e. 2 to 4 hours <I>per day:</I> Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>f. Over 4 hours <I>per day:</I> Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>12. During the period you are using the respirator(s), is your work effort:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>a. <I>Light</I> (less than 200 kcal per hour): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>If “yes,” how long does this period last during the average shift:______hrs.______mins.
</FP-2>
<P>Examples of a light work effort are <I>sitting</I> while writing, typing, drafting, or performing light assembly work; or <I>standing</I> while operating a drill press (1-3 lbs.) or controlling machines.
</P>
<FP1-2>b. <I>Moderate</I> (200 to 350 kcal per hour): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>If “yes,” how long does this period last during the average shift:______hrs.______mins.
</FP1-2>
<P>Examples of moderate work effort are <I>sitting</I> while nailing or filing; <I>driving</I> a truck or bus in urban traffic; <I>standing</I> while drilling, nailing, performing assembly work, or transferring a moderate load (about 35 lbs.) at trunk level; <I>walking</I> on a level surface about 2 mph or down a 5-degree grade about 3 mph; or <I>pushing</I> a wheelbarrow with a heavy load (about 100 lbs.) on a level surface.
</P>
<FP1-2>c. <I>Heavy</I> (above 350 kcal per hour): Yes/No
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>If “yes,” how long does this period last during the average shift:______hrs.______mins.
</FP1-2>
<P>Examples of heavy work are <I>lifting</I> a heavy load (about 50 lbs.) from the floor to your waist or shoulder; <I>working</I> on a loading dock; <I>shoveling; standing</I> while bricklaying or chipping castings; <I>walking</I> up an 8-degree grade about 2 mph; <I>climbing</I> stairs with a heavy load (about 50 lbs.).
</P>
<FP-2>13. Will you be wearing protective clothing and/or equipment (other than the respirator) when you're using your respirator: Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH> If “yes,” describe this protective clothing and/or equipment:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>14. Will you be working under hot conditions (temperature exceeding 77 °F): Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-2>15. Will you be working under humid conditions: Yes/No
</FP-2>
<FP-2>16. Describe the work you'll be doing while you're using your respirator(s):
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>17. Describe any special or hazardous conditions you might encounter when you're using your respirator(s) (for example, confined spaces, life-threatening gases):
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>18. Provide the following information, if you know it, for each toxic substance that you'll be exposed to when you're using your respirator(s):
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH> Name of the first toxic substance:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH> Estimated maximum exposure level per shift:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH> Duration of exposure per shift
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH> Name of the second toxic substance:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH> Estimated maximum exposure level per shift:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH> Duration of exposure per shift:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH> Name of the third toxic substance:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH> Estimated maximum exposure level per shift:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH> Duration of exposure per shift:
</FP-DASH>
<FP1-2>The name of any other toxic substances that you'll be exposed to while using your respirator:
</FP1-2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>19. Describe any special responsibilities you'll have while using your respirator(s) that may affect the safety and well-being of others (for example, rescue, security):
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH></FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.134 (Mandatory) Information for Employees Using Respirators When Not Required Under the Standard
</HD1>
<P>Respirators are an effective method of protection against designated hazards when properly selected and worn. Respirator use is encouraged, even when exposures are below the exposure limit, to provide an additional level of comfort and protection for workers. However, if a respirator is used improperly or not kept clean, the respirator itself can become a hazard to the worker. Sometimes, workers may wear respirators to avoid exposures to hazards, even if the amount of hazardous substance does not exceed the limits set by OSHA standards. If your employer provides respirators for your voluntary use, or if you provide your own respirator, you need to take certain precautions to be sure that the respirator itself does not present a hazard.
</P>
<P>You should do the following:
</P>
<P>1. Read and heed all instructions provided by the manufacturer on use, maintenance, cleaning and care, and warnings regarding the respirators limitations.
</P>
<P>2. Choose respirators certified for use to protect against the contaminant of concern. NIOSH, the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, certifies respirators. A label or statement of certification should appear on the respirator or respirator packaging. It will tell you what the respirator is designed for and how much it will protect you.
</P>
<P>3. Do not wear your respirator into atmospheres containing contaminants for which your respirator is not designed to protect against. For example, a respirator designed to filter dust particles will not protect you against gases, vapors, or very small solid particles of fumes or smoke.
</P>
<P>4. Keep track of your respirator so that you do not mistakenly use someone else's respirator.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1270, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 20098, 20099, Apr. 23, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 46993, Aug. 4, 2004; 71 FR 16672, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50187, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75584, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33607, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 46949, Aug. 7, 2012; 84 FR 50755, Sept. 26, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.135" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.135   Head protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears a protective helmet when working in areas where there is a potential for injury to the head from falling objects.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that a protective helmet designed to reduce electrical shock hazard is worn by each such affected employee when near exposed electrical conductors which could contact the head.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for head protection.</I> (1) Head protection must comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1910.6;
</P>
<P>(ii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1910.6; or
</P>
<P>(iii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, “American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements,” incorporated by reference in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) Head protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as head protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 16362, Apr. 6, 1994, as amended at 61 FR 9238, Mar. 7, 1996; 61 FR 19548, May 2, 1996; 74 FR 46356, Sept. 9, 2009; 77 FR 37598, June 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.136" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.136   Foot protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses protective footwear when working in areas where there is a danger of foot injuries due to falling or rolling objects, or objects piercing the sole, or when the use of protective footwear will protect the affected employee from an electrical hazard, such as a static-discharge or electric-shock hazard, that remains after the employer takes other necessary protective measures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for protective footwear.</I> (1) Protective footwear must comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) ASTM F-2412-2005, “Standard Test Methods for Foot Protection,” and ASTM F-2413-2005, “Standard Specification for Performance Requirements for Protective Footwear,” which are incorporated by reference in § 1910.6;
</P>
<P>(ii) ANSI Z41-1999, “American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear,” which is incorporated by reference in § 1910.6; or
</P>
<P>(iii) ANSI Z41-1991, “American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear,” which is incorporated by reference in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) Protective footwear that the employer demonstrates is at least as effective as protective footwear that is constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 16362, Apr. 6, 1994; 59 FR 33911, July 1, 1994, as amended at 61 FR 9238, Mar. 7, 1996; 61 FR 19548, May 2, 1996; 61 FR 21228, May 9, 1996; 74 FR 46356, Sept. 9, 2009; 79 FR 20629, Apr. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.137" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.137   Electrical protective equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Design requirements for specific types of electrical protective equipment.</I> Rubber insulating blankets, rubber insulating matting, rubber insulating covers, rubber insulating line hose, rubber insulating gloves, and rubber insulating sleeves shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Manufacture and marking of rubber insulating equipment.</I> (i) Blankets, gloves, and sleeves shall be produced by a seamless process.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each item shall be clearly marked as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Class 00 equipment shall be marked Class 00.
</P>
<P>(B) Class 0 equipment shall be marked Class 0.
</P>
<P>(C) Class 1 equipment shall be marked Class 1.
</P>
<P>(D) Class 2 equipment shall be marked Class 2.
</P>
<P>(E) Class 3 equipment shall be marked Class 3.
</P>
<P>(F) Class 4 equipment shall be marked Class 4.
</P>
<P>(G) Nonozone-resistant equipment shall be marked Type I.
</P>
<P>(H) Ozone-resistant equipment shall be marked Type II.
</P>
<P>(I) Other relevant markings, such as the manufacturer's identification and the size of the equipment, may also be provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) Markings shall be nonconducting and shall be applied in such a manner as not to impair the insulating qualities of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Markings on gloves shall be confined to the cuff portion of the glove.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electrical requirements.</I> (i) Equipment shall be capable of withstanding the ac proof-test voltage specified in Table I-1 or the dc proof-test voltage specified in Table I-2.
</P>
<P>(A) The proof test shall reliably indicate that the equipment can withstand the voltage involved.
</P>
<P>(B) The test voltage shall be applied continuously for 3 minutes for equipment other than matting and shall be applied continuously for 1 minute for matting.
</P>
<P>(C) Gloves shall also be capable of separately withstanding the ac proof-test voltage specified in Table I-1 after a 16-hour water soak. (See the note following paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(ii) When the ac proof test is used on gloves, the 60-hertz proof-test current may not exceed the values specified in Table I-1 at any time during the test period.
</P>
<P>(A) If the ac proof test is made at a frequency other than 60 hertz, the permissible proof-test current shall be computed from the direct ratio of the frequencies.
</P>
<P>(B) For the test, gloves (right side out) shall be filled with tap water and immersed in water to a depth that is in accordance with Table I-3. Water shall be added to or removed from the glove, as necessary, so that the water level is the same inside and outside the glove.
</P>
<P>(C) After the 16-hour water soak specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(C) of this section, the 60-hertz proof-test current may not exceed the values given in Table I-1 by more than 2 milliamperes.
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment that has been subjected to a minimum breakdown voltage test may not be used for electrical protection. (See the note following paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(iv) Material used for Type II insulating equipment shall be capable of withstanding an ozone test, with no visible effects. The ozone test shall reliably indicate that the material will resist ozone exposure in actual use. Any visible signs of ozone deterioration of the material, such as checking, cracking, breaks, or pitting, is evidence of failure to meet the requirements for ozone-resistant material. (See the note following paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Workmanship and finish.</I> (i) Equipment shall be free of physical irregularities that can adversely affect the insulating properties of the equipment and that can be detected by the tests or inspections required under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Surface irregularities that may be present on all rubber goods (because of imperfections on forms or molds or because of inherent difficulties in the manufacturing process) and that may appear as indentations, protuberances, or imbedded foreign material are acceptable under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The indentation or protuberance blends into a smooth slope when the material is stretched.
</P>
<P>(B) Foreign material remains in place when the insulating material is folded and stretches with the insulating material surrounding it.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>Rubber insulating equipment meeting the following national consensus standards is deemed to be in compliance with the performance requirements of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) D120-09, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Gloves.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D178-01 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Matting.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1048-12, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Blankets.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1049-98 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Covers.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1050-05 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Line Hose.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1051-08, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Sleeves.</I>
</P>
<P>The preceding standards also contain specifications for conducting the various tests required in paragraph (a) of this section. For example, the ac and dc proof tests, the breakdown test, the water-soak procedure, and the ozone test mentioned in this paragraph are described in detail in these ASTM standards.
</P>
<P>ASTM F1236-96 (2012), <I>Standard Guide for Visual Inspection of Electrical Protective Rubber Products,</I> presents methods and techniques for the visual inspection of electrical protective equipment made of rubber. This guide also contains descriptions and photographs of irregularities that can be found in this equipment.
</P>
<P>ASTM F819-10, <I>Standard Terminology Relating to Electrical Protective Equipment for Workers,</I> includes definitions of terms relating to the electrical protective equipment covered under this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Design requirements for other types of electrical protective equipment.</I> The following requirements apply to the design and manufacture of electrical protective equipment that is not covered by paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Voltage withstand.</I> Insulating equipment used for the protection of employees shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, the voltages that may be imposed upon it.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>These voltages include transient overvoltages, such as switching surges, as well as nominal line voltage. See appendix B to § 1910.269 for a discussion of transient overvoltages on electric power transmission and distribution systems. See IEEE Std 516-2009, <I>IEEE Guide for Maintenance Methods on Energized Power Lines,</I> for methods of determining the magnitude of transient overvoltages on an electrical system and for a discussion comparing the ability of insulation equipment to withstand a transient overvoltage based on its ability to withstand ac voltage testing.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Equipment current.</I> (i) Protective equipment used for the primary insulation of employees from energized circuit parts shall be capable of passing a current test when subjected to the highest nominal voltage on which the equipment is to be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) When insulating equipment is tested in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the equipment current may not exceed 1 microampere per kilovolt of phase-to-phase applied voltage.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>This paragraph applies to equipment that provides primary insulation of employees from energized parts. It does not apply to equipment used for secondary insulation or equipment used for brush contact only.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>For ac excitation, this current consists of three components: Capacitive current because of the dielectric properties of the insulating material itself; conduction current through the volume of the insulating equipment; and leakage current along the surface of the tool or equipment. The conduction current is normally negligible. For clean, dry insulating equipment, the leakage current is small, and the capacitive current predominates.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Plastic guard equipment is deemed to conform to the performance requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if it meets, and is used in accordance with, ASTM F712-06 (2011), <I>Standard Test Methods and Specifications for Electrically Insulating Plastic Guard Equipment for Protection of Workers.</I></P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>In-service care and use of electrical protective equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Electrical protective equipment shall be maintained in a safe, reliable condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements.</I> The following specific requirements apply to rubber insulating blankets, rubber insulating covers, rubber insulating line hose, rubber insulating gloves, and rubber insulating sleeves:
</P>
<P>(i) Maximum use voltages shall conform to those listed in Table I-4.
</P>
<P>(ii) Insulating equipment shall be inspected for damage before each day's use and immediately following any incident that can reasonably be suspected of causing damage. Insulating gloves shall be given an air test, along with the inspection.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>ASTM F1236-96 (2012), <I>Standard Guide for Visual Inspection of Electrical Protective Rubber Products,</I> presents methods and techniques for the visual inspection of electrical protective equipment made of rubber. This guide also contains descriptions and photographs of irregularities that can be found in this equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Insulating equipment with any of the following defects may not be used:
</P>
<P>(A) A hole, tear, puncture, or cut;
</P>
<P>(B) Ozone cutting or ozone checking (that is, a series of interlacing cracks produced by ozone on rubber under mechanical stress);
</P>
<P>(C) An embedded foreign object;
</P>
<P>(D) Any of the following texture changes: swelling, softening, hardening, or becoming sticky or inelastic.
</P>
<P>(E) Any other defect that damages the insulating properties.
</P>
<P>(iv) Insulating equipment found to have other defects that might affect its insulating properties shall be removed from service and returned for testing under paragraphs (c)(2)(viii) and (c)(2)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Insulating equipment shall be cleaned as needed to remove foreign substances.
</P>
<P>(vi) Insulating equipment shall be stored in such a location and in such a manner as to protect it from light, temperature extremes, excessive humidity, ozone, and other damaging substances and conditions.
</P>
<P>(vii) Protector gloves shall be worn over insulating gloves, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Protector gloves need not be used with Class 0 gloves, under limited-use conditions, when small equipment and parts manipulation necessitate unusually high finger dexterity.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">vii</E>)(A):</HED>
<P>Persons inspecting rubber insulating gloves used under these conditions need to take extra care in visually examining them. Employees using rubber insulating gloves under these conditions need to take extra care to avoid handling sharp objects.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) If the voltage does not exceed 250 volts, ac, or 375 volts, dc, protector gloves need not be used with Class 00 gloves, under limited-use conditions, when small equipment and parts manipulation necessitate unusually high finger dexterity.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">vii</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>Persons inspecting rubber insulating gloves used under these conditions need to take extra care in visually examining them. Employees using rubber insulating gloves under these conditions need to take extra care to avoid handling sharp objects.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) Any other class of glove may be used without protector gloves, under limited-use conditions, when small equipment and parts manipulation necessitate unusually high finger dexterity but only if the employer can demonstrate that the possibility of physical damage to the gloves is small and if the class of glove is one class higher than that required for the voltage involved.
</P>
<P>(D) Insulating gloves that have been used without protector gloves may not be reused until they have been tested under the provisions of paragraphs (c)(2)(viii) and (c)(2)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Electrical protective equipment shall be subjected to periodic electrical tests. Test voltages and the maximum intervals between tests shall be in accordance with Table I-4 and Table I-5.
</P>
<P>(ix) The test method used under paragraphs (c)(2)(viii) and (c)(2)(xi) of this section shall reliably indicate whether the insulating equipment can withstand the voltages involved.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ix</E>):</HED>
<P>Standard electrical test methods considered as meeting this paragraph are given in the following national consensus standards:
</P>
<P>ASTM D120-09, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Gloves.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D178-01 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Matting.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1048-12, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Blankets.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1049-98 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Covers.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1050-05 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Line Hose.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1051-08, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Sleeves.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM F478-09, <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Line Hose and Covers.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM F479-06 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Blankets.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM F496-08, <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Gloves and Sleeves.</I></P></NOTE>
<P>(x) Insulating equipment failing to pass inspections or electrical tests may not be used by employees, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Rubber insulating line hose may be used in shorter lengths with the defective portion cut off.
</P>
<P>(B) Rubber insulating blankets may be salvaged by severing the defective area from the undamaged portion of the blanket. The resulting undamaged area may not be smaller than 560 millimeters by 560 millimeters (22 inches by 22 inches) for Class 1, 2, 3, and 4 blankets.
</P>
<P>(C) Rubber insulating blankets may be repaired using a compatible patch that results in physical and electrical properties equal to those of the blanket.
</P>
<P>(D) Rubber insulating gloves and sleeves with minor physical defects, such as small cuts, tears, or punctures, may be repaired by the application of a compatible patch. Also, rubber insulating gloves and sleeves with minor surface blemishes may be repaired with a compatible liquid compound. The repaired area shall have electrical and physical properties equal to those of the surrounding material. Repairs to gloves are permitted only in the area between the wrist and the reinforced edge of the opening.
</P>
<P>(xi) Repaired insulating equipment shall be retested before it may be used by employees.
</P>
<P>(xii) The employer shall certify that equipment has been tested in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(iv), (c)(2)(vii)(D), (c)(2)(viii), (c)(2)(ix), and (c)(2)(xi) of this section. The certification shall identify the equipment that passed the test and the date it was tested and shall be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health and to employees or their authorized representatives.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">xii</E>):</HED>
<P>Marking equipment with, and entering onto logs, the results of the tests and the dates of testing are two acceptable means of meeting the certification requirement.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I-1—AC Proof-Test Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Class of Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Proof-test
<br/>Voltage
<br/>rms V
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum proof-test current, mA
<br/>(gloves only)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">280-mm
<br/>(11-in)
<br/>glove
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">360-mm
<br/>(14-in)
<br/>glove
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">410-mm
<br/>(16-in)
<br/>glove
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">460-mm
<br/>(18-in)
<br/>glove
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I-2—DC Proof-Test Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proof-test voltage
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70,000
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The dc voltages listed in this table are not appropriate for proof testing rubber insulating line hose or covers. For this equipment, dc proof tests shall use a voltage high enough to indicate that the equipment can be safely used at the voltages listed in Table I-4. See ASTM D1050-05 (2011) and ASTM D1049-98 (2010) for further information on proof tests for rubber insulating line hose and covers, respectively.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I-3—Glove Tests—Water Level 
<sup>1</sup> 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Class of glove
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">AC proof test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">DC proof test
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">in
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">in
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The water level is given as the clearance from the reinforced edge of the glove to the water line, with a tolerance of ±13 mm. (±0.5 in.).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> If atmospheric conditions make the specified clearances impractical, the clearances may be increased by a maximum of 25 mm. (1 in.).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I-4—Rubber Insulating Equipment, Voltage Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>use voltage 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>AC rms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retest
<br/>voltage 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>AC rms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retest
<br/>voltage 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>DC avg
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70,000
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The maximum use voltage is the ac voltage (rms) classification of the protective equipment that designates the maximum nominal design voltage of the energized system that may be safely worked. The nominal design voltage is equal to the phase-to-phase voltage on multiphase circuits. However, the phase-to-ground potential is considered to be the nominal design voltage if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) There is no multiphase exposure in a system area and the voltage exposure is limited to the phase-to-ground potential, or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) The electric equipment and devices are insulated or isolated or both so that the multiphase exposure on a grounded wye circuit is removed.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The proof-test voltage shall be applied continuously for at least 1 minute, but no more than 3 minutes.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I-5—Rubber Insulating Equipment, Test Intervals
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of
<br/>equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">When to test
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating line hose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Upon indication that insulating value is suspect and after repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating covers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Upon indication that insulating value is suspect and after repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating blankets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before first issue and every 12 months thereafter; 
<sup>1</sup> upon indication that insulating value is suspect; and after repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating gloves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before first issue and every 6 months thereafter; 
<sup>1</sup> upon indication that insulating value is suspect; after repair; and after use without protectors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating sleeves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before first issue and every 12 months thereafter; 
<sup>1</sup> upon indication that insulating value is suspect; and after repair.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the insulating equipment has been electrically tested but not issued for service, the insulating equipment may not be placed into service unless it has been electrically tested within the previous 12 months.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 20629, Apr. 11, 2014]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.138" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.138   Hand protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Employers shall select and require employees to use appropriate hand protection when employees' hands are exposed to hazards such as those from skin absorption of harmful substances; severe cuts or lacerations; severe abrasions; punctures; chemical burns; thermal burns; and harmful temperature extremes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Selection.</I> Employers shall base the selection of the appropriate hand protection on an evaluation of the performance characteristics of the hand protection relative to the task(s) to be performed, conditions present, duration of use, and the hazards and potential hazards identified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 16362, Apr. 6, 1994; 59 FR 33911, July 1, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.139" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.140" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.140   Personal fall protection systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section establishes performance, care, and use criteria for all personal fall protection systems. The employer must ensure that each personal fall protection system used to comply with this part must meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Anchorage</I> means a secure point of attachment for equipment such as lifelines, lanyards, or deceleration devices.
</P>
<P><I>Belt</I> <I>terminal</I> means an end attachment of a window cleaner's positioning system used for securing the belt or harness to a window cleaner's belt anchor.
</P>
<P><I>Body belt</I> means a strap with means both for securing about the waist and for attaching to other components such as a lanyard used with positioning systems, travel restraint systems, or ladder safety systems.
</P>
<P><I>Body harness</I> means straps that secure about the employee in a manner to distribute the fall arrest forces over at least the thighs, pelvis, waist, chest, and shoulders, with a means for attaching the harness to other components of a personal fall protection system.
</P>
<P><I>Carabiner</I> means a connector generally comprised of a trapezoidal or oval shaped body with a closed gate or similar arrangement that may be opened to attach another object and, when released, automatically closes to retain the object.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means a person who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in any personal fall protection system or any component of it, as well as in their application and uses with related equipment, and who has authorization to take prompt, corrective action to eliminate the identified hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Connector</I> means a device used to couple (connect) parts of the fall protection system together.
</P>
<P><I>D-ring</I> means a connector used:
</P>
<P>(i) In a harness as an integral attachment element or fall arrest attachment;
</P>
<P>(ii) In a lanyard, energy absorber, lifeline, or anchorage connector as an integral connector; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In a positioning or travel restraint system as an attachment element.
</P>
<P><I>Deceleration device</I> means any mechanism that serves to dissipate energy during a fall.
</P>
<P><I>Deceleration distance</I> means the vertical distance a falling employee travels from the point at which the deceleration device begins to operate, excluding lifeline elongation and free fall distance, until stopping. It is measured as the distance between the location of an employee's body harness attachment point at the moment of activation (at the onset of fall arrest forces) of the deceleration device during a fall, and the location of that attachment point after the employee comes to a full stop.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent</I> means alternative designs, equipment, materials, or methods that the employer can demonstrate will provide an equal or greater degree of safety for employees compared to the designs, equipment, materials, or methods specified in the standard.
</P>
<P><I>Free fall</I> means the act of falling before the personal fall arrest system begins to apply force to arrest the fall.
</P>
<P><I>Free fall distance</I> means the vertical displacement of the fall arrest attachment point on the employee's body belt or body harness between onset of the fall and just before the system begins to apply force to arrest the fall. This distance excludes deceleration distance, lifeline and lanyard elongation, but includes any deceleration device slide distance or self-retracting lifeline/lanyard extension before the devices operate and fall arrest forces occur.
</P>
<P><I>Lanyard</I> means a flexible line of rope, wire rope, or strap that generally has a connector at each end for connecting the body belt or body harness to a deceleration device, lifeline, or anchorage.
</P>
<P><I>Lifeline</I> means a component of a personal fall protection system consisting of a flexible line for connection to an anchorage at one end so as to hang vertically (vertical lifeline), or for connection to anchorages at both ends so as to stretch horizontally (horizontal lifeline), and serves as a means for connecting other components of the system to the anchorage.
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system</I> means a system used to arrest an employee in a fall from a walking-working surface. It consists of a body harness, anchorage, and connector. The means of connection may include a lanyard, deceleration device, lifeline, or a suitable combination of these.
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall protection system</I> means a system (including all components) an employer uses to provide protection from falling or to safely arrest an employee's fall if one occurs. Examples of personal fall protection systems include personal fall arrest systems, positioning systems, and travel restraint systems.
</P>
<P><I>Positioning system</I> (work-positioning system) means a system of equipment and connectors that, when used with a body harness or body belt, allows an employee to be supported on an elevated vertical surface, such as a wall or window sill, and work with both hands free. Positioning systems also are called “positioning system devices” and “work-positioning equipment.”
</P>
<P><I>Qualified</I> describes a person who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience has successfully demonstrated the ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.
</P>
<P><I>Rope grab</I> means a deceleration device that travels on a lifeline and automatically, by friction, engages the lifeline and locks so as to arrest the fall of an employee. A rope grab usually employs the principle of inertial locking, cam/lever locking, or both.
</P>
<P><I>Safety factor</I> means the ratio of the design load and the ultimate strength of the material.
</P>
<P><I>Self-retracting lifeline/lanyard</I> means a deceleration device containing a drum-wound line that can be slowly extracted from, or retracted onto, the drum under slight tension during normal movement by the employee. At the onset of a fall, the device automatically locks the drum and arrests the fall.
</P>
<P><I>Snaphook</I> means a connector comprised of a hook-shaped body with a normally closed gate, or similar arrangement that may be manually opened to permit the hook to receive an object. When released, the snaphook automatically closes to retain the object. Opening a snaphook requires two separate actions. Snaphooks are generally one of two types:
</P>
<P>(i) Automatic-locking type (permitted) with a self-closing and self-locking gate that remains closed and locked until intentionally unlocked and opened for connection or disconnection; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-locking type (prohibited) with a self-closing gate that remains closed, but not locked, until intentionally opened for connection or disconnection.
</P>
<P><I>Travel restraint (tether) line</I> means a rope or wire rope used to transfer forces from a body support to an anchorage or anchorage connector in a travel restraint system.
</P>
<P><I>Travel restraint system</I> means a combination of an anchorage, anchorage connector, lanyard (or other means of connection), and body support that an employer uses to eliminate the possibility of an employee going over the edge of a walking-working surface.
</P>
<P><I>Window cleaner's belt</I> means a positioning belt that consists of a waist belt, an integral terminal runner or strap, and belt terminals.
</P>
<P><I>Window cleaner's belt anchor (window anchor)</I> means specifically designed fall-preventing attachment points permanently affixed to a window frame or to a building part immediately adjacent to the window frame, for direct attachment of the terminal portion of a window cleaner's belt.
</P>
<P><I>Window cleaner's positioning system</I> means a system which consists of a window cleaner's belt secured to window anchors.
</P>
<P><I>Work-positioning system</I> (see <I>Positioning system</I> in this paragraph (b)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements.</I> The employer must ensure that personal fall protection systems meet the following requirements. Additional requirements for personal fall arrest systems and positioning systems are contained in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, respectively.
</P>
<P>(1) Connectors must be drop forged, pressed or formed steel, or made of equivalent materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Connectors must have a corrosion-resistant finish, and all surfaces and edges must be smooth to prevent damage to interfacing parts of the system.
</P>
<P>(3) When vertical lifelines are used, each employee must be attached to a separate lifeline.
</P>
<P>(4) Lanyards and vertical lifelines must have a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN).
</P>
<P>(5) Self-retracting lifelines and lanyards that automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less must have components capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 3,000 pounds (13.3 kN) applied to the device with the lifeline or lanyard in the fully extended position.
</P>
<P>(6) A competent person or qualified person must inspect each knot in a lanyard or vertical lifeline to ensure that it meets the requirements of paragraphs (c)(4) and (5) of this section before any employee uses the lanyard or lifeline.
</P>
<P>(7) D-rings, snaphooks, and carabiners must be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN).
</P>
<P>(8) D-rings, snaphooks, and carabiners must be proof tested to a minimum tensile load of 3,600 pounds (16 kN) without cracking, breaking, or incurring permanent deformation. The gate strength of snaphooks and carabiners must be capable of withstanding a minimum load of 3,600 pounds (16 kN) without the gate separating from the nose of the snaphook or carabiner body by more than 0.125 inches (3.175 mm).
</P>
<P>(9) Snaphooks and carabiners must be the automatic locking type that require at least two separate, consecutive movements to open.
</P>
<P>(10) Snaphooks and carabiners must not be connected to any of the following unless they are designed for such connections:
</P>
<P>(i) Directly to webbing, rope, or wire rope;
</P>
<P>(ii) To each other;
</P>
<P>(iii) To a D-ring to which another snaphook, carabiner, or connector is attached;
</P>
<P>(iv) To a horizontal life line; or
</P>
<P>(v) To any object that is incompatibly shaped or dimensioned in relation to the snaphook or carabiner such that unintentional disengagement could occur when the connected object depresses the snaphook or carabiner gate, allowing the components to separate.
</P>
<P>(11) The employer must ensure that each horizontal lifeline:
</P>
<P>(i) Is designed, installed, and used under the supervision of a qualified person; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is part of a complete personal fall arrest system that maintains a safety factor of at least two.
</P>
<P>(12) Anchorages used to attach to personal fall protection equipment must be independent of any anchorage used to suspend employees or platforms on which employees work. Anchorages used to attach to personal fall protection equipment on mobile work platforms on powered industrial trucks must be attached to an overhead member of the platform, at a point located above and near the center of the platform.
</P>
<P>(13) Anchorages, except window cleaners' belt anchors covered by paragraph (e) of this section, must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Capable of supporting at least 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN) for each employee attached; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Designed, installed, and used, under the supervision of qualified person, as part of a complete personal fall protection system that maintains a safety factor of at least two.
</P>
<P>(14) Travel restraint lines must be capable of sustaining a tensile load of at least 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN).
</P>
<P>(15) Lifelines must not be made of natural fiber rope. Polypropylene rope must contain an ultraviolet (UV) light inhibitor.
</P>
<P>(16) Personal fall protection systems and their components must be used exclusively for employee fall protection and not for any other purpose, such as hoisting equipment or materials.
</P>
<P>(17) A personal fall protection system or its components subjected to impact loading must be removed from service immediately and not used again until a competent person inspects the system or components and determines that it is not damaged and safe for use for employee personal fall protection.
</P>
<P>(18) Personal fall protection systems must be inspected before initial use during each workshift for mildew, wear, damage, and other deterioration, and defective components must be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(19) Ropes, belts, lanyards, and harnesses used for personal fall protection must be compatible with all connectors used.
</P>
<P>(20) Ropes, belts, lanyards, lifelines, and harnesses used for personal fall protection must be protected from being cut, abraded, melted, or otherwise damaged.
</P>
<P>(21) The employer must provide for prompt rescue of each employee in the event of a fall.
</P>
<P>(22) Personal fall protection systems must be worn with the attachment point of the body harness located in the center of the employee's back near shoulder level. The attachment point may be located in the pre-sternal position if the free fall distance is limited to 2 feet (0.6 m) or less.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Personal fall arrest systems</I>—(1) <I>System performance criteria.</I> In addition to the general requirements in paragraph (c) of this section, the employer must ensure that personal fall arrest systems:
</P>
<P>(i) Limit the maximum arresting force on the employee to 1,800 pounds (8 kN);
</P>
<P>(ii) Bring the employee to a complete stop and limit the maximum deceleration distance the employee travels to 3.5 feet (1.1 m);
</P>
<P>(iii) Have sufficient strength to withstand twice the potential impact energy of the employee free falling a distance of 6 feet (1.8 m), or the free fall distance permitted by the system; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Sustain the employee within the system/strap configuration without making contact with the employee's neck and chin area.
</P>
<P>(v) If the personal fall arrest system meets the criteria and protocols in appendix D of this subpart, and is being used by an employee having a combined body and tool weight of less than 310 pounds (140 kg), the system is considered to be in compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section. If the system is used by an employee having a combined body and tool weight of 310 pounds (140kg) or more and the employer has appropriately modified the criteria and protocols in appendix D, then the system will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>System use criteria.</I> The employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) On any horizontal lifeline that may become a vertical lifeline, the device used to connect to the horizontal lifeline is capable of locking in both directions on the lifeline.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal fall arrest systems are rigged in such a manner that the employee cannot free fall more than 6 feet (1.8 m) or contact a lower level. A free fall may be more than 6 feet (1.8 m) provided the employer can demonstrate the manufacturer designed the system to allow a free fall of more than 6 feet and tested the system to ensure a maximum arresting force of 1,800 pounds (8 kN) is not exceeded.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Body belts.</I> Body belts are prohibited as part of a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Positioning systems</I>—(1) <I>System performance requirements.</I> The employer must ensure that each positioning system meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>General.</I> All positioning systems, except window cleaners' positioning systems, are capable of withstanding, without failure, a drop test consisting of a 4-foot (1.2-m) drop of a 250-pound (113-kg) weight;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Window cleaners' positioning systems.</I> All window cleaners' positioning systems must:
</P>
<P>(A) Be capable of withstanding without failure a drop test consisting of a 6-foot (1.8-m) drop of a 250-pound (113-kg) weight; and
</P>
<P>(B) Limit the initial arresting force on the falling employee to not more than 2,000 pounds (8.9 kN), with a duration not exceeding 2 milliseconds and any subsequent arresting forces to not more than 1,000 pounds (4.5 kN).
</P>
<P>(iii) Positioning systems, including window cleaners' positioning systems, that meet the test methods and procedures in appendix D of this subpart are considered to be in compliance with paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Lineman's body belt and pole strap systems.</I> Lineman's body belt and pole strap systems must meet the following tests:
</P>
<P>(A) A dielectric test of 819.7 volts, AC, per centimeter (25,000 volts per foot) for 3 minutes without visible deterioration;
</P>
<P>(B) A leakage test of 98.4 volts, AC, per centimeter (3,000 volts per foot) with a leakage current of no more than 1 mA; and
</P>
<P>(C) A flammability test in accordance with Table I-7 of this section.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18no16.360.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>System use criteria for window cleaners' positioning systems.</I> The employer must ensure that window cleaners' positioning systems meet and are used in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Window cleaners' belts are designed and constructed so that:
</P>
<P>(A) Belt terminals will not pass through their fastenings on the belt or harness if a terminal comes loose from the window anchor; and
</P>
<P>(B) The length of the runner from terminal tip to terminal tip is 8 feet (2.44 m) or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) Window anchors to which belts are fastened are installed in the side frames or mullions of the window at a point not less than 42 inches (106.7 cm) and not more than 51 inches (129.5 cm) above the window sill;
</P>
<P>(iii) Each window anchor is capable of supporting a minimum load of 6,000 pounds (26.5 kN);
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of installed window anchors for any purpose other than attaching the window cleaner's belt is prohibited;
</P>
<P>(v) A window anchor that has damaged or deteriorated fastenings or supports is removed, or the window anchor head is detached so the anchor cannot be used;
</P>
<P>(vi) Rope that has wear or deterioration that affects its strength is not used;
</P>
<P>(vii) Both terminals of the window cleaner's belt are attached to separate window anchors during any cleaning operation;
</P>
<P>(viii) No employee works on a window sill or ledge on which there is snow, ice, or any other slippery condition, or one that is weakened or rotted;
</P>
<P>(ix) No employee works on a window sill or ledge unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The window sill or ledge is a minimum of 4 inches (10 cm) wide and slopes no more than 15 degrees below horizontal; or
</P>
<P>(B) The 4-inch minimum width of the window sill or ledge is increased 0.4 inches (1 cm) for every degree the sill or ledge slopes beyond 15 degrees, up to a maximum of 30 degrees;
</P>
<P>(x) The employee attaches at least one belt terminal to a window anchor before climbing through the window opening, and keeps at least one terminal attached until completely back inside the window opening;
</P>
<P>(xi) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(xii) of this section, the employee travels from one window to another by returning inside the window opening and repeating the belt terminal attachment procedure at each window in accordance with paragraph (e)(2)(x) of this section;
</P>
<P>(xii) An employee using a window cleaner's positioning system may travel from one window to another while outside of the building, provided:
</P>
<P>(A) At least one belt terminal is attached to a window anchor at all times;
</P>
<P>(B) The distance between window anchors does not exceed 4 feet (1.2 m) horizontally. The distance between windows may be increased up to 6 feet (1.8 m) horizontally if the window sill or ledge is at least 1 foot (0.31 m) wide and the slope is less than 5 degrees;
</P>
<P>(C) The sill or ledge between windows is continuous; and
</P>
<P>(D) The width of the window sill or ledge in front of the mullions is at least 6 inches (15.2 cm) wide.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 82999, Nov. 18, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 68797, Dec. 17, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.10.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart I of Part 1910—References for Further Information (Non-mandatory)
</HEAD>
<P>The documents in appendix A provide information which may be helpful in understanding and implementing the standards in Subpart I.
</P>
<P>1. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS). “Accidents Involving Eye Injuries.” Report 597, Washington, D.C.: BLS, 1980.
</P>
<P>2. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS). “Accidents Involving Face Injuries.” Report 604, Washington, D.C.: BLS, 1980.
</P>
<P>3. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS). “Accidents Involving Head Injuries.” Report 605, Washington, D.C.: BLS, 1980.
</P>
<P>4. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS). “Accidents Involving Foot Injuries.” Report 626, Washington, D.C.: BLS, 1981.
</P>
<P>5. National Safety Council. “Accident Facts”, Annual edition, Chicago, IL: 1981.
</P>
<P>6. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS). “Occupational Injuries and Illnesses in the United States by Industry,” Annual edition, Washington, D.C.: BLS.
</P>
<P>7. National Society to Prevent Blindness. “A Guide for Controlling Eye Injuries in Industry,” Chicago, Il: 1982.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 16362, Apr. 6, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.10.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart I of Part 1910—Nonmandatory Compliance Guidelines for Hazard Assessment and Personal Protective Equipment Selection
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix is intended to provide compliance assistance for employers and employees in implementing requirements for a hazard assessment and the selection of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Controlling hazards.</I> PPE devices alone should not be relied on to provide protection against hazards, but should be used in conjunction with guards, engineering controls, and sound manufacturing practices.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assessment and selection.</I> It is necessary to consider certain general guidelines for assessing the foot, head, eye and face, and hand hazard situations that exist in an occupational or educational operation or process, and to match the protective devices to the particular hazard. It should be the responsibility of the safety officer to exercise common sense and appropriate expertise to accomplish these tasks.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Assessment guidelines.</I> In order to assess the need for PPE the following steps should be taken:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Survey.</I> Conduct a walk-through survey of the areas in question. The purpose of the survey is to identify sources of hazards to workers and co-workers. Consideration should be given to the basic hazard categories:
</P>
<P>(a) Impact
</P>
<P>(b) Penetration
</P>
<P>(c) Compression (roll-over)
</P>
<P>(d) Chemical
</P>
<P>(e) Heat
</P>
<P>(f) Harmful dust
</P>
<P>(g) Light (optical) radiation
</P>
<P>b. <I>Sources.</I> During the walk-through survey the safety officer should observe: (a) sources of motion; i.e., machinery or processes where any movement of tools, machine elements or particles could exist, or movement of personnel that could result in collision with stationary objects; (b) sources of high temperatures that could result in burns, eye injury or ignition of protective equipment, etc.; (c) types of chemical exposures; (d) sources of harmful dust; (e) sources of light radiation, i.e., welding, brazing, cutting, furnaces, heat treating, high intensity lights, etc.; (f) sources of falling objects or potential for dropping objects; (g) sources of sharp objects which might pierce the feet or cut the hands; (h) sources of rolling or pinching objects which could crush the feet; (i) layout of workplace and location of co-workers; and (j) any electrical hazards. In addition, injury/accident data should be reviewed to help identify problem areas.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Organize data.</I> Following the walk-through survey, it is necessary to organize the data and information for use in the assessment of hazards. The objective is to prepare for an analysis of the hazards in the environment to enable proper selection of protective equipment.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Analyze data.</I> Having gathered and organized data on a workplace, an estimate of the potential for injuries should be made. Each of the basic hazards (paragraph 3.a.) should be reviewed and a determination made as to the type, level of risk, and seriousness of potential injury from each of the hazards found in the area. The possibility of exposure to several hazards simultaneously should be considered.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Selection guidelines.</I> After completion of the procedures in paragraph 3, the general procedure for selection of protective equipment is to: a) Become familiar with the potential hazards and the type of protective equipment that is available, and what it can do; i.e., splash protection, impact protection, etc.; b) compare the hazards associated with the environment; i.e., impact velocities, masses, projectile shape, radiation intensities, with the capabilities of the available protective equipment; c) select the protective equipment which ensures a level of protection greater than the minimum required to protect employees from the hazards; and d) fit the user with the protective device and give instructions on care and use of the PPE. It is very important that end users be made aware of all warning labels for and limitations of their PPE.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Fitting the device.</I> Careful consideration must be given to comfort and fit. PPE that fits poorly will not afford the necessary protection. Continued wearing of the device is more likely if it fits the wearer comfortably. Protective devices are generally available in a variety of sizes. Care should be taken to ensure that the right size is selected.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Devices with adjustable features.</I> Adjustments should be made on an individual basis for a comfortable fit that will maintain the protective device in the proper position. Particular care should be taken in fitting devices for eye protection against dust and chemical splash to ensure that the devices are sealed to the face. In addition, proper fitting of helmets is important to ensure that it will not fall off during work operations. In some cases a chin strap may be necessary to keep the helmet on an employee's head. (Chin straps should break at a reasonably low force, however, so as to prevent a strangulation hazard). Where manufacturer's instructions are available, they should be followed carefully.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Reassessment of hazards.</I> It is the responsibility of the safety officer to reassess the workplace hazard situation as necessary, by identifying and evaluating new equipment and processes, reviewing accident records, and reevaluating the suitability of previously selected PPE.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Selection chart guidelines for eye and face protection.</I> Some occupations (not a complete list) for which eye protection should be routinely considered are: carpenters, electricians, machinists, mechanics and repairers, millwrights, plumbers and pipe fitters, sheet metal workers and tinsmiths, assemblers, sanders, grinding machine operators, lathe and milling machine operators, sawyers, welders, laborers, chemical process operators and handlers, and timber cutting and logging workers. The following chart provides general guidance for the proper selection of eye and face protection to protect against hazards associated with the listed hazard “source” operations.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Eye and Face Protection Selection Chart
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Source
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assessment of Hazard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Protection
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IMPACT—Chipping, grinding machining, masonry work, woodworking, sawing, drilling, chiseling, powered fastening, riveting, and sanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flying fragments, objects, large chips, particles sand, dirt, etc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spectacles with side protection, goggles, face shields. See notes (1), (3), (5), (6), (10). For severe exposure, use faceshield.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HEAT—Furnace operations, pouring, casting, hot dipping, and welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot sparks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Faceshields, goggles, spectacles with side protection. For severe exposure use faceshield. See notes (1), (2), (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Splash from molten metals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Faceshields worn over goggles. See notes (1), (2), (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High temperature exposure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Screen face shields, reflective face shields. See notes (1), (2), (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CHEMICALS—Acid and chemicals handling, degreasing plating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Splash</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goggles, eyecup and cover types. For severe exposure, use face shield. See notes (3), (11).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Irritating mists</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special-purpose goggles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DUST—Woodworking, buffing, general dusty conditions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nuisance dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goggles, eyecup and cover types. See note (8).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">LIGHT and/or RADIATION—
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Welding: Electric arc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Optical radiation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Welding helmets or welding shields. Typical shades: 10-14. See notes (9), (12)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Welding: Gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Optical radiation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Welding goggles or welding face shield. Typical shades: gas welding 4-8, cutting 3-6, brazing 3-4. See note (9)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cutting, Torch brazing, Torch soldering</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Optical radiation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spectacles or welding face-shield. Typical shades, 1.5-3. See notes (3), (9)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glare</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poor vision</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spectacles with shaded or special-purpose lenses, as suitable. See notes (9), (10).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Notes to Eye and Face Protection Selection Chart:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) Care should be taken to recognize the possibility of multiple and simultaneous exposure to a variety of hazards. Adequate protection against the highest level of each of the hazards should be provided. Protective devices do not provide unlimited protection.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) Operations involving heat may also involve light radiation. As required by the standard, protection from both hazards must be provided.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(3) Faceshields should only be worn over primary eye protection (spectacles or goggles).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(4) As required by the standard, filter lenses must meet the requirements for shade designations in § 1910.133(a)(5). Tinted and shaded lenses are <E T="03">not</E> filter lenses unless they are marked or identified as such.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(5) As required by the standard, persons whose vision requires the use of prescription (Rx) lenses must wear either protective devices fitted with prescription (Rx) lenses or protective devices designed to be worn over regular prescription (Rx) eyewear.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(6) Wearers of contact lenses must also wear appropriate eye and face protection devices in a hazardous environment. It should be recognized that dusty and/or chemical environments may represent an additional hazard to contact lens wearers.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(7) Caution should be exercised in the use of metal frame protective devices in electrical hazard areas.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(8) Atmospheric conditions and the restricted ventilation of the protector can cause lenses to fog. Frequent cleansing may be necessary.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(9) Welding helmets or faceshields should be used only over primary eye protection (spectacles or goggles).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(10) Non-sideshield spectacles are available for frontal protection only, but are not acceptable eye protection for the sources and operations listed for “impact.”
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(11) Ventilation should be adequate, but well protected from splash entry. Eye and face protection should be designed and used so that it provides both adequate ventilation and protects the wearer from splash entry.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(12) Protection from light radiation is directly related to filter lens density. See note (4) . Select the darkest shade that allows task performance.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>9. <I>Selection guidelines for head protection.</I> All head protection (helmets) is designed to provide protection from impact and penetration hazards caused by falling objects. Head protection is also available which provides protection from electric shock and burn. When selecting head protection, knowledge of potential electrical hazards is important. Class A helmets, in addition to impact and penetration resistance, provide electrical protection from low-voltage conductors (they are proof tested to 2,200 volts). Class B helmets, in addition to impact and penetration resistance, provide electrical protection from high-voltage conductors (they are proof tested to 20,000 volts). Class C helmets provide impact and penetration resistance (they are usually made of aluminum which conducts electricity), and should not be used around electrical hazards.
</P>
<P>Where falling object hazards are present, helmets must be worn. Some examples include: working below other workers who are using tools and materials which could fall; working around or under conveyor belts which are carrying parts or materials; working below machinery or processes which might cause material or objects to fall; and working on exposed energized conductors.
</P>
<P>Some examples of occupations for which head protection should be routinely considered are: carpenters, electricians, linemen, mechanics and repairers, plumbers and pipe fitters, assemblers, packers, wrappers, sawyers, welders, laborers, freight handlers, timber cutting and logging, stock handlers, and warehouse laborers.
</P>
<P>Beginning with the ANSI Z89.1-1997 standard, ANSI updated the classification system for protective helmets. Prior revisions used type classifications to distinguish between caps and full brimmed hats. Beginning in 1997, Type I designated helmets designed to reduce the force of impact resulting from a blow only to the top of the head, while Type II designated helmets designed to reduce the force of impact resulting from a blow to the top or sides of the head. Accordingly, if a hazard assessment indicates that lateral impact to the head is foreseeable, employers must select Type II helmets for their employees. To improve comprehension and usefulness, the 1997 revision also redesignated the electrical-protective classifications for helmets as follows: “Class G—General”; helmets designed to reduce the danger of contact with low-voltage conductors; “Class E—Electrical”; helmets designed to reduce the danger of contact with conductors at higher voltage levels; and “Class C—Conductive”; helmets that provide no protection against contact with electrical hazards.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Selection guidelines for foot protection.</I> Safety shoes and boots which meet the ANSI Z41-1991 Standard provide both impact and compression protection. Where necessary, safety shoes can be obtained which provide puncture protection. In some work situations, metatarsal protection should be provided, and in other special situations electrical conductive or insulating safety shoes would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>Safety shoes or boots with impact protection would be required for carrying or handling materials such as packages, objects, parts or heavy tools, which could be dropped; and, for other activities where objects might fall onto the feet. Safety shoes or boots with compression protection would be required for work activities involving skid trucks (manual material handling carts) around bulk rolls (such as paper rolls) and around heavy pipes, all of which could potentially roll over an employee's feet. Safety shoes or boots with puncture protection would be required where sharp objects such as nails, wire, tacks, screws, large staples, scrap metal etc., could be stepped on by employees causing a foot injury. Electrically conductive shoes would be required as a supplementary form of protection for work activities in which there is a danger of fire or explosion from the discharge of static electricity. Electrical-hazard or dielectric footwear would be required as a supplementary form of protection when an employee standing on the ground is exposed to hazardous step or touch potential (the difference in electrical potential between the feet or between the hands and feet) or when primary forms of electrical protective equipment, such as rubber insulating gloves and blankets, do not provide complete protection for an employee standing on the ground.
</P>
<P>Some occupations (not a complete list) for which foot protection should be routinely considered are: Shipping and receiving clerks, stock clerks, carpenters, electricians, machinists, mechanics and repairers, plumbers and pipe fitters, structural metal workers, assemblers, drywall installers and lathers, packers, wrappers, craters, punch and stamping press operators, sawyers, welders, laborers, freight handlers, gardeners and grounds-keepers, timber cutting and logging workers, stock handlers and warehouse laborers.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Selection guidelines for hand protection.</I> Gloves are often relied upon to prevent cuts, abrasions, burns, and skin contact with chemicals that are capable of causing local or systemic effects following dermal exposure. OSHA is unaware of any gloves that provide protection against <I>all</I> potential hand hazards, and commonly available glove materials provide only limited protection against many chemicals. Therefore, it is important to select the most appropriate glove for a particular application and to determine how long it can be worn, and whether it can be reused.
</P>
<P>It is also important to know the performance characteristics of gloves relative to the specific hazard anticipated; e.g., chemical hazards, cut hazards, flame hazards, etc. These performance characteristics should be assessed by using standard test procedures. Before purchasing gloves, the employer should request documentation from the manufacturer that the gloves meet the appropriate test standard(s) for the hazard(s) anticipated.
</P>
<P>Other factors to be considered for glove selection in general include:
</P>
<P>(A) As long as the performance characteristics are acceptable, in certain circumstances, it may be more cost effective to regularly change cheaper gloves than to reuse more expensive types; and,
</P>
<P>(B) The work activities of the employee should be studied to determine the degree of dexterity required, the duration, frequency, and degree of exposure of the hazard, and the physical stresses that will be applied.
</P>
<P>With respect to selection of gloves for protection against chemical hazards:
</P>
<P>(A) The toxic properties of the chemical(s) must be determined; in particular, the ability of the chemical to cause local effects on the skin and /or to pass through the skin and cause systemic effects;
</P>
<P>(B) Generally, any “chemical resistant” glove can be used for dry powders;
</P>
<P>(C) For mixtures and formulated products (unless specific test data are available), a glove should be selected on the basis of the chemical component with the shortest breakthrough time, since it is possible for solvents to carry active ingredients through polymeric materials; and,
</P>
<P>(D) Employees must be able to remove the gloves in such a manner as to prevent skin contamination.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Cleaning and maintenance.</I> It is important that all PPE be kept clean and properly maintained. Cleaning is particularly important for eye and face protection where dirty or fogged lenses could impair vision.
</P>
<P>For the purposes of compliance with § 1910.132 (a) and (b), PPE should be inspected, cleaned, and maintained at regular intervals so that the PPE provides the requisite protection.
</P>
<P>It is also important to ensure that contaminated PPE which cannot be decontaminated is disposed of in a manner that protects employees from exposure to hazards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 16362, Apr. 6, 1994, as amended at 74 FR 46357, Sept. 9, 2009; 79 FR 20633, Apr. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.10.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart I of Part 1910—Personal Fall Protection Systems Non-Mandatory Guidelines
</HEAD>
<P>The following information generally applies to all personal fall protection systems and is intended to assist employers and employees comply with the requirements of § 1910.140 for personal fall protection systems.
</P>
<P>(a) Planning considerations. It is important for employers to plan prior to using personal fall protection systems. Probably the most overlooked component of planning is locating suitable anchorage points. Such planning should ideally be done before the structure or building is constructed so that anchorage points can be used later for window cleaning or other building maintenance.
</P>
<P>(b) Selection and use considerations. (1) The kind of personal fall protection system selected should be appropriate for the employee's specific work situation. Free fall distances should always be kept to a minimum. Many systems are designed for particular work applications, such as climbing ladders and poles; maintaining and servicing equipment; and window cleaning. Consideration should be given to the environment in which the work will be performed. For example, the presence of acids, dirt, moisture, oil, grease, or other substances, and their potential effects on the system selected, should be evaluated. The employer should fully evaluate the work conditions and environment (including seasonal weather changes) before selecting the appropriate personal fall protection system. Hot or cold environments may also affect fall protection systems. Wire rope should not be used where electrical hazards are anticipated. As required by § 1910.140(c)(21), the employer must provide a means for promptly rescuing an employee should a fall occur.
</P>
<P>(2) Where lanyards, connectors, and lifelines are subject to damage by work operations, such as welding, chemical cleaning, and sandblasting, the component should be protected, or other securing systems should be used. A program for cleaning and maintaining the system may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) Testing considerations. Before purchasing a personal fall protection system, an employer should insist that the supplier provide information about its test performance (using recognized test methods) so the employer will know that the system meets the criteria in § 1910.140. Otherwise, the employer should test the equipment to ensure that it is in compliance. Appendix D to this subpart contains test methods which are recommended for evaluating the performance of any system. There are some circumstances in which an employer can evaluate a system based on data and calculations derived from the testing of similar systems. Enough information must be available for the employer to demonstrate that its system and the tested system(s) are similar in both function and design.
</P>
<P>(d) Component compatibility considerations. Ideally, a personal fall protection system is designed, tested, and supplied as a complete system. However, it is common practice for lanyards, connectors, lifelines, deceleration devices, body belts, and body harnesses to be interchanged since some components wear out before others. Employers and employees should realize that not all components are interchangeable. For instance, a lanyard should not be connected between a body harness and a deceleration device of the self-retracting type (unless specifically allowed by the manufacturer) since this can result in additional free fall for which the system was not designed. In addition, positioning components, such as pole straps, ladder hooks and rebar hooks, should not be used in personal fall arrest systems unless they meet the appropriate strength and performance requirements of part 1910 (<I>e.g.,</I> §§ 1910.140, 1910.268 and 1910.269). Any substitution or change to a personal fall protection system should be fully evaluated or tested by a competent person to determine that it meets applicable OSHA standards before the modified system is put in use. Also, OSHA suggests that rope be used according to manufacturers' recommendations, especially if polypropylene rope is used.
</P>
<P>(e) Employee training considerations. As required by §§ 1910.30 and 1910.132, before an employee uses a fall protection system, the employer must ensure that he or she is trained in the proper use of the system. This may include the following: The limits of the system; proper anchoring and tie-off techniques; estimating free fall distance, including determining elongation and deceleration distance; methods of use; and inspection and storage. Careless or improper use of fall protection equipment can result in serious injury or death. Employers and employees should become familiar with the material in this standard and appendix, as well as manufacturers' recommendations, before a system is used. It is important for employees to be aware that certain tie-offs (such as using knots and tying around sharp edges) can reduce the overall strength of a system. Employees also need to know the maximum permitted free fall distance. Training should stress the importance of inspections prior to use, the limitations of the equipment to be used, and unique conditions at the worksite that may be important.
</P>
<P>(f) Instruction considerations. Employers should obtain comprehensive instructions from the supplier or a qualified person as to the system's proper use and application, including, where applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) The force measured during the sample force test;
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum elongation measured for lanyards during the force test;
</P>
<P>(3) The deceleration distance measured for deceleration devices during the force test;
</P>
<P>(4) Caution statements on critical use limitations;
</P>
<P>(5) Limits of the system;
</P>
<P>(6) Proper hook-up, anchoring and tie-off techniques, including the proper D-ring or other attachment point to use on the body harness;
</P>
<P>(7) Proper climbing techniques;
</P>
<P>(8) Methods of inspection, use, cleaning, and storage; and
</P>
<P>(9) Specific lifelines that may be used.
</P>
<P>(g) Inspection considerations. Personal fall protection systems must be inspected before initial use in each workshift. Any component with damage, such as a cut, tear, abrasion, mold, or evidence of undue stretching, an alteration or addition that might affect its effectiveness, damage due to deterioration, fire, acid, or other corrosive damage, distorted hooks or faulty hook springs, tongues that are unfitted to the shoulder of buckles, loose or damaged mountings, non-functioning parts, or wear, or internal deterioration must be removed from service immediately, and should be tagged or marked as unusable, or destroyed. Any personal fall protection system, including components, subjected to impact loading must be removed from service immediately and not used until a competent person inspects the system and determines that it is not damaged and is safe to use for personal fall protection.
</P>
<P>(h) Rescue considerations. As required by § 1910.140(c)(21), when personal fall arrest systems are used, special consideration must be given to rescuing an employee promptly should a fall occur. The availability of rescue personnel, ladders, or other rescue equipment needs to be evaluated since there may be instances in which employees cannot self-rescue (<I>e.g.,</I> employee unconscious or seriously injured). In some situations, equipment allowing employees to rescue themselves after the fall has been arrested may be desirable, such as devices that have descent capability.
</P>
<P>(i) Tie-off considerations. Employers and employees should at all times be aware that the strength of a personal fall arrest system is based on its being attached to an anchoring system that can support the system. Therefore, if a means of attachment is used that will reduce the strength of the system (such as an eye-bolt/snaphook anchorage), that component should be replaced by a stronger one that will also maintain the appropriate maximum deceleration characteristics. The following is a listing of some situations in which employers and employees should be especially cautious:
</P>
<P>(1) Tie-off using a knot in the lanyard or lifeline (at any location). The strength of the line can be reduced by 50 percent or more if a knot is used. Therefore, a stronger lanyard or lifeline should be used to compensate for the knot, or the lanyard length should be reduced (or the tie-off location raised) to minimize free fall distance, or the lanyard or lifeline should be replaced by one which has an appropriately incorporated connector to eliminate the need for a knot.
</P>
<P>(2) Tie-off around rough or sharp (<I>e.g.,</I> “H” or “I” beams) surfaces. Sharp or rough surfaces can damage rope lines and this reduces strength of the system drastically. Such tie-offs should be avoided whenever possible. An alternate means should be used such as a snaphook/D-ring connection, a tie-off apparatus (steel cable tie-off), an effective padding of the surfaces, or an abrasion-resistant strap around the supporting member. If these alternative means of tie-off are not available, the employer should try to minimize the potential free fall distance.
</P>
<P>(3) Knots. Sliding hitch knots should not be used except in emergency situations. The one-and-one sliding hitch knot should never be used because it is unreliable in stopping a fall. The two-and-two, or three-and-three knots (preferable) may be used in emergency situations; however, care should be taken to limit free fall distances because of reduced lifeline/lanyard strength. OSHA requires that a competent or qualified person inspect each knot in a lanyard or vertical lifeline to ensure it meets the strength requirements in § 1910.140.
</P>
<P>(j) Horizontal lifelines. Horizontal lifelines, depending on their geometry and angle of sag, may be subjected to greater loads than the impact load imposed by an attached component. When the angle of horizontal lifeline sag is less than 30 degrees, the impact force imparted to the lifeline by an attached lanyard is greatly amplified. For example, with a sag angle of 15 degrees the force amplification is about 2:1, and at 5 degrees sag it is about 6:1. Depending on the angle of sag, and the line's elasticity, the strength of the horizontal lifeline, and the anchorages to which it is attached should be increased a number of times over that of the lanyard. Extreme care should be taken in considering a horizontal lifeline for multiple tie-offs. If there are multiple tie-offs to a horizontal lifeline, and one employee falls, the movement of the falling employee and the horizontal lifeline during arrest of the fall may cause other employees to fall. Horizontal lifeline and anchorage strength should be increased for each additional employee to be tied-off. For these and other reasons, the systems using horizontal lifelines must be designed only by qualified persons. OSHA recommends testing installed lifelines and anchors prior to use. OSHA requires that horizontal lifelines are designed, installed and used under the supervision of a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(k) Eye-bolts. It must be recognized that the strength of an eye-bolt is rated along the axis of the bolt, and that its strength is greatly reduced if the force is applied at right angles to this axis (in the direction of its shear strength). Care should also be exercised in selecting the proper diameter of the eye to avoid creating a roll-out hazard (accidental disengagement of the snaphook from the eye-bolt).
</P>
<P>(l) Vertical lifeline considerations. As required by § 1910.140(c)(3), each employee must have a separate lifeline when the lifeline is vertical. If multiple tie-offs to a single lifeline are used, and one employee falls, the movement of the lifeline during the arrest of the fall may pull other employees' lanyards, causing them to fall as well.
</P>
<P>(m) Snaphook and carabiner considerations. As required by § 1910.140(c)(10), the following connections must be avoided unless the locking snaphook or carabiner has been designed for them because they are conditions that can result in rollout:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct connection to webbing, rope, or a horizontal lifeline;
</P>
<P>(2) Two (or more) snaphooks or carabiners connected to one D-ring;
</P>
<P>(3) Two snaphooks or carabiners connected to each other;
</P>
<P>(4) Snaphooks or carabiners connected directly to webbing, rope, or wire rope; and
</P>
<P>(5) Improper dimensions of the D-ring, rebar, or other connection point in relation to the snaphook or carabiner dimensions which would allow the gate to be depressed by a turning motion.
</P>
<P>(n) Free fall considerations. Employers and employees should always be aware that a system's maximum arresting force is evaluated under normal use conditions established by the manufacturer. OSHA requires that personal fall arrest systems be rigged so an employee cannot free fall in excess of 6 feet (1.8 m). Even a few additional feet of free fall can significantly increase the arresting force on the employee, possibly to the point of causing injury and possibly exceeding the strength of the system. Because of this, the free fall distance should be kept to a minimum, and, as required by § 1910.140(d)(2), must never be greater than 6 feet (1.8 m). To assure this, the tie-off attachment point to the lifeline or anchor should be located at or above the connection point of the fall arrest equipment to the harness. (Otherwise, additional free fall distance is added to the length of the connecting means (<I>i.e.,</I> lanyard)). Tying off to the walking-working surface will often result in a free fall greater than 6 feet (1.8 m). For instance, if a 6-foot (1.8-m) lanyard is used, the total free fall distance will be the distance from the walking-working level to the harness connection plus the 6 feet (1.8 m) of lanyard.
</P>
<P>(o) Elongation and deceleration distance considerations. During fall arrest, a lanyard will stretch or elongate, whereas activation of a deceleration device will result in a certain stopping distance. These distances should be available with the lanyard or device's instructions and must be added to the free fall distance to arrive at the total fall distance before an employee is fully stopped. The additional stopping distance may be significant if the lanyard or deceleration device is attached near or at the end of a long lifeline, which may itself add considerable distance due to its own elongation. As required by § 1910.140(d)(2), sufficient distance to allow for all of these factors must also be maintained between the employee and obstructions below, to prevent an injury due to impact before the system fully arrests the fall. In addition, a minimum of 12 feet (3.7 m) of lifeline should be allowed below the securing point of a rope-grab-type deceleration device, and the end terminated to prevent the device from sliding off the lifeline. Alternatively, the lifeline should extend to the ground or the next working level below. These measures are suggested to prevent the employee from inadvertently moving past the end of the lifeline and having the rope grab become disengaged from the lifeline.
</P>
<P>(p) Obstruction considerations. In selecting a location for tie-off, employers and employees should consider obstructions in the potential fall path of the employee. Tie-offs that minimize the possibilities of exaggerated swinging should be considered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83002, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.9.34.10.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart I of Part 1910—Test Methods and Procedures for Personal Fall Protection Systems Non-Mandatory Guidelines
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains test methods for personal fall protection systems which may be used to determine if they meet the system performance criteria specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of § 1910.140.
</P>
<P>Test methods for personal fall arrest systems (paragraph (d) of § 1910.140).
</P>
<P>(a) General. The following sets forth test procedures for personal fall arrest systems as defined in paragraph (d) of § 1910.140.
</P>
<P>(b) General test conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) Lifelines, lanyards and deceleration devices should be attached to an anchorage and connected to the body harness in the same manner as they would be when used to protect employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The fixed anchorage should be rigid, and should not have a deflection greater than 0.04 inches (1 mm) when a force of 2,250 pounds (10 kN) is applied.
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency response of the load measuring instrumentation should be 120 Hz.
</P>
<P>(4) The test weight used in the strength and force tests should be a rigid, metal cylindrical or torso-shaped object with a girth of 38 inches plus or minus 4 inches (96 cm plus or minus 10 cm).
</P>
<P>(5) The lanyard or lifeline used to create the free fall distance should be supplied with the system, or in its absence, the least elastic lanyard or lifeline available should be used with the system.
</P>
<P>(6) The test weight for each test should be hoisted to the required level and should be quickly released without having any appreciable motion imparted to it.
</P>
<P>(7) The system's performance should be evaluated, taking into account the range of environmental conditions for which it is designed to be used.
</P>
<P>(8) Following the test, the system need not be capable of further operation.
</P>
<P>(c) Strength test.
</P>
<P>(1) During the testing of all systems, a test weight of 300 pounds plus or minus 3 pounds (136.4 kg plus or minus 1.4 kg) should be used. (See paragraph (b)(4) of this appendix.)
</P>
<P>(2) The test consists of dropping the test weight once. A new unused system should be used for each test.
</P>
<P>(3) For lanyard systems, the lanyard length should be 6 feet plus or minus 2 inches (1.83 m plus or minus 5 cm) as measured from the fixed anchorage to the attachment on the body harness.
</P>
<P>(4) For rope-grab-type deceleration systems, the length of the lifeline above the centerline of the grabbing mechanism to the lifeline's anchorage point should not exceed 2 feet (0.61 m).
</P>
<P>(5) For lanyard systems, for systems with deceleration devices which do not automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, and for systems with deceleration devices which have a connection distance in excess of 1 foot (0.3 m) (measured between the centerline of the lifeline and the attachment point to the body harness), the test weight should be rigged to free fall a distance of 7.5 feet (2.3 m) from a point that is 1.5 feet (46 cm) above the anchorage point, to its hanging location (6 feet (1.83 m) below the anchorage). The test weight should fall without interference, obstruction, or hitting the floor or ground during the test. In some cases a non-elastic wire lanyard of sufficient length may need to be added to the system (for test purposes) to create the necessary free fall distance.
</P>
<P>(6) For deceleration device systems with integral lifelines or lanyards that automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, the test weight should be rigged to free fall a distance of 4 feet (1.22 m).
</P>
<P>(7) Any weight that detaches from the harness should constitute failure for the strength test.
</P>
<P>(d) Force test.
</P>
<P>(1) General. The test consists of dropping the respective test weight specified in paragraph (d)(2)(i) or (d)(3)(i) of this appendix once. A new, unused system should be used for each test.
</P>
<P>(2) For lanyard systems. (i) A test weight of 220 pounds plus or minus three pounds (100 kg plus or minus 1.6 kg) should be used. (See paragraph (b)(4) of this appendix.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Lanyard length should be 6 feet plus or minus 2 inches (1.83 m plus or minus 5 cm) as measured from the fixed anchorage to the attachment on the body harness.
</P>
<P>(iii) The test weight should fall free from the anchorage level to its hanging location (a total of 6 feet (1.83 m) free fall distance) without interference, obstruction, or hitting the floor or ground during the test.
</P>
<P>(3) For all other systems. (i) A test weight of 220 pounds plus or minus 2 pounds (100 kg plus or minus 1.0 kg) should be used. (See paragraph (b)(4) of this appendix.)
</P>
<P>(ii) The free fall distance to be used in the test should be the maximum fall distance physically permitted by the system during normal use conditions, up to a maximum free fall distance for the test weight of 6 feet (1.83 m), except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For deceleration systems having a connection link or lanyard, the test weight should free fall a distance equal to the connection distance (measured between the centerline of the lifeline and the attachment point to the body harness).
</P>
<P>(B) For deceleration device systems with integral lifelines or lanyards that automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, the test weight should free fall a distance equal to that permitted by the system in normal use. (For example, to test a system with a self-retracting lifeline or lanyard, the test weight should be supported and the system allowed to retract the lifeline or lanyard as it would in normal use. The test weight would then be released and the force and deceleration distance measured).
</P>
<P>(4) Failure. A system fails the force test when the recorded maximum arresting force exceeds 2,520 pounds (11.2 kN) when using a body harness.
</P>
<P>(5) Distances. The maximum elongation and deceleration distance should be recorded during the force test.
</P>
<P>(e) Deceleration device tests.
</P>
<P>(1) General. The device should be evaluated or tested under the environmental conditions (such as rain, ice, grease, dirt, and type of lifeline) for which the device is designed.
</P>
<P>(2) Rope-grab-type deceleration devices. (i) Devices should be moved on a lifeline 1,000 times over the same length of line a distance of not less than 1 foot (30.5 cm), and the mechanism should lock each time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the device is permanently marked to indicate the type of lifelines that must be used, several types (different diameters and different materials), of lifelines should be used to test the device.
</P>
<P>(3) Other self-activating-type deceleration devices. The locking mechanisms of other self-activating-type deceleration devices designed for more than one arrest should lock each of 1,000 times as they would in normal service.
</P>
<P>Test methods for positioning systems (paragraph (e) of § 1910.140).
</P>
<P>(a) General. The following sets forth test procedures for positioning systems as defined in paragraph (e) of § 1910.140. The requirements in this appendix for personal fall arrest systems set forth procedures that may be used, along with the procedures listed below, to determine compliance with the requirements for positioning systems.
</P>
<P>(b) Test conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) The fixed anchorage should be rigid and should not have a deflection greater than 0.04 inches (1 mm) when a force of 2,250 pounds (10 kN) is applied.
</P>
<P>(2) For window cleaners' belts, the complete belt should withstand a drop test consisting of a 250 pound (113 kg) weight falling free for a distance of 6 feet (1.83 m). The weight should be a rigid object with a girth of 38 inches plus or minus 4 inches (96 cm plus or minus 10 cm). The weight should be placed in the waistband with the belt buckle drawn firmly against the weight, as when the belt is worn by a window cleaner. One belt terminal should be attached to a rigid anchor and the other terminal should hang free. The terminals should be adjusted to their maximum span. The weight fastened in the freely suspended belt should then be lifted exactly 6 feet (1.83 m) above its “at rest” position and released so as to permit a free fall of 6 feet (1.83 m) vertically below the point of attachment of the terminal anchor. The belt system should be equipped with devices and instrumentation capable of measuring the duration and magnitude of the arrest forces. Failure of the test should consist of any breakage or slippage sufficient to permit the weight to fall free of the system. In addition, the initial and subsequent arresting forces should be measured and should not exceed 2,000 pounds (8.5 kN) for more than 2 milliseconds for the initial impact, or exceed 1,000 pounds (4.5 kN) for the remainder of the arrest time.
</P>
<P>(3) All other positioning systems (except for restraint line systems) should withstand a drop test consisting of a 250 pound (113 kg) weight free falling a distance of 4 feet (1.2 m). The weight must be a rigid object with a girth of 38 inches plus or minus 4 inches (96 cm plus or minus 10 cm). The body belt or harness should be affixed to the test weight as it would be to an employee. The system should be connected to the rigid anchor in the manner that the system would be connected in normal use. The weight should be lifted exactly 4 feet (1.2 m) above its “at rest” position and released so as to permit a vertical free fall of 4 feet (1.2 m). Failure of the system should be indicated by any breakage or slippage sufficient to permit the weight to fall free to the ground.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 83002, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—General Environmental Controls</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.
</PSPACE><P>Sections 1910.141, 1910.142, 1910.145, 1910.146, and 1910.147 also issued under 29 CFR part 1911.


</P></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.141" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.10.34.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.141   Sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to permanent places of employment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions applicable to this section.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Nonwater carriage toilet facility,</I> means a toilet facility not connected to a sewer.
</P>
<P><I>Number of employees</I> means, unless otherwise specified, the maximum number of employees present at any one time on a regular shift.
</P>
<P><I>Personal service room,</I> means a room used for activities not directly connected with the production or service function performed by the establishment. Such activities include, but are not limited to, first-aid, medical services, dressing, showering, toilet use, washing, and eating.
</P>
<P><I>Potable water</I> means water that meets the standards for drinking purposes of the State or local authority having jurisdiction, or water that meets the quality standards prescribed by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's National Primary Drinking Water Regulations (40 CFR 141).
</P>
<P><I>Toilet facility,</I> means a fixture maintained within a toilet room for the purpose of defecation or urination, or both.
</P>
<P><I>Toilet room,</I> means a room maintained within or on the premises of any place of employment, containing toilet facilities for use by employees.
</P>
<P><I>Toxic material</I> means a material in concentration or amount which exceeds the applicable limit established by a standard, such as §§ 1910.1000 and 1910.1001 or, in the absence of an applicable standard, which is of such toxicity so as to constitute a recognized hazard that is causing or is likely to cause death or serious physical harm.
</P>
<P><I>Urinal</I> means a toilet facility maintained within a toilet room for the sole purpose of urination.
</P>
<P><I>Water closet</I> means a toilet facility maintained within a toilet room for the purpose of both defecation and urination and which is flushed with water.
</P>
<P><I>Wet process</I> means any process or operation in a workroom which normally results in surfaces upon which employees may walk or stand becoming wet.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (i) All places of employment shall be kept clean to the extent that the nature of the work allows.
</P>
<P>(ii) The floor of every workroom shall be maintained, so far as practicable, in a dry condition. Where wet processes are used, drainage shall be maintained and false floors, platforms, mats, or other dry standing places shall be provided, where practicable, or appropriate waterproof footgear shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) To facilitate cleaning, every floor, working place, and passageway shall be kept free from protruding nails, splinters, loose boards, and unnecessary holes and openings.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Waste disposal.</I> (i) Any receptacle used for putrescible solid or liquid waste or refuse shall be so constructed that it does not leak and may be thoroughly cleaned and maintained in a sanitary condition. Such a receptacle shall be equipped with a solid tight-fitting cover, unless it can be maintained in a sanitary condition without a cover. This requirement does not prohibit the use of receptacles which are designed to permit the maintenance of a sanitary condition without regard to the aforementioned requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) All sweepings, solid or liquid wastes, refuse, and garbage shall be removed in such a manner as to avoid creating a menace to health and as often as necessary or appropriate to maintain the place of employment in a sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Vermin control.</I> Every enclosed workplace shall be so constructed, equipped, and maintained, so far as reasonably practicable, as to prevent the entrance or harborage of rodents, insects, and other vermin. A continuing and effective extermination program shall be instituted where their presence is detected.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Water supply</I>—(1) <I>Potable water.</I> (i) Potable water shall be provided in all places of employment, for drinking, washing of the person, cooking, washing of foods, washing of cooking or eating utensils, washing of food preparation or processing premises, and personal service rooms.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Portable drinking water dispensers shall be designed, constructed, and serviced so that sanitary conditions are maintained, shall be capable of being closed, and shall be equipped with a tap.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) Open containers such as barrels, pails, or tanks for drinking water from which the water must be dipped or poured, whether or not they are fitted with a cover, are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(vi) A common drinking cup and other common utensils are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonpotable water.</I> (i) Outlets for nonpotable water, such as water for industrial or firefighting purposes, shall be posted or otherwise marked in a manner that will indicate clearly that the water is unsafe and is not to be used for drinking, washing of the person, cooking, washing of food, washing of cooking or eating utensils, washing of food preparation or processing premises, or personal service rooms, or for washing clothes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Construction of nonpotable water systems or systems carrying any other nonpotable substance shall be such as to prevent backflow or backsiphonage into a potable water system.
</P>
<P>(iii) Nonpotable water shall not be used for washing any portion of the person, cooking or eating utensils, or clothing. Nonpotable water may be used for cleaning work premises, other than food processing and preparation premises and personal service rooms: <I>Provided,</I> That this nonpotable water does not contain concentrations of chemicals, fecal coliform, or other substances which could create insanitary conditions or be harmful to employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Toilet facilities</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Except as otherwise indicated in this paragraph (c)(1)(i), toilet facilities, in toilet rooms separate for each sex, shall be provided in all places of employment in accordance with table J-1 of this section. The number of facilities to be provided for each sex shall be based on the number of employees of that sex for whom the facilities are furnished. Where toilet rooms will be occupied by no more than one person at a time, can be locked from the inside, and contain at least one water closet, separate toilet rooms for each sex need not be provided. Where such single-occupancy rooms have more than one toilet facility, only one such facility in each toilet room shall be counted for the purpose of table J-1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table J-1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of employees
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of water closets 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16 to 35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36 to 55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56 to 80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81 to 110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">111 to 150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Where toilet facilities will not be used by women, urinals may be provided instead of water closets, except that the number of water closets in such cases shall not be reduced to less than 
<fr>2/3</fr> of the minimum specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> 1 additional fixture for each additional 40 employees.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section do not apply to mobile crews or to normally unattended work locations so long as employees working at these locations have transportation immediately available to nearby toilet facilities which meet the other requirements of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(iii) The sewage disposal method shall not endanger the health of employees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Construction of toilet rooms.</I> (i) Each water closet shall occupy a separate compartment with a door and walls or partitions between fixtures sufficiently high to assure privacy.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Washing facilities</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Washing facilities shall be maintained in a sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lavatories.</I> (i) Lavatories shall be made available in all places of employment. The requirements of this subdivision do not apply to mobile crews or to normally unattended work locations if employees working at these locations have transportation readily available to nearby washing facilities which meet the other requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each lavatory shall be provided with hot and cold running water, or tepid running water.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hand soap or similar cleansing agents shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) Individual hand towels or sections thereof, of cloth or paper, air blowers or clean individual sections of continuous cloth toweling, convenient to the lavatories, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Showers.</I> (i) Whenever showers are required by a particular standard, the showers shall be provided in accordance with paragraphs (d)(3) (ii) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) One shower shall be provided for each 10 employees of each sex, or numerical fraction thereof, who are required to shower during the same shift.
</P>
<P>(iii) Body soap or other appropriate cleansing agents convenient to the showers shall be provided as specified in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Showers shall be provided with hot and cold water feeding a common discharge line.
</P>
<P>(v) Employees who use showers shall be provided with individual clean towels.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Change rooms.</I> Whenever employees are required by a particular standard to wear protective clothing because of the possibility of contamination with toxic materials, change rooms equipped with storage facilities for street clothes and separate storage facilities for the protective clothing shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Clothes drying facilities.</I> Where working clothes are provided by the employer and become wet or are washed between shifts, provision shall be made to insure that such clothing is dry before reuse.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumption of food and beverages on the premises</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph shall apply only where employees are permitted to consume food or beverages, or both, on the premises.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eating and drinking areas.</I> No employee shall be allowed to consume food or beverages in a toilet room nor in any area exposed to a toxic material.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waste disposal containers.</I> Receptacles constructed of smooth, corrosion resistant, easily cleanable, or disposable materials, shall be provided and used for the disposal of waste food. The number, size, and location of such receptacles shall encourage their use and not result in overfilling. They shall be emptied not less frequently than once each working day, unless unused, and shall be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition. Receptacles shall be provided with a solid tight-fitting cover unless sanitary conditions can be maintained without use of a cover.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sanitary storage.</I> No food or beverages shall be stored in toilet rooms or in an area exposed to a toxic material.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Food handling.</I> All employee food service facilities and operations shall be carried out in accordance with sound hygienic principles. In all places of employment where all or part of the food service is provided, the food dispensed shall be wholesome, free from spoilage, and shall be processed, prepared, handled, and stored in such a manner as to be protected against contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 18446, Apr. 28, 1975; 40 FR 23073, May 28, 1975; 43 FR 49748, Oct. 24, 1978; 63 FR 33466, June 18, 1998; 76 FR 33607, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.142" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.10.34.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.142   Temporary labor camps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Site.</I> (1) All sites used for camps shall be adequately drained. They shall not be subject to periodic flooding, nor located within 200 feet of swamps, pools, sink holes, or other surface collections of water unless such quiescent water surfaces can be subjected to mosquito control measures. The camp shall be located so the drainage from and through the camp will not endanger any domestic or public water supply. All sites shall be graded, ditched, and rendered free from depressions in which water may become a nuisance.
</P>
<P>(2) All sites shall be adequate in size to prevent overcrowding of necessary structures. The principal camp area in which food is prepared and served and where sleeping quarters are located shall be at least 500 feet from any area in which livestock is kept.
</P>
<P>(3) The grounds and open areas surrounding the shelters shall be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition free from rubbish, debris, waste paper, garbage, or other refuse.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Shelter.</I> (1) Every shelter in the camp shall be constructed in a manner which will provide protection against the elements.
</P>
<P>(2) Each room used for sleeping purposes shall contain at least 50 square feet of floor space for each occupant. At least a 7-foot ceiling shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) Beds, cots, or bunks, and suitable storage facilities such as wall lockers for clothing and personal articles shall be provided in every room used for sleeping purposes. Such beds or similar facilities shall be spaced not closer than 36 inches both laterally and end to end, and shall be elevated at least 12 inches from the floor. If double-deck bunks are used, they shall be spaced not less than 48 inches both laterally and end to end. The minimum clear space between the lower and upper bunk shall be not less than 27 inches. Triple-deck bunks are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(4) The floors of each shelter shall be constructed of wood, asphalt, or concrete. Wooden floors shall be of smooth and tight construction. The floors shall be kept in good repair.
</P>
<P>(5) All wooden floors shall be elevated not less than 1 foot above the ground level at all points to prevent dampness and to permit free circulation of air beneath.
</P>
<P>(6) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit “banking” with earth or other suitable material around the outside walls in areas subject to extreme low temperatures.
</P>
<P>(7) All living quarters shall be provided with windows the total of which shall be not less than one-tenth of the floor area. At least one-half of each window shall be so constructed that it can be opened for purposes of ventilation.
</P>
<P>(8) All exterior openings shall be effectively screened with 16-mesh material. All screen doors shall be equipped with self-closing devices.
</P>
<P>(9) In a room where workers cook, live, and sleep a minimum of 100 square feet per person shall be provided. Sanitary facilities shall be provided for storing and preparing food.
</P>
<P>(10) In camps where cooking facilities are used in common, stoves (in ratio of one stove to 10 persons or one stove to two families) shall be provided in an enclosed and screened shelter. Sanitary facilities shall be provided for storing and preparing food.
</P>
<P>(11) All heating, cooking, and water heating equipment shall be installed in accordance with State and local ordinances, codes, and regulations governing such installations. If a camp is used during cold weather, adequate heating equipment shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Water supply.</I> (1) An adequate and convenient water supply, approved by the appropriate health authority, shall be provided in each camp for drinking, cooking, bathing, and laundry purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) A water supply shall be deemed adequate if it is capable of delivering 35 gallons per person per day to the campsite at a peak rate of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> times the average hourly demand.
</P>
<P>(3) The distribution lines shall be capable of supplying water at normal operating pressures to all fixtures for simultaneous operation. Water outlets shall be distributed throughout the camp in such a manner that no shelter is more than 100 feet from a yard hydrant if water is not piped to the shelters.
</P>
<P>(4) Where water under pressure is available, one or more drinking fountains shall be provided for each 100 occupants or fraction thereof. Common drinking cups are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Toilet facilities.</I> (1) Toilet facilities adequate for the capacity of the camp shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Each toilet room shall be located so as to be accessible without any individual passing through any sleeping room. Toilet rooms shall have a window not less than 6 square feet in area opening directly to the outside area or otherwise be satisfactorily ventilated. All outside openings shall be screened with 16-mesh material. No fixture, water closet, chemical toilet, or urinal shall be located in a room used for other than toilet purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) A toilet room shall be located within 200 feet of the door of each sleeping room. No privy shall be closer than 100 feet to any sleeping room, dining room, lunch area, or kitchen.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the toilet rooms are shared, such as in multifamily shelters and in barracks type facilities, separate toilet rooms shall be provided for each sex. These rooms shall be distinctly marked “for men” and “for women” by signs printed in English and in the native language of the persons occupying the camp, or marked with easily understood pictures or symbols. If the facilities for each sex are in the same building, they shall be separated by solid walls or partitions extending from the floor to the roof or ceiling.
</P>
<P>(5) Where toilet facilities are shared, the number of water closets or privy seats provided for each sex shall be based on the maximum number of persons of that sex which the camp is designed to house at any one time, in the ratio of one such unit to each 15 persons, with a minimum of two units for any shared facility.
</P>
<P>(6) Urinals shall be provided on the basis of one unit or 2 linear feet of urinal trough for each 25 men. The floor from the wall and for a distance not less than 15 inches measured from the outward edge of the urinals shall be constructed of materials impervious to moisture. Where water under pressure is available, urinals shall be provided with an adequate water flush. Urinal troughs in privies shall drain freely into the pit or vault and the construction of this drain shall be such as to exclude flies and rodents from the pit.
</P>
<P>(7) Every water closet installed on or after August 31, 1971, shall be located in a toilet room.
</P>
<P>(8) Each toilet room shall be lighted naturally, or artificially by a safe type of lighting at all hours of the day and night.
</P>
<P>(9) An adequate supply of toilet paper shall be provided in each privy, water closet, or chemical toilet compartment.
</P>
<P>(10) Privies and toilet rooms shall be kept in a sanitary condition. They shall be cleaned at least daily.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sewage disposal facilities.</I> In camps where public sewers are available, all sewer lines and floor drains from buildings shall be connected thereto.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Laundry, handwashing, and bathing facilities.</I> (1) Laundry, handwashing, and bathing facilities shall be provided in the following ratio:
</P>
<P>(i) Handwash basin per family shelter or per six persons in shared facilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shower head for every 10 persons.
</P>
<P>(iii) Laundry tray or tub for every 30 persons.
</P>
<P>(iv) Slop sink in each building used for laundry, hand washing, and bathing.
</P>
<P>(2) Floors shall be of smooth finish but not slippery materials; they shall be impervious to moisture. Floor drains shall be provided in all shower baths, shower rooms, or laundry rooms to remove waste water and facilitate cleaning. All junctions of the curbing and the floor shall be coved. The walls and partitions of shower rooms shall be smooth and impervious to the height of splash.
</P>
<P>(3) An adequate supply of hot and cold running water shall be provided for bathing and laundry purposes. Facilities for heating water shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(4) Every service building shall be provided with equipment capable of maintaining a temperature of at least 70 °F. during cold weather.
</P>
<P>(5) Facilities for drying clothes shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(6) All service buildings shall be kept clean.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lighting.</I> Where electric service is available, each habitable room in a camp shall be provided with at least one ceiling-type light fixture and at least one separate floor- or wall-type convenience outlet. Laundry and toilet rooms and rooms where people congregate shall contain at least one ceiling- or wall-type fixture. Light levels in toilet and storage rooms shall be at least 20 foot-candles 30 inches from the floor. Other rooms, including kitchens and living quarters, shall be at least 30 foot-candles 30 inches from the floor.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Refuse disposal.</I> (1) Fly-tight, rodent-tight, impervious, cleanable or single service containers, approved by the appropriate health authority shall be provided for the storage of garbage. At least one such container shall be provided for each family shelter and shall be located within 100 feet of each shelter on a wooden, metal, or concrete stand.
</P>
<P>(2) Garbage containers shall be kept clean.
</P>
<P>(3) Garbage containers shall be emptied when full, but not less than twice a week.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Construction and operation of kitchens, dining hall, and feeding facilities.</I> (1) In all camps where central dining or multiple family feeding operations are permitted or provided, the food handling facilities shall comply with the requirements of the “Food Service Sanitation Ordinance and Code,” Part V of the “Food Service Sanitation Manual,” U.S. Public Health Service Publication 934 (1965), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) A properly constructed kitchen and dining hall adequate in size, separate from the sleeping quarters of any of the workers or their families, shall be provided in connection with all food handling facilities. There shall be no direct opening from living or sleeping quarters into a kitchen or dining hall.
</P>
<P>(3) No person with any communicable disease shall be employed or permitted to work in the preparation, cooking, serving, or other handling of food, foodstuffs, or materials used therein, in any kitchen or dining room operated in connection with a camp or regularly used by persons living in a camp.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Insect and rodent control.</I> Effective measures shall be taken to prevent infestation by and harborage of animal or insect vectors or pests.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>First aid.</I> (1) Adequate first aid facilities approved by a health authority shall be maintained and made available in every labor camp for the emergency treatment of injured persons.
</P>
<P>(2) Such facilities shall be in charge of a person trained to administer first aid and shall be readily accessible for use at all times.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Reporting communicable disease.</I> (1) It shall be the duty of the camp superintendent to report immediately to the local health officer the name and address of any individual in the camp known to have or suspected of having a communicable disease.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever there shall occur in any camp a case of suspected food poisoning or an unusual prevalence of any illness in which fever, diarrhea, sore throat, vomiting, or jaundice is a prominent symptom, it shall be the duty of the camp superintendent to report immediately the existence of the outbreak to the health authority by telegram, telephone, electronic mail or any other method that is equally fast.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 47 FR 14696, Apr. 6, 1982; 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984; 61 FR 9238, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 33466, June 18, 1998; 70 FR 1141, Jan. 5, 2005; 70 FR 53929, Sept. 13, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.143" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.10.34.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.143   Nonwater carriage disposal systems. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.144" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.10.34.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.144   Safety color code for marking physical hazards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Color identification</I>—(1) <I>Red.</I> Red shall be the basic color for the identification of:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fire protection equipment and apparatus.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Danger.</I> Safety cans or other portable containers of flammable liquids having a flash point at or below 80 °F, table containers of flammable liquids (open cup tester), excluding shipping containers, shall be painted red with some additional clearly visible identification either in the form of a yellow band around the can or the name of the contents conspicuously stenciled or painted on the can in yellow. Red lights shall be provided at barricades and at temporary obstructions. Danger signs shall be painted red.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Stop.</I> Emergency stop bars on hazardous machines such as rubber mills, wire blocks, flat work ironers, etc., shall be red. Stop buttons or electrical switches which letters or other markings appear, used for emergency stopping of machinery shall be red.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Yellow.</I> Yellow shall be the basic color for designating caution and for marking physical hazards such as: Striking against, stumbling, falling, tripping, and “caught in between.”
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49748, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996; 72 FR 71069, Dec. 14, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.145" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.10.34.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.145   Specifications for accident prevention signs and tags.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) These specifications apply to the design, application, and use of signs or symbols (as included in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section) intended to indicate and, insofar as possible, to define specific hazards of a nature such that failure to designate them may lead to accidental injury to workers or the public, or both, or to property damage. These specifications are intended to cover all safety signs except those designed for streets, highways, and railroads. These specifications do not apply to plant bulletin boards or to safety posters.
</P>
<P>(2) All new signs and replacements of old signs shall be in accordance with these specifications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section, the word <I>sign</I> refers to a surface on prepared for the warning of, or safety instructions of, industrial workers or members of the public who may be exposed to hazards. Excluded from this definition, however, are news releases, displays commonly known as safety posters, and bulletins used for employee education.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification of signs according to use</I>—(1) <I>Danger signs.</I> (i) There shall be no variation in the type of design of signs posted to warn of specific dangers and radiation hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) All employees shall be instructed that danger signs indicate immediate danger and that special precautions are necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Caution signs.</I> (i) Caution signs shall be used only to warn against potential hazards or to caution against unsafe practices.
</P>
<P>(ii) All employees shall be instructed that caution signs indicate a possible hazard against which proper precaution should be taken.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safety instruction signs.</I> Safety instruction signs shall be used where there is a need for general instructions and suggestions relative to safety measures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sign design</I>—(1) <I>Design features.</I> All signs shall be furnished with rounded or blunt corners and shall be free from sharp edges, burrs, splinters, or other sharp projections. The ends or heads of bolts or other fastening devices shall be located in such a way that they do not constitute a hazard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Danger signs.</I> The colors red, black, and white shall be those of opaque glossy samples as specified in Table 1, “Fundamental Specification of Safety Colors for CIE Standard Source ‘C,’ ” of ANSI Z53.1-1967 or in Table 1, “Specification of the Safety Colors for CIE Illuminate C and the CIE 1931, 2 Standard Observer,” of ANSI Z535.1-2006(R2011), incorporated by reference in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Caution signs.</I> The standard color of the background shall be yellow; and the panel, black with yellow letters. Any letters used against the yellow background shall be black. The colors shall be those of opaque glossy samples as specified in Table 1 of ANSI Z53.1-1967 or Table 1 of ANSI Z535.1-2006(R2011), incorporated by reference in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safety instruction signs.</I> The standard color of the background shall be white; and the panel, green with white letters. Any letters used against the white background shall be black. The colors shall be those of opaque glossy samples as specified in Table 1 of ANSI Z53.1-1967 or in Table 1 of ANSI Z535.1-2006(R2011), incorporated by reference in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(7)-(9) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Slow-moving vehicle emblem.</I> This emblem (see fig. J-7) consists of a fluorescent yellow-orange triangle with a dark red reflective border. The yellow-orange fluorescent triangle is a highly visible color for daylight exposure. The reflective border defines the shape of the fluorescent color in daylight and creates a hollow red triangle in the path of motor vehicle headlights at night. The emblem is intended as a unique identification for, and it shall be used only on, vehicles which by design move slowly (25 m.p.h. or less) on the public roads. The emblem is not a clearance marker for wide machinery nor is it intended to replace required lighting or marking of slow-moving vehicles. Neither the color film pattern and its dimensions nor the backing shall be altered to permit use of advertising or other markings. The material, location, mounting, etc., of the emblem shall be in accordance with the American Society of Agricultural Engineers Emblem for Identifying Slow-Moving Vehicles, ASAE R276, 1967, or ASAE S276.2 (ANSI B114.1-1971), which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.028.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure J-7—Slow-Moving Vehicle Emblem</E></BCAP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>All dimensions are in inches.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Sign wordings.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nature of wording.</I> The wording of any sign should be easily read and concise. The sign should contain sufficient information to be easily understood. The wording should make a positive, rather than negative suggestion and should be accurate in fact.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Biological hazard signs.</I> The biological hazard warning shall be used to signify the actual or potential presence of a biohazard and to identify equipment, containers, rooms, materials, experimental animals, or combinations thereof, which contain, or are contaminated with, viable hazardous agents. For the purpose of this subparagraph the term “biological hazard,” or “biohazard,” shall include only those infectious agents presenting a risk or potential risk to the well-being of man.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accident prevention tags</I>—(1) <I>Scope and application.</I> (i) This paragraph (f) applies to all accident prevention tags used to identify hazardous conditions and provide a message to employees with respect to hazardous conditions as set forth in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, or to meet the specific tagging requirements of other OSHA standards.
</P>
<P>(ii) This paragraph (f) does not apply to construction or agriculture.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions. Biological hazard</I> or <I>BIOHAZARD</I> means those infectious agents presenting a risk of death, injury or illness to employees.
</P>
<P><I>Major message</I> means that portion of a tag's inscription that is more specific than the signal word and that indicates the specific hazardous condition or the instruction to be communicated to the employee. Examples include: “High Voltage,” “Close Clearance,” “Do Not Start,” or “Do Not Use” or a corresponding pictograph used with a written text or alone.
</P>
<P><I>Pictograph</I> means a pictorial representation used to identify a hazardous condition or to convey a safety instruction.
</P>
<P><I>Signal word</I> means that portion of a tag's inscription that contains the word or words that are intended to capture the employee's immediate attention.
</P>
<P><I>Tag</I> means a device usually made of card, paper, pasteboard, plastic or other material used to identify a hazardous condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use.</I> Tags shall be used as a means to prevent accidental injury or illness to employees who are exposed to hazardous or potentially hazardous conditions, equipment or operations which are out of the ordinary, unexpected or not readily apparent. Tags shall be used until such time as the identified hazard is eliminated or the hazardous operation is completed. Tags need not be used where signs, guarding or other positive means of protection are being used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>General tag criteria.</I> All required tags shall meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Tags shall contain a signal word and a major message.
</P>
<P>(A) The signal word shall be either “Danger,” “Caution,” or “Biological Hazard,” “BIOHAZARD,” or the biological hazard symbol.
</P>
<P>(B) The major message shall indicate the specific hazardous condition or the instruction to be communicated to the employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The signal word shall be readable at a minimum distance of five feet (1.52 m) or such greater distance as warranted by the hazard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The tag's major message shall be presented in either pictographs, written text or both.
</P>
<P>(iv) The signal word and the major message shall be understandable to all employees who may be exposed to the identified hazard.
</P>
<P>(v) All employees shall be informed as to the meaning of the various tags used throughout the workplace and what special precautions are necessary.
</P>
<P>(vi) Tags shall be affixed as close as safely possible to their respective hazards by a positive means such as string, wire, or adhesive that prevents their loss or unintentional removal.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Danger tags.</I> Danger tags shall be used in major hazard situations where an immediate hazard presents a threat of death or serious injury to employees. Danger tags shall be used only in these situations.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Caution tags.</I> Caution tags shall be used in minor hazard situations where a non-immediate or potential hazard or unsafe practice presents a lesser threat of employee injury. Caution tags shall be used only in these situations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Warning tags.</I> Warning tags may be used to represent a hazard level between “Caution” and “Danger,” instead of the required “Caution” tag, provided that they have a signal word of “Warning,” an appropriate major message, and otherwise meet the general tag criteria of paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Biological hazard tags.</I> (i) Biological hazard tags shall be used to identify the actual or potential presence of a biological hazard and to identify equipment, containers, rooms, experimental animals, or combinations thereof, that contain or are contaminated with hazardous biological agents.
</P>
<P>(ii) The symbol design for biological hazard tags shall conform to the design shown below:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.086.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Biological Hazard Symbol Configuration</E></BCAP>
<P>(9) <I>Other tags.</I> Other tags may be used in addition to those required by this paragraph (f), or in other situations where this paragraph (f) does not require tags, provided that they do not detract from the impact or visibility of the signal word and major message of any required tag.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendixes to § 1910.145(<E T="01">f</E>), Accident Prevention Tags</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.145(<E T="01">f</E>)—Recommended Color Coding
</HD1>
<P>While the standard does not specifically mandate colors to be used on accident prevention tags, the following color scheme is recommended by OSHA for meeting the requirements of this section:
</P>
<P>“DANGER”—Red, or predominantly red, with lettering or symbols in a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>“CAUTION”—Yellow, or predominantly yellow, with lettering or symbols in a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>“WARNING”—Orange, or predominantly orange, with lettering or symbols in a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>“BIOLOGICAL HAZARD”—Fluorescent orange or orange-red, or predominantly so, with lettering or symbols in a contrasting color.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.145(<E T="01">f</E>)—References for Further Information
</HD1>
<P>The following references provide information which can be helpful in understanding the requirements contained in various sections of the standard:
</P>
<P>1. Bresnahan, Thomas F., and Bryk, Joseph, “The Hazard Association Values of Accident Prevention Signs”, <I>Journal of American Society of Safety Engineers;</I> January 1975.
</P>
<P>2. Dreyfuss, H., <I>Symbol Sourcebook,</I> McGraw Hill; New York, NY, 1972.
</P>
<P>3. Glass, R.A. and others, <I>Some Criteria for Colors and Signs in Workplaces,</I> National Bureau of Standards, Washington DC, 1983.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Graphic Symbols for Public Areas and Occupational Environments,</I> Treasury Board of Canada, Ottawa, Canada, July 1980.
</P>
<P>5. Howett, G.L., <I>Size of Letters Required for Visibility as a Function of Viewing Distance and Observer Acuity,</I> National Bureau of Standards, Washington DC, July 1983.
</P>
<P>6. Lerner, N.D. and Collins, B.L., <I>The Assessment of Safety Symbol Understandability by Different Testing Methods,</I> National Bureau of Standards, Washington DC, 1980.
</P>
<P>7. Lerner, N.D. and Collins, B.L., <I>Workplace Safety Symbols,</I> National Bureau of Standards, Washington DC, 1980.
</P>
<P>8. Modley, R. and Meyers, W.R., <I>Handbook of Pictorial Symbols,</I> Dover Publication, New York, NY, 1976.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Product Safety Signs and Labels,</I> FMC Corporation, Santa Clara, CA, 1978.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Safety Color Coding for Marking Physical Hazards,</I> Z53.1, American National Standards Institute, New York, NY, 1979.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Signs and Symbols for the Occupational Environment, Can. 3-Z-321-77,</I> Canadian Standards Association, Ottawa, September 1977.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Symbols for Industrial Safety,</I> National Bureau of Standards, Washington DC, April 1982.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Symbol Signs,</I> U.S. Department of Transportation, Washington DC, November 1974.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49749, Oct. 24, 1978; 43 FR 51759, Nov. 7, 1978; 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 51 FR 33260, Sept. 19, 1986; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996; 76 FR 24698, May 2, 2011; 76 FR 44265, July 25, 2011; 78 FR 35566, June 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.146" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.10.34.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.146   Permit-required confined spaces.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section contains requirements for practices and procedures to protect employees in general industry from the hazards of entry into permit-required confined spaces. This section does not apply to agriculture, to construction, or to shipyard employment (parts 1928, 1926, and 1915 of this chapter, respectively).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Acceptable entry conditions</I> means the conditions that must exist in a permit space to allow entry and to ensure that employees involved with a permit-required confined space entry can safely enter into and work within the space.
</P>
<P><I>Attendant</I> means an individual stationed outside one or more permit spaces who monitors the authorized entrants and who performs all attendant's duties assigned in the employer's permit space program.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized entrant</I> means an employee who is authorized by the employer to enter a permit space.
</P>
<P><I>Blanking or blinding</I> means the absolute closure of a pipe, line, or duct by the fastening of a solid plate (such as a spectacle blind or a skillet blind) that completely covers the bore and that is capable of withstanding the maximum pressure of the pipe, line, or duct with no leakage beyond the plate.
</P>
<P><I>Confined space</I> means a space that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is large enough and so configured that an employee can bodily enter and perform assigned work; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit (for example, tanks, vessels, silos, storage bins, hoppers, vaults, and pits are spaces that may have limited means of entry.); and
</P>
<P>(3) Is not designed for continuous employee occupancy.
</P>
<P><I>Double block and bleed</I> means the closure of a line, duct, or pipe by closing and locking or tagging two in-line valves and by opening and locking or tagging a drain or vent valve in the line between the two closed valves.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence (including any failure of hazard control or monitoring equipment) or event internal or external to the permit space that could endanger entrants.
</P>
<P><I>Engulfment</I> means the surrounding and effective capture of a person by a liquid or finely divided (flowable) solid substance that can be aspirated to cause death by filling or plugging the respiratory system or that can exert enough force on the body to cause death by strangulation, constriction, or crushing.
</P>
<P><I>Entry</I> means the action by which a person passes through an opening into a permit-required confined space. Entry includes ensuing work activities in that space and is considered to have occurred as soon as any part of the entrant's body breaks the plane of an opening into the space.
</P>
<P><I>Entry permit</I> (permit) means the written or printed document that is provided by the employer to allow and control entry into a permit space and that contains the information specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Entry supervisor</I> means the person (such as the employer, foreman, or crew chief) responsible for determining if acceptable entry conditions are present at a permit space where entry is planned, for authorizing entry and overseeing entry operations, and for terminating entry as required by this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>An entry supervisor also may serve as an attendant or as an authorized entrant, as long as that person is trained and equipped as required by this section for each role he or she fills. Also, the duties of entry supervisor may be passed from one individual to another during the course of an entry operation.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Hazardous atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere that may expose employees to the risk of death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue (that is, escape unaided from a permit space), injury, or acute illness from one or more of the following causes:
</P>
<P>(1) Flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of 10 percent of its lower flammable limit (LFL);
</P>
<P>(2) Airborne combustible dust at a concentration that meets or exceeds its LFL;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This concentration may be approximated as a condition in which the dust obscures vision at a distance of 5 feet (1.52 m) or less.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) Atmospheric oxygen concentration below 19.5 percent or above 23.5 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) Atmospheric concentration of any substance for which a dose or a permissible exposure limit is published in subpart G, <I>Occupational Health and Environmental Control,</I> or in subpart Z, <I>Toxic and Hazardous Substances,</I> of this part and which could result in employee exposure in excess of its dose or permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>An atmospheric concentration of any substance that is not capable of causing death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue, injury, or acute illness due to its health effects is not covered by this provision.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Any other atmospheric condition that is immediately dangerous to life or health.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For air contaminants for which OSHA has not determined a dose or permissible exposure limit, other sources of information, such as Material Safety Data Sheets that comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1910.1200 of this part, published information, and internal documents can provide guidance in establishing acceptable atmospheric conditions.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Hot work permit</I> means the employer's written authorization to perform operations (for example, riveting, welding, cutting, burning, and heating) capable of providing a source of ignition.
</P>
<P><I>Immediately dangerous to life or health</I> (IDLH) means any condition that poses an immediate or delayed threat to life or that would cause irreversible adverse health effects or that would interfere with an individual's ability to escape unaided from a permit space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Some materials—hydrogen fluoride gas and cadmium vapor, for example—may produce immediate transient effects that, even if severe, may pass without medical attention, but are followed by sudden, possibly fatal collapse 12-72 hours after exposure. The victim “feels normal” from recovery from transient effects until collapse. Such materials in hazardous quantities are considered to be “immediately” dangerous to life or health.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Inerting</I> means the displacement of the atmosphere in a permit space by a noncombustible gas (such as nitrogen) to such an extent that the resulting atmosphere is noncombustible.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This procedure produces an IDLH oxygen-deficient atmosphere.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Isolation</I> means the process by which a permit space is removed from service and completely protected against the release of energy and material into the space by such means as: blanking or blinding; misaligning or removing sections of lines, pipes, or ducts; a double block and bleed system; lockout or tagout of all sources of energy; or blocking or disconnecting all mechanical linkages.
</P>
<P><I>Line breaking</I> means the intentional opening of a pipe, line, or duct that is or has been carrying flammable, corrosive, or toxic material, an inert gas, or any fluid at a volume, pressure, or temperature capable of causing injury.
</P>
<P><I>Non-permit confined space</I> means a confined space that does not contain or, with respect to atmospheric hazards, have the potential to contain any hazard capable of causing death or serious physical harm.
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen deficient atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere containing less than 19.5 percent oxygen by volume.
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen enriched atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere containing more than 23.5 percent oxygen by volume.
</P>
<P><I>Permit-required confined space</I> (permit space) means a confined space that has one or more of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) Contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant;
</P>
<P>(3) Has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor which slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross- section; or
</P>
<P>(4) Contains any other recognized serious safety or health hazard.
</P>
<P><I>Permit-required confined space program</I> (permit space program) means the employer's overall program for controlling, and, where appropriate, for protecting employees from, permit space hazards and for regulating employee entry into permit spaces.
</P>
<P><I>Permit system</I> means the employer's written procedure for preparing and issuing permits for entry and for returning the permit space to service following termination of entry.
</P>
<P><I>Prohibited condition</I> means any condition in a permit space that is not allowed by the permit during the period when entry is authorized.
</P>
<P><I>Rescue service</I> means the personnel designated to rescue employees from permit spaces.
</P>
<P><I>Retrieval system</I> means the equipment (including a retrieval line, chest or full-body harness, wristlets, if appropriate, and a lifting device or anchor) used for non-entry rescue of persons from permit spaces.
</P>
<P><I>Testing</I> means the process by which the hazards that may confront entrants of a permit space are identified and evaluated. Testing includes specifying the tests that are to be performed in the permit space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Testing enables employers both to devise and implement adequate control measures for the protection of authorized entrants and to determine if acceptable entry conditions are present immediately prior to, and during, entry.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall evaluate the workplace to determine if any spaces are permit- required confined spaces.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Proper application of the decision flow chart in appendix A to § 1910.146 would facilitate compliance with this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) If the workplace contains permit spaces, the employer shall inform exposed employees, by posting danger signs or by any other equally effective means, of the existence and location of and the danger posed by the permit spaces.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A sign reading “DANGER—PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE, DO NOT ENTER” or using other similar language would satisfy the requirement for a sign.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) If the employer decides that its employees will not enter permit spaces, the employer shall take effective measures to prevent its employees from entering the permit spaces and shall comply with paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(6), and (c)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If the employer decides that its employees will enter permit spaces, the employer shall develop and implement a written permit space program that complies with this section. The written program shall be available for inspection by employees and their authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(5) An employer may use the alternate procedures specified in paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section for entering a permit space under the conditions set forth in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) An employer whose employees enter a permit space need not comply with paragraphs (d) through (f) and (h) through (k) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer can demonstrate that the only hazard posed by the permit space is an actual or potential hazardous atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(B) The employer can demonstrate that continuous forced air ventilation alone is sufficient to maintain that permit space safe for entry;
</P>
<P>(C) The employer develops monitoring and inspection data that supports the demonstrations required by paragraphs (c)(5)(i)(A) and (c)(5)(i)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) If an initial entry of the permit space is necessary to obtain the data required by paragraph (c)(5)(i)(C) of this section, the entry is performed in compliance with paragraphs (d) through (k) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) The determinations and supporting data required by paragraphs (c)(5)(i)(A), (c)(5)(i)(B), and (c)(5)(i)(C) of this section are documented by the employer and are made available to each employee who enters the permit space under the terms of paragraph (c)(5) of this section or to that employee's authorized representative; and
</P>
<P>(F) Entry into the permit space under the terms of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section is performed in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See paragraph (c)(7) of this section for reclassification of a permit space after all hazards within the space have been eliminated.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) The following requirements apply to entry into permit spaces that meet the conditions set forth in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Any conditions making it unsafe to remove an entrance cover shall be eliminated before the cover is removed.
</P>
<P>(B) When entrance covers are removed, the opening shall be promptly guarded by a railing, temporary cover, or other temporary barrier that will prevent an accidental fall through the opening and that will protect each employee working in the space from foreign objects entering the space.
</P>
<P>(C) Before an employee enters the space, the internal atmosphere shall be tested, with a calibrated direct-reading instrument, for oxygen content, for flammable gases and vapors, and for potential toxic air contaminants, in that order. Any employee who enters the space, or that employee's authorized representative, shall be provided an opportunity to observe the pre-entry testing required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(D) There may be no hazardous atmosphere within the space whenever any employee is inside the space.
</P>
<P>(E) Continuous forced air ventilation shall be used, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An employee may not enter the space until the forced air ventilation has eliminated any hazardous atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The forced air ventilation shall be so directed as to ventilate the immediate areas where an employee is or will be present within the space and shall continue until all employees have left the space;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The air supply for the forced air ventilation shall be from a clean source and may not increase the hazards in the space.
</P>
<P>(F) The atmosphere within the space shall be periodically tested as necessary to ensure that the continuous forced air ventilation is preventing the accumulation of a hazardous atmosphere. Any employee who enters the space, or that employee's authorized representative, shall be provided with an opportunity to observe the periodic testing required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(G) If a hazardous atmosphere is detected during entry:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Each employee shall leave the space immediately;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The space shall be evaluated to determine how the hazardous atmosphere developed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Measures shall be implemented to protect employees from the hazardous atmosphere before any subsequent entry takes place.
</P>
<P>(H) The employer shall verify that the space is safe for entry and that the pre-entry measures required by paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section have been taken, through a written certification that contains the date, the location of the space, and the signature of the person providing the certification. The certification shall be made before entry and shall be made available to each employee entering the space or to that employee's authorized representative .
</P>
<P>(6) When there are changes in the use or configuration of a non-permit confined space that might increase the hazards to entrants, the employer shall reevaluate that space and, if necessary, reclassify it as a permit-required confined space.
</P>
<P>(7) A space classified by the employer as a permit-required confined space may be reclassified as a non-permit confined space under the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) If the permit space poses no actual or potential atmospheric hazards and if all hazards within the space are eliminated without entry into the space, the permit space may be reclassified as a non-permit confined space for as long as the non-atmospheric hazards remain eliminated.
</P>
<P>(ii) If it is necessary to enter the permit space to eliminate hazards, such entry shall be performed under paragraphs (d) through (k) of this section. If testing and inspection during that entry demonstrate that the hazards within the permit space have been eliminated, the permit space may be reclassified as a non-permit confined space for as long as the hazards remain eliminated.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Control of atmospheric hazards through forced air ventilation does not constitute elimination of the hazards. Paragraph (c)(5) covers permit space entry where the employer can demonstrate that forced air ventilation alone will control all hazards in the space.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) The employer shall document the basis for determining that all hazards in a permit space have been eliminated, through a certification that contains the date, the location of the space, and the signature of the person making the determination. The certification shall be made available to each employee entering the space or to that employee's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(iv) If hazards arise within a permit space that has been declassified to a non-permit space under paragraph (c)(7) of this section, each employee in the space shall exit the space. The employer shall then reevaluate the space and determine whether it must be reclassified as a permit space, in accordance with other applicable provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) When an employer (host employer) arranges to have employees of another employer (contractor) perform work that involves permit space entry, the host employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Inform the contractor that the workplace contains permit spaces and that permit space entry is allowed only through compliance with a permit space program meeting the requirements of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Apprise the contractor of the elements, including the hazards identified and the host employer's experience with the space, that make the space in question a permit space;
</P>
<P>(iii) Apprise the contractor of any precautions or procedures that the host employer has implemented for the protection of employees in or near permit spaces where contractor personnel will be working;
</P>
<P>(iv) Coordinate entry operations with the contractor, when both host employer personnel and contractor personnel will be working in or near permit spaces, as required by paragraph (d)(11) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Debrief the contractor at the conclusion of the entry operations regarding the permit space program followed and regarding any hazards confronted or created in permit spaces during entry operations.
</P>
<P>(9) In addition to complying with the permit space requirements that apply to all employers, each contractor who is retained to perform permit space entry operations shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain any available information regarding permit space hazards and entry operations from the host employer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Coordinate entry operations with the host employer, when both host employer personnel and contractor personnel will be working in or near permit spaces, as required by paragraph (d)(11) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Inform the host employer of the permit space program that the contractor will follow and of any hazards confronted or created in permit spaces, either through a debriefing or during the entry operation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permit-required confined space program</I> (permit space program). Under the permit space program required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Implement the measures necessary to prevent unauthorized entry;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify and evaluate the hazards of permit spaces before employees enter them;
</P>
<P>(3) Develop and implement the means, procedures, and practices necessary for safe permit space entry operations, including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifying acceptable entry conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing each authorized entrant or that employee's authorized representative with the opportunity to observe any monitoring or testing of permit spaces;
</P>
<P>(iii) Isolating the permit space;
</P>
<P>(iv) Purging, inerting, flushing, or ventilating the permit space as necessary to eliminate or control atmospheric hazards;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing pedestrian, vehicle, or other barriers as necessary to protect entrants from external hazards; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Verifying that conditions in the permit space are acceptable for entry throughout the duration of an authorized entry.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the following equipment (specified in paragraphs (d)(4)(i) through (d)(4)(ix) of this section) at no cost to employees, maintain that equipment properly, and ensure that employees use that equipment properly:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing and monitoring equipment needed to comply with paragraph (d)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ventilating equipment needed to obtain acceptable entry conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Communications equipment necessary for compliance with paragraphs (h)(3) and (i)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Personal protective equipment insofar as feasible engineering and work practice controls do not adequately protect employees;
</P>
<P>(v) Lighting equipment needed to enable employees to see well enough to work safely and to exit the space quickly in an emergency;
</P>
<P>(vi) Barriers and shields as required by paragraph (d)(3)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) Equipment, such as ladders, needed for safe ingress and egress by authorized entrants;
</P>
<P>(viii) Rescue and emergency equipment needed to comply with paragraph (d)(9) of this section, except to the extent that the equipment is provided by rescue services; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other equipment necessary for safe entry into and rescue from permit spaces.
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluate permit space conditions as follows when entry operations are conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) Test conditions in the permit space to determine if acceptable entry conditions exist before entry is authorized to begin, except that, if isolation of the space is infeasible because the space is large or is part of a continuous system (such as a sewer), pre-entry testing shall be performed to the extent feasible before entry is authorized and, if entry is authorized, entry conditions shall be continuously monitored in the areas where authorized entrants are working;
</P>
<P>(ii) Test or monitor the permit space as necessary to determine if acceptable entry conditions are being maintained during the course of entry operations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) When testing for atmospheric hazards, test first for oxygen, then for combustible gases and vapors, and then for toxic gases and vapors.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide each authorized entrant or that employee's authorized representative an opportunity to observe the pre-entry and any subsequent testing or monitoring of permit spaces;
</P>
<P>(v) Reevaluate the permit space in the presence of any authorized entrant or that employee's authorized representative who requests that the employer conduct such reevaluation because the entrant or representative has reason to believe that the evaluation of that space may not have been adequate;
</P>
<P>(vi) Immediately provide each authorized entrant or that employee's authorized representative with the results of any testing conducted in accord with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Atmospheric testing conducted in accordance with appendix B to § 1910.146 would be considered as satisfying the requirements of this paragraph. For permit space operations in sewers, atmospheric testing conducted in accordance with appendix B, as supplemented by appendix E to § 1910.146, would be considered as satisfying the requirements of this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(6) Provide at least one attendant outside the permit space into which entry is authorized for the duration of entry operations;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Attendants may be assigned to monitor more than one permit space provided the duties described in paragraph (i) of this section can be effectively performed for each permit space that is monitored. Likewise, attendants may be stationed at any location outside the permit space to be monitored as long as the duties described in paragraph (i) of this section can be effectively performed for each permit space that is monitored.</P></NOTE>
<P>(7) If multiple spaces are to be monitored by a single attendant, include in the permit program the means and procedures to enable the attendant to respond to an emergency affecting one or more of the permit spaces being monitored without distraction from the attendant's responsibilities under paragraph (i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(8) Designate the persons who are to have active roles (as, for example, authorized entrants, attendants, entry supervisors, or persons who test or monitor the atmosphere in a permit space) in entry operations, identify the duties of each such employee, and provide each such employee with the training required by paragraph (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(9) Develop and implement procedures for summoning rescue and emergency services, for rescuing entrants from permit spaces, for providing necessary emergency services to rescued employees, and for preventing unauthorized personnel from attempting a rescue;
</P>
<P>(10) Develop and implement a system for the preparation, issuance, use, and cancellation of entry permits as required by this section;
</P>
<P>(11) Develop and implement procedures to coordinate entry operations when employees of more than one employer are working simultaneously as authorized entrants in a permit space, so that employees of one employer do not endanger the employees of any other employer;
</P>
<P>(12) Develop and implement procedures (such as closing off a permit space and canceling the permit) necessary for concluding the entry after entry operations have been completed;
</P>
<P>(13) Review entry operations when the employer has reason to believe that the measures taken under the permit space program may not protect employees and revise the program to correct deficiencies found to exist before subsequent entries are authorized; and
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Examples of circumstances requiring the review of the permit space program are: any unauthorized entry of a permit space, the detection of a permit space hazard not covered by the permit, the detection of a condition prohibited by the permit, the occurrence of an injury or near-miss during entry, a change in the use or configuration of a permit space, and employee complaints about the effectiveness of the program.</P></NOTE>
<P>(14) Review the permit space program, using the canceled permits retained under paragraph (e)(6) of this section within 1 year after each entry and revise the program as necessary, to ensure that employees participating in entry operations are protected from permit space hazards.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Employers may perform a single annual review covering all entries performed during a 12-month period. If no entry is performed during a 12-month period, no review is necessary.
</P>
<FP>Appendix C to § 1910.146 presents examples of permit space programs that are considered to comply with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.</FP></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Permit system.</I> (1) Before entry is authorized, the employer shall document the completion of measures required by paragraph (d)(3) of this section by preparing an entry permit.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Appendix D to § 1910.146 presents examples of permits whose elements are considered to comply with the requirements of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Before entry begins, the entry supervisor identified on the permit shall sign the entry permit to authorize entry.
</P>
<P>(3) The completed permit shall be made available at the time of entry to all authorized entrants or their authorized representatives, by posting it at the entry portal or by any other equally effective means, so that the entrants can confirm that pre-entry preparations have been completed.
</P>
<P>(4) The duration of the permit may not exceed the time required to complete the assigned task or job identified on the permit in accordance with paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The entry supervisor shall terminate entry and cancel the entry permit when:
</P>
<P>(i) The entry operations covered by the entry permit have been completed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A condition that is not allowed under the entry permit arises in or near the permit space.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall retain each canceled entry permit for at least 1 year to facilitate the review of the permit-required confined space program required by paragraph (d)(14) of this section. Any problems encountered during an entry operation shall be noted on the pertinent permit so that appropriate revisions to the permit space program can be made.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Entry permit.</I> The entry permit that documents compliance with this section and authorizes entry to a permit space shall identify:
</P>
<P>(1) The permit space to be entered;
</P>
<P>(2) The purpose of the entry;
</P>
<P>(3) The date and the authorized duration of the entry permit;
</P>
<P>(4) The authorized entrants within the permit space, by name or by such other means (for example, through the use of rosters or tracking systems) as will enable the attendant to determine quickly and accurately, for the duration of the permit, which authorized entrants are inside the permit space;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This requirement may be met by inserting a reference on the entry permit as to the means used, such as a roster or tracking system, to keep track of the authorized entrants within the permit space.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) The personnel, by name, currently serving as attendants;
</P>
<P>(6) The individual, by name, currently serving as entry supervisor, with a space for the signature or initials of the entry supervisor who originally authorized entry;
</P>
<P>(7) The hazards of the permit space to be entered;
</P>
<P>(8) The measures used to isolate the permit space and to eliminate or control permit space hazards before entry;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Those measures can include the lockout or tagging of equipment and procedures for purging, inerting, ventilating, and flushing permit spaces.</P></NOTE>
<P>(9) The acceptable entry conditions;
</P>
<P>(10) The results of initial and periodic tests performed under paragraph (d)(5) of this section, accompanied by the names or initials of the testers and by an indication of when the tests were performed;
</P>
<P>(11) The rescue and emergency services that can be summoned and the means (such as the equipment to use and the numbers to call) for summoning those services;
</P>
<P>(12) The communication procedures used by authorized entrants and attendants to maintain contact during the entry;
</P>
<P>(13) Equipment, such as personal protective equipment, testing equipment, communications equipment, alarm systems, and rescue equipment, to be provided for compliance with this section;
</P>
<P>(14) Any other information whose inclusion is necessary, given the circumstances of the particular confined space, in order to ensure employee safety; and
</P>
<P>(15) Any additional permits, such as for hot work, that have been issued to authorize work in the permit space.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Training.</I> (1) The employer shall provide training so that all employees whose work is regulated by this section acquire the understanding, knowledge, and skills necessary for the safe performance of the duties assigned under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Training shall be provided to each affected employee:
</P>
<P>(i) Before the employee is first assigned duties under this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Before there is a change in assigned duties;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever there is a change in permit space operations that presents a hazard about which an employee has not previously been trained;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whenever the employer has reason to believe either that there are deviations from the permit space entry procedures required by paragraph (d)(3) of this section or that there are inadequacies in the employee's knowledge or use of these procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) The training shall establish employee proficiency in the duties required by this section and shall introduce new or revised procedures, as necessary, for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall certify that the training required by paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(3) of this section has been accomplished. The certification shall contain each employee's name, the signatures or initials of the trainers, and the dates of training. The certification shall be available for inspection by employees and their authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Duties of authorized entrants.</I> The employer shall ensure that all authorized entrants:
</P>
<P>(1) Know the hazards that may be faced during entry, including information on the mode, signs or symptoms, and consequences of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) Properly use equipment as required by paragraph (d)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Communicate with the attendant as necessary to enable the attendant to monitor entrant status and to enable the attendant to alert entrants of the need to evacuate the space as required by paragraph (i)(6) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Alert the attendant whenever:
</P>
<P>(i) The entrant recognizes any warning sign or symptom of exposure to a dangerous situation, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entrant detects a prohibited condition; and
</P>
<P>(5) Exit from the permit space as quickly as possible whenever:
</P>
<P>(i) An order to evacuate is given by the attendant or the entry supervisor,
</P>
<P>(ii) The entrant recognizes any warning sign or symptom of exposure to a dangerous situation,
</P>
<P>(iii) The entrant detects a prohibited condition, or
</P>
<P>(iv) An evacuation alarm is activated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Duties of attendants.</I> The employer shall ensure that each attendant:
</P>
<P>(1) Knows the hazards that may be faced during entry, including information on the mode, signs or symptoms, and consequences of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) Is aware of possible behavioral effects of hazard exposure in authorized entrants;
</P>
<P>(3) Continuously maintains an accurate count of authorized entrants in the permit space and ensures that the means used to identify authorized entrants under paragraph (f)(4) of this section accurately identifies who is in the permit space;
</P>
<P>(4) Remains outside the permit space during entry operations until relieved by another attendant;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When the employer's permit entry program allows attendant entry for rescue, attendants may enter a permit space to attempt a rescue if they have been trained and equipped for rescue operations as required by paragraph (k)(1) of this section and if they have been relieved as required by paragraph (i)(4) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Communicates with authorized entrants as necessary to monitor entrant status and to alert entrants of the need to evacuate the space under paragraph (i)(6) of this section;
</P>
<P>(6) Monitors activities inside and outside the space to determine if it is safe for entrants to remain in the space and orders the authorized entrants to evacuate the permit space immediately under any of the following conditions;
</P>
<P>(i) If the attendant detects a prohibited condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the attendant detects the behavioral effects of hazard exposure in an authorized entrant;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the attendant detects a situation outside the space that could endanger the authorized entrants; or
</P>
<P>(iv) If the attendant cannot effectively and safely perform all the duties required under paragraph (i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) Summon rescue and other emergency services as soon as the attendant determines that authorized entrants may need assistance to escape from permit space hazards;
</P>
<P>(8) Takes the following actions when unauthorized persons approach or enter a permit space while entry is underway:
</P>
<P>(i) Warn the unauthorized persons that they must stay away from the permit space;
</P>
<P>(ii) Advise the unauthorized persons that they must exit immediately if they have entered the permit space; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Inform the authorized entrants and the entry supervisor if unauthorized persons have entered the permit space;
</P>
<P>(9) Performs non-entry rescues as specified by the employer's rescue procedure; and
</P>
<P>(10) Performs no duties that might interfere with the attendant's primary duty to monitor and protect the authorized entrants.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Duties of entry supervisors.</I> The employer shall ensure that each entry supervisor:
</P>
<P>(1) Knows the hazards that may be faced during entry, including information on the mode, signs or symptoms, and consequences of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) Verifies, by checking that the appropriate entries have been made on the permit, that all tests specified by the permit have been conducted and that all procedures and equipment specified by the permit are in place before endorsing the permit and allowing entry to begin;
</P>
<P>(3) Terminates the entry and cancels the permit as required by paragraph (e)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Verifies that rescue services are available and that the means for summoning them are operable;
</P>
<P>(5) Removes unauthorized individuals who enter or who attempt to enter the permit space during entry operations; and
</P>
<P>(6) Determines, whenever responsibility for a permit space entry operation is transferred and at intervals dictated by the hazards and operations performed within the space, that entry operations remain consistent with terms of the entry permit and that acceptable entry conditions are maintained.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Rescue and emergency services.</I> (1) An employer who designates rescue and emergency services, pursuant to paragraph (d)(9) of this section, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate a prospective rescuer's ability to respond to a rescue summons in a timely manner, considering the hazard(s) identified;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">k</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>What will be considered timely will vary according to the specific hazards involved in each entry. For example, § 1910.134, Respiratory Protection, requires that employers provide a standby person or persons capable of immediate action to rescue employee(s) wearing respiratory protection while in work areas defined as IDLH atmospheres.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Evaluate a prospective rescue service's ability, in terms of proficiency with rescue-related tasks and equipment, to function appropriately while rescuing entrants from the particular permit space or types of permit spaces identified;
</P>
<P>(iii) Select a rescue team or service from those evaluated that:
</P>
<P>(A) Has the capability to reach the victim(s) within a time frame that is appropriate for the permit space hazard(s) identified;
</P>
<P>(B) Is equipped for and proficient in performing the needed rescue services;
</P>
<P>(iv) Inform each rescue team or service of the hazards they may confront when called on to perform rescue at the site; and
</P>
<P>(v) Provide the rescue team or service selected with access to all permit spaces from which rescue may be necessary so that the rescue service can develop appropriate rescue plans and practice rescue operations.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">k</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>Non-mandatory appendix F contains examples of criteria which employers can use in evaluating prospective rescuers as required by paragraph (k)(1) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) An employer whose employees have been designated to provide permit space rescue and emergency services shall take the following measures:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide affected employees with the personal protective equipment (PPE) needed to conduct permit space rescues safely and train affected employees so they are proficient in the use of that PPE, at no cost to those employees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Train affected employees to perform assigned rescue duties. The employer must ensure that such employees successfully complete the training required to establish proficiency as an authorized entrant, as provided by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Train affected employees in basic first-aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The employer shall ensure that at least one member of the rescue team or service holding a current certification in first aid and CPR is available; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that affected employees practice making permit space rescues at least once every 12 months, by means of simulated rescue operations in which they remove dummies, manikins, or actual persons from the actual permit spaces or from representative permit spaces. Representative permit spaces shall, with respect to opening size, configuration, and accessibility, simulate the types of permit spaces from which rescue is to be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) To facilitate non-entry rescue, retrieval systems or methods shall be used whenever an authorized entrant enters a permit space, unless the retrieval equipment would increase the overall risk of entry or would not contribute to the rescue of the entrant. Retrieval systems shall meet the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) Each authorized entrant shall use a chest or full body harness, with a retrieval line attached at the center of the entrant's back near shoulder level, above the entrant's head, or at another point which the employer can establish presents a profile small enough for the successful removal of the entrant. Wristlets may be used in lieu of the chest or full body harness if the employer can demonstrate that the use of a chest or full body harness is infeasible or creates a greater hazard and that the use of wristlets is the safest and most effective alternative.
</P>
<P>(ii) The other end of the retrieval line shall be attached to a mechanical device or fixed point outside the permit space in such a manner that rescue can begin as soon as the rescuer becomes aware that rescue is necessary. A mechanical device shall be available to retrieve personnel from vertical type permit spaces more than 5 feet (1.52 m) deep.
</P>
<P>(4) If an injured entrant is exposed to a substance for which a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) or other similar written information is required to be kept at the worksite, that MSDS or written information shall be made available to the medical facility treating the exposed entrant.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Employee participation.</I> (1) Employers shall consult with affected employees and their authorized representatives on the development and implementation of all aspects of the permit space program required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Employers shall make available to affected employees and their authorized representatives all information required to be developed by this section.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendixes to § 1910.146—Permit-required Confined Spaces
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Appendixes A through F serve to provide information and non-mandatory guidelines to assist employers and employees in complying with the appropriate requirements of this section.</P></NOTE></EXTRACT>
<TCAP><E T="15">Appendix A to § 1910.146—Permit-Required Confined Space Decision Flow Chart</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.029.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.146—Procedures for Atmospheric Testing
</HD1>
<P>Atmospheric testing is required for two distinct purposes: evaluation of the hazards of the permit space and verification that acceptable entry conditions for entry into that space exist.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Evaluation testing.</I> The atmosphere of a confined space should be analyzed using equipment of sufficient sensitivity and specificity to identify and evaluate any hazardous atmospheres that may exist or arise, so that appropriate permit entry procedures can be developed and acceptable entry conditions stipulated for that space. Evaluation and interpretation of these data, and development of the entry procedure, should be done by, or reviewed by, a technically qualified professional (e.g., OSHA consultation service, or certified industrial hygienist, registered safety engineer, certified safety professional, certified marine chemist, etc.) based on evaluation of all serious hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification testing.</I> The atmosphere of a permit space which may contain a hazardous atmosphere should be tested for residues of all contaminants identified by evaluation testing using permit specified equipment to determine that residual concentrations at the time of testing and entry are within the range of acceptable entry conditions. Results of testing (i.e., actual concentration, etc.) should be recorded on the permit in the space provided adjacent to the stipulated acceptable entry condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duration of testing.</I> Measurement of values for each atmospheric parameter should be made for at least the minimum response time of the test instrument specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Testing stratified atmospheres.</I> When monitoring for entries involving a descent into atmospheres that may be stratified, the atmospheric envelope should be tested a distance of approximately 4 feet (1.22 m) in the direction of travel and to each side. If a sampling probe is used, the entrant's rate of progress should be slowed to accommodate the sampling speed and detector response.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Order of testing.</I> A test for oxygen is performed first because most combustible gas meters are oxygen dependent and will not provide reliable readings in an oxygen deficient atmosphere. Combustible gasses are tested for next because the threat of fire or explosion is both more immediate and more life threatening, in most cases, than exposure to toxic gasses and vapors. If tests for toxic gasses and vapors are necessary, they are performed last.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.146—Examples of Permit-required Confined Space Programs
</HD1>
<HD2>Example 1.
</HD2>
<FP><I>Workplace.</I> Sewer entry.
</FP>
<FP><I>Potential hazards.</I> The employees could be exposed to the following:
</FP>
<FP><I>Engulfment.</I>
</FP>
<FP><I>Presence of toxic gases.</I> Equal to or more than 10 ppm hydrogen sulfide measured as an 8-hour time-weighted average. If the presence of other toxic contaminants is suspected, specific monitoring programs will be developed.
</FP>
<FP><I>Presence of explosive/flammable gases.</I> Equal to or greater than 10% of the lower flammable limit (LFL).
</FP>
<FP><I>Oxygen Deficiency.</I> A concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere equal to or less than 19.5% by volume.
</FP>
<FP>A. <I>Entry Without Permit/Attendant</I>
</FP>
<FP><I>Certification.</I> Confined spaces may be entered without the need for a written permit or attendant provided that the space can be maintained in a safe condition for entry by mechanical ventilation alone, as provided in § 1910.146(c)(5). All spaces shall be considered permit-required confined spaces until the pre-entry procedures demonstrate otherwise. Any employee required or permitted to pre-check or enter an enclosed/confined space shall have successfully completed, -as a minimum, the training as required by the following sections of these procedures. <I>A written copy of operating and rescue procedures as required by these procedures shall be at the work site for the duration of the job.</I> The Confined Space Pre-Entry Check List must be completed by the LEAD WORKER before entry into a confined space. This list verifies completion of items listed below. This check list shall be kept at the job site for duration of the job. If circumstances dictate an interruption in the work, the permit space must be re-evaluated and a new check list must be completed.
</FP>
<FP><I>Control of atmospheric and engulfment hazards.</I>
</FP>
<FP><I>Pumps and Lines.</I> All pumps and lines which may reasonably cause contaminants to flow into the space shall be disconnected, blinded and locked out, or effectively isolated by other means to prevent development of dangerous air contamination or engulfment. Not all laterals to sewers or storm drains require blocking. However, where experience or knowledge of industrial use indicates there is a reasonable potential for contamination of air or engulfment into an occupied sewer, then all affected laterals shall be blocked. If blocking and/or isolation requires entry into the space the provisions for entry into a permit- required confined space must be implemented.
</FP>
<FP><I>Surveillance.</I> The surrounding area shall be surveyed to avoid hazards such as drifting vapors from the tanks, piping, or sewers.
</FP>
<FP><I>Testing.</I> The atmosphere within the space will be tested to determine whether dangerous air contamination and/or oxygen deficiency exists. Detector tubes, alarm only gas monitors and explosion meters are examples of monitoring equipment that may be used to test permit space atmospheres. Testing shall be performed by the LEAD WORKER who has successfully completed the Gas Detector training for the monitor he will use. The minimum parameters to be monitored are oxygen deficiency, LFL, and hydrogen sulfide concentration. A written record of the pre-entry test results shall be made and kept at the work site for the duration of the job. The supervisor will certify in writing, based upon the results of the pre-entry testing, that all hazards have been eliminated. Affected employees shall be able to review the testing results. The most hazardous conditions shall govern when work is being performed in two adjoining, connecting spaces.
</FP>
<FP><I>Entry Procedures.</I> If there are no non-atmospheric hazards present and if the pre-entry tests show there is no dangerous air contamination and/or oxygen deficiency within the space and there is no reason to believe that any is likely to develop, entry into and work within may proceed. Continuous testing of the atmosphere in the immediate vicinity of the workers within the space shall be accomplished. The workers will immediately leave the permit space when any of the gas monitor alarm set points are reached as defined. Workers will not return to the area until a SUPERVISOR who has completed the gas detector training has used a direct reading gas detector to evaluate the situation and has determined that it is safe to enter.
</FP>
<FP><I>Rescue.</I> Arrangements for rescue services are not required where there is no attendant. See the rescue portion of section B., below, for instructions regarding rescue planning where an entry permit is required.
</FP>
<FP>B. <I>Entry Permit Required</I>
</FP>
<FP><I>Permits.</I> Confined Space Entry Permit. All spaces shall be considered permit-required confined spaces until the pre-entry procedures demonstrate otherwise. Any employee required or permitted to pre-check or enter a permit-required confined space shall have successfully completed, as a minimum, the training as required by the following sections of these procedures. <I>A written copy of operating and rescue procedures as required by these procedures shall be at the work site for the duration of the job.</I> The Confined Space Entry Permit must be completed before approval can be given to enter a permit-required confined space. This permit verifies completion of items listed below. This permit shall be kept at the job site for the duration of the job. If circumstances cause an interruption in the work or a change in the alarm conditions for which entry was approved, a new Confined Space Entry Permit must be completed.
</FP>
<FP><I>Control of atmospheric and engulfment hazards.</I>
</FP>
<FP><I>Surveillance.</I> The surrounding area shall be surveyed to avoid hazards such as drifting vapors from tanks, piping or sewers.
</FP>
<FP><I>Testing.</I> The confined space atmosphere shall be tested to determine whether dangerous air contamination and/or oxygen deficiency exists. A direct reading gas monitor shall be used. Testing shall be performed by the SUPERVISOR who has successfully completed the gas detector training for the monitor he will use. The minimum parameters to be monitored are oxygen deficiency, LFL and hydrogen sulfide concentration. A written record of the pre- entry test results shall be made and kept at the work site for the duration of the job. Affected employees shall be able to review the testing results. The most hazardous conditions shall govern when work is being performed in two adjoining, connected spaces.
</FP>
<FP><I>Space Ventilation.</I> Mechanical ventilation systems, where applicable, shall be set at 100% outside air. Where possible, open additional manholes to increase air circulation. Use portable blowers to augment natural circulation if needed. After a suitable ventilating period, repeat the testing. Entry may not begin until testing has demonstrated that the hazardous atmosphere has been eliminated.
</FP>
<FP><I>Entry Procedures.</I> The following procedure shall be observed under any of the following conditions: 1.) Testing demonstrates the existence of dangerous or deficient conditions and additional ventilation cannot reduce concentrations to safe levels; 2.) The atmosphere tests as safe but unsafe conditions can reasonably be expected to develop; 3.) It is not feasible to provide for ready exit from spaces equipped with automatic fire suppression systems and it is not practical or safe to deactivate such systems; or 4.) An emergency exists and it is not feasible to wait for pre-entry procedures to take effect.
</FP>
<P>All personnel must be trained. A self contained breathing apparatus shall be worn by any person entering the space. At least one worker shall stand by the outside of the space ready to give assistance in case of emergency. The standby worker shall have a self contained breathing apparatus available for immediate use. There shall be at least one additional worker within sight or call of the standby worker. Continuous powered communications shall be maintained between the worker within the confined space and standby personnel.
</P>
<P>If at any time there is any questionable action or non- movement by the worker inside, a verbal check will be made. If there is no response, the worker will be moved immediately. <I>Exception:</I> If the worker is disabled due to falling or impact, he/she shall not be removed from the confined space unless there is immediate danger to his/her life. Local fire department rescue personnel shall be notified immediately. The standby worker may only enter the confined space in case of an emergency (wearing the self contained breathing apparatus) and only after being relieved by another worker. Safety belt or harness with attached lifeline shall be used by all workers entering the space with the free end of the line secured outside the entry opening. The standby worker shall attempt to remove a disabled worker via his lifeline before entering the space.
</P>
<P>When practical, these spaces shall be entered through side openings—those within 3
<FR>1/2</FR> feet (1.07 m) of the bottom. When entry must be through a top opening, the safety belt shall be of the harness type that suspends a person upright and a hoisting device or similar apparatus shall be available for lifting workers out of the space.
</P>
<P>In any situation where their use may endanger the worker, use of a hoisting device or safety belt and attached lifeline may be discontinued.
</P>
<P>When dangerous air contamination is attributable to flammable and/or explosive substances, lighting and electrical equipment shall be Class 1, Division 1 rated per National Electrical Code and no ignition sources shall be introduced into the area.
</P>
<P>Continuous gas monitoring shall be performed during all confined space operations. If alarm conditions change adversely, entry personnel shall exit the confined space and a new confined space permit issued.
</P>
<FP><I>Rescue.</I> Call the fire department services for rescue. Where immediate hazards to injured personnel are present, workers at the site shall implement emergency procedures to fit the situation.
</FP>
<HD2>Example 2.
</HD2>
<FP><I>Workplace.</I> Meat and poultry rendering plants.
</FP>
<P>Cookers and dryers are either batch or continuous in their operation. Multiple batch cookers are operated in parallel. When one unit of a multiple set is shut down for repairs, means are available to isolate that unit from the others which remain in operation.
</P>
<P>Cookers and dryers are horizontal, cylindrical vessels equipped with a center, rotating shaft and agitator paddles or discs. If the inner shell is jacketed, it is usually heated with steam at pressures up to 150 psig (1034.25 kPa). The rotating shaft assembly of the continuous cooker or dryer is also steam heated.
</P>
<FP><I>Potential Hazards.</I> The recognized hazards associated with cookers and dryers are the risk that employees could be:
</FP>
<FP>1. Struck or caught by rotating agitator;
</FP>
<FP>2. Engulfed in raw material or hot, recycled fat;
</FP>
<FP>3. Burned by steam from leaks into the cooker/dryer steam jacket or the condenser duct system if steam valves are not properly closed and locked out;
</FP>
<FP>4. Burned by contact with hot metal surfaces, such as the agitator shaft assembly, or inner shell of the cooker/dryer;
</FP>
<FP>5. Heat stress caused by warm atmosphere inside cooker/dryer;
</FP>
<FP>6. Slipping and falling on grease in the cooker/dryer;
</FP>
<FP>7. Electrically shocked by faulty equipment taken into the cooker/dryer;
</FP>
<FP>8. Burned or overcome by fire or products of combustion; or
</FP>
<FP>9. Overcome by fumes generated by welding or cutting done on grease covered surfaces.
</FP>
<FP><I>Permits.</I> The supervisor in this case is always present at the cooker/dryer or other permit entry confined space when entry is made. The supervisor must follow the pre-entry isolation procedures described in the entry permit in preparing for entry, and ensure that the protective clothing, ventilating equipment and any other equipment required by the permit are at the entry site.
</FP>
<FP><I>Control of hazards.</I> Mechanical. Lock out main power switch to agitator motor at main power panel. Affix tag to the lock to inform others that a permit entry confined space entry is in progress.
</FP>
<FP><I>Engulfment.</I> Close all valves in the raw material blow line. Secure each valve in its closed position using chain and lock. Attach a tag to the valve and chain warning that a permit entry confined space entry is in progress. The same procedure shall be used for securing the fat recycle valve.
</FP>
<FP><I>Burns and heat stress.</I> Close steam supply valves to jacket and secure with chains and tags. Insert solid blank at flange in cooker vent line to condenser manifold duct system. Vent cooker/dryer by opening access door at discharge end and top center door to allow natural ventilation throughout the entry. If faster cooling is needed, use a portable ventilation fan to increase ventilation. Cooling water may be circulated through the jacket to reduce both outer and inner surface temperatures of cooker/dryers faster. Check air and inner surface temperatures in cooker/dryer to assure they are within acceptable limits before entering, or use proper protective clothing.
</FP>
<FP><I>Fire and fume hazards.</I> Careful site preparation, such as cleaning the area within 4 inches (10.16 cm) of all welding or torch cutting operations, and proper ventilation are the preferred controls. All welding and cutting operations shall be done in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR part 1910, subpart Q, OSHA's welding standard. Proper ventilation may be achieved by local exhaust ventilation, or the use of portable ventilation fans, or a combination of the two practices.
</FP>
<FP><I>Electrical shock.</I> Electrical equipment used in cooker/dryers shall be in serviceable condition.
</FP>
<FP><I>Slips and falls.</I> Remove residual grease before entering cooker/dryer.
</FP>
<FP><I>Attendant.</I> The supervisor shall be the attendant for employees entering cooker/dryers.
</FP>
<FP><I>Permit.</I> The permit shall specify how isolation shall be done and any other preparations needed before making entry. This is especially important in parallel arrangements of cooker/dryers so that the entire operation need not be shut down to allow safe entry into one unit.
</FP>
<FP><I>Rescue.</I> When necessary, the attendant shall call the fire department as previously arranged.
</FP>
<HD2>Example 3.
</HD2>
<FP><I>Workplace.</I> Workplaces where tank cars, trucks, and trailers, dry bulk tanks and trailers, railroad tank cars, and similar portable tanks are fabricated or serviced.
</FP>
<FP>A. <I>During fabrication.</I> These tanks and dry-bulk carriers are entered repeatedly throughout the fabrication process. These products are not configured identically, but the manufacturing processes by which they are made are very similar.
</FP>
<FP><I>Sources of hazards.</I> In addition to the mechanical hazards arising from the risks that an entrant would be injured due to contact with components of the tank or the tools being used, there is also the risk that a worker could be injured by breathing fumes from welding materials or mists or vapors from materials used to coat the tank interior. In addition, many of these vapors and mists are flammable, so the failure to properly ventilate a tank could lead to a fire or explosion.
</FP>
<FP><I>Control of hazards.</I>
</FP>
<FP><I>Welding.</I> Local exhaust ventilation shall be used to remove welding fumes once the tank or carrier is completed to the point that workers may enter and exit only through a manhole. (Follow the requirements of 29 CFR 1910, subpart Q, OSHA's welding standard, at all times.) Welding gas tanks may never be brought into a tank or carrier that is a permit entry confined space.
</FP>
<P><I>Application of interior coatings/linings.</I> Atmospheric hazards shall be controlled by forced air ventilation sufficient to keep the atmospheric concentration of flammable materials below 10% of the lower flammable limit (LFL) (or lower explosive limit (LEL), whichever term is used locally). The appropriate respirators are provided and shall be used in addition to providing forced ventilation if the forced ventilation does not maintain acceptable respiratory conditions.
</P>
<FP><I>Permits.</I> Because of the repetitive nature of the entries in these operations, an “Area Entry Permit” will be issued for a 1 month period to cover those production areas where tanks are fabricated to the point that entry and exit are made using manholes.
</FP>
<FP><I>Authorization.</I> Only the area supervisor may authorize an employee to enter a tank within the permit area. The area supervisor must determine that conditions in the tank trailer, dry bulk trailer or truck, etc. meet permit requirements before authorizing entry.
</FP>
<FP><I>Attendant.</I> The area supervisor shall designate an employee to maintain communication by employer specified means with employees working in tanks to ensure their safety. The attendant may not enter any permit entry confined space to rescue an entrant or for any other reason, unless authorized by the rescue procedure and, and even then, only after calling the rescue team and being relieved by as attendant by another worker.
</FP>
<FP><I>Communications and observation.</I> Communications between attendant and entrant(s) shall be maintained throughout entry. Methods of communication that may be specified by the permit include voice, voice powered radio, tapping or rapping codes on tank walls, signalling tugs on a rope, and the attendant's observation that work activities such as chipping, grinding, welding, spraying, etc., which require deliberate operator control continue normally. These activities often generate so much noise that the necessary hearing protection makes communication by voice difficult.
</FP>
<FP><I>Rescue procedures.</I> Acceptable rescue procedures include entry by a team of employee-rescuers, use of public emergency services, and procedures for breaching the tank. The area permit specifies which procedures are available, but the area supervisor makes the final decision based on circumstances. (Certain injuries may make it necessary to breach the tank to remove a person rather than risk additional injury by removal through an existing manhole. However, the supervisor must ensure that no breaching procedure used for rescue would violate terms of the entry permit. For instance, if the tank must be breached by cutting with a torch, the tank surfaces to be cut must be free of volatile or combustible coatings within 4 inches (10.16 cm) of the cutting line and the atmosphere within the tank must be below the LFL.
</FP>
<FP><I>Retrieval line and harnesses.</I> The retrieval lines and harnesses generally required under this standard are usually impractical for use in tanks because the internal configuration of the tanks and their interior baffles and other structures would prevent rescuers from hauling out injured entrants. However, unless the rescue procedure calls for breaching the tank for rescue, the rescue team shall be trained in the use of retrieval lines and harnesses for removing injured employees through manholes.
</FP>
<FP>B. <I>Repair or service of “used” tanks and bulk trailers.</I>
</FP>
<FP><I>Sources of hazards.</I> In addition to facing the potential hazards encountered in fabrication or manufacturing, tanks or trailers which have been in service may contain residues of dangerous materials, whether left over from the transportation of hazardous cargoes or generated by chemical or bacterial action on residues of non-hazardous cargoes.
</FP>
<FP><I>Control of atmospheric hazards.</I> A “used” tank shall be brought into areas where tank entry is authorized only after the tank has been emptied, cleansed (without employee entry) of any residues, and purged of any potential atmospheric hazards.
</FP>
<FP><I>Welding.</I> In addition to tank cleaning for control of atmospheric hazards, coating and surface materials shall be removed 4 inches (10.16 cm) or more from any surface area where welding or other torch work will be done and care taken that the atmosphere within the tank remains well below the LFL. (Follow the requirements of 29 CFR 1910, subpart Q, OSHA's welding standard, at all times.)
</FP>
<FP><I>Permits.</I> An entry permit valid for up to 1 year shall be issued prior to authorization of entry into used tank trailers, dry bulk trailers or trucks. In addition to the pre-entry cleaning requirement, this permit shall require the employee safeguards specified for new tank fabrication or construction permit areas.
</FP>
<FP><I>Authorization.</I> Only the area supervisor may authorize an employee to enter a tank trailer, dry bulk trailer or truck within the permit area. The area supervisor must determine that the entry permit requirements have been met before authorizing entry.</FP></EXTRACT>
<TCAP><E T="15">Appendix D to § 1910.146—Sample Permits</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.030.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.031.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1910.146—Sewer System Entry
</HD1>
<P>Sewer entry differs in three vital respects from other permit entries; first, there rarely exists any way to completely isolate the space (a section of a continuous system) to be entered; second, because isolation is not complete, the atmosphere may suddenly and unpredictably become lethally hazardous (toxic, flammable or explosive) from causes beyond the control of the entrant or employer, and third, experienced sewer workers are especially knowledgeable in entry and work in their permit spaces because of their frequent entries. Unlike other employments where permit space entry is a rare and exceptional event, sewer workers' usual work environment is a permit space.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Adherence to procedure.</I> The employer should designate as entrants only employees who are thoroughly trained in the employer's sewer entry procedures and who demonstrate that they follow these entry procedures exactly as prescribed when performing sewer entries.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Atmospheric monitoring.</I> Entrants should be trained in the use of, and be equipped with, atmospheric monitoring equipment which sounds an audible alarm, in addition to its visual readout, whenever one of the following conditions are encountered: Oxygen concentration less than 19.5 percent; flammable gas or vapor at 10 percent or more of the lower flammable limit (LFL); or hydrogen sulfide or carbon monoxide at or above 10 ppm or 35 ppm, respectively, measured as an 8-hour time-weighted average. Atmospheric monitoring equipment needs to be calibrated according to the manufacturer's instructions. The oxygen sensor/broad range sensor is best suited for initial use in situations where the actual or potential contaminants have not been identified, because broad range sensors, unlike substance-specific sensors, enable employers to obtain an overall reading of the hydrocarbons (flammables) present in the space. However, such sensors only indicate that a hazardous threshold of a class of chemicals has been exceeded. They do not measure the levels of contamination of specific substances. Therefore, substance-specific devices, which measure the actual levels of specific substances, are best suited for use where actual and potential contaminants have been identified. The measurements obtained with substance-specific devices are of vital importance to the employer when decisions are made concerning the measures necessary to protect entrants (such as ventilation or personal protective equipment) and the setting and attainment of appropriate entry conditions. However, the sewer environment may suddenly and unpredictably change, and the substance-specific devices may not detect the potentially lethal atmospheric hazards which may enter the sewer environment.
</P>
<P>Although OSHA considers the information and guidance provided above to be appropriate and useful in most sewer entry situations, the Agency emphasizes that each employer must consider the unique circumstances, including the predictability of the atmosphere, of the sewer permit spaces in the employer's workplace in preparing for entry. Only the employer can decide, based upon his or her knowledge of, and experience with permit spaces in sewer systems, what the best type of testing instrument may be for any specific entry operation.
</P>
<P>The selected testing instrument should be carried and used by the entrant in sewer line work to monitor the atmosphere in the entrant's environment, and in advance of the entrant's direction of movement, to warn the entrant of any deterioration in atmospheric conditions. Where several entrants are working together in the same immediate location, one instrument, used by the lead entrant, is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Surge flow and flooding.</I> Sewer crews should develop and maintain liaison, to the extent possible, with the local weather bureau and fire and emergency services in their area so that sewer work may be delayed or interrupted and entrants withdrawn whenever sewer lines might be suddenly flooded by rain or fire suppression activities, or whenever flammable or other hazardous materials are released into sewers during emergencies by industrial or transportation accidents.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special Equipment.</I> Entry into large bore sewers may require the use of special equipment. Such equipment might include such items as atmosphere monitoring devices with automatic audible alarms, escape self-contained breathing apparatus (ESCBA) with at least 10 minute air supply (or other NIOSH approved self-rescuer), and waterproof flashlights, and may also include boats and rafts, radios and rope stand-offs for pulling around bends and corners as needed.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1910.146—Rescue Team or Rescue Service Evaluation Criteria (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>(1) This appendix provides guidance to employers in choosing an appropriate rescue service. It contains criteria that may be used to evaluate the capabilities both of prospective and current rescue teams. Before a rescue team can be trained or chosen, however, a satisfactory permit program, including an analysis of all permit-required confined spaces to identify all potential hazards in those spaces, must be completed. OSHA believes that compliance with all the provisions of § 1910.146 will enable employers to conduct permit space operations without recourse to rescue services in nearly all cases. However, experience indicates that circumstances will arise where entrants will need to be rescued from permit spaces. It is therefore important for employers to select rescue services or teams, either on-site or off-site, that are equipped and capable of minimizing harm to both entrants and rescuers if the need arises.
</P>
<P>(2) For all rescue teams or services, the employer's evaluation should consist of two components: an initial evaluation, in which employers decide whether a potential rescue service or team is adequately trained and equipped to perform permit space rescues of the kind needed at the facility and whether such rescuers can respond in a timely manner, and a performance evaluation, in which employers measure the performance of the team or service during an actual or practice rescue. For example, based on the initial evaluation, an employer may determine that maintaining an on-site rescue team will be more expensive than obtaining the services of an off-site team, without being significantly more effective, and decide to hire a rescue service. During a performance evaluation, the employer could decide, after observing the rescue service perform a practice rescue, that the service's training or preparedness was not adequate to effect a timely or effective rescue at his or her facility and decide to select another rescue service, or to form an internal rescue team.
</P>
<HD2>A. Initial Evaluation
</HD2>
<P>I. The employer should meet with the prospective rescue service to facilitate the evaluations required by § 1910.146(k)(1)(i) and § 1910.146(k)(1)(ii). At a minimum, if an off-site rescue service is being considered, the employer must contact the service to plan and coordinate the evaluations required by the standard. Merely posting the service's number or planning to rely on the 911 emergency phone number to obtain these services at the time of a permit space emergency would not comply with paragraph (k)(1) of the standard.
</P>
<P>II. The capabilities required of a rescue service vary with the type of permit spaces from which rescue may be necessary and the hazards likely to be encountered in those spaces. Answering the questions below will assist employers in determining whether the rescue service is capable of performing rescues in the permit spaces present at the employer's workplace.
</P>
<P>1. What are the needs of the employer with regard to response time (time for the rescue service to receive notification, arrive at the scene, and set up and be ready for entry)? For example, if entry is to be made into an IDLH atmosphere, or into a space that can quickly develop an IDLH atmosphere (if ventilation fails or for other reasons), the rescue team or service would need to be standing by at the permit space. On the other hand, if the danger to entrants is restricted to mechanical hazards that would cause injuries (e.g., broken bones, abrasions) a response time of 10 or 15 minutes might be adequate.
</P>
<P>2. How quickly can the rescue team or service get from its location to the permit spaces from which rescue may be necessary? Relevant factors to consider would include: the location of the rescue team or service relative to the employer's workplace, the quality of roads and highways to be traveled, potential bottlenecks or traffic congestion that might be encountered in transit, the reliability of the rescuer's vehicles, and the training and skill of its drivers.
</P>
<P>3. What is the availability of the rescue service? Is it unavailable at certain times of the day or in certain situations? What is the likelihood that key personnel of the rescue service might be unavailable at times? If the rescue service becomes unavailable while an entry is underway, does it have the capability of notifying the employer so that the employer can instruct the attendant to abort the entry immediately?
</P>
<P>4. Does the rescue service meet all the requirements of paragraph (k)(2) of the standard? If not, has it developed a plan that will enable it to meet those requirements in the future? If so, how soon can the plan be implemented?
</P>
<P>5. For off-site services, is the service willing to perform rescues at the employer's workplace? (An employer may not rely on a rescuer who declines, for whatever reason, to provide rescue services.)
</P>
<P>6. Is an adequate method for communications between the attendant, employer and prospective rescuer available so that a rescue request can be transmitted to the rescuer without delay? How soon after notification can a prospective rescuer dispatch a rescue team to the entry site?
</P>
<P>7. For rescues into spaces that may pose significant atmospheric hazards and from which rescue entry, patient packaging and retrieval cannot be safely accomplished in a relatively short time (15-20 minutes), employers should consider using airline respirators (with escape bottles) for the rescuers and to supply rescue air to the patient. If the employer decides to use SCBA, does the prospective rescue service have an ample supply of replacement cylinders and procedures for rescuers to enter and exit (or be retrieved) well within the SCBA's air supply limits?
</P>
<P>8. If the space has a vertical entry over 5 feet in depth, can the prospective rescue service properly perform entry rescues? Does the service have the technical knowledge and equipment to perform rope work or elevated rescue, if needed?
</P>
<P>9. Does the rescue service have the necessary skills in medical evaluation, patient packaging and emergency response?
</P>
<P>10. Does the rescue service have the necessary equipment to perform rescues, or must the equipment be provided by the employer or another source?
</P>
<HD2>B. Performance Evaluation
</HD2>
<P>Rescue services are required by paragraph (k)(2)(iv) of the standard to practice rescues at least once every 12 months, provided that the team or service has not successfully performed a permit space rescue within that time. As part of each practice session, the service should perform a critique of the practice rescue, or have another qualified party perform the critique, so that deficiencies in procedures, equipment, training, or number of personnel can be identified and corrected. The results of the critique, and the corrections made to respond to the deficiencies identified, should be given to the employer to enable it to determine whether the rescue service can quickly be upgraded to meet the employer's rescue needs or whether another service must be selected. The following questions will assist employers and rescue teams and services evaluate their performance.
</P>
<P>1. Have all members of the service been trained as permit space entrants, at a minimum, including training in the potential hazards of all permit spaces, or of representative permit spaces, from which rescue may be needed? Can team members recognize the signs, symptoms, and consequences of exposure to any hazardous atmospheres that may be present in those permit spaces?
</P>
<P>2. Is every team member provided with, and properly trained in, the use and need for PPE, such as SCBA or fall arrest equipment, which may be required to perform permit space rescues in the facility? Is every team member properly trained to perform his or her functions and make rescues, and to use any rescue equipment, such as ropes and backboards, that may be needed in a rescue attempt?
</P>
<P>3. Are team members trained in the first aid and medical skills needed to treat victims overcome or injured by the types of hazards that may be encountered in the permit spaces at the facility?
</P>
<P>4. Do all team members perform their functions safely and efficiently? Do rescue service personnel focus on their own safety before considering the safety of the victim?
</P>
<P>5. If necessary, can the rescue service properly test the atmosphere to determine if it is IDLH?
</P>
<P>6. Can the rescue personnel identify information pertinent to the rescue from entry permits, hot work permits, and MSDSs?
</P>
<P>7. Has the rescue service been informed of any hazards to personnel that may arise from outside the space, such as those that may be caused by future work near the space?
</P>
<P>8. If necessary, can the rescue service properly package and retrieve victims from a permit space that has a limited size opening (less than 24 inches (60.9 cm) in diameter), limited internal space, or internal obstacles or hazards?
</P>
<P>9. If necessary, can the rescue service safely perform an elevated (high angle) rescue?
</P>
<P>10. Does the rescue service have a plan for each of the kinds of permit space rescue operations at the facility? Is the plan adequate for all types of rescue operations that may be needed at the facility? Teams may practice in representative spaces, or in spaces that are “worst-case” or most restrictive with respect to internal configuration, elevation, and portal size. The following characteristics of a practice space should be considered when deciding whether a space is truly representative of an actual permit space:
</P>
<P>(1) Internal configuration.
</P>
<P>(a) Open—there are no obstacles, barriers, or obstructions within the space. One example is a water tank.
</P>
<P>(b) Obstructed—the permit space contains some type of obstruction that a rescuer would need to maneuver around. An example would be a baffle or mixing blade. Large equipment, such as a ladder or scaffold, brought into a space for work purposes would be considered an obstruction if the positioning or size of the equipment would make rescue more difficult.
</P>
<P>(2) Elevation.
</P>
<P>(a) Elevated—a permit space where the entrance portal or opening is above grade by 4 feet or more. This type of space usually requires knowledge of high angle rescue procedures because of the difficulty in packaging and transporting a patient to the ground from the portal.
</P>
<P>(b) Non-elevated—a permit space with the entrance portal located less than 4 feet above grade. This type of space will allow the rescue team to transport an injured employee normally.
</P>
<P>(3) Portal size.
</P>
<P>(a) Restricted—A portal of 24 inches or less in the least dimension. Portals of this size are too small to allow a rescuer to simply enter the space while using SCBA. The portal size is also too small to allow normal spinal immobilization of an injured employee.
</P>
<P>(b) Unrestricted—A portal of greater than 24 inches in the least dimension. These portals allow relatively free movement into and out of the permit space.
</P>
<P>(4) Space access.
</P>
<P>(a) Horizontal—The portal is located on the side of the permit space. Use of retrieval lines could be difficult.
</P>
<P>(b) Vertical—The portal is located on the top of the permit space, so that rescuers must climb down, or the bottom of the permit space, so that rescuers must climb up to enter the space. Vertical portals may require knowledge of rope techniques, or special patient packaging to safely retrieve a downed entrant.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 4549, Jan. 14, 1993; 58 FR 34845, 34846, June 29, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 26114, May 19, 1994; 63 FR 66038, 66039, Dec. 1, 1998; 76 FR 80739, Dec. 27, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.147" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.10.34.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.147   The control of hazardous energy (lockout/tagout).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope, application, and purpose</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> (i) This standard covers the servicing and maintenance of machines and equipment in which the <I>unexpected</I> energization or start up of the machines or equipment, or release of stored energy could cause injury to employees. This standard establishes minimum performance requirements for the control of such hazardous energy.
</P>
<P>(ii) This standard does not cover the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Construction and agriculture employment;
</P>
<P>(B) Employment covered by parts 1915, 1917, and 1918 of this title;
</P>
<P>(C) Installations under the exclusive control of electric utilities for the purpose of power generation, transmission and distribution, including related equipment for communication or metering;
</P>
<P>(D) Exposure to electrical hazards from work on, near, or with conductors or equipment in electric-utilization installations, which is covered by subpart S of this part; and
</P>
<P>(E) Oil and gas well drilling and servicing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> (i) This standard applies to the control of energy during servicing and/or maintenance of machines and equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Normal production operations are not covered by this standard (See subpart O of this part). Servicing and/or maintenance which takes place during normal production operations is covered by this standard only if;:
</P>
<P>(A) An employee is required to remove or bypass a guard or other safety device; or
</P>
<P>(B) An employee is required to place any part of his or her body into an area on a machine or piece of equipment where work is actually performed upon the material being processed (point of operation) or where an associated danger zone exists during a machine operating cycle.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P><I>Exception to paragraph (a)(2)(ii):</I> Minor tool changes and adjustments, and other minor servicing activities, which take place during normal production operations, are not covered by this standard if they are routine, repetitive, and integral to the use of the equipment for production, provided that the work is performed using alternative measures which provide effective protection (See subpart O of this part).</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) This standard does not apply to the following.
</P>
<P>(A) Work on cord and plug connected electric equipment for which exposure to the hazards of unexpected energization or start up of the equipment is controlled by the unplugging of the equipment from the energy source and by the plug being under the exclusive control of the employee performing the servicing or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(B) Hot tap operations involving transmission and distribution systems for substances such as gas, steam, water or petroleum products when they are performed on pressurized pipelines, provided that the employer demonstrates that (<I>1</I>) continuity of service is essential; (<I>2</I>) shutdown of the system is impractical; and (<I>3</I>) documented procedures are followed, and special equipment is used which will provide proven effective protection for employees.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Purpose.</I> (i) This section requires employers to establish a program and utilize procedures for affixing appropriate lockout devices or tagout devices to energy isolating devices, and to otherwise disable machines or equipment to prevent unexpected energization, start-up or release of stored energy in order to prevent injury to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) When other standards in this part require the use of lockout or tagout, they shall be used and supplemented by the procedural and training requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions applicable to this section.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Affected employee.</I> An employee whose job requires him/her to operate or use a machine or equipment on which servicing or maintenance is being performed under lockout or tagout, or whose job requires him/her to work in an area in which such servicing or maintenance is being performed.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized employee.</I> A person who locks out or tags out machines or equipment in order to perform servicing or maintenance on that machine or equipment. An affected employee becomes an authorized employee when that employee's duties include performing servicing or maintenance covered under this section.
</P>
<P><I>Capable of being locked out.</I> An energy isolating device is capable of being locked out if it has a hasp or other means of attachment to which, or through which, a lock can be affixed, or it has a locking mechanism built into it. Other energy isolating devices are capable of being locked out, if lockout can be achieved without the need to dismantle, rebuild, or replace the energy isolating device or permanently alter its energy control capability.
</P>
<P><I>Energized.</I> Connected to an energy source or containing residual or stored energy.
</P>
<P><I>Energy isolating device.</I> A mechanical device that physically prevents the transmission or release of energy, including but not limited to the following: A manually operated electrical circuit breaker; a disconnect switch; a manually operated switch by which the conductors of a circuit can be disconnected from all ungrounded supply conductors, and, in addition, no pole can be operated independently; a line valve; a block; and any similar device used to block or isolate energy. Push buttons, selector switches and other control circuit type devices are not energy isolating devices.
</P>
<P><I>Energy source.</I> Any source of electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic, chemical, thermal, or other energy.
</P>
<P><I>Hot tap.</I> A procedure used in the repair, maintenance and services activities which involves welding on a piece of equipment (pipelines, vessels or tanks) under pressure, in order to install connections or appurtenances. It is commonly used to replace or add sections of pipeline without the interruption of service for air, gas, water, steam, and petrochemical distribution systems.
</P>
<P><I>Lockout.</I> The placement of a lockout device on an energy isolating device, in accordance with an established procedure, ensuring that the energy isolating device and the equipment being controlled cannot be operated until the lockout device is removed.
</P>
<P><I>Lockout device.</I> A device that utilizes a positive means such as a lock, either key or combination type, to hold an energy isolating device in a safe position and prevent the energizing of a machine or equipment. Included are blank flanges and bolted slip blinds.
</P>
<P><I>Normal production operations.</I> The utilization of a machine or equipment to perform its intended production function.
</P>
<P><I>Servicing and/or maintenance.</I> Workplace activities such as constructing, installing, setting up, adjusting, inspecting, modifying, and maintaining and/or servicing machines or equipment. These activities include lubrication, cleaning or unjamming of machines or equipment and making adjustments or tool changes, where the employee may be exposed to the <I>unexpected</I> energization or startup of the equipment or release of hazardous energy.
</P>
<P><I>Setting up.</I> Any work performed to prepare a machine or equipment to perform its normal production operation.
</P>
<P><I>Tagout.</I> The placement of a tagout device on an energy isolating device, in accordance with an established procedure, to indicate that the energy isolating device and the equipment being controlled may not be operated until the tagout device is removed.
</P>
<P><I>Tagout device.</I> A prominent warning device, such as a tag and a means of attachment, which can be securely fastened to an energy isolating device in accordance with an established procedure, to indicate that the energy isolating device and the equipment being controlled may not be operated until the tagout device is removed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Energy control program.</I> The employer shall establish a program consisting of energy control procedures, employee training and periodic inspections to ensure that before any employee performs any servicing or maintenance on a machine or equipment where the unexpected energizing, start up or release of stored energy could occur and cause injury, the machine or equipment shall be isolated from the energy source, and rendered inoperative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lockout/tagout.</I> (i) If an energy isolating device is not capable of being locked out, the employer's energy control program under paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall utilize a tagout system.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an energy isolating device is capable of being locked out, the employer's energy control program under paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall utilize lockout, unless the employer can demonstrate that the utilization of a tagout system will provide full employee protection as set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) After January 2, 1990, whenever replacement or major repair, renovation or modification of a machine or equipment is performed, and whenever new machines or equipment are installed, energy isolating devices for such machine or equipment shall be designed to accept a lockout device.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Full employee protection.</I> (i) When a tagout device is used on an energy isolating device which is capable of being locked out, the tagout device shall be attached at the same location that the lockout device would have been attached, and the employer shall demonstrate that the tagout program will provide a level of safety equivalent to that obtained by using a lockout program.
</P>
<P>(ii) In demonstrating that a level of safety is achieved in the tagout program which is equivalent to the level of safety obtained by using a lockout program, the employer shall demonstrate full compliance with all tagout-related provisions of this standard together with such additional elements as are necessary to provide the equivalent safety available from the use of a lockout device. Additional means to be considered as part of the demonstration of full employee protection shall include the implementation of additional safety measures such as the removal of an isolating circuit element, blocking of a controlling switch, opening of an extra disconnecting device, or the removal of a valve handle to reduce the likelihood of inadvertent energization.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Energy control procedure.</I> (i) Procedures shall be developed, documented and utilized for the control of potentially hazardous energy when employees are engaged in the activities covered by this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P><I>Exception:</I> The employer need not document the required procedure for a particular machine or equipment, when all of the following elements exist: (1) The machine or equipment has no potential for stored or residual energy or reaccumulation of stored energy after shut down which could endanger employees; (2) the machine or equipment has a single energy source which can be readily identified and isolated; (3) the isolation and locking out of that energy source will completely deenergize and deactivate the machine or equipment; (4) the machine or equipment is isolated from that energy source and locked out during servicing or maintenance; (5) a single lockout device will achieve a locked-out condition; (6) the lockout device is under the exclusive control of the authorized employee performing the servicing or maintenance; (7) the servicing or maintenance does not create hazards for other employees; and (8) the employer, in utilizing this exception, has had no accidents involving the unexpected activation or reenergization of the machine or equipment during servicing or maintenance.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) The procedures shall clearly and specifically outline the scope, purpose, authorization, rules, and techniques to be utilized for the control of hazardous energy, and the means to enforce compliance including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A specific statement of the intended use of the procedure;
</P>
<P>(B) Specific procedural steps for shutting down, isolating, blocking and securing machines or equipment to control hazardous energy;
</P>
<P>(C) Specific procedural steps for the placement, removal and transfer of lockout devices or tagout devices and the responsibility for them; and
</P>
<P>(D) Specific requirements for testing a machine or equipment to determine and verify the effectiveness of lockout devices, tagout devices, and other energy control measures.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Protective materials and hardware.</I> (i) Locks, tags, chains, wedges, key blocks, adapter pins, self-locking fasteners, or other hardware shall be provided by the employer for isolating, securing or blocking of machines or equipment from energy sources.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lockout devices and tagout devices shall be singularly identified; shall be the only devices(s) used for controlling energy; shall not be used for other purposes; and shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Durable.</I> (<I>1</I>) Lockout and tagout devices shall be capable of withstanding the environment to which they are exposed for the maximum period of time that exposure is expected.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Tagout devices shall be constructed and printed so that exposure to weather conditions or wet and damp locations will not cause the tag to deteriorate or the message on the tag to become illegible.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Tags shall not deteriorate when used in corrosive environments such as areas where acid and alkali chemicals are handled and stored.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Standardized.</I> Lockout and tagout devices shall be standardized within the facility in at least one of the following criteria: Color; shape; or size; and additionally, in the case of tagout devices, print and format shall be standardized.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Substantial</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Lockout devices.</I> Lockout devices shall be substantial enough to prevent removal without the use of excessive force or unusual techniques, such as with the use of bolt cutters or other metal cutting tools.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Tagout devices.</I> Tagout devices, including and their means of attachment, shall be substantial enough to prevent inadvertent or accidental removal. Tagout device attachment means shall be of a non-reusable type, attachable by hand, self-locking, and non-releasable with a minimum unlocking strength of no less than 50 pounds and having the general design and basic characteristics of being at least equivalent to a one-piece, all-environment-tolerant nylon cable tie.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Identifiable.</I> Lockout devices and tagout devices shall indicate the identity of the employee applying the device(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) Tagout devices shall warn against hazardous conditions if the machine or equipment is energized and shall include a legend such as the following: <I>Do Not Start, Do Not Open, Do Not Close, Do Not Energize, Do Not Operate.</I>
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Periodic inspection.</I> (i) The employer shall conduct a periodic inspection of the energy control procedure at least annually to ensure that the procedure and the requirements of this standard are being followed.
</P>
<P>(A) The periodic inspection shall be perfomed by an authorized employee other than the ones(s) utilizing the energy control procedure being inspected.
</P>
<P>(B) The periodic inspection shall be conducted to correct any deviations or inadequacies identified.
</P>
<P>(C) Where lockout is used for energy control, the periodic inspection shall include a review, between the inspector and each authorized employee, of that employee's responsibilities under the energy control procedure being inspected.
</P>
<P>(D) Where tagout is used for energy control, the periodic inspection shall include a review, between the inspector and each authorized and affected employee, of that employee's responsibilities under the energy control procedure being inspected, and the elements set forth in paragraph (c)(7)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall certify that the periodic inspections have been performed. The certification shall identify the machine or equipment on which the energy control procedure was being utilized, the date of the inspection, the employees included in the inspection, and the person performing the inspection.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Training and communication.</I> (i) The employer shall provide training to ensure that the purpose and function of the energy control program are understood by employees and that the knowledge and skills required for the safe application, usage, and removal of the energy controls are acquired by employees. The training shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Each authorized employee shall receive training in the recognition of applicable hazardous energy sources, the type and magnitude of the energy available in the workplace, and the methods and means necessary for energy isolation and control.
</P>
<P>(B) Each affected employee shall be instructed in the purpose and use of the energy control procedure.
</P>
<P>(C) All other employees whose work operations are or may be in an area where energy control procedures may be utilized, shall be instructed about the procedure, and about the prohibition relating to attempts to restart or reenergize machines or equipment which are locked out or tagged out.
</P>
<P>(ii) When tagout systems are used, employees shall also be trained in the following limitations of tags:
</P>
<P>(A) Tags are essentially warning devices affixed to energy isolating devices, and do not provide the physical restraint on those devices that is provided by a lock.
</P>
<P>(B) When a tag is attached to an energy isolating means, it is not to be removed without authorization of the authorized person responsible for it, and it is never to be bypassed, ignored, or otherwise defeated.
</P>
<P>(C) Tags must be legible and understandable by all authorized employees, affected employees, and all other employees whose work operations are or may be in the area, in order to be effective.
</P>
<P>(D) Tags and their means of attachment must be made of materials which will withstand the environmental conditions encountered in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(E) Tags may evoke a false sense of security, and their meaning needs to be understood as part of the overall energy control program.
</P>
<P>(F) Tags must be securely attached to energy isolating devices so that they cannot be inadvertently or accidentally detached during use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employee retraining.
</P>
<P>(A) Retraining shall be provided for all authorized and affected employees whenever there is a change in their job assignments, a change in machines, equipment or processes that present a new hazard, or when there is a change in the energy control procedures.
</P>
<P>(B) Additional retraining shall also be conducted whenever a periodic inspection under paragraph (c)(6) of this section reveals, or whenever the employer has reason to believe, that there are deviations from or inadequacies in the employee's knowledge or use of the energy control procedures.
</P>
<P>(C) The retraining shall reestablish employee proficiency and introduce new or revised control methods and procedures, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall certify that employee training has been accomplished and is being kept up to date. The certification shall contain each employee's name and dates of training.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Energy isolation.</I> Lockout or tagout shall be performed only by the authorized employees who are performing the servicing or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Notification of employees.</I> Affected employees shall be notified by the employer or authorized employee of the application and removal of lockout devices or tagout devices. Notification shall be given before the controls are applied, and after they are removed from the machine or equipment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application of control.</I> The established procedures for the application of energy control (the lockout or tagout procedures) shall cover the following elements and actions and shall be done in the following sequence:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Preparation for shutdown.</I> Before an authorized or affected employee turns off a machine or equipment, the authorized employee shall have knowledge of the type and magnitude of the energy, the hazards of the energy to be controlled, and the method or means to control the energy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Machine or equipment shutdown.</I> The machine or equipment shall be turned off or shut down using the procedures established for the machine or equipment. An orderly shutdown must be utilized to avoid any additional or increased hazard(s) to employees as a result of the equipment stoppage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Machine or equipment isolation.</I> All energy isolating devices that are needed to control the energy to the machine or equipment shall be physically located and operated in such a manner as to isolate the machine or equipment from the energy source(s).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lockout or tagout device application.</I> (i) Lockout or tagout devices shall be affixed to each energy isolating device by authorized employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lockout devices, where used, shall be affixed in a manner to that will hold the energy isolating devices in a “safe” or “off” position.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tagout devices, where used, shall be affixed in such a manner as will clearly indicate that the operation or movement of energy isolating devices from the “safe” or “off” position is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(A) Where tagout devices are used with energy isolating devices designed with the capability of being locked, the tag attachment shall be fastened at the same point at which the lock would have been attached.
</P>
<P>(B) Where a tag cannot be affixed directly to the energy isolating device, the tag shall be located as close as safely possible to the device, in a position that will be immediately obvious to anyone attempting to operate the device.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Stored energy.</I> (i) Following the application of lockout or tagout devices to energy isolating devices, all potentially hazardous stored or residual energy shall be relieved, disconnected, restrained, and otherwise rendered safe.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a possibility of reaccumulation of stored energy to a hazardous level, verification of isolation shall be continued until the servicing or maintenance is completed, or until the possibility of such accumulation no longer exists.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Verification of isolation.</I> Prior to starting work on machines or equipment that have been locked out or tagged out, the authorized employee shall verify that isolation and deenergization of the machine or equipment have been accomplished.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Release from lockout or tagout.</I> Before lockout or tagout devices are removed and energy is restored to the machine or equipment, procedures shall be followed and actions taken by the authorized employee(s) to ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The machine or equipment.</I> The work area shall be inspected to ensure that nonessential items have been removed and to ensure that machine or equipment components are operationally intact.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employees.</I> (i) The work area shall be checked to ensure that all employees have been safely positioned or removed.
</P>
<P>(ii) After lockout or tagout devices have been removed and before a machine or equipment is started, affected employees shall be notified that the lockout or tagout device(s) have been removed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lockout or tagout devices removal.</I> Each lockout or tagout device shall be removed from each energy isolating device by the employee who applied the device. <I>Exception to paragraph (e)(3):</I> When the authorized employee who applied the lockout or tagout device is not available to remove it, that device may be removed under the direction of the employer, provided that specific procedures and training for such removal have been developed, documented and incorporated into the employer's energy control program. The employer shall demonstrate that the specific procedure provides equivalent safety to the removal of the device by the authorized employee who applied it. The specific procedure shall include at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) Verfication by the employer that the authorized employee who applied the device is not at the facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making all reasonable efforts to contact the authorized employee to inform him/her that his/her lockout or tagout device has been removed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring that the authorized employee has this knowledge before he/she resumes work at that facility.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional requirements</I>—(1) <I>Testing or positioning of machines, equipment or components thereof.</I> In situations in which lockout or tagout devices must be temporarily removed from the energy isolating device and the machine or equipment energized to test or position the machine, equipment or component thereof, the following sequence of actions shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear the machine or equipment of tools and materials in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Remove employees from the machine or equipment area in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Remove the lockout or tagout devices as specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Energize and proceed with testing or positioning;
</P>
<P>(v) Deenergize all systems and reapply energy control measures in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section to continue the servicing and/or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outside personnel (contractors, etc.).</I> (i) Whenever outside servicing personnel are to be engaged in activities covered by the scope and application of this standard, the on-site employer and the outside employer shall inform each other of their respective lockout or tagout procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) The on-site employer shall ensure that his/her employees understand and comply with the restrictions and prohibitions of the outside employer's energy control program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Group lockout or tagout.</I> (i) When servicing and/or maintenance is performed by a crew, craft, department or other group, they shall utilize a procedure which affords the employees a level of protection equivalent to that provided by the implementation of a personal lockout or tagout device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Group lockout or tagout devices shall be used in accordance with the procedures required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section including, but not necessarily limited to, the following specific requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Primary responsibility is vested in an authorized employee for a set number of employees working under the protection of a group lockout or tagout device (such as an operations lock);
</P>
<P>(B) Provision for the authorized employee to ascertain the exposure status of individual group members with regard to the lockout or tagout of the machine or equipment and
</P>
<P>(C) When more than one crew, craft, department, etc. is involved, assignment of overall job-associated lockout or tagout control responsibility to an authorized employee designated to coordinate affected work forces and ensure continuity of protection; and
</P>
<P>(D) Each authorized employee shall affix a personal lockout or tagout device to the group lockout device, group lockbox, or comparable mechanism when he or she begins work, and shall remove those devices when he or she stops working on the machine or equipment being serviced or maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Shift or personnel changes.</I> Specific procedures shall be utilized during shift or personnel changes to ensure the continuity of lockout or tagout protection, including provision for the orderly transfer of lockout or tagout device protection between off-going and oncoming employees, to minimize exposure to hazards from the unexpected energization or start-up of the machine or equipment, or the release of stored energy.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The following appendix to § 1910.147 services as a non-mandatory guideline to assist employers and employees in complying with the requirements of this section, as well as to provide other helpful information. Nothing in the appendix adds to or detracts from any of the requirements of this section.</P></NOTE>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.147—Typical Minimal Lockout Procedure
</HD1>
<HD2>General
</HD2>
<P>The following simple lockout procedure is provided to assist employers in developing their procedures so they meet the requirements of this standard. When the energy isolating devices are not lockable, tagout may be used, provided the employer complies with the provisions of the standard which require additional training and more rigorous periodic inspections. When tagout is used and the energy isolating devices are lockable, the employer must provide full employee protection (<I>see</I> paragraph (c)(3)) and additional training and more rigorous periodic inspections are required. For more complex systems, more comprehensive procedures may need to be developed, documented and utilized.
</P>
<HD3>Lockout Procedure
</HD3>
<FP>Lockout procedure for
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of Company for single procedure or identification of equipment if multiple procedures are used)
</FP>
<HD2>Purpose
</HD2>
<P>This procedure establishes the minimum requirements for the lockout of energy isolating devices whenever maintenance or servicing is done on machines or equipment. It shall be used to ensure that the machine or equipment is stopped, isolated from all potentially hazardous energy sources and locked out before employees perform any servicing or maintenance where the unexpected energization or start-up of the machine or equipment or release of stored energy could cause injury.
</P>
<HD2>Compliance With This Program
</HD2>
<P>All employees are required to comply with the restrictions and limitations imposed upon them during the use of lockout. The authorized employees are required to perform the lockout in accordance with this procedure. All employees, upon observing a machine or piece of equipment which is locked out to perform servicing or maintenance shall not attempt to start, energize or use that machine or equipment.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type of compliance enforcement to be taken for violation of the above.
</FP>
<HD2>Sequence of Lockout
</HD2>
<P>(1) Notify all affected employees that servicing or maintenance is required on a machine or equipment and that the machine or equipment must be shut down and locked out to perform the servicing or maintenance.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Name(s)/Job Title(s) of affected employees and how to notify.
</FP>
<P>(2) The authorized employee shall refer to the company procedure to identify the type and magnitude of the energy that the machine or equipment utilizes, shall understand the hazards of the energy, and shall know the methods to control the energy.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type(s) and magnitude(s) of energy, its hazards and the methods to control the energy.
</FP>
<P>(3) If the machine or equipment is operating, shut it down by the normal stopping procedure (depress stop button, open switch, close valve, etc.).
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type(s) and location(s) of machine or equipment operating controls.
</FP>
<P>(4) De-activate the energy isolating device(s) so that the machine or equipment is isolated from the energy source(s).
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type(s) and location(s) of energy isolating devices.
</FP>
<P>(5) Lock out the energy isolating device(s) with assigned individual lock(s).
</P>
<P>(6) Stored or residual energy (such as that in capacitors, springs, elevated machine members, rotating flywheels, hydraulic systems, and air, gas, steam, or water pressure, etc.) must be dissipated or restrained by methods such as grounding, repositioning, blocking, bleeding down, etc.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type(s) of stored energy—methods to dissipate or restrain.
</FP>
<P>(7) Ensure that the equipment is disconnected from the energy source(s) by first checking that no personnel are exposed, then verify the isolation of the equipment by operating the push button or other normal operating control(s) or by testing to make certain the equipment will not operate.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Caution:</E> Return operating control(s) to neutral or “off” position after verifying the isolation of the equipment.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Method of verifying the isolation of the equipment.
</FP>
<P>(8) The machine or equipment is now locked out.
</P>
<P><I>Restoring Equipment to Service.</I> When the servicing or maintenance is completed and the machine or equipment is ready to return to normal operating condition, the following steps shall be taken.
</P>
<P>(1) Check the machine or equipment and the immediate area around the machine or equipment to ensure that nonessential items have been removed and that the machine or equipment components are operationally intact.
</P>
<P>(2) Check the work area to ensure that all employees have been safely positioned or removed from the area.
</P>
<P>(3) Verify that the controls are in neutral.
</P>
<P>(4) Remove the lockout devices and reenergize the machine or equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The removal of some forms of blocking may require reenergization of the machine before safe removal.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Notify affected employees that the servicing or maintenance is completed and the machine or equipment is ready for use.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 36687, Sept. 1, 1989, as amended at 54 FR 42498, Oct. 17, 1989; 55 FR 38685, 38686, Sept. 20, 1990; 76 FR 24698, May 2, 2011; 76 FR 44265, July 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Medical and First Aid</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), or 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), as applicable, and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.151" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.11.34.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.151   Medical services and first aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure the ready availability of medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
</P>
<P>(b) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, or hospital in near proximity to the workplace which is used for the treatment of all injured employees, a person or persons shall be adequately trained to render first aid. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for immediate emergency use.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.151—First aid kits (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>First aid supplies are required to be readily available under paragraph § 1910.151(b). An example of the minimal contents of a generic first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1-1998 “Minimum Requirements for Workplace First-aid Kits.” The contents of the kit listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small worksites. When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same location, employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at the worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and additional quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid kits.
</P>
<P>In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or changing first-aid needs in their workplace may need to enhance their first-aid kits. The employer can use the OSHA 300 log, OSHA 301 log, or other reports to identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local fire/rescue department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency room may be helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the specific needs of their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably anticipated supplies are available. Employers should assess the specific needs of their worksite periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
</P>
<P>If it is reasonably anticipated that employees will be exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first aid supplies, employers are required to provide appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) in compliance with the provisions of the Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens standard, § 1910.1030(d)(3) (56 FR 64175). This standard lists appropriate PPE for this type of exposure, such as gloves, gowns, face shields, masks, and eye protection.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 63 FR 33466, June 18, 1998; 70 FR 1141, Jan. 5, 2005; 76 FR 80739, Dec. 27, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.152" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.11.34.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.152   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Fire Protection</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), or 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), as applicable, and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.155" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.34.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.155   Scope, application and definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart contains requirements for fire brigades, and all portable and fixed fire suppression equipment, fire detection systems, and fire or employee alarm systems installed to meet the fire protection requirements of 29 CFR part 1910.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This subpart applies to all employments except for maritime, construction, and agriculture.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions applicable to this subpart</I>—(1) <I>After-flame</I> means the time a test specimen continues to flame after the flame source has been removed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)</I> means a fluorinated surfactant with a foam stabilizer which is diluted with water to act as a temporary barrier to exclude air from mixing with the fuel vapor by developing an aqueous film on the fuel surface of some hydrocarbons which is capable of suppressing the generation of fuel vapors.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approved</I> means acceptable to the Assistant Secretary under the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) If it is accepted, or certified, or listed, or labeled or otherwise determined to be safe by a nationally recognized testing laboratory; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to an installation or equipment of a kind which no nationally recognized testing laboratory accepts, certifies, lists, labels, or determines to be safe, if it is inspected or tested by another Federal agency and found in compliance with the provisions of the applicable National Fire Protection Association Fire Code; or
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to custom-made equipment or related installations which are designed, fabricated for, and intended for use by its manufacturer on the basis of test data which the employer keeps and makes available for inspection to the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(iv) For the purposes of paragraph (c)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Equipment is listed if it is of a kind mentioned in a list which is published by a nationally recognized testing laboratory which makes periodic inspections of the production of such equipment and which states that such equipment meets nationally recognized standards or has been tested and found safe for use in a specified manner;
</P>
<P>(B) Equipment is labeled if there is attached to it a label, symbol, or other identifying mark of a nationally recognized testing laboratory which makes periodic inspections of the production of such equipment, and whose labeling indicates compliance with nationally recognized standards or tests to determine safe use in a specified manner;
</P>
<P>(C) Equipment is accepted if it has been inspected and found by a nationally recognized testing laboratory to conform to specified plans or to procedures of applicable codes; and
</P>
<P>(D) Equipment is certified if it has been tested and found by a nationally recognized testing laboratory to meet nationally recognized standards or to be safe for use in a specified manner or is of a kind whose production is periodically inspected by a nationally recognized testing laboratory, and if it bears a label, tag, or other record of certification.
</P>
<P>(E) Refer to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or designee.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Automatic fire detection device</I> means a device designed to automatically detect the presence of fire by heat, flame, light, smoke or other products of combustion.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Buddy-breathing device</I> means an accessory to self-contained breathing apparatus which permits a second person to share the same air supply as that of the wearer of the apparatus.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Carbon dioxide</I> means a colorless, odorless, electrically nonconductive inert gas (chemical formula CO<E T="52">2</E>) that is a medium for extinguishing fires by reducing the concentration of oxygen or fuel vapor in the air to the point where conbustion is impossible.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Class A fire</I> means a fire involving ordinary combustible materials such as paper, wood, cloth, and some rubber and plastic materials.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Class B fire</I> means a fire involving flammable or combustible liquids, flammable gases, greases and similar materials, and some rubber and plastic materials.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Class C fire</I> means a fire involving energized electrical equipment where safety to the employee requires the use of electrically nonconductive extinguishing media.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Class D fire</I> means a fire involving combustible metals such as magnesium, titanium, zirconium, sodium, lithium and potassium.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Dry chemical</I> means an extinguishing agent composed of very small particles of chemicals such as, but not limited to, sodium bicarbonate, potassium bicarbonate, urea-based potassium bicarbonate, potassium chloride, or monoammonium phosphate supplemented by special treatment to provide resistance to packing and moisture absorption (caking) as well as to provide proper flow capabilities. Dry chemical does not include dry powders.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Dry powder</I> means a compound used to extinguish or control Class D fires.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Education</I> means the process of imparting knowledge or skill through systematic instruction. It does not require formal classroom instruction.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Enclosed structure</I> means a structure with a roof or ceiling and at least two walls which may present fire hazards to employees, such as accumulations of smoke, toxic gases and heat, similar to those found in buildings.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Extinguisher classification</I> means the letter classification given an extinguisher to designate the class or classes of fire on which an extinguisher will be effective.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Extinguisher rating</I> means the numerical rating given to an extinguisher which indicates the extinguishing potential of the unit based on standardized tests developed by Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Fire brigade</I> (private fire department, industrial fire department) means an organized group of employees who are knowledgeable, trained, and skilled in at least basic fire fighting operations.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Fixed extinguishing system</I> means a permanently installed system that either extinguishes or controls a fire at the location of the system.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Flame resistance</I> is the property of materials, or combinations of component materials, to retard ignition and restrict the spread of flame.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Foam</I> means a stable aggregation of small bubbles which flow freely over a burning liquid surface and form a coherent blanket which seals combustible vapors and thereby extinguishes the fire.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Gaseous agent</I> is a fire extinguishing agent which is in the gaseous state at normal room temperature and pressure. It has low viscosity, can expand or contract with changes in pressure and temperature, and has the ability to diffuse readily and to distribute itself uniformly throughout an enclosure.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Halon 1211</I> means a colorless, faintly sweet smelling, electrically nonconductive liquefied gas (chemical formula CBrC1F<E T="52">2</E>) which is a medium for extinguishing fires by inhibiting the chemical chain reaction of fuel and oxygen. It is also known as bromochlorodifluoromethane.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Halon 1301</I> means a colorless, odorless, electrically nonconductive gas (chemical formula CBrF<E T="52">3</E>) which is a medium for extinguishing fires by inhibiting the chemical chain reaction of fuel and oxygen. It is also known as bromotrifluoromethane.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Helmet</I> is a head protective device consisting of a rigid shell, energy absorption system, and chin strap intended to be worn to provide protection for the head or portions thereof, against impact, flying or falling objects, electric shock, penetration, heat and flame.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Incipient stage fire</I> means a fire which is in the initial or beginning stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire extinguishers, Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Inspection</I> means a visual check of fire protection systems and equipment to ensure that they are in place, charged, and ready for use in the event of a fire.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Interior structural fire fighting</I> means the physical activity of fire suppression, rescue or both, inside of buildings or enclosed structures which are involved in a fire situation beyond the incipient stage.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Lining</I> means a material permanently attached to the inside of the outer shell of a garment for the purpose of thermal protection and padding.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Local application system</I> means a fixed fire suppression system which has a supply of extinguishing agent, with nozzles arranged to automatically discharge extinguishing agent directly on the burning material to extinguish or control a fire.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Maintenance</I> means the performance of services on fire protection equipment and systems to assure that they will perform as expected in the event of a fire. Maintenance differs from inspection in that maintenance requires the checking of internal fittings, devices and agent supplies.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Multipurpose dry chemical</I> means a dry chemical which is approved for use on Class A, Class B and Class C fires.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Outer shell</I> is the exterior layer of material on the fire coat and protective trousers which forms the outermost barrier between the fire fighter and the environment. It is attached to the vapor barrier and liner and is usually constructed with a storm flap, suitable closures, and pockets.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Positive-pressure breathing apparatus</I> means self-contained breathing apparatus in which the pressure in the breathing zone is positive in relation to the immediate environment during inhalation and exhalation.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Pre-discharge employee alarm</I> means an alarm which will sound at a set time prior to actual discharge of an extinguishing system so that employees may evacuate the discharge area prior to system discharge.
</P>
<P>(36) <I>Quick disconnect valve</I> means a device which starts the flow of air by inserting of the hose (which leads from the facepiece) into the regulator of self-contained breathing apparatus, and stops the flow of air by disconnection of the hose from the regulator.
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Sprinkler alarm</I> means an approved device installed so that any waterflow from a sprinkler system equal to or greater than that from single automatic sprinkler will result in an audible alarm signal on the premises.
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Sprinkler system</I> means a system of piping designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards and installed to control or extinguish fires. The system includes an adequate and reliable water supply, and a network of specially sized piping and sprinklers which are interconnected. The system also includes a control valve and a device for actuating an alarm when the system is in operation.
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Standpipe systems.</I> (i) <I>Class I standpipe system</I> means a 2
<FR>1/2</FR>″ (6.3 cm) hose connection for use by fire departments and those trained in handling heavy fire streams.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Class II standpipe system</I> means a 1
<FR>1/2</FR>″ (3.8 cm) hose system which provides a means for the control or extinguishment of incipient stage fires.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Class III standpipe system</I> means a combined system of hose which is for the use of employees trained in the use of hose operations and which is capable of furnishing effective water discharge during the more advanced stages of fire (beyond the incipient stage) in the interior of workplaces. Hose outlets are available for both 1
<FR>1/2</FR>″ (3.8 cm) and 2
<FR>1/2</FR>″ (6.3 cm) hose.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Small hose system</I> means a system of hose ranging in diameter from 
<FR>5/8</FR>″ (1.6 cm up to 1
<FR>1/2</FR>″ (3.8 cm) which is for the use of employees and which provides a means for the control and extinguishment of incipient stage fires.
</P>
<P>(40) <I>Total flooding system</I> means a fixed suppression system which is arranged to automatically discharge a predetermined concentration of agent into an enclosed space for the purpose of fire extinguishment or control.
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Training</I> means the process of making proficient through instruction and hands-on practice in the operation of equipment, including respiratory protection equipment, that is expected to be used and in the performance of assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(42) <I>Vapor barrier</I> means that material used to prevent or substantially inhibit the transfer of water, corrosive liquids and steam or other hot vapors from the outside of a garment to the wearer's body.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60704, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 12122, Apr. 12, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.156" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.34.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.156   Fire brigades.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains requirements for the organization, training, and personal protective equipment of fire brigades whenever they are established by an employer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> The requirements of this section apply to fire brigades, industrial fire departments and private or contractual type fire departments. Personal protective equipment requirements apply only to members of fire brigades performing interior structural fire fighting. The requirements of this section do not apply to airport crash rescue or forest fire fighting operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Organization</I>—(1) <I>Organizational statement.</I> The employer shall prepare and maintain a statement or written policy which establishes the existence of a fire brigade; the basic organizational structure; the type, amount, and frequency of training to be provided to fire brigade members; the expected number of members in the fire brigade; and the functions that the fire brigade is to perform at the workplace. The organizational statement shall be available for inspection by the Assistant Secretary and by employees or their designated representatives.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personnel.</I> The employer shall assure that employees who are expected to do interior structural fire fighting are physically capable of performing duties which may be assigned to them during emergencies. The employer shall not permit employees with known heart disease, epilepsy, or emphysema, to participate in fire brigade emergency activities unless a physician's certificate of the employees' fitness to participate in such activities is provided. For employees assigned to fire brigades before September 15, 1980, this paragraph is effective on September 15, 1990. For employees assigned to fire brigades on or after September 15, 1980, this paragraph is effective December 15, 1980.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training and education.</I> (1) The employer shall provide training and education for all fire brigade members commensurate with those duties and functions that fire brigade members are expected to perform. Such training and education shall be provided to fire brigade members before they perform fire brigade emergency activities. Fire brigade leaders and training instructors shall be provided with training and education which is more comprehensive than that provided to the general membership of the fire brigade.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that training and education is conducted frequently enough to assure that each member of the fire brigade is able to perform the member's assigned duties and functions satisfactorily and in a safe manner so as not to endanger fire brigade members or other employees. All fire brigade members shall be provided with training at least annually. In addition, fire brigade members who are expected to perform interior structural fire fighting shall be provided with an education session or training at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(3) The quality of the training and education program for fire brigade members shall be similar to those conducted by such fire training schools as the Maryland Fire and Rescue Institute; Iowa Fire Service Extension; West Virginia Fire Service Extension; Georgia Fire Academy, New York State Department, Fire Prevention and Control; Louisiana State University Firemen Training Program, or Washington State's Fire Service Training Commission for Vocational Education. (For example, for the oil refinery industry, with its unique hazards, the training and education program for those fire brigade members shall be similar to those conducted by Texas A &amp; M University, Lamar University, Reno Fire School, or the Delaware State Fire School.)
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall inform fire brigade members about special hazards such as storage and use of flammable liquids and gases, toxic chemicals, radioactive sources, and water reactive substances, to which they may be exposed during fire and other emergencies. The fire brigade members shall also be advised of any changes that occur in relation to the special hazards. The employer shall develop and make available for inspection by fire brigade members, written procedures that describe the actions to be taken in situations involving the special hazards and shall include these in the training and education program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fire fighting equipment.</I> The employer shall maintain and inspect, at least annually, fire fighting equipment to assure the safe operational condition of the equipment. Portable fire extinguishers and respirators shall be inspected at least monthly. Fire fighting equipment that is in damaged or unserviceable condition shall be removed from service and replaced.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protective clothing.</I> The following requirements apply to those employees who perform interior structural fire fighting. The requirements do not apply to employees who use fire extinguishers or standpipe systems to control or extinguish fires only in the incipient stage.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall provide at no cost to the employee and assure the use of protective clothing which complies with the requirements of this paragraph. The employer shall assure that protective clothing ordered or purchased after July 1, 1981, meets the requirements contained in this paragraph. As the new equipment is provided, the employer shall assure that all fire brigade members wear the equipment when performing interior structural fire fighting. After July 1, 1985, the employer shall assure that all fire brigade members wear protective clothing meeting the requirements of this paragraph when performing interior structural fire fighting.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that protective clothing protects the head, body, and extremities, and consists of at least the following components: foot and leg protection; hand protection; body protection; eye, face and head protection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foot and leg protection.</I> (i) Foot and leg protection shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) and (e)(2)(iii) of this section, and may be achieved by either of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(A) Fully extended boots which provide protection for the legs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Protective shoes or boots worn in combination with protective trousers that meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Protective footwear shall meet the requirements of § 1910.136 for Class 75 footwear. In addition, protective footwear shall be water-resistant for at least 5 inches (12.7 cm) above the bottom of the heel and shall be equipped with slip-resistant outer soles.
</P>
<P>(iii) Protective footwear shall be tested in accordance with paragraph (1) of appendix E, and shall provide protection against penetration of the midsole by a size 8D common nail when at least 300 pounds (1330 N) of static force is applied to the nail.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Body protection.</I> (i) Body protection shall be coordinated with foot and leg protection to ensure full body protection for the wearer. This shall be achieved by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(A) Wearing of a fire-resistive coat meeting the requirements of paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section in combination with fully extended boots meeting the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) and (e)(2)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Wearing of a fire-resistive coat in combination with protective trousers both of which meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The performance, construction, and testing of fire-resistive coats and protective trousers shall be at least equivalent to the requirements of the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard NFPA No. 1971-1975, “Protective Clothing for Structural Fire Fighting,” which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, (See appendix D to subpart L) with the following permissible variations from those requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Tearing strength of the outer shell shall be a minimum of 8 pounds (35.6 N) in any direction when tested in accordance with paragraph (2) of appendix E; and
</P>
<P>(B) The outer shell may discolor but shall not separate or melt when placed in a forced air laboratory oven at a temperature of 500 °F (260 °C) for a period of five minutes. After cooling to ambient temperature and using the test method specified in paragraph (3) of appendix E, char length shall not exceed 4.0 inches (10.2 cm) and after-flame shall not exceed 2.0 seconds.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hand protection.</I> (i) Hand protection shall consist of protective gloves or glove system which will provide protection against cut, puncture, and heat penetration. Gloves or glove system shall be tested in accordance with the test methods contained in the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) 1976 publication, “The Development of Criteria for Fire Fighter's Gloves; Vol. II, Part II: Test Methods,” which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, (See appendix D to subpart L) and shall meet the following criteria for cut, puncture, and heat penetration:
</P>
<P>(A) Materials used for gloves shall resist surface cut by a blade with an edge having a 60° included angle and a .001 inch (.0025 cm.) radius, under an applied force of 16 lbf (72N), and at a slicing velocity of greater or equal to 60 in/min (2.5 cm./sec);
</P>
<P>(B) Materials used for the palm and palm side of the fingers shall resist puncture by a penetrometer (simulating a 4d lath nail), under an applied force of 13.2 lbf (60N), and at a velocity greater or equal to 20 in/min (.85 cm./sec); and
</P>
<P>(C) The temperature inside the palm and gripping surface of the fingers of gloves shall not exceed 135 °F (57 °C) when gloves or glove system are exposed to 932 °F (500 °C) for five seconds at 4 psi (28 kPa) pressure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exterior materials of gloves shall be flame resistant and shall be tested in accordance with paragraph (3) of appendix E. Maximum allowable afterflame shall be 2.0 seconds, and the maximum char length shall be 4.0 inches (10.2 cm).
</P>
<P>(iii) When design of the fire-resistive coat does not otherwise provide protection for the wrists, protective gloves shall have wristlets of at least 4.0 inches (10.2 cm) in length to protect the wrist area when the arms are extended upward and outward from the body.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Head, eye and face protection.</I> (i) Head protection shall consist of a protective head device with ear flaps and chin strap which meet the performance, construction, and testing requirements of the National Fire Safety and Research Office of the National Fire Prevention and Control Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce (now known as the U.S. Fire Administration), which are contained in “Model Performance Criteria for Structural Firefighters' Helmets” (August 1977) which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, (See appendix D to subpart L).
</P>
<P>(ii) Protective eye and face devices which comply with § 1910.133 shall be used by fire brigade members when performing operations where the hazards of flying or falling materials which may cause eye and face injuries are present. Protective eye and face devices provided as accessories to protective head devices (face shields) are permitted when such devices meet the requirements of § 1910.133.
</P>
<P>(iii) Full facepieces, helmets, or hoods of breathing apparatus which meet the requirements of § 1910.134 and paragraph (f) of this section, shall be acceptable as meeting the eye and face protection requirements of paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Respiratory protection devices</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that respirators are provided to, and used by, each fire brigade member, and that the respirators meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.134 for each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approved self-contained breathing apparatus with full-facepiece, or with approved helmet or hood configuration, shall be provided to and worn by fire brigade members while working inside buildings or confined spaces where toxic products of combustion or an oxygen deficiency may be present.
</P>
<FP>Such apparatus shall also be worn during emergency situations involving toxic substances.
</FP>
<P>(iii) Approved self-contained breathing apparatus may be equipped with either a “buddy-breathing” device or a quick disconnect valve, even if these devices are not certified by NIOSH. If these accessories are used, they shall not cause damage to the apparatus, or restrict the air flow of the apparatus, or obstruct the normal operation of the apparatus.
</P>
<P>(iv) Approved self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus may be used with approved cylinders from other approved self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus provided that such cylinders are of the same capacity and pressure rating. All compressed air cylinders used with self-contained breathing apparatus shall meet DOT and NIOSH criteria.
</P>
<P>(v) Self-contained breathing apparatuses must have a minimum service-life rating of 30 minutes in accordance with the methods and requirements specified by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84, except for escape self-contained breathing apparatus (ESCBAs) used only for emergency escape purposes.
</P>
<P>(vi) Self-contained breathing apparatus shall be provided with an indicator which automatically sounds an audible alarm when the remaining service life of the apparatus is reduced to within a range of 20 to 25 percent of its rated service time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Positive-pressure breathing apparatus.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that self-contained breathing apparatus ordered or purchased after July 1, 1981, for use by fire brigade members performing interior structural fire fighting operations, are of the pressure-demand or other positive-pressure type. Effective July 1, 1983, only pressure-demand or other positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus shall be worn by fire brigade members performing interior structural fire fighting.
</P>
<P>(ii) This paragraph does not prohibit the use of a self-contained breathing apparatus where the apparatus can be switched from a demand to a positive-pressure mode. However, such apparatus shall be in the positive-pressure mode when fire brigade members are performing interior structural fire fighting operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60706, Sept. 12, 1980; 46 FR 24557, May 1, 1981; 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 1284, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 33467, June 18, 1998; 73 FR 75584, Dec. 12, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="34" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.34" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Portable Fire Suppression Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.157" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.34.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.157   Portable fire extinguishers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> The requirements of this section apply to the placement, use, maintenance, and testing of portable fire extinguishers provided for the use of employees. Paragraph (d) of this section does not apply to extinguishers provided for employee use on the outside of workplace buildings or structures. Where extinguishers are provided but are not intended for employee use and the employer has an emergency action plan and a fire prevention plan that meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.38 and 29 CFR 1910.39 respectively, then only the requirements of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section apply. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) Where the employer has established and implemented a written fire safety policy which requires the immediate and total evacuation of employees from the workplace upon the sounding of a fire alarm signal and which includes an emergency action plan and a fire prevention plan which meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.38 and 29 CFR 1910.39 respectively, and when extinguishers are not available in the workplace, the employer is exempt from all requirements of this section unless a specific standard in part 1910 requires that a portable fire extinguisher be provided. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the employer has an emergency action plan meeting the requirements of § 1910.38 which designates certain employees to be the only employees authorized to use the available portable fire extinguishers, and which requires all other employees in the fire area to immediately evacuate the affected work area upon the sounding of the fire alarm, the employer is exempt from the distribution requirements in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall provide portable fire extinguishers and shall mount, locate and identify them so that they are readily accessible to employees without subjecting the employees to possible injury.
</P>
<P>(2) Only approved portable fire extinguishers shall be used to meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall not provide or make available in the workplace portable fire extinguishers using carbon tetrachloride or chlorobromomethane extinguishing agents.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that portable fire extinguishers are maintained in a fully charged and operable condition and kept in their designated places at all times except during use.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall remove from service all soldered or riveted shell self-generating soda acid or self-generating foam or gas cartridge water type portable fire extinguishers which are operated by inverting the extinguisher to rupture the cartridge or to initiate an uncontrollable pressure generating chemical reaction to expel the agent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Selection and distribution.</I> (1) Portable fire extinguishers shall be provided for employee use and selected and distributed based on the classes of anticipated workplace fires and on the size and degree of hazard which would affect their use.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall distribute portable fire extinguishers for use by employees on Class A fires so that the travel distance for employees to any extinguisher is 75 feet (22.9 m) or less.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer may use uniformly spaced standpipe systems or hose stations connected to a sprinkler system installed for emergency use by employees instead of Class A portable fire extinguishers, provided that such systems meet the respective requirements of § 1910.158 or § 1910.159, that they provide total coverage of the area to be protected, and that employees are trained at least annually in their use.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall distribute portable fire extinguishers for use by employees on Class B fires so that the travel distance from the Class B hazard area to any extinguisher is 50 feet (15.2 m) or less.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall distribute portable fire extinguishers used for Class C hazards on the basis of the appropriate pattern for the existing Class A or Class B hazards.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall distribute portable fire extinguishers or other containers of Class D extinguishing agent for use by employees so that the travel distance from the combustible metal working area to any extinguishing agent is 75 feet (22.9 m) or less. Portable fire extinguishers for Class D hazards are required in those combustible metal working areas where combustible metal powders, flakes, shavings, or similarly sized products are generated at least once every two weeks.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inspection, maintenance and testing.</I> (1) The employer shall be responsible for the inspection, maintenance and testing of all portable fire extinguishers in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(2) Portable extinguishers or hose used in lieu thereof under paragraph (d)(3) of this section shall be visually inspected monthly.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall assure that portable fire extinguishers are subjected to an annual maintenance check. Stored pressure extinguishers do not require an internal examination. The employer shall record the annual maintenance date and retain this record for one year after the last entry or the life of the shell, whichever is less. The record shall be available to the Assistant Secretary upon request.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that stored pressure dry chemical extinguishers that require a 12-year hydrostatic test are emptied and subjected to applicable maintenance procedures every 6 years. Dry chemical extinguishers having non-refillable disposable containers are exempt from this requirement. When recharging or hydrostatic testing is performed, the 6-year requirement begins from that date.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall assure that alternate equivalent protection is provided when portable fire extinguishers are removed from service for maintenance and recharging.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hydrostatic testing.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that hydrostatic testing is performed by trained persons with suitable testing equipment and facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that portable extinguishers are hydrostatically tested at the intervals listed in Table L-1 of this section, except under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) When the unit has been repaired by soldering, welding, brazing, or use of patching compounds;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the cylinder or shell threads are damaged;
</P>
<P>(iii) When there is corrosion that has caused pitting, including corrosion under removable name plate assemblies;
</P>
<P>(iv) When the extinguisher has been burned in a fire; or
</P>
<P>(v) When a calcium chloride extinguishing agent has been used in a stainless steel shell.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to an external visual examination, the employer shall assure that an internal examination of cylinders and shells to be tested is made prior to the hydrostatic tests.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table L-1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of extinguishers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test interval (years)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soda acid (soldered brass shells) (until 1/1/82)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soda acid (stainless steel shell)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cartridge operated water and/or antifreeze</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stored pressure water and/or antifreeze</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wetting agent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foam (soldered brass shells) (until 1/1/82)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foam (stainless steel shell)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aqueous Film Forming foam (AFFF)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loaded stream</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry chemical with stainless steel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry chemical, stored pressure, with mild steel, brazed brass or aluminum shells</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry chemical, cartridge or cylinder operated, with mild steel shells</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Halon 1211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Halon 1301</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry powder, cartridge or cylinder operated with mild steel shells</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Extinguishers having shells constructed of copper or brass joined by soft solder or rivets shall not be hydrostatically tested and shall be removed from service by January 1, 1982. (Not permitted)</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that portable fire extinguishers are hydrostatically tested whenever they show new evidence of corrosion or mechanical injury, except under the conditions listed in paragraphs (f)(2)(i)-(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall assure that hydrostatic tests are performed on extinguisher hose assemblies which are equipped with a shut-off nozzle at the discharge end of the hose. The test interval shall be the same as specified for the extinguisher on which the hose is installed.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall assure that carbon dioxide hose assemblies with a shut-off nozzle are hydrostatically tested at 1,250 psi (8,620 kPa).
</P>
<P>(7) The employer shall assure that dry chemical and dry powder hose assemblies with a shut-off nozzle are hydrostatically tested at 300 psi (2,070 kPa).
</P>
<P>(8) Hose assemblies passing a hydrostatic test do not require any type of recording or stamping.
</P>
<P>(9) The employer shall assure that hose assemblies for carbon dioxide extinguishers that require a hydrostatic test are tested within a protective cage device.
</P>
<P>(10) The employer shall assure that carbon dioxide extinguishers and nitrogen or carbon dioxide cylinders used with wheeled extinguishers are tested every 5 years at 5/3 of the service pressure as stamped into the cylinder. Nitrogen cylinders which comply with 49 CFR 173.34(e)(15) may be hydrostatically tested every 10 years.
</P>
<P>(11) The employer shall assure that all stored pressure and Halon 1211 types of extinguishers are hydrostatically tested at the factory test pressure not to exceed two times the service pressure.
</P>
<P>(12) The employer shall assure that acceptable self-generating type soda acid and foam extinguishers are tested at 350 psi (2,410 kPa).
</P>
<P>(13) Air or gas pressure may not be used for hydrostatic testing.
</P>
<P>(14) Extinguisher shells, cylinders, or cartridges which fail a hydrostatic pressure test, or which are not fit for testing shall be removed from service and from the workplace.
</P>
<P>(15)(i) The equipment for testing compressed gas type cylinders shall be of the water jacket type. The equipment shall be provided with an expansion indicator which operates with an accuracy within one percent of the total expansion or .1cc (.1mL) of liquid.
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment for testing non-compressed gas type cylinders shall consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A hydrostatic test pump, hand or power operated, capable of producing not less than 150 percent of the test pressure, which shall include appropriate check valves and fittings;
</P>
<P>(B) A flexible connection for attachment to fittings to test through the extinguisher nozzle, test bonnet, or hose outlet, as is applicable; and
</P>
<P>(C) A protective cage or barrier for personal protection of the tester, designed to provide visual observation of the extinguisher under test.
</P>
<P>(16) The employer shall maintain and provide upon request to the Assistant Secretary evidence that the required hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers has been performed at the time intervals shown in Table L-1. Such evidence shall be in the form of a certification record which includes the date of the test, the signature of the person who performed the test and the serial number, or other identifier, of the fire extinguisher that was tested. Such records shall be kept until the extinguisher is hydrostatically retested at the time interval specified in Table L-1 or until the extinguisher is taken out of service, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Training and education.</I> (1) Where the employer has provided portable fire extinguishers for employee use in the workplace, the employer shall also provide an educational program to familiarize employees with the general principles of fire extinguisher use and the hazards involved with incipient stage fire fighting.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall provide the education required in paragraph (g)(1) of this section upon initial employment and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall provide employees who have been designated to use fire fighting equipment as part of an emergency action plan with training in the use of the appropriate equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall provide the training required in paragraph (g)(3) of this section upon initial assignment to the designated group of employees and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60708, Sept. 12, 1980; 46 FR 24557, May 1, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 34560, Sept. 29, 1986; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996; 67 FR 67964, Nov. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.158" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.34.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.158   Standpipe and hose systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all small hose, Class II, and Class III standpipe systems installed to meet the requirements of a particular OSHA standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> This section does not apply to Class I standpipe systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protection of standpipes.</I> The employer shall assure that standpipes are located or otherwise protected against mechanical damage. Damaged standpipes shall be repaired promptly.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment</I>—(1) <I>Reels and cabinets.</I> Where reels or cabinets are provided to contain fire hose, the employer shall assure that they are designed to facilitate prompt use of the hose valves, the hose, and other equipment at the time of a fire or other emergency. The employer shall assure that the reels and cabinets are conspicuously identified and used only for fire equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hose outlets and connections.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that hose outlets and connections are located high enough above the floor to avoid being obstructed and to be accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall standardize screw threads or provide appropriate adapters throughout the system and assure that the hose connections are compatible with those used on the supporting fire equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hose.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that every 1
<FR>1/2</FR>″ (3.8 cm) or smaller hose outlet used to meet this standard is equipped with hose connected and ready for use. In extremely cold climates where such installation may result in damaged equipment, the hose may be stored in another location provided it is readily available and can be connected when needed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Standpipe systems installed after January 1, 1981, for use by employees, shall be equipped with lined hose. Unlined hose may remain in use on existing systems. However, after the effective date of this standard, unlined hose which becomes unserviceable shall be replaced with lined hose.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide hose of such length that friction loss resulting from water flowing through the hose will not decrease the pressure at the nozzle below 30 psi (210 kPa). The dynamic pressure at the nozzle shall be within the range of 30 psi (210 kPa) to 125 psi (860 kPa).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nozzles.</I> The employer shall assure that standpipe hose is equipped with shut-off type nozzles.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Water supply.</I> The minimum water supply for standpipe and hose systems, which are provided for the use of employees, shall be sufficient to provide 100 gallons per minute (6.3 l/s) for a period of at least thirty minutes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tests and maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Acceptance tests.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that the piping of Class II and Class III systems installed after January 1, 1981, including yard piping, is hydrostatically tested for a period of at least 2 hours at not less than 200 psi (1380 kPa), or at least 50 psi (340 kPa) in excess of normal pressure when such pressure is greater than 150 psi (1030 kPa).
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that hose on all standpipe systems installed after January 1, 1981, is hydrostatically tested with couplings in place, at a pressure of not less than 200 psi (1380 kPa), before it is placed in service. This pressure shall be maintained for at least 15 seconds and not more than one minute during which time the hose shall not leak nor shall any jacket thread break during the test.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maintenance.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that water supply tanks are kept filled to the proper level except during repairs. When pressure tanks are used, the employer shall assure that proper pressure is maintained at all times except during repairs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that valves in the main piping connections to the automatic sources of water supply are kept fully open at all times except during repair.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that hose systems are inspected at least annually and after each use to assure that all of the equipment and hose are in place, available for use, and in serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the system or any portion thereof is found not to be serviceable, the employer shall remove it from service immediately and replace it with equivalent protection such as extinguishers and fire watches.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall assure that hemp or linen hose on existing systems is unracked, physically inspected for deterioration, and reracked using a different fold pattern at least annually. The employer shall assure that defective hose is replaced in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall designate trained persons to conduct all inspections required under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60710, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="35" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.35" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Fixed Fire Suppression Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.159" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.159   Automatic sprinkler systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) The requirements of this section apply to all automatic sprinkler systems installed to meet a particular OSHA standard.
</P>
<P>(2) For automatic sprinkler systems used to meet OSHA requirements and installed prior to the effective date of this standard, compliance with the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) or the National Board of Fire Underwriters (NBFU) standard in effect at the time of the system's installation will be acceptable as compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> Automatic sprinkler systems installed in workplaces, but not required by OSHA, are exempt from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Design.</I> (i) All automatic sprinkler designs used to comply with this standard shall provide the necessary discharge patterns, densities, and water flow characteristics for complete coverage in a particular workplace or zoned subdivision of the workplace.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that only approved equipment and devices are used in the design and installation of automatic sprinkler systems used to comply with this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maintenance.</I> The employer shall properly maintain an automatic sprinkler system installed to comply with this section. The employer shall assure that a main drain flow test is performed on each system annually. The inspector's test valve shall be opened at least every two years to assure that the sprinkler system operates properly.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceptance tests.</I> The employer shall conduct proper acceptance tests on sprinkler systems installed for employee protection after January 1, 1981, and record the dates of such tests. Proper acceptance tests include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Flushing of underground connections;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hydrostatic tests of piping in system;
</P>
<P>(iii) Air tests in dry-pipe systems;
</P>
<P>(iv) Dry-pipe valve operation; and
</P>
<P>(v) Test of drainage facilities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Water supplies.</I> The employer shall assure that every automatic sprinkler system is provided with at least one automatic water supply capable of providing design water flow for at least 30 minutes. An auxiliary water supply or equivalent protection shall be provided when the automatic water supply is out of service, except for systems of 20 or fewer sprinklers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hose connections for fire fighting use.</I> The employer may attach hose connections for fire fighting use to wet pipe sprinkler systems provided that the water supply satisfies the combined design demand for sprinklers and standpipes.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Protection of piping.</I> The employer shall assure that automatic sprinkler system piping is protected against freezing and exterior surface corrosion.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Drainage.</I> The employer shall assure that all dry sprinkler pipes and fittings are installed so that the system may be totally drained.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Sprinklers.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that only approved sprinklers are used on systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer may not use older style sprinklers to replace standard sprinklers without a complete engineering review of the altered part of the system.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that sprinklers are protected from mechanical damage.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Sprinkler alarms.</I> On all sprinkler systems having more than twenty (20) sprinklers, the employer shall assure that a local waterflow alarm is provided which sounds an audible signal on the premises upon water flow through the system equal to the flow from a single sprinkler.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Sprinkler spacing.</I> The employer shall assure that sprinklers are spaced to provide a maximum protection area per sprinkler, a minimum of interference to the discharge pattern by building or structural members or building contents and suitable sensitivity to possible fire hazards. The minimum vertical clearance between sprinklers and material below shall be 18 inches (45.7 cm).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Hydraulically designed systems.</I> The employer shall assure that hydraulically designed automatic sprinkler systems or portions thereof are identified and that the location, number of sprinklers in the hydraulically designed section, and the basis of the design is indicated. Central records may be used in lieu of signs at sprinkler valves provided the records are available for inspection and copying by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60710, Sept. 12, 1980; 46 FR 24557, May 1, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.160" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.35.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.160   Fixed extinguishing systems, general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all fixed extinguishing systems installed to meet a particular OSHA standard except for automatic sprinkler systems which are covered by § 1910.159.
</P>
<P>(2) This section also applies to fixed systems not installed to meet a particular OSHA standard, but which, by means of their operation, may expose employees to possible injury, death, or adverse health consequences caused by the extinguishing agent. Such systems are only subject to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(4) through (b)(7) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Systems otherwise covered in paragraph (a)(2) of this section which are installed in areas with no employee exposure are exempted from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Fixed extinguishing system components and agents shall be designed and approved for use on the specific fire hazards they are expected to control or extinguish.
</P>
<P>(2) If for any reason a fixed extinguishing system becomes inoperable, the employer shall notify employees and take the necessary temporary precautions to assure their safety until the system is restored to operating order. Any defects or impairments shall be properly corrected by trained personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall provide a distinctive alarm or signaling system which complies with § 1910.165 and is capable of being perceived above ambient noise or light levels, on all extinguishing systems in those portions of the workplace covered by the extinguishing system to indicate when the extinguishing system is discharging. Discharge alarms are not required on systems where discharge is immediately recognizable.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall provide effective safeguards to warn employees against entry into discharge areas where the atmosphere remains hazardous to employee safety or health.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall post hazard warning or caution signs at the entrance to, and inside of, areas protected by fixed extinguishing systems which use agents in concentrations known to be hazardous to employee safety and health.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall assure that fixed systems are inspected annually by a person knowledgeable in the design and function of the system to assure that the system is maintained in good operating condition.
</P>
<P>(7) The employer shall assure that the weight and pressure of refillable containers is checked at least semi-annually. If the container shows a loss in net content or weight of more than 5 percent, or a loss in pressure of more than 10 percent, it shall be subjected to maintenance.
</P>
<P>(8) The employer shall assure that factory charged nonrefillable containers which have no means of pressure indication are weighed at least semi-annually. If a container shows a loss in net weight or more than 5 percent it shall be replaced.
</P>
<P>(9) The employer shall assure that inspection and maintenance dates are recorded on the container, on a tag attached to the container, or in a central location. A record of the last semi-annual check shall be maintained until the container is checked again or for the life of the container, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(10) The employer shall train employees designated to inspect, maintain, operate, or repair fixed extinguishing systems and annually review their training to keep them up-to-date in the functions they are to perform.
</P>
<P>(11) The employer shall not use chlorobromomethane or carbon tetrachloride as an extinguishing agent where employees may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(12) The employer shall assure that systems installed in the presence of corrosive atmospheres are constructed of non-corrosive material or otherwise protected against corrosion.
</P>
<P>(13) Automatic detection equipment shall be approved, installed and maintained in accordance with § 1910.164.
</P>
<P>(14) The employer shall assure that all systems designed for and installed in areas with climatic extremes shall operate effectively at the expected extreme temperatures.
</P>
<P>(15) The employer shall assure that at least one manual station is provided for discharge activation of each fixed extinguishing system.
</P>
<P>(16) The employer shall assure that manual operating devices are identified as to the hazard against which they will provide protection.
</P>
<P>(17) The employer shall provide and assure the use of the personal protective equipment needed for immediate rescue of employees trapped in hazardous atmospheres created by an agent discharge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Total flooding systems with potential health and safety hazards to employees.</I> (1) The employer shall provide an emergency action plan in accordance with § 1910.38 for each area within a workplace that is protected by a total flooding system which provides agent concentrations exceeding the maximum safe levels set forth in paragraphs (b)(5) and (b)(6) of § 1910.162.
</P>
<P>(2) Systems installed in areas where employees cannot enter during or after the system's operation are exempt from the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) On all total flooding systems the employer shall provide a pre-discharge employee alarm which complies with § 1910.165, and is capable of being perceived above ambient light or noise levels before the system discharges, which will give employees time to safely exit from the discharge area prior to system discharge.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall provide automatic actuation of total flooding systems by means of an approved fire detection device installed and interconnected with a pre-discharge employee alarm system to give employees time to safely exit from the discharge area prior to system discharge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60711, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.161" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.35.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.161   Fixed extinguishing systems, dry chemical.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to all fixed extinguishing systems, using dry chemical as the extinguishing agent, installed to meet a particular OSHA standard. These systems shall also comply with § 1910.160.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that dry chemical agents are compatible with any foams or wetting agents with which they are used.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer may not mix together dry chemical extinguishing agents of different compositions. The employer shall assure that dry chemical systems are refilled with the chemical stated on the approval nameplate or an equivalent compatible material.
</P>
<P>(3) When dry chemical discharge may obscure vision, the employer shall provide a pre-discharge employee alarm which complies with § 1910.165 and which will give employees time to safely exit from the discharge area prior to system discharge.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall sample the dry chemical supply of all but stored pressure systems at least annually to assure that the dry chemical supply is free of moisture which may cause the supply to cake or form lumps.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall assure that the rate of application of dry chemicals is such that the designed concentration of the system will be reached within 30 seconds of initial discharge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60712, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.162" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.35.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.162   Fixed extinguishing systems, gaseous agent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all fixed extinguishing systems, using a gas as the extinguishing agent, installed to meet a particular OSHA standard. These systems shall also comply with § 1910.160. In some cases, the gas may be in a liquid state during storage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(4) through (b)(6) shall apply only to total flooding systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements.</I> (1) Agents used for initial supply and replenishment shall be of the type approved for the system's application. Carbon dioxide obtained by dry ice conversion to liquid is not acceptable unless it is processed to remove excess water and oil.
</P>
<P>(2) Except during overhaul, the employer shall assure that the designed concentration of gaseous agents is maintained until the fire has been extinguished or is under control.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall assure that employees are not exposed to toxic levels of gaseous agent or its decomposition products.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that the designed extinguishing concentration is reached within 30 seconds of initial discharge except for Halon systems which must achieve design concentration within 10 seconds.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall provide a distinctive pre-discharge employee alarm capable of being perceived above ambient light or noise levels when agent design concentrations exceed the maximum safe level for employee exposure. A pre-discharge employee alarm for alerting employees before system discharge shall be provided on Halon 1211 and carbon dioxide systems with a design concentration of 4 percent or greater and for Halon 1301 systems with a design concentration of 10 percent or greater. The pre-discharge employee alarm shall provide employees time to safely exit the discharge area prior to system discharge.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Where egress from an area cannot be accomplished within one minute, the employer shall not use Halon 1301 in concentrations greater than 7 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where egress takes greater than 30 seconds but less than one minute, the employer shall not use Halon 1301 in a concentration greater than 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Halon 1301 concentrations greater than 10 percent are only permitted in areas not normally occupied by employees provided that any employee in the area can escape within 30 seconds. The employer shall assure that no unprotected employees enter the area during agent discharge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60712, Sept. 12, 1980; 46 FR 24557, May 1, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.163" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.35.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.163   Fixed extinguishing systems, water spray and foam.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to all fixed extinguishing systems, using water or foam solution as the extinguishing agent, installed to meet a particular OSHA standard. These systems shall also comply with § 1910.160. This section does not apply to automatic sprinkler systems which are covered under § 1910.159.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that foam and water spray systems are designed to be effective in at least controlling fire in the protected area or on protected equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that drainage of water spray systems is directed away from areas where employees are working and that no emergency egress is permitted through the drainage path.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60712, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="36" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.36" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Other Fire Protection Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.164" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.36.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.164   Fire detection systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to all automatic fire detection systems installed to meet the requirements of a particular OSHA standard.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Installation and restoration.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that all devices and equipment constructed and installed to comply with this standard are approved for the purpose for which they are intended.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall restore all fire detection systems and components to normal operating condition as promptly as possible after each test or alarm. Spare detection devices and components which are normally destroyed in the process of detecting fires shall be available on the premises or from a local supplier in sufficient quantities and locations for prompt restoration of the system.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance and testing.</I> (1) The employer shall maintain all systems in an operable condition except during repairs or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that fire detectors and fire detection systems are tested and adjusted as often as needed to maintain proper reliability and operating condition except that factory calibrated detectors need not be adjusted after installation.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall assure that pneumatic and hydraulic operated detection systems installed after January 1, 1981, are equipped with supervised systems.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that the servicing, maintenance and testing of fire detection systems, including cleaning and necessary sensitivity adjustments are performed by a trained person knowledgeable in the operations and functions of the system.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall also assure that fire detectors that need to be cleaned of dirt, dust, or other particulates in order to be fully operational are cleaned at regular periodic intervals.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Protection of fire detectors.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that fire detection equipment installed outdoors or in the presence of corrosive atmospheres be protected from corrosion. The employer shall provide a canopy, hood, or other suitable protection for detection equipment requiring protection from the weather.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall locate or otherwise protect detection equipment so that it is protected from mechanical or physical impact which might render it inoperable.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall assure that detectors are supported independently of their attachment to wires or tubing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Response time.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that fire detection systems installed for the purpose of actuating fire extinguishment or suppression systems shall be designed to operate in time to control or extinguish a fire.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that fire detection systems installed for the purpose of employee alarm and evacuation be designed and installed to provide a warning for emergency action and safe escape of employees.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall not delay alarms or devices initiated by fire detector actuation for more than 30 seconds unless such delay is necessary for the immediate safety of employees. When such delay is necessary, it shall be addressed in an emergency action plan meeting the requirements of § 1910.38.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Number, location and spacing of detecting devices.</I> The employer shall assure that the number, spacing and location of fire detectors is based upon design data obtained from field experience, or tests, engineering surveys, the manufacturer's recommendations, or a recognized testing laboratory listing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60713, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.165" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.36.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.165   Employee alarm systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all emergency employee alarms installed to meet a particular OSHA standard. This section does not apply to those discharge or supervisory alarms required on various fixed extinguishing systems or to supervisory alarms on fire suppression, alarm or detection systems unless they are intended to be employee alarm systems.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements in this section that pertain to maintenance, testing and inspection shall apply to all local fire alarm signaling systems used for alerting employees regardless of the other functions of the system.
</P>
<P>(3) All pre-discharge employee alarms installed to meet a particular OSHA standard shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (4), (c), and (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employee alarm system shall provide warning for necessary emergency action as called for in the emergency action plan, or for reaction time for safe escape of employees from the workplace or the immediate work area, or both.
</P>
<P>(2) The employee alarm shall be capable of being perceived above ambient noise or light levels by all employees in the affected portions of the workplace. Tactile devices may be used to alert those employees who would not otherwise be able to recognize the audible or visual alarm.
</P>
<P>(3) The employee alarm shall be distinctive and recognizable as a signal to evacuate the work area or to perform actions designated under the emergency action plan.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall explain to each employee the preferred means of reporting emergencies, such as manual pull box alarms, public address systems, radio or telephones. The employer shall post emergency telephone numbers near telephones, or employee notice boards, and other conspicuous locations when telephones serve as a means of reporting emergencies. Where a communication system also serves as the employee alarm system, all emergency messages shall have priority over all non-emergency messages.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall establish procedures for sounding emergency alarms in the workplace. For those employers with 10 or fewer employees in a particular workplace, direct voice communication is an acceptable procedure for sounding the alarm provided all employees can hear the alarm. Such workplaces need not have a back-up system.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Installation and restoration.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that all devices, components, combinations of devices or systems constructed and installed to comply with this standard are approved. Steam whistles, air horns, strobe lights or similar lighting devices, or tactile devices meeting the requirements of this section are considered to meet this requirement for approval.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that all employee alarm systems are restored to normal operating condition as promptly as possible after each test or alarm. Spare alarm devices and components subject to wear or destruction shall be available in sufficient quantities and locations for prompt restoration of the system.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintenance and testing.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that all employee alarm systems are maintained in operating condition except when undergoing repairs or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that a test of the reliability and adequacy of non-supervised employee alarm systems is made every two months. A different actuation device shall be used in each test of a multi-actuation device system so that no individual device is used for two consecutive tests.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall maintain or replace power supplies as often as is necessary to assure a fully operational condition. Back-up means of alarm, such as employee runners or telephones, shall be provided when systems are out of service.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that employee alarm circuitry installed after January 1, 1981, which is capable of being supervised is supervised and that it will provide positive notification to assigned personnel whenever a deficiency exists in the system. The employer shall assure that all supervised employee alarm systems are tested at least annually for reliability and adequacy.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall assure that the servicing, maintenance and testing of employee alarms are done by persons trained in the designed operation and functions necessary for reliable and safe operation of the system.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Manual operation.</I> The employer shall assure that manually operated actuation devices for use in conjunction with employee alarms are unobstructed, conspicuous and readily accessible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60713, Sept. 12, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.37.12.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes to Subpart L of Part 1910—Note
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The following appendices to subpart L, except appendix E, serve as nonmandatory guidelines to assist employers in complying with the appropriate requirements of subpart L.</P></NOTE>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.37.12.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart L of Part 1910—Fire Protection
</HEAD>
<FP><I>§ 1910.156 Fire brigades.</I>
</FP>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> This section does not require an employer to organize a fire brigade. However, if an employer does decide to organize a fire brigade, the requirements of this section apply.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Pre-fire planning.</I> It is suggested that pre-fire planning be conducted by the local fire department and/or the workplace fire brigade in order for them to be familiar with the workplace and process hazards. Involvement with the local fire department or fire prevention bureau is encouraged to facilitate coordination and cooperation between members of the fire brigade and those who might be called upon for assistance during a fire emergency.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Organizational statement.</I> In addition to the information required in the organizational statement, paragraph 1910.156(b)(1), it is suggested that the organizational statement also contain the following information: a description of the duties that the fire brigade members are expected to perform; the line authority of each fire brigade officer; the number of the fire brigade officers and number of training instructors; and a list and description of the types of awards or recognition that brigade members may be eligible to receive.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Physical capability.</I> The physical capability requirement applies only to those fire brigade members who perform interior structural fire fighting. Employees who cannot meet the physical capability requirement may still be members of the fire brigade as long as such employees do not perform interior structural fire fighting. It is suggested that fire brigade members who are unable to perform interior structural fire fighting be assigned less stressful and physically demanding fire brigade duties, e.g., certain types of training, recordkeeping, fire prevention inspection and maintenance, and fire pump operations.
</P>
<P>Physically capable can be defined as being able to perform those duties specified in the training requirements of section 1910.156(c). Physically capable can also be determined by physical performance tests or by a physical examination when the examining physician is aware of the duties that the fire brigade member is expected to perform.
</P>
<P>It is also recommended that fire brigade members participate in a physical fitness program. There are many benefits which can be attributed to being physically fit. It is believed that physical fitness may help to reduce the number of sprain and strain injuries as well as contributing to the improvement of the cardiovascular system.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Training and education.</I> The paragraph on training and education does not contain specific training and education requirements because the type, amount, and frequency of training and education will be as varied as are the purposes for which fire brigades are organized. However, the paragraph does require that training and education be commensurate with those functions that the fire brigade is expected to perform; i.e., those functions specified in the organizational statement. Such a performance requirement provides the necessary flexibility to design a training program which meets the needs of individual fire brigades.
</P>
<P>At a minimum, hands-on training is required to be conducted annually for all fire brigade members. However, for those fire brigade members who are expected to perform interior structural fire fighting, some type of training or education session must be provided at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>In addition to the required hands-on training, it is strongly recommended that fire brigade members receive other types of training and education such as: classroom instruction, review of emergency action procedures, pre-fire planning, review of special hazards in the workplace, and practice in the use of self-contained breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P>It is not necessary for the employer to duplicate the same training or education that a fire brigade member receives as a member of a community volunteer fire department, rescue squad, or similar organization. However, such training or education must have been provided to the fire brigade member within the past year and it must be documented that the fire brigade member has received the training or education. For example: there is no need for a fire brigade member to receive another training class in the use of positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus if the fire brigade member has recently completed such training as a member of a community fire department. Instead, the fire brigade member should receive training or education covering other important equipment or duties of the fire brigade as they relate to the workplace hazards, facilities and processes.
</P>
<P>It is generally recognized that the effectiveness of fire brigade training and education depends upon the expertise of those providing the training and education as well as the motivation of the fire brigade members. Fire brigade training instructors must receive a higher level of training and education than the fire brigade members they will be teaching. This includes being more knowledgeable about the functions to be performed by the fire brigade and the hazards involved. The instructors should be qualified to train fire brigade members and demonstrate skills in communication, methods of teaching, and motivation. It is important for instructors and fire brigade members alike to be motivated toward the goals of the fire brigade and be aware of the importance of the service that they are providing for the protection of other employees and the workplace.
</P>
<P>It is suggested that publications from the International Fire Service Training Association, the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA-1041), the International Society of Fire Service Instructors and other fire training sources be consulted for recommended qualifications of fire brigade training instructors.
</P>
<P>In order to be effective, fire brigades must have competent leadership and supervision. It is important for those who supervise the fire brigade during emergency situations, e.g., fire brigade chiefs, leaders, etc., to receive the necessary training and education for supervising fire brigade activities during these hazardous and stressful situations. These fire brigade members with leadership responsibilities should demonstrate skills in strategy and tactics, fire suppression and prevention techniques, leadership principles, pre-fire planning, and safety practices. It is again suggested that fire service training sources be consulted for determining the kinds of training and education which are necessary for those with fire brigade leadership responsibilities.
</P>
<P>It is further suggested that fire brigade leaders and fire brigade instructors receive more formalized training and education on a continuing basis by attending classes provided by such training sources as universities and university fire extension services.
</P>
<P>The following recommendations should not be considered to be all of the necessary elements of a complete comprehensive training program, but the information may be helpful as a guide in developing a fire brigade training program.
</P>
<P>All fire brigade members should be familiar with exit facilities and their location, emergency escape routes for handicapped workers, and the workplace “emergency action plan.”
</P>
<P>In addition, fire brigade members who are expected to control and extinguish fires in the incipient stage should, at a minimum, be trained in the use of fire extinguishers, standpipes, and other fire equipment they are assigned to use. They should also be aware of first aid medical procedures and procedures for dealing with special hazards to which they may be exposed. Training and education should include both classroom instruction and actual operation of the equipment under simulated emergency conditions. Hands-on type training must be conducted at least annually but some functions should be reviewed more often.
</P>
<P>In addition to the above training, fire brigade members who are expected to perform emergency rescue and interior structural fire fighting should, at a minimum, be familiar with the proper techniques in rescue and fire suppression procedures. Training and education should include fire protection courses, classroom training, simulated fire situations including “wet drills” and, when feasible, extinguishment of actual mock fires. Frequency of training or education must be at least quarterly, but some drills or classroom training should be conducted as often as monthly or even weekly to maintain the proficiency of fire brigade members.
</P>
<P>There are many excellent sources of training and education that the employer may want to use in developing a training program for the workplace fire brigade. These sources include publications, seminars, and courses offered by universities.
</P>
<P>There are also excellent fire school courses by such facilities as Texas A and M University, Delaware State Fire School, Lamar University, and Reno Fire School, that deal with those unique hazards which may be encountered by fire brigades in the oil and chemical industry. These schools, and others, also offer excellent training courses which would be beneficial to fire brigades in other types of industries. These courses should be a continuing part of the training program, and employers are strongly encouraged to take advantage of these excellent resources.
</P>
<P>It is also important that fire brigade members be informed about special hazards to which they may be exposed during fire and other emergencies. Such hazards as storage and use areas of flammable liquids and gases, toxic chemicals, water-reactive substances, etc., can pose difficult problems. There must be written procedures developed that describe the actions to be taken in situations involving special hazards. Fire brigade members must be trained in handling these special hazards as well as keeping abreast of any changes that occur in relation to these special hazards.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Fire fighting equipment.</I> It is important that fire fighting equipment that is in damaged or unserviceable condition be removed from service and replaced. This will prevent fire brigade members from using unsafe equipment by mistake.
</P>
<P>Fire fighting equipment, except portable fire extinguishers and respirators, must be inspected at least annually. Portable fire extinguishers and respirators are required to be inspected at least monthly.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Protective clothing.</I> (A) <I>General.</I> Paragraph (e) of § 1910.156 does not require all fire brigade members to wear protective clothing. It is not the intention of these standards to require employers to provide a full ensemble of protective clothing for every fire brigade member without consideration given to the types of hazardous environments to which the fire brigade member might be exposed. It is the intention of these standards to require adequate protection for those fire brigade members who might be exposed to fires in an advanced stage, smoke, toxic gases, and high temperatures. Therefore, the protective clothing requirements only apply to those fire brigade members who perform interior structural fire fighting operations.
</P>
<P>Additionally, the protective clothing requirements do not apply to the protective clothing worn during outside fire fighting operations (brush and forest fires, crash crew operations) or other special fire fighting activities. It is important that the protective clothing to be worn during these types of fire fighting operations reflect the hazards which are expected to be encountered by fire brigade members.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Foot and leg protection.</I> Section 1910.156 permits an option to achieve foot and leg protection.
</P>
<P>The section recognizes the interdependence of protective clothing to cover one or more parts of the body. Therefore, an option is given so that fire brigade members may meet the foot and leg requirements by either wearing long fire-resistive coats in combination with fully extended boots, or by wearing shorter fire-resistive costs in combination with protective trousers and protective shoes or shorter boots.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Body protection.</I> Paragraph (e)(3) of § 1910.156 provides an option for fire brigade members to achieve body protection. Fire brigade members may wear a fire-resistive coat in combination with fully extended boots, or they may wear a fire-resistive coat in combination with protective trousers.
</P>
<P>Fire-resistive coats and protective trousers meeting all of the requirements contained in NFPA 1971-1975 “Protective Clothing for Structural Fire Fighters,” are acceptable as meeting the requirements of this standard.
</P>
<P>The lining is required to be permanently attached to the outer shell. However, it is permissible to attach the lining to the outer shell material by stitching in one area such as at the neck. Fastener tape or snap fasteners may be used to secure the rest of the lining to the outer shell to facilitate cleaning. Reference to permanent lining does not refer to a winter liner which is a detachable extra lining used to give added protection to the wearer against the effects of cold weather and wind.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Hand protection.</I> The requirements of the paragraph on hand protection may be met by protective gloves or a glove system. A glove system consists of a combination of different gloves. The usual components of a glove system consist of a pair of gloves, which provide thermal insulation to the hands, worn in combination with a second pair of gloves which provide protection against flame, cut, and puncture.
</P>
<P>It is suggested that protective gloves provide dexterity and a sense of feel for objects. Criteria and test methods for dexterity are contained in the NIOSH publications, “The Development of Criteria for Firefighters' Gloves; Vol. I: Glove Requirements” and “Vol. II: Glove Criteria and Test Methods.” These NIOSH publications also contain a permissible modified version of Federal Test Method 191, Method 5903, (paragraph (3) of appendix E) for flame resistance when gloves, rather than glove material, are tested for flame resistance.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Head, eye, and face protection.</I> Head protective devices which meet the requirements contained in NFPA No. 1972 are acceptable as meeting the requirements of this standard for head protection.
</P>
<P>Head protective devices are required to be provided with ear flaps so that the ear flaps will be available if needed. It is recommended that ear protection always be used while fighting interior structural fires.
</P>
<P>Many head protective devices are equipped with face shields to protect the eyes and face. These face shields are permissible as meeting the eye and face protection requirements of this paragraph as long as such face shields meet the requirements of § 1910.133 of the General Industry Standards.
</P>
<P>Additionally, full facepieces, helmets or hoods of approved breathing apparatus which meet the requirements of § 1910.134 and paragraph (f) of § 1910.156 are also acceptable as meeting the eye and face protection requirements.
</P>
<P>It is recommended that a flame resistant protective head covering such as a hood or snood, which will not adversely affect the seal of a respirator facepiece, be worn during interior structural fire fighting operations to protect the sides of the face and hair.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Respiratory protective devices.</I> Respiratory protection is required to be worn by fire brigade members while working inside buildings or confined spaces where toxic products of combustion or an oxygen deficiency is likely to be present; respirators are also to be worn during emergency situations involving toxic substances. When fire brigade members respond to emergency situations, they may be exposed to unknown contaminants in unknown concentrations. Therefore, it is imperative that fire brigade members wear proper respiratory protective devices during these situations. Additionally, there are many instances where toxic products of combustion are still present during mop-up and overhaul operations. Therefore, fire brigade members should continue to wear respirators during these types of operations.
</P>
<P>Self-contained breathing apparatus are not required to be equipped with either a buddy-breathing device or a quick-disconnect valve. However, these accessories may be very useful and are acceptable as long as such accessories do not cause damage to the apparatus, restrict the air flow of the apparatus, or obstruct the normal operation of the apparatus.
</P>
<P>Buddy-breathing devices are useful for emergency situations where a victim or another fire brigade member can share the same air supply with the wearer of the apparatus for emergency escape purposes.
</P>
<P>The employer is encouraged to provide fire brigade members with an alternative means of respiratory protection to be used only for emergency escape purposes if the self-contained breathing apparatus becomes inoperative. Such alternative means of respiratory protection may be either a buddy-breathing device or an escape self-contained breathing apparatus (ESCBA). The ESCBA is a short-duration respiratory protective device which is approved for only emergency escape purposes. It is suggested that if ESCBA units are used, that they be of at least 5 minutes service life.
</P>
<P>Quick-disconnect valves are devices which start the flow of air by insertion of the hose (which leads to the facepiece) into the regulator of self-contained breathing apparatus, and stop the flow of air by disconnecting the hose from the regulator. These devices are particularly useful for those positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus which do not have the capability of being switched from the demand to the positive-pressure mode.
</P>
<P>The use of a self-contained breathing apparatus where the apparatus can be switched from a demand to a positive-pressure mode is acceptable as long as the apparatus is in the positive-pressure mode when performing interior structural fire fighting operations. Also acceptable are approved respiratory protective devices which have been converted to the positive-pressure type when such modification is accomplished by trained and experienced persons using kits or parts approved by NIOSH and provided by the manufacturer and by following the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>There are situations which require the use of respirators which have a duration of 2 hours or more. Presently, there are no approved positive-pressure apparatus with a rated service life of more than 2 hours. Consequently, negative-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus with a rated service life of more than 2 hours and which have a minimum protection factor of 5,000 as determined by an acceptable quantitative fit test performed on each individual, will be acceptable for use during situations which require long duration apparatus. Long duration apparatus may be needed in such instances as working in tunnels, subway systems, etc. Such negative-pressure breathing apparatus will continue to be acceptable for a maximum of 18 months after a positive-pressure apparatus with the same or longer rated service life of more than 2 hours is certified by NIOSH/MSHA. After this 18 month phase-in period, all self-contained breathing apparatus used for these long duration situations will have to be of the positive-pressure type.
</P>
<P>Protection factor (sometimes called fit factor) is defined as the ratio of the contaminant concentrations outside of the respirator to the contaminant concentrations inside the facepiece of the respirator.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="20" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er25se06.011.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Protection factors are determined by quantitative fit tests. An acceptable quantitative fit test should include the following elements:
</FP>
<P>1. A fire brigade member who is physically and medically capable of wearing respirators, and who is trained in the use of respirators, dons a self-contained breathing apparatus equipped with a device that will monitor the concentration of a contaminant inside the facepiece.
</P>
<P>2. The fire brigade member then performs a qualitative fit test to assure the best face to facepiece seal as possible. A qualitative fit test can consist of a negative-pressure test, positive-pressure test, isoamyl acetate vapor (banana oil) test, or an irritant smoke test. For more details on respirator fitting see the NIOSH booklet entitled “A Guide to Industrial Respiratory Protection” June, 1976, and HEW publication No. (NIOSH) 76-189.
</P>
<P>3. The wearer should then perform physical activity which reflects the level of work activity which would be expected during fire fighting activities. The physical activity should include simulated fire-ground work activity or physical exercise such as running-in-place, a step test, etc.
</P>
<P>4. Without readjusting the apparatus, the wearer is placed in a test atmosphere containing a non-toxic contaminant with a known, constant, concentration.
</P>
<P>The protection factor is then determined by dividing the known concentration of the contaminant in the test atmosphere by the concentration of the contaminant inside the facepiece when the following exercises are performed:
</P>
<P>(a) Normal breathing with head motionless for one minute;
</P>
<P>(b) Deep breathing with head motionless for 30 seconds;
</P>
<P>(c) Turning head slowly from side to side while breathing normally, pausing for at least two breaths before changing direction. Continue for at least one minute;
</P>
<P>(d) Moving head slowly up and down while breathing normally, pausing for at least two breaths before changing direction. Continue for at least two minutes;
</P>
<P>(e) Reading from a prepared text, slowly and clearly, and loudly enough to be heard and understood. Continue for one minute; and
</P>
<P>(f) Normal breathing with head motionless for at least one minute.
</P>
<P>The protection factor which is determined must be at least 5,000. The quantitative fit test should be conducted at least three times. It is acceptable to conduct all three tests on the same day. However, there should be at least one hour between tests to reflect the protection afforded by the apparatus during different times of the day.
</P>
<P>The above elements are not meant to be a comprehensive, technical description of a quantitative fit test protocol. However, quantitative fit test procedures which include these elements are acceptable for determining protection factors. Procedures for a quantitative fit test are required to be available for inspection by the Assistant Secretary or authorized representative.
</P>
<P>Organizations such as Los Alamos Scientific Laboratory, Lawrence Livermore Laboratory, NIOSH, and American National Standards Institute (ANSI) are excellent sources for additional information concerning qualitative and quantitative fit testing.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.157 Portable fire extinguishers.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope and application.</I> The scope and application of this section is written to apply to three basic types of workplaces. First, there are those workplaces where the employer has chosen to evacuate all employees from the workplace at the time of a fire emergency. Second, there are those workplaces where the employer has chosen to permit certain employees to fight fires and to evacuate all other non-essential employees at the time of a fire emergency. Third, there are those workplaces where the employer has chosen to permit all employees in the workplace to use portable fire extinguishers to fight fires.
</P>
<P>The section also addresses two kinds of work areas. The entire workplace can be divided into outside (exterior) work areas and inside (interior) work areas. This division of the workplace into two areas is done in recognition of the different types of hazards employees may be exposed to during fire fighting operations. Fires in interior workplaces, pose a greater hazard to employees; they can produce greater exposure to quantities of smoke, toxic gases, and heat because of the capability of a building or structure to contain or entrap these products of combustion until the building can be ventilated. Exterior work areas, normally open to the environment, are somewhat less hazardous, because the products of combustion are generally carried away by the thermal column of the fire. Employees also have a greater selection of evacuation routes if it is necessary to abandon fire fighting efforts.
</P>
<P>In recognition of the degree of hazard present in the two types of work areas, the standards for exterior work areas are somewhat less restrictive in regards to extinguisher distribution. Paragraph (a) explains this by specifying which paragraphs in the section apply.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Portable fire extinguisher exemptions.</I> In recognition of the three options given to employers in regard to the amount of employee evacuation to be carried out, the standards permit certain exemptions based on the number of employees expected to use fire extinguishers.
</P>
<P>Where the employer has chosen to totally evacuate the workplace at the time of a fire emergency and when fire extinguishers are not provided, the requirements of this section do not apply to that workplace.
</P>
<P>Where the employer has chosen to partially evacuate the workplace or the effected area at the time of a fire emergency and has permitted certain designated employees to remain behind to operate critical plant operations or to fight fires with extinguishers, then the employer is exempt from the distribution requirements of this section. Employees who will be remaining behind to perform incipient fire fighting or members of a fire brigade must be trained in their duties. The training must result in the employees becoming familiar with the locations of fire extinguishers. Therefore, the employer must locate the extinguishers in convenient locations where the employees know they can be found. For example, they could be mounted in the fire truck or cart that the fire brigade uses when it responds to a fire emergency. They can also be distributed as set forth in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 10, “Portable Fire Extinguishers.”
</P>
<P>Where the employer has decided to permit all employees in the workforce to use fire extinguishers, then the entire OSHA section applies.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Portable fire extinguisher mounting.</I> Previous standards for mounting fire extinguishers have been criticized for requiring specific mounting locations. In recognition of this criticism, the standard has been rewritten to permit as much flexibility in extinguisher mounting as is acceptable to assure that fire extinguishers are available when needed and that employees are not subjected to injury hazards when they try to obtain an extinguisher.
</P>
<P>It is the intent of OSHA to permit the mounting of extinguishers in any location that is accessible to employees without the use of portable devices such as a ladder. This limitation is necessary because portable devices can be moved or taken from the place where they are needed and, therefore, might not be available at the time of an emergency.
</P>
<P>Employers are given as much flexibility as possible to assure that employees can obtain extinguishers as fast as possible. For example, an acceptable method of mounting extinguishers in areas where fork lift trucks or tow-motors are used is to mount the units on retractable boards which, by means of counterweighting, can be raised above the level where they could be struck by vehicular traffic. When needed, they can be lowered quickly for use. This method of mounting can also reduce vandalism and unauthorized use of extinguishers. The extinguishers may also be mounted as outlined in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 10, “Portable Fire Extinguishers.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Selection and distribution.</I> The employer is responsible for the proper selection and distribution of fire extinguishers and the determination of the necessary degree of protection. The selection and distribution of fire extinguishers must reflect the type and class of fire hazards associated with a particular workplace.
</P>
<P>Extinguishers for protecting Class A hazards may be selected from the following types: water, foam, loaded stream, or multipurpose dry chemical. Extinguishers for protecting Class B hazards may be selected from the following types: Halon 1301, Halon 1211, carbon dioxide, dry chemicals, foam, or loaded stream. Extinguishers for Class C hazards may be selected from the following types: Halon 1301, Halon 1211, carbon dioxide, or dry chemical.
</P>
<P>Combustible metal (Class D hazards) fires pose a different type of fire problem in the workplace. Extinguishers using water, gas, or certain dry chemicals cannot extinguish or control this type of fire. Therefore, certain metals have specific dry powder extinguishing agents which can extinguish or control this type of fire. Those agents which have been specifically approved for use on certain metal fires provide the best protection; however, there are also some “universal” type agents which can be used effectively on a variety of combustible metal fires if necessary. The “universal” type agents include: Foundry flux, Lith-X powder, TMB liquid, pyromet powder, TEC powder, dry talc, dry graphite powder, dry sand, dry sodium chloride, dry soda ash, lithium chloride, zirconium silicate, and dry dolomite.
</P>
<P>Water is not generally accepted as an effective extinguishing agent for metal fires. When applied to hot burning metal, water will break down into its basic atoms of oxygen and hydrogen. This chemical breakdown contributes to the combustion of the metal. However, water is also a good universal coolant and can be used on some combustible metals, but only under proper conditions and application, to reduce the temperature of the burning metal below the ignition point. For example, automatic deluge systems in magnesium plants can discharge such large quantities of water on burning magnesium that the fire will be extinguished. The National Fire Protection Association has specific standards for this type of automatic sprinkler system. Further information on the control of metal fires with water can be found in the National Fire Protection Association's <I>Fire Protection Handbook.</I>
</P>
<P>An excellent source of selection and distribution criteria is found in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 10. Other sources of information include the National Safety Council and the employer's fire insurance carrier.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Substitution of standpipe systems for portable fire extinguishers.</I> The employer is permitted to substitute acceptable standpipe systems for portable fire extinguishers under certain circumstances. It is necessary to assure that any substitution will provide the same coverage that portable units provide. This means that fire hoses, because of their limited portability, must be spaced throughout the protected area so that they can reach around obstructions such as columns, machinery, etc. and so that they can reach into closets and other enclosed areas.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Inspection, maintenance and testing.</I> The ultimate responsibility for the inspection, maintenance and testing of portable fire extinguishers lies with the employer. The actual inspection, maintenance, and testing may, however, be conducted by outside contractors with whom the employer has arranged to do the work. When contracting for such work, the employer should assure that the contractor is capable of performing the work that is needed to comply with this standard.
</P>
<P>If the employer should elect to perform the inspection, maintenance, and testing requirements of this section in-house, then the employer must make sure that those persons doing the work have been trained to do the work and to recognize problem areas which could cause an extinguisher to be inoperable. The National Fire Protection Association provides excellent guidelines in its standard for portable fire extinguishers. The employer may also check with the manufacturer of the unit that has been purchased and obtain guidelines on inspection, maintenance, and testing. Hydrostatic testing is a process that should be left to contractors or individuals using suitable facilities and having the training necessary to perform the work.
</P>
<P>Anytime the employer has removed an extinguisher from service to be checked or repaired, alternate equivalent protection must be provided. Alternate equivalent protection could include replacing the extinguisher with one or more units having equivalent or equal ratings, posting a fire watch, restricting the unprotected area from employee exposure, or providing a hose system ready to operate.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Hydrostatic testing.</I> As stated before, the employer may contract for hydrostatic testing. However, if the employer wishes to provide the testing service, certain equipment and facilities must be available. Employees should be made aware of the hazards associated with hydrostatic testing and the importance of using proper guards and water pressures. Severe injury can result if extinguisher shells fail violently under hydrostatic pressure.
</P>
<P>Employers are encouraged to use contractors who can perform adequate and reliable service. Firms which have been certified by the Materials Transportation Board (MTB) of the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) or State licensed extinguisher servicing firms or recognized by the National Association of Fire Equipment Distributors in Chicago, Illinois, are generally acceptable for performing this service.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Training and education.</I> This part of the standard is of the utmost importance to employers and employees if the risk of injury or death due to extinguisher use is to be reduced. If an employer is going to permit an employee to fight a workplace fire of any size, the employer must make sure that the employee knows everything necessary to assure the employee's safety.
</P>
<P>Training and education can be obtained through many channels. Often, local fire departments in larger cities have fire prevention bureaus or similar organizations which can provide basic fire prevention training programs. Fire insurance companies will have data and information available. The National Fire Protection Association and the National Safety Council will provide, at a small cost, publications that can be used in a fire prevention program.
</P>
<P>Actual fire fighting training can be obtained from various sources in the country. The Texas A &amp; M University, the University of Maryland's Fire and Rescue Institute, West Virginia University's Fire Service Extension, Iowa State University's Fire Service Extension and other State training schools and land grant colleges have fire fighting programs directed to industrial applications. Some manufacturers of extinguishers, such as the Ansul Company and Safety First, conduct fire schools for customers in the proper use of extinguishers. Several large corporations have taken time to develop their own on-site training programs which expose employees to the actual “feeling” of fire fighting. Simulated fires for training of employees in the proper use of extinguishers are also an acceptable part of a training program.
</P>
<P>In meeting the requirements of this section, the employer may also provide educational materials, without classroom instruction, through the use of employee notice campaigns using instruction sheets or flyers or similar types of informal programs. The employer must make sure that employees are trained and educated to recognize not only what type of fire is being fought and how to fight it, but also when it is time to get away from it and leave fire suppression to more experienced fire fighters.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.158 Standpipe and hose systems.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope and application.</I> This section has been written to provide adequate coverage of those standpipe and hose systems that an employer may install in the workplace to meet the requirements of a particular OSHA standard. For example, OSHA permits the substitution of hose systems for portable fire extinguishers in § 1910.157. If an employer chooses to provide hose systems instead of portable Class A fire extinguishers, then those hose systems used for substitution would have to meet the applicable requirements of § 1910.157. All other standpipe and hose systems not used as a substitute would be exempt from these requirements.
</P>
<P>The section specifically exempts Class I large hose systems. By large hose systems, OSHA means those 2
<FR>1/2</FR>″ (6.3 cm) hose lines that are usually associated with fire departments of the size that provide their own water supply through fire apparatus. When the fire gets to the size that outside protection of that degree is necessary, OSHA believes that in most industries employees will have been evacuated from the fire area and the “professional” fire fighters will take control.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Protection of standpipes.</I> Employers must make sure that standpipes are protected so that they can be relied upon during a fire emergency. This means protecting the pipes from mechanical and physical damage. There are various means for protecting the equipment such as, but not limited to, enclosing the supply piping in the construction of the building, locating the standpipe in an area which is inaccessible to vehicles, or locating the standpipe in a stairwell.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Hose covers and cabinets.</I> The employer should keep fire protection hose equipment in cabinets or inside protective covers which will protect it from the weather elements, dirt or other damaging sources. The use of protective covers must be easily removed or opened to assure that hose and nozzle are accessible. When the employer places hose in a cabinet, the employer must make sure that the hose and nozzle are accessible to employees without subjecting them to injury. In order to make sure that the equipment is readily accessible, the employer must also make sure that the cabinets used to store equipment are kept free of obstructions and other equipment which may interfere with the fast distribution of the fire hose stored in the cabinet.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Hose outlets and connections.</I> The employer must assure that employees who use standpipe and hose systems can reach the hose rack and hose valve without the use of portable equipment such as ladders. Hose reels are encouraged for use because one employee can retrieve the hose, charge it, and place it into service without much difficulty.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Hose.</I> When the employer elects to provide small hose in lieu of portable fire extinguishers, those hose stations being used for the substitution must have hose attached and ready for service. However, if more than the necessary amount of small hose outlets are provided, hose does not have to be attached to those outlets that would provide redundant coverage. Further, where the installation of hose on outlets may expose the hose to extremely cold climates, the employer may store the hose in houses or similar protective areas and connect it to the outlet when needed.
</P>
<P>There is approved lined hose available that can be used to replace unlined hose which is stored on racks in cabinets. The lined hose is constructed so that it can be folded and placed in cabinets in the same manner as unlined hose.
</P>
<P>Hose is considered to be unserviceable when it deteriorates to the extent that it can no longer carry water at the required pressure and flow rates. Dry rotted linen or hemp hose, cross threaded couplings, and punctured hose are examples of unserviceable hose.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Nozzles.</I> Variable stream nozzles can provide useful variations in water flow and spray patterns during fire fighting operations and they are recommended for employee use. It is recommended that 100 psi (700kPa) nozzle pressure be used to provide good flow patterns for variable stream nozzles. The most desirable attribute for nozzles is the ability of the nozzle person to shut off the water flow at the nozzle when it is necessary. This can be accomplished in many ways. For example, a shut-off nozzle with a lever or rotation of the nozzle to stop flow would be effective, but in other cases a simple globe valve placed between a straight stream nozzle and the hose could serve the same purpose. For straight stream nozzles 50 psi nozzle pressure is recommended. The intent of this standard is to protect the employee from “run-away” hoses if it becomes necessary to drop a pressurized hose line and retreat from the fire front and other related hazards.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Design and installation.</I> Standpipe and hose systems designed and installed in accordance with NFPA Standard No. 14, “Standpipe and Hose Systems,” are considered to be in compliance with this standard.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.159 Automatic sprinkler systems.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope and application.</I> This section contains the minimum requirements for design, installation and maintenance of sprinkler systems that are needed for employee safety. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is aware of the fact that the National Board of Fire Underwriters is no longer an active organization, however, sprinkler systems still exist that were designed and installed in accordance with that organization's standards. Therefore, OSHA will recognize sprinkler systems designed to, and maintained in accordance with, NBFU and earlier NFPA standards.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exemptions.</I> In an effort to assure that employers will continue to use automatic sprinkler systems as the primary fire protection system in workplaces, OSHA is exempting from coverage those systems not required by a particular OSHA standard and which have been installed in workplaces solely for the purpose of protecting property. Many of these types of systems are installed in areas or buildings with little or no employee exposure. An example is those warehouses where employees may enter occasionally to take inventory or move stock. Some employers may choose to shut down those systems which are not specifically required by OSHA rather than upgrade them to comply with the standards. OSHA does not intend to regulate such systems. OSHA only intends to regulate those systems which are installed to comply with a particular OSHA standard.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Design.</I> There are two basic types of sprinkler system design. Pipe schedule designed systems are based on pipe schedule tables developed to protect hazards with standard sized pipe, number of sprinklers, and pipe lengths. Hydraulic designed systems are based on an engineered design of pipe size which will produce a given water density or flow rate at any particular point in the system. Either design can be used to comply with this standard.
</P>
<P>The National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 13, “Automatic Sprinkler Systems,” contains the tables needed to design and install either type of system. Minimum water supplies, densities, and pipe sizes are given for all types of occupancies.
</P>
<P>The employer may check with a reputable fire protection engineering consultant or sprinkler design company when evaluating existing systems or designing a new installation.
</P>
<P>With the advent of new construction materials for the manufacuture of sprinkler pipe, materials, other than steel have been approved for use as sprinkler pipe. Selection of pipe material should be made on the basis of the type of installation and the acceptability of the material to local fire and building officials where such systems may serve more than one purpose.
</P>
<P>Before new sprinkler systems are placed into service, an acceptance test is to be conducted. The employer should invite the installer, designer, insurance representative, and a local fire official to witness the test. Problems found during the test are to be corrected before the system is placed into service.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Maintenance.</I> It is important that any sprinkler system maintenance be done only when there is minimal employee exposure to the fire hazard. For example, if repairs or changes to the system are to be made, they should be made during those hours when employees are not working or are not occupying that portion of the workplace protected by the portion of the system which has been shut down.
</P>
<P>The procedures for performing a flow test via a main drain test or by the use of an inspector's test valve can be obtained from the employer's fire insurance company or from the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 13A, “Sprinkler System, Maintenance.”
</P>
<P>5. <I>Water supplies.</I> The water supply to a sprinkler system is one of the most important factors an employer should consider when evaluationg a system. Obviously, if there is no water supply, the system is useless. Water supplies can be lost for various reasons such as improperly closed valves, excessive demand, broken water mains, and broken fire pumps. The employer must be able to determine if or when this type of condition exists either by performing a main drain test or visual inspection. Another problem may be an inadequate water supply. For example, a light hazard occupancy may, through rehabilitation or change in tenants, become an ordinary or high hazard occupancy. In such cases, the existing water supply may not be able to provide the pressure or duration necessary for proper protection. Employers must assure that proper design and tests have been made to assure an adequate water supply. These tests can be arranged through the employer's fire insurance carrier or through a local sprinkler maintenance company or through the local fire prevention organization.
</P>
<P>Anytime the employer must shut down the primary water supply for a sprinkler system, the standard requires that equivalent protection be provided. Equivalent protection may include a fire watch with extinguishers or hose lines in place and manned, or a secondary water supply such as a tank truck and pump, or a tank or fire pond with fire pumps, to protect the areas where the primary water supply is limited or shut down. The employer may also require evacuation of the workplace and have an emergency action plan which specifies such action.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Protection of piping.</I> Piping which is exposed to corrosive atmospheres, either chemical or natural, can become defective to the extent that it is useless. Employers must assure that piping is protected from corrosion by its material of construction, e.g., stainless steel, or by a protective coating, e.g., paint.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Sprinklers.</I> When an employer finds it necessary to replace sprinkler system components or otherwise change a sprinkler's design, employer should make a complete fire protection engineering survey of that part of the system being changed. This review should assure that the changes to the system will not alter the effectiveness of the system as it is presently designed. Water supplies, densities and flow characteristics should be maintained.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Protection of sprinklers.</I> All components of the system must be protected from mechanical impact damage. This can be achieved with the use of mechanical guards or screens or by locating components in areas where physical contact is impossible or limited.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Sprinkler alarms.</I> The most recognized sprinkler alarm is the water motor gong or bell that sounds when water begins to flow through the system. This is not however, the only type of acceptable water flow alarm. Any alarm that gives an indication that water is flowing through the system is acceptable. For example, a siren, a whistle, a flashing light, or similar alerting device which can transmit a signal to the necessary persons would be acceptable. The purpose of the alarm is to alert persons that the system is operating, and that some type of planned action is necessary.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Sprinkler spacing.</I> For a sprinkler system to be effective there must be an adequate discharge of water spray from the sprinkler head. Any obstructions which hinder the designed density or spray pattern of the water may create unprotected areas which can cause fire to spread. There are some sprinklers that, because of the system's design, are deflected to specific areas. This type of obstruction is acceptable if the system's design takes it into consideration in providing adequate coverage.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.160 Fixed extinguishing systems, general.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope and application.</I> This section contains the general requirements that are applicable to all fixed extinguishing systems installed to meet OSHA standards. It also applies to those fixed extinguishing systems, generally total flooding, which are not required by OSHA, but which, because of the agent's discharge, may expose employees to hazardous concentrations of extinguishing agents or combustion by-products. Employees who work around fixed extinguishing systems must be warned of the possible hazards associated with the system and its agent. For example, fixed dry chemical extinguishing systems may generate a large enough cloud of dry chemical particles that employees may become visually disoriented. Certain gaseous agents can expose employees to hazardous by-products of combustion when the agent comes into contact with hot metal or other hot surface. Some gaseous agents may be present in hazardous concentrations when the system has totally discharged because an extra rich concentration is necessary to extinguish deep-seated fires. Certain local application systems may be designed to discharge onto the flaming surface of a liquid, and it is possible that the liquid can splatter when hit with the discharging agent. All of these hazards must be determined before the system is placed into operation, and must be discussed with employees.
</P>
<P>Based on the known toxicological effects of agents such as carbon tetrachloride and chlorobromomethane, OSHA is not permitting the use of these agents in areas where employees can be exposed to the agent or its side effects. However, chlorobromomethane has been accepted and may be used as an explosion suppression agent in unoccupied spaces. OSHA is permitting the use of this agent only in areas where employees will not be exposed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Distinctive alarm signals.</I> A distinctive alarm signal is required to indicate that a fixed system is discharging. Such a signal is necessary on those systems where it is not immediately apparent that the system is discharging. For example, certain gaseous agents make a loud noise when they discharge. In this case no alarm signal is necessary. However, where systems are located in remote locations or away from the general work area and where it is possible that a system could discharge without anyone knowing that it is doing so, then a distinctive alarm is necessary to warn employees of the hazards that may exist. The alarm can be a bell, gong, whistle, horn, flashing light, or any combination of signals as long as it is identifiable as a discharge alarm.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Maintenance.</I> The employer is responsible for the maintenance of all fixed systems, but this responsibility does not preclude the use of outside contractors to do such work. New systems should be subjected to an acceptance test before placed in service. The employer should invite the installer, designer, insurance representative and others to witness the test. Problems found during the test need to be corrected before the system is considered operational.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Manual discharge stations.</I> There are instances, such as for mechanical reasons and others, where the standards call for a manual back-up activation device. While the location of this device is not specified in the standard, the employer should assume that the device should be located where employees can easily reach it. It could, for example, be located along the main means of egress from the protected area so that employees could activate the system as they evacuate the work area.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> The employer is required to provide the necessary personal protective equipment to rescue employees who may be trapped in a totally flooded environment which may be hazardous to their health. This equipment would normally include a positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus and any necessary first aid equipment. In cases where the employer can assure the prompt arrival of the local fire department or plant emergency personnel which can provide the equipment, this can be considered as complying with the standards.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.161 Fixed extinguishing systems, dry chemical.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope and application.</I> The requirements of this section apply only to dry chemical systems. These requirements are to be used in conjunction with the requirements of § 1910.160.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Maintenance.</I> The employer is responsible for assuring that dry chemical systems will operate effectively. To do this, periodic maintenance is necessary. One test that must be conducted during the maintenance check is one which will determine if the agent has remained free of moisture. If an agent absorbs any moisture, it may tend to cake and thereby clog the system. An easy test for acceptable moisture content is to take a lump of dry chemical from the container and drop it from a height of four inches. If the lump crumbles into fine particles, the agent is acceptable.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.162 Fixed extinguishing systems, gaseous agent.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies only to those systems which use gaseous agents. The requirements of § 1910.160 also apply to the gaseous agent systems covered in this section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Design concentrations.</I> Total flooding gaseous systems are based on the volume of gas which must be discharged in order to produce a certain designed concentration of gas in an enclosed area. The concentration needed to extinguish a fire depends on several factors including the type of fire hazard and the amount of gas expected to leak away from the area during discharge. At times it is necessary to “super-saturate” a work area to provide for expected leakage from the enclosed area. In such cases, employers must assure that the flooded area has been ventilated before employees are permitted to reenter the work area without protective clothing and respirators.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Toxic decomposition.</I> Certain halogenated hydrocarbons will break down or decompose when they are combined with high temperatures found in the fire environment. The products of the decomposition can include toxic elements or compounds. For example, when Halon 1211 is placed into contact with hot metal it will break down and form bromide or fluoride fumes. The employer must find out which toxic products may result from decomposition of a particular agent from the manufacturer, and take the necessary precautions to prevent employee exposure to the hazard.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.163 Fixed extinguishing systems, water spray and foam.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to those systems that use water spray or foam. The requirements of § 1910.160 also apply to this type of system.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Characteristics of foams.</I> When selecting the type of foam for a specific hazard, the employer should consider the following limitations of some foams.
</P>
<P>a. Some foams are not acceptable for use on fires involving flammable gases and liquefied gases with boiling points below ambient workplace temperatures. Other foams are not effective when used on fires involving polar solvent liquids.
</P>
<P>b. Any agent using water as part of the mixture should not be used on fire involving combustible metals unless it is applied under proper conditions to reduce the temperature of burning metal below the ignition temperature. The employer should use only those foams that have been tested and accepted for this application by a recognized independent testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>c. Certain types of foams may be incompatible and break down when they are mixed together.
</P>
<P>d. For fires involving water miscible solvents, employers should use only those foams tested and approved for such use. Regular protein foams may not be effective on such solvents.
</P>
<P>Whenever employers provide a foam or water spray system, drainage facilities must be provided to carry contaminated water or foam overflow away from the employee work areas and egress routes. This drainage system should drain to a central impounding area where it can be collected and disposed of properly. Other government agencies may have regulations concerning environmental considerations.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.164 Fire detection systems.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Installation and restoration.</I> Fire detection systems must be designed by knowledgeable engineers or other professionals, with expertise in fire detection systems and when the systems are installed, there should be an acceptance test performed on the system to insure it operates properly. The manufacturer's recommendations for system design should be consulted. While entire systems may not be approved, each component used in the system is required to be approved. Custom fire detection systems should be designed by knowledgeable fire protection or electrical engineers who are familiar with the workplace hazards and conditions. Some systems may only have one or two individual detectors for a small workplace, but good design and installation is still important. An acceptance test should be performed on all systems, including these smaller systems.
</P>
<P>OSHA has a requirement that spare components used to replace those which may be destroyed during an alarm situation be available in sufficient quantities and locations for prompt restoration of the system. This does not mean that the parts or components have to be stored at the workplace. If the employer can assure that the supply of parts is available in the local community or the general metropolitan area of the workplace, then the requirements for storage and availability have been met. The intent is to make sure that the alarm system is fully operational when employees are occupying the workplace, and that when the system operates it can be returned to full service the next day or sooner.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Supervision.</I> Fire detection systems should be supervised. The object of supervision is detection of any failure of the circuitry, and the employer should use any method that will assure that the system's circuits are operational. Electrically operated sensors for air pressure, fluid pressure, or electrical circuits, can provide effective monitoring and are the typical types of supervision.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Protection of fire detectors.</I> Fire detectors must be protected from corrosion either by protective coatings, by being manufactured from non-corrosive materials or by location. Detectors must also be protected from mechanical impact damage, either by suitable cages or metal guards where such hazards are present, or by locating them above or out of contact with materials or equipment which may cause damage.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Number, location, and spacing of detectors.</I> This information can be obtained from the approval listing for detectors or NFPA standards. It can also be obtained from fire protection engineers or consultants or manufacturers of equipment who have access to approval listings and design methods.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1910.165 Employee alarm systems.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope and application.</I> This section is intended to apply to employee alarm systems used for all types of employee emergencies except those which occur so quickly and at such a rapid rate (e.g., explosions) that any action by the employee is extremely limited following detection.
</P>
<P>In small workplaces with 10 or less employees the alarm system can be by direct voice communication (shouting) where any one individual can quickly alert all other employees. Radio may be used to transmit alarms from remote workplaces where telephone service is not available, provided that radio messages will be monitored by emergency services, such as fire, police or others, to insure alarms are transmitted and received.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Alarm signal alternatives.</I> In recognition of physically impaired individuals, OSHA is accepting various methods of giving alarm signals. For example, visual, tactile or audible alarm signals are acceptable methods for giving alarms to employees. Flashing lights or vibrating devices can be used in areas where the employer has hired employees with hearing or vision impairments. Vibrating devices, air fans, or other tactile devices can be used where visually and hearing impaired employees work. Employers are cautioned that certain frequencies of flashing lights have been claimed to initiate epileptic seizures in some employees and that this fact should be considered when selecting an alarm device. Two way radio communications would be most appropriate for transmitting emergency alarms in such workplaces which may be remote or where telephones may not be available.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reporting alarms.</I> Employee alarms may require different means of reporting, depending on the workplace involved. For example, in small workplaces, a simple shout throughout the workplace may be sufficient to warn employees of a fire or other emergency. In larger workplaces, more sophisticated equipment is necessary so that entire plants or high-rise buildings are not evacuated for one small emergency. In remote areas, such as pumping plants, radio communication with a central base station may be necessary. The goal of this standard is to assure that all employees who need to know that an emergency exists can be notified of the emergency. The method of transmitting the alarm should reflect the situation found at the workplace.
</P>
<P>Personal radio transmitters, worn by an individual, can be used where the individual may be working such as in a remote location. Such personal radio transmitters shall send a distinct signal and should clearly indicate who is having an emergency, the location, and the nature of the emergency. All radio transmitters need a feedback system to assure that the emergency alarm is sent to the people who can provide assistance.
</P>
<P>For multi-story buildings or single story buildings with interior walls for subdivisions, the more traditional alarm systems are recommended for these types of workplaces. Supervised telephone or manual fire alarm or pull box stations with paging systems to transmit messages throughout the building is the recommended alarm system. The alarm box stations should be available within a travel distance of 200 feet. Water flow detection on a sprinkler system, fire detection systems (guard's supervisory station) or tour signal (watchman's service), or other related systems may be part of the overall system. The paging system may be used for nonemergency operations provided the emergency messages and uses will have precedence over all other uses of the system.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Supervision.</I> The requirements for supervising the employee alarm system circuitry and power supply may be accomplished in a variety of ways. Typically, electrically operated sensors for air pressure, fluid pressure, steam pressure, or electrical continuity of circuitry may be used to continuously monitor the system to assure it is operational and to identify trouble in the system and give a warning signal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60715, Sept. 12, 1980; 46 FR 24557, May 1, 1981]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.37.12.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart L of Part 1910—National Consensus Standards
</HEAD>
<P>The following table contains a cross-reference listing of those current national consensus standards which contains information and guidelines that would be considered acceptable in complying with requirements in the specific sections of subpart L.

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subpart L section
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">National consensus standard
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.156</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 1972; Structural Fire Fighter's Helmets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z88.5 American National Standard, Practice for Respirator Protection for the Fire Service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 1971, Protective Clothing for Structural Fire Fighters.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 1041, Fire Service Instructor Professional Qualifications.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 10, Portable Fire Extinguishers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 18, Wetting Agents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 20, Centrifugal Fire Pumps.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 21, Steam Fire Pumps.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 22, Water Tanks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 24, Outside Protection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 26, Supervision of Valves.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 13E, Fire Department Operations in Properties Protected by Sprinkler, Standpipe Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 194, Fire Hose Connections.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 197, Initial Fire Attack, Training for.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 1231, Water Supplies for Suburban and Rural Fire Fighting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI-NFPA No. 13, Sprinkler Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 13A, Sprinkler Systems, Maintenance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 18, Wetting Agents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 20, Centrifugal Fire Pumps.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 22, Water Tanks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 24, Outside Protection.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 26, Supervision of Valves.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72B, Auxiliary Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 1231, Water Supplies for Suburban and Rural Fire Fighting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 11, Foam Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 11A, High Expansion Foam Extinguishing Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 11B, Synthetic Foam and Combined Agent Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 12, Carbon Dioxide Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 12A, Halon 1301 Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 12B, Halon 1211 Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 15, Water Spray Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 16 Foam-Water Spray Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 17, Dry Chemical Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 69, Explosion Suppression Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.161</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 11B, Synthetic Foam and Combined Agent Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 17, Dry Chemical Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.162</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 12, Carbon Dioxide Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 12A, Halon 1211 Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 12B, Halon 1301 Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 69, Explosion Suppression Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.163</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 11, Foam Extinguishing Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 11A, High Expansion Foam Extinguishing Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 11B, Synthetic Foam and Combined Agent Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 15, Water Spray Fixed Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 16, Foam-Water Spray Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 18, Wetting Agents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA No. 26, Supervision of Valves.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.164</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 71, Central Station Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72A, Local Protective Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72B, Auxiliary Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72D, Proprietary Protective Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72E, Automatic Fire Detectors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 101, Life Safety Code.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 71, Central Station Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72A, Local Protective Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72B, Auxiliary Protective Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72C, Remote Station Protective Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 72D, Proprietary Protective Signaling Systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA No. 101, Life Safety Code.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Metric Conversion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/ASTM No. E380, American National Standard for Metric Practice.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">NFPA standards are available from the National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">ANSI Standards are available from the American National Standards Institute, 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60715, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 58 FR 35309, June 30, 1993]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.37.12.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart L of Part 1910—Fire Protection References For Further Information
</HEAD>
<P>I. <I>Appendix general references.</I> The following references provide information which can be helpful in understanding the requirements contained in all of the sections of subpart L:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Fire Protection Handbook,</I> National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Accident Prevention Manual for Industrial Operations,</I> National Safety Council; 425 North Michigan Avenue, Chicago, IL 60611.
</P>
<P>C. Various associations also publish information which may be useful in understanding these standards. Examples of these associations are: Fire Equipment Manufacturers Association (FEMA) of Arlington, VA 22204 and the National Association of Fire Equipment Distributors (NAFED) of Chicago, IL 60601.
</P>
<P>II. <I>Appendix references applicable to individual sections.</I> The following references are grouped according to individual sections contained in subpart L. These references provide information which may be helpful in understanding and implementing the standards of each section of subpart L.
</P>
<P>A. <I>§ 1910.156. Fire brigades:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Private Fire Brigades,</I> NFPA 27; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>2. <I>Initial Fire Attack, Training Standard On,</I> NFPA 197; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications,</I> NFPA 1001; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>4. <I>Organization for Fire Services,</I> NFPA 1201; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>5. <I>Organization of a Fire Department,</I> NFPA 1202; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>6. <I>Protective Clothing for Structural Fire Fighting,</I> ANSI/NFPA 1971; .
</P>
<P>7. <I>American National Standard for Men's Safety-Toe Footwear,</I> ANSI Z41.1; American National Standards Institute, New York, NY 10018.
</P>
<P>8. <I>American National Standard for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection,</I> ANSI Z87.1; American National Standards Institute, New York, NY 10018.
</P>
<P>9. <I>American National Standard, Safety Requirements for Industrial Head Protection,</I> ANSI Z89.1; American National Standards Institute, New York, NY 10018.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Specifications for Protective Headgear for Vehicular Users,</I> ANSI Z90.1; American National Standards Institute, New York, NY 10018.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Testing Physical Fitness;</I> Davis and Santa Maria. <I>Fire Command.</I> April 1975.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Development of a Job-Related Physical Performance Examination for Fire Fighters;</I> Dotson and Others. A summary report for the National Fire Prevention and Control Administration. Washington, DC. March 1977.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Proposed Sample Standards for Fire Fighters' Protective Clothing and Equipment;</I> International Association of Fire Fighters, Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>14. <I>A Study of Facepiece Leakage of Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus by DOP Man Tests;</I> Los Alamos Scientific Laboratory, Los Alamos, NM.
</P>
<P>15. <I>The Development of Criteria for Fire Fighters' Gloves; Vol. II: Glove Criteria and Test Methods;</I> National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Cincinnati, OH. 1976.
</P>
<P>16. <I>Model Performance Criteria for Structural Fire Fighters' Helmets;</I> National Fire Prevention and Control Administration, Washington, DC. 1977.
</P>
<P>17. <I>Firefighters;</I> Job Safety and Health Magazine, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, Washington, DC. June 1978.
</P>
<P>18. <I>Eating Smoke—The Dispensable Diet;</I> Utech, H.P. The Fire Independent, 1975.
</P>
<P>19. <I>Project Monoxide—A Medical Study of an Occupational Hazard of Fire Fighters;</I> International Association of Fire Fighters, Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>20. <I>Occupational Exposures to Carbon Monoxide in Baltimore Firefighters;</I> Radford and Levine. Johns Hopkins University, Baltimore, MD. Journal of Occupational Medicine, September, 1976.
</P>
<P>21. <I>Fire Brigades;</I> National Safety Council, Chicago, IL. 1966.
</P>
<P>22. <I>American National Standard, Practice for Respiratory Protection for the Fire Service;</I> ANSI Z88.5; American National Standards Institute, New York, NY 10018.
</P>
<P>23. <I>Respirator Studies for the Nuclear Regulatory Commission; October 1, 1977—September 30, 1978. Evaluation and Performance of Open Circuit Breathing Apparatus.</I> NU REG/CR-1235. Los Alamos Scientific Laboratory; Los Alamos, NM. 87545, January, 1980.
</P>
<P>B. <I>§ 1910.157. Portable fire extinguishers:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers,</I> ANSI/NFPA 10; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269
</P>
<P>2. <I>Methods for Hydrostatic Testing of Compressed Gas Cylinders,</I> C-1; Compressed Gas Association, 1235 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, VA 22202.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Recommendations for the Disposition of Unserviceable Compressed Gas Cylinders,</I> C-2; Compressed Gas Association, 1235 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, VA 22202.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Standard for Visual Inspection of Compressed Gas Cylinders,</I> C-6; Compressed Gas Association, 1235 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, VA 22202.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Portable Fire Extinguisher Selection Guide,</I> National Association of Fire Equipment Distributors; 111 East Wacker Drive, Chicago, IL 60601.
</P>
<P>C. <I>§ 1910.158. Standpipe and hose systems:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 13; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Standard of the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 14; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Standard for the Installation of Centrifugal Fire Pumps,</I> ANSI/NFPA 20; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Standard for Water Tanks for Private Fire Protection,</I> ANSI/NFPA 22; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Standard for Screw Threads and Gaskets for Fire Hose Connections,</I> ANSI/NFPA 194; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>6. <I>Standard for Fire Hose,</I> NFPA 196; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Standard for the Care of Fire Hose,</I> NFPA 198; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>D. <I>§ 1910.159. Automatic sprinkler systems:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Standard of the Installation of Sprinkler Systems,</I> ANSI-NFPA 13; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Standard for the Care and Maintenance of Sprinkler Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 13A; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 14; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Standard for the Installation of Centrifugal Fire Pumps,</I> ANSI/NFPA 20; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>5. <I>Standard for Water Tanks for Private Fire Protection,</I> ANSI-NFPA 22; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Standard for Indoor General Storage,</I> ANSI/NFPA 231; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Standard for Rack Storage of Materials,</I> ANSI/NFPA 231C; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>E. <I>§ 1910.160. Fixed extinguishing systems—general information:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Standard for Foam Extinguishing Systems,</I> ANSI-NFPA 11; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>2. <I>Standard for Hi-Expansion Foam Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 11A; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>3. <I>Standard on Synthetic Foam and Combined Agent Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 11B; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Standard on Carbon Dioxide Extinguishing Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 12; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>5. <I>Standard on Halon 1301,</I> ANSI/NFPA 12A; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Standard on Halon 1211,</I> ANSI/NFPA 12B; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>7. <I>Standard for Water Spray Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 15; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>8. <I>Standard for Foam-Water Sprinkler Systems and Foam-Water Spray Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 16; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269
</P>
<P>9. <I>Standard for Dry Chemical Extinguishing Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 17; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>F. <I>§ 1910.161. Fixed extinguishing systems—dry chemical:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Standard for Dry Chemical Extinguishing Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 17; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>2. <I>National Electrical Code,</I> ANSI/NFPA 70; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Standard for the Installation of Equipment for the Removal of Smoke and Grease-Laden Vapor from Commercial Cooking Equipment,</I> NFPA 96; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>G. <I>§ 1910.162. Fixed extinguishing systems—gaseous agents:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Standard on Carbon Dioxide Extinguishing Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 12; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>2. <I>Standard on Halon 1301,</I> ANSI/NFPA 12B; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>3. <I>Standard on Halon 1211,</I> ANSI/NFPA 12B; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>4. <I>Standard on Explosion Prevention Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 69; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>5. <I>National Electrical Code,</I> ANSI/NFPA 70; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>6. <I>Standard on Automatic Fire Detectors,</I> ANSI/NFPA 72E; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>7. <I>Determination of Halon 1301/1211 Threshold Extinguishing Concentrations Using the Cup Burner Method;</I> Riley and Olson, Ansul Report AL-530-A.
</P>
<P>H. <I>§ 1910.163. Fixed extinguishing systems—water spray and foam agents:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Standard for Foam Extinguisher Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 11; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>2. <I>Standard for High Expansion Foam Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 11A; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>3. <I>Standard for Water Spray Fixed Systems for Fire Protection,</I> ANSI/NFPA 15; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>4. <I>Standard for the Installation of Foam-Water Sprinkler Systems and Foam-Water Spray Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 16; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>I. <I>§ 1910.164. Fire Detection systems:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>National Electrical Code,</I> ANSI/NFPA 70; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>2. <I>Standard for Central Station Signaling Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 71; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>3. <I>Standard on Automatic Fire Detectors,</I> ANSI/NFPA 72E; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>J. <I>§ 1910.165. Employee alarm systems:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>National Electrical Code,</I> ANSI/NFPA 70; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>2. <I>Standard for Central Station Signaling systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 71; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Standard for Local Protective Signaling Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 72A; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Standard for Auxiliary Protective Signaling Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 72B; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Standard for Remote Station Protective Signaling Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 72C; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269 .
</P>
<P>6. <I>Standard for Proprietary Protective Signaling Systems,</I> ANSI/NFPA 72D; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Vocal Emergency Alarms in Hospitals and Nursing Facilities: Practice and Potential.</I> National Bureau of Standards. Washington, D.C., July 1977.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Fire Alarm and Communication Systems.</I> National Bureau of Standards. Washington, D.C., April 1978.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60715, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 58 FR 35309, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.37.12.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart L of Part 1910—Availability of Publications Incorporated by Reference in Section 1910.156 Fire Brigades
</HEAD>
<P>The final standard for fire brigades, section 1910.156, contains provisions which incorporate certain publications by reference. The publications provide criteria and test methods for protective clothing worn by those fire brigade members who are expected to perform interior structural fire fighting. The standard references the publications as the chief sources of information for determining if the protective clothing affords the required level of protection.
</P>
<P>It is appropriate to note that the final standard does not require employers to purchase a copy of the referenced publications. Instead, employers can specify (in purchase orders to the manufacturers) that the protective clothing meet the criteria and test methods contained in the referenced publications and can rely on the manufacturers' assurances of compliance. Employers, however, may desire to obtain a copy of the referenced publications for their own information.
</P>
<P>The paragraph designation of the standard where the referenced publications appear, the title of the publications, and the availablity of the publications are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Paragraph designation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Referenced publication
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Available from
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.156(e)(3)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Protective Clothing for Structural Fire Fighting,” NFPA No. 1971 (1975)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.156(e)(4)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Development of Criteria for Fire Fighter's Gloves; Vol. II, Part II: Test Methods” (1976)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, D.C. 20402. Stock No. for Vol. II is: 071-033-0201-1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1910.156(e)(5)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Model Performance Criteria for Structural Firefighter's Helmets” (1977)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Fire Administration, National Fire Safety and Research Office, Washington, D.C. 20230.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The referenced publications (or a microfiche of the publications) are available for review at many universities and public libraries throughout the country. These publications may also be examined at the OSHA Technical Data Center, Room N2439-Rear, United States Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave., N.W., Washington, D.C. 20210 (202-219-7500), or at any OSHA Regional Office (see telephone directories under United States Government-Labor Department).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60715, Sept. 12, 1980, as amended at 58 FR 33509, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.12.37.12.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart L of Part 1910—Test Methods for Protective Clothing
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains test methods which must be used to determine if protective clothing affords the required level of protection as specified in § 1910.156, fire brigades.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Puncture resistance test method for foot protection.</I>
</P>
<P>A. <I>Apparatus.</I> The puncture resistance test shall be performed on a testing machine having a movable platform adjusted to travel at 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch/min (0.1 cm/sec). Two blocks of hardwood, metal, or plastic shall be prepared as follows: the blocks shall be of such size and thickness as to insure a suitable rigid test ensemble and allow for at least one-inch of the pointed end of an 8D nail to be exposed for the penetration. One block shall have a hole drilled to hold an 8D common nail firmly at an angle of 98°. The second block shall have a maximum 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch (1.3 cm) diameter hole drilled through it so that the hole will allow free passage of the nail after it penetrates the insole during the test.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Procedure.</I> The test ensemble consisting of the sample unit, the two prepared blocks, a piece of leather outsole 10 to 11 irons thick, and a new 8D nail, shall be placed as follows: the 8D nail in the hole, the sample of outsole stock superimposed above the nail, the area of the sole plate to be tested placed on the outsole, and the second block with hole so placed as to allow for free passage of the nail after it passes through the outsole stock and sole plate in that order. The machine shall be started and the pressure, in pounds required for the nail to completely penetrate the outsole and sole plate, recorded to the nearest five pounds. Two determinations shall be made on each sole plate and the results averaged. A new nail shall be used for each determination.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Source.</I> These test requirements are contained in “Military Specification For Fireman's Boots,” MIL-B-2885D (1973 and amendment dated 1975) and are reproduced for your convenience.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test method for determining the strength of cloth by tearing: Trapezoid Method.</I>
</P>
<P>A. <I>Test specimen.</I> The specimen shall be a rectangle of cloth 3-inches by 6-inches (7.6 cm by 15.2 cm). The long dimension shall be parallel to the warp for warp tests and parallel to the filling for filling tests. No two specimens for warp tests shall contain the same warp yarns, nor shall any two specimens for filling tests contain the same filling yarns. The specimen shall be taken no nearer the selvage than 
<FR>1/10</FR> the width of the cloth. An isosceles trapezoid having an altitude of 3-inches (7.6 cm) and bases of 1 inch (2.5cm) and 4 inches (10.2 cm) in length, respectively, shall be marked on each specimen, preferably with the aid of a template. A cut approximately 
<FR>3/8</FR>-inch (1 cm) in length shall then be made in the center of a perpendicular to the 1-inch (2.5 cm) edge.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Apparatus.</I> (i) Six-ounce (.17 kg) weight tension clamps shall be used so designed that the six ounces (.17 kg) of weight are distributed evenly across the complete width of the sample.
</P>
<P>(ii) The machine shall consist of three main parts: Straining mechanism, clamps for holding specimen, and load and elongation recording mechanisms.
</P>
<P>(iii) A machine wherein the specimen is held between two clamps and strained by a uniform movement of the pulling clamp shall be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) The machine shall be adjusted so that the pulling clamp shall have a uniform speed of 12 ±10.5 inches per minute (0.5 ±.02 cm/sec).
</P>
<P>(v) The machine shall have two clamps with two jaws on each clamp. The design of the two clamps shall be such that one gripping surface or jaw may be an integral part of the rigid frame of the clamp or be fastened to allow a slight vertical movement, while the other gripping surface or jaw shall be completely moveable. The dimension of the immovable jaw of each clamp parallel to the application of the load shall measure one-inch, and the dimension of the jaw perpendicular to this direction shall measure three inches or more. The face of the movable jaw of each clamp shall measure one-inch by three inches.
</P>
<P>Each jaw face shall have a flat smooth, gripping surface. All edges which might cause a cutting action shall be rounded to a radius of not over 
<FR>1/64</FR>-inch (.04 cm). In cases where a cloth tends to slip when being tested, the jaws may be faced with rubber or other material to prevent slippage. The distance between the jaws (gage length) shall be one-inch at the start of the test.
</P>
<P>(vi) Calibrated dial; scale or chart shall be used to indicate applied load and elongation. The machine shall be adjusted or set, so that the maximum load required to break the specimen will remain indicated on the calibrated dial or scale after the test specimen has ruptured.
</P>
<P>(vii) The machine shall be of such capacity that the maximum load required to break the specimen shall be not greater than 85 percent or less than 15 percent of the rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(viii) The error of the machine shall not exceed 2 percent up to and including a 50-pound load (22.6 kg) and 1 percent over a 50-pound load (22.6 kg) at any reading within its loading range.
</P>
<P>(ix) All machine attachments for determining maximum loads shall be disengaged during this test.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Procedure.</I> (i) The specimen shall be clamped in the machine along the nonparallel sides of the trapezoid so that these sides lie along the lower edge of the upper clamp and the upper edge of the lower clamp with the cut halfway between the clamps. The short trapezoid base shall be held taut and the long trapezoid base shall lie in the folds.
</P>
<P>(ii) The machine shall be started and the force necessary to tear the cloth shall be observed by means of an autographic recording device. The speed of the pulling clamp shall be 12 inches ±0.5 inch per minute (0.5 ±.02 cm/sec).
</P>
<P>(iii) If a specimen slips between the jaws, breaks in or at the edges of the jaws, or if for any reason attributable to faulty technique, an individual measurement falls markedly below the average test results for the sample unit, such result shall be discarded and another specimen shall be tested.
</P>
<P>(iv) The tearing strength of the specimen shall be the average of the five highest peak loads of resistance registered for 3 inches (7.6 cm) of separation of the tear.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Report.</I> (i) Five specimens in each of the warp and filling directions shall be tested from each sample unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) The tearing strength of the sample unit shall be the average of the results obtained from the specimens tested in each of the warp and filling directions and shall be reported separately to the nearest 0.1-pound (.05 kg).
</P>
<P>E. <I>Source.</I> These test requirements are contained in “Federal Test Method Standard 191, Method 5136” and are reproduced for your convenience.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Test method for determining flame resistance of cloth; vertical.</I>
</P>
<P>A. <I>Test specimen.</I> The specimen shall be a rectangle of cloth 2
<FR>3/4</FR> inches (7.0 cm) by 12 inches (30.5 cm) with the long dimension parallel to either the warp or filling direction of the cloth. No two warp specimens shall contain the same warp yarns, and no two filling specimens shall contain the same filling yarn.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Number of determinations.</I> Five specimens from each of the warp and filling directions shall be tested from each sample unit.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Apparatus.</I> (i) Cabinet. A cabinet and accessories shall be fabricated in accordance with the requirements specified in Figures L-1, L-2, and L-3. Galvanized sheet metal or other suitable metal shall be used. The entire inside back wall of the cabinet shall be painted black to facilitate the viewing of the test specimen and pilot flame.
</P>
<P>(ii) Burner. The burner shall be equipped with a variable orifice to adjust the flame height, a barrel having a 
<FR>3/8</FR>-inch (1 cm) inside diameter and a pilot light.
</P>
<P>(a) The burner may be constructed by combining a 
<FR>3/8</FR>-inch (1 cm) inside diameter barrel 3 ±
<FR>1/4</FR> inches (7.6 ±.6 cm) long from a fixed orifice burner with a base from a variable orifice burner.
</P>
<P>(b) The pilot light tube shall have a diameter of approximately 
<FR>1/16</FR>-inch (.2 cm) and shall be spaced 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch (.3 cm) away from the burner edge with a pilot flame 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch (.3 cm) long.
</P>
<P>(c) The necessary gas connections and the applicable plumbing shall be as specified in Figure L-4 except that a solenoid valve may be used in lieu of the stopcock valve to which the burner is attached. The stopcock valve or solenoid valve, whichever is used, shall be capable of being fully opened or fully closed in 0.1-second.
</P>
<P>(d) On the side of the barrel of the burner, opposite the pilot light there shall be a metal rod of approximately 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch (.3 cm) diameter spaced 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch (1.3 cm) from the barrel and extending above the burner. The rod shall have two 
<FR>5/16</FR>-inch (.8 cm) prongs marking the distances of 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch (1.9 cm) and 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (3.8 cm) above the top of the burner.
</P>
<P>(e) The burner shall be fixed in a position so that the center of the barrel of the burner is directly below the center of the specimen.
</P>
<P>(iii) There shall be a control valve system with a delivery rate designed to furnish gas to the burner under a pressure of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> ±
<FR>1/4</FR> (psi) (17.5 ±1.8 kPa) per square inch at the burner inlet (see (g)(3)(vi)(A)). The manufacturer's recommended delivery rate for the valve system shall be included in the required pressure.
</P>
<P>(iv) A synthetic gas mixture shall be of the following composition within the following limits (analyzed at standard conditions): 55 ±3 percent hydrogen, 24 ±1 percent methane, 3 ±1 percent ethane, and 18 ±1 percent carbon monoxide which will give a specific gravity of 0.365 ±0.018 (air = 1) and a B.T.U. content of 540 ±20 per cubic foot (20.1 ±3.7 kJ/L)(dry basis) at 69.8 °F (21 °C).
</P>
<P>(v) There shall be metal hooks and weights to produce a series of total loads to determine length of char. The metal hooks shall consist of No. 19 gage steel wire or equivalent and shall be made from 3-inch (7.6 cm) lengths of wire and bent 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch (1.3 cm) from one end to a 45 degree hook. One end of the hook shall be fastened around the neck of the weight to be used.
</P>
<P>(vi) There shall be a stop watch or other device to measure the burning time to 0.2-second.
</P>
<P>(vii) There shall be a scale, graduated in 0.1 inch (.3 cm) to measure the length of char.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Procedure.</I> (i) The material undergoing test shall be evaluated for the characteristics of after-flame time and char length on each specimen.
</P>
<P>(ii) All specimens to be tested shall be at moisture equilibrium under standard atmospheric conditions in accordance with paragraph (3)C of this appendix. Each specimen to be tested shall be exposed to the test flame within 20 seconds after removal from the standard atmosphere. In case of dispute, all testing will be conducted under Standard Atmospheric Conditions in accordance with paragraph (3)C of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(iii) The specimen in its holder shall be suspended vertically in the cabinet in such a manner that the entire length of the specimen is exposed and the lower end is 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch (1.9 cm) above the top of the gas burner. The apparatus shall be set up in a draft free area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior to inserting the specimen, the pilot flame shall be adjusted to approximately 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch (.3 cm) in height measured from its lowest point to the tip.
</P>
<P>The burner flame shall be adjusted by means of the needle valve in the base of the burner to give a flame height of 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (3.8 cm) with the stopcock fully open and the air supply to the burner shut off and taped. The 1
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch (3.8 cm) flame height is obtained by adjusting the valve so that the uppermost portion (tip) of the flame is level with the tip of the metal prong (see Figure L-2) specified for adjustment of flame height. It is an important aspect of the evaluation that the flame height be adjusted with the tip of the flame level with the tip of the metal prong. After inserting the specimen, the stopcock shall be fully opened, and the burner flame applied vertically at the middle of the lower edge of the specimen for 12 seconds and the burner turned off. The cabinet door shall remain shut during testing.
</P>
<P>(v) The after-flame shall be the time the specimen continues to flame after the burner flame is shut off.
</P>
<P>(vi) After each specimen is removed, the test cabinet shall be cleared of fumes and smoke prior to testing the next specimen.
</P>
<P>(vii) After both flaming and glowing have ceased, the char length shall be measured. The char length shall be the distance from the end of the specimen, which was exposed to the flame, to the end of a tear (made lengthwise) of the specimen through the center of the charred area as follows: The specimen shall be folded lengthwise and creased by hand along a line through the highest peak of the charred area. The hook shall be inserted in the specimen (or a hole, 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch (.6 cm) diameter or less, punched out for the hook) at one side of the charred area 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch (.6 cm) from the adjacent outside edge and 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch (.6 cm) in from the lower end. A weight of sufficient size such that the weight and hook together shall equal the total tearing load required in Table L-2 of this section shall be attached to the hook.
</P>
<P>(viii) A tearing force shall be applied gently to the specimen by grasping the corner of the cloth at the opposite edge of the char from the load and raising the specimen and weight clear of the supporting surface. The end of the tear shall be marked off on the edge and the char length measurement made along the undamaged edge.
</P>
<P>Loads for determining char length applicable to the weight of the test cloth shall be as shown in Table L-2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table L-2 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specified weight per square yard of cloth before any fire retardant treatment or coating—ounces
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total tearing weight for determining the charred length—pound
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0 to 6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 6.0 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 15.0 to 23.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 23.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> To change into S.I. (System International) units, 1 ounce = 28.35 grams, 1 pound = 453 grams, 1 yard = .91 metre.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ix) The after-flame time of the specimen shall be recorded to the nearest 0.2-second and the char length to the nearest 0.1-inch (.3 cm).
</P>
<P>E. <I>Report.</I> (i) The after-flame time and char length of the sample unit shall be the average of the results obtained from the individual specimens tested. All values obtained from the individual specimens shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>(ii) The after-flame time shall be reported to the nearest 0.2-second and the char length to the nearest 0.1-inch (.3 cm).
</P>
<P>F. <I>Source.</I> These test requirements are contained in “Federal Test Method Standard 191, Method 5903 (1971)” and are reproduced for your convenience.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.035.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 60715, Sept. 12, 1980; 46 FR 24557, May 1, 1981]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Compressed Gas and Compressed Air Equipment</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), or 1-90 (55 FR 9033), as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§§ 1910.166-1910.168" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.13.37.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1910.166-1910.168   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.169" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.13.37.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.169   Air receivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to compressed air receivers, and other equipment used in providing and utilizing compressed air for performing operations such as cleaning, drilling, hoisting, and chipping. On the other hand, however, this section does not deal with the special problems created by using compressed air to convey materials nor the problems created when men work in compressed air as in tunnels and caissons. This section is not intended to apply to compressed air machinery and equipment used on transportation vehicles such as steam railroad cars, electric railway cars, and automotive equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New and existing equipment.</I> (i) All new air receivers installed after the effective date of these regulations shall be constructed in accordance with the 1968 edition of the A.S.M.E. Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code Section VIII, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) All safety valves used shall be constructed, installed, and maintained in accordance with the A.S.M.E. Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII Edition 1968.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Installation and equipment requirements</I>—(1) <I>Installation.</I> Air receivers shall be so installed that all drains, handholes, and manholes therein are easily accessible. Under no circumstances shall an air receiver be buried underground or located in an inaccessible place.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Drains and traps.</I> A drain pipe and valve shall be installed at the lowest point of every air receiver to provide for the removal of accumulated oil and water. Adequate automatic traps may be installed in addition to drain valves. The drain valve on the air receiver shall be opened and the receiver completely drained frequently and at such intervals as to prevent the accumulation of excessive amounts of liquid in the receiver.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Gages and valves.</I> (i) Every air receiver shall be equipped with an indicating pressure gage (so located as to be readily visible) and with one or more spring-loaded safety valves. The total relieving capacity of such safety valves shall be such as to prevent pressure in the receiver from exceeding the maximum allowable working pressure of the receiver by more than 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) No valve of any type shall be placed between the air receiver and its safety valve or valves.
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety appliances, such as safety valves, indicating devices and controlling devices, shall be constructed, located, and installed so that they cannot be readily rendered inoperative by any means, including the elements.
</P>
<P>(iv) All safety valves shall be tested frequently and at regular intervals to determine whether they are in good operating condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Materials Handling and Storage</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.176" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14.37.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.176   Handling materials—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of mechanical equipment.</I> Where mechanical handling equipment is used, sufficient safe clearances shall be allowed for aisles, at loading docks, through doorways and wherever turns or passage must be made. Aisles and passageways shall be kept clear and in good repair, with no obstruction across or in aisles that could create a hazard. Permanent aisles and passageways shall be appropriately marked.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secure storage.</I> Storage of material shall not create a hazard. Bags, containers, bundles, etc., stored in tiers shall be stacked, blocked, interlocked and limited in height so that they are stable and secure against sliding or collapse.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Housekeeping.</I> Storage areas shall be kept free from accumulation of materials that constitute hazards from tripping, fire, explosion, or pest harborage. Vegetation control will be exercised when necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Clearance limits.</I> Clearance signs to warn of clearance limits shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rolling railroad cars.</I> Derail and/or bumper blocks shall be provided on spur railroad tracks where a rolling car could contact other cars being worked, enter a building, work or traffic area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Guarding.</I> Covers and/or guardrails shall be provided to protect personnel from the hazards of open pits, tanks, vats, ditches, etc.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23052, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49749, Oct. 24, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.177" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14.37.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.177   Servicing multi-piece and single piece rim wheels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section applies to the servicing of multi-piece and single piece rim wheels used on large vehicles such as trucks, tractors, trailers, buses and off-road machines. It does not apply to the servicing of rim wheels used on automobiles, or on pickup trucks and vans utilizing automobile tires or truck tires designated “LT”.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to employers and places of employment regulated under the Longshoring Standards, 29 CFR part 1918; Construction Safety Standards, 29 CFR part 1926; or Agriculture Standards, 29 CFR part 1928.
</P>
<P>(3) All provisions of this section apply to the servicing of both single piece rim wheels and multi-piece rim wheels unless designated otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Barrier</I> means a fence, wall or other structure or object placed between a single piece rim wheel and an employee during tire inflation, to contain the rim wheel components in the event of the sudden release of the contained air of the single piece rim wheel.
</P>
<P><I>Charts</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration publications entitled “Demounting and Mounting Procedures for Tube-Type Truck and Bus Tires,” “Demounting and Mounting Procedures for Tubeless Truck and Bus Tires,” and “Multi-Piece Rim Matching Chart.” These charts may be in manual or poster form. OSHA also will accept any other manual or poster that provides at least the same instructions, safety precautions, and other information contained in these publications, which is applicable to the types of wheels the employer is servicing.
</P>
<P><I>Installing a rim wheel</I> means the transfer and attachment of an assembled rim wheel onto a vehicle axle hub. <I>Removing</I> means the opposite of installing.
</P>
<P><I>Mounting a tire</I> means the assembly or putting together of the wheel and tire components to form a rim wheel, including inflation. <I>Demounting</I> means the opposite of mounting.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-piece rim wheel</I> means the assemblage of a multi-piece wheel with the tire tube and other components.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-piece wheel</I> means a vehicle wheel consisting of two or more parts, one of which is a side or locking ring designed to hold the tire on the wheel by interlocking components when the tire is inflated.
</P>
<P><I>Restraining device</I> means an apparatus such as a cage, rack, assemblage of bars and other components that will constrain all rim wheel components during an explosive separation of a multi-piece rim wheel, or during the sudden release of the contained air of a single piece rim wheel.
</P>
<P><I>Rim manual</I> means a publication containing instructions from the manufacturer or other qualified organization for correct mounting, demounting, maintenance, and safety precautions peculiar to the type of wheel being serviced.
</P>
<P><I>Rim wheel</I> means an assemblage of tire, tube and liner (where appropriate), and wheel components.
</P>
<P><I>Service</I> or <I>servicing</I> means the mounting and demounting of rim wheels, and related activities such as inflating, deflating, installing, removing, and handling.
</P>
<P><I>Service area</I> means that part of an employer's premises used for the servicing of rim wheels, or any other place where an employee services rim wheels.
</P>
<P><I>Single piece rim wheel</I> means the assemblage of single piece rim wheel with the tire and other components.
</P>
<P><I>Single piece wheel</I> means a vehicle wheel consisting of one part, designed to hold the tire on the wheel when the tire is inflated.
</P>
<P><I>Trajectory</I> means any potential path or route that a rim wheel component may travel during an explosive separation, or the sudden release of the pressurized air, or an area at which an airblast from a single piece rim wheel may be released. The trajectory may deviate from paths which are perpendicular to the assembled position of the rim wheel at the time of separation or explosion. (See appendix A for examples of trajectories.)
</P>
<P><I>Wheel</I> means that portion of a rim wheel which provides the method of attachment of the assembly to the axle of a vehicle and also provides the means to contain the inflated portion of the assembly (i.e., the tire and/or tube).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee training.</I> (1) The employer shall provide a program to train all employees who service rim wheels in the hazards involved in servicing those rim wheels and the safety procedures to be followed.
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall assure that no employee services any rim wheel unless the employee has been trained and instructed in correct procedures of servicing the type of wheel being serviced, and in the safe operating procedures described in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information to be used in the training program shall include, at a minimum, the applicable data contained in the charts (rim manuals) and the contents of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where an employer knows or has reason to believe that any of his employees is unable to read and understand the charts or rim manual, the employer shall assure that the employee is instructed concerning the contents of the charts and rim manual in a manner which the employee is able to understand.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that each employee demonstrates and maintains the ability to service rim wheels safely, including performance of the following tasks:
</P>
<P>(i) Demounting of tires (including deflation);
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection and identification of the rim wheel components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Mounting of tires (including inflation with a restraining device or other safeguard required by this section);
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of the restraining device or barrier, and other equipment required by this section;
</P>
<P>(v) Handling of rim wheels;
</P>
<P>(vi) Inflation of the tire when a single piece rim wheel is mounted on a vehicle;
</P>
<P>(vii) An understanding of the necessity of standing outside the trajectory both during inflation of the tire and during inspection of the rim wheel following inflation; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Installation and removal of rim wheels.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall evaluate each employee's ability to perform these tasks and to service rim wheels safely, and shall provide additional training as necessary to assure that each employee maintains his or her proficiency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tire servicing equipment.</I> (1) The employer shall furnish a restraining device for inflating tires on multi-piece wheels.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall provide a restraining device or barrier for inflating tires on single piece wheels unless the rim wheel will be bolted onto a vehicle during inflation.
</P>
<P>(3) Restraining devices and barriers shall comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Each restraining device or barrier shall have the capacity to withstand the maximum force that would be transferred to it during a rim wheel separation occurring at 150 percent of the maximum tire specification pressure for the type of rim wheel being serviced.
</P>
<P>(ii) Restraining devices and barriers shall be capable of preventing the rim wheel components from being thrown outside or beyond the device or barrier for any rim wheel positioned within or behind the device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Restraining devices and barriers shall be visually inspected prior to each day's use and after any separation of the rim wheel components or sudden release of contained air. Any restraining device or barrier exhibiting damage such as the following defects shall be immediately removed from service:
</P>
<P>(A) Cracks at welds;
</P>
<P>(B) Cracked or broken components;
</P>
<P>(C) Bent or sprung components caused by mishandling, abuse, tire explosion or rim wheel separation;
</P>
<P>(D) Pitting of components due to corrosion; or
</P>
<P>(E) Other structural damage which would decrease its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) Restraining devices or barriers removed from service shall not be returned to service until they are repaired and reinspected. Restraining devices or barriers requiring structural repair such as component replacement or rewelding shall not be returned to service until they are certified by either the manufacturer or a Registered Professional Engineer as meeting the strength requirements of paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall furnish and assure that an air line assembly consisting of the following components be used for inflating tires:
</P>
<P>(i) A clip-on chuck;
</P>
<P>(ii) An in-line valve with a pressure gauge or a presettable regulator; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A sufficient length of hose between the clip-on chuck and the in-line valve (if one is used) to allow the employee to stand outside the trajectory.
</P>
<P>(5) Current charts or rim manuals containing instructions for the type of wheels being serviced shall be available in the service area.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall furnish and assure that only tools recommended in the rim manual for the type of wheel being serviced are used to service rim wheels.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Wheel component acceptability.</I> (1) Multi-piece wheel components shall not be interchanged except as provided in the charts or in the applicable rim manual.
</P>
<P>(2) Multi-piece wheel components and single piece wheels shall be inspected prior to assembly. Any wheel or wheel component which is bent out of shape, pitted from corrosion, broken, or cracked shall not be used and shall be marked or tagged unserviceable and removed from the service area. Damaged or leaky valves shall be replaced.
</P>
<P>(3) Rim flanges, rim gutters, rings, bead seating surfaces and the bead areas of tires shall be free of any dirt, surface rust, scale or loose or flaked rubber build-up prior to mounting and inflation.
</P>
<P>(4) The size (bead diameter and tire/wheel widths) and type of both the tire and the wheel shall be checked for compatibility prior to assembly of the rim wheel.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safe operating procedure—multi-piece rim wheels.</I> The employer shall establish a safe operating procedure for servicing multi-piece rim wheels and shall assure that employees are instructed in and follow that procedure. The procedure shall include at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Tires shall be completely deflated before demounting by removal of the valve core.
</P>
<P>(2) Tires shall be completely deflated by removing the valve core before a rim wheel is removed from the axle in either of the following situations:
</P>
<P>(i) When the tire has been driven underinflated at 80% or less of its recommended pressure, or
</P>
<P>(ii) When there is obvious or suspected damage to the tire or wheel components.
</P>
<P>(3) Rubber lubricant shall be applied to bead and rim mating surfaces during assembly of the wheel and inflation of the tire, unless the tire or wheel manufacturer recommends against it.
</P>
<P>(4) If a tire on a vehicle is underinflated but has more than 80% of the recommended pressure, the tire may be inflated while the rim wheel is on the vehicle provided remote control inflation equipment is used, and no employees remain in the trajectory during inflation.
</P>
<P>(5) Tires shall be inflated outside a restraining device only to a pressure sufficient to force the tire bead onto the rim ledge and create an airtight seal with the tire and bead.
</P>
<P>(6) Whenever a rim wheel is in a restraining device the employee shall not rest or lean any part of his body or equipment on or against the restraining device.
</P>
<P>(7) After tire inflation, the tire and wheel components shall be inspected while still within the restraining device to make sure that they are properly seated and locked. If further adjustment to the tire or wheel components is necessary, the tire shall be deflated by removal of the valve core before the adjustment is made.
</P>
<P>(8) No attempt shall be made to correct the seating of side and lock rings by hammering, striking or forcing the components while the tire is pressurized.
</P>
<P>(9) Cracked, broken, bent or otherwise damaged rim components shall not be reworked, welded, brazed, or otherwise heated.
</P>
<P>(10) Whenever multi-piece rim wheels are being handled, employees shall stay out of the trajectory unless the employer can demonstrate that performance of the servicing makes the employee's presence in the trajectory necessary.
</P>
<P>(11) No heat shall be applied to a multi-piece wheel or wheel component.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Safe operating procedure—single piece rim wheels.</I> The employer shall establish a safe operating procedure for servicing single piece rim wheels and shall assure that employees are instructed in and follow that procedure. The procedure shall include at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Tires shall be completely deflated by removal of the valve core before demounting.
</P>
<P>(2) Mounting and demounting of the tire shall be done only from the narrow ledge side of the wheel. Care shall be taken to avoid damaging the tire beads while mounting tires on wheels. Tires shall be mounted only on compatible wheels of matching bead diameter and width.
</P>
<P>(3) Nonflammable rubber lubricant shall be applied to bead and wheel mating surfaces before assembly of the rim wheel, unless the tire or wheel manufacturer recommends against the use of any rubber lubricant.
</P>
<P>(4) If a tire changing machine is used, the tire shall be inflated only to the minimum pressure necessary to force the tire bead onto the rim ledge while on the tire changing machine.
</P>
<P>(5) If a bead expander is used, it shall be removed before the valve core is installed and as soon as the rim wheel becomes airtight (the tire bead slips onto the bead seat).
</P>
<P>(6) Tires may be inflated only when contained within a restraining device, positioned behind a barrier or bolted on the vehicle with the lug nuts fully tightened.
</P>
<P>(7) Tires shall not be inflated when any flat, solid surface is in the trajectory and within one foot of the sidewall.
</P>
<P>(8) Employees shall stay out of the trajectory when inflating a tire.
</P>
<P>(9) Tires shall not be inflated to more than the inflation pressure stamped in the sidewall unless a higher pressure is recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(10) Tires shall not be inflated above the maximum pressure recommended by the manufacturer to seat the tire bead firmly against the rim flange.
</P>
<P>(11) No heat shall be applied to a single piece wheel.
</P>
<P>(12) Cracked, broken, bent, or otherwise damaged wheels shall not be reworked, welded, brazed, or otherwise heated.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.036.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.177—Ordering Information for the OSHA Charts
</HD1>
<P>The information on the OSHA charts is available on three posters, or in a manual containing the three charts, entitled “Demounting and Mounting Procedures for Tubeless Truck and Bus Tires,” “Demounting and Mounting Procedures for Tube-Type Truck and Bus Tires,” and “Multi-piece Rim Matching Chart.” Interested parties can download and print both the manuals and posters from OSHA's Web site at <I>http://www.osha.gov/publications</I> (and type “tire chart” in the search field). However, when used by the employer at a worksite to provide information to employees, the printed posters must be, at a minimum, 2 feet wide and 3 feet long. Copies of the manual also are available from the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA Office of Publications, Room N-3101, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone: (202) 693-1888; or fax: (202) 693-2498).</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 4350, Feb. 3, 1984, as amended at 52 FR 36026, Sept. 25, 1987; 53 FR 34737, Sept. 8, 1988; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996; 76 FR 24698, May 2, 2011; 76 FR 80739, Dec. 27, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.178" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14.37.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.178   Powered industrial trucks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) This section contains safety requirements relating to fire protection, design, maintenance, and use of fork trucks, tractors, platform lift trucks, motorized hand trucks, and other specialized industrial trucks powered by electric motors or internal combustion engines. This section does not apply to compressed air or nonflammable compressed gas-operated industrial trucks, nor to farm vehicles, nor to vehicles intended primarily for earth moving or over-the-road hauling.
</P>
<P>(2) All new powered industrial trucks acquired and used by an employer shall meet the design and construction requirements for powered industrial trucks established in the “American National Standard for Powered Industrial Trucks, Part II, ANSI B56.1-1969”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, except for vehicles intended primarily for earth moving or over-the-road hauling. 
</P>
<P>(3) Approved trucks shall bear a label or some other identifying mark indicating approval by the testing laboratory. See paragraph (a)(7) of this section and paragraph 405 of “American National Standard for Powered Industrial Trucks, Part II, ANSI B56.1-1969”, which is incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and which provides that if the powered industrial truck is accepted by a nationally recognized testing laboratory it should be so marked.
</P>
<P>(4) Modifications and additions which affect capacity and safe operation shall not be performed by the customer or user without manufacturers prior written approval. Capacity, operation, and maintenance instruction plates, tags, or decals shall be changed accordingly.
</P>
<P>(5) If the truck is equipped with front-end attachments other than factory installed attachments, the user shall request that the truck be marked to identify the attachments and show the approximate weight of the truck and attachment combination at maximum elevation with load laterally centered.
</P>
<P>(6) The user shall see that all nameplates and markings are in place and are maintained in a legible condition.
</P>
<P>(7) As used in this section, the term, <I>approved truck</I> or <I>approved industrial truck</I> means a truck that is listed or approved for fire safety purposes for the intended use by a nationally recognized testing laboratory, using nationally recognized testing standards. Refer to § 1910.155(c)(3)(iv)(A) for definition of listed, and to § 1910.7 for definition of nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designations.</I> For the purpose of this standard there are eleven different designations of industrial trucks or tractors as follows: D, DS, DY, E, ES, EE, EX, G, GS, LP, and LPS.
</P>
<P>(1) The D designated units are units similar to the G units except that they are diesel engine powered instead of gasoline engine powered.
</P>
<P>(2) The DS designated units are diesel powered units that are provided with additional safeguards to the exhaust, fuel and electrical systems. They may be used in some locations where a D unit may not be considered suitable.
</P>
<P>(3) The DY designated units are diesel powered units that have all the safeguards of the DS units and in addition do not have any electrical equipment including the ignition and are equipped with temperature limitation features.
</P>
<P>(4) The E designated units are electrically powered units that have minimum acceptable safeguards against inherent fire hazards.
</P>
<P>(5) The ES designated units are electrically powered units that, in addition to all of the requirements for the E units, are provided with additional safeguards to the electrical system to prevent emission of hazardous sparks and to limit surface temperatures. They may be used in some locations where the use of an E unit may not be considered suitable.
</P>
<P>(6) The EE designated units are electrically powered units that have, in addition to all of the requirements for the E and ES units, the electric motors and all other electrical equipment completely enclosed. In certain locations the EE unit may be used where the use of an E and ES unit may not be considered suitable.
</P>
<P>(7) The EX designated units are electrically powered units that differ from the E, ES, or EE units in that the electrical fittings and equipment are so designed, constructed and assembled that the units may be used in certain atmospheres containing flammable vapors or dusts.
</P>
<P>(8) The G designated units are gasoline powered units having minimum acceptable safeguards against inherent fire hazards.
</P>
<P>(9) The GS designated units are gasoline powered units that are provided with additional safeguards to the exhaust, fuel, and electrical systems. They may be used in some locations where the use of a G unit may not be considered suitable.
</P>
<P>(10) The LP designated unit is similar to the G unit except that liquefied petroleum gas is used for fuel instead of gasoline.
</P>
<P>(11) The LPS designated units are liquefied petroleum gas powered units that are provided with additional safeguards to the exhaust, fuel, and electrical systems. They may be used in some locations where the use of an LP unit may not be considered suitable.
</P>
<P>(12) The atmosphere or location shall have been classified as to whether it is hazardous or nonhazardous prior to the consideration of industrial trucks being used therein and the type of industrial truck required shall be as provided in paragraph (d) of this section for such location.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designated locations.</I> (1) The industrial trucks specified under subparagraph (2) of this paragraph are the minimum types required but industrial trucks having greater safeguards may be used if desired.
</P>
<P>(2) For specific areas of use, see Table N-1 which tabulates the information contained in this section. References are to the corresponding classification as used in subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) Power-operated industrial trucks shall not be used in atmospheres containing hazardous concentration of acetylene, butadiene, ethylene oxide, hydrogen (or gases or vapors equivalent in hazard to hydrogen, such as manufactured gas), propylene oxide, acetaldehyde, cyclopropane, diethyl ether, ethylene, isoprene, or unsymmetrical dimethyl hydrazine (UDMH).
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) Power-operated industrial trucks shall not be used in atmospheres containing hazardous concentrations of metal dust, including aluminum, magnesium, and their commercial alloys, other metals of similarly hazardous characteristics, or in atmospheres containing carbon black, coal or coke dust except approved power-operated industrial trucks designated as EX may be used in such atmospheres.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) In atmospheres where dust of magnesium, aluminum or aluminum bronze may be present, fuses, switches, motor controllers, and circuit breakers of trucks shall have enclosures specifically approved for such locations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Only approved power-operated industrial trucks designated as EX may be used in atmospheres containing acetone, acrylonitrile, alcohol, ammonia, benzine, benzol, butane, ethylene dichloride, gasoline, hexane, lacquer solvent vapors, naphtha, natural gas, propane, propylene, styrene, vinyl acetate, vinyl chloride, or xylenes in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures and where such concentrations of these gases or vapors exist continuously, intermittently or periodically under normal operating conditions or may exist frequently because of repair, maintenance operations, leakage, breakdown or faulty operation of equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Power-operated industrial trucks designated as DY, EE, or EX may be used in locations where volatile flammable liquids or flammable gases are handled, processed or used, but in which the hazardous liquids, vapors or gases will normally be confined within closed containers or closed systems from which they can escape only in case of accidental rupture or breakdown of such containers or systems, or in the case of abnormal operation of equipment; also in locations in which hazardous concentrations of gases or vapors are normally prevented by positive mechanical ventilation but which might become hazardous through failure or abnormal operation of the ventilating equipment; or in locations which are adjacent to Class I, Division 1 locations, and to which hazardous concentrations of gases or vapors might occasionally be communicated unless such communication is prevented by adequate positive-pressure ventilation from a source of clear air, and effective safeguards against ventilation failure are provided.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table N-1—Summary Table on Use of Industrial Trucks in Various Locations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Classes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unclassified
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class I locations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class II locations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class III locations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Description of classes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Locations not possessing atmospheres as described in other columns</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Locations in which flammable gases or vapors are, or may be, present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitible mixtures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Locations which are hazardous because of the presence of combustible dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Locations where easily ignitible fibers or flyings are present but not likely to be in suspension in quantities sufficient to produce ignitible mixtures.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Groups in classes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">None
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">G
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">None
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Examples of locations or atmospheres in classes and groups</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piers and wharves inside and outside general storage, general industrial or commercial properties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Acetylene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydrogen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ethyl ether</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gasoline
<br/>Naphtha
<br/>Alcohols
<br/>Acetone
<br/>Lacquer solvent
<br/>Benzene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metal dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carbon black coal dust, coke dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grain dust, flour dust, starch dust, organic dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Baled waste, cocoa fiber, cotton, excelsior, hemp, istle, jute, kapok, oakum, sisal, Spanish moss, synthetic fibers, tow.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table N-1—Summary Table on Use of Industrial Trucks in Various Locations—Continued
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Divisions (nature of hazardous conditions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above condition exists continuously, intermittently, or periodically under normal operating conditions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above condition may occur accidentally as due to a puncture of a storage drum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Explosive mixture may be present under normal operating conditions, or where failure of equipment may cause the condition to exist simultaneously with arcing or sparking of electrical equipment, or where dusts of an electrically conducting nature may be present</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Explosive mixture not normally present, but where deposits of dust may cause heat rise in electrical equipment, or where such deposits may be ignited by arcs or sparks from electrical equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Locations in which easily ignitible fibers or materials producing combustible flyings are handled, manufactured, or used</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Locations in which easily ignitible fibers are stored or handled (except in the process of manufacture).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="18" scope="col">Authorized uses of trucks by types in groups of classes and divisions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Groups in classes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">None
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">G
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">G
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">None
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">None
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Type of truck authorized:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diesel:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D**</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type DS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type DY</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DY</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DY</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DY</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DY
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Electric:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E**</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type ES</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ES</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ES</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ES
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type EE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EE
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type EX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EX</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EX
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Gasoline:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type G</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">G**</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type GS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">GS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">GS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">GS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">LP-Gas:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type LP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">LP**</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type LPS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">LPS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">LPS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">LPS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paragraph Ref. in No. 505</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">210.211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">201
<br/>(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">203
<br/>(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">209
<br/>(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">204
<br/>(a),
<br/>(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">202
<br/>(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">205
<br/>(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">209
<br/>(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">206
<br/>(a),
<br/>(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">207(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">208 (a)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">**Trucks conforming to these types may also be used—see subdivision (c)(2)(x) and (c)(2)(xii) of this section.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) In locations used for the storage of hazardous liquids in sealed containers or liquefied or compressed gases in containers, approved power-operated industrial trucks designated as DS, ES, GS, or LPS may be used. This classification includes locations where volatile flammable liquids or flammable gases or vapors are used, but which, would become hazardous only in case of an accident or of some unusual operating condition. The quantity of hazardous material that might escape in case of accident, the adequacy of ventilating equipment, the total area involved, and the record of the industry or business with respect to explosions or fires are all factors that should receive consideration in determining whether or not the DS or DY, ES, EE, GS, LPS designated truck possesses sufficient safeguards for the location. Piping without valves, checks, meters and similar devices would not ordinarily be deemed to introduce a hazardous condition even though used for hazardous liquids or gases. Locations used for the storage of hazardous liquids or of liquified or compressed gases in sealed containers would not normally be considered hazardous unless subject to other hazardous conditions also.
</P>
<P>(vi)(<I>a</I>) Only approved power operated industrial trucks designated as EX shall be used in atmospheres in which combustible dust is or may be in suspension continuously, intermittently, or periodically under normal operating conditions, in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, or where mechanical failure or abnormal operation of machinery or equipment might cause such mixtures to be produced.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The EX classification usually includes the working areas of grain handling and storage plants, room containing grinders or pulverizers, cleaners, graders, scalpers, open conveyors or spouts, open bins or hoppers, mixers, or blenders, automatic or hopper scales, packing machinery, elevator heads and boots, stock distributors, dust and stock collectors (except all-metal collectors vented to the outside), and all similar dust producing machinery and equipment in grain processing plants, starch plants, sugar pulverizing plants, malting plants, hay grinding plants, and other occupancies of similar nature; coal pulverizing plants (except where the pulverizing equipment is essentially dust tight); all working areas where metal dusts and powders are produced, processed, handled, packed, or stored (except in tight containers); and other similar locations where combustible dust may, under normal operating conditions, be present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Only approved power-operated industrial trucks designated as DY, EE, or EX shall be used in atmospheres in which combustible dust will not normally be in suspension in the air or will not be likely to be thrown into suspension by the normal operation of equipment or apparatus in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures but where deposits or accumulations of such dust may be ignited by arcs or sparks originating in the truck.
</P>
<P>(viii) Only approved power-operated industrial trucks designated as DY, EE, or EX shall be used in locations which are hazardous because of the presence of easily ignitable fibers or flyings but in which such fibers or flyings are not likely to be in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce ignitable mixtures.
</P>
<P>(ix) Only approved power-operated industrial trucks designated as DS, DY, ES, EE, EX, GS, or LPS shall be used in locations where easily ignitable fibers are stored or handled, including outside storage, but are not being processed or manufactured. Industrial trucks designated as E, which have been previously used in these locations may be continued in use.
</P>
<P>(x) On piers and wharves handling general cargo, any approved power-operated industrial truck designated as Type D, E, G, or LP may be used, or trucks which conform to the requirements for these types may be used.
</P>
<P>(xi) If storage warehouses and outside storage locations are hazardous only the approved power-operated industrial truck specified for such locations in this paragraph (c)(2) shall be used. If not classified as hazardous, any approved power-operated industrial truck designated as Type D, E, G, or LP may be used, or trucks which conform to the requirements for these types may be used.
</P>
<P>(xii) If general industrial or commercial properties are hazardous, only approved power-operated industrial trucks specified for such locations in this paragraph (c)(2) shall be used. If not classified as hazardous, any approved power-operated industrial truck designated as Type D, E, G, or LP may be used, or trucks which conform to the requirements of these types may be used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Converted industrial trucks.</I> Power-operated industrial trucks that have been originally approved for the use of gasoline for fuel, when converted to the use of liquefied petroleum gas fuel in accordance with paragraph (q) of this section, may be used in those locations where G, GS or LP, and LPS designated trucks have been specified in the preceding paragraphs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Safety guards.</I> (1) High Lift Rider trucks shall be fitted with an overhead guard manufactured in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless operating conditions do not permit.
</P>
<P>(2) If the type of load presents a hazard, the user shall equip fork trucks with a vertical load backrest extension manufactured in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fuel handling and storage.</I> (1) The storage and handling of liquid fuels such as gasoline and diesel fuel shall be in accordance with NFPA Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code (NFPA No. 30-1969), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) The storage and handling of liquefied petroleum gas fuel shall be in accordance with NFPA Storage and Handling of Liquefied Petroleum Gases (NFPA No. 58-1969), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Changing and charging storage batteries.</I> (1) Battery charging installations shall be located in areas designated for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) Facilities shall be provided for flushing and neutralizing spilled electrolyte, for fire protection, for protecting charging apparatus from damage by trucks, and for adequate ventilation for dispersal of fumes from gassing batteries.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) A conveyor, overhead hoist, or equivalent material handling equipment shall be provided for handling batteries.
</P>
<P>(5) Reinstalled batteries shall be properly positioned and secured in the truck.
</P>
<P>(6) A carboy tilter or siphon shall be provided for handling electrolyte.
</P>
<P>(7) When charging batteries, acid shall be poured into water; water shall not be poured into acid.
</P>
<P>(8) Trucks shall be properly positioned and brake applied before attempting to change or charge batteries.
</P>
<P>(9) Care shall be taken to assure that vent caps are functioning. The battery (or compartment) cover(s) shall be open to dissipate heat.
</P>
<P>(10) Smoking shall be prohibited in the charging area.
</P>
<P>(11) Precautions shall be taken to prevent open flames, sparks, or electric arcs in battery charging areas.
</P>
<P>(12) Tools and other metallic objects shall be kept away from the top of uncovered batteries.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Lighting for operating areas.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Where general lighting is less than 2 lumens per square foot, auxiliary directional lighting shall be provided on the truck.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Control of noxious gases and fumes.</I> (1) Concentration levels of carbon monoxide gas created by powered industrial truck operations shall not exceed the levels specified in § 1910.1000.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dockboards (bridge plates).</I> See subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Trucks and railroad cars.</I> (1) The brakes of highway trucks shall be set and wheel chocks placed under the rear wheels to prevent the trucks from rolling while they are boarded with powered industrial trucks.
</P>
<P>(2) Wheel stops or other recognized positive protection shall be provided to prevent railroad cars from moving during loading or unloading operations.
</P>
<P>(3) Fixed jacks may be necessary to support a semitrailer and prevent upending during the loading or unloading when the trailer is not coupled to a tractor.
</P>
<P>(4) Positive protection shall be provided to prevent railroad cars from being moved while dockboards or bridge plates are in position.
</P>
<P>(l) Operator training. (1) <I>Safe operation.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that each powered industrial truck operator is competent to operate a powered industrial truck safely, as demonstrated by the successful completion of the training and evaluation specified in this paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to permitting an employee to operate a powered industrial truck (except for training purposes), the employer shall ensure that each operator has successfully completed the training required by this paragraph (l), except as permitted by paragraph (l)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training program implementation.</I> (i) Trainees may operate a powered industrial truck only:
</P>
<P>(A) Under the direct supervision of persons who have the knowledge, training, and experience to train operators and evaluate their competence; and
</P>
<P>(B) Where such operation does not endanger the trainee or other employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training shall consist of a combination of formal instruction (e.g., lecture, discussion, interactive computer learning, video tape, written material), practical training (demonstrations performed by the trainer and practical exercises performed by the trainee), and evaluation of the operator's performance in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iii) All operator training and evaluation shall be conducted by persons who have the knowledge, training, and experience to train powered industrial truck operators and evaluate their competence.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Training program content.</I> Powered industrial truck operators shall receive initial training in the following topics, except in topics which the employer can demonstrate are not applicable to safe operation of the truck in the employer's workplace.
</P>
<P>(i) Truck-related topics:
</P>
<P>(A) Operating instructions, warnings, and precautions for the types of truck the operator will be authorized to operate;
</P>
<P>(B) Differences between the truck and the automobile;
</P>
<P>(C) Truck controls and instrumentation: where they are located, what they do, and how they work;
</P>
<P>(D) Engine or motor operation;
</P>
<P>(E) Steering and maneuvering;
</P>
<P>(F) Visibility (including restrictions due to loading);
</P>
<P>(G) Fork and attachment adaptation, operation, and use limitations;
</P>
<P>(H) Vehicle capacity;
</P>
<P>(I) Vehicle stability;
</P>
<P>(J) Any vehicle inspection and maintenance that the operator will be required to perform;
</P>
<P>(K) Refueling and/or charging and recharging of batteries;
</P>
<P>(L) Operating limitations;
</P>
<P>(M) Any other operating instructions, warnings, or precautions listed in the operator's manual for the types of vehicle that the employee is being trained to operate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Workplace-related topics:
</P>
<P>(A) Surface conditions where the vehicle will be operated;
</P>
<P>(B) Composition of loads to be carried and load stability;
</P>
<P>(C) Load manipulation, stacking, and unstacking;
</P>
<P>(D) Pedestrian traffic in areas where the vehicle will be operated;
</P>
<P>(E) Narrow aisles and other restricted places where the vehicle will be operated;
</P>
<P>(F) Hazardous (classified) locations where the vehicle will be operated;
</P>
<P>(G) Ramps and other sloped surfaces that could affect the vehicle's stability;
</P>
<P>(H) Closed environments and other areas where insufficient ventilation or poor vehicle maintenance could cause a buildup of carbon monoxide or diesel exhaust;
</P>
<P>(I) Other unique or potentially hazardous environmental conditions in the workplace that could affect safe operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Refresher training and evaluation.</I> (i) Refresher training, including an evaluation of the effectiveness of that training, shall be conducted as required by paragraph (l)(4)(ii) to ensure that the operator has the knowledge and skills needed to operate the powered industrial truck safely.
</P>
<P>(ii) Refresher training in relevant topics shall be provided to the operator when:
</P>
<P>(A) The operator has been observed to operate the vehicle in an unsafe manner;
</P>
<P>(B) The operator has been involved in an accident or near-miss incident;
</P>
<P>(C) The operator has received an evaluation that reveals that the operator is not operating the truck safely;
</P>
<P>(D) The operator is assigned to drive a different type of truck; or
</P>
<P>(E) A condition in the workplace changes in a manner that could affect safe operation of the truck.
</P>
<P>(iii) An evaluation of each powered industrial truck operator's performance shall be conducted at least once every three years.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Avoidance of duplicative training.</I> If an operator has previously received training in a topic specified in paragraph (l)(3) of this section, and such training is appropriate to the truck and working conditions encountered, additional training in that topic is not required if the operator has been evaluated and found competent to operate the truck safely.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Certification.</I> The employer shall certify that each operator has been trained and evaluated as required by this paragraph (l). The certification shall include the name of the operator, the date of the training, the date of the evaluation, and the identity of the person(s) performing the training or evaluation.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Dates.</I> The employer shall ensure that operators of powered industrial trucks are trained, as appropriate, by the dates shown in the following table.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the employee was hired:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The initial training and evaluation of that employee must be completed:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Before December 1, 1999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">By December 1, 1999.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">After December 1, 1999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before the employee is assigned to operate a powered industrial truck.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) Appendix A to this section provides non-mandatory guidance to assist employers in implementing this paragraph (l). This appendix does not add to, alter, or reduce the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Truck operations.</I> (1) Trucks shall not be driven up to anyone standing in front of a bench or other fixed object.
</P>
<P>(2) No person shall be allowed to stand or pass under the elevated portion of any truck, whether loaded or empty.
</P>
<P>(3) Unauthorized personnel shall not be permitted to ride on powered industrial trucks. A safe place to ride shall be provided where riding of trucks is authorized.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall prohibit arms or legs from being placed between the uprights of the mast or outside the running lines of the truck.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) When a powered industrial truck is left unattended, load engaging means shall be fully lowered, controls shall be neutralized, power shall be shut off, and brakes set. Wheels shall be blocked if the truck is parked on an incline.
</P>
<P>(ii) A powered industrial truck is unattended when the operator is 25 ft. or more away from the vehicle which remains in his view, or whenever the operator leaves the vehicle and it is not in his view.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the operator of an industrial truck is dismounted and within 25 ft. of the truck still in his view, the load engaging means shall be fully lowered, controls neutralized, and the brakes set to prevent movement.
</P>
<P>(6) A safe distance shall be maintained from the edge of ramps or platforms while on any elevated dock, or platform or freight car. Trucks shall not be used for opening or closing freight doors.
</P>
<P>(7) Brakes shall be set and wheel blocks shall be in place to prevent movement of trucks, trailers, or railroad cars while loading or unloading. Fixed jacks may be necessary to support a semitrailer during loading or unloading when the trailer is not coupled to a tractor. The flooring of trucks, trailers, and railroad cars shall be checked for breaks and weakness before they are driven onto.
</P>
<P>(8) There shall be sufficient headroom under overhead installations, lights, pipes, sprinkler system, etc.
</P>
<P>(9) An overhead guard shall be used as protection against falling objects. It should be noted that an overhead guard is intended to offer protection from the impact of small packages, boxes, bagged material, etc., representative of the job application, but not to withstand the impact of a falling capacity load.
</P>
<P>(10) A load backrest extension shall be used whenever necessary to minimize the possibility of the load or part of it from falling rearward.
</P>
<P>(11) Only approved industrial trucks shall be used in hazardous locations.
</P>
<P>(12)-(13) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(14) Fire aisles, access to stairways, and fire equipment shall be kept clear.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Traveling.</I> (1) All traffic regulations shall be observed, including authorized plant speed limits. A safe distance shall be maintained approximately three truck lengths from the truck ahead, and the truck shall be kept under control at all times.
</P>
<P>(2) The right of way shall be yielded to ambulances, fire trucks, or other vehicles in emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(3) Other trucks traveling in the same direction at intersections, blind spots, or other dangerous locations shall not be passed.
</P>
<P>(4) The driver shall be required to slow down and sound the horn at cross aisles and other locations where vision is obstructed. If the load being carried obstructs forward view, the driver shall be required to travel with the load trailing.
</P>
<P>(5) Railroad tracks shall be crossed diagonally wherever possible. Parking closer than 8 feet from the center of railroad tracks is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(6) The driver shall be required to look in the direction of, and keep a clear view of the path of travel.
</P>
<P>(7) Grades shall be ascended or descended slowly.
</P>
<P>(i) When ascending or descending grades in excess of 10 percent, loaded trucks shall be driven with the load upgrade.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) On all grades the load and load engaging means shall be tilted back if applicable, and raised only as far as necessary to clear the road surface.
</P>
<P>(8) Under all travel conditions the truck shall be operated at a speed that will permit it to be brought to a stop in a safe manner.
</P>
<P>(9) Stunt driving and horseplay shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(10) The driver shall be required to slow down for wet and slippery floors.
</P>
<P>(11) Dockboard or bridgeplates, shall be properly secured before they are driven over. Dockboard or bridgeplates shall be driven over carefully and slowly and their rated capacity never exceeded.
</P>
<P>(12) Elevators shall be approached slowly, and then entered squarely after the elevator car is properly leveled. Once on the elevator, the controls shall be neutralized, power shut off, and the brakes set.
</P>
<P>(13) Motorized hand trucks must enter elevator or other confined areas with load end forward.
</P>
<P>(14) Running over loose objects on the roadway surface shall be avoided.
</P>
<P>(15) While negotiating turns, speed shall be reduced to a safe level by means of turning the hand steering wheel in a smooth, sweeping motion. Except when maneuvering at a very low speed, the hand steering wheel shall be turned at a moderate, even rate.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Loading.</I> (1) Only stable or safely arranged loads shall be handled. Caution shall be exercised when handling off-center loads which cannot be centered.
</P>
<P>(2) Only loads within the rated capacity of the truck shall be handled.
</P>
<P>(3) The long or high (including multiple-tiered) loads which may affect capacity shall be adjusted.
</P>
<P>(4) Trucks equipped with attachments shall be operated as partially loaded trucks when not handling a load.
</P>
<P>(5) A load engaging means shall be placed under the load as far as possible; the mast shall be carefully tilted backward to stabilize the load.
</P>
<P>(6) Extreme care shall be used when tilting the load forward or backward, particularly when high tiering. Tilting forward with load engaging means elevated shall be prohibited except to pick up a load. An elevated load shall not be tilted forward except when the load is in a deposit position over a rack or stack. When stacking or tiering, only enough backward tilt to stabilize the load shall be used.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Operation of the truck.</I> (1) If at any time a powered industrial truck is found to be in need of repair, defective, or in any way unsafe, the truck shall be taken out of service until it has been restored to safe operating condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Fuel tanks shall not be filled while the engine is running. Spillage shall be avoided.
</P>
<P>(3) Spillage of oil or fuel shall be carefully washed away or completely evaporated and the fuel tank cap replaced before restarting engine.
</P>
<P>(4) No truck shall be operated with a leak in the fuel system until the leak has been corrected.
</P>
<P>(5) Open flames shall not be used for checking electrolyte level in storage batteries or gasoline level in fuel tanks.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Maintenance of industrial trucks.</I> (1) Any power-operated industrial truck not in safe operating condition shall be removed from service. All repairs shall be made by authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) No repairs shall be made in Class I, II, and III locations.
</P>
<P>(3) Those repairs to the fuel and ignition systems of industrial trucks which involve fire hazards shall be conducted only in locations designated for such repairs.
</P>
<P>(4) Trucks in need of repairs to the electrical system shall have the battery disconnected prior to such repairs.
</P>
<P>(5) All parts of any such industrial truck requiring replacement shall be replaced only by parts equivalent as to safety with those used in the original design.
</P>
<P>(6) Industrial trucks shall not be altered so that the relative positions of the various parts are different from what they were when originally received from the manufacturer, nor shall they be altered either by the addition of extra parts not provided by the manufacturer or by the elimination of any parts, except as provided in paragraph (q)(12) of this section. Additional counterweighting of fork trucks shall not be done unless approved by the truck manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(7) Industrial trucks shall be examined before being placed in service, and shall not be placed in service if the examination shows any condition adversely affecting the safety of the vehicle. Such examination shall be made at least daily.
</P>
<FP>Where industrial trucks are used on a round-the-clock basis, they shall be examined after each shift. Defects when found shall be immediately reported and corrected.
</FP>
<P>(8) Water mufflers shall be filled daily or as frequently as is necessary to prevent depletion of the supply of water below 75 percent of the filled capacity. Vehicles with mufflers having screens or other parts that may become clogged shall not be operated while such screens or parts are clogged. Any vehicle that emits hazardous sparks or flames from the exhaust system shall immediately be removed from service, and not returned to service until the cause for the emission of such sparks and flames has been eliminated.
</P>
<P>(9) When the temperature of any part of any truck is found to be in excess of its normal operating temperature, thus creating a hazardous condition, the vehicle shall be removed from service and not returned to service until the cause for such overheating has been eliminated.
</P>
<P>(10) Industrial trucks shall be kept in a clean condition, free of lint, excess oil, and grease. Noncombustible agents should be used for cleaning trucks. Low flash point (below 100 °F.) solvents shall not be used. High flash point (at or above 100 °F.) solvents may be used. Precautions regarding toxicity, ventilation, and fire hazard shall be consonant with the agent or solvent used.
</P>
<P>(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) Industrial trucks originally approved for the use of gasoline for fuel may be converted to liquefied petroleum gas fuel provided the complete conversion results in a truck which embodies the features specified for LP or LPS designated trucks. Such conversion equipment shall be approved. The description of the component parts of this conversion system and the recommended method of installation on specific trucks are contained in the “Listed by Report.”
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.178—Stability of Powered Industrial Trucks (Non-mandatory Appendix to Paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>) of This Section)
</HD1>
<P><I>A-1. Definitions.</I> The following definitions help to explain the principle of stability:
</P>
<P><I>Center of gravity</I> is the point on an object at which all of the object's weight is concentrated. For symmetrical loads, the center of gravity is at the middle of the load.
</P>
<P><I>Counterweight</I> is the weight that is built into the truck's basic structure and is used to offset the load's weight and to maximize the vehicle's resistance to tipping over.
</P>
<P><I>Fulcrum</I> is the truck's axis of rotation when it tips over.
</P>
<P><I>Grade</I> is the slope of a surface, which is usually measured as the number of feet of rise or fall over a hundred foot horizontal distance (the slope is expressed as a percent).
</P>
<P><I>Lateral stability</I> is a truck's resistance to overturning sideways.
</P>
<P><I>Line of action</I> is an imaginary vertical line through an object's center of gravity.
</P>
<P><I>Load center</I> is the horizontal distance from the load's edge (or the fork's or other attachment's vertical face) to the line of action through the load's center of gravity.
</P>
<P><I>Longitudinal stability</I> is the truck's resistance to overturning forward or rearward.
</P>
<P><I>Moment</I> is the product of the object's weight times the distance from a fixed point (usually the fulcrum). In the case of a powered industrial truck, the distance is measured from the point at which the truck will tip over to the object's line of action. The distance is always measured perpendicular to the line of action.
</P>
<P><I>Track</I> is the distance between the wheels on the same axle of the truck.
</P>
<P><I>Wheelbase</I> is the distance between the centerline of the vehicle's front and rear wheels.
</P>
<P>A-2. <I>General.</I>
</P>
<P>A-2.1. Determining the stability of a powered industrial truck is simple once a few basic principles are understood. There are many factors that contribute to a vehicle's stability: the vehicle's wheelbase, track, and height; the load's weight distribution; and the vehicle's counterweight location (if the vehicle is so equipped).
</P>
<P>A-2.2. The “stability triangle,” used in most stability discussions, demonstrates stability simply.
</P>
<P>A-3. <I>Basic Principles.</I>
</P>
<P>A-3.1. Whether an object is stable depends on the object's moment at one end of a system being greater than, equal to, or smaller than the object's moment at the system's other end. This principle can be seen in the way a see-saw or teeter-totter works: that is, if the product of the load and distance from the fulcrum (moment) is equal to the moment at the device's other end, the device is balanced and it will not move. However, if there is a greater moment at one end of the device, the device will try to move downward at the end with the greater moment.
</P>
<P>A-3.2. The longitudinal stability of a counterbalanced powered industrial truck depends on the vehicle's moment and the load's moment. In other words, if the mathematic product of the load moment (the distance from the front wheels, the approximate point at which the vehicle would tip forward) to the load's center of gravity times the load's weight is less than the vehicle's moment, the system is balanced and will not tip forward. However, if the load's moment is greater than the vehicle's moment, the greater load-moment will force the truck to tip forward.
</P>
<P>A-4. <I>The Stability Triangle.</I>
</P>
<P>A-4.1. Almost all counterbalanced powered industrial trucks have a three-point suspension system, that is, the vehicle is supported at three points. This is true even if the vehicle has four wheels. The truck's steer axle is attached to the truck by a pivot pin in the axle's center. When the points are connected with imaginary lines, this three-point support forms a triangle called the stability triangle. Figure 1 depicts the stability triangle.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01de98.002.gif"/>
<P>A-4.2. When the vehicle's line of action, or load center, falls within the stability triangle, the vehicle is stable and will not tip over. However, when the vehicle's line of action or the vehicle/load combination falls outside the stability triangle, the vehicle is unstable and may tip over. (See Figure 2.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01de98.003.gif"/>
<P>A-5. <I>Longitudinal Stability.</I>
</P>
<P>A-5.1. The axis of rotation when a truck tips forward is the front wheels' points of contact with the pavement. When a powered industrial truck tips forward, the truck will rotate about this line. When a truck is stable, the vehicle-moment must exceed the load-moment. As long as the vehicle-moment is equal to or exceeds the load-moment, the vehicle will not tip over. On the other hand, if the load moment slightly exceeds the vehicle-moment, the truck will begin to tip forward, thereby causing the rear to lose contact with the floor or ground and resulting in loss of steering control. If the load-moment greatly exceeds the vehicle moment, the truck will tip forward.
</P>
<P>A-5.2. To determine the maximum safe load-moment, the truck manufacturer normally rates the truck at a maximum load at a given distance from the front face of the forks. The specified distance from the front face of the forks to the line of action of the load is commonly called the load center. Because larger trucks normally handle loads that are physically larger, these vehicles have greater load centers. Trucks with a capacity of 30,000 pounds or less are normally rated at a given load weight at a 24-inch load center. Trucks with a capacity greater than 30,000 pounds are normally rated at a given load weight at a 36- or 48-inch load center. To safely operate the vehicle, the operator should always check the data plate to determine the maximum allowable weight at the rated load center.
</P>
<P>A-5.3. Although the true load-moment distance is measured from the front wheels, this distance is greater than the distance from the front face of the forks. Calculating the maximum allowable load-moment using the load-center distance always provides a lower load-moment than the truck was designed to handle. When handling unusual loads, such as those that are larger than 48 inches long (the center of gravity is greater than 24 inches) or that have an offset center of gravity, etc., a maximum allowable load-moment should be calculated and used to determine whether a load can be safely handled. For example, if an operator is operating a 3000 pound capacity truck (with a 24-inch load center), the maximum allowable load-moment is 72,000 inch-pounds (3,000 times 24). If a load is 60 inches long (30-inch load center), then the maximum that this load can weigh is 2,400 pounds (72,000 divided by 30).
</P>
<P>A-6. <I>Lateral Stability.</I>
</P>
<P>A-6.1. The vehicle's lateral stability is determined by the line of action's position (a vertical line that passes through the combined vehicle's and load's center of gravity) relative to the stability triangle. When the vehicle is not loaded, the truck's center of gravity location is the only factor to be considered in determining the truck's stability. As long as the line of action of the combined vehicle's and load's center of gravity falls within the stability triangle, the truck is stable and will not tip over. However, if the line of action falls outside the stability triangle, the truck is not stable and may tip over. Refer to Figure 2.
</P>
<P>A-6.2. Factors that affect the vehicle's lateral stability include the load's placement on the truck, the height of the load above the surface on which the vehicle is operating, and the vehicle's degree of lean.
</P>
<P>A-7. <I>Dynamic Stability.</I>
</P>
<P>A-7.1. Up to this point, the stability of a powered industrial truck has been discussed without considering the dynamic forces that result when the vehicle and load are put into motion. The weight's transfer and the resultant shift in the center of gravity due to the dynamic forces created when the machine is moving, braking, cornering, lifting, tilting, and lowering loads, etc., are important stability considerations.
</P>
<P>A-7.2. When determining whether a load can be safely handled, the operator should exercise extra caution when handling loads that cause the vehicle to approach its maximum design characteristics. For example, if an operator must handle a maximum load, the load should be carried at the lowest position possible, the truck should be accelerated slowly and evenly, and the forks should be tilted forward cautiously. However, no precise rules can be formulated to cover all of these eventualities.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 23073, May 28, 1975; 43 FR 49749, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 53 FR 12122, Apr. 12, 1988; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 66270, Dec. 1, 1998; 68 FR 32638, June 2, 2003; 71 FR 16672, Apr. 3, 2006; 81 FR 83005, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.179" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14.37.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.179   Overhead and gantry cranes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section.</I> (1) A <I>crane</I> is a machine for lifting and lowering a load and moving it horizontally, with the hoisting mechanism an integral part of the machine. Cranes whether fixed or mobile are driven manually or by power.
</P>
<P>(2) An <I>automatic crane</I> is a crane which when activated operates through a preset cycle or cycles.
</P>
<P>(3) A <I>cab-operated crane</I> is a crane controlled by an operator in a cab located on the bridge or trolley.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cantilever gantry crane</I> means a gantry or semigantry crane in which the bridge girders or trusses extend transversely beyond the crane runway on one or both sides.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Floor-operated crane</I> means a crane which is pendant or nonconductive rope controlled by an operator on the floor or an independent platform.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Gantry crane</I> means a crane similar to an overhead crane except that the bridge for carrying the trolley or trolleys is rigidly supported on two or more legs running on fixed rails or other runway.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Hot metal handling crane</I> means an overhead crane used for transporting or pouring molten material.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Overhead crane</I> means a crane with a movable bridge carrying a movable or fixed hoisting mechanism and traveling on an overhead fixed runway structure.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Power-operated crane</I> means a crane whose mechanism is driven by electric, air, hydraulic, or internal combustion means.
</P>
<P>(10) A <I>pulpit-operated crane</I> is a crane operated from a fixed operator station not attached to the crane.
</P>
<P>(11) A <I>remote-operated crane</I> is a crane controlled by an operator not in a pulpit or in the cab attached to the crane, by any method other than pendant or rope control.
</P>
<P>(12) A <I>semigantry crane</I> is a gantry crane with one end of the bridge rigidly supported on one or more legs that run on a fixed rail or runway, the other end of the bridge being supported by a truck running on an elevated rail or runway.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Storage bridge crane</I> means a gantry type crane of long span usually used for bulk storage of material; the bridge girders or trusses are rigidly or nonrigidly supported on one or more legs. It may have one or more fixed or hinged cantilever ends.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Wall crane</I> means a crane having a jib with or without trolley and supported from a side wall or line of columns of a building. It is a traveling type and operates on a runway attached to the side wall or columns.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Appointed</I> means assigned specific responsibilities by the employer or the employer's representative.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>ANSI</I> means the American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P>(17) An <I>auxiliary hoist</I> is a supplemental hoisting unit of lighter capacity and usually higher speed than provided for the main hoist.
</P>
<P>(18) A <I>brake</I> is a device used for retarding or stopping motion by friction or power means.
</P>
<P>(19) A <I>drag brake</I> is a brake which provides retarding force without external control.
</P>
<P>(20) A <I>holding brake</I> is a brake that automatically prevents motion when power is off.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Bridge</I> means that part of a crane consisting of girders, trucks, end ties, footwalks, and drive mechanism which carries the trolley or trolleys.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Bridge travel</I> means the crane movement in a direction parallel to the crane runway.
</P>
<P>(23) A <I>bumper</I> (buffer) is an energy absorbing device for reducing impact when a moving crane or trolley reaches the end of its permitted travel; or when two moving cranes or trolleys come in contact.
</P>
<P>(24) The <I>cab</I> is the operator's compartment on a crane.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Clearance</I> means the distance from any part of the crane to a point of the nearest obstruction.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Collectors current</I> are contacting devices for collecting current from runway or bridge conductors.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Conductors, bridge</I> are the electrical conductors located along the bridge structure of a crane to provide power to the trolley.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Conductors, runway</I> (main) are the electrical conductors located along a crane runway to provide power to the crane.
</P>
<P>(29) The <I>control braking means</I> is a method of controlling crane motor speed when in an overhauling condition.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Countertorque</I> means a method of control by which the power to the motor is reversed to develop torque in the opposite direction.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Dynamic</I> means a method of controlling crane motor speeds when in the overhauling condition to provide a retarding force.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Regenerative</I> means a form of dynamic braking in which the electrical energy generated is fed back into the power system.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Mechanical</I> means a method of control by friction.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Controller, spring return</I> means a controller which when released will return automatically to a neutral position.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Designated</I> means selected or assigned by the employer or the employer's representative as being qualified to perform specific duties.
</P>
<P>(36) A <I>drift point</I> means a point on a travel motion controller which releases the brake while the motor is not energized. This allows for coasting before the brake is set.
</P>
<P>(37) The <I>drum</I> is the cylindrical member around which the ropes are wound for raising or lowering the load.
</P>
<P>(38) An <I>equalizer</I> is a device which compensates for unequal length or stretch of a rope.
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Exposed</I> means capable of being contacted inadvertently. Applied to hazardous objects not adequately guarded or isolated.
</P>
<P>(40) <I>Fail-safe</I> means a provision designed to automatically stop or safely control any motion in which a malfunction occurs.
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Footwalk</I> means the walkway with handrail, attached to the bridge or trolley for access purposes.
</P>
<P>(42) A <I>hoist</I> is an apparatus which may be a part of a crane, exerting a force for lifting or lowering.
</P>
<P>(43) <I>Hoist chain</I> means the load bearing chain in a hoist.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Chain properties do not conform to those shown in ANSI B30.9-1971, Safety Code for Slings.</P></NOTE>
<P>(44) <I>Hoist motion</I> means that motion of a crane which raises and lowers a load.
</P>
<P>(45) <I>Load</I> means the total superimposed weight on the load block or hook.
</P>
<P>(46) The <I>load block</I> is the assembly of hook or shackle, swivel, bearing, sheaves, pins, and frame suspended by the hoisting rope.
</P>
<P>(47) <I>Magnet</I> means an electromagnetic device carried on a crane hook to pick up loads magnetically.
</P>
<P>(48) <I>Main hoist</I> means the hoist mechanism provided for lifting the maximum rated load.
</P>
<P>(49) A <I>man trolley</I> is a trolley having an operator's cab attached thereto.
</P>
<P>(50) <I>Rated load</I> means the maximum load for which a crane or individual hoist is designed and built by the manufacturer and shown on the equipment nameplate(s).
</P>
<P>(51) <I>Rope</I> refers to wire rope, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(52) <I>Running sheave</I> means a sheave which rotates as the load block is raised or lowered.
</P>
<P>(53) <I>Runway</I> means an assembly of rails, beams, girders, brackets, and framework on which the crane or trolley travels.
</P>
<P>(54) <I>Side pull</I> means that portion of the hoist pull acting horizontally when the hoist lines are not operated vertically.
</P>
<P>(55) <I>Span</I> means the horizontal distance center to center of runway rails.
</P>
<P>(56) <I>Standby crane</I> means a crane which is not in regular service but which is used occasionally or intermittently as required.
</P>
<P>(57) A <I>stop</I> is a device to limit travel of a trolley or crane bridge. This device normally is attached to a fixed structure and normally does not have energy absorbing ability.
</P>
<P>(58) A <I>switch</I> is a device for making, breaking, or for changing the connections in an electric circuit.
</P>
<P>(59) An <I>emergency stop switch</I> is a manually or automatically operated electric switch to cut off electric power independently of the regular operating controls.
</P>
<P>(60) A <I>limit switch</I> is a switch which is operated by some part or motion of a power-driven machine or equipment to alter the electric circuit associated with the machine or equipment.
</P>
<P>(61) A <I>main switch</I> is a switch controlling the entire power supply to the crane.
</P>
<P>(62) A <I>master switch</I> is a switch which dominates the operation of contactors, relays, or other remotely operated devices.
</P>
<P>(63) The <I>trolley</I> is the unit which travels on the bridge rails and carries the hoisting mechanism.
</P>
<P>(64) <I>Trolley travel</I> means the trolley movement at right angles to the crane runway.
</P>
<P>(65) <I>Truck</I> means the unit consisting of a frame, wheels, bearings, and axles which supports the bridge girders or trolleys.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to overhead and gantry cranes, including semigantry, cantilever gantry, wall cranes, storage bridge cranes, and others having the same fundamental characteristics. These cranes are grouped because they all have trolleys and similar travel characteristics.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New and existing equipment.</I> All new overhead and gantry cranes constructed and installed on or after August 31, 1971, shall meet the design specifications of the American National Standard Safety Code for Overhead and Gantry Cranes, ANSI B30.2.0-1967, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Modifications.</I> Cranes may be modified and rerated provided such modifications and the supporting structure are checked thoroughly for the new rated load by a qualified engineer or the equipment manufacturer. The crane shall be tested in accordance with paragraph (k)(2) of this section. New rated load shall be displayed in accordance with subparagraph (5) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Wind indicators and rail clamps.</I> Outdoor storage bridges shall be provided with automatic rail clamps. A wind-indicating device shall be provided which will give a visible or audible alarm to the bridge operator at a predetermined wind velocity. If the clamps act on the rail heads, any beads or weld flash on the rail heads shall be ground off.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rated load marking.</I> The rated load of the crane shall be plainly marked on each side of the crane, and if the crane has more than one hoisting unit, each hoist shall have its rated load marked on it or its load block and this marking shall be clearly legible from the ground or floor.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Clearance from obstruction.</I> (i) Minimum clearance of 3 inches overhead and 2 inches laterally shall be provided and maintained between crane and obstructions in conformity with Crane Manufacturers Association of America, Inc., Specification No. 61, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6 (formerly the Electric Overhead Crane Institute, Inc).
</P>
<P>(ii) Where passageways or walkways are provided obstructions shall not be placed so that safety of personnel will be jeopardized by movements of the crane.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Clearance between parallel cranes.</I> If the runways of two cranes are parallel, and there are no intervening walls or structure, there shall be adequate clearance provided and maintained between the two bridges.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Designated personnel</I>—Only designated personnel shall be permitted to operate a crane covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cabs</I>—(1) <I>Cab location.</I> (i) The general arrangement of the cab and the location of control and protective equipment shall be such that all operating handles are within convenient reach of the operator when facing the area to be served by the load hook, or while facing the direction of travel of the cab. The arrangement shall allow the operator a full view of the load hook in all positions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The cab shall be located to afford a minimum of 3 inches clearance from all fixed structures within its area of possible movement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to crane.</I> Access to the car and/or bridge walkway shall be by a conveniently placed fixed ladder, stairs, or platform requiring no step over any gap exceeding 12 inches (30 cm). Fixed ladders must comply with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fire extinguisher.</I> Carbon tetrachloride extinguishers shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lighting.</I> Light in the cab shall be sufficient to enable the operator to see clearly enough to perform his work.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Footwalks and ladders</I>—(1) <I>Location of footwalks.</I> (i) If sufficient headroom is available on cab-operated cranes, a footwalk shall be provided on the drive side along the entire length of the bridge of all cranes having the trolley running on the top of the girders.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where footwalks are located in no case shall less than 48 inches of headroom be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Construction of footwalks.</I> (i) Footwalks shall be of rigid construction and designed to sustain a distributed load of at least 50 pounds per square foot.
</P>
<P>(ii) Footwalks shall have a walking surface of antislip type.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Wood will meet this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) The inner edge shall extend at least to the line of the outside edge of the lower cover plate or flange of the girder.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Toeboards and handrails for footwalks.</I> Toeboards and handrails must comply with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ladders and stairways.</I> (i) Gantry cranes shall be provided with ladders or stairways extending from the ground to the footwalk or cab platform.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stairways shall be equipped with rigid and substantial metal handrails. Walking surfaces shall be of an antislip type.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ladders shall be permanently and securely fastened in place and constructed in compliance with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stops, bumpers, rail sweeps, and guards</I>—(1) <I>Trolley stops.</I> (i) Stops shall be provided at the limits of travel of the trolley.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stops shall be fastened to resist forces applied when contacted.
</P>
<P>(iii) A stop engaging the tread of the wheel shall be of a height at least equal to the radius of the wheel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bridge bumpers</I>—(i) A crane shall be provided with bumpers or other automatic means providing equivalent effect, unless the crane travels at a slow rate of speed and has a faster deceleration rate due to the use of sleeve bearings, or is not operated near the ends of bridge and trolley travel, or is restricted to a limited distance by the nature of the crane operation and there is no hazard of striking any object in this limited distance, or is used in similar operating conditions. The bumpers shall be capable of stopping the crane (not including the lifted load) at an average rate of deceleration not to exceed 3 ft/s/s when traveling in either direction at 20 percent of the rated load speed.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The bumpers shall have sufficient energy absorbing capacity to stop the crane when traveling at a speed of at least 40 percent of rated load speed.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The bumper shall be so mounted that there is no direct shear on bolts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bumpers shall be so designed and installed as to minimize parts falling from the crane in case of breakage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Trolley bumpers</I>—(i) A trolley shall be provided with bumpers or other automatic means of equivalent effect, unless the trolley travels at a slow rate of speed, or is not operated near the ends of bridge and trolley travel, or is restricted to a limited distance of the runway and there is no hazard of striking any object in this limited distance, or is used in similar operating conditions. The bumpers shall be capable of stopping the trolley (not including the lifted load) at an average rate of deceleration not to exceed 4.7 ft/s/s when traveling in either direction at one-third of the rated load speed.
</P>
<P>(ii) When more than one trolley is operated on the same bridge, each shall be equipped with bumpers or equivalent on their adjacent ends.
</P>
<P>(iii) Bumpers or equivalent shall be designed and installed to minimize parts falling from the trolley in case of age.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rail sweeps.</I> Bridge trucks shall be equipped with sweeps which extend below the top of the rail and project in front of the truck wheels.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Guards for hoisting ropes.</I> (i) If hoisting ropes run near enough to other parts to make fouling or chafing possible, guards shall be installed to prevent this condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) A guard shall be provided to prevent contact between bridge conductors and hoisting ropes if they could come into contact.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Guards for moving parts.</I> (i) Exposed moving parts such as gears, set screws, projecting keys, chains, chain sprockets, and reciprocating components which might constitute a hazard under normal operating conditions shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(ii) Guards shall be securely fastened.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each guard shall be capable of supporting without permanent distortion the weight of a 200-pound person unless the guard is located where it is impossible for a person to step on it.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Brakes</I>—(1) <I>Brakes for hoists.</I> (i) Each independent hoisting unit of a crane shall be equipped with at least one self-setting brake, hereafter referred to as a holding brake, applied directly to the motor shaft or some part of the gear train.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each independent hoisting unit of a crane, except worm-geared hoists, the angle of whose worm is such as to prevent the load from accelerating in the lowering direction shall, in addition to a holding brake, be equipped with control braking means to prevent overspeeding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Holding brakes.</I> (i) Holding brakes for hoist motors shall have not less than the following percentage of the full load hoisting torque at the point where the brake is applied.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) 125 percent when used with a control braking means other than mechanical.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) 100 percent when used in conjunction with a mechanical control braking means.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) 100 percent each if two holding brakes are provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Holding brakes on hoists shall have ample thermal capacity for the frequency of operation required by the service.
</P>
<P>(iii) Holding brakes on hoists shall be applied automatically when power is removed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where necessary holding brakes shall be provided with adjustment means to compensate for wear.
</P>
<P>(v) The wearing surface of all holding-brake drums or discs shall be smooth.
</P>
<P>(vi) Each independent hoisting unit of a crane handling hot metal and having power control braking means shall be equipped with at least two holding brakes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Control braking means.</I> (i) A power control braking means such as regenerative, dynamic or countertorque braking, or a mechanically controlled braking means shall be capable of maintaining safe lowering speeds of rated loads.
</P>
<P>(ii) The control braking means shall have ample thermal capacity for the frequency of operation required by service.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Brakes for trolleys and bridges.</I> (i) Foot-operated brakes shall not require an applied force of more than 70 pounds to develop manufacturer's rated brake torque.
</P>
<P>(ii) Brakes may be applied by mechanical, electrical, pneumatic, hydraulic, or gravity means.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where necessary brakes shall be provided with adjustment means to compensate for wear.
</P>
<P>(iv) The wearing surface of all brakedrums or discs shall be smooth.
</P>
<P>(v) All foot-brake pedals shall be constructed so that the operator's foot will not easily slip off the pedal.
</P>
<P>(vi) Foot-operated brakes shall be equipped with automatic means for positive release when pressure is released from the pedal.
</P>
<P>(vii) Brakes for stopping the motion of the trolley or bridge shall be of sufficient size to stop the trolley or bridge within a distance in feet equal to 10 percent of full load speed in feet per minute when traveling at full speed with full load.
</P>
<P>(viii) If holding brakes are provided on the bridge or trolleys, they shall not prohibit the use of a drift point in the control circuit.
</P>
<P>(ix) Brakes on trolleys and bridges shall have ample thermal capacity for the frequency of operation required by the service to prevent impairment of functions from overheating.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Application of trolley brakes.</I> (i) On cab-operated cranes with cab on trolley, a trolley brake shall be required as specified under paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A drag brake may be applied to hold the trolley in a desired position on the bridge and to eliminate creep with the power off.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Application of bridge brakes.</I> (i) On cab-operated cranes with cab on bridge, a bridge brake is required as specified under paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) On cab-operated cranes with cab on trolley, a bridge brake of the holding type shall be required.
</P>
<P>(iii) On all floor, remote and pulpit-operated crane bridge drives, a brake of noncoasting mechanical drive shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Electric equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Wiring and equipment shall comply with subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The control circuit voltage shall not exceed 600 volts for a.c. or d.c. current.
</P>
<P>(iii) The voltage at pendant push-buttons shall not exceed 150 volts for a.c. and 300 volts for d.c.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where multiple conductor cable is used with a suspended pushbutton station, the station must be supported in some satisfactory manner that will protect the electrical conductors against strain.
</P>
<P>(v) Pendant control boxes shall be constructed to prevent electrical shock and shall be clearly marked for identification of functions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Equipment.</I> (i) Electrical equipment shall be so located or enclosed that live parts will not be exposed to accidental contact under normal operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Electric equipment shall be protected from dirt, grease, oil, and moisture.
</P>
<P>(iii) Guards for live parts shall be substantial and so located that they cannot be accidently deformed so as to make contact with the live parts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Controllers.</I> (i) Cranes not equipped with spring-return controllers or momentary contact pushbuttons shall be provided with a device which will disconnect all motors from the line on failure of power and will not permit any motor to be restarted until the controller handle is brought to the “off” position, or a reset switch or button is operated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lever operated controllers shall be provided with a notch or latch which in the “off” position prevents the handle from being inadvertently moved to the “on” position. An “off” detent or spring return arrangement is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The controller operating handle shall be located within convenient reach of the operator.
</P>
<P>(iv) As far as practicable, the movement of each controller handle shall be in the same general directions as the resultant movements of the load.
</P>
<P>(v) The control for the bridge and trolley travel shall be so located that the operator can readily face the direction of travel.
</P>
<P>(vi) For floor-operated cranes, the controller or controllers if rope operated, shall automatically return to the “off” position when released by the operator.
</P>
<P>(vii) Pushbuttons in pendant stations shall return to the “off” position when pressure is released by the crane operator.
</P>
<P>(viii) Automatic cranes shall be so designed that all motions shall fail-safe if any malfunction of operation occurs.
</P>
<P>(ix) Remote-operated cranes shall function so that if the control signal for any crane motion becomes ineffective the crane motion shall stop.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Resistors.</I> (i) Enclosures for resistors shall have openings to provide adequate ventilation, and shall be installed to prevent the accumulation of combustible matter too near to hot parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Resistor units shall be supported so as to be as free as possible from vibration.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provision shall be made to prevent broken parts or molten metal falling upon the operator or from the crane.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Switches.</I> (i) The power supply to the runway conductors shall be controlled by a switch or circuit breaker located on a fixed structure, accessible from the floor, and arranged to be locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(ii) On cab-operated cranes a switch or circuit breaker of the enclosed type, with provision for locking in the open position, shall be provided in the leads from the runway conductors. A means of opening this switch or circuit breaker shall be located within easy reach of the operator.
</P>
<P>(iii) On floor-operated cranes, a switch or circuit breaker of the enclosed type, with provision for locking in the open position, shall be provided in the leads from the runway conductors. This disconnect shall be mounted on the bridge or footwalk near the runway collectors. One of the following types of floor-operated disconnects shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Nonconductive rope attached to the main disconnect switch.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) An undervoltage trip for the main circuit breaker operated by an emergency stop button in the pendant pushbutton in the pendant pushbutton station.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A main line contactor operated by a switch or pushbutton in the pendant pushbutton station.
</P>
<P>(iv) The hoisting motion of all electric traveling cranes shall be provided with an overtravel limit switch in the hoisting direction.
</P>
<P>(v) All cranes using a lifting magnet shall have a magnet circuit switch of the enclosed type with provision for locking in the open position. Means for discharging the inductive load of the magnet shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Runway conductors.</I> Conductors of the open type mounted on the crane runway beams or overhead shall be so located or so guarded that persons entering or leaving the cab or crane footwalk normally could not come into contact with them.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Extension lamps.</I> If a service receptacle is provided in the cab or on the bridge of cab-operated cranes, it shall be a grounded three-prong type permanent receptacle, not exceeding 300 volts.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hoisting equipment</I>—(1) <I>Sheaves.</I> (i) Sheave grooves shall be smooth and free from surface defects which could cause rope damage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sheaves carrying ropes which can be momentarily unloaded shall be provided with close-fitting guards or other suitable devices to guide the rope back into the groove when the load is applied again.
</P>
<P>(iii) The sheaves in the bottom block shall be equipped with close-fitting guards that will prevent ropes from becoming fouled when the block is lying on the ground with ropes loose.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pockets and flanges of sheaves used with hoist chains shall be of such dimensions that the chain does not catch or bind during operation.
</P>
<P>(v) All running sheaves shall be equipped with means for lubrication. Permanently lubricated, sealed and/or shielded bearings meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ropes.</I> (i) In using hoisting ropes, the crane manufacturer's recommendation shall be followed. The rated load divided by the number of parts of rope shall not exceed 20 percent of the nominal breaking strength of the rope.
</P>
<P>(ii) Socketing shall be done in the manner specified by the manufacturer of the assembly.
</P>
<P>(iii) Rope shall be secured to the drum as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) No less than two wraps of rope shall remain on the drum when the hook is in its extreme low position.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Rope end shall be anchored by a clamp securely attached to the drum, or by a socket arrangement approved by the crane or rope manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(iv) Eye splices. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) Rope clips attached with U-bolts shall have the U-bolts on the dead or short end of the rope. Spacing and number of all types of clips shall be in accordance with the clip manufacturer's recommendation. Clips shall be drop-forged steel in all sizes manufactured commercially. When a newly installed rope has been in operation for an hour, all nuts on the clip bolts shall be retightened.
</P>
<P>(vi) Swaged or compressed fittings shall be applied as recommended by the rope or crane manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(vii) Wherever exposed to temperatures, at which fiber cores would be damaged, rope having an independent wirerope or wire-strand core, or other temperature-damage resistant core shall be used.
</P>
<P>(viii) Replacement rope shall be the same size, grade, and construction as the original rope furnished by the crane manufacturer, unless otherwise recommended by a wire rope manufacturer due to actual working condition requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equalizers.</I> If a load is supported by more than one part of rope, the tension in the parts shall be equalized.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hooks.</I> Hooks shall meet the manufacturer's recommendations and shall not be overloaded.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Warning device.</I> Except for floor-operated cranes a gong or other effective warning signal shall be provided for each crane equipped with a power traveling mechanism.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Inspection</I>—(1) <I>Inspection classification</I>—(i) <I>Initial inspection.</I> Prior to initial use all new and altered cranes shall be inspected to insure compliance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection procedure for cranes in regular service is divided into two general classifications based upon the intervals at which inspection should be performed. The intervals in turn are dependent upon the nature of the critical components of the crane and the degree of their exposure to wear, deterioration, or malfunction. The two general classifications are herein designated as “frequent” and “periodic” with respective intervals between inspections as defined below:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Frequent inspection—Daily to monthly intervals.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Periodic inspection—1 to 12-month intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequent inspection.</I> The following items shall be inspected for defects at intervals as defined in paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section or as specifically indicated, including observation during operation for any defects which might appear between regular inspections. All deficiencies such as listed shall be carefully examined and determination made as to whether they constitute a safety hazard:
</P>
<P>(i) All functional operating mechanisms for maladjustment interfering with proper operation. Daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) Deterioration or leakage in lines, tanks, valves, drain pumps, and other parts of air or hydraulic systems. Daily.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hooks with deformation or cracks. Visual inspection daily; monthly inspection with a certification record which includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and the serial number, or other identifier, of the hook inspected. For hooks with cracks or having more than 15 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10° twist from the plane of the unbent hook refer to paragraph (l)(3)(iii)(<I>a</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hoist chains, including end connections, for excessive wear, twist, distorted links interfering with proper function, or stretch beyond manufacturer's recommendations. Visual inspection daily; monthly inspection with a certification record which includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and an identifier of the chain which was inspected.
</P>
<P>(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) All functional operating mechanisms for excessive wear of components.
</P>
<P>(vii) Rope reeving for noncompliance with manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic inspection.</I> Complete inspections of the crane shall be performed at intervals as generally defined in paragraph (j)(1)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section, depending upon its activity, severity of service, and environment, or as specifically indicated below. These inspections shall include the requirements of paragraph (j)(2) of this section and in addition, the following items. Any deficiencies such as listed shall be carefully examined and determination made as to whether they constitute a safety hazard:
</P>
<P>(i) Deformed, cracked, or corroded members.
</P>
<P>(ii) Loose bolts or rivets.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cracked or worn sheaves and drums.
</P>
<P>(iv) Worn, cracked or distorted parts such as pins, bearings, shafts, gears, rollers, locking and clamping devices.
</P>
<P>(v) Excessive wear on brake system parts, linings, pawls, and ratchets.
</P>
<P>(vi) Load, wind, and other indicators over their full range, for any significant inaccuracies.
</P>
<P>(vii) Gasoline, diesel, electric, or other powerplants for improper performance or noncompliance with applicable safety requirements.
</P>
<P>(viii) Excessive wear of chain drive sprockets and excessive chain stretch.
</P>
<P>(ix) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(x) Electrical apparatus, for signs of pitting or any deterioration of controller contactors, limit switches and pushbutton stations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cranes not in regular use.</I> (i) A crane which has been idle for a period of 1 month or more, but less than 6 months, shall be given an inspection conforming with requirements of paragraph (j)(2) of this section and paragraph (m)(2) of this section before placing in service.
</P>
<P>(ii) A crane which has been idle for a period of over 6 months shall be given a complete inspection conforming with requirements of paragraphs (j) (2) and (3) of this section and paragraph (m)(2) of this section before placing in service.
</P>
<P>(iii) Standby cranes shall be inspected at least semi-annually in accordance with requirements of paragraph (j)(2) of this section and paragraph (m)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Testing</I>—(1) <I>Operational tests.</I> (i) Prior to initial use all new and altered cranes shall be tested to insure compliance with this section including the following functions:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Hoisting and lowering.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Trolley travel.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Bridge travel.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Limit switches, locking and safety devices.
</P>
<P>(ii) The trip setting of hoist limit switches shall be determined by tests with an empty hook traveling in increasing speeds up to the maximum speed. The actuating mechanism of the limit switch shall be located so that it will trip the switch, under all conditions, in sufficient time to prevent contact of the hook or hook block with any part of the trolley.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rated load test.</I> Test loads shall not be more than 125 percent of the rated load unless otherwise recommended by the manufacturer. The test reports shall be placed on file where readily available to appointed personnel.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Preventive maintenance.</I> A preventive maintenance program based on the crane manufacturer's recommendations shall be established.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maintenance procedure.</I> (i) Before adjustments and repairs are started on a crane the following precautions shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The crane to be repaired shall be run to a location where it will cause the least interference with other cranes and operations in the area.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) All controllers shall be at the off position.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The main or emergency switch shall be open and locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Warning or “out of order” signs shall be placed on the crane, also on the floor beneath or on the hook where visible from the floor.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Where other cranes are in operation on the same runway, rail stops or other suitable means shall be provided to prevent interference with the idle crane.
</P>
<P>(ii) After adjustments and repairs have been made the crane shall not be operated until all guards have been reinstalled, safety devices reactivated and maintenance equipment removed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustments and repairs.</I> (i) Any unsafe conditions disclosed by the inspection requirements of paragraph (j) of this section shall be corrected before operation of the crane is resumed. Adjustments and repairs shall be done only by designated personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustments shall be maintained to assure correct functioning of components. The following are examples:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) All functional operating mechanisms.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Limit switches.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Control systems.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Brakes.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Power plants.
</P>
<P>(iii) Repairs or replacements shall be provided promptly as needed for safe operation. The following are examples:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Crane hooks showing defects described in paragraph (j)(2)(iii) of this section shall be discarded. Repairs by welding or reshaping are not generally recommended. If such repairs are attempted they shall only be done under competent supervision and the hook shall be tested to the load requirements of paragraph (k)(2) of this section before further use.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Load attachment chains and rope slings showing defects described in paragraph (j)(2) (iv) and (v) of this section respectively.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) All critical parts which are cracked, broken, bent, or excessively worn.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Pendant control stations shall be kept clean and function labels kept legible.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Rope inspection</I>—(1) <I>Running ropes.</I> A thorough inspection of all ropes shall be made at least once a month and a certification record which includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and an identifier for the ropes which were inspected shall be kept on file where readily available to appointed personnel. Any deterioration, resulting in appreciable loss of original strength, shall be carefully observed and determination made as to whether further use of the rope would constitute a safety hazard. Some of the conditions that could result in an appreciable loss of strength are the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Reduction of rope diameter below nominal diameter due to loss of core support, internal or external corrosion, or wear of outside wires.
</P>
<P>(ii) A number of broken outside wires and the degree of distribution or concentration of such broken wires.
</P>
<P>(iii) Worn outside wires.
</P>
<P>(iv) Corroded or broken wires at end connections.
</P>
<P>(v) Corroded, cracked, bent, worn, or improperly applied end connections.
</P>
<P>(vi) Severe kinking, crushing, cutting, or unstranding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other ropes.</I> All rope which has been idle for a period of a month or more due to shutdown or storage of a crane on which it is installed shall be given a thorough inspection before it is used. This inspection shall be for all types of deterioration and shall be performed by an appointed person whose approval shall be required for further use of the rope. A certification record shall be available for inspection which includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and an identifier for the rope which was inspected.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Handling the load</I>—(1) <I>Size of load.</I> The crane shall not be loaded beyond its rated load except for test purposes as provided in paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Attaching the load.</I> (i) The hoist chain or hoist rope shall be free from kinks or twists and shall not be wrapped around the load.
</P>
<P>(ii) The load shall be attached to the load block hook by means of slings or other approved devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Care shall be taken to make certain that the sling clears all obstacles.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Moving the load.</I> (i) The load shall be well secured and properly balanced in the sling or lifting device before it is lifted more than a few inches.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before starting to hoist the following conditions shall be noted:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Hoist rope shall not be kinked.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Multiple part lines shall not be twisted around each other.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The hook shall be brought over the load in such a manner as to prevent swinging.
</P>
<P>(iii) During hoisting care shall be taken that:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) There is no sudden acceleration or deceleration of the moving load.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The load does not contact any obstructions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Cranes shall not be used for side pulls except when specifically authorized by a responsible person who has determined that the stability of the crane is not thereby endangered and that various parts of the crane will not be overstressed.
</P>
<P>(v) While any employee is on the load or hook, there shall be no hoisting, lowering, or traveling.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall require that the operator avoid carrying loads over people.
</P>
<P>(vii) The operator shall test the brakes each time a load approaching the rated load is handled. The brakes shall be tested by raising the load a few inches and applying the brakes.
</P>
<P>(viii) The load shall not be lowered below the point where less than two full wraps of rope remain on the hoisting drum.
</P>
<P>(ix) When two or more cranes are used to lift a load one qualified responsible person shall be in charge of the operation. He shall analyze the operation and instruct all personnel involved in the proper positioning, rigging of the load, and the movements to be made.
</P>
<P>(x) The employer shall insure that the operator does not leave his position at the controls while the load is suspended.
</P>
<P>(xi) When starting the bridge and when the load or hook approaches near or over personnel, the warning signal shall be sounded.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hoist limit switch.</I> (i) At the beginning of each operator's shift, the upper limit switch of each hoist shall be tried out under no load. Extreme care shall be exercised; the block shall be “inched” into the limit or run in at slow speed. If the switch does not operate properly, the appointed person shall be immediately notified.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hoist limit switch which controls the upper limit of travel of the load block shall never be used as an operating control.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Other requirements, general</I>—(1) <I>Ladders.</I> (i) The employer shall insure that hands are free from encumbrances while personnel are using ladders.
</P>
<P>(ii) Articles which are too large to be carried in pockets or belts shall be lifted and lowered by hand line.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cabs.</I> (i) Necessary clothing and personal belongings shall be stored in such a manner as not to interfere with access or operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tools, oil cans, waste, extra fuses, and other necessary articles shall be stored in the tool box, and shall not be permitted to lie loose in or about the cab.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fire extinguishers.</I> The employer shall insure that operators are familiar with the operation and care of fire extinguishers provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 27400, June 27, 1975; 49 FR 5322, Feb. 10, 1984; 51 FR 34560, Sept. 29, 1986; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996; 81 FR 83005, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.180" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14.37.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.180   Crawler locomotive and truck cranes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section.</I> (1) A <I>crawler crane</I> consists of a rotating superstructure with power plant, operating machinery, and boom, mounted on a base, equipped with crawler treads for travel. Its function is to hoist and swing loads at various radii.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>locomotive crane</I> consists of a rotating superstructure with power-plant, operating machinery and boom, mounted on a base or car equipped for travel on railroad track. It may be self-propelled or propelled by an outside source. Its function is to hoist and swing loads at various radii.
</P>
<P>(3) A <I>truck crane</I> consists of a rotating superstructure with powerplant, operating machinery and boom, mounted on an automotive truck equipped with a powerplant for travel. Its function is to hoist and swing loads at various radii.
</P>
<P>(4) A <I>wheel mounted crane</I> (wagon crane) consists of a rotating superstructure with powerplant, operating machinery and boom, mounted on a base or platform equipped with axles and rubber-tired wheels for travel. The base is usually propelled by the engine in the superstructure, but it may be equipped with a separate engine controlled from the superstructure. Its function is to hoist and swing loads at various radii.
</P>
<P>(5) An <I>accessory</I> is a secondary part or assembly of parts which contributes to the overall function and usefulness of a machine.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Appointed</I> means assigned specific responsibilities by the employer or the employer's representative.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>ANSI</I> means the American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P>(8) An <I>angle indicator</I> (boom) is an accessory which measures the angle of the boom to the horizontal.
</P>
<P>(9) The <I>axis of rotation</I> is the vertical axis around which the crane superstructure rotates.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Axle</I> means the shaft or spindle with which or about which a wheel rotates. On truck- and wheel-mounted cranes it refers to an automotive type of axle assembly including housings, gearing, differential, bearings, and mounting appurtenances.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Axle</I> (bogie) means two or more automotive-type axles mounted in tandem in a frame so as to divide the load between the axles and permit vertical oscillation of the wheels.
</P>
<P>(12) The <I>base</I> (mounting) is the traveling base or carrier on which the rotating superstructure is mounted such as a car, truck, crawlers, or wheel platform.
</P>
<P>(13) The <I>boom</I> (crane) is a member hinged to the front of the rotating superstructure with the outer end supported by ropes leading to a gantry or A-frame and used for supporting the hoisting tackle.
</P>
<P>(14) The <I>boom angle</I> is the angle between the longitudinal centerline of the boom and the horizontal. The boom longitudinal centerline is a straight line between the boom foot pin (heel pin) centerline and boom point sheave pin centerline.
</P>
<P>(15) The <I>boom hoist</I> is a hoist drum and rope reeving system used to raise and lower the boom. The rope system may be all live reeving or a combination of live reeving and pendants.
</P>
<P>(16) The <I>boom stop</I> is a device used to limit the angle of the boom at the highest position.
</P>
<P>(17) A <I>brake</I> is a device used for retarding or stopping motion by friction or power means.
</P>
<P>(18) A <I>cab</I> is a housing which covers the rotating superstructure machinery and/or operator's station. On truck-crane trucks a separate cab covers the driver's station.
</P>
<P>(19) The <I>clutch</I> is a friction, electromagnetic, hydraulic, pneumatic, or positive mechanical device for engagement or disengagement of power.
</P>
<P>(20) The <I>counterweight</I> is a weight used to supplement the weight of the machine in providing stability for lifting working loads.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Designated</I> means selected or assigned by the employer or the employer's representative as being qualified to perform specific duties.
</P>
<P>(22) The <I>drum</I> is the cylindrical members around which ropes are wound for raising and lowering the load or boom.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Dynamic</I> (loading) means loads introduced into the machine or its components by forces in motion.
</P>
<P>(24) The <I>gantry</I> (A-frame) is a structural frame, extending above the superstructure, to which the boom support ropes are reeved.
</P>
<P>(25) A <I>jib</I> is an extension attached to the boom point to provide added boom length for lifting specified loads. The jib may be in line with the boom or offset to various angles.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Load</I> (working) means the external load, in pounds, applied to the crane, including the weight of load-attaching equipment such as load blocks, shackles, and slings.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Load block</I> (upper) means the assembly of hook or shackle, swivel, sheaves, pins, and frame suspended from the boom point.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Load block</I> (lower) means the assembly of hook or shackle, swivel, sheaves, pins, and frame suspended by the hoisting ropes.
</P>
<P>(29) A <I>load hoist</I> is a hoist drum and rope reeving system used for hoisting and lowering loads.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Load ratings</I> are crane ratings in pounds established by the manufacturer in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Outriggers</I> are extendable or fixed metal arms, attached to the mounting base, which rest on supports at the outer ends.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Rail clamp</I> means a tong-like metal device, mounted on a locomotive crane car, which can be connected to the track.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Reeving</I> means a rope system in which the rope travels around drums and sheaves.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Rope</I> refers to a wire rope unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Side loading</I> means a load applied at an angle to the vertical plane of the boom.
</P>
<P>(36) A <I>standby crane</I> is a crane which is not in regular service but which is used occasionally or intermittently as required.
</P>
<P>(37) A <I>standing (guy) rope</I> is a supporting rope which maintains a constant distance between the points of attachment to the two components connected by the rope.
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Structural competence</I> means the ability of the machine and its components to withstand the stresses imposed by applied loads.
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Superstructure</I> means the rotating upper frame structure of the machine and the operating machinery mounted thereon.
</P>
<P>(40) <I>Swing</I> means the rotation of the superstructure for movement of loads in a horizontal direction about the axis of rotation.
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Swing mechanism</I> means the machinery involved in providing rotation of the superstructure.
</P>
<P>(42) <I>Tackle</I> is an assembly of ropes and sheaves arranged for hoisting and pulling.
</P>
<P>(43) <I>Transit</I> means the moving or transporting of a crane from one jobsite to another.
</P>
<P>(44) <I>Travel</I> means the function of the machine moving from one location to another, on a jobsite.
</P>
<P>(45) The <I>travel mechanism</I> is the machinery involved in providing travel.
</P>
<P>(46) <I>Wheelbase</I> means the distance between centers of front and rear axles. For a multiple axle assembly the axle center for wheelbase measurement is taken as the midpoint of the assembly.
</P>
<P>(47) The <I>whipline</I> (auxiliary hoist) is a separate hoist rope system of lighter load capacity and higher speed than provided by the main hoist.
</P>
<P>(48) A <I>winch head</I> is a power driven spool for handling of loads by means of friction between fiber or wire rope and spool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to crawler cranes, locomotive cranes, wheel mounted cranes of both truck and self-propelled wheel type, and any variations thereof which retain the same fundamental characteristics. This section includes only cranes of the above types, which are basically powered by internal combustion engines or electric motors and which utilize drums and ropes. Cranes designed for railway and automobile wreck clearances are excepted. The requirements of this section are applicable only to machines when used as lifting cranes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New and existing equipment.</I> All new crawler, locomotive, and truck cranes constructed and utilized on or after August 31, 1971, shall meet the design specifications of the American National Standard Safety Code for Crawler, Locomotive, and Truck Cranes, ANSI B30.5-1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. Crawler, locomotive, and truck cranes constructed prior to August 31, 1971, should be modified to conform to those design specifications by February 15, 1972, unless it can be shown that the crane cannot feasibly or economically be altered and that the crane substantially complies with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Designated personnel.</I> Only designated personnel shall be permitted to operate a crane covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Load ratings</I>—(1) <I>Load ratings</I>—<I>where stability governs lifting performance.</I> (i) The margin of stability for determination of load ratings, with booms of stipulated lengths at stipulated working radii for the various types of crane mountings, is established by taking a percentage of the loads which will produce a condition of tipping or balance with the boom in the least stable direction, relative to the mounting. The load ratings shall not exceed the following percentages for cranes, with the indicated types of mounting under conditions stipulated in paragraphs (c)(1) (ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of crane mounting
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum load ratings (percent of tipping loads)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Locomotive, without outriggers:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Booms 60 feet or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Booms over 60 feet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Locomotive, using outriggers fully extended</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crawler, without outriggers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crawler, using outriggers fully extended</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Truck and wheel mounted without outriggers or using outriggers fully extended</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Unless this results in less than 30,000 pound-feet net stabilizing moment about the rail, which shall be minimum with such booms.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The following stipulations shall govern the application of the values in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for locomotive cranes:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Tipping with or without the use of outriggers occurs when half of the wheels farthest from the load leave the rail.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The crane shall be standing on track which is level within 1 percent grade.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Radius of the load is the horizontal distance from a projection of the axis of rotation to the rail support surface, before loading, to the center of vertical hoist line or tackle with load applied.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Tipping loads from which ratings are determined shall be applied under static conditions only, i.e., without dynamic effect of hoisting, lowering, or swinging.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The weight of all auxiliary handling devices such as hoist blocks, hooks, and slings shall be considered a part of the load rating.
</P>
<P>(iii) Stipulations governing the application of the values in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for crawler, truck, and wheel-mounted cranes shall be in accordance with Crane Load-Stability Test Code, Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) J765, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iv) The effectiveness of these preceding stability factors will be influenced by such additional factors as freely suspended loads, track, wind, or ground conditions, condition and inflation of rubber tires, boom lengths, proper operating speeds for existing conditions, and, in general, careful and competent operation. All of these shall be taken into account by the user.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Load rating chart.</I> A substantial and durable rating chart with clearly legible letters and figures shall be provided with each crane and securely fixed to the crane cab in a location easily visible to the operator while seated at his control station.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inspection classification</I>—(1) <I>Initial inspection.</I> Prior to initial use all new and altered cranes shall be inspected to insure compliance with provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regular inspection.</I> Inspection procedure for cranes in regular service is divided into two general classifications based upon the intervals at which inspection should be performed. The intervals in turn are dependent upon the nature of the critical components of the crane and the degree of their exposure to wear, deterioration, or malfunction. The two general classifications are herein designated as “frequent” and “periodic”, with respective intervals between inspections as defined below:
</P>
<P>(i) Frequent inspection: Daily to monthly intervals.
</P>
<P>(ii) Periodic inspection: 1- to 12-month intervals, or as specifically recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequent inspection.</I> Items such as the following shall be inspected for defects at intervals as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section or as specifically indicated including observation during operation for any defects which might appear between regular inspections. Any deficiencies such as listed shall be carefully examined and determination made as to whether they constitute a safety hazard:
</P>
<P>(i) All control mechanisms for maladjustment interfering with proper operation: Daily.
</P>
<P>(ii) All control mechanisms for excessive wear of components and contamination by lubricants or other foreign matter.
</P>
<P>(iii) All safety devices for malfunction.
</P>
<P>(iv) Deterioration or leakage in air or hydraulic systems: Daily.
</P>
<P>(v) Crane hooks with deformations or cracks. For hooks with cracks or having more than 15 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10° twist from the plane of the unbent hook.
</P>
<P>(vi) Rope reeving for noncompliance with manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(vii) Electrical apparatus for malfunctioning, signs of excessive deterioration, dirt, and moisture accumulation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periodic inspection.</I> Complete inspections of the crane shall be performed at intervals as generally defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section depending upon its activity, severity of service, and environment, or as specifically indicated below. These inspections shall include the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section and in addition, items such as the following. Any deficiencies such as listed shall be carefully examined and determination made as to whether they constitute a safety hazard:
</P>
<P>(i) Deformed, cracked, or corroded members in the crane structure and boom.
</P>
<P>(ii) Loose bolts or rivets.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cracked or worn sheaves and drums.
</P>
<P>(iv) Worn, cracked, or distorted parts such as pins, bearings, shafts, gears, rollers and locking devices.
</P>
<P>(v) Excessive wear on brake and clutch system parts, linings, pawls, and ratchets.
</P>
<P>(vi) Load, boom angle, and other indicators over their full range, for any significant inaccuracies.
</P>
<P>(vii) Gasoline, diesel, electric, or other power plants for improper performance or noncompliance with safety requirements.
</P>
<P>(viii) Excessive wear of chain-drive sprockets and excessive chain stretch.
</P>
<P>(ix) Travel steering, braking, and locking devices, for malfunction.
</P>
<P>(x) Excessively worn or damaged tires.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cranes not in regular use.</I> (i) A crane which has been idle for a period of one month or more, but less than 6 months, shall be given an inspection conforming with requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section and paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section before placing in service.
</P>
<P>(ii) A crane which has been idle for a period of six months shall be given a complete inspection conforming with requirements of paragraphs (d) (3) and (4) of this section and paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section before placing in service.
</P>
<P>(iii) Standby cranes shall be inspected at least semiannually in accordance with requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section and paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section. Such cranes which are exposed to adverse environment should be inspected more frequently.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Inspection records.</I> Certification records which include the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and the serial number, or other identifier, of the crane which was inspected shall be made monthly on critical items in use such as brakes, crane hooks, and ropes. This certification record shall be kept readily available.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Testing</I>—(1) <I>Operational tests.</I> (i) In addition to prototype tests and quality-control measures, each new production crane shall be tested by the manufacturer to the extent necessary to insure compliance with the operational requirements of this paragraph including functions such as the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Load hoisting and lowering mechanisms.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Boom hoisting and lower mechanisms.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Swinging mechanism.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Travel mechanism.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Safety devices.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the complete production crane is not supplied by one manufacturer such tests shall be conducted at final assembly.
</P>
<P>(iii) Certified production-crane test results shall be made available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rated load test.</I> (i) Written reports shall be available showing test procedures and confirming the adequacy of repairs or alterations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Test loads shall not exceed 110 percent of the rated load at any selected working radius.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where rerating is necessary:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Crawler, truck, and wheel-mounted cranes shall be tested in accordance with SAE Recommended Practice, Crane Load Stability Test Code J765 (April 1961).
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Locomotive cranes shall be tested in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Rerating test report shall be readily available.
</P>
<P>(iv) No cranes shall be rerated in excess of the original load ratings unless such rating changes are approved by the crane manufacturer or final assembler.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Maintenance procedure—General.</I> After adjustments and repairs have been made the crane shall not be operated until all guards have been reinstalled, safety devices reactivated, and maintenance equipment removed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rope inspection</I>—(1) <I>Running ropes.</I> A thorough inspection of all ropes in use shall be made at least once a month and a certification record which includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and an identifier for the ropes shall be prepared and kept on file where readily available. All inspections shall be performed by an appointed or authorized person. Any deterioration, resulting in appreciable loss of original strength shall be carefully observed and detemination made as to whether further use of the rope would constitute a safety hazard. Some of the conditions that could result in an appreciable loss of strength are the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Reduction of rope diameter below nominal diameter due to loss of core support, internal or external corrosion, or wear of outside wires.
</P>
<P>(ii) A number of broken outside wires and the degree of distribution of concentration of such broken wires.
</P>
<P>(iii) Worn outside wires.
</P>
<P>(iv) Corroded or broken wires at end connections.
</P>
<P>(v) Corroded, cracked, bent, worn, or improperly applied end connections.
</P>
<P>(vi) Severe kinking, crushing, cutting, or unstranding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other ropes.</I> (i) Heavy wear and/or broken wires may occur in sections in contact with equalizer sheaves or other sheaves where rope travel is limited, or with saddles. Particular care shall be taken to inspect ropes at these locations.
</P>
<P>(ii) All rope which has been idle for a period of a month or more due to shutdown or storage of a crane on which it is installed shall be given a thorough inspection before it is used. This inspection shall be for all types of deterioration and shall be performed by an appointed or authorized person whose approval shall be required for further use of the rope. A certification record which includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection, and an identifier for the rope which was inspected shall be prepared and kept readily available.
</P>
<P>(iii) Particular care shall be taken in the inspection of nonrotating rope.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Handling the load</I>—(1) <I>Size of load.</I> (i) No crane shall be loaded beyond the rated load, except for test purposes as provided in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When loads which are limited by structural competence rather than by stability are to be handled, it shall be ascertained that the weight of the load has been determined within plus or minus 10 percent before it is lifted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Attaching the load.</I> (i) The hoist rope shall not be wrapped around the load.
</P>
<P>(ii) The load shall be attached to the hook by means of slings or other approved devices.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Moving the load.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The crane is level and where necessary blocked properly.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The load is well secured and properly balanced in the sling or lifting device before it is lifted more than a few inches.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before starting to hoist, the following conditions shall be noted:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Hoist rope shall not be kinked.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Multiple part lines shall not be twisted around each other.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The hook shall be brought over the load in such a manner as to prevent swinging.
</P>
<P>(iii) During hoisting care shall be taken that:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) There is no sudden acceleration or deceleration of the moving load.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The load does not contact any obstructions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Side loading of booms shall be limited to freely suspended loads. Cranes shall not be used for dragging loads sideways.
</P>
<P>(v) No hoisting, lowering, swinging, or traveling shall be done while anyone is on the load or hook.
</P>
<P>(vi) The operator should avoid carrying loads over people.
</P>
<P>(vii) On truck-mounted cranes, no loads shall be lifted over the front area except as approved by the crane manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(viii) The operator shall test the brakes each time a load approaching the rated load is handled by raising it a few inches and applying the brakes.
</P>
<P>(ix) Outriggers shall be used when the load to be handled at that particular radius exceeds the rated load without outriggers as given by the manufacturer for that crane. Where floats are used they shall be securely attached to the outriggers. Wood blocks used to support outriggers shall:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Be strong enough to prevent crushing.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Be free from defects.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Be of sufficient width and length to prevent shifting or toppling under load.
</P>
<P>(x) Neither the load nor the boom shall be lowered below the point where less than two full wraps of rope remain on their respective drums.
</P>
<P>(xi) Before lifting loads with locomotive cranes without using outriggers, means shall be applied to prevent the load from being carried by the truck springs.
</P>
<P>(xii) When two or more cranes are used to lift one load, one designated person shall be responsible for the operation. He shall be required to analyze the operation and instruct all personnel involved in the proper positioning, rigging of the load, and the movements to be made.
</P>
<P>(xiii) In transit the following additional precautions shall be exercised:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The boom shall be carried in line with the direction of motion.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The superstructure shall be secured against rotation, except when negotiating turns when there is an operator in the cab or the boom is supported on a dolly.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The empty hook shall be lashed or otherwise restrained so that it cannot swing freely.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Before traveling a crane with load, a designated person shall be responsible for determining and controlling safety. Decisions such as position of load, boom location, ground support, travel route, and speed of movement shall be in accord with his determinations.
</P>
<P>(xv) A crane with or without load shall not be traveled with the boom so high that it may bounce back over the cab.
</P>
<P>(xvi) When rotating the crane, sudden starts and stops shall be avoided. Rotational speed shall be such that the load does not swing out beyond the radii at which it can be controlled. A tag or restraint line shall be used when rotation of the load is hazardous.
</P>
<P>(xvii) When a crane is to be operated at a fixed radius, the boom-hoist pawl or other positive locking device shall be engaged.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Ropes shall not be handled on a winch head without the knowledge of the operator.
</P>
<P>(xix) While a winch head is being used, the operator shall be within convenient reach of the power unit control lever.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Holding the load.</I> (i) The operator shall not be permitted to leave his position at the controls while the load is suspended.
</P>
<P>(ii) No person should be permitted to stand or pass under a load on the hook.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the load must remain suspended for any considerable length of time, the operator shall hold the drum from rotating in the lowering direction by activating the positive controllable means of the operator's station.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other requirements</I>—(1) <I>Rail clamps.</I> Rail clamps shall not be used as a means of restraining tipping of a locomotive crane.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ballast or counterweight.</I> Cranes shall not be operated without the full amount of any ballast or counterweight in place as specified by the maker, but truck cranes that have dropped the ballast or counterweight may be operated temporarily with special care and only for light loads without full ballast or counterweight in place. The ballast or counterweight in place specified by the manufacturer shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cabs.</I> (i) Necessary clothing and personal belongings shall be stored in such a manner as to not interfere with access or operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tools, oil cans, waste, extra fuses, and other necessary articles shall be stored in the tool box, and shall not be permitted to lie loose in or about the cab.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Refueling.</I> (i) Refueling with small portable containers shall be done with an approved safety type can equipped with an automatic closing cap and flame arrester. Refer to § 1910.155(c)(3) for definition of approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Machines shall not be refueled with the engine running.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fire extinguishers.</I> (i) A carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or equivalent fire extinguisher shall be kept in the cab or vicinity of the crane.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operating and maintenance personnel shall be made familiar with the use and care of the fire extinguishers provided.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Swinging locomotive cranes.</I> A locomotive crane shall not be swung into a position where railway cars on an adjacent track might strike it, until it has been ascertained that cars are not being moved on the adjacent track and proper flag protection has been established.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Operations near overhead lines.</I> For operations near overhead electric lines, see § 1910.333(c)(3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984; 51 FR 34561, Sept. 29, 1986; 53 FR 12122, Apr. 12, 1988; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9239, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.181" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14.37.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.181   Derricks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section.</I> (1) A <I>derrick</I> is an apparatus consisting of a mast or equivalent member held at the head by guys or braces, with or without a boom, for use with a hoisting mechanism and operating ropes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A-frame derrick</I> means a derrick in which the boom is hinged from a cross member between the bottom ends of two upright members spread apart at the lower ends and joined at the top; the boom point secured to the junction of the side members, and the side members are braced or guyed from this junction point.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.037.gif"/>
<P>(3) A <I>basket derrick</I> is a derrick without a boom, similar to a gin pole, with its base supported by ropes attached to corner posts or other parts of the structure. The base is at a lower elevation than its supports. The location of the base of a basket derrick can be changed by varying the length of the rope supports. The top of the pole is secured with multiple reeved guys to position the top of the pole to the desired location by varying the length of the upper guy lines. The load is raised and lowered by ropes through a sheave or block secured to the top of the pole.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.038.gif"/>
<P>(4) <I>Breast derrick</I> means a derrick without boom. The mast consists of two side members spread farther apart at the base than at the top and tied together at top and bottom by rigid members. The mast is prevented from tipping forward by guys connected to its top. The load is raised and lowered by ropes through a sheave or block secured to the top crosspiece.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.039.gif"/>
<P>(5) <I>Chicago boom derrick</I> means a boom which is attached to a structure, an outside upright member of the structure serving as the mast, and the boom being stepped in a fixed socket clamped to the upright. The derrick is complete with load, boom, and boom point swing line falls.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.040.gif"/>
<P>(6) A <I>gin pole derrick</I> is a derrick without a boom. Its guys are so arranged from its top as to permit leaning the mast in any direction. The load is raised and lowered by ropes reeved through sheaves or blocks at the top of the mast.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.041.gif"/>
<P>(7) <I>Guy derrick</I> means a fixed derrick consisting of a mast capable of being rotated, supported in a vertical position by guys, and a boom whose bottom end is hinged or pivoted to move in a vertical plane with a reeved rope between the head of the mast and the boom point for raising and lowering the boom, and a reeved rope from the boom point for raising and lowering the load.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.042.gif"/>
<P>(8) <I>Shearleg derrick</I> means a derrick without a boom and similar to a breast derrick. The mast, wide at the bottom and narrow at the top, is hinged at the bottom and has its top secured by a multiple reeved guy to permit handling loads at various radii by means of load tackle suspended from the mast top.
</P>
<P>(9) A <I>stiffleg derrick</I> is a derrick similar to a guy derrick except that the mast is supported or held in place by two or more stiff members, called stifflegs, which are capable of resisting either tensile or compressive forces. Sills are generally provided to connect the lower ends of the stifflegs to the foot of the mast.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.043.gif"/>
<P>(10) <I>Appointed</I> means assigned specific responsibilities by the employer or the employer's representative.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>ANSI</I> means the American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P>(12) A boom is a timber or metal section or strut, pivoted or hinged at the heel (lower end) at a location fixed in height on a frame or mast or vertical member, and with its point (upper end) supported by chains, ropes, or rods to the upper end of the frame, mast, or vertical member. A rope for raising and lowering the load is reeved through sheaves or a block at the boom point. The length of the boom shall be taken as the straight line distance between the axis of the foot pin and the axis of the boom point sheave pin, or where used, the axis of the upper load block attachment pin.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Boom harness</I> means the block and sheave arrangement on the boom point to which the topping lift cable is reeved for lowering and raising the boom.
</P>
<P>(14) The <I>boom point</I> is the outward end of the top section of the boom.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Derrick bullwheel</I> means a horizontal ring or wheel, fastened to the foot of a derrick, for the purpose of turning the derrick by means of ropes leading from this wheel to a powered drum.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Designated</I> means selected or assigned by the employer or employer's representative as being qualified to perform specific duties.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Eye</I> means a loop formed at the end of a rope by securing the dead end to the live end at the base of the loop.
</P>
<P>(18) A <I>fiddle block</I> is a block consisting of two sheaves in the same plane held in place by the same cheek plates.
</P>
<P>(19) The <I>foot bearing</I> or <I>foot block</I> (sill block) is the lower support on which the mast rotates.
</P>
<P>(20) A <I>gudgeon pin</I> is a pin connecting the mast cap to the mast allowing rotation of the mast.
</P>
<P>(21) A <I>guy</I> is a rope used to steady or secure the mast or other member in the desired position.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Load, working</I> means the external load, in pounds, applied to the derrick, including the weight of load attaching equipment such as load blocks, shackles, and slings.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Load block, lower</I> means the assembly of sheaves, pins, and frame suspended by the hoisting rope.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Load block, upper</I> means the assembly of sheaves, pins, and frame suspended from the boom.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Mast</I> means the upright member of the derrick.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Mast cap (spider)</I> means the fitting at the top of the mast to which the guys are connected.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Reeving</I> means a rope system in which the rope travels around drums and sheaves.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Rope</I> refers to wire rope unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Safety Hook</I> means a hook with a latch to prevent slings or load from accidentally slipping off the hook.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Side loading</I> is a load applied at an angle to the vertical plane of the boom.
</P>
<P>(31) The <I>sill</I> is a member connecting the foot block and stiffleg or a member connecting the lower ends of a double member mast.
</P>
<P>(32) A <I>standby derrick</I> is a derrick not in regular service which is used occasionally or intermittently as required.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Stiffleg</I> means a rigid member supporting the mast at the head.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Swing</I> means rotation of the mast and/or boom for movements of loads in a horizontal direction about the axis of rotation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to guy, stiffleg, basket, breast, gin pole, Chicago boom and A-frame derricks of the stationary type, capable of handling loads at variable reaches and powered by hoists through systems of rope reeving, used to perform lifting hook work, single or multiple line bucket work, grab, grapple, and magnet work. Derricks may be permanently installed for temporary use as in construction work. The requirements of this section also apply to any modification of these types which retain their fundamental features, except for floating derricks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New and existing equipment.</I> All new derricks constructed and installed on or after August 31, 1971, shall meet the design specifications of the American National Standard Safety Code for Derricks, ANSI B30.6-1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Designated personnel.</I> Only designated personnel shall be permitted to operate a derrick covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Load ratings</I>—(1) <I>Rated load marking.</I> For permanently installed derricks with fixed lengths of boom, guy, and mast, a substantial, durable, and clearly legible rating chart shall be provided with each derrick and securely affixed where it is visible to personnel responsible for the safe operation of the equipment. The chart shall include the following data:
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturer's approved load ratings at corresponding ranges of boom angle or operating radii.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific lengths of components on which the load ratings are based.
</P>
<P>(iii) Required parts for hoist reeving. Size and construction of rope may be shown either on the rating chart or in the operating manual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonpermanent installations.</I> For nonpermanent installations, the manufacturer shall provide sufficient information from which capacity charts can be prepared for the particular installation. The capacity charts shall be located at the derricks or the jobsite office.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inspection</I>—(1) <I>Inspection classification.</I> (i) Prior to initial use all new and altered derricks shall be inspected to insure compliance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection procedure for derricks in regular service is divided into two general classifications based upon the intervals at which inspection should be performed. The intervals in turn are dependent upon the nature of the critical components of the derrick and the degree of their exposure to wear, deterioration, or malfunction. The two general classifications are herein designated as frequent and periodic with respective intervals between inspections as defined below:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Frequent inspection—Daily to monthly intervals.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Periodic inspection—1- to 12-month intervals, or as specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequent inspection.</I> Items such as the following shall be inspected for defects at intervals as defined in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(<I>a</I>) of this section or as specifically indicated, including observation during operation for any defects which might appear between regular inspections. Deficiencies shall be carefully examined for any safety hazard:
</P>
<P>(i) All control mechanisms: Inspect daily for adjustment, wear, and lubrication.
</P>
<P>(ii) All chords and lacing: Inspect daily, visually.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tension in guys: Daily.
</P>
<P>(iv) Plumb of the mast.
</P>
<P>(v) Deterioration or leakage in air or hydraulic systems: Daily.
</P>
<P>(vi) Derrick hooks for deformations or cracks; for hooks with cracks or having more than 15 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10° twist from the plane of the unbent hook, refer to paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) Rope reeving; visual inspection for noncompliance with derrick manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(viii) Hoist brakes, clutches, and operating levers: check daily for proper functioning before beginning operations.
</P>
<P>(ix) Electrical apparatus for malfunctioning, signs of excessive deterioration, dirt, and moisture accumulation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic inspection.</I> (i) Complete inspections of the derrick shall be performed at intervals as generally defined in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(<I>b</I>) of this section depending upon its activity, severity of service, and environment, or as specifically indicated below. These inspections shall include the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section and in addition, items such as the following. Deficiencies shall be carefully examined and a determination made as to whether they constitute a safety hazard:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Structural members for deformations, cracks, and corrosion.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Bolts or rivets for tightness.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Parts such as pins, bearings, shafts, gears, sheaves, drums, rollers, locking and clamping devices, for wear, cracks, and distortion.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Gudgeon pin for cracks, wear, and distortion each time the derrick is to be erected.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Powerplants for proper performance and compliance with applicable safety requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Hooks.
</P>
<P>(ii) Foundation or supports shall be inspected for continued ability to sustain the imposed loads.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Derricks not in regular use.</I> (i) A derrick which has been idle for a period of 1 month or more, but less than 6 months, shall be given an inspection conforming with requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section and paragraph (g)(3) of this section before placing in service.
</P>
<P>(ii) A derrick which has been idle for a period of over 6 months shall be given a complete inspection conforming with requirements of paragraphs (d) (2) and (3) of this section and paragraph (g)(3) of this section before placing in service.
</P>
<P>(iii) Standby derricks shall be inspected at least semiannually in accordance with requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section and paragraph (g)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Testing</I>—(1) <I>Operational tests.</I> Prior to initial use all new and altered derricks shall be tested to insure compliance with this section including the following functions:
</P>
<P>(i) Load hoisting and lowering.
</P>
<P>(ii) Boom up and down.
</P>
<P>(iii) Swing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Operation of clutches and brakes of hoist.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Anchorages.</I> All anchorages shall be approved by the appointed person. Rock and hairpin anchorages may require special testing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Preventive maintenance.</I> A preventive maintenance program based on the derrick manufacturer's recommendations shall be established.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maintenance procedure.</I> (i) Before adjustments and repairs are started on a derrick the following precautions shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The derrick to be repaired shall be arranged so it will cause the least interference with other equipment and operations in the area.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) All hoist drum dogs shall be engaged.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The main or emergency switch shall be locked in the open position, if an electric hoist is used.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Warning or out of order signs shall be placed on the derrick and hoist.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The repairs of booms of derricks shall either be made when the booms are lowered and adequately supported or safely tied off.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) A good communication system shall be set up between the hoist operator and the appointed individual in charge of derrick operations before any work on the equipment is started.
</P>
<P>(ii) After adjustments and repairs have been made the derrick shall not be operated until all guards have been reinstalled, safety devices reactivated, and maintenance equipment removed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustments and repairs.</I> (i) Any unsafe conditions disclosed by inspection shall be corrected before operation of the derrick is resumed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustments shall be maintained to assure correct functioning of components.
</P>
<P>(iii) Repairs or replacements shall be provided promptly as needed for safe operation. The following are examples of conditions requiring prompt repair or replacement:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Hooks showing defects described in paragraph (d)(2)(vi) of this section shall be discarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) All critical parts which are cracked, broken, bent, or excessively worn.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) All replacement and repaired parts shall have at least the original safety factor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rope inspection</I>—(1) <I>Running ropes.</I> A thorough inspection of all ropes in use shall be made at least once a month and a certification record which includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection, and an identifier for the ropes which were inspected shall be prepared and kept on file where readily available. Any deterioration, resulting in appreciable loss of original strength shall be carefully observed and determination made as to whether further use of the rope would constitute a safety hazard. Some of the conditions that could result in an appreciable loss of strength are the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Reduction of rope diameter below nominal diameter due to loss of core support, internal or external corrosion, or wear of outside wires.
</P>
<P>(ii) A number of broken outside wires and the degree of distribution or concentration of such broken wires.
</P>
<P>(iii) Worn outside wires.
</P>
<P>(iv) Corroded or broken wires at end connections.
</P>
<P>(v) Corroded, cracked, bent, worn, or improperly applied end connections.
</P>
<P>(vi) Severe kinking, crushing, cutting, or unstranding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limited travel ropes.</I> Heavy wear and/or broken wires may occur in sections in contact with equalizer sheaves or other sheaves where rope travel is limited, or with saddles. Particular care shall be taken to inspect ropes at these locations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Idle ropes.</I> All rope which has been idle for a period of a month or more due to shutdown or storage of a derrick on which it is installed shall be given a thorough inspection before it is used. This inspection shall be for all types of deterioration. A certification record shall be prepared and kept readily available which includes the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection, and an identifier for the ropes which were inspected.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonrotating ropes.</I> Particular care shall be taken in the inspection of nonrotating rope.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Operations of derricks.</I> Derrick operations shall be directed only by the individual specifically designated for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Handling the load</I>—(1) <I>Size of load.</I> (i) No derrick shall be loaded beyond the rated load.
</P>
<P>(ii) When loads approach the maximum rating of the derrick, it shall be ascertained that the weight of the load has been determined within plus or minus 10 percent before it is lifted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Attaching the load.</I> (i) The hoist rope shall not be wrapped around the load.
</P>
<P>(ii) The load shall be attached to the hook by means of slings or other suitable devices.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Moving the load.</I> (i) The load shall be well secured and properly balanced in the sling or lifting device before it is lifted more than a few inches.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before starting to hoist, the following conditions shall be noted:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Hoist rope shall not be kinked.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Multiple part lines shall not be twisted around each other.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The hook shall be brought over the load in such a manner as to prevent swinging.
</P>
<P>(iii) During hoisting, care shall be taken that:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) There is no sudden acceleration or deceleration of the moving load.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Load does not contact any obstructions.
</P>
<P>(iv) A derrick shall not be used for side loading except when specifically authorized by a responsible person who has determined that the various structural components will not be overstressed.
</P>
<P>(v) No hoisting, lowering, or swinging shall be done while anyone is on the load or hook.
</P>
<P>(vi) The operator should avoid carrying loads over people.
</P>
<P>(vii) The operator shall test the brakes each time a load approaching the rated load is handled by raising it a few inches and applying the brakes.
</P>
<P>(viii) Neither the load nor boom shall be lowered below the point where less than two full wraps of rope remain on their respective drums.
</P>
<P>(ix) When rotating a derrick, sudden starts and stops shall be avoided. Rotational speed shall be such that the load does not swing out beyond the radius at which it can be controlled.
</P>
<P>(x) Boom and hoisting rope systems shall not be twisted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Holding the load.</I> (i) The operator shall not be allowed to leave his position at the controls while the load is suspended.
</P>
<P>(ii) People should not be permitted to stand or pass under a load on the hook.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the load must remain suspended for any considerable length of time, a dog, or pawl and ratchet, or other equivalent means, rather than the brake alone, shall be used to hold the load.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of winch heads.</I> (i) Ropes shall not be handled on a winch head without the knowledge of the operator.
</P>
<P>(ii) While a winch head is being used, the operator shall be within convenient reach of the power unit control lever.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Securing boom.</I> Dogs, pawls, or other positive holding mechanism on the hoist shall be engaged. When not in use, the derrick boom shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be laid down;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be secured to a stationary member, as nearly under the head as possible, by attachment of a sling to the load block; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Be hoisted to a vertical position and secured to the mast.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other requirements</I>—(1) <I>Guards.</I> (i) Exposed moving parts, such as gears, ropes, setscrews, projecting keys, chains, chain sprockets, and reciprocating components, which constitute a hazard under normal operating conditions shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(ii) Guards shall be securely fastened.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each guard shall be capable of supporting without permanent distortion, the weight of a 200-pound person unless the guard is located where it is impossible for a person to step on it.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hooks.</I> (i) Hooks shall meet the manufacturer's recommendations and shall not be overloaded.
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety latch type hooks shall be used wherever possible.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fire extinguishers.</I> (i) A carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or equivalent fire extinguisher shall be kept in the immediate vicinity of the derrick.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operating and maintenance personnel shall be familiar with the use and care of the fire extinguishers provided.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Refueling.</I> (i) Refueling with portable containers shall be done with approved safety type containers equipped with automatic closing cap and flame arrester. Refer to § 1910.155(c)(3) for definition of Approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Machines shall not be refueled with the engine running.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Operations near overhead lines.</I> For operations near overhead electric lines, see § 1910.333(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cab or operating enclosure.</I> (i) Necessary clothing and personal belongings shall be stored in such a manner as to not interfere with access or operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tools, oilcans, waste, extra fuses, and other necessary articles shall be stored in the toolbox, and shall not be permitted to lie loose in or about the cab or operating enclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 22102, Oct. 18, 1972, as amended at 38 FR 14373, June 1, 1973; 43 FR 49750, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984; 51 FR 34561, Sept. 29, 1986; 53 FR 12122, Apr. 12, 1988; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.183" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14.37.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.183   Helicopters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Briefing.</I> Prior to each day's operation a briefing shall be conducted. This briefing shall set forth the plan of operation for the pilot and ground personnel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Slings and tag lines.</I> Loads shall be properly slung. Tag lines shall be of a length that will not permit their being drawn up into the rotors. Pressed sleeve, swedged eyes, or equivalent means shall be used for all freely suspended loads to prevent hand splices from spinning open or cable clamps from loosening.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cargo hooks.</I> All electrically operated cargo hooks shall have the electrical activating device so designed and installed as to prevent inadvertent operation. In addition, these cargo hooks shall be equipped with an emergency mechanical control for releasing the load. The employer shall ensure that the hooks are tested prior to each day's operation by a competent person to determine that the release functions properly, both electrically and mechanically.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> (1) Personal protective equipment shall be provided and the employer shall ensure its use by employees receiving the load. Personal protective equipment shall consist of complete eye protection and hardhats secured by chinstraps.
</P>
<P>(2) Loose-fitting clothing likely to flap in rotor downwash, and thus be snagged on the hoist line, may not be worn.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Loose gear and objects.</I> The employer shall take all necessary precautions to protect employees from flying objects in the rotor downwash. All loose gear within 100 feet of the place of lifting the load or depositing the load, or within all other areas susceptible to rotor downwash, shall be secured or removed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Housekeeping.</I> Good housekeeping shall be maintained in all helicopter loading and unloading areas.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Load safety.</I> The size and weight of loads, and the manner in which loads are connected to the helicopter shall be checked. A lift may not be made if the helicopter operator believes the lift cannot be made safely.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hooking and unhooking loads.</I> When employees perform work under hovering craft, a safe means of access shall be provided for employees to reach the hoist line hook and engage or disengage cargo slings. Employees may not be permitted to perform work under hovering craft except when necessary to hook or unhook loads.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Static charge.</I> Static charge on the suspended load shall be dissipated with a grounding device before ground personnel touch the suspended load, unless protective rubber gloves are being worn by all ground personnel who may be required to touch the suspended load.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Weight limitation.</I> The weight of an external load shall not exceed the helicopter manufacturer's rating.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Ground lines.</I> Hoist wires or other gear, except for pulling lines or conductors that are allowed to “pay out” from a container or roll off a reel, shall not be attached to any fixed ground structure, or allowed to foul on any fixed structure.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Visibility.</I> Ground personnel shall be instructed and the employer shall ensure that when visibility is reduced by dust or other conditions, they shall exercise special caution to keep clear of main and stabilizing rotors. Precautions shall also be taken by the employer to eliminate, as far as practical, the dust or other conditions reducing the visibility.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Signal systems.</I> The employer shall instruct the aircrew and ground personnel on the signal systems to be used and shall review the system with the employees in advance of hoisting the load. This applies to both radio and hand signal systems. Hand signals, where used, shall be as shown in Figure N-1.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Approach distance.</I> No employee shall be permitted to approach within 50 feet of the helicopter when the rotor blades are turning, unless his work duties require his presence in that area.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Approaching helicopter.</I> The employer shall instruct employees, and shall ensure, that whenever approaching or leaving a helicopter which has its blades rotating, all employees shall remain in full view of the pilot and keep in a crouched position. No employee shall be permitted to work in the area from the cockpit or cabin rearward while blades are rotating, unless authorized by the helicopter operator to work there.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Personnel.</I> Sufficient ground personnel shall be provided to ensure that helicopter loading and unloading operations can be performed safely.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Communications.</I> There shall be constant reliable communication between the pilot and a designated employee of the ground crew who acts as a signalman during the period of loading and unloading. The signalman shall be clearly distinguishable from other ground personnel.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Fires.</I> Open fires shall not be permitted in areas where they could be spread by the rotor downwash.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.044.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13440, Mar. 26, 1975, as amended at 63 FR 33467, June 18, 1998]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.184" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.14.37.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.184   Slings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to slings used in conjunction with other material handling equipment for the movement of material by hoisting, in employments covered by this part. The types of slings covered are those made from alloy steel chain, wire rope, metal mesh, natural or synthetic fiber rope (conventional three strand construction), and synthetic web (nylon, polyester, and polypropylene).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Angle of loading</I> is the inclination of a leg or branch of a sling measured from the horizontal or vertical plane as shown in Fig. N-184-5; provided that an angle of loading of five degrees or less from the vertical may be considered a vertical angle of loading.
</P>
<P><I>Basket hitch</I> is a sling configuration whereby the sling is passed under the load and has both ends, end attachments, eyes or handles on the hook or a single master link.
</P>
<P><I>Braided wire rope</I> is a wire rope formed by plaiting component wire ropes.
</P>
<P><I>Bridle wire rope sling</I> is a sling composed of multiple wire rope legs with the top ends gathered in a fitting that goes over the lifting hook.
</P>
<P><I>Cable laid endless sling-mechanical joint</I> is a wire rope sling made endless by joining the ends of a single length of cable laid rope with one or more metallic fittings.
</P>
<P><I>Cable laid grommet-hand tucked</I> is an endless wire rope sling made from one length of rope wrapped six times around a core formed by hand tucking the ends of the rope inside the six wraps.
</P>
<P><I>Cable laid rope</I> is a wire rope composed of six wire ropes wrapped around a fiber or wire rope core.
</P>
<P><I>Cable laid rope sling-mechanical joint</I> is a wire rope sling made from a cable laid rope with eyes fabricated by pressing or swaging one or more metal sleeves over the rope junction.
</P>
<P><I>Choker hitch</I> is a sling configuration with one end of the sling passing under the load and through an end attachment, handle or eye on the other end of the sling.
</P>
<P><I>Coating</I> is an elastomer or other suitable material applied to a sling or to a sling component to impart desirable properties.
</P>
<P><I>Cross rod</I> is a wire used to join spirals of metal mesh to form a complete fabric. (See Fig. N-184-2.)
</P>
<P><I>Designated</I> means selected or assigned by the employer or the employer's representative as being qualified to perform specific duties.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent entity</I> is a person or organization (including an employer) which, by possession of equipment, technical knowledge and skills, can perform with equal competence the same repairs and tests as the person or organization with which it is equated.
</P>
<P><I>Fabric (metal mesh)</I> is the flexible portion of a metal mesh sling consisting of a series of transverse coils and cross rods.
</P>
<P><I>Female handle (choker)</I> is a handle with a handle eye and a slot of such dimension as to permit passage of a male handle thereby allowing the use of a metal mesh sling in a choker hitch. (See Fig. N-184-1.)
</P>
<P><I>Handle</I> is a terminal fitting to which metal mesh fabric is attached. (See Fig. N-184-1.)
</P>
<P><I>Handle eye</I> is an opening in a handle of a metal mesh sling shaped to accept a hook, shackle or other lifting device. (See Fig. N-184-1.)
</P>
<P><I>Hitch</I> is a sling configuration whereby the sling is fastened to an object or load, either directly to it or around it.
</P>
<P><I>Link</I> is a single ring of a chain.
</P>
<P><I>Male handle (triangle)</I> is a handle with a handle eye.
</P>
<P><I>Master coupling link</I> is an alloy steel welded coupling link used as an intermediate link to join alloy steel chain to master links. (See Fig. N-184-3.)
</P>
<P><I>Master link</I> or <I>gathering ring</I> is a forged or welded steel link used to support all members (legs) of an alloy steel chain sling or wire rope sling. (See Fig. N-184-3.)
</P>
<P><I>Mechanical coupling link</I> is a nonwelded, mechanically closed steel link used to attach master links, hooks, etc., to alloy steel chain.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.045.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.046.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.047.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er15ap19.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er15ap19.006.gif"/>
<P><I>Proof load</I> is the load applied in performance of a proof test.
</P>
<P><I>Proof test</I> is a nondestructive tension test performed by the sling manufacturer or an equivalent entity to verify construction and workmanship of a sling.
</P>
<P><I>Rated capacity</I> or <I>working load limit</I> is the maximum working load permitted by the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Reach</I> is the effective length of an alloy steel chain sling measured from the top bearing surface of the upper terminal component to the bottom bearing surface of the lower terminal component.
</P>
<P><I>Selvage edge</I> is the finished edge of synthetic webbing designed to prevent unraveling.
</P>
<P><I>Sling</I> is an assembly which connects the load to the material handling equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Sling manufacturer</I> is a person or organization that assembles sling components into their final form for sale to users.
</P>
<P><I>Spiral</I> is a single transverse coil that is the basic element from which metal mesh is fabricated. (See Fig. N-184-2.)
</P>
<P><I>Strand laid endless sling-mechanical joint</I> is a wire rope sling made endless from one length of rope with the ends joined by one or more metallic fittings.
</P>
<P><I>Strand laid grommet-hand tucked</I> is an endless wire rope sling made from one length of strand wrapped six times around a core formed by hand tucking the ends of the strand inside the six wraps.
</P>
<P><I>Strand laid rope</I> is a wire rope made with strands (usually six or eight) wrapped around a fiber core, wire strand core, or independent wire rope core (IWRC).
</P>
<P><I>Vertical hitch</I> is a method of supporting a load by a single, vertical part or leg of the sling. (See Fig. N-184-4.)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safe operating practices.</I> Whenever any sling is used, the following practices shall be observed:
</P>
<P>(1) Slings that are damaged or defective shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Slings shall not be shortened with knots or bolts or other makeshift devices.
</P>
<P>(3) Sling legs shall not be kinked.
</P>
<P>(4) Slings shall not be loaded in excess of their rated capacities.
</P>
<P>(5) Slings used in a basket hitch shall have the loads balanced to prevent slippage.
</P>
<P>(6) Slings shall be securely attached to their loads.
</P>
<P>(7) Slings shall be padded or protected from the sharp edges of their loads.
</P>
<P>(8) Suspended loads shall be kept clear of all obstructions.
</P>
<P>(9) All employees shall be kept clear of loads about to be lifted and of suspended loads.
</P>
<P>(10) Hands or fingers shall not be placed between the sling and its load while the sling is being tightened around the load.
</P>
<P>(11) Shock loading is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(12) A sling shall not be pulled from under a load when the load is resting on the sling.
</P>
<P>(13) Employers must not load a sling in excess of its recommended safe working load as prescribed by the sling manufacturer on the identification markings permanently affixed to the sling.
</P>
<P>(14) Employers must not use slings without affixed and legible identification markings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inspections.</I> Each day before being used, the sling and all fastenings and attachments shall be inspected for damage or defects by a competent person designated by the employer. Additional inspections shall be performed during sling use, where service conditions warrant. Damaged or defective slings shall be immediately removed from service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alloy steel chain slings</I>—(1) <I>Sling identification.</I> Alloy steel chain slings shall have permanently affixed durable identification stating size, grade, rated capacity, and reach.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Attachments.</I> (i) Hooks, rings, oblong links, pear shaped links, welded or mechanical coupling links or other attachments shall have a rated capacity at least equal to that of the alloy steel chain with which they are used or the sling shall not be used in excess of the rated capacity of the weakest component.
</P>
<P>(ii) Makeshift links or fasteners formed from bolts or rods, or other such attachments, shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inspections.</I> (i) In addition to the inspection required by paragraph (d) of this section, a thorough periodic inspection of alloy steel chain slings in use shall be made on a regular basis, to be determined on the basis of (A) frequency of sling use; (B) severity of service conditions; (C) nature of lifts being made; and (D) experience gained on the service life of slings used in similar circumstances. Such inspections shall in no event be at intervals greater than once every 12 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make and maintain a record of the most recent month in which each alloy steel chain sling was thoroughly inspected, and shall make such record available for examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) The thorough inspection of alloy steel chain slings shall be performed by a competent person designated by the employer, and shall include a thorough inspection for wear, defective welds, deformation and increase in length. Where such defects or deterioration are present, the sling shall be immediately removed from service.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Proof testing.</I> The employer shall ensure that before use, each new, repaired, or reconditioned alloy steel chain sling, including all welded components in the sling assembly, shall be proof tested by the sling manufacturer or equivalent entity, in accordance with paragraph 5.2 of the American Society of Testing and Materials Specification A391-65, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6 (ANSI G61.1-1968). The employer shall retain a certificate of the proof test and shall make it available for examination.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safe operating temperatures.</I> Employers must permanently remove an alloy steel-chain slings from service if it is heated above 1000 degrees F. When exposed to service temperatures in excess of 600 degrees F, employers must reduce the maximum working-load limits permitted by the chain manufacturer in accordance with the chain or sling manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Repairing and reconditioning alloy steel chain slings.</I> (i) Worn or damaged alloy steel chain slings or attachments shall not be used until repaired. When welding or heat testing is performed, slings shall not be used unless repaired, reconditioned and proof tested by the sling manufacturer or an equivalent entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical coupling links or low carbon steel repair links shall not be used to repair broken lengths of chain.
</P>
<P>(8) Effect of wear. If the chain size at any point of the link is less than that stated in Table N-184-1, the employer must remove the chain from service.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Deformed attachments.</I> (i) Alloy steel chain slings with cracked or deformed master links, coupling links or other components shall be removed from service.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table N-184-1—Minimum Allowable Chain Size At Any Point of Link
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chain size, inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum allowable chain size, inches
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>19/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>25/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>31/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>19/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>5/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>29/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>13/32</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Slings shall be removed from service if hooks are cracked, have been opened more than 15 percent of the normal throat opening measured at the narrowest point or twisted more than 10 degrees from the plane of the unbent hook.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Wire-rope slings</I>—(1) <I>Sling use.</I> Employers must use only wire-rope slings that have permanently affixed and legible identification markings as prescribed by the manufacturer, and that indicate the recommended safe working load for the type(s) of hitch(es) used, the angle upon which it is based, and the number of legs if more than one.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum sling lengths.</I> (i) Cable laid and 6 × 19 and 6 × 37 slings shall have a minimum clear length of wire rope 10 times the component rope diameter between splices, sleeves or end fittings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Braided slings shall have a minimum clear length of wire rope 40 times the component rope diameter between the loops or end fittings.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cable laid grommets, strand laid grommets and endless slings shall have a minimum circumferential length of 96 times their body diameter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe operating temperatures.</I> Fiber core wire rope slings of all grades shall be permanently removed from service if they are exposed to temperatures in excess of 200 °F. When nonfiber core wire rope slings of any grade are used at temperatures above 400 °F or below minus 60 °F, recommendations of the sling manufacturer regarding use at that temperature shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>End attachments.</I> (i) Welding of end attachments, except covers to thimbles, shall be performed prior to the assembly of the sling.
</P>
<P>(ii) All welded end attachments shall not be used unless proof tested by the manufacturer or equivalent entity at twice their rated capacity prior to initial use. The employer shall retain a certificate of the proof test, and make it available for examination.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Removal from service.</I> Wire rope slings shall be immediately removed from service if any of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(i) Ten randomly distributed broken wires in one rope lay, or five broken wires in one strand in one rope lay.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wear or scraping of one-third the original diameter of outside individual wires.
</P>
<P>(iii) Kinking, crushing, bird caging or any other damage resulting in distortion of the wire rope structure.
</P>
<P>(iv) Evidence of heat damage.
</P>
<P>(v) End attachments that are cracked, deformed or worn.
</P>
<P>(vi) Hooks that have been opened more than 15 percent of the normal throat opening measured at the narrowest point or twisted more than 10 degrees from the plane of the unbent hook.
</P>
<P>(vii) Corrosion of the rope or end attachments.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Metal mesh slings</I>—(1) <I>Sling marking.</I> Each metal mesh sling shall have permanently affixed to it a durable marking that states the rated capacity for vertical basket hitch and choker hitch loadings.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Handles.</I> Handles shall have a rated capacity at least equal to the metal fabric and exhibit no deformation after proof testing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Attachments of handles to fabric.</I> The fabric and handles shall be joined so that:
</P>
<P>(i) The rated capacity of the sling is not reduced.
</P>
<P>(ii) The load is evenly distributed across the width of the fabric.
</P>
<P>(iii) Sharp edges will not damage the fabric.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sling coatings.</I> Coatings which diminish the rated capacity of a sling shall not be applied.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sling testing.</I> All new and repaired metal mesh slings, including handles, shall not be used unless proof tested by the manufacturer or equivalent entity at a minimum of 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times their rated capacity. Elastomer impregnated slings shall be proof tested before coating.
</P>
<P>(6) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Safe operating temperatures.</I> Metal mesh slings which are not impregnated with elastomers may be used in a temperature range from minus 20 °F to plus 550 °F without decreasing the working load limit. Metal mesh slings impregnated with polyvinyl chloride or neoprene may be used only in a temperature range from zero degrees to plus 200 °F. For operations outside these temperature ranges or for metal mesh slings impregnated with other materials, the sling manufacturer's recommendations shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Repairs.</I> (i) Metal mesh slings which are repaired shall not be used unless repaired by a metal mesh sling manufacturer or an equivalent entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Once repaired, each sling shall be permanently marked or tagged, or a written record maintained, to indicate the date and nature of the repairs and the person or organization that performed the repairs. Records of repairs shall be made available for examination.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Removal from service.</I> Metal mesh slings shall be immediately removed from service if any of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(i) A broken weld or broken brazed joint along the sling edge.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reduction in wire diameter of 25 per cent due to abrasion or 15 per cent due to corrosion.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lack of flexibility due to distortion of the fabric.
</P>
<P>(iv) Distortion of the female handle so that the depth of the slot is increased more than 10 per cent.
</P>
<P>(v) Distortion of either handle so that the width of the eye is decreased more than 10 per cent.
</P>
<P>(vi) A 15 percent reduction of the original cross sectional area of metal at any point around the handle eye.
</P>
<P>(vii) Distortion of either handle out of its plane.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Natural and synthetic fiber-rope slings</I>—(1) <I>Sling use.</I> Employers must use natural and synthetic fiber-rope slings that have permanently affixed and legible identification markings stating the rated capacity for the type(s) of hitch(es) used and the angle upon which it is based, type of fiber material, and the number of legs if more than one.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe operating temperatures.</I> Natural and synthetic fiber rope slings, except for wet frozen slings, may be used in a temperature range from minus 20 °F to plus 180 °F without decreasing the working load limit. For operations outside this temperature range and for wet frozen slings, the sling manufacturer's recommendations shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Splicing.</I> Spliced fiber rope slings shall not be used unless they have been spliced in accordance with the following minimum requirements and in accordance with any additional recommendations of the manufacturer:
</P>
<P>(i) In manila rope, eye splices shall consist of at least three full tucks, and short splices shall consist of at least six full tucks, three on each side of the splice center line.
</P>
<P>(ii) In synthetic fiber rope, eye splices shall consist of at least four full tucks, and short splices shall consist of at least eight full tucks, four on each side of the center line.
</P>
<P>(iii) Strand end tails shall not be trimmed flush with the surface of the rope immediately adjacent to the full tucks. This applies to all types of fiber rope and both eye and short splices. For fiber rope under one inch in diameter, the tail shall project at least six rope diameters beyond the last full tuck. For fiber rope one inch in diameter and larger, the tail shall project at least six inches beyond the last full tuck. Where a projecting tail interferes with the use of the sling, the tail shall be tapered and spliced into the body of the rope using at least two additional tucks (which will require a tail length of approximately six rope diameters beyond the last full tuck).
</P>
<P>(iv) Fiber rope slings shall have a minimum clear length of rope between eye splices equal to 10 times the rope diameter.
</P>
<P>(v) Knots shall not be used in lieu of splices.
</P>
<P>(vi) Clamps not designed specifically for fiber ropes shall not be used for splicing.
</P>
<P>(vii) For all eye splices, the eye shall be of such size to provide an included angle of not greater than 60 degrees at the splice when the eye is placed over the load or support.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>End attachments.</I> Fiber rope slings shall not be used if end attachments in contact with the rope have sharp edges or projections.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Removal from service.</I> Natural and synthetic fiber rope slings shall be immediately removed from service if any of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(i) Abnormal wear.
</P>
<P>(ii) Powdered fiber between strands.
</P>
<P>(iii) Broken or cut fibers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Variations in the size or roundness of strands.
</P>
<P>(v) Discoloration or rotting.
</P>
<P>(vi) Distortion of hardware in the sling.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Repairs.</I> Only fiber rope slings made from new rope shall be used. Use of repaired or reconditioned fiber rope slings is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Synthetic web slings</I>—(1) <I>Sling identification.</I> Each sling shall be marked or coded to show the rated capacities for each type of hitch and type of synthetic web material.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Webbing.</I> Synthetic webbing shall be of uniform thickness and width and selvage edges shall not be split from the webbing's width.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fittings.</I> Fittings shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Of a minimum breaking strength equal to that of the sling; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Free of all sharp edges that could in any way damage the webbing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Attachment of end fittings to webbing and formation of eyes.</I> Stitching shall be the only method used to attach end fittings to webbing and to form eyes. The thread shall be in an even pattern and contain a sufficient number of stitches to develop the full breaking strength of the sling.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Environmental conditions.</I> When synthetic web slings are used, the following precautions shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(i) Nylon web slings shall not be used where fumes, vapors, sprays, mists or liquids of acids or phenolics are present.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polyester and polypropylene web slings shall not be used where fumes, vapors, sprays, mists or liquids of caustics are present.
</P>
<P>(iii) Web slings with aluminum fittings shall not be used where fumes, vapors, sprays, mists or liquids of caustics are present.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.050.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.051.gif"/>
<P>(7) <I>Safe operating temperatures.</I> Synthetic web slings of polyester and nylon shall not be used at temperatures in excess of 180 °F. Polypropylene web slings shall not be used at temperatures in excess of 200 °F.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Repairs.</I> (i) Synthetic web slings which are repaired shall not be used unless repaired by a sling manufacturer or an equivalent entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each repaired sling shall be proof tested by the manufacturer or equivalent entity to twice the rated capacity prior to its return to service. The employer shall retain a certificate of the proof test and make it available for examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) Slings, including webbing and fittings, which have been repaired in a temporary manner shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Removal from service.</I> Synthetic web slings shall be immediately removed from service if any of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(i) Acid or caustic burns;
</P>
<P>(ii) Melting or charring of any part of the sling surface;
</P>
<P>(iii) Snags, punctures, tears or cuts;
</P>
<P>(iv) Broken or worn stitches; or
</P>
<P>(v) Distortion of fittings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 27369, June 27, 1975, as amended at 40 FR 31598, July 28, 1975; 41 FR 13353, Mar. 30, 1976; 58 FR 35309, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996; 76 FR 33607, June 8, 2011; 84 FR 15105, Apr. 15, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Machinery and Machine Guarding</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; 20 CFR part 1911. Sections 1910.217 and 1910.219 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.211" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.211   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in §§ 1910.213 and 1910.214 unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following woodworking machinery terms shall have the meaning prescribed in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Point of operations</I> means that point at which cutting, shaping, boring, or forming is accomplished upon the stock.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Push stick</I> means a narrow strip of wood or other soft material with a notch cut into one end and which is used to push short pieces of material through saws.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Block</I> means a short block of wood, provided with a handle similar to that of a plane and a shoulder at the rear end, which is used for pushing short stock over revolving cutters.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in § 1910.215 unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following abrasive wheel machinery terms shall have the meanings prescribed in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Type 1 straight wheels</I> means wheels having diameter, thickness, and hole size dimensions, and they should be used only on the periphery. Type 1 wheels shall be mounted between flanges.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> Hole dimension (H) should not be greater than two-thirds of wheel diameter dimension (D) for precision, cylindrical, centerless, or surface grinding applications. Maximum hole size for all other applications should not exceed one-half wheel diameter.</P></EXTRACT>
<TCAP><E T="15">Figure No. 0-1—Type 1 Straight Wheels</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.052.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Type 1—Straight Wheel</E></BCAP>
<HD2>Peripheral grinding wheel having a diameter, thickness and hole.
</HD2>
<P>(2) <I>Type 2 cylinder wheels</I> means wheels having diameter, wheel thickness, and rim thickness dimensions. Grinding is performed on the rim face only, dimension W. Cylinder wheels may be plain, plate mounted, inserted nut, or of the projecting stud type.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> Rim height, T dimension, is generally equal to or greater than rim thickness, W dimension.</P></EXTRACT>
<TCAP><E T="15">Figure No. 0-2—Type 2 Cylinder Wheels</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.053.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Type 2—Cylinder Wheel</E></BCAP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP><I>Side grinding wheel having a diameter, thickness and wall—wheel is mounted on the diameter.</I></FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Type 6 straight cup wheels</I> means wheels having diameter, thickness, hole size, rim thickness, and back thickness dimensions. Grinding is always performed on rim face, W dimension.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> Minimum back thickness, E dimension, should not be less than one-fourth T dimension. In addition, when unthreaded hole wheels are specified, the inside flat, K dimension, must be large enough to accommodate a suitable flange.</P></EXTRACT>
<TCAP><E T="15">Figure No. 0-3—Type 6 Straight Cup Wheels</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.054.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Type 6—Straight-cup Wheel</E></BCAP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP><I>Side grinding wheel having a diameter, thickness and hole with one side straight or flat and the opposite side recessed. This type, however, differs from Type 5 in that the grinding is performed on the wall of the abrasive created by the difference between the diameter of the recess and the outside diameter of the wheel. Therefore, the wall dimension “W” takes precedence over the diameter of the recess as an essential intermediate dimension to describe this shape type.</I></FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Type 11 flaring cup wheels</I> mean wheels having double diameter dimensions D and J, and in addition have thickness, hole size, rim and back thickness dimensions. Grinding is always performed on rim face, W dimension. Type 11 wheels are subject to all limitations of use and mounting listed for type 6 straight sided cup wheels definition.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> Minimum back thickness, E dimension, should not be less than one-fourth T dimension. In addition when unthreaded hole wheels are specified the inside flat, K dimension, shall be large enough to accommodate a suitable flange.</P></EXTRACT>
<TCAP><E T="15">Figure No. 0-4—Type 11 Flaring Cup Wheels</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.055.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Type 11—Flaring-cup Wheel</E></BCAP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP><I>Side grinding wheel having a wall flared or tapered outward from the back. Wall thickness at the back is normally greater than at the grinding face (W).</I></FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) <I>Modified types 6 and 11 wheels (terrazzo)</I> mean some type 6 and 11 cup wheels used in the terrazzo trade having tapered K dimensions to match a special tapered flange furnished by the machine builder.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> These wheels shall be mounted only with a special tapered flange.</P></EXTRACT>
<TCAP><E T="15">Figure No. 0-5</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.056.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Typical examples of modified types 6 and 11 wheels (terrazzo) showing tapered K dimensions.</E></BCAP>
<P>(6) <I>Types 27 and 28 depressed center wheels</I> mean wheels having diameter, thickness, and hole size dimensions. Both types are reinforced, organic bonded wheels having offset hubs which permit side and peripheral grinding operations without interference with the mounting. Type 27 wheels are manufactured with flat grinding rims permitting notching and cutting operations. Type 28 wheels have saucer shaped grinding rims.
</P>
<P>(i) Limitations: Special supporting, back adapter and inside flange nuts are required for the proper mounting of these types of wheels subject to limitations of § 1910.215(c)(4) (i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>(ii) Mounts which are affixed to the wheel by the manufacturer may not require an inside nut and shall not be reused.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Type 27A depressed center, cutting-off wheels</I> mean wheels having diameter, thickness, and hole size dimensions. They are reinforced, organic bonded, offset hub type wheels, usually 16 inches diameter and larger, specially designed for use on cutting-off machines where mounting nut or outer flange interference cannot be tolerated.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitations:</E> See § 1910.215(c)(1).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(8) <I>Surface feet per minute</I> (s.f.p.m.) means the distance in feet any one abrasive grain on the peripheral surface of a grinding wheel travels in 1 minute.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Surface Feet Per Minute = 3.1416 × diameter in inches × r.p.m. ÷ 12 or .262 × diameter in inches × r.p.m.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Examples:</HED><PSPACE>(a) 24-inch diameter wheel, 1,000 revolutions per minute. Surface Feet per minute .262 × 24 × 1,000 = 6,288 s.f.p.m.
</PSPACE><P>(b) 12-inch diameter wheel, 1,000 revolutions per minute. Surface Feet per minute .262 × 12 × 1,000 = 3,144 s.f.p.m.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(9) <I>Flanges</I> means collars, discs or plates between which wheels are mounted and are referred to as adaptor, sleeve, or back up type. See paragraph (c) of § 1910.215 for full description.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Snagging</I> means grinding which removes relatively large amounts of material without regard to close tolerances or surface finish requirements.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Off-hand grinding</I> means the grinding of any material or part which is held in the operator's hand.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Safety guard</I> means an enclosure designed to restrain the pieces of the grinding wheel and furnish all possible protection in the event that the wheel is broken in operation. See paragraph (b) of § 1910.215.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Cutting off wheels</I> means wheels having diameter thickness and hole size dimensions and are subject to all limitations of mounting and use listed for type 1 wheels, the definition in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph and paragraph (d) of § 1910.215. They may be steel centered, diamond abrasive or organic bonded abrasive of the plain or reinforced type.
</P>
<P>(i) Limitation: Cutting off wheels are recommended only for use on specially designed and fully guarded machines and are subject to the following maximum thickness and hole size limitations.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max. thickness (inch)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 inch and smaller</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/18</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 6 inches to 12 inches</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 12 inches to 23 inches</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 23 inches</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Maximum hole size for cutting-off wheels should not be larger than 
<FR>1/4</FR>-wheel diameter.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Abrasive wheel</I> means a cutting tool consisting of abrasive grains held together by organic or inorganic bonds. Diamond and reinforced wheels are included.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Organic wheels</I> means wheels which are bonded by means of an organic material such as resin, rubber, shellac, or other similar bonding agent.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Inorganic wheels</I> means wheels which are bonded by means of inorganic material such as clay, glass, porcelain, sodium silicate, magnesium oxychloride, or metal. Wheels bonded with clay, glass, porcelain or related ceramic materials are characterized as <I>vitrified bonded wheels.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) As used in § 1910.216, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following mills and calenders in the rubber and plastic industries terms shall have the meanings prescribed in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bite</I> means the nip point between any two inrunning rolls.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calender</I> means a machine equipped with two or more metal rolls revolving in opposite directions and used for continuously sheeting or plying up rubber and plastics compounds and for frictioning or coating materials with rubber and plastics compounds.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mill</I> means a machine consisting of two adjacent metal rolls, set horizontally, which revolve in opposite directions (i.e., toward each other as viewed from above) used for the mechanical working of rubber and plastics compounds.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in § 1910.217, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following power press terms shall have the meaning prescribed in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Antirepeat</I> means the part of the clutch/brake control system designed to limit the press to a single stroke if the tripping means is held operated. Antirepeat requires release of all tripping mechanisms before another stroke can be initiated. <I>Antirepeat</I> is also called single stroke reset or reset circuit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Brake</I> means the mechanism used on a mechanical power press to stop and/or hold the crankshaft, either directly or through a gear train, when the clutch is disengaged.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bolster plate</I> means the plate attached to the top of the bed of the press having drilled holes or T-slots for attaching the lower die or die shoe.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Clutch</I> means the coupling mechanism used on a mechanical power press to couple the flywheel to the crankshaft, either directly or through a gear train.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Full revolution clutch</I> means a type of clutch that, when tripped, cannot be disengaged until the crankshaft has completed a full revolution and the press slide a full stroke.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Part revolution clutch</I> means a type of clutch that can be disengaged at any point before the crankshaft has completed a full revolution and the press slide a full stroke.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Direct drive</I> means the type of driving arrangement wherein no clutch is used; coupling and decoupling of the driving torque is accomplished by energization and deenergization of a motor. Even though not employing a clutch, direct drives match the operational characteristics of “part revolution clutches” because the driving power may be disengaged during the stroke of the press.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Concurrent</I> means acting in conjunction, and is used to describe a situation wherein two or more controls exist in an operated condition at the same time.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Continuous</I> means uninterrupted multiple strokes of the slide without intervening stops (or other clutch control action) at the end of individual strokes.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Counterbalance</I> means the mechanism that is used to balance or support the weight of the connecting rods, slide, and slide attachments.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Device</I> means a press control or attachment that:
</P>
<P>(i) Restrains the operator from inadvertently reaching into the point of operation, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevents normal press operation if the operator's hands are inadvertently within the point of operation, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Automatically withdraws the operator's hands if the operator's hands are inadvertently within the point of operation as the dies close, or
</P>
<P>(iv) Prevents the initiation of a stroke, or stops of stroke in progress, when there is an intrusion through the sensing field by any part of the operator's body or by any other object.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Presence sensing device</I> means a device designed, constructed and arranged to create a sensing field or area that signals the clutch/brake control to deactivate the clutch and activate the brake of the press when any part of the operator's body or a hand tool is within such field or area.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Gate or movable barrier device</I> means a movable barrier arranged to enclose the point of operation before the press stroke can be started.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Holdout or restraint device</I> means a mechanism, including attachments for operator's hands, that when anchored and adjusted prevent the operator's hands from entering the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Pull-out device</I> means a mechanism attached to the operator's hands and connected to the upper die or slide of the press, that is designed, when properly adjusted, to withdraw the operator's hands as the dies close, if the operator's hands are inadvertently within the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Sweep device</I> means a single or double arm (rod) attached to the upper die or slide of the press and designed to move the operator's hands to a safe position as the dies close, if the operator's hands are inadvertently within the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Two hand control device</I> means a two hand trip that further requires concurrent pressure from both hands of the operator during a substantial part of the die-closing portion of the stroke of the press.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Die</I> means the tooling used in a press for cutting or forming material. An upper and a lower die make a complete set.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Die builder</I> means any person who builds dies for power presses.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Die set</I> means a tool holder held in alignment by guide posts and bushings and consisting of a lower shoe, an upper shoe or punch holder, and guide posts and bushings.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Die setter</I> means an individual who places or removes dies in or from mechanical power presses, and who, as a part of his duties, makes the necessary adjustments to cause the tooling to function properly and safely.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Die setting</I> means the process of placing or removing dies in or from a mechanical power press, and the process of adjusting the dies, other tooling and safeguarding means to cause them to function properly and safely.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Die shoe</I> means a plate or block upon which a die holder is mounted. A die shoe functions primarily as a base for the complete die assembly, and, when used, is bolted or clamped to the bolster plate or the face of slide.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Ejector</I> means a mechanism for removing work or material from between the dies.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Face of slide</I> means the bottom surface of the slide to which the punch or upper die is generally attached.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Feeding</I> means the process of placing or removing material within or from the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Automatic feeding</I> means feeding wherein the material or part being processed is placed within or removed from the point of operation by a method or means not requiring action by an operator on each stroke of the press.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Semiautomatic feeding</I> means feeding wherein the material or part being processed is placed within or removed from the point of operation by an auxiliary means controlled by operator on each stroke of the press.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Manual feeding</I> means feeding wherein the material or part being processed is handled by the operator on each stroke of the press.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Foot control</I> means the foot operated control mechanism designed to be used with a clutch or clutch/brake control system.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Foot pedal</I> means the foot operated lever designed to operate the mechanical linkage that trips a full revolution clutch.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Guard</I> means a barrier that prevents entry of the operator's hands or fingers into the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Die enclosure guard</I> means an enclosure attached to the die shoe or stripper, or both, in a fixed position.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Fixed barrier guard</I> means a die space barrier attached to the press frame.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Interlocked press barrier guard</I> means a barrier attached to the press frame and interlocked so that the press stroke cannot be started normally unless the guard itself, or its hinged or movable sections, enclose the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(36) <I>Adjustable barrier guard</I> means a barrier requiring adjustment for each job or die setup.
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Guide post</I> means the pin attached to the upper or lower die shoe operating within the bushing on the opposing die shoe, to maintain the alignment of the upper and lower dies.
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Hand feeding tool</I> means any hand held tool designed for placing or removing material or parts to be processed within or from the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Inch</I> means an intermittent motion imparted to the slide (on machines using part revolution clutches) by momentary operation of the <I>Inch</I> operating means. Operation of the <I>Inch</I> operating means engages the driving clutch so that a small portion of one stroke or indefinite stroking can occur, depending upon the length of time the <I>Inch</I> operating means is held operated. <I>Inch</I> is a function used by the die setter for setup of dies and tooling, but is not intended for use during production operations by the operator.
</P>
<P>(40) <I>Jog</I> means an intermittent motion imparted to the slide by momentary operation of the drive motor, after the clutch is engaged with the flywheel at rest.
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Knockout</I> means a mechanism for releasing material from either die.
</P>
<P>(42) <I>Liftout</I> means the mechanism also known as knockout.
</P>
<P>(43) <I>Operator's station</I> means the complete complement of controls used by or available to an operator on a given operation for stroking the press.
</P>
<P>(44) <I>Pinch point</I> means any point other than the point of operation at which it is possible for a part of the body to be caught between the moving parts of a press or auxiliary equipment, or between moving and stationary parts of a press or auxiliary equipment or between the material and moving part or parts of the press or auxiliary equipment.
</P>
<P>(45) <I>Point of operation</I> means the area of the press where material is actually positioned and work is being performed during any process such as shearing, punching, forming, or assembling.
</P>
<P>(46) <I>Press</I> means a mechanically powered machine that shears, punches, forms or assembles metal or other material by means of cutting, shaping, or combination dies attached to slides. A press consists of a stationary bed or anvil, and a slide (or slides) having a controlled reciprocating motion toward and away from the bed surface, the slide being guided in a definite path by the frame of the press.
</P>
<P>(47) <I>Repeat</I> means an unintended or unexpected successive stroke of the press resulting from a malfunction.
</P>
<P>(48) <I>Safety block</I> means a prop that, when inserted between the upper and lower dies or between the bolster plate and the face of the slide, prevents the slide from falling of its own deadweight.
</P>
<P>(49) <I>Single stroke</I> means one complete stroke of the slide, usually initiated from a full open (or up) position, followed by closing (or down), and then a return to the full open position.
</P>
<P>(50) <I>Single stroke mechanism</I> means an arrangement used on a full revolution clutch to limit the travel of the slide to one complete stroke at each engagement of the clutch.
</P>
<P>(51) <I>Slide</I> means the main reciprocating press member. A slide is also called a ram, plunger, or platen.
</P>
<P>(52) <I>Stop control</I> means an operator control designed to immediately deactivate the clutch control and activate the brake to stop slide motion.
</P>
<P>(53) <I>Stripper</I> means a mechanism or die part for removing the parts or material from the punch.
</P>
<P>(54) <I>Stroking selector</I> means the part of the clutch/brake control that determines the type of stroking when the operating means is actuated. The stroking selector generally includes positions for “Off” (Clutch Control), “Inch,” “Single Stroke,” and “Continuous” (when Continuous is furnished).
</P>
<P>(55) <I>Trip or (tripping)</I> means activation of the clutch to “run” the press.
</P>
<P>(56) <I>Turnover bar</I> means a bar used in die setting to manually turn the crankshaft of the press.
</P>
<P>(57) <I>Two-hand trip</I> means a clutch actuating means requiring the concurrent use of both hands of the operator to trip the press.
</P>
<P>(58) <I>Unitized tooling</I> means a type of die in which the upper and lower members are incorporated into a selfcontained unit so arranged as to hold the die members in alignment.
</P>
<P>(59) <I>Control system</I> means sensors, manual input and mode selection elements, interlocking and decision-making circuitry, and output elements to the press operating mechanism.
</P>
<P>(60) <I>Brake monitor</I> means a sensor designed, constructed, and arranged to monitor the effectiveness of the press braking system.
</P>
<P>(61) <I>Presence sensing device initiation</I> means an operating mode of indirect manual initiation of a single stroke by a presence sensing device when it senses that work motions of the operator, related to feeding and/or removing parts, are completed and all parts of the operator's body or hand tools are safely clear of the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(62) <I>Safety system</I> means the integrated total system, including the pertinent elements of the press, the controls, the safeguarding and any required supplemental safeguarding, and their interfaces with the operator, and the environment, designed, constructed and arranged to operate together as a unit, such that a single failure or single operating error will not cause injury to personnel due to point of operation hazards.
</P>
<P>(63) <I>Authorized person</I> means one to whom the authority and responsibility to perform a specific assignment has been given by the employer.
</P>
<P>(64) <I>Certification</I> or <I>certify</I> means, in the case of design certification/validation, that the manufacturer has reviewed and tested the design and manufacture, and in the case of installation certification/validation and annual recertification/revalidation, that the employer has reviewed and tested the installation, and concludes in both cases that the requirements of § 1910.217 (a) through (h) and appendix A have been met. The certifications are made to the validation organization.
</P>
<P>(65) <I>Validation</I> or <I>validate</I> means for PSDI safety systems that an OSHA recognized third-party validation organization:
</P>
<P>(i) For design certification/validation has reviewed the manufacturer's certification that the PSDI safety system meets the requirements of § 1910.217 (a) through (h) and appendix A and the underlying tests and analyses performed by the manufacturer, has performed additional tests and analyses which may be required by § 1910.217 (a) through (h) and appendix A, and concludes that the requirements of § 1910.217 (a) through (h) and appendix A have been met; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For installation certification/validation and annual recertification/revalidation has reviewed the employer's certification that the PSDI safety system meets the requirements of § 1910.217 (a) through (h) and appendix A and the underlying tests performed by the employer, has performed additional tests and analyses which may be required by § 1910.217 (a) through (h) and appendix A, and concludes that the requirements of § 1910.217 (a) through (h) and appendix A have been met.
</P>
<P>(66) <I>Certification/validation</I> and <I>certify/validate</I> means the combined process of certification and validation.
</P>
<P>(e) As used in § 1910.218, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following forging and hot metal terms shall have the meaning prescribed in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Forging</I> means the product of work on metal formed to a desired shape by impact or pressure in hammers, forging machines (upsetters), presses, rolls, and related forming equipment. Forging hammers, counterblow equipment and high-energy-rate forging machines impart impact to the workpiece, while most other types of forging equipment impart squeeze pressure in shaping the stock. Some metals can be forged at room temperature, but the majority of metals are made more plastic for forging by heating.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Open framehammers (or blacksmith hammers)</I> mean hammers used primarily for the shaping of forgings by means of impact with flat dies. Open frame hammers generally are so constructed that the anvil assembly is separate from the operating mechanism and machine supports; it rests on its own independent foundation. Certain exceptions are forging hammers made with frame mounted on the anvil; e.g., the smaller, single-frame hammers are usually made with the anvil and frame in one piece.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Steam hammers</I> mean a type of drop hammer where the ram is raised for each stroke by a double-action steam cylinder and the energy delivered to the workpiece is supplied by the velocity and weight of the ram and attached upper die driven downward by steam pressure. Energy delivered during each stroke may be varied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Gravity hammers</I> mean a class of forging hammer wherein energy for forging is obtained by the mass and velocity of a freely falling ram and the attached upper die. Examples: board hammers and air-lift hammers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Forging presses</I> mean a class of forging equipment wherein the shaping of metal between dies is performed by mechanical or hydraulic pressure, and usually is accomplished with a single workstroke of the press for each die station.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Trimming presses</I> mean a class of auxiliary forging equipment which removes flash or excess metal from a forging. This trimming operation can also be done cold, as can coining, a product sizing operation.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>High-energy-rate forging machines</I> mean a class of forging equipment wherein high ram velocities resulting from the sudden release of a compressed gas against a free piston impart impact to the workpiece.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Forging rolls</I> mean a class of auxiliary forging equipment wherein stock is shaped between power driven rolls bearing contoured dies. Usually used for preforming, roll forging is often employed to reduce thickness and increase length of stock.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Ring rolls</I> mean a class for forging equipment used for shaping weldless rings from pierced discs or thick-walled, ring-shaped blanks between rolls which control wall thickness, ring diameter, height and contour.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Bolt-headers</I> mean the same as an upsetter or forging machine except that the diameter of stock fed into the machine is much smaller, i.e., commonly three-fourths inch or less.
</P>
<P>(11) Rivet making machines mean the same as upsetters and boltheaders when producing rivets with stock diameter of 1-inch or more. Rivet making with less than 1-inch diameter is usually a cold forging operation, and therefore not included in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(12) Upsetters (or forging machines, or headers) type of forging equipment, related to the mechanical press, in which the main forming energy is applied horizontally to the workpiece which is gripped and held by prior action of the dies.
</P>
<P>(f) As used in § 1910.219, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following mechanical power-transmission guarding terms shall have the meaning prescribed in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Belts</I> include all power transmission belts, such as flat belts, round belts, V-belts, etc., unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Belt shifter</I> means a device for mechanically shifting belts from tight to loose pulleys or vice versa, or for shifting belts on cones of speed pulleys.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Belt pole</I> (sometimes called a <I>belt shipper</I> or <I>shipper pole,</I>) means a device used in shifting belts on and off fixed pulleys on line or countershaft where there are no loose pulleys.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exposed to contact</I> means that the location of an object is such that a person is likely to come into contact with it and be injured.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Flywheels</I> include flywheels, balance wheels, and flywheel pulleys mounted and revolving on crankshaft of engine or other shafting.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Maintenance runway</I> means any permanent runway or platform used for oiling, maintenance, running adjustment, or repair work, but not for passageway.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Nip-point belt and pulley guard</I> means a device which encloses the pulley and is provided with rounded or rolled edge slots through which the belt passes.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Point of operation</I> means that point at which cutting, shaping, or forming is accomplished upon the stock and shall include such other points as may offer a hazard to the operator in inserting or manipulating the stock in the operation of the machine.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Prime movers</I> include steam, gas, oil, and air engines, motors, steam and hydraulic turbines, and other equipment used as a source of power.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Sheaves</I> mean grooved pulleys, and shall be so classified unless used as flywheels.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 39 FR 41846, Dec. 3, 1974; 53 FR 8353, Mar. 14, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.212" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.212   General requirements for all machines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Machine guarding</I>—(1) <I>Types of guarding.</I> One or more methods of machine guarding shall be provided to protect the operator and other employees in the machine area from hazards such as those created by point of operation, ingoing nip points, rotating parts, flying chips and sparks. Examples of guarding methods are—barrier guards, two-hand tripping devices, electronic safety devices, etc.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General requirements for machine guards.</I> Guards shall be affixed to the machine where possible and secured elsewhere if for any reason attachment to the machine is not possible. The guard shall be such that it does not offer an accident hazard in itself.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Point of operation guarding.</I> (i) Point of operation is the area on a machine where work is actually performed upon the material being processed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The point of operation of machines whose operation exposes an employee to injury, shall be guarded. The guarding device shall be in conformity with any appropriate standards therefor, or, in the absence of applicable specific standards, shall be so designed and constructed as to prevent the operator from having any part of his body in the danger zone during the operating cycle.
</P>
<P>(iii) Special handtools for placing and removing material shall be such as to permit easy handling of material without the operator placing a hand in the danger zone. Such tools shall not be in lieu of other guarding required by this section, but can only be used to supplement protection provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) The following are some of the machines which usually require point of operation guarding:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Guillotine cutters.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Shears.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Alligator shears.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Power presses.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Milling machines.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Power saws.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Jointers.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Portable power tools.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Forming rolls and calenders.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Barrels, containers, and drums.</I> Revolving drums, barrels, and containers shall be guarded by an enclosure which is interlocked with the drive mechanism, so that the barrel, drum, or container cannot revolve unless the guard enclosure is in place.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposure of blades.</I> When the periphery of the blades of a fan is less than seven (7) feet above the floor or working level, the blades shall be guarded. The guard shall have openings no larger than one-half (
<FR>1/2</FR>) inch.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Anchoring fixed machinery.</I> Machines designed for a fixed location shall be securely anchored to prevent walking or moving.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.213" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.213   Woodworking machinery requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Machine construction general.</I> (1) Each machine shall be so constructed as to be free from sensible vibration when the largest size tool is mounted and run idle at full speed.
</P>
<P>(2) Arbors and mandrels shall be constructed so as to have firm and secure bearing and be free from play.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Any automatic cutoff saw that strokes continuously without the operator being able to control each stroke shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(5) Saw frames or tables shall be constructed with lugs cast on the frame or with an equivalent means to limit the size of the saw blade that can be mounted, so as to avoid overspeed caused by mounting a saw larger than intended.
</P>
<P>(6) Circular saw fences shall be so constructed that they can be firmly secured to the table or table assembly without changing their alignment with the saw. For saws with tilting tables or tilting arbors the fence shall be so constructed that it will remain in a line parallel with the saw, regardless of the angle of the saw with the table.
</P>
<P>(7) Circular saw gages shall be so constructed as to slide in grooves or tracks that are accurately machined, to insure exact alignment with the saw for all positions of the guide.
</P>
<P>(8) Hinged saw tables shall be so constructed that the table can be firmly secured in any position and in true alignment with the saw.
</P>
<P>(9) All belts, pulleys, gears, shafts, and moving parts shall be guarded in accordance with the specific requirements of § 1910.219.
</P>
<P>(10) It is recommended that each power-driven woodworking machine be provided with a disconnect switch that can be locked in the off position.
</P>
<P>(11) The frames and all exposed, noncurrent-carrying metal parts of portable electric woodworking machinery operated at more than 90 volts to ground shall be grounded and other portable motors driving electric tools which are held in the hand while being operated shall be grounded if they operate at more than 90 volts to ground. The ground shall be provided through use of a separate ground wire and polarized plug and receptacle.
</P>
<P>(12) For all circular saws where conditions are such that there is a possibility of contact with the portion of the saw either beneath or behind the table, that portion of the saw shall be covered with an exhaust hood, or, if no exhaust system is required, with a guard that shall be so arranged as to prevent accidental contact with the saw.
</P>
<P>(13) Revolving double arbor saws shall be fully guarded in accordance with all the requirements for circular crosscut saws or with all the requirements for circular ripsaws, according to the kind of saws mounted on the arbors.
</P>
<P>(14) No saw, cutter head, or tool collar shall be placed or mounted on a machine arbor unless the tool has been accurately machined to size and shape to fit the arbor.
</P>
<P>(15) Combs (featherboards) or suitable jigs shall be provided at the workplace for use when a standard guard cannot be used, as in dadoing, grooving, jointing, moulding, and rabbeting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Machine controls and equipment.</I> (1) A mechanical or electrical power control shall be provided on each machine to make it possible for the operator to cut off the power from each machine without leaving his position at the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(2) On machines driven by belts and shafting, a locking-type belt shifter or an equivalent positive device shall be used.
</P>
<P>(3) On applications where injury to the operator might result if motors were to restart after power failures, provision shall be made to prevent machines from automatically restarting upon restoration of power.
</P>
<P>(4) Power controls and operating controls should be located within easy reach of the operator while he is at his regular work location, making it unnecessary for him to reach over the cutter to make adjustments. This does not apply to constant pressure controls used only for setup purposes.
</P>
<P>(5) On each machine operated by electric motors, positive means shall be provided for rendering such controls or devices inoperative while repairs or adjustments are being made to the machines they control.
</P>
<P>(6) Each operating treadle shall be protected against unexpected or accidental tripping.
</P>
<P>(7) Feeder attachments shall have the feed rolls or other moving parts so covered or guarded as to protect the operator from hazardous points.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hand-fed ripsaws.</I> (1) Each circular hand-fed ripsaw shall be guarded by a hood which shall completely enclose that portion of the saw above the table and that portion of the saw above the material being cut. The hood and mounting shall be arranged so that the hood will automatically adjust itself to the thickness of and remain in contact with the material being cut but it shall not offer any considerable resistance to insertion of material to saw or to passage of the material being sawed. The hood shall be made of adequate strength to resist blows and strains incidental to reasonable operation, adjusting, and handling, and shall be so designed as to protect the operator from flying splinters and broken saw teeth. It shall be made of material that is soft enough so that it will be unlikely to cause tooth breakage. The hood shall be so mounted as to insure that its operation will be positive, reliable, and in true alignment with the saw; and the mounting shall be adequate in strength to resist any reasonable side thrust or other force tending to throw it out of line.
</P>
<P>(2) Each hand-fed circular ripsaw shall be furnished with a spreader to prevent material from squeezing the saw or being thrown back on the operator. The spreader shall be made of hard tempered steel, or its equivalent, and shall be thinner than the saw kerf. It shall be of sufficient width to provide adequate stiffness or rigidity to resist any reasonable side thrust or blow tending to bend or throw it out of position. The spreader shall be attached so that it will remain in true alignment with the saw even when either the saw or table is tilted. The provision of a spreader in connection with grooving, dadoing, or rabbeting is not required. On the completion of such operations, the spreader shall be immediately replaced.
</P>
<P>(3) Each hand-fed circular ripsaw shall be provided with nonkickback fingers or dogs so located as to oppose the thrust or tendency of the saw to pick up the material or to throw it back toward the operator. They shall be designed to provide adequate holding power for all the thicknesses of materials being cut.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hand-fed crosscut table saws.</I> (1) Each circular crosscut table saw shall be guarded by a hood which shall meet all the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section for hoods for circular ripsaws.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Circular resaws.</I> (1) Each circular resaw shall be guarded by a hood or shield of metal above the saw. This hood or shield shall be so designed as to guard against danger from flying splinters or broken saw teeth.
</P>
<P>(2) Each circular resaw (other than self-feed saws with a roller or wheel at back of the saw) shall be provided with a spreader fastened securely behind the saw. The spreader shall be slightly thinner than the saw kerf and slightly thicker than the saw disk.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Self-feed circular saws.</I> (1) Feed rolls and saws shall be protected by a hood or guard to prevent the hands of the operator from coming in contact with the in-running rolls at any point. The guard shall be constructed of heavy material, preferably metal, and the bottom of the guard shall come down to within three-eighths inch of the plane formed by the bottom or working surfaces of the feed rolls. This distance (three-eighths inch) may be increased to three-fourths inch, provided the lead edge of the hood is extended to be not less than 5
<FR>1/2</FR> inches in front of the nip point between the front roll and the work.
</P>
<P>(2) Each self-feed circular ripsaw shall be provided with sectional non-kickback fingers for the full width of the feed rolls. They shall be located in front of the saw and so arranged as to be in continual contact with the wood being fed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Swing cutoff saws.</I> The requirements of this paragraph are also applicable to sliding cutoff saws mounted above the table.
</P>
<P>(1) Each swing cutoff saw shall be provided with a hood that will completely enclose the upper half of the saw, the arbor end, and the point of operation at all positions of the saw. The hood shall be constructed in such a manner and of such material that it will protect the operator from flying splinters and broken saw teeth. Its hood shall be so designed that it will automatically cover the lower portion of the blade, so that when the saw is returned to the back of the table the hood will rise on top of the fence, and when the saw is moved forward the hood will drop on top of and remain in contact with the table or material being cut.
</P>
<P>(2) Each swing cutoff saw shall be provided with an effective device to return the saw automatically to the back of the table when released at any point of its travel. Such a device shall not depend for its proper functioning upon any rope, cord, or spring. If there is a counterweight, the bolts supporting the bar and counterweight shall be provided with cotter pins; and the counterweight shall be prevented from dropping by either a bolt passing through both the bar and counterweight, or a bolt put through the extreme end of the bar, or, where the counterweight does not encircle the bar, a safety chain attached to it.
</P>
<P>(3) Limit chains or other equally effective devices shall be provided to prevent the saw from swinging beyond the front or back edges of the table, or beyond a forward position where the gullets of the lowest saw teeth will rise above the table top.
</P>
<P>(4) Inverted swing cutoff saws shall be provided with a hood that will cover the part of the saw that protrudes above the top of the table or above the material being cut. It shall automatically adjust itself to the thickness of and remain in contact with the material being cut.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Radial saws.</I> (1) The upper hood shall completely enclose the upper portion of the blade down to a point that will include the end of the saw arbor. The upper hood shall be constructed in such a manner and of such material that it will protect the operator from flying splinters, broken saw teeth, etc., and will deflect sawdust away from the operator. The sides of the lower exposed portion of the blade shall be guarded to the full diameter of the blade by a device that will automatically adjust itself to the thickness of the stock and remain in contact with stock being cut to give maximum protection possible for the operation being performed.
</P>
<P>(2) Each radial saw used for ripping shall be provided with nonkickback fingers or dogs located on both sides of the saw so as to oppose the thrust or tendency of the saw to pick up the material or to throw it back toward the operator. They shall be designed to provide adequate holding power for all the thicknesses of material being cut.
</P>
<P>(3) An adjustable stop shall be provided to prevent the forward travel of the blade beyond the position necessary to complete the cut in repetitive operations.
</P>
<P>(4) Installation shall be in such a manner that the front end of the unit will be slightly higher than the rear, so as to cause the cutting head to return gently to the starting position when released by the operator.
</P>
<P>(5) Ripping and ploughing shall be against the direction in which the saw turns. The direction of the saw rotation shall be conspicuously marked on the hood. In addition, a permanent label not less than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches by 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch shall be affixed to the rear of the guard at approximately the level of the arbor, reading as follows: “Danger: Do Not Rip or Plough From This End”.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bandsaws and band resaws.</I> (1) All portions of the saw blade shall be enclosed or guarded, except for the working portion of the blade between the bottom of the guide rolls and the table. Bandsaw wheels shall be fully encased. The outside periphery of the enclosure shall be solid. The front and back of the band wheels shall be either enclosed by solid material or by wire mesh or perforated metal. Such mesh or perforated metal shall be not less than 0.037 inch (U.S. Gage No. 20), and the openings shall be not greater than three-eighths inch. Solid material used for this purpose shall be of an equivalent strength and firmness. The guard for the portion of the blade between the sliding guide and the upper-saw-wheel guard shall protect the saw blade at the front and outer side. This portion of the guard shall be self-adjusting to raise and lower with the guide. The upper-wheel guard shall be made to conform to the travel of the saw on the wheel.
</P>
<P>(2) Each bandsaw machine shall be provided with a tension control device to indicate a proper tension for the standard saws used on the machine, in order to assist in the elimination of saw breakage due to improper tension.
</P>
<P>(3) Feed rolls of band resaws shall be protected with a suitable guard to prevent the hands of the operator from coming in contact with the in-running rolls at any point. The guard shall be constructed of heavy material, preferably metal, and the edge of the guard shall come to within three-eighths inch of the plane formed by the inside face of the feed roll in contact with the stock being cut.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Jointers.</I> (1) Each hand-fed planer and jointer with horizontal head shall be equipped with a cylindrical cutting head, the knife projection of which shall not exceed one-eighth inch beyond the cylindrical body of the head.
</P>
<P>(2) The opening in the table shall be kept as small as possible. The clearance between the edge of the rear table and the cutter head shall be not more than one-eighth inch. The table throat opening shall be not more than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> inches when tables are set or aligned with each other for zero cut.
</P>
<P>(3) Each hand-fed jointer with a horizontal cutting head shall have an automatic guard which will cover all the section of the head on the working side of the fence or gage. The guard shall effectively keep the operator's hand from coming in contact with the revolving knives. The guard shall automatically adjust itself to cover the unused portion of the head and shall remain in contact with the material at all times.
</P>
<P>(4) Each hand-fed jointer with horizontal cutting head shall have a guard which will cover the section of the head back of the gage or fence.
</P>
<P>(5) Each wood jointer with vertical head shall have either an exhaust hood or other guard so arranged as to enclose completely the revolving head, except for a slot of such width as may be necessary and convenient for the application of the material to be jointed.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Tenoning machines.</I> (1) Feed chains and sprockets of all double end tenoning machines shall be completely enclosed, except for that portion of chain used for conveying the stock.
</P>
<P>(2) At the rear ends of frames over which feed conveyors run, sprockets and chains shall be guarded at the sides by plates projecting beyond the periphery of sprockets and the ends of lugs.
</P>
<P>(3) Each tenoning machine shall have all cutting heads, and saws if used, covered by metal guards. These guards shall cover at least the unused part of the periphery of the cutting head. If such a guard is constructed of sheet metal, the material used shall be not less than one-sixteenth inch in thickness, and if cast iron is used, it shall be not less than three-sixteenths inch in thickness.
</P>
<P>(4) Where an exhaust system is used, the guard shall form part or all of the exhaust hood and shall be constructed of metal of a thickness not less than that specified in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Boring and mortising machines.</I> (1) Safety-bit chucks with no projecting set screws shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Boring bits should be provided with a guard that will enclose all portions of the bit and chuck above the material being worked.
</P>
<P>(3) The top of the cutting chain and driving mechanism shall be enclosed.
</P>
<P>(4) If there is a counterweight, one of the following or equivalent means shall be used to prevent its dropping:
</P>
<P>(i) It shall be bolted to the bar by means of a bolt passing through both bar and counterweight;
</P>
<P>(ii) A bolt shall be put through the extreme end of the bar;
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the counterweight does not encircle the bar, a safety chain shall be attached to it;
</P>
<P>(iv) Other types of counterweights shall be suspended by chain or wire rope and shall travel in a pipe or other suitable enclosure wherever they might fall and cause injury.
</P>
<P>(5) Universal joints on spindles of boring machines shall be completely enclosed in such a way as to prevent accidental contact by the operator.
</P>
<P>(6) Each operating treadle shall be covered by an inverted U-shaped metal guard, fastened to the floor, and of adequate size to prevent accidental tripping.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Wood shapers and similar equipment.</I> (1) The cutting heads of each wood shaper, hand-fed panel raiser, or other similar machine not automatically fed, shall be enclosed with a cage or adjustable guard so designed as to keep the operator's hand away from the cutting edge. The diameter of circular shaper guards shall be not less than the greatest diameter of the cutter. In no case shall a warning device of leather or other material attached to the spindle be acceptable.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) All double-spindle shapers shall be provided with a spindle starting and stopping device for each spindle.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Planing, molding, sticking, and matching machines.</I> (1) Each planing, molding, sticking, and matching machine shall have all cutting heads, and saws if used, covered by a metal guard. If such guard is constructed of sheet metal, the material used shall be not less than 
<FR>1/16</FR> inch in thickness, and if cast iron is used, it shall be not less than three-sixteenths inch in thickness.
</P>
<P>(2) Where an exhaust system is used, the guards shall form part or all of the exhaust hood and shall be constructed of metal of a thickness not less than that specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Feed rolls shall be guarded by a hood or suitable guard to prevent the hands of the operator from coming in contact with the in-running rolls at any point. The guard shall be fastened to the frame carrying the rolls so as to remain in adjustment for any thickness of stock.
</P>
<P>(4) Surfacers or planers used in thicknessing multiple pieces of material simultaneously shall be provided with sectional infeed rolls having sufficient yield in the construction of the sections to provide feeding contact pressure on the stock, over the permissible range of variation in stock thickness specified or for which the machine is designed. In lieu of such yielding sectional rolls, suitable section kickback finger devices shall be provided at the infeed end.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Profile and swing-head lathes and wood heel turning machine.</I> (1) Each profile and swing-head lathe shall have all cutting heads covered by a metal guard. If such a guard is constructed of sheet metal, the material used shall be not less than one-sixteenth inch in thickness; and if cast iron is used, it shall not be less than three-sixteenths inch in thickness.
</P>
<P>(2) Cutting heads on wood-turning lathes, whether rotating or not, shall be covered as completely as possible by hoods or shields.
</P>
<P>(3) Shoe last and spoke lathes, doweling machines, wood heel turning machines, and other automatic wood-turning lathes of the rotating knife type shall be equipped with hoods enclosing the cutter blades completely except at the contact points while the stock is being cut.
</P>
<P>(4) Lathes used for turning long pieces of wood stock held only between the two centers shall be equipped with long curved guards extending over the tops of the lathes in order to prevent the work pieces from being thrown out of the machines if they should become loose.
</P>
<P>(5) Where an exhaust system is used, the guard shall form part or all of the exhaust hood and shall be constructed of metal of a thickness not less than that specified in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Sanding machines.</I> (1) Feed rolls of self-feed sanding machines shall be protected with a semicylindrical guard to prevent the hands of the operator from coming in contact with the in-running rolls at any point. The guard shall be constructed of heavy material, preferably metal, and firmly secured to the frame carrying the rolls so as to remain in adjustment for any thickness of stock. The bottom of the guard should come down to within three-eighths inch of a plane formed by the bottom or contact face of the feed roll where it touches the stock.
</P>
<P>(2) Each drum sanding machine shall have an exhaust hood, or other guard if no exhaust system is required, so arranged as to enclose the revolving drum, except for that portion of the drum above the table, if a table is used, which may be necessary and convenient for the application of the material to be finished.
</P>
<P>(3) Each disk sanding machine shall have the exhaust hood, or other guard if no exhaust system is required, so arranged as to enclose the revolving disk, except for that portion of the disk above the table, if a table is used, which may be necessary for the application of the material to be finished.
</P>
<P>(4) Belt sanding machines shall be provided with guards at each nip point where the sanding belt runs on to a pulley. These guards shall effectively prevent the hands or fingers of the operator from coming in contact with the nip points. The unused run of the sanding belt shall be guarded against accidental contact.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Veneer cutters and wringers.</I> (1) Veneer slicer knives shall be guarded to prevent accidental contact with knife edge, at both front and rear.
</P>
<P>(2) Veneer clippers shall have automatic feed or shall be provided with a guard which will make it impossible to place a finger or fingers under the knife while feeding or removing the stock.
</P>
<P>(3) Sprockets on chain or slat-belt conveyors shall be enclosed.
</P>
<P>(4) Where practicable, hand and footpower guillotine veneer cutters shall be provided with rods or plates or other satisfactory means, so arranged on the feeding side that the hands cannot reach the cutting edge of the knife while feeding or holding the stock in place.
</P>
<P>(5) Power-driven guillotine veneer cutters, except continuous feed trimmers, shall be equipped with:
</P>
<P>(i) Starting devices which require the simultaneous action of both hands to start the cutting motion and of at least one hand on a control during the complete stroke of the knife; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An automatic guard which will remove the hands of the operator from the danger zone at every descent of the blade, used in conjunction with one-hand starting devices which require two distinct movements of the device to start the cutting motion, and so designed as to return positively to the nonstarting position after each complete cycle of the knife.
</P>
<P>(6) Where two or more workers are employed at the same time on the same power-driven guillotine veneer cutter equipped with two-hand control, the device shall be so arranged that each worker shall be required to use both hands simultaneously on the controls to start the cutting motion, and at least one hand on a control to complete the cut.
</P>
<P>(7) Power-driven guillotine veneer cutters, other than continuous trimmers, shall be provided, in addition to the brake or other stopping mechanism, with an emergency device which will prevent the machine from operating in the event of failure of the brake when the starting mechanism is in the nonstarting position.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Miscellaneous woodworking machines.</I> (1) The feed rolls of roll type glue spreaders shall be guarded by a semicylindrical guard. The bottom of the guard shall come to within three-eighths inch of a plane formed by bottom or contact face of the feed roll where it touches the stock.
</P>
<P>(2) Drag saws shall be so located as to give at least a 4-foot clearance for passage when the saw is at the extreme end of the stroke; or if such clearance is not obtainable, the saw and its driving mechanism shall be provided with a standard enclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) For combination or universal woodworking machines each point of operation of any tool shall be guarded as required for such a tool in a separate machine.
</P>
<P>(4) The mention of specific machines in paragraphs (a) thru (q) and this paragraph (r) of this section, inclusive, is not intended to exclude other woodworking machines from the requirement that suitable guards and exhaust hoods be provided to reduce to a minimum the hazard due to the point of operation of such machines.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Inspection and maintenance of woodworking machinery.</I> (1) Dull, badly set, improperly filed, or improperly tensioned saws shall be immediately removed from service, before they begin to cause the material to stick, jam, or kick back when it is fed to the saw at normal speed. Saws to which gum has adhered on the sides shall be immediately cleaned.
</P>
<P>(2) All knives and cutting heads of woodworking machines shall be kept sharp, properly adjusted, and firmly secured. Where two or more knives are used in one head, they shall be properly balanced.
</P>
<P>(3) Bearings shall be kept free from lost motion and shall be well lubricated.
</P>
<P>(4) Arbors of all circular saws shall be free from play.
</P>
<P>(5) Sharpening or tensioning of saw blades or cutters shall be done only by persons of demonstrated skill in this kind of work.
</P>
<P>(6) Emphasis is placed upon the importance of maintaining cleanliness around woodworking machinery, particularly as regards the effective functioning of guards and the prevention of fire hazards in switch enclosures, bearings, and motors.
</P>
<P>(7) All cracked saws shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(8) The practice of inserting wedges between the saw disk and the collar to form what is commonly known as a “wobble saw” shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(9) Push sticks or push blocks shall be provided at the work place in the several sizes and types suitable for the work to be done.
</P>
<P>(10)-(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) The knife blade of jointers shall be so installed and adjusted that it does not protrude more than one-eighth inch beyond the cylindrical body of the head. Push sticks or push blocks shall be provided at the work place in the several sizes and types suitable for the work to be done.
</P>
<P>(13) Whenever veneer slicers or rotary veneer-cutting machines have been shutdown for the purpose of inserting logs or to make adjustments, operators shall make sure that machine is clear and other workmen are not in a hazardous position before starting the machine.
</P>
<P>(14) Operators shall not ride the carriage of a veneer slicer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49750, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.214" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.214   Cooperage machinery. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.215" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.215   Abrasive wheel machinery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Machine guarding.</I> Abrasive wheels shall be used only on machines provided with safety guards as defined in the following paragraphs of this section, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Wheels used for internal work while within the work being ground;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mounted wheels, used in portable operations, 2 inches and smaller in diameter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Types 16, 17, 18, 18R, and 19 cones, plugs, and threaded hole pot balls where the work offers protection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guard design.</I> The safety guard shall cover the spindle end, nut, and flange projections. The safety guard shall be mounted so as to maintain proper alignment with the wheel, and the strength of the fastenings shall exceed the strength of the guard, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety guards on all operations where the work provides a suitable measure of protection to the operator, may be so constructed that the spindle end, nut, and outer flange are exposed; and where the nature of the work is such as to entirely cover the side of the wheel, the side covers of the guard may be omitted; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The spindle end, nut, and outer flange may be exposed on machines designed as portable saws.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Flanges.</I> Grinding machines shall be equipped with flanges in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Work rests.</I> On offhand grinding machines, work rests shall be used to support the work. They shall be of rigid construction and designed to be adjustable to compensate for wheel wear. Work rests shall be kept adjusted closely to the wheel with a maximum opening of one-eighth inch to prevent the work from being jammed between the wheel and the rest, which may cause wheel breakage. The work rest shall be securely clamped after each adjustment. The adjustment shall not be made with the wheel in motion.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Excluded machinery.</I> Natural sandstone wheels and metal, wooden, cloth, or paper discs, having a layer of abrasive on the surface are not covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guarding of abrasive wheel machinery</I>—(1) <I>Cup wheels.</I> Cup wheels (Types 6 and 11) shall be protected by:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety guards as specified in paragraphs (b) (1) through (10) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Band type guards as specified in paragraph (b)(11) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Special “Revolving Cup Guards” which mount behind the wheel and turn with it. They shall be made of steel or other material with adequate strength and shall enclose the wheel sides upward from the back for one-third of the wheel thickness. The mounting features shall conform with all requirements of this section. It is necessary to maintain clearance between the wheel side and the guard. This clearance shall not exceed one-sixteenth inch.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guard exposure angles.</I> The maximum exposure angles specified in paragraphs (b) (3) through (8) of this section shall not be exceeded. Visors or other accessory equipment shall not be included as a part of the guard when measuring the guard opening, unless such equipment has strength equal to that of the guard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bench and floor stands.</I> The angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides for safety guards used on machines known as bench and floor stands should not exceed 90° or one-fourth of the periphery. This exposure shall begin at a point not more than 65° above the horizontal plane of the wheel spindle. (See Figures O-6 and O-7 and paragraph (b)(9) of this section.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.057.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-6   Figure No. O-7</E></BCAP>
<FP>Wherever the nature of the work requires contact with the wheel below the horizontal plane of the spindle, the exposure shall not exceed 125°. (See Figures O-8 and O-9.)
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.058.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-8   Figure No. O-9</E></BCAP>
<P>(4) <I>Cylindrical grinders.</I> The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides for safety guards used on cylindrical grinding machines shall not exceed 180°. This exposure shall begin at a point not more than 65° above the horizontal plane of the wheel spindle. (See Figures O-10 and O-11 and subparagraph (9) of this paragraph.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.059.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-10   Figure No. O-11</E></BCAP>
<P>(5) <I>Surface grinders and cutting-off machines.</I> The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides for safety guards used on cutting-off machines and on surface grinding machines which employ the wheel periphery shall not exceed 150°. This exposure shall begin at a point not less than 15° below the horizontal plane of the wheel spindle. (See Figures O-12 and O-13)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.060.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-12   Figure No. O-13</E></BCAP>
<P>(6) <I>Swing frame grinders.</I> The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides for safety guards used on machines known as swing frame grinding machines shall not exceed 180°, and the top half of the wheel shall be enclosed at all times. (See Figures O-14 and O-15.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.061.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-14   Figure No. O-15</E></BCAP>
<P>(7) <I>Automatic snagging machines.</I> The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides for safety guards used on grinders known as automatic snagging machines shall not exceed 180° and the top half of the wheel shall be enclosed at all times. (See Figures O-14 and O-15.)
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Top grinding.</I> Where the work is applied to the wheel above the horizontal centerline, the exposure of the grinding wheel periphery shall be as small as possible and shall not exceed 60°. (See Figures O-16 and O-17.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.062.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-16   Figure No. O-17</E></BCAP>
<P>(9) <I>Exposure adjustment.</I> Safety guards of the types described in subparagraphs (3) and (4) of this paragraph, where the operator stands in front of the opening, shall be constructed so that the peripheral protecting member can be adjusted to the constantly decreasing diameter of the wheel. The maximum angular exposure above the horizontal plane of the wheel spindle as specified in paragraphs (b) (3) and (4) of this section shall never be exceeded, and the distance between the wheel periphery and the adjustable tongue or the end of the peripheral member at the top shall never exceed one-fourth inch. (See Figures O-18, O-19, O-20, O-21, O-22, and O-23.)
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Material requirements and minimum dimensions.</I> (i) See Figures O-36 and O-37 and Table O-9 for minimum basic thickness of peripheral and side members for various types of safety guards and classes of service.
</P>
<P>(ii) If operating speed does not exceed 8,000 surface feet per minute cast iron safety guards, malleable iron guards or other guards as described in paragraph (b)(10)(iii) of this section shall be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cast steel, or structural steel, safety guards as specified in Figures O-36 and O-37 and Table O-9 shall be used where operating speeds of wheels are faster than 8,000 surface feet per minute up to a maximum of 16,000 surface feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(iv) For cutting-off wheels 16 inches diameter and smaller and where speed does not exceed 16,000 surface feet per minute, cast iron or malleable iron safety guards as specified in Figures O-36 and O-37, and in Table O-9 shall be used.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.063.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-18   Figure No. O-19</E></BCAP>
<HD1>correct
</HD1>
<FP-1><I>Showing adjustable tongue giving required angular protection for all sizes of wheel used.</I>
</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.064.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-20   Figure No. O-21</E></BCAP>
<HD1>correct
</HD1>
<FP-1><I>Showing movable guard with opening small enough to give required protection for smallest size wheel used.</I>
</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.065.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-22   Figure No. O-23</E></BCAP>
<HD1>incorrect
</HD1>
<FP-1><I>Showing movable guard with size of opening correct for full size wheel but too large for smaller wheels.</I>
</FP-1>
<P>(v) For cutting-off wheels larger than 16 inches diameter and where speed does not exceed 14,200 surface feet per minute, safety guards as specified in Figures O-27 and O-28, and in Table O-1 shall be used.
</P>
<P>(vi) For thread grinding wheels not exceeding 1 inch in thickness cast iron or malleable iron safety guards as specified in Figures O-36 and O-37, and in Table O-9 shall be used.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Band type guards—general specifications.</I> Band type guards shall conform to the following general specifications:
</P>
<P>(i) The bands shall be of steel plate or other material of equal or greater strength. They shall be continuous, the ends being either riveted, bolted, or welded together in such a manner as to leave the inside free from projections.
</P>
<P>(ii) The inside diameter of the band shall not be more than 1 inch larger than the outside diameter of the wheel, and shall be mounted as nearly concentric with the wheel as practicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The band shall be of sufficient width and its position kept so adjusted that at no time will the wheel protrude beyond the edge of the band a distance greater than that indicated in Figure O-29 and in Table O-2 or the wall thickness (W), whichever is smaller.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Guard design specifications.</I> Abrasive wheel machinery guards shall meet the design specifications of the American National Standard Safety Code for the Use, Care, and Protection of Abrasive Wheels, ANSI B7.1-1970, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. This requirement shall not apply to natural sandstone wheels or metal, wooden, cloth, or paper discs, having a layer of abrasive on the surface.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Flanges</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> All abrasive wheels shall be mounted between flanges which shall not be less than one-third the diameter of the wheel.
</P>
<P>(i) Exceptions:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Mounted wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Portable wheels with threaded inserts or projecting studs.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Abrasive discs (inserted nut, inserted washer and projecting stud type).
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Plate mounted wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Cylinders, cup, or segmental wheels that are mounted in chucks.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Types 27 and 28 wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Certain internal wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Modified types 6 and 11 wheels (terrazzo).
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Cutting-off wheels, Types 1 and 27A (see paragraphs (c)(1) (ii) and (iii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) Type 1 cutting-off wheels are to be mounted between properly relieved flanges which have matching bearing surfaces. Such flanges shall be at least one-fourth the wheel diameter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Type 27A cutting-off wheels are designed to be mounted by means of flat, not relieved, flanges having matching bearing surfaces and which may be less than one-third but shall not be less than one-fourth the wheel diameter. (See Figure O-24 for one such type of mounting.)
</P>
<P>(iv) There are three general types of flanges:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Straight relieved flanges (see Figure O-32);
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Straight unrelieved flanges (see Figure O-30);
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Adaptor flanges (see Figures O-33 and O-34);
</P>
<P>(v) Regardless of flange type used, the wheel shall always be guarded. Blotters shall be used in accordance with paragraph (c)(6) of this section.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.066.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-24</E></BCAP>
<FP-1><I>The Type 27 A Wheel is mounted between flat non-relieved flanges of equal bearing surfaces.</I>
</FP-1>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Finish and balance.</I> Flanges shall be dimensionally accurate and in good balance. There shall be no rough surfaces or sharp edges.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Uniformity of diameter.</I> (i) Both flanges, of any type, between which a wheel is mounted, shall be of the same diameter and have equal bearing surface. Exceptions are set forth in the remaining subdivisions of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Type 27 and Type 28 wheels, because of their shape and usage, require specially designed adaptors. The back flange shall extend beyond the central hub or raised portion and contact the wheel to counteract the side pressure on the wheel in use. The adaptor nut which is less than the minimum one-third diameter of wheel fits in the depressed side of wheel to prevent interference in side grinding and serves to drive the wheel by its clamping force against the depressed portion of the back flange. The variance in flange diameters, the adaptor nut being less than one-third wheel diameter, and the use of side pressure in wheel operation limits the use to reinforced organic bonded wheels. Mounts which are affixed to the wheel by the manufacturer shall not be reused. Type 27 and Type 28 wheels shall be used only with a safety guard located between wheel and operator during use. (See Figure O-24-A.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.067.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-24-A</E></BCAP>
<FP-1><I>Types 27 and 28 wheels, because of their shape, require specially designed adaptors.</I>
</FP-1>
<P>(iii) Modified Types 6 and 11 wheels (terrazzo) with tapered K dimension.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Recess and undercut.</I> (i) Straight relieved flanges made according to Table O-6 and Figure O-32 shall be recessed at least one-sixteenth inch on the side next to the wheel for a distance as specified in Table O-6.
</P>
<P>(ii) Straight flanges of the adaptor or sleeve type (Table O-7 and Figures O-33 and O-34) shall be undercut so that there will be no bearing on the sides of the wheel within one-eighth inch of the arbor hole.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Blotters.</I> (i) Blotters (compressible washers) shall always be used between flanges and abrasive wheel surfaces to insure uniform distribution of flange pressure. (See paragraph (d)(5) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Exception:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Mounted wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Abrasive discs (inserted nut, inserted washer, and projecting stud type).
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Plate mounted wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Cylinders, cups, or segmental wheels that are mounted in chucks.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Types 27 and 28 wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Certain Type 1 and Type 27A cutting-off wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Certain internal wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Type 4 tapered wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Diamond wheels, except certain vitrified diamond wheels.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Modified Types 6 and 11 wheel (terrazzo)—blotters applied flat side of wheel only.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Driving flange.</I> The driving flange shall be securely fastened to the spindle and the bearing surface shall run true. When more than one wheel is mounted between a single set of flanges, wheels may be cemented together or separated by specially designed spacers. Spacers shall be equal in diameter to the mounting flanges and have equal bearing surfaces. (See paragraph (d)(6) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Dimensions.</I> (i) Tables O-4 and O-6 and Figures O-30 and O-32 show minimum dimensions for straight relieved and unrelieved flanges for use with wheels with small holes that fit directly on the machine spindle. Dimensions of such flanges shall never be less than indicated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Table O-5, and Table O-7 and Figures O-31, O-33, O-34 show minimum dimensions for straight adaptor flanges for use with wheels having holes larger than the spindle. Dimensions of such adaptor flanges shall never be less than indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) Table O-8 and Figure O-35 show minimum dimensions for straight flanges that are an integral part of wheel sleeves which are frequently used on precision grinding machines. Dimensions of such flanges shall never be less than indicated.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Repairs and maintenance.</I> All flanges shall be maintained in good condition. When the bearing surfaces become worn, warped, sprung, or damaged they should be trued or refaced. When refacing or truing, care shall be exercised to make sure that proper relief and rigidity is maintained as specified in paragraphs (c) (2) and (5) of this section and they shall be replaced when they do not conform to these subparagraphs and Table O-4, Figure O-30, Table O-5, Figure O-31, Table O-6, Figure O-32, and Table O-8, Figure O-35. Failure to observe these rules might cause excessive flange pressure around the hole of the wheel. This is especially true of wheel-sleeve or adaptor flanges.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mounting</I>—(1) <I>Inspection.</I> Immediately before mounting, all wheels shall be closely inspected and sounded by the user (ring test) to make sure they have not been damaged in transit, storage, or otherwise. The spindle speed of the machine shall be checked before mounting of the wheel to be certain that it does not exceed the maximum operating speed marked on the wheel. Wheels should be tapped gently with a light nonmetallic implement, such as the handle of a screwdriver for light wheels, or a wooden mallet for heavier wheels. If they sound cracked (dead), they shall not be used. This is known as the “Ring Test”.
</P>
<P>(i) Wheels must be dry and free from sawdust when applying the ring test, otherwise the sound will be deadened. It should also be noted that organic bonded wheels do not emit the same clear metallic ring as do vitrified and silicate wheels.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.068.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. O-25   Figure No. O-26</E></BCAP>
<P>(ii) “Tap” wheels about 45° each side of the vertical centerline and about 1 or 2 inches from the periphery as indicated by the spots in Figure O-25 and Figure O-26. Then rotate the wheel 45° and repeat the test. A sound and undamaged wheel will give a clear metallic tone. If cracked, there will be a dead sound and not a clear “ring.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Arbor size.</I> Grinding wheels shall fit freely on the spindle and remain free under all grinding conditions. A controlled clearance between the wheel hole and the machine spindle (or wheel sleeves or adaptors) is essential to avoid excessive pressure from mounting and spindle expansion. To accomplish this, the machine spindle shall be made to nominal (standard) size plus zero minus .002 inch, and the wheel hole shall be made suitably oversize to assure safety clearance under the conditions of operating heat and pressure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Surface condition.</I> All contact surfaces of wheels, blotters and flanges shall be flat and free of foreign matter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bushing.</I> When a bushing is used in the wheel hole it shall not exceed the width of the wheel and shall not contact the flanges.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Blotters.</I> When blotters or flange facings of compressible material are required, they shall cover entire contact area of wheel flanges. Blotters need not be used with the following types of wheels:
</P>
<P>(i) Mounted wheels.
</P>
<P>(ii) Abrasive discs (inserted nut, inserted washer, and projecting-stud type).
</P>
<P>(iii) Plate mounted wheels.
</P>
<P>(iv) Cylinders, cups, or segmental wheels that are mounted in chucks.
</P>
<P>(v) Types 27 and 28 wheels.
</P>
<P>(vi) Certain Type 1 and Type 27A cutting-off wheels.
</P>
<P>(vii) Certain internal wheels.
</P>
<P>(viii) Type 4 tapered wheels.
</P>
<P>(ix) Diamond wheels, except certain vitrified diamond wheels.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Multiple wheel mounting.</I> When more than one wheel is mounted between a single set of flanges, wheels may be cemented together or separated by specially designed spacers. Spacers shall be equal in diameter to the mounting flanges and have equal bearing surfaces. When mounting wheels which have not been cemented together, or ones which do not utilize separating spacers, care must be exercised to use wheels specially manufactured for that purpose.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.069.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-1—Minimum Basic Thickness for Peripheral and Side Members for Safety Guards Used With Cutting-Off Wheels
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Material used in construction of guard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Maximum thickness of cutting off wheel
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Speed not to exceed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="10" scope="col">Cutting off wheel diameters
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6 to 11 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 11 to 20 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 20 to 30 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 30 to 48 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 48 to 72 inches
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Structural steel (min. tensile strength 60,000 p.s.i.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> inch or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14,200 SFPM</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/32</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/32</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> inch or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16,000 SFPM</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/32</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.070.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-3—Guide for Construction of Band Type Guards
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Maximum Wheel Speed 7,000 SFPM]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum material specifications
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Diameter of wheel
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum thickness of band A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum diameter of rivets
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum distance between centers of rivets
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Inches
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot rolled steel SAE 1008</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 to 24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 24 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.071.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-5—Minimum Dimensions for Straight Adaptor Flange—for Organic Bonded Wheels Over 1
<fr>1/4</fr> Inches Thick 
<sup>1</sup>
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In inches]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel hole diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B—Minimum flange diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D—Minimun thickness of flange at bore
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E—Minimum thickness of flange at edge of undercut
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F 
<sup>1</sup>—(D-E) minimum thickness
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 to 14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 14 to 18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 18 to 24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 24 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 30 to 36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For wheels under 1
<fr>1/4</fr> inches thick F dimension shall not exceed 40 percent of wheel thickness.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.072.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-6—Minimum Dimensions for Straight Relieved Flanges 
<sup>1</sup>
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In inches]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">A—Diameter of wheel
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">B—Minimum outside diameter of flanges
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">C—Radial width of bearing surface
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">D—Minimum thickness of flange at bore
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">E—Minimum thickness of flange at edge of recess
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Flanges for wheels under 2 inches diameter may be unrelieved and shall be maintained flat and true.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.073.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-7—Minimum Dimensions for Straight Flanges—for Mechanical Grinders 12,500 S.F.P.M. to 16,5 S.F.P.M. 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel hole diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B—Minimum flange diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D—Minimum thickness of flange at bore
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E—Minimum thickness of flange at edge of undercut
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F 
<sup>2</sup>—(D-E) minimum thickness
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Flanges shall be of steel, quality SAE 1040 or equivalent, annealed plate, heat treated to R. 25-30.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For wheels under 1
<fr>1/4</fr> inch thick F dimension shall not exceed 40 percent of wheel thickness.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.074.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-8—Minimum Dimensions for Straight Flanges Used as Wheel Sleeves for Precision Grinding Only
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In inches]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel hole diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B—Minimum outside diameter of flange
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D—Minimum thickness of flange at bore
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E—Minimum thickness of flange at edge of undercut
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 to 14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 14 to 20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 20 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 30 to 42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Larger than 42 to 60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> These flanges may be clamped together by means of a central nut, or by a series of bolts or some other equivalent means of fastening. For hole sizes smaller than shown in this table, use table 12.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.075.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-9—Minimum Basic Thicknesses of Peripheral and Side Members for Safety Guards
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In inches]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Material used in construction of guard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Maximum thickness of grinding wheel
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="14" scope="col">Grinding wheel diameters
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">3 to 6 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 6 to 12 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 12 to 16 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 16 to 20 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 20 to 24 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 24 to 30 inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Over 30 to 48 inches
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Material</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> satis-</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> factory 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> for</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> speeds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> up to</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 8,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>5/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> SFPM.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cast iron (min. tensile strength 20,000 p.s.i.) Class 20.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Material</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> satis-</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> factory 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> for</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> speeds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> up to</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 9,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> SFPM.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Malleable iron (min. tensile strength 50,000 p.s.i.) Grade 32510.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Materials</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> satis-</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> factory 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> for</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>15/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> speeds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>15/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> up to</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 16,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>11/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> SFPM.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steel castings (min. tensile strength 60,000 p.s.i.) Grade V60-30.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Structural</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> steel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (min.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> tensile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> strength</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 60,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> p.s.i.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>15/16</fr>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The recommendations listed in the above table are guides for the conditions stated. Other material, designs or dimensions affording equal or superior protection are also acceptable.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-2—Exposure Versus Wheel Thickness
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In inches]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Overall thickness of wheel (T)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum exposure of wheel (C)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 and over</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-4—Minimum Dimensions for Straight Unrelieved Flanges for Wheels with Threaded Inserts or Projecting Studs
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A—Diameter of wheel
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B 
<sup>1</sup>—Minimum outside diameter of flange
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T—Minimum thickness of flange
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="04">Note:</E> Must be large enough to extend beyond the bushing. Where prong anchor or cupback bushing are used, this footnote does not apply.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49750, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984; 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.216" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.216   Mills and calenders in the rubber and plastics industries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—
</P>
<P>(1)-(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Auxiliary equipment.</I> Mechanical and electrical equipment and auxiliaries shall be installed in accordance with this section and subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mill roll heights.</I> All new mill installations shall be installed so that the top of the operating rolls is not less than 50 inches above the level on which the operator stands, irrespective of the size of the mill. This distance shall apply to the actual working level, whether it be at the general floor level, in a pit, or on a platform.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mill safety controls</I>—(1) <I>Safety trip control.</I> A safety trip control shall be provided in front and in back of each mill. It shall be accessible and shall operate readily on contact. The safety trip control shall be one of the following types or a combination thereof:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Pressure-sensitive body bars.</I> Installed at front and back of each mill having a 46-inch roll height or over. These bars shall operate readily by pressure of the mill operator's body.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safety triprod.</I> Installed in the front and in the back of each mill and located within 2 inches of a vertical plane tangent to the front and rear rolls. The top rods shall be not more than 72 inches above the level on which the operator stands. The triprods shall be accessible and shall operate readily whether the rods are pushed or pulled.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Safety tripwire cable or wire center cord.</I> Installed in the front and in the back of each mill and located within 2 inches of a vertical plane tangent to the front and rear rolls. The cables shall not be more than 72 inches above the level on which the operator stands. The tripwire cable or wire center cord shall operate readily whether cable or cord is pushed or pulled.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Auxiliary equipment.</I> All auxiliary equipment such as mill divider, support bars, spray pipes, feed conveyors, strip knives, etc., shall be located in such a manner as to avoid interference with access to and operation of safety devices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calender safety controls</I>—(1) <I>Safety trip, face.</I> A safety triprod, cable, or wire center cord shall be provided across each pair of in-running rolls extending the length of the face of the rolls. It shall be readily accessible and operate whether pushed or pulled. The safety tripping devices shall be located within reach of the operator and the bite.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safety trip, side.</I> On both sides of the calender and near each end of the face of the roll, there shall be a cable or wire center cord connected to the safety trip. They shall operate readily when pushed or pulled.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Protection by location</I>—(1) <I>Mills.</I> Where a mill is so installed that persons cannot normally reach through, over, under, or around to come in contact with the roll bite or be caught between a roll and an adjacent object, then, provided such elements are made a fixed part of a mill, safety control devices listed in paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calenders.</I> Where a calender is so installed that persons cannot normally reach through, over, under, or around to come in contact with the roll bite or be caught between a roll and an adjacent object, then, provided such elements are made a fixed part of a calender, safety control devices listed in paragraph (c) of this section shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Trip and emergency switches.</I> All trip and emergency switches shall not be of the automatically resetting type, but shall require manual resetting.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Stopping limits</I>—(1) <I>Determination of distance of travel.</I> All measurements on mills and calenders shall be taken with the rolls running empty at maximum operating speed. Stopping distances shall be expressed in inches of surface travel of the roll from the instant the emergency stopping device is actuated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Stopping limits for mills.</I> All mills irrespective of the size of the rolls or their arrangement (individually or group-driven) shall be stopped within a distance, as measured in inches of surface travel, not greater than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent of the peripheral no-load surface speeds of the respective rolls as determined in feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stopping limits for calenders.</I> (i) All calenders, irrespective of size of the rolls or their configuration, shall be stopped within a distance, as measured in inches of surface travel, not greater than 1
<FR>3/4</FR> percent of the peripheral no-load surface speeds of the respective calender rolls as determined in feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where speeds above 250 feet per minute as measured on the surface of the drive roll are used, stopping distances of more than 1
<FR>3/4</FR> percent are permissible. Such stopping distances shall be subject to engineering determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984; 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.217" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.217   Mechanical power presses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1)-(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reconstruction and modification.</I> It shall be the responsibility of any person reconstructing, or modifying a mechanical power press to do so in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Excluded machines.</I> Press brakes, hydraulic and pneumatic power presses, bulldozers, hot bending and hot metal presses, forging presses and hammers, riveting machines and similar types of fastener applicators are excluded from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mechanical power press guarding and construction, general</I>—(1) <I>Hazards to personnel associated with broken or falling machine components.</I> Machine components shall be designed, secured, or covered to minimize hazards caused by breakage, or loosening and falling or release of mechanical energy (i.e. broken springs).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Brakes.</I> Friction brakes provided for stopping or holding a slide movement shall be inherently self-engaging by requiring power or force from an external source to cause disengagement. Brake capacity shall be sufficient to stop the motion of the slide quickly and capable of holding the slide and its attachments at any point in its travel.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Machines using full revolution positive clutches.</I> (i) Machines using full revolution clutches shall incorporate a single-stroke mechanism.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the single-stroke mechanism is dependent upon spring action, the spring(s) shall be of the compression type, operating on a rod or guided within a hole or tube, and designed to prevent interleaving of the spring coils in event of breakage.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Foot pedals (treadle).</I> (i) The pedal mechanism shall be protected to prevent unintended operation from falling or moving objects or by accidental stepping onto the pedal.
</P>
<P>(ii) A pad with a nonslip contact area shall be firmly attached to the pedal.
</P>
<P>(iii) The pedal return spring(s) shall be of the compression type, operating on a rod or guided within a hole or tube, or designed to prevent interleaving of spring coils in event of breakage.
</P>
<P>(iv) If pedal counterweights are provided, the path of the travel of the weight shall be enclosed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hand operated levers.</I> (i) Hand-lever-operated power presses shall be equipped with a spring latch on the operating lever to prevent premature or accidental tripping.
</P>
<P>(ii) The operating levers on hand-tripped presses having more than one operating station shall be interlocked to prevent the tripping of the press except by the “concurrent” use of all levers.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Two-hand trip.</I> (i) A two-hand trip shall have the individual operator's hand controls protected against unintentional operation and have the individual operator's hand controls arranged by design and construction and/or separation to require the use of both hands to trip the press and use a control arrangement requiring concurrent operation of the individual operator's hand controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two-hand trip systems on full revolution clutch machines shall incorporate an antirepeat feature.
</P>
<P>(iii) If two-hand trip systems are used on multiple operator presses, each operator shall have a separate set of controls.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Machines using part revolution clutches.</I> (i) The clutch shall release and the brake shall be applied when the external clutch engaging means is removed, deactivated, or deenergized.
</P>
<P>(ii) A red color stop control shall be provided with the clutch/brake control system. Momentary operation of the stop control shall immediately deactivate the clutch and apply the brake. The stop control shall override any other control, and reactuation of the clutch shall require use of the operating (tripping) means which has been selected.
</P>
<P>(iii) A means of selecting Off, “Inch,” Single Stroke, and Continuous (when the continuous function is furnished) shall be supplied with the clutch/brake control to select type of operation of the press. Fixing of selection shall be by means capable of supervision by the employer.
</P>
<P>(iv) The “Inch” operating means shall be designed to prevent exposure of the workers hands within the point of operation by:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Requiring the concurrent use of both hands to actuate the clutch, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Being a single control protected against accidental actuation and so located that the worker cannot reach into the point of operation while operating the single control.
</P>
<P>(v) Two-hand controls for single stroke shall conform to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Each hand control shall be protected against unintended operation and arranged by design, construction, and/or separation so that the concurrent use of both hands is required to trip the press.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The control system shall be designed to permit an adjustment which will require concurrent pressure from both hands during the die closing portion of the stroke.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The control system shall incorporate an antirepeat feature.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The control systems shall be designed to require release of all operators' hand controls before an interrupted stroke can be resumed. This requirement pertains only to those single-stroke, two-hand controls manufactured and installed on or after August 31, 1971.
</P>
<P>(vi) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vii) Controls for more than one operating station shall be designed to be activated and deactivated in complete sets of two operator's hand controls per operating station by means capable of being supervised by the employer. The clutch/brake control system shall be designed and constructed to prevent actuation of the clutch if all operating stations are bypassed.
</P>
<P>(viii) Those clutch/brake control systems which contain both single and continuous functions shall be designed so that completion of continuous circuits may be supervised by the employer. The initiation of continuous run shall require a prior action or decision by the operator in addition to the selection of Continuous on the stroking selector, before actuation of the operating means will result in continuous stroking.
</P>
<P>(ix) If foot control is provided, the selection method between hand and foot control shall be separate from the stroking selector and shall be designed so that the selection may be supervised by the employer.
</P>
<P>(x) Foot operated tripping controls, if used, shall be protected so as to prevent operation from falling or moving objects, or from unintended operation by accidental stepping onto the foot control.
</P>
<P>(xi) The control of air-clutch machines shall be designed to prevent a significant increase in the normal stopping time due to a failure within the operating value mechanism, and to inhibit further operation if such failure does occur. This requirement shall apply only to those clutch/brake air-valve controls manufactured and installed on or after August 31, 1971, but shall not apply to machines intended only for continuous, automatic feeding applications.
</P>
<P>(xii) The clutch/brake control shall incorporate an automatic means to prevent initiation or continued activation of the Single Stroke or Continuous functions unless the press drive motor is energized and in the forward direction.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The clutch/brake control shall automatically deactivate in event of failure of the power or pressure supply for the clutch engaging means. Reactivation of the clutch shall require restoration of normal supply and the use of the tripping mechanism(s).
</P>
<P>(xiv) The clutch/brake control shall automatically deactivate in event of failure of the counterbalance(s) air supply. Reactivation of the clutch shall require restoration of normal air supply and use of the tripping mechanism(s).
</P>
<P>(xv) Selection of bar operation shall be by means capable of being supervised by the employer. A separate pushbutton shall be employed to activate the clutch, and the clutch shall be activated only if the driver motor is deenergized.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Electrical.</I> (i) A main power disconnect switch capable of being locked only in the Off position shall be provided with every power press control system.
</P>
<P>(ii) The motor start button shall be protected against accidental operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) All mechanical power press controls shall incorporate a type of drive motor starter that will disconnect the drive motor from the power source in event of control voltage or power source failure, and require operation of the motor start button to restart the motor when voltage conditions are restored to normal.
</P>
<P>(iv) All a.c. control circuits and solenoid value coils shall be powered by not more than a nominal 120-volt a.c. supply obtained from a transformer with an isolated secondary. Higher voltages that may be necessary for operation of machine or control mechanisms shall be isolated from any control mechanism handled by the operator, but motor starters with integral Start-Stop buttons may utilize line voltage control. All d.c. control circuits shall be powered by not more than a nominal 240-volt d.c. supply isolated from any higher voltages.
</P>
<P>(v) All clutch/brake control electrical circuits shall be protected against the possibility of an accidental ground in the control circuit causing false operation of the press.
</P>
<P>(vi) Electrical clutch/brake control circuits shall incorporate features to minimize the possibility of an unintended stroke in the event of the failure of a control component to function properly, including relays, limit switches, and static output circuits.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Slide counterbalance systems.</I> (i) Spring counterbalance systems when used shall incorporate means to retain system parts in event of breakage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spring counterbalances when used shall have the capability to hold the slide and its attachments at midstroke, without brake applied.
</P>
<P>(iii) Air counterbalance cylinders shall incorporate means to retain the piston and rod in case of breakage or loosening.
</P>
<P>(iv) Air counterbalance cylinders shall have adequate capability to hold the slide and its attachments at any point in stroke, without brake applied.
</P>
<P>(v) Air counterbalance cylinders shall incorporate means to prevent failure of capability (sudden loss of pressure) in event of air supply failure.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Air controlling equipment.</I> Air controlling equipment shall be protected against foreign material and water entering the pneumatic system of the press. A means of air lubrication shall be provided when needed.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Hydraulic equipment.</I> The maximum anticipated working pressures in any hydraulic system on a mechanical power press shall not exceed the safe working pressure rating of any component used in that system.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Pressure vessels.</I> All pressure vessels used in conjunction with power presses shall conform to the American Society of Mechanical Engineers Code for Pressure Vessels, 1968 Edition, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Control reliability.</I> When required by paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the control system shall be constructed so that a failure within the system does not prevent the normal stopping action from being applied to the press when required, but does prevent initiation of a successive stroke until the failure is corrected. The failure shall be detectable by a simple test, or indicated by the control system. This requirement does not apply to those elements of the control system which have no effect on the protection against point of operation injuries.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Brake system monitoring.</I> When required by paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the brake monitor shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Be so constructed as to automatically prevent the activation of a successive stroke if the stopping time or braking distance deteriorates to a point where the safety distance being utilized does not meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(<I>e</I>) or (c)(3)(vii)(<I>c</I>) of this section. The brake monitor used with the Type B gate or movable barrier device shall be installed in a manner to detect slide top-stop overrun beyond the normal limit reasonably established by the employer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be installed on a press such that it indicates when the performance of the braking system has deteriorated to the extent described in paragraph (b)(14)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be constructed and installed in a manner to monitor brake system performance on each stroke.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safeguarding the point of operation</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) It shall be the responsibility of the employer to provide and insure the usage of “point of operation guards” or properly applied and adjusted point of operation devices on every operation performed on a mechanical power press. See Table O-10.
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall not apply when the point of operation opening is one-fourth inch or less. See Table O-10.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Point of operation guards.</I> (i) Every point of operation guard shall meet the following design, construction, application, and adjustment requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) It shall prevent entry of hands or fingers into the point of operation by reaching through, over, under or around the guard;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) It shall conform to the maximum permissible openings of Table O-10;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) It shall, in itself, create no pinch point between the guard and moving machine parts;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) It shall utilize fasteners not readily removable by operator, so as to minimize the possibility of misuse or removal of essential parts;
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) It shall facilitate its inspection, and
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) It shall offer maximum visibility of the point of operation consistent with the other requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) A die enclosure guard shall be attached to the die shoe or stripper in a fixed position.
</P>
<P>(iii) A fixed barrier guard shall be attached securely to the frame of the press or to the bolster plate.
</P>
<P>(iv) An interlocked press barrier guard shall be attached to the press frame or bolster and shall be interlocked with the press clutch control so that the clutch cannot be activated unless the guard itself, or the hinged or movable sections of the guard are in position to conform to the requirements of Table O-10.
</P>
<P>(v) The hinged or movable sections of an interlocked press barrier guard shall not be used for manual feeding. The guard shall prevent opening of the interlocked section and reaching into the point of operation prior to die closure or prior to the cessation of slide motion. See paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section regarding manual feeding through interlocked press barrier devices.
</P>
<P>(vi) The adjustable barrier guard shall be securely attached to the press bed, bolster plate, or die shoe, and shall be adjusted and operated in conformity with Table O-10 and the requirements of this subparagraph. Adjustments shall be made only by authorized personnel whose qualifications include a knowledge of the provisions of Table O-10 and this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(vii) A point of operation enclosure which does not meet the requirements of this subparagraph and Table O-10 shall be used only in conjunction with point of operation devices.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Point of operation devices.</I> (i) Point of operation devices shall protect the operator by:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Preventing and/or stopping normal stroking of the press if the operator's hands are inadvertently placed in the point of operation; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Preventing the operator from inadvertently reaching into the point of operation, or withdrawing his hands if they are inadvertently located in the point of operation, as the dies close; or
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Preventing the operator from inadvertently reaching into the point of operation at all times; or
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Requiring application of both of the operator's hands to machine operating controls and locating such controls at such a safety distance from the point of operation that the slide completes the downward travel or stops before the operator can reach into the point of operation with his hands; or
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Enclosing the point of operation before a press stroke can be initiated, and maintaining this closed condition until the motion of the slide had ceased; or
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Enclosing the point of operation before a press stroke can be initiated, so as to prevent an operator from reaching into the point of operation prior to die closure or prior to cessation of slide motion during the downward stroke.
</P>
<P>(ii) A gate or movable barrier device shall protect the operator as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A Type A gate or movable barrier device shall protect the operator in the manner specified in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>f</I>) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A Type B gate or movable barrier device shall protect the operator in the manner specified in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>g</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A presence sensing point of operation device shall protect the operator as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>a</I>) of this section, and shall be interlocked into the control circuit to prevent or stop slide motion if the operator's hand or other part of his body is within the sensing field of the device during the downstroke of the press slide.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The device may not be used on machines using full revolution clutches.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The device may not be used as a tripping means to initiate slide motion, except when used in total conformance with paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The device shall be constructed so that a failure within the system does not prevent the normal stopping action from being applied to the press when required, but does prevent the initiation of a successive stroke until the failure is corrected. The failure shall be indicated by the system.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Muting (bypassing of the protective function) of such device, during the upstroke of the press slide, is permitted for the purpose of parts ejection, circuit checking, and feeding.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The safety distance (D<E T="52">s</E>) from the sensing field to the point of operation shall be greater than the distance determined by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">s</E> = 63 inches/second × T<E T="52">s</E>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">s</E> = minimum safety distance (inches); 63 inches/second = hand speed constant;
</FP-2>
<FP>and
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">s</E> = stopping time of the press measured at approximately 90° position of crankshaft rotation (seconds).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Guards shall be used to protect all areas of entry to the point of operation not protected by the presence sensing device.
</P>
<P>(iv) The pull-out device shall protect the operator as specified in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>b</I>) of this section, and shall include attachments for each of the operator's hands.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Attachments shall be connected to and operated only by the press slide or upper die.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Attachments shall be adjusted to prevent the operator from reaching into the point of operation or to withdraw the operator's hands from the point of operation before the dies close.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A separate pull-out device shall be provided for each operator if more than one operator is used on a press.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Each pull-out device in use shall be visually inspected and checked for proper adjustment at the start of each operator shift, following a new die set-up, and when operators are changed. Necessary maintenance or repair or both shall be performed and completed before the press is operated. Records of inspections and maintenance shall be kept in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The sweep device may not be used for point of operation safeguarding.
</P>
<P>(vi) A holdout or a restraint device shall protect the operator as specified in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>c</I>) of this section and shall include attachments for each of the operator's hands. Such attachments shall be securely anchored and adjusted in such a way that the operator is restrained from reaching into the point of operation. A separate set of restraints shall be provided for each operator if more than one operator is required on a press.
</P>
<P>(vii) The two hand control device shall protect the operator as specified in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>e</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When used in press operations requiring more than one operator, separate two hand controls shall be provided for each operator, and shall be designed to require concurrent application of all operators' controls to activate the slide. The removal of a hand from any control button shall cause the slide to stop.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Each two hand control shall meet the construction requirements of paragraph (b)(7)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The safety distance (D<E T="52">s</E>) between each two hand control device and the point of operation shall be greater than the distance determined by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">s</E> = 63 inches/second × T<E T="52">s</E>;
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">s</E> = minimum safety distance (inches); 63 inches/second = hand speed constant;
</FP-2>
<FP>and
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">s</E> = stopping time of the press measured at approximately 90° position of crankshaft rotation (seconds).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Two hand controls shall be fixed in position so that only a supervisor or safety engineer is capable of relocating the controls.
</P>
<P>(viii) The two hand trip device shall protect the operator as specified in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(<I>e</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When used in press operations requiring more than one operator, separate two hand trips shall be provided for each operator, and shall be designed to require concurrent application of all operators' to activate the slide.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Each two hand trip shall meet the construction requirements of paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The safety distance (D<E T="52">m</E>) between the two hand trip and the point of operation shall be greater than the distance determined by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">m</E> = 63 inches/second × T<E T="52">m</E>;
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">m</E> = minimum safety distance (inches); 63 inches/second = hand speed constant;
</FP-2>
<FP>and
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">m</E> = the maximum time the press takes for the die closure after it has been tripped (seconds). For full revolution clutch presses with only one engaging point T<E T="52">m</E> is equal to the time necessary for one and one-half revolutions of the crankshaft. For full revolution clutch presses with more than one engaging point, T<E T="52">m</E> shall be calculated as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">m</E> = [
<FR>1/2</FR> + (1 ÷ Number of engaging points per revolution)] × time necessary to complete one revolution of the crankshaft (seconds).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Two hand trips shall be fixed in position so that only a supervisor or safety engineer is capable of relocating the controls.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hand feeding tools.</I> Hand feeding tools are intended for placing and removing materials in and from the press. Hand feeding tools are not a point of operation guard or protection device and shall not be used in lieu of the “guards” or devices required in this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional requirements for safe-guarding.</I> Where the operator feeds or removes parts by placing one or both hands in the point of operation, and a two hand control, presence sensing device, Type B gate or movable barrier (on a part revolution clutch) is used for safeguarding:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall use a control system and a brake monitor which comply with paragraphs (b) (13) and (14) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The exception in paragraph (b)(7)(v)(<I>d</I>) of this section for two hand controls manufactured and installed before August 31, 1971 is not applicable under this paragraph (c)(5);
</P>
<P>(iii) The control of air clutch machines shall be designed to prevent a significant increase in the normal stopping time due to a failure within the operating valve mechanism, and to inhibit further operation if such failure does occur, where a part revolution clutch is employed. The exception in paragraph (b)(7)(xi) of this section for controls manufactured and installed before August 31, 1971, is not applicable under this paragraph (c)(5).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Design, construction, setting and feeding of dies</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The employer shall: (i) Use dies and operating methods designed to control or eliminate hazards to operating personnel, and (ii) furnish and enforce the use of hand tools for freeing and removing stuck work or scrap pieces from the die, so that no employee need reach into the point of operation for such purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scrap handling.</I> The employer shall provide means for handling scrap from roll feed or random length stock operations. Scrap cutters used in conjunction with scrap handling systems shall be safeguarded in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and with § 1910.219.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Guide post hazard.</I> The hazard created by a guide post (when it is located in the immediate vicinity of the operator) when separated from its bushing by more than one-fourth inch shall be considered as a point of operation hazard and be protected in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Unitized tooling.</I> If unitized tooling is used, the opening between the top of the punch holder and the face of the slide, or striking pad, shall be safeguarded in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tonnage, stroke, and weight designation.</I> All dies shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Stamped with the tonnage and stroke requirements, or have these characteristics recorded if these records are readily available to the die setter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Stamped to indicate upper die weight when necessary for air counterbalance pressure adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Stamped to indicate complete die weight when handling equipment may become overloaded.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Die fastening.</I> Provision shall be made in both the upper and lower shoes for securely mounting the die to the bolster and slide. Where clamp caps or setscrews are used in conjunction with punch stems, additional means of securing the upper shoe to the slide shall be used.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Die handling.</I> Handling equipment attach points shall be provided on all dies requiring mechanical handling.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Diesetting.</I> (i) The employer shall establish a diesetting procedure that will insure compliance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide spring loaded turnover bars, for presses designed to accept such turnover bars.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide die stops or other means to prevent losing control of the die while setting or removing dies in presses which are inclined.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall provide and enforce the use of safety blocks for use whenever dies are being adjusted or repaired in the press.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall provide brushes, swabs, lubricating rolls, and automatic or manual pressure guns so that operators and diesetters shall not be required to reach into the point of operation or other hazard areas to lubricate material, punches or dies.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inspection, maintenance, and modification of presses</I>—(1) <I>Inspection and maintenance records.</I> The employer shall establish and follow an inspection program having a general component and a directed component.
</P>
<P>(i) Under the general component of the inspection program, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Conduct periodic and regular inspections of each power press to ensure that all of its parts, auxiliary equipment, and safeguards, including the clutch/brake mechanism, antirepeat feature, and single-stroke mechanism, are in a safe operating condition and adjustment;
</P>
<P>(B) Perform and complete necessary maintenance or repair, or both, before operating the press; and
</P>
<P>(C) Maintain a certification record of each inspection, and each maintenance and repair task performed, under the general component of the inspection program that includes the date of the inspection, maintenance, or repair work, the signature of the person who performed the inspection, maintenance, or repair work, and the serial number, or other identifier, of the power press inspected, maintained, and repaired.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the directed component of the inspection program, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Inspect and test each press on a regular basis at least once a week to determine the condition of the clutch/brake mechanism, antirepeat feature, and single-stroke mechanism;
</P>
<P>(B) Perform and complete necessary maintenance or repair, or both, on the clutch/brake mechanism, antirepeat feature, and single-stroke mechanism before operating the press; and
</P>
<P>(C) Maintain a certification record of each maintenance task performed under the directed component of the inspection program that includes the date of the maintenance task, the signature of the person who performed the maintenance task, and the serial number, or other identifier, of the power press maintained.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>Inspections of the clutch/brake mechanism, antirepeat feature, and single-stroke mechanism conducted under the directed component of the inspection program are exempt from the requirement to maintain certification records specified by paragraph (e)(1)(i)(C) of this section, but inspections of the clutch/brake mechanism, antirepeat feature, and single-stroke mechanism conducted under the general component of the inspection program are not exempt from this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section does not apply to presses that comply with paragraphs (b)(13) and (14) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modification.</I> It shall be the responsibility of any person modifying a power press to furnish instructions with the modification to establish new or changed guidelines for use and care of the power press so modified.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Training of maintenance personnel.</I> It shall be the responsibility of the employer to insure the original and continuing competence of personnel caring for, inspecting, and maintaining power presses.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Operation of power presses</I>—(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Instruction to operators.</I> The employer shall train and instruct the operator in the safe method of work before starting work on any operation covered by this section. The employer shall insure by adequate supervision that correct operating procedures are being followed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Work area.</I> The employer shall provide clearance between machines so that movement of one operator will not interfere with the work of another. Ample room for cleaning machines, handling material, work pieces, and scrap shall also be provided. All surrounding floors shall be kept in good condition and free from obstructions, grease, oil, and water.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Overloading.</I> The employer shall operate his presses within the tonnage and attachment weight ratings specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.076.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Explanation of above diagram:
</P>
<P>This diagram shows the accepted safe openings between the bottom edge of a guard and feed table at various distances from the danger line (point of operation).
</P>
<P>The <I>clearance line</I> marks the distance required to prevent contact between guard and moving parts.
</P>
<P>The <I>minimum guarding line</I> is the distance between the infeed side of the guard and the danger line which is one-half inch from the danger line.
</P>
<P>The various openings are such that for average size hands an operator's fingers won't reach the point of operation.
</P>
<P>After installation of point of operation guards and before a job is released for operation a check should be made to verify that the guard will prevent the operator's hands from reaching the point of operation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-10
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In inches]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance of opening from point of operation hazard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum width of opening
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr> to 1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr> to 2
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/2</fr> to 3
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3
<fr>1/2</fr> to 5
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5
<fr>1/2</fr> to 6
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6
<fr>1/2</fr> to 7
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7
<fr>1/2</fr> to 12
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12
<fr>1/2</fr> to 15
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15
<fr>1/2</fr> to 17
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17
<fr>1/2</fr> to 31
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>1/8</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>This table shows the distances that guards shall be positioned from the danger line in accordance with the required openings.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) <I>Reports of injuries to employees operating mechanical power presses.</I> (1) The employer shall report, within 30 days of the occurrence, all point-of-operation injuries to operators or other employees to either the Director of the Directorate of Standards and Guidance at OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210 or electronically at <I>http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/mechanical.html;</I> or to the State Agency administering a plan approved by the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.
</P>
<P>(2) The report shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Employer's name, address and location of the workplace (establishment).
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee's name, injury sustained, and the task being performed (operation, set-up, maintenance, or other).
</P>
<P>(iii) Type of clutch used on the press (full revolution, part revolution, or direct drive).
</P>
<P>(iv) Type of safeguard(s) being used (two hand control, two hand trip, pullouts, sweeps, or other). If the safeguard is not described in this section, give a complete description.
</P>
<P>(v) Cause of the accident (repeat of press, safeguard failure, removing stuck part or scrap, no safeguard provided, no safeguard in use, or other).
</P>
<P>(vi) Type of feeding (manual with hands in dies or with hands out of dies, semiautomatic, automatic, or other).
</P>
<P>(vii) Means used to actuate press stroke (foot trip, foot control, hand trip, hand control, or other).
</P>
<P>(viii) Number of operators required for the operation and the number of operators provided with controls and safeguards.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Presence sensing device initiation (PSDI)</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The requirements of paragraph (h) shall apply to all part revolution mechanical power presses used in the PSDI mode of operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The relevant requirements of paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section also shall apply to all presses used in the PSDI mode of operation, whether or not cross referenced in this paragraph (h). Such cross-referencing of specific requirements from paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section is intended only to enhance convenience and understanding in relating to the new provisions to the existing standard, and is not to be construed as limiting the applicability of other provisions in paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Full revolution mechanical power presses shall not be used in the PSDI mode of operation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Mechanical power presses with a configuration which would allow a person to enter, pass through, and become clear of the sensing field into the hazardous portion of the press shall not be used in the PSDI mode of operation.
</P>
<P>(v) The PSDI mode of operation shall be used only for normal production operations. Die-setting and maintenance procedures shall comply with paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section, and shall not be done in the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Brake and clutch requirements.</I> (i) Presses with flexible steel band brakes or with mechanical linkage actuated brakes or clutches shall not be used in the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(ii) Brake systems on presses used in the PSDI mode shall have sufficient torque so that each average value of stopping times (Ts) for stops initiated at approximately 45 degrees, 60 degrees, and 90 degrees, respectively, of crankshaft angular position, shall not be more than 125 percent of the average value of the stopping time at the top crankshaft position. Compliance with this requirement shall be determined by using the heaviest upper die to be used on the press, and operating at the fastest press speed if there is speed selection.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where brake engagement and clutch release is effected by spring action, such spring(s) shall operate in compression on a rod or within a hole or tube, and shall be of non-interleaving design.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pneumatic systems.</I> (i) Air valve and air pressure supply/control.
</P>
<P>(A) The requirements of paragraphs (b)(7)(xiii), (b)(7)(xiv), (b)(10), (b)(12) and (c)(5)(iii) of this section apply to the pneumatic systems of machines used in the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(B) The air supply for pneumatic clutch/brake control valves shall incorporate a filter, an air regulator, and, when necessary for proper operation, a lubricator.
</P>
<P>(C) The air pressure supply for clutch/brake valves on machines used in the PSDI mode shall be regulated to pressures less than or equal to the air pressure used when making the stop time measurements required by paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Air counterbalance systems.
</P>
<P>(A) Where presses that have slide counterbalance systems are used in the PSDI mode, the counterbalance system shall also meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Counterbalances shall be adjusted in accordance with the press manufacturer's recommendations to assure correct counterbalancing of the slide attachment (upper die) weight for all operations performed on presses used in the PSDI mode. The adjustments shall be made before performing the stopping time measurements required by paragraphs (h)(2)(ii), (h)(5)(iii), and (h)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Flywheels and bearings.</I> Presses whose designs incorporate flywheels running on journals on the crankshaft or back shaft, or bull gears running on journals mounted on the crankshaft, shall be inspected, lubricated, and maintained as provided in paragraph (h)(10) of this section to reduce the possibility of unintended and uncontrolled press strokes caused by bearing seizure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Brake monitoring.</I> (i) Presses operated in the PSDI mode shall be equipped with a brake monitor that meets the requirements of paragraphs (b)(13) and (b)(14) of this section. In addition, the brake monitor shall be adjusted during installation certification to prevent successive stroking of the press if increases in stopping time cause an increase in the safety distance above that required by paragraph (h)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Once the PSDI safety system has been certified/validated, adjustment of the brake monitor shall not be done without prior approval of the validation organization for both the brake monitor adjustment and the corresponding adjustment of the safety distance. The validation organization shall in its installation validation, state that in what circumstances, if any, the employer has advance approval for adjustment, when prior oral approval is appropriate and when prior approval must be in writing. The adjustment shall be done under the supervision of an authorized person whose qualifications include knowledge of safety distance requirements and experience with the brake system and its adjustment. When brake wear or other factors extend press stopping time beyond the limit permitted by the brake monitor, adjustment, repair, or maintenance shall be performed on the brake or other press system element that extends the stopping time.
</P>
<P>(iii) The brake monitor setting shall allow an increase of no more than 10 percent of the longest stopping time for the press, or 10 milliseconds, whichever is longer, measured at the top of the stroke.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cycle control and control systems.</I> (i) The control system on presses used in the PSDI mode shall meet the applicable requirements of paragraphs (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(13), and (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The control system shall incorporate a means of dynamically monitoring for decoupling of the rotary position indicating mechanism drive from the crankshaft. This monitor shall stop slide motion and prevent successive press strokes if decoupling occurs, or if the monitor itself fails.
</P>
<P>(iii) The mode selection means of paragraph (b)(7)(iii) of this section shall have at least one position for selection of the PSDI mode. Where more than one interruption of the light sensing field is used in the initiation of a stroke, either the mode selection means must have one position for each function, or a separate selection means shall be provided which becomes operable when the PSDI mode is selected. Selection of PSDI mode and the number of interruptions/withdrawals of the light sensing field required to initiate a press cycle shall be by means capable of supervision by the employer.
</P>
<P>(iv) A PSDI set-up/reset means shall be provided which requires an overt action by the operator, in addition to PSDI mode selection, before operation of the press by means of PSDI can be started.
</P>
<P>(v) An indicator visible to the operator and readily seen by the employer shall be provided which shall clearly indicate that the system is set-up for cycling in the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(vi) The control system shall incorporate a timer to deactivate PSDI when the press does not stroke within the period of time set by the timer. The timer shall be manually adjustable, to a maximum time of 30 seconds. For any timer setting greater than 15 seconds, the adjustment shall be made by the use of a special tool available only to authorized persons. Following a deactivation of PSDI by the timer, the system shall make it necessary to reset the set-up/reset means in order to reactivate the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(vii) Reactivation of PSDI operation following deactivation of the PSDI mode from any other cause, such as activation of the red color stop control required by paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section, interruption of the presence sensing field, opening of an interlock, or reselection of the number of sensing field interruptions/withdrawals required to cycle the press, shall require resetting of the set-up/reset means.
</P>
<P>(viii) The control system shall incorporate an automatic means to prevent initiation or continued operation in the PSDI mode unless the press drive motor is energized in the forward direction of crankshaft rotation.
</P>
<P>(ix) The control design shall preclude any movement of the slide caused by operation of power on, power off, or selector switches, or from checks for proper operations as required by paragraph (h)(6)(xiv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) All components and subsystems of the control system shall be designed to operate together to provide total control system compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(xi) Where there is more than one operator of a press used for PSDI, each operator shall be protected by a separate, independently functioning, presence sensing device. The control system shall require that each sensing field be interrupted the selected number of times prior to initiating a stroke. Further, each operator shall be provided with a set-up/reset means that meets the requirements of paragraph (h)(6) of this section, and which must be actuated to initiate operation of the press in the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(xii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xiii) The Control system shall incorporate interlocks for supplemental guards, if used, which will prevent stroke initiation or will stop a stroke in progress if any supplemental guard fails or is deactivated.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The control system shall perform checks for proper operation of all cycle control logic element switches and contacts at least once each cycle. Control elements shall be checked for correct status after power “on” and before the initial PSDI stroke.
</P>
<P>(xv) The control system shall have provisions for an “inch” operating means meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(7)(iv) of this section. Die-setting shall not be done in the PSDI mode. Production shall not be done in the “inch” mode.
</P>
<P>(xvi) The control system shall permit only a single stroke per initiation command.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Controls with internally stored programs (e.g., mechanical, electro-mechanical, or electronic) shall meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(13) of this section, and shall default to a predetermined safe condition in the event of any single failure within the system. Programmable controllers which meet the requirements for controls with internally stored programs stated above shall be permitted only if all logic elements affecting the safety system and point of operation safety are internally stored and protected in such a manner that they cannot be altered or manipulated by the user to an unsafe condition.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Environmental requirements.</I> Control components shall be selected, constructed, and connected together in such a way as to withstand expected operational and environmental stresses, at least including those outlined in appendix A. Such stresses shall not so affect the control system as to cause unsafe operation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Safety system.</I> (i) Mechanical power presses used in the PSDI mode shall be operated under the control of a safety system which, in addition to meeting the applicable requirements of paragraphs (b)(13) and (c)(5) and other applicable provisions of this section, shall function such that a single failure or single operating error shall not cause injury to personnel from point of operation hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) The safety system shall be designed, constructed, and arranged as an integral total system, including all elements of the press, the controls, the safeguarding and any required supplemental safeguarding, and their interfaces with the operator and that part of the environment which has effect on the protection against point of operation hazards.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Safeguarding the point of operation.</I> (i) The point of operation of presses operated in the PSDI mode shall be safeguarded in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, except that the safety distance requirements of paragraph (h)(9)(v) of this section shall be used for PSDI operation.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) PSDI shall be implemented only by use of light curtain (photo-electric) presence sensing devices which meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(<I>c</I>) of this section unless the requirements of the following paragraph have been met.
</P>
<P>(B) Alternatives to photo-electric light curtains may be used for PSDI when the employer can demonstrate, through tests and analysis by the employer or the manufacturer, that the alternative is as safe as the photo-electric light curtain, that the alternative meets the conditions of this section, has the same long term reliability as light curtains and can be integrated into the entire safety system as provided for in this section. Prior to use, both the employer and manufacturer must certify that these requirements and all the other applicable requirements of this section are met and these certifications must be validated by an OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization to meet these additional requirements and all the other applicable requirements of paragraphs (a) through (h) and appendix A of this section. Three months prior to the operation of any alternative system, the employer must notify the OSHA Directorate of Safety Standards Programs of the name of the system to be installed, the manufacturer and the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization immediately. Upon request, the employer must make available to that office all tests and analyses for OSHA review.
</P>
<P>(iii) Individual sensing fields of presence sensing devices used to initiate strokes in the PSDI mode shall cover only one side of the press.
</P>
<P>(iv) Light curtains used for PSDI operation shall have minimum object sensitivity not to exceed one and one-fourth inches (31.75 mm). Where light curtain object sensitivity is user-adjustable, either discretely or continuously, design features shall limit the minimum object sensitivity adjustment not to exceed one and one-fourth inches (31.75 mm). Blanking of the sensing field is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(v) The safety distance (Ds) from the sensing field of the presence sensing device to the point of operation shall be greater than or equal to the distance determined by the formula:
</P>
<FP-2>Ds = Hs × (Ts + Tp + Tr + 2Tm) + Dp
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Ds = Minimum safety distance.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hs = Hand speed constant of 63 inches per second (1.6 m/s).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ts = Longest press stopping time, in seconds, computed by taking averages of multiple measurements at each of three positions (45 degrees, 60 degrees, and 90 degrees) of crankshaft angular position; the longest of the three averages is the stopping time to use. (Ts is defined as the sum of the kinetic energy dissipation time plus the pneumatic/magnetic/hydraulic reaction time of the clutch/brake operating mechanism(s).)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Tp = Longest presence sensing device response time, in seconds.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Tr = Longest response time, in seconds, of all interposing control elements between the presence sensing device and the clutch/brake operating mechanism(s).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Tm = Increase in the press stopping time at the top of the stroke, in seconds, allowed by the brake monitor for brake wear. The time increase allowed shall be limited to no more than 10 percent of the longest press stopping time measured at the top of the stroke, or 10 milliseconds, whichever is longer.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Dp = Penetration depth factor, required to provide for possible penetration through the presence sensing field by fingers or hand before detection occurs. The penetration depth factor shall be determined from Graph h-1 using the minimum object sensitivity size.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.077.gif"/>
<P>(vi) The presence sensing device location shall either be set at each tool change and set-up to provide at least the minimum safety distance, or fixed in location to provide a safety distance greater than or equal to the minimum safety distance for all tooling set-ups which are to be used on that press.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where presence sensing device location is adjustable, adjustment shall require the use of a special tool available only to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(viii) Supplemental safeguarding shall be used to protect all areas of access to the point of operation which are unprotected by the PSDI presence sensing device. Such supplemental safeguarding shall consist of either additional light curtain (photo-electric) presence sensing devices or other types of guards which meet the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Presence sensing devices used as supplemental safeguarding shall not initiate a press stroke, and shall conform to the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(iii) and other applicable provisions of this section, except that the safety distance shall comply with paragraph (h)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Guards used as supplemental safeguarding shall conform to the design, construction and application requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and shall be interlocked with the press control to prevent press PSDI operation if the guard fails, is removed, or is out of position.
</P>
<P>(ix) Barriers shall be fixed to the press frame or bolster to prevent personnel from passing completely through the sensing field, where safety distance or press configuration is such that personnel could pass through the PSDI presence sensing field and assume a position where the point of operation could be accessed without detection by the PSDI presence sensing device. As an alternative, supplemental presence sensing devices used only in the safeguard mode may be provided. If used, these devices shall be located so as to detect all operator locations and positions not detected by the PSDI sensing field, and shall prevent stroking or stop a stroke in process when any supplemental sensing field(s) are interrupted.
</P>
<P>(x) Hand tools. Where tools are used for feeding, removal of scrap, lubrication of parts, or removal of parts that stick on the die in PSDI operations:
</P>
<P>(A) The minimum diameter of the tool handle extension shall be greater than the minimum object sensitivity of the presence sensing device(s) used to initiate press strokes; or
</P>
<P>(B) The length of the hand tool shall be such as to ensure that the operator's hand will be detected for any safety distance required by the press set-ups.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Inspection and maintenance.</I> (i) Any press equipped with presence sensing devices for use in PSDI, or for supplemental safeguarding on presses used in the PSDI mode, shall be equipped with a test rod of diameter specified by the presence sensing device manufacturer to represent the minimum object sensitivity of the sensing field. Instructions for use of the test rod shall be noted on a label affixed to the presence sensing device.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following checks shall be made at the beginning of each shift and whenever a die change is made.
</P>
<P>(A) A check shall be performed using the test rod according to the presence sensing device manufacturer's instructions to determine that the presence sensing device used for PSDI is operational.
</P>
<P>(B) The safety distance shall be checked for compliance with (h)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) A check shall be made to determine that all supplemental safeguarding is in place. Where presence sensing devices are used for supplemental safeguarding, a check for proper operation shall be performed using the test rod according to the presence sensing device manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>(D) A check shall be made to assure that the barriers and/or supplemental presence sensing devices required by paragraph (h)(9)(ix) of this section are operating properly.
</P>
<P>(E) A system or visual check shall be made to verify correct counterbalance adjustment for die weight according to the press manufacturer's instructions, when a press is equipped with a slide counterbalance system.
</P>
<P>(iii) When presses used in the PSDI mode have flywheel or bullgear running on crankshaft mounted journals and bearings, or a flywheel mounted on back shaft journals and bearings, periodic inspections following the press manufacturer's recommendations shall be made to ascertain that bearings are in good working order, and that automatic lubrication systems for these bearings (if automatic lubrication is provided) are supplying proper lubrication. On presses with provision for manual lubrication of flywheel or bullgear bearings, lubrication shall be provided according to the press manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Periodic inspections of clutch and brake mechanisms shall be performed to assure they are in proper operating condition. The press manufacturer's recommendations shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(v) When any check of the press, including those performed in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(10)(ii), (iii) or (iv) of this section, reveals a condition of noncompliance, improper adjustment, or failure, the press shall not be operated until the condition has been corrected by adjustment, replacement, or repair.
</P>
<P>(vi) It shall be the responsibility of the employer to ensure the competence of personnel caring for, inspecting, and maintaining power presses equipped for PSDI operation, through initial and periodic training.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Safety system certification/validation.</I> (i) Prior to the initial use of any mechanical press in the PSDI mode, two sets of certification and validation are required:
</P>
<P>(A) The design of the safety system required for the use of a press in the PSDI mode shall be certified and validated prior to installation. The manufacturer's certification shall be validated by an OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization to meet all applicable requirements of paragraphs (a) through (h) and appendix A of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) After a press has been equipped with a safety system whose design has been certified and validated in accordance with paragraph (h)(11)(i) of this section, the safety system installation shall be certified by the employer, and then shall be validated by an OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization to meet all applicable requirements of paragraphs (a) through (h) and appendix A of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least annually thereafter, the safety system on a mechanical power press used in the PSDI mode shall be recertified by the employer and revalidated by an OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization to meet all applicable requirements of paragraphs (a) through (h) and appendix A of this section. Any press whose safety system has not been recertified and revalidated within the preceding 12 months shall be removed from service in the PSDI mode until the safety system is recertified and revalidated.
</P>
<P>(iii) A label shall be affixed to the press as part of each installation certification/validation and the most recent recertification/revalidation. The label shall indicate the press serial number, the minimum safety distance (Ds) required by paragraph (h)(9)(v) of this section, the fulfillment of design certification/validation, the employer's signed certification, the identification of the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization, its signed validation, and the date the certification/validation and recertification/revalidation are issued.
</P>
<P>(iv) Records of the installation certification and validation and the most recent recertification and revalidation shall be maintained for each safety system equipped press by the employer as long as the press is in use. The records shall include the manufacture and model number of each component and subsystem, the calculations of the safety distance as required by paragraph (h)(9)(v) of this section, and the stopping time measurements required by paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section. The most recent records shall be made available to OSHA upon request.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall notify the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization within five days whenever a component or a subsystem of the safety system fails or modifications are made which may affect the safety of the system. The failure of a critical component shall necessitate the removal of the safety system from service until it is recertified and revalidated, except recertification by the employer without revalidation is permitted when a non-critical component or subsystem is replaced by one of the same manufacture and design as the original, or determined by the third-party validation organization to be equivalent by similarity analysis, as set forth in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall notify the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization within five days of the occurrence of any point of operation injury while a press is used in the PSDI mode. This is in addition to the report of injury required by paragraph (g) of this section; however, a copy of that report may be used for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Die setting and work set-up.</I> (i) Die setting on presses used in the PSDI mode shall be performed in accordance with paragraphs (d) and (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The PSDI mode shall not be used for die setting or set-up. An alternative manual cycle initiation and control means shall be supplied for use in die setting which meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Following a die change, the safety distance, the proper application of supplemental safeguarding, and the slide counterbalance adjustment (if the press is equipped with a counterbalance) shall be checked and maintained by authorized persons whose qualifications include knowledge of the safety distance, supplemental safeguarding requirements, and the manufacturer's specifications for counterbalance adjustment. Adjustment of the location of the PSDI presence sensing device shall require use of a special tool available only to the authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Operator training.</I> (i) The operator training required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be provided to the employee before the employee initially operates the press and as needed to maintain competence, but not less than annually thereafter. It shall include instruction relative to the following items for presses used in the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(A) The manufacturer's recommended test procedures for checking operation of the presence sensing device. This shall include the use of the test rod required by paragraph (h)(10)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The safety distance required.
</P>
<P>(C) The operation, function and performance of the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(D) The requirements for hand tools that may be used in the PSDI mode.
</P>
<P>(E) The severe consequences that can result if he or she attempts to circumvent or by-pass any of the safeguard or operating functions of the PSDI system.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall certify that employees have been trained by preparing a certification record which includes the identity of the person trained, the signature of the employer or the person who conducted the training, and the date the training was completed. The certification record shall be prepared at the completion of training and shall be maintained on file for the duration of the employee's employment. The certification record shall be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.217—Mandatory Requirements for Certification/Validation of Safety Systems for Presence Sensing Device Initiation of Mechanical Power Presses
</HD1>
<HD2>Purpose
</HD2>
<P>The purpose of the certification/validation of safety systems for presence sensing device initiation (PSDI) of mechanical power presses is to ensure that the safety systems are designed, installed, and maintained in accordance with all applicable requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A.
</P>
<HD2>General
</HD2>
<P>The certification/validation process shall utilize an independent third-party validation organization recognized by OSHA in accordance with the requirements specified in appendix C of this section.
</P>
<P>While the employer is responsible for assuring that the certification/validation requirements in § 1910.217(h)(11) are fulfilled, the design certification of PSDI safety systems may be initiated by manufacturers, employers, and/or their representatives. The term <I>manufacturers</I> refers to the manufacturer of any of the components of the safety system. An employer who assembles a PSDI safety system would be a manufacturer as well as employer for purposes of this standard and appendix.
</P>
<P>The certification/validation process includes two stages. For design certification, in the first stage, the manufacturer (which can be an employer) certifies that the PSDI safety system meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A, based on appropriate design criteria and tests. In the second stage, the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization validates that the PSDI safety system meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A and the manufacturer's certification by reviewing the manufacturer's design and test data and performing any additional reviews required by this standard or which it believes appropriate.
</P>
<P>For installation certification/validation and annual recertification/revalidation, in the first stage the employer certifies or recertifies that the employer is installing or utilizing a PSDI safety system validated as meeting the design requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A by an OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization and that the installation, operation and maintenance meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A. In the second stage, the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization validates or revalidates that the PSDI safety system installation meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A and the employer's certification, by reviewing that the PSDI safety system has been certified; the employer's certification, designs and tests, if any; the installation, operation, maintenance and training; and by performing any additional tests and reviews which the validation organization believes is necessary.
</P>
<HD2>Summary
</HD2>
<P>The certification/validation of safety systems for PSDI shall consider the press, controls, safeguards, operator, and environment as an integrated system which shall comply with all of the requirements in 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A. The certification/validation process shall verify that the safety system complies with the OSHA safety requirements as follows:
</P>
<HD3>A. Design Certification/Validation
</HD3>
<P>1. The major parts, components and subsystems used shall be defined by part number or serial number, as appropriate, and by manufacturer to establish the configuration of the system.
</P>
<P>2. The identified parts, components and subsystems shall be certified by the manufacturer to be able to withstand the functional and operational environments of the PSDI safety system.
</P>
<P>3. The total system design shall be certified by the manufacturer as complying with all requirements in 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A.
</P>
<P>4. The third-party validation organization shall validate the manufacturer's certification under paragraphs 2 and 3.
</P>
<HD3>B. Installation Certification/Validation
</HD3>
<P>1. The employer shall certify that the PSDI safety system has been design certified and validated, that the installation meets the operational and environmental requirements specified by the manufacturer, that the installation drawings are accurate, and that the installation meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A. (The operational and installation requirements of the PSDI safety system may vary for different applications.)
</P>
<P>2. The third-party validation organization shall validate the employer's certifications that the PSDI safety system is design certified and validated, that the installation meets the installation and environmental requirements specified by the manufacturer, and that the installation meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217 (a) through (h) and this appendix A.
</P>
<HD3>C. Recertification/Revalidation
</HD3>
<P>1. The PSDI safety system shall remain under certification/validation for the shorter of one year or until the system hardware is changed, modified or refurbished, or operating conditions are changed (including environmental, application or facility changes), or a failure of a critical component has occurred.
</P>
<P>2. Annually, or after a change specified in paragraph 1., the employer shall inspect and recertify the installation as meeting the requirements set forth under B., Installation Certification/Validation.
</P>
<P>3. The third-party validation organization, annually or after a change specified in paragraph 1., shall validate the employer's certification that the requirements of paragraph B., Installation Certification/Validation have been met.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>(Note:</HED>
<P>Such changes in operational conditions as die changes or press relocations not involving disassembly or revision to the safety system would not require recertification/revalidation.)</P></NOTE>
<HD2>Certification/Validation Requirements
</HD2>
<HD3>A. General Design Certification/Validation Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Certification/Validation Program Requirements.</I> The manufacturer shall certify and the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization shall validate that:
</P>
<P>(a) The design of components, subsystems, software and assemblies meets OSHA performance requirements and are ready for the intended use; and
</P>
<P>(b) The performance of combined subsystems meets OSHA's operational requirements.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Certification/Validation Program Level of Risk Evaluation Requirements.</I> The manufacturer shall evaluate and certify, and the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization shall validate, the design and operation of the safety system by determining conformance with the following:
</P>
<P>a. The safety system shall have the ability to sustain a single failure or a single operating error and not cause injury to personnel from point of operation hazards. Acceptable design features shall demonstrate, in the following order or precedence, that:
</P>
<P>(1) No single failure points may cause injury; or
</P>
<P>(2) Redundancy, and comparison and/or diagnostic checking, exist for the critical items that may cause injury, and the electrical, electronic, electromechanical and mechanical parts and components are selected so that they can withstand operational and external environments. The safety factor and/or derated percentage shall be specifically noted and complied with.
</P>
<P>b. The manufacturer shall design, evaluate, test and certify, and the third-party validation organization shall evaluate and validate, that the PSDI safety system meets appropriate requirements in the following areas.
</P>
<P>(1) Environmental Limits
</P>
<P>(a) Temperature
</P>
<P>(b) Relative humidity
</P>
<P>(c) Vibration
</P>
<P>(d) Fluid compatability with other materials
</P>
<P>(2) Design Limits
</P>
<P>(a) Power requirements
</P>
<P>(b) Power transient tolerances
</P>
<P>(c) Compatability of materials used
</P>
<P>(d) Material stress tolerances and limits
</P>
<P>(e) Stability to long term power fluctuations
</P>
<P>(f) Sensitivity to signal acquisition
</P>
<P>(g) Repeatability of measured parameter without inadvertent initiation of a press stroke
</P>
<P>(h) Operational life of components in cycles, hours, or both
</P>
<P>(i) Electromagnetic tolerance to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Specific operational wave lengths; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Externally generated wave lengths
</P>
<P>(3) <I>New Design Certification/Validation.</I> Design certification/validation for a new safety system, i.e., a new design or new integration of specifically identified components and subsystems, would entail a single certification/validation which would be applicable to all identical safety systems. It would not be necessary to repeat the tests on individual safety systems of the same manufacture or design. Nor would it be necessary to repeat these tests in the case of modifications where determined by the manufacturer and validated by the third-party validation organization to be equivalent by similarity analysis. Minor modifications not affecting the safety of the system may be made by the manufacturer without revalidation.
</P>
<P>Substantial modifications would require testing as a new safety system, as deemed necessary by the validation organization.
</P>
<HD3>B. Additional Detailed Design Certification/Validation Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The manufacturer or the manufacturer's representative shall certify to and submit to an OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization the documentation necessary to demonstrate that the PSDI safety system design is in full compliance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217(a)-(h) and this appendix A, as applicable, by means of analysis, tests, or combination of both, establishing that the following additional certification/validation requirements are fulfilled.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reaction Times.</I> For the purpose of demonstrating compliance with the reaction time required by § 1910.217(h), the tests shall use the following definitions and requirements:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Reaction time</I> means the time, in seconds, it takes the signal, required to activate/deactivate the system, to travel through the system, measured from the time of signal initiation to the time the function being measured is completed.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Full stop</I> or <I>No movement of the slide or ram</I> means when the crankshaft rotation has slowed to two or less revolutions per minute, just before stopping completely.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Function completion</I> means for, electrical, electromechanical and electronic devices, when the circuit produces a change of state in the output element of the device.
</P>
<P>d. When the change of state is motion, the measurement shall be made at the completion of the motion.
</P>
<P>e. The generation of the test signal introduced into the system for measuring reaction time shall be such that the initiation time can be established with an error of less than 0.5 percent of the reaction time measured.
</P>
<P>f. The instrument used to measure reaction time shall be calibrated to be accurate to within 0.001 second.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compliance with § 1910.217(h)(2)(ii).</I> For compliance with these requirements, the average value of the stopping time, Ts, shall be the arithmetic mean of at least 25 stops for each stop angle initiation measured with the brake and/or clutch unused, 50 percent worn, and 90 percent worn. The recommendations of the brake system manufacturer shall be used to simulate or estimate the brake wear. The manufacturer's recommended minimum lining depth shall be identified and documented, and an evaluation made that the minimum depth will not be exceeded before the next (annual) recertification/revalidation. A correlation of the brake and/or clutch degradation based on the above tests and/or estimates shall be made and documented. The results shall document the conditions under which the brake and/or clutch will and will not comply with the requirement. Based upon this determination, a scale shall be developed to indicate the allowable 10 percent of the stopping time at the top of the stroke for slide or ram overtravel due to brake wear. The scale shall be marked to indicate that brake adjustment and/or replacement is required. The explanation and use of the scale shall be documented.
</P>
<P>The test specification and procedure shall be submitted to the validation organization for review and validation prior to the test. The validation organization representative shall witness at least one set of tests.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Compliance with §§ 1910.217(h)(5)(iii) and (h)(9)(v).</I> Each reaction time required to calculate the Safety Distance, including the brake monitor setting, shall be documented in separate reaction time tests. These tests shall specify the acceptable tolerance band sufficient to assure that tolerance build-up will not render the safety distance unsafe.
</P>
<P>a. Integrated test of the press fully equipped to operate in the PSDI mode shall be conducted to establish the total system reaction time.
</P>
<P>b. Brakes which are the adjustable type shall be adjusted properly before the test.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Compliance with § 1910.217(h)(2)(iii).</I> a. Prior to conducting the brake system test required by paragraph (h)(2)(ii), a visual check shall be made of the springs. The visual check shall include a determination that the spring housing or rod does not show damage sufficient to degrade the structural integrity of the unit, and the spring does not show any tendency to interleave.
</P>
<P>b. Any detected broken or unserviceable springs shall be replaced before the test is conducted. The test shall be considered successful if the stopping time remains within that which is determined by paragraph (h)(9)(v) for the safety distance setting. If the increase in press stopping time exceeds the brake monitor setting limit defined in paragraph (h)(5)(iii), the test shall be considered unsuccessful, and the cause of the excessive stopping time shall be investigated. It shall be ascertained that the springs have not been broken and that they are functioning properly.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Compliance with § 1910.217(h)(7).</I> a. Tests which are conducted by the manufacturers of electrical components to establish stress, life, temperature and loading limits must be tests which are in compliance with the provisions of the National Electrical Code.
</P>
<P>b. Electrical and/or electronic cards or boards assembled with discreet components shall be considered a subsystem and shall require separate testing that the subsystems do not degrade in any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Ambient temperature variation from −20 °C to + 50 °C.
</P>
<P>(2) Ambient relative humidity of 99 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Vibration of 45G for one millisecond per stroke when the item is to be mounted on the press frame.
</P>
<P>(4) Electromagnetic interference at the same wavelengths used for the radiation sensing field, at the power line frequency fundamental and harmonics, and also from outogenous radiation due to system switching.
</P>
<P>(5) Electrical power supply variations of ±15 percent.
</P>
<P>c. The manufacturer shall specify the test requirements and procedures from existing consensus tests in compliance with the provisions of the National Electrical Code.
</P>
<P>d. Tests designed by the manufacturer shall be made available upon request to the validation organization. The validation organization representative shall witness at least one set of each of these tests.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Compliance with § 1910.217(h)(9)(iv).</I> a. The manufacturer shall design a test to demonstrate that the prescribed minimum object sensitivity of the presence sensing device is met.
</P>
<P>b. The test specifications and procedures shall be made available upon request to the validation organization.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Compliance with § 1910.217(h)(9)(x).</I> a. The manufacturer shall design a test(s) to establish the hand tool extension diameters allowed for variations in minimum object sensitivity response.
</P>
<P>b. The test(s) shall document the range of object diameter sizes which will produce both single and double break conditions.
</P>
<P>c. The test(s) specifications and procedures shall be made available upon request to the validation organization.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Integrated Tests Certification/Validation.</I> a. The manufacturer shall design a set of integrated tests to demonstrate compliance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>Sections 1910.217(h)(6) (ii); (iii); (iv); (v); (vi); (vii); (viii); (ix); (xi); (xii); (xiii); (xiv); (xv); and (xvii).
</P>
<P>b. The integrated test specifications and procedures shall be made available to the validation organization.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Analysis.</I> a. The manufacturer shall submit to the validation organization the technical analysis such as Hazard Analysis, Failure Mode and Effect Analysis, Stress Analysis, Component and Material Selection Analysis, Fluid Compatability, and/or other analyses which may be necessary to demonstrate, compliance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>Sections 1910.217(h)(8) (i) and (ii); (h)(2) (ii) and (iii); (h)(3)(i) (A) and (C), and (ii); (h)(5) (i), (ii) and (iii); (h)(6) (i), (iii), (iv), (vi), (vii), (viii), (ix), (x), (xi), (xiii), (xiv), (xv), (xvi), and (xvii); (h)(7) (i) and (ii); (h)(9) (iv), (v), (viii), (ix) and (x); (h)(10) (i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>11. <I>Types of Tests Acceptable for Certification/Validation.</I> a. Test results obtained from development testing may be used to certify/validate the design.
</P>
<P>b. The test results shall provide the engineering data necessary to establish confidence that the hardware and software will meet specifications, the manufacturing process has adequate quality control and the data acquired was used to establish processes, procedures, and test levels supporting subsequent hardware design, production, installation and maintenance.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Validation for Design Certification/Validation.</I> If, after review of all documentation, tests, analyses, manufacturer's certifications, and any additional tests which the third-party validation organization believes are necessary, the third-party validation organization determines that the PSDI safety system is in full compliance with the applicable requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217(a) through (h) and this appendix A, it shall validate the manufacturer's certification that it so meets the stated requirements.
</P>
<HD3>C. Installation Certification/Validation Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. The employer shall evaluate and test the PSDI system installation, shall submit to the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization the necessary supporting documentation, and shall certify that the requirements of § 1910.217(a) through (h) and this appendix A have been met and that the installation is proper.
</P>
<P>2. The OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization shall conduct tests, and/or review and evaluate the employer's installation tests, documentation and representations. If it so determines, it shall validate the employer's certification that the PSDI safety system is in full conformance with all requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217(a) through (h) and this appendix A.
</P>
<HD3>D. Recertification/Revalidation Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. A PSDI safety system which has received installation certification/validation shall undergo recertification/revalidation the earlier of:
</P>
<P>a. Each time the systems hardware is significantly changed, modified, or refurbished;
</P>
<P>b. Each time the operational conditions are significantly changed (including environmental, application or facility changes, but excluding such changes as die changes or press relocations not involving revision to the safety system);
</P>
<P>c. When a failure of a significant component has occurred or a change has been made which may affect safety; or
</P>
<P>d. When one year has elapsed since the installation certification/validation or the last recertification/revalidation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Conduct or recertification/revalidation.</I> The employer shall evaluate and test the PSDI safety system installation, shall submit to the OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization the necessary supporting documentation, and shall recertify that the requirements of § 1910.217(a) through (h) and this appendix are being met. The documentation shall include, but not be limited to, the following items:
</P>
<P>a. Demonstration of a thorough inspection of the entire press and PSDI safety system to ascertain that the installation, components and safeguarding have not been changed, modified or tampered with since the installation certification/validation or last recertification/revalidation was made.
</P>
<P>b. Demonstrations that such adjustments as may be needed (such as to the brake monitor setting) have been accomplished with proper changes made in the records and on such notices as are located on the press and safety system.
</P>
<P>c. Demonstration that review has been made of the reports covering the design certification/validation, the installation certification/validation, and all recertification/revalidations, in order to detect any degradation to an unsafe condition, and that necessary changes have been made to restore the safety system to previous certification/validation levels.
</P>
<P>3. The OSHA-recognized third-party validation organization shall conduct tests, and/or review and evaluate the employer's installation, tests, documentation and representations. If it so determines, it shall revalidate the employer's recertification that the PSDI system is in full conformance with all requirements of 29 CFR 1910.217(a) through (h) and this appendix A.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.217—Nonmandatory Guidelines for Certification/Validation of Safety Systems for Presence Sensing Device Initiation of Mechanical Power Presses
</HD1>
<HD2>Objectives
</HD2>
<P>This appendix provides employers, manufacturers, and their representatives, with nonmandatory guidelines for use in developing certification documents. Employers and manufacturers are encouraged to recommend other approaches if there is a potential for improving safety and reducing cost. The guidelines apply to certification/validation activity from design evaluation through the completion of the installation test and the annual recertification/revalidation tests.
</P>
<HD2>General Guidelines
</HD2>
<P>A. The certification/validation process should confirm that hazards identified by hazard analysis, (HA), failure mode effect analysis (FMEA), and other system analyses have been eliminated by design or reduced to an acceptable level through the use of appropriate design features, safety devices, warning devices, or special procedures. The certification/validation process should also confirm that residual hazards identified by operational analysis are addressed by warning, labeling safety instructions or other appropriate means.
</P>
<P>B. The objective of the certification/validation program is to demonstrate and document that the system satisfies specification and operational requirements for safe operations.
</P>
<HD2>Quality Control
</HD2>
<P>The safety attributes of a certified/validated PSDI safety system are more likely to be maintained if the quality of the system and its parts, components and subsystem is consistently controlled. Each manufacturer supplying parts, components, subsystems, and assemblies needs to maintain the quality of the product, and each employer needs to maintain the system in a non-degraded condition.
</P>
<HD2>Analysis Guidelines
</HD2>
<P>A. Certification/validation of hardware design below the system level should be accomplished by test and/or analysis.
</P>
<P>B. Analytical methods may be used in lieu of, in combination with, or in support of tests to satisfy specification requirements.
</P>
<P>C. Analyses may be used for certification/validation when existing data are available or when test is not feasible.
</P>
<P>D. Similarity analysis may be used in lieu of tests where it can be shown that the article is similar in design, manufacturing process, and quality control to another article that was previously certified/validated in accordance with equivalent or more stringent criteria. If previous design, history and application are considered to be similar, but not equal to or more exacting than earlier experiences, the additional or partial certification/validation tests should concentrate on the areas of changed or increased requirements.
</P>
<HD2>Analysis Reports
</HD2>
<P>The analysis reports should identify: (1) The basis for the analysis; (2) the hardware or software items analyzed; (3) conclusions; (4) safety factors; and (5) limit of the analysis. The assumptions made during the analysis should be clearly stated and a description of the effects of these assumptions on the conclusions and limits should be included.
</P>
<P>Certification/validation by similarity analysis reports should identify, in addition to the above, application of the part, component or subsystem for which certification/validation is being sought as well as data from previous usage establishing adequacy of the item. Similarity analysis should not be accepted when the internal and external stresses on the item being certified/validated are not defined.
</P>
<P>Usage experience should also include failure data supporting adequacy of the design.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.217—Mandatory Requirements for OSHA Recognition of Third-Party Validation Organizations for the PSDI Standard
</HD1>
<P>This appendix prescribes mandatory requirements and procedures for OSHA recognition of third-party validation organizations to validate employer and manufacturer certifications that their equipment and practices meet the requirements of the PSDI standard. The scope of the appendix includes the three categories of certification/validation required by the PSDI standard: Design Certification/Validation, Installation Certification/Validation, and Annual Recertification/Revalidation.
</P>
<P>If further detailing of these provisions will assist the validation organization or OSHA in this activity, this detailing will be done through appropriate OSHA Program Directives.
</P>
<HD2>I. Procedure for OSHA Recognition of Validation Organizations
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Applications
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Eligibility.</I> a. Any person or organization considering itself capable of conducting a PSDI-related third-party validation function may apply for OSHA recognition.
</P>
<P>b. However, in determining eligibility for a foreign-based third-party validation organization, OSHA shall take into consideration whether there is reciprocity of treatment by the foreign government after consultation with relevant U.S. government agencies.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of application.</I> a. The application shall identify the scope of the validation activity for which the applicant wishes to be recognized, based on one of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) Design Certification/Validation, Installation Certification/Validation, and Annual Recertification/Revalidation;
</P>
<P>(2) Design Certification/Validation only; or
</P>
<P>(3) Installation/Certification/Validation and Annual Recertification/Revalidation.
</P>
<P>b. The application shall provide information demonstrating that it and any validating laboratory utilized meet the qualifications set forth in section II of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. The applicant shall provide information demonstrating that it and any validating laboratory utilized meet the program requirements set forth in section III of this appendix.
</P>
<P>d. The applicant shall identify the test methods it or the validating laboratory will use to test or judge the components and operations of the PSDI safety system required to be tested by the PSDI standard and appendix A, and shall specify the reasons the test methods are appropriate.
</P>
<P>e. The applicant may include whatever enclosures, attachments, or exhibits the applicant deems appropriate. The application need not be submitted on a Federal form.
</P>
<P>f. The applicant shall certify that the information submitted is accurate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Filing office location.</I> The application shall be filed with: PSDI Certification/Validation Program, Office of Variance Determination, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N3653, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Amendments and withdrawals.</I> a. An application may be revised by an applicant at any time prior to the completion of the final staff recommendation.
</P>
<P>b. An application may be withdrawn by an applicant, without prejudice, at any time prior to the final decision by the Assistant Secretary in paragraph I.B.8.b.(4) of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>B. Review and Decision Process
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Acceptance and field inspection.</I> All applications submitted will be accepted by OSHA, and their receipt acknowledged in writing. After receipt of an application, OSHA may request additional information if it believes information relevant to the requirements for recognition have been omitted. OSHA may inspect the facilities of the third-party validation organization and any validating laboratory, and while there shall review any additional documentation underlying the application. A report shall be made of each field inspection.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Requirements for recognition.</I> The requirements for OSHA recognition of a third-party validation organization for the PSDI standard are that the program has fulfilled the requirements of section II of this appendix for qualifications and of section III of this appendix for program requirements, and the program has identified appropriate test and analysis methods to meet the requirements of the PSDI standard and appendix A.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Preliminary approval.</I> If, after review of the application, any additional information, and the inspection report, the applicant and any validating laboratory appear to have met the requirements for recognition, a written recommendation shall be submitted by the responsible OSHA personnel to the Assistant Secretary to approve the application with a supporting explanation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Preliminary disapproval.</I> If, after review of the application, additional information, and inspection report, the applicant does not appear to have met the requirements for recognition, the Director of the PSDI certification/validation program shall notify the applicant in writing, listing the specific requirements of this appendix which the applicant has not met, and the reasons.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Revision of application.</I> After receipt of a notification of preliminary disapproval, the applicant may submit a revised application for further review by OSHA pursuant to subsection I.B. of this appendix or may request that the original application be submitted to the Assistant Secretary with a statement of reasons supplied by the applicant as to why the application should be approved.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Preliminary decision by Assistant Secretary.</I> a. The Assistant Secretary, or a special designee for this purpose, will make a preliminary decision whether the applicant has met the requirements for recognition based on the completed application file and the written staff recommendation, as well as the statement of reasons by the applicant if there is a recommendation of disapproval.
</P>
<P>b. This preliminary decision will be sent to the applicant and subsequently published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>7. <I>Public review and comment period.</I> a. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of preliminary decision will provide a period of not less than 60 calendar days for the written comments on the applicant's fulfillment of the requirements for recognition. The application, supporting documents, staff recommendation, statement of applicant's reasons, and any comments received, will be available for public inspection in the OSHA Docket Office.
</P>
<P>b. If the preliminary decision is in favor of recognition, a member of the public, or if the preliminary decision is against recognition, the applicant may request a public hearing by the close of the comment period, if it supplies detailed reasons and evidence challenging the basis of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary decision and justifying the need for a public hearing to bring out evidence which could not be effectively supplied through written submissions.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Final decision by Assistant Secretary</I>—a. <I>Without hearing.</I> If there are no valid requests for a hearing, based on the application, supporting documents, staff recommendation, evidence and public comment, the Assistant Secretary shall issue the final decision (including reasons) of the Department of Labor on whether the applicant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that it meets the requirements for recognition.
</P>
<P>b. <I>After hearing.</I> If there is a valid request for a hearing pursuant to paragraph I.B.7.b. of this appendix, the following procedures will be used:
</P>
<P>(1) The Assistant Secretary will issue a notice of hearing before an administrative law judge of the Department of Labor pursuant to the rules specified in 29 CFR part 1905, subpart C.
</P>
<P>(2) After the hearing, pursuant to subpart C, the administrative law judge shall issue a decision (including reasons) based on the application, the supporting documentation, the staff recommendation, the public comments and the evidence submitted during the hearing (the record), stating whether it has been demonstrated, based on a preponderance of evidence, that the applicant meets the requirements for recognition. If no exceptions are filed, this is the final decision of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon issuance of the decision, any party to the hearing may file exceptions within 20 days pursuant to subpart C. If exceptions are filed, the administrative law judge shall forward the decision, exceptions and record to the Assistant Secretary for the final decision on the application.
</P>
<P>(4) The Assistant Secretary shall review the record, the decision by the administrative law judge, and the exceptions. Based on this, the Assistant Secretary shall issue the final decision (including reasons) of the Department of Labor stating whether the applicant has demonstrated by a preponderance of evidence that it meets the requirements for recognition.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Publication.</I> A notification of the final decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<HD3>C. Terms and Conditions of Recognition, Renewal and Revocation
</HD3>
<P>1. The following terms and conditions shall be part of every recognition:
</P>
<P>a. The recognition of any validation organization will be evidenced by a letter of recognition from OSHA. The letter will provide the specific details of the scope of the OSHA recognition as well as any conditions imposed by OSHA, including any Federal monitoring requirements.
</P>
<P>b. The recognition of each validation organization will be valid for five years, unless terminated before or renewed after the expiration of the period. The dates of the period of recognition will be stated in the recognition letter.
</P>
<P>c. The recognized validation organization shall continue to satisfy all the requirements of this appendix and the letter of recognition during the period of recognition.
</P>
<P>2. A recognized validation organization may change a test method of the PSDI safety system certification/validation program by notifying the Assistant Secretary of the change, certifying that the revised method will be at least as effective as the prior method, and providing the supporting data upon which its conclusions are based.
</P>
<P>3. A recognized validation organization may renew its recognition by filing a renewal request at the address in paragraph I.A.3. of this appendix, above, not less than 180 calendar days, nor more than one year, before the expiration date of its current recognition. When a recognized validation organization has filed such a renewal request, its current recognition will not expire until a final decision has been made on the request. The renewal request will be processed in accordance with subsection I.B. of this appendix, above, except that a reinspection is not required but may be performed by OSHA. A hearing will be granted to an objecting member of the public if evidence of failure to meet the requirements of this appendix is supplied to OSHA.
</P>
<P>4. A recognized validation organization may apply to OSHA for an expansion of its current recognition to cover other categories of PSDI certification/validation in addition to those included in the current recognition. The application for expansion will be acted upon and processed by OSHA in accordance with subsection I.B. of this appendix, subject to the possible reinspection exception. If the validation organization has been recognized for more than one year, meets the requirements for expansion of recognition, and there is no evidence that the recognized validation organization has not been following the requirements of this appendix and the letter of recognition, an expansion will normally be granted. A hearing will be granted to an objecting member of the public only if evidence of failure to meet the requirements of this appendix is supplied to OSHA.
</P>
<P>5. A recognized validation organization may voluntarily terminate its recognition, either in its entirety or with respect to any area covered in its recognition, by giving written notice to OSHA at any time. The written notice shall indicate the termination date. A validation organization may not terminate its installation certification and recertification validation functions earlier than either one year from the date of the written notice, or the date on which another recognized validation organization is able to perform the validation of installation certification and recertification.
</P>
<P>6.a. OSHA may revoke its recognition of a validation organization if its program either has failed to continue to satisfy the requirements of this appendix or its letter of recognition, has not been performing the validation functions required by the PSDI standard and appendix A, or has misrepresented itself in its applications. Before proposing to revoke recognition, the Agency will notify the recognized validation organization of the basis of the proposed revocation and will allow rebuttal or correction of the alleged deficiencies. If the deficiencies are not corrected, OSHA may revoke recognition, effective in 60 days, unless the validation organization requests a hearing within that time.
</P>
<P>b. If a hearing is requested, it shall be held before an administrative law judge of the Department of Labor pursuant to the rules specified in 29 CFR part 1905, subpart C.
</P>
<P>c. The parties shall be OSHA and the recognized validation organization. The decision shall be made pursuant to the procedures specified in paragraphs I.B.8.b.(2) through (4) of this appendix except that the burden of proof shall be on OSHA to demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that the recognition should be revoked because the validation organization either is not meeting the requirements for recognition, has not been performing the validation functions required by the PSDI standard and appendix A, or has misrepresented itself in its applications.
</P>
<HD3>D. Provisions of OSHA Recognition
</HD3>
<P>Each recognized third-party validation organization and its validating laboratories shall:
</P>
<P>1. Allow OSHA to conduct unscheduled reviews or on-site audits of it or the validating laboratories on matters relevant to PSDI, and cooperate in the conduct of these reviews and audits;
</P>
<P>2. Agree to terms and conditions established by OSHA in the grant of recognition on matters such as exchange of data, submission of accident reports, and assistance in studies for improving PSDI or the certification/validation process.
</P>
<HD2>II. Qualifications
</HD2>
<P>The third-party validation organization, the validating laboratory, and the employees of each shall meet the requirements set forth in this section of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>A. Experience of Validation Organization
</HD3>
<P>1. The third-party validation organization shall have legal authority to perform certification/validation activities.
</P>
<P>2. The validation organization shall demonstrate competence and experience in either power press design, manufacture or use, or testing, quality control or certification/validation of equipment comparable to power presses and associated control systems.
</P>
<P>3. The validation organization shall demonstrate a capability for selecting, reviewing, and/or validating appropriate standards and test methods to be used for validating the certification of PSDI safety systems, as well as for reviewing judgements on the safety of PSDI safety systems and their conformance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>4. The validating organization may utilize the competence, experience, and capability of its employees to demonstrate this competence, experience and capability.
</P>
<HD3>B. Independence of Validation Organization
</HD3>
<P>1. The validation organization shall demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>a. It is financially capable to conduct the work;
</P>
<P>b. It is free of direct influence or control by manufacturers, suppliers, vendors, representatives of employers and employees, and employer or employee organizations; and
</P>
<P>c. Its employees are secure from discharge resulting from pressures from manufacturers, suppliers, vendors, employers or employee representatives.
</P>
<P>2. A validation organization may be considered independent even if it has ties with manufacturers, employers or employee representatives if these ties are with at least two of these three groups; it has a board of directors (or equivalent leadership responsible for the certification/validation activities) which includes representatives of the three groups; and it has a binding commitment of funding for a period of three years or more.
</P>
<HD3>C. Validating Laboratory
</HD3>
<P>The validation organization's laboratory (which organizationally may be a part of the third-party validation organization):
</P>
<P>1. Shall have legal authority to perform the validation of certification;
</P>
<P>2. Shall be free of operational control and influence of manufacturers, suppliers, vendors, employers, or employee representatives that would impair its integrity of performance; and
</P>
<P>3. Shall not engage in the design, manufacture, sale, promotion, or use of the certified equipment.
</P>
<HD3>D. Facilities and Equipment
</HD3>
<P>The validation organization's validating laboratory shall have available all testing facilities and necessary test and inspection equipment relevant to the validation of the certification of PSDI safety systems, installations and operations.
</P>
<HD3>E. Personnel
</HD3>
<P>The validation organization and the validating laboratory shall be adequately staffed by personnel who are qualified by technical training and/or experience to conduct the validation of the certification of PSDI safety systems.
</P>
<P>1. The validation organization shall assign overall responsibility for the validation of PSDI certification to an Administrative Director. Minimum requirements for this position are a Bachelor's degree and five years professional experience, at least one of which shall have been in responsible charge of a function in the areas of power press design or manufacture or a broad range of power press use, or in the areas of testing, quality control, or certification/validation of equipment comparable to power presses or their associated control systems.
</P>
<P>2. The validating laboratory, if a separate organization from the validation organization, shall assign technical responsibility for the validation of PSDI certification to a Technical Director. Minimum requirements for this position are a Bachelor's degree in a technical field and five years of professional experience, at least one of which shall have been in responsible charge of a function in the area of testing, quality control or certification/validation of equipment comparable to power presses or their associated control systems.
</P>
<P>3. If the validation organization and the validating laboratory are the same organization, the administrative and technical responsibilities may be combined in a single position, with minimum requirements as described in E.1. and 2. for the combined position.
</P>
<P>4. The validation organization and validating laboratory shall have adequate administrative and technical staffs to conduct the validation of the certification of PSDI safety systems.
</P>
<HD3>F. Certification/Validation Mark or Logo
</HD3>
<P>1. The validation organization or the validating laboratory shall own a registered certification/validation mark or logo.
</P>
<P>2. The mark or logo shall be suitable for incorporation into the label required by paragraph (h)(11)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<HD2>III. Program Requirements
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Test and Certification/Validation Procedures
</HD3>
<P>1. The validation organization and/or validating laboratory shall have established written procedures for test and certification/validation of PSDI safety systems. The procedures shall be based on pertinent OSHA standards and test methods, or other publicly available standards and test methods generally recognized as appropriate in the field, such as national consensus standards or published standards of professional societies or trade associations.
</P>
<P>2. The written procedures for test and certification/validation of PSDI systems, and the standards and test methods on which they are based, shall be reproducible and be available to OSHA and to the public upon request.
</P>
<HD3>B. Test Reports
</HD3>
<P>1. A test report shall be prepared for each PSDI safety system that is tested. The test report shall be signed by a technical staff representative and the Technical Director.
</P>
<P>2. The test report shall include the following:
</P>
<P>a. Name of manufacturer and catalog or model number of each subsystem or major component.
</P>
<P>b. Identification and description of test methods or procedures used. (This may be through reference to published sources which describe the test methods or procedures used.)
</P>
<P>c. Results of all tests performed.
</P>
<P>d. All safety distance calculations.
</P>
<P>3. A copy of the test report shall be maintained on file at the validation organization and/or validating laboratory, and shall be available to OSHA upon request.
</P>
<HD3>C. Certification/Validation Reports
</HD3>
<P>1. A certification/validation report shall be prepared for each PSDI safety system for which the certification is validated. The certification/validation report shall be signed by the Administrative Director and the Technical Director.
</P>
<P>2. The certification/validation report shall include the following:
</P>
<P>a. Name of manufacturer and catalog or model number of each subsystem or major component.
</P>
<P>b. Results of all tests which serve as the basis for the certification.
</P>
<P>c. All safety distance calculations.
</P>
<P>d. Statement that the safety system conforms with all requirements of the PSDI standard and appendix A.
</P>
<P>3. A copy of the certification/validation report shall be maintained on file at the validation organization and/or validating laboratory, and shall be available to the public upon request.
</P>
<P>4. A copy of the certification/validation report shall be submitted to OSHA within 30 days of its completion.
</P>
<HD3>D. Publications System
</HD3>
<P>The validation organization shall make available upon request a list of PSDI safety systems which have been certified/validated by the program.
</P>
<HD3>E. Follow-up Activities
</HD3>
<P>1. The validation organization or validating laboratory shall have a follow-up system for inspecting or testing manufacturer's production of design certified/validated PSDI safety system components and subassemblies where deemed appropriate by the validation organization.
</P>
<P>2. The validation organization shall notify the appropriate product manufacturer(s) of any reports from employers of point of operation injuries which occur while a press is operated in a PSDI mode.
</P>
<HD3>F. Records
</HD3>
<P>The validation organization or validating laboratory shall maintain a record of each certification/validation of a PSDI safety system, including manufacturer and/or employer certification documentation, test and working data, test report, certification/validation report, any follow-up inspections or testing, and reports of equipment failures, any reports of accidents involving the equipment, and any other pertinent information. These records shall be available for inspection by OSHA and OSHA State Plan offices.
</P>
<HD3>G. Dispute Resolution Procedures
</HD3>
<P>1. The validation organization shall have a reasonable written procedure for acknowledging and processing appeals or complaints from program participants (manufacturers, producers, suppliers, vendors and employers) as well as other interested parties (employees or their representatives, safety personnel, government agencies, etc.), concerning certification or validation.
</P>
<P>2. The validation organization may charge any complainant the reasonable charge for repeating tests needed for the resolution of disputes.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.217—Nonmandatory Supplementary Information
</HD1>
<P>This appendix provides nonmandatory supplementary information and guidelines to assist in the understanding and use of 29 CFR 1910.217(h) to allow presence sensing device initiation (PSDI) of mechanical power presses. Although this appendix as such is not mandatory, it references sections and requirements which are made mandatory by other parts of the PSDI standard and appendices.
</P>
<HD2>1. General
</HD2>
<P>OSHA intends that PSDI continue to be prohibited where present state-of-the-art technology will not allow it to be done safely. Only <I>part revolution</I> type mechanical power presses are approved for PSDI. Similarly, only presses with a configuration such that a person's body cannot completely enter the bed area are approved for PSDI.
</P>
<HD2>2. Brake and Clutch
</HD2>
<P>Flexible steel band brakes do not possess a long-term reliability against structural failure as compared to other types of brakes, and therefore are not acceptable on presses used in the PSDI mode of operation.
</P>
<P>Fast and consistent stopping times are important to safety for the PSDI mode of operation. Consistency of braking action is enhanced by high brake torque. The requirement in paragraph (h)(2)(ii) defines a high torque capability which should ensure fast and consistent stopping times.
</P>
<P>Brake design parameters important to PSDI are high torque, low moment of inertia, low air volume (if pneumatic) mechanisms, non-interleaving engagement springs, and structural integrity which is enhanced by over-design. The requirement in paragrpah (h)(2)(iii) reduces the possibility of significantly increased stopping time if a spring breaks.
</P>
<P>As an added precaution to the requirements in paragraph (h)(2)(iii), brake adjustment locking means should be secured. Where brake springs are externally accessible, lock nuts or other means may be provided to reduce the possibility of backing off of the compression nut which holds the springs in place.
</P>
<HD2>3. Pneumatic Systems
</HD2>
<P>Elevated clutch/brake air pressure results in longer stopping time. The requirement in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(<I>C</I>) is intended to prevent degradation in stoping speed from higher air pressure. Higher pressures may be permitted, however, to increase clutch torque to free “jammed” dies, provided positive measures are provided to prevent the higher pressure at other times.
</P>
<HD2>4. Flywheels and Bearings
</HD2>
<P>Lubrication of bearings is considered the single greatest deterrent to their failure. The manufacturer's recommended procedures for maintenance and inspection should be closely followed.
</P>
<HD2>5. Brake Monitoring
</HD2>
<P>The approval of brake monitor adjustments, as required in paragraph (h)(5)(ii), is not considered a <I>recertification,</I> and does not necessarily involve an on-site inspection by a representative of the validation organization. It is expected that the brake monitor adjustment normally could be evaluated on the basis of the effect on the safety system certification/validation documentation retained by the validation organization.
</P>
<P>Use of a brake monitor does not eliminate the need for periodic brake inspection and maintenance to reduce the possibility of catastrophic failures.
</P>
<HD2>6. Cycle Control and Control Systems
</HD2>
<P>The PSDI set-up/reset means required by paragraph (h)(6)(iv) may be initiated by the actuation of a special momentary pushbutton or by the actuation of a special momentary pushbutton and the initiation of a first stroke with two hand controls.
</P>
<P>It would normally be preferable to limit the adjustment of the time required in paragraph (h)(6)(vi) to a maximum of 15 seconds. However, where an operator must do many operations outside the press, such as lubricating, trimming, deburring, etc., a longer interval up to 30 seconds is permitted.
</P>
<P>When a press is equipped for PSDI operation, it is recommended that the presence sensing device be active as a guarding device in other production modes. This should enhance the reliability of the device and ensure that it remains operable.
</P>
<P>An acceptable method for interlocking supplemental guards as required by paragraph (h)(6)(xiii) would be to incorporate the supplemental guard and the PSDI presence sensing device into a hinged arrangement in which the alignment of the presence sensing device serves, in effect, as the interlock. If the supplemental guards are moved, the presence sensing device would become misaligned and the press control would be deactivated. No extra microswitches or interlocking sensors would be required.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (h)(6)(xv) of the standard requires that the control system have provisions for an “inch” operating means; that die-setting not be done in the PSDI mode; and that production not be done in the “inch” mode. It should be noted that the sensing device would be by-passed in the “inch” mode. For that reason, the prohibitions against die-setting in the PSDI mode, and against production in the “inch” mode are cited to emphasize that “inch” operation is of reduced safety and is not compatible with PSDI or other production modes.
</P>
<HD2>7. Environmental Requirements
</HD2>
<P>It is the intent of paragraph (h)(7) that control components be provided with inherent design protection against operating stresses and environmental factors affecting safety and reliability.
</P>
<HD2>8. Safety system
</HD2>
<P>The safety system provision continues the concept of paragraph (b)(13) that the probability of two independent failures in the length of time required to make one press cycle is so remote as to be a negligible risk factor in the total array of equipment and human factors. The emphasis is on an integrated total system including all elements affecting point of operation safety.
</P>
<P>It should be noted that this does not require redundancy for press components such as structural elements, clutch/brake mechanisms, plates, etc., for which adequate reliability may be achieved by proper design, maintenance, and inspection.
</P>
<HD2>9. Safeguarding the Point of Operation
</HD2>
<P>The intent of paragraph (h)(9)(iii) is to prohibit use of mirrors to “bend” a single light curtain sensing field around corners to cover more than one side of a press. This prohibition is needed to increase the reliability of the presence sensing device in initiating a stroke only when the desired work motion has been completed.
</P>
<P><I>Object sensitivity</I> describes the capability of a presence sensing device to detect an object in the sensing field, expressed as the linear measurement of the smallest interruption which can be detected at any point in the field. Minimum object sensitivity describes the largest acceptable size of the interruption in the sensing field. A minimum object sensitivity of one and one-fourth inches (31.75 mm) means that a one and one-fourth inch (31.75 mm) diameter object will be continuously detected at all locations in the sensing field.
</P>
<P>In deriving the safety distance required in paragraph (h)(9)(v), all stopping time measurements should be made with clutch/brake air pressure regulated to the press manufacturer's recommended value for full clutch torque capability. The stopping time measurements should be made with the heaviest upper die that is planned for use in the press. If the press has a slide counterbalance system, it is important that the counterbalance be adjusted correctly for upper die weight according to the manufacturer's instructions. While the brake monitor setting is based on the stopping time it actually measures, i.e., the normal stopping time at the top of the stroke, it is important that the safety distance be computed from the longest stopping time measured at any of the indicated three downstroke stopping positions listed in the explanation of Ts. The use in the formula of twice the stopping time increase, Tm, allowed by the brake monitor for brake wear allows for greater increases in the downstroke stopping time than occur in normal stopping time at the top of the stroke.
</P>
<HD2>10. Inspection and Maintenance. <E T="01">[Reserved]</E>
</HD2>
<HD2>11. Safety System Certification/Validation
</HD2>
<P>Mandatory requirements for certification/validation of the PSDI safety system are provided in appendix A and appendix C to this standard. Nonmandatory supplementary information and guidelines relating to certification/validation of the PSDI safety system are provided to appendix B to this standard.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 39 FR 41846, Dec. 3, 1974; 40 FR 3982, Jan. 27, 1975; 43 FR 49750, Oct. 24, 1978; 45 FR 8594, Feb. 8, 1980; 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984; 51 FR 34561, Sept. 29, 1986; 53 FR 8353, 8358 Mar. 14, 1988; 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989; 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996; 69 FR 31882, June 8, 2004; 76 FR 80739, Dec. 27, 2011; 77 FR 46949, Aug. 7, 2012; 78 FR 69550, Nov. 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.218" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.218   Forging machines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Use of lead.</I> The safety requirements of this subparagraph apply to lead casts or other use of lead in the forge shop or die shop.
</P>
<P>(i) Thermostatic control of heating elements shall be provided to maintain proper melting temperature and prevent overheating.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fixed or permanent lead pot installations shall be exhausted.
</P>
<P>(iii) Portable units shall be used only in areas where good, general room ventilation is provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) Personal protective equipment (gloves, goggles, aprons, and other items) shall be worn.
</P>
<P>(v) A covered container shall be provided to store dross skimmings.
</P>
<P>(vi) Equipment shall be kept clean, particularly from accumulations of yellow lead oxide.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inspection and maintenance.</I> It shall be the responsibility of the employer to maintain all forge shop equipment in a condition which will insure continued safe operation. This responsibility includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Establishing periodic and regular maintenance safety checks and keeping certification records of these inspections which include the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and the serial number, or other identifier, for the forging machine which was inspected.
</P>
<P>(ii) Scheduling and recording the inspection of guards and point of operation protection devices at frequent and regular intervals. Recording of inspections shall be in the form of a certification record which includes the date the inspection was performed, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and the serial number, or other identifier, of the equipment inspected.
</P>
<P>(iii) Training personnel for the proper inspection and maintenance of forging machinery and equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) All overhead parts shall be fastened or protected in such a manner that they will not fly off or fall in event of failure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hammers and presses.</I> (i) All hammers shall be positioned or installed in such a manner that they remain on or are anchored to foundations sufficient to support them according to applicable engineering standards.
</P>
<P>(ii) All presses shall be installed in such a manner that they remain where they are positioned or they are anchored to foundations sufficient to support them according to applicable engineering standards.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table O-11—Strength and Dimensions for Wood Ram Props
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size of timber, inches 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Square inches in cross section
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum allowable crushing strength parallel to grain, p.s.i. 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum static load within short column range 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safety factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum recommended weight of forging hammer for timber used
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum allowable length of timber, inches
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 × 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 × 10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 × 12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">720,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">132
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Actual dimension.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Adapted from U.S. Department of Agriculture Technical Bulletin 479. Hardwoods recommended are those whose ultimate crushing strengths in compression parallel to grain are 5,000 p.s.i. (pounds per square inch) or greater.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Slenderness ratio formula for short columns is <E T="03">L/d</E> = 11, where <E T="03">L</E> = length of timber in inches and <E T="03">d</E> = least dimension in inches; this ratio should not exceed 11.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Means shall be provided for disconnecting the power to the machine and for locking out or rendering cycling controls inoperable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The ram shall be blocked when dies are being changed or other work is being done on the hammer. Blocks or wedges shall be made of material the strength and construction of which should meet or exceed the specifications and dimensions shown in Table O-11.
</P>
<P>(v) Tongs shall be of sufficient length to clear the body of the worker in case of kickback, and shall not have sharp handle ends.
</P>
<P>(vi) Oil swabs, or scale removers, or other devices to remove scale shall be provided. These devices shall be long enough to enable a man to reach the full length of the die without placing his hand or arm between the dies.
</P>
<P>(vii) Material handling equipment shall be of adequate strength, size, and dimension to handle diesetting operations safely.
</P>
<P>(viii) A scale guard of substantial construction shall be provided at the back of every hammer, so arranged as to stop flying scale.
</P>
<P>(ix) A scale guard of substantial construction shall be provided at the back of every press, so arranged as to stop flying scale.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hammers, general</I>—(1) <I>Keys.</I> Die keys and shims shall be made from a grade of material that will not unduly crack or splinter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foot operated devices.</I> All foot operated devices (i.e., treadles, pedals, bars, valves, and switches) shall be substantially and effectively protected from unintended operation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presses.</I> All manually operated valves and switches shall be clearly identified and readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Power-driven hammers</I>—(1) <I>Safety cylinder head.</I> Every steam or airhammer shall have a safety cylinder head to act as a cushion if the rod should break or pullout of the ram.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shutoff valve.</I> Steam hammers shall be provided with a quick closing emergency valve in the admission pipeline at a convenient location. This valve shall be closed and locked in the off position while the hammer is being adjusted, repaired, or serviced, or when the dies are being changed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cylinder draining.</I> Steam hammers shall be provided with a means of cylinder draining, such as a self-draining arrangement or a quick-acting drain cock.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pressure pipes.</I> Steam or air piping shall conform to the specifications of American National Standard ANSI B31.1.0-1967, Power Piping with Addenda issued before April 28, 1971, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Gravity hammers</I>—(1) <I>Air-lift hammers.</I> (i) Air-lift hammers shall have a safety cylinder head as required in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Air-lift hammers shall have an air shutoff valve as required in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Air-lift hammers shall be provided with two drain cocks: one on main head cylinder, and one on clamp cylinder.
</P>
<P>(iv) Air piping shall conform to the specifications of the ANSI B31.1.0-1967, Power Piping with Addenda issued before April 28, 1971, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board drophammers.</I> (i) A suitable enclosure shall be provided to prevent damaged or detached boards from falling. The board enclosure shall be securely fastened to the hammer.
</P>
<P>(ii) All major assemblies and fittings which can loosen and fall shall be properly secured in place.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Forging presses</I>—(1) <I>Mechanical forging presses.</I> When dies are being changed or maintenance is being performed on the press, the following shall be accomplished:
</P>
<P>(i) The power to the press shall be locked out.
</P>
<P>(ii) The flywheel shall be at rest.
</P>
<P>(iii) The ram shall be blocked with a material the strength of which shall meet or exceed the specifications or dimensions shown in Table O-11.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hydraulic forging presses.</I> When dies are being changed or maintenance is being performed on the press, the following shall be accomplished:
</P>
<P>(i) The hydraulic pumps and power apparatus shall be locked out.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ram shall be blocked with a material the strength of which shall meet or exceed the specifications or dimensions shown in Table O-11.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Trimming presses</I>—(1) <I>Hot trimming presses.</I> The requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall also apply to hot trimming presses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cold trimming presses.</I> Cold trimming presses shall be safeguarded in accordance with § 1910.217(c).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Upsetters</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> All upsetters shall be installed so that they remain on their supporting foundations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lockouts.</I> Upsetters shall be provided with a means for locking out the power at its entry point to the machine and rendering its cycling controls inoperable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Manually operated controls.</I> All manually operated valves and switches shall be clearly identified and readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tongs.</I> Tongs shall be of sufficient length to clear the body of the worker in case of kickback, and shall not have sharp handle ends.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Changing dies.</I> When dies are being changed, maintenance performed, or any work done on the machine, the power to the upsetter shall be locked out, and the flywheel shall be at rest.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other forging equipment</I>—(1) <I>Boltheading.</I> The provisions of paragraph (h) of this section shall apply to boltheading.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rivet making.</I> The provisions of paragraph (h) of this section shall apply to rivet making.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other forge facility equipment</I>—(1) <I>Billet shears.</I> A positive-type lockout device for disconnecting the power to the shear shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Saws.</I> Every saw shall be provided with a guard of not less than one-eighth inch sheet metal positioned to stop flying sparks.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conveyors.</I> Conveyor power transmission equipment shall be guarded in accordance with ANSI B20.1-1957, Safety Code for Conveyors, Cableways, and Related Equipment, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Shot blast.</I> The cleaning chamber shall have doors or guards to protect operators.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grinding.</I> Personal protective equipment shall be used in grinding operations, and equipment shall be used and maintained in accordance with ANSI B7.1-1970, Safety Code for the Use, Care, and Protection of Abrasive Wheels, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, and with § 1910.215.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984; 51 FR 34561, Sept. 29, 1986; 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.219" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.15.37.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.219   Mechanical power-transmission apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) This section covers all types and shapes of power-transmission belts, except the following when operating at two hundred and fifty (250) feet per minute or less: (i) Flat belts one (1) inch or less in width, (ii) flat belts two (2) inches or less in width which are free from metal lacings or fasteners, (iii) round belts one-half (
<FR>1/2</FR>) inch or less in diameter; and (iv) single strand V-belts, the width of which is thirteen thirty-seconds (
<FR>13/32</FR>) inch or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Vertical and inclined belts (paragraphs (e) (3) and (4) of this section) if not more than two and one-half (2
<FR>1/2</FR>) inches wide and running at a speed of less than one thousand (1,000) feet per minute, and if free from metal lacings or fastenings may be guarded with a nip-point belt and pulley guard.
</P>
<P>(3) For the Textile Industry, because of the presence of excessive deposits of lint, which constitute a serious fire hazard, the sides and face sections only of nip-point belt and pulley guards are required, provided the guard shall extend at least six (6) inches beyond the rim of the pulley on the in-running and off-running sides of the belt and at least two (2) inches away from the rim and face of the pulley in all other directions.
</P>
<P>(4) This section covers the principal features with which power transmission safeguards shall comply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prime-mover guards</I>—(1) <I>Flywheels.</I> Flywheels located so that any part is seven (7) feet or less above floor or platform shall be guarded in accordance with the requirements of this subparagraph:
</P>
<P>(i) With an enclosure of sheet, perforated, or expanded metal, or woven wire;
</P>
<P>(ii) With guard rails placed not less than fifteen (15) inches nor more than twenty (20) inches from rim. When flywheel extends into pit or is within 12 inches of floor, a standard toeboard shall also be provided;
</P>
<P>(iii) When the upper rim of flywheel protrudes through a working floor, it shall be entirely enclosed or surrounded by a guardrail and toeboard.
</P>
<P>(iv) For flywheels with smooth rims five (5) feet or less in diameter, where the preceding methods cannot be applied, the following may be used: A disk attached to the flywheel in such manner as to cover the spokes of the wheel on the exposed side and present a smooth surface and edge, at the same time providing means for periodic inspection. An open space, not exceeding four (4) inches in width, may be left between the outside edge of the disk and the rim of the wheel if desired, to facilitate turning the wheel over. Where a disk is used, the keys or other dangerous projections not covered by disk shall be cut off or covered. This subdivision does not apply to flywheels with solid web centers.
</P>
<P>(v) Adjustable guard to be used for starting engine or for running adjustment may be provided at the flywheel of gas or oil engines. A slot opening for jack bar will be permitted.
</P>
<P>(vi) Wherever flywheels are above working areas, guards shall be installed having sufficient strength to hold the weight of the flywheel in the event of a shaft or wheel mounting failure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cranks and connecting rods.</I> Cranks and connecting rods, when exposed to contact, shall be guarded in accordance with paragraphs (m) and (n) of this section, or by a guardrail as described in paragraph (o)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tail rods or extension piston rods.</I> Tail rods or extension piston rods shall be guarded in accordance with paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section, or by a guardrail on sides and end, with a clearance of not less than fifteen (15) nor more than twenty (20) inches when rod is fully extended.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Shafting</I>—(1) <I>Installation.</I> (i) Each continuous line of shafting shall be secured in position against excessive endwise movement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inclined and vertical shafts, particularly inclined idler shafts, shall be securely held in position against endwise thrust.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guarding horizontal shafting.</I> (i) All exposed parts of horizontal shafting seven (7) feet or less from floor or working platform, excepting runways used exclusively for oiling, or running adjustments, shall be protected by a stationary casing enclosing shafting completely or by a trough enclosing sides and top or sides and bottom of shafting as location requires.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shafting under bench machines shall be enclosed by a stationary casing, or by a trough at sides and top or sides and bottom, as location requires. The sides of the trough shall come within at least six (6) inches of the underside of table, or if shafting is located near floor within six (6) inches of floor. In every case the sides of trough shall extend at least two (2) inches beyond the shafting or protuberance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Guarding vertical and inclined shafting.</I> Vertical and inclined shafting seven (7) feet or less from floor or working platform, excepting maintenance runways, shall be enclosed with a stationary casing in accordance with requirements of paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Projecting shaft ends.</I> (i) Projecting shaft ends shall present a smooth edge and end and shall not project more than one-half the diameter of the shaft unless guarded by nonrotating caps or safety sleeves.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unused keyways shall be filled up or covered.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Power-transmission apparatus located in basements.</I> All mechanical power transmission apparatus located in basements, towers, and rooms used exclusively for power transmission equipment shall be guarded in accordance with this section, except that the requirements for safeguarding belts, pulleys, and shafting need not be complied with when the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The basement, tower, or room occupied by transmission equipment is locked against unauthorized entrance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The vertical clearance in passageways between the floor and power transmission beams, ceiling, or any other objects, is not less than five feet six inches (5 ft. 6 in.).
</P>
<P>(iii) The intensity of illumination conforms to the requirements of ANSI A11.1-1965 (R-1970), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) The route followed by the oiler is protected in such manner as to prevent accident.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pulleys</I>—(1) <I>Guarding.</I> Pulleys, any parts of which are seven (7) feet or less from the floor or working platform, shall be guarded in accordance with the standards specified in paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section. Pulleys serving as balance wheels (e.g., punch presses) on which the point of contact between belt and pulley is more than six feet six inches (6 ft. 6 in.) from the floor or platform may be guarded with a disk covering the spokes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location of pulleys.</I> (i) Unless the distance to the nearest fixed pulley, clutch, or hanger exceeds the width of the belt used, a guide shall be provided to prevent the belt from leaving the pulley on the side where insufficient clearance exists.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Broken pulleys.</I> Pulleys with cracks, or pieces broken out of rims, shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pulley speeds.</I> Pulleys intended to operate at rim speed in excess of manufacturers normal recommendations shall be specially designed and carefully balanced for the speed at which they are to operate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Belt, rope, and chain drives</I>—(1) <I>Horizontal belts and ropes.</I> (i) Where both runs of horizontal belts are seven (7) feet or less from the floor level, the guard shall extend to at least fifteen (15) inches above the belt or to a standard height except that where both runs of a horizontal belt are 42 inches or less from the floor, the belt shall be fully enclosed in accordance with paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In powerplants or power-development rooms, a guardrail may be used in lieu of the guard required by subdivision (i) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Overhead horizontal belts.</I> (i) Overhead horizontal belts, with lower parts seven (7) feet or less from the floor or platform, shall be guarded on sides and bottom in accordance with paragraph (o)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Horizontal overhead belts more than seven (7) feet above floor or platform shall be guarded for their entire length under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) If located over passageways or work places and traveling 1,800 feet or more per minute.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If center to center distance between pulleys is ten (10) feet or more.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) If belt is eight (8) inches or more in width.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the upper and lower runs of horizontal belts are so located that passage of persons between them would be possible, the passage shall be either:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Completely barred by a guardrail or other barrier in accordance with paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where passage is regarded as necessary, there shall be a platform over the lower run guarded on either side by a railing completely filled in with wire mesh or other filler, or by a solid barrier. The upper run shall be so guarded as to prevent contact therewith either by the worker or by objects carried by him. In powerplants only the lower run of the belt need be guarded.
</P>
<P>(iv) Overhead chain and link belt drives are governed by the same rules as overhead horizontal belts and shall be guarded in the same manner as belts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vertical and inclined belts.</I> (i) Vertical and inclined belts shall be enclosed by a guard conforming to standards in paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) All guards for inclined belts shall be arranged in such a manner that a minimum clearance of seven (7) feet is maintained between belt and floor at any point outside of guard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Vertical belts.</I> Vertical belts running over a lower pulley more than seven (7) feet above floor or platform shall be guarded at the bottom in the same manner as horizontal overhead belts, if conditions are as stated in paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>c</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cone-pulley belts.</I> (i) The cone belt and pulley shall be equipped with a belt shifter so constructed as to adequately guard the nip point of the belt and pulley. If the frame of the belt shifter does not adequately guard the nip point of the belt and pulley, the nip point shall be further protected by means of a vertical guard placed in front of the pulley and extending at least to the top of the largest step of the cone.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the belt is of the endless type or laced with rawhide laces, and a belt shifter is not desired, the belt will be considered guarded if the nip point of the belt and pulley is protected by a nip point guard located in front of the cone extending at least to the top of the largest step of the cone, and formed to show the contour of the cone in order to give the nip point of the belt and pulley the maximum protection.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the cone is located less than 3 feet from the floor or working platform, the cone pulley and belt shall be guarded to a height of 3 feet regardless of whether the belt is endless or laced with rawhide.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Belt tighteners.</I> (i) Suspended counterbalanced tighteners and all parts thereof shall be of substantial construction and securely fastened; the bearings shall be securely capped. Means must be provided to prevent tightener from falling, in case the belt breaks.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where suspended counterweights are used and not guarded by location, they shall be so encased as to prevent accident.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Gears, sprockets, and chains</I>—(1) <I>Gears.</I> Gears shall be guarded in accordance with one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By a complete enclosure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By a standard guard as described in paragraph (o) of this section, at least seven (7) feet high extending six (6) inches above the mesh point of the gears; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By a band guard covering the face of gear and having flanges extended inward beyond the root of the teeth on the exposed side or sides. Where any portion of the train of gears guarded by a band guard is less than six (6) feet from the floor a disk guard or a complete enclosure to the height of six (6) feet shall be required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hand-operated gears.</I> Paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to hand-operated gears used only to adjust machine parts and which do not continue to move after hand power is removed. However, the guarding of these gears is highly recommended.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sprockets and chains.</I> All sprocket wheels and chains shall be enclosed unless they are more than seven (7) feet above the floor or platform. Where the drive extends over other machine or working areas, protection against falling shall be provided. This subparagraph does not apply to manually operated sprockets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Openings for oiling.</I> When frequent oiling must be done, openings with hinged or sliding self-closing covers shall be provided. All points not readily accessible shall have oil feed tubes if lubricant is to be added while machinery is in motion.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Guarding friction drives.</I> The driving point of all friction drives when exposed to contact shall be guarded, all arm or spoke friction drives and all web friction drives with holes in the web shall be entirely enclosed, and all projecting belts on friction drives where exposed to contact shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Keys, setscrews, and other projections.</I> (1) All projecting keys, setscrews, and other projections in revolving parts shall be removed or made flush or guarded by metal cover. This subparagraph does not apply to keys or setscrews within gear or sprocket casings or other enclosures, nor to keys, setscrews, or oilcups in hubs of pulleys less than twenty (20) inches in diameter where they are within the plane of the rim of the pulley.
</P>
<P>(2) It is recommended, however, that no projecting setscrews or oilcups be used in any revolving pulley or part of machinery.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Collars and couplings</I>—(1) <I>Collars.</I> All revolving collars, including split collars, shall be cylindrical, and screws or bolts used in collars shall not project beyond the largest periphery of the collar.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Couplings.</I> Shaft couplings shall be so constructed as to present no hazard from bolts, nuts, setscrews, or revolving surfaces. Bolts, nuts, and setscrews will, however, be permitted where they are covered with safety sleeves or where they are used parallel with the shafting and are countersunk or else do not extend beyond the flange of the coupling.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Bearings and facilities for oiling.</I> All drip cups and pans shall be securely fastened.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Guarding of clutches, cutoff couplings, and clutch pulleys</I>—(1) <I>Guards.</I> Clutches, cutoff couplings, or clutch pulleys having projecting parts, where such clutches are located seven (7) feet or less above the floor or working platform, shall be enclosed by a stationary guard constructed in accordance with this section. A “U” type guard is permissible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engine rooms.</I> In engine rooms a guardrail, preferably with toeboard, may be used instead of the guard required by paragraph (k)(1) of this section, provided such a room is occupied only by engine room attendants.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Belt shifters, clutches, shippers, poles, perches, and fasteners</I>—(1) <I>Belt shifters.</I> (i) Tight and loose pulleys on all new installations made on or after August 31, 1971, shall be equipped with a permanent belt shifter provided with mechanical means to prevent belt from creeping from loose to tight pulley. It is recommended that old installations be changed to conform to this rule.
</P>
<P>(ii) Belt shifter and clutch handles shall be rounded and be located as far as possible from danger of accidental contact, but within easy reach of the operator. Where belt shifters are not directly located over a machine or bench, the handles shall be cut off six feet six inches (6 ft. 6 in.) above floor level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Belt shippers and shipper poles.</I> The use of belt poles as substitutes for mechanical shifters is not recommended.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Belt perches.</I> Where loose pulleys or idlers are not practicable, belt perches in form of brackets, rollers, etc., shall be used to keep idle belts away from the shafts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Belt fasteners.</I> Belts which of necessity must be shifted by hand and belts within seven (7) feet of the floor or working platform which are not guarded in accordance with this section shall not be fastened with metal in any case, nor with any other fastening which by construction or wear will constitute an accident hazard.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Standard guards—general requirements</I>—(1) <I>Materials.</I> (i) Standard conditions shall be secured by the use of the following materials. Expanded metal, perforated or solid sheet metal, wire mesh on a frame of angle iron, or iron pipe securely fastened to floor or to frame of machine.
</P>
<P>(ii) All metal should be free from burrs and sharp edges.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Methods of manufacture.</I> (i) Expanded metal, sheet or perforated metal, and wire mesh shall be securely fastened to frame.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(n) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Approved materials</I>—(1) <I>Minimum requirements.</I> The materials and dimensions specified in this paragraph shall apply to all guards, except horizontal overhead belts, rope, cable, or chain guards more than seven (7) feet above floor, or platform.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) All guards shall be rigidly braced every three (3) feet or fractional part of their height to some fixed part of machinery or building structure. Where guard is exposed to contact with moving equipment additional strength may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wood guards.</I> (i) Wood guards may be used in the woodworking and chemical industries, in industries where the presence of fumes or where manufacturing conditions would cause the rapid deterioration of metal guards; also in construction work and in locations outdoors where extreme cold or extreme heat make metal guards and railings undesirable. In all other industries, wood guards shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Guards for horizontal overhead belts.</I> (i) Guards for horizontal overhead belts shall run the entire length of the belt and follow the line of the pulley to the ceiling or be carried to the nearest wall, thus enclosing the belt effectively. Where belts are so located as to make it impracticable to carry the guard to wall or ceiling, construction of guard shall be such as to enclose completely the top and bottom runs of belt and the face of pulleys.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Suitable reinforcement shall be provided for the ceiling rafters or overhead floor beams, where such is necessary, to sustain safely the weight and stress likely to be imposed by the guard. The interior surface of all guards, by which is meant the surface of the guard with which a belt will come in contact, shall be smooth and free from all projections of any character, except where construction demands it; protruding shallow roundhead rivets may be used. Overhead belt guards shall be at least one-quarter wider than belt which they protect, except that this clearance need not in any case exceed six (6) inches on each side. Overhead rope drive and block and roller-chain-drive guards shall be not less than six (6) inches wider than the drive on each side. In overhead silent chain-drive guards where the chain is held from lateral displacement on the sprockets, the side clearances required on drives of twenty (20) inch centers or under shall be not less than one-fourth inch from the nearest moving chain part, and on drives of over twenty (20) inch centers a minimum of one-half inch from the nearest moving chain part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Guards for horizontal overhead rope and chain drives.</I> Overhead-rope and chain-drive guard construction shall conform to the rules for overhead-belt guard.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Guardrails and toeboards.</I> (i) Guardrail shall be forty-two (42) inches in height, with midrail between top rail and floor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Posts shall be not more than eight (8) feet apart; they are to be permanent and substantial, smooth, and free from protruding nails, bolts, and splinters. If made of pipe, the post shall be one and one-fourth (1
<FR>1/4</FR>) inches inside diameter, or larger. If made of metal shapes or bars, their section shall be equal in strength to that of one and one-half (1
<FR>1/2</FR>) by one and one-half (1
<FR>1/2</FR>) by three-sixteenths (
<FR>3/16</FR>) inch angle iron. If made of wood, the posts shall be two by four (2 × 4) inches or larger. The upper rail shall be two by four (2 × 4) inches, or two one by four (1 × 4) strips, one at the top and one at the side of posts. The midrail may be one by four (1 × 4) inches or more. Where panels are fitted with expanded metal or wire mesh the middle rails may be omitted. Where guard is exposed to contact with moving equipment, additional strength may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(iii) Toeboards shall be four (4) inches or more in height, of wood, metal, or of metal grill not exceeding one (1) inch mesh.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Care of equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> All power-transmission equipment shall be inspected at intervals not exceeding 60 days and be kept in good working condition at all times.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shafting.</I> (i) Shafting shall be kept in alignment, free from rust and excess oil or grease.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where explosives, explosive dusts, flammable vapors or flammable liquids exist, the hazard of static sparks from shafting shall be carefully considered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bearings.</I> Bearings shall be kept in alignment and properly adjusted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hangers.</I> Hangers shall be inspected to make certain that all supporting bolts and screws are tight and that supports of hanger boxes are adjusted properly.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pulleys.</I> (i) Pulleys shall be kept in proper alignment to prevent belts from running off.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Care of belts.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection shall be made of belts, lacings, and fasteners and such equipment kept in good repair.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Lubrication.</I> The regular oilers shall wear tight-fitting clothing. Machinery shall be oiled when not in motion, wherever possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49750, Oct. 24, 1978; 43 FR 51760; Nov. 7, 1978; 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984; 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996; 69 FR 31882, June 8, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Hand and Portable Powered Tools and Other Hand-Held Equipment</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), or 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), as applicable; 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE><P>Section 1910.243 also issued under 29 CFR part 1910.


</P></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.241" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.16.37.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.241   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Explosive-actuated fastening tool terms</I>—(1) <I>Hammer-operated piston tool</I>—<I>low-velocity type.</I> A tool which, by means of a heavy mass hammer supplemented by a load, moves a piston designed to be captive to drive a stud, pin, or fastener into a work surface, always starting the fastener at rest and in contact with the work surface. It shall be so designed that when used with any load that accurately chambers in it and that is commercially available at the time the tool is submitted for approval, it will not cause such stud, pin, or fastener to have a mean velocity in excess of 300 feet per second when measured 6.5 feet from the muzzle end of the barrel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-velocity tool.</I> A tool or machine which, when used with a load, propels or discharges a stud, pin, or fastener, at velocities in excess of 300 feet per second when measured 6.5 feet from the muzzle end of the barrel, for the purpose of impinging it upon, affixing it to, or penetrating another object or material.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Low-velocity piston tool.</I> A tool that utilizes a piston designed to be captive to drive a stud, pin, or fastener into a work surface. It shall be so designed that when used with any load that accurately chambers in it and that is commercially available at the time the tool is submitted for approval, it will not cause such stud, pin, or fastener to have a mean velocity in excess of 300 feet per second when measured 6.5 feet from the muzzle end of the barrel.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stud, pin, or fastener.</I> A fastening device specifically designed and manufactured for use in explosive-actuated fastening tools.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>To chamber.</I> To fit properly without the use of excess force, the case being duly supported.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Explosive powerload, also known as load.</I> Any substance in any form capable of producing a propellant force.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Tool.</I> An explosive-actuated fastening tool, unless otherwise indicated, and all accessories pertaining thereto.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Protective shield or guard.</I> A device or guard attached to the muzzle end of the tool, which is designed to confine flying particles.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Abrasive wheel terms</I>—(1) <I>Mounted wheels.</I> Mounted wheels, usually 2-inch diameter or smaller, and of various shapes, may be either organic or inorganic bonded abrasive wheels. They are secured to plain or threaded steel mandrels.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tuck pointing.</I> Removal, by grinding, of cement, mortar, or other nonmetallic jointing material.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tuck pointing wheels.</I> Tuck pointing wheels, usually Type 1, reinforced organic bonded wheels have diameter, thickness and hole size dimension. They are subject to the same limitations of use and mounting as Type 1 wheels defined in subparagraph (10) of this paragraph.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> Wheels used for tuck pointing should be reinforced, organic bonded. (See § 1910.243(c)(1)(ii)(<I>c.</I>))</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Portable grinding.</I> A grinding operation where the grinding machine is designed to be hand held and may be easily moved from one location to another.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Organic bonded wheels.</I> Organic wheels are wheels which are bonded by means of an organic material such as resin, rubber, shellac, or other similar bonding agent.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safety guard.</I> A safety guard is an enclosure designed to restrain the pieces of the grinding wheel and furnish all possible protection in the event that the wheel is broken in operation.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Reinforced wheels.</I> The term <I>reinforced</I> as applied to grinding wheels shall define a class of organic wheels which contain strengthening fabric or filament. The term <I>reinforced</I> does not cover wheels using such mechanical additions as steel rings, steel cup backs or wire or tape winding.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Type 11 flaring cup wheels.</I> Type 11 flaring cup wheels have double diameter dimensions D and J, and in addition have thickness, hole size, rim and back thickness dimensions. Grinding is always performed on rim face, W dimension. Type 11 wheels are subject to all limitations of use and mounting listed for Type 6 straight sided cup wheels definition in subparagraph (9) of this paragraph.
</P>
<TCAP><E T="15">Type 11 Flaring Cup Wheels</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.078.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure P-1</E></BCAP>
<EXTRACT>
<HD2>Type 11—Flaring-cup Wheel
</HD2>
<FP-1><I>Side grinding wheel having a wall flared or tapered outward from the back. Wall thickness at the back is normally greater than at the grinding face (W).</I>
</FP-1>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> Minimum back thickness, E dimension, should not be less than one-fourth T dimension. In addition when unthreaded hole wheels are specified the inside flat, K dimension, shall be large enough to accommodate a suitable flange.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(9) <I>Type 6 straight cup wheels.</I> Type 6 cup wheels have diameter, thickness, hole size, rim thickness, and back thickness dimensions. Grinding is always performed on rim face, W dimension.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> Minimum back thickness, E dimension, should not be less than one-fourth T dimension. In addition, when unthreaded hole wheels are specified, the inside flat, K dimension, must be large enough to accommodate a suitable flange.
</P>
<TCAP><E T="15">Type 6 Straight Cup Wheels</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.079.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure P-2</E></BCAP>
<HD2>Type 6—Straight Cup Wheel
</HD2>
<FP-1><I>Side grinding wheel having a diameter, thickness and hole with one side straight or flat and the opposite side recessed. This type, however, differs from Type 5 in that the grinding is performed on the wall of the abrasive created by the difference between the diameter of the recess and the outside diameter of the wheel. Therefore, the wall dimension “W” takes precedence over the diameter of the recess as an essential intermediate dimension to describe this shape type.</I></FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(10) <I>Type 1 straight wheels.</I> Type 1 straight wheels have diameter, thickness, and hole size dimensions and should be used only on the periphery. Type 1 wheels shall be mounted between flanges.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><E T="04">Limitation:</E> Hole dimension (H) should not be greater than two-thirds of wheel diameter dimension (D) for precision, cylindrical, centerless, or surface grinding applications. Maximum hole size for all other applications should not exceed one-half wheel diameter.
</P>
<TCAP><E T="15">Type 1 Straight Wheels</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.080.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure P-3</E></BCAP>
<HD2>Type 1—Straight Wheel
</HD2>
<HD2>Peripheral grinding wheel having a diameter, thickness and hole.</HD2></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Jack terms</I>—(1) <I>Jack.</I> A jack is an appliance for lifting and lowering or moving horizontally a load by application of a pushing force.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Jacks may be of the following types: Lever and ratchet, screw and hydraulic.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Rating.</I> The rating of a jack is the maximum working load for which it is designed to lift safely that load throughout its specified amount of travel.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>To raise the rated load of a jack, the point of application of the load, the applied force, and the length of lever arm should be those designated by the manufacturer for the particular jack considered.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49750, Oct. 24, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.242" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.16.37.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.242   Hand and portable powered tools and equipment, general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Each employer shall be responsible for the safe condition of tools and equipment used by employees, including tools and equipment which may be furnished by employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compressed air used for cleaning.</I> Compressed air shall not be used for cleaning purposes except where reduced to less than 30 p.s.i. and then only with effective chip guarding and personal protective equipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.243" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.16.37.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.243   Guarding of portable powered tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Portable powered tool</I>—(1) <I>Portable circular saws.</I> (i) All portable, power-driven circular saws having a blade diameter greater than 2 in. shall be equipped with guards above and below the base plate or shoe. The upper guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc required to permit the base to be tilted for bevel cuts. The lower guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc required to allow proper retraction and contact with the work. When the tool is withdrawn from the work, the lower guard shall automatically and instantly return to covering position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section does not apply to circular saws used in the meat industry for meat cutting purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Switches and controls.</I> (i) All hand-held powered circular saws having a blade diameter greater than 2 inches, electric, hydraulic or pneumatic chain saws, and percussion tools without positive accessory holding means shall be equipped with a constant pressure switch or control that will shut off the power when the pressure is released. All hand-held gasoline powered chain saws shall be equipped with a constant pressure throttle control that will shut off the power to the saw chain when the pressure is released.
</P>
<P>(ii) All hand-held powered drills, tappers, fastener drivers, horizontal, vertical, and angle grinders with wheels greater than 2 inches in diameter, disc sanders with discs greater than 2 inches in diameter, belt sanders, reciprocating saws, saber, scroll, and jig saws with blade shanks greater than a nominal one-fourth inch, and other similarly operating powered tools shall be equipped with a constant pressure switch or control, and may have a lock-on control provided that turnoff can be accomplished by a single motion of the same finger or fingers that turn it on.
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) All other hand-held powered tools, such as, but not limited to, platen sanders, grinders with wheels 2 inches in diameter or less, disc sanders with discs 2 inches in diameter or less, routers, planers, laminate trimmers, nibblers, shears, saber, scroll, and jig saws with blade shanks a nominal one-fourth of an inch wide or less, may be equipped with either a positive “on-off” control, or other controls as described by paragraph (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Saber, scroll, and jig saws with nonstandard blade holders may use blades with shanks which are nonuniform in width, provided the narrowest portion of the blade shank is an integral part in mounting the blade.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Blade shank width shall be measured at the narrowest portion of the blade shank when saber, scroll, and jig saws have nonstandard blade holders.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) <I>Nominal</I> in this subparagraph means ±0.05 inch.
</P>
<P>(iv) The operating control on hand-held power tools shall be so located as to minimize the possibility of its accidental operation, if such accidental operation would constitute a hazard to employees.
</P>
<P>(v) This subparagraph does not apply to concrete vibrators, concrete breakers, powered tampers, jack hammers, rock drills, garden appliances, household and kitchen appliances, personal care appliances, medical or dental equipment, or to fixed machinery.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portable belt sanding machines.</I> Belt sanding machines shall be provided with guards at each nip point where the sanding belt runs onto a pulley. These guards shall effectively prevent the hands or fingers of the operator from coming in contact with the nip points. The unused run of the sanding belt shall be guarded against accidental contact.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cracked saws.</I> All cracked saws shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grounding.</I> Portable electric powered tools shall meet the electrical requirements of subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pneumatic powered tools and hose</I>—(1) <I>Tool retainer.</I> A tool retainer shall be installed on each piece of utilization equipment which, without such a retainer, may eject the tool.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Airhose.</I> Hose and hose connections used for conducting compressed air to utilization equipment shall be designed for the pressure and service to which they are subjected.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Portable abrasive wheels</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> Abrasive wheels shall be used only on machine provided with safety guards as defined in paragraph (c) (1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements of this paragraph (c)(1) shall not apply to the following classes of wheels and conditions.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Wheels used for internal work while within the work being ground;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Mounted wheels used in portable operations 2 inches and smaller in diameter; (see definition § 1910.241(b)(1)); and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Types 16, 17, 18, 18R, and 19 cones, and plugs, and threaded hole pot balls where the work offers protection.
</P>
<P>(ii)(<I>a</I>) A safety guard shall cover the spindle end, nut and flange projections. The safety guard shall be mounted so as to maintain proper alignment with the wheel, and the strength of the fastenings shall exceed the strength of the guard.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) <I>Exception.</I> Safety guards on all operations where the work provides a suitable measure of protection to the operator may be so constructed that the spindle end, nut and outer flange are exposed. Where the nature of the work is such as to entirely cover the side of the wheel, the side covers of the guard may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) <I>Exception.</I> The spindle end, nut, and outer flange may be exposed on portable machines designed for, and used with, type 6, 11, 27, and 28 abrasive wheels, cutting off wheels, and tuck pointing wheels.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cup wheels.</I> Cup wheels (Types 6 and 11) shall be protected by:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety guards as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) Special “revolving cup guards” which mount behind the wheel and turn with it. They shall be made of steel or other material with adequate strength and shall enclose the wheel sides upward from the back for one-third of the wheel thickness. The mounting features shall conform with all regulations. (See paragraph (c)(5) of this section.) It is necessary to maintain clearance between the wheel side and the guard. The clearance shall not exceed one-sixteenth inch; or,
</P>
<P>(iii) Some other form of guard that will insure as good protection as that which would be provided by the guards specified in paragraph (c)(1) (i) or (ii) of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vertical portable grinders.</I> Safety guards used on machines known as right angle head or vertical portable grinders shall have a maximum exposure angle of 180°, and the guard shall be so located so as to be between the operator and the wheel during use. Adjustment of guard shall be such that pieces of an accidentally broken wheel will be deflected away from the operator. (See Figure P-4.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.081.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. P-4</E></BCAP>
<P>(4) <I>Other portable grinders.</I> The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides for safety guards used on other portable grinding machines shall not exceed 180° and the top half of the wheel shall be enclosed at all times. (See Figures P-5 and P-6.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.082.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. P-5</E></BCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.083.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure No. P-6</E></BCAP>
<P>(5) <I>Mounting and inspection of abrasive wheels.</I> (i) Immediately before mounting, all wheels shall be closely inspected and sounded by the user (ring test, see subpart O, § 1910.215(d)(1)) to make sure they have not been damaged in transit, storage, or otherwise. The spindle speed of the machine shall be checked before mounting of the wheel to be certain that it does not exceed the maximum operating speed marked on the wheel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Grinding wheels shall fit freely on the spindle and remain free under all grinding conditions. A controlled clearance between the wheel hole and the machine spindle (or wheel sleeves or adaptors) is essential to avoid excessive pressure from mounting and spindle expansion. To accomplish this, the machine spindle shall be made to nominal (standard) size plus zero minus .002 inch, and the wheel hole shall be made suitably oversize to assure safety clearance under the conditions of operating heat and pressure.
</P>
<P>(iii) All contact surfaces of wheels, blotters, and flangers shall be flat and free of foreign matter.
</P>
<P>(iv) When a bushing is used in the wheel hole it shall not exceed the width of the wheel and shall not contact the flanges.
</P>
<P>(v) Requirements for the use of flanges and blotters, see subpart O, § 1910.215(c).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Excluded machinery.</I> Natural sandstone wheels and metal, wooden, cloth, or paper discs, having a layer of abrasive on the surface are not covered by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Explosive actuated fastening tools</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) Explosive-actuated fastening tools that are actuated by explosives or any similar means, and propel a stud, pin, fastener, or other object for the purpose of affixing it by penetration to any other object shall meet the design requirements specified by paragraph (d)(2) of this section. This requirement does not apply to devices designed for attaching objects to soft construction materials, such as wood, plaster, tar, dry wallboard, and the like, or to stud-welding equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operators and assistants using tools shall be safeguarded by means of eye protection. Head and face protection shall be used, as required by working conditions, as set forth in subpart I.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inspection, maintenance, and tool handling</I>—(i) <I>High-velocity tools.</I> Tools of this type shall have the characteristics outlined in (<I>a</I>) through (<I>h</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The muzzle end of the tool shall have a protective shield or guard at least 3
<FR>1/2</FR> inches in diameter, mounted perpendicular to and concentric with the barrel, and designed to confine any flying fragments or particles that might otherwise create a hazard at the time of firing.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where a standard shield or guard cannot be used, or where it does not cover all apparent avenues through which flying particles might escape, a special shield, guard, fixture, or jig designed and built by the manufacturer of the tool being used, which provides this degree of protection, shall be used as a substitute.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The tool shall be so designed that it cannot be fired unless it is equipped with a standard protective shield or guard, or a special shield, guard, fixture, or jig.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>)(<I>1</I>) The firing mechanism shall be so designed that the tool cannot fire during loading or preparation to fire, or if the tool should be dropped while loaded.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Firing of the tool shall be dependent upon at least two separate and distinct operations of the operator, with the final firing movement being separate from the operation of bringing the tool into the firing position.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The tool shall be so designed as not to be operable other than against a work surface, and unless the operator is holding the tool against the work surface with a force at least 5 pounds greater than the total weight of the tool.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The tool shall be so designed that it will not operate when equipped with the standard guard indexed to the center position if any bearing surface of the guard is tilted more than 8° from contact with the work surface.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The tool shall be so designed that positive means of varying the power are available or can be made available to the operator as part of the tool, or as an auxiliary, in order to make it possible for the operator to select a power level adequate to perform the desired work without excessive force.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) The tool shall be so designed that all breeching parts will be reasonably visible to allow a check for any foreign matter that may be present.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tools of the low-velocity-piston type shall have the characteristics outlined in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) (<I>a</I>) through (<I>e</I>) of this section and any additional safety features he may wish to incorporate.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The muzzle end of the tool shall be designed so that suitable protective shields, guards, jigs, or fixtures, designed and built by the manufacturer of the tool being used, can be mounted perpendicular to the barrel. A standard spall shield shall be supplied with each tool.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>)(<I>1</I>) The tool shall be designed so that it shall not in ordinary usage propel or discharge a stud, pin, or fastener while loading or during preparation to fire, or if the tool should be dropped while loaded.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Firing of the tool shall be dependent upon at least two separate and distinct operations of the operator, with the final firing movement being separate from the operation of bringing the tool into the firing position.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The tool shall be so designed as not to be operable other than against a work surface, and unless the operator is holding the tool against the work surface with a force at least 5 pounds greater than the total weight of the tool.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The tool shall be so designed that positive means of varying the power are available or can be made available to the operator as part of the tool, or as an auxiliary, in order to make it possible for the operator to select a power level adequate to perform the desired work without excessive force.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The tool shall be so designed that all breeching parts will be reasonably visible to allow a check for any foreign matter that may be present.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tools of the hammer-operated piston tools—low-velocity type shall have the characteristics outlined in paragraphs (d)(2)(iii) (<I>a</I>) through (<I>e</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The muzzle end of the tool shall be so designed that suitable protective shields, guards, jigs, or fixtures, designed and built by the manufacturer of the tool being used, can be mounted perpendicular to the barrel. A standard spall shield shall be supplied with each tool.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The tool shall be so designed that it shall not in ordinary usage propel or discharge a stud, pin, or fastener while loading, or during preparation to fire, or if the tool should be dropped while loaded.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Firing of the tool shall be dependent upon at least two separate and distinct operations of the operator, with the final firing movement being separate from the operation of bringing the tool into the firing position.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The tool shall be so designed that positive means of varying the power are available or can be made available to the operator as part of the tool, or as an auxiliary, in order to make it possible for the operator to select a power level adequate to perform the desired work without excessive force.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The tool shall be so designed that all breeching parts will be reasonably visible to allow a check for any foreign matter that may be present.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for loads and fasteners.</I> (i) There shall be a standard means of identifying the power levels of loads used in tools.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) No load (cased or caseless) shall be used if it will accurately chamber in any existing approved commercially available low-velocity piston tool or hammer operated piston tool—low-velocity type and will cause a fastener to have a mean velocity in excess of 300 feet per second when measured 6.5 feet from the muzzle end of the barrel. No individual test firing of a series shall exceed 300 feet per second by more than 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fasteners used in tools shall be only those specifically manufactured for use in such tools.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operating requirements.</I> (i) Before using a tool, the operator shall inspect it to determine to his satisfaction that it is clean, that all moving parts operate freely, and that the barrel is free from obstructions.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a tool develops a defect during use, the operator shall immediately cease to use it, until it is properly repaired.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tools shall not be loaded until just prior to the intended firing time. Neither loaded nor empty tools are to be pointed at any workmen.
</P>
<P>(iv) No tools shall be loaded unless being prepared for immediate use, nor shall an unattended tool be left loaded.
</P>
<P>(v) In case of a misfire, the operator shall hold the tool in the operating position for at least 30 seconds. He shall then try to operate the tool a second time. He shall wait another 30 seconds, holding the tool in the operating position; then he shall proceed to remove the explosive load in strict accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>(vi) A tool shall never be left unattended in a place where it would be available to unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(vii) Fasteners shall not be driven into very hard or brittle materials including, but not limited to, cast iron, glazed tile, surface-hardened steel, glass block, live rock, face brick, or hollow tile.
</P>
<P>(viii) Driving into materials easily penetrated shall be avoided unless such materials are backed by a substance that will prevent the pin or fastener from passing completely through and creating a flying-missile hazard on the other side.
</P>
<P>(ix)(<I>a</I>) Fasteners shall not be driven directly into materials such as brick or concrete closer than 3 inches from the unsupported edge or corner, or into steel surfaces closer than one-half inch from the unsupported edge or corner, unless a special guard, fixture, or jig is used. (Exception: Low-velocity tools may drive no closer than 2 inches from an edge in concrete or one-fourth inch in steel.)
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) When fastening other materials, such as a 2- by 4-inch wood section to a concrete surface, it is permissible to drive a fastener of no greater than 
<FR>7/32</FR>-inch shank diameter not closer than 2 inches from the unsupported edge or corner of the work surface.
</P>
<P>(x) Fasteners shall not be driven through existing holes unless a positive guide is used to secure accurate alignment.
</P>
<P>(xi) No fastener shall be driven into a spalled area caused by an unsatisfactory fastening.
</P>
<P>(xii) Tools shall not be used in an explosive or flammable atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(xiii) All tools shall be used with the correct shield, guard, or attachment recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Any tool found not in proper working order shall be immediately removed from service. The tool shall be inspected at regular intervals and shall be repaired in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Power lawnmowers</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) Power lawnmowers of the walk-behind, riding-rotary, and reel power lawnmowers shall be guarded in accordance with the machine guarding requirements in 29 CFR 1910.212, General requirements for all machines.
</P>
<P>(ii) All power-driven chains, belts, and gears shall be so positioned or otherwise guarded to prevent the operator's accidental contact therewith, during normal starting, mounting, and operation of the machine.
</P>
<P>(iii) A shutoff device shall be provided to stop operation of the motor or engine. This device shall require manual and intentional reactivation to restart the motor or engine.
</P>
<P>(iv) All positions of the operating controls shall be clearly identified.
</P>
<P>(v) The words, “Caution. Be sure the operating control(s) is in neutral before starting the engine,” or similar wording shall be clearly visible at an engine starting control point on self-propelled mowers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Walk-behind and riding rotary mowers.</I> (i) The mower blade shall be enclosed except on the bottom and the enclosure shall extend to or below the lowest cutting point of the blade in the lowest blade position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Guards which must be removed to install a catcher assembly shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Warning instructions shall be affixed to the mower near the opening stating that the mower shall not be used without either the catcher assembly or the guard in place.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The catcher assembly or the guard shall be shipped and sold as part of the mower.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The instruction manual shall state that the mower shall not be used without either the catcher assembly or the guard in place.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The catcher assembly, when properly and completely installed, shall not create a condition which violates the limits given for the guarded opening.
</P>
<P>(iii) Openings in the blade enclosure, intended for the discharge of grass, shall be limited to a maximum vertical angle of the opening of 30°. Measurements shall be taken from the lowest blade position.
</P>
<P>(iv) The total effective opening area of the grass discharge opening(s) shall not exceed 1,000 square degrees on units having a width of cut less than 27
<FR>1/2</FR> inches, or 2,000 square degrees on units having a width of cut 27
<FR>1/2</FR> inches or over.
</P>
<P>(v) The word “Caution.” or stronger wording, shall be placed on the mower at or near each discharge opening.
</P>
<P>(vi) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vii) Blade(s) shall stop rotating from the manufacturer's specified maximum speed within 15 seconds after declutching, or shutting off power.
</P>
<P>(viii) In a multipiece blade, the means of fastening the cutting members to the body of the blade or disc shall be so designed that they will not become worn to a hazardous condition before the cutting members themselves are worn beyond use.
</P>
<P>(ix) The maximum tip speed of any blade shall be 19,000 feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Walk-behind rotary mowers.</I> (i) The horizontal angle of the opening(s) in the blade enclosure, intended for the discharge of grass, shall not contact the operator area.
</P>
<P>(ii) There shall be one of the following at all openings in the blade enclosure intended for the discharge of grass:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A minimum unobstructed horizontal distance of 3 inches from the end of the discharge chute to the blade tip circle.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A rigid bar fastened across the discharge opening, secured to prevent removal without the use of tools. The bottom of the bar shall be no higher than the bottom edge of the blade enclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The highest point(s) of the front of the blade enclosure, except discharge openings, shall be such that any line extending a maximum of 15° downward from the horizontal toward the blade shaft axis (axes) shall not intersect the horizontal plane within the blade tip circle. The highest point(s) on the blade enclosure front, except discharge-openings, shall not exceed 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches above the lowest cutting point of the blade in the lowest blade position. Mowers with a swingover handle are to be considered as having no front in the blade enclosure and therefore shall comply with paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The mower handle shall be fastened to the mower so as to prevent loss of control by unintentional uncoupling while in operation.
</P>
<P>(v) A positive upstop or latch shall be provided for the mower handle in the normal operating position(s). The upstop shall not be subject to unintentional disengagement during normal operation of the mower. The upstop or latch shall not allow the center or the handle grips to come closer than 17 inches horizontally behind the closest path of the mower blade(s) unless manually disengaged.
</P>
<P>(vi) A swing-over handle, which complies with the above requirements, will be permitted.
</P>
<P>(vii) Wheel drive disengaging controls, except deadman controls, shall move opposite to the direction of the vehicle motion in order to disengage the drive. Deadman controls shall automatically interrupt power to a drive when the operator's actuating force is removed, and may operate in any direction to disengage the drive.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Riding rotary mowers.</I> (i) The highest point(s) of all openings in the blade enclosure, front shall be limited by a vertical angle of opening of 15° and a maximum distance of 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches above the lowest cutting point of the blade in the lowest blade position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Opening(s) shall be placed so that grass or debris will not discharge directly toward any part of an operator seated in a normal operator position.
</P>
<P>(iii) There shall be one of the following at all openings in the blade enclosure intended for the discharge of grass:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A minimum unobstructed horizontal distance of 6 inches from the end of the discharge chute to the blade tip circle.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A rigid bar fastened across the discharge opening, secured to prevent removal without the use of tools. The bottom of the bar shall be no higher than the bottom edge of the blade enclosure.
</P>
<P>(iv) Mowers shall be provided with stops to prevent jackknifing or locking of the steering mechanism.
</P>
<P>(v) Vehicle stopping means shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(vi) Hand-operated wheel drive disengaging controls shall move opposite to the direction of vehicle motion in order to disengage the drive. Foot-operated wheel drive disengaging controls shall be depressed to disengage the drive. Deadman controls, both hand and foot operated, shall automatically interrupt power to a drive when the operator's actuating force is removed, and may operate in any direction to disengage the drive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49750, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984; 50 FR 4649, Feb. 1, 1985; 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996; 70 FR 53929, Sept. 13, 2005; 72 FR 71070, Dec. 14, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.244" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.16.37.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.244   Other portable tools and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Jacks</I>—(1) <I>Loading and marking.</I> (i) The operator shall make sure that the jack used has a rating sufficient to lift and sustain the load.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rated load shall be legibly and permanently marked in a prominent location on the jack by casting, stamping, or other suitable means.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operation and maintenance.</I> (i) In the absence of a firm foundation, the base of the jack shall be blocked. If there is a possibility of slippage of the cap, a block shall be placed in between the cap and the load.
</P>
<P>(ii) The operator shall watch the stop indicator, which shall be kept clean, in order to determine the limit of travel. The indicated limit shall not be overrun.
</P>
<P>(iii) After the load has been raised, it shall be cribbed, blocked, or otherwise secured at once.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hydraulic jacks exposed to freezing temperatures shall be supplied with an adequate antifreeze liquid.
</P>
<P>(v) All jacks shall be properly lubricated at regular intervals.
</P>
<P>(vi) Each jack shall be thoroughly inspected at times which depend upon the service conditions. Inspections shall be not less frequent than the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) For constant or intermittent use at one locality, once every 6 months,
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For jacks sent out of shop for special work, when sent out and when returned,
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) For a jack subjected to abnormal load or shock, immediately before and immediately thereafter.
</P>
<P>(vii) Repair or replacement parts shall be examined for possible defects.
</P>
<P>(viii) Jacks which are out of order shall be tagged accordingly, and shall not be used until repairs are made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Abrasive blast cleaning nozzles.</I> The blast cleaning nozzles shall be equipped with an operating valve which must be held open manually. A support shall be provided on which the nozzle may be mounted when it is not in use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Welding, Cutting and Brazing</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657); Secretary of Labor's Orders Nos. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), or 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 13696, Apr. 11, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.251" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.17.37.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.251   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Welder</I> and <I>welding operator</I> mean any operator of electric or gas welding and cutting equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approved</I> means listed or approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. Refer to § 1910.155(c)(3) for definitions of listed and approved, and § 1910.7 for nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 13696, Apr. 11, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996; 72 FR 71070, Dec. 14, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.252" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.17.37.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.252   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fire prevention and protection</I>—(1) <I>Basic precautions.</I> For elaboration of these basic precautions and of the special precautions of paragraph (a)(2) of this section as well as a delineation of the fire protection and prevention responsibilities of welders and cutters, their supervisors (including outside contractors) and those in management on whose property cutting and welding is to be performed, see Standard for Fire Prevention in Use of Cutting and Welding Processes, NFPA Standard 51B, 1962, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. The basic precautions for fire prevention in welding or cutting work are:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fire hazards.</I> If the object to be welded or cut cannot readily be moved, all movable fire hazards in the vicinity shall be taken to a safe place.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Guards.</I> If the object to be welded or cut cannot be moved and if all the fire hazards cannot be removed, then guards shall be used to confine the heat, sparks, and slag, and to protect the immovable fire hazards.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Restrictions.</I> If the requirements stated in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii) of this section cannot be followed then welding and cutting shall not be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special precautions.</I> When the nature of the work to be performed falls within the scope of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section certain additional precautions may be necessary:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Combustible material.</I> Wherever there are floor openings or cracks in the flooring that cannot be closed, precautions shall be taken so that no readily combustible materials on the floor below will be exposed to sparks which might drop through the floor. The same precautions shall be observed with regard to cracks or holes in walls, open doorways and open or broken windows.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fire extinquishers.</I> Suitable fire extinguishing equipment shall be maintained in a state of readiness for instant use. Such equipment may consist of pails of water, buckets of sand, hose or portable extinguishers depending upon the nature and quantity of the combustible material exposed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fire watch.</I> (A) Fire watchers shall be required whenever welding or cutting is performed in locations where other than a minor fire might develop, or any of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Appreciable combustible material, in building construction or contents, closer than 35 feet (10.7 m) to the point of operation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Appreciable combustibles are more than 35 feet (10.7 m) away but are easily ignited by sparks.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Wall or floor openings within a 35-foot (10.7 m) radius expose combustible material in adjacent areas including concealed spaces in walls or floors.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Combustible materials are adjacent to the opposite side of metal partitions, walls, ceilings, or roofs and are likely to be ignited by conduction or radiation.
</P>
<P>(B) Fire watchers shall have fire extinguishing equipment readily available and be trained in its use. They shall be familiar with facilities for sounding an alarm in the event of a fire. They shall watch for fires in all exposed areas, try to extinguish them only when obviously within the capacity of the equipment available, or otherwise sound the alarm. A fire watch shall be maintained for at least a half hour after completion of welding or cutting operations to detect and extinguish possible smoldering fires.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Authorization.</I> Before cutting or welding is permitted, the area shall be inspected by the individual responsible for authorizing cutting and welding operations. He shall designate precautions to be followed in granting authorization to proceed preferably in the form of a written permit.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Floors.</I> Where combustible materials such as paper clippings, wood shavings, or textile fibers are on the floor, the floor shall be swept clean for a radius of 35 feet (10.7 m). Combustible floors shall be kept wet, covered with damp sand, or protected by fire-resistant shields. Where floors have been wet down, personnel operating arc welding or cutting equipment shall be protected from possible shock.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Prohibited areas.</I> Cutting or welding shall not be permitted in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(A) In areas not authorized by management.
</P>
<P>(B) In sprinklered buildings while such protection is impaired.
</P>
<P>(C) In the presence of explosive atmospheres (mixtures of flammable gases, vapors, liquids, or dusts with air), or explosive atmospheres that may develop inside uncleaned or improperly prepared tanks or equipment which have previously contained such materials, or that may develop in areas with an accumulation of combustible dusts.
</P>
<P>(D) In areas near the storage of large quantities of exposed, readily ignitible materials such as bulk sulfur, baled paper, or cotton.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Relocation of combustibles.</I> Where practicable, all combustibles shall be relocated at least 35 feet (10.7 m) from the work site. Where relocation is impracticable, combustibles shall be protected with flameproofed covers or otherwise shielded with metal or asbestos guards or curtains.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Ducts.</I> Ducts and conveyor systems that might carry sparks to distant combustibles shall be suitably protected or shut down.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Combustible walls.</I> Where cutting or welding is done near walls, partitions, ceiling or roof of combustible construction, fire-resistant shields or guards shall be provided to prevent ignition.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Noncombustible walls.</I> If welding is to be done on a metal wall, partition, ceiling or roof, precautions shall be taken to prevent ignition of combustibles on the other side, due to conduction or radiation, preferably by relocating combustibles. Where combustibles are not relocated, a fire watch on the opposite side from the work shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Combustible cover.</I> Welding shall not be attempted on a metal partition, wall, ceiling or roof having a combustible covering nor on walls or partitions of combustible sandwich-type panel construction.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Pipes.</I> Cutting or welding on pipes or other metal in contact with combustible walls, partitions, ceilings or roofs shall not be undertaken if the work is close enough to cause ignition by conduction.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Management.</I> Management shall recognize its responsibility for the safe usage of cutting and welding equipment on its property and:
</P>
<P>(A) Based on fire potentials of plant facilities, establish areas for cutting and welding, and establish procedures for cutting and welding, in other areas.
</P>
<P>(B) Designate an individual responsible for authorizing cutting and welding operations in areas not specifically designed for such processes.
</P>
<P>(C) Insist that cutters or welders and their supervisors are suitably trained in the safe operation of their equipment and the safe use of the process.
</P>
<P>(D) Advise all contractors about flammable materials or hazardous conditions of which they may not be aware.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Supervisor.</I> The Supervisor:
</P>
<P>(A) Shall be responsible for the safe handling of the cutting or welding equipment and the safe use of the cutting or welding process.
</P>
<P>(B) Shall determine the combustible materials and hazardous areas present or likely to be present in the work location.
</P>
<P>(C) Shall protect combustibles from ignition by the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Have the work moved to a location free from dangerous combustibles.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the work cannot be moved, have the combustibles moved to a safe distance from the work or have the combustibles properly shielded against ignition.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) See that cutting and welding are so scheduled that plant operations that might expose combustibles to ignition are not started during cutting or welding.
</P>
<P>(D) Shall secure authorization for the cutting or welding operations from the designated management representative.
</P>
<P>(E) Shall determine that the cutter or welder secures his approval that conditions are safe before going ahead.
</P>
<P>(F) Shall determine that fire protection and extinguishing equipment are properly located at the site.
</P>
<P>(G) Where fire watches are required, he shall see that they are available at the site.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Fire prevention precautions.</I> Cutting or welding shall be permitted only in areas that are or have been made fire safe. When work cannot be moved practically, as in most construction work, the area shall be made safe by removing combustibles or protecting combustibles from ignition sources.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Welding or cutting containers</I>—(i) <I>Used containers.</I> No welding, cutting, or other hot work shall be performed on used drums, barrels, tanks or other containers until they have been cleaned so thoroughly as to make absolutely certain that there are no flammable materials present or any substances such as greases, tars, acids, or other materials which when subjected to heat, might produce flammable or toxic vapors. Any pipe lines or connections to the drum or vessel shall be disconnected or blanked.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Venting and purging.</I> All hollow spaces, cavities or containers shall be vented to permit the escape of air or gases before preheating, cutting or welding. Purging with inert gas is recommended.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Confined spaces</I>—(i) <I>Accidental contact.</I> When arc welding is to be suspended for any substantial period of time, such as during lunch or overnight, all electrodes shall be removed from the holders and the holders carefully located so that accidental contact cannot occur and the machine be disconnected from the power source.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Torch valve.</I> In order to eliminate the possibility of gas escaping through leaks or improperly closed valves, when gas welding or cutting, the torch valves shall be closed and the gas supply to the torch positively shut off at some point outside the confined area whenever the torch is not to be used for a substantial period of time, such as during lunch hour or overnight. Where practicable, the torch and hose shall also be removed from the confined space.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protection of personnel</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Railing.</I> A welder or helper working on platforms, scaffolds, or runways shall be protected against falling. This may be accomplished by the use of railings, safety belts, life lines, or some other equally effective safeguards.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Welding cable.</I> Welders shall place welding cable and other equipment so that it is clear of passageways, ladders, and stairways.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eye protection</I>—(i) <I>Selection.</I> (A) Helmets or hand shields shall be used during all arc welding or arc cutting operations, excluding submerged arc welding. Helpers or attendants shall be provided with proper eye protection.
</P>
<P>(B) Goggles or other suitable eye protection shall be used during all gas welding or oxygen cutting operations. Spectacles without side shields, with suitable filter lenses are permitted for use during gas welding operations on light work, for torch brazing or for inspection.
</P>
<P>(C) All operators and attendants of resistance welding or resistance brazing equipment shall use transparent face shields or goggles, depending on the particular job, to protect their faces or eyes, as required.
</P>
<P>(D) Eye protection in the form of suitable goggles shall be provided where needed for brazing operations not covered in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specifications for protectors.</I> (A) Helmets and hand shields shall be made of a material which is an insulator for heat and electricity. Helmets, shields and goggles shall be not readily flammable and shall be capable of withstanding sterilization.
</P>
<P>(B) Helmets and hand shields shall be arranged to protect the face, neck and ears from direct radiant energy from the arc.
</P>
<P>(C) Helmets shall be provided with filter plates and cover plates designed for easy removal.
</P>
<P>(D) All parts shall be constructed of a material which will not readily corrode or discolor the skin.
</P>
<P>(E) Goggles shall be ventilated to prevent fogging of the lenses as much as practicable.
</P>
<P>(F) All glass for lenses shall be tempered, substantially free from striae, air bubbles, waves and other flaws. Except when a lens is ground to provide proper optical correction for defective vision, the front and rear surfaces of lenses and windows shall be smooth and parallel.
</P>
<P>(G) Lenses shall bear some permanent distinctive marking by which the source and shade may be readily identified.
</P>
<P>(H) The following is a guide for the selection of the proper shade numbers. These recommendations may be varied to suit the individual's needs.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Welding operation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Shade No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shielded metal-arc welding—
<fr>1/16</fr>-, 
<fr>3/32</fr>-, 
<fr>1/8</fr>-, 
<fr>5/32</fr>-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-shielded arc welding (nonferrous)—
<fr>1/16</fr>-, 
<fr>3/32</fr>-, 
<fr>1/8</fr>-, 
<fr>5/32</fr>-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-shielded arc welding (ferrous)—
<fr>1/16</fr>-, 
<fr>3/32</fr>-, 
<fr>1/8</fr>-, 
<fr>5/32</fr>-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shielded metal-arc welding:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">
<fr>3/16</fr>-, 
<fr>7/32</fr>-, 
<fr>1/4</fr>-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">
<fr>5/16</fr>-, 
<fr>3/8</fr>-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Atomic hydrogen welding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10-14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon arc welding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soldering</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torch brazing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 or 4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light cutting, up to 1 inch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 or 4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium cutting, 1 inch to 6 inches</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 or 5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy cutting, 6 inches and over</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 or 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas welding (light) up to 
<fr>1/8</fr> inch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 or 5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas welding (medium) 
<fr>1/8</fr> inch to 
<fr>1/2</fr> inch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 or 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas welding (heavy) 
<fr>1/2</fr> inch and over</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 or 8
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Note: In gas welding or oxygen cutting where the torch produces a high yellow light, it is desirable to use a filter or lens that absorbs the yellow or sodium line in the visible light of the operation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(I) Filter lenses must meet the test for transmission of radiant energy prescribed by any of the consensus standards listed in 29 CFR 1910.133(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Protection from arc welding rays.</I> Where the work permits, the welder should be enclosed in an individual booth painted with a finish of low reflectivity such as zinc oxide (an important factor for absorbing ultraviolet radiations) and lamp black, or shall be enclosed with noncombustible screens similarly painted. Booths and screens shall permit circulation of air at floor level. Workers or other persons adjacent to the welding areas shall be protected from the rays by noncombustible or flameproof screens or shields or shall be required to wear appropriate goggles.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Protective clothing—General requirements.</I> Employees exposed to the hazards created by welding, cutting, or brazing operations shall be protected by personal protective equipment in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.132 of this part. Appropriate protective clothing required for any welding operation will vary with the size, nature and location of the work to be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Work in confined spaces</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> As used herein confined space is intended to mean a relatively small or restricted space such as a tank, boiler, pressure vessel, or small compartment of a ship.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ventilation.</I> Ventilation is a prerequisite to work in confined spaces. For ventilation requirements see paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Securing cylinders and machinery.</I> When welding or cutting is being performed in any confined spaces the gas cylinders and welding machines shall be left on the outside. Before operations are started, heavy portable equipment mounted on wheels shall be securely blocked to prevent accidental movement.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Lifelines.</I> Where a welder must enter a confined space through a manhole or other small opening, means shall be provided for quickly removing him in case of emergency. When safety belts and lifelines are used for this purpose they shall be so attached to the welder's body that his body cannot be jammed in a small exit opening. An attendant with a preplanned rescue procedure shall be stationed outside to observe the welder at all times and be capable of putting rescue operations into effect.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Electrode removal.</I> When arc welding is to be suspended for any substantial period of time, such as during lunch or overnight, all electrodes shall be removed from the holders and the holders carefully located so that accidental contact cannot occur and the machine disconnected from the power source.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Gas cylinder shutoff.</I> In order to eliminate the possibility of gas escaping through leaks of improperly closed valves, when gas welding or cutting, the torch valves shall be closed and the fuel-gas and oxygen supply to the torch positively shut off at some point outside the confined area whenever the torch is not to be used for a substantial period of time, such as during lunch hour or overnight. Where practicable the torch and hose shall also be removed from the confined space.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Warning sign.</I> After welding operations are completed, the welder shall mark the hot metal or provide some other means of warning other workers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Health protection and ventilation</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Contamination.</I> The requirements in this paragraph have been established on the basis of the following three factors in arc and gas welding which govern the amount of contamination to which welders may be exposed:
</P>
<P>(A) Dimensions of space in which welding is to be done (with special regard to height of ceiling).
</P>
<P>(B) Number of welders.
</P>
<P>(C) Possible evolution of hazardous fumes, gases, or dust according to the metals involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Screens.</I> When welding must be performed in a space entirely screened on all sides, the screens shall be so arranged that no serious restriction of ventilation exists. It is desirable to have the screens so mounted that they are about 2 feet (0.61 m) above the floor unless the work is performed at so low a level that the screen must be extended nearer to the floor to protect nearby workers from the glare of welding.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum allowable concentration.</I> Local exhaust or general ventilating systems shall be provided and arranged to keep the amount of toxic fumes, gases, or dusts below the maximum allowable concentration as specified in § 1910.1000 of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Hazard communication.</I> The employer shall include the potentially hazardous materials employed in fluxes, coatings, coverings, and filler metals, all of which are potentially used in welding and cutting, or are released to the atmosphere during welding and cutting, in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of such materials and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of § 1910.1200. Potentially hazardous materials shall include but not be limited to the materials itemized in paragraphs (c)(5) through (c)(12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Additional considerations for hazard communication in welding, cutting, and brazing.</I> (A) The suppliers shall determine and shall label in accordance with § 1910.1200 any hazards associated with the use of their materials in welding, cutting, and brazing.
</P>
<P>(B) In addition to any requirements imposed by § 1910.1200, all filler metals and fusible granular materials shall carry the following notice, as a minimum, on tags, boxes, or other containers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Do not use in areas without adequate ventilation. <I>See</I> ANSI Z49.1-1967 Safety in Welding, Cutting, and Allied Processes published by the American Welding Society.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) Where brazing (welding) filler metals contain cadmium in significant amounts, the labels shall indicate the hazards associated with cadmium including cancer, lung and kidney effects, and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(D) Where brazing and gas welding fluxes contain fluorine compounds, the labels shall indicate the hazards associated with fluorine compounds including eye and respiratory tract effects.
</P>
<P>(vi) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on labels in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) All filler metals and fusible granular materials shall carry the following notice, as a minimum, on tags, boxes, or other containers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>CAUTION</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>Welding may produce fumes and gases hazardous to health. Avoid breathing these fumes and gases. Use adequate ventilation. <I>See</I> ANSI Z49.1-1967 Safety in Welding and Cutting published by the American Welding Society.
</P>
<P>(B) Brazing (welding) filler metals containing cadmium in significant amounts shall carry the following notice on tags, boxes, or other containers:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>WARNING
</FP>
<FP-1>CONTAINS CADMIUM—POISONOUS FUMES MAY BE FORMED ON HEATING</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>Do not breathe fumes. Use only with adequate ventilation such as fume collectors, exhaust ventilators, or air-supplied respirators. <I>See</I> ANSI Z49.1-1967. If chest pain, cough, or fever develops after use call physician immediately.
</P>
<P>(C) Brazing and gas welding fluxes containing fluorine compounds shall have a cautionary wording to indicate that they contain fluorine compounds. One such cautionary wording recommended by the American Welding Society for brazing and gas welding fluxes reads as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>CAUTION
</FP>
<FP>CONTAINS FLUORIDES</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>This flux when heated gives off fumes that may irritate eyes, nose and throat.
</P>
<P>1. Avoid fumes—use only in well-ventilated spaces.
</P>
<P>2. Avoid contact of flux with eyes or skin.
</P>
<P>3. Do not take internally.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ventilation for general welding and cutting</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Mechanical ventilation shall be provided when welding or cutting is done on metals not covered in paragraphs (c)(5) through (c)(12) of this section. (For specific materials, see the ventilation requirements of paragraphs (c)(5) through (c)(12) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(A) In a space of less than 10,000 cubic feet (284 m 
<SU>3</SU>) per welder.
</P>
<P>(B) In a room having a ceiling height of less than 16 feet (5 m).
</P>
<P>(C) In confined spaces or where the welding space contains partitions, balconies, or other structural barriers to the extent that they significantly obstruct cross ventilation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Minimum rate.</I> Such ventilation shall be at the minimum rate of 2,000 cubic feet (57 m
<SU>3</SU>) per minute per welder, except where local exhaust hoods and booths as per paragraph (c)(3) of this section, or airline respirators approved by the Mine Safety and Health Administration and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, pursuant to the provisions of 30 CFR part 11, are provided. Natural ventilation is considered sufficient for welding or cutting operations where the restrictions in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section are not present.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Local exhaust hoods and booths.</I> Mechanical local exhaust ventilation may be by means of either of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hoods.</I> Freely movable hoods intended to be placed by the welder as near as practicable to the work being welded and provided with a rate of air-flow sufficient to maintain a velocity in the direction of the hood of 100 linear feet (30 m) per minute in the zone of welding when the hood is at its most remote distance from the point of welding. The rates of ventilation required to accomplish this control velocity using a 3-inch (7.6 cm) wide flanged suction opening are shown in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Welding zone
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum air flow 
<sup>1</sup> cubic feet/minute
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Duct diameter, inches 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 to 6 inches from arc or torch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 to 8 inches from arc or torch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 to 10 inches from arc or torch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 to 12 inches from arc or torch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> When brazing with cadmium bearing materials or when cutting on such materials increased rates of ventilation may be required.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Nearest half-inch duct diameter based on 4,000 feet per minute velocity in pipe.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Fixed enclosure.</I> A fixed enclosure with a top and not less than two sides which surround the welding or cutting operations and with a rate of airflow sufficient to maintain a velocity away from the welder of not less than 100 linear feet (30 m) per minute.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ventilation in confined spaces</I>—(i) <I>Air replacement.</I> All welding and cutting operations carried on in confined spaces shall be adequately ventilated to prevent the accumulation of toxic materials or possible oxygen deficiency. This applies not only to the welder but also to helpers and other personnel in the immediate vicinity. All air replacing that withdrawn shall be clean and respirable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Airline respirators.</I> In circumstances for which it is impossible to provide such ventilation, airline respirators or hose masks approved for this purpose by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) under 42 CFR part 84 must be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Self-contained units.</I> In areas immediately hazardous to life, a full-facepiece, pressure-demand, self-contained breathing apparatus or a combination full-facepiece, pressure-demand supplied-air respirator with an auxiliary, self-contained air supply approved by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84 must be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Outside helper.</I> Where welding operations are carried on in confined spaces and where welders and helpers are provided with hose masks, hose masks with blowers or self-contained breathing equipment approved by the Mine Safety and Health Administration and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, a worker shall be stationed on the outside of such confined spaces to insure the safety of those working within.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Oxygen for ventilation.</I> Oxygen shall never be used for ventilation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fluorine compounds</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> In confined spaces, welding or cutting involving fluxes, coverings, or other materials which contain fluorine compounds shall be done in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section. A fluorine compound is one that contains fluorine, as an element in chemical combination, not as a free gas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum allowable concentration.</I> The need for local exhaust ventilation or airline respirators for welding or cutting in other than confined spaces will depend upon the individual circumstances. However, experience has shown such protection to be desirable for fixed-location production welding and for all production welding on stainless steels. Where air samples taken at the welding location indicate that the fluorides liberated are below the maximum allowable concentration, such protection is not necessary.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Zinc</I>—(i) <I>Confined spaces.</I> In confined spaces welding or cutting involving zinc-bearing base or filler metals or metals coated with zinc-bearing materials shall be done in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indoors.</I> Indoors, welding or cutting involving zinc-bearing base or filler metals coated with zinc-bearing materials shall be done in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Lead</I>—(i) <I>Confined spaces.</I> In confined spaces, welding involving lead-base metals (erroneously called lead-burning) shall be done in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indoors.</I> Indoors, welding involving lead-base metals shall be done in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Local ventilation.</I> In confined spaces or indoors, welding or cutting operations involving metals containing lead, other than as an impurity, or metals coated with lead-bearing materials, including paint, must be done using local exhaust ventilation or airline respirators. Such operations, when done outdoors, must be done using respirators approved for this purpose by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84. In all cases, workers in the immediate vicinity of the cutting operation must be protected by local exhaust ventilation or airline respirators.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Beryllium.</I> Welding or cutting indoors, outdoors, or in confined spaces involving beryllium-containing base or filler metals shall be done using local exhaust ventilation and airline respirators unless atmospheric tests under the most adverse conditions have established that the workers' exposure is within the acceptable concentrations defined by § 1910.1000 of this part. In all cases, workers in the immediate vicinity of the welding or cutting operations shall be protected as necessary by local exhaust ventilation or airline respirators.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Cadmium</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> In confined spaces or indoors, welding or cutting operations involving cadmium-bearing or cadmium-coated base metals must be done using local exhaust ventilation or airline respirators unless atmospheric tests under the most adverse conditions show that employee exposure is within the acceptable concentrations specified by 29 CFR 1910.1000. Such operations, when done outdoors, must be done using respirators, such as fume respirators, approved for this purpose by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Confined space.</I> Welding (brazing) involving cadmium-bearing filler metals shall be done using ventilation as prescribed in paragraph (c)(3) or (c)(4) of this section if the work is to be done in a confined space.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Mercury.</I> In confined spaces or indoors, welding or cutting operations involving metals coated with mercury-bearing materials, including paint, must be done using local exhaust ventilation or airline respirators unless atmospheric tests under the most adverse conditions show that employee exposure is within the acceptable concentrations specified by 29 CFR 1910.1000. Such operations, when done outdoors, must be done using respirators approved for this purpose by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Cleaning compounds</I>—(i) <I>Manufacturer's instructions.</I> In the use of cleaning materials, because of their possible toxicity or flammability, appropriate precautions such as manufacturers instructions shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Degreasing.</I> Degreasing and other cleaning operations involving chlorinated hydrocarbons shall be so located that no vapors from these operations will reach or be drawn into the atmosphere surrounding any welding operation. In addition, trichloroethylene and perchlorethylene should be kept out of atmospheres penetrated by the ultraviolet radiation of gas-shielded welding operations.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Cutting of stainless steels.</I> Oxygen cutting, using either a chemical flux or iron powder or gas-shielded arc cutting of stainless steel, shall be done using mechanical ventilation adequate to remove the fumes generated.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>First-aid equipment.</I> First-aid equipment shall be available at all times. All injuries shall be reported as soon as possible for medical attention. First aid shall be rendered until medical attention can be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Industrial applications</I>—(1) <I>Transmission pipeline</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and § 1910.254 of this part shall be observed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Field shop operations.</I> Where field shop operations are involved for fabrication of fittings, river crossings, road crossings, and pumping and compressor stations the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section and §§ 1910.253 and 1910.254 of this part shall be observed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Electric shock.</I> When arc welding is performed in wet conditions, or under conditions of high humidity, special protection against electric shock shall be supplied.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Pressure testing.</I> In pressure testing of pipelines, the workers and the public shall be protected against injury by the blowing out of closures or other pressure restraining devices. Also, protection shall be provided against expulsion of loose dirt that may have become trapped in the pipe.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Construction standards.</I> The welded construction of transmission pipelines shall be conducted in accordance with the Standard for Welding Pipe Lines and Related Facilities, API Std. 1104—1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Flammable substance lines.</I> The connection, by welding, of branches to pipelines carrying flammable substances shall be performed in accordance with Welding or Hot Tapping on Equipment Containing Flammables, API Std. PSD No. 2201—1963, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>X-ray inspection.</I> The use of X-rays and radioactive isotopes for the inspection of welded pipeline joints shall be carried out in conformance with the American National Standard Safety Standard for Non-Medical X-ray and Sealed Gamma-Ray Sources, ANSI Z54.1—1963, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mechanical piping systems</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section and §§ 1910.253 and 1910.254 of this part shall be observed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>X-ray inspection.</I> The use of X-rays and radioactive isotopes for the inspection of welded piping joints shall be in conformance with the American National Standard Safety Standard for Non-Medical X-ray and Sealed Gamma-Ray Sources, ANSI Z54.1—1963.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 13696, Apr. 11, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 9240, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 1284, Jan. 8, 1998; 74 FR 46357, Sept. 9, 2009; 77 FR 17777, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.253" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.17.37.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.253   Oxygen-fuel gas welding and cutting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Flammable mixture.</I> Mixtures of fuel gases and air or oxygen may be explosive and shall be guarded against. No device or attachment facilitating or permitting mixtures of air or oxygen with flammable gases prior to consumption, except at the burner or in a standard torch, shall be allowed unless approved for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum pressure.</I> Under no condition shall acetylene be generated, piped (except in approved cylinder manifolds) or utilized at a pressure in excess of 15 psig (103 kPa gauge pressure) or 30 psia (206 kPa absolute). The 30 psia (206 kPa absolute) limit is intended to prevent unsafe use of acetylene in pressurized chambers such as caissons, underground excavations or tunnel construction.) This requirement is not intended to apply to storage of acetylene dissolved in a suitable solvent in cylinders manufactured and maintained according to U.S. Department of Transportation requirements, or to acetylene for chemical use. The use of liquid acetylene shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Apparatus.</I> Only approved apparatus such as torches, regulators or pressure-reducing valves, acetylene generators, and manifolds shall be used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Personnel.</I> Workmen in charge of the oxygen or fuel-gas supply equipment, including generators, and oxygen or fuel-gas distribution piping systems shall be instructed and judged competent by their employers for this important work before being left in charge. Rules and instructions covering the operation and maintenance of oxygen or fuel-gas supply equipment including generators, and oxygen or fuel-gas distribution piping systems shall be readily available.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cylinders and containers</I>—(1) <I>Approval and marking.</I> (i) All portable cylinders used for the storage and shipment of compressed gases shall be constructed and maintained in accordance with the regulations of the U.S. Department of Transportation, 49 CFR parts 171-179.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compressed gas cylinders shall be legibly marked, for the purpose of identifying the gas content, with either the chemical or the trade name of the gas. Such marking shall be by means of stenciling, stamping, or labeling, and shall not be readily removable. Whenever practical, the marking shall be located on the shoulder of the cylinder.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compressed gas cylinders shall be equipped with connections complying with the American National Standard Compressed Gas Cylinder Valve Outlet and Inlet Connections, ANSI B57.1—1965, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iv) All cylinders with a water weight capacity of over 30 pounds (13.6 kg) shall be equipped with means of connecting a valve protection cap or with a collar or recess to protect the valve.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Storage of cylinders—general.</I> (i) Cylinders shall be kept away from radiators and other sources of heat.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inside of buildings, cylinders shall be stored in a well-protected, well-ventilated, dry location, at least 20 feet (6.1 m) from highly combustible materials such as oil or excelsior. Cylinders should be stored in definitely assigned places away from elevators, stairs, or gangways. Assigned storage spaces shall be located where cylinders will not be knocked over or damaged by passing or falling objects, or subject to tampering by unauthorized persons. Cylinders shall not be kept in unventilated enclosures such as lockers and cupboards.
</P>
<P>(iii) Empty cylinders shall have their valves closed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Valve protection caps, where cylinder is designed to accept a cap, shall always be in place, hand-tight, except when cylinders are in use or connected for use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fuel-gas cylinder storage.</I> Inside a building, cylinders, except those in actual use or attached ready for use, shall be limited to a total gas capacity of 2,000 cubic feet (56 m
<SU>3</SU>) or 300 pounds (135.9 kg) of liquefied petroleum gas.
</P>
<P>(i) For storage in excess of 2,000 cubic feet (56 m
<SU>3</SU>) total gas capacity of cylinders or 300 (135.9 kg) pounds of liquefied petroleum gas, a separate room or compartment conforming to the requirements specified in paragraphs (f)(6)(i)(H) and (f)(6)(i)(I) of this section shall be provided, or cylinders shall be kept outside or in a special building. Special buildings, rooms or compartments shall have no open flame for heating or lighting and shall be well ventilated. They may also be used for storage of calcium carbide in quantities not to exceed 600 (271.8 kg) pounds, when contained in metal containers complying with paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (g)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Acetylene cylinders shall be stored valve end up.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Oxygen storage.</I> (i) Oxygen cylinders shall not be stored near highly combustible material, especially oil and grease; or near reserve stocks of carbide and acetylene or other fuel-gas cylinders, or near any other substance likely to cause or accelerate fire; or in an acetylene generator compartment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Oxygen cylinders stored in outside generator houses shall be separated from the generator or carbide storage rooms by a noncombustible partition having a fire-resistance rating of at least 1 hour. This partition shall be without openings and shall be gastight.
</P>
<P>(iii) Oxygen cylinders in storage shall be separated from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials (especially oil or grease), a minimum distance of 20 feet (6.1 m) or by a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet (1.5 m) high having a fire-resistance rating of at least one-half hour.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where a liquid oxygen system is to be used to supply gaseous oxygen for welding or cutting and the system has a storage capacity of more than 13,000 cubic feet (364 m
<SU>3</SU>) of oxygen (measured at 14.7 psia (101 kPa) and 70 °F (21.1 °C)), connected in service or ready for service, or more than 25,000 cubic feet (700 m
<SU>3</SU>) of oxygen (measured at 14.7 psia (101 kPa) and 70 °F (21.1 °C)), including unconnected reserves on hand at the site, it shall comply with the provisions of the Standard for Bulk Oxygen Systems at Consumer Sites, NFPA No. 566—1965, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Operating procedures.</I> (i) Cylinders, cylinder valves, couplings, regulators, hose, and apparatus shall be kept free from oily or greasy substances. Oxygen cylinders or apparatus shall not be handled with oily hands or gloves. A jet of oxygen must never be permitted to strike an oily surface, greasy clothes, or enter a fuel oil or other storage tank.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) When transporting cylinders by a crane or derrick, a cradle, boat, or suitable platform shall be used. Slings or electric magnets shall not be used for this purpose. Valve-protection caps, where cylinder is designed to accept a cap, shall always be in place.
</P>
<P>(B) Cylinders shall not be dropped or struck or permitted to strike each other violently.
</P>
<P>(C) Valve-protection caps shall not be used for lifting cylinders from one vertical position to another. Bars shall not be used under valves or valve-protection caps to pry cylinders loose when frozen to the ground or otherwise fixed; the use of warm (not boiling) water is recommended. Valve-protection caps are designed to protect cylinder valves from damage.
</P>
<P>(D) Unless cylinders are secured on a special truck, regulators shall be removed and valve-protection caps, when provided for, shall be put in place before cylinders are moved.
</P>
<P>(E) Cylinders not having fixed hand wheels shall have keys, handles, or nonadjustable wrenches on valve stems while these cylinders are in service. In multiple cylinder installations only one key or handle is required for each manifold.
</P>
<P>(F) Cylinder valves shall be closed before moving cylinders.
</P>
<P>(G) Cylinder valves shall be closed when work is finished.
</P>
<P>(H) Valves of empty cylinders shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(I) Cylinders shall be kept far enough away from the actual welding or cutting operation so that sparks, hot slag, or flame will not reach them, or fire-resistant shields shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(J) Cylinders shall not be placed where they might become part of an electric circuit. Contacts with third rails, trolley wires, etc., shall be avoided. Cylinders shall be kept away from radiators, piping systems, layout tables, etc., that may be used for grounding electric circuits such as for arc welding machines. Any practice such as the tapping of an electrode against a cylinder to strike an arc shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(K) Cylinders shall never be used as rollers or supports, whether full or empty.
</P>
<P>(L) The numbers and markings stamped into cylinders shall not be tampered with.
</P>
<P>(M) No person, other than the gas supplier, shall attempt to mix gases in a cylinder. No one, except the owner of the cylinder or person authorized by him, shall refill a cylinder.
</P>
<P>(N) No one shall tamper with safety devices in cylinders or valves.
</P>
<P>(O) Cylinders shall not be dropped or otherwise roughly handled.
</P>
<P>(P) Unless connected to a manifold, oxygen from a cylinder shall not be used without first attaching an oxygen regulator to the cylinder valve. Before connecting the regulator to the cylinder valve, the valve shall be opened slightly for an instant and then closed. Always stand to one side of the outlet when opening the cylinder valve.
</P>
<P>(Q) A hammer or wrench shall not be used to open cylinder valves. If valves cannot be opened by hand, the supplier shall be notified.
</P>
<P>(R)(<I>1</I>) Cylinder valves shall not be tampered with nor should any attempt be made to repair them. If trouble is experienced, the supplier should be sent a report promptly indicating the character of the trouble and the cylinder's serial number. Supplier's instructions as to its disposition shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Complete removal of the stem from a diaphragm-type cylinder valve shall be avoided.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Fuel-gas cylinders shall be placed with valve end up whenever they are in use. Liquefied gases shall be stored and shipped with the valve end up.
</P>
<P>(B) Cylinders shall be handled carefully. Rough handling, knocks, or falls are liable to damage the cylinder, valve or safety devices and cause leakage.
</P>
<P>(C) Before connecting a regulator to a cylinder valve, the valve shall be opened slightly and closed immediately. The valve shall be opened while standing to one side of the outlet; never in front of it. Never crack a fuel-gas cylinder valve near other welding work or near sparks, flame, or other possible sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(D) Before a regulator is removed from a cylinder valve, the cylinder valve shall be closed and the gas released from the regulator.
</P>
<P>(E) Nothing shall be placed on top of an acetylene cylinder when in use which may damage the safety device or interfere with the quick closing of the valve.
</P>
<P>(F) If cylinders are found to have leaky valves or fittings which cannot be stopped by closing of the valve, the cylinders shall be taken outdoors away from sources of ignition and slowly emptied.
</P>
<P>(G) A warning should be placed near cylinders having leaking fuse plugs or other leaking safety devices not to approach them with a lighted cigarette or other source of ignition. Such cylinders should be plainly tagged; the supplier should be promptly notified and his instructions followed as to their return.
</P>
<P>(H) Safety devices shall not be tampered with.
</P>
<P>(I) Fuel-gas shall never be used from cylinders through torches or other devices equipped with shutoff valves without reducing the pressure through a suitable regulator attached to the cylinder valve or manifold.
</P>
<P>(J) The cylinder valve shall always be opened slowly.
</P>
<P>(K) An acetylene cylinder valve shall not be opened more than one and one-half turns of the spindle, and preferably no more than three-fourths of a turn.
</P>
<P>(L) Where a special wrench is required it shall be left in position on the stem of the valve while the cylinder is in use so that the fuel-gas flow can be quickly turned off in case of emergency. In the case of manifolded or coupled cylinders at least one such wrench shall always be available for immediate use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manifolding of cylinders</I>—(1) <I>Fuel-gas manifolds.</I> (i) Manifolds shall be approved either separately for each component part or as an assembled unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section fuel-gas cylinders connected to one manifold inside a building shall be limited to a total capacity not exceeding 300 pounds (135.9 kg) of liquefied petroleum gas or 3,000 cubic feet (84 m 
<SU>3</SU>) of other fuel-gas. More than one such manifold with connected cylinders may be located in the same room provided the manifolds are at least 50 feet (15 m) apart or separated by a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet (1.5 m) high having a fire-resistance rating of at least one-half hour.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fuel-gas cylinders connected to one manifold having an aggregate capacity exceeding 300 pounds (135.9 kg) of liquefied petroleum gas or 3,000 cubic feet (84 m 
<SU>3</SU>) of other fuel-gas shall be located outdoors, or in a separate building or room constructed in accordance with paragraphs (f)(6)(i)(H) and (f)(6)(i)(I) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Separate manifold buildings or rooms may also be used for the storage of drums of calcium carbide and cylinders containing fuel gases as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. Such buildings or rooms shall have no open flames for heating or lighting and shall be well-ventilated.
</P>
<P>(v) High-pressure fuel-gas manifolds shall be provided with approved pressure regulating devices.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-pressure oxygen manifolds (for use with cylinders having a Department of Transportation service pressure above 200 psig (1.36 MPa)).</I> (i) Manifolds shall be approved either separately for each component part or as an assembled unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) Oxygen manifolds shall not be located in an acetylene generator room. Oxygen manifolds shall be separated from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials (especially oil or grease), a minimum distance of 20 feet (6.1 m) or by a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet (1.5 m) high having a fire-resistance rating of at least one-half hour.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section, oxygen cylinders connected to one manifold shall be limited to a total gas capacity of 6,000 cubic feet (168 m 
<SU>3</SU>). More than one such manifold with connected cylinders may be located in the same room provided the manifolds are at least 50 feet (15 m) apart or separated by a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet (1.5 m) high having a fire-resistance rating of at least one-half hour.
</P>
<P>(iv) An oxygen manifold, to which cylinders having an aggregate capacity of more than 6,000 cubic feet (168 m 
<SU>3</SU>) of oxygen are connected, should be located outdoors or in a separate noncombustible building. Such a manifold, if located inside a building having other occupancy, shall be located in a separate room of noncombustible construction having a fire-resistance rating of at least one-half hour or in an area with no combustible material within 20 feet (6.1 m) of the manifold.
</P>
<P>(v) An oxygen manifold or oxygen bulk supply system which has storage capacity of more than 13,000 cubic feet (364 m 
<SU>3</SU>) of oxygen (measured at 14.7 psia (101 kPa) and 70 °F (21.1 °C)), connected in service or ready for service, or more than 25,000 cubic feet (700 m 
<SU>3</SU>) of oxygen (measured at 14.7 psia (101 kPa) and 70 °F (21.1 °C)), including unconnected reserves on hand at the site, shall comply with the provisions of the Standard for Bulk Oxygen Systems at Consumer Sites, NFPA No. 566-1965.
</P>
<P>(vi) High-pressure oxygen manifolds shall be provided with approved pressure-regulating devices.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Low-pressure oxygen manifolds (for use with cylinders having a Department of Transportation service pressure not exceeding 200 psig (1.36 MPa)).</I> (i) Manifolds shall be of substantial construction suitable for use with oxygen at a pressure of 250 psig (1.7 MPa). They shall have a minimum bursting pressure of 1,000 psig (6.8 MPa) and shall be protected by a safety relief device which will relieve at a maximum pressure of 500 psig (3.4 MPa). DOT-4L200 cylinders have safety devices which relieve at a maximum pressure of 250 psig (1.7 MPa) (or 235 psig (1.6 MPa) if vacuum insulation is used).
</P>
<P>(ii) Hose and hose connections subject to cylinder pressure shall comply with paragraph (e)(5) of this section. Hose shall have a minimum bursting pressure of 1,000 psig (6.8 MPa).
</P>
<P>(iii) The assembled manifold including leads shall be tested and proven gas-tight at a pressure of 300 psig (2.04 MPa). The fluid used for testing oxygen manifolds shall be oil-free and not combustible.
</P>
<P>(iv) The location of manifolds shall comply with paragraphs (c)(2)(ii), (c)(2)(iii), (c)(2)(iv), and (c)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The following sign shall be conspicuously posted at each manifold:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Low-Pressure Manifold
</HD3>
<HD3>Do Not Connect High-Pressure Cylinders
</HD3>
<HD3>Maximum Pressure—250 psig (1.7 MPa)</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Portable outlet headers.</I> (i) Portable outlet headers shall not be used indoors except for temporary service where the conditions preclude a direct supply from outlets located on the service piping system.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each outlet on the service piping from which oxygen or fuel-gas is withdrawn to supply a portable outlet header shall be equipped with a readily accessible shutoff valve.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hose and hose connections used for connecting the portable outlet header to the service piping shall comply with paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Master shutoff valves for both oxygen and fuel-gas shall be provided at the entry end of the portable outlet header.
</P>
<P>(v) Portable outlet headers for fuel-gas service shall be provided with an approved hydraulic back-pressure valve installed at the inlet and preceding the service outlets, unless an approved pressure-reducing regulator, an approved back-flow check valve, or an approved hydraulic back-pressure valve is installed at each outlet. Outlets provided on headers for oxygen service may be fitted for use with pressure-reducing regulators or for direct hose connection.
</P>
<P>(vi) Each service outlet on portable outlet headers shall be provided with a valve assembly that includes a detachable outlet seal cap, chained or otherwise attached to the body of the valve.
</P>
<P>(vii) Materials and fabrication procedures for portable outlet headers shall comply with paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2), and (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Portable outlet headers shall be provided with frames which will support the equipment securely in the correct operating position and protect them from damage during handling and operation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Manifold operation procedures.</I> (i) Cylinder manifolds shall be installed under the supervision of someone familiar with the proper practices with reference to their construction and use.
</P>
<P>(ii) All manifolds and parts used in methods of manifolding shall be used only for the gas or gases for which they are approved.
</P>
<P>(iii) When acetylene cylinders are coupled, approved flash arresters shall be installed between each cylinder and the coupler block. For outdoor use only, and when the number of cylinders coupled does not exceed three, one flash arrester installed between the coupler block and regulator is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The aggregate capacity of fuel-gas cylinders connected to a portable manifold inside a building shall not exceed 3,000 cubic feet (84 m 
<SU>3</SU>) of gas.
</P>
<P>(v) Acetylene and liquefied fuel-gas cylinders shall be manifolded in a vertical position.
</P>
<P>(vi) The pressure in the gas cylinders connected to and discharged simultaneously through a common manifold shall be approximately equal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service piping systems</I>—(1) <I>Materials and design.</I> (i)(A) Piping and fittings shall comply with section 2, Industrial Gas and Air Piping Systems, of the American National Standard Code for Pressure Piping ANSI B31.1, 1967, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, insofar as it does not conflict with paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (d)(1)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Pipe shall be at least Schedule 40 and fittings shall be at least standard weight in sizes up to and including 6-inch nominal.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Copper tubing shall be Types K or L in accordance with the Standard Specification for Seamless Copper Water Tube, ASTM B88-66a, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(B) Piping shall be steel, wrought iron, brass or copper pipe, or seamless copper, brass or stainless steel tubing, except as provided in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) and (d)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Oxygen piping and fittings at pressures in excess of 700 psi (4.8 MPa), shall be stainless steel or copper alloys.
</P>
<P>(B) Hose connections and hose complying with paragraph (e)(5) of this section may be used to connect the outlet of a manifold pressure regulator to piping providing the working pressure of the piping is 250 psi (1.7 MPa) or less and the length of the hose does not exceed 5 feet (1.5 m). Hose shall have a minimum bursting pressure of 1,000 psig (6.8 MPa).
</P>
<P>(C) When oxygen is supplied to a service piping system from a low-pressure oxygen manifold without an intervening pressure regulating device, the piping system shall have a minimum design pressure of 250 psig (1.7 MPa). A pressure regulating device shall be used at each station outlet when the connected equipment is for use at pressures less than 250 psig (1.7 MPa).
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Piping for acetylene or acetylenic compounds shall be steel or wrought iron.
</P>
<P>(B) Unalloyed copper shall not be used for acetylene or acetylenic compounds except in listed equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Piping joints.</I> (i) Joints in steel or wrought iron piping shall be welded, threaded or flanged. Fittings, such as ells, tees, couplings, and unions, may be rolled, forged or cast steel, malleable iron or nodular iron. Gray or white cast iron fittings are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(ii) Joints in brass or copper pipe shall be welded, brazed, threaded, or flanged. If of the socket type, they shall be brazed with silver-brazing alloy or similar high melting point (not less than 800 °F (427 °C)) filler metal.
</P>
<P>(iii) Joints in seamless copper, brass, or stainless steel tubing shall be approved gas tubing fittings or the joints shall be brazed. If of the socket type, they shall be brazed with silver-brazing alloy or similar high melting point (not less than 800 °F (427 °C)) filler metal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Installation.</I> (i) Distribution lines shall be installed and maintained in a safe operating condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) All piping shall be run as directly as practicable, protected against physical damage, proper allowance being made for expansion and contraction, jarring and vibration. Pipe laid underground in earth shall be located below the frost line and protected against corrosion. After assembly, piping shall be thoroughly blown out with air, nitrogen, or carbon dioxide to remove foreign materials. For oxygen piping, only oil-free air, oil-free nitrogen, or oil-free carbon dioxide shall be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Only piping which has been welded or brazed shall be installed in tunnels, trenches or ducts. Shutoff valves shall be located outside such conduits. Oxygen piping may be placed in the same tunnel, trench or duct with fuel-gas pipelines, provided there is good natural or forced ventilation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Low points in piping carrying moist gas shall be drained into drip pots constructed so as to permit pumping or draining out the condensate at necessary intervals. Drain valves shall be installed for this purpose having outlets normally closed with screw caps or plugs. No open end valves or petcocks shall be used, except that in drips located out of doors, underground, and not readily accessible, valves may be used at such points if they are equipped with means to secure them in the closed position. Pipes leading to the surface of the ground shall be cased or jacketed where necessary to prevent loosening or breaking.
</P>
<P>(v) Gas cocks or valves shall be provided for all buildings at points where they will be readily accessible for shutting off the gas supply to these buildings in any emergency. There shall also be provided a shutoff valve in the discharge line from the generator, gas holder, manifold or other source of supply.
</P>
<P>(vi) Shutoff valves shall not be installed in safety relief lines in such a manner that the safety relief device can be rendered ineffective.
</P>
<P>(vii) Fittings and lengths of pipe shall be examined internally before assembly and, if necessary freed from scale or dirt. Oxygen piping and fittings shall be washed out with a suitable solution which will effectively remove grease and dirt but will not react with oxygen. Hot water solutions of caustic soda or trisodium phosphate are effective cleaning agents for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(viii) Piping shall be thoroughly blown out after assembly to remove foreign materials. For oxygen piping, oil-free air, oil-free nitrogen, or oil-free carbon dioxide shall be used. For other piping, air or inert gas may be used.
</P>
<P>(ix) When flammable gas lines or other parts of equipment are being purged of air or gas, open lights or other sources of ignition shall not be permitted near uncapped openings.
</P>
<P>(x) No welding or cutting shall be performed on an acetylene or oxygen pipeline, including the attachment of hangers or supports, until the line has been purged. Only oil-free air, oil-free nitrogen, or oil-free carbon dioxide shall be used to purge oxygen lines.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Painting and signs.</I> (i) Underground pipe and tubing and outdoor ferrous pipe and tubing shall be covered or painted with a suitable material for protection against corrosion.
</P>
<P>(ii) Aboveground piping systems shall be marked in accordance with the American National Standard Scheme for the Identification of Piping Systems, ANSI A13.1−1956, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iii) Station outlets shall be marked to indicate the name of the gas.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Testing.</I> (i) Piping systems shall be tested and proved gastight at 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times the maximum operating pressure, and shall be thoroughly purged of air before being placed in service. The material used for testing oxygen lines shall be oil free and noncombustible. Flames shall not be used to detect leaks.
</P>
<P>(ii) When flammable gas lines or other parts of equipment are being purged of air or gas, sources of ignition shall not be permitted near uncapped openings.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protective equipment, hose, and regulators</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Equipment shall be installed and used only in the service for which it is approved and as recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pressure relief devices.</I> Service piping systems shall be protected by pressure relief devices set to function at not more than the design pressure of the systems and discharging upwards to a safe location.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Piping protective equipment.</I> (i) The fuel-gas and oxygen piping systems, including portable outlet headers shall incorporate the protective equipment shown in Figures Q-1, Q-2, and Q-3. When only a portion of a fuel-gas system is to be used with oxygen, only that portion need comply with this paragraph (e)(3)(i).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.084.gif"/>
<P>(ii) Approved protective equipment (designated P<E T="52">F</E> in Figures Q-1, Q-2, and Q-3) shall be installed in fuel-gas piping to prevent:
</P>
<P>(A) Backflow of oxygen into the fuel-gas supply system;
</P>
<P>(B) Passage of a flash back into the fuel-gas supply system; and
</P>
<P>(C) Excessive back pressure of oxygen in the fuel-gas supply system. The three functions of the protective equipment may be combined in one device or may be provided by separate devices.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The protective equipment shall be located in the main supply line, as in Figure Q-1 or at the head of each branch line, as in Figure Q-2 or at each location where fuel-gas is withdrawn, as in Figure Q-3. Where branch lines are of 2-inch pipe size or larger or of substantial length, protective equipment (designated as P<E T="52">F</E>) shall be located as shown in either Q-2 and Q-3.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Backflow protection shall be provided by an approved device that will prevent oxygen from flowing into the fuel-gas system or fuel from flowing into the oxygen system (see S<E T="52">F</E>, Figures Q-1 and Q-2).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Flash-back protection shall be provided by an approved device that will prevent flame from passing into the fuel-gas system.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Back-pressure protection shall be provided by an approved pressure-relief device set at a pressure not greater than the pressure rating of the backflow or the flashback protection device, whichever is lower. The pressure-relief device shall be located on the downstream side of the backflow and flashback protection devices. The vent from the pressure-relief device shall be at least as large as the relief device inlet and shall be installed without low points that may collect moisture. If low points are unavoidable, drip pots with drains closed with screw plugs or caps shall be installed at the low points. The vent terminus shall not endanger personnel or property through gas discharge; shall be located away from ignition sources; and shall terminate in a hood or bend.
</P>
<P>(iii) If pipeline protective equipment incorporates a liquid, the liquid level shall be maintained, and a suitable antifreeze may be used to prevent freezing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fuel gas for use with equipment not requiring oxygen shall be withdrawn upstream of the piping protective devices.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Station outlet protective equipment.</I> (i) A check valve, pressure regulator, hydraulic seal, or combination of these devices shall be provided at each station outlet, including those on portable headers, to prevent backflow, as shown in Figures Q-1, Q-2, and Q-3 and designated as S<E T="52">F</E> and S<E T="52">O</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) When approved pipeline protective equipment (designated P<E T="52">F</E>) is located at the station outlet as in Figure Q-3, no additional check valve, pressure regulator, or hydraulic seal is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) A shutoff valve (designated V<E T="52">F</E> and V<E T="52">O</E>) shall be installed at each station outlet and shall be located on the upstream side of other station outlet equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the station outlet is equipped with a detachable regulator, the outlet shall terminate in a union connection that complies with the Regulator Connection Standards, 1958, Compressed Gas Association, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(v) If the station outlet is connected directly to a hose, the outlet shall terminate in a union connection complying with the Standard Hose Connection Specifications, 1957, Compressed Gas Association, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(vi) Station outlets may terminate in pipe threads to which permanent connections are to be made, such as to a machine.
</P>
<P>(vii) Station outlets shall be equipped with a detachable outlet seal cap secured in place. This cap shall be used to seal the outlet except when a hose, a regulator, or piping is attached.
</P>
<P>(viii) Where station outlets are equipped with approved backflow and flashback protective devices, as many as four torches may be supplied from one station outlet through rigid piping, provided each outlet from such piping is equipped with a shutoff valve and provided the fuel-gas capacity of any one torch does not exceed 15 cubic feet (0.42 m
<SU>3</SU>) per hour. This paragraph (e)(4)(viii) does not apply to machines.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hose and hose connections.</I> (i) Hose for oxy-fuel gas service shall comply with the Specification for Rubber Welding Hose, 1958, Compressed Gas Association and Rubber Manufacturers Association, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) When parallel lengths of oxygen and acetylene hose are taped together for convenience and to prevent tangling, not more than 4 inches (10.2 cm) out of 12 inches (30.5 cm) shall be covered by tape.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hose connections shall comply with the Standard Hose Connection Specifications, 1957, Compressed Gas Association.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hose connections shall be clamped or otherwise securely fastened in a manner that will withstand, without leakage, twice the pressure to which they are normally subjected in service, but in no case less than a pressure of 300 psi (2.04 MPa). Oil-free air or an oil-free inert gas shall be used for the test.
</P>
<P>(v) Hose showing leaks, burns, worn places, or other defects rendering it unfit for service shall be repaired or replaced.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Pressure-reducing regulators.</I> (i) Pressure-reducing regulators shall be used only for the gas and pressures for which they are intended. The regulator inlet connections shall comply with Regulator Connection Standards, 1958, Compressed Gas Association.
</P>
<P>(ii) When regulators or parts of regulators, including gages, need repair, the work shall be performed by skilled mechanics who have been properly instructed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Gages on oxygen regulators shall be marked “USE NO OIL.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Union nuts and connections on regulators shall be inspected before use to detect faulty seats which may cause leakage of gas when the regulators are attached to the cylinder valves.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acetylene generators</I>—(1) <I>Approval and marking.</I> (i) Generators shall be of approved construction and shall be plainly marked with the maximum rate of acetylene in cubic feet per hour for which they are designed; the weight and size of carbide necessary for a single charge; the manufacturer's name and address; and the name or number of the type of generator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Carbide shall be of the size marked on the generator nameplate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rating and pressure limitations.</I> (i) The total hourly output of a generator shall not exceed the rate for which it is approved and marked. Unless specifically approved for higher ratings, carbide-feed generators shall be rated at 1 cubic foot (0.028 m
<SU>3</SU>) per hour per pound of carbide required for a single complete charge.
</P>
<P>(ii) Relief valves shall be regularly operated to insure proper functioning. Relief valves for generating chambers shall be set to open at a pressure not in excess of 15 psig (103 kPa gauge pressure). Relief valves for hydraulic back pressure valves shall be set to open at a pressure not in excess of 20 psig (137 kPa gauge pressure).
</P>
<P>(iii) Nonautomatic generators shall not be used for generating acetylene at pressures exceeding l psig (7 kPa gauge pressure), and all water overflows shall be visible.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Location.</I> The space around the generator shall be ample for free, unobstructed operation and maintenance and shall permit ready adjustment and charging.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stationary acetylene generators (automatic and nonautomatic).</I> (i)(A) The foundation shall be so arranged that the generator will be level and so that no excessive strain will be placed on the generator or its connections. Acetylene generators shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(B) Generators shall be placed where water will not freeze. The use of common salt (sodium chloride) or other corrosive chemicals for protection against freezing is not permitted. (For heating systems see paragraph (f)(6)(iii) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(C) Except when generators are prepared in accordance with paragraph (f)(7)(v) of this section, sources of ignition shall be prohibited in outside generator houses or inside generator rooms.
</P>
<P>(D) Water shall not be supplied through a continuous connection to the generator except when the generator is provided with an adequate open overflow or automatic water shutoff which will effectively prevent overfilling of the generator. Where a noncontinuous connection is used, the supply line shall terminate at a point not less than 2 inches (5 cm) above the regularly provided opening for filling so that the water can be observed as it enters the generator.
</P>
<P>(E) Unless otherwise specifically approved, generators shall not be fitted with continuous drain connections leading to sewers, but shall discharge through an open connection into a suitably vented outdoor receptacle or residue pit which may have such connections. An open connection for the sludge drawoff is desirable to enable the generator operator to observe leakage of generating water from the drain valve or sludge cock.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Each generator shall be provided with a vent pipe.
</P>
<P>(B) The escape or relief pipe shall be rigidly installed without traps and so that any condensation will drain back to the generator.
</P>
<P>(C) The escape or relief pipe shall be carried full size to a suitable point outside the building. It shall terminate in a hood or bend located at least 12 feet (3.7 m) above the ground, preferably above the roof, and as far away as practicable from windows or other openings into buildings and as far away as practicable from sources of ignition such as flues or chimneys and tracks used by locomotives. Generating chamber relief pipes shall not be inter-connected but shall be separately led to the outside air. The hood or bend shall be so constructed that it will not be obstructed by rain, snow, ice, insects, or birds. The outlet shall be at least 3 feet (0.9 m) from combustible construction.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Gas holders shall be constructed on the gasometer principle, the bell being suitably guided. The gas bell shall move freely without tendency to bind and shall have a clearance of at least 2 inches (5 cm) from the shell.
</P>
<P>(B) The gas holder may be located in the generator room, in a separate room or out of doors. In order to prevent collapse of the gas bell or infiltration of air due to a vacuum caused by the compressor or booster pump or cooling of the gas, a compressor or booster cutoff shall be provided at a point 12 inches (0.3 m) or more above the landing point of the bell. When the gas holder is located indoors, the room shall be ventilated in accordance with paragraph (f)(6)(ii) of this section and heated and lighted in accordance with paragraphs (f)(6)(iii) and (f)(6)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) When the gas holder is not located within a heated building, gas holder seals shall be protected against freezing.
</P>
<P>(D) Means shall be provided to stop the generator-feeding mechanism before the gas holder reaches the upper limit of its travel.
</P>
<P>(E) When the gas holder is connected to only one generator, the gas capacity of the holder shall be not less than one-third of the hourly rating of the generator.
</P>
<P>(F) If acetylene is used from the gas holder without increase in pressure at some points but with increase in pressure by a compressor or booster pump at other points, approved piping protective devices shall be installed in each supply line. The low-pressure protective device shall be located between the gas holder and the shop piping, and the medium-pressure protective device shall be located between the compressor or booster pump and the shop piping (see Figure Q-4). Approved protective equipment (designated P<E T="52">F</E>) is used to prevent: Backflow of oxygen into the fuel-gas supply system; passage of a flashback into the fuel-gas supply system; and excessive back pressure of oxygen in the fuel-gas supply system. The three functions of the protective equipment may be combined in one device or may be provided by separate devices.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27oc91.085.gif"/>
<P>(iv)(A) The compressor or booster system shall be of an approved type.
</P>
<P>(B) Wiring and electric equipment in compressor or booster pump rooms or enclosures shall conform to the provisions of subpart S of this part for Class I, Division 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(C) Compressors and booster pump equipment shall be located in well-ventilated areas away from open flames, electrical or mechanical sparks, or other ignition sources.
</P>
<P>(D) Compressor or booster pumps shall be provided with pressure relief valves which will relieve pressure exceeding 15 psig (103 kPa gauge pressure) to a safe outdoor location as provided in paragraph (f)(4)(ii) of this section, or by returning the gas to the inlet side or to the gas supply source.
</P>
<P>(E) Compressor or booster pump discharge outlets shall be provided with approved protective equipment. (See paragraph (e) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Portable acetylene generators.</I> (i)(A) All portable generators shall be of a type approved for portable use.
</P>
<P>(B) Portable generators shall not be used within 10 feet (3 m) of combustible material other than the floor.
</P>
<P>(C) Portable generators shall not be used in rooms of total volume less than 35 times the total gas-generating capacity per charge of all generators in the room. Generators shall not be used in rooms having a ceiling height of less than 10 feet (3 m). (To obtain the gas-generating capacity in cubic feet per charge, multiply the pounds of carbide per charge by 4.5.)
</P>
<P>(D) Portable generators shall be protected against freezing. The use of salt or other corrosive chemical to prevent freezing is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Portable generators shall be cleaned and recharged and the air mixture blown off outside buildings.
</P>
<P>(B) When charged with carbide, portable generators shall not be moved by crane or derrick.
</P>
<P>(C) When not in use, portable generators shall not be stored in rooms in which open flames are used unless the generators contain no carbide and have been thoroughly purged of acetylene. Storage rooms shall be well ventilated.
</P>
<P>(D) When portable acetylene generators are to be transported and operated on vehicles, they shall be securely anchored to the vehicles. If transported by truck, the motor shall be turned off during charging, cleaning, and generating periods.
</P>
<P>(E) Portable generators shall be located at a safe distance from the welding position so that they will not be exposed to sparks, slag, or misdirection of the torch flame or overheating from hot materials or processes.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Outside generator houses and inside generator rooms for stationary acetylene generators.</I> (i)(A) No opening in any outside generator house shall be located within 5 feet (1.5 m) of any opening in another building.
</P>
<P>(B) Walls, floors, and roofs of outside generator houses shall be of noncombustible construction.
</P>
<P>(C) When a part of the generator house is to be used for the storage or manifolding of oxygen cylinders, the space to be so occupied shall be separated from the generator or carbide storage section by partition walls continuous from floor to roof or ceiling, of the type of construction stated in paragraph (f)(6)(i)(H) of this section. Such separation walls shall be without openings and shall be joined to the floor, other walls and ceiling or roof in a manner to effect a permanent gas-tight joint.
</P>
<P>(D) Exit doors shall be located so as to be readily accessible in case of emergency.
</P>
<P>(E) Explosion venting for outside generator houses and inside generator rooms shall be provided in exterior walls or roofs. The venting areas shall be equal to not less than 1 square foot (0.09 m
<SU>2</SU>) per 50 cubic feet (1.4 m
<SU>3</SU>) of room volume and may consist of any one or any combination of the following: Walls of light, noncombustible material preferably single-thickness, single-strength glass; lightly fastened hatch covers; lightly fastened swinging doors in exterior walls opening outward; lightly fastened walls or roof designed to relieve at a maximum pressure of 25 pounds per square foot (0.001 MPa).
</P>
<P>(F) The installation of acetylene generators within buildings shall be restricted to buildings not exceeding one story in height; <I>provided, however,</I> that this will not be construed as prohibiting such installations on the roof or top floor of a building exceeding such height.
</P>
<P>(G) Generators installed inside buildings shall be enclosed in a separate room.
</P>
<P>(H) The walls, partitions, floors, and ceilings of inside generator rooms shall be of noncombustible construction having a fire-resistance rating of at least 1 hour. The walls or partitions shall be continuous from floor to ceiling and shall be securely anchored. At least one wall of the room shall be an exterior wall.
</P>
<P>(I) Openings from an inside generator room to other parts of the building shall be protected by a swinging type, self-closing fire door for a Class B opening and having a rating of at least 1 hour. Windows in partitions shall be wired glass and approved metal frames with fixed sash. Installation shall be in accordance with the Standard for the Installation of Fire Doors and Windows, NFPA 80-1970, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inside generator rooms or outside generator houses shall be well ventilated with vents located at floor and ceiling levels.
</P>
<P>(iii) Heating shall be by steam, hot water, enclosed electrically heated elements or other indirect means. Heating by flames or fires shall be prohibited in outside generator houses or inside generator rooms, or in any enclosure communicating with them.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) Generator houses or rooms shall have natural light during daylight hours. Where artificial lighting is necessary it shall be restricted to electric lamps installed in a fixed position. Unless specifically approved for use in atmospheres containing acetylene, such lamps shall be provided with enclosures of glass or other noncombustible material so designed and constructed as to prevent gas vapors from reaching the lamp or socket and to resist breakage. Rigid conduit with threaded connections shall be used.
</P>
<P>(B) Lamps installed outside of wired-glass panels set in gas-tight frames in the exterior walls or roof of the generator house or room are acceptable.
</P>
<P>(v) Electric switches, telephones, and all other electrical apparatus which may cause a spark, unless specifically approved for use inside acetylene generator rooms, shall be located outside the generator house or in a room or space separated from the generator room by a gas-tight partition, except that where the generator system is designed so that no carbide fill opening or other part of the generator is open to the generator house or room during the operation of the generator, and so that residue is carried in closed piping from the residue discharge valve to a point outside the generator house or room, electrical equipment in the generator house or room shall conform to the provisions of subpart S of this part for Class I, Division 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Maintenance and operation.</I> (i) Unauthorized persons shall not be permitted in outside generator houses or inside generator rooms.
</P>
<P>(A) Operating instructions shall be posted in a conspicuous place near the generator or kept in a suitable place available for ready reference.
</P>
<P>(B) When recharging generators the order of operations specified in the instructions supplied by the manufacturer shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of batch-type generators, when the charge of carbide is exhausted and before additional carbide is added, the generating chamber shall always be flushed out with water, renewing the water supply in accordance with the instruction card furnished by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(D) The water-carbide residue mixture drained from the generator shall not be discharged into sewer pipes or stored in areas near open flames. Clear water from residue settling pits may be discharged into sewer pipes.
</P>
<P>(ii) The carbide added each time the generator is recharged shall be sufficient to refill the space provided for carbide without ramming the charge. Steel or other ferrous tools shall not be used in distributing the charge.
</P>
<P>(iii) Generator water chambers shall be kept filled to proper level at all times except while draining during the recharging operation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whenever repairs are to be made or the generator is to be charged or carbide is to be removed, the water chamber shall be filled to the proper level.
</P>
<P>(v) Previous to making repairs involving welding, soldering, or other hot work or other operations which produce a source of ignition, the carbide charge and feed mechanism shall be completely removed. All acetylene shall be expelled by completely flooding the generator shell with water and the generator shall be disconnected from the piping system. The generator shall be kept filled with water, if possible, or positioned to hold as much water as possible.
</P>
<P>(vi) Hot repairs shall not be made in a room where there are other generators unless all the generators and piping have been purged of acetylene.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Calcium carbide storage</I>—(1) <I>Packaging.</I> (i) Calcium carbide shall be contained in metal packages of sufficient strength to prevent rupture. The packages shall be provided with a screw top or equivalent. These packages shall be constructed water- and air-tight. Solder shall not be used in such a manner that the package would fail if exposed to fire.
</P>
<P>(ii) Packages containing calcium carbide shall be conspicuously marked “Calcium Carbide—Dangerous If Not Kept Dry” or with equivalent warning.
</P>
<P>(iii) Caution: Metal tools, even the so-called spark resistant type may cause ignition of an acetylene and air mixture when opening carbide containers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Sprinkler systems shall not be installed in carbide storage rooms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Storage indoors.</I> (i) Calcium carbide in quantities not to exceed 600 pounds (272.2 kg) may be stored indoors in dry, waterproof, and well-ventilated locations.
</P>
<P>(A) Calcium carbide not exceeding 600 pounds (272.2 kg) may be stored indoors in the same room with fuel-gas cylinders.
</P>
<P>(B) Packages of calcium carbide, except for one of each size, shall be kept sealed. The seals shall not be broken when there is carbide in excess of 1 pound (0.5 kg) in any other unsealed package of the same size of carbide in the room.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calcium carbide exceeding 600 pounds (272.2 kg) but not exceeding 5,000 pounds (2,268 kg) shall be stored:
</P>
<P>(A) In accordance with paragraph (g)(2)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) In an inside generator room or outside generator house; or
</P>
<P>(C) In a separate room in a one-story building which may contain other occupancies, but without cellar or basement beneath the carbide storage section. Such rooms shall be constructed in accordance with paragraphs (f)(6)(i)(H) and (f)(6)(i)(I) of this section and ventilated in accordance with paragraph (f)(6)(ii) of this section. These rooms shall be used for no other purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) Calcium carbide in excess of 5,000 pounds (2,268 kg) shall be stored in one-story buildings without cellar or basement and used for no other purpose, or in outside generator houses. If the storage building is of noncombustible construction, it may adjoin other one-story buildings if separated therefrom by unpierced firewalls; if it is detached less than 10 feet (3 m) from such building or buildings, there shall be no opening in any of the mutually exposing sides of such buildings within 10 feet (3 m). If the storage building is of combustible construction, it shall be at least 20 feet (6.1 m) from any other one- or two-story building, and at least 30 feet (9.1 m) from any other building exceeding two stories.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Storage outdoors.</I> (i) Calcium carbide in unopened metal containers may be stored outdoors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Carbide containers to be stored outdoors shall be examined to make sure that they are in good condition. Periodic reexaminations shall be made for rusting or other damage to a container that might affect its water or air tightness.
</P>
<P>(iii) The bottom tier of each row shall be placed on wooden planking or equivalent, so that the containers will not come in contact with the ground or ground water.
</P>
<P>(iv) Containers of carbide which have been in storage the longest shall be used first.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 13696, Apr. 11, 1990, as amended at 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 55 FR 46053, Nov. 1, 1990; 61 FR 9241, Mar. 7, 1996; 72 FR 71070, Dec. 14, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.254" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.17.37.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.254   Arc welding and cutting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Equipment selection.</I> Welding equipment shall be chosen for safe application to the work to be done as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation.</I> Welding equipment shall be installed safely as specified by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Instruction.</I> Workmen designated to operate arc welding equipment shall have been properly instructed and qualified to operate such equipment as specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of arc welding equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Assurance of consideration of safety in design is obtainable by choosing apparatus complying with the Requirements for Electric Arc-Welding Apparatus, NEMA EW-1-1962, National Electrical Manufacturers Association or the Safety Standard for Transformer-Type Arc-Welding Machines, ANSI C33.2—1956, Underwriters' Laboratories, both of which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Environmental conditions.</I> (i) Standard machines for arc welding service shall be designed and constructed to carry their rated load with rated temperature rises where the temperature of the cooling air does not exceed 40 °C (104 °F) and where the altitude does not exceed 3,300 feet (1,005.8 m), and shall be suitable for operation in atmospheres containing gases, dust, and light rays produced by the welding arc.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unusual service conditions may exist, and in such circumstances machines shall be especially designed to safely meet the requirements of the service. Chief among these conditions are:
</P>
<P>(A) Exposure to unusually corrosive fumes.
</P>
<P>(B) Exposure to steam or excessive humidity.
</P>
<P>(C) Exposure to excessive oil vapor.
</P>
<P>(D) Exposure to flammable gases.
</P>
<P>(E) Exposure to abnormal vibration or shock.
</P>
<P>(F) Exposure to excessive dust.
</P>
<P>(G) Exposure to weather.
</P>
<P>(H) Exposure to unusual seacoast or shipboard conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Voltage.</I> The following limits shall not be exceeded:
</P>
<P>(i) Alternating-current machines
</P>
<P>(A) Manual arc welding and cutting—80 volts.
</P>
<P>(B) Automatic (machine or mechanized) arc welding and cutting—100 volts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Direct-current machines
</P>
<P>(A) Manual arc welding and cutting—100 volts.
</P>
<P>(B) Automatic (machine or mechanized) arc welding and cutting-100 volts.
</P>
<P>(iii) When special welding and cutting processes require values of open circuit voltages higher than the above, means shall be provided to prevent the operator from making accidental contact with the high voltage by adequate insulation or other means.
</P>
<P>(iv) For a.c. welding under wet conditions or warm surroundings where perspiration is a factor, the use of reliable automatic controls for reducing no load voltage is recommended to reduce the shock hazard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Design.</I> (i) A controller integrally mounted in an electric motor driven welder shall have capacity for carrying rated motor current, shall be capable of making and interrupting stalled rotor current of the motor, and may serve as the running overcurrent device if provided with the number of overcurrent units as specified by subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) On all types of arc welding machines, control apparatus shall be enclosed except for the operating wheels, levers, or handles.
</P>
<P>(iii) Input power terminals, tap change devices and live metal parts connected to input circuits shall be completely enclosed and accessible only by means of tools.
</P>
<P>(iv) Terminals for welding leads should be protected from accidental electrical contact by personnel or by metal objects, i.e., vehicles, crane hooks, etc. Protection may be obtained by use of: Dead-front receptacles for plug connections; recessed openings with nonremovable hinged covers; heavy insulating sleeving or taping or other equivalent electrical and mechanical protection. If a welding lead terminal which is intended to be used exclusively for connection to the work is connected to the grounded enclosure, it must be done by a conductor at least two AWG sizes smaller than the grounding conductor and the terminal shall be marked to indicate that it is grounded.
</P>
<P>(v) No connections for portable control devices such as push buttons to be carried by the operator shall be connected to an a.c. circuit of higher than 120 volts. Exposed metal parts of portable control devices operating on circuits above 50 volts shall be grounded by a grounding conductor in the control cable.
</P>
<P>(vi) Auto transformers or a.c. reactors shall not be used to draw welding current directly from any a.c. power source having a voltage exceeding 80 volts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Installation of arc welding equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Installation including power supply shall be in accordance with the requirements of subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Grounding.</I> (i) The frame or case of the welding machine (except engine-driven machines) shall be grounded under the conditions and according to the methods prescribed in subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduits containing electrical conductors shall not be used for completing a work-lead circuit. Pipelines shall not be used as a permanent part of a work-lead circuit, but may be used during construction, extension or repair providing current is not carried through threaded joints, flanged bolted joints, or caulked joints and that special precautions are used to avoid sparking at connection of the work-lead cable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Chains, wire ropes, cranes, hoists, and elevators shall not be used to carry welding current.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where a structure, conveyor, or fixture is regularly employed as a welding current return circuit, joints shall be bonded or provided with adequate current collecting devices.
</P>
<P>(v) All ground connections shall be checked to determine that they are mechanically strong and electrically adequate for the required current.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Supply connections and conductors.</I> (i) A disconnecting switch or controller shall be provided at or near each welding machine which is not equipped with such a switch or controller mounted as an integral part of the machine. The switch shall be in accordance with subpart S of this part. Overcurrent protection shall be provided as specified in subpart S of this part. A disconnect switch with overload protection or equivalent disconnect and protection means, permitted by subpart S of this part, shall be provided for each outlet intended for connection to a portable welding machine.
</P>
<P>(ii) For individual welding machines, the rated current-carrying capacity of the supply conductors shall be not less than the rated primary current of the welding machines.
</P>
<P>(iii) For groups of welding machines, the rated current-carrying capacity of conductors may be less than the sum of the rated primary currents of the welding machines supplied. The conductor rating shall be determined in each case according to the machine loading based on the use to be made of each welding machine and the allowance permissible in the event that all the welding machines supplied by the conductors will not be in use at the same time.
</P>
<P>(iv) In operations involving several welders on one structure, d.c. welding process requirements may require the use of both polarities; or supply circuit limitations for a.c. welding may require distribution of machines among the phases of the supply circuit. In such cases no load voltages between electrode holders will be 2 times normal in d.c. or 1, 1.41, 1.73, or 2 times normal on a.c. machines. Similar voltage differences will exist if both a.c. and d.c. welding are done on the same structure.
</P>
<P>(A) All d.c. machines shall be connected with the same polarity.
</P>
<P>(B) All a.c. machines shall be connected to the same phase of the supply circuit and with the same instantaneous polarity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operation and maintenance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Workers assigned to operate or maintain arc welding equipment shall be acquainted with the requirements of this section and with 1910.252 (a), (b), and (c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Machine hook up.</I> Before starting operations all connections to the machine shall be checked to make certain they are properly made. The work lead shall be firmly attached to the work; magnetic work clamps shall be freed from adherent metal particles of spatter on contact surfaces. Coiled welding cable shall be spread out before use to avoid serious overheating and damage to insulation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Grounding.</I> Grounding of the welding machine frame shall be checked. Special attention shall be given to safety ground connections of portable machines.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Leaks.</I> There shall be no leaks of cooling water, shielding gas or engine fuel.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Switches.</I> It shall be determined that proper switching equipment for shutting down the machine is provided.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Manufacturers' instructions.</I> Printed rules and instructions covering operation of equipment supplied by the manufacturers shall be strictly followed.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Electrode holders.</I> Electrode holders when not in use shall be so placed that they cannot make electrical contact with persons, conducting objects, fuel or compressed gas tanks.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Electric shock.</I> Cables with splices within 10 feet (3 m) of the holder shall not be used. The welder should not coil or loop welding electrode cable around parts of his body.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Maintenance.</I> (i) The operator should report any equipment defect or safety hazard to his supervisor and the use of the equipment shall be discontinued until its safety has been assured. Repairs shall be made only by qualified personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Machines which have become wet shall be thoroughly dried and tested before being used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cables with damaged insulation or exposed bare conductors shall be replaced. Joining lengths of work and electrode cables shall be done by the use of connecting means specifically intended for the purpose. The connecting means shall have insulation adequate for the service conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 13696, Apr. 11, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 9241, Mar. 7, 1996; 70 FR 53929, Sept. 13, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.255" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.17.37.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.255   Resistance welding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Installation.</I> All equipment shall be installed by a qualified electrician in conformance with subpart S of this part. There shall be a safety-type disconnecting switch or a circuit breaker or circuit interrupter to open each power circuit to the machine, conveniently located at or near the machine, so that the power can be shut off when the machine or its controls are to be serviced.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Thermal protection.</I> Ignitron tubes used in resistance welding equipment shall be equipped with a thermal protection switch.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personnel.</I> Workmen designated to operate resistance welding equipment shall have been properly instructed and judged competent to operate such equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Guarding.</I> Controls of all automatic or air and hydraulic clamps shall be arranged or guarded to prevent the operator from accidentally activating them.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Spot and seam welding machines (nonportable)</I>—(1) <I>Voltage.</I> All external weld initiating control circuits shall operate on low voltage, not over 120 volts, for the safety of the operators.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capacitor welding.</I> Stored energy or capacitor discharge type of resistance welding equipment and control panels involving high voltage (over 550 volts) shall be suitably insulated and protected by complete enclosures, all doors of which shall be provided with suitable interlocks and contacts wired into the control circuit (similar to elevator interlocks). Such interlocks or contacts shall be so designed as to effectively interrupt power and short circuit all capacitors when the door or panel is open. A manually operated switch or suitable positive device shall be installed, in addition to the mechanical interlocks or contacts, as an added safety measure assuring absolute discharge of all capacitors.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interlocks.</I> All doors and access panels of all resistance welding machines and control panels shall be kept locked and interlocked to prevent access, by unauthorized persons, to live portions of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Guarding.</I> All press welding machine operations, where there is a possibility of the operator's fingers being under the point of operation, shall be effectively guarded by the use of a device such as an electronic eye safety circuit, two hand controls or protection similar to that prescribed for punch press operation, § 1910.217 of this part. All chains, gears, operating bus linkage, and belts shall be protected by adequate guards, in accordance with § 1910.219 of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shields.</I> The hazard of flying sparks shall be, wherever practical, eliminated by installing a shield guard of safety glass or suitable fire-resistant plastic at the point of operation. Additional shields or curtains shall be installed as necessary to protect passing persons from flying sparks. (See § 1910.252(b)(2)(i)(C) of this part.)
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Foot switches.</I> All foot switches shall be guarded to prevent accidental operation of the machine.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Stop buttons.</I> Two or more safety emergency stop buttons shall be provided on all special multispot welding machines, including 2-post and 4-post weld presses.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Safety pins.</I> On large machines, four safety pins with plugs and receptacles (one in each corner) shall be provided so that when safety pins are removed and inserted in the ram or platen, the press becomes inoperative.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Grounding.</I> Where technically practical, the secondary of all welding transformers used in multispot, projection and seam welding machines shall be grounded. This may be done by permanently grounding one side of the welding secondary current circuit. Where not technically practical, a center tapped grounding reactor connected across the secondary or the use of a safety disconnect switch in conjunction with the welding control are acceptable alternates. Safety disconnect shall be arranged to open both sides of the line when welding current is not present.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Portable welding machines</I>—(1) <I>Counterbalance.</I> All portable welding guns shall have suitable counterbalanced devices for supporting the guns, including cables, unless the design of the gun or fixture makes counterbalancing impractical or unnecessary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safety chains.</I> All portable welding guns, transformers and related equipment that is suspended from overhead structures, eye beams, trolleys, etc., shall be equipped with safety chains or cables. Safety chains or cables shall be capable of supporting the total shock load in the event of failure of any component of the supporting system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Clevis.</I> Each clevis shall be capable of supporting the total shock load of the suspended equipment in the event of trolley failure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Switch guards.</I> All initiating switches, including retraction and dual schedule switches, located on the portable welding gun shall be equipped with suitable guards capable of preventing accidental initiation through contact with fixturing, operator's clothing, etc. Initiating switch voltage shall not exceed 24 volts.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Moving holder.</I> The movable holder, where it enters the gun frame, shall have sufficient clearance to prevent the shearing of fingers carelessly placed on the operating movable holder.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Grounding.</I> The secondary and case of all portable welding transformers shall be grounded. Secondary grounding may be by center tapped secondary or by a center tapped grounding reactor connected across the secondary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Flash welding equipment</I>—(1) <I>Ventilation and flash guard.</I> Flash welding machines shall be equipped with a hood to control flying flash. In cases of high production, where materials may contain a film of oil and where toxic elements and metal fumes are given off, ventilation shall be provided in accordance with § 1910.252(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fire curtains.</I> For the protection of the operators of nearby equipment, fire-resistant curtains or suitable shields shall be set up around the machine and in such a manner that the operators movements are not hampered.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Maintenance.</I> Periodic inspection shall be made by qualified maintenance personnel, and a certification record maintained. The certification record shall include the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection and the serial number, or other identifier, for the equipment inspected. The operator shall be instructed to report any equipment defects to his supervisor and the use of the equipment shall be discontinued until safety repairs have been completed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Special Industries</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.261" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.261   Pulp, paper, and paperboard mills.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to establishments where pulp, paper, and paperboard are manufactured and converted. This section does not apply to logging and the transportation of logs to pulp, paper, and paperboard mills.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards incorporated by reference.</I> Standards covering issues of occupational safety and health which have general application without regard to any specific industry are incorporated by reference in paragraphs (b) through (m) of this section and in subparagraphs (3) and (4) of this paragraph and made applicable under this section. Such standards shall be construed according to the rules set forth in § 1910.5.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>General incorporation of standards.</I> Establishments subject to this section shall comply with the following standards of the American National Standards Institute, which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6:
</P>
<P>(i) Practice for Industrial Lighting, A11.1—1965 (R-1970).
</P>
<P>(ii) Scheme for the Identification of Piping Systems, A13.1—1956.
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety Code for Elevators, Dumbwaiters, and Moving Walks, A17.1—1965, including Supplements A17.1a—1967, A17.1b—1968, A17.1c—1969, and A17.1d—1970.
</P>
<P>(iv) Practice for the Inspection of Elevators (Inspector's Manual), A17.2—1960, including Suppelements A17.2a—1965 and A17.2b—1967.
</P>
<P>(v) Safety Code for Conveyors, Cableways, and Related Equipment, B20.1—1957.
</P>
<P>(vi) Power Piping, B31.1.0—1967 and addenda B31.10a—1969. Fuel Gas Piping, B31.2—1968.
</P>
<P>(vii) Identification of Gas-Mask Canisters, K13.1—1967.
</P>
<P>(viii) Prevention of Sulfur Fires and Explosions, Z12.12—1968.
</P>
<P>(ix) Installation of Blower and Exhaust Systems for Dust, Stock, and Vapor Removal or Conveying, Z33.1—1961.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other standards.</I> The following standards, which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, shall be considered standards under this section:
</P>
<P>(i) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels, including addenda 1969.
</P>
<P>(ii) Building Exits Code for Life Safety from Fire, NFPA 101—1970.
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety in the Handling and Use of Explosives, IME Pamphlet No. 17, July 1960, Institute of Makers of Explosives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe practices</I>—(1) <I>Lockouts.</I> Devices such as padlocks shall be provided for locking out the source of power at the main disconnect switch. Before any maintenance, inspection, cleaning, adjusting, or servicing of equipment (electrical, mechanical, or other) that requires entrance into or close contact with the machinery or equipment, the main power disconnect switch or valve, or both, controlling its source of power or flow of material, shall be locked out or blocked off with padlock, blank flange, or similar device.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency lighting.</I> Emergency lighting shall be provided wherever it is necessary for employees to remain at their machines or stations to shut down equipment in case of power failure. Emergency lighting shall be provided at stairways and passageways or aisleways used by employees for emergency exit in case of power failure. Emergency lighting shall be provided in all plant first aid and medical facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Handling and storage of pulpwood and pulp chips</I>—(1) <I>Handling pulpwood with forklift trucks.</I> Where large forklift trucks, or lift trucks with clam-jaws, are used in the yard, the operator's enclosed cab shall be provided with an escape hatch, whenever the hydraulic arm blocks escape through the side doors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Handling pulpwood with cranes or stackers.</I> (i) Where locomotive cranes are used for loading or unloading pulpwood, the pulpwood shall be piled so as to allow a clearance of not less than 24 inches between the pile and the end of the cab of any locomotive crane in use, when the cab is turned in any working position.
</P>
<P>(ii) The minimum distance of the pulpwood pile from the centerline of a standard-gage track shall be maintained at not less than 8
<FR>1/2</FR> feet.
</P>
<P>(iii) Logs shall be piled in an orderly and stable manner, with no projection into walkways or roadways.
</P>
<P>(iv) Railroad cars shall not be spotted on tracks adjacent to the locomotive cranes unless a 24-inch clearance is maintained, as required in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The handling and storage of other materials shall conform to paragraphs (c)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section with respect to clearance.
</P>
<P>(vi) No person shall be permitted to walk beneath a suspended load, bucket, or hook.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Handling pulpwood from ships.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) The hatch tender shall be required to signal the hoisting engineer to move the load only after the men working in the hold are in the clear.
</P>
<P>(iii) The air in the ship's hold, tanks, or closed vessels shall be tested for oxygen deficiency and for both toxic and explosive gases and vapors.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Handling pulpwood from flatcars and all other railway cars.</I> (i) Railroad flatcars for the conveyance of pulpwood loaded parallel to the length of the car shall be equipped with safety-stake pockets.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where pulpwood is loaded crosswise on a flatcar sufficient stakes of sizes not smaller than 4 by 4 inches shall be used to prevent the load from shifting.
</P>
<P>(iii) When it is necessary to cut stakes, those on the unloading side should be partially cut through first, and then the binder wires cut on the opposite side. Wire cutters equipped with long extension handles shall be used. No person shall be permitted along the dumping side of the car after the stakes have been cut.
</P>
<P>(iv) When steel straps without stakes are used, the steel straps shall be cut from a safe area to prevent employees from being struck by the falling logs.
</P>
<P>(v) Flatcars and all other cars shall be chocked during unloading. Where equipment is not provided with hand brakes, rail clamping chocks shall be used.
</P>
<P>(vi) A derail shall be used to prevent movement of other rail equipment into cars where persons are working.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Handling pulpwood from trucks.</I> (i) Cutting of stakes and binder wires shall be done in accordance with paragraph (c)4(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where binder chain and steel stakes are used, the binder chains shall be released and the stakes tripped from the opposite side of the load spillage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where binder chains and crane slings are used, the crane slings shall be attached and taut before the binder chains are released. The hooker shall see that the helper is clear before signaling for the movement of the load.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Handling pulp chips from railway cars.</I> All cars shall be securely fastened in place and all employees in the clear before dumping is started.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Handling pulp chips from trucks and trailers.</I> All trucks and trailers shall be securely fastened in place and all employees in the clear before dumping is started.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cranes.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) A safety device such as a heavy chain or cable at least equal in strength to the lifting cables shall be fastened to the boom and to the frame of the boom crane (if it is other than locomotive) at the base. Alternatively, a telescoping safety device shall be fastened to the boom and to the cab frame, so as to prevent the boom from snapping back over the cab in the event of lifting cable breakage.
</P>
<P>(iii) A crane shall not be operated where any part thereof may come within 10 feet of overhead powerlines (or other overhead obstructions) unless the powerlines have been deenergized. The boom shall be painted bright yellow from and including the head sheave to a point 6 feet down the boom towards the cab.
</P>
<P>(iv) Standard signals for the operation of cranes shall be established for all movements of the crane, in accordance with American National Standards B30.2—1943 (reaffirmed 1968) and B30.2.0—1967.
</P>
<P>(v) Only one member of the crew shall be authorized to give signals to the crane operator.
</P>
<P>(vi) All cranes shall be equipped with a suitable warning device such as a horn or whistle.
</P>
<P>(vii) A sheave guard shall be provided beneath the head sheave of the boom.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Traffic warning signs or signals.</I> (i) A flagman shall direct the movement of cranes or locomotives being moved across railroad tracks or roads, and at any points where the vision of the operator is restricted. The flagman must always remain in sight of the operator when the crane or locomotive is in motion. The blue flag policy shall be used to mark stationary cars day and night. This policy shall include marking the track in advance of the spotted cars (flag for daytime, light for darkness).
</P>
<P>(ii) After cars are spotted for loading or unloading, warning flags or signs shall be placed in the center of the track at least 50 feet away from the cars and a derail set to protect workmen in the car.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Illumination.</I> Artificial illumination shall be provided when loading or unloading is performed after dark, in accordance with American National Standard A11.1—1965 (R—1970).
</P>
<P>(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Barking devices.</I> When barking drums are employed in the yard, the requirements of paragraph (e)(12) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Hand tools.</I> Handles of wood hooks shall be locked to the shank to prevent them from rotating.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Removal of pulpwood.</I> (i) The ends of a woodpile shall be properly sloped and cross-tiered into the pile. Upright poles shall not be used at the ends of woodpiles. To knock down wood from the woodpile, mechanical equipment shall be used to permit employees to keep in the clear of loosened wood.
</P>
<P>(ii) If dynamite is used to loosen the pile, only authorized personnel shall be permitted to handle and discharge the explosive. An electric detonator is preferable for firing; if a fuse is used, it shall be an approved safety fuse with a burning rate of not less than 120 seconds per yard and a minimum length of 3 feet, in accordance with Safety in the Handling and Use of Explosives, IME Pamphlet No. 17, July 1960.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Belt conveyors.</I> (i) The sides of the conveyor shall be constructed so that the wood will not fall off.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where conveyors cross passageways or roadways, a horizontal platform shall be provided under the conveyor, extended out from the sides of the conveyor a distance equal to 1
<FR>1/2</FR> times the length of the wood handled. The platform shall extend the width of the road plus 2 feet (61 cm) on each side, and shall be kept free of wood and rubbish. The edges of the platform shall be provided with toeboards or other protection that meet the requirements of subpart D of this part, to prevent wood from falling.
</P>
<P>(iii) All conveyors for pulpwood shall have the inrunning nips between chain and sprockets guarded; also, turning drums shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(iv) Every belt conveyor shall have an emergency stop cable extending the length of the conveyor so that it may be stopped from any location along the line, or conveniently located stop buttons within 10 feet of each work station, in accordance with American National Standard B20.1—1957.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Signs.</I> When conveyors cross walkways or roadways in the yards, the employer must erect signs reading “Danger—Overhead Conveyor” or an equivalent warning, in accordance with ANSI Z35.1-1968 or ANSI Z535.2-2011, incorporated by reference in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Handling and storage of raw materials other than pulpwood or pulp chips</I>—(1) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Whenever possible, all dust, fumes, and gases incident to handling materials shall be controlled at the source, in accordance with American National Standard Z9.2—1960. Where control at the source is not possible, respirators with goggles or protective masks shall be provided, and employees shall wear them when handling alum, clay, soda ash, lime, bleach powder, sulfur, chlorine, and similar materials, and when opening rag bales.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearance.</I> (i) When materials are being piled inside a building and upon platforms, an aisle clearance at least 3 feet greater than the widest truck in use shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Baled paper and rags stored inside a building shall not be piled closer than 18 inches to walls, partitions, or sprinkler heads.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Piling and unpiling pulp.</I> (i) Piles of wet lap pulp (unless palletized) shall be stepped back one-half the width of the sheet for each 8 feet of pile height. Sheets of pulp shall be interlapped to make the pile secure. Pulp shall not be piled over pipelines to jeopardize pipes, or so as to cause overloading of floors, or to within 18 inches below sprinkler heads.
</P>
<P>(ii) Piles of pulp shall not be undermined when being unpiled.
</P>
<P>(iii) Floor capacities shall be clearly marked on all floors.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Where rolls are pyramided two or more high, chocks shall be installed between each roll on the floor and at every row. Where pulp and paper rolls are stored on smooth floors in processing areas, rubber chocks with wooden core shall be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) When rolls are decked two or more high, the bottom rolls shall be chocked on each side to prevent shifting in either direction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preparing pulpwood</I>—(1) <I>Gang and slasher saws.</I> A guard shall be provided in front of all gang and slasher saws to protect workers from wood thrown by saws. A guard shall be placed over tail sprockets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Slasher tables.</I> Saws shall be stopped and power switches shall be locked out and tagged whenever it is necessary for any person to be on the slasher table.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Runway to the jack ladder.</I> The runway from the pond or unloading dock to the table shall be protected with standard handrails and toeboards. Inclined portions shall have cleats or equivalent nonslip surfacing that complies with subpart D of this part. Protective equipment shall be provided for persons working over water.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Guards below table.</I> Where not protected by the frame of the machine, the underside of the slasher saws shall be enclosed with guards.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Conveyors.</I> The requirements of paragraph (c)(15)(iv) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Barker feed.</I> Each barker shall be equipped with a feed and turnover device which will make it unnecessary for the operator to hold a bolt or log by hand during the barking operation. Eye, ear, and head protection shall be provided for the operator, in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Stops.</I> All control devices shall be locked out and tagged when knives are being changed.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Speed governor.</I> Water wheels, when directly connected to barker disks or grinders, shall be provided with speed governors, if operated with gate wide open.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Continuous barking drums.</I> (i) When platforms or floors allow access to the sides of the drums, a standard railing shall be constructed around the drums. When two or more drums are arranged side by side, proper walkways with standard handrails shall be provided between each set, in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.23, Guarding floor and wall openings and holes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sprockets and chains, gears, and trunnions shall have standard guards, in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.219, Mechanical power-transmission apparatus.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever it becomes necessary for a workman to go within a drum, the driving mechanism shall be locked and tagged, at the main disconnect switch, in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Intermittent barking drums.</I> In addition to motor switch, clutch, belt shifter, or other power disconnecting device, intermittent barking drums shall be equipped with a device which may be locked to prevent the drum from moving while it is being emptied or filled.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Hydraulic barkers.</I> Hydraulic barkers shall be enclosed with strong baffles at the inlet and the outlet. The operator shall be protected by at least five-ply laminated glass.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Splitter block.</I> The block upon or against which the wood is rested shall have a corrugated surface or other means provided that the wood will not slip. Wood to be split, and also the splitting block, shall be free of ice, snow, or chips. The operator shall be provided with eye and foot protection. A clear and unobstructed view shall be maintained between equipment and workers around the block and the workers' help area.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Power control.</I> Power for the operation of the splitter shall be controlled by a clutch or equivalent device.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Knot cleaners.</I> The operators of knot cleaners of the woodpecker type shall wear eye protection equipment.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Chipper spout.</I> The feed system to the chipper spout shall be arranged in such a way that the operator does not stand in a direct line with the chipper spout. All chipper spouts shall be enclosed to a height of at least 42 inches from the floor or operator's platform. When other protection is not sufficient, the operator shall wear a safety belt line. The safety belt line shall be fastened in such a manner as to make it impossible for the operator to fall into the throat of the chipper. Ear protection equipment shall be worn by the operator and others in the immediate area if there is any possibility that the noise level may be harmful (see § 1910.95).
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Carriers for knives.</I> Carriers shall be provided and used for transportation of knives.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rag and old paper preparation</I>—(1) <I>Ripping and trimming tools.</I> (i) Hand knives and scissors shall have blunt points, shall be fastened to the table with chain or thong, and shall not be carried on the person but placed safely in racks or sheaths when not in use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hand knives and sharpening steels shall be provided with guards at the junction of the handle and the blade.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shredders, cutters, and dusters.</I> (i) Rotating heads or cylinders shall be completely enclosed except for an opening at the feed side sufficient to permit only the entry of stock. The enclosure shall extend over the top of the feed rolls. It shall be constructed either of solid material or with mesh or openings not exceeding one-half inch and substantial enough to contain flying particles and prevent accidental contact with moving parts. The enclosure shall be bolted or locked into place.
</P>
<P>(ii) A smooth-pivoted idler roll resting on the stock or feed table shall be provided in front of feed rolls except when arrangements prevent the operator from standing closer than 36 inches to any part of the feed rolls.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any manually fed cutter, shredder, or duster shall be provided with an idler roll as per subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph or the operator shall use special hand-feeding tools.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hoods of cutters, shredders, and dusters shall have exhaust ventilation, in accordance with American National Standard Z9.2—1960.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Blowers.</I> (i) Blowers used for transporting rags shall be provided with feed hoppers having outer edges located not less than 48 inches from the fan.
</P>
<P>(ii) The arrangement of the blower discharge outlets and work areas shall be such as to prevent material from falling on workers.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conveyors.</I> Conveyors and conveyor drive belts and pulleys shall be fully enclosed or, if open and within 7 feet of the floor, shall be constructed and guarded in accordance with paragraph (c)(15) of this section and American National Standards B15.1—1953 (Reaffirmed 1958) and B20.1—1957.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dust.</I> Measures for the control of dust shall be provided, in accordance with American National Standards Z33.1—1961, Z87.1—1968, and Z88.2—1969.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rag cookers.</I> (i) When cleaning, inspection, or other work requires that persons enter rag cookers, all steam and water valves, or other control devices, shall be locked and tagged in the closed or “off” position. Blank flanging of pipelines is acceptable in place of closed and locked valves.
</P>
<P>(ii) When cleaning, inspection, or other work requires that persons must enter the cooker, one person shall be stationed outside in a position to observe and assist in case of emergency, in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) Rag cookers shall be provided with safety valves in accordance with the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968, with Addenda.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Chemical processes of making pulp</I>—(1) <I>Sulfur burners.</I> (i) Sulfur-burner houses shall be safely and adequately ventilated, and every precaution shall be taken to guard against dust explosion hazards and fires, in accordance with American National Standards Z9.2—1960 and Z12.12—1968.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nonsparking tools and equipment shall be used in handling dry sulfur.
</P>
<P>(iii) Sulfur storage bins shall be kept free of sulfur dust accumulation, in accordance with American National Standard Z9.2—1960.
</P>
<P>(iv) Sulfur-melting equipment shall not be located in the burner room.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection for employees (acid plants).</I> (i) Supplied air respirators shall be strategically located for emergency and rescue use.
</P>
<P>(ii) The worker shall be provided with eye protection, a supplied air respirator and a personal fall protection system that meets the requirements of subpart I of this part, during inspection, repairs or maintenance of acid towers. The line shall be extended to an attendant stationed outside the tower opening.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acid tower structure.</I> Outside elevators shall be inspected daily during winter months when ice materially affects safety. Elevators, runways, stairs, etc., for the acid tower shall be inspected monthly for defects that may occur because of exposure to acid or corrosive gases.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tanks (acid).</I> (i) Tanks shall be free of acid and shall be washed out with water, and fresh air shall be blown into them before allowing men to enter. Men entering the tanks shall be provided with supplied air respirators, lifebelts, and attached lifelines.
</P>
<P>(ii) A man shall be stationed outside to summon assistance if necessary. All intake valves to a tank shall be blanked off or disconnected.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Clothing.</I> Where lime slaking takes place, employees shall be provided with rubber boots, rubber gloves, protective aprons, and eye protection. A deluge shower and eye fountain shall be provided to flush the skin and eyes to counteract lime or acid burns.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Lead burning.</I> When lead burning is being done within tanks, fresh air shall be forced into the tanks so that fresh air will reach the face of the worker first and the direction of the current will never be from the source of the fumes toward the face of the workers. Supplied air respirators (constant-flow type) shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Hoops for acid storage tanks.</I> Hoops of tanks shall be made of rods rather than flat strips and shall be safely maintained by scheduled inspections.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Chip and sawdust bins.</I> Steam or compressed-air lances, or other facilities, shall be used for breaking down the arches caused by jamming in chip lofts. No worker shall be permitted to enter a bin unless provided with a safety belt, with line attached, and an attendant stationed at the bin to summon assistance.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Exits (digester building).</I> At least one unobstructed exit at each end of the room shall be provided on each floor of a digester building.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Gas masks (digester building).</I> Gas masks must be available, and they must furnish adequate protection against sulfurous acid and chlorine gases and be inspected and repaired in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Elevators.</I> (i) Elevators shall be constructed in accordance with American National Standard A17.1—1965.
</P>
<P>(ii) Elevators shall be equipped with gas masks for the maximum number of passengers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Elevators shall be equipped with an alarm system to advise of failure.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Blowoff valves and piping.</I> (i) The blowoff valve of a digester shall be arranged so as to be operated from another room, remote from safety valves.
</P>
<P>(ii) Through bolts instead of cap bolts shall be used on all digester pipings.
</P>
<P>(iii) Heavy duty pipe, valves, and fittings shall be used between the digester and blow pit. These valves, fittings, and pipes shall be inspected at least semiannually to determine the degree of deterioration.
</P>
<P>(iv) Digester blow valves shall be pinned or locked in closed position throughout the entire cooking period.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Blow pits and blow tanks.</I> (i) Blow-pit openings preferably shall be on the side of the pit instead of on the top. Openings shall be as small as possible when located on top, and shall be protected in accordance with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A specially constructed ladder shall be used for access to blow pits, to be constructed so that the door of the blow pit cannot be closed when the ladder is in place; other means shall be provided to prevent the closing of the pit door when anyone is in the pit.
</P>
<P>(iii) A signaling device shall be installed in the digester and blow-pit rooms and chip bins to be operated as a warning before and while digesters are being blown.
</P>
<P>(iv) Blow-pit hoops shall be maintained in a safe condition.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Blowing digester.</I> (i) Blowoff valves shall be opened slowly.
</P>
<P>(ii) After the digester has started to be blown, the blowoff valve shall be left open, and the hand plate shall not be removed until the digester cook signals the blow-pit man that the blow is completed. Whenever it becomes necessary to remove the hand plate to clear stock, operators shall wear eye protection equipment and protective clothing to guard against burns from hot stock.
</P>
<P>(iii) Means shall be provided whereby the digester cook shall signal the man in the chip bin before starting to load the digester.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Inspecting and repairing digester.</I> (i) Valves controlling lines leading into a digester shall be locked out and tagged. The keys to the locks shall be in the possession of a person or persons doing the inspecting or making repairs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fresh air shall be blown into the digester constantly while workmen are inside. Supplied air respirators shall be available in the event the fresh air supply fails or is inadequate.
</P>
<P>(iii) No inspector shall enter a digester unless a lifeline is securely fastened to his body by means of a safety belt and at least one other experienced employee is stationed outside the digester to handle the line and to summon assistance. All ladders and lifelines shall be inspected before each use.
</P>
<P>(iv) All employees entering digesters for inspection or repair work shall be provided with protective headgear. Eye protection and dust masks shall be provided to workmen while the old brick lining is being removed, in accordance with American National Standards, Z87.1—1968, Z88.2—1969, and Z99.1—1969.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Pressure tanks-accumulators (acid).</I> (i) Safety regulations governing inspection and repairing of pressure tanks-accumulators (acid) shall be the same as those specified in subparagraph (15) of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) The pressure tanks-accumulators shall be inspected twice annually. (See the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968, with Addenda.)
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Pressure vessels (safety devices).</I> (i) A safety valve shall be installed in a separate line from each pressure vessel; no hand valve shall be installed between this safety valve and the pressure vessel. Safety valves shall be checked between each cook to be sure they have not become plugged or corroded to the point of being inoperative. (See the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968, with Addenda.)
</P>
<P>(ii) All safety devices shall conform to Paragraph U-2 in the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels—1968, with Addenda.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Miscellaneous.</I> Insofar as the processes of the sulfate and soda operations are similar to those of the sulfite processes, the standard of paragraphs (g) (1) through (17) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(i) Quick operating showers, bubblers, etc., shall be available for emergency use in case of caustic soda burns.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rotary tenders, smelter operators, and those cleaning smelt spouts shall be provided with eye protection equipment (fitted with lenses that filter out the harmful rays emanating from the light source) when actively engaged in their duties, in accordance with American National Standard Z87.1—1968.
</P>
<P>(iii) Heavy-duty pipe, valves, and fittings shall be used between digester and blow pit. These shall be inspected at least semiannually to determine the degree of deterioration and repaired or replaced when necessary, in accordance with American National Standards B31.1—1955, B31.1a—1963, B31.1.0—1967, and B31.2—1968.
</P>
<P>(iv) Smelt-dissolving tanks shall be covered and the cover kept closed, except when samples are being taken.
</P>
<P>(v) Smelt tanks shall be provided with vent stacks and explosion doors, in accordance with American National Standard Z9.1—1951.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Blow lines.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) When blow lines from more than one digester lead into one pipe, the cock or valve of the blow line from the tank being inspected or repaired shall be locked or tagged out, or the line shall be disconnected and blocked off.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Furnace room.</I> Exhaust ventilation shall be provided where niter cake is fed into a rotary furnace and shall be so designed and maintained as to keep the concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas below the parts per million listed in § 1910.1000.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Inspection and repair of tanks.</I> All piping leading to tanks shall be blanked off or valved and locked or tagged. Any lines to sewers shall be blanked off to protect workers from air contaminants.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Welding.</I> Welding on blow tanks, accumulator tanks, or any other vessels where turpentine vapor or other combustible vapor could gather shall be done only after the vessel has been completely purged of fumes. Fresh air shall be supplied workers inside of vessels.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Turpentine systems and storage tanks.</I> Nonsparking tools and ground hose shall be used when pumping out the tank. The tank shall be surrounded by a berm or moat.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Bleaching</I>—(1) <I>Bleaching engines.</I> Bleaching engines, except the Bellmer type, shall be completely covered on the top, with the exception of one small opening large enough to allow filling, but too small to admit an employee. Platforms leading from one engine to another shall have standard guardrails that meet the requirements in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bleach mixing rooms.</I> (i) The room in which the bleach powder is mixed shall be provided with adequate exhaust ventilation, located at the floor level, in accordance with American National Standard Z9.1—1951.
</P>
<P>(ii) Chlorine gas shall be carried away from the work place and breathing area by an exhaust system. The gas shall be rendered neutral or harmless before being discharged into the atmosphere. The requirements of American National Standard Z9.2—1960 shall apply to this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(iii) For emergency and rescue operations, the employer must provide employees with self-contained breathing apparatuses or supplied-air respirators, and ensure that employees use these respirators, in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liquid chlorine.</I> (i) Tanks of liquid chlorine shall be stored in an adequately ventilated unoccupied room, where their possible leakage cannot affect workers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Gas masks capable of absorbing chlorine shall be supplied, conveniently placed, and regularly inspected, and workers who may be exposed to chlorine gas shall be instructed in their use.
</P>
<P>(iii) For emergency and rescue work, independent self-contained oxygen-type masks or supplied air equipment shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) At least two exits, remote from each other, shall be provided for all rooms in which chlorine is stored.
</P>
<P>(v) Spur tracks upon which tank cars containing chlorine and caustic are spotted and connected to pipelines shall be protected by means of a derail in front of the cars.
</P>
<P>(vi) All chlorine, caustic, and acid lines shall be marked for positive identification, in accordance with American National Standard A13.1—1967.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bagged or drummed chemicals.</I> Bagged or drummed chemicals require efficient handling to prevent damage and spillage. Certain oxidizing chemicals used in bleaching pulp and also in some sanitizing work require added precautions for safety in storage and handling. In storage, these chemicals must be isolated from combustible materials and other chemicals with which they will react such as acids. They must also be kept dry, clean and uncontaminated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mechanical pulp process</I>—(1) <I>Pulp grinders.</I> (i) Water wheels directly connected to pulp grinders shall be provided with speed governors limiting the peripheral speed of the grinder to that recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Doors of pocket grinders shall be arranged so as to keep them from closing accidentally.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Butting saws.</I> Hood guards shall be provided on butting saws, in accordance with American National Standard O1.1—1954 (reaffirmed 1961).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Floors and platforms.</I> The requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Personal protection.</I> Persons exposed to falling material shall wear eye, head, foot, and shin protection equipment, in accordance with American National Standards Z87.1—1968, Z88.2—1969, Z89.1—1969, and Z41.1—1967.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Stock preparation</I>—(1) <I>Pulp shredders.</I> (i) Cutting heads shall be completely enclosed except for an opening at the feed side sufficient to permit only entry of stock. The enclosure shall be bolted or locked in place. The enclosure shall be of solid material or with mesh or other openings not exceeding one-half inch.
</P>
<P>(ii) Either a slanting feed table with its outer edge not less than 36 inches from the cutting head or an automatic feeding device shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) Repairs for cleaning of blockage shall be done only when the shredder is shutdown and control devices locked.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pulp conveyors.</I> Pulp conveyors and conveyor drive belts and pulleys shall be fully enclosed, or if open and within 7 feet of the floor, shall be constructed and guarded in accordance with American National Standard B20.1—1957.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Beaters.</I> (i) Beater rolls shall be provided with covers.
</P>
<P>(ii) When cleaning, inspecting, or other work requires that persons enter the beaters, all control devices shall be locked or tagged out, in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) When beaters are fed from the floor above, the chute opening, if less than 42 inches (1.06 m) from the floor, shall be provided with a guardrail system that meets the requirements in subpart D of this part, or other equivalent enclosures. Openings for manual feeding shall be sufficient only for entry of stock, and shall be provided with at least two permanently secured crossrails or other fall protection system that meet the requirements in subpart D.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) Floors around beaters shall be provided with sufficient drainage to remove wastes.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pulpers.</I> (i) All pulpers having the top or any other opening of a vessel less than 42 inches (107 cm) from the floor or work platform shall have such openings guarded by guardrail systems that meet the requirements in subpart D of this part, or other equivalent enclosures. For manual changing, openings shall be sufficient only to permit the entry of stock, and shall be provided with at least two permanently secured crossrails, or other fall protection systems that meet the requirements in subpart D.</P>
<P>(ii) When cleaning, inspecting, or other work requires that persons enter the pulpers, they shall be equipped with safety belt and lifeline, and one person shall be stationed outside at a position to observe and assist in case of emergency.
</P>
<P>(iii) When cleaning, inspecting, or other work requires that persons enter pulpers, all steam, water, or other control devices shall be locked or tagged out. Blank flanging and tagging of pipe lines is acceptable in place of closed and locked or tagged valves. Blank flanging of steam and water lines shall be acceptable in place of valve locks.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Stock chests.</I> (i) All control devices shall be locked or tagged out when persons enter stock chests, in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When cleaning, inspecting, or other work requires that persons enter stock chests, they shall be provided with a low-voltage extension light.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Machine room</I>—(1) <I>Emergency stops.</I> Paper machines shall be equipped with devices that will stop the machine quickly in an emergency. The devices shall consist of push buttons for electric motive power (or electrically operated engine stops), pull cords connected directly to the prime mover, control clutches, or other devices, interlocked with adequate braking action. The devices shall be tested periodically by making use of them when stopping the machine and shall be so located that any person working on the machine can quickly disconnect the machine from the source of power in case of emergency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Drives.</I> (i) All drives shall be provided with lockout devices at the power switch which interrupts the flow of current to the unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) All ends of rotating shafts including dryer drum shafts shall be completely guarded.
</P>
<P>(iii) All accessible disengaged doctor blades should be covered.
</P>
<P>(iv) All exposed shafts shall be guarded. Crossovers shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(v) Oil cups and grease fittings shall be placed in a safe area remote from nip and heat hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Protective equipment.</I> Face shields, aprons, and rubber gloves shall be provided for workmen handling acids in accordance with paragraphs (b)(2) and (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4)-(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Steps.</I> Steps of uniform rise and tread with nonslip surfaces that meet the requirements in subpart D of this part shall be provided at each press.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Plank walkways.</I> A removable plank shall be provided along each press, with standard guardrails installed. The planks shall have nonslip surfaces in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Dryer lubrication.</I> If a gear bearing must be oiled while the machine is in operation, an automatic oiling device to protect the oiler shall be provided, or oil cups and grease fittings shall be placed along the walkways out of reach of hot pipes and dryer gears.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Levers.</I> All levers carrying weights shall be constructed so that weights will not slip or fall off.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>First dryer.</I> Either a permanent guardrail or apron guard or both shall be installed in front of the first dryer in each section in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Steam and hot-water pipes.</I> All exposed steam and hot-water pipes within 7 feet of the floor or working platform or within 15 inches measured horizontally from stairways, ramps, or fixed ladders shall be covered with an insulating material, or guarded in such manner as to prevent contact.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Dryer gears.</I> Dryer gears shall be guarded excepting where the oilers' walkway is removed out of reach of the gears' nips and spokes and hot pipes in accordance with American National Standard B15.1—1953 (reaffirmed 1958).
</P>
<P>(i) A guardrail shall be provided at broke holes in accordance with § 1910.23.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Broke hole.</I> (i) A guardrail that complies with subpart D of this part shall be provided at broke holes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where pulpers are located directly below the broke hole on a paper machine and where the broke hole opening is large enough to permit a worker to fall through, any employee pushing broke down the hole shall wear a safety belt attached to a safety belt line. The safety belt line shall be fastened in such a manner that it is impossible for the person to fall into the pulper.
</P>
<P>(iii) An alarm bell or a flashing light shall be actuated before dropping material through the broke hole.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Feeder belt.</I> A feeder belt or other effective device shall be provided for starting paper through the calender stack.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Steps.</I> Steps or ladders that comply with subpart D of this part and tread with nonslip surfaces shall be provided at each calendar stack. Handrails and hand grips complying with subpart D shall be provided at each calendar stack.
</P>
<P>(16) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Sole plates.</I> All exposed sole plates between dryers, calenders, reels, and rewinders shall have a nonskid surface.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Nip points.</I> The hazard of the nip points on all calender rolls shall be eliminated or minimized by means of an effective barrier device, or by feeding the paper into the rolls by means of a rope carrier, air jets, or hand feeding devices.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Platforms.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Scrapers.</I> Alloy steel scrapers with pullthrough blades approximately 3 by 5 inches in size shall be used to remove “scabs” from calender rolls.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Illumination.</I> Permanent lighting shall be installed in all areas where employees are required to make machine adjustments and sheet transfers in accordance with the American National Standard A11.1—1965 (R 1970).
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Control panels.</I> All control panel handles and buttons shall be protected from accidental contact.
</P>
<P>(23) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Lifting reels.</I> (i) The reels shall stop rotating before being lifted from bearings.
</P>
<P>(ii) All lifting equipment (clamps, cables, and slings) shall be maintained in a safe condition and inspected regularly.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reel shafts with square block ends shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Feeder belts.</I> Feeder belts, carrier ropes, air carriage, or other equally effective means shall be provided for starting paper into the nip or drum-type reels.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Inrunning nip.</I> (i) Where the nipping points of all drum winders and rewinders is on the operator's side, it shall be guarded by barrier guards interlocked with the drive mechanism.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Core collars.</I> Set screws for securing core collars to winding and unwinding shafts shall not protrude above the face of the collar. All edges of the collar with which an operator's hand comes in contact shall be beveled to remove all sharp corners.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Slitter knives.</I> Slitter knives shall be guarded so as to prevent accidental contact. Carriers shall be provided and used for transportation of slitter knives.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Winder shaft.</I> The winder shall have a guide rail to align the shaft for easy entrance into the opened rewind shaft bearing housings.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Core shaft.</I> When the core shaft weighs in excess of the safe standard, a mechanical device such as a dolly shall be provided for carrying all or part of the weight when it is being removed from the set of paper and placed in the dressing brackets on the winder.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Winder area.</I> A nonskid surface shall be provided in the front vicinity of the winder to prevent accidental slipping.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Radiation.</I> Special standards regarding the use of radiation equipment shall be posted and followed as required by § 1910.96.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Finishing room</I>—(1) <I>Cleaning rolls.</I> Rolls shall be cleaned only on the outrunning side.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency stops.</I> Electrically or manually operated quick power disconnecting devices, interlocked with braking action, shall be provided on all operating sides of the machine within easy reach of all employees. These devices shall be tested by making use of them when stopping the machine.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Core collars.</I> The requirements of paragraph (k)(27) of this section and the American National Standard B15.1—1953 (reaffirmed 1958) shall apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Elevators.</I> These shall be in accordance with American National Standard A17.1—1965.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Control panels.</I> The requirements of paragraph (k)(22) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Guillotine-type cutters.</I> (i) Each guillotine-type cutter shall be equipped with a control which requires the operator and his helper, if any, to use both hands to engage the clutch.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each guillotine-type cutter shall be equipped with a nonrepeat device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Carriers shall be provided and used for transportation of guillotine-type cutter knives.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Rotary cutter.</I> (i) On single-knife machines a guard shall be provided at a point of contact to the knife.
</P>
<P>(ii) On duplex cutters the protection required for single-knife machines shall be provided for the first knife, and a hood shall be provided for the second knife.
</P>
<P>(iii) Safe access shall be provided to the knives of a rotary cutter by means of catwalks with nonslip surfaces, railings, and toeboards in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) A guard shall be provided for the spreader or squeeze roll at the nip side on sheet cutters.
</P>
<P>(v) Electrically or manually operated quick power disconnecting devices with adequate braking action shall be provided on all operating sides of the machine within easy reach of all operators.
</P>
<P>(vi) The outside slitters shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Platers.</I> (i) A guard shall be arranged across the face of the rolls to serve as a warning that the operator's hand is approaching the danger zone.
</P>
<P>(ii) A quick power disconnecting device shall be installed on each machine within easy reach of the operator.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Finishing room rewinders.</I> (i) The nipping points of all drum winders and rewinders located on the operator's side shall be guarded by either automatic or manually operated barrier guards of sufficient height to protect fully anyone working around them. The barrier guard shall be interlocked with the drive mechanism to prevent operating above jog speed without the guard in place.
</P>
<FP>A zero speed switch should be installed to prevent the guard from being raised while the roll is turning.
</FP>
<P>(ii) A nonskid surface shall be provided in front of the rewinder to prevent an employee from slipping in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Mechanical lifting devices shall be provided for placing and removing rolls from the machine.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Control panels.</I> The requirements of paragraph (k)(22) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Roll-type embosser.</I> The nipping point located on the operator's side shall be guarded by either automatic or manually operated barrier guards interlocked with the drive.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Sorting and counting tables.</I> (i) Tables shall be smooth and free from splinters, with edges and corners rounded.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paddles shall be smooth and free from splinters.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Roll splitters.</I> The nip point and cutter knife shall be guarded by either automatic or manually operated barrier guards.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Materials handling</I>—(1) <I>Hand trucks.</I> No person shall be permitted to ride on a powered hand truck unless it is so designed by the manufacturer. A limit switch shall be on operating handle—30 degrees each way from a 45-degree angle up and down.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cartons.</I> The carton-stitching machine shall be guarded to prevent the operator from coming in contact with the stitching head.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Unloading cars.</I> Flag signals, derails, or other protective devices shall be used to protect men during switching operations. The blue flag policy shall be invoked according to paragraph (c)(9)(i) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 23073, May 28, 1975; 43 FR 49751, Oct. 24, 1978; 49 FR 5323, Feb. 10, 1984; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9241, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 1285, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 33467, June 18, 1998; 72 FR 71070, Dec. 14, 2007; 76 FR 80739, Dec. 27, 2011; 78 FR 35566, June 13, 2013; 81 FR 83005, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.262" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.262   Textiles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> The requirements of this subpart for textile safety apply to the design, installation, processes, operation, and maintenance of textile machinery, equipment, and other plant facilities in all plants engaged in the manufacture and processing of textiles, except those processes used exclusively in the manufacture of synthetic fibers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards incorporated by reference.</I> Standards covering issues of occupational safety and health which are of general application without regard to any specific industry are incorporated by reference in paragraphs of this section and made applicable to textiles. All such standards shall be construed according to the rules of construction set out in § 1910.5.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions applicable to this section</I>—(1) <I>Belt shifter.</I> A <I>belt shifter</I> is a device for mechanically shifting a belt from one pulley to another.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Belt shifter lock.</I> A <I>belt shifter lock</I> is a device for positively locking the belt shifter in position while the machine is stopped and the belt is idling on the loose pulleys.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calender.</I> A <I>calender</I> in essence consists of a set of heavy rollers mounted on vertical side frames and arranged to pass cloth between them. Calenders may have two to ten rollers, or bowls, some of which can be heated.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Embossing calender.</I> An <I>embossing calender</I> is a calender with two or more rolls, one of which is engraved for producing figured effects of various kinds on a fabric.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cans (drying).</I> Drying <I>cans</I> are hollow cylindrical drums mounted in a frame so they can rotate. They are heated with steam and are used to dry fabrics or yarn as it passes around the perimeter of the can.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Carbonizing. Carbonizing</I> means the removing of vegetable matter such as burns, straws, etc., from wool by treatment with acid, followed by heat. The undesired matter is reduced to a carbon-like form which may be removed by dusting or shaking.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Card.</I> A <I>card</I> machine consists of cylinders of various sizes—and in certain cases flats—covered with card clothing and set in relation to each other so that fibers in staple form may be separated into individual relationship. The speed of the cylinders and their direction of rotation varies. The finished product is delivered as a sliver. Cards of different types are: The revolving flat card, the roller-and-clearer card, etc.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Card clothing. Card clothing</I> is the material with which many of the surfaces of a card are covered; e.g., the cylinder, doffer, etc. It consists of a thick foundation material, usually made of textile fabrics, through which are pressed many fine, closely spaced, specially bent wires.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Comber.</I> A <I>comber</I> is a machine for combing fibers of cotton, wool, etc. The essential parts are a device for feeding forward a fringe of fibers at regular intervals and an arrangement of combs or pins which, at the right time, pass through the fringe. All tangled fibers, short fibers, and neps are removed and the long fibers are laid parallel.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Combing machinery. Combing machinery</I> is a general classification, including combers, sliver lap machines, ribbon lap machines, and gill boxes, but excluding cards.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Cutter (rotary staple).</I> A rotary staple <I>cutter</I> is a machine consisting of one or more rotary blades used for the purpose of cutting textile fibers into staple lengths.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Exposed to contact. Exposed to contact</I> shall mean that the location of an object, material, nip point, or point of operation is such that a person is liable to come in contact with it in his normal course of employment.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Garnett machine.</I> A <I>Garnett machine</I> means any of a number of types of machines for opening hard twisted waste of wool, cotton, silk, etc. Essentially, such machines consist of a lickerin; one or more cylinders, each having a complement worker and stripper rolls; and a fancy roll and doffer. The action of such machines is somewhat like that of a wool card, but it is much more severe in that the various rolls are covered with garnett wire instead of card clothing.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Gill box.</I> A <I>gill box</I> is a machine used in the worsted system of manufacturing yarns. Its function is to arrange the fibers in parallel order. Essentially, it consists of a pair of feed rolls and a series of followers where the followers move at a faster surface speed and perform a combing action.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Interlock.</I> An <I>interlock</I> is a device that operates to prevent the operation of machine while the cover or door of the machine is open or unlocked, and which will also hold the cover or door closed and locked while the machine is in motion.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Jig (dye).</I> A dye <I>jig</I> is a machine for dyeing piece goods. The cloth, at full width, passes from a roller through the dye liquor in an open vat and is then wound on another roller. The operation is repeated until the desired shade is obtained.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Kier.</I> A <I>kier</I> is a large metal vat, usually a pressure type, in which fabrics may be boiled out, bleached, etc.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Lapper (ribbon).</I> A ribbon <I>lapper</I> is a machine used to prepare laps for feeding a cotton comb; its purpose is to provide a uniform lap in which the fibers have been straightened as much as possible.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Lapper (sliver).</I> A sliver <I>lapper</I> is a machine in which a number of parallel card slivers are drafted slightly, laid side by side in a compact sheet, and wound into a cylindrical package.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Loom.</I> A <I>loom</I> is a machine for effecting the interlacing of two series of yarns crossing one another at right angles. The warp yarns are wound on a warp beam and pass through heddles and reed. The filling is shot across in a shuttle and settled in place by reed and lay, and the fabric is wound on a cloth beam.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Mangle (starch).</I> A <I>starch mangle</I> is a mangle that is used specifically for starching cotton goods. It commonly consists of two large rolls and a shallow open vat with several immersion rolls. The vat contains the starch solution.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Mangle (water).</I> A <I>water mangle</I> is a calender having two or more rolls used for squeezing water from fabrics before drying. Water mangles also may be used in other ways during the finishing of various fabrics.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Mule.</I> A <I>mule</I> is a type of spinning frame having a head stock and a carriage as its two main sections. The head stock is stationary. The carriage is movable and it carries the spindles which draft and spin the roving into the yarn. The carriage extends over the whole width of the machine and moves slowly toward and away from the head stock during the spinning operation.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Nip. Nip</I> shall mean the point of contact between two in-running rolls.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Openers and pickers. Openers and pickers</I> means a general classification which includes breaker pickers, intermediate pickers, finisher pickers, single process pickers, multiple process pickers, willow machines, card and picker waste cleaners, thread extractors, shredding machines, roving waste openers, shoddy pickers, bale breakers, feeders, vertical openers, lattice cleaners, horizontal cleaners, and any similar machinery equipped with either cylinders, screen section, calender section, rolls, or beaters used for the preparation of stock for further processing.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Paddler.</I> A <I>paddler</I> consists of a trough for a solution and two or more squeeze rolls between which cloth passes after being passed through a mordant or dye bath.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Point of operation. Point of operation</I> shall mean that part of the machine where the work of cutting, shearing, squeezing, drawing, or manipulating the stock in any other way is done.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Printing machine (roller type).</I> A <I>roller printing machine</I> is a machine consisting of a large central cylinder, or pressure bowl, around the lower part of the perimeter of which is placed a series of engraved color rollers (each having a color trough), a furnisher roller, doctor blades, etc. The machine is used for printing fabrics.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Ranges (bleaching continuous). Continuous bleaching ranges</I> are of several types and may be made for cloth in rope or open-width form. The goods, after wetting out, pass through a squeeze roll into a saturator containing a solution of caustic soda and then to an enclosed J-box. A V-shaped arrangement is attached to the front part of the J-box for uniform and rapid saturation of the cloth with steam before it is packed down in the J-box. The cloth, in a single strand rope form, passes over a guide roll down the first arm of the “V” and up the second. Steam is injected into the “V” at the upper end of the second arm so that the cloth is rapidly saturated with steam at this point. The J-box capacity is such that cloth will remain hot for a sufficient time to complete the scouring action. It then passes a series of washers with a squeeze roll in between. The cloth then passes through a second set of saturator, J-box, and washer, where it is treated with the peroxide solution. By slight modification of the form of the unit, the same process can be applied to open-width cloth.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Range (mercerizing).</I> A <I>mercerizing range</I> consists generally of a 3-bowl mangle, a tenter frame, and a number of boxes for washing and scouring. The whole setup is in a straight line and all parts operate continuously. The combination is used to saturate the cloth with sodium hydroxide, stretch it while saturated, and washing out most of the caustic before releasing tension.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Sanforizing machine.</I> A <I>sanforizing machine</I> is a machine consisting of a large steam-heated cylinder, an endless, thick, woolen felt blanket which is in close contact with the cylinder for most of its perimeter, and an electrically heated shoe which presses the cloth against the blanket while the latter is in a stretched condition as it curves around feed-in roll.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Shearing machine.</I> A <I>shearing machine</I> is a machine used in shearing cloth. Cutting action is provided by a number of steel blades spirally mounted on a roller. The roller rotates in close contact with a fixed ledger blade. There may be from one to six such rollers on a machine.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Singeing machine.</I> A <I>singeing machine</I> is a machine used particularly with cotton; it comprises of a heated roller, plate, or an open gas flame. The material is rapidly passed over the roller or the plate or through the open gas flame to remove, fuzz or hairiness on yarn or cloth by burning.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Slasher.</I> A <I>slasher</I> is a machine used for applying a size mixture to warp yarns. Essentially, it consists of a stand for holding section beams, a size box, one or more cylindrical dryers or an enclosed hot air dryer, and a beaming end for finding the yarn on the loom beams.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Solvent (industrial organic). Industrial organic solvent</I> means any organic volatile liquid or compound, or any combination of these substances which are used to dissolve or suspend a nonvolatile or slightly volatile substance for industrial utilization. It shall also apply to such substances when used as detergents or cleansing agents. It shall not apply to petroleum products when such products are used as fuel.
</P>
<P>(36) <I>Tenter frame.</I> A <I>tenter frame</I> is a machine for drying cloth under tension. It essentially consists of a pair of endless traveling chains fitted with clips of fine pins and carried on tracks. The cloth is firmly held at the selvages by the two chains which diverge as they move forward so that the cloth is brought to the desired width.
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Warper.</I> A <I>warper</I> is any machine for preparing and arranging the yarns intended for the warp of a fabric, specifically, a beam warper.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General safety requirements</I>—(1) <I>Means of stopping machines.</I> Every textile machine shall be provided with individual mechanical or electrical means for stopping such machines. On machines driven by belts and shafting, a locking-type shifter or an equivalent positive device shall be used. On operations where injury to the operator might result if motors were to restart after power failures, provision shall be made to prevent machines from automatically restarting upon restoration of power.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Handles.</I> Stopping and starting handles shall be designed to the proper length to prevent the worker's hand or fingers from striking against any revolving part, gear guard, or any other part of the machine.
</P>
<P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Inspection and maintenance.</I> All guards and other safety devices, including starting and stopping devices, shall be properly maintained.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Lighting.</I> Lighting shall conform to American National Standard A11.1—1965, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Identification of piping systems.</I> Identification of piping systems shall conform to American National Standard A13.1—1956, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Identification of physical hazards.</I> Identification of physical hazards shall be in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.144.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Steam pipes.</I> All pipes carrying steam or hot water for process or servicing machinery, when exposed to contact and located within seven feet of the floor or working platform shall be covered with a heat-insulating material, or otherwise properly guarded.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Openers and pickers</I>—(1) <I>Beater guards.</I> When any opening or picker machinery is equipped with a beater, such beater shall be provided with metal covers which will prevent contact with the beater. Such covers shall be provided with an interlock which will prevent the cover from being raised while the machine is in motion and prevent the operation of the machine while the cover is open.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleanout holes.</I> Cleanout holes within reaching distance of the fan or picker beater shall have their covers securely fastened and they shall not be opened while the machine is in motion.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Feed rolls.</I> The feed rolls on all opening and picking machinery shall be covered with a guard designed to prevent the operator from reaching the nip while the machinery is in operation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Removal of foreign ferrous material.</I> All textile opener lines shall be equipped with magnetic separators, tramp iron separators, or other means for the removal of foreign ferrous material.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cotton cards</I>—(1) <I>Enclosures.</I> Cylinder and lickerins shall be completely protected and the doffers should be enclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enclosure fastenings.</I> The enclosures or covers shall be kept in place while the machine is in operation, except when stripping or grinding.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stripping rolls.</I> On operations calling for flat strippings which are allowed to fall on the doffer cover, where such strippings are removed by hand, the doffer cover shall be kept closed and securely fastened to prevent the opening of the cover while the machine is in operation. When it becomes necessary to clean the cards while they are in motion, a long-handled brush or dust mop shall be used.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Garnett machines</I>—(1) <I>Lickerin.</I> Garnett lickerins shall be enclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fancy rolls.</I> Garnett fancy rolls shall be enclosed by covers. These shall be installed in a way that keeps worker rolls reasonably accessible for removal or adjustment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Underside of machine.</I> The underside of the garnett shall be guarded by a screen mesh or other form of enclosure to prevent access.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Spinning mules</I>—A substantial fender of metal or hardwood shall be installed in front of the carriage wheels, the fender to extend to within one-fourth inch of the rail.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Slashers</I>—(1) <I>Cylinder dryers</I>—(i) <I>Reducing valves, safety valves, and pressure gages.</I> Reducing valves, safety valves, and pressure gages shall conform to the ASME Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels, 1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Vacuum relief valves.</I> Vacuum relief valves shall conform to the ASME Code for Pressure Vessels, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels, 1968.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lever control.</I> When slashers are operated by control levers, these levers shall be connected to a horizontal bar or treadle located not more than 69 inches above the floor to control the operation from any point.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Pushbutton control.</I> Slashers operated by pushbutton control shall have stop and start buttons located at each end of the machine, and additional buttons located on both sides of the machine, at the size box and the delivery end. If calender rolls are used, additional buttons shall be provided at both sides of the machine at points near the nips, except when slashers are equipped with an enclosed dryer.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Nip guards.</I> All nip guards shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (h)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Cylinder enclosure.</I> When enclosures or hoods are used over cylinder drying rolls, such enclosures or hoods shall be provided with an exhaust system which will effectively prevent wet air and steam from escaping into the workroom.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Expansion chambers.</I> Slasher kettles and cookers shall be provided with expansion chambers in the covers, or drains, to prevent surging over. Steam-control valves shall be so located that they can be operated without exposing the worker to moving parts, hot surfaces, or steam.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enclosed hot air dryer</I>—(i) <I>Lever control.</I> When slashers are operated by control levers, these levers shall be connected to a horizontal bar or treadle located not more than 69 inches above the floor to control the operation from any point.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Push-button control.</I> Slashers operated by push-button control shall have one start button at each end of the machine and stop buttons shall be located on both sides of the machines at intervals spaced not more than 6 feet on centers. Inching buttons should be installed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Dryer enclosure.</I> The dryer enclosure shall be provided with an exhaust system which will effectively prevent wet air and steam from escaping into the workroom.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nip guards.</I> All nip guards shall comply with Table R-1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-1—Guard Openings
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Openings in the guard or between the guard and working surface shall not be greater than the following]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance of opening from nip point
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum width of opening
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 to 1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr> to 2
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/2</fr> to 3
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3
<fr>1/2</fr> to 5
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5
<fr>1/2</fr> to 6
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6
<fr>1/2</fr> to 7
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7
<fr>1/2</fr> to 8
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">The measurements in Table R-1 are all in inches.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) <I>Expansion chambers.</I> Slasher kettles and cookers shall be provided with expansion chambers in the covers, or drains, to prevent surging over. Steam control valves shall be so located that they can be operated without exposing the worker to moving parts, hot surfaces, or steam.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Warpers</I>—(1) <I>Swiveled double-bar gates.</I> Swiveled double-bar gates shall be installed on all warpers operating in excess of 450 yards per minute. These gates shall be so interlocked that the machine cannot be operated until the gate is in the “closed position,” except for the purpose of inching or jogging.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Closed position. Closed position</I> shall mean that the top bar of the gate shall be at least 42 inches from the floor or working platform; and the lower bar shall be at least 21 inches from the floor or working platform; and the gate shall be located 15 inches from the vertical tangent to the beam head.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Drawing frames, slubbers, roving parts, cotton combers, ring spinning frames, twisters.</I> Gear housing covers on all installations of drawing frames, slubbers, roving frames, cotton combers, ring spinning frames, and twisters shall be equipped with interlocks.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Gill boxes</I>—(1) <I>Pin guard.</I> A guard shall be placed ahead of the feed end and shall be so designed that it will prevent the worker's fingers from being caught in the pins of the intersecting fallers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nip guards.</I> All nip guards shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (h)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Heavy draw boxes, finishers, and speeders used in worsted drawing</I>—(1) <I>Band pulley covers.</I> Covers for band pulleys shall be closed when the machine is in motion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benches or working platforms.</I> Branches or working platforms approximately 10 inches in height and 8 inches in width should be installed along the entire running length of the machine for the worker to stand on while creeling the machine. Such benches or platforms shall be covered with an abrasive or nonslip material.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Sliver and ribbon lappers (cotton).</I> Cover guard. An interlocking cover guard shall be installed over the large calender drums and the lap spool, designed to prevent the operator from coming in contact with the nip.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Looms</I>—(1) <I>Shuttle guard.</I> Each loom shall be equipped with a guard designed to minimize the danger of the shuttle flying out of the shed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection for loom fixer.</I> Provisions shall be made so that every loom fixer can prevent the loom from being started while he is at work on the loom. This may be accomplished by means of a lock, the key to which is retained in the possession of the loom fixer, or by some other effective means to prevent starting the loom.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Shearing machines.</I> All revolving blades on shearing machines shall be guarded so that the opening between the cloth surface and the bottom of the guard will not exceed three-eighths inch.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Continuous bleach range (cotton and rayon)</I>—(1) <I>J-box protection.</I> Each valve controlling the flow of steam, injurious gases, or liquids into a J-box shall be equipped with a chain, lock, and key, so that any worker who enters the J-box can lock the valve and retain the key in his possession. Any other method which will prevent steam, injurious gases, or liquids from entering the J-box while the worker is in it will be acceptable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Open-width bleaching.</I> The nip of all in-running rolls on open-width bleaching machine rolls shall be protected with a guard to prevent the worker from being caught at the nip. The guard shall extend across the entire length of the nip.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Kiers</I>—(1) <I>Reducing valves, safety valves, and pressure gages.</I> Reducing valves, safety valves, and pressure gages shall conform to the ASME Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels, Section VIII, Unfired/Pressure Vessels, 1968.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Kier valve protection.</I> Each valve controlling the flow of steam, injurious gases, or liquids into a kier shall be equipped with a chain, lock, and key, so that any worker who enters the kier can lock the valve and retain the key in his possession. Any other method which will prevent steam, injurious gases, or liquids from entering the kier while the worker is in it will be acceptable.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Gray and white bins.</I> On new installations guardrails that comply with subpart D of this part shall be provided where workers are required to plait by hand from the top of the bin so as to protect the worker from falling to a lower level.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Mercerizing range (piece goods)</I>—(1) <I>Stopping devices.</I> A stopping device shall be provided at each end of the machine.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frame ends.</I> A guard shall be installed at each end of the frame between the in-running chain and the clip opener, to prevent the worker's fingers from being caught.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mangle and washers.</I> The nip at the in-running rolls shall conform to § 1910.264.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Tenter frames</I>—(1) <I>Stopping devices.</I> A stopping device shall be provided at each end of the machine.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frame ends.</I> A guard shall be installed at each end of the frame at the in-running chain and clip opener.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Oil cups.</I> Oil cups shall be safely located to permit easy access.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Dyeing jigs</I>—(1) <I>Stopping devices.</I> Each dye jig shall be equipped with individual mechanical or electrical means for stopping the machine.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Roll arms.</I> Roll arms on jigs shall be built to allow for extra large batches, and to prevent the center bar from being forced off, causing the batch to fall.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Padders</I>—<I>Nip guards.</I> All nip guards shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (h)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Drying cans</I>—(1) <I>Pressure reducing valves and pressure gages.</I> Pressure reducing valves and pressure gages shall conform to the ASME Code for Pressure Vessels, Section VIII, 1968, Unfired Pressure Vessels.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Vacuum collapse.</I> If cans are not designed to prevent vacuum collapse, each can shall be equipped with one or more vacuum relief valves with openings of sufficient size to prevent the collapse of the can if vacuum occurs.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Flat-work ironer</I>—(1) <I>Feed rolls.</I> The feed rolls shall be guarded to conform to § 1910.264.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pressure rolls.</I> Pressure rolls shall be covered or guarded to conform to § 1910.264.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Extractors</I>—(1) <I>Centrifugal extractor</I>—(i) <I>Cover.</I> Each extractor shall be equipped with a metal cover.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interlocking device.</I> Each extractor shall be equipped with an interlocking device that will prevent the cover from being opened while the basket is in motion, and also prevent the power operation of the basket while the cover is open.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Brakes.</I> Each extractor shall be equipped with a mechanically or electrically operated brake to quickly stop the basket when the power driving the basket is shut off.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maximum allowable speed.</I> Each centrifugal extractor shall be effectively secured in position on the floor or foundation so as to eliminate unnecessary vibration, and should not be operated at a speed greater than the manufacturer's rating, which shall be stamped where easily visible in letters not less than one-quarter inch in height. The maximum allowable speed shall be given in revolutions per minute (rpm).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engine drum extractor</I>—<I>Over-speed governor.</I> Each engine individually driving an extractor shall be provided with an approved engine stop and speed limit governor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Squeezer or wringer extractor</I>—<I>Nip guards.</I> All nip guards shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (h)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Nip guards.</I> All nip guards for water mangle, starch mangle, back-washer (worsted yarn) crabbing machines, decating machines, shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (h)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Sanforizing and palmer machine.</I> A safety trip rod, cable, or wire center cord shall be provided across the front and back of all palmer cylinders extending the length of the face of the cylinder. It shall operate readily whether pushed or pulled. This safety trip shall be not more than 72 inches above the level on which the operator stands and shall be readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Rope washers</I>—(1) <I>Splash guard.</I> Splash guards shall be installed on all rope washers unless the machine is so designed as to prevent the water or liquid from splashing the operator, the floor, or working surface.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safety stop bar.</I> A safety trip rod, cable or wire center cord shall be provided across the front and back of all rope washers extending the length of the face of the washer. It shall operate readily whether pushed or pulled. This safety trip shall be not more than 72 inches above the level on which the operator stands and shall be readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Laundry washer tumbler or shaker</I>—(1) <I>Interlocking device.</I> Each drying tumbler, each double cylinder shaker or clothes tumbler, and each washing machine shall be equipped with an interlock device which will prevent the power operation of the inside cylinder when the outer door on the case or shell is open, and which will also prevent the outer door on the case or shell from being opened without shutting off the power.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Means of holding covers or doors in open position.</I> Each enclosed barrel shall also be equipped with adequate means for holding open the doors or covers of the inner and outer cylinders or shells while it is being loaded or unloaded.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Printing machine (roller type)</I>—(1) <I>Nip guards.</I> All nip guards shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (h)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Crown wheel and roller gear nip protection.</I> The engraved roller gears and the large crown wheel shall be provided with a protective disc which will enclose the nips of the in-running gears. Individual discs for each nip will be acceptable.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Calenders.</I> The nip at the in-running side of the rolls shall be provided with a guard extending across the entire length of the nip and arranged to prevent the fingers of the workers from being pulled in between the rolls or between the guard and the rolls, and constructed so that the cloth can be fed into the rolls safely.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Rotary staple cutters.</I> A guard shall be installed completely enclosing the cutters to prevent the hands of the operator from reaching the cutting zone.
</P>
<P>(gg) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Hand bailing machine.</I> An angle-iron-handle stop guard shall be installed at the right angle to the frame of the machine. The stop guard shall be so designed and so located that it will prevent the handle from traveling beyond the vertical position should the handle slip from the operator's hand when the pawl has been released from the teeth of the takeup gear.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Roll bench.</I> Cleats shall be installed on the ends of roll benches.
</P>
<P>(jj) <I>Cuttle or swing folder (overhead type).</I> The bottom of the overhead folders shall be located not less than 7 feet from the floor or working surface.
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Color-mixing room.</I> Floors in color-mixing rooms shall be constructed to drain easily.
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>Open tanks and vats for mixing and storage of hot or corrosive liquids</I>—<I>Shutoff valves.</I> Boiling tanks, caustic tanks, and hot liquid containers, so located that the operator cannot see the contents from the floor or working area, shall have emergency shutoff valves controlled from a point not subject to danger of splash. Valves shall conform to the ASME Pressure Vessel Code, section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels, 1968.
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>Dye kettles and vats</I>—Pipes or drains of sufficient capacity to carry the contents safely away from the working area shall be installed where there are dye kettles and vats which may at any time contain hot or corrosive liquids. These shall not empty directly onto the floor.
</P>
<P>(nn) <I>Acid carboys.</I> Carboys shall be provided with inclinators, or the acid shall be withdrawn from the carboys by means of pumping without pressure in the carboy, or by means of hand operated siphons.
</P>
<P>(oo) <I>Handling caustic soda and caustic potash.</I> Means shall be provided for handling and emptying caustic soda and caustic potash containers to prevent workers from coming in contact with the caustic (see paragraph (qq) of this section).
</P>
<P>(pp) <I>First aid.</I> Wherever acids or caustics are used, provision shall be made for a copious and flowing supply of fresh, clean water.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 23073, May 28, 1975; 49 FR 5324, Feb. 10, 1984; 61 FR 9241, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 33467, June 18, 1998; 81 FR 83006, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.263" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.263   Bakery equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> The requirements of this section shall apply to the design, installation, operation and maintenance of machinery and equipment used within a bakery.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General machine guarding.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Gears.</I> All gears shall be completely enclosed regardless of location.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sprockets and V-belt drives.</I> Sprockets and V-belt drives located within reach from platforms or pasageways or located within 8 feet 6 inches from the floor shall be completely enclosed.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Lubrication.</I> Where machinery must be lubricated while in motion, stationary lubrication fittings inside a machine shall be provided with extension piping to a point of safety so that the employee will not have to reach into any dangerous part of the machine when lubricating.
</P>
<P>(6)-(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hot pipes.</I> Exposed hot water and steam pipes shall be covered with insulating material wherever necessary to protect employee from contact.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Flour-handling equipment</I>—(1) <I>General requirements for flour handling.</I> (i) Wherever any of the various pieces of apparatus comprising a flour-handling system are run in electrical unity with one another the following safeguards shall apply:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Wherever a flour-handling system is of such size that the beginning of its operation is far remote from its final delivery end, all electric motors operating each apparatus comprising this system shall be controlled at each of two points, one located at each remote end, either of which will stop all motors.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Control circuits for magnetic controllers shall be so arranged that the opening of any one of several limit switches, which may be on an individual unit, will serve to de-energize all of the motors of that unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bag chutes and bag lifts (bag-arm elevators).</I> (i) Bag chutes (gravity chutes for handling flour bags) shall be so designed so as to keep to a minimum the speed of flour bags. If the chute inclines more than 30° from the horizontal, there shall be an upturn at the lower end of the chute to slow down the bags.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bag-arm elevators with manual takeoff shall be designed to operate at a capacity not exceeding seven bags per minute. The arms on the conveyor chain shall be so spaced as to obtain the full capacity of the elevator with the lowest possible chain speed. There shall be an electric limit switch at the unloading end of the bag-arm elevator so installed as to automatically stop the conveyor chain if any bag fails to clear the conveyor arms.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) Man lifts shall be prohibited in bakeries. Bag or barrel lifts shall not be used as man lifts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dumpbin and blender.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) All dumpbin and blender hoods shall be of sufficient capacity to prevent circulation of flour dust outside the hoods.
</P>
<P>(vi) All dumpbins shall be of a suitable height from floor to enable the operator to dump flour from bags, without causing undue strain or fatigue. Where the edge of any bin is more than 24 inches above the flour, a bag rest step shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(vii) A control device for stopping the dumpbin and blender shall be provided close to the normal location of the operator.
</P>
<P>(4)-(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Storage bins.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Storage bins shall be provided with gaskets and locks or latches to keep the cover closed, or other equivalent devices in order to insure the dust tightness of the cover. Covers at openings where an employee may enter the bin shall also be provided with a hasp and a lock, so located that the employee may lock the cover in the open position whenever it is necessary to enter the bin.
</P>
<P>(iii) Storage bins where the side is more than 5 feet in depth shall be provided with standard stationary safety ladders, both inside and outside, to reach from floor level to top of bin and from top of bin to inside bottom, keeping the ladder end away from the moving screw conveyor.
</P>
<P>(iv)-(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) The main entrance cover of large storage bins located at the interior exit ladder shall be provided with an electric interlock for motors operating both feed and unloading screw, so that these motors cannot operate while the cover is open.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Screw conveyors.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) The covers of all screw conveyors shall be made removable in convenient sections, held on with stationary clamps located at proper intervals keeping all covers dust-tight. Where drop or hinged bottom sections are provided this provision shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Sifters.</I> (i) Enclosures of all types of flour sifters shall be so constructed that they are dust-tight but readily accessible for interior inspection.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Flour scales.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Traveling or track-type flour scales shall be equipped with bar handles for moving same. The bar should be at least 1 inch in diameter and well away from trolley track wheels.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Mixers</I>—(1) <I>Horizontal dough mixers.</I> (i) Mixers with external power application shall have all belts, chains, gears, pulleys, sprockets, clutches, and other moving parts completely enclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Each mixer shall be equipped with an individual motor and control, and with a conveniently located manual switch to prevent the mixer from being started in the usual manner while the machine is being serviced and cleaned.
</P>
<P>(iv) All electrical control stations shall be so located that the operator must be in full view of the bowl in its open position. No duplication of such controls other than a stop switch shall be permitted.
</P>
<P>(v) All mixers with power and manual dumping arrangements shall be equipped with safety devices which shall:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Engage both hands of the operator, when the agitator is in motion under power, and while the bowl is opened more than one-fifth of its total opening.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Prevent the agitator from being started, while the bowl is more than one-fifth open, without engaging both hands of the operator;
</P>
<P>(vi)-(vii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(viii) Every mixer shall be equipped with a full enclosure over the bowl which is closed at all times while the agitator is in motion. Only minor openings in this enclosure, such as ingredient doors, flour inlets, etc., each representing less than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> square feet in area, shall be capable of being opened while the mixer is in operation.
</P>
<P>(ix) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(x) Overhead covers or doors which are subject to accidental closure shall be counterbalanced to remain in an open position or provided with means to hold them open until positively released by the operator.
</P>
<P>(xi)-(xvii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xviii) Valves and controls to regulate the coolant in mixer jackets shall be located so as to permit access by the operator without jeopardizing his safety.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Vertical mixers.</I> (i) Vertical mixers shall comply with paragraphs (e)(1) (i), (iii), (ix) and (x), of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Bowl locking devices shall be of a positive type which require the attention of the operator for unlocking.
</P>
<P>(iv) Devices shall be made available for moving bowls weighing more than 80 pounds, with contents, into and out of the mixing position on the machine.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dividers.</I> (1)-(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rear of divider.</I> The back of the divider shall have a complete cover to enclose all of the moving parts, or each individual part shall be enclosed or guarded to remove the separate hazards. The rear cover shall be provided with a limit switch in order that the machine cannot operate when this cover is open. The guard on the back shall be hinged so that it cannot be completely removed and if a catch or brace is provided for holding the cover open, it shall be designed so that it will not release due to vibrations or minor bumping whereby the cover may drop on an employee.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Moulders</I>—(1) <I>Hoppers.</I> Mechanical feed moulders shall be provided with hoppers so designed and connected to the proofer that an employee's hands cannot get into the hopper where they will come in contact with the in-running rolls.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hand-fed moulders.</I> Hand-fed moulders shall be provided with a belt-feed device or the hopper shall be extended high enough so that the hands of the operator cannot get into the feed rolls. The top edge of such a hopper shall be well rounded to prevent injury when it is struck or bumped by the employee's hand.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stopping devices.</I> There shall be a stopping device within easy reach of the operator who feeds the moulder and another stopping device within the reach of the employee taking the dough away from the moulder.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Manually fed dough brakes</I>—(1) <I>Top-roll protection.</I> The top roll shall be protected by a heavy gage metal shield extending over the roll to go within 6 inches of the hopper bottom board. The shield may be perforated to permit observation of the dough entering the rolls.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency stop bar</I>—An emergency stop bar shall be provided, and so located that the body of the operator will press against the bar if the operator slips and falls toward the rolls, or if the operator gets his hand caught in the rolls. The bar shall apply the body pressure to open positively a circuit that will deenergize the drive motor. In addition, a brake which is inherently self-engaging by requiring power or force from an external source to cause disengagement shall be activated at the same time causing the rolls to stop instantly. The emergency stop bar shall be checked for proper operation every 30 days.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Miscellaneous equipment</I>—(1) <I>Proof boxes.</I> All door locks shall be operable both from within and outside the box. Guide rails shall be installed to center the rack as it enters, passes through, and leaves the proof box.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fermentation room.</I> Fermentation room doors shall have nonshatterable wire glass or plastic panels for vision through doors.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Troughs.</I> Troughs shall be mounted on antifriction bearing casters thus making it possible for the operator to move and direct the motion of the trough with a minimum of effort.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hand trucks.</I> (i) Casters shall be set back from corners to be out of the way of toes and heels, but not far enough back to cause the truck to be unstable.
</P>
<P>(ii) A lock or other device shall be provided to hold the handle in vertical position when the truck is not in use.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Lift trucks.</I> A lock or other device shall be provided to hold the handle in vertical position when the truck is not in use.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Racks.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Racks shall be equipped with handles so located with reference to the frame of the rack that no part of the operator's hands extends beyond the outer edge of the frame when holding onto the handles.
</P>
<P>(iii) Antifriction bearing casters shall be used to give the operator better control of the rack.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Conveyors.</I> (i) Wherever a conveyor passes over a main aisleway, regularly occupied work area, or passageway, the underside of the conveyor shall be completely enclosed to prevent broken chains or other material from falling in the passageway.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stop bumpers shall be installed on all delivery ends of conveyors, wherever manual removal of the product carried is practiced.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where hazard of getting caught exists a sufficient number of stop buttons shall be provided to enable quick stopping of the conveyor.
</P>
<P>(8)-(10) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Ingredient premixers, emulsifiers, etc.</I> (i) All top openings shall be provided with covers attached to the machines. These covers should be so arranged and interlocked that power will be shut off whenever the cover is opened to a point where the operator's fingers might come in contact with the beaters.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Chain tackle.</I> (i) All chain tackle shall be marked prominently, permanently, and legibly with maximum load capacity.
</P>
<P>(ii) All chain tackle shall be marked permanently and legibly with minimum support specification.
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety hooks shall be used.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Trough hoists, etc.</I> (i) All hoists shall be marked prominently, permanently, and legibly with maximum load capacity.
</P>
<P>(ii) All hoists shall be marked permanently and legibly with minimum support specifications.
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety catches shall be provided for the chain so that the chain will hold the load in any position.
</P>
<P>(iv) Safety hooks shall be used.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Air-conditioning units.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) On large units with doors to chambers large enough to be entered, all door locks shall be operable from both inside and outside.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Pan washing tanks.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) The surface of the floor of the working platform shall be maintained in nonslip condition.
</P>
<P>(iii)-(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) Power ventilated exhaust hoods shall be provided over the tanks.
</P>
<P>(16)-(19) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Bread coolers, rack type.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) All door locks shall be operable from both within and outside the cooler.
</P>
<P>(21) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Doughnut machines.</I> Separate flues shall be provided, (i) for venting vapors from the frying section, and (ii) for venting products of combustion from the combustion chamber used to heat the fat.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Open fat kettles.</I> (i) The floor around kettles shall be maintained in nonslip condition.
</P>
<P>(ii)-(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) The top of the kettle shall be not less than 36 inches above floor or working level.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Steam kettles.</I> (i) Positive locking devices shall be provided to hold kettles in the desired position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kettles with steam jackets shall be provided with safety valves in accordance with the ASME Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Unfired Pressure Vessels, 1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Slicers and wrappers</I>—(1) <I>Slicers.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) The cover over the knife head of reciprocating-blade slicers shall be provided with an interlocking arrangement so that the machine cannot operate unless the cover is in place.
</P>
<P>(iv) On slicers with endless band knives, each motor shall be equipped with a magnet brake which operates whenever the motor is not energized. Each door, panel, or other point of access to the cutting blades shall be arranged by means of mechanical or electric interlocks so that the motor will be deenergized if all such access doors, panels, or access points are not closed.
</P>
<P>(v) When it is necessary to sharpen slicer blades on the machine, a barrier shall be provided leaving only sufficient opening for the sharpening stone to reach the knife blades.
</P>
<P>(vi) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Slicer wrapper conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)-(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Mechanical control levers for starting and stopping both slicing machine conveyors and wrapping machines shall be extended or so located that an operator in one location can control both machines. Such levers should be provided wherever necessary, but these should be so arranged that there is only one station capable of starting the wrapping machine and conveyor assembly, and this starting station should be so arranged or guarded as to prevent accidental starting. The electric control station for starting and stopping the electric motor driving the wrapping machine and conveyor should be located near the clutch starting lever.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wrappers.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Electrical heaters on wrappers shall be protected by a cover plate properly separated or insulated from the heaters in order that accidental contact with this cover plate will not cause a burn to the operator.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Biscuit and cracker equipment</I>—(1) <I>Meal, peanut, and fig grinders.</I> (i) If the hopper is removable it shall be provided with an electric interlock so that the machine cannot be put in operation when the hopper is removed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where grid guards cannot be used, feed conveyors to hoppers, or baffle-type hoppers, shall be provided. Hoppers in such cases shall be enclosed and provided with hinged covers, and equipped with electric interlock to prevent operation of the machine with the cover open.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sugar and spice pulverizers.</I> (i) All drive belts used in connection with sugar and spice pulverizers shall be grounded by means of metal combs or other effective means of removing static electricity. All pulverizing of sugar or spice grinding shall be done in accordance with NFPA 62—1967 (Standard for Dust Hazards of Sugar and Cocoa) and NFPA 656—1959 (Standard for Dust Hazards in Spice Grinding Plants), which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) Magnetic separators shall be provided to reduce fire and explosion hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cheese, fruit, and food cutters.</I> These machines shall be protected in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reversible dough brakes.</I> Reversible brakes shall be provided with a guard or tripping mechanism on each side of the rolls. These guards shall be so arranged as to stop the machine or reverse the direction of the rolls so that they are outrunning if the guard is moved by contact of the operator.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cross-roll brakes.</I> Cross-roll brakes shall be provided with guards that are similar in number and equal in effectiveness to guards on hand-fed brakes.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Box- and roll-type dough sheeters.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Hoppers for sheeters shall have an automatic stop bar or automatic stopping device along the back edge of the hopper. If construction does not permit location at the back edge, the automatic stop bar or automatic stopping device shall be located where it will be most effective to accomplish the desired protection.
</P>
<P>(8) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Rotary, die machines, pretzel rolling, and pretzel-stick extruding machines.</I> Dough hoppers shall have the entire opening protected with substantial grid-type guards to prevent the employee from getting his hands caught in moving parts, or the hopper shall be extended high enough so that the operator's hands cannot get into moving parts.
</P>
<P>(10)-(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Pan cooling towers.</I> (i) Where pan cooling towers extend to two or more floors, a lockout switch shall be provided on each floor in order that mechanics working on the tower may positively lock the mechanism against starting. Only one start switch shall be used in the motor control circuit.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Chocolate melting, refining, and mixing kettles.</I> Each kettle shall be provided with a cover to enclose the top of the kettle. The bottom outlet of each kettle shall be of such size and shape that the operator cannot reach in to touch the revolving paddle or come in contact with the shear point between the paddle and the side of the kettle.
</P>
<P>(14)-(16) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Peanut cooling trucks.</I> Mechanically operated peanut cooling trucks shall have a grid-type cover over the entire top.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Ovens</I>—(1) <I>General location.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(vi) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vii) Ovens shall be located so that possible fire or explosion will not expose groups of persons to possible injury. For this reason ovens shall not adjoin lockers, lunch or sales rooms, main passageways, or exits.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safeguards of mechanical parts.</I> (i) Emergency stop buttons shall be provided on mechanical ovens near the point where operators are stationed.
</P>
<P>(ii) All piping at ovens shall be tested to be gastight.
</P>
<P>(iii) Main shutoff valves, operable separately from any automatic valve, shall be provided to permit turning off the fuel or steam in case of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Main shutoff valves shall be located so that explosions, fires, etc. will not prevent access to these valves.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Main shutoff valves shall be locked in the closed position when men must enter the oven or when the oven is not in service.
</P>
<P>(4)-(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Electrical heating equipment.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) A main disconnect switch or circuit breaker shall be provided. This switch or circuit breaker shall be so located that it can be reached quickly and safely. The main switch or circuit breaker shall have provisions for locking it in the open position if any work on the electrical equipment or inside the oven must be performed.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) Protecting devices shall be properly maintained and kept in working order.
</P>
<P>(ii) All safety devices on ovens shall be inspected at intervals of not less than twice a month by an especially appointed, properly instructed bakery employee, and not less than once a year by representatives of the oven manufacturers.
</P>
<P>(iii)(<I>a</I>) Protection of gas pilot lights shall be provided when it is impracticable to protect the main flame of the burner and where the pilot flame cannot contact the flame electrode without being in the path of the main flame of the burner. Failure of any gas pilot shall automatically shut off the fuel supply to the burner.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Ovens with multiple burners shall be equipped with individual atmospheric pilot lights where there is sufficient secondary air in the baking chamber and where gas is available; or else each burner shall be equipped with an electric spark-type ignition device.
</P>
<P>(iv) Burners of a capacity exceeding 150,000 B.t.u. per hour equipped with electric ignition shall be protected in addition by quick-acting combustion safeguards.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The high-tension current for any electric spark-type ignition device shall originate in a power supply line which is interlocked with the fuel supply for the oven in such a way that in case of current failure both the source of electricity to the high-tension circuits and the fuel supply shall be turned off simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Combustion safeguards used in connection with electric ignition systems on ovens shall be so designed as to prevent an explosive mixture from accumulating inside the oven before ignition has taken place.
</P>
<P>(v) When fuel is supplied and used at line pressure, safety shutoff valves shall be provided in the fuel line leading to the burner.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When fuel is supplied in excess of line pressure, safety shutoff valves shall be provided in the fuel line leading to the burners, unless the fuel supply lines are equipped with other automatic valves which will prevent the flow of fuel when the compressing equipment is stopped.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The safety shutoff valve shall be positively tight and shall be tested at least twice monthly.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>)-(<I>d</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) A safety shutoff valve shall require manual operation for reopening after it has closed, or the electric circuit shall be so arranged that it will require a manual operation for reopening the safety shutoff valve.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Manual reset-type safety shutoff valves shall be so arranged that they cannot be locked in an open position by external means.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Where blowers are used for supplying the air for combustion the safety shutoff valve shall be interlocked so that it will close in case of air failure.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Where gas or electric ignition is used, the safety shutoff valve shall close in case of ignition failure. On burners equipped with combustion safeguards, the valve shall close in case of burner flame failure.
</P>
<P>(vi) One main, manually operated, fuel shutoff valve shall be provided on each oven, and shall be located ahead of all other valves in the system.
</P>
<P>(vii) All individual gas or oil burners with a heating capacity over 150,000 B.t.u. per hour shall be protected by a safeguard which is actuated by the flame and which will react to flame failure in a time interval not to exceed 2 seconds. All safeguards, once having shut down a gas or oil burner, shall require manual resetting and starting of the burner or burners.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any space in an oven (except direct fired ovens) which could be filled with an explosive mixture shall be protected by explosion vents. Explosion vents shall be made of minimum weight consistent with adequate insulation.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Explosion doors which have a substantial weight shall be attached by chains or similar means to prevent flying parts from injuring the personnel in case of an explosion.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where explosion vents are so located that flying parts or gases might endanger the personnel working on or near the oven, internal or external protecting means shall be provided in the form of heavily constructed shields or deflectors made from noncombustible material.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Specifically exempted from the provisions of paragraph paragraph (l)(8)(viii) of this section are heating systems on ovens in which the fuel is admitted only to enclosed spaces which shall have been tested to prove that their construction will resist repeated explosions without deformation are exempt from the requirements of paragraph (l)(8)(viii) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>b</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix)-(x) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xi) Where the gas supply pressure is substantially higher than that at which the burners of an oven are designed to operate, a gas pressure regulator shall be employed.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>)-(<I>c</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A relief valve shall be placed on the outlet side of gas pressure regulators where gas is supplied at high pressure. The discharge from this valve shall be piped to the outside of the building.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Direct-fired ovens.</I> (i) Direct-fired ovens shall be safeguarded against failure of fuel, air, or ignition.
</P>
<P>(ii) To prevent the possible accumulation of explosive gases from being ignited after a shutdown, all direct-fired ovens with a heating capacity over 150,000 B.t.u. per hour shall be ventilated before the ignition system, combustion air blower, and the fuel can be turned on. The preventilation shall insure at least four complete changes of atmosphere in the baking chamber by discharging the oven atmosphere to the outside of the building and entraining fresh air into it. The preventilation shall be repeated whenever the heating equipment is shut down by a safety device.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Direct recirculating ovens.</I> (i) Each circulating fan in direct recirculating ovens shall be interconnected with the burner in such a manner that the fuel is shut off by a safety valve when the fan is not running.
</P>
<P>(ii) The flame of the burner or burners in direct recirculating ovens shall be protected by a quick-acting flame-sensitive safeguard which will automatically shut off the fuel supply in case of burner failure.
</P>
<P>(12)-(14) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Indirect recirculating ovens.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Duct systems (in ovens) operating under pressure shall be tested for tightness in the initial starting of the oven and also at intervals not farther apart than 6 months.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49765, Oct. 24, 1978; 43 FR 51760, Nov. 7, 1978; 61 FR 9241, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.264" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.264   Laundry machinery and operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> This section applies to moving parts of equipment used in laundries and to conditions peculiar to this industry, with special reference to the point of operation of laundry machines. This section does not apply to dry-cleaning operations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Point-of-operation guards</I>—(1) <I>Washroom machines.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Washing machine.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Each washing machine shall be provided with means for holding open the doors or covers of inner and outer cylinders or shells while being loaded or unloaded.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Starching and drying machines.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Drying tumbler.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Each drying tumbler shall be provided with means for holding open the doors or covers of inner and outer cylinders or shells while being loaded or unloaded.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Shaker (clothes tumbler).</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) through (<I>b</I>)(<I>1</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Each shaker or clothes tumbler of the double-cylinder type shall be provided with means for holding open the doors or covers of inner and outer cylinders or shells while being loaded or unloaded.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Exception.</I> Provisions of paragraph (c)(2) (iii), (iv)(<I>a</I>)(<I>1</I>), and (iv)(<I>b</I>) of this section shall not apply to shakeout or conditioning tumblers where the clothes are loaded into the open end of the revolving cylinder and are automatically discharged out of the opposite end.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Miscellaneous machines and equipment.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Steam pipes.</I> (<I>a</I>) All steam pipes that are within 7 feet of the floor or working platform, and with which the worker may come into contact, shall be insulated or covered with a heat-resistive material or shall be otherwise properly guarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where pressure-reducing valves are used, one or more relief or safety valves shall be provided on the low-pressure side of the reducing valve, in case the piping or equipment on the low-pressure side does not meet the requirements for full initial pressure. The relief or safety valve shall be located adjacent to, or as close as possible to, the reducing valve. Proper protection shall be provided to prevent injury or damage caused by fluid escaping from relief or safety valves if vented to the atmosphere. The vents shall be of ample size and as short and direct as possible. The combined discharge capacity of the relief valves shall be such that the pressure rating of the lower-pressure piping and equipment will not be exceeded if the reducing valve sticks or fails to open.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operating rules</I>—(1) <I>General.</I>
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Markers.</I> Markers and others handling soiled clothes shall be warned against touching the eyes, mouth, or any part of the body on which the skin has been broken by a scratch or abrasion; and they shall be cautioned not to touch or eat food until their hands have been thoroughly washed.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Instruction of employees.</I> Employees shall be properly instructed as to the hazards of their work and be instructed in safe practices, by bulletins, printed rules, and verbal instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mechanical</I>—(i) <I>Safety guards.</I> (<I>a</I>) No safeguard, safety appliance, or device attached to, or forming an integral part of any machinery shall be removed or made ineffective except for the purpose of making immediate repairs or adjustments. Any such safeguard, safety appliance, or device removed or made ineffective during the repair or adjustment of such machinery shall be replaced immediately upon the completion of such repairs or adjustments.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49767, Oct. 24, 1978; 43 FR 51760, Nov. 7, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.265" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.265   Sawmills.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements—Application.</I> This section includes safety requirements for sawmill operations including, but not limited to, log and lumber handling, sawing, trimming, and planing; waste disposal; operation of dry kilns; finishing; shipping; storage; yard and yard equipment; and for power tools and affiliated equipment used in connection with such operations, but excluding the manufacture of plywood, cooperage, and veneer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions applicable to this section</I>—(1) <I>A-frame.</I> The term <I>A-frame</I> means a structure made of two independent columns fastened together at the top and separated at the bottom for stability.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annealing.</I> The term <I>annealing</I> means heating then cooling to soften and render less brittle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Binder.</I> The term <I>binder</I> means a chain, cable, rope, or other approved material used for binding loads.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Boom.</I> The term <I>boom</I> means logs or timbers fastened together end to end and used to contain floating logs. The term includes enclosed logs.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Brow log.</I> The term <I>brow log</I> means a log placed parallel to a roadway at a landing or dump to protect vehicles while loading or unloading.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Bunk.</I> The term <I>bunk</I> means a cross support for a load.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Cant.</I> The term <I>cant</I> means a log slabbed on one or more sides.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Carriage (log carriage).</I> The term <I>carriage</I> means a framework mounted on wheels which runs on tracks or in grooves in a direction parallel to the face of the saw, and which contains apparatus to hold a log securely and advance it towards the saw.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Carrier.</I> The term <I>carrier</I> means an industrial truck so designed and constructed that it straddles the load to be transported with mechanisms to pick up the load and support it during transportation.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Chipper.</I> The term <I>chipper</I> means a machine which cuts material into chips.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Chock (bunk block) (cheese block).</I> The terms <I>chock, bunk block,</I> and <I>cheese block</I> mean a wedge that prevents logs or loads from moving.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Cold deck.</I> The term <I>cold deck</I> means a pile of logs stored for future removal.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Crotch lines.</I> The term <I>crotch lines</I> means two short lines attached to a hoisting line by a ring or shackle, the lower ends being attached to loading hooks.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Dog (carriage dog).</I> The term <I>dog</I> means a steel tooth, one or more of which are attached to each carriage knee to hold log firmly in place on carriage.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Drag saw.</I> The term <I>drag saw</I> means a power-driven, reciprocating crosscut saw mounted on suitable frame and used for bucking logs.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Head block.</I> The term <I>head block</I> means that part of a carriage which holds the log and upon which it rests. It generally consists of base, knee, taper set, and mechanism.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Head rig.</I> The term <I>head rig</I> means a combination of head saw and log carriage used for the initial breakdown of logs into timbers, cants, and boards.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Hog.</I> The term <I>hog</I> means a machine for cutting or grinding slabs and other coarse residue from the mill.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Husk.</I> The term <I>husk</I> means a head saw framework on a circular mill.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Industrial truck.</I> The term <I>industrial truck</I> means a mobile powerdriven truck or tractor.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Kiln tender.</I> The term <I>kiln tender</I> means the operator of a kiln.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Lift truck.</I> The term <I>lift truck</I> means an industrial truck used for lateral transportation and equipped with a power-operated lifting device, usually in the form of forks, for piling or unpiling lumber units or packages.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Live rolls.</I> The term <I>live rolls</I> means cylinders of wood or metal mounted on horizontal axes and rotated by power, which are used to convey slabs, lumber, and other wood products.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Loading boom.</I> The term <I>loading boom</I> means any structure projecting from a pivot point to guide a log when lifted.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Log deck.</I> The term <I>Log deck</I> means a platform in the sawmill on which the logs remain until needed for sawing.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Lumber hauling truck.</I> The term <I>lumber hauling truck</I> means an industrial truck, other than a lift truck or a carrier, used for the transport of lumber.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Log haul.</I> The term <I>log haul</I> means a conveyor for transferring logs to mill.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Package.</I> The term <I>package</I> means a unit of lumber.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Peavy.</I> The term <I>peavy</I> means a stout wooden handle fitted with a spike and hook and used for rolling logs.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Pike pole.</I> The term <I>pike pole</I> means a long pole whose end is shod with a sharp pointed spike.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Pitman rod.</I> The term <I>pitman rod</I> means connecting rod.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Resaw.</I> The term <I>resaw</I> means band, circular, or sash gang saws used to break down slabs, cants, or flitches into lumber.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Running line.</I> The term <I>running line</I> means any moving rope as distinguished from a stationary rope such as a guyline.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Safety factor.</I> The term <I>safety factor</I> means a calculated reduction factor which may be applied to laboratory test values to obtain safe working stresses for wooden beams and other mechanical members; ratio of breaking load to safe load.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Saw guide.</I> The term <I>saw guide</I> means a device for steadying a circular or bandsaw.
</P>
<P>(36) <I>Setwork.</I> The term <I>setwork</I> means a mechanism on a sawmill carriage which enables an operator to move the log into position for another cut.
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Sorting gaps.</I> The term <I>sorting gaps</I> means the areas on a log pond enclosed by boom sticks into which logs are sorted.
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Spreader wheel.</I> The term <I>spreader wheel</I> means a metal wheel that separates the board from the log in back of circular saws to prevent binding.
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Splitter.</I> The term <I>splitter</I> means a knife-type, nonrotating spreader.
</P>
<P>(40) <I>Sticker.</I> The term <I>sticker</I> means a strip of wood or other material used to separate layers of lumber.
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Stiff boom.</I> The term <I>stiff boom</I> means the anchored, stationary boom sticks which are tied together and on which boom men work.
</P>
<P>(42) <I>Swifter.</I> The term <I>swifter</I> is a means of tying boom sticks together to prevent them from spreading while being towed.
</P>
<P>(43) <I>Telltale.</I> The term <I>telltale</I> means a device used to serve as a warning for overhead objects.
</P>
<P>(44) <I>Top saw.</I> The term <I>top saw</I> means the upper of two circular saws on a head rig, both being on the same husk.
</P>
<P>(45) <I>Tramway.</I> The term <I>tramway</I> means a way for trams, usually consisting of parallel tracks laid on wooden beams.
</P>
<P>(46) <I>Trestle.</I> The term <I>trestle</I> means a braced framework of timbers, piles or steelwork for carrying a road or railroad over a depression.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Building facilities, and isolated equipment</I>—(1) <I>Safety factor.</I> All buildings, docks, tramways, walkways, log dumps, and other structures shall be designed, constructed and maintained so as to support the imposed load in accordance with a safety factor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Work areas.</I> Work areas under mills shall be as evenly surfaced as local conditions permit. They shall be free from unnecessary obstructions and provided with lighting facilities in accordance with American National Standard for Industrial Lighting A11.1—1965, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Floors.</I> Flooring in buildings and on ramps and walkways shall be constructed and installed in accordance with established principles of mechanics and sound engineering practices. They shall be of adequate strength to support the estimated or actual dead and live loads acting on them with the resultant stress not exceeding the allowable stress for the material being used.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Areas beneath floor openings.</I> Areas under floor openings shall, where practical, be fenced off. When this is not practical, they shall be plainly marked and telltales shall be installed to hang over these areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Floor maintenance.</I> The flooring of buildings, docks, and passageways shall be kept in good repair. When a hazardous condition develops that cannot be immediately repaired, the area shall be guarded until adequate repairs are made.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nonslip floors.</I> Floors, footwalks, and passageways in the work area around machines or other places where a person is required to stand or walk shall be provided with effective means to minimize slipping.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Walkways, docks, and platforms</I>—(i) <I>Width.</I> Walkways, docks, and platforms shall be of sufficient width to provide adequate passage and working areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maintenance.</I> Walkways shall be evenly floored and kept in good repair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Docks.</I> Docks and runways used for the operation of lift trucks and other vehicles shall have a substantial guard or shear timber except where loading and unloading are being performed.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Elevated walks.</I> All elevated walks, runways, or platforms, if 4 feet or more from the floor level, shall be provided with a standard railing except on loading or unloading sides of platforms. If height exceeds 6 feet, a standard toe board also shall be provided to prevent material from rolling or falling off.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Elevated platforms.</I> Where elevated platforms are used routinely on a daily basis, they shall be equipped with stairways or fixed ladders that comply with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Hazardous locations.</I> Where required, walkways and stairways with standard handrails shall be provided in elevated and hazardous locations. Where such passageways are over walkways or work areas, standard toe boards shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Stairways</I>—(i) <I>Construction.</I> Stairways shall be constructed in accordance with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Handrails.</I> Stairways shall be provided with a standard handrail on at least one side or on any open side. Where stairs are more than four feet wide there shall be a standard handrail at each side, and where more than eight feet wide, a third standard handrail shall be erected in the center of the stairway.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lighting.</I> All stairways shall be adequately lighted as prescribed in paragraph (c)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Emergency exits including doors and fire escapes</I>—(i) <I>Opening.</I> Doors shall not open directly on or block a flight of stairs, and shall swing in the direction of exit travel.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Identification.</I> Exits shall be located and identified in a manner that affords ready exit from all work areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Swinging doors.</I> All swinging doors shall be provided with windows; with one window for each section of double swinging doors. Such windows shall be of shatterproof or safety glass unless otherwise protected against breakage.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Sliding doors.</I> Where sliding doors are used as exits, an inner door shall be cut inside each of the main doors and arranged to open outward.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Barriers and warning signs.</I> Where a doorway opens upon a railroad track or upon a tramway or dock over which vehicles travel, a barrier or other warning device shall be placed to prevent workmen from stepping into moving traffic.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Air requirements.</I> Ventilation shall be provided to supply adequate fresh healthful air to rooms, buildings, and work areas.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Vats and tanks.</I> All open vats and tanks into which workmen could fall shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Lighting</I>—(i) <I>Adequacy.</I> Illumination shall be provided and designed to supply adequate general and local lighting to rooms, buildings, and work areas during the time of use.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effectiveness.</I> Factors upon which the adequacy and effectiveness of illumination will be judged, include the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The quantity of light in foot-candle intensity shall be sufficient for the work being done.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The quality of the light shall be such that it is free from glare, and has correct direction, diffusion, and distribution.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Shadows and extreme contrasts shall be avoided or kept to a minimum.
</P>
<P>(10) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Hazard marking.</I> Physical hazard marking shall be as specified in § 1910.144 of this part.
</P>
<P>(12) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Hydraulic systems.</I> Means shall be provided to block, chain, or otherwise secure equipment normally supported by hydraulic pressure so as to provide for safe maintenance.
</P>
<P>(14) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Gas piping and appliances.</I> All gas piping and appliances shall be installed in accordance with the American National Standard Requirements for the Installation of Gas Appliances and Gas Piping Z21.30—1964, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(16)-(17) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Conveyors</I>—(i) <I>Standards.</I> Construction, operation, and maintenance of conveyors shall be in accordance with American National Standard B20.1—1957, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Guarding.</I> Spiked live rolls shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Stationary tramways and trestles</I>—(i) <I>Foundations and walkways.</I> Tramways and trestles shall have substantial mud sills or foundations which shall be frequently inspected and kept in repair. When vehicles are operated on tramways and trestles which are used for foot passage, traffic shall be controlled or a walkway with standard handrails at the outer edge and shear timber on the inner edge shall be provided. This walkway shall be wide enough to allow adequate clearance to vehicles. When walkways cross over other thoroughfares, they shall be solidly fenced at the outer edge to a height of 42 inches over such thoroughfares.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clearance.</I> Stationary tramways and trestles shall have a vertical clearance of 22 feet over railroad rails. When constructed over carrier docks or roads, they shall have a clearance of 6 feet above the driver's foot rest on the carrier, and in no event shall this clearance be less than 12 feet from the roadway. In existing operations where it is impractical to obtain such clearance, telltales, electric signals, signs or other precautionary measures shall be installed.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Blower, collecting, and exhaust systems</I>—(i) <I>Design, construction, and maintenance.</I> Blower collecting, and exhaust systems should be designed, constructed, and maintained in accordance with American National Standards Z33.1—1961 (For the Installation of Blower and Exhaust Systems for Dust, Stock, and Vapor Removal or Conveying) and Z12.2—1962 (R1969) (Code for the Prevention of Dust Explosion in Woodworking and Wood Flour Manufacturing Plants), which are incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Collecting systems.</I> All mills containing one or more machines that create dust, shavings, chips, or slivers during a period of time equal to or greater than one-fourth of the working day, shall be equipped with a collecting system. It may be either continuous or automatic, and shall be of sufficient strength and capacity to enable it to remove such refuse from points of operation and immediate vicinities of machines and work areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exhaust or conveyor systems.</I> Each woodworking machine that creates dust, shavings, chips, or slivers shall be equipped with an exhaust or conveyor system located and adjusted to remove the maximum amount of refuse from the point of operation and immediate vicinity.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dust chambers.</I> Exhaust pipes shall not discharge into an unconfined outside pile if uncontrolled fire or explosion hazards are created. They may empty into settling or dust chambers, designed to prevent the dust or refuse from entering any work area. Such chambers shall be constructed and operated to minimize the danger of fire or dust explosion.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Hand removal of refuse.</I> Provision for the daily removal of refuse shall be made in all operations not required to have an exhaust system or having refuse too heavy, bulky, or otherwise unsuitable to be handled by the exhaust system.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Chippers</I>—(i) <I>Whole-log chippers.</I> The feed system to the chipper shall be arranged so the operator does not stand in direct line with the chipper spout (hopper). The chipper spout shall be enclosed to a height of not less than 36 inches from the floor or the operator's platform. A safety belt and lifeline shall be worn by workmen when working at or near the spout unless the spout is guarded. The lifeline shall be short enough to prevent workers from falling into the chipper.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Hogs.</I> (<I>a</I>) Hog mills shall be so designed and arranged that from no position on the rim of the chute shall the distance to the cutter knives be less than 40 inches.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Hog feed chutes shall be provided with suitable and approved baffles, which shall minimize material from being thrown from the mill.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Employees feeding hog mills shall be provided with safety belts and lines unless guarded.
</P>
<P>(22) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Bins, bunkers, hoppers, and fuel houses</I>—(i) <I>Guarding.</I> Open bins, bunkers, and hoppers whose upper edges extend less than 3 feet above working level shall be equipped with standard handrails and toe boards, or have their tops covered by a substantial grill or grating with openings small enough to prevent a man from falling through.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Use of wheeled equipment to load bins.</I> Where automotive or other wheeled equipment is used to move materials into bins, bunkers, and hoppers, adequate guard rails shall be installed along each side of the runway, and a substantial bumper stop provided when necessary.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exits, lighting, and safety devices.</I> Fuel houses and bins shall have adequate exits and lighting, and all necessary safety devices shall be provided and shall be used by persons entering these structures.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Walkways.</I> Where needed, fuel houses and bins shall have a standard railed platform or walkway near the top.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Ropes, cables, slings, and chains</I>—(i) <I>Safe usage.</I> Ropes, cables, slings, and chains shall be used in accordance with safe use practices recommended by the manufacturer or within safe limits recommended by the equipment manufacturer when used in conjunction with it.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Hooks.</I> No open hook shall be used in rigging to lift any load where there is hazard from relieving the tension on the hook from the load or hook catching or fouling.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Work by qualified persons.</I> Installation, inspection, maintenance, repair, and testing of ropes, cables, slings, and chains shall be done only by persons qualified to do such work.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Slings.</I> Proper storage shall be provided for slings while not in use.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Ropes or cables.</I> (<I>a</I>) Wire rope or cable shall be inspected when installed and once each week thereafter, when in use. It shall be removed from hoisting or load-carrying service when kinked or when one of the following conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When three broken wires are found in one lay of 6 by 6 wire rope.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When six broken wires are found in one lay of 6 by 19 wire rope.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) When nine broken wires are found in one lay of 6 by 37 wire rope.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) When eight broken wires are found in one lay of 8 by 19 wire rope.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) When marked corrosion appears.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Wire rope of a type not described herein shall be removed from service when 4 percent of the total number of wires composing such rope are found to be broken in one lay.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Wire rope removed from service due to defects shall be plainly marked or identified as being unfit for further use on cranes, hoists, and other load-carrying devices.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The ratio between the rope diameter and the drum, block, sheave, or pulley tread diameter shall be such that the rope will adjust itself to the bend without excessive wear, deformation, or injury. In no case shall the safe value of drums, blocks, sheaves, or pulleys be reduced when replacing such items unless compensating changes are made for rope used and for safe loading limits.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Drums, sheaves, and pulleys.</I> Drums, sheaves, and pulleys shall be smooth and free from surface defects liable to injure rope. Drums, sheaves, or pulleys having eccentric bores or cracked hubs, spokes, or flanges shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Connections.</I> Connections, fittings, fastenings, and other parts used in connection with ropes and cables shall be of good quality and of proper size and strength, and shall be installed in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Socketing, splicing, and seizing.</I> (<I>a</I>) Socketing, splicing, and seizing of cables shall be performed only by qualified persons.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) All eye splices shall be made in an approved manner and wire rope thimbles of proper size shall be fitted in the eye, except that in slings the use of thimbles shall be optional.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Wire rope clips attached with U-bolts shall have these bolts on the dead or short end of the rope. The U-bolt nuts shall be retightened immediately after initial load carrying use and at frequent intervals thereafter.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When a wedge socket-type fastening is used, the dead or short end of the cable shall be clipped with a U-bolt or otherwise made secure against loosening.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) <I>Fittings.</I> Hooks, shackles, rings, pad eyes, and other fittings that show excessive wear or that have been bent, twisted, or otherwise damaged shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) <I>Running lines.</I> Running lines of hoisting equipment located within 6 feet 6 inches of the ground or working level shall be boxed off or otherwise guarded, or the operating area shall be restricted.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) <I>Number of wraps on drum.</I> There shall be not less than two full wraps of hoisting cable on the drum of cranes and hoists at all times of operation.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) <I>Drum flanges.</I> Drums shall have a flange at each end to prevent the cable from slipping off.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Sheave guards.</I> Bottom sheaves shall be protected by close fitting guards to prevent cable from jumping the sheave.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) <I>Preventing abrasion.</I> The reeving of a rope shall be so arranged as to minimize chafing or abrading while in use.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Chains.</I> (<I>a</I>) Chains used in load carrying service shall be inspected before initial use and weekly thereafter.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Chain shall be normalized or annealed periodically as recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) If at any time any 3-foot length of chain is found to have stretched one-third the length of a link it shall be discarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Bolts or nails shall not be placed between two links to shorten or join chains.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Broken chains shall not be spliced by inserting a bolt between two links with the head of the bolt and nut sustaining the load, or by passing one link through another and inserting a bolt or nail to hold it.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Fiber rope.</I> (<I>a</I>) Frozen fiber rope shall not be used in load carrying service.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Fiber rope that has been subjected to acid or excessive heat shall not be used for load carrying purposes.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Fiber rope shall be protected from abrasion by padding where it is fastened or drawn over square corners or sharp or rough surfaces.
</P>
<P>(25) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Mechanical stackers and unstackers.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lumber lifting devices.</I> Lumber lifting devices on all stackers shall be designed and arranged so as to minimize the possibility of lumber falling from such devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Blocking hoisting platform.</I> Means shall be provided to positively block the hoisting platform when employees must go beneath the stacker or unstacker hoist.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Identifying controls.</I> Every manually operated control switch shall be properly identified and so located as to be readily accessible to the operator.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Locking main control switches.</I> Main control switches shall be so designed that they can be locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Guarding side openings.</I> The hoistway side openings at the top level of the stacker and unstacker shall be protected by enclosures of standard railings.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Guarding hoistway openings.</I> When the hoist platform or top of the load is below the working platform, the hoistway openings shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Guarding lower landing area.</I> The lower landing area of stackers and unstackers shall be guarded by enclosures that prevent entrance to the area or pit below the hoist platform. Entrances should be protected by electrically interlocked gates which, when open, will disconnect the power and set the hoist brakes. When the interlock is not installed, other positive means of protecting the entrance shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Inspection.</I> Every stacker and unstacker shall be inspected at frequent intervals and all defective parts shall be immediately repaired or replaced.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Cleaning pits.</I> Safe means of entrance and exit shall be provided to permit cleaning of pits.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Preventing entry to hazardous area.</I> Where the return of trucks from unstacker to stacker is by mechanical power or gravity, adequate signs, warning devices, or barriers shall be erected to prevent entry into the hazardous area.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Lumber piling and storage</I>—(i) <I>Pile foundations.</I> In stacking units of lumber, pile foundations shall be designed and arranged to support maximum loads without sinking, sagging, or permitting the piles to topple. In unit package piles, substantial bolsters or unit separators shall be placed between each package directly over the stickers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Stacking dissimilar unit packages.</I> Long units of lumber shall not be stacked upon shorter packages except where a stable pile can be made with the use of package separators.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Unstable piles.</I> Piles of lumber which have become unstable shall be immediately made safe, or the area into which they might fall shall be fenced or barricaded and employees prohibited from entering it.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Stickers.</I> Unit packages of lumber shall be provided with stickers as necessary to insure stability under ordinary operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Sticker alignment.</I> Stickers shall extend the full width of the package, shall be uniformly spaced, and shall be aligned one above the other. Stickers may be lapped with a minimum overlapping of 12 inches. Stickers shall not protrude more than 2 inches beyond the sides of the package.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Pile height.</I> The height of unit package piles shall be dependent on the dimensions of the packages and shall be such as to provide stability under normal operating conditions. Adjacent lumber piles may be tied together with separators to increase stability.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Lumber loading.</I> Loads shall be built and secured to insure stability in transit.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Burners</I>—(i) <I>Guying.</I> If the burner stack is not self-supporting, it shall be guyed or otherwise supported.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Runway.</I> The conveyor runway to the burner shall be equipped with a standard handrail. If the runway crosses a roadway or thoroughfare, standard toe boards shall be provided in addition.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Vehicles</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> Vehicles shall include all mobile equipment normally used in sawmill, planing mill, storage, shipping, and yard operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Warning signals and spark arrestors.</I> All vehicles shall be equipped with audible warning signals and where practicable shall have spark arrestors.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lights.</I> All vehicles operated in the dark or in poorly lighted areas shall be equipped with head and tail lights.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Overhead guard.</I> All vehicles operated in areas where overhead hazards exist shall be equipped with an approved overhead guard. See American National Standard Safety Code for Powered Industrial Trucks, B56.1—1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Platform guard.</I> Where the operator is exposed to hazard from backing the vehicle into objects, an approved platform guard shall be provided and so arranged as to not impede exit of driver from vehicle.
</P>
<P>(vi) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Operation in buildings.</I> Vehicles powered by internal combustion engines shall not operate in buildings unless the buildings are adequately ventilated.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Load limits.</I> No vehicle shall be operated with loads exceeding its safe load capacity.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Brakes.</I> All vehicles shall be equipped with brakes capable of holding and controlling the vehicle and capacity load upon any incline or grade over which they may be operated.
</P>
<P>(x) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Carriers.</I> (<I>a</I>) Carriers shall be so designed and constructed that the operator's field of vision shall not be unnecessarily restricted.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Carriers shall be provided with an access ladder or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Lumber hauling trucks.</I> (<I>a</I>) On trucks where movement of load on stopping would endanger the operator, a substantial bulkhead shall be installed behind the operator's seat. This shall extend to the top of the operator's compartment.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Stakes, stake pockets, racks, tighteners, and binders shall provide adequate means to secure the load against any movement during transit.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where rollers are used, at least two shall be equipped with locks which shall be locked when supporting loads during transit.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Traffic control and flow</I>—(i) <I>Hazardous crossings.</I> Railroad tracks and other hazardous crossings shall be plainly posted.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Restricted overhead clearance.</I> All areas of restricted side or overhead clearance shall be plainly marked.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Pickup and unloading points.</I> Pickup and unloading points and paths for lumber packages on conveyors and transfers and other areas where accurate spotting is required, shall be plainly marked and wheel stops provided where necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Aisles, passageways, and roadways.</I> Aisles, passageways, and roadways shall be sufficiently wide to provide safe side clearance. One-way aisles may be used for two-way traffic if suitable turnouts are provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Log handling, sorting, and storage</I>—(1) <I>Log unloading methods, equipment, and facilities</I>—(i) <I>Unloading methods.</I> (<I>a</I>) Stakes and chocks which trip shall be constructed in such manner that the tripping mechanism that releases the stake or chocks is activated at the opposite side of the load being tripped.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Binders on logs shall not be released prior to securing with unloading lines or other unloading device.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Binders shall be released only from the side on which the unloader operates, except when released by remote control devices or except when person making release is protected by racks or stanchions or other equivalent means.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Loads on which a binder is fouled by the unloading machine shall have an extra binder or metal band of equal strength placed around the load, or the load shall be otherwise secured so the fouled binder can be safely removed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unloading equipment and facilities.</I> (<I>a</I>) Machines used for hoisting, unloading, or lowering logs shall be equipped with brakes capable of controlling or holding the maximum load in midair.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The lifting cylinders of all hydraulically operated log handling machines shall be equipped with a positive device for preventing the uncontrolled lowering of the load or forks in case of a failure in the hydraulic system.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A limit switch shall be installed on powered log handling machines to prevent the lift arms from traveling too far in the event the control switch is not released in time.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) When forklift-type machines are used to load trailers, a means of securing the loading attachment to the fork shall be installed and used.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) A-frames and similar log unloading devices shall have adequate height to provide safe clearance for swinging loads and to provide for adequate crotch lines and spreader bar devices.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Log handling machines used to stack logs or lift loads above operator's head shall be equipped with adequate overhead protection.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) All mobile log handling machines shall be equipped with headlights and backup lights.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Unloading devices shall be equipped with a horn or other plainly audible signaling device.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Movement of unloading equipment shall be coordinated by audible or hand signals when operator's vision is impaired or operating in the vicinity of other employees.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Wood pike poles shall be made of straight-grained, select material. Metal or conductive pike poles shall not be used around exposed energized electrical conductors. Defective, blunt, or dull pike poles shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Log unloading and storage areas</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> (<I>a</I>) Log dumps, booms, ponds, or storage areas used at night shall be illuminated in accordance with the requirements of American National Standard A11.1-1965 (R-1970) Standard Practice for Industrial Lighting, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Log unloading areas shall be arranged and maintained to provide a safe working area.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Where skids are used, space adequate to clear a man's body shall be maintained between the top of the skids and the ground.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Signs prohibiting unauthorized foot or vehicle traffic in log unloading and storage areas shall be posted.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Water log dumps.</I> (<I>a</I>) Ungrounded electrically powered hoists using handheld remote control in grounded locations, such as log dumps or mill log lifts, shall be actuated by circuits operating at less than 50 volts to ground.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Roadbeds at log dumps shall be of sufficient width and evenness to insure safe operation of equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) An adequate brow log or skid timbers or the equivalent shall be provided where necessary. Railroad-type dumps, when located where logs are dumped directly into water or where entire loads are lifted from vehicle, may be exempted providing such practice does not create a hazardous exposure of personnel or equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Unloading lines shall be arranged so that it is not necessary for the employees to attach them from the pond or dump side of the load except when entire loads are lifted from the log-transporting vehicle.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Unloading lines, crotch lines, or equally effective means shall be arranged and used in a manner to minimize the possibility of any log from swinging or rolling back.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) When logs are unloaded with peavys or similar manual methods, means shall be provided and used that will minimize the danger from rolling or swinging logs.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Guardrails, walkways, and standard handrails shall be installed
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Approved life rings (see: 46 CFR 160.099 and 46 CFR 160.050) with line attached and maintained to retain buoyancy shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Log booms and ponds.</I> (<I>a</I>) Walkways and floats shall be installed and securely anchored to provide adequate passageway for employees.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) All regular boom sticks and foot logs shall be reasonably straight, with no protruding knots and bark, and shall be capable of supporting, above the water line at either end, the weight of an employee and equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Permanent cable swifters shall be so arranged that it will not be necessary to roll boom sticks in order to attach or detach them.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Periodic inspection of cable or dogging lines shall be made to determine when repair or removal from service is necessary.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The banks of the log pond in the vicinity of the log haul shall be reinforced to prevent caving in.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Artificial log ponds shall be drained, cleaned, and refilled when unhealthy stagnation or pollution occurs.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Employees whose duties require them to work from boats, floating logs, boom sticks, or walkways along or on water shall be provided with and shall wear appropriate buoyant devices while performing such duties.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Stiff booms shall be two float logs wide secured by boom chains or other connecting devices, and of a width adequate for the working needs. Walking surfaces shall be free of loose material and maintained in good repair.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Boom sticks shall be fastened together with adequate crossties or couplings.
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Floating donkeys or other power-driven machinery used on booms shall be placed on a raft or float with enough buoyancy to keep the deck well above water.
</P>
<P>(<I>k</I>) All sorting gaps shall have a substantial stiff boom on each side.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Pond boats and rafts.</I> The applicable provisions of the Standard for Fire Protection for Motorcraft, NFPA No. 302—1968, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, shall be complied with.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Decks of pond boats shall be covered with nonslip material.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Powered pond boats or rafts shall be provided with at least one approved fire extinguisher, and one lifering with line attached.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Boat fuel shall be transported and stored in approved safety containers. Refer to § 1910.155(c)(3) for definition of approved.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Inspection, maintenance, and ventilation of the bilge area shall be provided to prevent accumulation of highly combustible materials.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Adequate ventilation shall be provided for the cabin area on enclosed cabin-type boats to prevent accumulation of harmful gases or vapors.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dry deck storage.</I> (<I>a</I>) Dry deck storage areas shall be kept orderly and shall be maintained in a condition which is conducive to safe operation of mobile equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Logs shall be stored in a safe and orderly manner, and roadways and traffic lanes shall be maintained at a width adequate for safe travel of log handling equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Logs shall be arranged to minimize the chance of accidentally rolling from the deck.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Log hauls and slips.</I> (<I>a</I>) Walkways along log hauls shall have a standard handrail on the outer edge, and cleats or other means to assure adequate footing and enable employees to walk clear of the log chute.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Log haul bull chains or cable shall be designed, installed, and maintained to provide adequate safety for the work need.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Log haul gear and bull chain drive mechanism shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Substantial troughs for the return strand of log haul chains shall be provided over passageways.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Log haul controls shall be located and identified to operate from a position where the operator will, at all times, be in the clear of logs, machinery, lines, and rigging. In operations where control is by lever exposed to incoming logs, the lever shall be arranged to operate the log haul only when moved toward the log slip or toward the log pond.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) A positive stop shall be installed on all log hauls to prevent logs from traveling too far ahead in the mill.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Overhead protection shall be provided for employees working below logs being moved to the log deck.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Log wells shall be provided with safeguards to minimize the possibility of logs rolling back into well from log deck.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Log decks</I>—(i) <I>Access.</I> Safe access to the head rig shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Stops.</I> Log decks shall be provided with adequate stops, chains, or other safeguards to prevent logs from rolling down the deck onto the carriage or its runway.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Barricade.</I> A barricade or other positive stop of sufficient strength to stop any log shall be erected between the sawyer's stand and the log deck.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Loose chains.</I> Loose chains from overhead canting devices or other equipment shall not be allowed to hang over the log deck in such manner as to strike employees.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Swing saws.</I> Swing saws on log decks shall be equipped with a barricade and stops for protection of employees who may be on the opposite side of the log haul chute.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Drag saws.</I> Where reciprocating log cutoff saws (drag saws) are provided, they shall not project into walkway or aisle.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Circular cutoff saws.</I> Circular log bucking or cutoff saws shall be so located and guarded as to allow safe entrance to and exit from the building.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Entrance doorway.</I> Where the cutoff saw partially blocks the entrance from the log haul runway, the entrance shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mechanical barkers</I>—(i) <I>Rotary barkers.</I> Rotary barking devices shall be so guarded as to protect employees from flying chips, bark, or other extraneous material.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Elevating ramp.</I> If an elevating ramp or gate is used, it shall be provided with a safety chain, hook, or other means of suspension while employees are underneath.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Area around barkers.</I> The hazardous area around ring barkers and their conveyors shall be fenced off or posted as a prohibited area for unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Enclosing hydraulic barkers.</I> Hydraulic barkers shall be enclosed with strong baffles at the inlet and outlet. The operator shall be protected by adequate safety glass or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Holddown rolls.</I> Holddown rolls shall be installed at the infeed and outfeed sections of mechanical ring barkers to control the movement of logs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Log breakdown and related machinery and facilities</I>—(1) <I>Log carriages and carriage runways</I>—(i) <I>Bumpers.</I> A substantial stop or bumper with adequate shock-absorptive qualities shall be installed at each end of the carriage runway.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Footing.</I> Rider-type carriages shall be floored to provide secure footing and a firm working platform for the block setter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Sheave housing.</I> Sheaves on rope-driven carriages shall be guarded at floor line with substantial housings.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Carriage control.</I> A positive means shall be provided to prevent unintended movement of the carriage. This may involve a control locking device, a carriage tie-down, or both.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Barriers and warning signs.</I> A barrier shall be provided to prevent employees from entering the space necessary for travel of the carriage, with headblocks fully receded, for the full length and extreme ends of carriage runways. Warning signs shall be posted at possible entry points to this area.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Overhead clearance.</I> For a rider-type carriage adequate overhead clear space above the carriage deck shall be provided for the full carriage runway length.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Sweeping devices.</I> Carriage track sweeping devices shall be used to keep track rails clear of debris.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Dogs.</I> Dogging devices shall be adequate to secure logs, cants, or boards, during sawing operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Head saws</I>—(i) <I>Band head saws.</I> (<I>a</I>) Band head saws shall not be operated at speeds in excess of those recommended by the manufacturer
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Band head saws shall be thoroughly inspected for cracks, splits, broken teeth, and other defects. A bandsaw with a crack greater than one-tenth the width of the saw shall not be placed in service until width of saw is reduced to eliminate crack, until cracked section is removed, or crack development is stopped.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Provisions shall be made for alerting and warning employees before starting band head saws, and measures shall be taken to insure that all persons are in the clear.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Bandsaw wheels.</I> (<I>a</I>) No bandsaw wheel shall be run at a peripheral speed in excess of that recommended by the manufacturer. The manufacturer's recommended maximum speed shall be stamped in plainly legible figures on some portion of the wheel.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Band head saw wheels shall be subjected to monthly inspections. Hubs, spokes, rims, bolts, and rivets shall be thoroughly examined in the course of such inspections. A loose or damaged hub, a rim crack, or loose spokes shall make the wheel unfit for service.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Band wheels shall be completely encased or guarded, except for a portion of the upper wheel immediately around the point where the blade leaves the wheel, to permit operator to observe movement of equipment. Necessary ventilating and observation ports may be permitted. Substantial doors or gates are allowed for repair, lubrication, and saw changes; such doors or gates shall be closed securely during operation. Band head rigs shall be equipped with a saw catcher or guard of substantial construction.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Single circular head saws.</I> (<I>a</I>) Circular head saws shall not be operated at speeds in excess of those specified by the manufacturer. Maximum speed shall be etched on the saw.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Circular head saws shall be equipped with safety guides which can be readily adjusted without use of hand tools.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The upper saw of a double circular mill shall be provided with a substantial hood or guard. A screen or other suitable device shall be placed so as to protect the sawyer from flying particles.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) All circular sawmills where live rolls are not used behind the head saw shall be equipped with a spreader wheel or splitter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Twin circular head saws.</I> Twin circular head saws rigs such as scrag saws shall meet the specifications for single circular head saws in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section where applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Whole-log sash gang saws (Swedish gangs).</I> (<I>a</I>) Cranks, pitman rods, and other moving parts shall be adequately guarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Feed rolls shall be enclosed by a cover over the top, front, and open ends except where guarded by location. Drive mechanism to feed rolls shall be enclosed.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Carriage cradles of whole-log sash gang saws (Swedish gangs), shall be of adequate height to prevent logs from kicking out while being loaded.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Resaws</I>—(i) <I>Band resaws.</I> Band resaws shall meet the specifications for band head saws as required by paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Circular gang resaws.</I> (<I>a</I>) Banks of circular gang resaws shall be guarded by a hood.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Circular gang resaws shall be provided with safety fingers or other antikickback devices.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Circular gang resaws shall not be operated at speeds exceeding those recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Feed rolls shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Each circular gang resaw, except self-feed saws with a live roll or wheel at back of saw, shall be provided with spreaders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Sash gang resaws.</I> Sash gang resaws shall meet the safety specifications of whole-log sash gang saws in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Trimmer saws</I>—(i) <I>Maximum speed.</I> Trimmer saws shall not be run at peripheral speeds in excess of those recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Guards.</I> (<I>a</I>) Trimmer saws shall be guarded in front by adequate baffles to protect against flying debris and they shall be securely bolted to a substantial frame. These guards for a series of saws shall be set as close to the top of the trimmer table as is practical.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The end saws on trimmer shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The rear of trimmer saws shall have a guard the full width of the saws and as much wider as practical.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Safety stops.</I> Automatic trimmer saws shall be provided with safety stops or hangers to prevent saws from dropping on table.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Edgers</I>—(i) <I>Location.</I> (<I>a</I>) Where vertical arbor edger saws are located ahead of the main saw, they shall be so guarded that an employee cannot contact any part of the edger saw from his normal position.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Edgers shall not be located in the main roll case behind the head saws.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Guards.</I> (<I>a</I>) The top and the openings in end and side frames of edgers shall be adequately guarded and gears and chains shall be fully housed. Guards may be hinged or otherwise arranged to permit oiling and the removal of saws.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) All edgers shall be equipped with pressure feed rolls.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Pressure feed rolls on edgers shall be guarded against accidental contact.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Antikickback devices.</I> (<I>a</I>) Edgers shall be provided with safety fingers or other approved methods of preventing kickbacks or guarding against them. A barricade in line with the edger, if properly fenced off, may be used if safety fingers are not feasible to install.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A controlling device shall be installed and located so that the operator can stop the feed mechanism without releasing the tension of the pressure rolls.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Operating speed of live rolls.</I> Live rolls and tailing devices in back of edger shall operate at a speed not less than the speed of the edger feed rolls.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Planers</I>—(i) <I>Guards.</I> (<I>a</I>) All cutting heads shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Side head hoods shall be of sufficient height to safeguard the head setscrew.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Pressure feed rolls and “pineapples” shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Levers or controls shall be so arranged or guarded as to reduce the possibility of accidental operation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dry kilns and facilities</I>—(1) <I>Kiln foundations.</I> Dry kilns shall be constructed upon solid foundations to prevent tracks from sagging
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Passageways.</I> A passageway shall be provided to give adequate clearance on at least one side or in the center of end-piled kilns and on two sides of cross-piled kilns.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Doors</I>—(i) <I>Main kiln doors.</I> (<I>a</I>) Main kiln doors shall be provided with a method of holding them open while kiln is being loaded.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Counterweights on vertical lift doors shall be boxed or otherwise guarded.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Adequate means shall be provided to firmly secure main doors, when they are disengaged from carriers and hangers, to prevent toppling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Escape doors.</I> (<I>a</I>) If operating procedures require access to kilns, kilns shall be provided with escape doors that operate easily from the inside, swing in the direction of exit, and are located in or near the main door at the end of the passageway.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Escape doors shall be of adequate height and width to accommodate an average size man.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pits.</I> Pits shall be well ventilated, drained, and lighted, and shall be large enough to safely accommodate the kiln operator together with operating devices such as valves, dampers, damper rods, and traps.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Steam mains.</I> All high-pressure steam mains located in or adjacent to an operating pit shall be covered with heat-insulating material.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Ladders.</I> A fixed ladder complying with the requirements of subpart D of this part, or other adequate means, shall be provided to permit access to the roof. Where controls and machinery are mounted on the roof, a permanent stairway with standard handrail shall be installed in accordance with the requirements in subpart D.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Chocks.</I> A means shall be provided for chocking or blocking cars.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Kiln tender room.</I> A warm room shall be provided for kiln employees to stay in during cold weather after leaving a hot kiln.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 23073, May 28, 1975; 43 FR 49751, Oct. 24, 1978; 43 FR 51760, Nov. 7, 1978; 53 FR 12123, Apr. 12, 1988; 55 FR 32015, Aug. 6, 1990; 61 FR 9241, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 33467, June 18, 1998; 70 FR 53929, Sept. 13, 2005; 76 FR 80739, Dec. 27, 2011; 81 FR 83006, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.266" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.266   Logging operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Table of contents.</I> This paragraph contains the list of paragraphs and appendices contained in this section.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>a. Table of contents
</FP>
<FP>b. Scope and application
</FP>
<FP>c. Definitions
</FP>
<FP>d. General requirements
</FP>
<P>1. Personal protective equipment
</P>
<P>2. First-aid kits
</P>
<P>3. Seat belts
</P>
<P>4. Fire extinguishers
</P>
<P>5. Environmental conditions
</P>
<P>6. Work areas
</P>
<P>7. Signaling and signal equipment
</P>
<P>8. Overhead electric lines
</P>
<P>9. Flammable and combustible liquids
</P>
<P>10. Explosives and blasting agents
</P>
<FP>e. Hand and portable powered tools
</FP>
<P>1. General requirements
</P>
<P>2. Chain saws
</P>
<FP>f. Machines
</FP>
<P>1. General requirements
</P>
<P>2. Machine operation
</P>
<P>3. Protective structures
</P>
<P>4. Overhead guards
</P>
<P>5. Machine access
</P>
<P>6. Exhaust systems
</P>
<P>7. Brakes
</P>
<P>8. Guarding
</P>
<FP>g. Vehicles
</FP>
<FP>h. Tree harvesting
</FP>
<P>1. General requirements
</P>
<P>2. Manual felling
</P>
<P>3. Bucking and limbing
</P>
<P>4. Chipping
</P>
<P>5. Yarding
</P>
<P>6. Loading and unloading
</P>
<P>7. Transport
</P>
<P>8. Storage
</P>
<FP>i. Training
</FP>
<FP>j. Appendices
</FP>
<FP><E T="04">Appendix A—Minimum First-aid Supplies</E>
</FP>
<FP><E T="04">Appendix B—Minimum First-aid Training</E>
</FP>
<FP-2><E T="04">Appendix C—Corresponding ISO Agreements</E></FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This standard establishes safety practices, means, methods and operations for all types of logging, regardless of the end use of the wood. These types of logging include, but are not limited to, pulpwood and timber harvesting and the logging of sawlogs, veneer bolts, poles, pilings and other forest products. This standard does not cover the construction or use of cable yarding systems.
</P>
<P>(2) This standard applies to all logging operations as defined by this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Hazards and working conditions not specifically addressed by this section are covered by other applicable sections of part 1910.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions applicable to this section.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Arch.</I> An open-framed trailer or built-up framework used to suspend the leading ends of trees or logs when they are skidded.
</P>
<P><I>Backcut (felling cut).</I> The final cut in a felling operation.
</P>
<P><I>Ballistic nylon.</I> A nylon fabric of high tensile properties designed to provide protection from lacerations.
</P>
<P><I>Buck.</I> To cut a felled tree into logs.
</P>
<P><I>Butt.</I> The bottom of the felled part of a tree.
</P>
<P><I>Cable yarding.</I> The movement of felled trees or logs from the area where they are felled to the landing on a system composed of a cable suspended from spars and/or towers. The trees or logs may be either dragged across the ground on the cable or carried while suspended from the cable.
</P>
<P><I>Chock.</I> A block, often wedge shaped, which is used to prevent movement; e.g., a log from rolling, a wheel from turning.
</P>
<P><I>Choker.</I> A sling used to encircle the end of a log for yarding. One end is passed around the load, then through a loop eye, end fitting or other device at the other end of the sling. The end that passed through the end fitting or other device is then hooked to the lifting or pulling machine.
</P>
<P><I>Danger tree.</I> A standing tree that presents a hazard to employees due to conditions such as, but not limited to, deterioration or physical damage to the root system, trunk, stem or limbs, and the direction and lean of the tree.
</P>
<P><I>Debark.</I> To remove bark from trees or logs.
</P>
<P><I>Deck.</I> A stack of trees or logs.
</P>
<P><I>Designated person.</I> An employee who has the requisite knowledge, training and experience to perform specific duties.
</P>
<P><I>Domino felling.</I> The partial cutting of multiple trees which are left standing and then pushed over with a pusher tree.
</P>
<P><I>Fell (fall).</I> To cut down trees.
</P>
<P><I>Feller (faller).</I> An employee who fells trees.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded.</I> The placement of a component of a machine on the ground or on a device where it is firmly supported.
</P>
<P><I>Guarded.</I> Covered, shielded, fenced, enclosed, or otherwise protected by means of suitable enclosures, covers, casings, shields, troughs, railings, screens, mats, or platforms, or by location, to prevent injury.
</P>
<P><I>Health care provider.</I> A health care practitioner operating with the scope of his/her license, certificate, registration or legally authorized practice.
</P>
<P><I>Landing.</I> Any place where logs are laid after being yarded, and before transport from the work site.
</P>
<P><I>Limbing.</I> To cut branches off felled trees.
</P>
<P><I>Lodged tree (hung tree).</I> A tree leaning against another tree or object which prevents it from falling to the ground.
</P>
<P><I>Log.</I> A segment sawed or split from a felled tree, such as, but not limited to, a section, bolt, or tree length.
</P>
<P><I>Logging operations.</I> Operations associated with felling and moving trees and logs from the stump to the point of delivery, such as, but not limited to, marking danger trees and trees/logs to be cut to length, felling, limbing, bucking, debarking, chipping, yarding, loading, unloading, storing, and transporting machines, equipment and personnel to, from and between logging sites.
</P>
<P><I>Machine.</I> A piece of stationary or mobile equipment having a self-contained powerplant, that is operated off-road and used for the movement of material. Machines include, but are not limited to, tractors, skidders, front-end loaders, scrapers, graders, bulldozers, swing yarders, log stackers, log loaders, and mechanical felling devices, such as tree shears and feller-bunchers. Machines do not include airplanes or aircraft (e.g., helicopters).
</P>
<P><I>Rated capacity.</I> The maximum load a system, vehicle, machine or piece of equipment was designed by the manufacturer to handle.
</P>
<P><I>Root wad.</I> The ball of a tree root and dirt that is pulled from the ground when a tree is uprooted.
</P>
<P><I>Serviceable condition.</I> A state or ability of a tool, machine, vehicle or other device to operate as it was intended by the manufacturer to operate.
</P>
<P><I>Skidding.</I> The yarding of trees or logs by pulling or towing them across the ground.
</P>
<P><I>Slope (grade).</I> The increase or decrease in altitude over a horizontal distance expressed as a percentage. For example, a change of altitude of 20 feet (6 m) over a horizontal distance of 100 feet (30 m) is expressed as a 20 percent slope.
</P>
<P><I>Snag.</I> Any standing dead tree or portion thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Spring pole.</I> A tree, segment of a tree, limb, or sapling which is under stress or tension due to the pressure or weight of another object.
</P>
<P><I>Tie down.</I> Chain, cable, steel strips or fiber webbing and binders attached to a truck, trailer or other conveyance as a means to secure loads and to prevent them from shifting or moving when they are being transported.
</P>
<P><I>Undercut.</I> A notch cut in a tree to guide the direction of the tree fall and to prevent splitting or kickback.
</P>
<P><I>Vehicle.</I> A car, bus, truck, trailer or semi-trailer owned, leased or rented by the employer that is used for transportation of employees or movement of material.
</P>
<P><I>Winching.</I> The winding of cable or rope onto a spool or drum.
</P>
<P><I>Yarding.</I> The movement of logs from the place they are felled to a landing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that personal protective equipment, including any personal protective equipment provided by an employee, is maintained in a serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that personal protective equipment, including any personal protective equipment provided by an employee, is inspected before initial use during each workshift. Defects or damage shall be repaired or the unserviceable personal protective equipment shall be replaced before work is commenced.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, and assure that each employee handling wire rope wears, hand protection which provides adequate protection from puncture wounds, cuts and lacerations.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, and assure that each employee who operates a chain saw wears leg protection constructed with cut-resistant material, such as ballistic nylon. The leg protection shall cover the full length of the thigh to the top of the boot on each leg to protect against contact with a moving chain saw. <I>Exception:</I> This requirement does not apply when an employee is working as a climber if the employer demonstrates that a greater hazard is posed by wearing leg protection in the particular situation, or when an employee is working from a vehicular mounted elevating and rotating work platform meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.67.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall assure that each employee wears foot protection, such as heavy-duty logging boots that are waterproof or water repellant, cover and provide support to the ankle. The employer shall assure that each employee who operates a chain saw wears foot protection that is constructed with cut-resistant material which will protect the employee against contact with a running chain saw. Sharp, calk-soled boots or other slip-resistant type boots may be worn where the employer demonstrates that they are necessary for the employee's job, the terrain, the timber type, and the weather conditions, provided that foot protection otherwise required by this paragraph is met.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, and assure that each employee who works in an area where there is potential for head injury from falling or flying objects wears head protection meeting the requirements of subpart I of part 1910.
</P>
<P>(vii) The employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, and assure that each employee wears the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Eye protection meeting the requirements of subpart I of part 1910 where there is potential for eye injury due to falling or flying objects; and
</P>
<P>(B) Face protection meeting the requirements of subpart I of part 1910 where there is potential for facial injury such as, but not limited to, operating a chipper. Logger-type mesh screens may be worn by employees performing chain-saw operations and yarding.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(1)(<E T="01">vii</E>):</HED>
<P>The employee does not have to wear a separate eye protection device where face protection covering both the eyes and face is worn.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>First-aid kits.</I> (i) The employer shall provide first-aid kits at each work site where trees are being cut (e.g., felling, bucking, limbing), at each active landing, and on each employee transport vehicle. The number of first-aid kits and the content of each kit shall reflect the degree of isolation, the number of employees, and the hazards reasonably anticipated at the work site.
</P>
<P>(ii) At a minimum, each first-aid kit shall contain the items listed in appendix A at all times.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer also may have the number and content of first-aid kits reviewed and approved annually by a health care provider.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall maintain the contents of each first-aid kit in a serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Seat belts.</I> For each vehicle or machine (equipped with ROPS/FOPS or overhead guards), including any vehicle or machine provided by an employee, the employer shall assure:
</P>
<P>(i) That a seat belt is provided for each vehicle or machine operator;
</P>
<P>(ii) That each employee uses the available seat belt while the vehicle or machine is being operated;
</P>
<P>(iii) That each employee securely and tightly fastens the seat belt to restrain the employee within the vehicle or machine cab;
</P>
<P>(iv) That each machine seat belt meets the requirements of the Society of Automotive Engineers Standard SAE J386, June 1985, “Operator Restraint Systems for Off-Road Work Machines”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(v) That seat belts are not removed from any vehicle or machine. The employer shall replace each seat belt which has been removed from any vehicle or machine that was equipped with seat belts at the time of manufacture; and
</P>
<P>(vi) That each seat belt is maintained in a serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fire extinguishers.</I> The employer shall provide and maintain portable fire extinguishers on each machine and vehicle in accordance with the requirements of subpart L of part 1910.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Environmental conditions.</I> All work shall terminate and each employee shall move to a place of safety when environmental conditions, such as but not limited to, electrical storms, strong winds which may affect the fall of a tree, heavy rain or snow, extreme cold, dense fog, fires, mudslides, and darkness, create a hazard for the employee in the performance of the job.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Work areas.</I> (i) Employees shall be spaced and the duties of each employee shall be organized so the actions of one employee will not create a hazard for any other employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work areas shall be assigned so that trees cannot fall into an adjacent occupied work area. The distance between adjacent occupied work areas shall be at least two tree lengths of the trees being felled. The distance between adjacent occupied work areas shall reflect the degree of slope, the density of the growth, the height of the trees, the soil structure and other hazards reasonably anticipated at that work site. A distance of greater than two tree lengths shall be maintained between adjacent occupied work areas on any slope where rolling or sliding of trees or logs is reasonably foreseeable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee performing a logging operation at a logging work site shall work in a position or location that is within visual or audible contact with another employee.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall account for each employee at the end of each workshift.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Signaling and signal equipment.</I> (i) Hand signals or audible contact, such as but not limited to, whistles, horns, or radios, shall be utilized whenever noise, distance, restricted visibility, or other factors prevent clear understanding of normal voice communications between employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Engine noise, such as from a chain saw, is not an acceptable means of signaling. Other locally and regionally recognized signals may be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Only a designated person shall give signals, except in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Overhead electric lines.</I> (i) Logging operations near overhead electric lines shall be done in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.333(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall notify the power company immediately if a felled tree makes contact with any power line. Each employee shall remain clear of the area until the power company advises that there are no electrical hazards.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Flammable and combustible liquids.</I> (i) Flammable and combustible liquids shall be stored, handled, transported, and used in accordance with the requirements of subpart H of part 1910.
</P>
<P>(ii) Flammable and combustible liquids shall not be transported in the driver compartment or in any passenger-occupied area of a machine or vehicle.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each machine, vehicle, and portable powered tool shall be shut off during fueling. Diesel-powered machines and vehicles may be fueled while they are at idle, provided that continued operation is intended and that the employer follows safe fueling and operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(iv) Flammable and combustible liquids, including chain-saw and diesel fuel, may be used to start a fire, provided the employer assures that in the particular situation its use does not create a hazard for an employee.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Explosives and blasting agents.</I> (i) Explosives and blasting agents shall be stored, handled, transported, and used in accordance with the requirements of subpart H of part 1910.
</P>
<P>(ii) Only a designated person shall handle or use explosives and blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(iii) Explosives and blasting agents shall not be transported in the driver compartment or in any passenger-occupied area of a machine or vehicle.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hand and portable powered tools</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that each hand and portable powered tool, including any tool provided by an employee, is maintained in serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that each tool, including any tool provided by an employee, is inspected before initial use during each workshift. At a minimum, the inspection shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Handles and guards, to assure that they are sound, tight-fitting, properly shaped, free of splinters and sharp edges, and in place;
</P>
<P>(B) Controls, to assure proper function;
</P>
<P>(C) Chain-saw chains, to assure proper adjustment;
</P>
<P>(D) Chain-saw mufflers, to assure that they are operational and in place;
</P>
<P>(E) Chain brakes and nose shielding devices, to assure that they are in place and function properly;
</P>
<P>(F) Heads of shock, impact-driven and driving tools, to assure that there is no mushrooming;
</P>
<P>(G) Cutting edges, to assure that they are sharp and properly shaped; and
</P>
<P>(H) All other safety devices, to assure that they are in place and function properly.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that each tool is used only for purposes for which it has been designed.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the head of any shock, impact-driven or driving tool begins to chip, it shall be repaired or removed from service.
</P>
<P>(v) The cutting edge of each tool shall be sharpened in accordance with manufacturer's specifications whenever it becomes dull during the workshift.
</P>
<P>(vi) Each tool shall be stored in the provided location when not being used at a work site.
</P>
<P>(vii) Racks, boxes, holsters or other means shall be provided, arranged and used for the transportation of tools so that a hazard is not created for any vehicle operator or passenger.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chain saws.</I> (i) Each chain saw placed into initial service after the effective date of this section shall be equipped with a chain brake and shall otherwise meet the requirements of the ANSI B175.1-1991 “Safety Requirements for Gasoline-Powered Chain Saws”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. Each chain saw placed into service before the effective date of this section shall be equipped with a protective device that minimizes chain-saw kickback. No chain-saw kickback device shall be removed or otherwise disabled.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each gasoline-powered chain saw shall be equipped with a continuous pressure throttle control system which will stop the chain when pressure on the throttle is released.
</P>
<P>(iii) The chain saw shall be operated and adjusted in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>(iv) The chain saw shall be fueled at least 10 feet (3 m) from any open flame or other source of ignition.
</P>
<P>(v) The chain saw shall be started at least 10 feet (3 m) from the fueling area.
</P>
<P>(vi) The chain saw shall be started on the ground or where otherwise firmly supported. Drop starting a chain saw is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(vii) The chain saw shall be started with the chain brake engaged.
</P>
<P>(viii) The chain saw shall be held with the thumbs and fingers of both hands encircling the handles during operation unless the employer demonstrates that a greater hazard is posed by keeping both hands on the chain saw in that particular situation.
</P>
<P>(ix) The chain-saw operator shall be certain of footing before starting to cut. The chain saw shall not be used in a position or at a distance that could cause the operator to become off-balance, to have insecure footing, or to relinquish a firm grip on the saw.
</P>
<P>(x) Prior to felling any tree, the chain-saw operator shall clear away brush or other potential obstacles which might interfere with cutting the tree or using the retreat path.
</P>
<P>(xi) The chain saw shall not be used to cut directly overhead.
</P>
<P>(xii) The chain saw shall be carried in a manner that will prevent operator contact with the cutting chain and muffler.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The chain saw shall be shut off or the throttle released before the feller starts his retreat.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The chain saw shall be shut down or the chain brake shall be engaged whenever a saw is carried further than 50 feet (15.2 m). The chain saw shall be shut down or the chain brake shall be engaged when a saw is carried less than 50 feet if conditions such as, but not limited to, the terrain, underbrush and slippery surfaces, may create a hazard for an employee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Machines</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that each machine, including any machine provided by an employee, is maintained in serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that each machine, including any machine provided by an employee, is inspected before initial use during each workshift. Defects or damage shall be repaired or the unserviceable machine shall be replaced before work is commenced.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that operating and maintenance instructions are available on the machine or in the area where the machine is being operated. Each machine operator and maintenance employee shall comply with the operating and maintenance instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Machine operation.</I> (i) The machine shall be started and operated only by a designated person.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stationary logging machines and their components shall be anchored or otherwise stabilized to prevent movement during operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The rated capacity of any machine shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(iv) To maintain stability, the machine must be operated within the limitations imposed by the manufacturer as described in the operating and maintenance instructions for that machine.
</P>
<P>(v) Before starting or moving any machine, the operator shall determine that no employee is in the path of the machine.
</P>
<P>(vi) The machine shall be operated only from the operator's station or as otherwise recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(vii) The machine shall be operated at such a distance from employees and other machines such that operation will not create a hazard for an employee.
</P>
<P>(viii) No employee other than the operator shall ride on any mobile machine unless seating, seat belts and other protection equivalent to that provided for the operator are provided.
</P>
<P>(ix) No employee shall ride on any load.
</P>
<P>(x) Before the operator leaves the operator's station of a machine, it shall be secured as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The parking brake or brake locks shall be applied;
</P>
<P>(B) The transmission shall be placed in the manufacturer's specified park position; and
</P>
<P>(C) Each moving element such as, but not limited to blades, buckets, saws and shears, shall be lowered to the ground or otherwise secured.
</P>
<P>(xi) If a hydraulic or pneumatic storage device can move the moving elements such as, but not limited to, blades, buckets, saws and shears, after the machine is shut down, the pressure or stored energy from the element shall be discharged as specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(xii) The rated capacity of any vehicle transporting a machine shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The machine shall be loaded, secured and unloaded so that it will not create a hazard for any employee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Protective structures.</I> (i) Each tractor, skidder, swing yarder, log stacker, log loader and mechanical felling device, such as tree shears or feller-buncher, placed into initial service after February 9, 1995, shall be equipped with falling object protective structure (FOPS) and/or rollover protective structure (ROPS). The employer shall replace FOPS or ROPS which have been removed from any machine. <I>Exception:</I> This requirement does not apply to machines which are capable of 360 degree rotation.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) ROPS shall be tested, installed, and maintained in serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(B) Each machine manufactured after August 1, 1996, shall have ROPS tested, installed, and maintained in accordance with the Society of Automotive Engineers SAE J1040, April 1988, “Performance Criteria for Rollover Protective Structures (ROPS) for Construction, Earthmoving, Forestry, and Mining Machines”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(C) This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the Society of Automotive Engineers, 400 Commonwealth Drive, Warrendale, PA 15096. Copies may be inspected at the Docket Office, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., room N2625, Washington, DC 20210, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) FOPS shall be installed, tested and maintained in accordance with the Society of Automotive Engineers SAE J231, January 1981, “Minimum Performance Criteria for Falling Object Protective Structures (FOPS)”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(iv) ROPS and FOPS shall meet the requirements of the Society of Automotive Engineers SAE J397, April 1988, “Deflection Limiting Volume-ROPS/FOPS Laboratory Evaluation”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(v) Each protective structure shall be of a size that does not impede the operator's normal movements.
</P>
<P>(vi) The overhead covering of each cab shall be of solid material and shall extend over the entire canopy.
</P>
<P>(vii) Each machine manufactured after August 1, 1996, shall have a cab that is fully enclosed with mesh material with openings no greater than 2 inches (5.08 cm) at its least dimension. The cab may be enclosed with other material(s) where the employer demonstrates such material(s) provides equivalent protection and visibility. Exception: Equivalent visibility is not required for the lower portion of the cab where there are control panels or similar obstructions in the cab, or where visibility is not necessary for safe operation of the machine.
</P>
<P>(viii) Each machine manufactured on or before August 1, 1996 shall have a cab which meets the requirements specified in paragraph (f)(3)(vii) or a protective canopy for the operator which meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The protective canopy shall be constructed to protect the operator from injury due to falling trees, limbs, saplings or branches which might enter the compartment side areas and from snapping winch lines or other objects;
</P>
<P>(B) The lower portion of the cab shall be fully enclosed with solid material, except at entrances, to prevent the operator from being injured from obstacles entering the cab;
</P>
<P>(C) The upper rear portion of the cab shall be fully enclosed with open mesh material with openings of such size as to reject the entrance of an object larger than 2 inches in diameter. It shall provide maximum rearward visibility; and
</P>
<P>(D) Open mesh shall be extended forward as far as possible from the rear corners of the cab sides so as to give the maximum protection against obstacles, branches, etc., entering the cab area.
</P>
<P>(ix) The enclosure of the upper portion of each cab shall allow maximum visibility.
</P>
<P>(x) When transparent material is used to enclose the upper portion of the cab, it shall be made of safety glass or other material that the employer demonstrates provides equivalent protection and visibility.
</P>
<P>(xi) Transparent material shall be kept clean to assure operator visibility.
</P>
<P>(xii) Transparent material that may create a hazard for the operator, such as but not limited to, cracked, broken or scratched safety glass, shall be replaced.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Deflectors shall be installed in front of each cab to deflect whipping saplings and branches. Deflectors shall be located so as not to impede visibility and access to the cab.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The height of each cab entrance shall be at least 52 inches (1.3 meters) from the floor of the cab.
</P>
<P>(xv) Each machine operated near cable yarding operations shall be equipped with sheds or roofs of sufficient strength to provide protection from breaking lines.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Overhead guards.</I> Each forklift shall be equipped with an overhead guard meeting the requirements of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, ASME B56.6-1992 (with addenda), “Safety Standard for Rough Terrain Forklift Trucks”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Machine access.</I> (i) Machine access systems, meeting the specifications of the Society of Automotive Engineers, SAE J185, June 1988, “Recommended Practice for Access Systems for Off-Road Machines”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6, shall be provided for each machine where the operator or any other employee must climb onto the machine to enter the cab or to perform maintenance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each machine cab shall have a second means of egress.
</P>
<P>(iii) Walking and working surfaces of each machine and machine work station shall have a slip resistant surface to assure safe footing.
</P>
<P>(iv) The walking and working surface of each machine shall be kept free of waste, debris and any other material which might result in fire, slipping, or falling.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exhaust systems.</I> (i) The exhaust pipes on each machine shall be located so exhaust gases are directed away from the operator.
</P>
<P>(ii) The exhaust pipes on each machine shall be mounted or guarded to protect each employee from accidental contact.
</P>
<P>(iii) The exhaust pipes shall be equipped with spark arresters. Engines equipped with turbochargers do not require spark arresters.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each machine muffler provided by the manufacturer, or their equivalent, shall be in place at all times the machine is in operation.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Brakes.</I> (i) Service brakes shall be sufficient to stop and hold each machine and its rated load capacity on the slopes over which it is being operated.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each machine placed into initial service on or after September 8, 1995 shall also be equipped with: back-up or secondary brakes that are capable of stopping the machine regardless of the direction of travel or whether the engine is running; and parking brakes that are capable of continuously holding a stopped machine stationary.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Guarding.</I> (i) Each machine shall be equipped with guarding to protect employees from exposed moving elements, such as but not limited to, shafts, pulleys, belts on conveyors, and gears, in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of part 1910.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each machine used for debarking, limbing and chipping shall be equipped with guarding to protect employees from flying wood chunks, logs, chips, bark, limbs and other material in accordance with the requirements of subpart O of part 1910.
</P>
<P>(iii) The guarding on each machine shall be in place at all times the machine is in operation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Vehicles.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that each vehicle used to perform any logging operation is maintained in serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that each vehicle used to perform any logging operation is inspected before initial use during each workshift. Defects or damage shall be repaired or the unserviceable vehicle shall be replaced before work is commenced.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall assure that operating and maintenance instructions are available in each vehicle. Each vehicle operator and maintenance employee shall comply with the operating and maintenance instructions.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that each vehicle operator has a valid operator's license for the class of vehicle being operated.
</P>
<P>(5) Mounting steps and handholds shall be provided for each vehicle wherever it is necessary to prevent an employee from being injured when entering or leaving the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(6) The seats of each vehicle shall be securely fastened.
</P>
<P>(7) The requirements of paragraphs (f)(2)(iii), (f)(2)(v), (f)(2)(vii), (f)(2)(x), (f)(2)(xiii), and (f)(7) of this section shall also apply to each vehicle used to transport any employee off public roads or to perform any logging operation, including any vehicle provided by an employee.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Tree harvesting</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) Trees shall not be felled in a manner that may create a hazard for an employee, such as but not limited to, striking a rope, cable, power line, or machine.
</P>
<P>(ii) The immediate supervisor shall be consulted when unfamiliar or unusually hazardous conditions necessitate the supervisor's approval before cutting is commenced.
</P>
<P>(iii) While manual felling is in progress, no yarding machine shall be operated within two tree lengths of trees being manually felled. Exception: This provision does not apply to yarding machines performing tree pulling operations.
</P>
<P>(iv) No employee shall approach a feller closer than two tree lengths of trees being felled until the feller has acknowledged that it is safe to do so, unless the employer demonstrates that a team of employees is necessary to manually fell a particular tree.
</P>
<P>(v) No employee shall approach a mechanical felling operation closer than two tree lengths of the trees being felled until the machine operator has acknowledged that it is safe to do so.
</P>
<P>(vi) Each danger tree shall be felled, removed or avoided. Each danger tree, including lodged trees and snags, shall be felled or removed using mechanical or other techniques that minimize employee exposure before work is commenced in the area of the danger tree. If the danger tree is not felled or removed, it shall be marked and no work shall be conducted within two tree lengths of the danger tree unless the employer demonstrates that a shorter distance will not create a hazard for an employee.
</P>
<P>(vii) Each danger tree shall be carefully checked for signs of loose bark, broken branches and limbs or other damage before they are felled or removed. Accessible loose bark and other damage that may create a hazard for an employee shall be removed or held in place before felling or removing the tree.
</P>
<P>(viii) Felling on any slope where rolling or sliding of trees or logs is reasonably foreseeable shall be done uphill from, or on the same level as, previously felled trees.
</P>
<P>(ix) Domino felling of trees is prohibited.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ix</E>):</HED>
<P>The definition of domino felling does not include the felling of a single danger tree by felling another single tree into it.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Manual felling.</I> (i) Before felling is started, the feller shall plan and clear a retreat path. The retreat path shall extend diagonally away from the expected felling line unless the employer demonstrates that such a retreat path poses a greater hazard than an alternate path. Once the backcut has been made the feller shall immediately move a safe distance away from the tree on the retreat path.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before each tree is felled, conditions such as, but not limited to, snow and ice accumulation, the wind, the lean of tree, dead limbs, and the location of other trees, shall be evaluated by the feller and precautions taken so a hazard is not created for an employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each tree shall be checked for accumulations of snow and ice. Accumulations of snow and ice that may create a hazard for an employee shall be removed before felling is commenced in the area or the area shall be avoided.
</P>
<P>(iv) When a spring pole or other tree under stress is cut, no employee other than the feller shall be closer than two trees lengths when the stress is released.
</P>
<P>(v) An undercut shall be made in each tree being felled unless the employer demonstrates that felling the particular tree without an undercut will not create a hazard for an employee. The undercut shall be of a size so the tree will not split and will fall in the intended direction.
</P>
<P>(vi) A backcut shall be made in each tree being felled. The backcut shall leave sufficient hinge wood to hold the tree to the stump during most of its fall so that the hinge is able to guide the tree's fall in the intended direction.
</P>
<P>(vii) The backcut shall be above the level of the horizontal facecut in order to provide an adequate platform to prevent kickback. Exception: The backcut may be at or below the horizontal facecut in tree pulling operations.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)(2)(<E T="01">vii</E>):</HED>
<P>This requirement does not apply to open face felling where two angled facecuts rather than a horizontal facecut are used.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Limbing and bucking.</I> (i) Limbing and bucking on any slope where rolling or sliding of trees or logs is reasonably foreseeable shall be done on the uphill side of each tree or log.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before bucking or limbing wind-thrown trees, precautions shall be taken to prevent the root wad, butt or logs from striking an employee. These precautions include, but are not limited to, chocking or moving the tree to a stable position.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Chipping (in-woods locations).</I> (i) Chipper access covers or doors shall not be opened until the drum or disc is at a complete stop.
</P>
<P>(ii) Infeed and discharge ports shall be guarded to prevent contact with the disc, knives, or blower blades.
</P>
<P>(iii) The chipper shall be shut down and locked out in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.147 when an employee performs any servicing or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(iv) Detached trailer chippers shall be chocked during usage on any slope where rolling or sliding of the chipper is reasonably foreseeable.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Yarding.</I> (i) No log shall be moved until each employee is in the clear.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each choker shall be hooked and unhooked from the uphill side or end of the log, unless the employer demonstrates that is it not feasible in the particular situation to hook or unhook the choker from the uphill side. Where the choker is hooked or unhooked from the downhill side or end of the log, the log shall be securely chocked to prevent rolling, sliding or swinging.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each choker shall be positioned near the end of the log or tree length.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each machine shall be positioned during winching so the machine and winch are operated within their design limits.
</P>
<P>(v) No yarding line shall be moved unless the yarding machine operator has clearly received and understood the signal to do so. When in doubt, the yarding machine operator shall repeat the signal and wait for a confirming signal before moving any line.
</P>
<P>(vi) No load shall exceed the rated capacity of the pallet, trailer, or other carrier.
</P>
<P>(vii) Towed equipment, such as but not limited to, skid pans, pallets, arches, and trailers, shall be attached to each machine or vehicle in such a manner as to allow a full 90 degree turn; to prevent overrunning of the towing machine or vehicle; and to assure that the operator is always in control of the towed equipment.
</P>
<P>(viii) The yarding machine or vehicle, including its load, shall be operated with safe clearance from all obstructions that may create a hazard for an employee.
</P>
<P>(ix) Each yarded tree shall be placed in a location that does not create a hazard for an employee and an orderly manner so that the trees are stable before bucking or limbing is commenced.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Loading and unloading.</I> (i) The transport vehicle shall be positioned to provide working clearance between the vehicle and the deck.
</P>
<P>(ii) Only the loading or unloading machine operator and other personnel the employer demonstrates are essential shall be in the loading or unloading work area during this operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) No transport vehicle operator shall remain in the cab during loading and unloading if the logs are carried or moved over the truck cab, unless the employer demonstrates that it is necessary for the operator to do so. Where the transport vehicle operator remains in the cab, the employer shall provide operator protection, such as but not limited to, reinforcement of the cab.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each log shall be placed on a transport vehicle in an orderly manner and tightly secured.
</P>
<P>(v) The load shall be positioned to prevent slippage or loss during handling and transport.
</P>
<P>(vi) Each stake and chock which is used to trip loads shall be so constructed that the tripping mechanism is activated on the side opposite the release of the load.
</P>
<P>(vii) Each tie down shall be left in place over the peak log to secure all logs until the unloading lines or other protection the employer demonstrates is equivalent has been put in place. A stake of sufficient strength to withstand the forces of shifting or moving logs, shall be considered equivalent protection provided that the logs are not loaded higher than the stake.
</P>
<P>(viii) Each tie down shall be released only from the side on which the unloading machine operates, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) When the tie down is released by a remote control device; and
</P>
<P>(B) When the employee making the release is protected by racks, stanchions or other protection the employer demonstrates is capable of withstanding the force of the logs.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Transport.</I> The transport vehicle operator shall assure that each tie down is tight before transporting the load. While enroute, the operator shall check and tighten the tie downs whenever there is reason to believe that the tie downs have loosened or the load has shifted.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Storage.</I> Each deck shall be constructed and located so it is stable and provides each employee with enough room to safely move and work in the area.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Training.</I> (1) The employer shall provide training for each employee, including supervisors, at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> Training shall be provided as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) As soon as possible but not later than the effective date of this section for initial training for each current and new employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to initial assignment for each new employee;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the employee is assigned new work tasks, tools, equipment, machines or vehicles; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whenever an employee demonstrates unsafe job performance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content.</I> At a minimum, training shall consist of the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) Safe performance of assigned work tasks;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safe use, operation and maintenance of tools, machines and vehicles the employee uses or operates, including emphasis on understanding and following the manufacturer's operating and maintenance instructions, warnings and precautions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Recognition of safety and health hazards associated with the employee's specific work tasks, including the use of measures and work practices to prevent or control those hazards;
</P>
<P>(iv) Recognition, prevention and control of other safety and health hazards in the logging industry;
</P>
<P>(v) Procedures, practices and requirements of the employer's work site; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The requirements of this standard.
</P>
<P>(4) Training of an employee due to unsafe job performance, or assignment of new work tasks, tools, equipment, machines, or vehicles; may be limited to those elements in paragraph (i)(3) of this section which are relevant to the circumstances giving rise to the need for training.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Portability of training.</I> (i) Each current employee who has received training in the particular elements specified in paragraph (i)(3) of this section shall not be required to be retrained in those elements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each new employee who has received training in the particular elements specified in paragraph (i)(3) of this section shall not be required to be retrained in those elements prior to initial assignment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall train each current and new employee in those elements for which the employee has not received training.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer is responsible for ensuring that each current and new employee can properly and safely perform the work tasks and operate the tools, equipment, machines, and vehicles used in their job.
</P>
<P>(6) Each new employee and each employee who is required to be trained as specified in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, shall work under the close supervision of a designated person until the employee demonstrates to the employer the ability to safely perform their new duties independently.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>First-aid training.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that each employee, including supervisors, receives or has received first-aid and CPR training meeting at least the requirements specified in appendix B.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that each employee's first-aid and CPR training and/or certificate of training remain current.
</P>
<P>(8) All training shall be conducted by a designated person.
</P>
<P>(9) The employer shall assure that all training required by this section is presented in a manner that the employee is able to understand. The employer shall assure that all training materials used are appropriate in content and vocabulary to the educational level, literacy, and language skills of the employees being trained.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Certification of training.</I> (i) The employer shall verify compliance with paragraph (i) of this section by preparing a written certification record. The written certification record shall contain the name or other identity of the employee trained, the date(s) of the training, and the signature of the person who conducted the training or the signature of the employer. If the employer relies on training conducted prior to the employee's hiring or completed prior to the effective date of this section, the certification record shall indicate the date the employer determined the prior training was adequate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The most recent training certification shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Safety and health meetings.</I> The employer shall hold safety and health meetings as necessary and at least each month for each employee. Safety and health meetings may be conducted individually, in crew meetings, in larger groups, or as part of other staff meetings.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Appendices.</I> Appendices A and B of this section are mandatory. The information contained in appendix C of this section is informational and is not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from existing regulations.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of August 9, 1995, OSHA extended the stay of the following paragraphs of § 1910.266 until September 8, 1995. The remaining requirements of § 1910.266, which became effective on February 9, 1995, are unaffected by the extension of the partial stay:
</P>
<P>1. (d)(1)(v)—insofar as it requires foot protection to be chain-saw resistant.
</P>
<P>2. (d)(1)(vii)—insofar as it required face protection.
</P>
<P>3. (d)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>4. (f)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>5. (f)(2)(xi).
</P>
<P>6. (f)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>7. (f)(3)(vii).
</P>
<P>8. (f)(3)(viii).
</P>
<P>9. (f)(7)(ii)—insofar as it requires parking brakes to be able to stop a moving machine.
</P>
<P>10. (g)(1) and (g)(2) insofar as they require inspection and maintenance of employee-owned vehicles.
</P>
<P>11. (h)(2)(vii)—insofar as it precludes backcuts at the level of the horizontal cut of the undercut when the Humboldt cutting method is used.</P></NOTE>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.266—First-Aid Kits (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>The following list sets forth the minimally acceptable number and type of first-aid supplies for first-aid kits required under paragraph (d)(2) of the logging standard. The contents of the first-aid kit listed should be adequate for small work sites, consisting of approximately two to three employees. When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same location, additional first-aid kits should be provided at the work site or additional quantities of supplies should be included in the first-aid kits:
</P>
<P>1. Gauze pads (at least 4 × 4 inches).
</P>
<P>2. Two large gauze pads (at least 8 × 10 inches).
</P>
<P>3. Box adhesive bandages (band-aids).
</P>
<P>4. One package gauze roller bandage at least 2 inches wide.
</P>
<P>5. Two triangular bandages.
</P>
<P>6. Wound cleaning agent such as sealed moistened towelettes.
</P>
<P>7. Scissors.
</P>
<P>8. At least one blanket.
</P>
<P>9. Tweezers.
</P>
<P>10. Adhesive tape.
</P>
<P>11. Latex gloves.
</P>
<P>12. Resuscitation equipment such as resuscitation bag, airway, or pocket mask.
</P>
<P>13. Two elastic wraps.
</P>
<P>14. Splint.
</P>
<P>15. Directions for requesting emergency assistance.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.266—First-aid and CPR Training (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>The following is deemed to be the minimal acceptable first-aid and CPR training program for employees engaged in logging activities.
</P>
<P>First-aid and CPR training shall be conducted using the conventional methods of training such as lecture, demonstration, practical exercise and examination (both written and practical). The length of training must be sufficient to assure that trainees understand the concepts of first aid and can demonstrate their ability to perform the various procedures contained in the outline below.
</P>
<P>At a minimum, first-aid and CPR training shall consist of the following:
</P>
<P>1. The definition of first aid.
</P>
<P>2. Legal issues of applying first aid (Good Samaritan Laws).
</P>
<P>3. Basic anatomy.
</P>
<P>4. Patient assessment and first aid for the following:
</P>
<P>a. Respiratory arrest.
</P>
<P>b. Cardiac arrest.
</P>
<P>c. Hemorrhage.
</P>
<P>d. Lacerations/abrasions.
</P>
<P>e. Amputations.
</P>
<P>f. Musculoskeletal injuries.
</P>
<P>g. Shock.
</P>
<P>h. Eye injuries.
</P>
<P>i. Burns.
</P>
<P>j. Loss of consciousness.
</P>
<P>k. Extreme temperature exposure (hypothermia/hyperthermia)
</P>
<P>l. Paralysis
</P>
<P>m. Poisoning.
</P>
<P>n. Loss of mental functioning (psychosis/hallucinations, etc.). Artificial ventilation.
</P>
<P>o. Drug overdose.
</P>
<P>5. CPR.
</P>
<P>6. Application of dressings and slings.
</P>
<P>7. Treatment of strains, sprains, and fractures.
</P>
<P>8. Immobilization of injured persons.
</P>
<P>9. Handling and transporting injured persons.
</P>
<P>10. Treatment of bites, stings, or contact with poisonous plants or animals.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.266—Comparable ISO Standards (Non-mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>The following International Labor Organization (ISO) standards are comparable to the corresponding Society of Automotive Engineers (Standards that are referenced in this standard.)
</P>
<P>Utilization of the ISO standards in lieu of the corresponding SAE standards should result in a machine that meets the OSHA standard.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SAE standard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ISO standard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subject
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAE J1040</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISO 3471-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Performance Criteria for Rollover Protective Structures (ROPS) for Construction, Earthmoving, Forestry and Mining Machines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAE J397</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISO 3164</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deflection Limiting Volume—ROPS/FOPS Laboratory Evaluation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAE J231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISO 3449</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Performance Criteria for Falling Object Protective Structures (FOPS).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAE J386</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISO 6683</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operator Restraint Systems for Off-Road Work Machines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SAE J185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISO 2897</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Access Systems for Off-Road Machines.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 51741, Oct. 12, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 7449, Feb. 8, 1995; 60 FR 40458, Aug. 9, 1996; 60 FR 47035, Sept. 8, 1995; 61 FR 9241, 9242, Mar. 7, 1996; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 71 FR 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 79 FR 37190, July 1, 2014]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.268" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.268   Telecommunications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> (1) This section sets forth safety and health standards that apply to the work conditions, practices, means, methods, operations, installations and processes performed at telecommunications centers and at telecommunications field installations, which are located outdoors or in building spaces used for such field installations. <I>Center</I> work includes the installation, operation, maintenance, rearrangement, and removal of communications equipment and other associated equipment in telecommunications switching centers. <I>Field</I> work includes the installation, operation, maintenance, rearrangement, and removal of conductors and other equipment used for signal or communication service, and of their supporting or containing structures, overhead or underground, on public or private rights of way, including buildings or other structures.
</P>
<P>(2) These standards do not apply: (i) To construction work, as defined in § 1910.12, nor (ii) to installations under the exclusive control of electric utilities used for the purpose of communications or metering, or for generation, control, transformation, transmission, and distribution of electric energy, which are located in buildings used exclusively by the electric utilities for such purposes, or located outdoors on property owned or leased by the electric utilities or on public highways, streets, roads, etc., or outdoors by established rights on private property.
</P>
<P>(3) Operations or conditions not specifically covered by this section are subject to all the applicable standards contained in this part 1910. See § 1910.5(c). Operations which involve construction work, as defined in § 1910.12 are subject to all the applicable standards contained in part 1926 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Buildings containing telecommunications centers</I>—(i) <I>Illumination.</I> Lighting in telecommunication centers shall be provided in an adequate amount such that continuing work operations, routine observations, and the passage of employees can be carried out in a safe and healthful manner. Certain specific tasks in centers, such as splicing cable and the maintenance and repair of equipment frame lineups, may require a higher level of illumination. In such cases, the employer shall install permanent lighting or portable supplemental lighting to attain a higher level of illumination shall be provided as needed to permit safe performance of the required task.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Working surfaces.</I> Guard rails and toe boards may be omitted on distribution frame mezzanine platforms to permit access to equipment. This exemption applies only on the side or sides of the platform facing the frames and only on those portions of the platform adjacent to equipped frames.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Working spaces.</I> Maintenance aisles, or wiring aisles, between equipment frame lineups are working spaces and are not an exit route for purposes of 29 CFR 1910.34. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Special doors.</I> When blastproof or power actuated doors are installed in specially designed hardsite security buildings and spaces, they shall be designed and installed so that they can be used as a means of egress in emergencies.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Equipment, machinery and machine guarding.</I> When power plant machinery in telecommunications centers is operated with commutators and couplings uncovered, the adjacent housing shall be clearly marked to alert personnel to the rotating machinery.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Battery handling.</I> (i) Eye protection devices which provide side as well as frontal eye protection for employees shall be provided when measuring storage battery specific gravity or handling electrolyte, and the employer shall ensure that such devices are used by the employees. The employer shall also ensure that acid resistant gloves and aprons shall be worn for protection against spattering. Facilities for quick drenching or flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided unless the storage batteries are of the enclosed type and equipped with explosion proof vents, in which case sealed water rinse or neutralizing packs may be substituted for the quick drenching or flushing facilities. Employees assigned to work with storage batteries shall be instructed in emergency procedures such as dealing with accidental acid spills.
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrolyte (acid or base, and distilled water) for battery cells shall be mixed in a well ventilated room. Acid or base shall be poured gradually, while stirring, into the water. Water shall never be poured into concentrated (greater than 75 percent) acid solutions. Electrolyte shall never be placed in metal containers nor stirred with metal objects.
</P>
<P>(iii) When taking specific gravity readings, the open end of the hydrometer shall be covered with an acid resistant material while moving it from cell to cell to avoid splashing or throwing the electrolyte.
</P>
<P>(3) Employers must provide employees with readily accessible, adequate, and appropriate first aid supplies. A non-mandatory example of appropriate supplies is listed in appendix A to 29 CFR 1910.151.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hazardous materials.</I> Highway mobile vehicles and trailers stored in garages in accordance with § 1910.110 may be equipped to carry more than one LP-gas container, but the total capacity of LP-gas containers per work vehicle stored in garages shall not exceed 100 pounds of LP-gas. All container valves shall be closed when not in use.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Compressed gas.</I> When using or transporting nitrogen cylinders in a horizontal position, special compartments, racks, or adequate blocking shall be provided to prevent cylinder movement. Regulators shall be removed or guarded before a cylinder is transported.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Support structures.</I> No employee, or any material or equipment, may be supported or permitted to be supported on any portion of a pole structure, platform, ladder, walkway or other elevated structure or aerial device unless the employer ensures that the support structure is first inspected by a competent person and it is determined to be adequately strong, in good working condition and properly secured in place.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Approach distances to exposed energized overhead power lines and parts.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee approaches or takes any conductive object closer to any electrically energized overhead power lines and parts than prescribed in Table R-2, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee is insulated or guarded from the energized parts (insulating gloves rated for the voltage involved shall be considered adequate insulation), or
</P>
<P>(ii) The energized parts are insulated or guarded from the employee and any other conductive object at a different potential, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The power conductors and equipment are deenergized and grounded.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-2—Approach Distances to Exposed Energized Overhead Power Lines and Parts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Voltage range (phase to phase, RMS)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Approach distance (inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 V and less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 300V, not over 750V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 750V not over 2 kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 2 kV, not over 15 kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 15 kV, not over 37 kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 37 kV, not over 87.5 kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 87.5 kV, not over 121 kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 121 kV, not over 140 kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Avoid contact.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) <I>Illumination of field work.</I> Whenever natural light is insufficient to adequately illuminate the worksite, artificial illumination shall be provided to enable the employee to perform the work safely.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training.</I> Employers shall provide training in the various precautions and safe practices described in this section and shall insure that employees do not engage in the activities to which this section applies until such employees have received proper training in the various precautions and safe practices required by this section. However, where the employer can demonstrate that an employee is already trained in the precautions and safe practices required by this section prior to his employment, training need not be provided to that employee in accordance with this section. Where training is required, it shall consist of on-the-job training or classroom-type training or a combination of both. The employer shall certify that employees have been trained by preparing a certification record which includes the identity of the person trained, the signature of the employer or the person who conducted the training, and the date the training was completed. The certification record shall be prepared at the completion of training and shall be maintained on file for the duration of the employee's employment. The certification record shall be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health. Such training shall, where appropriate, include the following subjects:
</P>
<P>(1) Recognition and avoidance of dangers relating to encounters with harmful substances and animal, insect, or plant life;
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures to be followed in emergency situations; and,
</P>
<P>(3) First aid training, including instruction in artificial respiration.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee protection in public work areas.</I> (1) Before work is begun in the vicinity of vehicular or pedestrian traffic which may endanger employees, warning signs and/or flags or other traffic control devices shall be placed conspicuously to alert and channel approaching traffic. Where further protection is needed, barriers shall be utilized. At night, warning lights shall be prominently displayed, and excavated areas shall be enclosed with protective barricades.
</P>
<P>(2) If work exposes energized or moving parts that are normally protected, danger signs shall be displayed and barricades erected, as necessary, to warn other personnel in the area.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall insure that an employee finding any crossed or fallen wires which create or may create a hazardous situation at the work area: (i) Remains on guard or adopts other adequate means to warn other employees of the danger and (ii) has the proper authority notified at the earliest practical moment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tools and personal protective equipment—Generally.</I> Personal protective equipment, protective devices and special tools needed for the work of employees shall be provided and the employer shall ensure that they are used by employees. Before each day's use the employer shall ensure that these personal protective devices, tools, and equipment are carefully inspected by a competent person to ascertain that they are in good condition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rubber insulating equipment.</I> (1) Rubber insulating equipment designed for the voltage levels to be encountered shall be provided and the employer shall ensure that they are used by employees as required by this section. The requirements of § 1910.137, Electrical Protective Equipment, shall be followed except for Table I-6.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is responsible for the periodic retesting of all insulating gloves, blankets, and other rubber insulating equipment. This retesting shall be electrical, visual and mechanical. The following maximum retesting intervals shall apply:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gloves, blankets, and other insulating equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Natural rubber
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Synthetic rubber
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Months
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-issued</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Gloves and blankets shall be marked to indicate compliance with the retest schedule, and shall be marked with the date the next test is due. Gloves found to be defective in the field or by the tests set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be destroyed by cutting them open from the finger to the gauntlet.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Personal climbing equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A positioning system or a personal fall arrest system shall be provided and the employer shall ensure their use when work is performed at positions more than 4 feet (1.2 m) above the ground, on poles, and on towers, except as provided in paragraphs (n)(7) and (8) of this section. These systems shall meet the applicable requirements in subpart I of this part. The employer shall ensure that all climbing equipment is inspected before each day's use to determine that it is in safe working condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pole climbers.</I> (i) Pole climbers may not be used if the gaffs are less than 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches in length as measured on the underside of the gaff. The gaffs of pole climbers shall be covered with safety caps when not being used for their intended use.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that pole climbers are inspected by a competent person for the following conditions: Fractured or cracked gaffs or leg irons, loose or dull gaffs, broken straps or buckles. If any of these conditions exist, the defect shall be corrected before the climbers are used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pole climbers shall be inspected as required in this paragraph (g)(3) before each day's use and a gaff cut-out test performed at least weekly when in use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pole climbers may not be worn when:
</P>
<P>(A) Working in trees (specifically designed tree climbers shall be used for tree climbing),
</P>
<P>(B) Working on ladders,
</P>
<P>(C) Working in an aerial lift,
</P>
<P>(D) Driving a vehicle, nor
</P>
<P>(E) Walking on rocky, hard, frozen, brushy or hilly terrain.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Ladders.</I> Ladders, step bolts, and manhole steps shall meet the applicable requirements in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other tools and personal protective equipment</I>—(1) <I>Head protection.</I> Head protection meeting the requirements of ANSI Z89.2-1971, “Safety Requirements for Industrial Protective Helmets for Electrical Workers, Class B” shall be provided whenever there is exposure to possible high voltage electrical contact, and the employer shall ensure that the head protection is used by employees. ANSI Z89.2-1971 is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eye protection.</I> Eye protection meeting the requirements of § 1910.133 (a)(2) thru (a)(6) shall be provided and the employer shall ensure its use by employees where foreign objects may enter the eyes due to work operations such as but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Drilling or chipping stone, brick or masonry, breaking concrete or pavement, etc. by hand tools (sledgehammer, etc.) or power tools such as pneumatic drills or hammers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Working on or around high speed emery or other grinding wheels unprotected by guards;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cutting or chipping terra cotta ducts, tile, etc.;
</P>
<P>(iv) Working under motor vehicles requiring hammering;
</P>
<P>(v) Cleaning operations using compressed air, steam, or sand blast;
</P>
<P>(vi) Acetylene welding or similar operations where sparks are thrown off;
</P>
<P>(vii) Using powder actuated stud drivers;
</P>
<P>(viii) Tree pruning or cutting underbrush;
</P>
<P>(ix) Handling battery cells and solutions, such as taking battery readings with a hydrometer and thermometer;
</P>
<P>(x) Removing or rearranging strand or open wire; and
</P>
<P>(xi) Performing lead sleeve wiping and while soldering.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tent heaters.</I> Flame-type heaters may not be used within ground tents or on platforms within aerial tents unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The tent covers are constructed of fire resistant materials, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate ventilation is provided to maintain safe oxygen levels and avoid harmful buildup of combustion products and combustible gases.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Torches.</I> Torches may be used on aerial splicing platforms or in buckets enclosed by tents provided the tent material is constructed of fire resistant material and the torch is turned off when not in actual use. Aerial tents shall be adequately ventilated while the torch is in operation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Portable power equipment.</I> Nominal 120V, or less, portable generators used for providing power at work locations do not require grounding if the output circuit is completely isolated from the frame of the unit.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Vehicle-mounted utility generators.</I> Vehicle-mounted utility generators used for providing nominal 240V AC or less for powering portable tools and equipment need not be grounded to earth if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) One side of the voltage source is solidly strapped to the metallic structure of the vehicle;
</P>
<P>(ii) Grounding-type outlets are used, with a “grounding” conductor between the outlet grounding terminal and the side of the voltage source that is strapped to the vehicle;
</P>
<P>(iii) All metallic encased tools and equipment that are powered from this system are equipped with three-wire cords and grounding-type attachment plugs, except as designated in paragraph (i)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Portable lights, tools, and appliances.</I> Portable lights, tools, and appliances having noncurrent-carrying external metal housing may be used with power equipment described in paragraph (i)(5) of this section without an equipment grounding conductor. When operated from commercial power such metal parts of these devices shall be grounded, unless these tools or appliances are protected by a system of double insulation, or its equivalent. Where such a system is employed, the equipment shall be distinctively marked to indicate double insulation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Soldering devices.</I> Grounding shall be omitted when using soldering irons, guns or wire-wrap tools on telecommunications circuits.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Lead work.</I> The wiping of lead joints using melted solder, gas fueled torches, soldering irons or other appropriate heating devices, and the soldering of wires or other electrical connections do not constitute the welding, cutting and brazing described in subpart Q of this part. When operated from commercial power the metal housing of electric solder pots shall be grounded. Electric solder pots may be used with the power equipment described in paragraph (i)(5) of this section without a grounding conductor. The employer shall ensure that wiping gloves or cloths and eye protection are used in lead wiping operations. A drip pan to catch hot lead drippings shall also be provided and used.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Vehicle-mounted material handling devices and other mechanical equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that visual inspections are made of the equipment by a competent person each day the equipment is to be used to ascertain that it is in good condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that tests shall be made at the beginning of each shift by a competent person to insure the vehicle brakes and operating systems are in proper working condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scrapers, loaders, dozers, graders and tractors.</I> (i) All rubber-tired, self-propelled scrapers, rubber-tired front end loaders, rubber-tired dozers, agricultural and industrial tractors, crawler tractors, crawler-type loaders, and motor graders, with or without attachments, that are used in telecommunications work shall have rollover protective structures that meet the requirements of subpart W of part 1926 of this Title.
</P>
<P>(ii) Eye protection shall be provided and the employer shall ensure that it is used by employees when working in areas where flying material is generated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vehicle-mounted elevating and rotating work platforms.</I> These devices shall not be operated with any conductive part of the equipment closer to exposed energized power lines than the clearances set forth in Table R-2 of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Derrick trucks and similar equipment.</I> (i) This equipment shall not be operated with any conductive part of the equipment closer to exposed energized power lines than the clearances set forth in Table R-2 of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When derricks are used to handle poles near energized power conductors, these operations shall comply with the requirements contained in paragraphs (b)(7) and (n)(11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Moving parts of equipment and machinery carried on or mounted on telecommunications line trucks shall be guarded. This may be done with barricades as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Derricks and the operation of derricks shall comply with the following requirements: (A) Manufacturer's specifications, load ratings and instructions for derrick operation shall be strictly observed.
</P>
<P>(B) Rated load capacities and instructions related to derrick operation shall be conspicuously posted on a permanent weather-resistant plate or decal in a location on the derrick that is plainly visible to the derrick operator.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to derrick operation the parking brake must be set and the stabilizers extended if the vehicle is so equipped. When the vehicle is situated on a grade, at least two wheels must be chocked on the downgrade side.
</P>
<P>(D) Only persons trained in the operation of the derrick shall be permitted to operate the derrick.
</P>
<P>(E) Hand signals to derrick operators shall be those prescribed by ANSI B30.6-1969, “Safety Code for Derricks”, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6.
</P>
<P>(F) The employer shall ensure that the derrick and its associated equipment are inspected by a competent person at intervals set by the manufacturer but in no case less than once per year. Records shall be maintained including the dates of inspections, and necessary repairs made, if corrective action was required.
</P>
<P>(G) Modifications or additions to the derrick and its associated equipment that alter its capacity or affect its safe operation shall be made only with written certification from the manufacturer, or other equivalent entity, such as a nationally recognized testing laboratory, that the modification results in the equipment being safe for its intended use. Such changes shall require the changing and posting of revised capacity and instruction decals or plates. These new ratings or limitations shall be as provided by the manufacturer or other equivalent entity.
</P>
<P>(H) Wire rope used with derricks shall be of improved plow steel or equivalent. Wire rope safety factors shall be in accordance with American National Standards Institute B30.6-1969.
</P>
<P>(I) Wire rope shall be taken out of service, or the defective portion removed, when any of the following conditions exist: (<I>1</I>) The rope strength has been significantly reduced due to corrosion, pitting, or excessive heat, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The thickness of the outer wires of the rope has been reduced to two-thirds or less of the original thickness, or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) There are more than six broken wires in any one rope lay, or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) There is excessive permanent distortion caused by kinking, crushing, or severe twisting of the rope.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Materials handling and storage</I>—(1) <I>Poles.</I> When working with poles in piles or stacks, work shall be performed from the ends of the poles as much as possible, and precautions shall be taken for the safety of employees at the other end of the pole. During pole hauling operations, all loads shall be secured to prevent displacement. Lights, reflectors and/or flags shall be displayed on the end and sides of the load as necessary. The requirements for installation, removal, or other handling of poles in pole lines are prescribed in paragraph (n) of this section which pertains to overhead lines. In the case of hoisting machinery equipped with a positive stop loadholding device, it shall be permissible for the operator to leave his position at the controls (while a load is suspended) for the sole purpose of assisting in positioning the load prior to landing it. Prior to unloading steel, poles, crossarms, and similar material, the load shall be thoroughly examined to ascertain that the load has not shifted, that binders or stakes have not broken, and that the load is not otherwise hazardous to employees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cable reels.</I> Cable reels in storage shall be checked or otherwise restrained when there is a possibility that they might accidentally roll from position.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Cable fault locating and testing.</I> (1) Employees involved in using high voltages to locate trouble or test cables shall be instructed in the precautions necessary for their own safety and the safety of other employees.
</P>
<P>(2) Before the voltage is applied, cable conductors shall be isolated to the extent practicable. Employees shall be warned, by such techniques as briefing and tagging at all affected locations, to stay clear while the voltage is applied.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Grounding for employee protection—pole lines</I>—(1) <I>Power conductors.</I> Electric power conductors and equipment shall be considered as energized unless the employee can visually determine that they are bonded to one of the grounds listed in paragraph (m)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonworking open wire.</I> Nonworking open wire communications lines shall be bonded to one of the grounds listed in paragraph (m)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vertical power conduit, power ground wires and street light fixtures.</I> (i) Metal power conduit on joint use poles, exposed vertical power ground wires, and street light fixtures which are below communications attachments or less than 20 inches above these attachments, shall be considered energized and shall be tested for voltage unless the employee can visually determine that they are bonded to the communications suspension strand or cable sheath.
</P>
<P>(ii) If no hazardous voltage is shown by the voltage test, a temporary bond shall be placed between such street light fixture, exposed vertical power grounding conductor, or metallic power conduit and the communications cable strand. Temporary bonds used for this purpose shall have sufficient conductivity to carry at least 500 amperes for a period of one second without fusing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Suitable protective grounding.</I> Acceptable grounds for protective grounding are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A vertical ground wire which has been tested, found safe, and is connected to a power system multigrounded neutral or the grounded neutral of a power secondary system where there are at least three services connected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Communications cable sheath or shield and its supporting strand where the sheath or shield is:
</P>
<P>(A) Bonded to an underground or buried cable which is connected to a central office ground, or
</P>
<P>(B) Bonded to an underground metallic piping system, or
</P>
<P>(C) Bonded to a power system multigrounded neutral or grounded neutral of a power secondary system which has at least three services connected;
</P>
<P>(iii) Guys which are bonded to the grounds specified in paragraphs (m)(4) (i) and (ii) of this section and which have continuity uninterrupted by an insulator; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If all of the preceding grounds are not available, arrays of driven ground rods where the resultant resistance to ground will be low enough to eliminate danger to personnel or permit prompt operation of protective devices.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Attaching and removing temporary bonds.</I> When attaching grounds (bonds), the first attachment shall be made to the protective ground. When removing bonds, the connection to the line or equipment shall be removed first. Insulating gloves shall be worn during these operations.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Temporary grounding of suspension strand.</I> (i) The suspension strand shall be grounded to the existing grounds listed in paragraph (m)(4) of this section when being placed on jointly used poles or during thunderstorm activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where power crossings are encountered on nonjoint lines, the strand shall be bonded to an existing ground listed in paragraph (m)(4) of this section as close as possible to the crossing. This bonding is not required where crossings are made on a common crossing pole unless there is an upward change in grade at the pole.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where roller-type bonds are used, they shall be restrained so as to avoid stressing the electrical connections.
</P>
<P>(iv) Bonds between the suspension strand and the existing ground shall be at least No. 6AWG copper.
</P>
<P>(v) Temporary bonds shall be left in place until the strand has been tensioned, dead-ended, and permanently grounded.
</P>
<P>(vi) The requirements of paragraphs (m)(6)(i) through (m)(6)(v) of this section do not apply to the installation of insulated strand.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Antenna work-radio transmitting stations 3-30 MHZ.</I> (i) Prior to grounding a radio transmitting station antenna, the employer shall insure that the rigger in charge:
</P>
<P>(A) Prepares a danger tag signed with his signature,
</P>
<P>(B) Requests the transmitting technician to shutdown the transmitter and to ground the antenna with its grounding switch,
</P>
<P>(C) Is notified by the transmitting technician that the transmitter has been shutdown, and
</P>
<P>(D) Tags the antenna ground switch personally in the presence of the transmitting technician after the antenna has been grounded by the transmitting technician.
</P>
<P>(ii) Power shall not be applied to the antenna, nor shall the grounding switch be opened under any circumstances while the tag is affixed.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Where no grounding switches are provided, grounding sticks shall be used, one on each side of line, and tags shall be placed on the grounding sticks, antenna switch, or plate power switch in a conspicuous place.
</P>
<P>(B) When necessary to further reduce excessive radio frequency pickup, ground sticks or short circuits shall be placed directly on the transmission lines near the transmitter in addition to the regular grounding switches.
</P>
<P>(C) In other cases, the antenna lines may be disconnected from ground and the transmitter to reduce pickup at the point in the field.
</P>
<P>(iv) All radio frequency line wires shall be tested for pickup with an insulated probe before they are handled either with bare hands or with metal tools.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall insure that the transmitting technician warn the riggers about adjacent lines which are, or may become energized.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall insure that when antenna work has been completed, the rigger in charge of the job returns to the transmitter, notifies the transmitting technician in charge that work has been completed, and personally removes the tag from the antenna ground switch.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Overhead lines</I>—(1) <I>Handling suspension strand.</I> (i) The employer shall insure that when handling cable suspension strand which is being installed on poles carrying exposed energized power conductors, employees shall wear insulating gloves and shall avoid body contact with the strand until after it has been tensioned, dead-ended and permanently grounded.
</P>
<P>(ii) The strand shall be restrained against upward movement during installation:
</P>
<P>(A) On joint-use poles, where there is an upward change in grade at the pole, and
</P>
<P>(B) On non-joint-use poles, where the line croses under energized power conductors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Need for testing wood poles.</I> Unless temporary guys or braces are attached, the following poles shall be tested in accordance with paragraph (n)(3) of this section and determined to be safe before employees are permitted to climb them:
</P>
<P>(i) Dead-end poles, except properly braced or guyed “Y” or “T” cable junction poles,
</P>
<P>(ii) Straight line poles which are not storm guyed and where adjacent span lengths exceed 165 feet,
</P>
<P>(iii) Poles at which there is a downward change in grade and which are not guyed or braced corner poles or cable junction poles,
</P>
<P>(iv) Poles which support only telephone drop wire, and
</P>
<P>(v) Poles which carry less than ten communication line wires. On joint use poles, one power line wire shall be considered as two communication wires for purposes of this paragraph (n)(2)(v).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Methods for testing wood poles.</I> One of the following methods or an equivalent method shall be used for testing wood poles:
</P>
<P>(i) Rap the pole sharply with a hammer weighing about 3 pounds, starting near the ground line and continuing upwards circumferentially around the pole to a height of approximately 6 feet. The hammer will produce a clear sound and rebound sharply when striking sound wood. Decay pockets will be indicated by a dull sound and/or a less pronounced hammer rebound. When decay pockets are indicated, the pole shall be considered unsafe. Also, prod the pole as near the ground line as possible using a pole prod or a screwdriver with a blade at least 5 inches long. If substantial decay is encountered, the pole shall be considered unsafe.
</P>
<P>(ii) Apply a horizontal force to the pole and attempt to rock it back and forth in a direction perpendicular to the line. Caution shall be exercised to avoid causing power wires to swing together. The force may be applied either by pushing with a pike pole or pulling with a rope. If the pole cracks during the test, it shall be considered unsafe.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unsafe poles or structures.</I> Poles or structures determined to be unsafe by test or observation may not be climbed until made safe by guying, bracing or other adequate means. Poles determined to be unsafe to climb shall, until they are made safe, be tagged in a conspicuous place to alert and warn all employees of the unsafe condition.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Test requirements for cable suspension strand.</I> (i) Before attaching a splicing platform to a cable suspension strand, the strand shall be tested and determined to have strength sufficient to support the weight of the platform and the employee. Where the strand crosses above power wires or railroad tracks it may not be tested but shall be inspected in accordance with paragraph (n)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following method or an equivalent method shall be used for testing the strength of the strand: A rope, at least three-eighths inch in diameter, shall be thrown over the strand. On joint lines, the rope shall be passed over the strand using tree pruner handles or a wire raising tool. If two employees are present, both shall grip the double rope and slowly transfer their entire weight to the rope and attempt to raise themselves off the ground. If only one employee is present, one end of the rope which has been passed over the strand shall be tied to the bumper of the truck, or other equally secure anchorage. The employee then shall grasp the other end of the rope and attempt to raise himself off the ground.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Inspection of strand.</I> Where strand passes over electric power wires or railroad tracks, it shall be inspected from an elevated working position at each pole supporting the span in question. The strand may not be used to support any splicing platform, scaffold or cable car, if any of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(i) Corrosion so that no galvanizing can be detected,
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more wires of the strand are broken,
</P>
<P>(iii) Worn spots, or
</P>
<P>(iv) Burn marks such as those caused by contact with electric power wires.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Outside work platforms.</I> Unless adequate railings are provided, safety straps and body belts shall be used while working on elevated work platforms such as aerial splicing platforms, pole platforms, ladder platforms and terminal balconies.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Other elevated locations.</I> Safety straps and body belts shall be worn when working at elevated positions on poles, towers or similar structures, which do not have adequately guarded work areas.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Installing and removing wire and cable.</I> Before installing or removing wire or cable, the pole or structure shall be guyed, braced, or otherwise supported, as necessary, to prevent failure of the pole or structure.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Avoiding contact with energized power conductors or equipment.</I> When cranes, derricks, or other mechanized equipment are used for setting, moving, or removing poles, all necessary precautions shall be taken to avoid contact with energized power conductors or equipment.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Handling poles near energized power conductors.</I> (i) Joint use poles may not be set, moved, or removed where the nominal voltage of open electrical power conductors exceeds 34.5kV phase to phase (20kV to ground).
</P>
<P>(ii) Poles that are to be placed, moved or removed during heavy rains, sleet or wet snow in joint lines carrying more than 8.7kV phase to phase voltage (5kV to ground) shall be guarded or otherwise prevented from direct contact with overhead energized power conductors.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) In joint lines where the power voltage is greater than 750 volts but less than 34.5kV phase to phase (20 kV to ground), wet poles being placed, moved or removed shall be insulated with either a rubber insulating blanket, a fiberglass box guide, or equivalent protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(B) In joint lines where the power voltage is greater than 8.7 kV phase to phase (5kV to ground) but less than 34.5kV phase to phase (20 kV to ground), dry poles being placed, moved, or removed shall be insulated with either a rubber insulating blanket, a fiberglass box guide, or equivalent protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Where wet or dry poles are being removed, insulation of the pole is not required if the pole is cut off 2 feet or more below the lowest power wire and also cut off near the ground line.
</P>
<P>(iv) Insulating gloves shall be worn when handling the pole with either hands or tools, when there exists a possibility that the pole may contact a power conductor. Where the voltage to ground of the power conductor exceeds 15kV to ground, Class II gloves (as defined in ANSI J6.6-1971) shall be used. For voltages not exceeding 15kV to ground, insulating gloves shall have a breakdown voltage of at least 17kV.
</P>
<P>(v) The guard or insulating material used to protect the pole shall meet the appropriate 3 minute proof test voltage requirements contained in the ANSI J6.4-1971.
</P>
<P>(vi) When there exists a possibility of contact between the pole or the vehicle-mounted equipment used to handle the pole, and an energized power conductor, the following precautions shall be observed:
</P>
<P>(A) When on the vehicle which carries the derrick, avoid all contact with the ground, with persons standing on the ground, and with all grounded objects such as guys, tree limbs, or metal sign posts. To the extent feasible, remain on the vehicle as long as the possibility of contact exists.
</P>
<P>(B) When it is necessary to leave the vehicle, step onto an insulating blanket and break all contact with the vehicle before stepping off the blanket and onto the ground. As a last resort, if a blanket is not available, the employee may jump cleanly from the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(C) When it is necessary to enter the vehicle, first step onto an insulating blanket and break all contact with the ground, grounded objects and other persons before touching the truck or derrick.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Working position on poles.</I> Climbing and working are prohibited above the level of the lowest electric power conducter on the pole (exclusive of vertical runs and street light wiring), except:
</P>
<P>(i) Where communications facilities are attached above the electric power conductors, and a rigid fixed barrier is installed between the electric power facility and the communications facility, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the electric power conductors are cabled secondary service drops carrying less than 300 volts to ground and are attached 40 inches or more below the communications conductors or cables.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Metal tapes and ropes.</I> (i) Metal measuring tapes, metal measuring ropes, or tapes containing conductive strands may not be used when working near exposed energized parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where it is necessary to measure clearances from energized parts, only nonconductive devices shall be used.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Underground lines.</I> The provisions of this paragraph apply to the guarding of manholes and street openings, and to the ventilation and testing for gas in manholes and unvented vaults, where telecommunications field work is performed on or with underground lines.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Guarding manholes and street openings.</I> (i) When covers of manholes or vaults are removed, the opening shall be promptly guarded by a railing, temporary cover, or other suitable temporary barrier which is appropriate to prevent an accidental fall through the opening and to protect employees working in the manhole from foreign objects entering the manhole.
</P>
<P>(ii) While work is being performed in the manhole, a person with basic first aid training shall be immediately available to render assistance if there is cause for believing that a safety hazard exists, and if the requirements contained in paragraphs (d)(1) and (o)(1)(i) of this section do not adequately protect the employee(s). Examples of manhole worksite hazards which shall be considered to constitute a safety hazard include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Manhole worksites where safety hazards are created by traffic patterns that cannot be corrected by provisions of paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Manhole worksites that are subject to unusual water hazards that cannot be abated by conventional means.
</P>
<P>(C) Manhole worksites that are occupied jointly with power utilities as described in paragraph (o)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements prior to entering manholes and unvented vaults.</I> (i) Before an employee enters a manhole, the following steps shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(A) The internal atmosphere shall be tested for combustible gas and, except when continuous forced ventilation is provided, the atmosphere shall also be tested for oxygen deficiency.
</P>
<P>(B) When unsafe conditions are detected by testing or other means, the work area shall be ventilated and otherwise made safe before entry.
</P>
<P>(ii) An adequate continuous supply of air shall be provided while work is performed in manholes under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Where combustible or explosive gas vapors have been initially detected and subsequently reduced to a safe level by ventilation,
</P>
<P>(B) Where organic solvents are used in the work procedure,
</P>
<P>(C) Where open flame torches are used in the work procedure,
</P>
<P>(D) Where the manhole is located in that portion of a public right of way open to vehicular traffic and/or exposed to a seepage of gas or gases, or
</P>
<P>(E) Where a toxic gas or oxygen deficiency is found.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) The requirements of paragraphs (o)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section do not apply to work in central office cable vaults that are adequately ventilated.
</P>
<P>(B) The requirements of paragraphs (o)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section apply to work in unvented vaults.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint power and telecommunication manholes.</I> While work is being performed in a manhole occupied jointly by an electric utility and a telecommunication utility, an employee with basic first aid training shall be available in the immediate vicinity to render emergency assistance as may be required. The employee whose presence is required in the immediate vicinity for the purposes of rendering emergency assistance is not to be precluded from occasionally entering a manhole to provide assistance other than in an emergency. The requirement of this paragraph (o)(3) does not preclude a qualified employee, working alone, from entering for brief periods of time, a manhole where energized cables or equipment are in service, for the purpose of inspection, housekeeping, taking readings, or similar work if such work can be performed safely.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ladders.</I> Ladders shall be used to enter and exit manholes exceeding 4 feet in depth.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Flames.</I> When open flames are used in manholes, the following precautions shall be taken to protect against the accumulation of combustible gas:
</P>
<P>(i) A test for combustible gas shall be made immediately before using the open flame device, and at least once per hour while using the device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) a fuel tank (e.g., acetylene) may not be in the manhole unless in actual use.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Microwave transmission</I>—(1) <I>Eye protection.</I> Employers shall insure that employees do not look into an open waveguide which is connected to an energized source of microwave radiation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hazardous area.</I> Accessible areas associated with microwave communication systems where the electromagnetic radiation level exceeds the radiation protection guide given in § 1910.97 shall be posted as described in that section. The lower half of the warning symbol shall include the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Radiation in this area may exceed hazard limitations and special precautions are required. Obtain specific instruction before entering.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Protective measures.</I> When an employee works in an area where the electromagnetic radiation exceeds the radiation protection guide, the employer shall institute measures that insure that the employee's exposure is not greater than that permitted by the radiation guide. Such measures shall include, but not be limited to those of an administrative or engineering nature or those involving personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Tree trimming</I>—<I>electrical hazards</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Employees engaged in pruning, trimming, removing, or clearing trees from lines shall be required to consider all overhead and underground electrical power conductors to be energized with potentially fatal voltages, never to be touched (contacted) either directly or indirectly.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees engaged in line-clearing operations shall be instructed that:
</P>
<P>(A) A direct contact is made when any part of the body touches or contacts an energized conductor, or other energized electrical fixture or apparatus.
</P>
<P>(B) An indirect contact is made when any part of the body touches any object in contact with an energized electrical conductor, or other energized fixture or apparatus.
</P>
<P>(C) An indirect contact can be made through conductive tools, tree branches, trucks, equipment, or other objects, or as a result of communications wires, cables, fences, or guy wires being accidentally energized.
</P>
<P>(D) Electric shock will occur when an employee, by either direct or indirect contact with an energized conductor, energized tree limb, tool, equipment, or other object, provides a path for the flow of electricity to a grounded object or to the ground itself. Simultaneous contact with two energized conductors will also cause electric shock which may result in serious or fatal injury.
</P>
<P>(iii) Before any work is performed in proximity to energized conductors, the system operator/owner of the energized conductors shall be contacted to ascertain if he knows of any hazards associated with the conductors which may not be readily apparent. This rule does not apply when operations are performed by or on behalf of, the system operator/owner.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Working in proximity to electrical hazards.</I> (i) Employers shall ensure that a close inspection is made by the employee and by the foremen or supervisor in charge before climbing, entering, or working around any tree, to determine whether an electrical power conductor passes through the tree, or passes within reaching distance of an employee working in the tree. If any of these conditions exist either directly or indirectly, an electrical hazard shall be considered to exist unless the system operator/owner has caused the hazard to be removed by deenergizing the lines, or installing protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Only qualified employees or trainees, familiar with the special techniques and hazards involved in line clearance, shall be permitted to perform the work if it is found that an electrical hazard exists.
</P>
<P>(iii) During all tree working operations aloft where an electrical hazard of more than 750V exists, there shall be a second employee or trainee qualified in line clearance tree trimming within normal voice communication.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where tree work is performed by employees qualified in line-clearance tree trimming and trainees qualified in line-clearance tree trimming, the clearances from energized conductors given in Table R-3 shall apply.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-3—Minimum Working Distances From Energized Conductors for Line-Clearance Tree Trimmers and Line-Clearance Tree-Trimmer Trainees
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Voltage range (phase to phase) (kilovolts)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum working distance
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1 to 15.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 ft. 0 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 35.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 ft. 4 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 ft. 6 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 ft. 0 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 121.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 ft. 4 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">138.0 to 145.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 ft. 6 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">161.0 to 169.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 ft. 8 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230.0 to 242.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 ft. 0 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">345.0 to 362.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 ft. 0 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500.0 to 552.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11 ft. 0 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700.0 to 765.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 ft. 0 in.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) Branches hanging on an energized conductor may only be removed using appropriately insulated equipment.
</P>
<P>(vi) Rubber footwear, including lineman's overshoes, shall not be considered as providing any measure of safety from electrical hazards.
</P>
<P>(vii) Ladders, platforms, and aerial devices, including insulated aerial devices, may not be brought in contact with an electrical conductor. Reliance shall not be placed on their dielectric capabilities.
</P>
<P>(viii) When an aerial lift device contacts an electrical conductor, the truck supporting the aerial lift device shall be considered as energized.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Storm work and emergency conditions.</I> (i) Since storm work and emergency conditions create special hazards, only authorized representatives of the electric utility system operator/owner and not telecommunication workers may perform tree work in these situations where energized electrical power conductors are involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an emergency condition develops due to tree operations, work shall be suspended and the system operator/owner shall be notified immediately.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Buried facilities—Communications lines and power lines in the same trench.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Aerial lifts.</I> Aerial lifts include the following types of vehicle-mounted aerial devices used to elevate personnel to jobsites above ground:
</P>
<P>(i) Extensible boom platforms,
</P>
<P>(ii) Aerial ladders,
</P>
<P>(iii) Articulating boom platforms,
</P>
<P>(iv) Vertical towers,
</P>
<P>(v) A combination of any of the above defined in ANSI A92.2-1969, which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6. These devices are made of metal, wood, fiberglass reinforced plastic (FRP), or other material; are powered or manually operated; and are deemed to be aerial lifts whether or not they are capable of rotating about a substantially vertical axis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aerial splicing platform.</I> This consists of a platform, approximately 3 ft. × 4 ft., used to perform aerial cable work. It is furnished with fiber or synthetic ropes for supporting the platform from aerial strand, detachable guy ropes for anchoring it, and a device for raising and lowering it with a handline.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Aerial tent.</I> A small tent usually constructed of vinyl coated canvas which is usually supported by light metal or plastic tubing. It is designed to protect employees in inclement weather while working on ladders, aerial splicing platforms, or aerial devices.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alive or live (energized).</I> Electrically connected to a source of potential difference, or electrically charged so as to have a potential significantly different from that of the earth in the vicinity. The term <I>live</I> is sometimes used in the place of the term <I>current-carrying,</I> where the intent is clear, to avoid repetition of the longer term.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Barricade.</I> A physical obstruction such as tapes, cones, or “A” frame type wood and/or metal structure intended to warn and limit access to a work area.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Barrier.</I> A physical obstruction which is intended to prevent contact with energized lines or equipment, or to prevent unauthorized access to work area.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bond.</I> An electrical connection from one conductive element to another for the purpose of minimizing potential differences or providing suitable conductivity for fault current or for mitigation of leakage current and electrolytic action.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cable.</I> A conductor with insulation, or a stranded conductor with or without insulation and other coverings (single-conductor cable), or a combination of conductors insulated from one another (multiple-conductor cable).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Cable sheath.</I> A protective covering applied to cables.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A cable sheath may consist of multiple layers of which one or more is conductive.</P></NOTE>
<P>(10) <I>Circuit.</I> A conductor or system of conductors through which an electric current is intended to flow.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Communication lines.</I> The conductors and their supporting or containing structures for telephone, telegraph, railroad signal, data, clock, fire, police-alarm, community television antenna and other systems which are used for public or private signal or communication service, and which operate at potentials not exceeding 400 volts to ground or 750 volts between any two points of the circuit, and the transmitted power of which does not exceed 150 watts. When communications lines operate at less than 150 volts to ground, no limit is placed on the capacity of the system. Specifically designed communications cables may include communication circuits not complying with the preceding limitations, where such circuits are also used incidentally to supply power to communication equipment.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Conductor.</I> A material, usually in the form of a wire, cable, or bus bar, suitable for carrying an electric current.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Effectively grounded.</I> Intentionally connected to earth through a ground connection or connections of sufficiently low impedance and having sufficient current-carrying capacity to prevent the build-up of voltages which may result in undue hazard to connected equipment or to persons.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Equipment.</I> A general term which includes materials, fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures, apparatus, and similar items used as part of, or in connection with, a supply or communications installation.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Ground (reference).</I> That conductive body, usually earth, to which an electric potential is referenced.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Ground (as a noun).</I> A conductive connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit or equipment is connected to reference ground.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Ground (as a verb).</I> The connecting or establishment of a connection, whether by intention or accident, of an electric circuit or equipment to reference ground.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Ground tent.</I> A small tent usually constructed of vinyl coated canvas supported by a metal or plastic frame. Its purpose is to protect employees from inclement weather while working at buried cable pedestal sites or similar locations.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Grounded conductor.</I> A system or circuit conductor which is intentionally grounded.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Grounded systems.</I> A system of conductors in which at least one conductor or point (usually the middle wire, or the neutral point of transformer or generator windings) is intentionally grounded, either solidly or through a current-limiting device (not a current-interrupting device).
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Grounding electrode conductor. (Grounding conductor).</I> A conductor used to connect equipment or the grounded circuit of a wiring system to a grounding electrode.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Insulated.</I> Separated from other conducting surfaces by a dielectric substance (including air space) offering a high resistance to the passage of current.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When any object is said to be insulated, it is understood to be insulated in suitable manner for the conditions to which it is subjected. Otherwise, it is, within the purpose of these rules, uninsulated. Insulating coverings of conductors in one means of making the conductor insulated.</P></NOTE>
<P>(23) <I>Insulation (as applied to cable).</I> That which is relied upon to insulate the conductor from other conductors or conducting parts or from ground.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Joint use.</I> The sharing of a common facility, such as a manhole, trench or pole, by two or more different kinds of utilities (e.g., power and telecommunications).
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Ladder platform.</I> A device designed to facilitate working aloft from an extension ladder. A typical device consists of a platform (approximately 9″ × 18″) hinged to a welded pipe frame. The rear edge of the platform and the bottom cross-member of the frame are equipped with latches to lock the platform to ladder rungs.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Ladder seat.</I> A removable seat used to facilitate work at an elevated position on rolling ladders in telecommunication centers.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Manhole.</I> A subsurface enclosure which personnel may enter and which is used for the purpose of installing, operating, and maintaining submersible equipment and/or cable.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Manhole platform.</I> A platform consisting of separate planks which are laid across steel platform supports. The ends of the supports are engaged in the manhole cable racks.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Microwave transmission.</I> The act of communicating or signaling utilizing a frequency between 1 GH<E T="52">z</E> (gigahertz) and 300 GH<E T="52">z</E> inclusively.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Nominal voltage.</I> The nominal voltage of a system or circuit is the value assigned to a system or circuit of a given voltage class for the purpose of convenient designation. The actual voltage may vary above or below this value.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Pole balcony or seat.</I> A balcony or seat used as a support for workmen at pole-mounted equipment or terminal boxes. A typical device consists of a bolted assembly of steel details and a wooden platform. Steel braces run from the pole to the underside of the balcony. A guard rail (approximately 30″ high) may be provided.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Pole platform.</I> A platform intended for use by a workman in splicing and maintenance operations in an elevated position adjacent to a pole. It consists of a platform equipped at one end with a hinged chain binder for securing the platform to a pole. A brace from the pole to the underside of the platform is also provided.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Qualified employee.</I> Any worker who by reason of his training and experience has demonstrated his ability to safely perform his duties.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Qualified line-clearance tree trimmer.</I> A tree worker who through related training and on-the-job experience is familar with the special techniques and hazards involved in line clearance.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Qualified line-clearance tree-trimmer trainee.</I> Any worker regularly assigned to a line-clearance tree-trimming crew and undergoing on-the-job training who, in the course of such training, has demonstrated his ability to perform his duties safely at his level of training.
</P>
<P>(36) <I>System operator/owner.</I> The person or organization that operates or controls the electrical conductors involved.
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Telecommunications center.</I> An installation of communication equipment under the exclusive control of an organization providing telecommunications service, that is located outdoors or in a vault, chamber, or a building space used primarily for such installations.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Telecommunication centers are facilities established, equipped and arranged in accordance with engineered plans for the purpose of providing telecommunications service. They may be located on premises owned or leased by the organization providing telecommunication service, or on the premises owned or leased by others. This definition includes switch rooms (whether electromechanical, electronic, or computer controlled), terminal rooms, power rooms, repeater rooms, transmitter and receiver rooms, switchboard operating rooms, cable vaults, and miscellaneous communications equipment rooms. Simulation rooms of telecommunication centers for training or developmental purposes are also included.</P></NOTE>
<P>(38) <I>Telecommunications derricks.</I> Rotating or nonrotating derrick structures permanently mounted on vehicles for the purpose of lifting, lowering, or positioning hardware and materials used in telecommunications work.
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Telecommunication line truck.</I> A truck used to transport men, tools, and material, and to serve as a traveling workshop for telecommunication installation and maintenance work. It is sometimes equipped with a boom and auxiliary equipment for setting poles, digging holes, and elevating material or men.
</P>
<P>(40) <I>Telecommunication service.</I> The furnishing of a capability to signal or communicate at a distance by means such as telephone, telegraph, police and firealarm, community antenna television, or similar system, using wire, conventional cable, coaxial cable, wave guides, microwave transmission, or other similar means.
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Unvented vault.</I> An enclosed vault in which the only openings are access openings.
</P>
<P>(42) <I>Vault.</I> An enclosure above or below ground which personnel may enter, and which is used for the purpose of installing, operating, and/or maintaining equipment and/or cable which need not be of submersible design.
</P>
<P>(43) <I>Vented vault.</I> An enclosure as described in paragraph(s) (42) of this section, with provision for air changes using exhaust flue stack(s) and low level air intake(s), operating on differentials of pressure and temperature providing for air flow.
</P>
<P>(44) <I>Voltage of an effectively grounded circuit.</I> The voltage between any conductor and ground unless otherwise indicated.
</P>
<P>(45) <I>Voltage of a circuit not effectively grounded.</I> The voltage between any two conductors. If one circuit is directly connected to and supplied from another circuit of higher voltage (as in the case of an autotransformer), both are considered as of the higher voltage, unless the circuit of lower voltage is effectively grounded, in which case its voltage is not determined by the circuit of higher voltage. Direct connection implies electric connection as distinguished from connection merely through electromagnetic or electrostatic induction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 13441, Mar. 26, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 49751, Oct. 24, 1978; 47 FR 14706, Apr. 6, 1982; 52 FR 36387, Sept. 28, 1987; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 61 FR 9242, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 33467, June 18, 1998; 67 FR 67965, Nov. 7, 2002; 69 FR 31882, June 8, 2004; 70 FR 1141, Jan. 5, 2005; 81 FR 83006, Nov. 18, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.269" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.269   Electric power generation, transmission, and distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> (i) This section covers the operation and maintenance of electric power generation, control, transformation, transmission, and distribution lines and equipment. These provisions apply to:
</P>
<P>(A) Power generation, transmission, and distribution installations, including related equipment for the purpose of communication or metering that are accessible only to qualified employees;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A):</HED>
<P>The types of installations covered by this paragraph include the generation, transmission, and distribution installations of electric utilities, as well as equivalent installations of industrial establishments. Subpart S of this part covers supplementary electric generating equipment that is used to supply a workplace for emergency, standby, or similar purposes only. (See paragraph (a)(1)(i)(B) of this section.)</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Other installations at an electric power generating station, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Fuel and ash handling and processing installations, such as coal conveyors,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Water and steam installations, such as penstocks, pipelines, and tanks, providing a source of energy for electric generators, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Chlorine and hydrogen systems;
</P>
<P>(C) Test sites where employees perform electrical testing involving temporary measurements associated with electric power generation, transmission, and distribution in laboratories, in the field, in substations, and on lines, as opposed to metering, relaying, and routine line work;
</P>
<P>(D) Work on, or directly associated with, the installations covered in paragraphs (a)(1)(i)(A) through (a)(1)(i)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Line-clearance tree trimming performed for the purpose of clearing space around electric power generation, transmission, or distribution lines or equipment and on behalf of an organization that operates, or that controls the operating procedures for, those lines or equipment, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Entire § 1910.269, except paragraph (r)(1) of this section, applies to line-clearance tree trimming covered by the introductory text to paragraph (a)(1)(i)(E) of the section when performed by qualified employees (those who are knowledgeable in the construction and operation of the electric power generation, transmission, or distribution equipment involved, along with the associated hazards).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(3), (b), (c), (g), (k), (p), and (r) of this section apply to line-clearance tree trimming covered by the introductory text to paragraph (a)(1)(i)(E) of this section when performed by line-clearance tree trimmers who are not qualified employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, § 1910.269 of this part does not apply:
</P>
<P>(A) To construction work, as defined in § 1910.12 of this part, except for line-clearance tree trimming and work involving electric power generation installations as specified in § 1926.950(a)(3) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(B) To electrical installations, electrical safety-related work practices, or electrical maintenance considerations covered by subpart S of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration considers work practices conforming to §§ 1910.332 through 1910.335 as complying with the electrical safety-related work-practice requirements of § 1910.269 identified in Table 1 of appendix A-2 to this section, provided that employers are performing the work on a generation or distribution installation meeting §§ 1910.303 through 1910.308. This table also identifies provisions in § 1910.269 that apply to work by qualified persons directly on, or associated with, installations of electric power generation, transmission, and distribution lines or equipment, regardless of compliance with §§ 1910.332 through 1910.335.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration considers work practices performed by qualified persons and conforming to § 1910.269 as complying with §§ 1910.333(c) and 1910.335.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) This section applies in addition to all other applicable standards contained in this part 1910. Employers covered under this section are not exempt from complying with other applicable provisions in part 1910 by the operation of § 1910.5(c). Specific references in this section to other sections of part 1910 are for emphasis only.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training.</I> (i) All employees performing work covered by this section shall be trained as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Each employee shall be trained in, and familiar with, the safety-related work practices, safety procedures, and other safety requirements in this section that pertain to his or her job assignments.
</P>
<P>(B) Each employee shall also be trained in and familiar with any other safety practices, including applicable emergency procedures (such as pole-top and manhole rescue), that are not specifically addressed by this section but that are related to his or her work and are necessary for his or her safety.
</P>
<P>(C) The degree of training shall be determined by the risk to the employee for the hazard involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each qualified employee shall also be trained and competent in:
</P>
<P>(A) The skills and techniques necessary to distinguish exposed live parts from other parts of electric equipment,
</P>
<P>(B) The skills and techniques necessary to determine the nominal voltage of exposed live parts,
</P>
<P>(C) The minimum approach distances specified in this section corresponding to the voltages to which the qualified employee will be exposed and the skills and techniques necessary to maintain those distances,
</P>
<P>(D) The proper use of the special precautionary techniques, personal protective equipment, insulating and shielding materials, and insulated tools for working on or near exposed energized parts of electric equipment, and
</P>
<P>(E) The recognition of electrical hazards to which the employee may be exposed and the skills and techniques necessary to control or avoid these hazards.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>For the purposes of this section, a person must have the training required by paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section to be considered a qualified person.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Each line-clearance tree trimmer who is not a qualified employee shall also be trained and competent in:
</P>
<P>(A) The skills and techniques necessary to distinguish exposed live parts from other parts of electric equipment,
</P>
<P>(B) The skills and techniques necessary to determine the nominal voltage of exposed live parts, and
</P>
<P>(C) The minimum approach distances specified in this section corresponding to the voltages to which the employee will be exposed and the skills and techniques necessary to maintain those distances.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall determine, through regular supervision and through inspections conducted on at least an annual basis, that each employee is complying with the safety-related work practices required by this section.
</P>
<P>(v) An employee shall receive additional training (or retraining) under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If the supervision or annual inspections required by paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section indicate that the employee is not complying with the safety-related work practices required by this section, or
</P>
<P>(B) If new technology, new types of equipment, or changes in procedures necessitate the use of safety-related work practices that are different from those which the employee would normally use, or
</P>
<P>(C) If he or she must employ safety-related work practices that are not normally used during his or her regular job duties.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">v</E>)(C):</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration considers tasks that are performed less often than once per year to necessitate retraining before the performance of the work practices involved.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) The training required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be of the classroom or on-the-job type.
</P>
<P>(vii) The training shall establish employee proficiency in the work practices required by this section and shall introduce the procedures necessary for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) The employer shall ensure that each employee has demonstrated proficiency in the work practices involved before that employee is considered as having completed the training required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">viii</E>):</HED>
<P>Though they are not required by this paragraph, employment records that indicate that an employee has successfully completed the required training are one way of keeping track of when an employee has demonstrated proficiency.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">viii</E>):</HED>
<P>For an employee with previous training, an employer may determine that that employee has demonstrated the proficiency required by this paragraph using the following process:
</P>
<P>(1) Confirm that the employee has the training required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section,
</P>
<P>(2) Use an examination or interview to make an initial determination that the employee understands the relevant safety-related work practices before he or she performs any work covered by this section, and
</P>
<P>(3) Supervise the employee closely until that employee has demonstrated proficiency as required by this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Information transfer.</I> (i) Before work begins, the host employer shall inform contract employers of:
</P>
<P>(A) The characteristics of the host employer's installation that are related to the safety of the work to be performed and are listed in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (a)(4)(v) of this section;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A):</HED>
<P>This paragraph requires the host employer to obtain information listed in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (a)(4)(v) of this section if it does not have this information in existing records.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Conditions that are related to the safety of the work to be performed, that are listed in paragraphs (a)(4)(vi) through (a)(4)(viii) of this section, and that are known to the host employer;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>For the purposes of this paragraph, the host employer need only provide information to contract employers that the host employer can obtain from its existing records through the exercise of reasonable diligence. This paragraph does not require the host employer to make inspections of worksite conditions to obtain this information.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) Information about the design and operation of the host employer's installation that the contract employer needs to make the assessments required by this section; and
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)(C):</HED>
<P>This paragraph requires the host employer to obtain information about the design and operation of its installation that contract employers need to make required assessments if it does not have this information in existing records.</P></NOTE>
<P>(D) Any other information about the design and operation of the host employer's installation that is known by the host employer, that the contract employer requests, and that is related to the protection of the contract employer's employees.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)(D):</HED>
<P>For the purposes of this paragraph, the host employer need only provide information to contract employers that the host employer can obtain from its existing records through the exercise of reasonable diligence. This paragraph does not require the host employer to make inspections of worksite conditions to obtain this information.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Contract employers shall comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The contract employer shall ensure that each of its employees is instructed in the hazardous conditions relevant to the employee's work that the contract employer is aware of as a result of information communicated to the contract employer by the host employer under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Before work begins, the contract employer shall advise the host employer of any unique hazardous conditions presented by the contract employer's work.
</P>
<P>(C) The contract employer shall advise the host employer of any unanticipated hazardous conditions found during the contract employer's work that the host employer did not mention under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section. The contract employer shall provide this information to the host employer within 2 working days after discovering the hazardous condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contract employer and the host employer shall coordinate their work rules and procedures so that each employee of the contract employer and the host employer is protected as required by this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Existing characteristics and conditions.</I> Existing characteristics and conditions of electric lines and equipment that are related to the safety of the work to be performed shall be determined before work on or near the lines or equipment is started. Such characteristics and conditions include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The nominal voltages of lines and equipment,
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum switching-transient voltages,
</P>
<P>(iii) The presence of hazardous induced voltages,
</P>
<P>(iv) The presence of protective grounds and equipment grounding conductors,
</P>
<P>(v) The locations of circuits and equipment, including electric supply lines, communication lines, and fire-protective signaling circuits,
</P>
<P>(vi) The condition of protective grounds and equipment grounding conductors,
</P>
<P>(vii) The condition of poles, and
</P>
<P>(viii) Environmental conditions relating to safety.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical services and first aid.</I> The employer shall provide medical services and first aid as required in § 1910.151. In addition to the requirements of § 1910.151, the following requirements also apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>First-aid training.</I> When employees are performing work on, or associated with, exposed lines or equipment energized at 50 volts or more, persons with first-aid training shall be available as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For field work involving two or more employees at a work location, at least two trained persons shall be available. However, for line-clearance tree trimming performed by line-clearance tree trimmers who are not qualified employees, only one trained person need be available if all new employees are trained in first aid within 3 months of their hiring dates.
</P>
<P>(ii) For fixed work locations such as substations, the number of trained persons available shall be sufficient to ensure that each employee exposed to electric shock can be reached within 4 minutes by a trained person. However, where the existing number of employees is insufficient to meet this requirement (at a remote substation, for example), each employee at the work location shall be a trained employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>First-aid supplies.</I> First-aid supplies required by § 1910.151(b) shall be placed in weatherproof containers if the supplies could be exposed to the weather.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>First-aid kits.</I> The employer shall maintain each first-aid kit, shall ensure that it is readily available for use, and shall inspect it frequently enough to ensure that expended items are replaced. The employer also shall inspect each first aid kit at least once per year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Job briefing</I>—(1) <I>Before each job.</I> (i) In assigning an employee or a group of employees to perform a job, the employer shall provide the employee in charge of the job with all available information that relates to the determination of existing characteristics and conditions required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that the employee in charge conducts a job briefing that meets paragraphs (c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4) of this section with the employees involved before they start each job.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subjects to be covered.</I> The briefing shall cover at least the following subjects: hazards associated with the job, work procedures involved, special precautions, energy-source controls, and personal protective equipment requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Number of briefings.</I> (i) If the work or operations to be performed during the work day or shift are repetitive and similar, at least one job briefing shall be conducted before the start of the first job of each day or shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional job briefings shall be held if significant changes, which might affect the safety of the employees, occur during the course of the work.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Extent of briefing.</I> (i) A brief discussion is satisfactory if the work involved is routine and if the employees, by virtue of training and experience, can reasonably be expected to recognize and avoid the hazards involved in the job.
</P>
<P>(ii) A more extensive discussion shall be conducted:
</P>
<P>(A) If the work is complicated or particularly hazardous, or
</P>
<P>(B) If the employee cannot be expected to recognize and avoid the hazards involved in the job.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>The briefing must address all the subjects listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Working alone.</I> An employee working alone need not conduct a job briefing. However, the employer shall ensure that the tasks to be performed are planned as if a briefing were required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hazardous energy control (lockout/tagout) procedures</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> The provisions of paragraph (d) of this section apply to the use of lockout/tagout procedures for the control of energy sources in installations for the purpose of electric power generation, including related equipment for communication or metering. Locking and tagging procedures for the deenergizing of electric energy sources which are used exclusively for purposes of transmission and distribution are addressed by paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>Installations in electric power generation facilities that are not an integral part of, or inextricably commingled with, power generation processes or equipment are covered under § 1910.147 and Subpart S of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall establish a program consisting of energy control procedures, employee training, and periodic inspections to ensure that, before any employee performs any servicing or maintenance on a machine or equipment where the unexpected energizing, start up, or release of stored energy could occur and cause injury, the machine or equipment is isolated from the energy source and rendered inoperative.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer's energy control program under paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) If an energy isolating device is not capable of being locked out, the employer's program shall use a tagout system.
</P>
<P>(B) If an energy isolating device is capable of being locked out, the employer's program shall use lockout, unless the employer can demonstrate that the use of a tagout system will provide full employee protection as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When a tagout device is used on an energy isolating device which is capable of being locked out, the tagout device shall be attached at the same location that the lockout device would have been attached, and the employer shall demonstrate that the tagout program will provide a level of safety equivalent to that obtained by the use of a lockout program.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In demonstrating that a level of safety is achieved in the tagout program equivalent to the level of safety obtained by the use of a lockout program, the employer shall demonstrate full compliance with all tagout-related provisions of this standard together with such additional elements as are necessary to provide the equivalent safety available from the use of a lockout device. Additional means to be considered as part of the demonstration of full employee protection shall include the implementation of additional safety measures such as the removal of an isolating circuit element, blocking of a controlling switch, opening of an extra disconnecting device, or the removal of a valve handle to reduce the likelihood of inadvertent energizing.
</P>
<P>(C) After November 1, 1994, whenever replacement or major repair, renovation, or modification of a machine or equipment is performed, and whenever new machines or equipment are installed, energy isolating devices for such machines or equipment shall be designed to accept a lockout device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures shall be developed, documented, and used for the control of potentially hazardous energy covered by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The procedure shall clearly and specifically outline the scope, purpose, responsibility, authorization, rules, and techniques to be applied to the control of hazardous energy, and the measures to enforce compliance including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A specific statement of the intended use of this procedure;
</P>
<P>(B) Specific procedural steps for shutting down, isolating, blocking and securing machines or equipment to control hazardous energy;
</P>
<P>(C) Specific procedural steps for the placement, removal, and transfer of lockout devices or tagout devices and the responsibility for them; and
</P>
<P>(D) Specific requirements for testing a machine or equipment to determine and verify the effectiveness of lockout devices, tagout devices, and other energy control measures.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall conduct a periodic inspection of the energy control procedure at least annually to ensure that the procedure and the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section are being followed.
</P>
<P>(A) The periodic inspection shall be performed by an authorized employee who is not using the energy control procedure being inspected.
</P>
<P>(B) The periodic inspection shall be designed to identify and correct any deviations or inadequacies.
</P>
<P>(C) If lockout is used for energy control, the periodic inspection shall include a review, between the inspector and each authorized employee, of that employee's responsibilities under the energy control procedure being inspected.
</P>
<P>(D) Where tagout is used for energy control, the periodic inspection shall include a review, between the inspector and each authorized and affected employee, of that employee's responsibilities under the energy control procedure being inspected, and the elements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) The employer shall certify that the inspections required by paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section have been accomplished. The certification shall identify the machine or equipment on which the energy control procedure was being used, the date of the inspection, the employees included in the inspection, and the person performing the inspection.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(2)(<E T="01">v</E>)(E):</HED>
<P>If normal work schedule and operation records demonstrate adequate inspection activity and contain the required information, no additional certification is required.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) The employer shall provide training to ensure that the purpose and function of the energy control program are understood by employees and that the knowledge and skills required for the safe application, usage, and removal of energy controls are acquired by employees. The training shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Each authorized employee shall receive training in the recognition of applicable hazardous energy sources, the type and magnitude of energy available in the workplace, and in the methods and means necessary for energy isolation and control.
</P>
<P>(B) Each affected employee shall be instructed in the purpose and use of the energy control procedure.
</P>
<P>(C) All other employees whose work operations are or may be in an area where energy control procedures may be used shall be instructed about the procedures and about the prohibition relating to attempts to restart or reenergize machines or equipment that are locked out or tagged out.
</P>
<P>(vii) When tagout systems are used, employees shall also be trained in the following limitations of tags:
</P>
<P>(A) Tags are essentially warning devices affixed to energy isolating devices and do not provide the physical restraint on those devices that is provided by a lock.
</P>
<P>(B) When a tag is attached to an energy isolating means, it is not to be removed without authorization of the authorized person responsible for it, and it is never to be bypassed, ignored, or otherwise defeated.
</P>
<P>(C) Tags must be legible and understandable by all authorized employees, affected employees, and all other employees whose work operations are or may be in the area, in order to be effective.
</P>
<P>(D) Tags and their means of attachment must be made of materials which will withstand the environmental conditions encountered in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(E) Tags may evoke a false sense of security, and their meaning needs to be understood as part of the overall energy control program.
</P>
<P>(F) Tags must be securely attached to energy isolating devices so that they cannot be inadvertently or accidentally detached during use.
</P>
<P>(viii) Retraining shall be provided by the employer as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Retraining shall be provided for all authorized and affected employees whenever there is a change in their job assignments, a change in machines, equipment, or processes that present a new hazard or whenever there is a change in the energy control procedures.
</P>
<P>(B) Retraining shall also be conducted whenever a periodic inspection under paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section reveals, or whenever the employer has reason to believe, that there are deviations from or inadequacies in an employee's knowledge or use of the energy control procedures.
</P>
<P>(C) The retraining shall reestablish employee proficiency and shall introduce new or revised control methods and procedures, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(ix) The employer shall certify that employee training has been accomplished and is being kept up to date. The certification shall contain each employee's name and dates of training.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Protective materials and hardware.</I> (i) Locks, tags, chains, wedges, key blocks, adapter pins, self-locking fasteners, or other hardware shall be provided by the employer for isolating, securing, or blocking of machines or equipment from energy sources.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lockout devices and tagout devices shall be singularly identified; shall be the only devices used for controlling energy; may not be used for other purposes; and shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Lockout devices and tagout devices shall be capable of withstanding the environment to which they are exposed for the maximum period of time that exposure is expected.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Tagout devices shall be constructed and printed so that exposure to weather conditions or wet and damp locations will not cause the tag to deteriorate or the message on the tag to become illegible.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Tagout devices shall be so constructed as not to deteriorate when used in corrosive environments.
</P>
<P>(B) Lockout devices and tagout devices shall be standardized within the facility in at least one of the following criteria: color, shape, size. Additionally, in the case of tagout devices, print and format shall be standardized.
</P>
<P>(C) Lockout devices shall be substantial enough to prevent removal without the use of excessive force or unusual techniques, such as with the use of bolt cutters or metal cutting tools.
</P>
<P>(D) Tagout devices, including their means of attachment, shall be substantial enough to prevent inadvertent or accidental removal. Tagout device attachment means shall be of a non-reusable type, attachable by hand, self-locking, and nonreleasable with a minimum unlocking strength of no less than 50 pounds and shall have the general design and basic characteristics of being at least equivalent to a one-piece, all-environment-tolerant nylon cable tie.
</P>
<P>(E) Each lockout device or tagout device shall include provisions for the identification of the employee applying the device.
</P>
<P>(F) Tagout devices shall warn against hazardous conditions if the machine or equipment is energized and shall include a legend such as the following: Do Not Start, Do Not Open, Do Not Close, Do Not Energize, Do Not Operate.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(F):</HED>
<P>For specific provisions covering accident prevention tags, see § 1910.145.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Energy isolation.</I> Lockout and tagout device application and removal may only be performed by the authorized employees who are performing the servicing or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notification.</I> Affected employees shall be notified by the employer or authorized employee of the application and removal of lockout or tagout devices. Notification shall be given before the controls are applied and after they are removed from the machine or equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(5):</HED>
<P>See also paragraph (d)(7) of this section, which requires that the second notification take place before the machine or equipment is reenergized.</P></NOTE>
<P>(6) <I>Lockout/tagout application.</I> The established procedures for the application of energy control (the lockout or tagout procedures) shall include the following elements and actions, and these procedures shall be performed in the following sequence:
</P>
<P>(i) Before an authorized or affected employee turns off a machine or equipment, the authorized employee shall have knowledge of the type and magnitude of the energy, the hazards of the energy to be controlled, and the method or means to control the energy.
</P>
<P>(ii) The machine or equipment shall be turned off or shut down using the procedures established for the machine or equipment. An orderly shutdown shall be used to avoid any additional or increased hazards to employees as a result of the equipment stoppage.
</P>
<P>(iii) All energy isolating devices that are needed to control the energy to the machine or equipment shall be physically located and operated in such a manner as to isolate the machine or equipment from energy sources.
</P>
<P>(iv) Lockout or tagout devices shall be affixed to each energy isolating device by authorized employees.
</P>
<P>(A) Lockout devices shall be attached in a manner that will hold the energy isolating devices in a “safe” or “off” position.
</P>
<P>(B) Tagout devices shall be affixed in such a manner as will clearly indicate that the operation or movement of energy isolating devices from the “safe” or “off” position is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Where tagout devices are used with energy isolating devices designed with the capability of being locked out, the tag attachment shall be fastened at the same point at which the lock would have been attached.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where a tag cannot be affixed directly to the energy isolating device, the tag shall be located as close as safely possible to the device, in a position that will be immediately obvious to anyone attempting to operate the device.
</P>
<P>(v) Following the application of lockout or tagout devices to energy isolating devices, all potentially hazardous stored or residual energy shall be relieved, disconnected, restrained, or otherwise rendered safe.
</P>
<P>(vi) If there is a possibility of reaccumulation of stored energy to a hazardous level, verification of isolation shall be continued until the servicing or maintenance is completed or until the possibility of such accumulation no longer exists.
</P>
<P>(vii) Before starting work on machines or equipment that have been locked out or tagged out, the authorized employee shall verify that isolation and deenergizing of the machine or equipment have been accomplished. If normally energized parts will be exposed to contact by an employee while the machine or equipment is deenergized, a test shall be performed to ensure that these parts are deenergized.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Release from lockout/tagout.</I> Before lockout or tagout devices are removed and energy is restored to the machine or equipment, procedures shall be followed and actions taken by the authorized employees to ensure the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The work area shall be inspected to ensure that nonessential items have been removed and that machine or equipment components are operationally intact.
</P>
<P>(ii) The work area shall be checked to ensure that all employees have been safely positioned or removed.
</P>
<P>(iii) After lockout or tagout devices have been removed and before a machine or equipment is started, affected employees shall be notified that the lockout or tagout devices have been removed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each lockout or tagout device shall be removed from each energy isolating device by the authorized employee who applied the lockout or tagout device. However, if that employee is not available to remove it, the device may be removed under the direction of the employer, provided that specific procedures and training for such removal have been developed, documented, and incorporated into the employer's energy control program. The employer shall demonstrate that the specific procedure provides a degree of safety equivalent to that provided by the removal of the device by the authorized employee who applied it. The specific procedure shall include at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) Verification by the employer that the authorized employee who applied the device is not at the facility;
</P>
<P>(B) Making all reasonable efforts to contact the authorized employee to inform him or her that his or her lockout or tagout device has been removed; and
</P>
<P>(C) Ensuring that the authorized employee has this knowledge before he or she resumes work at that facility.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Additional requirements.</I> (i) If the lockout or tagout devices must be temporarily removed from energy isolating devices and the machine or equipment must be energized to test or position the machine, equipment, or component thereof, the following sequence of actions shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(A) Clear the machine or equipment of tools and materials in accordance with paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Remove employees from the machine or equipment area in accordance with paragraphs (d)(7)(ii) and (d)(7)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Remove the lockout or tagout devices as specified in paragraph (d)(7)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Energize and proceed with the testing or positioning; and
</P>
<P>(E) Deenergize all systems and reapply energy control measures in accordance with paragraph (d)(6) of this section to continue the servicing or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(ii) When servicing or maintenance is performed by a crew, craft, department, or other group, they shall use a procedure which affords the employees a level of protection equivalent to that provided by the implementation of a personal lockout or tagout device. Group lockout or tagout devices shall be used in accordance with the procedures required by paragraphs (d)(2)(iii) and (d)(2)(iv) of this section including, but not limited to, the following specific requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Primary responsibility shall be vested in an authorized employee for a set number of employees working under the protection of a group lockout or tagout device (such as an operations lock);
</P>
<P>(B) Provision shall be made for the authorized employee to ascertain the exposure status of all individual group members with regard to the lockout or tagout of the machine or equipment;
</P>
<P>(C) When more than one crew, craft, department, or other group is involved, assignment of overall job-associated lockout or tagout control responsibility shall be given to an authorized employee designated to coordinate affected work forces and ensure continuity of protection; and
</P>
<P>(D) Each authorized employee shall affix a personal lockout or tagout device to the group lockout device, group lockbox, or comparable mechanism when he or she begins work and shall remove those devices when he or she stops working on the machine or equipment being serviced or maintained.
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures shall be used during shift or personnel changes to ensure the continuity of lockout or tagout protection, including provision for the orderly transfer of lockout or tagout device protection between off-going and on-coming employees, to minimize their exposure to hazards from the unexpected energizing or start-up of the machine or equipment or from the release of stored energy.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whenever outside servicing personnel are to be engaged in activities covered by paragraph (d) of this section, the on-site employer and the outside employer shall inform each other of their respective lockout or tagout procedures, and each employer shall ensure that his or her personnel understand and comply with restrictions and prohibitions of the energy control procedures being used.
</P>
<P>(v) If energy isolating devices are installed in a central location and are under the exclusive control of a system operator, the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall use a procedure that affords employees a level of protection equivalent to that provided by the implementation of a personal lockout or tagout device.
</P>
<P>(B) The system operator shall place and remove lockout and tagout devices in place of the authorized employee under paragraphs (d)(4), (d)(6)(iv), and (d)(7)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Provisions shall be made to identify the authorized employee who is responsible for (that is, being protected by) the lockout or tagout device, to transfer responsibility for lockout and tagout devices, and to ensure that an authorized employee requesting removal or transfer of a lockout or tagout device is the one responsible for it before the device is removed or transferred.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED>
<P>Lockout and tagging procedures that comply with paragraphs (c) through (f) of § 1910.147 will also be deemed to comply with paragraph (d) of this section if the procedures address the hazards covered by paragraph (d) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Enclosed spaces.</I> This paragraph covers enclosed spaces that may be entered by employees. It does not apply to vented vaults if the employer makes a determination that the ventilation system is operating to protect employees before they enter the space. This paragraph applies to routine entry into enclosed spaces in lieu of the permit-space entry requirements contained in paragraphs (d) through (k) of § 1910.146. If, after the employer takes the precautions given in paragraphs (e) and (t) of this section, the hazards remaining in the enclosed space endanger the life of an entrant or could interfere with an entrant's escape from the space, then entry into the enclosed space shall meet the permit-space entry requirements of paragraphs (d) through (k) of § 1910.146.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Safe work practices.</I> The employer shall ensure the use of safe work practices for entry into, and work in, enclosed spaces and for rescue of employees from such spaces.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training.</I> Each employee who enters an enclosed space or who serves as an attendant shall be trained in the hazards of enclosed-space entry, in enclosed-space entry procedures, and in enclosed-space rescue procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rescue equipment.</I> Employers shall provide equipment to ensure the prompt and safe rescue of employees from the enclosed space.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Evaluating potential hazards.</I> Before any entrance cover to an enclosed space is removed, the employer shall determine whether it is safe to do so by checking for the presence of any atmospheric pressure or temperature differences and by evaluating whether there might be a hazardous atmosphere in the space. Any conditions making it unsafe to remove the cover shall be eliminated before the cover is removed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>The determination called for in this paragraph may consist of a check of the conditions that might foreseeably be in the enclosed space. For example, the cover could be checked to see if it is hot and, if it is fastened in place, could be loosened gradually to release any residual pressure. An evaluation also needs to be made of whether conditions at the site could cause a hazardous atmosphere, such as an oxygen-deficient or flammable atmosphere, to develop within the space.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Removing covers.</I> When covers are removed from enclosed spaces, the opening shall be promptly guarded by a railing, temporary cover, or other barrier designed to prevent an accidental fall through the opening and to protect employees working in the space from objects entering the space.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Hazardous atmosphere.</I> Employees may not enter any enclosed space while it contains a hazardous atmosphere, unless the entry conforms to the permit-required confined spaces standard in § 1910.146.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Attendants.</I> While work is being performed in the enclosed space, an attendant with first-aid training shall be immediately available outside the enclosed space to provide assistance if a hazard exists because of traffic patterns in the area of the opening used for entry. The attendant is not precluded from performing other duties outside the enclosed space if these duties do not distract the attendant from: monitoring employees within the space or ensuring that it is safe for employees to enter and exit the space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(7):</HED>
<P>See paragraph (t) of this section for additional requirements on attendants for work in manholes and vaults.</P></NOTE>
<P>(8) <I>Calibration of test instruments.</I> Test instruments used to monitor atmospheres in enclosed spaces shall be kept in calibration and shall have a minimum accuracy of ±10 percent.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Testing for oxygen deficiency.</I> Before an employee enters an enclosed space, the atmosphere in the enclosed space shall be tested for oxygen deficiency with a direct-reading meter or similar instrument, capable of collection and immediate analysis of data samples without the need for off-site evaluation. If continuous forced-air ventilation is provided, testing is not required provided that the procedures used ensure that employees are not exposed to the hazards posed by oxygen deficiency.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Testing for flammable gases and vapors.</I> Before an employee enters an enclosed space, the internal atmosphere shall be tested for flammable gases and vapors with a direct-reading meter or similar instrument capable of collection and immediate analysis of data samples without the need for off-site evaluation. This test shall be performed after the oxygen testing and ventilation required by paragraph (e)(9) of this section demonstrate that there is sufficient oxygen to ensure the accuracy of the test for flammability.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Ventilation, and monitoring for flammable gases or vapors.</I> If flammable gases or vapors are detected or if an oxygen deficiency is found, forced-air ventilation shall be used to maintain oxygen at a safe level and to prevent a hazardous concentration of flammable gases and vapors from accumulating. A continuous monitoring program to ensure that no increase in flammable gas or vapor concentration above safe levels occurs may be followed in lieu of ventilation if flammable gases or vapors are initially detected at safe levels.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(11):</HED>
<P>See the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” for guidance in determining whether a specific concentration of a substance is hazardous.</P></NOTE>
<P>(12) <I>Specific ventilation requirements.</I> If continuous forced-air ventilation is used, it shall begin before entry is made and shall be maintained long enough for the employer to be able to demonstrate that a safe atmosphere exists before employees are allowed to enter the work area. The forced-air ventilation shall be so directed as to ventilate the immediate area where employees are present within the enclosed space and shall continue until all employees leave the enclosed space.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Air supply.</I> The air supply for the continuous forced-air ventilation shall be from a clean source and may not increase the hazards in the enclosed space.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Open flames.</I> If open flames are used in enclosed spaces, a test for flammable gases and vapors shall be made immediately before the open flame device is used and at least once per hour while the device is used in the space. Testing shall be conducted more frequently if conditions present in the enclosed space indicate that once per hour is insufficient to detect hazardous accumulations of flammable gases or vapors.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(14):</HED>
<P>See the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” for guidance in determining whether a specific concentration of a substance is hazardous.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>):</HED>
<P>Entries into enclosed spaces conducted in accordance with the permit-space entry requirements of paragraphs (d) through (k) of § 1910.146 are considered as complying with paragraph (e) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>Excavations.</I> Excavation operations shall comply with subpart P of part 1926 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Personal protective equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Personal protective equipment shall meet the requirements of subpart I of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(1) of this section:</HED>
<P>Paragraph (h) of § 1910.132 sets employer payment obligations for the personal protective equipment required by this section, including, but not limited to, the fall protection equipment required by paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the electrical protective equipment required by paragraph (l)(3) of this section, and the flame-resistant and arc-rated clothing and other protective equipment required by paragraph (l)(8) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Fall protection.</I> (i) Personal fall arrest systems shall meet the requirements of subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal fall arrest equipment used by employees who are exposed to hazards from flames or electric arcs, as determined by the employer under paragraph (l)(8)(i) of this section, shall be capable of passing a drop test equivalent to that required by paragraph (g)(2)(iii)(L) of this section after exposure to an electric arc with a heat energy of 40±5 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<P>(iii) Body belts and positioning straps for work-positioning equipment shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Hardware for body belts and positioning straps shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Hardware shall be made of drop-forged steel, pressed steel, formed steel, or equivalent material.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Hardware shall have a corrosion-resistant finish.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Hardware surfaces shall be smooth and free of sharp edges.
</P>
<P>(B) Buckles shall be capable of withstanding an 8.9-kilonewton (2,000-pound-force) tension test with a maximum permanent deformation no greater than 0.4 millimeters (0.0156 inches).
</P>
<P>(C) D rings shall be capable of withstanding a 22-kilonewton (5,000-pound-force) tensile test without cracking or breaking.
</P>
<P>(D) Snaphooks shall be capable of withstanding a 22-kilonewton (5,000-pound-force) tension test without failure.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(D):</HED>
<P>Distortion of the snaphook sufficient to release the keeper is considered to be tensile failure of a snaphook.</P></NOTE>
<P>(E) Top grain leather or leather substitute may be used in the manufacture of body belts and positioning straps; however, leather and leather substitutes may not be used alone as a load-bearing component of the assembly.
</P>
<P>(F) Plied fabric used in positioning straps and in load-bearing parts of body belts shall be constructed in such a way that no raw edges are exposed and the plies do not separate.
</P>
<P>(G) Positioning straps shall be capable of withstanding the following tests:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A dielectric test of 819.7 volts, AC, per centimeter (25,000 volts per foot) for 3 minutes without visible deterioration;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A leakage test of 98.4 volts, AC, per centimeter (3,000 volts per foot) with a leakage current of no more than 1 mA;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraphs (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(G)(<I>1</I>) and (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(G)(<I>2</I>):</HED>
<P>Positioning straps that pass direct-current tests at equivalent voltages are considered as meeting this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Tension tests of 20 kilonewtons (4,500 pounds-force) for sections free of buckle holes and of 15 kilonewtons (3,500 pounds-force) for sections with buckle holes;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A buckle-tear test with a load of 4.4 kilonewtons (1,000 pounds-force); and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A flammability test in accordance with Table R-2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-2—Flammability Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test method
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria for passing the test
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vertically suspend a 500-mm (19.7-inch) length of strapping supporting a 100-kg (220.5-lb) weight
<br/>Use a butane or propane burner with a 76-mm (3-inch) flame.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any flames on the positioning strap shall self extinguish.
<br/>The positioning strap shall continue to support the 100-kg (220.5-lb) mass.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct the flame to an edge of the strapping at a distance of 25 mm (1 inch)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remove the flame after 5 seconds
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wait for any flames on the positioning strap to stop burning</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(H) The cushion part of the body belt shall contain no exposed rivets on the inside and shall be at least 76 millimeters (3 inches) in width.
</P>
<P>(I) Tool loops shall be situated on the body of a body belt so that the 100 millimeters (4 inches) of the body belt that is in the center of the back, measuring from D ring to D ring, is free of tool loops and any other attachments.
</P>
<P>(J) Copper, steel, or equivalent liners shall be used around the bars of D rings to prevent wear between these members and the leather or fabric enclosing them.
</P>
<P>(K) Snaphooks shall be of the locking type meeting the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The locking mechanism shall first be released, or a destructive force shall be placed on the keeper, before the keeper will open.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A force in the range of 6.7 N (1.5 lbf) to 17.8 N (4 lbf) shall be required to release the locking mechanism.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) With the locking mechanism released and with a force applied on the keeper against the face of the nose, the keeper may not begin to open with a force of 11.2 N (2.5 lbf) or less and shall begin to open with a maximum force of 17.8 N (4 lbf).
</P>
<P>(L) Body belts and positioning straps shall be capable of withstanding a drop test as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The test mass shall be rigidly constructed of steel or equivalent material with a mass of 100 kg (220.5 lbm). For work-positioning equipment used by employees weighing more than 140 kg (310 lbm) fully equipped, the test mass shall be increased proportionately (that is, the test mass must equal the mass of the equipped worker divided by 1.4).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For body belts, the body belt shall be fitted snugly around the test mass and shall be attached to the test-structure anchorage point by means of a wire rope.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For positioning straps, the strap shall be adjusted to its shortest length possible to accommodate the test and connected to the test-structure anchorage point at one end and to the test mass on the other end.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The test mass shall be dropped an unobstructed distance of 1 meter (39.4 inches) from a supporting structure that will sustain minimal deflection during the test.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Body belts shall successfully arrest the fall of the test mass and shall be capable of supporting the mass after the test.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Positioning straps shall successfully arrest the fall of the test mass without breaking, and the arrest force may not exceed 17.8 kilonewtons (4,000 pounds-force). Additionally, snaphooks on positioning straps may not distort to such an extent that the keeper would release.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iii</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>When used by employees weighing no more than 140 kg (310 lbm) fully equipped, body belts and positioning straps that conform to American Society of Testing and Materials <I>Standard Specifications for Personal Climbing Equipment,</I> ASTM F887-12
<SU>e1</SU>, are deemed to be in compliance with paragraph (g)(2)(iii) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) The following requirements apply to the care and use of personal fall protection equipment.
</P>
<P>(A) Work-positioning equipment shall be inspected before use each day to determine that the equipment is in safe working condition. Work-positioning equipment that is not in safe working condition may not be used.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(A):</HED>
<P>Appendix F to this section contains guidelines for inspecting work-positioning equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Personal fall arrest systems shall be used in accordance with subpart I of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>Fall protection equipment rigged to arrest falls is considered a fall arrest system and must meet the applicable requirements for the design and use of those systems. Fall protection equipment rigged for work positioning is considered work-positioning equipment and must meet the applicable requirements for the design and use of that equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) The employer shall ensure that employees use fall protection systems as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Each employee working from an aerial lift shall use a travel restraint system or a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2)(iv)(C)(3) of this section, each employee in elevated locations more than 1.2 meters (4 feet) above the ground on poles, towers, or similar structures shall use a personal fall arrest system, work-positioning equipment, or fall restraint system, as appropriate, if the employer has not provided other fall protection meeting Subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Until March 31, 2015, a qualified employee climbing or changing location on poles, towers, or similar structures need not use fall protection equipment, unless conditions, such as, but not limited to, ice, high winds, the design of the structure (for example, no provision for holding on with hands), or the presence of contaminants on the structure, could cause the employee to lose his or her grip or footing. On and after April 1, 2015, each qualified employee climbing or changing location on poles, towers, or similar structures must use fall protection equipment unless the employer can demonstrate that climbing or changing location with fall protection is infeasible or creates a greater hazard than climbing or changing location without it.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraphs (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(C)(<I>2</I>) and (<E T="01">g)(2)(iv)(C)(</E><I>3</I>):</HED>
<P>These paragraphs apply to structures that support overhead electric power transmission and distribution lines and equipment. They do not apply to portions of buildings, such as loading docks, or to electric equipment, such as transformers and capacitors. Subpart D of this part contains the duty to provide fall protection associated with walking and working surfaces.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraphs (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(C)(<I>2</I>) and (<E T="01">g)(2)(iv)(C)(</E><I>3</I>):</HED>
<P>Until the employer ensures that employees are proficient in climbing and the use of fall protection under paragraph (a)(2)(viii) of this section, the employees are not considered “qualified employees” for the purposes of paragraphs (g)(2)(iv)(C)(<I>2</I>) and (g)(2)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section. These paragraphs require unqualified employees (including trainees) to use fall protection any time they are more than 1.2 meters (4 feet) above the ground.</P></NOTE>
<P>(D) On and after April 1, 2015, work-positioning systems shall be rigged so that an employee can free fall no more than 0.6 meters (2 feet).
</P>
<P>(E) Anchorages for work-positioning equipment shall be capable of supporting at least twice the potential impact load of an employee's fall, or 13.3 kilonewtons (3,000 pounds-force), whichever is greater.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(E):</HED>
<P>Wood-pole fall-restriction devices meeting American Society of Testing and Materials <I>Standard Specifications for Personal Climbing Equipment,</I> ASTM F887-12
<SU>e1</SU>, are deemed to meet the anchorage-strength requirement when they are used in accordance with manufacturers' instructions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(F) Unless the snaphook is a locking type and designed specifically for the following connections, snaphooks on work-positioning equipment may not be engaged:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Directly to webbing, rope, or wire rope;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To each other;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) To a D ring to which another snaphook or other connector is attached;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) To a horizontal lifeline; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) To any object that is incompatibly shaped or dimensioned in relation to the snaphook such that accidental disengagement could occur should the connected object sufficiently depress the snaphook keeper to allow release of the object.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Portable ladders and platforms</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Requirements for portable ladders contained in subpart D of this part apply in addition to the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section, except as specifically noted in paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special ladders and platforms.</I> Portable ladders used on structures or conductors in conjunction with overhead line work need not meet § 1910.23(c)(4) and (9). Portable ladders and platforms used on structures or conductors in conjunction with overhead line work shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) In the configurations in which they are used, portable ladders and platforms shall be capable of supporting without failure at least 2.5 times the maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(ii) Portable ladders and platforms may not be loaded in excess of the working loads for which they are designed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Portable ladders and platforms shall be secured to prevent them from becoming dislodged.
</P>
<P>(iv) Portable ladders and platforms may be used only in applications for which they are designed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conductive ladders.</I> Portable metal ladders and other portable conductive ladders may not be used near exposed energized lines or equipment. However, in specialized high-voltage work, conductive ladders shall be used when the employer demonstrates that nonconductive ladders would present a greater hazard to employees than conductive ladders.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hand and portable power equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Paragraph (i)(2) of this section applies to electric equipment connected by cord and plug. Paragraph (i)(3) of this section applies to portable and vehicle-mounted generators used to supply cord- and plug-connected equipment. Paragraph (i)(4) of this section applies to hydraulic and pneumatic tools.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cord- and plug-connected equipment.</I> Cord- and plug-connected equipment not covered by subpart S of this part shall comply with one of the following instead of § 1910.243(a)(5):
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment shall be equipped with a cord containing an equipment grounding conductor connected to the equipment frame and to a means for grounding the other end of the conductor (however, this option may not be used where the introduction of the ground into the work environment increases the hazard to an employee); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment shall be of the double-insulated type conforming to subpart S of this part; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The equipment shall be connected to the power supply through an isolating transformer with an ungrounded secondary of not more than 50 volts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portable and vehicle-mounted generators.</I> Portable and vehicle-mounted generators used to supply cord- and plug-connected equipment covered by paragraph (i)(2) of this section shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The generator may only supply equipment located on the generator or the vehicle and cord- and plug-connected equipment through receptacles mounted on the generator or the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(ii) The non-current-carrying metal parts of equipment and the equipment grounding conductor terminals of the receptacles shall be bonded to the generator frame.
</P>
<P>(iii) For vehicle-mounted generators, the frame of the generator shall be bonded to the vehicle frame.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any neutral conductor shall be bonded to the generator frame.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hydraulic and pneumatic tools.</I> (i) Safe operating pressures for hydraulic and pneumatic tools, hoses, valves, pipes, filters, and fittings may not be exceeded.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(4)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>If any hazardous defects are present, no operating pressure is safe, and the hydraulic or pneumatic equipment involved may not be used. In the absence of defects, the maximum rated operating pressure is the maximum safe pressure.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) A hydraulic or pneumatic tool used where it may contact exposed energized parts shall be designed and maintained for such use.
</P>
<P>(iii) The hydraulic system supplying a hydraulic tool used where it may contact exposed live parts shall provide protection against loss of insulating value, for the voltage involved, due to the formation of a partial vacuum in the hydraulic line.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(4)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>Use of hydraulic lines that do not have check valves and that have a separation of more than 10.7 meters (35 feet) between the oil reservoir and the upper end of the hydraulic system promotes the formation of a partial vacuum.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) A pneumatic tool used on energized electric lines or equipment, or used where it may contact exposed live parts, shall provide protection against the accumulation of moisture in the air supply.
</P>
<P>(v) Pressure shall be released before connections are broken, unless quick-acting, self-closing connectors are used.
</P>
<P>(vi) Employers must ensure that employees do not use any part of their bodies to locate, or attempt to stop, a hydraulic leak.
</P>
<P>(vii) Hoses may not be kinked.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Live-line tools</I>—(1) <I>Design of tools.</I> Live-line tool rods, tubes, and poles shall be designed and constructed to withstand the following minimum tests:
</P>
<P>(i) If the tool is made of fiberglass-reinforced plastic (FRP), it shall withstand 328,100 volts per meter (100,000 volts per foot) of length for 5 minutes, or
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Live-line tools using rod and tube that meet ASTM F711-02 (2007), <I>Standard Specification for Fiberglass-Reinforced Plastic (FRP) Rod and Tube Used in Live Line Tools,</I> are deemed to comply with paragraph (j)(1) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) If the tool is made of wood, it shall withstand 246,100 volts per meter (75,000 volts per foot) of length for 3 minutes, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The tool shall withstand other tests that the employer can demonstrate are equivalent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Condition of tools.</I> (i) Each live-line tool shall be wiped clean and visually inspected for defects before use each day.
</P>
<P>(ii) If any defect or contamination that could adversely affect the insulating qualities or mechanical integrity of the live-line tool is present after wiping, the tool shall be removed from service and examined and tested according to paragraph (j)(2)(iii) of this section before being returned to service.
</P>
<P>(iii) Live-line tools used for primary employee protection shall be removed from service every 2 years, and whenever required under paragraph (j)(2)(ii) of this section, for examination, cleaning, repair, and testing as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Each tool shall be thoroughly examined for defects.
</P>
<P>(B) If a defect or contamination that could adversely affect the insulating qualities or mechanical integrity of the live-line tool is found, the tool shall be repaired and refinished or shall be permanently removed from service. If no such defect or contamination is found, the tool shall be cleaned and waxed.
</P>
<P>(C) The tool shall be tested in accordance with paragraphs (j)(2)(iii)(D) and (j)(2)(iii)(E) of this section under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) After the tool has been repaired or refinished; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) After the examination if repair or refinishing is not performed, unless the tool is made of FRP rod or foam-filled FRP tube and the employer can demonstrate that the tool has no defects that could cause it to fail during use.
</P>
<P>(D) The test method used shall be designed to verify the tool's integrity along its entire working length and, if the tool is made of fiberglass-reinforced plastic, its integrity under wet conditions.
</P>
<P>(E) The voltage applied during the tests shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 246,100 volts per meter (75,000 volts per foot) of length for 1 minute if the tool is made of fiberglass, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 164,000 volts per meter (50,000 volts per foot) of length for 1 minute if the tool is made of wood, or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Other tests that the employer can demonstrate are equivalent.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Guidelines for the examination, cleaning, repairing, and in-service testing of live-line tools are specified in the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers' <I>IEEE Guide for Maintenance Methods on Energized Power Lines,</I> IEEE Std 516-2009.</P></NOTE>
<P>(k) <I>Materials handling and storage</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Materials handling and storage shall comply with applicable material-handling and material-storage requirements in this part, including those in subpart N of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Materials storage near energized lines or equipment.</I> (i) In areas to which access is not restricted to qualified persons only, materials or equipment may not be stored closer to energized lines or exposed energized parts of equipment than the following distances, plus a distance that provides for the maximum sag and side swing of all conductors and for the height and movement of material-handling equipment:
</P>
<P>(A) For lines and equipment energized at 50 kilovolts or less, the distance is 3.05 meters (10 feet).
</P>
<P>(B) For lines and equipment energized at more than 50 kilovolts, the distance is 3.05 meters (10 feet) plus 0.10 meter (4 inches) for every 10 kilovolts over 50 kilovolts.
</P>
<P>(ii) In areas restricted to qualified employees, materials may not be stored within the working space about energized lines or equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">k</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>Paragraphs (u)(1) and (v)(3) of this section specify the size of the working space.</P></NOTE>
<P>(l) <I>Working on or near exposed energized parts.</I> This paragraph applies to work on exposed live parts, or near enough to them to expose the employee to any hazard they present.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Only qualified employees may work on or with exposed energized lines or parts of equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Only qualified employees may work in areas containing unguarded, uninsulated energized lines or parts of equipment operating at 50 volts or more.
</P>
<P>(iii) Electric lines and equipment shall be considered and treated as energized unless they have been deenergized in accordance with paragraph (d) or (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>At least two employees.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section, at least two employees shall be present while any employees perform the following types of work:
</P>
<P>(A) Installation, removal, or repair of lines energized at more than 600 volts,
</P>
<P>(B) Installation, removal, or repair of deenergized lines if an employee is exposed to contact with other parts energized at more than 600 volts,
</P>
<P>(C) Installation, removal, or repair of equipment, such as transformers, capacitors, and regulators, if an employee is exposed to contact with parts energized at more than 600 volts,
</P>
<P>(D) Work involving the use of mechanical equipment, other than insulated aerial lifts, near parts energized at more than 600 volts, and
</P>
<P>(E) Other work that exposes an employee to electrical hazards greater than, or equal to, the electrical hazards posed by operations listed specifically in paragraphs (l)(2)(i)(A) through (l)(2)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (l)(2)(i) of this section does not apply to the following operations:
</P>
<P>(A) Routine circuit switching, when the employer can demonstrate that conditions at the site allow safe performance of this work,
</P>
<P>(B) Work performed with live-line tools when the position of the employee is such that he or she is neither within reach of, nor otherwise exposed to contact with, energized parts, and
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency repairs to the extent necessary to safeguard the general public.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Minimum approach distances.</I> (i) The employer shall establish minimum approach distances no less than the distances computed by Table R-3 for ac systems or Table R-8 for dc systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than April 1, 2015, for voltages over 72.5 kilovolts, the employer shall determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis or assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table R-9. When the employer uses portable protective gaps to control the maximum transient overvoltage, the value of the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, must provide for five standard deviations between the statistical sparkover voltage of the gap and the statistical withstand voltage corresponding to the electrical component of the minimum approach distance. The employer shall make any engineering analysis conducted to determine maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage available upon request to employees and to the Assistant Secretary or designee for examination and copying.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>See appendix B to this section for information on how to calculate the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, when the employer uses portable protective gaps to reduce maximum transient overvoltages.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that no employee approaches or takes any conductive object closer to exposed energized parts than the employer's established minimum approach distance, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee is insulated from the energized part (rubber insulating gloves or rubber insulating gloves and sleeves worn in accordance with paragraph (l)(4) of this section constitutes insulation of the employee from the energized part upon which the employee is working provided that the employee has control of the part in a manner sufficient to prevent exposure to uninsulated portions of the employee's body), or
</P>
<P>(B) The energized part is insulated from the employee and from any other conductive object at a different potential, or
</P>
<P>(C) The employee is insulated from any other exposed conductive object in accordance with the requirements for live-line barehand work in paragraph (q)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Type of insulation.</I> (i) When an employee uses rubber insulating gloves as insulation from energized parts (under paragraph (l)(3)(iii)(A) of this section), the employer shall ensure that the employee also uses rubber insulating sleeves. However, an employee need not use rubber insulating sleeves if:
</P>
<P>(A) Exposed energized parts on which the employee is not working are insulated from the employee; and
</P>
<P>(B) When installing insulation for purposes of paragraph (l)(4)(i)(A) of this section, the employee installs the insulation from a position that does not expose his or her upper arm to contact with other energized parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an employee uses rubber insulating gloves or rubber insulating gloves and sleeves as insulation from energized parts (under paragraph (l)(3)(iii)(A) of this section), the employer shall ensure that the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Puts on the rubber insulating gloves and sleeves in a position where he or she cannot reach into the minimum approach distance, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Does not remove the rubber insulating gloves and sleeves until he or she is in a position where he or she cannot reach into the minimum approach distance, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Working position.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that each employee, to the extent that other safety-related conditions at the worksite permit, works in a position from which a slip or shock will not bring the employee's body into contact with exposed, uninsulated parts energized at a potential different from the employee's.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an employee performs work near exposed parts energized at more than 600 volts, but not more than 72.5 kilovolts, and is not wearing rubber insulating gloves, being protected by insulating equipment covering the energized parts, performing work using live-line tools, or performing live-line barehand work under paragraph (q)(3) of this section, the employee shall work from a position where he or she cannot reach into the minimum approach distance, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Making connections.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees make connections as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In connecting deenergized equipment or lines to an energized circuit by means of a conducting wire or device, an employee shall first attach the wire to the deenergized part;
</P>
<P>(ii) When disconnecting equipment or lines from an energized circuit by means of a conducting wire or device, an employee shall remove the source end first; and
</P>
<P>(iii) When lines or equipment are connected to or disconnected from energized circuits, an employee shall keep loose conductors away from exposed energized parts.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Conductive articles.</I> When an employee performs work within reaching distance of exposed energized parts of equipment, the employer shall ensure that the employee removes or renders nonconductive all exposed conductive articles, such as keychains or watch chains, rings, or wrist watches or bands, unless such articles do not increase the hazards associated with contact with the energized parts.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Protection from flames and electric arcs.</I> (i) The employer shall assess the workplace to identify employees exposed to hazards from flames or from electric arcs.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each employee exposed to hazards from electric arcs, the employer shall make a reasonable estimate of the incident heat energy to which the employee would be exposed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)(8)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix E to this section provides guidance on estimating available heat energy. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will deem employers following the guidance in appendix E to this section to be in compliance with paragraph (l)(8)(ii) of this section. An employer may choose a method of calculating incident heat energy not included in appendix E to this section if the chosen method reasonably predicts the incident energy to which the employee would be exposed.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)(8)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>This paragraph does not require the employer to estimate the incident heat energy exposure for every job task performed by each employee. The employer may make broad estimates that cover multiple system areas provided the employer uses reasonable assumptions about the energy-exposure distribution throughout the system and provided the estimates represent the maximum employee exposure for those areas. For example, the employer could estimate the heat energy just outside a substation feeding a radial distribution system and use that estimate for all jobs performed on that radial system.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that each employee who is exposed to hazards from flames or electric arcs does not wear clothing that could melt onto his or her skin or that could ignite and continue to burn when exposed to flames or the heat energy estimated under paragraph (l)(8)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)(8)(<E T="01">iii</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>This paragraph prohibits clothing made from acetate, nylon, polyester, rayon and polypropylene, either alone or in blends, unless the employer demonstrates that the fabric has been treated to withstand the conditions that may be encountered by the employee or that the employee wears the clothing in such a manner as to eliminate the hazard involved.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that the outer layer of clothing worn by an employee, except for clothing not required to be arc rated under paragraphs (l)(8)(v)(A) through (l)(8)(v)(E) of this section, is flame resistant under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee is exposed to contact with energized circuit parts operating at more than 600 volts,
</P>
<P>(B) An electric arc could ignite flammable material in the work area that, in turn, could ignite the employee's clothing,
</P>
<P>(C) Molten metal or electric arcs from faulted conductors in the work area could ignite the employee's clothing, or
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)(8)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(C):</HED>
<P>This paragraph does not apply to conductors that are capable of carrying, without failure, the maximum available fault current for the time the circuit protective devices take to interrupt the fault.</P></NOTE>
<P>(D) The incident heat energy estimated under paragraph (l)(8)(ii) of this section exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall ensure that each employee exposed to hazards from electric arcs wears protective clothing and other protective equipment with an arc rating greater than or equal to the heat energy estimated under paragraph (l)(8)(ii) of this section whenever that estimate exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>. This protective equipment shall cover the employee's entire body, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's hands when the employee is wearing rubber insulating gloves with protectors or, if the estimated incident energy is no more than 14 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>, heavy-duty leather work gloves with a weight of at least 407 gm/m
<SU>2</SU> (12 oz/yd
<SU>2</SU>),
</P>
<P>(B) Arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's feet when the employee is wearing heavy-duty work shoes or boots,
</P>
<P>(C) Arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's head when the employee is wearing head protection meeting § 1910.135 if the estimated incident energy is less than 9 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> for exposures involving single-phase arcs in open air or 5 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> for other exposures,
</P>
<P>(D) The protection for the employee's head may consist of head protection meeting § 1910.135 and a faceshield with a minimum arc rating of 8 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> if the estimated incident-energy exposure is less than 13 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> for exposures involving single-phase arcs in open air or 9 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> for other exposures, and
</P>
<P>(E) For exposures involving single-phase arcs in open air, the arc rating for the employee's head and face protection may be 4 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> less than the estimated incident energy.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)(8):</HED>
<P>See appendix E to this section for further information on the selection of appropriate protection.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) Dates. (A) The obligation in paragraph (l)(8)(ii) of this section for the employer to make reasonable estimates of incident energy commences January 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(B) The obligation in paragraph (l)(8)(iv)(D) of this section for the employer to ensure that the outer layer of clothing worn by an employee is flame-resistant when the estimated incident heat energy exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> commences April 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(C) The obligation in paragraph (l)(8)(v) of this section for the employer to ensure that each employee exposed to hazards from electric arcs wears the required arc-rated protective equipment commences April 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Fuse handling.</I> When an employee must install or remove fuses with one or both terminals energized at more than 300 volts, or with exposed parts energized at more than 50 volts, the employer shall ensure that the employee uses tools or gloves rated for the voltage. When an employee installs or removes expulsion-type fuses with one or both terminals energized at more than 300 volts, the employer shall ensure that the employee wears eye protection meeting the requirements of subpart I of this part, uses a tool rated for the voltage, and is clear of the exhaust path of the fuse barrel.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Covered (noninsulated) conductors.</I> The requirements of this section that pertain to the hazards of exposed live parts also apply when an employee performs work in proximity to covered (noninsulated) wires.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Non-current-carrying metal parts.</I> Non-current-carrying metal parts of equipment or devices, such as transformer cases and circuit-breaker housings, shall be treated as energized at the highest voltage to which these parts are exposed, unless the employer inspects the installation and determines that these parts are grounded before employees begin performing the work.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Opening and closing circuits under load.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that devices used by employees to open circuits under load conditions are designed to interrupt the current involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that devices used by employees to close circuits under load conditions are designed to safely carry the current involved.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-3—AC Live-Line Work Minimum Approach Distance
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[The minimum approach distance (MAD; in meters) shall conform to the following equations.]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">For phase-to-phase system voltages of 50 V to 300 V: 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">MAD = avoid contact
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">For phase-to-phase system voltages of 301 V to 5 kV: 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="03">MAD</E> = <E T="03">M</E> + <E T="03">D,</E> where
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">D</E> = 0.02 m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the electrical component of the minimum approach distance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">M</E> = 0.31 m for voltages up to 750 V and 0.61 m otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the inadvertent movement factor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">For phase-to-phase system voltages of 5.1 kV to 72.5 kV: 
<sup>1</sup> 
<sup>4</sup> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">MAD</E> = <E T="03">M</E> + <E T="03">AD,</E> where
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">M</E> = 0.61 m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the inadvertent movement factor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">A</E> = the applicable value from Table R-5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the altitude correction factor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">D</E> = the value from Table R-4 corresponding to the voltage and exposure or the value of the electrical component of the minimum approach distance calculated using the method provided in appendix B to this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the electrical component of the minimum approach distance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">For phase-to-phase system voltages of more than 72.5 kV, nominal: 
<sup>2</sup> 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">MAD = 0.3048(<E T="03">C</E> + <E T="03">a</E>)<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">L-G</E><E T="03">TA</E> + <E T="03">M</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">C</E> = 0.01 for phase-to-ground exposures that the employer can demonstrate consist only of air across the approach distance (gap),
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">0.01 for phase-to-phase exposures if the employer can demonstrate that no insulated tool spans the gap and that no large conductive object is in the gap, or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">0.011 otherwise
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">V</E><E T="52">L-G</E> = phase-to-ground rms voltage, in kV
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">T</E> = maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage; for phase-to-ground exposures, <E T="03">T</E> equals <E T="03">T</E><E T="52">L-G</E>, the maximum per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, determined by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(ii) of this section; for phase-to-phase exposures, <E T="03">T</E> equals 1.35<E T="03">T</E><E T="52">L-G</E> + 0.45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">A</E> = altitude correction factor from Table R-5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">M</E> = 0.31 m, the inadvertent movement factor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">a</E> = saturation factor, as follows:</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row">Phase-to-Ground Exposures
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E> = <E T="03">T</E><E T="54">L-G</E><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">L-G</E>√2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">635 kV or less</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">635.1 to 915 kV</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">915.1 to 1,050 kV</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">More than 1,050 kV
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a</E></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-635)/140,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-645)/135,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-675)/125,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row">Phase-to-Phase Exposures 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E> = (1.35<E T="03">T</E><E T="54">L-G</E> + 0.45)<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">L-G</E>√2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">630 kV or less</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">630.1 to 848 kV</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">848.1 to 1,131 kV</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,131.1 to 1,485 kV</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 1,485 kV
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a</E></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-630)/155,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-633.6)/152,207</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-628)/153,846</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-350.5)/203,666
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in Table R-6. If the worksite is at an elevation of more than 900 meters (3,000 feet), see footnote 1 to Table R-6.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in Table R-7, except that the employer may not use the minimum approach distances in Table R-7 for phase-to-phase exposures if an insulated tool spans the gap or if any large conductive object is in the gap. If the worksite is at an elevation of more than 900 meters (3,000 feet), see footnote 1 to Table R-7. Employers may use the minimum approach distances in Table 14 through Table 21 in appendix B to this section, which calculated MAD for various values of <E T="03">T,</E> provided the employer follows the notes to those tables.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Use the equations for phase-to-ground exposures (with <E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E> for phase-to-phase exposures) unless the employer can demonstrate that no insulated tool spans the gap and that no large conductive object is in the gap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Until March 31, 2015, employers may use the minimum approach distances in Table 6 through Table 13 in Appendix B to this section.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-4—Electrical Component of the Minimum Approach Distance at 5.1 to 72.5 kV
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[D; In meters]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nominal voltage (kV)
<br/>phase-to-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D (m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D (m)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.1 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-5—Altitude Correction Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Altitude above sea level
<br/>(m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">A</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 to 900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">901 to 1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,201 to 1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,501 to 1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,801 to 2,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,101 to 2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,701 to 3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,001 to 3,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,601 to 4,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,201 to 4,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,401 to 6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.44</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-6—Alternative Minimum Approach Distances for Voltages of 72.5 kV and Less 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Nominal voltage (kV)
<br/>phase-to-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Distance
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.050 to 0.300 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Avoid Contact</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Avoid Contact
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.301 to 0.750 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.751 to 5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.1 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.94
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in this table provided the worksite is at an elevation of 900 meters (3,000 feet) or less. If employees will be working at elevations greater than 900 meters (3,000 feet) above mean sea level, the employer shall determine minimum approach distances by multiplying the distances in this table by the correction factor in Table R-5 corresponding to the altitude of the work.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For single-phase systems, use voltage-to-ground.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-7—Alternative Minimum Approach Distances for Voltages of More Than 72.5 kV
<sup>1</sup> 
<sup>2</sup> 
<sup>3</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range phase to phase (kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 121.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">121.1 to 145.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145.1 to 169.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">169.1 to 242.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">242.1 to 362.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">362.1 to 420.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420.1 to 550.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550.1 to 800.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.34
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in this table provided the worksite is at an elevation of 900 meters (3,000 feet) or less. If employees will be working at elevations greater than 900 meters (3,000 feet) above mean sea level, the employer shall determine minimum approach distances by multiplying the distances in this table by the correction factor in Table R-5 corresponding to the altitude of the work.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Employers may use the phase-to-phase minimum approach distances in this table provided that no insulated tool spans the gap and no large conductive object is in the gap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The clear live-line tool distance shall equal or exceed the values for the indicated voltage ranges.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-8—DC Live-Line Minimum Approach Distance with Overvoltage Factor 
<sup>1</sup>
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In meters]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Maximum anticipated per-unit
<br/>transient overvoltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Distance (m)
<br/>maximum line-to-ground voltage (kV)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">250
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">400
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">500
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">600
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">750
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.79
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The distances specified in this table are for air, bare-hand, and live-line tool conditions. If employees will be working at elevations greater than 900 meters (3,000 feet) above mean sea level, the employer shall determine minimum approach distances by multiplying the distances in this table by the correction factor in Table R-5 corresponding to the altitude of the work.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table R-9—Assumed Maximum Per-Unit Transient Overvoltage
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Voltage range
<br/>(kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of current
<br/>(ac or dc)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assumed
<br/>maximum per-unit transient
<br/>overvoltage
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 420.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ac</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420.1 to 550.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ac</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550.1 to 800.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ac</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250 to 750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">dc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(m) <I>Deenergizing lines and equipment for employee protection</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> Paragraph (m) of this section applies to the deenergizing of transmission and distribution lines and equipment for the purpose of protecting employees. See paragraph (d) of this section for requirements on the control of hazardous energy sources used in the generation of electric energy. Conductors and parts of electric equipment that have been deenergized under procedures other than those required by paragraph (d) or (m) of this section, as applicable, shall be treated as energized.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> (i) If a system operator is in charge of the lines or equipment and their means of disconnection, the employer shall designate one employee in the crew to be in charge of the clearance and shall comply with all of the requirements of paragraph (m)(3) of this section in the order specified.
</P>
<P>(ii) If no system operator is in charge of the lines or equipment and their means of disconnection, the employer shall designate one employee in the crew to be in charge of the clearance and to perform the functions that the system operator would otherwise perform under paragraph (m) of this section. All of the requirements of paragraph (m)(3) of this section apply, in the order specified, except as provided in paragraph (m)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If only one crew will be working on the lines or equipment and if the means of disconnection is accessible and visible to, and under the sole control of, the employee in charge of the clearance, paragraphs (m)(3)(i), (m)(3)(iii), and (m)(3)(v) of this section do not apply. Additionally, the employer does not need to use the tags required by the remaining provisions of paragraph (m)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) If two or more crews will be working on the same lines or equipment, then:
</P>
<P>(A) The crews shall coordinate their activities under paragraph (m) of this section with a single employee in charge of the clearance for all of the crews and follow the requirements of paragraph (m) of this section as if all of the employees formed a single crew, or
</P>
<P>(B) Each crew shall independently comply with paragraph (m) of this section and, if there is no system operator in charge of the lines or equipment, shall have separate tags and coordinate deenergizing and reenergizing the lines and equipment with the other crews.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall render any disconnecting means that are accessible to individuals outside the employer's control (for example, the general public) inoperable while the disconnecting means are open for the purpose of protecting employees.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deenergizing lines and equipment.</I> (i) The employee that the employer designates pursuant to paragraph (m)(2) of this section as being in charge of the clearance shall make a request of the system operator to deenergize the particular section of line or equipment. The designated employee becomes the employee in charge (as this term is used in paragraph (m)(3) of this section) and is responsible for the clearance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that all switches, disconnectors, jumpers, taps, and other means through which known sources of electric energy may be supplied to the particular lines and equipment to be deenergized are open. The employer shall render such means inoperable, unless its design does not so permit, and then ensure that such means are tagged to indicate that employees are at work.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that automatically and remotely controlled switches that could cause the opened disconnecting means to close are also tagged at the points of control. The employer shall render the automatic or remote control feature inoperable, unless its design does not so permit.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer need not use the tags mentioned in paragraphs (m)(3)(ii) and (m)(3)(iii) of this section on a network protector for work on the primary feeder for the network protector's associated network transformer when the employer can demonstrate all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Every network protector is maintained so that it will immediately trip open if closed when a primary conductor is deenergized;
</P>
<P>(B) Employees cannot manually place any network protector in a closed position without the use of tools, and any manual override position is blocked, locked, or otherwise disabled; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employer has procedures for manually overriding any network protector that incorporate provisions for determining, before anyone places a network protector in a closed position, that: The line connected to the network protector is not deenergized for the protection of any employee working on the line; and (if the line connected to the network protector is not deenergized for the protection of any employee working on the line) the primary conductors for the network protector are energized.
</P>
<P>(v) Tags shall prohibit operation of the disconnecting means and shall indicate that employees are at work.
</P>
<P>(vi) After the applicable requirements in paragraphs (m)(3)(i) through (m)(3)(v) of this section have been followed and the system operator gives a clearance to the employee in charge, the employer shall ensure that the lines and equipment are deenergized by testing the lines and equipment to be worked with a device designed to detect voltage.
</P>
<P>(vii) The employer shall ensure the installation of protective grounds as required by paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) After the applicable requirements of paragraphs (m)(3)(i) through (m)(3)(vii) of this section have been followed, the lines and equipment involved may be considered deenergized.
</P>
<P>(ix) To transfer the clearance, the employee in charge (or the employee's supervisor if the employee in charge must leave the worksite due to illness or other emergency) shall inform the system operator and employees in the crew; and the new employee in charge shall be responsible for the clearance.
</P>
<P>(x) To release a clearance, the employee in charge shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Notify each employee under that clearance of the pending release of the clearance;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that all employees under that clearance are clear of the lines and equipment;
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that all protective grounds protecting employees under that clearance have been removed; and
</P>
<P>(D) Report this information to the system operator and then release the clearance.
</P>
<P>(xi) Only the employee in charge who requested the clearance may release the clearance, unless the employer transfers responsibility under paragraph (m)(3)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xii) No one may remove tags without the release of the associated clearance as specified under paragraphs (m)(3)(x) and (m)(3)(xi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The employer shall ensure that no one initiates action to reenergize the lines or equipment at a point of disconnection until all protective grounds have been removed, all crews working on the lines or equipment release their clearances, all employees are clear of the lines and equipment, and all protective tags are removed from that point of disconnection.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Grounding for the protection of employees</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> Paragraph (n) of this section applies to grounding of generation, transmission, and distribution lines and equipment for the purpose of protecting employees. Paragraph (n)(4) of this section also applies to protective grounding of other equipment as required elsewhere in this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>This paragraph covers grounding of generation, transmission, and distribution lines and equipment when this section requires protective grounding and whenever the employer chooses to ground such lines and equipment for the protection of employees.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> For any employee to work transmission and distribution lines or equipment as deenergized, the employer shall ensure that the lines or equipment are deenergized under the provisions of paragraph (m) of this section and shall ensure proper grounding of the lines or equipment as specified in paragraphs (n)(3) through (n)(8) of this section. However, if the employer can demonstrate that installation of a ground is impracticable or that the conditions resulting from the installation of a ground would present greater hazards to employees than working without grounds, the lines and equipment may be treated as deenergized provided that the employer establishes that all of the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer ensures that the lines and equipment are deenergized under the provisions of paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no possibility of contact with another energized source.
</P>
<P>(iii) The hazard of induced voltage is not present.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equipotential zone.</I> Temporary protective grounds shall be placed at such locations and arranged in such a manner that the employer can demonstrate will prevent each employee from being exposed to hazardous differences in electric potential.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>Appendix C to this section contains guidelines for establishing the equipotential zone required by this paragraph. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will deem grounding practices meeting these guidelines as complying with paragraph (n)(3) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Protective grounding equipment.</I> (i) Protective grounding equipment shall be capable of conducting the maximum fault current that could flow at the point of grounding for the time necessary to clear the fault.
</P>
<P>(ii) Protective grounding equipment shall have an ampacity greater than or equal to that of No. 2 AWG copper.
</P>
<P>(iii) Protective grounds shall have an impedance low enough so that they do not delay the operation of protective devices in case of accidental energizing of the lines or equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>American Society for Testing and Materials <I>Standard Specifications for Temporary Protective Grounds to Be Used on De-Energized Electric Power Lines and Equipment,</I> ASTM F855-09, contains guidelines for protective grounding equipment. The Institute of Electrical Engineers <I>Guide for Protective Grounding of Power Lines,</I> IEEE Std 1048-2003, contains guidelines for selecting and installing protective grounding equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Testing.</I> The employer shall ensure that, unless a previously installed ground is present, employees test lines and equipment and verify the absence of nominal voltage before employees install any ground on those lines or that equipment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Connecting and removing grounds.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that, when an employee attaches a ground to a line or to equipment, the employee attaches the ground-end connection first and then attaches the other end by means of a live-line tool. For lines or equipment operating at 600 volts or less, the employer may permit the employee to use insulating equipment other than a live-line tool if the employer ensures that the line or equipment is not energized at the time the ground is connected or if the employer can demonstrate that each employee is protected from hazards that may develop if the line or equipment is energized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that, when an employee removes a ground, the employee removes the grounding device from the line or equipment using a live-line tool before he or she removes the ground-end connection. For lines or equipment operating at 600 volts or less, the employer may permit the employee to use insulating equipment other than a live-line tool if the employer ensures that the line or equipment is not energized at the time the ground is disconnected or if the employer can demonstrate that each employee is protected from hazards that may develop if the line or equipment is energized.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Additional precautions.</I> The employer shall ensure that, when an employee performs work on a cable at a location remote from the cable terminal, the cable is not grounded at the cable terminal if there is a possibility of hazardous transfer of potential should a fault occur.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Removal of grounds for test.</I> The employer may permit employees to remove grounds temporarily during tests. During the test procedure, the employer shall ensure that each employee uses insulating equipment, shall isolate each employee from any hazards involved, and shall implement any additional measures necessary to protect each exposed employee in case the previously grounded lines and equipment become energized.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Testing and test facilities</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> Paragraph (o) of this section provides for safe work practices for high-voltage and high-power testing performed in laboratories, shops, and substations, and in the field and on electric transmission and distribution lines and equipment. It applies only to testing involving interim measurements using high voltage, high power, or combinations of high voltage and high power, and not to testing involving continuous measurements as in routine metering, relaying, and normal line work.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">o</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>OSHA considers routine inspection and maintenance measurements made by qualified employees to be routine line work not included in the scope of paragraph (o) of this section, provided that the hazards related to the use of intrinsic high-voltage or high-power sources require only the normal precautions associated with routine work specified in the other paragraphs of this section. Two typical examples of such excluded test work procedures are “phasing-out” testing and testing for a “no-voltage” condition.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and enforce work practices for the protection of each worker from the hazards of high-voltage or high-power testing at all test areas, temporary and permanent. Such work practices shall include, as a minimum, test area safeguarding, grounding, the safe use of measuring and control circuits, and a means providing for periodic safety checks of field test areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that each employee, upon initial assignment to the test area, receives training in safe work practices, with retraining provided as required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safeguarding of test areas.</I> (i) The employer shall provide safeguarding within test areas to control access to test equipment or to apparatus under test that could become energized as part of the testing by either direct or inductive coupling and to prevent accidental employee contact with energized parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall guard permanent test areas with walls, fences, or other barriers designed to keep employees out of the test areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) In field testing, or at a temporary test site not guarded by permanent fences and gates, the employer shall ensure the use of one of the following means to prevent employees without authorization from entering:
</P>
<P>(A) Distinctively colored safety tape supported approximately waist high with safety signs attached to it,
</P>
<P>(B) A barrier or barricade that limits access to the test area to a degree equivalent, physically and visually, to the barricade specified in paragraph (o)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(C) One or more test observers stationed so that they can monitor the entire area.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure the removal of the safeguards required by paragraph (o)(3)(iii) of this section when employees no longer need the protection afforded by the safeguards.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Grounding practices.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and implement safe grounding practices for the test facility.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall maintain at ground potential all conductive parts accessible to the test operator while the equipment is operating at high voltage.
</P>
<P>(B) Wherever ungrounded terminals of test equipment or apparatus under test may be present, they shall be treated as energized until tests demonstrate that they are deenergized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure either that visible grounds are applied automatically, or that employees using properly insulated tools manually apply visible grounds, to the high-voltage circuits after they are deenergized and before any employee performs work on the circuit or on the item or apparatus under test. Common ground connections shall be solidly connected to the test equipment and the apparatus under test.
</P>
<P>(iii) In high-power testing, the employer shall provide an isolated ground-return conductor system designed to prevent the intentional passage of current, with its attendant voltage rise, from occurring in the ground grid or in the earth. However, the employer need not provide an isolated ground-return conductor if the employer can demonstrate that both of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer cannot provide an isolated ground-return conductor due to the distance of the test site from the electric energy source, and
</P>
<P>(B) The employer protects employees from any hazardous step and touch potentials that may develop during the test.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">o</E>)(4)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>See appendix C to this section for information on measures that employers can take to protect employees from hazardous step and touch potentials.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) For tests in which using the equipment grounding conductor in the equipment power cord to ground the test equipment would result in greater hazards to test personnel or prevent the taking of satisfactory measurements, the employer may use a ground clearly indicated in the test set-up if the employer can demonstrate that this ground affords protection for employees equivalent to the protection afforded by an equipment grounding conductor in the power supply cord.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall ensure that, when any employee enters the test area after equipment is deenergized, a ground is placed on the high-voltage terminal and any other exposed terminals.
</P>
<P>(A) Before any employee applies a direct ground, the employer shall discharge high capacitance equipment through a resistor rated for the available energy.
</P>
<P>(B) A direct ground shall be applied to the exposed terminals after the stored energy drops to a level at which it is safe to do so.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the employer uses a test trailer or test vehicle in field testing, its chassis shall be grounded. The employer shall protect each employee against hazardous touch potentials with respect to the vehicle, instrument panels, and other conductive parts accessible to employees with bonding, insulation, or isolation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Control and measuring circuits.</I> (i) The employer may not run control wiring, meter connections, test leads, or cables from a test area unless contained in a grounded metallic sheath and terminated in a grounded metallic enclosure or unless the employer takes other precautions that it can demonstrate will provide employees with equivalent safety.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall isolate meters and other instruments with accessible terminals or parts from test personnel to protect against hazards that could arise should such terminals and parts become energized during testing. If the employer provides this isolation by locating test equipment in metal compartments with viewing windows, the employer shall provide interlocks to interrupt the power supply when someone opens the compartment cover.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall protect temporary wiring and its connections against damage, accidental interruptions, and other hazards. To the maximum extent possible, the employer shall keep signal, control, ground, and power cables separate from each other.
</P>
<P>(iv) If any employee will be present in the test area during testing, a test observer shall be present. The test observer shall be capable of implementing the immediate deenergizing of test circuits for safety purposes.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safety check.</I> (i) Safety practices governing employee work at temporary or field test areas shall provide, at the beginning of each series of tests, for a routine safety check of such test areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) The test operator in charge shall conduct these routine safety checks before each series of tests and shall verify at least the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Barriers and safeguards are in workable condition and placed properly to isolate hazardous areas;
</P>
<P>(B) System test status signals, if used, are in operable condition;
</P>
<P>(C) Clearly marked test-power disconnects are readily available in an emergency;
</P>
<P>(D) Ground connections are clearly identifiable;
</P>
<P>(E) Personal protective equipment is provided and used as required by Subpart I of this part and by this section; and
</P>
<P>(F) Proper separation between signal, ground, and power cables.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Mechanical equipment</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The critical safety components of mechanical elevating and rotating equipment shall receive a thorough visual inspection before use on each shift.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">p</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Critical safety components of mechanical elevating and rotating equipment are components for which failure would result in free fall or free rotation of the boom.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) No motor vehicle or earthmoving or compacting equipment having an obstructed view to the rear may be operated on off-highway jobsites where any employee is exposed to the hazards created by the moving vehicle, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The vehicle has a reverse signal alarm audible above the surrounding noise level, or
</P>
<P>(B) The vehicle is backed up only when a designated employee signals that it is safe to do so.
</P>
<P>(iii) Rubber-tired self-propelled scrapers, rubber-tired front-end loaders, rubber-tired dozers, wheel-type agricultural and industrial tractors, crawler-type tractors, crawler-type loaders, and motor graders, with or without attachments, shall have rollover protective structures that meet the requirements of Subpart W of Part 1926 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) The operator of an electric line truck may not leave his or her position at the controls while a load is suspended, unless the employer can demonstrate that no employee (including the operator) is endangered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outriggers.</I> (i) Mobile equipment, if provided with outriggers, shall be operated with the outriggers extended and firmly set, except as provided in paragraph (p)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Outriggers may not be extended or retracted outside of the clear view of the operator unless all employees are outside the range of possible equipment motion.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the work area or the terrain precludes the use of outriggers, the equipment may be operated only within its maximum load ratings specified by the equipment manufacturer for the particular configuration of the equipment without outriggers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applied loads.</I> Mechanical equipment used to lift or move lines or other material shall be used within its maximum load rating and other design limitations for the conditions under which the mechanical equipment is being used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operations near energized lines or equipment.</I> (i) Mechanical equipment shall be operated so that the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section, are maintained from exposed energized lines and equipment. However, the insulated portion of an aerial lift operated by a qualified employee in the lift is exempt from this requirement if the applicable minimum approach distance is maintained between the uninsulated portions of the aerial lift and exposed objects having a different electrical potential.
</P>
<P>(ii) A designated employee other than the equipment operator shall observe the approach distance to exposed lines and equipment and provide timely warnings before the minimum approach distance required by paragraph (p)(4)(i) of this section is reached, unless the employer can demonstrate that the operator can accurately determine that the minimum approach distance is being maintained.
</P>
<P>(iii) If, during operation of the mechanical equipment, that equipment could become energized, the operation also shall comply with at least one of paragraphs (p)(4)(iii)(A) through (p)(4)(iii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The energized lines or equipment exposed to contact shall be covered with insulating protective material that will withstand the type of contact that could be made during the operation.
</P>
<P>(B) The mechanical equipment shall be insulated for the voltage involved. The mechanical equipment shall be positioned so that its uninsulated portions cannot approach the energized lines or equipment any closer than the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Each employee shall be protected from hazards that could arise from mechanical equipment contact with energized lines or equipment. The measures used shall ensure that employees will not be exposed to hazardous differences in electric potential. Unless the employer can demonstrate that the methods in use protect each employee from the hazards that could arise if the mechanical equipment contacts the energized line or equipment, the measures used shall include all of the following techniques:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Using the best available ground to minimize the time the lines or electric equipment remain energized,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Bonding mechanical equipment together to minimize potential differences,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Providing ground mats to extend areas of equipotential, and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Employing insulating protective equipment or barricades to guard against any remaining hazardous electrical potential differences.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">p</E>)(4)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(C):</HED>
<P>Appendix C to this section contains information on hazardous step and touch potentials and on methods of protecting employees from hazards resulting from such potentials.</P></NOTE>
<P>(q) <I>Overhead lines and live-line barehand work.</I> This paragraph provides additional requirements for work performed on or near overhead lines and equipment and for live-line barehand work.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Before allowing employees to subject elevated structures, such as poles or towers, to such stresses as climbing or the installation or removal of equipment may impose, the employer shall ascertain that the structures are capable of sustaining the additional or unbalanced stresses. If the pole or other structure cannot withstand the expected loads, the employer shall brace or otherwise support the pole or structure so as to prevent failure.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix D to this section contains test methods that employers can use in ascertaining whether a wood pole is capable of sustaining the forces imposed by an employee climbing the pole. This paragraph also requires the employer to ascertain that the pole can sustain all other forces imposed by the work employees will perform.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) When a pole is set, moved, or removed near an exposed energized overhead conductor, the pole may not contact the conductor.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a pole is set, moved, or removed near an exposed energized overhead conductor, the employer shall ensure that each employee wears electrical protective equipment or uses insulated devices when handling the pole and that no employee contacts the pole with uninsulated parts of his or her body.
</P>
<P>(iv) To protect employees from falling into holes used for placing poles, the employer shall physically guard the holes, or ensure that employees attend the holes, whenever anyone is working nearby.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installing and removing overhead lines.</I> The following provisions apply to the installation and removal of overhead conductors or cable (overhead lines).
</P>
<P>(i) When lines that employees are installing or removing can contact energized parts, the employer shall use the tension-stringing method, barriers, or other equivalent measures to minimize the possibility that conductors and cables the employees are installing or removing will contact energized power lines or equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) For conductors, cables, and pulling and tensioning equipment, the employer shall provide the protective measures required by paragraph (p)(4)(iii) of this section when employees are installing or removing a conductor or cable close enough to energized conductors that any of the following failures could energize the pulling or tensioning equipment or the conductor or cable being installed or removed:
</P>
<P>(A) Failure of the pulling or tensioning equipment,
</P>
<P>(B) Failure of the conductor or cable being pulled, or
</P>
<P>(C) Failure of the previously installed lines or equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the conductors that employees are installing or removing cross over energized conductors in excess of 600 volts and if the design of the circuit-interrupting devices protecting the lines so permits, the employer shall render inoperable the automatic-reclosing feature of these devices.
</P>
<P>(iv) Before employees install lines parallel to existing energized lines, the employer shall make a determination of the approximate voltage to be induced in the new lines, or work shall proceed on the assumption that the induced voltage is hazardous. Unless the employer can demonstrate that the lines that employees are installing are not subject to the induction of a hazardous voltage or unless the lines are treated as energized, temporary protective grounds shall be placed at such locations and arranged in such a manner that the employer can demonstrate will prevent exposure of each employee to hazardous differences in electric potential.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>If the employer takes no precautions to protect employees from hazards associated with involuntary reactions from electric shock, a hazard exists if the induced voltage is sufficient to pass a current of 1 milliampere through a 500-ohm resistor. If the employer protects employees from injury due to involuntary reactions from electric shock, a hazard exists if the resultant current would be more than 6 milliamperes.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix C to this section contains guidelines for protecting employees from hazardous differences in electric potential as required by this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) Reel-handling equipment, including pulling and tensioning devices, shall be in safe operating condition and shall be leveled and aligned.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall ensure that employees do not exceed load ratings of stringing lines, pulling lines, conductor grips, load-bearing hardware and accessories, rigging, and hoists.
</P>
<P>(vii) The employer shall repair or replace defective pulling lines and accessories.
</P>
<P>(viii) The employer shall ensure that employees do not use conductor grips on wire rope unless the manufacturer specifically designed the grip for this application.
</P>
<P>(ix) The employer shall ensure that employees maintain reliable communications, through two-way radios or other equivalent means, between the reel tender and the pulling-rig operator.
</P>
<P>(x) Employees may operate the pulling rig only when it is safe to do so.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>)(2)(<E T="01">x</E>):</HED>
<P>Examples of unsafe conditions include: employees in locations prohibited by paragraph (q)(2)(xi) of this section, conductor and pulling line hang-ups, and slipping of the conductor grip.</P></NOTE>
<P>(xi) While a power-driven device is pulling the conductor or pulling line and the conductor or pulling line is in motion, the employer shall ensure that employees are not directly under overhead operations or on the crossarm, except as necessary for the employees to guide the stringing sock or board over or through the stringing sheave.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Live-line barehand work.</I> In addition to other applicable provisions contained in this section, the following requirements apply to live-line barehand work:
</P>
<P>(i) Before an employee uses or supervises the use of the live-line barehand technique on energized circuits, the employer shall ensure that the employee completes training conforming to paragraph (a)(2) of this section in the technique and in the safety requirements of paragraph (q)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before any employee uses the live-line barehand technique on energized high-voltage conductors or parts, the employer shall ascertain the following information in addition to information about other existing conditions required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The nominal voltage rating of the circuit on which employees will perform the work,
</P>
<P>(B) The clearances to ground of lines and other energized parts on which employees will perform the work, and
</P>
<P>(C) The voltage limitations of equipment employees will use.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that the insulated equipment, insulated tools, and aerial devices and platforms used by employees are designed, tested, and made for live-line barehand work.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that employees keep tools and equipment clean and dry while they are in use.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall render inoperable the automatic-reclosing feature of circuit-interrupting devices protecting the lines if the design of the devices permits.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall ensure that employees do not perform work when adverse weather conditions would make the work hazardous even after the employer implements the work practices required by this section. Additionally, employees may not perform work when winds reduce the phase-to-phase or phase-to-ground clearances at the work location below the minimum approach distances specified in paragraph (q)(3)(xiv) of this section, unless insulating guards cover the grounded objects and other lines and equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>)(3)(<E T="01">vi</E>):</HED>
<P>Thunderstorms in the vicinity, high winds, snow storms, and ice storms are examples of adverse weather conditions that make live-line barehand work too hazardous to perform safely even after the employer implements the work practices required by this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vii) The employer shall provide and ensure that employees use a conductive bucket liner or other conductive device for bonding the insulated aerial device to the energized line or equipment.
</P>
<P>(A) The employee shall be connected to the bucket liner or other conductive device by the use of conductive shoes, leg clips, or other means.
</P>
<P>(B) Where differences in potentials at the worksite pose a hazard to employees, the employer shall provide electrostatic shielding designed for the voltage being worked.
</P>
<P>(viii) The employer shall ensure that, before the employee contacts the energized part, the employee bonds the conductive bucket liner or other conductive device to the energized conductor by means of a positive connection. This connection shall remain attached to the energized conductor until the employee completes the work on the energized circuit.
</P>
<P>(ix) Aerial lifts used for live-line barehand work shall have dual controls (lower and upper) as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The upper controls shall be within easy reach of the employee in the bucket. On a two-bucket-type lift, access to the controls shall be within easy reach of both buckets.
</P>
<P>(B) The lower set of controls shall be near the base of the boom and shall be designed so that they can override operation of the equipment at any time.
</P>
<P>(x) Lower (ground-level) lift controls may not be operated with an employee in the lift except in case of emergency.
</P>
<P>(xi) The employer shall ensure that, before employees elevate an aerial lift into the work position, the employees check all controls (ground level and bucket) to determine that they are in proper working condition.
</P>
<P>(xii) The employer shall ensure that, before employees elevate the boom of an aerial lift, the employees ground the body of the truck or barricade the body of the truck and treat it as energized.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The employer shall ensure that employees perform a boom-current test before starting work each day, each time during the day when they encounter a higher voltage, and when changed conditions indicate a need for an additional test.
</P>
<P>(A) This test shall consist of placing the bucket in contact with an energized source equal to the voltage to be encountered for a minimum of 3 minutes.
</P>
<P>(B) The leakage current may not exceed 1 microampere per kilovolt of nominal phase-to-ground voltage.
</P>
<P>(C) The employer shall immediately suspend work from the aerial lift when there is any indication of a malfunction in the equipment.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The employer shall ensure that employees maintain the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section, from all grounded objects and from lines and equipment at a potential different from that to which the live-line barehand equipment is bonded, unless insulating guards cover such grounded objects and other lines and equipment.
</P>
<P>(xv) The employer shall ensure that, while an employee is approaching, leaving, or bonding to an energized circuit, the employee maintains the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section, between the employee and any grounded parts, including the lower boom and portions of the truck and between the employee and conductive objects energized at different potentials.
</P>
<P>(xvi) While the bucket is alongside an energized bushing or insulator string, the employer shall ensure that employees maintain the phase-to-ground minimum approach distances, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section, between all parts of the bucket and the grounded end of the bushing or insulator string or any other grounded surface.
</P>
<P>(xvii) The employer shall ensure that employees do not use handlines between the bucket and the boom or between the bucket and the ground. However, employees may use nonconductive-type handlines from conductor to ground if not supported from the bucket. The employer shall ensure that no one uses ropes used for live-line barehand work for other purposes.
</P>
<P>(xviii) The employer shall ensure that employees do not pass uninsulated equipment or material between a pole or structure and an aerial lift while an employee working from the bucket is bonded to an energized part.
</P>
<P>(xix) A nonconductive measuring device shall be readily accessible to employees performing live-line barehand work to assist them in maintaining the required minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Towers and structures.</I> The following requirements apply to work performed on towers or other structures that support overhead lines.
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall ensure that no employee is under a tower or structure while work is in progress, except when the employer can demonstrate that such a working position is necessary to assist employees working above.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees use tag lines or other similar devices to maintain control of tower sections being raised or positioned, unless the employer can demonstrate that the use of such devices would create a greater hazard to employees.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that employees do not detach the loadline from a member or section until they safely secure the load.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that, except during emergency restoration procedures, employees discontinue work when adverse weather conditions would make the work hazardous in spite of the work practices required by this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>)(4)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>Thunderstorms in the vicinity, high winds, snow storms, and ice storms are examples of adverse weather conditions that make this work too hazardous to perform even after the employer implements the work practices required by this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(r) <I>Line-clearance tree trimming.</I> This paragraph provides additional requirements for line-clearance tree trimming and for equipment used in this type of work.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Electrical hazards.</I> This paragraph does not apply to qualified employees.
</P>
<P>(i) Before an employee climbs, enters, or works around any tree, a determination shall be made of the nominal voltage of electric power lines posing a hazard to employees. However, a determination of the maximum nominal voltage to which an employee will be exposed may be made instead, if all lines are considered as energized at this maximum voltage.
</P>
<P>(ii) There shall be a second line-clearance tree trimmer within normal (that is, unassisted) voice communication under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If a line-clearance tree trimmer is to approach more closely than 3.05 meters (10 feet) to any conductor or electric apparatus energized at more than 750 volts or
</P>
<P>(B) If branches or limbs being removed are closer to lines energized at more than 750 volts than the distances listed in Table R-5, Table R-6, Table R-7, and Table R-8 or
</P>
<P>(C) If roping is necessary to remove branches or limbs from such conductors or apparatus.
</P>
<P>(iii) Line-clearance tree trimmers shall maintain the minimum approach distances from energized conductors given in Table R-5, Table R-6, Table R-7, and Table R-8.
</P>
<P>(iv) Branches that are contacting exposed energized conductors or equipment or that are within the distances specified in Table R-5, Table R-6, Table R-7, and Table R-8 may be removed only through the use of insulating equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">r</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>A tool constructed of a material that the employer can demonstrate has insulating qualities meeting paragraph (j)(1) of this section is considered as insulated under paragraph (r)(1)(iv) of this section if the tool is clean and dry.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) Ladders, platforms, and aerial devices may not be brought closer to an energized part than the distances listed in Table R-5, Table R-6, Table R-7, and Table R-8.
</P>
<P>(vi) Line-clearance tree trimming may not be performed when adverse weather conditions make the work hazardous in spite of the work practices required by this section. Each employee performing line-clearance tree trimming in the aftermath of a storm or under similar emergency conditions shall be trained in the special hazards related to this type of work.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">r</E>)(1)(<E T="01">vi</E>):</HED>
<P>Thunderstorms in the immediate vicinity, high winds, snow storms, and ice storms are examples of adverse weather conditions that are presumed to make line-clearance tree trimming too hazardous to perform safely.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Brush chippers.</I> (i) Brush chippers shall be equipped with a locking device in the ignition system.
</P>
<P>(ii) Access panels for maintenance and adjustment of the chipper blades and associated drive train shall be in place and secure during operation of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Brush chippers not equipped with a mechanical infeed system shall be equipped with an infeed hopper of length sufficient to prevent employees from contacting the blades or knives of the machine during operation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Trailer chippers detached from trucks shall be chocked or otherwise secured.
</P>
<P>(v) Each employee in the immediate area of an operating chipper feed table shall wear personal protective equipment as required by Subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sprayers and related equipment.</I> (i) Walking and working surfaces of sprayers and related equipment shall be covered with slip-resistant material. If slipping hazards cannot be eliminated, slip-resistant footwear or handrails and stair rails meeting the requirements of subpart D of this part may be used instead of slip-resistant material.
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment on which employees stand to spray while the vehicle is in motion shall be equipped with guardrails around the working area. The guardrail shall be constructed in accordance with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stump cutters.</I> (i) Stump cutters shall be equipped with enclosures or guards to protect employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee in the immediate area of stump grinding operations (including the stump cutter operator) shall wear personal protective equipment as required by subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Gasoline-engine power saws.</I> Gasoline-engine power saw operations shall meet the requirements of § 1910.266(e) and the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Each power saw weighing more than 6.8 kilograms (15 pounds, service weight) that is used in trees shall be supported by a separate line, except when work is performed from an aerial lift and except during topping or removing operations where no supporting limb will be available.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each power saw shall be equipped with a control that will return the saw to idling speed when released.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each power saw shall be equipped with a clutch and shall be so adjusted that the clutch will not engage the chain drive at idling speed.
</P>
<P>(iv) A power saw shall be started on the ground or where it is otherwise firmly supported. Drop starting of saws over 6.8 kilograms (15 pounds), other than chain saws, is permitted outside of the bucket of an aerial lift only if the area below the lift is clear of personnel.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">r</E>)(5)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>Paragraph (e)(2)(vi) of § 1910.266 prohibits drop starting of chain saws.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) A power saw engine may be started and operated only when all employees other than the operator are clear of the saw.
</P>
<P>(vi) A power saw may not be running when the saw is being carried up into a tree by an employee.
</P>
<P>(vii) Power saw engines shall be stopped for all cleaning, refueling, adjustments, and repairs to the saw or motor, except as the manufacturer's servicing procedures require otherwise.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Backpack power units for use in pruning and clearing.</I> (i) While a backpack power unit is running, no one other than the operator may be within 3.05 meters (10 feet) of the cutting head of a brush saw.
</P>
<P>(ii) A backpack power unit shall be equipped with a quick shutoff switch readily accessible to the operator.
</P>
<P>(iii) Backpack power unit engines shall be stopped for all cleaning, refueling, adjustments, and repairs to the saw or motor, except as the manufacturer's servicing procedures require otherwise.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Rope.</I> (i) Climbing ropes shall be used by employees working aloft in trees. These ropes shall have a minimum diameter of 12 millimeters (0.5 inch) with a minimum breaking strength of 10.2 kilonewtons (2,300 pounds). Synthetic rope shall have elasticity of not more than 7 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rope shall be inspected before each use and, if unsafe (for example, because of damage or defect), may not be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Rope shall be stored away from cutting edges and sharp tools. Rope contact with corrosive chemicals, gas, and oil shall be avoided.
</P>
<P>(iv) When stored, rope shall be coiled and piled, or shall be suspended, so that air can circulate through the coils.
</P>
<P>(v) Rope ends shall be secured to prevent their unraveling.
</P>
<P>(vi) Climbing rope may not be spliced to effect repair.
</P>
<P>(vii) A rope that is wet, that is contaminated to the extent that its insulating capacity is impaired, or that is otherwise not considered to be insulated for the voltage involved may not be used near exposed energized lines.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Fall protection.</I> Each employee shall be tied in with a climbing rope and safety saddle when the employee is working above the ground in a tree, unless he or she is ascending into the tree.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Communication facilities</I>—(1) <I>Microwave transmission.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that no employee looks into an open waveguide or antenna connected to an energized microwave source.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the electromagnetic-radiation level within an accessible area associated with microwave communications systems exceeds the radiation-protection guide specified by § 1910.97(a)(2), the employer shall post the area with warning signs containing the warning symbol described in § 1910.97(a)(3). The lower half of the warning symbol shall include the following statements, or ones that the employer can demonstrate are equivalent: “Radiation in this area may exceed hazard limitations and special precautions are required. Obtain specific instruction before entering.”
</P>
<P>(iii) When an employee works in an area where the electromagnetic radiation could exceed the radiation-protection guide, the employer shall institute measures that ensure that the employee's exposure is not greater than that permitted by that guide. Such measures may include administrative and engineering controls and personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Power-line carrier.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees perform power-line carrier work, including work on equipment used for coupling carrier current to power line conductors, in accordance with the requirements of this section pertaining to work on energized lines.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Underground electrical installations.</I> This paragraph provides additional requirements for work on underground electrical installations.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Access.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees use a ladder or other climbing device to enter and exit a manhole or subsurface vault exceeding 1.22 meters (4 feet) in depth. No employee may climb into or out of a manhole or vault by stepping on cables or hangers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lowering equipment into manholes.</I> (i) Equipment used to lower materials and tools into manholes or vaults shall be capable of supporting the weight to be lowered and shall be checked for defects before use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before anyone lowers tools or material into the opening for a manhole or vault, each employee working in the manhole or vault shall be clear of the area directly under the opening.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Attendants for manholes and vaults.</I> (i) While work is being performed in a manhole or vault containing energized electric equipment, an employee with first-aid training shall be available on the surface in the immediate vicinity of the manhole or vault entrance to render emergency assistance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Occasionally, the employee on the surface may briefly enter a manhole or vault to provide nonemergency assistance.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">t</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>Paragraph (e)(7) of this section may also require an attendant and does not permit this attendant to enter the manhole or vault.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">t</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>Paragraph (l)(1)(ii) of this section requires employees entering manholes or vaults containing unguarded, uninsulated energized lines or parts of electric equipment operating at 50 volts or more to be qualified.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) For the purpose of inspection, housekeeping, taking readings, or similar work, an employee working alone may enter, for brief periods of time, a manhole or vault where energized cables or equipment are in service if the employer can demonstrate that the employee will be protected from all electrical hazards.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that employees maintain reliable communications, through two-way radios or other equivalent means, among all employees involved in the job.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Duct rods.</I> The employer shall ensure that, if employees use duct rods, the employees install the duct rods in the direction presenting the least hazard to employees. The employer shall station an employee at the far end of the duct line being rodded to ensure that the employees maintain the required minimum approach distances.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Multiple cables.</I> When multiple cables are present in a work area, the employer shall identify the cable to be worked by electrical means, unless its identity is obvious by reason of distinctive appearance or location or by other readily apparent means of identification. The employer shall protect cables other than the one being worked from damage.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Moving cables.</I> Except when paragraph (t)(7)(ii) of this section permits employees to perform work that could cause a fault in an energized cable in a manhole or vault, the employer shall ensure that employees inspect energized cables to be moved for abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Protection against faults.</I> (i) Where a cable in a manhole or vault has one or more abnormalities that could lead to a fault or be an indication of an impending fault, the employer shall deenergize the cable with the abnormality before any employee may work in the manhole or vault, except when service-load conditions and a lack of feasible alternatives require that the cable remain energized. In that case, employees may enter the manhole or vault provided the employer protects them from the possible effects of a failure using shields or other devices that are capable of containing the adverse effects of a fault. The employer shall treat the following abnormalities as indications of impending faults unless the employer can demonstrate that the conditions could not lead to a fault: Oil or compound leaking from cable or joints, broken cable sheaths or joint sleeves, hot localized surface temperatures of cables or joints, or joints swollen beyond normal tolerance.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the work employees will perform in a manhole or vault could cause a fault in a cable, the employer shall deenergize that cable before any employee works in the manhole or vault, except when service-load conditions and a lack of feasible alternatives require that the cable remain energized. In that case, employees may enter the manhole or vault provided the employer protects them from the possible effects of a failure using shields or other devices that are capable of containing the adverse effects of a fault.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Sheath continuity.</I> When employees perform work on buried cable or on cable in a manhole or vault, the employer shall maintain metallic-sheath continuity, or the cable sheath shall be treated as energized.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Substations.</I> This paragraph provides additional requirements for substations and for work performed in them.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Access and working space.</I> The employer shall provide and maintain sufficient access and working space about electric equipment to permit ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment by employees.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">u</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>American National Standard <I>National Electrical Safety Code,</I> ANSI/IEEE C2-2012 contains guidelines for the dimensions of access and working space about electric equipment in substations. Installations meeting the ANSI provisions comply with paragraph (u)(1) of this section. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will determine whether an installation that does not conform to this ANSI standard complies with paragraph (u)(1) of this section based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the installation conforms to the edition of ANSI C2 that was in effect when the installation was made,
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the configuration of the installation enables employees to maintain the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section, while the employees are working on exposed, energized parts, and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the precautions taken when employees perform work on the installation provide protection equivalent to the protection provided by access and working space meeting ANSI/IEEE C2-2012.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Draw-out-type circuit breakers.</I> The employer shall ensure that, when employees remove or insert draw-out-type circuit breakers, the breaker is in the open position. The employer shall also render the control circuit inoperable if the design of the equipment permits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substation fences.</I> Conductive fences around substations shall be grounded. When a substation fence is expanded or a section is removed, fence sections shall be isolated, grounded, or bonded as necessary to protect employees from hazardous differences in electric potential.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">u</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>IEEE Std 80-2000, <I>IEEE Guide for Safety in AC Substation Grounding,</I> contains guidelines for protection against hazardous differences in electric potential.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Guarding of rooms and other spaces containing electric supply equipment.</I> (i) Rooms and other spaces in which electric supply lines or equipment are installed shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (u)(4)(ii) through (u)(4)(v) of this section under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If exposed live parts operating at 50 to 150 volts to ground are within 2.4 meters (8 feet) of the ground or other working surface inside the room or other space,
</P>
<P>(B) If live parts operating at 151 to 600 volts to ground and located within 2.4 meters (8 feet) of the ground or other working surface inside the room or other space are guarded only by location, as permitted under paragraph (u)(5)(i) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(C) If live parts operating at more than 600 volts to ground are within the room or other space, unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The live parts are enclosed within grounded, metal-enclosed equipment whose only openings are designed so that foreign objects inserted in these openings will be deflected from energized parts, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The live parts are installed at a height, above ground and any other working surface, that provides protection at the voltage on the live parts corresponding to the protection provided by a 2.4-meter (8-foot) height at 50 volts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fences, screens, partitions, or walls shall enclose the rooms and other spaces so as to minimize the possibility that unqualified persons will enter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unqualified persons may not enter the rooms or other spaces while the electric supply lines or equipment are energized.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall display signs at entrances to the rooms and other spaces warning unqualified persons to keep out.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall keep each entrance to a room or other space locked, unless the entrance is under the observation of a person who is attending the room or other space for the purpose of preventing unqualified employees from entering.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Guarding of energized parts.</I> (i) The employer shall provide guards around all live parts operating at more than 150 volts to ground without an insulating covering unless the location of the live parts gives sufficient clearance (horizontal, vertical, or both) to minimize the possibility of accidental employee contact.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">u</E>)(5)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>American National Standard <I>National Electrical Safety Code,</I> ANSI/IEEE C2-2002 contains guidelines for the dimensions of clearance distances about electric equipment in substations. Installations meeting the ANSI provisions comply with paragraph (u)(5)(i) of this section. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will determine whether an installation that does not conform to this ANSI standard complies with paragraph (u)(5)(i) of this section based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the installation conforms to the edition of ANSI C2 that was in effect when the installation was made,
</P>
<P>(2) Whether each employee is isolated from energized parts at the point of closest approach; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the precautions taken when employees perform work on the installation provide protection equivalent to the protection provided by horizontal and vertical clearances meeting ANSI/IEEE C2-2002.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Except for fuse replacement and other necessary access by qualified persons, the employer shall maintain guarding of energized parts within a compartment during operation and maintenance functions to prevent accidental contact with energized parts and to prevent dropped tools or other equipment from contacting energized parts.
</P>
<P>(iii) Before guards are removed from energized equipment, the employer shall install barriers around the work area to prevent employees who are not working on the equipment, but who are in the area, from contacting the exposed live parts.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Substation entry.</I> (i) Upon entering an attended substation, each employee, other than employees regularly working in the station, shall report his or her presence to the employee in charge of substation activities to receive information on special system conditions affecting employee safety.
</P>
<P>(ii) The job briefing required by paragraph (c) of this section shall cover information on special system conditions affecting employee safety, including the location of energized equipment in or adjacent to the work area and the limits of any deenergized work area.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Power generation.</I> This paragraph provides additional requirements and related work practices for power generating plants.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interlocks and other safety devices.</I> (i) Interlocks and other safety devices shall be maintained in a safe, operable condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) No interlock or other safety device may be modified to defeat its function, except for test, repair, or adjustment of the device.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changing brushes.</I> Before exciter or generator brushes are changed while the generator is in service, the exciter or generator field shall be checked to determine whether a ground condition exists. The brushes may not be changed while the generator is energized if a ground condition exists.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access and working space.</I> The employer shall provide and maintain sufficient access and working space about electric equipment to permit ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment by employees.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">v</E>)(3) of this section:</HED>
<P>American National Standard <I>National Electrical Safety Code,</I> ANSI/IEEE C2-2012 contains guidelines for the dimensions of access and working space about electric equipment in substations. Installations meeting the ANSI provisions comply with paragraph (v)(3) of this section. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will determine whether an installation that does not conform to this ANSI standard complies with paragraph (v)(3) of this section based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the installation conforms to the edition of ANSI C2 that was in effect when the installation was made;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the configuration of the installation enables employees to maintain the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section, while the employees are working on exposed, energized parts, and;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the precautions taken when employees perform work on the installation provide protection equivalent to the protection provided by access and working space meeting ANSI/IEEE C2-2012.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Guarding of rooms and other spaces containing electric supply equipment.</I> (i) Rooms and other spaces in which electric supply lines or equipment are installed shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (v)(4)(ii) through (v)(4)(v) of this section under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If exposed live parts operating at 50 to 150 volts to ground are within 2.4 meters (8 feet) of the ground or other working surface inside the room or other space,
</P>
<P>(B) If live parts operating at 151 to 600 volts to ground and located within 2.4 meters (8 feet) of the ground or other working surface inside the room or other space are guarded only by location, as permitted under paragraph (v)(5)(i) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(C) If live parts operating at more than 600 volts to ground are within the room or other space, unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The live parts are enclosed within grounded, metal-enclosed equipment whose only openings are designed so that foreign objects inserted in these openings will be deflected from energized parts, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The live parts are installed at a height, above ground and any other working surface, that provides protection at the voltage on the live parts corresponding to the protection provided by a 2.4-meter (8-foot) height at 50 volts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fences, screens, partitions, or walls shall enclose the rooms and other spaces so as to minimize the possibility that unqualified persons will enter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unqualified persons may not enter the rooms or other spaces while the electric supply lines or equipment are energized.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall display signs at entrances to the rooms and other spaces warning unqualified persons to keep out.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall keep each entrance to a room or other space locked, unless the entrance is under the observation of a person who is attending the room or other space for the purpose of preventing unqualified employees from entering.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Guarding of energized parts.</I> (i) The employer shall provide guards around all live parts operating at more than 150 volts to ground without an insulating covering unless the location of the live parts gives sufficient clearance (horizontal, vertical, or both) to minimize the possibility of accidental employee contact.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">v</E>)(5)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>American National Standard <I>National Electrical Safety Code,</I> ANSI/IEEE C2-2002 contains guidelines for the dimensions of clearance distances about electric equipment in substations. Installations meeting the ANSI provisions comply with paragraph (v)(5)(i) of this section. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will determine whether an installation that does not conform to this ANSI standard complies with paragraph (v)(5)(i) of this section based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the installation conforms to the edition of ANSI C2 that was in effect when the installation was made;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether each employee is isolated from energized parts at the point of closest approach; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the precautions taken when employees perform work on the installation provide protection equivalent to the protection provided by horizontal and vertical clearances meeting ANSI/IEEE C2-2002.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Except for fuse replacement and other necessary access by qualified persons, the employer shall maintain guarding of energized parts within a compartment during operation and maintenance functions to prevent accidental contact with energized parts and to prevent dropped tools or other equipment from contacting energized parts.
</P>
<P>(iii) Before guards are removed from energized equipment, the employer shall install barriers around the work area to prevent employees who are not working on the equipment, but who are in the area, from contacting the exposed live parts.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Water or steam spaces.</I> The following requirements apply to work in water and steam spaces associated with boilers:
</P>
<P>(i) A designated employee shall inspect conditions before work is permitted and after its completion. Eye protection, or full face protection if necessary, shall be worn at all times when condenser, heater, or boiler tubes are being cleaned.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where it is necessary for employees to work near tube ends during cleaning, shielding shall be installed at the tube ends.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Chemical cleaning of boilers and pressure vessels.</I> The following requirements apply to chemical cleaning of boilers and pressure vessels:
</P>
<P>(i) Areas where chemical cleaning is in progress shall be cordoned off to restrict access during cleaning. If flammable liquids, gases, or vapors or combustible materials will be used or might be produced during the cleaning process, the following requirements also apply:
</P>
<P>(A) The area shall be posted with signs restricting entry and warning of the hazards of fire and explosion; and
</P>
<P>(B) Smoking, welding, and other possible ignition sources are prohibited in these restricted areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of personnel in the restricted area shall be limited to those necessary to accomplish the task safely.
</P>
<P>(iii) There shall be ready access to water or showers for emergency use.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">v</E>)(7)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>See § 1910.141 for requirements that apply to the water supply and to washing facilities.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) Employees in restricted areas shall wear protective equipment meeting the requirements of Subpart I of this part and including, but not limited to, protective clothing, boots, goggles, and gloves.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Chlorine systems.</I> (i) Chlorine system enclosures shall be posted with signs restricting entry and warning of the hazard to health and the hazards of fire and explosion.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">v</E>)(8)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>See subpart Z of this part for requirements necessary to protect the health of employees from the effects of chlorine.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Only designated employees may enter the restricted area. Additionally, the number of personnel shall be limited to those necessary to accomplish the task safely.
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency repair kits shall be available near the shelter or enclosure to allow for the prompt repair of leaks in chlorine lines, equipment, or containers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Before repair procedures are started, chlorine tanks, pipes, and equipment shall be purged with dry air and isolated from other sources of chlorine.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall ensure that chlorine is not mixed with materials that would react with the chlorine in a dangerously exothermic or other hazardous manner.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Boilers.</I> (i) Before internal furnace or ash hopper repair work is started, overhead areas shall be inspected for possible falling objects. If the hazard of falling objects exists, overhead protection such as planking or nets shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) When opening an operating boiler door, employees shall stand clear of the opening of the door to avoid the heat blast and gases which may escape from the boiler.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Turbine generators.</I> (i) Smoking and other ignition sources are prohibited near hydrogen or hydrogen sealing systems, and signs warning of the danger of explosion and fire shall be posted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Excessive hydrogen makeup or abnormal loss of pressure shall be considered as an emergency and shall be corrected immediately.
</P>
<P>(iii) A sufficient quantity of inert gas shall be available to purge the hydrogen from the largest generator.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Coal and ash handling.</I> (i) Only designated persons may operate railroad equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before a locomotive or locomotive crane is moved, a warning shall be given to employees in the area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees engaged in switching or dumping cars may not use their feet to line up drawheads.
</P>
<P>(iv) Drawheads and knuckles may not be shifted while locomotives or cars are in motion.
</P>
<P>(v) When a railroad car is stopped for unloading, the car shall be secured from displacement that could endanger employees.
</P>
<P>(vi) An emergency means of stopping dump operations shall be provided at railcar dumps.
</P>
<P>(vii) The employer shall ensure that employees who work in coal- or ash-handling conveyor areas are trained and knowledgeable in conveyor operation and in the requirements of paragraphs (v)(11)(viii) through (v)(11)(xii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Employees may not ride a coal- or ash-handling conveyor belt at any time. Employees may not cross over the conveyor belt, except at walkways, unless the conveyor's energy source has been deenergized and has been locked out or tagged in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) A conveyor that could cause injury when started may not be started until personnel in the area are alerted by a signal or by a designated person that the conveyor is about to start.
</P>
<P>(x) If a conveyor that could cause injury when started is automatically controlled or is controlled from a remote location, an audible device shall be provided that sounds an alarm that will be recognized by each employee as a warning that the conveyor will start and that can be clearly heard at all points along the conveyor where personnel may be present. The warning device shall be actuated by the device starting the conveyor and shall continue for a period of time before the conveyor starts that is long enough to allow employees to move clear of the conveyor system. A visual warning may be used in place of the audible device if the employer can demonstrate that it will provide an equally effective warning in the particular circumstances involved. However if the employer can demonstrate that the system's function would be seriously hindered by the required time delay, warning signs may be provided in place of the audible warning device. If the system was installed before January 31, 1995, warning signs may be provided in place of the audible warning device until such time as the conveyor or its control system is rebuilt or rewired. These warning signs shall be clear, concise, and legible and shall indicate that conveyors and allied equipment may be started at any time, that danger exists, and that personnel must keep clear. These warning signs shall be provided along the conveyor at areas not guarded by position or location.
</P>
<P>(xi) Remotely and automatically controlled conveyors, and conveyors that have operating stations which are not manned or which are beyond voice and visual contact from drive areas, loading areas, transfer points, and other locations on the conveyor path not guarded by location, position, or guards shall be furnished with emergency stop buttons, pull cords, limit switches, or similar emergency stop devices. However, if the employer can demonstrate that the design, function, and operation of the conveyor do not expose an employee to hazards, an emergency stop device is not required.
</P>
<P>(A) Emergency stop devices shall be easily identifiable in the immediate vicinity of such locations.
</P>
<P>(B) An emergency stop device shall act directly on the control of the conveyor involved and may not depend on the stopping of any other equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency stop devices shall be installed so that they cannot be overridden from other locations.
</P>
<P>(xii) Where coal-handling operations may produce a combustible atmosphere from fuel sources or from flammable gases or dust, sources of ignition shall be eliminated or safely controlled to prevent ignition of the combustible atmosphere.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">v</E>)(11)(<E T="01">xii</E>):</HED>
<P>Locations that are hazardous because of the presence of combustible dust are classified as Class II hazardous locations. See § 1910.307.</P></NOTE>
<P>(xiii) An employee may not work on or beneath overhanging coal in coal bunkers, coal silos, or coal storage areas, unless the employee is protected from all hazards posed by shifting coal.
</P>
<P>(xiv) An employee entering a bunker or silo to dislodge the contents shall wear a body harness with lifeline attached. The lifeline shall be secured to a fixed support outside the bunker and shall be attended at all times by an employee located outside the bunker or facility.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Hydroplants and equipment.</I> Employees working on or close to water gates, valves, intakes, forebays, flumes, or other locations where increased or decreased water flow or levels may pose a significant hazard shall be warned and shall vacate such dangerous areas before water flow changes are made.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Special conditions</I>—(1) <I>Capacitors.</I> The following additional requirements apply to work on capacitors and on lines connected to capacitors.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">w</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>See paragraphs (m) and (n) of this section for requirements pertaining to the deenergizing and grounding of capacitor installations.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) Before employees work on capacitors, the employer shall disconnect the capacitors from energized sources and short circuit the capacitors. The employer shall ensure that the employee short circuiting the capacitors waits at least 5 minutes from the time of disconnection before applying the short circuit,
</P>
<P>(ii) Before employees handle the units, the employer shall short circuit each unit in series-parallel capacitor banks between all terminals and the capacitor case or its rack. If the cases of capacitors are on ungrounded substation racks, the employer shall bond the racks to ground.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall short circuit any line connected to capacitors before the line is treated as deenergized.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Current transformer secondaries.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not open the secondary of a current transformer while the transformer is energized. If the employer cannot deenergize the primary of the current transformer before employees perform work on an instrument, a relay, or other section of a current transformer secondary circuit, the employer shall bridge the circuit so that the current transformer secondary does not experience an open-circuit condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Series streetlighting.</I> (i) If the open-circuit voltage exceeds 600 volts, the employer shall ensure that employees work on series streetlighting circuits in accordance with paragraph (q) or (t) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before any employee opens a series loop, the employer shall deenergize the streetlighting transformer and isolate it from the source of supply or shall bridge the loop to avoid an open-circuit condition.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Illumination.</I> The employer shall provide sufficient illumination to enable the employee to perform the work safely.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Protection against drowning.</I> (i) Whenever an employee may be pulled or pushed, or might fall, into water where the danger of drowning exists, the employer shall provide the employee with, and shall ensure that the employee uses, a U.S. Coast Guard-approved personal flotation device.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall maintain each personal flotation device in safe condition and shall inspect each personal flotation device frequently enough to ensure that it does not have rot, mildew, water saturation, or any other condition that could render the device unsuitable for use.
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee may cross streams or other bodies of water only if a safe means of passage, such as a bridge, is available.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee protection in public work areas.</I> (i) Traffic-control signs and traffic-control devices used for the protection of employees shall meet § 1926.200(g)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before employees begin work in the vicinity of vehicular or pedestrian traffic that may endanger them, the employer shall place warning signs or flags and other traffic-control devices in conspicuous locations to alert and channel approaching traffic.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall use barricades where additional employee protection is necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall protect excavated areas with barricades.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall display warning lights prominently at night.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Backfeed.</I> When there is a possibility of voltage backfeed from sources of cogeneration or from the secondary system (for example, backfeed from more than one energized phase feeding a common load), the requirements of paragraph (l) of this section apply if employees will work the lines or equipment as energized, and the requirements of paragraphs (m) and (n) of this section apply if employees will work the lines or equipment as deenergized.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Lasers.</I> The employer shall install, adjust, and operate laser equipment in accordance with § 1926.54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Hydraulic fluids.</I> Hydraulic fluids used for the insulated sections of equipment shall provide insulation for the voltage involved.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Affected employee.</I> An employee whose job requires him or her to operate or use a machine or equipment on which servicing or maintenance is being performed under lockout or tagout, or whose job requires him or her to work in an area in which such servicing or maintenance is being performed.
</P>
<P><I>Attendant.</I> An employee assigned to remain immediately outside the entrance to an enclosed or other space to render assistance as needed to employees inside the space.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized employee.</I> An employee who locks out or tags out machines or equipment in order to perform servicing or maintenance on that machine or equipment. An affected employee becomes an authorized employee when that employee's duties include performing servicing or maintenance covered under this section.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic circuit recloser.</I> A self-controlled device for automatically interrupting and reclosing an alternating-current circuit, with a predetermined sequence of opening and reclosing followed by resetting, hold closed, or lockout.
</P>
<P><I>Barricade.</I> A physical obstruction such as tapes, cones, or A-frame type wood or metal structures that provides a warning about, and limits access to, a hazardous area.
</P>
<P><I>Barrier.</I> A physical obstruction that prevents contact with energized lines or equipment or prevents unauthorized access to a work area.
</P>
<P><I>Bond.</I> The electrical interconnection of conductive parts designed to maintain a common electric potential.
</P>
<P><I>Bus.</I> A conductor or a group of conductors that serve as a common connection for two or more circuits.
</P>
<P><I>Bushing.</I> An insulating structure that includes a through conductor or that provides a passageway for such a conductor, and that, when mounted on a barrier, insulates the conductor from the barrier for the purpose of conducting current from one side of the barrier to the other.
</P>
<P><I>Cable.</I> A conductor with insulation, or a stranded conductor with or without insulation and other coverings (single-conductor cable), or a combination of conductors insulated from one another (multiple-conductor cable).
</P>
<P><I>Cable sheath.</I> A conductive protective covering applied to cables.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “cable sheath”:</HED>
<P>A cable sheath may consist of multiple layers one or more of which is conductive.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Circuit.</I> A conductor or system of conductors through which an electric current is intended to flow.
</P>
<P><I>Clearance (between objects).</I> The clear distance between two objects measured surface to surface.
</P>
<P><I>Clearance (for work).</I> Authorization to perform specified work or permission to enter a restricted area.
</P>
<P><I>Communication lines.</I> (See <I>Lines;</I> (1) <I>Communication lines.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Conductor.</I> A material, usually in the form of a wire, cable, or bus bar, used for carrying an electric current.
</P>
<P><I>Contract employer.</I> An employer, other than a host employer, that performs work covered by this section under contract.
</P>
<P><I>Covered conductor.</I> A conductor covered with a dielectric having no rated insulating strength or having a rated insulating strength less than the voltage of the circuit in which the conductor is used.
</P>
<P><I>Current-carrying part.</I> A conducting part intended to be connected in an electric circuit to a source of voltage. Non-current-carrying parts are those not intended to be so connected.
</P>
<P><I>Deenergized.</I> Free from any electrical connection to a source of potential difference and from electric charge; not having a potential that is different from the potential of the earth.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “deenergized”:</HED>
<P>The term applies only to current-carrying parts, which are sometimes energized (alive).</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Designated employee (designated person).</I> An employee (or person) who is assigned by the employer to perform specific duties under the terms of this section and who has sufficient knowledge of the construction and operation of the equipment, and the hazards involved, to perform his or her duties safely.
</P>
<P><I>Electric line truck.</I> A truck used to transport personnel, tools, and material for electric supply line work.
</P>
<P><I>Electric supply equipment.</I> Equipment that produces, modifies, regulates, controls, or safeguards a supply of electric energy.
</P>
<P><I>Electric supply lines.</I> (See <I>Lines;</I> (2) <I>Electric supply lines.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Electric utility.</I> An organization responsible for the installation, operation, or maintenance of an electric supply system.
</P>
<P><I>Enclosed space.</I> A working space, such as a manhole, vault, tunnel, or shaft, that has a limited means of egress or entry, that is designed for periodic employee entry under normal operating conditions, and that, under normal conditions, does not contain a hazardous atmosphere, but may contain a hazardous atmosphere under abnormal conditions.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “enclosed space”:</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration does not consider spaces that are enclosed but not designed for employee entry under normal operating conditions to be enclosed spaces for the purposes of this section. Similarly, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration does not consider spaces that are enclosed and that are expected to contain a hazardous atmosphere to be enclosed spaces for the purposes of this section. Such spaces meet the definition of permit spaces in § 1910.146, and entry into them must conform to that standard.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Energized (alive, live).</I> Electrically connected to a source of potential difference, or electrically charged so as to have a potential significantly different from that of earth in the vicinity.
</P>
<P><I>Energy isolating device.</I> A physical device that prevents the transmission or release of energy, including, but not limited to, the following: a manually operated electric circuit breaker, a disconnect switch, a manually operated switch, a slide gate, a slip blind, a line valve, blocks, and any similar device with a visible indication of the position of the device. (Push buttons, selector switches, and other control-circuit-type devices are not energy isolating devices.)
</P>
<P><I>Energy source.</I> Any electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic, chemical, nuclear, thermal, or other energy source that could cause injury to employees.
</P>
<P><I>Entry (as used in paragraph (e) of this section).</I> The action by which a person passes through an opening into an enclosed space. Entry includes ensuing work activities in that space and is considered to have occurred as soon as any part of the entrant's body breaks the plane of an opening into the space.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment (electric).</I> A general term including material, fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures, apparatus, and the like used as part of or in connection with an electrical installation.
</P>
<P><I>Exposed, Exposed to contact (as applied to energized parts).</I> Not isolated or guarded.
</P>
<P><I>Fall restraint system.</I> A fall protection system that prevents the user from falling any distance.
</P>
<P><I>First-aid training.</I> Training in the initial care, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which includes chest compressions, rescue breathing, and, as appropriate, other heart and lung resuscitation techniques), performed by a person who is not a medical practitioner, of a sick or injured person until definitive medical treatment can be administered.
</P>
<P><I>Ground.</I> A conducting connection, whether planned or unplanned, between an electric circuit or equipment and the earth, or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded.</I> Connected to earth or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Guarded.</I> Covered, fenced, enclosed, or otherwise protected, by means of suitable covers or casings, barrier rails or screens, mats, or platforms, designed to minimize the possibility, under normal conditions, of dangerous approach or inadvertent contact by persons or objects.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “guarded”:</HED>
<P>Wires that are insulated, but not otherwise protected, are not guarded.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Hazardous atmosphere.</I> An atmosphere that may expose employees to the risk of death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue (that is, escape unaided from an enclosed space), injury, or acute illness from one or more of the following causes:
</P>
<P>(1) Flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of 10 percent of its lower flammable limit (LFL);
</P>
<P>(2) Airborne combustible dust at a concentration that meets or exceeds its LFL;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” (2):</HED>
<P>This concentration may be approximated as a condition in which the dust obscures vision at a distance of 1.52 meters (5 feet) or less.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) Atmospheric oxygen concentration below 19.5 percent or above 23.5 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) Atmospheric concentration of any substance for which a dose or a permissible exposure limit is published in subpart G, <I>Occupational Health and Environmental Control,</I> or in Subpart Z, <I>Toxic and Hazardous Substances,</I> of this part and which could result in employee exposure in excess of its dose or permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” (4):</HED>
<P>An atmospheric concentration of any substance that is not capable of causing death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue, injury, or acute illness due to its health effects is not covered by this provision.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Any other atmospheric condition that is immediately dangerous to life or health.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” (5):</HED>
<P>For air contaminants for which the Occupational Safety and Health Administration has not determined a dose or permissible exposure limit, other sources of information, such as Safety Data Sheets (SDS) that comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1910.1200, published information, and internal documents can provide guidance in establishing acceptable atmospheric conditions.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>High-power tests.</I> Tests in which the employer uses fault currents, load currents, magnetizing currents, and line-dropping currents to test equipment, either at the equipment's rated voltage or at lower voltages.
</P>
<P><I>High-voltage tests.</I> Tests in which the employer uses voltages of approximately 1,000 volts as a practical minimum and in which the voltage source has sufficient energy to cause injury.
</P>
<P><I>High wind.</I> A wind of such velocity that one or more of the following hazards would be present:
</P>
<P>(1) The wind could blow an employee from an elevated location,
</P>
<P>(2) The wind could cause an employee or equipment handling material to lose control of the material, or
</P>
<P>(3) The wind would expose an employee to other hazards not controlled by the standard involved.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “high wind”:</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration normally considers winds exceeding 64.4 kilometers per hour (40 miles per hour), or 48.3 kilometers per hour (30 miles per hour) if the work involves material handling, as meeting this criteria, unless the employer takes precautions to protect employees from the hazardous effects of the wind.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Host employer.</I> An employer that operates, or that controls the operating procedures for, an electric power generation, transmission, or distribution installation on which a contract employer is performing work covered by this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “host employer”:</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will treat the electric utility or the owner of the installation as the host employer if it operates or controls operating procedures for the installation. If the electric utility or installation owner neither operates nor controls operating procedures for the installation, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration will treat the employer that the utility or owner has contracted with to operate or control the operating procedures for the installation as the host employer. In no case will there be more than one host employer.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH).</I> Any condition that poses an immediate or delayed threat to life or that would cause irreversible adverse health effects or that would interfere with an individual's ability to escape unaided from a permit space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “immediately dangerous to life or health”:</HED>
<P>Some materials—hydrogen fluoride gas and cadmium vapor, for example—may produce immediate transient effects that, even if severe, may pass without medical attention, but are followed by sudden, possibly fatal collapse 12-72 hours after exposure. The victim “feels normal” from recovery from transient effects until collapse. Such materials in hazardous quantities are considered to be “immediately” dangerous to life or health.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Insulated.</I> Separated from other conducting surfaces by a dielectric (including air space) offering a high resistance to the passage of current.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “insulated”:</HED>
<P>When any object is said to be insulated, it is understood to be insulated for the conditions to which it normally is subjected. Otherwise, it is, for the purpose of this section, uninsulated.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Insulation (cable).</I> Material relied upon to insulate the conductor from other conductors or conducting parts or from ground.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated.</I> Not readily accessible to persons unless special means for access are used.
</P>
<P><I>Line-clearance tree trimmer.</I> An employee who, through related training or on-the-job experience or both, is familiar with the special techniques and hazards involved in line-clearance tree trimming.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to the definition of “line-clearance tree trimmer”:</HED>
<P>An employee who is regularly assigned to a line-clearance tree-trimming crew and who is undergoing on-the-job training and who, in the course of such training, has demonstrated an ability to perform duties safely at his or her level of training and who is under the direct supervision of a line-clearance tree trimmer is considered to be a line-clearance tree trimmer for the performance of those duties.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to the definition of “line-clearance tree trimmer”:</HED>
<P>A line-clearance tree trimmer is not considered to be a “qualified employee” under this section unless he or she has the training required for a qualified employee under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section. However, under the electrical safety-related work practices standard in subpart S of this part, a line-clearance tree trimmer is considered to be a “qualified employee.” Tree trimming performed by such “qualified employees” is not subject to the electrical safety-related work practice requirements contained in §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335 when it is directly associated with electric power generation, transmission, or distribution lines or equipment. (See § 1910.331 for requirements on the applicability of the electrical safety-related work practice requirements contained in §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335 to line-clearance tree trimming performed by such “qualified employees,” and see the note following § 1910.332(b)(3) for information regarding the training an employee must have to be considered a qualified employee under §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335.)</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Line-clearance tree trimming.</I> The pruning, trimming, repairing, maintaining, removing, or clearing of trees, or the cutting of brush, that is within the following distance of electric supply lines and equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) For voltages to ground of 50 kilovolts or less—3.05 meters (10 feet);
</P>
<P>(2) For voltages to ground of more than 50 kilovolts—3.05 meters (10 feet) plus 0.10 meters (4 inches) for every 10 kilovolts over 50 kilovolts.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “line-clearance tree trimming”:</HED>
<P>This section applies only to line-clearance tree trimming performed for the purpose of clearing space around electric power generation, transmission, or distribution lines or equipment and on behalf of an organization that operates, or that controls the operating procedures for, those lines or equipment. See paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Tree trimming performed on behalf of a homeowner or commercial entity other than an organization that operates, or that controls the operating procedures for, electric power generation, transmission, or distribution lines or equipment is not directly associated with an electric power generation, transmission, or distribution installation and is outside the scope of this section. In addition, tree trimming that is not for the purpose of clearing space around electric power generation, transmission, or distribution lines or equipment is not directly associated with an electric power generation, transmission, or distribution installation and is outside the scope of this section. Such tree trimming may be covered by other applicable standards. See, for example, §§ 1910.268 and 1910.331 through 1910.335.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Lines</I>—(1) <I>Communication lines.</I> The conductors and their supporting or containing structures which are used for public or private signal or communication service, and which operate at potentials not exceeding 400 volts to ground or 750 volts between any two points of the circuit, and the transmitted power of which does not exceed 150 watts. If the lines are operating at less than 150 volts, no limit is placed on the transmitted power of the system. Under certain conditions, communication cables may include communication circuits exceeding these limitations where such circuits are also used to supply power solely to communication equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “communication lines”:</HED>
<P>Telephone, telegraph, railroad signal, data, clock, fire, police alarm, cable television, and other systems conforming to this definition are included. Lines used for signaling purposes, but not included under this definition, are considered as electric supply lines of the same voltage.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Electric supply lines.</I> Conductors used to transmit electric energy and their necessary supporting or containing structures. Signal lines of more than 400 volts are always supply lines within this section, and those of less than 400 volts are considered as supply lines, if so run and operated throughout.
</P>
<P><I>Manhole.</I> A subsurface enclosure that personnel may enter and that is used for installing, operating, and maintaining submersible equipment or cable.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum approach distance.</I> The closest distance an employee may approach an energized or a grounded object.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “minimum approach distance”:</HED>
<P>Paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section requires employers to establish minimum approach distances.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system.</I> A system used to arrest an employee in a fall from a working level.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified employee (qualified person).</I> An employee (person) knowledgeable in the construction and operation of the electric power generation, transmission, and distribution equipment involved, along with the associated hazards.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to the definition of “qualified employee (qualified person)”:</HED>
<P>An employee must have the training required by (a)(2)(ii) of this section to be a qualified employee.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to the definition of “qualified employee (qualified person)”:</HED>
<P>Except under (g)(2)(iv)(C)(2) and (g)(2)(iv)(C)(3) of this section, an employee who is undergoing on-the-job training and who has demonstrated, in the course of such training, an ability to perform duties safely at his or her level of training and who is under the direct supervision of a qualified person is a qualified person for the performance of those duties.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Statistical sparkover voltage.</I> A transient overvoltage level that produces a 97.72-percent probability of sparkover (that is, two standard deviations above the voltage at which there is a 50-percent probability of sparkover).
</P>
<P><I>Statistical withstand voltage.</I> A transient overvoltage level that produces a 0.14-percent probability of sparkover (that is, three standard deviations below the voltage at which there is a 50-percent probability of sparkover).
</P>
<P><I>Switch.</I> A device for opening and closing or for changing the connection of a circuit. In this section, a switch is manually operable, unless otherwise stated.
</P>
<P><I>System operator.</I> A qualified person designated to operate the system or its parts.
</P>
<P><I>Vault.</I> An enclosure, above or below ground, that personnel may enter and that is used for installing, operating, or maintaining equipment or cable.
</P>
<P><I>Vented vault.</I> A vault that has provision for air changes using exhaust-flue stacks and low-level air intakes operating on pressure and temperature differentials that provide for airflow that precludes a hazardous atmosphere from developing.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage.</I> The effective (root mean square, or rms) potential difference between any two conductors or between a conductor and ground. This section expresses voltages in nominal values, unless otherwise indicated. The nominal voltage of a system or circuit is the value assigned to a system or circuit of a given voltage class for the purpose of convenient designation. The operating voltage of the system may vary above or below this value.
</P>
<P><I>Work-positioning equipment.</I> A body belt or body harness system rigged to allow an employee to be supported on an elevated vertical surface, such as a utility pole or tower leg, and work with both hands free while leaning.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.269—Flow Charts
</HD1>
<P>This appendix presents information, in the form of flow charts, that illustrates the scope and application of § 1910.269. This appendix addresses the interface between § 1910.269 and Subpart S of this Part (Electrical), between § 1910.269 and § 1910.146 (Permit-required confined spaces), and between § 1910.269 and § 1910.147 (The control of hazardous energy (lockout/tagout)). These flow charts provide guidance for employers trying to implement the requirements of § 1910.269 in combination with other General Industry Standards contained in Part 1910. Employers should always consult the relevant standards, in conjunction with this appendix, to ensure compliance with all applicable requirements.</P></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.018.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A-2 to § 1910.269—Application of § 1910.269 and Subpart S of this Part to Electrical Safety-Related Work Practices
<SU>1</SU>
</HD1>
<P> </P></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er24se14.004.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Electrical Safety Requirements in § 1910.269
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance with Subpart S will comply with these paragraphs of § 1910.269 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Paragraphs that apply regardless of compliance with Subpart S 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(d), electric-shock hazards only</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)(2), (a)(3) and (a)(4).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(h)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i)(2) and (i)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(k)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d), for other than electric-shock hazards.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(l)(1) through (l)(5), (l)(7), and (l)(10) through (l)(12)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(m)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(p)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(s)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)(1) and (h)(2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(u)(1) and (u)(3) through (u)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i)(4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v)(3) through (v)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(w)(1) and (w)(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(l)(6), (l)(8) and (l)(9).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(n)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(o)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(p)(1) through (p)(3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(q)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(r)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(s)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(t)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(u)(2) and (u)(6)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(v)(1), (v)(2), and (v)(6) through (v)(12).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(w)(2) through (w)(6), (w)(8), and (w)(9).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the electrical installation meets the requirements of §§ 1910.302 through 1910.308 of this part, then the electrical installation and any associated electrical safety-related work practices conforming to §§ 1910.332 through 1910.335 of this part are considered to comply with these provisions of § 1910.269 of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> These provisions include electrical safety and other requirements that must be met regardless of compliance with subpart S of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
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<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.269—Working on Exposed Energized Parts
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Electric utilities design electric power generation, transmission, and distribution installations to meet National Electrical Safety Code (NESC), ANSI C2, requirements. Electric utilities also design transmission and distribution lines to limit line outages as required by system reliability criteria 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and to withstand the maximum overvoltages impressed on the system. Conditions such as switching surges, faults, and lightning can cause overvoltages. Electric utilities generally select insulator design and lengths and the clearances to structural parts so as to prevent outages from contaminated line insulation and during storms. Line insulator lengths and structural clearances have, over the years, come closer to the minimum approach distances used by workers. As minimum approach distances and structural clearances converge, it is increasingly important that system designers and system operating and maintenance personnel understand the concepts underlying minimum approach distances.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Federal, State, and local regulatory bodies and electric utilities set reliability requirements that limit the number and duration of system outages.</P></FTNT>
<P>The information in this appendix will assist employers in complying with the minimum approach-distance requirements contained in § 1910.269(l)(3) and (q)(3). Employers must use the technical criteria and methodology presented in this appendix in establishing minimum approach distances in accordance with § 1910.269(l)(3)(i) and Table R-3 and Table R-8. This appendix provides essential background information and technical criteria for the calculation of the required minimum approach distances for live-line work on electric power generation, transmission, and distribution installations.
</P>
<P>Unless an employer is using the maximum transient overvoltages specified in Table R-9 for voltages over 72.5 kilovolts, the employer must use persons knowledgeable in the techniques discussed in this appendix, and competent in the field of electric transmission and distribution system design, to determine the maximum transient overvoltage.
</P>
<HD1>II. General
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions from § 1910.269(x) relate to work on or near electric power generation, transmission, and distribution lines and equipment and the electrical hazards they present.
</P>
<P><I>Exposed.</I> . . . Not isolated or guarded.
</P>
<P><I>Guarded.</I> Covered, fenced, enclosed, or otherwise protected, by means of suitable covers or casings, barrier rails or screens, mats, or platforms, designed to minimize the possibility, under normal conditions, of dangerous approach or inadvertent contact by persons or objects.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “guarded”:</HED>
<P>Wires that are insulated, but not otherwise protected, are not guarded.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Insulated.</I> Separated from other conducting surfaces by a dielectric (including air space) offering a high resistance to the passage of current.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “insulated”:</HED>
<P>When any object is said to be insulated, it is understood to be insulated for the conditions to which it normally is subjected. Otherwise, it is, for the purpose of this section, uninsulated.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Isolated.</I> Not readily accessible to persons unless special means for access are used.
</P>
<P><I>Statistical sparkover voltage.</I> A transient overvoltage level that produces a 97.72-percent probability of sparkover (that is, two standard deviations above the voltage at which there is a 50-percent probability of sparkover).
</P>
<P><I>Statistical withstand voltage.</I> A transient overvoltage level that produces a 0.14-percent probability of sparkover (that is, three standard deviations below the voltage at which there is a 50-percent probability of sparkover).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Installations energized at 50 to 300 volts.</I> The hazards posed by installations energized at 50 to 300 volts are the same as those found in many other workplaces. That is not to say that there is no hazard, but the complexity of electrical protection required does not compare to that required for high-voltage systems. The employee must avoid contact with the exposed parts, and the protective equipment used (such as rubber insulating gloves) must provide insulation for the voltages involved.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Exposed energized parts over 300 volts AC.</I> Paragraph (l)(3)(i) of § 1910.269 requires the employer to establish minimum approach distances no less than the distances computed by Table R-3 for ac systems so that employees can work safely without risk of sparkover.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Sparkover is a disruptive electric discharge in which an electric arc forms and electric current passes through air.</P></FTNT>
<P>Unless the employee is using electrical protective equipment, air is the insulating medium between the employee and energized parts. The distance between the employee and an energized part must be sufficient for the air to withstand the maximum transient overvoltage that can reach the worksite under the working conditions and practices the employee is using. This distance is the minimum air insulation distance, and it is equal to the electrical component of the minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P>Normal system design may provide or include a means (such as lightning arrestors) to control maximum anticipated transient overvoltages, or the employer may use temporary devices (portable protective gaps) or measures (such as preventing automatic circuit breaker reclosing) to achieve the same result. Paragraph (l)(3)(ii) of § 1910.269 requires the employer to determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis or assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table R-9, which specifies the following maximums for ac systems:
</P>
<FP-1>72.6 to 420.0 kilovolts—3.5 per unit
</FP-1>
<FP-1>420.1 to 550.0 kilovolts—3.0 per unit
</FP-1>
<FP-1>550.1 to 800.0 kilovolts—2.5 per unit
</FP-1>
<P>See paragraph IV.A.2, later in this appendix, for additional discussion of maximum transient overvoltages.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Types of exposures.</I> Employees working on or near energized electric power generation, transmission, and distribution systems face two kinds of exposures: Phase-to-ground and phase-to-phase. The exposure is phase-to-ground: (1) With respect to an energized part, when the employee is at ground potential or (2) with respect to ground, when an employee is at the potential of the energized part during live-line barehand work. The exposure is phase-to-phase, with respect to an energized part, when an employee is at the potential of another energized part (at a different potential) during live-line barehand work.
</P>
<HD1>III. Determination of Minimum Approach Distances for AC Voltages Greater Than 300 Volts
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Voltages of 301 to 5,000 volts.</I> Test data generally forms the basis of minimum air insulation distances. The lowest voltage for which sufficient test data exists is 5,000 volts, and these data indicate that the minimum air insulation distance at that voltage is 20 millimeters (1 inch). Because the minimum air insulation distance increases with increasing voltage, and, conversely, decreases with decreasing voltage, an assumed minimum air insulation distance of 20 millimeters will protect against sparkover at voltages of 301 to 5,000 volts. Thus, 20 millimeters is the electrical component of the minimum approach distance for these voltages.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Voltages of 5.1 to 72.5 kilovolts.</I> For voltages from 5.1 to 72.5 kilovolts, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration bases the methodology for calculating the electrical component of the minimum approach distance on Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) Standard 4-1995, <I>Standard Techniques for High-Voltage Testing.</I> Table 1 lists the critical sparkover distances from that standard as listed in IEEE Std 516-2009, <I>IEEE Guide for Maintenance Methods on Energized Power Lines.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Sparkover Distance for Rod-to-Rod Gap
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">60 Hz Rod-to-Rod sparkover
<br/>(kV peak)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gap spacing from IEEE Std 4-1995
<br/>(cm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">218</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">322</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Source: IEEE Std 516-2009.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>To use this table to determine the electrical component of the minimum approach distance, the employer must determine the peak phase-to-ground transient overvoltage and select a gap from the table that corresponds to that voltage as a withstand voltage rather than a critical sparkover voltage. To calculate the electrical component of the minimum approach distance for voltages between 5 and 72.5 kilovolts, use the following procedure:
</P>
<P>1. Divide the phase-to-phase voltage by the square root of 3 to convert it to a phase-to-ground voltage.
</P>
<P>2. Multiply the phase-to-ground voltage by the square root of 2 to convert the rms value of the voltage to the peak phase-to-ground voltage.
</P>
<P>3. Multiply the peak phase-to-ground voltage by the maximum per-unit transient overvoltage, which, for this voltage range, is 3.0, as discussed later in this appendix. This is the maximum phase-to-ground transient overvoltage, which corresponds to the withstand voltage for the relevant exposure.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The withstand voltage is the voltage at which sparkover is not likely to occur across a specified distance. It is the voltage taken at the 3σ point below the sparkover voltage, assuming that the sparkover curve follows a normal distribution.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. Divide the maximum phase-to-ground transient overvoltage by 0.85 to determine the corresponding critical sparkover voltage. (The critical sparkover voltage is 3 standard deviations (or 15 percent) greater than the withstand voltage.)
</P>
<P>5. Determine the electrical component of the minimum approach distance from Table 1 through interpolation.
</P>
<P>Table 2 illustrates how to derive the electrical component of the minimum approach distance for voltages from 5.1 to 72.5 kilovolts, before the application of any altitude correction factor, as explained later.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Calculating the Electrical Component of MAD 751 V to 72.5 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Step
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum system phase-to-phase voltage (kV)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">15
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">36
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">46
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">72.5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Divide by √3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Multiply by √2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Multiply by 3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">177.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Divide by 0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">132.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">208.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Interpolate from Table 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 + (7.2/10)*1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14 + (8.7/9)*2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 + (12.6/23)*5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35 + (16.9/26)*5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical component of MAD (cm)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38.25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>C. <I>Voltages of 72.6 to 800 kilovolts.</I> For voltages of 72.6 kilovolts to 800 kilovolts, this section bases the electrical component of minimum approach distances, before the application of any altitude correction factor, on the following formula:
</P>
<HD1>Equation 1—For Voltages of 72.6 kV to 800 kV
</HD1>
<FP-2><I>D</I> = 0.3048(<I>C</I> + <I>a</I>) <I>V</I><E T="54">L</E>-<E T="54">G</E><I>T</I>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>D</I> = Electrical component of the minimum approach distance in air in meters;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I> = a correction factor associated with the variation of gap sparkover with voltage;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>a</I> = A factor relating to the saturation of air at system voltages of 345 kilovolts or higher; 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Test data demonstrates that the saturation factor is greater than 0 at peak voltages of about 630 kilovolts. Systems operating at 345 kilovolts (or maximum system voltages of 362 kilovolts) can have peak maximum transient overvoltages exceeding 630 kilovolts. Table R-3 sets equations for calculating <I>a</I> based on peak voltage.</P></FTNT>
<FP-2><I>V</I><E T="54">L-G</E> = Maximum system line-to-ground rms voltage in kilovolts—it should be the “actual” maximum, or the normal highest voltage for the range (for example, 10 percent above the nominal voltage); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I> = Maximum transient overvoltage factor in per unit.
</FP-2>
<P>In Equation 1, <I>C</I> is 0.01: (1) For phase-to-ground exposures that the employer can demonstrate consist only of air across the approach distance (gap) and (2) for phase-to-phase exposures if the employer can demonstrate that no insulated tool spans the gap and that no large conductive object is in the gap. Otherwise, <I>C</I> is 0.011.
</P>
<P>In Equation 1, the term <I>a</I> varies depending on whether the employee's exposure is phase-to-ground or phase-to-phase and on whether objects are in the gap. The employer must use the equations in Table 3 to calculate <I>a.</I> Sparkover test data with insulation spanning the gap form the basis for the equations for phase-to-ground exposures, and sparkover test data with only air in the gap form the basis for the equations for phase-to-phase exposures. The phase-to-ground equations result in slightly higher values of <I>a,</I> and, consequently, produce larger minimum approach distances, than the phase-to-phase equations for the same value of V<E T="52">Peak</E>.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Equations for Calculating the Surge Factor, <E T="03">a</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Phase-to-ground exposures</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E> = <E T="03">T</E><E T="54">L-G</E><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">L-G</E> √2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">635 kV or less</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">635.1 to 915 kV</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">915.1 to 1,050 kV
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a</E></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>- 635)/140,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-645)/135,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E> = <E T="03">T</E><E T="54">L-G</E><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">L-G</E>√2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">More than 1,050 kV
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a</E></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-675)/125,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Phase-to-phase exposures 
<sup>1</sup></E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E> = (1.35<E T="03">T</E><E T="54">L-G</E> + 0.45)<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">L-G</E>√2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">630 kV or less</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">630.1 to 848 kV</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">848.1 to 1,131 kV
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a</E></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-630)/155,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-633.6)/152,207</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E> = (1.35<E T="03">T</E><E T="54">L-G</E> + 0.45)<E T="03">V</E><E T="52">L-G</E>√2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,131.1 to 1,485 kV</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">More than 1,485 kV
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">a</E></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-628)/153,846</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E>-350.5)/203,666
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use the equations for phase-to-ground exposures (with <E T="03">V</E><E T="54">Peak</E> for phase-to-phase exposures) unless the employer can demonstrate that no insulated tool spans the gap and that no large conductive object is in the gap.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>In Equation 1, <I>T</I> is the maximum transient overvoltage factor in per unit. As noted earlier, § 1910.269(l)(3)(ii) requires the employer to determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis or assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table R-9. For phase-to-ground exposures, the employer uses this value, called <I>T</I><E T="54">L-G</E>, as <I>T</I> in Equation 1. IEEE Std 516-2009 provides the following formula to calculate the phase-to-phase maximum transient overvoltage, <I>T</I><E T="54">L-L</E>, from <I>T</I><E T="54">L-G</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>T</I><E T="54">L-L</E> = 1.35<I>T</I><E T="54">L-G</E> + 0.45
</FP-2>
<FP>For phase-to-phase exposures, the employer uses this value as <I>T</I> in Equation 1.
</FP>
<P>D. <I>Provisions for inadvertent movement.</I> The minimum approach distance must include an “adder” to compensate for the inadvertent movement of the worker relative to an energized part or the movement of the part relative to the worker. This “adder” must account for this possible inadvertent movement and provide the worker with a comfortable and safe zone in which to work. Employers must add the distance for inadvertent movement (called the “ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance”) to the electrical component to determine the total safe minimum approach distances used in live-line work.
</P>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration based the ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance on response time-distance analysis. This technique uses an estimate of the total response time to a hazardous incident and converts that time to the distance traveled. For example, the driver of a car takes a given amount of time to respond to a “stimulus” and stop the vehicle. The elapsed time involved results in the car's traveling some distance before coming to a complete stop. This distance depends on the speed of the car at the time the stimulus appears and the reaction time of the driver.
</P>
<P>In the case of live-line work, the employee must first perceive that he or she is approaching the danger zone. Then, the worker responds to the danger and must decelerate and stop all motion toward the energized part. During the time it takes to stop, the employee will travel some distance. This is the distance the employer must add to the electrical component of the minimum approach distance to obtain the total safe minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P>At voltages from 751 volts to 72.5 kilovolts,
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> the electrical component of the minimum approach distance is smaller than the ergonomic component. At 72.5 kilovolts, the electrical component is only a little more than 0.3 meters (1 foot). An ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance must provide for all the worker's unanticipated movements. At these voltages, workers generally use rubber insulating gloves; however, these gloves protect only a worker's hands and arms. Therefore, the energized object must be at a safe approach distance to protect the worker's face. In this case, 0.61 meters (2 feet) is a sufficient and practical ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> For voltages of 50 to 300 volts, Table R-3 specifies a minimum approach distance of “avoid contact.” The minimum approach distance for this voltage range contains neither an electrical component nor an ergonomic component.</P></FTNT>
<P>For voltages between 72.6 and 800 kilovolts, employees must use different work practices during energized line work. Generally, employees use live-line tools (hot sticks) to perform work on energized equipment. These tools, by design, keep the energized part at a constant distance from the employee and, thus, maintain the appropriate minimum approach distance automatically.
</P>
<P>The location of the worker and the type of work methods the worker is using also influence the length of the ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance. In this higher voltage range, the employees use work methods that more tightly control their movements than when the workers perform work using rubber insulating gloves. The worker, therefore, is farther from the energized line or equipment and must be more precise in his or her movements just to perform the work. For these reasons, this section adopts an ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance of 0.31 m (1 foot) for voltages between 72.6 and 800 kilovolts.
</P>
<P>Table 4 summarizes the ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance for various voltage ranges.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Ergonomic Component of Minimum Approach Distance
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range (kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Distance
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.301 to 0.750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.751 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The employer must add this distance to the electrical component of the minimum approach distance to obtain the full minimum approach distance.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance accounts for errors in maintaining the minimum approach distance (which might occur, for example, if an employee misjudges the length of a conductive object he or she is holding), and for errors in judging the minimum approach distance. The ergonomic component also accounts for inadvertent movements by the employee, such as slipping. In contrast, the working position selected to properly maintain the minimum approach distance must account for all of an employee's reasonably likely movements and still permit the employee to adhere to the applicable minimum approach distance. (See Figure 1.) Reasonably likely movements include an employee's adjustments to tools, equipment, and working positions and all movements needed to perform the work. For example, the employee should be able to perform all of the following actions without straying into the minimum approach distance:
</P>
<P>• Adjust his or her hardhat,
</P>
<P>• maneuver a tool onto an energized part with a reasonable amount of overreaching or underreaching,
</P>
<P>• reach for and handle tools, material, and equipment passed to him or her, and
</P>
<P>• adjust tools, and replace components on them, when necessary during the work procedure.
</P>
<P>The training of qualified employees required under § 1910.269(a)(2), and the job planning and briefing required under § 1910.269(c), must address selection of a proper working position.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.024.gif"/>
<P>E. <I>Miscellaneous correction factors.</I> Changes in the air medium that forms the insulation influences the strength of an air gap. A brief discussion of each factor follows.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Dielectric strength of air.</I> The dielectric strength of air in a uniform electric field at standard atmospheric conditions is approximately 3 kilovolts per millimeter.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> The pressure, temperature, and humidity of the air, the shape, dimensions, and separation of the electrodes, and the characteristics of the applied voltage (wave shape) affect the disruptive gradient.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> For the purposes of estimating arc length, § 1910.269 generally assumes a more conservative dielectric strength of 10 kilovolts per 25.4 millimeters, consistent with assumptions made in consensus standards such as the National Electrical Safety Code (IEEE C2-2012). The more conservative value accounts for variables such as electrode shape, wave shape, and a certain amount of overvoltage.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. <I>Atmospheric effect.</I> The empirically determined electrical strength of a given gap is normally applicable at standard atmospheric conditions (20 °C, 101.3 kilopascals, 11 grams/cubic centimeter humidity). An increase in the density (humidity) of the air inhibits sparkover for a given air gap. The combination of temperature and air pressure that results in the lowest gap sparkover voltage is high temperature and low pressure. This combination of conditions is not likely to occur. Low air pressure, generally associated with high humidity, causes increased electrical strength. An average air pressure generally correlates with low humidity. Hot and dry working conditions normally result in reduced electrical strength. The equations for minimum approach distances in Table R-3 assume standard atmospheric conditions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Altitude.</I> The reduced air pressure at high altitudes causes a reduction in the electrical strength of an air gap. An employer must increase the minimum approach distance by about 3 percent per 300 meters (1,000 feet) of increased altitude for altitudes above 900 meters (3,000 feet). Table R-5 specifies the altitude correction factor that the employer must use in calculating minimum approach distances.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Determining Minimum Approach Distances
</HD1>
<HD2>A. <I>Factors Affecting Voltage Stress at the Worksite</I>
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>System voltage (nominal).</I> The nominal system voltage range determines the voltage for purposes of calculating minimum approach distances. The employer selects the range in which the nominal system voltage falls, as given in the relevant table, and uses the highest value within that range in per-unit calculations.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transient overvoltages.</I> Operation of switches or circuit breakers, a fault on a line or circuit or on an adjacent circuit, and similar activities may generate transient overvoltages on an electrical system. Each overvoltage has an associated transient voltage wave shape. The wave shape arriving at the site and its magnitude vary considerably.
</P>
<P>In developing requirements for minimum approach distances, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration considered the most common wave shapes and the magnitude of transient overvoltages found on electric power generation, transmission, and distribution systems. The equations in Table R-3 for minimum approach distances use per-unit maximum transient overvoltages, which are relative to the nominal maximum voltage of the system. For example, a maximum transient overvoltage value of 3.0 per unit indicates that the highest transient overvoltage is 3.0 times the nominal maximum system voltage.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Typical magnitude of overvoltages.</I> Table 5 lists the magnitude of typical transient overvoltages.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Magnitude of Typical Transient Overvoltages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cause
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Magnitude
<br/>(per unit)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energized 200-mile line without closing resistors</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energized 200-mile line with one-step closing resistor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energized 200-mile line with multistep resistor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reclosing with trapped charge one-step resistor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Opening surge with single restrike</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fault initiation unfaulted phase</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fault initiation adjacent circuit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fault clearing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 to 1.9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4. <I>Standard deviation—air-gap withstand.</I> For each air gap length under the same atmospheric conditions, there is a statistical variation in the breakdown voltage. The probability of breakdown against voltage has a normal (Gaussian) distribution. The standard deviation of this distribution varies with the wave shape, gap geometry, and atmospheric conditions. The withstand voltage of the air gap is three standard deviations (3σ) below the critical sparkover voltage. (The critical sparkover voltage is the crest value of the impulse wave that, under specified conditions, causes sparkover 50 percent of the time. An impulse wave of three standard deviations below this value, that is, the withstand voltage, has a probability of sparkover of approximately 1 in 1,000.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Broken Insulators.</I> Tests show reductions in the insulation strength of insulator strings with broken skirts. Broken units may lose up to 70 percent of their withstand capacity. Because an employer cannot determine the insulating capability of a broken unit without testing it, the employer must consider damaged units in an insulator to have no insulating value. Additionally, the presence of a live-line tool alongside an insulator string with broken units may further reduce the overall insulating strength. The number of good units that must be present in a string for it to be “insulated” as defined by § 1910.269(x) depends on the maximum overvoltage possible at the worksite.
</P>
<HD2>B. <I>Minimum Approach Distances Based on Known, Maximum-Anticipated Per-Unit Transient Overvoltages</I>
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Determining the minimum approach distance for AC systems.</I> Under § 1910.269(l)(3)(ii), the employer must determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis or must assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table R-9. When the employer conducts an engineering analysis of the system and determines that the maximum transient overvoltage is lower than specified by Table R-9, the employer must ensure that any conditions assumed in the analysis, for example, that employees block reclosing on a circuit or install portable protective gaps, are present during energized work. To ensure that these conditions are present, the employer may need to institute new live-work procedures reflecting the conditions and limitations set by the engineering analysis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of reduced approach distance values.</I> An employer may take the following steps to reduce minimum approach distances when the maximum transient overvoltage on the system (that is, the maximum transient overvoltage without additional steps to control overvoltages) produces unacceptably large minimum approach distances:
</P>
<P><I>Step 1.</I> Determine the maximum voltage (with respect to a given nominal voltage range) for the energized part.
</P>
<P><I>Step 2.</I> Determine the technique to use to control the maximum transient overvoltage. (See paragraphs IV.C and IV.D of this appendix.) Determine the maximum transient overvoltage that can exist at the worksite with that form of control in place and with a confidence level of 3σ. This voltage is the withstand voltage for the purpose of calculating the appropriate minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P><I>Step 3.</I> Direct employees to implement procedures to ensure that the control technique is in effect during the course of the work.
</P>
<P><I>Step 4.</I> Using the new value of transient overvoltage in per unit, calculate the required minimum approach distance from Table R-3.
</P>
<HD2>C. <I>Methods of Controlling Possible Transient Overvoltage Stress Found on a System</I>
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Introduction.</I> There are several means of controlling overvoltages that occur on transmission systems. For example, the employer can modify the operation of circuit breakers or other switching devices to reduce switching transient overvoltages. Alternatively, the employer can hold the overvoltage to an acceptable level by installing surge arresters or portable protective gaps on the system. In addition, the employer can change the transmission system to minimize the effect of switching operations. Section 4.8 of IEEE Std 516-2009 describes various ways of controlling, and thereby reducing, maximum transient overvoltages.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Operation of circuit breakers.</I> 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> The maximum transient overvoltage that can reach the worksite is often the result of switching on the line on which employees are working. Disabling automatic reclosing during energized line work, so that the line will not be reenergized after being opened for any reason, limits the maximum switching surge overvoltage to the larger of the opening surge or the greatest possible fault-generated surge, provided that the devices (for example, insertion resistors) are operable and will function to limit the transient overvoltage and that circuit breaker restrikes do not occur. The employer must ensure the proper functioning of insertion resistors and other overvoltage-limiting devices when the employer's engineering analysis assumes their proper operation to limit the overvoltage level. If the employer cannot disable the reclosing feature (because of system operating conditions), other methods of controlling the switching surge level may be necessary.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The detailed design of a circuit interrupter, such as the design of the contacts, resistor insertion, and breaker timing control, are beyond the scope of this appendix. The design of the system generally accounts for these features. This appendix only discusses features that can limit the maximum switching transient overvoltage on a system.</P></FTNT>
<P>Transient surges on an adjacent line, particularly for double circuit construction, may cause a significant overvoltage on the line on which employees are working. The employer's engineering analysis must account for coupling to adjacent lines.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Surge arresters.</I> The use of modern surge arresters allows a reduction in the basic impulse-insulation levels of much transmission system equipment. The primary function of early arresters was to protect the system insulation from the effects of lightning. Modern arresters not only dissipate lightning-caused transients, but may also control many other system transients caused by switching or faults.
</P>
<P>The employer may use properly designed arresters to control transient overvoltages along a transmission line and thereby reduce the requisite length of the insulator string and possibly the maximum transient overvoltage on the line.
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Surge arrester application is beyond the scope of this appendix. However, if the employer installs the arrester near the work site, the application would be similar to the protective gaps discussed in paragraph IV.D of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. <I>Switching Restrictions.</I> Another form of overvoltage control involves establishing switching restrictions, whereby the employer prohibits the operation of circuit breakers until certain system conditions are present. The employer restricts switching by using a tagging system, similar to that used for a permit, except that the common term used for this activity is a “hold-off” or “restriction.” These terms indicate that the restriction does not prevent operation, but only modifies the operation during the live-work activity.
</P>
<HD2>D. Minimum Approach Distance Based on Control of Maximum Transient Overvoltage at the Worksite
</HD2>
<P>When the employer institutes control of maximum transient overvoltage at the worksite by installing portable protective gaps, the employer may calculate the minimum approach distance as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Step 1.</I> Select the appropriate withstand voltage for the protective gap based on system requirements and an acceptable probability of gap sparkover.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The employer should check the withstand voltage to ensure that it results in a probability of gap flashover that is acceptable from a system outage perspective. (In other words, a gap sparkover will produce a system outage. The employer should determine whether such an outage will impact overall system performance to an acceptable degree.) In general, the withstand voltage should be at least 1.25 times the maximum crest operating voltage.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Step 2.</I> Determine a gap distance that provides a withstand voltage 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> greater than or equal to the one selected in the first step.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> The manufacturer of the gap provides, based on test data, the critical sparkover voltage for each gap spacing (for example, a critical sparkover voltage of 665 kilovolts for a gap spacing of 1.2 meters). The withstand voltage for the gap is equal to 85 percent of its critical sparkover voltage.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Switch steps 1 and 2 if the length of the protective gap is known.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Step 3.</I> Use 110 percent of the gap's critical sparkover voltage to determine the phase-to-ground peak voltage at gap sparkover (<I>V</I><E T="54">PPG Peak</E>).
</P>
<P><I>Step 4.</I> Determine the maximum transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, at the worksite from the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.025.gif"/>
<P><I>Step 5.</I> Use this value of <I>T</I> 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> in the equation in Table R-3 to obtain the minimum approach distance. If the worksite is no more than 900 meters (3,000 feet) above sea level, the employer may use this value of <I>T</I> to determine the minimum approach distance from Table 14 through Table 21.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> IEEE Std 516-2009 states that most employers add 0.2 to the calculated value of <I>T</I> as an additional safety factor.</P></FTNT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>All rounding must be to the next higher value (that is, always round up).</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Sample protective gap calculations.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Problem:</I> Employees are to perform work on a 500-kilovolt transmission line at sea level that is subject to transient overvoltages of 2.4 p.u. The maximum operating voltage of the line is 550 kilovolts. Determine the length of the protective gap that will provide the minimum practical safe approach distance. Also, determine what that minimum approach distance is.
</P>
<P><I>Step 1.</I> Calculate the smallest practical maximum transient overvoltage (1.25 times the crest phase-to-ground voltage): 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> To eliminate sparkovers due to minor system disturbances, the employer should use a withstand voltage no lower than 1.25 p.u. Note that this is a practical, or operational, consideration only. It may be feasible for the employer to use lower values of withstand voltage.</P></FTNT>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.026.gif"/>
<P>This value equals the withstand voltage of the protective gap.
</P>
<P><I>Step 2.</I> Using test data for a particular protective gap, select a gap that has a critical sparkover voltage greater than or equal to:
</P>
<FP-2>561<I>kV</I> ÷ 0.85 = 660<I>kV</I>
</FP-2>
<FP>For example, if a protective gap with a 1.22-m (4.0-foot) spacing tested to a critical sparkover voltage of 665 kilovolts (crest), select this gap spacing.
</FP>
<P><I>Step 3.</I> The phase-to-ground peak voltage at gap sparkover (<I>V</I><E T="54">PPG Peak</E>) is 110 percent of the value from the previous step:
</P>
<FP-2>665<I>kV</I> × 1.10 = 732<I>kV</I>
</FP-2>
<FP>This value corresponds to the withstand voltage of the electrical component of the minimum approach distance.
</FP>
<P><I>Step 4.</I> Use this voltage to determine the worksite value of <I>T:</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.027.gif"/>
<P><I>Step 5.</I> Use this value of <I>T</I> in the equation in Table R-3 to obtain the minimum approach distance, or look up the minimum approach distance in Table 14 through Table 21:
</P>
<FP-2><I>MAD</I> = 2.29m (7.6 ft).
</FP-2>
<HD2>E. Location of Protective Gaps
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Adjacent structures.</I> The employer may install the protective gap on a structure adjacent to the worksite, as this practice does not significantly reduce the protection afforded by the gap.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Terminal stations.</I> Gaps installed at terminal stations of lines or circuits provide a level of protection; however, that level of protection may not extend throughout the length of the line to the worksite. The use of substation terminal gaps raises the possibility that separate surges could enter the line at opposite ends, each with low enough magnitude to pass the terminal gaps without sparkover. When voltage surges occur simultaneously at each end of a line and travel toward each other, the total voltage on the line at the point where they meet is the arithmetic sum of the two surges. A gap installed within 0.8 km (0.5 mile) of the worksite will protect against such intersecting waves. Engineering studies of a particular line or system may indicate that employers can adequately protect employees by installing gaps at even more distant locations. In any event, unless using the default values for <I>T</I> from Table R-9, the employer must determine <I>T</I> at the worksite.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Worksite.</I> If the employer installs protective gaps at the worksite, the gap setting establishes the worksite impulse insulation strength. Lightning strikes as far as 6 miles from the worksite can cause a voltage surge greater than the gap withstand voltage, and a gap sparkover can occur. In addition, the gap can sparkover from overvoltages on the line that exceed the withstand voltage of the gap. Consequently, the employer must protect employees from hazards resulting from any sparkover that could occur.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Disabling automatic reclosing.</I> There are two reasons to disable the automatic-reclosing feature of circuit-interrupting devices while employees are performing live-line work:
</P>
<P>• To prevent reenergization of a circuit faulted during the work, which could create a hazard or result in more serious injuries or damage than the injuries or damage produced by the original fault;
</P>
<P>• To prevent any transient overvoltage caused by the switching surge that would result if the circuit were reenergized.
</P>
<FP>However, due to system stability considerations, it may not always be feasible to disable the automatic-reclosing feature.
</FP>
<HD1>V. Minimum Approach-Distance Tables
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Legacy tables.</I> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in Table 6 through Table 13 until March 31, 2015.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6—Minimum Approach Distances Until December 31, 2014
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range phase to phase (kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.05 to 1.0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Avoid Contact</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Avoid Contact
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.1 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">138 to 145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">161 to 169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230 to 242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">345 to 362</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500 to 550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">765 to 800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.00
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The clear live-line tool distance must equal or exceed the values for the indicated voltage ranges.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—Minimum Approach Distances Until March 31, 2015—72.6 to 121.0 kV With Overvoltage Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 1:</E> The employer may apply the distance specified in this table only where the employer determines the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage by engineering analysis. (Table 6 applies otherwise.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 2:</E> The distances specified in this table are the air, bare-hand, and live-line tool distances.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8—Minimum Approach Distances Until March 31, 2015—121.1 to 145.0 kV With Overvoltage Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.92
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 1:</E> The employer may apply the distance specified in this table only where the employer determines the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage by engineering analysis. (Table 6 applies otherwise.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 2:</E> The distances specified in this table are the air, bare-hand, and live-line tool distances.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9—Minimum Approach Distances Until March 31, 2015—145.1 to 169.0 kV With Overvoltage Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.67
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 1:</E> The employer may apply the distance specified in this table only where the employer determines the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage by engineering analysis. (Table 6 applies otherwise.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 2:</E> The distances specified in this table are the air, bare-hand, and live-line tool distances.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10—Minimum Approach Distances Until March 31, 2015—169.1 to 242.0 kV With Overvoltage Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 1:</E> The employer may apply the distance specified in this table only where the employer determines the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage by engineering analysis. (Table 6 applies otherwise.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 2:</E> The distances specified in this table are the air, bare-hand, and live-line tool distances.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11—Minimum Approach Distances Until March 31, 2015—242.1 to 362.0 kV With Overvoltage Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.50
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 1:</E> The employer may apply the distance specified in this table only where the employer determines the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage by engineering analysis. (Table 6 applies otherwise.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 2:</E> The distances specified in this table are the air, bare-hand, and live-line tool distances.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12—Minimum Approach Distances Until March 31, 2015—362.1 to 552.0 kV With Overvoltage Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.08
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 1:</E> The employer may apply the distance specified in this table only where the employer determines the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage by engineering analysis. (Table 6 applies otherwise.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 2:</E> The distances specified in this table are the air, bare-hand, and live-line tool distances.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13—Minimum Approach Distances Until March 31, 2015—552.1 to 800.0 kV With Overvoltage Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.00
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 1:</E> The employer may apply the distance specified in this table only where the employer determines the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage by engineering analysis. (Table 6 applies otherwise.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note 2:</E> The distances specified in this table are the air, bare-hand, and live-line tool distances.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>B. <I>Alternative minimum approach distances.</I> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in Table 14 through Table 21 provided that the employer follows the notes to those tables.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14—AC Minimum Approach Distances—72.6 to 121.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15—AC Minimum Approach Distances—121.1 to 145.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16—AC Minimum Approach Distances—145.1 to 169.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 17—AC Minimum Approach Distances—169.1 to 242.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 18—AC Minimum Approach Distances—242.1 to 362.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 19—AC Minimum Approach Distances—362.1 to 420.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 20—AC Minimum Approach Distances—420.1 to 550.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 21—AC Minimum Approach Distances—550.1 to 800.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.3
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes to Table 14 through Table 21:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. The employer must determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis, as required by § 1910.269(l)(3)(ii), or assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table R-9.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. For phase-to-phase exposures, the employer must demonstrate that no insulated tool spans the gap and that no large conductive object is in the gap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. The worksite must be at an elevation of 900 meters (3,000 feet) or less above sea level.</P></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.269—Protection From Hazardous Differences in Electric Potential
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Current passing through an impedance impresses voltage across that impedance. Even conductors have some, albeit low, value of impedance. Therefore, if a “grounded” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> object, such as a crane or deenergized and grounded power line, results in a ground fault on a power line, voltage is impressed on that grounded object. The voltage impressed on the grounded object depends largely on the voltage on the line, on the impedance of the faulted conductor, and on the impedance to “true,” or “absolute,” ground represented by the object. If the impedance of the object causing the fault is relatively large, the voltage impressed on the object is essentially the phase-to-ground system voltage. However, even faults to grounded power lines or to well grounded transmission towers or substation structures (which have relatively low values of impedance to ground) can result in hazardous voltages.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> In all cases, the degree of the hazard depends on the magnitude of the current through the employee and the time of exposure. This appendix discusses methods of protecting workers against the possibility that grounded objects, such as cranes and other mechanical equipment, will contact energized power lines and that deenergized and grounded power lines will become accidentally energized.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This appendix generally uses the term “grounded” only with respect to grounding that the employer intentionally installs, for example, the grounding an employer installs on a deenergized conductor. However, in this case, the term “grounded” means connected to earth, regardless of whether or not that connection is intentional.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Thus, grounding systems for transmission towers and substation structures should be designed to minimize the step and touch potentials involved.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Voltage-Gradient Distribution
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Voltage-gradient distribution curve.</I> Absolute, or true, ground serves as a reference and always has a voltage of 0 volts above ground potential. Because there is an impedance between a grounding electrode and absolute ground, there will be a voltage difference between the grounding electrode and absolute ground under ground-fault conditions. Voltage dissipates from the grounding electrode (or from the grounding point) and creates a ground potential gradient. The voltage decreases rapidly with increasing distance from the grounding electrode. A voltage drop associated with this dissipation of voltage is a ground potential. Figure 1 is a typical voltage-gradient distribution curve (assuming a uniform soil texture).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.028.gif"/>
<P>B. <I>Step and touch potentials.</I> Figure 1 also shows that workers are at risk from step and touch potentials. Step potential is the voltage between the feet of a person standing near an energized grounded object (the electrode). In Figure 1, the step potential is equal to the difference in voltage between two points at different distances from the electrode (where the points represent the location of each foot in relation to the electrode). A person could be at risk of injury during a fault simply by standing near the object.
</P>
<P>Touch potential is the voltage between the energized grounded object (again, the electrode) and the feet of a person in contact with the object. In Figure 1, the touch potential is equal to the difference in voltage between the electrode (which is at a distance of 0 meters) and a point some distance away from the electrode (where the point represents the location of the feet of the person in contact with the object). The touch potential could be nearly the full voltage across the grounded object if that object is grounded at a point remote from the place where the person is in contact with it. For example, a crane grounded to the system neutral and that contacts an energized line would expose any person in contact with the crane or its uninsulated load line to a touch potential nearly equal to the full fault voltage.
</P>
<P>Figure 2 illustrates step and touch potentials.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.029.gif"/>
<HD1>III. Protecting Workers From Hazardous Differences in Electrical Potential
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to section III of this appendix:
</P>
<P><I>Bond.</I> The electrical interconnection of conductive parts designed to maintain a common electric potential.
</P>
<P><I>Bonding cable (bonding jumper).</I> A cable connected to two conductive parts to bond the parts together.
</P>
<P><I>Cluster bar.</I> A terminal temporarily attached to a structure that provides a means for the attachment and bonding of grounding and bonding cables to the structure.
</P>
<P><I>Ground.</I> A conducting connection between an electric circuit or equipment and the earth, or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding cable (grounding jumper).</I> A cable connected between a deenergized part and ground. Note that grounding cables carry fault current and bonding cables generally do not. A cable that bonds two conductive parts but carries substantial fault current (for example, a jumper connected between one phase and a grounded phase) is a grounding cable.
</P>
<P><I>Ground mat (grounding grid).</I> A temporarily or permanently installed metallic mat or grating that establishes an equipotential surface and provides connection points for attaching grounds.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Analyzing the hazard.</I> The employer can use an engineering analysis of the power system under fault conditions to determine whether hazardous step and touch voltages will develop. The analysis should determine the voltage on all conductive objects in the work area and the amount of time the voltage will be present. Based on the this analysis, the employer can select appropriate measures and protective equipment, including the measures and protective equipment outlined in Section III of this appendix, to protect each employee from hazardous differences in electric potential. For example, from the analysis, the employer will know the voltage remaining on conductive objects after employees install bonding and grounding equipment and will be able to select insulating equipment with an appropriate rating, as described in paragraph III.C.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Protecting workers on the ground.</I> The employer may use several methods, including equipotential zones, insulating equipment, and restricted work areas, to protect employees on the ground from hazardous differences in electrical potential.
</P>
<P>1. An equipotential zone will protect workers within it from hazardous step and touch potentials. (See Figure 3.) Equipotential zones will not, however, protect employees located either wholly or partially outside the protected area. The employer can establish an equipotential zone for workers on the ground, with respect to a grounded object, through the use of a metal mat connected to the grounded object. The employer can use a grounding grid to equalize the voltage within the grid or bond conductive objects in the immediate work area to minimize the potential between the objects and between each object and ground. (Bonding an object outside the work area can increase the touch potential to that object, however.) Section III.D of this appendix discusses equipotential zones for employees working on deenergized and grounded power lines.
</P>
<P>2. Insulating equipment, such as rubber gloves, can protect employees handling grounded equipment and conductors from hazardous touch potentials. The insulating equipment must be rated for the highest voltage that can be impressed on the grounded objects under fault conditions (rather than for the full system voltage).
</P>
<P>3. Restricting employees from areas where hazardous step or touch potentials could arise can protect employees not directly involved in performing the operation. The employer must ensure that employees on the ground in the vicinity of transmission structures are at a distance where step voltages would be insufficient to cause injury. Employees must not handle grounded conductors or equipment likely to become energized to hazardous voltages unless the employees are within an equipotential zone or protected by insulating equipment.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.030.gif"/>
<P>D. <I>Protecting employees working on deenergized and grounded power lines.</I> This Section III.D of Appendix C establishes guidelines to help employers comply with requirements in § 1910.269(n) for using protective grounding to protect employees working on deenergized power lines. Paragraph (n) of § 1910.269 applies to grounding of transmission and distribution lines and equipment for the purpose of protecting workers. Paragraph (n)(3) of § 1910.269 requires temporary protective grounds to be placed at such locations and arranged in such a manner that the employer can demonstrate will prevent exposure of each employee to hazardous differences in electric potential.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Sections III.D.1 and III.D.2 of this appendix provide guidelines that employers can use in making the demonstration required by § 1910.269(n)(3). Section III.D.1 of this appendix provides guidelines on how the employer can determine whether particular grounding practices expose employees to hazardous differences in electric potential. Section III.D.2 of this appendix describes grounding methods that the employer can use in lieu of an engineering analysis to make the demonstration required by § 1910.269(n)(3). The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider employers that comply with the criteria in this appendix as meeting § 1910.269(n)(3).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The protective grounding required by § 1910.269(n) limits to safe values the potential differences between accessible objects in each employee's work environment. Ideally, a protective grounding system would create a true equipotential zone in which every point is at the same electric potential. In practice, current passing through the grounding and bonding elements creates potential differences. If these potential differences are hazardous, the employer may not treat the zone as an equipotential zone.</P></FTNT>
<P>Finally, Section III.D.3 of this appendix discusses other safety considerations that will help the employer comply with other requirements in § 1910.269(n). Following these guidelines will protect workers from hazards that can occur when a deenergized and grounded line becomes energized.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determining safe body current limits.</I> This Section III.D.1 of Appendix C provides guidelines on how an employer can determine whether any differences in electric potential to which workers could be exposed are hazardous as part of the demonstration required by § 1910.269(n)(3).
</P>
<P>Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) Standard 1048-2003, <I>IEEE Guide for Protective Grounding of Power Lines,</I> provides the following equation for determining the threshold of ventricular fibrillation when the duration of the electric shock is limited:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.031.gif"/>
<FP>where <I>I</I> is the current through the worker's body, and <I>t</I> is the duration of the current in seconds. This equation represents the ventricular fibrillation threshold for 95.5 percent of the adult population with a mass of 50 kilograms (110 pounds) or more. The equation is valid for current durations between 0.0083 to 3.0 seconds.
</FP>
<P>To use this equation to set safe voltage limits in an equipotential zone around the worker, the employer will need to assume a value for the resistance of the worker's body. IEEE Std 1048-2003 states that “total body resistance is usually taken as 1000 Ω for determining . . . body current limits.” However, employers should be aware that the impedance of a worker's body can be substantially less than that value. For instance, IEEE Std 1048-2003 reports a minimum hand-to-hand resistance of 610 ohms and an internal body resistance of 500 ohms. The internal resistance of the body better represents the minimum resistance of a worker's body when the skin resistance drops near zero, which occurs, for example, when there are breaks in the worker's skin, for instance, from cuts or from blisters formed as a result of the current from an electric shock, or when the worker is wet at the points of contact.
</P>
<P>Employers may use the IEEE Std 1048-2003 equation to determine safe body current limits only if the employer protects workers from hazards associated with involuntary muscle reactions from electric shock (for example, the hazard to a worker from falling as a result of an electric shock). Moreover, the equation applies only when the duration of the electric shock is limited. If the precautions the employer takes, including those required by applicable standards, do not adequately protect employees from hazards associated with involuntary reactions from electric shock, a hazard exists if the induced voltage is sufficient to pass a current of 1 milliampere through a 500-ohm resistor. (The 500-ohm resistor represents the resistance of an employee. The 1-milliampere current is the threshold of perception.) Finally, if the employer protects employees from injury due to involuntary reactions from electric shock, but the duration of the electric shock is unlimited (that is, when the fault current at the work location will be insufficient to trip the devices protecting the circuit), a hazard exists if the resultant current would be more than 6 milliamperes (the recognized let-go threshold for workers 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Electric current passing through the body has varying effects depending on the amount of the current. At the let-go threshold, the current overrides a person's control over his or her muscles. At that level, an employee grasping an object will not be able to let go of the object. The let-go threshold varies from person to person; however, the recognized value for workers is 6 milliamperes.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. <I>Acceptable methods of grounding for employers that do not perform an engineering determination.</I> The grounding methods presented in this section of this appendix ensure that differences in electric potential are as low as possible and, therefore, meet § 1910.269(n)(3) without an engineering determination of the potential differences. These methods follow two principles: (i) The grounding method must ensure that the circuit opens in the fastest available clearing time, and (ii) the grounding method must ensure that the potential differences between conductive objects in the employee's work area are as low as possible.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (n)(3) of § 1910.269 does not require grounding methods to meet the criteria embodied in these principles. Instead, the paragraph requires that protective grounds be “placed at such locations and arranged in such a manner that the employer can demonstrate will prevent exposure of each employee to hazardous differences in electric potential.” However, when the employer's grounding practices do not follow these two principles, the employer will need to perform an engineering analysis to make the demonstration required by § 1910.269(n)(3).
</P>
<P>i. <I>Ensuring that the circuit opens in the fastest available clearing time.</I> Generally, the higher the fault current, the shorter the clearing times for the same type of fault. Therefore, to ensure the fastest available clearing time, the grounding method must maximize the fault current with a low impedance connection to ground. The employer accomplishes this objective by grounding the circuit conductors to the best ground available at the worksite. Thus, the employer must ground to a grounded system neutral conductor, if one is present. A grounded system neutral has a direct connection to the system ground at the source, resulting in an extremely low impedance to ground. In a substation, the employer may instead ground to the substation grid, which also has an extremely low impedance to the system ground and, typically, is connected to a grounded system neutral when one is present. Remote system grounds, such as pole and tower grounds, have a higher impedance to the system ground than grounded system neutrals and substation grounding grids; however, the employer may use a remote ground when lower impedance grounds are not available. In the absence of a grounded system neutral, substation grid, and remote ground, the employer may use a temporary driven ground at the worksite.
</P>
<P>In addition, if employees are working on a three-phase system, the grounding method must short circuit all three phases. Short circuiting all phases will ensure faster clearing and lower the current through the grounding cable connecting the deenergized line to ground, thereby lowering the voltage across that cable. The short circuit need not be at the worksite; however, the employer must treat any conductor that is not grounded at the worksite as energized because the ungrounded conductors will be energized at fault voltage during a fault.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Ensuring that the potential differences between conductive objects in the employee's work area are as low as possible.</I> To achieve as low a voltage as possible across any two conductive objects in the work area, the employer must bond all conductive objects in the work area. This section of this appendix discusses how to create a zone that minimizes differences in electric potential between conductive objects in the work area.
</P>
<P>The employer must use bonding cables to bond conductive objects, except for metallic objects bonded through metal-to-metal contact. The employer must ensure that metal-to-metal contacts are tight and free of contamination, such as oxidation, that can increase the impedance across the connection. For example, a bolted connection between metal lattice tower members is acceptable if the connection is tight and free of corrosion and other contamination. Figure 4 shows how to create an equipotential zone for metal lattice towers.
</P>
<P>Wood poles are conductive objects. The poles can absorb moisture and conduct electricity, particularly at distribution and transmission voltages. Consequently, the employer must either: (1) Provide a conductive platform, bonded to a grounding cable, on which the worker stands or (2) use cluster bars to bond wood poles to the grounding cable. The employer must ensure that employees install the cluster bar below, and close to, the worker's feet. The inner portion of the wood pole is more conductive than the outer shell, so it is important that the cluster bar be in conductive contact with a metal spike or nail that penetrates the wood to a depth greater than or equal to the depth the worker's climbing gaffs will penetrate the wood. For example, the employer could mount the cluster bar on a bare pole ground wire fastened to the pole with nails or staples that penetrate to the required depth. Alternatively, the employer may temporarily nail a conductive strap to the pole and connect the strap to the cluster bar. Figure 5 shows how to create an equipotential zone for wood poles.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.033.gif"/>
<P>For underground systems, employers commonly install grounds at the points of disconnection of the underground cables. These grounding points are typically remote from the manhole or underground vault where employees will be working on the cable. Workers in contact with a cable grounded at a remote location can experience hazardous potential differences if the cable becomes energized or if a fault occurs on a different, but nearby, energized cable. The fault current causes potential gradients in the earth, and a potential difference will exist between the earth where the worker is standing and the earth where the cable is grounded. Consequently, to create an equipotential zone for the worker, the employer must provide a means of connecting the deenergized cable to ground at the worksite by having the worker stand on a conductive mat bonded to the deenergized cable. If the cable is cut, the employer must install a bond across the opening in the cable or install one bond on each side of the opening to ensure that the separate cable ends are at the same potential. The employer must protect the worker from any hazardous differences in potential any time there is no bond between the mat and the cable (for example, before the worker installs the bonds).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other safety-related considerations.</I> To ensure that the grounding system is safe and effective, the employer should also consider the following factors: 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> This appendix only discusses factors that relate to ensuring an equipotential zone for employees. The employer must consider other factors in selecting a grounding system that is capable of conducting the maximum fault current that could flow at the point of grounding for the time necessary to clear the fault, as required by § 1910.269(n)(4)(i). IEEE Std 1048-2003 contains guidelines for selecting and installing grounding equipment that will meet § 1910.269(n)(4)(i).</P></FTNT>
<P>i. <I>Maintenance of grounding equipment.</I> It is essential that the employer properly maintain grounding equipment. Corrosion in the connections between grounding cables and clamps and on the clamp surface can increase the resistance of the cable, thereby increasing potential differences. In addition, the surface to which a clamp attaches, such as a conductor or tower member, must be clean and free of corrosion and oxidation to ensure a low-resistance connection. Cables must be free of damage that could reduce their current-carrying capacity so that they can carry the full fault current without failure. Each clamp must have a tight connection to the cable to ensure a low resistance and to ensure that the clamp does not separate from the cable during a fault.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Grounding cable length and movement.</I> The electromagnetic forces on grounding cables during a fault increase with increasing cable length. These forces can cause the cable to move violently during a fault and can be high enough to damage the cable or clamps and cause the cable to fail. In addition, flying cables can injure workers. Consequently, cable lengths should be as short as possible, and grounding cables that might carry high fault current should be in positions where the cables will not injure workers during a fault.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.269—Methods of Inspecting and Testing Wood Poles
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>When employees are to perform work on a wood pole, it is important to determine the condition of the pole before employees climb it. The weight of the employee, the weight of equipment to be installed, and other working stresses (such as the removal or retensioning of conductors) can lead to the failure of a defective pole or a pole that is not designed to handle the additional stresses.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> For these reasons, it is essential that, before an employee climbs a wood pole, the employer ascertain that the pole is capable of sustaining the stresses of the work. The determination that the pole is capable of sustaining these stresses includes an inspection of the condition of the pole.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A properly guyed pole in good condition should, at a minimum, be able to handle the weight of an employee climbing it.</P></FTNT>
<P>If the employer finds the pole to be unsafe to climb or to work from, the employer must secure the pole so that it does not fail while an employee is on it. The employer can secure the pole by a line truck boom, by ropes or guys, or by lashing a new pole alongside it. If a new one is lashed alongside the defective pole, employees should work from the new one.
</P>
<HD1>II. Inspecting Wood Poles
</HD1>
<P>A qualified employee should inspect wood poles for the following conditions: 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The presence of any of these conditions is an indication that the pole may not be safe to climb or to work from. The employee performing the inspection must be qualified to make a determination as to whether it is safe to perform the work without taking additional precautions.</P></FTNT>
<P>A. <I>General condition.</I> Buckling at the ground line or an unusual angle with respect to the ground may indicate that the pole has rotted or is broken.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Cracks.</I> Horizontal cracks perpendicular to the grain of the wood may weaken the pole. Vertical cracks, although not normally considered to be a sign of a defective pole, can pose a hazard to the climber, and the employee should keep his or her gaffs away from them while climbing.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Holes.</I> Hollow spots and woodpecker holes can reduce the strength of a wood pole.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Shell rot and decay.</I> Rotting and decay are cutout hazards and possible indications of the age and internal condition of the pole.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Knots.</I> One large knot or several smaller ones at the same height on the pole may be evidence of a weak point on the pole.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Depth of setting.</I> Evidence of the existence of a former ground line substantially above the existing ground level may be an indication that the pole is no longer buried to a sufficient depth.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Soil conditions.</I> Soft, wet, or loose soil around the base of the pole may indicate that the pole will not support any change in stress.
</P>
<P>H. <I>Burn marks.</I> Burning from transformer failures or conductor faults could damage the pole so that it cannot withstand changes in mechanical stress.
</P>
<HD1>III. Testing Wood Poles
</HD1>
<P>The following tests, which are from § 1910.268(n)(3), are acceptable methods of testing wood poles:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Hammer test.</I> Rap the pole sharply with a hammer weighing about 1.4 kg (3 pounds), starting near the ground line and continuing upwards circumferentially around the pole to a height of approximately 1.8 meters (6 feet). The hammer will produce a clear sound and rebound sharply when striking sound wood. Decay pockets will be indicated by a dull sound or a less pronounced hammer rebound. Also, prod the pole as near the ground line as possible using a pole prod or a screwdriver with a blade at least 127 millimeters (5 inches) long. If substantial decay is present, the pole is unsafe.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Rocking test.</I> Apply a horizontal force to the pole and attempt to rock it back and forth in a direction perpendicular to the line. Exercise caution to avoid causing power lines to swing together. Apply the force to the pole either by pushing it with a pike pole or pulling the pole with a rope. If the pole cracks during the test, it is unsafe.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1910.269—Protection From Flames and Electric Arcs 
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Paragraph (l)(8) of § 1910.269 addresses protecting employees from flames and electric arcs. This paragraph requires employers to: (1) Assess the workplace for flame and electric-arc hazards (paragraph (l)(8)(i)); (2) estimate the available heat energy from electric arcs to which employees would be exposed (paragraph (l)(8)(ii)); (3) ensure that employees wear clothing that will not melt, or ignite and continue to burn, when exposed to flames or the estimated heat energy (paragraph (l)(8)(iii)); and (4) ensure that employees wear flame-resistant clothing 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and protective clothing and other protective equipment that has an arc rating greater than or equal to the available heat energy under certain conditions (paragraphs (l)(8)(iv) and (l)(8)(v)). This appendix contains information to help employers estimate available heat energy as required by § 1910.269(l)(8)(ii), select protective clothing and other protective equipment with an arc rating suitable for the available heat energy as required by § 1910.269(l)(8)(v), and ensure that employees do not wear flammable clothing that could lead to burn injury as addressed by §§ 1910.269(l)(8)(iii) and (l)(8)(iv).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Flame-resistant clothing includes clothing that is inherently flame resistant and clothing chemically treated with a flame retardant. (See ASTM F1506-10a, <I>Standard Performance Specification for Flame Resistant Textile Materials for Wearing Apparel for Use by Electrical Workers Exposed to Momentary Electric Arc and Related Thermal Hazards,</I> and ASTM F1891-12 <I>Standard Specification for Arc and Flame Resistant Rainwear.</I>)</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Assessing the Workplace for Flame and Electric-Arc Hazards
</HD1>
<P>Paragraph (l)(8)(i) of § 1910.269 requires the employer to assess the workplace to identify employees exposed to hazards from flames or from electric arcs. This provision ensures that the employer evaluates employee exposure to flames and electric arcs so that employees who face such exposures receive the required protection. The employer must conduct an assessment for each employee who performs work on or near exposed, energized parts of electric circuits.
</P>
<HD2>A. <I>Assessment Guidelines</I>
</HD2>
<P><I>Sources electric arcs.</I> Consider possible sources of electric arcs, including:
</P>
<P>• Energized circuit parts not guarded or insulated,
</P>
<P>• Switching devices that produce electric arcs in normal operation,
</P>
<P>• Sliding parts that could fault during operation (for example, rack-mounted circuit breakers), and
</P>
<P>• Energized electric equipment that could fail (for example, electric equipment with damaged insulation or with evidence of arcing or overheating).
</P>
<P><I>Exposure to flames.</I> Identify employees exposed to hazards from flames. Factors to consider include:
</P>
<P>• The proximity of employees to open flames, and
</P>
<P>• For flammable material in the work area, whether there is a reasonable likelihood that an electric arc or an open flame can ignite the material.
</P>
<P><I>Probability that an electric arc will occur.</I> Identify employees exposed to electric-arc hazards. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider an employee exposed to electric-arc hazards if there is a reasonable likelihood that an electric arc will occur in the employee's work area, in other words, if the probability of such an event is higher than it is for the normal operation of enclosed equipment. Factors to consider include:
</P>
<P>• For energized circuit parts not guarded or insulated, whether conductive objects can come too close to or fall onto the energized parts,
</P>
<P>• For exposed, energized circuit parts, whether the employee is closer to the part than the minimum approach distance established by the employer (as permitted by § 1910.269(l)(3)(iii)).
</P>
<P>• Whether the operation of electric equipment with sliding parts that could fault during operation is part of the normal operation of the equipment or occurs during servicing or maintenance, and
</P>
<P>• For energized electric equipment, whether there is evidence of impending failure, such as evidence of arcing or overheating.
</P>
<HD2>B. Examples
</HD2>
<P>Table 1 provides task-based examples of exposure assessments.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Example Assessments for Various Tasks
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Task</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Is employee exposed to flame or electric-arc hazard?
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Normal operation of enclosed equipment, such as closing or opening a switch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The employer properly installs and maintains enclosed equipment, and there is no evidence of impending failure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is evidence of arcing or overheating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parts of the equipment are loose or sticking, or the equipment otherwise exhibits signs of lack of maintenance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Servicing electric equipment, such as racking in a circuit breaker or replacing a switch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inspection of electric equipment with exposed energized parts.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The employee is not holding conductive objects and remains outside the minimum approach distance established by the employer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The employee is holding a conductive object, such as a flashlight, that could fall or otherwise contact energized parts (irrespective of whether the employee maintains the minimum approach distance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The employee is closer than the minimum approach distance established by the employer (for example, when wearing rubber insulating gloves or rubber insulating gloves and sleeves)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Using open flames, for example, in wiping cable splice sleeves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>III. Protection Against Burn Injury
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Estimating Available Heat Energy
</HD2>
<P><I>Calculation methods.</I> Paragraph (l)(8)(ii) of § 1910.269 provides that, for each employee exposed to an electric-arc hazard, the employer must make a reasonable estimate of the heat energy to which the employee would be exposed if an arc occurs. Table 2 lists various methods of calculating values of available heat energy from an electric circuit. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration does not endorse any of these specific methods. Each method requires the input of various parameters, such as fault current, the expected length of the electric arc, the distance from the arc to the employee, and the clearing time for the fault (that is, the time the circuit protective devices take to open the circuit and clear the fault). The employer can precisely determine some of these parameters, such as the fault current and the clearing time, for a given system. The employer will need to estimate other parameters, such as the length of the arc and the distance between the arc and the employee, because such parameters vary widely.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Methods of Calculating Incident Heat Energy From an Electric Arc
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. <E T="03">Standard for Electrical Safety Requirements for Employee Workplaces,</E> NFPA 70E-2012, Annex D, “Sample Calculation of Flash Protection Boundary.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Doughty, T.E., Neal, T.E., and Floyd II, H.L., “Predicting Incident Energy to Better Manage the Electric Arc Hazard on 600 V Power Distribution Systems,” <E T="03">Record of Conference Papers IEEE IAS 45th Annual Petroleum and Chemical Industry Conference,</E> September 28-30, 1998.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. <E T="03">Guide for Performing Arc-Flash Hazard Calculations,</E> IEEE Std 1584-2002, 1584a-2004 (Amendment 1 to IEEE Std 1584-2002), and 1584b-2011 (Amendment 2: Changes to Clause 4 of IEEE Std 1584-2002).*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. ARCPRO, a commercially available software program developed by Kinectrics, Toronto, ON, CA.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* This appendix refers to IEEE Std 1584-2002 with both amendments as IEEE Std 1584b-2011.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The amount of heat energy calculated by any of the methods is approximately inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the employee and the arc. In other words, if the employee is very close to the arc, the heat energy is very high; but if the employee is just a few more centimeters away, the heat energy drops substantially. Thus, estimating the distance from the arc to the employee is key to protecting employees.
</P>
<P>The employer must select a method of estimating incident heat energy that provides a reasonable estimate of incident heat energy for the exposure involved. Table 3 shows which methods provide reasonable estimates for various exposures.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Selecting a Reasonable Incident-Energy Calculation Method 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Incident-energy calculation method
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">600 V and Less 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">601 V to 15 kV 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">More than 15 kV
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1Φ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φa
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1Φ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φa
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1Φ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φa
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NFPA 70E-2012 Annex D (Lee equation)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Doughty, Neal, and Floyd</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IEEE Std 1584b-2011</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ARCPRO</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Key:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1Φ: Single-phase arc in open air.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3Φa: Three-phase arc in open air.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3Φb: Three-phase arc in an enclosure (box).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Y: Acceptable; produces a reasonable estimate of incident heat energy from this type of electric arc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">N: Not acceptable; does not produce a reasonable estimate of incident heat energy from this type of electric arc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Y-C: Acceptable; produces a reasonable, but conservative, estimate of incident heat energy from this type of electric arc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Although the Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider these methods reasonable for enforcement purposes when employers use the methods in accordance with this table, employers should be aware that the listed methods do not necessarily result in estimates that will provide full protection from internal faults in transformers and similar equipment or from arcs in underground manholes or vaults.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> At these voltages, the presumption is that the arc is three-phase unless the employer can demonstrate that only one phase is present or that the spacing of the phases is sufficient to prevent a multiphase arc from occurring.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Although the Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider this method acceptable for purposes of assessing whether incident energy exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>, the results at voltages of more than 15 kilovolts are extremely conservative and unrealistic.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will deem the results of this method reasonable when the employer adjusts them using the conversion factors for three-phase arcs in open air or in an enclosure, as indicated in the program's instructions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Selecting a reasonable distance from the employee to the arc.</I> In estimating available heat energy, the employer must make some reasonable assumptions about how far the employee will be from the electric arc. Table 4 lists reasonable distances from the employee to the electric arc. The distances in Table 4 are consistent with national consensus standards, such as the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers' <I>National Electrical Safety Code,</I> ANSI/IEEE C2-2012, and <I>IEEE Guide for Performing Arc-Flash Hazard Calculations,</I> IEEE Std 1584b-2011. The employer is free to use other reasonable distances, but must consider equipment enclosure size and the working distance to the employee in selecting a distance from the employee to the arc. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider a distance reasonable when the employer bases it on equipment size and working distance.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Selecting a Reasonable Distance From the Employee to the Electric Arc
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Single-phase arc mm
<br/>(inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Three-phase arc mm
<br/>(inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cable</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">* NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">455 (18)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low voltage MCCs and panelboards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">455 (18)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low-voltage switchgear</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610 (24)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-kV switchgear</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">910 (36)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15-kV switchgear</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">910 (36)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single conductors in air (up to 46 kilovolts), work with rubber insulating gloves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">380 (15)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single conductors in air, work with live-line tools and live-line barehand work</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">MAD</E> − (2 × <E T="03">kV</E> × 2.54)
<br/>(<E T="03">MAD</E> − (2 × <E T="03">kV</E> /10)) †</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* NA = not applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">† The terms in this equation are:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">MAD</E> = The applicable minimum approach distance, and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">kV</E> = The system voltage in kilovolts.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Selecting a reasonable arc gap.</I> For a single-phase arc in air, the electric arc will almost always occur when an energized conductor approaches too close to ground. Thus, an employer can determine the arc gap, or arc length, for these exposures by the dielectric strength of air and the voltage on the line. The dielectric strength of air is approximately 10 kilovolts for every 25.4 millimeters (1 inch). For example, at 50 kilovolts, the arc gap would be 50 ÷ 10 × 25.4 (or 50 × 2.54), which equals 127 millimeters (5 inches).
</P>
<P>For three-phase arcs in open air and in enclosures, the arc gap will generally be dependent on the spacing between parts energized at different electrical potentials. Documents such as IEEE Std 1584b-2011 provide information on these distances. Employers may select a reasonable arc gap from Table 5, or they may select any other reasonable arc gap based on sparkover distance or on the spacing between (1) live parts at different potentials or (2) live parts and grounded parts (for example, bus or conductor spacings in equipment). In any event, the employer must use an estimate that reasonably resembles the actual exposures faced by the employee.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Selecting a Reasonable Arc Gap
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Single-phase arc mm
<br/>(inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Three-phase arc mm 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13 (0.5).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low voltage MCCs and panelboards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 (1.0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low-voltage switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">32 (1.25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-kV switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">104 (4.0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15-kV switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">152 (6.0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single conductors in air, 15 kV and less.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">51 (2.0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phase conductor spacing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single conductor in air, more than 15 kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Voltage in <E T="03">kV</E> × 2.54
<br/>(Voltage in <E T="03">kV</E> × 0.1), but no less than 51 mm (2 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phase conductor spacing.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Source: IEEE Std 1584b-2011.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> NA = not applicable.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Making estimates over multiple system areas.</I> The employer need not estimate the heat-energy exposure for every job task performed by each employee. Paragraph (l)(8)(ii) of § 1910.269 permits the employer to make broad estimates that cover multiple system areas provided that: (1) The employer uses reasonable assumptions about the energy-exposure distribution throughout the system, and (2) the estimates represent the maximum exposure for those areas. For example, the employer can use the maximum fault current and clearing time to cover several system areas at once.
</P>
<P><I>Incident heat energy for single-phase-to-ground exposures.</I> Table 6 and Table 7 provide incident heat energy levels for open-air, phase-to-ground electric-arc exposures typical for overhead systems.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Table 6 presents estimates of available energy for employees using rubber insulating gloves to perform work on overhead systems operating at 4 to 46 kilovolts. The table assumes that the employee will be 380 millimeters (15 inches) from the electric arc, which is a reasonable estimate for rubber insulating glove work. Table 6 also assumes that the arc length equals the sparkover distance for the maximum transient overvoltage of each voltage range.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> To use the table, an employer would use the voltage, maximum fault current, and maximum clearing time for a system area and, using the appropriate voltage range and fault-current and clearing-time values corresponding to the next higher values listed in the table, select the appropriate heat energy (4, 5, 8, or 12 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>) from the table. For example, an employer might have a 12,470-volt power line supplying a system area. The power line can supply a maximum fault current of 8 kiloamperes with a maximum clearing time of 10 cycles. For rubber glove work, this system falls in the 4.0-to-15.0-kilovolt range; the next-higher fault current is 10 kA (the second row in that voltage range); and the clearing time is under 18 cycles (the first column to the right of the fault current column). Thus, the available heat energy for this part of the system will be 4 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> or less (from the column heading), and the employer could select protection with a 5-cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> rating to meet § 1910.269(l)(8)(v). Alternatively, an employer could select a base incident-energy value and ensure that the clearing times for each voltage range and fault current listed in the table do not exceed the corresponding clearing time specified in the table. For example, an employer that provides employees with arc-flash protective equipment rated at 8 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> can use the table to determine if any system area exceeds 8 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> by checking the clearing time for the highest fault current for each voltage range and ensuring that the clearing times do not exceed the values specified in the 8-cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> column in the table.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The Occupational Safety and Health Administration used metric values to calculate the clearing times in Table 6 and Table 7. An employer may use English units to calculate clearing times instead even though the results will differ slightly.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The Occupational Safety and Health Administration based this assumption, which is more conservative than the arc length specified in Table 5, on Table 410-2 of the 2012 NESC.</P></FTNT>
<P>Table 7 presents similar estimates for employees using live-line tools to perform work on overhead systems operating at voltages of 4 to 800 kilovolts. The table assumes that the arc length will be equal to the sparkover distance 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> and that the employee will be a distance from the arc equal to the minimum approach distance minus twice the sparkover distance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The dielectric strength of air is about 10 kilovolts for every 25.4 millimeters (1 inch). Thus, the employer can estimate the arc length in millimeters to be the phase-to-ground voltage in kilovolts multiplied by 2.54 (or voltage (in kilovolts) × 2.54).</P></FTNT>
<P>The employer will need to use other methods for estimating available heat energy in situations not addressed by Table 6 or Table 7. The calculation methods listed in Table 2 and the guidance provided in Table 3 will help employers do this. For example, employers can use IEEE Std 1584b-2011 to estimate the available heat energy (and to select appropriate protective equipment) for many specific conditions, including lower-voltage, phase-to-phase arc, and enclosed arc exposures.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6—Incident Heat Energy for Various Fault Currents, Clearing Times, and Voltages of 4.0 to 46.0 kV: Rubber Insulating Glove Exposures Involving Phase-to-Ground Arcs in Open Air Only * † ‡
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range
<br/>(kV) **
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Fault current
<br/>(kA)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum clearing time (cycles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">12 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.0 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>* This table is for open-air, phase-to-ground electric-arc exposures. It is not for phase-to-phase arcs or enclosed arcs (arc in a box).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">† The table assumes that the employee will be 380 mm (15 in.) from the electric arc. The table also assumes the arc length to be the sparkover distance for the maximum transient overvoltage of each voltage range (see Appendix B to § 1910.269), as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4.0 to 15.0 kV 51 mm (2 in.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">15.1 to 25.0 kV 102 mm (4 in.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">25.1 to 36.0 kV 152 mm (6 in.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">36.1 to 46.0 kV 229 mm (9 in.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">‡The Occupational Safety and Health Administration calculated the values in this table using the ARCPRO method listed in Table 2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** The voltage range is the phase-to-phase system voltage.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—Incident Heat Energy for Various Fault Currents, Clearing Times, and Voltages: Live-Line Tool Exposures Involving Phase-to-Ground Arcs in Open Air Only * † ‡  #
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range
<br/>(kV) **
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Fault current
<br/>(kA)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum clearing time (cycles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">12 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.0 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">394</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">394</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">159
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">386
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">154
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 121.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">121.1 to 145.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145.1 to 169.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">169.1 to 242.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">242.1 to 362.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">362.1 to 420.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420.1 to 550.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550.1 to 800.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* This table is for open-air, phase-to-ground electric-arc exposures. It is not for phase-to-phase arcs or enclosed arcs (arc in a box).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">† The table assumes the arc length to be the sparkover distance for the maximum phase-to-ground voltage of each voltage range (see Appendix B to this section). The table also assumes that the employee will be the minimum approach distance minus twice the arc length from the electric arc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">‡ The Occupational Safety and Health Administration calculated the values in this table using the ARCPRO method listed in Table 2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"># For voltages of more than 72.6 kV, employers may use this table only when the minimum approach distance established under § 1910.269(l)(3)(i) is greater than or equal to the following values:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">72.6 to 121.0 kV 1.02 m.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">121.1 to 145.0 kV 1.16 m.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">145.1 to 169.0 kV 1.30 m.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">169.1 to 242.0 kV 1.72 m.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">242.1 to 362.0 kV 2.76 m.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">362.1 to 420.0 kV 2.50 m.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">420.1 to 550.0 kV 3.62 m.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">550.1 to 800.0 kV 4.83 m.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** The voltage range is the phase-to-phase system voltage.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>B. Selecting Protective Clothing and Other Protective Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Paragraph (l)(8)(v) of § 1910.269 requires employers, in certain situations, to select protective clothing and other protective equipment with an arc rating that is greater than or equal to the incident heat energy estimated under § 1910.269(l)(8)(ii). Based on laboratory testing required by ASTM F1506-10a, the expectation is that protective clothing with an arc rating equal to the estimated incident heat energy will be capable of preventing second-degree burn injury to an employee exposed to that incident heat energy from an electric arc. Note that actual electric-arc exposures may be more or less severe than the estimated value because of factors such as arc movement, arc length, arcing from reclosing of the system, secondary fires or explosions, and weather conditions. Additionally, for arc rating based on the fabric's arc thermal performance value 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> (ATPV), a worker exposed to incident energy at the arc rating has a 50-percent chance of just barely receiving a second-degree burn. Therefore, it is possible (although not likely) that an employee will sustain a second-degree (or worse) burn wearing clothing conforming to § 1910.269(l)(8)(v) under certain circumstances. However, reasonable employer estimates and maintaining appropriate minimum approach distances for employees should limit burns to relatively small burns that just barely extend beyond the epidermis (that is, just barely a second-degree burn). Consequently, protective clothing and other protective equipment meeting § 1910.269(l)(8)(v) will provide an appropriate degree of protection for an employee exposed to electric-arc hazards.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> ASTM F1506-10a defines “arc thermal performance value” as “the incident energy on a material or a multilayer system of materials that results in a 50% probability that sufficient heat transfer through the tested specimen is predicted to cause the onset of a second-degree skin burn injury based on the Stoll [footnote] curve, cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>.” The footnote to this definition reads: “Derived from: Stoll, A. M., and Chianta, M. A., `Method and Rating System for Evaluations of Thermal Protection,' Aerospace Medicine, Vol 40, 1969, pp. 1232-1238 and Stoll, A. M., and Chianta, M. A., `Heat Transfer through Fabrics as Related to Thermal Injury,' Transactions—New York Academy of Sciences, Vol 33(7), Nov. 1971, pp. 649-670.”</P></FTNT>
<P>Paragraph (l)(8)(v) of § 1910.269 does not require arc-rated protection for exposures of 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> or less. Untreated cotton clothing will reduce a 2-cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> exposure below the 1.2- to 1.5-cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> level necessary to cause burn injury, and this material should not ignite at such low heat energy levels. Although § 1910.269(l)(8)(v) does not require clothing to have an arc rating when exposures are 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> or less, § 1910.269(l)(8)(iv) requires the outer layer of clothing to be flame resistant under certain conditions, even when the estimated incident heat energy is less than 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>, as discussed later in this appendix. Additionally, it is especially important to ensure that employees do not wear undergarments made from fabrics listed in the note to § 1910.269(l)(8)(iii) even when the outer layer is flame resistant or arc rated. These fabrics can melt or ignite easily when an electric arc occurs. Logos and name tags made from non-flame-resistant material can adversely affect the arc rating or the flame-resistant characteristics of arc-rated or flame-resistant clothing. Such logos and name tags may violate § 1910.269(l)(8)(iii), (l)(8)(iv), or (l)(8)(v).
</P>
<P>Paragraph (l)(8)(v) of § 1910.269 requires that arc-rated protection cover the employee's entire body, with limited exceptions for the employee's hands, feet, face, and head. Paragraph (l)(8)(v)(A) of § 1910.269 provides that arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's hands under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">For any estimated incident heat energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When the employee is wearing rubber insulating gloves with protectors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">If the estimated incident heat energy does not exceed 14 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When the employee is wearing heavy-duty leather work gloves with a weight of at least 407 gm/m
<sup>2</sup> (12 oz/yd
<sup>2</sup>).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Paragraph (l)(8)(v)(B) of § 1910.269 provides that arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's feet when the employee is wearing heavy-duty work shoes or boots. Finally, § 1910.269(l)(8)(v)(C), (l)(8)(v)(D), and (l)(8)(v)(E) require arc-rated head and face protection as follows:
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Minimum head and face protection
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">None *
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arc-rated faceshield with a minimum
<br/>rating of 8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>*
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arc-rated hood or faceshield with balaclava
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-phase, open air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2-8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9-12 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup> or higher †.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three-phase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2-4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5-8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup> or higher ‡.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* These ranges assume that employees are wearing hardhats meeting the specifications in § 1910.135 or § 1926.100(b)(2), as applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">† The arc rating must be a minimum of 4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup> less than the estimated incident energy. Note that § 1910.269(l)(8)(v)(E) permits this type of head and face protection, with a minimum arc rating of 4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup> less than the estimated incident energy, at any incident energy level.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">‡ Note that § 1910.269(l)(8)(v) permits this type of head and face protection at any incident energy level.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>IV. Protection Against Ignition
</HD1>
<P>Paragraph (l)(8)(iii) of § 1910.269 prohibits clothing that could melt onto an employee's skin or that could ignite and continue to burn when exposed to flames or to the available heat energy estimated by the employer under § 1910.269(l)(8)(ii). Meltable fabrics, such as acetate, nylon, polyester, and polypropylene, even in blends, must be avoided. When these fibers melt, they can adhere to the skin, thereby transferring heat rapidly, exacerbating burns, and complicating treatment. These outcomes can result even if the meltable fabric is not directly next to the skin. The remainder of this section focuses on the prevention of ignition.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (l)(8)(v) of § 1910.269 generally requires protective clothing and other protective equipment with an arc rating greater than or equal to the employer's estimate of available heat energy. As explained earlier in this appendix, untreated cotton is usually acceptable for exposures of 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> or less.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> If the exposure is greater than that, the employee generally must wear flame-resistant clothing with a suitable arc rating in accordance with § 1910.269(l)(8)(iv) and (l)(8)(v). However, even if an employee is wearing a layer of flame-resistant clothing, there are circumstances under which flammable layers of clothing would be uncovered, and an electric arc could ignite them. For example, clothing ignition is possible if the employee is wearing flammable clothing under the flame-resistant clothing and the underlayer is uncovered because of an opening in the flame-resistant clothing. Thus, for purposes of § 1910.269(l)(8)(iii), it is important for the employer to consider the possibility of clothing ignition even when an employee is wearing flame-resistant clothing with a suitable arc rating.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See § 1910.269(l)(8)(iv)(A), (l)(8)(iv)(B), and (l)(8)(iv)(C) for conditions under which employees must wear flame-resistant clothing as the outer layer of clothing even when the incident heat energy does not exceed 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>.</P></FTNT>
<P>Under § 1910.269(l)(8)(iii), employees may not wear flammable clothing in conjunction with flame-resistant clothing if the flammable clothing poses an ignition hazard.
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Although outer flame-resistant layers may not have openings that expose flammable inner layers, when an outer flame-resistant layer would be unable to resist breakopen,
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> the next (inner) layer must be flame-resistant if it could ignite.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Paragraph (l)(8)(iii) of § 1910.269 prohibits clothing that could ignite and continue to burn when exposed to the heat energy estimated under paragraph (l)(8)(ii) of that section.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Breakopen occurs when a hole, tear, or crack develops in the exposed fabric such that the fabric no longer effectively blocks incident heat energy.</P></FTNT>
<P>Non-flame-resistant clothing can ignite even when the heat energy from an electric arc is insufficient to ignite the clothing. For example, nearby flames can ignite an employee's clothing; and, even in the absence of flames, electric arcs pose ignition hazards beyond the hazard of ignition from incident energy under certain conditions. In addition to requiring flame-resistant clothing when the estimated incident energy exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>, § 1910.269(l)(8)(iv) requires flame-resistant clothing when: The employee is exposed to contact with energized circuit parts operating at more than 600 volts (§ 1910.269(l)(8)(iv)(A)), an electric arc could ignite flammable material in the work area that, in turn, could ignite the employee's clothing (§ 1910.269(l)(8)(iv)(B)), and molten metal or electric arcs from faulted conductors in the work area could ignite the employee's clothing (§ 1910.269(l)(8)(iv)(C)). For example, grounding conductors can become a source of heat energy if they cannot carry fault current without failure. The employer must consider these possible sources of electric arcs 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> in determining whether the employee's clothing could ignite under § 1910.269(l)(8)(iv)(C).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Static wires and pole grounds are examples of grounding conductors that might not be capable of carrying fault current without failure. Grounds that can carry the maximum available fault current are not a concern, and employers need not consider such grounds a possible electric arc source.</P></FTNT></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1910.269—Work-Positioning Equipment Inspection Guidelines
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Body Belts
</HD1>
<P>Inspect body belts to ensure that:
</P>
<P>A. The hardware has no cracks, nicks, distortion, or corrosion;
</P>
<P>B. No loose or worn rivets are present;
</P>
<P>C. The waist strap has no loose grommets;
</P>
<P>D. The fastening straps are not 100-percent leather; and
</P>
<P>E. No worn materials that could affect the safety of the user are present.
</P>
<HD1>II. Positioning Straps
</HD1>
<P>Inspect positioning straps to ensure that:
</P>
<P>A. The warning center of the strap material is not exposed;
</P>
<P>B. No cuts, burns, extra holes, or fraying of strap material is present;
</P>
<P>C. Rivets are properly secured;
</P>
<P>D. Straps are not 100-percent leather; and
</P>
<P>E. Snaphooks do not have cracks, burns, or corrosion.
</P>
<HD1>III. Climbers
</HD1>
<P>Inspect pole and tree climbers to ensure that:
</P>
<P>A. Gaffs are at least as long as the manufacturer's recommended minimums (generally 32 and 51 millimeters (1.25 and 2.0 inches) for pole and tree climbers, respectively, measured on the underside of the gaff);
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Gauges are available to assist in determining whether gaffs are long enough and shaped to easily penetrate poles or trees.</P></NOTE>
<P>B. Gaffs and leg irons are not fractured or cracked;
</P>
<P>C. Stirrups and leg irons are free of excessive wear;
</P>
<P>D. Gaffs are not loose;
</P>
<P>E. Gaffs are free of deformation that could adversely affect use;
</P>
<P>F. Gaffs are properly sharpened; and
</P>
<P>G. There are no broken straps or buckles.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix G to § 1910.269—Reference Documents
</HD1>
<P>The references contained in this appendix provide information that can be helpful in understanding and complying with the requirements contained in § 1910.269. The national consensus standards referenced in this appendix contain detailed specifications that employers may follow in complying with the more performance-based requirements of § 1910.269. Except as specifically noted in § 1910.269, however, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration will not necessarily deem compliance with the national consensus standards to be compliance with the provisions of § 1910.269.
</P>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.2-2009, <I>American National Standard for Vehicle-Mounted Elevating and Rotating Aerial Devices.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI Z133-2012, <I>American National Standard Safety Requirements for Arboricultural Operations—Pruning, Trimming, Repairing, Maintaining, and Removing Trees, and Cutting Brush.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI/IEEE Std 935-1989, <I>IEEE Guide on Terminology for Tools and Equipment to Be Used in Live Line Working.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASME B20.1-2012, <I>Safety Standard for Conveyors and Related Equipment.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D120-09, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Gloves.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D149-09 (2013), <I>Standard Test Method for Dielectric Breakdown Voltage and Dielectric Strength of Solid Electrical Insulating Materials at Commercial Power Frequencies.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D178-01 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Matting.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D1048-12, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Blankets.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D1049-98 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Covers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D1050-05 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Line Hose.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D1051-08, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Sleeves.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F478-09, <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Line Hose and Covers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F479-06 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Blankets.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F496-08, <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Gloves and Sleeves.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F711-02 (2007), <I>Standard Specification for Fiberglass-Reinforced Plastic (FRP) Rod and Tube Used in Live Line Tools.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F712-06 (2011), <I>Standard Test Methods and Specifications for Electrically Insulating Plastic Guard Equipment for Protection of Workers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F819-10, <I>Standard Terminology Relating to Electrical Protective Equipment for Workers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F855-09, <I>Standard Specifications for Temporary Protective Grounds to Be Used on De-energized Electric Power Lines and Equipment.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F887-12
<SU>e1</SU>, <I>Standard Specifications for Personal Climbing Equipment.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F914/F914M-10, <I>Standard Test Method for Acoustic Emission for Aerial Personnel Devices Without Supplemental Load Handling Attachments.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1116-03 (2008), <I>Standard Test Method for Determining Dielectric Strength of Dielectric Footwear.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1117-03 (2008), <I>Standard Specification for Dielectric Footwear.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1236-96 (2012), <I>Standard Guide for Visual Inspection of Electrical Protective Rubber Products.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1430/F1430M-10, <I>Standard Test Method for Acoustic Emission Testing of Insulated and Non-Insulated Aerial Personnel Devices with Supplemental Load Handling Attachments.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1505-10, <I>Standard Specification for Insulated and Insulating Hand Tools.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1506-10a, <I>Standard Performance Specification for Flame Resistant and Arc Rated Textile Materials for Wearing Apparel for Use by Electrical Workers Exposed to Momentary Electric Arc and Related Thermal Hazards.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1564-13, <I>Standard Specification for Structure-Mounted Insulating Work Platforms for Electrical Workers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1701-12, <I>Standard Specification for Unused Polypropylene Rope with Special Electrical Properties.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1742-03 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for PVC Insulating Sheeting.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1796-09, <I>Standard Specification for High Voltage Detectors—Part 1 Capacitive Type to be Used for Voltages Exceeding 600 Volts AC.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1797-09<E T="7333">ε</E>
<SU>1</SU>, <I>Standard Test Method for Acoustic Emission Testing of Insulated and Non-Insulated Digger Derricks.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1825-03 (2007), <I>Standard Specification for Clampstick Type Live Line Tools.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1826-00 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for Live Line and Measuring Telescoping Tools.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1891-12, <I>Standard Specification for Arc and Flame Resistant Rainwear.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1958/F1958M-12, <I>Standard Test Method for Determining the Ignitability of Non-flame-Resistant Materials for Clothing by Electric Arc Exposure Method Using Mannequins.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1959/F1959M-12, <I>Standard Test Method for Determining the Arc Rating of Materials for Clothing.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Stds 4-1995, 4a-2001 (Amendment to <I>IEEE Standard Techniques for High-Voltage Testing</I>), <I>IEEE Standard Techniques for High-Voltage Testing.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 62-1995, <I>IEEE Guide for Diagnostic Field Testing of Electric Power Apparatus—Part 1: Oil Filled Power Transformers, Regulators, and Reactors.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 80-2000, <I>Guide for Safety in AC Substation Grounding.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 100-2000, <I>The Authoritative Dictionary of IEEE Standards Terms Seventh Edition.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 516-2009, <I>IEEE Guide for Maintenance Methods on Energized Power Lines.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 524-2003, <I>IEEE Guide to the Installation of Overhead Transmission Line Conductors</I> .
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 957-2005, <I>IEEE Guide for Cleaning Insulators.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 1048-2003, <I>IEEE Guide for Protective Grounding of Power Lines.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 1067-2005, <I>IEEE Guide for In-Service Use, Care, Maintenance, and Testing of Conductive Clothing for Use on Voltages up to 765 kV AC and ±750 kV DC.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 1307-2004, <I>IEEE Standard for Fall Protection for Utility Work.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Stds 1584-2002, 1584a-2004 (Amendment 1 to IEEE Std 1584-2002), and 1584b-2011 (Amendment 2: Changes to Clause 4 of IEEE Std 1584-2002), <I>IEEE Guide for Performing Arc-Flash Hazard Calculations.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE C2-2012, <I>National Electrical Safety Code.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>NFPA 70E-2012, <I>Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace.</I></FP-2></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 20633, Apr. 11, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 56960, Sept. 24, 2014; 80 FR 60036, Oct. 5, 2015; 81 FR 83006, Nov. 18, 2016; 84 FR 68797, Dec. 17, 2019; 85 FR 8732, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.272" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.18.37.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.272   Grain handling facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains requirements for the control of grain dust fires and explosions, and certain other safety hazards associated with grain handling facilities. It applies in addition to all other relevant provisions of part 1910 (or part 1917 at marine terminals).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>For grain-handling facilities in the marine-terminal industry only, 29 CFR 1910.272 is to be enforced consistent with the interpretations in OSHA Compliance Directive 02-00-066, which is available on OSHA's Web page at <I>www.osha.gov.</I></P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> (1) Paragraphs (a) through (n) of this section apply to grain elevators, feed mills, flour mills, rice mills, dust pelletizing plants, dry corn mills, soybean flaking operations, and the dry grinding operations of soycake.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraphs (o), (p), and (q) of this section apply only to grain elevators.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Choked leg</I> means a condition of material buildup in the bucket elevator that results in the stoppage of material flow and bucket movement. A bucket elevator is not considered choked that has the up-leg partially or fully loaded and has the boot and discharge cleared allowing bucket movement.
</P>
<P><I>Flat storage structure</I> means a grain storage building or structure that will not empty completely by gravity, has an unrestricted ground level opening for entry, and must be entered to reclaim the residual grain using powered equipment or manual means.
</P>
<P><I>Fugitive grain dust</I> means combustible dust particles, emitted from the stock handling system, of such size as will pass through a U.S. Standard 40 mesh sieve (425 microns or less).
</P>
<P><I>Grain elevator</I> means a facility engaged in the receipt, handling, storage, and shipment of bulk raw agricultural commodities such as corn, wheat, oats, barley, sunflower seeds, and soybeans.
</P>
<P><I>Hot work</I> means work involving electric or gas welding, cutting, brazing, or similar flame producing operations.
</P>
<P><I>Inside bucket elevator</I> means a bucket elevator that has the boot and more than 20 percent of the total leg height (above grade or ground level) inside the grain elevator structure. Bucket elevators with leg casings that are inside (and pass through the roofs) of rail or truck dump sheds with the remainder of the leg outside of the grain elevator structure, are not considered inside bucket elevators.
</P>
<P><I>Jogging</I> means repeated starting and stopping of drive motors in an attempt to clear choked legs.
</P>
<P><I>Lagging</I> means a covering on drive pulleys used to increase the coefficient of friction between the pulley and the belt.
</P>
<P><I>Permit</I> means the written certification by the employer authorizing employees to perform identified work operations subject to specified precautions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emergency action plan.</I> The employer shall develop and implement an emergency action plan meeting the requirements contained in 29 CFR 1910.38. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training.</I> (1) The employer shall provide training to employees at least annually and when changes in job assignment will expose them to new hazards. Current employees, and new employees prior to starting work, shall be trained in at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) General safety precautions associated with the facility, including recognition and preventive measures for the hazards related to dust accumulations and common ignition sources such as smoking; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific procedures and safety practices applicable to their job tasks including but not limited to, cleaning procedures for grinding equipment, clearing procedures for choked legs, housekeeping procedures, hot work procedures, preventive maintenance procedures and lock-out/tag-out procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Employees assigned special tasks, such as bin entry and handling of flammable or toxic substances, shall be provided training to perform these tasks safely.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Training for an employee who enters grain storage structures includes training about engulfment and mechanical hazards and how to avoid them.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>Hot work permit.</I> (1) The employer shall issue a permit for all hot work, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) Where the employer or the employer's representative (who would otherwise authorize the permit) is present while the hot work is being performed;
</P>
<P>(ii) In welding shops authorized by the employer;
</P>
<P>(iii) In hot work areas authorized by the employer which are located outside of the grain handling structure.
</P>
<P>(2) The permit shall certify that the requirements contained in § 1910.252(a) have been implemented prior to beginning the hot work operations. The permit shall be kept on file until completion of the hot work operations.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Entry into grain storage structures.</I> This paragraph applies to employee entry into bins, silos , tanks, and other grain storage structures. <I>Exception:</I> Entry through unrestricted ground level openings into flat storage structures in which there are no toxicity, flammability, oxygen-deficiency, or other atmospheric hazards is covered by paragraph (h) of this section. For the purposes of this paragraph (g), the term “grain” includes raw and processed grain and grain products in facilities within the scope of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The following actions shall be taken before employees enter bins, silos, or tanks:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall issue a permit for entering bins, silos, or tanks unless the employer or the employer's representative (who would otherwise authorize the permit) is present during the entire operation. The permit shall certify that the precautions contained in this paragraph (§ 1910.272(g)) have been implemented prior to employees entering bins, silos or tanks. The permit shall be kept on file until completion of the entry operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) All mechanical, electrical, hydraulic, and pneumatic equipment which presents a danger to employees inside grain storage structures shall be deenergized and shall be disconnected, locked-out and tagged, blocked-off, or otherwise prevented from operating by other equally effective means or methods.
</P>
<P>(iii) The atmosphere within a bin, silo, or tank shall be tested for the presence of combustible gases, vapors, and toxic agents when the employer has reason to believe they may be present. Additionally, the atmosphere within a bin, silo, or tank shall be tested for oxygen content unless there is continuous natural air movement or continuous forced-air ventilation before and during the period employees are inside. If the oxygen level is less than 19.5%, or if combustible gas or vapor is detected in excess of 10% of the lower flammable limit, or if toxic agents are present in excess of the ceiling values listed in subpart Z of 29 CFR part 1910, or if toxic agents are present in concentrations that will cause health effects which prevent employees from effecting self-rescue or communication to obtain assistance, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(A) Ventilation shall be provided until the unsafe condition or conditions are eliminated, and the ventilation shall be continued as long as there is a possibility of recurrence of the unsafe condition while the bin, silo, or tank is occupied by employees.
</P>
<P>(B) If toxicity or oxygen deficiency cannot be eliminated by ventilation, employees entering the bin, silo, or tank shall wear an appropriate respirator. Respirator use shall be in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(iv) “Walking down grain” and similar practices where an employee walks on grain to make it flow within or out from a grain storage structure, or where an employee is on moving grain, are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever an employee enters a grain storage structure from a level at or above the level of the stored grain or grain products, or whenever an employee walks or stands on or in stored grain of a depth which poses an engulfment hazard, the employer shall equip the employee with a body harness with lifeline, or a boatswain's chair that meets the requirements of subpart D of this part. The lifeline shall be so positioned, and of sufficient length, to prevent the employee from sinking further than waist-deep in the grain. <I>Exception:</I> Where the employer can demonstrate that the protection required by this paragraph is not feasible or creates a greater hazard, the employer shall provide an alternative means of protection which is demonstrated to prevent the employee from sinking further than waist-deep in the grain.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>When the employee is standing or walking on a surface which the employer demonstrates is free from engulfment hazards, the lifeline or alternative means may be disconnected or removed.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) An observer, equipped to provide assistance, shall be stationed outside the bin, silo, or tank being entered by an employee. Communications (visual, voice, or signal line) shall be maintained between the observer and employee entering the bin, silo, or tank.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall provide equipment for rescue operations which is specifically suited for the bin, silo, or tank being entered.
</P>
<P>(5) The employee acting as observer shall be trained in rescue procedures, including notification methods for obtaining additional assistance.
</P>
<P>(6) Employees shall not enter bins, silos, or tanks underneath a bridging condition, or where a buildup of grain products on the sides could fall and bury them.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Entry into flat storage structures.</I> For the purposes of this paragraph (h), the term “grain” means raw and processed grain and grain products in facilities within the scope of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Each employee who walks or stands on or in stored grain, where the depth of the grain poses an engulfment hazard, shall be equipped with a lifeline or alternative means which the employer demonstrates will prevent the employee from sinking further than waist-deep into the grain.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>When the employee is standing or walking on a surface which the employer demonstrates is free from engulfment hazards, the lifeline or alternative means may be disconnected or removed.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2)(i) Whenever an employee walks or stands on or in stored grain or grain products of a depth which poses an engulfment hazard, all equipment which presents a danger to that employee (such as an auger or other grain transport equipment) shall be deenergized, and shall be disconnected, locked-out and tagged, blocked-off, or otherwise prevented from operating by other equally effective means or methods.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Walking down grain” and similar practices where an employee walks on grain to make it flow within or out from a grain storage structure, or where an employee is on moving grain, are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) No employee shall be permitted to be either underneath a bridging condition, or in any other location where an accumulation of grain on the sides or elsewhere could fall and engulf that employee.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contractors.</I> (1) The employer shall inform contractors performing work at the grain handling facility of known potential fire and explosion hazards related to the contractor's work and work area. The employer shall also inform contractors of the applicable safety rules of the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall explain the applicable provisions of the emergency action plan to contractors.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) The employer shall develop and implement a written housekeeping program that establishes the frequency and method(s) determined best to reduce accumulations of fugitive grain dust on ledges, floors, equipment, and other exposed surfaces.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the housekeeping program for <I>grain elevators</I> shall address fugitive grain dust accumulations at priority housekeeping areas.
</P>
<P>(i) Priority housekeeping areas shall include <I>at least</I> the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Floor areas within 35 feet (10.7 m) of inside bucket elevators;
</P>
<P>(B) Floors of enclosed areas containing grinding equipment;
</P>
<P>(C) Floors of enclosed areas containing grain dryers located inside the facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall immediately remove any fugitive grain dust accumulations whenever they exceed 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch (.32 cm) at priority housekeeping areas, pursuant to the housekeeping program, or shall demonstrate and assure, through the development and implementation of the housekeeping program, that equivalent protection is provided.
</P>
<P>(3) The use of compressed air to blow dust from ledges, walls, and other areas shall only be permitted when all machinery that presents an ignition source in the area is shut-down, and all other known potential ignition sources in the area are removed or controlled.
</P>
<P>(4) Grain and product spills shall not be considered fugitive grain dust accumulations. However, the housekeeping program shall address the procedures for removing such spills from the work area.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Grate openings.</I> Receiving-pit feed openings, such as truck or railcar receiving-pits, shall be covered by grates. The width of openings in the grates shall be a maximum of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (6.35 cm).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Filter collectors.</I> (1) All fabric dust filter collectors which are a part of a pneumatic dust collection system shall be equipped with a monitoring device that will indicate a pressure drop across the surface of the filter.
</P>
<P>(2) Filter collectors installed after March 30, 1988 shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Located outside the facility; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Located in an area inside the facility protected by an explosion suppression system; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Located in an area inside the facility that is separated from other areas of the facility by construction having at least a one hour fire-resistance rating, and which is adjacent to an exterior wall and vented to the outside. The vent and ductwork shall be designed to resist rupture due to deflagration.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Preventive maintenance.</I> (1) The employer shall implement preventive maintenance procedures consisting of:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly scheduled inspections of at least the mechanical and safety control equipment associated with dryers, grain stream processing equipment, dust collection equipment including filter collectors, and bucket elevators;
</P>
<P>(ii) Lubrication and other appropriate maintenance in accordance with manufacturers' recommendations, or as determined necessary by prior operating records.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall promptly correct dust collection systems which are malfunctioning or which are operating below designed efficiency. Additionally, the employer shall promptly correct, or remove from service, overheated bearings and slipping or misaligned belts associated with inside bucket elevators.
</P>
<P>(3) A certification record shall be maintained of each inspection, performed in accordance with this paragraph (m), containing the date of the inspection, the name of the person who performed the inspection and the serial number, or other identifier, of the equipment specified in paragraph (m)(1)(i) of this section that was inspected.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall implement procedures for the use of tags and locks which will prevent the inadvertent application of energy or motion to equipment being repaired, serviced, or adjusted, which could result in employee injury. Such locks and tags shall be removed in accordance with established procedures only by the employee installing them or, if unavailable, by his or her supervisor.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Grain stream processing equipment.</I> The employer shall equip grain stream processing equipment (such as hammer mills, grinders, and pulverizers) with an effective means of removing ferrous material from the incoming grain stream.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Emergency escape.</I> (1) The employer shall provide at least two means of emergency escape from galleries (bin decks).
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall provide at least one means of emergency escape in tunnels of existing grain elevators. Tunnels in grain elevators constructed after the effective date of this standard shall be provided with at least two means of emergency escape.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Continuous-flow bulk raw grain dryers.</I> (1) All direct-heat grain dryers shall be equipped with automatic controls that:
</P>
<P>(i) Will shut-off the fuel supply in case of power or flame failure or interruption of air movement through the exhaust fan; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) Will stop the grain from being fed into the dryer if excessive temperature occurs in the exhaust of the drying section.
</P>
<P>(2) Direct-heat grain dryers installed after March 30, 1988 shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Located outside the grain elevator; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Located in an area inside the grain elevator protected by a fire or explosion suppression system; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Located in an area inside the grain elevator which is separated from other areas of the facility by construction having at least a one hour fire-resistance rating.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Inside bucket elevators.</I> (1) Bucket elevators shall not be jogged to free a choked leg.
</P>
<P>(2) All belts and lagging purchased after March 30, 1988 shall be conductive. Such belts shall have a surface electrical resistance not to exceed 300 megohms.
</P>
<P>(3) All bucket elevators shall be equipped with a means of access to the head pulley section to allow inspection of the head pulley, lagging, belt, and discharge throat of the elevator head. The boot section shall also be provided with a means of access for clean-out of the boot and for inspection of the boot, pulley, and belt.
</P>
<P>(4) All the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Mount bearings externally to the leg casing; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide vibration monitoring, temperature monitoring, or other means to monitor the condition of those bearings mounted inside or partially-inside the leg casing.
</P>
<P>(5) All the employer shall equip bucket elevators with a motion detection device which will shut-down the bucket elevator when the belt speed is reduced by no more than 20% of the normal operating speed.
</P>
<P>(6) All the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Equip bucket elevators with a belt alignment monitoring device which will initiate an alarm to employees when the belt is not tracking properly; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a means to keep the belt tracking properly, such as a system that provides constant alignment adjustment of belts.
</P>
<P>(7) Paragraphs (q)(5) and (q)(6) of this section do not apply to grain elevators having a permanent storage capacity of less than one million bushels, provided that daily visual inspection is made of bucket movement and tracking of the belt.
</P>
<P>(8) Paragraphs (q)(4), (q)(5), and (q)(6) of this section do not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Bucket elevators which are equipped with an operational fire and explosion suppression system capable of protecting at least the head and boot section of the bucket elevator; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) Bucket elevators which are equipped with pneumatic or other dust control systems or methods that keep the dust concentration inside the bucket elevator at least 25% below the lower explosive limit at all times during operations.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The following appendices to § 1910.272 serve as nonmandatory guidelines to assist employers and employees in complying with the requirements of this section, as well as to provide other helpful information.
</P>
<P>No additional burdens are imposed through these appendices.</P></NOTE>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.272 Grain Handling Facilities
</HD1>
<P>Examples presented in this appendix may not be the only means of achieving the performance goals in the standard.
</P>
<HD2>1. Scope and Application
</HD2>
<P>The provisions of this standard apply in addition to any other applicable requirements of this part 1910 (or part 1917 at marine terminals). The standard contains requirements for new and existing grain handling facilities. The standard does not apply to seed plants which handle and prepare seeds for planting of future crops, nor to on-farm storage or feed lots.
</P>
<HD2>2. Emergency Action Plan
</HD2>
<P>The standard requires the employer to develop and implement an emergency action plan. The emergency action plan (§ 1910.38) covers those designated actions employers and employees are to take to ensure employee safety from fire and other emergencies. The plan specifies certain minimum elements which are to be addressed. These elements include the establishment of an employee alarm system, the development of evacuation procedures, and training employees in those actions they are to take during an emergency.
</P>
<P>The standard does not specify a particular method for notifying employees of an emergency. Public announcement systems, air horns, steam whistles, a standard fire alarm system, or other types of employee alarm may be used. However, employers should be aware that employees in a grain facility may have difficulty hearing an emergency alarm, or distinguishing an emergency alarm from other audible signals at the facility, or both. Therefore, it is important that the type of employee alarm used be distinguishable and distinct.
</P>
<P>The use of floor plans or workplace maps which clearly show the emergency escape routes should be included in the emergency action plan; color coding will aid employees in determining their route assignments. The employer should designate a safe area, outside the facility, where employees can congregate after evacuation, and implement procedures to account for all employees after emergency evacuation has been completed.
</P>
<P>It is also recommended that employers seek the assistance of the local fire department for the purpose of preplanning for emergencies. Preplanning is encouraged to facilitate coordination and cooperation between facility personnel and those who may be called upon for assistance during an emergency. It is important for emergency service units to be aware of the usual work locations of employees at the facility.
</P>
<HD2>3. Training
</HD2>
<P>It is important that employees be trained in the recognition and prevention of hazards associated with grain facilities, especially those hazards associated with their own work tasks. Employees should understand the factors which are necessary to produce a fire or explosion, i.e., fuel (such as grain dust), oxygen, ignition source, and (in the case of explosions) confinement. Employees should be made aware that any efforts they make to keep these factors from occurring simultaneously will be an important step in reducing the potential for fires and explosions.
</P>
<P>The standard provides flexibility for the employer to design a training program which fulfills the needs of a facility. The type, amount, and frequency of training will need to reflect the tasks that employees are expected to perform. Although training is to be provided to employees at least annually, it is recommended that safety meetings or discussions and drills be conducted at more frequent intervals.
</P>
<P>The training program should include those topics applicable to the particular facility, as well as topics such as: Hot work procedures; lock-out/tag-out procedures; bin entry procedures; bin cleaning procedures; grain dust explosions; fire prevention; procedures for handling “hot grain”; housekeeping procedures, including methods and frequency of dust removal; pesticide and fumigant usage; proper use and maintenance of personal protective equipment; and, preventive maintenance. The types of work clothing should also be considered in the program at least to caution against using polyester clothing that easily melts and increases the severity of burns, as compared to wool or fire retardant cotton.
</P>
<P>In implementing the training program, it is recommended that the employer utilize films, slide-tape presentations, pamphlets, and other information which can be obtained from such sources as the Grain Elevator and Processing Society, the Cooperative Extension Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture, Kansas State University's Extension Grain Science and Industry, and other state agriculture schools, industry associations, union organizations, and insurance groups.
</P>
<HD2>4. Hot Work Permit
</HD2>
<P>The implementation of a permit system for hot work is intended to assure that employers maintain control over operations involving hot work and to assure that employees are aware of and utilize appropriate safeguards when conducting these activities.
</P>
<P>Precautions for hot work operations are specified in 29 CFR 1910.252(a), and include such safeguards as relocating the hot work operation to a safe location if possible, relocating or covering combustible material in the vicinity, providing fire extinguishers, and provisions for establishing a fire watch. Permits are not required for hot work operations conducted in the presence of the employer or the employer's authorized representative who would otherwise issue the permit, or in an employer authorized welding shop or when work is conducted outside and away from the facility.
</P>
<P>It should be noted that the permit is not a record, but is an authorization of the employer certifying that certain safety precautions have been implemented prior to the beginning of work operations.
</P>
<HD2>5. Entry Into Bins, Silos, And Tanks
</HD2>
<P>In order to assure that employers maintain control over employee entry into bins, silos, and tanks, OSHA is requiring that the employer issue a permit for entry into bins, silos, and tanks unless the employer (or the employer's representative who would otherwise authorize the permit) is present at the entry and during the entire operation.
</P>
<P>Employees should have a thorough understanding of the hazards associated with entry into bins, silos, and tanks. Employees are not to be permitted to enter these spaces from the bottom when grain or other agricultural products are hung up or sticking to the sides which might fall and injure or kill an employee. Employees should be made aware that the atmosphere in bins, silos, and tanks can be oxygen deficient or toxic. Employees should be trained in the proper methods of testing the atmosphere, as well as in the appropriate procedures to be taken if the atmosphere is found to be oxygen deficient or toxic. When a fumigant has been recently applied in these areas and entry must be made, aeration fans should be running continuously to assure a safe atmosphere for those inside. Periodic monitoring of toxic levels shuld be done by direct reading instruments to measure the levels, and, if there is an increase in these readings, appropriate actions should be promptly taken.
</P>
<P>Employees have been buried and suffocated in grain or other agricultural products because they sank into the material. Therefore, it is suggested that employees not be permitted to walk or stand on the grain or other grain product where the depth is greater than waist high. In this regard, employees must use a full body harness or boatswain's chair with a lifeline when entering from the top. A winch system with mechanical advantage (either powered or manual) would allow better control of the employee than just using a hand held hoist line, and such a system would allow the observer to remove the employee easily without having to enter the space.
</P>
<P>It is important that employees be trained in the proper selection and use of any personal protective equipment which is to be worn. Equally important is the training of employees in the planned emergency rescue procedures. Employers should carefully read § 1910.134(e)(3) and assure that their procedures follow these requirements. The employee acting as observer is to be equipped to provide assistance and is to know procedures for obtaining additional assistance. The observer should not enter a space until adequate assistance is available. It is recommended that an employee trained in CPR be readily available to provide assistance to those employees entering bins, silos, or tanks.
</P>
<HD2>6. Contractors
</HD2>
<P>These provisions of the standard are intended to ensure that outside contractors are cognizant of the hazards associated with grain handling facilities, particularly in relation to the work they are to perform for the employer. Also, in the event of an emergency, contractors should be able to take appropriate action as a part of the overall facility emergency action plan. Contractors should also be aware of the employer's permit systems. Contractors should develop specified procedures for performing hot work and for entry into bins, silos, and tanks and these activities should be coordinated with the employer. Contractors are responsible for informing their own employees.
</P>
<P>This coordination will help to ensure that employers know what work is being performed at the facility by contractors; where it is being performed; and, that it is being performed in a manner that will not endanger employees.
</P>
<HD2>7. Housekeeping.
</HD2>
<P>The housekeeping program is to be designed to keep dust accumulations and emissions under control inside grain facilities. The housekeeping program, which is to be written, is to specify the frequency and method(s) used to best reduce dust accumulations.
</P>
<P>Ship, barge, and rail loadout and receiving areas which are located outside the facility need not be addressed in the housekeeping program. Additionally, truck dumps which are open on two or more sides need not be addressed by the housekeeping program. Other truck dumps should be addressed in the housekeeping program to provide for regular cleaning during periods of receiving grain or agricultural products. The housekeeping program should provide coverage for all workspaces in the facility and include walls, beams, etc., especially in relation to the extent that dust could accumulate.
</P>
<HD3>Dust Accumulations
</HD3>
<P>Almost all facilities will require some level of manual housekeeping. Manual housekeeping methods, such as vacuuming or sweeping with soft bristle brooms, should be used which will minimize the possibility of layered dust being suspended in the air when it is being removed.
</P>
<P>The housekeeping program should include a contingency plan to respond to situations where dust accumulates rapidly due to a failure of a dust enclosure hood, an unexpected breakdown of the dust control system, a dust-tight connection inadvertently knocked open, etc.
</P>
<P>The housekeeping program should also specify the manner of handling spills. Grain spills are not considered to be dust accumulations.
</P>
<P>A fully enclosed horizontal belt conveying system where the return belt is inside the enclosure should have inspection access such as sliding panels or doors to permit checking of equipment, checking for dust accumulations and facilitate cleaning if needed.
</P>
<HD3>Dust Emissions
</HD3>
<P>Employers should analyze the entire stock handling system to determine the location of dust emissions and effective methods to control or to eliminate them. The employer should make sure that holes in spouting, casings of bucket elevators, pneumatic conveying pipes, screw augers, or drag conveyor casings, are patched or otherwise properly repaired to prevent leakage. Minimizing free falls of grain or grain products by using choke feeding techniques, and utilization of dust-tight enclosures at transfer points, can be effective in reducing dust emissions.
</P>
<P>Each housekeeping program should specify the schedules and control measures which will be used to control dust emitted from the stock handling system. The housekeeping program should address the schedules to be used for cleaning dust accumulations from motors, critical bearings and other potential ignition sources in the working areas. Also, the areas around bucket elevator legs, milling machinery and similar equipment should be given priority in the cleaning schedule. The method of disposal of the dust which is swept or vacuumed should also be planned.
</P>
<P>Dust may accumulate in somewhat inaccessible areas, such as those areas where ladders or scaffolds might be necessary to reach them. The employer may want to consider the use of compressed air and long lances to blow down these areas frequently. The employer may also want to consider the periodic use of water and hoselines to wash down these areas. If these methods are used, they are to be specified in the housekeeping program along with the appropriate safety precautions, including the use of personal protective equipment such as eyewear and dust respirators.
</P>
<P>Several methods have been effective in controlling dust emissions. A frequently used method of controlling dust emissions is a pneumatic dust collection system. However, the installation of a poorly designed pneumatic dust collection system has fostered a false sense of security and has often led to an inappropriate reduction in manual housekeeping. Therefore, it is imperative that the system be designed properly and installed by a competent contractor. Those employers who have a pneumatic dust control system that is not working according to expectations should request the engineering design firm, or the manufacturer of the filter and related equipment, to conduct an evaluation of the system to determine the corrections necessary for proper operation of the system. If the design firm or manufacturer of the equipment is not known, employers should contact their trade association for recommendations of competent designers of pneumatic dust control systems who could provide assistance.
</P>
<P>When installing a new or upgraded pneumatic control system, the employer should insist on an acceptance test period of 30 to 45 days of operation to ensure that the system is operating as intended and designed. The employer should also obtain maintenance, testing, and inspection information from the manufacturer to ensure that the system will continue to operate as designed.
</P>
<P>Aspiration of the leg, as part of a pneumatic dust collection system, is another effective method of controlling dust emissions. Aspiration of the leg consists of a flow of air across the entire boot, which entrains the liberated dust and carries it up the up-leg to take-off points. With proper aspiration, dust concentrations in the leg can be lowered below the lower explosive limit. Where a prototype leg installation has been instrumented and shown to be effective in keeping the dust level 25% below the lower explosive limit during normal operations for the various products handled, then other legs of similar size, capacity and products being handled which have the same design criteria for the air aspiration would be acceptable to OSHA, provided the prototype test report is available on site.
</P>
<P>Another method of controlling dust emissions is enclosing the conveying system, pressurizing the general work area, and providing a lower pressure inside the enclosed conveying system. Although this method is effective in controlling dust emissions from the conveying system, adequate access to the inside of the enclosure is necessary to facilitate frequent removal of dust accumulations. This is also necessary for those systems called “self-cleaning.”
</P>
<P>The use of edible oil sprayed on or into a moving stream of grain is another method which has been used to control dust emissions. Tests performed using this method have shown that the oil treatment can reduce dust emissions. Repeated handling of the grain may necessitate additional oil treatment to prevent liberation of dust. However, before using this method, operators of grain handling facilities should be aware that the Food and Drug Administration must approve the specific oil treatment used on products for food or feed.
</P>
<P>As a part of the housekeeping program, grain elevators are required to address accumulations of dust at priority areas using the action level. The standard specifies a maximum accumulation of 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch dust, measurable by a ruler or other measuring device, anywhere within a priority area as the upper limit at which time employers must initiate action to remove the accumulations using designated means or methods. Any accumulation in excess of this amount and where no action has been initiated to implement cleaning would constitute a violation of the standard, unless the employer can demonstrate equivalent protection. Employers should make every effort to minimize dust accumulations on exposed surfaces since dust is the fuel for a fire or explosion, and it is recognized that a 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch dust accumulation is more than enough to fuel such occurrences.
</P>
<HD2>8. Filter Collectors
</HD2>
<P>Proper sizing of filter collectors for the pneumatic dust control system they serve is very important for the overall effectiveness of the system. The air to cloth ratio of the system should be in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations. If higher ratios are used, they can result in more maintenance on the filter, shorter bag or sock life, increased differential pressure resulting in higher energy costs, and an increase in operational problems.
</P>
<P>A photohelic gauge, magnehelic gauge, or manometer, may be used to indicate the pressure rise across the inlet and outlet of the filter. When the pressure exceeds the design value for the filter, the air volume will start to drop, and maintenance will be required. Any of these three monitoring devices is acceptable as meeting paragraph (l)(1) of the standard.
</P>
<P>The employer should establish a level or target reading on the instrument which is consistent with the manufacturer's recommendations that will indicate when the filter should be serviced. This target reading on the instrument and the accompanying procedures should be in the preventive maintenance program. These efforts would minimize the blinding of the filter and the subsequent failure of the pneumatic dust control system.
</P>
<P>There are other instruments that the employer may want to consider using to monitor the operation of the filter. One instrument is a zero motion switch for detecting a failure of motion by the rotary discharge valve on the hopper. If the rotary discharge valve stops turning, the dust released by the bag or sock will accumulate in the filter hopper until the filter becomes clogged. Another instrument is a level indicator which is installed in the hopper of the filter to detect the buildup of dust that would otherwise cause the filter hopper to be plugged. The installation of these instruments should be in accordance with manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>All of these monitoring devices and instruments are to be capable of being read at an accessible location and checked as frequently as specified in the preventive maintenance program.
</P>
<P>Filter collectors on portable vacuum cleaners, and those used where fans are not part of the system, are not covered by requirements of paragraph (l) of the standard.
</P>
<HD2>9. Preventive Maintenance
</HD2>
<P>The control of dust and the control of ignition sources are the most effective means for reducing explosion hazards. Preventive maintenance is related to ignition sources in the same manner as housekeeping is related to dust control and should be treated as a major function in a facility. Equipment such as critical bearings, belts, buckets, pulleys, and milling machinery are potential ignition sources, and periodic inspection and lubrication of such equipment through a scheduled preventive maintenance program is an effective method for keeping equipment functioning properly and safely. The use of vibration detection methods, heat sensitive tape or other heat detection methods that can be seen by the inspector or maintenance person will allow for a quick, accurate, and consistent evaluation of bearings and will help in the implementation of the program.
</P>
<P>The standard does not require a specific frequency for preventive maintenance. The employer is permitted flexibility in determining the appropriate interval for maintenance provided that the effectiveness of the maintenance program can be demonstrated. Scheduling of preventive maintenance should be based on manufacturer's recommendations for effective operation, as well as from the employer's previous experience with the equipment. However, the employer's schedule for preventive maintenance should be frequent enough to allow for both prompt identification and correction of any problems concerning the failure or malfunction of the mechanical and safety control equipment associated with bucket elevators, dryers, filter collectors and magnets. The pressure-drop monitoring device for a filter collector, and the condition of the lagging on the head pulley, are examples of items that require regularly scheduled inspections. A system of identifying the date, the equipment inspected and the maintenance performed, if any, will assist employers in continually refining their preventive maintenance schedules and identifying equipment problem areas. Open work orders where repair work or replacement is to be done at a designated future date as scheduled, would be an indication of an effective preventive maintenance program.
</P>
<P>It is imperative that the prearranged schedule of maintenance be adhered to regardless of other facility constraints. The employer should give priority to the maintenance or repair work associated with safety control equipment, such as that on dryers, magnets, alarm and shut-down systems on bucket elevators, bearings on bucket elevators, and the filter collectors in the dust control system. Benefits of a strict preventive maintenance program can be a reduction of unplanned downtime, improved equipment performance, planned use of resources, more efficient operations, and, most importantly, safer operations.
</P>
<P>The standard also requires the employer to develop and implement procedures consisting of locking out and tagging equipment to prevent the inadvertent application of energy or motion to equipment being repaired, serviced, or adjusted, which could result in employee injury. All employees who have responsibility for repairing or servicing equipment, as well as those who operate the equipment, are to be familiar with the employer's lock and tag procedures. A lock is to be used as the positive means to prevent operation of the disconnected equipment. Tags are to be used to inform employees why equipment is locked out. Tags are to meet requirements in § 1910.145(f). Locks and tags may only be removed by employees that placed them, or by their supervisor, to ensure the safety of the operation.
</P>
<HD2>10. Grain Stream Processing Equipment
</HD2>
<P>The standard requires an effective means of removing ferrous material from grain streams so that such material does not enter equipment such as hammer mills, grinders and pulverizers. Large foreign objects, such as stones, should have been removed at the receiving pit. Introduction of foreign objects and ferrous material into such equipment can produce sparks which can create an explosion hazard. Acceptable means for removal of ferrous materials include the use of permanent or electromagnets. Means used to separate foreign objects and ferrous material should be cleaned regularly and kept in good repair as part of the preventive maintenance program in order to maximize their effectiveness.
</P>
<HD2>11. Emergency Escape
</HD2>
<P>The standard specifies that at least two means of escape must be provided from galleries (bin decks). Means of emergency escape may include any available means of egress (consisting of three components, exit access, exit, and exit discharge as defined in § 1910.35), the use of controlled descent devices with landing velocities not to exceed 15 ft/sec., or emergency escape ladders from galleries. Importantly, the means of emergency escape are to be addressed in the facility emergency action plan. Employees are to know the location of the nearest means of emergency escape and the action they must take during an emergency.
</P>
<HD2>12. Dryers
</HD2>
<P>Liquefied petroleum gas fired dryers should have the vaporizers installed at least ten feet from the dryer. The gas piping system should be protected from mechanical damage. The employer should establish procedures for locating and repairing leaks when there is a strong odor of gas or other signs of a leak.
</P>
<HD2>13. Inside Bucket Elevators
</HD2>
<P>Hazards associated with inside bucket elevator legs are the source of many grain elevator fires and explosions. Therefore, to mitigate these hazards, the standard requires the implementation of special safety precautions and procedures, as well as the installation of safety control devices. The standard provides for a phase-in period for many of the requirements to provide the employer time for planning the implementation of the requirements. Additionally, for elevators with a permanent storage capacity of less than one million bushels, daily visual inspection of belt alignment and bucket movement can be substituted for alignment monitoring devices and motion detection devices.
</P>
<P>The standard requires that belts (purchased after the effective date of the standard) have surface electrical resistance not to exceed 300 megohms. Test methods available regarding electrical resistance of belts are: The American Society for Testing and Materials D257-76, “Standard Test Methods for D-C Resistance or Conductance of Insulating Materials”; and, the International Standards Organization's #284, “Conveyor Belts-Electrical Conductivity-Specification and Method of Test.” When an employer has a written certification from the manufacturer that a belt has been tested using one of the above test methods, and meets the 300 megohm criteria, the belt is acceptable as meeting this standard. When using conductive belts, the employer should make certain that the head pulley and shaft are grounded through the drive motor ground or by some other equally effective means. When V-type belts are used to transmit power to the head pulley assembly from the motor drive shaft, it will be necessary to provide electrical continuity from the head pulley assembly to ground, e.g., motor grounds.
</P>
<P>Employers should also consider purchasing new belts that are flame retardant or fire resistive. A flame resistance test for belts is contained in 30 CFR 18.65.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.272 Grain Handling Facilities
</HD1>
<HD2>National Consensus Standards
</HD2>
<P>The following table contains a cross-reference listing of current national consensus standards which provide information that may be of assistance to grain handling operations. Employers who comply with provisions in these national consensus standards that provide equal or greater protection than those in § 1910.272 will be considered in compliance with the corresponding requirements in § 1910.272.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subject
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">National consensus standards
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grain elevators and facilities handling bulk raw agricultural commodities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 61B
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Feed mills</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 61C
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Facilities handling agricultural commodities for human consumption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 61D
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pneumatic conveying systems for agricultural commodities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guide for explosion venting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Explosion prevention systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 69
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dust removal and exhaust systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NFPA 91</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.272 Grain handling facilities
</HD1>
<HD2>References for Further Information
</HD2>
<P>The following references provide information which can be helpful in understanding the requirements contained in various provisions of the standard, as well as provide other helpful information.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Accident Prevention Manual for Industrial Operations;</I> National Safety Council, 425 North Michigan Avenue, Chicago, Illinois 60611.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Practical Guide to Elevator Design;</I> National Grain and Feed Association, P.O. Box 28328, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Dust Control for Grain Elevators;</I> National Grain and Feed Association, P.O. Box 28328, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Prevention of Grain Elevator and Mill Explosions;</I> National Academy of Sciences, Washington, DC. (Available from National Technical Information Service, Springfield, Virginia 22151.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Standard for the Prevention of Fires and Explosions in Grain Elevators and Facilities Handling Bulk Raw Agricultural Commodities,</I> NFPA 61B; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Standard for the Prevention of Fire and Dust Explosions in Feed Mills,</I> NFPA 61C; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Standard for the Prevention of Fire and Dust Explosions in the Milling of Agricultural Commodities for Human Consumption,</I> NFPA 61D; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Standard for Pneumatic Conveying Systems for Handling Feed, Flour, Grain and Other Agricultural Dusts,</I> NFPA 66; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Guide for Explosion Venting,</I> NFPA 68; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Standard on Explosion Prevention Systems,</I> NFPA 69; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Safety-Operations Plans;</I> U.S. Department of Agriculture, Washington, DC 20250.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Inplant Fire Prevention Control Programs;</I> Mill Mutual Fire Prevention Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Guidelines for Terminal Elevators;</I> Mill Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Standards for Preventing the Horizontal and Vertical Spread of Fires in Grain Handling Properties;</I> Mill Mutual Fire Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>15. <I>Belt Conveyors for Bulk Materials,</I> Part I and Part II, Data Sheet 570, Revision A; National Safety Council, 425 North Michigan Avenue, Chicago, Illinois 60611.
</P>
<P>16. <I>Suggestions for Precautions and Safety Practices in Welding and Cutting;</I> Mill Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>17. <I>Food Bins and Tanks,</I> Data Sheet 524; National Safety Council, 425 North Michigan Avenue, Chicago, Illinois 60611.
</P>
<P>18. <I>Pneumatic Dust Control in Grain Elevators;</I> National Academy of Sciences, Washington, DC. (Available from National Technical Information Service, Springfield, Virginia 22151.)
</P>
<P>19. <I>Dust Control Analysis and Layout Procedures for Grain Storage and Processing Plants</I>; Mill Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>20. <I>Standard for the Installation of Blower and Exhaust Systems for Dust, Stock and Vapor Removal,</I> NFPA 91; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.
</P>
<P>21. <I>Standards for the Installation of Direct Heat Grain Driers in Grain and Milling Properties;</I> Mill Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>22. <I>Guidelines for Lubrication and Bearing Maintenance;</I> Mill Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>23. <I>Organized Maintenance in Grain and Milling Properties;</I> Mill Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>24. <I>Safe and Efficient Elevator Legs for Grain and Milling Properties;</I> Mill Mutual Fire Prevention Bureau, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>25. <I>Explosion Venting and Supression of Bucket Elevators;</I> National Grain and Feed Association, P.O. Box 28328, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<P>26. <I>Lightning Protection Code,</I> NFPA 78; National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269.
</P>
<P>27. <I>Occupational Safety in Grain Elevators,</I> DHHS (NIOSH) Publication No. 83-126); National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Morgantown, West Virginia 26505.
</P>
<P>28. <I>Retrofitting and Constructing Grain Elevators;</I> National Grain and Feed Association, P.O. Box 28328, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<P>29. <I>Grain Industry Safety and Health Center—Training Series</I> (Preventing grain dust explosions, operations maintenance safety, transportation safety, occupational safety and health); Grain Elevator and Processing Society, P.O. Box 15026, Commerce Station, Minneapolis, Minnesota 55415-0026.
</P>
<P>30. <I>Suggestions for Organized Maintenance;</I> The Mill Mutuals Loss Control Department, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>31. <I>Safety—The First Step to Success;</I> The Mill Mutual Loss Control Department, 1 Pierce Place, Suite 1260 West, Itasca, Illinois 60143-1269.
</P>
<P>32. <I>Emergency Plan Notebook;</I> Schoeff, Robert W. and James L. Balding, Kansas State University, Cooperative Extension Service, Extension Grain Science and Industry, Shellenberger Hall, Manhattan, Kansas 66506.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49625, Dec. 31, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 17696, May 18, 1988; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 55 FR 25094, June 20, 1990; 61 FR 9242, Mar. 7, 1996; 61 FR 9584, Mar. 8, 1996; 67 FR 67965, Nov. 7, 2002; 76 FR 80740, Dec. 27, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Electrical</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR Part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV7 N="37" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.37" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.301" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.37.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.301   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart addresses electrical safety requirements that are necessary for the practical safeguarding of employees in their workplaces and is divided into four major divisions as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Design safety standards for electrical systems.</I> These regulations are contained in §§ 1910.302 through 1910.330. Sections 1910.302 through 1910.308 contain design safety standards for electric utilization systems. Included in this category are all electric equipment and installations used to provide electric power and light for employee workplaces. Sections 1910.309 through 1910.330 are reserved for possible future design safety standards for other electrical systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safety-related work practices.</I> These regulations will be contained in §§ 1910.331 through 1910.360.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safety-related maintenance requirements.</I> These regulations will be contained in §§ 1910.361 through 1910.380.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safety requirements for special equipment.</I> These regulations will be contained in §§ 1910.381 through 1910.398.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> Definitions applicable to each division are contained in § 1910.399.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 4056, Jan. 16, 1981; 46 FR 40185, Aug. 7, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="38" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Design Safety Standards for Electrical Systems</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 1910.302 through 1910.308 appear at 72 FR 7190, Feb. 14, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.302" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.302   Electric utilization systems.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 1910.302 through 1910.308 contain design safety standards for electric utilization systems.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Covered.</I> The provisions of §§ 1910.302 through 1910.308 cover electrical installations and utilization equipment installed or used within or on buildings, structures, and other premises, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Yards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Carnivals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Parking and other lots;
</P>
<P>(iv) Mobile homes;
</P>
<P>(v) Recreational vehicles;
</P>
<P>(vi) Industrial substations;
</P>
<P>(vii) Conductors that connect the installations to a supply of electricity; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Other outside conductors on the premises.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Not covered.</I> The provisions of §§ 1910.302 through 1910.308 do not cover:
</P>
<P>(i) Installations in ships, watercraft, railway rolling stock, aircraft, or automotive vehicles other than mobile homes and recreational vehicles;
</P>
<P>(ii) Installations underground in mines;
</P>
<P>(iii) Installations of railways for generation, transformation, transmission, or distribution of power used exclusively for operation of rolling stock or installations used exclusively for signaling and communication purposes;
</P>
<P>(iv) Installations of communication equipment under the exclusive control of communication utilities, located outdoors or in building spaces used exclusively for such installations; or
</P>
<P>(v) Installations under the exclusive control of electric utilities for the purpose of communication or metering; or for the generation, control, transformation, transmission, and distribution of electric energy located in buildings used exclusively by utilities for such purposes or located outdoors on property owned or leased by the utility or on public highways, streets, roads, etc., or outdoors by established rights on private property.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extent of application</I>—(1) <I>Requirements applicable to all installations.</I> The following requirements apply to all electrical installations and utilization equipment, regardless of when they were designed or installed:
</P>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(b)—Examination, installation, and use of equipment 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(c)(3)—Electrical connections—Splices 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(d)—Arcing parts 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(e)—Marking 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(f), except (f)(4) and (f)(5)—Disconnecting means and circuits 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(g)(2)—600 volts or less—Guarding of live parts 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(a)(3)—Use of grounding terminals and devices 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(f)(1)(i), (f)(1)(iv), and (f)(1)(v)—Overcurrent protection—600 volts, nominal, or less 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(g)(1)(ii), (g)(1)(iii), (g)(1)(iv), and (g)(1)(v)—Grounding—Systems to be grounded 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(g)(4)—Grounding—Grounding connections 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(g)(5)—Grounding—Grounding path 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(g)(6)(iv)(A) through (g)(6)(iv)(D), and (g)(6)(vi)—Grounding—Supports, enclosures, and equipment to be grounded 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(g)(7)—Grounding—Nonelectrical equipment 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(g)(8)(i)—Grounding—Methods of grounding fixed equipment 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.305(g)(1)—Flexible cords and cables—Use of flexible cords and cables 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.305(g)(2)(ii) and (g)(2)(iii)—Flexible cords and cables—Identification, splices, and terminations 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.307, except as specified in § 1910.307(b)—Hazardous (classified) locations
</FP-1>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements applicable to installations made after March 15, 1972.</I> Every electrical installation and all utilization equipment installed or overhauled after March 15, 1972, shall comply with the provisions of §§ 1910.302 through 1910.308, except as noted in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements applicable only to installations made after April 16, 1981.</I> The following requirements apply only to electrical installations and utilization equipment installed after April 16, 1981:
</P>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(h)(4)—Over 600 volts, nominal—Entrance and access to work space 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(f)(1)(vii) and (f)(1)(viii)—Overcurrent protection—600 volts, nominal, or less 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(g)(9)(i)—Grounding—Grounding of systems and circuits of 1000 volts and over (high voltage) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.305(j)(6)(ii)(D)—Equipment for general use—Capacitors 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(c)(9)—Elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, wheelchair lifts, and stairway chair lifts—Interconnection between multicar controllers 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(i)—Electrically driven or controlled irrigation machines 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(j)(5)—Swimming pools, fountains, and similar installations—Fountains 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.308(a)(1)(ii)—Systems over 600 volts, nominal—Aboveground wiring methods 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.308(c)(2)—Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 remote control, signaling, and power-limited circuits—Marking 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.308(d)—Fire alarm systems
</FP-1>
<P>(4) <I>Requirements applicable only to installations made after August 13, 2007.</I> The following requirements apply only to electrical installations and utilization equipment installed after August 13, 2007:
</P>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(f)(4)—Disconnecting means and circuits—Capable of accepting a lock 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(f)(5)—Disconnecting means and circuits—Marking for series combination ratings 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(g)(1)(iv) and (g)(1)(vii)—600 Volts, nominal, or less—Space about electric equipment 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.303(h)(5)(vi)—Over 600 volts, nominal—Working space and guarding 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(b)(1)—Branch circuits—Identification of multiwire branch circuits 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(b)(3)(i)—Branch circuits—Ground-fault circuit interrupter protection for personnel 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.304(f)(2)(i)(A), (f)(2)(i)(B) (but not the introductory text to § 1910.304(f)(2)(i)), and (f)(2)(iv)(A)—Overcurrent protection—Feeders and branch circuits over 600 volts, nominal 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.305(c)(3)(ii)—Switches—Connection of switches 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.305(c)(5)—Switches—Grounding 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(a)(1)(ii)—Electric signs and outline lighting—Disconnecting means 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(c)(4)—Elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, wheelchair lifts, and stairway chair lifts—Operation 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(c)(5)—Elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, wheelchair lifts, and stairway chair lifts—Location 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(c)(6)—Elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, wheelchair lifts, and stairway chair lifts—Identification and signs 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(c)(7)—Elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, wheelchair lifts, and stairway chair lifts—Single-car and multicar installations 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(j)(1)(iii)—Swimming pools, fountains, and similar installations—Receptacles 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.306(k)—Carnivals, circuses, fairs, and similar events 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.308(a)(5)(v) and (a)(5)(vi)(B)—Systems over 600 volts, nominal—Interrupting and isolating devices 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.308(a)(7)(vi)—Systems over 600 volts, nominal—Tunnel installations 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.308(b)(3)—Emergency power systems—Signs 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.308(c)(3)—Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 remote control, signaling, and power-limited circuits—Separation from conductors of other circuits 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>§ 1910.308(f)—Solar photovoltaic systems
</FP-1>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability of requirements for disconnecting means.</I> The requirement in § 1910.147(c)(2)(iii) that energy isolating devices be capable of accepting a lockout device whenever replacement or major repair, renovation or modification of a machine or equipment is performed, and whenever new machines or equipment are installed after January 2, 1990, applies in addition to any requirements in §§ 1910.303 through 1910.308 that disconnecting means be capable of being locked in the open position under certain conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.303" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.303   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval.</I> The conductors and equipment required or permitted by this subpart shall be acceptable only if approved, as defined in § 1910.399.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examination, installation, and use of equipment</I>—(1) <I>Examination.</I> Electric equipment shall be free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to employees. Safety of equipment shall be determined using the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(i) Suitability for installation and use in conformity with the provisions of this subpart;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>Suitability of equipment for an identified purpose may be evidenced by listing or labeling for that identified purpose.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Mechanical strength and durability, including, for parts designed to enclose and protect other equipment, the adequacy of the protection thus provided;
</P>
<P>(iii) Wire-bending and connection space;
</P>
<P>(iv) Electrical insulation;
</P>
<P>(v) Heating effects under all conditions of use;
</P>
<P>(vi) Arcing effects;
</P>
<P>(vii) Classification by type, size, voltage, current capacity, and specific use; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Other factors that contribute to the practical safeguarding of persons using or likely to come in contact with the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation and use.</I> Listed or labeled equipment shall be installed and used in accordance with any instructions included in the listing or labeling.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insulation integrity.</I> Completed wiring installations shall be free from short circuits and from grounds other than those required or permitted by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Interrupting rating.</I> Equipment intended to interrupt current at fault levels shall have an interrupting rating sufficient for the nominal circuit voltage and the current that is available at the line terminals of the equipment. Equipment intended to interrupt current at other than fault levels shall have an interrupting rating at nominal circuit voltage sufficient for the current that must be interrupted.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Circuit impedance and other characteristics.</I> The overcurrent protective devices, the total impedance, the component short-circuit current ratings, and other characteristics of the circuit to be protected shall be selected and coordinated to permit the circuit protective devices used to clear a fault to do so without the occurrence of extensive damage to the electrical components of the circuit. This fault shall be assumed to be either between two or more of the circuit conductors, or between any circuit conductor and the grounding conductor or enclosing metal raceway.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Deteriorating agents.</I> Unless identified for use in the operating environment, no conductors or equipment shall be located in damp or wet locations; where exposed to gases, fumes, vapors, liquids, or other agents that have a deteriorating effect on the conductors or equipment; or where exposed to excessive temperatures.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Mechanical execution of work.</I> Electric equipment shall be installed in a neat and workmanlike manner.
</P>
<P>(i) Unused openings in boxes, raceways, auxiliary gutters, cabinets, equipment cases, or housings shall be effectively closed to afford protection substantially equivalent to the wall of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conductors shall be racked to provide ready and safe access in underground and subsurface enclosures that persons enter for installation and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Internal parts of electrical equipment, including busbars, wiring terminals, insulators, and other surfaces, may not be damaged or contaminated by foreign materials such as paint, plaster, cleaners, abrasives, or corrosive residues.
</P>
<P>(iv) There shall be no damaged parts that may adversely affect safe operation or mechanical strength of the equipment, such as parts that are broken, bent, cut, or deteriorated by corrosion, chemical action, or overheating.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Mounting and cooling of equipment.</I> (i) Electric equipment shall be firmly secured to the surface on which it is mounted.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(8)(<E T="01">i</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>Wooden plugs driven into holes in masonry, concrete, plaster, or similar materials are not considered secure means of fastening electric equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Electric equipment that depends on the natural circulation of air and convection principles for cooling of exposed surfaces shall be installed so that room airflow over such surfaces is not prevented by walls or by adjacent installed equipment. For equipment designed for floor mounting, clearance between top surfaces and adjacent surfaces shall be provided to dissipate rising warm air.
</P>
<P>(iii) Electric equipment provided with ventilating openings shall be installed so that walls or other obstructions do not prevent the free circulation of air through the equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electrical connections</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Because of different characteristics of dissimilar metals:
</P>
<P>(i) Devices such as pressure terminal or pressure splicing connectors and soldering lugs shall be identified for the material of the conductor and shall be properly installed and used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conductors of dissimilar metals may not be intermixed in a terminal or splicing connector where physical contact occurs between dissimilar conductors (such as copper and aluminum, copper and copper-clad aluminum, or aluminum and copper-clad aluminum) unless the device is identified for the purpose and conditions of use; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Materials such as solder, fluxes, inhibitors, and compounds, where employed, shall be suitable for the use and shall be of a type that will not adversely affect the conductors, installation, or equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Terminals.</I> (i) Connection of conductors to terminal parts shall ensure a good connection without damaging the conductors and shall be made by means of pressure connectors (including set-screw type), solder lugs, or splices to flexible leads. However, No. 10 or smaller conductors may be connected by means of wire binding screws or studs and nuts having upturned lugs or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Terminals for more than one conductor and terminals used to connect aluminum shall be so identified.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Splices.</I> (i) Conductors shall be spliced or joined with splicing devices identified for the use or by brazing, welding, or soldering with a fusible metal or alloy. Soldered splices shall first be spliced or joined to be mechanically and electrically secure without solder and then soldered. All splices and joints and the free ends of conductors shall be covered with an insulation equivalent to that of the conductors or with an insulating device identified for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wire connectors or splicing means installed on conductors for direct burial shall be listed for such use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Arcing parts.</I> Parts of electric equipment that in ordinary operation produce arcs, sparks, flames, or molten metal shall be enclosed or separated and isolated from all combustible material.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Marking</I>—(1) <I>Identification of manufacturer and ratings.</I> Electric equipment may not be used unless the following markings have been placed on the equipment:
</P>
<P>(i) The manufacturer's name, trademark, or other descriptive marking by which the organization responsible for the product may be identified; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other markings giving voltage, current, wattage, or other ratings as necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Durability.</I> The marking shall be of sufficient durability to withstand the environment involved.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disconnecting means and circuits</I>—(1) <I>Motors and appliances.</I> Each disconnecting means required by this subpart for motors and appliances shall be legibly marked to indicate its purpose, unless located and arranged so the purpose is evident.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Services, feeders, and branch circuits.</I> Each service, feeder, and branch circuit, at its disconnecting means or overcurrent device, shall be legibly marked to indicate its purpose, unless located and arranged so the purpose is evident.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Durability of markings.</I> The markings required by paragraphs (f)(1) and (f)(2) of this section shall be of sufficient durability to withstand the environment involved.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capable of accepting a lock.</I> Disconnecting means required by this subpart shall be capable of being locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Marking for series combination ratings.</I> (i) Where circuit breakers or fuses are applied in compliance with the series combination ratings marked on the equipment by the manufacturer, the equipment enclosures shall be legibly marked in the field to indicate that the equipment has been applied with a series combination rating.
</P>
<P>(ii) The marking required by paragraph (f)(5)(i) of this section shall be readily visible and shall state “Caution—Series Combination System Rated __ Amperes. Identified Replacement Component Required.”
</P>
<P>(g) <I>600 Volts, nominal, or less.</I> This paragraph applies to electric equipment operating at 600 volts, nominal, or less to ground.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Space about electric equipment.</I> Sufficient access and working space shall be provided and maintained about all electric equipment to permit ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) Working space for equipment likely to require examination, adjustment, servicing, or maintenance while energized shall comply with the following dimensions, except as required or permitted elsewhere in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(A) The depth of the working space in the direction of access to live parts may not be less than indicated in Table S-1. Distances shall be measured from the live parts if they are exposed or from the enclosure front or opening if they are enclosed;
</P>
<P>(B) The width of working space in front of the electric equipment shall be the width of the equipment or 762 mm (30 in.), whichever is greater. In all cases, the working space shall permit at least a 90-degree opening of equipment doors or hinged panels; and
</P>
<P>(C) The work space shall be clear and extend from the grade, floor, or platform to the height required by paragraph (g)(1)(vi) of this section. However, other equipment associated with the electrical installation and located above or below the electric equipment may extend not more than 153 mm (6 in.) beyond the front of the electric equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Working space required by this standard may not be used for storage. When normally enclosed live parts are exposed for inspection or servicing, the working space, if in a passageway or general open space, shall be suitably guarded.
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one entrance of sufficient area shall be provided to give access to the working space about electric equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) For equipment rated 1200 amperes or more and over 1.83 m (6.0 ft) wide, containing overcurrent devices, switching devices, or control devices, there shall be one entrance not less than 610 mm (24 in.) wide and 1.98 m (6.5 ft) high at each end of the working space, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) Where the location permits a continuous and unobstructed way of exit travel, one means of exit is permitted; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the working space required by paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section is doubled, only one entrance to the working space is required; however, the entrance shall be located so that the edge of the entrance nearest the equipment is the minimum clear distance given in Table S-1 away from such equipment.
</P>
<P>(v) Illumination shall be provided for all working spaces about service equipment, switchboards, panelboards, and motor control centers installed indoors. Additional lighting fixtures are not required where the working space is illuminated by an adjacent light source. In electric equipment rooms, the illumination may not be controlled by automatic means only.
</P>
<P>(vi) The minimum headroom of working spaces about service equipment, switchboards, panelboards, or motor control centers shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For installations built before August 13, 2007, 1.91 m (6.25 ft); and
</P>
<P>(B) For installations built on or after August 13, 2007, 1.98 m (6.5 ft), except that where the electrical equipment exceeds 1.98 m (6.5 ft) in height, the minimum headroom may not be less than the height of the equipment.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-1—Minimum Depth of Clear Working Space at Electric Equipment, 600 V or Less 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Nominal voltage to ground 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Minimum clear distance for condition 
<sup>2</sup> 
<sup>3</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condition A 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condition B 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condition C 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0-150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup>0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup>3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup>0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup>3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">151-600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup>0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup>3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes to Table S-1:</E> 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> 1. Minimum clear distances may be 0.7 m (2.5 ft) for installations built before April 16, 1981.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> 2. Conditions A, B, and C are as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> Condition A—Exposed live parts on one side and no live or grounded parts on the other side of the working space, or exposed live parts on both sides effectively guarded by suitable wood or other insulating material. Insulated wire or insulated busbars operating at not over 300 volts are not considered live parts.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> Condition B—Exposed live parts on one side and grounded parts on the other side.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> Condition C—Exposed live parts on both sides of the work space (not guarded as provided in Condition A) with the operator between.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> 3. Working space is not required in back of assemblies such as dead-front switchboards or motor control centers where there are no renewable or adjustable parts (such as fuses or switches) on the back and where all connections are accessible from locations other than the back. Where rear access is required to work on deenergized parts on the back of enclosed equipment, a minimum working space of 762 mm (30 in.) horizontally shall be provided.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vii) Switchboards, panelboards, and distribution boards installed for the control of light and power circuits, and motor control centers shall be located in dedicated spaces and protected from damage.
</P>
<P>(A) For indoor installation, the dedicated space shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The space equal to the width and depth of the equipment and extending from the floor to a height of 1.83 m (6.0 ft) above the equipment or to the structural ceiling, whichever is lower, shall be dedicated to the electrical installation. Unless isolated from equipment by height or physical enclosures or covers that will afford adequate mechanical protection from vehicular traffic or accidental contact by unauthorized personnel or that complies with paragraph (g)(1)(vii)(A)(2) of this section, piping, ducts, or equipment foreign to the electrical installation may not be located in this area;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The space equal to the width and depth of the equipment shall be kept clear of foreign systems unless protection is provided to avoid damage from condensation, leaks, or breaks in such foreign systems. This area shall extend from the top of the electric equipment to the structural ceiling;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Sprinkler protection is permitted for the dedicated space where the piping complies with this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Control equipment that by its very nature or because of other requirements in this subpart must be adjacent to or within sight of its operating machinery is permitted in the dedicated space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(1)(<E T="01">vii</E>)(A) of this section:</HED>
<P>A dropped, suspended, or similar ceiling that does not add strength to the building structure is not considered a structural ceiling.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Outdoor electric equipment shall be installed in suitable enclosures and shall be protected from accidental contact by unauthorized personnel, or by vehicular traffic, or by accidental spillage or leakage from piping systems. No architectural appurtenance or other equipment may be located in the working space required by paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guarding of live parts.</I> (i) Except as elsewhere required or permitted by this standard, live parts of electric equipment operating at 50 volts or more shall be guarded against accidental contact by use of approved cabinets or other forms of approved enclosures or by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(A) By location in a room, vault, or similar enclosure that is accessible only to qualified persons;
</P>
<P>(B) By suitable permanent, substantial partitions or screens so arranged so that only qualified persons will have access to the space within reach of the live parts. Any openings in such partitions or screens shall be so sized and located that persons are not likely to come into accidental contact with the live parts or to bring conducting objects into contact with them;
</P>
<P>(C) By placement on a suitable balcony, gallery, or platform so elevated and otherwise located as to prevent access by unqualified persons; or
</P>
<P>(D) By elevation of 2.44 m (8.0 ft) or more above the floor or other working surface.
</P>
<P>(ii) In locations where electric equipment is likely to be exposed to physical damage, enclosures or guards shall be so arranged and of such strength as to prevent such damage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Entrances to rooms and other guarded locations containing exposed live parts shall be marked with conspicuous warning signs forbidding unqualified persons to enter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Over 600 volts, nominal</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Conductors and equipment used on circuits exceeding 600 volts, nominal, shall comply with all applicable provisions of the paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section and with the following provisions, which supplement or modify the preceding requirements. However, paragraphs (h)(2), (h)(3), and (h)(4) of this section do not apply to the equipment on the supply side of the service point.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enclosure for electrical installations.</I> (i) Electrical installations in a vault, room, or closet or in an area surrounded by a wall, screen, or fence, access to which is controlled by lock and key or other approved means, are considered to be accessible to qualified persons only. The type of enclosure used in a given case shall be designed and constructed according to the hazards associated with the installation.
</P>
<P>(ii) For installations other than equipment described in paragraph (h)(2)(v) of this section, a wall, screen, or fence shall be used to enclose an outdoor electrical installation to deter access by persons who are not qualified. A fence may not be less than 2.13 m (7.0 ft) in height or a combination of 1.80 m (6.0 ft) or more of fence fabric and a 305-mm (1-ft) or more extension utilizing three or more strands of barbed wire or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following requirements apply to indoor installations that are accessible to other than qualified persons:
</P>
<P>(A) The installations shall be made with metal-enclosed equipment or shall be enclosed in a vault or in an area to which access is controlled by a lock;
</P>
<P>(B) Metal-enclosed switchgear, unit substations, transformers, pull boxes, connection boxes, and other similar associated equipment shall be marked with appropriate caution signs; and
</P>
<P>(C) Openings in ventilated dry-type transformers and similar openings in other equipment shall be designed so that foreign objects inserted through these openings will be deflected from energized parts.
</P>
<P>(iv) Outdoor electrical installations having exposed live parts shall be accessible to qualified persons only.
</P>
<P>(v) The following requirements apply to outdoor enclosed equipment accessible to unqualified employees:
</P>
<P>(A) Ventilating or similar openings in equipment shall be so designed that foreign objects inserted through these openings will be deflected from energized parts;
</P>
<P>(B) Where exposed to physical damage from vehicular traffic, suitable guards shall be provided;
</P>
<P>(C) Nonmetallic or metal-enclosed equipment located outdoors and accessible to the general public shall be designed so that exposed nuts or bolts cannot be readily removed, permitting access to live parts;
</P>
<P>(D) Where nonmetallic or metal-enclosed equipment is accessible to the general public and the bottom of the enclosure is less than 2.44 m (8.0 ft) above the floor or grade level, the enclosure door or hinged cover shall be kept locked; and
</P>
<P>(E) Except for underground box covers that weigh over 45.4 kg (100 lb), doors and covers of enclosures used solely as pull boxes, splice boxes, or junction boxes shall be locked, bolted, or screwed on.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Work space about equipment.</I> Sufficient space shall be provided and maintained about electric equipment to permit ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment. Where energized parts are exposed, the minimum clear work space may not be less than 1.98 m (6.5 ft) high (measured vertically from the floor or platform) or less than 914 mm (3.0 ft) wide (measured parallel to the equipment). The depth shall be as required in paragraph (h)(5)(i) of this section. In all cases, the work space shall be adequate to permit at least a 90-degree opening of doors or hinged panels.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Entrance and access to work space.</I> (i) At least one entrance not less than 610 mm (24 in.) wide and 1.98 m (6.5 ft) high shall be provided to give access to the working space about electric equipment.
</P>
<P>(A) On switchboard and control panels exceeding 1.83 m (6.0 ft) in width, there shall be one entrance at each end of such boards unless the location of the switchboards and control panels permits a continuous and unobstructed way of exit travel, or unless the work space required in paragraph (h)(5)(i) of this section is doubled.
</P>
<P>(B) Where one entrance to the working space is permitted under the conditions described in paragraph (h)(4)(i)(A) of this section, the entrance shall be located so that the edge of the entrance nearest the switchboards and control panels is at least the minimum clear distance given in Table S-2 away from such equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Where bare energized parts at any voltage or insulated energized parts above 600 volts, nominal, to ground are located adjacent to such entrance, they shall be suitably guarded.
</P>
<P>(ii) Permanent ladders or stairways shall be provided to give safe access to the working space around electric equipment installed on platforms, balconies, mezzanine floors, or in attic or roof rooms or spaces.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Working space and guarding.</I> (i) Except as elsewhere required or permitted in this subpart, the minimum clear working space in the direction of access to live parts of electric equipment may not be less than specified in Table S-2. Distances shall be measured from the live parts, if they are exposed, or from the enclosure front or opening, if they are enclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) If switches, cutouts, or other equipment operating at 600 volts, nominal, or less, are installed in a room or enclosure where there are exposed live parts or exposed wiring operating at over 600 volts, nominal, the high-voltage equipment shall be effectively separated from the space occupied by the low-voltage equipment by a suitable partition, fence, or screen. However, switches or other equipment operating at 600 volts, nominal, or less, and serving only equipment within the high-voltage vault, room, or enclosure may be installed in the high-voltage enclosure, room, or vault if accessible to qualified persons only.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following requirements apply to the entrances to all buildings, rooms, or enclosures containing exposed live parts or exposed conductors operating at over 600 volts, nominal:
</P>
<P>(A) The entrances shall be kept locked unless they are under the observation of a qualified person at all times; and
</P>
<P>(B) Permanent and conspicuous warning signs shall be provided, reading substantially as follows:
</P>
<HD3>“DANGER—HIGH VOLTAGE—KEEP OUT.”
</HD3>
<P>(iv) Illumination shall be provided for all working spaces about electric equipment.
</P>
<P>(A) The lighting outlets shall be arranged so that persons changing lamps or making repairs on the lighting system will not be endangered by live parts or other equipment.
</P>
<P>(B) The points of control shall be located so that persons are prevented from contacting any live part or moving part of the equipment while turning on the lights.
</P>
<P>(v) Unguarded live parts above working space shall be maintained at elevations not less than specified in Table S-3.
</P>
<P>(vi) Pipes or ducts that are foreign to the electrical installation and that require periodic maintenance or whose malfunction would endanger the operation of the electrical system may not be located in the vicinity of service equipment, metal-enclosed power switchgear, or industrial control assemblies. Protection shall be provided where necessary to avoid damage from condensation leaks and breaks in such foreign systems.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)(5)(<E T="01">vi</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>Piping and other facilities are not considered foreign if provided for fire protection of the electrical installation.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-2—Minimum Depth of Clear Working Space at Electric Equipment, Over 600 V 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Nominal voltage to ground 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Minimum clear distance for condition 
<sup>2</sup> 
<sup>3</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condition A 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condition B 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condition C 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601-2500 V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2501-9000 V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9001 V-25 kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 25-75 kV 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above 75 kV 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes to Table S-2:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Minimum depth of clear working space in front of electric equipment with a nominal voltage to ground above 25,000 volts may be the same as that for 25,000 volts under Conditions A, B, and C for installations built before April 16, 1981.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Conditions A, B, and C are as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Condition A—Exposed live parts on one side and no live or grounded parts on the other side of the working space, or exposed live parts on both sides effectively guarded by suitable wood or other insulating material. Insulated wire or insulated busbars operating at not over 300 volts are not considered live parts.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Condition B—Exposed live parts on one side and grounded parts on the other side. Concrete, brick, and tile walls are considered as grounded surfaces.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Condition C—Exposed live parts on both sides of the work space (not guarded as provided in Condition A) with the operator between.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Working space is not required in back of equipment such as dead-front switchboards or control assemblies that has no renewable or adjustable parts (such as fuses or switches) on the back and where all connections are accessible from locations other than the back. Where rear access is required to work on the deenergized parts on the back of enclosed equipment, a minimum working space 762 mm (30 in.) horizontally shall be provided.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-3—Elevation of Unguarded Live Parts Above Working Space 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nominal voltage between phases 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Elevation 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601-7500 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 2.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 9.0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7501 V-35 kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 35 kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 + 9.5 mm/kV over 35 kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 + 0.37 in./kV over 35 kV.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The minimum elevation may be 2.6 m (8.5 ft) for installations built before August 13, 2007. The minimum elevation may be 2.4 m (8.0 ft) for installations built before April 16, 1981, if the nominal voltage between phases is in the range of 601-6600 volts.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 4056, Jan. 16, 1981, as amended at 73 FR 64205, Oct. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.304" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.304   Wiring design and protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use and identification of grounded and grounding conductors</I>—(1) <I>Identification of conductors.</I> (i) A conductor used as a grounded conductor shall be identifiable and distinguishable from all other conductors.
</P>
<P>(ii) A conductor used as an equipment grounding conductor shall be identifiable and distinguishable from all other conductors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Polarity of connections.</I> No grounded conductor may be attached to any terminal or lead so as to reverse designated polarity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of grounding terminals and devices.</I> A grounding terminal or grounding-type device on a receptacle, cord connector, or attachment plug may not be used for purposes other than grounding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Branch circuits</I>—(1) <I>Identification of multiwire branch circuits.</I> Where more than one nominal voltage system exists in a building containing multiwire branch circuits, each ungrounded conductor of a multiwire branch circuit, where accessible, shall be identified by phase and system. The means of identification shall be permanently posted at each branch-circuit panelboard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Receptacles and cord connectors.</I> (i) Receptacles installed on 15- and 20-ampere branch circuits shall be of the grounding type except as permitted for replacement receptacles in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section. Grounding-type receptacles shall be installed only on circuits of the voltage class and current for which they are rated, except as provided in Table S-4 and Table S-5.
</P>
<P>(ii) Receptacles and cord connectors having grounding contacts shall have those contacts effectively grounded except for receptacles mounted on portable and vehicle-mounted generators in accordance with paragraph (g)(3) of this section and replacement receptacles installed in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The grounding contacts of receptacles and cord connectors shall be grounded by connection to the equipment grounding conductor of the circuit supplying the receptacle or cord connector. The branch circuit wiring method shall include or provide an equipment grounding conductor to which the grounding contacts of the receptacle or cord connector shall be connected.
</P>
<P>(iv) Replacement of receptacles shall comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Where a grounding means exists in the receptacle enclosure or a grounding conductor is installed, grounding-type receptacles shall be used and shall be connected to the grounding means or conductor;
</P>
<P>(B) Ground-fault circuit-interrupter protected receptacles shall be provided where replacements are made at receptacle outlets that are required to be so protected elsewhere in this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(C) Where a grounding means does not exist in the receptacle enclosure, the installation shall comply with one of the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A nongrounding-type receptacle may be replaced with another nongrounding-type receptacle; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A nongrounding-type receptacle may be replaced with a ground-fault circuit-interrupter-type of receptacle that is marked “No Equipment Ground;” an equipment grounding conductor may not be connected from the ground-fault circuit-interrupter-type receptacle to any outlet supplied from the ground-fault circuit-interrupter receptacle; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A nongrounding-type receptacle may be replaced with a grounding-type receptacle where supplied through a ground-fault circuit-interrupter; the replacement receptacle shall be marked “GFCI Protected” and “No Equipment Ground;” an equipment grounding conductor may not be connected to such grounding-type receptacles.
</P>
<P>(v) Receptacles connected to circuits having different voltages, frequencies, or types of current (ac or dc) on the same premises shall be of such design that the attachment plugs used on these circuits are not interchangeable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ground-fault circuit interrupter protection for personnel.</I> (i) All 125-volt, single-phase, 15- and 20-ampere receptacles installed in bathrooms or on rooftops shall have ground-fault circuit-interrupter protection for personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following requirements apply to temporary wiring installations that are used during construction-like activities, including certain maintenance, remodeling, or repair activities, involving buildings, structures or equipment.
</P>
<P>(A) All 125-volt, single-phase,15-, 20-, and 30-ampere receptacle outlets that are not part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure and that are in use by personnel shall have ground-fault circuit-interrupter protection for personnel.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(A) of this section:</HED>
<P>A cord connector on an extension cord set is considered to be a receptacle outlet if the cord set is used for temporary electric power.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(A) of this section:</HED>
<P>Cord sets and devices incorporating the required ground-fault circuit-interrupter that are connected to the receptacle closest to the source of power are acceptable forms of protection.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) Receptacles other than 125 volt, single-phase, 15-, 20-, and 30-ampere receptacles that are not part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure and that are in use by personnel shall have ground-fault circuit-interrupter protection for personnel.
</P>
<P>(C) Where the ground-fault circuit-interrupter protection required by paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section is not available for receptacles other than 125-volt, single-phase, 15-, 20-, and 30-ampere, the employer shall establish and implement an assured equipment grounding conductor program covering cord sets, receptacles that are not a part of the building or structure, and equipment connected by cord and plug that are available for use or used by employees on those receptacles. This program shall comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A written description of the program, including the specific procedures adopted by the employer, shall be available at the jobsite for inspection and copying by the Assistant Secretary of Labor and any affected employee;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employer shall designate one or more competent persons to implement the program;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Each cord set, attachment cap, plug, and receptacle of cord sets, and any equipment connected by cord and plug, except cord sets and receptacles which are fixed and not exposed to damage, shall be visually inspected before each day's use for external defects, such as deformed or missing pins or insulation damage, and for indications of possible internal damage. Equipment found damaged or defective shall not be used until repaired;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The following tests shall be performed on all cord sets and receptacles which are not a part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure, and cord- and plug-connected equipment required to be grounded:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) All equipment grounding conductors shall be tested for continuity and shall be electrically continuous;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Each receptacle and attachment cap or plug shall be tested for correct attachment of the equipment grounding conductor. The equipment grounding conductor shall be connected to its proper terminal; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) All required tests shall be performed before first use; before equipment is returned to service following any repairs; before equipment is used after any incident which can be reasonably suspected to have caused damage (for example, when a cord set is run over); and at intervals not to exceed 3 months, except that cord sets and receptacles which are fixed and not exposed to damage shall be tested at intervals not exceeding 6 months;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The employer shall not make available or permit the use by employees of any equipment which has not met the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Tests performed as required in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section shall be recorded. This test record shall identify each receptacle, cord set, and cord- and plug-connected equipment that passed the test and shall indicate the last date it was tested or the interval for which it was tested. This record shall be kept by means of logs, color coding, or other effective means and shall be maintained until replaced by a more current record. The record shall be made available on the jobsite for inspection by the Assistant Secretary and any affected employee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Outlet devices.</I> Outlet devices shall have an ampere rating not less than the load to be served and shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) Where connected to a branch circuit having a rating in excess of 20 amperes, lampholders shall be of the heavy-duty type. A heavy-duty lampholder shall have a rating of not less than 660 watts if of the admedium type and not less than 750 watts if of any other type; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receptacle outlets shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(A) A single receptacle installed on an individual branch circuit shall have an ampere rating of not less than that of the branch circuit;
</P>
<P>(B) Where connected to a branch circuit supplying two or more receptacles or outlets, a receptacle may not supply a total cord- and plug-connected load in excess of the maximum specified in Table S-4; and
</P>
<P>(C) Where connected to a branch circuit supplying two or more receptacles or outlets, receptacle ratings shall conform to the values listed in Table S-5; or, where larger than 50 amperes, the receptacle rating may not be less than the branch-circuit rating. However, receptacles of cord- and plug-connected arc welders may have ampere ratings not less than the minimum branch-circuit conductor ampacity.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cord connections.</I> A receptacle outlet shall be installed wherever flexible cords with attachment plugs are used. Where flexible cords are permitted to be permanently connected, receptacles may be omitted.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-4—Maximum Cord- and Plug-Connected Load to Receptacle 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Circuit rating
<br/>(amperes) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Receptacle
<br/>rating
<br/>(amperes) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>load
<br/>(amperes) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 or 20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-5—Receptacle Ratings for Various Size Circuits 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Circuit rating
<br/>(amperes) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Receptacle rating
<br/>(amperes) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not over 15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 or 20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 or 50.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Outside conductors, 600 volts, nominal, or less.</I> The following requirements apply to branch-circuit, feeder, and service conductors rated 600 volts, nominal, or less and run outdoors as open conductors.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conductors on poles.</I> Conductors on poles shall have a separation of not less than 305 mm (1.0 ft) where not placed on racks or brackets. Conductors supported on poles shall provide a horizontal climbing space not less than the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Power conductors below communication conductors—762 mm (30 in.);
</P>
<P>(ii) Power conductors alone or above communication conductors:
</P>
<P>(A) 300 volts or less—610 mm (24 in.),
</P>
<P>(B) Over 300 volts—762 mm (30 in.);
</P>
<P>(iii) Communication conductors below power conductors—same as power conductors; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Communications conductors alone—no requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearance from ground.</I> Open conductors, open multiconductor cables, and service-drop conductors of not over 600 volts, nominal, shall conform to the minimum clearances specified in Table S-6.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-6—Clearances From Ground
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Distance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Installations built before August 13, 2007
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Installations built on or after August 13, 2007
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum voltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conditions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Voltage
<br/>to
<br/>ground
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conditions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.05 m (10.0 ft)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;600 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above finished grade or sidewalks, or from any platform or projection from which they might be reached. (If these areas are accessible to other than pedestrian traffic, then one of the other conditions applies)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;150 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above finished grade or sidewalks, or from any platform or projection from which they might be reached. (If these areas are accessible to other than pedestrian traffic, then one of the other conditions applies.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.66 m (12.0 ft)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;600 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over areas, other than public streets, alleys, roads, and driveways, subject to vehicular traffic other than truck traffic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;300 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over residential property and driveways. Over commercial areas subject to pedestrian traffic or to vehicular traffic other than truck traffic. (This category includes conditions covered under the 3.05-m (10.0-ft) category where the voltage exceeds 150 V.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.57 m (15.0 ft)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;600 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over areas, other than public streets, alleys, roads, and driveways, subject to truck traffic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">301 to 600 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over residential property and driveways. Over commercial areas subject to pedestrian traffic or to vehicular traffic other than truck traffic. (This category includes conditions covered under the 3.05-m (10.0-ft) category where the voltage exceeds 300 V.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.49 m (18.0 ft)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;600 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over public streets, alleys, roads, and driveways</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;600 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over public streets, alleys, roads, and driveways. Over commercial areas subject to truck traffic. Other land traversed by vehicles, including land used for cultivating or grazing and forests and orchards.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Clearance from building openings.</I> (i) Service conductors installed as open conductors or multiconductor cable without an overall outer jacket shall have a clearance of not less than 914 mm (3.0 ft) from windows that are designed to be opened, doors, porches, balconies, ladders, stairs, fire escapes, and similar locations. However, conductors that run above the top level of a window may be less than 914 mm (3.0 ft) from the window. Vertical clearance of final spans above, or within 914 mm (3.0 ft) measured horizontally of, platforms, projections, or surfaces from which they might be reached shall be maintained in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Overhead service conductors may not be installed beneath openings through which materials may be moved, such as openings in farm and commercial buildings, and may not be installed where they will obstruct entrance to these building openings.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Above roofs.</I> Overhead spans of open conductors and open multiconductor cables shall have a vertical clearance of not less than 2.44 m (8.0 ft) above the roof surface. The vertical clearance above the roof level shall be maintained for a distance not less than 914 mm (3.0 ft) in all directions from the edge of the roof.
</P>
<P>(i) The area above a roof surface subject to pedestrian or vehicular traffic shall have a vertical clearance from the roof surface in accordance with the clearance requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reduction in clearance to 914 mm (3.0 ft) is permitted where the voltage between conductors does not exceed 300 and the roof has a slope of 102 mm (4 in.) in 305 mm (12 in.) or greater.
</P>
<P>(iii) A reduction in clearance above only the overhanging portion of the roof to not less than 457 mm (18 in.) is permitted where the voltage between conductors does not exceed 300 if:
</P>
<P>(A) The conductors do not pass above the roof overhang for a distance of more than 1.83 m (6.0 ft), 1.22 m (4.0 ft) horizontally, and
</P>
<P>(B) The conductors are terminated at a through-the-roof raceway or approved support.
</P>
<P>(iv) The requirement for maintaining a vertical clearance of 914 mm (3.0 ft) from the edge of the roof does not apply to the final conductor span, where the conductors are attached to the side of a building.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Location of outdoor lamps.</I> Lamps for outdoor lighting shall be located below all energized conductors, transformers, or other electric equipment, unless such equipment is controlled by a disconnecting means that can be locked in the open position, or unless adequate clearances or other safeguards are provided for relamping operations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Services</I>—(1) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> (i) Means shall be provided to disconnect all conductors in a building or other structure from the service-entrance conductors. The service disconnecting means shall plainly indicate whether it is in the open or closed position and shall be installed at a readily accessible location nearest the point of entrance of the service-entrance conductors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each service disconnecting means shall simultaneously disconnect all ungrounded conductors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each service disconnecting means shall be suitable for the prevailing conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Services over 600 volts, nominal.</I> The following additional requirements apply to services over 600 volts, nominal.
</P>
<P>(i) Service-entrance conductors installed as open wires shall be guarded to make them accessible only to qualified persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Signs warning of high voltage shall be posted where unqualified employees might come in contact with live parts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Overcurrent protection</I>—(1) <I>600 volts, nominal, or less.</I> The following requirements apply to overcurrent protection of circuits rated 600 volts, nominal, or less.
</P>
<P>(i) Conductors and equipment shall be protected from overcurrent in accordance with their ability to safely conduct current.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for motor running overload protection, overcurrent devices may not interrupt the continuity of the grounded conductor unless all conductors of the circuit are opened simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(iii) A disconnecting means shall be provided on the supply side of all fuses in circuits over 150 volts to ground and cartridge fuses in circuits of any voltage where accessible to other than qualified persons so that each individual circuit containing fuses can be independently disconnected from the source of power. However, a current-limiting device without a disconnecting means is permitted on the supply side of the service disconnecting means. In addition, a single disconnecting means is permitted on the supply side of more than one set of fuses as permitted by the exception in § 1910.305(j)(4)(vi) for group operation of motors, and a single disconnecting means is permitted for fixed electric space-heating equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Overcurrent devices shall be readily accessible to each employee or authorized building management personnel. These overcurrent devices may not be located where they will be exposed to physical damage or in the vicinity of easily ignitable material.
</P>
<P>(v) Fuses and circuit breakers shall be so located or shielded that employees will not be burned or otherwise injured by their operation. Handles or levers of circuit breakers, and similar parts that may move suddenly in such a way that persons in the vicinity are likely to be injured by being struck by them, shall be guarded or isolated.
</P>
<P>(vi) Circuit breakers shall clearly indicate whether they are in the open (off) or closed (on) position.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where circuit breaker handles on switchboards are operated vertically rather than horizontally or rotationally, the up position of the handle shall be the closed (on) position.
</P>
<P>(viii) Circuit breakers used as switches in 120-volt and 277-volt, fluorescent lighting circuits shall be listed and marked “SWD.”
</P>
<P>(ix) A circuit breaker with a straight voltage rating, such as 240 V or 480 V, may only be installed in a circuit in which the nominal voltage between any two conductors does not exceed the circuit breaker's voltage rating. A two-pole circuit breaker may not be used for protecting a 3-phase, corner-grounded delta circuit unless the circuit breaker is marked 1Φ—3Φ to indicate such suitability. A circuit breaker with a slash rating, such as 120/240 V or 480Y/277 V, may only be installed in a circuit where the nominal voltage of any conductor to ground does not exceed the lower of the two values of the circuit breaker's voltage rating and the nominal voltage between any two conductors does not exceed the higher value of the circuit breaker's voltage rating.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Feeders and branch circuits over 600 volts, nominal.</I> The following requirements apply to feeders and branch circuits energized at more than 600 volts, nominal:
</P>
<P>(i) Feeder and branch-circuit conductors shall have overcurrent protection in each ungrounded conductor located at the point where the conductor receives its supply or at a location in the circuit determined under engineering supervision;
</P>
<P>(A) Circuit breakers used for overcurrent protection of three-phase circuits shall have a minimum of three overcurrent relays operated from three current transformers. On three-phase, three-wire circuits, an overcurrent relay in the residual circuit of the current transformers may replace one of the phase relays. An overcurrent relay, operated from a current transformer that links all phases of a three-phase, three-wire circuit, may replace the residual relay and one other phase-conductor current transformer. Where the neutral is not grounded on the load side of the circuit, the current transformer may link all three phase conductors and the grounded circuit conductor (neutral); and
</P>
<P>(B) If fuses are used for overcurrent protection, a fuse shall be connected in series with each ungrounded conductor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each protective device shall be capable of detecting and interrupting all values of current that can occur at its location in excess of its trip setting or melting point;
</P>
<P>(iii) The operating time of the protective device, the available short-circuit current, and the conductor used shall be coordinated to prevent damaging or dangerous temperatures in conductors or conductor insulation under short-circuit conditions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The following additional requirements apply to feeders only:
</P>
<P>(A) The continuous ampere rating of a fuse may not exceed three times the ampacity of the conductors. The long-time trip element setting of a breaker or the minimum trip setting of an electronically actuated fuse may not exceed six times the ampacity of the conductor. For fire pumps, conductors may be protected for short circuit only; and
</P>
<P>(B) Conductors tapped to a feeder may be protected by the feeder overcurrent device where that overcurrent device also protects the tap conductor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Grounding.</I> Paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(9) of this section contain grounding requirements for systems, circuits, and equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Systems to be grounded.</I> Systems that supply premises wiring shall be grounded as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) All 3-wire dc systems shall have their neutral conductor grounded;
</P>
<P>(ii) Two-wire dc systems operating at over 50 volts through 300 volts between conductors shall be grounded unless:
</P>
<P>(A) They supply only industrial equipment in limited areas and are equipped with a ground detector;
</P>
<P>(B) They are rectifier-derived from an ac system complying with paragraphs (g)(1)(iii), (g)(1)(iv), and (g)(1)(v) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) They are fire-alarm circuits having a maximum current of 0.030 amperes;
</P>
<P>(iii) AC circuits of less than 50 volts shall be grounded if they are installed as overhead conductors outside of buildings or if they are supplied by transformers and the transformer primary supply system is ungrounded or exceeds 150 volts to ground;
</P>
<P>(iv) AC systems of 50 volts to 1000 volts shall be grounded under any of the following conditions, unless exempted by paragraph (g)(1)(v) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) If the system can be so grounded that the maximum voltage to ground on the ungrounded conductors does not exceed 150 volts;
</P>
<P>(B) If the system is nominally rated three-phase, four-wire wye connected in which the neutral is used as a circuit conductor;
</P>
<P>(C) If the system is nominally rated three-phase, four-wire delta connected in which the midpoint of one phase is used as a circuit conductor; or
</P>
<P>(D) If a service conductor is uninsulated;
</P>
<P>(v) AC systems of 50 volts to 1000 volts are not required to be grounded under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If the system is used exclusively to supply industrial electric furnaces for melting, refining, tempering, and the like;
</P>
<P>(B) If the system is separately derived and is used exclusively for rectifiers supplying only adjustable speed industrial drives;
</P>
<P>(C) If the system is separately derived and is supplied by a transformer that has a primary voltage rating less than 1000 volts, provided all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The system is used exclusively for control circuits;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The conditions of maintenance and supervision ensure that only qualified persons will service the installation;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Continuity of control power is required; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Ground detectors are installed on the control system;
</P>
<P>(D) If the system is an isolated power system that supplies circuits in health care facilities; or
</P>
<P>(E) If the system is a high-impedance grounded neutral system in which a grounding impedance, usually a resistor, limits the ground-fault current to a low value for 3-phase ac systems of 480 volts to 1000 volts provided all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The conditions of maintenance and supervision ensure that only qualified persons will service the installation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Continuity of power is required;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Ground detectors are installed on the system; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Line-to-neutral loads are not served.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conductor to be grounded.</I> The conductor to be grounded for ac premises wiring systems required to be grounded by paragraph (g)(1) of this section shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) One conductor of a single-phase, two-wire system shall be grounded;
</P>
<P>(ii) The neutral conductor of a single-phase, three-wire system shall be grounded;
</P>
<P>(iii) The common conductor of a multiphase system having one wire common to all phases shall be grounded;
</P>
<P>(iv) One phase conductor of a multiphase system where one phase is grounded shall be grounded; and
</P>
<P>(v) The neutral conductor of a multiphase system in which one phase is used as a neutral conductor shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portable and vehicle-mounted generators.</I> (i) The frame of a portable generator need not be grounded and may serve as the grounding electrode for a system supplied by the generator under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The generator supplies only equipment mounted on the generator or cord- and plug-connected equipment through receptacles mounted on the generator, or both; and
</P>
<P>(B) The noncurrent-carrying metal parts of equipment and the equipment grounding conductor terminals of the receptacles are bonded to the generator frame.
</P>
<P>(ii) The frame of a vehicle need not be grounded and may serve as the grounding electrode for a system supplied by a generator located on the vehicle under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The frame of the generator is bonded to the vehicle frame;
</P>
<P>(B) The generator supplies only equipment located on the vehicle and cord- and plug-connected equipment through receptacles mounted on the vehicle;
</P>
<P>(C) The noncurrent-carrying metal parts of equipment and the equipment grounding conductor terminals of the receptacles are bonded to the generator frame; and
</P>
<P>(D) The system complies with all other provisions of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A system conductor that is required to be grounded by the provisions of paragraph (g)(2) of this section shall be bonded to the generator frame where the generator is a component of a separately derived system.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Grounding connections.</I> (i) For a grounded system, a grounding electrode conductor shall be used to connect both the equipment grounding conductor and the grounded circuit conductor to the grounding electrode. Both the equipment grounding conductor and the grounding electrode conductor shall be connected to the grounded circuit conductor on the supply side of the service disconnecting means or on the supply side of the system disconnecting means or overcurrent devices if the system is separately derived.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an ungrounded service-supplied system, the equipment grounding conductor shall be connected to the grounding electrode conductor at the service equipment. For an ungrounded separately derived system, the equipment grounding conductor shall be connected to the grounding electrode conductor at, or ahead of, the system disconnecting means or overcurrent devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) On extensions of existing branch circuits that do not have an equipment grounding conductor, grounding-type receptacles may be grounded to a grounded cold water pipe near the equipment if the extension was installed before August 13, 2007. When any element of this branch circuit is replaced, the entire branch circuit shall use an equipment grounding conductor that complies with all other provisions of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grounding path.</I> The path to ground from circuits, equipment, and enclosures shall be permanent, continuous, and effective.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Supports, enclosures, and equipment to be grounded.</I> (i) Metal cable trays, metal raceways, and metal enclosures for conductors shall be grounded, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) Metal enclosures such as sleeves that are used to protect cable assemblies from physical damage need not be grounded; and
</P>
<P>(B) Metal enclosures for conductors added to existing installations of open wire, knob-and-tube wiring, and nonmetallic-sheathed cable need not be grounded if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Runs are less than 7.62 meters (25.0 ft);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Enclosures are free from probable contact with ground, grounded metal, metal laths, or other conductive materials; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Enclosures are guarded against employee contact.
</P>
<P>(ii) Metal enclosures for service equipment shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(iii) Frames of electric ranges, wall-mounted ovens, counter-mounted cooking units, clothes dryers, and metal outlet or junction boxes that are part of the circuit for these appliances shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(iv) Exposed noncurrent-carrying metal parts of fixed equipment that may become energized shall be grounded under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If within 2.44 m (8 ft) vertically or 1.52 m (5 ft) horizontally of ground or grounded metal objects and subject to employee contact;
</P>
<P>(B) If located in a wet or damp location and not isolated;
</P>
<P>(C) If in electrical contact with metal;
</P>
<P>(D) If in a hazardous (classified) location;
</P>
<P>(E) If supplied by a metal-clad, metal-sheathed, or grounded metal raceway wiring method; or
</P>
<P>(F) If equipment operates with any terminal at over 150 volts to ground.
</P>
<P>(v) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (g)(6)(iv) of this section, exposed noncurrent-carrying metal parts of the following types of fixed equipment need not be grounded:
</P>
<P>(A) Enclosures for switches or circuit breakers used for other than service equipment and accessible to qualified persons only;
</P>
<P>(B) Electrically heated appliances that are permanently and effectively insulated from ground;
</P>
<P>(C) Distribution apparatus, such as transformer and capacitor cases, mounted on wooden poles, at a height exceeding 2.44 m (8.0 ft) above ground or grade level; and
</P>
<P>(D) Listed equipment protected by a system of double insulation, or its equivalent, and distinctively marked as such.
</P>
<P>(vi) Exposed noncurrent-carrying metal parts of cord- and plug-connected equipment that may become energized shall be grounded under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If in hazardous (classified) locations (see § 1910.307);
</P>
<P>(B) If operated at over 150 volts to ground, except for guarded motors and metal frames of electrically heated appliances if the appliance frames are permanently and effectively insulated from ground;
</P>
<P>(C) If the equipment is of the following types:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Refrigerators, freezers, and air conditioners;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Clothes-washing, clothes-drying, and dishwashing machines, sump pumps, and electric aquarium equipment;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Hand-held motor-operated tools, stationary and fixed motor-operated tools, and light industrial motor-operated tools;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Motor-operated appliances of the following types: hedge clippers, lawn mowers, snow blowers, and wet scrubbers;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Cord- and plug-connected appliances used in damp or wet locations, or by employees standing on the ground or on metal floors or working inside of metal tanks or boilers;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Portable and mobile X-ray and associated equipment;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Tools likely to be used in wet and conductive locations; and
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I> Portable hand lamps.
</P>
<P>(vii) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (g)(6)(vi) of this section, the following equipment need not be grounded:
</P>
<P>(A) Tools likely to be used in wet and conductive locations if supplied through an isolating transformer with an ungrounded secondary of not over 50 volts; and
</P>
<P>(B) Listed or labeled portable tools and appliances if protected by an approved system of double insulation, or its equivalent, and distinctively marked.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Nonelectrical equipment.</I> The metal parts of the following nonelectrical equipment shall be grounded: frames and tracks of electrically operated cranes and hoists; frames of nonelectrically driven elevator cars to which electric conductors are attached; hand-operated metal shifting ropes or cables of electric elevators; and metal partitions, grill work, and similar metal enclosures around equipment of over 750 volts between conductors.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Methods of grounding fixed equipment.</I> (i) Noncurrent-carrying metal parts of fixed equipment, if required to be grounded by this subpart, shall be grounded by an equipment grounding conductor that is contained within the same raceway, cable, or cord, or runs with or encloses the circuit conductors. For dc circuits only, the equipment grounding conductor may be run separately from the circuit conductors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Electric equipment is considered to be effectively grounded if it is secured to, and in electrical contact with, a metal rack or structure that is provided for its support and the metal rack or structure is grounded by the method specified for the noncurrent-carrying metal parts of fixed equipment in paragraph (g)(8)(i) of this section. Metal car frames supported by metal hoisting cables attached to or running over metal sheaves or drums of grounded elevator machines are also considered to be effectively grounded.
</P>
<P>(iii) For installations made before April 16, 1981, electric equipment is also considered to be effectively grounded if it is secured to, and in metallic contact with, the grounded structural metal frame of a building. When any element of this branch circuit is replaced, the entire branch circuit shall use an equipment grounding conductor that complies with all other provisions of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Grounding of systems and circuits of 1000 volts and over (high voltage).</I> If high voltage systems are grounded, they shall comply with all applicable provisions of paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(8) of this section as supplemented and modified by the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Systems supplying portable or mobile high voltage equipment, other than substations installed on a temporary basis, shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The system shall have its neutral grounded through an impedance. If a delta-connected high voltage system is used to supply the equipment, a system neutral shall be derived.
</P>
<P>(B) Exposed noncurrent-carrying metal parts of portable and mobile equipment shall be connected by an equipment grounding conductor to the point at which the system neutral impedance is grounded.
</P>
<P>(C) Ground-fault detection and relaying shall be provided to automatically deenergize any high voltage system component that has developed a ground fault. The continuity of the equipment grounding conductor shall be continuously monitored so as to deenergize automatically the high voltage feeder to the portable equipment upon loss of continuity of the equipment grounding conductor.
</P>
<P>(D) The grounding electrode to which the portable equipment system neutral impedance is connected shall be isolated from and separated in the ground by at least 6.1 m (20.0 ft) from any other system or equipment grounding electrode, and there shall be no direct connection between the grounding electrodes, such as buried pipe, fence, and so forth.
</P>
<P>(ii) All noncurrent-carrying metal parts of portable equipment and fixed equipment, including their associated fences, housings, enclosures, and supporting structures, shall be grounded. However, equipment that is guarded by location and isolated from ground need not be grounded. Additionally, pole-mounted distribution apparatus at a height exceeding 2.44 m (8.0 ft) above ground or grade level need not be grounded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 4056, Jan. 16, 1981, as amended at 73 FR 64205, Oct. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.305" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.305   Wiring methods, components, and equipment for general use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Wiring methods.</I> The provisions of this section do not apply to conductors that are an integral part of factory-assembled equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) Metal raceways, cable trays, cable armor, cable sheath, enclosures, frames, fittings, and other metal noncurrent-carrying parts that are to serve as grounding conductors, with or without the use of supplementary equipment grounding conductors, shall be effectively bonded where necessary to ensure electrical continuity and the capacity to conduct safely any fault current likely to be imposed on them. Any nonconductive paint, enamel, or similar coating shall be removed at threads, contact points, and contact surfaces or be connected by means of fittings designed so as to make such removal unnecessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where necessary for the reduction of electrical noise (electromagnetic interference) of the grounding circuit, an equipment enclosure supplied by a branch circuit may be isolated from a raceway containing circuits supplying only that equipment by one or more listed nonmetallic raceway fittings located at the point of attachment of the raceway to the equipment enclosure. The metal raceway shall be supplemented by an internal insulated equipment grounding conductor installed to ground the equipment enclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) No wiring systems of any type may be installed in ducts used to transport dust, loose stock, or flammable vapors. No wiring system of any type may be installed in any duct used for vapor removal or for ventilation of commercial-type cooking equipment, or in any shaft containing only such ducts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temporary wiring.</I> Except as specifically modified in this paragraph, all other requirements of this subpart for permanent wiring shall also apply to temporary wiring installations.
</P>
<P>(i) Temporary electrical power and lighting installations of 600 volts, nominal, or less may be used only as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) During and for remodeling, maintenance, or repair of buildings, structures, or equipment, and similar activities;
</P>
<P>(B) For a period not to exceed 90 days for Christmas decorative lighting, carnivals, and similar purposes; or
</P>
<P>(C) For experimental or development work, and during emergencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Temporary wiring shall be removed immediately upon completion of the project or purpose for which the wiring was installed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Temporary electrical installations of more than 600 volts may be used only during periods of tests, experiments, emergencies, or construction-like activities.
</P>
<P>(iv) The following requirements apply to feeders:
</P>
<P>(A) Feeders shall originate in an approved distribution center.
</P>
<P>(B) Conductors shall be run as multiconductor cord or cable assemblies. However, if installed as permitted in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(C) of this section, and if accessible only to qualified persons, feeders may be run as single insulated conductors.
</P>
<P>(v) The following requirements apply to branch circuits:
</P>
<P>(A) Branch circuits shall originate in an approved power outlet or panelboard.
</P>
<P>(B) Conductors shall be multiconductor cord or cable assemblies or open conductors. If run as open conductors, they shall be fastened at ceiling height every 3.05 m (10.0 ft).
</P>
<P>(C) No branch-circuit conductor may be laid on the floor.
</P>
<P>(D) Each branch circuit that supplies receptacles or fixed equipment shall contain a separate equipment grounding conductor if run as open conductors.
</P>
<P>(vi) Receptacles shall be of the grounding type. Unless installed in a continuous grounded metallic raceway or metallic covered cable, each branch circuit shall contain a separate equipment grounding conductor and all receptacles shall be electrically connected to the grounding conductor.
</P>
<P>(vii) No bare conductors nor earth returns may be used for the wiring of any temporary circuit.
</P>
<P>(viii) Suitable disconnecting switches or plug connectors shall be installed to permit the disconnection of all ungrounded conductors of each temporary circuit. Multiwire branch circuits shall be provided with a means to disconnect simultaneously all ungrounded conductors at the power outlet or panelboard where the branch circuit originated.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">viii</E>) of this section.</HED>
<P>Circuit breakers with their handles connected by approved handle ties are considered a single disconnecting means for the purpose of this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ix) All lamps for general illumination shall be protected from accidental contact or breakage by a suitable fixture or lampholder with a guard. Brass shell, paper-lined sockets, or other metal-cased sockets may not be used unless the shell is grounded.
</P>
<P>(x) Flexible cords and cables shall be protected from accidental damage, as might be caused, for example, by sharp corners, projections, and doorways or other pinch points.
</P>
<P>(xi) Cable assemblies and flexible cords and cables shall be supported in place at intervals that ensure that they will be protected from physical damage. Support shall be in the form of staples, cables ties, straps, or similar type fittings installed so as not to cause damage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cable trays.</I> (i) Only the following wiring methods may be installed in cable tray systems: armored cable; electrical metallic tubing; electrical nonmetallic tubing; fire alarm cables; flexible metal conduit; flexible metallic tubing; instrumentation tray cable; intermediate metal conduit; liquidtight flexible metal conduit; liquidtight flexible nonmetallic conduit; metal-clad cable; mineral-insulated, metal-sheathed cable; multiconductor service-entrance cable; multiconductor underground feeder and branch-circuit cable; multipurpose and communications cables; nonmetallic-sheathed cable; power and control tray cable; power-limited tray cable; optical fiber cables; and other factory-assembled, multiconductor control, signal, or power cables that are specifically approved for installation in cable trays, rigid metal conduit, and rigid nonmetallic conduit.
</P>
<P>(ii) In industrial establishments where conditions of maintenance and supervision assure that only qualified persons will service the installed cable tray system, the following cables may also be installed in ladder, ventilated-trough, or ventilated-channel cable trays:
</P>
<P>(A) Single conductor cable; the cable shall be No. 1/0 or larger and shall be of a type listed and marked on the surface for use in cable trays; where Nos. 1/0 through 4/0 single conductor cables are installed in ladder cable tray, the maximum allowable rung spacing for the ladder cable tray shall be 229 mm (9 in.); where exposed to direct rays of the sun, cables shall be identified as being sunlight resistant;
</P>
<P>(B) Welding cables installed in dedicated cable trays;
</P>
<P>(C) Single conductors used as equipment grounding conductors; these conductors, which may be insulated, covered, or bare, shall be No. 4 or larger; and
</P>
<P>(D) Multiconductor cable, Type MV; where exposed to direct rays of the sun, the cable shall be identified as being sunlight resistant.
</P>
<P>(iii) Metallic cable trays may be used as equipment grounding conductors only where continuous maintenance and supervision ensure that qualified persons will service the installed cable tray system.
</P>
<P>(iv) Cable trays in hazardous (classified) locations may contain only the cable types permitted in such locations. (See § 1910.307.)
</P>
<P>(v) Cable tray systems may not be used in hoistways or where subjected to severe physical damage.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Open wiring on insulators.</I> (i) Open wiring on insulators is only permitted on systems of 600 volts, nominal, or less for industrial or agricultural establishments, indoors or outdoors, in wet or dry locations, where subject to corrosive vapors, and for services.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conductors smaller than No. 8 shall be rigidly supported on noncombustible, nonabsorbent insulating materials and may not contact any other objects. Supports shall be installed as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Within 152 mm (6 in.) from a tap or splice;
</P>
<P>(B) Within 305 mm (12 in.) of a dead-end connection to a lampholder or receptacle; and
</P>
<P>(C) At intervals not exceeding 1.37 m (4.5 ft), and at closer intervals sufficient to provide adequate support where likely to be disturbed.
</P>
<P>(iii) In dry locations, where not exposed to severe physical damage, conductors may be separately enclosed in flexible nonmetallic tubing. The tubing shall be in continuous lengths not exceeding 4.57 m (15.0 ft) and secured to the surface by straps at intervals not exceeding 1.37 m (4.5 ft).
</P>
<P>(iv) Open conductors shall be separated from contact with walls, floors, wood cross members, or partitions through which they pass by tubes or bushings of noncombustible, nonabsorbent insulating material. If the bushing is shorter than the hole, a waterproof sleeve of nonconductive material shall be inserted in the hole and an insulating bushing slipped into the sleeve at each end in such a manner as to keep the conductors absolutely out of contact with the sleeve. Each conductor shall be carried through a separate tube or sleeve.
</P>
<P>(v) Where open conductors cross ceiling joints and wall studs and are exposed to physical damage (for example, located within 2.13 m (7.0 ft) of the floor), they shall be protected.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cabinets, boxes, and fittings</I>—(1) <I>Conductors entering boxes, cabinets, or fittings.</I> (i) Conductors entering cutout boxes, cabinets, or fittings shall be protected from abrasion, and openings through which conductors enter shall be effectively closed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unused openings in cabinets, boxes, and fittings shall be effectively closed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where cable is used, each cable shall be secured to the cabinet, cutout box, or meter socket enclosure. However, where cable with an entirely nonmetallic sheath enters the top of a surface-mounted enclosure through one or more nonflexible raceways not less than 457 mm (18 in.) or more than 3.05 m (10.0 ft) in length, the cable need not be secured to the cabinet, box, or enclosure provided all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) Each cable is fastened within 305 mm (12 in.) of the outer end of the raceway, measured along the sheath;
</P>
<P>(B) The raceway extends directly above the enclosure and does not penetrate a structural ceiling;
</P>
<P>(C) A fitting is provided on each end of the raceway to protect the cable from abrasion, and the fittings remain accessible after installation;
</P>
<P>(D) The raceway is sealed or plugged at the outer end using approved means so as to prevent access to the enclosure through the raceway;
</P>
<P>(E) The cable sheath is continuous through the raceway and extends into the enclosure not less than 6.35 mm (0.25 in.) beyond the fitting;
</P>
<P>(F) The raceway is fastened at its outer end and at other points as necessary; and
</P>
<P>(G) Where installed as conduit or tubing, the allowable cable fill does not exceed that permitted for complete conduit or tubing systems.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covers and canopies.</I> (i) All pull boxes, junction boxes, and fittings shall be provided with covers identified for the purpose. If metal covers are used, they shall be grounded. In completed installations, each outlet box shall have a cover, faceplate, or fixture canopy. Covers of outlet boxes having holes through which flexible cord pendants pass shall be provided with bushings designed for the purpose or shall have smooth, well-rounded surfaces on which the cords may bear.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where a fixture canopy or pan is used, any combustible wall or ceiling finish exposed between the edge of the canopy or pan and the outlet box shall be covered with noncombustible material.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pull and junction boxes for systems over 600 volts, nominal.</I> In addition to other requirements in this section, the following requirements apply to pull and junction boxes for systems over 600 volts, nominal:
</P>
<P>(i) Boxes shall provide a complete enclosure for the contained conductors or cables.
</P>
<P>(ii) Boxes shall be closed by suitable covers securely fastened in place.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>Underground box covers that weigh over 45.4 kg (100 lbs) meet this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Covers for boxes shall be permanently marked “HIGH VOLTAGE.” The marking shall be on the outside of the box cover and shall be readily visible and legible.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Switches</I>—(1) <I>Single-throw knife switches.</I> Single-throw knife switches shall be so placed that gravity will not tend to close them. Single-throw knife switches approved for use in the inverted position shall be provided with a locking device that will ensure that the blades remain in the open position when so set.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Double-throw knife switches.</I> Double-throw knife switches may be mounted so that the throw will be either vertical or horizontal. However, if the throw is vertical, a locking device shall be provided to ensure that the blades remain in the open position when so set.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Connection of switches.</I> (i) Single-throw knife switches and switches with butt contacts shall be connected so that the blades are deenergized when the switch is in the open position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Single-throw knife switches, molded-case switches, switches with butt contacts, and circuit breakers used as switches shall be connected so that the terminals supplying the load are deenergized when the switch is in the open position. However, blades and terminals supplying the load of a switch may be energized when the switch is in the open position where the switch is connected to circuits or equipment inherently capable of providing a backfeed source of power. For such installations, a permanent sign shall be installed on the switch enclosure or immediately adjacent to open switches that read, “WARNING—LOAD SIDE TERMINALS MAY BE ENERGIZED BY BACKFEED.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Faceplates for flush-mounted snap switches.</I> Snap switches mounted in boxes shall have faceplates installed so as to completely cover the opening and seat against the finished surface.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grounding.</I> Snap switches, including dimmer switches, shall be effectively grounded and shall provide a means to ground metal faceplates, whether or not a metal faceplate is installed. However, if no grounding means exists within the snap-switch enclosure, or where the wiring method does not include or provide an equipment ground, a snap switch without a grounding connection is permitted for replacement purposes only. Such snap switches shall be provided with a faceplate of nonconducting, noncombustible material if they are located within reach of conducting floors or other conducting surfaces.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Switchboards and panelboards</I>—(1) <I>Switchboards with exposed live parts.</I> Switchboards that have any exposed live parts shall be located in permanently dry locations and shall be accessible only to qualified persons.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Panelboard enclosures.</I> Panelboards shall be mounted in cabinets, cutout boxes, or enclosures designed for the purpose and shall be dead front. However, panelboards other than the dead front externally-operable type are permitted where accessible only to qualified persons.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Knife switches mounted in switchboards or panelboards.</I> Exposed blades of knife switches mounted in switchboards or panelboards shall be dead when open.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enclosures for damp or wet locations</I>—(1) <I>Cabinets, cutout boxes, fittings, boxes, and panelboard enclosures.</I> Cabinets, cutout boxes, fittings, boxes, and panelboard enclosures in damp or wet locations shall be installed so as to prevent moisture or water from entering and accumulating within the enclosures and shall be mounted so there is at least 6.35-mm (0.25-in.) airspace between the enclosure and the wall or other supporting surface. However, nonmetallic enclosures may be installed without the airspace on a concrete, masonry, tile, or similar surface. The enclosures shall be weatherproof in wet locations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Switches, circuit breakers, and switchboards.</I> Switches, circuit breakers, and switchboards installed in wet locations shall be enclosed in weatherproof enclosures.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conductors for general wiring</I>—(1) <I>Insulation.</I> All conductors used for general wiring shall be insulated unless otherwise permitted in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Type.</I> The conductor insulation shall be of a type that is approved for the voltage, operating temperature, and location of use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Distinguishable.</I> Insulated conductors shall be distinguishable by appropriate color or other suitable means as being grounded conductors, ungrounded conductors, or equipment grounding conductors.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Flexible cords and cables</I>—(1) <I>Use of flexible cords and cables.</I> (i) Flexible cords and cables shall be approved for conditions of use and location.
</P>
<P>(ii) Flexible cords and cables may be used only for:
</P>
<P>(A) Pendants;
</P>
<P>(B) Wiring of fixtures;
</P>
<P>(C) Connection of portable lamps or appliances;
</P>
<P>(D) Portable and mobile signs;
</P>
<P>(E) Elevator cables;
</P>
<P>(F) Wiring of cranes and hoists;
</P>
<P>(G) Connection of stationary equipment to facilitate their frequent interchange;
</P>
<P>(H) Prevention of the transmission of noise or vibration;
</P>
<P>(I) Appliances where the fastening means and mechanical connections are designed to permit removal for maintenance and repair;
</P>
<P>(J) Data processing cables approved as a part of the data processing system;
</P>
<P>(K) Connection of moving parts; and
</P>
<P>(L) Temporary wiring as permitted in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If used as permitted in paragraphs (g)(1)(ii)(C), (g)(1)(ii)(G), or (g)(1)(ii)(I) of this section, the flexible cord shall be equipped with an attachment plug and shall be energized from an approved receptacle outlet.
</P>
<P>(iv) Unless specifically permitted otherwise in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section, flexible cords and cables may not be used:
</P>
<P>(A) As a substitute for the fixed wiring of a structure;
</P>
<P>(B) Where run through holes in walls, ceilings, or floors;
</P>
<P>(C) Where run through doorways, windows, or similar openings;
</P>
<P>(D) Where attached to building surfaces;
</P>
<P>(E) Where concealed behind building walls, ceilings, or floors; or
</P>
<P>(F) Where installed in raceways, except as otherwise permitted in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(v) Flexible cords used in show windows and showcases shall be Type S, SE, SEO, SEOO, SJ, SJE, SJEO, SJEOO, SJO, SJOO, SJT, SJTO, SJTOO, SO, SOO, ST, STO, or STOO, except for the wiring of chain-supported lighting fixtures and supply cords for portable lamps and other merchandise being displayed or exhibited.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification, splices, and terminations.</I> (i) A conductor of a flexible cord or cable that is used as a grounded conductor or an equipment grounding conductor shall be distinguishable from other conductors. Types S, SC, SCE, SCT, SE, SEO, SEOO, SJ, SJE, SJEO, SJEOO, SJO, SJT, SJTO, SJTOO, SO, SOO, ST, STO, and STOO flexible cords and Types G, G-GC, PPE, and W flexible cables shall be durably marked on the surface at intervals not exceeding 610 mm (24 in.) with the type designation, size, and number of conductors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Flexible cords may be used only in continuous lengths without splice or tap. Hard-service cord and junior hard-service cord No. 14 and larger may be repaired if spliced so that the splice retains the insulation, outer sheath properties, and usage characteristics of the cord being spliced.
</P>
<P>(iii) Flexible cords and cables shall be connected to devices and fittings so that strain relief is provided that will prevent pull from being directly transmitted to joints or terminal screws.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Portable cables over 600 volts, nominal.</I> This paragraph applies to portable cables used at more than 600 volts, nominal.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conductor construction.</I> Multiconductor portable cable for use in supplying power to portable or mobile equipment at over 600 volts, nominal, shall consist of No. 8 or larger conductors employing flexible stranding. However, the minimum size of the insulated ground-check conductor of Type G-GC cables shall be No. 10.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shielding.</I> Cables operated at over 2,000 volts shall be shielded for the purpose of confining the voltage stresses to the insulation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equipment grounding conductors.</I> Grounding conductors shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Grounding shields.</I> All shields shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Minimum bending radii.</I> The minimum bending radii for portable cables during installation and handling in service shall be adequate to prevent damage to the cable.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Fittings.</I> Connectors used to connect lengths of cable in a run shall be of a type that lock firmly together. Provisions shall be made to prevent opening or closing these connectors while energized. Strain relief shall be provided at connections and terminations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Splices.</I> Portable cables may not be operated with splices unless the splices are of the permanent molded, vulcanized, or other approved type.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Terminations.</I> Termination enclosures shall be suitably marked with a high voltage hazard warning, and terminations shall be accessible only to authorized and qualified employees.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fixture wires</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Fixture wires shall be approved for the voltage, temperature, and location of use. A fixture wire which is used as a grounded conductor shall be identified.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Uses permitted.</I> Fixture wires may be used only:
</P>
<P>(i) For installation in lighting fixtures and in similar equipment where enclosed or protected and not subject to bending or twisting in use; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For connecting lighting fixtures to the branch-circuit conductors supplying the fixtures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Uses not permitted.</I> Fixture wires may not be used as branch-circuit conductors except as permitted for Class 1 power limited circuits and for fire alarm circuits.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Equipment for general use</I>—(1) <I>Lighting fixtures, lampholders, lamps, and receptacles.</I> (i) Fixtures, lampholders, lamps, rosettes, and receptacles may have no live parts normally exposed to employee contact. However, rosettes and cleat-type lampholders and receptacles located at least 2.44 m (8.0 ft) above the floor may have exposed terminals.
</P>
<P>(ii) Handlamps of the portable type supplied through flexible cords shall be equipped with a handle of molded composition or other material identified for the purpose, and a substantial guard shall be attached to the lampholder or the handle. Metal shell, paper-lined lampholders may not be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lampholders of the screw-shell type shall be installed for use as lampholders only. Where supplied by a circuit having a grounded conductor, the grounded conductor shall be connected to the screw shell. Lampholders installed in wet or damp locations shall be of the weatherproof type.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fixtures installed in wet or damp locations shall be identified for the purpose and shall be so constructed or installed that water cannot enter or accumulate in wireways, lampholders, or other electrical parts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Receptacles, cord connectors, and attachment plugs (caps).</I> (i) All 15- and 20-ampere attachment plugs and connectors shall be constructed so that there are no exposed current-carrying parts except the prongs, blades, or pins. The cover for wire terminations shall be a part that is essential for the operation of an attachment plug or connector (dead-front construction). Attachment plugs shall be installed so that their prongs, blades, or pins are not energized unless inserted into an energized receptacle. No receptacles may be installed so as to require an energized attachment plug as its source of supply.
</P>
<P>(ii) Receptacles, cord connectors, and attachment plugs shall be constructed so that no receptacle or cord connector will accept an attachment plug with a different voltage or current rating than that for which the device is intended. However, a 20-ampere T-slot receptacle or cord connector may accept a 15-ampere attachment plug of the same voltage rating.
</P>
<P>(iii) Nongrounding-type receptacles and connectors may not be used for grounding-type attachment plugs.
</P>
<P>(iv) A receptacle installed in a wet or damp location shall be suitable for the location.
</P>
<P>(v) A receptacle installed outdoors in a location protected from the weather or in other damp locations shall have an enclosure for the receptacle that is weatherproof when the receptacle is covered (attachment plug cap not inserted and receptacle covers closed).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(2)(<E T="01">v</E>) of this section.</HED>
<P>A receptacle is considered to be in a location protected from the weather when it is located under roofed open porches, canopies, marquees, or the like and where it will not be subjected to a beating rain or water runoff.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) A receptacle installed in a wet location where the product intended to be plugged into it is not attended while in use (for example, sprinkler system controllers, landscape lighting, and holiday lights) shall have an enclosure that is weatherproof with the attachment plug cap inserted or removed.
</P>
<P>(vii) A receptacle installed in a wet location where the product intended to be plugged into it will be attended while in use (for example, portable tools) shall have an enclosure that is weatherproof when the attachment plug cap is removed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appliances.</I> (i) Appliances may have no live parts normally exposed to contact other than parts functioning as open-resistance heating elements, such as the heating elements of a toaster, which are necessarily exposed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each appliance shall have a means to disconnect it from all ungrounded conductors. If an appliance is supplied by more than one source, the disconnecting means shall be grouped and identified.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each electric appliance shall be provided with a nameplate giving the identifying name and the rating in volts and amperes, or in volts and watts. If the appliance is to be used on a specific frequency or frequencies, it shall be so marked. Where motor overload protection external to the appliance is required, the appliance shall be so marked.
</P>
<P>(iv) Marking shall be located so as to be visible or easily accessible after installation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Motors.</I> This paragraph applies to motors, motor circuits, and controllers.
</P>
<P>(i) If specified in paragraph (j)(4) of this section that one piece of equipment shall be “within sight of” another piece of equipment, the piece of equipment shall be visible and not more than 15.24 m (50.0 ft) from the other.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual disconnecting means shall be provided for each controller. A disconnecting means shall be located within sight of the controller location. However, a single disconnecting means may be located adjacent to a group of coordinated controllers mounted adjacent to each other on a multi-motor continuous process machine. The controller disconnecting means for motor branch circuits over 600 volts, nominal, may be out of sight of the controller, if the controller is marked with a warning label giving the location and identification of the disconnecting means that is to be locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disconnecting means shall disconnect the motor and the controller from all ungrounded supply conductors and shall be so designed that no pole can be operated independently.
</P>
<P>(iv) The disconnecting means shall plainly indicate whether it is in the open (off) or closed (on) position.
</P>
<P>(v) The disconnecting means shall be readily accessible. If more than one disconnect is provided for the same equipment, only one need be readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(vi) An individual disconnecting means shall be provided for each motor, but a single disconnecting means may be used for a group of motors under any one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If a number of motors drive several parts of a single machine or piece of apparatus, such as a metal or woodworking machine, crane, or hoist;
</P>
<P>(B) If a group of motors is under the protection of one set of branch-circuit protective devices; or
</P>
<P>(C) If a group of motors is in a single room within sight of the location of the disconnecting means.
</P>
<P>(vii) Motors, motor-control apparatus, and motor branch-circuit conductors shall be protected against overheating due to motor overloads or failure to start, and against short-circuits or ground faults. These provisions do not require overload protection that will stop a motor where a shutdown is likely to introduce additional or increased hazards, as in the case of fire pumps, or where continued operation of a motor is necessary for a safe shutdown of equipment or process and motor overload sensing devices are connected to a supervised alarm.
</P>
<P>(viii) Where live parts of motors or controllers operating at over 150 volts to ground are guarded against accidental contact only by location, and where adjustment or other attendance may be necessary during the operation of the apparatus, suitable insulating mats or platforms shall be provided so that the attendant cannot readily touch live parts unless standing on the mats or platforms.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transformers.</I> (i) Paragraph (j)(5) of this section covers the installation of all transformers except the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Current transformers;
</P>
<P>(B) Dry-type transformers installed as a component part of other apparatus;
</P>
<P>(C) Transformers that are an integral part of an X-ray, high frequency, or electrostatic-coating apparatus;
</P>
<P>(D) Transformers used with Class 2 and Class 3 circuits, sign and outline lighting, electric discharge lighting, and power-limited fire-alarm circuits; and
</P>
<P>(E) Liquid-filled or dry-type transformers used for research, development, or testing, where effective safeguard arrangements are provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) The operating voltage of exposed live parts of transformer installations shall be indicated by signs or visible markings on the equipment or structure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Dry-type, high fire point liquid-insulated, and askarel-insulated transformers installed indoors and rated over 35kV shall be in a vault.
</P>
<P>(iv) Oil-insulated transformers installed indoors shall be installed in a vault.
</P>
<P>(v) Combustible material, combustible buildings and parts of buildings, fire escapes, and door and window openings shall be safeguarded from fires that may originate in oil-insulated transformers attached to or adjacent to a building or combustible material.
</P>
<P>(vi) Transformer vaults shall be constructed so as to contain fire and combustible liquids within the vault and to prevent unauthorized access. Locks and latches shall be so arranged that a vault door can be readily opened from the inside.
</P>
<P>(vii) Any pipe or duct system foreign to the electrical installation may not enter or pass through a transformer vault.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(5)(<E T="01">vii</E>) of this section.</HED>
<P>Piping or other facilities provided for vault fire protection, or for transformer cooling, are not considered foreign to the electrical installation.</P></NOTE>
<P>(viii) Material may not be stored in transformer vaults.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Capacitors.</I> (i) All capacitors, except surge capacitors or capacitors included as a component part of other apparatus, shall be provided with an automatic means of draining the stored charge after the capacitor is disconnected from its source of supply.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following requirements apply to capacitors installed on circuits operating at more than 600 volts, nominal:
</P>
<P>(A) Group-operated switches shall be used for capacitor switching and shall be capable of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Carrying continuously not less than 135 percent of the rated current of the capacitor installation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Interrupting the maximum continuous load current of each capacitor, capacitor bank, or capacitor installation that will be switched as a unit;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Withstanding the maximum inrush current, including contributions from adjacent capacitor installations; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Carrying currents due to faults on the capacitor side of the switch;
</P>
<P>(B) A means shall be installed to isolate from all sources of voltage each capacitor, capacitor bank, or capacitor installation that will be removed from service as a unit. The isolating means shall provide a visible gap in the electric circuit adequate for the operating voltage;
</P>
<P>(C) Isolating or disconnecting switches (with no interrupting rating) shall be interlocked with the load interrupting device or shall be provided with prominently displayed caution signs to prevent switching load current; and
</P>
<P>(D) For series capacitors, the proper switching shall be assured by use of at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Mechanically sequenced isolating and bypass switches;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Interlocks; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Switching procedure prominently displayed at the switching location.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Storage Batteries.</I> Provisions shall be made for sufficient diffusion and ventilation of gases from storage batteries to prevent the accumulation of explosive mixtures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.306" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.306   Specific purpose equipment and installations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electric signs and outline lighting</I>—(1) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> (i) Each sign and outline lighting system, or feeder circuit or branch circuit supplying a sign or outline lighting system, shall be controlled by an externally operable switch or circuit breaker that will open all ungrounded conductors. However, a disconnecting means is not required for an exit directional sign located within a building or for cord-connected signs with an attachment plug.
</P>
<P>(ii) Signs and outline lighting systems located within fountains shall have the disconnect located at least 1.52 m (5.0 ft) from the inside walls of the fountain.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location.</I> (i) The disconnecting means shall be within sight of the sign or outline lighting system that it controls. Where the disconnecting means is out of the line of sight from any section that may be energized, the disconnecting means shall be capable of being locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Signs or outline lighting systems operated by electronic or electromechanical controllers located external to the sign or outline lighting system may have a disconnecting means located within sight of the controller or in the same enclosure with the controller. The disconnecting means shall disconnect the sign or outline lighting system and the controller from all ungrounded supply conductors. It shall be designed so no pole can be operated independently and shall be capable of being locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(iii) Doors or covers giving access to uninsulated parts of indoor signs or outline lighting exceeding 600 volts and accessible to other than qualified persons shall either be provided with interlock switches to disconnect the primary circuit or shall be so fastened that the use of other than ordinary tools will be necessary to open them.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cranes and hoists.</I> This paragraph applies to the installation of electric equipment and wiring used in connection with cranes, monorail hoists, hoists, and all runways.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disconnecting means for runway conductors.</I> A disconnecting means shall be provided between the runway contact conductors and the power supply. Such disconnecting means shall consist of a motor-circuit switch, circuit breaker, or molded case switch. The disconnecting means shall open all ungrounded conductors simultaneously and shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Readily accessible and operable from the ground or floor level;
</P>
<P>(ii) Arranged to be locked in the open position; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Placed within view of the runway contact conductors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disconnecting means for cranes and monorail hoists.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section, a motor-circuit switch, molded case switch, or circuit breaker shall be provided in the leads from the runway contact conductors or other power supply on all cranes and monorail hoists.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disconnecting means shall be capable of being locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(iii) Means shall be provided at the operating station to open the power circuit to all motors of the crane or monorail hoist where the disconnecting means is not readily accessible from the crane or monorail hoist operating station.
</P>
<P>(iv) The disconnecting means may be omitted where a monorail hoist or hand-propelled crane bridge installation meets all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The unit is controlled from the ground or floor level;
</P>
<P>(B) The unit is within view of the power supply disconnecting means; and
</P>
<P>(C) No fixed work platform has been provided for servicing the unit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limit switch.</I> A limit switch or other device shall be provided to prevent the load block from passing the safe upper limit of travel of any hoisting mechanism.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Clearance.</I> The dimension of the working space in the direction of access to live parts that may require examination, adjustment, servicing, or maintenance while alive shall be a minimum of 762 mm (2.5 ft). Where controls are enclosed in cabinets, the doors shall either open at least 90 degrees or be removable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, wheelchair lifts, and stairway chair lifts.</I> The following requirements apply to elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, wheelchair lifts, and stairway chair lifts.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> Elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, wheelchair lifts, and stairway chair lifts shall have a single means for disconnecting all ungrounded main power supply conductors for each unit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Control panels.</I> Control panels not located in the same space as the drive machine shall be located in cabinets with doors or panels capable of being locked closed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Type.</I> The disconnecting means shall be an enclosed externally operable fused motor circuit switch or circuit breaker capable of being locked in the open position. The disconnecting means shall be a listed device.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operation.</I> No provision may be made to open or close this disconnecting means from any other part of the premises. If sprinklers are installed in hoistways, machine rooms, or machinery spaces, the disconnecting means may automatically open the power supply to the affected elevators prior to the application of water. No provision may be made to close this disconnecting means automatically (that is, power may only be restored by manual means).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Location.</I> The disconnecting means shall be located where it is readily accessible to qualified persons.
</P>
<P>(i) On elevators without generator field control, the disconnecting means shall be located within sight of the motor controller. Driving machines or motion and operation controllers not within sight of the disconnecting means shall be provided with a manually operated switch installed in the control circuit adjacent to the equipment in order to prevent starting. Where the driving machine is located in a remote machinery space, a single disconnecting means for disconnecting all ungrounded main power supply conductors shall be provided and be capable of being locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(ii) On elevators with generator field control, the disconnecting means shall be located within sight of the motor controller for the driving motor of the motor-generator set. Driving machines, motor-generator sets, or motion and operation controllers not within sight of the disconnecting means shall be provided with a manually operated switch installed in the control circuit to prevent starting. The manually operated switch shall be installed adjacent to this equipment. Where the driving machine or the motor-generator set is located in a remote machinery space, a single means for disconnecting all ungrounded main power supply conductors shall be provided and be capable of being locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(iii) On escalators and moving walks, the disconnecting means shall be installed in the space where the controller is located.
</P>
<P>(iv) On wheelchair lifts and stairway chair lifts, the disconnecting means shall be located within sight of the motor controller.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Identification and signs.</I> (i) Where there is more than one driving machine in a machine room, the disconnecting means shall be numbered to correspond to the identifying number of the driving machine that they control.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disconnecting means shall be provided with a sign to identify the location of the supply-side overcurrent protective device.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Single-car and multicar installations.</I> On single-car and multicar installations, equipment receiving electrical power from more than one source shall be provided with a disconnecting means for each source of electrical power. The disconnecting means shall be within sight of the equipment served.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Warning sign for multiple disconnecting means.</I> A warning sign shall be mounted on or next to the disconnecting means where multiple disconnecting means are used and parts of the controllers remain energized from a source other than the one disconnected. The sign shall be clearly legible and shall read “WARNING—PARTS OF THE CONTROLLER ARE NOT DEENERGIZED BY THIS SWITCH.”
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Interconnection between multicar controllers.</I> A warning sign worded as required in paragraph (c)(8) of this section shall be mounted on or next to the disconnecting means where interconnections between controllers are necessary for the operation of the system on multicar installations that remain energized from a source other than the one disconnected.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Motor controllers.</I> Motor controllers may be located outside the spaces otherwise required by paragraph (c) of this section, provided they are in enclosures with doors or removable panels capable of being locked closed and the disconnecting means is located adjacent to or is an integral part of the motor controller. Motor controller enclosures for escalators or moving walks may be located in the balustrade on the side located away from the moving steps or moving treadway. If the disconnecting means is an integral part of the motor controller, it shall be operable without opening the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electric welders—disconnecting means</I>—(1) <I>Arc welders.</I> A disconnecting means shall be provided in the supply circuit for each arc welder that is not equipped with a disconnect mounted as an integral part of the welder. The disconnecting means shall be a switch or circuit breaker, and its rating may not be less than that necessary to accommodate overcurrent protection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Resistance welders.</I> A switch or circuit breaker shall be provided by which each resistance welder and its control equipment can be disconnected from the supply circuit. The ampere rating of this disconnecting means may not be less than the supply conductor ampacity. The supply circuit switch may be used as the welder disconnecting means where the circuit supplies only one welder.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Information technology equipment</I>—(1) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> A means shall be provided to disconnect power to all electronic equipment in an information technology equipment room. There shall also be a similar means to disconnect the power to all dedicated heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning (HVAC) systems serving the room and to cause all required fire/smoke dampers to close.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Grouping.</I> The control for these disconnecting means shall be grouped and identified and shall be readily accessible at the principal exit doors. A single means to control both the electronic equipment and HVAC system is permitted.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception.</I> Integrated electrical systems covered by § 1910.308(g) need not have the disconnecting means required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>X-Ray equipment.</I> This paragraph applies to X-ray equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> (i) A disconnecting means shall be provided in the supply circuit. The disconnecting means shall be operable from a location readily accessible from the X-ray control. For equipment connected to a 120-volt branch circuit of 30 amperes or less, a grounding-type attachment plug cap and receptacle of proper rating may serve as a disconnecting means.
</P>
<P>(ii) If more than one piece of equipment is operated from the same high-voltage circuit, each piece or each group of equipment as a unit shall be provided with a high-voltage switch or equivalent disconnecting means. The disconnecting means shall be constructed, enclosed, or located so as to avoid contact by employees with its live parts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Control.</I> The following requirements apply to industrial and commercial laboratory equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) Radiographic and fluoroscopic-type equipment shall be effectively enclosed or shall have interlocks that deenergize the equipment automatically to prevent ready access to live current-carrying parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Diffraction- and irradiation-type equipment shall have a pilot light, readable meter deflection, or equivalent means to indicate when the equipment is energized, unless the equipment or installation is effectively enclosed or is provided with interlocks to prevent access to live current-carrying parts during operation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Induction and dielectric heating equipment.</I> This paragraph applies to induction and dielectric heating equipment and accessories for industrial and scientific applications, but not for medical or dental applications or for appliances.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Guarding and grounding.</I> (i) The converting apparatus (including the dc line) and high-frequency electric circuits (excluding the output circuits and remote-control circuits) shall be completely contained within enclosures of noncombustible material.
</P>
<P>(ii) All panel controls shall be of dead-front construction.
</P>
<P>(iii) Doors or detachable panels shall be employed for internal access. Where doors are used giving access to voltages from 500 to 1000 volts ac or dc, either door locks shall be provided or interlocks shall be installed. Where doors are used giving access to voltages of over 1000 volts ac or dc, either mechanical lockouts with a disconnecting means to prevent access until circuit parts within the cubicle are deenergized, or both door interlocking and mechanical door locks, shall be provided. Detachable panels not normally used for access to such parts shall be fastened in a manner that will make them difficult to remove (for example, by requiring the use of tools).
</P>
<P>(iv) Warning labels or signs that read “DANGER—HIGH VOLTAGE—KEEP OUT” shall be attached to the equipment and shall be plainly visible where persons might contact energized parts when doors are opened or closed or when panels are removed from compartments containing over 250 volts ac or dc.
</P>
<P>(v) Induction and dielectric heating equipment shall be protected as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Protective cages or adequate shielding shall be used to guard work applicators other than induction heating coils.
</P>
<P>(B) Induction heating coils shall be protected by insulation or refractory materials or both.
</P>
<P>(C) Interlock switches shall be used on all hinged access doors, sliding panels, or other such means of access to the applicator, unless the applicator is an induction heating coil at dc ground potential or operating at less than 150 volts ac.
</P>
<P>(D) Interlock switches shall be connected in such a manner as to remove all power from the applicator when any one of the access doors or panels is open.
</P>
<P>(vi) A readily accessible disconnecting means shall be provided by which each heating equipment can be isolated from its supply circuit. The ampere rating of this disconnecting means may not be less than the nameplate current rating of the equipment. The supply circuit disconnecting means is permitted as a heating equipment disconnecting means where the circuit supplies only one piece of equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Remote control.</I> (i) If remote controls are used for applying power, a selector switch shall be provided and interlocked to provide power from only one control point at a time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Switches operated by foot pressure shall be provided with a shield over the contact button to avoid accidental closing of the switch.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electrolytic cells.</I> This paragraph applies to the installation of the electrical components and accessory equipment of electrolytic cells, electrolytic cell lines, and process power supply for the production of aluminum, cadmium, chlorine, copper, fluorine, hydrogen peroxide, magnesium, sodium, sodium chlorate, and zinc. Cells used as a source of electric energy and for electroplating processes and cells used for production of hydrogen are not covered by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Application.</I> Installations covered by paragraph (h) of this section shall comply with all applicable provisions of this subpart, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Overcurrent protection of electrolytic cell dc process power circuits need not comply with the requirements of § 1910.304(f);
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment located or used within the cell line working zone or associated with the cell line dc power circuits need not comply with the provisions of § 1910.304(g); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Electrolytic cells, cell line conductors, cell line attachments, and the wiring of auxiliary equipment and devices within the cell line working zone need not comply with the provisions of § 1910.303 or § 1910.304(b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> If more than one dc cell line process power supply serves the same cell line, a disconnecting means shall be provided on the cell line circuit side of each power supply to disconnect it from the cell line circuit. Removable links or removable conductors may be used as the disconnecting means.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portable electric equipment.</I> (i) The frames and enclosures of portable electric equipment used within the cell line working zone may not be grounded, unless the cell line circuit voltage does not exceed 200 volts DC or the frames are guarded.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ungrounded portable electric equipment shall be distinctively marked and shall employ plugs and receptacles of a configuration that prevents connection of this equipment to grounding receptacles and that prevents inadvertent interchange of ungrounded and grounded portable electric equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Power supply circuits and receptacles for portable electric equipment.</I> (i) Circuits supplying power to ungrounded receptacles for hand-held, cord- and plug-connected equipment shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The circuits shall be electrically isolated from any distribution system supplying areas other than the cell line working zone and shall be ungrounded;
</P>
<P>(B) The circuits shall be supplied through isolating transformers with primaries operating at not more than 600 volts between conductors and protected with proper overcurrent protection;
</P>
<P>(C) The secondary voltage of the isolating transformers may not exceed 300 volts between conductors; and
</P>
<P>(D) All circuits supplied from the secondaries shall be ungrounded and shall have an approved overcurrent device of proper rating in each conductor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Receptacles and their mating plugs for ungrounded equipment may not have provision for a grounding conductor and shall be of a configuration that prevents their use for equipment required to be grounded.
</P>
<P>(iii) Receptacles on circuits supplied by an isolating transformer with an ungrounded secondary:
</P>
<P>(A) Shall have a distinctive configuration;
</P>
<P>(B) Shall be distinctively marked; and
</P>
<P>(C) May not be used in any other location in the facility.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fixed and portable electric equipment.</I> (i) The following need not be grounded:
</P>
<P>(A) AC systems supplying fixed and portable electric equipment within the cell line working zone; and
</P>
<P>(B) Exposed conductive surfaces, such as electric equipment housings, cabinets, boxes, motors, raceways and the like that are within the cell line working zone.
</P>
<P>(ii) Auxiliary electric equipment, such as motors, transducers, sensors, control devices, and alarms, mounted on an electrolytic cell or other energized surface shall be connected to the premises wiring systems by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(A) Multiconductor hard usage or extra hard usage flexible cord;
</P>
<P>(B) Wire or cable in suitable nonmetallic raceways or cable trays; or
</P>
<P>(C) Wire or cable in suitable metal raceways or metal cable trays installed with insulating breaks such that they will not cause a potentially hazardous electrical condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fixed electric equipment may be bonded to the energized conductive surfaces of the cell line, its attachments, or auxiliaries. If fixed electric equipment is mounted on an energized conductive surface, it shall be bonded to that surface.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Auxiliary nonelectrical connections.</I> Auxiliary nonelectrical connections such as air hoses, water hoses, and the like, to an electrolytic cell, its attachments, or auxiliary equipment may not have continuous conductive reinforcing wire, armor, braids, or the like. Hoses shall be of a nonconductive material.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Cranes and hoists.</I> (i) The conductive surfaces of cranes and hoists that enter the cell line working zone need not be grounded. The portion of an overhead crane or hoist that contacts an energized electrolytic cell or energized attachments shall be insulated from ground.
</P>
<P>(ii) Remote crane or hoist controls that may introduce hazardous electrical conditions into the cell line working zone shall employ one or more of the following systems:
</P>
<P>(A) Isolated and ungrounded control circuit;
</P>
<P>(B) Nonconductive rope operator;
</P>
<P>(C) Pendant pushbutton with nonconductive supporting means and with nonconductive surfaces or ungrounded exposed conductive surfaces; or
</P>
<P>(D) Radio.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Electrically driven or controlled irrigation machines</I>—(1) <I>Lightning protection.</I> If an irrigation machine has a stationary point, a grounding electrode system shall be connected to the machine at the stationary point for lightning protection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> (i) The main disconnecting means for a center pivot irrigation machine shall be located at the point of connection of electrical power to the machine or shall be visible and not more than 15.2 m (50 ft) from the machine.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disconnecting means shall be readily accessible and capable of being locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(iii) A disconnecting means shall be provided for each motor and controller.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Swimming pools, fountains, and similar installations.</I> This paragraph applies to electric wiring for and equipment in or adjacent to all swimming, wading, therapeutic, and decorative pools and fountains; hydro-massage bathtubs, whether permanently installed or storable; and metallic auxiliary equipment, such as pumps, filters, and similar equipment. Therapeutic pools in health care facilities are exempt from these provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Receptacles.</I> (i) A single receptacle of the locking and grounding type that provides power for a permanently installed swimming pool recirculating pump motor may be located not less than 1.52 m (5 ft) from the inside walls of a pool. All other receptacles on the property shall be located at least 3.05 m (10 ft) from the inside walls of a pool.
</P>
<P>(ii) Receptacles that are located within 4.57 m (15 ft), or 6.08 m (20 ft) if the installation was built after August 13, 2007, of the inside walls of the pool shall be protected by ground-fault circuit interrupters.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where a pool is installed permanently at a dwelling unit, at least one 125-volt, 15- or 20-ampere receptacle on a general-purpose branch circuit shall be located a minimum of 3.05 m (10 ft) and not more than 6.08 m (20 ft) from the inside wall of the pool. This receptacle shall be located not more than 1.98 m (6.5 ft) above the floor, platform, or grade level serving the pool.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(1) of this section:</HED>
<P>In determining these dimensions, the distance to be measured is the shortest path the supply cord of an appliance connected to the receptacle would follow without piercing a floor, wall, or ceiling of a building or other effective permanent barrier.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Lighting fixtures, lighting outlets, and ceiling suspended (paddle) fans.</I> (i) In outdoor pool areas, lighting fixtures, lighting outlets, and ceiling-suspended (paddle) fans may not be installed over the pool or over the area extending 1.52 m (5 ft) horizontally from the inside walls of a pool unless no part of the lighting fixture of a ceiling-suspended (paddle) fan is less than 3.66 m (12 ft) above the maximum water level. However, a lighting fixture or lighting outlet that was installed before April 16, 1981, may be located less than 1.52 m (5 ft) measured horizontally from the inside walls of a pool if it is at least 1.52 m (5 ft) above the surface of the maximum water level and is rigidly attached to the existing structure. It shall also be protected by a ground-fault circuit interrupter installed in the branch circuit supplying the fixture.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lighting fixtures and lighting outlets installed in the area extending between 1.52 m (5 ft) and 3.05 m (10 ft) horizontally from the inside walls of a pool shall be protected by a ground-fault circuit interrupter unless installed 1.52 m (5 ft) above the maximum water level and rigidly attached to the structure adjacent to or enclosing the pool.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cord- and plug-connected equipment.</I> Flexible cords used with the following equipment may not exceed 0.9 m (3 ft) in length and shall have a copper equipment grounding conductor with a grounding-type attachment plug:
</P>
<P>(i) Cord- and plug-connected lighting fixtures installed within 4.88 m (16 ft) of the water surface of permanently installed pools; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other cord- and plug-connected, fixed or stationary equipment used with permanently installed pools.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Underwater equipment.</I> (i) A ground-fault circuit interrupter shall be installed in the branch circuit supplying underwater fixtures operating at more than 15 volts. Equipment installed underwater shall be identified for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) No underwater lighting fixtures may be installed for operation at over 150 volts between conductors.
</P>
<P>(iii) A lighting fixture facing upward shall have the lens adequately guarded to prevent contact by any person.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fountains.</I> All electric equipment, including power supply cords, operating at more than 15 volts and used with fountains shall be protected by ground-fault circuit interrupters.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Carnivals, circuses, fairs, and similar events.</I> This paragraph covers the installation of portable wiring and equipment, including wiring in or on all structures, for carnivals, circuses, exhibitions, fairs, traveling attractions, and similar events.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Protection of electric equipment.</I> Electric equipment and wiring methods in or on rides, concessions, or other units shall be provided with mechanical protection where such equipment or wiring methods are subject to physical damage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation.</I> (i) Services shall be installed in accordance with applicable requirements of this subpart, and, in addition, shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Service equipment may not be installed in a location that is accessible to unqualified persons, unless the equipment is lockable; and
</P>
<P>(B) Service equipment shall be mounted on solid backing and installed so as to be protected from the weather, unless the equipment is of weatherproof construction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amusement rides and amusement attractions shall be maintained not less than 4.57 m (15 ft) in any direction from overhead conductors operating at 600 volts or less, except for the conductors supplying the amusement ride or attraction. Amusement rides or attractions may not be located under or within 4.57 m (15 ft) horizontally of conductors operating in excess of 600 volts.
</P>
<P>(iii) Flexible cords and cables shall be listed for extra-hard usage. When used outdoors, flexible cords and cables shall also be listed for wet locations and shall be sunlight resistant.
</P>
<P>(iv) Single conductor cable shall be size No. 2 or larger.
</P>
<P>(v) Open conductors are prohibited except as part of a listed assembly or festoon lighting installed in accordance with § 1910.304(c).
</P>
<P>(vi) Flexible cords and cables shall be continuous without splice or tap between boxes or fittings. Cord connectors may not be laid on the ground unless listed for wet locations. Connectors and cable connections may not be placed in audience traffic paths or within areas accessible to the public unless guarded.
</P>
<P>(vii) Wiring for an amusement ride, attraction, tent, or similar structure may not be supported by another ride or structure unless specifically identified for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(viii) Flexible cords and cables run on the ground, where accessible to the public, shall be covered with approved nonconductive mats. Cables and mats shall be arranged so as not to present a tripping hazard.
</P>
<P>(ix) A box or fitting shall be installed at each connection point, outlet, switch point, or junction point.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inside tents and concessions.</I> Electrical wiring for temporary lighting, where installed inside of tents and concessions, shall be securely installed, and, where subject to physical damage, shall be provided with mechanical protection. All temporary lamps for general illumination shall be protected from accidental breakage by a suitable fixture or lampholder with a guard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Portable distribution and termination boxes.</I> Employers may only use portable distribution and termination boxes that meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Boxes shall be designed so that no live parts are exposed to accidental contact. Where installed outdoors, the box shall be of weatherproof construction and mounted so that the bottom of the enclosure is not less than 152 mm (6 in.) above the ground;
</P>
<P>(ii) Busbars shall have an ampere rating not less than the overcurrent device supplying the feeder supplying the box. Busbar connectors shall be provided where conductors terminate directly on busbars;
</P>
<P>(iii) Receptacles shall have overcurrent protection installed within the box. The overcurrent protection may not exceed the ampere rating of the receptacle, except as permitted in § 1910.305(j)(4) for motor loads;
</P>
<P>(iv) Where single-pole connectors are used, they shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Where ac single-pole portable cable connectors are used, they shall be listed and of the locking type. Where paralleled sets of current-carrying single-pole separable connectors are provided as input devices, they shall be prominently labeled with a warning indicating the presence of internal parallel connections. The use of single-pole separable connectors shall comply with at least one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Connection and disconnection of connectors are only possible where the supply connectors are interlocked to the source and it is not possible to connect or disconnect connectors when the supply is energized; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Line connectors are of the listed sequential-interlocking type so that load connectors are connected in the following sequence:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Equipment grounding conductor connection;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Grounded circuit-conductor connection, if provided; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Ungrounded conductor connection; and so that disconnection is in the reverse order; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A caution notice is provided adjacent to the line connectors indicating that plug connection must be in the following sequence:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Equipment grounding conductor connection;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Grounded circuit-conductor connection, if provided; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Ungrounded conductor connection; and indicating that disconnection is in the reverse order; and
</P>
<P>(B) Single-pole separable connectors used in portable professional motion picture and television equipment may be interchangeable for ac or dc use or for different current ratings on the same premises only if they are listed for ac/dc use and marked to identify the system to which they are connected;
</P>
<P>(v) Overcurrent protection of equipment and conductors shall be provided; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The following equipment connected to the same source shall be bonded:
</P>
<P>(A) Metal raceways and metal sheathed cable;
</P>
<P>(B) Metal enclosures of electrical equipment; and
</P>
<P>(C) Metal frames and metal parts of rides, concessions, trailers, trucks, or other equipment that contain or support electrical equipment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> (i) Each ride and concession shall be provided with a fused disconnect switch or circuit breaker located within sight and within 1.83 m (6 ft) of the operator's station.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disconnecting means shall be readily accessible to the operator, including when the ride is in operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where accessible to unqualified persons, the enclosure for the switch or circuit breaker shall be of the lockable type.
</P>
<P>(iv) A shunt trip device that opens the fused disconnect or circuit breaker when a switch located in the ride operator's console is closed is a permissible method of opening the circuit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.307" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.307   Hazardous (classified) locations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> This section covers the requirements for electric equipment and wiring in locations that are classified depending on the properties of the flammable vapors, liquids or gases, or combustible dusts or fibers that may be present therein and the likelihood that a flammable or combustible concentration or quantity is present. Hazardous (classified) locations may be found in occupancies such as, but not limited to, the following: aircraft hangars, gasoline dispensing and service stations, bulk storage plants for gasoline or other volatile flammable liquids, paint-finishing process plants, health care facilities, agricultural or other facilities where excessive combustible dusts may be present, marinas, boat yards, and petroleum and chemical processing plants. Each room, section or area shall be considered individually in determining its classification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classifications.</I> (i) These hazardous (classified) locations are assigned the following designations:
</P>
<P>(A) Class I, Division 1
</P>
<P>(B) Class I, Division 2
</P>
<P>(C) Class I, Zone 0
</P>
<P>(D) Class I, Zone 1
</P>
<P>(E) Class I, Zone 2
</P>
<P>(F) Class II, Division 1
</P>
<P>(G) Class II, Division 2
</P>
<P>(H) Class III, Division 1
</P>
<P>(I) Class III, Division 2
</P>
<P>(ii) For definitions of these locations, see § 1910.399.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other sections of this subpart.</I> All applicable requirements in this subpart apply to hazardous (classified) locations unless modified by provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Division and zone classification.</I> In Class I locations, an installation must be classified as using the division classification system meeting paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section or using the zone classification system meeting paragraph (g) of this section. In Class II and Class III locations, an installation must be classified using the division classification system meeting paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Documentation.</I> All areas designated as hazardous (classified) locations under the Class and Zone system and areas designated under the Class and Division system established after August 13, 2007 shall be properly documented. This documentation shall be available to those authorized to design, install, inspect, maintain, or operate electric equipment at the location.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electrical installations.</I> Equipment, wiring methods, and installations of equipment in hazardous (classified) locations shall be intrinsically safe, approved for the hazardous (classified) location, or safe for the hazardous (classified) location. Requirements for each of these options are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Intrinsically safe.</I> Equipment and associated wiring approved as intrinsically safe is permitted in any hazardous (classified) location for which it is approved;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approved for the hazardous (classified) location.</I> (i) Equipment shall be approved not only for the class of location, but also for the ignitable or combustible properties of the specific gas, vapor, dust, or fiber that will be present.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>NFPA 70, the National Electrical Code, lists or defines hazardous gases, vapors, and dusts by “Groups” characterized by their ignitable or combustible properties.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Equipment shall be marked to show the class, group, and operating temperature or temperature range, based on operation in a 40-degree C ambient, for which it is approved. The temperature marking may not exceed the ignition temperature of the specific gas or vapor to be encountered. However, the following provisions modify this marking requirement for specific equipment:
</P>
<P>(A) Equipment of the nonheat-producing type, such as junction boxes, conduit, and fittings, and equipment of the heat-producing type having a maximum temperature not more than 100 °C (212 °F) need not have a marked operating temperature or temperature range;
</P>
<P>(B) Fixed lighting fixtures marked for use in Class I, Division 2 or Class II, Division 2 locations only need not be marked to indicate the group;
</P>
<P>(C) Fixed general-purpose equipment in Class I locations, other than lighting fixtures, that is acceptable for use in Class I, Division 2 locations need not be marked with the class, group, division, or operating temperature;
</P>
<P>(D) Fixed dust-tight equipment, other than lighting fixtures, that is acceptable for use in Class II, Division 2 and Class III locations need not be marked with the class, group, division, or operating temperature; and
</P>
<P>(E) Electric equipment suitable for ambient temperatures exceeding 40 °C (104 °F) shall be marked with both the maximum ambient temperature and the operating temperature or temperature range at that ambient temperature; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe for the hazardous (classified) location.</I> Equipment that is safe for the location shall be of a type and design that the employer demonstrates will provide protection from the hazards arising from the combustibility and flammability of vapors, liquids, gases, dusts, or fibers involved.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3) of this section:</HED>
<P>The National Electrical Code, NFPA 70, contains guidelines for determining the type and design of equipment and installations that will meet this requirement. Those guidelines address electric wiring, equipment, and systems installed in hazardous (classified) locations and contain specific provisions for the following: wiring methods, wiring connections; conductor insulation, flexible cords, sealing and drainage, transformers, capacitors, switches, circuit breakers, fuses, motor controllers, receptacles, attachment plugs, meters, relays, instruments, resistors, generators, motors, lighting fixtures, storage battery charging equipment, electric cranes, electric hoists and similar equipment, utilization equipment, signaling systems, alarm systems, remote control systems, local loud speaker and communication systems, ventilation piping, live parts, lightning surge protection, and grounding.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) <I>Conduits.</I> All conduits shall be threaded and shall be made wrench-tight. Where it is impractical to make a threaded joint tight, a bonding jumper shall be utilized.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equipment in Division 2 locations.</I> Equipment that has been approved for a Division 1 location may be installed in a Division 2 location of the same class and group. General-purpose equipment or equipment in general-purpose enclosures may be installed in Division 2 locations if the employer can demonstrate that the equipment does not constitute a source of ignition under normal operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Protection techniques.</I> The following are acceptable protection techniques for electric and electronic equipment in hazardous (classified) locations.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Explosionproof apparatus.</I> This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Division 1 and 2 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dust ignitionproof.</I> This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class II, Division 1 and 2 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dust-tight.</I> This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class II, Division 2 and Class III locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Purged and pressurized.</I> This protection technique is permitted for equipment in any hazardous (classified) location for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Nonincendive circuit.</I> This protection technique is permitted for equipment in Class I, Division 2; Class II, Division 2; or Class III, Division 1or 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Nonincendive equipment.</I> This protection technique is permitted for equipment in Class I, Division 2; Class II, Division 2; or Class III, Division 1 or 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Nonincendive component.</I> This protection technique is permitted for equipment in Class I, Division 2; Class II, Division 2; or Class III, Division 1 or 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Oil immersion.</I> This protection technique is permitted for current-interrupting contacts in Class I, Division 2 locations as described in the Subpart.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Hermetically sealed.</I> This protection technique is permitted for equipment in Class I, Division 2; Class II, Division 2; and Class III, Division 1 or 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Other protection techniques.</I> Any other protection technique that meets paragraph (c) of this section is acceptable in any hazardous (classified) location.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Class I, Zone 0, 1, and 2 locations</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> Employers may use the zone classification system as an alternative to the division classification system for electric and electronic equipment and wiring for all voltage in Class I, Zone 0, Zone 1, and Zone 2 hazardous (classified) locations where fire or explosion hazards may exist due to flammable gases, vapors, or liquids.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location and general requirements.</I> (i) Locations shall be classified depending on the properties of the flammable vapors, liquids, or gases that may be present and the likelihood that a flammable or combustible concentration or quantity is present. Where pyrophoric materials are the only materials used or handled, these locations need not be classified.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each room, section, or area shall be considered individually in determining its classification.
</P>
<P>(iii) All threaded conduit shall be threaded with an NPT (National (American) Standard Pipe Taper) standard conduit cutting die that provides 
<FR>3/4</FR>-in. taper per foot. The conduit shall be made wrench tight to prevent sparking when fault current flows through the conduit system and to ensure the explosionproof or flameproof integrity of the conduit system where applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) Equipment provided with threaded entries for field wiring connection shall be installed in accordance with paragraph (g)(2)(iv)(A) or (g)(2)(iv)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) For equipment provided with threaded entries for NPT threaded conduit or fittings, listed conduit, conduit fittings, or cable fittings shall be used.
</P>
<P>(B) For equipment with metric threaded entries, such entries shall be identified as being metric, or listed adaptors to permit connection to conduit of NPT-threaded fittings shall be provided with the equipment. Adapters shall be used for connection to conduit or NPT-threaded fittings.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Protection techniques.</I> One or more of the following protection techniques shall be used for electric and electronic equipment in hazardous (classified) locations classified under the zone classification system.
</P>
<P>(i) Flameproof “d”—This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Zone 1 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Purged and pressurized—This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Zone 1 or Zone 2 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(iii) Intrinsic safety—This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Zone 0 or Zone 1 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(iv) Type of protection “n”—This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Zone 2 locations for which it is approved. Type of protection “n” is further subdivided into nA, nC, and nR.
</P>
<P>(v) Oil Immersion “o”—This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Zone 1 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(vi) Increased safety “e”—This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Zone 1 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(vii) Encapsulation “m”—This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Zone 1 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(viii) Powder Filling “q”—This protection technique is permitted for equipment in the Class I, Zone 1 locations for which it is approved.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special precaution.</I> Paragraph (g) of this section requires equipment construction and installation that will ensure safe performance under conditions of proper use and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(i) Classification of areas and selection of equipment and wiring methods shall be under the supervision of a qualified registered professional engineer.
</P>
<P>(ii) In instances of areas within the same facility classified separately, Class I, Zone 2 locations may abut, but not overlap, Class I, Division 2 locations. Class I, Zone 0 or Zone 1 locations may not abut Class I, Division 1 or Division 2 locations.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Class I, Division 1 or Division 2 location may be reclassified as a Class I, Zone 0, Zone 1, or Zone 2 location only if all of the space that is classified because of a single flammable gas or vapor source is reclassified.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(4) of this section:</HED>
<P>Low ambient conditions require special consideration. Electric equipment depending on the protection techniques described by paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section may not be suitable for use at temperatures lower than −20 °C (−4 °F) unless they are approved for use at lower temperatures. However, at low ambient temperatures, flammable concentrations of vapors may not exist in a location classified Class I, Zone 0, 1, or 2 at normal ambient temperature.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Listing and marking.</I> (i) Equipment that is listed for a Zone 0 location may be installed in a Zone 1 or Zone 2 location of the same gas or vapor. Equipment that is listed for a Zone 1 location may be installed in a Zone 2 location of the same gas or vapor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment shall be marked in accordance with paragraph (g)(5)(ii)(A) and (g)(5)(ii)(B) of this section, except as provided in (g)(5)(ii)(C).
</P>
<P>(A) Equipment approved for Class I, Division 1 or Class 1, Division 2 shall, in addition to being marked in accordance with (c)(2)(ii), be marked with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Class I, Zone 1 or Class I, Zone 2 (as applicable);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Applicable gas classification groups; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Temperature classification; or
</P>
<P>(B) Equipment meeting one or more of the protection techniques described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section shall be marked with the following in the order shown:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Class, except for intrinsically safe apparatus;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Zone, except for intrinsically safe apparatus;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Symbol “AEx;”
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Protection techniques;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Applicable gas classification groups; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Temperature classification, except for intrinsically safe apparatus.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(5)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(B) of this section:</HED>
<P>An example of such a required marking is “Class I, Zone 0, AEx ia IIC T6.” See Figure S-1 for an explanation of this marking.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) Equipment that the employer demonstrates will provide protection from the hazards arising from the flammability of the gas or vapor and the zone of location involved and will be recognized as providing such protection by employees need not be marked.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(5)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(C) of this section:</HED>
<P>The National Electrical Code, NFPA 70, contains guidelines for determining the type and design of equipment and installations that will meet this provision.</P></NOTE>
<img src="/graphics/er14fe07.000.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.308" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.308   Special systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Systems over 600 volts, nominal.</I> This paragraph covers the general requirements for all circuits and equipment operated at over 600 volts.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Aboveground wiring methods.</I> (i) Aboveground conductors shall be installed in rigid metal conduit, in intermediate metal conduit, in electrical metallic tubing, in rigid nonmetallic conduit, in cable trays, as busways, as cablebus, in other identified raceways, or as open runs of metal-clad cable suitable for the use and purpose. In locations accessible to qualified persons only, open runs of Type MV cables, bare conductors, and bare busbars are also permitted. Busbars shall be either copper or aluminum. Open runs of insulated wires and cables having a bare lead sheath or a braided outer covering shall be supported in a manner designed to prevent physical damage to the braid or sheath.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conductors emerging from the ground shall be enclosed in approved raceways.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Braid-covered insulated conductors—open installations.</I> The braid on open runs of braid-covered insulated conductors shall be flame retardant or shall have a flame-retardant saturant applied after installation. This treated braid covering shall be stripped back a safe distance at conductor terminals, according to the operating voltage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insulation shielding.</I> (i) Metallic and semiconductor insulation shielding components of shielded cables shall be removed for a distance dependent on the circuit voltage and insulation. Stress reduction means shall be provided at all terminations of factory-applied shielding.
</P>
<P>(ii) Metallic shielding components such as tapes, wires, or braids, or combinations thereof, and their associated conducting and semiconducting components shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Moisture or mechanical protection for metal-sheathed cables.</I> Where cable conductors emerge from a metal sheath and where protection against moisture or physical damage is necessary, the insulation of the conductors shall be protected by a cable sheath terminating device.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Interrupting and isolating devices.</I> (i) Circuit breaker installations located indoors shall consist of metal-enclosed units or fire-resistant cell-mounted units. In locations accessible only to qualified employees, open mounting of circuit breakers is permitted. A means of indicating the open and closed position of circuit breakers shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where fuses are used to protect conductors and equipment, a fuse shall be placed in each ungrounded conductor. Two power fuses may be used in parallel to protect the same load, if both fuses have identical ratings, and if both fuses are installed in an identified common mounting with electrical connections that will divide the current equally. Power fuses of the vented type may not be used indoors, underground, or in metal enclosures unless identified for the use.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fused cutouts installed in buildings or transformer vaults shall be of a type identified for the purpose. Distribution cutouts may not be used indoors, underground, or in metal enclosures. They shall be readily accessible for fuse replacement.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where fused cutouts are not suitable to interrupt the circuit manually while carrying full load, an approved means shall be installed to interrupt the entire load. Unless the fused cutouts are interlocked with the switch to prevent opening of the cutouts under load, a conspicuous sign shall be placed at such cutouts reading: “WARNING—DO NOT OPERATE UNDER LOAD.”
</P>
<P>(v) Suitable barriers or enclosures shall be provided to prevent contact with nonshielded cables or energized parts of oil-filled cutouts.
</P>
<P>(vi) Load interrupter switches may be used only if suitable fuses or circuits are used in conjunction with these devices to interrupt fault currents.
</P>
<P>(A) Where these devices are used in combination, they shall be coordinated electrically so that they will safely withstand the effects of closing, carrying, or interrupting all possible currents up to the assigned maximum short-circuit rating.
</P>
<P>(B) Where more than one switch is installed with interconnected load terminals to provide for alternate connection to different supply conductors, each switch shall be provided with a conspicuous sign reading: “WARNING—SWITCH MAY BE ENERGIZED BY BACKFEED.”
</P>
<P>(vii) A means (for example, a fuseholder and fuse designed for the purpose) shall be provided to completely isolate equipment for inspection and repairs. Isolating means that are not designed to interrupt the load current of the circuit shall be either interlocked with an approved circuit interrupter or provided with a sign warning against opening them under load.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Mobile and portable equipment.</I> (i) A metallic enclosure shall be provided on the mobile machine for enclosing the terminals of the power cable. The enclosure shall include provisions for a solid connection for the grounding terminal to effectively ground the machine frame. The method of cable termination used shall prevent any strain or pull on the cable from stressing the electrical connections. The enclosure shall have provision for locking so only authorized qualified persons may open it and shall be marked with a sign warning of the presence of energized parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) All energized switching and control parts shall be enclosed in effectively grounded metal cabinets or enclosures. Circuit breakers and protective equipment shall have the operating means projecting through the metal cabinet or enclosure so these units can be reset without locked doors being opened. Enclosures and metal cabinets shall be locked so that only authorized qualified persons have access and shall be marked with a sign warning of the presence of energized parts. Collector ring assemblies on revolving-type machines (shovels, draglines, etc.) shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Tunnel installations.</I> This paragraph applies to installation and use of high-voltage power distribution and utilization equipment that is portable or mobile, such as substations, trailers, cars, mobile shovels, draglines, hoists, drills, dredges, compressors, pumps, conveyors, and underground excavators.
</P>
<P>(i) Conductors in tunnels shall be installed in one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Metal conduit or other metal raceway;
</P>
<P>(B) Type MC cable; or
</P>
<P>(C) Other approved multiconductor cable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiconductor portable cable may supply mobile equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Conductors and cables shall also be so located or guarded as to protect them from physical damage. An equipment grounding conductor shall be run with circuit conductors inside the metal raceway or inside the multiconductor cable jacket. The equipment grounding conductor may be insulated or bare.
</P>
<P>(iv) Bare terminals of transformers, switches, motor controllers, and other equipment shall be enclosed to prevent accidental contact with energized parts.
</P>
<P>(v) Enclosures for use in tunnels shall be drip-proof, weatherproof, or submersible as required by the environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(vi) Switch or contactor enclosures may not be used as junction boxes or raceways for conductors feeding through or tapping off to other switches, unless special designs are used to provide adequate space for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(vii) A disconnecting means that simultaneously opens all ungrounded conductors shall be installed at each transformer or motor location.
</P>
<P>(viii) All nonenergized metal parts of electric equipment and metal raceways and cable sheaths shall be effectively grounded and bonded to all metal pipes and rails at the portal and at intervals not exceeding 305 m (1000 ft) throughout the tunnel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency power systems.</I> This paragraph applies to circuits, systems, and equipment intended to supply power for illumination and special loads in the event of failure of the normal supply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Wiring methods.</I> Emergency circuit wiring shall be kept entirely independent of all other wiring and equipment and may not enter the same raceway, cable, box, or cabinet or other wiring except either where common circuit elements suitable for the purpose are required, or for transferring power from the normal to the emergency source.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency illumination.</I> Emergency illumination shall include all required means of egress lighting, illuminated exit signs, and all other lights necessary to provide illumination. Where emergency lighting is necessary, the system shall be so arranged that the failure of any individual lighting element, such as the burning out of a light bulb, cannot leave any space in total darkness.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Signs.</I> (i) A sign shall be placed at the service entrance equipment indicating the type and location of on-site emergency power sources. However, a sign is not required for individual unit equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the grounded circuit conductor connected to the emergency source is connected to a grounding electrode conductor at a location remote from the emergency source, there shall be a sign at the grounding location that shall identify all emergency and normal sources connected at that location.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 remote control, signaling, and power-limited circuits</I>—(1) <I>Classification.</I> Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 remote control, signaling, or power-limited circuits are characterized by their usage and electrical power limitation that differentiates them from light and power circuits. These circuits are classified in accordance with their respective voltage and power limitations as summarized in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) A Class 1 power-limited circuit shall be supplied from a source having a rated output of not more than 30 volts and 1000 volt-amperes.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Class 1 remote control circuit or a Class 1 signaling circuit shall have a voltage not exceeding 600 volts; however, the power output of the source need not be limited.
</P>
<P>(iii) The power source for a Class 2 or Class 3 circuit shall be listed equipment marked as a Class 2 or Class 3 power source, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Thermocouples do not require listing as a Class 2 power source; and
</P>
<P>(B) A dry cell battery is considered an inherently limited Class 2 power source, provided the voltage is 30 volts or less and the capacity is less than or equal to that available from series-connected No. 6 carbon zinc cells.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Marking.</I> A Class 2 or Class 3 power supply unit shall be durably marked where plainly visible to indicate the class of supply and its electrical rating.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Separation from conductors of other circuits.</I> Cables and conductors of Class 2 and Class 3 circuits may not be placed in any cable, cable tray, compartment, enclosure, manhole, outlet box, device box, raceway, or similar fitting with conductors of electric light, power, Class 1, nonpower-limited fire alarm circuits, and medium power network-powered broadband communications cables unless a barrier or other equivalent form of protection against contact is employed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fire alarm systems</I>—(1) <I>Classifications.</I> Fire alarm circuits shall be classified either as nonpower limited or power limited.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Power sources.</I> The power sources for use with fire alarm circuits shall be either power limited or nonpower limited as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The power source of nonpower-limited fire alarm (NPLFA) circuits shall have an output voltage of not more than 600 volts, nominal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The power source for a power-limited fire alarm (PLFA) circuit shall be listed equipment marked as a PLFA power source.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Separation from conductors of other circuits.</I> (i) Nonpower-limited fire alarm circuits and Class 1 circuits may occupy the same enclosure, cable, or raceway provided all conductors are insulated for maximum voltage of any conductor within the enclosure, cable, or raceway. Power supply and fire alarm circuit conductors are permitted in the same enclosure, cable, or raceway only if connected to the same equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Power-limited circuit cables and conductors may not be placed in any cable, cable tray, compartment, enclosure, outlet box, raceway, or similar fitting with conductors of electric light, power, Class 1, nonpower-limited fire alarm circuit conductors, or medium power network-powered broadband communications circuits.
</P>
<P>(iii) Power-limited fire alarm circuit conductors shall be separated at least 50.8 mm (2 in.) from conductors of any electric light, power, Class 1, nonpower-limited fire alarm, or medium power network-powered broadband communications circuits unless a special and equally protective method of conductor separation is employed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Conductors of one or more Class 2 circuits are permitted within the same cable, enclosure, or raceway with conductors of power-limited fire alarm circuits provided that the insulation of Class 2 circuit conductors in the cable, enclosure, or raceway is at least that needed for the power-limited fire alarm circuits.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Identification.</I> Fire alarm circuits shall be identified at terminal and junction locations in a manner that will prevent unintentional interference with the signaling circuit during testing and servicing. Power-limited fire alarm circuits shall be durably marked as such where plainly visible at terminations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Communications systems.</I> This paragraph applies to central-station-connected and non-central-station-connected telephone circuits, radio and television receiving and transmitting equipment, including community antenna television and radio distribution systems, telegraph, district messenger, and outside wiring for fire and burglar alarm, and similar central station systems. These installations need not comply with the provisions of § 1910.303 through § 1910.308(d), except for §§ 1910.304(c)(1) and 1910.307.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Protective devices.</I> (i) A listed primary protector shall be provided on each circuit run partly or entirely in aerial wire or aerial cable not confined within a block.
</P>
<P>(ii) A listed primary protector shall be also provided on each aerial or underground circuit when the location of the circuit within the block containing the building served allows the circuit to be exposed to accidental contact with electric light or power conductors operating at over 300 volts to ground.
</P>
<P>(iii) In addition, where there exists a lightning exposure, each interbuilding circuit on premises shall be protected by a listed primary protector at each end of the interbuilding circuit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conductor location.</I> (i) Lead-in or aerial-drop cables from a pole or other support, including the point of initial attachment to a building or structure, shall be kept away from electric light, power, Class 1, or nonpower-limited fire alarm circuit conductors so as to avoid the possibility of accidental contact.
</P>
<P>(ii) A separation of at least 1.83 m (6 ft) shall be maintained between communications wires and cables on buildings and lightning conductors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where communications wires and cables and electric light or power conductors are supported by the same pole or run parallel to each other in-span, the following conditions shall be met:
</P>
<P>(A) Where practicable, communication wires and cables on poles shall be located below the electric light or power conductors; and
</P>
<P>(B) Communications wires and cables may not be attached to a crossarm that carries electric light or power conductors.
</P>
<P>(iv) Indoor communications wires and cables shall be separated at least 50.8 mm (2 in.) from conductors of any electric light, power, Class 1, nonpower-limited fire alarm, or medium power network-powered broadband communications circuits, unless a special and equally protective method of conductor separation, identified for the purpose, is employed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equipment location.</I> Outdoor metal structures supporting antennas, as well as self-supporting antennas such as vertical rods or dipole structures, shall be located as far away from overhead conductors of electric light and power circuits of over 150 volts to ground as necessary to prevent the antenna or structure from falling into or making accidental contact with such circuits.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Grounding.</I> (i) If exposed to contact with electric light and power conductors, the metal sheath of aerial cables entering buildings shall be grounded or shall be interrupted close to the entrance to the building by an insulating joint or equivalent device. Where protective devices are used, they shall be grounded in an approved manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) Masts and metal structures supporting antennas shall be permanently and effectively grounded without splice or connection in the grounding conductor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Transmitters shall be enclosed in a metal frame or grill or separated from the operating space by a barrier, all metallic parts of which are effectively connected to ground. All external metal handles and controls accessible to the operating personnel shall be effectively grounded. Unpowered equipment and enclosures are considered to be grounded where connected to an attached coaxial cable with an effectively grounded metallic shield.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Solar photovoltaic systems.</I> This paragraph covers solar photovoltaic systems that can be interactive with other electric power production sources or can stand alone with or without electrical energy storage such as batteries. These systems may have ac or dc output for utilization.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conductors of different systems.</I> Photovoltaic source circuits and photovoltaic output circuits may not be contained in the same raceway, cable tray, cable, outlet box, junction box, or similar fitting as feeders or branch circuits of other systems, unless the conductors of the different systems are separated by a partition or are connected together.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> Means shall be provided to disconnect all current-carrying conductors of a photovoltaic power source from all other conductors in a building or other structure. Where a circuit grounding connection is not designed to be automatically interrupted as part of the ground-fault protection system, a switch or circuit breaker used as disconnecting means may not have a pole in the grounded conductor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Integrated electrical systems</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> Paragraph (g) of this section covers integrated electrical systems, other than unit equipment, in which orderly shutdown is necessary to ensure safe operation. An integrated electrical system as used in this section shall be a unitized segment of an industrial wiring system where all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) An orderly shutdown process minimizes employee hazard and equipment damage;
</P>
<P>(ii) The conditions of maintenance and supervision ensure that only qualified persons will service the system; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Effective safeguards are established and maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location of overcurrent devices in or on premises.</I> Overcurrent devices that are critical to integrated electrical systems need not be readily accessible to employees as required by § 1910.304(f)(1)(iv) if they are located with mounting heights to ensure security from operation by nonqualified persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1910.309-1910.330" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.38.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1910.309-1910.330   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="39" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Safety-Related Work Practices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.331" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.39.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.331   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered work by both qualified and unqualified persons.</I> The provisions of §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335 cover electrical safety-related work practices for both qualified persons (those who have training in avoiding the electrical hazards of working on or near exposed energized parts) and unqualified persons (those with little or no such training) working on, near, or with the following installations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Premises wiring.</I> Installations of electric conductors and equipment within or on buildings or other structures, and on other premises such as yards, carnival, parking, and other lots, and industrial substations;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wiring for connection to supply.</I> Installations of conductors that connect to the supply of electricity; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other wiring.</I> Installations of other outside conductors on the premises.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Optical fiber cable.</I> Installations of optical fiber cable where such installations are made along with electric conductors.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See § 1910.399 for the definition of “qualified person.” See § 1910.332 for training requirements that apply to qualified and unqualified persons.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Other covered work.</I> The provisions of §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335 also cover:
</P>
<P>(1) Work performed by unqualified persons on, near, or with the installations listed in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Work performed by qualified persons near the installations listed in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this section when that work is not on or directly associated with those installations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Excluded work by qualified persons.</I> The provisions of §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335 do not apply to work performed by qualified persons on or directly associated with the following installations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Generation, transmission, and distribution installations.</I> Installations for the generation, control, transformation, transmission, and distribution of electric energy (including communication and metering) located in buildings used for such purposes or located outdoors.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>Work on or directly associated with installations of utilization equipment used for purposes other than generating, transmitting, or distributing electric energy (such as installations which are in office buildings, warehouses, garages, machine shops, or recreational buildings, or other utilization installations which are not an integral part of a generating installation, substation, or control center) is covered under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>For work on or directly associated with utilization installations, an employer who complies with the work practices of § 1910.269 (electric power generation, transmission, and distribution) will be deemed to be in compliance with §§ 1910.333(c) and 1910.335. However, the requirements of §§ 1910.332, 1910.333(a), 1910.333(b), and 1910.334 apply to <I>all</I> work on or directly associated with utilization installations, regardless of whether the work is performed by qualified or unqualified persons.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>Work on or directly associated with generation, transmission, or distribution installations includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Work performed directly on such installations, such as repairing overhead or underground distribution lines or repairing a feed-water pump for the boiler in a generating plant.
</P>
<P>(2) Work directly associated with such installations, such as line-clearance tree trimming and replacing utility poles, when that work is covered by § 1910.269 (see § 1910.269(a)(1)(i)(D) and (E) and the definition of “line-clearance tree trimming” in § 1910.269(x)).
</P>
<P>(3) Work on electric utilization circuits in a generating plant provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) Such circuits are commingled with installations of power generation equipment or circuits, and
</P>
<P>(B) The generation equipment or circuits present greater electrical hazards than those posed by the utilization equipment or circuits (such as exposure to higher voltages or lack of overcurrent protection).
</P>
<P>This work is covered by § 1910.269.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Communications installations.</I> Installations of communication equipment to the extent that the work is covered under § 1910.268.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Installations in vehicles.</I> Installations in ships, watercraft, railway rolling stock, aircraft, or automotive vehicles other than mobile homes and recreational vehicles.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Railway installations.</I> Installations of railways for generation, transformation, transmission, or distribution of power used exclusively for operation of rolling stock or installations of railways used exclusively for signaling and communication purposes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32016, Aug. 6, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 4476, Jan. 31, 1994; 79 FR 20692, Apr. 11, 2014; 80 FR 60039, Oct. 5, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.332" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.39.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.332   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The training requirements contained in this section apply to employees who face a risk of electric shock that is not reduced to a safe level by the electrical installation requirements of §§ 1910.303 through 1910.308.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Employees in occupations listed in Table S-4 face such a risk and are required to be trained. Other employees who also may reasonably be expected to face a comparable risk of injury due to electric shock or other electrical hazards must also be trained.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Content of training</I>—(1) <I>Practices addressed in this standard.</I> Employees shall be trained in and familiar with the safety-related work practices required by §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335 that pertain to their respective job assignments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional requirements for unqualified persons.</I> Employees who are covered by paragraph (a) of this section but who are not qualified persons shall also be trained in and familiar with any electrically related safety practices not specifically addressed by §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335 but which are necessary for their safety.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional requirements for qualified persons.</I> Qualified persons (i.e., those permitted to work on or near exposed energized parts) shall, at a minimum, be trained in and familiar with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The skills and techniques necessary to distinguish exposed live parts from other parts of electric equipment,
</P>
<P>(ii) The skills and techniques necessary to determine the nominal voltage of exposed live parts, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The clearance distances specified in § 1910.333(c) and the corresponding voltages to which the qualified person will be exposed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>For the purposes of §§ 1910.331 through 1910.335, a person must have the training required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section in order to be considered a qualified person.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2:</HED>
<P>Qualified persons whose work on energized equipment involves either direct contact or contact by means of tools or materials must also have the training needed to meet § 1910.333(c)(2).</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Type of training.</I> The training required by this section shall be of the classroom or on-the-job type. The degree of training provided shall be determined by the risk to the employee.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-4—Typical Occupational Categories of Employees Facing a Higher Than Normal Risk of Electrical Accident
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Occupation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blue collar supervisors. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical and electronic engineers. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical and electronic equipment assemblers. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical and electronic technicians. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electricians.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Industrial machine operators. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Material handling equipment operators. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mechanics and repairers. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Painters. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riggers and roustabouts. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stationary engineers. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Welders.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Workers in these groups do not need to be trained if their work or the work of those they supervise does not bring them or the employees they supervise close enough to exposed parts of electric circuits operating at 50 volts or more to ground for a hazard to exist.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32016, Aug. 6, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.333" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.39.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.333   Selection and use of work practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Safety-related work practices shall be employed to prevent electric shock or other injuries resulting from either direct or indirect electrical contacts, when work is performed near or on equipment or circuits which are or may be energized. The specific safety-related work practices shall be consistent with the nature and extent of the associated electrical hazards.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Deenergized parts.</I> Live parts to which an employee may be exposed shall be deenergized before the employee works on or near them, unless the employer can demonstrate that deenergizing introduces additional or increased hazards or is infeasible due to equipment design or operational limitations. Live parts that operate at less than 50 volts to ground need not be deenergized if there will be no increased exposure to electrical burns or to explosion due to electric arcs.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>Examples of increased or additional hazards include interruption of life support equipment, deactivation of emergency alarm systems, shutdown of hazardous location ventilation equipment, or removal of illumination for an area.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2:</HED>
<P>Examples of work that may be performed on or near energized circuit parts because of infeasibility due to equipment design or operational limitations include testing of electric circuits that can only be performed with the circuit energized and work on circuits that form an integral part of a continuous industrial process in a chemical plant that would otherwise need to be completely shut down in order to permit work on one circuit or piece of equipment.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3:</HED>
<P>Work on or near deenergized parts is covered by paragraph (b) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Energized parts.</I> If the exposed live parts are not deenergized (i.e., for reasons of increased or additional hazards or infeasibility), other safety-related work practices shall be used to protect employees who may be exposed to the electrical hazards involved. Such work practices shall protect employees against contact with energized circuit parts directly with any part of their body or indirectly through some other conductive object. The work practices that are used shall be suitable for the conditions under which the work is to be performed and for the voltage level of the exposed electric conductors or circuit parts. Specific work practice requirements are detailed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Working on or near exposed deenergized parts</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph applies to work on exposed deenergized parts or near enough to them to expose the employee to any electrical hazard they present. Conductors and parts of electric equipment that have been deenergized but have not been locked out or tagged in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section shall be treated as energized parts, and paragraph (c) of this section applies to work on or near them.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lockout and tagging.</I> While any employee is exposed to contact with parts of fixed electric equipment or circuits which have been deenergized, the circuits energizing the parts shall be locked out or tagged or both in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph. The requirements shall be followed in the order in which they are presented (i.e., paragraph (b)(2)(i) first, then paragraph (b)(2)(ii), etc.).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>As used in this section, fixed equipment refers to equipment fastened in place or connected by permanent wiring methods.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2:</HED>
<P>Lockout and tagging procedures that comply with paragraphs (c) through (f) of § 1910.147 will also be deemed to comply with paragraph (b)(2) of this section provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The procedures address the electrical safety hazards covered by this Subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures also incorporate the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(D) and (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures.</I> The employer shall maintain a written copy of the procedures outlined in paragraph (b)(2) and shall make it available for inspection by employees and by the Assistant Secretary of Labor and his or her authorized representatives.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The written procedures may be in the form of a copy of paragraph (b) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Deenergizing equipment.</I> (A) Safe procedures for deenergizing circuits and equipment shall be determined before circuits or equipment are deenergized.
</P>
<P>(B) The circuits and equipment to be worked on shall be disconnected from all electric energy sources. Control circuit devices, such as push buttons, selector switches, and interlocks, may not be used as the sole means for deenergizing circuits or equipment. Interlocks for electric equipment may not be used as a substitute for lockout and tagging procedures.
</P>
<P>(C) Stored electric energy which might endanger personnel shall be released. Capacitors shall be discharged and high capacitance elements shall be short-circuited and grounded, if the stored electric energy might endanger personnel.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If the capacitors or associated equipment are handled in meeting this requirement, they shall be treated as energized.</P></NOTE>
<P>(D) Stored non-electrical energy in devices that could reenergize electric circuit parts shall be blocked or relieved to the extent that the circuit parts could not be accidentally energized by the device.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Application of locks and tags.</I> (A) A lock and a tag shall be placed on each disconnecting means used to deenergize circuits and equipment on which work is to be performed, except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(C) and (b)(2)(iii)(E) of this section. The lock shall be attached so as to prevent persons from operating the disconnecting means unless they resort to undue force or the use of tools.
</P>
<P>(B) Each tag shall contain a statement prohibiting unauthorized operation of the disconnecting means and removal of the tag.
</P>
<P>(C) If a lock cannot be applied, or if the employer can demonstrate that tagging procedures will provide a level of safety equivalent to that obtained by the use of a lock, a tag may be used without a lock.
</P>
<P>(D) A tag used without a lock, as permitted by paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section, shall be supplemented by at least one additional safety measure that provides a level of safety equivalent to that obtained by the use of a lock. Examples of additional safety measures include the removal of an isolating circuit element, blocking of a controlling switch, or opening of an extra disconnecting device.
</P>
<P>(E) A lock may be placed without a tag only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Only one circuit or piece of equipment is deenergized, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lockout period does not extend beyond the work shift, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Employees exposed to the hazards associated with reenergizing the circuit or equipment are familiar with this procedure.
</P>
<P>(iv) Verification of deenergized condition. The requirements of this paragraph shall be met before any circuits or equipment can be considered and worked as deenergized.
</P>
<P>(A) A qualified person shall operate the equipment operating controls or otherwise verify that the equipment cannot be restarted.
</P>
<P>(B) A qualified person shall use test equipment to test the circuit elements and electrical parts of equipment to which employees will be exposed and shall verify that the circuit elements and equipment parts are deenergized. The test shall also determine if any energized condition exists as a result of inadvertently induced voltage or unrelated voltage backfeed even though specific parts of the circuit have been deenergized and presumed to be safe. If the circuit to be tested is over 600 volts, nominal, the test equipment shall be checked for proper operation immediately before and immediately after this test.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Reenergizing equipment.</I> These requirements shall be met, in the order given, before circuits or equipment are reenergized, even temporarily.
</P>
<P>(A) A qualified person shall conduct tests and visual inspections, as necessary, to verify that all tools, electrical jumpers, shorts, grounds, and other such devices have been removed, so that the circuits and equipment can be safely energized.
</P>
<P>(B) Employees exposed to the hazards associated with reenergizing the circuit or equipment shall be warned to stay clear of circuits and equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Each lock and tag shall be removed by the employee who applied it or under his or her direct supervision. However, if this employee is absent from the workplace, then the lock or tag may be removed by a qualified person designated to perform this task provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The employer ensures that the employee who applied the lock or tag is not available at the workplace, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employer ensures that the employee is aware that the lock or tag has been removed before he or she resumes work at that workplace.
</P>
<P>(D) There shall be a visual determination that all employees are clear of the circuits and equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Working on or near exposed energized parts</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph applies to work performed on exposed live parts (involving either direct contact or contact by means of tools or materials) or near enough to them for employees to be exposed to any hazard they present.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Work on energized equipment.</I> Only qualified persons may work on electric circuit parts or equipment that have not been deenergized under the procedures of paragraph (b) of this section. Such persons shall be capable of working safely on energized circuits and shall be familiar with the proper use of special precautionary techniques, personal protective equipment, insulating and shielding materials, and insulated tools.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Overhead lines.</I> If work is to be performed near overhead lines, the lines shall be deenergized and grounded, or other protective measures shall be provided before work is started. If the lines are to be deenergized, arrangements shall be made with the person or organization that operates or controls the electric circuits involved to deenergize and ground them. If protective measures, such as guarding, isolating, or insulating are provided, these precautions shall prevent employees from contacting such lines directly with any part of their body or indirectly through conductive materials, tools, or equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The work practices used by qualified persons installing insulating devices on overhead power transmission or distribution lines are covered by § 1910.269 of this part, not by §§ 1910.332 through 1910.335 of this part. Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unqualified persons are prohibited from performing this type of work.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Unqualified persons.</I> (A) When an unqualified person is working in an elevated position near overhead lines, the location shall be such that the person and the longest conductive object he or she may contact cannot come closer to any unguarded, energized overhead line than the following distances:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For voltages to ground 50kV or below—10 ft. (305 cm);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For voltages to ground over 50kV—10 ft. (305 cm) plus 4 in. (10 cm) for every 10kV over 50kV.
</P>
<P>(B) When an unqualified person is working on the ground in the vicinity of overhead lines, the person may not bring any conductive object closer to unguarded, energized overhead lines than the distances given in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For voltages normally encountered with overhead power lines, objects which do not have an insulating rating for the voltage involved are considered to be conductive.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Qualified persons.</I> When a qualified person is working in the vicinity of overhead lines, whether in an elevated position or on the ground, the person may not approach or take any conductive object without an approved insulating handle closer to exposed energized parts than shown in Table S-5 unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The person is insulated from the energized part (gloves, with sleeves if necessary, rated for the voltage involved are considered to be insulation of the person from the energized part on which work is performed), or
</P>
<P>(B) The energized part is insulated both from all other conductive objects at a different potential and from the person, or
</P>
<P>(C) The person is insulated from all conductive objects at a potential different from that of the energized part.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-5—Approach Distances for Qualified Employees—Alternating Current
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Voltage range (phase to phase)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum approach distance
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300V and less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Avoid contact.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 300V, not over 750V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 ft. 0 in. (30.5 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 750V, not over 2kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">l ft. 6 in. (46 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 2kV, not over 15kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 ft. 0 in. (61 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 15kV, not over 37kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 ft. 0 in. (91 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 37kV, not over 87.5kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 ft. 6 in. (107 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 87.5kV, not over 121kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 ft. 0 in. (122 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 121kV, not over 140kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 ft. 6 in. (137 cm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Vehicular and mechanical equipment.</I> (A) Any vehicle or mechanical equipment capable of having parts of its structure elevated near energized overhead lines shall be operated so that a clearance of 10 ft. (305 cm) is maintained. If the voltage is higher than 50kV, the clearance shall be increased 4 in. (10 cm) for every 10kV over that voltage. However, under any of the following conditions, the clearance may be reduced:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the vehicle is in transit with its structure lowered, the clearance may be reduced to 4 ft. (122 cm). If the voltage is higher than 50kV, the clearance shall be increased 4 in. (10 cm) for every 10kV over that voltage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If insulating barriers are installed to prevent contact with the lines, and if the barriers are rated for the voltage of the line being guarded and are not a part of or an attachment to the vehicle or its raised structure, the clearance may be reduced to a distance within the designed working dimensions of the insulating barrier.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the equipment is an aerial lift insulated for the voltage involved, and if the work is performed by a qualified person, the clearance (between the uninsulated portion of the aerial lift and the power line) may be reduced to the distance given in Table S-5.
</P>
<P>(B) Employees standing on the ground may not contact the vehicle or mechanical equipment or any of its attachments, unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The employee is using protective equipment rated for the voltage; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The equipment is located so that no uninsulated part of its structure (that portion of the structure that provides a conductive path to employees on the ground) can come closer to the line than permitted in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) If any vehicle or mechanical equipment capable of having parts of its structure elevated near energized overhead lines is intentionally grounded, employees working on the ground near the point of grounding may not stand at the grounding location whenever there is a possibility of overhead line contact. Additional precautions, such as the use of barricades or insulation, shall be taken to protect employees from hazardous ground potentials, depending on earth resistivity and fault currents, which can develop within the first few feet or more outward from the grounding point.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Illumination.</I> (i) Employees may not enter spaces containing exposed energized parts, unless illumination is provided that enables the employees to perform the work safely.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where lack of illumination or an obstruction precludes observation of the work to be performed, employees may not perform tasks near exposed energized parts. Employees may not reach blindly into areas which may contain energized parts.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Confined or enclosed work spaces.</I> When an employee works in a confined or enclosed space (such as a manhole or vault) that contains exposed energized parts, the employer shall provide, and the employee shall use, protective shields, protective barriers, or insulating materials as necessary to avoid inadvertent contact with these parts. Doors, hinged panels, and the like shall be secured to prevent their swinging into an employee and causing the employee to contact exposed energized parts.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Conductive materials and equipment.</I> Conductive materials and equipment that are in contact with any part of an employee's body shall be handled in a manner that will prevent them from contacting exposed energized conductors or circuit parts. If an employee must handle long dimensional conductive objects (such as ducts and pipes) in areas with exposed live parts, the employer shall institute work practices (such as the use of insulation, guarding, and material handling techniques) which will minimize the hazard.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Portable ladders.</I> Portable ladders shall have nonconductive siderails if they are used where the employee or the ladder could contact exposed energized parts.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Conductive apparel.</I> Conductive articles of jewelry and clothing (such as watch bands, bracelets, rings, key chains, necklaces, metalized aprons, cloth with conductive thread, or metal headgear) may not be worn if they might contact exposed energized parts. However, such articles may be worn if they are rendered nonconductive by covering, wrapping, or other insulating means.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Housekeeping duties.</I> Where live parts present an electrical contact hazard, employees may not perform housekeeping duties at such close distances to the parts that there is a possibility of contact, unless adequate safeguards (such as insulating equipment or barriers) are provided. Electrically conductive cleaning materials (including conductive solids such as steel wool, metalized cloth, and silicon carbide, as well as conductive liquid solutions) may not be used in proximity to energized parts unless procedures are followed which will prevent electrical contact.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Interlocks.</I> Only a qualified person following the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section may defeat an electrical safety interlock, and then only temporarily while he or she is working on the equipment. The interlock system shall be returned to its operable condition when this work is completed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32016, Aug. 6, 1990; 55 FR 46053, Nov. 1, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 4476, Jan. 31, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.334" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.39.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.334   Use of equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Portable electric equipment.</I> This paragraph applies to the use of cord- and plug-connected equipment, including flexible cord sets (extension cords).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Handling.</I> Portable equipment shall be handled in a manner which will not cause damage. Flexible electric cords connected to equipment may not be used for raising or lowering the equipment. Flexible cords may not be fastened with staples or otherwise hung in such a fashion as could damage the outer jacket or insulation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Visual inspection.</I> (i) Portable cord- and plug-connected equipment and flexible cord sets (extension cords) shall be visually inspected before use on any shift for external defects (such as loose parts, deformed and missing pins, or damage to outer jacket or insulation) and for evidence of possible internal damage (such as pinched or crushed outer jacket). Cord- and plug-connected equipment and flexible cord sets (extension cords) which remain connected once they are put in place and are not exposed to damage need not be visually inspected until they are relocated.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a defect or evidence of damage that might expose an employee to injury, the defective or damaged item shall be removed from service, and no employee may use it until repairs and tests necessary to render the equipment safe have been made.
</P>
<P>(iii) When an attachment plug is to be connected to a receptacle (including any on a cord set), the relationship of the plug and receptacle contacts shall first be checked to ensure that they are of proper mating configurations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Grounding-type equipment.</I> (i) A flexible cord used with grounding-type equipment shall contain an equipment grounding conductor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Attachment plugs and receptacles may not be connected or altered in a manner which would prevent proper continuity of the equipment grounding conductor at the point where plugs are attached to receptacles. Additionally, these devices may not be altered to allow the grounding pole of a plug to be inserted into slots intended for connection to the current-carrying conductors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Adapters which interrupt the continuity of the equipment grounding connection may not be used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conductive work locations.</I> Portable electric equipment and flexible cords used in highly conductive work locations (such as those inundated with water or other conductive liquids), or in job locations where employees are likely to contact water or conductive liquids, shall be approved for those locations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Connecting attachment plugs.</I> (i) Employees' hands may not be wet when plugging and unplugging flexible cords and cord- and plug-connected equipment, if energized equipment is involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Energized plug and receptacle connections may be handled only with insulating protective equipment if the condition of the connection could provide a conducting path to the employee's hand (if, for example, a cord connector is wet from being immersed in water).
</P>
<P>(iii) Locking-type connectors shall be properly secured after connection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electric power and lighting circuits</I>—(1) <I>Routine opening and closing of circuits.</I> Load rated switches, circuit breakers, or other devices specifically designed as disconnecting means shall be used for the opening, reversing, or closing of circuits under load conditions. Cable connectors not of the load-break type, fuses, terminal lugs, and cable splice connections may not be used for such purposes, except in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reclosing circuits after protective device operation.</I> After a circuit is deenergized by a circuit protective device, the circuit may not be manually reenergized until it has been determined that the equipment and circuit can be safely energized. The repetitive manual reclosing of circuit breakers or reenergizing circuits through replaced fuses is prohibited.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When it can be determined from the design of the circuit and the overcurrent devices involved that the automatic operation of a device was caused by an overload rather than a fault condition, no examination of the circuit or connected equipment is needed before the circuit is reenergized.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Overcurrent protection modification.</I> Overcurrent protection of circuits and conductors may not be modified, even on a temporary basis, beyond that allowed by § 1910.304(e), the installation safety requirements for overcurrent protection.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Test instruments and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Use.</I> Only qualified persons may perform testing work on electric circuits or equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Visual inspection.</I> Test instruments and equipment and all associated test leads, cables, power cords, probes, and connectors shall be visually inspected for external defects and damage before the equipment is used. If there is a defect or evidence of damage that might expose an employee to injury, the defective or damaged item shall be removed from service, and no employee may use it until repairs and tests necessary to render the equipment safe have been made.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rating of equipment.</I> Test instruments and equipment and their accessories shall be rated for the circuits and equipment to which they will be connected and shall be designed for the environment in which they will be used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Occasional use of flammable or ignitible materials.</I> Where flammable materials are present only occasionally, electric equipment capable of igniting them shall not be used, unless measures are taken to prevent hazardous conditions from developing. Such materials include, but are not limited to: flammable gases, vapors, or liquids; combustible dust; and ignitible fibers or flyings.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Electrical installation requirements for locations where flammable materials are present on a regular basis are contained in § 1910.307.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32019, Aug. 6, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.335" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.39.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.335   Safeguards for personnel protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of protective equipment</I>—(1) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> (i) Employees working in areas where there are potential electrical hazards shall be provided with, and shall use, electrical protective equipment that is appropriate for the specific parts of the body to be protected and for the work to be performed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Personal protective equipment requirements are contained in subpart I of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Protective equipment shall be maintained in a safe, reliable condition and shall be periodically inspected or tested, as required by § 1910.137.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the insulating capability of protective equipment may be subject to damage during use, the insulating material shall be protected. (For example, an outer covering of leather is sometimes used for the protection of rubber insulating material.)
</P>
<P>(iv) Employees shall wear nonconductive head protection wherever there is a danger of head injury from electric shock or burns due to contact with exposed energized parts.
</P>
<P>(v) Employees shall wear protective equipment for the eyes or face wherever there is danger of injury to the eyes or face from electric arcs or flashes or from flying objects resulting from electrical explosion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General protective equipment and tools.</I> (i) When working near exposed energized conductors or circuit parts, each employee shall use insulated tools or handling equipment if the tools or handling equipment might make contact with such conductors or parts. If the insulating capability of insulated tools or handling equipment is subject to damage, the insulating material shall be protected.
</P>
<P>(A) Fuse handling equipment, insulated for the circuit voltage, shall be used to remove or install fuses when the fuse terminals are energized.
</P>
<P>(B) Ropes and handlines used near exposed energized parts shall be nonconductive.
</P>
<P>(ii) Protective shields, protective barriers, or insulating materials shall be used to protect each employee from shock, burns, or other electrically related injuries while that employee is working near exposed energized parts which might be accidentally contacted or where dangerous electric heating or arcing might occur. When normally enclosed live parts are exposed for maintenance or repair, they shall be guarded to protect unqualified persons from contact with the live parts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alerting techniques.</I> The following alerting techniques shall be used to warn and protect employees from hazards which could cause injury due to electric shock, burns, or failure of electric equipment parts:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Safety signs and tags.</I> Safety signs, safety symbols, or accident prevention tags shall be used where necessary to warn employees about electrical hazards which may endanger them, as required by § 1910.145.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Barricades.</I> Barricades shall be used in conjunction with safety signs where it is necessary to prevent or limit employee access to work areas exposing employees to uninsulated energized conductors or circuit parts. Conductive barricades may not be used where they might cause an electrical contact hazard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Attendants.</I> If signs and barricades do not provide sufficient warning and protection from electrical hazards, an attendant shall be stationed to warn and protect employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32020, Aug. 6, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1910.336-1910.360" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.39.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1910.336-1910.360   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Safety-Related Maintenance Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1910.361-1910.380" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.40.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1910.361-1910.380   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Safety Requirements for Special Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1910.381-1910.398" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.41.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1910.381-1910.398   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="42" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.399" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.42.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.399   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P><I>Acceptable.</I> An installation or equipment is acceptable to the Assistant Secretary of Labor, and approved within the meaning of this subpart S:
</P>
<P>(1) If it is accepted, or certified, or listed, or labeled, or otherwise determined to be safe by a nationally recognized testing laboratory recognized pursuant to § 1910.7; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to an installation or equipment of a kind that no nationally recognized testing laboratory accepts, certifies, lists, labels, or determines to be safe, if it is inspected or tested by another Federal agency, or by a State, municipal, or other local authority responsible for enforcing occupational safety provisions of the National Electrical Code, and found in compliance with the provisions of the National Electrical Code as applied in this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to custom-made equipment or related installations that are designed, fabricated for, and intended for use by a particular customer, if it is determined to be safe for its intended use by its manufacturer on the basis of test data which the employer keeps and makes available for inspection to the Assistant Secretary and his authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Accepted.</I> An installation is “accepted” if it has been inspected and found by a nationally recognized testing laboratory to conform to specified plans or to procedures of applicable codes.
</P>
<P><I>Accessible.</I> (As applied to wiring methods.) Capable of being removed or exposed without damaging the building structure or finish, or not permanently closed in by the structure or finish of the building. (See “concealed” and “exposed.”)
</P>
<P><I>Accessible.</I> (As applied to equipment.) Admitting close approach; not guarded by locked doors, elevation, or other effective means. (See “Readily accessible.”)
</P>
<P><I>Ampacity.</I> The current, in amperes, that a conductor can carry continuously under the conditions of use without exceeding its temperature rating.
</P>
<P><I>Appliances.</I> Utilization equipment, generally other than industrial, normally built in standardized sizes or types, that is installed or connected as a unit to perform one or more functions.
</P>
<P><I>Approved.</I> Acceptable to the authority enforcing this subpart. The authority enforcing this subpart is the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health. The definition of “acceptable” indicates what is acceptable to the Assistant Secretary of Labor, and therefore approved within the meaning of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Armored cable (Type AC).</I> A fabricated assembly of insulated conductors in a flexible metallic enclosure.
</P>
<P><I>Askarel.</I> A generic term for a group of nonflammable synthetic chlorinated hydrocarbons used as electrical insulating media. Askarels of various compositional types are used. Under arcing conditions, the gases produced, while consisting predominantly of noncombustible hydrogen chloride, can include varying amounts of combustible gases depending upon the askarel type.
</P>
<P><I>Attachment plug (Plug cap)(Cap).</I> A device that, by insertion in a receptacle, establishes a connection between the conductors of the attached flexible cord and the conductors connected permanently to the receptacle.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic.</I> Self-acting, operating by its own mechanism when actuated by some impersonal influence, as, for example, a change in current strength, pressure, temperature, or mechanical configuration.
</P>
<P><I>Bare conductor.</I> See Conductor.
</P>
<P><I>Barrier.</I> A physical obstruction that is intended to prevent contact with equipment or live parts or to prevent unauthorized access to a work area.
</P>
<P><I>Bathroom.</I> An area including a basin with one or more of the following: a toilet, a tub, or a shower.
</P>
<P><I>Bonding (Bonded).</I> The permanent joining of metallic parts to form an electrically conductive path that ensures electrical continuity and the capacity to conduct safely any current likely to be imposed.
</P>
<P><I>Bonding jumper.</I> A conductor that assures the necessary electrical conductivity between metal parts required to be electrically connected.
</P>
<P><I>Branch circuit.</I> The circuit conductors between the final overcurrent device protecting the circuit and the outlets.
</P>
<P><I>Building.</I> A structure that stands alone or is cut off from adjoining structures by fire walls with all openings therein protected by approved fire doors.
</P>
<P><I>Cabinet.</I> An enclosure designed either for surface or flush mounting, and provided with a frame, mat, or trim in which a swinging door or doors are or can be hung.
</P>
<P><I>Cable tray system.</I> A unit or assembly of units or sections and associated fittings forming a rigid structural system used to securely fasten or support cables and raceways. Cable tray systems include ladders, troughs, channels, solid bottom trays, and other similar structures.
</P>
<P><I>Cablebus.</I> An assembly of insulated conductors with fittings and conductor terminations in a completely enclosed, ventilated, protective metal housing.
</P>
<P><I>Cell line.</I> An assembly of electrically interconnected electrolytic cells supplied by a source of direct current power.
</P>
<P><I>Cell line attachments and auxiliary equipment.</I> Cell line attachments and auxiliary equipment include, but are not limited to, auxiliary tanks, process piping, ductwork, structural supports, exposed cell line conductors, conduits and other raceways, pumps, positioning equipment, and cell cutout or bypass electrical devices. Auxiliary equipment also includes tools, welding machines, crucibles, and other portable equipment used for operation and maintenance within the electrolytic cell line working zone. In the cell line working zone, auxiliary equipment includes the exposed conductive surfaces of ungrounded cranes and crane-mounted cell-servicing equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Center pivot irrigation machine.</I> A multi-motored irrigation machine that revolves around a central pivot and employs alignment switches or similar devices to control individual motors.
</P>
<P><I>Certified.</I> Equipment is “certified” if it bears a label, tag, or other record of certification that the equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been tested and found by a nationally recognized testing laboratory to meet nationally recognized standards or to be safe for use in a specified manner; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is of a kind whose production is periodically inspected by a nationally recognized testing laboratory and is accepted by the laboratory as safe for its intended use.
</P>
<P><I>Circuit breaker.</I> A device designed to open and close a circuit by nonautomatic means and to open the circuit automatically on a predetermined overcurrent without damage to itself when properly applied within its rating.
</P>
<P><I>Class I locations.</I> Class I locations are those in which flammable gases or vapors are or may be present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures. Class I locations include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Class I, Division 1.</I> A Class I, Division 1 location is a location:
</P>
<P>(i) In which ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors may exist under normal operating conditions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In which ignitable concentrations of such gases or vapors may exist frequently because of repair or maintenance operations or because of leakage; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In which breakdown or faulty operation of equipment or processes might release ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors, and might also cause simultaneous failure of electric equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Class I, Division 1:”</HED>
<P>This classification usually includes locations where volatile flammable liquids or liquefied flammable gases are transferred from one container to another; interiors of spray booths and areas in the vicinity of spraying and painting operations where volatile flammable solvents are used; locations containing open tanks or vats of volatile flammable liquids; drying rooms or compartments for the evaporation of flammable solvents; locations containing fat and oil extraction equipment using volatile flammable solvents; portions of cleaning and dyeing plants where flammable liquids are used; gas generator rooms and other portions of gas manufacturing plants where flammable gas may escape; inadequately ventilated pump rooms for flammable gas or for volatile flammable liquids; the interiors of refrigerators and freezers in which volatile flammable materials are stored in open, lightly stoppered, or easily ruptured containers; and all other locations where ignitable concentrations of flammable vapors or gases are likely to occur in the course of normal operations.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Class I, Division 2.</I> A Class I, Division 2 location is a location:
</P>
<P>(i) In which volatile flammable liquids or flammable gases are handled, processed, or used, but in which the hazardous liquids, vapors, or gases will normally be confined within closed containers or closed systems from which they can escape only in the event of accidental rupture or breakdown of such containers or systems, or as a result of abnormal operation of equipment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In which ignitable concentrations of gases or vapors are normally prevented by positive mechanical ventilation, and which might become hazardous through failure or abnormal operations of the ventilating equipment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That is adjacent to a Class I, Division 1 location, and to which ignitable concentrations of gases or vapors might occasionally be communicated unless such communication is prevented by adequate positive-pressure ventilation from a source of clean air, and effective safeguards against ventilation failure are provided.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Class I, Division 2:”</HED>
<P>This classification usually includes locations where volatile flammable liquids or flammable gases or vapors are used, but which would become hazardous only in case of an accident or of some unusual operating condition. The quantity of flammable material that might escape in case of accident, the adequacy of ventilating equipment, the total area involved, and the record of the industry or business with respect to explosions or fires are all factors that merit consideration in determining the classification and extent of each location.
</P>
<P>Piping without valves, checks, meters, and similar devices would not ordinarily introduce a hazardous condition even though used for flammable liquids or gases. Locations used for the storage of flammable liquids or liquefied or compressed gases in sealed containers would not normally be considered hazardous unless also subject to other hazardous conditions.
</P>
<P>Electrical conduits and their associated enclosures separated from process fluids by a single seal or barrier are classed as a Division 2 location if the outside of the conduit and enclosures is a nonhazardous location.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Class I, Zone 0.</I> A Class I, Zone 0 location is a location in which one of the following conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(i) Ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors are present continuously; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors are present for long periods of time.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Class I, Zone 0:”</HED>
<P>As a guide in determining when flammable gases or vapors are present continuously or for long periods of time, refer to <I>Recommended Practice for Classification of Locations for Electrical Installations of Petroleum Facilities Classified as Class I, Zone 0, Zone 1 or Zone 2,</I> API RP 505-1997; <I>Electrical Apparatus for Explosive Gas Atmospheres, Classifications of Hazardous Areas,</I> IEC 79-10-1995; <I>Area Classification Code for Petroleum Installations, Model Code—Part 15,</I> Institute for Petroleum; and <I>Electrical Apparatus for Explosive Gas Atmospheres, Classifications of Hazardous (Classified) Locations,</I> ISA S12.24.01-1997.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Class I, Zone 1.</I> A Class I, Zone 1 location is a location in which one of the following conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(i) Ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors are likely to exist under normal operating conditions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors may exist frequently because of repair or maintenance operations or because of leakage; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment is operated or processes are carried on of such a nature that equipment breakdown or faulty operations could result in the release of ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors and also cause simultaneous failure of electric equipment in a manner that would cause the electric equipment to become a source of ignition; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A location that is adjacent to a Class I, Zone 0 location from which ignitable concentrations of vapors could be communicated, unless communication is prevented by adequate positive pressure ventilation from a source of clean air and effective safeguards against ventilation failure are provided.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Class I, Zone 2.</I> A Class I, Zone 2 location is a location in which one of the following conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(i) Ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors are not likely to occur in normal operation and if they do occur will exist only for a short period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Volatile flammable liquids, flammable gases, or flammable vapors are handled, processed, or used, but in which the liquids, gases, or vapors are normally confined within closed containers or closed systems from which they can escape only as a result of accidental rupture or breakdown of the containers or system or as the result of the abnormal operation of the equipment with which the liquids or gases are handled, processed, or used; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors normally are prevented by positive mechanical ventilation, but which may become hazardous as the result of failure or abnormal operation of the ventilation equipment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A location that is adjacent to a Class I, Zone 1 location, from which ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors could be communicated, unless such communication is prevented by adequate positive-pressure ventilation from a source of clean air, and effective safeguards against ventilation failure are provided.
</P>
<P><I>Class II locations.</I> Class II locations are those that are hazardous because of the presence of combustible dust. Class II locations include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Class II, Division 1.</I> A Class II, Division 1 location is a location:
</P>
<P>(i) In which combustible dust is or may be in suspension in the air under normal operating conditions, in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where mechanical failure or abnormal operation of machinery or equipment might cause such explosive or ignitable mixtures to be produced, and might also provide a source of ignition through simultaneous failure of electric equipment, through operation of protection devices, or from other causes; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In which combustible dusts of an electrically conductive nature may be present.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Class II, Division 1:”</HED>
<P>This classification may include areas of grain handling and processing plants, starch plants, sugar-pulverizing plants, malting plants, hay-grinding plants, coal pulverizing plants, areas where metal dusts and powders are produced or processed, and other similar locations that contain dust producing machinery and equipment (except where the equipment is dust-tight or vented to the outside). These areas would have combustible dust in the air, under normal operating conditions, in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures. Combustible dusts that are electrically nonconductive include dusts produced in the handling and processing of grain and grain products, pulverized sugar and cocoa, dried egg and milk powders, pulverized spices, starch and pastes, potato and wood flour, oil meal from beans and seed, dried hay, and other organic materials which may produce combustible dusts when processed or handled. Dusts containing magnesium or aluminum are particularly hazardous, and the use of extreme caution is necessary to avoid ignition and explosion.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Class II, Division 2.</I> A Class II, Division 2 location is a location where:
</P>
<P>(i) Combustible dust will not normally be in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, and dust accumulations will normally be insufficient to interfere with the normal operation of electric equipment or other apparatus, but combustible dust may be in suspension in the air as a result of infrequent malfunctioning of handling or processing equipment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Resulting combustible dust accumulations on, in, or in the vicinity of the electric equipment may be sufficient to interfere with the safe dissipation of heat from electric equipment or may be ignitable by abnormal operation or failure of electric equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Class II, Division 2:”</HED>
<P>This classification includes locations where dangerous concentrations of suspended dust would not be likely, but where dust accumulations might form on or in the vicinity of electric equipment. These areas may contain equipment from which appreciable quantities of dust would escape under abnormal operating conditions or be adjacent to a Class II Division 1 location, as described above, into which an explosive or ignitable concentration of dust may be put into suspension under abnormal operating conditions.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Class III locations.</I> Class III locations are those that are hazardous because of the presence of easily ignitable fibers or flyings, but in which such fibers or flyings are not likely to be in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce ignitable mixtures. Class III locations include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Class III, Division 1.</I> A Class III, Division 1 location is a location in which easily ignitable fibers or materials producing combustible flyings are handled, manufactured, or used.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Class III, Division 1:”</HED>
<P>Such locations usually include some parts of rayon, cotton, and other textile mills; combustible fiber manufacturing and processing plants; cotton gins and cotton-seed mills; flax-processing plants; clothing manufacturing plants; woodworking plants, and establishments; and industries involving similar hazardous processes or conditions.
</P>
<P>Easily ignitable fibers and flyings include rayon, cotton (including cotton linters and cotton waste), sisal or henequen, istle, jute, hemp, tow, cocoa fiber, oakum, baled waste kapok, Spanish moss, excelsior, and other materials of similar nature.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Class III, Division 2.</I> A Class III, Division 2 location is a location in which easily ignitable fibers are stored or handled, other than in the process of manufacture.
</P>
<P><I>Collector ring.</I> An assembly of slip rings for transferring electric energy from a stationary to a rotating member.
</P>
<P><I>Competent Person.</I> One who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions that are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
</P>
<P><I>Concealed.</I> Rendered inaccessible by the structure or finish of the building. Wires in concealed raceways are considered concealed, even though they may become accessible by withdrawing them. (See Accessible. (As applied to wiring methods.))
</P>
<P><I>Conductor</I>—(1) <I>Bare.</I> A conductor having no covering or electrical insulation whatsoever.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered.</I> A conductor encased within material of composition or thickness that is not recognized by this subpart as electrical insulation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insulated.</I> A conductor encased within material of composition and thickness that is recognized by this subpart as electrical insulation.
</P>
<P><I>Conduit body.</I> A separate portion of a conduit or tubing system that provides access through one or more removable covers to the interior of the system at a junction of two or more sections of the system or at a terminal point of the system. Boxes such as FS and FD or larger cast or sheet metal boxes are not classified as conduit bodies.
</P>
<P><I>Controller.</I> A device or group of devices that serves to govern, in some predetermined manner, the electric power delivered to the apparatus to which it is connected.
</P>
<P><I>Covered conductor.</I> See Conductor.
</P>
<P><I>Cutout.</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) An assembly of a fuse support with either a fuseholder, fuse carrier, or disconnecting blade. The fuseholder or fuse carrier may include a conducting element (fuse link), or may act as the disconnecting blade by the inclusion of a nonfusible member.
</P>
<P><I>Cutout box.</I> An enclosure designed for surface mounting and having swinging doors or covers secured directly to and telescoping with the walls of the box proper. (See Cabinet.)
</P>
<P><I>Damp location.</I> See Location.
</P>
<P><I>Dead front.</I> Without live parts exposed to a person on the operating side of the equipment
</P>
<P><I>Deenergized.</I> Free from any electrical connection to a source of potential difference and from electrical charge; not having a potential different from that of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Device.</I> A unit of an electrical system that is intended to carry but not utilize electric energy.
</P>
<P><I>Dielectric heating.</I> The heating of a nominally insulating material due to its own dielectric losses when the material is placed in a varying electric field.
</P>
<P><I>Disconnecting means.</I> A device, or group of devices, or other means by which the conductors of a circuit can be disconnected from their source of supply.
</P>
<P><I>Disconnecting (or Isolating) switch. (Over 600 volts, nominal.)</I> A mechanical switching device used for isolating a circuit or equipment from a source of power.
</P>
<P><I>Electrolytic cell line working zone.</I> The cell line working zone is the space envelope wherein operation or maintenance is normally performed on or in the vicinity of exposed energized surfaces of electrolytic cell lines or their attachments.
</P>
<P><I>Electrolytic cells.</I> A tank or vat in which electrochemical reactions are caused by applying energy for the purpose of refining or producing usable materials.
</P>
<P><I>Enclosed.</I> Surrounded by a case, housing, fence, or walls that will prevent persons from accidentally contacting energized parts.
</P>
<P><I>Enclosure.</I> The case or housing of apparatus, or the fence or walls surrounding an installation to prevent personnel from accidentally contacting energized parts, or to protect the equipment from physical damage.
</P>
<P><I>Energized.</I> Electrically connected to a source of potential difference.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment.</I> A general term including material, fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures, apparatus, and the like, used as a part of, or in connection with, an electrical installation.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment grounding conductor.</I> See Grounding conductor, equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Explosion-proof apparatus.</I> Apparatus enclosed in a case that is capable of withstanding an explosion of a specified gas or vapor that may occur within it and of preventing the ignition of a specified gas or vapor surrounding the enclosure by sparks, flashes, or explosion of the gas or vapor within, and that operates at such an external temperature that it will not ignite a surrounding flammable atmosphere.
</P>
<P><I>Exposed. (As applied to live parts.)</I> Capable of being inadvertently touched or approached nearer than a safe distance by a person. It is applied to parts not suitably guarded, isolated, or insulated. (See Accessible and Concealed.)
</P>
<P><I>Exposed. (As applied to wiring methods.)</I> On or attached to the surface, or behind panels designed to allow access. (See Accessible. (As applied to wiring methods.))
</P>
<P><I>Exposed. (For the purposes of § 1910.308(e).)</I> Where the circuit is in such a position that in case of failure of supports or insulation, contact with another circuit may result.
</P>
<P><I>Externally operable.</I> Capable of being operated without exposing the operator to contact with live parts.
</P>
<P><I>Feeder.</I> All circuit conductors between the service equipment, the source of a separate derived system, or other power supply source and the final branch-circuit overcurrent device.
</P>
<P><I>Fitting.</I> An accessory such as a locknut, bushing, or other part of a wiring system that is intended primarily to perform a mechanical rather than an electrical function.
</P>
<P><I>Fountain.</I> Fountains, ornamental pools, display pools, and reflection pools.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “fountain:”</HED>
<P>This definition does not include drinking fountains.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Fuse. (Over 600 volts, nominal.)</I> An overcurrent protective device with a circuit opening fusible part that is heated and severed by the passage of overcurrent through it. A fuse comprises all the parts that form a unit capable of performing the prescribed functions. It may or may not be the complete device necessary to connect it into an electrical circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Ground.</I> A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, between an electric circuit or equipment and the earth, or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded.</I> Connected to the earth or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded, effectively.</I> Intentionally connected to earth through a ground connection or connections of sufficiently low impedance and having sufficient current-carrying capacity to prevent the buildup of voltages that may result in undue hazards to connected equipment or to persons.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded conductor.</I> A system or circuit conductor that is intentionally grounded.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding conductor.</I> A conductor used to connect equipment or the grounded circuit of a wiring system to a grounding electrode or electrodes.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding conductor, equipment.</I> The conductor used to connect the noncurrent-carrying metal parts of equipment, raceways, and other enclosures to the system grounded conductor, the grounding electrode conductor, or both, at the service equipment or at the source of a separately derived system.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding electrode conductor.</I> The conductor used to connect the grounding electrode to the equipment grounding conductor, to the grounded conductor, or to both, of the circuits at the service equipment or at the source of a separately derived system.
</P>
<P><I>Ground-fault circuit-interrupter.</I> A device intended for the protection of personnel that functions to deenergize a circuit or a portion of a circuit within an established period of time when a current to ground exceeds some predetermined value that is less than that required to operate the overcurrent protective device of the supply circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Guarded.</I> Covered, shielded, fenced, enclosed, or otherwise protected by means of suitable covers, casings, barriers, rails, screens, mats, or platforms to remove the likelihood of approach to a point of danger or contact by persons or objects.
</P>
<P><I>Health care facilities.</I> Buildings or portions of buildings in which medical, dental, psychiatric, nursing, obstetrical, or surgical care are provided.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “health care facilities:”</HED>
<P>Health care facilities include, but are not limited to, hospitals, nursing homes, limited care facilities, clinics, medical and dental offices, and ambulatory care centers, whether permanent or movable.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Heating equipment.</I> For the purposes of § 1910.306(g), the term “heating equipment” includes any equipment used for heating purposes if heat is generated by induction or dielectric methods.
</P>
<P><I>Hoistway.</I> Any shaftway, hatchway, well hole, or other vertical opening or space that is designed for the operation of an elevator or dumbwaiter.
</P>
<P><I>Identified (as applied to equipment).</I> Approved as suitable for the specific purpose, function, use, environment, or application, where described in a particular requirement.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “identified:”</HED>
<P>Some examples of ways to determine suitability of equipment for a specific purpose, environment, or application include investigations by a nationally recognized testing laboratory (through listing and labeling), inspection agency, or other organization recognized under the definition of “acceptable.”</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Induction heating.</I> The heating of a nominally conductive material due to its own I 
<SU>2</SU>R losses when the material is placed in a varying electromagnetic field.
</P>
<P><I>Insulated.</I> Separated from other conducting surfaces by a dielectric (including air space) offering a high resistance to the passage of current.
</P>
<P><I>Insulated conductor.</I> See Conductor, Insulated.
</P>
<P><I>Interrupter switch. (Over 600 volts, nominal.)</I> A switch capable of making, carrying, and interrupting specified currents.
</P>
<P><I>Irrigation Machine.</I> An electrically driven or controlled machine, with one or more motors, not hand portable, and used primarily to transport and distribute water for agricultural purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated. (As applied to location.)</I> Not readily accessible to persons unless special means for access are used.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated power system.</I> A system comprising an isolating transformer or its equivalent, a line isolation monitor, and its ungrounded circuit conductors.
</P>
<P><I>Labeled.</I> Equipment is “labeled” if there is attached to it a label, symbol, or other identifying mark of a nationally recognized testing laboratory:
</P>
<P>(1) That makes periodic inspections of the production of such equipment, and
</P>
<P>(2) Whose labeling indicates compliance with nationally recognized standards or tests to determine safe use in a specified manner.
</P>
<P><I>Lighting outlet.</I> An outlet intended for the direct connection of a lampholder, a lighting fixture, or a pendant cord terminating in a lampholder.
</P>
<P><I>Listed.</I> Equipment is “listed” if it is of a kind mentioned in a list that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is published by a nationally recognized laboratory that makes periodic inspection of the production of such equipment, and
</P>
<P>(2) States that such equipment meets nationally recognized standards or has been tested and found safe for use in a specified manner.
</P>
<P><I>Live parts.</I> Energized conductive components.
</P>
<P><I>Location</I>—(1) <I>Damp location.</I> Partially protected locations under canopies, marquees, roofed open porches, and like locations, and interior locations subject to moderate degrees of moisture, such as some basements, some barns, and some cold-storage warehouses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dry location.</I> A location not normally subject to dampness or wetness. A location classified as dry may be temporarily subject to dampness or wetness, as in the case of a building under construction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Wet location.</I> Installations underground or in concrete slabs or masonry in direct contact with the earth, and locations subject to saturation with water or other liquids, such as vehicle-washing areas, and locations unprotected and exposed to weather.
</P>
<P><I>Medium voltage cable (Type MV).</I> A single or multiconductor solid dielectric insulated cable rated 2001 volts or higher.
</P>
<P><I>Metal-clad cable (Type MC).</I> A factory assembly of one or more insulated circuit conductors with or without optical fiber members enclosed in an armor of interlocking metal tape, or a smooth or corrugated metallic sheath.
</P>
<P><I>Mineral-insulated metal-sheathed cable (Type MI).</I> Type MI, mineral-insulated metal-sheathed, cable is a factory assembly of one or more conductors insulated with a highly compressed refractory mineral insulation and enclosed in a liquidtight and gastight continuous copper or alloy steel sheath.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile X-ray.</I> X-ray equipment mounted on a permanent base with wheels or casters or both for moving while completely assembled.
</P>
<P><I>Motor control center.</I> An assembly of one or more enclosed sections having a common power bus and principally containing motor control units.
</P>
<P><I>Nonmetallic-sheathed cable (Types NM, NMC, and NMS).</I> A factory assembly of two or more insulated conductors having an outer sheath of moisture resistant, flame-retardant, nonmetallic material.
</P>
<P><I>Oil (filled) cutout. (Over 600 volts, nominal.)</I> A cutout in which all or part of the fuse support and its fuse link or disconnecting blade are mounted in oil with complete immersion of the contacts and the fusible portion of the conducting element (fuse link), so that arc interruption by severing of the fuse link or by opening of the contacts will occur under oil.
</P>
<P><I>Open wiring on insulators.</I> Open wiring on insulators is an exposed wiring method using cleats, knobs, tubes, and flexible tubing for the protection and support of single insulated conductors run in or on buildings, and not concealed by the building structure.
</P>
<P><I>Outlet.</I> A point on the wiring system at which current is taken to supply utilization equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Outline lighting.</I> An arrangement of incandescent lamps or electric discharge lighting to outline or call attention to certain features, such as the shape of a building or the decoration of a window.
</P>
<P><I>Overcurrent.</I> Any current in excess of the rated current of equipment or the ampacity of a conductor. It may result from overload, short circuit, or ground fault.
</P>
<P><I>Overhaul</I> means to perform a major replacement, modification, repair, or rehabilitation similar to that involved when a new building or facility is built, a new wing is added, or an entire floor is renovated.
</P>
<P><I>Overload.</I> Operation of equipment in excess of normal, full-load rating, or of a conductor in excess of rated ampacity that, when it persists for a sufficient length of time, would cause damage or dangerous overheating. A fault, such as a short circuit or ground fault, is not an overload. (See Overcurrent.)
</P>
<P><I>Panelboard.</I> A single panel or group of panel units designed for assembly in the form of a single panel; including buses, automatic overcurrent devices, and with or without switches for the control of light, heat, or power circuits; designed to be placed in a cabinet or cutout box placed in or against a wall or partition and accessible only from the front. (See Switchboard.)
</P>
<P><I>Permanently installed decorative fountains and reflection pools.</I> Pools that are constructed in the ground, on the ground, or in a building in such a manner that the fountain or pool cannot be readily disassembled for storage, whether or not served by electrical circuits of any nature. These units are primarily constructed for their aesthetic value and are not intended for swimming or wading.
</P>
<P><I>Permanently installed swimming, wading, and therapeutic pools.</I> Pools that are constructed in the ground or partially in the ground, and all other capable of holding water in a depth greater than 1.07 m (42 in.). The definition also applies to all pools installed inside of a building, regardless of water depth, whether or not served by electric circuits of any nature.
</P>
<P><I>Portable X-ray.</I> X-ray equipment designed to be hand-carried.
</P>
<P><I>Power and control tray cable (Type TC).</I> A factory assembly of two or more insulated conductors, with or without associated bare or covered grounding conductors under a nonmetallic sheath, approved for installation in cable trays, in raceways, or where supported by a messenger wire.
</P>
<P><I>Power fuse.</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) See Fuse.
</P>
<P><I>Power-limited tray cable (Type PLTC).</I> A factory assembly of two or more insulated conductors under a nonmetallic jacket.
</P>
<P><I>Power outlet.</I> An enclosed assembly, which may include receptacles, circuit breakers, fuseholders, fused switches, buses, and watt-hour meter mounting means, that is intended to supply and control power to mobile homes, recreational vehicles, or boats or to serve as a means for distributing power needed to operate mobile or temporarily installed equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Premises wiring. (Premises wiring system.)</I> The interior and exterior wiring, including power, lighting, control, and signal circuit wiring together with all of their associated hardware, fittings, and wiring devices, both permanently and temporarily installed, that extends from the service point of utility conductors or source of power (such as a battery, a solar photovoltaic system, or a generator, transformer, or converter) to the outlets. Such wiring does not include wiring internal to appliances, fixtures, motors, controllers, motor control centers, and similar equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person.</I> One who has received training in and has demonstrated skills and knowledge in the construction and operation of electric equipment and installations and the hazards involved.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to the definition of “qualified person:”</HED>
<P>Whether an employee is considered to be a “qualified person” will depend upon various circumstances in the workplace. For example, it is possible and, in fact, likely for an individual to be considered “qualified” with regard to certain equipment in the workplace, but “unqualified” as to other equipment. (See 1910.332(b)(3) for training requirements that specifically apply to qualified persons.)</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to the definition of “qualified person:”</HED>
<P>An employee who is undergoing on-the-job training and who, in the course of such training, has demonstrated an ability to perform duties safely at his or her level of training and who is under the direct supervision of a qualified person is considered to be a qualified person for the performance of those duties.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Raceway.</I> An enclosed channel of metal or nonmetallic materials designed expressly for holding wires, cables, or busbars, with additional functions as permitted in this standard. Raceways include, but are not limited to, rigid metal conduit, rigid nonmetallic conduit, intermediate metal conduit, liquidtight flexible conduit, flexible metallic tubing, flexible metal conduit, electrical metallic tubing, electrical nonmetallic tubing, underfloor raceways, cellular concrete floor raceways, cellular metal floor raceways, surface raceways, wireways, and busways.
</P>
<P><I>Readily accessible.</I> Capable of being reached quickly for operation, renewal, or inspections, so that those needing ready access do not have to climb over or remove obstacles or to resort to portable ladders, chairs, etc. (See Accessible.)
</P>
<P><I>Receptacle.</I> A receptacle is a contact device installed at the outlet for the connection of an attachment plug. A single receptacle is a single contact device with no other contact device on the same yoke. A multiple receptacle is two or more contact devices on the same yoke.
</P>
<P><I>Receptacle outlet.</I> An outlet where one or more receptacles are installed.
</P>
<P><I>Remote-control circuit.</I> Any electric circuit that controls any other circuit through a relay or an equivalent device.
</P>
<P><I>Sealable equipment.</I> Equipment enclosed in a case or cabinet that is provided with a means of sealing or locking so that live parts cannot be made accessible without opening the enclosure. The equipment may or may not be operable without opening the enclosure.
</P>
<P><I>Separately derived system.</I> A premises wiring system whose power is derived from a battery, a solar photovoltaic system, or from a generator, transformer, or converter windings, and that has no direct electrical connection, including a solidly connected grounded circuit conductor, to supply conductors originating in another system.
</P>
<P><I>Service.</I> The conductors and equipment for delivering electric energy from the serving utility to the wiring system of the premises served.
</P>
<P><I>Service cable.</I> Service conductors made up in the form of a cable.
</P>
<P><I>Service conductors.</I> The conductors from the service point to the service disconnecting means.
</P>
<P><I>Service drop.</I> The overhead service conductors from the last pole or other aerial support to and including the splices, if any, connecting to the service-entrance conductors at the building or other structure.
</P>
<P><I>Service-entrance cable.</I> A single conductor or multiconductor assembly provided with or without an overall covering, primarily used for services, and is of the following types:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Type SE.</I> Type SE, having a flame-retardant, moisture resistant covering; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Type USE.</I> Type USE, identified for underground use, having a moisture-resistant covering, but not required to have a flame-retardant covering. Cabled, single-conductor, Type USE constructions recognized for underground use may have a bare copper conductor cabled with the assembly. Type USE single, parallel, or cable conductor assemblies recognized for underground use may have a bare copper concentric conductor applied. These constructions do not require an outer overall covering.
</P>
<P><I>Service-entrance conductors, overhead system.</I> The service conductors between the terminals of the service equipment and a point usually outside the building, clear of building walls, where joined by tap or splice to the service drop.
</P>
<P><I>Service entrance conductors, underground system.</I> The service conductors between the terminals of the service equipment and the point of connection to the service lateral.
</P>
<P><I>Service equipment.</I> The necessary equipment, usually consisting of one or more circuit breakers or switches and fuses, and their accessories, connected to the load end of service conductors to a building or other structure, or an otherwise designated area, and intended to constitute the main control and cutoff of the supply.
</P>
<P><I>Service point.</I> The point of connection between the facilities of the serving utility and the premises wiring.
</P>
<P><I>Shielded nonmetallic-sheathed cable (Type SNM).</I> A factory assembly of two or more insulated conductors in an extruded core of moisture-resistant, flame-resistant nonmetallic material, covered with an overlapping spiral metal tape and wire shield and jacketed with an extruded moisture-, flame-, oil-, corrosion-, fungus-, and sunlight-resistant nonmetallic material.
</P>
<P><I>Show window.</I> Any window used or designed to be used for the display of goods or advertising material, whether it is fully or partly enclosed or entirely open at the rear and whether or not it has a platform raised higher than the street floor level.
</P>
<P><I>Signaling circuit.</I> Any electric circuit that energizes signaling equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Storable swimming or wading pool.</I> A pool that is constructed on or above the ground and is capable of holding water to a maximum depth of 1.07 m (42 in.), or a pool with nonmetallic, molded polymeric walls or inflatable fabric walls regardless of dimension.
</P>
<P><I>Switchboard.</I> A large single panel, frame, or assembly of panels on which are mounted, on the face or back, or both, switches, overcurrent and other protective devices, buses, and (usually) instruments. Switchboards are generally accessible from the rear as well as from the front and are not intended to be installed in cabinets. (See Panelboard.)
</P>
<P><I>Switch</I>—(1) <I>General-use switch.</I> A switch intended for use in general distribution and branch circuits. It is rated in amperes, and it is capable of interrupting its rated current at its rated voltage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General-use snap switch.</I> A form of general-use switch constructed so that it can be installed in device boxes or on box covers, or otherwise used in conjunction with wiring systems recognized by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Isolating switch.</I> A switch intended for isolating an electric circuit from the source of power. It has no interrupting rating, and it is intended to be operated only after the circuit has been opened by some other means.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Motor-circuit switch.</I> A switch, rated in horsepower, capable of interrupting the maximum operating overload current of a motor of the same horsepower rating as the switch at the rated voltage.
</P>
<P><I>Switching devices. (Over 600 volts, nominal.)</I> Devices designed to close and open one or more electric circuits. Included in this category are circuit breakers, cutouts, disconnecting (or isolating) switches, disconnecting means, interrupter switches, and oil (filled) cutouts.
</P>
<P><I>Transportable X-ray.</I> X-ray equipment installed in a vehicle or that may readily be disassembled for transport in a vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Utilization equipment.</I> Equipment that utilizes electric energy for electronic, electromechanical, chemical, heating, lighting, or similar purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Ventilated.</I> Provided with a means to permit circulation of air sufficient to remove an excess of heat, fumes, or vapors.
</P>
<P><I>Volatile flammable liquid.</I> A flammable liquid having a flash point below 38 °C (100 °F), or a flammable liquid whose temperature is above its flash point, or a Class II combustible liquid having a vapor pressure not exceeding 276 kPa (40 psia) at 38 °C (100 °F) and whose temperature is above its flash point.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage (of a circuit).</I> The greatest root-mean-square (rms) (effective) difference of potential between any two conductors of the circuit concerned.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage, nominal.</I> A nominal value assigned to a circuit or system for the purpose of conveniently designating its voltage class (as 120/240 volts, 480Y/277 volts, 600 volts). The actual voltage at which a circuit operates can vary from the nominal within a range that permits satisfactory operation of equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage to ground.</I> For grounded circuits, the voltage between the given conductor and that point or conductor of the circuit that is grounded; for ungrounded circuits, the greatest voltage between the given conductor and any other conductor of the circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Watertight.</I> So constructed that moisture will not enter the enclosure.
</P>
<P><I>Weatherproof.</I> So constructed or protected that exposure to the weather will not interfere with successful operation. Rainproof, raintight, or watertight equipment can fulfill the requirements for weatherproof where varying weather conditions other than wetness, such as snow, ice, dust, or temperature extremes, are not a factor.
</P>
<P><I>Wireways.</I> Sheet-metal troughs with hinged or removable covers for housing and protecting electric wires and cable and in which conductors are laid in place after the wireway has been installed as a complete system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 7215, Feb. 14, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 20692, Apr. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.19.43.19.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart S of Part 1910— References for Further Information 
</HEAD>
<P>The references contained in this appendix provide nonmandatory information that can be helpful in understanding and complying with subpart S of this Part. However, compliance with these standards is not a substitute for compliance with subpart S of this Part.
</P>
<P>ANSI/API RP 500-1998 (2002) <I>Recommended Practice for Classification of Locations for Electrical Installations at Petroleum Facilities Classified as Class I Division 1 and Division 2.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/API RP 505-1997 (2002) <I>Recommended Practice for Classification of Locations for Electrical Installations at Petroleum Facilities Classified as Class I, Zone 0, Zone 1 and Zone 2.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME A17.1-2004 <I>Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.2-2005 <I>Overhead and Gantry Cranes (Top Running Bridge, Single or Multiple Girder, Top Running Trolley Hoist).</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.3-2004 <I>Construction Tower Cranes.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.4-2003 <I>Portal, Tower, and Pedestal Cranes.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.5-2004 <I>Mobile And Locomotive Cranes.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.6-2003 <I>Derricks.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.7-2001 <I>Base Mounted Drum Hoists.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.8-2004 <I>Floating Cranes And Floating Derricks.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.11-2004 <I>Monorails And Underhung Cranes.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.12-2001 <I>Handling Loads Suspended from Rotorcraft.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.13-2003 <I>Storage/Retrieval (S/R) Machines and Associated Equipment.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.16-2003 <I>Overhead Hoists (Underhung).</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASME B30.22-2005 <I>Articulating Boom Cranes.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASSE Z244.1-2003 <I>Control of Hazardous Energy Lockout/Tagout and Alternative Methods.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001 <I>Criteria for Accepted Practices in Safety, Health, and Environmental Training.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/IEEE C2-2002 <I>National Electrical Safety Code.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI K61.1-1999 <I>Safety Requirements for the Storage and Handling of Anhydrous Ammonia.</I>
</P>
<P>ANSI/UL 913-2003 <I>Intrinsically Safe Apparatus and Associated Apparatus for Use in Class I, II, and III, Division 1, Hazardous (Classified) Locations.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D3176-1989 (2002) <I>Standard Practice for Ultimate Analysis of Coal and Coke.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D3180-1989 (2002) <I>Standard Practice for Calculating Coal and Coke Analyses from As-Determined to Different Bases.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 20-2003 <I>Standard for the Installation of Stationary Pumps for Fire Protection.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 30-2003 <I>Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 32-2004 <I>Standard for Drycleaning Plants.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 33-2003 <I>Standard for Spray Application Using Flammable or Combustible Materials.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 34-2003 <I>Standard for Dipping and Coating Processes Using Flammable or Combustible Liquids.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 35-2005 <I>Standard for the Manufacture of Organic Coatings.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 36-2004 <I>Standard for Solvent Extraction Plants.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 40-2001 <I>Standard for the Storage and Handling of Cellulose Nitrate Film.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 58-2004 <I>Liquefied Petroleum Gas Code.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 59-2004 <I>Utility LP-Gas Plant Code.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 70-2002 <I>National Electrical Code. (See also NFPA 70-2005.)</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 70E-2000 <I>Standard for Electrical Safety Requirements for Employee Workplaces. (See also NFPA 70E-2004.)</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 77-2000 <I>Recommended Practice on Static Electricity.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 80-1999 <I>Standard for Fire Doors and Fire Windows.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 88A-2002 <I>Standard for Parking Structures.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 91-2004 <I>Standard for Exhaust Systems for Air Conveying of Vapors, Gases, Mists, and Noncombustible Particulate Solids.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 101-2006 <I>Life Safety Code.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 496-2003 <I>Standard for Purged and Pressurized Enclosures for Electrical Equipment.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 497-2004 <I>Recommended Practice for the Classification of Flammable Liquids, Gases, or Vapors and of Hazardous (Classified) Locations for Electrical Installations in Chemical Process Areas.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 505-2006 <I>Fire Safety Standard for Powered Industrial Trucks Including Type Designations, Areas of Use, Conversions, Maintenance, and Operation.</I>
</P>
<P>NFPA 820-2003 <I>Standard for Fire Protection in Wastewater Treatment and Collection Facilities.</I>
</P>
<P>NMAB 353-1-1979 <I>Matrix of Combustion-Relevant Properties and Classification of Gases, Vapors, and Selected Solids.</I>
</P>
<P>NMAB 353-2-1979 <I>Test Equipment for Use in Determining Classifications of Combustible Dusts.</I>
</P>
<P>NMAB 353-3-1980 <I>Classification of Combustible Dust in Accordance with the National Electrical Code.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 7221, Feb. 14, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="T" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart T—Commercial Diving Operations</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; 40 U.S.C. 333; 33 U.S.C. 941; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), or 4-2010 (75 FR 55355) as applicable, and 29 CFR 1911. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 37668, July 22, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="43" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.43" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.401" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.43.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.401   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart (standard) applies to every place of employment within the waters of the United States, or within any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, Wake Island, Johnston Island, the Canal Zone, or within the Outer Continental Shelf lands as defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (67 Stat. 462, 43 U.S.C. 1331), where diving and related support operations are performed.
</P>
<P>(2) This standard applies to diving and related support operations conducted in connection with all types of work and employments, including general industry, construction, ship repairing, shipbuilding, shipbreaking and longshoring. However, this standard does not apply to any diving operation:
</P>
<P>(i) Performed solely for instructional purposes, using open-circuit, compressed-air SCUBA and conducted within the no-decompression limits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performed solely for search, rescue, or related public safety purposes by or under the control of a governmental agency; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Governed by 45 CFR part 46 (Protection of Human Subjects, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services) or equivalent rules or regulations established by another federal agency, which regulate research, development, or related purposes involving human subjects.
</P>
<P>(iv) Defined as scientific diving and which is under the direction and control of a diving program containing at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) Diving safety manual which includes at a minimum: Procedures covering all diving operations specific to the program; procedures for emergency care, including recompression and evacuation; and criteria for diver training and certification.
</P>
<P>(B) Diving control (safety) board, with the majority of its members being active divers, which shall at a minimum have the authority to: Approve and monitor diving projects; review and revise the diving safety manual; assure compliance with the manual; certify the depths to which a diver has been trained; take disciplinary action for unsafe practices; and, assure adherence to the buddy system (a diver is accompanied by and is in continuous contact with another diver in the water) for SCUBA diving.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative requirements for recreational diving instructors and diving guides.</I> Employers of recreational diving instructors and diving guides are not required to comply with the decompression-chamber requirements specified by paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(3)(iii) of § 1910.423 and paragraph (b)(1) of § 1910.426 when they meet all of the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) The instructor or guide is engaging solely in recreational diving instruction or dive-guiding operations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The instructor or guide is diving within the no-decompression limits in these operations; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The instructor or guide is using a nitrox breathing-gas mixture consisting of a high percentage of oxygen (more than 22% by volume) mixed with nitrogen; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The instructor or guide is using an open-circuit, semi-closed-circuit, or closed-circuit self-contained underwater breathing apparatus (SCUBA); and 
</P>
<P>(v) The employer of the instructor or guide is complying with all requirements of appendix C of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application in emergencies.</I> An employer may deviate from the requirements of this standard to the extent necessary to prevent or minimize a situation which is likely to cause death, serious physical harm, or major environmental damage, provided that the employer:
</P>
<P>(1) Notifies the Area Director, Occupational Safety and Health Administration within 48 hours of the onset of the emergency situation indicating the nature of the emergency and extent of the deviation from the prescribed regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request from the Area Director, submits such information in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer obligation.</I> The employer shall be responsible for compliance with:
</P>
<P>(1) All provisions of this standard of general applicability; and
</P>
<P>(2) All requirements pertaining to specific diving modes to the extent diving operations in such modes are conducted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37668, July 22, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 53365, Nov. 26, 1982; 58 FR 35310, June 30, 1993; 69 FR 7363, Feb. 17, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.402" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.43.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.402   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this standard, the listed terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Acfm:</I> Actual cubic feet per minute.
</P>
<P><I>ASME Code or equivalent:</I> ASME (American Society of Mechanical Engineers) Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, or an equivalent code which the employer can demonstrate to be equally effective.
</P>
<P><I>ATA:</I> Atmosphere absolute.
</P>
<P><I>Bell:</I> An enclosed compartment, pressurized (closed bell) or unpressurized (open bell), which allows the diver to be transported to and from the underwater work area and which may be used as a temporary refuge during diving operations.
</P>
<P><I>Bottom time:</I> The total elasped time measured in minutes from the time when the diver leaves the surface in descent to the time that the diver begins ascent.
</P>
<P><I>Bursting pressure:</I> The pressure at which a pressure containment device would fail structurally.
</P>
<P><I>Cylinder:</I> A pressure vessel for the storage of gases.
</P>
<P><I>Decompression chamber:</I> A pressure vessel for human occupancy such as a surface decompression chamber, closed bell, or deep diving system used to decompress divers and to treat decompression sickness.
</P>
<P><I>Decompression sickness:</I> A condition with a variety of symptoms which may result from gas or bubbles in the tissues of divers after pressure reduction.
</P>
<P><I>Decompression table:</I> A profile or set of profiles of depth-time relationships for ascent rates and breathing mixtures to be followed after a specific depth-time exposure or exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Dive-guiding operations</I> means leading groups of sports divers, who use an open-circuit, semi-closed-circuit, or closed-circuit self-contained underwater breathing apparatus, to local undersea diving locations for recreational purposes. 
</P>
<P><I>Dive location:</I> A surface or vessel from which a diving operation is conducted.
</P>
<P><I>Dive-location reserve breathing gas:</I> A supply system of air or mixed-gas (as appropriate) at the dive location which is independent of the primary supply system and sufficient to support divers during the planned decompression.
</P>
<P><I>Dive team:</I> Divers and support employees involved in a diving operation, including the designated person-in-charge.
</P>
<P><I>Diver:</I> An employee working in water using underwater apparatus which supplies compressed breathing gas at the ambient pressure.
</P>
<P><I>Diver-carried reserve breathing gas:</I> A diver-carried supply of air or mixed gas (as appropriate) sufficient under standard operating conditions to allow the diver to reach the surface, or another source of breathing gas, or to be reached by a standby diver.
</P>
<P><I>Diving mode:</I> A type of diving requiring specific equipment, procedures and techniques (SCUBA, surface-supplied air, or mixed gas).
</P>
<P><I>Fsw:</I> Feet of seawater (or equivalent static pressure head).
</P>
<P><I>Heavy gear:</I> Diver-worn deep-sea dress including helmet, breastplate, dry suit, and weighted shoes.
</P>
<P><I>Hyperbaric conditions:</I> Pressure conditions in excess of surface pressure.
</P>
<P><I>Inwater stage:</I> A suspended underwater platform which supports a diver in the water.
</P>
<P><I>Liveboating:</I> The practice of supporting a surfaced-supplied air or mixed gas diver from a vessel which is underway.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-gas diving:</I> A diving mode in which the diver is supplied in the water with a breathing gas other than air.
</P>
<P><I>No-decompression limits:</I> The depth-time limits of the “no-decompression limits and repetitive dive group designation table for no-decompression air dives”, U.S. Navy Diving Manual or equivalent limits which the employer can demonstrate to be equally effective.
</P>
<P><I>Psi(g):</I> Pounds per square inch (gauge).
</P>
<P><I>Recreational diving instruction</I> means training diving students in the use of recreational diving procedures and the safe operation of diving equipment, including an open-circuit, semi-closed-circuit, or closed-circuit self-contained underwater breathing apparatus, during dives. 
</P>
<P><I>Scientific diving</I> means diving performed solely as a necessary part of a scientific, research, or educational activity by employees whose sole purpose for diving is to perform scientific research tasks. Scientific diving does not include performing any tasks usually associated with commercial diving such as: Placing or removing heavy objects underwater; inspection of pipelines and similar objects; construction; demolition; cutting or welding; or the use of explosives.
</P>
<P><I>SCUBA diving:</I> A diving mode independent of surface supply in which the diver uses open circuit self-contained underwater breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P><I>Standby diver:</I> A diver at the dive location available to assist a diver in the water.
</P>
<P><I>Surface-supplied air diving:</I> A diving mode in which the diver in the water is supplied from the dive location with compressed air for breathing.
</P>
<P><I>Treatment table:</I> A depth-time and breathing gas profile designed to treat decompression sickness.
</P>
<P><I>Umbilical:</I> The composite hose bundle between a dive location and a diver or bell, or between a diver and a bell, which supplies the diver or bell with breathing gas, communications, power, or heat as appropriate to the diving mode or conditions, and includes a safety line between the diver and the dive location.
</P>
<P><I>Volume tank:</I> A pressure vessel connected to the outlet of a compressor and used as an air reservoir.
</P>
<P><I>Working pressure:</I> The maximum pressure to which a pressure containment device may be exposed under standard operating conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37668, July 22, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 53365, Nov. 26, 1982; 69 FR 7363, Feb. 17, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="44" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.44" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Personnel Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.410" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.44.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.410   Qualifications of dive team.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Each dive team member shall have the experience or training necessary to perform assigned tasks in a safe and healthful manner.
</P>
<P>(2) Each dive team member shall have experience or training in the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of tools, equipment and systems relevant to assigned tasks;
</P>
<P>(ii) Techniques of the assigned diving mode: and
</P>
<P>(iii) Diving operations and emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) All dive team members shall be trained in cardiopulmonary resuscitation and first aid (American Red Cross standard course or equivalent).
</P>
<P>(4) Dive team members who are exposed to or control the exposure of others to hyperbaric conditions shall be trained in diving-related physics and physiology.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assignments.</I> (1) Each dive team member shall be assigned tasks in accordance with the employee's experience or training, except that limited additional tasks may be assigned to an employee undergoing training provided that these tasks are performed under the direct supervision of an experienced dive team member.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall not require a dive team member to be exposed to hyperbaric conditions against the employee's will, except when necessary to complete decompression or treatment procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall not permit a dive team member to dive or be otherwise exposed to hyperbaric conditions for the duration of any temporary physical impairment or condition which is known to the employer and is likely to affect adversely the safety or health of a dive team member.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designated person-in-charge.</I> (1) The employer or an employee designated by the employer shall be at the dive location in charge of all aspects of the diving operation affecting the safety and health of dive team members.
</P>
<P>(2) The designated person-in-charge shall have experience and training in the conduct of the assigned diving operation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="45" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.45" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Operations Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.420" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.420   Safe practices manual.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The employer shall develop and maintain a safe practices manual which shall be made available at the dive location to each dive team member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> (1) The safe practices manual shall contain a copy of this standard and the employer's policies for implementing the requirements of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) For each diving mode engaged in, the safe practices manual shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety procedures and checklists for diving operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assignments and responsibilities of the dive team members;
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment procedures and checklists; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergency procedures for fire, equipment failure, adverse environmental conditions, and medical illness and injury.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37668, July 22, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.421" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.421   Pre-dive procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The employer shall comply with the following requirements prior to each diving operation, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency aid.</I> A list shall be kept at the dive location of the telephone or call numbers of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An operational decompression chamber (if not at the dive location);
</P>
<P>(2) Accessible hospitals;
</P>
<P>(3) Available physicians;
</P>
<P>(4) Available means of transportation; and
</P>
<P>(5) The nearest U.S. Coast Guard Rescue Coordination Center.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>First aid supplies.</I> (1) A first aid kit appropriate for the diving operation and approved by a physician shall be available at the dive location.
</P>
<P>(2) When used in a decompression chamber or bell, the first aid kit shall be suitable for use under hyperbaric conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to any other first aid supplies, an American Red Cross standard first aid handbook or equivalent, and a bag-type manual resuscitator with transparent mask and tubing shall be available at the dive location.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Planning and assessment.</I> Planning of a diving operation shall include an assessment of the safety and health aspects of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Diving mode;
</P>
<P>(2) Surface and underwater conditions and hazards;
</P>
<P>(3) Breathing gas supply (including reserves);
</P>
<P>(4) Thermal protection;
</P>
<P>(5) Diving equipment and systems;
</P>
<P>(6) Dive team assignments and physical fitness of dive team members (including any impairment known to the employer);
</P>
<P>(7) Repetitive dive designation or residual inert gas status of dive team members;
</P>
<P>(8) Decompression and treatment procedures (including altitude corrections); and
</P>
<P>(9) Emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hazardous activities.</I> To minimize hazards to the dive team, diving operations shall be coordinated with other activities in the vicinity which are likely to interfere with the diving operation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employee briefing.</I> (1) Dive team members shall be briefed on:
</P>
<P>(i) The tasks to be undertaken;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety procedures for the diving mode;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any unusual hazards or environmental conditions likely to affect the safety of the diving operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any modifications to operating procedures necessitated by the specific diving operation.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to making individual dive team member assignments, the employer shall inquire into the dive team member's current state of physical fitness, and indicate to the dive team member the procedure for reporting physical problems or adverse physiological effects during and after the dive.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Equipment inspection.</I> The breathing gas supply system including reserve breathing gas supplies, masks, helmets, thermal protection, and bell handling mechanism (when appropriate) shall be inspected prior to each dive.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Warning signal.</I> When diving from surfaces other than vessels in areas capable of supporting marine traffic, a rigid replica of the international code flag “A” at least one meter in height shall be displayed at the dive location in a manner which allows all-round visibility, and shall be illuminated during night diving operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37668, July 22, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 14706, Apr. 6, 1982; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.422" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.422   Procedures during dive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The employer shall comply with the following requirements which are applicable to each diving operation unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Water entry and exit.</I> (1) A means capable of supporting the diver shall be provided for entering and exiting the water.
</P>
<P>(2) The means provided for exiting the water shall extend below the water surface.
</P>
<P>(3) A means shall be provided to assist an injured diver from the water or into a bell.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Communications.</I> (1) An operational two-way voice communication system shall be used between:
</P>
<P>(i) Each surface-supplied air or mixed-gas diver and a dive team member at the dive location or bell (when provided or required); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bell and the dive location.
</P>
<P>(2) An operational, two-way communication system shall be available at the dive location to obtain emergency assistance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decompression tables.</I> Decompression, repetitive, and no-decompression tables (as appropriate) shall be at the dive location.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dive profiles.</I> A depth-time profile, including when appropriate any breathing gas changes, shall be maintained for each diver during the dive including decompression.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hand-held power tools and equipment.</I> (1) Hand-held electrical tools and equipment shall be de-energized before being placed into or retrieved from the water.
</P>
<P>(2) Hand-held power tools shall not be supplied with power from the dive location until requested by the diver.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Welding and burning.</I> (1) A current supply switch to interrupt the current flow to the welding or burning electrode shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Tended by a dive team member in voice communication with the diver performing the welding or burning; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Kept in the open position except when the diver is welding or burning.
</P>
<P>(2) The welding machine frame shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(3) Welding and burning cables, electrode holders, and connections shall be capable of carrying the maximum current required by the work, and shall be properly insulated.
</P>
<P>(4) Insulated gloves shall be provided to divers performing welding and burning operations.
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to welding or burning on closed compartments, structures or pipes, which contain a flammable vapor or in which a flammable vapor may be generated by the work, they shall be vented, flooded, or purged with a mixture of gases which will not support combustion.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Explosives.</I> (1) Employers shall transport, store, and use explosives in accordance with this section and the applicable provisions of §§ 1910.109 and 1926.912 of Title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Electrical continuity of explosive circuits shall not be tested until the diver is out of the water.
</P>
<P>(3) Explosives shall not be detonated while the diver is in the water.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Termination of dive.</I> The working interval of a dive shall be terminated when:
</P>
<P>(1) A diver requests termination;
</P>
<P>(2) A diver fails to respond correctly to communications or signals from a dive team member;
</P>
<P>(3) Communications are lost and can not be quickly re-established between the diver and a dive team member at the dive location, and between the designated person-in-charge and the person controlling the vessel in liveboating operations; or
</P>
<P>(4) A diver begins to use diver-carried reserve breathing gas or the dive-location reserve breathing gas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.423" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.423   Post-dive procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The employer shall comply with the following requirements which are applicable after each diving operation, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Precautions.</I> (1) After the completion of any dive, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Check the physical condition of the diver;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instruct the diver to report any physical problems or adverse physiological effects including symptoms of decompression sickness;
</P>
<P>(iii) Advise the diver of the location of a decompression chamber which is ready for use; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Alert the diver to the potential hazards of flying after diving.
</P>
<P>(2) For any dive outside the no-decompression limits, deeper than 100 fsw or using mixed gas as a breathing mixture, the employer shall instruct the diver to remain awake and in the vicinity of the decompression chamber which is at the dive location for at least one hour after the dive (including decompression or treatment as appropriate).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recompression capability.</I> (1) A decompression chamber capable of recompressing the diver at the surface to a minimum of 165 fsw (6 ATA) shall be available at the dive location for:
</P>
<P>(i) Surface-supplied air diving to depths deeper than 100 fsw and shallower than 220 fsw;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mixed gas diving shallower than 300 fsw; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Diving outside the no-decompression limits shallower than 300 fsw.
</P>
<P>(2) A decompression chamber capable of recompressing the diver at the surface to the maximum depth of the dive shall be available at the dive location for dives deeper than 300 fsw.
</P>
<P>(3) The decompression chamber shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Dual-lock;
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiplace; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Located within 5 minutes of the dive location.
</P>
<P>(4) The decompression chamber shall be equipped with:
</P>
<P>(i) A pressure gauge for each pressurized compartment designed for human occupancy;
</P>
<P>(ii) A built-in-breathing-system with a minimum of one mask per occupant;
</P>
<P>(iii) A two-way voice communication system between occupants and a dive team member at the dive location;
</P>
<P>(iv) A viewport; and
</P>
<P>(v) Illumination capability to light the interior.
</P>
<P>(5) Treatment tables, treatment gas appropriate to the diving mode, and sufficient gas to conduct treatment shall be available at the dive location.
</P>
<P>(6) A dive team member shall be available at the dive location during and for at least one hour after the dive to operate the decompression chamber (when required or provided).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record of dive.</I> (1) The following information shall be recorded and maintained for each diving operation:
</P>
<P>(i) Names of dive team members including designated person-in-charge;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date, time, and location;
</P>
<P>(iii) Diving modes used;
</P>
<P>(iv) General nature of work performed;
</P>
<P>(v) Approximate underwater and surface conditions (visibility, water temperature and current); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Maximum depth and bottom time for each diver.
</P>
<P>(2) For each dive outside the no-decompression limits, deeper than 100 fsw or using mixed gas, the following additional information shall be recorded and maintained:
</P>
<P>(i) Depth-time and breathing gas profiles;
</P>
<P>(ii) Decompression table designation (including modification); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Elapsed time since last pressure exposure if less than 24 hours or repetitive dive designation for each diver.
</P>
<P>(3) For each dive in which decompression sickness is suspected or symptoms are evident, the following additional information shall be recorded and maintained:
</P>
<P>(i) Description of decompression sickness symptoms (including depth and time of onset); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Description and results of treatment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decompression procedure assessment.</I> The employer shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigate and evaluate each incident of decompression sickness based on the recorded information, consideration of the past performance of decompression table used, and individual susceptibility;
</P>
<P>(2) Take appropriate corrective action to reduce the probability of recurrence of decompression sickness; and
</P>
<P>(3) Prepare a written evaluation of the decompression procedure assessment, including any corrective action taken, within 45 days of the incident of decompression sickness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37668, July 22, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="46" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.46" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Specific Operations Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.424" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.424   SCUBA diving.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Employers engaged in SCUBA diving shall comply with the following requirements, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limits.</I> SCUBA diving shall not be conducted:
</P>
<P>(1) At depths deeper than 130 fsw;
</P>
<P>(2) At depths deeper than 100 fsw or outside the no-decompression limits unless a decompression chamber is ready for use;
</P>
<P>(3) Against currents exceeding one (1) knot unless line-tended; or
</P>
<P>(4) In enclosed or physically confining spaces unless line-tended.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) A standby diver shall be available while a diver is in the water.
</P>
<P>(2) A diver shall be line-tended from the surface, or accompanied by another diver in the water in continuous visual contact during the diving operations.
</P>
<P>(3) A diver shall be stationed at the underwater point of entry when diving is conducted in enclosed or physically confining spaces.
</P>
<P>(4) A diver-carried reserve breathing gas supply shall be provided for each diver consisting of:
</P>
<P>(i) A manual reserve (J valve); or
</P>
<P>(ii) An independent reserve cylinder with a separate regulator or connected to the underwater breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P>(5) The valve of the reserve breathing gas supply shall be in the closed position prior to the dive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.425" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.425   Surface-supplied air diving.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Employers engaged in surface-supplied air diving shall comply with the following requirements, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limits.</I> (1) Surface-supplied air diving shall not be conducted at depths deeper than 190 fsw, except that dives with bottom times of 30 minutes or less may be conducted to depths of 220 fsw.
</P>
<P>(2) A decompression chamber shall be ready for use at the dive location for any dive outside the no-decompression limits or deeper than 100 fsw.
</P>
<P>(3) A bell shall be used for dives with an inwater decompression time greater than 120 minutes, except when heavy gear is worn or diving is conducted in physically confining spaces.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) Each diver shall be continuously tended while in the water.
</P>
<P>(2) A diver shall be stationed at the underwater point of entry when diving is conducted in enclosed or physically confining spaces.
</P>
<P>(3) Each diving operation shall have a primary breathing gas supply sufficient to support divers for the duration of the planned dive including decompression.
</P>
<P>(4) For dives deeper than 100 fsw or outside the no-decompression limits:
</P>
<P>(i) A separate dive team member shall tend each diver in the water;
</P>
<P>(ii) A standby diver shall be available while a diver is in the water;
</P>
<P>(iii) A diver-carried reserve breathing gas supply shall be provided for each diver except when heavy gear is worn; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A dive-location reserve breathing gas supply shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(5) For heavy-gear diving deeper than 100 fsw or outside the no-decompression limits:
</P>
<P>(i) An extra breathing gas hose capable of supplying breathing gas to the diver in the water shall be available to the standby diver.
</P>
<P>(ii) An inwater stage shall be provided to divers in the water.
</P>
<P>(6) Except when heavy gear is worn or where physical space does not permit, a diver-carried reserve breathing gas supply shall be provided whenever the diver is prevented by the configuration of the dive area from ascending directly to the surface.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.426" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.426   Mixed-gas diving.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Employers engaged in mixed-gas diving shall comply with the following requirements, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limits.</I> Mixed-gas diving shall be conducted only when:
</P>
<P>(1) A decompression chamber is ready for use at the dive location; and
</P>
<P>(i) A bell is used at depths greater than 220 fsw or when the dive involves inwater decompression time of greater than 120 minutes, except when heavy gear is worn or when diving in physically confining spaces; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A closed bell is used at depths greater than 300 fsw, except when diving is conducted in physically confining spaces.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) A separate dive team member shall tend each diver in the water.
</P>
<P>(2) A standby diver shall be available while a diver is in the water.
</P>
<P>(3) A diver shall be stationed at the underwater point of entry when diving is conducted in enclosed or physically confining spaces.
</P>
<P>(4) Each diving operation shall have a primary breathing gas supply sufficient to support divers for the duration of the planned dive including decompression.
</P>
<P>(5) Each diving operation shall have a dive-location reserve breathing gas supply.
</P>
<P>(6) When heavy gear is worn:
</P>
<P>(i) An extra breathing gas hose capable of supplying breathing gas to the diver in the water shall be available to the standby diver; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An inwater stage shall be provided to divers in the water.
</P>
<P>(7) An inwater stage shall be provided for divers without access to a bell for dives deeper than 100 fsw or outside the no-decompression limits.
</P>
<P>(8) When a closed bell is used, one dive team member in the bell shall be available and tend the diver in the water.
</P>
<P>(9) Except when heavy gear is worn or where physical space does not permit, a diver-carried reserve breathing gas supply shall be provided for each diver:
</P>
<P>(i) Diving deeper than 100 fsw or outside the no-decompression limits; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevented by the configuration of the dive area from directly ascending to the surface.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.427" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.46.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.427   Liveboating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Employers engaged in diving operations involving liveboating shall comply with the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limits.</I> Diving operations involving liveboating shall not be conducted:
</P>
<P>(1) With an inwater decompression time of greater than 120 minutes;
</P>
<P>(2) Using surface-supplied air at depths deeper than 190 fsw, except that dives with bottom times of 30 minutes or less may be conducted to depths of 220 fsw;
</P>
<P>(3) Using mixed gas at depths greater than 220 fsw;
</P>
<P>(4) In rough seas which significantly inpede diver mobility or work function; or
</P>
<P>(5) In other than daylight hours.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) The propeller of the vessel shall be stopped before the diver enters or exits the water.
</P>
<P>(2) A device shall be used which minimizes the possibility of entanglement of the diver's hose in the propeller of the vessel.
</P>
<P>(3) Two-way voice communication between the designated person-in-charge and the person controlling the vessel shall be available while the diver is in the water.
</P>
<P>(4) A standby diver shall be available while a diver is in the water.
</P>
<P>(5) A diver-carried reserve breathing gas supply shall be carried by each diver engaged in liveboating operations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="47" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.47" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Equipment Procedures and Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.430" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.47.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.430   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) All employers shall comply with the following requirements, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(2) Each equipment modification, repair, test, calibration or maintenance service shall be recorded by means of a tagging or logging system, and include the date and nature of work performed, and the name or initials of the person performing the work.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Air compressor system.</I> (1) Compressors used to supply air to the diver shall be equipped with a volume tank with a check valve on the inlet side, a pressure gauge, a relief valve, and a drain valve.
</P>
<P>(2) Air compressor intakes shall be located away from areas containing exhaust or other contaminants.
</P>
<P>(3) Respirable air supplied to a diver shall not contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A level of carbon monoxide (CO) greater than 20 p/m;
</P>
<P>(ii) A level of carbon dioxide (CO<E T="52">2</E>) greater than 1,000 p/m;
</P>
<P>(iii) A level of oil mist greater than 5 milligrams per cubic meter; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A noxious or pronounced odor.
</P>
<P>(4) The output of air compressor systems shall be tested for air purity every 6 months by means of samples taken at the connection to the distribution system, except that non-oil lubricated compressors need not be tested for oil mist.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Breathing gas supply hoses.</I> (1) Breathing gas supply hoses shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a working pressure at least equal to the working pressure of the total breathing gas system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a rated bursting pressure at least equal to 4 times the working pressure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be tested at least annually to 1.5 times their working pressure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Have their open ends taped, capped or plugged when not in use.
</P>
<P>(2) Breathing gas supply hose connectors shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be made of corrosion-resistant materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a working pressure at least equal to the working pressure of the hose to which they are attached; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be resistant to accidental disengagement.
</P>
<P>(3) Umbilicals shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be marked in 10-ft. increments to 100 feet beginning at the diver's end, and in 50 ft. increments thereafter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be made of kink-resistant materials; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Have a working pressure greater than the pressure equivalent to the maximum depth of the dive (relative to the supply source) plus 100 psi.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Buoyancy control.</I> (1) Helmets or masks connected directly to the dry suit or other buoyancy-changing equipment shall be equipped with an exhaust valve.
</P>
<P>(2) A dry suit or other buoyancy-changing equipment not directly connected to the helmet or mask shall be equipped with an exhaust valve.
</P>
<P>(3) When used for SCUBA diving, a buoyancy compensator shall have an inflation source separate from the breathing gas supply.
</P>
<P>(4) An inflatable flotation device capable of maintaining the diver at the surface in a face-up position, having a manually activated inflation source independent of the breathing supply, an oral inflation device, and an exhaust valve shall be used for SCUBA diving.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compressed gas cylinders.</I> Compressed gas cylinders shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be designed, constructed and maintained in accordance with the applicable provisions of 29 CFR 1910.101 and 1910.169 through 1910.171.
</P>
<P>(2) Be stored in a ventilated area and protected from excessive heat;
</P>
<P>(3) Be secured from falling; and
</P>
<P>(4) Have shut-off valves recessed into the cylinder or protected by a cap, except when in use or manifolded, or when used for SCUBA diving.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decompression chambers.</I> (1) Each decompression chamber manufactured after the effective date of this standard, shall be built and maintained in accordance with the ASME Code or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(2) Each decompression chamber manufactured prior to the effective date of this standard shall be maintained in conformity with the code requirements to which it was built, or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(3) Each decompression chamber shall be equipped with:
</P>
<P>(i) Means to maintain the atmosphere below a level of 25 percent oxygen by volume;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mufflers on intake and exhaust lines, which shall be regularly inspected and maintained;
</P>
<P>(iii) Suction guards on exhaust line openings; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A means for extinguishing fire, and shall be maintained to minimize sources of ignition and combustible material.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Gauges and timekeeping devices.</I> (1) Gauges indicating diver depth which can be read at the dive location shall be used for all dives except SCUBA.
</P>
<P>(2) Each depth gauge shall be deadweight tested or calibrated against a master reference gauge every 6 months, and when there is a discrepancy greater than two percent (2 percent) of full scale between any two equivalent gauges.
</P>
<P>(3) A cylinder pressure gauge capable of being monitored by the diver during the dive shall be worn by each SCUBA diver.
</P>
<P>(4) A timekeeping device shall be available at each dive location.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Masks and helmets.</I> (1) Surface-supplied air and mixed-gas masks and helmets shall have:
</P>
<P>(i) A non-return valve at the attachment point between helmet or mask and hose which shall close readily and positively; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An exhaust valve.
</P>
<P>(2) Surface-supplied air masks and helmets shall have a minimum ventilation rate capability of 4.5 acfm at any depth at which they are operated or the capability of maintaining the diver's inspired carbon dioxide partial pressure below 0.02 ATA when the diver is producing carbon dioxide at the rate of 1.6 standard liters per minute.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Oxygen safety.</I> (1) Equipment used with oxygen or mixtures containing over forty percent (40%) by volume oxygen shall be designed for oxygen service.
</P>
<P>(2) Components (except umbilicals) exposed to oxygen or mixtures containing over forty percent (40%) by volume oxygen shall be cleaned of flammable materials before use.
</P>
<P>(3) Oxygen systems over 125 psig and compressed air systems over 500 psig shall have slow-opening shut-off valves.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Weights and harnesses.</I> (1) Except when heavy gear is worn, divers shall be equipped with a weight belt or assembly capable of quick release.
</P>
<P>(2) Except when heavy gear is worn or in SCUBA diving, each diver shall wear a safety harness with:
</P>
<P>(i) A positive buckling device;
</P>
<P>(ii) An attachment point for the umbilical to prevent strain on the mask or helmet; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A lifting point to distribute the pull force of the line over the diver's body.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984; 51 FR 33033, Sept. 18, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="48" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.48" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.440" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.48.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.440   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall record the occurrence of any diving-related injury or illness which requires any dive team member to be hospitalized for 24 hours or more, specifying the circumstances of the incident and the extent of any injuries or illnesses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of records.</I> (1) Upon the request of the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, or the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Department of Health and Human Services of their designees, the employer shall make available for inspection and copying any record or document required by this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) Records and documents required by this standard shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a)-(e) and (g)-(i). Safe practices manuals (§ 1910.420), depth-time profiles (§ 1910.422), recordings of dives (§ 1910.423), decompression procedure assessment evaluations (§ 1910.423), and records of hospitalizations (§ 1910.440) shall be provided in the same manner as employee exposure records or analyses using exposure or medical records. Equipment inspections and testing records which pertain to employees (§ 1910.430) shall also be provided upon request to employees and their designated representatives.
</P>
<P>(3) Records and documents required by this standard shall be retained by the employer for the following period:
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Safe practices manual (§ 1910.420)—current document only;
</P>
<P>(iii) Depth-time profile (§ 1910.422)—until completion of the recording of dive, or until completion of decompression procedure assessment where there has been an incident of decompression sickness;
</P>
<P>(iv) Recording of dive (§ 1910.423)—1 year, except 5 years where there has been an incident of decompression sickness;
</P>
<P>(v) Decompression procedure assessment evaluations (§ 1910.423)—5 years;
</P>
<P>(vi) Equipment inspections and testing records (§ 1910.430)—current entry or tag, or until equipment is withdrawn from service;
</P>
<P>(vii) Records of hospitalizations (§ 1910.440)—5 years.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall comply with any additional requirements set forth at 29 CFR 1910.1020,
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37668, July 22, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 35281, May 23, 1980; 47 FR 14706, Apr. 6, 1982; 51 FR 34562, Sept. 29, 1986; 61 FR 9242, Mar. 7, 1996; 71 FR 16672, Apr. 3, 2006; 76 FR 33607, June 8, 2011; 76 FR 80740, Dec. 27, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.49.14.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart T of Part 1910—Examples of Conditions Which May Restrict or Limit Exposure to Hyperbaric Conditions
</HEAD>
<P>The following disorders may restrict or limit occupational exposure to hyperbaric conditions depending on severity, presence of residual effects, response to therapy, number of occurrences, diving mode, or degree and duration of isolation.
</P>
<P>History of seizure disorder other than early febrile convulsions.
</P>
<P>Malignancies (active) unless treated and without recurrence for 5 yrs.
</P>
<P>Chronic inability to equalize sinus and/or middle ear pressure.
</P>
<P>Cystic or cavitary disease of the lungs.
</P>
<P>Impaired organ function caused by alcohol or drug use.
</P>
<P>Conditions requiring continuous medication for control (e.g., antihistamines, steroids, barbiturates, moodaltering drugs, or insulin).
</P>
<P>Meniere's disease.
</P>
<P>Hemoglobinopathies.
</P>
<P>Obstructive or restrictive lung disease.
</P>
<P>Vestibular end organ destruction.
</P>
<P>Pneumothorax.
</P>
<P>Cardiac abnormalities (e.g., pathological heart block, valvular disease, intraventricular conduction defects other than isolated right bundle branch block, angina pectoris, arrhythmia, coronary artery disease).
</P>
<P>Juxta-articular osteonecrosis.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.49.14.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart T of Part 1910—Guidelines for Scientific Diving
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains guidelines that will be used in conjunction with § 1910.401(a)(2)(iv) to determine those scientific diving programs which are exempt from the requirements for commercial diving. The guidelines are as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The Diving Control Board consists of a majority of active scientific divers and has autonomous and absolute authority over the scientific diving program's operations.
</P>
<P>2. The purpose of the project using scientific diving is the advancement of science; therefore, information and data resulting from the project are non-proprietary.
</P>
<P>3. The tasks of a scientific diver are those of an observer and data gatherer. Construction and trouble-shooting tasks traditionally associated with commercial diving are not included within scientific diving.
</P>
<P>4. Scientific divers, based on the nature of their activities, must use scientific expertise in studying the underwater environment and, therefore, are scientists or scientists in training.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 1050, Jan. 9, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.20.49.14.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart T of Part 1910—Alternative Conditions Under § 1910.401(<E T="01">a</E>)(3) for Recreational Diving Instructors and Diving Guides (Mandatory) 
</HEAD>
<P>Paragraph (a)(3) of § 1910.401 specifies that an employer of recreational diving instructors and diving guides (hereafter, “divers” or “employees”) who complies with all of the conditions of this appendix need not provide a decompression chamber for these divers as required under §§ 1910.423(b)(2) or (c)(3) or 1910.426(b)(1). 
</P>
<HD1>1. Equipment Requirements for Rebreathers 
</HD1>
<P>(a) The employer must ensure that each employee operates the rebreather (<I>i.e.,</I> semi-closed-circuit and closed-circuit self-contained underwater breathing apparatuses (hereafter, “SCUBAs”)) according to the rebreather manufacturer's instructions. 
</P>
<P>(b) The employer must ensure that each rebreather has a counterlung that supplies a sufficient volume of breathing gas to their divers to sustain the divers' respiration rates, and contains a baffle system and/or other moisture separating system that keeps moisture from entering the scrubber. 
</P>
<P>(c) The employer must place a moisture trap in the breathing loop of the rebreather, and ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The rebreather manufacturer approves both the moisture trap and its location in the breathing loop; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee uses the moisture trap according to the rebreather manufacturer's instructions. 
</P>
<P>(d) The employer must ensure that each rebreather has a continuously functioning moisture sensor, and that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The moisture sensor connects to a visual (<I>e.g.,</I> digital, graphic, analog) or auditory (<I>e.g.,</I> voice, pure tone) alarm that is readily detectable by the diver under the diving conditions in which the diver operates, and warns the diver of moisture in the breathing loop in sufficient time to terminate the dive and return safely to the surface; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each diver uses the moisture sensor according to the rebreather manufacturer's instructions. 
</P>
<P>(e) The employer must ensure that each rebreather contains a continuously functioning CO<E T="52">2</E> sensor in the breathing loop, and that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The rebreather manufacturer approves the location of the CO<E T="52">2</E> sensor in the breathing loop; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The CO<E T="52">2</E> sensor is integrated with an alarm that operates in a visual (<I>e.g.,</I> digital, graphic, analog) or auditory (<I>e.g.,</I> voice, pure tone) mode that is readily detectable by each diver under the diving conditions in which the diver operates; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The CO<E T="52">2</E> alarm remains continuously activated when the inhaled CO<E T="52">2</E> level reaches and exceeds 0.005 atmospheres absolute (ATA). 
</P>
<P>(f) Before each day's diving operations, and more often when necessary, the employer must calibrate the CO<E T="52">2</E> sensor according to the sensor manufacturer's instructions, and ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment and procedures used to perform this calibration are accurate to within 10% of a CO<E T="52">2</E> concentration of 0.005 ATA or less; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment and procedures maintain this accuracy as required by the sensor manufacturer's instructions; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The calibration of the CO<E T="52">2</E> sensor is accurate to within 10% of a CO<E T="52">2</E> concentration of 0.005 ATA or less. 
</P>
<P>(g) The employer must replace the CO<E T="52">2</E> sensor when it fails to meet the accuracy requirements specified in paragraph 1(f)(iii) of this appendix, and ensure that the replacement CO<E T="52">2</E> sensor meets the accuracy requirements specified in paragraph 1(f)(iii) of this appendix before placing the rebreather in operation. 
</P>
<P>(h) As an alternative to using a continuously functioning CO<E T="52">2</E> sensor, the employer may use a schedule for replacing CO<E T="52">2</E>-sorbent material provided by the rebreather manufacturer. The employer may use such a schedule only when the rebreather manufacturer has developed it according to the canister-testing protocol specified below in Condition 11, and must use the canister within the temperature range for which the manufacturer conducted its scrubber canister tests following that protocol. Variations above or below the range are acceptable only after the manufacturer adds that lower or higher temperature to the protocol. 
</P>
<P>(i) When using CO<E T="52">2</E>-sorbent replacement schedules, the employer must ensure that each rebreather uses a manufactured (<I>i.e.,</I> commercially pre-packed), disposable scrubber cartridge containing a CO<E T="52">2</E>-sorbent material that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is approved by the rebreather manufacturer; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Removes CO<E T="52">2</E> from the diver's exhaled gas; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintains the CO<E T="52">2</E> level in the breathable gas (<I>i.e.,</I> the gas that a diver inhales directly from the regulator) below a partial pressure of 0.01 ATA. 
</P>
<P>(j) As an alternative to manufactured, disposable scrubber cartridges, the employer may fill CO<E T="52">2</E> scrubber cartridges manually with CO<E T="52">2</E>-sorbent material when: 
</P>
<P>(i) The rebreather manufacturer permits manual filling of scrubber cartridges; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer fills the scrubber cartridges according to the rebreather manufacturer's instructions; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer replaces the CO<E T="52">2</E>-sorbent material using a replacement schedule developed under paragraph 1(h) of this appendix; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer demonstrates that manual filling meets the requirements specified in paragraph 1(i) of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>(k) The employer must ensure that each rebreather has an information module that provides: 
</P>
<P>(i) A visual (<I>e.g.,</I> digital, graphic, analog) or auditory (<I>e.g.,</I> voice, pure tone) display that effectively warns the diver of solenoid failure (when the rebreather uses solenoids) and other electrical weaknesses or failures (<I>e.g.,</I> low battery voltage); 
</P>
<P>(ii) For a semi-closed circuit rebreather, a visual display for the partial pressure of CO<E T="52">2</E>, or deviations above and below a preset CO<E T="52">2</E> partial pressure of 0.005 ATA; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) For a closed-circuit rebreather, a visual display for: partial pressures of O<E T="52">2</E> and CO<E T="52">2</E>, or deviations above and below a preset CO<E T="52">2</E> partial pressure of 0.005 ATA and a preset O<E T="52">2</E> partial pressure of 1.40 ATA or lower; gas temperature in the breathing loop; and water temperature. 
</P>
<P>(l) Before each day's diving operations, and more often when necessary, the employer must ensure that the electrical power supply and electrical and electronic circuits in each rebreather are operating as required by the rebreather manufacturer's instructions. 
</P>
<HD1>2. Special Requirements for Closed-Circuit Rebreathers 
</HD1>
<P>(a) The employer must ensure that each closed-circuit rebreather uses supply-pressure sensors for the O<E T="52">2</E> and diluent (<I>i.e.,</I> air or nitrogen) gases and continuously functioning sensors for detecting temperature in the inhalation side of the gas-loop and the ambient water. 
</P>
<P>(b) The employer must ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) At least two O<E T="52">2</E> sensors are located in the inhalation side of the breathing loop; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The O<E T="52">2</E> sensors are: functioning continuously; temperature compensated; and approved by the rebreather manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(c) Before each day's diving operations, and more often when necessary, the employer must calibrate O<E T="52">2</E> sensors as required by the sensor manufacturer's instructions. In doing so, the employer must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the equipment and procedures used to perform the calibration are accurate to within 1% of the O<E T="52">2</E> fraction by volume; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain this accuracy as required by the manufacturer of the calibration equipment; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the sensors are accurate to within 1% of the O<E T="52">2</E> fraction by volume; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Replace O<E T="52">2</E> sensors when they fail to meet the accuracy requirements specified in paragraph 2(c)(iii) of this appendix; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Ensure that the replacement O<E T="52">2</E> sensors meet the accuracy requirements specified in paragraph 2(c)(iii) of this appendix before placing a rebreather in operation. 
</P>
<P>(d) The employer must ensure that each closed-circuit rebreather has: 
</P>
<P>(i) A gas-controller package with electrically operated solenoid O<E T="52">2</E>-supply valves; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A pressure-activated regulator with a second-stage diluent-gas addition valve; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A manually operated gas-supply bypass valve to add O<E T="52">2</E> or diluent gas to the breathing loop; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Separate O<E T="52">2</E> and diluent-gas cylinders to supply the breathing-gas mixture. 
</P>
<HD1>3. O<E T="52">2</E> Concentration in the Breathing Gas 
</HD1>
<P>The employer must ensure that the fraction of O<E T="52">2</E> in the nitrox breathing-gas mixture: 
</P>
<P>(a) Is greater than the fraction of O<E T="52">2</E> in compressed air (<I>i.e.,</I> exceeds 22% by volume);
</P>
<P>(b) For open-circuit SCUBA, never exceeds a maximum fraction of breathable O<E T="52">2</E> of 40% by volume or a maximum O<E T="52">2</E> partial pressure of 1.40 ATA, whichever exposes divers to less O<E T="52">2</E>; and 
</P>
<P>(c) For a rebreather, never exceeds a maximum O<E T="52">2</E> partial pressure of 1.40 ATA. 
</P>
<HD1>4. Regulating O<E T="52">2</E> Exposures and Diving Depth 
</HD1>
<P>(a) Regarding O<E T="52">2</E> exposure, the employer must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the exposure of each diver to partial pressures of O<E T="52">2</E> between 0.60 and 1.40 ATA does not exceed the 24-hour single-exposure time limits specified either by the 2001 National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Diving Manual (the “2001 NOAA Diving Manual”), or by the report entitled “Enriched Air Operations and Resource Guide” published in 1995 by the Professional Association of Diving Instructors (known commonly as the “1995 DSAT Oxygen Exposure Table”); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine a diver's O<E T="52">2</E>-exposure duration using the diver's maximum O<E T="52">2</E> exposure (partial pressure of O<E T="52">2</E>) during the dive and the total dive time (<I>i.e.,</I> from the time the diver leaves the surface until the diver returns to the surface). 
</P>
<P>(b) Regardless of the diving equipment used, the employer must ensure that no diver exceeds a depth of 130 feet of sea water (“fsw”) or a maximum O<E T="52">2</E> partial pressure of 1.40 ATA, whichever exposes the diver to less O<E T="52">2</E>. 
</P>
<HD1>5. Use of No-Decompression Limits 
</HD1>
<P>(a) For diving conducted while using nitrox breathing-gas mixtures, the employer must ensure that each diver remains within the no-decompression limits specified for single and repetitive air diving and published in the 2001 NOAA Diving Manual or the report entitled “Development and Validation of No-Stop Decompression Procedures for Recreational Diving: The DSAT Recreational Dive Planner,” published in 1994 by Hamilton Research Ltd. (known commonly as the “1994 DSAT No-Decompression Tables”). 
</P>
<P>(b) An employer may permit a diver to use a dive-decompression computer designed to regulate decompression when the dive-decompression computer uses the no-decompression limits specified in paragraph 5(a) of this appendix, and provides output that reliably represents those limits. 
</P>
<HD1>6. Mixing and Analyzing the Breathing Gas 
</HD1>
<P>(a) The employer must ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Properly trained personnel mix nitrox-breathing gases, and that nitrogen is the only inert gas used in the breathing-gas mixture; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) When mixing nitrox-breathing gases, they mix the appropriate breathing gas before delivering the mixture to the breathing-gas cylinders, using the continuous-flow or partial-pressure mixing techniques specified in the 2001 NOAA Diving Manual, or using a filter-membrane system. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before the start of each day's diving operations, the employer must determine the O<E T="52">2</E> fraction of the breathing-gas mixture using an O<E T="52">2</E> analyzer. In doing so, the employer must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the O<E T="52">2</E> analyzer is accurate to within 1% of the O<E T="52">2</E> fraction by volume. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain this accuracy as required by the manufacturer of the analyzer. 
</P>
<P>(c) When the breathing gas is a commercially supplied nitrox breathing-gas mixture, the employer must ensure that the O<E T="52">2</E> meets the medical USP specifications (Type I, Quality Verification Level A) or aviator's breathing-oxygen specifications (Type I, Quality Verification Level E) of CGA G-4.3-2000 (“Commodity Specification for Oxygen”). In addition, the commercial supplier must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the O<E T="52">2</E> fraction in the breathing-gas mixture using an analytic method that is accurate to within 1% of the O<E T="52">2</E> fraction by volume; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Make this determination when the mixture is in the charged tank and after disconnecting the charged tank from the charging apparatus; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Include documentation of the O<E T="52">2</E>-analysis procedures and the O<E T="52">2</E> fraction when delivering the charged tanks to the employer. 
</P>
<P>(d) Before producing nitrox breathing-gas mixtures using a compressor in which the gas pressure in any system component exceeds 125 pounds per square inch (psi), the: 
</P>
<P>(i) Compressor manufacturer must provide the employer with documentation that the compressor is suitable for mixing high-pressure air with the highest O<E T="52">2</E> fraction used in the nitrox breathing-gas mixture when operated according to the manufacturer's operating and maintenance specifications; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employer must comply with paragraph 6(e) of this appendix, unless the compressor is rated for O<E T="52">2</E> service and is oil-less or oil-free; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Employer must ensure that the compressor meets the requirements specified in paragraphs (i)(1) and (i)(2) of § 1910.430 whenever the highest O<E T="52">2</E> fraction used in the mixing process exceeds 40%. 
</P>
<P>(e) Before producing nitrox breathing-gas mixtures using an oil-lubricated compressor to mix high-pressure air with O<E T="52">2</E>, and regardless of the gas pressure in any system component, the: 
</P>
<P>(i) Employer must use only uncontaminated air (<I>i.e.,</I> air containing no hydrocarbon particulates) for the nitrox breathing-gas mixture; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Compressor manufacturer must provide the employer with documentation that the compressor is suitable for mixing the high-pressure air with the highest O<E T="52">2</E> fraction used in the nitrox breathing-gas mixture when operated according to the manufacturer's operating and maintenance specifications; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Employer must filter the high-pressure air to produce O<E T="52">2</E>-compatible air; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The filter-system manufacturer must provide the employer with documentation that the filter system used for this purpose is suitable for producing O<E T="52">2</E>-compatible air when operated according to the manufacturer's operating and maintenance specifications; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Employer must continuously monitor the air downstream from the filter for hydrocarbon contamination. 
</P>
<P>(f) The employer must ensure that diving equipment using nitrox breathing-gas mixtures or pure O<E T="52">2</E> under high pressure (<I>i.e.,</I> exceeding 125 psi) conforms to the O<E T="52">2</E>-service requirements specified in paragraphs (i)(1) and (i)(2) of § 1910.430. 
</P>
<HD1>7. Emergency Egress 
</HD1>
<P>(a) Regardless of the type of diving equipment used by a diver (<I>i.e.,</I> open-circuit SCUBA or rebreathers), the employer must ensure that the equipment contains (or incorporates) an open-circuit emergency-egress system (a “bail-out” system) in which the second stage of the regulator connects to a separate supply of emergency breathing gas, and the emergency breathing gas consists of air or the same nitrox breathing-gas mixture used during the dive. 
</P>
<P>(b) As an alternative to the “bail-out” system specified in paragraph 7(a) of this appendix, the employer may use: 
</P>
<P>(i) For open-circuit SCUBA, an emergency-egress system as specified in § 1910.424(c)(4); or 
</P>
<P>(ii) For a semi-closed-circuit and closed-circuit rebreather, a system configured so that the second stage of the regulator connects to a reserve supply of emergency breathing gas. 
</P>
<P>(c) The employer must obtain from the rebreather manufacturer sufficient information to ensure that the bail-out system performs reliably and has sufficient capacity to enable the diver to terminate the dive and return safely to the surface. 
</P>
<HD1>8. Treating Diving-Related Medical Emergencies 
</HD1>
<P>(a) Before each day's diving operations, the employer must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Verify that a hospital, qualified health-care professionals, and the nearest Coast Guard Coordination Center (or an equivalent rescue service operated by a state, county, or municipal agency) are available to treat diving-related medical emergencies; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that each dive site has a means to alert these treatment resources in a timely manner when a diving-related medical emergency occurs; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that transportation to a suitable decompression chamber is readily available when no decompression chamber is at the dive site, and that this transportation can deliver the injured diver to the decompression chamber within four (4) hours travel time from the dive site. 
</P>
<P>(b) The employer must ensure that portable O<E T="52">2</E> equipment is available at the dive site to treat injured divers. In doing so, the employer must ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment delivers medical-grade O<E T="52">2</E> that meets the requirements for medical USP oxygen (Type I, Quality Verification Level A) of CGA G-4.3-2000 (“Commodity Specification for Oxygen”); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment delivers this O<E T="52">2</E> to a transparent mask that covers the injured diver's nose and mouth; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Sufficient O<E T="52">2</E> is available for administration to the injured diver from the time the employer recognizes the symptoms of a diving-related medical emergency until the injured diver reaches a decompression chamber for treatment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Before each day's diving operations, the employer must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that at least two attendants, either employees or non-employees, qualified in first-aid and administering O<E T="52">2</E> treatment, are available at the dive site to treat diving-related medical emergencies; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Verify their qualifications for this task. 
</P>
<HD1>9. Diving Logs and No-Decompression Tables 
</HD1>
<P>(a) Before starting each day's diving operations, the employer must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Designate an employee or a non-employee to make entries in a diving log; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Verify that this designee understands the diving and medical terminology, and proper procedures, for making correct entries in the diving log. 
</P>
<P>(b) The employer must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the diving log conforms to the requirements specified by paragraph (d) (“Record of dive”) of § 1910.423; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain a record of the dive according to § 1910.440 (“Recordkeeping requirements”). 
</P>
<P>(c) The employer must ensure that a hard-copy of the no-decompression tables used for the dives (as specified in paragraph 6(a) of this appendix) is readily available at the dive site, whether or not the divers use dive-decompression computers. 
</P>
<HD1>10. Diver Training 
</HD1>
<P>The employer must ensure that each diver receives training that enables the diver to perform work safely and effectively while using open-circuit SCUBAs or rebreathers supplied with nitrox breathing-gas mixtures. Accordingly, each diver must be able to demonstrate the ability to perform critical tasks safely and effectively, including, but not limited to: recognizing the effects of breathing excessive CO<E T="52">2</E> and O<E T="52">2</E>; taking appropriate action after detecting excessive levels of CO<E T="52">2</E> and O<E T="52">2</E>; and properly evaluating, operating, and maintaining their diving equipment under the diving conditions they encounter. 
</P>
<HD1>11. Testing Protocol for Determining the CO<E T="52">2</E> Limits of Rebreather Canisters 
</HD1>
<P>(a) The employer must ensure that the rebreather manufacturer has used the following procedures for determining that the CO<E T="52">2</E>-sorbent material meets the specifications of the sorbent material's manufacturer: 
</P>
<P>(i) The North Atlantic Treating Organization CO<E T="52">2</E> absorbent-activity test; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The RoTap shaker and nested-sieves test; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Navy Experimental Diving Unit (“NEDU”)-derived Schlegel test; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The NEDU MeshFit software. 
</P>
<P>(b) The employer must ensure that the rebreather manufacturer has applied the following canister-testing materials, methods, procedures, and statistical analyses: 
</P>
<P>(i) Use of a nitrox breathing-gas mixture that has an O<E T="52">2</E> fraction maintained at 0.28 (equivalent to 1.4 ATA of O<E T="52">2</E> at 130 fsw, the maximum O<E T="52">2</E> concentration permitted at this depth); 
</P>
<P>(ii) While operating the rebreather at a maximum depth of 130 fsw, use of a breathing machine to continuously ventilate the rebreather with breathing gas that is at 100% humidity and warmed to a temperature of 98.6 degrees F (37 degrees C) in the heating-humidification chamber; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Measurement of the O<E T="52">2</E> concentration of the inhalation breathing gas delivered to the mouthpiece; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Testing of the canisters using the three ventilation rates listed in Table I below (with the required breathing-machine tidal volumes and frequencies, and CO<E T="52">2</E>-injection rates, provided for each ventilation rate): 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I—Canister Testing Parameters 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ventilation rates (Lpm, ATPS 
<sup>1</sup>) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Breathing machine
<br/>tidal volumes (L) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Breathing machine
<br/>frequencies
<br/>(breaths per min.) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CO<E T="52">2</E> injection rates
<br/>(Lpm, STPD 
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.25 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ATPS means ambient temperature and pressure, saturated with water. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> STPD means standard temperature and pressure, dry; the standard temperature is 32 degrees F (0 degrees C).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) When using a work rate (<I>i.e.,</I> breathing-machine tidal volume and frequency) other than the work rates listed in the table above, addition of the appropriate combinations of ventilation rates and CO<E T="52">2</E>-injection rates; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Performance of the CO<E T="52">2</E> injection at a constant (steady) and continuous rate during each testing trial; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Determination of canister duration using a minimum of four (4) water temperatures, including 40, 50, 70, and 90 degrees F (4.4, 10.0, 21.1, and 32.2 degrees C, respectively); 
</P>
<P>(viii) Monitoring of the breathing-gas temperature at the rebreather mouthpiece (at the “chrome T” connector), and ensuring that this temperature conforms to the temperature of a diver's exhaled breath at the water temperature and ventilation rate used during the testing trial; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> NEDU can provide the manufacturer with information on the temperature of a diver's exhaled breath at various water temperatures and ventilation rates, as well as techniques and procedures used to maintain these temperatures during the testing trials.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ix) Implementation of at least eight (8) testing trials for each combination of temperature and ventilation-CO<E T="52">2</E>-injection rates (for example, eight testing trials at 40 degrees F using a ventilation rate of 22.5 Lpm at a CO<E T="52">2</E>-injection rate of 0.90 Lpm); 
</P>
<P>(x) Allowing the water temperature to vary no more than ±2.0 degrees F (±1.0 degree C) <I>between</I> each of the eight testing trials, and no more than ±1.0 degree F (±0.5 degree C) <I>within</I> each testing trial; 
</P>
<P>(xi) Use of the average temperature for each set of eight testing trials in the statistical analysis of the testing-trial results, with the testing-trial results being the time taken for the inhaled breathing gas to reach 0.005 ATA of CO<E T="52">2</E> (<I>i.e.,</I> the canister-duration results); 
</P>
<P>(xii) Analysis of the canister-duration results using the repeated-measures statistics described in NEDU Report 2-99; 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Specification of the replacement schedule for the CO<E T="52">2</E>-sorbent materials in terms of the lower prediction line (or limit) of the 95% confidence interval; and 
</P>
<P>(xiv) Derivation of replacement schedules only by interpolating among, but not by extrapolating beyond, the depth, water temperatures, and exercise levels used during canister testing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 7363, Feb. 17, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="U" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.21" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart U—COVID-19</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393); 29 CFR part 1911; and 5 U.S.C. 553.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 32620, June 21, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.501" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.21.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.501   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.502" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.21.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.502   Healthcare.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, this section applies to all settings where any employee provides healthcare services or healthcare support services.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The provision of first aid by an employee who is not a licensed healthcare provider;
</P>
<P>(ii) The dispensing of prescriptions by pharmacists in retail settings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Non-hospital ambulatory care settings where all non-employees are screened prior to entry and people with suspected or confirmed COVID-19 are not permitted to enter those settings;
</P>
<P>(iv) Well-defined hospital ambulatory care settings where all employees are fully vaccinated and all non-employees are screened prior to entry and people with suspected or confirmed COVID-19 are not permitted to enter those settings;
</P>
<P>(v) Home healthcare settings where all employees are fully vaccinated and all non-employees are screened prior to entry and people with suspected or confirmed COVID-19 are not present;
</P>
<P>(vi) Healthcare support services not performed in a healthcare setting (<I>e.g.,</I> off-site laundry, off-site medical billing); or
</P>
<P>(vii) Telehealth services performed outside of a setting where direct patient care occurs.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>OSHA does not intend to preclude the employers of employees who are unable to be vaccinated from the scope exemption in paragraphs (a)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section. Under various anti-discrimination laws, workers who cannot be vaccinated because of medical conditions, such as allergies to vaccine ingredients, or certain religious beliefs may ask for a reasonable accommodation from their employer. Accordingly, where an employer reasonably accommodates an employee who is unable to be vaccinated in a manner that does not expose the employee to COVID-19 hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> telework, working in isolation), that employer may be within the scope exemption in paragraphs (a)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3)(i) Where a healthcare setting is embedded within a non-healthcare setting (<I>e.g.,</I> medical clinic in a manufacturing facility, walk-in clinic in a retail setting), this section applies only to the embedded healthcare setting and not to the remainder of the physical location.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where emergency responders or other licensed healthcare providers enter a non-healthcare setting to provide healthcare services, this section applies only to the provision of the healthcare services by that employee.
</P>
<P>(4) In well-defined areas where there is no reasonable expectation that any person with suspected or confirmed COVID-19 will be present, paragraphs (f), (h), and (i) of this section do not apply to employees who are fully vaccinated.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>Nothing in this section is intended to limit state or local government mandates or guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> executive order, health department order) that go beyond the requirements of and are not inconsistent with this section.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>Employers are encouraged to follow public health guidance from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) even when not required by this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Aerosol-generating procedure</I> means a medical procedure that generates aerosols that can be infectious and are of respirable size. For the purposes of this section, only the following medical procedures are considered aerosol-generating procedures: Open suctioning of airways; sputum induction; cardiopulmonary resuscitation; endotracheal intubation and extubation; non-invasive ventilation (<I>e.g.,</I> BiPAP, CPAP); bronchoscopy; manual ventilation; medical/surgical/postmortem procedures using oscillating bone saws; and dental procedures involving: Ultrasonic scalers; high-speed dental handpieces; air/water syringes; air polishing; and air abrasion.
</P>
<P><I>Airborne infection isolation room (AIIR)</I> means a dedicated negative pressure patient-care room, with special air handling capability, which is used to isolate persons with a suspected or confirmed airborne-transmissible infectious disease. AIIRs include both permanent rooms and temporary structures (<I>e.g.,</I> a booth, tent or other enclosure designed to operate under negative pressure).
</P>
<P><I>Ambulatory care</I> means healthcare services performed on an outpatient basis, without admission to a hospital or other facility. It is provided in settings such as: Offices of physicians and other health care professionals; hospital outpatient departments; ambulatory surgical centers; specialty clinics or centers (<I>e.g.,</I> dialysis, infusion, medical imaging); and urgent care clinics. Ambulatory care does not include home healthcare settings for the purposes of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Clean/cleaning</I> means the removal of dirt and impurities, including germs, from surfaces using soap and water or other cleaning agents. Cleaning alone reduces germs on surfaces by removing contaminants and may also weaken or damage some of the virus particles, which decreases risk of infection from surfaces.
</P>
<P><I>Close contact</I> means being within 6 feet of any other person for a cumulative total of 15 minutes or more over a 24-hour period during that person's potential period of transmission. The potential transmission period runs from 2 days before the person felt sick (or, for asymptomatic people, 2 days prior to test specimen collection) until the time the person is isolated.
</P>
<P><I>Common areas</I> means indoor or outdoor locations under the control of the employer that more than one person may use or where people congregate (<I>e.g.,</I> building lobbies, reception areas, waiting rooms, restrooms, break rooms, eating areas, conference rooms).
</P>
<P><I>COVID-19 (Coronavirus Disease 2019)</I> means the respiratory disease caused by SARS-CoV-2 (severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2). For clarity and ease of reference, this section refers to “COVID-19” when describing exposures or potential exposures to SARS-CoV-2.
</P>
<P><I>COVID-19 positive</I> and <I>confirmed COVID-19</I> refer to a person who has a confirmed positive test for, or who has been diagnosed by a licensed healthcare provider with, COVID-19.
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<P><I>COVID-19 symptoms</I> mean the following: Fever or chills; cough; shortness of breath or difficulty breathing; fatigue; muscle or body aches; headache; new loss of taste or smell; sore throat; congestion or runny nose; nausea or vomiting; diarrhea.
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<P><I>COVID-19 test</I> means a test for SARS-CoV-2 that is:
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<P>(i) Cleared or approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) or is authorized by an Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) from the FDA to diagnose current infection with the SARS-CoV-2 virus; and
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<P>(ii) Administered in accordance with the FDA clearance or approval or the FDA EUA as applicable.
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<P><I>Direct patient care</I> means hands-on, face-to-face contact with patients for the purpose of diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring.
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<P><I>Disinfect/disinfection</I> means using an EPA-registered, hospital-grade disinfectant on EPA's “List N” (incorporated by reference, § 1910.509), in accordance with manufacturers' instructions to kill germs on surfaces.
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<P><I>Elastomeric respirator</I> means a tight-fitting respirator with a facepiece that is made of synthetic or rubber material that permits it to be disinfected, cleaned, and reused according to manufacturer's instructions. It is equipped with a replaceable cartridge(s), canister(s), or filter(s).
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<P><I>Facemask</I> means a surgical, medical procedure, dental, or isolation mask that is FDA-cleared, authorized by an FDA EUA, or offered or distributed as described in an FDA enforcement policy. Facemasks may also be referred to as “medical procedure masks.”
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<P><I>Face shield</I> means a device, typically made of clear plastic, that:
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<P>(i) Is certified to ANSI/ISEA Z87.1 (incorporated by reference, § 1910.509); or
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<P>(ii) Covers the wearer's eyes, nose, and mouth to protect from splashes, sprays, and spatter of body fluids, wraps around the sides of the wearer's face (<I>i.e.,</I> temple-to-temple), and extends below the wearer's chin.
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<P><I>Filtering facepiece respirator</I> means a negative pressure particulate respirator with a non-replaceable filter as an integral part of the facepiece or with the entire facepiece composed of the non-replaceable filtering medium.
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<P><I>Fully vaccinated</I> means 2 weeks or more following the final dose of a COVID-19 vaccine.
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<P><I>Hand hygiene</I> means the cleaning and/or disinfecting of one's hands by using standard handwashing methods with soap and running water or an alcohol-based hand rub that is at least 60% alcohol.
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<P><I>Healthcare services</I> mean services that are provided to individuals by professional healthcare practitioners (<I>e.g.,</I> doctors, nurses, emergency medical personnel, oral health professionals) for the purpose of promoting, maintaining, monitoring, or restoring health. Healthcare services are delivered through various means including: Hospitalization, long-term care, ambulatory care, home health and hospice care, emergency medical response, and patient transport. For the purposes of this section, healthcare services include autopsies.
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<P><I>Healthcare support services</I> mean services that facilitate the provision of healthcare services. Healthcare support services include patient intake/admission, patient food services, equipment and facility maintenance, housekeeping services, healthcare laundry services, medical waste handling services, and medical equipment cleaning/reprocessing services.
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<P><I>High-touch surfaces and equipment</I> means any surface or piece of equipment that is repeatedly touched by more than one person (<I>e.g.,</I> doorknobs, light switches, countertops, handles, desks, tables, phones, keyboards, tools, toilets, faucets, sinks, credit card terminals, touchscreen-enabled devices).
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<P><I>Physical location</I> means a site (including outdoor and indoor areas, a structure, or a group of structures) or an area within a site where work or any work-related activity (<I>e.g.,</I> taking breaks, going to the restroom, eating, entering, or exiting work) occurs. A physical location includes the entirety of any space associated with the site (<I>e.g.,</I> workstations, hallways, stairwells, breakrooms, bathrooms, elevators) and any other space that an employee might occupy in arriving, working, or leaving.
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<P><I>Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)</I> means an air-purifying respirator that uses a blower to force the ambient air through air-purifying elements to the inlet covering.
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<P><I>Respirator</I> means a type of personal protective equipment (PPE) that is certified by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84 or is authorized under an EUA by the FDA. Respirators protect against airborne hazards by removing specific air contaminants from the ambient (surrounding) air or by supplying breathable air from a safe source. Common types of respirators include filtering facepiece respirators, elastomeric respirators, and PAPRs. Face coverings, facemasks, and face shields are not respirators.
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<P><I>Screen</I> means asking questions to determine whether a person is COVID-19 positive or has symptoms of COVID-19.
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<P><I>Surgical mask</I> means a mask that covers the user's nose and mouth and provides a physical barrier to fluids and particulate materials. The mask meets certain fluid barrier protection standards and Class I or Class II flammability tests. Surgical masks are generally regulated by FDA as Class II devices under 21 CFR 878.4040—Surgical apparel.
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<P><I>Vaccine</I> means a biological product authorized or licensed by the FDA to prevent or provide protection against COVID-19, whether the substance is administered through a single dose or a series of doses.
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<P><I>Workplace</I> means a physical location (<I>e.g.,</I> fixed, mobile) where the employer's work or operations are performed.
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<P>(c) <I>COVID-19 plan.</I> (1) The employer must develop and implement a COVID-19 plan for each workplace. If the employer has multiple workplaces that are substantially similar, its COVID-19 plan may be developed by workplace type rather than by individual workplace so long as all required site-specific information is included in the plan.
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<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>For those employers who do not already have a COVID-19 plan in place, OSHA's website contains significant compliance assistance materials, including a model plan.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) If the employer has more than 10 employees, the COVID-19 plan must be written.
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<P>(3) The employer must designate one or more workplace COVID-19 safety coordinators to implement and monitor the COVID-19 plan developed under this section. The COVID-19 safety coordinator(s) must be knowledgeable in infection control principles and practices as they apply to the workplace and employee job operations. The identity of the safety coordinator(s) must be documented in any written COVID-19 plan. The safety coordinator(s) must have the authority to ensure compliance with all aspects of the COVID-19 plan.
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<P>(4)(i) The employer must conduct a workplace-specific hazard assessment to identify potential workplace hazards related to COVID-19.
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<P>(ii) In order for an employer to be exempt from providing controls in a well-defined area under paragraph (a)(4) of this section based on employees' fully vaccinated status, the COVID-19 plan must include policies and procedures to determine employees' vaccination status.
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<P>(5) The employer must seek the input and involvement of non-managerial employees and their representatives, if any, in the hazard assessment and the development and implementation of the COVID-19 plan.
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<P>(6) The employer must monitor each workplace to ensure the ongoing effectiveness of the COVID-19 plan and update it as needed.
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<P>(7) The COVID-19 plan must address the hazards identified by the assessment required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section, and include policies and procedures to:
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<P>(i) Minimize the risk of transmission of COVID-19 for each employee, as required by paragraphs (d) through (n) of this section;
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<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(7)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Although the employer's COVID-19 plan must account for the potential COVID-19 exposures to each employee, the plan can do so generally and need not address each employee individually.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Effectively communicate and coordinate with other employers:
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<P>(A) When employees of different employers share the same physical location, each employer must effectively communicate its COVID-19 plan to all other employers, coordinate to ensure that each of its employees is protected as required by this section, and adjust its COVID-19 plan to address any particular COVID-19 hazards presented by the other employees. This requirement does not apply to delivery people, messengers, and other employees who only enter a workplace briefly to drop off or pick up items.
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<P>(B) An employer with one or more employees working in a physical location controlled by another employer must notify the controlling employer when those employees are exposed to conditions at that location that do not meet the requirements of this section; and
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<P>(iii) Protect employees who in the course of their employment enter into private residences or other physical locations controlled by a person not covered by the OSH Act (<I>e.g.,</I> homeowners, sole proprietors). This must include procedures for employee withdrawal from that location if those protections are inadequate.
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<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>):</HED>
<P>The employer may include other policies, procedures, or information necessary to comply with any applicable federal, state, or local public health laws, standards, and guidelines in their COVID-19 plan.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) <I>Patient screening and management.</I> In settings where direct patient care is provided, the employer must:
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<P>(1) Limit and monitor points of entry to the setting. This provision does not apply where emergency responders or other licensed healthcare providers enter a non-healthcare setting to provide healthcare services.
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<P>(2) Screen and triage all clients, patients, residents, delivery people and other visitors, and other non-employees entering the setting.
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<P>(3) Implement other applicable patient management strategies in accordance with CDC's “COVID-19 Infection Prevention and Control Recommendations” (incorporated by reference, § 1910.509).
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<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED>
<P>The employer is encouraged to use telehealth services where available and appropriate in order to limit the number of people entering the workplace.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions.</I> Employers must develop and implement policies and procedures to adhere to Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions in accordance with CDC's “Guidelines for Isolation Precautions” (incorporated by reference, § 1910.509).
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<P>(f) <I>Personal protective equipment (PPE)</I>—(1) <I>Facemasks.</I> (i) Employers must provide, and ensure that employees wear, facemasks that meet the definition in paragraph (b) of this section; and
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<P>(ii) The employer must ensure a facemask is worn by each employee over the nose and mouth when indoors and when occupying a vehicle with other people for work purposes. The employer must provide a sufficient number of facemasks to each employee to comply with this paragraph and must ensure that each employee changes them at least once per day, whenever they are soiled or damaged, and more frequently as necessary (<I>e.g.,</I> patient care reasons).
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<P>(iii) The following are exceptions to the requirements for facemasks in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section:
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<P>(A) When an employee is alone in a room.
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<P>(B) While an employee is eating and drinking at the workplace, provided each employee is at least 6 feet away from any other person, or separated from other people by a physical barrier.
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<P>(C) When employees are wearing respiratory protection in accordance with § 1910.134 or paragraph (f) of this section.
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<P>(D) When it is important to see a person's mouth (<I>e.g.,</I> communicating with an individual who is deaf or hard of hearing) and the conditions do not permit a facemask that is constructed of clear plastic (or includes a clear plastic window). In such situations, the employer must ensure that each employee wears an alternative to protect the employee, such as a face shield, if the conditions permit it.
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<P>(E) When employees cannot wear facemasks due to a medical necessity, medical condition, or disability as defined in the Americans with Disabilities Act (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>), or due to a religious belief. Exceptions must be provided for a narrow subset of persons with a disability who cannot wear a facemask or cannot safely wear a facemask, because of the disability, as defined in the Americans with Disabilities Act (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>), including a person who cannot independently remove the facemask. The remaining portion of the subset who cannot wear a facemask may be exempted on a case-by-case basis as required by the Americans with Disabilities Act and other applicable laws. In all such situations, the employer must ensure that any such employee wears a face shield for the protection of the employee, if their condition or disability permits it. Accommodations may also need to be made for religious beliefs consistent with Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.
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<P>(F) When the employer can demonstrate that the use of a facemask presents a hazard to an employee of serious injury or death (<I>e.g.,</I> arc flash, heat stress, interfering with the safe operation of equipment). In such situations, the employer must ensure that each employee wears an alternative to protect the employee, such as a face shield, if the conditions permit it. Any employee not wearing a facemask must remain at least 6 feet away from all other people unless the employer can demonstrate it is not feasible. The employee must resume wearing a facemask when not engaged in the activity where the facemask presents a hazard.
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<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(<E T="01">F</E>):</HED>
<P>With respect to paragraphs (f)(1)(iii)(D) through (F) of this section, the employer may determine that the use of face shields, without facemasks, in certain settings is not appropriate due to other infection control concerns.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) Where a face shield is required to comply with this paragraph or is otherwise required by the employer, the employer must ensure that face shields are cleaned at least daily and are not damaged. When an employee provides a face shield that meets the definition in paragraph (b) of this section, the employer may allow the employee to use it and is not required to reimburse the employee for that face shield.
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<P>(2) <I>Respirators and other PPE for exposure to people with suspected or confirmed COVID-19.</I> When employees have exposure to a person with suspected or confirmed COVID-19, the employer must provide:
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<P>(i) A respirator to each employee and ensure that it is provided and used in accordance with § 1910.134 and
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<P>(ii) Gloves, an isolation gown or protective clothing, and eye protection to each employee and ensure that the PPE is used in accordance with subpart I of this part.
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<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>When there is a limited supply of filtering facepiece respirators, employers may follow the CDC's “Strategies for Optimizing the Supply of N95 Respirators” (available at: <I>https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/hcp/respirators-strategy/index.html</I>). Where possible, employers are encouraged to select elastomeric respirators or PAPRs instead of filtering facepiece respirators to prevent shortages and supply chain disruption.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Respirators and other PPE during aerosol-generating procedures.</I> For aerosol-generating procedures performed on a person with suspected or confirmed COVID-19, the employer must provide:
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<P>(i) A respirator to each employee and ensure that it is provided and used in accordance with § 1910.134; and
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<P>(ii) Gloves, an isolation gown or protective clothing, and eye protection to each employee and ensure that the PPE is used in accordance with subpart I of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>For aerosol-generating procedures on a person suspected or confirmed with COVID-19, employers are encouraged to select elastomeric respirators or PAPRs instead of filtering facepiece respirators.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>Additional requirements specific to aerosol-generating procedures on people with suspected or confirmed COVID-19 are contained in paragraph (g) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Use of respirators when not required.</I> (i) The employer may provide a respirator to the employee instead of a facemask as required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section. In such circumstances, the employer must comply with § 1910.504.
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<P>(ii) Where the employer provides the employee with a facemask as required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the employer must permit the employee to wear their own respirator instead of a facemask. In such circumstances, the employer must also comply with § 1910.504.
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<P>(5) <I>Respirators and other PPE based on Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions.</I> The employer must provide protective clothing and equipment (<I>e.g.,</I> respirators, gloves, gowns, goggles, face shields) to each employee in accordance with Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions in healthcare settings in accordance with CDC's “Guidelines for Isolation Precautions” (incorporated by reference, § 1910.509) and ensure that the protective clothing and equipment is used in accordance with subpart I of this part.
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<P>(g) <I>Aerosol-generating procedures on a person with suspected or confirmed COVID-19.</I> When an aerosol-generating procedure is performed on a person with suspected or confirmed COVID-19:
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<P>(1) The employer must limit the number of employees present during the procedure to only those essential for patient care and procedure support.
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<P>(2) The employer must ensure that the procedure is performed in an existing AIIR, if available.
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<P>(3) After the procedure is completed, the employer must clean and disinfect the surfaces and equipment in the room or area where the procedure was performed.
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<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>):</HED>
<P>Respirators and other PPE requirements during aerosol-generating procedures are contained in paragraph (f)(3) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(h) <I>Physical distancing.</I> (1) The employer must ensure that each employee is separated from all other people by at least 6 feet when indoors unless the employer can demonstrate that such physical distancing is not feasible for a specific activity (<I>e.g.,</I> hands-on medical care). This provision does not apply to momentary exposure while people are in movement (<I>e.g.,</I> passing in hallways or aisles).
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<P>(2) When the employer establishes it is not feasible for an employee to maintain a distance of at least 6 feet from all other people, the employer must ensure that the employee is as far apart from all other people as feasible.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>):</HED>
<P>Physical distancing can include methods such as: Telehealth; telework or other remote work arrangements; reducing the number of people, including non-employees, in an area at one time; visual cues such as signs and floor markings to indicate where employees and others should be located or their direction and path of travel; staggered arrival, departure, work, and break times; and adjusted work processes or procedures to allow greater distance between employees.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Physical barriers.</I> At each fixed work location outside of direct patient care areas (<I>e.g.,</I> entryway/lobby, check-in desks, triage, hospital pharmacy windows, bill payment) where each employee is not separated from all other people by at least 6 feet of distance, the employer must install cleanable or disposable solid barriers, except where the employer can demonstrate it is not feasible. The barrier must be sized (<I>e.g.,</I> height and width) and located to block face-to-face pathways between individuals based on where each person would normally stand or sit. The barrier may have a pass-through space at the bottom for objects and merchandise.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Physical barriers are not required in direct patient care areas or resident rooms.</P></NOTE>
<P>(j) <I>Cleaning and disinfection.</I> (1) In patient care areas, resident rooms, and for medical devices and equipment, the employer must follow standard practices for cleaning and disinfection of surfaces and equipment in accordance with CDC's “COVID-19 Infection Prevention and Control Recommendations” and CDC's “Guidelines for Environmental Infection Control,” pp. 86-103, 147-149 (both incorporated by reference, § 1910.509).
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<P>(2) In all other areas, the employer must:
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<P>(i) Clean high-touch surfaces and equipment at least once a day, following manufacturers' instructions for application of cleaners; and
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<P>(ii) When the employer is aware that a person who is COVID-19 positive has been in the workplace within the last 24 hours, clean and disinfect, in accordance with CDC's “Cleaning and Disinfecting Guidance” (incorporated by reference, § 1910.509), any areas, materials, and equipment under the employer's control that have likely been contaminated by the person who is COVID-19 positive (<I>e.g.,</I> rooms they occupied, items they touched).
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<P>(3) The employer must provide alcohol-based hand rub that is at least 60% alcohol or provide readily accessible hand washing facilities.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Ventilation.</I> (1) Employers who own or control buildings or structures with an existing heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) system(s) must ensure that:
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<P>(i) The HVAC system(s) is used in accordance with the HVAC manufacturer's instructions and the design specifications of the HVAC system(s);
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<P>(ii) The amount of outside air circulated through its HVAC system(s) and the number of air changes per hour are maximized to the extent appropriate;
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<P>(iii) All air filters are rated Minimum Efficiency Reporting Value (MERV) 13 or higher, if compatible with the HVAC system(s). If MERV-13 or higher filters are not compatible with the HVAC system(s), employers must use filters with the highest compatible filtering efficiency for the HVAC system(s);
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<P>(iv) All air filters are maintained and replaced as necessary to ensure the proper function and performance of the HVAC system(s); and
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<P>(v) All intake ports that provide outside air to the HVAC system(s) are cleaned, maintained, and cleared of any debris that may affect the function and performance of the HVAC system(s).
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<P>(2) Where the employer has an existing AIIR, the employer must maintain and operate it in accordance with its design and construction criteria.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">k</E>):</HED>
<P>This section does not require installation of new HVAC systems or AIIRs to replace or augment functioning systems.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">k</E>):</HED>
<P>In addition to the requirements for existing HVAC systems and AIIRs, all employers should also consider other measures to improve ventilation in accordance with “CDC's Ventilation Guidance,” (available at <I>www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/community/ventilation.html</I>) (<I>e.g.,</I> opening windows and doors). This could include maximizing ventilation in buildings without HVAC systems or in vehicles.</P></NOTE>
<P>(l) <I>Health screening and medical management</I>—(1) <I>Screening.</I> (i) The employer must screen each employee before each work day and each shift. Screening may be conducted by asking employees to self-monitor before reporting to work or may be conducted in-person by the employer.
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<P>(ii) If a COVID-19 test is required by the employer for screening purposes, the employer must provide the test to each employee at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee notification to employer of COVID-19 illness or symptoms.</I> The employer must require each employee to promptly notify the employer when the employee:
</P>
<P>(i) Is COVID-19 positive (<I>i.e.,</I> confirmed positive test for, or has been diagnosed by a licensed healthcare provider with, COVID-19); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been told by a licensed healthcare provider that they are suspected to have COVID-19; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is experiencing recent loss of taste and/or smell with no other explanation; or
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<P>(iv) Is experiencing both fever (≥100.4 °F) and new unexplained cough associated with shortness of breath.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Employer notification to employees of COVID-19 exposure in the workplace.</I> (i) Except as provided for in paragraph (l)(3)(iii) of this section, when the employer is notified that a person who has been in the workplace(s) (including employees, clients, patients, residents, vendors, contractors, customers, delivery people and other visitors, or other non-employees) is COVID-19 positive, the employer must, within 24 hours:
</P>
<P>(A) Notify each employee who was not wearing a respirator and any other required PPE and has been in close contact with that person in the workplace. The notification must state the fact that the employee was in close contact with someone with COVID-19 along with the date(s) that contact occurred.
</P>
<P>(B) Notify all other employees who were not wearing a respirator and any other required PPE and worked in a well-defined portion of a workplace (<I>e.g.,</I> a particular floor) in which that person was present during the potential transmission period. The potential transmission period runs from 2 days before the person felt sick (or, for asymptomatic people, 2 days prior to test specimen collection) until the time the person is isolated. The notification must specify the date(s) the person with COVID-19 was in the workplace during the potential transmission period.
</P>
<P>(C) Notify other employers whose employees were not wearing respirators and any other required PPE and have been in close contact with that person, or worked in a well-defined portion of a workplace (<I>e.g.,</I> a particular floor) in which that person was present, during the potential transmission period. The potential transmission period runs from 2 days before the person felt sick (or, for asymptomatic people, 2 days prior to test specimen collection) until the time the person is isolated. The notification must specify the date(s) the person with COVID-19 was in the workplace during the potential transmission period and the location(s) where the person with COVID-19 was in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notifications required by paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section must not include any employee's name, contact information (<I>e.g.,</I> phone number, email address), or occupation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The notification provisions are not triggered by the presence of a patient with confirmed COVID-19 in a workplace where services are normally provided to suspected or confirmed COVID-19 patients (<I>e.g.,</I> emergency rooms, urgent care facilities, COVID-19 testing sites, COVID-19 wards in hospitals).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical removal from the workplace.</I> (i) If the employer knows an employee meets the criteria listed in paragraph (l)(2)(i) of this section, then the employer must immediately remove that employee and keep the employee removed until they meet the return to work criteria in paragraph (l)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employer knows an employee meets the criteria listed in paragraphs (l)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section, then the employer must immediately remove that employee and either:
</P>
<P>(A) Keep the employee removed until they meet the return to work criteria in paragraph (l)(6) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Keep the employee removed and provide a COVID-19 polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the test results are negative, the employee may return to work immediately.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the test results are positive, the employer must comply with paragraph (l)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the employee refuses to take the test, the employer must continue to keep the employee removed from the workplace consistent with paragraph (l)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, but the employer is not obligated to provide medical removal protection benefits in accordance with paragraph (l)(5)(iii) of this section. Absent undue hardship, employers must make reasonable accommodations for employees who cannot take the test for religious or disability-related medical reasons.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)(4)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>This partial symptom list in paragraphs (l)(2)(iii) and (l)(2)(iv) of this section informs the employer of the minimum requirements for compliance. The full list of COVID-19 symptoms provided by CDC includes additional symptoms not listed in paragraphs (l)(2)(iii) through (iv) of this section. Employers may choose to remove or test employees with additional symptoms from the CDC list, or refer the employees to a healthcare provider.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii)(A) If the employer is required to notify the employee of close contact in the workplace to a person who is COVID-19 positive in accordance with paragraph (l)(3)(i)(A) of this section, then the employer must immediately remove that employee and either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Keep the employee removed for 14 days; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Keep the employee removed and provide a COVID-19 test at least five days after the exposure at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the test results are negative, the employee may return to work after seven days following exposure.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If the test results are positive, the employer must comply with paragraph (l)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) If the employee refuses to take the test, the employer must continue to keep the employee removed from the workplace consistent with paragraph (l)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, but the employer is not obligated to provide medical removal protection benefits in accordance with paragraph (l)(5)(iii) of this section. Absent undue hardship, employers must make reasonable accommodations for employees who cannot take the test for religious or disability-related medical reasons, consistent with applicable non-discrimination laws.
</P>
<P>(B) Employers are not required to remove any employee who would otherwise be required to be removed under paragraph (i)(4)(iii)(A) of this section if the employee does not experience the symptoms in paragraph (l)(2)(iii) or (iv) of this section and has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Been fully vaccinated against COVID-19 (<I>i.e.,</I> 2 weeks or more following the final dose); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Had COVID-19 and recovered within the past 3 months.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any time an employee is required to be removed from the workplace for any reason under paragraph (l)(4) of this section, the employer may require the employee to work remotely or in isolation if suitable work is available.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medical removal protection benefits.</I> (i) Employers with 10 or fewer employees on the effective date of this section are not required to comply with paragraphs (l)(5)(iii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an employer allows an employee to work remotely or in isolation in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(iv) of this section, the employer must continue to pay the employee the same regular pay and benefits the employee would have received had the employee not been absent from work, until the employee meets the return to work criteria specified in paragraph (l)(4)(iii) or (l)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) When an employer removes an employee in accordance with paragraph (l)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer must continue to provide the benefits to which the employee is normally entitled and must also pay the employee the same regular pay the employee would have received had the employee not been absent from work, up to $1,400 per week, until the employee meets the return to work criteria specified in paragraph (l)(4)(iii) or (l)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) For employers with fewer than 500 employees, the employer must pay the employee up to the $1,400 per week cap but, beginning in the third week of an employee's removal, the amount is reduced to only two-thirds of the same regular pay the employee would have received had the employee not been absent from work, up to $200 per day ($1,000 per week in most cases).
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer's payment obligation under paragraph (l)(5)(iii) of this section is reduced by the amount of compensation that the employee receives from any other source, such as a publicly or employer-funded compensation program (<I>e.g.,</I> paid sick leave, administrative leave), for earnings lost during the period of removal or any additional source of income the employee receives that is made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(v) Whenever an employee returns to the workplace after a COVID-19-related workplace removal, that employee must not suffer any adverse action as a result of that removal from the workplace and must maintain all employee rights and benefits, including the employee's right to their former job status, as if the employee had not been removed.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Return to work.</I> The employer must make decisions regarding an employee's return to work after a COVID-19-related workplace removal in accordance with guidance from a licensed healthcare provider or CDC's “Isolation Guidance” (incorporated by reference, § 1910.509); and CDC's “Return to Work Healthcare Guidance” (incorporated by reference, § 1910.509).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>):</HED>
<P>OSHA recognizes that CDC's “Strategies to Mitigate Healthcare Personnel Staffing Shortages” (available at <I>www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/hcp/mitigating-staff-shortages.html</I>) allows elimination of quarantine for certain healthcare workers, but only as a last resort, if the workers' absence would mean there are no longer enough staff to provide safe patient care, specific other amelioration strategies have already been tried, patients have been notified, and workers are utilizing additional PPE at all times.</P></NOTE>
<P>(m) <I>Vaccination.</I> The employer must support COVID-19 vaccination for each employee by providing reasonable time and paid leave (<I>e.g.,</I> paid sick leave, administrative leave) to each employee for vaccination and any side effects experienced following vaccination.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Training.</I> (1) The employer must ensure that each employee receives training, in a language and at a literacy level the employee understands, and so that the employee comprehends at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) COVID-19, including how the disease is transmitted (including pre-symptomatic and asymptomatic transmission), the importance of hand hygiene to reduce the risk of spreading COVID-19 infections, ways to reduce the risk of spreading COVID-19 through the proper covering of the nose and mouth, the signs and symptoms of the disease, risk factors for severe illness, and when to seek medical attention;
</P>
<P>(ii) Employer-specific policies and procedures on patient screening and management;
</P>
<P>(iii) Tasks and situations in the workplace that could result in COVID-19 infection;
</P>
<P>(iv) Workplace-specific policies and procedures to prevent the spread of COVID-19 that are applicable to the employee's duties (<I>e.g.,</I> policies on Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions, physical distancing, physical barriers, ventilation, aerosol-generating procedures);
</P>
<P>(v) Employer-specific multi-employer workplace agreements related to infection control policies and procedures, the use of common areas, and the use of shared equipment that affect employees at the workplace;
</P>
<P>(vi) Employer-specific policies and procedures for PPE worn to comply with this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) When PPE is required for protection against COVID-19;
</P>
<P>(B) Limitations of PPE for protection against COVID-19;
</P>
<P>(C) How to properly put on, wear, and take off PPE;
</P>
<P>(D) How to properly care for, store, clean, maintain, and dispose of PPE; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any modifications to donning, doffing, cleaning, storage, maintenance, and disposal procedures needed to address COVID-19 when PPE is worn to address workplace hazards other than COVID-19;
</P>
<P>(vii) Workplace-specific policies and procedures for cleaning and disinfection;
</P>
<P>(viii) Employer-specific policies and procedures on health screening and medical management;
</P>
<P>(ix) Available sick leave policies, any COVID-19-related benefits to which the employee may be entitled under applicable federal, state, or local laws, and other supportive policies and practices (<I>e.g.,</I> telework, flexible hours);
</P>
<P>(x) The identity of the safety coordinator(s) specified in the COVID-19 plan;
</P>
<P>(xi) The requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(xii) How the employee can obtain copies of this section and any employer-specific policies and procedures developed under this section, including the employer's written COVID-19 plan, if required.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>Employers may rely on training completed prior to the effective date of this section to the extent that it meets the relevant training requirements under this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure that each employee receives additional training whenever:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes occur that affect the employee's risk of contracting COVID-19 at work (<I>e.g.,</I> new job tasks);
</P>
<P>(ii) Policies or procedures are changed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) There is an indication that the employee has not retained the necessary understanding or skill.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must ensure that the training is overseen or conducted by a person knowledgeable in the covered subject matter as it relates to the employee's job duties.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer must ensure that the training provides an opportunity for interactive questions and answers with a person knowledgeable in the covered subject matter as it relates to the employee's job duties.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Anti-Retaliation.</I> (1) The employer must inform each employee that:
</P>
<P>(i) Employees have a right to the protections required by this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers are prohibited from discharging or in any manner discriminating against any employee for exercising their right to the protections required by this section, or for engaging in actions that are required by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must not discharge or in any manner discriminate against any employee for exercising their right to the protections required by this section, or for engaging in actions that are required by this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">o</E>):</HED>
<P>In addition, section 11(c) of the OSH Act also prohibits the employer from discriminating against an employee for exercising rights under, or as a result of actions that are required by, this section. That provision of the Act also protects the employee who files a safety and health complaint, or otherwise exercises any rights afforded by the OSH Act.</P></NOTE>
<P>(p) <I>Requirements implemented at no cost to employees.</I> The implementation of all requirements of this section, with the exception of any employee self-monitoring conducted under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, must be at no cost to employees.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Small employer exclusion.</I> Employers with 10 or fewer employees on the effective date of this section are not required to comply with paragraph (q)(2) or (q)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required records.</I> Employers with more than 10 employees on the effective date of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Retain all versions of the COVID-19 plan implemented to comply with this section while this section remains in effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish and maintain a COVID-19 log to record each instance identified by the employer in which an employee is COVID-19 positive, regardless of whether the instance is connected to exposure to COVID-19 at work.
</P>
<P>(A) The COVID-19 log must contain, for each instance, the employee's name, one form of contact information, occupation, location where the employee worked, the date of the employee's last day at the workplace, the date of the positive test for, or diagnosis of, COVID-19, and the date the employee first had one or more COVID-19 symptoms, if any were experienced.
</P>
<P>(B) The information in the COVID-19 log must be recorded within 24 hours of the employer learning that the employee is COVID-19 positive and must be maintained as though it is a confidential medical record and must not be disclosed except as required by this ETS or other federal law.
</P>
<P>(C) The COVID-19 log must be maintained and preserved while this section remains in effect.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>The COVID-19 log is intended to assist employers with tracking and evaluating instances of employees who are COVID-19 positive without regard to whether those employees were infected at work. The tracking will help evaluate potential workplace exposure to other employees.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Availability of records.</I> By the end of the next business day after a request, the employer must provide, for examination and copying:
</P>
<P>(i) All versions of the written COVID-19 plan to all of the following: Any employees, their personal representatives, and their authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual COVID-19 log entry for a particular employee to that employee and to anyone having written authorized consent of that employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) A version of the COVID-19 log that removes the names of employees, contact information, and occupation, and only includes, for each employee in the COVID-19 log, the location where the employee worked, the last day that the employee was at the workplace before removal, the date of that employee's positive test for, or diagnosis of, COVID-19, and the date the employee first had one or more COVID-19 symptoms, if any were experienced, to all of the following: Any employees, their personal representatives, and their authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(iv) All records required to be maintained by this section to the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">q</E>):</HED>
<P>Employers must continue to record all work-related confirmed cases of COVID-19 on their OSHA Forms 300, 300A, and 301, or the equivalent forms, if required to do so under 29 CFR part 1904.</P></NOTE>
<P>(r) <I>Reporting COVID-19 fatalities and hospitalizations to OSHA.</I> (1) The employer must report to OSHA:
</P>
<P>(i) Each work-related COVID-19 fatality within 8 hours of the employer learning about the fatality.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each work-related COVID-19 in-patient hospitalization within 24 hours of the employer learning about the in-patient hospitalization.
</P>
<P>(2) When reporting COVID-19 fatalities and in-patient hospitalizations to OSHA in accordance with paragraph (r)(1) of this section, the employer must follow the requirements in 29 CFR 1904.39, except for 29 CFR 1904.39(a)(1) and (2) and (b)(6).
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective as of June 21, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance dates.</I> (i) Employers must comply with all requirements of this section, except for requirements in paragraphs (i), (k), and (n) of this section by July 6, 2021.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers must comply with the requirements of this section in paragraphs (i), (k), and (n) of this section by July 21, 2021.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.504" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.21.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.504   Mini Respiratory Protection Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies only to respirator use in accordance with § 1910.502(f)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>COVID-19 (Coronavirus Disease 2019)</I> means the respiratory disease caused by SARS-CoV-2 (severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2). For clarity and ease of reference, this section refers to “COVID-19” when describing exposures or potential exposures to SARS-CoV-2.
</P>
<P><I>Elastomeric respirator</I> means a tight-fitting respirator with a facepiece that is made of synthetic or rubber material that permits it to be disinfected, cleaned, and reused according to manufacturer's instructions. It is equipped with a replaceable cartridge(s), canister(s), or filter(s).
</P>
<P><I>Filtering facepiece respirator</I> means a negative-pressure particulate respirator with a non-replaceable filter as an integral part of the facepiece or with the entire facepiece composed of the non-replaceable filtering medium.
</P>
<P><I>Hand hygiene</I> means the cleaning and/or disinfecting of one's hands by using standard handwashing methods with soap and running water or an alcohol-based hand rub that is at least 60% alcohol.
</P>
<P><I>Respirator</I> means a type of personal protective equipment (PPE) that is certified by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) under 42 CFR part 84 or is authorized under an Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) by the US Food and Drug Administration. Respirators protect against airborne hazards by removing specific air contaminants from the ambient (surrounding) air or by supplying breathable air from a safe source. Common types of respirators include filtering facepiece respirators, elastomeric respirators, and PAPRs. Face coverings, facemasks, and face shields are not respirators.
</P>
<P><I>Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)</I> means an air-purifying respirator that uses a blower to force the ambient air through air-purifying elements to the inlet covering.
</P>
<P><I>Tight-fitting respirator</I> means a respirator in which the air pressure inside the facepiece is negative during inhalation with respect to the ambient air pressure outside the respirator (<I>e.g.,</I> filtering facepiece).
</P>
<P><I>User seal check</I> means an action conducted by the respirator user to determine if the respirator is properly seated to the face.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Respirators provided by employees.</I> Where employees provide and use their own respirators, the employer must provide each employee with the following notice: Respirators can be an effective method of protection against COVID-19 hazards when properly selected and worn. Respirator use is encouraged to provide an additional level of comfort and protection for workers even in circumstances that do not require a respirator to be used. However, if a respirator is used improperly or not kept clean, the respirator itself can become a hazard to the worker. If your employer allows you to provide and use your own respirator, you need to take certain precautions to be sure that the respirator itself does not present a hazard. You should do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Read and follow all instructions provided by the manufacturer on use, maintenance, cleaning and care, and warnings regarding the respirator's limitations.
</P>
<P>(2) Keep track of your respirator so that you do not mistakenly use someone else's respirator.
</P>
<P>(3) Do not wear your respirator where other workplace hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> chemical exposures) require use of a respirator. In such cases, your employer must provide you with a respirator that is used in accordance with OSHA's respiratory protection standard (29 CFR 1910.134). For more information about using a respirator, see OSHA's respiratory protection safety and health topics page (<I>https://www.osha.gov/respiratory-protection</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Respirators provided by employers.</I> Where employers provide respirators to their employees, the employer must comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Training.</I> The employer must ensure that each employee wearing a respirator receives training prior to first use and if they change the type of respirator, in a language and at a literacy level the employee understands, and comprehends at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) How to inspect, put on and remove, and use a respirator;
</P>
<P>(ii) The limitations and capabilities of the respirator, particularly when the respirator has not been fit tested;
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures and schedules for storing, maintaining, and inspecting respirators;
</P>
<P>(iv) How to perform a user seal check as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) How to recognize medical signs and symptoms that may limit or prevent the effective use of respirators and what to do if the employee experiences signs and symptoms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>User seal check.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that each employee who uses a tight-fitting respirator performs a user seal check to ensure that the respirator is properly seated to the face each time the respirator is put on. Acceptable methods of user seal checks include:
</P>
<P>(A) Positive pressure user seal check (<I>i.e.,</I> blow air out). Once you have conducted proper hand hygiene and properly donned the respirator, place your hands over the facepiece, covering as much surface area as possible. Exhale gently into the facepiece. The face fit is considered satisfactory if a slight positive pressure is being built up inside the facepiece without any evidence of outward leakage of air at the seal. Examples of evidence that it is leaking could be the feeling of air movement on your face along the seal of the facepiece, fogging of your glasses, or a lack of pressure being built up inside the facepiece. If the particulate respirator has an exhalation valve, then performing a positive pressure check may not be possible unless the user can cover the exhalation valve. In such cases, a negative pressure check must be performed.
</P>
<P>(B) Negative pressure user seal check (<I>i.e.,</I> suck air in). Once you have conducted proper hand hygiene and properly donned the respirator, cover the filter surface with your hands as much as possible and then inhale. The facepiece should collapse on your face and you should not feel air passing between your face and the facepiece.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that each employee corrects any problems discovered during the user seal check. In the case of either type of user seal check (positive or negative), if air leaks around the nose, use both hands to readjust how the respirator sits on your face or adjust the nosepiece, if applicable. Readjust the straps along the sides of your head until a proper seal is achieved.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>When employees are required to wear a respirator and a problem with the seal check arises due to interference with the seal by an employee's facial hair, employers may provide a different type of respirator to accommodate employees who cannot trim or cut facial hair due to religious belief.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Reuse of respirators.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that a filtering facepiece respirator used by a particular employee is only reused by that employee, and only when:
</P>
<P>(A) The respirator is not visibly soiled or damaged;
</P>
<P>(B) The respirator has been stored in a breathable storage container (<I>e.g.,</I> paper bag) for at least five calendar days between use and has been kept away from water or moisture;
</P>
<P>(C) The employee does a visual check in adequate lighting for damage to the respirator's fabric or seal;
</P>
<P>(D) The employee successfully completes a user seal check as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) The employee uses proper hand hygiene before putting the respirator on and conducting the user seal check; and
</P>
<P>(F) The respirator has not been worn more than five days total.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>The reuse of single-use respirators (<I>e.g.,</I> filtering facepiece respirators) is discouraged.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that an elastomeric respirator or PAPR is only reused when:
</P>
<P>(A) The respirator is not damaged;
</P>
<P>(B) The respirator is cleaned and disinfected as often as necessary to be maintained in a sanitary condition in accordance with § 1910.134, Appendix B-2; and
</P>
<P>(C) A change schedule is implemented for cartridges, canisters, or filters.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Discontinuing use of respirators.</I> Employers must require employees to discontinue use of a respirator when either the employee or a supervisor reports medical signs or symptoms (<I>e.g.,</I> shortness of breath, coughing, wheezing, chest pain, any other symptoms related to lung problems, cardiovascular symptoms) that are related to ability to use a respirator. Any employee who previously had a medical evaluation and was determined to not be medically fit to wear a respirator must not be provided with a respirator under this standard unless they are re-evaluated and medically cleared to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective as of June 21, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32620, June 21, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 3929, Jan. 26, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.505" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.21.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.505   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>Each section of this subpart U, and each provision within those sections, is separate and severable from the other sections and provisions. If any provision of this subpart is held to be invalid or unenforceable on its face, or as applied to any person, entity, or circumstance, or is stayed or enjoined, that provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this subpart and shall not affect the remainder of the subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.509" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.21.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.509   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The material listed in this section is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, OSHA must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at any Regional Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), or at the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3508, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627). It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of these standards at NARA, email <I>fedreg.legal@nara.gov</I>, or go to <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(2) The material is available from the sources listed in this section and as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The material listed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section (CDC and EPA) is available at this permanent weblink hosted by OSHA: <I>www.osha.gov/coronavirus/ets/ibr</I>.
</P>
<P>(ii) The material listed in paragraph (d) of this section (ISEA) is available from the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4900; fax: 212-398-0023; website: <I>http://www.ansi.org</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC): 1600 Clifton Road, Atlanta, GA 30329; websites: <I>https://www.cdc.gov/, https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/communication/guidance.html</I>, and <I>https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/guidelines/</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cleaning and Disinfecting Guidance.</I> COVID-19: Cleaning and Disinfecting Your Facility; Every Day and When Someone is Sick, updated April 5, 2021, IBR approved for § 1910.502(j).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>COVID-19 Infection Prevention and Control Recommendations.</I> COVID-19: Interim Infection Prevention and Control Recommendations for Healthcare Personnel During the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19) Pandemic, updated February 23, 2021, IBR approved for §§ 1910.502(d) and (j).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Guidelines for Isolation Precautions.</I> 2007 Guideline for Isolation Precautions: Preventing Transmission of Infectious Agents in Healthcare Settings, updated July 2019, IBR approved for §§ 1910.502(e) and (f).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Guidelines for Environmental Infection Control.</I> Guidelines for Environmental Infection Control in Health-Care Facilities, updated July 2019, IBR approved for § 1910.502(j).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Isolation Guidance.</I> COVID-19: Isolation If You Are Sick; Separate yourself from others if you have COVID-19, updated February 18, 2021, IBR approved for § 1910.502(l).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Return to Work Healthcare Guidance.</I> COVID-19: Return to Work Criteria for Healthcare Personnel with SARS-CoV-2 Infection (Interim Guidance), updated February 16, 2021, IBR approved for § 1910.502(l).
</P>
<P>(c) U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA): 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20460; website: <I>https://www.epa.gov/</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) List N. Pesticide Registration List N: Disinfectants for Coronavirus (COVID-19), updated April 9, 2021, IBR approved for § 1910.502(b).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) International Safety Equipment Association (ISEA): 1901 North Moore Street, Suite 808, Arlington, VA 22209; website: <I>www.safetyequipment.org</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, American National Standard for Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, ANSI-approved April 13, 2010, IBR approved for § 1910.502(b).
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2015, American National Standard for Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, ANSI-approved May 28, 2015, IBR approved for § 1910.502(b).
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2020, American National Standard for Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, ANSI-approved March 11, 2020, IBR approved for § 1910.502(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32620, June 21, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 3929, Jan. 26, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="V" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.22" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts V-Y [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1910.901-1910.999" NODE="29:5.1.1.1.8.23.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1910.901-1910.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Feb. 13, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="6" NODE="29:6" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 6</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvii</E>—Occupational Safety and Health Administration, Department of Labor (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1910


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="29:6.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="XVII" NODE="29:6.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVII—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF LABOR (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1910" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1910—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH STANDARDS (CONTINUED)
</HEAD>

<DIV6 N="Z" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Z—Toxic and Hazardous Substances</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), or 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355) or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), 08-2020 (85 FR 58393), or 07-2025 (90 FR 27878); 29 CFR part 1911; and 5 U.S.C. 553, as applicable.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
</DIV6>

<EXTRACT>
<P>All of subpart Z issued under 29 U.S.C. 655(b), except those substances that have exposure limits listed in Tables Z-1, Z-2, and Z-3 of § 1910.1000. The latter were issued under 29 U.S.C. 655(a).
</P>
<P>Section 1910.1000, Tables Z-1, Z-2 and Z-3 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553, but not under 29 CFR part 1911 except for the arsenic (organic compounds), benzene, cotton dust, and chromium (VI) listings.
</P>
<P>Section 1910.1001 also issued under 40 U.S.C. 3704 and 5 U.S.C. 553.
</P>
<P>Section 1910.1002 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553, but not under 29 U.S.C. 655 or 29 CFR part 1911.
</P>
<P>Sections 1910.1018, 1910.1029, and 1910.1200 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 653.
</P>
<P>Section 1910.1030 also issued under Public Law 106-430, 114 Stat. 1901.
</P>
<P>Section 1910.1201 also issued under 49 U.S.C. 1801-1819 and 5 U.S.C. 553.</P></EXTRACT>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 40 FR 23072, May 28, 1975.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1910 appear at 84 FR 21597, May 14, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1000" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1000   Air contaminants.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's exposure to any substance listed in Tables Z-1, Z-2, or Z-3 of this section shall be limited in accordance with the requirements of the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Table Z-1</I>—(1) <I>Substances with limits preceded by “C”—Ceiling Values.</I> An employee's exposure to any substance in Table Z-1, the exposure limit of which is preceded by a “C”, shall at no time exceed the exposure limit given for that substance. If instantaneous monitoring is not feasible, then the ceiling shall be assessed as a 15-minute time weighted average exposure which shall not be exceeded at any time during the working day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other substances—8-hour Time Weighted Averages.</I> An employee's exposure to any substance in Table Z-1, the exposure limit of which is not preceded by a “C”, shall not exceed the 8-hour Time Weighted Average given for that substance in any 8-hour work shift of a 40-hour work week.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Table Z-2.</I> An employee's exposure to any substance listed in Table Z-2 shall not exceed the exposure limits specified as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>8-hour time weighted averages.</I> An employee's exposure to any substance listed in Table Z-2, in any 8-hour work shift of a 40-hour work week, shall not exceed the 8-hour time weighted average limit given for that substance in Table Z-2.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acceptable ceiling concentrations.</I> An employee's exposure to a substance listed in Table Z-2 shall not exceed at any time during an 8-hour shift the acceptable ceiling concentration limit given for the substance in the table, except for a time period, and up to a concentration not exceeding the maximum duration and concentration allowed in the column under “acceptable maximum peak above the acceptable ceiling concentration for an 8-hour shift.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> During an 8-hour work shift, an employee may be exposed to a concentration of Substance A (with a 10 ppm TWA, 25 ppm ceiling and 50 ppm peak) above 25 ppm (but never above 50 ppm) only for a maximum period of 10 minutes. Such exposure must be compensated by exposures to concentrations less than 10 ppm so that the cumulative exposure for the entire 8-hour work shift does not exceed a weighted average of 10 ppm.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Table Z-3.</I> An employee's exposure to any substance listed in Table Z-3, in any 8-hour work shift of a 40-hour work week, shall not exceed the 8-hour time weighted average limit given for that substance in the table.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Computation formulae.</I> The computation formula which shall apply to employee exposure to more than one substance for which 8-hour time weighted averages are listed in subpart Z of 29 CFR part 1910 in order to determine whether an employee is exposed over the regulatory limit is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The cumulative exposure for an 8-hour work shift shall be computed as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>E = (C<E T="52">a</E> T<E T="52">a</E> + C<E T="52">b</E> T<E T="52">b</E> + . . .C<E T="52">n</E> T<E T="52">n</E>) ÷ 8
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E is the equivalent exposure for the working shift.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C is the concentration during any period of time T where the concentration remains constant.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T is the duration in hours of the exposure at the concentration C.
</FP-2>
<FP>The value of E shall not exceed the 8-hour time weighted average specified in subpart Z of 29 CFR part 1910 for the substance involved.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) To illustrate the formula prescribed in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, assume that Substance A has an 8-hour time weighted average limit of 100 ppm noted in Table Z-1. Assume that an employee is subject to the following exposure:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Two hours exposure at 150 ppm
</FP-1>
<FP-2>Two hours exposure at 75 ppm
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Four hours exposure at 50 ppm
</FP-2>
<P>Substituting this information in the formula, we have</P></EXTRACT>
<FP-2>(2 × 150 + 2 × 75 + 4 × 50) ÷ 8 = 81.25 ppm
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Since 81.25 ppm is less than 100 ppm, the 8-hour time weighted average limit, the exposure is acceptable.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2)(i) In case of a mixture of air contaminants an employer shall compute the equivalent exposure as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">m</E> = (C<E T="52">1</E> ÷ L<E T="52">1</E> + C<E T="52">2</E> ÷ L<E T="52">2</E>) + . . .(C<E T="52">n</E> ÷ L<E T="52">n</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">m</E> is the equivalent exposure for the mixture.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C is the concentration of a particular contaminant.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L is the exposure limit for that substance specified in subpart Z of 29 CFR part 1910.
</FP-2>
<FP>The value of E<E T="52">m</E> shall not exceed unity (1).</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) To illustrate the formula prescribed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, consider the following exposures:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Actual concentration of 8-hour exposure (ppm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8-hour TWA PEL (ppm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Substituting in the formula, we have:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">m</E> = 500 ÷ 1,000 + 45 ÷ 200 + 40 ÷ 200
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">m</E> = 0.500 + 0.225 + 0.200
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">m</E> = 0.925
</FP-2>
<FP>Since E<E T="52">m</E> is less than unity (1), the exposure combination is within acceptable limits.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) To achieve compliance with paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, administrative or engineering controls must first be determined and implemented whenever feasible. When such controls are not feasible to achieve full compliance, protective equipment or any other protective measures shall be used to keep the exposure of employees to air contaminants within the limits prescribed in this section. Any equipment and/or technical measures used for this purpose must be approved for each particular use by a competent industrial hygienist or other technically qualified person. Whenever respirators are used, their use shall comply with 1910.134.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table Z-1—Limits for Air Contaminants
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CAS No. (c)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ppm (a) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mg/m
<sup>3</sup> (b) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skin designation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-07-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-19-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-24-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-64-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2400
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetonitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-05-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Acetylaminofluorine; see 1910.1014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53-96-3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetylene dichloride; see 1,2-Dichloroethylene.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetylene tetrabromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-27-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrolein</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-02-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-06-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylonitrile; see 1910.1045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-13-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aldrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">309-00-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-18-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-05-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl glycidyl ether (AGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-92-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)45
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl propyl disulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2179-59-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">alpha-Alumina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1344-28-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum, metal (as Al)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7429-90-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Aminodiphenyl; see 1910.1011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-67-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Aminoethanol; see Ethanolamine.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Aminopyridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">504-29-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium sulfamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7773-06-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Amyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">628-63-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">525
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">sec-Amyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">626-38-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aniline and homologs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-53-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anisidine (o-, p-isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29191-52-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony and compounds (as Sb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-36-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANTU (alpha Naphthylthiourea)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86-88-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic, inorganic compounds (as As); see 1910.1018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-38-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic, organic compounds (as As)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-38-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7784-42-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos; see 1910.1001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Azinphos-methyl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86-50-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium, soluble compounds (as Ba)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7727-43-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benomyl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17804-35-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzene; see 1910.1028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-43-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">See Table Z-2 for the limits applicable in the operations or sectors excluded in 1910.1028 
<sup>d</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzidine; see 1910.1010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-87-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Benzoquinone; see Quinone.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzo(a)pyrene; see Coal tar pitch volatiles.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzoyl peroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-36-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-44-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium and beryllium compounds (as Be); see 1926.1124 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Biphenyl; see Diphenyl.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth telluride, Undoped</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1304-82-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boron oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1303-86-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boron trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7637-07-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7726-95-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromoform</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-25-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butadiene (1,3-Butadiene); See 29 CFR 1910.1051; 29 CFR 1910.19(l)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-99-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 ppm/5 ppm STEL
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butanethiol; see Butyl mercaptan.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Butanone (Methyl ethyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-93-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">590
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Butoxyethanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-76-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Butyl-acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-86-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">sec-Butyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105-46-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">tert-Butyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540-88-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-36-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">sec-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-92-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">450
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">tert-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-65-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-73-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">tert-Butyl chromate (as CrO<E T="52">3</E>); see 1910.1026 
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1189-85-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Butyl glycidyl ether (BGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2426-08-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-79-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-tert-Butyltoluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-51-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium (as Cd); see 1910.1027</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-43-9
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium carbonate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium hydroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1305-62-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1305-78-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium silicate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1344-95-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7778-18-9
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camphor, synthetic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-22-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbaryl (Sevin)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63-25-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon black</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1333-86-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124-38-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon disulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-15-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon monoxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">630-08-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon tetrachloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-23-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9004-34-6
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlordane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-74-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated camphene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8001-35-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated diphenyl oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55720-99-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-50-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10049-04-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7790-91-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroacetaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-20-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a-Chloroacetophenone (Phenacyl chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">532-27-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-90-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o-Chlorobenzylidene malononitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2698-41-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorobromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-97-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1050
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene; see beta-Chloroprene.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorodiphenyl (42% Chlorine) (PCB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53469-21-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorodiphenyl (54% Chlorine) (PCB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11097-69-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane; see Epichlorohydrin.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Chloroethanol; see Ethylene chlorohydrin.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroethylene; see Vinyl chloride.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroform (Trichloromethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-66-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)240
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">bis(Chloromethyl) ether; see 1910.1008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542-88-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloromethyl methyl ether; see 1910.1006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-30-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Chloro-1-nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600-25-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloropicrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-06-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">beta-Chloroprene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126-99-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Chloro-6-(trichloromethyl) pyridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1929-82-4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium (II) compounds.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium (III) compounds.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium (VI) compounds; See 1910.1026 
<sup>5</sup> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium metal and insol. salts (as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysene; see Coal tar pitch volatiles.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clopidol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2971-90-6
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coal dust (less than 5% SiO<E T="52">2</E>), respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coal dust (greater than or equal to 5% SiO<E T="52">2</E>), respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coal tar pitch volatiles (benzene soluble fraction), anthracene, BaP, phenanthrene, acridine, chrysene, pyrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65966-93-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt metal, dust, and fume (as Co)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-48-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coke oven emissions; see 1910.1029.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-50-8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fume (as Cu)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dusts and mists (as Cu)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cotton dust 
<sup>e</sup>; see 1910.1043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crag herbicide (Sesone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136-78-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cresol, all isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1319-77-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crotonaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-73-9;
<br/>4170-30-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-82-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanides (as CN)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-82-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1050
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-93-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-94-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-83-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1015
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclopentadiene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542-92-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4-D (Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-75-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decaborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17702-41-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Demeton (Systox)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8065-48-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diacetone alcohol (4-Hydroxy-4-methyl-2-pentanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-42-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Diaminoethane; see Ethylenediamine.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diazomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">334-88-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19287-45-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (DBCP); see 1910.1044</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-12-8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dibromoethane; see Ethylene dibromide.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-66-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl phthalate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84-74-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o-Dichlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-50-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)300
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Dichlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-46-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">450
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,′-Dichlorobenzidine; see 1910.1007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-94-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorodifluoromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-71-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4950
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Dichloro-5,5-dimethyl hydantoin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118-52-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-29-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1-Dichloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-34-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloroethane; see Ethylene dichloride.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540-59-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">790
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloroethyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-44-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloromethane; see Methylene chloride.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloromonofluoromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-43-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1-Dichloro-1-nitroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594-72-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)60
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloropropane; see Propylene dichloride.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorotetrafluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-14-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorvos (DDVP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-73-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicyclopentadienyl iron</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102-54-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dieldrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-57-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-89-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Diethylaminoethanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-37-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethyl ether; see Ethyl ether.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Difluorodibromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-61-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">860
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diglycidyl ether (DGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2238-07-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)2.8
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dihydroxybenzene; see Hydroquinone.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisobutyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-83-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">290
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisopropylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-18-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene; see 1910.1015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-11-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethoxymethane; see Methylal.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl acetamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127-19-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124-40-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylaminobenzene; see Xylidine
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylaniline (N,N-Dimethylaniline)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-69-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylbenzene; see Xylene.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl-1,2-dibromo-2,2-dichloroethyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300-76-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylformamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68-12-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Dimethyl-4-heptanone; see Diisobutyl ketone.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1-Dimethylhydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-14-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylphthalate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">131-11-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77-78-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinitrobenzene (all isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ortho)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">528-29-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(meta)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-65-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(para)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-25-4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinitro-o-cresol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">534-52-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinitrotoluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25321-14-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dioxane (Diethylene dioxide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-91-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenyl (Biphenyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-52-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenylmethane diisocyanate; see Methylene bisphenyl isocyanate.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol methyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34590-94-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-sec octyl phthalate (Di-(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117-81-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12415-34-8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72-20-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-89-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">EPN</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2104-64-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Epoxypropane; see Propylene oxide.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,3-Epoxy-1-propanol; see Glycidol.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethanethiol; see Ethyl mercaptan.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethanolamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-43-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Ethoxyethanol (Cellosolve)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-80-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Ethoxyethyl acetate (Cellosolve acetate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-15-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-78-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1400
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl acrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140-88-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-17-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1900
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-04-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl amyl ketone (5-Methyl-3-heptanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">541-85-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl benzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-41-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">435
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-96-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">890
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl butyl ketone (3-Heptanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-35-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-00-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2600
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-29-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl formate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-94-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-08-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)25
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl silicate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-10-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">850
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene chlorohydrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-07-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-15-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dibromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-93-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dichloride (1,2-Dichloroethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-06-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol dinitrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">628-96-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol methyl acetate; see Methyl cellosolve acetate.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyleneimine; see 1910.1012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151-56-4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene oxide; see 1910.1047</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-21-8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylidene chloride; see 1,1-Dichloroethane.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-Ethylmorpholine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-74-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ferbam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14484-64-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ferrovanadium dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12604-58-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorides (as F)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-41-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorotrichloromethane (Trichlorofluoromethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-69-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5600
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde; see 1910.1048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-00-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-18-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furfural</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-01-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furfuryl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-00-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grain dust (oat, wheat, barley)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerin (mist)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-81-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycidol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">556-52-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol monoethyl ether; see 2-Ethoxyethanol.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Graphite, natural, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-42-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Graphite, synthetic
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guthion; see Azinphos methyl.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gypsum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13397-24-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-58-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heptachlor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-44-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heptane (n-Heptane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142-82-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexachloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-72-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1335-87-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Hexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-54-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1800
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Hexanone (Methyl n-butyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591-78-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexone (Methyl isobutyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-10-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">sec-Hexyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-84-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">302-01-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10035-10-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7647-01-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)7
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen cyanide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-90-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen fluoride (as F)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen peroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7722-84-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen selenide (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-07-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen sulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-06-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroquinone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-31-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7553-56-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1309-37-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isoamyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-92-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">525
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isoamyl alcohol (primary and secondary)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-51-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-19-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-83-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isophorone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-59-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-21-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-63-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">980
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-31-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-20-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2100
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl glycidyl ether (IGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4016-14-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kaolin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1332-58-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ketene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">463-51-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead, inorganic (as Pb); see 1910.1025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-92-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Limestone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lindane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58-89-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium hydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7580-67-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.025
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L.P.G. (Liquefied petroleum gas)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68476-85-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1800
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">546-93-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1309-48-4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total particulate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Malathion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-75-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-31-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese compounds (as Mn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-96-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese fume (as Mn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-96-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marble</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury (aryl and inorganic) (as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury (organo) alkyl compounds (as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury (vapor) (as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mesityl oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-79-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methanethiol; see Methyl mercaptan.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methoxychlor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72-43-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Methoxyethanol (Methyl cellosolve)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-86-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Methoxyethyl acetate (Methyl cellosolve acetate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-49-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-20-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acetylene (Propyne)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-99-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1650
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acetylene-propadiene mixture (MAPP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1800
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-33-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylal (Dimethoxy-methane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-87-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3100
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-56-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-89-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl amyl alcohol; see Methyl isobutyl carbinol.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl n-amyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-43-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">465
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-83-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl butyl ketone; see 2-Hexanone.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl cellosolve; see 2-Methoxyethanol.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl cellosolve acetate; see 2-Methoxyethyl acetate.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-87-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl chloroform (1,1,1-Trichloroethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-55-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1900
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylcyclohexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-87-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylcyclohexanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25639-42-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">470
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o-Methylcyclohexanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">583-60-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">460</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylene chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-09-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK); see 2-Butanone.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl formate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-31-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl hydrazine (Monomethyl hydrazine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-34-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl iodide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-88-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isoamyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-12-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">475
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isobutyl carbinol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-11-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isobutyl ketone; see Hexone.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isocyanate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">624-83-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-93-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)20
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl methacrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-62-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl propyl ketone; see 2-Pentanone.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">alpha-Methyl styrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-83-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)480
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylene bisphenyl isocyanate (MDI)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101-68-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mica; see Silicates.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum (as Mo)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-98-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Insoluble compounds.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em"> Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monomethyl aniline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-61-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monomethyl hydrazine; see Methyl hydrazine.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Morpholine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-91-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphtha (Coal tar)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8030-30-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-20-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">alpha-Naphthylamine; see 1910.1004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134-32-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">beta-Naphthylamine; see 1910.1009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-59-8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel carbonyl (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13463-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.007
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel, metal and insoluble compounds (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-02-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel, soluble compounds (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-02-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nicotine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54-11-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7697-37-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitric oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-43-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Nitroaniline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-01-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-95-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Nitrochlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-00-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Nitrodiphenyl; see 1910.1003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-93-3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-24-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">310
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-44-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)9
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-54-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitroglycerin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55-63-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-52-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-03-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-46-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-Nitrosodimethylamine; see 1910.1016.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrotoluene (all isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">o-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88-72-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">m-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-08-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">p-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-99-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrotrichloromethane; see Chloropicrin.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2234-13-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-65-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2350
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil mist, mineral</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8012-95-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium tetroxide (as Os)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20816-12-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxalic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144-62-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxygen difluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ozone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10028-15-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraquat, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4685-14-7;
<br/>1910-42-5;
<br/>2074-50-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parathion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-38-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Particulates not otherwise regulated (PNOR) 
<sup>f</sup>.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PCB; see Chlorodiphenyl (42% and 54% chlorine).
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19624-22-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1321-64-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentachlorophenol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87-86-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115-77-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-66-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2950
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Pentanone (Methyl propyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-87-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloroethylene (Tetrachloroethylene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127-18-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloromethyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594-42-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloryl fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7616-94-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum distillates (Naphtha) (Rubber Solvent)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-95-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Phenylene diamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-50-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl ether, vapor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101-84-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl ether-biphenyl mixture, vapor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenylethylene; see Styrene.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl glycidyl ether (PGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122-60-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenylhydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-63-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosdrin (Mevinphos)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7786-34-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosgene (Carbonyl chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-44-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-51-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-38-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus (yellow)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7723-14-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus pentachloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10026-13-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus pentasulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-80-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus trichloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7719-12-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phthalic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-44-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Picloram</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1918-02-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Picric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88-89-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pindone (2-Pivalyl-1,3-indandione)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83-26-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plaster of Paris</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26499-65-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum (as Pt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-06-4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Metal
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Portland cement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65997-15-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-98-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1800
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">beta-Propriolactone; see 1910.1013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-57-8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Propyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-60-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">840
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Propyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-23-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Propyl nitrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">627-13-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene dichloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-87-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene imine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-55-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-56-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyne; see Methyl acetylene.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pyrethrum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8003-34-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pyridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-86-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quinone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-51-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RDX; see Cyclonite.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium (as Rh), metal fume and insoluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-16-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium (as Rh), soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-16-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ronnel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">299-84-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rotenone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83-79-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rouge
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium compounds (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-49-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium hexafluoride (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-79-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica, amorphous, precipitated and gel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112926-00-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica, amorphous, diatomaceous earth, containing less than 1% crystalline silica</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61790-53-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)


</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica, crystalline, respirable dust
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cristobalite; see 1910.1053 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14464-46-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Quartz; see 1910.1053 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14808-60-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tripoli (as quartz); see 1910.1053 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-95-9
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tridymite; see 1910.1053 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15468-32-3




</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica, fused, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60676-86-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicates (less than 1% crystalline silica)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Mica (respirable dust)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12001-26-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soapstone, total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soapstone, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Talc (containing asbestos); use asbestos limit; see 29 CFR 1910.1001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Talc (containing no asbestos), respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14807-96-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  Tremolite, asbestiform; see 1910.1001.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-21-3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon carbide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">409-21-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver, metal and soluble compounds (as Ag)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-22-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soapstone; see Silicates.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium fluoroacetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-74-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hydroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1310-73-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Starch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9005-25-8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stibine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-52-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stoddard solvent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8052-41-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2900
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strychnine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-24-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-42-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sucrose</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-50-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7446-09-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur hexafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2551-62-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfuric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-93-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur monochloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10025-67-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur pentafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5714-22-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfuryl fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2699-79-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Systox; see Demeton.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,5-T (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxyacetic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93-76-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Talc; see Silicates.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum, metal and oxide dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-25-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TEDP (Sulfotep)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3689-24-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium and compounds (as Te)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13494-80-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium hexafluoride (as Te)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-80-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Temephos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3383-96-8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TEPP (Tetraethyl pyrophosphate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-49-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terphenyls</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26140-60-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)9
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-2,2-difluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-11-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4170
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-1,2-difluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-12-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4170
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-34-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachloroethylene; see Perchloroethylene.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachloromethane; see Carbon tetrachloride.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1335-88-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetraethyl lead (as Pb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-00-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-99-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">590
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethyl lead (as Pb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-74-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethyl succinonitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3333-52-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetranitromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">509-14-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetryl (2,4,6-Trinitrophenylmethylnitramine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">479-45-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium, soluble compounds (as Tl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-28-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Thiobis (6-tert, Butyl-m-cresol)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-69-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiram</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">137-26-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin, inorganic compounds (except oxides) (as Sn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-31-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin, organic compounds (as Sn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-31-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13463-67-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-88-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene-2,4-diisocyanate (TDI)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">584-84-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.14
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o-Toluidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-53-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toxaphene; see Chlorinated camphene.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite; see Silicates.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tributyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126-73-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,1-Trichloroethane; see Methyl chloroform.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2-Trichloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-00-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-01-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloromethane; see Chloroform.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1321-65-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2,3-Trichloropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-18-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-13-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7600
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-44-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trifluorobromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-63-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6100
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,6-Trinitrophenol; see Picric acid.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,6-Trinitrophenylmethylnitramine; see Tetryl.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,6-Trinitrotoluene (TNT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118-96-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triorthocresyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-30-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triphenyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115-86-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turpentine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8006-64-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">560
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium (as U)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-61-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Insoluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-62-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable dust (as V<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fume (as V<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vegetable oil mist
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl benzene; see Styrene.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl chloride; see 1910.1017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-01-4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl cyanide; see Acrylonitrile.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25013-15-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">480
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warfarin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81-81-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylenes (o-, m-, p-isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1330-20-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">435
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1300-73-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-65-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc chloride fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7646-85-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-13-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-13-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc stearate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">557-05-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium compounds (as Zr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-67-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The PELs are 8-hour TWAs unless otherwise noted; a (C) designation denotes a ceiling limit. They are to be determined from breathing-zone air samples.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(a) Parts of vapor or gas per million parts of contaminated air by volume at 25 °C and 760 torr.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(b) Milligrams of substance per cubic meter of air. When entry is in this column only, the value is exact; when listed with a ppm entry, it is approximate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(c) The CAS number is for information only. Enforcement is based on the substance name. For an entry covering more than one metal compound, measured as the metal, the CAS number for the metal is given—not CAS numbers for the individual compounds.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(d) The final benzene standard in 1910.1028 applies to all occupational exposures to benzene except in some circumstances the distribution and sale of fuels, sealed containers and pipelines, coke production, oil and gas drilling and production, natural gas processing, and the percentage exclusion for liquid mixtures; for the excepted subsegments, the benzene limits in Table Z-2 apply. See 1910.1028 for specific circumstances.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(e) This 8-hour TWA applies to respirable dust as measured by a vertical elutriator cotton dust sampler or equivalent instrument. The time-weighted average applies to the cottom waste processing operations of waste recycling (sorting, blending, cleaning and willowing) and garnetting. See also 1910.1043 for cotton dust limits applicable to other sectors.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(f) All inert or nuisance dusts, whether mineral, inorganic, or organic, not listed specifically by substance name are covered by the Particulates Not Otherwise Regulated (PNOR) limit which is the same as the inert or nuisance dust limit of Table Z-3.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> See Table Z-2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> See Table Z-3.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Varies with compound.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> See Table Z-2 for the exposure limit for any operations or sectors where the exposure limit in § 1910.1026 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> If the exposure limit in § 1910.1026 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect, the exposure limit is a ceiling of 0.1 mg/m
<sup>3</sup>.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> See Table Z-3 for the exposure limit for any operations or sectors where the exposure limit in § 1910.1053 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> <E T="03">See</E> Table Z-2 for the exposure limits for any operations or sectors where the exposure limits in § 1910.1024 are stayed or otherwise not in effect.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table Z-2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">8-hour time weighted average
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Acceptable ceiling concentration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Acceptable maximum peak above the acceptable ceiling concentration for an 8-hr shift
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum duration
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzene 
<sup>a</sup> (Z37.40-1969)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 minutes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium and beryllium compounds (Z37.29-1970) 
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 µg/m
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 µg/m
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 µg/m
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 minutes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium fume 
<sup>b</sup> (Z37.5-1970)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 mg/m
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3 mg/m
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium dust 
<sup>b</sup> (Z37.5-1970)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 mg/m
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 mg/m
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon disulfide (Z37.3-1968)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 minutes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon tetrachloride (Z37.17-1967)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 min. in any 4 hrs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromic acid and chromates (Z37.7-1971) (as CrO<E T="52">3</E>)
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 mg/10m
<sup>3</sup> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dibromide (Z37.31-1970)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 minutes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dichloride (Z37.21-1969)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 min. in any 3 hrs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluoride as dust (Z37.28-1969)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 mg/m
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde; see 1910.1048
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen fluoride (Z37.28-1969)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 ppm
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen sulfide (Z37.2-1966)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 mins. once, only if no other meas. exp. occurs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury (Z37.8-1971)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 mg/10m
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl chloride (Z37.18-1969)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 mins. in any 3 hrs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylene Chloride: See § 1919.52.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Organo (alkyl) mercury (Z37.30-1969)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 mg/m
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04 mg/m
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene (Z37.15-1969)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">600 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 mins. in any 3 hrs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachloroethylene (Z37.22-1967)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 mins. in any 3 hrs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene (Z37.12-1967)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 minutes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloroethylene (Z37.19-1967)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 ppm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 mins. in any 2 hrs.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> This standard applies to the industry segments exempt from the 1 ppm 8-hour TWA and 5 ppm STEL of the benzene standard at 1910.1028.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> This standard applies to any operations or sectors for which the Cadmium standard, 1910.1027, is stayed or otherwise not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> This standard applies to any operations or sectors for which the exposure limit in the Chromium (VI) standard, § 1910.1026, is stayed or is otherwise not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> This standard applies to any operations or sectors for which the exposure limits in the beryllium standard, § 1910.1024, are stayed or is otherwise not in effect.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table Z-3—Mineral Dusts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mppcf 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mg/m
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crystalline
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Quartz (Respirable) 
<sup>f</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 mg/m
<sup>3</sup> 
<sup>e</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">% SiO<E T="52">2</E> + 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">% SiO<E T="52">2</E> + 2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cristobalite: Use 
<fr>1/2</fr> the value calculated from the count or mass formulae for quartz 
<sup>f</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tridymite: Use 
<fr>1/2</fr> the value calculated from the formulae for quartz 
<sup>f</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amorphous, including natural diatomaceous earth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 mg/m
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">%SiO<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicates (less than 1% crystalline silica):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mica</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Soapstone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Talc (not containing asbestos)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
<sup>c</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Talc (containing asbestos) Use asbestos limit
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tremolite, asbestiform (see 29 CFR 1910.1001)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Portland cement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Graphite (Natural)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coal Dust:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Respirable fraction less than 5% SiO<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 mg/m 
<sup>3</sup> 
<sup>e</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 mg/m 
<sup>3</sup> 
<sup>e</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Respirable fraction greater than 5% SiO<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">_____
<br/>%SiO<E T="52">2</E> + 2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inert or Nuisance Dust: 
<sup>d</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 mg/m 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 mg/m 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Note—Conversion factors - mppcf × 35.3 = million particles per cubic meter = particles per c.c.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Millions of particles per cubic foot of air, based on impinger samples counted by light-field techniques.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> The percentage of crystalline silica in the formula is the amount determined from airborne samples, except in those instances in which other methods have been shown to be applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Containing less than 1% quartz; if 1% quartz or more, use quartz limit.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> All inert or nuisance dusts, whether mineral, inorganic, or organic, not listed specifically by substance name are covered by this limit, which is the same as the Particulates Not Otherwise Regulated (PNOR) limit in Table Z-1.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> Both concentration and percent quartz for the application of this limit are to be determined from the fraction passing a size-selector with the following characteristics:</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aerodynamic diameter (unit density sphere)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent passing selector
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">The measurements under this note refer to the use of an AEC (now NRC) instrument. The respirable fraction of coal dust is determined with an MRE; the figure corresponding to that of 2.4 mg/m
<sup>3</sup> in the table for coal dust is 4.5 mg/m
<sup>3K</sup>.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> This standard applies to any operations or sectors for which the respirable crystalline silica standard, 1910.1053, is stayed or is otherwise not in effect.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35340, June 30, 1993; 58 FR 40191, July 27, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 56831, Nov. 4, 1996; 62 FR 1600, Jan. 10, 1997; 62 FR 42018, Aug. 4, 1997; 71 FR 10373, Feb. 28, 2006; 71 FR 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 36008, June 23, 2006; 81 FR 16861, Mar. 25, 2016; 81 FR 31167, May 18, 2016; 81 FR 60272, Sept. 1, 2016; 82 FR 2735, Jan. 9, 2017]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1001" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1001   Asbestos.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all occupational exposures to asbestos in all industries covered by the Occupational Safety and Health Act, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to construction work as defined in 29 CFR 1910.12(b). (Exposure to asbestos in construction work is covered by 29 CFR 1926.1101).
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking employments and related employments as defined in 29 CFR 1915.4. (Exposure to asbestos in these employments is covered by 29 CFR 1915.1001).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Asbestos</I> includes chrysotile, amosite, crocidolite, tremolite asbestos, anthophyllite asbestos, actinolite asbestos, and any of these minerals that have been chemically treated and/or altered.
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos-containing material</I> (ACM) means any material containing more than 1% asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person authorized by the employer and required by work duties to be present in regulated areas.
</P>
<P><I>Building/facility owner</I> is the legal entity, including a lessee, which exercises control over management and record keeping functions relating to a building and/or facility in which activities covered by this standard take place.
</P>
<P><I>Certified industrial hygienist (CIH)</I> means one certified in the practice of industrial hygiene by the American Board of Industrial Hygiene.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means that exposure to airborne asbestos that would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Fiber</I> means a particulate form of asbestos 5 micrometers or longer,with a length-to-diameter ratio of at least 3 to 1.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter</I> means a filter capable of trapping and retaining at least 99.97 percent of 0.3 micrometer diameter mono-disperse particles.
</P>
<P><I>Homogeneous area</I> means an area of surfacing material or thermal system insulation that is uniform in color and texture.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial hygienist</I> means a professional qualified by education, training, and experience to anticipate, recognize, evaluate and develop controls for occupational health hazards.
</P>
<P><I>PACM</I> means “presumed asbestos containing material.”
</P>
<P><I>Presumed asbestos containing material</I> means thermal system insulation and surfacing material found in buildings constructed no later than 1980. The designation of a material as “PACM” may be rebutted pursuant to paragraph (j)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area established by the employer to demarcate areas where airborne concentrations of asbestos exceed, or there is a reasonable possibility they may exceed, the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P><I>Surfacing ACM</I> means surfacing material which contains more than 1% asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Surfacing material</I> means material that is sprayed, troweled-on or otherwise applied to surfaces (such as acoustical plaster on ceilings and fireproofing materials on structural members, or other materials on surfaces for acoustical, fireproofing, and other purposes).
</P>
<P><I>Thermal System Insulation (TSI)</I> means ACM applied to pipes, fittings, boilers, breeching, tanks, ducts or other structural components to prevent heat loss or gain.
</P>
<P><I>Thermal System Insulation ACM</I> means thermal system insulation which contains more than 1% asbestos.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit (PELS)</I>—(1) <I>Time-weighted average limit (TWA).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of asbestos in excess of 0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average (TWA) as determined by the method prescribed in appendix A to this section, or by an equivalent method.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excursion limit.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of asbestos in excess of 1.0 fiber per cubic centimeter of air (1 f/cc) as averaged over a sampling period of thirty (30) minutes as determined by the method prescribed in appendix A to this section, or by an equivalent method.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of the 8-hour TWA and 30-minute short-term exposures of each employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Representative 8-hour TWA employee exposures shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing full-shift exposures for each shift for each employee in each job classification in each work area. Representative 30-minute short-term employee exposures shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing 30 minute exposures associated with operations that are most likely to produce exposures above the excursion limit for each shift for each job classification in each work area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this standard, except as provided for in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) and (d)(2)(iii) of this section, shall perform initial monitoring of employees who are, or may reasonably be expected to be exposed to airborne concentrations at or above the TWA permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer has monitored after March 31, 1992, for the TWA permissible exposure limit and/or the excursion limit, and the monitoring satisfies all other requirements of this section, the employer may rely on such earlier monitoring results to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer has relied upon objective data that demonstrate that asbestos is not capable of being released in airborne concentrations at or above the TWA permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit under the expected conditions of processing, use, or handling, then no initial monitoring is required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Monitoring frequency (periodic monitoring) and patterns.</I> After the initial determinations required by paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, samples shall be of such frequency and pattern as to represent with reasonable accuracy the levels of exposure of the employees. In no case shall sampling be at intervals greater than six months for employees whose exposures may reasonably be foreseen to exceed the TWA permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Changes in monitoring frequency.</I> If either the initial or the periodic monitoring required by paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) of this section statistically indicates that employee exposures are below the TWA permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) and (d)(4) of this section, the employer shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (d)(3) of this section whenever there has been a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel or work practices that may result in new or additional exposures above the TWA permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit or when the employer has any reason to suspect that a change may result in new or additional exposures above the PEL and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Method of monitoring.</I> (i) All samples taken to satisfy the monitoring requirements of paragraph (d) of this section shall be personal samples collected following the procedures specified in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(ii) All samples taken to satisfy the monitoring requirements of paragraph (d) of this section shall be evaluated using the OSHA Reference Method (ORM) specified in appendix A of this section, or an equivalent counting method.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an equivalent method to the ORM is used, the employer shall ensure that the method meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Replicate exposure data used to establish equivalency are collected in side-by-side field and laboratory comparisons; and
</P>
<P>(B) The comparison indicates that 90% of the samples collected in the range 0.5 to 2.0 times the permissible limit have an accuracy range of plus or minus 25 percent of the ORM results at a 95% confidence level as demonstrated by a statistically valid protocol; and
</P>
<P>(C) The equivalent method is documented and the results of the comparison testing are maintained.
</P>
<P>(iv) To satisfy the monitoring requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, employers must use the results of monitoring analysis performed by laboratories which have instituted quality assurance programs that include the elements as prescribed in appendix A of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this sections, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written notification required by paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section shall contain the corrective action being taken by the employer to reduce employee exposure to or below the TWA and/or excursion limit, wherever monitoring results indicated that the TWA and/or excursion limit had been exceeded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated Areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> The employer shall establish regulated areas wherever airborne concentrations of asbestos and/or PACM are in excess of the TWA and/or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> Regulated areas shall be demarcated from the rest of the workplace in any manner that minimizes the number of persons who will be exposed to asbestos.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons or to persons authorized by the Act or regulations issued pursuant thereto.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision of respirators.</I> Each person entering a regulated area shall be supplied with and required to use a respirator, selected in accordance with paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in the regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering controls and work practices.</I> (i) The employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices to reduce and maintain employee exposure to or below the TWA and/or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, except to the extent that such controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever the feasible engineering controls and work practices that can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the TWA and/or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For the following operations, wherever feasible engineering controls and work practices that can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce the employee exposure to or below the TWA and/or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to or below 0.5 fiber per cubic centimeter of air (as an eight-hour time-weighted average) or 2.5 fibers/cc for 30 minutes (short-term exposure) and shall supplement them by the use of any combination of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section, work practices and feasible engineering controls that will reduce employee exposure to or below the TWA and to or below the excursion limit permissible prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section: Coupling cutoff in primary asbestos cement pipe manufacturing; sanding in primary and secondary asbestos cement sheet manufacturing; grinding in primary and secondary friction product manufacturing; carding and spinning in dry textile processes; and grinding and sanding in primary plastics manufacturing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Local exhaust ventilation.</I> Local exhaust ventilation and dust collection systems shall be designed, constructed, installed, and maintained in accordance with good practices such as those found in the American National Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, ANSI Z9.2-1979.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Particular tools.</I> All hand-operated and power-operated tools which would produce or release fibers of asbestos, such as, but not limited to, saws, scorers, abrasive wheels, and drills, shall be provided with local exhaust ventilation systems which comply with paragraph (f)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Wet methods.</I> Insofar as practicable, asbestos shall be handled, mixed, applied, removed, cut, scored, or otherwise worked in a wet state sufficient to prevent the emission of airborne fibers so as to expose employees to levels in excess of the TWA and/or excursion limit, prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, unless the usefulness of the product would be diminished thereby.
</P>
<P>(vii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Particular products and operations.</I> No asbestos cement, mortar, coating, grout, plaster, or similar material containing asbestos, shall be removed from bags, cartons, or other containers in which they are shipped, without being either wetted, or enclosed, or ventilated so as to prevent effectively the release of airborne fibers.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Compressed air.</I> Compressed air shall not be used to remove asbestos or materials containing asbestos unless the compressed air is used in conjunction with a ventilation system which effectively captures the dust cloud created by the compressed air.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Flooring.</I> Sanding of asbestos-containing flooring material is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Where the TWA and/or excursion limit is exceeded, the employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce employee exposure to or below the TWA and to or below the excursion limit by means of engineering and work practice controls as required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and by the use of respiratory protection where required or permitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such programs shall be reviewed and updated as necessary to reflect significant changes in the status of the employer's compliance program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written programs shall be submitted upon request for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, affected employees and designated employee representatives.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall not use employee rotation as a means of compliance with the TWA and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(3) Specific compliance methods for brake and clutch repair:
</P>
<P>(i) Engineering controls and work practices for brake and clutch repair and service. During automotive brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair and assembly operations, the employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices to reduce employee exposure to materials containing asbestos using a negative pressure enclosure/HEPA vacuum system method or low pressure/wet cleaning method, which meets the detailed requirements set out in appendix F to this section. The employer may also comply using an equivalent method which follows written procedures which the employer demonstrates can achieve results equivalent to Method A in appendix F to this section. For facilities in which no more than 5 pair of brakes or 5 clutches are inspected, disassembled, repaired, or assembled per week, the method set forth in paragraph [D] of appendix F to this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer may also comply by using an equivalent method which follows written procedures, which the employer demonstrates can achieve equivalent exposure reductions as do the two “preferred methods.” Such demonstration must include monitoring data conducted under workplace conditions closely resembling the process, type of asbestos containing materials, control method, work practices and environmental conditions which the equivalent method will be used, or objective data, which document that under all reasonably foreseeable conditions of brake and clutch repair applications, the method results in exposures which are equivalent to the methods set out in appendix F to this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities, for which engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the TWA and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with 29 CFR 134 (b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers must provide an employee with a tight-fitting, powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) instead of a negative pressure respirator selected according to paragraph (g)(3) of this standard when the employee chooses to use a PAPR and it provides adequate protection to the employee. 
</P>
<P>(iii) No employee must be assigned to tasks requiring the use of respirators if, based on their most recent medical examination, the examining physician determines that the employee will be unable to function normally using a respirator, or that the safety or health of the employee or other employees will be impaired by the use of a respirator. Such employees must be assigned to another job or given the opportunity to transfer to a different position, the duties of which they can perform. If such a transfer position is available, the position must be with the same employer, in the same geographical area, and with the same seniority, status, and rate of pay the employee had just prior to such transfer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> Employers must:
</P>
<P>(i) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134; however, employers must not select or use filtering facepiece respirators for protection against asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> If an employee is exposed to asbestos above the TWA and/or excursion limit, or where the possibility of eye irritation exists, the employer shall provide at no cost to the employee and ensure that the employee uses appropriate protective work clothing and equipment such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Coveralls or similar full-body work clothing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gloves, head coverings, and foot coverings; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields, vented goggles, or other appropriate protective equipment which complies with 1910.133 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that employees remove work clothing contaminated with asbestos only in change rooms provided in accordance with paragraph (i)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that no employee takes contaminated work clothing out of the change room, except those employees authorized to do so for the purpose of laundering, maintenance, or disposal.
</P>
<P>(iii) Contaminated work clothing shall be placed and stored in closed containers which prevent dispersion of the asbestos outside the container.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that containers of contaminated protective devices or work clothing, which are to be taken out of change rooms or the workplace for cleaning, maintenance or disposal, bear labels in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall clean, launder, repair, or replace protective clothing and equipment required by this paragraph to maintain their effectiveness. The employer shall provide clean protective clothing and equipment at least weekly to each affected employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of asbestos from protective clothing and equipment by blowing or shaking. (iii) Laundering of contaminated clothing shall be done so as to prevent the release of airborne fibers of asbestos in excess of the permissible exposure limits prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any employer who gives contaminated clothing to another person for laundering shall inform such person of the requirement in paragraph (h)(3)(iii) of this section to effectively prevent the release of airborne fibers of asbestos in excess of the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment contaminated with asbestos of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall ensure that contaminated clothing is transported in sealed impermeable bags, or other closed, impermeable containers, and labeled in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices</I>—(1) <I>Change rooms.</I> (i) The employer shall provide clean change rooms for employees who work in areas where their airborne exposure to asbestos is above the TWA and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that change rooms are in accordance with 1910.141(e) of this part, and are equipped with two separate lockers or storage facilities, so separated as to prevent contamination of the employee's street clothes from his protective work clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that employees who work in areas where their airborne exposure is above the TWA and/or excursion limit, shower at the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide shower facilities which comply with 1910.141(d)(3) of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that employees who are required to shower pursuant to paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section do not leave the workplace wearing any clothing or equipment worn during the work shift.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lunchrooms.</I> (i) The employer shall provide lunchroom facilities for employees who work in areas where their airborne exposure is above the TWA and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that lunchroom facilities have a positive pressure, filtered air supply, and are readily accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that employees who work in areas where their airborne exposure is above the PEL and/or excursion limit wash their hands and faces prior to eating, drinking or smoking.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that employees do not enter lunchroom facilities with protective work clothing or equipment unless surface asbestos fibers have been removed from the clothing or equipment by vacuuming or other method that removes dust without causing the asbestos to become airborne.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Smoking in work areas.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not smoke in work areas where they are occupationally exposed to asbestos because of activities in that work area.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Communication of hazards to employees—Introduction.</I> This section applies to the communication of information concerning asbestos hazards in general industry to facilitate compliance with this standard. Asbestos exposure in general industry occurs in a wide variety of industrial and commercial settings. Employees who manufacture asbestos-containing products may be exposed to asbestos fibers. Employees who repair and replace automotive brakes and clutches may be exposed to asbestos fibers. In addition, employees engaged in housekeeping activities in industrial facilities with asbestos product manufacturing operations, and in public and commercial buildings with installed asbestos containing materials may be exposed to asbestos fibers. Most of these workers are covered by this general industry standard, with the exception of state or local governmental employees in non-state plan states. It should be noted that employees who perform housekeeping activities during and after construction activities are covered by the asbestos construction standard, 29 CFR 1926.1101, formerly 1926.58. However, housekeeping employees, regardless of industry designation, should know whether building components they maintain may expose them to asbestos. The same hazard communication provisions will protect employees who perform housekeeping operations in all three asbestos standards; general industry, construction, and shipyard employment. As noted in the construction standard, building owners are often the only and/or best source of information concerning the presence of previously installed asbestos containing building materials. Therefore they, along with employers of potentially exposed employees, are assigned specific information conveying and retention duties under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for asbestos.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of asbestos at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer and lung effects.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include asbestos in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of asbestos and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (j)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installed Asbestos Containing Material.</I> Employers and building owners are required to treat installed TSI and sprayed on and troweled-on surfacing materials as ACM in buildings constructed no later than 1980 for purposes of this standard. These materials are designated “presumed ACM or PACM”, and are defined in paragraph (b) of this section. Asphalt and vinyl flooring material installed no later than 1980 also must be treated as asbestos-containing. The employer or building owner may demonstrate that PACM and flooring material do not contain asbestos by complying with paragraph (j)(8)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duties of employers and building and facility owners.</I> (i) Building and facility owners shall determine the presence, location, and quantity of ACM and/or PACM at the work site. Employers and building and facility owners shall exercise due diligence in complying with these requirements to inform employers and employees about the presence and location of ACM and PACM.
</P>
<P>(ii) Building and facility owners shall maintain records of all information required to be provided pursuant to this section and/or otherwise known to the building owner concerning the presence, location and quantity of ACM and PACM in the building/facility. Such records shall be kept for the duration of ownership and shall be transferred to successive owners.
</P>
<P>(iii) Building and facility owners shall inform employers of employees, and employers shall inform employees who will perform housekeeping activities in areas which contain ACM and/or PACM of the presence and location of ACM and/or PACM in such areas which may be contacted during such activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Warning signs</I>—(i) <I>Posting.</I> Warning signs shall be provided and displayed at each regulated area. In addition, warning signs shall be posted at all approaches to regulated areas so that an employee may read the signs and take necessary protective steps before entering the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sign specifications:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) The warning signs required by paragraph (j)(4)(i) of this section shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASBESTOS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) In addition, where the use of respirators and protective clothing is required in the regulated area under this section, the warning signs shall include the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (j)(4)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASBESTOS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(D) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (j)(4)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING ARE REQUIRED IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that employees working in and contiguous to regulated areas comprehend the warning signs required to be posted by paragraph (j)(4)(i) of this section. Means to ensure employee comprehension may include the use of foreign languages, pictographs and graphics.
</P>
<P>(iv) At the entrance to mechanical rooms/areas in which employees reasonably can be expected to enter and which contain ACM and/or PACM, the building owner shall post signs which identify the material which is present, its location, and appropriate work practices which, if followed, will ensure that ACM and/or PACM will not be disturbed. The employer shall ensure, to the extent feasible, that employees who come in contact with these signs can comprehend them. Means to ensure employee comprehension may include the use of foreign languages, pictographs, graphics, and awareness training.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Warning labels</I>—(i) <I>Labeling.</I> Labels shall be affixed to all raw materials, mixtures, scrap, waste, debris, and other products containing asbestos fibers, or to their containers. When a building owner or employer identifies previously installed ACM and/or PACM, labels or signs shall be affixed or posted so that employees will be notified of what materials contain ACM and/or PACM. The employer shall attach such labels in areas where they will clearly be noticed by employees who are likely to be exposed, such as at the entrance to mechanical room/areas. Signs required by paragraph (j) of this section may be posted in lieu of labels so long as they contain the information required for labeling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Label specifications.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (j)(1), the employer shall ensure that labels of bags or containers of protective clothing and equipment, scrap, waste, and debris containing asbestos fibers include the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS ASBESTOS FIBERS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT BREATHE DUST
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on raw materials, mixtures or labels of bags or containers of protective clothing and equipment, scrap, waste, and debris containing asbestos fibers in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (j)(1)(i) and (j)(5)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS ASBESTOS FIBERS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) The provisions for labels and for safety data sheets required by paragraph (j) of this section do not apply where:
</P>
<P>(i) Asbestos fibers have been modified by a bonding agent, coating, binder, or other material provided that the manufacturer can demonstrate that during any reasonably foreseeable use, handling, storage, disposal, processing, or transportation, no airborne concentrations of fibers of asbestos in excess of the TWA permissible exposure level and/or excursion limit will be released or
</P>
<P>(ii) Asbestos is present in a product in concentrations less than 1.0%.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee who is exposed to airborne concentrations of asbestos at or above the PEL and/or excursion limit in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(iii) The training program shall be conducted in a manner which the employee is able to understand. The employer shall ensure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The health effects associated with asbestos exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The relationship between smoking and exposure to asbestos producing lung cancer:
</P>
<P>(C) The quantity, location, manner of use, release, and storage of asbestos, and the specific nature of operations which could result in exposure to asbestos;
</P>
<P>(D) The engineering controls and work practices associated with the employee's job assignment;
</P>
<P>(E) The specific procedures implemented to protect employees from exposure to asbestos, such as appropriate work practices, emergency and clean-up procedures, and personal protective equipment to be used;
</P>
<P>(F) The purpose, proper use, and limitations of respirators and protective clothing, if appropriate;
</P>
<P>(G) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (l) of this section;
</P>
<P>(H) The content of this standard, including appendices.
</P>
<P>(I) The names, addresses and phone numbers of public health organizations which provide information, materials, and/or conduct programs concerning smoking cessation. The employer may distribute the list of such organizations contained in appendix I to this section, to comply with this requirement.
</P>
<P>(J) The requirements for posting signs and affixing labels and the meaning of the required legends for such signs and labels.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall also provide, at no cost to employees who perform housekeeping operations in an area which contains ACM or PACM, an asbestos awareness training course, which shall at a minimum contain the following elements: health effects of asbestos, locations of ACM and PACM in the building/facility, recognition of ACM and PACM damage and deterioration, requirements in this standard relating to housekeeping, and proper response to fiber release episodes, to all employees who perform housekeeping work in areas where ACM and/or PACM is present. Each such employee shall be so trained at least once a year.
</P>
<P>(v) Access to information and training materials.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall make a copy of this standard and its appendices readily available without cost to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Assistant Secretary and the training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(C) The employer shall inform all employees concerning the availability of self-help smoking cessation program material. Upon employee request, the employer shall distribute such material, consisting of NIH Publication No. 89-1647, or equivalent self-help material, which is approved or published by a public health organization listed in appendix I to this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Criteria to rebut the designation of installed material as PACM.</I> (i) At any time, an employer and/or building owner may demonstrate, for purposes of this standard, that PACM does not contain asbestos. Building owners and/or employers are not required to communicate information about the presence of building material for which such a demonstration pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (j)(8)(ii) of this section has been made. However, in all such cases, the information, data and analysis supporting the determination that PACM does not contain asbestos, shall be retained pursuant to paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An employer or owner may demonstrate that PACM does not contain asbestos by the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Having a completed inspection conducted pursuant to the requirements of AHERA (40 CFR 763, subpart E) which demonstrates that no ACM is present in the material; or
</P>
<P>(B) Performing tests of the material containing PACM which demonstrate that no ACM is present in the material. Such tests shall include analysis of bulk samples collected in the manner described in 40 CFR 763.86. The tests, evaluation and sample collection shall be conducted by an accredited inspector or by a CIH. Analysis of samples shall be performed by persons or laboratories with proficiency demonstrated by current successful participation in a nationally recognized testing program such as the National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP) or the National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) or the Round Robin for bulk samples administered by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) or an equivalent nationally-recognized round robin testing program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer and/or building owner may demonstrate that flooring material including associated mastic and backing does not contain asbestos, by a determination of an industrial hygienist based upon recognized analytical techniques showing that the material is not ACM.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) All surfaces shall be maintained as free as practicable of ACM waste and debris and accompanying dust.
</P>
<P>(2) All spills and sudden releases of material containing asbestos shall be cleaned up as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(3) Surfaces contaminated with asbestos may not be cleaned by the use of compressed air.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Vacuuming.</I> HEPA-filtered vacuuming equipment shall be used for vacuuming asbestos containing waste and debris. The equipment shall be used and emptied in a manner which minimizes the reentry of asbestos into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(5) Shoveling, dry sweeping and dry clean-up of asbestos may be used only where vacuuming and/or wet cleaning are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Waste disposal.</I> Waste, scrap, debris, bags, containers, equipment, and clothing contaminated with asbestos consigned for disposal, shall be collected, recycled and disposed of in sealed impermeable bags, or other closed, impermeable containers.
</P>
<P>(7) Care of asbestos-containing flooring material.
</P>
<P>(i) Sanding of asbestos-containing floor material is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stripping of finishes shall be conducted using low abrasion pads at speeds lower than 300 rpm and wet methods.
</P>
<P>(iii) Burnishing or dry buffing may be performed only on asbestos-containing flooring which has sufficient finish so that the pad cannot contact the asbestos-containing material.
</P>
<P>(8) Waste and debris and accompanying dust in an area containing accessible ACM and/or PACM or visibly deteriorated ACM, shall not be dusted or swept dry, or vacuumed without using a HEPA filter.


</P>
<P>(l) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Employees covered.</I> The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or will be exposed to airborne concentrations of fibers of asbestos at or above the TWA and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examination by a physician.</I> (A) The employer shall ensure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and shall be provided without cost to the employee and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(B) Persons other than licensed physicians, who administer the pulmonary function testing required by this section, shall complete a training course in spirometry sponsored by an appropriate academic or professional institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pre-placement examinations.</I> (i) Before an employee is assigned to an occupation exposed to airborne concentrations of asbestos fibers at or above the TWA and/or excursion limit, a pre-placement medical examination shall be provided or made available by the employer.


</P>
<P>(ii) Such examination shall include, as a minimum, a medical and work history; a complete physical examination of all systems with emphasis on the respiratory system, the cardiovascular system and digestive tract; completion of the respiratory disease standardized questionnaire in appendix D to this section, part 1; a 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray; pulmonary function tests to include forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>); and any additional tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician. Classification of all chest X-rays shall be conducted in accordance with appendix E to this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) Periodic medical examinations shall be made available annually.
</P>
<P>(ii) The scope of the medical examination shall be in conformance with the protocol established in paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section, except that the frequency of chest X-rays shall be conducted in accordance with Table 1 to this section, and the abbreviated standardized questionnaire contained in part 2 of appendix D to this section shall be administered to the employee.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1910.1001—Frequency of Chest X-ray 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Years since first exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Age of employee
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">15 to 35
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">35 + to 45
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">45 + 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 to 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 5 years</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 5 years</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 5 years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 + </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 5 years</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 2 years</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 1 year.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of employment examinations.</I> (i) The employer shall provide, or make available, a termination of employment medical examination for any employee who has been exposed to airborne concentrations of fibers of asbestos at or above the TWA and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) The medical examination shall be in accordance with the requirements of the periodic examinations stipulated in paragraph (l)(3) of this section, and shall be given within 30 calendar days before or after the date of termination of employment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Recent examinations.</I> No medical examination is required of any employee, if adequate records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with any of paragraphs ((l)(2) through (l)(4)) of this section within the past 1 year period. A pre- employment medical examination which was required as a condition of employment by the employer, may not be used by that employer to meet the requirements of this paragraph, unless the cost of such examination is borne by the employer.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and Appendices D and E.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's representative exposure level or anticipated exposure level.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective and respiratory equipment used or to be used.
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee that is not otherwise available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician. This written opinion shall contain the results of the medical examination and shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions that would place the employee at an increased risk of material health impairment from exposure to asbestos;
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations on the employee or upon the use of personal protective equipment such as clothing or respirators;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions resulting from asbestos exposure that require further explanation or treatment; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the increased risk of lung cancer attributable to the combined effect of smoking and asbestos exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion given to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the physician's written opinion to the affected employee within 30 days from its receipt.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure measurements.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The employer may utilize the services of competent organizations such as industry trade associations and employee associations to maintain the records required by this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) The employer shall keep an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to asbestos as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to asbestos which is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and exposure of the employees whose exposure are represented.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data for exempted operations.</I> (i) Where the processing, use, or handling of products made from or containing asbestos is exempted from other requirements of this section under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of objective data reasonably relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The product qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of asbestos;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data support the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance by paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) Physician's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to asbestos; and
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (l)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that this record is maintained for the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training.</I> The employer shall maintain all employee training records for one (1) year beyond the last date of employment of that employee.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer, upon written request, shall make all records required to be maintained by this section available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer, upon request shall make any exposure records required by paragraph (m)(1) of this section available for examination and copying to affected employees, former employees, designated representatives and the Assistant Secretary, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer, upon request, shall make employee medical records required by paragraph (m)(3) of this section available for examination and copying to the subject employee, to anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee, and the Assistant Secretary, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer shall comply with the requirements concerning transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to asbestos conducted in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to asbestos requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the observer shall be provided with and be required to use such clothing and equipment and shall comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Appendices.</I> (1) Appendices A, C, D, E, and F to this section are incorporated as part of this section and the contents of these Appendices are mandatory.
</P>
<P>(2) Appendices B, G, H, I, and J to this section are informational and are not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1001—OSHA Reference Method—Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>This mandatory appendix specifies the procedure for analyzing air samples for asbestos and specifies quality control procedures that must be implemented by laboratories performing the analysis. The sampling and analytical methods described below represent the elements of the available monitoring methods (such as appendix B of their regulation, the most current version of the OSHA method ID-160, or the most current version of the NIOSH Method 7400). All employers who are required to conduct air monitoring under paragraph (d) of the standard are required to utilize analytical laboratories that use this procedure, or an equivalent method, for collecting and analyzing samples.
</P>
<HD2>Sampling and Analytical Procedure
</HD2>
<P>1. The sampling medium for air samples shall be mixed cellulose ester filter membranes. These shall be designated by the manufacturer as suitable for asbestos counting. See below for rejection of blanks.
</P>
<P>2. The preferred collection device shall be the 25-mm diameter cassette with an open-faced 50-mm electrically conductive extension cowl. The 37-mm cassette may be used if necessary but only if written justification for the need to use the 37-mm filter cassette accompanies the sample results in the employee's exposure monitoring record. Do not reuse or reload cassettes for asbestos sample collection.
</P>
<P>3. An air flow rate between 0.5 liter/min and 2.5 liters/min shall be selected for the 25-mm cassette. If the 37-mm cassette is used, an air flow rate between 1 liter/min and 2.5 liters/min shall be selected.
</P>
<P>4. Where possible, a sufficient air volume for each air sample shall be collected to yield between 100 and 1,300 fibers per square millimeter on the membrane filter. If a filter darkens in appearance or if loose dust is seen on the filter, a second sample shall be started.
</P>
<P>5. Ship the samples in a rigid container with sufficient packing material to prevent dislodging the collected fibers. Packing material that has a high electrostatic charge on its surface (e.g., expanded polystyrene) cannot be used because such material can cause loss of fibers to the sides of the cassette.
</P>
<P>6. Calibrate each personal sampling pump before and after use with a representative filter cassette installed between the pump and the calibration devices.
</P>
<P>7. Personal samples shall be taken in the “breathing zone” of the employee (<I>i.e.</I>, attached to or near the collar or lapel near the worker's face).
</P>
<P>8. Fiber counts shall be made by positive phase contrast using a microscope with an 8 to 10× eyepiece and a 40 to 45× objective for a total magnification of approximately 400× and a numerical aperture of 0.65 to 0.75. The microscope shall also be fitted with a green or blue filter.
</P>
<P>9. The microscope shall be fitted with a Walton-Beckett eyepiece graticule calibrated for a field diameter of 100 micrometers (±2 micrometers).
</P>
<P>10. The phase-shift detection limit of the microscope shall be about 3 degrees measured using the HSE phase shift test slide as outlined below.
</P>
<P>a. Place the test slide on the microscope stage and center it under the phase objective.
</P>
<P>b. Bring the blocks of grooved lines into focus.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The slide consists of seven sets of grooved lines (ca. 20 grooves to each block) in descending order of visibility from sets 1 to 7, seven being the least visible. The requirements for asbestos counting are that the microscope optics must resolve the grooved lines in set 3 completely, although they may appear somewhat faint, and that the grooved lines in sets 6 and 7 must be invisible. Sets 4 and 5 must be at least partially visible but may vary slightly in visibility between microscopes. A microscope that fails to meet these requirements has either too low or too high a resolution to be used for asbestos counting.</P></NOTE>
<P>c. If the image deteriorates, clean and adjust the microscope optics. If the problem persists, consult the microscope manufacturer.
</P>
<P>11. Each set of samples taken will include 10% field blanks or a minimum of 2 field blanks. These blanks must come from the same lot as the filters used for sample collection. The field blank results shall be averaged and subtracted from the analytical results before reporting. A set consists of any sample or group of samples for which an evaluation for this standard must be made. Any samples represented by a field blank having a fiber count in excess of the detection limit of the method being used shall be rejected.
</P>
<P>12. The samples shall be mounted by the acetone/triacetin method or a method with an equivalent index of refraction and similar clarity.
</P>
<P>13. Observe the following counting rules.
</P>
<P>a. Count only fibers equal to or longer than 5 micrometers. Measure the length of curved fibers along the curve.
</P>
<P>b. In the absence of other information, count all particles as asbesto that have a length-to-width ratio (aspect ratio) of 3:1 or greater.
</P>
<P>c. Fibers lying entirely within the boundary of the Walton-Beckett graticule field shall receive a count of 1. Fibers crossing the boundary once, having one end within the circle, shall receive the count of one half (
<FR>1/2</FR>). Do not count any fiber that crosses the graticule boundary more than once. Reject and do not count any other fibers even though they may be visible outside the graticule area.
</P>
<P>d. Count bundles of fibers as one fiber unless individual fibers can be identified by observing both ends of an individual fiber.
</P>
<P>e. Count enough graticule fields to yield 100 fibers. Count a minimum of 20 fields; stop counting at 100 fields regardless of fiber count.
</P>
<P>14. Blind recounts shall be conducted at the rate of 10 percent.
</P>
<HD2>Quality Control Procedures
</HD2>
<P>1. Intralaboratory program. Each laboratory and/or each company with more than one microscopist counting slides shall establish a statistically designed quality assurance program involving blind recounts and comparisons between microscopists to monitor the variability of counting by each microscopist and between microscopists. In a company with more than one laboratory, the program shall include all laboratories and shall also evaluate the laboratory-to-laboratory variability.
</P>
<P>2.a. Interlaboratory program. Each laboratory analyzing asbestos samples for compliance determination shall implement an interlaboratory quality assurance program that as a minimum includes participation of at least two other independent laboratories. Each laboratory shall participate in round robin testing at least once every 6 months with at least all the other laboratories in its interlaboratory quality assurance group. Each laboratory shall submit slides typical of its own work load for use in this program. The round robin shall be designed and results analyzed using appropriate statistical methodology.
</P>
<P>2.b. All laboratories should also participate in a national sample testing scheme such as the Proficiency Analytical Testing Program (PAT), or the Asbestos Registry sponsored by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA).
</P>
<P>3. All individuals performing asbestos analysis must have taken the NIOSH course for sampling and evaluating airborne asbestos dust or an equalivalent course.
</P>
<P>4. When the use of different microscopes contributes to differences between counters and laboratories, the effect of the different microscope shall be evaluated and the microscope shall be replaced, as necessary.
</P>
<P>5. Current results of these quality assurance programs shall be posted in each laboratory to keep the microscopists informed.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1001—Detailed Procedures for Asbestos Sampling and Analysis—Non-mandatory
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matrix Air:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">OSHA Permissible Exposure Limits:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Time Weighted Average</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 fiber/cc
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Excursion Level (30 minutes)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 fiber/cc
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Collection Procedure:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">A known volume of air is drawn through a 25-mm diameter cassette containing a mixed-cellulose ester filter. The cassette must be equipped with an electrically conductive 50-mm extension cowl. The sampling time and rate are chosen to give a fiber density of between 100 to 1,300 fibers/mm
<sup>2</sup> on the filter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recommended Sampling Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 to 5.0 liters/minute (L/min)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recommended Air Volumes:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 L
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Maximum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400 L</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Analytical Procedure: A portion of the sample filter is cleared and prepared for asbestos fiber counting by Phase Contrast Microscopy (PCM) at 400X.
</P>
<P>Commercial manufacturers and products mentioned in this method are for descriptive use only and do not constitute endorsements by USDOL-OSHA. Similar products from other sources can be substituted.
</P>
<HD2>1. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>This method describes the collection of airborne asbestos fibers using calibrated sampling pumps with mixed-cellulose ester (MCE) filters and analysis by phase contrast microscopy (PCM). Some terms used are unique to this method and are defined below:
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos:</I> A term for naturally occurring fibrous minerals. Asbestos includes chrysotile, crocidolite, amosite (cummingtonite-grunerite asbestos), tremolite asbestos, actinolite asbestos, anthophyllite asbestos, and any of these minerals that have been chemically treated and/or altered. The precise chemical formulation of each species will vary with the location from which it was mined. Nominal compositions are listed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mg<E T="52">3</E> Si<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Na<E T="52">2</E> Fe<E T="52">3</E>2 + Fe<E T="52">2</E>3 + Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E> (OH)
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amosite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E> (OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite-actinolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca<E T="52">2</E>(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">5</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E> (OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E> (OH)<E T="52">2</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Asbestos Fiber:</I> A fiber of asbestos which meets the criteria specified below for a fiber.
</P>
<P><I>Aspect Ratio:</I> The ratio of the length of a fiber to it's diameter (e.g. 3:1, 5:1 aspect ratios).
</P>
<P><I>Cleavage Fragments:</I> Mineral particles formed by comminution of minerals, especially those characterized by parallel sides and a moderate aspect ratio (usually less than 20:1).
</P>
<P><I>Detection Limit:</I> The number of fibers necessary to be 95% certain that the result is greater than zero.
</P>
<P><I>Differential Counting:</I> The term applied to the practice of excluding certain kinds of fibers from the fiber count because they do not appear to be asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Fiber:</I> A particle that is 5 µm or longer, with a length-to-width ratio of 3 to 1 or longer.
</P>
<P><I>Field:</I> The area within the graticule circle that is superimposed on the microscope image.
</P>
<P><I>Set:</I> The samples which are taken, submitted to the laboratory, analyzed, and for which, interim or final result reports are generated.
</P>
<P><I>Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite:</I> The non-asbestos form of these minerals which meet the definition of a fiber. It includes any of these minerals that have been chemically treated and/or altered.
</P>
<P><I>Walton-Beckett Graticule:</I> An eyepiece graticule specifically designed for asbestos fiber counting. It consists of a circle with a projected diameter of 100 2 µm (area of about 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU>) with a crosshair having tic-marks at 3-µm intervals in one direction and 5-µm in the orthogonal direction. There are marks around the periphery of the circle to demonstrate the proper sizes and shapes of fibers. This design is reproduced in Figure 1. The disk is placed in one of the microscope eyepieces so that the design is superimposed on the field of view.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. History
</HD3>
<P>Early surveys to determine asbestos exposures were conducted using impinger counts of total dust with the counts expressed as million particles per cubic foot. The British Asbestos Research Council recommended filter membrane counting in 1969. In July 1969, the Bureau of Occupational Safety and Health published a filter membrane method for counting asbestos fibers in the United States. This method was refined by NIOSH and published as P CAM 239. On May 29, 1971, OSHA specified filter membrane sampling with phase contrast counting for evaluation of asbestos exposures at work sites in the United States. The use of this technique was again required by OSHA in 1986. Phase contrast microscopy has continued to be the method of choice for the measurement of occupational exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. Principle
</HD3>
<P>Air is drawn through a MCE filter to capture airborne asbestos fibers. A wedge shaped portion of the filter is removed, placed on a glass microscope slide and made transparent. A measured area (field) is viewed by PCM. All the fibers meeting defined criteria for asbestos are counted and considered a measure of the airborne asbestos concentration.
</P>
<HD3>1.3. Advantages and Disadvantages
</HD3>
<P>There are four main advantages of PCM over other methods:
</P>
<P>(1) The technique is specific for fibers. Phase contrast is a fiber counting technique which excludes non-fibrous particles from the analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) The technique is inexpensive and does not require specialized knowledge to carry out the analysis for total fiber counts.
</P>
<P>(3) The analysis is quick and can be performed on-site for rapid determination of air concentrations of asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>(4) The technique has continuity with historical epidemiological studies so that estimates of expected disease can be inferred from long-term determinations of asbestos exposures.
</P>
<P>The main disadvantage of PCM is that it does not positively identify asbestos fibers. Other fibers which are not asbestos may be included in the count unless differential counting is performed. This requires a great deal of experience to adequately differentiate asbestos from non-asbestos fibers. Positive identification of asbestos must be performed by polarized light or electron microscopy techniques. A further disadvantage of PCM is that the smallest visible fibers are about 0.2 µm in diameter while the finest asbestos fibers may be as small as 0.02 µm in diameter. For some exposures, substantially more fibers may be present than are actually counted.
</P>
<HD3>1.4. Workplace Exposure
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is used by the construction industry in such products as shingles, floor tiles, asbestos cement, roofing felts, insulation and acoustical products. Non-construction uses include brakes, clutch facings, paper, paints, plastics, and fabrics. One of the most significant exposures in the workplace is the removal and encapsulation of asbestos in schools, public buildings, and homes. Many workers have the potential to be exposed to asbestos during these operations.
</P>
<P>About 95% of the asbestos in commercial use in the United States is chrysotile. Crocidolite and amosite make up most of the remainder. Anthophyllite and tremolite or actinolite are likely to be encountered as contaminants in various industrial products.
</P>
<HD3>1.5. Physical Properties
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos fiber possesses a high tensile strength along its axis, is chemically inert, non-combustible, and heat resistant. It has a high electrical resistance and good sound absorbing properties. It can be weaved into cables, fabrics or other textiles, and also matted into asbestos papers, felts, or mats.
</P>
<HD2>2. Range and Detection Limit
</HD2>
<P>2.1. The ideal counting range on the filter is 100 to 1,300 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. With a Walton-Beckett graticule this range is equivalent to 0.8 to 10 fibers/field. Using NIOSH counting statistics, a count of 0.8 fibers/field would give an approximate coefficient of variation (CV) of 0.13.
</P>
<P>2.2. The detection limit for this method is 4.0 fibers per 100 fields or 5.5 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. This was determined using an equation to estimate the maximum CV possible at a specific concentration (95% confidence) and a Lower Control Limit of zero. The CV value was then used to determine a corresponding concentration from historical CV vs fiber relationships. As an example:
</P>
<FP-2>Lower Control Limit (95% Confidence) = AC − 1.645(CV)(AC)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>AC = Estimate of the airborne fiber concentration (fibers/cc) Setting the Lower Control Limit = 0 and solving for CV:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0 = AC − 1.645(CV)(AC)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CV = 0.61
</FP-2>
<P>This value was compared with CV vs. count curves. The count at which CV = 0.61 for Leidel-Busch counting statistics or for an OSHA Salt Lake Technical Center (OSHA-SLTC) CV curve (see appendix A for further information) was 4.4 fibers or 3.9 fibers per 100 fields, respectively. Although a lower detection limit of 4 fibers per 100 fields is supported by the OSHA-SLTC data, both data sets support the 4.5 fibers per 100 fields value.
</P>
<HD2>3. Method Performance—Precision and Accuracy
</HD2>
<P>Precision is dependent upon the total number of fibers counted and the uniformity of the fiber distribution on the filter. A general rule is to count at least 20 and not more than 100 fields. The count is discontinued when 100 fibers are counted, provided that 20 fields have already been counted. Counting more than 100 fibers results in only a small gain in precision. As the total count drops below 10 fibers, an accelerated loss of precision is noted.
</P>
<P>At this time, there is no known method to determine the absolute accuracy of the asbestos analysis. Results of samples prepared through the Proficiency Analytical Testing (PAT) Program and analyzed by the OSHA-SLTC showed no significant bias when compared to PAT reference values. The PAT samples were analyzed from 1987 to 1989 (N = 36) and the concentration range was from 120 to 1,300 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<HD2>4. Interferences
</HD2>
<P>Fibrous substances, if present, may interfere with asbestos analysis.
</P>
<P>Some common fibers are:
</P>
<FP-1>fiberglass
</FP-1>
<FP-1>anhydrite
</FP-1>
<FP-1>plant fibers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>perlite veins
</FP-1>
<FP-1>gypsum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>some synthetic fibers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>membrane structures
</FP-1>
<FP-1>sponge spicules
</FP-1>
<FP-1>diatoms
</FP-1>
<FP-1>microorganisms
</FP-1>
<FP-1>wollastonite
</FP-1>
<P>The use of electron microscopy or optical tests such as polarized light, and dispersion staining may be used to differentiate these materials from asbestos when necessary.
</P>
<HD2>5. Sampling
</HD2>
<HD3>5.1. Equipment
</HD3>
<P><I>5.1.1.</I> Sample assembly (The assembly is shown in Figure 3). Conductive filter holder consisting of a 25-mm diameter, 3-piece cassette having a 50-mm long electrically conductive extension cowl. Backup pad, 25-mm, cellulose. Membrane filter, mixed-cellulose ester (MCE), 25-mm, plain, white, 0.4 to 1.2-µm pore size.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notes:</HED>
<P>(a) Do not re-use cassettes.
</P>
<P>(b) Fully conductive cassettes are required to reduce fiber loss to the sides of the cassette due to electrostatic attraction.
</P>
<P>(c) Purchase filters which have been selected by the manufacturer for asbestos counting or analyze representative filters for fiber background before use. Discard the filter lot if more than 4 fibers/100 fields are found.
</P>
<P>(d) To decrease the possibility of contamination, the sampling system (filter-backup pad-cassette) for asbestos is usually preassembled by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(e) Other cassettes, such as the Bell-mouth, may be used within the limits of their validation.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>5.1.2.</I> Gel bands for sealing cassettes.
</P>
<P><I>5.1.3.</I> Sampling pump.
</P>
<P>Each pump must be a battery operated, self-contained unit small enough to be placed on the monitored employee and not interfere with the work being performed. The pump must be capable of sampling at the collection rate for the required sampling time.
</P>
<P><I>5.1.4.</I> Flexible tubing, 6-mm bore.
</P>
<P><I>5.1.5.</I> Pump calibration.
</P>
<P>Stopwatch and bubble tube/burette or electronic meter.
</P>
<P>5.2. Sampling Procedure
</P>
<P><I>5.2.1.</I> Seal the point where the base and cowl of each cassette meet with a gel band or tape.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.2.</I> Charge the pumps completely before beginning.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.3.</I> Connect each pump to a calibration cassette with an appropriate length of 6-mm bore plastic tubing. Do not use luer connectors—the type of cassette specified above has built-in adapters.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.4.</I> Select an appropriate flow rate for the situation being monitored. The sampling flow rate must be between 0.5 and 5.0 L/min for personal sampling and is commonly set between 1 and 2 L/min. Always choose a flow rate that will not produce overloaded filters.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.5.</I> Calibrate each sampling pump before and after sampling with a calibration cassette in-line (Note: This calibration cassette should be from the same lot of cassettes used for sampling). Use a primary standard (e.g. bubble burette) to calibrate each pump. If possible, calibrate at the sampling site.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If sampling site calibration is not possible, environmental influences may affect the flow rate. The extent is dependent on the type of pump used. Consult with the pump manufacturer to determine dependence on environmental influences. If the pump is affected by temperature and pressure changes, correct the flow rate using the formula shown in the section “Sampling Pump Flow Rate Corrections” at the end of this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>5.2.6.</I> Connect each pump to the base of each sampling cassette with flexible tubing. Remove the end cap of each cassette and take each air sample open face. Assure that each sample cassette is held open side down in the employee's breathing zone during sampling. The distance from the nose/mouth of the employee to the cassette should be about 10 cm. Secure the cassette on the collar or lapel of the employee using spring clips or other similar devices.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.7.</I> A suggested minimum air volume when sampling to determine TWA compliance is 25 L. For Excursion Limit (30 min sampling time) evaluations, a minimum air volume of 48 L is recommended.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.8.</I> The most significant problem when sampling for asbestos is overloading the filter with non-asbestos dust. Suggested maximum air sample volumes for specific environments are:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Environment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Air vol. (L)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos removal operations (visible dust)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos removal operations (little dust)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office environments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400
<br/>to
<br/>2,400</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Caution:</I> Do not overload the filter with dust. High levels of non-fibrous dust particles may obscure fibers on the filter and lower the count or make counting impossible. If more than about 25 to 30% of the field area is obscured with dust, the result may be biased low. Smaller air volumes may be necessary when there is excessive non-asbestos dust in the air.
</P>
<P>While sampling, observe the filter with a small flashlight. If there is a visible layer of dust on the filter, stop sampling, remove and seal the cassette, and replace with a new sampling assembly. The total dust loading should not exceed 1 mg.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.9.</I> Blank samples are used to determine if any contamination has occurred during sample handling. Prepare two blanks for the first 1 to 20 samples. For sets containing greater than 20 samples, prepare blanks as 10% of the samples. Handle blank samples in the same manner as air samples with one exception: Do not draw any air through the blank samples. Open the blank cassette in the place where the sample cassettes are mounted on the employee. Hold it open for about 30 seconds. Close and seal the cassette appropriately. Store blanks for shipment with the sample cassettes.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.10.</I> Immediately after sampling, close and seal each cassette with the base and plastic plugs. Do not touch or puncture the filter membrane as this will invalidate the analysis.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.11</I> Attach and secure a sample seal around each sample cassette in such a way as to assure that the end cap and base plugs cannot be removed without destroying the seal. Tape the ends of the seal together since the seal is not long enough to be wrapped end-to-end. Also wrap tape around the cassette at each joint to keep the seal secure.
</P>
<HD3>5.3. Sample Shipment
</HD3>
<P><I>5.3.1.</I> Send the samples to the laboratory with paperwork requesting asbestos analysis. List any known fibrous interferences present during sampling on the paperwork. Also, note the workplace operation(s) sampled.
</P>
<P><I>5.3.2.</I> Secure and handle the samples in such that they will not rattle during shipment nor be exposed to static electricity. Do not ship samples in expanded polystyrene peanuts, vermiculite, paper shreds, or excelsior. Tape sample cassettes to sheet bubbles and place in a container that will cushion the samples in such a manner that they will not rattle.
</P>
<P><I>5.3.3.</I> To avoid the possibility of sample contamination, always ship bulk samples in separate mailing containers.
</P>
<HD2>6. Analysis
</HD2>
<HD3>6.1. Safety Precautions
</HD3>
<P><I>6.1.1.</I> Acetone is extremely flammable and precautions must be taken not to ignite it. Avoid using large containers or quantities of acetone. Transfer the solvent in a ventilated laboratory hood. Do not use acetone near any open flame. For generation of acetone vapor, use a spark free heat source.
</P>
<P><I>6.1.2.</I> Any asbestos spills should be cleaned up immediately to prevent dispersal of fibers. Prudence should be exercised to avoid contamination of laboratory facilities or exposure of personnel to asbestos. Asbestos spills should be cleaned up with wet methods and/or a High Efficiency Particulate-Air (HEPA) filtered vacuum.
</P>
<P><I>Caution:</I> Do not use a vacuum without a HEPA filter—It will disperse fine asbestos fibers in the air.
</P>
<HD3>6.2. Equipment
</HD3>
<P><I>6.2.1.</I> Phase contrast microscope with binocular or trinocular head.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.2.</I> Widefield or Huygenian 10X eyepieces (<E T="04">Note:</E> The eyepiece containing the graticule must be a focusing eyepiece. Use a 40X phase objective with a numerical aperture of 0.65 to 0.75).
</P>
<P><I>6.2.3.</I> Kohler illumination (if possible) with green or blue filter.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.4.</I> Walton-Beckett Graticule, type G-22 with 100 ±2 µm projected diameter.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.5.</I> Mechanical stage.
</P>
<P>A rotating mechanical stage is convenient for use with polarized light.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.6.</I> Phase telescope.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.7.</I> Stage micrometer with 0.01-mm subdivisions.
</P>
<P>6.2.8. Phase-shift test slide, mark II (Available from PTR optics Ltd., and also McCrone).
</P>
<P><I>6.2.9.</I> Precleaned glass slides, 25 mm × 75 mm. One end can be frosted for convenience in writing sample numbers, etc., or paste-on labels can be used.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.10.</I> Cover glass #1 
<FR>1/2</FR>.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.11.</I> Scalpel (#10, curved blade).
</P>
<P><I>6.2.12.</I> Fine tipped forceps.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.13.</I> Aluminum block for clearing filter (see appendix D and Figure 4).
</P>
<P><I>6.2.14.</I> Automatic adjustable pipette, 100- to 500-µL.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.15.</I> Micropipette, 5 µL.
</P>
<HD3>6.3. Reagents
</HD3>
<P><I>6.3.1.</I> Acetone (HPLC grade).
</P>
<P><I>6.3.2.</I> Triacetin (glycerol triacetate).
</P>
<P><I>6.3.3.</I> Lacquer or nail polish.
</P>
<HD3>6.4. Standard Preparation
</HD3>
<P>A way to prepare standard asbestos samples of known concentration has not been developed. It is possible to prepare replicate samples of nearly equal concentration. This has been performed through the PAT program. These asbestos samples are distributed by the AIHA to participating laboratories.
</P>
<P>Since only about one-fourth of a 25-mm sample membrane is required for an asbestos count, any PAT sample can serve as a “standard” for replicate counting.
</P>
<HD3>6.5. Sample Mounting
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See Safety Precautions in Section 6.1. before proceeding. The objective is to produce samples with a smooth (non-grainy) background in a medium with a refractive index of approximately 1.46. The technique below collapses the filter for easier focusing and produces permanent mounts which are useful for quality control and interlaboratory comparison.</P></NOTE>
<P>An aluminum block or similar device is required for sample preparation.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.1.</I> Heat the aluminum block to about 70 °C. The hot block should not be used on any surface that can be damaged by either the heat or from exposure to acetone.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.2.</I> Ensure that the glass slides and cover glasses are free of dust and fibers.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.3.</I> Remove the top plug to prevent a vacuum when the cassette is opened. Clean the outside of the cassette if necessary. Cut the seal and/or tape on the cassette with a razor blade. Very carefully separate the base from the extension cowl, leaving the filter and backup pad in the base.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.4.</I> With a rocking motion cut a triangular wedge from the filter using the scalpel. This wedge should be one-sixth to one-fourth of the filter. Grasp the filter wedge with the forceps on the perimeter of the filter which was clamped between the cassette pieces. DO NOT TOUCH the filter with your finger. Place the filter on the glass slide sample side up. Static electricity will usually keep the filter on the slide until it is cleared.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.5.</I> Place the tip of the micropipette containing about 200 µL acetone into the aluminum block. Insert the glass slide into the receiving slot in the aluminum block. Inject the acetone into the block with slow, steady pressure on the plunger while holding the pipette firmly in place. Wait 3 to 5 seconds for the filter to clear, then remove the pipette and slide from the aluminum block.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.6.</I> Immediately (less than 30 seconds) place 2.5 to 3.5 µL of triacetin on the filter (Note: Waiting longer than 30 seconds will result in increased index of refraction and decreased contrast between the fibers and the preparation. This may also lead to separation of the cover slip from the slide).
</P>
<P><I>6.5.7.</I> Lower a cover slip gently onto the filter at a slight angle to reduce the possibility of forming air bubbles. If more than 30 seconds have elapsed between acetone exposure and triacetin application, glue the edges of the cover slip to the slide with lacquer or nail polish.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.8.</I> If clearing is slow, warm the slide for 15 min on a hot plate having a surface temperature of about 50 °C to hasten clearing. The top of the hot block can be used if the slide is not heated too long.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.9.</I> Counting may proceed immediately after clearing and mounting are completed.
</P>
<HD3>6.6. Sample Analysis
</HD3>
<P>Completely align the microscope according to the manufacturer's instructions. Then, align the microscope using the following general alignment routine at the beginning of every counting session and more often if necessary.
</P>
<P><I>6.6.1.</I> Alignment
</P>
<P>(1) Clean all optical surfaces. Even a small amount of dirt can significantly degrade the image.
</P>
<P>(2) Rough focus the objective on a sample.
</P>
<P>(3) Close down the field iris so that it is visible in the field of view. Focus the image of the iris with the condenser focus. Center the image of the iris in the field of view.
</P>
<P>(4) Install the phase telescope and focus on the phase rings. Critically center the rings. Misalignment of the rings results in astigmatism which will degrade the image.
</P>
<P>(5) Place the phase-shift test slide on the microscope stage and focus on the lines. The analyst must see line set 3 and should see at least parts of 4 and 5 but, not see line set 6 or 6. A microscope/microscopist combination which does not pass this test may not be used.
</P>
<P><I>6.6.2.</I> Counting Fibers
</P>
<P>(1) Place the prepared sample slide on the mechanical stage of the microscope. Position the center of the wedge under the objective lens and focus upon the sample.
</P>
<P>(2) Start counting from one end of the wedge and progress along a radial line to the other end (count in either direction from perimeter to wedge tip). Select fields randomly, without looking into the eyepieces, by slightly advancing the slide in one direction with the mechanical stage control.
</P>
<P>(3) Continually scan over a range of focal planes (generally the upper 10 to 15 µm of the filter surface) with the fine focus control during each field count. Spend at least 5 to 15 seconds per field.
</P>
<P>(4) Most samples will contain asbestos fibers with fiber diameters less than 1 µm. Look carefully for faint fiber images. The small diameter fibers will be very hard to see. However, they are an important contribution to the total count.
</P>
<P>(5) Count only fibers equal to or longer than 5 µm. Measure the length of curved fibers along the curve.
</P>
<P>(6) Count fibers which have a length to width ratio of 3:1 or greater.
</P>
<P>(7) Count all the fibers in at least 20 fields. Continue counting until either 100 fibers are counted or 100 fields have been viewed; whichever occurs first. Count all the fibers in the final field.
</P>
<P>(8) Fibers lying entirely within the boundary of the Walton-Beckett graticule field shall receive a count of 1. Fibers crossing the boundary once, having one end within the circle shall receive a count of 
<FR>1/2</FR>. Do not count any fiber that crosses the graticule boundary more than once. Reject and do not count any other fibers even though they may be visible outside the graticule area. If a fiber touches the circle, it is considered to cross the line.
</P>
<P>(9) Count bundles of fibers as one fiber unless individual fibers can be clearly identified and each individual fiber is clearly not connected to another counted fiber. See Figure 1 for counting conventions.
</P>
<P>(10) Record the number of fibers in each field in a consistent way such that filter non-uniformity can be assessed.
</P>
<P>(11) Regularly check phase ring alignment.
</P>
<P>(12) When an agglomerate (mass of material) covers more than 25% of the field of view, reject the field and select another. Do not include it in the number of fields counted.
</P>
<P>(13) Perform a “blind recount” of 1 in every 10 filter wedges (slides). Re-label the slides using a person other than the original counter.
</P>
<HD3>6.7. Fiber Identification
</HD3>
<P>As previously mentioned in Section 1.3., PCM does not provide positive confirmation of asbestos fibers. Alternate differential counting techniques should be used if discrimination is desirable. Differential counting may include primary discrimination based on morphology, polarized light analysis of fibers, or modification of PCM data by Scanning Electron or Transmission Electron Microscopy.
</P>
<P>A great deal of experience is required to routinely and correctly perform differential counting. It is discouraged unless it is legally necessary. Then, only if a fiber is obviously not asbestos should it be excluded from the count. Further discussion of this technique can be found in reference 8.10.
</P>
<P>If there is a question whether a fiber is asbestos or not, follow the rule:
</P>
<P>“WHEN IN DOUBT, COUNT.”
</P>
<HD3>6.8. Analytical Recommendations—Quality Control System
</HD3>
<P><I>6.8.1.</I> All individuals performing asbestos analysis must have taken the NIOSH course for sampling and evaluating airborne asbestos or an equivalent course.
</P>
<P><I>6.8.2.</I> Each laboratory engaged in asbestos counting shall set up a slide trading arrangement with at least two other laboratories in order to compare performance and eliminate inbreeding of error. The slide exchange occurs at least semiannually. The round robin results shall be posted where all analysts can view individual analyst's results.
</P>
<P><I>6.8.3.</I> Each laboratory engaged in asbestos counting shall participate in the Proficiency Analytical Testing Program, the Asbestos Analyst Registry or equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>6.8.4.</I> Each analyst shall select and count prepared slides from a “slide bank”. These are quality assurance counts. The slide bank shall be prepared using uniformly distributed samples taken from the workload. Fiber densities should cover the entire range routinely analyzed by the laboratory. These slides are counted blind by all counters to establish an original standard deviation. This historical distribution is compared with the quality assurance counts. A counter must have 95% of all quality control samples counted within three standard deviations of the historical mean. This count is then integrated into a new historical mean and standard deviation for the slide.
</P>
<P>The analyses done by the counters to establish the slide bank may be used for an interim quality control program if the data are treated in a proper statistical fashion.
</P>
<HD2>7. Calculations
</HD2>
<P>7.1. Calculate the estimated airborne asbestos fiber concentration on the filter sample using the following formula:
</P>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>AC = Airborne fiber concentration
</FP-2>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="45" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.000.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>FB = Total number of fibers greater than 5 µm counted
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL = Total number of fields counted on the filter
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BFB = Total number of fibers greater than 5 µm counted in the blank
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BFL = Total number of fields counted on the blank
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ECA = Effective collecting area of filter (385 mm
<SU>2</SU> nominal for a 25-mm filter.)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FR = Pump flow rate (L/min)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MFA = Microscope count field area (mm
<SU>2</SU>). This is 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU> for a Walton-Beckett Graticule.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = Sample collection time (min)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1,000 = Conversion of L to cc
</FP-2>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The collection area of a filter is seldom equal to 385 mm
<SU>2</SU>. It is appropriate for laboratories to routinely monitor the exact diameter using an inside micrometer. The collection area is calculated according to the formula:</P></NOTE>
<FP-2>Area = π(d/2)
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<HD3>7.2. Short-cut Calculation
</HD3>
<P>Since a given analyst always has the same interpupillary distance, the number of fields per filter for a particular analyst will remain constant for a given size filter. The field size for that analyst is constant (<I>i.e.</I>, the analyst is using an assigned microscope and is not changing the reticle).
</P>
<P>For example, if the exposed area of the filter is always 385 mm
<SU>2</SU> and the size of the field is always 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU>, the number of fields per filter will always be 49,000. In addition it is necessary to convert liters of air to cc. These three constants can then be combined such that ECA/(1,000 × MFA) = 49. The previous equation simplifies to:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="43" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.001.gif"/></MATH>
<HD3>7.3. Recount Calculations
</HD3>
<P>As mentioned in step 13 of Section 6.6.2., a “blind recount” of 10% of the slides is performed. In all cases, differences will be observed between the first and second counts of the same filter wedge. Most of these differences will be due to chance alone, that is, due to the random variability (precision) of the count method. Statistical recount criteria enables one to decide whether observed differences can be explained due to chance alone or are probably due to systematic differences between analysts, microscopes, or other biasing factors.
</P>
<P>The following recount criterion is for a pair of counts that estimate AC in fibers/cc. The criterion is given at the type-I error level. That is, there is 5% maximum risk that we will reject a pair of counts for the reason that one might be biased, when the large observed difference is really due to chance.
</P>
<P>Reject a pair of counts if:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="43" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er29jn95.000.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>AC1 = lower estimated airborne fiber concentration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AC2 = higher estimated airborne fiber concentration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACavg = average of the two concentration estimates
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CV<E T="52">FB</E> = CV for the average of the two concentration estimates
</FP-2>
<P>If a pair of counts are rejected by this criterion then, recount the rest of the filters in the submitted set. Apply the test and reject any other pairs failing the test. Rejection shall include a memo to the industrial hygienist stating that the sample failed a statistical test for homogeneity and the true air concentration may be significantly different than the reported value.
</P>
<HD3>7.4. Reporting Results
</HD3>
<P>Report results to the industrial hygienist as fibers/cc. Use two significant figures. If multiple analyses are performed on a sample, an average of the results is to be reported unless any of the results can be rejected for cause.
</P>
<HD2>8. References
</HD2>
<P>8.1. Dreesen, W.C., et al, <I>U.S. Public Health Service: A Study of Asbestosis in the Asbestos Textile Industry,</I> (Public Health Bulletin No. 241), US Treasury Dept., Washington, DC, 1938.
</P>
<P>8.2. <I>Asbestos Research Council: The Measurement of Airborne Asbestos Dust by the Membrane Filter Method</I> (Technical Note), Asbestos Research Council, Rockdale, Lancashire, Great Britain, 1969.
</P>
<P>8.3. Bayer, S.G., Zumwalde, R.D., Brown, T.A., <I>Equipment and Procedure for Mounting Millipore Filters and Counting Asbestos Fibers by Phase Contrast Microscopy,</I> Bureau of Occupational Health, U.S. Dept. of Health, Education and Welfare, Cincinnati, OH, 1969.
</P>
<P>8.4. <I>NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods,</I> 2nd ed., Vol. 1 (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. 77-157-A). National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Cincinnati, OH, 1977. pp. 239-1-239-21.
</P>
<P>8.5. <I>Asbestos,</I> Code of Federal Regulations 29 CFR 1910.1001. 1971.
</P>
<P>8.6. <I>Occupational Exposure to Asbestos, Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite. Final Rule,</I> <E T="04">Federal Register</E> 51:119 (20 June 1986). pp.22612-22790.
</P>
<P>8.7. <I>Asbestos, Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite,</I> Code of Federal Regulations 1910.1001. 1988. pp 711-752.
</P>
<P>8.8. <I>Criteria for a Recommended Standard—Occupational Exposure to Asbestos</I> (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. HSM 72-10267), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health NIOSH, Cincinnati,OH, 1972. pp. III-1-III-24.
</P>
<P>8.9. Leidel, N.A., Bayer,S.G., Zumwalde, R.D.,Busch, K.A., <I>USPHS/NIOSH Membrane Filter Method for Evaluating Airborne Asbestos Fibers</I> (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. 79-127). National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Cincinnati, OH, 1979.
</P>
<P>8.10. Dixon, W.C., <I>Applications of Optical Microscopy in Analysis of Asbestos and Quartz,</I> Analytical Techniques in Occupational Health Chemistry, edited by D.D. Dollberg and A.W. Verstuyft. Wash. DC: American Chemical Society, (ACS Symposium Series 120) 1980. pp. 13-41.
</P>
<HD2>Quality Control
</HD2>
<P>The OSHA asbestos regulations require each laboratory to establish a quality control program. The following is presented as an example of how the OSHA-SLTC constructed its internal CV curve as part of meeting this requirement. Data is from 395 samples collected during OSHA compliance inspections and analyzed from October 1980 through April 1986.
</P>
<P>Each sample was counted by 2 to 5 different counters independently of one another. The standard deviation and the CV statistic was calculated for each sample. This data was then plotted on a graph of CV vs. fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. A least squares regression was performed using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>CV = antilog1<E T="52">10</E>[A(log<E T="52">10</E>(x))
<SU>2</SU> + B(log<E T="52">10</E>(x)) + C]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>x = the number of fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Application of least squares gave:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A = 0.182205
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B = −0.973343
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C = 0.327499
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Using these values, the equation becomes:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CV = antilog<E T="52">10</E> [0.182205(log<E T="52">10</E> (x))
<SU>2</SU>−0.973343(log<E T="52">10</E> (x)) + 0.327499]
</FP-2>
<HD2>Sampling Pump Flow Rate Corrections
</HD2>
<P>This correction is used if a difference greater than 5% in ambient temperature and/or pressure is noted between calibration and sampling sites and the pump does not compensate for the differences.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="39" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.003.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">act</E> = actual flow rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">cal</E> = calibrated flow rate (if a rotameter was used, the rotameter value)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">cal</E> = uncorrected air pressure at calibration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">act</E> = uncorrected air pressure at sampling site
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">act</E> = temperature at sampling site (K)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">cal</E> = temperature at calibration (K)
</FP-2>
<HD2>Walton-Beckett Graticule
</HD2>
<P>When ordering the Graticule for asbestos counting, specify the exact disc diameter needed to fit the ocular of the microscope and the diameter (mm) of the circular counting area. Instructions for measuring the dimensions necessary are listed:
</P>
<P>(1) Insert any available graticule into the focusing eyepiece and focus so that the graticule lines are sharp and clear.
</P>
<P>(2) Align the microscope.
</P>
<P>(3) Place a stage micrometer on the microscope object stage and focus the microscope on the graduated lines.
</P>
<P>(4) Measure the magnified grid length, PL (µm), using the stage micrometer.
</P>
<P>(5) Remove the graticule from the microscope and measure its actual grid length, AL (mm). This can be accomplished by using a mechanical stage fitted with verniers, or a jeweler's loupe with a direct reading scale.
</P>
<P>(6) Let D = 100 µm. Calculate the circle diameter, d<E T="52">c</E> (mm), for the Walton-Beckett graticule and specify the diameter when making a purchase:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.004.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>Example: If PL = 108 µm, AL = 2.93 mm and D = 100 µm, then,
</FP-2>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.005.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(7) Each eyepiece-objective-reticle combination on the microscope must be calibrated. Should any of the three be changed (by zoom adjustment, disassembly, replacement, etc.), the combination must be recalibrated. Calibration may change if interpupillary distance is changed. Measure the field diameter, D (acceptable range: 100±2 µm) with a stage micrometer upon receipt of the graticule from the manufacturer. Determine the field area (mm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<FP-2>Field Area = Δ(D/2)
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>If D = 100 µm = 0.1 mm, then
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Field Area = Δ(0.1 mm/2)
<SU>2</SU> = 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<P>The Graticule is available from: Graticules Ltd., Morley Road, Tonbridge TN9 IRN, Kent, England (Telephone 011-44-732-359061). Also available from PTR Optics Ltd., 145 Newton Street, Waltham, MA 02154 [telephone (617) 891-6000] or McCrone Accessories and Components, 2506 S. Michigan Ave., Chicago, IL 60616 [phone (312)-842-7100]. The graticule is custom made for each microscope.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Counts for the Fibers in the Figure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Structure No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Count
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Explanation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 1 to 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single fibers all contained within the circle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber crosses circle once.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber too short.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Two crossing fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber outside graticule.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber crosses graticule twice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Although split, fiber only crosses once.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.006.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1001 [Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1001—Medical Questionnaires; Mandatory




</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.015.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.016.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1910.1001—Classification of Chest X-Rays—Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>(a) Chest X-rays shall be classified in accordance with the Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011) (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), and recorded on a classification form following the format of the CDC/NIOSH (M) 2.8 form. As a minimum, the content within the bold lines of this form (items 1 through 4) shall be included. This form is not to be submitted to NIOSH.
</P>
<P>(b) All X-rays shall be classified only by a B-Reader, a board eligible/certified radiologist, or an experienced physician with known expertise in pneumoconioses.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever classifying chest X-ray film, the physician shall have immediately available for reference a complete set of the ILO standard format radiographs provided for use with the Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011).
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever classifying digitally-acquired chest X-rays, the physician shall have immediately available for reference a complete set of ILO standard digital chest radiographic images provided for use with the Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011). Classification of digitally-acquired chest X-rays shall be based on the viewing of images displayed as electronic copies and shall not be based on the viewing of hard copy printed transparencies of images.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1910.1001—Work Practices and Engineering Controls for Automotive Brake and Clutch Inspection, Disassembly, Repair and Assembly—Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>This mandatory appendix specifies engineering controls and work practices that must be implemented by the employer during automotive brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair, and assembly operations. Proper use of these engineering controls and work practices by trained employees will reduce employees' asbestos exposure below the permissible exposure level during clutch and brake inspection, disassembly, repair, and assembly operations. The employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices using either the method set forth in paragraph [A] or paragraph [B] of this appendix, or any other method which the employer can demonstrate to be equivalent in terms of reducing employee exposure to asbestos as defined and which meets the requirements described in paragraph [C] of this appendix, for those facilities in which no more than 5 pairs of brakes or 5 clutches are inspected, disassembled, reassembled and/or repaired per week, the method set forth in paragraph [D] of this appendix may be used:
</P>
<HD2>[A] Negative Pressure Enclosure/HEPA Vacuum System Method
</HD2>
<P>(1) The brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair, and assembly operations shall be enclosed to cover and contain the clutch or brake assembly and to prevent the release of asbestos fibers into the worker's breathing zone.
</P>
<P>(2) The enclosure shall be sealed tightly and thoroughly inspected for leaks before work begins on brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair, and assembly.
</P>
<P>(3) The enclosure shall be such that the worker can clearly see the operation and shall provide impermeable sleeves through which the worker can handle the brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair and assembly. The integrity of the sleeves and ports shall be examined before work begins.
</P>
<P>(4) A HEPA-filtered vacuum shall be employed to maintain the enclosure under negative pressure throughout the operation. Compressed-air may be used to remove asbestos fibers or particles from the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(5) The HEPA vacuum shall be used first to loosen the asbestos containing residue from the brake and clutch parts and then to evacuate the loosened asbestos containing material from the enclosure and capture the material in the vacuum filter.
</P>
<P>(6) The vacuum's filter, when full, shall be first wetted with a fine mist of water, then removed and placed immediately in an impermeable container, labeled according to paragraph (j)(5) of this section and disposed of according to paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Any spills or releases of asbestos containing waste material from inside of the enclosure or vacuum hose or vacuum filter shall be immediately cleaned up and disposed of according to paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<HD2>[B] Low Pressure/Wet Cleaning Method
</HD2>
<P>(1) A catch basin shall be placed under the brake assembly, positioned to avoid splashes and spills.
</P>
<P>(2) The reservoir shall contain water containing an organic solvent or wetting agent. The flow of liquid shall be controlled such that the brake assembly is gently flooded to prevent the asbestos-containing brake dust from becoming airborne.
</P>
<P>(3) The aqueous solution shall be allowed to flow between the brake drum and brake support before the drum is removed.
</P>
<P>(4) After removing the brake drum, the wheel hub and back of the brake assembly shall be thoroughly wetted to suppress dust.
</P>
<P>(5) The brake support plate, brake shoes and brake components used to attach the brake shoes shall be thoroughly washed before removing the old shoes.
</P>
<P>(6) In systems using filters, the filters, when full, shall be first wetted with a fine mist of water, then removed and placed immediately in an impermeable container, labeled according to paragraph (j)(4) of this section and disposed of according to paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Any spills of asbestos-containing aqueous solution or any asbestos-containing waste material shall be cleaned up immediately and disposed of according to paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) The use of dry brushing during low pressure/wet cleaning operations is prohibited.
</P>
<HD2>[C] Equivalent Methods
</HD2>
<P>An equivalent method is one which has sufficient written detail so that it can be reproduced and has been demonstrated that the exposures resulting from the equivalent method are equal to or less than the exposures which would result from the use of the method described in paragraph [A] of this appendix. For purposes of making this comparison, the employer shall assume that exposures resulting from the use of the method described in paragraph [A] of this appendix shall not exceed 0.016 f/cc, as measured by the OSHA reference method and as averaged over at least 18 personal samples.
</P>
<HD2>[D] Wet Method.
</HD2>
<P>(1) A spray bottle, hose nozzle, or other implement capable of delivering a fine mist of water or amended water or other delivery system capable of delivering water at low pressure, shall be used to first thoroughly wet the brake and clutch parts. Brake and clutch components shall then be wiped clean with a cloth.
</P>
<P>(2) The cloth shall be placed in an impermeable container, labelled according to paragraph (j)(4) of this section and then disposed of according to paragraph (k) of this section, or the cloth shall be laundered in a way to prevent the release of asbestos fibers in excess of 0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air.
</P>
<P>(3) Any spills of solvent or any asbestos containing waste material shall be cleaned up immediately according to paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The use of dry brushing during the wet method operations is prohibited.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix G to § 1910.1001—Substance Technical Information for Asbestos—Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<HD3>I. Substance Identification
</HD3>
<P>A. Substance: “Asbestos” is the name of a class of magnesium-silicate minerals that occur in fibrous form. Minerals that are included in this group are chrysotile, crocidolite, amosite, tremolite asbestos, anthophyllite asbestos, and actinolite asbestos.
</P>
<P>B. Asbestos is used in the manufacture of heat-resistant clothing, automative brake and clutch linings, and a variety of building materials including floor tiles, roofing felts, ceiling tiles, asbestos-cement pipe and sheet, and fire-resistant drywall. Asbestos is also present in pipe and boiler insulation materials, and in sprayed-on materials located on beams, in crawlspaces, and between walls.
</P>
<P>C. The potential for a product containing asbestos to release breatheable fibers depends on its degree of friability. Friable means that the material can be crumbled with hand pressure and is therefore likely to emit fibers. The fibrous or fluffy sprayed-on materials used for fireproofing, insulation, or sound proofing are considered to be friable, and they readily release airborne fibers if disturbed. Materials such as vinyl-asbestos floor tile or roofing felts are considered nonfriable and generally do not emit airborne fibers unless subjected to sanding or sawing operations. Asbestos-cement pipe or sheet can emit airborne fibers if the materials are cut or sawed, or if they are broken during demolition operations.
</P>
<P>D. Permissible exposure: Exposure to airborne asbestos fibers may not exceed 0.2 fibers per cubic centimeter of air (0.1 f/cc) averaged over the 8-hour workday.
</P>
<HD3>II. Health Hazard Data
</HD3>
<P>A. Asbestos can cause disabling respiratory disease and various types of cancers if the fibers are inhaled. Inhaling or ingesting fibers from contaminated clothing or skin can also result in these diseases. The symptoms of these diseases generally do not appear for 20 or more years after initial exposure.
</P>
<P>B. Exposure to asbestos has been shown to cause lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of the stomach and colon. Mesothelioma is a rare cancer of the thin membrane lining of the chest and abdomen. Symptoms of mesothelioma include shortness of breath, pain in the walls of the chest, and/or abdominal pain.
</P>
<HD3>III. Respirators and Protective Clothing
</HD3>
<P>A. Respirators: You are required to wear a respirator when performing tasks that result in asbestos exposure that exceeds the permissible exposure limit (PEL) of 0.1 f/cc. These conditions can occur while your employer is in the process of installing engineering controls to reduce asbestos exposure, or where engineering controls are not feasible to reduce asbestos exposure. Air-purifying respirators equipped with a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter can be used where airborne asbestos fiber concentrations do not exceed 2 f/cc; otherwise, air-supplied, positive-pressure, full facepiece respirators must be used. Disposable respirators or dust masks are not permitted to be used for asbestos work. For effective protection, respirators must fit your face and head snugly. Your employer is required to conduct fit tests when you are first assigned a respirator and every 6 months thereafter. Respirators should not be loosened or removed in work situations where their use is required.
</P>
<P>B. Protective clothing: You are required to wear protective clothing in work areas where asbestos fiber concentrations exceed the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<HD3>IV. Disposal Procedures and Cleanup
</HD3>
<P>A. Wastes that are generated by processes where asbestos is present include:
</P>
<P>1. Empty asbestos shipping containers.
</P>
<P>2. Process wastes such as cuttings, trimmings, or reject material.
</P>
<P>3. Housekeeping waste from sweeping or vacuuming.
</P>
<P>4. Asbestos fireproofing or insulating material that is removed from buildings.
</P>
<P>5. Building products that contain asbestos removed during building renovation or demolition.
</P>
<P>6. Contaminated disposable protective clothing.
</P>
<P>B. Empty shipping bags can be flattened under exhaust hoods and packed into airtight containers for disposal. Empty shipping drums are difficult to clean and should be sealed.
</P>
<P>C. Vacuum bags or disposable paper filters should not be cleaned, but should be sprayed with a fine water mist and placed into a labeled waste container.
</P>
<P>D. Process waste and housekeeping waste should be wetted with water or a mixture of water and surfactant prior to packaging in disposable containers.
</P>
<P>E. Material containing asbestos that is removed from buildings must be disposed of in leak-tight 6-mil thick plastic bags, plastic-lined cardboard containers, or plastic-lined metal containers. These wastes, which are removed while wet, should be sealed in containers before they dry out to minimize the release of asbestos fibers during handling.
</P>
<HD3>V. Access to Information
</HD3>
<P>A. Each year, your employer is required to inform you of the information contained in this standard and appendices for asbestos. In addition, your employer must instruct you in the proper work practices for handling materials containing asbestos, and the correct use of protective equipment.
</P>
<P>B. Your employer is required to determine whether you are being exposed to asbestos. You or your representative has the right to observe employee measurements and to record the results obtained. Your employer is required to inform you of your exposure, and, if you are exposed above the permissible limit, he or she is required to inform you of the actions that are being taken to reduce your exposure to within the permissible limit.
</P>
<P>C. Your employer is required to keep records of your exposures and medical examinations. These exposure records must be kept for at least thirty (30) years. Medical records must be kept for the period of your employment plus thirty (30) years.
</P>
<P>D. Your employer is required to release your exposure and medical records to your physician or designated representative upon your written request.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix H to § 1910.1001—Medical Surveillance Guidelines for Asbestos Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<HD3>I. Route of Entry Inhalation, Ingestion
</HD3>
<HD3>II. Toxicology
</HD3>
<P>Clinical evidence of the adverse effects associated with exposure to asbestos is present in the form of several well-conducted epidemiological studies of occupationally exposed workers, family contacts of workers, and persons living near asbestos mines. These studies have shown a definite association between exposure to asbestos and an increased incidence of lung cancer, pleural and peritoneal mesothelioma, gastrointestinal cancer, and asbestosis. The latter is a disabling fibrotic lung disease that is caused only by exposure to asbestos. Exposure to asbestos has also been associated with an increased incidence of esophageal, kidney, laryngeal, pharyngeal, and buccal cavity cancers. As with other known chronic occupational diseases, disease associated with asbestos generally appears about 20 years following the first occurrence of exposure: There are no known acute effects associated with exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<P>Epidemiological studies indicate that the risk of lung cancer among exposed workers who smoke cigarettes is greatly increased over the risk of lung cancer among non-exposed smokers or exposed nonsmokers. These studies suggest that cessation of smoking will reduce the risk of lung cancer for a person exposed to asbestos but will not reduce it to the same level of risk as that existing for an exposed worker who has never smoked.


</P>
<HD1>III. Signs and Symptoms of Exposure-Related Disease
</HD1>
<P>The signs and symptoms of lung cancer or gastrointestinal cancer induced by exposure to asbestos are not unique, except that a chest X-ray of an exposed patient with lung cancer may show pleural plaques, pleural calcification, or pleural fibrosis, and may also show asbestosis (<I>i.e.,</I> small irregular parenchymal opacities). Symptoms characteristic of mesothelioma include shortness of breath, pain in the chest or abdominal pain. Mesothelioma has a much longer average latency period compared with lung cancer (40 years versus 15-20 years), and mesothelioma is therefore more likely to be found among workers who were first exposed to asbestos at an early age. Mesothelioma is a fatal disease.
</P>
<P>Asbestosis is pulmonary fibrosis caused by the accumulation of asbestos fibers in the lungs. Symptoms include shortness of breath, coughing, fatigue, and vague feelings of sickness. When the fibrosis worsens, shortness of breath occurs even at rest. The diagnosis of asbestosis is most commonly based on a history of exposure to asbestos, the presence of characteristic radiologic abnormalities, end-inspiratory crackles (rales), and other clinical features of fibrosing lung disease. Pleural plaques and thickening may be observed on chest X-rays. Asbestosis is often a progressive disease even in the absence of continued exposure, although this appears to be a highly individualized characteristic. In severe cases, death may be caused by respiratory or cardiac failure.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Surveillance and Preventive Considerations
</HD1>
<P>As noted in section III of this appendix, exposure to asbestos has been linked to an increased risk of lung cancer, mesothelioma, gastrointestinal cancer, and asbestosis among occupationally exposed workers. Adequate screening tests to determine an employee's potential for developing serious chronic diseases, such as cancer, from exposure to asbestos do not presently exist. However, some tests, particularly chest X-rays and pulmonary function tests, may indicate that an employee has been overexposed to asbestos increasing his or her risk of developing exposure-related chronic diseases. It is important for the physician to become familiar with the operating conditions in which occupational exposure to asbestos is likely to occur. This is particularly important in evaluating medical and work histories and in conducting physical examinations. When an active employee has been identified as having been overexposed to asbestos, measures taken by the employer to eliminate or mitigate further exposure should also lower the risk of serious long-term consequences.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or will be exposed to asbestos at or above the permissible exposure limit (0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air). All examinations and procedures must be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, at a reasonable time and place, and at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>Although broad latitude is given to the physician in prescribing specific tests to be included in the medical surveillance program, OSHA requires inclusion of the following elements in the routine examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Medical and work histories with special emphasis directed to symptoms of the respiratory system, cardiovascular system, and digestive tract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Completion of the respiratory disease questionnaire contained in appendix D of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A physical examination including a chest X-ray and pulmonary function test that includes measurement of the employee's forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>).
</P>
<P>(iv) Any laboratory or other test that the examining physician deems by sound medical practice to be necessary.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to make the prescribed tests available at least annually to those employees covered; more often than specified if recommended by the examining physician; and upon termination of employment.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to provide the physician with the following information: A copy of the standard in this section (including all appendices to this section); a description of the employee's duties as they relate to asbestos exposure; the employee's representative level of exposure to asbestos; a description of any personal protective and respiratory equipment used; and information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee that is not otherwise available to the physician. Making this information available to the physician will aid in the evaluation of the employee's health in relation to assigned duties and fitness to wear personal protective equipment, if required.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to obtain a written opinion from the examining physician containing the results of the medical examination; the physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions that would place the employee at an increased risk of exposure-related disease; any recommended limitations on the employee or on the use of personal protective equipment; and a statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions related to asbestos exposure that require further explanation or treatment. This written opinion must not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to exposure to asbestos, and a copy of the opinion must be provided to the affected employee.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix I to § 1910.1001—Smoking Cessation Program Information For Asbestos—Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>The following organizations provide smoking cessation information and program material.
</P>
<P>1. The National Cancer Institute operates a toll-free Cancer Information Service (CIS) with trained personnel to help you. Call 1-800-4-CANCER* to reach the CIS office serving your area, or write: Office of Cancer Communications, National Cancer Institute, National Institutes of Health, Building 31, Room 10A24, Bethesda, Maryland 20892.
</P>
<P>2. American Cancer Society, 3340 Peachtree Road, NE., Atlanta, Georgia 30062, (404) 320-3333.
</P>
<P>The American Cancer Society (ACS) is a voluntary organization composed of 58 divisions and 3,100 local units. Through “The Great American Smokeout” in November, the annual Cancer Crusade in April, and numerous educational materials, ACS helps people learn about the health hazards of smoking and become successful ex-smokers.
</P>
<P>3. American Heart Association, 7320 Greenville Avenue, Dallas, Texas 75231, (214) 750-5300.
</P>
<P>The American Heart Association (AHA) is a voluntary organization with 130,000 members (physicians, scientists, and laypersons) in 55 state and regional groups. AHA produces a variety of publications and audiovisual materials about the effects of smoking on the heart. AHA also has developed a guidebook for incorporating a weight-control component into smoking cessation programs.
</P>
<P>4. American Lung Association, 1740 Broadway, New York, New York 10019, (212) 245-8000.
</P>
<P>A voluntary organization of 7,500 members (physicians, nurses, and laypersons), the American Lung Association (ALA) conducts numerous public information programs about the health effect of smoking. ALA has 59 state and 85 local units. The organization actively supports legislation and information campaigns for non-smokers' rights and provides help for smokers who want to quit, for example, through “Freedom From Smoking,” a self-help smoking cessation program.
</P>
<P>5. Office on Smoking and Health, U.S. Department of Health and, Human Services, 5600 Fishers Lane, Park Building, Room 110, Rockville, Maryland 20857.
</P>
<P>The Office on Smoking and Health (OSH) is the Department of Health and Human Services' lead agency in smoking control. OSH has sponsored distribution of publications on smoking-realted topics, such as free flyers on relapse after initial quitting, helping a friend or family member quit smoking, the health hazards of smoking, and the effects of parental smoking on teenagers.
</P>
<P>*In Hawaii, on Oahu call 524-1234 (call collect from neighboring islands),
</P>
<P>Spanish-speaking staff members are available during daytime hours to callers from the following areas: California, Florida, Georgia, Illinois, New Jersey (area code 210), New York, and Texas. Consult your local telephone directory for listings of local chapters.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix J to § 1910.1001—Polarized Light Microscopy of Asbestos—Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<FP-2>Method number: ID-191
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Matrix: Bulk
</FP-2>
<HD3>Collection Procedure
</HD3>
<P>Collect approximately 1 to 2 grams of each type of material and place into separate 20 mL scintillation vials.
</P>
<HD3>Analytical Procedure
</HD3>
<P>A portion of each separate phase is analyzed by gross examination, phase-polar examination, and central stop dispersion microscopy.
</P>
<P>Commercial manufacturers and products mentioned in this method are for descriptive use only and do not constitute endorsements by USDOL-OSHA. Similar products from other sources may be substituted.
</P>
<HD2>1. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>This method describes the collection and analysis of asbestos bulk materials by light microscopy techniques including phase- polar illumination and central-stop dispersion microscopy. Some terms unique to asbestos analysis are defined below:
</P>
<P><I>Amphibole:</I> A family of minerals whose crystals are formed by long, thin units which have two thin ribbons of double chain silicate with a brucite ribbon in between. The shape of each unit is similar to an “I beam”. Minerals important in asbestos analysis include cummingtonite-grunerite, crocidolite, tremolite-actinolite and anthophyllite.
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos:</I> A term for naturally occurring fibrous minerals. Asbestos includes chrysotile, cummingtonite-grunerite asbestos (amosite), anthophyllite asbestos, tremolite asbestos, crocidolite, actinolite asbestos and any of these minerals which have been chemically treated or altered. The precise chemical formulation of each species varies with the location from which it was mined. Nominal compositions are listed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Mg<E T="52">3</E> Si<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite (Riebeckite asbestos)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Na<E T="52">2</E> Fe<E T="52">3</E>
<sup>2 + </sup> Fe<E T="52">2</E>
<sup>3 + </sup> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cummingtonite-Grunerite asbestos (Amosite)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite-Actinolite asbestos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca<E T="52">2</E>(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">5</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite asbestos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Asbestos Fiber:</I> A fiber of asbestos meeting the criteria for a fiber. (See section 3.5.)
</P>
<P><I>Aspect Ratio:</I> The ratio of the length of a fiber to its diameter usually defined as “length : width”, e.g. 3:1.
</P>
<P><I>Brucite:</I> A sheet mineral with the composition Mg(OH)<E T="52">2</E>.
</P>
<P><I>Central Stop Dispersion Staining (microscope):</I> This is a dark field microscope technique that images particles using only light refracted by the particle, excluding light that travels through the particle unrefracted. This is usually accomplished with a McCrone objective or other arrangement which places a circular stop with apparent aperture equal to the objective aperture in the back focal plane of the microscope.
</P>
<P><I>Cleavage Fragments:</I> Mineral particles formed by the comminution of minerals, especially those characterized by relatively parallel sides and moderate aspect ratio.
</P>
<P><I>Differential Counting:</I> The term applied to the practice of excluding certain kinds of fibers from a phase contrast asbestos count because they are not asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Fiber:</I> A particle longer than or equal to 5 µm with a length to width ratio greater than or equal to 3:1. This may include cleavage fragments. (see section 3.5 of this appendix).
</P>
<P><I>Phase Contrast:</I> Contrast obtained in the microscope by causing light scattered by small particles to destructively interfere with unscattered light, thereby enhancing the visibility of very small particles and particles with very low intrinsic contrast.
</P>
<P><I>Phase Contrast Microscope:</I> A microscope configured with a phase mask pair to create phase contrast. The technique which uses this is called Phase Contrast Microscopy (PCM).
</P>
<P><I>Phase-Polar Analysis:</I> This is the use of polarized light in a phase contrast microscope. It is used to see the same size fibers that are visible in air filter analysis. Although fibers finer than 1 µm are visible, analysis of these is inferred from analysis of larger bundles that are usually present.
</P>
<P><I>Phase-Polar Microscope:</I> The phase-polar microscope is a phase contrast microscope which has an analyzer, a polarizer, a first order red plate and a rotating phase condenser all in place so that the polarized light image is enhanced by phase contrast.
</P>
<P><I>Sealing Encapsulant:</I> This is a product which can be applied, preferably by spraying, onto an asbestos surface which will seal the surface so that fibers cannot be released.
</P>
<P><I>Serpentine:</I> A mineral family consisting of minerals with the general composition Mg<E T="52">3</E>(Si2O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E> having the magnesium in brucite layer over a silicate layer. Minerals important in asbestos analysis included in this family are chrysotile, lizardite, antigorite.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. History
</HD3>
<P>Light microscopy has been used for well over 100 years for the determination of mineral species. This analysis is carried out using specialized polarizing microscopes as well as bright field microscopes. The identification of minerals is an on-going process with many new minerals described each year. The first recorded use of asbestos was in Finland about 2500 B.C. where the material was used in the mud wattle for the wooden huts the people lived in as well as strengthening for pottery. Adverse health aspects of the mineral were noted nearly 2000 years ago when Pliny the Younger wrote about the poor health of slaves in the asbestos mines. Although known to be injurious for centuries, the first modern references to its toxicity were by the British Labor Inspectorate when it banned asbestos dust from the workplace in 1898. Asbestosis cases were described in the literature after the turn of the century. Cancer was first suspected in the mid 1930's and a causal link to mesothelioma was made in 1965. Because of the public concern for worker and public safety with the use of this material, several different types of analysis were applied to the determination of asbestos content. Light microscopy requires a great deal of experience and craft. Attempts were made to apply less subjective methods to the analysis. X-ray diffraction was partially successful in determining the mineral types but was unable to separate out the fibrous portions from the non-fibrous portions. Also, the minimum detection limit for asbestos analysis by X-ray diffraction (XRD) is about 1%. Differential Thermal Analysis (DTA) was no more successful. These provide useful corroborating information when the presence of asbestos has been shown by microscopy; however, neither can determine the difference between fibrous and non-fibrous minerals when both habits are present. The same is true of Infrared Absorption (IR).
</P>
<P>When electron microscopy was applied to asbestos analysis, hundreds of fibers were discovered present too small to be visible in any light microscope. There are two different types of electron microscope used for asbestos analysis: Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) and Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). Scanning Electron Microscopy is useful in identifying minerals. The SEM can provide two of the three pieces of information required to identify fibers by electron microscopy: morphology and chemistry. The third is structure as determined by Selected Area Electron Diffraction—SAED which is performed in the TEM. Although the resolution of the SEM is sufficient for very fine fibers to be seen, accuracy of chemical analysis that can be performed on the fibers varies with fiber diameter in fibers of less than 0.2 µm diameter. The TEM is a powerful tool to identify fibers too small to be resolved by light microscopy and should be used in conjunction with this method when necessary. The TEM can provide all three pieces of information required for fiber identification. Most fibers thicker than 1 µm can adequately be defined in the light microscope. The light microscope remains as the best instrument for the determination of mineral type. This is because the minerals under investigation were first described analytically with the light microscope. It is inexpensive and gives positive identification for most samples analyzed. Further, when optical techniques are inadequate, there is ample indication that alternative techniques should be used for complete identification of the sample.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. Principle
</HD3>
<P>Minerals consist of atoms that may be arranged in random order or in a regular arrangement. Amorphous materials have atoms in random order while crystalline materials have long range order. Many materials are transparent to light, at least for small particles or for thin sections. The properties of these materials can be investigated by the effect that the material has on light passing through it. The six asbestos minerals are all crystalline with particular properties that have been identified and cataloged. These six minerals are anisotropic. They have a regular array of atoms, but the arrangement is not the same in all directions. Each major direction of the crystal presents a different regularity. Light photons travelling in each of these main directions will encounter different electrical neighborhoods, affecting the path and time of travel. The techniques outlined in this method use the fact that light traveling through fibers or crystals in different directions will behave differently, but predictably. The behavior of the light as it travels through a crystal can be measured and compared with known or determined values to identify the mineral species. Usually, Polarized Light Microscopy (PLM) is performed with strain-free objectives on a bright-field microscope platform. This would limit the resolution of the microscope to about 0.4 µm. Because OSHA requires the counting and identification of fibers visible in phase contrast, the phase contrast platform is used to visualize the fibers with the polarizing elements added into the light path. Polarized light methods cannot identify fibers finer than about 1 µm in diameter even though they are visible. The finest fibers are usually identified by inference from the presence of larger, identifiable fiber bundles. When fibers are present, but not identifiable by light microscopy, use either SEM or TEM to determine the fiber identity.
</P>
<HD3>1.3. Advantages and Disadvantages
</HD3>
<P>The advantages of light microcopy are:
</P>
<P>(a) Basic identification of the materials was first performed by light microscopy and gross analysis. This provides a large base of published information against which to check analysis and analytical technique.
</P>
<P>(b) The analysis is specific to fibers. The minerals present can exist in asbestiform, fibrous, prismatic, or massive varieties all at the same time. Therefore, bulk methods of analysis such as X-ray diffraction, IR analysis, DTA, etc. are inappropriate where the material is not known to be fibrous.
</P>
<P>(c) The analysis is quick, requires little preparation time, and can be performed on-site if a suitably equipped microscope is available.
</P>
<P>The disadvantages are:
</P>
<P>(a) Even using phase-polar illumination, not all the fibers present may be seen. This is a problem for very low asbestos concentrations where agglomerations or large bundles of fibers may not be present to allow identification by inference.
</P>
<P>(b) The method requires a great degree of sophistication on the part of the microscopist. An analyst is only as useful as his mental catalog of images. Therefore, a microscopist's accuracy is enhanced by experience. The mineralogical training of the analyst is very important. It is the basis on which subjective decisions are made.
</P>
<P>(c) The method uses only a tiny amount of material for analysis. This may lead to sampling bias and false results (high or low). This is especially true if the sample is severely inhomogeneous.
</P>
<P>(d) Fibers may be bound in a matrix and not distinguishable as fibers so identification cannot be made.
</P>
<HD3>1.4. Method Performance
</HD3>
<P><I>1.4.1.</I> This method can be used for determination of asbestos content from 0 to 100% asbestos. The detection limit has not been adequately determined, although for selected samples, the limit is very low, depending on the number of particles examined. For mostly homogeneous, finely divided samples, with no difficult fibrous interferences, the detection limit is below 1%. For inhomogeneous samples (most samples), the detection limit remains undefined. NIST has conducted proficiency testing of laboratories on a national scale. Although each round is reported statistically with an average, control limits, etc., the results indicate a difficulty in establishing precision especially in the low concentration range. It is suspected that there is significant bias in the low range especially near 1%. EPA tried to remedy this by requiring a mandatory point counting scheme for samples less than 10%. The point counting procedure is tedious, and may introduce significant biases of its own. It has not been incorporated into this method.
</P>
<P><I>1.4.2.</I> The precision and accuracy of the quantitation tests performed in this method are unknown. Concentrations are easier to determine in commercial products where asbestos was deliberately added because the amount is usually more than a few percent. An analyst's results can be “calibrated” against the known amounts added by the manufacturer. For geological samples, the degree of homogeneity affects the precision.
</P>
<P><I>1.4.3.</I> The performance of the method is analyst dependent. The analyst must choose carefully and not necessarily randomly the portions for analysis to assure that detection of asbestos occurs when it is present. For this reason, the analyst must have adequate training in sample preparation, and experience in the location and identification of asbestos in samples. This is usually accomplished through substantial on-the-job training as well as formal education in mineralogy and microscopy.
</P>
<HD3>1.5. Interferences
</HD3>
<P>Any material which is long, thin, and small enough to be viewed under the microscope can be considered an interference for asbestos. There are literally hundreds of interferences in workplaces. The techniques described in this method are normally sufficient to eliminate the interferences. An analyst's success in eliminating the interferences depends on proper training.
</P>
<P>Asbestos minerals belong to two mineral families: the serpentines and the amphiboles. In the serpentine family, the only common fibrous mineral is chrysotile. Occasionally, the mineral antigorite occurs in a fibril habit with morphology similar to the amphiboles. The amphibole minerals consist of a score of different minerals of which only five are regulated by federal standard: amosite, crocidolite, anthophyllite asbestos, tremolite asbestos and actinolite asbestos. These are the only amphibole minerals that have been commercially exploited for their fibrous properties; however, the rest can and do occur occasionally in asbestiform habit.
</P>
<P>In addition to the related mineral interferences, other minerals common in building material may present a problem for some microscopists: gypsum, anhydrite, brucite, quartz fibers, talc fibers or ribbons, wollastonite, perlite, attapulgite, etc. Other fibrous materials commonly present in workplaces are: fiberglass, mineral wool, ceramic wool, refractory ceramic fibers, kevlar, nomex, synthetic fibers, graphite or carbon fibers, cellulose (paper or wood) fibers, metal fibers, etc.
</P>
<P>Matrix embedding material can sometimes be a negative interference. The analyst may not be able to easily extract the fibers from the matrix in order to use the method. Where possible, remove the matrix before the analysis, taking careful note of the loss of weight. Some common matrix materials are: vinyl, rubber, tar, paint, plant fiber, cement, and epoxy. A further negative interference is that the asbestos fibers themselves may be either too small to be seen in Phase contrast Microscopy (PCM) or of a very low fibrous quality, having the appearance of plant fibers. The analyst's ability to deal with these materials increases with experience.
</P>
<HD3>1.6. Uses and Occupational Exposure
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is ubiquitous in the environment. More than 40% of the land area of the United States is composed of minerals which may contain asbestos. Fortunately, the actual formation of great amounts of asbestos is relatively rare. Nonetheless, there are locations in which environmental exposure can be severe such as in the Serpentine Hills of California.
</P>
<P>There are thousands of uses for asbestos in industry and the home. Asbestos abatement workers are the most current segment of the population to have occupational exposure to great amounts of asbestos. If the material is undisturbed, there is no exposure. Exposure occurs when the asbestos-containing material is abraded or otherwise disturbed during maintenance operations or some other activity. Approximately 95% of the asbestos in place in the United States is chrysotile.
</P>
<P>Amosite and crocidolite make up nearly all the difference. Tremolite and anthophyllite make up a very small percentage. Tremolite is found in extremely small amounts in certain chrysotile deposits. Actinolite exposure is probably greatest from environmental sources, but has been identified in vermiculite containing, sprayed-on insulating materials which may have been certified as asbestos-free.
</P>
<HD3>1.7. Physical and Chemical Properties
</HD3>
<P>The nominal chemical compositions for the asbestos minerals were given in Section 1. Compared to cleavage fragments of the same minerals, asbestiform fibers possess a high tensile strength along the fiber axis. They are chemically inert, non- combustible, and heat resistant. Except for chrysotile, they are insoluble in Hydrochloric acid (HCl). Chrysotile is slightly soluble in HCl. Asbestos has high electrical resistance and good sound absorbing characteristics. It can be woven into cables, fabrics or other textiles, or matted into papers, felts, and mats.
</P>
<HD3>1.8. Toxicology (This section is for Information Only and Should Not Be Taken as OSHA Policy)
</HD3>
<P>Possible physiologic results of respiratory exposure to asbestos are mesothelioma of the pleura or peritoneum, interstitial fibrosis, asbestosis, pneumoconiosis, or respiratory cancer. The possible consequences of asbestos exposure are detailed in the NIOSH Criteria Document or in the OSHA Asbestos Standards 29 CFR 1910.1001 and 29 CFR 1926.1101 and 29 CFR 1915.1001.
</P>
<HD2>2. Sampling Procedure
</HD2>
<HD3>2.1. Equipment for Sampling
</HD3>
<P>(a) Tube or cork borer sampling device
</P>
<P>(b) Knife
</P>
<P>(c) 20 mL scintillation vial or similar vial
</P>
<P>(d) Sealing encapsulant
</P>
<HD3>2.2. Safety Precautions
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is a known carcinogen. Take care when sampling. While in an asbestos-containing atmosphere, a properly selected and fit-tested respirator should be worn. Take samples in a manner to cause the least amount of dust. Follow these general guidelines:
</P>
<P>(a) Do not make unnecessary dust.
</P>
<P>(b) Take only a small amount (1 to 2 g).
</P>
<P>(c) Tightly close the sample container.
</P>
<P>(d) Use encapsulant to seal the spot where the sample was taken, if necessary.
</P>
<HD3>2.3. Sampling Procedure
</HD3>
<P>Samples of any suspect material should be taken from an inconspicuous place. Where the material is to remain, seal the sampling wound with an encapsulant to eliminate the potential for exposure from the sample site. Microscopy requires only a few milligrams of material. The amount that will fill a 20 mL scintillation vial is more than adequate. Be sure to collect samples from all layers and phases of material. If possible, make separate samples of each different phase of the material. This will aid in determining the actual hazard. <I>DO NOT USE ENVELOPES, PLASTIC OR PAPER BAGS OF ANY KIND TO COLLECT SAMPLES.</I> The use of plastic bags presents a contamination hazard to laboratory personnel and to other samples. When these containers are opened, a bellows effect blows fibers out of the container onto everything, including the person opening the container.
</P>
<P>If a cork-borer type sampler is available, push the tube through the material all the way, so that all layers of material are sampled. Some samplers are intended to be disposable. These should be capped and sent to the laboratory. If a non-disposable cork borer is used, empty the contents into a scintillation vial and send to the laboratory. Vigorously and completely clean the cork borer between samples.
</P>
<HD3>2.4 Shipment
</HD3>
<P>Samples packed in glass vials must not touch or they might break in shipment.
</P>
<P>(a) Seal the samples with a sample seal over the end to guard against tampering and to identify the sample.
</P>
<P>(b) Package the bulk samples in separate packages from the air samples. They may cross-contaminate each other and will invalidate the results of the air samples.
</P>
<P>(c) Include identifying paperwork <I>with</I> the samples, but not in contact with the suspected asbestos.
</P>
<P>(d) To maintain sample accountability, ship the samples by certified mail, overnight express, or hand carry them to the laboratory.
</P>
<HD2>3. Analysis
</HD2>
<P>The analysis of asbestos samples can be divided into two major parts: sample preparation and microscopy. Because of the different asbestos uses that may be encountered by the analyst, each sample may need different preparation steps. The choices are outlined below. There are several different tests that are performed to identify the asbestos species and determine the percentage. They will be explained below.
</P>
<HD3>3.1. Safety
</HD3>
<P>(a) Do not create unnecessary dust. Handle the samples in HEPA-filter equipped hoods. If samples are received in bags, envelopes or other inappropriate container, open them only in a hood having a face velocity at or greater than 100 fpm. Transfer a small amount to a scintillation vial and only handle the smaller amount.
</P>
<P>(b) Open samples in a hood, never in the open lab area.
</P>
<P>(c) Index of refraction oils can be toxic. Take care not to get this material on the skin. Wash immediately with soap and water if this happens.
</P>
<P>(d) Samples that have been heated in the muffle furnace or the drying oven may be hot. Handle them with tongs until they are cool enough to handle.
</P>
<P>(e) Some of the solvents used, such as THF (tetrahydrofuran), are toxic and should only be handled in an appropriate fume hood and according to instructions given in the Safety data sheet (SDS).
</P>
<HD3>3.2. Equipment
</HD3>
<P>(a) Phase contrast microscope with 10x, 16x and 40x objectives, 10x wide-field eyepieces, G-22 Walton-Beckett graticule, Whipple disk, polarizer, analyzer and first order red or gypsum plate, 100 Watt illuminator, rotating position condenser with oversize phase rings, central stop dispersion objective, Kohler illumination and a rotating mechanical stage.
</P>
<P>(b) Stereo microscope with reflected light illumination, transmitted light illumination, polarizer, analyzer and first order red or gypsum plate, and rotating stage.
</P>
<P>(c) Negative pressure hood for the stereo microscope
</P>
<P>(d) Muffle furnace capable of 600 °C
</P>
<P>(e) Drying oven capable of 50-150 °C
</P>
<P>(f) Aluminum specimen pans
</P>
<P>(g) Tongs for handling samples in the furnace
</P>
<P>(h) High dispersion index of refraction oils (Special for dispersion staining.)
</P>
<FP-1>n = 1.550
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.585
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.590
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.605
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.620
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.670
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.680
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.690
</FP-1>
<P>(i) A set of index of refraction oils from about n = 1.350 to n = 2.000 in n = 0.005 increments. (Standard for Becke line analysis.)
</P>
<P>(j) Glass slides with painted or frosted ends 1 × 3 inches 1mm thick, precleaned.
</P>
<P>(k) Cover Slips 22 × 22 mm, #1
<FR>1/2</FR>
</P>
<P>(l) Paper clips or dissection needles
</P>
<P>(m) Hand grinder
</P>
<P>(n) Scalpel with both #10 and #11 blades
</P>
<P>(o) 0.1 molar HCl
</P>
<P>(p) Decalcifying solution (Baxter Scientific Products) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic Acid,
</P>
<LDRWK>
<FL-2>Tetrasodium</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>0.7 g/l
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Sodium Potassium Tartrate</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>8.0 mg/liter
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Hydrochloric Acid </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>99.2 g/liter
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Sodium Tartrate </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>0.14 g/liter</LDRFIG></LDRWK>
<P>(q) Tetrahydrofuran (THF)
</P>
<P>(r) Hotplate capable of 60 °C
</P>
<P>(s) Balance
</P>
<P>(t) Hacksaw blade
</P>
<P>(u) Ruby mortar and pestle
</P>
<HD3>3.3. Sample Pre-Preparation
</HD3>
<P>Sample preparation begins with pre-preparation which may include chemical reduction of the matrix, heating the sample to dryness or heating in the muffle furnace. The end result is a sample which has been reduced to a powder that is sufficiently fine to fit under the cover slip. Analyze different phases of samples separately, e.g., tile and the tile mastic should be analyzed separately as the mastic may contain asbestos while the tile may not.
</P>
<HD3>(a) <I>Wet samples</I>
</HD3>
<P>Samples with a high water content will not give the proper dispersion colors and must be dried prior to sample mounting. Remove the lid of the scintillation vial, place the bottle in the drying oven and heat at 100 °C to dryness (usually about 2 h). Samples which are not submitted to the lab in glass must be removed and placed in glass vials or aluminum weighing pans before placing them in the drying oven.
</P>
<HD3>(b) <I>Samples With Organic Interference—Muffle Furnace</I>
</HD3>
<P>These may include samples with tar as a matrix, vinyl asbestos tile, or any other organic that can be reduced by heating. Remove the sample from the vial and weigh in a balance to determine the weight of the submitted portion. Place the sample in a muffle furnace at 500 °C for 1 to 2 h or until all obvious organic material has been removed. Retrieve, cool and weigh again to determine the weight loss on ignition. This is necessary to determine the asbestos content of the submitted sample, because the analyst will be looking at a reduced sample.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Heating above 600 °C will cause the sample to undergo a structural change which, given sufficient time, will convert the chrysotile to forsterite. Heating even at lower temperatures for 1 to 2 h may have a measurable effect on the optical properties of the minerals. If the analyst is unsure of what to expect, a sample of standard asbestos should be heated to the same temperature for the same length of time so that it can be examined for the proper interpretation.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>(c) <I>Samples With Organic Interference—THF</I>
</HD3>
<P>Vinyl asbestos tile is the most common material treated with this solvent, although, substances containing tar will sometimes yield to this treatment. Select a portion of the material and then grind it up if possible. Weigh the sample and place it in a test tube. Add sufficient THF to dissolve the organic matrix. This is usually about 4 to 5 mL. <I>Remember, THF is highly flammable.</I> Filter the remaining material through a tared silver membrane, dry and weigh to determine how much is left after the solvent extraction. Further process the sample to remove carbonate or mount directly.
</P>
<HD3>(d) <I>Samples With Carbonate Interference</I>
</HD3>
<P>Carbonate material is often found on fibers and sometimes must be removed in order to perform dispersion microscopy. Weigh out a portion of the material and place it in a test tube. Add a sufficient amount of 0.1 M HCl or decalcifying solution in the tube to react all the carbonate as evidenced by gas formation; i.e., when the gas bubbles stop, add a little more solution. If no more gas forms, the reaction is complete. Filter the material out through a tared silver membrane, dry and weigh to determine the weight lost.
</P>
<HD3>3.4. Sample Preparation
</HD3>
<P>Samples must be prepared so that accurate determination can be made of the asbestos type and amount present. The following steps are carried out in the low-flow hood (a low-flow hood has less than 50 fpm flow):
</P>
<P>(1) If the sample has large lumps, is hard, or cannot be made to lie under a cover slip, the grain size must be reduced. Place a small amount between two slides and grind the material between them or grind a small amount in a clean mortar and pestle. The choice of whether to use an alumina, ruby, or diamond mortar depends on the hardness of the material. Impact damage can alter the asbestos mineral if too much mechanical shock occurs. (Freezer mills can completely destroy the observable crystallinity of asbestos and should not be used). For some samples, a portion of material can be shaved off with a scalpel, ground off with a hand grinder or hack saw blade.
</P>
<P>The preparation tools should either be disposable or cleaned thoroughly. Use vigorous scrubbing to loosen the fibers during the washing. Rinse the implements with copious amounts of water and air-dry in a dust-free environment.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sample is powder or has been reduced as in (1) above, it is ready to mount. Place a glass slide on a piece of optical tissue and write the identification on the painted or frosted end. Place two drops of index of refraction medium n = 1.550 on the slide. (The medium n = 1.550 is chosen because it is the matching index for chrysotile. Dip the end of a clean paper-clip or dissecting needle into the droplet of refraction medium on <I>the slide</I> to moisten it. Then dip the probe into the powder sample. Transfer what sticks on the probe to the slide. The material on the end of the probe should have a diameter of about 3 mm for a good mount. If the material is very fine, less sample may be appropriate. For non-powder samples such as fiber mats, forceps should be used to transfer a small amount of material to the slide. Stir the material in the medium on the slide, spreading it out and making the preparation as uniform as possible. Place a cover-slip on the preparation by gently lowering onto the slide and allowing it to fall “trapdoor” fashion on the preparation to push out any bubbles. Press gently on the cover slip to even out the distribution of particulate on the slide. If there is insufficient mounting oil on the slide, one or two drops may be placed near the edge of the coverslip on the slide. Capillary action will draw the necessary amount of liquid into the preparation. Remove excess oil with the point of a laboratory wiper.
</P>
<P>Treat at least two different areas of each phase in this fashion. Choose representative areas of the sample. It may be useful to select particular areas or fibers for analysis. This is useful to identify asbestos in severely inhomogeneous samples.
</P>
<P>When it is determined that amphiboles may be present, repeat the above process using the appropriate high-dispersion oils until an identification is made or all six asbestos minerals have been ruled out. Note that percent determination must be done in the index medium 1.550 because amphiboles tend to disappear in their matching mediums.
</P>
<HD3>3.5. Analytical Procedure
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This method presumes some knowledge of mineralogy and optical petrography.</P></NOTE>
<P>The analysis consists of three parts: The determination of whether there is asbestos present, what type is present and the determination of how much is present. The general flow of the analysis is:
</P>
<P>(1) Gross examination.
</P>
<P>(2) Examination under polarized light on the stereo microscope.
</P>
<P>(3) Examination by phase-polar illumination on the compound phase microscope.
</P>
<P>(4) Determination of species by dispersion stain. Examination by Becke line analysis may also be used; however, this is usually more cumbersome for asbestos determination.
</P>
<P>(5) Difficult samples may need to be analyzed by SEM or TEM, or the results from those techniques combined with light microscopy for a definitive identification. Identification of a particle as asbestos requires that it be asbestiform. Description of particles should follow the suggestion of Campbell. (Figure 1)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.007.gif"/>
<P>For the purpose of regulation, the mineral must be one of the six minerals covered and must be in the asbestos growth habit. Large specimen samples of asbestos generally have the gross appearance of wood. Fibers are easily parted from it. Asbestos fibers are very long compared with their widths. The fibers have a very high tensile strength as demonstrated by bending without breaking. Asbestos fibers exist in bundles that are easily parted, show longitudinal fine structure and may be tufted at the ends showing “bundle of sticks” morphology. In the microscope some of these properties may not be observable. Amphiboles do not always show striations along their length even when they are asbestos. Neither will they always show tufting. They generally do not show a curved nature except for very long fibers. Asbestos and asbestiform minerals are usually characterized in groups by extremely high aspect ratios (greater than 100:1). While aspect ratio analysis is useful for characterizing populations of fibers, it cannot be used to identify individual fibers of intermediate to short aspect ratio. Observation of many fibers is often necessary to determine whether a sample consists of “cleavage fragments” or of asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>Most cleavage fragments of the asbestos minerals are easily distinguishable from true asbestos fibers. This is because true cleavage fragments usually have larger diameters than 1 µm. Internal structure of particles larger than this usually shows them to have no internal fibrillar structure. In addition, cleavage fragments of the monoclinic amphiboles show inclined extinction under crossed polars with no compensator. Asbestos fibers usually show extinction at zero degrees or ambiguous extinction if any at all. Morphologically, the larger cleavage fragments are obvious by their blunt or stepped ends showing prismatic habit. Also, they tend to be acicular rather than filiform.
</P>
<P>Where the particles are less than 1 µm in diameter and have an aspect ratio greater than or equal to 3:1, it is recommended that the sample be analyzed by SEM or TEM if there is any question whether the fibers are cleavage fragments or asbestiform particles.
</P>
<P>Care must be taken when analyzing by electron microscopy because the interferences are different from those in light microscopy and may structurally be very similar to asbestos. The classic interference is between anthophyllite and biopyribole or intermediate fiber. Use the same morphological clues for electron microscopy as are used for light microscopy, e.g. fibril splitting, internal longitudinal striation, fraying, curvature, etc.
</P>
<P>(1) Gross examination:
</P>
<P>Examine the sample, preferably in the glass vial. Determine the presence of any obvious fibrous component. Estimate a percentage based on previous experience and current observation. Determine whether any pre- preparation is necessary. Determine the number of phases present. This step may be carried out or augmented by observation at 6 to 40 × under a stereo microscope.
</P>
<P>(2) After performing any necessary pre-preparation, prepare slides of each phase as described above. Two preparations of the same phase in the same index medium can be made side-by-side on the same glass for convenience. Examine with the polarizing stereo microscope. Estimate the percentage of asbestos based on the amount of birefringent fiber present.
</P>
<P>(3) Examine the slides on the phase-polar microscopes at magnifications of 160 and 400 × . Note the morphology of the fibers. Long, thin, very straight fibers with little curvature are indicative of fibers from the amphibole family. Curved, wavy fibers are usually indicative of chrysotile. Estimate the percentage of asbestos on the phase-polar microscope under conditions of crossed polars and a gypsum plate. Fibers smaller than 1.0 µm in thickness must be identified by inference to the presence of larger, identifiable fibers and morphology. If no larger fibers are visible, electron microscopy should be performed. At this point, only a tentative identification can be made. Full identification must be made with dispersion microscopy. Details of the tests are included in the appendices.
</P>
<P>(4) Once fibers have been determined to be present, they must be identified. Adjust the microscope for dispersion mode and observe the fibers. The microscope has a rotating stage, one polarizing element, and a system for generating dark-field dispersion microscopy (see Section 4.6. of this appendix). Align a fiber with its length parallel to the polarizer and note the color of the Becke lines. Rotate the stage to bring the fiber length perpendicular to the polarizer and note the color. Repeat this process for every fiber or fiber bundle examined. The colors must be consistent with the colors generated by standard asbestos reference materials for a positive identification. In n = 1.550, amphiboles will generally show a yellow to straw-yellow color indicating that the fiber indices of refraction are higher than the liquid. If long, thin fibers are noted and the colors are yellow, prepare further slides as above in the suggested matching liquids listed below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of asbestos
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Index of refraction
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.550.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amosite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.670 or 1.680.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.690.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.605 and 1.620.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.605 and 1.620.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.620.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Where more than one liquid is suggested, the first is preferred; however, in some cases this liquid will not give good dispersion color. Take care to avoid interferences in the other liquid; e.g., wollastonite in n = 1.620 will give the same colors as tremolite. In n = 1.605 wollastonite will appear yellow in all directions. Wollastonite may be determined under crossed polars as it will change from blue to yellow as it is rotated along its fiber axis by tapping on the cover slip. Asbestos minerals will not change in this way.
</P>
<P>Determination of the angle of extinction may, when present, aid in the determination of anthophyllite from tremolite. True asbestos fibers usually have 0° extinction or ambiguous extinction, while cleavage fragments have more definite extinction.
</P>
<P>Continue analysis until both preparations have been examined and all present species of asbestos are identified. If there are no fibers present, or there is less than 0.1% present, end the analysis with the minimum number of slides (2).
</P>
<P>(5) Some fibers have a coating on them which makes dispersion microscopy very difficult or impossible. Becke line analysis or electron microscopy may be performed in those cases. Determine the percentage by light microscopy. TEM analysis tends to overestimate the actual percentage present.
</P>
<P>(6) Percentage determination is an estimate of occluded area, tempered by gross observation. Gross observation information is used to make sure that the high magnification microscopy does not greatly over- or under- estimate the amount of fiber present. This part of the analysis requires a great deal of experience. Satisfactory models for asbestos content analysis have not yet been developed, although some models based on metallurgical grain-size determination have found some utility. Estimation is more easily handled in situations where the grain sizes visible at about 160 × are about the same and the sample is relatively homogeneous.
</P>
<P>View all of the area under the cover slip to make the percentage determination. View the fields while moving the stage, paying attention to the clumps of material. These are not usually the best areas to perform dispersion microscopy because of the interference from other materials. But, they are the areas most likely to represent the accurate percentage in the sample. Small amounts of asbestos require slower scanning and more frequent analysis of individual fields.
</P>
<P>Report the area occluded by asbestos as the concentration. This estimate does not generally take into consideration the difference in density of the different species present in the sample. For most samples this is adequate. Simulation studies with similar materials must be carried out to apply microvisual estimation for that purpose and is beyond the scope of this procedure.
</P>
<P>(7) Where successive concentrations have been made by chemical or physical means, the amount reported is the percentage of the material in the “as submitted” or original state. The percentage determined by microscopy is multiplied by the fractions remaining after pre-preparation steps to give the percentage in the original sample. For example:
</P>
<FP-1>Step 1. 60% remains after heating at 550 °C for 1 h.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Step 2. 30% of the residue of step 1 remains after dissolution of carbonate in 0.1 m HCl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Step 3. Microvisual estimation determines that 5% of the sample is chrysotile asbestos.
</FP-1>
<P>The reported result is:
</P>
<FP-1>R = (Microvisual result in percent) × (Fraction remaining after step 2) × (Fraction remaining of original sample after step 1)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R = (5) × (.30) × (.60) = 0.9%
</FP-1>
<P>(8) Report the percent and type of asbestos present. For samples where asbestos was identified, but is less than 1.0%, report “Asbestos present, less than 1.0%.” There must have been at least two observed fibers or fiber bundles in the two preparations to be reported as present. For samples where asbestos was not seen, report as “None Detected.”
</P>
<HD2>4. Auxiliary Information
</HD2>
<P>Because of the subjective nature of asbestos analysis, certain concepts and procedures need to be discussed in more depth. This information will help the analyst understand why some of the procedures are carried out the way they are.
</P>
<HD3>4.1. Light
</HD3>
<P>Light is electromagnetic energy. It travels from its source in packets called quanta. It is instructive to consider light as a plane wave. The light has a direction of travel. Perpendicular to this and mutually perpendicular to each other, are two vector components. One is the magnetic vector and the other is the electric vector. We shall only be concerned with the electric vector. In this description, the interaction of the vector and the mineral will describe all the observable phenomena. From a light source such a microscope illuminator, light travels in all different direction from the filament.
</P>
<P>In any given direction away from the filament, the electric vector is perpendicular to the direction of travel of a light ray. While perpendicular, its orientation is random about the travel axis. If the electric vectors from all the light rays were lined up by passing the light through a filter that would only let light rays with electric vectors oriented in one direction pass, the light would then be <I>POLARIZED.</I>
</P>
<P>Polarized light interacts with matter in the direction of the electric vector. This is the polarization direction. Using this property it is possible to use polarized light to probe different materials and identify them by how they interact with light.
</P>
<P>The speed of light in a vacuum is a constant at about 2.99 × 10
<SU>8</SU> m/s. When light travels in different materials such as air, water, minerals or oil, it does not travel at this speed. It travels slower. This slowing is a function of both the material through which the light is traveling and the wavelength or frequency of the light. In general, the more dense the material, the slower the light travels. Also, generally, the higher the frequency, the slower the light will travel. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to that in a material is called the index of refraction (n). It is usually measured at 589 nm (the sodium D line). If white light (light containing all the visible wavelengths) travels through a material, rays of longer wavelengths will travel faster than those of shorter wavelengths, this separation is called dispersion. Dispersion is used as an identifier of materials as described in Section 4.6.
</P>
<HD3>4.2. Material Properties
</HD3>
<P>Materials are either amorphous or crystalline. The difference between these two descriptions depends on the positions of the atoms in them. The atoms in amorphous materials are randomly arranged with no long range order. An example of an amorphous material is glass. The atoms in crystalline materials, on the other hand, are in regular arrays and have long range order. Most of the atoms can be found in highly predictable locations. Examples of crystalline material are salt, gold, and the asbestos minerals.
</P>
<P>It is beyond the scope of this method to describe the different types of crystalline materials that can be found, or the full description of the classes into which they can fall. However, some general crystallography is provided below to give a foundation to the procedures described.
</P>
<P>With the exception of anthophyllite, all the asbestos minerals belong to the monoclinic crystal type. The unit cell is the basic repeating unit of the crystal and for monoclinic crystals can be described as having three unequal sides, two 90° angles and one angle not equal to 90°. The orthorhombic group, of which anthophyllite is a member has three unequal sides and three 90° angles. The unequal sides are a consequence of the complexity of fitting the different atoms into the unit cell. Although the atoms are in a regular array, that array is not symmetrical in all directions. There is long range order in the three major directions of the crystal. However, the order is different in each of the three directions. This has the effect that the index of refraction is different in each of the three directions. Using polarized light, we can investigate the index of refraction in each of the directions and identify the mineral or material under investigation. The indices α, β, and γ are used to identify the lowest, middle, and highest index of refraction respectively. The x direction, associated with α is called the fast axis. Conversely, the z direction is associated with γ and is the slow direction. Crocidolite has α along the fiber length making it “length-fast”. The remainder of the asbestos minerals have the γ axis along the fiber length. They are called “length-slow”. This orientation to fiber length is used to aid in the identification of asbestos.
</P>
<HD3>4.3. Polarized Light Technique
</HD3>
<P>Polarized light microscopy as described in this section uses the phase-polar microscope described in Section 3.2. A phase contrast microscope is fitted with two polarizing elements, one below and one above the sample. The polarizers have their polarization directions at right angles to each other. Depending on the tests performed, there may be a compensator between these two polarizing elements. Light emerging from a polarizing element has its electric vector pointing in the polarization direction of the element. The light will not be subsequently transmitted through a second element set at a right angle to the first element. Unless the light is altered as it passes from one element to the other, there is no transmission of light.
</P>
<HD3>4.4. Angle of Extinction
</HD3>
<P>Crystals which have different crystal regularity in two or three main directions are said to be anisotropic. They have a different index of refraction in each of the main directions. When such a crystal is inserted between the crossed polars, the field of view is no longer dark but shows the crystal in color. The color depends on the properties of the crystal. The light acts as if it travels through the crystal along the optical axes. If a crystal optical axis were lined up along one of the polarizing directions (either the polarizer or the analyzer) the light would appear to travel only in that direction, and it would blink out or go dark. The difference in degrees between the fiber direction and the angle at which it blinks out is called the angle of extinction. When this angle can be measured, it is useful in identifying the mineral. The procedure for measuring the angle of extinction is to first identify the polarization direction in the microscope. A commercial alignment slide can be used to establish the polarization directions or use anthophyllite or another suitable mineral. This mineral has a zero degree angle of extinction and will go dark to extinction as it aligns with the polarization directions. When a fiber of anthophyllite has gone to extinction, align the eyepiece reticle or graticule with the fiber so that there is a visual cue as to the direction of polarization in the field of view. Tape or otherwise secure the eyepiece in this position so it will not shift.
</P>
<P>After the polarization direction has been identified in the field of view, move the particle of interest to the center of the field of view and align it with the polarization direction. For fibers, align the fiber along this direction. Note the angular reading of the rotating stage. Looking at the particle, rotate the stage until the fiber goes dark or “blinks out”. Again note the reading of the stage. The difference in the first reading and the second is an angle of extinction.
</P>
<P>The angle measured may vary as the orientation of the fiber changes about its long axis. Tables of mineralogical data usually report the maximum angle of extinction. Asbestos forming minerals, when they exhibit an angle of extinction, usually do show an angle of extinction close to the reported maximum, or as appropriate depending on the substitution chemistry.
</P>
<HD3>4.5. Crossed Polars with Compensator
</HD3>
<P>When the optical axes of a crystal are not lined up along one of the polarizing directions (either the polarizer or the analyzer) part of the light travels along one axis and part travels along the other visible axis. This is characteristic of birefringent materials.
</P>
<P>The color depends on the difference of the two visible indices of refraction and the thickness of the crystal. The maximum difference available is the difference between the α and the γ axes. This maximum difference is usually tabulated as the birefringence of the crystal.
</P>
<P>For this test, align the fiber at 45° to the polarization directions in order to maximize the contribution to each of the optical axes. The colors seen are called retardation colors. They arise from the recombination of light which has traveled through the two separate directions of the crystal. One of the rays is retarded behind the other since the light in that direction travels slower. On recombination, some of the colors which make up white light are enhanced by constructive interference and some are suppressed by destructive interference. The result is a color dependent on the difference between the indices and the thickness of the crystal. The proper colors, thicknesses, and retardations are shown on a Michel-Levy chart. The three items, retardation, thickness and birefringence are related by the following relationship:
</P>
<FP-2>R = t(n<E T="8064">γ</E>—n<E T="8064">α</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R = retardation, t = crystal thickness in µm, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="8064">α,γ</E> = indices of refraction.
</FP-2>
<P>Examination of the equation for asbestos minerals reveals that the visible colors for almost all common asbestos minerals and fiber sizes are shades of gray and black. The eye is relatively poor at discriminating different shades of gray. It is very good at discriminating different colors. In order to compensate for the low retardation, a compensator is added to the light train between the polarization elements. The compensator used for this test is a gypsum plate of known thickness and birefringence. Such a compensator when oriented at 45° to the polarizer direction, provides a retardation of 530 nm of the 530 nm wavelength color. This enhances the red color and gives the background a characteristic red to red-magenta color. If this “full-wave” compensator is in place when the asbestos preparation is inserted into the light train, the colors seen on the fibers are quite different. Gypsum, like asbestos has a fast axis and a slow axis. When a fiber is aligned with its fast axis in the same direction as the fast axis of the gypsum plate, the ray vibrating in the slow direction is retarded by both the asbestos and the gypsum. This results in a higher retardation than would be present for either of the two minerals. The color seen is a second order blue. When the fiber is rotated 90° using the rotating stage, the slow direction of the fiber is now aligned with the fast direction of the gypsum and the fast direction of the fiber is aligned with the slow direction of the gypsum. Thus, one ray vibrates faster in the fast direction of the gypsum, and slower in the slow direction of the fiber; the other ray will vibrate slower in the slow direction of the gypsum and faster in the fast direction of the fiber. In this case, the effect is subtractive and the color seen is a first order yellow. As long as the fiber thickness does not add appreciably to the color, the same basic colors will be seen for all asbestos types except crocidolite. In crocidolite the colors will be weaker, may be in the opposite directions, and will be altered by the blue absorption color natural to crocidolite. Hundreds of other materials will give the same colors as asbestos, and therefore, this test is not definitive for asbestos. The test is useful in discriminating against fiberglass or other amorphous fibers such as some synthetic fibers. Certain synthetic fibers will show retardation colors different than asbestos; however, there are some forms of polyethylene and aramid which will show morphology and retardation colors similar to asbestos minerals. This test must be supplemented with a positive identification test when birefringent fibers are present which can not be excluded by morphology. This test is relatively ineffective for use on fibers less than 1 µm in diameter. For positive confirmation TEM or SEM should be used if no larger bundles or fibers are visible.
</P>
<HD3>4.6. Dispersion Staining
</HD3>
<P>Dispersion microscopy or dispersion staining is the method of choice for the identification of asbestos in bulk materials. Becke line analysis is used by some laboratories and yields the same results as does dispersion staining for asbestos and can be used in lieu of dispersion staining. Dispersion staining is performed on the same platform as the phase-polar analysis with the analyzer and compensator removed. One polarizing element remains to define the direction of the light so that the different indices of refraction of the fibers may be separately determined. Dispersion microscopy is a dark-field technique when used for asbestos. Particles are imaged with scattered light. Light which is unscattered is blocked from reaching the eye either by the back field image mask in a McCrone objective or a back field image mask in the phase condenser. The most convenient method is to use the rotating phase condenser to move an oversized phase ring into place. The ideal size for this ring is for the central disk to be just larger than the objective entry aperture as viewed in the back focal plane. The larger the disk, the less scattered light reaches the eye. This will have the effect of diminishing the intensity of dispersion color and will shift the actual color seen. The colors seen vary even on microscopes from the same manufacturer. This is due to the different bands of wavelength exclusion by different mask sizes. The mask may either reside in the condenser or in the objective back focal plane. It is imperative that the analyst determine by experimentation with asbestos standards what the appropriate colors should be for each asbestos type. The colors depend also on the temperature of the preparation and the exact chemistry of the asbestos. Therefore, some slight differences from the standards should be allowed. This is not a serious problem for commercial asbestos uses. This technique is used for identification of the indices of refraction for fibers by recognition of color. There is no direct numerical readout of the index of refraction. Correlation of color to actual index of refraction is possible by referral to published conversion tables. This is not necessary for the analysis of asbestos. Recognition of appropriate colors along with the proper morphology are deemed sufficient to identify the commercial asbestos minerals. Other techniques including SEM, TEM, and XRD may be required to provide additional information in order to identify other types of asbestos.
</P>
<P>Make a preparation in the suspected matching high dispersion oil, e.g., n = 1.550 for chrysotile. Perform the preliminary tests to determine whether the fibers are birefringent or not. Take note of the morphological character. Wavy fibers are indicative of chrysotile while long, straight, thin, frayed fibers are indicative of amphibole asbestos. This can aid in the selection of the appropriate matching oil. The microscope is set up and the polarization direction is noted as in Section 4.4. Align a fiber with the polarization direction. Note the color. This is the color parallel to the polarizer. Then rotate the fiber rotating the stage 90° so that the polarization direction is across the fiber. This is the perpendicular position. Again note the color. Both colors must be consistent with standard asbestos minerals in the correct direction for a positive identification of asbestos. If only one of the colors is correct while the other is not, the identification is not positive. If the colors in both directions are bluish-white, the analyst has chosen a matching index oil which is higher than the correct matching oil, e.g. the analyst has used n = 1.620 where chrysotile is present. The next lower oil (Section 3.5.) should be used to prepare another specimen. If the color in both directions is yellow-white to straw-yellow-white, this indicates that the index of the oil is lower than the index of the fiber, e.g. the preparation is in n = 1.550 while anthophyllite is present. Select the next higher oil (Section 3.5.) and prepare another slide. Continue in this fashion until a positive identification of all asbestos species present has been made or all possible asbestos species have been ruled out by negative results in this test. Certain plant fibers can have similar dispersion colors as asbestos. Take care to note and evaluate the morphology of the fibers or remove the plant fibers in pre- preparation. Coating material on the fibers such as carbonate or vinyl may destroy the dispersion color. Usually, there will be some outcropping of fiber which will show the colors sufficient for identification. When this is not the case, treat the sample as described in Section 3.3. and then perform dispersion staining. Some samples will yield to Becke line analysis if they are coated or electron microscopy can be used for identification.
</P>
<HD2>5. References
</HD2>
<P>5.1. Crane, D.T., <I>Asbestos in Air,</I> OSHA method ID160, Revised November 1992.
</P>
<P>5.2. Ford, W.E., <I>Dana's Textbook of Mineralogy;</I> Fourth Ed.; John Wiley and Son, New York, 1950, p. vii.
</P>
<P>5.3. Selikoff,.I.J., Lee, D.H.K., <I>Asbestos and Disease,</I> Academic Press, New York, 1978, pp. 3,20.
</P>
<P>5.4. <I>Women Inspectors of Factories.</I> Annual Report for 1898, H.M. Statistical Office, London, p. 170 (1898).
</P>
<P>5.5. Selikoff, I.J., Lee, D.H.K., <I>Asbestos and Disease,</I> Academic Press, New York, 1978, pp. 26,30.
</P>
<P>5.6. Campbell, W.J., et al, <I>Selected Silicate Minerals and Their Asbestiform Varieties,</I> United States Department of the Interior, Bureau of Mines, Information Circular 8751, 1977.
</P>
<P>5.7. <I>Asbestos,</I> Code of Federal Regulations, 29 CFR 1910.1001 and 29 CFR 1926.58.
</P>
<P>5.8. <I>National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants; Asbestos NESHAP Revision,</I> <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> Vol. 55, No. 224, 20 November 1990, p. 48410.
</P>
<P>5.9. Ross, M. <I>The Asbestos Minerals: Definitions, Description, Modes of Formation, Physical and Chemical Properties and Health Risk to the Mining Community,</I> Nation Bureau of Standards Special Publication, Washington, DC, 1977.
</P>
<P>5.10. Lilis, R., Fibrous Zeolites and Endemic Mesothelioma in Cappadocia, Turkey, <I>J. Occ Medicine,</I> 1981, 23,(8),548-550.
</P>
<P>5.11. <I>Occupational Exposure to Asbestos—1972,</I> U.S. Department of Health, Education and Welfare, Public Health Service, Center for Disease Control, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, HSM-72-10267.
</P>
<P>5.12. Campbell, W.J., et al, Relationship of Mineral Habit to Size <I>Characteristics for Tremolite Fragments and Fibers,</I> United States Department of the Interior, Bureau of Mines, Information Circular 8367, 1979.
</P>
<P>5.13. Mefford, D., DCM Laboratory, Denver, private communication, July 1987.
</P>
<P>5.14. Deer, W.A., Howie, R.A., Zussman, J., <I>Rock Forming Minerals,</I> Longman, Thetford, UK, 1974.
</P>
<P>5.15. Kerr, P.F., <I>Optical Mineralogy;</I> Third Ed. McGraw-Hill, New York, 1959.
</P>
<P>5.16. Veblen, D.R. (Ed.), <I>Amphiboles and Other Hydrous Pyriboles—Mineralogy, Reviews in Mineralogy,</I> Vol 9A, Michigan, 1982, pp 1-102.
</P>
<P>5.17. Dixon, W.C., <I>Applications of Optical Microscopy in the Analysis of Asbestos</I> and Quartz, ACS Symposium Series, No. 120, Analytical Techniques in Occupational Health Chemistry, 1979.
</P>
<P>5.18. Polarized Light Microscopy, McCrone Research Institute, Chicago, 1976.
</P>
<P>5.19. Asbestos Identification, McCrone Research Institute, G &amp; G printers, Chicago, 1987.
</P>
<P>5.20. McCrone, W.C., Calculation of Refractive Indices from Dispersion Staining Data, The Microscope, No 37, Chicago, 1989.
</P>
<P>5.21. Levadie, B. (Ed.), <I>Asbestos and Other Health Related Silicates,</I> ASTM Technical Publication 834, ASTM, Philadelphia 1982.
</P>
<P>5.22. Steel, E. and Wylie, A., Riordan, P.H. (Ed.), Mineralogical Characteristics of Asbestos, <I>Geology of Asbestos Deposits,</I> pp. 93-101, SME-AIME, 1981.
</P>
<P>5.23. Zussman, J., The Mineralogy of Asbestos, <I>Asbestos: Properties, Applications and Hazards,</I> pp. 45-67 Wiley, 1979.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22733, June 20, 1986]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1910.1001, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1002" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1002   Coal tar pitch volatiles; interpretation of term.</HEAD>
<P>As used in § 1910.1000 (Table Z-1), coal tar pitch volatiles include the fused polycyclic hydrocarbons which volatilize from the distillation residues of coal, petroleum (excluding asphalt), wood, and other organic matter. Asphalt (CAS 8052-42-4, and CAS 64742-93-4) is not covered under the “coal tar pitch volatiles” standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2768, Jan. 21, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1003" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1003   13 Carcinogens (4-Nitrobiphenyl, etc.).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to any area in which the 13 carcinogens addressed by this section are manufactured, processed, repackaged, released, handled, or stored, but shall not apply to transshipment in sealed containers, except for the labeling requirements under paragraphs (e)(2), (3) and (4) of this section. The 13 carcinogens are the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>4-Nitrobiphenyl, Chemical Abstracts Service Register Number (CAS No.) 92933;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>alpha-Naphthylamine, CAS No. 134327;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>methyl chloromethyl ether, CAS No. 107302;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,′-Dichlorobenzidine (and its salts) CAS No. 91941;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>bis-Chloromethyl ether, CAS No. 542881;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>beta-Naphthylamine, CAS No. 91598;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzidine, CAS No. 92875;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminodiphenyl, CAS No. 92671;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyleneimine, CAS No. 151564;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>beta-Propiolactone, CAS No. 57578;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Acetylaminofluorene, CAS No. 53963;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Dimethylaminoazo-benezene, CAS No. 60117; and
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosodimethylamine, CAS No. 62759.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) This section shall not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Solid or liquid mixtures containing less than 0.1 percent by weight or volume of 4-Nitrobiphenyl; methyl chloromethyl ether; bis-chloromethyl ether; beta-Naphthylamine; benzidine or 4-Aminodiphenyl; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Solid or liquid mixtures containing less than 1.0 percent by weight or volume of alpha-Naphthylamine; 3,′-Dichlorobenzidine (and its salts); Ethyleneimine; beta-Propiolactone; 2-Acetylaminofluorene; 4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene, or N-Nitrosodimethylamine.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Absolute filter</I> is one capable of retaining 99.97 percent of a mono disperse aerosol of 0.3 µm particles.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized employee</I> means an employee whose duties require him to be in the regulated area and who has been specifically assigned by the employer.
</P>
<P><I>Clean change room</I> means a room where employees put on clean clothing and/or protective equipment in an environment free of the 13 carcinogens addressed by this section. The clean change room shall be contiguous to and have an entry from a shower room, when the shower room facilities are otherwise required in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Closed system</I> means an operation involving a carcinogen addressed by this section where containment prevents the release of the material into regulated areas, non-regulated areas, or the external environment.
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination</I> means the inactivation of a carcinogen addressed by this section or its safe disposal.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, or any person directed by him or the Secretary of Health and Human Services to act for the Director.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal</I> means the safe removal of the carcinogens addressed by this section from the work environment.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means an unforeseen circumstance or set of circumstances resulting in the release of a carcinogen addressed by this section that may result in exposure to or contact with the material.
</P>
<P><I>External environment</I> means any environment external to regulated and nonregulated areas.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated system</I> means a fully enclosed structure other than the vessel of containment of a carcinogen addressed by this section that is impervious to the passage of the material and would prevent the entry of the carcinogen addressed by this section into regulated areas, nonregulated areas, or the external environment, should leakage or spillage from the vessel of containment occur.
</P>
<P><I>Laboratory-type hood</I> is a device enclosed on the three sides and the top and bottom, designed and maintained so as to draw air inward at an average linear face velocity of 150 feet per minute with a minimum of 125 feet per minute; designed, constructed, and maintained in such a way that an operation involving a carcinogen addressed by this section within the hood does not require the insertion of any portion of any employee's body other than his hands and arms.
</P>
<P><I>Nonregulated area</I> means any area under the control of the employer where entry and exit is neither restricted nor controlled.
</P>
<P><I>Open-vessel system</I> means an operation involving a carcinogen addressed by this section in an open vessel that is not in an isolated system, a laboratory-type hood, nor in any other system affording equivalent protection against the entry of the material into regulated areas, non-regulated areas, or the external environment.
</P>
<P><I>Protective clothing</I> means clothing designed to protect an employee against contact with or exposure to a carcinogen addressed by this section.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area where entry and exit is restricted and controlled.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for areas containing a carcinogen addressed by this section.</I> A regulated area shall be established by an employer where a carcinogen addressed by this section is manufactured, processed, used, repackaged, released, handled or stored. All such areas shall be controlled in accordance with the requirements for the following category or categories describing the operation involved:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Isolated systems.</I> Employees working with a carcinogen addressed by this section within an isolated system such as a “glove box” shall wash their hands and arms upon completion of the assigned task and before engaging in other activities not associated with the isolated system.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Closed system operation.</I> (i) Within regulated areas where the carcinogens addressed by this section are stored in sealed containers, or contained in a closed system, including piping systems, with any sample ports or openings closed while the carcinogens addressed by this section are contained within, access shall be restricted to authorized employees only.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees exposed to 4-Nitrobiphenyl; alpha-Naphthylamine; 3,′-Dichlorobenzidine (and its salts); beta-Naphthylamine; benzidine; 4-Aminodiphenyl; 2-Acetylaminofluorene; 4-Dimethylaminoazo-benzene; and N-Nitrosodimethylamine shall be required to wash hands, forearms, face, and neck upon each exit from the regulated areas, close to the point of exit, and before engaging in other activities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Open-vessel system operations.</I> Open-vessel system operations as defined in paragraph (b)(13) of this section are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer from a closed system, charging or discharging point operations, or otherwise opening a closed system.</I> In operations involving “laboratory-type hoods,” or in locations where the carcinogens addressed by this section are contained in an otherwise “closed system,” but is transferred, charged, or discharged into other normally closed containers, the provisions of this paragraph shall apply.
</P>
<P>(i) Access shall be restricted to authorized employees only.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each operation shall be provided with continuous local exhaust ventilation so that air movement is always from ordinary work areas to the operation. Exhaust air shall not be discharged to regulated areas, nonregulated areas or the external environment unless decontaminated. Clean makeup air shall be introduced in sufficient volume to maintain the correct operation of the local exhaust system.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees shall be provided with, and required to wear, clean, full body protective clothing (smocks, coveralls, or long-sleeved shirt and pants), shoe covers and gloves prior to entering the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employers must provide each employee engaged in handling operations involving the carcinogens 4-Nitrobiphenyl, alpha-Naphthylamine, 3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine (and its salts), beta-Naphthylamine, Benzidine, 4-Aminodiphenyl, 2-Acetylaminofluorene, 4-Dimethylaminoazo-benzene, and N-Nitrosodimethylamine, addressed by this section, with, and ensure that each of these employees wears and uses, a NIOSH-certified air-purifying, half-mask respirator with particulate filters. Employers also must provide each employee engaged in handling operations involving the carcinogens methyl chloromethyl ether, bis-Chloromethyl ether, Ethyleneimine, and beta-Propiolactone, addressed by this section, with, and ensure that each of these employees wears and uses any self-contained breathing apparatus that has a full facepiece and is operated in a pressure-demand or other positive-pressure mode, or any supplied-air respirator that has a full facepiece and is operated in a pressure-demand or other positive-pressure mode in combination with an auxiliary self-contained positive-pressure breathing apparatus. Employers may substitute a respirator affording employees higher levels of protection than these respirators.
</P>
<P>(v) Prior to each exit from a regulated area, employees shall be required to remove and leave protective clothing and equipment at the point of exit and at the last exit of the day, to place used clothing and equipment in impervious containers at the point of exit for purposes of decontamination or disposal. The contents of such impervious containers shall be identified, as required under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) Drinking fountains are prohibited in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(vii) Employees shall be required to wash hands, forearms, face, and neck on each exit from the regulated area, close to the point of exit, and before engaging in other activities and employees exposed to 4-Nitrobiphenyl; alpha-Naphthylamine; 3,′-Dichlorobenzidine (and its salts); beta-Naphthylamine; Benzidine; 4-Aminodiphenyl; 2-Acetylaminofluorene; 4-Dimethylaminoazo-benzene; and N-Nitrosodimethylamine shall be required to shower after the last exit of the day.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Maintenance and decontamination activities.</I> In cleanup of leaks of spills, maintenance, or repair operations on contaminated systems or equipment, or any operations involving work in an area where direct contact with a carcinogen addressed by this section could result, each authorized employee entering that area shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be provided with and required to wear clean, impervious garments, including gloves, boots, and continuous-air supplied hood in accordance with § 1910.134;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be decontaminated before removing the protective garments and hood;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be required to shower upon removing the protective garments and hood.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General regulated area requirements</I>—(1) <I>Respiratory program.</I> The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134 (b), (c), (d) (except (d)(1)(iii) and (iv), and (d)(3)), and (e) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergencies.</I> In an emergency, immediate measures including, but not limited to, the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2) (i) through (v) of this section shall be implemented.
</P>
<P>(i) The potentially affected area shall be evacuated as soon as the emergency has been determined.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hazardous conditions created by the emergency shall be eliminated and the potentially affected area shall be decontaminated prior to the resumption of normal operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Special medical surveillance by a physician shall be instituted within 24 hours for employees present in the potentially affected area at the time of the emergency.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where an employee has a known contact with a carcinogen addressed by this section, such employee shall be required to shower as soon as possible, unless contraindicated by physical injuries.
</P>
<P>(v) Emergency deluge showers and eyewash fountains supplied with running potable water shall be located near, within sight of, and on the same level with locations where a direct exposure to Ethyleneimine or beta-Propiolactone only would be most likely as a result of equipment failure or improper work practice.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices.</I> (i) Storage or consumption of food, storage or use of containers of beverages, storage or application of cosmetics, smoking, storage of smoking materials, tobacco products or other products for chewing, or the chewing of such products are prohibited in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where employees are required by this section to wash, washing facilities shall be provided in accordance with § 1910.141(d) (1) and (2) (ii) through (vii).
</P>
<P>(iii) Where employees are required by this section to shower, shower facilities shall be provided in accordance with § 1910.141(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(iv) Where employees wear protective clothing and equipment, clean change rooms shall be provided for the number of such employees required to change clothes, in accordance with § 1910.141(e).
</P>
<P>(v) Where toilets are in regulated areas, such toilets shall be in a separate room.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contamination control.</I> (i) Except for outdoor systems, regulated areas shall be maintained under pressure negative with respect to nonregulated areas. Local exhaust ventilation may be used to satisfy this requirement. Clean makeup air in equal volume shall replace air removed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any equipment, material, or other item taken into or removed from a regulated area shall be done so in a manner that does not cause contamination in nonregulated areas or the external environment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Decontamination procedures shall be established and implemented to remove carcinogens addressed by this section from the surfaces of materials, equipment, and the decontamination facility.
</P>
<P>(iv) Dry sweeping and dry mopping are prohibited for 4-Nitrobiphenyl; alpha-Naphthylamine; 3,′-Dichlorobenzidine (and its salts); beta-Naphthylamine; Benzidine; 4-Aminodiphenyl; 2-Acetylaminofluorene; 4-Dimethylaminoazo-benzene and N-Nitrosodimethylamine.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for each carcinogen listed in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of carcinogens listed in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section, at least the hazards listed in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) are to be addressed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include the carcinogens listed in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of the carcinogens listed in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) List of Carcinogens:
</P>
<P>(A) 4-Nitrobiphenyl: Cancer.
</P>
<P>(B) alpha-Naphthylamine: Cancer; skin irritation; and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(C) Methyl chloromethyl ether: Cancer; skin, eye and respiratory effects; acute toxicity effects; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(D) 3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine (and its salts): Cancer and skin sensitization.
</P>
<P>(E) bis-Chloromethyl ether: Cancer; skin, eye, and respiratory tract effects; acute toxicity effects; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(F) beta-Naphthylamine: Cancer and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(G) Benzidine: Cancer and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(H) 4-Aminodiphenyl: Cancer.
</P>
<P>(I) Ethyleneimine: Cancer; mutagenicity; skin and eye effects; liver effects; kidney effects; acute toxicity effects; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(J) beta-Propiolactone: Cancer; skin irritation; eye effects; and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(K) 2-Acetylaminofluorene: Cancer.
</P>
<P>(L) 4-Dimethylaminoazo-benzene: Cancer; skin effects; and respiratory tract irritation.
</P>
<P>(M) N-Nitrosodimethylamine: Cancer; liver effects; and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post entrances to regulated areas with signs bearing the legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(CHEMICAL IDENTIFICATION)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall post signs at entrances to regulated areas containing operations covered in paragraph (c)(5) of this section. The signs shall bear the legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(CHEMICAL IDENTIFICATION)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR AIR-SUPPLIED HOODS, IMPERVIOUS SUITS, AND PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CANCER-SUSPECT AGENT
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CANCER-SUSPECT AGENT EXPOSED IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IMPERVIOUS SUIT INCLUDING GLOVES, BOOTS, AND AIR-SUPPLIED HOOD REQUIRED AT ALL TIMES
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) Appropriate signs and instructions shall be posted at the entrance to, and exit from, regulated areas, informing employees of the procedures that must be followed in entering and leaving a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibited statements.</I> No statement shall appear on or near any required sign, label, or instruction that contradicts or detracts from the effect of any required warning, information, or instruction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training and indoctrination.</I> (i) Each employee prior to being authorized to enter a regulated area, shall receive a training and indoctrination program including, but not necessarily limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) The nature of the carcinogenic hazards of a carcinogen addressed by this section, including local and systemic toxicity;
</P>
<P>(B) The specific nature of the operation involving a carcinogen addressed by this section that could result in exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose for and application of the medical surveillance program, including, as appropriate, methods of self-examination;
</P>
<P>(D) The purpose for and application of decontamination practices and purposes;
</P>
<P>(E) The purpose for and significance of emergency practices and procedures;
</P>
<P>(F) The employee's specific role in emergency procedures;
</P>
<P>(G) Specific information to aid the employee in recognition and evaluation of conditions and situations which may result in the release of a carcinogen addressed by this section;
</P>
<P>(H) The purpose for and application of specific first aid procedures and practices;
</P>
<P>(I) A review of this section at the employee's first training and indoctrination program and annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific emergency procedures shall be prescribed, and posted, and employees shall be familiarized with their terms, and rehearsed in their application.
</P>
<P>(iii) All materials relating to the program shall be provided upon request to authorized representatives of the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> At no cost to the employee, a program of medical surveillance shall be established and implemented for employees considered for assignment to enter regulated areas, and for authorized employees.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Examinations.</I> (i) Before an employee is assigned to enter a regulated area, a preassignment physical examination by a physician shall be provided. The examination shall include the personal history of the employee, family and occupational background, including genetic and environmental factors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorized employees shall be provided periodic physical examinations, not less often than annually, following the preassignment examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) In all physical examinations, the examining physician shall consider whether there exist conditions of increased risk, including reduced immunological competence, those undergoing treatment with steroids or cytotoxic agents, pregnancy, and cigarette smoking.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Records.</I> (i) Employers of employees examined pursuant to this paragraph shall cause to be maintained complete and accurate records of all such medical examinations. Records shall be maintained for the duration of the employee's employment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i). These records shall also be provided upon request to the Director.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any physician who conducts a medical examination required by this paragraph shall furnish to the employer a statement of the employee's suitability for employment in the specific exposure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9242, Mar. 7, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 1286, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 20099, Apr. 23, 1998; 70 FR 1141, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, Apr. 3, 2006; 73 FR 75584, Dec. 2, 2008; 76 FR 33608, June 8, 2011; 76 FR 80740, Dec. 27, 2011; 77 FR 17779, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1004" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1004   alpha-Naphthylamine.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1005" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1005   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1006" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1006   Methyl chloromethyl ether.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1007" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1007   3,′-Dichlorobenzidine (and its salts).</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1008" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1008   bis-Chloromethyl ether.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1009" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1009   beta-Naphthylamine.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1010" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1010   Benzidine.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1011" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1011   4-Aminodiphenyl.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1012" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1012   Ethyleneimine.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1013" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1013   beta-Propiolactone.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1014" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1014   2-Acetylaminofluorene.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1015" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1015   4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1016" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1016   N-Nitrosodimethylamine.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1003, <I>13 carcinogens.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1017" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1017   Vinyl chloride.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section includes requirements for the control of employee exposure to vinyl chloride (chloroethene), Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 75014.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to the manufacture, reaction, packaging, repackaging, storage, handling or use of vinyl chloride or polyvinyl chloride, but does not apply to the handling or use of fabricated products made of polyvinyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(3) This section applies to the transportation of vinyl chloride or polyvinyl chloride except to the extent that the Department of Transportation may regulate the hazards covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Action level</I> means a concentration of vinyl chloride of 0.5 ppm averaged over an 8-hour work day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or his designee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require him to enter a regulated area or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising an opportunity to observe monitoring and measuring procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or his designee.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, or operation of a relief device which is likely to, or does, result in massive release of vinyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Fabricated product</I> means a product made wholly or partly from polyvinyl chloride, and which does not require further processing at temperatures, and for times, sufficient to cause mass melting of the polyvinyl chloride resulting in the release of vinyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Hazardous operation</I> means any operation, procedure, or activity where a release of either vinyl chloride liquid or gas might be expected as a consequence of the operation or because of an accident in the operation, which would result in an employee exposure in excess of the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>OSHA Area Director</I> means the Director for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration Area Office having jurisdiction over the geographic area in which the employer's establishment is located.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Polyvinyl chloride</I> means polyvinyl chloride homopolymer or copolymer before such is converted to a fabricated product.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Vinyl chloride</I> means vinyl chloride monomer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit.</I> (1) No employee may be exposed to vinyl chloride at concentrations greater than 1 ppm averaged over any 8-hour period, and
</P>
<P>(2) No employee may be exposed to vinyl chloride at concentrations greater than 5 ppm averaged over any period not exceeding 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(3) No employee may be exposed to vinyl chloride by direct contact with liquid vinyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Monitoring.</I> (1) A program of initial monitoring and measurement shall be undertaken in each establishment to determine if there is any employee exposed, without regard to the use of respirators, in excess of the action level.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a determination conducted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section shows any employee exposures, without regard to the use of respirators, in excess of the action level, a program for determining exposures for each such employee shall be established. Such a program:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be repeated at least quarterly for any employee exposed, without regard to the use of respirators, in excess of the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be repeated not less than every 6 months for any employee exposed without regard to the use of respirators, at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(iii) May be discontinued for any employee only when at least two consecutive monitoring determinations, made not less than 5 working days apart, show exposures for that employee at or below the action level.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever there has been a production, process or control change which may result in an increase in the release of vinyl chloride, or the employer has any other reason to suspect that any employee may be exposed in excess of the action level, a determination of employee exposure under paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) The method of monitoring and measurement shall have an accuracy (with a confidence level of 95 percent) of not less than plus or minus 50 percent from 0.25 through 0.5 ppm, plus or minus 35 percent from over 0.5 ppm through 1.0 ppm, and plus or minus 25 percent over 1.0 ppm. (Methods meeting these accuracy requirements are available in the “NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods”).
</P>
<P>(5) Employees or their designated representatives shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to observe the monitoring and measuring required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated area.</I> (1) A regulated area shall be established where:
</P>
<P>(i) Vinyl chloride or polyvinyl chloride is manufactured, reacted, repackaged, stored, handled or used; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Vinyl chloride concentrations are in excess of the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(2) Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance.</I> Employee exposures to vinyl chloride shall be controlled to at or below the permissible exposure limit provided in paragraph (c) of this section by engineering, work practice, and personal protective controls as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Feasible engineering and work practice controls shall immediately be used to reduce exposures to at or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(2) Wherever feasible engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted immediately are not sufficient to reduce exposures to at or below the permissible exposure limit, they shall nonetheless be used to reduce exposures to the lowest practicable level, and shall be supplemented by respiratory protection in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. A program shall be established and implemented to reduce exposures to at or below the permissible exposure limit, or to the greatest extent feasible, solely by means of engineering and work practice controls, as soon as feasible.
</P>
<P>(3) Written plans for such a program shall be developed and furnished upon request for examination and copying to authorized representatives of the Assistant Secretary and the Director. Such plans must be updated at least annually.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance § 1910.134 (b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii), and (d)(3)(iii)(B)(1) and (2)), and (f) through (m) which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide an organic vapor cartridge that has a service life of at least one hour when using a chemical cartridge respirator at vinyl chloride concentrations up to 10 ppm.
</P>
<P>(C) Select a canister that has a service life of at least four hours when using a powered air-purifying respirator having a hood, helmet, or full or half facepiece, or a gas mask with a front-or back-mounted canister, at vinyl chloride concentrations up to 25 ppm. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When air-purifying respirators are used:
</P>
<P>(A) Air-purifying canisters or cartridges must be replaced prior to the expiration of their service life or the end of the shift in which they are first used, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(B) A continuous-monitoring and alarm system must be provided when concentrations of vinyl chloride could reasonably exceed the allowable concentrations for the devices in use. Such a system must be used to alert employees when vinyl chloride concentrations exceed the allowable concentrations for the devices in use.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hazardous operations.</I> (1) Employees engaged in hazardous operations, including entry of vessels to clean polyvinyl chloride residue from vessel walls, shall be provided and required to wear and use;
</P>
<P>(i) Respiratory protection in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Protective garments to prevent skin contact with liquid vinyl chloride or with polyvinyl chloride residue from vessel walls. The protective garments shall be selected for the operation and its possible exposure conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Protective garments shall be provided clean and dry for each use.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency situations.</I> A written operational plan for emergency situations shall be developed for each facility storing, handling, or otherwise using vinyl chloride as a liquid or compressed gas. Appropriate portions of the plan shall be implemented in the event of an emergency. The plan shall specifically provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) Employees engaged in hazardous operations or correcting situations of existing hazardous releases shall be equipped as required in paragraph (h) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Other employees not so equipped shall evacuate the area and not return until conditions are controlled by the methods required in paragraph (f) of this section and the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Training.</I> Each employee engaged in vinyl chloride or polyvinyl chloride operations shall be provided training in a program relating to the hazards of vinyl chloride and precautions for its safe use.
</P>
<P>(1) The program shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the health hazard from chronic exposure to vinyl chloride including specifically the carcinogenic hazard;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific nature of operations which could result in exposure to vinyl chloride in excess of the permissible limit and necessary protective steps;
</P>
<P>(iii) The purpose for, proper use, and limitations of respiratory protective devices;
</P>
<P>(iv) The fire hazard and acute toxicity of vinyl chloride, and the necessary protective steps;
</P>
<P>(v) The purpose for and a description of the monitoring program;
</P>
<P>(vi) The purpose for, and a description of, the medical surveillance program;
</P>
<P>(vii) Emergency procedures;
</P>
<P>(viii) Specific information to aid the employee in recognition of conditions which may result in the release of vinyl chloride; and
</P>
<P>(ix) A review of this standard at the employee's first training and indoctrination program, and annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(2) All materials relating to the program shall be provided upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> A program of medical surveillance shall be instituted for each employee exposed, without regard to the use of respirators, to vinyl chloride in excess of the action level. The program shall provide each such employee with an opportunity for examinations and tests in accordance with this paragraph. All medical examinations and procedures shall be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and shall be provided without cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(1) At the time of initial assignment, or upon institution of medical surveillance;
</P>
<P>(i) A general physical examination shall be performed, with specific attention to detecting enlargement of liver, spleen or kidneys, or dysfunction in these organs, and for abnormalities in skin, connective tissues and the pulmonary system (See appendix A).
</P>
<P>(ii) A medical history shall be taken, including the following topics:
</P>
<P>(A) Alcohol intake;
</P>
<P>(B) Past history of hepatitis;
</P>
<P>(C) Work history and past exposure to potential hepatotoxic agents, including drugs and chemicals;
</P>
<P>(D) Past history of blood transfusions; and
</P>
<P>(E) Past history of hospitalizations.
</P>
<P>(iii) A serum specimen shall be obtained and determinations made of:
</P>
<P>(A) Total bilirubin;
</P>
<P>(B) Alkaline phosphatase;
</P>
<P>(C) Serum glutamic oxalacetic transaminase (SGOT);
</P>
<P>(D) Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT); and
</P>
<P>(E) Gamma glustamyl transpeptidase.
</P>
<P>(2) Examinations must be provided in accordance with this paragraph at least annually.
</P>
<P>(3) Each employee exposed to an emergency shall be afforded appropriate medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of each employee's suitability for continued exposure to vinyl chloride including use of protective equipment and respirators, shall be obtained from the examining physician promptly after any examination. A copy of the physician's statement shall be provided each employee.
</P>
<P>(5) If any employee's health would be materially impaired by continued exposure, such employee shall be withdrawn from possible contact with vinyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(6) Laboratory analyses for all biological specimens included in medical examination shall be performed by accredited laboratories.
</P>
<P>(7) If the examining physician determines that alternative medical examinations to those required by paragraph (k)(1) of this section will provide at least equal assurance of detecting medical conditions pertinent to the exposure to vinyl chloride, the employer may accept such alternative examinations as meeting the requirements of paragraph (k)(1) of this section, if the employer obtains a statement from the examining physician setting forth the alternative examinations and the rationale for substitution. This statement shall be available upon request for examination and copying to authorized representatives of the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for vinyl chloride and polyvinyl chloride.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of vinyl chloride at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; central nervous system effects; liver effects; blood effects; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include vinyl chloride in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of vinyl chloride and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post entrances to regulated areas with legible signs bearing the legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VINYL CHLORIDE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall post signs at areas containing hazardous operations or where emergencies currently exist. The signs shall be legible and bear the legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VINYL CHLORIDE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (l)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CANCER-SUSPECT AGENT AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CANCER-SUSPECT AGENT IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT REQUIRED 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Labels.</I> (i) In addition to the other requirements in this paragraph (l), the employer shall ensure that labels for containers of polyvinyl chloride resin waste from reactors or other waste contaminated with vinyl chloride are legible and include the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CONTAMINATED WITH VINYL CHLORIDE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on labels of containers of polyvinyl chloride resin waste from reactors or other waste contaminated with vinyl chloride in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (l)(3)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CONTAMINATED WITH VINYL CHLORIDE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER-SUSPECT AGENT</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information for containers of polyvinyl chloride in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (l)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>POLYVINYL CHLORIDE (OR TRADE NAME) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Contains
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VINYL CHLORIDE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>VINYL CHLORIDE IS A CANCER-SUSPECT AGENT</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(5)(i) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include either the following information in either paragraph (l)(5)(i) or (l)(5)(ii) of this section on containers of vinyl chloride in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>VINYL CHLORIDE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE GAS UNDER PRESSURE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER-SUSPECT AGENT</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) In accordance with 49 CFR Parts 170-189, with the additional legend applied near the label or placard:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CANCER-SUSPECT AGENT</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) No statement shall appear on or near any required sign, label, or instruction which contradicts or detracts from the effect of any required warning, information, or instruction.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Records.</I> (1) All records maintained in accordance with this section shall include the name of each employee where relevant.
</P>
<P>(2) Records of required monitoring and measuring and medical records shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i). These records shall be provided upon request to the Director. Authorized personnel rosters shall also be provided upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring and measuring records shall:
</P>
<P>(A) State the date of such monitoring and measuring and the concentrations determined and identify the instruments and methods used;
</P>
<P>(B) Include any additional information necessary to determine individual employee exposures where such exposures are determined by means other than individual monitoring of employees; and
</P>
<P>(C) Be maintained for not less than 30 years.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Medical records shall be maintained for the duration of the employment of each employee plus 20 years, or 30 years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(n) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results and the steps being taken to reduce exposures within the permissible exposure limit either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to affected employees.




</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1017—Supplementary Medical Information
</HD1>
<P>When required tests under paragraph (k)(1) of this section show abnormalities, the tests should be repeated as soon as practicable, preferably within 3 to 4 weeks. If tests remain abnormal, consideration should be given to withdrawal of the employee from contact with vinyl chloride, while a more comprehensive examination is made.
</P>
<P>Additional tests which may be useful:
</P>
<P>A. For kidney dysfunction: urine examination for albumin, red blood cells, and exfoliative abnormal cells.
</P>
<P>B. Pulmonary system: Forced vital capacity, Forced expiratory volume at 1 second, and chest roentgenogram (posterior-anterior, 14 × 17 inches).
</P>
<P>C. Additional serum tests: Lactic acid dehydrogenase, lactic acid dehydrogenase isoenzyme, protein determination, and protein electrophoresis.
</P>
<P>D. For a more comprehensive examination on repeated abnormal serum tests: Hepatitis B antigen, and liver scanning.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35896, Oct. 4, 1974. Redesignated at 40 FR 23072, May 28, 1975]


</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1910.1017, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1018" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1018   Inorganic arsenic.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to all occupational exposures to inorganic arsenic except that this section does not apply to employee exposures in agriculture or resulting from pesticide application, the treatment of wood with preservatives or the utilization of arsenically preserved wood.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Action level</I> means a concentration of inorganic arsenic of 5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) averaged over any eight (8) hour period.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter a regulated area, or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe monitoring and measuring procedures under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Inorganic arsenic</I> means copper aceto- arsenite and all inorganic compounds containing arsenic except arsine, measured as arsenic (As).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit.</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to inorganic arsenic at concentrations greater than 10 micrograms per cubic meter of air (10 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), averaged over any 8-hour period.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of airborne exposure levels shall be made from air samples that are representative of each employee's exposure to inorganic arsenic over an eight (8) hour period.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this section, employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall collect full shift (for at least 7 continuous hours) personal samples including at least one sample for each shift for each job classification in each work area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this standard shall monitor each such workplace and work operation to accurately determine the airborne concentration of inorganic arsenic to which employees may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring reveals employee exposure to be below the action level the measurements need not be repeated except as otherwise provided in paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the initial monitoring, required by this section, or subsequent monitoring reveals employee exposure to be above the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall repeat monitoring at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the initial monitoring, required by this section, or subsequent monitoring reveals employee exposure to be above the action level and below the permissible exposure limit the employer shall repeat monitoring at least every six months.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall continue monitoring at the required frequency until at least two consecutive measurements, taken at least seven (7) days apart, are below the action level at which time the employer may discontinue monitoring for that employee until such time as any of the events in paragraph (e)(4) of this section occur.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> Whenever there has been a production, process, control or personal change which may result in new or additional exposure to inorganic arsenic, or whenever the employer has any other reason to suspect a change which may result in new or additional exposures to inorganic arsenic, additional monitoring which complies with paragraph (e) of this section shall be conducted.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the results indicate that the representative employee exposure exceeds the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that the permissible exposure limit was exceeded and a description of the corrective action taken to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> (i) The employer shall use a method of monitoring and measurement which has an accuracy (with a confidence level of 95 percent) of not less than plus or minus 25 percent for concentrations of inorganic arsenic greater than or equal to 10 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall use a method of monitoring and measurement which has an accuracy (with confidence level of 95 percent) of not less than plus or minus 35 percent for concentrations of inorganic arsenic greater than 5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> but less than 10 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Regulated area</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> The employer shall establish regulated areas where worker exposures to inorganic arsenic, without regard to the use of respirators, are in excess of the permissible limit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> Regulated areas shall be demarcated and segregated from the rest of the workplace in any manner that minimizes the number of persons who will be exposed to inorganic arsenic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons or to persons otherwise authorized by the Act or regulations issued pursuant thereto to enter such areas.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision of respirators.</I> All persons entering a regulated area shall be supplied with a respirator, selected in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall assure that in regulated areas, food or beverages are not consumed, smoking products, chewing tobacco and gum are not used and cosmetics are not applied, except that these activities may be conducted in the lunchrooms, change rooms and showers required under paragraph (m) of this section. Drinking water may be consumed in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Controls.</I> (i) The employer shall institute at the earliest possible time but not later than December 31, 1979, engineering and work practice controls to reduce exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, except to the extent that the employer can establish that such controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, they shall nonetheless be used to reduce exposures to the lowest levels achievable by these controls and shall be supplemented by the use of respirators in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section and other necessary personal protective equipment. Employee rotation is not required as a control strategy before respiratory protection is instituted.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance Program.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit by means of engineering and work practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Written plans for these compliance programs shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each operation in which inorganic arsenic is emitted; e.g. machinery used, material processed, controls in place, crew size, operating procedures and maintenance practices;
</P>
<P>(B) Engineering plans and studies used to determine methods selected for controlling exposure to inorganic arsenic;
</P>
<P>(C) A report of the technology considered in meeting the permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<P>(D) Monitoring data;
</P>
<P>(E) A detailed schedule for implementation of the engineering controls and work practices that cannot be implemented immediately and for the adaption and implementation of any additional engineering and work practices necessary to meet the permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<P>(F) Whenever the employer will not achieve the permissible exposure limit with engineering controls and work practices by December 31, 1979, the employer shall include in the compliance plan an analysis of the effectiveness of the various controls, shall install engineering controls and institute work practices on the quickest schedule feasible, and shall include in the compliance plan and implement a program to minimize the discomfort and maximize the effectiveness of respirator use; and
</P>
<P>(G) Other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written plans for such a program shall be submitted upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Assistant Secretary, Director, any affected employee or authorized employee representatives.
</P>
<P>(iv) The plans required by this paragraph must be revised and updated at least annually to reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering or work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities, for which the employer establishes that engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employee exhibits breathing difficulty during fit testing or respirator use, they must be examined by a physician trained in pulmonary medicine to determine whether they can use a respirator while performing the required duty.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that employees do not use half mask respirators for protection against arsenic trichloride because it is absorbed rapidly through the skin.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators.
</P>
<P>(D) Select for employee use:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Air-purifying respirators that have a combination HEPA filter with an appropriate gas-sorbent cartridge or canister when the employee's exposure exceeds the permissible exposure level for inorganic arsenic and the relevant limit for other gases.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Front-or back-mounted gas masks equipped with HEPA filters and acid gas canisters or any full facepiece supplied-air respirators when the inorganic arsenic concentration is at or below 500 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>; and half mask air-purifying respirators equipped with HEPA filters and acid gas cartridges when the inorganic arsenic concentration is at or below 100 μg/m
<SU>3</SU>. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees required to use respirators may choose, and the employer must provide, a powered air-purifying respirator if it will provide proper protection. In addition, the employer must provide a combination dust and acid-gas respirator to employees who are exposed to gases over the relevant exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where the possibility of skin or eye irritation from inorganic arsenic exists, and for all workers working in regulated areas, the employer shall provide at no cost to the employee and assure that employees use appropriate and clean protective work clothing and equipment such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Coveralls or similar full-body work clothing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gloves, and shoes or coverlets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields or vented goggles when necessary to prevent eye irritation, which comply with the requirements of § 1910.133(a) (2)-(6); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Impervious clothing for employees subject to exposure to arsenic trichloride.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the protective clothing required in paragraph (j) (1) of this section in a freshly laundered and dry condition at least weekly, and daily if the employee works in areas where exposures are over 100 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> of inorganic arsenic or in areas where more frequent washing is needed to prevent skin irritation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall clean, launder, or dispose of protective clothing required by paragraph (j) (1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall repair or replace the protective clothing and equipment as needed to maintain their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that all protective clothing is removed at the completion of a work shift only in change rooms prescribed in paragraph (m) (1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall assure that contaminated protective clothing which is to be cleaned, laundered, or disposed of, is placed in a closed container in the change-room which prevents dispersion of inorganic arsenic outside the container.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall inform in writing any person who cleans or launders clothing required by this section, of the potentially harmful effects including the carcinogenic effects of exposure to inorganic arsenic.
</P>
<P>(vii) Labels on contaminated protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall ensure that the containers of contaminated protective clothing and equipment in the workplace or which are to be removed from the workplace are labeled and that the labels include the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER: CONTAMINATED WITH INORGANIC ARSENIC. MAY CAUSE CANCER. DO NOT REMOVE DUST BY BLOWING OR SHAKING. DISPOSE OF INORGANIC ARSENIC CONTAMINATED WASH WATER IN ACCORDANCE WITH APPLICABLE LOCAL, STATE OR FEDERAL REGULATIONS.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on containers of protective clothing and equipment in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (j)(2)(vii) of this section:
</P>
<FP>CAUTION: Clothing contaminated with inorganic arsenic; do not remove dust by blowing or shaking. Dispose of inorganic arsenic contaminated wash water in accordance with applicable local, State or Federal regulations.
</FP>
<P>(viii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of inorganic arsenic from protective clothing or equipment by blowing or shaking.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>Surfaces.</I> All surfaces shall be maintained as free as practicable of accumulations of inorganic arsenic.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning floors.</I> Floors and other accessible surfaces contaminated with inorganic arsenic may not be cleaned by the use of compressed air, and shoveling and brushing may be used only where vacuuming or other relevant methods have been tried and found not to be effective.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vacuuming.</I> Where vacuuming methods are selected, the vacuums shall be used and emptied in a manner to minimize the reentry of inorganic arsenic into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Housekeeping plan.</I> A written housekeeping and maintenance plan shall be kept which shall list appropriate frequencies for carrying out housekeeping operations, and for cleaning and maintaining dust collection equipment. The plan shall be available for inspection by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Maintenance of equipment.</I> Periodic cleaning of dust collection and ventilation equipment and checks of their effectiveness shall be carried out to maintain the effectiveness of the system and a notation kept of the last check of effectiveness and cleaning or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices</I>—(1) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall provide for employees working in regulated areas or subject to the possibility of skin or eye irritation from inorganic arsenic, clean change rooms equipped with storage facilities for street clothes and separate storage facilities for protective clothing and equipment in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.141(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees working in regulated areas or subject to the possibility of skin or eye irritation from inorganic arsenic shower at the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide shower facilities in accordance with § 1910.141(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lunchrooms.</I> (i) The employer shall provide for employees working in regulated areas, lunchroom facilities which have a temperature controlled, positive pressure, filtered air supply, and which are readily accessible to employees working in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that employees working in the regulated area or subject to the possibility of skin or eye irritation from exposure to inorganic arsenic wash their hands and face prior to eating.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lavatories.</I> The employer shall provide lavatory facilities which comply with § 1910.141(d) (1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Vacuuming clothes.</I> The employer shall provide facilities for employees working in areas where exposure, without regard to the use of respirators, exceeds 100 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> to vacuum their protective clothing and clean or change shoes worn in such areas before entering change rooms, lunchrooms or shower rooms required by paragraph (j) of this section and shall assure that such employees use such facilities.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Avoidance of skin irritation.</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to skin or eye contact with arsenic trichloride, or to skin or eye contact with liquid or particulate inorganic arsenic which is likely to cause skin or eye irritation.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Employees covered.</I> The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for the following employees:
</P>
<P>(A) All employees who are or will be exposed above the action level, without regard to the use of respirators, at least 30 days per year; and
</P>
<P>(B) All employees who have been exposed above the action level, without regard to respirator use, for 30 days or more per year for a total of 10 years or more of combined employment with the employer or predecessor employers prior to or after the effective date of this standard. The determination of exposures prior to the effective date of this standard shall be based upon prior exposure records, comparison with the first measurements taken after the effective date of this standard, or comparison with records of exposures in areas with similar processes, extent of engineering controls utilized and materials used by that employer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examination by physician.</I> The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and shall be provided without cost to the employee, without loss of pay and at a reasonable time and place.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examinations.</I> By December 1, 1978, for employees initially covered by the medical provisions of this section, or thereafter at the time of initial assignment to an area where the employee is likely to be exposed over the action level at least 30 days per year, the employer shall provide each affected employee an opportunity for a medical examination, including at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) A work history and a medical history which shall include a smoking history and the presence and degree of respiratory symptoms such as breathlessness, cough, sputum production and wheezing.


</P>
<P>(ii) A medical examination which shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest x-ray;
</P>
<P>(B) A nasal and skin examination; and
</P>
<P>(C) Other examinations which the physician believes appropriate because of the employees exposure to inorganic arsenic or because of required respirator use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) Examinations must be provided in accordance with paragraphs (n)(2)(i) and (n)(2)(ii)(B) and (C) of this section at least annually.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever a covered employee has not taken the examinations specified in paragraphs (n)(2)(i) and (n)(2)(ii)(B) and (C) of this section within six (6) months preceding the termination of employment, the employer shall provide such examinations to the employee upon termination of employment.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional examinations.</I> If the employee for any reason develops signs or symptoms commonly associated with exposure to inorganic arsenic the employer shall provide an appropriate examination and emergency medical treatment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and its appendices;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's representative exposure level or anticipated exposure level;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee which is not readily available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician which shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The results of the medical examination and tests performed;
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from exposure to inorganic arsenic;
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to inorganic arsenic or upon the use of protective clothing or equipment such as respirators; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions which require further explanation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the written opinion to the affected employee.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Employee information and training</I>—(1) <I>Training program.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee who is subject to exposure to inorganic arsenic above the action level without regard to respirator use, or for whom there is the possibility of skin or eye irritation from inorganic arsenic, in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) The training program shall be provided by October 1, 1978, for employees covered by this provision, at the time of initial assignment for those subsequently covered by this provision, and at least annually for other covered employees thereafter; and the employer shall assure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The information contained in appendix A;
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity, location, manner of use, storage, sources of exposure, and the specific nature of operations which could result in exposure to inorganic arsenic as well as any necessary protective steps;
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose, proper use, and limitation of respirators;
</P>
<P>(D) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program as required by paragraph (n) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) The engineering controls and work practices associated with the employee's job assignment; and
</P>
<P>(F) A review of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees a copy of this standard and its appendices.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide; upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—General.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for inorganic arsenic.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of inorganic arsenic at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; liver effects; skin effects; respiratory irritation; nervous system effects; and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include inorganic arsenic in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of inorganic arsenic and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that no statement appears on or near any sign or label required by this paragraph (p) which contradicts or detracts from the meaning of the required sign or label.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post signs demarcating regulated areas bearing the legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>INORGANIC ARSENIC
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT EAT, DRINK OR SMOKE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (p)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>INORGANIC ARSENIC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NO SMOKING OR EATING 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATOR REQUIRED</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that signs required by this paragraph (p) are illuminated and cleaned as necessary so that the legend is readily visible.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Prior to June 1, 2015, in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (p)(1)(i) of this section, employers may apply precautionary labels to all shipping and storage containers of inorganic arsenic, and to all products containing inorganic arsenic, bearing the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS INORGANIC ARSENIC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HARMFUL IF INHALED OR SWALLOWED 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USE ONLY WITH ADEQUATE VENTILATION OR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Labels are not required when the inorganic arsenic in the product is bound in such a manner so as to make unlikely the possibility of airborne exposure to inorganic arsenic. (Possible examples of products not requiring labels are semiconductors, light emitting diodes and glass.)
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all monitoring required by paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The date(s), number, duration location, and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the sampling procedure used to determine representative employee exposure where applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(C) The type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any;
</P>
<P>(D) Name and job classification of the employees monitored and of all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent; and
</P>
<P>(E) The environmental variables that could affect the measurement of the employee's exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain these monitoring records for at least 40 years or for the duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever, is longer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance as required by paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and description of duties of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the physician's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) Results of any exposure monitoring done for that employee and the representative exposure levels supplied to the physician; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to inorganic arsenic.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall in addition keep, or assure that the examining physician keeps, the following medical records;
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the medical examination results including medical and work history required under paragraph (n) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the laboratory procedures and a copy of any standards or guidelines used to interpret the test results or references to that information;
</P>
<P>(C) The initial X-ray;
</P>
<P>(D) The X-rays for the most recent 5 years; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any X-rays with a demonstrated abnormality and all subsequent X-rays;
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall maintain or assure that the physician maintains those medical records for at least 40 years, or for the duration of employment plus 20 years whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall make available upon request all records required to be maintained by paragraph (q) of this section to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (i) Whenever the employer ceases to do business, the successor employer shall receive and retain all records required to be maintained by this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall also comply with any additional requirements involving the transfer of records set in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to inorganic arsenic conducted pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> (i) Whenever observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to inorganic arsenic requires entry into an area where the use of respirators, protective clothing, or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with and assure the use of such respirators, clothing, and such equipment, and shall require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without interfering with the monitoring, observers shall be entitled to;
</P>
<P>(A) Receive an explanation of the measurement procedures;
</P>
<P>(B) Observe all steps related to the monitoring of inorganic arsenic performed at the place of exposure; and
</P>
<P>(C) Record the results obtained or receive copies of the results when returned by the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices to this section is not intended by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed by this standard nor detract from any existing obligation.


</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1018—Inorganic Arsenic Substance Information Sheet
</HD1>
<HD1>i. substance identification
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Substance.</I> Inorganic Arsenic.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Definition.</I> Copper acetoarsenite, arsenic and all inorganic compounds containing arsenic except arsine, measured as arsenic (As).
</P>
<P>C. <I>Permissible Exposure Limit.</I> 10 micrograms per cubic meter of air as determined as an average over an 8-hour period. No employee may be exposed to any skin or eye contact with arsenic trichloride or to skin or eye contact likely to cause skin or eye irritation.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Regulated Areas.</I> Only employees authorized by your employer should enter a regulated area.
</P>
<HD1>ii. health hazard data
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Comments.</I> The health hazard of inorganic arsenic is high.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Ways in which the chemical affects your body.</I> Exposure to airborne concentrations of inorganic arsenic may cause lung cancer, and can be a skin irritant. Inorganic arsenic may also affect your body if swallowed. One compound in particular, arsenic trichloride, is especially dangerous because it can be absorbed readily through the skin. Because inorganic arsenic is a poison, you should wash your hands thoroughly prior to eating or smoking.
</P>
<HD1>iii. protective clothing and equipment
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Respirators.</I> Respirators will be provided by your employer at no cost to you for routine use if your employer is in the process of implementing engineering and work practice controls or where engineering and work practice controls are not feasible or insufficient. You must wear respirators for non-routine activities or in emergency situations where you are likely to be exposed to levels of inorganic arsenic in excess of the permissible exposure limit. Since how well your respirator fits your face is very important, your employer is required to conduct fit tests to make sure the respirator seals properly when you wear it. These tests are simple and rapid and will be explained to you during training sessions.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Protective clothing.</I> If you work in a regulated area, your employer is required to provide at no cost to you, and you must wear, appropriate, clean, protective clothing and equipment. The purpose of this equipment is to prevent you from bringing to your home arsenic-contaminated dust and to protect your body from repeated skin contact with inorganic arsenic likely to cause skin irritation. This clothing should include such items as coveralls or similar full-body clothing, gloves, shoes or coverlets, and aprons. Protective equipment should include face shields or vented goggles, where eye irritation may occur. y
</P>
<HD1>iv. hygiene facilities and practices
</HD1>
<P>You must not eat, drink, smoke, chew gum or tobacco, or apply cosmetics in the regulated area, except that drinking water is permitted. If you work in a regulated area your employer is required to provide lunchrooms and other areas for these purposes.
</P>
<P>If you work in a regulated area, your employer is required to provide showers, washing facilities, and change rooms. You must wash your face, and hands before eating and must shower at the end of the work shift. Do not take used protective clothing out of change rooms without your employer's permission. Your employer is required to provide for laundering or cleaning of your protective clothing.
</P>
<HD1>v. signs and labels
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to post warning signs and labels for your protection. Signs must be posted in regulated areas. The signs must warn that a cancer hazard is present, that only authorized employees may enter the area, and that no smoking or eating is allowed, and that respirators must be worn.


</P>
<HD1>vi. medical examinations
</HD1>
<P>If your exposure to arsenic is over the Action Level (5 µg/m3)—(including all persons working in regulated areas) at least 30 days per year, or you have been exposed to arsenic for more than 10 years over the Action Level, your employer is required to provide you with a medical examination. The examination shall be every 6 months for employees over 45 years old or with more than 10 years exposure over the Action Level and annually for other covered employees. The medical examination must include a medical history; a chest X-ray (during initial examination only); skin examination and a nasal examination. The examining physician will provide a written opinion to your employer containing the results of the medical exams. You should also receive a copy of this opinion. The physician must not tell your employer any conditions he detects unrelated to occupational exposure to arsenic but must tell you those conditions.


</P>
<HD1>vii. observation of monitoring
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to monitor your exposure to arsenic and you or your representatives are entitled to observe the monitoring procedure. You are entitled to receive an explanation of the measurement procedure, and to record the results obtained. When the monitoring procedure is taking place in an area where respirators or personal protective clothing and equipment are required to be worn, you must also be provided with and must wear the protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<HD1>viii. access to records
</HD1>
<P>You or your representative are entitled to records of your exposure to inorganic arsenic and your medical examination records if you request your employer to provide them.
</P>
<HD1>ix. training and notification
</HD1>
<P>Additional information on all of these items plus training as to hazards of exposure to inorganic arsenic and the engineering and work practice controls associated with your job will also be provided by your employer. If you are exposed over the permissible exposure limit, your employer must inform you of that fact and the actions he is taking to reduce your exposures.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1018—Substance Technical Guidelines
</HD1>
<HD1>arsenic, arsenic trioxide, arsenic trichloride (three examples)
</HD1>
<FP-2><I>I. Physical and chemical properties</I>
</FP-2>
<P>A. Arsenic (metal).
</P>
<P>1. Formula: As.
</P>
<P>2. Appearance: Gray metal.
</P>
<P>3. Melting point: Sublimes without melting at 613C.
</P>
<P>4. Specific Gravity: (H20 = 1):5.73.
</P>
<P>5. Solubility in water: Insoluble.
</P>
<P>B. Arsenic Trioxide.
</P>
<P>1. Formula: As203, (As406).
</P>
<P>2. Appearance: White powder.
</P>
<P>3. Melting point: 315C.
</P>
<P>4. Specific Gravity (H20 = 1):3.74.
</P>
<P>5. Solubility in water: 3.7 grams in 100cc of water at 20c.
</P>
<P>C. Arsenic Trichloride (liquid).
</P>
<P>1. Formula: AsC13.
</P>
<P>2. Appearance: Colorless or pale yellow liquid.
</P>
<P>3. Melting point: −8.5C.
</P>
<P>4. Boiling point: 130.2C.
</P>
<P>5. Specific Gravity (H20 = 1):2.16 at 20C.
</P>
<P>6. Vapor Pressure: 10mm Hg at 23.5C.
</P>
<P>7. Solubility in Water: Decomposes in water.
</P>
<FP-2><I>II. Fire, explosion and reactivity data.</I>
</FP-2>
<P>A. Fire: Arsenic, arsenic Trioxide and Arsenic Trichloride are nonflammable.
</P>
<P>B. Reactivity:
</P>
<P>1. Conditions Contributing to instability: Heat.
</P>
<P>2. Incompatibility: Hydrogen gas can react with inorganic arsenic to form the highly toxic gas arsine.
</P>
<FP-2><I>III. Monitoring and Measurement Procedures</I>
</FP-2>
<P>Samples collected should be full shift (at least 7-hour) samples. Sampling should be done using a personal sampling pump at a flow rate of 2 liters per minute. Samples should be collected on 0.8 micrometer pore size membrane filter (37mm diameter). Volatile arsenicals such as arsenic trichloride can be most easily collected in a midget bubbler filled with 15 ml. of 0.1 N NaOH.
</P>
<P>The method of sampling and analysis should have an accuracy of not less than ±25 percent (with a confidence limit of 95 percent) for 10 micrograms per cubic meter of air (10 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) and ±35 percent (with a confidence limit of 95 percent) for concentrations of inorganic arsenic between 5 and 10 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1018—Medical Surveillance Guidelines
</HD1>
<HD1>I. General
</HD1>
<P>Medical examinations are to be provided for all employees exposed to levels of inorganic arsenic above the action level (5 µg/m3) for at least 30 days per year (which would include among others, all employees, who work in regulated areas). Examinations are also to be provided to all employees who have had 10 years or more exposure above the action level for more than 30 days per year while working for the present or predecessor employer though they may no longer be exposed above the level.
</P>
<P>An initial medical examination is to be provided to all such employees by December 1, 1978. In addition, an initial medical examination is to be provided to all employees who are first assigned to areas in which worker exposure will probably exceed 5 µg/m3 (after August 1, 1978) at the time of initial assignment. In addition to its immediate diagnostic usefulness, the initial examination will provide a baseline for comparing future test results. The initial examination must include as a minimum the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) A work and medical history, including a smoking history, and presence and degree of respiratory symptoms such as breathlessness, cough, sputum production, and wheezing;
</P>
<P>(2) A 14″ by 17″ or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray;
</P>
<P>(3) A nasal and skin examination; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other examinations which the physician believes appropriate because of the employee's exposure to inorganic arsenic or because of required respirator use.
</P>
<P>Periodic examinations are also to be provided to the employees listed in the first paragraph of this section. The periodic examinations shall be given annually for those covered employees 45 years of age or less with fewer than 10 years employment in areas where employee exposure exceeds the action level (5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>). Periodic examinations need not include sputum cytology or chest X-ray and only an updated medical history is required.
</P>
<P>Periodic examinations for other covered employees shall be provided every six (6) months. These examinations shall include all tests required in the initial examination, except the chest X-ray, and the medical history need only be updated.
</P>
<P>The examination contents are minimum requirements. Additional tests such as lateral and oblique X-rays or pulmonary function tests may be useful. For workers exposed to three arsenicals which are associated with lymphatic cancer, copper acetoarsenite, potassium arsenite, or sodium arsenite the examination should also include palpation of superficial lymph nodes and complete blood count.




</P>
<HD1>ii. noncarcinogenic effects
</HD1>
<P>The OSHA standard is based on minimizing risk of exposed workers dying of lung cancer from exposure to inorganic arsenic. It will also minimize skin cancer from such exposures.
</P>
<P>The following three sections quoted from “Occupational Diseases: A Guide to Their Recognition”, Revised Edition, June 1977, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health is included to provide information on the nonneoplastic effects of exposure to inorganic arsenic. Such effects should not occur if the OSHA standards are followed.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Local</I>—Trivalent arsenic compounds are corrosive to the skin. Brief contact has no effect but prolonged contact results in a local hyperemia and later vesicular or pustular eruption. The moist mucous membranes are most sensitive to the irritant action. Conjunctiva, moist and macerated areas of skin, the eyelids, the angles of the ears, nose, mouth, and respiratory mucosa are also vulnerable to the irritant effects. The wrists are common sites of dermatitis, as are the genitalia if personal hygiene is poor. Perforations of the nasal septum may occur. Arsenic trioxide and pentoxide are capable of producing skin sensitization and contact dermatitis. Arsenic is also capable of producing keratoses, especially of the palms and soles.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Systemic</I>—The acute toxic effects of arsenic are generally seen following ingestion of inorganic arsenical compounds. This rarely occurs in an industrial setting. Symptoms develop within 
<FR>1/2</FR> to 4 hours following ingestion and are usually characterized by constriction of the throat followed by dysphagia, epigastric pain, vomiting, and watery diarrhea. Blood may appear in vomitus and stools. If the amount ingested is sufficiently high, shock may develop due to severe fluid loss, and death may ensue in 24 hours. If the acute effects are survived, exfoliative dermatitis and peripheral neuritis may develop.
</P>
<P>Cases of acute arsenical poisoning due to inhalation are exceedingly rare in industry. When it does occur, respiratory tract symptoms—cough, chest pain, dyspnea—giddiness, headache, and extreme general weakness precede gastrointestinal symptoms. The acute toxic symptoms of trivalent arsenical poisoning are due to severe inflammation of the mucous membranes and greatly increased permeability of the blood capillaries.
</P>
<P>Chronic arsenical poisoning due to ingestion is rare and generally confined to patients taking prescribed medications. However, it can be a concomitant of inhaled inorganic arsenic from swallowed sputum and improper eating habits. Symptoms are weight loss, nausea and diarrhea alternating with constipation, pigmentation and eruption of the skin, loss of hair, and peripheral neuritis. Chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis have been described. Polyneuritis may be the salient feature, but more frequently there are numbness and parasthenias of “glove and stocking” distribution. The skin lesions are usually melanotic and keratotic and may occasionally take the form of an intradermal cancer of the squamous cell type, but without infiltrative properties. Horizontal white lines (striations) on the fingernails and toenails are commonly seen in chronic arsenical poisoning and are considered to be a diagnostic accompaniment of arsenical polyneuritis.
</P>
<P>Inhalation of inorganic arsenic compounds is the most common cause of chronic poisoning in the industrial situation. This condition is divided into three phases based on signs and symptoms.
</P>
<P>First Phase: The worker complains of weakness, loss of appetite, some nausea, occasional vomiting, a sense of heaviness in the stomach, and some diarrhea.
</P>
<P>Second Phase: The worker complains of conjunctivitis, a catarrhal state of the mucous membranes of the nose, larynx, and respiratory passage. Coryza, hoarseness, and mild tracheobronchitis may occur. Perforation of the nasal septum is common, and is probably the most typical lesion of the upper respiratory tract in occupational exposure to arsenical dust. Skin lesions, eczematoid and allergic in type, are common.
</P>
<P>Third Phase: The worker complains of symptoms of peripheral neuritis, initially of hands and feet, which is essentially sensory. In more severe cases, motor paralyses occur; the first muscles affected are usually the toe extensors and the peronei. In only the most severe cases will paralysis of flexor muscles of the feet or of the extensor muscles of hands occur.
</P>
<P>Liver damage from chronic arsenical poisoning is still debated, and as yet the question is unanswered. In cases of chronic and acute arsenical poisoning, toxic effects to the myocardium have been reported based on EKG changes. These findings, however, are now largely discounted and the EKG changes are ascribed to electrolyte disturbances concomitant with arsenicalism. Inhalation of arsenic trioxide and other inorganic arsenical dusts does not give rise to radiological evidence or pneumoconiosis. Arsenic does have a depressant effect upon the bone marrow, with disturbances of both erythropoiesis and myelopoiesis.
</P>
<HD1>Bibliography
</HD1>
<P>Dinman, B. D. 1960. Arsenic; chronic human intoxication. J. Occup. Med. 2:137.
</P>
<P>Elkins, H. B. 1959. The Chemistry of Industrial Toxicology, 2nd ed. John Wiley and Sons, New York.
</P>
<P>Holmquist, L. 1951. Occupational arsenical dermatitis; a study among employees at a copper-ore smelting works including investigations of skin reactions to contact with arsenic compounds. Acta. Derm. Venereol. (Supp. 26) 31:1.
</P>
<P>Pinto, S. S., and C. M. McGill. 1953. Arsenic trioxide exposure in industry. Ind. Med. Surg. 22:281.
</P>
<P>Pinto, S. S., and K. W. Nelson. 1976. Arsenic toxicology and industrial exposure. Annu. Rev. Pharmacol. Toxicol. 16:95.
</P>
<P>Vallee, B. L., D. D. Ulmer, and W. E. C. Wacker. 1960. Arsenic toxicology and biochemistry. AMA Arch. Indust. Health 21:132.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 19624, May 5, 1978; 43 FR 28472, June 30, 1978; 45 FR 35282, May 23, 1980; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 58 FR 35310, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996; 63 FR 1286, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 33468, June 18, 1998; 70 FR 1141, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50189, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75585, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33608, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17780, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21470, May 14, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1020" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1020   Access to employee exposure and medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to provide employees and their designated representatives a right of access to relevant exposure and medical records; and to provide representatives of the Assistant Secretary a right of access to these records in order to fulfill responsibilities under the Occupational Safety and Health Act. Access by employees, their representatives, and the Assistant Secretary is necessary to yield both direct and indirect improvements in the detection, treatment, and prevention of occupational disease. Each employer is responsible for assuring compliance with this section, but the activities involved in complying with the access to medical records provisions can be carried out, on behalf of the employer, by the physician or other health care personnel in charge of employee medical records. Except as expressly provided, nothing in this section is intended to affect existing legal and ethical obligations concerning the maintenance and confidentiality of employee medical information, the duty to disclose information to a patient/employee or any other aspect of the medical-care relationship, or affect existing legal obligations concerning the protection of trade secret information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to each general industry, maritime, and construction employer who makes, maintains, contracts for, or has access to employee exposure or medical records, or analyses thereof, pertaining to employees exposed to toxic substances or harmful physical agents.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to all employee exposure and medical records, and analyses thereof, of such employees, whether or not the records are mandated by specific occupational safety and health standards.
</P>
<P>(3) This section applies to all employee exposure and medical records, and analyses thereof, made or maintained in any manner, including on an in-house of contractual (e.g., fee-for-service) basis. Each employer shall assure that the preservation and access requirements of this section are complied with regardless of the manner in which the records are made or maintained.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Access</I> means the right and opportunity to examine and copy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Analysis using exposure or medical records</I> means any compilation of data or any statistical study based at least in part on information collected from individual employee exposure or medical records or information collected from health insurance claims records, provided that either the analysis has been reported to the employer or no further work is currently being done by the person responsible for preparing the analysis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Designated representative</I> means any individual or organization to whom an employee gives written authorization to exercise a right of access. For the purposes of access to employee exposure records and analyses using exposure or medical records, a recognized or certified collective bargaining agent shall be treated automatically as a designated representative without regard to written employee authorization.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee</I> means a current employee, a former employee, or an employee being assigned or transferred to work where there will be exposure to toxic substances or harmful physical agents. In the case of a deceased or legally incapacitated employee, the employee's legal representative may directly exercise all the employee's rights under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee exposure record</I> means a record containing any of the following kinds of information:
</P>
<P>(i) Environmental (workplace) monitoring or measuring of a toxic substance or harmful physical agent, including personal, area, grab, wipe, or other form of sampling, as well as related collection and analytical methodologies, calculations, and other background data relevant to interpretation of the results obtained;
</P>
<P>(ii) Biological monitoring results which directly assess the absorption of a toxic substance or harmful physical agent by body systems (e.g., the level of a chemical in the blood, urine, breath, hair, fingernails, etc) but not including results which assess the biological effect of a substance or agent or which assess an employee's use of alcohol or drugs;
</P>
<P>(iii) Material safety data sheets indicating that the material may pose a hazard to human health; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the absence of the above, a chemcial inventory or any other record which reveals where and when used and the identity (e.g., chemical, common, or trade name) of a toxic substance or harmful physical agent.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) <I>Employee medical record</I> means a record concerning the health status of an employee which is made or maintained by a physician, nurse, or other health care personnel or technician, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Medical and employment questionnaires or histories (including job description and occupational exposures),
</P>
<P>(B) The results of medical examinations (pre-employment, pre-assignment, periodic, or episodic) and laboratory tests (including chest and other X-ray examinations taken for the purposes of establishing a base-line or detecting occupational illness, and all biological monitoring not defined as an “employee exposure record”),
</P>
<P>(C) Medical opinions, diagnoses, progress notes, and recommendations,
</P>
<P>(D) First aid records,
</P>
<P>(E) Descriptions of treatments and prescriptions, and
</P>
<P>(F) Employee medical complaints.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Employee medical record” does not include medical information in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Physical specimens (e.g., blood or urine samples) which are routinely discarded as a part of normal medical practice; or
</P>
<P>(B) Records concerning health insurance claims if maintained separately from the employer's medical program and its records, and not accessible to the employer by employee name or other direct personal identifier (e.g., social security number, payroll number, etc.); or
</P>
<P>(C) Records created solely in preparation for litigation which are privileged from discovery under the applicable rules of procedure or evidence; or
</P>
<P>(D) Records concerning voluntary employee assistance programs (alcohol, drug abuse, or personal counseling programs) if maintained separately from the employer's medical program and its records.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employer</I> means a current employer, a former employer, or a successor employer.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Exposure</I> or <I>exposed</I> means that an employee is subjected to a toxic substance or harmful physical agent in the course of employment through any route of entry (inhalation, ingestion, skin contact or absorption, etc.), and includes past exposure and potential (e.g., accidental or possible) exposure, but does not include situations where the employer can demonstrate that the toxic substance or harmful physical agent is not used, handled, stored, generated, or present in the workplace in any manner different from typical non-occupational situations.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Health Professional</I> means a physician, occupational health nurse, industrial hygienist, toxicologist, or epidemiologist, providing medical or other occupational health services to exposed employees.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information regardless of the form or process by which it is maintained (e.g., paper document, microfiche, microfilm, X-ray film, or automated data processing).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Specific chemical identity</I> means the chemical name, Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) Registry Number, or any other information that reveals the precise chemical designation of the substance.
</P>
<P>(12)(i) <I>Specific written consent</I> means a written authorization containing the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and signature of the employee authorizing the release of medical information,
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the written authorization,
</P>
<P>(C) The name of the individual or organization that is authorized to release the medical information,
</P>
<P>(D) The name of the designated representative (individual or organization) that is authorized to receive the released information,
</P>
<P>(E) A general description of the medical information that is authorized to be released,
</P>
<P>(F) A general description of the purpose for the release of the medical information, and
</P>
<P>(G) A date or condition upon which the written authorization will expire (if less than one year).
</P>
<P>(ii) A written authorization does not operate to authorize the release of medical information not in existence on the date of written authorization, unless the release of future information is expressly authorized, and does not operate for more than one year from the date of written authorization.
</P>
<P>(iii) A written authorization may be revoked in writing prospectively at any time.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Toxic substance or harmful physical agent</I> means any chemical substance, biological agent (bacteria, virus, fungus, etc.), or physical stress (noise, heat, cold, vibration, repetitive motion, ionizing and non-ionizing radiation, hypo-or hyperbaric pressure, etc.) which:
</P>
<P>(i) Is listed in the latest printed edition of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances (RTECS), which is incorporated by reference as specified in § 1910.6; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has yielded positive evidence of an acute or chronic health hazard in testing conducted by, or known to, the employer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is the subject of a material safety data sheet kept by or known to the employer indicating that the material may pose a hazard to human health.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Trade secret</I> means any confidential formula, pattern, process, device, or information or compilation of information that is used in an employer's business and that gives the employer an opportunity to obtain an advantage over competitors who do not know or use it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preservation of records.</I> (1) Unless a specific occupational safety and health standard provides a different period of time, each employer shall assure the preservation and retention of records as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employee medical records.</I> The medical record for each employee shall be preserved and maintained for at least the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, except that the following types of records need not be retained for any specified period:
</P>
<P>(A) Health insurance claims records maintained separately from the employer's medical program and its records,
</P>
<P>(B) First aid records (not including medical histories) of one-time treatment and subsequent observation of minor scratches, cuts, burns, splinters, and the like which do not involve medical treatment, loss of consciousness, restriction of work or motion, or transfer to another job, if made on-site by a non-physician and if maintained separately from the employer's medical program and its records, and
</P>
<P>(C) The medical records of employees who have worked for less than (1) year for the employer need not be retained beyond the term of employment if they are provided to the employee upon the termination of employment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Employee exposure records.</I> Each employee exposure record shall be preserved and maintained for at least thirty (30) years, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) Background data to environmental (workplace) monitoring or measuring, such as laboratory reports and worksheets, need only be retained for one (1) year as long as the sampling results, the collection methodology (sampling plan), a description of the analytical and mathematical methods used, and a summary of other background data relevant to interpretation of the results obtained, are retained for at least thirty (30) years; and
</P>
<P>(B) Material safety data sheets and paragraph (c)(5)(iv) records concerning the identity of a substance or agent need not be retained for any specified period as long as some record of the identity (chemical name if known) of the substance or agent, where it was used, and when it was used is retained for at least thirty (30) years;
<FTREF/>
<SU>1</SU> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Material safety data sheets must be kept for those chemicals currently in use that are effected by the Hazard Communication Standard in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1200(g).</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) Biological monitoring results designated as exposure records by specific occupational safety and health standards shall be preserved and maintained as required by the specific standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Analyses using exposure or medical records.</I> Each analysis using exposure or medial records shall be preserved and maintained for at least thirty (30) years.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section is intended to mandate the form, manner, or process by which an employer preserves a record as long as the information contained in the record is preserved and retrievable, except that chest X-ray films shall be preserved in their original state.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access to records</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Whenever an employee or designated representative requests access to a record, the employer shall assure that access is provided in a reasonable time, place, and manner. If the employer cannot reasonably provide access to the record within fifteen (15) working days, the employer shall within the fifteen (15) working days apprise the employee or designated representative requesting the record of the reason for the delay and the earliest date when the record can be made available.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer may require of the requester only such information as should be readily known to the requester and which may be necessary to locate or identify the records being requested (e.g. dates and locations where the employee worked during the time period in question).
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever an employee or designated representative requests a copy of a record, the employer shall assure that either:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the record is provided without cost to the employee or representative,
</P>
<P>(B) The necessary mechanical copying facilities (e.g., photocopying) are made available without cost to the employee or representative for copying the record, or
</P>
<P>(C) The record is loaned to the employee or representative for a reasonable time to enable a copy to be made.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of an original X-ray, the employer may restrict access to on-site examination or make other suitable arrangements for the temporary loan of the X-ray.
</P>
<P>(v) Whenever a record has been previously provided without cost to an employee or designated representative, the employer may charge reasonable, non-discriminatory administrative costs (<I>i.e.</I>, search and copying expenses but not including overhead expenses) for a request by the employee or designated representative for additional copies of the record, except that
</P>
<P>(A) An employer shall not charge for an initial request for a copy of new information that has been added to a record which was previously provided; and
</P>
<P>(B) An employer shall not charge for an initial request by a recognized or certified collective bargaining agent for a copy of an employee exposure record or an analysis using exposure or medical records.
</P>
<P>(vi) Nothing in this section is intended to preclude employees and collective bargaining agents from collectively bargaining to obtain access to information in addition to that available under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee and designated representative access</I>—(i) <I>Employee exposure records.</I> (A) Except as limited by paragraph (f) of this section, each employer shall, upon request, assure the access to each employee and designated representative to employee exposure records relevant to the employee. For the purpose of this section, an exposure record relevant to the employee consists of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A record which measures or monitors the amount of a toxic substance or harmful physical agent to which the employee is or has been exposed;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In the absence of such directly relevant records, such records of other employees with past or present job duties or working conditions related to or similar to those of the employee to the extent necessary to reasonably indicate the amount and nature of the toxic substances or harmful physical agents to which the employee is or has been subjected, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Exposure records to the extent necessary to reasonably indicate the amount and nature of the toxic substances or harmful physical agents at workplaces or under working conditions to which the employee is being assigned or transferred.
</P>
<P>(B) Requests by designated representatives for unconsented access to employee exposure records shall be in writing and shall specify with reasonable particularity:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The records requested to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The occupational health need for gaining access to these records.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Employee medical records.</I> (A) Each employer shall, upon request, assure the access of each employee to employee medical records of which the employee is the subject, except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Each employer shall, upon request, assure the access of each designated representative to the employee medical records of any employee who has given the designated representative specific written consent. appendix A to this section contains a sample form which may be used to establish specific written consent for access to employee medical records.
</P>
<P>(C) Whenever access to employee medical records is requested, a physician representing the employer may recommend that the employee or designated representative:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Consult with the physician for the purposes of reviewing and discussing the records requested,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accept a summary of material facts and opinions in lieu of the records requested, or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Accept release of the requested records only to a physician or other designated representative.
</P>
<P>(D) Whenever an employee requests access to his or her employee medical records, and a physician representing the employer believes that direct employee access to information contained in the records regarding a specific diagnosis of a terminal illness or a psychiatric condition could be detrimental to the employee's health, the employer may inform the employee that access will only be provided to a designated representative of the employee having specific written consent, and deny the employee's request for direct access to this information only. Where a designated representative with specific written consent requests access to information so withheld, the employer shall assure the access of the designated representative to this information, even when it is known that the designated representative will give the information to the employee.
</P>
<P>(E) A physician, nurse, or other responsible health care personnel maintaining medical records may delete from requested medical records the identity of a family member, personal friend, or fellow employee who has provided confidential information concerning an employee's health status.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Analyses using exposure or medical records.</I> (A) Each employee shall, upon request, assure the access of each employee and designated representative to each analysis using exposure or medical records concerning the employee's working conditions or workplace.
</P>
<P>(B) Whenever access is requested to an analysis which reports the contents of employee medical records by either direct identifier (name, address, social security number, payroll number, etc.) or by information which could reasonably be used under the circumstances indirectly to identify specific employees (exact age, height, weight, race, sex, date of initial employment, job title, etc.), the employer shall assure that personal identifiers are removed before access is provided. If the employer can demonstrate that removal of personal identifiers from an analysis is not feasible, access to the personally identifiable portions of the analysis need not be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>OSHA access.</I> (i) Each employer shall, upon request, and without derogation of any rights under the Constitution or the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.,</I> that the employer chooses to exercise, assure the prompt access of representatives of the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health to employee exposure and medical records and to analyses using exposure or medical records. Rules of agency practice and procedure governing OSHA access to employee medical records are contained in 29 CFR 1913.10.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever OSHA seeks access to personally identifiable employee medical information by presenting to the employer a written access order pursuant to 29 CFR 1913.10(d), the employer shall prominently post a copy of the written access order and its accompanying cover letter for at least fifteen (15) working days.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Trade secrets.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, nothing in this section precludes an employer from deleting from records requested by a health professional, employee, or designated representative any trade secret data which discloses manufacturing processes, or discloses the percentage of a chemical substance in mixture, as long as the health professional, employee, or designated representative is notified that information has been deleted. Whenever deletion of trade secret information substantially impairs evaluation of the place where or the time when exposure to a toxic substance or harmful physical agent occurred, the employer shall provide alternative information which is sufficient to permit the requesting party to identify where and when exposure occurred.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer may withhold the specific chemical identity, including the chemical name and other specific identification of a toxic substance from a disclosable record provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The claim that the information withheld is a trade secret can be supported;
</P>
<P>(ii) All other available information on the properties and effects of the toxic substance is disclosed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer informs the requesting party that the specific chemical identity is being withheld as a trade secret; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The specific chemical identity is made available to health professionals, employees and designated representatives in accordance with the specific applicable provisions of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a treating physician or nurse determines that a medical emergency exists and the specific chemical identity of a toxic substance is necessary for emergency or first-aid treatment, the employer shall immediately disclose the specific chemical identity of a trade secret chemical to the treating physician or nurse, regardless of the existence of a written statement of need or a confidentiality agreement. The employer may require a written statement of need and confidentiality agreement, in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (f)(4) and (f)(5), as soon as circumstances permit.
</P>
<P>(4) In non-emergency situations, an employer shall, upon request, disclose a specific chemical identity, otherwise permitted to be withheld under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, to a health professional, employee, or designated representative if:
</P>
<P>(i) The request is in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The request describes with reasonable detail one or more of the following occupational health needs for the information:
</P>
<P>(A) To assess the hazards of the chemicals to which employees will be exposed;
</P>
<P>(B) To conduct or assess sampling of the workplace atmosphere to determine employee exposure levels;
</P>
<P>(C) To conduct pre-assignment or periodic medical surveillance of exposed employees;
</P>
<P>(D) To provide medical treatment to exposed employees;
</P>
<P>(E) To select or assess appropriate personal protective equipment for exposed employees;
</P>
<P>(F) To design or assess engineering controls or other protective measures for exposed employees; and
</P>
<P>(G) To conduct studies to determine the health effects of exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The request explains in detail why the disclosure of the specific chemical identity is essential and that, in lieu thereof, the disclosure of the following information would not enable the health professional, employee or designated representative to provide the occupational health services described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The properties and effects of the chemical;
</P>
<P>(B) Measures for controlling workers' exposure to the chemical;
</P>
<P>(C) Methods of monitoring and analyzing worker exposure to the chemical; and,
</P>
<P>(D) Methods of diagnosing and treating harmful exposures to the chemical;
</P>
<P>(iv) The request includes a description of the procedures to be used to maintain the confidentiality of the disclosed information; and,
</P>
<P>(v) The health professional, employee, or designated representative and the employer or contractor of the services of the health professional or designated representative agree in a written confidentiality agreement that the health professional, employee or designated representative will not use the trade secret information for any purpose other than the health need(s) asserted and agree not to release the information under any circumstances other than to OSHA, as provided in paragraph (f)(7) of this section, except as authorized by the terms of the agreement or by the employer.
</P>
<P>(5) The confidentiality agreement authorized by paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) May restrict the use of the information to the health purposes indicated in the written statement of need;
</P>
<P>(ii) May provide for appropriate legal remedies in the event of a breach of the agreement, including stipulation of a reasonable pre-estimate of likely damages; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) May not include requirements for the posting of a penalty bond.
</P>
<P>(6) Nothing in this section is meant to preclude the parties from pursuing non-contractual remedies to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(7) If the health professional, employee or designated representative receiving the trade secret information decides that there is a need to disclose it to OSHA, the employer who provided the information shall be informed by the health professional prior to, or at the same time as, such disclosure.
</P>
<P>(8) If the employer denies a written request for disclosure of a specific chemical identity, the denial must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be provided to the health professional, employee or designated representative within thirty days of the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Include evidence to support the claim that the specific chemical identity is a trade secret;
</P>
<P>(iv) State the specific reasons why the request is being denied; and,
</P>
<P>(v) Explain in detail how alternative information may satisfy the specific medical or occupational health need without revealing the specific chemical identity.
</P>
<P>(9) The health professional, employee, or designated representative whose request for information is denied under paragraph (f)(4) of this section may refer the request and the written denial of the request to OSHA for consideration.
</P>
<P>(10) When a heath professional employee, or designated representative refers a denial to OSHA under paragraph (f)(9) of this section, OSHA shall consider the evidence to determine if:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer has supported the claim that the specific chemical identity is a trade secret;
</P>
<P>(ii) The health professional employee, or designated representative has supported the claim that there is a medical or occupational health need for the information; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The health professional, employee or designated representative has demonstrated adequate means to protect the confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(11)(i) If OSHA determines that the specific chemical identity requested under paragraph (f)(4) of this section is not a <I>bona fide</I> trade secret, or that it is a trade secret but the requesting health professional, employee or designated representatives has a legitimate medical or occupational health need for the information, has executed a written confidentiality agreement, and has shown adequate means for complying with the terms of such agreement, the employer will be subject to citation by OSHA.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employer demonstrates to OSHA that the execution of a confidentiality agreement would not provide sufficient protection against the potential harm from the unauthorized disclosure of a trade secret specific chemical identity, the Assistant Secretary may issue such orders or impose such additional limitations or conditions upon the disclosure of the requested chemical information as may be appropriate to assure that the occupational health needs are met without an undue risk of harm to the employer.
</P>
<P>(12) Notwithstanding the existence of a trade secret claim, an employer shall, upon request, disclose to the Assistant Secretary any information which this section requires the employer to make available. Where there is a trade secret claim, such claim shall be made no later than at the time the information is provided to the Assistant Secretary so that suitable determinations of trade secret status can be made and the necessary protections can be implemented.
</P>
<P>(13) Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as requiring the disclosure under any circumstances of process or percentage of mixture information which is trade secret.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Employee information.</I> (1) Upon an employee's first entering into employment, and at least annually thereafter, each employer shall inform current employees covered by this section of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The existence, location, and availability of any records covered by this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person responsible for maintaining and providing access to records; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee's rights of access to these records.
</P>
<P>(2) Each employer shall keep a copy of this section and its appendices, and make copies readily available, upon request, to employees. The employer shall also distribute to current employees any informational materials concerning this section which are made available to the employer by the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (1) Whenever an employer is ceasing to do business, the employer shall transfer all records subject to this section to the successor employer. The successor employer shall receive and maintain these records.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever an employer is ceasing to do business and there is no successor employer to receive and maintain the records subject to this standard, the employer shall notify affected current employees of their rights of access to records at least three (3) months prior to the cessation of the employer's business.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in appendices A and B to this section is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed by this section nor detract from any existing obligation.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1020—Sample Authorization Letter for the Release of Employee Medical Record Information to a Designated Representative (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>I, _____ (full name of worker/patient), hereby authorize ______ (individual or organization holding the medical records) to release to ______ (individual or organization authorized to receive the medical information), the following medical information from my personal medical records:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Describe generally the information desired to be released)
</FP>
<P>I give my permission for this medical information to be used for the following purpose:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>but I do not give permission for any other use or re-disclosure of this information.
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Several extra lines are provided below so that you can place additional restrictions on this authorization letter if you want to. You may, however, leave these lines blank. On the other hand, you may want to (1) specify a particular expiration date for this letter (if less than one year); (2) describe medical information to be created in the future that you intend to be covered by this authorization letter; or (3) describe portions of the medical information in your records which you do not intend to be released as a result of this letter.)</P></NOTE>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>Full name of Employee or Legal Representative
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>Signature of Employee or Legal Representative
</FP-2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-2>Date of Signature</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1020—Availability of NIOSH Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances (RTECS) (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>The final regulation, 29 CFR 1910.20, applies to all employee exposure and medical records, and analyses thereof, of employees exposed to toxic substances or harmful physical agents (paragraph (b)(2)). The term <I>toxic substance or harmful physical agent</I> is defined by paragraph (c)(13) to encompass chemical substances, biological agents, and physical stresses for which there is evidence of harmful health effects. The regulation uses the latest printed edition of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances (RTECS) as one of the chief sources of information as to whether evidence of harmful health effects exists. If a substance is listed in the latest printed RTECS, the regulation applies to exposure and medical records (and analyses of these records) relevant to employees exposed to the substance.
</P>
<P>It is appropriate to note that the final regulation does not require that employers purchase a copy of RTECS, and many employers need not consult RTECS to ascertain whether their employee exposure or medical records are subject to the rule. Employers who do not currently have the latest printed edition of the NIOSH RTECS, however, may desire to obtain a copy. The RTECS is issued in an annual printed edition as mandated by section 20(a)(6) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (29 U.S.C. 669(a)(6)).
</P>
<P>The Introduction to the 1980 printed edition describes the RTECS as follows:
</P>
<P>“The 1980 edition of the Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances, formerly known as the Toxic Substances list, is the ninth revision prepared in compliance with the requirements of Section 20(a)(6) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (Public Law 91-596). The original list was completed on June 28, 1971, and has been updated annually in book format. Beginning in October 1977, quarterly revisions have been provided in microfiche. This edition of the Registry contains 168,096 listings of chemical substances: 45,156 are names of different chemicals with their associated toxicity data and 122,940 are synonyms. This edition includes approximately 5,900 new chemical compounds that did not appear in the 1979 Registry. (p. xi)
</P>
<P>“The Registry's purposes are many, and it serves a variety of users. It is a single source document for basic toxicity information and for other data, such as chemical identifiers ad information necessary for the preparation of safety directives and hazard evaluations for chemical substances. The various types of toxic effects linked to literature citations provide researchers and occupational health scientists with an introduction to the toxicological literature, making their own review of the toxic hazards of a given substance easier. By presenting data on the lowest reported doses that produce effects by several routes of entry in various species, the Registry furnishes valuable information to those responsible for preparing safety data sheets for chemical substances in the workplace. Chemical and production engineers can use the Registry to identify the hazards which may be associated with chemical intermediates in the development of final products, and thus can more readily select substitutes or alternative processes which may be less hazardous. Some organizations, including health agencies and chemical companies, have included the NIOSH Registry accession numbers with the listing of chemicals in their files to reference toxicity information associated with those chemicals. By including foreign language chemical names, a start has been made toward providing rapid identification of substances produced in other countries. (p. xi)
</P>
<P>“In this edition of the Registry, the editors intend to identify “all known toxic substances” which may exist in the environment and to provide pertinent data on the toxic effects from known doses entering an organism by any route described. (p xi)
</P>
<P>“It must be reemphasized that the entry of a substance in the Registry does not automatically mean that it must be avoided. A listing does mean, however, that the substance has the documented potential of being harmful if misused, and care must be exercised to prevent tragic consequences. Thus, the Registry lists many substances that are common in everyday life and are in nearly every household in the United States. One can name a variety of such dangerous substances: prescription and non-prescription drugs; food additives; pesticide concentrates, sprays, and dusts; fungicides; herbicides; paints; glazes, dyes; bleaches and other household cleaning agents; alkalies; and various solvents and diluents. The list is extensive because chemicals have become an integral part of our existence.”
</P>
<P>The RTECS printed edition may be purchased from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office (GPO), Washington, DC 20402 (202-783-3238).
</P>
<P>Some employers may desire to subscribe to the quarterly update to the RTECS which is published in a microfiche edition. An annual subscription to the quarterly microfiche may be purchased from the GPO (Order the “Microfiche Edition, Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances”). Both the printed edition and the microfiche edition of RTECS are available for review at many university and public libraries throughout the country. The latest RTECS editions may also be examined at the OSHA Technical Data Center, Room N2439—Rear, United States Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210 (202-523-9700), or at any OSHA Regional or Area Office (<I>See,</I> major city telephone directories under United States Government-Labor Department).</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 38163, Sept. 29, 1988; 53 FR 49981, Dec. 13, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 24333, June 7, 1989; 55 FR 26431, June 28, 1990; 61 FR 9235, Mar. 7, 1996. Redesignated at 61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 76 FR 33608, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1024" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1024   Beryllium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This standard applies to occupational exposure to beryllium in all forms, compounds, and mixtures in general industry, except those articles and materials exempted by paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) This standard does not apply to articles, as defined in the Hazard Communication standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200(c)), that contain beryllium and that the employer does not process.
</P>
<P>(3) This standard does not apply to materials containing less than 0.1% beryllium by weight where the employer has objective data demonstrating that employee exposure to beryllium will remain below the action level as an 8-hour TWA under any foreseeable conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this standard:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne beryllium of 0.1 micrograms per cubic meter of air (µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Airborne exposure</I> and <I>airborne exposure to beryllium</I> mean the exposure to airborne beryllium that would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, United States Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test (BeLPT)</I> means the measurement of blood lymphocyte proliferation in a laboratory test when lymphocytes are challenged with a soluble beryllium salt.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium sensitization</I> means a response in the immune system of a specific individual who has been exposed to beryllium. There are no associated physical or clinical symptoms and no illness or disability with beryllium sensitization alone, but the response that occurs through beryllium sensitization can enable the immune system to recognize and react to beryllium. While not every beryllium-sensitized person will develop chronic beryllium disease (CBD), beryllium sensitization is essential for development of CBD.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium work area</I> means any work area where materials that contain at least 0.1 percent beryllium by weight are processed either:
</P>
<P>(1) During any of the operations listed in Appendix A of this standard; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where employees are, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium at or above the action level.
</P>
<P><I>CBD diagnostic center</I> means a medical diagnostic center that has a pulmonologist or pulmonary specialist on staff and on-site facilities to perform a clinical evaluation for the presence of chronic beryllium disease (CBD). The CBD diagnostic center must have the capacity to perform pulmonary function testing (as outlined by the American Thoracic Society criteria), bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), and transbronchial biopsy. The CBD diagnostic center must also have the capacity to transfer BAL samples to a laboratory for appropriate diagnostic testing within 24 hours. The pulmonologist or pulmonary specialist must be able to interpret the biopsy pathology and the BAL diagnostic test results.
</P>
<P><I>Chronic beryllium disease (CBD)</I> means a chronic granulomatous lung disease caused by inhalation of airborne beryllium by an individual who is beryllium sensitized.
</P>
<P><I>Confirmed positive</I> means the person tested has had two abnormal BeLPT test results, an abnormal and a borderline test result, or three borderline test results, obtained from tests conducted within a three-year period. It also means the result of a more reliable and accurate test indicating a person has been identified as having beryllium sensitization.
</P>
<P><I>Contaminated with beryllium</I> and <I>beryllium-contaminated</I> mean contaminated with dust, fumes, mists, or solutions containing beryllium in concentrations greater than or equal to 0.1 percent by weight.
</P>
<P><I>Dermal contact with beryllium</I> means skin exposure to:
</P>
<P>(1) Soluble beryllium compounds containing beryllium in concentrations greater than or equal to 0.1 percent by weight;
</P>
<P>(2) Solutions containing beryllium in concentrations greater than or equal to 0.1 percent by weight; or
</P>
<P>(3) Visible dust, fumes, or mists containing beryllium in concentrations greater than or equal to 0.1 percent by weight. The handling of beryllium materials in non-particulate solid form that are free from visible dust containing beryllium in concentrations greater than or equal to 0.1 percent by weight is not considered dermal contact under the standard.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment, which may or does result in an uncontrolled and unintended release of airborne beryllium that presents a significant hazard.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter</I> means a filter that is at least 99.97 percent efficient in removing particles 0.3 micrometers in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means information, such as air monitoring data from industry-wide surveys or calculations based on the composition of a substance, demonstrating airborne exposure to beryllium associated with a particular product or material or a specific process, task, or activity. The data must reflect workplace conditions closely resembling or with a higher airborne exposure potential than the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional (PLHCP)</I> means an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.,</I> license, registration, or certification) allows the individual to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the health care services required by paragraph (k) of this standard.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area, including temporary work areas where maintenance or non-routine tasks are performed, where an employee's airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, either the time-weighted average (TWA) permissible exposure limit (PEL) or short term exposure limit (STEL).
</P>
<P><I>This standard</I> means this beryllium standard, 29 CFR 1910.1024.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs)</I>—(1) <I>Time-weighted average (TWA) PEL.</I> The employer must ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of beryllium in excess of 0.2 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> calculated as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short-term exposure limit (STEL).</I> The employer must ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of beryllium in excess of 2.0 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> as determined over a sampling period of 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure assessment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer must assess the airborne exposure of each employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be exposed to airborne beryllium in accordance with either the performance option in paragraph (d)(2) or the scheduled monitoring option in paragraph (d)(3) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Performance option.</I> The employer must assess the 8-hour TWA exposure and the 15-minute short-term exposure for each employee on the basis of any combination of air monitoring data and objective data sufficient to accurately characterize airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scheduled monitoring option.</I> (i) The employer must perform initial monitoring to assess the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of one or more personal breathing zone air samples that reflect the airborne exposure of employees on each shift, for each job classification, and in each work area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must perform initial monitoring to assess the short-term exposure from 15-minute personal breathing zone air samples measured in operations that are likely to produce airborne exposure above the STEL for each work shift, for each job classification, and in each work area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where several employees perform the same tasks on the same shift and in the same work area, the employer may sample a representative fraction of these employees in order to meet the requirements of this paragraph (d)(3). In representative sampling, the employer must sample the employee(s) expected to have the highest airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iv) If initial monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is below the action level and at or below the STEL, the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose airborne exposure is represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(v) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is at or above the action level but at or below the TWA PEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vi) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is above the TWA PEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within three months of the most recent 8-hour TWA exposure monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where the most recent (non-initial) exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is below the action level, the employer must repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring until two consecutive measurements, taken 7 or more days apart, are below the action level, at which time the employer may discontinue 8-hour TWA exposure monitoring for those employees whose exposure is represented by such monitoring, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(viii) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is above the STEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within three months of the most recent short-term exposure monitoring until two consecutive measurements, taken 7 or more days apart, are below the STEL, at which time the employer may discontinue short-term exposure monitoring for those employees whose exposure is represented by such monitoring, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reassessment of exposure.</I> The employer must reassess airborne exposure whenever a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel, or work practices may reasonably be expected to result in new or additional airborne exposure at or above the action level or STEL, or when the employer has any reason to believe that new or additional airborne exposure at or above the action level or STEL has occurred.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Methods of sample analysis.</I> The employer must ensure that all air monitoring samples used to satisfy the monitoring requirements of paragraph (d) of this standard are evaluated by a laboratory that can measure beryllium to an accuracy of plus or minus 25 percent within a statistical confidence level of 95 percent for airborne concentrations at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee notification of assessment results.</I> (i) Within 15 working days after completing an exposure assessment in accordance with paragraph (d) of this standard, the employer must notify each employee whose airborne exposure is represented by the assessment of the results of that assessment individually in writing or post the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to each of these employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever an exposure assessment indicates that airborne exposure is above the TWA PEL or STEL, the employer must describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce airborne exposure to or below the exposure limit(s) exceeded where feasible corrective action exists but had not been implemented when the monitoring was conducted.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) The employer must provide an opportunity to observe any exposure monitoring required by this standard to each employee whose airborne exposure is measured or represented by the monitoring and each employee's representative(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of personal protective clothing or equipment (which may include respirators) is required, the employer must provide each observer with appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment at no cost to the observer and must ensure that each observer uses such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that each observer follows all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Beryllium work areas and regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> (i) The employer must establish and maintain a beryllium work area wherever the criteria for a “beryllium work area” set forth in paragraph (b) of this standard are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must establish and maintain a regulated area wherever employees are, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium at levels above the TWA PEL or STEL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> (i) The employer must identify each beryllium work area through signs or any other methods that adequately establish and inform each employee of the boundaries of each beryllium work area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must identify each regulated area in accordance with paragraph (m)(2) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> The employer must limit access to regulated areas to:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons the employer authorizes or requires to be in a regulated area to perform work duties;
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons entering a regulated area as designated representatives of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe exposure monitoring procedures under paragraph (d)(7) of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Persons authorized by law to be in a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision of personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators.</I> The employer must provide and ensure that each employee entering a regulated area uses:
</P>
<P>(i) Respiratory protection in accordance with paragraph (g) of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraph (h) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Written exposure control plan.</I> (i) The employer must establish, implement, and maintain a written exposure control plan, which must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) A list of operations and job titles reasonably expected to involve airborne exposure to or dermal contact with beryllium;
</P>
<P>(B) A list of operations and job titles reasonably expected to involve airborne exposure at or above the action level;
</P>
<P>(C) A list of operations and job titles reasonably expected to involve airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(D) Procedures for minimizing cross-contamination, including the transfer of beryllium between surfaces, equipment, clothing, materials, and articles within beryllium work areas;
</P>
<P>(E) Procedures for keeping surfaces as free as practicable of beryllium;
</P>
<P>(F) Procedures for minimizing the migration of beryllium from beryllium work areas to other locations within or outside the workplace;
</P>
<P>(G) A list of engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection required by paragraph (f)(2) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(H) A list of personal protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (h) of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(I) Procedures for removing, laundering, storing, cleaning, repairing, and disposing of beryllium-contaminated personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must review and evaluate the effectiveness of each written exposure control plan at least annually and update it, as necessary, when:
</P>
<P>(A) Any change in production processes, materials, equipment, personnel, work practices, or control methods results, or can reasonably be expected to result, in new or additional airborne exposure to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(B) The employer is notified that an employee is eligible for medical removal in accordance with paragraph (l)(1) of this standard, referred for evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center, or shows signs or symptoms associated with exposure to beryllium; or
</P>
<P>(C) The employer has any reason to believe that new or additional airborne exposure is occurring or will occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must make a copy of the written exposure control plan accessible to each employee who is, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium in accordance with OSHA's Access to Employee Exposure and Medical Records (Records Access) standard (§ 1910.1020(e)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> (i) The employer must use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee airborne exposure to beryllium to or below the PEL and STEL, unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever the employer demonstrates that it is not feasible to reduce airborne exposure to or below the PELs with engineering and work practice controls, the employer must implement and maintain engineering and work practice controls to reduce airborne exposure to the lowest levels feasible and supplement these controls using respiratory protection in accordance with paragraph (g) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each operation in a beryllium work area that releases airborne beryllium, the employer must ensure that at least one of the following is in place to reduce airborne exposure:
</P>
<P>(A) Material and/or process substitution;
</P>
<P>(B) Isolation, such as ventilated partial or full enclosures;
</P>
<P>(C) Local exhaust ventilation, such as at the points of operation, material handling, and transfer; or
</P>
<P>(D) Process control, such as wet methods and automation.
</P>
<P>(iii) An employer is exempt from using the controls listed in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this standard to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer can establish that such controls are not feasible; or
</P>
<P>(B) The employer can demonstrate that airborne exposure is below the action level, using no fewer than two representative personal breathing zone samples taken at least 7 days apart, for each affected operation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibition of rotation.</I> The employer must not rotate employees to different jobs to achieve compliance with the PELs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer must provide respiratory protection at no cost to the employee and ensure that each employee uses respiratory protection:
</P>
<P>(i) During periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls where airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(ii) During operations, including maintenance and repair activities and non-routine tasks, when engineering and work practice controls are not feasible and airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(iii) During operations for which an employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work practice controls when such controls are not sufficient to reduce airborne exposure to or below the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(iv) During emergencies; and
</P>
<P>(v) When an employee who is eligible for medical removal under paragraph (l)(1) chooses to remain in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level, as permitted by paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> Where this standard requires an employer to provide respiratory protection, the selection and use of such respiratory protection must be in accordance with the Respiratory Protection standard (§ 1910.134).
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must provide at no cost to the employee a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) instead of a negative pressure respirator when:
</P>
<P>(i) Respiratory protection is required by this standard;
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee entitled to such respiratory protection requests a PAPR; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The PAPR provides adequate protection to the employee in accordance with paragraph (g)(2) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Personal protective clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> The employer must provide at no cost, and ensure that each employee uses, appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with the written exposure control plan required under paragraph (f)(1) of this standard and OSHA's Personal Protective Equipment standards (subpart I of this part):
</P>
<P>(i) Where airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where there is a reasonable expectation of dermal contact with beryllium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that each employee removes all beryllium-contaminated personal protective clothing and equipment at the end of the work shift, at the completion of all tasks involving beryllium, or when personal protective clothing or equipment becomes visibly contaminated with beryllium, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that each employee removes beryllium-contaminated personal protective clothing and equipment as specified in the written exposure control plan required by paragraph (f)(1) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that each employee stores and keeps beryllium-contaminated personal protective clothing and equipment separate from street clothing and that storage facilities prevent cross-contamination as specified in the written exposure control plan required by paragraph (f)(1) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer must ensure that no employee removes beryllium-contaminated personal protective clothing or equipment from the workplace, except for employees authorized to do so for the purposes of laundering, cleaning, maintaining or disposing of beryllium-contaminated personal protective clothing and equipment at an appropriate location or facility away from the workplace.
</P>
<P>(v) When personal protective clothing or equipment required by this standard is removed from the workplace for laundering, cleaning, maintenance or disposal, the employer must ensure that personal protective clothing and equipment are stored and transported in sealed bags or other closed containers that are impermeable and are labeled in accordance with paragraph (m)(3) of this standard and the HCS (§ 1910.1200).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that all reusable personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard is cleaned, laundered, repaired, and replaced as needed to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that beryllium is not removed from beryllium-contaminated personal protective clothing and equipment by blowing, shaking, or any other means that disperses beryllium into the air.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must inform in writing the persons or the business entities who launder, clean, or repair the personal protective clothing or equipment required by this standard of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to beryllium and that the personal protective clothing and equipment must be handled in accordance with this standard.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hygiene areas and practices</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For each employee working in a beryllium work area or who can reasonably be expected to have dermal contact with beryllium, the employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide readily accessible washing facilities in accordance with this standard and the Sanitation standard (§ 1910.141) to remove beryllium from the hands, face, and neck; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that employees who have dermal contact with beryllium wash any exposed skin at the end of the activity, process, or work shift and prior to eating, drinking, smoking, chewing tobacco or gum, applying cosmetics, or using the toilet.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change rooms.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this standard, the employer must provide employees who are required to use personal protective clothing or equipment under paragraph (h)(1)(ii) of this standard with a designated change room in accordance with this standard and the Sanitation standard (§ 1910.141) where employees are required to remove their personal clothing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer must provide showers in accordance with the Sanitation standard (§ 1910.141) where:
</P>
<P>(A) Airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL; and
</P>
<P>(B) Employee's hair or body parts other than hands, face, and neck can reasonably be expected to become contaminated with beryllium.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers required to provide showers under paragraph (i)(3)(i) of this standard must ensure that each employee showers at the end of the work shift or work activity if:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee reasonably could have had airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL; and
</P>
<P>(B) The employee's hair or body parts other than hands, face, and neck could reasonably have become contaminated with beryllium.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eating and drinking areas.</I> Wherever the employer allows employees to consume food or beverages at a worksite where beryllium is present, the employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Beryllium-contaminated surfaces in eating and drinking areas are as free as practicable of beryllium;
</P>
<P>(ii) No employees enter any eating or drinking area with beryllium-contaminated personal protective clothing or equipment unless, prior to entry, it is cleaned, as necessary, to be as free as practicable of beryllium by methods that do not disperse beryllium into the air or onto an employee's body; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Eating and drinking facilities provided by the employer are in accordance with the Sanitation standard (§ 1910.141).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer must ensure that no employees eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer must maintain all surfaces in beryllium work areas and regulated areas as free as practicable of beryllium and in accordance with the written exposure control plan required under paragraph (f)(1) and the cleaning methods required under paragraph (j)(2) of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that all spills and emergency releases of beryllium are cleaned up promptly and in accordance with the written exposure control plan required under paragraph (f)(1) and the cleaning methods required under paragraph (j)(2) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning methods.</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer must ensure that surfaces in beryllium work areas and regulated areas are cleaned by HEPA-filtered vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood and level of airborne exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must not allow dry sweeping or brushing for cleaning surfaces in beryllium work areas or regulated areas unless HEPA-filtered vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood and level of airborne exposure are not safe or effective.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must not allow the use of compressed air for cleaning beryllium-contaminated surfaces unless the compressed air is used in conjunction with a ventilation system designed to capture the particulates made airborne by the use of compressed air.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where employees use dry sweeping, brushing, or compressed air to clean beryllium-contaminated surfaces, the employer must provide, and ensure that each employee uses, respiratory protection and personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraphs (g) and (h) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer must ensure that cleaning equipment is handled and maintained in a manner that minimizes the likelihood and level of airborne exposure and the re-entrainment of airborne beryllium in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disposal, recycling, and reuse.</I> (i) Except for intra-plant transfers, when the employer transfers materials that contain at least 0.1 percent beryllium by weight or are contaminated with beryllium for disposal, recycling, or reuse, the employer must label the materials in accordance with paragraph (m)(3) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for intra-plant transfers, materials designated for disposal that contain at least 0.1 percent beryllium by weight or are contaminated with beryllium must be cleaned to be as free as practicable of beryllium or placed in enclosures that prevent the release of beryllium-containing particulate or solutions under normal conditions of use, storage, or transport, such as bags or containers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Except for intra-plant transfers, materials designated for recycling or reuse that contain at least 0.1 percent beryllium by weight or are contaminated with beryllium must be cleaned to be as free as practicable of beryllium or placed in enclosures that prevent the release of beryllium-containing particulate or solutions under normal conditions of use, storage, or transport, such as bags or containers.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer must make medical surveillance required by this paragraph available at no cost to the employee, and at a reasonable time and place, to each employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Who is or is reasonably expected to be exposed at or above the action level for more than 30 days per year;
</P>
<P>(B) Who shows signs or symptoms of CBD or other beryllium-related health effects;
</P>
<P>(C) Who is exposed to beryllium during an emergency; or
</P>
<P>(D) Whose most recent written medical opinion required by paragraph (k)(6) or (k)(7) of this standard recommends periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this standard are performed by, or under the direction of, a licensed physician.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer must provide a medical examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days after determining that:
</P>
<P>(A) An employee meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(A), unless the employee has received a medical examination, provided in accordance with this standard, within the last two years; or
</P>
<P>(B) An employee meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(B) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least every two years thereafter for each employee who continues to meet the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(A), (B), or (D) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) At the termination of employment for each employee who meets any of the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this standard at the time the employee's employment terminates, unless an examination has been provided in accordance with this standard during the six months prior to the date of termination. Each employee who meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(C) of this standard and who has not received an examination since exposure to beryllium during the emergency must be provided an examination at the time the employee's employment terminates.
</P>
<P>(iv) For an employee who meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(C) of this standard:
</P>
<P>(A) If that employee has not received a medical examination within the previous two years pursuant to paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this standard, then within 30 days after the employee meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(C) of this standard; or
</P>
<P>(B) If that employee has received a medical examination within the previous two years pursuant to paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this standard, then at least one year but no more than two years after the employee meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(C) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of examination.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that the PLHCP conducting the examination advises the employee of the risks and benefits of participating in the medical surveillance program and the employee's right to opt out of any or all parts of the medical examination.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that the employee is offered a medical examination that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A medical and work history, with emphasis on past and present airborne exposure to or dermal contact with beryllium, smoking history, and any history of respiratory system dysfunction;
</P>
<P>(B) A physical examination with emphasis on the respiratory system;
</P>
<P>(C) A physical examination for skin rashes;
</P>
<P>(D) Pulmonary function tests, performed in accordance with the guidelines established by the American Thoracic Society including forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>);
</P>
<P>(E) A standardized BeLPT or equivalent test, upon the first examination and at least every two years thereafter, unless the employee is confirmed positive. If the results of the BeLPT are other than normal, a follow-up BeLPT must be offered within 30 days, unless the employee has been confirmed positive. Samples must be analyzed in a laboratory certified under the College of American Pathologists/Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) guidelines to perform the BeLPT.
</P>
<P>(F) A low dose computed tomography (LDCT) scan, when recommended by the PLHCP after considering the employee's history of exposure to beryllium along with other risk factors, such as smoking history, family medical history, sex, age, and presence of existing lung disease; and
</P>
<P>(G) Any other test deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the PLHCP.</I> The employer must ensure that the examining PLHCP (and the agreed-upon CBD diagnostic center, if an evaluation is required under paragraph (k)(7) of this standard) has a copy of this standard and must provide the following information, if known:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the employee's former and current duties that relate to the employee's airborne exposure to and dermal contact with beryllium;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's former and current levels of airborne exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators, used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used that personal protective clothing and equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee, currently within the control of the employer, after obtaining written consent from the employee.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Licensed physician's written medical report for the employee.</I> The employer must ensure that the employee receives a written medical report from the licensed physician within 45 days of the examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard) and that the PLHCP explains the results of the examination to the employee. The written medical report must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including the licensed physician's opinion as to whether the employee has:
</P>
<P>(A) Any detected medical condition, such as CBD or beryllium sensitization (<I>i.e.,</I> the employee is confirmed positive, as defined in paragraph (b) of this standard), that may place the employee at increased risk from further airborne exposure, and
</P>
<P>(B) Any medical conditions related to airborne exposure that require further evaluation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommendations on:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee's use of respirators, protective clothing, or equipment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Limitations on the employee's airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD or if the licensed physician otherwise deems it appropriate, the written report must also contain a referral for an evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD the written report must also contain a recommendation for continued periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(v) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD the written report must also contain a recommendation for medical removal from airborne exposure to beryllium, as described in paragraph (l) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Licensed physician's written medical opinion for the employer.</I> (i) The employer must obtain a written medical opinion from the licensed physician within 45 days of the medical examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard). The written medical opinion must contain only the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the examination;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the examination has met the requirements of this standard;
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators, protective clothing, or equipment; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the PLHCP has explained the results of the medical examination to the employee, including any tests conducted, any medical conditions related to airborne exposure that require further evaluation or treatment, and any special provisions for use of personal protective clothing or equipment;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain any recommended limitations on the employee's airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD or if the licensed physician otherwise deems it appropriate, and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a referral for an evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a recommendation for continued periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(v) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a recommendation for medical removal from airborne exposure to beryllium, as described in paragraph (l) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer must ensure that each employee receives a copy of the written medical opinion described in paragraph (k)(6) of this standard within 45 days of any medical examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard) performed for that employee.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>CBD diagnostic center.</I> (i) The employer must provide an evaluation at no cost to the employee at a CBD diagnostic center that is mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee. The evaluation at the CBD diagnostic center must be scheduled within 30 days, and must occur within a reasonable time, of:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer's receipt of a physician's written medical opinion to the employer that recommends referral to a CBD diagnostic center; or
</P>
<P>(B) The employee presenting to the employer a physician's written medical report indicating that the employee has been confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD, or recommending referral to a CBD diagnostic center.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that, as part of the evaluation, the employee is offered any tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician at the CBD diagnostic center, such as pulmonary function testing (as outlined by the American Thoracic Society criteria), bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), and transbronchial biopsy. If any of the tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician are not available at the CBD diagnostic center, they may be performed at another location that is mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that the employee receives a written medical report from the CBD diagnostic center that contains all the information required in paragraph (k)(5)(i), (ii), (iv), and (v) of this standard and that the PLHCP explains the results of the examination to the employee within 30 days of the examination.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer must obtain a written medical opinion from the CBD diagnostic center within 30 days of the medical examination. The written medical opinion must contain only the information in paragraph (k)(6)(i), as applicable, unless the employee provides written authorization to release additional information. If the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain the information from paragraphs (k)(6)(ii), (iv), and (v), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer must ensure that each employee receives a copy of the written medical opinion from the CBD diagnostic center described in paragraph (k)(7) of this standard within 30 days of any medical examination performed for that employee.
</P>
<P>(vi) After an employee has received the initial clinical evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center described in paragraphs (k)(7)(i) and (ii) of this standard, the employee may choose to have any subsequent medical examinations for which the employee is eligible under paragraph (k) of this standard performed at a CBD diagnostic center mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee, and the employer must provide such examinations at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Medical removal.</I> (1) An employee is eligible for medical removal, if the employee works in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level and either:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee provides the employer with:
</P>
<P>(A) A written medical report indicating a confirmed positive finding or CBD diagnosis; or
</P>
<P>(B) A written medical report recommending removal from airborne exposure to beryllium in accordance with paragraph (k)(5)(v) or (k)(7)(iii) of this standard; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer receives a written medical opinion recommending removal from airborne exposure to beryllium in accordance with paragraph (k)(6)(v) or (k)(7)(iv) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) If an employee is eligible for medical removal, the employer must provide the employee with the employee's choice of:
</P>
<P>(i) Removal as described in paragraph (l)(3) of this standard; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Remaining in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level, provided that the employer provides, and ensures that the employee uses, respiratory protection that complies with paragraph (g) of this standard whenever airborne exposures are at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(3) If the employee chooses removal:
</P>
<P>(i) If a comparable job is available where airborne exposures to beryllium are below the action level, and the employee is qualified for that job or can be trained within one month, the employer must remove the employee to that job. The employer must maintain for six months from the time of removal the employee's base earnings, seniority, and other rights and benefits that existed at the time of removal.
</P>
<P>(ii) If comparable work is not available, the employer must maintain the employee's base earnings, seniority, and other rights and benefits that existed at the time of removal for six months or until such time that comparable work described in paragraph (l)(3)(i) becomes available, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program, or receives income from another employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, and employers must comply with all requirements of the HCS (§ 1910.1200) for beryllium.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of beryllium, at least the following hazards must be addressed: Cancer; lung effects (CBD and acute beryllium disease); beryllium sensitization; skin sensitization; and skin, eye, and respiratory tract irritation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers must include beryllium in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS. Employers must ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of beryllium and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of the HCS (§ 1910.1200) and paragraph (m)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Warning signs.</I> (i) <I>Posting.</I> The employer must provide and display warning signs at each approach to a regulated area so that each employee is able to read and understand the signs and take necessary protective steps before entering the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sign specification.</I> (A) The employer must ensure that the warning signs required by paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this standard are legible and readily visible.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer must ensure each warning sign required by paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this standard bears the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>REGULATED AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BERYLLIUM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND PERSONAL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING AND EQUIPMENT IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Warning labels.</I> Consistent with the HCS (§ 1910.1200), the employer must label each immediate container of clothing, equipment, and materials contaminated with beryllium, and must, at a minimum, include the following on the label:
</P>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS BERYLLIUM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT GET ON SKIN
</FP-1>
<P>(4) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) For each employee who has, or can reasonably be expected to have, airborne exposure to or dermal contact with beryllium:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer must provide information and training in accordance with the HCS (§ 1910.1200(h));
</P>
<P>(B) The employer must provide initial training to each employee by the time of initial assignment; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employer must repeat the training required under this standard annually for each employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that each employee who is, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium can demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The health hazards associated with airborne exposure to and dermal contact with beryllium, including the signs and symptoms of CBD;
</P>
<P>(B) The written exposure control plan, with emphasis on the location(s) of beryllium work areas, including any regulated areas, and the specific nature of operations that could result in airborne exposure, especially airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose, proper selection, fitting, proper use, and limitations of personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators;
</P>
<P>(D) Applicable emergency procedures;
</P>
<P>(E) Measures employees can take to protect themselves from airborne exposure to and dermal contact with beryllium, including personal hygiene practices;
</P>
<P>(F) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (k) of this standard including risks and benefits of each test to be offered;
</P>
<P>(G) The purpose and a description of the medical removal protection provided under paragraph (l) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(H) The contents of the standard; and
</P>
<P>(I) The employee's right of access to records under the Records Access standard (§ 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(iii) When a workplace change (such as modification of equipment, tasks, or procedures) results in new or increased airborne exposure that exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, either the TWA PEL or the STEL, the employer must provide additional training to those employees affected by the change in airborne exposure.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Employee information.</I> The employer must make a copy of this standard and its appendices readily available at no cost to each employee and designated employee representative(s).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Air monitoring data.</I> (i) The employer must make and maintain a record of all exposure measurements taken to assess airborne exposure as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record must include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The task that is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) The sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) The number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) The type of personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators, worn by monitored employees at the time of monitoring; and
</P>
<P>(F) The name and job classification of each employee represented by the monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (§ 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) Where an employer uses objective data to satisfy the exposure assessment requirements under paragraph (d)(2) of this standard, the employer must make and maintain a record of the objective data relied upon.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record must include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The data relied upon;
</P>
<P>(B) The beryllium-containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(C) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the process, task, or activity on which the objective data were based; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the process, task, activity, material, or airborne exposure on which the objective data were based.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that objective data are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (§ 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer must make and maintain a record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (k) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record must include the following information about each employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and job classification;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of all licensed physicians' written medical opinions for each employee; and
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the PLHCP as required by paragraph (k)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that medical records are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (§ 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training.</I> (i) At the completion of any training required by this standard, the employer must prepare a record that indicates the name and job classification of each employee trained, the date the training was completed, and the topic of the training.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record must be maintained for three years after the completion of training.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Access to records.</I> Upon request, the employer must make all records maintained as a requirement of this standard available for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, each employee, and each employee's designated representative(s) in accordance the Records Access standard (§ 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer must comply with the requirements involving transfer of records set forth in the Records Access standard (§ 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This standard shall become effective March 10, 2017.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance dates.</I> (i) Obligations contained in paragraphs (c), (d), (g), (k), and (l) of this standard: March 12, 2018;
</P>
<P>(ii) Change rooms and showers required by paragraph (i) of this standard: March 11, 2019;
</P>
<P>(iii) Engineering controls required by paragraph (f) of this standard: March 10, 2020; and
</P>
<P>(iv) All other obligations of this standard: December 12, 2018.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Appendix.</I> Table A.1 in this appendix sets forth the operations that, where performed under the circumstances described in the column heading above the particular operations, trigger the requirement for a beryllium work area.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1024—Operations for Establishing Beryllium Work Areas
</HD1>
<P>Paragraph (b) of this standard defines a <I>beryllium work area</I> as any work area where materials that contain at least 0.1 percent beryllium by weight are processed (1) during any of the operations listed in Appendix A of this standard, or (2) where employees are, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium at or above the action level. Table A.1 in this appendix sets forth the operations that, where performed under the circumstances described in the column heading above the particular operations, trigger the requirement for a beryllium work area. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.1—Operations for Establishing Beryllium Work Areas Where Processing Materials Containing at Least 0.1 Percent Beryllium by Weight
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Beryllium metal alloy operations
<br/>(generally &lt;10% beryllium by weight)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Beryllium composite operations
<br/>(generally &gt;10% beryllium by weight) and beryllium metal operations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Beryllium oxide operations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Abrasive Blasting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abrasive Blasting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abrasive Blasting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Abrasive Processing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abrasive Processing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abrasive Processing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Abrasive Sawing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abrasive Sawing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abrasive Sawing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Annealing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annealing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boring.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bright Cleaning.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Atomizing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brazing (&gt;1,100 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brushing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Attritioning.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broaching with green ceramic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Buffing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blanking.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brushing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Burnishing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bonding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Buffing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Casting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boring.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Centerless grinding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Centerless Grinding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Breaking.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical Cleaning.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chemical Cleaning.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bright Cleaning.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical Etching.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chemical Etching.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Broaching.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CNC Machining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chemical Milling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brushing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cold Isostatic Pressing (CIP).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dross Handling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Buffing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crushing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Deburring (grinding).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Burnishing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cutting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical Chemical Machining (ECM).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Casting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deburring (grinding).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Centerless Grinding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deburring (non-grinding).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Extrusion.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical Cleaning.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Destructive Testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Forging.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical Etching</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dicing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grinding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chemical Milling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drilling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat Treating (in air).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CNC Machining</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dry/wet Tumbling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Speed Machining (&gt;10,000 rpm).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cold Isostatic Pressing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extrusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Rolling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cold Pilger.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Filing by Hand.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lapping.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Crushing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Firing of Green Ceramic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laser Cutting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cutting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Firing of Refractory Metallization (&gt;1,100 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laser Machining.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deburring.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grinding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laser Scribing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dicing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Honing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laser Marking.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drawing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot Isostatic Pressing (HIP).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Melting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drilling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lapping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Photo-Etching.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dross Handling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laser Cutting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pickling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical Chemical Machining (ECM).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laser Machining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Point and Chamfer.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laser Scribing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polishing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extrusion.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laser Marking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torch Cutting (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, oxy-acetylene).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Filing by Hand.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Machining.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tumbling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Forging.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-jet Cutting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grinding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piercing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Welding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heading.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mixing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sanding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Treating.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plasma Spray.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Slab Milling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Honing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polishing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot Isostatic Pressing (HIP).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Powder Handling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lapping.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Powder Pressing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laser Cutting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reaming.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laser Machining.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laser Scribing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sectioning.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Laser Marking.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shearing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Machining.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sintering of Green Ceramic.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Melting.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sintering of Refractory Metallization (&gt;1,100 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Milling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Snapping.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mixing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spray Drying.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photo-Etching.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tape Casting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pickling.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turning.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Piercing.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water Jet Cutting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pilger.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plasma Spray.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Point and Chamfer.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polishing.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Powder Handling.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Powder Pressing.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pressing.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reaming.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roll Bonding.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rolling.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sanding.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sawing (tooth blade).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shearing.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sizing.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Skiving.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Slitting.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Snapping.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sputtering.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stamping.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spray Drying.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tapping.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tensile Testing.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Torch Cutting (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, oxy acetylene).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trepanning.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tumbling
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turning.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vapor Deposition.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water-Jet Cutting.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Welding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 2736, Jan. 9, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 19948, May 7, 2018; 83 FR 39360, Aug. 9, 2018; 85 FR 42625, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1025" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1025   Lead.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all occupational exposure to lead, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to the construction industry or to agricultural operations covered by 29 CFR part 1928.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Action level</I> means employee exposure, without regard to the use of respirators, to an airborne concentration of lead of 30 micrograms per cubic meter of air (30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) averaged over an 8-hour period.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Lead</I> means metallic lead, all inorganic lead compounds, and organic lead soaps. Excluded from this definition are all other organic lead compounds.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit (PEL).</I> (1) The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to lead at concentrations greater than fifty micrograms per cubic meter of air (50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) averaged over an 8-hour period.
</P>
<P>(2) If an employee is exposed to lead for more than 8 hours in any work day, the permissible exposure limit, as a time weighted average (TWA) for that day, shall be reduced according to the following formula:
</P>
<HD3>Maximum permissible limit (in µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) = 400 ÷ hours worked in the day.
</HD3>
<P>(3) When respirators are used to supplement engineering and work practice controls to comply with the PEL and all the requirements of paragraph (f) have been met, employee exposure, for the purpose of determining whether the employer has complied with the PEL, may be considered to be at the level provided by the protection factor of the respirator for those periods the respirator is worn. Those periods may be averaged with exposure levels during periods when respirators are not worn to determine the employee's daily TWA exposure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) For the purposes of paragraph (d), employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) With the exception of monitoring under paragraph (d)(3), the employer shall collect full shift (for at least 7 continuous hours) personal samples including at least one sample for each shift for each job classification in each work area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Full shift personal samples shall be representative of the monitored employee's regular, daily exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial determination.</I> Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this standard shall determine if any exployee may be exposed to lead at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Basis of initial determination.</I> (i) The employer shall monitor employee exposures and shall base initial determinations on the employee exposure monitoring results and any of the following, relevant considerations:
</P>
<P>(A) Any information, observations, or calculations which would indicate employee exposure to lead;
</P>
<P>(B) Any previous measurements of airborne lead; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any employee complaints of symptoms which may be attributable to exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitoring for the initial determination may be limited to a representative sample of the exposed employees who the employer reasonably believes are exposed to the greatest airborne concentrations of lead in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iii) Measurements of airborne lead made in the preceding 12 months may be used to satisfy the requirement to monitor under paragraph (d)(3)(i) if the sampling and analytical methods used meet the accuracy and confidence levels of paragraph (d)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Positive initial determination and initial monitoring.</I> (i) Where a determination conducted under paragraphs (d) (2) and (3) of this section shows the possibility of any employee exposure at or above the action level, the employer shall conduct monitoring which is representative of the exposure for each employee in the workplace who is exposed to lead.
</P>
<P>(ii) Measurements of airborne lead made in the preceding 12 months may be used to satisfy this requirement if the sampling and analytical methods used meet the accuracy and confidence levels of paragraph (d)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Negative initial determination.</I> Where a determination, conducted under paragraphs (d) (2) and (3) of this section is made that no employee is exposed to airborne concentrations of lead at or above the action level, the employer shall make a written record of such determination. The record shall include at least the information specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section and shall also include the date of determination, location within the worksite, and the name number of each employee monitored.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Frequency.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring reveals employee exposure to be below the action level the measurements need not be repeated except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the initial determination or subsequent monitoring reveals employee exposure to be at or above the action level but below the permissible exposure limit the employer shall repeat monitoring in accordance with this paragraph at least every 6 months. The employer shall continue monitoring at the required frequency until at least two consecutive measurements, taken at least 7 days apart, are below the action level at which time the employer may discontinue monitoring for that employee except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the initial monitoring reveals that employee exposure is above the permissible exposure limit the employer shall repeat monitoring quarterly. The employer shall continue monitoring at the required frequency until at least two consecutive measurements, taken at least 7 days apart, are below the PEL but at or above the action level at which time the employer shall repeat monitoring for that employee at the frequency specified in paragraph (d)(6)(ii), except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> Whenever there has been a production, process, control or personnel change which may result in new or additional exposure to lead, or whenever the employer has any other reason to suspect a change which may result in new or additional exposures to lead, additional monitoring in accordance with this paragraph shall be conducted.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the results indicate that the representative employee exposure, without regard to respirators, exceeds the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall incude in the written notice a statement that the permissible exposure limit was exceeded and a description of the corrective action taken or to be taken to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> The employer shall use a method of monitoring and analysis which has an accuracy (to a confidence level of 95%) of not less than plus or minus 20 percent for airborne concentrations of lead equal to or greater than 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> (i) Where any employee is exposed to lead above the permissible exposure limit for more than 30 days per year, the employer shall implement engineering and work practice controls (including administrative controls) to reduce and maintain employee exposure to lead in accordance with the implementation schedule in Table I below, except to the extent that the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever the engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest feasible level and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where any employee is exposed to lead above the permissible exposure limit, but for 30 days or less per year, the employer shall implement engineering controls to reduce exposures to 200 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, but thereafter may implement any combination of engineering, work practice (including administrative controls), and respiratory controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to lead to or below 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance dates: 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(50 µg/m
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead chemicals, secondary copper smelting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">July 19, 1996.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonferrous foundries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">July 19, 1996. 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brass and bronze ingot manufacture</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 years. 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Calculated by counting from the date the stay on implementation of paragraph (e)(1) was lifted by the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia, the number of years specified in the 1978 lead standard and subsequent amendments for compliance with the PEL of 50 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> for exposure to airborne concentrations of lead levels for the particular industry.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Large nonferrous foundries (20 or more employees) are required to achieve the PEL of 50 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> by means of engineering and work practice controls. Small nonferrous foundries (fewer than 20 employees) are required to achieve an 8-hour TWA of 75 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> by such controls.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Expressed as the number of years from the date on which the Court lifts the stay on the implementation of paragraph (e)(1) for this industry for employers to achieve a lead in air concentration of 75 µg/m
<sup>3</sup>. Compliance with paragraph (e) in this industry is determined by a compliance directive that incorporates elements from the settlement agreement between OSHA and representatives of the industry.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection.</I> Where engineering and work practice controls do not reduce employee exposure to or below the 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> permissible exposure limit, the employer shall supplement these controls with respirators in accordance with paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Each employer shall establish and implement a written compliance program to reduce exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, and interim levels if applicable, solely by means of engineering and work practice controls in accordance with the implementation schedule in paragraph (e)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) Written plans for these compliance programs shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each operation in which lead is emitted; e.g. machinery used, material processed, controls in place, crew size, employee job responsibilities, operating procedures and maintenance practices;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the specific means that will be employed to achieve compliance, including engineering plans and studies used to determine methods selected for controlling exposure to lead;
</P>
<P>(C) A report of the technology considered in meeting the permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<P>(D) Air monitoring data which documents the source of lead emissions;
</P>
<P>(E) A detailed schedule for implementation of the program, including documentation such as copies of purchase orders for equipment, construction contracts, etc.;
</P>
<P>(F) A work practice program which includes items required under paragraphs (g), (h) and (i) of this regulation;
</P>
<P>(G) An administrative control schedule required by paragraph (e)(5) of this section, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(H) Other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written programs shall be submitted upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Assistant Secretary, Director, any affected employee or authorized employee representatives.
</P>
<P>(iv) Written programs must be revised and updated at least annually to reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mechanical ventilation.</I> (i) When ventilation is used to control exposure, measurements which demonstrate the effectiveness of the system in controlling exposure, such as capture velocity, duct velocity, or static pressure shall be made at least every 3 months. Measurements of the system's effectiveness in controlling exposure shall be made within 5 days of any change in production, process, or control which might result in a change in employee exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Recirculation of air.</I> If air from exhaust ventilation is recirculated into the workplace, the employer shall assure that (A) the system has a high efficiency filter with reliable back-up filter; and (B) controls to monitor the concentration of lead in the return air and to bypass the recirculation system automatically if it fails are installed, operating, and maintained.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Administrative controls.</I> If administrative controls are used as a means of reducing employees TWA exposure to lead, the employer shall establish and implement a job rotation schedule which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Name or identification number of each affected employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Duration and exposure levels at each job or work station where each affected employee is located; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information which may be useful in assessing the reliability of administrative controls to reduce exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement engineering or work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations for which engineering and work-practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(iii) Periods when an employee requests a respirator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employee has breathing difficulty during fit testing or respirator use, the employer must provide the employee with a medical examination in accordance with paragraph (j)(3)(i)(C) of this section to determine whether or not the employee can use a respirator while performing the required duty.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide employees with full facepiece respirators instead of half mask respirators for protection against lead aerosols that cause eye or skin irritation at the use concentrations.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers must provide employees with a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) instead of a negative pressure respirator selected according to paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this standard when an employee chooses to use a PAPR and it provides adequate protection to the employee as specified by paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this standard. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> If an employee is exposed to lead above the PEL, without regard to the use of respirators or where the possibility of skin or eye irritation exists, the employer shall provide at no cost to the employee and assure that the employee uses appropriate protective work clothing and equipment such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Coveralls or similar full-body work clothing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gloves, hats, and shoes or disposable shoe coverlets; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields, vented goggles, or other appropriate protective equipment which complies with § 1910.133 of this Part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the protective clothing required in paragraph (g)(1) of this section in a clean and dry condition at least weekly, and daily to employees whose exposure levels without regard to a respirator are over 200 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> of lead as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide for the cleaning, laundering, or disposal of protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall repair or replace required protective clothing and equipment as needed to maintain their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that all protective clothing is removed at the completion of a work shift only in change rooms provided for that purpose as prescribed in paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall assure that contaminated protective clothing which is to be cleaned, laundered, or disposed of, is placed in a closed container in the change-room which prevents dispersion of lead outside the container.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall inform in writing any person who cleans or launders protective clothing or equipment of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(vii) Labeling of contaminated protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall ensure that labels of bags or containers of contaminated protective clothing and equipment include the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER: CLOTHING AND EQUIPMENT CONTAMINATED WITH LEAD. MAY DAMAGE FERTILITY OR THE UNBORN CHILD. CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM. DO NOT EAT, DRINK OR SMOKE WHEN HANDLING. DO NOT REMOVE DUST BY BLOWING OR SHAKING. DISPOSE OF LEAD CONTAMINATED WASH WATER IN ACCORDANCE WITH APPLICABLE LOCAL, STATE, OR FEDERAL REGULATIONS.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on bags or containers of contaminated protective clothing and equipment in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (g)(2)(vii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CAUTION: CLOTHING CONTAMINATED WITH LEAD. DO NOT REMOVE DUST BY BLOWING OR SHAKING. DISPOSE OF LEAD CONTAMINATED WASH WATER IN ACCORDANCE WITH APPLICABLE LOCAL, STATE, OR FEDERAL REGULATIONS.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(viii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of lead from protective clothing or equipment by blowing, shaking, or any other means which disperses lead into the air.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>Surfaces.</I> All surfaces shall be maintained as free as practicable of accumulations of lead.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning floors.</I> (i) Floors and other surfaces where lead accumulates may not be cleaned by the use of compressed air.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shoveling, dry or wet sweeping, and brushing may be used only where vacuuming or other equally effective methods have been tried and found not to be effective.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vacuuming.</I> Where vacuuming methods are selected, the vacuums shall be used and emptied in a manner which minimizes the reentry of lead into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that in areas where employees are exposed to lead above the PEL, without regard to the use of respirators, food or beverage is not present or consumed, tobacco products are not present or used, and cosmetics are not applied, except in change rooms, lunchrooms, and showers required under paragraphs (i)(2) through (i)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change rooms.</I> (i) The employer shall provide clean change rooms for employees who work in areas where their airborne exposure to lead is above the PEL, without regard to the use of respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that change rooms are equipped with separate storage facilities for protective work clothing and equipment and for street clothes which prevent cross-contamination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees who work in areas where their airborne exposure to lead is above the PEL, without regard to the use of respirators, shower at the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide shower facilities in accordance with § 1910.141 (d)(3) of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that employees who are required to shower pursuant to paragraph (i)(3)(i) do not leave the workplace wearing any clothing or equipment worn during the work shift.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lunchrooms.</I> (i) The employer shall provide lunchroom facilities for employees who work in areas where their airborne exposure to lead is above the PEL, without regard to the use of respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that lunchroom facilities have a temperature controlled, positive pressure, filtered air supply, and are readily accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that employees who work in areas where their airborne exposure to lead is above the PEL without regard to the use of a respirator wash their hands and face prior to eating, drinking, smoking or applying cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that employees do not enter lunchroom facilities with protective work clothing or equipment unless surface lead dust has been removed by vacuuming, downdraft booth, or other cleaning method.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Lavatories.</I> The employer shall provide an adequate number of lavatory facilities which comply with § 1910.141(d) (1) and (2) of this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or may be exposed at or above the action level for more than 30 days per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide the required medical surveillance including multiple physician review under paragraph (j)(3)(iii) without cost to employees and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Biological monitoring</I>—(i) <I>Blood lead and ZPP level sampling and analysis.</I> The employer shall make available biological monitoring in the form of blood sampling and analysis for lead and zinc protoporphyrin levels to each employee covered under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section on the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(A) At least every 6 months to each employee covered under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At least every two months for each employee whose last blood sampling and analysis indicated a blood lead level at or above 40 µg/100 g of whole blood. This frequency shall continue until two consecutive blood samples and analyses indicate a blood lead level below 40 µg/100 g of whole blood; and
</P>
<P>(C) At least monthly during the removal period of each employee removed from exposure to lead due to an elevated blood lead level.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Follow-up blood sampling tests.</I> Whenever the results of a blood lead level test indicate that an employee's blood lead level is at or above the numerical criterion for medical removal under paragraph (k)(1)(i)(A) of this section, the employer shall provide a second (follow-up) blood sampling test within two weeks after the employer receives the results of the first blood sampling test.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accuracy of blood lead level sampling and analysis.</I> Blood lead level sampling and analysis provided pursuant to this section shall have an accuracy (to a confidence level of 95 percent) within plus or minus 15 percent or 6 µg/100ml, whichever is greater, and shall be conducted by a laboratory licensed by the Center for Disease Control, United States Department of Health, Education and Welfare (CDC) or which has received a satisfactory grade in blood lead proficiency testing from CDC in the prior twelve months.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Employee notification.</I> Within five working days after the receipt of biological monitoring results, the employer shall notify in writing each employee whose blood lead level is at or above 40 µg/100 g:
</P>
<P>(A) Of that employee's blood lead level; and
</P>
<P>(B) That the standard requires temporary medical removal with Medical Removal Protection benefits when an employee's blood lead level is at or above the numerical criterion for medical removal under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical examinations and consultations</I>—(i) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer shall make available medical examinations and consultations to each employee covered under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section on the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(A) At least annually for each employee for whom a blood sampling test conducted at any time during the preceding 12 months indicated a blood lead level at or above 40 µg/100 g;
</P>
<P>(B) Prior to assignment for each employee being assigned for the first time to an area in which airborne concentrations of lead are at or above the action level;
</P>
<P>(C) As soon as possible, upon notification by an employee either that the employee has developed signs or symptoms commonly associated with lead intoxication, that the employee desires medical advice concerning the effects of current or past exposure to lead on the employee's ability to procreate a healthy child, or that the employee has demonstrated difficulty in breathing during a respirator fitting test or during use; and
</P>
<P>(D) As medically appropriate for each employee either removed from exposure to lead due to a risk of sustaining material impairment to health, or otherwise limited pursuant to a final medical determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content.</I> Medical examinations made available pursuant to paragraph (j)(3)(i) (A) through (B) of this section shall include the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed work history and a medical history, with particular attention to past lead exposure (occupational and non-occupational), personal habits (smoking, hygiene), and past gastrointestinal, hematologic, renal, cardiovascular, reproductive and neurological problems;
</P>
<P>(B) A thorough physical examination, with particular attention to teeth, gums, hematologic, gastrointestinal, renal, cardiovascular, and neurological systems. Pulmonary status should be evaluated if respiratory protection will be used;
</P>
<P>(C) A blood pressure measurement;
</P>
<P>(D) A blood sample and analysis which determines:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Blood lead level;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Hemoglobin and hematocrit determinations, red cell indices, and examination of peripheral smear morphology;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Zinc protoporphyrin;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Blood urea nitrogen; and,
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Serum creatinine;
</P>
<P>(E) A routine urinalysis with microscopic examination; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any laboratory or other test which the examining physician deems necessary by sound medical practice.
</P>
<FP>The content of medical examinations made available pursuant to paragraph (j)(3)(i) (C) through (D) of this section shall be determined by an examining physician and, if requested by an employee, shall include pregnancy testing or laboratory evaluation of male fertility.
</FP>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple physician review mechanism.</I> (A) If the employer selects the initial physician who conducts any medical examination or consultation provided to an employee under this section, the employee may designate a second physician:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) To review any findings, determinations or recommendations of the initial physician; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To conduct such examinations, consultations, and laboratory tests as the second physician deems necessary to facilitate this review.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall promptly notify an employee of the right to seek a second medical opinion after each occasion that an initial physician conducts a medical examination or consultation pursuant to this section. The employer may condition its participation in, and payment for, the multiple physician review mechanism upon the employee doing the following within fifteen (15) days after receipt of the foregoing notification, or receipt of the initial physician's written opinion, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The employee informing the employer that he or she intends to seek a second medical opinion, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employee initiating steps to make an appointment with a second physician.
</P>
<P>(C) If the findings, determinations or recommendations of the second physician differ from those of the initial physician, then the employer and the employee shall assure that efforts are made for the two physicians to resolve any disagreement.
</P>
<P>(D) If the two physicians have been unable to quickly resolve their disagreement, then the employer and the employee through their respective physicians shall designate a third physician:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) To review any findings, determinations or recommendations of the prior physicians; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests and discussions with the prior physicians as the third physician deems necessary to resolve the disagreement of the prior physicians.
</P>
<P>(E) The employer shall act consistent with the findings, determinations and recommendations of the third physician, unless the employer and the employee reach an agreement which is otherwise consistent with the recommendations of at least one of the three physicians.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Information provided to examining and consulting physicians.</I> (A) The employer shall provide an initial physician conducting a medical examination or consultation under this section with the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A copy of this regulation for lead including all Appendices;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The employee's exposure level or anticipated exposure level to lead and to any other toxic substance (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Prior blood lead determinations; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) All prior written medical opinions concerning the employee in the employer's possession or control.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall provide the foregoing information to a second or third physician conducting a medical examination or consultation under this section upon request either by the second or third physician, or by the employee.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Written medical opinions.</I> (A) The employer shall obtain and furnish the employee with a copy of a written medical opinion from each examining or consulting physician which contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from exposure to lead;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any recommended special protective measures to be provided to the employee, or limitations to be placed upon the employee's exposure to lead;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any recommended limitation upon the employee's use of respirators, including a determination of whether the employee can wear a powered air purifying respirator if a physician determines that the employee cannot wear a negative pressure respirator; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The results of the blood lead determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall instruct each examining and consulting physician to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Not reveal either in the written opinion, or in any other means of communication with the employer, findings, including laboratory results, or diagnoses unrelated to an employee's occupational exposure to lead; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Advise the employee of any medical condition, occupational or nonoccupational, which dictates further medical examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Alternate Physician Determination Mechanisms.</I> The employer and an employee or authorized employee representative may agree upon the use of any expeditious alternate physician determination mechanism in lieu of the multiple physician review mechanism provided by this paragraph so long as the alternate mechanism otherwise satisfies the requirements contained in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Chelation.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that any person whom he retains, employs, supervises or controls does not engage in prophylactic chelation of any employee at any time.
</P>
<P>(ii) If therapeutic or diagnostic chelation is to be performed by any person in paragraph (j)(4)(i), the employer shall assure that it be done under the supervision of a licensed physician in a clinical setting with thorough and appropriate medical monitoring and that the employee is notified in writing prior to its occurrence.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical Removal Protection</I>—(1) <I>Temporary medical removal and return of an employee</I>—(i) <I>Temporary removal due to elevated blood lead levels.</I> (A) The employer shall remove an employee from work having an exposure to lead at or above the action level on each occasion that a periodic and a follow-up blood sampling test conducted pursuant to this section indicate that the employee's blood lead level is at or above 60 µg/100 g of whole blood; and
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall remove an employee from work having an exposure to lead at or above the action level on each occasion that the average of the last three blood sampling tests conducted pursuant to this section (or the average of all blood sampling tests conducted over the previous six (6) months, whichever is longer) indicates that the employee's blood lead level is at or above 50 µg/100 g of whole blood; provided, however, that an employee need not be removed if the last blood sampling test indicates a blood lead level below 40 µg/100 g of whole blood.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Temporary removal due to a final medical determination.</I> (A) The employer shall remove an employee from work having an exposure to lead at or above the action level on each occasion that a final medical determination results in a medical finding, determination, or opinion that the employee has a detected medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purposes of this section, the phrase “final medical determination” shall mean the outcome of the multiple physician review mechanism or alternate medical determination mechanism used pursuant to the medical surveillance provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Where a final medical determination results in any recommended special protective measures for an employee, or limitations on an employee's exposure to lead, the employer shall implement and act consistent with the recommendation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Return of the employee to former job status.</I> (A) The employer shall return an employee to his or her former job status:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For an employee removed due to a blood lead level at or above 60 µg/100 g, or due to an average blood lead level at or above 50 µg/100 g, when two consecutive blood sampling tests indicate that the employee's blood lead level is below 40 µg/100 g of whole blood;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For an employee removed due to a final medical determination, when a subsequent final medical determination results in a medical finding, determination, or opinion that the employee no longer has a detected medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer return an employee to his or her former job status is not intended to expand upon or restrict any rights an employee has or would have had, absent temporary medical removal, to a specific job classification or position under the terms of a collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Removal of other employee special protective measure or limitations.</I> The employer shall remove any limitations placed on an employee or end any special protective measures provided to an employee pursuant to a final medical determination when a subsequent final medical determination indicates that the limitations or special protective measures are no longer necessary.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Employer options pending a final medical determination.</I> Where the multiple physician review mechanism, or alternate medical determination mechanism used pursuant to the medical surveillance provisions of this section, has not yet resulted in a final medical determination with respect to an employee, the employer shall act as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Removal.</I> The employer may remove the employee from exposure to lead, provide special protective measures to the employee, or place limitations upon the employee, consistent with the medical findings, determinations, or recommendations of any of the physicians who have reviewed the employee's health status.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Return.</I> The employer may return the employee to his or her former job status, end any special protective measures provided to the employee, and remove any limitations placed upon the employee, consistent with the medical findings, determinations, or recommendations of any of the physicians who have reviewed the employee's health status, with two exceptions. If
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) the initial removal, special protection, or limitation of the employee resulted from a final medical determination which differed from the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the initial physician or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employee has been on removal status for the preceding eighteen months due to an elevated blood lead level, then the employer shall await a final medical determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical removal protection benefits</I>—(i) <I>Provision of medical removal protection benefits.</I> The employer shall provide to an employee up to eighteen (18) months of medical removal protection benefits on each occasion that an employee is removed from exposure to lead or otherwise limited pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Definition of medical removal protection benefits.</I> For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer provide medical removal protection benefits means that the employer shall maintain the earnings, seniority and other employment rights and benefits of an employee as though the employee had not been removed from normal exposure to lead or otherwise limited.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Follow-up medical surveillance during the period of employee removal or limitation.</I> During the period of time that an employee is removed from normal exposure to lead or otherwise limited, the employer may condition the provision of medical removal protection benefits upon the employee's participation in follow-up medical surveillance made available pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Workers' compensation claims.</I> If a removed employee files a claim for workers' compensation payments for a lead-related disability, then the employer shall continue to provide medical removal protection benefits pending disposition of the claim. To the extent that an award is made to the employee for earnings lost during the period of removal, the employer's medical removal protection obligation shall be reduced by such amount. The employer shall receive no credit for workers' compensation payments received by the employee for treatment related expenses.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other credits.</I> The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal either from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program, or receives income from employment with another employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Employees whose blood lead levels do not adequately decline within 18 months of removal.</I> The employer shall take the following measures with respect to any employee removed from exposure to lead due to an elevated blood lead level whose blood lead level has not declined within the past eighteen (18) months of removal so that the employee has been returned to his or her former job status:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall make available to the employee a medical examination pursuant to this section to obtain a final medical determination with respect to the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall assure that the final medical determination obtained indicates whether or not the employee may be returned to his or her former job status, and if not, what steps should be taken to protect the employee's health;
</P>
<P>(C) Where the final medical determination has not yet been obtained, or once obtained indicates that the employee may not yet be returned to his or her former job status, the employer shall continue to provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee until either the employee is returned to former job status, or a final medical determination is made that the employee is incapable of ever safely returning to his or her former job status.
</P>
<P>(D) Where the employer acts pursuant to a final medical determination which permits the return of the employee to his or her former job status despite what would otherwise be an unacceptable blood lead level, later questions concerning removing the employee again shall be decided by a final medical determination. The employer need not automatically remove such an employee pursuant to the blood lead level removal criteria provided by this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Voluntary Removal or Restriction of An Employee.</I> Where an employer, although not required by this section to do so, removes an employee from exposure to lead or otherwise places limitations on an employee due to the effects of lead exposure on the employee's medical condition, the employer shall provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee equal to that required by paragraph (k)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Employee information and training</I>—(1) <I>Training program.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace in which there is a potential exposure to airborne lead at any level shall inform employees of the content of Appendices A and B of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall train each employee who is subject to exposure to lead at or above the action level, or for whom the possibility of skin or eye irritation exists, in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide initial training by 180 days from the effective date for those employees covered by paragraph (l)(1) (ii) on the standard's effective date and prior to the time of initial job assignment for those employees subsequently covered by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iv) The training program shall be repeated at least annually for each employee.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall assure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The content of this standard and its appendices;
</P>
<P>(B) The specific nature of the operations which could result in exposure to lead above the action level;
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose, proper selection, fitting, use, and limitations of respirators;
</P>
<P>(D) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program, and the medical removal protection program including information concerning the adverse health effects associated with excessive exposure to lead (with particular attention to the adverse reproductive effects on both males and females);
</P>
<P>(E) The engineering controls and work practices associated with the employee's job assignment;
</P>
<P>(F) The contents of any compliance plan in effect; and
</P>
<P>(G) Instructions to employees that chelating agents should not routinely be used to remove lead from their bodies and should not be used at all except under the direction of a licensed physician;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to information and training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees a copy of this standard and its appendices.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(iii) In addition to the information required by paragraph (l)(1)(v), the employer shall include as part of the training program, and shall distribute to employees, any materials pertaining to the Occupational Safety and Health Act, the regulations issued pursuant to that Act, and this lead standard, which are made available to the employer by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for lead.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of lead at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Reproductive/developmental toxicity; central nervous system effects; kidney effects; blood effects; and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include lead in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of lead and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post the following warning signs in each work area where the PEL is exceeded:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEAD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY DAMAGE FERTILITY OR THE UNBORN CHILD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT EAT, DRINK OR SMOKE IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that no statement appears on or near any sign required by this paragraph (m)(2) which contradicts or detracts from the meaning of the required sign.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that signs required by this paragraph (m)(2) are illuminated and cleaned as necessary so that the legend is readily visible.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer may use signs required by other statutes, regulations, or ordinances in addition to, or in combination with, signs required by this paragraph (m)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (m)(2)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>WARNING 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEAD WORK AREA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>POISON 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NO SMOKING OR EATING</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all monitoring required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The date(s), number, duration, location and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the sampling procedure used to determine representative employee exposure where applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(C) The type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any;
</P>
<P>(D) Name and job classification of the employee monitored and of all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent; and
</P>
<P>(E) The environmental variables that could affect the measurement of employee exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain these monitoring records for at least 40 years or for the duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance as required by paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and description of the duties of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the physician's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) Results of any airborne exposure monitoring done for that employee and the representative exposure levels supplied to the physician; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall keep, or assure that the examining physician keeps, the following medical records:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the medical examination results including medical and work history required under paragraph (j) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the laboratory procedures and a copy of any standards or guidelines used to interpret the test results or references to that information;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the results of biological monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall maintain or assure that the physician maintains those medical records for at least 40 years, or for the duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical removals.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee removed from current exposure to lead pursuant to paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The date on each occasion that the employee was removed from current exposure to lead as well as the corresponding date on which the employee was returned to his or her former job status;
</P>
<P>(C) A brief explanation of how each removal was or is being accomplished; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement with respect to each removal indicating whether or not the reason for the removal was an elevated blood lead level.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain each medical removal record for at least the duration of an employee's employment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall make available upon request all records required to be maintained by paragraph (n) of this section to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Environmental monitoring, medical removal, and medical records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a)-(e) and (2)-(i). Medical removal records shall be provided in the same manner as environmental monitoring records.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (i) Whenever the employer ceases to do business, the successor employer shall receive and retain all records required to be maintained by paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall also comply with any additional requirements involving transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to lead conducted pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> (i) Whenever observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to lead requires entry into an area where the use of respirators, protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with and assure the use of such respirators, clothing and such equipment, and shall require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without interfering with the monitoring, observers shall be entitled to:
</P>
<P>(A) Receive an explanation of the measurement procedures;
</P>
<P>(B) Observe all steps related to the monitoring of lead performed at the place of exposure; and
</P>
<P>(C) Record the results obtained or receive copies of the results when returned by the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices to this section is not intended by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed by this standard nor detract from any existing obligation.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1025—Substance Data Sheet for Occupational Exposure to Lead
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Substance Identification
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Substance:</I> Pure lead (Pb) is a heavy metal at room temperature and pressure and is a basic chemical element. It can combine with various other substances to form numerous lead compounds.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Compounds Covered by the Standard:</I> The word “lead” when used in this standard means elemental lead, all inorganic lead compounds and a class of organic lead compounds called lead soaps. This standard does not apply to other organic lead compounds.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Uses:</I> Exposure to lead occurs in at least 120 different occupations, including primary and secondary lead smelting, lead storage battery manufacturing, lead pigment manufacturing and use, solder manufacturing and use, shipbuilding and ship repairing, auto manufacturing, and printing.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Permissible Exposure:</I> The Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) set by the standard is 50 micrograms of lead per cubic meter of air (50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), averaged over an 8-hour workday.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Action Level:</I> The standard establishes an action level of 30 micrograms per cubic meter of air (30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), time weighted average, based on an 8-hour work-day. The action level initiates several requirements of the standard, such as exposure monitoring, medical surveillance, and training and education.
</P>
<HD1>ii. health hazard data
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Ways in which lead enters your body.</I> When absorbed into your body in certain doses lead is a toxic substance. The object of the lead standard is to prevent absorption of harmful quantities of lead. The standard is intended to protect you not only from the immediate toxic effects of lead, but also from the serious toxic effects that may not become apparent until years of exposure have passed.
</P>
<P>Lead can be absorbed into your body by inhalation (breathing) and ingestion (eating). Lead (except for certain organic lead compounds not covered by the standard, such as tetraethyl lead) is not absorbed through your skin. When lead is scattered in the air as a dust, fume or mist it can be inhaled and absorbed through you lungs and upper respiratory tract. Inhalation of airborne lead is generally the most important source of occupational lead absorption. You can also absorb lead through your digestive system if lead gets into your mouth and is swallowed. If you handle food, cigarettes, chewing tobacco, or make-up which have lead on them or handle them with hands contaminated with lead, this will contribute to ingestion.
</P>
<P>A significant portion of the lead that you inhale or ingest gets into your blood stream. Once in your blood stream, lead is circulated throughout your body and stored in various organs and body tissues. Some of this lead is quickly filtered out of your body and excreted, but some remains in the blood and other tissues. As exposure to lead continues, the amount stored in your body will increase if you are absorbing more lead than your body is excreting. Even though you may not be aware of any immediate symptoms of disease, this lead stored in your tissues can be slowly causing irreversible damage, first to individual cells, then to your organs and whole body systems.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Effects of overexposure to lead</I>—(1) <I>Short term (acute) overexposure.</I> Lead is a potent, systemic poison that serves no known useful function once absorbed by your body. Taken in large enough doses, lead can kill you in a matter of days. A condition affecting the brain called acute encephalopathy may arise which develops quickly to seizures, coma, and death from cardiorespiratory arrest. A short term dose of lead can lead to acute encephalopathy. Short term occupational exposures of this magnitude are highly unusual, but not impossible. Similar forms of encephalopathy may, however, arise from extended, chronic exposure to lower doses of lead. There is no sharp dividing line between rapidly developing acute effects of lead, and chronic effects which take longer to acquire. Lead adversely affects numerous body systems, and causes forms of health impairment and disease which arise after periods of exposure as short as days or as long as several years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Long-term (chronic) overexposure.</I> Chronic overexposure to lead may result in severe damage to your blood-forming, nervous, urinary and reproductive systems. Some common symptoms of chronic overexposure include loss of appetite, metallic taste in the mouth, anxiety, constipation, nausea, pallor, excessive tiredness, weakness, insomnia, headache, nervous irritability, muscle and joint pain or soreness, fine tremors, numbness, dizziness, hyperactivity and colic. In lead colic there may be severe abdominal pain.
</P>
<P>Damage to the central nervous system in general and the brain (encephalopathy) in particular is one of the most severe forms of lead poisoning. The most severe, often fatal, form of encephalopathy may be preceded by vomiting, a feeling of dullness progressing to drowsiness and stupor, poor memory, restlessness, irritability, tremor, and convulsions. It may arise suddenly with the onset of seizures, followed by coma, and death. There is a tendency for muscular weakness to develop at the same time. This weakness may progress to paralysis often observed as a characteristic “wrist drop” or “foot drop” and is a manifestation of a disease to the nervous system called peripheral neuropathy.
</P>
<P>Chronic overexposure to lead also results in kidney disease with few, if any, symptoms appearing until extensive and most likely permanent kidney damage has occurred. Routine laboratory tests reveal the presence of this kidney disease only after about two-thirds of kidney function is lost. When overt symptoms of urinary dysfunction arise, it is often too late to correct or prevent worsening conditions, and progression to kidney dialysis or death is possible.
</P>
<P>Chronic overexposure to lead impairs the reproductive systems of both men and women. Overexposure to lead may result in decreased sex drive, impotence and sterility in men. Lead can alter the structure of sperm cells raising the risk of birth defects. There is evidence of miscarriage and stillbirth in women whose husbands were exposed to lead or who were exposed to lead themselves. Lead exposure also may result in decreased fertility, and abnormal menstrual cycles in women. The course of pregnancy may be adversely affected by exposure to lead since lead crosses the placental barrier and poses risks to developing fetuses. Children born of parents either one of whom were exposed to excess lead levels are more likely to have birth defects, mental retardation, behavioral disorders or die during the first year of childhood.
</P>
<P>Overexposure to lead also disrupts the blood-forming system resulting in decreased hemoglobin (the substance in the blood that carries oxygen to the cells) and ultimately anemia. Anemia is characterized by weakness, pallor and fatigability as a result of decreased oxygen carrying capacity in the blood.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Health protection goals of the standard.</I> Prevention of adverse health effects for most workers from exposure to lead throughout a working lifetime requires that worker blood lead (PbB) levels be maintained at or below forty micrograms per one hundred grams of whole blood (40 µg/100g). The blood lead levels of workers (both male and female workers) who intend to have children should be maintained below 30 µg/100g to minimize adverse reproductive health effects to the parents and to the developing fetus.
</P>
<P>The measurement of your blood lead level is the most useful indicator of the amount of lead being absorbed by your body. Blood lead levels (PbB) are most often reported in units of milligrams (mg) or micrograms (µg) of lead (1 mg = 1000 µg) per 100 grams (100g), 100 milliters (100 ml) or deciliter (dl) of blood. These three units are essentially the same. Sometime PbB's are expressed in the form of mg% or µg%. This is a shorthand notation for 100g, 100 ml, or dl.
</P>
<P>PbB measurements show the amount of lead circulating in your blood stream, but do not give any information about the amount of lead stored in your various tissues. PbB measurements merely show current absorption of lead, not the effect that lead is having on your body or the effects that past lead exposure may have already caused. Past research into lead-related diseases, however, has focused heavily on associations between PbBs and various diseases. As a result, your PbB is an important indicator of the likelihood that you will gradually acquire a lead-related health impairment or disease.
</P>
<P>Once your blood lead level climbs above 40 µg/100g, your risk of disease increases. There is a wide variability of individual response to lead, thus it is difficult to say that a particular PbB in a given person will cause a particular effect. Studies have associated fatal encephalopathy with PbBs as low as 150 µg/100g. Other studies have shown other forms of diseases in some workers with PbBs well below 80 µg/100g. Your PbB is a crucial indicator of the risks to your health, but one other factor is also extremely important. This factor is the length of time you have had elevated PbBs. The longer you have an elevated PbB, the greater the risk that large quantities of lead are being gradually stored in your organs and tissues (body burden). The greater your overall body burden, the greater the chances of substantial permanent damage.
</P>
<P>The best way to prevent all forms of lead-related impairments and diseases—both short term and long term- is to maintain your PbB below 40 µg/100g. The provisions of the standard are designed with this end in mind. Your employer has prime responsibility to assure that the provisions of the standard are complied with both by the company and by individual workers. You as a worker, however, also have a responsibility to assist your employer in complying with the standard. You can play a key role in protecting your own health by learning about the lead hazards and their control, learning what the standard requires, following the standard where it governs your own actions, and seeing that your employer complies with provisions governing his actions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reporting signs and symptoms of health problems.</I> You should immediately notify your employer if you develop signs or symptoms associated with lead poisoning or if you desire medical advice concerning the effects of current or past exposure to lead on your ability to have a healthy child. You should also notify your employer if you have difficulty breathing during a respirator fit test or while wearing a respirator. In each of these cases your employer must make available to you appropriate medical examinations or consultations. These must be provided at no cost to you and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>The standard contains a procedure whereby you can obtain a second opinion by a physician of your choice if the employer selected the initial physician.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1025—Employee Standard Summary
</HD1>
<P>This appendix summarizes key provisions of the standard that you as a worker should become familiar with.
</P>
<HD1>i. permissible exposure limit (pel)—paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)
</HD1>
<P>The standards sets a permissible exposure limit (PEL) of fifty micrograms of lead per cubic meter of air (50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), averaged over an 8-hour work-day. This is the highest level of lead in air to which you may be permissibly exposed over an 8-hour workday. Since it is an 8-hour average it permits short exposures above the PEL so long as for each 8-hour work day your average exposure does not exceed the PEL.
</P>
<P>This standard recognizes that your daily exposure to lead can extend beyond a typical 8-hour workday as the result of overtime or other alterations in your work schedule. To deal with this, the standard contains a formula which reduces your permissible exposure when you are exposed more than 8 hours. For example, if you are exposed to lead for 10 hours a day, the maximum permitted average exposure would be 40 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<HD1>ii. exposure monitoring—paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)
</HD1>
<P>If lead is present in the workplace where you work in any quantity, your employer is required to make an initial determination of whether the action level is exceeded for any employee. This initial determination must include instrument monitoring of the air for the presence of lead and must cover the exposure of a representative number of employees who are reasonably believed to have the highest exposure levels. If your employer has conducted appropriate air sampling for lead in the past year he may use these results. If there have been any employee complaints of symptoms which may be attributable to exposure to lead or if there is any other information or observations which would indicate employee exposure to lead, this must also be considered as part of the initial determination. This initial determination must have been completed by March 31, 1979. If this initial determination shows that a reasonable possibility exists that <I>any</I> employee may be exposed, without regard to respirators, over the action level (30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) your employer must set up an air monitoring program to determine the exposure level of every employee exposed to lead at your workplace.
</P>
<P>In carrying out this air monitoring program, your employer is not required to monitor the exposure of every employee, but he must monitor a representative number of employees and job types. Enough sampling must be done to enable each employee's exposure level to be reasonably least one full shift (at least 7 hours) air sample. In addition, these air samples must be taken under conditions which represent each employee's <I>regular,</I> daily exposure to lead. All initial exposure monitoring must have been completed by May 30, 1979.
</P>
<P>If you are exposed to lead and air sampling is performed, your employer is required to quickly notify you in writing of air monitoring results which represent your exposure. If the results indicate your exposure exceeds the PEL (without regard to your use of respirators), then your employer must also notify you of this in writing, and provide you with a description of the corrective action that will be taken to reduce your exposure.
</P>
<P>Your exposure must be rechecked by monitoring every six months if your exposure is over the action level but below the PEL. Air monitoring must be repeated every 3 months if you are exposed over the PEL. Your employer may discontinue monitoring for you if 2 consecutive measurements, taken at least two weeks apart, are below the action level. However, whenever there is a production, process, control, or personnel change at your workplace which may result in new or additional exposure to lead, or whenever there is any other reason to suspect a change which may result in new or additional exposure to lead, your employer must perform additional monitoring.
</P>
<HD1>iii. methods of compliance—paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to assure that no employee is exposed to lead in excess of the PEL. The standard establishes a priority of methods to be used to meet the PEL.
</P>
<HD1>iv. respiratory protection—paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to provide and assure your use of respirators when your exposure to lead is not controlled below the PEL by other means. The employer must pay the cost of the respirator. Whenever you request one, your employer is also required to provide you a respirator even if your air exposure level does not exceed the PEL. You might desire a respirator when, for example, you have received medical advice that your lead absorption should be decreased. Or, you may intend to have children in the near future, and want to reduce the level of lead in your body to minimize adverse reproductive effects. While respirators are the least satisfactory means of controlling your exposure, they are capable of providing significant protection if properly chosen, fitted, worn, cleaned, maintained, and replaced when they stop providing adequate protection.
</P>
<P>Your employer is required to select respirators from the seven types listed in Table II of the Respiratory Protection section of the standard (§ 1910.1025(f)). Any respirator chosen must be approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) under the provisions of 42 CFR part 84. This respirator selection table will enable your employer to choose a type of respirator that will give you a proper amount of protection based on your airborne lead exposure. Your employer may select a type of respirator that provides greater protection than that required by the standard; that is, one recommended for a higher concentration of lead than is present in your workplace. For example, a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) is much more protective than a typical negative pressure respirator, and may also be more comfortable to wear. A PAPR has a filter, cartridge, or canister to clean the air, and a power source that continuously blows filtered air into your breathing zone. Your employer might make a PAPR available to you to ease the burden of having to wear a respirator for long periods of time. The standard provides that you can obtain a PAPR upon request.
</P>
<P>Your employer must also start a Respiratory Protection Program. This program must include written procedures for the proper selection, use, cleaning, storage, and maintenance of respirators.
</P>
<P>Your employer must ensure that your respirator facepiece fits properly. Proper fit of a respirator facepiece is critical to your protection from airborne lead. Obtaining a proper fit on each employee may require your employer to make available several different types of respirator masks. To ensure that your respirator fits properly and that facepiece leakage is minimal, your employer must give you either a qualitative or quantitative fit test as specified in appendix A of the Respiratory Protection standard located at 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>You must also receive from your employer proper training in the use of respirators. Your employer is required to teach you how to wear a respirator, to know why it is needed, and to understand its limitations.
</P>
<P>The standard provides that if your respirator uses filter elements, you must be given an opportunity to change the filter elements whenever an increase in breathing resistance is detected. You also must be permitted to periodically leave your work area to wash your face and respirator facepiece whenever necessary to prevent skin irritation. If you ever have difficulty in breathing during a fit test or while using a respirator, your employer must make a medical examination available to you to determine whether you can safely wear a respirator. The result of this examination may be to give you a positive pressure respirator (which reduces breathing resistance) or to provide alternative means of protection.
</P>
<HD1>v. protective work clothing and equipment—paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)
</HD1>
<P>If you are exposed to lead above the PEL, or if you are exposed to lead compounds such as lead arsenate or lead azide which can cause skin and eye irritation, your employer must provide you with protective work clothing and equipment appropriate for the hazard. If work clothing is provided, it must be provided in a clean and dry condition at least weekly, and daily if your airborne exposure to lead is greater than 200 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>. Appropriate protective work clothing and equipment can include coveralls or similar full-body work clothing, gloves, hats, shoes or disposable shoe coverlets, and face shields or vented goggles. Your employer is required to provide all such equipment at no cost to you. He is responsible for providing repairs and replacement as necessary, and also is responsible for the cleaning, laundering or disposal of protective clothing and equipment. Contaminated work clothing or equipment must be removed in change rooms and not worn home or you will extend your exposure and expose your family since lead from your clothing can accumulate in your house, car, etc. Contaminated clothing which is to be cleaned, laundered or disposed of must be placed in closed containers in the change room. At no time may lead be removed from protective clothing or equipment by any means which disperses lead into the workroom air.
</P>
<HD1>vi. housekeeping—paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)
</HD1>
<P>Your employer must establish a housekeeping program sufficient to maintain all surfaces as free as practicable of accumulations of lead dust. Vacuuming is the preferred method of meeting this requirement, and the use of compressed air to clean floors and other surfaces is absolutely prohibited. Dry or wet sweeping, shoveling, or brushing may not be used except where vaccuming or other equally effective methods have been tried and do not work. Vacuums must be used and emptied in a manner which minimizes the reentry of lead into the workplace.
</P>
<HD1>vii. hygiene facilities and practices—paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)
</HD1>
<P>The standard requires that change rooms, showers, and filtered air lunchrooms be constructed and made available to workers exposed to lead above the PEL. When the PEL is exceeded the employer must assure that food and beverage is not present or consumed, tobacco products are not present or used, and cosmetics are not applied, except in these facilities. Change rooms, showers, and lunchrooms, must be used by workers exposed in excess of the PEL. After showering, <I>no</I> clothing or equipment worn during the shift may be worn home, and this includes shoes and underwear. Your own clothing worn during the shift should be carried home and cleaned carefully so that it does not contaminate your home. Lunchrooms may not be entered with protective clothing or equipment unless surface dust has been removed by vacuuming, downdraft booth, or other cleaning method. Finally, workers exposed above the PEL must wash both their hands and faces prior to eating, drinking, smoking or applying cosmetics.
</P>
<P>All of the facilities and hygiene practices just discussed are essential to minimize additional sources of lead absorption from inhalation or ingestion of lead that may accumulate on you, your clothes, or your possessions. Strict compliance with these provisions can virtually eliminate several sources of lead exposure which significantly contribute to excessive lead absorption.
</P>
<HD1>viii. medical surveillance—paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)
</HD1>
<P>The medical surveillance program is part of the standard's comprehensive approach to the prevention of lead-related disease. Its purpose is to supplement the main thrust of the standard which is aimed at minimizing airborne concentrations of lead and sources of ingestion. Only medical surveillance can determine if the other provisions of the standard have affectively protected you as an individual. Compliance with the standard's provision will protect most workers from the adverse effects of lead exposure, but may not be satisfactory to protect individual workers (1) who have high body burdens of lead acquired over past years, (2) who have additional uncontrolled sources of non-occupational lead exposure, (3) who exhibit unusual variations in lead absorption rates, or (4) who have specific non-work related medical conditions which could be aggravated by lead exposure (e.g., renal disease, anemia). In addition, control systems may fail, or hygiene and respirator programs may be inadequate. Periodic medical surveillance of individual workers will help detect those failures. Medical surveillance will also be important to protect your reproductive ability—regardless of whether you are a man or woman.
</P>
<P>All medical surveillance required by the standard must be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician. The employer must provide required medical surveillance without cost to employees and at a reasonable time and place. The standard's medical surveillance program has two parts-periodic biological monitoring and medical examinations.
</P>
<P>Your employer's obligation to offer you medical surveillance is triggered by the results of the air monitoring program. Medical surveillance must be made available to all employees who are exposed in excess of the action level for more than 30 days a year. The initial phase of the medical surveillance program, which includes blood lead level tests and medical examinations, must be completed for all covered employees no later than August 28, 1979. Priority within this first round of medical surveillance must be given to employees whom the employer believes to be at greatest risk from continued exposure (for example, those with the longest prior exposure to lead, or those with the highest current exposure). Thereafter, the employer must periodically make medical surveillance—both biological monitoring and medical examinations—available to all covered employees.
</P>
<P>Biological monitoring under the standard consists of blood lead level (PbB) and zinc protoporphyrin tests at least every 6 months after the initial PbB test. A zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP) test is a very useful blood test which measures an effect of lead on your body. Thus biological monitoring under the standard is currently limited to PbB testing. If a worker's PbB exceeds 40 µg/100g the monitoring frequency must be increased from every 6 months to at least every 2 months and not reduced until two consecutive PbBs indicate a blood lead level below 40 µg/100g. Each time your PbB is determined to be over 40 µg/100g, your employer must notify you of this in writing within five working days of his receipt of the test results. The employer must also inform you that the standard requires temporary medical removal with economic protection when your PbB exceeds certain criteria. (See Discussion of Medical Removal Protection—Paragraph (k).) During the first year of the standard, this removal criterion is 80 µg/100g. Anytime your PbB exceeds 80 µg/100g your employer must make available to you a prompt follow-up PbB test to ascertain your PbB. If the two tests both exceed 80 µg/100g and you are temporarily removed, then your employer must make successive PbB tests available to you on a monthly basis during the period of your removal.
</P>
<P>Medical examinations beyond the initial one must be made available on an annual basis if your blood lead level exceeds 40 µg/100g at any time during the preceding year. The initial examination will provide information to establish a baseline to which subsequent data can be compared. An initial medical examination must also be made available (prior to assignment) for each employee being assigned for the first time to an area where the airborne concentration of lead equals or exceeds the action level. In addition, a medical examination or consultation must be made available as soon as possible if you notify your employer that you are experiencing signs or symptoms commonly associated with lead poisoning or that you have difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator or during a respirator fit test. You must also be provided a medical examination or consultation if you notify your employer that you desire medical advice concerning the effects of current or past exposure to lead on your ability to procreate a healthy child.
</P>
<P>Finally, appropriate follow-up medical examinations or consultations may also be provided for employees who have been temporarily removed from exposure under the medical removal protection provisions of the standard. (See part IX, below.)
</P>
<P>The standard specifies the minimum content of pre-assignment and annual medical examinations. The content of other types of medical examinations and consultations is left up to the sound discretion of the examining physician. Pre-assignment and annual medical examinations must include (1) a detailed work history and medical history, (2) a thorough physical examination, and (3) a series of laboratory tests designed to check your blood chemistry and your kidney function. In addition, at any time upon your request, a laboratory evaluation of male fertility will be made (microscopic examination of a sperm sample), or a pregnancy test will be given.
</P>
<P>The standard does not require that you participate in any of the medical procedures, tests, etc. which your employer is required to make available to you. Medical surveillance can, however, play a very important role in protecting your health. You are strongly encouraged, therefore, to participate in a meaningful fashion. The standard contains a multiple physician review mechanism which would give you a chance to have a physician of your choice directly participate in the medical surveillance program. If you were dissatisfied with an examination by a physician chosen by your employer, you could select a second physician to conduct an independent analysis. The two doctors would attempt to resolve any differences of opinion, and select a third physician to resolve any firm dispute. Generally your employer will choose the physician who conducts medical surveillance under the lead standard—unless you and your employer can agree on the choice of a physician or physicians. Some companies and unions have agreed in advance, for example, to use certain independent medical laboratories or panels of physicians. Any of these arrangements are acceptable so long as required medical surveillance is made available to workers.
</P>
<P>The standard requires your employer to provide certain information to a physician to aid in his or her examination of you. This information includes (1) the standard and its appendices, (2) a description of your duties as they relate to lead exposure, (3) your exposure level, (4) a description of personal protective equipment you wear, (5) prior blood lead level results, and (6) prior written medical opinions concerning you that the employer has. After a medical examination or consultation the physician must prepare a written report which must contain (1) the physician's opinion as to whether you have any medical condition which places you at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to lead, (2) any recommended special protective measures to be provided to you, (3) any blood lead level determinations, and (4) any recommended limitation on your use of respirators. This last element must include a determination of whether you can wear a powered air purifying respirator (PAPR) if you are found unable to wear a negative pressure respirator.
</P>
<P>The medical surveillance program of the lead standard may at some point in time serve to notify certain workers that they have acquired a disease or other adverse medical condition as a result of occupational lead exposure. If this is true, these workers might have legal rights to compensation from public agencies, their employers, firms that supply hazardous products to their employers, or other persons. Some states have laws, including worker compensation laws, that disallow a worker who learns of a job-related health impairment to sue, unless the worker sues within a short period of time after learning of the impairment. (This period of time may be a matter of months or years.) An attorney can be consulted about these possibilities. It should be stressed that OSHA is in no way trying to either encourage or discourage claims or lawsuits. However, since results of the standard's medical surveillance program can significantly affect the legal remedies of a worker who has acquired a job-related disease or impairment, it is proper for OSHA to make you aware of this.
</P>
<P>The medical surveillance section of the standard also contains provisions dealing with chelation. Chelation is the use of certain drugs (administered in pill form or injected into the body) to reduce the amount of lead absorbed in body tissues. Experience accumulated by the medical and scientific communities has largely confirmed the effectiveness of this type of therapy for the treatment of very severe lead poisoning. On the other hand, it has also been established that there can be a long list of extremely harmful side effects associated with the use of chelating agents. The medical community has balanced the advantages and disadvantages resulting from the use of chelating agents in various circumstances and has established when the use of these agents is acceptable. The standard includes these accepted limitations due to a history of abuse of chelation therapy by some lead companies. The most widely used chelating agents are calcium disodium EDTA, (Ca Na<E T="52">2</E> EDTA), Calcium Disodium Versenate (Versenate), and d-penicillamine (pencillamine or Cupramine).
</P>
<P>The standard prohibits “prophylactic chelation” of any employee by any person the employer retains, supervises or controls. “Prophylactic chelation” is the routine use of chelating or similarly acting drugs to <I>prevent</I> elevated blood levels in workers who are occupationally exposed to lead, or the use of these drugs to <I>routinely</I> lower blood lead levels to predesignated concentrations believed to be ‘safe’. It should be emphasized that where an employer takes a worker who has no symptoms of lead poisoning and has chelation carried out by a physician (either inside or outside of a hospital) solely to reduce the worker's blood lead level, that will generally be considered prophylactic chelation. The use of a hospital and a physician does not mean that prophylactic chelation is not being performed. Routine chelation to prevent increased or reduce current blood lead levels is unacceptable whatever the setting.
</P>
<P>The standard allows the use of “therapeutic” or “diagnostic” chelation if administered under the supervision of a licensed physician in a clinical setting with thorough and appropriate medical monitoring. Therapeutic chelation responds to severe lead poisoning where there are marked symptoms. Diagnostic chelation involved giving a patient a dose of the drug then collecting all urine excreted for some period of time as an aid to the diagnosis of lead poisoning.
</P>
<P>In cases where the examining physician determines that chelation is appropriate, you must be notified in writing of this fact before such treatment. This will inform you of a potentially harmful treatment, and allow you to obtain a second opinion.
</P>
<HD1>ix. medical removal protection—paragraph (<E T="01">k</E>)
</HD1>
<P>Excessive lead absorption subjects you to increased risk of disease. Medical removal protection (MRP) is a means of protecting you when, for whatever reasons, other methods, such as engineering controls, work practices, and respirators, have failed to provide the protection you need. MRP involves the temproary removal of a worker from his or her regular job to a place of significantly lower exposure without any loss of earnings, seniority, or other employment rights or benefits. The purpose of this program is to cease further lead absorption and allow your body to naturally excrete lead which has previously been absorbed. Temporary medical removal can result from an elevated blood lead level, or a medical opinion. Up to 18 months of protection is provided as a result of either form of removal. The vast majority of removed workers, however, will return to their former jobs long before this eighteen month period expires. The standard contains special provisions to deal with the extraordinary but possible case where a longterm worker's blood lead level does not adequately decline during eighteen months of removal.
</P>
<P>During the first year of the standard, if your blood lead level is 80 µg/100g or above you must be removed from any exposure where your air lead level without a respirator would be 100 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> or above. If you are removed from your normal job you may not be returned until your blood lead level declines to at least 60 µg/100g. These criteria for removal and return will change according to the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Removal blood lead (µg/100 g)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Air lead (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return blood lead (µg/100 g)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">After Mar. 1, 1980</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 and above</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 and above</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At or below 50.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">After Mar. 1, 1981</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 and above</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 and above</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At or below 40.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">After Mar. 1, 1983</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 and above averaged over six months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 and above</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>You may also be removed from exposure even if your blood lead levels are below these criteria if a final medical determination indicates that you temporarily need reduced lead exposure for medical reasons. If the physician who is implementing your employers medical program makes a final written opinion recommending your removal or other special protective measures, your employer must implement the physician's recommendation. If you are removed in this manner, you may only be returned when the doctor indicates that it is safe for you to do so.
</P>
<P>The standard does not give specific instructions dealing with what an employer must do with a removed worker. Your job assignment upon removal is a matter for you, your employer and your union (if any) to work out consistent with existing procedures for job assignments. Each removal must be accomplished in a manner consistent with existing collective bargaining relationships. Your employer is given broad discretion to implement temporary removals so long as no attempt is made to override existing agreements. Similarly, a removed worker is provided no right to veto an employer's choice which satisfies the standard.
</P>
<P>In most cases, employers will likely transfer removed employees to other jobs with sufficiently low lead exposure. Alternatively, a worker's hours may be reduced so that the time weighted average exposure is reduced, or he or she may be temporarily laid off if no other alternative is feasible.
</P>
<P>In all of these situation, MRP benefits must be provided during the period of removal—i.e., you continue to receive the same earnings, seniority, and other rights and benefits you would have had if you had not been removed. Earnings includes more than just your base wage; it includes overtime, shift differentials, incentives, and other compensation you would have earned if you had not been removed. During the period of removal you must also be provided with appropriate follow-up medical surveillance. If you were removed because your blood lead level was too high, you must be provided with a monthly blood test. If a medical opinion caused your removal, you must be provided medical tests or examinations that the doctor believes to be appropriate. If you do not participate in this follow up medical surveillance, you may lose your eligibility for MRP benefits.
</P>
<P>When you are medically eligible to return to your former job, your employer must return you to your “former job status.” This means that you are entitled to the position, wages, benefits, etc., you would have had if you had not been removed. If you would still be in your old job if no removal had occurred that is where you go back. If not, you are returned consistent with whatever job assignment discretion your employer would have had if no removal had occurred. MRP only seeks to maintain your rights, not expand them or diminish them.
</P>
<P>If you are removed under MRP and you are also eligible for worker compensation or other compensation for lost wages, your employer's MRP benefits obligation is reduced by the amount that you <I>actually</I> receive from these other sources. This is also true if you obtain other employment during the time you are laid off with MRP benefits.
</P>
<P>The standard also covers situations where an employer <I>voluntarily</I> removes a worker from exposure to lead due to the effects of lead on the employee's medical condition, even though the standard does not require removal. In these situations MRP benefits must still be provided as though the standard required removal. Finally, it is important to note that in all cases where removal is required, respirators cannot be used as a substitute. Respirators may be used before removal becomes necessary, but not as an alternative to a transfer to a low exposure job, or to a lay-off with MRP benefits.
</P>
<HD1>x. employee information and training—paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>)
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to provide an information and training program for all employees exposed to lead above the action level or who may suffer skin or eye irritation from lead. This program must inform these employees of the specific hazards associated with their work environment, protective measures which can be taken, the danger of lead to their bodies (including their reproductive systems), and their rights under the standard. In addition your employer must make readily available to all employees, including those exposed below the action level, a copy of the standard and its appendices and must distribute to all employees any materials provided to the employer by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
</P>
<P>Your employer is required to complete this training program for all employees by August 28, 1979. After this date, all new employees must be trained prior to initial assignment to areas where there is a possibility of exposure over the action level.
</P>
<P>This training program must also be provided at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<HD3>xi. SIGNS—PARAGRAPH (m) 
</HD3>
<P>The standard requires that the following warning sign be posted in the work areas when the exposure to lead exceeds the PEL:
</P>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEAD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY DAMAGE FERTILITY OR THE UNBORN CHILD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT EAT, DRINK OR SMOKE IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<P>However, prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified above:
</P>
<FP-1>WARNING 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEAD WORK AREA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>POISON 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NO SMOKING OR EATING
</FP-1>
<HD1>xii. recordkeeping—paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to keep all records of exposure monitoring for airborne lead. These records must include the name and job classification of employees measured, details of the sampling and analytic techniques, the results of this sampling, and the type of respiratory protection being worn by the person sampled. Your employer is also required to keep all records of biological monitoring and medical examination results. These must include the names of the employees, the physician's written opinion, and a copy of the results of the examination. All of the above kinds of records must be kept for 40 years, or for at least 20 years after your termination of employment, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>Recordkeeping is also required if you are temporarily removed from your job under the medical removal protection program. This record must include your name, the date of your removal and return, how the removal was or is being accomplished, and whether or not the reason for the removal was an elevated blood lead level. Your employer is required to keep each medical removal record only for as long as the duration of an employee's employment.
</P>
<P>The standard requires that if you request to see or copy environmental monitoring, blood lead level monitoring, or medical removal records, they must be made available to you or to a representative that you authorize. Your union also has access to these records. Medical records other than PbB's must also be provided upon request to you, to your physician or to any other person whom you may specifically designate. Your union does not have access to your personal medical records unless you authorize their access.
</P>
<HD1>xiii. observations of monitoring—paragraph (<E T="01">o</E>)
</HD1>
<P>When air monitoring for lead is performed at your workplace as required by this standard, your employer must allow you or someone you designate to act as an observer of the monitoring. Observers are entitled to an explanation of the measurement procedure, and to record the results obtained. Since results will not normally be available at the time of the monitoring, observers are entitled to record or receive the results of the monitoring when returned by the laboratory. Your employer is required to provide the observer with any personal protective devices required to be worn by employees working in the area that is being monitored. The employer must require the observer to wear all such equipment and to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<HD1>xiv. for additional information
</HD1>
<P>A. Copies of the Standard and explanatory material may be obtained by writing or calling the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, room N2634, 200 Constitution Avenue, N.W., Washington, DC 20210. Telephone: (202) 219-7894.
</P>
<P>1. The standard and summary of the statement of reasons (preamble), <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> Volume 43, pp. 52952-53014, November 14, 1978.
</P>
<P>2. The full statement of reasons (preamble) <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> vol. 43, pp. 54354-54509, November 21, 1978.
</P>
<P>3. Partial Administrative Stay and Corrections to the standard, (44 FR 5446-5448) January 26, 1979.
</P>
<P>4. Notice of the Partial Judicial Stay (44 FR 14554-14555) March 13, 1979.
</P>
<P>5. Corrections to the preamble, <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> vol. 44, pp. 20680-20681, April 6, 1979.
</P>
<P>6. Additional correction to the preamble concerning the construction industry, <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> vol. 44, p. 50338, August 28, 1979.
</P>
<P>7. Appendices to the standard (Appendices A, B, C), <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> Vol. 44, pp. 60980-60995, October 23, 1979.
</P>
<P>8. Corrections to appendices, <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> Vol. 44, 68828, November 30, 1979.
</P>
<P>9. Revision to the standard and an additional appendix (Appendix D), <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> Vol. 47, pp. 51117-51119, November 12, 1982.
</P>
<P>10. Notice of reopening of lead rulemaking for nine remand industry sectors, <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> vol. 53, pp. 11511-11513, April 7, 1988.
</P>
<P>11. Statement of reasons, <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> vol. 54, pp. 29142-29275, July 11, 1989.
</P>
<P>12. Statement of reasons, <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> vol. 55, pp. 3146-3167, January 30, 1990.
</P>
<P>13. Correction to appendix B, <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> vol. 55, pp. 4998-4999, February 13, 1991.
</P>
<P>14. Correction to appendices, <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> vol. 56, p. 24686, May 31, 1991.
</P>
<P>B. Additional information about the standard, its enforcement, and your employer's compliance can be obtained from the nearest OSHA Area Office listed in your telephone directory under United States Government/Department of Labor.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1025—Medical Surveillance Guidelines
</HD1>
<HD1>introduction
</HD1>
<P>The primary purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 is to assure, so far as possible, safe and healthful working conditions for every working man and woman. The occupational health standard for inorganic lead 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> was promulgated to protect workers exposed to inorganic lead including metallic lead, all inorganic lead compounds and organic lead soaps.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The term inorganic lead used throughout the medical surveillance appendices is meant to be synonymous with the definition of lead set forth in the standard.</P></FTNT>
<P>Under this final standard in effect as of March 1, 1979, occupational exposure to inorganic lead is to be limited to 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (micrograms per cubic meter) based on an 8 hour time-weighted average (TWA). This level of exposure eventually must be achieved through a combination of engineering, work practice and other administrative controls. Periods of time ranging from 1 to 10 years are provided for different industries to implement these controls. The schedule which is based on individual industry considerations is given in Table 1. Until these controls are in place, respirators must be used to meet the 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> exposure limit.
</P>
<P>The standard also provides for a program of biological monitoring and medical surveillance for all employees exposed to levels of inorganic lead above the action level of 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (TWA) for more than 30 days per year.
</P>
<P>The purpose of this document is to outline the medical surveillance provisions of the standard for inorganic lead, and to provide further information to the physician regarding the examination and evaluation of workers exposed to inorganic lead.
</P>
<P>Section 1 provides a detailed description of the monitoring procedure including the required frequency of blood testing for exposed workers, provisions for medical removal protection (MRP), the recommended right of the employee to a second medical opinion, and notification and recordkeeping requirements of the employer. A discussion of the requirements for respirator use and respirator monitoring and OSHA's position on prophylactic chelation therapy are also included in this section.
</P>
<P>Section 2 discusses the toxic effects and clinical manifestations of lead poisoning and effects of lead intoxication on enzymatic pathways in heme synthesis. The adverse effects on both male and female reproductive capacity and on the fetus are also discussed.
</P>
<P>Section 3 outlines the recommended medical evaluation of the worker exposed to inorganic lead including details of the medical history, physical examination, and recommended laboratory tests, which are based on the toxic effects of lead as discussed in Section 2.
</P>
<P>Section 4 provides detailed information concerning the laboratory tests available for the monitoring of exposed workers. Included also is a discussion of the relative value of each test and the limitations and precautions which are necessary in the interpretation of the laboratory results.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Permissible airborne lead levels by industry (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Effective date
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1979
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1980
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1981
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1982
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1984
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1989 (final)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Primary lead production</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Secondary lead production</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Lead-acid battery manufacturing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Nonferrous foundries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Lead pigment manufacturing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. All other industries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Airborne levels to be achieved without reliance or respirator protection through a combination of engineering, work practice and other administrative controls. While these controls are being implemented respirators must be used to meet the 50 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> exposure limit.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>i. medical surveillance and monitoring requirements for workers exposed to inorganic lead
</HD1>
<P>Under the occupational health standard for inorganic lead, a program of biological monitoring and medical surveillance is to be made available to all employees exposed to lead above the action level of 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> TWA for more than 30 days each year. This program consists of periodic blood sampling and medical evaluation to be performed on a schedule which is defined by previous laboratory results, worker complaints or concerns, and the clinical assessment of the examining physician.
</P>
<P>Under this program, the blood lead level of all employees who are exposed to lead above the action level of 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> is to be determined at least every six months. The frequency is increased to every two months for employees whose last blood lead level was between 40 µg/100 g whole blood and the level requiring employee medical removal to be discussed below. For employees who are removed from exposure to lead due to an elevated blood lead, a new blood lead level must be measured monthly. A zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP) is required on each occasion that a blood lead level measurement is made.
</P>
<P>An annual medical examination and consultation performed under the guidelines discussed in Section 3 is to be made available to each employee for whom a blood test conducted at any time during the preceding 12 months indicated a blood lead level at or above 40 µg/100 g. Also, an examination is to be given to all employees prior to their assignment to an area in which airborne lead concentrations reach or exceed the action level. In addition, a medical examination must be provided as soon as possible after notification by an employee that the employee has developed signs or symptoms commonly associated with lead intoxication, that the employee desires medical advice regarding lead exposure and the ability to procreate a healthy child, or that the employee has demonstrated difficulty in breathing during a respirator fitting test or during respirator use. An examination is also to be made available to each employee removed from exposure to lead due to a risk of sustaining material impairment to health, or otherwise limited or specially protected pursuant to medical recommendations.
</P>
<P>Results of biological monitoring or the recommendations of an examining physician may necessitate removal of an employee from further lead exposure pursuant to the standard's medical removal protection (MRP) program. The object of the MRP program is to provide temporary medical removal to workers either with substantially elevated blood lead levels or otherwise at risk of sustaining material health impairment from continued substantial exposure to lead. The following guidelines which are summarized in Table 2 were created under the standard for the temporary removal of an exposed employee and his or her subsequent return to work in an exposure area.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Effective date
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1979
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1980
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1981
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1982
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mar. 1, 1983 (final)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A. Blood lead level requiring employee medical removal. (Level must be confirmed with second follow-up blood lead level within two weeks of first report.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥80 µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥70µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥60 µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥60 µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥60µg/100 g or average of last three blood samples or all blood samples over previous 6 months (whichever is over a longer time period) is 50 µg/100 g or greater unless last blood sample is 40 µg/100 g or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B. Frequency which employees exposed to action level of lead (30 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> TWA) must have blood lead level checked (ZPP is also required in each occasion that a blood lead is obtained.):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1. Last blood lead level less than 40 µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 6 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 6 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 6 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 6 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 6 months.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2. Last blood lead level between 40 µg/100 g and level requiring medical removal (see A above)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 2 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 2 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 2 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 2 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 2 months.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3. Employees removed from exposure to lead because of an elevated blood lead level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 1 month</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 1 month</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 1 month</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 1 month</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 1 month.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C. Permissible airborne exposure limit for workers removed from work due to an elevated blood lead level (without regard to respirator protection)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> 8 hr TWA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> 8 hr TWA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> 8 hr TWA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> 8 hr TWA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 µg/m
<sup>3</sup> 8 hr TWA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D. Blood lead level confirmed with a second blood analysis, at which employee may return to work. Permissible exposure without regard to respirator protection is listed by industry in Table I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">·60 µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">·50 µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">·40 µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">·40 µg/100 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">·40 µg/100 g.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> When medical opinion indicates that an employee is at risk of material impairment from exposure to lead, the physician can remove an employee from exposures exceeding the action level (or less) or recommend special protective measures as deemed appropriate and necessary. Medical monitoring during the medical removal period can be more stringent than noted in the table above if the physician so specifies. Return to work or removal of limitations and special protections is permitted when the physician indicates that the worker is no longer at risk of material impairment.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Under the standard's ultimate worker removal criteria, a worker is to be removed from any work having any eight hour TWA exposure to lead of 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> or more whenever either of the following circumstances apply: (1) a blood lead level of 60 µg/100 g or greater is obtained and confirmed by a second follow-up blood lead level performed within two weeks after the employer receives the results of the first blood sampling test, or (2) the average of the previous three blood lead determinations or the average of all blood lead determinations conducted during the previous six months, whichever encompasses the longest time period, equals or exceeds 50 µg/100 g, unless the last blood sample indicates a blood lead level at or below 40 µg/100 g in which case the employee need not be removed. Medical removal is to continue until two consecutive blood lead levels are 40 µg/100 g or less.
</P>
<P>During the first two years that the ultimate removal criteria are being phased in, the return criteria have been set to assure that a worker's blood lead level has substantially declined during the period of removal. From March 1, 1979 to March 1, 1980, the blood lead level requiring employee medical removal is 80 µg/100 g. Workers found to have a confirmed blood lead at this level or greater need only be removed from work having a daily 8 hour TWA exposure to lead at or above 100 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>. Workers so removed are to be returned to work when their blood lead levels are at or below 60 µg/100 g of whole blood. From March 1, 1980 to March 1, 1981, the blood lead level requiring medical removal is 70 µg/100 g. During this period workers need only be removed from jobs having a daily 8 hour TWA exposure to lead at or above 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> and are to be returned to work when a level of 50 µg/100 g is achieved. Beginning March 1, 1981, return depends on a worker's blood lead level declining to 40 µg/100 g of whole blood.
</P>
<P>As part of the standard, the employer is required to notify in writing each employee whose blood lead level exceeds 40 µg/100 g. In addition each such employee is to be informed that the standard requires medical removal with MRP benefits, discussed below, when an employee's blood lead level exceeds the above defined limits.
</P>
<P>In addition to the above blood lead level criteria, temporary worker removal may also take place as a result of medical determinations and recommendations. Written medical opinions must be prepared after each examination pursuant to the standard. If the examining physician includes a medical finding, determination or opinion that the employee has a medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material health impairment from exposure to lead, then the employee must be removed from exposure to lead at or above the action level. Alternatively, if the examining physician recommends special protective measures for an employee (e.g., use of a powered air purifying respirator) or recommends limitations on an employee's exposure to lead, then the employer must implement these recommendations. Recommendations may be more stringent than the specific provisions of the standard. The examining physician, therefore, is given broad flexibility to tailor special protective procedures to the needs of individual employees. This flexibility extends to the evaluation and management of pregnant workers and male and female workers who are planning to raise children. Based on the history, physical examination, and laboratory studies, the physician might recommend special protective measures or medical removal for an employee who is pregnant or who is planning to conceive a child when, in the physician's judgment, continued exposure to lead at the current job would pose a significant risk. The return of the employee to his or her former job status, or the removal of special protections or limitations, depends upon the examining physician determining that the employee is no longer at increased risk of material impairment or that special measures are no longer needed.
</P>
<P>During the period of any form of special protection or removal, the employer must maintain the worker's earnings, seniority, and other employment rights and benefits (as though the worker had not been removed) for a period of up to 18 months. This economic protection will maximize meaningful worker participation in the medical surveillance program, and is appropriate as part of the employer's overall obligation to provide a safe and healthful workplace. The provisions of MRP benefits during the employee's removal period may, however, be conditioned upon participation in medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>On rare occasions, an employee's blood lead level may not acceptably decline within 18 months of removal. This situation will arise only in unusual circumstances, thus the standard relies on an individual medical examination to determine how to protect such an employee. This medical determination is to be based on both laboratory values, including lead levels, zinc protoporphyrin levels, blood counts, and other tests felt to be warranted, as well as the physician's judgment that any symptoms or findings on physical examination are a result of lead toxicity. The medical determination may be that the employee is incapable of ever safely returning to his or her former job status. The medical determination may provide additional removal time past 18 months for some employees or specify special protective measures to be implemented.
</P>
<P>The lead standard provides for a multiple physician review in cases where the employee wishes a second opinion concerning potential lead poisoning or toxicity. If an employee wishes a second opinion, he or she can make an appointment with a physician of his or her choice. This second physician will review the findings, recommendations or determinations of the first physician and conduct any examinations, consultations or tests deemed necessary in an attempt to make a final medical determination. If the first and second physicians do not agree in their assessment they must try to resolve their differences. If they cannot reach an agreement then they must designate a third physician to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P>The employer must provide examining and consulting physicians with the following specific information: a copy of the lead regulations and all appendices, a description of the employee's duties as related to exposure, the exposure level to lead and any other toxic substances (if applicable), a description of personal protective equipment used, blood lead levels, and all prior written medical opinions regarding the employee in the employer's possession or control. The employer must also obtain from the physician and provide the employee with a written medical opinion containing blood lead levels, the physicians's opinion as to whether the employee is at risk of material impairment to health, any recommended protective measures for the employee if further exposure is permitted, as well as any recommended limitations upon an employee's use of respirators.
</P>
<P>Employers must instruct each physician not to reveal to the employer in writing or in any other way his or her findings, laboratory results, or diagnoses which are felt to be unrelated to occupational lead exposure. They must also instruct each physician to advise the employee of any occupationally or non-occupationally related medical condition requiring further treatment or evaluation.
</P>
<P>The standard provides for the use of respirators where engineering and other primary controls have not been fully implemented. However, the use of respirator protection shall not be used in lieu of temporary medical removal due to elevated blood lead levels or findings that an employee is at risk of material health impairment. This is based on the numerous inadequacies of respirators including skin rash where the facepiece makes contact with the skin, unacceptable stress to breathing in some workers with underlying cardiopulmonary impairment, difficulty in providing adequate fit, the tendency for respirators to create additional hazards by interfering with vision, hearing, and mobility, and the difficulties of assuring the maximum effectiveness of a complicated work practice program involving respirators. Respirators do, however, serve a useful function where engineering and work practice controls are inadequate by providing supplementary, interim, or short-term protection, provided they are properly selected for the environment in which the employee will be working, properly fitted to the employee, maintained and cleaned periodically, and worn by the employee when required.
</P>
<P>In its final standard on occupational exposure to inorganic lead, OSHA has prohibited prophylactic chelation. Diagnostic and therapeutic chelation are permitted only under the supervision of a licensed physician with appropriate medical monitoring in an acceptable clinical setting. The decision to initiate chelation therapy must be made on an individual basis and take into account the severity of symptoms felt to be a result of lead toxicity along with blood lead levels, ZPP levels, and other laboratory tests as appropriate. EDTA and penicillamine which are the primary chelating agents used in the therapy of occupational lead poisoning have significant potential side effects and their use must be justified on the basis of expected benefits to the worker. Unless frank and severe symptoms are present, therapeutic chelation is not recommended given the opportunity to remove a worker from exposure and allow the body to naturally excrete accumulated lead. As a diagnostic aid, the chelation mobilization test using CA-EDTA has limited applicability. According to some investigators, the test can differentiate between lead-induced and other nephropathies. The test may also provide an estimation of the mobile fraction of the total body lead burden.
</P>
<P>Employers are required to assure that accurate records are maintained on exposure monitoring, medical surveillance, and medical removal for each employee. Exposure monitoring and medical surveillance records must be kept for 40 years or the duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer, while medical removal records must be maintained for the duration of employment. All records required under the standard must be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health and the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health. Employers must also make environmental and biological monitoring and medical removal records available to affected employees and to former employees or their authorized employee representatives. Employees or their specifically designated representatives have access to their entire medical surveillance records.
</P>
<P>In addition, the standard requires that the employer inform all workers exposed to lead at or above the action level of the provisions of the standard and all its appendices, the purpose and description of medical surveillance and provisions for medical removal protection if temporary removal is required. An understanding of the potential health effects of lead exposure by all exposed employees along with full understanding of their rights under the lead standard is essential for an effective monitoring program.
</P>
<HD1>ii. adverse health effects of inorganic lead
</HD1>
<P>Although the toxicity of lead has been known for 2,000 years, the knowledge of the complex relationship between lead exposure and human response is still being refined. Significant research into the toxic properties of lead continues throughout the world, and it should be anticipated that our understanding of thresholds of effects and margins of safety will be improved in future years. The provisions of the lead standard are founded on two prime medical judgments: first, the prevention of adverse health effects from exposure to lead throughout a working lifetime requires that worker blood lead levels be maintained at or below 40 µg/100 g and second, the blood lead levels of workers, male or female, who intend to parent in the near future should be maintained below 30 µg/100 g to minimize adverse reproductive health effects to the parents and developing fetus. The adverse effects of lead on reproduction are being actively researched and OSHA encourages the physician to remain abreast of recent developments in the area to best advise pregnant workers or workers planning to conceive children.
</P>
<P>The spectrum of health effects caused by lead exposure can be subdivided into five developmental stages: normal, physiological changes of uncertain significance, pathophysiological changes, overt symptoms (morbidity), and mortality. Within this process there are no sharp distinctions, but rather a continuum of effects. Boundaries between categories overlap due to the wide variation of individual responses and exposures in the working population. OSHA's development of the lead standard focused on pathophysiological changes as well as later stages of disease.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Heme Synthesis Inhibition.</I> The earliest demonstrated effect of lead involves its ability to inhibit at least two enzymes of the heme synthesis pathway at very low blood levels. Inhibition of delta aminolevulinic acid dehydrase (ALA-D) which catalyzes the conversion of delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) to protoporphyrin is observed at a blood lead level below 20 µg/100 g whole blood. At a blood lead level of 40 ug/100 g, more than 20% of the population would have 70% inhibition of ALA-D. There is an exponential increase in ALA excretion at blood lead levels greater than 40 µg/100 g.
</P>
<P>Another enzyme, ferrochelatase, is also inhibited at low blood lead levels. Inhibition of ferrochelatase leads to increased free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP) in the blood which can then bind to zinc to yield zinc protoporphyrin. At a blood lead level of 50 µg/100 g or greater, nearly 100% of the population will have an increase in FEP. There is also an exponential relationship between blood lead levels greater than 40 µg/100 g and the associated ZPP level, which has led to the development of the ZPP screening test for lead exposure.
</P>
<P>While the significance of these effects is subject to debate, it is OSHA's position that these enzyme disturbances are early stages of a disease process which may eventually result in the clinical symptoms of lead poisoning. Whether or not the effects do progress to the later stages of clinical disease, disruption of these enzyme processes over a working lifetime is considered to be a material impairment of health.
</P>
<P>One of the eventual results of lead-induced inhibition of enzymes in the heme synthesis pathway is anemia which can be asymptomatic if mild but associated with a wide array of symptoms including dizziness, fatigue, and tachycardia when more severe. Studies have indicated that lead levels as low as 50 µg/100 g can be associated with a definite decreased hemoglobin, although most cases of lead-induced anemia, as well as shortened red-cell survival times, occur at lead levels exceeding 80 µg/100 g. Inhibited hemoglobin synthesis is more common in chronic cases whereas shortened erythrocyte life span is more common in acute cases.
</P>
<P>In lead-induced anemias, there is usually a reticulocytosis along with the presence of basophilic stippling, and ringed sideroblasts, although none of the above are pathognomonic for lead-induced anemia.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Neurological Effects.</I> Inorganic lead has been found to have toxic effects on both the central and peripheral nervous systems. The earliest stages of lead-induced central nervous system effects first manifest themselves in the form of behavioral disturbances and central nervous system symptoms including irritability, restlessness, insomnia and other sleep disturbances, fatigue, vertigo, headache, poor memory, tremor, depression, and apathy. With more severe exposure, symptoms can progress to drowsiness, stupor, hallucinations, delerium, convulsions and coma.
</P>
<P>The most severe and acute form of lead poisoning which usually follows ingestion or inhalation of large amounts of lead is acute encephalopathy which may arise precipitously with the onset of intractable seizures, coma, cardiorespiratory arrest, and death within 48 hours.
</P>
<P>While there is disagreement about what exposure levels are needed to produce the earliest symptoms, most experts agree that symptoms definitely can occur at blood lead levels of 60 µg/100 g whole blood and therefore recommend a 40 µg/100 g maximum. The central nervous system effects frequently are not reversible following discontinued exposure or chelation therapy and when improvement does occur, it is almost always only partial.
</P>
<P>The peripheral neuropathy resulting from lead exposure characteristically involves only motor function with minimal sensory damage and has a marked predilection for the extensor muscles of the most active extremity. The peripheral neuropathy can occur with varying degrees of severity. The earliest and mildest form which can be detected in workers with blood lead levels as low as 50 µg/100 g is manifested by slowing of motor nerve conduction velocity often without clinical symptoms. With progression of the neuropathy there is development of painless extensor muscle weakness usually involving the extensor muscles of the fingers and hand in the most active upper extremity, followed in severe cases by wrist drop or, much less commonly, foot drop.
</P>
<P>In addition to slowing of nerve conduction, electromyographical studies in patients with blood lead levels greater than 50 µg/100 g have demonstrated a decrease in the number of acting motor unit potentials, an increase in the duration of motor unit potentials, and spontaneous pathological activity including fibrillations and fasciculations. Whether these effects occur at levels of 40 µg/100 g is undetermined.
</P>
<P>While the peripheral neuropathies can occasionally be reversed with therapy, again such recovery is not assured particularly in the more severe neuropathies and often improvement is only partial. The lack of reversibility is felt to be due in part to segmental demyelination.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Gastrointestinal.</I> Lead may also affect the gastrointestinal system producing abdominal colic or diffuse abdominal pain, constipation, obstipation, diarrhea, anorexia, nausea and vomiting. Lead colic rarely develops at blood lead levels below 80 µg/100 g.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Renal.</I> Renal toxicity represents one of the most serious health effects of lead poisoning. In the early stages of disease nuclear inclusion bodies can frequently be identified in proximal renal tubular cells. Renal function remains normal and the changes in this stage are probably reversible. With more advanced disease there is progressive interstitial fibrosis and impaired renal function. Eventually extensive interstitial fibrosis ensues with sclerotic glomeruli and dilated and atrophied proximal tubules; all represent end stage kidney disease. Azotemia can be progressive, eventually resulting in frank uremia necessitating dialysis. There is occasionally associated hypertension and hyperuricemia with or without gout.
</P>
<P>Early kidney disease is difficult to detect. The urinalysis is normal in early lead nephropathy and the blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine increase only when two-thirds of kidney function is lost. Measurement of creatinine clearance can often detect earlier disease as can other methods of measurement of glomerular filtration rate. An abnormal Ca-EDTA mobilization test has been used to differentiate between lead-induced and other nephropathies, but this procedure is not widely accepted. A form of Fanconi syndrome with aminoaciduria, glycosuria, and hyperphosphaturia indicating severe injury to the proximal renal tubules is occasionally seen in children.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reproductive effects.</I> Exposure to lead can have serious effects on reproductive function in both males and females. In male workers exposed to lead there can be a decrease in sexual drive, impotence, decreased ability to produce healthy sperm, and sterility. Malformed sperm (teratospermia), decreased number of sperm (hypospermia), and sperm with decreased motility (asthenospermia) can all occur. Teratospermia has been noted at mean blood lead levels of 53 µg/100 g and hypospermia and asthenospermia at 41 µg/100 g. Furthermore, there appears to be a dose-response relationship for teratospermia in lead exposed workers.
</P>
<P>Women exposed to lead may experience menstrual disturbances including dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia and amenorrhea. Following exposure to lead, women have a higher frequency of sterility, premature births, spontaneous miscarriages, and stillbirths.
</P>
<P>Germ cells can be affected by lead and cause genetic damage in the egg or sperm cells before conception and result in failure to implant, miscarriage, stillbirth, or birth defects.
</P>
<P>Infants of mothers with lead poisoning have a higher mortality during the first year and suffer from lowered birth weights, slower growth, and nervous system disorders.
</P>
<P>Lead can pass through the placental barrier and lead levels in the mother's blood are comparable to concentrations of lead in the umbilical cord at birth. Transplacental passage becomes detectable at 12-14 weeks of gestation and increases until birth.
</P>
<P>There is little direct data on damage to the fetus from exposure to lead but it is generally assumed that the fetus and newborn would be at least as susceptible to neurological damage as young children. Blood lead levels of 50-60 µg/100 g in children can cause significant neurobehavioral impairments and there is evidence of hyperactivity at blood levels as low as 25 µg/100 g. Given the overall body of literature concerning the adverse health effects of lead in children, OSHA feels that the blood lead level in children should be maintained below 30 µg/100 g with a population mean of 15 µg/100 g. Blood lead levels in the fetus and newborn likewise should not exceed 30 µg/100 g.
</P>
<P>Because of lead's ability to pass through the placental barrier and also because of the demonstrated adverse effects of lead on reproductive function in both the male and female as well as the risk of genetic damage of lead on both the ovum and sperm, OSHA recommends a 30 µg/100 g maximum permissible blood lead level in both males and females who wish to bear children.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Other toxic effects.</I> Debate and research continue on the effects of lead on the human body. Hypertension has frequently been noted in occupationally exposed individuals although it is difficult to assess whether this is due to lead's adverse effects on the kidney or if some other mechanism is involved. Vascular and electrocardiogarphic changes have been detected but have not been well characterized. Lead is thought to impair thyroid function and interfere with the pituitary-adrenal axis, but again these effects have not been well defined.
</P>
<HD1>iii. medical evaluation
</HD1>
<P>The most important principle in evaluating a worker for any occupational disease including lead poisoning is a high index of suspicion on the part of the examining physician. As discussed in Section 2, lead can affect numerous organ systems and produce a wide array of signs and symptoms, most of which are non-specific and subtle in nature at least in the early stages of disease. Unless serious concern for lead toxicity is present, many of the early clues to diagnosis may easily be overlooked.
</P>
<P>The crucial initial step in the medical evaluation is recognizing that a worker's employment can result in exposure to lead. The worker will frequently be able to define exposures to lead and lead containing materials but often will not volunteer this information unless specifically asked. In other situations the worker may not know of any exposures to lead but the suspicion might be raised on the part of the physician because of the industry or occupation of the worker. Potential occupational exposure to lead and its compounds occur in at least 120 occupations, including lead smelting, the manufacture of lead storage batteries, the manufacture of lead pigments and products containing pigments, solder manufacture, shipbuilding and ship repair, auto manufacturing, construction, and painting.
</P>
<P>Once the possibility for lead exposure is raised, the focus can then be directed toward eliciting information from the medical history, physical exam, and finally from laboratory data to evaluate the worker for potential lead toxicity.
</P>
<P>A complete and detailed work history is important in the initial evaluation. A listing of all previous employment with information on work processes, exposure to fumes or dust, known exposures to lead or other toxic substances, respiratory protection used, and previous medical surveillance should all be included in the worker's record. Where exposure to lead is suspected, information concerning on-the-job personal hygiene, smoking or eating habits in work areas, laundry procedures, and use of any protective clothing or respiratory protection equipment should be noted. A complete work history is essential in the medical evaluation of a worker with suspected lead toxicity, especially when long term effects such as neurotoxicity and nephrotoxicity are considered.
</P>
<P>The medical history is also of fundamental importance and should include a listing of all past and current medical conditions, current medications including proprietary drug intake, previous surgeries and hospitalizations, allergies, smoking history, alcohol consumption, and also non-occupational lead exposures such as hobbies (hunting, riflery). Also known childhood exposures should be elicited. Any previous history of hematological, neurological, gastrointestinal, renal, psychological, gynecological, genetic, or reproductive problems should be specifically noted.
</P>
<P>A careful and complete review must be performed to assess both recognized complaints and subtle or slowly acquired symptoms which the worker might not appreciate as being significant. The review of symptoms should include the following:
</P>
<P>General—weight loss, fatigue, decreased appetite.
</P>
<P>Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat (HEENT)—headaches, visual disturbances or decreased visual acuity, hearing deficits or tinnitus, pigmentation of the oral mucosa, or metallic taste in mouth.
</P>
<P>Cardio-pulmonary—shortness of breath, cough, chest pains, palpitations, or orthopnea.
</P>
<P>Gastrointestinal—nausea, vomiting, heartburn, abdominal pain, constipation or diarrhea.
</P>
<P>Neurologic—irritability, insomnia, weakness (fatigue), dizziness, loss of memory, confusion, hallucinations, incoordination, ataxia, decreased strength in hands or feet, disturbances in gait, difficulty in climbing stairs, or seizures.
</P>
<P>Hematologic—pallor, easy fatigability, abnormal blood loss, melena.
</P>
<P>Reproductive (male and female and spouse where relevant)—history of infertility, impotence, loss of libido, abnormal menstrual periods, history of miscarriages, stillbirths, or children with birth defects.
</P>
<P>Musculo-skeletal—muscle and joint pains.
</P>
<P>The physical examination should emphasize the neurological, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular systems. The worker's weight and blood pressure should be recorded and the oral mucosa checked for pigmentation characteristic of a possible Burtonian or lead line on the gingiva. It should be noted, however, that the lead line may not be present even in severe lead poisoning if good oral hygiene is practiced.
</P>
<P>The presence of pallor on skin examination may indicate an anemia, which if severe might also be associated with a tachycardia. If an anemia is suspected, an active search for blood loss should be undertaken including potential blood loss through the gastrointestinal tract.
</P>
<P>A complete neurological examination should include an adequate mental status evaluation including a search for behavioral and psychological disturbances, memory testing, evaluation for irritability, insomnia, hallucinations, and mental clouding. Gait and coordination should be examined along with close observation for tremor. A detailed evaluation of peripheral nerve function including careful sensory and motor function testing is warranted. Strength testing particularly of extensor muscle groups of all extremities is of fundamental importance.
</P>
<P>Cranial nerve evaluation should also be included in the routine examination.
</P>
<P>The abdominal examination should include auscultation for bowel sounds and abdominal bruits and palpation for organomegaly, masses, and diffuse abdominal tenderness.
</P>
<P>Cardiovascular examination should evaluate possible early signs of congestive heart failure. Pulmonary status should be addressed particularly if respirator protection is contemplated.
</P>
<P>As part of the medical evaluation, the lead standard requires the following laboratory studies:
</P>
<P>1. Blood lead level
</P>
<P>2. Hemoglobin and hematocrit determinations, red cell indices, and examination of the peripheral blood smear to evaluate red blood cell morphology
</P>
<P>3. Blood urea nitrogen
</P>
<P>4. Serum creatinine
</P>
<P>5. Routine urinalysis with microscopic examination.
</P>
<P>6. A zinc protoporphyrin level
</P>
<P>In addition to the above, the physician is authorized to order any further laboratory or other tests which he or she deems necessary in accordance with sound medical practice. The evaluation must also include pregnancy testing or laboratory evaluation of male fertility if requested by the employee.
</P>
<P>Additional tests which are probably not warranted on a routine basis but may be appropriate when blood lead and ZPP levels are equivocal include delta aminolevulinic acid and coproporphyrin concentrations in the urine, and dark-field illumination for detection of basophilic stippling in red blood cells.
</P>
<P>If an anemia is detected further studies including a careful examination of the peripheral smear, reticulocyte count, stool for occult blood, serum iron, total iron binding capacity, bilirubin, and, if appropriate, vitamin B12 and folate may be of value in attempting to identify the cause of the anemia.
</P>
<P>If a peripheral neuropathy is suspected, nerve conduction studies are warranted both for diagnosis and as a basis to monitor any therapy.
</P>
<P>If renal disease is questioned, a 24 hour urine collection for creatinine clearance, protein, and electrolytes may be indicated. Elevated uric acid levels may result from lead-induced renal disease and a serum uric acid level might be performed.
</P>
<P>An electrocardiogram and chest x-ray may be obtained as deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>Sophisticated and highly specialized testing should not be done routinely and where indicated should be under the direction of a specialist.
</P>
<HD1>iv. laboratory evaluation
</HD1>
<P>The blood lead level at present remains the single most important test to monitor lead exposure and is the test used in the medical surveillance program under the lead standard to guide employee medical removal. The ZPP has several advantages over the blood lead level. Because of its relatively recent development and the lack of extensive data concerning its interpretation, the ZPP currently remains an ancillary test.
</P>
<P>This section will discuss the blood lead level and ZPP in detail and will outline their relative advantages and disadvantages. Other blood tests currently available to evaluate lead exposure will also be reviewed.
</P>
<P>The blood lead level is a good index of current or recent lead absorption when there is no anemia present and when the worker has not taken any chelating agents. However, blood lead levels along with urinary lead levels do not necessarily indicate the total body burden of lead and are not adequate measures of past exposure. One reason for this is that lead has a high affinity for bone and up to 90% of the body's total lead is deposited there. A very important component of the total lead body burden is lead in soft tissue (liver, kidney, and brain). This fraction of the lead body burden, the biologically active lead, is not entirely reflected by blood lead levels since it is a function of the dynamics of lead absorption, distribution, deposition in bone and excretion. Following discontinuation of exposure to lead, the excess body burden is only slowly mobilized from bone and other relatively stable body stores and excreted. Consequently, a high blood lead level may only represent recent heavy exposure to lead without a significant total body excess and likewise a low blood lead level does not exclude an elevated total body burden of lead.
</P>
<P>Also due to its correlation with recent exposures, the blood lead level may vary considerably over short time intervals.
</P>
<P>To minimize laboratory error and erroneous results due to contamination, blood specimens must be carefully collected after thorough cleaning of the skin with appropriate methods using lead-free blood containers and analyzed by a reliable laboratory. Under the standard, samples must be analyzed in laboratories which are approved by the Center for Disease Control (CDC) or which have received satisfactory grades in proficiency testing by the CDC in the previous year. Analysis is to be made using atomic absorption spectrophotometry, anodic stripping voltammetry or any method which meets the accuracy requirements set forth by the standard.
</P>
<P>The determination of lead in urine is generally considered a less reliable monitoring technique than analysis of whole blood primarily due to individual variability in urinary excretion capacity as well as the technical difficulty of obtaining accurate 24 hour urine collections. In addition, workers with renal insufficiency, whether due to lead or some other cause, may have decreased lead clearance and consequently urine lead levels may underestimate the true lead burden. Therefore, urine lead levels should not be used as a routine test.
</P>
<P>The zinc protoporphyrin test, unlike the blood lead determination, measures an adverse metabolic effect of lead and as such is a better indicator of lead toxicity than the level of blood lead itself. The level of ZPP reflects lead absorption over the preceding 3 to 4 months, and therefore is a better indicator of lead body burden. The ZPP requires more time than the blood lead to read significantly elevated levels; the return to normal after discontinuing lead exposure is also slower. Furthermore, the ZPP test is simpler, faster, and less expensive to perform and no contamination is possible. Many investigators believe it is the most reliable means of monitoring chronic lead absorption.
</P>
<P>Zinc protoporphyrin results from the inhibition of the enzyme ferrochelatase which catalyzes the insertion of an iron molecule into the protoporphyrin molecule, which then becomes heme. If iron is not inserted into the molecule then zinc, having a greater affinity for protoporphyrin, takes the place of the iron, forming ZPP.
</P>
<P>An elevation in the level of circulating ZPP may occur at blood lead levels as low as 20-30 µg/100 g in some workers. Once the blood lead level has reached 40 µg/100 g there is more marked rise in the ZPP value from its normal range of less than 100 µg/100 ml. Increases in blood lead levels beyond 40 µg/100 g are associated with exponential increases in ZPP.
</P>
<P>Whereas blood lead levels fluctuate over short time spans, ZPP levels remain relatively stable. ZPP is measured directly in red blood cells and is present for the cell's entire 120 day life-span. Therefore, the ZPP level in blood reflects the average ZPP production over the previous 3-4 months and consequently the average lead exposure during that time interval.
</P>
<P>It is recommended that a hematocrit be determined whenever a confirmed ZPP of 50 µg/100 ml whole blood is obtained to rule out a significant underlying anemia. If the ZPP is in excess of 100 µg/100 ml and not associated with abnormal elevations in blood lead levels, the laboratory should be checked to be sure that blood leads were determined using atomic absorption spectrophotometry anodic stripping voltammetry, or any method which meets the accuracy requirements set forth by the standard by a CDC approved laboratory which is experienced in lead level determinations. Repeat periodic blood lead studies should be obtained in all individuals with elevated ZPP levels to be certain that an associated elevated blood lead level has not been missed due to transient fluctuations in blood leads.
</P>
<P>ZPP has a characteristic fluorescence spectrum with a peak at 594 nm which is detectable with a hematofluorimeter. The hematofluorimeter is accurate and portable and can provide on-site, instantaneous results for workers who can be frequently tested via a finger prick.
</P>
<P>However, careful attention must be given to calibration and quality control procedures. Limited data on blood lead—ZPP correlations and the ZPP levels which are associated with the adverse health effects discussed in Section 2 are the major limitations of the test. Also it is difficult to correlate ZPP levels with environmental exposure and there is some variation of response with age and sex. Nevertheless, the ZPP promises to be an important diagnostic test for the early detection of lead toxicity and its value will increase as more data is collected regarding its relationship to other manifestations of lead poisoning.
</P>
<P>Levels of delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) in the urine are also used as a measure of lead exposure. Increasing concentrations of ALA are believed to result from the inhibition of the enzyme delta-aminolevulinic acid dehydrase (ALA-D). Although the test is relatively easy to perform, inexpensive, and rapid, the disadvantages include variability in results, the necessity to collect a complete 24 hour urine sample which has a specific gravity greater than 1.010, and also the fact that ALA decomposes in the presence of light.
</P>
<P>The pattern of porphyrin excretion in the urine can also be helpful in identifying lead intoxication. With lead poisoning, the urine concentrations of coproporphyrins I and II, porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin I rise. The most important increase, however, is that of coproporphyrin III; levels may exceed 5,000 µg/1 in the urine in lead poisoned individuals, but its correlation with blood lead levels and ZPP are not as good as those of ALA. Increases in urinary porphyrins are not diagnostic of lead toxicity and may be seen in porphyria, some liver diseases, and in patients with high reticulocyte counts.
</P>
<P><I>Summary.</I> The Occupational Safety and Health Administration's standard for inorganic lead places significant emphasis on the medical surveillance of all workers exposed to levels of inorganic lead above the action level of 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> TWA. The physician has a fundamental role in this surveillance program, and in the operation of the medical removal protection program.
</P>
<P>Even with adequate worker education on the adverse health effects of lead and appropriate training in work practices, personal hygiene and other control measures, the physician has a primary responsibility for evaluating potential lead toxicity in the worker. It is only through a careful and detailed medical and work history, a complete physical examination and appropriate laboratory testing that an accurate assessment can be made. Many of the adverse health effects of lead toxicity are either irreversible or only partially reversible and therefore early detection of disease is very important.
</P>
<P>This document outlines the medical monitoring program as defined by the occupational safety and health standard for inorganic lead. It reviews the adverse health effects of lead poisoning and describes the important elements of the history and physical examinations as they relate to these adverse effects. Finally, the appropriate laboratory testing for evaluating lead exposure and toxicity is presented.
</P>
<P>It is hoped that this review and discussion will give the physician a better understanding of the OSHA standard with the ultimate goal of protecting the health and well-being of the worker exposed to lead under his or her care.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 53007, Nov. 14, 1978]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1910.1025, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
<P> 
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1026" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1026   Chromium (VI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This standard applies to occupational exposures to chromium (VI) in all forms and compounds in general industry, except:
</P>
<P>(2) Exposures that occur in the application of pesticides regulated by the Environmental Protection Agency or another Federal government agency (e.g., the treatment of wood with preservatives);
</P>
<P>(3) Exposures to portland cement; or
</P>
<P>(4) Where the employer has objective data demonstrating that a material containing chromium or a specific process, operation, or activity involving chromium cannot release dusts, fumes, or mists of chromium (VI) in concentrations at or above 0.5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU> as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) under any expected conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne chromium (VI) of 2.5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (2.5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU>) calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Chromium (VI) [hexavalent chromium or Cr(VI)]</I> means chromium with a valence of positive six, in any form and in any compound.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence that results, or is likely to result, in an uncontrolled release of chromium (VI). If an incidental release of chromium (VI) can be controlled at the time of release by employees in the immediate release area, or by maintenance personnel, it is not an emergency.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means the exposure to airborne chromium (VI) that would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air [HEPA] filter means a filter</I> that is at least 99.97 percent efficient in removing mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter or larger.
</P>
<P><I>Historical monitoring data</I> means data from chromium (VI) monitoring conducted prior to May 30, 2006, obtained during work operations conducted under workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means information such as air monitoring data from industry-wide surveys or calculations based on the composition or chemical and physical properties of a substance demonstrating the employee exposure to chromium (VI) associated with a particular product or material or a specific process, operation, or activity. The data must reflect workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional [PLHCP]</I> is an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.</I>, license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the particular health care services required by paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area, demarcated by the employer, where an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of chromium (VI) exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the PEL.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this § 1910.1026 chromium (VI) standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit (PEL).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of chromium (VI) in excess of 5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU>), calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure determination</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this section shall determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee exposed to chromium (VI). This determination shall be made in accordance with either paragraph (d)(2) or paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scheduled monitoring option.</I> (i) The employer shall perform initial monitoring to determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of a sufficient number of personal breathing zone air samples to accurately characterize full shift exposure on each shift, for each job classification, in each work area. Where an employer does representative sampling instead of sampling all employees in order to meet this requirement, the employer shall sample the employee(s) expected to have the highest chromium (VI) exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) If initial monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iii) If monitoring reveals employee exposures to be at or above the action level, the employer shall perform periodic monitoring at least every six months.
</P>
<P>(iv) If monitoring reveals employee exposures to be above the PEL, the employer shall perform periodic monitoring at least every three months.
</P>
<P>(v) If periodic monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, and the result is confirmed by the result of another monitoring taken at least seven days later, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall perform additional monitoring when there has been any change in the production process, raw materials, equipment, personnel, work practices, or control methods that may result in new or additional exposures to chromium (VI), or when the employer has any reason to believe that new or additional exposures have occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Performance-oriented option.</I> The employer shall determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of any combination of air monitoring data, historical monitoring data, or objective data sufficient to accurately characterize employee exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee notification of determination results.</I> (i) Within 15 work days after making an exposure determination in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) or paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the employer shall individually notify each affected employee in writing of the results of that determination or post the results in an appropriate location accessible to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the exposure determination indicates that employee exposure is above the PEL, the employer shall describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> Where air monitoring is performed to comply with the requirements of this section, the employer shall use a method of monitoring and analysis that can measure chromium (VI) to within an accuracy of plus or minus 25 percent (±25%) and can produce accurate measurements to within a statistical confidence level of 95 percent for airborne concentrations at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) Where air monitoring is performed to comply with the requirements of this section, the employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with clothing and equipment and shall assure that the observer uses such clothing and equipment and complies with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> The employer shall establish a regulated area wherever an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of chromium (VI) is, or can reasonably be expected to be, in excess of the PEL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> The employer shall ensure that regulated areas are demarcated from the rest of the workplace in a manner that adequately establishes and alerts employees of the boundaries of the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> The employer shall limit access to regulated areas to:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons authorized by the employer and required by work duties to be present in the regulated area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe monitoring procedures under paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any person authorized by the Occupational Safety and Health Act or regulations issued under it to be in a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> (i) Except as permitted in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) and paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section, the employer shall use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to chromium (VI) to or below the PEL unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever feasible engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable, and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where painting of aircraft or large aircraft parts is performed in the aerospace industry, the employer shall use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to chromium (VI) to or below 25 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU> unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. The employer shall supplement such engineering and work practice controls with the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section to achieve the PEL.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer can demonstrate that a process or task does not result in any employee exposure to chromium (VI) above the PEL for 30 or more days per year (12 consecutive months), the requirement to implement engineering and work practice controls to achieve the PEL does not apply to that process or task.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibition of rotation.</I> The employer shall not rotate employees to different jobs to achieve compliance with the PEL.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Where respiratory protection is required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respiratory protection is required during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls;
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities, for which engineering and work practice controls are not feasible;
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which an employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work practice controls and such controls are not sufficient to reduce exposures to or below the PEL;
</P>
<P>(iv) Work operations where employees are exposed above the PEL for fewer than 30 days per year, and the employer has elected not to implement engineering and work practice controls to achieve the PEL; or
</P>
<P>(v) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> Where respirator use is required by this section, the employer shall institute a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134, which covers each employee required to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where a hazard is present or is likely to be present from skin or eye contact with chromium (VI), the employer shall provide appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment at no cost to employees, and shall ensure that employees use such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that employees remove all protective clothing and equipment contaminated with chromium (VI) at the end of the work shift or at the completion of their tasks involving chromium (VI) exposure, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that no employee removes chromium (VI)-contaminated protective clothing or equipment from the workplace, except for those employees whose job it is to launder, clean, maintain, or dispose of such clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) When contaminated protective clothing or equipment is removed for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal, the employer shall ensure that it is stored and transported in sealed, impermeable bags or other closed, impermeable containers.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that bags or containers of contaminated protective clothing or equipment that are removed from change rooms for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal are labeled in accordance with the requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall clean, launder, repair and replace all protective clothing and equipment required by this section as needed to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of chromium (VI) from protective clothing and equipment by blowing, shaking, or any other means that disperses chromium (VI) into the air or onto an employee's body.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment contaminated with chromium (VI) of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to chromium (VI) and that the clothing and equipment should be laundered or cleaned in a manner that minimizes skin or eye contact with chromium (VI) and effectively prevents the release of airborne chromium (VI) in excess of the PEL.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hygiene areas and practices</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Where protective clothing and equipment is required, the employer shall provide change rooms in conformance with 29 CFR 1910.141. Where skin contact with chromium (VI) occurs, the employer shall provide washing facilities in conformance with 29 CFR 1910.141. Eating and drinking areas provided by the employer shall also be in conformance with § 1910.141.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall assure that change rooms are equipped with separate storage facilities for protective clothing and equipment and for street clothes, and that these facilities prevent cross-contamination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Washing facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall provide readily accessible washing facilities capable of removing chromium (VI) from the skin, and shall ensure that affected employees use these facilities when necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees who have skin contact with chromium (VI) wash their hands and faces at the end of the work shift and prior to eating, drinking, smoking, chewing tobacco or gum, applying cosmetics, or using the toilet.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eating and drinking areas.</I> (i) Whenever the employer allows employees to consume food or beverages at a worksite where chromium (VI) is present, the employer shall ensure that eating and drinking areas and surfaces are maintained as free as practicable of chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees do not enter eating and drinking areas with protective work clothing or equipment unless surface chromium (VI) has been removed from the clothing and equipment by methods that do not disperse chromium (VI) into the air or onto an employee's body.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in regulated areas, or in areas where skin or eye contact with chromium (VI) occurs; or carry the products associated with these activities, or store such products in these areas.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) All surfaces are maintained as free as practicable of accumulations of chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) All spills and releases of chromium (VI) containing material are cleaned up promptly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning methods.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that surfaces contaminated with chromium (VI) are cleaned by HEPA-filter vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) Dry shoveling, dry sweeping, and dry brushing may be used only where HEPA-filtered vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of exposure to chromium (VI) have been tried and found not to be effective.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall not allow compressed air to be used to remove chromium (VI) from any surface unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The compressed air is used in conjunction with a ventilation system designed to capture the dust cloud created by the compressed air; or
</P>
<P>(B) No alternative method is feasible.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that cleaning equipment is handled in a manner that minimizes the reentry of chromium (VI) into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disposal.</I> The employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Waste, scrap, debris, and any other materials contaminated with chromium (VI) and consigned for disposal are collected and disposed of in sealed, impermeable bags or other closed, impermeable containers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bags or containers of waste, scrap, debris, and any other materials contaminated with chromium (VI) that are consigned for disposal are labeled in accordance with the requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make medical surveillance available at no cost to the employee, and at a reasonable time and place, for all employees:
</P>
<P>(A) Who are or may be occupationally exposed to chromium (VI) at or above the action level for 30 or more days a year;
</P>
<P>(B) Experiencing signs or symptoms of the adverse health effects associated with chromium (VI) exposure; or
</P>
<P>(C) Exposed in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this section are performed by or under the supervision of a PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer shall provide a medical examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days after initial assignment, unless the employee has received a chromium (VI) related medical examination that meets the requirements of this paragraph within the last twelve months;
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually;
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 30 days after a PLHCP's written medical opinion recommends an additional examination;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whenever an employee shows signs or symptoms of the adverse health effects associated with chromium (VI) exposure;
</P>
<P>(v) Within 30 days after exposure during an emergency which results in an uncontrolled release of chromium (VI); or
</P>
<P>(vi) At the termination of employment, unless the last examination that satisfied the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section was less than six months prior to the date of termination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of examination.</I> A medical examination consists of:
</P>
<P>(i) A medical and work history, with emphasis on: Past, present, and anticipated future exposure to chromium (VI); any history of respiratory system dysfunction; any history of asthma, dermatitis, skin ulceration, or nasal septum perforation; and smoking status and history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical examination of the skin and respiratory tract; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any additional tests deemed appropriate by the examining PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the PLHCP.</I> The employer shall ensure that the examining PLHCP has a copy of this standard, and shall provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the affected employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used that equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the affected employee, currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>PLHCP's written medical opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written medical opinion from the PLHCP, within 30 days for each medical examination performed on each employee, which contains:
</P>
<P>(A) The PLHCP's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from further exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to chromium (VI) or upon the use of personal protective equipment such as respirators;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the PLHCP has explained to the employee the results of the medical examination, including any medical conditions related to chromium (VI) exposure that require further evaluation or treatment, and any special provisions for use of protective clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The PLHCP shall not reveal to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the PLHCP's written medical opinion to the examined employee within two weeks after receiving it.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Communication of chromium (VI) hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general</I>—(i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of chromium (VI) at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer, eye irritation, and skin sensitization.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include chromium (VI) in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of chromium (VI) and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (l)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that each employee can demonstrate knowledge of at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The contents of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make a copy of this section readily available without cost to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Air monitoring data.</I> (i) The employer shall maintain an accurate record of all air monitoring conducted to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to chromium (VI) that is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and the results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of personal protective equipment, such as respirators worn; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and job classification of all employees represented by the monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historical monitoring data.</I> (i) Where the employer has relied on historical monitoring data to determine exposure to chromium (VI), the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of the historical monitoring data relied upon.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include information that reflects the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The data were collected using methods that meet the accuracy requirements of paragraph (d)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The processes and work practices that were in use when the historical monitoring data were obtained are essentially the same as those to be used during the job for which exposure is being determined;
</P>
<P>(C) The characteristics of the chromium (VI) containing material being handled when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which exposure is being determined;
</P>
<P>(D) Environmental conditions prevailing when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which exposure is being determined; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exception.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that historical exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) The employer shall maintain an accurate record of all objective data relied upon to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The chromium containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol and results of testing, or analysis of the material for the release of chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the process, operation, or activity and how the data support the determination; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the process, operation, activity, material, or employee exposures.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that objective data are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include the following information about the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the PLHCP's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the PLHCP as required by paragraph (k)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that medical records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Dates.</I> (1) For employers with 20 or more employees, all obligations of this section, except engineering controls required by paragraph (f) of this section, commence November 27, 2006.
</P>
<P>(2) For employers with 19 or fewer employees, all obligations of this section, except engineering controls required by paragraph (f) of this section, commence May 30, 2007.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in (n)(4), for all employers, engineering controls required by paragraph (f) of this section shall be implemented no later than May 31, 2010.
</P>
<P>(4) In facilities that become parties to the settlement agreement included in appendix A, engineering controls required by paragraph (f) of this section shall be implemented no later than December 31, 2008.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1026 
</HD1>
<HD1>In the United States Court of Appeals for the Third Circuit 
</HD1>
<HD2>Surface Finishing Industry Council et al., Petitioners, v. U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration, Respondent.
</HD2>
<HD3>[Docket No. 06-2272 and consolidated cases]
</HD3>
<HD2>Public Citizen Health Research Group et al., Petitioners, v. Occupational Safety and Health Administration, United States Department of Labor, Respondent.
</HD2>
<HD3>[Docket No. 06-1818]
</HD3>
<HD1>Settlement Agreement
</HD1>
<P>The parties to this Settlement Agreement (“Agreement”) are the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, United States Department of Labor (“OSHA”), the Surface Finishing Industry Council or its successors (“SFIC”), surface-finishing and metal-finishing facilities which have opted into this Agreement pursuant to paragraph 7 (“Company” or “Companies”), Public Citizen Health Research Group (“HRG”), and the United Steel, Paper and Forestry, Rubber, Manufacturing, Energy, Allied Industrial and Service Workers International Union (“Steelworkers”).
</P>
<P><I>Whereas</I>, On February 28, 2006, OSHA promulgated a revised hexavalent chromium standard for general industry (“the Standard”) that includes a permissible exposure limit (“PEL”) for hexavalent chromium of 5 micrograms per cubic meter (“μg/m
<SU>3</SU>”) measured as an 8-hour time-weighted average (“TWA”), and a deadline of May 31, 2010, for employers to come into compliance with this PEL through the implementation of engineering controls. The deadline for compliance with the remaining provisions of the Standard, including those requiring the use of respiratory protection to comply with the PEL, is November 27, 2006, for employers with twenty (20) or more employees, and May 30, 2007, for employers with nineteen (19) or fewer employees. 29 CFR 1910.1026, 71 FR 10100 (Feb. 28, 2006);
</P>
<P><I>Whereas,</I> SFIC filed a Petition for Review of the Standard in the Eleventh Circuit that was consolidated with other Petitions in the Third Circuit (Case No. 06-2272);
</P>
<P><I>Whereas,</I> SFIC filed a Motion for Leave to Intervene in the matter of HRG's Petition for Review in the Third Circuit (Case No. 06-1818), which has been granted;
</P>
<P><I>Now, therefore,</I> the parties to this Agreement do hereby agree to the following terms:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Term of this Agreement.</I> This Agreement will be effective upon execution and will expire on May 31, 2010.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Accelerated implementation of engineering controls.</I> The Companies agree that in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1026(f)(1) they will implement those feasible engineering controls necessary to reduce hexavalent chromium levels at their facilities by December 31, 2008, to or below the 5 μg/m
<SU>3</SU> PEL. In fulfilling this obligation, the Companies may select from the engineering and work practice controls listed in Exhibit A to this Agreement or adopt any other controls.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compliance plan and monitoring.</I> In accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1026(d)(4)(ii), each Company will prepare, and update as required, a written plan setting forth the specific control steps being taken to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL by December 31, 2008. In addition, Companies will make an initial exposure determination as required by 29 CFR 1910.1026(d)(1) using either the procedures for personal breathing zone air samples described in 29 CFR 1910.1026(d)(2) or the performance-oriented option described at 29 CFR 1910.1026(d)(3). Thereafter, Companies will conduct periodic monitoring in accordance with the “Scheduled Monitoring Option” provisions at 29 CFR 1910.1026(d)(2) and related provisions at 29 CFR 1910.1026(d)(4)-(6). The Companies agree that upon request compliance plans prepared in accordance with this paragraph, as well as all monitoring results obtained in compliance with this paragraph, will be provided to OSHA, affected employees and employee representatives.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Respirator use.</I> The respiratory protection provisions at 29 CFR 1910.1026(f) and (g) will apply to the Companies in accordance with the terms and dates set forth in the Standard, except that prior to December 31, 2008, for Companies that are in compliance with this Agreement, OSHA will enforce those respiratory protection provisions only with respect to employees who fall into one of the following six (6) categories: (1) Employees who are exposed to hexavalent chromium in excess of the PEL while performing tasks described in Exhibit B to this Agreement; (2) through November 30, 2007, employees whose exposures to hexavalent chromium exceed a “respirator threshold” of 20 μg/m
<SU>3</SU> (measured as an 8-hour TWA); (3) beginning December 1, 2007, employees whose exposures to hexavalent chromium exceed a “respirator threshold” of 12.5 μg/m
<SU>3</SU> (measured as an 8-hour TWA); (4) employees who are exposed to hexavalent chromium and request a respirator; (5) any other employees who are required by the Companies to wear a respirator; and (6) employees with exposures for which respirators were required under the previous hexavalent chromium standard (1910.1000) and any other employees covered by respirator programs in effect on May 30, 2006.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Employee information and training.</I> Company employees will be trained pursuant to the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1026(l)(2). In addition, the Companies agree to train employees in the provisions of this Agreement within sixty (60) days of the Opt-In Date (defined in paragraph 7 of this Agreement). The training regarding this Agreement shall be provided in language the employees can understand.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Enforcement.</I> Within thirty (30) days of the execution of this Agreement, OSHA will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> amending 29 CFR 1910.1026 as follows: (1) A copy of this Agreement will be attached to the Standard as appendix A; (2) a new paragraph, 1910.1026(n)(4), will be added to the Standard, and will read: “In facilities that become parties to the settlement agreement included in appendix A, engineering controls required by paragraph (f) of this section shall be implemented no later than December 31, 2008”; and (3) existing paragraph 1910.1026(n)(3) will be amended to read: “Except as provided in (n)(4), for all employers, engineering controls required by paragraph (f) of this section shall be implemented no later than May 31, 2010.”
</P>
<P>7. <I>Opt-In Date for Companies to become parties to this Agreement.</I> The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice described in paragraph 6 of this Agreement will provide notice of the provisions of this Agreement, and of the revisions to the Standard described in paragraph 6, and will provide until November 30, 2006, for eligible facilities to become parties to this Agreement, and be subject to all of the duties, obligations, and rights herein. The last date for signing by facilities shall be referred to as the Opt-In Date. The opt in option will be available on a facility by facility basis and only to SFIC members and other surface-finishing and metal-finishing job shop facilities within the jurisdiction of Federal OSHA. (For purposes of this Agreement, a “job shop” is defined as a facility that sells plating or anodizing services to other companies.) Moreover, the terms of this Agreement apply only with respect to the performance of surface-finishing and metal-finishing operations in those facilities. Although this Agreement applies only to facilities within the jurisdiction of Federal OSHA, OSHA will encourage States with OSHA-approved State occupational safety and health plans to either honor and implement the terms of this Agreement, including the amendments to the standard described in paragraph 6, or to take an alternative position, which may include entering into separate arrangements with surface- and metal-finishing job shop facilities (or their representatives) in their jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Effect on third parties.</I> Nothing in this Agreement constitutes an admission by SFIC or the Companies that a significant risk of material health impairment exists for hexavalent chromium justifying a reduction of the PEL to 5 μg/m
<SU>3</SU>. Nor does anything in this Agreement constitute any other admission by SFIC or the Companies for purposes of this litigation or future litigation or standards-setting. This Agreement is not intended to give any rights to any third party except as expressly provided herein.
</P>
<P>9. <I>OSHA inspections.</I> OSHA may do monitoring inspections to assess compliance with and progress under this Agreement and the Standard, and nothing in this Agreement limits OSHA's right to conduct inspections at Companies” facilities in accordance with the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Scope of Agreement.</I> The terms of this Agreement apply only in the circumstances and to the Companies specified herein. In entering into this Agreement, OSHA is not making any representations regarding its enforcement policy with respect to either (1) The hexavalent chromium standard as applied to employers who are not parties to this Agreement or (2) any other occupational safety or health standards.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Effect of invalidation of the Standard.</I> If the Standard is invalidated, nothing in this Agreement shall prevent the application to SFIC or the Companies of any PEL that is promulgated by OSHA on remand. This Agreement would not foreclose SFIC or the Companies from participating in rulemaking proceedings or otherwise challenging any new PEL promulgated by OSHA on remand.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Withdrawal of Petitions and Interventions.</I> SFIC agrees to move to withdraw its Petition for Review in the above-captioned case, Case No. 06-2272, within five (5) working days of the execution of this Agreement. SFIC further will move to dismiss its motion to intervene in Case No. 06-1818 and all other challenges simultaneously with its motion to withdraw in Case No. 06-2272 as Petitioner.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Attorneys' fees.</I> Each party agrees to bear its own attorneys' fees, costs, and other expenses that have been incurred in connection with SFIC's Petition for Review, SFIC's intervention in HRG's Petition for Review, and the negotiation of this Agreement up to and including filing of the motions to dismiss.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Support of Agreement.</I> In the event that all or any portion of this Agreement is challenged in any forum, the signatories below agree to move to intervene in support of this Agreement.
</P>
<P>Agreed to this 25th day of October, 2006.
</P>
<FP-1>Baruch A. Fellner,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Counsel for SFIC, Gibson, Dunn &amp; Crutcher LLP, 1050 Connecticut Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20036, (202) 955-8500.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lauren S. Goodman,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Counsel for OSHA, United States Department of Labor, Office of the Solicitor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210, (202) 693-5445.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Scott L. Nelson,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Counsel for HRG and the Steelworkers, Public Citizen Litigation Group, 1600 20th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20009, (202) 588-7724.
</FP-1>
<HD1>Exhibit A 
</HD1>
<HD1>Available Engineering and Work Practice Controls
</HD1>
<P>The Companies agree that work towards the implementation of these available engineering and work practice controls should not be delayed to accommodate their completion by December 31, 2008. The Companies are encouraged to implement from among these controls as soon as practicable.
</P>
<HD2>1. Parts Transfer Practices
</HD2>
<P>• <I>Minimize droplet formation.</I> Instruments akin to garden hoses are used to rinse off parts coming out of chemical baths. This causes many small droplets to form, which are easily atomized or vaporized and contribute to airborne chromium concentration. The industry is currently developing ways to minimize the formation of small droplets, dripping, or splashing, possibly by reducing hose pressure.
</P>
<P>• <I>Minimize air current flow.</I> Strong air currents across these droplets may contribute to their vaporization, and therefore minimizing air current flow across the droplets may reduce airborne hexavalent chromium levels.
</P>
<P>• <I>Slow part speeds as feasible.</I> The speed at which parts are pulled out of a chemical tank causes splashing, which adds to chromium vaporization. By slowing the speed at which parts are taken out of tanks, splashing and vaporization can be minimized. The feasibility of this control must be evaluated in light of the negative effect on productivity.
</P>
<HD2>2. Plating Bath Surface Tension Management and Fume Suppression
</HD2>
<P>• <I>Lower surface tension.</I> Lower surface tension in chemical baths leads to fewer drops forming. Chromium baths currently have a surface tension of 35 dynes per centimeter. As a comparison, water has a surface tension of 72 dynes per centimeter. Lowering surface tension further would lead to reduced airborne hexavalent chromium levels.
</P>
<P>• <I>Fume suppressants.</I> Fume suppressants create a physical barrier between the chemical bath and the air, which prevents vaporization. Some suppressants, however, may cause pitting or other metal damage, and therefore their use is not always possible.
</P>
<HD2>3. Facility Air Disturbance Monitoring
</HD2>
<P>• <I>Improvement of local exhaust ventilation (LEV) capture efficiency.</I> The majority of electroplating facilities are not air-conditioned. As a result, doors are kept open to let in cool air, but this causes air currents that prevent the LEVs from performing efficiently. The use of fans has a similar effect. Industry is researching how to minimize these air currents so that LEVs can perform as designed. Such methods may include the use of partitions to degrade air current flow, or checklists that may include location and positioning of cross drafts, fans, doors, windows, partitions and process equipment that Companies can use to audit their workplaces in order to improve their capture efficiency.
</P>
<HD2>4. Technology Enhancements In Lieu of LEV Retrofitting
</HD2>
<P>• <I>Eductors.</I> Many chemical baths are currently mixed via air agitation: Air pipes bubble air into the tank to keep the chemicals mixed and to prevent them from settling. An adverse effect of this agitation is that air bubbles escape at the surface of the tank, resulting in some chromium vaporization. By using eductors (horn-shaped nozzles) in tanks, the chemicals flow from a pump to create solution movement below the surface without the use of air bubbles, and the amount of chromium vaporization can be significantly reduced.
</P>
<HD2>5. Different Means of Chromium Additions
</HD2>
<P>• <I>Liquid Chromium.</I> Dry hexavalent chromium flakes are occasionally added to tanks, which can generate airborne particulates of hexavalent chromium. Adding liquid chromium at or near the surface of a tank would lower airborne chromium levels and reduce splashing from tanks.
</P>
<P>• <I>Hydration of flakes before addition.</I> To add liquid chromium to tanks, the dry flakes must be hydrated. Whether this process is performed by chemical suppliers that provide plating solutions to metal finishing companies or by metal finishing companies that have the necessary experience and equipment, appropriate work practices such as mixing techniques must be implemented to minimize the potential airborne levels of hexavalent chromium.
</P>
<HD2>6. Dust Control
</HD2>
<P>• <I>Better housekeeping.</I> Chrome dust that comes off products that are polished or grinded is actually elemental chromium, not hexavalent chromium, so polishing and grinding contribute little to airborne hexavalent chromium levels. However, Companies should use good housekeeping practices, including wet mopping, and wet wipedowns, to reduce the amount of dust present.
</P>
<HD2>7. Improvement and Maintenance of Existing LEVs
</HD2>
<P>• <I>Improvement and maintenance of existing LEVs.</I> Companies may repair and maintain their current LEVs. Because the final rule indicates that at least 75 percent of the industry is in compliance with the PEL with LEVs working at 40% of capacity, increasing LEV function can materially affect compliance.
</P>
<HD2>8. Other Controls
</HD2>
<P>• <I>Other methods.</I> Companies are constantly determining best work practices and technological controls through laboratory research and practical experience. Companies will implement other engineering and work practice controls as necessary and as practicable to reduce potential hexavalent chromium workplace exposures.
</P>
<HD1>Exhibit B 
</HD1>
<HD1>Workplace Tasks Requiring Respirators Where PEL Is Exceeded
</HD1>
<P>Some well-known and relatively few, discrete tasks related to metal finishing activities result in potentially higher workplace exposures of hexavalent chromium. Where the applicable PEL for hexavalent chromium is exceeded, respirators shall be worn to conduct the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Hexavalent chromium chemical additions. In order to have the metal deposited onto the part, hexavalent chromium must be added to the plating tank periodically. This is a discrete activity that involves the addition of either a dry flake of hexavalent chromium chemicals or a liquid solution of hexavalent chromium into the plating tank. Respirators shall be worn during the period it takes to add the hexavalent chromium chemical to the tank.
</P>
<P>(2) Hexavalent chromium preparation and mixing. Different mixtures of hexavalent chromium chemicals are needed for different types of chromium plating processes. For example, hard chromium plating can require higher concentrations of hexavalent chromium because a thicker coating and longer plating process may be needed for the critical product quality and performance. Similarly, different types of decorative chromium plating processes may need different levels of hexavalent chromium and other chemicals such as catalysts. These mixtures can be in the form of dry flakes or liquid solutions. All of these different hexavalent chromium chemical mixtures are generally prepared by metal finishing suppliers and distributors. Some metal finishing companies may also prepare hexavalent chromium solutions from the dry flakes prior to addition to the plating tanks. Respirators shall be worn during the period it takes to prepare these hexavalent chromium mixtures and solutions whether the activity is conducted at a chemical supplier or a metal finishing company.
</P>
<P>(3) Hexavalent chromium tank cleaning. Occasionally, the tanks used for chromium plating may need to be emptied and cleaned. This process would involve the draining of the solution and then the removal of any residues in the tank. Workers cleaning out these tanks may have to enter the tank or reach into it to remove the residues. Respirators (as well as other appropriate PPE) shall be worn during the period it takes to clean the tanks and prepare them for use again.
</P>
<P>(4) Hexavalent chromium painting operations. Some metal finishing operations apply paints with higher concentrations of hexavalent chromium to a line of parts, particularly for aerospace applications when a high degree of corrosion protection is needed for critical product performance. Paints are generally applied in such operations with some type of spray mechanism or similar dispersion practice. In some instances, it may be difficult to keep workplace exposures below the PEL for such paint spraying activities. Respirators shall be worn during such spray painting operations.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 10374, Feb. 28, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 63242, Oct. 30, 2006; 73 FR 75585, Dec. 12, 2008; 75 FR 12686, Mar. 17, 2010; 77 FR 17781, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1027" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1027   Cadmium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This standard applies to all occupational exposures to cadmium and cadmium compounds, in all forms, and in all industries covered by the Occupational Safety and Health Act, except the construction-related industries, which are covered under 29 CFR 1926.63.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Action level</I> (AL) is defined as an airborne concentration of cadmium of 2.5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (2.5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person authorized by the employer and required by work duties to be present in regulated areas or any person authorized by the OSH Act or regulations issued under it to be in regulated areas.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> and similar language referring to the air cadmium level to which an employee is exposed means the exposure to airborne cadmium that would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Final medical determination</I> is the written medical opinion of the employee's health status by the examining physician under paragraphs (l)(3)-(12) of this section or, if multiple physician review under paragraph (l)(13) of this section or the alternative physician determination under paragraph (l)(14) of this section is invoked, it is the final, written medical finding, recommendation or determination that emerges from that process.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter</I> means a filter capable of trapping and retaining at least 99.97 percent of mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area demarcated by the employer where an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of cadmium exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed the permissible exposure limit (PEL).
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this cadmium standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL).</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of cadmium in excess of five micrograms per cubic meter of air (5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), calculated as an eight-hour time-weighted average exposure (TWA).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this section shall determine if any employee may be exposed to cadmium at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that reflect the monitored employee's regular, daily 8-hour TWA exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>(iii) Eight-hour TWA exposures shall be determined for each employee on the basis of one or more personal breathing zone air samples reflecting full shift exposure on each shift, for each job classification, in each work area. Where several employees perform the same job tasks, in the same job classification, on the same shift, in the same work area, and the length, duration, and level of cadmium exposures are similar, an employer may sample a representative fraction of the employees instead of all employees in order to meet this requirement. In representative sampling, the employer shall sample the employee(s) expected to have the highest cadmium exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific.</I> (i) Initial monitoring. Except as provided for in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) and (d)(2)(iii) of this section, the employer shall monitor employee exposures and shall base initial determinations on the monitoring results.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer has monitored after September 14, 1991, under conditions that in all important aspects closely resemble those currently prevailing and where that monitoring satisfies all other requirements of this section, including the accuracy and confidence levels of paragraph (d)(6) of this section, the employer may rely on such earlier monitoring results to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer has objective data, as defined in paragraph (n)(2) of this section, demonstrating that employee exposure to cadmium will not exceed the action level under the expected conditions of processing, use, or handling, the employer may rely upon such data instead of implementing initial monitoring.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Monitoring Frequency (periodic monitoring).</I> (i) If the initial monitoring or periodic monitoring reveals employee exposures to be at or above the action level, the employer shall monitor at a frequency and pattern needed to represent the levels of exposure of employees and where exposures are above the PEL to assure the adequacy of respiratory selection and the effectiveness of engineering and work practice controls. However, such exposure monitoring shall be performed at least every six months. The employer, at a minimum, shall continue these semi-annual measurements unless and until the conditions set out in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the initial monitoring or the periodic monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level and that result is confirmed by the results of another monitoring taken at least seven days later, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional Monitoring.</I> The employer also shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (d)(3) of this section whenever there has been a change in the raw materials, equipment, personnel, work practices, or finished products that may result in additional employees being exposed to cadmium at or above the action level or in employees already exposed to cadmium at or above the action level being exposed above the PEL, or whenever the employer has any reason to suspect that any other change might result in such further exposure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee Notification of Monitoring Results.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever monitoring results indicate that employee exposure exceeds the PEL, the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that the PEL has been exceeded and a description of the corrective action being taken by the employer to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> The employer shall use a method of monitoring and analysis that has an accuracy of not less than plus or minus 25 percent (±25%), with a confidence level of 95 percent, for airborne concentrations of cadmium at or above the action level, the permissible exposure limit (PEL), and the separate engineering control air limit (SECAL).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> The employer shall establish a regulated area wherever an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of cadmium is, or can reasonably be expected to be in excess of the permissible exposure limit (PEL).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> Regulated areas shall be demarcated from the rest of the workplace in any manner that adequately establishes and alerts employees of the boundaries of the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision of respirators.</I> Each person entering a regulated area shall be supplied with and required to use a respirator, selected in accordance with paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall assure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in regulated areas, carry the products associated with these activities into regulated areas, or store such products in those areas.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Compliance hierarchy.</I> (i) Except as specified in paragraphs (f)(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv) of this section the employer shall implement engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to cadmium at or below the PEL, except to the extent that the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as specified in paragraphs (f)(1) (iii) and (iv) of this section, in industries where a separate engineering control air limit (SECAL) has been specified for particular processes (See Table 1 in this paragraph (f)(1)(ii)), the employer shall implement engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure at or below the SECAL, except to the extent that the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I—Separate Engineering Control Airborne Limits (SECALs) for Processes in Selected Industries
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industry
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Process
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SECAL (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel cadmium battery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plate making, plate preparation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All other processes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc/Cadmium refining*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium refining, casting, melting, oxide production, sinter plant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pigment manufacture</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calcine, crushing, milling, blending</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All other processes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stabilizers*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium oxide charging, crushing, drying, blending</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead smelting*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sinter plant, blast furnace, baghouse, yard area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plating*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mechanical plating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*Processes in these industries that are not specified in this table must achieve the PEL using engineering controls and work practices as required in f(1)(i).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) The requirement to implement engineering and work practice controls to achieve the PEL or, where applicable, the SECAL does not apply where the employer demonstrates the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee is only intermittently exposed; and
</P>
<P>(B) The employee is not exposed above the PEL on 30 or more days per year (12 consecutive months).
</P>
<P>(iv) Wherever engineering and work practice controls are required and are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL or, where applicable, the SECAL, the employer nonetheless shall implement such controls to reduce exposures to the lowest levels achievable. The employer shall supplement such controls with respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section and the PEL.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall not use employee rotation as a method of compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Where the PEL is exceeded, the employer shall establish and implement a written compliance program to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL by means of engineering and work practice controls, as required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section. To the extent that engineering and work practice controls cannot reduce exposures to or below the PEL, the employer shall include in the written compliance program the use of appropriate respiratory protection to achieve compliance with the PEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) Written compliance programs shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each operation in which cadmium is emitted; e.g., machinery used, material processed, controls in place, crew size, employee job responsibilities, operating procedures, and maintenance practices;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the specific means that will be employed to achieve compliance, including engineering plans and studies used to determine methods selected for controlling exposure to cadmium, as well as, where necessary, the use of appropriate respiratory protection to achieve the PEL;
</P>
<P>(C) A report of the technology considered in meeting the PEL;
</P>
<P>(D) Air monitoring data that document the sources of cadmium emissions;
</P>
<P>(E) A detailed schedule for implementation of the program, including documentation such as copies of purchase orders for equipment, construction contracts, etc.;
</P>
<P>(F) A work practice program that includes items required under paragraphs (h), (i), and (j) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) A written plan for emergency situations, as specified in paragraph (h) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(H) Other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The written compliance programs shall be reviewed and updated at least annually, or more often if necessary, to reflect significant changes in the employer's compliance status.
</P>
<P>(iv) Written compliance programs shall be provided upon request for examination and copying to affected employees, designated employee representatives as well as to the Assistant Secretary, and the Director.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mechanical ventilation.</I> (i) When ventilation is used to control exposure, measurements that demonstrate the effectiveness of the system in controlling exposure, such as capture velocity, duct velocity, or static pressure shall be made as necessary to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) Measurements of the system's effectiveness in controlling exposure shall be made as necessary within five working days of any change in production, process, or control that might result in a significant increase in employee exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>(iii) Recirculation of air. If air from exhaust ventilation is recirculated into the workplace, the system shall have a high efficiency filter and be monitored to assure effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures shall be developed and implemented to minimize employee exposure to cadmium when maintenance of ventilation systems and changing of filters is being conducted.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls when employee exposure levels exceed the PEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintenance and repair activities, and brief or intermittent operations, for which employee exposures exceed the PEL and engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible or are not required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Activities in regulated areas specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Work operations for which the employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work-practice controls and such controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(v) Work operations for which an employee is exposed to cadmium at or above the action level, and the employee requests a respirator.
</P>
<P>(vi) Work operations for which an employee is exposed to cadmium above the PEL and engineering controls are not required by paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) No employees must use a respirator if, based on their most recent medical examination, the examining physician determines that they will be unable to continue to function normally while using a respirator. If the physician determines that the employee must be limited in, or removed from, their current job because of their inability to use a respirator, the limitation or removal must be in accordance with paragraphs (l) (11) and (12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an employee has breathing difficulty during fit testing or respirator use, the employer must provide the employee with a medical examination in accordance with paragraph (l)(6)(ii) of this section to determine if the employee can use a respirator while performing the required duties.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide employees with full facepiece respirators when they experience eye irritation.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must provide an employee with a powered air-purifying respirator instead of a negative-pressure respirator when an employee who is entitled to a respirator chooses to use this type of respirator and such a respirator provides adequate protection to the employee.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Emergency situations.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a written plan for dealing with emergency situations involving substantial releases of airborne cadmium. The plan shall include provisions for the use of appropriate respirators and personal protective equipment. In addition, employees not essential to correcting the emergency situation shall be restricted from the area and normal operations halted in that area until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> If an employee is exposed to airborne cadmium above the PEL or where skin or eye irritation is associated with cadmium exposure at any level, the employer shall provide at no cost to the employee, and assure that the employee uses, appropriate protective work clothing and equipment that prevents contamination of the employee and the employee's garments. Protective work clothing and equipment includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Coveralls or similar full-body work clothing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gloves, head coverings, and boots or foot coverings; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields, vented goggles, or other appropriate protective equipment that complies with 29 CFR 1910.133.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees remove all protective clothing and equipment contaminated with cadmium at the completion of the work shift and do so only in change rooms provided in accordance with paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that no employee takes cadmium-contaminated protective clothing or equipment from the workplace, except for employees authorized to do so for purposes of laundering, cleaning, maintaining, or disposing of cadmium contaminated protective clothing and equipment at an appropriate location or facility away from the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that contaminated protective clothing and equipment, when removed for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal, is placed and stored in sealed, impermeable bags or other closed, impermeable containers that are designed to prevent dispersion of cadmium dust.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that bags or containers of contaminated protective clothing and equipment that are to be taken out of the change rooms or the workplace for laundering, cleaning, maintenance or disposal shall bear labels in accordance with paragraph (m)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning, replacement, and disposal.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section in a clean and dry condition as often as necessary to maintain its effectiveness, but in any event at least weekly. The employer is responsible for cleaning and laundering the protective clothing and equipment required by this paragraph to maintain its effectiveness and is also responsible for disposing of such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer also is responsible for repairing or replacing required protective clothing and equipment as needed to maintain its effectiveness. When rips or tears are detected while an employee is working they shall be immediately mended, or the worksuit shall be immediately replaced.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of cadmium from protective clothing and equipment by blowing, shaking, or any other means that disperses cadmium into the air.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that any laundering of contaminated clothing or cleaning of contaminated equipment in the workplace is done in a manner that prevents the release of airborne cadmium in excess of the permissible exposure limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment contaminated with cadmium of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to cadmium and that the clothing and equipment should be laundered or cleaned in a manner to effectively prevent the release of airborne cadmium in excess of the PEL.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hygiene areas and practices</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees whose airborne exposure to cadmium is above the PEL, the employer shall provide clean change rooms, handwashing facilities, showers, and lunchroom facilities that comply with 29 CFR 1910.141.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall assure that change rooms are equipped with separate storage facilities for street clothes and for protective clothing and equipment, which are designed to prevent dispersion of cadmium and contamination of the employee's street clothes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Showers and handwashing facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees who are exposed to cadmium above the PEL shower during the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that employees whose airborne exposure to cadmium is above the PEL wash their hands and faces prior to eating, drinking, smoking, chewing tobacco or gum, or applying cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lunchroom facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that the lunchroom facilities are readily accessible to employees, that tables for eating are maintained free of cadmium, and that no employee in a lunchroom facility is exposed at any time to cadmium at or above a concentration of 2.5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that employees do not enter lunchroom facilities with protective work clothing or equipment unless surface cadmium has been removed from the clothing and equipment by HEPA vacuuming or some other method that removes cadmium dust without dispersing it.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) All surfaces shall be maintained as free as practicable of accumulations of cadmium.
</P>
<P>(2) All spills and sudden releases of material containing cadmium shall be cleaned up as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(3) Surfaces contaminated with cadmium shall, wherever possible, be cleaned by vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of cadmium becoming airborne.
</P>
<P>(4) HEPA-filtered vacuuming equipment or equally effective filtration methods shall be used for vacuuming. The equipment shall be used and emptied in a manner that minimizes the reentry of cadmium into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(5) Shoveling, dry or wet sweeping, and brushing may be used only where vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of cadmium becoming airborne have been tried and found not to be effective.
</P>
<P>(6) Compressed air shall not be used to remove cadmium from any surface unless the compressed air is used in conjunction with a ventilation system designed to capture the dust cloud created by the compressed air.
</P>
<P>(7) Waste, scrap, debris, bags, containers, personal protective equipment, and clothing contaminated with cadmium and consigned for disposal shall be collected and disposed of in sealed impermeable bags or other closed, impermeable containers. These bags and containers shall be labeled in accordance with paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> (A) Currently exposed—The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or may be exposed to cadmium at or above the action level unless the employer demonstrates that the employee is not, and will not be, exposed at or above the action level on 30 or more days per year (twelve consecutive months); and,
</P>
<P>(B) Previously exposed—The employer shall also institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who prior to the effective date of this section might previously have been exposed to cadmium at or above the action level by the employer, unless the employer demonstrates that the employee did not prior to the effective date of this section work for the employer in jobs with exposure to cadmium for an aggregated total of more than 60 months.
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<P>(ii) To determine an employee's fitness for using a respirator, the employer shall provide the limited medical examination specified in paragraph (l)(6) of this section.
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<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this standard are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, who has read and is familiar with the health effects section of appendix A to this section, the regulatory text of this section, the protocol for sample handling and laboratory selection in appendix F to this section, and the questionnaire of appendix D to this section. These examinations and procedures shall be provided without cost to the employee and at a time and place that is reasonable and convenient to employees.
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<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that the collecting and handling of biological samples of cadmium in urine (CdU), cadmium in blood (CdB), and beta-2 microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M) taken from employees under this section is done in a manner that assures their reliability and that analysis of biological samples of cadmium in urine (CdU), cadmium in blood (CdB), and beta-2 microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M) taken from employees under this section is performed in laboratories with demonstrated proficiency for that particular analyte. (See appendix F to this section.)
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<P>(2) <I>Initial examination.</I> (i) The employer shall provide an initial (preplacement) examination to all employees covered by the medical surveillance program required in paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section. The examination shall be provided to those employees within 30 days after initial assignment to a job with exposure to cadmium or no later than 90 days after the effective date of this section, whichever date is later.
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<P>(ii) The initial (preplacement) medical examination shall include:
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<P>(A) A detailed medical and work history, with emphasis on: Past, present, and anticipated future exposure to cadmium; any history of renal, cardiovascular, respiratory, hematopoietic, reproductive, and/or musculo-skeletal system dysfunction; current usage of medication with potential nephrotoxic side-effects; and smoking history and current status; and
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<P>(B) Biological monitoring that includes the following tests:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Cadmium in urine (CdU), standardized to grams of creatinine (g/Cr);
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Beta-2 microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M), standardized to grams of creatinine (g/Cr), with pH specified, as described in appendix F to this section; and
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<P>(<I>3</I>) Cadmium in blood (CdB), standardized to liters of whole blood (lwb).
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<P>(iii) Recent Examination: An initial examination is not required to be provided if adequate records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section within the past 12 months. In that case, such records shall be maintained as part of the employee's medical record and the prior exam shall be treated as if it were an initial examination for the purposes of paragraphs (l)(3) and (4) of this section.
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<P>(3) <I>Actions triggered by initial biological monitoring:</I> (i) If the results of the initial biological monitoring tests show the employee's CdU level to be at or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level to be at or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level to be at or below 5 µg/lwb, then:
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<P>(A) For currently exposed employees, who are subject to medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i)(A) of this section, the employer shall provide the minimum level of periodic medical surveillance in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (l)(4)(i) of this section; and
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<P>(B) For previously exposed employees, who are subject to medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i)(B) of this section, the employer shall provide biological monitoring for CdU, β<E T="52">2</E>-M, and CdB one year after the initial biological monitoring and then the employer shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(v) of this section.
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<P>(ii) For all employees who are subject to medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, if the results of the initial biological monitoring tests show the level of CdU to exceed 3 µg/g Cr, the level of β<E T="52">2</E>-M to exceed 300 µg/g Cr, or the level of CdB to exceed 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall:
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<P>(A) Within two weeks after receipt of biological monitoring results, reassess the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium as follows:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Reassess the employee's work practices and personal hygiene;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Reevaluate the employee's respirator use, if any, and the respirator program;
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<P>(<I>3</I>) Review the hygiene facilities;
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<P>(<I>4</I>) Reevaluate the maintenance and effectiveness of the relevant engineering controls;
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<P>(<I>5</I>) Assess the employee's smoking history and status;
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<P>(B) Within 30 days after the exposure reassessment, specified in paragraph (l)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, take reasonable steps to correct any deficiencies found in the reassessment that may be responsible for the employee's excess exposure to cadmium; and,
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<P>(C) Within 90 days after receipt of biological monitoring results, provide a full medical examination to the employee in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section. After completing the medical examination, the examining physician shall determine in a written medical opinion whether to medically remove the employee. If the physician determines that medical removal is not necessary, then until the employee's CdU level falls to or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level falls to or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level falls to or below 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Provide biological monitoring in accordance with paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section on a semiannual basis; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide annual medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(iii) For all employees who are subject to medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, if the results of the initial biological monitoring tests show the level of CdU to be in excess of 15 µg/g Cr, or the level of CdB to be in excess of 15 µg/lwb, or the level of β<E T="52">2</E>-M to be in excess of 1,500 µg/g Cr, the employer shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (l)(3)(ii)(A)-(B) of this section. Within 90 days after receipt of biological monitoring results, the employer shall provide a full medical examination to the employee in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section. After completing the medical examination, the examining physician shall determine in a written medical opinion whether to medically remove the employee. However, if the initial biological monitoring results and the biological monitoring results obtained during the medical examination both show that: CdU exceeds 15 µg/g Cr; or CdB exceeds 15 µg/lwb; or β<E T="52">2</E>-M exceeds 1500 µg/g Cr, and in addition CdU exceeds 3 µg/g Cr or CdB exceeds 5 µg/liter of whole blood, then the physician shall medically remove the employee from exposure to cadmium at or above the action level. If the second set of biological monitoring results obtained during the medical examination does not show that a mandatory removal trigger level has been exceeded, then the employee is not required to be removed by the mandatory provisions of this paragraph. If the employee is not required to be removed by the mandatory provisions of this paragraph or by the physician's determination, then until the employee's CdU level falls to or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level falls to or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level falls to or below 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall:
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<P>(A) Periodically reassess the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium;
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<P>(B) Provide biological monitoring in accordance with paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section on a quarterly basis; and
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<P>(C) Provide semiannual medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(iv) For all employees to whom medical surveillance is provided, beginning on January 1, 1999, and in lieu of paragraphs (l)(3)(i)-(iii) of this section:
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<P>(A) If the results of the initial biological monitoring tests show the employee's CdU level to be at or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level to be at or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level to be at or below 5 µg/lwb, then for currently exposed employees, the employer shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (l)(3)(i)(A) of this section, and for previously exposed employees, the employer shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (l)(3)(i)(B) of this section;
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<P>(B) If the results of the initial biological monitoring tests show the level of CdU to exceed 3 µg/g Cr, the level of β<E T="52">2</E>-M to exceed 300 µg/g Cr, or the level of CdB to exceed 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (l)(3)(ii)(A)-(C) of this section; and,
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<P>(C) If the results of the initial biological monitoring tests show the level of CdU to be in excess of 7 µg/g Cr, or the level of CdB to be in excess of 10 µg/lwb, or the level of β<E T="52">2</E>-M to be in excess of 750 µg/g Cr, the employer shall: Comply with the requirements of paragraphs (l)(3)(ii)(A)-(B) of this section; and, within 90 days after receipt of biological monitoring results, provide a full medical examination to the employee in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section. After completing the medical examination, the examining physician shall determine in a written medical opinion whether to medically remove the employee. However, if the initial biological monitoring results and the biological monitoring results obtained during the medical examination both show that: CdU exceeds 7 µg/g Cr; or CdB exceeds 10 µg/lwb; or β<E T="52">2</E>-M exceeds 750 µg/g Cr, and in addition CdU exceeds 3 µg/g Cr or CdB exceeds 5 µg/liter of whole blood, then the physician shall medically remove the employee from exposure to cadmium at or above the action level. If the second set of biological monitoring results obtained during the medical examination does not show that a mandatory removal trigger level has been exceeded, then the employee is not required to be removed by the mandatory provisions of this paragraph. If the employee is not required to be removed by the mandatory provisions of this paragraph or by the physician's determination, then until the employee's CdU level falls to or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level falls to or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level falls to or below 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall: periodically reassess the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium; provide biological monitoring in accordance with paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section on a quarterly basis; and provide semiannual medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(4) <I>Periodic medical surveillance.</I> (i) For each employee who is covered under paragraph (l)(1)(i)(A) of this section, the employer shall provide at least the minimum level of periodic medical surveillance, which consists of periodic medical examinations and periodic biological monitoring. A periodic medical examination shall be provided within one year after the initial examination required by paragraph (l)(2) of this section and thereafter at least biennially. Biological sampling shall be provided at least annually, either as part of a periodic medical examination or separately as periodic biological monitoring.
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<P>(ii) The periodic medical examination shall include:
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<P>(A) A detailed medical and work history, or update thereof, with emphasis on: Past, present and anticipated future exposure to cadmium; smoking history and current status; reproductive history; current use of medications with potential nephrotoxic side-effects; any history of renal, cardiovascular, respiratory, hematopoietic, and/or musculo-skeletal system dysfunction; and as part of the medical and work history, for employees who wear respirators, questions 3-11 and 25-32 in appendix D to this section;
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<P>(B) A complete physical examination with emphasis on: Blood pressure, the respiratory system, and the urinary system;
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<P>(C) A 14 inch by 17 inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray (after the initial X-ray, the frequency of chest X-rays is to be determined by the examining physician);
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<P>(D) Pulmonary function tests, including forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV1);
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<P>(E) Biological monitoring, as required in paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section;
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<P>(F) Blood analysis, in addition to the analysis required under paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, including blood urea nitrogen, complete blood count, and serum creatinine;
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<P>(G) Urinalysis, in addition to the analysis required under paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, including the determination of albumin, glucose, and total and low molecular weight proteins;
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<P>(H) For males over 40 years old, prostate palpation, or other at least as effective diagnostic test(s); and
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<P>(I) Any additional tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician.
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<P>(iii) Periodic biological monitoring shall be provided in accordance with paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
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<P>(iv) If the results of periodic biological monitoring or the results of biological monitoring performed as part of the periodic medical examination show the level of the employee's CdU, β<E T="52">2</E>-M, or CdB to be in excess of the levels specified in paragraphs (l)(3)(ii) or (iii); or, beginning on January 1, 1999, in excess of the levels specified in paragraphs (l)(3)(ii) or (iv) of this section, the employer shall take the appropriate actions specified in paragraphs (l)(3)(ii)-(iv) of this section.
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<P>(v) For previously exposed employees under paragraph (l)(1)(i)(B) of this section:
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<P>(A) If the employee's levels of CdU did not exceed 3 µg/g Cr, CdB did not exceed 5 µg/lwb, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M did not exceed 300 µg/g Cr in the initial biological monitoring tests, and if the results of the followup biological monitoring required by paragraph (l)(3)(i)(B) of this section one year after the initial examination confirm the previous results, the employer may discontinue all periodic medical surveillance for that employee.
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<P>(B) If the initial biological monitoring results for CdU, CdB, or β<E T="52">2</E>-M were in excess of the levels specified in paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section, but subsequent biological monitoring results required by paragraph (l)(3)(ii)-(iv) of this section show that the employee's CdU levels no longer exceed 3 µg/g Cr, CdB levels no longer exceed 5 µg/lwb, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M levels no longer exceed 300 µg/g Cr, the employer shall provide biological monitoring for CdU, CdB, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M one year after these most recent biological monitoring results. If the results of the followup biological monitoring, specified in this paragraph, confirm the previous results, the employer may discontinue all periodic medical surveillance for that employee.
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<P>(C) However, if the results of the follow-up tests specified in paragraph (l)(4)(v)(A) or (B) of this section indicate that the level of the employee's CdU, β<E T="52">2</E>-M, or CdB exceeds these same levels, the employer is required to provide annual medical examinations in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section until the results of biological monitoring are consistently below these levels or the examining physician determines in a written medical opinion that further medical surveillance is not required to protect the employee's health.
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<P>(vi) A routine, biennial medical examination is not required to be provided in accordance with paragraphs (l)(3)(i) and (l)(4) of this section if adequate medical records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section within the past 12 months. In that case, such records shall be maintained by the employer as part of the employee's medical record, and the next routine, periodic medical examination shall be made available to the employee within two years of the previous examination.
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<P>(5) <I>Actions triggered by medical examinations.</I> (i) If the results of a medical examination carried out in accordance with this section indicate any laboratory or clinical finding consistent with cadmium toxicity that does not require employer action under paragraph (l)(2), (3) or (4) of this section, the employer, within 30 days, shall reassess the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium and take the following corrective action until the physician determines they are no longer necessary:
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<P>(A) Periodically reassess: The employee's work practices and personal hygiene; the employee's respirator use, if any; the employee's smoking history and status; the respiratory protection program; the hygiene facilities; and the maintenance and effectiveness of the relevant engineering controls;
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<P>(B) Within 30 days after the reassessment, take all reasonable steps to correct the deficiencies found in the reassessment that may be responsible for the employee's excess exposure to cadmium;
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<P>(C) Provide semiannual medical reexaminations to evaluate the abnormal clinical sign(s) of cadmium toxicity until the results are normal or the employee is medically removed; and
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<P>(D) Where the results of tests for total proteins in urine are abnormal, provide a more detailed medical evaluation of the toxic effects of cadmium on the employee's renal system.
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<P>(6) <I>Examination for respirator use.</I> (i) To determine an employee's fitness for respirator use, the employer shall provide a medical examination that includes the elements specified in paragraph (l)(6)(i)(A)-(D) of this section. This examination shall be provided prior to the employee's being assigned to a job that requires the use of a respirator or no later than 90 days after this section goes into effect, whichever date is later, to any employee without a medical examination within the preceding 12 months that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph.
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<P>(A) A detailed medical and work history, or update thereof, with emphasis on: Past exposure to cadmium; smoking history and current status; any history of renal, cardiovascular, respiratory, hematopoietic, and/or musculoskeletal system dysfunction; a description of the job for which the respirator is required; and questions 3-11 and 25-32 in appendix D to this section;
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<P>(B) A blood pressure test;
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<P>(C) Biological monitoring of the employee's levels of CdU, CdB and β<E T="52">2</E>-M in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, unless such results already have been obtained within the previous 12 months; and
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<P>(D) Any other test or procedure that the examining physician deems appropriate.
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<P>(ii) After reviewing all the information obtained from the medical examination required in paragraph (l)(6)(i) of this section, the physician shall determine whether the employee is fit to wear a respirator.
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<P>(iii) Whenever an employee has exhibited difficulty in breathing during a respirator fit test or during use of a respirator, the employer, as soon as possible, shall provide the employee with a periodic medical examination in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section to determine the employee's fitness to wear a respirator.
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<P>(iv) Where the results of the examination required under paragraph (l)(6)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section are abnormal, medical limitation or prohibition of respirator use shall be considered. If the employee is allowed to wear a respirator, the employee's ability to continue to do so shall be periodically evaluated by a physician.
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<P>(7) <I>Emergency examinations.</I> (i) In addition to the medical surveillance required in paragraphs (l)(2)-(6) of this section, the employer shall provide a medical examination as soon as possible to any employee who may have been acutely exposed to cadmium because of an emergency.
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<P>(ii) The examination shall include the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section, with emphasis on the respiratory system, other organ systems considered appropriate by the examining physician, and symptoms of acute overexposure, as identified in paragraphs II (B)(1)-(2) and IV of appendix A to this section.
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<P>(8) <I>Termination of employment examination.</I> (i) At termination of employment, the employer shall provide a medical examination in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section, including a chest X-ray, to any employee to whom at any prior time the employer was required to provide medical surveillance under paragraphs (l)(1)(i) or (l)(7) of this section. However, if the last examination satisfied the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section and was less than six months prior to the date of termination, no further examination is required unless otherwise specified in paragraphs (l)(3) or (l)(5) of this section;
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<P>(ii) However, for employees covered by paragraph (l)(1)(i)(B) of this section, if the employer has discontinued all periodic medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(4)(v) of this section, no termination of employment medical examination is required.
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<P>(9) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
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<P>(i) A copy of this standard and appendices;
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<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium;
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<P>(iii) The employee's former, current, and anticipated future levels of occupational exposure to cadmium;
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<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective equipment, including respirators, used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used that equipment; and
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<P>(v) relevant results of previous biological monitoring and medical examinations.
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<P>(10) <I>Physician's written medical opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall promptly obtain a written, medical opinion from the examining physician for each medical examination performed on each employee. This written opinion shall contain:
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<P>(A) The physician's diagnosis for the employee;
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<P>(B) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from further exposure to cadmium, including any indications of potential cadmium toxicity;
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<P>(C) The results of any biological or other testing or related evaluations that directly assess the employee's absorption of cadmium;
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<P>(D) Any recommended removal from, or limitation on the activities or duties of the employee or on the employee's use of personal protective equipment, such as respirators;
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<P>(E) A statement that the physician has clearly and carefully explained to the employee the results of the medical examination, including all biological monitoring results and any medical conditions related to cadmium exposure that require further evaluation or treatment, and any limitation on the employee's diet or use of medications.
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<P>(ii) The employer promptly shall obtain a copy of the results of any biological monitoring provided by an employer to an employee independently of a medical examination under paragraphs (l)(2) and (l)(4) of this section, and, in lieu of a written medical opinion, an explanation sheet explaining those results.
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<P>(iii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal orally or in the written medical opinion given to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to cadmium.
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<P>(11) <I>Medical Removal Protection (MRP)</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> (A) The employer shall temporarily remove an employee from work where there is excess exposure to cadmium on each occasion that medical removal is required under paragraph (l)(3), (l)(4), or (l)(6) of this section and on each occasion that a physician determines in a written medical opinion that the employee should be removed from such exposure. The physician's determination may be based on biological monitoring results, inability to wear a respirator, evidence of illness, other signs or symptoms of cadmium-related dysfunction or disease, or any other reason deemed medically sufficient by the physician.
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<P>(B) The employer shall medically remove an employee in accordance with paragraph (l)(11) of this section regardless of whether at the time of removal a job is available into which the removed employee may be transferred.
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<P>(C) Whenever an employee is medically removed under paragraph (l)(11) of this section, the employer shall transfer the removed employee to a job where the exposure to cadmium is within the permissible levels specified in that paragraph as soon as one becomes available.
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<P>(D) For any employee who is medically removed under the provisions of paragraph (l)(11)(i) of this section, the employer shall provide follow-up biological monitoring in accordance with (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section at least every three months and follow-up medical examinations semi-annually at least every six months until in a written medical opinion the examining physician determines that either the employee may be returned to his/her former job status as specified under paragraph (l)(11)(iv)-(v) of this section or the employee must be permanently removed from excess cadmium exposure.
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<P>(E) The employer may not return an employee who has been medically removed for any reason to his/her former job status until a physician determines in a written medical opinion that continued medical removal is no longer necessary to protect the employee's health.
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<P>(ii) Where an employee is found unfit to wear a respirator under paragraph (l)(6)(ii) of this section, the employer shall remove the employee from work where exposure to cadmium is above the PEL.
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<P>(iii) Where removal is based on any reason other than the employee's inability to wear a respirator, the employer shall remove the employee from work where exposure to cadmium is at or above the action level.
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<P>(iv) Except as specified in paragraph (l)(11)(v) of this section, no employee who was removed because his/her level of CdU, CdB and/or β<E T="52">2</E>-M exceeded the medical removal trigger levels in paragraph (l)(3) or (l)(4) of this section may be returned to work with exposure to cadmium at or above the action level until the employee's levels of CdU fall to or below 3 µg/g Cr, CdB falls to or below 5 µg/lwb, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M falls to or below 300 µg/g Cr.
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<P>(v) However, when in the examining physician's opinion continued exposure to cadmium will not pose an increased risk to the employee's health and there are special circumstances that make continued medical removal an inappropriate remedy, the physician shall fully discuss these matters with the employee, and then in a written determination may return a worker to his/her former job status despite what would otherwise be unacceptably high biological monitoring results. Thereafter, the returned employee shall continue to be provided with medical surveillance as if he/she were still on medical removal until the employee's levels of CdU fall to or below 3 µg/g Cr, CdB falls to or below 5 µg/lwb, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M falls to or below 300 µg/g Cr.
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<P>(vi) Where an employer, although not required by paragraph (l)(11)(i)-(iii) of this section to do so, removes an employee from exposure to cadmium or otherwise places limitations on an employee due to the effects of cadmium exposure on the employee's medical condition, the employer shall provide the same medical removal protection benefits to that employee under paragraph (l)(12) of this section as would have been provided had the removal been required under paragraph (l)(11)(i)-(iii) of this section.
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<P>(12) <I>Medical Removal Protection Benefits (MRPB).</I> (i) The employer shall provide MRPB for up to a maximum of 18 months to an employee each time and while the employee is temporarily medically removed under paragraph (l)(11) of this section.
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<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, the requirement that the employer provide MRPB means that the employer shall maintain the total normal earnings, seniority, and all other employee rights and benefits of the removed employee, including the employee's right to his/her former job status, as if the employee had not been removed from the employee's job or otherwise medically limited.
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<P>(iii) Where, after 18 months on medical removal because of elevated biological monitoring results, the employee's monitoring results have not declined to a low enough level to permit the employee to be returned to his/her former job status:
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<P>(A) The employer shall make available to the employee a medical examination pursuant to this section in order to obtain a final medical determination as to whether the employee may be returned to his/her former job status or must be permanently removed from excess cadmium exposure; and
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<P>(B) The employer shall assure that the final medical determination indicates whether the employee may be returned to his/her former job status and what steps, if any, should be taken to protect the employee's health.
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<P>(iv) The employer may condition the provision of MRPB upon the employee's participation in medical surveillance provided in accordance with this section.
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<P>(13) <I>Multiple physician review.</I> (i) If the employer selects the initial physician to conduct any medical examination or consultation provided to an employee under this section, the employee may designate a second physician to:
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<P>(A) Review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the initial physician; and
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<P>(B) Conduct such examinations, consultations, and laboratory tests as the second physician deems necessary to facilitate this review.
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<P>(ii) The employer shall promptly notify an employee of the right to seek a second medical opinion after each occasion that an initial physician provided by the employer conducts a medical examination or consultation pursuant to this section. The employer may condition its participation in, and payment for, multiple physician review upon the employee doing the following within fifteen (15) days after receipt of this notice, or receipt of the initial physician's written opinion, whichever is later:
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<P>(A) Informing the employer that he or she intends to seek a medical opinion; and
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<P>(B) Initiating steps to make an appointment with a second physician.
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<P>(iii) If the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the second physician differ from those of the initial physician, then the employer and the employee shall assure that efforts are made for the two physicians to resolve any disagreement.
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<P>(iv) If the two physicians have been unable to quickly resolve their disagreement, then the employer and the employee, through their respective physicians, shall designate a third physician to:
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<P>(A) Review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the other two physicians; and
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<P>(B) Conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests, and discussions with the other two physicians as the third physician deems necessary to resolve the disagreement among them.
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<P>(v) The employer shall act consistently with the findings, determinations, and recommendations of the third physician, unless the employer and the employee reach an agreement that is consistent with the recommendations of at least one of the other two physicians.
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<P>(14) <I>Alternate physician determination.</I> The employer and an employee or designated employee representative may agree upon the use of any alternate form of physician determination in lieu of the multiple physician review provided by paragraph (l)(13) of this section, so long as the alternative is expeditious and at least as protective of the employee.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Information the employer must provide the employee.</I> (i) The employer shall provide a copy of the physician's written medical opinion to the examined employee within two weeks after receipt thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide the employee with a copy of the employee's biological monitoring results and an explanation sheet explaining the results within two weeks after receipt thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 30 days after a request by an employee, the employer shall provide the employee with the information the employer is required to provide the examining physician under paragraph (l)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Reporting.</I> In addition to other medical events that are required to be reported on the OSHA Form No. 200, the employer shall report any abnormal condition or disorder caused by occupational exposure to cadmium associated with employment as specified in Chapter (V)(E) of the Reporting Guidelines for Occupational Injuries and Illnesses.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Communication of cadmium hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for cadmium.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of cadmium at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; lung effects; kidney effects; and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include cadmium in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of cadmium and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (m)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Warning signs.</I> (i) Warning signs shall be provided and displayed in regulated areas. In addition, warning signs shall be posted at all approaches to regulated areas so that an employee may read the signs and take necessary protective steps before entering the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) Warning signs required by paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this section shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CADMIUM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS AND KIDNEYS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that signs required by this paragraph (m)(2) are illuminated, cleaned, and maintained as necessary so that the legend is readily visible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (m)(2)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CADMIUM 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAN CAUSE LUNG AND KIDNEY DISEASE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS REQUIRED IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Warning labels.</I> (i) Shipping and storage containers containing cadmium or cadmium compounds shall bear appropriate warning labels, as specified in paragraph (m)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The warning labels for containers of contaminated protective clothing, equipment, waste, scrap, or debris shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS CADMIUM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS AND KIDNEYS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on shipping and storage containers containing cadmium, cadmium compounds, or cadmium contaminated clothing, equipment, waste, scrap, or debris in lieu of the labeling requirements specified in paragraphs (m)(1)(i) and (m)(3)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS CADMIUM 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAN CAUSE LUNG AND KIDNEY DISEASE</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Where feasible, installed cadmium products shall have a visible label or other indication that cadmium is present.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee who is potentially exposed to cadmium in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program, ensure employee participation in the program, and maintain a record of the contents of such program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment to a job involving potential exposure to cadmium and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall make the training program understandable to the employee and shall assure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The health hazards associated with cadmium exposure, with special attention to the information incorporated in appendix A to this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity, location, manner of use, release, and storage of cadmium in the workplace and the specific nature of operations that could result in exposure to cadmium, especially exposures above the PEL;
</P>
<P>(C) The engineering controls and work practices associated with the employee's job assignment;
</P>
<P>(D) The measures employees can take to protect themselves from exposure to cadmium, including modification of such habits as smoking and personal hygiene, and specific procedures the employer has implemented to protect employees from exposure to cadmium such as appropriate work practices, emergency procedures, and the provision of personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(E) The purpose, proper selection, fitting, proper use, and limitations of respirators and protective clothing;
</P>
<P>(F) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (l) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) The contents of this section and its appendices; and
</P>
<P>(H) The employee's rights of access to records under § 1910.1020(e) and (g).
</P>
<P>(iv) Additional access to information and training program and materials.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall make a copy of this section and its appendices readily available without cost to all affected employees and shall provide a copy if requested.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall provide to the Assistant Secretary or the Director, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and the training program.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and keep an accurate record of all air monitoring for cadmium in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The monitoring date, duration, and results in terms of an 8-hour TWA of each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The name and job classification of the employees monitored and of all other employees whose exposures the monitoring is intended to represent;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) The type of respiratory protective device, if any, worn by the monitored employee;
</P>
<P>(E) A notation of any other conditions that might have affected the monitoring results.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data for exemption from requirement for initial monitoring.</I> (i) For purposes of this section, objective data are information demonstrating that a particular product or material containing cadmium or a specific process, operation, or activity involving cadmium cannot release dust or fumes in concentrations at or above the action level even under the worst-case release conditions. Objective data can be obtained from an industry-wide study or from laboratory product test results from manufacturers of cadmium-containing products or materials. The data the employer uses from an industry-wide survey must be obtained under workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall establish and maintain a record of the objective data for at least 30 years.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information about the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and description of the duties;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the physician's written opinions and an explanation sheet for biological monitoring results;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the medical history, and the results of any physical examination and all test results that are required to be provided by this section, including biological tests, X-rays, pulmonary function tests, etc., or that have been obtained to further evaluate any condition that might be related to cadmium exposure;
</P>
<P>(D) The employee's medical symptoms that might be related to exposure to cadmium; and
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (l)(9)(ii)-(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that this record is maintained for the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Availability.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided for in this section, access to all records required to be maintained by paragraphs (n)(1) through (3) of this section shall be in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 15 days after a request, the employer shall make an employee's medical records required to be kept by paragraph (n)(3) of this section available for examination and copying to the subject employee, to designated representatives, to anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee, and after the employee's death or incapacitation, to the employee's family members.


</P>
<P>(o) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with that clothing and equipment and shall assure that the observer uses such clothing and equipment and complies with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This section shall become effective December 14, 1992.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Start-up dates.</I> All obligations of this section commence on the effective date except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> Except for small businesses (nineteen (19) or fewer employees), initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be completed as soon as possible and in any event no later than 60 days after the effective date of this standard. For small businesses, initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be completed as soon as possible and in any event no later than 120 days after the effective date of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Regulated areas.</I> Except for small business, defined under paragraph (p)(2)(i) of this section, regulated areas required to be established by paragraph (e) of this section shall be set up as soon as possible after the results of exposure monitoring are known and in any event no later than 90 days after the effective date of this section. For small businesses, regulated areas required to be established by paragraph (e) of this section shall be set up as soon as possible after the results of exposure monitoring are known and in any event no later than 150 days after the effective date of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Respiratory protection.</I> Except for small businesses, defined under paragraph (p)(2)(i) of this section, respiratory protection required by paragraph (g) of this section shall be provided as soon as possible and in any event no later than 90 days after the effective date of this section. For small businesses, respiratory protection required by paragraph (g) of this section shall be provided as soon as possible and in any event no later than 150 days after the effective date of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Compliance program.</I> Written compliance programs required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be completed and available for inspection and copying as soon as possible and in any event no later than 1 year after the effective date of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Methods of compliance.</I> The engineering controls required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall be implemented as soon as possible and in any event no later than two (2) years after the effective date of this section. Work practice controls shall be implemented as soon as possible. Work practice controls that are directly related to engineering controls to be implemented in accordance with the compliance plan shall be implemented as soon as possible after such engineering controls are implemented.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Hygiene and lunchroom facilities.</I> (A) Handwashing facilities, permanent or temporary, shall be provided in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.141 (d)(1) and (2) as soon as possible and in any event no later than 60 days after the effective date of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Change rooms, showers, and lunchroom facilities shall be completed as soon as possible and in any event no later than 1 year after the effective date of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Employee information and training.</I> Except for small businesses, defined under paragraph (p)(2)(i) of this section, employee information and training required by paragraph (m)(4) of this section shall be provided as soon as possible and in any event no later than 90 days after the effective date of this standard. For small businesses, employee information and training required by paragraph (m)(4) of this standard shall be provided as soon as possible and in any event no later than 180 days after the effective date of this standard.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> Except for small businesses, defined under paragraph (p)(2)(i) of this section, initial medical examinations required by paragraph (l) of this section shall be provided as soon as possible and in any event no later than 90 days after the effective date of this standard. For small businesses, initial medical examinations required by paragraph (l) of this section shall be provided as soon as possible and in any event no later than 180 days after the effective date of this standard.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Appendices.</I> Except where portions of appendices A, B, D, E, and F to this section are expressly incorporated in requirements of this section, these appendices are purely informational and are not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1027—Substance Safety Data Sheet
</HD1>
<HD1>Cadmium
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Substance Identification
</HD2>
<P>A. Substance: Cadmium.
</P>
<P>B. 8-Hour, Time-weighted-average, Permissible Exposure Limit (TWA PEL):
</P>
<P>1. TWA PEL: Five micrograms of cadmium per cubic meter of air 5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, time-weighted average (TWA) for an 8-hour workday.
</P>
<P>C. Appearance: Cadmium metal—soft, blue-white, malleable, lustrous metal or grayish-white powder. Some cadmium compounds may also appear as a brown, yellow, or red powdery substance.
</P>
<HD2>II. Health Hazard Data
</HD2>
<P>A. Routes of Exposure. Cadmium can cause local skin or eye irritation. Cadmium can affect your health if you inhale it or if you swallow it.
</P>
<P>B. Effects of Overexposure.
</P>
<P>1. Short-term (acute) exposure: Cadmium is much more dangerous by inhalation than by ingestion. High exposures to cadmium that may be immediately dangerous to life or health occur in jobs where workers handle large quantities of cadmium dust or fume; heat cadmium-containing compounds or cadmium-coated surfaces; weld with cadmium solders or cut cadmium-containing materials such as bolts.
</P>
<P>2. Severe exposure may occur before symptoms appear. Early symptoms may include mild irritation of the upper respiratory tract, a sensation of constriction of the throat, a metallic taste and/or a cough. A period of 1-10 hours may precede the onset of rapidly progressing shortness of breath, chest pain, and flu-like symptoms with weakness, fever, headache, chills, sweating and muscular pain. Acute pulmonary edema usually develops within 24 hours and reaches a maximum by three days. If death from asphyxia does not occur, symptoms may resolve within a week.
</P>
<P>3. Long-term (chronic) exposure. Repeated or long-term exposure to cadmium, even at relatively low concentrations, may result in kidney damage and an increased risk of cancer of the lung and of the prostate.
</P>
<P>C. Emergency First Aid Procedures.
</P>
<P>1. Eye exposure: Direct contact may cause redness or pain. Wash eyes immediately with large amounts of water, lifting the upper and lower eyelids. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>2. Skin exposure: Direct contact may result in irritation. Remove contaminated clothing and shoes immediately. Wash affected area with soap or mild detergent and large amounts of water. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>3. Ingestion: Ingestion may result in vomiting, abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea, headache and sore throat. Treatment for symptoms must be administered by medical personnel. Under no circumstances should the employer allow any person whom he retains, employs, supervises or controls to engage in therapeutic chelation. Such treatment is likely to translocate cadmium from pulmonary or other tissue to renal tissue. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>4. Inhalation: If large amounts of cadmium are inhaled, the exposed person must be moved to fresh air at once. If breathing has stopped, perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Administer oxygen if available. Keep the affected person warm and at rest. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>5. Rescue: Move the affected person from the hazardous exposure. If the exposed person has been overcome, attempt rescue only after notifying at least one other person of the emergency and putting into effect established emergency procedures. Do not become a casualty yourself. Understand your emergency rescue procedures and know the location of the emergency equipment before the need arises.
</P>
<HD2>III. Employee Information
</HD2>
<P>A. Protective Clothing and Equipment.
</P>
<P>1. Respirators: You may be required to wear a respirator for non-routine activities; in emergencies; while your employer is in the process of reducing cadmium exposures through engineering controls; and where engineering controls are not feasible. If respirators are worn in the future, they must have a joint Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) and National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) label of approval. Cadmium does not have a detectable odor except at levels well above the permissible exposure limits. If you can smell cadmium while wearing a respirator, proceed immediately to fresh air. If you experience difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator, tell your employer.
</P>
<P>2. Protective Clothing: You may be required to wear impermeable clothing, gloves, foot gear, a face shield, or other appropriate protective clothing to prevent skin contact with cadmium. Where protective clothing is required, your employer must provide clean garments to you as necessary to assure that the clothing protects you adequately. The employer must replace or repair protective clothing that has become torn or otherwise damaged.
</P>
<P>3. Eye Protection: You may be required to wear splash-proof or dust resistant goggles to prevent eye contact with cadmium.
</P>
<P>B. Employer Requirements.
</P>
<P>1. Medical: If you are exposed to cadmium at or above the action level, your employer is required to provide a medical examination, laboratory tests and a medical history according to the medical surveillance provisions under paragraph (1) of this standard. (See summary chart and tables in this appendix A.) These tests shall be provided without cost to you. In addition, if you are accidentally exposed to cadmium under conditions known or suspected to constitute toxic exposure to cadmium, your employer is required to make special tests available to you.
</P>
<P>2. Access to Records: All medical records are kept strictly confidential. You or your representative are entitled to see the records of measurements of your exposure to cadmium. Your medical examination records can be furnished to your personal physician or designated representative upon request by you to your employer.
</P>
<P>3. Observation of Monitoring: Your employer is required to perform measurements that are representative of your exposure to cadmium and you or your designated representative are entitled to observe the monitoring procedure. You are entitled to observe the steps taken in the measurement procedure, and to record the results obtained. When the monitoring procedure is taking place in an area where respirators or personal protective clothing and equipment are required to be worn, you or your representative must also be provided with, and must wear the protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>C. Employee Requirements—You will not be able to smoke, eat, drink, chew gum or tobacco, or apply cosmetics while working with cadmium in regulated areas. You will also not be able to carry or store tobacco products, gum, food, drinks or cosmetics in regulated areas because these products easily become contaminated with cadmium from the workplace and can therefore create another source of unnecessary cadmium exposure.
</P>
<P>Some workers will have to change out of work clothes and shower at the end of the day, as part of their workday, in order to wash cadmium from skin and hair. Handwashing and cadmium-free eating facilities shall be provided by the employer and proper hygiene should always be performed before eating. It is also recommended that you do not smoke or use tobacco products, because among other things, they naturally contain cadmium. For further information, read the labeling on such products.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Physician Information
</HD2>
<P>A. Introduction. The medical surveillance provisions of paragraph (1) generally are aimed at accomplishing three main interrelated purposes: First, identifying employees at higher risk of adverse health effects from excess, chronic exposure to cadmium; second, preventing cadmium-induced disease; and third, detecting and minimizing existing cadmium-induced disease. The core of medical surveillance in this standard is the early and periodic monitoring of the employee's biological indicators of: (a) Recent exposure to cadmium; (b) cadmium body burden; and (c) potential and actual kidney damage associated with exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>The main adverse health effects associated with cadmium overexposure are lung cancer and kidney dysfunction. It is not yet known how to adequately biologically monitor human beings to specifically prevent cadmium-induced lung cancer. By contrast, the kidney can be monitored to provide prevention and early detection of cadmium-induced kidney damage. Since, for non-carcinogenic effects, the kidney is considered the primary target organ of chronic exposure to cadmium, the medical surveillance provisions of this standard effectively focus on cadmium-induced kidney disease. Within that focus, the aim, where possible, is to prevent the onset of such disease and, where necessary, to minimize such disease as may already exist. The by-products of successful prevention of kidney disease are anticipated to be the reduction and prevention of other cadmium-induced diseases.
</P>
<P>B. Health Effects. The major health effects associated with cadmium overexposure are described below.
</P>
<P>1. Kidney: The most prevalent non-malignant disease observed among workers chronically exposed to cadmium is kidney dysfunction. Initially, such dysfunction is manifested as proteinuria. The proteinuria associated with cadmium exposure is most commonly characterized by excretion of low-molecular weight proteins (15,000 to 40,000 MW) accompanied by loss of electrolytes, uric acid, calcium, amino acids, and phosphate. The compounds commonly excreted include: beta-2-microglobulin (β<E T="52">2</E>-M), retinol binding protein (RBP), immunoglobulin light chains, and lysozyme. Excretion of low molecular weight proteins are characteristic of damage to the proximal tubules of the kidney (Iwao <I>et al.</I>, 1980).
</P>
<P>It has also been observed that exposure to cadmium may lead to urinary excretion of high-molecular weight proteins such as albumin, immunoglobulin G, and glycoproteins (Ex. 29). Excretion of high-molecular weight proteins is typically indicative of damage to the glomeruli of the kidney. Bernard <I>et al.</I>, (1979) suggest that damage to the glomeruli and damage to the proximal tubules of the kidney may both be linked to cadmium exposure but they may occur independently of each other.
</P>
<P>Several studies indicate that the onset of low-molecular weight proteinuria is a sign of irreversible kidney damage (Friberg <I>et al.</I>, 1974; Roels <I>et al.</I>, 1982; Piscator 1984; Elinder <I>et al.</I>, 1985; Smith <I>et al.</I>, 1986). Above specific levels of β<E T="52">2</E>-M associated with cadmium exposure it is unlikely that β<E T="52">2</E>-M levels return to normal even when cadmium exposure is eliminated by removal of the individual from the cadmium work environment (Friberg, Ex. 29, 1990).
</P>
<P>Some studies indicate that such proteinuria may be progressive; levels of β<E T="52">2</E>-M observed in the urine increase with time even after cadmium exposure has ceased. See, for example, Elinder <I>et al.</I>, 1985. Such observations, however, are not universal, and it has been suggested that studies in which proteinuria has not been observed to progress may not have tracked patients for a sufficiently long time interval (Jarup, Ex. 8-661).
</P>
<P>When cadmium exposure continues after the onset of proteinuria, chronic nephrotoxicity may occur (Friberg, Ex. 29). Uremia results from the inability of the glomerulus to adequately filter blood. This leads to severe disturbance of electrolyte concentrations and may lead to various clinical complications including kidney stones (L-140-50).
</P>
<P>After prolonged exposure to cadmium, glomerular proteinuria, glucosuria, aminoaciduria, phosphaturia, and hypercalciuria may develop (Exs. 8-86, 4-28, 14-18). Phosphate, calcium, glucose, and amino acids are essential to life, and under normal conditions, their excretion should be regulated by the kidney. Once low molecular weight proteinuria has developed, these elements dissipate from the human body. Loss of glomerular function may also occur, manifested by decreased glomerular filtration rate and increased serum creatinine. Severe cadmium-induced renal damage may eventually develop into chronic renal failure and uremia (Ex. 55).
</P>
<P>Studies in which animals are chronically exposed to cadmium confirm the renal effects observed in humans (Friberg <I>et al.</I>, 1986). Animal studies also confirm problems with calcium metabolism and related skeletal effects which have been observed among humans exposed to cadmium in addition to the renal effects. Other effects commonly reported in chronic animal studies include anemia, changes in liver morphology, immunosuppression and hypertension. Some of these effects may be associated with co-factors. Hypertension, for example, appears to be associated with diet as well as cadmium exposure. Animals injected with cadmium have also shown testicular necrosis (Ex. 8-86B).
</P>
<HD3>2. Biological Markers
</HD3>
<P>It is universally recognized that the best measures of cadmium exposures and its effects are measurements of cadmium in biological fluids, especially urine and blood. Of the two, CdU is conventionally used to determine body burden of cadmium in workers without kidney disease. CdB is conventionally used to monitor for recent exposure to cadmium. In addition, levels of CdU and CdB historically have been used to predict the percent of the population likely to develop kidney disease (Thun <I>et al.</I>, Ex. L-140-50; WHO, Ex. 8-674; ACGIH, Exs. 8-667, 140-50).
</P>
<P>The third biological parameter upon which OSHA relies for medical surveillance is Beta-2-microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M), a low molecular weight protein. Excess β<E T="52">2</E>-M has been widely accepted by physicians and scientists as a reliable indicator of functional damage to the proximal tubule of the kidney (Exs. 8-447, 144-3-C, 4-47, L-140-45, 19-43-A).
</P>
<P>Excess β<E T="52">2</E>-M is found when the proximal tubules can no longer reabsorb this protein in a normal manner. This failure of the proximal tubules is an early stage of a kind of kidney disease that commonly occurs among workers with excessive cadmium exposure. Used in conjunction with biological test results indicating abnormal levels of CdU and CdB, the finding of excess β<E T="52">2</E>-M can establish for an examining physician that any existing kidney disease is probably cadmium-related (Trs. 6/6/90, pp. 82-86, 122, 134). The upper limits of normal levels for cadmium in urine and cadmium in blood are 3 µg Cd/gram creatinine in urine and 5 µgCd/liter whole blood, respectively. These levels were derived from broad-based population studies.
</P>
<P>Three issues confront the physicians in the use of β<E T="52">2</E>-M as a marker of kidney dysfunction and material impairment. First, there are a few other causes of elevated levels of β<E T="52">2</E>-M not related to cadmium exposures, some of which may be rather common diseases and some of which are serious diseases (e.g., myeloma or transient flu, Exs. 29 and 8-086). These can be medically evaluated as alternative causes (Friberg, Ex. 29). Also, there are other factors that can cause β<E T="52">2</E>-M to degrade so that low levels would result in workers with tubular dysfunction. For example, regarding the degradation of β<E T="52">2</E>-M, workers with acidic urine (pH&lt;6) might have β<E T="52">2</E>-M levels that are within the “normal” range when in fact kidney dysfunction has occurred (Ex. L-140-1) and the low molecular weight proteins are degraded in acid urine. Thus, it is very important that the pH of urine be measured, that urine samples be buffered as necessary (See appendix F.), and that urine samples be handled correctly, i.e., measure the pH of freshly voided urine samples, then if necessary, buffer to pH&gt;6 (or above for shipping purposes), measure pH again and then, perhaps, freeze the sample for storage and shipping. (See also appendix F.) Second, there is debate over the pathological significance of proteinuria, however, most world experts believe that β<E T="52">2</E>-M levels greater than 300 µg/g Cr are abnormal (Elinder, Ex. 55, Friberg, Ex. 29). Such levels signify kidney dysfunction that constitutes material impairment of health. Finally, detection of β<E T="52">2</E>-M at low levels has often been considered difficult, however, many laboratories have the capability of detecting excess β<E T="52">2</E>-M using simple kits, such as the Phadebas Delphia test, that are accurate to levels of 100 µg β<E T="52">2</E>-M/g Cr U (Ex. L-140-1).
</P>
<P>Specific recommendations for ways to measure β<E T="52">2</E>-M and proper handling of urine samples to prevent degradation of β<E T="52">2</E>-M have been addressed by OSHA in appendix F, in the section on laboratory standardization. All biological samples must be analyzed in a laboratory that is proficient in the analysis of that particular analyte, under paragraph (l)(1)(iv). (See appendix F). Specifically, under paragraph (l)(1)(iv), the employer is to assure that the collecting and handling of biological samples of cadmium in urine (CdU), cadmium in blood (CdB), and beta-2 microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M) taken from employees is collected in a manner that assures reliability. The employer must also assure that analysis of biological samples of cadmium in urine (CdU), cadmium in blood (CdB), and beta-2 microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M) taken from employees is performed in laboratories with demonstrated proficiency for that particular analyte. (See appendix F.)
</P>
<HD3>3. Lung and Prostate Cancer
</HD3>
<P>The primary sites for cadmium-associated cancer appear to be the lung and the prostate (L-140-50). Evidence for an association between cancer and cadmium exposure derives from both epidemiological studies and animal experiments. Mortality from prostate cancer associated with cadmium is slightly elevated in several industrial cohorts, but the number of cases is small and there is not clear dose-response relationship. More substantive evidence exists for lung cancer.
</P>
<P>The major epidemiological study of lung cancer was conducted by Thun <I>et al.</I>, (Ex. 4-68). Adequate data on cadmium exposures were available to allow evaluation of dose-response relationships between cadmium exposure and lung cancer. A statistically significant excess of lung cancer attributed to cadmium exposure was observed in this study even when confounding variables such as co-exposure to arsenic and smoking habits were taken into consideration (Ex. L-140-50).
</P>
<P>The primary evidence for quantifying a link between lung cancer and cadmium exposure from animal studies derives from two rat bioassay studies; one by Takenaka <I>et al.</I>, (1983), which is a study of cadmium chloride and a second study by Oldiges and Glaser (1990) of four cadmium compounds.
</P>
<P>Based on the above cited studies, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) classified cadmium as “B1”, a probable human carcinogen, in 1985 (Ex. 4-4). The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) in 1987 also recommended that cadmium be listed as “2A”, a probable human carcinogen (Ex. 4-15). The American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) has recently recommended that cadmium be labeled as a carcinogen. Since 1984, NIOSH has concluded that cadmium is possibly a human carcinogen and has recommended that exposures be controlled to the lowest level feasible.
</P>
<HD3>4. Non-carcinogenic Effects
</HD3>
<P>Acute pneumonitis occurs 10 to 24 hours after initial acute inhalation of high levels of cadmium fumes with symptoms such as fever and chest pain (Exs. 30, 8-86B). In extreme exposure cases pulmonary edema may develop and cause death several days after exposure. Little actual exposure measurement data is available on the level of airborne cadmium exposure that causes such immediate adverse lung effects, nonetheless, it is reasonable to believe a cadmium concentration of approximately 1 mg/m
<SU>3</SU> over an eight hour period is “immediately dangerous” (55 FR 4052, ANSI; Ex. 8-86B).
</P>
<P>In addition to acute lung effects and chronic renal effects, long term exposure to cadmium may cause other severe effects on the respiratory system. Reduced pulmonary function and chronic lung disease indicative of emphysema have been observed in workers who have had prolonged exposure to cadmium dust or fumes (Exs. 4-29, 4-22, 4-42, 4-50, 4-63). In a study of workers conducted by Kazantzis <I>et al.</I>, a statistically significant excess of worker deaths due to chronic bronchitis was found, which in his opinion was directly related to high cadmium exposures of 1 mg/m
<SU>3</SU> or more (Tr. 6/8/90, pp. 156-157).
</P>
<P>Cadmium need not be respirable to constitute a hazard. Inspirable cadmium particles that are too large to be respirable but small enough to enter the tracheobronchial region of the lung can lead to bronchoconstriction, chronic pulmonary disease, and cancer of that portion of the lung. All of these diseases have been associated with occupational exposure to cadmium (Ex. 8-86B). Particles that are constrained by their size to the extra-thoracic regions of the respiratory system such as the nose and maxillary sinuses can be swallowed through mucocillary clearance and be absorbed into the body (ACGIH, Ex. 8-692). The impaction of these particles in the upper airways can lead to anosmia, or loss of sense of smell, which is an early indication of overexposure among workers exposed to heavy metals. This condition is commonly reported among cadmium-exposed workers (Ex. 8-86-B).
</P>
<HD3>C. Medical Surveillance
</HD3>
<P>In general, the main provisions of the medical surveillance section of the standard, under paragraphs (l)(1)-(17) of the regulatory text, are as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Workers exposed above the action level are covered;
</P>
<P>2. Workers with intermittent exposures are not covered;
</P>
<P>3. Past workers who are covered receive biological monitoring for at least one year;
</P>
<P>4. Initial examinations include a medical questionnaire and biological monitoring of cadmium in blood (CdB), cadmium in urine (CdU), and Beta-2-microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M);
</P>
<P>5. Biological monitoring of these three analytes is performed at least annually; full medical examinations are performed biennially;
</P>
<P>6. Until five years from the effective date of the standard, medical removal is required when CdU is greater than 15 µg/gram creatinine (g Cr), or CdB is greater than 15 µg/liter whole blood (lwb), or β<E T="52">2</E>-M is greater than 1500 µg/g Cr, and CdB is greater than 5 µg/lwb or CdU is greater than 3 µg/g Cr;
</P>
<P>7. Beginning five years after the standard is in effect, medical removal triggers will be reduced;
</P>
<P>8. Medical removal protection benefits are to be provided for up to 18 months;
</P>
<P>9. Limited initial medical examinations are required for respirator usage;
</P>
<P>10. Major provisions are fully described under section (l) of the regulatory text; they are outlined here as follows:
</P>
<FP1-2>A. Eligibility
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Biological monitoring
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Actions triggered by levels of CdU, CdB, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M (See Summary Charts and Tables in Attachment-1.)
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Periodic medical surveillance
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Actions triggered by periodic medical surveillance (See appendix A Summary Chart and Tables in Attachment-1.)
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>F. Respirator usage
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>G. Emergency medical examinations
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>H. Termination examination
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>I. Information to physician
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>J. Physician's medical opinion
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>K. Medical removal protection
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>L. Medical removal protection benefits
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>M. Multiple physician review
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>N. Alternate physician review
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>O. Information employer gives to employee
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>P. Recordkeeping
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Q. Reporting on OSHA form 200
</FP1-2>
<P>11. The above mentioned summary of the medical surveillance provisions, the summary chart, and tables for the actions triggered at different levels of CdU, CdB and β<E T="52">2</E>-M (in appendix A Attachment-1) are included only for the purpose of facilitating understanding of the provisions of paragraphs (l)(3) of the final cadmium standard. The summary of the provisions, the summary chart, and the tables do not add to or reduce the requirements in paragraph (l)(3).
</P>
<HD3>D. Recommendations to Physicians
</HD3>
<P>1. It is strongly recommended that patients with tubular proteinuria are counseled on: The hazards of smoking; avoidance of nephrotoxins and certain prescriptions and over-the-counter medications that may exacerbate kidney symptoms; how to control diabetes and/or blood pressure; proper hydration, diet, and exercise (Ex. 19-2). A list of prominent or common nephrotoxins is attached. (See appendix A Attachment-2.)
</P>
<P>2. DO NOT CHELATE; KNOW WHICH DRUGS ARE NEPHROTOXINS OR ARE ASSOCIATED WITH NEPHRITIS.
</P>
<P>3. The gravity of cadmium-induced renal damage is compounded by the fact there is no medical treatment to prevent or reduce the accumulation of cadmium in the kidney (Ex. 8-619). Dr. Friberg, a leading world expert on cadmium toxicity, indicated in 1992, that there is no form of chelating agent that could be used without substantial risk. He stated that tubular proteinuria has to be treated in the same way as other kidney disorders (Ex. 29).
</P>
<P>4. After the results of a workers' biological monitoring or medical examination are received the employer is required to provide an information sheet to the patient, briefly explaining the significance of the results. (See Attachment 3 of this appendix A.)
</P>
<P>5. For additional information the physician is referred to the following additional resources:
</P>
<P>a. The physician can always obtain a copy of the preamble, with its full discussion of the health effects, from OSHA's Computerized Information System (OCIS).
</P>
<P>b. The Docket Officer maintains a record of the rulemaking. The Cadmium Docket (H-057A), is located at 200 Constitution Ave. NW., room N-2625, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-219-7894.
</P>
<P>c. The following articles and exhibits in particular from that docket (H-057A):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhibit number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Author and paper title
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8-447</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lauwerys <E T="03">et. al.,</E> Guide for physicians, “Health Maintenance of Workers Exposed to Cadmium,” published by the Cadmium Council.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Takenaka, S., H. Oldiges, H. Konig, D. Hochrainer, G. Oberdorster. “Carcinogenicity of Cadmium Chloride Aerosols in Wistar Rats”. <E T="03">JNCI</E> 70:367-373, 1983. (32)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thun, M.J., T.M. Schnoor, A.B. Smith, W.E. Halperin, R.A. Lemen. “Mortality Among a Cohort of U.S. Cadmium Production Workers—An Update.” <E T="03">JNCI</E> 74(2):325-33, 1985. (8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elinder, C.G., Kjellstrom, T., Hogstedt, C., <E T="03">et al.</E>, “Cancer Mortality of Cadmium Workers.” <E T="03">Brit. J. Ind. Med.</E> 42:651-655, 1985. (14)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ellis, K.J. <E T="03">et al.,</E> “Critical Concentrations of Cadmium in Human Renal Cortex: Dose Effect Studies to Cadmium Smelter Workers.” <E T="03">J. Toxicol. Environ. Health</E> 7:691-703, 1981. (76)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-27</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ellis, K.J., S.H. Cohn and T.J. Smith. “Cadmium Inhalation Exposure Estimates: Their Significance with Respect to Kidney and Liver Cadmium Burden.” <E T="03">J. Toxicol. Environ. Health</E> 15:173-187, 1985.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Falck, F.Y., Jr., Fine, L.J., Smith, R.G., McClatchey, K.D., Annesley, T., England, B., and Schork, A.M. “Occupational Cadmium Exposure and Renal Status.” <E T="03">Am. J. Ind. Med.</E> 4:541, 1983. (64)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8-86A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Friberg, L., C.G. Elinder, <E T="03">et al.</E>, “Cadmium and Health a Toxicological and Epidemiological Appraisal, Volume I, Exposure, Dose, and Metabolism.” CRC Press, Inc., Boca Raton, FL, 1986. (Available from the OSHA Technical Data Center)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8-86B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Friberg, L., C.G. Elinder, <E T="03">et al.</E>, “Cadmium and Health: A Toxicological and Epidemiological Appraisal, Volume II, Effects and Response.” CRC Press, Inc., Boca Raton, FL, 1986. (Available from the OSHA Technical Data Center)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-140-45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elinder, C.G., “Cancer Mortality of Cadmium Workers”, <E T="03">Brit. J. Ind. Med.,</E> 42, 651-655, 1985.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L-140-50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thun, M., Elinder, C.G., Friberg, L, “Scientific Basis for an Occupational Standard for Cadmium, <E T="03">Am. J. Ind. Med.</E>, 20; 629-642, 1991.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>V. Information Sheet
</HD2>
<P>The information sheet (appendix A Attachment-3.) or an equally explanatory one should be provided to you after any biological monitoring results are reviewed by the physician, or where applicable, after any medical examination.
</P>
<HD1>Attachment 1—Appendix A Summary Chart and Tables A and B of Actions Triggered by Biological Monitoring
</HD1>
<HD1>Appendix A Summary Chart: Section (1)(3) Medical Surveillance
</HD1>
<HD3>Categorizing Biological Monitoring Results
</HD3>
<P>(A) Biological monitoring results categories are set forth in appendix A Table A for the periods ending December 31, 1998 and for the period beginning January 1, 1999.
</P>
<P>(B) The results of the biological monitoring for the initial medical exam and the subsequent exams shall determine an employee's biological monitoring result category.
</P>
<HD3>Actions Triggered by Biological Monitoring
</HD3>
<P>(A)
</P>
<P>(i) The actions triggered by biological monitoring for an employee are set forth in appendix A Table B.
</P>
<P>(ii) The biological monitoring results for each employee under section (1)(3) shall determine the actions required for that employee. That is, for any employee in biological monitoring category C, the employer will perform all of the actions for which there is an X in column C of appendix A Table B.
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee is assigned the alphabetical category (“A” being the lowest) depending upon the test results of the three biological markers.
</P>
<P>(iv) An employee is assigned category A if monitoring results for all three biological markers fall at or below the levels indicated in the table listed for category A.
</P>
<P>(v) An employee is assigned category B if any monitoring result for any of the three biological markers fall within the range of levels indicated in the table listed for category B, providing no result exceeds the levels listed for category B.
</P>
<P>(vi) An employee is assigned category C if any monitoring result for any of the three biological markers are above the levels listed for category C.
</P>
<P>(B) The user of appendix A Tables A and B should know that these tables are provided only to facilitate understanding of the relevant provisions of paragraph (l)(3) of this section. appendix A Tables A and B are not meant to add to or subtract from the requirements of those provisions.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix A Table A—Categorization of Biological Monitoring Results
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Applicable Through 1998 Only
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Biological marker
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Monitoring result categories
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium in urine (CdU) (µg/g creatinine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤3 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;3 and ≤15 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;15  
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β<E T="52">2</E>-microglobulin (β<E T="52">2</E>-M) (µg/g creatinine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;300 and ≤1500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;1500*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium in blood (CdB) (µg/liter whole blood)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤5 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;5 and ≤15 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;15  
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* If an employee's β<E T="52">2</E>-M levels are above 1,500 µg/g creatinine, in order for mandatory medical removal to be required (See appendix A Table B.), either the employee's CdU level must also be &gt;3 µg/g creatinine or CdB level must also be &gt;5 µg/liter whole blood.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Applicable Beginning January 1, 1999
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Biological marker
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Monitoring result categories
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium in urine (CdU) (µg/g creatinine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤3 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;3 and ≤7 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;7  
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β<E T="52">2</E>-microglobulin (β<E T="52">2</E>-M) (µg/g creatinine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;300 and ≤750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;750*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium in blood (CdB) (µg/liter whole blood)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤5 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;5 and ≤10 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;10  
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* If an employee's β<E T="52">2</E>-M levels are above 750 µg/g creatinine, in order for mandatory medical removal to be required (See appendix A Table B.), either the employee's CdU level must also be &gt;3 µg/g creatinine or CdB level must also be &gt;5 µg/liter whole blood.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>Appendix A Table B—Actions Determined by Biological Monitoring
</HD1>
<P>This table presents the actions required based on the monitoring result in appendix A Table A. Each item is a separate requirement in citing non-compliance. For example, a medical examination within 90 days for an employee in category B is separate from the requirement to administer a periodic medical examination for category B employees on an annual basis.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Required actions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Monitoring result category
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Biological monitoring:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(a) Annual.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(b) Semiannual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(c) Quarterly</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Medical examination:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(a) Biennial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(b) Annual.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(c) Semiannual.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(d) Within 90 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Assess within two weeks:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(a) Excess cadmium exposure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(b) Work practices</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(c) Personal hygiene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(d) Respirator usage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(e) Smoking history</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(f) Hygiene facilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(g) Engineering controls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(h) Correct within 30 days</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(i) Periodically assess exposures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Discretionary medical removal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Mandatory medical removal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For all employees covered by medical surveillance exclusively because of exposures prior to the effective date of this standard, if they are in Category A, the employer shall follow the requirements of paragraphs (l)(3)(i)(B) and (l)(4)(v)(A). If they are in Category B or C, the employer shall follow the requirements of paragraphs (l)(4)(v)(B)-(C).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> See footnote appendix A Table A.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>Appendix A—Attachment 2—List of Medications
</HD1>
<P>A list of the more common medications that a physician, and the employee, may wish to review is likely to include some of the following: (1) Anticonvulsants: Paramethadione, phenytoin, trimethadone; (2) antihypertensive drugs: Captopril, methyldopa; (3) antimicrobials: Aminoglycosides, amphotericin B, cephalosporins, ethambutol; (4) antineoplastic agents: Cisplatin, methotrexate, mitomycin-C, nitrosoureas, radiation; (4) sulfonamide diuretics: Acetazolamide, chlorthalidone, furosemide, thiazides; (5) halogenated alkanes, hydrocarbons, and solvents that may occur in some settings: Carbon tetrachloride, ethylene glycol, toluene; iodinated radiographic contrast media; nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; and, (7) other miscellaneous compounds: Acetominophen, allopurinol, amphetamines, azathioprine, cimetidine, cyclosporine, lithium, methoxyflurane, methysergide, D-penicillamine, phenacetin, phenendione. A list of drugs associated with acute interstitial nephritis includes: (1) Antimicrobial drugs: Cephalosporins, chloramphenicol, colistin, erythromycin, ethambutol, isoniazid, para-aminosalicylic acid, penicillins, polymyxin B, rifampin, sulfonamides, tetracyclines, and vancomycin; (2) other miscellaneous drugs: Allopurinol, antipyrene, azathioprine, captopril, cimetidine, clofibrate, methyldopa, phenindione, phenylpropanolamine, phenytoin, probenecid, sulfinpyrazone, sulfonamid diuretics, triamterene; and, (3) metals: Bismuth, gold.
</P>
<P>This list have been derived from commonly available medical textbooks (e.g., Ex. 14-18). The list has been included merely to facilitate the physician's, employer's, and employee's understanding. The list does not represent an official OSHA opinion or policy regarding the use of these medications for particular employees. The use of such medications should be under physician discretion.
</P>
<HD1>Attachment 3—Biological Monitoring and Medical Examination Results
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Employee
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Testing Date
</FP-DASH>
<P>Cadmium in Urine ___ µg/g Cr—Normal Levels: ≤3 µg/g Cr.
</P>
<P>Cadmium in Blood ___ µg/lwb—Normal Levels: ≤5 µg/lwb.
</P>
<P>Beta-2-microglobulin in Urine ___ µg/g Cr—Normal Levels: ≤300 µg/g Cr.
</P>
<P>Physical Examination Results: N/A ___ Satisfactory ___ Unsatisfactory ___ (see physician again).
</P>
<P>Physician's Review of Pulmonary Function Test: N/A ___ Normal ___ Abnormal ___.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Next biological monitoring or medical examination scheduled for
</FP-DASH>
<P>The biological monitoring program has been designed for three main purposes: 1) to identify employees at risk of adverse health effects from excess, chronic exposure to cadmium; 2) to prevent cadmium-induced disease(s); and 3) to detect and minimize existing cadmium-induced disease(s).
</P>
<P>The levels of cadmium in the urine and blood provide an estimate of the total amount of cadmium in the body. The amount of a specific protein in the urine (beta-2-microglobulin) indicates changes in kidney function. All three tests must be evaluated together. A single mildly elevated result may not be important if testing at a later time indicates that the results are normal and the workplace has been evaluated to decrease possible sources of cadmium exposure. The levels of cadmium or beta-2-microglobulin may change over a period of days to months and the time needed for those changes to occur is different for each worker.
</P>
<P>If the results for biological monitoring are above specific “high levels” [cadmium urine greater than 10 micrograms per gram of creatinine (µg/g Cr), cadmium blood greater than 10 micrograms per liter of whole blood (µg/lwb), or beta-2-microglobulin greater than 1000 micrograms per gram of creatinine (µg/g Cr)], the worker has a much greater chance of developing other kidney diseases.
</P>
<P>One way to measure for kidney function is by measuring beta-2-microglobulin in the urine. Beta-2-microglobulin is a protein which is normally found in the blood as it is being filtered in the kidney, and the kidney reabsorbs or returns almost all of the beta-2-microglobulin to the blood. A very small amount (less than 300 µg/g Cr in the urine) of beta-2-microglobulin is not reabsorbed into the blood, but is released in the urine. If cadmium damages the kidney, the amount of beta-2-microglobulin in the urine increases because the kidney cells are unable to reabsorb the beta-2-microglobulin normally. An increase in the amount of beta-2-microglobulin in the urine is a very early sign of kidney dysfunction. A small increase in beta-2-microglobulin in the urine will serve as an early warning sign that the worker may be absorbing cadmium from the air, cigarettes contaminated in the workplace, or eating in areas that are cadmium contaminated.
</P>
<P>Even if cadmium causes permanent changes in the kidney's ability to reabsorb beta-2-microglobulin, and the beta-2-microglobulin is above the “high levels”, the loss of kidney function may not lead to any serious health problems. Also, renal function naturally declines as people age. The risk for changes in kidney function for workers who have biological monitoring results between the “normal values” and the “high levels” is not well known. Some people are more cadmium-tolerant, while others are more cadmium-susceptible.
</P>
<P>For anyone with even a slight increase of beta-2-microglobulin, cadmium in the urine, or cadmium in the blood, it is very important to protect the kidney from further damage. Kidney damage can come from other sources than excess cadmium-exposure so it is also recommended that if a worker's levels are “high” he/she should receive counseling about drinking more water; avoiding cadmium-tainted tobacco and certain medications (nephrotoxins, acetaminophen); controlling diet, vitamin intake, blood pressure and diabetes; etc.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1027—Substance Technical Guidelines for Cadmium
</HD1>
<FP>I. Cadmium Metal
</FP>
<P>A. <I>Physical and Chemical Data.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Substance Identification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Chemical name:</I> Cadmium.
</P>
<P><I>Formula:</I> Cd.
</P>
<P><I>Molecular Weight:</I> 112.4.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) Registry No.:</I> 7740-43-9.
</P>
<P><I>Other Identifiers:</I> RETCS EU9800000; EPA D006; DOT 2570 53.
</P>
<P><I>Synonyms:</I> Colloidal Cadmium: Kadmium (German): CI 77180.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Physical data.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Boiling point:</I> (760 mm Hg): 765 degrees C.
</P>
<P><I>Melting point:</I> 321 degrees C.
</P>
<P><I>Specific Gravity:</I> (H<E T="52">2</E> O=@ 20 °C): 8.64.
</P>
<P><I>Solubility:</I> Insoluble in water; soluble in dilute nitric acid and in sulfuric acid.
</P>
<P><I>Appearance:</I> Soft, blue-white, malleable, lustrous metal or grayish-white powder.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Fire, Explosion and Reactivity Data.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fire.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Fire and Explosion Hazards:</I> The finely divided metal is pyrophoric, that is the dust is a severe fire hazard and moderate explosion hazard when exposed to heat or flame. Burning material reacts violently with extinguishing agents such as water, foam, carbon dioxide, and halons.
</P>
<P><I>Flash point:</I> Flammable (dust).
</P>
<P><I>Extinguishing media:</I> Dry sand, dry dolomite, dry graphite, or sodimum chloride.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reactivity.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Conditions contributing to instability:</I> Stable when kept in sealed containers under normal temperatures and pressure, but dust may ignite upon contact with air. Metal tarnishes in moist air.
</P>
<P><I>Incompatibilities:</I> Ammonium nitrate, fused: Reacts violently or explosively with cadmium dust below 20 °C. Hydrozoic acid: Violent explosion occurs after 30 minutes. Acids: Reacts violently, forms hydrogen gas. Oxidizing agents or metals: Strong reaction with cadmium dust. Nitryl fluoride at slightly elevated temperature: Glowing or white incandescence occurs. Selenium: Reacts exothermically. Ammonia: Corrosive reaction. Sulfur dioxide: Corrosive reaction. Fire extinguishing agents (water, foam, carbon dioxide, and halons): Reacts violently. Tellurium: Incandescent reaction in hydrogen atmosphere.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous decomposition products:</I> The heated metal rapidly forms highly toxic, brownish fumes of oxides of cadmium.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Spill, Leak and Disposal Procedures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Steps to be taken if the materials is released or spilled.</I> Do not touch spilled material. Stop leak if you can do it without risk. Do not get water inside container. For large spills, dike spill for later disposal. Keep unnecessary people away. Isolate hazard area and deny entry. The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 Section 304 requires that a release equal to or greater than the reportable quantity for this substance (1 pound) must be immediately reported to the local emergency planning committee, the state emergency response commission, and the National Response Center (800) 424-8802; in Washington, DC metropolitan area (202) 426-2675.
</P>
<FP>II. Cadmium Oxide
</FP>
<P>A. <I>Physical and Chemical Date.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Substance identification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Chemical name:</I> Cadmium Oxide.
</P>
<P><I>Formula:</I> CdO.
</P>
<P><I>Molecular Weight:</I> 128.4.
</P>
<P><I>CAS No.:</I> 1306-19-0.
</P>
<P><I>Other Identifiers:</I> RTECS EV1929500.
</P>
<P><I>Synonyms:</I> Kadmu tlenek (Polish).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Physical data.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Boiling point (760 mm Hg):</I> 950 degrees C decomposes.
</P>
<P><I>Melting point:</I> 1500 °C.
</P>
<P><I>Specific Gravity:</I> (H<E T="52">2</E> O = 1@20 °C): 7.0.
</P>
<P><I>Solubility:</I> Insoluble in water; soluble in acids and alkalines.
</P>
<P><I>Appearance:</I> Red or brown crystals.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Fire, Explosion and Reactivity Data.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fire.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Fire and Explosion Hazards:</I> Negligible fire hazard when exposed to heat or flame.
</P>
<P><I>Flash point:</I> Nonflammable.
</P>
<P><I>Extinguishing media:</I> Dry chemical, carbon dioxide, water spray or foam.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reactivity.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Conditions contributing to instability:</I> Stable under normal temperatures and pressures.
</P>
<P><I>Incompatibilities:</I> Magnesium may reduce CdO<E T="52">2</E> explosively on heating.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous decomposition products:</I> Toxic fumes of cadmium.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Spill Leak and Disposal Procedures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Steps to be taken if the material is released or spilled.</I> Do not touch spilled material. Stop leak if you can do it without risk. For small spills, take up with sand or other absorbent material and place into containers for later disposal. For small dry spills, use a clean shovel to place material into clean, dry container and then cover. Move containers from spill area. For larger spills, dike far ahead of spill for later disposal. Keep unnecessary people away. Isolate hazard area and deny entry. The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 Section 304 requires that a release equal to or greater than the reportable quantity for this substance (1 pound) must be immediately reported to the local emergency planning committee, the state emergency response commission, and the National Response Center (800) 424-8802; in Washington, DC metropolitan area (202) 426-2675.
</P>
<P>III. Cadmium Sulfide.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Physical and Chemical Data.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Substance Identification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Chemical name:</I> Cadmium sulfide.
</P>
<P><I>Formula:</I> CdS.
</P>
<P><I>Molecular weight:</I> 144.5.
</P>
<P><I>CAS No.</I> 1306-23-6.
</P>
<P><I>Other Identifiers:</I> RTECS EV3150000.
</P>
<P><I>Synonyms:</I> Aurora yellow; Cadmium Golden 366; Cadmium Lemon Yellow 527; Cadmium Orange; Cadmium Primrose 819; Cadmium Sulphide; Cadmium Yellow; Cadmium Yellow 000; Cadmium Yellow Conc. Deep; Cadmium Yellow Conc. Golden; Cadmium Yellow Conc. Lemon; Cadmium Yellow Conc. Primrose; Cadmium Yellow Oz. Dark; Cadmium Yellow Primrose 47-1400; Cadmium Yellow 10G Conc.; Cadmium Yellow 892; Cadmopur Golden Yellow N; Cadmopur Yellow: Capsebon; C.I. 77199; C.I. Pigment Orange 20; CI Pigment Yellow 37; Ferro Lemon Yellow; Ferro Orange Yellow; Ferro Yellow; Greenockite; NCI-C02711.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Physical data.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Boiling point (760 mm. Hg):</I> sublines in N<E T="52">2</E> at 980 °C.
</P>
<P><I>Melting point:</I> 1750 degrees C (100 atm).
</P>
<P><I>Specific Gravity:</I> (H<E T="52">2</E> O = 1@ 20 °C): 4.82.
</P>
<P><I>Solubility:</I> Slightly soluble in water; soluble in acid.
</P>
<P><I>Appearance:</I> Light yellow or yellow-orange crystals.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Fire, Explosion and Reactivity Data.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fire.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Fire and Explosion Hazards:</I> Neglible fire hazard when exposed to heat or flame.
</P>
<P><I>Flash point:</I> Nonflammable.
</P>
<P><I>Extinguishing media:</I> Dry chemical, carbon dioxide, water spray or foam.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reactivity.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Conditions contributing to instability:</I> Generally non-reactive under normal conditions. Reacts with acids to form toxic hydrogen sulfide gas.
</P>
<P><I>Incompatibilities:</I> Reacts vigorously with iodinemonochloride.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous decomposition products:</I> Toxic fumes of cadmium and sulfur oxides.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Spill Leak and Disposal Procedures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Steps to be taken if the material is released or spilled.</I> Do not touch spilled material. Stop leak if you can do it without risk. For small, dry spills, with a clean shovel place material into clean, dry container and cover. Move containers from spill area. For larger spills, dike far ahead of spill for later disposal. Keep unnecessary people away. Isolate hazard and deny entry.
</P>
<P>IV. <I>Cadmium Chloride.</I>
</P>
<P>A. <I>Physical and Chemical Data.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Substance Identification.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Chemcail name:</I> Cadmium chloride.
</P>
<P><I>Formula:</I> CdC1<E T="52">2</E>.
</P>
<P><I>Molecular weight:</I> 183.3.
</P>
<P><I>CAS No.</I> 10108-64-2.
</P>
<P><I>Other Identifiers:</I> RTECS EY0175000.
</P>
<P><I>Synonyms:</I> Caddy; Cadmium dichloride; NA 2570 (DOT); UI-CAD; dichlorocadmium.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Physical data.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Boiling point (760 mm Hg):</I> 960 degrees C.
</P>
<P><I>Melting point:</I> 568 degrees C.
</P>
<P><I>Specific Gravity:</I> (H<E T="52">2</E> O = 1 @ 20 °C): 4.05.
</P>
<P><I>Solubility:</I> Soluble in water (140 g/100 cc); soluble in acetone.
</P>
<P><I>Appearance:</I> Small, white crystals.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Fire, Explosion and Reactivity Data.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fire.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Fire and Explosion Hazards:</I> Negligible fire and negligible explosion hazard in dust form when exposed to heat or flame.
</P>
<P><I>Flash point:</I> Nonflamable.
</P>
<P><I>Extinguishing media:</I> Dry chemical, carbon dioxide, water spray or foam.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reactivity.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Conditions contributing to instability:</I> Generally stable under normal temperatures and pressures.
</P>
<P><I>Incompatibilities:</I> Bromine trifluoride rapidly attacks cadmium chloride. A mixture of potassium and cadmium chloride may produce a strong explosion on impact.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous decomposition products:</I> Thermal ecompostion may release toxic fumes of hydrogen chloride, chloride, chlorine or oxides of cadmium.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Spill Leak and Disposal Procedures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Steps to be taken if the materials is released or spilled.</I> Do not touch spilled material. Stop leak if you can do it without risk. For small, dry spills, with a clean shovel place material into clean, dry container and cover. Move containers from spill area. For larger spills, dike far ahead of spill for later disposal. Keep unnecessary people away. Isolate hazard and deny entry. The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 Section 304 requires that a release equal to or greater than the reportable quantity for this substance (100 pounds) must be immediately reported to the local emergency planning committee, the state emergency response commission, and the National Response Center (800) 424-8802; in Washington, DC Metropolitan area (202) 426-2675.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1027 [Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1027—Occupational Health History Interview With Reference to Cadmium Exposure
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.018.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.020.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.021.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.022.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.023.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.025.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.026.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.027.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.028.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.029.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1910.1027—Cadmium in Workplace Atmospheres
</HD1>
<FP-2>Method Number: ID-189
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Matrix: Air
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA Permissible Exposure Limits: 5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (TWA), 2.5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (Action Level TWA)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Collection Procedure: A known volume of air is drawn through a 37-mm diameter filter cassette containing a 0.8-µm mixed cellulose ester membrane filter (MCEF).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Recommended Air Volume: 960 L
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Recommended Sampling Rate: 2.0 L/min
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Analytical Procedure: Air filter samples are digested with nitric acid. After digestion, a small amount of hydrochloric acid is added. The samples are then diluted to volume with deionized water and analyzed by either flame atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) or flameless atomic absorption spectroscopy using a heated graphite furnace atomizer (AAS-HGA).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Detection Limits:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qualitative: 0.2 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 200 L sample by Flame AAS, 0.007 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 60 L sample by AAS-HGA
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Quantitative: 0.70 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 200 L sample by Flame AAS, 0.025 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 60 L sample by AAS-HGA
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Precision and Accuracy: (Flame AAS Analysis and AAS-HGA Analysis):
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Validation Level: 2.5 to 10 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 400 L air vol, 1.25 to 5.0 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 60 L air vol
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>CV<E T="52">1</E> (pooled): 0.010, 0.043
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Analytical Bias: + 4.0%, −5.8%
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Overall Analytical Error:±6.0%, ±14.2%
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Method Classification: Validated
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Date: June, 1992
</FP-2>
<P>Inorganic Service Branch II, OSHA Salt Lake Technical Center, Salt Lake City, Utah
</P>
<P>Commercial manufacturers and products mentioned in this method are for descriptive use only and do not constitute endorsements by USDOL-OSHA. Similar products from other sources can be substituted.
</P>
<HD1>1. Introduction
</HD1>
<HD3>1.1. Scope
</HD3>
<P>This method describes the collection of airborne elemental cadmium and cadmium compounds on 0.8-µm mixed cellulose ester membrane filters and their subsequent analysis by either flame atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) or flameless atomic absorption spectroscopy using a heated graphite furnace atomizer (AAS-HGA). It is applicable for both TWA and Action Level TWA Permissible Exposure Level (PEL) measurements. The two atomic absorption analytical techniques included in the method do not differentiate between cadmium fume and cadmium dust samples. They also do not differentiate between elemental cadmium and its compounds.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. Principle
</HD3>
<P>Airborne elemental cadmium and cadmium compounds are collected on a 0.8-µm mixed cellulose ester membrane filter (MCEF). The air filter samples are digested with concentrated nitric acid to destroy the organic matrix and dissolve the cadmium analytes. After digestion, a small amount of concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to help dissolve other metals which may be present. The samples are diluted to volume with deionized water and then aspirated into the oxidizing air/acetylene flame of an atomic absorption spectrophotometer for analysis of elemental cadmium.
</P>
<P>If the concentration of cadmium in a sample solution is too low for quantitation by this flame AAS analytical technique, and the sample is to be averaged with other samples for TWA calculations, aliquots of the sample and a matrix modifier are later injected onto a L'vov platform in a pyrolytically-coated graphite tube of a Zeeman atomic absorption spectrophotometer/graphite furnace assembly for analysis of elemental cadmium. The matrix modifier is added to stabilize the cadmium metal and minimize sodium chloride as an interference during the high temperature charring step of the analysis (5.1., 5.2.).
</P>
<HD3>1.3. History
</HD3>
<P>Previously, two OSHA sampling and analytical methods for cadmium were used concurrently (5.3., 5.4.). Both of these methods also required 0.8-µm mixed cellulose ester membrane filters for the collection of air samples. These cadmium air filter samples were analyzed by either flame atomic absorption spectroscopy (5.3.) or inductively coupled plasma/atomic emission spectroscopy (ICP-AES) (5.4.). Neither of these two analytical methods have adequate sensitivity for measuring workplace exposure to airborne cadmium at the new lower TWA and Action Level TWA PEL levels when consecutive samples are taken on one employee and the sample results need to be averaged with other samples to determine a single TWA.
</P>
<P>The inclusion of two atomic absorption analytical techniques in the new sampling and analysis method for airborne cadmium permits quantitation of sample results over a broad range of exposure levels and sampling periods. The flame AAS analytical technique included in this method is similar to the previous procedure given in the General Metals Method ID-121 (5.3.) with some modifications. The sensitivity of the AAS-HGA analytical technique included in this method is adequate to measure exposure levels at 
<FR>1/10</FR> the Action Level TWA, or lower, when less than full-shift samples need to be averaged together.
</P>
<HD3>1.4. Properties (5.5.)
</HD3>
<P>Elemental cadmium is a silver-white, blue-tinged, lustrous metal which is easily cut with a knife. It is slowly oxidized by moist air to form cadmium oxide. It is insoluble in water, but reacts readily with dilute nitric acid. Some of the physical properties and other descriptive information of elemental cadmium are given below:
</P>
<LDRWK>
<FL-2>CAS No. </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>7440-43-9
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Atomic Number </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>48
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Atomic Symbol </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>Cd
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Atomic Weight </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>112.41
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Melting Point </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>321 °C
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Boiling Point </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>765 °C
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Density </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>8.65 g/mL (25 °C)</LDRFIG></LDRWK>
<P>The properties of specific cadmium compounds are described in reference 5.5.
</P>
<HD3>1.5. Method Performance
</HD3>
<P>A synopsis of method performance is presented below. Further information can be found in Section 4.
</P>
<P>1.5.1. The qualitative and quantitative detection limits for the flame AAS analytical technique are 0.04 µg (0.004 µg/mL) and 0.14 µg (0.014 µg/mL) cadmium, respectively, for a 10 mL solution volume. These correspond, respectively, to 0.2 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> and 0.70 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 200 L air volume.
</P>
<P>1.5.2. The qualitative and quantitative detection limits for the AAS-HGA analytical technique are 0.44 ng (0.044 ng/mL) and 1.5 ng (0.15 ng/mL) cadmium, respectively, for a 10 mL solution volume. These correspond, respectively, to 0.007 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> and 0.025 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 60 L air volume.
</P>
<P>1.5.3. The average recovery by the flame AAS analytical technique of 17 spiked MCEF samples containing cadmium in the range of 0.5 to 2.0 times the TWA target concentration of 5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (assuming a 400 L air volume) was 104.0% with a pooled coefficient of variation (CV<E T="52">1</E>) of 0.010. The flame analytical technique exhibited a positive bias of + 4.0% for the validated concentration range. The overall analytical error (OAE) for the flame AAS analytical technique was ±6.0%.
</P>
<P>1.5.4. The average recovery by the AAS-HGA analytical technique of 18 spiked MCEF samples containing cadmium in the range of 0.5 to 2.0 times the Action Level TWA target concentration of 2.5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (assuming a 60 L air volume) was 94.2% with a pooled coefficient of variation (CV<E T="52">1</E>) of 0.043. The AAS-HGA analytical technique exhibited a negative bias of −5.8% for the validated concentration range. The overall analytical error (OAE) for the AAS-HGA analytical technique was ±14.2%.
</P>
<P>1.5.5. Sensitivity in flame atomic absorption is defined as the characteristic concentration of an element required to produce a signal of 1% absorbance (0.0044 absorbance units). Sensitivity values are listed for each element by the atomic absorption spectrophotometer manufacturer and have proved to be a very valuable diagnostic tool to determine if instrumental parameters are optimized and if the instrument is performing up to specification. The sensitivity of the spectrophotometer used in the validation of the flame AAS analytical technique agreed with the manufacturer specifications (5.6.); the 2 µg/mL cadmium standard gave an absorbance reading of 0.350 abs. units.
</P>
<P>1.5.6. Sensitivity in graphite furnace atomic absorption is defined in terms of the characteristic mass, the number of picograms required to give an integrated absorbance value of 0.0044 absorbance-second (5.7.). Data suggests that under Stabilized Temperature Platform Furnace (STPF) conditions (see Section 1.6.2.), characteristic mass values are transferable between properly functioning instruments to an accuracy of about 20% (5.2.). The characteristic mass for STPF analysis of cadmium with Zeeman background correction listed by the manufacturer of the instrument used in the validation of the AAS-HGA analytical technique was 0.35 pg. The experimental characteristic mass value observed during the determination of the working range and detection limits of the AAS-HGA analytical technique was 0.41 pg.
</P>
<HD3>1.6. Interferences
</HD3>
<P>1.6.1. High concentrations of silicate interfere in determining cadmium by flame AAS (5.6.). However, silicates are not significantly soluble in the acid matrix used to prepare the samples.
</P>
<P>1.6.2. Interferences, such as background absorption, are reduced to a minimum in the AAS-HGA analytical technique by taking full advantage of the Stabilized Temperature Platform Furnace (STPF) concept. STPF includes all of the following parameters (5.2.):
</P>
<FP-1>a. Integrated Absorbance,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>b. Fast Instrument Electronics and Sampling Frequency,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>c. Background Correction,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>d. Maximum Power Heating,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>e. Atomization off the L'vov platform in a pyrolytically coated graphite tube,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>f. Gas Stop during Atomization,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>g. Use of Matrix Modifiers.
</FP-1>
<HD3>1.7. Toxicology (5.14.)
</HD3>
<P>Information listed within this section is synopsis of current knowledge of the physiological effects of cadmium and is not intended to be used as the basis for OSHA policy. IARC classifies cadmium and certain of its compounds as Group 2A carcinogens (probably carcinogenic to humans). Cadmium fume is intensely irritating to the respiratory tract. Workplace exposure to cadmium can cause both chronic and acute effects. Acute effects include tracheobronchitis, pneumonitis, and pulmonary edema. Chronic effects include anemia, rhinitis/anosmia, pulmonary emphysema, proteinuria and lung cancer. The primary target organs for chronic disease are the kidneys (non-carcinogenic) and the lungs (carcinogenic).
</P>
<HD1>2. Sampling
</HD1>
<HD3>2.1. Apparatus
</HD3>
<P>2.1.1. Filter cassette unit for air sampling: A 37-mm diameter mixed cellulose ester membrane filter with a pore size of 0.8-µm contained in a 37-mm polystyrene two- or three-piece cassette filter holder (part no. MAWP 037 A0, Millipore Corp., Bedford, MA). The filter is supported with a cellulose backup pad. The cassette is sealed prior to use with a shrinkable gel band.
</P>
<P>2.1.2. A calibrated personal sampling pump whose flow is determined to an accuracy of ±5% at the recommended flow rate with the filter cassette unit in line.
</P>
<HD3>2.2. Procedure
</HD3>
<P>2.2.1. Attach the prepared cassette to the calibrated sampling pump (the backup pad should face the pump) using flexible tubing. Place the sampling device on the employee such that air is sampled from the breathing zone.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. Collect air samples at a flow rate of 2.0 L/min. If the filter does not become overloaded, a full-shift (at least seven hours) sample is strongly recommended for TWA and Action Level TWA measurements with a maximum air volume of 960 L. If overloading occurs, collect consecutive air samples for shorter sampling periods to cover the full workshift.
</P>
<P>2.2.3. Replace the end plugs into the filter cassettes immediately after sampling. Record the sampling conditions.
</P>
<P>2.2.4. Securely wrap each sample filter cassette end-to-end with an OSHA Form 21 sample seal.
</P>
<P>2.2.5. Submit at least one blank sample with each set of air samples. The blank sample should be handled the same as the other samples except that no air is drawn through it.
</P>
<P>2.2.6. Ship the samples to the laboratory for analysis as soon as possible in a suitable container designed to prevent damage in transit.
</P>
<HD1>3. Analysis
</HD1>
<HD3>3.1. Safety Precautions
</HD3>
<P>3.1.1. Wear safety glasses, protective clothing and gloves at all times.
</P>
<P>3.1.2. Handle acid solutions with care. Handle all cadmium samples and solutions with extra care (see Sect. 1.7.). Avoid their direct contact with work area surfaces, eyes, skin and clothes. Flush acid solutions which contact the skin or eyes with copious amounts of water.
</P>
<P>3.1.3. Perform all acid digestions and acid dilutions in an exhaust hood while wearing a face shield. To avoid exposure to acid vapors, do not remove beakers containing concentrated acid solutions from the exhaust hood until they have returned to room temperature and have been diluted or emptied.
</P>
<P>3.1.4. Exercise care when using laboratory glassware. Do not use chipped pipets, volumetric flasks, beakers or any glassware with sharp edges exposed in order to avoid the possibility of cuts or abrasions.
</P>
<P>3.1.5. Never pipet by mouth.
</P>
<P>3.1.6. Refer to the instrument instruction manuals and SOPs (5.8., 5.9.) for proper and safe operation of the atomic absorption spectrophotometer, graphite furnace atomizer and associated equipment.
</P>
<P>3.1.7. Because metallic elements and other toxic substances are vaporized during AAS flame or graphite furnace atomizer operation, it is imperative that an exhaust vent be used. Always ensure that the exhaust system is operating properly during instrument use.
</P>
<HD3>3.2. Apparatus for Sample and Standard Preparation
</HD3>
<P>3.2.1. Hot plate, capable of reaching 150 °C, installed in an exhaust hood.
</P>
<P>3.2.2. Phillips beakers, 125 mL.
</P>
<P>3.2.3. Bottles, narrow-mouth, polyethylene or glass with leakproof caps: used for storage of standards and matrix modifier.
</P>
<P>3.2.4. Volumetric flasks, volumetric pipets, beakers and other associated general laboratory glassware.
</P>
<P>3.2.5. Forceps and other associated general laboratory equipment.
</P>
<HD3>3.3. Apparatus for Flame AAS Analysis
</HD3>
<P>3.3.1. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer consisting of a(an):
</P>
<FP-1>Nebulizer and burner head
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pressure regulating devices capable of maintaining constant oxidant and fuel pressures
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Optical system capable of isolating the desired wavelength of radiation (228.8 nm)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Adjustable slit
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Light measuring and amplifying device
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Display, strip chart, or computer interface for indicating the amount of absorbed radiation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadmium hollow cathode lamp or electrodeless discharge lamp (EDL) and power supply
</FP-1>
<P>3.3.2. Oxidant: compressed air, filtered to remove water, oil and other foreign substances.
</P>
<P>3.3.3. Fuel: standard commercially available tanks of acetylene dissolved in acetone; tanks should be equipped with flash arresters.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Caution:</E> Do not use grades of acetylene containing solvents other than acetone because they may damage the PVC tubing used in some instruments.
</P>
<P>3.3.4. Pressure-reducing valves: two gauge, two-stage pressure regulators to maintain fuel and oxidant pressures somewhat higher than the controlled operating pressures of the instrument.
</P>
<P>3.3.5. Exhaust vent installed directly above the spectrophotometer burner head.
</P>
<HD3>3.4. Apparatus for AAS-HGA Analysis
</HD3>
<P>3.4.1. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer consisting of a(an):
</P>
<FP-1>Heated graphite furnace atomizer (HGA) with argon purge system
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pressure-regulating devices capable of maintaining constant argon purge pressure
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Optical system capable of isolating the desired wavelength of radiation (228.8 nm)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Adjustable slit
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Light measuring and amplifying device
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Display, strip chart, or computer interface for indicating the amount of absorbed radiation (as integrated absorbance, peak area)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Background corrector: Zeeman or deuterium arc. The Zeeman background corrector is recommended
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadmium hollow cathode lamp or electrodeless discharge lamp (EDL) and power supply
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Autosampler capable of accurately injecting 5 to 20 µL sample aliquots onto the L'vov Platform in a graphite tube
</FP-1>
<P>3.4.2. Pyrolytically coated graphite tubes containing solid, pyrolytic L'vov platforms.
</P>
<P>3.4.3. Polyethylene sample cups, 2.0 to 2.5 mL, for use with the autosampler.
</P>
<P>3.4.4. Inert purge gas for graphite furnace atomizer: compressed gas cylinder of purified argon.
</P>
<P>3.4.5. Two gauge, two-stage pressure regulator for the argon gas cylinder.
</P>
<P>3.4.6. Cooling water supply for graphite furnace atomizer.
</P>
<P>3.4.7. Exhaust vent installed directly above the graphite furnace atomizer.
</P>
<HD3>3.5. Reagents
</HD3>
<P>All reagents should be ACS analytical reagent grade or better.
</P>
<P>3.5.1. Deionized water with a specific conductance of less than 10 µS.
</P>
<P>3.5.2. Concentrated nitric acid, HNO<E T="52">3</E>.
</P>
<P>3.5.3. Concentrated hydrochloric acid, HCl.
</P>
<P>3.5.4. Ammonium phosphate, monobasic, NH<E T="52">4</E> H<E T="52">2</E> PO<E T="52">4</E>.
</P>
<P>3.5.5. Magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO<E T="52">3</E>)<E T="52">2</E> · 6H<E T="52">2</E> O.
</P>
<P>3.5.6. Diluting solution (4% HNO<E T="52">3</E>, 0.4% HCl): Add 40 mL HNO<E T="52">3</E> and 4 mL HCl carefully to approximately 500 mL deionized water and dilute to 1 L with deionized water.
</P>
<P>3.5.7. Cadmium standard stock solution, 1,000 µg/mL: Use a commercially available certified 1,000 µg/mL cadmium standard or, alternatively, dissolve 1.0000 g of cadmium metal in a minimum volume of 1:1 HCl and dilute to 1 L with 4% HNO<E T="52">3</E>. Observe expiration dates of commercial standards. Properly dispose of commercial standards with no expiration dates or prepared standards one year after their receipt or preparation date.
</P>
<P>3.5.8. Matrix modifier for AAS-HGA analysis: Dissolve 1.0 g NH<E T="52">4</E> H<E T="52">2</E> PO<E T="52">4</E> and 0.15 g Mg(NO<E T="52">3</E>)<E T="52">2</E> · 6H<E T="52">2</E> O in approximately 200 mL deionized water. Add 1 mL HNO<E T="52">3</E> and dilute to 500 mL with deionized water.
</P>
<P>3.5.9 Nitric Acid, 1:1 HNO<E T="52">3</E>/DI H<E T="52">2</E> O mixture: Carefully add a measured volume of concentrated HNO<E T="52">3</E> to an equal volume of DI H<E T="52">2</E> O.
</P>
<P>3.5.10. Nitric acid, 10% v/v: Carefully add 100 mL of concentrated HNO<E T="52">3</E> to 500 mL of DI H<E T="52">2</E> O and dilute to 1 L.
</P>
<HD3>3.6. Glassware Preparation
</HD3>
<P>3.6.1. Clean Phillips beakers by refluxing with 1:1 nitric acid on a hot plate in a fume hood. Thoroughly rinse with deionized water and invert the beakers to allow them to drain dry.
</P>
<P>3.6.2. Rinse volumetric flasks and all other glassware with 10% nitric acid and deionized water prior to use.
</P>
<HD3>3.7. Standard Preparation for Flame AAS Analysis
</HD3>
<P>3.7.1. Dilute stock solutions: Prepare 1, 5, 10 and 100 µg/mL cadmium standard stock solutions by making appropriate serial dilutions of 1,000 µg/mL cadmium standard stock solution with the diluting solution described in Section 3.5.6.
</P>
<P>3.7.2. Working standards: Prepare cadmium working standards in the range of 0.02 to 2.0 µg/mL by making appropriate serial dilutions of the dilute stock solutions with the same diluting solution. A suggested method of preparation of the working standards is given below.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Working standard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Std solution
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aliquot
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Final vol.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(µg/mL)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(µg/mL)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(mL)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Store the working standards in 500-mL, narrow-mouth polyethylene or glass bottles with leak proof caps. Prepare every twelve months.
</P>
<HD3>3.8. Standard Preparation for AAS-HGA Analysis
</HD3>
<P>3.8.1. Dilute stock solutions: Prepare 10, 100 and 1,000 ng/mL cadmium standard stock solutions by making appropriate ten-fold serial dilutions of the 1,000 µg/mL cadmium standard stock solution with the diluting solution described in Section 3.5.6.
</P>
<P>3.8.2. Working standards: Prepare cadmium working standards in the range of 0.2 to 20 ng/mL by making appropriate serial dilutions of the dilute stock solutions with the same diluting solution. A suggested method of preparation of the working standards is given below.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Working standard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Std solution
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aliquot
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Final vol.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ng/mL)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(ng/mL)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(mL)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(mL)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Store the working standards in narrow-mouth polyethylene or glass bottles with leakproof caps. Prepare monthly.
</P>
<HD3>3.9. Sample Preparation
</HD3>
<P>3.9.1. Carefully transfer each sample filter with forceps from its filter cassette unit to a clean, separate 125-mL Phillips beaker along with any loose dust found in the cassette. Label each Phillips beaker with the appropriate sample number.
</P>
<P>3.9.2. Digest the sample by adding 5 mL of concentrated nitric acid (HNO<E T="52">3</E>) to each Phillips beaker containing an air filter sample. Place the Phillips beakers on a hot plate in an exhaust hood and heat the samples until approximately 0.5 mL remains. The sample solution in each Phillips beaker should become clear. If it is not clear, digest the sample with another portion of concentrated nitric acid.
</P>
<P>3.9.3. After completing the HNO<E T="52">3</E> digestion and cooling the samples, add 40 µL (2 drops) of concentrated HCl to each air sample solution and then swirl the contents. Carefully add about 5 mL of deionized water by pouring it down the inside of each beaker.
</P>
<P>3.9.4. Quantitatively transfer each cooled air sample solution from each Phillips beaker to a clean 10-mL volumetric flask. Dilute each flask to volume with deionized water and mix well.
</P>
<HD3>3.10. Flame AAS Analysis
</HD3>
<P>Analyze all of the air samples for their cadmium content by flame atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) according to the instructions given below.
</P>
<P>3.10.1. Set up the atomic absorption spectrophotometer for the air/acetylene flame analysis of cadmium according to the SOP (5.8.) or the manufacturer's operational instructions. For the source lamp, use the cadmium hollow cathode or electrodeless discharge lamp operated at the manufacturer's recommended rating for continuous operation. Allow the lamp to warm up 10 to 20 min or until the energy output stabilizes. Optimize conditions such as lamp position, burner head alignment, fuel and oxidant flow rates, etc. See the SOP or specific instrument manuals for details. Instrumental parameters for the Perkin-Elmer Model 603 used in the validation of this method are given in Attachment 1.
</P>
<P>3.10.2. Aspirate and measure the absorbance of a standard solution of cadmium. The standard concentration should be within the linear range. For the instrumentation used in the validation of this method a 2 µg/mL cadmium standard gives a net absorbance reading of about 0.350 abs. units (see Section 1.5.5.) when the instrument and the source lamp are performing to manufacturer specifications.
</P>
<P>3.10.3. To increase instrument response, scale expand the absorbance reading of the aspirated 2 µg/mL working standard approximately four times. Increase the integration time to at least 3 seconds to reduce signal noise.
</P>
<P>3.10.4. Autozero the instrument while aspirating a deionized water blank. Monitor the variation in the baseline absorbance reading (baseline noise) for a few minutes to insure that the instrument, source lamp and associated equipment are in good operating condition.
</P>
<P>3.10.5. Aspirate the working standards and samples directly into the flame and record their absorbance readings. Aspirate the deionized water blank immediately after every standard or sample to correct for and monitor any baseline drift and noise. Record the baseline absorbance reading of each deionized water blank. Label each standard and sample reading and its accompanying baseline reading.
</P>
<P>3.10.6. It is recommended that the entire series of working standards be analyzed at the beginning and end of the analysis of a set of samples to establish a concentration-response curve, ensure that the standard readings agree with each other and are reproducible. Also, analyze a working standard after every five or six samples to monitor the performance of the spectrophotometer. Standard readings should agree within ±10 to 15% of the readings obtained at the beginning of the analysis.
</P>
<P>3.10.7. Bracket the sample readings with standards during the analysis. If the absorbance reading of a sample is above the absorbance reading of the highest working standard, dilute the sample with diluting solution and reanalyze. Use the appropriate dilution factor in the calculations.
</P>
<P>3.10.8. Repeat the analysis of approximately 10% of the samples for a check of precision.
</P>
<P>3.10.9. If possible, analyze quality control samples from an independent source as a check on analytical recovery and precision.
</P>
<P>3.10.10. Record the final instrument settings at the end of the analysis. Date and label the output.
</P>
<HD3>3.11. AAS-HGA Analysis
</HD3>
<P>Initially analyze all of the air samples for their cadmium content by flame atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) according to the instructions given in Section 3.10. If the concentration of cadmium in a sample solution is less than three times the quantitative detection limit [0.04 µg/mL (40 ng/mL) for the instrumentation used in the validation] and the sample results are to be averaged with other samples for TWA calculations, proceed with the AAS-HGA analysis of the sample as described below.
</P>
<P>3.11.1. Set up the atomic absorption spectrophotometer and HGA for flameless atomic absorption analysis of cadmium according to the SOP (5.9.) or the manufacturer's operational instructions and allow the instrument to stabilize. The graphite furnace atomizer is equipped with a pyrolytically coated graphite tube containing a pyrolytic platform. For the source lamp, use a cadmium hollow cathode or electrodeless discharge lamp operated at the manufacturer's recommended setting for graphite furnace operation. The Zeeman background corrector and EDL are recommended for use with the L'vov platform. Instrumental parameters for the Perkin-Elmer Model 5100 spectrophotometer and Zeeman HGA-600 graphite furnace used in the validation of this method are given in Attachment 2.
</P>
<P>3.11.2. Optimize the energy reading of the spectrophotometer at 228.8 nm by adjusting the lamp position and the wavelength according to the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>3.11.3. Set up the autosampler to inject a 5-µL aliquot of the working standard, sample or reagent blank solution onto the L'vov platform along with a 10-µL overlay of the matrix modifier.
</P>
<P>3.11.4. Analyze the reagent blank (diluting solution, Section 3.5.6.) and then autozero the instrument before starting the analysis of a set of samples. It is recommended that the reagent blank be analyzed several times during the analysis to assure the integrated absorbance (peak area) reading remains at or near zero.
</P>
<P>3.11.5. Analyze a working standard approximately midway in the linear portion of the working standard range two or three times to check for reproducibility and sensitivity (see sections 1.5.5. and 1.5.6.) before starting the analysis of samples. Calculate the experimental characteristic mass value from the average integrated absorbance reading and injection volume of the analyzed working standard. Compare this value to the manufacturer's suggested value as a check of proper instrument operation.
</P>
<P>3.11.6. Analyze the reagent blank, working standard, and sample solutions. Record and label the peak area (abs-sec) readings and the peak and background peak profiles on the printer/plotter.
</P>
<P>3.11.7. It is recommended the entire series of working standards be analyzed at the beginning and end of the analysis of a set of samples. Establish a concentration-response curve and ensure standard readings agree with each other and are reproducible. Also, analyze a working standard after every five or six samples to monitor the performance of the system. Standard readings should agree within ±15% of the readings obtained at the beginning of the analysis.
</P>
<P>3.11.8. Bracket the sample readings with standards during the analysis. If the peak area reading of a sample is above the peak area reading of the highest working standard, dilute the sample with the diluting solution and reanalyze. Use the appropriate dilution factor in the calculations.
</P>
<P>3.11.9. Repeat the analysis of approximately 10% of the samples for a check of precision.
</P>
<P>3.11.10. If possible, analyze quality control samples from an independent source as a check of analytical recovery and precision.
</P>
<P>3.11.11. Record the final instrument settings at the end of the analysis. Date and label the output.
</P>
<HD3>3.12. Calculations
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Standards used for HGA analysis are in ng/mL. Total amounts of cadmium from calculations will be in ng (not µg) unless a prior conversion is made.</P></NOTE>
<P>3.12.1. Correct for baseline drift and noise in flame AAS analysis by subtracting each baseline absorbance reading from its corresponding working standard or sample absorbance reading to obtain the net absorbance reading for each standard and sample.
</P>
<P>3.12.2. Use a least squares regression program to plot a concentration-response curve of net absorbance reading (or peak area for HGA analysis) versus concentration (µg/mL or ng/mL) of cadmium in each working standard.
</P>
<P>3.12.3. Determine the concentration (µg/mL or ng/mL) of cadmium in each sample from the resulting concentration-response curve. If the concentration of cadmium in a sample solution is less than three times the quantitative detection limit [0.04 µg/mL (40 ng/mL) for the instrumentation used in the validation of the method] and if consecutive samples were taken on one employee and the sample results are to be averaged with other samples to determine a single TWA, reanalyze the sample by AAS-HGA as described in Section 3.11. and report the AAS-HGA analytical results.
</P>
<P>3.12.4. Calculate the total amount (µg or ng) of cadmium in each sample from the sample solution volume (mL):
</P>
<FP-2>W = (C)(sample vol, mL)(DF)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>W = Total cadmium in sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = Calculated concentration of cadmium
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DF = Dilution Factor (if applicable)
</FP-2>
<P>3.12.5. Make a blank correction for each air sample by subtracting the total amount of cadmium in the corresponding blank sample from the total amount of cadmium in the sample.
</P>
<P>3.12.6. Calculate the concentration of cadmium in an air sample (mg/m
<SU>3</SU> or µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) by using one of the following equations:
</P>
<FP-2>mg/m
<SU>3</SU> = W<E T="52">bc</E>/(Air vol sampled, L)
</FP-2>
<FP>or
</FP>
<FP-2>µg/m
<SU>3</SU> = (W<E T="52">bc</E>)(1,000 ng/µg)/(Air vol sampled, L)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">bc</E> = blank corrected total µg cadmium in the sample. (1µg = 1,000 ng)
</FP-2>
<HD1>4. Backup Data
</HD1>
<HD3>4.1. Introduction
</HD3>
<P>4.1.1. The purpose of this evaluation is to determine the analytical method recovery, working standard range, and qualitative and quantitative detection limits of the two atomic absorption analytical techniques included in this method. The evaluation consisted of the following experiments:
</P>
<P>1. An analysis of 24 samples (six samples each at 0.1, 0.5, 1 and 2 times the TWA-PEL) for the analytical method recovery study of the flame AAS analytical technique.
</P>
<P>2. An analysis of 18 samples (six samples each at 0.5, 1 and 2 times the Action Level TWA-PEL) for the analytical method recovery study of the AAS-HGA analytical technique.
</P>
<P>3. Multiple analyses of the reagent blank and a series of standard solutions to determine the working standard range and the qualitative and quantitative detection limits for both atomic absorption analytical techniques.
</P>
<P>4.1.2. The analytical method recovery results at all test levels were calculated from concentration-response curves and statistically examined for outliers at the 99% confidence level. Possible outliers were determined using the Treatment of Outliers test (5.10.). In addition, the sample results of the two analytical techniques, at 0.5, 1.0 and 2.0 times their target concentrations, were tested for homogeneity of variances also at the 99% confidence level. Homogeneity of the coefficients of variation was determined using the Bartlett's test (5.11.). The overall analytical error (OAE) at the 95% confidence level was calculated using the equation (5.12.):
</P>
<FP-2>OAE = ±[| Bias| + (1.96)(CV<E T="52">1</E>(pooled))(100%)]
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.3. A derivation of the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) detection limit equation (5.13.) was used to determine the qualitative and quantitative detection limits for both atomic absorption analytical techniques:
</P>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">ld</E> = k(sd)/m    (Equation 1)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">ld</E> = the smallest reliable detectable concentration an analytical instrument can determine at a given confidence level.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = 3 for the Qualitative Detection Limit at the 99.86% Confidence Level
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 10 for the Quantitative Detection Limit at the 99.99% Confidence Level.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sd = standard deviation of the reagent blank (Rbl) readings.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m = analytical sensitivity or slope as calculated by linear regression.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.4. Collection efficiencies of metallic fume and dust atmospheres on 0.8-µm mixed cellulose ester membrane filters are well documented and have been shown to be excellent (5.11.). Since elemental cadmium and the cadmium component of cadmium compounds are nonvolatile, stability studies of cadmium spiked MCEF samples were not performed.
</P>
<HD3>4.2. Equipment
</HD3>
<P>4.2.1. A Perkin-Elmer (PE) Model 603 spectrophotometer equipped with a manual gas control system, a stainless steel nebulizer, a burner mixing chamber, a flow spoiler and a 10 cm. (one-slot) burner head was used in the experimental validation of the flame AAS analytical technique. A PE cadmium hollow cathode lamp, operated at the manufacturer's recommended current setting for continuous operation (4 mA), was used as the source lamp. Instrument parameters are listed in Attachment 1.
</P>
<P>4.2.2. A PE Model 5100 spectrophotometer, Zeeman HGA-600 graphite furnace atomizer and AS-60 HGA autosampler were used in the experimental validation of the AAS-HGA analytical technique. The spectrophotometer was equipped with a PE Series 7700 professional computer and Model PR-310 printer. A PE System 2 cadmium electrodeless discharge lamp, operated at the manufacturer's recommended current setting for modulated operation (170 mA), was used as the source lamp. Instrument parameters are listed in Attachment 2.
</P>
<HD3>4.3. Reagents
</HD3>
<P>4.3.1. J.T. Baker Chem. Co. (Analyzed grade) concentrated nitric acid, 69.0-71.0%, and concentrated hydrochloric acid, 36.5-38.0%, were used to prepare the samples and standards.
</P>
<P>4.3.2. Ammonium phosphate, monobasic, NH<E T="52">4</E> H<E T="52">2</E> PO<E T="52">4</E> and magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO<E T="52">3</E>)<E T="52">2</E>6H<E T="52">2</E> O, both manufactured by the Mallinckrodt Chem. Co., were used to prepare the matrix modifier for AAS-HGA analysis.
</P>
<HD3>4.4. Standard Preparation for Flame AAS Analysis
</HD3>
<P>4.4.1. Dilute stock solutions: Prepared 0.01, 0.1, 1, 10 and 100 µg/mL cadmium standard stock solutions by making appropriate serial dilutions of a commercially available 1,000 µg/mL cadmium standard stock solution (RICCA Chemical Co., Lot# A102) with the diluting solution (4% HNO<E T="52">3</E>, 0.4% HCl).
</P>
<P>4.4.2. Analyzed Standards: Prepared cadmium standards in the range of 0.001 to 2.0 µg/mL by pipetting 2 to 10 mL of the appropriate dilute cadmium stock solution into a 100-mL volumetric flask and diluting to volume with the diluting solution. (See Section 3.7.2.)
</P>
<HD3>4.5. Standard Preparation for AAS-HGA Analysis
</HD3>
<P>4.5.1. Dilute stock solutions: Prepared 1, 10, 100 and 1,000 ng/mL cadmium standard stock solutions by making appropriate serial dilutions of a commercially available 1,000 µg/mL cadmium standard stock solution (J.T. Baker Chemical Co., Instra-analyzed, Lot# D22642) with the diluting solution (4% HNO<E T="52">3</E>, 0.4% HCl).
</P>
<P>4.5.2. Analyzed Standards: Prepared cadmium standards in the range of 0.1 to 40 ng/mL by pipetting 2 to 10 mL of the appropriate dilute cadmium stock solution into a 100-mL volumetric flask and diluting to volume with the diluting solution. (See Section 3.8.2.)
</P>
<HD3>4.6. Detection Limits and Standard Working Range for Flame AAS Analysis
</HD3>
<P>4.6.1. Analyzed the reagent blank solution and the entire series of cadmium standards in the range of 0.001 to 2.0 µg/mL three to six times according to the instructions given in Section 3.10. The diluting solution (4% HNO<E T="52">3</E>, 0.4% HCl) was used as the reagent blank. The integration time on the PE 603 spectrophotometer was set to 3.0 seconds and a four-fold expansion of the absorbance reading of the 2.0 µg/mL cadmium standard was made prior to analysis. The 2.0 µg/mL standard gave a net absorbance reading of 0.350 abs. units prior to expansion in agreement with the manufacturer's specifications (5.6.).
</P>
<P>4.6.2. The net absorbance readings of the reagent blank and the low concentration Cd standards from 0.001 to 0.1 µg/mL and the statistical analysis of the results are shown in Table I. The standard deviation, sd, of the six net absorbance readings of the reagent blank is 1.05 abs. units. The slope, m, as calculated by a linear regression plot of the net absorbance readings (shown in Table II) of the 0.02 to 1.0 µg/mL cadmium standards versus their concentration is 772.7 abs. units/(µg/mL).
</P>
<P>4.6.3. If these values for sd and the slope, m, are used in Eqn. 1 (Sect. 4.1.3.), the qualitative and quantitative detection limits as determined by the IUPAC Method are:
</P>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">ld</E> = (3)(1.05 abs. units)/(772.7 abs. units/(µg/mL))
</FP-2>
<FP1-2> = 0.0041 µg/mL for the qualitative detection limit.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">ld</E> = (10)(1.05 abs. units)/(772.7 abs. units/µg/mL))
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>= 0.014 µg/mL for the quantitative detection limit.
</FP1-2>
<FP>The qualitative and quantitative detection limits for the flame AAS analytical technique are 0.041 µg and 0.14 µg cadmium, respectively, for a 10 mL solution volume. These correspond, respectively, to 0.2 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> and 0.70 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 200 L air volume.
</FP>
<P>4.6.4. The recommended Cd standard working range for flame AAS analysis is 0.02 to 2.0 µg/mL. The net absorbance readings of the reagent blank and the recommended working range standards and the statistical analysis of the results are shown in Table II. The standard of lowest concentration in the working range, 0.02 µg/mL, is slightly greater than the calculated quantitative detection limit, 0.014 µg/mL. The standard of highest concentration in the working range, 2.0 µg/mL, is at the upper end of the linear working range suggested by the manufacturer (5.6.). Although the standard net absorbance readings are not strictly linear at concentrations above 0.5 µg/mL, the deviation from linearity is only about 10% at the upper end of the recommended standard working range. The deviation from linearity is probably caused by the four-fold expansion of the signal suggested in the method. As shown in Table II, the precision of the standard net absorbance readings are excellent throughout the recommended working range; the relative standard deviations of the readings range from 0.009 to 0.064.
</P>
<HD3>4.7. Detection Limits and Standard Working Range for AAS-HGA Analysis
</HD3>
<P>4.7.1. Analyzed the reagent blank solution and the entire series of cadmium standards in the range of 0.1 to 40 ng/mL according to the instructions given in Section 3.11. The diluting solution (4% HNO<E T="52">3</E>, 0.4% HCl) was used as the reagent blank. A fresh aliquot of the reagent blank and of each standard was used for every analysis. The experimental characteristic mass value was 0.41 pg, calculated from the average peak area (abs-sec) reading of the 5 ng/mL standard which is approximately midway in the linear portion of the working standard range. This agreed within 20% with the characteristic mass value, 0.35 pg, listed by the manufacturer of the instrument (5.2.).
</P>
<P>4.7.2. The peak area (abs-sec) readings of the reagent blank and the low concentration Cd standards from 0.1 to 2.0 ng/mL and statistical analysis of the results are shown in Table III. Five of the reagent blank peak area readings were zero and the sixth reading was 1 and was an outlier. The near lack of a blank signal does not satisfy a strict interpretation of the IUPAC method for determining the detection limits. Therefore, the standard deviation of the six peak area readings of the 0.2 ng/mL cadmium standard, 0.75 abs-sec, was used to calculate the detection limits by the IUPAC method. The slope, m, as calculated by a linear regression plot of the peak area (abs-sec) readings (shown in Table IV) of the 0.2 to 10 ng/mL cadmium standards versus their concentration is 51.5 abs-sec/(ng/mL).
</P>
<P>4.7.3. If 0.75 abs-sec (sd) and 51.5 abs-sec/(ng/mL) (m) are used in Eqn. 1 (Sect. 4.1.3.), the qualitative and quantitative detection limits as determined by the IUPAC method are:
</P>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">ld</E> = (3)(0.75 abs-sec)/(51.5 abs-sec/(ng/mL)
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>= 0.044 ng/mL for the qualitative detection limit.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">ld</E>= (10)(0.75 abs-sec)/(51.5 abs-sec/(ng/mL) = 0.15 ng/mL for the quantitative detection limit.
</FP-2>
<FP>The qualitative and quantitative detection limits for the AAS-HGA analytical technique are 0.44 ng and 1.5 ng cadmium, respectively, for a 10 mL solution volume. These correspond, respectively, to 0.007 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> and 0.025 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 60 L air volume.
</FP>
<P>4.7.4. The peak area (abs-sec) readings of the Cd standards from 0.2 to 40 ng/mL and the statistical analysis of the results are given in Table IV. The recommended standard working range for AAS-HGA analysis is 0.2 to 20 ng/mL. The standard of lowest concentration in the recommended working range is slightly greater than the calculated quantitative detection limit, 0.15 ng/mL. The deviation from linearity of the peak area readings of the 20 ng/mL standard, the highest concentration standard in the recommended working range, is approximately 10%. The deviations from linearity of the peak area readings of the 30 and 40 ng/mL standards are significantly greater than 10%. As shown in Table IV, the precision of the peak area readings are satisfactory throughout the recommended working range; the relative standard deviations of the readings range from 0.025 to 0.083.
</P>
<HD3>4.8. Analytical Method Recovery for Flame AAS Analysis
</HD3>
<P>4.8.1. Four sets of spiked MCEF samples were prepared by injecting 20 µL of 10, 50, 100 and 200 µg/mL dilute cadmium stock solutions on 37 mm diameter filters (part no. AAWP 037 00, Millipore Corp., Bedford, MA) with a calibrated micropipet. The dilute stock solutions were prepared by making appropriate serial dilutions of a commercially available 1,000 µg/mL cadmium standard stock solution (RICCA Chemical Co., Lot# A102) with the diluting solution (4% HNO<E T="52">3</E>, 0.4% HCl). Each set contained six samples and a sample blank. The amount of cadmium in the prepared sets were equivalent to 0.1, 0.5, 1.0 and 2.0 times the TWA PEL target concentration of 5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 400 L air volume.
</P>
<P>4.8.2. The air-dried spiked filters were digested and analyzed for their cadmium content by flame atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) following the procedure described in Section 3. The 0.02 to 2.0µg/mL cadmium standards (the suggested working range) were used in the analysis of the spiked filters.
</P>
<P>4.8.3. The results of the analysis are given in Table V. One result at 0.5 times the TWA PEL target concentration was an outlier and was excluded from statistical analysis. Experimental justification for rejecting it is that the outlier value was probably due to a spiking error. The coefficients of variation for the three test levels at 0.5 to 2.0 times the TWA PEL target concentration passed the Bartlett's test and were pooled.
</P>
<P>4.8.4. The average recovery of the six spiked filter samples at 0.1 times the TWA PEL target concentration was 118.2% with a coefficient of variation (CV<E T="52">1</E>) of 0.128. The average recovery of the spiked filter samples in the range of 0.5 to 2.0 times the TWA target concentration was 104.0% with a pooled coefficient of variation (CV<E T="52">1</E>) of 0.010. Consequently, the analytical bias found in these spiked sample results over the tested concentration range was + 4.0% and the OAE was ±6.0%.
</P>
<HD3>4.9. Analytical Method Recovery for AAS-HGA Analysis
</HD3>
<P>4.9.1. Three sets of spiked MCEF samples were prepared by injecting 15µL of 5, 10 and 20 µg/mL dilute cadmium stock solutions on 37 mm diameter filters (part no. AAWP 037 00, Millipore Corp., Bedford, MA) with a calibrated micropipet. The dilute stock solutions were prepared by making appropriate serial dilutions of a commercially available certified 1,000 µg/mL cadmium standard stock solution (Fisher Chemical Co., Lot# 913438-24) with the diluting solution (4% HNO<E T="52">3</E>, 0.4% HCl). Each set contained six samples and a sample blank. The amount of cadmium in the prepared sets were equivalent to 0.5, 1 and 2 times the Action Level TWA target concentration of 2.5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for a 60 L air volume.
</P>
<P>4.9.2. The air-dried spiked filters were digested and analyzed for their cadmium content by flameless atomic absorption spectroscopy using a heated graphite furnace atomizer following the procedure described in Section 3. A five-fold dilution of the spiked filter samples at 2 times the Action Level TWA was made prior to their analysis. The 0.05 to 20 ng/mL cadmium standards were used in the analysis of the spiked filters.
</P>
<P>4.9.3. The results of the analysis are given in Table VI. There were no outliers. The coefficients of variation for the three test levels at 0.5 to 2.0 times the Action Level TWA PEL passed the Bartlett's test and were pooled. The average recovery of the spiked filter samples was 94.2% with a pooled coefficient of variation (CV<E T="52">1</E>) of 0.043. Consequently, the analytical bias was −5.8% and the OAE was ±14.2%.
</P>
<HD3>4.10. Conclusions
</HD3>
<P>The experiments performed in this evaluation show the two atomic absorption analytical techniques included in this method to be precise and accurate and have sufficient sensitivity to measure airborne cadmium over a broad range of exposure levels and sampling periods.
</P>
<HD1>5. References
</HD1>
<P>5.1. Slavin, W. Graphite Furnace AAS—A Source Book; Perkin-Elmer Corp., Spectroscopy Div.: Ridgefield, CT, 1984; p. 18 and pp. 83-90.
</P>
<P>5.2. Grosser, Z., Ed.; Techniques in Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry; Perkin-Elmer Corp., Spectroscopy Div.: Ridgefield, CT, 1985.
</P>
<P>5.3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration Salt Lake Technical Center: Metal and Metalloid Particulate in Workplace Atmospheres (Atomic Absorption) (USDOL/OSHA Method No. ID-121). In OSHA Analytical Methods Manual 2nd ed. Cincinnati, OH: American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists, 1991.
</P>
<P>5.4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration Salt Lake Technical Center: Metal and Metalloid Particulate in Workplace Atmospheres (ICP) (USDOL/OSHA Method No. ID-125G). In OSHA Analytical Methods Manual 2nd ed. Cincinnati, OH: American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists, 1991.
</P>
<P>5.5. Windholz, M., Ed.; The Merck Index, 10th ed.; Merck &amp; Co.: Rahway, NJ, 1983.
</P>
<P>5.6. Analytical Methods for Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry, The Perkin-Elmer Corporation: Norwalk, CT, 1982.
</P>
<P>5.7. Slavin, W., D.C. Manning, G. Carnrick, and E. Pruszkowska: Properties of the Cadmium Determination with the Platform Furnace and Zeeman Background Correction. Spectrochim. Acta 38B:1157-1170 (1983).
</P>
<P>5.8. Occupational Safety and Health Administration Salt Lake Technical Center: Standard Operating Procedure for Atomic Absorption. Salt Lake City, UT: USDOL/OSHA-SLTC, In progress.
</P>
<P>5.9. Occupational Safety and Health Administration Salt Lake Technical Center: AAS-HGA Standard Operating Procedure. Salt Lake City, UT: USDOL/OSHA-SLTC, In progress.
</P>
<P>5.10. Mandel, J.: Accuracy and Precision, Evaluation and Interpretation of Analytical Results, The Treatment of Outliers. In Treatise On Analytical Chemistry, 2nd ed., Vol.1, edited by I. M. Kolthoff and P. J. Elving. New York: John Wiley and Sons, 1978. pp. 282-285.
</P>
<P>5.11. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health: Documentation of the NIOSH Validation Tests by D. Taylor, R. Kupel, and J. Bryant (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. 77-185). Cincinnati, OH: National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, 1977.
</P>
<P>5.12. Occupational Safety and Health Administration Analytical Laboratory: Precision and Accuracy Data Protocol for Laboratory Validations. In OSHA Analytical Methods Manual 1st ed. Cincinnati, OH: American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (Pub. No. ISBN: 0-936712-66-X), 1985.
</P>
<P>5.13. Long, G.L. and J.D. Winefordner: Limit of Detection—A Closer Look at the IUPAC Definition. Anal.Chem. 55:712A-724A (1983).
</P>
<P>5.14. American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists: Documentation of Threshold Limit Values and Biological Exposure Indices. 5th ed. Cincinnati, OH: American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists, 1986.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I—Cd Detection Limit Study
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Flame AAS Analysis]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">STD (µg/mL)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Absorbance reading at 228.8 nm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statistical analysis
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reagent blank</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5   2
<br/>4   3
<br/>4   3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 3.50.
<br/>std dev = 1.05.
<br/>CV = 0.30.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6   6
<br/>2   4
<br/>6   6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 5.00.
<br/>std dev = 1.67.
<br/>CV = 0.335.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5   7
<br/>7   3
<br/>7   4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 5.50.
<br/>std dev = 1.76.
<br/>CV = 0.320.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7   7
<br/>8   8
<br/>8   6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 7.33.
<br/>std dev = 0.817.
<br/>CV = 0.111.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10   9
<br/>10  13
<br/>10  10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 10.3.
<br/>std dev = 1.37.
<br/>CV = 0.133.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20  23
<br/>20  22
<br/>20  20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 20.8.
<br/>std dev = 1.33.
<br/>CV = 0.064.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42  42
<br/>42  42
<br/>42  45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 42.5.
<br/>std dev = 1.22.
<br/>CV = 0.029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84
<br/>80
<br/>83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 3.
<br/>mean = 82.3.
<br/>std dev = 2.08.
<br/>CV = 0.025.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table II—Cd Standard Working Range Study
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Flame AAS Analysis]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">STD (µg/mL)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Absorbance reading at 228.8 nm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statistical analysis
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reagent blank</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5   2
<br/>4   3
<br/>4   3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 3.50.
<br/>std dev = 1.05.
<br/>CV = 0.30.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20  23
<br/>20  22
<br/>20  20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 20.8.
<br/>std dev = 1.33.
<br/>CV = 0.064.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42  42
<br/>42  42
<br/>42  45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 42.5.
<br/>std dev = 1.22.
<br/>CV = 0.029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84
<br/>80
<br/>83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 3.
<br/>mean = 82.3.
<br/>std dev = 2.08.
<br/>CV = 0.025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161
<br/>161
<br/>158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 3.
<br/>mean = 160.0.
<br/>std dev = 1.73.
<br/>CV = 0.011.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">391
<br/>389
<br/>393</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 3.
<br/>mean = 391.0.
<br/>std dev = 2.00.
<br/>CV = 0.005.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">760
<br/>748
<br/>752</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 3.
<br/>mean = 753.3.
<br/>std dev = 6.11.
<br/>CV = 0.008.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1416
<br/>1426
<br/>1401</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 3.
<br/>mean = 1414.3.
<br/>std dev = 12.6.
<br/>CV = 0.009.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table III—Cd Detection Limit Study
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[AAS-HGA Analysis]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">STD (ng/mL)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Peak area readings × 10
<sup>3</sup> at 228.8 nm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statistical analysis
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reagent blank</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0   0
<br/>0   1
<br/>0   0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 0.167.
<br/>std dev = 0.41.
<br/>CV = 2.45.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8   6
<br/>5   7
<br/>13   7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 7.7.
<br/>std dev = 2.8.
<br/>CV = 0.366.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11  13
<br/>11  12
<br/>12  12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 11.8.
<br/>std dev = 0.75.
<br/>CV = 0.064.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28  33
<br/>26  28
<br/>28  30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 28.8.
<br/>std dev = 2.4.
<br/>CV = 0.083.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52  55
<br/>56  58
<br/>54  54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 54.8.
<br/>std dev = 2.0.
<br/>CV = 0.037.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101  112
<br/>110  110
<br/>110  110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 108.8.
<br/>std dev = 3.9.
<br/>CV = 0.036.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table IV—Cd Standard Working Range Study
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[AAS-HGA Analysis]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">STD (ng/mL)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Peak area readings × 10
<sup>3</sup> at 228.8 nm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statistical analysis
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11  13
<br/>11  12
<br/>12  12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 11.8.
<br/>std dev = 0.75.
<br/>CV = 0.064.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28  33
<br/>26  28
<br/>28  30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 28.8.
<br/>std dev = 2.4.
<br/>CV = 0.083.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52  55
<br/>56  58
<br/>54  54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 54.8.
<br/>std dev = 2.0.
<br/>CV = 0.037.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101  112
<br/>110  110
<br/>110  110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 108.8.
<br/>std dev = 3.9.
<br/>CV = 0.036.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">247  265
<br/>268  275
<br/>259  279</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 265.5.
<br/>std dev = 11.5.
<br/>CV = 0.044.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">495  520
<br/>523  513
<br/>516  533</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 516.7.
<br/>std dev = 12.7.
<br/>CV = 0.025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950  953
<br/>951  958
<br/>949  890</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 941.8.
<br/>std dev = 25.6.
<br/>CV = 0.027.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1269 1291
<br/>1303 1307
<br/>1295 1290</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 1293.
<br/>std dev = 13.3.
<br/>CV = 0.010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1505 1567
<br/>1535 1567
<br/>1566 1572</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 6.
<br/>mean = 1552.
<br/>std dev = 26.6.
<br/>CV = 0.017.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table V—Analytical Method Recovery
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Flame AAS Analysis]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.5 × 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Percent rec.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">µg taken
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.0 × 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Percent rec.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">µg taken
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2.0 × 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Percent rec.
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">µg taken
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">µg found
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">µg found
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">µg found
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0715</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0688</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1504</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0842</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0842</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0431</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0581</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*1.0081</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*100.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0431</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0844</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0715</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1504</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0842</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1899</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.7</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">mean = </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">std dev = </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.657</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.199
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CV<E T="52">1</E>=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="9" scope="row">CV<E T="52">1</E> (pooled) = 0.010
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Rejected as an outlier—this value did not pass the outlier T-test at the 99% confidence level.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.1 × 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Percent rec.
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">µg taken
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">µg found
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2509</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2509</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2761</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2258</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2258</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1881</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">mean = </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">std dev = </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CV<E T="52">1</E>=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.128</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table VI—Analytical Method Recovery
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[AAS-HGA analysis]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.5 × 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Percent rec.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">ng taken
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.0 × 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Percent rec.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">ng taken
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2.0 × 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Percent rec.
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ng taken
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ng found
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ng found
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ng found
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">258.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">258.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">280.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">146.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">145.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">261.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">277.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">mean = </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">std dev = </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CV<E T="52">1</E>=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.032</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.048
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="9" scope="row">CV<E T="52">1</E>(pooled) = 0.043</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>Attachment 1
</HD1>
<HD2>Instrumental Parameters for Flame AAS Analysis
</HD2>
<HD3>Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer (Perkin-Elmer Model 603)
</HD3>
<FP-2>Flame: Air/Acetylene—lean, blue
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Oxidant Flow: 55
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Fuel Flow: 32
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Wavelength: 228.8 nm
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Slit: 4 (0.7 nm)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Range: UV
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Signal: Concentration (4 exp)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Integration Time: 3 sec
</FP-2>
<HD1>Attachment 2
</HD1>
<HD2>Instrumental Parameters for HGA Analysis
</HD2>
<HD3>Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer (Perkin-Elmer Model 5100)
</HD3>
<FP-2>Signal Type: Zeeman AA
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Slitwidth: 0.7 nm
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Wavelength: 228.8 nm
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Measurement: Peak Area
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Integration Time: 6.0 sec
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>BOC Time: 5 sec</I>
</FP-2>
<P>BOC = Background Offset Correction.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Zeeman Graphite Furnace (Perkin-Elmer Model HGA-600)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Step
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ramp time (sec)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hold time (sec)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temp. (°C)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Argon flow (mL/min)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Read (sec)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1) Predry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2) Dry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3) Char</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4) Cool Down</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5) Atomize</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6) Burnout</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1910.1027—Nonmandatory Protocol for Biological Monitoring
</HD1>
<HD3>1.00 Introduction
</HD3>
<P>Under the final OSHA cadmium rule (29 CFR part 1910), monitoring of biological specimens and several periodic medical examinations are required for eligible employees. These medical examinations are to be conducted regularly, and medical monitoring is to include the periodic analysis of cadmium in blood (CDB), cadmium in urine (CDU) and beta-2-microglobulin in urine (B2MU). As CDU and B2MU are to be normalized to the concentration of creatinine in urine (CRTU), then CRTU must be analyzed in conjunction with CDU and B2MU analyses.
</P>
<P>The purpose of this protocol is to provide procedures for establishing and maintaining the quality of the results obtained from the analyses of CDB, CDU and B2MU by commercial laboratories. Laboratories conforming to the provisions of this nonmandatory protocol shall be known as “participating laboratories.” The biological monitoring data from these laboratories will be evaluated by physicians responsible for biological monitoring to determine the conditions under which employees may continue to work in locations exhibiting airborne-cadmium concentrations at or above defined actions levels (see paragraphs (l)(3) and (l)(4) of the final rule). These results also may be used to support a decision to remove workers from such locations.
</P>
<P>Under the medical monitoring program for cadmium, blood and urine samples must be collected at defined intervals from workers by physicians responsible for medical monitoring; these samples are sent to commercial laboratories that perform the required analyses and report results of these analyses to the responsible physicians. To ensure the accuracy and reliability of these laboratory analyses, the laboratories to which samples are submitted should participate in an ongoing and efficacious proficiency testing program. Availability of proficiency testing programs may vary with the analyses performed.
</P>
<P>To test proficiency in the analysis of CDB, CDU and B2MU, a laboratory should participate either in the interlaboratory comparison program operated by the Centre de Toxicologie du Quebec (CTQ) or an equivalent program. (Currently, no laboratory in the U.S. performs proficiency testing on CDB, CDU or B2MU.) Under this program, CTQ sends participating laboratories 18 samples of each analyte (CDB, CDU and/or B2MU) annually for analysis. Participating laboratories must return the results of these analyses to CTQ within four to five weeks after receiving the samples.
</P>
<P>The CTQ program pools analytical results from many participating laboratories to derive consensus mean values for each of the samples distributed. Results reported by each laboratory then are compared against these consensus means for the analyzed samples to determine the relative performance of each laboratory. The proficiency of a participating laboratory is a function of the extent of agreement between results submitted by the participating laboratory and the consensus values for the set of samples analyzed.
</P>
<P>Proficiency testing for CRTU analysis (which should be performed with CDU and B2MU analyses to evaluate the results properly) also is recommended. In the U.S., only the College of American Pathologists (CAP) currently conducts CRTU proficiency testing; participating laboratories should be accredited for CRTU analysis by the CAP.
</P>
<P>Results of the proficiency evaluations will be forwarded to the participating laboratory by the proficiency-testing laboratory, as well as to physicians designated by the participating laboratory to receive this information. In addition, the participating laboratory should, on request, submit the results of their internal Quality Assurance/Quality Control (QA/QC) program for each analytic procedure (<I>i.e.</I>, CDB, CDU and/or B2MU) to physicians designated to receive the proficiency results. For participating laboratories offering CDU and/or B2MU analyses, QA/QC documentation also should be provided for CRTU analysis. (Laboratories should provide QA/QC information regarding CRTU analysis directly to the requesting physician if they perform the analysis in-house; if CRTU analysis is performed by another laboratory under contract, this information should be provided to the physician by the contract laboratory.)
</P>
<P>QA/QC information, along with the actual biological specimen measurements, should be provided to the responsible physician using standard formats. These physicians then may collate the QA/QC information with proficiency test results to compare the relative performance of laboratories, as well as to facilitate evaluation of the worker monitoring data. This information supports decisions made by the physician with regard to the biological monitoring program, and for mandating medical removal.
</P>
<P>This protocol describes procedures that may be used by the responsible physicians to identify laboratories most likely to be proficient in the analysis of samples used in the biological monitoring of cadmium; also provided are procedures for record keeping and reporting by laboratories participating in proficiency testing programs, and recommendations to assist these physicians in interpreting analytical results determined by participating laboratories. As the collection and handling of samples affects the quality of the data, recommendations are made for these tasks. Specifications for analytical methods to be used in the medical monitoring program are included in this protocol as well.
</P>
<P>In conclusion, this document is intended as a supplement to characterize and maintain the quality of medical monitoring data collected under the final cadmium rule promulgated by OSHA (29 CFR part 1910). OSHA has been granted authority under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 to protect workers from the effects of exposure to hazardous substances in the work place and to mandate adequate monitoring of workers to determine when adverse health effects may be occurring. This nonmandatory protocol is intended to provide guidelines and recommendations to improve the accuracy and reliability of the procedures used to analyze the biological samples collected as part of the medical monitoring program for cadmium.
</P>
<HD3>2.0 Definitions
</HD3>
<P>When the terms below appear in this protocol, use the following definitions.
</P>
<P><I>Accuracy:</I> A measure of the bias of a data set. Bias is a systematic error that is either inherent in a method or caused by some artifact or idiosyncracy of the measurement system. Bias is characterized by a consistent deviation (positive or negative) in the results from an accepted reference value.
</P>
<P><I>Arithmetic Mean:</I> The sum of measurements in a set divided by the number of measurements in a set.
</P>
<P><I>Blind Samples:</I> A quality control procedure in which the concentration of analyte in the samples should be unknown to the analyst at the time that the analysis is performed.
</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of Variation:</I> The ratio of the standard deviation of a set of measurements to the mean (arithmetic or geometric) of the measurements.
</P>
<P><I>Compliance Samples:</I> Samples from exposed workers sent to a participating laboratory for analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Control Charts:</I> Graphic representations of the results for quality control samples being analyzed by a participating laboratory.
</P>
<P><I>Control Limits:</I> Statistical limits which define when an analytic procedure exceeds acceptable parameters; control limits provide a method of assessing the accuracy of analysts, laboratories, and discrete analytic runs.
</P>
<P><I>Control Samples:</I> Quality control samples.
</P>
<P><I>F/T:</I> The measured amount of an analyte divided by the theoretical value (defined below) for that analyte in the sample analyzed; this ratio is a measure of the recovery for a quality control sample.
</P>
<P><I>Geometric Mean:</I> The natural antilog of the mean of a set of natural log-transformed data.
</P>
<P><I>Geometric Standard Deviation:</I> The antilog of the standard deviation of a set of natural log-transformed data.
</P>
<P><I>Limit of Detection:</I> Using a predefined level of confidence, this is the lowest measured value at which some of the measured material is likely to have come from the sample.
</P>
<P><I>Mean:</I> A central tendency of a set of data; in this protocol, this mean is defined as the <I>arithmetic mean</I> (see definition of <I>arithmetic mean</I> above) unless stated otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Performance:</I> A measure of the overall quality of data reported by a laboratory.
</P>
<P><I>Pools:</I> Groups of quality-control samples to be established for each target value (defined below) of an analyte. For the protocol provided in attachment 3, for example, the theoretical value of the quality control samples of the pool must be within a range defined as plus or minus (±) 50% of the target value. Within each analyte pool, there must be quality control samples of at least 4 theoretical values.
</P>
<P><I>Precision:</I> The extent of agreement between repeated, independent measurements of the same quantity of an analyte.
</P>
<P><I>Proficiency:</I> The ability to satisfy a specified level of analyte performance.
</P>
<P><I>Proficiency Samples:</I> Specimens, the values of which are unknown to anyone at a participating laboratory, and which are submitted by a participating laboratory for proficiency testing.
</P>
<P><I>Quality or Data Quality:</I> A measure of the confidence in the measurement value.
</P>
<P><I>Quality Control (QC) Samples:</I> Specimens, the value of which is unknown to the analyst, but is known to the appropriate QA/QC personnel of a participating laboratory; when used as part of a laboratory QA/QC program, the theoretical values of these samples should not be known to the analyst until the analyses are complete. QC samples are to be run in sets consisting of one QC sample from each pool (see definition of “pools” above).
</P>
<P><I>Sensitivity:</I> For the purposes of this protocol, the limit of detection.
</P>
<P><I>Standard Deviation:</I> A measure of the distribution or spread of a data set about the mean; the standard deviation is equal to the positive square root of the variance, and is expressed in the same units as the original measurements in the data set.
</P>
<P><I>Standards:</I> Samples with values known by the analyst and used to calibrate equipment and to check calibration throughout an analytic run. In a laboratory QA/QC program, the values of the standards must exceed the values obtained for compliance samples such that the lowest standard value is near the limit of detection and the highest standard is higher than the highest compliance sample or QC sample. Standards of at least three different values are to be used for calibration, and should be constructed from at least 2 different sources.
</P>
<P><I>Target Value:</I> Those values of CDB, CDU or B2MU which trigger some action as prescribed in the medical surveillance section of the regulatory text of the final cadmium rule. For CDB, the target values are 5, 10 and 15 µg/l. For CDU, the target values are 3, 7, and 15 µg/g CRTU. For B<E T="52">2</E> MU, the target values are 300, 750 and 1500 µg/g CRTU. (Note that target values may vary as a function of time.)
</P>
<P><I>Theoretical Value (or Theoretical Amount):</I> The reported concentration of a quality-control sample (or calibration standard) derived from prior characterizations of the sample.
</P>
<P><I>Value or Measurement Value:</I> The numerical result of a measurement.
</P>
<P><I>Variance:</I> A measure of the distribution or spread of a data set about the mean; the variance is the sum of the squares of the differences between the mean and each discrete measurement divided by one less than the number of measurements in the data set.
</P>
<HD3>3.0 Protocol
</HD3>
<P>This protocol provides procedures for characterizing and maintaining the quality of analytic results derived for the medical monitoring program mandated for workers under the final cadmium rule.
</P>
<HD3>3.1 Overview
</HD3>
<P>The goal of this protocol is to assure that medical monitoring data are of sufficient quality to facilitate proper interpretation. The data quality objectives (DQOs) defined for the medical monitoring program are summarized in Table 1. Based on available information, the DQOs presented in Table 1 should be achievable by the majority of laboratories offering the required analyses commercially; OSHA recommends that only laboratories meeting these DQOs be used for the analysis of biological samples collected for monitoring cadmium exposure.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Recommended Data Quality Objectives (DQOs) for the Cadmium Medical Monitoring Program
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Analyte/concentration pool
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limit of detection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Precision (CV) (%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Accuracy
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium in blood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 µg/l</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±1 µg/l or 15% of the mean.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">≤2 µg/l</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&gt;2µg/l</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium in urine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 µg/g creatinine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±1 µg/l or 15% of the mean.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">≤2 µg/l creatinine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&gt;2µg/l creatinine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">β-2-microglobulin in urine: 100 µg/g creatine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 µg/g creatinine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±15% of the mean.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>To satisfy the DQOs presented in Table 1, OSHA provides the following guidelines:
</P>
<P>1. Procedures for the collection and handling of blood and urine are specified (Section 3.4.1 of this protocol);
</P>
<P>2. Preferred analytic methods for the analysis of CDB, CDU and B2MU are defined (and a method for the determination of CRTU also is specified since CDU and B2MU results are to be normalized to the level of CRTU).
</P>
<P>3. Procedures are described for identifying laboratories likely to provide the required analyses in an accurate and reliable manner;
</P>
<P>4. These guidelines (Sections 3.2.1 to 3.2.3, and Section 3.3) include recommendations regarding internal QA/QC programs for participating laboratories, as well as levels of proficiency through participation in an interlaboratory proficiency program;
</P>
<P>5. Procedures for QA/QC record keeping (Section 3.3.2), and for reporting QC/QA results are described (Section 3.3.3); and,
</P>
<P>6. Procedures for interpreting medical monitoring results are specified (Section 3.4.3).
</P>
<P>Methods recommended for the biological monitoring of eligible workers are:
</P>
<P>1. The method of Stoeppler and Brandt (1980) for CDB determinations (limit of detection: 0.5 µg/l);
</P>
<P>2. The method of Pruszkowska et al. (1983) for CDU determinations (limit of detection: 0.5 µg/l of urine); and,
</P>
<P>3. The Pharmacia Delphia test kit (Pharmacia 1990) for the determination of B2MU (limit of detection: 100 µg/l urine).
</P>
<P>Because both CDU and B2MU should be reported in µg/g CRTU, an independent determination of CRTU is recommended. Thus, both the OSHA Salt Lake City Technical Center (OSLTC) method (OSHA, no date) and the Jaffe method (Du Pont, no date) for the determination of CRTU are specified under this protocol (<I>i.e.</I>, either of these 2 methods may be used). Note that although detection limits are not reported for either of these CRTU methods, the range of measurements expected for CRTU (0.9-1.7 µg/l) are well above the likely limit of detection for either of these methods (Harrison, 1987).
</P>
<P>Laboratories using alternate methods should submit sufficient data to the responsible physicians demonstrating that the alternate method is capable of satisfying the defined data quality objectives of the program. Such laboratories also should submit a QA/QC plan that documents the performance of the alternate method in a manner entirely equivalent to the QA/QC plans proposed in Section 3.3.1.
</P>
<HD3>3.2 Duties of the Responsible Physician
</HD3>
<P>The responsible physician will evaluate biological monitoring results provided by participating laboratories to determine whether such laboratories are proficient and have satisfied the QA/QC recommendations. In determining which laboratories to employ for this purpose, these physicians should review proficiency and QA/QC data submitted to them by the participating laboratories.
</P>
<P>Participating laboratories should demonstrate proficiency for each analyte (CDU, CDB and B2MU) sampled under the biological monitoring program. Participating laboratories involved in analyzing CDU and B2MU also should demonstrate proficiency for CRTU analysis, or provide evidence of a contract with a laboratory proficient in CRTU analysis.
</P>
<HD3>3.2.1 Recommendations for Selecting Among Existing Laboratories
</HD3>
<P>OSHA recommends that existing laboratories providing commercial analyses for CDB, CDU and/or B2MU for the medical monitoring program satisfy the following criteria:
</P>
<P>1. Should have performed commercial analyses for the appropriate analyte (CDB, CDU and/or B2MU) on a regular basis over the last 2 years;
</P>
<P>2. Should provide the responsible physician with an internal QA/QC plan;
</P>
<P>3. If performing CDU or B2MU analyses, the participating laboratory should be accredited by the CAP for CRTU analysis, and should be enrolled in the corresponding CAP survey (note that alternate credentials may be acceptable, but acceptability is to be determined by the responsible physician); and,
</P>
<P>4. Should have enrolled in the CTQ interlaboratory comparison program for the appropriate analyte (CDB, CDU and/or B2MU).
</P>
<P>Participating laboratories should submit appropriate documentation demonstrating compliance with the above criteria to the responsible physician. To demonstrate compliance with the first of the above criteria, participating laboratories should submit the following documentation for each analyte they plan to analyze (note that each document should cover a period of at least 8 consecutive quarters, and that the period designated by the term “regular analyses” is at least once a quarter):
</P>
<P>1. Copies of laboratory reports providing results from regular analyses of the appropriate analyte (CDB, CDU and/or B2MU);
</P>
<P>2. Copies of 1 or more signed and executed contracts for the provision of regular analyses of the appropriate analyte (CDB, CDU and/or B2MU); or,
</P>
<P>3. Copies of invoices sent to 1 or more clients requesting payment for the provision of regular analyses of the appropriate analyte (CDB, CDU and/or B2MU). Whatever the form of documentation submitted, the specific analytic procedures conducted should be identified directly. The forms that are copied for submission to the responsible physician also should identify the laboratory which provided these analyses.
</P>
<P>To demonstrate compliance with the second of the above criteria, a laboratory should submit to the responsible physician an internal QA/QC plan detailing the standard operating procedures to be adopted for satisfying the recommended QA/QC procedures for the analysis of each specific analyte (CDB, CDU and/or B2MU). Procedures for internal QA/QC programs are detailed in Section 3.3.1 below.
</P>
<P>To satisfy the third of the above criteria, laboratories analyzing for CDU or B2MU also should submit a QA/QC plan for creatinine analysis (CRTU); the QA/QC plan and characterization analyses for CRTU must come from the laboratory performing the CRTU analysis, even if the CRTU analysis is being performed by a contract laboratory.
</P>
<P>Laboratories enrolling in the CTQ program (to satisfy the last of the above criteria) must remit, with the enrollment application, an initial fee of approximately $100 per analyte. (Note that this fee is only an estimate, and is subject to revision without notice.) Laboratories should indicate on the application that they agree to have proficiency test results sent by the CTQ directly to the physicians designated by participating laboratories.
</P>
<P>Once a laboratory's application is processed by the CTQ, the laboratory will be assigned a code number which will be provided to the laboratory on the initial confirmation form, along with identification of the specific analytes for which the laboratory is participating. Confirmation of participation will be sent by the CTQ to physicians designated by the applicant laboratory.
</P>
<HD3>3.2.2 Recommended Review of Laboratories Selected To Perform Analyses
</HD3>
<P>Six months after being selected initially to perform analyte determinations, the status of participating laboratories should be reviewed by the responsible physicians. Such reviews should then be repeated every 6 months or whenever additional proficiency or QA/QC documentation is received (whichever occurs first).
</P>
<P>As soon as the responsible physician has received the CTQ results from the first 3 rounds of proficiency testing (<I>i.e.</I>, 3 sets of 3 samples each for CDB, CDU and/or B2MU) for a participating laboratory, the status of the laboratory's continued participation should be reviewed. Over the same initial 6-month period, participating laboratories also should provide responsible physicians the results of their internal QA/QC monitoring program used to assess performance for each analyte (CDB, CDU and/or B2MU) for which the laboratory performs determinations. This information should be submitted using appropriate forms and documentation.
</P>
<P>The status of each participating laboratory should be determined for each analyte (<I>i.e.</I>, whether the laboratory satisfies minimum proficiency guidelines based on the proficiency samples sent by the CTQ and the results of the laboratory's internal QA/QC program). To maintain competency for analysis of CDB, CDU and/or B2MU during the first review, the laboratory should satisfy performance requirements for at least 2 of the 3 proficiency samples provided in each of the 3 rounds completed over the 6-month period. Proficiency should be maintained for the analyte(s) for which the laboratory conducts determinations.
</P>
<P>To continue participation for CDU and/or B2MU analyse, laboratories also should either maintain accreditation for CRTU analysis in the CAP program and participate in the CAP surveys, or they should contract the CDU and B2MU analyses to a laboratory which satisfies these requirements (or which can provide documentation of accreditation/participation in an equivalent program).
</P>
<P>The performance requirement for CDB analysis is defined as an analytical result within ±1 µg/l blood or 15% of the consensus mean (whichever is greater). For samples exhibiting a consensus mean less than 1 µg/l, the performance requirement is defined as a concentration between the detection limit of the analysis and a maximum of 2 µg/l. The purpose for redefining the acceptable interval for low CDB values is to encourage proper reporting of the actual values obtained during measurement; laboratories, therefore, will not be penalized (in terms of a narrow range of acceptability) for reporting measured concentrations smaller than 1 µg/l.
</P>
<P>The performance requirement for CDU analysis is defined as an analytical result within ±1 µg/l urine or 15% of the consensus mean (whichever is greater). For samples exhibiting a consensus mean less than 1 µg/l urine, the performance requirement is defined as a concentration between the detection limit of the analysis and a maximum of 2 µg/l urine. Laboratories also should demonstrate proficiency in creatinine analysis as defined by the CAP. Note that reporting CDU results, other than for the CTQ proficiency samples (<I>i.e.</I>, compliance samples), should be accompanied with results of analyses for CRTU, and these 2 sets of results should be combined to provide a measure of CDU in units of µg/g CRTU.
</P>
<P>The performance requirement for B2MU is defined as analytical results within ±15% of the consensus mean. Note that reporting B2MU results, other than for CTQ proficiency samples (<I>i.e.</I>, compliance samples), should be accompanied with results of analyses for CRTU, and these 2 sets of results should be combined to provide a measure of B2MU in units of µg/g CRTU.
</P>
<P>There are no recommended performance checks for CRTU analyses. As stated previously, laboratories performing CRTU analysis in support of CDU or B2MU analyses should be accredited by the CAP, and participating in the CAP's survey for CRTU.
</P>
<P>Following the first review, the status of each participating laboratory should be reevaluated at regular intervals (<I>i.e.</I>, corresponding to receipt of results from each succeeding round of proficiency testing and submission of reports from a participating laboratory's internal QA/QC program).
</P>
<P>After a year of collecting proficiency test results, the following proficiency criterion should be added to the set of criteria used to determine the participating laboratory's status (for analyzing CDB, CDU and/or B2MU): A participating laboratory should not fail performance requirements for more than 4 samples from the 6 most recent consecutive rounds used to assess proficiency for CDB, CDU and/or B2MU separately (<I>i.e.</I>, a total of 18 discrete proficiency samples for each analyte). Note that this requirement does not replace, but supplements, the recommendation that a laboratory should satisfy the performance criteria for at least 2 of the 3 samples tested for each round of the program.
</P>
<HD3>3.2.3 Recommendations for Selecting Among Newly-Formed Laboratories (or Laboratories That Previously Failed To Meet the Protocol Guidelines)
</HD3>
<P>OSHA recommends that laboratories that have not previously provided commercial analyses of CDB, CDU and/or B2MU (or have done so for a period less than 2 years), or which have provided these analyses for 2 or more years but have not conformed previously with these protocol guidelines, should satisfy the following provisions for each analyte for which determinations are to be made prior to being selected to analyze biological samples under the medical monitoring program:
</P>
<P>1. Submit to the responsible physician an internal QA/QC plan detailing the standard operating procedures to be adopted for satisfying the QA/QC guidelines (guidelines for internal QA/QC programs are detailed in Section 3.3.1);
</P>
<P>2. Submit to the responsible physician the results of the initial characterization analyses for each analyte for which determinations are to be made;
</P>
<P>3. Submit to the responsible physician the results, for the initial 6-month period, of the internal QA/QC program for each analyte for which determinations are to be made (if no commercial analyses have been conducted previously, a minimum of 2 mock standardization trials for each analyte should be completed per month for a 6-month period);
</P>
<P>4. Enroll in the CTQ program for the appropriate analyte for which determinations are to be made, and arrange to have the CTQ program submit the initial confirmation of participation and proficiency test results directly to the designated physicians. Note that the designated physician should receive results from 3 completed rounds from the CTQ program before approving a laboratory for participation in the biological monitoring program;
</P>
<P>5. Laboratories seeking participation for CDU and/or B2MU analyses should submit to the responsible physician documentation of accreditation by the CAP for CRTU analyses performed in conjunction with CDU and/or B2MU determinations (if CRTU analyses are conducted by a contract laboratory, this laboratory should submit proof of CAP accreditation to the responsible physician); and,
</P>
<P>6. Documentation should be submitted on an appropriate form.
</P>
<P>To participate in CDB, CDU and/or B2MU analyses, the laboratory should satisfy the above criteria for a minimum of 2 of the 3 proficiency samples provided in each of the 3 rounds of the CTQ program over a 6-month period; this procedure should be completed for each appropriate analyte. Proficiency should be maintained for each analyte to continue participation. Note that laboratories seeking participation for CDU or B2MU also should address the performance requirements for CRTU, which involves providing evidence of accreditation by the CAP and participation in the CAP surveys (or an equivalent program).
</P>
<P>The performance requirement for CDB analysis is defined as an analytical result within ±1 µg/l or 15% of the consensus mean (whichever is greater). For samples exhibiting a consensus mean less than 1 µg/l, the performance requirement is defined as a concentration between the detection limit of the analysis and a maximum of 2 µg/l. The purpose of redefining the acceptable interval for low CDB values is to encourage proper reporting of the actual values obtained during measurement; laboratories, therefore, will not be penalized (in terms of a narrow range of acceptability) for reporting measured concentrations less than 1 µg/l.
</P>
<P>The performance requirement for CDU analysis is defined as an analytical result within ±1 µg/l urine or 15% of the consensus mean (whichever is greater). For samples exhibiting a consensus mean less than 1 µg/l urine, the performance requirement is defined as a concentration that falls between the detection limit of the analysis and a maximum of 2 µg/l urine. Performance requirements for the companion CRTU analysis (defined by the CAP) also should be met. Note that reporting CDU results, other than for CTQ proficiency testing should be accompanied with results of CRTU analyses, and these 2 sets of results should be combined to provide a measure of CDU in units of µg/g CRTU.
</P>
<P>The performance requirement for B2MU is defined as an analytical result within ±15% of the consensus mean. Note that reporting B2MU results, other than for CTQ proficiency testing should be accompanied with results of CRTU analysis, these 2 sets of results should be combined to provide a measure of B2MU in units of µg/g CRTU.
</P>
<P>Once a new laboratory has been approved by the responsible physician for conducting analyte determinations, the status of this approval should be reviewed periodically by the responsible physician as per the criteria presented under Section 3.2.2.
</P>
<P>Laboratories which have failed previously to gain approval of the responsible physician for conducting determinations of 1 or more analytes due to lack of compliance with the criteria defined above for existing laboratories (Section 3.2.1), may obtain approval by satisfying the criteria for newly-formed laboratories defined under this section; for these laboratories, the second of the above criteria may be satisfied by submitting a new set of characterization analyses for each analyte for which determinations are to be made.
</P>
<P>Reevaluation of these laboratories is discretionary on the part of the responsible physician. Reevaluation, which normally takes about 6 months, may be expedited if the laboratory can achieve 100% compliance with the proficiency test criteria using the 6 samples of each analyte submitted to the CTQ program during the first 2 rounds of proficiency testing.
</P>
<P>For laboratories seeking reevaluation for CDU or B2MU analysis, the guidelines for CRTU analyses also should be satisfied, including accreditation for CRTU analysis by the CAP, and participation in the CAP survey program (or accreditation/participation in an equivalent program).
</P>
<HD3>3.2.4 Future Modifications to the Protocol Guidelines
</HD3>
<P>As participating laboratories gain experience with analyses for CDB, CDU and B2MU, it is anticipated that the performance achievable by the majority of laboratories should improve until it approaches that reported by the research groups which developed each method. OSHA, therefore, may choose to recommend stricter performance guidelines in the future as the overall performance of participating laboratories improves.
</P>
<HD3>3.3 Guidelines for Record Keeping and Reporting
</HD3>
<P>To comply with these guidelines, participating laboratories should satisfy the above-stated performance and proficiency recommendations, as well as the following internal QA/QC, record keeping, and reporting provisions.
</P>
<P>If a participating laboratory fails to meet the provisions of these guidelines, it is recommended that the responsible physician disapprove further analyses of biological samples by that laboratory until it demonstrates compliance with these guidelines. On disapproval, biological samples should be sent to a laboratory that can demonstrate compliance with these guidelines, at least until the former laboratory is reevaluated by the responsible physician and found to be in compliance.
</P>
<P>The following record keeping and reporting procedures should be practiced by participating laboratories.
</P>
<HD3>3.3.1 Internal Quality Assurance/Quality Control Procedures
</HD3>
<P>Laboratories participating in the cadmium monitoring program should develop and maintain an internal quality assurance/quality control (QA/QC) program that incorporates procedures for establishing and maintaining control for each of the analytic procedures (determinations of CDB, CDU and/or B2MU) for which the laboratory is seeking participation. For laboratories analyzing CDU and/or B2MU, a QA/QC program for CRTU also should be established.
</P>
<P>Written documentation of QA/QC procedures should be described in a formal QA/QC plan; this plan should contain the following information: Sample acceptance and handling procedures (<I>i.e.</I>, chain-of-custody); sample preparation procedures; instrument parameters; calibration procedures; and, calculations. Documentation of QA/QC procedures should be sufficient to identify analytical problems, define criteria under which analysis of compliance samples will be suspended, and describe procedures for corrective actions.
</P>
<HD3>3.3.1.1 <I>QA/QC procedures for establishing control of CDB and CDU analyses</I>
</HD3>
<P>The QA/QC program for CDB and CDU should address, at a minimum, procedures involved in calibration, establishment of control limits, internal QC analyses and maintaining control, and corrective-action protocols. Participating laboratory should develop and maintain procedures to assure that analyses of compliance samples are within control limits, and that these procedures are documented thoroughly in a QA/QC plan.
</P>
<P>A nonmandatory QA/QC protocol is presented in Attachment 1. This attachment is illustrative of the procedures that should be addressed in a proper QA/QC program.
</P>
<P><I>Calibration.</I> Before any analytic runs are conducted, the analytic instrument should be calibrated. Calibration should be performed at the beginning of each day on which QC and/or compliance samples are run. Once calibration is established, QC or compliance samples may be run. Regardless of the type of samples run, about every fifth sample should serve as a standard to assure that calibration is being maintained.
</P>
<P>Calibration is being maintained if the standard is within ±15% of its theoretical value. If a standard is more than ±15% of its theoretical value, the run has exceeded control limits due to calibration error; the entire set of samples then should be reanalyzed after recalibrating or the results should be recalculated based on a statistical curve derived from that set of standards.
</P>
<P>It is essential that the value of the highest standard analyzed be higher than the highest sample analyzed; it may be necessary, therefore, to run a high standard at the end of the run, which has been selected based on results obtained over the course of the run (<I>i.e.</I>, higher than any standard analyzed to that point).
</P>
<P>Standards should be kept fresh; as samples age, they should be compared with new standards and replaced if necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Internal Quality Control Analyses.</I> Internal QC samples should be determined interspersed with analyses of compliance samples. At a minimum, these samples should be run at a rate of 5% of the compliance samples or at least one set of QC samples per analysis of compliance samples, whichever is greater. If only 2 samples are run, they should contain different levels of cadmium.
</P>
<P>Internal QC samples may be obtained as commercially-available reference materials and/or they may be internally prepared. Internally-prepared samples should be well characterized and traced, or compared to a reference material for which a consensus value is available.
</P>
<P>Levels of cadmium contained in QC samples should not be known to the analyst prior to reporting the results of the analysis.
</P>
<P>Internal QC results should be plotted or charted in a manner which describes sample recovery and laboratory control limits.
</P>
<P><I>Internal Control Limits.</I> The laboratory protocol for evaluating internal QC analyses per control limits should be clearly defined. Limits may be based on statistical methods (e.g., as 2σ
<AC T="3"/> from the laboratory mean recovery), or on proficiency testing limits (e.g.,±1µg or 15% of the mean, whichever is greater). Statistical limits that exceed ±40% should be reevaluated to determine the source error in the analysis.
</P>
<P>When laboratory limits are exceeded, analytic work should terminate until the source of error is determined and corrected; compliance samples affected by the error should be reanalyzed. In addition, the laboratory protocol should address any unusual trends that develop which may be biasing the results. Numerous, consecutive results above or below laboratory mean recoveries, or outside laboratory statistical limits, indicate that problems may have developed.
</P>
<P><I>Corrective Actions.</I> The QA/QC plan should document in detail specific actions taken if control limits are exceeded or unusual trends develop. Corrective actions should be noted on an appropriate form, accompanied by supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>In addition to these actions, laboratories should include whatever additional actions are necessary to assure that accurate data are reported to the responsible physicians.
</P>
<P><I>Reference Materials.</I> The following reference materials may be available:
</P>
<HD3>Cadmium in Blood (CDB)
</HD3>
<P>1. Centre de Toxicologie du Quebec, Le Centre Hospitalier de l'Universite Laval, 2705 boul. Laurier, Quebec, Que., Canada G1V 4G2. (Prepared 6 times per year at 1-15 µg Cd/l.)
</P>
<P>2. H. Marchandise, Community Bureau of Reference-BCR, Directorate General XII, Commission of the European Communities, 200, rue de la Loi, B-1049, Brussels, Belgium. (Prepared as Bl CBM-1 at 5.37 µg Cd/l, and Bl CBM-2 at 12.38 µg Cd/l.)
</P>
<P>3. Kaulson Laboratories Inc., 691 Bloomfield Ave., Caldwell, NJ 07006; tel: (201) 226-9494, FAX (201) 226-3244. (Prepared as #0141 [As, Cd, Hg, Pb] at 2 levels.)
</P>
<HD3>Cadmium in Urine (CDU)
</HD3>
<P>1. Centre de Toxicologie du Quebec, Le Centre Hospitalier de l'Universite Laval, 2705 boul. Laurier, Quebec, Que., Canada G1V 4G2. (Prepared 6 times per year.)
</P>
<P>2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Dept. of Commerce, Gaithersburg, MD; tel: (301) 975-6776. (Prepared as SRM 2670 freeze-dried urine [metals]; set includes normal and elevated levels of metals; cadmium is certified for elevated level of 88.0 µg/l in reconstituted urine.)
</P>
<P>3. Kaulson Laboratories Inc., 691 Bloomfield Ave., Caldwell, NJ 07006; tel: (201) 226-9494, FAX (201) 226-3244. (Prepared as #0140 [As, Cd, Hg, Pb] at 2 levels.)
</P>
<HD3>3.3.1.2 <I>QA/QC procedures for establishing control of B2MU</I>
</HD3>
<P>A written, detailed QA/QC plan for B2MU analysis should be developed. The QA/QC plan should contain a protocol similar to those protocols developed for the CDB/CDU analyses. Differences in analyses may warrant some differences in the QA/QC protocol, but procedures to ensure analytical integrity should be developed and followed.
</P>
<P>Examples of performance summaries that can be provided include measurements of accuracy (<I>i.e.</I>, the means of measured values versus target values for the control samples) and precision (<I>i.e.</I>, based on duplicate analyses). It is recommended that the accuracy and precision measurements be compared to those reported as achievable by the Pharmacia Delphia kit (Pharmacia 1990) to determine if and when unsatisfactory analyses have arisen. If the measurement error of 1 or more of the control samples is more than 15%, the run exceeds control limits. Similarly, this decision is warranted when the average CV for duplicate samples is greater than 5%.
</P>
<HD3>3.3.2 Procedures for Record Keeping
</HD3>
<P>To satisfy reporting requirements for commercial analyses of CDB, CDU and/or B2MU performed for the medical monitoring program mandated under the cadmium rule, participating laboratories should maintain the following documentation for each analyte:
</P>
<P>1. For each analytic instrument on which analyte determinations are made, records relating to the most recent calibration and QC sample analyses;
</P>
<P>2. For these instruments, a tabulated record for each analyte of those determinations found to be within and outside of control limits over the past 2 years;
</P>
<P>3. Results for the previous 2 years of the QC sample analyses conducted under the internal QA/QC program (this information should be: Provided for each analyte for which determinations are made and for each analytic instrument used for this purpose, sufficient to demonstrate that internal QA/QC programs are being executed properly, and consistent with data sent to responsible physicians.
</P>
<P>4. Duplicate copies of monitoring results for each analyte sent to clients during the previous 5 years, as well as associated information; supporting material such as chain-of-custody forms also should be retained; and,
</P>
<P>5. Proficiency test results and related materials received while participating in the CTQ interlaboratory program over the past 2 years; results also should be tabulated to provide a serial record of relative error (derived per Section 3.3.3 below).
</P>
<HD3>3.3.3 Reporting Procedures
</HD3>
<P>Participating laboratories should maintain these documents: QA/QC program plans; QA/QC status reports; CTQ proficiency program reports; and, analytical data reports. The information that should be included in these reports is summarized in Table 2; a copy of each report should be sent to the responsible physician.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Reporting Procedures for Laboratories Participating in the Cadmium Medical Monitoring Program
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Report
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Frequency (time frame)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Contents
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 QA/QC Program Plan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Once (initially)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A detailed description of the QA/QC protocol to be established by the laboratory to maintain control of analyte determinations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 QA/QC Status Report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every 2 months</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Results of the QC samples incorporated into regular runs for each instrument (over the period since the last report).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Proficiency Report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Attached to every data report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Results from the last full year of proficiency samples submitted to the CTQ program and Results of the 100 most recent QC samples incorporated into regular runs for each instrument.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Analytical Data Report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For all reports of data results</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date the sample was received; Date the sample was analyzed; Appropriate chain-of-custody information; Types of analyses performed; Results of the requested analyses and Copy of the most current proficiency report.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>As noted in Section 3.3.1, a QA/QC program plan should be developed that documents internal QA/QC procedures (defined under Section 3.3.1) to be implemented by the participating laboratory for each analyte; this plan should provide a list identifying each instrument used in making analyte determinations.
</P>
<P>A QA/QC status report should be written bimonthly for each analyte. In this report, the results of the QC program during the reporting period should be reported for each analyte in the following manner: The number (N) of QC samples analyzed during the period; a table of the target levels defined for each sample and the corresponding measured values; the mean of F/T value (as defined below) for the set of QC samples run during the period; and, use of X
<AC T="8"/> ±2σ
<AC T="3"/> (as defined below) for the set of QC samples run during the period as a measure of precision.
</P>
<P>As noted in Section 2, an F/T value for a QC sample is the ratio of the measured concentration of analyte to the established (<I>i.e.</I>, reference) concentration of analyte for that QC sample. The equation below describes the derivation of the mean for F/T values, X, (with N being the total number of samples analyzed):
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="27" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.012.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>The standard deviation, σ
<AC T="3"/>, for these measurements is derived using the following equation (note that 2σ
<AC T="3"/> is twice this value):
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="48" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.013.gif"/></MATH>
<P>The nonmandatory QA/QC protocol (see Attachment 1) indicates that QC samples should be divided into several discrete pools, and a separate estimate of precision for each pools then should be derived. Several precision estimates should be provided for concentrations which differ in average value. These precision measures may be used to document improvements in performance with regard to the combined pool.
</P>
<P>Participating laboratories should use the CTQ proficiency program for each analyte. Results of the this program will be sent by CTQ directly to physicians designated by the participating laboratories. Proficiency results from the CTQ program are used to establish the accuracy of results from each participating laboratory, and should be provided to responsible physicians for use in trend analysis. A proficiency report consisting of these proficiency results should accompany data reports as an attachment.
</P>
<P>For each analyte, the proficiency report should include the results from the 6 previous proficiency rounds in the following format:
</P>
<P>1. Number (N) of samples analyzed;
</P>
<P>2. Mean of the target levels, (1/N)Σ<E T="52">i</E>, with T<E T="52">i</E> being a consensus mean for the sample;
</P>
<P>3. Mean of the measurements, (1/N)Σ<E T="52">i</E>, with M<E T="52">i</E> being a sample measurement;
</P>
<P>4. A measure of error defined by:
</P>
<FP-2>   (1/N)Σ(T<E T="52">i</E>− M<E T="52">i</E>)
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<P>Analytical data reports should be submitted to responsible physicians directly. For each sample, report the following information: The date the sample was received; the date the sample was analyzed; appropriate chain-of-custody information; the type(s) of analyses performed; and, the results of the analyses. This information should be reported on a form similar to the form provided an appropriate form. The most recent proficiency program report should accompany the analytical data reports (as an attachment).
</P>
<P>Confidence intervals for the analytical results should be reported as X±2σ
<AC T="3"/>, with X being the measured value and 2σ
<AC T="3"/> the standard deviation calculated as described above.
</P>
<P>For CDU or B2MU results, which are combined with CRTU measurements for proper reporting, the 95% confidence limits are derived from the limits for CDU or B2MU, (p), and the limits for CRTU, (q), as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="31" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.014.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>For these calculations, X ±p is the measurement and confidence limits for CDU or B2MU, and Y ±q is the measurement and confidence limit for CRTU.
</FP>
<P>Participating laboratories should notify responsible physicians as soon as they receive information indicating a change in their accreditation status with the CTQ or the CAP. These physicians should not be expected to wait until formal notice of a status change has been received from the CTQ or the CAP.
</P>
<HD3>3.4 Instructions to Physicians
</HD3>
<P>Physicians responsible for the medical monitoring of cadmium-exposed workers must collect the biological samples from workers; they then should select laboratories to perform the required analyses, and should interpret the analytic results.
</P>
<HD3>3.4.1 Sample Collection and Holding Procedures
</HD3>
<P><I>Blood Samples.</I> The following procedures are recommended for the collection, shipment and storage of blood samples for CDB analysis to reduce analytical variablility; these recommendations were obtained primarily through personal communications with J.P. Weber of the CTQ (1991), and from reports by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC, 1986) and Stoeppler and Brandt (1980).
</P>
<P>To the extent possible, blood samples should be collected from workers at the same time of day. Workers should shower or thoroughly wash their hands and arms before blood samples are drawn. The following materials are needed for blood sample collection: Alcohol wipes; sterile gauze sponges; band-aids; 20-gauge, 1.5-in. stainless steel needles (sterile); preprinted labels; tourniquets; vacutainer holders; 3-ml “metal free” vacutainer tubes (<I>i.e.</I>, dark-blue caps), with EDTA as an anti-coagulant; and, styrofoam vacutainer shipping containers.
</P>
<P>Whole blood samples are taken by venipuncture. Each blue-capped tube should be labeled or coded for the worker and company before the sample is drawn. (Blue-capped tubes are recommended instead of red-capped tubes because the latter may consist of red coloring pigment containing cadmium, which could contaminate the samples.) Immediately after sampling, the vacutainer tubes must be thoroughly mixed by inverting the tubes at least 10 times manually or mechanically using a Vortex device (for 15 sec). Samples should be refrigerated immediately or stored on ice until they can be packed for shipment to the participating laboratory for analysis.
</P>
<P>The CDC recommends that blood samples be shipped with a “cool pak” to keep the samples cold during shipment. However, the CTQ routinely ships and receives blood samples for cadmium analysis that have not been kept cool during shipment. The CTQ has found no deterioration of cadmium in biological fluids that were shipped via parcel post without a cooling agent, even though these deliveries often take 2 weeks to reach their destination.
</P>
<P><I>Urine Samples.</I> The following are recommended procedures for the collection, shipment and storage of urine for CDU and B2MU analyses, and were obtained primarily through personal communications with J.P. Weber of the CTQ (1991), and from reports by the CDC (1986) and Stoeppler and Brandt (1980).
</P>
<P>Single “spot” samples are recommended. As B2M can degrade in the bladder, workers should first empty their bladder and then drink a large glass of water at the start of the visit. Urine samples then should be collected within 1 hour. Separate samples should be collected for CDU and B2MU using the following materials: Sterile urine collection cups (250 ml); small sealable plastic bags; preprinted labels; 15-ml polypropylene or polyethylene screw-cap tubes; lab gloves (“metal free”); and, preservatives (as indicated).
</P>
<P>The sealed collection cup should be kept in the plastic bag until collection time. The workers should wash their hands with soap and water before receiving the collection cup. The collection cup should not be opened until just before voiding and the cup should be sealed immediately after filling. It is important that the inside of the container and cap are not touched by, or come into contact with, the body, clothing or other surfaces.
</P>
<P>For CDU analyzes, the cup is swirled gently to resuspend any solids, and the 15-ml tube is filled with 10-12 ml urine. The CDC recommends the addition of 100 µl concentrated HNO<E T="52">3</E> as a preservative before sealing the tube and then freezing the sample. The CTQ recommends minimal handling and does not acidify their interlaboratory urine reference materials prior to shipment, nor do they freeze the sample for shipment. At the CTQ, if the urine sample has much sediment, the sample is acidified in the lab to free any cadmium in the precipitate.
</P>
<P>For B2M, the urine sample should be collected directly into a polyethylene bottle previously washed with dilute nitric acid. The pH of the urine should be measured and adjusted to 8.0 with 0.1 N NaOH immediately following collection. Samples should be frozen and stored at −20 °C until testing is performed. The B2M in the samples should be stable for 2 days when stored at 2-8 °C, and for at least 2 months at −20 °C. Repeated freezing and thawing should be avoided to prevent denaturing the B2M (Pharmacia 1990).
</P>
<HD3>3.4.2 Recommendations for Evaluating Laboratories
</HD3>
<P>Using standard error data and the results of proficiency testing obtained from CTQ, responsible physicians can make an informed choice of which laboratory to select to analyze biological samples. In general, laboratories with small standard errors and little disparity between target and measured values tend to make precise and accurate sample determinations. Estimates of precision provided to the physicians with each set of monitoring results can be compared to previously-reported proficiency and precision estimates. The latest precision estimates should be at least as small as the standard error reported previously by the laboratory. Moreover, there should be no indication that precision is deteriorating (<I>i.e.</I>, increasing values for the precision estimates). If precision is deteriorating, physicians may decide to use another laboratory for these analyses. QA/QC information provided by the participating laboratories to physicians can, therefore, assist physicians in evaluating laboratory performance.
</P>
<HD3>3.4.3 Use and Interpretation of Results
</HD3>
<P>When the responsible physician has received the CDB, CDU and/or B2MU results, these results must be compared to the action levels discussed in the final rule for cadmium. The comparison of the sample results to action levels is straightforward. The measured value reported from the laboratory can be compared directly to the action levels; if the reported value exceeds an action level, the required actions must be initiated.
</P>
<HD3>4.0 Background
</HD3>
<P>Cadmium is a naturally-occurring environmental contaminant to which humans are continually exposed in food, water, and air. The average daily intake of cadmium by the U.S. population is estimated to be 10-20 µg/day. Most of this intake is via ingestion, for which absorption is estimated at 4-7% (Kowal et al. 1979). An additional nonoccupational source of cadmium is smoking tobacco; smoking a pack of cigarettes a day adds an additional 2-4 µg cadmium to the daily intake, assuming absorption via inhalation of 25-35% (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988; Friberg and Elinder 1988; Travis and Haddock 1980).
</P>
<P>Exposure to cadmium fumes and dusts in an occupational setting where air concentrations are 20-50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> results in an additional daily intake of several hundred micrograms (Friberg and Elinder 1988, p. 563). In such a setting, occupational exposure to cadmium occurs primarily via inhalation, although additional exposure may occur through the ingestion of material via contaminated hands if workers eat or smoke without first washing. Some of the particles that are inhaled initially may be ingested when the material is deposited in the upper respiratory tract, where it may be cleared by mucociliary transport and subsequently swallowed.
</P>
<P>Cadmium introduced into the body through inhalation or ingestion is transported by the albumin fraction of the blood plasma to the liver, where it accumulates and is stored principally as a bound form complexed with the protein metallothionein. Metallothionein-bound cadmium is the main form of cadmium subsequently transported to the kidney; it is these 2 organs, the liver and kidney, in which the majority of the cadmium body burden accumulates. As much as one half of the total body burden of cadmium may be found in the kidneys (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988).
</P>
<P>Once cadmium has entered the body, elimination is slow; about 0.02% of the body burden is excreted per day via urinary/fecal elimination. The whole-body half-life of cadmium is 10-35 years, decreasing slightly with increasing age (Travis and Haddock 1980).
</P>
<P>The continual accumulation of cadmium is the basis for its chronic noncarcinogenic toxicity. This accumulation makes the kidney the target organ in which cadmium toxicity usually is first observed (Piscator 1964). Renal damage may occur when cadmium levels in the kidney cortex approach 200 µg/g wet tissue-weight (Travis and Haddock 1980).
</P>
<P>The kinetics and internal distribution of cadmium in the body are complex, and depend on whether occupational exposure to cadmium is ongoing or has terminated. In general, cadmium in blood is related principally to recent cadmium exposure, while cadmium in urine reflects cumulative exposure (<I>i.e.</I>, total body burden) (Lauwerys et al. 1976; Friberg and Elinder 1988).
</P>
<HD3>4.1 Health Effects
</HD3>
<P>Studies of workers in a variety of industries indicate that chronic exposure to cadmium may be linked to several adverse health effects including kidney dysfunction, reduced pulmonary function, chronic lung disease and cancer (<E T="04">Federal Register</E> 1990). The primary sites for cadmium-associated cancer appear to be the lung and the prostate.
</P>
<P><I>Cancer.</I> Evidence for an association between cancer and cadmium exposure comes from both epidemiological studies and animal experiments. Pott (1965) found a statistically significant elevation in the incidence of prostate cancer among a cohort of cadmium workers. Other epidemiology studies also report an elevated incidence of prostate cancer; however, the increases observed in these other studies were not statistically significant (Meridian Research, Inc. 1989).
</P>
<P>One study (Thun et al. 1985) contains sufficiently quantitative estimates of cadmium exposure to allow evaluation of dose-response relationships between cadmium exposure and lung cancer. A statistically significant excess of lung cancer attributed to cadmium exposure was found in this study, even after accounting for confounding variables such as coexposure to arsenic and smoking habits (Meridian Research, Inc. 1989).
</P>
<P>Evidence for quantifying a link between lung cancer and cadmium exposure comes from a single study (Takenaka et al. 1983). In this study, dose-response relationships developed from animal data were extrapolated to humans using a variety of models. OSHA chose the multistage risk model for estimating the risk of cancer for humans using these animal data. Animal injection studies also suggest an association between cadmium exposure and cancer, particularly observations of an increased incidence of tumors at sites remote from the point of injection. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) (Supplement 7, 1987) indicates that this, and related, evidence is sufficient to classify cadmium as an animal carcinogen. However, the results of these injection studies cannot be used to quantify risks attendant to human occupational exposures due to differences in routes of exposure (Meridian Research, Inc. 1989).
</P>
<P>Based on the above-cited studies, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) classifies cadmium as “B1,” a probable human carcinogen (USEPA 1985). IARC in 1987 recommended that cadmium be listed as a probable human carcinogen.
</P>
<P><I>Kidney Dysfunction.</I> The most prevalent nonmalignant effect observed among workers chronically exposed to cadmium is kidney dysfunction. Initially, such dysfunction is manifested by proteinuria (Meridian Research, Inc. 1989; Roth Associates, Inc. 1989). Proteinuria associated with cadmium exposure is most commonly characterized by excretion of low-molecular weight proteins (15,000-40,000 MW), accompanied by loss of electrolytes, uric acid, calcium, amino acids, and phosphate. Proteins commonly excreted include β-2-microglobulin (B2M), retinol-binding protein (RBP), immunoglobulin light chains, and lysozyme. Excretion of low molecular weight proteins is characteristic of damage to the proximal tubules of the kidney (Iwao et al. 1980).
</P>
<P>Exposure to cadmium also may lead to urinary excretion of high-molecular weight proteins such as albumin, immunoglobulin G, and glycoproteins (Meridian Research, Inc. 1989; Roth Associates, Inc. 1989). Excretion of high-molecular weight proteins is indicative of damage to the glomeruli of the kidney. Bernard et al. (1979) suggest that cadmium-associated damage to the glomeruli and damage to the proximal tubules of the kidney develop independently of each other, but may occur in the same individual.
</P>
<P>Several studies indicate that the onset of low-molecular weight proteinuria is a sign of irreversible kidney damage (Friberg et al. 1974; Roels et al. 1982; Piscator 1984; Elinder et al. 1985; Smith et al. 1986). For many workers, once sufficiently elevated levels of B2M are observed in association with cadmium exposure, such levels do not appear to return to normal even when cadmium exposure is eliminated by removal of the worker from the cadmium-contaminated work environment (Friberg, exhibit 29, 1990).
</P>
<P>Some studies indicate that cadmium-induced proteinuria may be progressive; levels of B2MU increase even after cadmium exposure has ceased (Elinder et al. 1985). Other researchers have reached similar conclusions (Frieburg testimony, OSHA docket exhibit 29, Elinder testimony, OSHA docket exhibit 55, and OSHA docket exhibits 8-86B). Such observations are not universal, however (Smith et al. 1986; Tsuchiya 1976). Studies in which proteinuria has not been observed, however, may have initiated the reassessment too early (Meridian Research, Inc.1989; Roth Associates, Inc. 1989; Roels 1989).
</P>
<P>A quantitative assessment of the risks of developing kidney dysfunction as a result of cadmium exposure was performed using the data from Ellis et al. (1984) and Falck et al. (1983). Meridian Research, Inc. (1989) and Roth Associates, Inc. (1989) employed several mathematical models to evaluate the data from the 2 studies, and the results indicate that cumulative cadmium exposure levels between 5 and 100 µg-years/m
<SU>3</SU> correspond with a one-in-a-thousand probability of developing kidney dysfunction.
</P>
<P>When cadmium exposure continues past the onset of early kidney damage (manifested as proteinuria), chronic nephrotoxicity may occur (Meridian Research, Inc. 1989; Roth Associates, Inc. 1989). Uremia, which is the loss of the glomerulus' ability to adequately filter blood, may result. This condition leads to severe disturbance of electrolyte concentrations, which may result in various clinical complications including atherosclerosis, hypertension, pericarditis, anemia, hemorrhagic tendencies, deficient cellular immunity, bone changes, and other problems. Progression of the disease may require dialysis or a kidney transplant.
</P>
<P>Studies in which animals are chronically exposed to cadmium confirm the renal effects observed in humans (Friberg et al. 1986). Animal studies also confirm cadmium-related problems with calcium metabolism and associated skeletal effects, which also have been observed among humans. Other effects commonly reported in chronic animal studies include anemia, changes in liver morphology, immunosuppression and hypertension. Some of these effects may be associated with cofactors; hypertension, for example, appears to be associated with diet, as well as with cadmium exposure. Animals injected with cadmium also have shown testicular necrosis.
</P>
<HD3>4.2 Objectives for Medical Monitoring
</HD3>
<P>In keeping with the observation that renal disease tends to be the earliest clinical manifestation of cadmium toxicity, the final cadmium standard mandates that eligible workers must be medically monitored to prevent this condition (as well as cadmimum-induced cancer). The objectives of medical-monitoring, therefore, are to: Identify workers at significant risk of adverse health effects from excess, chronic exposure to cadmium; prevent future cases of cadmium-induced disease; detect and minimize existing cadmium-induced disease; and, identify workers most in need of medical intervention.
</P>
<P>The overall goal of the medical monitoring program is to protect workers who may be exposed continuously to cadmium over a 45-year occupational lifespan. Consistent with this goal, the medical monitoring program should assure that:
</P>
<P>1. Current exposure levels remain sufficiently low to prevent the accumulation of cadmium body burdens sufficient to cause disease in the future by monitoring CDB as an indicator of recent cadmium exposure;
</P>
<P>2. Cumulative body burdens, especially among workers with undefined historical exposures, remain below levels potentially capable of leading to damage and disease by assessing CDU as an indicator of cumulative exposure to cadmium; and,
</P>
<P>3. Health effects are not occurring among exposed workers by determining B2MU as an early indicator of the onset of cadmium-induced kidney disease.
</P>
<HD3>4.3 Indicators of Cadmium Exposure and Disease
</HD3>
<P>Cadmium is present in whole blood bound to albumin, in erythrocytes, and as a metallothionein-cadmium complex. The metallothionein-cadmium complex that represents the primary transport mechanism for cadmium delivery to the kidney. CDB concentrations in the general, nonexposed population average 1 µg Cd/l whole blood, with smokers exhibiting higher levels (see Section 5.1.6). Data presented in Section 5.1.6 shows that 95% of the general population not occupationally exposed to cadmium have CDB levels less than 5 µg Cd/l.
</P>
<P>If total body burdens of cadmium remain low, CDB concentrations indicate recent exposure (<I>i.e.</I>, daily intake). This conclusion is based on data showing that cigarette smokers exhibit CDB concentrations of 2-7 µg/l depending on the number of cigarettes smoked per day (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988), while CDB levels for those who quit smoking return to general population values (approximately 1 µg/l) within several weeks (Lauwerys et al. 1976). Based on these observations, Lauwerys et al. (1976) concluded that CDB has a biological half-life of a few weeks to less than 3 months. As indicated in Section 3.1.6, the upper 95th percentile for CDB levels observed among those who are not occupationally exposed to cadmium is 5 µg/l, which suggests that the absolute upper limit to the range reported for smokers by Nordberg and Nordberg may have been affected by an extreme value (<I>i.e.</I>, beyond 2σ above the mean).
</P>
<P>Among occupationally-exposed workers, the occupational history of exposure to cadmium must be evaluated to interpret CDB levels. New workers, or workers with low exposures to cadmium, exhibit CDB levels that are representative of recent exposures, similar to the general population. However, for workers with a history of chronic exposure to cadmium, who have accumulated significant stores of cadmium in the kidneys/liver, part of the CDB concentrations appear to indicate body burden. If such workers are removed from cadmium exposure, their CDB levels remain elevated, possibly for years, reflecting prior long-term accumulation of cadmium in body tissues. This condition tends to occur, however, only beyond some threshold exposure value, and possibly indicates the capacity of body tissues to accumulate cadmium which cannot be excreted readily (Friberg and Elinder 1988; Nordberg and Nordberg 1988).
</P>
<P>CDU is widely used as an indicator of cadmium body burdens (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988). CDU is the major route of elimination and, when CDU is measured, it is commonly expressed either as µg Cd/l urine (unadjusted), µg Cd/l urine (adjusted for specific gravity), or µg Cd/g CRTU (see Section 5.2.1). The metabolic model for CDU is less complicated than CDB, since CDU is dependentin large part on the body (<I>i.e.</I>, kidney) burden of cadmium. However, a small proportion of CDU still be attributed to recent cadmium exposure, particularly if exposure to high airborne concentrations of cadmium occurred. Note that CDU is subject to larger interindividual and day-to-day variations than CDB, so repeated measurements are recommended for CDU evaluations.
</P>
<P>CDU is bound principally to metallothionein, regardless of whether the cadmium originates from metallothionein in plasma or from the cadmium pool accumulated in the renal tubules. Therefore, measurement of metallothionein in urine may provide information similar to CDU, while avoiding the contamination problems that may occur during collection and handling urine for cadmium analysis (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988). However, a commercial method for the determination of metallothionein at the sensitivity levels required under the final cadmium rule is not currently available; therefore, analysis of CDU is recommended.
</P>
<P>Among the general population not occupationally exposed to cadmium, CDU levels average less than 1 µg/l (see Section 5.2.7). Normalized for creatinine (CRTU), the average CDU concentration of the general population is less than 1 µg/g CRTU. As cadmium accumulates over the lifespan, CDU increases with age. Also, cigarette smokers may eventually accumulate twice the cadmium body burden of nonsmokers, CDU is slightly higher in smokers than in nonsmokers, even several years after smoking cessation (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988). Despite variations due to age and smoking habits, 95% of those not occupationally exposed to cadmium exhibit levels of CDU less than 3 µg/g CRTU (based on the data presented in Section 5.2.7).
</P>
<P>About 0.02% of the cadmium body burden is excreted daily in urine. When the critical cadmium concentration (about 200 ppm) in the kidney is reached, or if there is sufficient cadmium-induced kidney dysfunction, dramatic increases in CDU are observed (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988). Above 200 ppm, therefore, CDU concentrations cease to be an indicator of cadmium body burden, and are instead an index of kidney failure.
</P>
<P>Proteinuria is an index of kidney dysfunction, and is defined by OSHA to be a material impairment. Several small proteins may be monitored as markers for proteinuria. Below levels indicative of proteinuria, these small proteins may be early indicators of increased risk of cadmium-induced renal tubular disease. Analytes useful for monitoring cadmium-induced renal tubular damage include:
</P>
<P>1. β-2-Microglobulin (B2M), currently the most widely used assay for detecting kidney dysfunction, is the best characterized analyte available (Iwao et al. 1980; Chia et al. 1989);
</P>
<P>2. Retinol Binding Protein (RBP) is more stable than B2M in acidic urine (<I>i.e.</I>, B2M breakdown occurs if urinary pH is less than 5.5; such breakdown may result in false [i.e., low] B2M values [Bernard and Lauwerys, 1990]);
</P>
<P>3. N-Acetyl-B-Glucosaminidase (NAG) is the analyte of an assay that is simple, inexpensive, reliable, and correlates with cadmium levels under 10 µg/g CRTU, but the assay is less sensitive than RBP or B2M (Kawada et al. 1989);
</P>
<P>4. Metallothionein (MT) correlates with cadmium and B2M levels, and may be a better predictor of cadmium exposure than CDU and B2M (Kawada et al. 1989);
</P>
<P>5. Tamm-Horsfall Glycoprotein (THG) increases slightly with elevated cadmium levels, but this elevation is small compared to increases in urinary albumin, RBP, or B2M (Bernard and Lauwerys 1990);
</P>
<P>6. Albumin (ALB), determined by the biuret method, is not sufficiently sensitive to serve as an early indicator of the onset of renal disease (Piscator 1962);
</P>
<P>7. Albumin (ALB), determined by the Amido Black method, is sensitive and reproducible, but involves a time-consuming procedure (Piscator 1962);
</P>
<P>8. Glycosaminoglycan (GAG) increases among cadmium workers, but the significance of this effect is unknown because no relationship has been found between elevated GAG and other indices of tubular damage (Bernard and Lauwerys 1990);
</P>
<P>9. Trehalase seems to increase earlier than B2M during cadmium exposure, but the procedure for analysis is complicated and unreliable (Iwata et al. 1988); and,
</P>
<P>10. Kallikrein is observed at lower concentrations among cadmium-exposed workers than among normal controls (Roels et al. 1990).
</P>
<P>Of the above analytes, B2M appears to be the most widely used and best characterized analyte to evaluate the presence/absence, as well as the extent of, cadmium-induced renal tubular damage (Kawada, Koyama, and Suzuki 1989; Shaikh and Smith 1984; Nogawa 1984). However, it is important that samples be collected and handled so as to minimize B2M degradation under acidic urine conditions.
</P>
<P>The threshold value of B2MU commonly used to indicate the presence of kidney damage 300 µg/g CRTU (Kjellstrom et al. 1977a; Buchet et al. 1980; and Kowal and Zirkes 1983). This value represents the upper 95th or 97.5th percentile level of urinary excretion observed among those without tubular dysfunction (Elinder, exbt L-140-45, OSHA docket H057A). In agreement with these conclusions, the data presented in Section 5.3.7 of this protocol generally indicate that the level of 300 µg/g CRTU appears to define the boundary for kidney dysfunction. It is not clear, however, that this level represents the upper 95th percentile of values observed among those who fail to demonstrate proteinuria effects.
</P>
<P>Although elevated B2MU levels appear to be a fairly specific indicator of disease associated with cadmium exposure, other conditions that may lead to elevated B2MU levels include high fevers from influenza, extensive physical exercise, renal disease unrelated to cadmium exposure, lymphomas, and AIDS (Iwao et al. 1980; Schardun and van Epps 1987). Elevated B2M levels observed in association with high fevers from influenza or from extensive physical exercise are transient, and will return to normal levels once the fever has abated or metabolic rates return to baseline values following exercise. The other conditions linked to elevated B2M levels can be diagnosed as part of a properly-designed medical examination. Consequently, monitoring B2M, when accompanied by regular medical examinations and CDB and CDU determinations (as indicators of present and past cadmium exposure), may serve as a specific, early indicator of cadmium-induced kidney damage.
</P>
<HD3>4.4 Criteria for Medical Monitoring of Cadmium Workers
</HD3>
<P>Medical monitoring mandated by the final cadmium rule includes a combination of regular medical examinations and periodic monitoring of 3 analytes: CDB, CDU and B2MU. As indicated above, CDB is monitored as an indicator of current cadmium exposure, while CDU serves as an indicator of the cadmium body burden; B2MU is assessed as an early marker of irreversible kidney damage and disease.
</P>
<P>The final cadmium rule defines a series of action levels that have been developed for each of the 3 analytes to be monitored. These action levels serve to guide the responsible physician through a decision-making process. For each action level that is exceeded, a specific response is mandated. The sequence of action levels, and the attendant actions, are described in detail in the final cadmium rule.
</P>
<P>Other criteria used in the medical decision-making process relate to tests performed during the medical examination (including a determination of the ability of a worker to wear a respirator). These criteria, however, are not affected by the results of the analyte determinations addressed in the above paragraphs and, consequently, will not be considered further in these guidelines.
</P>
<HD3>4.5 Defining to Quality and Proficiency of the Analyte Determinations
</HD3>
<P>As noted above in Sections 2 and 3, the quality of a measurement should be defined along with its value to properly interpret the results. Generally, it is necessary to know the accuracy and the precision of a measurement before it can be properly evaluated. The precision of the data from a specific laboratory indicates the extent to which the repeated measurements of the same sample vary within that laboratory. The accuracy of the data provides an indication of the extent to which these results deviate from average results determined from many laboratories performing the same measurement (<I>i.e.</I>, in the absence of an independent determination of the true value of a measurement). Note that terms are defined operationally relative to the manner in which they will be used in this protocol. Formal definitions for the terms in italics used in this section can be found in the list of definitions (Section 2).
</P>
<P>Another data quality criterion required to properly evaluate measurement results is the limit of detection of that measurement. For measurements to be useful, the range of the measurement which is of interest for biological monitoring purposes must lie entirely above the limit of detection defined for that measurement.
</P>
<P>The overall quality of a laboratory's results is termed the performance of that laboratory. The degree to which a laboratory satisfies a minimum performance level is referred to as the proficiency of the laboratory. A successful medical monitoring program, therefore, should include procedures developed for monitoring and recording laboratory performance; these procedures can be used to identify the most proficient laboratories.
</P>
<HD3>5.0 Overview of Medical Monitoring Tests for CDB, CDU, B2MU and CRTU
</HD3>
<P>To evaluate whether available methods for assessing CDB, CDU, B2MU and CRTU are adequate for determining the parameters defined by the proposed action levels, it is necessary to review procedures available for sample collection, preparation and analysis. A variety of techniques for these purposes have been used historically for the determination of cadmium in biological matrices (including CDB and CDU), and for the determination of specific proteins in biological matrices (including B2MU). However, only the most recent techniques are capable of satisfying the required accuracy, precision and sensitivity (<I>i.e.</I>, limit of detection) for monitoring at the levels mandated in the final cadmium rule, while still facilitating automated analysis and rapid processing.
</P>
<HD3>5.1 Measuring Cadmium in Blood (CDB)
</HD3>
<P>Analysis of biological samples for cadmium requires strict analytical discipline regarding collection and handling of samples. In addition to occupational settings, where cadmium contamination would be apparent, cadmium is a ubiquitous environmental contaminant, and much care should be exercised to ensure that samples are not contaminated during collection, preparation or analysis. Many common chemical reagents are contaminated with cadmium at concentrations that will interfere with cadmium analysis; because of the widespread use of cadmium compounds as colored pigments in plastics and coatings, the analyst should continually monitor each manufacturer's chemical reagents and collection containers to prevent contamination of samples.
</P>
<P>Guarding against cadmium contamination of biological samples is particularly important when analyzing blood samples because cadmium concentrations in blood samples from nonexposed populations are generally less than 2 µg/l (2 ng/ml), while occupationally-exposed workers can be at medical risk to cadmium toxicity if blood concentrations exceed 5 µg/l (ACGIH 1991 and 1992). This narrow margin between exposed and unexposed samples requires that exceptional care be used in performing analytic determinations for biological monitoring for occupational cadmium exposure.
</P>
<P>Methods for quantifying cadmium in blood have improved over the last 40 years primarily because of improvements in analytical instrumentation. Also, due to improvements in analytical techniques, there is less need to perform extensive multi-step sample preparations prior to analysis. Complex sample preparation was previously required to enhance method sensitivity (for cadmium), and to reduce interference by other metals or components of the sample.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.1 Analytical Techniques Used To Monitor Cadmium in Biological Matrices
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Comparison of Analytical Procedures/Instrumentation for Determination of Cadmium in Biological Samples
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Analytical procedure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limit of detection [ng/(g or ml)]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specified biological matrix
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comments
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flame Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (FAAS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any matrix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Perkin-Elmer (1982)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not sensitive enough for biomonitoring without extensive sample digestion, metal chelation and organic solvent extraction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (GFAAS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Urine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pruszkowska et al. (1983)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Methods of choice for routine cadmium analysis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stoeppler and Brandt (1980)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inductively-Coupled Argon-Plasma Atomic Emission Spectroscopy (ICAP AES)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any matrix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NIOSH (1984A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Requires extensive sample preparation and concentration of metal with chelating resin. Advantage is simultaneous analyses for as many as 10 metals from 1 sample.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neutron Activation Gamma Spectroscopy (NA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In vivo (liver)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ellis et al. (1983)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Only available <E T="03">in vivo</E> method for direct determination of cadmium body tissue burdens; expensive; absolute determination of cadmium in reference materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isotope Dilution Mass Spectroscopy (IDMS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any matrix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Michiels and DeBievre (1986)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Suitable for absolute determination of cadmium in reference materials; expensive.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Differential Pulse Anodic Stripping Voltammetry (DPASV)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any matrix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stoeppler and Brandt (1980)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Suitable for absolute determination of cadmium in reference materials; efficient method to check accuracy of analytical method.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A number of analytical techniques have been used for determining cadmium concentrations in biological materials. A summary of the characteristics of the most widely employed techniques is presented in Table 3. The technique most suitable for medical monitoring for cadmium is atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS).
</P>
<P>To obtain a measurement using AAS, a light source (<I>i.e.</I>, hollow cathode or lectrode-free discharge lamp) containing the element of interest as the cathode, is energized and the lamp emits a spectrum that is unique for that element. This light source is focused through a sample cell, and a selected wavelength is monitored by a monochrometer and photodetector cell. Any ground state atoms in the sample that match those of the lamp element and are in the path of the emitted light may absorb some of the light and decrease the amount of light that reaches the photodetector cell. The amount of light absorbed at each characteristic wavelength is proportional to the number of ground state atoms of the corresponding element that are in the pathway of the light between the source and detector.
</P>
<P>To determine the amount of a specific metallic element in a sample using AAS, the sample is dissolved in a solvent and aspirated into a high-temperature flame as an aerosol. At high temperatures, the solvent is rapidly evaporated or decomposed and the solute is initially solidified; the majority of the sample elements then are transformed into an atomic vapor. Next, a light beam is focused above the flame and the amount of metal in the sample can be determined by measuring the degree of absorbance of the atoms of the target element released by the flame at a characteristic wavelength.
</P>
<P>A more refined atomic absorption technique, flameless AAS, substitutes an electrothermal, graphite furnace for the flame. An aliquot (10-100 µl) of the sample is pipetted into the cold furnace, which is then heated rapidly to generate an atomic vapor of the element.
</P>
<P>AAS is a sensitive and specific method for the elemental analysis of metals; its main drawback is nonspecific background absorbtion and scattering of the light beam by particles of the sample as it decomposes at high temperatures; nonspecific absorbance reduces the sensitivity of the analytical method. The problem of nonspecific absorbance and scattering can be reduced by extensive sample pretreatment, such as ashing and/or acid digestion of the sample to reduce its organic content.
</P>
<P>Current AAS instruments employ background correction devices to adjust electronically for background absorbtion and scattering. A common method to correct for background effects is to use a deuterium arc lamp as a second light source. A continuum light source, such as the deuterium lamp, emits a broad spectrum of wavelengths instead of specific wavelengths characteristic of a particular element, as with the hollow cathode tube. With this system, light from the primary source and the continuum source are passed alternately through the sample cell. The target element effectively absorbs light only from the primary source (which is much brighter than the continuum source at the characteristic wavelengths), while the background matrix absorbs and scatters light from both sources equally. Therefore, when the ratio of the two beams is measured electronically, the effect of nonspecific background absorption and scattering is eliminated. A less common, but more sophisticated, backgrond correction system is based on the Zeeman effect, which uses a magnetically-activated light polarizer to compensate electronically for nonspecific absorbtion and scattering.
</P>
<P>Atomic emission spectroscopy with inductively-coupled argon plasma (AES-ICAP) is widely used to analyze for metals. With this instrument, the sample is aspirated into an extremely hot argon plasma flame, which excites the metal atoms; emission spectra specific for the sample element then are generated. The quanta of emitted light passing through a monochrometer are amplified by photomultiplier tubes and measured by a photodetector to determine the amount of metal in the sample. An advantage of AES-ICAP over AAS is that multi-elemental analyses of a sample can be performed by simultaneously measuring specific elemental emission energies. However, AES-ICAP lacks the sensitivity of AAS, exhibiting a limit of detection which is higher than the limit of detection for graphite-furnace AAS (Table 3).
</P>
<P>Neutron activation (NA) analysis and isotope dilution mass spectrometry (IDMS) are 2 additional, but highly specialized, methods that have been used for cadmium determinations. These methods are expensive because they require elaborate and sophisticated instrumentation.
</P>
<P>NA analysis has the distinct advantage over other analytical methods of being able to determine cadmium body burdens in specific organs (e.g., liver, kidney) in vivo (Ellis et al. 1983). Neutron bombardment of the target transforms cadmium-113 to cadmium-114, which promptly decays (&lt;10<E T="51">−14</E> sec) to its ground state, emitting gamma rays that are measured using large gamma detectors; appropriate shielding and instrumentation are required when using this method.
</P>
<P>IDMS analysis, a definitive but laborious method, is based on the change in the ratio of 2 isotopes of cadmium (cadmium 111 and 112) that occurs when a known amount of the element (with an artificially altered ratio of the same isotopes [i.e., a cadmium 111 “spike”] is added to a weighed aliquot of the sample (Michiels and De Bievre 1986).
</P>
<HD3>5.1.2 Methods Developed for CDB Determinations
</HD3>
<P>A variety of methods have been used for preparing and analyzing CDB samples; most of these methods rely on one of the analytical techniques described above. Among the earliest reports, Princi (1947) and Smith et al. (1955) employed a colorimetric procedure to analyze for CDB and CDU. Samples were dried and digested through several cycles with concentrated mineral acids (HNO<E T="52">3</E> and H<E T="52">2</E> SO<E T="52">4</E>) and hydrogen peroxide (H<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">2</E>). The digest was neutralized, and the cadmium was complexed with diphenylthiocarbazone and extracted with chloroform. The dithizone-cadmium complex then was quantified using a spectrometer.
</P>
<P>Colorimetric procedures for cadmium analyses were replaced by methods based on atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) in the early 1960s, but many of the complex sample preparation procedures were retained. Kjellstrom (1979) reports that in Japanese, American and Swedish laboratories during the early 1970s, blood samples were wet ashed with mineral acids or ashed at high temperature and wetted with nitric acid. The cadmium in the digest was complexed with metal chelators including diethyl dithiocarbamate (DDTC), ammonium pyrrolidine dithiocarbamate (APDC) or diphenylthiocarbazone (dithizone) in ammonia-citrate buffer and extracted with methyl isobutyl ketone (MIBK). The resulting solution then was analyzed by flame AAS or graphite-furnace AAS forcadmium determinations using deuterium-lamp background correction.
</P>
<P>In the late 1970s, researchers began developing simpler preparation procedures. Roels et al. (1978) and Roberts and Clark (1986) developed simplified digestion procedures. Using the Roberts and Clark method, a 0.5 ml aliquot of blood is collected and transferred to a digestion tube containing 1 ml concentrated HNO<E T="52">3</E>. The blood is then digested at 110 °C for 4 hours. The sample is reduced in volume by continued heating, and 0.5 ml 30% H<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">2</E> is added as the sample dries. The residue is dissolved in 5 ml dilute (1%) HNO<E T="52">3</E>, and 20 µl of sample is then analyzed by graphite-furnace AAS with deuterium-background correction.
</P>
<P>The current trend in the preparation of blood samples is to dilute the sample and add matrix modifiers to reduce background interference, rather than digesting the sample to reduce organic content. The method of Stoeppler and Brandt (1980), and the abbreviated procedure published in the American Public Health Association's (APHA) <I>Methods for Biological Monitoring</I> (1988), are straightforward and are nearly identical. For the APHA method, a small aliquot (50-300 µl) of whole blood that has been stabilized with ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA) is added to 1.0 ml 1MHNO<E T="52">3</E>, vigorously shaken and centrifuged. Aliquots (10-25 µl) of the supernatant then are then analyzed by graphite-furnace AAS with appropriate background correction.
</P>
<P>Using the method of Stoeppler and Brandt (1980), aliquots (50-200 µl) of whole blood that have been stabilized with EDTA are pipetted into clean polystyrene tubes and mixed with 150-600 µl of 1 M HNO<E T="52">3</E>. After vigorous shaking, the solution is centrifuged and a 10-25 µl aliquot of the supernatant then is analyzed by graphite-furnace AAS with appropriate background correction.
</P>
<P>Claeys-Thoreau (1982) and DeBenzo et al. (1990) diluted blood samples at a ratio of 1:10 with a matrix modifier (0.2% Triton X-100, a wetting agent) for direct determinations of CDB. DeBenzo et al. also demonstrated that aqueous standards of cadmium, instead of spiked, whole-blood samples, could be used to establish calibration curves if standards and samples are treated with additional small volumes of matrix modifiers (<I>i.e.</I>, 1% HNO<E T="52">3</E>, 0.2% ammonium hydrogenphosphate and 1 mg/ml magnesium salts).
</P>
<P>These direct dilution procedures for CDB analysis are simple and rapid. Laboratories can process more than 100 samples a day using a dedicated graphite-furnace AAS, an auto-sampler, and either a Zeeman- or a deuterium-background correction system. Several authors emphasize using optimum settings for graphite-furnace temperatures during the drying, charring, and atomization processes associated with the flameless AAS method, and the need to run frequent QC samples when performing automated analysis.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.3 Sample Collection and Handling
</HD3>
<P>Sample collection procedures are addressed primarily to identify ways to minimize the degree of variability that may be introduced by sample collection during medical monitoring. It is unclear at this point the extent to which collection procedures contribute to variability among CDB samples. Sources of variation that may result from sampling procedures include time-of-day effects and introduction of external contamination during the collection process. To minimize these sources, strict adherence to a sample collection protocol is recommended. Such a protocol must include provisions for thorough cleaning of the site from which blood will be extracted; also, every effort should be made to collect samples near the same time of day. It is also important to recognize that under the recent OSHA blood-borne pathogens standard (29 CFR 1910.1030), blood samples and certain body fluids must be handled and treated as if they are infectious.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.4 Best Achievable Performance
</HD3>
<P>The best achievable performance using a particular method for CDB determinations is assumed to be equivalent to the performance reported by research laboratories in which the method was developed.
</P>
<P>For their method, Roberts and Clark (1986) demonstrated a limit of detection of 0.4 µg Cd/l in whole blood, with a linear response curve from 0.4 to 16.0 µg Cd/l. They report a coefficient of variation (CV) of 6.7% at 8.0 µg/l.
</P>
<P>The APHA (1988) reports a range of 1.0-25 µg/l, with a CV of 7.3% (concentration not stated). Insufficient documentation was available to critique this method.
</P>
<P>Stoeppler and Brandt (1980) achieved a detection limit of 0.2 µg Cd/l whole blood, with a linear range of 0.4-12.0 µg Cd/l, and a CV of 15-30%, for samples at &lt;1.0 µg/l. Improved precision (CV of 3.8%) was reported for CDB concentrations at 9.3 µg/l.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.5 General Method Performance
</HD3>
<P>For any particular method, the performance expected from commercial laboratories may be somewhat lower than that reported by the research laboratory in which the method was developed. With participation in appropriate proficiency programs and use of a proper in-house QA/QC program incorporating provisions for regular corrective actions, the performance of commercial laboratories is expected to approach that reported by research laboratories. Also, the results reported for existing proficiency programs serve as a gauge of the likely level of performance that currently can be expected from commercial laboratories offering these analyses.
</P>
<P>Weber (1988) reports on the results of the proficiency program run by the Centre de Toxicologie du Quebec (CTQ). As indicated previously, participants in that program receive 18 blood samples per year having cadmium concentrations ranging from 0.2-20 µg/l. Currently, 76 laboratories are participating in this program. The program is established for several analytes in addition to cadmium, and not all of these laboratories participate in the cadmium proficiency-testing program.
</P>
<P>Under the CTQ program, cadmium results from individual laboratories are compared against the consensus mean derived for each sample. Results indicate that after receiving 60 samples (<I>i.e.</I>, after participation for approximately three years), 60% of the laboratories in the program are able to report results that fall within ±1 µg/l or 15% of the mean, whichever is greater. (For this procedure, the 15% criterion was applied to concentrations exceeding 7 µg/l.) On any single sample of the last 20 samples, the percentage of laboratories falling within the specified range is between 55 and 80%.
</P>
<P>The CTQ also evaluates the performance of participating laboratories against a less severe standard: ±2 µg/l or 15% of the mean, whichever is greater (Weber 1988); 90% of participating laboratories are able to satisfy this standard after approximately 3 years in the program. (The 15% criterion is used for concentrations in excess of 13 µg/l.) On any single sample of the last 15 samples, the percentage of laboratories falling within the specified range is between 80 and 95% (except for a single test for which only 60% of the laboratories achieved the desired performance).
</P>
<P>Based on the data presented in Weber (1988), the CV for analysis of CDB is nearly constant at 20% for cadmium concentrations exceeding 5 µg/l, and increases for cadmium concentrations below 5 µg/l. At 2 µg/l, the reported CV rises to approximately 40%. At 1 µg/l, the reported CV is approximately 60%.
</P>
<P>Participating laboratories also tend to overestimate concentrations for samples exhibiting concentrations less than 2 µg/l (see Figure 11 of Weber 1988). This problem is due in part to the proficiency evaluation criterion that allows reporting a minimum ±2.0 µg/l for evaluated CDB samples. There is currently little economic or regulatory incentive for laboratories participating in the CTQ program to achieve greater accuracy for CDB samples containing cadmium at concentrations less than 2.0 µg/l, even if the laboratory has the experience and competency to distinguish among lower concentrations in the samples obtained from the CTQ.
</P>
<P>The collective experience of international agencies and investigators demonstrate the need for a vigorous QC program to ensure that CDB values reported by participating laboratories are indeed reasonably accurate. As Friberg (1988) stated:
</P>
<FP>“Information about the quality of published data has often been lacking. This is of concern as assessment of metals in trace concentrations in biological media are fraught with difficulties from the collection, handling, and storage of samples to the chemical analyses. This has been proven over and over again from the results of interlaboratory testing and quality control exercises. Large variations in results were reported even from ‘experienced’ laboratories.”
</FP>
<P>The UNEP/WHO global study of cadmium biological monitoring set a limit for CDB accuracy using the maximum allowable deviation method at Y = X±(0.1X + 1) for a targeted concentration of 10 µg Cd/l (Friberg and Vahter 1983). The performance of participating laboratories over a concentration range of 1.5-12 µg/l was reported by Lind et al. (1987). Of the 3 QC runs conducted during 1982 and 1983, 1 or 2 of the 6 laboratories failed each run. For the years 1983 and 1985, between zero and 2 laboratories failed each of the consecutive QC runs.
</P>
<P>In another study (Vahter and Friberg 1988), QC samples consisting of both external (unknown) and internal (stated) concentrations were distributed to laboratories participating in the epidemiology research. In this study, the maximum acceptable deviation between the regression analysis of reported results and reference values was set at Y = X±(0.05X + 0.2) for a concentration range of 0.3-5.0 µg Cd/l. It is reported that only 2 of 5 laboratories had acceptable data after the first QC set, and only 1 of 5 laboratories had acceptable data after the second QC set. By the fourth QC set, however, all 5 laboratories were judged proficient.
</P>
<P>The need for high quality CDB monitoring is apparent when the toxicological and biological characteristics of this metal are considered; an increase in CDB from 2 to 4 µg/l could cause a doubling of the cadmium accumulation in the kidney, a critical target tissue for selective cadmium accumulation (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988).
</P>
<P>Historically, the CDC's internal QC program for CDB cadmium monitoring program has found achievable accuracy to be ±10% of the true value at CDB concentrations ≥5.0 µg/l (Paschal 1990). Data on the performance of laboratories participating in this program currently are not available.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.6 Observed CDB Concentrations
</HD3>
<P>As stated in Section 4.3, CDB concentrations are representative of ongoing levels of exposure to cadmium. Among those who have been exposed chronically to cadmium for extended periods, however, CDB may contain a component attributable to the general cadmium body burden.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.6.1 <I>CDB Concentrations Among Unexposed Samples</I>
</HD3>
<P>Numerous studies have been conducted examining CDB concentrations in the general population, and in control groups used for comparison with cadmium-exposed workers. A number of reports have been published that present erroneously high values of CDB (Nordberg and Nordberg 1988). This problem was due to contamination of samples during sampling and analysis, and to errors in analysis. Early AAS methods were not sufficiently sensitive to accurately estimate CDB concentrations.
</P>
<P>Table 4 presents results of recent studies reporting CDB levels for the general U.S. population not exposed occupationally to cadmium. Other surveys of tissue cadmium using U.S. samples and conducted as part of a cooperative effort among Japan, Sweden and the U.S., did not collect CDB data because standard analytical methodologies were unavailable, and because of analytic problems (Kjellstrom 1979; SWRI 1978).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Blood Cadmium Concentrations of U.S. Population Not Occupationally Exposed to Cadmium <E T="01">
<sup>a</sup></E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Study No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No. in study (n)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sex
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Smoking habits 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arithmetic mean (±S.D.) 
<sup>c</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Absolute range or (95% CI) 
<sup>d</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Geometric mean (±GSD) 
<sup>e</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lower 95th percentile of distribution 
<sup>f</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Upper 95th percentile of distribution 
<sup>f</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NS,S</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.98±1.71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kowal et al. (1979).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NS,S</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91±1.63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">M/F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85±1.59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">M/F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">S</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37±1.65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adults</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(?)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0±2.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.5-5.0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>g</sup> (0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>g</sup> (5.8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ellis et al. (1983).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adults</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6±1/87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Frieberg and Vahter (1983).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adults</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">S</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2±2.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adults</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5±1.85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adults</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">S</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8±2.22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adults</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">S,NS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2±2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thun et al. (1989).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adults</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(?)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1±2.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.5-7.3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>g</sup> (0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>g</sup> (5.6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mueller et al. (1989).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Concentrations reported in µg Cd/l blood unless otherwise stated.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> NS—never smoked; S—current cigarette smoker.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> S.D.—Arithmetic Standard Deviation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> C.I.—Confidence interval.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> GSD—Geometric Standard Deviation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> Based on an assumed lognormal distribution.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> Based on an assumed normal distribution.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Arithmetic and/or geometric means and standard deviations are provided in Table 4 for measurements among the populations defined in each study listed. The range of reported measurements and/or the 95% upper and lower confidence intervals for the means are presented when this information was reported in a study. For studies reporting either an arithmetic or geometric standard deviation along with a mean, the lower and upper 95th percentile for the distribution also were derived and reported in the table.
</P>
<P>The data provided in table 4 from Kowal et al. (1979) are from studies conducted between 1974 and 1976 evaluating CDB levels for the general population in Chicago, and are considered to be representative of the U.S. population. These studies indicate that the average CDB concentration among those not occupationally exposed to cadmium is approximately 1 µg/l.
</P>
<P>In several other studies presented in Table 4, measurements are reported separately for males and females, and for smokers and nonsmokers. The data in this table indicate that similar CDB levels are observed among males and females in the general population, but that smokers tend to exhibit higher CDB levels than nonsmokers. Based on the Kowal et al. (1979) study, smokers not occupationally exposed to cadmium exhibit an average CDB level of 1.4 µg/l.
</P>
<P>In general, nonsmokers tend to exhibit levels ranging to 2 µg/l, while levels observed among smokers range to 5 µg/l. Based on the data presented in Table 4, 95% of those not occupationally exposed to cadmium exhibit CDB levels less than 5 µg/l.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.6.2 <I>CDB concentrations among exposed workers</I>
</HD3>
<P>Table 5 is a summary of results from studies reporting CDB levels among workers exposed to cadmium in the work place. As in Table 4, arithmetic and/or geometric means and standard deviations are provided if reported in the listed studies. The absolute range, or the 95% confidence interval around the mean, of the data in each study are provided when reported. In addition, the lower and upper 95th percentile of the distribution are presented for each study i which a mean and corresponding standard deviation were reported. Table 5 also provides estimates of the duration, and level, of exposure to cadmium in the work place if these data were reported in the listed studies. The data presented in table 5 suggest that CDB levels are dose related. Sukuri et al. (1983) show that higher CDB levels are observed among workers experiencing higher work place exposure. This trend appears to be true of the studies listed in the table.
</P>
<P>CDB levels reported in table 5 are higher among those showing signs of cadmium-related kidney damage than those showing no such damage. Lauwerys et al. (1976) report CDB levels among workers with kidney lesions that generally are above the levels reported for workers without kidney lesions. Ellis et al. (1983) report a similar observation comparing workers with and without renal dysfunction, although they found more overlap between the 2 groups than Lauwerys et al.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Blood Cadmium in Workers Exposed to Cadmium in the Workplace
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Study number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Work environment (worker population monitored)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Number in study
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Employment in years (mean)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Mean concentration of cadmium in air (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Concentrations of Cadmium in blood 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arithmetic mean (±S.D.) 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Absolute range or (95% C.I.) 
<sup>c</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Geometric mean (GSD) 
<sup>d</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lower 95th percentile of range 
<sup>e</sup>
<br/>( ) 
<sup>f</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Upper 95th percentile of range 
<sup>e</sup>
<br/>( ) 
<sup>f</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ni-Cd battery plant and Cd production plant:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3-40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lauwerys et al. 1976.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Workers without kidney lesions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21.4±1.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(18)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(25)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Workers with kidney lesions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">38.8±3.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(32)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(45)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ni-Cd battery plant:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adamsson et al. (1979).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Smokers)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3-67.2
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Nonsmokers)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9-10.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium alloy plant:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sukuri et al. 1982.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (High exposure group)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(10.6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[1,000-5 yrs;</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.8±7.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7.3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(34)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Low exposure group)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7.3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-5 yrs]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1±1.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9.1)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retrospective study of workers with renal problems:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roels et al. 1982.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Before removal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(27.2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39.9±3.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11-179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(34)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(46)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (After removal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>g</sup>(4.2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1±5.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7-27.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4.4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(24)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium production plant:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ellis et al. 1983.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Workers without renal dysfunction)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15±5.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7-31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(25)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Workers with renal dysfunction)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10-34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24±8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10-34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9.3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(39)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cd-Cu alloy plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.8±1.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mason et al. 1988.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium recovery operation—Current (19) and former (26) workers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(19.0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9±2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thun et al. 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium recovery operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.2±5.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2-18.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(19)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mueller et al. 1989.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Concentrations reported in µg Cd/l blood unless otherwise stated.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> S.D.—Standard Deviation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> C.I.—Confidence Interval.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> GSD—Geometric Standard Deviation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> Based on an assumed lognormal distribution.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> Based on an assumed normal distribution.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> Years following removal.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The data in table 5 also indicate that CDB levels are higher among those experiencing current occupational exposure than those who have been removed from such exposure. Roels et al. (1982) indicate that CDB levels observed among workers experiencing ongoing exposure in the work place are almost entirely above levels observed among workers removed from such exposure. This finding suggests that CDB levels decrease once cadmium exposure has ceased.
</P>
<P>A comparison of the data presented in tables 4 and 5 indicates that CDB levels observed among cadmium-exposed workers is significantly higher than levels observed among the unexposed groups. With the exception of 2 studies presented in table 5 (1 of which includes former workers in the sample group tested), the lower 95th percentile for CDB levels among exposed workers are greater than 5 µg/l, which is the value of the upper 95th percentile for CDB levels observed among those who are not occupationally exposed. Therefore, a CDB level of 5 µg/l represents a threshold above which significant work place exposure to cadmium may be occurring.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.7 Conclusions and Recommendations for CDB
</HD3>
<P>Based on the above evaluation, the following recommendations are made for a CDB proficiency program.
</P>
<HD3>5.1.7.1 <I>Recommended method</I>
</HD3>
<P>The method of Stoeppler and Brandt (1980) should be adopted for analyzing CDB. This method was selected over other methods for its straightforward sample-preparation procedures, and because limitations of the method were described adequately. It also is the method used by a plurality of laboratories currently participating in the CTQ proficiency program. In a recent CTQ interlaboratory comparison report (CTQ 1991), analysis of the methods used by laboratories to measure CDB indicates that 46% (11 of 24) of the participating laboratories used the Stoeppler and Brandt methodology (HNO<E T="52">3</E> deproteinization of blood followed by analysis of the supernatant by GF-AAS). Other CDB methods employed by participating laboratories identified in the CTQ report include dilution of blood (29%), acid digestion (12%) and miscellaneous methods (12%).
</P>
<P>Laboratories may adopt alternate methods, but it is the responsibility of the laboratory to demonstrate that the alternate methods meet the data quality objectives defined for the Stoeppler and Brandt method (see Section 5.1.7.2 below).
</P>
<HD3>5.1.7.2 <I>Data quality objectives</I>
</HD3>
<P>Based on the above evaluation, the following data quality objectives (DQOs) should facilitate interpretation of analytical results.
</P>
<P><I>Limit of Detection.</I> 0.5 µg/l should be achievable using the Stoeppler and Brandt method. Stoeppler and Brandt (1980) report a limit of detection equivalent to ≤0.2 µg/l in whole blood using 25 µl aliquots of deproteinized, diluted blood samples.
</P>
<P><I>Accuracy.</I> Initially, some of the laboratories performing CDB measurements may be expected to satisfy criteria similar to the less severe criteria specified by the CTQ program, i.e., measurements within 2 µg/l or 15% (whichever is greater) of the target value. About 60% of the laboratories enrolled in the CTQ program could meet this criterion on the first proficiency test (Weber 1988).
</P>
<P>Currently, approximately 12 laboratories in the CTQ program are achieving an accuracy for CDB analysis within the more severe constraints of ±1 µg/l or 15% (whichever is greater). Later, as laboratories gain experience, they should achieve the level of accuracy exhibited by these 12 laboratories. The experience in the CTQ program has shown that, even without incentives, laboratories benefit from the feedback of the program; after they have analyzed 40-50 control samples from the program, performance improves to the point where about 60% of the laboratories can meet the stricter criterion of ±1 µg/l or 15% (Weber 1988). Thus, this stricter target accuracy is a reasonable DQO.
</P>
<P><I>Precision.</I> Although Stoeppler and Brandt (1980) suggest that a coefficient of variation (CV) near 1.3% (for a 10 µg/l concentration) is achievable for within-run reproducibility, it is recognized that other factors affecting within- and between-run comparability will increase the achievable CV. Stoeppler and Brandt (1980) observed CVs that were as high as 30% for low concentrations (0.4 µg/l), and CVs of less than 5% for higher concentrations.
</P>
<P>For internal QC samples (see Section 3.3.1), laboratories should attain an overall precision near 25%. For CDB samples with concentrations less than 2 µg/l, a target precision of 40% is reasonable, while precisions of 20% should be achievable for concentrations greater than 2 µg/l. Although these values are more strict than values observed in the CTQ interlaboratory program reported by Webber (1988), they are within the achievable limits reported by Stoeppler and Brandt (1980).
</P>
<HD3>5.1.7.3 <I>Quality assurance/quality control</I>
</HD3>
<P>Commercial laboratories providing measurement of CDB should adopt an internal QA/QC program that incorporates the following components: Strict adherence to the selected method, including all calibration requirements; regular incorporation of QC samples during actual runs; a protocol for corrective actions, and documentation of these actions; and, participation in an interlaboratory proficiency program. Note that the nonmandatory QA/QC program presented in Attachment 1 is based on the Stoeppler and Brandt method for CDB analysis. Should an alternate method be adopted, the laboratory should develop a QA/QC program satisfying the provisions of Section 3.3.1.
</P>
<HD3>5.2 Measuring Cadmium in Urine (CDU)
</HD3>
<P>As in the case of CDB measurement, proper determination of CDU requires strict analytical discipline regarding collection and handling of samples. Because cadmium is both ubiquitous in the environment and employed widely in coloring agents for industrial products that may be used during sample collection, preparation and analysis, care should be exercised to ensure that samples are not contaminated during the sampling procedure.
</P>
<P>Methods for CDU determination share many of the same features as those employed for the determination of CDB. Thus, changes and improvements to methods for measuring CDU over the past 40 years parallel those used to monitor CDB. The direction of development has largely been toward the simplification of sample preparation techniques made possible because of improvements in analytic techniques.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.1 Units of CDU Measurement
</HD3>
<P>Procedures adopted for reporting CDU concentrations are not uniform. In fact, the situation for reporting CDU is more complicated than for CDB, where concentrations are normalized against a unit volume of whole blood.
</P>
<P>Concentrations of solutes in urine vary with several biological factors (including the time since last voiding and the volume of liquid consumed over the last few hours); as a result, solute concentrations should be normalized against another characteristic of urine that represents changes in solute concentrations. The 2 most common techniques are either to standardize solute concentrations against the concentration of creatinine, or to standardize solute concentrations against the specific gravity of the urine. Thus, CDU concentrations have been reported in the literature as “uncorrected” concentrations of cadmium per volume of urine (<I>i.e.</I>, µg Cd/l urine), “corrected” concentrations of cadmium per volume of urine at a standard specific gravity (<I>i.e.</I>, µg Cd/l urine at a specific gravity of 1.020), or “corrected” mass concentration per unit mass of creatinine (<I>i.e.</I>, µg Cd/g creatinine). (CDU concentrations [whether uncorrected or corrected for specific gravity, or normalized to creatinine] occasionally are reported in nanomoles [<I>i.e.</I>, nmoles] of cadmium per unit mass or volume. In this protocol, these values are converted to µg of cadmium per unit mass or volume using 89 nmoles of cadmium = 10 µg.)
</P>
<P>While it is agreed generally that urine values of analytes should be normalized for reporting purposes, some debate exists over what correction method should be used. The medical community has long favored normalization based on creatinine concentration, a common urinary constituent. Creatinine is a normal product of tissue catabolism, is excreted at a uniform rate, and the total amount excreted per day is constant on a day-to-day basis (NIOSH 1984b). While this correction method is accepted widely in Europe, and within some occupational health circles, Kowals (1983) argues that the use of specific gravity (<I>i.e.</I>, total solids per unit volume) is more straightforward and practical (than creatinine) in adjusting CDU values for populations that vary by age or gender.
</P>
<P>Kowals (1983) found that urinary creatinine (CRTU) is lower in females than males, and also varies with age. Creatinine excretion is highest in younger males (20-30 years old), decreases at middle age (50-60 years), and may rise slightly in later years. Thus, cadmium concentrations may be underestimated for some workers with high CRTU levels.
</P>
<P>Within a single void urine collection, urine concentration of any analyte will be affected by recent consumption of large volumes of liquids, and by heavy physical labor in hot environments. The absolute amount of analyte excreted may be identical, but concentrations will vary widely so that urine must be corrected for specific gravity (<I>i.e.</I>, to normalize concentrations to the quantity of total solute) using a fixed value (e.g., 1.020 or 1.024). However, since heavy-metal exposure may increase urinary protein excretion, there is a tendency to underestimate cadmium concentrations in samples with high specific gravities when specific-gravity corrections are applied.
</P>
<P>Despite some shortcomings, reporting solute concentrations as a function of creatinine concentration is accepted generally; OSHA therefore recommends that CDU levels be reported as the mass of cadmium per unit mass of creatinine (µg/g CTRU).
</P>
<P>Reporting CDU as µg/g CRTU requires an additional analytical process beyond the analysis of cadmium: Samples must be analyzed independently for creatinine so that results may be reported as the ratio of cadmium to creatinine concentrations found in the urine sample. Consequently, the overall quality of the analysis depends on the combined performance by a laboratory on these 2 determinations. The analysis used for CDU determinations is addressed below in terms of µg Cd/l, with analysis of creatinine addressed separately. Techniques for assessing creatinine are discussed in Section 5.4.
</P>
<P>Techniques for deriving cadmium as a ratio of CRTU, and the confidence limits for independent measurements of cadmium and CRTU, are provided in Section 3.3.3.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.2 Analytical Techniques Used To Monitor CDU
</HD3>
<P>Analytical techniques used for CDU determinations are similar to those employed for CDB determinations; these techniques are summarized in Table 3. As with CDB monitoring, the technique most suitable for CDU determinations is atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS). AAS methods used for CDU determinations typically employ a graphite furnace, with background correction made using either the deuterium-lamp or Zeeman techniques; Section 5.1.1 provides a detailed description of AAS methods.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.3 Methods Developed for CDU Determinations
</HD3>
<P>Princi (1947), Smith et al. (1955), Smith and Kench (1957), and Tsuchiya (1967) used colorimetric procedures similar to those described in the CDB section above to estimate CDU concentrations. In these methods, urine (50 ml) is reduced to dryness by heating in a sand bath and digested (wet ashed) with mineral acids. Cadmium then is complexed with dithiazone, extracted with chloroform and quantified by spectrophotometry. These early studies typically report reagent blank values equivalent to 0.3 µg Cd/l, and CDU concentrations among nonexposed control groups at maximum levels of 10 µg Cd/l—erroneously high values when compared to more recent surveys of cadmium concentrations in the general population.
</P>
<P>By the mid-1970s, most analytical procedures for CDU analysis used either wet ashing (mineral acid) or high temperatures (&gt;400 °C) to digest the organic matrix of urine, followed by cadmium chelation with APDC or DDTC solutions and extraction with MIBK. The resulting aliquots were analyzed by flame or graphite-furnace AAS (Kjellstrom 1979).
</P>
<P>Improvements in control over temperature parameters with electrothermal heating devices used in conjunction with flameless AAS techniques, and optimization of temperature programs for controlling the drying, charring, and atomization processes in sample analyses, led to improved analytical detection of diluted urine samples without the need for sample digestion or ashing. Roels et al. (1978) successfully used a simple sample preparation, dilution of 1.0 ml aliquots of urine with 0.1 N HNO<E T="52">3</E>, to achieve accurate low-level determinations of CDU.
</P>
<P>In the method described by Pruszkowska et al. (1983), which has become the preferred method for CDU analysis, urine samples were diluted at a ratio of 1:5 with water; diammonium hydrogenphosphate in dilute HNO<E T="52">3</E> was used as a matrix modifier. The matrix modifier allows for a higher charring temperature without loss of cadmium through volatilization during preatomization. This procedure also employs a stabilized temperature platform in a graphite furnace, while nonspecific background absorbtion is corrected using the Zeeman technique. This method allows for an absolute detection limit of approximately 0.04 µg Cd/l urine.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.4 Sample Collection and Handling
</HD3>
<P>Sample collection procedures for CDU may contribute to variability observed among CDU measurements. Sources of variation attendant to sampling include time-of-day, the interval since ingestion of liquids, and the introduction of external contamination during the collection process. Therefore, to minimize contributions from these variables, strict adherence to a sample-collection protocol is recommended. This protocol should include provisions for normalizing the conditions under which urine is collected. Every effort also should be made to collect samples during the same time of day.
</P>
<P>Collection of urine samples from an industrial work force for biological monitoring purposes usually is performed using “spot” (<I>i.e.</I>, single-void) urine with the pH of the sample determined immediately. Logistic and sample-integrity problems arise when efforts are made to collect urine over long periods (e.g., 24 hrs). Unless single-void urines are used, there are numerous opportunities for measurement error because of poor control over sample collection, storage and environmental contamination.
</P>
<P>To minimize the interval during which sample urine resides in the bladder, the following adaption to the “spot” collection procedure is recommended: The bladder should first be emptied, and then a large glass of water should be consumed; the sample may be collected within an hour after the water is consumed.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.5 Best Achievable Performance
</HD3>
<P>Performance using a particular method for CDU determinations is assumed to be equivalent to the performance reported by the research laboratories in which the method was developed. Pruszkowska et al. (1983) report a detection limit of 0.04 µg/l CDU, with a CV of &lt;4% between 0-5 µg/l. The CDC reports a minimum CDU detection limit of 0.07 µg/l using a modified method based on Pruszkowska et al. (1983). No CV is stated in this protocol; the protocol contains only rejection criteria for internal QC parameters used during accuracy determinations with known standards (Attachment 8 of exhibit 106 of OSHA docket H057A). Stoeppler and Brandt (1980) report a CDU detection limit of 0.2 µ/l for their methodology.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.6 General Method Performance
</HD3>
<P>For any particular method, the expected initial performance from commercial laboratories may be somewhat lower than that reported by the research laboratory in which the method was developed. With participation in appropriate proficiency programs, and use of a proper in-house QA/QC program incorporating provisions for regular corrective actions, the performance of commercial laboratories may be expected to improve and approach that reported by a research laboratories. The results reported for existing proficiency programs serve to specify the initial level of performance that likely can be expected from commercial laboratories offering analysis using a particular method.
</P>
<P>Weber (1988) reports on the results of the CTQ proficiency program, which includes CDU results for laboratories participating in the program. Results indicate that after receiving 60 samples (<I>i.e.</I>, after participating in the program for approximately 3 years), approximately 80% of the participating laboratories report CDU results ranging between ±2 µg/l or 15% of the consensus mean, whichever is greater. On any single sample of the last 15 samples, the proportion of laboratories falling within the specified range is between 75 and 95%, except for a single test for which only 60% of the laboratories reported acceptable results. For each of the last 15 samples, approximately 60% of the laboratories reported results within ±1 µg or 15% of the mean, whichever is greater. The range of concentrations included in this set of samples was not reported.
</P>
<P>Another report from the CTQ (1991) summarizes preliminary CDU results from their 1991 interlaboratory program. According to the report, for 3 CDU samples with values of 9.0, 16.8, 31.5 µg/l, acceptable results (target of ±2 µg/l or 15 % of the consensus mean, whichever is greater) were achieved by only 44-52% of the 34 laboratories participating in the CDU program. The overall CVs for these 3 CDU samples among the 34 participating laboratories were 31%, 25%, and 49%, respectively. The reason for this poor performance has not been determined.
</P>
<P>A more recent report from the CTQ (Weber, private communication) indicates that 36% of the laboratories in the program have been able to achieve the target of ±1 µg/l or 15% for more than 75% of the samples analyzed over the last 5 years, while 45% of participating laboratories achieved a target of ±2 µg/l or 15% for more than 75% of the samples analyzed over the same period.
</P>
<P>Note that results reported in the interlaboratory programs are in terms of µg Cd/l of urine, unadjusted for creatinine. The performance indicated, therefore, is a measure of the performance of the cadmium portion of the analyses, and does not include variation that may be introduced during the analysis of CRTU.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.7 Observed CDU Concentrations
</HD3>
<P>Prior to the onset of renal dysfunction, CDU concentrations provide a general indication of the exposure history (<I>i.e.</I>, body burden) (see Section 4.3). Once renal dysfunction occurs, CDU levels appear to increase and are no longer indicative solely of cadmium body burden (Friberg and Elinder 1988).
</P>
<HD3>5.2.7.1 <I>Range of CDU concentrations observed among unexposed samples</I>
</HD3>
<P>Surveys of CDU concentrations in the general population were first reported from cooperative studies among industrial countries (<I>i.e.</I>, Japan, U.S. and Sweden) conducted in the mid-1970s. In summarizing these data, Kjellstrom (1979) reported that CDU concentrations among Dallas, Texas men (age range: &lt;9-59 years; smokers and nonsmokers) varied from 0.11-1.12 µg/l (uncorrected for creatinine or specific gravity). These CDU concentrations are intermediate between population values found in Sweden (range: 0.11-0.80 µg/l) and Japan (range: 0.14-2.32 µg/l).
</P>
<P>Kowal and Zirkes (1983) reported CDU concentrations for almost 1,000 samples collected during 1978-79 from the general U.S. adult population (<I>i.e.</I>, nine states; both genders; ages 20-74 years). They report that CDU concentrations are lognormally distributed; low levels predominated, but a small proportion of the population exhibited high levels. These investigators transformed the CDU concentrations values, and reported the same data 3 different ways: µg/l urine (unadjusted), µg/l (specific gravity adjusted to 1.020), and µg/g CRTU. These data are summarized in Tables 6 and 7.
</P>
<P>Based on further statistical examination of these data, including the lifestyle characteristics of this group, Kowal (1988) suggested increased cadmium absorption (<I>i.e.</I>, body burden) was correlated with low dietary intakes of calcium and iron, as well as cigarette smoking.
</P>
<P>CDU levels presented in Table 6 are adjusted for age and gender. Results suggest that CDU levels may be slightly different among men and women (<I>i.e.</I>, higher among men when values are unadjusted, but lower among men when the values are adjusted, for specific gravity or CRTU). Mean differences among men and women are small compared to the standard deviations, and therefore may not be significant. Levels of CDU also appear to increase with age. The data in Table 6 suggest as well that reporting CDU levels adjusted for specific gravity or as a function of CRTU results in reduced variability.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6—Urine Cadmium Concentrations in the U.S. Adult Population: Normal and Concentration-Adjusted Values by Age and Sex 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Geometric means (and geometric standard deviations)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unadjusted (µg/l)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SG-adjusted 
<sup>2</sup> µg/l at 1.020)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Creatine-adjusted (µg/g)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sex:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Male (n = 484)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55 (2.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.73 (2.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55 (2.7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Female (n = 498)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49 (3.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.86 (2.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.78 (2.7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Age:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">20-29 (n = 222)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32 (3.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43 (2.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32 (2.7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">30-39 (n = 141)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46 (3.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.70 (2.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.54 (2.7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">40-49 (n = 142)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50 (3.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81 (2.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.70 (2.7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">50-59 (n = 117)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.61 (2.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99 (2.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90 (2.3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">60-69 (n = 272)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76 (2.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16 (2.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.03 (2.3)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> From Kowal and Zirkes 1983.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> SC-adjusted is adjusted for specific gravity.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—Urine Cadmium Concentrations in the U.S. Adult Population: Cumulative Frequency Distribution of Urinary Cadmium (N = 982) 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Range of concentrations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unadjusted (µg/l) percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SG-adjusted (µg/l at 1.020) percent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Creatine-adjusted (µg/g) percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&lt;0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 0.6-1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 1.1-1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 1.6-2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 2.1-3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 3.1-4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 4.1-5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 5.1-10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 10.0-20.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.6
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Source: Kowal and Zirkes (1983).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The data in the Table 6 indicate the geometric mean of CDU levels observed among the general population is 0.52 µ/g Cd/l urine (unadjusted), with a geometric standard deviation of 3.0. Normalized for creatinine, the geometric mean for the population is 0.66 µ/g CRTU, with a geometric standard deviation of 2.7. Table 7 provides the distributions of CDU concentrations for the general population studied by Kowal and Zirkes. The data in this table indicate that 95% of the CDU levels observed among those not occupationally exposed to cadmium are below 3 µ/g CRTU.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.7.2 <I>Range of CDU concentrations observed among exposed workers</I>
</HD3>
<P>Table 8 is a summary of results from available studies of CDU concentrations observed among cadmium-exposed workers. In this table, arithmetic and/or geometric means and standard deviations are provided if reported in these studies. The absolute range for the data in each study, or the 95% confidence interval around the mean of each study, also are provided when reported. The lower and upper 95th percentile of the distribution are presented for each study in which a mean and corresponding standard deviation were reported. Table 8 also provides estimates of the years of exposure, and the levels of exposure, to cadmium in the work place if reported in these studies. Concentrations reported in this table are in µ/g CRTU, unless otherwise stated.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8—Urine Cadmium Concentrations in Workers Exposed to Cadmium in the Workplace
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Study number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Work environment (worker population monitored)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Number in Study (n)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Employment in years (mean)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Mean Concentration of cadmium in air (µg/m
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Concentration of cadmium in Urine 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arithmetic mean (±S.D.) 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Absolute range or (95% C.I.) 
<sup>c</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Geometric mean (GSD) 
<sup>d</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lower 95th percentile of range 
<sup>e</sup>
<br/>( ) 
<sup>f</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Upper 95th percentile of range 
<sup>e</sup>
<br/>( ) 
<sup>f</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ni-Cd battery plant and Cd production plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3-40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lauwerys et al. 1976.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Workers without kidney lesions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16.3±16.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(44)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Workers with kidney lesions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">48.2±42.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(120)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ni-Cd battery plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adamsson et al. (1979).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Smokers)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-14.7
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Nonsmokers)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5-9.3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium salts production facility</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(15.4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2-150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Butchet et al. 1980.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retrospective study of workers with renal problems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roels et al. 1982.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Before removal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(27.2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39.4±28.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.8-117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(88)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (After removal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4.2) 
<sup>g</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16.4±9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80-42.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(32)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium production plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ellis et al. 1983.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Workers without renal dysfunction)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4±6.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2-27</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(21)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (Workers with renal dysfunction)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10-34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22.8±12.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8-55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(45)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cd-Cu alloy plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9±9.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(23)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mason et al. 1988.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium recovery operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(19)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3±6.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(21)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thun et al. 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pigment manufacturing plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(12.8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18-3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2-9.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mueller et al. 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pigment manufacturing plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(12.1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25±2.45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kawada et al. 1990.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Concentrations reported in µg/g Cr.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> S.D.—Standard Deviation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> C.I.—Confidence Interval.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> GSD—Geometric Standard Deviation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> Based on an assumed lognormal distribution.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> Based on an assumed normal distribution.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> Years following removal.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>h</sup> Equivalent to 50 for 20-22 yrs</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Data in Table 8 from Lauwerys et al. (1976) and Ellis et al. (1983) indicate that CDU concentrations are higher among those exhibiting kidney lesions or dysfunction than among those lacking these symptoms. Data from the study by Roels et al. (1982) indicate that CDU levels decrease among workers removed from occupational exposure to cadmium in comparison to workers experiencing ongoing exposure. In both cases, however, the distinction between the 2 groups is not as clear as with CDB; there is more overlap in CDU levels observed among each of the paired populations than is true for corresponding CDB levels. As with CDB levels, the data in Table 8 suggest increased CDU concentrations among workers who experienced increased overall exposure.
</P>
<P>Although a few occupationally-exposed workers in the studies presented in Table 8 exhibit CDU levels below 3 µg/g CRTU, most of those workers exposed to cadmium levels in excess of the PEL defined in the final cadmium rule exhibit CDU levels above 3 µg/g CRTU; this level represents the upper 95th percentile of the CDU distribution observed among those who are not occupationally exposed to cadmium (Table 7).
</P>
<P>The mean CDU levels reported in Table 8 among occupationally-exposed groups studied (except 2) exceed 3 µg/g CRTU. Correspondingly, the level of exposure reported in these studies (with 1 exception) are significantly higher than what workers will experience under the final cadmium rule. The 2 exceptions are from the studies by Mueller et al. (1989) and Kawada et al. (1990); these studies indicate that workers exposed to cadmium during pigment manufacture do not exhibit CDU levels as high as those levels observed among workers exposed to cadmium in other occupations. Exposure levels, however, were lower in the pigment manufacturing plants studied. Significantly, workers removed from occupational cadmium exposure for an average of 4 years still exhibited CDU levels in excess of 3 µg/g CRTU (Roels et al. 1982). In the single-exception study with a reported level of cadmium exposure lower than levels proposed in the final rule (<I>i.e.</I>, the study of a pigment manufacturing plant by Kawada et al. 1990), most of the workers exhibited CDU levels less than 3 µg/g CRTU (<I>i.e.</I>, the mean value was only 1.3 µg/g CRTU). CDU levels among workers with such limited cadmium exposure are expected to be significantly lower than levels of other studies reported in Table 8.
</P>
<P>Based on the above data, a CDU level of 3 µg/g CRTU appear to represent a threshold above which significant work place exposure to cadmium occurs over the work span of those being monitored. Note that this threshold is not as distinct as the corresponding threshold described for CDB. In general, the variability associated with CDU measurements among exposed workers appears to be higher than the variability associated with CDB measurements among similar workers.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.8 Conclusions and Recommendations for CDU
</HD3>
<P>The above evaluation supports the following recommendations for a CDU proficiency program. These recommendations address only sampling and analysis procedures for CDU determinations specifically, which are to be reported as an unadjusted µg Cd/l urine. Normalizing this result to creatinine requires a second analysis for CRTU so that the ratio of the 2 measurements can be obtained. Creatinine analysis is addressed in Section 5.4. Formal procedures for combining the 2 measurements to derive a value and a confidence limit for CDU in µg/g CRTU are provided in Section 3.3.3.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.8.1 <I>Recommended method</I>
</HD3>
<P>The method of Pruszkowska et al. (1983) should be adopted for CDU analysis. This method is recommended because it is simple, straightforward and reliable (<I>i.e.</I>, small variations in experimental conditions do not affect the analytical results).
</P>
<P>A synopsis of the methods used by laboratories to determine CDU under the interlaboratory program administered by the CTQ (1991) indicates that more than 78% (24 of 31) of the participating laboratories use a dilution method to prepare urine samples for CDU analysis. Laboratories may adopt alternate methods, but it is the responsibility of the laboratory to demonstrate that the alternate methods provide results of comparable quality to the Pruszkowska method.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.8.2 <I>Data quality objectives</I>
</HD3>
<P>The following data quality objectives should facilitate interpretation of analytical results, and are achievable based on the above evaluation.
</P>
<P><I>Limit of Detection.</I> A level of 0.5 µg/l (<I>i.e.</I>, corresponding to a detection limit of 0.5 µg/g CRTU, assuming 1 g CRT/l urine) should be achievable. Pruszkowska et al. (1983) achieved a limit of detection of 0.04 µg/l for CDU based on the slope of the curve for their working standards (0.35 pg Cd/0.0044, A signal = 1% absorbance using GF-AAS).
</P>
<P>The CDC reports a minimum detection limit for CDU of 0.07 µg/l using a modified Pruszkowska method. This limit of detection was defined as 3 times the standard deviation calculated from 10 repeated measurements of a “low level” CDU test sample (Attachment 8 of exhibit 106 of OSHA docket H057A).
</P>
<P>Stoeppler and Brandt (1980) report a limit of detection for CDU of 0.2 µg/l using an aqueous dilution (1:2) of the urine samples.
</P>
<P><I>Accuracy.</I> A recent report from the CTQ (Weber, private communication) indicates that 36% of the laboratories in the program achieve the target of ±1 µg/l or 15% for more than 75% of the samples analyzed over the last 5 years, while 45% of participating laboratories achieve a target of ±2 µg/l or 15% for more than 75% of the samples analyzed over the same period. With time and a strong incentive for improvement, it is expected that the proportion of laboratories successfully achieving the stricter level of accuracy should increase. It should be noted, however, these indices of performance do not include variations resulting from the ancillary measurement of CRTU (which is recommended for the proper recording of results). The low cadmium levels expected to be measured indicate that the analysis of creatinine will contribute relatively little to the overall variability observed among creatinine-normalized CDU levels (see Section 5.4). The initial target value for reporting CDU under this program, therefore, is set at ±1 µg/g CRTU or 15% (whichever is greater).
</P>
<P><I>Precision.</I> For internal QC samples (which are recommended as part of an internal QA/QC program, Section 3.3.1), laboratories should attain an overall precision of 25%. For CDB samples with concentrations less than 2 µg/l, a target precision of 40% is acceptable, while precisions of 20% should be achievable for CDU concentrations greater than 2 µg/l. Although these values are more stringent than those observed in the CTQ interlaboratory program reported by Webber (1988), they are well within limits expected to be achievable for the method as reported by Stoeppler and Brandt (1980).
</P>
<HD3>5.2.8.3 <I>Quality assurance/quality control</I>
</HD3>
<P>Commercial laboratories providing CDU determinations should adopt an internal QA/QC program that incorporates the following components: Strict adherence to the selected method, including calibration requirements; regular incorporation of QC samples during actual runs; a protocol for corrective actions, and documentation of such actions; and, participation in an interlaboratory proficiency program. Note that the nonmandatory program presented in Attachment 1 as an example of an acceptable QA/QC program, is based on using the Pruszkowska method for CDU analysis. Should an alternate method be adopted by a laboratory, the laboratory should develop a QA/QC program equivalent to the nonmandatory program, and which satisfies the provisions of Section 3.3.1.
</P>
<HD3>5.3 Monitoring β-2-Microglobulin in Urine (B2MU)
</HD3>
<P>As indicated in Section 4.3, B2MU appears to be the best of several small proteins that may be monitored as early indicators of cadmium-induced renal damage. Several analytic techniques are available for measuring B2M.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.1 Units of B2MU Measurement
</HD3>
<P>Procedures adopted for reporting B2MU levels are not uniform. In these guidelines, OSHA recommends that B2MU levels be reported as µg/g CRTU, similar to reporting CDU concentrations. Reporting B2MU normalized to the concentration of CRTU requires an additional analytical process beyond the analysis of B2M: Independent analysis for creatinine so that results may be reported as a ratio of the B2M and creatinine concentrations found in the urine sample. Consequently, the overall quality of the analysis depends on the combined performance on these 2 analyses. The analysis used for B2MU determinations is described in terms of µg B2M/l urine, with analysis of creatinine addressed separately. Techniques used to measure creatinine are provided in Section 5.4. Note that Section 3.3.3 provides techniques for deriving the value of B2M as function of CRTU, and the confidence limits for independent measurements of B2M and CRTU.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.2 Analytical Techniques Used To Monitor B2MU
</HD3>
<P>One of the earliest tests used to measure B2MU was the radial immunodiffusion technique. This technique is a simple and specific method for identification and quantitation of a number of proteins found in human serum and other body fluids when the protein is not readily differentiated by standard electrophoretic procedures. A quantitative relationship exists between the concentration of a protein deposited in a well that is cut into a thin agarose layer containing the corresponding monospecific antiserum, and the distance that the resultant complex diffuses. The wells are filled with an unknown serum and the standard (or control), and incubated in a moist environment at room temperature. After the optimal point of diffusion has been reached, the diameters of the resulting precipition rings are measured. The diameter of a ring is related to the concentration of the constituent substance. For B2MU determinations required in the medical monitoring program, this method requires a process that may be insufficient to concentrate the protein to levels that are required for detection.
</P>
<P>Radioimmunoassay (RIA) techniques are used widely in immunologic assays to measure the concentration of antigen or antibody in body-fluid samples. RIA procedures are based on competitive-binding techniques. If antigen concentration is being measured, the principle underlying the procedure is that radioactive-labeled antigen competes with the sample's unlabeled antigen for binding sites on a known amount of immobile antibody. When these 3 components are present in the system, an equilibrium exists. This equilibrium is followed by a separation of the free and bound forms of the antigen. Either free or bound radioactive-labeled antigen can be assessed to determine the amount of antigen in the sample. The analysis is performed by measuring the level of radiation emitted either by the bound complex following removal of the solution containing the free antigen, or by the isolated solution containing the residual-free antigen. The main advantage of the RIA method is the extreme sensitivity of detection for emitted radiation and the corresponding ability to detect trace amounts of antigen. Additionally, large numbers of tests can be performed rapidly.
</P>
<P>The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) techniques are similar to RIA techniques except that nonradioactive labels are employed. This technique is safe, specific and rapid, and is nearly as sensitive as RIA techniques. An enzyme-labeled antigen is used in the immunologic assay; the labeled antigen detects the presence and quantity of unlabeled antigen in the sample. In a representative ELISA test, a plastic plate is coated with antibody (e.g., antibody to B2M). The antibody reacts with antigen (B2M) in the urine and forms an antigen-antibody complex on the plate. A second anti-B2M antibody (<I>i.e.</I>, labeled with an enzyme) is added to the mixture and forms an antibody-antigen-antibody complex. Enzyme activity is measured spectrophotometrically after the addition of a specific chromogenic substrate which is activated by the bound enzyme. The results of a typical test are calculated by comparing the spectrophotometric reading of a serum sample to that of a control or reference serum. In general, these procedures are faster and require less laboratory work than other methods.
</P>
<P>In a fluorescent ELISA technique (such as the one employed in the Pharmacia Delphia test for B2M), the labeled enzyme is bound to a strong fluorescent dye. In the Pharmacia Delphia test, an antigen bound to a fluorescent dye competes with unlabeled antigen in the sample for a predetermined amount of specific, immobile antibody. Once equilibrium is reached, the immobile phase is removed from the labeled antigen in the sample solution and washed; an enhancement solution then is added that liberates the fluorescent dye from the bound antigen-antibody complex. The enhancement solution also contains a chelate that complexes with the fluorescent dye in solution; this complex increases the fluorescent properties of the dye so that it is easier to detect.
</P>
<P>To determine the quantity of B2M in a sample using the Pharmacia Delphia test, the intensity of the fluorescence of the enhancement solution is measured. This intensity is proportional to the concentration of labeled antigen that bound to the immobile antibody phase during the initial competition with unlabeled antigen from the sample. Consequently, the intensity of the fluorescence is an inverse function of the concentration of antigen (B2M) in the original sample. The relationship between the fluorescence level and the B2M concentration in the sample is determined using a series of graded standards, and extrapolating these standards to find the concentration of the unknown sample.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.3 Methods Developed for B2MU Determinations
</HD3>
<P>B2MU usually is measured by radioimmunoassay (RIA) or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA); however, other methods (including gel electrophoresis, radial immunodiffusion, and nephelometric assays) also have been described (Schardun and van Epps 1987). RIA and ELISA methods are preferred because they are sensitive at concentrations as low as micrograms per liter, require no concentration processes, are highly reliable and use only a small sample volume.
</P>
<P>Based on a survey of the literature, the ELISA technique is recommended for monitoring B2MU. While RIAs provide greater sensitivity (typically about 1 µg/l, Evrin et al. 1971), they depend on the use of radioisotopes; use of radioisotopes requires adherence to rules and regulations established by the Atomic Energy Commission, and necessitates an expensive radioactivity counter for testing. Radioisotopes also have a relatively short half-life, which corresponds to a reduced shelf life, thereby increasing the cost and complexity of testing. In contrast, ELISA testing can be performed on routine laboratory spectrophotometers, do <I>not</I> necessitate adherence to additional rules and regulations governing the handling of radioactive substances, and the test kits have long shelf lives. Further, the range of sensitivity commonly achieved by the recommended ELISA test (<I>i.e.</I>, the Pharmacia Delphia test) is approximately 100 µg/l (Pharmacia 1990), which is sufficient for monitoring B2MU levels resulting from cadmium exposure. Based on the studies listed in Table 9 (Section 5.3.7), the average range of B2M concentrations among the general, nonexposed population falls between 60 and 300 µg/g CRTU. The upper 95th percentile of distributions, derived from studies in Table 9 which reported standard deviations, range between 180 and 1,140 µg/g CRTU. Also, the Pharmacia Delphia test currently is the most widely used test for assessing B2MU.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.4 Sample Collection and Handling
</HD3>
<P>As with CDB or CDU, sample collection procedures are addressed primarily to identify ways to minimize the degree of variability introduced by sample collection during medical monitoring. It is unclear the extent to which sample collection contributes to B2MU variability. Sources of variation include time-of-day effects, the interval since consuming liquids and the quantity of liquids consumed, and the introduction of external contamination during the collection process. A special problem unique to B2M sampling is the sensitivity of this protein to degradation under acid conditions commonly found in the bladder. To minimize this problem, strict adherence to a sampling protocol is recommended. The protocol should include provisions for normalizing the conditions under which the urine is collected. Clearly, it is important to minimize the interval urine spends in the bladder. It also is recommended that every effort be made to collect samples during the same time of day.
</P>
<P>Collection of urine samples for biological monitoring usually is performed using “spot” (<I>i.e.</I>, single-void) urine. Logistics and sample integrity become problems when efforts are made to collect urine over extended periods (e.g., 24 hrs). Unless single-void urines are used, numerous opportunities exist for measurement error because of poor control over sample collection, storage and environmental contamination.
</P>
<P>To minimize the interval that sample urine resides in the bladder, the following adaption to the “spot” collection procedure is recommended: The bladder should be emptied and then a large glass of water should be consumed; the sample then should be collected within an hour after the water is consumed.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.5 Best Achievable Performance
</HD3>
<P>The best achievable performance is assumed to be equivalent to the performance reported by the manufacturers of the Pharmacia Delphia test kits (Pharmacia 1990). According to the insert that comes with these kits, QC results should be within ±2 SDs of the mean for each control sample tested; a CV of less than or equal to 5.2% should be maintained. The total CV reported for test kits is less than or equal to 7.2%.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.6 General Method Performance
</HD3>
<P>Unlike analyses for CDB and CDU, the Pharmacia Delphia test is standardized in a commercial kit that controls for many sources of variation. In the absence of data to the contrary, it is assumed that the achievable performance reported by the manufacturer of this test kit will serve as an achievable performance objective. The CTQ proficiency testing program for B2MU analysis is expected to use the performance parameters defined by the test kit manufacturer as the basis of the B2MU proficiency testing program.
</P>
<P>Note that results reported for the test kit are expressed in terms of µg B2M/l of urine, and have not been adjusted for creatinine. The indicated performance, therefore, is a measure of the performance of the B2M portion of the analyses only, and does not include variation that may have been introduced during the analysis of creatinine.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.7 Observed B2MU Concentrations
</HD3>
<P>As indicated in Section 4.3, the concentration of B2MU may serve as an early indicator of the onset of kidney damage associated with cadmium exposure.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.7.1 <I>Range of B2MU concentrations among unexposed samples</I>
</HD3>
<P>Most of the studies listed in Table 9 report B2MU levels for those who were not occupationally exposed to cadmium. Studies noted in the second column of this table (which contain the footnote “d”) reported B2MU concentrations among cadmium-exposed workers who, nonetheless, showed <I>no</I> signs of proteinuria. These latter studies are included in this table because, as indicated in Section 4.3, monitoring B2MU is intended to provide advanced warning of the onset of kidney dysfunction associated with cadmium exposure, rather than to distinguish relative exposure. This table, therefore, indicates the range of B2MU levels observed among those who had no symptoms of renal dysfunction (including cadmium-exposed workers with none of these symptoms).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9—B-2-Microglobulin Concentrations Observed in Urine Among Those not Occupationally Exposed to Cadmium
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Study No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No. in study
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Geometric mean
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Geometric standard deviation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lower 95th percentile of distribution 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Upper 95th percentile of distribution 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">133 m 
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">115 µg/g 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,140 µg/g 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ishizaki et al. 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">161 f 
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">146 µg/g 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">940 µg/g 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ishizaki et al. 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">84 µg/g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ellis et al. 1983.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">76 µg/l</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stewart and Hughes 1981.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">103 µg/g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chia et al. 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">47 
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">86 µg/L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 µg/1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250 µg/L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kjellstrom et al. 1977.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000 
<sup>e</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">68.1 µg/gr Cr 
<sup>f</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 m &amp; f</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;10 µg/gr Cr 
<sup>h</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">320 µg/gr Cr 
<sup>h</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kowal 1983.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">71 µg/g 
<sup>i</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 
<sup>h</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 
<sup>h</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Buchet et al. 1980.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.073 mg/24h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evrin et al. 1971.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">156 µg/g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
<sup>j</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mason et al. 1988.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">118 µg/g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iwao et al. 1980.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">79 µg/g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wibowo et al. 1982.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">41 m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400 µg/gr Cr 
<sup>k</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Falck et al. 1983.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35 
<sup>n</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roels et al. 1991.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31 
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roels et al. 1991.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36 
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77 
<sup>i</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Miksche et al. 1981.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 
<sup>n</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kawada et al. 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">32 
<sup>p</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kawada et al. 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">295</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">510</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thun et al. 1989.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">a—Based on an assumed lognormal distribution.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b—m = males, f = females.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">c—Aged general population from non-polluted area; 47.9% population aged 50-69; 52.1% ≥70 years of age; values reported in study.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">d—Exposed workers without proteinuria.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">e—492 females, 484 male.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">f—Creatinine adjusted; males = 68.1 µg/g Cr, females = 64.3 µg/g Cr.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">h—Reported in the study.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">i—Arithmetic mean.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">j—Geometric standard error.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">k—Upper 95% tolerance limits: for Falck this is based on the 24 hour urine sample.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">n—Controls.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">p—Exposed synthetic resin and pigment workers without proteinuria; Cadmium in urine levels up to 10 µg/g Cr.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>To the extent possible, the studies listed in Table 9 provide geometric means and geometric standard deviations for measurements among the groups defined in each study. For studies reporting a geometric standard deviation along with a mean, the lower and upper 95th percentile for these distributions were derived and reported in the table.
</P>
<P>The data provided from 15 of the 19 studies listed in Table 9 indicate that the geometric mean concentration of B2M observed among those who were not occupationally exposed to cadmium is 70-170 µg/g CRTU. Data from the 4 remaining studies indicate that exposed workers who exhibit no signs of proteinuria show mean B2MU levels of 60-300 µg/g CRTU. B2MU values in the study by Thun et al. (1989), however, appear high in comparison to the other 3 studies. If this study is removed, B2MU levels for those who are not occupationally exposed to cadmium are similar to B2MU levels found among cadmium-exposed workers who exhibit no signs of kidney dysfunction. Although the mean is high in the study by Thun et al., the range of measurements reported in this study is within the ranges reported for the other studies.
</P>
<P>Determining a reasonable upper limit from the range of B2M concentrations observed among those who do not exhibit signs of proteinuria is problematic. Elevated B2MU levels are among the signs used to define the onset of kidney dysfunction. Without access to the raw data from the studies listed in Table 9, it is necessary to rely on reported standard deviations to estimate an upper limit for normal B2MU concentrations (<I>i.e.</I>, the upper 95th percentile for the distributions measured). For the 8 studies reporting a geometric standard deviation, the upper 95th percentiles for the distributions are 180-1140 µg/g CRTU. These values are in general agreement with the upper 95th percentile for the distribution (<I>i.e.</I>, 631 µg/g CRTU) reported by Buchet et al. (1980). These upper limits also appear to be in general agreement with B2MU values (<I>i.e.</I>, 100-690 µg/g CRTU) reported as the normal upper limit by Iwao et al. (1980), Kawada et al. (1989), Wibowo et al. (1982), and Schardun and van Epps (1987). These values must be compared to levels reported among those exhibiting kidney dysfunction to define a threshold level for kidney dysfunction related to cadmium exposure.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.7.2 <I>Range of B2MU concentrations among exposed workers</I>
</HD3>
<P>Table 10 presents results from studies reporting B2MU determinations among those occupationally exposed to cadmium in the work place; in some of these studies, kidney dysfunction was observed among exposed workers, while other studies did not make an effort to distinguish among exposed workers based on kidney dysfunction. As with Table 9, this table provides geometric means and geometric standard deviations for the groups defined in each study if available. For studies reporting a geometric standard deviation along with a mean, the lower and upper 95th percentiles for the distributions are derived and reported in the table.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10—B-2-Microglobulin Concentrations Observed in Urine Among Occupationally-Exposed workers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Study No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">N
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Concentration of B-2-Microglobulin in urine
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Reference
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Geometric mean (µg/g) 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Geom std dev
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">L 95% of range 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U 95% of range 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,42
<br/>4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ishizaki et al., 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,75
<br/>4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,600</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ishizaki et al., 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ellis et al., 1983.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chia et al., 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>d</sup> 300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>d</sup> 98,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kjellstrom et al., 1977.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>e</sup> 180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>f</sup> 110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>f</sup> 280</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Buchet et al., 1980.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kenzaburo et al., 1979.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>d</sup> 310</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>d</sup> 89,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mason et al., 1988.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>f</sup> 650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>f</sup> 57,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Falck et al., 1983.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>d</sup> 710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>d</sup> 15,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elinder et al., 1985.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roels et al., 1991.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>g</sup> 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roels et al., 1991.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>h</sup> 1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roels et al., 1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">690</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iwao et al., 1980.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wibowo et al., 1982.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>d</sup> 590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>d</sup> 93,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thun et al., 1989.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Unless otherwise stated.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Based on an assumed lognormal distribution.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Among workers diagnosed as having renal dysfunction; for Elinder this means β 2 levels greater than 300 micrograms per gram creatinine (µg/gr Cr); for Roels, 1991, range = 31 − 35, 170 µgβ<E T="52">2</E>/gr Cr and geometric mean = 63 among healthy workers; for Mason β<E T="52">2</E> &gt;300 µg/gr Cr.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> Based on a detailed review of the data by OSHA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> Arthmetic mean.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> Reported in the study.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> Retired workers.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>h</sup> 1,800 µgβ<E T="52">2</E>/gr Cr for first survey; second survey = 1,600; third survey = 2,600; fourth survey = 2,600; fifth survey = 2,600.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The data provided in Table 10 indicate that the mean B2MU concentration observed among workers experiencing occupational exposure to cadmium (but with undefined levels of proteinuria) is 160-7400 µg/g CRTU. One of these studies reports geometric means lower than this range (<I>i.e.</I>, as low as 71 µg/g CRTU); an explanation for this wide spread in average concentrations is not available.
</P>
<P>Seven of the studies listed in Table 10 report a range of B2MU levels among those diagnosed as having renal dysfunction. As indicated in this table, renal dysfunction (proteinuria) is defined in several of these studies by B2MU levels in excess of 300 µg/g CRTU (see footnote “c” of Table 10); therefore, the range of B2MU levels observed in these studies is a function of the operational definition used to identify those with renal dysfunction. Nevertheless, a B2MU level of 300 µg/g CRTU appears to be a meaningful threshold for identifying those having early signs of kidney damage. While levels much higher than 300 µg/g CRTU have been observed among those with renal dysfunction, the vast majority of those not occupationally exposed to cadmium exhibit much lower B2MU concentrations (see Table 9). Similarly, the vast majority of workers <I>not</I> exhibiting renal dysfunction are found to have levels below 300 µg/g CRTU (Table 9).
</P>
<P>The 300 µg/g CRTU level for B2MU proposed in the above paragraph has support among researchers as the threshold level that distinguishes between cadmium-exposed workers with and without kidney dysfunction. For example, in the guide for physicians who must evaluate cadmium-exposed workers written for the Cadmium Council by Dr. Lauwerys, levels of B2M greater than 200-300 µg/g CRTU are considered to require additional medical evaluation for kidney dysfunction (exhibit 8-447, OSHA docket H057A). The most widely used test for measuring B2M (<I>i.e.</I>, the Pharmacia Delphia test) defines B2MU levels above 300 µg/l as abnormal (exhibit L-140-1, OSHA docket H057A).
</P>
<P>Dr. Elinder, chairman of the Department of Nephrology at the Karolinska Institute, testified at the hearings on the proposed cadmium rule. According to Dr. Elinder (exhibit L-140-45, OSHA docket H057A), the normal concentration of B2MU has been well documented (Evrin and Wibell 1972; Kjellstrom et al. 1977a; Elinder et al. 1978, 1983; Buchet et al. 1980; Jawaid et al. 1983; Kowal and Zirkes, 1983). Elinder stated that the upper 95 or 97.5 percentiles for B2MU among those without tubular dysfunction is below 300 µg/g CRTU (Kjellstrom et al. 1977a; Buchet et al. 1980; Kowal and Zirkes, 1983). Elinder defined levels of B2M above 300 µg/g CRTU as “slight” proteinuria.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.8 Conclusions and Recommendations for B2MU
</HD3>
<P>Based on the above evaluation, the following recommendations are made for a B2MU proficiency testing program. Note that the following discussion addresses only sampling and analysis for B2MU determinations (<I>i.e.</I>, to be reported as an unadjusted µg B2M/l urine). Normalizing this result to creatinine requires a second analysis for CRTU (see Section 5.4) so that the ratio of the 2 measurements can be obtained.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.8.1 <I>Recommended method</I>
</HD3>
<P>The Pharmacia Delphia method (Pharmacia 1990) should be adopted as the standard method for B2MU determinations. Laboratories may adopt alternate methods, but it is the responsibility of the laboratory to demonstrate that alternate methods provide results of comparable quality to the Pharmacia Delphia method.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.8.2 <I>Data quality objectives</I>
</HD3>
<P>The following data quality objectives should facilitate interpretation of analytical results, and should be achievable based on the above evaluation.
</P>
<P><I>Limit of Detection.</I> A limit of 100 µg/l urine should be achievable, although the insert to the test kit (Pharmacia 1990) cites a detection limit of 150 µg/l; private conversations with representatives of Pharmacia, however, indicate that the lower limit of 100 µg/l should be achievable provided an additional standard of 100 µg/l B2M is run with the other standards to derive the calibration curve (Section 3.3.1.1). The lower detection limit is desirable due to the proximity of this detection limit to B2MU values defined for the cadmium medical monitoring program.
</P>
<P><I>Accuracy.</I> Because results from an interlaboratory proficiency testing program are not available currently, it is difficult to define an achievable level of accuracy. Given the general performance parameters defined by the insert to the test kits, however, an accuracy of ±15% of the target value appears achievable.
</P>
<P>Due to the low levels of B2MU to be measured generally, it is anticipated that the analysis of creatinine will contribute relatively little to the overall variability observed among creatinine-normalized B2MU levels (see Section 5.4). The initial level of accuracy for reporting B2MU levels under this program should be set at ±15%.
</P>
<P><I>Precision.</I> Based on precision data reported by Pharmacia (1990), a precision value (<I>i.e.</I>, CV) of 5% should be achievable over the defined range of the analyte. For internal QC samples (<I>i.e.</I>, recommended as part of an internal QA/QC program, Section 3.3.1), laboratories should attain precision near 5% over the range of concentrations measured.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.8.3 <I>Quality assurance/quality control</I>
</HD3>
<P>Commercial laboratories providing measurement of B2MU should adopt an internal QA/QC program that incorporates the following components: Strict adherence to the Pharmacia Delphia method, including calibration requirements; regular use of QC samples during routine runs; a protocol for corrective actions, and documentation of these actions; and, participation in an interlaboratory proficiency program. Procedures that may be used to address internal QC requirements are presented in Attachment 1. Due to differences between analyses for B2MU and CDB/CDU, specific values presented in Attachment 1 may have to be modified. Other components of the program (including characterization runs), however, can be adapted to a program for B2MU.
</P>
<HD3>5.4 Monitoring Creatinine in Urine (CRTU)
</HD3>
<P>Because CDU and B2MU should be reported relative to concentrations of CRTU, these concentrations should be determined in addition CDU and B2MU determinations.
</P>
<HD3>5.4.1 Units of CRTU Measurement
</HD3>
<P>CDU should be reported as µg Cd/g CRTU, while B2MU should be reported as µg B2M/g CRTU. To derive the ratio of cadmium or B2M to creatinine, CRTU should be reported in units of g crtn/l of urine. Depending on the analytical method, it may be necessary to convert results of creatinine determinations accordingly.
</P>
<HD3>5.4.2 Analytical Techniques Used To Monitor CRTU
</HD3>
<P>Of the techniques available for CRTU determinations, an absorbance spectrophotometric technique and a high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) technique are identified as acceptable in this protocol.
</P>
<HD3>5.4.3 Methods Developed for CRTU Determinations
</HD3>
<P>CRTU analysise performed in support of either CDU or B2MU determinations should be performed using either of the following 2 methods:
</P>
<P>1. The Du Pont method (<I>i.e.</I>, Jaffe method), in which creatinine in a sample reacts with picrate under alkaline conditions, and the resulting red chromophore is monitored (at 510 nm) for a fixed interval to determine the rate of the reaction; this reaction rate is proportional to the concentration of creatinine present in the sample (a copy of this method is provided in Attachment 2 of this protocol); or,
</P>
<P>2. The OSHA SLC Technical Center (OSLTC) method, in which creatinine in an aliquot of sample is separated using an HPLC column equipped with a UV detector; the resulting peak is quantified using an electrical integrator (a copy of this method is provided in Attachment 3 of this protocol).
</P>
<HD3>5.4.4 Sample Collection and Handling
</HD3>
<P>CRTU samples should be segregated from samples collected for CDU or B2MU analysis. Sample-collection techniques have been described under Section 5.2.4. Samples should be preserved either to stabilize CDU (with HNO<E T="52">3</E>) or B2MU (with NaOH). Neither of these procedures should adversely affect CRTU analysis (see Attachment 3).
</P>
<HD3>5.4.5 General Method Performance
</HD3>
<P>Data from the OSLTC indicate that a CV of 5% should be achievable using the OSLTC method (Septon, L private communication). The achievable accuracy of this method has not been determined.
</P>
<P>Results reported in surveys conducted by the CAP (CAP 1991a, 1991b and 1992) indicate that a CV of 5% is achievable. The accuracy achievable for CRTU determinations has not been reported.
</P>
<P>Laboratories performing creatinine analysis under this protocol should be CAP accredited and should be active participants in the CAP surveys.
</P>
<HD3>5.4.6 Observed CRTU Concentrations
</HD3>
<P>Published data suggest the range of CRTU concentrations is 1.0-1.6 g in 24-hour urine samples (Harrison 1987). These values are equivalent to about 1 g/l urine.
</P>
<HD3>5.4.7 Conclusions and Recommendations for CRTU
</HD3>
<HD3>5.4.7.1 <I>Recommended method</I>
</HD3>
<P>Use either the Jaffe method (Attachment 2) or the OSLTC method (Attachment 3). Alternate methods may be acceptable provided adequate performance is demonstrated in the CAP program.
</P>
<HD3>5.4.7.2 <I>Data quality objectives</I>
</HD3>
<P><I>Limit of Detection.</I> This value has not been formally defined; however, a value of 0.1 g/l urine should be readily achievable.
</P>
<P><I>Accuracy.</I> This value has not been defined formally; accuracy should be sufficient to retain accreditation from the CAP.
</P>
<P><I>Precision.</I> A CV of 5% should be achievable using the recommended methods.
</P>
<HD3>6.0 References
</HD3>
<P>Adamsson E, Piscator M, and Nogawa K. (1979). Pulmonary and gastrointestinal exposure to cadmium oxide dust in a battery factory. <I>Environmental Health Perspectives, 28,</I> 219-222.
</P>
<P>American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH). (1986). <I>Documentation of the Threshold Limit Values and Biological Exposure Indices.</I> 5th edition. p. BEI-55.
</P>
<P>Bernard A, Buchet J, Roels H, Masson P, and Lauwerys R. (1979). Renal excretion of proteins and enzymes in workers exposed to cadmium. <I>European Journal of Clinical Investigation, 9,</I> 11-22.
</P>
<P>Bernard A and Lauwerys R. (1990). Early markers of cadmium nephrotoxicity: Biological significance and predictive value. <I>Toxocological and Environmental Chemistry, 27,</I> 65-72.
</P>
<P>Braunwald E, Isselbacher K, Petersdorf R, Wilson J, Martin J, and Fauci A (Eds.). (1987). <I>Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine.</I> New York: McGraw-Hill Book Company.
</P>
<P>Buchet J, Roels H, Bernard I, and Lauwerys R. (1980). Assessment of renal funcion of workers exposed to inorganic lead, cadmium, or mercury vapor. <I>Journal of Occupational Medicine,</I> 22, 741-750.
</P>
<P>CAP. (1991). Urine Chemistry, Series 1: Survey (Set U-B).
</P>
<P>College of American Pathologists.
</P>
<P>CAP. (1991). Urine Chemistry, Series 1: Survey (Set U-C). College of American
</P>
<P>Pathologists.
</P>
<P>CAP. (1992). Urine Chemistry, Series 1: Survey (Set U-A). College of American Pathologists.
</P>
<P>CDC. (1986). Centers for Disease Control, Division of Environmental Health Laboratory Sciences, Center for Environmental Health, Atlanta, Georgia. Docket No. 106A. Lake Couer d'Alene, Idaho cadmium and lead study: 86-0030, Specimen collection and shipping protocol.
</P>
<P>CDC. (1990). Centers for Disease Control, Nutritional Biochemistry Branch. 4/27/90 Draft SOP for Method 0360A “Determination of cadmium in urine by graphite furnace atomic absorption spectrometry with Zeeman background correction.
</P>
<P>Centre de Toxicologie du Quebec. (1991). Interlaboratory comparison program report for run #2. Shipping date 3/11/91. Addition BLR 9/19.
</P>
<P>Chia K, Ong C, Ong H, and Endo G. (1989). Renal tubular function of workers exposed to low levels of cadmium. <I>British Journal of Industrial Medicine, 46,</I> 165-170.
</P>
<P>Claeys-Thoreau F. (1982). Determination of low levels of cadmium and lead in biological fluids with simple dilution by atomic absorption spectrophotometry using Zeeman effect background absorption and the L'Vov platform. <I>Atomic Spectroscopy, 3,</I> 188-191.
</P>
<P>DeBenzo Z, Fraile R, and Carrion N. (1990). Electrothermal atomization atomic absorption spectrometry with stabilized aqueous standards for the determination of cadmium in whole blood. <I>Analytica Chimica Acta, 231,</I> 283-288.
</P>
<P>Elinder C, Edling C, Lindberg E, Kagedal B, and Vesterberg O. (1985). Assessment of renal function in workers previously exposed to cadmium. <I>British Journal of Internal Medicine, 42,</I> 754.
</P>
<P>Ellis K, Cohn S, and Smith T. (1985). Cadmium inhalation exposure estimates: Their significance with respect to kidney and liver cadmium burden. <I>Journal of Toxicology and Environmental Health, 15,</I> 173-187.
</P>
<P>Ellis K, Yasumura S, Vartsky D, and Cohn S. (1983). Evaluation of biological indicators of body burden of cadmium in humans. <I>Fundamentals and Applied Toxicology, 3,</I> 169-174.
</P>
<P>Ellis K, Yeun K, Yasumura S, and Cohn S. (1984). Dose-response analysis of cadmium in man: Body burden vs kidney function. <I>Environmental Research, 33,</I> 216-226.
</P>
<P>Evrin P, Peterson A, Wide I, and Berggard I. (1971). Radioimmunoassay of B-2-microglobulin in human biological fluids. <I>Scandanavian Journal of Clinical Laboratory Investigation, 28,</I> 439-443.
</P>
<P>Falck F, Fine L, Smith R, Garvey J, Schork A, England B, McClatchey K, and Linton J. (1983). Metallothionein and occupational exposure to cadmium. <I>British Journal of Industrial Medicine, 40,</I> 305-313.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Federal Register.</E> (1990). Occupational exposure to cadmium: Proposed rule. 55/22/4052-4147, February 6.
</P>
<P>Friberg, Exhibit 29, (1990). Exhibit No. 29 of the OSHA Federal Docket H057A. Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>Friberg L. (1988). Quality assurance. In T. Clarkson (Ed.), <I>Biological Monitoring of Toxic Metals</I> (pp. 103-105). New York: Plenum Press.
</P>
<P>Friberg L, and Elinder C. (1988). Cadmium toxicity in humans. In <I>Essential and Trace Elements in Human Health and Disease</I> (pp. 559-587). Docket Number 8-660.
</P>
<P>Friberg L, Elinder F, et al. (1986). <I>Cadmium and Health: A Toxicological and Epidemiological Appraisal. Volume II, Effects and Response.</I> Boca Raton, FL: CRC Press.
</P>
<P>Friberg L, Piscator M, Nordberg G, and Kjellstrom T. (1974). <I>Cadmium in the Environment</I> (2nd ed.). Cleveland:CRC.
</P>
<P>Friberg L and Vahter M. (1983). Assessment of exposure to lead and cadmium through biological monitoring: Results of a UNEP/WHO global study. <I>Environmental Research, 30,</I> 95-128.
</P>
<P>Gunter E, and Miller D. (1986). Laboratory procedures used by the division of environmental health laboratory sciences center for environmental health, Centers for Disease Control for the hispanic health and nutrition examination survey (HHANES). Atlanta, GA: Centers for Disease Control.
</P>
<P>Harrison. (1987). Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine. Braunwald, E; Isselbacher, KJ; Petersdorf, RG; Wilson, JD; Martin, JB; and Fauci, AS Eds. Eleventh Ed. McGraw Hill Book Company. San Francisco.
</P>
<P>Henry J. (1991). <I>Clinical Diagnosis and Management by Laboratory Methods</I> (18th edition). Philadelphia: WB Saunders Company.
</P>
<P>IARC (1987). <I>IRAC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans. Overall Evaluation of Carcinogenicity: Update of Volume 1-42.</I> Supplemental 7, 1987.
</P>
<P>Ishizaki M, Kido T, Honda R, Tsuritani I, Yamada Y, Nakagawa H, and Nogawa K. (1989). Dose-response relationship between urinary cadmium and B-2-microglobulin in a Japanese environmentally cadmium exposed population. <I>Toxicology, 58,</I> 121-131.
</P>
<P>Iwao S, Tsuchiya K, and Sakurai H. (1980). Serum and urinary B-2-microglobulin among cadmium-exposed workers. <I>Journal of Occupational Medicine, 22,</I> 399-402.
</P>
<P>Iwata K, Katoh T, Morikawa Y, Aoshima K, Nishijo M, Teranishi H, and Kasuya M. (1988). Urinary trehalase activity as an indicator of kidney injury due to environmental cadmium exposure. <I>Archives of Toxicology, 62,</I> 435-439.
</P>
<P>Kawada T, Koyama H, and Suzuki S. (1989). Cadmium, NAG activity, and B-2-microglobulin in the urine of cadmium pigment workers. <I>British Journal of Industrial Medicine, 46,</I> 52-55.
</P>
<P>Kawada T, Tohyama C, and Suzuki S. (1990). Significance of the excretion of urinary indicator proteins for a low level of occupational exposure to cadmium. <I>International Archives of Occupational Environmental Health, 62,</I> 95-100.
</P>
<P>Kjellstrom T. (1979). Exposure and accumulation of cadmium in populations from Japan, the United States, and Sweden. <I>Environmental Health Perspectives, 28,</I> 169-197.
</P>
<P>Kjellstrom T, Evrin P, and Rahnster B. (1977). Dose-response analysis of cadmium-induced tubular proteinuria. <I>Environmental Research, 13,</I> 303-317.
</P>
<P>Kjellstrom T, Shiroishi K, and Evrin P. (1977). Urinary B-2-microglobulin excretion among people exposed to cadmium in the general environment. <I>Environmental Research, 13,</I> 318-344.
</P>
<P>Kneip T, &amp; Crable J (Eds.). (1988). Method 107. Cadmium in blood. <I>Methods for biological monitoring</I> (pp.161-164). Washington, DC: American Public Health Association.
</P>
<P>Kowal N. (1988). Urinary cadmium and B-2-microglobulin: Correlation with nutrition and smoking history. <I>Journal of Toxicology and Environmental Health, 25,</I> 179-183.
</P>
<P>Kowal N, Johnson D, Kraemer D, and Pahren H. (1979). Normal levels of cadmium in diet, urine, blood, and tissues of inhabitants of the United States. <I>Journal of Toxicology and Environmental Health, 5,</I> 995-1014.
</P>
<P>Kowal N and Zirkes M. (1983). Urinary cadmium and B-2-microglobulin: Normal values and concentration adjustment. <I>Journal of Toxicology and Environmental Health, 11,</I> 607-624.
</P>
<P>Lauwerys R, Buchet J, and Roels H. (1976). The relationship between cadmium exposure or body burden and the concentration of cadmium in blood and urine in man. <I>International Archives of Occupational and Environmental Health, 36,</I> 275-285
</P>
<P>Lauwerys R, Roels H, Regniers, Buchet J, and Bernard A. (1979). Significance of cadmium concentration in blood and in urine in workers exposed to cadmium. <I>Environmental Research, 20,</I> 375-391.
</P>
<P>Lind B, Elinder C, Friberg L, Nilsson B, Svartengren M, and Vahter M. (1987). Quality control in the analysis of lead and cadmium in blood. <I>Fresenius' Zeitschrift fur Analytical Chemistry, 326,</I> 647-655.
</P>
<P>Mason H, Davison A, Wright A, Guthrie C, Fayers P, Venables K, Smith N, Chettle D, Franklin D, Scott M, Holden H, Gompertz D, and Newman-Taylor A. (1988). Relations between liver cadmium, cumulative exposure, and renal function in cadmium alloy workers. <I>British Journal of Industrial Medicine, 45,</I> 793-802.
</P>
<P>Meridian Research, Inc. (1989). <I>Quantitative Assessment of Cancer Risks Associated with Occupational Exposure to Cd.</I> Prepared by Meridian Research, Inc. and Roth Associates, Inc. for the Occupational Safety &amp; Health Administration. June 12, 1989.
</P>
<P>Meridian Research, Inc and Roth Associates, Inc. (1989). <I>Quantitative Assessment of the Risk of Kidney Dysfunction Associated with Occupational Exposure to Cd.</I> Prepared by Meridian Research, Inc. and Roth Associates, Inc. for the Occupational Safety &amp; Health Administration. July 31 1989.
</P>
<P>Micheils E and DeBievre P. (1986). Method 25-Determination of cadmium in whole blood by isotope dilution mass spectrometry. O'Neill I, Schuller P, and Fishbein L (Eds.), <I>Environmental Carcinogens Selected Methods of Analysis</I> (Vol. 8). Lyon, France: International Agency for Research on Cancer.
</P>
<P>Mueller P, Smith S, Steinberg K, and Thun M. (1989). Chronic renal tubular effects in relation to urine cadmium levels. <I>Nephron, 52,</I> 45-54.
</P>
<P>NIOSH. (1984a). Elements in blood or tissues. Method 8005 issued 5/15/85 and Metals in urine. Method 8310 issued 2/15/84 In P. Eller (Ed.), <I>NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods</I> (Vol. 1, Ed. 3). Cincinnati, Ohio: US-DHHS.
</P>
<P>NIOSH. (1984b). Lowry L. Section F: Special considerations for biological samples in <I>NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods</I> (Vol. 1, 3rd ed). P. Eller (Ed.). Cincinnati, Ohio: US-DHHS.
</P>
<P>Nordberg G and Nordberg M. (1988). Biological monitoring of cadmium. In T. Clarkson, L. Friberg, G. Nordberg, and P. Sager (Eds.), <I>Biological Monitoring of Toxic Metals,</I> New York: Plenum Press.
</P>
<P>Nogawa K. (1984). Biologic indicators of cadmium nephrotoxicity in persons with low-level cadmium exposure. <I>Environmental Health Perspectives, 54,</I> 163-169.
</P>
<P>OSLTC (no date). Analysis of Creatinine for the Normalization of Cadmium and Beta-2-Microglobulin Concentrations in Urine. OSHA Salt Lake Technical Center. Salt Lake City, UT. Paschal. (1990). Attachment 8 of exhibit 106 of the OSHA docket H057A.
</P>
<P>Perkin-Elmer Corporation. (1982). <I>Analytical Methods for Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy.</I>
</P>
<P>Perkin-Elmer Corporation. (1977). <I>Analytical Methods Using the HGA Graphite Furnace.</I>
</P>
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</P>
<P>Piscator M. (1962). Proteinuria in chronic cadmium poisoning. <I>Archives of Environmental Health,5,</I> 55-62.
</P>
<P>Potts, C.L. (1965). Cadmium Proteinuria—The Health Battery Workers Exposed to Cadmium Oxide dust. Ann Occup Hyg, 3:55-61, 1965.
</P>
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</P>
<P>Roberts C and Clark J. (1986). Improved determination of cadmium in blood and plasma by flameless atomic absorption spectroscopy. <I>Bulletin of Environmental Contamination and Toxicology, 36,</I> 496-499.
</P>
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</P>
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</P>
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</P>
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</P>
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</P>
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</P>
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</P>
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</P>
<HD3>Attachment 1—Nonmandatory Protocol for an Internal Quality Assurance/Quality Control Program
</HD3>
<P>The following is an example of the type of internal quality assurance/quality control program that assures adequate control to satisfy OSHA requirements under this protocol. However, other approaches may also be acceptable.
</P>
<P>As indicated in Section 3.3.1 of the protocol, the QA/QC program for CDB and CDU should address, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>• calibration;
</P>
<P>• establishment of control limits;
</P>
<P>• internal QC analyses and maintaining control; and
</P>
<P>• corrective action protocols.
</P>
<P>This illustrative program includes both initial characterization runs to establish the performance of the method and ongoing analysis of quality control samples intermixed with compliance samples to maintain control.
</P>
<HD3>Calibration
</HD3>
<P>Before any analytical runs are conducted, the analytic instrument must be calibrated. This is to be done at the beginning of each day on which quality control samples and/or compliance samples are run. Once calibration is established, quality control samples or compliance samples may be run. Regardless of the type of samples run, every fifth sample must be a standard to assure that the calibration is holding.
</P>
<P>Calibration is defined as holding if every standard is within plus or minus (±) 15% of its theoretical value. If a standard is more than plus or minus 15% of its theoretical value, then the run is out of control due to calibration error and the entire set of samples must either be reanalyzed after recalibrating or results should be recalculated based on a statistical curve derived from the measurement of all standards.
</P>
<P>It is essential that the highest standard run is higher than the highest sample run. To assure that this is the case, it may be necessary to run a high standard at the end of the run, which is selected based on the results obtained over the course of the run.
</P>
<P>All standards should be kept fresh, and as they get old, they should be compared with new standards and replaced if they exceed the new standards by ±15%.
</P>
<HD3>Initial Characterization Runs and Establishing Control
</HD3>
<P>A participating laboratory should establish four pools of quality control samples for each of the analytes for which determinations will be made. The concentrations of quality control samples within each pool are to be centered around each of the four target levels for the particular analyte identified in Section 4.4 of the protocol.
</P>
<P>Within each pool, at least 4 quality control samples need to be established with varying concentrations ranging between plus or minus 50% of the target value of that pool. Thus for the medium-high cadmium in blood pool, the theoretical values of the quality control samples may range from 5 to 15 µg/l, (the target value is 10 µg/l). At least 4 unique theoretical values must be represented in this pool.
</P>
<P>The range of theoretical values of plus or minus 50% of the target value of a pool means that there will be overlap of the pools. For example, the range of values for the medium-low pool for cadmium in blood is 3.5 to 10.5 µg/l while the range of values for the medium-high pool is 5 to 15 µg/l. Therefore, it is possible for a quality control sample from the medium-low pool to have a higher concentration of cadmium than a quality control sample from the medium-high pool.
</P>
<P>Quality control samples may be obtained as commercially available reference materials, internally prepared, or both. Internally prepared samples should be well characterized and traced or compared to a reference material for which a consensus value for concentration is available. Levels of analyte in the quality control samples must be concealed from the analyst prior to the reporting of analytical results. Potential sources of materials that may be used to construct quality control samples are listed in Section 3.3.1 of the protocol.
</P>
<P>Before any compliance samples are analyzed, control limits must be established. Control limits should be calculated for every pool of each analyte for which determinations will be made and control charts should be kept for each pool of each analyte. A separate set of control charts and control limits should be established for each analytical instrument in a laboratory that will be used for analysis of compliance samples.
</P>
<P>At the beginning of this QA/QC program, control limits should be based on the results of the analysis of 20 quality control samples from each pool of each analyte. For any given pool, the 20 quality control samples should be run on 20 different days. Although no more than one sample should be run from any single pool on a particular day, a laboratory may run quality control samples from different pools on the same day. This constitutes a set of initial characterization runs.
</P>
<P>For each quality control sample analyzed, the value F/T (defined in the glossary) should be calculated. To calculate the control limits for a pool of an analyte, it is first necessary to calculate the mean, X
<AC T="8"/>, of the F/T values for each quality control sample in a pool and then to calculate its standard deviation σ. Thus, for the control limit for a pool, X
<AC T="8"/> is calculated as:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="38" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.186.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>and σ is calculated as
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="60" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.187.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>Where N is the number of quality control samples run for a pool.
</FP-2>
<P>The control limit for a particular pool is then given by the mean plus or minus 2 standard deviations (X ±3σ).
</P>
<P>The control limits may be no greater than 40% of the mean F/T value. If three standard deviations are greater than 40% of the mean F/T value, then analysis of compliance samples may not begin. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Instead, an investigation into the causes of the large standard deviation should begin, and the inadequacies must be remedied. Then, control limits must be reestablished which will mean repeating the running 20 quality control samples from each pool over 20 days.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Note that the value,“40%” may change over time as experience is gained with the program.</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Internal Quality Control Analyses and Maintaining Control
</HD3>
<P>Once control limits have been established for each pool of an analyte, analysis of compliance samples may begin. During any run of compliance samples, quality control samples are to be interspersed at a rate of no less than 5% of the compliance sample workload. When quality control samples are run, however, they should be run in sets consisting of one quality control sample from each pool. Therefore, it may be necessary, at times, to intersperse quality control samples at a rate greater than 5%.
</P>
<P>There should be at least one set of quality control samples run with any analysis of compliance samples. At a minimum, for example, 4 quality control samples should be run even if only 1 compliance sample is run. Generally, the number of quality control samples that should be run are a multiple of four with the minimum equal to the smallest multiple of four that is greater than 5% of the total number of samples to be run. For example, if 300 compliance samples of an analyte are run, then at least 16 quality control samples should be run (16 is the smallest multiple of four that is greater than 15, which is 5% of 300).
</P>
<P>Control charts for each pool of an analyte (and for each instrument in the laboratory to be used for analysis of compliance samples) should be established by plotting F/T versus date as the quality control sample results are reported. On the graph there should be lines representing the control limits for the pool, the mean F/T limits for the pool, and the theoretical F/T of 1.000. Lines representing plus or minus (±) σ
<AC T="3"/> should also be represented on the charts. A theoretical example of a control chart is presented in Figure 1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Figure 1—Theoretical Example of a Control Chart for a Pool of an Analyte
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.162 (Upper Control Limit)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.096 (Upper 2σ
<AC T="3"/> Line)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.000 (Theoretical Mean)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.964 (Mean)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.832 (Lower 2σ
<AC T="3"/> Line)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.766 (Lower Control Limit)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>All quality control samples should be plotted on the chart, and the charts should be checked for visual trends. If a quality control sample falls above or below the control limits for its pool, then corrective steps must be taken (see the section on corrective actions below). Once a laboratory's program has been established, control limits should be updated every 2 months.
</P>
<P>The updated control limits should be calculated from the results of the last 100 quality control samples run for each pool. If 100 quality control samples from a pool have not been run at the time of the update, then the limits should be based on as many as have been run provided at least 20 quality control samples from each pool have been run over 20 different days.
</P>
<P>The trends that should be looked for on the control charts are:
</P>
<P>1. 10 consecutive quality control samples falling above or below the mean;
</P>
<P>2. 3 consecutive quality control samples falling more than 2σ from the mean (above or below the 2σ lines of the chart); or
</P>
<P>3. the mean calculated to update the control limits falls more than 10% above or below the theoretical mean of 1.000.
</P>
<P>If any of these trends is observed, then all analysis must be stopped, and an investigation into the causes of the errors must begin. Before the analysis of compliance samples may resume, the inadequacies must be remedied and the control limits must be reestablished for that pool of an analyte. Reestablishment of control limits will entail running 20 sets of quality control samples over 20 days.
</P>
<P>Note that alternative procedures for defining internal quality control limits may also be acceptable. Limits may be based, for example, on proficiency testing, such as ±1 µg or 15% of the mean (whichever is greater). These should be clearly defined.
</P>
<HD3>Corrective actions
</HD3>
<P>Corrective action is the term used to describe the identification and remediation of errors occurring within an analysis. Corrective action is necessary whenever the result of the analysis of any quality control sample falls outside of the established control limits. The steps involved may include simple things like checking calculations of basic instrument maintenance, or it may involve more complicated actions like major instrument repair. Whatever the source of error, it must be identified and corrected (and a Corrective Action Report (CAR) must be completed. CARs should be kept on file by the laboratory.
</P>
<HD3>Attachment 2—Creatinine in Urine (Jaffe Procedure)
</HD3>
<P>Intended use: The CREA pack is used in the Du Pont ACA ® discrete clinical analyzer to quantitatively measure creatinine in serum and urine.
</P>
<P>Summary: The CREA method employs a modification of the kinetic Jaffe reaction reported by Larsen. This method has been reported to be less susceptible than conventional methods to interference from non-creatinine, Jaffe-positive compounds. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>A split sample comparison between the CREA method and a conventional Jaffe procedure on Autoanalyzer ® showed a good correlation. (See Specific Performance Characteristics).
</P>
<P>*Note: Numbered subscripts refer to the bibliography and lettered subscripts refer to footnotes.
</P>
<P>Autoanalyzer ®, is a registered trademark of Technicon Corp., Tarrytown, NY.
</P>
<P>Principles of Procedure: In the presence of a strong base such as NaOH, picrate reacts with creatinine to form a red chromophore. The rate of increasing absorbance at 510 nm due to the formation of this chromophore during a 17.07-second measurement period is directly proportional to the creatinine concentration in the sample.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="15" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.188.gif"/></MATH>
<P>Reagents:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compartment 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quantity 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No. 2, 3, &amp; 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Picrate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11 mmol.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NaOH (for pH adjustment) 
<sup>c</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">a. Compartments are numbered 1-7, with compartment #7 located closest to pack fill position #2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">b. Nominal value at manufacture.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">c. See Precautions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Precautions: Compartment #6 contains 75µL of 10 N NaOH; avoid contact; skin irritant; rinse contacted area with water. Comply with OSHA'S Bloodborne Pathogens Standard while handling biological samples (29 CFR 1910.1039).
</P>
<P>Used packs contain human body fluids; handle with appropriate care.
</P>
<HD2>FOR IN VITRO DIAGNOSTIC USE
</HD2>
<HD3>Mixing and Diluting:
</HD3>
<P>Mixing and diluting are automatically performed by the ACA ® discrete clinical analyzer. The sample cup must contain sufficient quantity to accommodate the sample volume plus the “dead volume”; precise cup filling is not required.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Sample Cup Volumes (µL)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Analyzer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Standard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Microsystem
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dead
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dead
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II, III</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IV, SX</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Storage of Unprocessed Packs: Store at 2-8 °C. Do not freeze. Do not expose to temperatures above 35 °C or to direct sunlight.
</P>
<P>Expiration: Refer to EXPIRATION DATE on the tray label.
</P>
<P>Specimen Collection: Serum or urine can be collected and stored by normal procedures. 
<SU>2</SU>
</P>
<HD3>Known Interfering Substances 
<SU>3</SU>
</HD3>
<P>• Serum Protein Influence—Serum protein levels exert a direct influence on the CREA assay. The following should be taken into account when this method is used for urine samples and when it is calibrated:
</P>
<P>Aqueous creatinine standards or urine specimens will give CREA results depressed by approximately 0.7 mg/dL [62 µmol/L] 
<SU>d</SU> and will be less precise than samples containing more than 3 g/dL [30 g/L] protein.
</P>
<P>All urine specimens should be diluted with an albumin solution to give a final protein concentration of at least 3 g/dL [30 g/L]. Du Pont Enzyme Diluent (Cat. #790035-901) may be used for this purpose.
</P>
<P>• High concentration of endrogenous bilirubin (&gt;20 mg/dL [&gt;342 µmol/L]) will give depressed CREA results (average depression 0.8 mg/dL [71 µmol/L]). 
<SU>4</SU>
</P>
<P>• Grossly hemolyzed (hemoglobin &gt;100 mg/dL [&gt;62 µmol/L]) or visibly lipemic specimens may cause falsely elevated CREA results. 
<SU>5 6</SU>
</P>
<P>• The following cephalosporin antibiotics do not interfere with the CREA method when present at the concentrations indicated. Systematic inaccuracies (bias) due to these substances are less than or equal to 0.1 mg/dL [8.84 µmol/L] at CREA concentrations of approximately 1 mg/dL [88 µmol/L].
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Antibiotic
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Peak serum level 
<sup>7 8 9</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Drug concentration
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mg/dL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[mmol/L]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mg/dL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[mmol/L]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cephaloridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cephalexin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6-2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2-0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cephamandole</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3-2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3-0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cephapirin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">D0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cephradine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4-0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cefazolin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5-5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55-1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• The following cephalosporin antibiotics have been shown to affect CREA results when present at the indicated concentrations. System inaccuracies (bias) due to these substances are greater that 0.1 mg/dL [8.84 µmol/L] at CREA concentrations of:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Antibiotic
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Peak serum level 
<sup>8 10</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Drug concentration
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mg/dL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[mmol/L]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mg/dL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[mmol/L]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Effect
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cephalothin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2-1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">↓20-25%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cephoxitin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">↑35-40%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• The single wavelength measurement used in this method eliminates interference from chromophores whose 510 nm absorbance is constant throughout the measurement period.
</P>
<P>• Each laboratory should determine the acceptability of its own blood collection tubes and serum separation products. Variations in these products may exist between manufacturers and, at times, from lot to lot.
</P>
<P>d. Systeme International d'unites (S.I. Units) are in brackets.
</P>
<P>Procedure:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Test Materials
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">II, III Du Pont Cat. No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">IV, SX Du Pont Cat. No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">V Du Pont Cat. No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ACA ® CREA Analytical Test Pack</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">701976901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">701976901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">701976901
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sample System Kit or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710642901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710642901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">713697901
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Micro Sample System Kit and</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">702694901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710356901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Micro Sample System Holders</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">702785000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DYLUX ® Photosensitive
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Printer Paper</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700036000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thermal Printer Paper</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710639901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">713645901
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Du Pont Purified Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">704209901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710615901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710815901
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cell Wash Solution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">701864901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710664901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710864901</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Test Steps: The operator need only load the sample kit and appropriate test pack(s) into a properly prepared ACA ® discrete clinical analyzer. It automatically advances the pack(s) through the test steps and prints a result(s). See the Instrument Manual of the ACA ® analyzer for details of mechanical travel of the test pack(s).
</P>
<HD2>Preset Creatinine (CREA)—Test Conditions
</HD2>
<FP-1>• Sample Volume: 200 µL
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Diluent: Purified Water
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Temperature: 37.0 ±0.1 °C
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Reaction Period: 29 seconds
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Type of Measurement: Rate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Measurement Period: 17.07 seconds
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Wavelength: 510 nm
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Units: mg/dL [µmol/L]
</FP-1>
<P>CALIBRATION: The general calibration procedure is described in the Calibration/Verification chapter of the Manuals.
</P>
<P>The following information should be considered when calibrating the CREA method.
</P>
<FP-1>• Assay Range: 0-20 mg/mL [0-1768 µmol/L] 
<SU>e</SU>.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Reference Material: Protein containing primary standards 
<SU>f</SU> or secondary calibrators such as Du Pont Elevated Chemistry Control (Cat. #790035903) and Normal Chemistry Control (Cat.•#790035905) 
<SU>g</SU>.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Suggested Calibration Levels: 1,5,20, mg/mL [88, 442, 1768 µmol/L].
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Calibration Scheme: 3 levels, 3 packs per level.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Frequency: Each new pack lot. Every 3 months for any one pack lot.
</FP-1>
<P>e. For the results in S.I. units [µmol/L] the conversion factory is 88.4.
</P>
<P>f. Refer to the Creatinine Standard Preparation and Calibration Procedure available on request from a Du Pont Representative.
</P>
<P>g. If the Du Pont Chemistry Controls are being used, prepare them according to the instructions on the product insert sheets.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Preset Creatinine (CREA) Test Conditions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ACA ® II analyzer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ACA ® III, IV, SX, V analyzer
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Count by</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One (1)
<br/>[Five (5)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decimal Point</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0 mg/dL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">000.0 mg/dL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Location</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[000.0 µmol/L]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[000 µmol/L]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assigned Starting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.000 E1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Point or Offset C<E T="52">o</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[9823.]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[−8.840 E2]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scale Factor or Assigned</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2000
<br/>mg/dL/count 
<sup>h</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.004 E-1 
<sup>h</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Linear Term C<E T="52">1</E> h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[0.3536 µmol/L/count]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[1.772E1]</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>h. The preset scale factor (linear term) was derived from the molar absorptivity of the indicator and is based on an absorbance to activity relationship (sensitivity) of 0.596 (mA/min)/(U/L). Due to small differences in filters and electronic components between instruments, the actual scale factor (linear term) may differ slightly from that given above.
</P>
<P>Quality Control: Two types of quality control procedures are recommended:
</P>
<P>• General Instrument Check. Refer to the Filter Balance Procedure and the Absorbance Test Method described in the ACA Analyzer Instrument Manual. Refer also to the ABS Test Methodology literature.
</P>
<P>• Creatinine Method Check. At least once daily run a CREA test on a solution of known creatinine activity such as an assayed control or calibration standard other than that used to calibrate the CREA method. For further details review the Quality Assurance Section of the Chemistry Manual. The result obtained should fall within acceptable limits defined by the day-to-day variability of the system as measured in the user's laboratory. (See SPECIFIC PERFORMANCE CHARACTERISTICS for guidance.) If the result falls outside the laboratory's acceptable limits, follow the procedure outlined in the Chemistry Troubleshooting Section of the Chemistry Manual.
</P>
<P>A possible system malfunction is indicated when analysis of a sample with five consecutive test packs gives the following results:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SD
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 mg/dL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;0.15 mg/dL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[88 µmol/L]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[&gt;13 µmol/L]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 mg/dL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;0.68 mg/dL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[1768 µmol/L]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[&gt;60 µmol/L]</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Refer to the procedure outlined in the Trouble Shooting Section of the Manual.
</P>
<P>Results: The ACA ® analyzer automatically calculates and prints the CREA result in mg/dL [µmol/L].
</P>
<HD2>Limitation of Procedure: Results &gt;20 mg/dL [1768 µmol/L]:
</HD2>
<P>• Dilute with suitable protein base diluent. Reassay. Correct for diluting before reporting.
</P>
<P>The reporting system contains error messages to warn the operator of specific malfunctions. Any report slip containing a letter code or word immediately following the numerical value should not be reported. Refer to the Manual for the definition of error codes.
</P>
<HD2>Reference Interval
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Serum: 
<sup>11 i</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Males</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8-1.3 md/dL
<br/>[71-115 µmol/L]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Females</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6-1.0 md/dL
<br/>[53-88 µmol/L]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Urine: 
<sup>12</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Males</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6-2.5 g/24 hr
<br/>[53-221 mmol/24 hr]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Females</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6-1.5 g/24 hr
<br/>[53-133 mmol/24 hr]</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>i. Reference interval data obtained from 200 apparently healthy individuals (71 males, 129 females) between the ages of 19 and 72.
</P>
<P>Each laboratory should establish its own reference intervals for CREA as performed on the analyzer.
</P>
<HD2>Specific Performance Characteristics 
<SU>j</SU>
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Reproducibility <E T="01">
<sup>k</sup></E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Material
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Mean
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Standard deviation (% CV)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Within-run
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Between-day
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lyophilized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 (3.7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 (3.7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[115]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[4.4]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[4.4]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lyophilized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12 (0.6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37 (1.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[1821]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[10.6]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[32.7]</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Correlation—Regression Statistics <E T="01">
<sup>l</sup></E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comparative method
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Slope
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Intercept
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Correlation coefficient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">n
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Autoanalyzer ®</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03[2.7]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>j. All specific performance characteristics tests were run after normal recommended equipment quality control checks were performed (see Instrument Manual).
</P>
<P>k. Specimens at each level were analyzed in duplicate for twenty days. The within-run and between-day standard deviations were calculated by the analysis of variance method.
</P>
<P>l. Model equation for regression statistics is:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="15" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.189.gif"/></MATH>
<HD2>Assay Range 
<SU>m</SU>
</HD2>
<FP-1>0.0-20.0 mg/dl
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[0-1768 µmol]
</FP-1>
<P>m. See REPRODUCIBILITY for method performance within the assay range.
</P>
<HD2>Analytical Specificity
</HD2>
<P>See KNOWN INTERFERING SUBSTANCES section for details.
</P>
<HD1>Bibliography
</HD1>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Larsen, K, Clin Chem Acta 41, 209 (1972).
</P>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Tietz, NW, Fundamentals of Clinical Chemistry, W. B. Saunders Co., Philadelphia, PA, 1976, pp 47-52, 1211.
</P>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Supplementary information pertaining to the effects of various drugs and patient conditions on in vivo or in vitro diagnostic levels can be found in “Drug Interferences with Clinical Laboratory Tests,” Clin. Chem 21 (5) (1975), and “Effects of Disease on Clinical Laboratory Tests,” Clin Chem, 26 (4) 1D-476D (1980).
</P>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Watkins, R. Fieldkamp, SC, Thibert, RJ, and Zak, B, Clin Chem, 21, 1002 (1975).
</P>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Kawas, EE, Richards, AH, and Bigger, R, An Evaluation of a Kinetic Creatinine Test for the Du Pont ACA, Du Pont Company, Wilmington, DE (February 1973). (Reprints available from DuPont Company, Diagnostic Systems)
</P>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Westgard, JO, Effects of Hemolysis and Lipemia on ACA Creatinine Method, 0.200 µL, Sample Size, Du Pont Company, Wilmington, DE (October 1972).
</P>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Physicians' Desk Reference, Medical Economics Company, 33 Edition, 1979.
</P>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Henry, JB, Clinical Diagnosis and Management by Laboratory Methods, W.B. Saunders Co., Philadelphia, PA 1979, Vol. III.
</P>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Krupp, MA, Tierney, LM Jr., Jawetz, E, Roe, RI, Camargo, CA, Physicians Handbook, Lange Medical Publications, Los Altos, CA, 1982 pp 635-636.
</P>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Sarah, AJ, Koch, TR, Drusano, GL, Celoxitin Falsely Elevates Creatinine Levels, JAMA 247, 205-206 (1982).
</P>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Gadsden, RH, and Phelps, CA, A Normal Range Study of Amylase in Urine and Serum on the Du Pont ACA, Du Pont Company, Wilmington, DE (March 1978). (Reprints available from DuPont Company, Diagnostic Systems)
</P>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Dicht, JJ, Reference Intervals for Serum Amylase and Urinary Creatinine on the Du Pont ACA ® Discrete Clinical Analyzer, Du Pont Company, Wilmington, DE (November 1984).
</P>
<HD3>Attachment 3—Analysis of Creatinine for the Normalization of Cadmium and Beta-2-Microglobulin Concentrations in Urine (OSLTC Procedure).
</HD3>
<P>Matrix: Urine.
</P>
<P>Target concentration: 1.1 g/L (this amount is representative of creatinine concentrations found in urine).
</P>
<P>Procedure: A 1.0 mL aliquot of urine is passed through a C18 SEP-PAK ® (Waters Associates). Approximately 30 mL of HPLC (high performance liquid chromatography) grade water is then run through the SEP-PAK. The resulting solution is diluted to volume in a 100-mL volumetric flask and analyzed by HPLC using an ultraviolet (UV) detector.
</P>
<P>Special requirements: After collection, samples should be appropriately stabilized for cadmium (Cd) analysis by using 10% high purity (with low Cd background levels) nitric acid (exactly 1.0 mL of 10% nitric acid per 10 mL of urine) or stabilized for Beta-2-Microglobulin (B2M) by taking to pH 7 with dilute NaOH (exactly 1.0 mL of 0.11 N NaOH per 10 mL of urine). If not immediately analyzed, the samples should be frozen and shipped by overnight mail in an insulated container.
</P>
<P>Dated: January 1992.
</P>
<FP>David B. Armitage,
</FP>
<FP>Duane Lee,
</FP>
<P><I>Chemists.</I>
</P>
<FP-1>Organic Service Branch II, OSHA Technical Center, Salt Lake City, Utah
</FP-1>
<HD3>1. General Discussion
</HD3>
<FP-2>1.1 Background
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>1.1.1. History of procedure
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Creatinine has been analyzed by several methods in the past. The earliest methods were of the wet chemical type. As an example, creatinine reacts with sodium picrate in basic solution to form a red complex, which is then analyzed colorimetrically (Refs. 5.1. and 5.2.).
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Since industrial hygiene laboratories will be analyzing for Cd and B2M in urine, they will be normalizing those concentrations to the concentration of creatinine in urine. A literature search revealed several HPLC methods (Refs. 5.3., 5.4., 5.5. and 5.6.) for creatinine in urine and because many industrial hygiene laboratories have HPLC equipment, it was desirable to develop an industrial hygiene HPLC method for creatinine in urine. The method of Hausen, Fuchs, and Wachter was chosen as the starting point for method development. SEP-PAKs were used for sample clarification and cleanup in this method to protect the analytical column. The urine aliquot which has been passed through the SEP-PAK is then analyzed by reverse-phase HPLC using ion-pair techniques.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>This method is very similar to that of Ogata and Taguchi (Ref. 5.6.), except they used centrifugation for sample clean-up. It is also of note that they did a comparison of their HPLC results to those of the Jaffe method (a picric acid method commonly used in the health care industry) and found a linear relationship of close to 1:1. This indicates that either HPLC or colorimetric methods may be used to measure creatinine concentrations in urine.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>1.1.2. Physical properties (Ref. 5.7.)
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>Molecular weight: 113.12
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Molecular formula: C<E T="52">4</E>-H<E T="52">7</E>-N<E T="52">3</E>-0
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chemical name: 2-amino-1,5-dihydro-1-methyl-4H-imidazol-4-one
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAS No.: 60-27-5
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melting point: 300 °C (decomposes)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appearance: white powder
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Solubility: soluble in water; slightly soluble in alcohol; practically insoluble in acetone, ether, and chloroform
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Synonyms: 1-methylglycocyamidine, 1-methylhydantoin-2-imide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Structure: see Figure #1
</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.015.gif"/>
<FP-2>1.2. Advantages
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>1.2.1. This method offers a simple, straightforward, and specific alternative method to the Jaffe method.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>1.2.2. HPLC instrumentation is commonly found in many industrial hygiene laboratories.
</FP1-2>
<HD3>2. Sample stabilization procedure
</HD3>
<FP-2>2.1. Apparatus
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Metal-free plastic container for urine sample.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>2.2. Reagents
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>2.2.1. Stabilizing Solution—
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(1) Nitric acid (10%, high purity with low Cd background levels) for stabilizing urine for Cd analysis or
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(2) NaOH, 0.11 N, for stabilizing urine for B2M analysis.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2.2.2. HPLC grade water
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>2.3. Technique
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>2.3.1. Stabilizing solution is added to the urine sample (see section 2.2.1.). The stabilizing solution should be such that for each 10 mL of urine, add exactly 1.0 mL of stabilizer solution. (Never add water or urine to acid or base. Always add acid or base to water or urine.) Exactly 1.0 mL of 0.11 N NaOH added to 10 mL of urine should result in a pH of 7. Or add 1.0 mL of 10% nitric acid to 10 mL of urine.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2.3.2. After sample collection seal the plastic bottle securely and wrap it with an appropriate seal. Urine samples should be frozen and then shipped by overnight mail (if shipping is necessary) in an insulated container. (Do not fill plastic bottle too full. This will allow for expansion of contents during the freezing process.)
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>2.4. The Effect of Preparation and Stabilization Techniques on Creatinine Concentrations
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Three urine samples were prepared by making one sample acidic, not treating a second sample, and adjusting a third sample to pH 7. The samples were analyzed in duplicate by two different procedures. For the first procedure a 1.0 mL aliquot of urine was put in a 100-mL volumetric flask, diluted to volume with HPLC grade water, and then analyzed directly on an HPLC. The other procedure used SEP-PAKs. The SEP-PAK was rinsed with approximately 5 mL of methanol followed by approximately 10 mL of HPLC grade water and both rinses were discarded. Then, 1.0 mL of the urine sample was put through the SEP-PAK, followed by 30 mL of HPLC grade water. The urine and water were transferred to a 100-mL volumetric flask, diluted to volume with HPLC grade water, and analyzed by HPLC. These three urine samples were analyzed on the day they were obtained and then frozen. The results show that whether the urine is acidic, untreated or adjusted to pH 7, the resulting answer for creatinine is essentially unchanged. The purpose of stabilizing the urine by making it acidic or neutral is for the analysis of Cd or B2M respectively.
</FP1-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Comparison of Preparation &amp; Stabilization Techniques
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">w/o SEP-PAK g/L creatinine
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">with SEP-PAK g/L creatinine
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Untreated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Untreated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">pH 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">pH 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.08</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP-2>2.5. Storage
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>After 4 days and 54 days of storage in a freezer, the samples were thawed, brought to room temperature and analyzed using the same procedures as in section 2.4. The results of several days of storage show that the resulting answer of creatinine is essentially unchanged.
</FP1-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Storage Data
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4 days
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">54 days
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">w/o SEP-PAK g/L creatinine
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">with SEP-PAK g/L creatinine
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">w/o SEP-PAK g/L creatinine
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">with SEP-PAK g/L creatinine
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Untreated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Untreated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Untreated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">pH 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">pH 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">pH 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP-2>2.6. Interferences
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>None.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>2.7. Safety precautions
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>2.7.1. Make sure samples are properly sealed and frozen before shipment to avoid leakage.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2.7.2. Follow the appropriate shipping procedures.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>The following modified special safety precautions are based on those recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) (Ref. 5.8.). and OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens standard (29 CFR 1910.1039).
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2.7.3. Wear gloves, lab coat, and safety glasses while handling all human urine products. Disposable plastic, glass, and paper (pipet tips, gloves, etc.) that contact urine should be placed in a biohazard autoclave bag. These bags should be kept in appropriate containers until sealed and autoclaved. Wipe down all work surfaces with 10% sodium hypochlorite solution when work is finished.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2.7.4. Dispose of all biological samples and diluted specimens in a biohazard autoclave bag at the end of the analytical run.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2.7.5. Special care should be taken when handling and dispensing nitric acid. Always remember to add acid to water (or urine). Nitric acid is a corrosive chemical capable of severe eye and skin damage. Wear metal-free gloves, a lab coat, and safety glasses. If the nitric acid comes in contact with any part of the body, quickly wash with copious quantities of water for at least 15 minutes.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2.7.6. Special care should be taken when handling and dispensing NaOH. Always remember to add base to water (or urine). NaOH can cause severe eye and skin damage. Always wear the appropriate gloves, a lab coat, and safety glasses. If the NaOH comes in contact with any part of the body, quickly wash with copious quantities of water for at least 15 minutes.
</FP1-2>
<HD3>3. Analytical procedure
</HD3>
<FP-2>3.1. Apparatus
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>3.1.1. A high performance liquid chromatograph equipped with pump, sample injector and UV detector.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.1.2. A C18 HPLC column; 25 cm × 4.6 mm I.D.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.1.3. An electronic integrator, or some other suitable means of determining analyte response.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.1.4. Stripchart recorder.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.1.5. C18 SEP-PAKs (Waters Associates) or equivalent.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.1.6. Luer-lock syringe for sample preparation (5 mL or 10 mL).
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.1.7. Volumetric pipettes and flasks for standard and sample preparation.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.1.8. Vacuum system to aid sample preparation (optional).
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>3.2. Reagents
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>3.2.1. Water, HPLC grade.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.2.2. Methanol, HPLC grade.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.2.3. PIC B-7 ® (Waters Associates) in small vials.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.2.4. Creatinine, anhydrous, Sigma hemical Corp., purity not listed.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.2.5. 1-Heptanesulfonic acid, sodium salt monohydrate.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.2.6. Phosphoric acid.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.2.7. Mobile phase. It can be prepared by mixing one vial of PIC B-7 into a 1 L solution of 50% methanol and 50% water. The mobile phase can also be made by preparing a solution that is 50% methanol and 50% water with 0.005M heptanesulfonic acid and adjusting the pH of the solution to 3.5 with phosphoric acid.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>3.3. Standard preparation
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>3.3.1. Stock standards are prepared by weighing 10 to 15 mg of creatinine. This is transferred to a 25-mL volumetric flask and diluted to volume with HPLC grade water.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.3.2. Dilutions to a working range of 3 to 35 µg/mL are made in either HPLC grade water or HPLC mobile phase (standards give the same detector response in either solution).
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>3.4. Sample preparation
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>3.4.1. The C18 SEP-PAK is connected to a Luer-lock syringe. It is rinsed with 5 mL HPLC grade methanol and then 10 mL of HPLC grade water. These rinses are discarded.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.4.2. Exactly 1.0 mL of urine is pipetted into the syringe. The urine is put through the SEP-PAK into a suitable container using a vacuum system.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.4.3. The walls of the syringe are rinsed in several stages with a total of approximately 30 mL of HPLC grade water. These rinses are put through the SEP-PAK into the same container. The resulting solution is transferred to a 100-mL volumetric flask and then brought to volume with HPLC grade water.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>3.5. Analysis (conditions and hardware are those used in this evaluation.)
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>3.5.1. Instrument conditions
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Column: Zorbax ® ODS, 5-6 µm particle size; 25 cm × 4.6 mm I.D.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Mobile phase: See Section 3.2.7.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Detector: Dual wavelength UV; 229 nm (primary) 254 nm (secondary)
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Flow rate: 0.7 mL/ minute
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Retention time: 7.2 minutes
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sensitivity: 0.05 AUFS
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Injection volume: 20µl
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.5.2. Chromatogram (see Figure #2)
</FP1-2>
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.016.gif"/>
<FP-2>3.6. Interferences
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>3.6.1. Any compound that has the same retention time as creatinine and absorbs at 229 nm is an interference.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.6.2. HPLC conditions may be varied to circumvent interferences. In addition, analysis at another UV wavelength (<I>i.e.</I>, 254 nm) would allow a comparison of the ratio of response of a standard to that of a sample. Any deviations would indicate an interference.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>3.7. Calculations
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>3.7.1. A calibration curve is constructed by plotting detector response versus standard concentration (See Figure #3).
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3.7.2. The concentration of creatinine in a sample is determined by finding the concentration corresponding to its detector response. (See Figure #3).
</FP1-2>
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.017.gif"/>
<FP1-2>3.7.3. The µg/mL creatinine from section 3.7.2. is then multiplied by 100 (the dilution factor). This value is equivalent to the micrograms of creatinine in the 1.0 mL stabilized urine aliquot or the milligrams of creatinine per liter of urine. The desired units, g/L, is determined by the following relationship:
</FP1-2>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.190.gif"/></MATH>
<FP1-2>3.7.4. The resulting value for creatinine is used to normalize the urinary concentration of the desired analyte (A) (Cd or B2M) by using the following formula.
</FP1-2>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="30" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.191.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>Where A is the desired analyte. The protocol of reporting such normalized results is µg A/g creatinine.
</FP-2>
<HD3>3.8. Safety precautions See section 2.7.
</HD3>
<HD3>4. Conclusions
</HD3>
<P>The determination of creatinine in urine by HPLC is a good alternative to the Jaffe method for industrial hygiene laboratories. Sample clarification with SEP-PAKs did not change the amount of creatinine found in urine samples. However, it does protect the analytical column. The results of this creatinine in urine procedure are unaffected by the pH of the urine sample under the conditions tested by this procedure. Therefore, no special measures are required for creatinine analysis whether the urine sample has been stabilized with 10% nitric acid for the Cd analysis or brought to a pH of 7 with 0.11 N NaOH for the B2M analysis.
</P>
<HD3>5. References
</HD3>
<FP-2>5.1. Clark, L.C.; Thompson, H.L.; <I>Anal. Chem.</I> 1949, 21, 1218.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.2. Peters, J.H.; <I>J. Biol. Chem.</I> 1942, 146, 176.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.3. Hausen, V.A.; Fuchs, D.; Wachter, H.; <I>J. Clin. Chem. Clin. Biochem.</I> 1981, 19, 373-378.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.4. Clark, P.M.S.; Kricka L.J.; Patel, A.; <I>J. Liq. Chrom.</I> 1980, 3(7), 1031-1046.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.5. Ballerini, R.; Chinol, M.; Cambi, A.; <I>J. Chrom.</I> 1979, 179, 365-369.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.6. Ogata, M.; Taguchi, T.; <I>Industrial Health</I> 1987, 25, 225-228.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.7. “Merck Index”, 11th ed.; Windholz, Martha Ed.; Merck: Rahway, N.J., 1989; p 403.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.8. Kimberly, M.; <I>“Determination of Cadmium in Urine by Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectrometry with Zeeman Background Correction.”,</I> Centers for Disease Control, Atlanta, Georgia, unpublished, update 1990.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 42389, Sept. 14, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 49272, Oct. 30, 1992; 58 FR 21781, Apr. 23, 1993; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1288, Jan. 8, 1998; 70 FR 1142, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50189, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75585, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33608, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17781, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21477, May 14, 2019; 85 FR 8732, Feb. 18, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1028" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1028   Benzene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all occupational exposures to benzene. Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 71-43-2, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) The storage, transportation, distribution, dispensing, sale or use of gasoline, motor fuels, or other fuels containing benzene subsequent to its final discharge from bulk wholesale storage facilities, except that operations where gasoline or motor fuels are dispensed for more than 4 hours per day in an indoor location are covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Loading and unloading operations at bulk wholesale storage facilities which use vapor control systems for all loading and unloading operations, except for the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1200 as incorporated into this section and the emergency provisions of paragraphs (g) and (i)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The storage, transportation, distribution or sale of benzene or liquid mixtures containing more than 0.1 percent benzene in intact containers or in transportation pipelines while sealed in such a manner as to contain benzene vapors or liquid, except for the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1200 as incorporated into this section and the emergency provisions of paragraphs (g) and (i)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Containers and pipelines carrying mixtures with less than 0.1 percent benzene and natural gas processing plants processing gas with less than 0.1 percent benzene.
</P>
<P>(v) Work operations where the only exposure to benzene is from liquid mixtures containing 0.5 percent or less of benzene by volume, or the vapors released from such liquids until September 12, 1988; work operations where the only exposure to benzene is from liquid mixtures containing 0.3 percent or less of benzene by volume or the vapors released from such liquids from September 12, 1988, to September 12, 1989; and work operations where the only exposure to benzene is from liquid mixtures containing 0.1 percent or less of benzene by volume or the vapors released from such liquids after September 12, 1989; except that tire building machine operators using solvents with more than 0.1 percent benzene are covered by paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) Oil and gas drilling, production and servicing operations.
</P>
<P>(vii) Coke oven batteries.
</P>
<P>(3) The cleaning and repair of barges and tankers which have contained benzene are excluded from paragraph (f) methods of compliance, paragraph (e)(1) exposure monitoring-general, and paragraph (e)(6) accuracy of monitoring. Engineering and work practice controls shall be used to keep exposures below 10 ppm unless it is proven to be not feasible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Action level</I> means an airborne concentration of benzene of 0.5 ppm calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter a regulated area, or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe monitoring and measuring procedures under paragraph (l) of this section, or any other person authorized by the Act or regulations issued under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Benzene</I> (C<E T="52">6</E> H<E T="52">6</E>) (CAS Registry No. 71-43-2) means liquefied or gaseous benzene. It includes benzene contained in liquid mixtures and the benzene vapors released by these liquids. It does not include trace amounts of unreacted benzene contained in solid materials.
</P>
<P><I>Bulk wholesale storage facility</I> means a bulk terminal or bulk plant where fuel is stored prior to its delivery to wholesale customers.
</P>
<P><I>Container</I> means any barrel, bottle, can, cylinder, drum, reaction vessel, storage tank, or the like, but does not include piping systems.
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means any part of a calendar day.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment which may or does result in an unexpected significant release of benzene.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means exposure to airborne benzene which would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means any area where airborne concentrations of benzene exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the permissible exposure limits, either the 8-hour time weighted average exposure of 1 ppm or the short-term exposure limit of 5 ppm for 15 minutes.
</P>
<P><I>Vapor control system</I> means any equipment used for containing the total vapors displaced during the loading of gasoline, motor fuel or other fuel tank trucks and the displacing of these vapors through a vapor processing system or balancing the vapor with the storage tank. This equipment also includes systems containing the vapors displaced from the storage tank during the unloading of the tank truck which balance the vapors back to the tank truck.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits (PELs)</I>—(1) <I>Time-weighted average limit (TWA).</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of benzene in excess of one part of benzene per million parts of air (1 ppm) as an 8-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short-term exposure limit (STEL).</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of benzene in excess of five (5) ppm as averaged over any 15 minute period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) The employer shall establish a regulated area wherever the airborne concentration of benzene exceeds or can reasonably be expected to exceed the permissible exposure limits, either the 8-hour time weighted average exposure of 1 ppm or the short-term exposure limit of 5 ppm for 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(2) Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(3) Regulated areas shall be determined from the rest of the workplace in any manner that minimizes the number of employees exposed to benzene within the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of each employee's average exposure to airborne benzene.
</P>
<P>(ii) Representative 8-hour TWA employee exposures shall be determined on the basis of one sample or samples representing the full shift exposure for each job classification in each work area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determinations of compliance with the STEL shall be made from 15 minute employee breathing zone samples measured at operations where there is reason to believe exposures are high, such as where tanks are opened, filled, unloaded or gauged; where containers or process equipment are opened and where benzene is used for cleaning or as a solvent in an uncontrolled situation. The employer may use objective data, such as measurements from brief period measuring devices, to determine where STEL monitoring is needed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Except for initial monitoring as required under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, where the employer can document that one shift will consistently have higher employee exposures for an operation, the employer shall only be required to determine representative employee exposure for that operation during the shift on which the highest exposure is expected.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> (i) Each employer who has a place of employment covered under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall monitor each of these workplaces and work operations to determine accurately the airborne concentrations of benzene to which employees may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial monitoring required under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section shall be completed by 60 days after the effective date of this standard or within 30 days of the introduction of benzene into the workplace. Where the employer has monitored within one year prior to the effective date of this standard and the monitoring satisfies all other requirements of this section, the employer may rely on such earlier monitoring results to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring and monitoring frequency.</I> (i) If the monitoring required by paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section reveals employee exposure at or above the action level but at or below the TWA, the employer shall repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every year.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the monitoring required by paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section reveals employee exposure above the TWA, the employer shall repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every six (6) months.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer may alter the monitoring schedule from every six months to annually for any employee for whom two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart indicate that the employee exposure has decreased to the TWA or below, but is at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(iv) Monitoring for the STEL shall be repeated as necessary to evaluate exposures of employees subject to short term exposures.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section reveals employee exposure to be below the action level the employer may discontinue the monitoring for that employee, except as otherwise required by paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the periodic monitoring required by paragraph (e)(3) of this section reveals that employee exposures, as indicated by at least two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart, are below the action level the employer may discontinue the monitoring for that employee, except as otherwise required by paragraph (e)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section when there has been a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel or work practices which may result in new or additional exposures to benzene, or when the employer has any reason to suspect a change which may result in new or additional exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever spills, leaks, ruptures or other breakdowns occur that may lead to employee exposure, the employer shall monitor (using area or personal sampling) after the cleanup of the spill or repair of the leak, rupture or other breakdown to ensure that exposures have returned to the level that existed prior to the incident.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of monitoring.</I> Monitoring shall be accurate, to a confidence level of 95 percent, to within plus or minus 25 percent for airborne concentrations of benzene.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the PELs are exceeded, the written notification required by paragraph (e)(7)(i) of this section shall contain the corrective action being taken by the employer to reduce the employee exposure to or below the PEL, or shall refer to a document available to the employee which states the corrective actions to be taken.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering controls and work practices.</I> (i) The employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices to reduce and maintain employee exposure to benzene at or below the permissible exposure limits, except to the extent that the employer can establish that these controls are not feasible or where the provisions of paragraph (f)(1)(iii) or (g)(1) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever the feasible engineering controls and work practices which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer can document that benzene is used in a workplace less than a total of 30 days per year, the employer shall use engineering controls, work practice controls or respiratory protection or any combination of these controls to reduce employee exposure to benzene to or below the PELs, except that employers shall use engineering and work practice controls, if feasible, to reduce exposure to or below 10 ppm as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) When any exposures are over the PEL, the employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL primarily by means of engineering and work practice controls, as required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written program shall include a schedule for development and implementation of the engineering and work practice controls. These plans shall be reviewed and revised as appropriate based on the most recent exposure monitoring data, to reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written compliance programs shall be furnished upon request for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, affected employees and designated employee representatives.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations for which the employer establishes that compliance with either the TWA or STEL through the use of engineering and work-practice controls is not feasible; for example, some maintenance and repair activities, vessel cleaning, or other operations for which engineering and work-practice controls are infeasible because exposures are intermittent and limited in duration.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient, or are not required under paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section, to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii), (d)(3)(iii)(b)(1) and (2)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For air-purifying respirators, the employer must replace the air-purifying element at the expiration of its service life or at the beginning of each shift in which such elements are used, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(iii) If NIOSH approves an air-purifying element with an end-of-service-life indicator for benzene, such an element may be used until the indicator shows no further useful life.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide employees with any organic vapor gas mask or any self-contained breathing apparatus with a full facepiece to use for escape.
</P>
<P>(C) Use an organic vapor cartridge or canister with powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators, and a chin-style canister with full facepiece gas masks.
</P>
<P>(D) Ensure that canisters used with non-powered air-purifying respirators have a minimum service life of four hours when tested at 150 ppm benzene at a flow rate of 64 liters per minute (LPM), a temperature of 25 °C, and a relative humidity of 85%; for canisters used with tight-fitting or loose-fitting powered air-purifying respirators, the flow rates for testing must be 115 LPM and 170 LPM, respectively. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any employee who cannot use a negative-pressure respirator must be allowed to use a respirator with less breathing resistance, such as a powered air-purifying respirator or supplied-air respirator.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protective clothing and equipment.</I> Personal protective clothing and equipment shall be worn where appropriate to prevent eye contact and limit dermal exposure to liquid benzene. Protective clothing and equipment shall be provided by the employer at no cost to the employee and the employer shall assure its use where appropriate. Eye and face protection shall meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.133.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make available a medical surveillance program for employees who are or may be exposed to benzene at or above the action level 30 or more days per year; for employees who are or may be exposed to benzene at or above the PELs 10 or more days per year; for employees who have been exposed to more than 10 ppm of benzene for 30 or more days in a year prior to the effective date of the standard when employed by their current employer; and for employees involved in the tire building operations called tire building machine operators, who use solvents containing greater than 0.1 percent benzene.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician and that all laboratory tests are conducted by an accredited laboratory.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that persons other than licensed physicians who administer the pulmonary function testing required by this section shall complete a training course in spirometry sponsored by an appropriate governmental, academic or professional institution.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that all examinations and procedures are provided without cost to the employee and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examination.</I> (i) Within 60 days of the effective date of this standard, or before the time of initial assignment, the employer shall provide each employee covered by paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section with a medical examination including the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed occupational history which includes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Past work exposure to benzene or any other hematological toxins,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A family history of blood dyscrasias including hematological neoplasms;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A history of blood dyscrasias including genetic hemoglobin abnormalities, bleeding abnormalities, abnormal function of formed blood elements;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A history of renal or liver dysfunction;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A history of medicinal drugs routinely taken;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A history of previous exposure to ionizing radiation and
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Exposure to marrow toxins outside of the current work situation.
</P>
<P>(B) A complete physical examination.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Laboratory tests.</I> A complete blood count including a leukocyte count with differential, a quantitative thrombocyte count, hematocrit, hemoglobin, erythrocyte count and erythrocyte indices (MCV, MCH, MCHC). The results of these tests shall be reviewed by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(D) Additional tests as necessary in the opinion of the examining physician, based on alterations to the components of the blood or other signs which may be related to benzene exposure; and
</P>
<P>(E) For all workers required to wear respirators for at least 30 days a year, the physical examination shall pay special attention to the cardiopulmonary system and shall include a pulmonary function test.
</P>
<P>(ii) No initial medical examination is required to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section if adequate records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with the procedures of paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section within the twelve months prior to the effective date of this standard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) The employer shall provide each employee covered under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section with a medical examination annually following the previous examination. These periodic examinations shall incude at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A brief history regarding any new exposure to potential marrow toxins, changes in medicinal drug use, and the appearance of physical signs relating to blood disorders:
</P>
<P>(B) A complete blood count including a leukocyte count with differential, quantitative thrombocyte count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, erythrocyte count and erythrocyte indices (MCV, MCH, MCHC); and
</P>
<P>(C) Appropriate additional tests as necessary, in the opinion of the examining physician, in consequence of alterations in the components of the blood or other signs which may be related to benzene exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employee develops signs and symptoms commonly associated with toxic exposure to benzene, the employer shall provide the employee with an additional medical examination which shall include those elements considered appropriate by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(iii) For persons required to use respirators for at least 30 days a year, a pulmonary function test shall be performed every three (3) years. A specific evaluation of the cardiopulmonary system shall be made at the time of the pulmonary function test.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Emergency examinations.</I> (i) In addition to the surveillance required by (i)(1)(i), if an employee is exposed to benzene in an emergency situation, the employer shall have the employee provide a urine sample at the end of the employee's shift and have a urinary phenol test performed on the sample within 72 hours. The urine specific gravity shall be corrected to 1.024.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the result of the urinary phenol test is below 75 mg phenol/L of urine, no further testing is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the result of the urinary phenol test is equal to or greater than 75 mg phenol/L of urine, the employer shall provide the employee with a complete blood count including an erythrocyte count, leukocyte count with differential and thrombocyte count at monthly intervals for a duration of three (3) months following the emergency exposure.
</P>
<P>(iv) If any of the conditions specified in paragraph (i)(5)(i) of this section exists, then the further requirements of paragraph (i)(5) of this section shall be met and the employer shall, in addition, provide the employees with periodic examinations if directed by the physician.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional examinations and referrals.</I> (i) Where the results of the complete blood count required for the initial and periodic examinations indicate any of the following abnormal conditions exist, then the blood count shall be repeated within 2 weeks.
</P>
<P>(A) The hemoglobin level or the hematocrit falls below the normal limit [outside the 95% confidence interval (C.I.)] as determined by the laboratory for the particular geographic area and/or these indices show a persistent downward trend from the individual's pre-exposure norms; provided these findings cannot be explained by other medical reasons.
</P>
<P>(B) The thrombocyte (platelet) count varies more than 20 percent below the employee's most recent values or falls outside the normal limit (95% C.I.) as determined by the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(C) The leukocyte count is below 4,000 per mm
<SU>3</SU> or there is an abnormal differential count.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the abnormality persists, the examining physician shall refer the employee to a hematologist or an internist for further evaluation unless the physician has good reason to believe such referral is unnecessary. (See appendix C for examples of conditions where a referral may be unnecessary.)
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide the hematologist or internist with the information required to be provided to the physician under paragraph (i)(6) of this section and the medical record required to be maintained by paragraph (k)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The hematologist's or internist's evaluation shall include a determination as to the need for additional tests, and the employer shall assure that these tests are provided.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this regulation and its appendices;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's actual or representative exposure level:
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous employment-related medical examinations of the affected employee which is not otherwise available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Physician's written opinions.</I> (i) For each examination under this section, the employer shall obtain and provide the employee with a copy of the examining physician's written opinion within 15 days of the examination. The written opinion shall be limited to the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The occupationally pertinent results of the medical examination and tests;
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion concerning whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee's health at greater than normal risk of material impairment from exposure to benzene;
</P>
<P>(C) The physician's recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to benzene or upon the employee's use of protective clothing or equipment and respirators.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions resulting from benzene exposure which require further explanation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written opinion obtained by the employer shall not reveal specific records, findings and diagnoses that have no bearing on the employee's ability to work in a benzene-exposed workplace.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Medical removal plan.</I> (i) When a physician makes a referral to a hematologist/internist as required under paragraph (i)(5)(ii) of this section, the employee shall be removed from areas where exposures may exceed the action level until such time as the physician makes a determination under paragraph (i)(8)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Following the examination and evaluation by the hematologist/internist, a decision to remove an employee from areas where benzene exposure is above the action level or to allow the employee to return to areas where benzene exposure is above the action level shall be made by the physician in consultation with the hematologist/internist. This decision shall be communicated in writing to the employer and employee. In the case of removal, the physician shall state the required probable duration of removal from occupational exposure to benzene above the action level and the requirements for future medical examinations to review the decision.
</P>
<P>(iii) For any employee who is removed pursuant to paragraph (i)(8)(ii) of this section, the employer shall provide a follow-up examination. The physician, in consultation with the hematologist/internist, shall make a decision within 6 months of the date the employee was removed as to whether the employee shall be returned to the usual job or whether the employee should be removed permanently.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whenever an employee is temporarily removed from benzene exposure pursuant to paragraph (i)(8)(i) or (i)(8)(ii) of this section, the employer shall transfer the employee to a comparable job for which the employee is qualified (or can be trained for in a short period) and where benzene exposures are as low as possible, but in no event higher than the action level. The employer shall maintain the employee's current wage rate, seniority and other benefits. If there is no such job available, the employer shall provide medical removal protection benefits until such a job becomes available or for 6 months, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(v) Whenever an employee is removed permanently from benzene exposure based on a physician's recommendation pursuant to paragraph (i)(8)(iii) of this section, the employee shall be given the opportunity to transfer to another position which is available or later becomes available for which the employee is qualified (or can be trained for in a short period) and where benzene exposures are as low as possible but in no event higher than the action level. The employer shall assure that such employee suffers no reduction in current wage rate, seniority or other benefits as a result of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Medical removal protection benefits.</I> (i) The employer shall provide to an employee 6 months of medical removal protection benefits immediately following each occasion an employee is removed from exposure to benzene because of hematological findings pursuant to paragraphs (i)(8) (i) and (ii) of this section, unless the employee has been transferred to a comparable job where benzene exposures are below the action level.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer provide medical removal protection benefits means that the employer shall maintain the current wage rate, seniority and other benefits of an employee as though the employee had not been removed.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal either from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program, or from employment with another employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication</I>—<I>general.</I> Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for benzene.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of benzene at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; central nervous system effects; blood effects; aspiration; skin, eye, and respiratory tract irritation; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include benzene in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of benzene and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (j)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Warning signs and labels.</I> (i)The employer shall post signs at entrances to regulated areas. The signs shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BENZENE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HIGHLY FLAMMABLE LIQUID AND VAPOR
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT SMOKE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (j)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BENZENE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FLAMMABLE—NO SMOKING 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATOR REQUIRED</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that labels or other appropriate forms of warning are provided for containers of benzene within the workplace. There is no requirement to label pipes. The labels shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (j)(1) of this section and § 1910.1200(f). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers shall include the following legend or similar language on the labels or other appropriate forms of warning:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS BENZENE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall provide employees with information and training at the time of their initial assignment to a work area where benzene is present. If exposures are above the action level, employees shall be provided with information and training at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(ii) The training program shall be in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.1200(h) (1) and (2), and shall include specific information on benzene for each category of information included in that section.
</P>
<P>(iii) In addition to the information required under 29 CFR 1910.1200, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide employees with an explanation of the contents of this section, including Appendices A and B, and indicate to them where the standard is available; and
</P>
<P>(B) Describe the medical surveillance program required under paragraph (i) of this section, and explain the information contained in appendix C.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all measurements required by paragraph (e) of this section, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The dates, number, duration, and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the procedure used to determine representative employee exposures;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(D) The name, job classification and exposure levels of the employee monitored and all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least 30 years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance required by paragraph (i) of this section, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The employer's copy of the physician's written opinion on the initial, periodic and special examinations, including results of medical examinations and all tests, opinions and recommendations;
</P>
<P>(C) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to benzene;
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraphs (i)(6) (ii) through (v) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of the employee's medical and work history related to exposure to benzene or any other hematologic toxins.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least the duration of employment plus 30 years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that all records required to be maintained by this section shall be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee exposure monitoring records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request for examination and copying to employees, employee representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i).
</P>
<P>(iii) Employee medical records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request for examination and copying, to the subject employee, to anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee, and to the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer shall comply with the requirements involving transfer of records as set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees, or their designated representatives, an opportunity to observe the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to benzene conducted pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to benzene requires entry into areas where the use of protective clothing and equipment or respirators is required, the employer shall provide the observer with personal protective clothing and equipment or respirators required to be worn by employees working in the area, assure the use of such clothing and equipment or respirators, and require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(m) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in Appendices A, B, C, and D is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1028—Substance Safety Data Sheet, Benzene
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Substance Identification
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance: Benzene.
</P>
<P>B. Permissible Exposure: Except as to the use of gasoline, motor fuels and other fuels subsequent to discharge from bulk terminals and other exemptions specified in § 1910.1028(a)(2):
</P>
<P>1. Airborne: The maximum time-weighted average (TWA) exposure limit is 1 part of benzene vapor per million parts of air (1 ppm) for an 8-hour workday and the maximum short-term exposure limit (STEL) is 5 ppm for any 15-minute period.
</P>
<P>2. Dermal: Eye contact shall be prevented and skin contact with liquid benzene shall be limited.
</P>
<P>C. Appearance and odor: Benzene is a clear, colorless liquid with a pleasant, sweet odor. The odor of benzene does not provide adequate warning of its hazard.
</P>
<HD1>II. Health Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Ways in which benzene affects your health.</I> Benzene can affect your health if you inhale it, or if it comes in contact with your skin or eyes. Benzene is also harmful if you happen to swallow it.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Effects of overexposure.</I> 1. Short-term (acute) overexposure: If you are overexposed to high concentrations of benzene, well above the levels where its odor is first recognizable, you may feel breathless, irritable, euphoric, or giddy; you may experience irritation in eyes, nose, and respiratory tract. You may develop a headache, feel dizzy, nauseated, or intoxicated. Severe exposures may lead to convulsions and loss of consciousness.
</P>
<P>2. Long-term (chronic) exposure. Repeated or prolonged exposure to benzene, even at relatively low concentrations, may result in various blood disorders, ranging from anemia to leukemia, an irreversible, fatal disease. Many blood disorders associated with benzene exposure may occur without symptoms.
</P>
<HD1>III. Protective Clothing and Equipment
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Respirators.</I> Respirators are required for those operations in which engineering controls or work practice controls are not feasible to reduce exposure to the permissible level. However, where employers can document that benzene is present in the workplace less than 30 days a year, respirators may be used in lieu of engineering controls. If respirators are worn, they must have joint Mine Safety and Health Administration and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) seal of approval, and cartridge or canisters must be replaced before the end of their service life, or the end of the shift, whichever occurs first. If you experience difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator, you may request a positive pressure respirator from your employer. You must be thoroughly trained to use the assigned respirator, and the training will be provided by your employer.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Protective Clothing.</I> You must wear appropriate protective clothing (such as boots, gloves, sleeves, aprons, etc.) over any parts of your body that could be exposed to liquid benzene.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Eye and Face Protection.</I> You must wear splash-proof safety goggles if it is possible that benzene may get into your eyes. In addition, you must wear a face shield if your face could be splashed with benzene liquid.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Emergency and First Aid Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Eye and face exposure.</I> If benzene is splashed in your eyes, wash it out immediately with large amounts of water. If irritation persists or vision appears to be affected see a doctor as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Skin exposure.</I> If benzene is spilled on your clothing or skin, remove the contaminated clothing and wash the exposed skin with large amounts of water and soap immediately. Wash contaminated clothing before you wear it again.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Breathing.</I> If you or any other person breathes in large amounts of benzene, get the exposed person to fresh air at once. Apply artificial respiration if breathing has stopped. Call for medical assistance or a doctor as soon as possible. Never enter any vessel or confined space where the benzene concentration might be high without proper safety equipment and at least one other person present who will stay outside. A life line should be used.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Swallowing.</I> If benzene has been swallowed and the patient is conscious, do not induce vomiting. Call for medical assistance or a doctor immediately.
</P>
<HD1>V. Medical Requirements
</HD1>
<P>If you are exposed to benzene at a concentration at or above 0.5 ppm as an 8-hour time-weighted average, or have been exposed at or above 10 ppm in the past while employed by your current employer, your employer is required to provide a medical examination and history and laboratory tests within 60 days of the effective date of this standard and annually thereafter. These tests shall be provided without cost to you. In addition, if you are accidentally exposed to benzene (either by ingestion, inhalation, or skin/eye contact) under emergency conditions known or suspected to constitute toxic exposure to benzene, your employer is required to make special laboratory tests available to you.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Observation of Monitoring
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to perform measurements that are representative of your exposure to benzene and you or your designated representative are entitled to observe the monitoring procedure. You are entitled to observe the steps taken in the measurement procedure, and to record the results obtained. When the monitoring procedure is taking place in an area where respirators or personal protective clothing and equipment are required to be worn, you or your representative must also be provided with, and must wear the protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Access to Records
</HD1>
<P>You or your representative are entitled to see the records of measurements of your exposure to benzene upon written request to your employer. Your medical examination records can be furnished to yourself, your physician or designated representative upon request by you to your employer.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Precautions for Safe Use, Handling and Storage
</HD1>
<P>Benzene liquid is highly flammable. It should be stored in tightly closed containers in a cool, well ventilated area. Benzene vapor may form explosive mixtures in air. All sources of ignition must be controlled. Use nonsparking tools when opening or closing benzene containers. Fire extinguishers, where provided, must be readily available. Know where they are located and how to operate them. Smoking is prohibited in areas where benzene is used or stored. Ask your supervisor where benzene is used in your area and for additional plant safety rules.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1028—Substance Technical Guidelines, Benzene
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Physical and Chemical Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance identification.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Synonyms:</I> Benzol, benzole, coal naphtha, cyclohexatriene, phene, phenyl hydride, pyrobenzol. (Benzin, petroleum benzin and Benzine do not contain benzene).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Formula:</I> C<E T="52">6</E> H<E T="52">6</E> (CAS Registry Number: 71-43-2)
</P>
<P>B. Physical data.
</P>
<P>1. Boiling Point (760 mm Hg); 80.1 °C (176 °F)
</P>
<P>2. Specific Gravity (water = 1): 0.879
</P>
<P>3. Vapor Density (air = 1): 2.7
</P>
<P>4. Melting Point: 5.5 °C (42 °F)
</P>
<P>5. Vapor Pressure at 20 °C (68 °F): 75 mm Hg
</P>
<P>6. Solubility in Water: .06%
</P>
<P>7. Evaporation Rate (ether = 1): 2.8
</P>
<P>8. Appearance and Odor: Clear, colorless liquid with a distinctive sweet odor.
</P>
<HD1>II. Fire, Explosion, and Reactivity Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Fire.
</P>
<P>1. Flash Point (closed cup): −11 °C (12 °F)
</P>
<P>2. Autoignition Temperature: 580 °C (1076 °F)
</P>
<P>3. Flammable limits in Air. % by Volume: Lower: 1.3%, Upper: 7.5%
</P>
<P>4. Extinguishing Media: Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or foam.
</P>
<P>5. Special Fire-Fighting procedures: Do not use solid stream of water, since stream will scatter and spread fire. Fine water spray can be used to keep fire-exposed containers cool.
</P>
<P>6. Unusual fire and explosion hazards: Benzene is a flammable liquid. Its vapors can form explosive mixtures. All ignition sources must be controlled when benzene is used, handled, or stored. Where liquid or vapor may be released, such areas shall be considered as hazardous locations. Benzene vapors are heavier than air; thus the vapors may travel along the ground and be ignited by open flames or sparks at locations remote from the site at which benzene is handled.
</P>
<P>7. Benzene is classified as a 1 B flammable liquid for the purpose of conforming to the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.106. A concentration exceeding 3,250 ppm is considered a potential fire explosion hazard. Locations where benzene may be present in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures are considered Class I Group D for the purposes of conforming to the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.309.
</P>
<P>B. Reactivity.
</P>
<P>1. Conditions contributing to instability: Heat.
</P>
<P>2. Incompatibility: Heat and oxidizing materials.
</P>
<P>3. Hazardous decomposition products: Toxic gases and vapors (such as carbon monoxide).
</P>
<HD1>III. Spill and Leak Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. Steps to be taken if the material is released or spilled. As much benzene as possible should be absorbed with suitable materials, such as dry sand or earth. That remaining must be flushed with large amounts of water. Do not flush benzene into a confined space, such as a sewer, because of explosion danger. Remove all ignition sources. Ventilate enclosed places.
</P>
<P>B. Waste disposal method. Disposal methods must conform to other jurisdictional regulations. If allowed, benzene may be disposed of: (a) By absorbing it in dry sand or earth and disposing in a sanitary landfill; (b) if small quantities, by removing it to a safe location from buildings or other combustible sources, pouring it in dry sand or earth and cautiously igniting it; and (c) if large quantities, by atomizing it in a suitable combustion chamber.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Miscellaneous Precautions
</HD1>
<P>A. High exposure to benzene can occur when transferring the liquid from one container to another. Such operations should be well ventilated and good work practices must be established to avoid spills.
</P>
<P>B. Use non-sparking tools to open benzene containers which are effectively grounded and bonded prior to opening and pouring.
</P>
<P>C. Employers must advise employees of all plant areas and operations where exposure to benzene could occur. Common operations in which high exposures to benzene may be encountered are: the primary production and utilization of benzene, and transfer of benzene.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1028—Medical Surveillance Guidelines for Benzene
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Route of Entry
</HD1>
<P>Inhalation; skin absorption.
</P>
<HD1>II. Toxicology
</HD1>
<P>Benzene is primarily an inhalation hazard. Systemic absorption may cause depression of the hematopoietic system, pancytopenia, aplastic anemia, and leukemia. Inhalation of high concentrations can affect central nervous system function. Aspiration of small amounts of liquid benzene immediately causes pulmonary edema and hemorrhage of pulmonary tissue. There is some absorption through the skin. Absorption may be more rapid in the case of abraded skin, and benzene may be more readily absorbed if it is present in a mixture or as a contaminant in solvents which are readily absorbed. The defatting action of benzene may produce primary irritation due to repeated or prolonged contact with the skin. High concentration are irritating to the eyes and the mucuous membranes of the nose, and respiratory tract.
</P>
<HD1>III. Signs and Symptoms
</HD1>
<P>Direct skin contact with benzene may cause erythema. Repeated or prolonged contact may result in drying, scaling dermatitis, or development of secondary skin infections. In addition, there is benzene absorption through the skin. Local effects of benzene vapor or liquid on the eye are slight. Only at very high concentrations is there any smarting sensation in the eye. Inhalation of high concentrations of benzene may have an initial stimulatory effect on the central nervous system characterized by exhilaration, nervous excitation, and/or giddiness, followed by a period of depression, drowsiness, or fatigue. A sensation of tightness in the chest accompanied by breathlessness may occur and ultimately the victim may lose consciousness. Tremors, convulsions and death may follow from respiratory paralysis or circulatory collapse in a few minutes to several hours following severe exposures.
</P>
<P>The detrimental effect on the blood-forming system of prolonged exposure to small quantities of benzene vapor is of extreme importance. The hematopoietic system is the chief target for benzene's toxic effects which are manifested by alterations in the levels of formed elements in the peripheral blood. These effects have occurred at concentrations of benzene which may not cause irritation of mucous membranes, or any unpleasant sensory effects. Early signs and symptoms of benzene morbidity are varied, often not readily noticed and non-specific. Subjective complaints of headache, dizziness, and loss of appetite may precede or follow clinical signs. Rapid pulse and low blood pressure, in addition to a physical appearance of anemia, may accompany a subjective complaint of shortness of breath and excessive tiredness. Bleeding from the nose, gums, or mucous membranes, and the development of purpuric spots (small bruises) may occur as the condition progresses. Clinical evidence of leukopenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia, singly or in combination, has been frequently reported among the first signs.
</P>
<P>Bone marrow may appear normal, aplastic, or hyperplastic, and may not, in all situations, correlate with peripheral blood forming tissues. Because of variations in the susceptibility to benzene morbidity, there is no “typical” blood picture. The onset of effects of prolonged benzene exposure may be delayed for many months or years after the actual exposure has ceased and identification or correlation with benzene exposure must be sought out in the occupational history.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Treatment of Acute Toxic Effects
</HD1>
<P>Remove from exposure immediately. Make sure you are adequately protected and do not risk being overcome by fumes. Give oxygen or artificial resuscitation if indicated. Flush eyes, wash skin if contaminated and remove all contaminated clothing. Symptoms of intoxication may persist following severe exposures. Recovery from mild exposures is usually rapid and complete.
</P>
<HD1>V. Surveillance and Preventive Considerations
</HD1>
<HD3>A. General
</HD3>
<P>The principal effects of benzene exposure which form the basis for this regulation are pathological changes in the hematopoietic system, reflected by changes in the peripheral blood and manifesting clinically as pancytopenia, aplastic anemia, and leukemia. Consequently, the medical surveillance program is designed to observe, on a regular basis, blood indices for early signs of these effects, and although early signs of leukemia are not usually available, emerging diagnostic technology and innovative regimes make consistent surveillance for leukemia, as well as other hematopoietic effects, essential.
</P>
<P>Initial examinations are to be provided within 60 days of the effective date of this standard, or at the time of initial assignment, and periodic examinations annually thereafter. There are special provisions for medical tests in the event of hematologic abnormalities or for emergency situations.
</P>
<P>The blood values which require referral to a hematologist or internist are noted in the standard in paragraph (i)(5). The standard specifies that blood abnormalities that persist must be referred “unless the physician has good reason to believe such referral is unnecessary” (paragraph (i)(5)). Examples of conditions that could make a referral unnecessary despite abnormal blood limits are iron or folate deficiency, menorrhagia, or blood loss due to some unrelated medical abnormality.
</P>
<P>Symptoms and signs of benzene toxicity can be non-specific. Only a detailed history and appropriate investigative procedures will enable a physician to rule out or confirm conditions that place the employee at increased risk. To assist the examining physician with regard to which laboratory tests are necessary and when to refer an employee to the specialist, OSHA has established the following guidelines.
</P>
<HD3>B. Hematology Guidelines
</HD3>
<P>A minimum battery of tests is to be performed by strictly standardized methods.
</P>
<P>1. Red cell, white cell, platelet counts, white blood cell differential, hematacrit and red cell indices must be performed by an accredited laboratory. The normal ranges for the red cell and white cell counts are influenced by altitude, race, and sex, and therefore should be determined by the accredited laboratory in the specific area where the tests are performed.
</P>
<P>Either a decline from an absolute normal or an individual's base line to a subnormal value or a rise to a supra-normal value, are indicative of potential toxicity, particularly if all blood parameters decline. The normal total white blood count is approximately 7,200/mm
<SU>3</SU> plus or minus 3,000. For cigarette smokers the white count may be higher and the upper range may be 2,000 cells higher than normal for the laboratory. In addition, infection, allergies and some drugs may raise the white cell count. The normal platelet count is approximately 250,000 with a range of 140,000 to 400,000. Counts outside this range should be regarded as possible evidence of benzene toxicity.
</P>
<P>Certain abnormalities found through routine screening are of greater significance in the benzene-exposed worker and require prompt consultation with a specialist, namely:
</P>
<P>a. Thrombocytopenia.
</P>
<P>b. A trend of decreasing white cell, red cell, or platelet indices in an individual over time is more worrisome than an isolated abnormal finding at one test time. The importance of trend highlights the need to compare an individual's test results to baseline and/or previous periodic tests.
</P>
<P>c. A constellation or pattern of abnormalities in the different blood indices is of more significance than a single abnormality. A low white count not associated with any abnormalities in other cell indices may be a normal statistical variation, whereas if the low white count is accompanied by decreases in the platelet and/or red cell indices, such a pattern is more likely to be associated with benzene toxicity and merits thorough investigation.
</P>
<P>Anemia, leukopenia, macrocytosis or an abnormal differential white blood cell count should alert the physician to further investigate and/or refer the patient if repeat tests confirm the abnormalities. If routine screening detects an abnormality, follow-up tests which may be helpful in establishing the etiology of the abnormality are the peripheral blood smear and the reticulocyte count.
</P>
<P>The extreme range of normal for reticulocytes is 0.4 to 2.5 percent of the red cells, the usual range being 0.5 to 1.2 percent of the red cells, but the typical value is in the range of 0.8 to 1.0 percent. A decline in reticulocytes to levels of less than 0.4 percent is to be regarded as possible evidence (unless another specific cause is found) of benzene toxicity requiring accelerated surveillance. An increase in reticulocyte levels to about 2.5 percent may also be consistent with (but is not as characteristic of) benzene toxicity.
</P>
<P>2. An important diagnostic test is a careful examination of the peripheral blood smear. As with reticulocyte count the smear should be with fresh uncoagulated blood obtained from a needle tip following venipuncture or from a drop of earlobe blood (capillary blood). If necessary, the smear may, under certain limited conditions, be made from a blood sample anticoagulated with EDTA (but never with oxalate or heparin). When the smear is to be prepared from a specimen of venous blood which has been collected by a commercial Vacutainer ® type tube containing neutral EDTA, the smear should be made as soon as possible after the venesection. A delay of up to 12 hours is permissible between the drawing of the blood specimen into EDTA and the preparation of the smear if the blood is stored at refrigerator (not freezing) temperature.
</P>
<P>3. The minimum mandatory observations to be made from the smear are:
</P>
<P>a. The differential white blood cell count.
</P>
<P>b. Description of abnormalities in the appearance of red cells.
</P>
<P>c. Description of any abnormalities in the platelets.
</P>
<P>d. A careful search must be made throughout of every blood smear for immature white cells such as band forms (in more than normal proportion, i.e., over 10 percent of the total differential count), any number of metamyelocytes, myelocytes or myeloblasts. Any nucleate or multinucleated red blood cells should be reported. Large “giant” platelets or fragments of megakaryocytes must be recognized.
</P>
<P>An increase in the proportion of band forms among the neutrophilic granulocytes is an abnormality deserving special mention, for it may represent a change which should be considered as an early warning of benzene toxicity in the absence of other causative factors (most commonly infection). Likewise, the appearance of metamyelocytes, in the absence of another probable cause, is to be considered a possible indication of benzene-induced toxicity.
</P>
<P>An upward trend in the number of basophils, which normally do not exceed about 2.0 percent of the total white cells, is to be regarded as possible evidence of benzene toxicity. A rise in the eosinophil count is less specific but also may be suspicious of toxicity if the rises above 6.0 percent of the total white count.
</P>
<P>The normal range of monocytes is from 2.0 to 8.0 percent of the total white count with an average of about 5.0 percent. About 20 percent of individuals reported to have mild but persisting abnormalities caused by exposure to benzene show a persistent monocytosis. The findings of a monocyte count which persists at more than 10 to 12 percent of the normal white cell count (when the total count is normal) or persistence of an absolute monocyte count in excess of 800/mm
<SU>3</SU> should be regarded as a possible sign of benzene-induced toxicity.
</P>
<P>A less frequent but more serious indication of benzene toxicity is the finding in the peripheral blood of the so-called “pseudo” (or acquired) Pelger-Huet anomaly. In this anomaly many, or sometimes the majority, of the neutrophilic granulocytes possess two round nuclear segements—less often one or three round segments—rather than three normally elongated segments. When this anomaly is not hereditary, it is often but not invariably predictive of subsequent leukemia. However, only about two percent of patients who ultimately develop acute myelogenous leukemia show the acquired Pelger-Huet anomaly. Other tests that can be administered to investigate blood abnormalities are discussed below; however, such procedures should be undertaken by the hematologist.
</P>
<P>An uncommon sign, which cannot be detected from the smear, but can be elicited by a “sucrose water test” of peripheral blood, is transient paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH), which may first occur insidiously during a period of established aplastic anemia, and may be followed within one to a few years by the appearance of rapidly fatal acute myelogenous leukemia. Clinical detection of PNH, which occurs in only one or two percent of those destined to have acute myelogenous leukemia, may be difficult; if the “sucrose water test” is positive, the somewhat more definitive Ham test, also known as the acid-serum hemolysis test, may provide confirmation.
</P>
<P>e. Individuals documented to have developed acute myelogenous leukemia years after initial exposure to benzene may have progressed through a preliminary phase of hematologic abnormality. In some instances pancytopenia (<I>i.e.</I>, a lowering in the counts of all circulating blood cells of bone marrow origin, but not to the extent implied by the term “aplastic anemia”) preceded leukemia for many years. Depression of a single blood cell type or platelets may represent a harbinger of aplasia or leukemia. The finding of two or more cytopenias, or pancytopenia in a benzene-exposed individual, must be regarded as highly suspicious of more advanced although still reversible, toxicity. “Pancytopenia” coupled with the appearance of immature cells (myelocytes, myeloblasts, erythroblasts, etc.), with abnormal cells (pseudo Pelger-Huet anomaly, atypical nuclear heterochromatin, etc.), or unexplained elevations of white blood cells must be regarded as evidence of benzene overexposure unless proved otherwise. Many severely aplastic patients manifested the ominous finding of 5-10 percent myeloblasts in the marrow, occasional myeloblasts and myelocytes in the blood and 20-30% monocytes. It is evident that isolated cytopenias, pancytopenias, and even aplastic anemias induced by benzene may be reversible and complete recovery has been reported on cessation of exposure. However, since any of these abnormalities is serious, the employee must immediately be removed from any possible exposure to benzene vapor. Certain tests may substantiate the employee's prospects for progression or regression. One such test would be an examination of the bone marrow, but the decision to perform a bone marrow aspiration or needle biopsy is made by the hematologist.
</P>
<P>The findings of basophilic stippling in circulating red blood cells (usually found in 1 to 5% of red cells following marrow injury), and detection in the bone marrow of what are termed “ringed sideroblasts” must be taken seriously, as they have been noted in recent years to be premonitory signs of subsequent leukemia.
</P>
<P>Recently peroxidase-staining of circulating or marrow neutrophil granulocytes, employing benzidine dihydrochloride, have revealed the disappearance of, or diminution in, peroxidase in a sizable proportion of the granulocytes, and this has been reported as an early sign of leukemia. However, relatively few patients have been studied to date. Granulocyte granules are normally strongly peroxidase positive. A steady decline in leukocyte alkaline phosphatase has also been reported as suggestive of early acute leukemia. Exposure to benzene may cause an early rise in serum iron, often but not always associated with a fall in the reticulocyte count. Thus, serial measurements of serum iron levels may provide a means of determining whether or not there is a trend representing sustained suppression of erythropoiesis.
</P>
<P>Measurement of serum iron, determination of peroxidase and of alkaline phosphatase activity in peripheral granulocytes can be performed in most pathology laboratories. Peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase staining are usually undertaken when the index of suspecion for leukemia is high.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1028—Sampling and Analytical Methods for Benzene Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD1>
<P>Measurements taken for the purpose of determining employee exposure to benzene are best taken so that the representative average 8-hour exposure may be determined from a single 8-hour sample or two (2) 4-hour samples. Short-time interval samples (or grab samples) may also be used to determine average exposure level if a minimum of five measurements are taken in a random manner over the 8-hour work shift. Random sampling means that any portion of the work shift has the same change of being sampled as any other. The arithmetic average of all such random samples taken on one work shift is an estimate of an employee's average level of exposure for that work shift. Air samples should be taken in the employee's breathing zone (air that would most nearly represent that inhaled by the employee). Sampling and analysis must be performed with procedures meeting the requirements of the standard.
</P>
<P>There are a number of methods available for monitoring employee exposures to benzene. The sampling and analysis may be performed by collection of the benzene vaptor or charcoal absorption tubes, with subsequent chemical analysis by gas chromatography. Sampling and analysis may also be performed by portable direct reading instruments, real-time continuous monitoring systems, passive dosimeters or other suitable methods. The employer has the obligation of selecting a monitoring method which meets the accuracy and precision requirements of the standard under his unique field conditions. The standard requires that the method of monitoring must have an accuracy, to a 95 percent confidence level, of not less than plus or minus 25 percent for concentrations of benzene greater than or equal to 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>The OSHA Laboratory modified NIOSH Method S311 and evaluated it at a benzene air concentration of 1 ppm. A procedure for determining the benzene concentration in bulk material samples was also evalauted. This work, reported in OSHA Laboratory Method No. 12, includes the following two analytical procedures:
</P>
<HD1>I. OSHA Method 12 for Air Samples
</HD1>
<FP-1>Analyte: Benzene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matrix: Air
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Procedure: Adsorption on charcoal, desorption with carbon disulfide, analysis by GC.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Detection limit: 0.04 ppm
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Recommended air volume and sampling rate: 10L to 0.2 L/min.
</FP-1>
<P>1. Principle of the Method.
</P>
<P>1.1 A known volume of air is drawn through a charcoal tube to trap the organic vapors present.
</P>
<P>1.2. The charcoal in the tube is transferred to a small, stoppered vial, and the anlyte is desorbed with carbon disulfide.
</P>
<P>1.3. An aliquot of the desorbed sample is injected into a gas chromatograph.
</P>
<P>1.4 The area of the resulting peak is determined and compared with areas obtained from standards.
</P>
<P>2. Advantages and disadvantages of the method.
</P>
<P>2.1 The sampling device is small, portable, and involved no liquids. Interferences are minimal, and most of those which do occur can be eliminated by altering chromatographic conditions. The samples are analyzed by means of a quick, instrumental method.
</P>
<P>2.2 The amount of sample which can be taken is limited by the number of milligrams that the tube will hold before overloading. When the sample value obtained for the backup section of the charcoal tube exceeds 25 percent of that found on the front section, the possibility of sample loss exists.
</P>
<P>3. Apparatus.
</P>
<P>3.1 A calibrated personal sampling pump whose flow can be determined within ±5 percent at the recommended flow rate.
</P>
<P>3.2. Charcoal tubes: Glass with both ends flame sealed, 7 cm long with a 6-mm O.D. and a 4-mm I.D., containing 2 sections of 20/40 mesh activated charcoal separated by a 2-mm portion of urethane foam. The activated charcoal is prepared from coconut shells and is fired at 600 °C prior to packing. The adsorbing section contains 100 mg of charcoal, the back-up section 50 mg. A 3-mm portion of urethane foam is placed between the outlet end of the tube and the back-up section. A plug of silanized glass wool is placed in front of the adsorbing section. The pressure drop across the tube must be less than one inch of mercury at a flow rate of 1 liter per minute.
</P>
<P>3.3. Gas chromatograph equipped with a flame ionization detector.
</P>
<P>3.4. Column (10-ft × 
<FR>1/8</FR>-in stainless steel) packed with 80/100 Supelcoport coated with 20 percent SP 2100, 0.1 percent CW 1500.
</P>
<P>3.5. An electronic integrator or some other suitable method for measuring peak area.
</P>
<P>3.6. Two-milliliter sample vials with Teflon-lined caps.
</P>
<P>3.7. Microliter syringes: 10-microliter (10-µL syringe, and other convenient sizes for making standards, 1-µL syringe for sample injections.
</P>
<P>3.8. Pipets: 1.0 mL delivery pipets
</P>
<P>3.9. Volumetric flasks: convenient sizes for making standard solutions.
</P>
<P>4. Reagents.
</P>
<P>4.1. Chromatographic quality carbon disulfide (CS<E T="52">2</E>). Most commercially available carbon disulfide contains a trace of benzene which must be removed. It can be removed with the following procedure:
</P>
<P>Heat under reflux for 2 to 3 hours, 500 mL of carbon disulfide, 10 mL concentrated sulfuric acid, and 5 drops of concentrated nitric acid. The benzene is converted to nitrobenzene. The carbon disulfide layer is removed, dried with anhydrous sodium sulfate, and distilled. The recovered carbon disulfide should be benzene free. (It has recently been determined that benzene can also be removed by passing the carbon disulfide through 13x molecular sieve).
</P>
<P>4.2. Benzene, reagent grade.
</P>
<P>4.3. p-Cymene, reagent grade, (internal standard).
</P>
<P>4.4. Desorbing reagent. The desorbing reagent is prepared by adding 0.05 mL of p-cymene per milliliter of carbon disulfide. (The internal standard offers a convenient means correcting analytical response for slight inconsistencies in the size of sample injections. If the external standard technique is preferred, the internal standard can be eliminated).
</P>
<P>4.5. Purified GC grade helium, hydrogen and air.
</P>
<P>5. Procedure.
</P>
<P>5.1. Cleaning of equipment. All glassware used for the laboratory analysis should be properly cleaned and free of organics which could interfere in the analysis.
</P>
<P>5.2. Calibration of personal pumps. Each pump must be calibrated with a representative charcoal tube in the line.
</P>
<P>5.3. Collection and shipping of samples.
</P>
<P>5.3.1. Immediately before sampling, break the ends of the tube to provide an opening at least one-half the internal diameter of the tube (2 mm).
</P>
<P>5.3.2. The smaller section of the charcoal is used as the backup and should be placed nearest the sampling pump.
</P>
<P>5.3.3. The charcoal tube should be placed in a vertical position during sampling to minimize channeling through the charcoal.
</P>
<P>5.3.4 Air being sampled should not be passed through any hose or tubing before entering the charcoal tube.
</P>
<P>5.3.5. A sample size of 10 liters is recommended. Sample at a flow rate of approximately 0.2 liters per minute. The flow rate should be known with an accuracy of at least ±5 percent.
</P>
<P>5.3.6. The charcoal tubes should be capped with the supplied plastic caps immediately after sampling.
</P>
<P>5.3.7. Submit at least one blank tube (a charcoal tube subjected to the same handling procedures, without having any air drawn through it) with each set of samples.
</P>
<P>5.3.8. Take necessary shipping and packing precautions to minimize breakage of samples.
</P>
<P>5.4. Analysis of samples.
</P>
<P>5.4.1. Preparation of samples. In preparation for analysis, each charcoal tube is scored with a file in front of the first section of charcoal and broken open. The glass wool is removed and discarded. The charcoal in the first (larger) section is transferred to a 2-ml vial. The separating section of foam is removed and discarded; the second section is transferred to another capped vial. These two sections are analyzed separately.
</P>
<P>5.4.2. Desorption of samples. Prior to analysis, 1.0 mL of desorbing solution is pipetted into each sample container. The desorbing solution consists of 0.05 µL internal standard per mL of carbon disulfide. The sample vials are capped as soon as the solvent is added. Desorption should be done for 30 minutes with occasional shaking.
</P>
<P>5.4.3. GC conditions. Typical operating conditions for the gas chromatograph are:
</P>
<P>1.30 mL/min (60 psig) helium carrier gas flow.
</P>
<P>2.30 mL/min (40 psig) hydrogen gas flow to detector.
</P>
<P>3.240 mL/min (40 psig) air flow to detector.
</P>
<P>4.150 °C injector temperature.
</P>
<P>5.250 °C detector temperature.
</P>
<P>6.100 °C column temperature.
</P>
<P>5.4.4. Injection size. 1 µL.
</P>
<P>5.4.5. Measurement of area. The peak areas are measured by an electronic integrator or some other suitable form of area measurement.
</P>
<P>5.4.6. An internal standard procedure is used. The integrator is calibrated to report results in ppm for a 10 liter air sample after correction for desorption efficiency.
</P>
<P>5.5. Determination of desorption efficiency.
</P>
<P>5.5.1. Importance of determination. The desorption efficiency of a particular compound can vary from one laboratory to another and from one lot of chemical to another. Thus, it is necessary to determine, at least once, the percentage of the specific compound that is removed in the desorption process, provided the same batch of charcoal is used.
</P>
<P>5.5.2. Procedure for determining desorption efficiency. The reference portion of the charcoal tube is removed. To the remaining portion, amounts representing 0.5X, 1X, and 2X and (X represents target concentration) based on a 10 L air sample are injected into several tubes at each level. Dilutions of benzene with carbon disulfide are made to allow injection of measurable quantities. These tubes are then allowed to equilibrate at least overnight. Following equilibration they are analyzed following the same procedure as the samples. Desorption efficiency is determined by dividing the amount of benzene found by amount spiked on the tube.
</P>
<P>6. Calibration and standards. A series of standards varying in concentration over the range of interest is prepared and analyzed under the same GC conditions that will be used on the samples. A calibration curve is prepared by plotting concentration (µg/mL) versus peak area.
</P>
<P>7. Calculations. Benzene air concentration can be calculated from the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>mg/m
<SU>3</SU> = (A)(B)/(C)(D)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A = µg/mL benzene, obtained from the calibration curve
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = desorption volume (1 mL)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = Liters of air sampled
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D = desorption efficiency
</FP-2>
<P>The concentration in mg/m
<SU>3</SU> can be converted to ppm (at 25° and 760 mm) with following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>ppm = (mg/m
<SU>3</SU>)(24.46)/(78.11)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>24.46 = molar volume of an ideal gas
</FP-2>
<FP-2>25 °C and 760 mm
</FP-2>
<FP-2>78.11 = molecular weight of benzene
</FP-2>
<P>8. Backup Data.
</P>
<P>8.1 Detection limit—Air Samples.
</P>
<P>The detection limit for the analytical procedure is 1.28 ng with a coefficient of variation of 0.023 at this level. This would be equivalent to an air concentration of 0.04 ppm for a 10 L air sample. This amount provided a chromatographic peak that could be identifiable in the presence of possible interferences. The detection limit data were obtained by making 1 µL injections of a 1.283 µg/mL standard.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Injection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Area Count
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">655.4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">617.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">662.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
<AC T="8"/> = 640.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">641.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SD = 14.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">636.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CV = 0.023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">629.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>8.2. Pooled coefficient of variation—Air Samples. The pooled coefficient of variation for the analytical procedure was determined by 1 µL replicate injections of analytical standards. The standards were 16.04, 32.08, and 64.16 µg/mL, which are equivalent to 0.5, 1.0, and 2.0 ppm for a 10 L air sample respectively.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Injection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Area Counts
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.5 ppm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.0 ppm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2.0 ppm
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3996.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8130.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16481
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4059.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8235.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16493
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4052.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8307.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16535
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4027.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8263.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16609
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4046.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8291.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16552
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4137.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8288.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16618
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X
<AC T="8"/>=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4053.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8254.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16548.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SD=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CV = </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0076</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0034
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C
<AC T="8"/>V
<AC T="8"/> = 0.008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>8.3. Storage data—Air Samples
</P>
<P>Samples were generated at 1.03 ppm benzene at 80% relative humidity, 22 °C, and 643 mm. All samples were taken for 50 minutes at 0.2 L/min. Six samples were analyzed immediately and the rest of the samples were divided into two groups by fifteen samples each. One group was stored at refrigerated temperature of −25 °C, and the other group was stored at ambient temperature (approximately 23 °C). These samples were analyzed over a period of fifteen days. The results are tabulated below.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Percent Recovery
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Day analyzed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Refrigerated
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ambient
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.4 98.7 98.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.4 98.7 98.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.1 100.6 100.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.1 100.6 100.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8 96.4 95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4 96.6 96.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.9 93.7 92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4 94.3 94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6 95.5 94.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.2 95.6 96.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.3 95.3 93.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0 95.0 94.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.8 95.8 94.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.9 96.3 95.9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>8.4. Desorption data.
</P>
<P>Samples were prepared by injecting liquid benzene onto the A section of charcoal tubes. Samples were prepared that would be equivalent to 0.5, 1.0, and 2.0 ppm for a 10 L air sample.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Percent Recovery
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.5 ppm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.0 ppm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2.0 ppm
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X
<AC T="8"/>=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SD=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CV = </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X
<AC T="8"/> = 99.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>8.5. Carbon disulfide.
</P>
<P>Carbon disulfide from a number of sources was analyzed for benzene contamination. The results are given in the following table. The benzene contamiant can be removed with the procedures given in section 4.1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">µg Benzene/mL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ppm equivalent (for 10 L air sample)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aldrich Lot 83017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baker Lot 720364</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baker Lot 822351</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Malinkrodt Lot WEMP</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Malinkrodt Lot WDSJ</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Malinkrodt Lot WHGA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Treated CS<E T="52">2</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>II. OSHA Laboratory Method No. 12 for Bulk Samples
</HD1>
<P>Analyte: Benzene.
</P>
<P>Matrix: Bulk Samples.
</P>
<P>Procedure: Bulk Samples are analyzed directly by high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC).
</P>
<P>Detection limits: 0.01% by volume.
</P>
<P>1. Principle of the method.
</P>
<P>1.1. An aliquot of the bulk sample to be analyzed is injected into a liquid chromatograph.
</P>
<P>1.2. The peak area for benzene is determined and compared to areas obtained from standards.
</P>
<P>2. Advantages and disadvantages of the method.
</P>
<P>2.1. The analytical procedure is quick, sensitive, and reproducible.
</P>
<P>2.2. Reanalysis of samples is possible.
</P>
<P>2.3. Interferences can be circumvented by proper selection of HPLC parameters.
</P>
<P>2.4. Samples must be free of any particulates that may clog the capillary tubing in the liquid chromatograph. This may require distilling the sample or clarifying with a clarification kit.
</P>
<P>3. Apparatus.
</P>
<P>3.1. Liquid chromatograph equipped with a UV detector.
</P>
<P>3.2. HPLC Column that will separate benzene from other components in the bulk sample being analyzed. The column used for validation studies was a Waters uBondapack C18, 30 cm × 3.9 mm.
</P>
<P>3.3. A clarification kit to remove any particulates in the bulk if necessary.
</P>
<P>3.4. A micro-distillation apparatus to distill any samples if necessary.
</P>
<P>3.5. An electronic integrator or some other suitable method of measuring peak areas.
</P>
<P>3.6. Microliter syringes—10 µL syringe and other convenient sizes for making standards. 10 µL syringe for sample injections.
</P>
<P>3.7. Volumetric flasks, 5 mL and other convenient sizes for preparing standards and making dilutions.
</P>
<P>4. Reagents.
</P>
<P>4.1. Benzene, reagent grade.
</P>
<P>4.2. HPLC grade water, methyl alcohol, and isopropyl alcohol.
</P>
<P>5. Collection and shipment of samples.
</P>
<P>5.1. Samples should be transported in glass containers with Teflon-lined caps.
</P>
<P>5.2. Samples should not be put in the same container used for air samples.
</P>
<P>6. Analysis of samples.
</P>
<P>6.1. Sample preparation.
</P>
<P>If necessary, the samples are distilled or clarified. Samples are analyzed undiluted. If the benzene concentration is out of the working range, suitable dilutions are made with isopropyl alcohol.
</P>
<P>6.2. HPLC conditions.
</P>
<P>The typical operating conditions for the high performance liquid chromatograph are:
</P>
<P>1. Mobile phase—Methyl alcohol/water, 50/50
</P>
<P>1. Analytical wavelength—254 nm
</P>
<P>3. Injection size—10 µL
</P>
<P>6.3. Measurement of peak area and calibration.
</P>
<P>Peak areas are measured by an integrator or other suitable means. The integrator is calibrated to report results % in benzene by volume.
</P>
<P>7. Calculations.
</P>
<P>Since the integrator is programmed to report results in % benzene by volume in an undiluted sample, the following equation is used:
</P>
<FP-2>% Benzene by Volume = A × B
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A = % by volume on report
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = Dilution Factor
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B = 1 for undiluted sample)
</FP-2>
<P>8. Backup Data.
</P>
<P>8.1. Detection limit—Bulk Samples.
</P>
<P>The detection limit for the analytical procedure for bulk samples is 0.88 µg, with a coefficient of variation of 0.019 at this level. This amount provided a chromatographic peak that could be identifiable in the presence of possible interferences. The detection limit date were obtained by making 10 µL injections of a 0.10% by volume standard.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Injection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Area Count
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45386
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44214
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43822</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
<AC T="8"/> = 44040.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44062</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SD = 852.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42724</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CV = 0.019</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>8.2. Pooled coefficient of variation—Bulk Samples.
</P>
<P>The pooled coefficient of variation for analytical procedure was determined by 50 µL replicate injections of analytical standards. The standards were 0.01, 0.02, 0.04, 0.10, 1.0, and 2.0% benzene by volume.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Area count (Percent)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Injection No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.01
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.02
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.04
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.10
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.0
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2.0
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45386</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84737</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">166097</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">448497</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4395380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9339150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170832</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">441299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4590800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9484900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43822</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83835</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">443719</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4593200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9557580
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44062</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84381</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164445</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">444842</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4642350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9677060
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168398</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">442564</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4646430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9766240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42724</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81957</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">173002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">443975</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4646260
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X
<AC T="8"/> =</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44040.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83703.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">167872</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">444149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4585767</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9564986
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SD =</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">852.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1042.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3589.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2459.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96839.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">166233
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CV =</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0174
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C
<AC T="8"/>V
<AC T="8"/> =</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 34562, Sept. 11, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1289, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 20099, Apr. 23, 1998; 70 FR 1142, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50189, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75585, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33608, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17781, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1029" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1029   Coke oven emissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to the control of employee exposure to coke oven emissions, except that this section shall not apply to working conditions with regard to which other Federal agencies exercise statutory authority to prescribe or enforce standards affecting occupational safety and health.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter a regulated area, or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the opportunity to observe monitoring and measuring procedures under paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Beehive oven</I> means a coke oven in which the products of carbonization other than coke are not recovered, but are released into the ambient air.
</P>
<P><I>Coke oven</I> means a retort in which coke is produced by the destructive distillation or carbonization of coal.
</P>
<P><I>Coke oven battery</I> means a structure containing a number of slot-type coke ovens.
</P>
<P><I>Coke oven emissions</I> means the benzene-soluble fraction of total particulate matter present during the destructive distillation or carbonization of coal for the production of coke.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurance such as, but not limited to, equipment failure which is likely to, or does, result in any massive release of coke oven emissions.
</P>
<P><I>Existing coke oven battery</I> means a battery in operation or under construction on January 20, 1977, and which is not a rehabilitated coke oven battery.
</P>
<P><I>Rehabilitated coke oven battery</I> means a battery which is rebuilt, overhauled, renovated, or restored such as from the pad up, after January 20, 1977.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, U.S. Department of Labor, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Stage charging</I> means a procedure by which a predetermined volume of coal in each larry car hopper is introduced into an oven such that no more than two hoppers are discharging simultaneously.
</P>
<P><I>Sequential charging</I> means a procedure, usually automatically timed, by which a predetermined volume of coal in each larry car hopper is introduced into an oven such that no more than two hoppers commence or finish discharging simultaneously although, at some point, all hoppers are discharging simultaneously.
</P>
<P><I>Pipeline charging</I> means any apparatus used to introduce coal into an oven which uses a pipe or duct permanently mounted onto an oven and through which coal is charged.
</P>
<P><I>Green plush</I> means coke which when removed from the oven results in emissions due to the presence of unvolatilized coal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit.</I> The employer shall assure that no employee in the regulated area is exposed to coke oven emissions at concentrations greater than 150 micrograms per cubic meter of air (150 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), averaged over any 8-hour period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) The employer shall establish regulated areas and shall limit access to them to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall establish the following as regulated areas:
</P>
<P>(i) The coke oven battery including topside and its machinery, pushside and its machinery, coke side and its machinery, and the battery ends; the wharf; and the screening station;
</P>
<P>(ii) The beehive oven and its machinery.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure monitoring and measurement</I>—(1) <I>Monitoring program.</I> (i) Each employer who has a place of employment where coke oven emissions are present shall monitor employees employed in the regulated area to measure their exposure to coke oven emissions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall obtain measurements which are representative of each employee's exposure to coke oven emissions over an eight-hour period. All measurements shall determine exposure without regard to the use of respiratory protection.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall collect fullshift (for at least seven continuous hours) personal samples, including at least one sample during each shift for each battery and each job classification within the regulated areas including at least the following job classifications:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Lidman;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Tar chaser;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Larry car operator;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Luterman;
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Machine operator, coke side;
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Benchman, coke side;
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Benchman, pusher side;
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Heater;
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Quenching car operator;
</P>
<P>(<I>j</I>) Pusher machine operator;
</P>
<P>(<I>k</I>) Screening station operator;
</P>
<P>(<I>l</I>) Wharfman;
</P>
<P>(<I>m</I>) Oven patcher;
</P>
<P>(<I>n</I>) Oven repairman;
</P>
<P>(<I>o</I>) Spellman; and
</P>
<P>(<I>p</I>) Maintenance personnel.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall repeat the monitoring and measurements required by this paragraph (e)(1) at least every three months.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Redetermination.</I> Whenever there has been a production, process, or control change which may result in new or additional exposure to coke oven emissions, or whenever the employer has any other reason to suspect an increase in employee exposure, the employer shall repeat the monitoring and measurements required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section for those employees affected by such change or increase.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever such results indicate that the representative employee exposure exceeds the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall, in such notification, inform each employee of that fact and of the corrective action being taken to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> The employer shall use a method of monitoring and measurement which has an accuracy (with a confidence level of 95%) of not less than plus or minus 35% for concentrations of coke oven emissions greater than or equal to 150 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance.</I> The employer shall control employee exposure to coke oven emissions by the use of engineering controls, work practices and respiratory protection as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Priority of compliance methods</I>—(i) <I>Existing coke oven batteries.</I> (<I>a</I>) The employer shall institute the engineering and work practice controls listed in paragraphs (f)(2), (f)(3) and (f)(4) of this section in existing coke oven batteries at the earliest possible time, but not later than January 20, 1980, except to the extent that the employer can establish that such controls are not feasible. In determining the earliest possible time for institution of engineering and work practice controls, the requirement, effective August 27, 1971, to implement feasible administrative or engineering controls to reduce exposures to coal tar pitch volatiles, shall be considered. Wherever the engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest level achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The engineering and work practice controls required under paragraphs (f)(2), (f)(3) and (f)(4) of this section are minimum requirements generally applicable to all existing coke oven batteries. If, after implementing all controls required by paragraphs (f)(2), (f)(3) and (f)(4) of this section, or after January 20, 1980, whichever is sooner, employee exposures still exceed the permissible exposure limit, employers shall implement any other engineering and work practice controls necessary to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit except to the extent that the employer can establish that such controls are not feasible. Whenever the engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest level achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>New or rehabilitated coke oven batteries.</I> (<I>a</I>) The employer shall institute the best available engineering and work practice controls on all new or rehabilitated coke oven batteries to reduce and maintain employee exposures at or below the permissible exposure limit, except to the extent that the employer can establish that such controls are not feasible. Wherever the engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest level achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If, after implementing all the engineering and work practice controls required by paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(<I>a</I>) of this section, employee exposures still exceed the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall implement any other engineering and work practice controls necessary to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit except to the extent that the employer can establish that such controls are not feasible. Wherever the engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest level achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Beehive ovens.</I> (<I>a</I>) The employer shall institute engineering and work practice controls on all beehive ovens at the earliest possible time to reduce and maintain employee exposures at or below the permissible exposure limit, except to the extent that the employer can establish that such controls are not feasible. In determining the earliest possible time for institution of engineering and work practice controls, the requirement, effective August 27, 1971, to implement feasible administrative or engineering controls to reduce exposures to coal tar pitch volatiles, shall be considered. Wherever the engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest level achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If, after implementing all engineering and work practice controls required by paragraph (f)(1)(iii)(<I>a</I>) of this section, employee exposures still exceed the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall implement any other engineering and work practice controls necessary to reduce exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit except to the extent that the employer can establish that such controls are not feasible. Whenever the engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest level achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engineering controls</I>—(i) <I>Charging.</I> The employer shall equip and operate existing coke oven batteries with all of the following engineering controls to control coke oven emissions during charging operations:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) One of the following methods of charging:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Stage charging as described in paragraph (f)(3)(i)(<I>b</I>) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Sequential charging as described in paragraph (f)(3)(i)(<I>b</I>) of this section except that paragraph (f)(3)(i)(<I>b</I>)(<I>3</I>)(<I>iv</I>) of this section does not apply to sequential charging; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Pipeline charging or other forms of enclosed charging in accordance with paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, except that paragraphs (f)(2)(i)(<I>b</I>), (<I>d</I>), (<I>e</I>), (<I>f</I>) and (<I>h</I>) of this section do not apply;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Drafting from two or more points in the oven being charged, through the use of double collector mains, or a fixed or moveable jumper pipe system to another oven, to effectively remove the gases from the oven to the collector mains;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Aspiration systems designed and operated to provide sufficient negative pressure and flow volume to effectively move the gases evolved during charging into the collector mains, including sufficient steam pressure, and steam jets of sufficient diameter;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Mechanical volumetric controls on each larry car hopper to provide the proper amount of coal to be charged through each charging hole so that the tunnel head will be sufficient to permit the gases to move from the oven into the collector mains;
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Devices to facilitate the rapid and continuous flow of coal into the oven being charged, such as stainless steel liners, coal vibrators or pneumatic shells;
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Individually operated larry car drop sleeves and slide gates designed and maintained so that the gases are effectively removed from the oven into the collector mains;
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Mechanized gooseneck and standpipe cleaners;
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Air seals on the pusher machine leveler bars to control air infiltration during charging; and
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Roof carbon cutters or a compressed air system or both on the pusher machine rams to remove roof carbon.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Coking.</I> The employer shall equip and operate existing coke oven batteries with all of the following engineering controls to control coke oven emissions during coking operations;
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A pressure control system on each battery to obtain uniform collector main pressure;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Ready access to door repair facilities capable of prompt and efficient repair of doors, door sealing edges and all door parts;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) An adequate number of spare doors available for replacement purposes;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Chuck door gaskets to control chuck door emissions until such door is repaired, or replaced; and
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Heat shields on door machines.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Work practice controls</I>—(i) <I>Charging.</I> The employer shall operate existing coke oven batteries with all of the following work practices to control coke oven emissions during the charging operation:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Establishment and implementation of a detailed, written inspection and cleaning procedure for each battery consisting of at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prompt and effective repair or replacement of all engineering controls;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Inspection and cleaning of goosenecks and standpipes prior to each charge to a specified minimum diameter sufficient to effectively move the evolved gases from the oven to the collector mains;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Inspection for roof carbon build-up prior to each charge and removal of roof carbon as necessary to provide an adequate gas channel so that the gases are effectively moved from the oven into the collector mains;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Inspection of the steam aspiration system prior to each charge so that sufficient pressure and volume is maintained to effectively move the gases from the oven to the collector mains;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Inspection of steam nozzles and liquor sprays prior to each charge and cleaning as necessary so that the steam nozzles and liquor sprays are clean;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Inspection of standpipe caps prior to each charge and cleaning and luting or both as necessary so that the gases are effectively moved from the oven to the collector mains; and
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Inspection of charging holes and lids for cracks, warpage and other defects prior to each charge and removal of carbon to prevent emissions, and application of luting material to standpipe and charging hole lids where necessary to obtain a proper seal.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Establishment and implementation of a detailed written charging procedure, designed and operated to eliminate emissions during charging for each battery, consisting of at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Larry car hoppers filled with coal to a predetermined level in accordance with the mechanical volumetric controls required under paragraph (f)(2)(i)(<I>d</I>) of this section so as to maintain a sufficient gas passage in the oven to be charged;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The larry car aligned over the oven to be charged, so that the drop sleeves fit tightly over the charging holes; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The oven charged in accordance with the following sequence of requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The aspiration system turned on;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Coal charged through the outermost hoppers, either individually or together depending on the capacity of the aspiration system to collect the gases involved;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The charging holes used under paragraph (f)(3)(i)(<I>b</I>)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section relidded or otherwise sealed off to prevent leakage of coke oven emissions;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) If four hoppers are used, the third hopper discharged and relidded or otherwise sealed off to prevent leakage of coke oven emissions;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The final hopper discharged until the gas channel at the top of the oven is blocked and then the chuck door opened and the coal leveled;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) When the coal from the final hopper is discharged and the leveling operation complete, the charging hole relidded or otherwise sealed off to prevent leakage of coke oven emissions; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) The aspiration system turned off only after the charging holes have been closed.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Establishment and implementation of a detailed written charging procedure, designed and operated to eliminate emissions during charging of each pipeline or enclosed charged battery.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Coking.</I> The employer shall operate existing coke oven batteries pursuant to a detailed written procedure established and implemented for the control of coke oven emissions during coking, consisting of at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Checking oven back pressure controls to maintain uniform pressure conditions in the collecting main;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Repair, replacement and adjustment of oven doors and chuck doors and replacement of door jambs so as to provide a continuous metal-to-metal fit;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Cleaning of oven doors, chuck doors and door jambs each coking cycle so as to provide an effective seal;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) An inspection system and corrective action program to control door emissions to the maximum extent possible; and
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Luting of doors that are sealed by luting each coking cycle and reluting, replacing or adjusting as necessary to control leakage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Pushing.</I> The employer shall operate existing coke oven batteries with the following work practices to control coke oven emissions during pushing operations:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Coke and coal spillage quenched as soon as practicable and not shoveled into a heated oven; and
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A detailed written procedure for each battery established and implemented for the control of emissions during pushing consisting of the following elements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Dampering off the ovens and removal of charging hole lids to effectively control coke oven emissions during the push;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Heating of the coal charge uniformly for a sufficient period so as to obtain proper coking including preventing green pushes;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prevention of green pushes to the maximum extent possible;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Inspection, adjustment and correction of heating flue temperatures and defective flues at least weekly and after any green push, so as to prevent green pushes;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Cleaning of heating flues and related equipment to prevent green pushes, at least weekly and after any green push.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maintenance and repair.</I> The employer shall operate existing coke oven batteries pursuant to a detailed written procedure of maintenance and repair established and implemented for the effective control of coke oven emissions consisting of the following elements:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Regular inspection of all controls, including goosenecks, standpipes, standpipe caps, charging hold lids and castings, jumper pipes and air seals for cracks, misalignment or other defects and prompt implementation of the necessary repairs as soon as possible;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Maintaining the regulated area in a neat, orderly condition free of coal and coke spillage and debris;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Regular inspection of the damper system, aspiration system and collector main for cracks or leakage, and prompt implementation of the necessary repairs;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Regular inspection of the heating system and prompt implementation of the necessary repairs;
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Prevention of miscellaneous fugitive topside emissions;
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Regular inspection and patching of oven brickwork;
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Maintenance of battery equipment and controls in good working order;
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Maintenance and repair of coke oven doors, chuck doors, door jambs and seals; and
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Repairs instituted and completed as soon as possible, including temporary repair measures instituted and completed where necessary, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prevention of miscellaneous fugitive topside emissions; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Chuck door gaskets, which shall be installed prior to the start of the next coking cycle.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Filtered air.</I> (i) The employer shall provided positive-pressure, temperature controlled filtered air for larry car, pusher machine, door machine, and quench car cabs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide standby pulpits on the battery topside, at the wharf, and at ther screening station, equipped with positive-pressure, temperature controlled filtered air.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Emergencies.</I> Whenever an emergency occurs, the next coking cycle may not begin until the cause of the emergency is determined and corrected, unless the employer can establish that it is necessary to initiate the next coking cycle in order to determine the cause of the emergency.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Each employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce exposures solely by means of the engineering and work practice controls required in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written program shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A description of each coke oven operation by battery, including work force and operating crew, coking time, operating procedures and maintenance practices;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Engineering plans and other studies used to determine the controls for the coke battery;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) A report of the technology considered in meeting the permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Monitoring data obtained in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) A detailed schedule for the implementation of the engineering and work practice controls required in paragraph (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(iii) If, after implementing all controls required by paragraph (f)(2)-(f)(4) of this section, or after January 20, 1980, whichever is sooner, or after completion of a new or rehabilitated battery the permissible exposure limit is still exceeded, the employer shall develop a detailed written program and schedule for the implementation of any additional engineering controls and work practices necessary to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(iv) Written plans for such programs shall be submitted, upon request, to the Secretary and the Director, and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Secretary, the Director, and the authorized employee representative. The plans required under paragraph (f)(6) of this section shall be revised and updated at least annually to reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Training in compliance procedures.</I> The employer shall incorporate all written procedures and schedules required under this paragraph (f) in the information and training program required under paragraph (k) of this section and, where appropriate, post in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activity, for which engineering and work-practice controls are technologically not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> Employers must select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134; however, employers may use a filtering facepiece respirator only when it functions as a filter respirator for coke oven emissions particulates. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protective clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> The employer shall provide and assure the use of appropriate protective clothing and equipment, such as but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Flame resistant jacket and pants;
</P>
<P>(ii) Flame resistant gloves;
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields or vented goggles which comply with § 1910.133(a)(2) of this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) Footwear providing insulation from hot surfaces for footwear;
</P>
<P>(v) Safety shoes which comply with § 1910.136 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Protective helmets which comply with § 1910.135 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the protective clothing required by paragraphs (h)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section in a clean and dry condition at least weekly.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall clean, launder, or dispose of protective clothing required by paragraphs (h)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall repair or replace the protective clothing and equipment as needed to maintain their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that all protective clothing is removed at the completion of a work shift only in change rooms prescribed in paragraph (i)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall assure that contaminated protective clothing which is to be cleaned, laundered, or disposed of, is placed in a closable container in the change room.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall inform any person who cleans or launders protective clothing required by this section, of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to coke oven emissions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices</I>—(1) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall provide clean change rooms equipped with storage facilities for street clothes and separate storage facilities for protective clothing and equipment whenever employees are required to wear protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraph (h)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees working in the regulated area shower at the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide shower facilities in accordance with § 1910.141(d)(3) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lunchrooms.</I> The employer shall provide lunchroom facilities which have a temperature controlled, positive pressure, filtered air supply, and which are readily accessible to employees working in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lavatories.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees working in the regulated area wash their hands and face prior to eating.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide lavatory facilities in accordance with § 1910.141(d) (1) and (2) of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibition of activities in the regulated area.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that in the regulated area, food or beverages are not present or consumed, smoking products are not present or used, and cosmetics are not applied, except that these activities may be conducted in the lunchrooms, change rooms and showers required under paragraphs (i)(1)-(i)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Drinking water may be consumed in the regulated area.


</P>
<P>(j) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) Each employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are employed in a regulated area at least 30 days per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) This program shall provide each employee covered under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section with an opportunity for medical examinations in accordance with this paragraph (j).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall inform any employee who refuses any required medical examination of the possible health consequences of such refusal and shall obtain a signed statement from the employee indicating that the employee understands the risk involved in the refusal to be examined.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and are provided without cost to the employee.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examinations.</I> At the time of initial assignment to a regulated area or upon the institution of the medical surveillance program, the employer shall provide a medical examination for employees covered under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section including at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) A work history and medical history which shall include smoking history and the presence and degree of respiratory symptoms, such as breathlessness, cough, sputum production, and wheezing;


</P>
<P>(ii) A 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray;
</P>
<P>(iii) Pulmonary function tests including forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV 1.0) with recording of type of equipment used;
</P>
<P>(iv) Weight;
</P>
<P>(v) A skin examination;
</P>
<P>(vi) Urinalysis for sugar, albumin, and hematuria; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A urinary cytology examination.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the examinations specified in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (iii) through (vi) of this section at least annually for employees covered under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must provide the examinations specified in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (iii) through (vii) of this section at least annually for employees 45 years of age or older or with five (5) or more years employment in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever an employee who is 45 years of age or older or with five (5) or more years employment in a regulated area transfers or is transferred from employment in a regulated area, the employer must continue to provide the examinations specified in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (iii) through (vii) of this section at least annually as long as that employee is employed by the same employer or a successor employer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this regulation and its Appendixes;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's exposure level or estimated exposure level;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee which is not readily available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician which shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The results of the medical examinations;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from exposure to coke oven emissions;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to coke oven emissions or upon the use of protective clothing or equipment such as respirators; and
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions which require further explanation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the written opinion to the affected employee.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Employee information and training</I>—(1) <I>Training program.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee who is employed in a regulated area in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) The training program shall be provided as of January 27, 1977 for employees who are employed in the regulated area at that time or at the time of initial assignment to a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(iii) The training program shall be provided at least annually for all employees who are employed in the regulated area, except that training regarding the occupational safety and health hazards associated with exposure to coke oven emissions and the purpose, proper use, and limitations of respiratory protective devices shall be provided at least quarterly until January 20, 1978.
</P>
<P>(iv) The training program shall include informing each employee of:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The information contained in the substance information sheet for coke oven emissions (Appendix A);
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The purpose, proper use, and limitations of respiratory protective devices required in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The purpose for and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (j) of this section including information on the occupational safety and health hazards associated with exposure to coke oven emissions;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A review of all written procedures and schedules required under paragraph (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) A review of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make a copy of this standard and its appendixes readily available to all employees who are employed in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide upon request all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> The employer shall include coke oven emissions in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of chemicals and substances associated with coke oven processes and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of HCS and paragraph (k) of this section. The employer shall ensure that at least the following hazard is addressed: Cancer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post signs in the regulated area bearing the legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>COKE OVEN EMISSIONS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT EAT, DRINK OR SMOKE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) In addition, the employer shall post signs in the areas where the permissible exposure limit is exceeded bearing the legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that no statement appears on or near any sign required by this paragraph (l) which contradicts or detracts from the effects of the required sign.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that signs required by this paragraph (l)(2) are illuminated and cleaned as necessary so that the legend is readily visible.
</P>
<P>(v) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (l)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NO SMOKING OR EATING</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATOR REQUIRED</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Labels.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that labels of containers of contaminated protective clothing and equipment include the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CONTAMINATED WITH COKE EMISSIONS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT REMOVE DUST BY BLOWING OR SHAKING</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on contaminated protective clothing and equipment in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CAUTION 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CLOTHING CONTAMINATED WITH COKE EMISSIONS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT REMOVE DUST BY BLOWING OR SHAKING</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(m) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to coke oven emissions required in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Name and job classification of the employees monitored;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The date(s), number, duration and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the sampling procedure used to determine representative employee exposure where applicable;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy; and
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) The environmental variables that could affect the measurement of employee exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall maintain this record for at lest 40 years or for the duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance as required by paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The record shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The name and description of duties of the employee;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A copy of the physician's written opinion;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The signed statement of any refusal to take a medical examination under paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to coke oven emissions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall keep, or assure that the examining physician keeps, the following medical records:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A copy of the medical examination results including medical and work history required under paragraph (j)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A description of the laboratory procedures used and a copy of any standards or guidelines used to interpret the test results;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The initial x-ray;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The x-rays for the most recent five (5) years;
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Any x-ray with a demonstrated abnormality and all subsequent x-rays;
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) The initial cytologic examination slide and written description;
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) The cytologic examination slide and written description for the most recent 10 years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Any cytologic examination slides with demonstrated atypia, if such atypia persists for 3 years, and all subsequent slides and written descriptions.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain medical records required under paragraph (m)(2) of this section for at least 40 years, or for the duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall make available upon request all records required to be maintained by paragraph (m) of this section to the Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee exposure measurement records and employee medical records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020(a)-(e) and (g)-(i).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (i) Whenever the employer ceases to do business, the successor employer shall receive and retain all records required to be maintained by paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall also comply with any additional requirements involving transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their representatives an opportunity to observe any measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to coke oven emissions conducted pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> (i) Whenever observation of the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to coke oven emissions requires entry into an area where the ues of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with and assure the use of such equipment and shall require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without interfering with the measurement, observers shall be entitled to:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) An Explanation of the measurement procedures;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Observe all steps related to the measurement of coke oven emissions performed at the place of exposure; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Record the results obtained.
</P>
<P>(o) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendixes to this section is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligation.


</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1029—Coke Oven Emissions Substance Information Sheet
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Substance Identification
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Substance:</I> Coke Oven Emissions
</P>
<P>B. <I>Definition:</I> The benzene-soluble fraction of total particulate matter present during the destructive distillation or carbonization of coal for the production of coke.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Permissible Exposure Limit:</I> 150 micrograms per cubic meter of air determined as an average over an 8-hour period.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Regulated areas:</I> Only employees authorized by your employer should enter a regulated area. The employer is required to designate the following areas as regulated areas: the coke oven battery, including topside and its machinery, pushside and its machinery, cokeside and its machinery, and the battery ends; the screening station; and the wharf; and the beehive ovens and their machinery.
</P>
<HD1>ii. Health Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>Exposure to coke oven emissions is a cause of lung cancer, and kidney cancer, in humans. Although there have not been an excess number of skin cancer cases in humans, repeated skin contact with coke oven emissions should be avoided.
</P>
<HD1>iii. Protective Clothing and Equipment
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Respirators:</I> Respirators will be provided by your employer for routine use if your employer is in the process of implementing engineering and work practice controls or where engineering and work practice controls are not feasible or insufficient to reduce exposure to or below the PEL. You must wear respirators for non-routine activities or in emergency situations where you are likely to be exposed to levels of coke oven emissions in excess of the permissible exposure limit. Until January 20, 1978, the routine wearing of respirators is voluntary. Until that date, if you choose not to wear a respirator you do not have to do so. You must still have your respirator with you and you must still wear it if you are near visible emissions. Since how well your respirator fits your face is very important, your employer is required to conduct fit tests to make sure the respirator seals properly when you wear it. These tests are simple and rapid and will be explained to you during your training sessions.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Protective clothing:</I> Your employer is required to provide, and you must wear, appropriate, clean, protective clothing and equipment to protect your body from repeated skin contact with coke oven emissions and from the heat generated during the coking process. This clothing should include such items as jacket and pants and flame resistant gloves. Protective equipment should include face shield or vented goggles, protective helmets and safety shoes, insulated from hot surfaces where appropriate.
</P>
<HD1>iv. Hygiene Facilities and Practices
</HD1>
<P>You must not eat, drink, smoke, chew gum or tobacco, or apply cosmetics in the regulated area, except that drinking water is permitted. Your employer is required to provide lunchrooms and other areas for these purposes.
</P>
<P>Your employer is required to provide showers, washing facilities, and change rooms. If you work in a regulated area, you must wash your face, and hands before eating. You must shower at the end of the work shift. Do not take used protective clothing out of the change rooms without your employer's permission. Your employer is required to provide for laundering or cleaning of your protective clothing.
</P>
<HD1>v. Signs and Labels
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to post warning signs and labels for your protection. Signs must be posted in regulated areas. The signs must warn that a cancer hazard is present, that only authorized employees may enter the area, and that no smoking or eating is allowed. In regulated areas where coke oven emissions are above the permissible exposure limit, the signs should also warn that respirators must be worn.
</P>
<HD1>vi. Medical Examinations
</HD1>
<P>If you work in a regulated area at least 30 days per year, your employer is required to provide you with a medical examination every year. The initial medical examination must include a medical history, a chest X-ray, pulmonary function test, weight comparison, skin examination, a urinalysis, and a urine cytology exam for early detection of urinary cancer. Periodic examinations shall include all tests required in the initial examination, except that (1) the x-ray is to be performed during initial examination only and (2) the urine cytologic test is to be performed only on those employees who are 45 years or older or who have worked for 5 or more years in the regulated area. The examining physician will provide a written opinion to your employer containing the results of the medical exams. You should also receive a copy of this opinion.
</P>
<HD1>vii. Observation of Monitoring
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to monitor your exposure to coke oven emissions and you are entitled to observe the monitoring procedure. You are entitled to receive an explanation of the measurement procedure, observe the steps taken in the measurement procedure, and to record the results obtained. When the monitoring procedure is taking place in an area where respirators or personal protective clothing and equipment are required to be worn, you must also be provided with and must wear the protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<HD1>viii. Access to Records
</HD1>
<P>You or your representative are entitled to records of your exposure to coke oven emissions upon request to your employer. Your medical examination records can be furnished to your physician upon request to your employer.
</P>
<HD1>ix. Training and Education
</HD1>
<P>Additional information on all of these items plus training as to hazards of coke oven emissions and the engineering and work practice controls associated with your job will also be provided by your employer.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1029—Industrial Hygiene and Medical Surveillance Guidelines
</HD1>
<HD1>i. industrial hygiene guidelines
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Sampling</I> (Benzene-Soluble Fraction Total Particulate Matter).
</P>
<P>Samples collected should be full shift (at least 7-hour) samples. Sampling should be done using a personal sampling pump with pulsation damper at a flow rate of 2 liters per minute. Samples should be collected on 0.8 micrometer pore size silver membrane filters (37 mm diameter) preceded by Gelman glass fiber type A-E filters encased in three-piece plastic (polystyrene) field monitor cassettes. The cassette face cap should be on and the plug removed. The rotameter should be checked every hour to ensure that proper flow rates are maintained.
</P>
<P>A minimum of three full-shift samples should be collected for each job classification on each battery, at least one from each shift. If disparate results are obtained for particular job classification, sampling should be repeated. It is advisable to sample each shift on more than one day to account for environmental variables (wind, precipitation, etc.) which may affect sampling. Differences in exposures among different work shifts may indicate a need to improve work practices on a particular shift. Sampling results from different shifts for each job classification should not be averaged. Multiple samples from same shift on each battery may be used to calculate an average exposure for a particular job classification.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Analysis.</I>
</P>
<P>1. All extraction glassware is cleaned with dichromic acid cleaning solution, rinsed with tap water, then dionized water, acetone, and allowed to dry completely. The glassware is rinsed with nanograde benzene before use. The Teflon cups are cleaned with benzene then with acetone.
</P>
<P>2. Pre-weigh the 2 ml Teflon cups to one hundredth of a milligram (0.01 mg) on an autobalance AD 2 Tare weight of the cups is about 50 mg.
</P>
<P>3. Place the silver membrane filter and glass fiber filter into a 15 ml test tube.
</P>
<P>4. Extract with 5 ml of benzene for five minutes in an ultrasonic cleaner.
</P>
<P>5. Filter the extract in 15 ml medium glass fritted funnels.
</P>
<P>6. Rinse test tube and filters with two 1.5 ml aliquots of benzene and filter through the fritted glass funnel.
</P>
<P>7. Collect the extract and two rinses in a 10 ml Kontes graduated evaporative concentrator.
</P>
<P>8. Evaporate down to 1 ml while rinsing the sides with benzene.
</P>
<P>9. Pipet 0.5 ml into the Teflon cup and evaporate to dryness in a vacuum oven at 40 °C for 3 hours.
</P>
<P>10. Weigh the Teflon cup and the weight gain is due to the benzene soluble residue in half the Sample.
</P>
<HD1>ii. medical surveillance guidelines
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> The minimum requirements for the medical examination for coke oven workers are given in the standard in paragraph (j) of this section. The initial examination is to be provided to all coke oven workers who work at least 30 days in the regulated area. The examination includes a 14″ by 17″ or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray reading, pulmonary function tests (FVC and FEV<E T="52">1</E>), weight, urinalysis, skin examination, and a urinary cytologic examination. These tests are needed to serve as the baseline for comparing the employee's future test results. Periodic exams include all the elements of the initial exams, except that (1) the x-ray is to be performed during initial examination only and (2) the urine cytologic test is to be performed only on those employees who are 45 years or older or who have worked for 5 or more years in the regulated area. The examination contents are minimum requirements; additional tests such as lateral and oblique X-rays or additional pulmonary function tests may be performed if deemed necessary.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Pulmonary function tests.</I>
</P>
<P>Pulmonary function tests should be performed in a manner which minimizes subject and operator bias. There has been shown to be learning effects with regard to the results obtained from certain tests, such as FEV 1.0. Best results can be obtained by multiple trials for each subject. The best of three trials or the average of the last three of five trials may be used in obtaining reliable results. The type of equipment used (manufacturer, model, etc.) should be recorded with the results as reliability and accuracy varies and such information may be important in the evaluation of test results. Care should be exercised to obtain the best possible testing equipment.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, 41 FR 46784, Oct. 22, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 3304, Jan. 18, 1977; 45 FR 35283, May 23, 1980; 50 FR 37353, 37354, Sept. 13, 1985; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1290, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 33468, June 18, 1998; 70 FR 1142, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50189, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75585, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33608, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17782, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21490, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1030" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1030   Bloodborne pathogens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and Application.</I> This section applies to all occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials as defined by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, or designated representative.
</P>
<P><I>Blood</I> means human blood, human blood components, and products made from human blood.
</P>
<P><I>Bloodborne Pathogens</I> means pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus (HBV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
</P>
<P><I>Clinical Laboratory</I> means a workplace where diagnostic or other screening procedures are performed on blood or other potentially infectious materials.
</P>
<P><I>Contaminated</I> means the presence or the reasonably anticipated presence of blood or other potentially infectious materials on an item or surface.
</P>
<P><I>Contaminated Laundry</I> means laundry which has been soiled with blood or other potentially infectious materials or may contain sharps.
</P>
<P><I>Contaminated Sharps</I> means any contaminated object that can penetrate the skin including, but not limited to, needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes, and exposed ends of dental wires.
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination</I> means the use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate, or destroy bloodborne pathogens on a surface or item to the point where they are no longer capable of transmitting infectious particles and the surface or item is rendered safe for handling, use, or disposal.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designated representative.
</P>
<P><I>Engineering controls</I> means controls (e.g., sharps disposal containers, self-sheathing needles, safer medical devices, such as sharps with engineered sharps injury protections and needleless systems) that isolate or remove the bloodborne pathogens hazard from the workplace. 
</P>
<P><I>Exposure Incident</I> means a specific eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employee's duties.
</P>
<P><I>Handwashing facilities</I> means a facility providing an adequate supply of running potable water, soap, and single-use towels or air-drying machines.
</P>
<P><I>Licensed Healthcare Professional</I> is a person whose legally permitted scope of practice allows him or her to independently perform the activities required by paragraph (f) Hepatitis B Vaccination and Post-exposure Evaluation and Follow-up.
</P>
<P><I>HBV</I> means hepatitis B virus.
</P>
<P><I>HIV</I> means human immunodeficiency virus.
</P>
<P><I>Needleless systems</I> means a device that does not use needles for: 
</P>
<P>(1) The collection of bodily fluids or withdrawal of body fluids after initial venous or arterial access is established; 
</P>
<P>(2) The administration of medication or fluids; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other procedure involving the potential for occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens due to percutaneous injuries from contaminated sharps. 
</P>
<P><I>Occupational Exposure</I> means reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employee's duties.
</P>
<P><I>Other Potentially Infectious Materials</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) The following human body fluids: semen, vaginal secretions, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, pericardial fluid, peritoneal fluid, amniotic fluid, saliva in dental procedures, any body fluid that is visibly contaminated with blood, and all body fluids in situations where it is difficult or impossible to differentiate between body fluids;
</P>
<P>(2) Any unfixed tissue or organ (other than intact skin) from a human (living or dead); and
</P>
<P>(3) HIV-containing cell or tissue cultures, organ cultures, and HIV- or HBV-containing culture medium or other solutions; and blood, organs, or other tissues from experimental animals infected with HIV or HBV.
</P>
<P><I>Parenteral</I> means piercing mucous membranes or the skin barrier through such events as needlesticks, human bites, cuts, and abrasions.
</P>
<P><I>Personal Protective Equipment</I> is specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard. General work clothes (e.g., uniforms, pants, shirts or blouses) not intended to function as protection against a hazard are not considered to be personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Production Facility</I> means a facility engaged in industrial-scale, large-volume or high concentration production of HIV or HBV.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated Waste</I> means liquid or semi-liquid blood or other potentially infectious materials; contaminated items that would release blood or other potentially infectious materials in a liquid or semi-liquid state if compressed; items that are caked with dried blood or other potentially infectious materials and are capable of releasing these materials during handling; contaminated sharps; and pathological and microbiological wastes containing blood or other potentially infectious materials.
</P>
<P><I>Research Laboratory</I> means a laboratory producing or using research-laboratory-scale amounts of HIV or HBV. Research laboratories may produce high concentrations of HIV or HBV but not in the volume found in production facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Sharps with engineered sharps injury protections</I> means a nonneedle sharp or a needle device used for withdrawing body fluids, accessing a vein or artery, or administering medications or other fluids, with a built-in safety feature or mechanism that effectively reduces the risk of an exposure incident. 
</P>
<P><I>Source Individual</I> means any individual, living or dead, whose blood or other potentially infectious materials may be a source of occupational exposure to the employee. Examples include, but are not limited to, hospital and clinic patients; clients in institutions for the developmentally disabled; trauma victims; clients of drug and alcohol treatment facilities; residents of hospices and nursing homes; human remains; and individuals who donate or sell blood or blood components.
</P>
<P><I>Sterilize</I> means the use of a physical or chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores.
</P>
<P><I>Universal Precautions</I> is an approach to infection control. According to the concept of Universal Precautions, all human blood and certain human body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens.
</P>
<P><I>Work Practice Controls</I> means controls that reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which a task is performed (e.g., prohibiting recapping of needles by a two-handed technique).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposure control</I>—(1) <I>Exposure Control Plan.</I> (i) Each employer having an employee(s) with occupational exposure as defined by paragraph (b) of this section shall establish a written Exposure Control Plan designed to eliminate or minimize employee exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Exposure Control Plan shall contain at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure determination required by paragraph (c)(2),
</P>
<P>(B) The schedule and method of implementation for paragraphs (d) Methods of Compliance, (e) HIV and HBV Research Laboratories and Production Facilities, (f) Hepatitis B Vaccination and Post-Exposure Evaluation and Follow-up, (g) Communication of Hazards to Employees, and (h) Recordkeeping, of this standard, and
</P>
<P>(C) The procedure for the evaluation of circumstances surrounding exposure incidents as required by paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employer shall ensure that a copy of the Exposure Control Plan is accessible to employees in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20(e).
</P>
<P>(iv) The Exposure Control Plan shall be reviewed and updated at least annually and whenever necessary to reflect new or modified tasks and procedures which affect occupational exposure and to reflect new or revised employee positions with occupational exposure. The review and update of such plans shall also: 
</P>
<P>(A) Reflect changes in technology that eliminate or reduce exposure to bloodborne pathogens; and
</P>
<P>(B) Document annually consideration and implementation of appropriate commercially available and effective safer medical devices designed to eliminate or minimize occupational exposure. 
</P>
<P>(v) An employer, who is required to establish an Exposure Control Plan shall solicit input from non-managerial employees responsible for direct patient care who are potentially exposed to injuries from contaminated sharps in the identification, evaluation, and selection of effective engineering and work practice controls and shall document the solicitation in the Exposure Control Plan. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The Exposure Control Plan shall be made available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director upon request for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure determination.</I> (i) Each employer who has an employee(s) with occupational exposure as defined by paragraph (b) of this section shall prepare an exposure determination. This exposure determination shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A list of all job classifications in which all employees in those job classifications have occupational exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) A list of job classifications in which some employees have occupational exposure, and
</P>
<P>(C) A list of all tasks and procedures or groups of closely related task and procedures in which occupational exposure occurs and that are performed by employees in job classifications listed in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) This exposure determination shall be made without regard to the use of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Universal precautions shall be observed to prevent contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials. Under circumstances in which differentiation between body fluid types is difficult or impossible, all body fluids shall be considered potentially infectious materials.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> (i) Engineering and work practice controls shall be used to eliminate or minimize employee exposure. Where occupational exposure remains after institution of these controls, personal protective equipment shall also be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Engineering controls shall be examined and maintained or replaced on a regular schedule to ensure their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall provide handwashing facilities which are readily accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(iv) When provision of handwashing facilities is not feasible, the employer shall provide either an appropriate antiseptic hand cleanser in conjunction with clean cloth/paper towels or antiseptic towelettes. When antiseptic hand cleansers or towelettes are used, hands shall be washed with soap and running water as soon as feasible.
</P>
<P>(v) Employers shall ensure that employees wash their hands immediately or as soon as feasible after removal of gloves or other personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(vi) Employers shall ensure that employees wash hands and any other skin with soap and water, or flush mucous membranes with water immediately or as soon as feasible following contact of such body areas with blood or other potentially infectious materials.
</P>
<P>(vii) Contaminated needles and other contaminated sharps shall not be bent, recapped, or removed except as noted in paragraphs (d)(2)(vii)(A) and (d)(2)(vii)(B) below. Shearing or breaking of contaminated needles is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(A) Contaminated needles and other contaminated sharps shall not be bent, recapped or removed unless the employer can demonstrate that no alternative is feasible or that such action is required by a specific medical or dental procedure.
</P>
<P>(B) Such bending, recapping or needle removal must be accomplished through the use of a mechanical device or a one-handed technique.
</P>
<P>(viii) Immediately or as soon as possible after use, contaminated reusable sharps shall be placed in appropriate containers until properly reprocessed. These containers shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) Puncture resistant;
</P>
<P>(B) Labeled or color-coded in accordance with this standard;
</P>
<P>(C) Leakproof on the sides and bottom; and
</P>
<P>(D) In accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(4)(ii)(E) for reusable sharps.
</P>
<P>(ix) Eating, drinking, smoking, applying cosmetics or lip balm, and handling contact lenses are prohibited in work areas where there is a reasonable likelihood of occupational exposure.
</P>
<P>(x) Food and drink shall not be kept in refrigerators, freezers, shelves, cabinets or on countertops or benchtops where blood or other potentially infectious materials are present.
</P>
<P>(xi) All procedures involving blood or other potentially infectious materials shall be performed in such a manner as to minimize splashing, spraying, spattering, and generation of droplets of these substances.
</P>
<P>(xii) Mouth pipetting/suctioning of blood or other potentially infectious materials is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Specimens of blood or other potentially infectious materials shall be placed in a container which prevents leakage during collection, handling, processing, storage, transport, or shipping.
</P>
<P>(A) The container for storage, transport, or shipping shall be labeled or color-coded according to paragraph (g)(1)(i) and closed prior to being stored, transported, or shipped. When a facility utilizes Universal Precautions in the handling of all specimens, the labeling/color-coding of specimens is not necessary provided containers are recognizable as containing specimens. This exemption only applies while such specimens/containers remain within the facility. Labeling or color-coding in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) is required when such specimens/containers leave the facility.
</P>
<P>(B) If outside contamination of the primary container occurs, the primary container shall be placed within a second container which prevents leakage during handling, processing, storage, transport, or shipping and is labeled or color-coded according to the requirements of this standard.
</P>
<P>(C) If the specimen could puncture the primary container, the primary container shall be placed within a secondary container which is puncture-resistant in addition to the above characteristics.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Equipment which may become contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious materials shall be examined prior to servicing or shipping and shall be decontaminated as necessary, unless the employer can demonstrate that decontamination of such equipment or portions of such equipment is not feasible.
</P>
<P>(A) A readily observable label in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i)(H) shall be attached to the equipment stating which portions remain contaminated.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall ensure that this information is conveyed to all affected employees, the servicing representative, and/or the manufacturer, as appropriate, prior to handling, servicing, or shipping so that appropriate precautions will be taken.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personal protective equipment</I>—(i) <I>Provision.</I> When there is occupational exposure, the employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, appropriate personal protective equipment such as, but not limited to, gloves, gowns, laboratory coats, face shields or masks and eye protection, and mouthpieces, resuscitation bags, pocket masks, or other ventilation devices. Personal protective equipment will be considered “appropriate” only if it does not permit blood or other potentially infectious materials to pass through to or reach the employee's work clothes, street clothes, undergarments, skin, eyes, mouth, or other mucous membranes under normal conditions of use and for the duration of time which the protective equipment will be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Use.</I> The employer shall ensure that the employee uses appropriate personal protective equipment unless the employer shows that the employee temporarily and briefly declined to use personal protective equipment when, under rare and extraordinary circumstances, it was the employee's professional judgment that in the specific instance its use would have prevented the delivery of health care or public safety services or would have posed an increased hazard to the safety of the worker or co-worker. When the employee makes this judgement, the circumstances shall be investigated and documented in order to determine whether changes can be instituted to prevent such occurances in the future.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accessibility.</I> The employer shall ensure that appropriate personal protective equipment in the appropriate sizes is readily accessible at the worksite or is issued to employees. Hypoallergenic gloves, glove liners, powderless gloves, or other similar alternatives shall be readily accessible to those employees who are allergic to the gloves normally provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Cleaning, Laundering, and Disposal.</I> The employer shall clean, launder, and dispose of personal protective equipment required by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this standard, at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Repair and Replacement.</I> The employer shall repair or replace personal protective equipment as needed to maintain its effectiveness, at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(vi) If a garment(s) is penetrated by blood or other potentially infectious materials, the garment(s) shall be removed immediately or as soon as feasible.
</P>
<P>(vii) All personal protective equipment shall be removed prior to leaving the work area.
</P>
<P>(viii) When personal protective equipment is removed it shall be placed in an appropriately designated area or container for storage, washing, decontamination or disposal.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Gloves.</I> Gloves shall be worn when it can be reasonably anticipated that the employee may have hand contact with blood, other potentially infectious materials, mucous membranes, and non-intact skin; when performing vascular access procedures except as specified in paragraph (d)(3)(ix)(D); and when handling or touching contaminated items or surfaces.
</P>
<P>(A) Disposable (single use) gloves such as surgical or examination gloves, shall be replaced as soon as practical when contaminated or as soon as feasible if they are torn, punctured, or when their ability to function as a barrier is compromised.
</P>
<P>(B) Disposable (single use) gloves shall not be washed or decontaminated for re-use.
</P>
<P>(C) Utility gloves may be decontaminated for re-use if the integrity of the glove is not compromised. However, they must be discarded if they are cracked, peeling, torn, punctured, or exhibit other signs of deterioration or when their ability to function as a barrier is compromised.
</P>
<P>(D) If an employer in a volunteer blood donation center judges that routine gloving for all phlebotomies is not necessary then the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Periodically reevaluate this policy;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Make gloves available to all employees who wish to use them for phlebotomy;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Not discourage the use of gloves for phlebotomy; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Require that gloves be used for phlebotomy in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) When the employee has cuts, scratches, or other breaks in his or her skin;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) When the employee judges that hand contamination with blood may occur, for example, when performing phlebotomy on an uncooperative source individual; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) When the employee is receiving training in phlebotomy.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Masks, Eye Protection, and Face Shields.</I> Masks in combination with eye protection devices, such as goggles or glasses with solid side shields, or chin-length face shields, shall be worn whenever splashes, spray, spatter, or droplets of blood or other potentially infectious materials may be generated and eye, nose, or mouth contamination can be reasonably anticipated.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Gowns, Aprons, and Other Protective Body Clothing.</I> Appropriate protective clothing such as, but not limited to, gowns, aprons, lab coats, clinic jackets, or similar outer garments shall be worn in occupational exposure situations. The type and characteristics will depend upon the task and degree of exposure anticipated.
</P>
<P>(xii) Surgical caps or hoods and/or shoe covers or boots shall be worn in instances when gross contamination can reasonably be anticipated (e.g., autopsies, orthopaedic surgery).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Employers shall ensure that the worksite is maintained in a clean and sanitary condition. The employer shall determine and implement an appropriate written schedule for cleaning and method of decontamination based upon the location within the facility, type of surface to be cleaned, type of soil present, and tasks or procedures being performed in the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) All equipment and environmental and working surfaces shall be cleaned and decontaminated after contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials.
</P>
<P>(A) Contaminated work surfaces shall be decontaminated with an appropriate disinfectant after completion of procedures; immediately or as soon as feasible when surfaces are overtly contaminated or after any spill of blood or other potentially infectious materials; and at the end of the work shift if the surface may have become contaminated since the last cleaning.
</P>
<P>(B) Protective coverings, such as plastic wrap, aluminum foil, or imperviously-backed absorbent paper used to cover equipment and environmental surfaces, shall be removed and replaced as soon as feasible when they become overtly contaminated or at the end of the workshift if they may have become contaminated during the shift.
</P>
<P>(C) All bins, pails, cans, and similar receptacles intended for reuse which have a reasonable likelihood for becoming contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious materials shall be inspected and decontaminated on a regularly scheduled basis and cleaned and decontaminated immediately or as soon as feasible upon visible contamination.
</P>
<P>(D) Broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up directly with the hands. It shall be cleaned up using mechanical means, such as a brush and dust pan, tongs, or forceps.
</P>
<P>(E) Reusable sharps that are contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious materials shall not be stored or processed in a manner that requires employees to reach by hand into the containers where these sharps have been placed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Regulated Waste</I>—(A) <I>Contaminated Sharps Discarding and Containment.</I> (<I>1</I>) Contaminated sharps shall be discarded immediately or as soon as feasible in containers that are:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Closable;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Puncture resistant;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Leakproof on sides and bottom; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Labeled or color-coded in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) During use, containers for contaminated sharps shall be:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Easily accessible to personnel and located as close as is feasible to the immediate area where sharps are used or can be reasonably anticipated to be found (e.g., laundries);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Maintained upright throughout use; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Replaced routinely and not be allowed to overfill.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) When moving containers of contaminated sharps from the area of use, the containers shall be:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Closed immediately prior to removal or replacement to prevent spillage or protrusion of contents during handling, storage, transport, or shipping;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Placed in a secondary container if leakage is possible. The second container shall be:
</P>
<P>(<I>A</I>) Closable;
</P>
<P>(<I>B</I>) Constructed to contain all contents and prevent leakage during handling, storage, transport, or shipping; and
</P>
<P>(<I>C</I>) Labeled or color-coded according to paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Reusable containers shall not be opened, emptied, or cleaned manually or in any other manner which would expose employees to the risk of percutaneous injury.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Other Regulated Waste Containment</I>—(<I>1</I>) Regulated waste shall be placed in containers which are:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Closable;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Constructed to contain all contents and prevent leakage of fluids during handling, storage, transport or shipping;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Labeled or color-coded in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) this standard; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Closed prior to removal to prevent spillage or protrusion of contents during handling, storage, transport, or shipping.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If outside contamination of the regulated waste container occurs, it shall be placed in a second container. The second container shall be:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Closable;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Constructed to contain all contents and prevent leakage of fluids during handling, storage, transport or shipping;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Labeled or color-coded in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Closed prior to removal to prevent spillage or protrusion of contents during handling, storage, transport, or shipping.
</P>
<P>(C) Disposal of all regulated waste shall be in accordance with applicable regulations of the United States, States and Territories, and political subdivisions of States and Territories.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Laundry.</I> (A) Contaminated laundry shall be handled as little as possible with a minimum of agitation. (<I>1</I>) Contaminated laundry shall be bagged or containerized at the location where it was used and shall not be sorted or rinsed in the location of use.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Contaminated laundry shall be placed and transported in bags or containers labeled or color-coded in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this standard. When a facility utilizes Universal Precautions in the handling of all soiled laundry, alternative labeling or color-coding is sufficient if it permits all employees to recognize the containers as requiring compliance with Universal Precautions.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whenever contaminated laundry is wet and presents a reasonable likelihood of soak-through of or leakage from the bag or container, the laundry shall be placed and transported in bags or containers which prevent soak-through and/or leakage of fluids to the exterior.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall ensure that employees who have contact with contaminated laundry wear protective gloves and other appropriate personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) When a facility ships contaminated laundry off-site to a second facility which does not utilize Universal Precautions in the handling of all laundry, the facility generating the contaminated laundry must place such laundry in bags or containers which are labeled or color-coded in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>HIV and HBV Research Laboratories and Production Facilities.</I> (1) This paragraph applies to research laboratories and production facilities engaged in the culture, production, concentration, experimentation, and manipulation of HIV and HBV. It does not apply to clinical or diagnostic laboratories engaged solely in the analysis of blood, tissues, or organs. These requirements apply in addition to the other requirements of the standard.
</P>
<P>(2) Research laboratories and production facilities shall meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Standard microbiological practices.</I> All regulated waste shall either be incinerated or decontaminated by a method such as autoclaving known to effectively destroy bloodborne pathogens.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Special practices.</I> (A) Laboratory doors shall be kept closed when work involving HIV or HBV is in progress.
</P>
<P>(B) Contaminated materials that are to be decontaminated at a site away from the work area shall be placed in a durable, leakproof, labeled or color-coded container that is closed before being removed from the work area.
</P>
<P>(C) Access to the work area shall be limited to authorized persons. Written policies and procedures shall be established whereby only persons who have been advised of the potential biohazard, who meet any specific entry requirements, and who comply with all entry and exit procedures shall be allowed to enter the work areas and animal rooms.
</P>
<P>(D) When other potentially infectious materials or infected animals are present in the work area or containment module, a hazard warning sign incorporating the universal biohazard symbol shall be posted on all access doors. The hazard warning sign shall comply with paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(E) All activities involving other potentially infectious materials shall be conducted in biological safety cabinets or other physical-containment devices within the containment module. No work with these other potentially infectious materials shall be conducted on the open bench.
</P>
<P>(F) Laboratory coats, gowns, smocks, uniforms, or other appropriate protective clothing shall be used in the work area and animal rooms. Protective clothing shall not be worn outside of the work area and shall be decontaminated before being laundered.
</P>
<P>(G) Special care shall be taken to avoid skin contact with other potentially infectious materials. Gloves shall be worn when handling infected animals and when making hand contact with other potentially infectious materials is unavoidable.
</P>
<P>(H) Before disposal all waste from work areas and from animal rooms shall either be incinerated or decontaminated by a method such as autoclaving known to effectively destroy bloodborne pathogens.
</P>
<P>(I) Vacuum lines shall be protected with liquid disinfectant traps and high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters or filters of equivalent or superior efficiency and which are checked routinely and maintained or replaced as necessary.
</P>
<P>(J) Hypodermic needles and syringes shall be used only for parenteral injection and aspiration of fluids from laboratory animals and diaphragm bottles. Only needle-locking syringes or disposable syringe-needle units (<I>i.e.</I>, the needle is integral to the syringe) shall be used for the injection or aspiration of other potentially infectious materials. Extreme caution shall be used when handling needles and syringes. A needle shall not be bent, sheared, replaced in the sheath or guard, or removed from the syringe following use. The needle and syringe shall be promptly placed in a puncture-resistant container and autoclaved or decontaminated before reuse or disposal.
</P>
<P>(K) All spills shall be immediately contained and cleaned up by appropriate professional staff or others properly trained and equipped to work with potentially concentrated infectious materials.
</P>
<P>(L) A spill or accident that results in an exposure incident shall be immediately reported to the laboratory director or other responsible person.
</P>
<P>(M) A biosafety manual shall be prepared or adopted and periodically reviewed and updated at least annually or more often if necessary. Personnel shall be advised of potential hazards, shall be required to read instructions on practices and procedures, and shall be required to follow them.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Containment equipment.</I> (A) Certified biological safety cabinets (Class I, II, or III) or other appropriate combinations of personal protection or physical containment devices, such as special protective clothing, respirators, centrifuge safety cups, sealed centrifuge rotors, and containment caging for animals, shall be used for all activities with other potentially infectious materials that pose a threat of exposure to droplets, splashes, spills, or aerosols.
</P>
<P>(B) Biological safety cabinets shall be certified when installed, whenever they are moved and at least annually.
</P>
<P>(3) HIV and HBV research laboratories shall meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Each laboratory shall contain a facility for hand washing and an eye wash facility which is readily available within the work area.
</P>
<P>(ii) An autoclave for decontamination of regulated waste shall be available.
</P>
<P>(4) HIV and HBV production facilities shall meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The work areas shall be separated from areas that are open to unrestricted traffic flow within the building. Passage through two sets of doors shall be the basic requirement for entry into the work area from access corridors or other contiguous areas. Physical separation of the high-containment work area from access corridors or other areas or activities may also be provided by a double-doored clothes-change room (showers may be included), airlock, or other access facility that requires passing through two sets of doors before entering the work area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The surfaces of doors, walls, floors and ceilings in the work area shall be water resistant so that they can be easily cleaned. Penetrations in these surfaces shall be sealed or capable of being sealed to facilitate decontamination.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each work area shall contain a sink for washing hands and a readily available eye wash facility. The sink shall be foot, elbow, or automatically operated and shall be located near the exit door of the work area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Access doors to the work area or containment module shall be self-closing.
</P>
<P>(v) An autoclave for decontamination of regulated waste shall be available within or as near as possible to the work area.
</P>
<P>(vi) A ducted exhaust-air ventilation system shall be provided. This system shall create directional airflow that draws air into the work area through the entry area. The exhaust air shall not be recirculated to any other area of the building, shall be discharged to the outside, and shall be dispersed away from occupied areas and air intakes. The proper direction of the airflow shall be verified (<I>i.e.</I>, into the work area).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Training Requirements.</I> Additional training requirements for employees in HIV and HBV research laboratories and HIV and HBV production facilities are specified in paragraph (g)(2)(ix).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hepatitis B vaccination and post-exposure evaluation and follow-up</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make available the hepatitis B vaccine and vaccination series to all employees who have occupational exposure, and post-exposure evaluation and follow-up to all employees who have had an exposure incident.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that all medical evaluations and procedures including the hepatitis B vaccine and vaccination series and post-exposure evaluation and follow-up, including prophylaxis, are:
</P>
<P>(A) Made available at no cost to the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) Made available to the employee at a reasonable time and place;
</P>
<P>(C) Performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician or by or under the supervision of another licensed healthcare professional; and
</P>
<P>(D) Provided according to recommendations of the U.S. Public Health Service current at the time these evaluations and procedures take place, except as specified by this paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that all laboratory tests are conducted by an accredited laboratory at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hepatitis B Vaccination.</I> (i) Hepatitis B vaccination shall be made available after the employee has received the training required in paragraph (g)(2)(vii)(I) and within 10 working days of initial assignment to all employees who have occupational exposure unless the employee has previously received the complete hepatitis B vaccination series, antibody testing has revealed that the employee is immune, or the vaccine is contraindicated for medical reasons.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall not make participation in a prescreening program a prerequisite for receiving hepatitis B vaccination.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee initially declines hepatitis B vaccination but at a later date while still covered under the standard decides to accept the vaccination, the employer shall make available hepatitis B vaccination at that time.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that employees who decline to accept hepatitis B vaccination offered by the employer sign the statement in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(v) If a routine booster dose(s) of hepatitis B vaccine is recommended by the U.S. Public Health Service at a future date, such booster dose(s) shall be made available in accordance with section (f)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Post-exposure Evaluation and Follow-up.</I> Following a report of an exposure incident, the employer shall make immediately available to the exposed employee a confidential medical evaluation and follow-up, including at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation of the route(s) of exposure, and the circumstances under which the exposure incident occurred;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification and documentation of the source individual, unless the employer can establish that identification is infeasible or prohibited by state or local law;
</P>
<P>(A) The source individual's blood shall be tested as soon as feasible and after consent is obtained in order to determine HBV and HIV infectivity. If consent is not obtained, the employer shall establish that legally required consent cannot be obtained. When the source individual's consent is not required by law, the source individual's blood, if available, shall be tested and the results documented.
</P>
<P>(B) When the source individual is already known to be infected with HBV or HIV, testing for the source individual's known HBV or HIV status need not be repeated.
</P>
<P>(C) Results of the source individual's testing shall be made available to the exposed employee, and the employee shall be informed of applicable laws and regulations concerning disclosure of the identity and infectious status of the source individual.
</P>
<P>(iii) Collection and testing of blood for HBV and HIV serological status;
</P>
<P>(A) The exposed employee's blood shall be collected as soon as feasible and tested after consent is obtained.
</P>
<P>(B) If the employee consents to baseline blood collection, but does not give consent at that time for HIV serologic testing, the sample shall be preserved for at least 90 days. If, within 90 days of the exposure incident, the employee elects to have the baseline sample tested, such testing shall be done as soon as feasible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Post-exposure prophylaxis, when medically indicated, as recommended by the U.S. Public Health Service;
</P>
<P>(v) Counseling; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Evaluation of reported illnesses.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information Provided to the Healthcare Professional.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that the healthcare professional responsible for the employee's Hepatitis B vaccination is provided a copy of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that the healthcare professional evaluating an employee after an exposure incident is provided the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of this regulation;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the exposed employee's duties as they relate to the exposure incident;
</P>
<P>(C) Documentation of the route(s) of exposure and circumstances under which exposure occurred;
</P>
<P>(D) Results of the source individual's blood testing, if available; and
</P>
<P>(E) All medical records relevant to the appropriate treatment of the employee including vaccination status which are the employer's responsibility to maintain.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Healthcare Professional's Written Opinion.</I> The employer shall obtain and provide the employee with a copy of the evaluating healthcare professional's written opinion within 15 days of the completion of the evaluation.
</P>
<P>(i) The healthcare professional's written opinion for Hepatitis B vaccination shall be limited to whether Hepatitis B vaccination is indicated for an employee, and if the employee has received such vaccination.
</P>
<P>(ii) The healthcare professional's written opinion for post-exposure evaluation and follow-up shall be limited to the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) That the employee has been informed of the results of the evaluation; and
</P>
<P>(B) That the employee has been told about any medical conditions resulting from exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials which require further evaluation or treatment. (iii) All other findings or diagnoses shall remain confidential and shall not be included in the written report.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Medical recordkeeping.</I> Medical records required by this standard shall be maintained in accordance with paragraph (h)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Communication of hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Labels and signs</I>—(i) <I>Labels.</I> (A) Warning labels shall be affixed to containers of regulated waste, refrigerators and freezers containing blood or other potentially infectious material; and other containers used to store, transport or ship blood or other potentially infectious materials, except as provided in paragraph (g)(1)(i)(E), (F) and (G).
</P>
<P>(B) Labels required by this section shall include the following legend:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.018.gif"/>
<P>(C) These labels shall be fluorescent orange or orange-red or predominantly so, with lettering and symbols in a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>(D) Labels shall be affixed as close as feasible to the container by string, wire, adhesive, or other method that prevents their loss or unintentional removal.
</P>
<P>(E) Red bags or red containers may be substituted for labels.
</P>
<P>(F) Containers of blood, blood components, or blood products that are labeled as to their contents and have been released for transfusion or other clinical use are exempted from the labeling requirements of paragraph (g).
</P>
<P>(G) Individual containers of blood or other potentially infectious materials that are placed in a labeled container during storage, transport, shipment or disposal are exempted from the labeling requirement.
</P>
<P>(H) Labels required for contaminated equipment shall be in accordance with this paragraph and shall also state which portions of the equipment remain contaminated.
</P>
<P>(I) Regulated waste that has been decontaminated need not be labeled or color-coded.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Signs.</I> (A) The employer shall post signs at the entrance to work areas specified in paragraph (e), HIV and HBV Research Laboratory and Production Facilities, which shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.019.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>(Name of the Infectious Agent)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(Special requirements for entering the area)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(Name, telephone number of the laboratory director or other responsible person.)</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) These signs shall be fluorescent orange-red or predominantly so, with lettering and symbols in a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information and Training.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee with occupational exposure in accordance with the requirements of this section. Such training must be provided at no cost to the employee and during working hours. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training shall be provided as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) At the time of initial assignment to tasks where occupational exposure may take place;
</P>
<P>(B) At least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) Annual training for all employees shall be provided within one year of their previous training.
</P>
<P>(v) Employers shall provide additional training when changes such as modification of tasks or procedures or institution of new tasks or procedures affect the employee's occupational exposure. The additional training may be limited to addressing the new exposures created.
</P>
<P>(vi) Material appropriate in content and vocabulary to educational level, literacy, and language of employees shall be used.
</P>
<P>(vii) The training program shall contain at a minimum the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) An accessible copy of the regulatory text of this standard and an explanation of its contents;
</P>
<P>(B) A general explanation of the epidemiology and symptoms of bloodborne diseases;
</P>
<P>(C) An explanation of the modes of transmission of bloodborne pathogens;
</P>
<P>(D) An explanation of the employer's exposure control plan and the means by which the employee can obtain a copy of the written plan;
</P>
<P>(E) An explanation of the appropriate methods for recognizing tasks and other activities that may involve exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials;
</P>
<P>(F) An explanation of the use and limitations of methods that will prevent or reduce exposure including appropriate engineering controls, work practices, and personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(G) Information on the types, proper use, location, removal, handling, decontamination and disposal of personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(H) An explanation of the basis for selection of personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(I) Information on the hepatitis B vaccine, including information on its efficacy, safety, method of administration, the benefits of being vaccinated, and that the vaccine and vaccination will be offered free of charge;
</P>
<P>(J) Information on the appropriate actions to take and persons to contact in an emergency involving blood or other potentially infectious materials;
</P>
<P>(K) An explanation of the procedure to follow if an exposure incident occurs, including the method of reporting the incident and the medical follow-up that will be made available;
</P>
<P>(L) Information on the post-exposure evaluation and follow-up that the employer is required to provide for the employee following an exposure incident;
</P>
<P>(M) An explanation of the signs and labels and/or color coding required by paragraph (g)(1); and
</P>
<P>(N) An opportunity for interactive questions and answers with the person conducting the training session.
</P>
<P>(viii) The person conducting the training shall be knowledgeable in the subject matter covered by the elements contained in the training program as it relates to the workplace that the training will address.
</P>
<P>(ix) Additional Initial Training for Employees in HIV and HBV Laboratories and Production Facilities. Employees in HIV or HBV research laboratories and HIV or HBV production facilities shall receive the following initial training in addition to the above training requirements.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall assure that employees demonstrate proficiency in standard microbiological practices and techniques and in the practices and operations specific to the facility before being allowed to work with HIV or HBV.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall assure that employees have prior experience in the handling of human pathogens or tissue cultures before working with HIV or HBV.
</P>
<P>(C) The employer shall provide a training program to employees who have no prior experience in handling human pathogens. Initial work activities shall not include the handling of infectious agents. A progression of work activities shall be assigned as techniques are learned and proficiency is developed. The employer shall assure that employees participate in work activities involving infectious agents only after proficiency has been demonstrated.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Medical Records.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee with occupational exposure, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the employee's hepatitis B vaccination status including the dates of all the hepatitis B vaccinations and any medical records relative to the employee's ability to receive vaccination as required by paragraph (f)(2);
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of all results of examinations, medical testing, and follow-up procedures as required by paragraph (f)(3);
</P>
<P>(D) The employer's copy of the healthcare professional's written opinion as required by paragraph (f)(5); and
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of the information provided to the healthcare professional as required by paragraphs (f)(4)(ii)(B)(C) and (D).
</P>
<P>(iii) Confidentiality. The employer shall ensure that employee medical records required by paragraph (h)(1) are:
</P>
<P>(A) Kept confidential; and
</P>
<P>(B) Not disclosed or reported without the employee's express written consent to any person within or outside the workplace except as required by this section or as may be required by law.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall maintain the records required by paragraph (h) for at least the duration of employment plus 30 years in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training Records.</I> (i) Training records shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The dates of the training sessions;
</P>
<P>(B) The contents or a summary of the training sessions;
</P>
<P>(C) The names and qualifications of persons conducting the training; and
</P>
<P>(D) The names and job titles of all persons attending the training sessions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training records shall be maintained for 3 years from the date on which the training occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that all records required to be maintained by this section shall be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee training records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request for examination and copying to employees, to employee representatives, to the Director, and to the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employee medical records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request for examination and copying to the subject employee, to anyone having written consent of the subject employee, to the Director, and to the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer of Records.</I> The employer shall comply with the requirements involving transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sharps injury log.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain a sharps injury log for the recording of percutaneous injuries from contaminated sharps. The information in the sharps injury log shall be recorded and maintained in such manner as to protect the confidentiality of the injured employee. The sharps injury log shall contain, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) The type and brand of device involved in the incident,
</P>
<P>(B) The department or work area where the exposure incident occurred, and
</P>
<P>(C) An explanation of how the incident occurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement to establish and maintain a sharps injury log shall apply to any employer who is required to maintain a log of occupational injuries and illnesses under 29 CFR part 1904.
</P>
<P>(iii) The sharps injury log shall be maintained for the period required by 29 CFR 1904.33.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective Date.</I> The standard shall become effective on March 6, 1992.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exposure Control Plan required by paragraph (c) of this section shall be completed on or before May 5, 1992.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraphs (g)(2) Information and Training and (h) Recordkeeping of this section shall take effect on or before June 4, 1992.
</P>
<P>(4) Paragraphs (d)(2) Engineering and Work Practice Controls, (d)(3) Personal Protective Equipment, (d)(4) Housekeeping, (e) HIV and HBV Research Laboratories and Production Facilities, (f) Hepatitis B Vaccination and Post-Exposure Evaluation and Follow-up, and (g)(1) Labels and Signs of this section, shall take effect July 6, 1992.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to Section 1910.1030—Hepatitis B Vaccine Declination (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>I understand that due to my occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials I may be at risk of acquiring hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection. I have been given the opportunity to be vaccinated with hepatitis B vaccine, at no charge to myself. However, I decline hepatitis B vaccination at this time. I understand that by declining this vaccine, I continue to be at risk of acquiring hepatitis B, a serious disease. If in the future I continue to have occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials and I want to be vaccinated with hepatitis B vaccine, I can receive the vaccination series at no charge to me.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 64175, Dec. 6, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 12717, Apr. 13, 1992; 57 FR 29206, July 1, 1992; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 66 FR 5325, Jan. 18, 2001; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 73 FR 75586, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33608, June 8, 2011; 76 FR 80740, Dec. 27, 2011; 77 FR 19934, Apr. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1043" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1043   Cotton dust.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section, in its entirety, applies to the control of employee exposure to cotton dust in all workplaces where employees engage in yarn manufacturing, engage in slashing and weaving operations, or work in waste houses for textile operations.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to the handling or processing of woven or knitted materials; to maritime operations covered by 29 CFR Parts 1915 and 1918; to harvesting or ginning of cotton; or to the construction industry.
</P>
<P>(3) Only paragraphs (h) Medical surveillance, (k)(2) through (4) Recordkeeping—Medical Records, and appendices B, C and D of this section apply in all work places where employees exposed to cotton dust engage in cottonseed processing or waste processing operations.
</P>
<P>(4) This section applies to yarn manufacturing and slashing and weaving operations exclusively using washed cotton (as defined by paragraph (n) of this section) only to the extent specified by paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) This section, in its entirety, applies to the control of all employees exposure to the cotton dust generated in the preparation of washed cotton from opening until the cotton is thoroughly wetted.
</P>
<P>(6) This section does not apply to knitting, classing or warehousing operations except that employers with these operations, if requested by NIOSH, shall grant NIOSH access to their employees and workplaces for exposure monitoring and medical examinations for purposes of a health study to be performed by NIOSH on a sampling basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee;
</P>
<P><I>Blow down</I> means the general cleaning of a room or a part of a room by the use of compressed air.
</P>
<P><I>Blow off</I> means the use of compressed air for cleaning of short duration and usually for a specific machine or any portion of a machine.
</P>
<P><I>Cotton dust</I> means dust present in the air during the handling or processing of cotton, which may contain a mixture of many substances including ground up plant matter, fiber, bacteria, fungi, soil, pesticides, non-cotton plant matter and other contaminants which may have accumulated with the cotton during the growing, harvesting and subsequent processing or storage periods. Any dust present during the handling and processing of cotton through the weaving or knitting of fabrics, and dust present in other operations or manufacturing processes using raw or waste cotton fibers or cotton fiber byproducts from textile mills are considered cotton dust within this definition. Lubricating oil mist associated with weaving operations is not considered cotton dust.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent Instrument</I> means a cotton dust sampling device that meets the vertical elutriator equivalency requirements as described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Lint-free respirable cotton dust</I> means particles of cotton dust of approximately 15 micrometers or less aerodynamic equivalent diameter;
</P>
<P><I>Vertical elutriator cotton dust sampler</I> or <I>vertical elutriator</I> means a dust sampler which has a particle size cut-off at approximately 15 micrometers aerodynamic equivalent diameter when operating at the flow rate of 7.4 ±0.2 liters of air per minute;
</P>
<P><I>Waste processing</I> means waste recycling (sorting, blending, cleaning and willowing) and garnetting.
</P>
<P><I>Yarn manufacturing</I> means all textile mill operations from opening to, but not including, slashing and weaving.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits and action levels</I>—(1) <I>Permissible exposure limits (PEL).</I> (i) The employer shall assure that no employee who is exposed to cotton dust in yarn manufacturing and cotton washing operations is exposed to airborne concentrations of lint-free respirable cotton dust greater than 200 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> mean concentration, averaged over an eight-hour period, as measured be a vertical elutriator or an equivalent instrument.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that no employee who is exposed to cotton dust in textile mill waste house operations or is exposed in yarn manufacturing to dust from “lower grade washed cotton” as defined in paragraph (n)(5) of this section is exposed to airborne concentrations of lint-free respirable cotton dust greater than 500 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> mean concentration, averaged over an eight-hour period, as measured by a vertical elutriator or an equivalent instrument.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that no employee who is exposed to cotton dust in the textile processes known as slashing and weaving is exposed to airborne concentrations of lint-free respirable cotton dust greater than 750 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> mean concentration, averaged over an eight hour period, as measured by a vertical elutriator or an equivalent instrument.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Action levels.</I> (i) The action level for yarn manufacturing and cotton washing operations is an airborne concentration of lint-free respirable cotton dust of 100 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> mean concentration, averaged over an eight-hour period, as measured by a vertical elutriator or an equivalent instrument.
</P>
<P>(ii) The action level for waste houses for textile operations is an airborne concentration of lint-free respirable cotton dust of 250 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> mean concentration, averaged over an eight-hour period, as measured by a vertical elutriator or an equivalent instrument.
</P>
<P>(iii) The action level for the textile processes known as slashing and weaving is an airborne concentration of lint-free respirable cotton dust of 375 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> mean concentration, averaged over an eight-hour period, as measured by a vertical elutriator or an equivalent instrument.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure monitoring and measurement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) For the purposes of this section, employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) The sampling device to be used shall be either the vertical elutriator cotton dust sampler or an equivalent instrument.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an alternative to the vertical elutriator cotton dust sampler is used, the employer shall establish equivalency by reference to an OSHA opinion or by documenting, based on data developed by the employer or supplied by the manufacturer, that the alternative sampling devices meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) It collects respirable particulates in the same range as the vertical elutriator (approximately 15 microns);
</P>
<P>(B) Replicate exposure data used to establish equivalency are collected in side-by-side field and laboratory comparisons; and
</P>
<P>(C) A minimum of 100 samples over the range of 0.5 to 2 times the permissible exposure limit are collected, and 90% of these samples have an accuracy range of plus or minus 25 per cent of the vertical elutriator reading with a 95% confidence level as demonstrated by a statistically valid protocol. (An acceptable protocol for demonstrating equivalency is described in appendix E of this section.)
</P>
<P>(iv) OSHA will issue a written opinion stating that an instrument is equivalent to a vertical elutriator cotton dust sampler if
</P>
<P>(A) A manufacturer or employer requests an opinion in writing and supplies the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Sufficient test data to demonstrate that the instrument meets the requirements specified in this paragraph and the protocol specified in appendix E of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any other relevant information about the instrument and its testing requested by OSHA; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A certification by the manufacturer or employer that the information supplied is accurate, and
</P>
<P>(B) if OSHA finds, based on information submitted about the instrument, that the instrument meets the requirements for equivalency specified by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> Each employer who has a place of employment within the scope of paragraph (a)(1), (a)(4), or (a)(5) of this section shall conduct monitoring by obtaining measurements which are representative of the exposure of all employees to airborne concentrations of lint-free respirable cotton dust over an eight-hour period. The sampling program shall include at least one determination during each shift for each work area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section or any subsequent monitoring reveals employee exposure to be at or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall repeat the monitoring for those employees at least annually.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section or any subsequent monitoring reveals employee exposure to be above the PEL, the employer shall repeat the monitoring for those employees at least every six months.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever there has been a production, process, or control change which may result in new or additional exposure to cotton dust, or whenever the employer has any other reason to suspect an increase in employee exposure, the employer shall repeat the monitoring and measurements for those employees affected by the change or increase.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the results indicate that the employee's exposure exceeds the applicable permissible exposure limit specified in paragraph (c) of this section, the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that the permissible exposure limit was exceeded and a description of the corrective action taken to reduce exposure below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> The employer shall institute engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to cotton dust at or below the permissible exposure limit specified in paragraph (c) of this section, except to the extent that the employer can establish that such controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever feasible engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless institute these controls to reduce exposure to the lowest feasible level, and shall supplement these controls with the use of respirators which shall comply with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Where the most recent exposure monitoring data indicates that any employee is exposed to cotton dust levels greater than the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall establish and implement a written program sufficient to reduce exposures to or below the permissible exposure limit solely by means of engineering controls and work practices as required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written program shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each operation or process resulting in employee exposure to cotton dust at levels greater than the PEL;
</P>
<P>(B) Engineering plans and other studies used to determine the controls for each process;
</P>
<P>(C) A report of the technology considered in meeting the permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<P>(D) Monitoring data obtained in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) A detailed schedule for development and implementation of engineering and work practice controls, including exposure levels projected to be achieved by such controls;
</P>
<P>(F) Work practice program; and
</P>
<P>(G) Other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer's schedule as set forth in the compliance program, shall project completion of the implementation of the compliance program no later than March 27, 1984 or as soon as possible if monitoring after March 27, 1984 reveals exposures over the PEL, except as provided in paragraph (m)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall complete the steps set forth in his program by the dates in the schedule.
</P>
<P>(v) Written programs shall be submitted, upon request, to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Assistant Secretary, the Director, and any affected employee or their designated representatives.
</P>
<P>(vi) The written program required under paragraph (e)(3) of this section shall be revised and updated when necessary to reflect the current status of the program and current exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mechanical ventilation.</I> When mechanical ventilation is used to control exposure, measurements which demonstrate the effectiveness of the system to control exposure, such as capture velocity, duct velocity, or static pressure shall be made at reasonable intervals.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who are required to use respirators by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintenance and repair activities for which engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) Work operations specified under paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Periods for which an employee requests a respirator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever a physician determines that an employee who works in an area in which the cotton-dust concentration exceeds the PEL is unable to use a respirator, including a powered air-purifying respirator, the employee must be given the opportunity to transfer to an available position, or to a position that becomes available later, that has a cotton-dust concentration at or below the PEL. The employer must ensure that such employees retain their current wage rate or other benefits as a result of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134; however, employers must not select or use filtering facepieces for protection against cotton dust concentrations greater than five times (5 × ) the PEL.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators used at cotton dust concentrations greater than ten times (10 × ) the PEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers must provide an employee with a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) instead of a non-powered air-purifying respirator selected according to paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this standard when the employee chooses to use a PAPR and it provides adequate protection to the employee as specified by paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this standard. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Work practices.</I> Each employer shall, regardless of the level of employee exposure, immediately establish and implement a written program of work practices which shall minimize cotton dust exposure. The following shall be included were applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Compressed air “blow down” cleaning shall be prohibited where alternative means are feasible. Where compressed air is used for cleaning, the employees performing the “blow down” or “blow off” shall wear suitable respirators. Employees whose presence is not required to perform “blow down” or “blow of” shall be required to leave the area affected by the “blow down” or “blow off” during this cleaning operation.
</P>
<P>(2) Cleaning of clothing or floors with compressed air shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) Floor sweeping shall be performed with a vacuum or with methods designed to minimize dispersal of dust.
</P>
<P>(4) In areas where employees are exposed to concentrations of cotton dust greater than the permissible exposure limit, cotton and cotton waste shall be stacked, sorted, baled, dumped, removed or otherwise handled by mechanical means, except where the employer can show that it is infeasible to do so. Where infeasible, the method used for handling cotton and cotton waste shall be the method which reduces exposure to the lowest level feasible.


</P>
<P>(h) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Each employer covered by the standard shall institute a program of medical surveillance for all employees exposed to cotton dust.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician and are provided without cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Persons other than licensed physicians, who administer the pulmonary function testing required by this section shall have completed a NIOSH-approved training course in spirometry.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examinations.</I> The employer shall provide medical surveillance to each employee who is or may be exposed to cotton dust. For new employees, this examination shall be provided prior to initial assignment. The medical surveillance shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A medical history;
</P>
<P>(ii) The standardized questionnaire contained in appendix B; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A pulmonary function measurement, including forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>), and determination of the FEV<E T="52">1</E>/FVC ratio shall be made. FVC, FEV<E T="52">1</E>, and FEV<E T="52">1</E>/FVC ratio values shall be compared to appropriate race/ethnicity-specific Lower Limit of Normal (LLN) values and predicted values published in Spirometric Reference Values from a Sample of the General U.S. Population, American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 159(1): 179-187, January 1999 (commonly known as the NHANES III reference data set) (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6). To obtain reference values for Asian-Americans, Spirometric Reference Values FEV<E T="52">1</E> and FVC predicted and LLN values for Caucasians shall be multiplied by 0.88 to adjust for ethnic differences. These determinations shall be made for each employee before the employee enters the workplace on the first day of the work week, preceded by at least 35 hours of no exposure to cotton dust. The tests shall be repeated during the shift, no less than 4 and no more than 10 hours after the beginning of the work shift; and, in any event, no more than one hour after cessation of exposure. Such exposure shall be typical of the employee's usual workplace exposure.
</P>
<P>(iv) Based upon the questionnaire results, each employee shall be graded according to Schilling's byssinosis classification system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) The employer shall provide at least annual medical surveillance for all employees exposed to cotton dust above the action level in yarn manufacturing, slashing and weaving, cotton washing and waste house operations. The employer shall provide medical surveillance at least every two years for all employees exposed to cotton dust at or below the action level, for all employees exposed to cotton dust from washed cotton (except from washed cotton defined in paragraph (n)(3) of this section), and for all employees exposed to cotton dust in cottonseed processing and waste processing operations. Periodic medical surveillance shall include at least an update of the medical history, standardized questionnaire (App. B-111), Schilling byssinosis grade, and the pulmonary function measurements in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical surveillance as required in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section shall be provided every six months for all employees in the following categories:
</P>
<P>(A) An FEV<E T="52">1</E> greater than the LLN, but with an FEV<E T="52">1</E> decrement of 5 percent or 200 ml. on a first working day;
</P>
<P>(B) An FEV<E T="52">1</E> of less than the LLN; or
</P>
<P>(C) Where, in the opinion of the physician, any significant change in questionnaire findings, pulmonary function results, or other diagnostic tests have occurred.


</P>
<P>(iii) An employee whose FEV<E T="52">1</E> is less than 60 percent of the predicted value shall be referred to a physician for a detailed pulmonary examination.
</P>
<P>(iv) A comparison shall be made between the current examination results and those of previous examinations and a determination made by the physician as to whether there has been a significant change.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examination physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this regulation and its Appendices:
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's exposure level or anticipated exposure level;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee which is not readily available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain and furnish the employee with a copy of a written opinion from the examining physician containing the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The results of the medical examination and tests including the FEV<E T="52">1</E>, FVC, AND FEV<E T="52">1</E>/FVC ratio;
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from exposure to cotton dust;
</P>
<P>(C) The physician's recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to cotton dust or upon the employee's use of respirators including a determination of whether an employee can wear a negative pressure respirator, and where the employee cannot, a determination of the employee's ability to wear a powered air purifying respirator; and,
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions which require further examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written opinion obtained by the employer shall not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employee education and training</I>—(1) <I>Training program.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee exposed to cotton dust in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) The training program shall be provided prior to initial assignment and shall be repeated annually for each employee exposed to cotton dust, when job assignments or work processes change and when employee performance indicates a need for retraining.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) Each employer shall post a copy of this section with its appendices in a public location at the workplace, and shall, upon request, make copies available to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide all materials relating to the employee training and information program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director upon request.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Signs.</I> (1) The employer shall post the following warning sign in each work area where the permissible exposure limit for cotton dust is exceeded:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>COTTON DUST
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(BYSSINOSIS)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>WARNING 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>COTTON DUST WORK AREA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE ACUTE OR DELAYED 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LUNG INJURY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(BYSSINOSIS) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>REQUIRED IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all measurements required by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A log containing the items listed in paragraph IV (a) of appendix A, and the dates, number, duration, and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the procedure used to determine representative employee exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The type of protective devices worn, if any, and length of time worn; and
</P>
<P>(C) The names, job classifications, and exposure levels of employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least 20 years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate medical record for each employee subject to medical surveillance required by paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and description of the duties of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the medical examination results including the medical history, questionnaire response, results of all tests, and the physician's recommendation;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the physician's written opinion;
</P>
<P>(D) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to cotton dust;
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of this standard and its appendices, except that the employer may keep one copy of the standard and the appendices for all employees, provided that he references the standard and appendices in the medical surveillance record of each employee; and
</P>
<P>(F) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (h)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least 20 years.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall make all records required to be maintained by paragraph (k) of this section available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee exposure measurement records and employee medical records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (i) Whenever the employer ceases to do business, the successor employer shall receive and retain all records required to be maintained by paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall also comply with any additional requirements involving transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (1) The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to cotton dust conducted pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever observation of the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to cotton dust requires entry into an area where the use of personal protective equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with and assure the use of such equipment and shall require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) Without interfering with the measurement, observers shall be entitled to:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of the measurement procedures:
</P>
<P>(ii) An opportunity to observe all steps related to the measurement of airborne concentrations of cotton dust performed at the place of exposure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An opportunity to record the results obtained.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Washed Cotton</I>—(1) <I>Exemptions.</I> Cotton, after it has been washed by the processes described in this paragraph, is exempt from all or parts of this section as specified if the requirements of this paragraph are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial requirements.</I> (i) In order for an employer to qualify as exempt or partially exempt from this standard for operations using washed cotton, the employer must demonstrate that the cotton was washed in a facility which is open to inspection by the Assistant Secretary and the employer must provide sufficient accurate documentary evidence to demonstrate that the washing methods utilized meet the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) An employer who handles or processes cotton which has been washed in a facility not under the employer's control and claims an exemption or partial exemption under this paragraph, must obtain from the cotton washer and make available at the worksite, to the Assistant Secretary, to any affected employee, or to their designated representative the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A certification by the washer of the cotton of the grade of cotton, the type of washing process, and that the batch meets the requirements of this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(B) Sufficient accurate documentation by the washer of the cotton grades and washing process; and
</P>
<P>(C) An authorization by the washer that the Assistant Secretary or the Director may inspect the washer's washing facilities and documentation of the process.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical and dyed cotton.</I> Medical grade (USP) cotton, cotton that has been scoured, bleached and dyed, and mercerized yarn shall be exempt from all provisions of this standard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Higher grade washed cotton.</I> The handling or processing of cotton classed as “low middling light spotted or better” (color grade 52 or better and leaf grade code 5 or better according to the 1993 USDA classification system) shall be exempt from all provisions of the standard except the requirements of paragraphs (h) medical surveillance, (k)(2) through (4) recordkeeping—medical records, and Appendices B, C, and D of this section, if they have been washed on one of the following systems: 
</P>
<P>(i) On a continuous batt system or a rayon rinse system including the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(A) With water; 
</P>
<P>(B) At a temperature of no less than 60 °C; 
</P>
<P>(C) With a water-to-fiber ratio of no less than 40:1; and 
</P>
<P>(D) With the bacterial levels in the wash water controlled to limit bacterial contamination of the cotton. 
</P>
<P>(ii) On a batch kier washing system including the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(A) With water; 
</P>
<P>(B) With cotton fiber mechanically opened and thoroughly prewetted before forming the cake; 
</P>
<P>(C) For low-temperature processing, at a temperature of no less than 60 °C with a water-to-fiber ratio of no less than 40:1; or, for high-temperature processing, at a temperature of no less than 93 °C with a water-to-fiber ratio of no less than 15:1; 
</P>
<P>(D) With a minimum of one wash cycle followed by two rinse cycles for each batch, using fresh water in each cycle, and 
</P>
<P>(E) With bacterial levels in the wash water controlled to limit bacterial contamination of the cotton. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Lower grade washed cotton.</I> The handling and processing of cotton of grades lower than “low middling light spotted,” that has been washed as specified in paragraph (n)(4) of this section and has also been bleached, shall be exempt from all provisions of the standard except the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) Permissible Exposure Limit, (d) Exposure Monitoring, (h) Medical Surveillance, (k) Recordkeeping, and Appendices B, C and D of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Mixed grades of washed cotton.</I> If more than one grade of washed cotton is being handled or processed together, the requirements of the grade with the most stringent exposure limit, medical and monitoring requirements shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Appendices.</I> (1) Appendices B and D of this section are incorporated as part of this section and the contents of these appendices are mandatory.
</P>
<P>(2) Appendix A of this section contains information which is not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations.
</P>
<P>(3) Appendix E of this section is a protocol which may be followed in the validation of alternative measuring devices as equivalent to the vertical elutriator cotton dust sampler. Other protocols may be used if it is demonstrated that they are statistically valid, meet the requirements in paragraph (d)(l)(iii) of this section, and are appropriate for demonstrating equivalency.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1043—Air Sampling and Analytical Procedures for Determining Concentrations of Cotton Dust
</HD1>
<HD1>i. sampling locations
</HD1>
<P>The sampling procedures must be designed so that samples of the actual dust concentrations are collected accurately and consistently and reflect the concentrations of dust at the place and time of sampling. Sufficient number of 6-hour area samples in each distinct work area of the plant should be collected at locations which provide representative samples of air to which the worker is exposed. In order to avoid filter overloading, sampling time may be shortened when sampling in dusty areas. Samples in each work area should be gathered simultaneously or sequentially during a normal operating period. The daily time-weighted average (TWA) exposure of each worker can then be determined by using the following formula:
</P>
<HD3>Summation of hours spent in each location and the dust concentration in that location.
</HD3>
<HD3>Total hours exposed
</HD3>
<FP>A time-weighted average concentration should be computed for each worker and properly logged and maintained on file for review.
</FP>
<HD1>ii. sampling equipment
</HD1>
<P>(a) Sampler. The instrument selected for monitoring is the Lumsden-Lynch vertical elutriator. It should operate at a flow rate of 7.4±0.2 liters/minute.
</P>
<FP>The samplers should be cleaned prior to sampling. The pumps should be monitored during sampling.
</FP>
<P>(b) Filter Holder. A three-piece cassette constructed of polystyrene designed to hold a 37-mm diameter filter should be used. Care must be exercised to insure that an adequate seal exists between elements of the cassette.
</P>
<P>(c) Filers and Support Pads. The membrane filters used should be polyvinyl chloride with a 5-um pore size and 37-mm diameter. A support pad, commonly called a backup pad, should be used under the filter membrane in the field monitor cassette.
</P>
<P>(d) Balance. A balance sensitive to 10 micrograms should be used.
</P>
<P>(e) Monitoring equipment for use in Class III hazardous locations must be approved for use in such locations, in accordance with the requirements of the OSHA electrical standards in subpart S of part 1910.
</P>
<HD1>iii. instrument calibration procedure
</HD1>
<P>Samplers shall be calibrated when first received from the factory, after repair, and after receiving any abuse. The samplers should be calibrated in the laboratory both before they are used in the field and after they have been used to collect a large number of field samples. The primary standard, such as a spirometer or other standard calibrating instruments such as a wet test meter or a large bubble meter or dry gas meter, should be used. Instructions for calibration with the wet test meter follow. If another calibration device is selected, equivalent procedures should be used:
</P>
<P>(a) Level wet test meter. Check the water level which should just touch the calibration point at the left side of the meter. If water level is low, add water 1-2 °F. warmer than room temperature of till point. Run the meter for 30 minutes before calibration;
</P>
<P>(b) Place the polyvinyl chloride membrane filter in the filter cassette;
</P>
<P>(c) Assemble the calibration sampling train;
</P>
<P>(d) Connect the wet test meter to the train.
</P>
<FP>The pointer on the meter should run clockwise and a pressure drop of not more than 1.0 inch of water indicated. If the pressure drop is greater than 1.0, disconnect and check the system;
</FP>
<P>(e) Operate the system for ten minutes before starting the calibration;
</P>
<P>(f) Check the vacuum gauge on the pump to insure that the pressure drop across the orifice exceeds 17 inches of mercury;
</P>
<P>(g) Record the following on calibration data sheets:
</P>
<P>(1) Wet test meter reading, start and finish;
</P>
<P>(2) Elapsed time, start and finish (at least two minutes);
</P>
<P>(3) Pressure drop at manometer;
</P>
<P>(4) Air temperature;
</P>
<P>(5) Barometric pressure; and
</P>
<P>(6) Limiting orifice number;
</P>
<P>(h) Calculate the flow rate and compare against the flow of 7.4±0.2 liters/minute. If flow is between these limits, perform calibration again, average results, and record orifice number and flow rate. If flow is not within these limits, discard or modify orifice and repeat procedure;
</P>
<P>(i) Record the name of the person performing the calibration, the date, serial number of the wet test meter, and the number of the critical orifices being calibrated.
</P>
<HD1>iv. sampling procedure
</HD1>
<P>(a) Sampling data sheets should include a log of:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the sample collection;
</P>
<P>(2) The time of sampling;
</P>
<P>(3) The location of the sampler;
</P>
<P>(4) The sampler serial number;
</P>
<P>(5) The cassette number;
</P>
<P>(6) The time of starting and stopping the sampling and the duration of sampling;
</P>
<P>(7) The weight of the filter before and after sampling;
</P>
<P>(8) The weight of dust collected (corrected for controls);
</P>
<P>(9) The dust concentration measured;
</P>
<P>(10) Other pertinent information; and
</P>
<P>(11) Name of person taking sample
</P>
<P>(b) Assembly of filter cassette should be as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Loosely assemble 3-piece cassette;
</P>
<P>(2) Number cassette;
</P>
<P>(3) Place absorbant pad in cassette;
</P>
<P>(4) Weigh filter to an accuracy of 10 µg;
</P>
<P>(5) Place filter in cassette;
</P>
<P>(6) Record weight of filter in log, using cassette number for identification;
</P>
<P>(7) Fully assemble cassette, using pressure to force parts tightly together;
</P>
<P>(8) Install plugs top and bottom;
</P>
<P>(9) Put shrink band on cassette, covering joint between center and bottom parts of cassette; and
</P>
<P>(10) Set cassette aside until shrink band dries thoroughly.
</P>
<P>(c) Sampling collection should be performed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Clean lint out of the motor and elutriator;
</P>
<P>(2) Install vertical elutriator in sampling locations specified above with inlet 4
<FR>1/2</FR> to 5
<FR>1/2</FR> feet from floor (breathing zone height);
</P>
<P>(3) Remove top section of cassette;
</P>
<P>(4) Install cassette in ferrule of elutriator;
</P>
<P>(5) Tape cassette to ferrule with masking tape or similar material for air-tight seal;
</P>
<P>(6) Remove bottom plug of cassette and attach hose containing critical orifice;
</P>
<P>(7) Start elutriator pump and check to see if gauge reads above 17 in. of Hg vacuum;
</P>
<P>(8) Record starting time, cassette number, and sampler number;
</P>
<P>(9) At end of sampling period stop pump and record time; and
</P>
<P>(10) Controls with each batch of samples collected, two additional filter cassettes should be subjected to exactly the same handling as the samples, except that they are not opened. These control filters should be weighed in the same manner as the sample filters.
</P>
<FP>Any difference in weight in the control filters would indicate that the procedure for handling sample filters may not be adequate and should be evaluated to ascertain the cause of the difference, whether and what necessary corrections must be made, and whether additional samples must be collected.
</FP>
<P>(d) Shipping. The cassette with samples should be collected, along with the appropriate number of blanks, and shipped to the analytical laboratory in a suitable container to prevent damage in transit.
</P>
<P>(e) Weighing of the sample should be achieved as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Remove shrink band;
</P>
<P>(2) Remove top and middle sections of cassette and botton plug;
</P>
<P>(3) Remove filter from cassette and weigh to an accuracy of 10 µg; and
</P>
<P>(4) Record weight in log against original weight
</P>
<P>(f) Calculation of volume of air sampled should be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) From starting and stopping times of sampling period, determine length of time in minutes of sampling period; and
</P>
<P>(2) Multiply sampling time in minutes by flow rate of critical orifice in liters per minute and divide by 1000 to find air quantity in cubic meters.
</P>
<P>(g) Calculation of Dust Concentrations should be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Substract weight of clean filter from dirty filter and apply control correction to find actual weight of sample. Record this weight (in µg) in log; and
</P>
<P>(2) Divide mass of sample in µg by air volume in cubic meters to find dust concentration in µg/m. Record in log.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B-I to § 1910.1043—Respiratory Questionnaire
</HD1>
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<img src="/graphics/er14my19.031.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.035.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.036.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.037.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.038.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.039.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B-II to § 1910.1043—Respiratory Questionnaire for Non-Textile Workers for the Cotton Industry
</HD1>
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<img src="/graphics/er14my19.041.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.042.gif"/>
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<img src="/graphics/er14my19.044.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.045.gif"/>
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<img src="/graphics/er14my19.047.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.048.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.049.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B-III to § 1910.1043—Abbreviated Respiratory Questionnaire
</HD1>
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<img src="/graphics/er14my19.051.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.052.gif"/>
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<img src="/graphics/er14my19.054.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.055.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1043—[Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1043—Pulmonary Function Standards for Cotton Dust Standard
</HD1>
<P>The spirometric measurements of pulmonary function shall conform to the following minimum standards, and these standards are not intended to preclude additional testing or alternate methods which can be determined to be superior.
</P>
<HD1>I. Apparatus
</HD1>
<P>a. The instrument shall be accurate to within ±50 milliliters or within ±3 percent of reading, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>b. 1. Instruments purchased on or before May 14, 2020 should be capable of measuring vital capacity from 0 to 7 liters BTPS
</P>
<P>2. Instruments purchased after May 14, 2020 should be capable of measuring vital capacity from 0 to 8 liters BTPS.
</P>
<P>c. The instrument shall have a low inertia and offer low resistance to airflow such that the resistance to airflow at 12 liters per second must be less than 1.5 cm H<E T="52">2</E> O/(liter/sec).
</P>
<P>d. The zero time point for the purpose of timing the FEV<E T="52">1</E> shall be determined by extrapolating the steepest portion of the volume time curve back to the maximal inspiration volume (1, 2, 3, 4) or by an equivalent method.
</P>
<P>e. 1. Instruments purchased on or before May 14, 2020 that incorporate measurements of airflow to determine volume shall conform to the same volume accuracy stated in paragraph (a) of this section I when presented with flow rates from at least 0 to 12 liters per second.
</P>
<P>2. Instruments purchased after May 14, 2020 that incorporate measurements of airflow to determine volume shall conform to the same volume accuracy stated in paragraph (a) of this section I when presented with flow rates from at least 0 to 14 liters per second.
</P>
<P>f. The instrument or user of the instrument must have a means of correcting volumes to body temperature saturated with water vapor (BTPS) under conditions of varying ambient spirometer temperatures and barometric pressures.
</P>
<P>g. 1. Instruments purchased on or before May 14, 2020 shall provide a tracing or display of either flow versus volume or volume versus time during the entire forced expiration. A tracing or display is necessary to determine whether the patient has performed the test properly. The tracing must be stored and available for recall and must be of sufficient size that hand measurements may be made within the volume accuracy requirements of paragraph (a) of this section I. If a paper record is made it must have a paper speed of at least 2 cm/sec and a volume sensitivity of at least 10.0 mm of chart per liter of volume.
</P>
<P>2. Instruments purchased after May 14, 2020 shall provide during testing a paper tracing or real-time display of flow versus volume and volume versus time for the entire forced expiration. Such a tracing or display is necessary to determine whether the worker has performed the test properly. Flow-volume and volume-time curves must be stored and available for recall. Real-time displays shall have a volume scale of at least 5 mm/L, a time scale of at least 10 mm/s, and a flow scale of at least 2.5 mm/L/s, when both flow-volume and volume-time displays are visible. If hand measurements will be made, paper tracings must be of sufficient size to allow those measurements to be made within the volume accuracy requirements of paragraph (a) of this section I. If a paper record is made it must have a paper speed of at least 2 cm/sec and a volume sensitivity of at least 10.0 mm of chart per liter of volume.
</P>
<P>h. 1. Instruments purchased on or before May 14, 2020 shall be capable of accumulating volume for a minimum of 10 seconds and shall not stop accumulating volume before (i) the volume change for a 0.5-second interval is less than 25 milliliters, or (ii) the flow is less than 50 milliliters per second for a 0.5 second interval.
</P>
<P>2. Instruments purchased after May 14, 2020 shall be capable of accumulating volume for a minimum of 15 seconds and shall not stop accumulating volume before the volume change for a 1-second interval is less than 25 milliliters.
</P>
<P>i. The forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>) measurements shall comply with the accuracy requirements stated in paragraph (a) of this section. That is, they should be accurately measured to within ±50 ml or within ±3 percent of reading, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>j. 1. Instruments purchased on or before May 14, 2020 must be capable of being calibrated in the field with respect to the FEV<E T="52">1</E> and FVC. This calibration of the FEV<E T="52">1</E> and FVC may be either directly or indirectly through volume and time base measurements. The volume calibration source should provide a volume displacement of at least 2 liters and should be accurate to within + or−30 milliliters.
</P>
<P>2. Instruments purchased after May 14, 2020 must be capable of having its calibration checked in the field and be recalibrated, if necessary, if the spirometer requires the technician to do so. The volume-calibration syringe shall provide a volume displacement of at least 3 liters and shall be accurate to within ± 0.5 percent of 3 liters (15 milliliters).
</P>
<HD1>II. Technique for Measurement of Forced Vital Capacity Maneuver
</HD1>
<P>a. Use of a nose clip is recommended but not required. The procedures shall be explained in simple terms to the worker who shall be instructed to loosen any tight clothing and stand in front of the apparatus. The worker may sit, but care should be taken on repeat testing that the same position be used and, if possible, the same spirometer. Particular attention shall be given to ensure that the chin is slightly elevated with the neck slightly extended. The worker shall be instructed to make a full inspiration from a normal breathing pattern and then blow into the apparatus, without interruption, as hard, fast, and completely as possible. At least three and no more than eight forced expirations shall be carried out. During the maneuvers, the worker shall be observed for compliance with instruction. The expirations shall be checked visually for technical acceptability and repeatability from flow-volume or volume-time tracings or displays. The following efforts shall be judged technically unacceptable when the worker:
</P>
<P>1. Has not reached full inspiration preceding the forced expiration,
</P>
<P>2. Has not used maximal effort during the entire forced expiration,
</P>
<P>3. Has not tried to exhale continuously for at least 6 seconds and the volume-time curve shows no change in volume (&lt;0.025 L) for at least one second,
</P>
<P>4. Has coughed in the first second or closed the glottis,
</P>
<P>5. Has an obstructed mouthpiece or a leak around the mouthpiece (obstruction due to tongue being placed in front of mouthpiece, false teeth falling in front of mouthpiece, etc.),
</P>
<P>6. Has an unsatisfactory start of expiration, one characterized by excessive hesitation (or false starts), and, therefore, not allowing back extrapolation of time 0 (extrapolated volume on the volume-time tracing must be less than 150 milliliters or 5 percent of the FVC, whichever is greater.), and
</P>
<P>7. Has an excessive variability between the acceptable curves. The difference between the two largest FVCs from the satisfactory tracings shall not exceed 150 milliliters and the difference between the two largest FEV<E T="52">1</E>s of the satisfactory tracings shall not exceed 150 milliliters.
</P>
<P>b. Calibration checks of the volume accuracy of the instrument for recording FVC and FEV<E T="52">1</E> shall be performed daily or more frequently if specified by the spirometer manufacturer, using a 3-liter syringe. Calibration checks to ensure that the spirometer is recording 3 liters of injected air to within ±3.5 percent, or 2.90 to 3.10 liters, shall be conducted. Calibration checks of flow-type spirometers shall include injection of 3 liters air over a range of speeds, with injection times of 0.5 second, 3 seconds, and 6 or more seconds. Checks of volume-type spirometers shall include a single calibration check and a check to verify that the spirometer is not leaking more than 30 milliliters/minute air.
</P>
<HD1>III. Interpretation of Spirogram
</HD1>
<P>a. The first step in evaluating a spirogram should be to determine whether or not the worker has performed the test properly or as described in section II of this appendix. From the three satisfactory tracings, the forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>) shall be measured and recorded. The largest observed FVC and largest observed FEV<E T="52">1</E> shall be used in the analysis regardless of the curve(s) on which they occur.
</P>
<P>b. [Reserved]
</P>
<HD1>IV. Qualifications of Personnel Administering the Test
</HD1>
<P>Technicians who perform pulmonary function testing should have the basic knowledge required to produce meaningful results. Training consisting of approximately 16 hours of formal instruction should cover the following areas.
</P>
<P>a. Basic physiology of the forced vital-capacity maneuver and the determinants of airflow limitation, with emphasis on the relation to repeatability of results.
</P>
<P>b. Instrumentation requirements, including calibration check procedures, sources of error, and their correction.
</P>
<P>c. Performance of the testing including worker coaching, recognition of improperly performed maneuvers and corrective actions.
</P>
<P>d. Data quality with emphasis on repeatability.
</P>
<P>e. Actual use of the equipment under supervised conditions.
</P>
<P>f. Measurement of tracings and calculations of results.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 27394, June 23, 1978; 43 FR 35035, Aug. 8, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 67340, Oct. 10, 1980; 50 FR 51173, Dec. 13, 1985; 51 FR 24325, July 3, 1986; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1290, Jan. 8, 1998; 65 FR 76567, Dec. 7, 2000; 70 FR 1142, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50189, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75586, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17782, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21490, May 14, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1044" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1044   1,2-dibromo-3-chloropropane.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to occupational exposure to 1,2-dibromo-3-chloropropane (DBCP).
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Exposure to DBCP which results solely from the application and use of DBCP as a pesticide; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The storage, transportation, distribution or sale of DBCP in intact containers sealed in such a manner as to prevent exposure to DBCP vapors or liquid, except for the requirements of paragraphs (i), (n) and (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Authorized person</I> means any person required by his duties to be present in regulated areas and authorized to do so by his employer, by this section, or by the Act. <I>Authorized person</I> also includes any person entering such areas as a designated representative of employees exercising an opportunity to observe employee exposure monitoring.
</P>
<P><I>DBCP</I> means 1,2-dibromo-3-chloropropane, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 96-12-8, and includes all forms of DBCP.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment which may, or does, result in an unexpected release of DBCP.
</P>
<P><I>OSHA Area Office</I> means the Area Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration having jurisdiction over the geographic area where the affected workplace is located.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit</I>—(1) <I>Inhalation.</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of DBCP in excess of 1 part DBCP per billion parts of air (ppb) as an 8-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dermal and eye exposure.</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to eye or skin contact with DBCP.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) The employer shall establish, within each place of employment, regulated areas wherever DBCP concentrations are in excess of the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall limit access to regulated areas to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of airborne exposure levels shall be made from air samples that are representative of each employee's exposure to DBCP over an 8-hour period.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this paragraph, employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial.</I> Each employer who has a place of employment in which DBCP is present, shall monitor each workplace and work operation to accurately determine the airborne concentrations of DBCP to which employees may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency.</I> (i) If the monitoring required by this section reveals employee exposures to be at or below the permissible exposure limit, the employer must repeat these measurements at least every 6 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the monitoring required by this section reveals employee exposures to be in excess of the permissible exposure limit, the employer must repeat these measurements for each such employee at least quarterly. The employer must continue quarterly monitoring until at least two consecutive measurements, taken at least seven (7) days apart, are at or below the permissible exposure limit. Thereafter the employer must monitor at least every 6 months.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional.</I> Whenever there has been a production, process, control, or personnel change which may result in any new or additional exposure to DBCP, or whenever the employer has any reason to suspect new or additional exposures to DBCP, the employer shall monitor the employees potentially affected by such change for the purpose of redetermining their exposure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the results indicate that employee exposure exceeds the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that the permissible exposure limit was exceeded and a description of the corrective action being taken to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> The employer shall use a method of measurement which has an accuracy, to a confidence level of 95 percent, of not less than plus or minus 25 percent for concentrations of DBCP at or above the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Priority of compliance methods.</I> The employer shall institute engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposures to DBCP at or below the permissible exposure limit, except to the extent that the employer establishes that such controls are not feasible. Where feasible engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to within the permissible exposure limit, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest level achievable by these controls, and shall supplement them by use of respiratory protection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce employee exposures to DBCP to or below the permissible exposure limit solely by means of engineering and work practice controls as required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written program shall include a detailed schedule for development and implementation of the engineering and work practice controls. These plans must be revised at least annually to reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written plans for these compliance programs shall be submitted upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Assistant Secretary, the Director, and any affected employee or designated representative of employees.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall institute and maintain at least the controls described in his most recent written compliance program.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who are required to use respirators by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintenance and repair activities for which engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> Employers must:
</P>
<P>(i) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate atmosphere-supplying respirator specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide employees with one of the following respirator options to use for entry into, or escape from, unknown DBCP concentrations:
</P>
<P>(A) A combination respirator that includes a supplied-air respirator with a full facepiece operated in a pressure-demand or other positive-pressure or continuous-flow mode, as well as an auxiliary self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) operated in a pressure-demand or positive-pressure mode.
</P>
<P>(B) An SCBA with a full facepiece operated in a pressure-demand or other positive-pressure mode. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency situations</I>—(1) <I>Written plans.</I> (i) A written plan for emergency situations shall be developed for each workplace in which DBCP is present.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate portions of the plan shall be implemented in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(2) Employees engaged in correcting emergency conditions shall be equipped as required in paragraphs (h) and (j) of this section until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Evacuation.</I> Employees not engaged in correcting the emergency shall be removed and restricted from the area and normal operations in the affected area shall not be resumed until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alerting employees.</I> Where there is a possibility of employee exposure to DBCP due to the occurrence of an emergency, a general alarm shall be installed and maintained to promptly alert employees of such occurrences.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> For any employee exposed to DBCP in an emergency situation, the employer shall provide medical surveillance in accordance with paragraph (m)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) Following an emergency, the employer shall conduct monitoring which complies with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In workplaces not normally subject to periodic monitoring, the employer may terminate monitoring when two consecutive measurements indicate exposures below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protective clothing and equipments</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where there is any possibility of eye or dermal contact with liquid or solid DBCP, the employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, and assure that the employee wears impermeable protective clothing and equipment to protect the area of the body which may come in contact with DBCP. Eye and face protection shall meet the requirements of § 1910.133 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees remove DBCP contaminated work clothing only in change rooms provided in accordance with paragraph (l) (1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that employees promptly remove any protective clothing and equipment which becomes contaminated with DBCP-containing liquids and solids. This clothing shall not be reworn until the DBCP has been removed from the clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that no employee takes DBCP contaminated protective devices and work clothing out of the change room, except those employees authorized to do so for the purpose of laundering, maintenance, of disposal.
</P>
<P>(iv) DBCP-contaminated protective devices and work clothing shall be placed and stored in closed containers which prevent dispersion of the DBCP outside the container.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers of DBCP-contaminated protective devices or work clothing which are to be taken out of change rooms or the workplace for cleaning, maintenance or disposal shall bear labels with the following information: CONTAMINATED WITH 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (DBCP), MAY CAUSE CANCER.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall clean, launder, repair, or replace protective clothing and equipment required by this paragraph to maintain their effectiveness. The employer shall provide clean protective clothing and equipment at least daily to each affected employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall inform any person who launders or clean DBCP-contaminated protective clothing or equipment of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to DBCP.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of DBCP from protective clothing and equipment by blowing or shaking.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>Surfaces.</I> (i) All workplace surfaces shall be maintained free of visible accumulations of DBCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dry sweeping and the use of compressed air for the cleaning of floors and other surfaces is prohibited where DBCP dusts or liquids are present.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where vacuuming methods are selected to clean floors and other surfaces, either portable units or a permanent system may be used.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) If a portable unit is selected, the exhaust shall be attached to the general workplace exhaust ventilation system or collected within the vacuum unit, equipped with high efficiency filters or other appropriate means of contaminant removal, so that DBCP is not reintroduced into the workplace air; and
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Portable vacuum units used to collect DBCP may not be used for other cleaning purposes and shall be labeled as prescribed by paragraph (j)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Cleaning of floors and other surfaces contaminated with DBCP-containing dusts shall not be performed by washing down with a hose, unless a fine spray has first been laid down.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquids.</I> Where DBCP is present in a liquid form, or as a resultant vapor, all containers or vessels containing DBCP shall be enclosed to the maximum extent feasible and tightly covered when not in use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waste disposal.</I> DBCP waste scrap, debris, containers or equipment, shall be disposed of in sealed bags or other closed containers which prevent dispersion of DBCP outside the container.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices</I>—(1) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall provide clean change rooms equipped with storage facilities for street clothes and separate storage facilities for protective clothing and equipment whenever employees are required to wear protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraphs (h) and (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees working in the regulated area shower at the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that employees whose skin becomes contaminated with DBCP-containing liquids or solids immediately wash or shower to remove any DBCP from the skin.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide shower facilities in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.141(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lunchrooms.</I> The employer shall provide lunchroom facilities which have a temperature controlled, positive pressure, filtered air supply, and which are readily accessible to employees working in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lavatories.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees working in the regulated area remove protective clothing and wash their hands and face prior to eating.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide a sufficient number of lavatory facilities which comply with 29 CFR 1910.141(d) (1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibition of activities in regulated areas.</I> The employer shall assure that, in regulated areas, food or beverages are not present or consumed, smoking products and implements are not present or used, and cosmetics are not present or applied.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make available a medical surveillance program for employees who work in regulated areas and employees who are subjected to DBCP exposures in an emergency situation.
</P>
<P>(ii) All medical examinations and procedures shall be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and shall be provided without cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency and content.</I> At the time of initial assignment, and annually thereafter, the employer shall provide a medical examination for employees who work in regulated areas, which includes at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A medical and occupational history including reproductive history.
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical examination, including examination of the genito-urinary tract, testicle size and body habitus, including a determination of sperm count.
</P>
<P>(iii) A serum specimen shall be obtained and the following determinations made by radioimmunoassay techniques utilizing National Institutes of Health (NIH) specific antigen or one of equivalent sensitivity:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Serum follicle stimulating hormone (FSH);
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Serum luteinizing hormone (LH); and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Serum total estrogen (females).
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional examinations.</I> If the employee for any reason develops signs or symptoms commonly associated with exposure to DBCP, the employer shall provide the employee with a medical examination which shall include those elements considered appropriate by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this regulation and its appendices;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The level of DBCP to which the employee is exposed; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) For each examination under this section, the employer shall obtain and provide the employee with a written opinion from the examining physician which shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The results of the medical tests performed;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition which would place the employee at an increased risk of material impairment of health from exposure to DBCP; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to DBCP or upon the use of protective clothing and equipment such as respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Emergency situations.</I> If the employee is exposed to DBCP in an emergency situation, the employer shall provide the employee with a sperm count test as soon as practicable, or, if the employee has been vasectionized or is unable to produce a semen specimen, the hormone tests contained in paragraph (m)(2)(iii) of this section. The employer shall provide these same tests three months later.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Employee information and training</I>—(1) <I>Training program.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee who may be exposed to DBCP in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The information contained in appendix A;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The quantity, location, manner of use, release or storage of DBCP and the specific nature of operations which could result in exposure to DBCP as well as any necessary protective steps;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The purpose, proper use, and limitations of respirators;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) The purpose and description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (m) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) A review of this standard, including appendices.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make a copy of this standard and its appendices readily available to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for DBCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of DBCP at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; reproductive effects; liver effects; kidney effects; central nervous system effects; skin, eye and respiratory tract irritation; and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include DBCP in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of DBCP and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that no statement appears on or near any sign or label required by this paragraph (o) which contradicts or detracts from the meaning of the required sign or label.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post signs to clearly indicate all regulated areas. These signs shall bear the legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (o)(2) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Insert appropriate trade or common names) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATOR REQUIRED</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Labels.</I> (i) Where DBCP or products containing DBCP are sold, distributed or otherwise leave the employer's workplace bearing appropriate labels required by EPA under the regulations in 40 CFR Part 162, the labels required by this paragraph (o)(3) need not be affixed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that the precautionary labels required by this paragraph (o)(3) are readily visible and legible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on containers of DBCP or products containing DBCP, DBCP-contaminated protective devices or work clothing or DBCP-contaminated portable vacuums in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (j)(2)(v), (k)(l)(iii)(b) and (o)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(p) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all monitoring required by paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The dates, number, duration and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the sampling procedure used to determine representative employee exposure;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Name and job classification of the employee monitored and of all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least 40 years or the duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance required by paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) A copy of the physician's written opinion;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to DBCP;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A copy of the information provided the physician as required by paragraphs (m)(4)(ii) through (m)(4)(iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) A copy of the employee's medical and work history.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least 40 years or the duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that all records required to be maintained by this section be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee exposure monitoring records and employee medical records required by this paragraph shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (i) If the employer ceases to do business, the successor employer shall receive and retain all records required to be maintained by paragraph (p) of this section for the prescribed period.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall also comply with any additional requirements involving transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees, or their designated representatives, with an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to DBCP required by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> (i) Whenever observation of the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to DBCP requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with personal protective clothing or equipment required to be worn by employees working in the area, assure the use of such clothing and equipment, and require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without interfering with the monitoring or measurement, observers shall be entitled to:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Receive an explanation of the measurement procedures;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Observe all steps related to the measurement of airborne concentrations of DBCP performed at the place of exposure; and
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Record the results obtained.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligation.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1044—Substance Safety Data Sheet For DBCP
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Substance Identification
</HD1>
<P>A. Synonyms and trades names: DBCP; Dibromochloropropane; Fumazone (Dow Chemical Company TM); Nemafume; Nemagon (Shell Chemical Co. TM); Nemaset; BBC 12; and OS 1879.
</P>
<P>B. Permissible exposure:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Airborne.</I> 1 part DBCP vapor per billion parts of air (1 ppb); time-weighted average (TWA) for an 8-hour workday.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Dermal.</I> Eye contact and skin contact with DBCP are prohibited.
</P>
<P>C. Appearance and odor: Technical grade DBCP is a dense yellow or amber liquid with a pungent odor. It may also appear in granular form, or blended in varying concentrations with other liquids.
</P>
<P>D. Uses: DBCP is used to control nematodes, very small worm-like plant parasites, on crops including cotton, soybeans, fruits, nuts, vegetables and ornamentals.
</P>
<HD1>ii. Health Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Routes of entry: Employees may be exposed:
</P>
<P>1. Through inhalation (breathing);
</P>
<P>2. Through ingestion (swallowing);
</P>
<P>3. Skin contact; and
</P>
<P>4. Eye contact.
</P>
<P>B. Effects of exposure:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Acute exposure.</I> DBCP may cause drowsiness, irritation of the eyes, nose, throat and skin, nausea and vomiting. In addition, overexposure may cause damage to the lungs, liver or kidneys.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Chronic exposure.</I> Prolonged or repeated exposure to DBCP has been shown to cause sterility in humans. It also has been shown to produce cancer and sterility in laboratory animals and has been determined to constitute an increased risk of cancer in man.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reporting Signs and Symptoms.</I> If you develop any of the above signs or symptoms that you think are caused by exposure to DBCP, you should inform your employer.
</P>
<HD1>iii. Emergency First Aid Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Eye exposure.</I> If DBCP liquid or dust containing DBCP gets into your eyes, wash your eyes immediately with large amounts of water, lifting the lower and upper lids occasionally. Get medical attention immediately. Contact lenses should not be worn when working with DBCP.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Skin exposure.</I> If DBCP liquids or dusts containing DBCP get on your skin, immediately wash using soap or mild detergent and water. If DBCP liquids or dusts containing DBCP penetrate through your clothing, remove the clothing immediately and wash. If irritation is present after washing get medical attention.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Breathing.</I> If you or any person breathe in large amounts of DBCP, move the exposed person to fresh air at once. If breathing has stopped, perform artificial respiration. Do not use mouth-to-mouth. Keep the affected person warm and at rest. Get medical attention as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Swallowing.</I> When DBCP has been swallowed and the person is conscious, give the person large amounts of water immediately. After the water has been swallowed, try to get the person to vomit by having him touch the back of his throat with his finger. Do not make an unconscious person vomit. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Rescue.</I> Notify someone. Put into effect the established emergency rescue procedures. Know the locations of the emergency rescue equipment before the need arises.
</P>
<HD1>iv. Respirators and Protective Clothing
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Respirators.</I> You may be required to wear a respirator in emergencies and while your employer is in the process of reducing DBCP exposures through engineering controls. If respirators are worn, they must have a National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) approval label (Older respirators may have a Bureau of Mines Approval label). For effective protection, a respirator must fit your face and head snugly. The respirator should not be loosened or removed in work situations where its use is required. DBCP does not have a detectable odor except at 1,000 times or more above the permissible exposure limit. If you can smell DBCP while wearing a respirator, the respirator is not working correctly; go immediately to fresh air. If you experience difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator, tell your employer.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Protective clothing.</I> When working with DBCP you must wear for your protection impermeable work clothing provided by your employer. (Standard rubber and neoprene protective clothing do not offer adequate protection).
</P>
<P>DBCP must never be allowed to remain on the skin. Clothing and shoes must not be allowed to become contaminated with DBCP, and if they do, they must be promptly removed and not worn again until completely free of DBCP. Turn in impermeable clothing that has developed leaks for repair or replacement.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Eye protection.</I> You must wear splash-proof safety goggles where there is any possibility of DBCP liquid or dust contacting your eyes.
</P>
<HD1>v. Precautions for Safe Use, Handling, and Storage
</HD1>
<P>A. DBCP must be stored in tightly closed containers in a cool, well-ventilated area.
</P>
<P>B. If your work clothing may have become contaminated with DBCP, or liquids or dusts containing DBCP, you must change into uncontaminated clothing before leaving the work premises.
</P>
<P>C. You must promptly remove any protective clothing that becomes contaminated with DBCP. This clothing must not be reworn until the DBCP is removed from the clothing.
</P>
<P>D. If your skin becomes contaminated with DBCP, you must immediately and thoroughly wash or shower with soap or mild detergent and water to remove any DBCP from your skin.
</P>
<P>E. You must not keep food, beverages, cosmetics, or smoking materials, nor eat or smoke, in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>F. If you work in a regulated area, you must wash your hands thoroughly with soap or mild detergent and water, before eating, smoking or using toilet facilities.
</P>
<P>G. If you work in a regulated area, you must remove any protective equipment or clothing before leaving the regulated area.
</P>
<P>H. Ask your supervisor where DBCP is used in your work area and for any additional safety and health rules.
</P>
<HD1>vi. Access to Information
</HD1>
<P>A. Each year, your employer is required to inform you of the information contained in this Substance Safety Data Sheet for DBCP. In addition, your employer must instruct you in the safe use of DBCP, emergency procedures, and the correct use of protective equipment.
</P>
<P>B. Your employer is required to determine whether you are being exposed to DBCP. You or your representative have the right to observe employee exposure measurements and to record the result obtained. Your employer is required to inform you of your exposure. If your employer determines that you are being overexposed, he is required to inform you of the actions which are being taken to reduce your exposure.
</P>
<P>C. Your employer is required to keep records of your exposure and medical examinations. Your employer is required to keep exposure and medical data for at least 40 years or the duration of your employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>D. Your employer is required to release exposure and medical records to you, your physician, or other individual designated by you upon your written request.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1044—Substance Technical Guidelines for DBCP
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Physical and Chemical Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance Identification
</P>
<P>1. Synonyms: 1,2-dibromo-3-chloropropane; DBCP, Fumazone; Nemafume; Nemagon; Nemaset; BBC 12; OS 1879. DBCP is also included in agricultural pesticides and fumigants which include the phrase “Nema—” in their name.
</P>
<P>2. Formula: C3H5Br2 C1.
</P>
<P>3. Molecular Weight: 236.
</P>
<P>B. Physical Data:
</P>
<P>1. Boiling point (760 mm HG): 195C (383F)
</P>
<P>2. Specific gravity (water = 1): 2.093.
</P>
<P>3. Vapor density (air = 1 at boiling point of DBCP): Data not available.
</P>
<P>4. Melting point: 6C (43F).
</P>
<P>5. Vapor pressure at 20C (68F): 0.8 mm Hg
</P>
<P>6. Solubility in water: 1000 ppm.
</P>
<P>7. Evaporation rate (Butyl Acetate = 1): very much less than 1.
</P>
<P>8. Appearance and odor: Dense yellow or amber liquid with a pungent odor at high concentrations. Any detectable odor of DBCP indicates overexposure.
</P>
<HD1>ii. Fire Explosion and Reactivity Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Fire
</P>
<P>1. Flash point: 170F (77C)
</P>
<P>2. Autoignition temperature: Data not available.
</P>
<P>3. Flammable limits in air, percent by volume: Data not available.
</P>
<P>4. Extinguishing media: Carbon dioxide, dry chemical.
</P>
<P>5. Special fire-fighting procedures: Do not use a solid stream of water since a stream will scatter and spread the fire. Use water spray to cool containers exposed to a fire.
</P>
<P>6. Unusual fire and explosion hazards: None known.
</P>
<P>7. For purposes of complying with the requirements of § 1910.106, liquid DBCP is classified as a Category 4 flammable liquid.
</P>
<P>8. For the purpose of complying with § 1910.309, the classification of hazardous locations as described in article 500 of the National Electrical Code for DBCP shall be Class I, Group D.
</P>
<P>9. For the purpose of compliance with § 1910.157, DBCP is classified as a Class B fire hazard.
</P>
<P>10. For the purpose of compliance with § 1910.178, locations classified as hazardous locations due to the presence of DBCP shall be Class I, Group D.
</P>
<P>11. Sources of ignition are prohibited where DBCP presents a fire or explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>B. Reactivity
</P>
<P>1. Conditions contributing to instability: None known.
</P>
<P>2. Incompatibilities: Reacts with chemically active metals, such as aluminum, magnesium and tin alloys.
</P>
<P>3. Hazardous decomposition products: Toxic gases and vapors (such as HBr, HCl and carbon monoxide) may be released in a fire involving DBCP.
</P>
<P>4. Special precautions: DBCP will attack some rubber materials and coatings.
</P>
<HD1>iii. Spill, Leak and Disposal Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. If DBCP is spilled or leaked, the following steps should be taken:
</P>
<P>1. The area should be evacuated at once and re-entered only after thorough ventilation.
</P>
<P>2. Ventilate area of spill or leak.
</P>
<P>3. If in liquid form, collect for reclamation or absorb in paper, vermiculite, dry sand, earth or similar material.
</P>
<P>4. If in solid form, collect spilled material in the most convenient and safe manner for reclamation or for disposal.
</P>
<P>B. Persons not wearing protective equipment must be restricted from areas of spills or leaks until cleanup has been completed.
</P>
<P>C. Waste Disposal Methods:
</P>
<P>1. For small quantities of liquid DBCP, absorb on paper towels, remove to a safe place (such as a fume hood) and burn the paper. Large quantities can be reclaimed or collected and atomized in a suitable combustion chamber equipped with an appropriate effluent gas cleaning device. If liquid DBCP is absorbed in vermiculite, dry sand, earth or similar material and placed in sealed containers it may be disposed of in a State-approved sanitary landfill.
</P>
<P>2. If in solid form, for small quantities, place on paper towels, remove to a safe place (such as a fume hood) and burn. Large quantities may be reclaimed. However, if this is not practical, dissolve in a flammable solvent (such as alcohol) and atomize in a suitable combustion chamber equipped with an appropriate effluent gas cleaning device. DBCP in solid form may also be disposed in a state-approved sanitary landfill.
</P>
<HD1>iv. Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. Exposure above the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Eight Hour Exposure Evaluation:</I> Measurements taken for the purpose of determining employee exposure under this section are best taken so that the average 8-hour exposure may be determined from a single 8-hour sample or two (2) 4-hour samples. Air samples should be taken in the employee's breathing zone (air that would most nearly represent that inhaled by the employee).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Monitoring Techniques:</I> The sampling and analysis under this section may be performed by collecting the DBCP vapor on petroleum based charcoal absorption tubes with subsequent chemical analyses. The method of measurement chosen should determine the concentration of airborne DBCP at the permissible exposure limit to an accuracy of plus or minus 25 percent. If charcoal tubes are used, a total volume of 10 liters should be collected at a flow rate of 50 cc. per minute for each tube. Analyze the resultant samples as you would samples of halogenated solvent.
</P>
<P>B. Since many of the duties relating to employee protection are dependent on the results of monitoring and measuring procedures, employers should assure that the evaluation of employee exposures is performed by a competent industrial hygienist or other technically qualified person.
</P>
<HD1>v. Protective Clothing
</HD1>
<P>Employees should be required to wear appropriate protective clothing to prevent any possibility of skin contact with DBCP. Because DBCP is absorbed through the skin, it is important to prevent skin contact with both liquid and solid forms of DBCP. Protective clothing should include impermeable coveralls or similar fullbody work clothing, gloves, headcoverings, and workshoes or shoe coverings. Standard rubber and neoprene gloves do not offer adequate protection and should not be relied upon to keep DBCP off the skin. DBCP should never be allowed to remain on the skin. Clothing and shoes should not be allowed to become contaminated with the material, and if they do, they should be promptly removed and not worn again until completely free of the material. Any protective clothing which has developed leaks or is otherwise found to be defective should be repaired or replaced. Employees should also be required to wear splash-proof safety goggles where there is any possibility of DBCP contacting the eyes.
</P>
<HD1>vi. Housekeeping and Hygiene Facilities
</HD1>
<P>1. The workplace must be kept clean, orderly and in a sanitary condition;
</P>
<P>2. Dry sweeping and the use of compressed air is unsafe for the cleaning of floors and other surfaces where DBCP dust or liquids are found. To minimize the contamination of air with dust, vacuuming with either portable or permanent systems must be used. If a portable unit is selected, the exhaust must be attached to the general workplace exhaust ventilation system, or collected within the vacuum unit equipped with high efficiency filters or other appropriate means of contamination removal and not used for other purposes. Units used to collect DBCP must be labeled.
</P>
<P>3. Adequate washing facilities with hot and cold water must be provided, and maintained in a sanitary condition. Suitable cleansing agents should also be provided to assure the effective removal of DBCP from the skin.
</P>
<P>4. Change or dressing rooms with individual clothes storage facilities must be provided to prevent the contamination of street clothes with DBCP. Because of the hazardous nature of DBCP, contaminated protective clothing must be stored in closed containers for cleaning or disposal.
</P>
<HD1>vii. Miscellaneous Precautions
</HD1>
<P>A. Store DBCP in tightly closed containers in a cool, well ventilated area.
</P>
<P>B. Use of supplied-air suits or other impervious clothing (such as acid suits) may be necessary to prevent skin contact with DBCP. Supplied-air suits should be selected, used, and maintained under the supervision of persons knowlegeable in the limitations and potential life-endangering characteristics of supplied-air suits.
</P>
<P>C. The use of air-conditioned suits may be necessary in warmer climates.
</P>
<P>D. Advise employees of all areas and operations where exposure to DBCP could occur.
</P>
<HD1>viii. Common Operations
</HD1>
<P>Common operations in which exposure to DBCP is likely to occur are: during its production; and during its formulation into pesticides and fumigants.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1044—Medical Surveillance Guidelines For DBCP
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Route of Entry
</HD1>
<P>Inhalation; skin absorption
</P>
<HD1>ii. Toxicology
</HD1>
<P>Recent data collected on workers involved in the manufacture and formulation of DBCP has shown that DBCP can cause sterility at very low levels of exposure. This finding is supported by studies showing that DBCP causes sterility in animals. Chronic exposure to DBCP resulted in pronounced necrotic action on the parenchymatous organs (<I>i.e.</I>, liver, kidney, spleen) and on the testicles of rats at concentrations as low as 5 ppm. Rats that were chronically exposed to DBCP also showed changes in the composition of the blood, showing low RBC, hemoglobin, and WBC, and high reticulocyte levels as well as functional hepatic disturbance, manifesting itself in a long prothrombin time. Reznik et al. noted a single dose of 100 mg produced profound depression of the nervous system of rats. Their condition gradually improved. Acute exposure also resulted in the destruction of the sex gland activity of male rats as well as causing changes in the estrous cycle in female rats. Animal studies have also associated DBCP with an increased incidence of carcinoma. Olson, et al. orally administered DBCP to rats and mice 5 times per week at experimentally predetermined maximally tolerated doses and at half those doses. As early as ten weeks after initiation of treatment, DBCP induced a high incidence of squamous cell carcinomas of the stomach with metastases in both species. DBCP also induced mammary adenocarcinomas in the female rats at both dose levels.
</P>
<HD1>iii. Signs and Symptoms
</HD1>
<P>A. Inhalation: Nausea, eye irritation, conjunctivitis, respiratory irritation, pulmonary congestion or edema, CNS depression with apathy, sluggishness, and ataxia.
</P>
<P>B. Dermal: Erythema or inflammation and dermatitis on repeated exposure.
</P>
<HD1>iv. Special Tests
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Semen analysis:</I> The following information excerpted from the document “Evaluation of Testicular Function”, submitted by the Corporate Medical Department of the Shell Oil Company (exhibit 39-3), may be useful to physicians conducting the medical surveillance program;
</P>
<P>In performing semen analyses certain minimal but specific criteria should be met:
</P>
<P>1. It is recommended that a minimum of three valid semen analyses be obtained in order to make a determination of an individual's average sperm count.
</P>
<P>2. A period of sexual abstinence is necessary prior to the collection of each masturbatory sample. It is recommended that intercourse or masturbation be performed 48 hours before the actual specimen collection. A period of 48 hours of abstinence would follow; then the masturbatory sample would be collected.
</P>
<P>3. Each semen specimen should be collected in a clean, widemouthed, glass jar (not necessarily pre-sterilized) in a manner designated by the examining physician. Any part of the seminal fluid exam should be initialed <I>only after liquifaction</I> is complete, i.e., 30 to 45 minutes after collection.
</P>
<P>4. Semen volume should be measured to the nearest 
<FR>1/10</FR> of a cubic centimeter.
</P>
<P>5. Sperm density should be determined using routine techniques involving the use of a white cell pipette and a hemocytometer chamber. The immobilizing fluid most effective and most easily obtained for this process is distilled water.
</P>
<P>6. Thin, dry smears of the semen should be made for a morphologic classification of the sperm forms and should be stained with either hematoxalin or the more difficult, yet more precise, Papanicolaou technique. Also of importance to record is obvious sperm agglutination, pyospermia, delayed liquifaction (greater than 30 minutes), and hyperviscosity. In addition, pH, using nitrazine paper, should be determined.
</P>
<P>7. A total morphology evaluation should include percentages of the following:
</P>
<P>a. Normal (oval) forms,
</P>
<P>b. Tapered forms,
</P>
<P>c. Amorphous forms (include large and small sperm shapes),
</P>
<P>d. Duplicated (either heads or tails) forms, and
</P>
<P>e. Immature forms.
</P>
<P>8. Each sample should be evaluated for sperm <I>viability</I> (percent viable sperm moving at the time of examination) as well as sperm <I>motility</I> (subjective characterization of “purposeful forward sperm progression” of the majority of those viable sperm analyzed) within two hours after collection, ideally by the same or equally qualified examiner.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Serum determinations:</I> The following serum determinations should be performed by radioimmuno-assay techniques using National Institutes of Health (NIH) specific antigen or antigen preparations of equivalent sensitivity:
</P>
<P>1. Serum follicle stimulating hormone (FSH);
</P>
<P>2. Serum luteinizing hormone (LH); and
</P>
<P>3. Serum total estrogen (females only).
</P>
<HD1>v. Treatment
</HD1>
<P>Remove from exposure immediately, give oxygen or artificial resuscitation if indicated. Contaminated clothing and shoes should be removed immediately. Flush eyes and wash contaminated skin. If swallowed and the person is conscious, induce vomiting. Recovery from mild exposures is usually rapid and complete.
</P>
<HD1>vi. Surveillance and Preventive Considerations
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Other considerations.</I> DBCP can cause both acute and chronic effects. It is important that the physician become familiar with the operating conditions in which exposure to DBCP occurs. Those with respiratory disorders may not tolerate the wearing of negative pressure respirators.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Surveillance and screening.</I> Medical histories and laboratory examinations are required for each employee subject to exposure to DBCP. The employer should screen employees for history of certain medical conditions (listed below) which might place the employee at increased risk from exposure.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Liver disease.</I> The primary site of biotransformation and detoxification of DBCP is the liver. Liver dysfunctions likely to inhibit the conjugation reactions will tend to promote the toxic actions of DBCP. These precautions should be considered before exposing persons with impaired liver function to DBCP.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renal disease.</I> Because DBCP has been associated with injury to the kidney it is important that special consideration be given to those with possible impairment of renal function.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Skin desease.</I> DBCP can penetrate the skin and can cause erythema on prolonged exposure. Persons with pre-existing skin disorders may be more susceptible to the effects of DBCP.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Blood dyscrasias.</I> DBCP has been shown to decrease the content of erythrocytes, hemoglobin, and leukocytes in the blood, as well as increase the prothrombin time. Persons with existing blood disorders may be more susceptible to the effects of DBCP.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reproductive disorders.</I> Animal studies have associated DBCP with various effects on the reproductive organs. Among these effects are atrophy of the testicles and changes in the estrous cycle. Persons with pre-existing reproductive disorders may be at increased risk to these effects of DBCP.
</P>
<HD1>References
</HD1>
<P>1. Reznik, Ya. B. and Sprinchan, G. K.: Experimental Data on the Gonadotoxic effect of Nemagon, <I>Gig. Sanit.,</I> (6), 1975, pp. 101-102, (translated from Russian).
</P>
<P>2. Faydysh, E. V., Rakhmatullaev, N. N. and Varshavskii, V. A.: The Cytotoxic Action of Nemagon in a Subacute Experiment, <I>Med. Zh. Uzbekistana,</I> (No. 1), 1970, pp. 64-65, (translated from Russian).
</P>
<P>3. Rakhmatullaev, N. N.: Hygienic Characteristics of the Nematocide Nemagon in Relation to Water Pollution Control, <I>Hyg. Sanit.,</I> 36(3), 1971, pp. 344-348, (translated from Russian).
</P>
<P>4. Olson, W. A. <I>et al.:</I> Induction of Stomach Cancer in Rats and Mice by Halogenated Aliphatic Fumigants, <I>Journal of the National Cancer Institute,</I> (51), 1973, pp. 1993-1995.
</P>
<P>5. Torkelson, T. R. <I>et al.:</I> Toxicologic Investigations of 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane, <I>Toxicology and Applied Pharmacology, 3, 1961 pp. 545-559.</I></P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11527, Mar. 17, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 35283, May 23, 1980; 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 58 FR 35310, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1291, Jan. 8, 1998; 70 FR 1142, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16772, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50189, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75586, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17782, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 9313, Feb. 8, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1045" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1045   Acrylonitrile.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all occupational exposures to acrylonitrile (AN), Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 000107131, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to exposures which result solely from the processing, use, and handling of the following materials:
</P>
<P>(i) ABS resins, SAN resins, nitrile barrier resins, solid nitrile elastomers, and acrylic and modacrylic fibers, when these listed materials are in the form of finished polymers, and products fabricated from such finished polymers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Materials made from and/or containing AN for which objective data is reasonably relied upon to demonstrate that the material is not capable of releasing AN in airborne concentrations in excess of 1 ppm as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average, under the expected conditions of processing, use, and handling which will cause the greatest possible release; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Solid materials made from and/or containing AN which will not be heated above 170 °F during handling, use, or processing.
</P>
<P>(3) An employer relying upon exemption under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) shall maintain records of the objective data supporting that exemption, and of the basis of the employer's reliance on the data, as provided in paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Acrylonitrile</I> or <I>AN</I> means acrylonitrile monomer, chemical formula CH<E T="52">2</E> = CHCN.
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of AN of 1 ppm as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter a regulated area, or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the opportunity to observe monitoring procedures under paragraph (r) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination</I> means treatment of materials and surfaces by water washdown, ventilation, or other means, to assure that the materials will not expose employees to airborne concentrations of AN above 1 means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment, which results in an unexpected massive release of AN.
</P>
<P><I>Liquid AN</I> means AN monomer in liquid form, and liquid or semiliquid polymer intermediates, including slurries, suspensions, emulsions, and solutions, produced during the polymerization of AN.
</P>
<P><I>OSHA Area Office</I> means the Area Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration having jurisdiction over the geographic area where the affected workplace is located.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits</I>—(1) <I>Inhalation.</I> (i) <I>Time weighted average limit (TWA).</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of acrylonitrile in excess of two (2) parts acrylonitrile per million parts of air (2 ppm) as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ceiling limit.</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of acrylonitrile in excess of ten (10) ppm as averaged over any fifteen (15)-minute period during the work day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dermal and eye exposure.</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to skin contact or eye contact with liquid AN.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of airborne exposure levels shall be made from air samples that are representative of each employee's exposure to AN over an eight (8)-hour period.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this section, employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> Each employer who has a place of employment in which AN is present shall monitor each such workplace and work operation to accurately determine the airborne concentrations of AN to which employees may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency.</I> (i) If the monitoring required by this section reveals employee exposure to be below the action level, the employer may discontinue monitoring for that employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the monitoring required by this section reveals employee exposure to be at or above the action level but at or below the permissible exposure limits, the employer must repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every 6 months. The employer must continue these measurements every 6 months until at least two consecutive measurements taken at least seven (7) days a part, are below the action level, and thereafter the employer may discontinue monitoring for that employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the monitoring required by this section reveals employee exposure to be in excess of the permissible exposure limits, the employer must repeat these determinations for each such employee at least quarterly. The employer must continue these quarterly measurements until at least two consecutive measurements, taken at least seven (7) days apart, are at or below the permissible exposure limits, and thereafter the employer must monitor at least every 6 months.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> Whenever there has been a production, process, control, or personnel change which may result in new or additional exposures to AN, or whenever the employer has any other reason to suspect a change which may result in new or additional exposures to AN, additional monitoring which complies with this paragraph shall be conducted.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the results indicate that the representative employee exposure exceeds the permissible exposure limits, the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that the permissible exposure limits were exceeded and a description of the corrective action being taken to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> The method of measurement of employee exposures shall be accurate to a confidence level of 95 percent, to within plus or minus 35 percent for concentrations of AN at or above the permissible exposure limits, and plus or minus 50 percent for concentrations of AN below the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) The employer shall establish regulated areas where AN concentrations are in excess of the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(2) Regulated areas shall be demarcated and segregated from the rest of the workplace, in any manner that minimizes the number of persons who will be exposed to AN.
</P>
<P>(3) Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons or to persons otherwise authorized by the act or regulations issued pursuant thereto.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that food or beverages are not present or consumed, tobacco products are not present or used, and cosmetics are not applied in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> (i) By November 2, 1980, the employer shall institute engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposures to AN, to or below the permissible exposure limits, except to the extent that the employer establishes that such controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever the engineering and work practice controls which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limits, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce exposures to the lowest levels achievable by these controls, and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection which complies with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limits solely by means of engineering and work practice controls, as required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Written plans for these compliance programs shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each operation or process resulting in employee exposure to AN above the permissible exposure limits;
</P>
<P>(B) An outline of the nature of the engineering controls and work practices to be applied to the operation or process in question;
</P>
<P>(C) A report of the technology considered in meeting the permissible exposure limits;
</P>
<P>(D) A schedule for implementation of engineering and work practice controls for the operation or process, which shall project completion no later than November 2, 1980; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall complete the steps set forth in the compliance program by the dates in the schedule.
</P>
<P>(iv) Written plans shall be submitted upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Assistant Secretary, the Director, or any affected employee or representative.
</P>
<P>(v) The plans required by this paragraph must be revised and updated at least annually to reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities or reactor cleaning, for which the employer establishes that engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii), (d)(3)(iii)(b)(1), and (2)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If air-purifying respirators (chemical-cartridge or chemical-canister types) are used:
</P>
<P>(A) The air-purifying canister or cartridge must be replaced prior to the expiration of its service life or at the completion of each shift, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(B) A label must be attached to the cartridge or canister to indicate the date and time at which it is first installed on the respirator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> Employers must:
</P>
<P>(i) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(ii) For escape, provide employees with any organic vapor respirator or any self-contained breathing apparatus permitted for use under paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this standard. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency situations</I>—(1) <I>Written plans.</I> (i) A written plan for emergency situations shall be developed for each workplace where liquid AN is present. Appropriate portions of the plan shall be implemented in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan shall specifically provide that employees engaged in correcting emergency conditions shall be equipped as required in paragraph (h) of this section until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees not engaged in correcting the emergency shall be evacuated from the area and shall not be permitted to return until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alerting employees.</I> Where there is the possibility of employee exposure to AN in excess of the ceiling limit, a general alarm shall be installed and used to promptly alert employees of such occurrences.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protective clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where eye or skin contact with liquid AN may occur, the employer shall provide at no cost to the employee, and assure that employees wear, impermeable protective clothing or other equipment to protect any area of the body which may come in contact with liquid AN. The provision of §§ 1910.132 and 1910.133 shall be complied with.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall clean, launder, maintain, or replace protective clothing and equipment required by this section as needed to maintain their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that impermeable protective clothing which contacts or is likely to have contacted liquid AN shall be decontaminated before being removed by the employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that an employee whose nonimpermeable clothing becomes wetted with liquid AN shall immediately remove that clothing and proceed to shower. The clothing shall be decontaminated before it is removed from the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that no employee removes protective clothing or equipment from the change room, except for those employees authorized to do so for the purpose of laundering, maintenance, or disposal.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to AN.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) All surfaces shall be maintained free of visible accumulations of liquid AN.
</P>
<P>(2) For operations involving liquid AN, the employer shall institute a program for detecting leaks and spills of liquid AN, including regular visual inspections.
</P>
<P>(3) Where spills of liquid AN are detected, the employer shall assure that surfaces contacted by the liquid AN are decontaminated. Employees not engaged in decontamination activities shall leave the area of the spill, and shall not be permitted in the area until decontamination is completed.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Waste disposal.</I> AN waste, scrap, debris, bags, containers, or equipment shall be decontaminated before being incorporated in the general waste disposal system.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices.</I> (1) Where employees are exposed to airborne concentrations of AN above the permissible exposure limits, or where employees are required to wear protective clothing or equipment pursuant to paragraph (j) of this section, the facilities required by 29 CFR 1910.141, including clean change rooms and shower facilities, shall be provided by the employer for the use of those employees, and the employer shall assure that the employees use the facilities provided.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that employees wearing protective clothing or equipment for protection from skin contact with liquid AN shall shower at the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall assure that, in the event of skin or eye exposure to liquid AN, the affected employee shall shower immediately to minimize the danger of skin absorption.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that employees working in the regulated area wash their hands and faces prior to eating.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall institute a program of medical surveillance for each employee who is or will be exposed to AN at or above the action level, without regard to the use of respirators. The employer shall provide each such employee with an opportunity for medical examinations and tests in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and that they shall be provided without cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examinations.</I> At the time of initial assignment, or upon institution of the medical surveillance program, the employer shall provide each affected employee an opportunity for a medical examination, including at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) A work history and medical history with special attention to skin, respiratory, and gastrointestinal systems, and those nonspecific symptoms, such as headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, weakness, or other central nervous system dysfunctions that may be associated with acute or with chronic exposure to AN;
</P>
<P>(ii) A complete physical examination giving particular attention to the peripheral and central nervous system, gastrointestinal system, respiratory system, skin, and thyroid;
</P>
<P>(iii) A 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Further tests of the intestinal tract, including fecal occult blood screening, for all workers 40 years of age or older, and for any other affected employees for whom, in the opinion of the physician, such testing is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the examinations specified in paragraphs (n)(2)(i), (ii), and (iv) of this section at least annually for all employees specified in paragraph (n)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employee has not had the examination specified in paragraphs (n)(2)(i), (ii), and (iv) of this section within 6 months preceding termination of employment, the employer shall make such examination available to the employee prior to such termination.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional examinations.</I> If the employee for any reason develops signs or symptoms which may be associated with exposure to AN, the employer shall provide an appropriate examination and emergency medical treatment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and its appendixes;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's representative exposure level;
</P>
<P>(iv) The employee's anticipated or estimated exposure level (for preplacement examinations or in cases of exposure due to an emergency);
</P>
<P>(v) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee, which is not otherwise available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician which shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The results of the medical examination and test performed;
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition(s) which would place the employee at an increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from exposure to AN;
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to AN or upon the use of protective clothing and equipment such as respirators; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions which require further examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to AN.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the written opinion to the affected employee.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Employee information and training</I>—(1) <I>Training program.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee exposed to AN above the action level, each employee whose exposures are maintained below the action level by engineering and work practice controls, and each employee subject to potential skin or eye contact with liquid AN in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training shall be provided at the time of initial assignment, or upon institution of the training program, and at least annually thereafter, and the employer shall assure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The information contained in appendixes A and B;
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity, location, manner of use, release, or storage of AN, and the specific nature of operations which could result in exposure to AN, as well as any necessary protective steps;
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose, proper use, and limitations of respirators and protective clothing;
</P>
<P>(D) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (n) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) The emergency procedures developed, as required by paragraph (i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Engineering and work practice controls, their function, and the employee's relationship to these controls; and
</P>
<P>(G) A review of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make a copy of this standard and its appendixes readily available to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for AN and AN-based materials not exempted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of AN and AN-based materials at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; central nervous system effects; liver effects; skin sensitization; skin, respiratory, and eye irritation; acute toxicity effects; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include AN and AN-based materials in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of AN and AN-based materials and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that no statement appears on or near any sign or label required by this paragraph (p) that contradicts or detracts from the required sign or label.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post signs to clearly indicate all workplaces where AN concentrations exceed the permissible exposure limits. The signs shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ACRYLONITRILE (AN)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORY PROTECTION MAY BE REQURED IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that signs required by this paragraph (p)(2) are illuminated and cleaned as necessary so that the legend is readily visible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (p)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ACRYLONITRILE (AN) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS MAY BE REQUIRED</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Labels.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that precautionary labels are in compliance with paragraph (p)(1)(i) of this section and are affixed to all containers of liquid AN and AN-based materials not exempted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The employer shall ensure that the labels remain affixed when the materials are sold, distributed, or otherwise leave the employer's workplace.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on precautionary labels required by this paragraph (p)(3) in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraph (p)(1) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS ACRYLONITRILE (AN) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that the precautionary labels required by this paragraph (p)(3) are readily visible and legible.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Objective data for exempted operations.</I> (i) Where the processing, use, and handling of materials made from or containing AN are exempted pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of objective data reasonably relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The material qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of AN;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data supports the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, and processing covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all monitoring required by paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The dates, number, duration, and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the sampling procedure used to determine representative employee exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used and the data relied upon to establish that the methods used meet the accuracy and precision requirements of paragraph (e)(6) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(D) Name and job classification of the employee monitored and of all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least forty (40) years, or for the duration of employment plus twenty (20) years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance as required by paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the physician's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(B) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to AN;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (n)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the employee's medical and work history.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that this record be maintained for at least forty (40) years, or for the duration of employment plus twenty (20) years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall make all records required to be maintained by this section available, upon request, to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records required by paragraphs (q)(1) through (q)(3) of this section shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a) through (e) and (q) through (i). Records required by paragraph (q)(1) shall be provided in the same manner as exposure monitoring records.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (i) Whenever the employer ceases to do business, the successor employer shall receive and retain all records required to be maintained by this section for the prescribed period.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall also comply with any additional requirements involving transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees, or their designated representatives, an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to AN conducted pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> (i) Whenever observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to AN requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with personal protective clothing and equipment required to be worn by employees working in the area, assure the use of such clothing and equipment, and require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without interfering with the monitoring, observers shall be entitled:
</P>
<P>(A) To receive an explanation of the measurement procedures;
</P>
<P>(B) To observe all steps related to the measurement of airborne concentrations of AN performed at the place of exposure; and
</P>
<P>(C) To record the results obtained.
</P>
<P>(s) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Appendixes.</I> The information contained in the appendixes is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligation not otherwise imposed, or to detract from any obligation.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1045—Substance Safety Data Sheet for Acrylonitrile
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Substance Identification
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance: Acrylonitrile (CH<E T="52">2</E> CHCN).
</P>
<P>B. Synonyms: Propenenitrile; vinyl cyanide; cyanoethylene; AN; VCN; acylon; carbacryl; fumigrian; ventox.
</P>
<P>C. Acrylonitrile can be found as a liquid or vapor, and can also be found in polymer resins, rubbers, plastics, polyols, and other polymers having acrylonitrile as a raw or intermediate material.
</P>
<P>D. AN is used in the manufacture of acrylic and modiacrylic fibers, acrylic plastics and resins, speciality polymers, nitrile rubbers, and other organic chemicals. It has also been used as a fumigant.
</P>
<P>E. Appearance and odor: Colorless to pale yellow liquid with a pungent odor which can only be detected at concentrations above the permissible exposure level, in a range of 13-19 parts AN per million parts of air (13-19 ppm).
</P>
<P>F. Permissible exposure: Exposure may not exceed either:
</P>
<P>1. Two parts AN per million parts of air (2 ppm) averaged over the 8-hour workday; or
</P>
<P>2. Ten parts AN per million parts of air (10 ppm) averaged over any 15-minute period in the workday.
</P>
<P>3. In addition, skin and eye contact with liquid AN is prohibited.
</P>
<HD1>ii. Health Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Acrylonitrile can affect your body if you inhale the vapor (breathing), if it comes in contact with your eyes or skin, or if you swallow it. It may enter your body through your skin.
</P>
<P>B. Effects of overexposure: 1. Short-term exposure: Acrylonitrile can cause eye irritation, nausea, vomiting, headache, sneezing, weakness, and light-headedness. At high concentrations, the effects of exposure may go on to loss of consciousness and death. When acrylonitrile is held in contact with the skin after being absorbed into shoe leather or clothing, it may produce blisters following several hours of no apparent effect. Unless the shoes or clothing are removed immediately and the area washed, blistering will occur. Usually there is no pain or inflammation associated with blister formation.
</P>
<P>2. Long-term exposure: Acrylonitrile has been shown to cause cancer in laboratory animals and has been associated with higher incidences of cancer in humans. Repeated or prolonged exposure of the skin to acrylonitrile may produce irritation and dermatitis.
</P>
<P>3. Reporting signs and symptoms: You should inform your employer if you develop any signs or symptoms and suspect they are caused by exposure to acrylonitrile.
</P>
<HD1>iii. Emergency First Aid Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. Eye exposure: If acrylonitrile gets into your eyes, wash your eyes immediately with large amounts of water, lifting the lower and upper lids occasionally. Get medical attention immediately. Contact lenses should not be worn when working with this chemical.
</P>
<P>B. Skin exposure: If acrylonitrile gets on your skin, immediately wash the contaminated skin with water. If acrylonitrile soaks through your clothing, especially your shoes, remove the clothing immediately and wash the skin with water. If symptoms occur after washing, get medical attention immediately. Thoroughly wash the clothing before reusing. Contaminated leather shoes or other leather articles should be discarded.
</P>
<P>C. Inhalation: If you or any other person breathes in large amounts of acrylonitrile, move the exposed person to fresh air at once. If breathing has stopped, perform artificial respiration. Keep the affected person warm and at rest. Get medical attention as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>D. Swallowing: When acrylonitrile has been swallowed, give the person large quantities of water immediately. After the water has been swallowed, try to get the person to vomit by having him touch the back of his throat with his finger. Do not make an unconscious person vomit. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>E. Rescue: Move the affected person from the hazardous exposure. If the exposed person has been overcome, notify someone else and put into effect the established emergency procedures. Do not become a casualty yourself. Understand your emergency rescue procedures and know the location of the emergency equipment before the need arises.
</P>
<P>F. Special first aid procedures: First aid kits containing an adequate supply (at least two dozen) of amyl nitrite pearls, each containing 0.3 ml, should be maintained at each site where acrylonitrile is used. When a person is suspected of receiving an overexposure to acrylonitrile, immediately remove that person from the contaminated area using established rescue procedures. Contaminated clothing must be removed and the acrylonitrile washed from the skin immediately. Artificial respiration should be started at once if breathing has stopped. If the person is unconscious, amyl nitrite may be used as an antidote by a properly trained individual in accordance with established emergency procedures. Medical aid should be obtained immediately.
</P>
<HD1>iv. Respirators and Protective Clothing
</HD1>
<P>A. Respirators. You may be required to wear a respirator for nonroutine activities, in emergencies, while your employer is in the process of reducing acrylonitrile exposures through engineering controls, and in areas where engineering controls are not feasible. If respirators are worn, they must have a label issued by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health under the provisions of 42 CFR part 84 stating that the respirators have been approved for use with organic vapors. For effective protection, respirators must fit your face and head snugly. Respirators must not be loosened or removed in work situations where their use is required.
</P>
<P>Acrylonitrile does not have a detectable odor except at levels above the permissible exposure limits. Do not depend on odor to warn you when a respirator cartridge or canister is exhausted. Cartridges or canisters must be changed daily or before the end-of-service-life, whichever comes first. Reuse of these may allow acrylonitrille to gradually filter through the cartridge and cause exposures which you cannot detect by odor. If you can smell acrylonitrile while wearing a respirator, proceed immediately to fresh air. If you experience difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator, tell your employer.
</P>
<P>B. Supplied-air suits: In some work situations, the wearing of supplied-air suits may be necessary. Your employer must instruct you in their proper use and operation.
</P>
<P>C. Protective clothing: You must wear impervious clothing, gloves, face shield, or other appropriate protective clothing to prevent skin contact with liquid acrylonitrile. Where protective clothing is required, your employer is required to provide clean garments to you as necessary to assume that the clothing protects you adequately.
</P>
<P>Replace or repair impervious clothing that has developed leaks.
</P>
<P>Acrylonitrile should never be allowed to remain on the skin. Clothing and shoes which are not impervious to acrylonitrile should not be allowed to become contaminated with acrylonitrile, and if they do the clothing and shoes should be promptly removed and decontaminated. The clothing should be laundered or discarded after the AN is removed. Once acrylonitrile penetrates shoes or other leather articles, they should not be worn again.
</P>
<P>D. Eye protection: You must wear splashproof safety goggles in areas where liquid acrylonitrile may contact your eyes. In addition, contact lenses should not be worn in areas where eye contact with acrylonitrile can occur.
</P>
<HD1>v. Precautions for Safe Use, Handling, and Storage
</HD1>
<P>A. Acrylonitrile is a flammable liquid, and its vapors can easily form explosive mixtures in air.
</P>
<P>B. Acrylonitrile must be stored in tightly closed containers in a cool, well-ventilated area, away from heat, sparks, flames, strong oxidizers (especially bromine), strong bases, copper, copper alloys, ammonia, and amines.
</P>
<P>C. Sources of ignition such as smoking and open flames are prohibited wherever acrylonitrile is handled, used, or stored in a manner that could create a potential fire or explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>D. You should use non-sparking tools when opening or closing metal containers of acrylonitrile, and containers must be bonded and grounded when pouring or transferring liquid acrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>E. You must immediately remove any non-impervious clothing that becomes wetted with acrylonitrile, and this clothing must not be reworn until the acrylonitrile is removed from the clothing.
</P>
<P>F. Impervious clothing wet with liquid acrylonitrile can be easily ignited. This clothing must be washed down with water before you remove it.
</P>
<P>G. If your skin becomes wet with liquid acrylonitrile, you must promptly and thoroughly wash or shower with soap or mild detergent to remove any acrylonitrile from your skin.
</P>
<P>H. You must not keep food, beverages, or smoking materials, nor are you permitted to eat or smoke in regulated areas where acrylonitrile concentrations are above the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>I. If you contact liquid acrylonitrile, you must wash your hands thoroughly with soap or mild detergent and water before eating, smoking, or using toilet facilities.
</P>
<P>J. Fire extinguishers and quick drenching facilities must be readily available, and you should know where they are and how to operate them.
</P>
<P>K. Ask your supervisor where acrylonitrile is used in your work area and for any additional plant safety and health rules.
</P>
<HD1>vi. Access to Information
</HD1>
<P>A. Each year, your employer is required to inform you of the information contained in this Substance Safety Data Sheet for acrylonitrile. In addition, you employer must instruct you in the proper work practices for using acrylonitrile, emergency procedures, and the correct use of protective equipment.
</P>
<P>B. Your employer is required to determine whether you are being exposed to acrylonitrile. You or your representative has the right to observe employee measurements and to record the results obtained. Your employer is required to inform you of your exposure. If your employer determines that you are being overexposed, he or she is required to inform you of the actions which are being taken to reduce your exposure to within permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>C. Your employer is required to keep records of your exposures and medical examinations. These records must be kept by the employer for at least forty (40) years or for the period of your employment plus twenty (20) years, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>D. Your employer is required to release your exposure and medical records to you or your representative upon your request.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1045—Substance Technical Guidelines for Acrylonitrile
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Physical and Chemical Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance identification: 1. Synonyms: AN; VCN; vinyl cyanide; propenenitrile; cyanoethylene; Acrylon; Carbacryl; Fumigrain; Ventox.
</P>
<P>2. Formula: CH2 = CHCN.
</P>
<P>3. Molecular weight: 53.1.
</P>
<P>B. Physical data: 1. Boiling point (760 mm Hg): 77.3 °C (171 °F);
</P>
<P>2. Specific gravity (water = 1): 0.81 (at 20 °C or 68 °F);
</P>
<P>3. Vapor density (air = 1 at boiling point of acrylonitrile): 1.83;
</P>
<P>4. Melting point: −83 °C (−117 °F);
</P>
<P>5. Vapor pressure (@20 °F): 83 mm Hg;
</P>
<P>6. Solubility in water, percent by weight @20 °C (68 °F): 7.35;
</P>
<P>7. Evaporation rate (Butyl Acetate = 1): 4.54; and
</P>
<P>8. Appearance and odor: Colorless to pale yellow liquid with a pungent odor at concentrations above the permissible exposure level. Any detectable odor of acrylonitrile may indicate overexposure.
</P>
<HD1>ii. Fire, Explosion, and Reactivity Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Fire: 1. Flash point: −1 °C (30 °F) (closed cup).
</P>
<P>2. Autoignition temperature: 481 °C (898 °F).
</P>
<P>3. Flammable limits air, percent by volume: Lower: 3, Upper: 17.
</P>
<P>4. Extinguishing media: Alcohol foam, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical.
</P>
<P>5. Special fire-fighting procedures: Do not use a solid stream of water, since the stream will scatter and spread the fire. Use water to cool containers exposed to a fire.
</P>
<P>6. Unusual fire and explosion hazards: Acrylonitrile is a flammable liquid. Its vapors can easily form explosive mixtures with air. All ignition sources must be controlled where acrylonitrile is handled, used, or stored in a manner that could create a potential fire or explosion hazard. Acrylonitrile vapors are heavier than air and may travel along the ground and be ignited by open flames or sparks at locations remote from the site at which acrylonitrile is being handled.
</P>
<P>7. For purposes of compliance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.106, acrylonitrile is classified as a class IB flammable liquid. For example, 7,500 ppm, approximately one-fourth of the lower flammable limit, would be considered to pose a potential fire and explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>8. For purposes of compliance with 29 CFR 1910.157, acrylonitrile is classified as a Class B fire hazard.
</P>
<P>9. For purpose of compliance with 29 CFR 1919.309, locations classified as hazardous due to the presence of acrylonitrile shall be Class I, Group D.
</P>
<P>B. Reactivity:
</P>
<P>1. Conditions contributing to instability: Acrylonitrile will polymerize when hot, and the additional heat liberated by the polymerization may cause containers to explode. Pure AN may self-polymerize, with a rapid build-up of pressure, resulting in an explosion hazard. Inhibitors are added to the commercial product to prevent self-polymerization.
</P>
<P>2. Incompatibilities: Contact with strong oxidizers (especially bromine) and strong bases may cause fires and explosions. Contact with copper, copper alloys, ammonia, and amines may start serious decomposition.
</P>
<P>3. Hazardous decompostion products: Toxic gases and vapors (such as hydrogen cyanide, oxides of nitrogen, and carbon monoxide) may be released in a fire involving acrylonitrile and certain polymers made from acrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>4. Special precautions: Liquid acrylonitrile will attack some forms of plastics, rubbers, and coatings.
</P>
<HD1>iii. Spill, Leak, and Disposal Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. If acrylonitrile is spilled or leaked, the following steps should be taken:
</P>
<P>1. Remove all ignition sources.
</P>
<P>2. The area should be evacuated at once and re-entered only after the area has been thoroughly ventilated and washed down with water.
</P>
<P>3. If liquid acrylonitrile or polymer intermediate, collect for reclamation or absorb in paper, vermiculite, dry sand, earth, or similar material, or wash down with water into process sewer system.
</P>
<P>B. Persons not wearing protective equipment should be restricted from areas of spills or leaks until clean-up has been completed.
</P>
<P>C. Waste disposal methods: Waste material shall be disposed of in a manner that is not hazardous to employees or to the general population. Spills of acrylonitrile and flushing of such spills shall be channeled for appropriate treatment or collection for disposal. They shall not be channeled directly into the sanitary sewer system. In selecting the method of waste disposal, applicable local, State, and Federal regulations should be consulted.
</P>
<HD1>iv. Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. Exposure above the Permissible Exposure Limit:
</P>
<P>1. Eight-hour exposure evaluation: Measurements taken for the purpose of determining employee exposure under this section are best taken so that the average 8-hour exposure may be determined from a single 8-hour sample or two (2) 4-hour samples. Air samples should be taken in the employee's breathing zone (air that would most nearly represent that inhaled by the employee.)
</P>
<P>2. Ceiling evaluation: Measurements taken for the purpose of determining employee exposure under this section must be taken during periods of maximum expected airborne concentrations of acrylonitrile in the employee's breathing zone. A minimum of three (3) measurements should be taken on one work shift. The average of all measurements taken is an estimate of the employee's ceiling exposure.
</P>
<P>3. Monitoring techniques: The sampling and analysis under this section may be performed by collecting the acrylonitrile vapor on charcoal adsorption tubes or other composition adsorption tubes, with subsequent chemical analysis. Sampling and analysis may also be performed by instruments such as real-time continuous monitoring systems, portable direct-reading instruments, or passive dosimeters. Analysis of resultant samples should be by gas chromatograph.
</P>
<P>Appendix D lists methods of sampling and analysis which have been tested by NIOSH and OSHA for use with acrylonitrile. NIOSH and OSHA have validated modifications of NIOSH Method S-156 (See appendix D) under laboratory conditions for concentrations below 1 ppm. The employer has the obligation of selecting a monitoring method which meets the accuracy and precision requirements of the standard under his unique field conditions. The standard requires that methods of monitoring must be accurate, to a 95-percent confidence level, to ±35-percent for concentrations of AN at or above 2 ppm, and to ±50-percent for concentrations below 2 ppm. In addition to the methods described in appendix D, there are numerous other methods available for monitoring for AN in the workplace. Details on these other methods have been submitted by various companies to the rulemaking record, and are available at the OSHA Docket Office.
</P>
<P>B. Since many of the duties relating to employee exposure are dependent on the results of monitoring and measuring procedures, employers shall assure that the evaluation of employee exposures is performed by a competent industrial hygienist or other technically qualified person.
</P>
<HD1>v. Protective Clothing
</HD1>
<P>Employees shall be provided with and required to wear appropriate protective clothing to prevent any possibility of skin contact with liquid AN. Because acrylonitrile is absorbed through the skin, it is important to prevent skin contact with liquid AN. Protective clothing shall include impermeable coveralls or similar full-body work clothing, gloves, head-coverings, as appropriate to protect areas of the body which may come in contact with liquid AN.
</P>
<P>Employers should ascertain that the protective garmets are impermeable to acrylonitrile. Non-impermeable clothing and shoes should not be allowed to become contaminated with liquid AN. If permeable clothing does become contaminated, it should be promptly removed, placed in a regulated area for removal of the AN, and not worn again until the AN is removed. If leather footwear or other leather garments become wet from acrylonitrile, they should be replaced and not worn again, due to the ability of leather to absorb acrylonitrile and hold it against the skin. Since there is no pain associated with the blistering which may result from skin contact with liquid AN, it is essential that the employee be informed of this hazard so that he or she can be protected.
</P>
<P>Any protective clothing which has developed leaks or is otherwise found to be defective shall be repaired or replaced. Clean protective clothing shall be provided to the employee as necessary to assure its protectiveness. Whenever impervious clothing becomes wet with liquid AN, it shall be washed down with water before being removed by the employee. Employees are also required to wear splash-proof safety goggles where there is any possibility of acrylonitrile contacting the eyes.
</P>
<HD1>vi. Housekeeping and Hygiene Facilities
</HD1>
<P>For purposes of complying with 29 CFR 1910.141, the following items should be emphasized:
</P>
<P>A. The workplace should be kept clean, orderly, and in a sanitary condition. The employer is required to institute a leak and spill detection program for operations involving liquid AN in order to detect sources of fugitive AN emissions.
</P>
<P>B. Dry sweeping and the use of compressed air is unsafe for the cleaning of floors and other surfaces where liquid AN may be found.
</P>
<P>C. Adequate washing facilities with hot and cold water are to be provided, and maintained in a sanitary condition. Suitable cleansing agents are also to be provided to assure the effective removal of acrylonitrile from the skin.
</P>
<P>D. Change or dressing rooms with individual clothes storage facilities must be provided to prevent the contamination of street clothes with acrylonitrile. Because of the hazardous nature of acrylonitrile, contaminated protective clothing should be placed in a regulated area designated by the employer for removal of the AN before the clothing is laundered or disposed of.
</P>
<HD1>vii. Miscellaneous Precautions
</HD1>
<P>A. Store acrylonitrile in tightly-closed containers in a cool, well-ventilated area and take necessary precautions to avoid any explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>B. High exposures to acrylonitrile can occur when transferring the liquid from one container to another.
</P>
<P>C. Non-sparking tools must be used to open and close metal acrylonitrile containers. These containers must be effectively grounded and bonded prior to pouring.
</P>
<P>D. Never store uninhibited acrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>E. Acrylonitrile vapors are not inhibited. They may form polymers and clog vents of storage tanks.
</P>
<P>F. Use of supplied-air suits or other impervious coverings may be necessary to prevent skin contact with and provide respiratory protection from acrylonitrile where the concentration of acrylonitrile is unknown or is above the ceiling limit. Supplied-air suits should be selected, used, and maintained under the immediate supervision of persons knowledgeable in the limitations and potential life-endangering characteristics of supplied-air suits.
</P>
<P>G. Employers shall advise employees of all areas and operations where exposure to acrylonitrile could occur.
</P>
<HD1>viii. Common Operations
</HD1>
<P>Common operations in which exposure to acrylonitrile is likely to occur include the following: Manufacture of the acrylonitrile monomer; synthesis of acrylic fibers, ABS, SAN, and nitrile barrier plastics and resins, nitrile rubber, surface coatings, specialty chemicals, use as a chemical intermediate, use as a fumigant and in the cyanoethylation of cotton.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1045—Medical Surveillance Guidelines for Acrylonitrile
</HD1>
<HD1>i. route of entry
</HD1>
<P>Inhalation; skin absorption; ingestion.
</P>
<HD1>ii. toxicology
</HD1>
<P>Acrylonitrile vapor is an asphyxiant due to inhibitory action on metabolic enzyme systems. Animals exposed to 75 or 100 ppm for 7 hours have shown signs of anoxia; in some animals which died at the higher level, cyanomethemoglobin was found in the blood. Two human fatalities from accidental poisioning have been reported; one was caused by inhalation of an unknown concentration of the vapor, and the other was thought to be caused by skin absorption or inhalation. Most cases of intoxication from industrial exposure have been mild, with rapid onset of eye irritation, headache, sneezing, and nausea. Weakness, lightheadedness, and vomiting may also occur. Exposure to high concentrations may produce profound weakness, asphyxia, and death. The vapor is a severe eye irritant. Prolonged skin contract with the liquid may result in absorption with systemic effects, and in the formation of large blisters after a latent period of several hours. Although there is usually little or no pain or inflammation, the affected skin resembles a second-degree thermal burn. Solutions spilled on exposed skin, or on areas covered only by a light layer of clothing, evaporate rapidly, leaving no irritation, or, at the most, mild transient redness. Repeated spills on exposed skin may result in dermatitis due to solvent effects.
</P>
<P>Results after 1 year of a planned 2-year animal study on the effects of exposure to acrylonitrile have indicated that rats ingesting as little as 35 ppm in their drinking water develop tumors of the central nervous system. The interim results of this study have been supported by a similar study being conducted by the same laboratory, involving exposure of rats by inhalation of acrylonitrile vapor, which has shown similar types of tumors in animals exposed to 80 ppm.
</P>
<P>In addition, the preliminary results of an epidemiological study being performed by duPont on a cohort of workers in their Camden, S.C. acrylic fiber plant indicate a statistically significant increase in the incidence of colon and lung cancers among employees exposed to acrylonitrile.
</P>
<HD1>iii. signs and symptoms of acute overexposure
</HD1>
<P>Asphyxia and death can occur from exposure to high concentrations of acrylonitrile. Symptoms of overexposure include eye irritation, headache, sneezing, nausea and vomiting, weakness, and light-headedness. Prolonged skin contact can cause blisters on the skin with appearance of a second-degree burn, but with little or no pain. Repeated skin contact may produce scaling dermatits.
</P>
<HD1>iv. treatment of acute overexposure
</HD1>
<P>Remove employee from exposure. Immediately flush eyes with water and wash skin with soap or mild detergent and water. If AN has been swallowed, and person is conscious, induce vomiting. Give artificial resuscitation if indicated. More severe cases, such as those associated with loss of consciousness, may be treated by the intravenous administration of sodium nitrite, followed by sodium thiosulfate, although this is not as effective for acrylonitrile poisoning as for inorganic cyanide poisoning.
</P>
<HD1>v. surveillance and preventive considerations
</HD1>
<P>A. As noted above, exposure to acrylonitrile has been linked to increased incidence of cancers of the colon and lung in employees of the duPont acrylic fiber plant in Camden, S.C. In addition, the animal testing of acrylonitrile has resulted in the development of cancers of the central nervous system in rats exposed by either inhalation or ingestion. The physician should be aware of the findings of these studies in evaluating the health of employees exposed to acrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>Most reported acute effects of occupational exposure to acrylonitrile are due to its ability to cause tissue anoxia and asphyxia. The effects are similar to those caused by hydrogen cyanide. Liquid acrylonitrile can be absorbed through the skin upon prolonged contact. The liquid readily penetrates leather, and will produce burns of the feet if footwear contaminated with acrylonitrile is not removed.
</P>
<P>It is important for the physician to become familiar with the operating conditions in which exposure to acrylonitrile may occur. Those employees with skin diseases may not tolerate the wearing of whatever protective clothing may be necessary to protect them from exposure. In addition, those with chronic respiratory disease may not tolerate the wearing of negative-pressure respirators.
</P>
<P>B. Surveillance and screening. Medical histories and laboratory examinations are required for each employee subject to exposure to acrylonitrile above the action level. The employer must screen employees for history of certain medical conditions which might place the employee at increased risk from exposure.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Central nervous system dysfunction.</I> Acute effects of exposure to acrylonitrile generally involve the central nervous system. Symptoms of acrylonitrile exposure include headache, nausea, dizziness, and general weakness. The animal studies cited above suggest possible carcinogenic effects of acrylonitrile on the central nervous system, since rats exposed by either inhalation or ingestion have developed similar CNS tumors.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Respiratory disease.</I> The du Pont data indicate an increased risk of lung cancer among employees exposed to acrylonitrile.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Gastrointestinal disease.</I> The du Pont data indicate an increased risk of cancer of the colon among employees exposed to acrylonitrile. In addition, the animal studies show possible tumor production in the stomachs of the rats in the ingestion study.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Skin disease.</I> Acrylonitrile can cause skin burns when prolonged skin contact with the liquid occurs. In addition, repeated skin contact with the liquid can cause dermatitis.
</P>
<P>5. <I>General.</I> The purpose of the medical procedures outlined in the standard is to establish a baseline for future health monitoring. Persons unusually susceptible to the effects of anoxia or those with anemia would be expected to be at increased risk. In addition to emphasis on the CNS, respiratory and gastro-intestinal systems, the cardiovascular system, liver, and kidney function should also be stressed.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1045—Sampling and Analytical Methods for Acrylonitrile
</HD1>
<P>There are many methods available for monitoring employee exposures to acrylonitrile. Most of these involve the use of charcoal tubes and sampling pumps, with analysis by gas chromatograph. The essential differences between the charcoal tube methods include, among others, the use of different desorbing solvents, the use of different lots of charcoal, and the use of different equipment for analysis of the samples.
</P>
<P>Besides charcoal, considerable work has been performed on methods using porous polymer sampling tubes and passive dosimeters. In addition, there are several portable gas analyzers and monitoring units available on the open market.
</P>
<P>This appendix contains details for the methods which have been tested at OSHA Analytical Laboratory in Salt Lake City, and NIOSH in Cincinnati. Each is a variation on NIOSH Method S-156, which is also included for reference. This does not indicate that these methods are the only ones which will be satisfactory. There also may be workplace situations in which these methods are not adequate, due to such factors as high humidity. Copies of the other methods available to OSHA are available in the rulemaking record, and may be obtained from the OSHA Docket Office. These include, the Union Carbide, Monsanto, Dow Chemical and Dow Badische methods, as well as NISOH Method P &amp; CAM 127.
</P>
<P>Employers who note problems with sample breakthrough should try larger charcoal tubes. Tubes of larger capacity are available, and are often used for sampling vinyl chloride. In addition, lower flow rates and shorter sampling times should be beneficial in minimizing breakthrough problems.
</P>
<P>Whatever method the employer chooses, he must assure himself of the method's accuracy and precision under the unique conditions present in his workplace.
</P>
<HD1>NIOSH Method S-156 (Unmodified)
</HD1>
<FP-1>Analyte: Acrylonitrile.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matrix: Air.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Procedure: Absorption on charcoal, desorption with methanol, GC.
</FP-1>
<P>1. <I>Principle of the method</I> (Reference 11.1).
</P>
<P>1.1 A known volume of air is drawn through a charcoal tube to trap the organic vapors present.
</P>
<P>1.2 The charcoal in the tube is transferred to a small, stoppered sample container, and the analyte is desorbed with methanol.
</P>
<P>1.3 An aliquot of the desorbed sample is injected into a gas chromatograph.
</P>
<P>1.4 The area of the resulting peak is determined and compared with areas obtained for standards.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Range and sensitivity.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1 This method was validated over the range of 17.5-70.0 mg/cu m at an atmospheric temperature and pressure of 22 °C and 760 MM Hg, using a 20-liter sample. Under the conditions of sample size (20-liters) the probable useful range of this method is 4.5-135 mg-cu m. The method is capable of measuring much smaller amounts if the desorption efficiency is adequate. Desorption efficiency must be determined over the range used.
</P>
<P>2.2 The upper limit of the range of the method is dependent on the adsorptive capacity of the charcoal tube. This capacity varies with the concentrations of acrylonitrile and other substances in the air. The first section of the charcoal tube was found to hold at least 3.97 mg of acrylonitrile when a test atmosphere containing 92.0 mg/cu m of acrylonitrile in air was sampled 0.18 liter per minute for 240 minutes; at that time the concentration of acrylonitrile in the effluent was less than 5 percent of that in the influent. (The charcoal tube consists of two sections of activated charcoal separated by a section of urethane foam. See section 6.2.) If a particular atmosphere is suspected of containing a large amount of contaminant, a smaller sampling volume should be taken.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interference.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1 When the amount of water in the air is so great that condensation actually occurs in the tube, organic vapors will not be trapped efficiently. Preliminary experiments using toluene indicate that high humidity severely decreases the breakthrough volume.
</P>
<P>3.2 When interfering compounds are known or suspected to be present in the air, such information, including their suspected identities, should be transmitted with the sample.
</P>
<P>3.3 It must be emphasized that any compound which has the same retention time as the analyte at the operating conditions described in this method is an interference. Retention time data on a single column cannot be considered proof of chemical identity.
</P>
<P>3.4 If the possibility of interference exists, separation conditions (column packing, temperature, etc.) must be changed to circumvent the problem.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Precision and accuracy.</I>
</P>
<P>4.1 The Coefficient of Variation (CV<E T="52">T</E>) for the total analytical and sampling method in the range of 17.5-70.0 mg/cu m was 0.073. This value corresponds to a 3.3 mg/cu m standard deviation at the (previous) OSHA standard level (20 ppm). Statistical information and details of the validation and experimental test procedures can be found in Reference 11.2.
</P>
<P>4.2 On the average the concentrations obtained at the 20 ppm level using the overall sampling and analytical method were 6.0 percent lower than the “true” concentrations for a limited number of laboratory experiments. Any difference between the “found” and “true” concentrations may not represent a bias in the sampling and analytical method, but rather a random variation from the experimentally determined “true” concentration. Therefore, no recovery correction should be applied to the final result in section 10.5.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Advantages and disadvantages of the method.</I>
</P>
<P>5.1 The sampling device is small, portable, and involves no liquids. Interferences are minimal, and most of those which do occur can be eliminated by altering chromatographic conditions. The tubes are analyzed by means of a quick, instrumental method.
</P>
<P>The method can also be used for the simultaneous analysis of two or more substances suspected to be present in the same sample by simply changing gas chromatographic conditions.
</P>
<P>5.2 One disadvantage of the method is that the amount of sample which can be taken is limited by the number of milligrams that the tube will hold before overloading. When the sample value obtained for the backup section of the charcoal tube exceeds 25 percent of that found on the front section, the possibility of sample loss exists.
</P>
<P>5.3 Furthermore, the precision of the method is limited by the reproducibility of the pressure drop across the tubes. This drop will affect the flow rate and cause the volume to be imprecise, because the pump is usually calibrated for one tube only.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Apparatus.</I>
</P>
<P>6.1 A calibrated personal sampling pump whose flow can be determined within ±5 percent at the recommended flow rate. (Reference 11.3).
</P>
<P>6.2 Charcoal tubes: Glass tubes with both ends flame sealed, 7 cm long with a 6-mm O.D. and a 4-mm I.D., containing 2 sections of 20/40 mesh activated charcoal separated by a 2-mm portion of urethane foam. The activated charcoals prepared from coconut shells and is fired at 600 °C prior to packing. The adsorbing section contains 100 mg of charcoal, the backup section 50 mg. A 3-mm portion of urethane foam is placed between the outlet end of the tube and the backup section. A plug of silicated glass wool is placed in front of the adsorbing section. The pressure drop across the tube must be less than 1 inch of mercury at a flow rate of 1 liter per minute.
</P>
<P>6.3 Gas chromatograph equipped with a flame ionization detector.
</P>
<P>6.4 Column (4-ft × 
<FR>1/4</FR>-in stainless steel) packed with 50/80 mesh Poropak, type Q.
</P>
<P>6.5 An electronic integrator or some other suitable method for measuring peak areas.
</P>
<P>6.6 Two-milliliter sample containers with glass stoppers or Teflon-lined caps. If an automatic sample injector is used, the associated vials may be used.
</P>
<P>6.7 Microliter syringes: 10-microliter and other convenient sizes for making standards.
</P>
<P>6.8 Pipets: 1.0-ml delivery pipets.
</P>
<P>6.9 Volumetric flask: 10-ml or convenient sizes for making standard solutions.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Reagents.</I>
</P>
<P>7.1 Chromatographic quality methanol.
</P>
<P>7.2 Acrylonitrile, reagent grade.
</P>
<P>7.3 Hexane, reagent grade.
</P>
<P>7.4 Purified nitrogen.
</P>
<P>7.5 Prepurified hydrogen.
</P>
<P>7.6 Filtered compressed air.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Procedure.</I>
</P>
<P>8.1 Cleaning of equipment. All glassware used for the laboratory analysis should be detergent washed and thoroughly rinsed with tap water and distilled water.
</P>
<P>8.2 Calibration of personal pumps. Each personal pump must be calibrated with a representative charcoal tube in the line. This will minimize errors associated with uncertainties in the sample volume collected.
</P>
<P>8.3 Collection and shipping of samples.
</P>
<P>8.3.1 Immediately before sampling, break the ends of the tube to provide an opening at least one-half the internal diameter of the tube (2 mm).
</P>
<P>8.3.2 The smaller section of charcoal is used as a backup and should be positioned nearest the sampling pump.
</P>
<P>8.3.3 The charcoal tube should be placed in a vertical direction during sampling to minimize channeling through the charcoal.
</P>
<P>8.3.4 Air being sampled should not be passed through any hose or tubing before entering the charcoal tube.
</P>
<P>8.3.5 A maximum sample size of 20 liters is recommended. Sample at a flow of 0.20 liter per minute or less. The flow rate should be known with an accuracy of at least ±5 percent.
</P>
<P>8.3.6 The temperature and pressure of the atmosphere being sampled should be recorded. If pressure reading is not available, record the elevation.
</P>
<P>8.3.7 The charcoal tubes should be capped with the supplied plastic caps immediately after sampling. Under no circumstances should rubber caps be used.
</P>
<P>8.3.8 With each batch of 10 samples submit one tube from the same lot of tubes which was used for sample collection and which is subjected to exactly the same handling as the samples except that no air is drawn through it. Label this as a blank.
</P>
<P>8.3.9 Capped tubes should be packed tightly and padded before they are shipped to minimize tube breakage during shipping.
</P>
<P>8.3.10 A sample of the bulk material should be submitted to the laboratory in a glass container with a Teflon-lined cap. This sample should not be transported in the same container as the charcoal tubes.
</P>
<P>8.4 <I>Analysis of samples.</I>
</P>
<P>8.4.1 Preparation of samples. In preparation for analysis, each charcoal tube is scored with a file in front of the first section of charcoal and broken open. The glass wool is removed and discarded. The charcoal in the first (larger) section is transferred to a 2-ml stoppered sample container. The separating section of foam is removed and discarded; the second section is transferred to another stoppered container. These two sections are analyzed separately.
</P>
<P>8.4.2 Desorption of samples. Prior to analysis, 1.0 ml of methanol is pipetted into each sample container. Desorption should be done for 30 minutes. Tests indicate that this is adequate if the sample is agitated occasionally during this period. If an automatic sample injector is used, the sample vials should be capped as soon as the solvent is added to minimize volatilization.
</P>
<P>8.4.3 GC conditions. The typical operating conditions for the gas chromatograph are:
</P>
<P>1. 50 ml/min (60 psig) nitrogen carrier gas flow.
</P>
<P>2. 65 ml/min (24 psig) hydrogen gas flow to detector.
</P>
<P>3. 500 ml/min (50 psig) air flow to detector.
</P>
<P>4. 235 °C injector temperature.
</P>
<P>5. 255 °C manifold temperature (detector).
</P>
<P>6. 155 °C column temperature.
</P>
<P>8.4.4 Injection. The first step in the analysis is the injection of the sample into the gas chromatograph. To eliminate difficulties arising from blowback or distillation within the syringe needle, one should employ the solvent flush injection technique. The 10-microliter syringe is first flushed with solvent several times to wet the barrel and plunger. Three microliters of solvent are drawn into the syringe to increase the accuracy and reproducibility of the injected sample volume. The needle is removed from the solvent, and the plunger is pulled back about 0.2 microliter to separate the solvent flush from the sample with a pocket of air to be used as a marker. The needle is then immersed in the sample, and a 5-microliter aliquot is withdrawn, taking into consideration the volume of the needle, since the sample in the needle will be completely injected. After the needle is removed from the sample and prior to injection, the plunger is pulled back 1.2 microliters to minimize evaporation of the sample from the tip of the needle. Observe that the sample occupies 4.9-5.0 microliters in the barrel of the syringe. Duplicate injections of each sample and standard should be made. No more than a 3 percent difference in area is to be expected. An automatic sample injector can be used if it is shown to give reproducibility at least as good as the solvent flush method.
</P>
<P>8.4.5 Measurement of area. The area of the sample peak is measured by an electronic integrator or some other suitable form of area measurement, and preliminary results are read from a standard curve prepared as discussed below.
</P>
<P>8.5 <I>Determination of desorption efficiency.</I>
</P>
<P>8.5.1 Importance of determination. The desorption efficiency of a particular compound can vary from one laboratory to another and also from one batch of charcoal to another. Thus, it is necessary to determine at least once the percentage of the specific compound that is removed in the desorption process, provided the same batch of charcoal is used.
</P>
<P>8.5.2 Procedure for determining desorption efficiency. Activated charcoal equivalent to the amount in the first section of the sampling tube (100 mg) is measured into a 2.5 in, 4-mm I.D. glass tube, flame sealed at one end. This charcoal must be from the same batch as that used in obtaining the samples and can be obtained from unused charcoal tubes. The open end is capped with Parafilm. A known amount of hexane solution of acrylonitrile containing 0.239 g/ml is injected directly into the activated charcoal with a microliter syringe, and tube is capped with more Parafilm. When using an automatic sample injector, the sample injector vials, capped with Teflon-faced septa, may be used in place of the glass tube.
</P>
<P>The amount injected is equivalent to that present in a 20-liter air sample at the selected level.
</P>
<P>Six tubes at each of three levels (0.5X, 1X, and 2X of the standard) are prepared in this manner and allowed to stand for at least overnight to assure complete adsorption of the analyte onto the charcoal. These tubes are referred to as the sample. A parallel blank tube should be treated in the same manner except that no sample is added to it. The sample and blank tubes are desorbed and analyzed in exactly the same manner as the sampling tube described in section 8.4.
</P>
<P>Two or three standards are prepared by injecting the same volume of compound into 1.0 ml of methanol with the same syringe used in the preparation of the samples. These are analyzed with the samples.
</P>
<P>The desorption efficiency (D.E.) equals the average weight in mg recovered from the tube divided by the weight in mg added to the tube, or
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.035.gif"/></MATH>
<P>The desorption efficiency is dependent on the amount of analyte collected on the charcoal. Plot the desorption efficiency versus weight of analyte found. This curve is used in section 10.4 to correct for adsorption losses.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Calibration and standards.</I>
</P>
<P>It is convenient to express concentration of standards in terms of mg/1.0 ml methanol, because samples are desorbed in this amount of methanol. The density of the analyte is used to convert mg into microliters for easy measurement with a microliter syringe. A series of standards, varying in concentration over the range of interest, is prepared and analyzed under the same GC conditions and during the same time period as the unknown samples. Curves are established by plotting concentration in mg/1.0 ml versus peak area.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Since no internal standard is used in the method, standard solutions must be analyzed at the same time that the sample analysis is done. This will minimize the effect of known day-to-day variations and variations during the same day of the FID response.</P></NOTE>
<P>10. <I>Calculations.</I>
</P>
<P>10.1 Read the weight, in mg, corresponding to each peak area from the standard curve. No volume corrections are needed, because the standard curve is based on mg/1.0 ml methanol and the volume of sample injected is identical to the volume of the standards injected.
</P>
<P>10.2 Corrections for the bank must be made for each sample.
</P>
<FP-2>mg = mg sample−mg blank
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>mg sample = mg found in front section of sample tube.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>mg sample = mg found in front section of blank tube.
</FP-2>
<P>A similar procedure is followed for the backup sections.
</P>
<P>10.3 Add the weights found in the front and backup sections to get the total weight in the sample.
</P>
<P>10.4 Read the desorption efficiency from the curve (see sec. 8.5.2) for the amount found in the front section. Divide the total weight by this desorption efficiency to obtain the corrected mg/sample.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.036.gif"/></MATH>
<P>10.5 The concentration of the analyte in the air sampled can be expressed in mg/cu m.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.037.gif"/></MATH>
<P>10.6 Another method of expressing concentration is ppm.
</P>
<FP-2>ppm = m mg/cu × 24.45/M.W. × 760/P × T. + 273/298
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>P</I> = Pressure (mm Hg) of air sampled.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I> = Temperature (°C) of air sampled.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>24.45 = Molar volume (liter/mole) at 25 °C and 760 mm Hg.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>M.W.</I> = Molecular weight (g/mole) of analyte.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>760 = Standard pressure (mm Hg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>298 = Standard temperature (°K).
</FP-2>
<P>11. <I>References.</I>
</P>
<P>11.1 White, L. D. et al., “A Convenient Optimized Method for the Analysis of Selected Solvent Vapors in the Industrial Atmosphere,” <I>Amer. Ind. Hyg. Assoc. J., 31:</I>225 (1970).
</P>
<P>11.2 Documentation of NIOSH Validation Tests, NIOSH Contract No. CDC-99-74-45.
</P>
<P>11.3 Final Report, NIOSH Contract HSM-99-71-31, “Personal Sampler Pump for Charcoal Tubes,” September 15, 1972.
</P>
<HD3>NIOSH Modification of NIOSH Method S-156
</HD3>
<P>The NIOSH recommended method for low levels for acrylonitrile is a modification of method S-156. It differs in the following respects:
</P>
<P>(1) Samples are desorbed using 1 ml of 1 percent acetone in CS<E T="52">2</E> rather than methanol.
</P>
<P>(2) The analytical column and conditions are:
</P>
<P>Column: 20 percent SP-1000 on 80/100 Supelcoport 10 feet × 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch S.S.
</P>
<FP>Conditions:
</FP>
<FP-1>Injector temperature: 200 °C.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Detector temperature: 100 °C.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Column temperature: 85 °C.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Helium flow: 25 ml/min.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Air flow: 450 ml/min.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogen flow: 55 ml/min.
</FP-1>
<P>(3) A 2 µl injection of the desorbed analyte is used.
</P>
<P>(4) A sampling rate of 100 ml/min is recommended.
</P>
<HD3>OSHA Laboratory Modification of NIOSH Method S-156
</HD3>
<FP-1>Analyte: Acrylonitrile.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matrix: Air.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Procedure: Adsorption on charcoal, desorption with methanol, GC.
</FP-1>
<P>1. <I>Principle of the Method</I> (Reference 1).
</P>
<P>1.1 A known volume of air is drawn through a charcoal tube to trap the organic vapors present.
</P>
<P>1.2 The charcoal in the tube is transferred to a small, stoppered sample vial, and the analyte is desorbed with methanol.
</P>
<P>1.3 An aliquot of the desorbed sample is injected into a gas chromatograph.
</P>
<P>1.4 The area of the resulting peak is determined and compared with areas obtained for standards.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Advantages and disadvantages of the method.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1 The sampling device is small, portable, and involves no liquids. Interferences are minimal, and most of those which do occur can be eliminated by altering chromatographic conditions. The tubes are analyzed by means of a quick, instrumental method.
</P>
<P>2.2 This method may not be adequate for the simultaneous analysis of two or more substances.
</P>
<P>2.3 The amount of sample which can be taken is limited by the number of milligrams that the tube will hold before overloading. When the sample value obtained for the backup section of the charcoal tube exceeds 25 percent of that found on the front section, the possibility of sample loss exists.
</P>
<P>2.4 The precision of the method is limited by the reproducibility of the pressure drop across the tubes. This drop will affect the flow rate and cause the volume to be imprecise, because the pump is usually calibrated for one tube only.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Apparatus.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1 A calibrated personal sampling pump whose flow can be determined within ±5 percent at the recommended flow rate.
</P>
<P>3.2 Charcoal tubes: Glass tube with both ends flame sealed, 7 cm long with a 6-mm O.D. and a 4-mm I.D., containing 2 sections of 20/40 mesh activated charcoal separated by a 2-mm portion of urethane foam. The activated charcoal is prepared from coconut shells and is fired at 600 °C prior to packing. The adsorbing section contains 100 mg of charcoal, the back-up section 50 mg. A 3-mm portion of urethane foam is placed between the outlet end of the tube and the back-up section. A plug of sililated glass wool is placed in front of the adsorbing section. The pressure drop across the tube must be less than one inch of mercury at a flow rate of 1 liter per minute.
</P>
<P>3.3 Gas chromatograph equipped with a nitrogen phosphorus detector.
</P>
<P>3.4 Column (10-ft × 1/8″-in stainless steel) packed with 100/120 Supelcoport coated with 10 percent SP 1000.
</P>
<P>3.5 An electronic integrator or some other suitable method for measuring peak area.
</P>
<P>3.6 Two-milliliter sample vials with Teflon-lined caps
</P>
<P>3.7 Microliter syringes: 10-microliter, and other convenient sizes for making standards.
</P>
<P>3.8 Pipets: 1.0-ml delivery pipets.
</P>
<P>3.9 Volumetric flasks: convenient sizes for making standard solutions.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reagents.</I>
</P>
<P>4.1 Chromatographic quality methanol.
</P>
<P>4.2 Acrylonitrile, reagent grade.
</P>
<P>4.3 Filtered compressed air.
</P>
<P>4.4 Purified hydrogen.
</P>
<P>4.5 Purified helium.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Procedure.</I>
</P>
<P>5.1 Cleaning of equipment. All glassware used for the laboratory analysis should be properly cleaned and free of organics which could interfere in the analysis.
</P>
<P>5.2 Calibration of personal pumps. Each pump must be calibrated with a representative charcoal tube in the line.
</P>
<P>5.3 Collection and shipping of samples.
</P>
<P>5.3.1 Immediately before sampling, break the ends of the tube to provide an opening at least one-half the internal diameter of the tube (2 mm).
</P>
<P>5.3.2 The smaller section of the charcoal is used as the backup and should be placed nearest the sampling pump.
</P>
<P>5.3.3 The charcoal should be placed in a vertical position during sampling to minimize channeling through the charcoal.
</P>
<P>5.3.4 Air being sampled should not be passed through any hose or tubing before entering the charcoal tube.
</P>
<P>5.3.5 A sample size of 20 liters is recommended. Sample at a flow rate of approximately 0.2 liters per minute. The flow rate should be known with an accuracy of at least ±5 percent.
</P>
<P>5.3.6 The temperature and pressure of the atmosphere being sampled should be recorded.
</P>
<P>5.3.7 The charcoal tubes should be capped with the supplied plastic caps immediately after sampling. Rubber caps should not be used.
</P>
<P>5.3.8 Submit at least one blank tube (a charcoal tube subjected to the same handling procedures, without having any air drawn through it) with each set of samples.
</P>
<P>5.3.9. Take necessary shipping and packing precautions to minimize breakage of samples.
</P>
<P>5.4 Analysis of samples.
</P>
<P>5.4.1 Preparation of samples. In preparation for analysis, each charcoal tube is scored with a file in front of the first section of charcoal and broken open. The glass wool is removed and discarded. The charcoal in the first (larger) section is transferred to a 2-ml vial. The separating section of foam is removed and discarded; the section is transferred to another capped vial. These two sections are analyzed separately.
</P>
<P>5.4.2 Desorption of samples. Prior to analysis, 1.0 ml of methanol is pipetted into each sample container. Desorption should be done for 30 minutes in an ultrasonic bath. The sample vials are recapped as soon as the solvent is added.
</P>
<P>5.4.3 GC conditions. The typical operating conditions for the gas chromatograph are:
</P>
<P>1. 30 ml/min (60 psig) helium carrier gas flow.
</P>
<P>2. 3.0 ml/min (30 psig) hydrogen gas flow to detector.
</P>
<P>3. 50 ml/min (60 psig) air flow to detector.
</P>
<P>4. 200 °C injector temperature.
</P>
<P>5. 200 °C dejector temperature.
</P>
<P>6. 100 °C column temperature.
</P>
<P>5.4.4 Injection. Solvent flush technique or equivalent.
</P>
<P>5.4.5 Measurement of area. The area of the sample peak is measured by an electronic integator or some other suitable form of area measurement, and preliminary results are read from a standard curve prepared as discussed below.
</P>
<P>5.5 Determination of desorption efficiency.
</P>
<P>5.5.1 Importance of determination. The desorption efficiency of a particular compound can vary from one laboratory to another and also from one batch of charcoal to another. Thus, it is necessary to determine, at least once, the percentage of the specific compound that is removed in the desorption process, provided the same batch of charcoal is used.
</P>
<P>5.5.2 Procedure for determining desorption efficiency. The reference portion of the charcoal tube is removed. To the remaining portion, amounts representing 0.5X, 1X, and 2X (X represents TLV) based on a 20 l air sample are injected onto several tubes at each level. Dilutions of acrylonitrile with methanol are made to allow injection of measurable quantities. These tubes are then allowed to equilibrate at least overnight. Following equilibration they are analyzed following the same procedure as the samples A curve of the desorption efficiency amt recovered/amt added is plotted versus amount of analyte found. This curve is used to correct for adsorption losses.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Calibration and standards.</I>
</P>
<P>A series of standards, varying in concentration over the range of interest, is prepared and analyzed under the same GC conditions and during the same time period as the unknown samples. Curves are prepared by plotting concentration versus peak area.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Since no internal standard is used in the method, standard solutions must be analyzed at the same time that the sample analysis is done. This will minimize the effect of known day-to-day variations and variations during the same day of the NPD response. Multiple injections are necessary.</P></NOTE>
<P>7. <I>Calculations.</I>
</P>
<P>Read the weight, corresponding to each peak area from the standard curve, correct for the blank, correct for the desorption efficiency, and make necessary air volume corrections.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Reference.</I> NIOSH Method S-156.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 45809, Oct. 3, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 35283, May 23, 1980; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 58 FR 35310, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1291, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 20099, Apr. 23, 1998; 70 FR 1142, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50190, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75586, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17783, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21518, May 14, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1047" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1047   Ethylene oxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all occupational exposures to ethylene oxide (EtO), Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 75-21-8, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to the processing, use, or handling of products containing EtO where objective data are reasonably relied upon that demonstrate that the product is not capable of releasing EtO in airborne concentrations at or above the action level, and may not reasonably be foreseen to release EtO in excess of the excursion limit, under the expected conditions of processing, use, or handling that will cause the greatest possible release.
</P>
<P>(3) Where products containing EtO are exempted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the employer shall maintain records of the objective data supporting that exemption and the basis for the employer's reliance on the data, as provided in paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions:</I> For the purpose of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne EtO of 0.5 ppm calculated as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter a regulated area, or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe monitoring and measuring procedures under paragraph (l) of this section, or any other person authorized by the Act or regulations issued under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment that is likely to or does result in an unexpected significant release of EtO.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means exposure to airborne EtO which would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Ethylene oxide</I> or <I>EtO</I> means the three-membered ring organic compound with chemical formula C<E T="52">2</E> H<E T="52">4</E> O.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits</I>—(1) <I>8-hour time weighted average (TWA).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of EtO in excess of one (1) part EtO per million parts of air (1 ppm) as an 8-hour time-weighted average (8-hour TWA).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excursion limit.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of EtO in excess of 5 parts of EtO per million parts of air (5 ppm) as averaged over a sampling period of fifteen (15) minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of the 8-hour TWA and 15-minute short-term exposures of each employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Representative 8-hour TWA employee exposure shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing full-shift exposure for each shift for each job classification in each work area. Representative 15-minute short-term employee exposures shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing 15-minute exposures associated with operations that are most likely to produce exposures above the excursion limit for each shift for each job classification in each work area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer can document that exposure levels are equivalent for similar operations in different work shifts, the employer need only determine representative employee exposure for that operation during one shift.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this standard, except as provided for in paragraph (a)(2) or (d)(2)(ii) of this section, shall perform initial monitoring to determine accurately the airborne concentrations of EtO to which employees may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer has monitored after June 15, 1983 and the monitoring satisfies all other requirements of this section, the employer may rely on such earlier monitoring results to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer has previously monitored for the excursion limit and the monitoring satisfies all other requirements of this sections, the employer may rely on such earlier monitoring results to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Monitoring frequency (periodic monitoring).</I> (i) If the monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure at or above the action level but at or below the 8-hour TWA, the employer shall repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every 6 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section reveals employee exposure above the 8-hour TWA, the employer shall repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every 3 months.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer may alter the monitoring schedule from quarterly to semiannually for any employee for whom two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart indicate that the employee's exposure has decreased to or below the 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section reveals employee exposure above the 15 minute excursion limit, the employer shall repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every 3 months, and more often as necessary to evaluate exposure the employee's short-term exposures.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section reveals employee exposure to be below the action level, the employer may discontinue TWA monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by the initial monitoring.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the periodic monitoring required by paragraph (d)(3) of this section reveals that employee exposures, as indicated by at least two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart, are below the action level, the employer may discontinue TWA monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2)(1) of this section reveals employee exposure to be at or below the excursion limit, the employer may discontinue excursion limit monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by the initial monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the periodic monitoring required by paragraph (d)(3) of this section reveals that employee exposures, as indicated by at least two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart, are at or below the excursion limit, the employer may discontinue excursion limit monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (d)(4) of this section, the employer shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (d)(3) of this section whenever there has been a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel or work practices that may result in new or additional exposures to EtO or when the employer has any reason to suspect that a change may result in new or additional exposures.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of monitoring.</I> (i) Monitoring shall be accurate, to a confidence level of 95 percent, to within plus or minus 25 percent for airborne concentrations of EtO at the 1 ppm TWA and to within plus or minus 35 percent for airborne concentrations of EtO at the action level of 0.5 ppm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitoring shall be accurate, to a confidence level of 95 percent, to within plus or minus 35 percent for airborne concentrations of EtO at the excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written notification required by paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section shall contain the corrective action being taken by the employer to reduce employee exposure to or below the TWA and/or excursion limit, wherever monitoring results indicated that the TWA and/or excursion limit has been exceeded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) The employer shall establish a regulated area wherever occupational exposure to airborne concentrations of EtO may exceed the TWA or wherever the EtO concentration exceeds or can reasonably be expected to exceed the excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(2) Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(3) Regulated areas shall be demarcated in any manner that minimizes the number of employees within the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering controls and work practices.</I> (i) The employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices to reduce and maintain employee exposure to or below the TWA and to or below the excursion limit, except to the extent that such controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever the feasible engineering controls and work practices that can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the TWA and to or below the excursion limit, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Engineering controls are generally infeasible for the following operations: collection of quality assurance sampling from sterilized materials removal of biological indicators from sterilized materials: loading and unloading of tank cars; changing of ethylene oxide tanks on sterilizers; and vessel cleaning. For these operations, engineering controls are required only where the Assistant Secretary demonstrates that such controls are feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Where the TWA or excursion limit is exceeded, the employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce exposure to or below the TWA and to or below the excursion limit by means of engineering and work practice controls, as required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and by the use of respiratory protection where required or permitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The compliance program shall include a schedule for periodic leak detection surveys and a written plan for emergency situations, as specified in paragraph (h)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written plans for a program required in paragraph (f)(2) shall be developed and furnished upon request for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, affected employees and designated employee representatives. Such plans shall be reviewed at least every 12 months, and shall be updated as necessary to reflect significant changes in the status of the employer's compliance program.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall not implement a schedule of employee rotation as a means of compliance with the TWA or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection and personal protective equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities and vessel cleaning, for which engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the TWA.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(i)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> Employers must:
</P>
<P>(i) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134; however, employers must not select or use half masks of any type because EtO may cause eye irritation or injury.
</P>
<P>(ii) Equip each air-purifying, full facepiece respirator with a front-or back-mounted canister approved for protection against ethylene oxide.
</P>
<P>(iii) For escape, provide employees with any respirator permitted for use under paragraphs (g)(3)(i) and (ii) of this standard. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protective clothing and equipment.</I> When employees could have eye or skin contact with EtO or EtO solutions, the employer must select and provide, at no cost to the employee, appropriate protective clothing or other equipment in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.132 and 1910.133 to protect any area of the employee's body that may come in contact with the EtO or EtO solution, and must ensure that the employee wears the protective clothing and equipment provided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Emergency situations</I>—(1) <I>Written plan.</I> (i) A written plan for emergency situations shall be developed for each workplace where there is a possibility of an emergency. Appropriate portions of the plan shall be implemented in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan shall specifically provide that employees engaged in correcting emergency conditions shall be equipped with respiratory protection as required by paragraph (g) of this section until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan shall include the elements prescribed in 29 CFR 1910.38 and 29 CFR 1910.39, “Emergency action plans” and “Fire prevention plans,” respectively. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alerting employees.</I> Where there is the possibility of employee exposure to EtO due to an emergency, means shall be developed to alert potentially affected employees of such occurrences promptly. Affected employees shall be immediately evacuated from the area in the event that an emergency occurs.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Medical Surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Employees covered.</I> (A) The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or may be exposed to EtO at or above the action level, without regard to the use of respirators, for at least 30 days a year.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall make available medical examinations and consultations to all employees who have been exposed to EtO in an emergency situation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examination by a physician.</I> The employer shall ensure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and are provided without cost to the employee, without loss of pay, and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical examinations and consultations</I>—(i) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer shall make available medical examinations and consultations to each employee covered under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section on the following schedules:
</P>
<P>(A) Prior to assignment of the employee to an area where exposure may be at or above the action level for at least 30 days a year.
</P>
<P>(B) At least annually each employee exposed at or above the action level for at least 30 days in the past year.
</P>
<P>(C) At termination of employment or reassignment to an area where exposure to EtO is not at or above the action level for at least 30 days a year.
</P>
<P>(D) As medically appropriate for any employee exposed during an emergency.
</P>
<P>(E) As soon as possible, upon notification by an employee either (1) that the employee has developed signs or symptoms indicating possible overexposure to EtO, or (2) that the employee desires medical advice concerning the effects of current or past exposure to EtO on the employee's ability to produce a healthy child.
</P>
<P>(F) If the examining physician determines that any of the examinations should be provided more frequently than specified, the employer shall provide such examinations to affected employees at the frequencies recommended by the physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content.</I> (A) Medical examinations made available pursuant to paragraphs (i)(2)(i)(A)-(D) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A medical and work history with special emphasis directed to symptoms related to the pulmonary, hematologic, neurologic, and reproductive systems and to the eyes and skin.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A physical examination with particular emphasis given to the pulmonary, hematologic, neurologic, and reproductive systems and to the eyes and skin.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A complete blood count to include at least a white cell count (including differential cell count), red cell count, hematocrit, and hemoglobin.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Any laboratory or other test which the examining physician deems necessary by sound medical practice.
</P>
<P>(B) The content of medical examinations or consultation made available pursuant to paragraph (i)(2)(i)(E) of this section shall be determined by the examining physician, and shall include pregnancy testing or laboratory evaluation of fertility, if requested by the employee and deemed appropriate by the physician.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and Appendices A, B, and C.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's representative exposure level or anticipated exposure level.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective and respiratory equipment used or to be used.
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee that is not otherwise available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician. This written opinion shall contain the results of the medical examination and shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions that would place the employee at an increased risk of material health impairment from exposure to EtO;
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations on the employee or upon the use of personal protective equipment such as clothing or respirators; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions resulting from EtO exposure that require further explanation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion given to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to EtO.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the physician's written opinion to the affected employee within 15 days from its receipt.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for EtO.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of EtO at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; reproductive effects; mutagenicity; central nervous system; skin sensitization; skin, eye and respiratory tract irritation; acute toxicity effects; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include EtO in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of EtO and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (j)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs and labels</I>—(i) <I>Signs.</I> (A) The employer shall post and maintain legible signs demarcating regulated areas and entrances or access ways to regulated areas that bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ETHYLENE OXIDE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY DAMAGE FERTILITY OR THE UNBORN CHILD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING MAY BE REQUIRED IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (j)(2)(i)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ETHYLENE OXIDE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD AND REPRODUCTIVE HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING MAY BE REQUIRED TO BE WORN IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Labels.</I> (A) The employer shall ensure that labels are affixed to all containers of EtO whose contents are capable of causing employee exposure at or above the action level or whose contents may reasonably be foreseen to cause employee exposure above the excursion limit, and that the labels remain affixed when the containers of EtO leave the workplace. For the purposes of this paragraph (j)(2)(ii), reaction vessels, storage tanks, and pipes or piping systems are not considered to be containers.
</P>
<P>(B) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on containers of EtO in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>(<I>1</I>) DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS ETHYLENE OXIDE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD AND REPRODUCTIVE HAZARD;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(<I>2</I>) A warning statement against breathing airborne concentrations of EtO.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) The labeling requirements under this section do not apply where EtO is used as a pesticide, as such term is defined in the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. 136 <I>et seq.</I>), when it is labeled pursuant to that Act and regulations issued under that Act by the Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall provide employees who are potentially exposed to EtO at or above the action level or above the excursion limit with information and training on EtO at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees shall be informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The requirements of this section with an explanation of its contents, including Appendices A and B;
</P>
<P>(B) Any operations in their work area where EtO is present;
</P>
<P>(C) The location and availability of the written EtO final rule; and
</P>
<P>(D) The medical surveillance program required by paragraph (i) of this section with an explanation of the information in appendix C.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employee training shall include at least:
</P>
<P>(A) Methods and observations that may be used to detect the presence or release of EtO in the work area (such as monitoring conducted by the employer, continuous monitoring devices, etc.);
</P>
<P>(B) The physical and health hazards of EtO;
</P>
<P>(C) The measures employees can take to protect themselves from hazards associated with EtO exposure, including specific procedures the employer has implemented to protect employees from exposure to EtO, such as work practices, emergency procedures, and personal protective equipment to be used; and
</P>
<P>(D) The details of the hazard communication program developed by the employer, including an explanation of the labeling system and how employees can obtain and use the appropriate hazard information.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Objective data for exempted operations.</I> (i) Where the processing, use, or handling of products made from or containing EtO are exempted from other requirements of this section under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or where objective data have been relied on in lieu of initial monitoring under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of objective data reasonably relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The product qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of EtO;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data support the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall keep an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to EtO as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to EtO which is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and exposure of the employees whose exposures are represented.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance by paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) Physicians' written opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to EtO; and
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (i)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that this record is maintained for the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer, upon written request, shall make all records required to be maintained by this section available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer, upon request, shall make any exemption and exposure records required by paragraphs (k) (1) and (2) of this section available for examination and copying to affected employees, former employees, designated representatives and the Assistant Secretary, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer, upon request, shall make employee medical records required by paragraph (k)(3) of this section available for examination and copying to the subject employee, anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee, and the Assistant Secretary, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer shall comply with the requirements concerning transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to EtO conducted in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to EtO requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the observer shall be provided with and be required to use such clothing and equipment and shall comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(m) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices is not intended by itself to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligation.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1047—Substance Safety Data Sheet for Ethylene Oxide (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Substance Identification
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance: Ethylene oxide (C<E T="52">2</E> H<E T="52">4</E> O).
</P>
<P>B. Synonyms: dihydrooxirene, dimethylene oxide, EO, 1,2-epoxyethane, EtO, ETO, oxacyclopropane, oxane, oxidoethane, alpha/beta-oxidoethane, oxiran, oxirane.
</P>
<P>C. Ethylene oxide can be found as a liquid or vapor.
</P>
<P>D. EtO is used in the manufacture of ethylene glycol, surfactants, ethanolamines, glycol ethers, and other organic chemicals. EtO is also used as a sterilant and fumigant.
</P>
<P>E. Appearance and odor: Colorless liquid below 10.7 °C (51.3 °F) or colorless gas with ether-like odor detected at approximately 700 parts EtO per million parts of air (700 ppm).
</P>
<P>F. Permissible Exposure: Exposure may not exceed 1 part EtO per million parts of air averaged over the 8-hour workday.
</P>
<HD1>ii. Health Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Ethylene oxide can cause bodily harm if you inhale the vapor, if it comes into contact with your eyes or skin, or if you swallow it.
</P>
<P>B. Effects of overexposure:
</P>
<P>1. Ethylene oxide in liquid form can cause eye irritation and injury to the cornea, frostbite, and severe irritation and blistering of the skin upon prolonged or confined contact. Ingestion of EtO can cause gastric irritation and liver injury. Acute effects from inhalation of EtO vapors include respiratory irritation and lung injury, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, shortness of breath, and cyaonosis (blue or purple coloring of skin). Exposure has also been associated with the occurrence of cancer, reproductive effects, mutagenic changes, neurotoxicity, and sensitization.
</P>
<P>1. EtO has been shown to cause cancer in laboratory animals and has been associated with higher incidences of cancer in humans. Adverse reproductive effects and chromosome damage may also occur from EtO exposure.
</P>
<P>a. Reporting signs and symptoms: You should inform your employer if you develop any signs or symptoms and suspect that they are caused by exposure to EtO.
</P>
<HD1>iii. Emergency First Aid Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. Eye exposure: If EtO gets into your eyes, wash your eyes immediately with large amounts of water, lifting the lower and upper eyelids. Get medical attention immediately. Contact lenses should not be worn when working with this chemical.
</P>
<P>B. Skin exposure: If EtO gets on your skin, immediately wash the contaminated skin with water. If EtO soaks through your clothing, especially your shoes, remove the clothing immediately and wash the skin with water using an emergency deluge shower. Get medical attention immediately. Thoroughly wash contaminated clothing before reusing. Contaminated leather shoes or other leather articles should not be reused and should be discarded.
</P>
<P>C. Inhalation: If large amounts of EtO are inhaled, the exposed person must be moved to fresh air at once. If breathing has stopped, perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Keep the affected person warm and at rest. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>D. Swallowing: When EtO has been swallowed, give the person large quantities of water immediately. After the water has been swallowed, try to get the person to vomit by having him or her touch the back of the throat with his or her finger. Do not make an unconscious person vomit. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>E. Rescue: Move the affected person from the hazardous exposure. If the exposed person has been overcome, attempt rescue only after notifying at least one other person of the emergency and putting into effect established emergency procedures. Do not become a casualty yourself. Understand your emergency rescue procedures and know the location of the emergency equipment before the need arises.
</P>
<HD1>iv. Respirators and Protective Clothing
</HD1>
<P>A. Respirators. You may be required to wear a respirator for nonroutine activities, in emergencies, while your employer is in the process of reducing EtO exposures through engineering controls, and in areas where engineering controls are not feasible. As of the effective date of this standard, only air-supplied, positive-pressure, full-facepiece respirators are approved for protection against EtO. If air-purifying respirators are worn in the future, they must have a label issued by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health under the provisions of 42 CFR part 84 stating that the respirators have been approved for use with ethylene oxide. For effective protection, respirators must fit your face and head snugly. Respirators must not be loosened or removed in work situations where their use is required.
</P>
<P>EtO does not have a detectable odor except at levels well above the permissible exposure limits. If you can smell EtO while wearing a respirator, proceed immediately to fresh air. If you experience difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator, tell your employer.
</P>
<P>B. Protective clothing: You may be required to wear impermeable clothing, gloves, a face shield, or other appropriate protective clothing to prevent skin contact with liquid EtO or EtO-containing solutions. Where protective clothing is required, your employer must provide clean garments to you as necessary to assure that the clothing protects you adequately.
</P>
<P>Replace or repair protective clothing that has become torn or otherwise damaged.
</P>
<P>EtO must never be allowed to remain on the skin. Clothing and shoes which are not impermeable to EtO should not be allowed to become contaminated with EtO, and if they do, the clothing should be promptly removed and decontaminated. Contaminated leather shoes should be discarded. Once EtO penetrates shoes or other leather articles, they should not be worn again.
</P>
<P>C. Eye protection: You must wear splashproof safety goggles in areas where liquid EtO or EtO-containing solutions may contact your eyes. In addition, contact lenses should not be worn in areas where eye contact with EtO can occur.
</P>
<HD1>v. Precautions for Safe Use, Handling, and Storage
</HD1>
<P>A. EtO is a flammable liquid, and its vapors can easily form explosive mixtures in air.
</P>
<P>B. EtO must be stored in tighly closed containers in a cool, well-ventilated area, away from heat, sparks, flames, strong oxidizers, alkalines, and acids, strong bases, acetylide-forming metals such as cooper, silver, mercury and their alloys.
</P>
<P>C. Sources of ignition such as smoking material, open flames and some electrical devices are prohibited wherever EtO is handled, used, or stored in a manner that could create a potential fire or explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>D. You should use non-sparking tools when opening or closing metal containers of EtO, and containers must be bonded and grounded in the rare instances in which liquid EtO is poured or transferred.
</P>
<P>E. Impermeable clothing wet with liquid EtO or EtO-containing solutions may be easily ignited. If your are wearing impermeable clothing and are splashed with liquid EtO or EtO-containing solution, you should immediately remove the clothing while under an emergency deluge shower.
</P>
<P>F. If your skin comes into contact with liquid EtO or EtO-containing solutions, you should immediately remove the EtO using an emergency deluge shower.
</P>
<P>G. You should not keep food, beverages, or smoking materials in regulated areas where employee exposures are above the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>H. Fire extinguishers and emergency deluge showers for quick drenching should be readily available, and you should know where they are and how to operate them.
</P>
<P>I. Ask your supervisor where EtO is used in your work area and for any additional plant safety and health rules.
</P>
<HD1>vi. Access to Information
</HD1>
<P>A. Each year, your employer is required to inform you of the information contained in this standard and appendices for EtO. In addition, your employer must instruct you in the proper work practices for using EtO emergency procedures, and the correct use of protective equipment.
</P>
<P>B. Your employer is required to determine whether you are being exposed to EtO. You or your representative has the right to observe employee measurements and to record the results obtained. Your employer is required to inform you of your exposure. If your employer determine that you are being overexposed, he or she is required to inform you of the actions which are being taken to reduce your exposure to within permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>C. Your employer is required to keep records of your exposures and medical examinations. These exposure records must be kept by the employer for at least thirty (30) years. Medical records must be kept for the period of your employment plus thirty (30) years.
</P>
<P>D. Your employer is required to release your exposure and medical records to your physician or designated representative upon your written request.
</P>
<HD1>vii. Sterilant Use of Eto in Hospitals and Health Care Facilities
</HD1>
<P>This section of appendix A, for informational purposes, sets forth EPA's recommendations for modifications in workplace design and practice in hospitals and health care facilities for which the Environmental Protection Agency has registered EtO for uses as a sterilant or fumigant under the Federal Insecticide, Funigicide, and Rodenticide Act, 7 U.S.C. 136 <I>et seq.</I> These new recommendations, published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by EPA at 49 FR 15268, as modified in today's <E T="04">Register,</E> are intended to help reduce the exposure of hospital and health care workers to EtO to 1 ppm. EPA's recommended workplace design and workplace practice are as follows:
</P>
<HD2>1. Workplace Design
</HD2>
<P>a. <I>Installation of gas line hand valves.</I> Hand valves must be installed on the gas supply line at the connection to the supply cylinders to minimize leakage during cylinder change.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Installation of capture boxes.</I> Sterilizer operations result in a gas/water discharge at the completion of the process. This discharge is routinely piped to a floor drain which is generally located in an equipment or an adjacent room. When the floor drain is not in the same room as the sterilizer and workers are not normally present, all that is necessary is that the room be well ventilated.
</P>
<P>The installation of a “capture box” will be required for those work place layouts where the floor drain is located in the same room as the sterilizer or in a room where workers are normally present. A “capture box” is a piece of equipment that totally encloses the floor drain where the discharge from the sterilizer is pumped. The “capture box” is to be vented directly to a non-recirculating or dedicated ventilation system. Sufficient air intake should be allowed at the bottom of the box to handle the volume of air that is ventilated from the top of the box. The “capture box” can be made of metal, plastic, wood or other equivalent material. The box is intended to reduce levels of EtO discharged into the work room atmosphere. The use of a “capture box” is not required if: (1) The vacuum pump discharge floor drain is located in a well ventilated equipment or other room where workers are not normally present or (2) the water sealed vacuum pump discharges directly to a closed sealed sewer line (check local plumbing codes).
</P>
<P>If it is impractical to install a vented “capture box” and a well ventilated equipment or other room is not feasible, a box that can be sealed over the floor drain may be used if: (1) The floor drain is located in a room where workers are not normally present and EtO cannot leak into an occupied area, and (2) the sterilizer in use is less than 12 cubic feet in capacity (check local plumbing codes).
</P>
<P>c. <I>Ventilation of aeration units</I> i. <I>Existing aeration units.</I> Existing units must be vented to a non-recirculating or dedicated system or vented to an equipment or other room where workers are not normally present and which is well ventilated. Aerator units must be positioned as close as possible to the sterilizer to minimize the exposure from the off-gassing of sterilized items.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Installation of new aerator units (where none exist).</I> New aerator units must be vented as described above for existing aerators. Aerators must be in place by July 1, 1986.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Ventilation during cylinder change.</I> Workers may be exposed to short but relatively high levels of EtO during the change of gas cylinders. To reduce exposure from this route, users must select one of three alternatives designed to draw off gas that may be released when the line from the sterilizer to the cylinder is disconnected:
</P>
<P>i. Location of cylinders in a well ventilated equipment room or other room where workers are not normally present.
</P>
<P>ii. Installation of a flexible hose (at least 4″ in diameter) to a non-recirculating or dedicated ventilation system and located in the area of cylinder change in such a way that the hose can be positioned at the point where the sterilizer gas line is disconnected from the cylinder.
</P>
<P>iii. Installation of a hood that is part of a non-recirculating or dedicated system and positioned no more than one foot above the point where the change of cylinders takes place.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Ventilation of sterilizer door area.</I> One of the major sources of exposure to EtO occurs when the sterilizer door is opened following the completion of the sterilization process. In order to reduce this avenue of exposure, a hood or metal canopy closed on each end must be installed over the sterilizer door. The hood or metal canopy must be connected to a non-recirculating or dedicated ventilation system or one that exhausts gases to a well ventilated equipment or other room where workers are not normally present. A hood or canopy over the sterilizer door is required for use even with those sterilizers that have a purge cycle and must be in place by July 1, 1986.
</P>
<P>f. <I>Ventilation of sterilizer relief valve.</I> Sterilizers are typically equipped with a safety relief device to release gas in case of increased pressure in the sterilizer. Generally, such relief devices are used on pressure vessels. Although these pressure relief devices are rarely opened for hospital and health care sterilizers, it is suggested that they be designed to exhaust vapor from the sterilizer by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>i. Through a pipe connected to the outlet of the relief valve ventilated directly outdoors at a point high enough to be away from passers by, and not near any windows that open, or near any air conditioning or ventilation air intakes.
</P>
<P>ii. Through a connection to an existing or new non-recirculating or dedicated ventilation system.
</P>
<P>iii. Through a connection to a well ventilated equipment or other room where workers are not normally present.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Ventilation systems.</I> Each hospital and health care facility affected by this notice that uses EtO for the sterilization of equipment and supplies must have a ventilation system which enables compliance with the requirements of section (b) through (f) in the manner described in these sections and within the timeframes allowed. Thus, each affected hospital and health care facility must have or install a non-recirculating or dedicated ventilation equipment or other room where workers are not normally present in which to vent EtO.
</P>
<P>h. <I>Installation of alarm systems.</I> An audible and visual indicator alarm system must be installed to alert personnel of ventilation system failures, i.e., when the ventilation fan motor is not working.
</P>
<HD2>2. Workplace Practices
</HD2>
<P>All the workplace practices discussed in this unit must be permanently posted near the door of each sterilizer prior to use by any operator.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Changing of supply line filters.</I> Filters in the sterilizer liquid line must be changed when necessary, by the following procedure:
</P>
<P>i. Close the cylinder valve and the hose valve.
</P>
<P>ii. Disconnect the cylinder hose (piping) from the cylinder.
</P>
<P>iii. Open the hose valve and bleed slowly into a proper ventilating system at or near the in-use supply cylinders.
</P>
<P>iv. Vacate the area until the line is empty.
</P>
<P>v. Change the filter.
</P>
<P>vi. Reconnect the lines and reverse the value position.
</P>
<P>vii. Check hoses, filters, and valves for leaks with a fluorocarbon leak detector (for those sterilizers using the 88 percent chlorofluorocarbon, 12 percent ethylene oxide mixture (12/88)).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Restricted access area.</I> i. Areas involving use of EtO must be designated as restricted access areas. They must be identified with signs or floor marks near the sterilizer door, aerator, vacuum pump floor drain discharge, and in-use cylinder storage.
</P>
<P>ii. All personnel must be excluded from the restricted area when certain operations are in progress, such as discharging a vacuum pump, emptying a sterilizer liquid line, or venting a non-purge sterilizer with the door ajar or other operations where EtO might be released directly into the face of workers.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Door opening procedures.</I> i. <I>Sterilizers with purge cycles.</I> A load treated in a sterilizer equipped with a purge cycle should be removed immediately upon completion of the cycle (provided no time is lost opening the door after cycle is completed). If this is not done, the purge cycle should be repeated before opening door.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Sterilizers without purge cycles.</I> For a load treated in a sterilizer not equipped with a purge cycle, the sterilizer door must be ajar 6″ for 15 minutes, and then fully opened for at least another 15 minutes before removing the treated load. The length of time of the second period should be established by peak monitoring for one hour after the two 15-minute periods suggested. If the level is above 10 ppm time-weighted average for 8 hours, more time should be added to the second waiting period (door wide open). However, in no case may the second period be shortened to less than 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Chamber unloading procedures.</I> i. Procedures for unloading the chamber must include the use of baskets or rolling carts, or baskets and rolling tables to transfer treated loads quickly, thus avoiding excessive contact with treated articles, and reducing the duration of exposures.
</P>
<P>ii. If rolling carts are used, they should be pulled not pushed by the sterilizer operators to avoid offgassing exposure.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Maintenance.</I> A written log should be instituted and maintained documenting the date of each leak detection and any maintenance procedures undertaken. This is a suggested use practice and is not required.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Leak detection.</I> Sterilizer door gaskets, cylinder and vacuum piping, hoses, filters, and valves must be checked for leaks under full pressure with a Fluorocarbon leak detector (for 12/88 systems only) every two weeks by maintenance personnel. Also, the cylinder piping connections must be checked after changing cylinders. Particular attention in leak detection should be given to the automatic solenoid valves that control the flow of EtO to the sterilizer. Specifically, a check should be made at the EtO gasline entrance port to the sterilizer, while the sterilizer door is open and the solenoid valves are in a closed position.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Maintenance procedures.</I> Sterilizer/areator door gaskets, valves, and fittings must be replaced when necessary as determined by maintenance personnel in their bi-weekly checks; in addition, visual inspection of the door gaskets for cracks, debris, and other foreign substances should be conducted daily by the operator.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1047—Substance Technical Guidelines for Ethylene Oxide (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD1>i. Physical and Chemical Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance identification:
</P>
<P>1. Synonyms: dihydrooxirene, dimethylene oxide, EO, 1,2-epoxyethane, EtO ETO oxacyclopropane, oxane, oxidoethane, alpha/beta-oxidoethane, oxiran, oxirane.
</P>
<P>2. Formula: (C<E T="52">2</E> H<E T="52">4</E> O).
</P>
<P>3. Molecular weight: 44.06
</P>
<P>B. Physical data:
</P>
<P>1. Boiling point (760 mm Hg): 10.70 °C (51.3 °F);
</P>
<P>2. Specific gravity (water = 1): 0.87 (at 20 °C or 68 °F)
</P>
<P>3. Vapor density (air = 1): 1.49;
</P>
<P>4. Vapor pressure (at 20 °C); 1,095 mm Hg;
</P>
<P>5. Solubility in water: complete;
</P>
<P>6. Appearance and odor: colorless liquid; gas at temperature above 10.7 °F or 51.3 °C with ether-like odor above 700 ppm.
</P>
<HD1>ii. Fire, Explosion, and Reactivity Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. Fire:
</P>
<P>1. Flash point: less than O °F (open cup);
</P>
<P>2. Stability: decomposes violently at temperatures above 800 °F;
</P>
<P>3. Flammable limits in air, percent by volume: Lower: 3, Upper: 100;
</P>
<P>4. Extinguishing media: Carbon dioxide for small fires, polymer or alcohol foams for large fires;
</P>
<P>5. Special fire fighting procedures: Dilution of ethylene oxide with 23 volumes of water renders it non-flammable;
</P>
<P>6. Unusual fire and explosion hazards: Vapors of EtO will burn without the presence of air or other oxidizers. EtO vapors are heavier than air and may travel along the ground and be ignited by open flames or sparks at locations remote from the site at which EtO is being used.
</P>
<P>7. For purposes of compliance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.106, EtO is classified as a flammable gas. For example, 7,500 ppm, approximately one-fourth of the lower flammable limit, would be considered to pose a potential fire and explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>8. For purposes of compliance with 29 CFR 1910.155, EtO is classified as a Class B fire hazard.
</P>
<P>9. For purpose of compliance with 29 CFR 1919.307, locations classified as hazardous due to the presence of EtO shall be Class I.
</P>
<P>B. Reactivity:
</P>
<P>1. Conditions contributing to instability: EtO will polymerize violently if contaminated with aqueous alkalies, amines, mineral acids, metal chlorides, or metal oxides. Violent decomposition will also occur at temperatures above 800 °F;
</P>
<P>2. Incompatabilities: Alkalines and acids;
</P>
<P>3. Hazardous decomposition products: Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.
</P>
<HD1>iii. Spill, Leak, and Disposal Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. If EtO is spilled or leaked, the following steps should be taken:
</P>
<P>1. Remove all ignition sources.
</P>
<P>2. The area should be evacuated at once and re-entered only after the area has been thoroughly ventilated and washed down with water.
</P>
<P>B. Persons not wearing appropriate protective equipment should be restricted from areas of spills or leaks until cleanup has been completed.
</P>
<P>C. Waste disposal methods: Waste material should be disposed of in a manner that is not hazardous to employees or to the general population. In selecting the method of waste disposal, applicable local, State, and Federal regulations should be consulted.
</P>
<HD1>iv. Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. Exposure above the Permissible Exposure Limit:
</P>
<P>1. Eight-hour exposure evaluation: Measurements taken for the purpose of determining employee exposure under this section are best taken with consecutive samples covering the full shift. Air samples should be taken in the employee's breathing zone (air that would most nearly represent that inhaled by the employee.)
</P>
<P>2. Monitoring techniques: The sampling and analysis under this section may be performed by collection of the EtO vapor on charcoal adsorption tubes or other composition adsorption tubes, with subsequent chemical analysis. Sampling and analysis may also be performed by instruments such as real-time continuous monitoring systems, portable direct reading instruments, or passive dosimeters as long as measurements taken using these methods accurately evaluate the concentration of EtO in employees' breathing zones.
</P>
<P>Appendix D describes the validated method of sampling and analysis which has been tested by OSHA for use with EtO. Other available methods are also described in appendix D. The employer has the obligation of selecting a monitoring method which meets the accuracy and precision requirements of the standard under his unique field conditions. The standard requires that the method of monitoring should be accurate, to a 95 percent confidence level, to plus or minus 25 percent for concentrations of EtO at 1 ppm, and to plus or minus 35 percent for concentrations at 0.5 ppm. In addition to the method described in appendix D, there are numerous other methods available for monitoring for EtO in the workplace. Details on these other methods have been submitted by various companies to the rulemaking record, and are available at the OSHA Docket Office.
</P>
<P>B. Since many of the duties relating to employee exposure are dependent on the results of measurement procedures, employers should assure that the evaluation of employee exposures is performed by a technically qualified person.
</P>
<HD1>v. Protective Clothing and Equipment
</HD1>
<P>Employees should be provided with and be required to wear appropriate protective clothing wherever there is significant potential for skin contact with liquid EtO or EtO-containing solutions. Protective clothing shall include impermeable coveralls or similar full-body work clothing, gloves, and head coverings, as appropriate to protect areas of the body which may come in contact with liquid EtO or EtO-containing solutions.
</P>
<P>Employers should ascertain that the protective garments are impermeable to EtO. Permeable clothing, including items made of rubber, and leather shoes should not be allowed to become contaminated with liquid EtO. If permeable clothing does become contaminated, it should be immediately removed, while the employer is under an emergency deluge shower. If leather footwear or other leather garments become wet from EtO they should be discarded and not be worn again, because leather absorbs EtO and holds it against the skin.
</P>
<P>Any protective clothing that has been damaged or is otherwise found to be defective should be repaired or replaced. Clean protective clothing should be provided to the employee as necessary to assure employee protection. Whenever impermeable clothing becomes wet with liquid EtO, it should be washed down with water before being removed by the employee. Employees are also required to wear splash-proof safety goggles where there is any possibility of EtO contacting the eyes.
</P>
<HD1>vi. Miscellaneous Precautions
</HD1>
<P>A. Store EtO in tightly closed containers in a cool, well-ventilated area and take all necessary precautions to avoid any explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>B. Non-sparking tools must be used to open and close metal containers. These containers must be effectively grounded and bonded.
</P>
<P>C. Do not incinerate EtO cartridges, tanks or other containers.
</P>
<P>D. Employers should advise employees of all areas and operations where exposure to EtO occur.
</P>
<HD1>vii. Common Operations
</HD1>
<P>Common operations in which exposure to EtO is likely to occur include the following: Manufacture of EtO, surfactants, ethanolamines, glycol ethers, and specialty chemicals, and use as a sterilant in the hospital, health product and spice industries.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1047—Medical Surveillance Guidelines for Ethylene Oxide (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD1>i. route of entry
</HD1>
<P>Inhalation.
</P>
<HD1>ii. toxicology
</HD1>
<P>Clinical evidence of adverse effects associated with the exposure to EtO is present in the form of increased incidence of cancer in laboratory animals (leukemia, stomach, brain), mutation in offspring in animals, and resorptions and spontaneous abortions in animals and human populations respectively. Findings in humans and experimental animals exposed to airborne concentrations of EtO also indicate damage to the genetic material (DNA). These include hemoglobin alkylation, unsecheduled DNA synthesis, sister chromatid exchange chromosomal aberration, and functional sperm abnormalities.
</P>
<P>Ethylene oxide in liquid form can cause eye irritation and injury to the cornea, frostbite, severe irritation, and blistering of the skin upon prolonged or confined contact. Ingestion of EtO can cause gastric irritation and liver injury. Other effects from inhalation of EtO vapors include respiratory irritation and lung injury, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dyspnea and cyanosis.
</P>
<HD1>iii. signs and symptoms of acute overexposure
</HD1>
<P>The early effects of acute overexposure to EtO are nausea and vomiting, headache, and irritation of the eyes and respiratory passages. The patient may notice a “peculiar taste” in the mouth. Delayed effects can include pulmonary edema, drowsiness, weakness, and incoordination. Studies suggest that blood cell changes, an increase in chromosomal aberrations, and spontaneous abortion may also be causally related to acute overexposure to EtO.
</P>
<P>Skin contact with liquid or gaseous EtO causes characteristic burns and possibly even an allergic-type sensitization. The edema and erythema occurring from skin contact with EtO progress to vesiculation with a tendency to coalesce into blebs with desquamation. Healing occurs within three weeks, but there may be a residual brown pigmentation. A 40-80% solution is extremely dangerous, causing extensive blistering after only brief contact. Pure liquid EtO causes frostbite because of rapid evaporation. In contrast, the eye is relatively insensitive to EtO, but there may be some irritation of the cornea.
</P>
<P>Most reported acute effects of occupational exposure to EtO are due to contact with EtO in liquid phase. The liquid readily penetrates rubber and leather, and will produce blistering if clothing or footwear contaminated with EtO are not removed.
</P>
<HD1>iv. surveillance and preventive considerations
</HD1>
<P>As noted above, exposure to EtO has been linked to an increased risk of cancer and reproductive effects including decreased male fertility, fetotoxicity, and spontaneous abortion. EtO workers are more likely to have chromosomal damage than similar groups not exposed to EtO. At the present, limited studies of chronic effects in humans resulting from exposure to EtO suggest a causal association with leukemia. Animal studies indicate leukemia and cancers at other sites (brain, stomach) as well. The physician should be aware of the findings of these studies in evaluating the health of employees exposed to EtO.
</P>
<P>Adequate screening tests to determine an employee's potential for developing serious chronic diseases, such as cancer, from exposure to EtO do not presently exist. Laboratory tests may, however, give evidence to suggest that an employee is potentially overexposed to EtO. It is important for the physician to become familiar with the operating conditions in which exposure to EtO is likely to occur. The physician also must become familiar with the signs and symptoms that indicate a worker is receiving otherwise unrecognized and unacceptable exposure to EtO. These elements are especially important in evaluating the medical and work histories and in conducting the physical exam. When an unacceptable exposure in an active employee is identified by the physician, measures taken by the employer to lower exposure should also lower the risk of serious long-term consequences.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or will be exposed to EtO at or above the action level (0.5 ppm) for at least 30 days per year, without regard to respirator use. All examinations and procedures must be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician at a reasonable time and place for the employee and at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>Although broad latitude in prescribing specific tests to be included in the medical surveillance program is extended to the examining physician, OSHA requires inclusion of the following elements in the routine examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Medical and work histories with special emphasis directed to symptoms related to the pulmonary, hematologic, neurologic, and reproductive systems and to the eyes and skin.
</P>
<P>(ii) Physical examination with particular emphasis given to the pulmonary, hematologic, neurologic, and reproductive systems and to the eyes and skin.
</P>
<P>(iii) Complete blood count to include at least a white cell count (including differential cell count), red cell count, hematocrit, and hemoglobin.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any laboratory or other test which the examining physician deems necessary by sound medical practice.
</P>
<P>If requested by the employee, the medical examinations shall include pregnancy testing or laboratory evaluation of fertility as deemed appropriate by the physician.
</P>
<P>In certain cases, to provide sound medical advice to the employer and the employee, the physician must evaluate situations not directly related to EtO. For example, employees with skin diseases may be unable to tolerate wearing protective clothing. In addition those with chronic respiratory diseases may not tolerate the wearing of negative pressure (air purifying) respirators. Additional tests and procedures that will help the physician determine which employees are medically unable to wear such respirators should include: An evaluation of cardiovascular function, a baseline chest x-ray to be repeated at five year intervals, and a pulmonary function test to be repeated every three years. The pulmonary function test should include measurement of the employee's forced vital capacity (FVC), forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV1), as well as calculation of the ratios of FEV1 to FVC, and measured FVC and measured FEV1 to expected values corrected for variation due to age, sex, race, and height.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to make the prescribed tests available at least annually to employees who are or will be exposed at or above the action level, for 30 or more days per year; more often than specified if recommended by the examining physician; and upon the employee's termination of employment or reassignment to another work area. While little is known about the long term consequences of high short-term exposures, it appears prudent to monitor such affected employees closely in light of existing health data. The employer shall provide physician recommended examinations to any employee exposed to EtO in emergency conditions. Likewise, the employer shall make available medical consultations including physician recommended exams to employees who believe they are suffering signs or symptoms of exposure to EtO.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to provide the physician with the following informatin: a copy of this standard and its appendices; a description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee exposure level; and information from the employee's previous medical examinations which is not readily available to the examining physician. Making this information available to the physician will aid in the evaluation of the employee's health in relation to assigned duties and fitness to wear personal protective equipment, when required.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to obtain a written opinion from the examining physician containing the results of the medical examinations; the physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of his or her health from exposure to EtO; any recommended restrictions upon the employee's exposure to EtO, or upon the use of protective clothing or equipment such as respirators; and a statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions which require further explanation or treatment. This written opinion must not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to EtO, and a copy of the opinion must be provided to the affected employee.
</P>
<P>The purpose in requiring the examining physician to supply the employer with a written opinion is to provide the employer with a medical basis to aid in the determination of initial placement of employees and to assess the employee's ability to use protective clothing and equipment.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1047—Sampling and Analytical Methods for Ethylene Oxide (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>A number of methods are available for monitoring employee exposures to EtO. Most of these involve the use of charcoal tubes and sampling pumps, followed by analysis of the samples by gas chromatograph. The essential differences between the charcoal tube methods include, among others, the use of different desorbing solvents, the use of different lots of charcoal, and the use of different equipment for analysis of the samples.
</P>
<P>Besides charcoal, methods using passive dosimeters, gas sampling bags, impingers, and detector tubes have been utilized for determination of EtO exposure. In addition, there are several commercially available portable gas analyzers and monitoring units.
</P>
<P>This appendix contains details for the method which has been tested at the OSHA Analytical Laboratory in Salt Lake City. Inclusion of this method in the appendix does not mean that this method is the only one which will be satisfactory. Copies of descriptions of other methods available are available in the rulemaking record, and may be obtained from the OSHA Docket Office. These include the Union Carbide, Dow Chemical, 3M, and DuPont methods, as well as NIOSH Method S-286. These methods are briefly described at the end of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Employers who note problems with sample breakthrough using the OSHA or other charcoal methods should try larger charcoal tubes. Tubes of larger capacity are available. In addition, lower flow rates and shorter sampling times should be beneficial in minimizing breakthrough problems. Whatever method the employer chooses, he must assure himself of the method's accuracy and precision under the unique conditions present in his workplace.
</P>
<HD1>Ethylene Oxide
</HD1>
<P>Method No.: 30.
</P>
<P>Matrix: Air.
</P>
<P>Target Concentration: 1.0 ppm (1.8 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>).
</P>
<P>Procedure: Samples are collected on two charcoal tubes in series and desorbed with 1% CS<E T="52">2</E> in benzene. The samples are derivatized with HBr and treated with sodium carbonate. Analysis is done by gas chromatography with an electron capture detector.
</P>
<P>Recommended Air Volume and Sampling Rate: 1 liter and 0.05 Lpm.
</P>
<P>Detection Limit of the Overall Procedure: 13.3 ppb (0.024 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>) (Based on 1.0 liter air sample).
</P>
<P>Reliable Quantitation Limit: 52.2 ppb (0.094 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>) (Based on 1.0 liter air sample).
</P>
<P>Standard Error of Estimate: 6.59% (See Backup Section 4.6).
</P>
<P>Special Requirements: Samples must be analyzed within 15 days of sampling date.
</P>
<P>Status of Method: The sampling and analytical method has been subjected to the established evaluation procedures of the Organic Method Evaluations Branch.
</P>
<P>Date: August 1981.
</P>
<P>Chemist: Wayne D. Potter.
</P>
<HD1>Organic Solvents Branch, OSHA Analytical Laboratory, Salt Lake City, Utah
</HD1>
<P>1. General Discussion.
</P>
<P>1.1 Background.
</P>
<P>1.1.1 History of Procedure.
</P>
<P>Ethylene oxide samples analyzed at the OSHA Laboratory have normally been collected on activated charcoal and desorbed with carbon disulfide. The analysis is performed with a gas chromatograph equipped with a FID (Flame ionization detector) as described in NIOSH Method S286 (Ref. 5.1). This method is based on a PEL of 50 ppm and has a detection limit of about 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>Recent studies have prompted the need for a method to analyze and detect ethylene oxide at very low concentrations.
</P>
<P>Several attempts were made to form an ultraviolet (UV) sensitive derivative with ethylene oxide for analysis with HPLC. Among those tested that gave no detectable product were: p-anisidine, methylimidazole, aniline, and 2,3,6-trichlorobenzoic acid. Each was tested with catalysts such as triethylamine, aluminum chloride, methylene chloride and sulfuric acid but no detectable derivative was produced.
</P>
<P>The next derivatization attempt was to react ethylene oxide with HBr to form 2-bromoethanol. This reaction was successful. An ECD (electron capture detector) gave a very good response for 2-bromoethanol due to the presence of bromine. The use of carbon disulfide as the desorbing solvent gave too large a response and masked the 2-bromoethanol. Several other solvents were tested for both their response on the ECD and their ability to desorb ethylene oxide from the charcoal. Among those tested were toluene, xylene, ethyl benzene, hexane, cyclohexane and benzene. Benzene was the only solvent tested that gave a suitable response on the ECD and a high desorption. It was found that the desorption efficiency was improved by using 1% CS<E T="52">2</E> with the benzene. The carbon disulfide did not significantly improve the recovery with the other solvents. SKC Lot 120 was used in all tests done with activated charcoal.
</P>
<P>1.1.2 Physical Properties (Ref. 5.2-5.4).
</P>
<P>Synonyms: Oxirane; dimethylene oxide, 1,2-epoxy-ethane; oxane; C<E T="52">2</E> H<E T="52">4</E> O; ETO;
</P>
<P>Molecular Weight: 44.06
</P>
<P>Boiling Point: 10.7 °C (51.3°)
</P>
<P>Melting Point: −111 °C
</P>
<P>Description: Colorless, flammable gas
</P>
<P>Vapor Pressure: 1095 mm. at 20 °C
</P>
<P>Odor: Ether-like odor
</P>
<P>Lower Explosive Limits: 3.0% (by volume)
</P>
<P>Flash Point (TOC): Below 0 °F
</P>
<P>Molecular Structure: CH<E T="52">2</E>—CH<E T="52">2</E>
</P>
<P>1.2 Limit Defining Parameters.
</P>
<P>1.2.1 Detection Limit of the Analytical Procedure.
</P>
<P>The detection limit of the analytical procedure is 12.0 picograms of ethylene oxide per injection. This is the amount of analyte which will give a peak whose height is five times the height of the baseline noise. (See Backup Data Section 4.1).
</P>
<P>1.2.2 Detection Limit of the Overall Procedure.
</P>
<P>The detection limit of the overall procedure is 24.0 ng of ethylene oxide per sample.
</P>
<P>This is the amount of analyte spiked on the sampling device which allows recovery of an amount of analyte equivalent to the detection limit of the analytical procedure. (See Backup Data Section 4.2).
</P>
<P>1.2.3 Reliable Quantitation Limit.
</P>
<P>The reliable quantitation limit is 94.0 nanograms of ethylene oxide per sample. This is the smallest amount of analyte which can be quantitated within the requirements of 75% recovery and 95% confidence limits. (See Backup Data Section 4.2).
</P>
<P>It must be recognized that the reliable quantitation limit and detection limits reported in the method are based upon optimization of the instrument for the smallest possible amount of analyte. When the target concentration of an analyte is exceptionally higher than these limits, they may not be attainable at the routine operating parameters. In this case, the limits reported on analysis reports will be based on the operating parameters used during the analysis of the samples.
</P>
<P>1.2.4 Sensitivity.
</P>
<P>The sensitivity of the analytical procedure over a concentration range representing 0.5 to 2 times the target concentration based on the recommended air volume is 34105 area units per µg/mL. The sensitivity is determined by the slope of the calibration curve (See Backup Data Section 4.3).
</P>
<P>The sensitivity will vary somewhat with the particular instrument used in the analysis.
</P>
<P>1.2.5 Recovery.
</P>
<P>The recovery of analyte from the collection medium must be 75% or greater. The average recovery from spiked samples over the range of 0.5 to 2 times the target concentration is 88.0% (See Backup Section 4.4). At lower concentrations the recovery appears to be non-linear.
</P>
<P>1.2.6 Precision (Analytical Method Only).
</P>
<P>The pooled coefficient of variation obtained from replicate determination of analytical standards at 0.5X, 1X and 2X the target concentration is 0.036 (See Backup Data Section 4.5).
</P>
<P>1.2.7 Precision (Overall Procedure).
</P>
<P>The overall procedure must provide results at the target concentration that are 25% of better at the 95% confidence level. The precision at the 95% confidence level for the 15 day storage test is plus or minus 12.9% (See Backup Data Section 4.6).
</P>
<P>This includes an additional plus or minus 5% for sampling error.
</P>
<P>1.3 Advantages.
</P>
<P>1.3.1 The sampling procedure is convenient.
</P>
<P>1.3.2 The analytical procedure is very sensitive and reproducible.
</P>
<P>1.3.3 Reanalysis of samples is possible.
</P>
<P>1.3.4 Samples are stable for at least 15 days at room temperature.
</P>
<P>1.3.5 Interferences are reduced by the longer GC retention time of the new derivative.
</P>
<P>1.4 Disadvantages.
</P>
<P>1.4.1 Two tubes in series must be used because of possible breakthrough and migration.
</P>
<P>1.4.2 The precision of the sampling rate may be limited by the reproducibility of the pressure drop across the tubes. The pumps are usually calibrated for one tube only.
</P>
<P>1.4.3 The use of benzene as the desorption solvent increases the hazards of analysis because of the potential carcinogenic effects of benzene.
</P>
<P>1.4.4 After repeated injections there can be a buildup of residue formed on the electron capture detector which decreases sensitivity.
</P>
<P>1.4.5 Recovery from the charcoal tubes appears to be nonlinear at low concentrations.
</P>
<P>2. Sampling Procedure.
</P>
<P>2.1 Apparatus.
</P>
<P>2.1.1 A calibrated personal sampling pump whose flow can be determined within plus or minus 5% of the recommended flow.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 SKC Lot 120 Charcoal tubes: glass tube with both ends flame sealed, 7 cm long with a 6 mm O.D. and a 4-mm I.D., containing 2 sections of coconut shell charcoal separated by a 2-mm portion of urethane foam. The adsorbing section contains 100 mg of charcoal, the backup section 50 mg. A 3-mm portion of urethane foam is placed between the outlet end of the tube and the backup section. A plug of silylated glass wool is placed in front of the adsorbing section.
</P>
<P>2.2 Reagents.
</P>
<P>2.2.1 None required.
</P>
<P>2.3 Sampling Technique.
</P>
<P>2.3.1 Immediately before sampling, break the ends of the charcoal tubes. All tubes must be from the same lot.
</P>
<P>2.3.2 Connect two tubes in series to the sampling pump with a short section of flexible tubing. A minimum amount of tubing is used to connect the two sampling tubes together. The tube closer to the pump is used as a backup. This tube should be identified as the backup tube.
</P>
<P>2.3.3 The tubes should be placed in a vertical position during sampling to minimize channeling.
</P>
<P>2.3.4 Air being sampled should not pass through any hose or tubing before entering the charcoal tubes.
</P>
<P>2.3.5 Seal the charcoal tubes with plastic caps immediately after sampling. Also, seal each sample with OSHA seals lengthwise.
</P>
<P>2.3.6 With each batch of samples, submit at least one blank tube from the same lot used for samples. This tube should be subjected to exactly the same handling as the samples (break, seal, transport) except that no air is drawn through it.
</P>
<P>2.3.7 Transport the samples (and corresponding paperwork) to the lab for analysis.
</P>
<P>2.3.8 If bulk samples are submitted for analysis, they shoud be transported in glass containers with Teflon-lined caps. These samples must be mailed separately from the container used for the charcoal tubes.
</P>
<P>2.4 Breakthrough.
</P>
<P>2.4.1 The breakthrough (5% breakthrough) volume for a 3.0 mg/m ethylene oxide sample stream at approximately 85% relative humidity, 22 °C and 633 mm is 2.6 liters sampled at 0.05 liters per minute. This is equivalent to 7.8 µg of ethylene oxide. Upon saturation of the tube it appeared that the water may be displacing ethylene oxide during sampling.
</P>
<P>2.5 Desorption Efficiency.
</P>
<P>2.5.1 The desorption efficiency, from liquid injection onto charcoal tubes, averaged 88.0% from 0.5 to 2.0 × the target concentration for a 1.0 liter air sample. At lower ranges it appears that the desorption efficiency is non-linear (See Backup Data Section 4.2).
</P>
<P>2.5.2 The desorption efficiency may vary from one laboratory to another and also from one lot of charcoal to another. Thus, it is necessary to determine the desorption efficiency for a particular lot of charcoal.
</P>
<P>2.6 Recommended Air Volume and Sampling Rate.
</P>
<P>2.6.1 The recommended air volume is 1.0 liter.
</P>
<P>2.6.2 The recommended maximum sampling rate is 0.05 Lpm.
</P>
<P>2.7 Interferences.
</P>
<P>2.7.1 Ethylene glycol and Freon 12 at target concentration levels did not interfere with the collection of ethylene oxide.
</P>
<P>2.7.2 Suspected interferences should be listed on the sample data sheets.
</P>
<P>2.7.3 The relative humidity may affect the sampling procedure.
</P>
<P>2.8 Safety Precautions.
</P>
<P>2.8.1 Attach the sampling equipment to the employee so that it does not interfere with work performance.
</P>
<P>2.8.2 Wear safety glasses when breaking the ends of the sampling tubes.
</P>
<P>2.8.3 If possible, place the sampling tubes in a holder so the sharp end is not exposed while sampling.
</P>
<P>3. Analytical Method.
</P>
<P>3.1 Apparatus.
</P>
<P>3.1.1 Gas chromatograph equipped with a linearized electron capture detector.
</P>
<P>3.1.2 GC column capable of separating the derivative of ethylene oxide (2-bromoethanol) from any interferences and the 1% CS<E T="52">2</E> in benzene solvent. The column used for validation studies was: 10 ft × 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch stainless steel 20% SP-2100, .1% Carbowax 1500 on 100/120 Supelcoport.
</P>
<P>3.1.3 An electronic integrator or some other suitable method of measuring peak areas.
</P>
<P>3.1.4 Two milliliter vials with Teflon-lined caps.
</P>
<P>3.1.5 Gas tight syringe—500 µL or other convenient sizes for preparing standards.
</P>
<P>3.1.6 Microliter syringes—10 µL or other convenient sizes for diluting standards and 1 µL for sample injections.
</P>
<P>3.1.7 Pipets for dispensing the 1% CS<E T="52">2</E> in benzene solvent. The Glenco 1 mL dispenser is adequate and convenient.
</P>
<P>3.1.8 Volumetric flasks—5 mL and other convenient sizes for preparing standards.
</P>
<P>3.1.9 Disposable Pasteur pipets.
</P>
<P>3.2 Reagents.
</P>
<P>3.2.1 Benzene, reagent grade.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 Carbon Disulfide, reagent grade.
</P>
<P>3.2.3 Ethylene oxide, 99.7% pure.
</P>
<P>3.2.4 Hydrobromic Acid, 48% reagent grade.
</P>
<P>3.2.5 Sodium Carbonate, anhydrous, reagent grade.
</P>
<P>3.2.6 Desorbing reagent, 99% Benzene/1% CS<E T="52">2</E>.
</P>
<P>3.3 Sample Preparation.
</P>
<P>3.3.1 The front and back sections of each sample are transferred to separate 2-mL vials.
</P>
<P>3.3.2 Each sample is desorbed with 1.0 mL of desorbing reagent.
</P>
<P>3.3.3 The vials are sealed immediately and allowed to desorb for one hour with occasional shaking.
</P>
<P>3.3.4 Desorbing reagent is drawn off the charcoal with a disposable pipet and put into clean 2-mL vials.
</P>
<P>3.3.5 One drop of HBr is added to each vial. Vials are resealed and HBr is mixed well with the desorbing reagent.
</P>
<P>3.3.6 About 0.15 gram of sodium carbonate is carefully added to each vial. Vials are again resealed and mixed well.
</P>
<P>3.4 Standard Preparation.
</P>
<P>3.4.1 Standards are prepared by injecting the pure ethylene oxide gas into the desorbing reagent.
</P>
<P>3.4.2 A range of standards are prepared to make a calibration curve. A concentration of 1.0 µL of ethylene oxide gas per 1 mL desorbing reagent is equivalent to 1.0 ppm air concentration (all gas volumes at 25 °C and 760 mm) for the recommended 1 liter air sample. This amount is uncorrected for desorption efficiency (See Backup Data Section 4.2. for desorption efficiency corrections).
</P>
<P>3.4.3 One drop of HBr per mL of standard is added and mixed well.
</P>
<P>3.4.4 About 0.15 grams of sodium carbonate is carefully added for each drop of HBr (A small reaction will occur).
</P>
<P>3.5 Analysis.
</P>
<P>3.5.1 GC Conditions.
</P>
<FP>Nitrogen flow rate—10mL/min.
</FP>
<FP>Injector Temperature—250 °C
</FP>
<FP>Detector Temperature—300 °C
</FP>
<FP>Column Temperature—100 °C
</FP>
<FP>Injection size—0.8 µL
</FP>
<FP>Elution time—3.9 minutes
</FP>
<P>3.5.2 Peak areas are measured by an integrator or other suitable means.
</P>
<P>3.5.3 The integrator results are in area units and a calibration curve is set up with concentration vs. area units.
</P>
<P>3.6 Interferences.
</P>
<P>3.6.1 Any compound having the same retention time of 2-bromoethanol is a potential interference. Possible interferences should be listed on the sample data sheets.
</P>
<P>3.6.2 GC parameters may be changed to circumvent interferences.
</P>
<P>3.6.3 There are usually trace contaminants in benzene. These contaminants, however, posed no problem of interference.
</P>
<P>3.6.4 Retention time data on a single column is not considered proof of chemical identity. Samples over the 1.0 ppm target level should be confirmed by GC/Mass Spec or other suitable means.
</P>
<P>3.7 Calculations
</P>
<P>3.7.1 The concentration in µg/mL for a sample is determined by comparing the area of a particular sample to the calibration curve, which has been prepared from analytical standards.
</P>
<P>3.7.2 The amount of analyte in each sample is corrected for desorption efficiency by use of a desorption curve.
</P>
<P>3.7.3 Analytical results (A) from the two tubes that compose a particular air sample are added together.
</P>
<P>3.7.4 The concentration for a sample is calculated by the following equation:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.038.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A = µg/mL
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = desorption volume in milliliters
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = air volume in liters.
</FP-2>
<P>3.7.5 To convert mg/m
<SU>3</SU> to parts per million (ppm) the following relationship is used:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.039.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>mg/m
<SU>3</SU> = results from 3.7.4
</FP-2>
<FP-2>24.45 = molar volume at 25 °C and 760mm Hg
</FP-2>
<FP-2>44.05 = molecular weight of ETO.
</FP-2>
<P>3.8 Safety Precautions
</P>
<P>3.8.1 Ethylene oxide and benzene are potential carcinogens and care must be exercised when working with these compounds.
</P>
<P>3.8.2 All work done with the solvents (preparation of standards, desorption of samples, etc.) should be done in a hood.
</P>
<P>3.8.3 Avoid any skin contact with all of the solvents.
</P>
<P>3.8.4 Wear safety glasses at all times.
</P>
<P>3.8.5 Avoid skin contact with HBr because it is highly toxic and a strong irritant to eyes and skin.
</P>
<P>4. Backup Data.
</P>
<P>4.1 Detection Limit Data.
</P>
<P>The detection limit was determined by injecting 0.8 µL of a 0.015 µg/mL standard of ethylene oxide into 1% CS<E T="52">2</E> in benzene. The detection limit of the analytical procedure is taken to be 1.20 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> µg per injection. This is equivalent to 8.3 ppb (0.015 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>) for the recommended air volume.
</P>
<P>4.2 Desorption Efficiency.
</P>
<P>Ethylene oxide was spiked onto charcoal tubes and the following recovery data was obtained.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount spiked (µg)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount recovered (µg)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent recovery
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.365</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.6525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.375</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.315</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.375</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.312</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.1875</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.094</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.070</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>At lower amounts the recovery appears to be non-linear.
</P>
<P>4.3 Sensitivity Data.
</P>
<P>The following data was used to determine the calibration curve.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Injection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.5 × .75 µg/mL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 × 1.5 µg/mL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2 × 3.0 µg/mL
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30904</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59567</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111778
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30987</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62914</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106016
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32555</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58578</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106122
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109716
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31672</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59558</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108408
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Slope = 34.105.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.4 Recovery.
</P>
<P>The recovery was determined by spiking ethylene oxide onto lot 120 charcoal tubes and desorbing with 1% CS<E T="52">2</E> in Benzene. Recoveries were done at 0.5, 1.0, and 2.0× the target concentration (1 ppm) for the recommended air volume.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Percent Recovery
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sample
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.5x
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.0x
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2.0x
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Weighted Average = 88.2.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.5 Precision of the Analytical Procedure.
</P>
<P>The following data was used to determine the precision of the analytical method:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.5 × .75 µg/mL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 × 1.5 µg/mL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2 × 3.0 µg/mL
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Injection</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.7421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4899</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1184
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.7441</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5826</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0447
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.7831</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4628</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9149
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.7753</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9185
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.7612</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4899</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9991
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard Deviation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0674</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0998
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0452</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0333</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.040.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>CV + 0.036
</FP>
<P>4.6 Storage Data.
</P>
<P>Samples were generated at 1.5 mg/m
<SU>3</SU> ethylene oxide at 85% relative humidity, 22 °C and 633 mm. All samples were taken for 20 minutes at 0.05 Lpm. Six samples were analyzed as soon as possible and fifteen samples were stored at refrigerated temperature (5 °C) and fifteen samples were stored at ambient temperature (23 °C). These stored samples were analyzed over a period of nineteen days.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Percent Recovery
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Day analyzed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Refrigerated
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ambient
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.7 Breakthrough Data.
</P>
<P>Breakthrough studies were done at 2 ppm (3.6 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>) at approximately 85% relative humidity at 22 °C (ambient temperature). Two charcoal tubes were used in series. The backup tube was changed every 10 minutes and analyzed for breakthrough. The flow rate was 0.050 Lpm.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tube No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time (minutes)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent breakthrough
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.71
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133.9
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> None.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The 5% breakthrough volume was reached when 2.6 liters of test atmosphere were drawn through the charcoal tubes.
</P>
<P>5. References.
</P>
<P>5.1 “NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods,” 2nd ed. NIOSH: Cincinnati, 1977; Method S286.
</P>
<P>5.2 “IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risk of Chemicals to Man,” International Agency for Research on Cancer: Lyon, 1976; Vol. II, p. 157.
</P>
<P>5.3 Sax., N.I. “Dangerous Properties of Industrial Materials,” 4th ed.; Van Nostrand Reinhold Company. New York, 1975; p. 741.
</P>
<P>5.4 “The Condensed Chemical Dictionary”, 9th ed.; Hawley, G.G., ed.; Van Nostrand Reinhold Company, New York, 1977; p. 361.
</P>
<HD2>Summary of Other Sampling Procedures
</HD2>
<P>OSHA believes that served other types of monitoring equipment and techniques exist for monitoring time-weighted averages. Considerable research and method development is currently being performed, which will lead to improvements and a wider variety of monitoring techniques. A combination of monitoring procedures can be used. There probably is no one best method for monitoring personal exposure to ethylene oxide in all cases. There are advantages, disadvantages, and limitations to each method. The method of choice will depend on the need and requirements. Some commonly used methods include the use of charcoal tubes, passive dosimeters, Tedler gas sampling bags, detector tubes, photoionization detection units, infrared detection units and gas chromatographs. A number of these methods are described below.
</P>
<HD1>A. Charcoal Tube Sampling Procedures
</HD1>
<P><I>Qazi-Ketcham method</I> (Ex. 11-133)—This method consists of collecting EtO on Columbia JXC activated carbon, desorbing the EtO with carbon disulfide and analyzing by gas chromatography with flame ionization detection. Union Carbide has recently updated and revalidated this monitoring procedures. This method is capable of determining both eight-hour time-weighted average exposures and short-term exposures. The method was validated to 0.5 ppm. Like other charcoal collecting procedures, the method requires considerable analytical expertise.
</P>
<P><I>ASTM-proposed method</I>—The Ethylene Oxide Industry Council (EOIC) has contracted with Clayton Environmental Consultants, Inc. to conduct a collaborative study for the proposed method. The ASTM-Proposed method is similar to the method published by Qazi and Ketcham is the November 1977 American Industrial Hygiene Association Journal, and to the method of Pilney and Coyne, presented at the 1979 American Industrial Hygiene Conference. After the air to be sampled is drawn through an activated charcoal tube, the ethylene oxide is desorbed from the tube using carbon disulfide and is quantitated by gas chromatography utilizing a flame ionization detector. The ASTM-proposed method specifies a large two-section charcoal tube, shipment in dry ice, storage at less
</P>
<FP>than −5 °C, and analysis within three weeks to prevent migration and sample loss. Two types of charcoal tubes are being tested—Pittsburgh Coconut-Based (PCB) and Columbia JXC charcoal. This collaborative study will give an indication of the inter- and intralaboratory precision and accuracy of the ASTM-proposed method. Several laboratories have considerable expertise using the Qazi-Ketcham and Dow methods.
</FP>
<P>B. Passive Monitors—Ethylene oxide diffuses into the monitor and is collected in the sampling media. The DuPont Pro-Tek badge collects EtO in an absorbing solution, which is analyzed colorimetrically to determine the amount of EtO present. The 3M 350 badge collects the EtO on chemically treated charcoal. Other passive monitors are currently being developed and tested. Both 3M and DuPont have submitted data indicating their dosimeters meet the precision and accuracy requirements of the proposed ethylene oxide standard. Both presented laboratory validation data to 0.2 ppm (Exs. 11-65, 4-20, 108, 109, 130).
</P>
<P>C. Tedlar Gas Sampling Bags-Samples are collected by drawing a known volume of air into a Tedlar gas sampling bag. The ethylene oxide concentration is often determined on-site using a portable gas chromatograph or portable infrared spectometer.
</P>
<P>D. Detector tubes—A known volume of air is drawn through a detector tube using a small hand pump. The concentration of EtO is related to the length of stain developed in the tube. Detector tubes are economical, easy to use, and give an immediate readout. Unfortunately, partly because they are nonspecific, their accuracy is often questionable. Since the sample is taken over a short period of time, they may be useful for determining the source of leaks.
</P>
<P>E. Direct Reading Instruments—There are numerous types of direct reading instruments, each having its own strengths and weaknesses (Exs. 135B, 135C, 107, 11-78, 11-153). Many are relatively new, offering greater sensitivity and specificity. Popular ethylene oxide direct reading instruments include infrared detection units, photoionization detection units, and gas chromatographs.
</P>
<P>Portable infrared analyzers provide an immediate, continuous indication of a concentration value; making them particularly useful for locating high concentration pockets, in leak detection and in ambient air monitoring. In infrared detection units, the amount of infrared light absorbed by the gas being analyzed at selected infrared wavelengths is related to the concentration of a particular component. Various models have either fixed or variable infrared filters, differing cell pathlengths, and microcomputer controls for greater sensitivity, automation, and interference elimination.
</P>
<P>A fairly recent detection system is photoionization detection. The molecules are ionized by high energy ultraviolet light. The resulting current is measured. Since different substances have different ionization potentials, other organic compounds may be ionized. The lower the lamp energy, the better the selectivity. As a continuous monitor, photoionization detection can be useful for locating high concentration pockets, in leak detection, and continuous ambient air monitoring. Both portable and stationary gas chromatographs are available with various types of detectors, including photoionization detectors. A gas chromatograph with a photoionization detector retains the photionization sensitivity, but minimizes or eliminates interferences. For several GC/PID units, the sensitivity is in the 0.1-0.2 ppm EtO range. The GC/PID with microprocessors can sample up to 20 sample points sequentially, calculate and record data, and activate alarms or ventilation systems. Many are quite flexible and can be configured to meet the specific analysis needs for the workplace.
</P>
<P>DuPont presented their laboratory validation data of the accuracy of the Qazi-Ketcham charcoal tube, the PCB charcoal tube, Miran 103 IR analyzer, 3M #3550 monitor and the Du Pont C-70 badge. Quoting Elbert V. Kring:
</P>
<P>We also believe that OSHA's proposed accuracy in this standard is appropriate. At plus or minus 25 percent at one part per million, and plus or minus 35 percent below that. And, our data indicates there's only one monitoring method, right now, that we've tested thoroughly, that meets that accuracy requirements. That is the Du Pont Pro-Tek badge* * *. We also believe that this kind of data should be confirmed by another independent laboratory, using the same type dynamic chamber testing (Tr. 1470)
</P>
<FP>Additional data by an independent laboratory following their exact protocol was not submitted. However, information was submitted on comparisons and precision and accuracy of those monitoring procedures which indicate far better precision and accuracy of those monitoring procedures than that obtained by Du Pont (Ex. 4-20, 130, 11-68, 11-133, 130, 135A).
</FP>
<P>The accuracy of any method depends to a large degree upon the skills and experience of those who not only collect the samples but also those who analyze the samples. Even for methods that are collaboratively tested, some laboratories are closer to the true values than others. Some laboratories may meet the precision and accuracy requirements of the method; others may consistently far exceed them for the same method.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 25796, June 22, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 9801, Mar. 12, 1985; 50 FR 41494, Oct. 11, 1985; 51 FR 25053, July 10, 1986; 53 FR 11436, 11437, Apr. 6, 1988; 53 FR 27960, July 26, 1988; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1292, Jan. 8, 1998; 67 FR 67965, Nov. 7, 2002; 70 FR 1143, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50190, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75586, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17783, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21490, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1048" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1048   Formaldehyde.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This standard applies to all occupational exposures to formaldehyde, i.e. from formaldehyde gas, its solutions, and materials that release formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this standard, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of 0.5 part formaldehyde per million parts of air (0.5 ppm) calculated as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average (TWA) concentration.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person required by work duties to be present in regulated areas, or authorized to do so by the employer, by this section, or by the OSH Act of 1970.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> is any occurrence, such as but not limited to equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment that results in an uncontrolled release of a significant amount of formaldehyde.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means the exposure to airborne formaldehyde which would occur without corrections for protection provided by any respirator that is in use.
</P>
<P><I>Formaldehyde</I> means the chemical substance, HCHO, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 50-00-0.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)</I>—(1) <I>TWA:</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of formaldehyde which exceeds 0.75 parts formaldehyde per million parts of air (0.75 ppm) as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL):</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of formaldehyde which exceeds two parts formaldehyde per million parts of air (2 ppm) as a 15-minute STEL.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace covered by this standard shall monitor employees to determine their exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> Where the employer documents, using objective data, that the presence of formaldehyde or formaldehyde-releasing products in the workplace cannot result in airborne concentrations of formaldehyde that would cause any employee to be exposed at or above the action level or the STEL under foreseeable conditions of use, the employer will not be required to measure employee exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(iii) When an employee's exposure is determined from representative sampling, the measurements used shall be representative of the employee's full shift or short-term exposure to formaldehyde, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Representative samples for each job classification in each work area shall be taken for each shift unless the employer can document with objective data that exposure levels for a given job classification are equivalent for different work shifts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> The employer shall identify all employees who may be exposed at or above the action level or at or above the STEL and accurately determine the exposure of each employee so identified.
</P>
<P>(i) Unless the employer chooses to measure the exposure of each employee potentially exposed to formaldehyde, the employer shall develop a representative sampling strategy and measure sufficient exposures within each job classification for each workshift to correctly characterize and not underestimate the exposure of any employee within each exposure group.
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial monitoring process shall be repeated each time there is a change in production, equipment, process, personnel, or control measures which may result in new or additional exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employer receives reports of signs or symptoms of respiratory or dermal conditions associated with formaldehyde exposure, the employer shall promptly monitor the affected employee's exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall periodically measure and accurately determine exposure to formaldehyde for employees shown by the initial monitoring to be exposed at or above the action level or at or above the STEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the last monitoring results reveal employee exposure at or above the action level, the employer shall repeat monitoring of the employees at least every 6 months.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the last monitoring results reveal employee exposure at or above the STEL, the employer shall repeat monitoring of the employees at least once a year under worst conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> The employer may discontinue periodic monitoring for employees if results from two consecutive sampling periods taken at least 7 days apart show that employee exposure is below the action level and the STEL. The results must be statistically representative and consistent with the employer's knowledge of the job and work operation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Accuracy of monitoring.</I> Monitoring shall be accurate, at the 95 percent confidence level, to within plus or minus 25 percent for airborne concentrations of formaldehyde at the TWA and the STEL and to within plus or minus 35 percent for airborne concentrations of formaldehyde at the action level.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees. If employee exposure is above the PEL, affected employees shall be provided with a description of the corrective actions being taken by the employer to decrease exposure.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to formaldehyde required by this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to formaldehyde requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the clothing and equipment to the observer, require the observer to use such clothing and equipment, and assure that the observer complies with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall establish regulated areas where the concentration of airborne formaldehyde exceeds either the TWA or the STEL and post all entrances and access ways with signs bearing the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FORMALDEHYDE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES SKIN, EYE, AND RESPIRATORY IRRITATION
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FORMALDEHYDE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IRRITANT AND POTENTIAL CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The employer shall limit access to regulated areas to authorized persons who have been trained to recognize the hazards of formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(3) An employer at a multiemployer worksite who establishes a regulated area shall communicate the access restrictions and locations of these areas to other employers with work operations at that worksite.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering controls and work practices.</I> The employer shall institute engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposures to formaldehyde at or below the TWA and the STEL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> Whenever the employer has established that feasible engineering and work practice controls cannot reduce employee exposure to or below either of the PELs, the employer shall apply these controls to reduce employee exposures to the extent feasible and shall supplement them with respirators which satisfy this standard.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities or vessel cleaning, for which the employer establishes that engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii), (d)(3)(iii)(b)(1), and (2)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) When employees use air-purifying respirators with chemical cartridges or canisters that do not contain end-of-service-life indicators approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, employers must replace these cartridges or canisters as specified by paragraphs (d)(3)(iii)(B)(1) and (B)(2) of 29 CFR 1910.134, or at the end of the workshift, whichever condition occurs first.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Equip each air-purifying, full facepiece respirator with a canister or cartridge approved for protection against formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(C) For escape, provide employees with one of the following respirator options: A self-contained breathing apparatus operated in the demand or pressure-demand mode; or a full facepiece respirator having a chin-style, or a front-or back-mounted industrial-size, canister or cartridge approved for protection against formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers may substitute an air-purifying, half mask respirator for an air-purifying, full facepiece respirator when they equip the half mask respirator with a cartridge approved for protection against formaldehyde and provide the affected employee with effective gas-proof goggles.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers must provide employees who have difficulty using negative pressure respirators with powered air-purifying respirators permitted for use under paragraph (g)(3)(i)(A) of this standard and that affords adequate protection against formaldehyde exposures. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protective equipment and clothing.</I> Employers shall comply with the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.132 and 29 CFR 1910.133. When protective equipment or clothing is provided under these provisions, the employer shall provide these protective devices at no cost to the employee and assure that the employee wears them.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Selection.</I> The employer shall select protective clothing and equipment based upon the form of formaldehyde to be encountered, the conditions of use, and the hazard to be prevented.
</P>
<P>(i) All contact of the eyes and skin with liquids containing 1 percent or more formaldehyde shall be prevented by the use of chemical protective clothing made of material impervious to formaldehyde and the use of other personal protective equipment, such as goggles and face shields, as appropriate to the operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contact with irritating or sensitizing materials shall be prevented to the extent necessary to eliminate the hazard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where a face shield is worn, chemical safety goggles are also required if there is a danger of formaldehyde reaching the area of the eye.
</P>
<P>(iv) Full body protection shall be worn for entry into areas where concentrations exceed 100 ppm and for emergency reentry into areas of unknown concentration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maintenance of protective equipment and clothing.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that protective equipment and clothing that has become contaminated with formaldehyde is cleaned or laundered before its reuse.
</P>
<P>(ii) When formaldehyde-contaminated clothing and equipment is ventilated, the employer shall establish storage areas so that employee exposure is minimized.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Signs.</I> Storage areas for contaminated clothing and equipment shall have signs bearing the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FORMALDEHYDE-CONTAMINATED [CLOTHING] EQUIPMENT
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES SKIN, EYE AND RESPIRATORY IRRITATION
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT BREATHE VAPOR
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT GET ON SKIN</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) <I>Labels.</I> The employer shall ensure containers for contaminated clothing and equipment are labeled consistent with the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1910.1200, and shall, as a minimum, include the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FORMALDEHYDE-CONTAMINATED [CLOTHING] EQUIPMENT
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES SKIN, EYE, AND RESPIRATORY IRRITATION
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT BREATHE VAPOR
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT GET ON SKIN</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FORMALDEHYDE-CONTAMINATED [CLOTHING] EQUIPMENT 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID INHALATION AND SKIN CONTACT</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(D) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on containers of protective clothing and equipment in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (h)(2)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FORMALDEHYDE-CONTAMINATED [CLOTHING] EQUIPMENT 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID INHALATION AND SKIN CONTACT</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that only persons trained to recognize the hazards of formaldehyde remove the contaminated material from the storage area for purposes of cleaning, laundering, or disposal.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that no employee takes home equipment or clothing that is contaminated with formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall repair or replace all required protective clothing and equipment for each affected employee as necessary to assure its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall inform any person who launders, cleans, or repairs such clothing or equipment of formaldehyde's potentially harmful effects and of procedures to safely handle the clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hygiene protection.</I> (1) The employer shall provide change rooms, as described in 29 CFR 1910.141 for employees who are required to change from work clothing into protective clothing to prevent skin contact with formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(2) If employees' skin may become spashed with solutions containing 1 percent or greater formaldehyde, for example, because of equipment failure or improper work practices, the employer shall provide conveniently located quick drench showers and assure that affected employees use these facilities immediately.
</P>
<P>(3) If there is any possibility that an employee's eyes may be splashed with solutions containing 0.1 percent or greater formaldehyde, the employer shall provide acceptable eyewash facilities within the immediate work area for emergency use.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Housekeeping.</I> For operations involving formaldehyde liquids or gas, the employer shall conduct a program to detect leaks and spills, including regular visual inspections.
</P>
<P>(1) Preventative maintenance of equipment, including surveys for leaks, shall be undertaken at regular intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) In work areas where spillage may occur, the employer shall make provisions to contain the spill, to decontaminate the work area, and to dispose of the waste.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall assure that all leaks are repaired and spills are cleaned promptly by employees wearing suitable protective equipment and trained in proper methods for cleanup and decontamination.
</P>
<P>(4) Formaldehyde-contaminated waste and debris resulting from leaks or spills shall be placed for disposal in sealed containers bearing a label warning of formaldehyde's presence and of the hazards associated with formaldehyde. The employer shall ensure that the labels are in accordance with paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Emergencies.</I> For each workplace where there is the possibility of an emergency involving formaldehyde, the employer shall assure appropriate procedures are adopted to minimize injury and loss of life. Appropriate procedures shall be implemented in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>Employees covered.</I> (i) The employer shall institute medical surveillance programs for all employees exposed to formaldehyde at concentrations at or exceeding the action level or exceeding the STEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make medical surveillance available for employees who develop signs and symptoms of overexposure to formaldehyde and for all employees exposed to formaldehyde in emergencies. When determining whether an employee may be experiencing signs and symptoms of possible overexposure to formaldehyde, the employer may rely on the evidence that signs and symptoms associated with formaldehyde exposure will occur only in exceptional circumstances when airborne exposure is less than 0.1 ppm and when formaldehyde is present in material in concentrations less than 0.1 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examination by a physician.</I> All medical procedures, including administration of medical disease questionnaires, shall be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician and shall be provided without cost to the employee, without loss of pay, and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical disease questionnaire.</I> The employer shall make the following medical surveillance available to employees prior to assignment to a job where formaldehyde exposure is at or above the action level or above the STEL and annually thereafter. The employer shall also make the following medical surveillance available promptly upon determining that an employee is experiencing signs and symptoms indicative of possible overexposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(i) Administration of a medical disease questionnaire, such as in appendix D, which is designed to elicit information on work history, smoking history, any evidence of eye, nose, or throat irritation; chronic airway problems or hyperreactive airway disease: allergic skin conditions or dermatitis; and upper or lower respiratory problems.
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination by the physician, based on evaluation of the medical disease questionnaire, of whether a medical examination is necessary for employees not required to wear respirators to reduce exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical examinations.</I> Medical examinations shall be given to any employee who the physician feels, based on information in the medical disease questionnaire, may be at increased risk from exposure to formaldehyde and at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter to all employees required to wear a respirator to reduce exposure to formaldehyde. The medical examination shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A physical examination with emphasis on evidence of irritation or sensitization of the skin and respiratory system, shortness of breath, or irritation of the eyes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Laboratory examinations for respirator wearers consisting of baseline and annual pulmonary function tests. As a minimum, these tests shall consist of forced vital capacity (FVC), forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>), and forced expiratory flow (FEF).
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other test which the examining physician deems necessary to complete the written opinion.
</P>
<P>(iv) Counseling of employees having medical conditions that would be directly or indirectly aggravated by exposure to formaldehyde on the increased risk of impairment of their health.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examinations for employees exposed in an emergency.</I> The employer shall make medical examinations available as soon as possible to all employees who have been exposed to formaldehyde in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(i) The examination shall include a medical and work history with emphasis on any evidence of upper or lower respiratory problems, allergic conditions, skin reaction or hypersensitivity, and any evidence of eye, nose, or throat irritation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Other examinations shall consist of those elements considered appropriate by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and appendix A, C, D, and E;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's job duties as they relate to the employee's exposure to formaldehyde;
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative exposure level for the employee's job assignment;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information concerning any personal protective equipment and respiratory protection used or to be used by the employee; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>(vi) In the event of a nonroutine examination because of an emergency, the employer shall provide to the physician as soon as possible: A description of how the emergency occurred and the exposure the victim may have received.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) For each examination required under this standard, the employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician. This written opinion shall contain the results of the medical examination except that it shall not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to formaldehyde. The written opinion shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any medical condition that would place the employee at an increased risk of material impairment of health from exposure to formaldehyde;
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure or changes in the use of personal protective equipment, including respirators;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of any medical conditions which would be aggravated by exposure to formaldehyde, whether these conditions may have resulted from past formaldehyde exposure or from exposure in an emergency, and whether there is a need for further examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide for retention of the results of the medical examination and tests conducted by the physician.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the physician's written opinion to the affected employee within 15 days of its receipt.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Medical removal.</I> (i) The provisions of paragraph (l)(8) apply when an employee reports significant irritation of the mucosa of the eyes or the upper airways, respiratory sensitization, dermal irritation, or dermal sensitization attributed to workplace formaldehyde exposure. Medical removal provisions do not apply in the case of dermal irritation or dermal sensitization when the product suspected of causing the dermal condition contains less than 0.05% formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee's report of signs or symptoms of possible overexposure to formaldehyde shall be evaluated by a physician selected by the employer pursuant to paragraph (l)(3). If the physician determines that a medical examination is not necessary under paragraph (l)(3)(ii), there shall be a two-week evaluation and remediation period to permit the employer to ascertain whether the signs or symptoms subside untreated or with the use of creams, gloves, first aid treatment or personal protective equipment. Industrial hygiene measures that limit the employee's exposure to formaldehyde may also be implemented during this period. The employee shall be referred immediately to a physician prior to expiration of the two-week period if the signs or symptoms worsen. Earnings, seniority and benefits may not be altered during the two-week period by virtue of the report.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the signs or symptoms have not subsided or been remedied by the end of the two-week period, or earlier if signs or symptoms warrant, the employee shall be examined by a physician selected by the employer. The physician shall presume, absent contrary evidence, that observed dermal irritation or dermal sensitization are not attributable to formaldehyde when products to which the affected employee is exposed contain less than 0.1% formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(iv) Medical examinations shall be conducted in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(5) (i) and (ii). Additional guidelines for conducting medical exams are contained in appendix C.
</P>
<P>(v) If the physician finds that significant irritation of the mucosa of the eyes or of the upper airways, respiratory sensitization, dermal irritation, or dermal sensitization result from workplace formaldehyde exposure and recommends restrictions or removal, the employer shall promptly comply with the restrictions or recommendation of removal. In the event of a recommendation of removal, the employer shall remove the effected employee from the current formaldehyde exposure and if possible, transfer the employee to work having no or significantly less exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(vi) When an employee is removed pursuant to paragraph (l)(8)(v), the employer shall transfer the employee to comparable work for which the employee is qualified or can be trained in a short period (up to 6 months), where the formaldehyde exposures are as low as possible, but not higher than the action level. The employeer shall maintain the employee's current earnings, seniority, and other benefits. If there is no such work available, the employer shall maintain the employee's current earnings, seniority and other benefits until such work becomes available, until the employee is determined to be unable to return to workplace formaldehyde exposure, until the employee is determined to be able to return to the original job status, or for six months, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(vii) The employer shall arrange for a follow-up medical examination to take place within six months after the employee is removed pursuant to this paragraph. This examination shall determine if the employee can return to the original job status, or if the removal is to be permanent. The physician shall make a decision within six months of the date the employee was removed as to whether the employee can be returned to the original job status, or if the removal is to be permanent.
</P>
<P>(viii) An employer's obligation to provide earnings, seniority and other benefits to a removed employee may be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal either from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program or from employment with another employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(ix) In making determinations of the formaldehyde content of materials under this paragraph the employer may rely on objective data.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Multiple physician review.</I> (i) After the employer selects the initial physician who conducts any medical examination or consultation to determine whether medical removal or restriction is appropriate, the employee may designate a second physician to review any findings, determinations or recommendations of the initial physician and to conduct such examinations, consultations, and laboratory tests as the second physician deems necessary and appropriate to evaluate the effects of formaldehyde exposure and to facilitate this review.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall promptly notify an employee of the right to seek a second medical opinion after each occasion that an initial physician conducts a medical examination or consultation for the purpose of medical removal or restriction.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer may condition its participation in, and payment for, the multiple physician review mechanism upon the employee doing the following within fifteen (15) days after receipt of the notification of the right to seek a second medical opinion, or receipt of the initial physician's written opinion, whichever is later;
</P>
<P>(A) The employee informs the employer of the intention to seek a second medical opinion, and
</P>
<P>(B) The employee initiates steps to make an appointment with a second physician.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the findings, determinations or recommendations of the second physician differ from those of the initial physician, then the employer and the employee shall assure that efforts are made for the two physicians to resolve the disagreement. If the two physicians are unable to quickly resolve their disagreement, then the employer and the employee through their respective physicians shall designate a third physician who shall be a specialist in the field at issue:
</P>
<P>(A) To review the findings, determinations or recommendations of the prior physicians; and
</P>
<P>(B) To conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests and discussions with the prior physicians as the third physician deems necessary to resolve the disagreement of the prior physicians.
</P>
<P>(v) In the alternative, the employer and the employee or authorized employee representative may jointly designate such third physician.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall act consistent with the findings, determinations and recommendations of the third physician, unless the employer and the employee reach an agreement which is otherwise consistent with the recommendations of at least one of the three physicians.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—General.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of formaldehyde at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; skin and respiratory sensitization; eye, skin and respiratory tract irritation; acute toxicity effects; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include formaldehyde in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of formaldehyde and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Paragraphs (m)(1)(i), (m)(1)(ii), and (m)(1)(iii) of this section apply to chemicals associated with formaldehyde gas, all mixtures or solutions composed of greater than 0.1 percent formaldehyde, and materials capable of releasing formaldehyde into the air at concentrations reaching or exceeding 0.1 ppm.
</P>
<P>(v) In making the determinations of anticipated levels of formaldehyde release, the employer may rely on objective data indicating the extent of potential formaldehyde release under reasonably foreseeable conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) In addition to the requirements in paragraphs (m)(1) through (m)(1)(iv) of this section, for materials listed in paragraph (m)(1)(iv) capable of releasing formaldehyde at levels above 0.5 ppm, labels shall appropriately address all hazards as defined in paragraph (d) of § 1910.1200 and Appendices A and B to § 1910.1200, including cancer and respiratory sensitization, and shall contain the hazard statement “May Cause Cancer.”
</P>
<P>(ii) As a minimum, for all materials listed in paragraph (m)(1)(i) and (iv) of this section capable of releasing formaldehyde at levels of 0.1 ppm to 0.5 ppm, labels shall identify that the product contains formaldehyde; list the name and address of the responsible party; and state that physical and health hazard information is readily available from the employer and from safety data sheets.
</P>
<P>(iii) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the phrase “Potential Cancer Hazard” in lieu of “May Cause Cancer” as specified in paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Employee information and training</I>—(1) <I>Participation.</I> The employer shall assure that all employees who are assigned to workplaces where there is exposure to formaldehyde participate in a training program, except that where the employer can show, using objective data, that employees are not exposed to formaldehyde at or above 0.1 ppm, the employer is not required to provide training.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> Employers shall provide such information and training to employees at the time of initial assignment, and whenever a new exposure to formaldehyde is introduced into the work area. The training shall be repeated at least annually.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Training program.</I> The training program shall be conducted in a manner which the employee is able to understand and shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A discussion of the contents of this regulation and the contents of the Material Safety Data Sheet.
</P>
<P>(ii) The purpose for and a description of the medical surveillance program required by this standard, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the potential health hazards associated with exposure to formaldehyde and a description of the signs and symptoms of exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions to immediately report to the employer the development of any adverse signs or symptoms that the employee suspects is attributable to formaldehyde exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Description of operations in the work area where formaldehyde is present and an explanation of the safe work practices appropriate for limiting exposure to formaldehyde in each job;
</P>
<P>(iv) The purpose for, proper use of, and limitations of personal protective clothing and equipment;
</P>
<P>(v) Instructions for the handling of spills, emergencies, and clean-up procedures;
</P>
<P>(vi) An explanation of the importance of engineering and work practice controls for employee protection and any necessary instruction in the use of these controls; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A review of emergency procedures including the specific duties or assignments of each employee in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall inform all affected employees of the location of written training materials and shall make these materials readily available, without cost, to the affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide, upon request, all training materials relating to the employee training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to formaldehyde. This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of measurement;
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation being monitored;
</P>
<P>(iii) The methods of sampling and analysis and evidence of their accuracy and precision;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number, durations, time, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(v) The types of protective devices worn; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The names, job classifications, and exposure estimates of the employees whose exposures are represented by the actual monitoring results.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure determinations.</I> Where the employer has determined that no monitoring is required under this standard, the employer shall maintain a record of the objective data relied upon to support the determination that no employee is exposed to formaldehyde at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance under this standard. This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) The physician's written opinion;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of any employee health complaints that may be related to exposure to formaldehyde; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A copy of the medical examination results, including medical disease questionnaires and results of any medical tests required by the standard or mandated by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Respirator fit testing.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain accurate records for employees subject to negative pressure respirator fit testing required by this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the protocol selected for respirator fit testing.
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the results of any fit testing performed.
</P>
<P>(C) The size and manufacturer of the types of respirators available for selection.
</P>
<P>(D) The date of the most recent fit testing, the name of each tested employee, and the respirator type and facepiece selected.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Record retention.</I> The employer shall retain records required by this standard for at least the following periods:
</P>
<P>(i) Exposure records and determinations shall be kept for at least 30 years.
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical records shall be kept for the duration of employment plus 30 years.
</P>
<P>(iii) Respirator fit testing records shall be kept until replaced by a more recent record.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Availability of records.</I> (i) Upon request, the employer shall make all records maintained as a requirement of this standard available for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make employee exposure records, including estimates made from representative monitoring and available upon request for examination, and copying to the subject employee, or former employee, and employee representatives in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a)-(e) and (g)-(i).
</P>
<P>(iii) Employee medical records required by this standard shall be provided upon request for examination and coying, to the subject employee or former employee or to anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee or former employee in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a)-(e) and (g)-(i).
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1048—Substance Technical Guidelines for Formalin
</HD1>
<P>The following Substance Technical Guideline for Formalin provides information on uninhibited formalin solution (37% formaldehyde, no methanol stabilizer). It is designed to inform employees at the production level of their rights and duties under the formaldehyde standard whether their job title defines them as workers or supervisors. Much of the information provided is general; however, some information is specific for formalin. When employee exposure to formaldehyde is from resins capable of releasing formaldehyde, the resin itself and other impurities or decomposition products may also be toxic, and employers should include this information as well when informing employees of the hazards associated with the materials they handle. The precise hazards associated with exposure to formaldehyde depend both on the form (solid, liquid, or gas) of the material and the concentration of formaldehyde present. For example, 37-50 percent solutions of formaldehyde present a much greater hazard to the skin and eyes from spills or splashes than solutions containing less than 1 percent formaldehyde. Individual Substance Technical Guidelines used by the employer for training employees should be modified to properly give information on the material actually being used.
</P>
<HD2>Substance Identification
</HD2>
<FP-1><I>Chemical Name:</I> Formaldehyde
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Chemical Family:</I> Aldehyde
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Chemical Formula:</I> HCHO
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Molecular Weight:</I> 30.03
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Chemical Abstracts Service Number (CAS Number):</I> 50-00-0
</FP-1>
<P><I>Synonyms:</I> Formalin; Formic Aldehyde; Paraform; Formol; Formalin (Methanol-free); Fyde; Formalith; Methanal; Methyl Aldehyde; Methylene Glycol; Methylene Oxide; Tetraoxymethalene; Oxomethane; Oxymethylene
</P>
<HD2>Components and Contaminants
</HD2>
<FP-1><I>Percent:</I> 37.0 Formaldehyde
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Percent:</I> 63.0 Water
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Note—Inhibited solutions contain methanol.)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Other Contaminants:</I> Formic acid (alcohol free)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Exposure Limits:</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OSHA TWA—0.75 ppm
</FP-1>
<FP-1>OSHA STEL—2 ppm
</FP-1>
<HD2>Physical Data
</HD2>
<FP-1><I>Description:</I> Colorless liquid, pungent odor
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Boiling point:</I> 214 °F (101 °C)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Specific Gravity:</I> 1.08 (H<E T="52">2</E> O = 1 @ 20 °C)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>pH:</I> 2.8-4.0
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Solubility in Water:</I> Miscible
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Solvent Solubility:</I> Soluble in alcohol and acetone
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Vapor Density:</I> 1.04 (Air = 1 @ 20 °C)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Odor Threshold:</I> 0.8-1 ppm
</FP-1>
<HD2>Fire and Explosion Hazard
</HD2>
<P>Moderate fire and explosion hazard when exposed to heat or flame.
</P>
<P>The flash point of 37% formaldehyde solutions is above normal room temperature, but the explosion range is very wide, from 7 to 73% by volume in air.
</P>
<P>Reaction of formaldehyde with nitrogen dioxide, nitromethane, perchloric acid and aniline, or peroxyformic acid yields explosive compounds.
</P>
<FP-1><I>Flash Point:</I> 185 °F (85 °C) closed cup
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Lower Explosion Limit:</I> 7%
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Upper Explosion Limit:</I> 73%
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Autoignition Temperature:</I> 806 °F (430 °C)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Flammability (OSHA): Category 4 flammable liquid
</FP-1>
<P><I>Extinguishing Media:</I> Use dry chemical, “alcohol foam”, carbon dioxide, or water in flooding amounts as fog. Solid streams may not be effective. Cool fire-exposed containers with water from side until well after fire is out.
</P>
<P>Use of water spray to flush spills can also dilute the spill to produce nonflammable mixtures. Water runoff, however, should be contained for treatment.
</P>
<HD2>National Fire Protection Association Section 325M Designation:
</HD2>
<P><I>Health:</I> 2—Materials hazardous to health, but areas may be entered with full-faced mask self-contained breathing apparatus which provides eye protection.
</P>
<P><I>Flammability:</I> 2—Materials which must be moderately heated before ignition will occur. Water spray may be used to extinguish the fire because the material can be cooled below its flash point.
</P>
<P><I>Reactivity:</I> D—Materials which (in themselves) are normally stable even under fire exposure conditions and which are not reactive with water. Normal fire fighting procedures may be used.
</P>
<HD2>Reactivity
</HD2>
<P><I>Stability:</I> Formaldehyde solutions may self-polymerize to form paraformaldehyde which precipitates.
</P>
<P><I>Incompatibility (Materials to Avoid):</I> Strong oxidizing agents, caustics, strong alkalies, isocyanates, anhydrides, oxides, and inorganic acids. Formaldehyde reacts with hydrochloric acid to form the potent carcinogen, bis-chloromethyl ether. Formaldehyde reacts with nitrogen dioxide, nitromethane, perchloric acid and aniline, or peroxyformic acid to yield explosive compounds. A violent reaction occurs when formaldehyde is mixed with strong oxidizers.
</P>
<P>Hazardous Combustion or Decomposition Products: Oxygen from the air can oxidize formaldehyde to formic acid, especially when heated. Formic acid is corrosive.
</P>
<HD2>Health Hazard Data
</HD2>
<HD3>Acute Effects of Exposure
</HD3>
<P><I>Ingestion (Swallowing):</I> Liquids containing 10 to 40% formaldehyde cause severe irritation and inflammation of the mouth, throat, and stomach. Severe stomach pains will follow ingestion with possible loss of consciousness and death. Ingestion of dilute formaldehyde solutions (0.03-0.04%) may cause discomfort in the stomach and pharynx.
</P>
<P><I>Inhalation (Breathing):</I> Formaldehyde is highly irritating to the upper respiratory tract and eyes. Concentrations of 0.5 to 2.0 ppm may irritate the eyes, nose, and throat of some individuals. Concentrations of 3 to 5 ppm also cause tearing of the eyes and are intolerable to some persons. Concentrations of 10 to 20 ppm cause difficulty in breathing, burning of the nose and throat, cough, and heavy tearing of the eyes, and 25 to 30 ppm causes severe respiratory tract injury leading to pulmonary edema and pneumonitis. A concentration of 100 ppm is immediately dangerous to life and health. Deaths from accidental exposure to high concentrations of formaldehyde have been reported.
</P>
<P><I>Skin (Dermal):</I> Formalin is a severe skin irritant and a sensitizer. Contact with formalin causes white discoloration, smarting, drying, cracking, and scaling. Prolonged and repeated contact can cause numbness and a hardening or tanning of the skin. Previously exposed persons may react to future exposure with an allergic eczematous dermatitis or hives.
</P>
<P><I>Eye Contact:</I> Formaldehyde solutions splashed in the eye can cause injuries ranging from transient discomfort to severe, permanent corneal clouding and loss of vision. The severity of the effect depends on the concentration of formaldehyde in the solution and whether or not the eyes are flushed with water immediately after the accident.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note.</HED>
<P>The perception of formaldehyde by odor and eye irritation becomes less sensitive with time as one adapts to formaldehyde. This can lead to overexposure if a worker is relying on formaldehyde's warning properties to alert him or her to the potential for exposure.</P></NOTE>
<FP-1><I>Acute Animal Toxicity:</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Oral,</I> rats: LD50 = 800 mg/kg
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Oral,</I> mouse: LD50 = 42 mg/kg
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Inhalation,</I> rats: LCLo = 250 mg/kg
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Inhalation,</I> mouse: LCLo = 900 mg/kg
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Inhalation,</I> rats: LC50 = 590 mg/kg
</FP-1>
<HD2>Chronic Effects of Exposure
</HD2>
<P><I>Carcinogenicity:</I> Formaldehyde has the potential to cause cancer in humans. Repeated and prolonged exposure increases the risk. Various animal experiments have conclusively shown formaldehyde to be a carcinogen in rats. In humans, formaldehyde exposure has been associated with cancers of the lung, nasopharynx and oropharynx, and nasal passages.
</P>
<P><I>Mutagenicity:</I> Formaldehyde is genotoxic in several <I>in vitro</I> test systems showing properties of both an initiator and a promoter.
</P>
<P><I>Toxicity:</I> Prolonged or repeated exposure to formaldehyde may result in respiratory impairment. Rats exposed to formaldehyde at 2 ppm developed benign nasal tumors and changes of the cell structure in the nose as well as inflamed mucous membranes of the nose. Structural changes in the epithelial cells in the human nose have also been observed. Some persons have developed asthma or bronchitis following exposure to formaldehyde, most often as the result of an accidental spill involving a single exposure to a high concentration of formaldehyde.
</P>
<HD2>Emergency and First Aid Procedures
</HD2>
<P><I>Ingestion (Swallowing):</I> If the victim is conscious, dilute, inactivate, or absorb the ingested formaldehyde by giving milk, activated charcoal, or water. Any organic material will inactivate formaldehyde. Keep affected person warm and at rest. Get medical attention immediately. If vomiting occurs, keep head lower than hips.
</P>
<P><I>Inhalation (Breathing):</I> Remove the victim from the exposure area to fresh air immediately. Where the formaldehyde concentration may be very high, each rescuer must put on a self-contained breathing apparatus before attempting to remove the victim, and medical personnel should be informed of the formaldehyde exposure immediately. If breathing has stopped, give artificial respiration. Keep the affected person warm and at rest. Qualified first-aid or medical personnel should administer oxygen, if available, and maintain the patient's airways and blood pressure until the victim can be transported to a medical facility. If exposure results in a highly irritated upper respiratory tract and coughing continues for more than 10 minutes, the worker should be hospitalized for observation and treatment.
</P>
<P><I>Skin Contact:</I> Remove contaminated clothing (including shoes) immediately. Wash the affected area of your body with soap or mild detergent and large amounts of water until no evidence of the chemical remains (at least 15 to 20 minutes). If there are chemical burns, get first aid to cover the area with sterile, dry dressing, and bandages. Get medical attention if you experience appreciable eye or respiratory irritation.
</P>
<P><I>Eye Contact:</I> Wash the eyes immediately with large amounts of water occasionally lifting lower and upper lids, until no evidence of chemical remains (at least 15 to 20 minutes). In case of burns, apply sterile bandages loosely without medication. Get medical attention immediately. If you have experienced appreciable eye irritation from a splash or excessive exposure, you should be referred promptly to an opthamologist for evaluation.
</P>
<HD2>Emergency Procedures
</HD2>
<P><I>Emergencies:</I> If you work in an area where a large amount of formaldehyde could be released in an accident or from equipment failure, your employer must develop procedures to be followed in event of an emergency. You should be trained in your specific duties in the event of an emergency, and it is important that you clearly understand these duties. Emergency equipment must be accessible and you should be trained to use any equipment that you might need. Formaldehyde contaminated equipment must be cleaned before reuse.
</P>
<P>If a spill of appreciable quantity occurs, leave the area quickly unless you have specific emergency duties. Do not touch spilled material. Designated persons may stop the leak and shut off ignition sources if these procedures can be done without risk. Designated persons should isolate the hazard area and deny entry except for necessary people protected by suitable protective clothing and respirators adequate for the exposure. Use water spray to reduce vapors. Do not smoke, and prohibit all flames or flares in the hazard area.
</P>
<P><I>Special Firefighting Procedures:</I> Learn procedures and responsibilities in the event of a fire in your workplace. Become familiar with the appropriate equipment and supplies and their location. In firefighting, withdraw immediately in case of rising sound from venting safety device or any discoloration of storage tank due to fire.
</P>
<HD2>Spill, Leak, and Disposal Procedures
</HD2>
<P><I>Occupational Spill:</I> For small containers, place the leaking container in a well ventilated area. Take up small spills with absorbent material and place the waste into properly labeled containers for later disposal. For larger spills, dike the spill to minimize contamination and facilitate salvage or disposal. You may be able to neutralize the spill with sodium hydroxide or sodium sulfite. Your employer must comply with EPA rules regarding the clean-up of toxic waste and notify state and local authorities, if required. If the spill is greater than 1,000 lb/day, it is reportable under EPA's Superfund legislation.
</P>
<P><I>Waste Disposal:</I> Your employer must dispose of waste containing formaldehyde in accordance with applicable local, state, and Federal law and in a manner that minimizes exposure of employees at the site and of the clean-up crew.
</P>
<HD2>Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD2>
<P><I>Monitoring Requirements:</I> If your exposure to formaldehyde exceeds the 0.5 ppm action level or the 2 ppm STEL, your employer must monitor your exposure. Your employer need not measure every exposure if a “high exposure” employee can be identified. This person usually spends the greatest amount of time nearest the process equipment. If you are a “representative employee”, you will be asked to wear a sampling device to collect formaldehyde. This device may be a passive badge, a sorbent tube attached to a pump, or an impinger containing liquid. You should perform your work as usual, but inform the person who is conducting the monitoring of any difficulties you are having wearing the device.
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation of 8-hour Exposure:</I> Measurements taken for the purpose of determining time-weighted average (TWA) exposures are best taken with samples covering the full shift. Samples collected must be taken from the employee's breathing zone air.
</P>
<P><I>Short-term Exposure Evaluation:</I> If there are tasks that involve brief but intense exposure to formaldehyde, employee exposure must be measured to assure compliance with the STEL. Sample collections are for brief periods, only 15 minutes, but several samples may be needed to identify the peak exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Monitoring Techniques:</I> OSHA's only requirement for selecting a method for sampling and analysis is that the methods used accurately evaluate the concentration of formaldehyde in employees' breathing zones. Sampling and analysis may be performed by collection of formaldehyde on liquid or solid sorbents with subsequent chemical analysis. Sampling and analysis may also be performed by passive diffusion monitors and short-term exposure may be measured by instruments such as real-time continuous monitoring systems and portable direct reading instruments.
</P>
<P><I>Notification of Results:</I> Your employer must inform you of the results of exposure monitoring representative of your job. You may be informed in writing, but posting the results where you have ready access to them constitutes compliance with the standard.
</P>
<HD2>Protective Equipment and Clothing
</HD2>
<P>[Material impervious to formaldehyde is needed if the employee handles formaldehyde solutions of 1% or more. Other employees may also require protective clothing or equipment to prevent dermatitis.]
</P>
<P><I>Respiratory Protection:</I> Use NIOSH-approved full facepiece negative pressure respirators equipped with approved cartridges or canisters within the use limitations of these devices. (Present restrictions on cartridges and canisters do not permit them to be used for a full workshift.) In all other situations, use positive pressure respirators such as the positive-pressure air purifying respirator or the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). If you use a negative pressure respirator, your employer must provide you with fit testing of the respirator at least once a year. 
</P>
<P><I>Protective Gloves:</I> Wear protective (impervious) gloves provided by your employer, at no cost, to prevent contact with formalin. Your employer should select these gloves based on the results of permeation testing and in accordance with the ACGIH Guidelines for Selection of Chemical Protective Clothing.
</P>
<P><I>Eye Protection:</I> If you might be splashed in the eyes with formalin, it is essential that you wear goggles or some other type of complete protection for the eye. You may also need a face shield if your face is likely to be splashed with formalin, but you must not substitute face shields for eye protection. (This section pertains to formaldehyde solutions of 1% or more.)
</P>
<P><I>Other Protective Equipment:</I> You must wear protective (impervious) clothing and equipment provided by your employer at no cost to prevent repeated or prolonged contact with formaldehyde liquids. If you are required to change into whole-body chemical protective clothing, your employer must provide a change room for your privacy and for storage of your normal clothing.
</P>
<P>If you are splashed with formaldehyde, use the emergency showers and eyewash fountains provided by your employer immediately to prevent serious injury. Report the incident to your supervisor and obtain necessary medical support.
</P>
<HD1>Entry Into an IDLH Atmosphere
</HD1>
<P>Enter areas where the formaldehyde concentration might be 100 ppm or more only with complete body protection including a self-contained breathing apparatus with a full facepiece operated in a positive pressure mode or a supplied air respirator with full facepiece and operated in a positive pressure mode. This equipment is essential to protect your life and health under such extreme conditions.
</P>
<HD2>Engineering Controls
</HD2>
<P>Ventilation is the most widely applied engineering control method for reducing the concentration of airborne substances in the breathing zones of workers. There are two distinct types of ventilation.
</P>
<P><I>Local Exhaust:</I> Local exhaust ventilation is designed to capture airborne contaminants as near to the point of generation as possible. To protect you, the direction of contaminant flow must always be toward the local exhaust system inlet and away from you.
</P>
<P><I>General (Mechanical):</I> General dilution ventilation involves continuous introduction of fresh air into the workroom to mix with the contaminated air and lower your breathing zone concentration of formaldehyde. Effectiveness depends on the number of air changes per hour. Where devices emitting formaldehyde are spread out over a large area, general dilution ventilation may be the only practical method of control.
</P>
<P><I>Work Practices:</I> Work practices and administrative procedures are an important part of a control system. If you are asked to perform a task in a certain manner to limit your exposure to formaldehyde, it is extremely important that you follow these procedures.
</P>
<HD2>Medical Surveillance
</HD2>
<P>Medical surveillance helps to protect employees' health. You are encouraged strongly to participate in the medical surveillance program.
</P>
<P>Your employer must make a medical surveillance program available at no expense to you and at a reasonable time and place if you are exposed to formaldehyde at concentrations above 0.5 ppm as an 8-hour average or 2 ppm over any 15-minute period. You will be offered medical surveillance at the time of your initial assignment and once a year afterward as long as your exposure is at least 0.5 ppm (TWA) or 2 ppm (STEL). Even if your exposure is below these levels, you should inform your employer if you have signs and symptoms that you suspect, through your training, are related to your formaldehyde exposure because you may need medical surveillance to determine if your health is being impaired by your exposure.
</P>
<P>The surveillance plan includes:
</P>
<P>(a) A medical disease questionnaire.
</P>
<P>(b) A physical examination if the physician determines this is necessary.
</P>
<P>If you are required to wear a respirator, your employer must offer you a physical examination and a pulmonary function test every year.
</P>
<P>The physician must collect all information needed to determine if you are at increased risk from your exposure to formaldehyde. At the physician's discretion, the medical examination may include other tests, such as a chest x-ray, to make this determination.
</P>
<P>After a medical examination the physician will provide your employer with a written opinion which includes any special protective measures recommended and any restrictions on your exposure. The physician must inform you of any medical conditions you have which would be aggravated by exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>All records from your medical examinations, including disease surveys, must be retained at your employer's expense.
</P>
<HD1>Emergencies
</HD1>
<P>If you are exposed to formaldehyde in an emergency and develop signs or symptoms associated with acute toxicity from formaldehyde exposure, your employer must provide you with a medical examination as soon as possible. This medical examination will include all steps necessary to stabilize your health. You may be kept in the hospital for observation if your symptoms are severe to ensure that any delayed effects are recognized and treated.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1048—Sampling Strategy and Analytical Methods for Formaldehyde
</HD1>
<P>To protect the health of employees, exposure measurements must be unbiased and representative of employee exposure. The proper measurement of employee exposure requires more than a token commitment on the part of the employer. OSHA's mandatory requirements establish a baseline; under the best of circumstances all questions regarding employee exposure will be answered. Many employers, however, will wish to conduct more extensive monitoring before undertaking expensive commitments, such as engineering controls, to assure that the modifications are truly necessary. The following sampling strategy, which was developed at NIOSH by Nelson A. Leidel, Kenneth A. Busch, and Jeremiah R. Lynch and described in NIOSH publication No. 77-173 (Occupational Exposure Sampling Strategy Manual) will assist the employer in developing a strategy for determining the exposure of his or her employees.
</P>
<P>There is no one correct way to determine employee exposure. Obviously, measuring the exposure of every employee exposed to formaldehyde will provide the most information on any given day. Where few employees are exposed, this may be a practical solution. For most employers, however, use of the following strategy will give just as much information at less cost.
</P>
<P>Exposure data collected on a single day will not automatically guarantee the employer that his or her workplace is always in compliance with the formaldehyde standard. This does not imply, however, that it is impossible for an employer to be sure that his or her worksite is in compliance with the standard. Indeed, a properly designed sampling strategy showing that all employees are exposed below the PELs, at least with a 95 percent certainty, is compelling evidence that the exposure limits are being achieved provided that measurements are conducted using valid sampling strategy and approved analytical methods.
</P>
<P>There are two PELs, the TWA concentration and the STEL. Most employers will find that one of these two limits is more critical in the control of their operations, and OSHA expects that the employer will concentrate monitoring efforts on the critical component. If the more difficult exposure is controlled, this information, along with calculations to support the assumptions, should be adequate to show that the other exposure limit is also being achieved.
</P>
<HD2>Sampling Strategy
</HD2>
<HD3>Determination of the Need for Exposure Measurements
</HD3>
<P>The employer must determine whether employees may be exposed to concentrations in excess of the action level. This determination becomes the first step in an employee exposure monitoring program that minimizes employer sampling burdens while providing adequate employee protection. If employees may be exposed above the action level, the employer must measure exposure. Otherwise, an objective determination that employee exposure is low provides adequate evidence that exposure potential has been examined.
</P>
<P>The employer should examine all available relevant information, <I>eg.</I> insurance company and trade association data and information from suppliers or exposure data collected from similar operations. The employer may also use previously-conducted sampling including area monitoring. The employer must make a determination relevant to each operation although this need not be on a separate piece of paper. If the employer can demonstrate conclusively that no employee is exposed above the action level or the STEL through the use of objective data, the employer need proceed no further on employee exposure monitoring until such time that conditions have changed and the determination is no longer valid.
</P>
<P>If the employer cannot determine that employee exposure is less than the action level and the STEL, employee exposure monitoring will have to be conducted.
</P>
<HD3>Workplace Material Survey
</HD3>
<P>The primary purpose of a survey of raw material is to determine if formaldehyde is being used in the work environment and if so, the conditions under which formaldehyde is being used.
</P>
<P>The first step is to tabulate all situations where formaldehyde is used in a manner such that it may be released into the workplace atmosphere or contaminate the skin. This information should be available through analysis of company records and information on the MSDSs available through provisions of this standard and the Hazard Communication standard.
</P>
<P>If there is an indication from materials handling records and accompanying MSDSs that formaldehyde is being used in the following types of processes or work operations, there may be a potential for releasing formaldehyde into the workplace atmosphere:
</P>
<P>(1) Any operation that involves grinding, sanding, sawing, cutting, crushing, screening, sieving, or any other manipulation of material that generates formaldehyde-bearing dust
</P>
<P>(2) Any processes where there have been employee complaints or symptoms indicative of exposure to formaldehyde
</P>
<P>(3) Any liquid or spray process involving formaldehyde
</P>
<P>(4) Any process that uses formaldehyde in preserved tissue
</P>
<P>(5) Any process that involves the heating of a formaldehyde-bearing resin.
</P>
<FP>Processes and work operations that use formaldehyde in these manners will probably require further investigation at the worksite to determine the extent of employee monitoring that should be conducted.
</FP>
<HD3>Workplace Observations
</HD3>
<P>To this point, the only intention has been to provide an indication as to the existence of potentially exposed employees. With this information, a visit to the workplace is needed to observe work operations, to identify potential health hazards, and to determine whether any employees may be exposed to hazardous concentrations of formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>In many circumstances, sources of formaldehyde can be identified through the sense of smell. However, this method of detection should be used with caution because of olfactory fatigue.
</P>
<P>Employee location in relation to source of formaldehyde is important in determining if an employee may be significantly exposed to formaldehyde. In most instances, the closer a worker is to the source, the higher the probability that a significant exposure will occur.
</P>
<P>Other characteristics should be considered. Certain high temperature operations give rise to higher evaporation rates. Locations of open doors and windows provide natural ventilation that tend to dilute formaldehyde emissions. General room ventilation also provides a measure of control.
</P>
<HD3>Calculation of Potential Exposure Concentrations
</HD3>
<P>By knowing the ventilation rate in a workplace and the quantity of formaldehyde generated, the employer may be able to determine by calculation if the PELs might be exceeded. To account for poor mixing of formaldehyde into the entire room, locations of fans and proximity of employees to the work operation, the employer must include a safety factor. If an employee is relatively close to a source, particularly if he or she is located downwind, a safety factor of 100 may be necessary. For other situations, a factor of 10 may be acceptable. If the employer can demonstrate through such calculations that employee exposure does not exceed the action level or the STEL, the employer may use this information as objective data to demonstrate compliance with the standard.
</P>
<HD3>Sampling Strategy
</HD3>
<P>Once the employer determines that there is a possibility of substantial employee exposure to formaldehyde, the employer is obligated to measure employee exposure.
</P>
<P>The next step is selection of a maximum risk employee. When there are different processes where employees may be exposed to formaldehyde, a maximum risk employee should be selected for each work operation.
</P>
<P>Selection of the maximum risk employee requires professional judgment. The best procedure for selecting the maximum risk employee is to observe employees and select the person closest to the source of formaldehyde. Employee mobility may affect this selection; <I>eg.</I> if the closest employee is mobile in his tasks, he may not be the maximum risk employee. Air movement patterns and differences in work habits will also affect selection of the maximum risk employee.
</P>
<P>When many employees perform essentially the same task, a maximum risk employee cannot be selected. In this circumstance, it is necessary to resort to random sampling of the group of workers. The objective is to select a subgroup of adequate size so that there is a high probability that the random sample will contain at least one worker with high exposure if one exists. The number of persons in the group influences the number that need to be sampled to ensure that at least one individual from the highest 10 percent exposure group is contained in the sample. For example, to have 90 percent confidence in the results, if the group size is 10, nine should be sampled; for 50, only 18 need to be sampled.
</P>
<P>If measurement shows exposure to formaldehyde at or above the action level or the STEL, the employer needs to identify all other employees who may be exposed at or above the action level or STEL and measure or otherwise accurately characterize the exposure of these employees.
</P>
<P>Whether representative monitoring or random sampling are conducted, the purpose remains the same—to determine if the exposure of any employee is above the action level. If the exposure of the most exposed employee is less than the action level and the STEL, regardless of how the employee is identified, then it is reasonable to assume that measurements of exposure of the other employees in that operation would be below the action level and the STEL.
</P>
<HD3>Exposure Measurements
</HD3>
<P>There is no “best” measurement strategy for all situations. Some elements to consider in developing a strategy are:
</P>
<P>(1) Availability and cost of sampling equipment
</P>
<P>(2) Availability and cost of analytic facilities
</P>
<P>(3) Availability and cost of personnel to take samples
</P>
<P>(4) Location of employees and work operations
</P>
<P>(5) Intraday and interday variations in the process
</P>
<P>(6) Precision and accuracy of sampling and analytic methods, and
</P>
<P>(7) Number of samples needed.
</P>
<P>Samples taken for determining compliance with the STEL differ from those that measure the TWA concentration in important ways. STEL samples are best taken in a nonrandom fashion using all available knowledge relating to the area, the individual, and the process to obtain samples during periods of maximum expected concentrations. At least three measurements on a shift are generally needed to spot gross errors or mistakes; however, only the highest value represents the STEL.
</P>
<P>If an operation remains constant throughout the workshift, a much greater number of samples would need to be taken over the 32 discrete nonoverlapping periods in an 8-hour workshift to verify compliance with a STEL. If employee exposure is truly uniform throughout the workshift, however, an employer in compliance with the l ppm TWA would be in compliance with the 2 ppm STEL, and this determination can probably be made using objective data.
</P>
<HD3>Need To Repeat the Monitoring Strategy
</HD3>
<P>Interday and intraday fluctuations in employee exposure are mostly influenced by the physical processes that generate formaldehyde and the work habits of the employee. Hence, in-plant process variations influence the employer's determination of whether or not additional controls need to be imposed. Measurements that employee exposure is low on a day that is not representative of worst conditions may not provide sufficient information to determine whether or not additional engineering controls should be installed to achieve the PELs.
</P>
<P>The person responsible for conducting sampling must be aware of systematic changes which will negate the validity of the sampling results. Systematic changes in formaldehyde exposure concentration for an employee can occur due to:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee changing patterns of movement in the workplace
</P>
<P>(2) Closing of plant doors and windows
</P>
<P>(3) Changes in ventilation from season to season
</P>
<P>(4) Decreases in ventilation efficiency or abrupt failure of engineering control equipment
</P>
<P>(5) Changes in the production process or work habits of the employee.
</P>
<FP>Any of these changes, if they may result in additional exposure that reaches the next level of action (<I>i.e.</I> 0.5 or 1.0 ppm as an 8-hr average or 2 ppm over 15 minutes) require the employer to perform additional monitoring to reassess employee exposure.
</FP>
<P>A number of methods are suitable for measuring employee exposure to formaldehyde or for characterizing emissions within the worksite. The preamble to this standard describes some methods that have been widely used or subjected to validation testing. A detailed analytical procedure derived from the OSHA Method 52 for acrolein and formaldehyde is presented below for informational purposes.
</P>
<P>Inclusion of OSHA's method in this appendix in no way implies that it is the only acceptable way to measure employee exposure to formaldehyde. Other methods that are free from significant interferences and that can determine formaldehyde at the permissible exposure limits within ±25 percent of the “true” value at the 95 percent confidence level are also acceptable. Where applicable, the method shou1d a1so be capab1e of measuring formaldehyde at the action level to ±35 percent of the “true” value with a 95 percent confidence level. OSHA encourages emp1oyers to choose methods that will be best for their individual needs. The employer must exercise caution, however, in choosing an appropriate method since some techniques suffer from interferences that are likely to be present in workplaces of certain industry sectors where formaldehyde is used.
</P>
<HD2>OSHA's Analytical Laboratory Method
</HD2>
<FP-1><I>Method No:</I> 52
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Matrix:</I> Air
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Target Concentration:</I> 1 ppm (1.2 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Procedures:</I> Air samples are collected by drawing known volumes of air through sampling tubes containing XAD-2 adsorbent which have been coated with 2-(hydroxymethyl) piperidine. The samples are desorbed with toluene and then analyzed by gas chromatography using a nitrogen selective detector.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Recommended Sampling Rate and Air Volumes:</I> 0.1 L/min and 24 L
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Reliable Quantitation Limit:</I>16 ppb (20 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Standard Error of Estimate at the Target Concentration:</I> 7.3%
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Status of the Method:</I> A sampling and analytical method that has been subjected to the established evaluation procedures of the Organic Methods Evaluation Branch.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Date:</I> March 1985
</FP-1>
<HD3>1. General Discussion
</HD3>
<P>1.1 <I>Background:</I> The current OSHA method for collecting acrolein vapor recommends the use of activated 13X molecular sieves. The samples must be stored in an ice bath during and after sampling and also they must be analyzed within 48 hours of collection. The current OSHA method for collecting formaldehyde vapor recommends the use of bubblers containing 10% methanol in water as the trapping solution.
</P>
<P>This work was undertaken to resolve the sample stability problems associated with acrolein and also to eliminate the need to use bubb1ers to sample formaldehyde. A goal of this work was to develop and/or to evaluate a common sampling and analytical procedure for acrolein and formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>NIOSH has developed independent methodologies for acrolein and formaldehyde which recommend the use of reagent-coated adsorbent tubes to collect the aldehydes as stable derivatives. The formaldehyde sampling tubes contain Chromosorb 102 adsorbent coated with N-benzylethanolamine (BEA) which reacts with formaldehyde vapor to form a stable oxazolidine compound. The acrolein sampling tubes contain XAD-2 adsorbent coated with 2-(hydroxymethyl)piperidine (2-HMP) which reacts with acrolein vapor to form a different, stable oxazolidine derivative. Acrolein does not appear to react with BEA to give a suitable reaction product. Therefore, the formaldehyde procedure cannot provide a common method for both aldehydes. However, formaldehyde does react with 2-HMP to form a very suitable reaction product. It is the quantitative reaction of acrolein and formaldehyde with 2-HMP that provides the basis for this evaluation.
</P>
<P>This sampling and analytical procedure is very similar to the method recommended by NIOSH for acrolein. Some changes in the NIOSH methodology were necessary to permit the simultaneous determination of both aldehydes and also to accommodate OSHA laboratory equipment and analytical techniques.
</P>
<P>1.2 <I>Limit-defining parameters:</I> The analyte air concentrations reported in this method are based on the recommended air volume for each analyte collected separately and a desorption volume of 1 mL. The amounts are presented as acrolein and/or formaldehyde, even though the derivatives are the actual species analyzed.
</P>
<P>1.2.1 <I>Detection limits of the analytical procedure:</I> The detection limit of the analytical procedure was 386 pg per injection for formaldehyde. This was the amount of analyte which gave a peak whose height was about five times the height of the peak given by the residual formaldehyde derivative in a typical blank front section of the recommended sampling tube.
</P>
<P>1.2.2 <I>Detection limits of the overall procedure:</I> The detection limits of the overall procedure were 482 ng per sample (16 ppb or 20 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for formaldehyde). This was the amount of analyte spiked on the sampling device which allowed recoveries approximately equal to the detection limit of the analytical procedure.
</P>
<P>1.2.3 <I>Reliable quantitation limits:</I> The reliable quantitation limit was 482 ng per sample (16 ppb or 20 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) for formaldehyde. These were the smallest amounts of analyte which could be quantitated within the limits of a recovery of at least 75% and a precision (±1.96 SD) of ±25% or better.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>The reliable quantitation limit and detection limits reported in the method are based upon optimization of the instrument for the smallest possible amount of analyte. When the target concentration of an analyte is exceptionally higher than these limits, they may not be attainable at the routine operating parameters.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>1.2.4 <I>Sensitivity:</I> The sensitivity of the analytical procedure over concentration ranges representing 0.4 to 2 times the target concentration, based on the recommended air volumes, was 7,589 area units per µg/mL for formaldehyde. This value was determined from the slope of the calibration curve. The sensitivity may vary with the particular instrument used in the analysis.
</P>
<P>1.2.5 <I>Recovery:</I> The recovery of formaldehyde from samples used in an 18-day storage test remained above 92% when the samples were stored at ambient temperature. These values were determined from regression lines which were calculated from the storage data. The recovery of the analyte from the collection device must be at least 75% following storage.
</P>
<P>1.2.6 <I>Precision (analytical method only):</I> The pooled coefficient of variation obtained from replicate determinations of analytical standards over the range of 0.4 to 2 times the target concentration was 0.0052 for formaldehyde (Section 4.3).
</P>
<P>1.2.7 <I>Precision (overall procedure):</I> The precision at the 95% confidence level for the ambient temperature storage tests was ±14.3% for formaldehyde. These values each include an additional ±5% for sampling error. The overall procedure must provide results at the target concentrations that are ±25% at the 95% confidence level.
</P>
<P>1.2.8 <I>Reproducibility:</I> Samples collected from controlled test atmospheres and a draft copy of this procedure were given to a chemist unassociated with this evaluation. The formaldehyde samples were analyzed following 15 days storage. The average recovery was 96.3% and the standard deviation was 1.7%.
</P>
<P>1.3 <I>Advantages:</I>
</P>
<P>1.3.1 The sampling and analytical procedures permit the simultaneous determination of acrolein and formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>1.3.2 Samples are stable following storage at ambient temperature for at least 18 days.
</P>
<P>1.4 <I>Disadvantages:</I> None.
</P>
<HD3>2. Sampling Procedure
</HD3>
<P>2.1 <I>Apparatus:</I>
</P>
<P>2.1.1 Samples are collected by use of a personal sampling pump that can be calibrated to within ±5% of the recommended 0.1 L/min sampling rate with the sampling tube in line.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 Samples are collected with laboratory prepared sampling tubes. The sampling tube is constructed of silane treated glass and is about 8-cm long. The ID is 4 mm and the OD is 6 mm. One end of the tube is tapered so that a glass wool end plug will hold the contents of the tube in place during sampling. The other end of the sampling tube is open to its full 4-mm ID to facilitate packing of the tube. Both ends of the tube are fire-polished for safety. The tube is packed with a 75-mg backup section, located nearest the tapered end and a 150-mg sampling section of pretreated XAD-2 adsorbent which has been coated with 2-HMP. The two sections of coated adsorbent are separated and retained with small plugs of silanized glass wool. Following packing, the sampling tubes are sealed with two 
<FR>7/32</FR> inch OD plastic end caps. Instructions for the pretreatment and the coating of XAD-2 adsorbent are presented in Section 4 of this method.
</P>
<P>2.1.3 Sampling tubes, similar to those recommended in this method, are marketed by Supelco, Inc. These tubes were not available when this work was initiated; therefore, they were not evaluated.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Reagents:</I> None required.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Technique:</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.1 Properly label the sampling tube before sampling and then remove the plastic end caps.
</P>
<P>2.3.2 Attach the sampling tube to the pump using a section of flexible plastic tubing such that the large, front section of the sampling tube is exposed directly to the atmosphere. Do not place any tubing ahead of the sampling tube. The sampling tube should be attached in the worker's breathing zone in a vertical manner such that it does not impede work performance.
</P>
<P>2.3.3 After sampling for the appropriate time, remove the sampling tube from the pump and then seal the tube with plastic end caps.
</P>
<P>2.3.4 Include at least one blank for each sampling set. The blank should be handled in the same manner as the samples with the exception that air is not drawn through it.
</P>
<P>2.3.5 List any potential interferences on the sample data sheet.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Breakthrough:</I>
</P>
<P>2.4.1 Breakthrough was defined as the relative amount of analyte found on a backup sample in relation to the total amount of analyte collected on the sampling train.
</P>
<P>2.4.2 For formaldehyde collected from test atmospheres containing 6 times the PEL, the average 5% breakthrough air volume was 41 L. The sampling rate was 0.1 L/min and the average mass of formaldehyde collected was 250 µg.
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Desorption Efficiency:</I> No desorption efficiency corrections are necessary to compute air sample results because analytical standards are prepared using coated adsorbent. Desorption efficiencies were determined, however, to investigate the recoveries of the analytes from the sampling device. The average recovery over the range of 0.4 to 2 times the target concentration, based on the recommended air volumes, was 96.2% for formaldehyde. Desorption efficiencies were essentially constant over the ranges studied.
</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Recommended Air Volume and Sampling Rate:</I>
</P>
<P>2.6.1 The recommended air volume for formaldehyde is 24 L.
</P>
<P>2.6.2 The recommended sampling rate is 0.1 L/min.
</P>
<P>2.7 <I>Interferences:</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.1 Any collected substance that is capable of reacting 2-HMP and thereby depleting the derivatizing agent is a potential interference. Chemicals which contain a carbonyl group, such as acetone, may be capable or reacting with 2-HMP.
</P>
<P>2.7.2 There are no other known interferences to the sampling method.
</P>
<P>2.8 <I>Safety Precautions:</I>
</P>
<P>2.8.1 Attach the sampling equipment to the worker in such a manner that it well not interfere with work performance or safety.
</P>
<P>2.8.2 Follow all safety practices that apply to the work area being sampled.
</P>
<HD3>3. Analytical Procedure
</HD3>
<P>3.1 <I>Apparatus:</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1 A gas chromatograph (GC), equipped with a nitrogen selective detector. A Hewlett-Packard Model 5840A GC fitted with a nitrogen-phosphorus flame ionization detector (NPD) was used for this evaluation. Injections were performed using a Hewlett-Packard Model 7671A automatic sampler.
</P>
<P>3.1.2 A GC column capable of resolving the analytes from any interference. A 6 ft × 
<FR>1/4</FR> in OD (2mm ID) glass GC column containing 10% UCON 50-HB-5100 + 2% KOH on 80/100 mesh Chromosorb W-AW was used for the evaluation. Injections were performed on-column.
</P>
<P>3.1.3 Vials, glass 2-mL with Teflon-lined caps.
</P>
<P>3.1.4 Volumetric flasks, pipets, and syringes for preparing standards, making dilutions, and performing injections.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Reagents:</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.1 Toluene and dimethylformamide. Burdick and Jackson solvents were used in this evaluation.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 Helium, hydrogen, and air, GC grade.
</P>
<P>3.2.3 Formaldehyde, 37%, by weight, in water. Aldrich Chemical, ACS Reagent Grade formaldehyde was used in this evaluation.
</P>
<P>3.2.4 Amberlite XAD-2 adsorbent coated with 2-(hydroxymethyl—piperidine (2-HMP), 10% by weight (Section 4).
</P>
<P>3.2.5 Desorbing solution with internal standard. This solution was prepared by adding 20 µL of dimethylformamide to 100 mL of toluene.
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Standard preparation:</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.1 <I>Formaldehyde:</I> Prepare stock standards by diluting known volumes of 37% formaldehyde solution with methanol. A procedure to determine the formaldehyde content of these standards is presented in Section 4. A standard containing 7.7 mg/mL formaldehyde was prepared by diluting 1 mL of the 37% reagent to 50 mL with methanol.
</P>
<P>3.3.2 It is recommended that analytical standards be prepared about 16 hours before the air samples are to be analyzed in order to ensure the complete reaction of the analytes with 2-HMP. However, rate studies have shown the reaction to be greater than 95% complete after 4 hours. Therefore, one or two standards can be analyzed after this reduced time if sample results are outside the concentration range of the prepared standards.
</P>
<P>3.3.3 Place 150-mg portions of coated XAD-2 adsorbent, from the same lot number as used to collect the air samples, into each of several glass 2-mL vials. Seal each vial with a Teflon-lined cap.
</P>
<P>3.3.4 Prepare fresh analytical standards each day by injecting appropriate amounts of the diluted analyte directly onto 150-mg portions of coated adsorbent. It is permissible to inject both acrolein and formaldehyde on the same adsorbent portion. Allow the standards to stand at room temperature. A standard, approximately the target levels, was prepared by injecting 11 µL of the acrolein and 12 µL of the formaldehyde stock standards onto a single coated XAD-2 adsorbent portion.
</P>
<P>3.3.5 Prepare a sufficient number of standards to generate the calibration curves. Analytical standard concentrations should bracket sample concentrations. Thus, if samples are not in the concentration range of the prepared standards, additional standards must be prepared to determine detector response.
</P>
<P>3.3.7 Desorb the standards in the same manner as the samples following the 16-hour reaction time.
</P>
<P>3.4 <I>Sample preparation:</I>
</P>
<P>3.4.1 Transfer the 150-mg section of the sampling tube to a 2-mL vial. Place the 75-mg section in a separate vial. If the glass wool plugs contain a significant number of adsorbent beads, place them with the appropriate sampling tube section. Discard the glass wool plugs if they do not contain a significant number of adsorbent beads.
</P>
<P>3.4.2 Add 1 mL of desorbing solution to each vial.
</P>
<P>3.4.3 Seal the vials with Teflon-lined caps and then allow them to desorb for one hour. Shake the vials by hand with vigorous force several times during the desorption time.
</P>
<P>3.4.4 Save the used sampling tubes to be cleaned and recycled.
</P>
<P>3.5 <I>Analysis:</I>
</P>
<P>3.5.1 GC <I>Conditions</I>
</P>
<FP><I>Column Temperature:</I>
</FP>
<FP-1>Bi-level temperature program—First level: 100 to 140 °C at 4 °C/min following completion of the first level.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Second level: 140 to 180 °C at 20 °C/min following completion of the first level.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isothermal period: Hold column at 180 °C until the recorder pen returns to baseline (usually about 25 min after injection).
</FP-1>
<FP><I>Injector temperature:</I> 180 °C
</FP>
<FP-1><I>Helium flow rate:</I> 30 mL/min (detector response will be reduced if nitrogen is substituted for helium carrier gas).
</FP-1>
<FP><I>Injection volume:</I> 0.8 µL
</FP>
<FP-1><I>GC column:</I> Six-ft × 
<FR>1/4</FR>-in OD (2 mm ID) glass GC column containing 10% UCON 50-HB-5100 + 2% KOH on 80/100 Chromosorb W-AW.
</FP-1>
<P><I>NPD conditions:</I>
</P>
<P>Hydrogen flow rate: 3 mL/min
</P>
<P>Air flow rate: 50 mL/min
</P>
<P>Detector temperature: 275 °C
</P>
<P>3.5.2 <I>Chromatogram:</I> For an example of a typical chromatogram, see Figure 4.11 in OSHA Method 52.
</P>
<P>3.5.3 Use a suitable method, such as electronic integration, to measure detector response.
</P>
<P>3.5.4 Use an internal standard method to prepare the calibration curve with several standard solutions of different concentrations. Prepare the calibration curve daily. Program the integrator to report results in µg/mL.
</P>
<P>3.5.5 Bracket sample concentrations with standards.
</P>
<P>3.6 <I>Interferences (Analytical)</I>
</P>
<P>3.6.1 Any compound with the same general retention time as the analytes and which also gives a detector response is a potential interference. Possible interferences should be reported to the laboratory with submitted samples by the industrial hygienist.
</P>
<P>3.6.2 GC parameters (temperature, column, etc.) may be changed to circumvent interferences.
</P>
<P>3.6.3 A useful means of structure designation is GC/MS. It is recommended this procedure be used to confirm samples whenever possible.
</P>
<P>3.6.4 The coated adsorbent usually contains a very small amount of residual formaldehyde derivative (Section 4.8).
</P>
<P>3.7 <I>Calculations:</I>
</P>
<P>3.7.1 Results are obtained by use of calibration curves. Calibration curves are prepared by plotting detector response against concentration for each standard. The best line through the data points is determined by curve fitting.
</P>
<P>3.7.2 The concentration, in µg/mL, for a particular sample is determined by comparing its detector response to the calibration curve. If either of the analytes is found on the backup section, it is added to the amount found on the front section. Blank corrections should be performed before adding the results together.
</P>
<P>3.7.3 The acrolein and/or formaldehyde air concentration can be expressed using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>mg/m
<SU>3</SU> = (A)(B)/C
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where A = µg/mL from 3.7.2, B = desorption volume, and C = L of air sampled.
</FP-2>
<P>No desorption efficiency corrections are required.
</P>
<P>3.7.4 The following equation can be used to convert results in mg/m
<SU>3</SU> to ppm.
</P>
<FP-2>ppm = (mg/m
<SU>3</SU>)(24.45)/MW
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where mg/m
<SU>3</SU> = result from 3.7.3, 24.45 = molar volume of an ideal gas at 760 mm Hg and 25 °C, MW = molecular weight (30.0).
</FP-2>
<HD3>4. Backup Data
</HD3>
<P>4.1 Backup data on detection limits, reliable quantitation limits, sensitivity and precision of the analytical method, breakthrough, desorption efficiency, storage, reproducibility, and generation of test atmospheres are available in OSHA Method 52, developed by the Organics Methods Evaluation Branch, OSHA Analytical Laboratory, Salt Lake City, Utah.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Procedure to Coat XAD-2 Adsorbent with 2-HMP:</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.1 <I>Apparatus:</I> Soxhlet extraction apparatus, rotary evaporation apparatus, vacuum dessicator, 1-L vacuum flask, 1-L round-bottomed evaporative flask, 1-L Erlenmeyer flask, 250-mL Buchner funnel with a coarse fritted disc, etc.
</P>
<P>4.2.2 <I>Reagents:</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.2.1 Methanol, isooctane, and toluene.
</P>
<P>4.2.2.2 2-(Hydroxymethyl)piperidine.
</P>
<P>4.2.2.3 Amberlite XAD-2 non-ionic polymeric adsorbent, 20 to 60 mesh, Aldrich Chemical XAD-2 was used in this evaluation.
</P>
<P>4.2.3 <I>Procedure:</I> Weigh 125 g of crude XAD-2 adsorbent into a 1-L Erlenmeyer flask. Add about 200 mL of water to the flask and then swirl the mixture to wash the adsorbent. Discard any adsorbent that floats to the top of the water and then filter the mixture using a fritted Buchner funnel. Air dry the adsorbent for 2 minutes. Transfer the adsorbent back to the Erlenmeyer flask and then add about 200 mL of methanol to the flask. Swirl and then filter the mixture as before. Transfer the washed adsorbent back to the Erlenmeyer flask and then add about 200 mL of methanol to the flask. Swirl and then filter the mixture as before. Transfer the washed adsorbent to a 1-L round-bottomed evaporative flask, add 13 g of 2-HMP and then 200 mL of methanol, swirl the mixture and then allow it to stand for one hour. Remove the methanol at about 40 °C and reduced pressure using a rotary evaporation apparatus. Transfer the coated adsorbent to a suitable container and store it in a vacuum desiccator at room temperature overnight. Transfer the coated adsorbent to a Soxhlet extractor and then extract the material with toluene for about 24 hours. Discard the contaminated toluene, add methanol in its place and then continue the Soxhlet extraction for an additional 4 hours. Transfer the adsorbent to a weighted 1-L round-bottom evaporative flask and remove the methanol using the rotary evaporation apparatus. Determine the weight of the adsorbent and then add an amount of 2-HMP, which is 10% by weight of the adsorbent. Add 200 mL of methanol and then swirl the mixture. Allow the mixture to stand for one hour. Remove the methanol by rotary evaporation. Transfer the coated adsorbent to a suitable container and store it in a vacuum desiccator until all traces of solvents are gone. Typically, this will take 2-3 days. The coated adsorbent should be protected from contamination. XAD-2 adsorbent treated in this manner will probably not contain residual acrolein derivative. However, this adsorbent will often contain residual formaldehyde derivative levels of about 0.1 µg per 150 mg of adsorbent. If the blank values for a batch of coated adsorbent are too high, then the batch should be returned to the Soxhlet extractor, extracted with toluene again and then recoated. This process can be repeated until the desired blank levels are attained.
</P>
<P>The coated adsorbent is now ready to be packed into sampling tubes. The sampling tubes should be stored in a sealed container to prevent contamination. Sampling tubes should be stored in the dark at room temperature. The sampling tubes should be segregated by coated adsorbent lot number. A sufficient amount of each lot number of coated adsorbent should be retained to prepare analytical standards for use with air samples from that lot number.
</P>
<P>4.3 <I>A Procedure to Determine Formaldehyde by Acid Titration:</I> Standardize the 0.1 N HCl solution using sodium carbonate and methyl orange indicator.
</P>
<P>Place 50 mL of 0.1 M sodium sulfite and three drops of thymophthalein indicator into a 250-mL Erlenmeyer flask. Titrate the contents of the flask to a colorless endpoint with 0.1 N HCl (usually one or two drops is sufficient). Transfer 10 mL of the formaldehyde/methanol solution (prepared in 3.3.1) into the same flask and titrate the mixture with 0.1 N HCl, again, to a colorless endpoint. The formaldehyde concentration of the standard may be calculated by the following equation:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec15no91.041.gif"/></MATH>
<P>This method is based on the quantitative liberation of sodium hydroxide when formaldehyde reacts with sodium sulfite to form the formaldehyde-bisulfite addition product. The volume of sample may be varied depending on the formaldehyde content but the solution to be titrated must contain excess sodium sulfite. Formaldehyde solutions containing substantial amounts of acid or base must be neutralized before analysis.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1048—Medical Surveillance—Formaldehyde
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Health Hazards
</HD2>
<P>The occupational health hazards of formaldehyde are primarily due to its toxic effects after inhalation, after direct contact with the skin or eyes by formaldehyde in liquid or vapor form, and after ingestion.
</P>
<HD2>II. Toxicology
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Acute Effects of Exposure
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Inhalation (breathing):</I> Formaldehyde is highly irritating to the upper airways. The concentration of formaldehyde that is immediately dangerous to life and health is 100 ppm. Concentrations above 50 ppm can cause severe pulmonary reactions within minutes. These include pulmonary edema, pneumonia, and bronchial irritation which can result in death. Concentrations above 5 ppm readily cause lower airway irritation characterized by cough, chest tightness and wheezing. There is some controversy regarding whether formaldehyde gas is a pulmonary sensitizer which can cause occupational asthma in a previously normal individual. Formaldehyde can produce symptoms of bronchial asthma in humans. The mechanism may be either sensitization of the individual by exposure to formaldehyde or direct irritation by formaldehyde in persons with pre-existing asthma. Upper airway irritation is the most common respiratory effect reported by workers and can occur over a wide range of concentrations, most frequently above 1 ppm. However, airway irritation has occurred in some workers with exposures to formaldehyde as low as 0.1 ppm. Symptoms of upper airway irritation include dry or sore throat, itching and burning sensations of the nose, and nasal congestion. Tolerance to this level of exposure may develop within 1-2 hours. This tolerance can permit workers remaining in an environment of gradually increasing formaldehyde concentrations to be unaware of their increasingly hazardous exposure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Eye contact:</I> Concentrations of formaldehyde between 0.05 ppm and 0.5 ppm produce a sensation of irritation in the eyes with burning, itching, redness, and tearing. Increased rate of blinking and eye closure generally protects the eye from damage at these low levels, but these protective mechanisms may interfere with some workers' work abilities. Tolerance can occur in workers continuously exposed to concentrations of formaldehyde in this range. Accidental splash injuries of human eyes to aqueous solutions of formaldehyde (formalin) have resulted in a wide range of ocular injuries including corneal opacities and blindness. The severity of the reactions have been directly dependent on the concentration of formaldehyde in solution and the amount of time lapsed before emergency and medical intervention.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Skin contact:</I> Exposure to formaldehyde solutions can cause irritation of the skin and allergic contact dermatitis. These skin diseases and disorders can occur at levels well below those encountered by many formaldehyde workers. Symptoms include erythema, edema, and vesiculation or hives. Exposure to liquid formalin or formaldehyde vapor can provoke skin reactions in sensitized individuals even when airborne concentrations of formaldehyde are well below 1 ppm.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Ingestion:</I> Ingestion of as little as 30 ml of a 37 percent solution of formaldehyde (formalin) can result in death. Gastrointestinal toxicity after ingestion is most severe in the stomach and results in symptoms which can include nausea, vomiting, and servere abdominal pain. Diverse damage to other organ systems including the liver, kidney, spleen, pancreas, brain, and central nervous systems can occur from the acute response to ingestion of formaldehyde.
</P>
<HD3>B. Chronic Effects of Exposure
</HD3>
<P>Long term exposure to formaldehyde has been shown to be associated with an increased risk of cancer of the nose and accessory sinuses, nasopharyngeal and oropharyngeal cancer, and lung cancer in humans. Animal experiments provide conclusive evidence of a causal relationship between nasal cancer in rats and formaldehyde exposure. Concordant evidence of carcinogenicity includes DNA binding, genotoxicity in short-term tests, and cytotoxic changes in the cells of the target organ suggesting both preneoplastic changes and a dose-rate effect. Formaldehyde is a complete carcinogen and appears to exert an effect on at least two stages of the carcinogenic process.
</P>
<HD2>III. Surveillance considerations
</HD2>
<HD3>A. History
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Medical and occupational history:</I> Along with its acute irritative effects, formaldehyde can cause allergic sensitization and cancer. One of the goals of the work history should be to elicit information on any prior or additional exposure to formaldehyde in either the occupational or the non-occupational setting.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Respiratory history:</I> As noted above, formaldehyde has recognized properties as an airway irritant and has been reported by some authors as a cause of occupational asthma. In addition, formaldehyde has been associated with cancer of the entire respiratory system of humans. For these reasons, it is appropriate to include a comprehensive review of the respiratory system in the medical history. Components of this history might include questions regarding dyspnea on exertion, shortness of breath, chronic airway complaints, hyperreactive airway disease, rhinitis, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, asthma, emphysema, respiratory allergic reaction, or other preexisting pulmonary disease.
</P>
<P>In addition, generalized airway hypersensitivity can result from exposures to a single sensitizing agent. The examiner should, therefore, elicit any prior history of exposure to pulmonary irritants, and any short- or long-term effects of that exposure.
</P>
<P>Smoking is known to decrease mucociliary clearance of materials deposited during respiration in the nose and upper airways. This may increase a worker's exposure to inhaled materials such as formaldehyde vapor. In addition, smoking is a potential confounding factor in the investigation of any chronic respiratory disease, including cancer. For these reasons, a complete smoking history should be obtained.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Skin Disorders:</I> Because of the dermal irritant and sensitizing effects of formaldehyde, a history of skin disorders should be obtained. Such a history might include the existence of skin irritation, previously documented skin sensitivity, and other dermatologic disorders. Previous exposure to formaldehyde and other dermal sensitizers should be recorded.
</P>
<P>4. <I>History of atopic or allergic diseases:</I> Since formaldehyde can cause allergic sensitization of the skin and airways, it might be useful to identify individuals with prior allergen sensitization. A history of atopic disease and allergies to formaldehyde or any other substances should also be obtained. It is not definitely known at this time whether atopic diseases and allergies to formaldehyde or any other substances should also be obtained. Also it is not definitely known at this time whether atopic individuals have a greater propensity to develop formaldehyde sensitivity than the general population, but identification of these individuals may be useful for ongoing surveillance.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Use of disease questionnaires:</I> Comparison of the results from previous years with present results provides the best method for detecting a general deterioration in health when toxic signs and symptoms are measured subjectively. In this way recall bias does not affect the results of the analysis. Consequently, OSHA has determined that the findings of the medical and work histories should be kept in a standardized form for comparison of the year-to-year results.
</P>
<HD3>B. Physical Examination
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Mucosa of eyes and airways:</I> Because of the irritant effects of formaldehyde, the examining physician should be alert to evidence of this irritation. A speculum examination of the nasal mucosa may be helpful in assessing possible irritation and cytotoxic changes, as may be indirect inspection of the posterior pharynx by mirror.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Pulmonary system:</I> A conventional respiratory examination, including inspection of the thorax and auscultation and percussion of the lung fields should be performed as part of the periodic medical examination. Although routine pulmonary function testing is only required by the standard once every year for persons who are exposed over the TWA concentration limit, these tests have an obvious value in investigating possible respiratory dysfunction and should be used wherever deemed appropriate by the physician. In cases of alleged formaldehyde-induced airway disease, other possible causes of pulmonary disfunction (including exposures to other substances) should be ruled out. A chest radiograph may be useful in these circumstances. In cases of suspected airway hypersensitivity or allergy, it may be appropriate to use bronchial challenge testing with formaldehyde or methacholine to determine the nature of the disorder. Such testing should be performed by or under the supervision of a physician experienced in the procedures involved.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Skin:</I> The physician should be alert to evidence of dermal irritation of sensitization, including reddening and inflammation, urticaria, blistering, scaling, formation of skin fissures, or other symptoms. Since the integrity of the skin barrier is compromised by other dermal diseases, the presence of such disease should be noted. Skin sensitivity testing carries with it some risk of inducing sensitivity, and therefore, skin testing for formaldehyde sensitivity should not be used as a routine screening test. Sensitivity testing may be indicated in the investigation of a suspected existing sensitivity. Guidelines for such testing have been prepared by the North American Contact Dermatitis Group.
</P>
<HD3>C. Additional Examinations or Tests
</HD3>
<P>The physician may deem it necessary to perform other medical examinations or tests as indicated. The standard provides a mechanism whereby these additional investigations are covered under the standard for occupational exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<HD3>D. Emergencies
</HD3>
<P>The examination of workers exposed in an emergency should be directed at the organ systems most likely to be affected. Much of the content of the examination will be similar to the periodic examination unless the patient has received a severe acute exposure requiring immediate attention to prevent serious consequences. If a severe overexposure requiring medical intervention or hospitalization has occurred, the physician must be alert to the possibility of delayed symptoms. Followup nonroutine examinations may be necessary to assure the patient's well-being.
</P>
<HD3>E. Employer Obligations
</HD3>
<P>The employer is required to provide the physician with the following information: A copy of this standard and appendices A, C, D, and E; a description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to his or her exposure concentration; an estimate of the employee's exposure including duration (e.g., 15 hr/wk, three 8-hour shifts, full-time); a description of any personal protective equipment, including respirators, used by the employee; and the results of any previous medical determinations for the affected employee related to formaldehyde exposure to the extent that this information is within the employer's control.
</P>
<HD3>F. Physician's Obligations
</HD3>
<P>The standard requires the employer to obtain a written statement from the physician. This statement must contain the physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any medical condition which would place him or her at increased risk of impaired health from exposure to formaldehyde or use of respirators, as appropriate. The physician must also state his opinion regarding any restrictions that should be placed on the employee's exposure to formaldehyde or upon the use of protective clothing or equipment such as respirators. If the employee wears a respirator as a result of his or her exposure to formaldehyde, the physician's opinion must also contain a statement regarding the suitability of the employee to wear the type of respirator assigned. Finally, the physician must inform the employer that the employee has been told the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions which require further explanation or treatment. This written opinion is not to contain any information on specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to formaldehyde.
</P>
<P>The purpose in requiring the examining physician to supply the employer with a written opinion is to provide the employer with a medical basis to assist the employer in placing employees initially, in assuring that their health is not being inpaired by formaldehyde, and to assess the employee's ability to use any required protective equipment.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1048—Nonmandatory Medical Disease Questionnaire</HD1></EXTRACT>
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<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 22310, May 27, 1992; 57 FR 27161, June 18, 1992; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1292, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 20099, Apr. 23, 1998; 70 FR 1143, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50190, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75586, Dec. 12, 2008; 77 FR 17784, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21518, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1050" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1050   Methylenedianiline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all occupational exposures to MDA, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 101-77-9, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(8) and (e)(5) of this section, this section does not apply to the processing, use, and handling of products containing MDA where initial monitoring indicates that the product is not capable of releasing MDA in excess of the action level under the expected conditions of processing, use, and handling which will cause the greatest possible release; and where no “dermal exposure to MDA” can occur.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, this section does not apply to the processing, use, and handling of products containing MDA where objective data are reasonably relied upon which demonstrate the product is not capable of releasing MDA under the expected conditions of processing, use, and handling which will cause the greatest possible release; and where no “dermal exposure to MDA” can occur.
</P>
<P>(4) This section does not apply to the storage, transportation, distribution or sale of MDA in intact containers sealed in such a manner as to contain the MDA dusts, vapors, or liquids, except for the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1200 and paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) This section does not apply to the construction industry as defined in 29 CFR 1910.12(b). (Exposure to MDA in the construction industry is covered by 29 CFR 1926.60).
</P>
<P>(6) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, this section does not apply to materials in any form which contain less than 0.1% MDA by weight or volume.
</P>
<P>(7) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, this section does not apply to “finished articles containing MDA.”
</P>
<P>(8) Where products containing MDA are exempted under paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(7) of this section, the employer shall maintain records of the initial monitoring results or objective data supporting that exemption and the basis for the employer's reliance on the data, as provided in the recordkeeping provision of paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne MDA of 5 ppb as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter a regulated area, or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees, for the purpose of exercising the right to observe monitoring and measuring procedures under paragraph (o) of this section, or any other person authorized by the Act or regulations issued under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Container</I> means any barrel, bottle, can, cylinder, drum, reaction vessel, storage tank, commercial packaging or the like, but does not include piping systems.
</P>
<P><I>Dermal exposure to MDA</I> occurs where employees are engaged in the handling, application or use of mixtures or materials containing MDA, with any of the following non-airborne forms of MDA:
</P>
<P>(i) Liquid, powdered, granular, or flaked mixtures containing MDA in concentrations greater than 0.1% by weight or volume; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Materials other than “finished articles” containing MDA in concentrations greater than 0.1% by weight or volume.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment which results in an unexpected and potentially hazardous release of MDA.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means exposure to MDA which would occur if the employee were not using respirators or protective work clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Finished article containing MDA</I> is defined as a manufactured item:
</P>
<P>(i) Which is formed to a specific shape or design during manufacture;
</P>
<P>(ii) Which has end use function(s) dependent in whole or part upon its shape or design during end use; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Where applicable, is an item which is fully cured by virtue of having been subjected to the conditions (temperature, time) necessary to complete the desired chemical reaction.
</P>
<P><I>4,4′ Methylenedianiline or MDA</I> means the chemical, 4,4′-diaminodiphenylmethane, Chemical Abstract Service Registry number 101-77-9, in the form of a vapor, liquid, or solid. The definition also includes the salts of MDA.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated areas</I> means areas where airborne concentrations of MDA exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the permissible exposure limits, or where dermal exposure to MDA can occur.
</P>
<P><I>STEL</I> means short term exposure limit as determined by any 15 minute sample period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits (PEL).</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of MDA in excess of ten parts per billion (10 ppb) as an 8-hour time-weighted average or a STEL of 100 ppb.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emergency situations</I>—(1) <I>Written plan.</I> (i) A written plan for emergency situations shall be developed for each workplace where there is a possibility of an emergency. Appropriate portions of the plan shall be implemented in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan shall specifically provide that employees engaged in correcting emergency conditions shall be equipped with the appropriate personal protective equipment and clothing as required in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan shall specifically include provisions for alerting and evacuating affected employees as well as the elements prescribed in 29 CFR 1910.38 and 29 CFR 1910.39, “Emergency action plans” and “Fire prevention plans,” respectively. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alerting employees.</I> Where there is the possibility of employee exposure to MDA due to an emergency, means shall be developed to alert promptly those employees who have the potential to be directly exposed. Affected employees not engaged in correcting emergency conditions shall be evacuated immediately in the event that an emergency occurs. Means shall also be developed and implemented for alerting other employees who may be exposed as a result of the emergency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of each employee's exposure to airborne MDA over an eight (8) hour period. Determination of employee exposure to the STEL shall be made from breathing zone air samples collected over a 15 minute sampling period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Representative employee exposure shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing full shift exposure for each shift for each job classification in each work area where exposure to MDA may occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer can document that exposure levels are equivalent for similar operations in different work shifts, the employer shall only be required to determine representative employee exposure for that operation during one shift.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this standard shall perform initial monitoring to determine accurately the airborne concentrations of MDA to which employees may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring and monitoring frequency.</I> (i) If the monitoring required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure at or above the action level, but at or below the PELs, the employer shall repeat such representative monitoring for each such employee at least every six (6) months.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the monitoring required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure above the PELs, the employer shall repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every three (3) months.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer may alter the monitoring schedule from every three months to every six months for any employee for whom two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart indicate that the employee exposure has decreased to below the TWA but above the action level.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure to be below the action level, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for that employee, except as otherwise required by paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the periodic monitoring required by paragraph (e)(3) of this section reveals that employee exposures, as indicated by at least two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart, are below the action level the employer may discontinue the monitoring for that employee, except as otherwise required by paragraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> The employer shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section when there has been a change in production process, chemicals present, control equipment, personnel, or work practices which may result in new or additional exposures to MDA, or when the employer has any reason to suspect a change which may result in new or additional exposures.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of monitoring.</I> Monitoring shall be accurate, to a confidence level of 95 percent, to within plus or minus 25 percent for airborne concentrations of MDA.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> (i) The employer shall, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this standard, notify each employee of these results, in writing, either individually or by posting of results in an appropriate location that is accessible to affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written notification required by paragraph (e)(7)(i) of this section shall contain the corrective action being taken by the employer to reduce the employee exposure to or below the PELs, wherever the PELs are exceeded.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Visual monitoring.</I> The employer shall make routine inspections of employee hands, face and forearms potentially exposed to MDA. Other potential dermal exposures reported by the employee must be referred to the appropriate medical personnel for observation. If the employer determines that the employee has been exposed to MDA the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the source of exposure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement protective measures to correct the hazard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain records of the corrective actions in accordance with paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment</I>—(i) <I>Airborne exposures.</I> The employer shall establish regulated areas where airborne concentrations of MDA exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dermal exposures.</I> Where employees are subject to dermal exposure to MDA the employer shall establish those work areas as regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> Regulated areas shall be demarcated from the rest of the workplace in a manner that minimizes the number of persons potentially exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Personal protective equipment and clothing.</I> Each person entering a regulated area shall be supplied with, and required to use, the appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering controls and work practices.</I> (i) The employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices to reduce and maintain employee exposure to MDA at or below the PELs except to the extent that the employer can establish that these controls are not feasible or where the provisions of paragraph (g)(1)(ii) or (h)(1) (i) through (iv) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever the feasible engineering controls and work practices which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protective devices which comply with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs by means of engineering and work practice controls, as required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and by use of respiratory protection where permitted under this section. The program shall include a schedule for periodic maintenance (e.g., leak detection) and shall include the written plan for emergency situations as specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon request this written program shall be furnished for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, affected employees, and designated employee representatives. The employer shall review and, as necessary, update such plans at least once every 12 months to make certain they reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Employee rotation.</I> Employee rotation shall not be permitted as a means of reducing exposure.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations for which the employer establishes that engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134 (b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators.
</P>
<P>(C) For escape, provide employees with one of the following respirator options: Any self-contained breathing apparatus with a full facepiece or hood operated in the positive-pressure or continuous-flow mode; or a full facepiece air-purifying respirator.
</P>
<P>(D) Provide a combination HEPA filter and organic vapor canister or cartridge with powered or non-powered air-purifying respirators when MDA is in liquid form or used as part of a process requiring heat. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any employee who cannot use a negative-pressure respirator must be given the option of using a positive-pressure respirator, or a supplied-air respirator operated in the continuous-flow or pressure-demand mode.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where employees are subject to dermal exposure to MDA, where liquids containing MDA can be splashed into the eyes, or where airborne concentrations of MDA are in excess of the PEL, the employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, and ensure that the employee uses, appropriate protective work clothing and equipment which prevent contact with MDA such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Aprons, coveralls or other full-body work clothing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gloves, head coverings, and foot coverings; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields, chemical goggles; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Other appropriate protective equipment which comply with § 1910.133.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that, at the end of their work shift, employees remove MDA-contaminated protective work clothing and equipment that is not routinely removed throughout the day in change rooms provided in accordance with the provisions established for change rooms.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that, during their work shift, employees remove all other MDA-contaminated protective work clothing or equipment before leaving a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that no employee takes MDA-contaminated work clothing or equipment out of the change room, except those employees authorized to do so for the purpose of laundering, maintenance, or disposal.
</P>
<P>(iv) MDA-contaminated work clothing or equipment shall be placed and stored in closed containers which prevent dispersion of the MDA outside the container.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers of MDA-contaminated protective work clothing or equipment which are to be taken out of change rooms or the workplace for cleaning, maintenance, or disposal, shall bear labels warning of the hazards of MDA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the employee with clean protective clothing and equipment. The employer shall ensure that protective work clothing or equipment required by this paragraph is cleaned, laundered, repaired, or replaced at intervals appropriate to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of MDA from protective work clothing or equipment by blowing, shaking, or any methods which allow MDA to re-enter the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that laundering of MDA-contaminated clothing shall be done so as to prevent the release of MDA in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any employer who gives MDA-contaminated clothing to another person for laundering shall inform such person of the requirement to prevent the release of MDA.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment contaminated with MDA of the potentially harmful effects of exposure.
</P>
<P>(vi) MDA-contaminated clothing shall be transported in properly labeled, sealed, impermeable bags or containers.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices</I>—(1) <I>Change rooms.</I> (i) The employer shall provide clean change rooms for employees, who must wear protective clothing, or who must use protective equipment because of their exposure to MDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Change rooms must be equipped with separate storage for protective clothing and equipment and for street clothes which prevents MDA contamination of street clothes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that employees, who work in areas where there is the potential for exposure resulting from airborne MDA (e.g., particulates or vapors) above the action level, shower at the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(A) Shower facilities required by this paragraph shall comply with § 1910.141(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall ensure that employees who are required to shower pursuant to the provisions contained herein do not leave the workplace wearing any protective clothing or equipment worn during the work shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where dermal exposure to MDA occurs, the employer shall ensure that materials spilled or deposited on the skin are removed as soon as possible by methods which do not facilitate the dermal absorption of MDA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lunch facilities</I>—(i) <I>Availability and construction.</I> (A) Whenever food or beverages are consumed at the worksite and employees are exposed to MDA at or above the PEL or are subject to dermal exposure to MDA the employer shall provide readily accessible lunch areas.
</P>
<P>(B) Lunch areas located within the workplace and in areas where there is the potential for airborne exposure to MDA at or above the PEL shall have a positive pressure, temperature controlled, filtered air supply.
</P>
<P>(C) Lunch areas may not be located in areas within the workplace where the potential for dermal exposure to MDA exists.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees who have been subjected to dermal exposure to MDA or who have been exposed to MDA above the PEL wash their hands and faces with soap and water prior to eating, drinking, smoking, or applying cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that employees exposed to MDA do not enter lunch facilities with MDA-contaminated protective work clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for MDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of MDA at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; liver effects; and skin sensitization.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include MDA in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of MDA and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (k)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs and labels</I>—(i) <I>Signs.</I> (A) The employer shall post and maintain legible signs demarcating regulated areas and entrances or access ways to regulated areas that bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MDA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE LIVER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING MAY BE REQUIRED IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (k)(2)(i)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MDA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LIVER TOXIN 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING MAY BE REQUIRED TO BE WORN IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Labels.</I> Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information workplace labels in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraph (k)(1) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(A) For pure MDA:
</P>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS MDA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LIVER TOXIN
</FP-1>
<P>(B) For mixtures containing MDA:
</P>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS MDA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS MATERIALS WHICH MAY CAUSE CANCER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LIVER TOXIN</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Safety data sheets (SDS).</I> In meeting the obligation to provide safety data sheets, employers shall make appropriate use of the information found in Appendices A and B to § 1910.1050.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall provide employees with information and training on MDA, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1200(h), at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the information required under 29 CFR 1910.1200, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide an explanation of the contents of this section, including appendices A and B, and indicate to employees where a copy of the standard is available;
</P>
<P>(B) Describe the medical surveillance program required under paragraph (m) of this section, and explain the information contained in appendix C; and
</P>
<P>(C) Describe the medical removal provision required under paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees, without cost, all written materials relating to the employee training program, including a copy of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, upon request, all information and training materials relating to the employee information and training program.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) All surfaces shall be maintained as free as practicable of visible accumulations of MDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall institute a program for detecting MDA leaks, spills, and discharges, including regular visual inspections of operations involving liquid or solid MDA.
</P>
<P>(3) All leaks shall be repaired and liquid or dust spills cleaned up promptly.
</P>
<P>(4) Surfaces contaminated with MDA may not be cleaned by the use of compressed air.
</P>
<P>(5) Shoveling, dry sweeping, and other methods of dry clean-up of MDA may be used where HEPA-filtered vacuuming and/or wet cleaning are not feasible or practical.
</P>
<P>(6) Waste, scrap, debris, bags, containers, equipment, and clothing contaminated with MDA shall be collected and disposed of in a manner to prevent the re-entry of MDA into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make available a medical surveillance program for employees exposed to MDA:
</P>
<P>(A) Employees exposed at or above the action level for 30 or more days per year;
</P>
<P>(B) Employees who are subject to dermal exposure to MDA for 15 or more days per year;
</P>
<P>(C) Employees who have been exposed in an emergency situation;
</P>
<P>(D) Employees whom the employer, based on results from compliance with paragraph (e)(8) of this section, has reason to believe are being dermally exposed; and
</P>
<P>(E) Employees who show signs or symptoms of MDA exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by, or under the supervision of, a licensed physician, at a reasonable time and place, and provided without cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examinations.</I> (i) Within 150 days of the effective date of this standard, or before the time of initial assignment, the employer shall provide each employee covered by paragraph (m)(1)(i) of this section with a medical examination including the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed history which includes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Past work exposure to MDA or any other toxic substances;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A history of drugs, alcohol, tobacco, and medication routinely taken (duration and quantity); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A history of dermatitis, chemical skin sensitization, or previous hepatic disease.
</P>
<P>(B) A physical examination which includes all routine physical examination parameters, skin examination, and signs of liver disease.
</P>
<P>(C) Laboratory tests including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Liver function tests and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Urinalysis.
</P>
<P>(D) Additional tests as necessary in the opinion of the physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) No initial medical examination is required if adequate records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with the requirements of this section within the previous six months prior to the effective date of this standard or prior to the date of initial assignment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) The employer shall provide each employee covered by this section with a medical examination at least annually following the initial examination. These periodic examinations shall include at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A brief history regarding any new exposure to potential liver toxins, changes in drug, tobacco, and alcohol intake, and the appearance of physical signs relating to the liver, and the skin;
</P>
<P>(B) The appropriate tests and examinations including liver function tests and skin examinations; and
</P>
<P>(C) Appropriate additional tests or examinations as deemed necessary by the physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) If in the physicians' opinion the results of liver function tests indicate an abnormality, the employee shall be removed from further MDA exposure in accordance with paragraph (m)(9) of this section. Repeat liver function tests shall be conducted on advice of the physician.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Emergency examinations.</I> If the employer determines that the employee has been exposed to a potentially hazardous amount of MDA in an emergency situation as addressed in paragraph (d) of this section, the employer shall provide medical examinations in accordance with paragraphs (m)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section. If the results of liver function testing indicate an abnormality, the employee shall be removed in accordance with paragraph (m)(9) of this section. Repeat liver function tests shall be conducted on the advice of the physician. If the results of the tests are normal, tests must be repeated two to three weeks from the initial testing. If the results of the second set of tests are normal and, on the advice of the physician, no additional testing is required.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional examinations.</I> Where the employee develops signs and symptoms associated with exposure to MDA, the employer shall provide the employee with an additional medical examination including a liver function test. Repeat liver function tests shall be conducted on the advice of the physician. If the results of the tests are normal, tests must be repeated two to three weeks from the initial testing. If the results of the second set of tests are normal and, on the advice of the physician, no additional testing is required.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Multiple physician review mechanism.</I> (i) If the employer selects the initial physician who conducts any medical examination or consultation provided to an employee under this section, and the employee has signs or symptoms of occupational exposure to MDA (which could include an abnormal liver function test), and the employee disagrees with the opinion of the examining physician, and this opinion could affect the employee's job status, the employee may designate an appropriate, mutually acceptable second physician:
</P>
<P>(A) To review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the initial physician; and
</P>
<P>(B) To conduct such examinations, consultations, and laboratory tests as the second physician deems necessary to facilitate this review.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall promptly notify an employee of the right to seek a second medical opinion after each occasion that an initial physician conducts a medical examination or consultation pursuant to this section. The employer may condition its participation in, and payment for, the multiple physician review mechanism upon the employee doing the following within fifteen (15) days after receipt of the foregoing notification, or receipt of the initial physician's written opinion, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee informing the employer that he or she intends to seek a second medical opinion, and
</P>
<P>(B) The employee initiating steps to make an appointment with a second physician.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the second physician differ from those of the initial physician, then the employer and the employee shall assure that efforts are made for the two physicians to resolve any disagreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the two physicians have been unable to resolve quickly their disagreement, then the employer and the employee through their respective physicians shall designate a third physician;
</P>
<P>(A) To review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the prior physicians; and
</P>
<P>(B) To conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests, and discussions with the prior physicians as the third physician deems necessary to resolve the disagreement of the prior physicians.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall act consistent with the findings, determinations, and recommendations of the third physician, unless the employer and the employee reach an agreement which is otherwise consistent with the recommendations of at least one of the three physicians.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Information provided to the examining and consulting physicians.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of this regulation and its appendices;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's potential exposure to MDA;
</P>
<P>(C) The employee's current actual or representative MDA exposure level;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(E) Information from previous employment-related medical examinations of the affected employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide the foregoing information to a second physician under this section upon request either by the second physician, or by the employee.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) For each examination under this section, the employer shall obtain, and provide the employee with a copy of, the examining physician's written opinion within 15 days of its receipt. The written opinion shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The occupationally-pertinent results of the medical examination and tests;
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion concerning whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of health from exposure to MDA;
</P>
<P>(C) The physician's recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to MDA or upon the employee's use of protective clothing or equipment and respirators; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions resulting from MDA exposure which require further explanation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written opinion obtained by the employer shall not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposures.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Medical removal</I>—(i) <I>Temporary medical removal of an employee</I>—(A) <I>Temporary removal resulting from occupational exposure.</I> The employee shall be removed from work environments in which exposure to MDA is at or above the action level or where dermal exposure to MDA may occur, following an initial examination (paragraph (m)(2) of this section), periodic examinations (paragraph (m)(3) of this section), an emergency situation paragraph (m)(4) of this section, or an additional examination (paragraph (m)(5) of this section) in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When the employee exhibits signs and/or symptoms indicative of acute exposure to MDA; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When the examining physician determines that an employee's abnormal liver function tests are not associated with MDA exposure but that the abnormalities may be exacerbated as a result of occupational exposure to MDA.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Temporary removal due to a final medical determination.</I> (1) The employer shall remove an employee from work environments in which exposure to MDA is at or above the action level or where dermal exposure to MDA may occur, on each occasion that there is a final medical determination or opinion that the employee has a detected medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to MDA.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For the purposes of this section, the phrase “final medical determination” shall mean the outcome of the physician review mechanism used pursuant to the medical surveillance provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where a final medical determination results in any recommended special protective measures for an employee, or limitations on an employee's exposure to MDA, the employer shall implement and act consistent with the recommendation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Return of the employee to former job status.</I> (A) The employer shall return an employee to his or her former job status:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When the employee no longer shows signs or symptoms of exposure to MDA, or upon the advice of the physician.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When a subsequent final medical determination results in a medical finding, determination, or opinion that the employee no longer has a detected medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to MDA.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer return an employee to his or her former job status is not intended to expand upon or restrict any rights an employee has or would have had, absent temporary medical removal, to a specific job classification or position under the terms of a collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Removal of other employee special protective measure or limitations.</I> The employer shall remove any limitations placed on an employee, or end any special protective measures provided to an employee, pursuant to a final medical determination, when a subsequent final medical determination indicates that the limitations or special protective measures are no longer necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Employer options pending a final medical determination.</I> Where the physician review mechanism used pursuant to the medical surveillance provisions of this section, has not yet resulted in a final medical determination with respect to an employee, the employer shall act as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Removal.</I> The employer may remove the employee from exposure to MDA, provide special protective measures to the employee, or place limitations upon the employee, consistent with the medical findings, determinations, or recommendations of any of the physicians who have reviewed the employee's health status.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Return.</I> The employer may return the employee to his or her former job status, and end any special protective measures provided to the employee, consistent with the medical findings, determinations, or recommendations of any of the physicians who have reviewed the employee's health status, with two exceptions.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the initial removal, special protection, or limitation of the employee resulted from a final medical determination which differed from the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the initial physician; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the employee has been on removal status for the preceding six months as a result of exposure to MDA, then the employer shall await a final medical determination.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Medical removal protection benefits</I>—(A) <I>Provisions of medical removal protection benefits.</I> The employer shall provide to an employee up to six (6) months of medical removal protection benefits on each occasion that an employee is removed from exposure to MDA or otherwise limited pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Definition of medical removal protection benefits.</I> For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer provide medical removal protection benefits means that the employer shall maintain the earnings, seniority, and other employment rights and benefits of an employee as though the employee had not been removed from normal exposure to MDA or otherwise limited.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Follow-up medical surveillance during the period of employee removal or limitations.</I> During the period of time that an employee is removed from normal exposure to MDA or otherwise limited, the employer may condition the provision of medical removal protection benefits upon the employee's participation in follow-up medical surveillance made available pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Workers' compensation claims.</I> If a removed employee files a claim for workers' compensation payments for a MDA-related disability, then the employer shall continue to provide medical removal protection benefits pending disposition of the claim. To the extent that an award is made to the employee for earnings lost during the period of removal, the employer's medical removal protection obligation shall be reduced by such amount. The employer shall receive no credit for workers' compensation payments received by the employee for treatment-related expenses.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Other credits.</I> The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal either from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program, or receives income from non-MDA-related employment with any employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Employees who do not recover within the 6 months of removal.</I> The employer shall take the following measures with respect to any employee removed from exposure to MDA:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The employer shall make available to the employee a medical examination pursuant to this section to obtain a final medical determination with respect to the employee;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employer shall assure that the final medical determination obtained indicates whether or not the employee may be returned to his or her former job status, and, if not, what steps should be taken to protect the employee's health;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where the final medical determination has not yet been obtained, or, once obtained indicates that the employee may not yet be returned to his or her former job status, the employer shall continue to provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee until either the employee is returned to former job status, or a final medical determination is made that the employee is incapable of ever safely returning to his or her former job status; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Where the employer acts pursuant to a final medical determination which permits the return of the employee to his or her former job status, despite what would otherwise be an abnormal liver function test, later questions concerning removing the employee again shall be decided by a final medical determination. The employer need not automatically remove such an employee pursuant to the MDA removal criteria provided by this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Voluntary removal or restriction of an employee.</I> Where an employer, although not required by this section to do so, removes an employee from exposure to MDA or otherwise places limitations on an employee due to the effects of MDA exposure on the employee's medical condition, the employer shall provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee equal to that required by paragraph (m)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Monitoring data for exempted employers.</I> (i) Where as a result of the initial monitoring the processing, use, or handling of products made from or containing MDA are exempted from other requirements of this section under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of monitoring relied on in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The product qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the monitoring data (e.g., was monitoring performed by the employer or a private contractor);
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of MDA;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data support the exemption (e.g., are the monitoring data representative of the conditions at the affected facility); and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data for exempted employers.</I> (i) Where the processing, use, or handling of products made from or containing MDA are exempted from other requirements of this section under paragraph (a) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of objective data relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The product qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of MDA;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data support the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all measurements required by paragraph (e) of this section, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The dates, number, duration, and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the procedure used to determine representative employee exposures;
</P>
<P>(B) Identification of the sampling and analytical methods used;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(D) The name, job classification and exposure levels of the employee monitored and all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least 30 years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance required by paragraph (m) of this section, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and description of the duties of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The employer's copy of the physician's written opinion on the initial, periodic, and any special examinations, including results of medical examination and all tests, opinions, and recommendations;
</P>
<P>(C) Results of any airborne exposure monitoring done for that employee and the representative exposure levels supplied to the physician; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to MDA;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall keep, or assure that the examining physician keeps, the following medical records:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of this standard and its appendices, except that the employer may keep one copy of the standard and its appendices for all employees provided the employer references the standard and its appendices in the medical surveillance record of each employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by any paragraphs in the regulatory text;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the laboratory procedures and a copy of any standards or guidelines used to interpret the test results or references to the information;
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the employee's medical and work history related to exposure to MDA; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall maintain this record for at least the duration of employment plus 30 years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medical removals.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee removed from current exposure to MDA pursuant to paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of each occasion that the employee was removed from current exposure to MDA as well as the corresponding date on which the employee was returned to his or her former job status;
</P>
<P>(C) A brief explanation of how each removal was or is being accomplished; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement with respect to each removal indicating the reason for the removal.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain each medical removal record for at least the duration of an employee's employment plus 30 years.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that records required to be maintained by this section shall be made available, upon request, to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee exposure monitoring records required by this section shall be provided upon request for examination and copying to employees, employee representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020 (a)-(e) and (g)-(i).
</P>
<P>(iii) Employee medical records required by this section shall be provided upon request for examination and copying, to the subject employee, to anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee, and to the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer shall comply with the requirements involving transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees, or their designated representatives, an opportunity to observe the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to MDA conducted pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to MDA requires entry into areas where the use of protective clothing and equipment or respirators is required, the employer shall provide the observer with personal protective clothing and equipment or respirators required to be worn by employees working in the area, assure the use of such clothing and equipment or respirators, and require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(p) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in Appendices A, B, C, and D of this section is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed by this standard nor detract from any existing obligation. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1050—Substance Data Sheet, for 4,4′-Methylenedianiline
</HD1>
<HD3>I. Substance Identification
</HD3>
<P>A. Substance: Methylenedianiline (MDA)
</P>
<P>B. Permissible Exposure:
</P>
<P>1. Airborne: Ten parts per billion parts of air (10 ppb), time-weighted average (TWA) for an 8-hour workday and an action level of five parts per billion parts of air (5 ppb).
</P>
<P>2. Dermal: Eye contact and skin contact with MDA are not permitted.
</P>
<P>C. Appearance and odor: White to tan solid; amine odor
</P>
<HD3>II. Health Hazard Data
</HD3>
<P>A. <I>Ways in which MDA affects your health.</I> MDA can affect your health if you inhale it, or if it comes in contact with your skin or eyes. MDA is also harmful if you happen to swallow it. Do not get MDA in eyes, on skin, or on clothing.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Effects of overexposure.</I> 1. Short-term (acute) overexposure: Overexposure to MDA may produce fever, chills, loss of appetite, vomiting, jaundice. Contact may irritate skin, eyes and mucous membranes. Sensitization may occur.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Long-term (chronic) exposure.</I> Repeated or prolonged exposure to MDA, even at relatively low concentrations, may cause cancer. In addition, damage to the liver, kidneys, blood, and spleen may occur with long term exposure.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reporting signs and symptoms.</I> You should inform your employer if you develop any signs or symptoms which you suspect are caused by exposure to MDA including yellow staining of the skin.
</P>
<HD3>III. Protective Clothing and Equipment
</HD3>
<P>A. Respirators. Respirators are required for those operations in which engineering controls or work-practice controls are not adequate or feasible to reduce exposure to the permissible limit. If respirators are worn, they must have a label issued by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health under the provisions of 42 CFR part 84 stating that the respirators have been approved for this purpose, and cartridges and canisters must be replaced in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.134. If you experience difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator, you can request a positive-pressure respirator from your employer. You must be thoroughly trained to use the assigned respirator, and the training must be provided by your employer.
</P>
<P>MDA does not have a detectable odor except at levels well above the permissible exposure limits. Do not depend on odor to warn you when a respirator canister is exhausted. If you can smell MDA while wearing a respirator, proceed immediately to fresh air. If you experience difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator, tell your employer.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Protective Clothing.</I> You may be required to wear coveralls, aprons, gloves, face shields, or other appropriate protective clothing to prevent skin contact with MDA. Where protective clothing is required, your employer is required to provide clean garments to you, as necessary, to assure that the clothing protects you adequately. Replace or repair impervious clothing that has developed leaks.
</P>
<P>MDA should never be allowed to remain on the skin. Clothing and shoes which are not impervious to MDA should not be allowed to become contaminated with MDA, and if they do, the clothing and shoes should be promptly removed and decontaminated. The clothing should be laundered to remove MDA or discarded. Once MDA penetrates shoes or other leather articles, they should not be worn again.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Eye protection.</I> You must wear splashproof safety goggles in areas where liquid MDA may contact your eyes. Contact lenses should not be worn in areas where eye contact with MDA can occur. In addition, you must wear a face shield if your face could be splashed with MDA liquid.
</P>
<HD3>IV. Emergency and First Aid Procedures
</HD3>
<P>A. <I>Eye and face exposure.</I> If MDA is splashed into the eyes, wash the eyes for at least 15 minutes. See a doctor as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Skin exposure.</I> If MDA is spilled on your clothing or skin, remove the contaminated clothing and wash the exposed skin with large amounts of soap and water immediately. Wash contaminated clothing before you wear it again.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Breathing.</I> If you or any other person breathes in large amounts of MDA, get the exposed person to fresh air at once. Apply artificial respiration if breathing has stopped. Call for medical assistance or a doctor as soon as possible. Never enter any vessel or confined space where the MDA concentration might be high without proper safety equipment and at least one other person present who will stay outside. A life line should be used.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Swallowing.</I> If MDA has been swallowed and the patient is conscious, do not induce vomiting. Call for medical assistance or a doctor immediately.
</P>
<HD3>V. Medical Requirements
</HD3>
<P>If you are exposed to MDA at a concentration at or above the action level for more than 30 days per year, or exposed to liquid mixtures more than 15 days per year, your employer is required to provide a medical examination, including a medical history and laboratory tests, within 60 days of the effective date of this standard and annually thereafter. These tests shall be provided without cost to you. In addition, if you are accidentally exposed to MDA (either by ingestion, inhalation, or skin/eye contact) under conditions known or suspected to constitute toxic exposure to MDA, your employer is required to make special examinations and tests available to you.
</P>
<HD3>VI. Observation of Monitoring
</HD3>
<P>Your employer is required to perform measurements that are representative of your exposure to MDA and you or your designated representative are entitled to observe the monitoring procedure. You are entitled to observe the steps taken in the measurement procedure and to record the results obtained. When the monitoring procedure is taking place in an area where respirators or personal protective clothing and equipment are required to be worn, you and your representative must also be provided with, and must wear, the protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<HD3>VII. Access to Records
</HD3>
<P>You or your representative are entitled to see the records of measurements of your exposure to MDA upon written request to your employer. Your medical examination records can be furnished to your physician or designated representative upon request by you to your employer.
</P>
<HD3>VIII. Precautions for Safe Use, Handling and Storage
</HD3>
<P>A. <I>Material is combustible.</I> Avoid strong acids and their anhydrides. Avoid strong oxidants. Consult supervisor for disposal requirements.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Emergency clean-up.</I> Wear self-contained breathing apparatus and fully clothe the body in the appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1050—Substance Technical Guidelines, MDA
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Identification
</HD2>
<P>A. Substance identification.
</P>
<P>1. Synonyms: CAS No. 101-77-9. 4,4′-methylenedianiline; 4,4′-methylenebisaniline; methylenedianiline; dianilinomethane.
</P>
<P>2. Formula: C<E T="52">13</E> H<E T="52">14</E> N<E T="52">2</E>
</P>
<HD2>II. Physical Data
</HD2>
<P>1. Appearance and Odor: White to tan solid; amine odor
</P>
<P>2. Molecular Weight: 198.26
</P>
<P>3. Boiling Point: 398-399 degrees C at 760 mm Hg
</P>
<P>4. Melting Point: 88-93 degrees C (190-100 degrees F)
</P>
<P>5. Vapor Pressure: 9 mmHg at 232 degrees C
</P>
<P>6. Evaporation Rate (n-butyl acetate = 1): Negligible
</P>
<P>7. Vapor Density (Air = 1): Not Applicable
</P>
<P>8. Volatile Fraction by Weight: Negligible
</P>
<P>9. Specific Gravity (Water = 1): Slight
</P>
<P>10. Heat of Combustion: −8.40 kcal/g
</P>
<P>11. Solubility in Water: Slightly soluble in cold water, very soluble in alcohol, benzene, ether, and many organic solvents.
</P>
<HD2>III. Fire, Explosion, and Reactivity Hazard Data
</HD2>
<P>1. Flash Point: 190 degrees C (374 degrees F) Setaflash closed cup
</P>
<P>2. Flash Point: 226 degrees C (439 degrees F) Cleveland open cup
</P>
<P>3. Extinguishing Media: Water spray; Dry Chemical; Carbon dioxide.
</P>
<P>4. Special Fire Fighting Procedures: Wear self-contained breathing apparatus and protective clothing to prevent contact with skin and eyes.
</P>
<P>5. Unusual Fire and Explosion Hazards: Fire or excessive heat may cause production of hazardous decomposition products.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Reactivity Data
</HD2>
<P>1. Stability: Stable
</P>
<P>2. Incompatibility: Strong oxidizers
</P>
<P>3. Hazardous Decomposition Products: As with any other organic material, combustion may produce carbon monoxide. Oxides of nitrogen may also be present.
</P>
<P>4. Hazardous Polymerization: Will not occur.
</P>
<HD2>V. Spill and Leak Procedures
</HD2>
<P>1. Sweep material onto paper and place in fiber carton.
</P>
<P>2. Package appropriately for safe feed to an incinerator or dissolve in compatible waste solvents prior to incineration.
</P>
<P>3. Dispose of in an approved incinerator equipped with afterburner and scrubber or contract with licensed chemical waste disposal service.
</P>
<P>4. Discharge treatment or disposal may be subject to federal, state, or local laws.
</P>
<P>5. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment.
</P>
<HD2>VI. Special Storage and Handling Precautions
</HD2>
<P>A. High exposure to MDA can occur when transferring the substance from one container to another. Such operations should be well ventilated and good work practices must be established to avoid spills.
</P>
<P>B. Pure MDA is a solid with a low vapor pressure. Grinding or heating operations increase the potential for exposure.
</P>
<P>C. Store away from oxidizing materials.
</P>
<P>D. Employers shall advise employees of all areas and operations where exposure to MDA could occur.
</P>
<HD2>VII. Housekeeping and Hygiene Facilities
</HD2>
<P>A. The workplace should be kept clean, orderly, and in a sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>The employer should institute a leak and spill detection program for operations involving MDA in order to detect sources of fugitive MDA emissions.
</P>
<P>B. Adequate washing facilities with hot and cold water are to be provided and maintained in a sanitary condition. Suitable cleansing agents should also be provided to assure the effective removal of MDA from the skin.
</P>
<HD2>VIII. Common Operations
</HD2>
<P>Common operations in which exposure to MDA is likely to occur include the following: Manufacture of MDA; Manufacture of Methylene diisocyanate; Curing agent for epoxy resin structures; Wire coating operations; and filament winding.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1050—Medical Surveillance Guidelines for MDA
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Route of Entry
</HD2>
<P>Inhalation; skin absorption; ingestion. MDA can be inhaled, absorbed through the skin, or ingested.
</P>
<HD2>II. Toxicology
</HD2>
<P>MDA is a suspect carcinogen in humans. There are several reports of liver disease in humans and animals resulting from acute exposure to MDA. A well documented case of an acute cardiomyopathy secondary to exposure to MDA is on record. Numerous human cases of hepatitis secondary to MDA are known. Upon direct contact MDA may also cause damage to the eyes. Dermatitis and skin sensitization have been observed. Almost all forms of acute environmental hepatic injury in humans involve the hepatic parenchyma and produce hepatocellular jaundice. This agent produces intrahepatic cholestasis. The clinical picture consists of cholestatic jaundice, preceded or accompanied by abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Onset in about 60% of all observed cases is abrupt with severe abdominal pain. In about 30% of observed cases, the illness presented and evolved more slowly and less dramatically, with only slight abdominal pain. In about 10% of the cases only jaundice was evident. The cholestatic nature of the jaundice is evident in the prominence of itching, the histologic predominance of bile stasis, and portal inflammatory infiltration, accompanied by only slight parenchymal injury in most cases, and by the moderately elevated transaminase values. Acute, high doses, however, have been known to cause hepatocellular damage resulting in elevated SGPT, SGOT, alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin.
</P>
<P>Absorption through the skin is rapid. MDA is metabolized and excreted over a 48-hour period. Direct contact may be irritating to the skin, causing dermatitis. Also MDA which is deposited on the skin is not thoroughly removed through washing.
</P>
<P>MDA may cause bladder cancer in humans. Animal data supporting this assumption is not available nor is conclusive human data. However, human data collected on workers at a helicopter manufacturing facility where MDA is used suggests a higher incidence of bladder cancer among exposed workers.
</P>
<HD2>III. Signs and Symptoms
</HD2>
<P>Skin may become yellow from contact with MDA.
</P>
<P>Repeated or prolonged contact with MDA may result in recurring dermatitis (red-itchy, cracked skin) and eye irritation. Inhalation, ingestion or absorption through the skin at high concentrations may result in hepatitis, causing symptoms such as fever and chills, nausea and vomiting, dark urine, anorexia, rash, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice. Corneal burns may occur when MDA is splashed in the eyes.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Treatment of Acute Toxic Effects/Emergency Situation
</HD2>
<P>If MDA gets into the eyes, immediately wash eyes with large amounts of water. If MDA is splashed on the skin, immediately wash contaminated skin with mild soap or detergent. Employee should be removed from exposure and given proper medical treatment. Medical tests required under the emergency section of the medical surveillance section (M)(4) must be conducted.
</P>
<P>If the chemical is swallowed do not induce vomiting but remove by gastric lavage.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1050—Sampling and Analytical Methods for MDA Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD1>
<P>Measurements taken for the purpose of determining employee exposure to MDA are best taken so that the representative average 8-hour exposure may be determined from a single 8-hour sample or two (2) 4-hour samples. Short-time interval samples (or grab samples) may also be used to determine average exposure level if a minimum of five measurements are taken in a random manner over the 8-hour work shift. Random sampling means that any portion of the work shift has the same chance of being sampled as any other. The arithmetic average of all such random samples taken on one work shift is an estimate of an employee's average level of exposure for that work shift. Air samples should be taken in the employee's breathing zone (air that would most nearly represent that inhaled by the employee).
</P>
<P>There are a number of methods available for monitoring employee exposures to MDA. The method OSHA currently uses is included below.
</P>
<P>The employer, however, has the obligation of selecting any monitoring method which meets the accuracy and precision requirements of the standard under his unique field conditions. The standard requires that the method of monitoring must have an accuracy, to a 95 percent confidence level, of not less than plus or minus 25 percent for the select PEL.
</P>
<HD3>OSHA Methodology
</HD3>
<HD3>Sampling Procedure
</HD3>
<HD3>Apparatus
</HD3>
<P>Samples are collected by use of a personal sampling pump that can be calibrated within ±5% of the recommended flow rate with the sampling filter in line.
</P>
<P>Samples are collected on 37 mm Gelman type A/E glass fiber filters treated with sulfuric acid. The filters are prepared by soaking each filter with 0.5 mL of 0.26N H<E T="52">2</E> SO<E T="52">4</E>. (0.26 N H<E T="52">2</E> SO<E T="52">4</E> can be prepared by diluting 1.5 mL of 36N H<E T="52">2</E> SO<E T="52">4</E> to 200 mL with deionized water.) The filters are dried in an oven at 100 degrees C for one hour and then assembled into two-piece 37 mm polystyrene cassettes with backup pads. The cassettes are sealed with shrink bands and the ends are plugged with plastic plugs.
</P>
<P>After sampling, the filters are carefully removed from the cassettes and individually transferred to small vials containing approximately 2 mL deionized water. The vials must be tightly sealed. The water can be added before or after the filters are transferred. The vials must be sealable and capable of holding at least 7 mL of liquid. Small glass scintillation vials with caps containing Teflon liners are recommended.
</P>
<HD3>Reagents
</HD3>
<P>Deionized water is needed for addition to the vials.
</P>
<HD3>Sampling Technique
</HD3>
<P>Immediately before sampling, remove the plastic plugs from the filter cassettes.
</P>
<P>Attach the cassette to the sampling pump with flexible tubing and place the cassette in the employee's breathing zone.
</P>
<P>After sampling, seal the cassettes with plastic plugs until the filters are transferred to the vials containing deionized water.
</P>
<P>At some convenient time within 10 hours of sampling, transfer the sample filters to vials.
</P>
<P>Seal the small vials lengthwise.
</P>
<P>Submit at least one blank filter with each sample set. Blanks should be handled in the same manner as samples, but no air is drawn through them.
</P>
<P>Record sample volumes (in L of air) for each sample, along with any potential interferences.
</P>
<HD3>Retention Efficiency
</HD3>
<P>A retention efficiency study was performed by drawing 100 L of air (80% relative humidity) at 1 L/min through sample filters that had been spiked with 0.814 µg MDA. Instead of using backup pads, blank acid-treated filters were used as backups in each cassette. Upon analysis, the top filters were found to have an average of 91.8% of the spiked amount. There was no MDA found on the bottom filters, so the amount lost was probably due to the slight instability of the MDA salt.
</P>
<HD3>Extraction Efficiency
</HD3>
<P>The average extraction efficiency for six filters spiked at the target concentration is 99.6%.
</P>
<P>The stability of extracted and derivatized samples was verified by reanalyzing the above six samples the next day using fresh standards. The average extraction efficiency for the reanalyzed samples is 98.7%.
</P>
<HD3>Recommended Air Volume and Sampling Rate
</HD3>
<P>The recommended air volume is 100 L.
</P>
<P>The recommended sampling rate is 1 L/min.
</P>
<HD3>Interferences (Sampling)
</HD3>
<P>MDI appears to be a positive interference. It was found that when MDI was spiked onto an acid-treated filter, the MDI converted to MDA after air was drawn through it.
</P>
<P>Suspected interferences should be reported to the laboratory with submitted samples.
</P>
<HD3>Safety Precautions (Sampling)
</HD3>
<P>Attach the sampling equipment to the employees so that it will not interfere with work performance or safety.
</P>
<P>Follow all safety procedures that apply to the work area being sampled.
</P>
<HD3>Analytical Procedure
</HD3>
<P>Apparatus: The following are required for analysis.
</P>
<P>A GC equipped with an electron capture detector. For this evaluation a Tracor 222 Gas Chromatograph equipped with a Nickel 63 High Temperature Electron Capture Detector and a Linearizer was used.
</P>
<P>A GC column capable of separating the MDA derivative from the solvent and interferences. A 6 ft × 2 mm ID glass column packed with 3% OV-101 coated on 100/120 Gas Chrom Q was used in this evaluation.
</P>
<P>A electronic integrator or some other suitable means of measuring peak areas or heights.
</P>
<P>Small resealable vials with Teflon-lined caps capable of holding 4 mL.
</P>
<P>A dispenser or pipet for toluene capable of delivering 2.0 mL.
</P>
<P>Pipets (or repipets with plastic or Teflon tips) capable of delivering 1 mL for the sodium hydroxide and buffer solutions.
</P>
<P>A repipet capable of delivering 25 µL HFAA.
</P>
<P>Syringes for preparation of standards and injection of standards and samples into a GC.
</P>
<P>Volumetric flasks and pipets to dilute the pure MDA in preparation of standards.
</P>
<P>Disposable pipets to transfer the toluene layers after the samples are extracted.
</P>
<HD3>Reagents
</HD3>
<P>0.5 NaOH prepared from reagent grade NaOH.
</P>
<P>Toluene, pesticide grade. Burdick and Jackson distilled in glass toluene was used.
</P>
<P>Heptafluorobutyric acid anhydride (HFAA). HFAA from Pierce Chemical Company was used.
</P>
<P>pH 7.0 phosphate buffer, prepared from 136 g potassium dihydrogen phosphate and 1 L deionized water. The pH is adjusted to 7.0 with saturated sodium hydroxide solution.
</P>
<P>4,4′ -Methylenedianiline (MDA), reagent grade.
</P>
<HD3>Standard Preparation
</HD3>
<P>Concentrated stock standards are prepared by diluting pure MDA with toluene. Analytical standards are prepared by injecting uL amounts of diluted stock standards into vials that contain 2.0 mL toluene.
</P>
<P>25 uL HFAA are added to each vial and the vials are capped and shaken for 10 seconds.
</P>
<P>After 10 min, 1 mL of buffer is added to each vial.
</P>
<P>The vials are recapped and shaken for 10 seconds.
</P>
<P>After allowing the layers to separate, aliquots of the toluene (upper) layers are removed with a syringe and analyzed by GC.
</P>
<P>Analytical standard concentrations should bracket sample concentrations. Thus, if samples fall out of the range of prepared standards, additional standards must be prepared to ascertain detector response.
</P>
<HD3>Sample Preparation
</HD3>
<P>The sample filters are received in vials containing deionized water.
</P>
<P>1 mL of 0.5N NaOH and 2.0 mL toluene are added to each vial.
</P>
<P>The vials are recapped and shaken for 10 min.
</P>
<P>After allowing the layers to separate, approximately 1 mL aliquots of the toluene (upper) layers are transferred to separate vials with clean disposable pipets.
</P>
<P>The toluene layers are treated and analyzed.
</P>
<HD3>Analysis
</HD3>
<HD3>GC conditions
</HD3>
<FP-2>Zone temperatures:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Column—220 degrees C
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Injector—235 degrees C
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Detector—335 degrees C
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Gas flows, Ar/CH<E T="52">4</E> Column—28 mL/min
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>(95/5)    Purge—40 mL/min
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Injection volume: 5.0 uL
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Column: 6 ft × 
<FR>1/8</FR> in ID glass, 3% OV-101 on 100/120 Gas Chrom Q
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Retention time of MDA derivative: 3.5 min
</FP-2>
<HD3>Chromatogram
</HD3>
<P>Peak areas or heights are measured by an integrator or other suitable means.
</P>
<P>A calibration curve is constructed by plotting response (peak areas or heights) of standard injections versus ug of MDA per sample. Sample concentrations must be bracketed by standards.
</P>
<HD3>Interferences (Analytical)
</HD3>
<P>Any compound that gives an electron capture detector response and has the same general retention time as the HFAA derivative of MDA is a potential interference. Suspected interferences reported to the laboratory with submitted samples by the industrial hygienist must be considered before samples are derivatized.
</P>
<P>GC parameters may be changed to possibly circumvent interferences.
</P>
<P>Retention time on a single column is not considered proof of chemical identity. Analyte identity should be confirmed by GC/MS if possible.
</P>
<HD3>Calculations
</HD3>
<P>The analyte concentration for samples is obtained from the calibration curve in terms of ug MDA per sample. The extraction efficiency is 100%. If any MDA is found on the blank, that amount is subtracted from the sample amounts. The air concentrations are calculated using the following formulae.
</P>
<FP-2>µg/m
<SU>3</SU> = (µg MDA per sample) (1000)/(L of air sampled)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ppb = (µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) (24.46) / (198.3) = (µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) (0.1233) where 24.46 is the molar volume at 25 degrees C and 760 mm Hg
</FP-2>
<HD3>Safety Precautions (Analytical)
</HD3>
<P>Avoid skin contact and inhalation of all chemicals.
</P>
<P>Restrict the use of all chemicals to a fume hood if possible.
</P>
<P>Wear safety glasses and a lab coat at all times while in the lab area.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 35666, Aug. 10, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 49649, Nov. 3, 1992; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1293, Jan. 8, 1998; 67 FR 67965, Nov. 7, 2002; 71 FR 16672, 16673, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50190, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75586, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17785, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1051" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1051   1,3-Butadiene.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all occupational exposures to 1,3-Butadiene (BD), Chemical Abstracts Service Registry No. 106-99-0, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Except for the recordkeeping provisions in paragraph (m)(1) of this section, this section does not apply to the processing, use, or handling of products containing BD or to other work operations and streams in which BD is present where objective data are reasonably relied upon that demonstrate the work operation or the product or the group of products or operations to which it belongs may not reasonably be foreseen to release BD in airborne concentrations at or above the action level or in excess of the STEL under the expected conditions of processing, use, or handling that will cause the greatest possible release or in any plausible accident.
</P>
<P>(ii) This section also does not apply to work operations, products or streams where the only exposure to BD is from liquid mixtures containing 0.1% or less of BD by volume or the vapors released from such liquids, unless objective data become available that show that airborne concentrations generated by such mixtures can exceed the action level or STEL under reasonably predictable conditions of processing, use or handling that will cause the greatest possible release.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except for labeling requirements and requirements for emergency response, this section does not apply to the storage, transportation, distribution or sale of BD or liquid mixtures in intact containers or in transportation pipelines sealed in such a manner as to fully contain BD vapors or liquid.
</P>
<P>(3) Where products or processes containing BD are exempted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the employer shall maintain records of the objective data supporting that exemption and the basis for the employer's reliance on the data, as provided in paragraph (m)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions:</I> For the purpose of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne BD of 0.5 ppm calculated as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically designated by the employer, whose duties require entrance into a regulated area, or a person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees to exercise the right to observe monitoring and measuring procedures under paragraph (d)(8) of this section, or a person designated under the Act or regulations issued under the Act to enter a regulated area.
</P>
<P><I>1,3-Butadiene</I> means an organic compound with chemical formula CH<E T="52">2</E> = CH-CH = CH<E T="52">2</E> that has a molecular weight of approximately 54.15 gm/mole.
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means any Monday through Friday, except those days designated as federal, state, local or company specific holidays.
</P>
<P><I>Complete Blood Count (CBC)</I> means laboratory tests performed on whole blood specimens and includes the following: White blood cell count (WBC), hematocrit (Hct), red blood cell count (RBC), hemoglobin (Hgb), differential count of white blood cells, red blood cell morphology, red blood cell indices, and platelet count.
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means any part of a calendar day.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency situation</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment that may or does result in an uncontrolled significant release of BD.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means exposure of a worker to airborne concentrations of BD which would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means monitoring data, or mathematical modelling or calculations based on composition, chemical and physical properties of a material, stream or product.
</P>
<P><I>Permissible Exposure Limits, PELs</I> means either the 8 hour Time Weighted Average (8-hr TWA) exposure or the Short-Term Exposure Limit (STEL).
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional</I> is an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.</I>, license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide one or more of the specific health care services required by paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means any area where airborne concentrations of BD exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed the 8-hour time weighted average (8-hr TWA) exposure of 1 ppm or the short-term exposure limit (STEL) of 5 ppm for 15 minutes.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this 1,3-butadiene standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits (PELs)</I>—(1) <I>Time-weighted average (TWA) limit.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of BD in excess of one (1) part BD per million parts of air (ppm) measured as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short-term exposure limit (STEL).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of BD in excess of five parts of BD per million parts of air (5 ppm) as determined over a sampling period of fifteen (15) minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of the 8-hour TWA and 15-minute short-term exposures of each employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Representative 8-hour TWA employee exposure shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing full-shift exposure for each shift and for each job classification in each work area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Representative 15-minute short-term employee exposures shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing 15-minute exposures associated with operations that are most likely to produce exposures above the STEL for each shift and for each job classification in each work area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Except for the initial monitoring required under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, where the employer can document that exposure levels are equivalent for similar operations on different work shifts, the employer need only determine representative employee exposure for that operation from the shift during which the highest exposure is expected.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this section, shall perform initial monitoring to determine accurately the airborne concentrations of BD to which employees may be exposed, or shall rely on objective data pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section to fulfill this requirement. The initial monitoring required under this paragraph shall be completed within 60 days of the introduction of BD into the workplace. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer has monitored within two years prior to the effective date of this section and the monitoring satisfies all other requirements of this section, the employer may rely on such earlier monitoring results to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, provided that the conditions under which the initial monitoring was conducted have not changed in a manner that may result in new or additional exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring and its frequency.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure to be at or above the action level but at or below both the 8-hour TWA limit and the STEL, the employer shall repeat the representative monitoring required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section every twelve months.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure to be above the 8-hour TWA limit, the employer shall repeat the representative monitoring required by paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section at least every three months until the employer has collected two samples per quarter (each at least 7 days apart) within a two-year period, after which such monitoring must occur at least every six months.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure to be above the STEL, the employer shall repeat the representative monitoring required by paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section at least every three months until the employer has collected two samples per quarter (each at least 7 days apart) within a two-year period, after which such monitoring must occur at least every six months.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer may alter the monitoring schedule from every six months to annually for any required representative monitoring for which two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart indicate that employee exposure has decreased to or below the 8-hour TWA, but is at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure to be below the action level and at or below the STEL, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for employees whose exposures are represented by the initial monitoring.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the periodic monitoring required by paragraph (d)(3) of this section reveals that employee exposures, as indicated by at least two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart, are below the action level and at or below the STEL, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for those employees who are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraph (d) of this section whenever there has been a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel or work practices that may result in new or additional exposures to BD or when the employer has any reason to suspect that a change may result in new or additional exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever spills, leaks, ruptures or other breakdowns occur that may lead to employee exposure above the 8-hr TWA limit or above the STEL, the employer shall monitor [using leak source, such as direct reading instruments, area or personal monitoring], after the cleanup of the spill or repair of the leak, rupture or other breakdown, to ensure that exposures have returned to the level that existed prior to the incident.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of monitoring.</I> Monitoring shall be accurate, at a confidence level of 95 percent, to within plus or minus 25 percent for airborne concentrations of BD at or above the 1 ppm TWA limit and to within plus or minus 35 percent for airborne concentrations of BD at or above the action level of 0.5 ppm and below the 1 ppm TWA limit.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> (i) The employer must, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall, within 15 business days after receipt of any monitoring performed under this section indicating the 8-hour TWA or STEL has been exceeded, provide the affected employees, in writing, with information on the corrective action being taken by the employer to reduce employee exposure to or below the 8-hour TWA or STEL and the schedule for completion of this action.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(i) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to BD conducted in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to BD requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer at no cost with protective clothing and equipment, and shall ensure that the observer uses this equipment and complies with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) The employer shall establish a regulated area wherever occupational exposures to airborne concentrations of BD exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed the permissible exposure limits, either the 8-hr TWA or the STEL.
</P>
<P>(2) Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(3) Regulated areas shall be demarcated from the rest of the workplace in any manner that minimizes the number of employees exposed to BD within the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(4) An employer at a multi-employer worksite who establishes a regulated area shall communicate the access restrictions and locations of these areas to other employers with work operations at that worksite whose employees may have access to these areas.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering controls and work practices.</I> (i) The employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices to reduce and maintain employee exposure to or below the PELs, except to the extent that the employer can establish that these controls are not feasible or where paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever the feasible engineering controls and work practices which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the 8-hour TWA or STEL, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance plan.</I> (i) Where any exposures are over the PELs, the employer shall establish and implement a written plan to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs primarily by means of engineering and work practice controls, as required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and by the use of respiratory protection where required or permitted under this section. No compliance plan is required if all exposures are under the PELs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written compliance plan shall include a schedule for the development and implementation of the engineering controls and work practice controls including periodic leak detection surveys.
</P>
<P>(iii) Copies of the compliance plan required in paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be furnished upon request for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, affected employees and designated employee representatives. Such plans shall be reviewed at least every 12 months, and shall be updated as necessary to reflect significant changes in the status of the employer's compliance program.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall not implement a schedule of employee rotation as a means of compliance with the PELs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exposure Goal Program.</I> (1) For those operations and job classifications where employee exposures are greater than the action level, in addition to compliance with the PELs, the employer shall have an exposure goal program that is intended to limit employee exposures to below the action level during normal operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Written plans for the exposure goal program shall be furnished upon request for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, affected employees and designated employee representatives.
</P>
<P>(3) Such plans shall be updated as necessary to reflect significant changes in the status of the exposure goal program.
</P>
<P>(4) Respirator use is not required in the exposure goal program.
</P>
<P>(5) The exposure goal program shall include the following items unless the employer can demonstrate that the item is not feasible, will have no significant effect in reducing employee exposures, or is not necessary to achieve exposures below the action level:
</P>
<P>(i) A leak prevention, detection, and repair program.
</P>
<P>(ii) A program for maintaining the effectiveness of local exhaust ventilation systems.
</P>
<P>(iii) The use of pump exposure control technology such as, but not limited to, mechanical double-sealed or seal-less pumps.
</P>
<P>(iv) Gauging devices designed to limit employee exposure, such as magnetic gauges on rail cars.
</P>
<P>(v) Unloading devices designed to limit employee exposure, such as a vapor return system.
</P>
<P>(vi) A program to maintain BD concentration below the action level in control rooms by use of engineering controls.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-routine work operations that are performed infrequently and for which employee exposures are limited in duration.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the PELs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii), (d)(3)(iii)(B)(1), and (2)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) If air-purifying respirators are used, the employer must replace the air-purifying filter elements according to the replacement schedule set for the class of respirators listed in Table 1 of this section, and at the beginning of each work shift.
</P>
<P>(iii) Instead of using the replacement schedule listed in Table 1 of this section, the employer may replace cartridges or canisters at 90% of their expiration service life, provided the employer:
</P>
<P>(A) Demonstrates that employees will be adequately protected by this procedure.
</P>
<P>(B) Uses BD breakthrough data for this purpose that have been derived from tests conducted under worst-case conditions of humidity, temperature, and air-flow rate through the filter element, and the employer also describes the data supporting the cartridge-or canister-change schedule, as well as the basis for using the data in the employer's respirator program.
</P>
<P>(iv) A label must be attached to each filter element to indicate the date and time it is first installed on the respirator.
</P>
<P>(v) If NIOSH approves an end-of-service-life indicator (ESLI) for an air-purifying filter element, the element may be used until the ESLI shows no further useful service life or until the element is replaced at the beginning of the next work shift, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(vi) Regardless of the air-purifying element used, if an employee detects the odor of BD, the employer must replace the air-purifying element immediately.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) The employer must select appropriate respirators from Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Minimum Requirements for Respiratory Protection for Airborne BD
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration of airborne BD (ppm) or condition of use
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum required respirator
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 5 ppm (5 times PEL)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Air-purifying half mask or full facepiece respirator equipped with approved BD or organic vapor cartridges or canisters. Cartridges or canisters shall be replaced every 4 hours.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 10 ppm (10 times PEL)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Air-purifying half mask or full facepiece respirator equipped with approved BD or organic vapor cartridges or canisters. Cartridges or canisters shall be replaced every 3 hours.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 25 ppm (25 times PEL)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Air-purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with approved BD or organic vapor cartridges or canisters. Cartridges or canisters shall be replaced every 2 hours.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Any powered air-purifying respirator equipped with approved BD or organic vapor cartridges. PAPR cartridges shall be replaced every 2 hours.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Continuous flow supplied air respirator equipped with a hood or helmet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 50 ppm (50 times PEL)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Air-purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with approved BD or organic vapor cartridges or canisters. Cartridges or canisters shall be replaced every (1) hour.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a tight-fitting facepiece and an approved BD or organic vapor cartridges. PAPR cartridges shall be replaced every (1) hour.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1,000 ppm (1,000 times PEL)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Supplied air respirator equipped with a half mask of full facepiece and operated in a pressure demand or other positive pressure mode.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1000 ppm unknown concentration, or firefighting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Self-contained breathing apparatus equipped with a full facepiece and operated in a pressure demand or other positive pressure mode.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Any supplied air respirator equipped with a full facepiece and operated in a pressure demand or other positive pressure mode in combination with an auxiliary self-contained breathing apparatus operated in a pressure demand or other positive pressure mode.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Escape from IDLH conditions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Any positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus with an appropriate service life.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) A air-purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with a front or back mounted BD or organic vapor canister.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Notes:</E> Respirators approved for use in higher concentrations are permitted to be used in lower concentrations. Full facepiece is required when eye irritation is anticipated.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Air-purifying respirators must have filter elements approved by NIOSH for organic vapors or BD.
</P>
<P>(iii) When an employee whose job requires the use of a respirator cannot use a negative-pressure respirator, the employer must provide the employee with a respirator that has less breathing resistance than the negative-pressure respirator, such as a powered air-purifying respirator or supplied-air respirator, when the employee is able to use it and if it provides the employee adequate protection.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protective clothing and equipment.</I> Where appropriate to prevent eye contact and limit dermal exposure to BD, the employer shall provide protective clothing and equipment at no cost to the employee and shall ensure its use. Eye and face protection shall meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.133.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Emergency situations. Written plan.</I> A written plan for emergency situations shall be developed, or an existing plan shall be modified, to contain the applicable elements specified in 29 CFR 1910.38 and 29 CFR 1910.39, “Emergency action plans” and “Fire prevention plans,” respectively, and in 29 CFR 1910.120, “Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response,” for each workplace where there is the possibility of an emergency. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical screening and surveillance</I>—(1) <I>Employees covered.</I> The employer shall institute a medical screening and surveillance program as specified in this paragraph for:
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee with exposure to BD at concentrations at or above the action level on 30 or more days or for employees who have or may have exposure to BD at or above the PELs on 10 or more days a year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers (including successor owners) shall continue to provide medical screening and surveillance for employees, even after transfer to a non-BD exposed job and regardless of when the employee is transferred, whose work histories suggest exposure to BD:
</P>
<P>(A) At or above the PELs on 30 or more days a year for 10 or more years;
</P>
<P>(B) At or above the action level on 60 or more days a year for 10 or more years; or
</P>
<P>(C) Above 10 ppm on 30 or more days in any past year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee exposed to BD following an emergency situation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Program administration.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that the health questionnaire, physical examination and medical procedures are provided without cost to the employee, without loss of pay, and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(ii) Physical examinations, health questionnaires, and medical procedures shall be performed or administered by a physician or other licensed health care professional.
</P>
<P>(iii) Laboratory tests shall be conducted by an accredited laboratory.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency of medical screening activities.</I> The employer shall make medical screening available on the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(i) For each employee covered under paragraphs (j)(1) (i)-(ii) of this section, a health questionnaire and complete blood count with differential and platelet count (CBC) every year, and a physical examination as specified below:
</P>
<P>(A) An initial physical examination that meets the requirements of this rule, if twelve months or more have elapsed since the last physical examination conducted as part of a medical screening program for BD exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) Before assumption of duties by the employee in a job with BD exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) Every 3 years after the initial physical examination;
</P>
<P>(D) At the discretion of the physician or other licensed health care professional reviewing the annual health questionnaire and CBC;
</P>
<P>(E) At the time of employee reassignment to an area where exposure to BD is below the action level, if the employee's past exposure history does not meet the criteria of paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section for continued coverage in the screening and surveillance program, and if twelve months or more have elapsed since the last physical examination; and
</P>
<P>(F) At termination of employment if twelve months or more have elapsed since the last physical examination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Following an emergency situation, medical screening shall be conducted as quickly as possible, but not later than 48 hours after the exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each employee who must wear a respirator, physical ability to perform the work and use the respirator must be determined as required by 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Content of medical screening.</I> (i) Medical screening for employees covered by paragraphs (j)(1) (i)-(ii) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A baseline health questionnaire that includes a comprehensive occupational and health history and is updated annually. Particular emphasis shall be placed on the hematopoietic and reticuloendothelial systems, including exposure to chemicals, in addition to BD, that may have an adverse effect on these systems, the presence of signs and symptoms that might be related to disorders of these systems, and any other information determined by the examining physician or other licensed health care professional to be necessary to evaluate whether the employee is at increased risk of material impairment of health from BD exposure. Health questionnaires shall consist of the sample forms in appendix C to this section, or be equivalent to those samples;
</P>
<P>(B) A complete physical examination, with special emphasis on the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and skin;
</P>
<P>(C) A CBC; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any other test which the examining physician or other licensed health care professional deems necessary to evaluate whether the employee may be at increased risk from exposure to BD.
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical screening for employees exposed to BD in an emergency situation shall focus on the acute effects of BD exposure and at a minimum include: A CBC within 48 hours of the exposure and then monthly for three months; and a physical examination if the employee reports irritation of the eyes, nose throat, lungs, or skin, blurred vision, coughing, drowsiness, nausea, or headache. Continued employee participation in the medical screening and surveillance program, beyond these minimum requirements, shall be at the discretion of the physician or other licensed health care professional.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional medical evaluations and referrals.</I> (i) Where the results of medical screening indicate abnormalities of the hematopoietic or reticuloendothelial systems, for which a non-occupational cause is not readily apparent, the examining physician or other licensed health care professional shall refer the employee to an appropriate specialist for further evaluation and shall make available to the specialist the results of the medical screening.
</P>
<P>(ii) The specialist to whom the employee is referred under this paragraph shall determine the appropriate content for the medical evaluation, e.g., examinations, diagnostic tests and procedures, etc.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Information provided to the physician or other licensed health care professional.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician or other licensed health care professional involved in the evaluation:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this section including its appendices;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's BD exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's actual or representative BD exposure level during employment tenure, including exposure incurred in an emergency situation;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of pertinent personal protective equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information, when available, from previous employment-related medical evaluations of the affected employee which is not otherwise available to the physician or other licensed health care professional or the specialist.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>The written medical opinion.</I> (i) For each medical evaluation required by this section, the employer shall ensure that the physician or other licensed health care professional produces a written opinion and provides a copy to the employer and the employee within 15 business days of the evaluation. The written opinion shall be limited to the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The occupationally pertinent results of the medical evaluation;
</P>
<P>(B) A medical opinion concerning whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee's health at increased risk of material impairment from exposure to BD;
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to BD; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed of the results of the medical evaluation and any medical conditions resulting from BD exposure that require further explanation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written medical opinion provided to the employer shall not reveal specific records, findings, and diagnoses that have no bearing on the employee's ability to work with BD.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>However, this provision does not negate the ethical obligation of the physician or other licensed health care professional to transmit any other adverse findings directly to the employee.</P></NOTE>
<P>(8) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that information obtained from the medical screening program activities is aggregated (with all personal identifiers removed) and periodically reviewed, to ascertain whether the health of the employee population of that employer is adversely affected by exposure to BD.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information learned from medical surveillance activities must be disseminated to covered employees, as defined in paragraph (k)(1) of this section, in a manner that ensures the confidentiality of individual medical information.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Communication of BD hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for BD.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of BD at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer; eye and respiratory tract irritation; central nervous system effects; and flammability.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include BD in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of BD and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (l)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall provide all employees exposed to BD with information and training in accordance with the requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1200, 29 CFR 1915.1200, and 29 CFR 1926.59.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall train each employee who is potentially exposed to BD at or above the action level or the STEL in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program, ensure employee participation in the program, and maintain a record of the contents of such program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment to a job potentially involving exposure to BD at or above the action level or STEL and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(iv) The training program shall be conducted in a manner that the employee is able to understand. The employee shall ensure that each employee exposed to BD over the action level or STEL is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The health hazards associated with BD exposure, and the purpose and a description of the medical screening and surveillance program required by this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity, location, manner of use, release, and storage of BD and the specific operations that could result in exposure to BD, especially exposures above the PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(C) The engineering controls and work practices associated with the employee's job assignment, and emergency procedures and personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(D) The measures employees can take to protect themselves from exposure to BD.
</P>
<P>(E) The contents of this standard and its appendices, and
</P>
<P>(F) The right of each employee exposed to BD at or above the action level or STEL to obtain:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) medical examinations as required by paragraph (j) of this section at no cost to the employee;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) the employee's medical records required to be maintained by paragraph (m)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) all air monitoring results representing the employee's exposure to BD and required to be kept by paragraph (m)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access to information and training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make a copy of this standard and its appendices readily available without cost to all affected employees and their designated representatives and shall provide a copy if requested.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide to the Assistant Secretary or the Director, or the designated employee representatives, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and the training program.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Objective data for exemption from initial monitoring.</I> (i) Where the processing, use, or handling of products or streams made from or containing BD are exempted from other requirements of this section under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or where objective data have been relied on in lieu of initial monitoring under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain a record of the objective data reasonably relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The product or activity qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and analysis of the material for the release of BD;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data support the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to BD as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to BD which is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and exposure of the employees whose exposures are represented.
</P>
<P>(G) The written corrective action and the schedule for completion of this action required by paragraph (d)(7)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least 30 years in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical screening and surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical screening and surveillance under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) Physician's or other licensed health care professional's written opinions as described in paragraph (k)(7) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the physician or other licensed health care professional as required by paragraphs (k)(7)(ii)-(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Medical screening and surveillance records shall be maintained for each employee for the duration of employment plus 30 years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer, upon written request, shall make all records required to be maintained by this section available for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(ii) Access to records required to be maintained by paragraphs (l)(1)-(3) of this section shall be granted in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020(e).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer shall transfer medical and exposure records as set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall transfer medical and exposure records as set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(n) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Appendices.</I> (1) appendix E to this section is mandatory.
</P>
<P>(2) Appendices A, B, C, D, and F to this section are informational and are not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1051—Substance Safety Data Sheet For 1,3-Butadiene (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Substance Identification
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance: 1,3-Butadiene (CH<E T="52">2</E> = CH-CH = CH<E T="52">2</E>).
</P>
<P>B. Synonyms: 1,3-Butadiene (BD); butadiene; biethylene; bi-vinyl; divinyl; butadiene-1,3; buta-1,3-diene; erythrene; NCI-C50602; CAS-106-99-0.
</P>
<P>C. BD can be found as a gas or liquid.
</P>
<P>D. BD is used in production of styrene-butadiene rubber and polybutadiene rubber for the tire industry. Other uses include copolymer latexes for carpet backing and paper coating, as well as resins and polymers for pipes and automobile and appliance parts. It is also used as an intermediate in the production of such chemicals as fungicides.
</P>
<P>E. Appearance and odor: BD is a colorless, non-corrosive, flammable gas with a mild aromatic odor at standard ambient temperature and pressure.
</P>
<P>F. Permissible exposure: Exposure may not exceed 1 part BD per million parts of air averaged over the 8-hour workday, nor may short-term exposure exceed 5 parts of BD per million parts of air averaged over any 15-minute period in the 8-hour workday.
</P>
<HD1>II. Health Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. BD can affect the body if the gas is inhaled or if the liquid form, which is very cold (cryogenic), comes in contact with the eyes or skin.
</P>
<P>B. Effects of overexposure: Breathing very high levels of BD for a short time can cause central nervous system effects, blurred vision, nausea, fatigue, headache, decreased blood pressure and pulse rate, and unconsciousness. There are no recorded cases of accidental exposures at high levels that have caused death in humans, but this could occur. Breathing lower levels of BD may cause irritation of the eyes, nose, and throat. Skin contact with liquefied BD can cause irritation and frostbite.
</P>
<P>C. Long-term (chronic) exposure: BD has been found to be a potent carcinogen in rodents, inducing neoplastic lesions at multiple target sites in mice and rats. A recent study of BD-exposed workers showed that exposed workers have an increased risk of developing leukemia. The risk of leukemia increases with increased exposure to BD. OSHA has concluded that there is strong evidence that workplace exposure to BD poses an increased risk of death from cancers of the lymphohematopoietic system.
</P>
<P>D. Reporting signs and symptoms: You should inform your supervisor if you develop any of these signs or symptoms and suspect that they are caused by exposure to BD.
</P>
<HD1>III. Emergency First Aid Procedures
</HD1>
<P>In the event of an emergency, follow the emergency plan and procedures designated for your work area. If you have been trained in first aid procedures, provide the necessary first aid measures. If necessary, call for additional assistance from co-workers and emergency medical personnel.
</P>
<P>A. Eye and Skin Exposures: If there is a potential that liquefied BD can come in contact with eye or skin, face shields and skin protective equipment must be provided and used. If liquefied BD comes in contact with the eye, immediately flush the eyes with large amounts of water, occasionally lifting the lower and the upper lids. Flush repeatedly. Get medical attention immediately. Contact lenses should not be worn when working with this chemical. In the event of skin contact, which can cause frostbite, remove any contaminated clothing and flush the affected area repeatedly with large amounts of tepid water.
</P>
<P>B. Breathing: If a person breathes in large amounts of BD, move the exposed person to fresh air at once. If breathing has stopped, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) if you have been trained in this procedure. Keep the affected person warm and at rest. Get medical attention immediately.
</P>
<P>C. Rescue: Move the affected person from the hazardous exposure. If the exposed person has been overcome, call for help and begin emergency rescue procedures. Use extreme caution so that you do not become a casualty. Understand the plant's emergency rescue procedures and know the locations of rescue equipment before the need arises.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Respirators and Protective Clothing
</HD1>
<P>A. Respirators: Good industrial hygiene practices recommend that engineering and work practice controls be used to reduce environmental concentrations to the permissible exposure level. However, there are some exceptions where respirators may be used to control exposure. Respirators may be used when engineering and work practice controls are not technically feasible, when such controls are in the process of being installed, or when these controls fail and need to be supplemented or during brief, non-routine, intermittent exposure. Respirators may also be used in situations involving non-routine work operations which are performed infrequently and in which exposures are limited in duration, and in emergency situations. In some instances cartridge respirator use is allowed, but only with strict time constraints. For example, at exposure below 5 ppm BD, a cartridge (or canister) respirator, either full or half face, may be used, but the cartridge must be replaced at least every 4 hours, and it must be replaced every 3 hours when the exposure is between 5 and 10 ppm. If the use of respirators is necessary, the only respirators permitted are those that have been approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH). In addition to respirator selection, a complete respiratory protection program must be instituted which includes regular training, maintenance, fit testing, inspection, cleaning, and evaluation of respirators. If you can smell BD while wearing a respirator, proceed immediately to fresh air, and change cartridge (or canister) before re-entering an area where there is BD exposure. If you experience difficulty in breathing while wearing a respirator, tell your supervisor.
</P>
<P>B. Protective Clothing: Employees should be provided with and required to use impervious clothing, gloves, face shields (eight-inch minimum), and other appropriate protective clothing necessary to prevent the skin from becoming frozen by contact with liquefied BD (or a vessel containing liquid BD).
</P>
<P>Employees should be provided with and required to use splash-proof safety goggles where liquefied BD may contact the eyes.
</P>
<HD2>V. Precautions for Safe Use, Handling, and Storage
</HD2>
<P>A. Fire and Explosion Hazards: BD is a flammable gas and can easily form explosive mixtures in air. It has a lower explosive limit of 2%, and an upper explosive limit of 11.5%. It has an autoignition temperature of 420 °C (788 °F). Its vapor is heavier than air (vapor density, 1.9) and may travel a considerable distance to a source of ignition and flash back. Usually it contains inhibitors to prevent self-polymerization (which is accompanied by evolution of heat) and to prevent formation of explosive peroxides. At elevated temperatures, such as in fire conditions, polymerization may take place. If the polymerization takes place in a container, there is a possibility of violent rupture of the container.
</P>
<P>B. Hazard: Slightly toxic. Slight respiratory irritant. Direct contact of liquefied BD on skin may cause freeze burns and frostbite.
</P>
<P>C. Storage: Protect against physical damage to BD containers. Outside or detached storage of BD containers is preferred. Inside storage should be in a cool, dry, well-ventilated, noncombustible location, away from all possible sources of ignition. Store cylinders vertically and do not stack. Do not store with oxidizing material.
</P>
<P>D. Usual Shipping Containers: Liquefied BD is contained in steel pressure apparatus.
</P>
<P>E. Electrical Equipment: Electrical installations in Class I hazardous locations, as defined in Article 500 of the National Electrical Code, should be in accordance with Article 501 of the Code. If explosion-proof electrical equipment is necessary, it shall be suitable for use in Group B. Group D equipment may be used if such equipment is isolated in accordance with Section 501-5(a) by sealing all conduit 
<FR>1/2</FR>- inch size or larger. See Venting of Deflagrations (NFPA No. 68, 1994), National Electrical Code (NFPA No. 70, 1996), Static Electricity (NFPA No. 77, 1993), Lightning Protection Systems (NFPA No. 780, 1995), and Fire Hazard Properties of Flammable Liquids, Gases and Volatile Solids (NFPA No. 325, 1994).
</P>
<P>F. Fire Fighting: Stop flow of gas. Use water to keep fire-exposed containers cool. Fire extinguishers and quick drenching facilities must be readily available, and you should know where they are and how to operate them.
</P>
<P>G. Spill and Leak: Persons not wearing protective equipment and clothing should be restricted from areas of spills or leaks until clean-up has been completed. If BD is spilled or leaked, the following steps should be taken:
</P>
<P>1. Eliminate all ignition sources.
</P>
<P>2. Ventilate area of spill or leak.
</P>
<P>3. If in liquid form, for small quantities, allow to evaporate in a safe manner.
</P>
<P>4. Stop or control the leak if this can be done without risk. If source of leak is a cylinder and the leak cannot be stopped in place, remove the leaking cylinder to a safe place and repair the leak or allow the cylinder to empty.
</P>
<P>H. Disposal: This substance, when discarded or disposed of, is a hazardous waste according to Federal regulations (40 CFR part 261). It is listed as hazardous waste number D001 due to its ignitability. The transportation, storage, treatment, and disposal of this waste material must be conducted in compliance with 40 CFR parts 262, 263, 264, 268 and 270. Disposal can occur only in properly permitted facilities. Check state and local regulation of any additional requirements as these may be more restrictive than federal laws and regulation.
</P>
<P>I. You should not keep food, beverages, or smoking materials in areas where there is BD exposure, nor should you eat or drink in such areas.
</P>
<P>J. Ask your supervisor where BD is used in your work area and ask for any additional plant safety and health rules.
</P>
<HD2>VI. Medical Requirements
</HD2>
<P>Your employer is required to offer you the opportunity to participate in a medical screening and surveillance program if you are exposed to BD at concentrations exceeding the action level (0.5 ppm BD as an 8-hour TWA) on 30 days or more a year, or at or above the 8 hr TWA (1 ppm) or STEL (5 ppm for 15 minutes) on 10 days or more a year. Exposure for any part of a day counts. If you have had exposure to BD in the past, but have been transferred to another job, you may still be eligible to participate in the medical screening and surveillance program. The OSHA rule specifies the past exposures that would qualify you for participation in the program. These past exposure are work histories that suggest the following: (1) That you have been exposed at or above the PELs on 30 days a year for 10 or more years; (2) that you have been exposed at or above the action level on 60 days a year for 10 or more years; or (3) that you have been exposed above 10 ppm on 30 days in any past year. Additionally, if you are exposed to BD in an emergency situation, you are eligible for a medical examination within 48 hours. The basic medical screening program includes a health questionnaire, physical examination, and blood test. These medical evaluations must be offered to you at a reasonable time and place, and without cost or loss of pay.
</P>
<HD2>VII. Observation of Monitoring
</HD2>
<P>Your employer is required to perform measurements that are representative of your exposure to BD and you or your designated representative are entitled to observe the monitoring procedure. You are entitled to observe the steps taken in the measurement procedure, and to record the results obtained. When the monitoring procedure is taking place in an area where respirators or personal protective clothing and equipment are required to be worn, you or your representative must also be provided with, and must wear, the protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<HD2>VIII. Access to Information
</HD2>
<P>A. Each year, your employer is required to inform you of the information contained in this appendix. In addition, your employer must instruct you in the proper work practices for using BD, emergency procedures, and the correct use of protective equipment.
</P>
<P>B. Your employer is required to determine whether you are being exposed to BD. You or your representative has the right to observe employee measurements and to record the results obtained. Your employer is required to inform you of your exposure. If your employer determines that you are being overexposed, he or she is required to inform you of the actions which are being taken to reduce your exposure to within permissible exposure limits and of the schedule to implement these actions.
</P>
<P>C. Your employer is required to keep records of your exposures and medical examinations. These records must be kept by the employer for at least thirty (30) years.
</P>
<P>D. Your employer is required to release your exposure and medical records to you or your representative upon your request.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1051—Substance Technical Guidelines for 1,3-Butadiene (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Physical and Chemical Data
</HD2>
<P>A. Substance identification:
</P>
<P>1. Synonyms: 1,3-Butadiene (BD); butadiene; biethylene; bivinyl; divinyl; butadiene-1,3; buta-1,3-diene; erythrene; NCI-C50620; CAS-106-99-0.
</P>
<P>2. Formula: CH<E T="52">2</E> = CH-CH = CH<E T="52">2</E>.
</P>
<P>3. Molecular weight: 54.1.
</P>
<P>B. Physical data:
</P>
<P>1. Boiling point (760 mm Hg): −4.7 °C (23.5 °F).
</P>
<P>2. Specific gravity (water = 1): 0.62 at 20 °C (68 °F).
</P>
<P>3. Vapor density (air = 1 at boiling point of BD): 1.87.
</P>
<P>4. Vapor pressure at 20 °C (68 °F): 910 mm Hg.
</P>
<P>5. Solubility in water, g/100 g water at 20 °C (68 °F): 0.05.
</P>
<P>6. Appearance and odor: Colorless, flammable gas with a mildly aromatic odor. Liquefied BD is a colorless liquid with a mildly aromatic odor.
</P>
<HD2>II. Fire, Explosion, and Reactivity Hazard Data
</HD2>
<P>A. Fire:
</P>
<P>1. Flash point: −76 °C (−105 °F) for take out; liquefied BD; Not applicable to BD gas.
</P>
<P>2. Stability: A stabilizer is added to the monomer to inhibit formation of polymer during storage. Forms explosive peroxides in air in absence of inhibitor.
</P>
<P>3. Flammable limits in air, percent by volume: Lower: 2.0; Upper: 11.5.
</P>
<P>4. Extinguishing media: Carbon dioxide for small fires, polymer or alcohol foams for large fires.
</P>
<P>5. Special fire fighting procedures: Fight fire from protected location or maximum possible distance. Stop flow of gas before extinguishing fire. Use water spray to keep fire-exposed cylinders cool.
</P>
<P>6. Unusual fire and explosion hazards: BD vapors are heavier than air and may travel to a source of ignition and flash back. Closed containers may rupture violently when heated.
</P>
<P>7. For purposes of compliance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.106, BD is classified as a flammable gas. For example, 7,500 ppm, approximately one-fourth of the lower flammable limit, would be considered to pose a potential fire and explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>8. For purposes of compliance with 29 CFR 1910.155, BD is classified as a Class B fire hazard.
</P>
<P>9. For purposes of compliance with 29 CFR 1910.307, locations classified as hazardous due to the presence of BD shall be Class I.
</P>
<P>B. Reactivity:
</P>
<P>1. Conditions contributing to instability: Heat. Peroxides are formed when inhibitor concentration is not maintained at proper level. At elevated temperatures, such as in fire conditions, polymerization may take place.
</P>
<P>2. Incompatibilities: Contact with strong oxidizing agents may cause fires and explosions. The contacting of crude BD (not BD monomer) with copper and copper alloys may cause formations of explosive copper compounds.
</P>
<P>3. Hazardous decomposition products: Toxic gases (such as carbon monoxide) may be released in a fire involving BD.
</P>
<P>4. Special precautions: BD will attack some forms of plastics, rubber, and coatings. BD in storage should be checked for proper inhibitor content, for self-polymerization, and for formation of peroxides when in contact with air and iron. Piping carrying BD may become plugged by formation of rubbery polymer.
</P>
<P>C. Warning Properties:
</P>
<P>1. Odor Threshold: An odor threshold of 0.45 ppm has been reported in The American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) Report, <I>Odor Thresholds for Chemicals with Established Occupational Health Standards.</I> (Ex. 32-28C)
</P>
<P>2. Eye Irritation Level: Workers exposed to vapors of BD (concentration or purity unspecified) have complained of irritation of eyes, nasal passages, throat, and lungs. Dogs and rabbits exposed experimentally to as much as 6700 ppm for 7
<FR>1/2</FR> hours a day for 8 months have developed no histologically demonstrable abnormality of the eyes.
</P>
<P>3. Evaluation of Warning Properties: Since the mean odor threshold is about half of the 1 ppm PEL, and more than 10-fold below the 5 ppm STEL, most wearers of air purifying respirators should still be able to detect breakthrough before a significant overexposure to BD occurs.
</P>
<HD2>III. Spill, Leak, and Disposal Procedures
</HD2>
<P>A. Persons not wearing protective equipment and clothing should be restricted from areas of spills or leaks until cleanup has been completed. If BD is spilled or leaked, the following steps should be taken:
</P>
<P>1. Eliminate all ignition sources.
</P>
<P>2. Ventilate areas of spill or leak.
</P>
<P>3. If in liquid form, for small quantities, allow to evaporate in a safe manner.
</P>
<P>4. Stop or control the leak if this can be done without risk. If source of leak is a cylinder and the leak cannot be stopped in place, remove the leaking cylinder to a safe place and repair the leak or allow the cylinder to empty.
</P>
<P>B. Disposal: This substance, when discarded or disposed of, is a hazardous waste according to Federal regulations (40 CFR part 261). It is listed by the EPA as hazardous waste number D001 due to its ignitability. The transportation, storage, treatment, and disposal of this waste material must be conducted in compliance with 40 CFR parts 262, 263, 264, 268 and 270. Disposal can occur only in properly permitted facilities. Check state and local regulations for any additional requirements because these may be more restrictive than federal laws and regulations.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD2>
<P>A. Exposure above the Permissible Exposure Limit (8-hr TWA) or Short-Term Exposure Limit (STEL):
</P>
<P>1. 8-hr TWA exposure evaluation: Measurements taken for the purpose of determining employee exposure under this standard are best taken with consecutive samples covering the full shift. Air samples must be taken in the employee's breathing zone (air that would most nearly represent that inhaled by the employee).
</P>
<P>2. STEL exposure evaluation: Measurements must represent 15 minute exposures associated with operations most likely to exceed the STEL in each job and on each shift.
</P>
<P>3. Monitoring frequencies: Table 1 gives various exposure scenarios and their required monitoring frequencies, as required by the final standard for occupational exposure to butadiene.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Five Exposure Scenarios and Their Associated Monitoring Frequencies
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Action level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8-hr TWA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">STEL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required monitoring activity
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">−*</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No 8-hr TWA or STEL monitoring required.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> + *</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No STEL monitoring required. Monitor 8-hr TWA annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> + </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> + </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No STEL monitoring required. Periodic monitoring 8-hr TWA, in accordance with (d)(3)(ii).**
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> + </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> + </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> + </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodic monitoring 8-hr TWA, in accordance with (d)(3)(ii)**. Periodic monitoring STEL, in accordance with (d)(3)(iii).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> + </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> + </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodic monitoring STEL, in accordance with (d)(3)(iii). Monitor 8-hr TWA, annually.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Exposure Scenario, Limit Exceeded: + = Yes, −= No.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** The employer may decrease the frequency of exposure monitoring to annually when at least 2 consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart show exposures to be below the 8 hr TWA, but at or above the action level.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>4. Monitoring techniques: appendix D describes the validated method of sampling and analysis which has been tested by OSHA for use with BD. The employer has the obligation of selecting a monitoring method which meets the accuracy and precision requirements of the standard under his or her unique field conditions. The standard requires that the method of monitoring must be accurate, to a 95 percent confidence level, to plus or minus 25 percent for concentrations of BD at or above 1 ppm, and to plus or minus 35 percent for concentrations below 1 ppm.
</P>
<HD2>V. Personal Protective Equipment
</HD2>
<P>A. Employees should be provided with and required to use impervious clothing, gloves, face shields (eight-inch minimum), and other appropriate protective clothing necessary to prevent the skin from becoming frozen from contact with liquid BD.
</P>
<P>B. Any clothing which becomes wet with liquid BD should be removed immediately and not re-worn until the butadiene has evaporated.
</P>
<P>C. Employees should be provided with and required to use splash proof safety goggles where liquid BD may contact the eyes.
</P>
<HD2>VI. Housekeeping and Hygiene Facilities
</HD2>
<P>For purposes of complying with 29 CFR 1910.141, the following items should be emphasized:
</P>
<P>A. The workplace should be kept clean, orderly, and in a sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>B. Adequate washing facilities with hot and cold water are to be provided and maintained in a sanitary condition.
</P>
<HD2>VII. Additional Precautions
</HD2>
<P>A. Store BD in tightly closed containers in a cool, well-ventilated area and take all necessary precautions to avoid any explosion hazard.
</P>
<P>B. Non-sparking tools must be used to open and close metal containers. These containers must be effectively grounded.
</P>
<P>C. Do not incinerate BD cartridges, tanks or other containers.
</P>
<P>D. Employers must advise employees of all areas and operations where exposure to BD might occur.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1051—Medical Screening and Surveillance for 1,3-Butadiene (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Basis for Medical Screening and Surveillance Requirements
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Route of Entry Inhalation
</HD3>
<HD3>B. Toxicology
</HD3>
<P>Inhalation of BD has been linked to an increased risk of cancer, damage to the reproductive organs, and fetotoxicity. Butadiene can be converted via oxidation to epoxybutene and diepoxybutane, two genotoxic metabolites that may play a role in the expression of BD's toxic effects.
</P>
<P>BD has been tested for carcinogenicity in mice and rats. Both species responded to BD exposure by developing cancer at multiple primary organ sites. Early deaths in mice were caused by malignant lymphomas, primarily lymphocytic type, originating in the thymus.
</P>
<P>Mice exposed to BD have developed ovarian or testicular atrophy. Sperm head morphology tests also revealed abnormal sperm in mice exposed to BD; lethal mutations were found in a dominant lethal test. In light of these results in animals, the possibility that BD may adversely affect the reproductive systems of male and female workers must be considered.
</P>
<P>Additionally, anemia has been observed in animals exposed to butadiene. In some cases, this anemia appeared to be a primary response to exposure; in other cases, it may have been secondary to a neoplastic response.
</P>
<HD3>C. Epidemiology
</HD3>
<P>Epidemiologic evidence demonstrates that BD exposure poses an increased risk of leukemia. Mild alterations of hematologic parameters have also been observed in synthetic rubber workers exposed to BD.
</P>
<HD2>II. Potential Adverse Health Effects
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Acute
</HD3>
<P>Skin contact with liquid BD causes characteristic burns or frostbite. BD is gaseous form can irritate the eyes, nasal passages, throat, and lungs. Blurred vision, coughing, and drowsiness may also occur. Effects are mild at 2,000 ppm and pronounced at 8,000 ppm for exposures occurring over the full workshift.
</P>
<P>At very high concentrations in air, BD is an anesthetic, causing narcosis, respiratory paralysis, unconsciousness, and death. Such concentrations are unlikely, however, except in an extreme emergency because BD poses an explosion hazard at these levels.
</P>
<HD3>B. Chronic
</HD3>
<P>The principal adverse health effects of concern are BD-induced lymphoma, leukemia and potential reproductive toxicity. Anemia and other changes in the peripheral blood cells may be indicators of excessive exposure to BD.
</P>
<HD3>C. Reproductive
</HD3>
<P>Workers may be concerned about the possibility that their BD exposure may be affecting their ability to procreate a healthy child. For workers with high exposures to BD, especially those who have experienced difficulties in conceiving, miscarriages, or stillbirths, appropriate medical and laboratory evaluation of fertility may be necessary to determine if BD is having any adverse effect on the reproductive system or on the health of the fetus.
</P>
<HD2>III. Medical Screening Components At-A-Glance
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Health Questionnaire
</HD3>
<P>The most important goal of the health questionnaire is to elicit information from the worker regarding potential signs or symptoms generally related to leukemia or other blood abnormalities. Therefore, physicians or other licensed health care professionals should be aware of the presenting symptoms and signs of lymphohematopoietic disorders and cancers, as well as the procedures necessary to confirm or exclude such diagnoses. Additionally, the health questionnaire will assist with the identification of workers at greatest risk of developing leukemia or adverse reproductive effects from their exposures to BD.
</P>
<P>Workers with a history of reproductive difficulties or a personal or family history of immune deficiency syndromes, blood dyscrasias, lymphoma, or leukemia, and those who are or have been exposed to medicinal drugs or chemicals known to affect the hematopoietic or lymphatic systems may be at higher risk from their exposure to BD. After the initial administration, the health questionnaire must be updated annually.
</P>
<HD3>B. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
</HD3>
<P>The medical screening and surveillance program requires an annual CBC, with differential and platelet count, to be provided for each employee with BD exposure. This test is to be performed on a blood sample obtained by phlebotomy of the venous system or, if technically feasible, from a fingerstick sample of capillary blood. The sample is to be analyzed by an accredited laboratory.
</P>
<P>Abnormalities in a CBC may be due to a number of different etiologies. The concern for workers exposed to BD includes, but is not limited to, timely identification of lymphohematopoietic cancers, such as leukemia and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Abnormalities of portions of the CBC are identified by comparing an individual's results to those of an established range of normal values for males and females. A substantial change in any individual employee's CBC may also be viewed as “abnormal” for that individual even if all measurements fall within the population-based range of normal values. It is suggested that a flowsheet for laboratory values be included in each employee's medical record so that comparisons and trends in annual CBCs can be easily made.
</P>
<P>A determination of the clinical significance of an abnormal CBC shall be the responsibility of the examining physician, other licensed health care professional, or medical specialist to whom the employee is referred. Ideally, an abnormal CBC should be compared to previous CBC measurements for the same employee, when available. Clinical common sense may dictate that a CBC value that is very slightly outside the normal range does not warrant medical concern. A CBC abnormality may also be the result of a temporary physical stressor, such as a transient viral illness, blood donation, or menorrhagia, or laboratory error. In these cases, the CBC should be repeated in a timely fashion, i.e., within 6 weeks, to verify that return to the normal range has occurred. A clinically significant abnormal CBC should result in removal of the employee from further exposure to BD. Transfer of the employee to other work duties in a BD-free environment would be the preferred recommendation.
</P>
<HD3>C. Physical Examination
</HD3>
<P>The medical screening and surveillance program requires an initial physical examination for workers exposed to BD; this examination is repeated once every three years. The initial physical examination should assess each worker's baseline general health and rule out clinical signs of medical conditions that may be caused by or aggravated by occupational BD exposure. The physical examination should be directed at identification of signs of lymphohematopoietic disorders, including lymph node enlargement, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly.
</P>
<P>Repeated physical examinations should update objective clinical findings that could be indicative of interim development of a lymphohematopoietic disorder, such as lymphoma, leukemia, or other blood abnormality. Physical examinations may also be provided on an as needed basis in order to follow up on a positive answer on the health questionnaire, or in response to an abnormal CBC. Physical examination of workers who will no longer be working in jobs with BD exposure are intended to rule out lymphohematopoietic disorders.
</P>
<P>The need for physical examinations for workers concerned about adverse reproductive effects from their exposure to BD should be identified by the physician or other licensed health care professional and provided accordingly. For these workers, such consultations and examinations may relate to developmental toxicity and reproductive capacity.
</P>
<P>Physical examination of workers acutely exposed to significant levels of BD should be especially directed at the respiratory system, eyes, sinuses, skin, nervous system, and any region associated with particular complaints. If the worker has received a severe acute exposure, hospitalization may be required to assure proper medical management. Since this type of exposure may place workers at greater risk of blood abnormalities, a CBC must be obtained within 48 hours and repeated at one, two, and three months.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1051—Sampling and Analytical Method for 1,3-Butadiene (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P><I>OSHA Method No.:</I> 56.
</P>
<P><I>Matrix:</I> Air.
</P>
<P><I>Target concentration:</I> 1 ppm (2.21 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>)
</P>
<P><I>Procedure:</I> Air samples are collected by drawing known volumes of air through sampling tubes containing charcoal adsorbent which has been coated with 4-tert-butylcatechol. The samples are desorbed with carbon disulfide and then analyzed by gas chromatography using a flame ionization detector.
</P>
<P><I>Recommended sampling rate and air volume:</I> 0.05 L/min and 3 L.
</P>
<P><I>Detection limit of the overall procedure:</I> 90 ppb (200 ug/m
<SU>3</SU>) (based on 3 L air volume).
</P>
<P><I>Reliable quantitation limit:</I> 155 ppb (343 ug/m
<SU>3</SU>) (based on 3 L air volume).
</P>
<P><I>Standard error of estimate at the target concentration:</I> 6.5%.
</P>
<P><I>Special requirements:</I> The sampling tubes must be coated with 4-tert-butylcatechol. Collected samples should be stored in a freezer.
</P>
<P><I>Status of method:</I> A sampling and analytical method has been subjected to the established evaluation procedures of the Organic Methods Evaluation Branch, OSHA Analytical Laboratory, Salt Lake City, Utah 84165.
</P>
<HD2>1. Background
</HD2>
<P>This work was undertaken to develop a sampling and analytical procedure for BD at 1 ppm. The current method recommended by OSHA for collecting BD uses activated coconut shell charcoal as the sampling medium (Ref. 5.2). This method was found to be inadequate for use at low BD levels because of sample instability.
</P>
<P>The stability of samples has been significantly improved through the use of a specially cleaned charcoal which is coated with 4-tert-butylcatechol (TBC). TBC is a polymerization inhibitor for BD (Ref. 5.3).
</P>
<HD2>1.1.1 Toxic effects
</HD2>
<P>Symptoms of human exposure to BD include irritation of the eyes, nose and throat. It can also cause coughing, drowsiness and fatigue. Dermatitis and frostbite can result from skin exposure to liquid BD. (Ref. 5.1)
</P>
<P>NIOSH recommends that BD be handled in the workplace as a potential occupational carcinogen. This recommendation is based on two inhalation studies that resulted in cancers at multiple sites in rats and in mice. BD has also demonstrated mutagenic activity in the presence of a liver microsomal activating system. It has also been reported to have adverse reproductive effects. (Ref. 5.1)
</P>
<HD2>1.1.2. Potential workplace exposure
</HD2>
<P>About 90% of the annual production of BD is used to manufacture styrene-butadiene rubber and Polybutadiene rubber. Other uses include: Polychloroprene rubber, acrylonitrile butadiene-stryene resins, nylon intermediates, styrene-butadiene latexes, butadiene polymers, thermoplastic elastomers, nitrile resins, methyl methacrylate-butadiene styrene resins and chemical intermediates. (Ref. 5.1)
</P>
<HD2>1.1.3. Physical properties (Ref. 5.1)
</HD2>
<P>CAS No.: 106-99-0
</P>
<P>Molecular weight: 54.1
</P>
<P>Appearance: Colorless gas
</P>
<P>Boiling point: −4.41 °C (760 mm Hg)
</P>
<P>Freezing point: −108.9 °C
</P>
<P>Vapor pressure: 2 atm @ 15.3 °C; 5 atm @ 47 °C
</P>
<P>Explosive limits: 2 to 11.5% (by volume in air)
</P>
<P>Odor threshold: 0.45 ppm
</P>
<P>Structural formula: H<E T="52">2</E> C:CHCH:CH<E T="52">2</E>
</P>
<P>Synonyms: BD; biethylene; bivinyl; butadiene; divinyl; buta-1,3-diene; alpha-gamma-butadiene; erythrene; NCI-C50602; pyrrolylene; vinylethylene.
</P>
<HD2>1.2. Limit defining parameters
</HD2>
<P>The analyte air concentrations listed throughout this method are based on an air volume of 3 L and a desorption volume of 1 mL. Air concentrations listed in ppm are referenced to 25 °C and 760 mm Hg.
</P>
<HD2>1.2.1. Detection limit of the analytical procedure
</HD2>
<P>The detection limit of the analytical procedure was 304 pg per injection. This was the amount of BD which gave a response relative to the interferences present in a standard.
</P>
<HD2>1.2.2. Detection limit of the overall procedure
</HD2>
<P>The detection limit of the overall procedure was 0.60 µg per sample (90 ppb or 200 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>). This amount was determined graphically. It was the amount of analyte which, when spiked on the sampling device, would allow recovery approximately equal to the detection limit of the analytical procedure.
</P>
<HD2>1.2.3. Reliable quantitation limit
</HD2>
<P>The reliable quantitation limit was 1.03 µg per sample (155 ppb or 343 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>). This was the smallest amount of analyte which could be quantitated within the limits of a recovery of at least 75% and a precision (±1.96 SD) of ±25% or better.
</P>
<HD2>1.2.4. Sensitivity 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The reliable quantitation limit and detection limits reported in the method are based upon optimization of the instrument for the smallest possible amount of analyte. When the target concentration of an analyte is exceptionally higher than these limits, they may not be attainable at the routine operation parameters.</P></FTNT>
<P>The sensitivity of the analytical procedure over a concentration range representing 0.6 to 2 times the target concentration, based on the recommended air volume, was 387 area units per µg/mL. This value was determined from the slope of the calibration curve. The sensitivity may vary with the particular instrument used in the analysis.
</P>
<HD2>1.2.5. Recovery
</HD2>
<P>The recovery of BD from samples used in storage tests remained above 77% when the samples were stored at ambient temperature and above 94% when the samples were stored at refrigerated temperature. These values were determined from regression lines which were calculated from the storage data. The recovery of the analyte from the collection device must be at least 75% following storage.
</P>
<HD2>1.2.6. Precision (analytical method only)
</HD2>
<P>The pooled coefficient of variation obtained from replicate determinations of analytical standards over the range of 0.6 to 2 times the target concentration was 0.011.
</P>
<HD2>1.2.7. Precision (overall procedure)
</HD2>
<P>The precision at the 95% confidence level for the refrigerated temperature storage test was ±12.7%. This value includes an additional ±5% for sampling error. The overall procedure must provide results at the target concentrations that are ±25% at the 95% confidence level.
</P>
<HD2>1.2.8. Reproducibility
</HD2>
<P>Samples collected from a controlled test atmosphere and a draft copy of this procedure were given to a chemist unassociated with this evaluation. The average recovery was 97.2% and the standard deviation was 6.2%.
</P>
<HD2>2. Sampling procedure
</HD2>
<HD2>2.1. Apparatus
</HD2>
<P><I>2.1.1.</I> Samples are collected by use of a personal sampling pump that can be calibrated to within ±5% of the recommended 0.05 L/min sampling rate with the sampling tube in line.
</P>
<P><I>2.1.2.</I> Samples are collected with laboratory prepared sampling tubes. The sampling tube is constructed of silane-treated glass and is about 5-cm long. The ID is 4 mm and the OD is 6 mm. One end of the tube is tapered so that a glass wool end plug will hold the contents of the tube in place during sampling. The opening in the tapered end of the sampling tube is at least one-half the ID of the tube (2 mm). The other end of the sampling tube is open to its full 4-mm ID to facilitate packing of the tube. Both ends of the tube are fire-polished for safety. The tube is packed with 2 sections of pretreated charcoal which has been coated with TBC. The tube is packed with a 50-mg backup section, located nearest the tapered end, and with a 100-mg sampling section of charcoal. The two sections of coated adsorbent are separated and retained with small plugs of silanized glass wool. Following packing, the sampling tubes are sealed with two 
<FR>7/32</FR> inch OD plastic end caps. Instructions for the pretreatment and coating of the charcoal are presented in Section 4.1 of this method.
</P>
<HD2>2.2. Reagents
</HD2>
<P>None required.
</P>
<HD2>2.3. Technique
</HD2>
<P><I>2.3.1.</I> Properly label the sampling tube before sampling and then remove the plastic end caps.
</P>
<P><I>2.3.2.</I> Attach the sampling tube to the pump using a section of flexible plastic tubing such that the larger front section of the sampling tube is exposed directly to the atmosphere. Do not place any tubing ahead of the sampling tube. The sampling tube should be attached in the worker's breathing zone in a vertical manner such that it does not impede work performance.
</P>
<P><I>2.3.3.</I> After sampling for the appropriate time, remove the sampling tube from the pump and then seal the tube with plastic end caps. Wrap the tube lengthwise.
</P>
<P><I>2.3.4.</I> Include at least one blank for each sampling set. The blank should be handled in the same manner as the samples with the exception that air is not drawn through it.
</P>
<P><I>2.3.5.</I> List any potential interferences on the sample data sheet.
</P>
<P><I>2.3.6.</I> The samples require no special shipping precautions under normal conditions. The samples should be refrigerated if they are to be exposed to higher than normal ambient temperatures. If the samples are to be stored before they are shipped to the laboratory, they should be kept in a freezer. The samples should be placed in a freezer upon receipt at the laboratory.
</P>
<HD2>2.4. Breakthrough
</HD2>
<P>(Breakthrough was defined as the relative amount of analyte found on the backup section of the tube in relation to the total amount of analyte collected on the sampling tube. Five-percent breakthrough occurred after sampling a test atmosphere containing 2.0 ppm BD for 90 min at 0.05 L/min. At the end of this time 4.5 L of air had been sampled and 20.1 µg of the analyte was collected. The relative humidity of the sampled air was 80% at 23 °C.)
</P>
<P>Breakthrough studies have shown that the recommended sampling procedure can be used at air concentrations higher than the target concentration. The sampling time, however, should be reduced to 45 min if both the expected BD level and the relative humidity of the sampled air are high.
</P>
<HD2>2.5. Desorption efficiency
</HD2>
<P>The average desorption efficiency for BD from TBC coated charcoal over the range from 0.6 to 2 times the target concentration was 96.4%. The efficiency was essentially constant over the range studied.
</P>
<HD2>2.6. Recommended air volume and sampling rate
</HD2>
<P><I>2.6.1.</I> The recommended air volume is 3L.
</P>
<P><I>2.6.2.</I> The recommended sampling rate is 0.05 L/min for 1 hour.
</P>
<HD2>2.7. Interferences
</HD2>
<P>There are no known interferences to the sampling method.
</P>
<HD2>2.8. Safety precautions
</HD2>
<P><I>2.8.1.</I> Attach the sampling equipment to the worker in such a manner that it will not interfere with work performance or safety.
</P>
<P><I>2.8.2.</I> Follow all safety practices that apply to the work area being sampled.
</P>
<HD2>3. Analytical procedure
</HD2>
<HD2>3.1. Apparatus
</HD2>
<P><I>3.1.1.</I> A gas chromatograph (GC), equipped with a flame ionization detector (FID). 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> A Hewlett-Packard Model 5840A GC was used for this evaluation. Injections were performed using a Hewlett-Packard Model 7671A automatic sampler.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>3.1.2.</I> A GC column capable of resolving the analytes from any interference. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> A 20-ft × 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch OD stainless steel GC column containing 20% FFAP on 80/100 mesh Chromabsorb W-AW-DMCS was used for this evaluation.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>3.1.3.</I> Vials, glass 2-mL with Teflon-lined caps.
</P>
<P><I>3.1.4.</I> Disposable Pasteur-type pipets, volumetric flasks, pipets and syringes for preparing samples and standards, making dilutions and performing injections.
</P>
<HD2>3.2. Reagents
</HD2>
<P><I>3.2.1.</I> Carbon disulfide. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Fisher Scientific Company A.C.S. Reagent Grade solvent was used in this evaluation.</P></FTNT>
<P>The benzene contaminant that was present in the carbon disulfide was used as an internal standard (ISTD) in this evaluation.
</P>
<P><I>3.2.2.</I> Nitrogen, hydrogen and air, GC grade.
</P>
<P><I>3.2.3.</I> BD of known high purity. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Matheson Gas Products, CP Grade 1,3-butadiene was used in this study.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>3.3. Standard preparation
</HD2>
<P><I>3.3.1.</I> Prepare standards by diluting known volumes of BD gas with carbon disulfide. This can be accomplished by injecting the appropriate volume of BD into the headspace above the 1-mL of carbon disulfide contained in sealed 2-mL vial. Shake the vial after the needle is removed from the septum. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> A standard containing 7.71 µg/mL (at ambient temperature and pressure) was prepared by diluting 4 µL of the gas with 1-mL of carbon disulfide.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>3.3.2.</I> The mass of BD gas used to prepare standards can be determined by use of the following equations:
</P>
<FP-2>MV = (760/BP)(273 + t)/(273)(22.41)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>MV = ambient molar volume
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BP = ambient barometric pressure
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = ambient temperature
</FP-2>
<FP-2>µg/µL = 54.09/MV
</FP-2>
<FP-2>µg/standard = (µg/µL)(µL) BD used to prepare the standard
</FP-2>
<HD2>3.4. Sample preparation
</HD2>
<P><I>3.4.1.</I> Transfer the 100-mg section of the sampling tube to a 2-mL vial. Place the 50-mg section in a separate vial. If the glass wool plugs contain a significant amount of charcoal, place them with the appropriate sampling tube section.
</P>
<P><I>3.4.2.</I> Add 1-mL of carbon disulfide to each vial.
</P>
<P><I>3.4.3.</I> Seal the vials with Teflon-lined caps and then allow them to desorb for one hour. Shake the vials by hand vigorously several times during the desorption period.
</P>
<P><I>3.4.4.</I> If it is not possible to analyze the samples within 4 hours, separate the carbon disulfide from the charcoal, using a disposable Pasteur-type pipet, following the one hour. This separation will improve the stability of desorbed samples.
</P>
<P><I>3.4.5.</I> Save the used sampling tubes to be cleaned and repacked with fresh adsorbent.
</P>
<HD2>3.5. Analysis
</HD2>
<P><I>3.5.1.</I> GC Conditions
</P>
<P>Column temperature: 95 °C
</P>
<P>Injector temperature: 180 °C
</P>
<P>Detector temperature: 275 °C
</P>
<P>Carrier gas flow rate: 30 mL/min
</P>
<P>Injection volume: 0.80 µL
</P>
<P>GC column: 20-ft × 
<FR>1/8</FR>-in OD stainless steel GC column containing 20%
</P>
<P>FFAP on 80/100 Chromabsorb W-AW-DMCS.
</P>
<P><I>3.5.2.</I> Chromatogram. See Section 4.2.
</P>
<P><I>3.5.3.</I> Use a suitable method, such as electronic or peak heights, to measure detector response.
</P>
<P><I>3.5.4.</I> Prepare a calibration curve using several standard solutions of different concentrations. Prepare the calibration curve daily. Program the integrator to report the results in µg/mL.
</P>
<P><I>3.5.5.</I> Bracket sample concentrations with standards.
</P>
<HD2>3.6. Interferences (analytical)
</HD2>
<P><I>3.6.1.</I> Any compound with the same general retention time as the analyte and which also gives a detector response is a potential interference. Possible interferences should be reported by the industrial hygienist to the laboratory with submitted samples.
</P>
<P><I>3.6.2.</I> GC parameters (temperature, column, etc.) may be changed to circumvent interferences.
</P>
<P><I>3.6.3.</I> A useful means of structure designation is GC/MS. It is recommended that this procedure be used to confirm samples whenever possible.
</P>
<HD2>3.7. Calculations
</HD2>
<P><I>3.7.1.</I> Results are obtained by use of calibration curves. Calibration curves are prepared by plotting detector response against concentration for each standard. The best line through the data points is determined by curve fitting.
</P>
<P><I>3.7.2.</I> The concentration, in ug/mL, for a particular sample is determined by comparing its detector response to the calibration curve. If any analyte is found on the backup section, this amount is added to the amount found on the front section. Blank corrections should be performed before adding the results together.
</P>
<P><I>3.7.3.</I> The BD air concentration can be expressed using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>mg/m
<SU>3</SU> = (A)(B)/(C)(D)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A = µg/mL from Section 3.7.2
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = volume
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = L of air sampled
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D = efficiency
</FP-2>
<P><I>3.7.4.</I> The following equation can be used to convert results in mg/m
<SU>3</SU> to ppm:
</P>
<FP-2>ppm = (mg/m
<SU>3</SU>)(24.46)/54.09
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>mg/m
<SU>3</SU> = result from Section 3.7.3.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>24.46 = molar volume of an ideal gas at 760 mm Hg and 25 °C.
</FP-2>
<HD2>3.8. Safety precautions (analytical)
</HD2>
<P><I>3.8.1.</I> Avoid skin contact and inhalation of all chemicals.
</P>
<P><I>3.8.2.</I> Restrict the use of all chemicals to a fume hood whenever possible.
</P>
<P><I>3.8.3.</I> Wear safety glasses and a lab coat in all laboratory areas.
</P>
<HD2>4. Additional Information
</HD2>
<HD2>4.1. A procedure to prepare specially cleaned charcoal coated with TBC
</HD2>
<HD2>4.1.1. Apparatus
</HD2>
<P><I>4.1.1.1.</I> Magnetic stirrer and stir bar.
</P>
<P><I>4.1.1.2.</I> Tube furnace capable of maintaining a temperature of 700 °C and equipped with a quartz tube that can hold 30 g of charcoal. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> A Lindberg Type 55035 Tube furnace was used in this evaluation.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>4.1.1.3.</I> A means to purge nitrogen gas through the charcoal inside the quartz tube.
</P>
<P><I>4.1.1.4.</I> Water bath capable of maintaining a temperature of 60 °C.
</P>
<P><I>4.1.1.5.</I> Miscellaneous laboratory equipment: One-liter vacuum flask, 1-L Erlenmeyer flask, 350-M1 Buchner funnel with a coarse fitted disc, 4-oz brown bottle, rubber stopper, Teflon tape etc.
</P>
<HD2>4.1.2. Reagents
</HD2>
<P><I>4.1.2.1.</I> Phosphoric acid, 10% by weight, in water. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Baker Analyzed” Reagent grade was diluted with water for use in this evaluation.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>4.1.2.2. </I>4-tert-Butylcatechol (TBC). 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> The Aldrich Chemical Company 99% grade was used in this evaluation.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>4.1.2.3.</I> Specially cleaned coconut shell charcoal, 20/40 mesh. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Specially cleaned charcoal was obtained from Supelco, Inc. for use in this evaluation. The cleaning process used by Supelco is proprietary.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>4.1.2.4.</I> Nitrogen gas, GC grade.
</P>
<HD2>4.1.3. Procedure
</HD2>
<P>Weigh 30g of charcoal into a 500-mL Erlenmeyer flask. Add about 250 mL of 10% phosphoric acid to the flask and then swirl the mixture. Stir the mixture for 1 hour using a magnetic stirrer. Filter the mixture using a fitted Buchner funnel. Wash the charcoal several times with 250-mL portions of deionized water to remove all traces of the acid. Transfer the washed charcoal to the tube furnace quartz tube. Place the quartz tube in the furnace and then connect the nitrogen gas purge to the tube. Fire the charcoal to 700 °C. Maintain that temperature for at least 1 hour. After the charcoal has cooled to room temperature, transfer it to a tared beaker. Determine the weight of the charcoal and then add an amount of TBC which is 10% of the charcoal, by weight.
</P>
<P>CAUTION-TBC is toxic and should only be handled in a fume hood while wearing gloves.
</P>
<P>Carefully mix the contents of the beaker and then transfer the mixture to a 4-oz bottle. Stopper the bottle with a clean rubber stopper which has been wrapped with Teflon tape. Clamp the bottle in a water bath so that the water level is above the charcoal level. Gently heat the bath to 60 °C and then maintain that temperature for 1 hour. Cool the charcoal to room temperature and then transfer the coated charcoal to a suitable container.
</P>
<P>The coated charcoal is now ready to be packed into sampling tubes. The sampling tubes should be stored in a sealed container to prevent contamination. Sampling tubes should be stored in the dark at room temperature. The sampling tubes should be segregated by coated adsorbent lot number.
</P>
<HD2>4.2 Chromatograms
</HD2>
<P>The chromatograms were obtained using the recommended analytical method. The chart speed was set at 1 cm/min for the first three min and then at 0.2 cm/min for the time remaining in the analysis.
</P>
<P>The peak which elutes just before BD is a reaction product between an impurity on the charcoal and TBC. This peak is always present, but it is easily resolved from the analyte. The peak which elutes immediately before benzene is an oxidation product of TBC.
</P>
<HD2>5. References
</HD2>
<P><I>5.1. </I>“Current Intelligence Bulletin 41, 1,3-Butadiene”, U.S. Dept. of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Center for Disease Control, NIOSH.
</P>
<P><I>5.2. </I>“NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods”, 2nd ed; U.S. Dept. of Health Education and Welfare, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health: Cincinnati, OH. 1977, Vol. 2, Method No. S91 DHEW (NIOSH) Publ. (US), No. 77-157-B.
</P>
<P><I>5.3.</I> Hawley, G.C., Ed. “The Condensed Chemical Dictionary”, 8th ed.; Van Nostrand Rienhold Company: New York, 1971; 139.5.4. <I>Chem. Eng. News</I> (June 10, 1985), (63), 22-66.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1910.1051 [Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1910.1051—Medical Questionnaires (Non-Mandatory)</HD1></EXTRACT>
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<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 56831, Nov. 4, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 1294, Jan. 8, 1998; 67 FR 67965, Nov. 7, 2002; 70 FR 1143, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16672, 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 73 FR 75587, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17785, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 9313, Feb. 8, 2013; 84 FR 21527, May 14, 2019]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1052" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1052   Methylene chloride.</HEAD>
<P>This occupational health standard establishes requirements for employers to control occupational exposure to methylene chloride (MC). Employees exposed to MC are at increased risk of developing cancer, adverse effects on the heart, central nervous system and liver, and skin or eye irritation. Exposure may occur through inhalation, by absorption through the skin, or through contact with the skin. MC is a solvent which is used in many different types of work activities, such as paint stripping, polyurethane foam manufacturing, and cleaning and degreasing. Under the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, each covered employer must make an initial determination of each employee's exposure to MC. If the employer determines that employees are exposed below the action level, the only other provisions of this section that apply are that a record must be made of the determination, the employees must receive information and training under paragraph (l) of this section and, where appropriate, employees must be protected from contact with liquid MC under paragraph (h) of this section. The provisions of the MC standard are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to all occupational exposures to methylene chloride (MC), Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 75-09-2, in general industry, construction and shipyard employment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne MC of 12.5 parts per million (ppm) calculated as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer and required by work duties to be present in regulated areas, or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe monitoring and measuring procedures under paragraph (d) of this section, or any other person authorized by the OSH Act or regulations issued under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence, such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment, which results, or is likely to result in an uncontrolled release of MC. If an incidental release of MC can be controlled by employees such as maintenance personnel at the time of release and in accordance with the leak/spill provisions required by paragraph (f) of this section, it is not considered an emergency as defined by this standard.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means exposure to airborne MC which occurs or would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protection.
</P>
<P><I>Methylene chloride</I> (MC) means an organic compound with chemical formula, CH<E T="52">2</E> Cl<E T="52">2</E>. Its Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number is 75-09-2. Its molecular weight is 84.9 g/mole.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional</I> is an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.</I>, license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the health care services required by paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area, demarcated by the employer, where an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of MC exceeds or can reasonably be expected to exceed either the 8-hour TWA PEL or the STEL.
</P>
<P><I>Symptom</I> means central nervous system effects such as headaches, disorientation, dizziness, fatigue, and decreased attention span; skin effects such as chapping, erythema, cracked skin, or skin burns; and cardiac effects such as chest pain or shortness of breath.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this methylene chloride standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits (PELs)</I>—(1) <I>Eight-hour time-weighted average (TWA) PEL.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of MC in excess of twenty-five parts of MC per million parts of air (25 ppm) as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short-term exposure limit (STEL).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of MC in excess of one hundred and twenty-five parts of MC per million parts of air (125 ppm) as determined over a sampling period of fifteen minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Characterization of employee exposure.</I> (i) Where MC is present in the workplace, the employer shall determine each employee's exposure by either:
</P>
<P>(A) Taking a personal breathing zone air sample of each employee's exposure; or
</P>
<P>(B) Taking personal breathing zone air samples that are representative of each employee's exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Representative samples.</I> The employer may consider personal breathing zone air samples to be representative of employee exposures when they are taken as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>8-hour TWA PEL.</I> The employer has taken one or more personal breathing zone air samples for at least one employee in each job classification in a work area during every work shift, and the employee sampled is expected to have the highest MC exposure.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Short-term exposure limits.</I> The employer has taken one or more personal breathing zone air samples which indicate the highest likely 15-minute exposures during such operations for at least one employee in each job classification in the work area during every work shift, and the employee sampled is expected to have the highest MC exposure.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Exception.</I> Personal breathing zone air samples taken during one work shift may be used to represent employee exposures on other work shifts where the employer can document that the tasks performed and conditions in the workplace are similar across shifts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accuracy of monitoring.</I> The employer shall ensure that the methods used to perform exposure monitoring produce results that are accurate to a confidence level of 95 percent, and are:
</P>
<P>(A) Within plus or minus 25 percent for airborne concentrations of MC above the 8-hour TWA PEL or the STEL; or
</P>
<P>(B) Within plus or minus 35 percent for airborne concentrations of MC at or above the action level but at or below the 8-hour TWA PEL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial determination.</I> Each employer whose employees are exposed to MC shall perform initial exposure monitoring to determine each affected employee's exposure, except under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Where objective data demonstrate that MC cannot be released in the workplace in airborne concentrations at or above the action level or above the STEL. The objective data shall represent the highest MC exposures likely to occur under reasonably foreseeable conditions of processing, use, or handling. The employer shall document the objective data exemption as specified in paragraph (m) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer has performed exposure monitoring within 12 months prior to April 10, 1997 and that exposure monitoring meets all other requirements of this section, and was conducted under conditions substantially equivalent to existing conditions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Where employees are exposed to MC on fewer than 30 days per year (e.g., on a construction site), and the employer has measurements by direct-reading instruments which give immediate results (such as a detector tube) and which provide sufficient information regarding employee exposures to determine what control measures are necessary to reduce exposures to acceptable levels.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring.</I> Where the initial determination shows employee exposures at or above the action level or above the STEL, the employer shall establish an exposure monitoring program for periodic monitoring of employee exposure to MC in accordance with Table 1:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Initial Determination Exposure Scenarios and Their Associated Monitoring Frequencies
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exposure scenario
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required monitoring activity
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below the action level and at or below the STEL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No 8-hour TWA or STEL monitoring required.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below the action level and above the STEL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No 8-hour TWA monitoring required; monitor STEL exposures every three months.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At or above the action level, at or below the TWA, and at or below the STEL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monitor 8-hour TWA exposures every six months.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At or above the action level, at or below the TWA, and above the STEL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monitor 8-hour TWA exposures every six months and monitor STEL exposures every three months.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above the TWA and at or below the STEL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monitor 8-hour TWA exposures every three months. In addition, without regard to the last sentence of the note to paragraph (d)(3), the following employers must monitor STEL exposures every three months until either the date by which they must achieve the 8-hour TWA PEL under paragraph (n) of this section or the date by which they in fact achieve the 8-hour TWA PEL, whichever comes first: employers engaged in polyurethane foam manufacturing; foam fabrication; furniture refinishing; general aviation aircraft stripping; product formulation; use of MC-based adhesives for boat building and repair, recreational vehicle manufacture, van conversion, or upholstery; and use of MC in construction work for restoration and preservation of buildings, painting and paint removal, cabinet making, or floor refinishing and resurfacing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above the TWA and above the STEL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monitor 8-hour TWA exposures and STEL exposures every three months.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>The employer may decrease the frequency of 8-hour TWA exposure monitoring to every six months when at least two consecutive measurements taken at least seven days apart show exposures to be at or below the 8-hour TWA PEL. The employer may discontinue the periodic 8-hour TWA monitoring for employees where at least two consecutive measurements taken at least seven days apart are below the action level. The employer may discontinue the periodic STEL monitoring for employees where at least two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart are at or below the STEL.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall perform exposure monitoring when a change in workplace conditions indicates that employee exposure may have increased. Examples of situations that may require additional monitoring include changes in production, process, control equipment, or work practices, or a leak, rupture, or other breakdown.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where exposure monitoring is performed due to a spill, leak, rupture or equipment breakdown, the employer shall clean-up the MC and perform the appropriate repairs before monitoring.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> (i) The employer shall, within 15 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results in writing, either individually or by posting of results in an appropriate location that is accessible to affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever monitoring results indicate that employee exposure is above the 8-hour TWA PEL or the STEL, the employer shall describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce employee exposure to or below the 8-hour TWA PEL or STEL and the schedule for completion of this action.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(i) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to MC conducted in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to MC requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide, at no cost to the observer(s), and the observer(s) shall be required to use such clothing and equipment and shall comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) The employer shall establish a regulated area wherever an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of MC exceeds or can reasonably be expected to exceed either the 8-hour TWA PEL or the STEL.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall limit access to regulated areas to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall supply a respirator, selected in accordance with paragraph (h)(3) of this section, to each person who enters a regulated area and shall require each affected employee to use that respirator whenever MC exposures are likely to exceed the 8-hour TWA PEL or STEL.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>An employer who has implemented all feasible engineering, work practice and administrative controls (as required in paragraph (f) of this section), and who has established a regulated area (as required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section) where MC exposure can be reliably predicted to exceed the 8-hour TWA PEL or the STEL only on certain days (for example, because of work or process schedule) would need to have affected employees use respirators in that regulated area only on those days.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) The employer shall ensure that, within a regulated area, employees do not engage in non-work activities which may increase dermal or oral MC exposure.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure that while employees are wearing respirators, they do not engage in activities (such as taking medication or chewing gum or tobacco) which interfere with respirator seal or performance.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall demarcate regulated areas from the rest of the workplace in any manner that adequately establishes and alerts employees to the boundaries of the area and minimizes the number of authorized employees exposed to MC within the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(7) An employer at a multi-employer worksite who establishes a regulated area shall communicate the access restrictions and locations of these areas to all other employers with work operations at that worksite.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> The employer shall institute and maintain the effectiveness of engineering controls and work practices to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs except to the extent that the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever the feasible engineering controls and work practices which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the 8-TWA PEL or STEL, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibition of rotation.</I> The employer shall not implement a schedule of employee rotation as a means of compliance with the PELs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Leak and spill detection.</I> (i) The employer shall implement procedures to detect leaks of MC in the workplace. In work areas where spills may occur, the employer shall make provisions to contain any spills and to safely dispose of any MC-contaminated waste materials.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that all incidental leaks are repaired and that incidental spills are cleaned promptly by employees who use the appropriate personal protective equipment and are trained in proper methods of cleanup.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>See appendix A of this section for examples of procedures that satisfy this requirement. Employers covered by this standard may also be subject to the hazardous waste and emergency response provisions contained in 29 CFR 1910.120 (q).</P></NOTE>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods when an employee's exposure to MC exceeds the 8-hour TWA PEL, or STEL (for example, when an employee is using MC in a regulated area).
</P>
<P>(ii) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(iii) A few work operations, such as some maintenance operations and repair activities, for which the employer demonstrates that engineering and work-practice controls are infeasible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the PELs.
</P>
<P>(v) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.13(b) through (m) (except (d)(1)(iii)), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers who provide employees with gas masks with organic-vapor canisters for the purpose of emergency escape must replace the canisters after any emergency use and before the gas masks are returned to service.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> Employers must:
</P>
<P>(i) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate atmosphere-supplying respirator specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134; however, employers must not select or use half masks of any type because MC may cause eye irritation or damage.
</P>
<P>(ii) For emergency escape, provide employees with one of the following respirator options: A self-contained breathing apparatus operated in the continuous-flow or pressure-demand mode; or a gas mask with an organic vapor canister. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical evaluation.</I> Before having an employee use a supplied-air respirator in the negative-pressure mode, or a gas mask with an organic-vapor canister for emergency escape, the employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a physician or other licensed health-care professional (PLHCP) evaluate the employee's ability to use such respiratory protection.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that the PLHCP provides their findings in a written opinion to the employee and the employer.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protective Work Clothing and Equipment.</I> (1) Where needed to prevent MC-induced skin or eye irritation, the employer shall provide clean protective clothing and equipment which is resistant to MC, at no cost to the employee, and shall ensure that each affected employee uses it. Eye and face protection shall meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.133 or 29 CFR 1915.153, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall clean, launder, repair and replace all protective clothing and equipment required by this paragraph as needed to maintain their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall be responsible for the safe disposal of such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>See appendix A for examples of disposal procedures that will satisfy this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Hygiene facilities.</I> (1) If it is reasonably foreseeable that employees' skin may contact solutions containing 0.1 percent or greater MC (for example, through splashes, spills or improper work practices), the employer shall provide conveniently located washing facilities capable of removing the MC, and shall ensure that affected employees use these facilities as needed.
</P>
<P>(2) If it is reasonably foreseeable that an employee's eyes may contact solutions containing 0.1 percent or greater MC (for example through splashes, spills or improper work practices), the employer shall provide appropriate eyewash facilities within the immediate work area for emergency use, and shall ensure that affected employees use those facilities when necessary.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>Affected employees.</I> The employer shall make medical surveillance available for employees who are or may be exposed to MC as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) At or above the action level on 30 or more days per year, or above the 8- hour TWA PEL or the STEL on 10 or more days per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Above the 8-TWA PEL or STEL for any time period where an employee has been identified by a physician or other licensed health care professional as being at risk from cardiac disease or from some other serious MC-related health condition and such employee requests inclusion in the medical surveillance program;
</P>
<P>(iii) During an emergency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs.</I> The employer shall provide all required medical surveillance at no cost to affected employees, without loss of pay and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical personnel.</I> The employer shall ensure that all medical surveillance procedures are performed by a physician or other licensed health care professional, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Frequency of medical surveillance.</I> The employer shall make medical surveillance available to each affected employee as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Initial surveillance.</I> The employer shall provide initial medical surveillance under the schedule provided by paragraph (n)(2)(iii) of this section, or before the time of initial assignment of the employee, whichever is later. The employer need not provide the initial surveillance if medical records show that an affected employee has been provided with medical surveillance that complies with this section within 12 months before April 10, 1997.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Periodic medical surveillance.</I> The employer shall update the medical and work history for each affected employee annually. The employer shall provide periodic physical examinations, including appropriate laboratory surveillance, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For employees 45 years of age or older, within 12 months of the initial surveillance or any subsequent medical surveillance; and
</P>
<P>(B) For employees younger than 45 years of age, within 36 months of the initial surveillance or any subsequent medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Termination of employment or reassignment.</I> When an employee leaves the employer's workplace, or is reassigned to an area where exposure to MC is consistently at or below the action level and STEL, medical surveillance shall be made available if six months or more have elapsed since the last medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Additional surveillance.</I> The employer shall provide additional medical surveillance at frequencies other than those listed above when recommended in the written medical opinion. (For example, the physician or other licensed health care professional may determine an examination is warranted in less than 36 months for employees younger than 45 years of age based upon evaluation of the results of the annual medical and work history.)
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Content of medical surveillance</I>—(i) <I>Medical and work history.</I> The comprehensive medical and work history shall emphasize neurological symptoms, skin conditions, history of hematologic or liver disease, signs or symptoms suggestive of heart disease (angina, coronary artery disease), risk factors for cardiac disease, MC exposures, and work practices and personal protective equipment used during such exposures.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(5)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>See appendix B of this section for an example of a medical and work history format that would satisfy this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Physical examination.</I> Where physical examinations are provided as required above, the physician or other licensed health care professional shall accord particular attention to the lungs, cardiovascular system (including blood pressure and pulse), liver, nervous system, and skin. The physician or other licensed health care professional shall determine the extent and nature of the physical examination based on the health status of the employee and analysis of the medical and work history.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Laboratory surveillance.</I> The physician or other licensed health care professional shall determine the extent of any required laboratory surveillance based on the employee's observed health status and the medical and work history.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(5)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>See appendix B of this section for information regarding medical tests. Laboratory surveillance may include before- and after-shift carboxyhemoglobin determinations, resting ECG, hematocrit, liver function tests and cholesterol levels.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) <I>Other information or reports.</I> The medical surveillance shall also include any other information or reports the physician or other licensed health care professional determines are necessary to assess the employee's health in relation to MC exposure.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Content of emergency medical surveillance.</I> The employer shall ensure that medical surveillance made available when an employee has been exposed to MC in emergency situations includes, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriate emergency treatment and decontamination of the exposed employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Comprehensive physical examination with special emphasis on the nervous system, cardiovascular system, lungs, liver and skin, including blood pressure and pulse;
</P>
<P>(iii) Updated medical and work history, as appropriate for the medical condition of the employee; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Laboratory surveillance, as indicated by the employee's health status.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(6)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>See appendix B for examples of tests which may be appropriate.</P></NOTE>
<P>(7) <I>Additional examinations and referrals.</I> Where the physician or other licensed health care professional determines it is necessary, the scope of the medical examination shall be expanded and the appropriate additional medical surveillance, such as referrals for consultation or examination, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Information provided to the physician or other licensed health care professional.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to a physician or other licensed health care professional who is involved in the diagnosis of MC-induced health effects:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this section including its applicable appendices;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's past, current and anticipated future duties as they relate to the employee's MC exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's former or current exposure levels or, for employees not yet occupationally exposed to MC, the employee's anticipated exposure levels and the frequency and exposure levels anticipated to be associated with emergencies;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective equipment, such as respirators, used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous employment-related medical surveillance of the affected employee which is not otherwise available to the physician or other licensed health care professional.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Written medical opinions.</I> (i) For each physical examination required by this section, the employer shall ensure that the physician or other licensed health care professional provides to the employer and to the affected employee a written opinion regarding the results of that examination within 15 days of completion of the evaluation of medical and laboratory findings, but not more than 30 days after the examination. The written medical opinion shall be limited to the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician or other licensed health care professional's opinion concerning whether exposure to MC may contribute to or aggravate the employee's existing cardiac, hepatic, neurological (including stroke) or dermal disease or whether the employee has any other medical condition(s) that would place the employee's health at increased risk of material impairment from exposure to MC.
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to MC, including removal from MC exposure, or upon the employee's use of respirators, protective clothing, or other protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician or other licensed health care professional that MC is a potential occupational carcinogen, of risk factors for heart disease, and the potential for exacerbation of underlying heart disease by exposure to MC through its metabolism to carbon monoxide; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician or other licensed health care professional of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions resulting from MC exposure which require further explanation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician or other licensed health care professional not to reveal to the employer, orally or in the written opinion, any specific records, findings, and diagnoses that have no bearing on occupational exposure to MC.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>)(9)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>The written medical opinion may also include information and opinions generated to comply with other OSHA health standards.</P></NOTE>
<P>(10) <I>Medical presumption.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (j) of this section, the physician or other licensed health care professional shall presume, unless medical evidence indicates to the contrary, that a medical condition is unlikely to require medical removal from MC exposure if the employee is not exposed to MC above the 8-hour TWA PEL. If the physician or other licensed health care professional recommends removal for an employee exposed below the 8-hour TWA PEL, the physician or other licensed health care professional shall cite specific medical evidence, sufficient to rebut the presumption that exposure below the 8-hour TWA PEL is unlikely to require removal, to support the recommendation. If such evidence is cited by the physician or other licensed health care professional, the employer must remove the employee. If such evidence is not cited by the physician or other licensed health care professional, the employer is not required to remove the employee.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Medical Removal Protection (MRP</I>). (i) Temporary medical removal and return of an employee.
</P>
<P>(A) Except as provided in paragraph (j)(10) of this section, when a medical determination recommends removal because the employee's exposure to MC may contribute to or aggravate the employee's existing cardiac, hepatic, neurological (including stroke), or skin disease, the employer must provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee and either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Transfer the employee to comparable work where methylene chloride exposure is below the action level; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Remove the employee from MC exposure.
</P>
<P>(B) If comparable work is not available and the employer is able to demonstrate that removal and the costs of extending MRP benefits to an additional employee, considering feasibility in relation to the size of the employer's business and the other requirements of this standard, make further reliance on MRP an inappropriate remedy, the employer may retain the additional employee in the existing job until transfer or removal becomes appropriate, provided:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The employer ensures that the employee receives additional medical surveillance, including a physical examination at least every 60 days until transfer or removal occurs; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employer or PLHCP informs the employee of the risk to the employee's health from continued MC exposure.
</P>
<P>(C) The employer shall maintain in effect any job-related protective measures or limitations, other than removal, for as long as a medical determination recommends them to be necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) End of MRP benefits and return of the employee to former job status.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer may cease providing MRP benefits at the earliest of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Six months;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Return of the employee to the employee's former job status following receipt of a medical determination concluding that the employee's exposure to MC no longer will aggravate any cardiac, hepatic, neurological (including stroke), or dermal disease;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Receipt of a medical determination concluding that the employee can never return to MC exposure.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purposes of this paragraph (j), the requirement that an employer return an employee to the employee's former job status is not intended to expand upon or restrict any rights an employee has or would have had, absent temporary medical removal, to a specific job classification or position under the terms of a collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Medical removal protection benefits.</I> (i) For purposes of this paragraph (j), the term medical removal protection benefits means that, for each removal, an employer must maintain for up to six months the earnings, seniority, and other employment rights and benefits of the employee as though the employee had not been removed from MC exposure or transferred to a comparable job.
</P>
<P>(ii) During the period of time that an employee is removed from exposure to MC, the employer may condition the provision of medical removal protection benefits upon the employee's participation in follow-up medical surveillance made available pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a removed employee files a workers' compensation claim for a MC-related disability, the employer shall continue the MRP benefits required by this paragraph until either the claim is resolved or the 6-month period for payment f MRP benefits has passed, whichever occurs first. To the extent the employee is entitled to indemnity payments for earnings lost during the period of removal, the employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee shall be reduced by the amount of such indemnity payments.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal from either a publicly or an employer-funded compensation program, or receives income from employment with another employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Voluntary removal or restriction of an employee.</I> Where an employer, although not required by this section to do so, removes an employee from exposure to MC or otherwise places any limitation on an employee due to the effects of MC exposure on the employee's medical condition, the employer shall provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee equal to those required by paragraph (j)(12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Multiple health care professional review mechanism.</I> (i) If the employer selects the initial physician or licensed health care professional (PLHCP) to conduct any medical examination or consultation provided to an employee under this paragraph (j)(11), the employer shall notify the employee of the right to seek a second medical opinion each time the employer provides the employee with a copy of the written opinion of that PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee does not agree with the opinion of the employer-selected PLHCP, notifies the employer of that fact, and takes steps to make an appointment with a second PLHCP within 15 days of receiving a copy of the written opinion of the initial PLHCP, the employer shall pay for the PLHCP chosen by the employee to perform at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Review any findings, determinations or recommendations of the initial PLHCP; and
</P>
<P>(B) Conduct such examinations, consultations, and laboratory tests as the PLHCP deems necessary to facilitate this review.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the findings, determinations or recommendations of the second PLHCP differ from those of the initial PLHCP, then the employer and the employee shall instruct the two health care professionals to resolve the disagreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the two health care professionals are unable to resolve their disagreement within 15 days, then those two health care professionals shall jointly designate a PLHCP who is a specialist in the field at issue. The employer shall pay for the specialist to perform at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Review the findings, determinations, and recommendations of the first two PLHCPs; and
</P>
<P>(B) Conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests and discussions with the prior PLHCPs as the specialist deems necessary to resolve the disagreements of the prior health care professionals.
</P>
<P>(v) The written opinion of the specialist shall be the definitive medical determination. The employer shall act consistent with the definitive medical determination, unless the employer and employee agree that the written opinion of one of the other two PLHCPs shall be the definitive medical determination.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer and the employee or authorized employee representative may agree upon the use of any expeditious alternate health care professional determination mechanism in lieu of the multiple health care professional review mechanism provided by this paragraph so long as the alternate mechanism otherwise satisfies the requirements contained in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Hazard communication</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication—general.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors and employers shall comply with all requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200) for MC.
</P>
<P>(ii) In classifying the hazards of MC at least the following hazards are to be addressed: Cancer, cardiac effects (including elevation of carboxyhemoglobin), central nervous system effects, liver effects, and skin and eye irritation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall include MC in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS (§ 1910.1200). Employers shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of MC and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of HCS and paragraph (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (1) The employer shall provide information and training for each affected employee prior to or at the time of initial assignment to a job involving potential exposure to MC.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that information and training is presented in a manner that is understandable to the employees.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the information required under the Hazard Communication Standard at 29 CFR 1910.1200, 29 CFR 1915.1200, or 29 CFR 1926.59, as appropiate:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall inform each affected employee of the requirements of this section and information available in its appendices, as well as how to access or obtain a copy of it in the workplace;
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of MC exceeds or can reasonably be expected to exceed the action level, the employer shall inform each affected employee of the quantity, location, manner of use, release, and storage of MC and the specific operations in the workplace that could result in exposure to MC, particularly noting where exposures may be above the 8-hour TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall train each affected employee as required under the Hazard Communication standard at 29 CFR 1910.1200, 29 CFR 1915.1200, or 29 CFR 1926.59, as appropiate.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall re-train each affected employee as necessary to ensure that each employee exposed above the action level or the STEL maintains the requisite understanding of the principles of safe use and handling of MC in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(6) Whenever there are workplace changes, such as modifications of tasks or procedures or the institution of new tasks or procedures, which increase employee exposure, and where those exposures exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed the action level, the employer shall update the training as necessary to ensure that each affected employee has the requisite proficiency.
</P>
<P>(7) An employer whose employees are exposed to MC at a multi-employer worksite shall notify the other employers with work operations at that site in accordance with the requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1200, 29 CFR 1915.1200, or 29 CFR 1926.59, as appropiate.
</P>
<P>(8) The employer shall provide to the Assistant Secretary or the Director, upon request, all available materials relating to employee information and training.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) Where an employer seeks to demonstrate that initial monitoring is unnecessary through reasonable reliance on objective data showing that any materials in the workplace containing MC will not release MC at levels which exceed the action level or the STEL under foreseeable conditions of exposure, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of the objective data relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The MC-containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of MC;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section and how the data support the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and keep an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to MC as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer has 20 or more employees, this record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to MC which is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of personal protective equipment, such as respiratory protective devices, worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name, job classification and exposure of all of the employees represented by monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer has fewer than 20 employees, the record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) Number, duration, and results of samples taken; and
</P>
<P>(C) Name, job classification and exposure of all of the employees represented by monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall maintain this record for at least thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance under paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and description of the duties of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) Written medical opinions; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any employee medical conditions related to exposure to MC.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that this record is maintained for the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer, upon written request, shall make all records required to be maintained by this section available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">m</E>)(4)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>All records required to be maintained by this section may be kept in the most administratively convenient form (for example, electronic or computer records would satisfy this requirement).</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) The employer, upon request, shall make any employee exposure and objective data records required by this section available for examination and copying by affected employees, former employees, and designated representatives in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer, upon request, shall make employee medical records required to be kept by this section available for examination and copying by the subject employee and by anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer shall comply with the requirements concerning transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(n) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices does not, by itself, create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or detract from any existing obligation.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">o</E>):</HED>
<P>The requirement of 29 CFR 1910.1052(g)(1) to use respiratory protection whenever an employee's exposure to methylene chloride exceeds or can reasonably be expected to exceed the 8-hour TWA PEL is hereby stayed until August 31, 1998 for employers engaged in polyurethane foam manufacturing; foam fabrication; furniture refinishing; general aviation aircraft stripping; formulation of products containing methylene chloride; boat building and repair; recreational vehicle manufacture; van conversion; upholstery; and use of methylene chloride in construction work for restoration and preservation of buildings, painting and paint removal, cabinet making and/or floor refinishing and resurfacing.
</P>
<P>The requirement of 29 CFR 1910.1052(f)(1) to implement engineering controls to achieve the 8-hour TWA PEL and STEL is hereby stayed until December 10, 1998 for employers with more than 100 employees engaged in polyurethane foam manufacturing and for employers with more than 20 employees engaged in foam fabrication; furniture refinishing; general aviation aircraft stripping; formulation of products containing methylene chloride; boat building and repair; recreational vehicle manufacture; van conversion; upholstery; and use of methylene chloride in construction work for restoration and preservation of buildings, painting and paint removal, cabinet making and/or floor refinishing and resurfacing.</P></NOTE>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to Section 1910.1052—Substance Safety Data Sheet and Technical Guidelines for Methylene Chloride
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Substance Identification
</HD1>
<P>A. Substance: Methylene chloride (CH<E T="52">2</E> Cl<E T="52">2</E>).
</P>
<P>B. Synonyms: MC, Dichloromethane (DCM); Methylene dichloride; Methylene bichloride; Methane dichloride; CAS: 75-09-2; NCI-C50102.
</P>
<P>C. Physical data:
</P>
<P>1. Molecular weight: 84.9.
</P>
<P>2. Boiling point (760 mm Hg): 39.8 °C (104 °F).
</P>
<P>3. Specific gravity (water = 1): 1.3.
</P>
<P>4. Vapor density (air = 1 at boiling point): 2.9.
</P>
<P>5. Vapor pressure at 20 °C (68 °F): 350 mm Hg.
</P>
<P>6. Solubility in water, g/100 g water at 20 °C (68 °F) = 1.32.
</P>
<P>7. Appearance and odor: colorless liquid with a chloroform-like odor.
</P>
<P>D. Uses:
</P>
<P>MC is used as a solvent, especially where high volatility is required. It is a good solvent for oils, fats, waxes, resins, bitumen, rubber and cellulose acetate and is a useful paint stripper and degreaser. It is used in paint removers, in propellant mixtures for aerosol containers, as a solvent for plastics, as a degreasing agent, as an extracting agent in the pharmaceutical industry and as a blowing agent in polyurethane foams. Its solvent property is sometimes increased by mixing with methanol, petroleum naphtha or tetrachloroethylene.
</P>
<P>E. Appearance and odor:
</P>
<P>MC is a clear colorless liquid with a chloroform-like odor. It is slightly soluble in water and completely miscible with most organic solvents.
</P>
<P>F. Permissible exposure:
</P>
<P>Exposure may not exceed 25 parts MC per million parts of air (25 ppm) as an eight-hour time-weighted average (8-hour TWA PEL) or 125 parts of MC per million parts of air (125 ppm) averaged over a 15-minute period (STEL).
</P>
<HD1>II. Health Hazard Data
</HD1>
<P>A. MC can affect the body if it is inhaled or if the liquid comes in contact with the eyes or skin. It can also affect the body if it is swallowed.
</P>
<P>B. Effects of overexposure:
</P>
<P>1. Short-term Exposure:
</P>
<P>MC is an anesthetic. Inhaling the vapor may cause mental confusion, light-headedness, nausea, vomiting, and headache. Continued exposure may cause increased light-headedness, staggering, unconsciousness, and even death. High vapor concentrations may also cause irritation of the eyes and respiratory tract. Exposure to MC may make the symptoms of angina (chest pains) worse. Skin exposure to liquid MC may cause irritation. If liquid MC remains on the skin, it may cause skin burns. Splashes of the liquid into the eyes may cause irritation.
</P>
<P>2. Long-term (chronic) exposure:
</P>
<P>The best evidence that MC causes cancer is from laboratory studies in which rats, mice and hamsters inhaled MC 6 hours per day, 5 days per week for 2 years. MC exposure produced lung and liver tumors in mice and mammary tumors in rats. No carcinogenic effects of MC were found in hamsters.
</P>
<P>There are also some human epidemiological studies which show an association between occupational exposure to MC and increases in biliary (bile duct) cancer and a type of brain cancer. Other epidemiological studies have not observed a relationship between MC exposure and cancer. OSHA interprets these results to mean that there is suggestive (but not absolute) evidence that MC is a human carcinogen.
</P>
<P>C. Reporting signs and symptoms:
</P>
<P>You should inform your employer if you develop any signs or symptoms and suspect that they are caused by exposure to MC.
</P>
<P>D. Warning Properties:
</P>
<P>1. Odor Threshold:
</P>
<P>Different authors have reported varying odor thresholds for MC. Kirk-Othmer and Sax both reported 25 to 50 ppm; Summer and May both reported 150 ppm; Spector reports 320 ppm. Patty, however, states that since one can become adapted to the odor, MC should not be considered to have adequate warning properties.
</P>
<P>2. Eye Irritation Level:
</P>
<P>Kirk-Othmer reports that “MC vapor is seriously damaging to the eyes.” Sax agrees with Kirk-Othmer's statement. The ACGIH Documentation of TLVs states that irritation of the eyes has been observed in workers exposed to concentrations up to 5000 ppm.
</P>
<P>3. Evaluation of Warning Properties:
</P>
<P>Since a wide range of MC odor thresholds are reported (25-320 ppm), and human adaptation to the odor occurs, MC is considered to be a material with poor warning properties.
</P>
<HD1>III. Emergency First Aid Procedures
</HD1>
<P>In the event of emergency, institute first aid procedures and send for first aid or medical assistance.
</P>
<P>A. Eye and Skin Exposures:
</P>
<P>If there is a potential for liquid MC to come in contact with eye or skin, face shields and skin protective equipment must be provided and used. If liquid MC comes in contact with the eye, get medical attention. Contact lenses should not be worn when working with this chemical.
</P>
<P>B. Breathing:
</P>
<P>If a person breathes in large amounts of MC, move the exposed person to fresh air at once. If breathing has stopped, perform cardiopulmorary resuscitation. Keep the affected person warm and at rest. Get medical attention as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>C. Rescue:
</P>
<P>Move the affected person from the hazardous exposure immediately. If the exposed person has been overcome, notify someone else and put into effect the established emergency rescue procedures. Understand the facility's emergency rescue procedures and know the locations of rescue equipment before the need arises. Do not become a casualty yourself.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Respirators, Protective Clothing, and Eye Protection
</HD1>
<P>A. Respirators:
</P>
<P>Good industrial hygiene practices recommend that engineering controls be used to reduce environmental concentrations to the permissible exposure level. However, there are some exceptions where respirators may be used to control exposure. Respirators may be used when engineering and work practice controls are not feasible, when such controls are in the process of being installed, or when these controls fail and need to be supplemented. Respirators may also be used for operations which require entry into tanks or closed vessels, and in emergency situations.
</P>
<P>If the use of respirators is necessary, the only respirators permitted are those that have been approved by the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) or the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH). Supplied-air respirators are <I>required</I> because air-purifying respirators do not provide adequate respiratory protection against MC.
</P>
<P>In addition to respirator selection, a complete written respiratory protection program should be instituted which includes regular training, maintenance, inspection, cleaning, and evaluation. If you can smell MC while wearing a respirator, proceed immediately to fresh air. If you experience difficulty in breathing while wearing a respirator, tell your employer.
</P>
<P>B. Protective Clothing:
</P>
<P>Employees must be provided with and required to use impervious clothing, gloves, face shields (eight-inch minimum), and other appropriate protective clothing necessary to prevent repeated or prolonged skin contact with liquid MC or contact with vessels containing liquid MC. Any clothing which becomes wet with liquid MC should be removed immediately and not reworn until the employer has ensured that the protective clothing is fit for reuse. Contaminated protective clothing should be placed in a regulated area designated by the employer for removal of MC before the clothing is laundered or disposed of. Clothing and equipment should remain in the regulated area until all of the MC contamination has evaporated; clothing and equipment should then be laundered or disposed of as appropriate.
</P>
<P>C. Eye Protection:
</P>
<P>Employees should be provided with and required to use splash-proof safety goggles where liquid MC may contact the eyes.
</P>
<HD1>V. Housekeeping and Hygiene Facilities
</HD1>
<P>For purposes of complying with 29 CFR 1910.141, the following items should be emphasized:
</P>
<P>A. The workplace should be kept clean, orderly, and in a sanitary condition. The employer should institute a leak and spill detection program for operations involving liquid MC in order to detect sources of fugitive MC emissions.
</P>
<P>B. Emergency drench showers and eyewash facilities are recommended. These should be maintained in a sanitary condition. Suitable cleansing agents should also be provided to assure the effective removal of MC from the skin.
</P>
<P>C. Because of the hazardous nature of MC, contaminated protective clothing should be placed in a regulated area designated by the employer for removal of MC before the clothing is laundered or disposed of.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Precautions for Safe Use, Handling, and Storage
</HD1>
<P>A. Fire and Explosion Hazards:
</P>
<P>MC has no flash point in a conventional closed tester, but it forms flammable vapor-air mixtures at approximately 100 °C (212 °F), or higher. It has a lower explosion limit of 12%, and an upper explosion limit of 19% in air. It has an autoignition temperature of 556.1 °C (1033 °F), and a boiling point of 39.8 °C (104 °F). It is heavier than water with a specific gravity of 1.3. It is slightly soluble in water.
</P>
<P>B. Reactivity Hazards:
</P>
<P>Conditions contributing to the instability of MC are heat and moisture. Contact with strong oxidizers, caustics, and chemically active metals such as aluminum or magnesium powder, sodium and potassium may cause fires and explosions.
</P>
<P>Special precautions: Liquid MC will attack some forms of plastics, rubber, and coatings.
</P>
<P>C. Toxicity:
</P>
<P>Liquid MC is painful and irritating if splashed in the eyes or if confined on the skin by gloves, clothing, or shoes. Vapors in high concentrations may cause narcosis and death. Prolonged exposure to vapors may cause cancer or exacerbate cardiac disease.
</P>
<P>D. Storage:
</P>
<P>Protect against physical damage. Because of its corrosive properties, and its high vapor pressure, MC should be stored in plain, galvanized or lead lined, mild steel containers in a cool, dry, well ventilated area away from direct sunlight, heat source and acute fire hazards.
</P>
<P>E. Piping Material:
</P>
<P>All piping and valves at the loading or unloading station should be of material that is resistant to MC and should be carefully inspected prior to connection to the transport vehicle and periodically during the operation.
</P>
<P>F. Usual Shipping Containers:
</P>
<P>Glass bottles, 5- and 55-gallon steel drums, tank cars, and tank trucks.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This section addresses MC exposure in marine terminal and longshore employment only where leaking or broken packages allow MC exposure that is not addressed through compliance with 29 CFR parts 1917 and 1918, respectively.</P></NOTE>
<P>G. Electrical Equipment:
</P>
<P>Electrical installations in Class I hazardous locations as defined in Article 500 of the National Electrical Code, should be installed according to Article 501 of the code; and electrical equipment should be suitable for use in atmospheres containing MC vapors. See Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code (NFPA No. 325M), Chemical Safety Data Sheet SD-86 (Manufacturing Chemists' Association, Inc.).
</P>
<P>H. Fire Fighting:
</P>
<P>When involved in fire, MC emits highly toxic and irritating fumes such as phosgene, hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide. Wear breathing apparatus and use water spray to keep fire-exposed containers cool. Water spray may be used to flush spills away from exposures. Extinguishing media are dry chemical, carbon dioxide, foam. For purposes of compliance with 29 CFR 1910.307, locations classified as hazardous due to the presence of MC shall be Class I.
</P>
<P>I. Spills and Leaks:
</P>
<P>Persons not wearing protective equipment and clothing should be restricted from areas of spills or leaks until cleanup has been completed. If MC has spilled or leaked, the following steps should be taken:
</P>
<P>1. Remove all ignition sources.
</P>
<P>2. Ventilate area of spill or leak.
</P>
<P>3. Collect for reclamation or absorb in vermiculite, dry sand, earth, or a similar material.
</P>
<P>J. Methods of Waste Disposal:
</P>
<P>Small spills should be absorbed onto sand and taken to a safe area for atmospheric evaporation. Incineration is the preferred method for disposal of large quantities by mixing with a combustible solvent and spraying into an incinerator equipped with acid scrubbers to remove hydrogen chloride gases formed. Complete combustion will convert carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide. Care should be taken for the presence of phosgene.
</P>
<P>K. You should not keep food, beverage, or smoking materials, or eat or smoke in regulated areas where MC concentrations are above the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>L. Portable heating units should not be used in confined areas where MC is used.
</P>
<P>M. Ask your supervisor where MC is used in your work area and for any additional plant safety and health rules.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Medical Requirements
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to offer you the opportunity to participate in a medical surveillance program if you are exposed to MC at concentrations at or above the action level (12.5 ppm 8-hour TWA) for more than 30 days a year or at concentrations exceeding the PELs (25 ppm 8-hour TWA or 125 ppm 15-minute STEL) for more than 10 days a year. If you are exposed to MC at concentrations over either of the PELs, your employer will also be required to have a physician or other licensed health care professional ensure that you are able to wear the respirator that you are assigned. Your employer must provide all medical examinations relating to your MC exposure at a reasonable time and place and at no cost to you.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD1>
<P>A. Exposure above the Permissible Exposure Limit:
</P>
<P>1. Eight-hour exposure evaluation: Measurements taken for the purpose of determining employee exposure under this section are best taken with consecutive samples covering the full shift. Air samples must be taken in the employee's breathing zone.
</P>
<P>2. Monitoring techniques: The sampling and analysis under this section may be performed by collection of the MC vapor on two charcoal adsorption tubes in series or other composition adsorption tubes, with subsequent chemical analysis. Sampling and analysis may also be performed by instruments such as real-time continuous monitoring systems, portable direct reading instruments, or passive dosimeters as long as measurements taken using these methods accurately evaluate the concentration of MC in employees” breathing zones.
</P>
<P>OSHA method 80 is an example of a validated method of sampling and analysis of MC. Copies of this method are available from OSHA or can be downloaded from the Internet at <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I> The employer has the obligation of selecting a monitoring method which meets the accuracy and precision requirements of the standard under his or her unique field conditions. The standard requires that the method of monitoring must be accurate, to a 95 percent confidence level, to plus or minus 25 percent for concentrations of MC at or above 25 ppm, and to plus or minus 35 percent for concentrations at or below 25 ppm. In addition to OSHA method 80, there are numerous other methods available for monitoring for MC in the workplace.
</P>
<P>B. Since many of the duties relating to employee exposure are dependent on the results of measurement procedures, employers must assure that the evaluation of employee exposure is performed by a technically qualified person.
</P>
<HD1>IX. Observation of Monitoring
</HD1>
<P>Your employer is required to perform measurements that are representative of your exposure to MC and you or your designated representative are entitled to observe the monitoring procedure. You are entitled to observe the steps taken in the measurement procedure, and to record the results obtained. When the monitoring procedure is taking place in an area where respirators or personal protective clothing and equipment are required to be worn, you or your representative must also be provided with, and must wear, protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<HD1>X. Access to Information
</HD1>
<P>A. Your employer is required to inform you of the information contained in this Appendix. In addition, your employer must instruct you in the proper work practices for using MC, emergency procedures, and the correct use of protective equipment.
</P>
<P>B. Your employer is required to determine whether you are being exposed to MC. You or your representative has the right to observe employee measurements and to record the results obtained. Your employer is required to inform you of your exposure. If your employer determines that you are being over exposed, he or she is required to inform you of the actions which are being taken to reduce your exposure to within permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>C. Your employer is required to keep records of your exposures and medical examinations. These records must be kept by the employer for at least thirty (30) years.
</P>
<P>D. Your employer is required to release your exposure and medical records to you or your representative upon your request.
</P>
<P>E. Your employer is required to provide labels and safety data sheets (SDSs) for all materials, mixtures or solutions composed of greater than 0.1 percent MC. These materials, mixtures or solutions would be classified and labeled in accordance with § 1910.1200. 
</P>
<HD1>Danger Contains Methylene Chloride Potential Cancer Hazard
</HD1>
<P>May worsen heart disease because methylene chloride is converted to carbon monoxide in the body.
</P>
<P>May cause dizziness, headache, irritation of the throat and lungs, loss of consciousness and death at high concentrations (for example, if used in a poorly ventilated room).
</P>
<P><I>Avoid Skin Contact.</I> Contact with liquid causes skin and eye irritation.
</P>
<HD1>XI. Common Operations and Controls
</HD1>
<P>The following list includes some common operations in which exposure to MC may occur and control methods which may be effective in each case:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Controls
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Use as solvent in paint and varnish removers; manufacture of aerosols; cold cleaning and ultrasonic cleaning; and as a solvent in furniture stripping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General dilution ventilation; local exhaust ventilation; personal protective equipment; substitution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Use as solvent in vapor degreasing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Process enclosure; local exhaust ventilation; chilling coils; substitution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Use as a secondary refrigerant in air conditioning and scientific testing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General dilution ventilation; local exhaust ventilation; personal protective equipment.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to Section 1910.1052—Medical Surveillance for Methylene Chloride
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Primary Route of Entry
</HD1>
<P>Inhalation.
</P>
<HD1>II. Toxicology
</HD1>
<P>Methylene Chloride (MC) is primarily an inhalation hazard. The principal acute hazardous effects are the depressant action on the central nervous system, possible cardiac toxicity and possible liver toxicity. The range of CNS effects are from decreased eye/hand coordination and decreased performance in vigilance tasks to narcosis and even death of individuals exposed at very high doses. Cardiac toxicity is due to the metabolism of MC to carbon monoxide, and the effects of carbon monoxide on heart tissue. Carbon monoxide displaces oxygen in the blood, decreases the oxygen available to heart tissue, increasing the risk of damage to the heart, which may result in heart attacks in susceptible individuals. Susceptible individuals include persons with heart disease and those with risk factors for heart disease.
</P>
<P>Elevated liver enzymes and irritation to the respiratory passages and eyes have also been reported for both humans and experimental animals exposed to MC vapors.
</P>
<P>MC is metabolized to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide via two separate pathways. Through the first pathway, MC is metabolized to carbon monoxide as an end-product via the P-450 mixed function oxidase pathway located in the microsomal fraction of the cell. This biotransformation of MC to carbon monoxide occurs through the process of microsomal oxidative dechlorination which takes place primarily in the liver. The amount of conversion to carbon monoxide is significant as measured by the concentration of carboxyhemoglobin, up to 12% measured in the blood following occupational exposure of up to 610 ppm. Through the second pathway, MC is metabolized to carbon dioxide as an end product (with formaldehyde and formic acid as metabolic intermediates) via the glutathione dependent enzyme found in the cytosolic fraction of the liver cell. Metabolites along this pathway are believed to be associated with the carcinogenic activity of MC.
</P>
<P>MC has been tested for carcinogenicity in several laboratory rodents. These rodent studies indicate that there is clear evidence that MC is carcinogenic to male and female mice and female rats. Based on epidemiologic studies, OSHA has concluded that there is suggestive evidence of increased cancer risk in MC-related worker populations. The epidemiological evidence is consistent with the finding of excess cancer in the experimental animal studies. NIOSH regards MC as a potential occupational carcinogen and the International Agency for Research Cancer (IARC) classifies MC as an animal carcinogen. OSHA considers MC as a suspected human carcinogen.
</P>
<HD1>III. Medical Signs and Symptoms of Acute Exposure
</HD1>
<P>Skin exposure to liquid MC may cause irritation or skin burns. Liquid MC can also be irritating to the eyes. MC is also absorbed through the skin and may contribute to the MC exposure by inhalation.
</P>
<P>At high concentrations in air, MC may cause nausea, vomiting, light-headedness, numbness of the extremities, changes in blood enzyme levels, and breathing problems, leading to bronchitis and pulmonary edema, unconsciousness and even death.
</P>
<P>At lower concentrations in air, MC may cause irritation to the skin, eye, and respiratory tract and occasionally headache and nausea. Perhaps the greatest problem from exposure to low concentrations of MC is the CNS effects on coordination and alertness that may cause unsafe operations of machinery and equipment, leading to self-injury or accidents.
</P>
<P>Low levels and short duration exposures do not seem to produce permanent disability, but chronic exposures to MC have been demonstrated to produce liver toxicity in animals, and therefore, the evidence is suggestive for liver toxicity in humans after chronic exposure.
</P>
<P>Chronic exposure to MC may also cause cancer.




</P>
<HD1>IV. Surveillance and Preventive Considerations
</HD1>
<P>As discussed in sections II and III of this appendix, MC is classified as a suspect or potential human carcinogen. It is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant and a skin, eye and respiratory tract irritant. At extremely high concentrations, MC has caused liver damage in animals. MC principally affects the CNS, where it acts as a narcotic. The observation of the symptoms characteristic of CNS depression, along with a physical examination, provides the best detection of early neurological disorders. Since exposure to MC also increases the carboxyhemoglobin level in the blood, ambient carbon monoxide levels would have an additive effect on that carboxyhemoglobin level. Based on such information, a periodic post-shift carboxyhemoglobin test as an index of the presence of carbon monoxide in the blood is recommended, but not required, for medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>Based on the animal evidence and three epidemiologic studies previously mentioned, OSHA concludes that MC is a suspect human carcinogen. The medical surveillance program is designed to observe exposed workers on a regular basis. While the medical surveillance program cannot detect MC-induced cancer at a preneoplastic stage, OSHA anticipates that, as in the past, early detection and treatments of cancers leading to enhanced survival rates will continue to evolve.
</P>
<HD2>A. Medical and Occupational History
</HD2>
<P>The medical and occupational work history plays an important role in the initial evaluation of workers exposed to MC. It is therefore extremely important for the examining physician or other licensed health care professional to evaluate the MC-exposed worker carefully and completely and to focus the examination on MC's potentially associated health hazards. The medical evaluation must include an annual detailed work and medical history with special emphasis on cardiac history and neurological symptoms.
</P>
<P>An important goal of the medical history is to elicit information from the worker regarding potential signs or symptoms associated with increased levels of carboxyhemoglobin due to the presence of carbon monoxide in the blood. Physicians or other licensed health care professionals should ensure that the smoking history of all MC exposed employees is known. Exposure to MC may cause a significant increase in carboxyhemoglobin level in all exposed persons. However, smokers as well as workers with anemia or heart disease and those concurrently exposed to carbon monoxide are at especially high risk of toxic effects because of an already reduced oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.
</P>
<P>A comprehensive or interim medical and work history should also include occurrence of headache, dizziness, fatigue, chest pain, shortness of breath, pain in the limbs, and irritation of the skin and eyes.
</P>
<P>In addition, it is important for the physician or other licensed health care professional to become familiar with the operating conditions in which exposure to MC is likely to occur. The physician or other licensed health care professional also must become familiar with the signs and symptoms that may indicate that a worker is receiving otherwise unrecognized and exceptionally high exposure levels of MC.
</P>
<P>An example of a medical and work history that would satisfy the requirement for a comprehensive or interim work history is represented by the following:
</P>
<P>The following is a list of recommended questions and issues for the self-administered questionnaire for methylene chloride exposure.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.084.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.085.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.086.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.087.gif"/>
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<img src="/graphics/er14my19.092.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.093.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.094.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to Section 1910.1052—Questions and Answers—Methylene Chloride Control in Furniture Stripping
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.040.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja97.022.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja97.023.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja97.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja97.025.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja97.026.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja97.027.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 1601, Jan. 10, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 42667, Aug. 8, 1997; 62 FR 54383, Oct. 20, 1997; 62 FR 66277, Dec. 18, 1997; 63 FR 1295, Jan. 8, 1998; 63 FR 20099, Apr. 23, 1998; 63 FR 50729, Sept. 22, 1998; 71 FR 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50190, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75587, Dec. 12, 2008; 77 FR 17785, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 9313, Feb. 8, 2013; 84 FR 21555, May 14, 2019]



</CITA>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1053" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1053   Respirable crystalline silica.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all occupational exposures to respirable crystalline silica, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Construction work as defined in 29 CFR 1910.12(b) (occupational exposures to respirable crystalline silica in construction work are covered under 29 CFR 1926.1153);
</P>
<P>(ii) Agricultural operations covered under 29 CFR part 1928; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Exposures that result from the processing of sorptive clays.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply where the employer has objective data demonstrating that employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica will remain below 25 micrograms per cubic meter of air (25 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) under any foreseeable conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not apply if the employer complies with 29 CFR 1926.1153 and:
</P>
<P>(i) The task performed is indistinguishable from a construction task listed on Table 1 in paragraph (c) of 29 CFR 1926.1153; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The task will not be performed regularly in the same environment and conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne respirable crystalline silica of 25 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, calculated as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means the exposure to airborne respirable crystalline silica that would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air [HEPA] filter</I> means a filter that is at least 99.97 percent efficient in removing mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means information, such as air monitoring data from industry-wide surveys or calculations based on the composition of a substance, demonstrating employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica associated with a particular product or material or a specific process, task, or activity. The data must reflect workplace conditions closely resembling or with a higher exposure potential than the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional [PLHCP]</I> means an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.,</I> license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the particular health care services required by paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area, demarcated by the employer, where an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of respirable crystalline silica exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the PEL.
</P>
<P><I>Respirable crystalline silica</I> means quartz, cristobalite, and/or tridymite contained in airborne particles that are determined to be respirable by a sampling device designed to meet the characteristics for respirable-particle-size-selective samplers specified in the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 7708:1995: Air Quality—Particle Size Fraction Definitions for Health-Related Sampling.
</P>
<P><I>Specialist</I> means an American Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or an American Board Certified Specialist in Occupational Medicine.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this respirable crystalline silica standard, 29 CFR 1910.1053.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit (PEL).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of respirable crystalline silica in excess of 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, calculated as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure assessment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall assess the exposure of each employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be exposed to respirable crystalline silica at or above the action level in accordance with either the performance option in paragraph (d)(2) or the scheduled monitoring option in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Performance option.</I> The employer shall assess the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of any combination of air monitoring data or objective data sufficient to accurately characterize employee exposures to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scheduled monitoring option.</I> (i) The employer shall perform initial monitoring to assess the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of one or more personal breathing zone air samples that reflect the exposures of employees on each shift, for each job classification, in each work area. Where several employees perform the same tasks on the same shift and in the same work area, the employer may sample a representative fraction of these employees in order to meet this requirement. In representative sampling, the employer shall sample the employee(s) who are expected to have the highest exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(ii) If initial monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that employee exposures are at or above the action level but at or below the PEL, the employer shall repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that employee exposures are above the PEL, the employer shall repeat such monitoring within three months of the most recent monitoring.
</P>
<P>(v) Where the most recent (non-initial) exposure monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, the employer shall repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring until two consecutive measurements, taken 7 or more days apart, are below the action level, at which time the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reassessment of exposures.</I> The employer shall reassess exposures whenever a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel, or work practices may reasonably be expected to result in new or additional exposures at or above the action level, or when the employer has any reason to believe that new or additional exposures at or above the action level have occurred.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Methods of sample analysis.</I> The employer shall ensure that all samples taken to satisfy the monitoring requirements of paragraph (d) of this section are evaluated by a laboratory that analyzes air samples for respirable crystalline silica in accordance with the procedures in Appendix A to this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee notification of assessment results.</I> (i) Within 15 working days after completing an exposure assessment in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, the employer shall individually notify each affected employee in writing of the results of that assessment or post the results in an appropriate location accessible to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever an exposure assessment indicates that employee exposure is above the PEL, the employer shall describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) Where air monitoring is performed to comply with the requirements of this section, the employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required for any workplace hazard, the employer shall provide the observer with protective clothing and equipment at no cost and shall ensure that the observer uses such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> The employer shall establish a regulated area wherever an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of respirable crystalline silica is, or can reasonably be expected to be, in excess of the PEL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> (i) The employer shall demarcate regulated areas from the rest of the workplace in a manner that minimizes the number of employees exposed to respirable crystalline silica within the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall post signs at all entrances to regulated areas that bear the legend specified in paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> The employer shall limit access to regulated areas to:
</P>
<P>(A) Persons authorized by the employer and required by work duties to be present in the regulated area;
</P>
<P>(B) Any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe monitoring procedures under paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any person authorized by the Occupational Safety and Health Act or regulations issued under it to be in a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision of respirators.</I> The employer shall provide each employee and the employee's designated representative entering a regulated area with an appropriate respirator in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section and shall require each employee and the employee's designated representative to use the respirator while in a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> The employer shall use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica to or below the PEL, unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever such feasible engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest feasible level and shall supplement them with the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written exposure control plan.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and implement a written exposure control plan that contains at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the tasks in the workplace that involve exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection used to limit employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica for each task; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the housekeeping measures used to limit employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall review and evaluate the effectiveness of the written exposure control plan at least annually and update it as necessary.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall make the written exposure control plan readily available for examination and copying, upon request, to each employee covered by this section, their designated representatives, the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Abrasive blasting.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the employer shall comply with other OSHA standards, when applicable, such as 29 CFR 1910.94 (Ventilation), 29 CFR 1915.34 (Mechanical paint removers), and 29 CFR 1915 Subpart I (Personal Protective Equipment), where abrasive blasting is conducted using crystalline silica-containing blasting agents, or where abrasive blasting is conducted on substrates that contain crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Where respiratory protection is required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph and 29 CFR 1910.134. Respiratory protection is required:
</P>
<P>(i) Where exposures exceed the PEL during periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where exposures exceed the PEL during tasks, such as certain maintenance and repair tasks, for which engineering and work practice controls are not feasible;
</P>
<P>(iii) During tasks for which an employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work practice controls and such controls are not sufficient to reduce exposures to or below the PEL; and
</P>
<P>(iv) During periods when the employee is in a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> Where respirator use is required by this section, the employer shall institute a respiratory protection program in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) The employer shall not allow dry sweeping or dry brushing where such activity could contribute to employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica unless wet sweeping, HEPA-filtered vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of exposure are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall not allow compressed air to be used to clean clothing or surfaces where such activity could contribute to employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The compressed air is used in conjunction with a ventilation system that effectively captures the dust cloud created by the compressed air; or
</P>
<P>(ii) No alternative method is feasible.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make medical surveillance available at no cost to the employee, and at a reasonable time and place, for each employee who will be occupationally exposed to respirable crystalline silica at or above the action level for 30 or more days per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this section are performed by a PLHCP as defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examination</I>. The employer shall make available an initial (baseline) medical examination within 30 days after initial assignment, unless the employee has received a medical examination that meets the requirements of this section within the last three years. The examination shall consist of:
</P>
<P>(i) A medical and work history, with emphasis on: Past, present, and anticipated exposure to respirable crystalline silica, dust, and other agents affecting the respiratory system; any history of respiratory system dysfunction, including signs and symptoms of respiratory disease (e.g., shortness of breath, cough, wheezing); history of tuberculosis; and smoking status and history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical examination with special emphasis on the respiratory system;
</P>
<P>(iii) A chest X-ray (a single posteroanterior radiographic projection or radiograph of the chest at full inspiration recorded on either film (no less than 14 x 17 inches and no more than 16 x 17 inches) or digital radiography systems), interpreted and classified according to the International Labour Office (ILO) International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses by a NIOSH-certified B Reader;
</P>
<P>(iv) A pulmonary function test to include forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>) and FEV<E T="52">1</E>/FVC ratio, administered by a spirometry technician with a current certificate from a NIOSH-approved spirometry course;
</P>
<P>(v) Testing for latent tuberculosis infection; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other tests deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> The employer shall make available medical examinations that include the procedures described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section (except paragraph (i)(2)(v)) at least every three years, or more frequently if recommended by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the PLHCP.</I> The employer shall ensure that the examining PLHCP has a copy of this standard, and shall provide the PLHCP with the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used or will use that equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee and currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>PLHCP's written medical report for the employee</I>. The employer shall ensure that the PLHCP explains to the employee the results of the medical examination and provides each employee with a written medical report within 30 days of each medical examination performed. The written report shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including any medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and any medical conditions that require further evaluation or treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the employee should be examined by a specialist (pursuant to paragraph (i)(7) of this section) if the chest X-ray provided in accordance with this section is classified as 1/0 or higher by the B Reader, or if referral to a specialist is otherwise deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>PLHCP's written medical opinion for the employer.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written medical opinion from the PLHCP within 30 days of the medical examination. The written opinion shall contain only the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the examination;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the examination has met the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion shall also contain either or both of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the employee should be examined by a specialist (pursuant to paragraph (i)(7) of this section) if the chest X-ray provided in accordance with this section is classified as 1/0 or higher by the B Reader, or if referral to a specialist is otherwise deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that each employee receives a copy of the written medical opinion described in paragraph (i)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section within 30 days of each medical examination performed.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Additional examinations.</I> (i) If the PLHCP's written medical opinion indicates that an employee should be examined by a specialist, the employer shall make available a medical examination by a specialist within 30 days after receiving the PLHCP's written opinion.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that the examining specialist is provided with all of the information that the employer is obligated to provide to the PLHCP in accordance with paragraph (i)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that the specialist explains to the employee the results of the medical examination and provides each employee with a written medical report within 30 days of the examination. The written report shall meet the requirements of paragraph (i)(5) (except paragraph (i)(5)(iv)) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the specialist within 30 days of the medical examination. The written opinion shall meet the requirements of paragraph (i)(6) (except paragraph (i)(6)(i)(B) and (i)(6)(ii)(B)) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Communication of respirable crystalline silica hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.</I> The employer shall include respirable crystalline silica in the program established to comply with the hazard communication standard (HCS) (29 CFR 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of crystalline silica and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of HCS and paragraph (j)(3) of this section. The employer shall ensure that at least the following hazards are addressed: Cancer, lung effects, immune system effects, and kidney effects.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> The employer shall post signs at all entrances to regulated areas that bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRABLE CRYSTALLINE SILICA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that each employee covered by this section can demonstrate knowledge and understanding of at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The health hazards associated with exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(B) Specific tasks in the workplace that could result in exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(C) Specific measures the employer has implemented to protect employees from exposure to respirable crystalline silica, including engineering controls, work practices, and respirators to be used;
</P>
<P>(D) The contents of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make a copy of this section readily available without cost to each employee covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Air monitoring data.</I> (i) The employer shall make and maintain an accurate record of all exposure measurements taken to assess employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica, as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The task monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Identity of the laboratory that performed the analysis;
</P>
<P>(F) Type of personal protective equipment, such as respirators, worn by the employees monitored; and
</P>
<P>(G) Name and job classification of all employees represented by the monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) The employer shall make and maintain an accurate record of all objective data relied upon to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The crystalline silica-containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol and results of testing;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the process, task, or activity on which the objective data were based; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the process, task, activity, material, or exposures on which the objective data were based.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that objective data are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall make and maintain an accurate record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include the following information about the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the PLHCPs' and specialists' written medical opinions; and
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the PLHCPs and specialists.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that medical records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Dates.</I> (1) This section is effective June 23, 2016.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided for in paragraphs (l)(3) and (4) of this section, all obligations of this section commence June 23, 2018.
</P>
<P>(3) For hydraulic fracturing operations in the oil and gas industry:
</P>
<P>(i) All obligations of this section, except obligations for medical surveillance in paragraph (i)(1)(i) and engineering controls in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, commence June 23, 2018;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obligations for engineering controls in paragraph (f)(1) of this section commence June 23, 2021; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Obligations for medical surveillance in paragraph (i)(1)(i) commence in accordance with paragraph (l)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The medical surveillance obligations in paragraph (i)(1)(i) commence on June 23, 2018, for employees who will be occupationally exposed to respirable crystalline silica above the PEL for 30 or more days per year. Those obligations commence June 23, 2020, for employees who will be occupationally exposed to respirable crystalline silica at or above the action level for 30 or more days per year.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1053—Methods of Sample Analysis
</HD1>
<P>This appendix specifies the procedures for analyzing air samples for respirable crystalline silica, as well as the quality control procedures that employers must ensure that laboratories use when performing an analysis required under 29 CFR 1910.1053 (d)(5). Employers must ensure that such a laboratory:
</P>
<P>1. Evaluates all samples using the procedures specified in one of the following analytical methods: OSHA ID-142; NMAM 7500; NMAM 7602; NMAM 7603; MSHA P-2; or MSHA P-7;
</P>
<P>2. Is accredited to ANS/ISO/IEC Standard 17025:2005 with respect to crystalline silica analyses by a body that is compliant with ISO/IEC Standard 17011:2004 for implementation of quality assessment programs;
</P>
<P>3. Uses the most current National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) or NIST traceable standards for instrument calibration or instrument calibration verification;
</P>
<P>4. Implements an internal quality control (QC) program that evaluates analytical uncertainty and provides employers with estimates of sampling and analytical error;
</P>
<P>5. Characterizes the sample material by identifying polymorphs of respirable crystalline silica present, identifies the presence of any interfering compounds that might affect the analysis, and makes any corrections necessary in order to obtain accurate sample analysis; and
</P>
<P>6. Analyzes quantitatively for crystalline silica only after confirming that the sample matrix is free of uncorrectable analytical interferences, corrects for analytical interferences, and uses a method that meets the following performance specifications:
</P>
<P><I>6.1</I> Each day that samples are analyzed, performs instrument calibration checks with standards that bracket the sample concentrations;
</P>
<P><I>6.2</I> Uses five or more calibration standard levels to prepare calibration curves and ensures that standards are distributed through the calibration range in a manner that accurately reflects the underlying calibration curve; and
</P>
<P><I>6.3</I> Optimizes methods and instruments to obtain a quantitative limit of detection that represents a value no higher than 25 percent of the PEL based on sample air volume.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1053—Medical Surveillance Guidelines
</HD1>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>The purpose of this Appendix is to provide medical information and recommendations to aid physicians and other licensed health care professionals (PLHCPs) regarding compliance with the medical surveillance provisions of the respirable crystalline silica standard (29 CFR 1910.1053). Appendix B is for informational and guidance purposes only and none of the statements in Appendix B should be construed as imposing a mandatory requirement on employers that is not otherwise imposed by the standard.
</P>
<P>Medical screening and surveillance allow for early identification of exposure-related health effects in individual employee and groups of employees, so that actions can be taken to both avoid further exposure and prevent or address adverse health outcomes. Silica-related diseases can be fatal, encompass a variety of target organs, and may have public health consequences when considering the increased risk of a latent tuberculosis (TB) infection becoming active. Thus, medical surveillance of silica-exposed employees requires that PLHCPs have a thorough knowledge of silica-related health effects.
</P>
<P>This Appendix is divided into seven sections. Section 1 reviews silica-related diseases, medical responses, and public health responses. Section 2 outlines the components of the medical surveillance program for employees exposed to silica. Section 3 describes the roles and responsibilities of the PLHCP implementing the program and of other medical specialists and public health professionals. Section 4 provides a discussion of considerations, including confidentiality. Section 5 provides a list of additional resources and Section 6 lists references. Section 7 provides sample forms for the written medical report for the employee, the written medical opinion for the employer and the written authorization.
</P>
<HD1>1. Recognition of Silica-Related Diseases
</HD1>
<P><I>1.1. Overview.</I> The term “silica” refers specifically to the compound silicon dioxide (SiO2). Silica is a major component of sand, rock, and mineral ores. Exposure to fine (respirable size) particles of crystalline forms of silica is associated with adverse health effects, such as silicosis, lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and activation of latent TB infections. Exposure to respirable crystalline silica can occur in industry settings such as foundries, abrasive blasting operations, paint manufacturing, glass and concrete product manufacturing, brick making, china and pottery manufacturing, manufacturing of plumbing fixtures, and many construction activities including highway repair, masonry, concrete work, rock drilling, and tuck-pointing. New uses of silica continue to emerge. These include countertop manufacturing, finishing, and installation (Kramer <I>et al.</I> 2012; OSHA 2015) and hydraulic fracturing in the oil and gas industry (OSHA 2012).
</P>
<P>Silicosis is an irreversible, often disabling, and sometimes fatal fibrotic lung disease. Progression of silicosis can occur despite removal from further exposure. Diagnosis of silicosis requires a history of exposure to silica and radiologic findings characteristic of silica exposure. Three different presentations of silicosis (chronic, accelerated, and acute) have been defined. Accelerated and acute silicosis are much less common than chronic silicosis. However, it is critical to recognize all cases of accelerated and acute silicosis because these are life-threatening illnesses and because they are caused by substantial overexposures to respirable crystalline silica. Although any case of silicosis indicates a breakdown in prevention, a case of acute or accelerated silicosis implies current high exposure and a very marked breakdown in prevention.
</P>
<P>In addition to silicosis, employees exposed to respirable crystalline silica, especially those with accelerated or acute silicosis, are at increased risks of contracting active TB and other infections (ATS 1997; Rees and Murray 2007). Exposure to respirable crystalline silica also increases an employee's risk of developing lung cancer, and the higher the cumulative exposure, the higher the risk (Steenland <I>et al.</I> 2001; Steenland and Ward 2014). Symptoms for these diseases and other respirable crystalline silica-related diseases are discussed below.
</P>
<P><I>1.2. Chronic Silicosis.</I> Chronic silicosis is the most common presentation of silicosis and usually occurs after at least 10 years of exposure to respirable crystalline silica. The clinical presentation of chronic silicosis is:
</P>
<P>1.2.1. Symptoms—shortness of breath and cough, although employees may not notice any symptoms early in the disease. Constitutional symptoms, such as fever, loss of appetite and fatigue, may indicate other diseases associated with silica exposure, such as TB infection or lung cancer. Employees with these symptoms should immediately receive further evaluation and treatment.
</P>
<P>1.2.2. Physical Examination—may be normal or disclose dry rales or rhonchi on lung auscultation.
</P>
<P>1.2.3. Spirometry—may be normal or may show only a mild restrictive or obstructive pattern.
</P>
<P>1.2.4. Chest X-ray—classic findings are small, rounded opacities in the upper lung fields bilaterally. However, small irregular opacities and opacities in other lung areas can also occur. Rarely, “eggshell calcifications” in the hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes are seen.
</P>
<P>1.2.5. Clinical Course—chronic silicosis in most cases is a slowly progressive disease. Under the respirable crystalline silica standard, the PLHCP is to recommend that employees with a 1/0 category X-ray be referred to an American Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine. The PLHCP and/or Specialist should counsel employees regarding work practices and personal habits that could affect employees' respiratory health.
</P>
<P><I>1.3. Accelerated Silicosis.</I> Accelerated silicosis generally occurs within 5-10 years of exposure and results from high levels of exposure to respirable crystalline silica. The clinical presentation of accelerated silicosis is:
</P>
<P>1.3.1. Symptoms—shortness of breath, cough, and sometimes sputum production. Employees with exposure to respirable crystalline silica, and especially those with accelerated silicosis, are at high risk for activation of TB infections, atypical mycobacterial infections, and fungal superinfections. Constitutional symptoms, such as fever, weight loss, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), and fatigue may herald one of these infections or the onset of lung cancer.
</P>
<P>1.3.2. Physical Examination—rales, rhonchi, or other abnormal lung findings in relation to illnesses present. Clubbing of the digits, signs of heart failure, and cor pulmonale may be present in severe lung disease.
</P>
<P>1.3.3. Spirometry—restrictive or mixed restrictive/obstructive pattern.
</P>
<P>1.3.4. Chest X-ray—small rounded and/or irregular opacities bilaterally. Large opacities and lung abscesses may indicate infections, lung cancer, or progression to complicated silicosis, also termed progressive massive fibrosis.
</P>
<P>1.3.5. Clinical Course—accelerated silicosis has a rapid, severe course. Under the respirable crystalline silica standard, the PLHCP can recommend referral to a Board Certified Specialist in either Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine, as deemed appropriate, and referral to a Specialist is recommended whenever the diagnosis of accelerated silicosis is being considered.
</P>
<P><I>1.4. Acute Silicosis.</I> Acute silicosis is a rare disease caused by inhalation of extremely high levels of respirable crystalline silica particles. The pathology is similar to alveolar proteinosis with lipoproteinaceous material accumulating in the alveoli. Acute silicosis develops rapidly, often, within a few months to less than 2 years of exposure, and is almost always fatal. The clinical presentation of acute silicosis is as follows:
</P>
<P>1.4.1. Symptoms—sudden, progressive, and severe shortness of breath. Constitutional symptoms are frequently present and include fever, weight loss, fatigue, productive cough, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), and pleuritic chest pain.
</P>
<P>1.4.2. Physical Examination—dyspnea at rest, cyanosis, decreased breath sounds, inspiratory rales, clubbing of the digits, and fever.
</P>
<P>1.4.3. Spirometry—restrictive or mixed restrictive/obstructive pattern.
</P>
<P>1.4.4. Chest X-ray—diffuse haziness of the lungs bilaterally early in the disease. As the disease progresses, the “ground glass” appearance of interstitial fibrosis will appear.
</P>
<P>1.4.5. Clinical Course—employees with acute silicosis are at especially high risk of TB activation, nontuberculous mycobacterial infections, and fungal superinfections. Acute silicosis is immediately life-threatening. The employee should be urgently referred to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine for evaluation and treatment. Although any case of silicosis indicates a breakdown in prevention, a case of acute or accelerated silicosis implies a profoundly high level of silica exposure and may mean that other employees are currently exposed to dangerous levels of silica.
</P>
<P><I>1.5. COPD.</I> COPD, including chronic bronchitis and emphysema, has been documented in silica-exposed employees, including those who do not develop silicosis. Periodic spirometry tests are performed to evaluate each employee for progressive changes consistent with the development of COPD. In addition to evaluating spirometry results of individual employees over time, PLHCPs may want to be aware of general trends in spirometry results for groups of employees from the same workplace to identify possible problems that might exist at that workplace. (<I>See</I> Section 2 of this Appendix on Medical Surveillance for further discussion.) Heart disease may develop secondary to lung diseases such as COPD. A recent study by Liu <I>et al.</I> 2014 noted a significant exposure-response trend between cumulative silica exposure and heart disease deaths, primarily due to pulmonary heart disease, such as cor pulmonale.
</P>
<P><I>1.6. Renal and Immune System.</I> Silica exposure has been associated with several types of kidney disease, including glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome, and end stage renal disease requiring dialysis. Silica exposure has also been associated with other autoimmune conditions, including progressive systemic sclerosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis. Studies note an association between employees with silicosis and serologic markers for autoimmune diseases, including antinuclear antibodies, rheumatoid factor, and immune complexes (Jalloul and Banks 2007; Shtraichman <I>et al.</I> 2015).
</P>
<P><I>1.7. TB and Other Infections.</I> Silica-exposed employees with latent TB are 3 to 30 times more likely to develop active pulmonary TB infection (ATS 1997; Rees and Murray 2007). Although respirable crystalline silica exposure does not cause TB infection, individuals with latent TB infection are at increased risk for activation of disease if they have higher levels of respirable crystalline silica exposure, greater profusion of radiographic abnormalities, or a diagnosis of silicosis. Demographic characteristics, such as immigration from some countries, are associated with increased rates of latent TB infection. PLHCPs can review the latest Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) information on TB incidence rates and high risk populations online (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix). Additionally, silica-exposed employees are at increased risk for contracting nontuberculous mycobacterial infections, including <I>Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare</I> and <I>Mycobacterium kansaii</I>.
</P>
<P><I>1.8. Lung Cancer.</I> The National Toxicology Program has listed respirable crystalline silica as a known human carcinogen since 2000 (NTP 2014). The International Agency for Research on Cancer (2012) has also classified silica as Group 1 (carcinogenic to humans). Several studies have indicated that the risk of lung cancer from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and smoking is greater than additive (Brown 2009; Liu <I>et al.</I> 2013). Employees should be counseled on smoking cessation.
</P>
<HD1>2. Medical Surveillance
</HD1>
<P>PLHCPs who manage silica medical surveillance programs should have a thorough understanding of the many silica-related diseases and health effects outlined in Section 1 of this Appendix. At each clinical encounter, the PLHCP should consider silica-related health outcomes, with particular vigilance for acute and accelerated silicosis. In this Section, the required components of medical surveillance under the respirable crystalline silica standard are reviewed, along with additional guidance and recommendations for PLHCPs performing medical surveillance examinations for silica-exposed employees.
</P>
<HD3>2.1. History
</HD3>
<P>2.1.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: A medical and work history, with emphasis on: Past, present, and anticipated exposure to respirable crystalline silica, dust, and other agents affecting the respiratory system; any history of respiratory system dysfunction, including signs and symptoms of respiratory disease (e.g., shortness of breath, cough, wheezing); history of TB; and smoking status and history.
</P>
<P>2.1.2. Further, the employer must provide the PLHCP with the following information:
</P>
<P>2.1.2.1. A description of the employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>2.1.2.2. The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>2.1.2.3. A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used or will use that equipment; and
</P>
<P>2.1.2.4. Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee and currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>2.1.3. Additional guidance and recommendations: A history is particularly important both in the initial evaluation and in periodic examinations. Information on past and current medical conditions (particularly a history of kidney disease, cardiac disease, connective tissue disease, and other immune diseases), medications, hospitalizations and surgeries may uncover health risks, such as immune suppression, that could put an employee at increased health risk from exposure to silica. This information is important when counseling the employee on risks and safe work practices related to silica exposure.
</P>
<HD3>2.2. Physical Examination
</HD3>
<P>2.2.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: A physical examination, with special emphasis on the respiratory system. The physical examination must be performed at the initial examination and every three years thereafter.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. Additional guidance and recommendations: Elements of the physical examination that can assist the PHLCP include: An examination of the cardiac system, an extremity examination (for clubbing, cyanosis, edema, or joint abnormalities), and an examination of other pertinent organ systems identified during the history.
</P>
<HD3>2.3. TB Testing
</HD3>
<P>2.3.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: Baseline testing for TB on initial examination.
</P>
<P>2.3.2. Additional guidance and recommendations:
</P>
<P>2.3.2.1. Current CDC guidelines (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix) should be followed for the application and interpretation of Tuberculin skin tests (TST). The interpretation and documentation of TST reactions should be performed within 48 to 72 hours of administration by trained PLHCPs.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.2. PLHCPs may use alternative TB tests, such as interferon-γ release assays (IGRAs), if sensitivity and specificity are comparable to TST (Mazurek <I>et al.</I> 2010; Slater <I>et al.</I> 2013). PLHCPs can consult the current CDC guidelines for acceptable tests for latent TB infection.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.3. The silica standard allows the PLHCP to order additional tests or test at a greater frequency than required by the standard, if deemed appropriate. Therefore, PLHCPs might perform periodic (e.g., annual) TB testing as appropriate, based on employees' risk factors. For example, according to the American Thoracic Society (ATS), the diagnosis of silicosis or exposure to silica for 25 years or more are indications for annual TB testing (ATS 1997). PLHCPs should consult the current CDC guidance on risk factors for TB (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix).
</P>
<P>2.3.2.4. Employees with positive TB tests and those with indeterminate test results should be referred to the appropriate agency or specialist, depending on the test results and clinical picture. Agencies, such as local public health departments, or specialists, such as a pulmonary or infectious disease specialist, may be the appropriate referral. Active TB is a nationally notifiable disease. PLHCPs should be aware of the reporting requirements for their region. All States have TB Control Offices that can be contacted for further information. (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix for links to CDC's TB resources and State TB Control Offices.)
</P>
<P>2.3.2.5. The following public health principles are key to TB control in the U.S. (ATS-CDC-IDSA 2005):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prompt detection and reporting of persons who have contracted active TB;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Prevention of TB spread to close contacts of active TB cases;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prevention of active TB in people with latent TB through targeted testing and treatment; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Identification of settings at high risk for TB transmission so that appropriate infection-control measures can be implemented.
</P>
<HD3>2.4. Pulmonary Function Testing
</HD3>
<P>2.4.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: Pulmonary function testing must be performed on the initial examination and every three years thereafter. The required pulmonary function test is spirometry and must include forced vital capacity (FVC), forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>), and FEV<E T="52">1</E>/FVC ratio. Testing must be administered by a spirometry technician with a current certificate from a National Institute for Occupational Health and Safety (NIOSH)-approved spirometry course.
</P>
<P>2.4.2. Additional guidance and recommendations: Spirometry provides information about individual respiratory status and can be used to track an employee's respiratory status over time or as a surveillance tool to follow individual and group respiratory function. For quality results, the ATS and the American College of Occupational and Environmental Medicine (ACOEM) recommend use of the third National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES III) values, and ATS publishes recommendations for spirometry equipment (Miller <I>et al.</I> 2005; Townsend 2011; Redlich <I>et al.</I> 2014). OSHA's publication, <I>Spirometry Testing in Occupational Health Programs: Best Practices for Healthcare Professionals,</I> provides helpful guidance (See Section 5 of this Appendix). Abnormal spirometry results may warrant further clinical evaluation and possible recommendations for limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<HD3>2.5. Chest X-ray
</HD3>
<P>2.5.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: A single posteroanterior (PA) radiographic projection or radiograph of the chest at full inspiration recorded on either film (no less than 14 x 17 inches and no more than 16 x 17 inches) or digital radiography systems. A chest X-ray must be performed on the initial examination and every three years thereafter. The chest X-ray must be interpreted and classified according to the International Labour Office (ILO) International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses by a NIOSH-certified B Reader.
</P>
<P>Chest radiography is necessary to diagnose silicosis, monitor the progression of silicosis, and identify associated conditions such as TB. If the B reading indicates small opacities in a profusion of 1/0 or higher, the employee is to receive a recommendation for referral to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine.
</P>
<P>2.5.2. Additional guidance and recommendations: Medical imaging has largely transitioned from conventional film-based radiography to digital radiography systems. The ILO Guidelines for the Classification of Pneumoconioses has historically provided film-based chest radiography as a referent standard for comparison to individual exams. However, in 2011, the ILO revised the guidelines to include a digital set of referent standards that were derived from the prior film-based standards. To assist in assuring that digitally-acquired radiographs are at least as safe and effective as film radiographs, NIOSH has prepared guidelines, based upon accepted contemporary professional recommendations (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix). Current research from Laney <I>et al.</I> 2011 and Halldin <I>et al.</I> 2014 validate the use of the ILO digital referent images. Both studies conclude that the results of pneumoconiosis classification using digital references are comparable to film-based ILO classifications. Current ILO guidance on radiography for pneumoconioses and B-reading should be reviewed by the PLHCP periodically, as needed, on the ILO or NIOSH Web sites (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix).
</P>
<P><I>2.6. Other Testing.</I> Under the respirable crystalline silica standards, the PLHCP has the option of ordering additional testing he or she deems appropriate. Additional tests can be ordered on a case-by-case basis depending on individual signs or symptoms and clinical judgment. For example, if an employee reports a history of abnormal kidney function tests, the PLHCP may want to order a baseline renal function tests (e.g., serum creatinine and urinalysis). As indicated above, the PLHCP may order annual TB testing for silica-exposed employees who are at high risk of developing active TB infections. Additional tests that PLHCPs may order based on findings of medical examinations include, but is not limited to, chest computerized tomography (CT) scan for lung cancer or COPD, testing for immunologic diseases, and cardiac testing for pulmonary-related heart disease, such as cor pulmonale.
</P>
<HD1>3. Roles and Responsibilities
</HD1>
<P><I>3.1. PLHCP.</I> The PLHCP designation refers to “an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.</I>, license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the particular health care services required” by the respirable crystalline silica standard. The legally permitted scope of practice for the PLHCP is determined by each State. PLHCPs who perform clinical services for a silica medical surveillance program should have a thorough knowledge of respirable crystalline silica-related diseases and symptoms. Suspected cases of silicosis, advanced COPD, or other respiratory conditions causing impairment should be promptly referred to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine.
</P>
<P>Once the medical surveillance examination is completed, the employer must ensure that the PLHCP explains to the employee the results of the medical examination and provides the employee with a written medical report within 30 days of the examination. The written medical report must contain a statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including any medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and any medical conditions that require further evaluation or treatment. In addition, the PLHCP's written medical report must include any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators, any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica, and a statement that the employee should be examined by a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational medicine if the chest X-ray is classified as 1/0 or higher by the B Reader, or if referral to a Specialist is otherwise deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>The PLHCP should discuss all findings and test results and any recommendations regarding the employee's health, worksite safety and health practices, and medical referrals for further evaluation, if indicated. In addition, it is suggested that the PLHCP offer to provide the employee with a complete copy of their examination and test results, as some employees may want this information for their own records or to provide to their personal physician or a future PLHCP. Employees are entitled to access their medical records.
</P>
<P>Under the respirable crystalline silica standard, the employer must ensure that the PLHCP provides the employer with a written medical opinion within 30 days of the employee examination, and that the employee also gets a copy of the written medical opinion for the employer within 30 days. The PLHCP may choose to directly provide the employee a copy of the written medical opinion. This can be particularly helpful to employees, such as construction employees, who may change employers frequently. The written medical opinion can be used by the employee as proof of up-to-date medical surveillance. The following lists the elements of the written medical report for the employee and written medical opinion for the employer. (Sample forms for the written medical report for the employee, the written medical opinion for the employer, and the written authorization are provided in Section 7 of this Appendix.)
</P>
<P>3.1.1. The written medical report for the employee must include the following information:
</P>
<P>3.1.1.1. A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including any medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and any medical conditions that require further evaluation or treatment;
</P>
<P>3.1.1.2. Any recommended limitations upon the employee's use of a respirator;
</P>
<P>3.1.1.3. Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica; and
</P>
<P>3.1.1.4. A statement that the employee should be examined by a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine, where the standard requires or where the PLHCP has determined such a referral is necessary. The standard requires referral to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine for a chest X-ray B reading indicating small opacities in a profusion of 1/0 or higher, or if the PHLCP determines that referral to a Specialist is necessary for other silica-related findings.
</P>
<P>3.1.2. The PLHCP's written medical opinion for the employer must include only the following information:
</P>
<P>3.1.2.1. The date of the examination;
</P>
<P>3.1.2.2. A statement that the examination has met the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>3.1.2.3. Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.4. If the employee provides the PLHCP with written authorization, the written opinion for the employer shall also contain either or both of the following:
</P>
<P><I>(1)</I> Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica; and
</P>
<P><I>(2)</I> A statement that the employee should be examined by a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine if the chest X-ray provided in accordance with this section is classified as 1/0 or higher by the B Reader, or if referral to a Specialist is otherwise deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.5. In addition to the above referral for abnormal chest X-ray, the PLHCP may refer an employee to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine for other findings of concern during the medical surveillance examination if these findings are potentially related to silica exposure.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.6. Although the respirable crystalline silica standard requires the employer to ensure that the PLHCP explains the results of the medical examination to the employee, the standard does not mandate how this should be done. The written medical opinion for the employer could contain a statement that the PLHCP has explained the results of the medical examination to the employee.
</P>
<P><I>3.2. Medical Specialists.</I> The silica standard requires that all employees with chest X-ray B readings of 1/0 or higher be referred to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine. If the employee has given written authorization for the employer to be informed, then the employer shall make available a medical examination by a Specialist within 30 days after receiving the PLHCP's written medical opinion.
</P>
<P>3.2.1. The employer must provide the following information to the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine:
</P>
<P>3.2.1.1. A description of the employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>3.2.1.2. The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3. A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used or will use that equipment; and
</P>
<P>3.2.1.4. Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee and currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>3.2.2. The PLHCP should make certain that, with written authorization from the employee, the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine has any other pertinent medical and occupational information necessary for the specialist's evaluation of the employee's condition.
</P>
<P>3.2.3. Once the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine has evaluated the employee, the employer must ensure that the Specialist explains to the employee the results of the medical examination and provides the employee with a written medical report within 30 days of the examination. The employer must also ensure that the Specialist provides the employer with a written medical opinion within 30 days of the employee examination. (Sample forms for the written medical report for the employee, the written medical opinion for the employer and the written authorization are provided in Section 7 of this Appendix.)
</P>
<P>3.2.4. The Specialist's written medical report for the employee must include the following information:
</P>
<P>3.2.4.1. A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including any medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and any medical conditions that require further evaluation or treatment;
</P>
<P>3.2.4.2. Any recommended limitations upon the employee's use of a respirator; and
</P>
<P>3.2.4.3. Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>3.2.5. The Specialist's written medical opinion for the employer must include the following information:
</P>
<P>3.2.5.1. The date of the examination; and
</P>
<P>3.2.5.2. Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators.
</P>
<P>3.2.5.3. If the employee provides the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine with written authorization, the written medical opinion for the employer shall also contain any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>3.2.5.4. Although the respirable crystalline silica standard requires the employer to ensure that the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine explains the results of the medical examination to the employee, the standard does not mandate how this should be done. The written medical opinion for the employer could contain a statement that the Specialist has explained the results of the medical examination to the employee.
</P>
<P>3.2.6. After evaluating the employee, the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine should provide feedback to the PLHCP as appropriate, depending on the reason for the referral. OSHA believes that because the PLHCP has the primary relationship with the employer and employee, the Specialist may want to communicate his or her findings to the PLHCP and have the PLHCP simply update the original medical report for the employee and medical opinion for the employer. This is permitted under the standard, so long as all requirements and time deadlines are met.
</P>
<P><I>3.3. Public Health Professionals.</I> PLHCPs might refer employees or consult with public health professionals as a result of silica medical surveillance. For instance, if individual cases of active TB are identified, public health professionals from state or local health departments may assist in diagnosis and treatment of individual cases and may evaluate other potentially affected persons, including coworkers. Because silica-exposed employees are at increased risk of progression from latent to active TB, treatment of latent infection is recommended. The diagnosis of active TB, acute or accelerated silicosis, or other silica-related diseases and infections should serve as sentinel events suggesting high levels of exposure to silica and may require consultation with the appropriate public health agencies to investigate potentially similarly exposed coworkers to assess for disease clusters. These agencies include local or state health departments or OSHA. In addition, NIOSH can provide assistance upon request through their Health Hazard Evaluation program. (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix)
</P>
<HD1>4. Confidentiality and Other Considerations
</HD1>
<P>The information that is provided from the PLHCP to the employee and employer under the medical surveillance section of OSHA's respirable crystalline silica standard differs from that of medical surveillance requirements in previous OSHA standards. The standard requires two separate written communications, a written medical report for the employee and a written medical opinion for the employer. The confidentiality requirements for the written medical opinion are more stringent than in past standards. For example, the information the PLHCP can (and must) include in his or her written medical opinion for the employer is limited to: The date of the examination, a statement that the examination has met the requirements of this section, and any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators. If the employee provides written authorization for the disclosure of any limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica, then the PLHCP can (and must) include that information in the written medical opinion for the employer as well. Likewise, with the employee's written authorization, the PLHCP can (and must) disclose the PLHCP's referral recommendation (if any) as part of the written medical opinion for the employer. However, the opinion to the employer must not include information regarding recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica or any referral recommendations without the employee's written authorization.
</P>
<P>The standard also places limitations on the information that the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine can provide to the employer without the employee's written authorization. The Specialist's written medical opinion for the employer, like the PLHCP's opinion, is limited to (and must contain): The date of the examination and any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators. If the employee provides written authorization, the written medical opinion can (and must) also contain any limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>The PLHCP should discuss the implication of signing or not signing the authorization with the employee (in a manner and language that he or she understands) so that the employee can make an informed decision regarding the written authorization and its consequences. The discussion should include the risk of ongoing silica exposure, personal risk factors, risk of disease progression, and possible health and economic consequences. For instance, written authorization is required for a PLHCP to advise an employer that an employee should be referred to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine for evaluation of an abnormal chest X-ray (B-reading 1/0 or greater). If an employee does not sign an authorization, then the employer will not know and cannot facilitate the referral to a Specialist and is not required to pay for the Specialist's examination. In the rare case where an employee is diagnosed with acute or accelerated silicosis, co-workers are likely to be at significant risk of developing those diseases as a result of inadequate controls in the workplace. In this case, the PLHCP and/or Specialist should explain this concern to the affected employee and make a determined effort to obtain written authorization from the employee so that the PLHCP and/or Specialist can contact the employer.
</P>
<P>Finally, without written authorization from the employee, the PLHCP and/or Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine cannot provide feedback to an employer regarding control of workplace silica exposure, at least in relation to an individual employee. However, the regulation does not prohibit a PLHCP and/or Specialist from providing an employer with general recommendations regarding exposure controls and prevention programs in relation to silica exposure and silica-related illnesses, based on the information that the PLHCP receives from the employer such as employees' duties and exposure levels. Recommendations may include increased frequency of medical surveillance examinations, additional medical surveillance components, engineering and work practice controls, exposure monitoring and personal protective equipment. For instance, more frequent medical surveillance examinations may be a recommendation to employers for employees who do abrasive blasting with silica because of the high exposures associated with that operation.
</P>
<P>ACOEM's Code of Ethics and discussion is a good resource to guide PLHCPs regarding the issues discussed in this section (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix).
</P>
<HD1>5. Resources
</HD1>
<P>5.1. American College of Occupational and Environmental Medicine (ACOEM):
</P>
<FP-2>ACOEM Code of Ethics. Accessed at: <I>http://www.acoem.org/codeofconduct.aspx</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Raymond, L.W. and Wintermeyer, S. (2006) ACOEM evidenced-based statement on medical surveillance of silica-exposed workers: Medical surveillance of workers exposed to crystalline silica. <I>J Occup Environ Med,</I> 48, 95-101.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2. Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
</P>
<FP-2>Tuberculosis Web page: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/tb/default.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>State TB Control Offices Web page: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/tb/links/tboffices.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Tuberculosis Laws and Policies Web page: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/tb/programs/laws/default.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CDC. (2013). Latent Tuberculosis Infection: A Guide for Primary Health Care Providers. Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/tb/publications/ltbi/pdf/targetedltbi.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.3. International Labour Organization
</P>
<FP-2>International Labour Office (ILO). (2011) Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised edition 2011. Occupational Safety and Health Series No. 22: <I>http://www.ilo.org/safework/info/publications/WCMS_168260/lang-en/index.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.4. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
</P>
<FP-2>NIOSH B Reader Program Web page. (Information on interpretation of X-rays for silicosis and a list of certified B-readers). Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/topics/chestradiography/breader-info.html</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>NIOSH Guideline (2011). Application of Digital Radiography for the Detection and Classification of Pneumoconiosis. NIOSH publication number 2011-198. Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/2011-198/.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>NIOSH Hazard Review (2002), Health Effects of Occupational Exposure to Respirable Crystalline Silica. NIOSH publication number 2002-129: Accessed at <I>http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/2002-129/</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>NIOSH Health Hazard Evaluations Programs. (Information on the NIOSH Health Hazard Evaluation (HHE) program, how to request an HHE and how to look up an HHE report). Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/hhe/</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.5. National Industrial Sand Association:
</P>
<FP-2>Occupational Health Program for Exposure to Crystalline Silica in the Industrial Sand Industry. National Industrial Sand Association, 2nd ed. 2010. Can be ordered at: <I>http://www.sand.org/silica-occupational-health-program</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.6. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
</P>
<FP-2>Contacting OSHA: <I>http://www.osha.gov/html/Feed_Back.html</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA's Clinicians Web page. (OSHA resources, regulations and links to help clinicians navigate OSHA's Web site and aid clinicians in caring for workers.) Accessed at: <I>http://www.osha.gov/dts/oom/clinicians/index.html</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA's Safety and Health Topics Web page on Silica. Accessed at: <I>http://www.osha.gov/dsg/topics/silicacrystalline/index.html</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA (2013). Spirometry Testing in Occupational Health Programs: Best Practices for Healthcare Professionals. (OSHA 3637-03 2013). Accessed at: <I>http://www.osha.gov/Publications/OSHA3637.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA/NIOSH (2011). Spirometry: OSHA/NIOSH Spirometry InfoSheet (OSHA 3415-1-11). (Provides guidance to employers). Accessed at <I>http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3415.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA/NIOSH (2011) Spirometry: OSHA/NIOSH Spirometry Worker Info. (OSHA 3418-3-11). Accessed at <I>http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3418.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.7. Other
</P>
<FP-2>Steenland, K. and Ward E. (2014). Silica: A lung carcinogen. <I>CA Cancer J Clin,</I> 64, 63-69. (This article reviews not only silica and lung cancer but also all the known silica-related health effects. Further, the authors provide guidance to clinicians on medical surveillance of silica-exposed workers and worker counselling on safety practices to minimize silica exposure.)
</FP-2>
<HD1>6. References
</HD1>
<FP-2>American Thoracic Society (ATS). Medical Section of the American Lung Association (1997). Adverse effects of crystalline silica exposure. <I>Am J Respir Crit Care Med,</I> 155, 761-765.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>American Thoracic Society (ATS), Centers for Disease Control (CDC), Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) (2005). Controlling Tuberculosis in the United States. <I>Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR),</I> 54(RR12), 1-81. Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/rr5412a1.htm.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Brown, T. (2009). Silica exposure, smoking, silicosis and lung cancer—complex interactions. <I>Occupational Medicine,</I> 59, 89-95.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Halldin, C.N., Petsonk, E.L., and Laney, A.S. (2014). Validation of the International Labour Office digitized standard images for recognition and classification of radiographs of pneumoconiosis. <I>Acad Radiol,</I> 21, 305-311.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>International Agency for Research on Cancer. (2012). Monographs on the evaluation of carcinogenic risks to humans: Arsenic, Metals, Fibers, and Dusts Silica Dust, Crystalline, in the Form of Quartz or Cristobalite. A Review of Human Carcinogens. Volume 100 C. Geneva, Switzerland: World Health Organization.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Jalloul, A.S. and Banks D.E. (2007). Chapter 23. The health effects of silica exposure. In: Rom, W.N. and Markowitz, S.B. (Eds). Environmental and Occupational Medicine, 4th edition. Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, Philadelphia, 365-387.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Kramer, M.R., Blanc, P.D., Fireman, E., Amital, A., Guber, A., Rahman, N.A., and Shitrit, D. (2012). Artifical stone silicosis: Disease resurgence among artificial stone workers. <I>Chest,</I> 142, 419-424.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Laney, A.S., Petsonk, E.L., and Attfield, M.D. (2011). Intramodality and intermodality comparisons of storage phosphor computed radiography and conventional film-screen radiography in the recognition of small pneumonconiotic opacities. <I>Chest,</I> 140, 1574-1580.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Liu, Y., Steenland, K., Rong, Y., Hnizdo, E., Huang, X., Zhang, H., Shi, T., Sun, Y., Wu, T., and Chen, W. (2013). Exposure-response analysis and risk assessment for lung cancer in relationship to silica exposure: A 44-year cohort study of 34,018 workers. <I>Am J Epi,</I> 178, 1424-1433.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Liu, Y., Rong, Y., Steenland, K., Christiani, D.C., Huang, X., Wu, T., and Chen, W. (2014). Long-term exposure to crystalline silica and risk of heart disease mortality. <I>Epidemiology,</I> 25, 689-696.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Mazurek, G.H., Jereb, J., Vernon, A., LoBue, P., Goldberg, S., Castro, K. (2010). Updated guidelines for using interferon gamma release assays to detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection—United States. <I>Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR),</I> 59(RR05), 1-25.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Miller, M.R., Hankinson, J., Brusasco, V., Burgos, F., Casaburi, R., Coates, A., Crapo, R., Enright, P., van der Grinten, C.P., Gustafsson, P., Jensen, R., Johnson, D.C., MacIntyre, N., McKay, R., Navajas, D., Pedersen, O.F., Pellegrino, R., Viegi, G., and Wanger, J. (2005).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society (ATS/ERS) Task Force: Standardisation of Spirometry. <I>Eur Respir J,</I> 26, 319-338.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>National Toxicology Program (NTP) (2014). Report on Carcinogens, Thirteenth Edition. Silica, Crystalline (respirable Size). Research Triangle Park, NC: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service. <I>http://ntp.niehs.nih.gov/ntp/roc/content/profiles/silica.pdf.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Occupational Safety and Health Administration/National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (OSHA/NIOSH) (2012). Hazard Alert. Worker exposure to silica during hydraulic fracturing.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Occupational Safety and Health Administration/National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (OSHA/NIOSH) (2015). Hazard alert. Worker exposure to silica during countertop manufacturing, finishing, and installation. (OSHA-HA-3768-2015).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Redlich, C.A., Tarlo, S.M., Hankinson, J.L., Townsend, M.C, Eschenbacher, W.L., Von Essen, S.G., Sigsgaard, T., Weissman, D.N. (2014). Official American Thoracic Society technical standards: Spirometry in the occupational setting. <I>Am J Respir Crit Care Med</I>; 189, 984-994.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Rees, D. and Murray, J. (2007). Silica, silicosis and tuberculosis. <I>Int J Tuberc Lung Dis</I>, 11(5), 474-484.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Shtraichman, O., Blanc, P.D., Ollech, J.E., Fridel, L., Fuks, L., Fireman, E., and Kramer, M.R. (2015). Outbreak of autoimmune disease in silicosis linked to artificial stone. <I>Occup Med,</I> 65, 444-450.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Slater, M.L., Welland, G., Pai, M., Parsonnet, J., and Banaei, N. (2013). Challenges with QuantiFERON-TB gold assay for large-scale, routine screening of U.S. healthcare workers. <I>Am J Respir Crit Care Med,</I> 188, 1005-1010.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Steenland, K., Mannetje, A., Boffetta, P., Stayner, L., Attfield, M., Chen, J., Dosemeci, M., DeKlerk, N., Hnizdo, E., Koskela, R., and Checkoway, H. (2001). International Agency for Research on Cancer. Pooled exposure-response analyses and risk assessment for lung cancer in 10 cohorts of silica-exposed workers: An IARC multicentre study. <I>Cancer Causes Control,</I> 12(9):773-84.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Steenland, K. and Ward E. (2014). Silica: A lung carcinogen. <I>CA Cancer J Clin,</I> 64, 63-69.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Townsend, M.C. ACOEM Guidance Statement. (2011). Spirometry in the occupational health setting—2011 Update. <I>J Occup Environ Med,</I> 53, 569-584.
</FP-2>
<HD1>7. Sample Forms
</HD1>
<P>Three sample forms are provided. The first is a sample written medical report for the employee. The second is a sample written medical opinion for the employer. And the third is a sample written authorization form that employees sign to clarify what information the employee is authorizing to be released to the employer.</P></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er25mr16.172.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er25mr16.173.gif"/>
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<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 16862, Mar. 25, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1096" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1096   Ionizing radiation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section</I>—(1) <I>Radiation</I> includes alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, X-rays, neutrons, high-speed electrons, high-speed protons, and other atomic particles; but such term does not include sound or radio waves, or visible light, or infrared or ultraviolet light.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Radioactive material</I> means any material which emits, by spontaneous nuclear disintegration, corpuscular or electromagnetic emanations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restricted area</I> means any area access to which is controlled by the employer for purposes of protection of individuals from exposure to radiation or radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unrestricted area</I> means any area access to which is not controlled by the employer for purposes of protection of individuals from exposure to radiation or radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dose</I> means the quantity of ionizing radiation absorbed, per unit of mass, by the body or by any portion of the body. When the provisions in this section specify a dose during a period of time, the dose is the total quantity of radiation absorbed, per unit of mass, by the body or by any portion of the body during such period of time. Several different units of dose are in current use. Definitions of units used in this section are set forth in paragraphs (a) (6) and (7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rad</I> means a measure of the dose of any ionizing radiation to body tissues in terms of the energy absorbed per unit of mass of the tissue. One rad is the dose corresponding to the absorption of 100 ergs per gram of tissue (1 millirad (mrad) = 0.001 rad).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Rem</I> means a measure of the dose of any ionizing radiation to body tissue in terms of its estimated biological effect relative to a dose of 1 roentgen (r) of X-rays (1 millirem (mrem) = 0.001 rem). The relation of the rem to other dose units depends upon the biological effect under consideration and upon the conditions for irradiation. Each of the following is considered to be equivalent to a dose of 1 rem:
</P>
<P>(i) A dose of 1 roentgen due to X- or gamma radiation;
</P>
<P>(ii) A dose of 1 rad due to X-, gamma, or beta radiation;
</P>
<P>(iii) A dose of 0.1 rad due to neutrons or high energy protons;
</P>
<P>(iv) A dose of 0.05 rad due to particles heavier than protons and with sufficient energy to reach the lens of the eye;
</P>
<P>(v) If it is more convenient to measure the neutron flux, or equivalent, than to determine the neutron dose in rads, as provided in paragraph (a)(7)(iii) of this section, 1 rem of neutron radiation may, for purposes of the provisions in this section be assumed to be equivalent to 14 million neutrons per square centimeter incident upon the body; or, if there is sufficient information to estimate with reasonable accuracy the approximate distribution in energy of the neutrons, the incident number of neutrons per square centimeter equivalent to 1 rem may be estimated from Table G-17:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-17—Neutron Flux Dose Equivalents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Neutron energy (million electron volts (Mev))
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of neutrons per square centimeter equivalent to a dose of 1 rem (neutrons/cm
<sup>2</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average flux to deliver 100 millirem in 40 hours (neutrons/cm
<sup>2</sup> per sec.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thermal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">970 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">670
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.0001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">720 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">820 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">280
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) For determining exposures to X- or gamma rays up to 3 Mev., the dose limits specified in this section may be assumed to be equivalent to the “air dose”. For the purpose of this section <I>air dose</I> means that the dose is measured by a properly calibrated appropriate instrument in air at or near the body surface in the region of the highest dosage rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exposure of individuals to radiation in restricted areas.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, no employer shall possess, use, or transfer sources of ionizing radiation in such a manner as to cause any individual in a restricted area to receive in any period of one calendar quarter from sources in the employer's possession or control a dose in excess of the limits specified in Table G-18:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-18
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rems per calendar quarter
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole body: Head and trunk; active blood-forming organs; lens of eyes; or gonads</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hands and forearms; feet and ankles</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin of whole body</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) An employer may permit an individual in a restricted area to receive doses to the whole body greater than those permitted under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) During any calendar quarter the dose to the whole body shall not exceed 3 rems; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The dose to the whole body, when added to the accumulated occupational dose to the whole body, shall not exceed 5 (N-18) rems, where “N” equals the individual's age in years at his last birthday; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer maintains adequate past and current exposure records which show that the addition of such a dose will not cause the individual to exceed the amount authorized in this subparagraph. As used in this subparagraph <I>Dose to the whole body</I> shall be deemed to include any dose to the whole body, gonad, active bloodforming organs, head and trunk, or lens of the eye.
</P>
<P>(3) No employer shall permit any employee who is under 18 years of age to receive in any period of one calendar quarter a dose in excess of 10 percent of the limits specified in Table G-18.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Calendar quarter</I> means any 3-month period determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The first period of any year may begin on any date in January: <I>Provided,</I> That the second, third, and fourth periods accordingly begin on the same date in April, July, and October, respectively, and that the fourth period extends into January of the succeeding year, if necessary to complete a 3-month quarter. During the first year of use of this method of determination, the first period for that year shall also include any additional days in January preceding the starting date for the first period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The first period in a calendar year of 13 complete, consecutive calendar weeks; the second period in a calendar year of 13 complete, consecutive weeks; the third period in a calendar year of 13 complete, consecutive calendar weeks; the fourth period in a calendar year of 13 complete, consecutive calendar weeks. If at the end of a calendar year there are any days not falling within a complete calendar week of that year, such days shall be included within the last complete calendar week of that year. If at the beginning of any calendar year there are days not falling within a complete calendar week of that year, such days shall be included within the last complete calendar week of the previous year; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The four periods in a calendar year may consist of the first 14 complete, consecutive calendar weeks; the next 12 complete, consecutive calendar weeks, the next 14 complete, consecutive calendar weeks, and the last 12 complete, consecutive calendar weeks. If at the end of a calendar year there are any days not falling within a complete calendar week of that year, such days shall be included (for purposes of this section) within the last complete calendar week of the year. If at the beginning of any calendar year there are days not falling within a complete calendar week of that year, such days shall be included (for purposes of this section) within the last complete week of the previous year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposure to airborne radioactive material.</I> (1) No employer shall possess, use or transport radioactive material in such a manner as to cause any employee, within a restricted area, to be exposed to airborne radioactive material in an average concentration in excess of the limits specified in Table 1 of appendix B to 10 CFR part 20. The limits given in Table 1 are for exposure to the concentrations specified for 40 hours in any workweek of 7 consecutive days. In any such period where the number of hours of exposure is less than 40, the limits specified in the table may be increased proportionately. In any such period where the number of hours of exposure is greater than 40, the limits specified in the table shall be decreased proportionately.
</P>
<P>(2) No employer shall possess, use, or transfer radioactive material in such a manner as to cause any individual within a restricted area, who is under 18 years of age, to be exposed to airborne radioactive material in an average concentration in excess of the limits specified in Table II of appendix B to 10 CFR part 20. For purposes of this paragraph, concentrations may be averaged over periods not greater than 1 week.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exposed</I> as used in this paragraph means that the individual is present in an airborne concentration. No allowance shall be made for the use of protective clothing or equipment, or particle size.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Precautionary procedures and personal monitoring.</I> (1) Every employer shall make such surveys as may be necessary for him to comply with the provisions in this section. <I>Survey</I> means an evaluation of the radiation hazards incident to the production, use, release, disposal, or presence of radioactive materials or other sources of radiation under a specific set of conditions. When appropriate, such evaluation includes a physical survey of the location of materials and equipment, and measurements of levels of radiation or concentrations of radioactive material present.
</P>
<P>(2) Every employer shall supply appropriate personnel monitoring equipment, such as film badges, pocket chambers, pocket dosimeters, or film rings, and shall require the use of such equipment by:
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee who enters a restricted area under such circumstances that he receives, or is likely to receive, a dose in any calendar quarter in excess of 25 percent of the applicable value specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee under 18 years of age who enters a restricted area under such circumstances that he receives, or is likely to receive, a dose in any calendar quarter in excess of 5 percent of the applicable value specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee who enters a high radiation area.
</P>
<P>(3) As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Personnel monitoring equipment</I> means devices designed to be worn or carried by an individual for the purpose of measuring the dose received (e.g., film badges, pocket chambers, pocket dosimeters, film rings, etc.);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Radiation area</I> means any area, accessible to personnel, in which there exists radiation at such levels that a major portion of the body could receive in any 1 hour a dose in excess of 5 millirem, or in any 5 consecutive days a dose in excess of 100 millirem; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>High radiation area</I> means any area, accessible to personnel, in which there exists radiation at such levels that a major portion of the body could receive in any one hour a dose in excess of 100 millirem.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Caution signs, labels, and signals</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Symbols prescribed by this paragraph shall use the conventional radiation caution colors (magenta or purple on yellow background). The symbol prescribed by this paragraph is the conventional three-bladed design:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec28oc91.041.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure G-10</E></BCAP>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Radiation area.</I> Each radiation area shall be conspicuously posted with a sign or signs bearing the radiation caution symbol described in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph and the words:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>CAUTION
</HD3>
<HD3>RADIATION AREA</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>High radiation area.</I> (i) Each high radiation area shall be conspicuously posted with a sign or signs bearing the radiation caution symbol and the words:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>CAUTION
</HD3>
<HD3>HIGH RADIATION AREA</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Each high radiation area shall be equipped with a control device which shall either cause the level of radiation to be reduced below that at which an individual might receive a dose of 100 millirems in 1 hour upon entry into the area or shall energize a conspicuous visible or audible alarm signal in such a manner that the individual entering and the employer or a supervisor of the activity are made aware of the entry. In the case of a high radiation area established for a period of 30 days or less, such control device is not required.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Airborne radioactivity area.</I> (i) As used in the provisions of this section, <I>airborne radioactivity area</I> means:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Any room, enclosure, or operating area in which airborne radioactive materials, composed wholly or partly of radioactive material, exist in concentrations in excess of the amounts specified in column 1 of Table 1 of appendix B to 10 CFR part 20 or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Any room, enclosure, or operating area in which airborne radioactive materials exist in concentrations which, averaged over the number of hours in any week during which individuals are in the area, exceed 25 percent of the amounts specified in column 1 of Table 1 of appendix B to 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each airborne radioactivity area shall be conspicuously posted with a sign or signs bearing the radiation caution symbol described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and the words:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>CAUTION
</HD3>
<HD3>AIRBORNE RADIOACTIVITY AREA</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) <I>Additional requirements.</I> (i) Each area or room in which radioactive material is used or stored and which contains any radioactive material (other than natural uranium or thorium) in any amount exceeding 10 times the quantity of such material specified in appendix C to 10 CFR part 20 shall be conspicuously posted with a sign or signs bearing the radiation caution symbol described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and the words:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>CAUTION
</HD3>
<HD3>RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Each area or room in which natural uranium or thorium is used or stored in an amount exceeding 100 times the quantity of such material specified in 10 CFR part 20 shall be conspicuously posted with a sign or signs bearing the radiation caution symbol described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and the words:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>CAUTION
</HD3>
<HD3>RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>Containers.</I> (i) Each container in which is transported, stored, or used a quantity of any radioactive material (other than natural uranium or thorium) greater than the quantity of such material specified in appendix C to 10 CFR part 20 shall bear a durable, clearly visible label bearing the radiation caution symbol described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and the words:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>CAUTION
</HD3>
<HD3>RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Each container in which natural uranium or thorium is transported, stored, or used in a quantity greater than 10 times the quantity specified in appendix C to 10 CFR part 20 shall bear a durable, clearly visible label bearing the radiation caution symbol described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and the words:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>CAUTION
</HD3>
<HD3>RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (e)(6) (i) and (ii) of this section a label shall not be required:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) If the concentration of the material in the container does not exceed that specified in column 2 of Table 1 of appendix B to 10 CFR part 20, or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For laboratory containers, such as beakers, flasks, and test tubes, used transiently in laboratory procedures, when the user is present.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where containers are used for storage, the labels required in this subparagraph shall state also the quantities and kinds of radioactive materials in the containers and the date of measurement of the quantities.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Immediate evacuation warning signal</I>—(1) <I>Signal characteristics.</I> (i) The signal shall be a midfrequency complex sound wave amplitude modulated at a subsonic frequency. The complex sound wave in free space shall have a fundamental frequency (f<E T="52">1</E>) between 450 and 500 hertz (Hz) modulated at a subsonic rate between 4 and 5 hertz.
</P>
<P>(ii) The signal generator shall not be less than 75 decibels at every location where an individual may be present whose immediate, rapid, and complete evacuation is essential.
</P>
<P>(iii) A sufficient number of signal units shall be installed such that the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section are met at every location where an individual may be present whose immediate, rapid, and complete evacuation is essential.
</P>
<P>(iv) The signal shall be unique in the plant or facility in which it is installed.
</P>
<P>(v) The minimum duration of the signal shall be sufficient to insure that all affected persons hear the signal.
</P>
<P>(vi) The signal-generating system shall respond automatically to an initiating event without requiring any human action to sound the signal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design objectives.</I> (i) The signal-generating system shall be designed to incorporate components which enable the system to produce the desired signal each time it is activated within one-half second of activation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The signal-generating system shall be provided with an automatically activated secondary power supply which is adequate to simultaneously power all emergency equipment to which it is connected, if operation during power failure is necessary, except in those systems using batteries as the primary source of power.
</P>
<P>(iii) All components of the signal-generating system shall be located to provide maximum practicable protection against damage in case of fire, explosion, corrosive atmosphere, or other environmental extremes consistent with adequate system performance.
</P>
<P>(iv) The signal-generating system shall be designed with the minimum number of components necessary to make it function as intended, and should utilize components which do not require frequent servicing such as lubrication or cleaning.
</P>
<P>(v) Where several activating devices feed activating information to a central signal generator, failure of any activating device shall not render the signal-generator system inoperable to activating information from the remaining devices.
</P>
<P>(vi) The signal-generating system shall be designed to enhance the probability that alarm occurs only when immediate evacuation is warranted. The number of false alarms shall not be so great that the signal will come to be disregarded and shall be low enough to minimize personal injuries or excessive property damage that might result from such evacuation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Testing.</I> (i) Initial tests, inspections, and checks of the signal-generating system shall be made to verify that the fabrication and installation were made in accordance with design plans and specifications and to develop a thorough knowledge of the performance of the system and all components under normal and hostile conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Once the system has been placed in service, periodic tests, inspections, and checks shall be made to minimize the possibility of malfunction.
</P>
<P>(iii) Following significant alterations or revisions to the system, tests and checks similar to the initial installation tests shall be made.
</P>
<P>(iv) Tests shall be designed to minimize hazards while conducting the tests.
</P>
<P>(v) Prior to normal operation the signal-generating system shall be checked physically and functionally to assure reliability and to demonstrate accuracy and performance. Specific tests shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) All power sources.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Calibration and calibration stability.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Trip levels and stability.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Continuity of function with loss and return of required services such as AC or DC power, air pressure, etc.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) All indicators.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Trouble indicator circuits and signals, where used.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Air pressure (if used)
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Determine that sound level of the signal is within the limit of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section at all points that require immediate evacuation.
</P>
<P>(vi) In addition to the initial startup and operating tests, periodic scheduled performance tests and status checks must be made to insure that the system is at all times operating within design limits and capable of the required response. Specific periodic tests or checks or both shall include:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Adequacy of signal activation device.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) All power sources.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Function of all alarm circuits and trouble indicator circuits including trip levels.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Air pressure (if used).
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Function of entire system including operation without power where required.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Complete operational tests including sounding of the signal and determination that sound levels are adequate.
</P>
<P>(vii) Periodic tests shall be scheduled on the basis of need, experience, difficulty, and disruption of operations. The entire system should be operationally tested at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(viii) All employees whose work may necessitate their presence in an area covered by the signal shall be made familiar with the actual sound of the signal—preferably as it sounds at their work location. Before placing the system into operation, all employees normally working in the area shall be made acquainted with the signal by actual demonstration at their work locations.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exceptions from posting requirements.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (e) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A room or area is not required to be posted with a caution sign because of the presence of a sealed source, provided the radiation level 12 inches from the surface of the source container or housing does not exceed 5 millirem per hour.
</P>
<P>(2) Rooms or other areas in onsite medical facilities are not required to be posted with caution signs because of the presence of patients containing radioactive material, provided that there are personnel in attendance who shall take the precautions necessary to prevent the exposure of any individual to radiation or radioactive material in excess of the limits established in the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Caution signs are not required to be posted at areas or rooms containing radioactive materials for periods of less than 8 hours: <I>Provided,</I> That
</P>
<P>(i) The materials are constantly attended during such periods by an individual who shall take the precautions necessary to prevent the exposure of any individual to radiation or radioactive materials in excess of the limits established in the provisions of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such area or room is subject to the employer's control.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exemptions for radioactive materials packaged for shipment.</I> Radioactive materials packaged and labeled in accordance with regulations of the Department of Transportation published in 49 CFR Chapter I, are exempt from the labeling and posting requirements of this subpart during shipment, provided that the inside containers are labeled in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Instruction of personnel, posting.</I> (1) Employers regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission shall be governed by 10 CFR part 20 standards. Employers in a State named in paragraph (p)(3) of this section shall be governed by the requirements of the laws and regulations of that State. All other employers shall be regulated by the following:
</P>
<P>(2) All individuals working in or frequenting any portion of a radiation area shall be informed of the occurrence of radioactive materials or of radiation in such portions of the radiation area; shall be instructed in the safety problems associated with exposure to such materials or radiation and in precautions or devices to minimize exposure; shall be instructed in the applicable provisions of this section for the protection of employees from exposure to radiation or radioactive materials; and shall be advised of reports of radiation exposure which employees may request pursuant to the regulations in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Each employer to whom this section applies shall post a current copy of its provisions and a copy of the operating procedures applicable to the work conspicuously in such locations as to insure that employees working in or frequenting radiation areas will observe these documents on the way to and from their place of employment, or shall keep such documents available for examination of employees upon request.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Storage of radioactive materials.</I> Radioactive materials stored in a nonradiation area shall be secured against unauthorized removal from the place of storage.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Waste disposal.</I> No employer shall dispose of radioactive material except by transfer to an authorized recipient, or in a manner approved by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or a State named in paragraph (p)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Notification of incidents</I>—(1) <I>Immediate notification.</I> Each employer shall immediately notify the Assistant Secretary of Labor or his duly authorized representative, for employees not protected by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission by means of 10 CFR part 20; paragraph (p)(2) of this section, or the requirements of the laws and regulations of States named in paragraph (p)(3) of this section, by telephone or telegraph of any incident involving radiation which may have caused or threatens to cause:
</P>
<P>(i) Exposure of the whole body of any individual to 25 rems or more of radiation; exposure of the skin of the whole body of any individual to 150 rems or more of radiation; or exposure of the feet, ankles, hands, or forearms of any individual to 375 rems or more of radiation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The release of radioactive material in concentrations which, if averaged over a period of 24 hours, would exceed 5,000 times the limit specified for such materials in Table II of appendix B to 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Twenty-four hour notification.</I> Each employer shall within 24 hours following its occurrence notify the Assistant Secretary of Labor or his duly authorized representative for employees not protected by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission by means of 10 CFR part 20; paragraph (p)(2) of this section, or the requirements of the laws and applicable regulations of States named in paragraph (p)(3) of this section, by telephone or telegraph of any incident involving radiation which may have caused or threatens to cause:
</P>
<P>(i) Exposure of the whole body of any individual to 5 rems or more of radiation; exposure of the skin of the whole body of any individual to 30 rems or more of radiation; or exposure of the feet, ankles, hands, or forearms to 75 rems or more of radiation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Reports of overexposure and excessive levels and concentrations.</I> (1) In addition to any notification required by paragraph (1) of this section each employer shall make a report in writing within 30 days to the Assistant Secretary of Labor or his duly authorized representative, for employees not protected by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission by means of 10 CFR part 20; or under paragraph (p)(2) of this section, or the requirements of the laws and regulations of States named in paragraph (p)(3) of this section, of each exposure of an individual to radiation or concentrations of radioactive material in excess of any applicable limit in this section. Each report required under this paragraph shall describe the extent of exposure of persons to radiation or to radioactive material; levels of radiation and concentration of radioactive material involved, the cause of the exposure, levels of concentrations; and corrective steps taken or planned to assure against a recurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) In any case where an employer is required pursuant to the provisions of this paragraph to report to the U.S. Department of Labor any exposure of an individual to radiation or to concentrations of radioactive material, the employer shall also notify such individual of the nature and extent of exposure. Such notice shall be in writing and shall contain the following statement: “You should preserve this report for future reference.”
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Records.</I> (1) Every employer shall maintain records of the radiation exposure of all employees for whom personnel monitoring is required under paragraph (d) of this section and advise each of his employees of his individual exposure on at least an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(2) Every employer shall maintain records in the same units used in tables in paragraph (b) of this section and appendix B to 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Disclosure to former employee of individual employee's record.</I> (1) At the request of a former employee an employer shall furnish to the employee a report of the employee's exposure to radiation as shown in records maintained by the employer pursuant to paragraph (n)(1) of this section. Such report shall be furnished within 30 days from the time the request is made, and shall cover each calendar quarter of the individual's employment involving exposure to radiation or such lesser period as may be requested by the employee. The report shall also include the results of any calculations and analysis of radioactive material deposited in the body of the employee. The report shall be in writing and contain the following statement: “You should preserve this report for future reference.”
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Nuclear Regulatory Commission licensees—NRC contractors operating NRC plants and facilities—NRC Agreement State licensees or registrants.</I> (1) Any employer who possesses or uses source material, byproduct material, or special nuclear material, as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, under a license issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR part 20 shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section with respect to such possession and use.
</P>
<P>(2) NRC contractors operating NRC plants and facilities: Any employer who possesses or uses source material, byproduct material, special nuclear material, or other radiation sources under a contract with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission for the operation of NRC plants and facilities and in accordance with the standards, procedures, and other requirements for radiation protection established by the Commission for such contract pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>), shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section with respect to such possession and use.
</P>
<P>(3) NRC-agreement State licensees or registrants:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Atomic Energy Act sources.</I> Any employer who possesses or uses source material, byproduct material, or special nuclear material, as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>), and has either registered such sources with, or is operating under a license issued by, a State which has an agreement in effect with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission pursuant to section 274(b) (42 U.S.C. 2021(b)) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and in accordance with the requirements of that State's laws and regulations shall be deemed to be in compliance with the radiation requirements of this section, insofar as his possession and use of such material is concerned, unless the Secretary of Labor, after conference with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, shall determine that the State's program for control of these radiation sources is incompatible with the requirements of this section. Such agreements currently are in effect only in the States of Alabama, Arkansas, California, Kansas, Kentucky, Florida, Mississippi, New Hampshire, New York, North Carolina, Texas, Tennessee, Oregon, Idaho, Arizona, Colorado, Louisiana, Nebraska, Washington, Maryland, North Dakota, South Carolina, and Georgia.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other sources.</I> Any employer who possesses or uses radiation sources other than source material, byproduct material, or special nuclear material, as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>), and has either registered such sources with, or is operating under a license issued by a State which has an agreement in effect with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission pursuant to section 274(b) (42 U.S.C. 2021(b)) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and in accordance with the requirements of that State's laws and regulations shall be deemed to be in compliance with the radiation requirements of this section, insofar as his possession and use of such material is concerned, provided the State's program for control of these radiation sources is the subject of a currently effective determination by the Assistant Secretary of Labor that such program is compatible with the requirements of this section. Such determinations currently are in effect only in the States of Alabama, Arkansas, California, Kansas, Kentucky, Florida, Mississippi, New Hampshire, New York, North Carolina, Texas, Tennessee, Oregon, Idaho, Arizona, Colorado, Louisiana, Nebraska, Washington, Maryland, North Dakota, South Carolina, and Georgia.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 23502, June 27, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 49746, Oct. 24, 1978; 43 FR 51759, Nov. 7, 1978; 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984; 58 FR 35309, June 30, 1993. Redesignated at 61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1200" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1200   Hazard communication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) The purpose of this section is to ensure that the hazards of all chemicals produced or imported are classified, and that information concerning the classified hazards is transmitted to employers and employees. The requirements of this section are intended to be consistent with the provisions of the United Nations Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS), primarily Revision 7. The transmittal of information is to be accomplished by means of comprehensive hazard communication programs, which are to include container labeling and other forms of warning, safety data sheets and employee training.
</P>
<P>(2) This occupational safety and health standard is intended to address comprehensively the issue of classifying the potential hazards of chemicals, and communicating information concerning hazards and appropriate protective measures to employees, and to preempt any legislative or regulatory enactments of a state, or political subdivision of a state, pertaining to this subject. Classifying the potential hazards of chemicals and communicating information concerning hazards and appropriate protective measures to employees, may include, for example, but is not limited to, provisions for: developing and maintaining a written hazard communication program for the workplace, including lists of hazardous chemicals present; labeling of containers of chemicals in the workplace, as well as of containers of chemicals being shipped to other workplaces; preparation and distribution of safety data sheets to employees and downstream employers; and development and implementation of employee training programs regarding hazards of chemicals and protective measures. Under section 18 of the Act, no state or political subdivision of a state may adopt or enforce any requirement relating to the issue addressed by this Federal standard, except pursuant to a Federally-approved state plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section requires chemical manufacturers or importers to classify the hazards of chemicals which they produce or import, and all employers to provide information to their employees about the hazardous chemicals to which they are exposed, by means of a hazard communication program, labels and other forms of warning, safety data sheets, and information and training. In addition, this section requires distributors to transmit the required information to employers. (Employers who do not produce or import chemicals need only focus on those parts of this rule that deal with establishing a workplace program and communicating information to their workers.)
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to any chemical which is known to be present in the workplace in such a manner that employees may be exposed under normal conditions of use or in a foreseeable emergency.
</P>
<P>(3) This section applies to laboratories only as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Employers shall ensure that labels on incoming containers of hazardous chemicals are not removed or defaced;
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers shall maintain any safety data sheets that are received with incoming shipments of hazardous chemicals, and ensure that they are readily accessible during each workshift to laboratory employees when they are in their work areas;
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall ensure that laboratory employees are provided information and training in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section, except for the location and availability of the written hazard communication program under paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) Laboratory employers that ship hazardous chemicals are considered to be either a chemical manufacturer or a distributor under this rule, and thus must ensure that any containers of hazardous chemicals leaving the laboratory are labeled in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, and that a safety data sheet is provided to distributors and other employers in accordance with paragraphs (g)(6) and (g)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) In work operations where employees only handle chemicals in sealed containers which are not opened under normal conditions of use (such as are found in marine cargo handling, warehousing, or retail sales), this section applies to these operations only as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Employers shall ensure that labels on incoming containers of hazardous chemicals are not removed or defaced;
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers shall maintain copies of any safety data sheets that are received with incoming shipments of the sealed containers of hazardous chemicals, shall obtain a safety data sheet as soon as possible for sealed containers of hazardous chemicals received without a safety data sheet if an employee requests the safety data sheet, and shall ensure that the safety data sheets are readily accessible during each work shift to employees when they are in their work area(s); and,
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers shall ensure that employees are provided with information and training in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section (except for the location and availability of the written hazard communication program under paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section), to the extent necessary to protect them in the event of a spill or leak of a hazardous chemical from a sealed container.
</P>
<P>(5) This section does not require labeling of the following chemicals:
</P>
<P>(i) Any pesticide as such term is defined in the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. 136 <I>et seq.</I>), when subject to the labeling requirements of that Act and labeling regulations issued under that Act by the Environmental Protection Agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any chemical substance or mixture as such terms are defined in the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>), when subject to the labeling requirements of that Act and labeling regulations issued under that Act by the Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any food, food additive, color additive, drug, cosmetic, or medical or veterinary device or product, including materials intended for use as ingredients in such products (e.g., flavors and fragrances), as such terms are defined in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Virus-Serum-Toxin Act of 1913 (21 U.S.C. 151 <I>et seq.</I>), and regulations issued under those Acts, when they are subject to the labeling requirements under those Acts by either the Food and Drug Administration or the Department of Agriculture;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any distilled spirits (beverage alcohols), wine, or malt beverage intended for nonindustrial use, as such terms are defined in the Federal Alcohol Administration Act (27 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>) and regulations issued under that Act, when subject to the labeling requirements of that Act and labeling regulations issued under that Act by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives;
</P>
<P>(v) Any consumer product or hazardous substance as those terms are defined in the Consumer Product Safety Act (15 U.S.C. 2051 <I>et seq.</I>) and Federal Hazardous Substances Act (15 U.S.C. 1261 <I>et seq.</I>) respectively, when subject to a consumer product safety standard or labeling requirement of those Acts, or regulations issued under those Acts by the Consumer Product Safety Commission; and,
</P>
<P>(vi) Agricultural or vegetable seed treated with pesticides and labeled in accordance with the Federal Seed Act (7 U.S.C. 1551 <I>et seq.</I>) and the labeling regulations issued under that Act by the Department of Agriculture.


</P>
<P>(6) This section does not apply to: (i) Any hazardous waste as such term is defined by the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.</I>), when subject to regulations issued under that Act by the Environmental Protection Agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any hazardous substance as such term is defined by the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) (42 U.S.C. 9601 <I>et seq.</I>) when the hazardous substance is the focus of remedial or removal action being conducted under CERCLA in accordance with Environmental Protection Agency regulations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tobacco or tobacco products;
</P>
<P>(iv) Wood or wood products, including lumber which will not be processed, where the chemical manufacturer or importer can establish that the only hazard they pose to employees is the potential for flammability or combustibility (wood or wood products which have been treated with a hazardous chemical covered by this standard, and wood which may be subsequently sawed or cut, generating dust, are not exempted);
</P>
<P>(v) Articles (as that term is defined in paragraph (c) of this section);
</P>
<P>(vi) Food or alcoholic beverages which are sold, used, or prepared in a retail establishment (such as a grocery store, restaurant, or drinking place), and foods intended for personal consumption by employees while in the workplace;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any drug, as that term is defined in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>), when it is in solid, final form for direct administration to the patient (e.g., tablets or pills); drugs which are packaged by the chemical manufacturer for sale to consumers in a retail establishment (e.g., over-the-counter drugs); and drugs intended for personal consumption by employees while in the workplace (e.g., first aid supplies);
</P>
<P>(viii) Cosmetics which are packaged for sale to consumers in a retail establishment, and cosmetics intended for personal consumption by employees while in the workplace;
</P>
<P>(ix) Any consumer product or hazardous substance, as those terms are defined in the Consumer Product Safety Act (15 U.S.C. 2051 <I>et seq.</I>) and Federal Hazardous Substances Act (15 U.S.C. 1261 <I>et seq.</I>) respectively, where the employer can show that it is used in the workplace for the purpose intended by the chemical manufacturer or importer of the product, and the use results in a duration and frequency of exposure which is not greater than the range of exposures that could reasonably be experienced by consumers when used for the purpose intended;
</P>
<P>(x) Nuisance particulates where the chemical manufacturer or importer can establish that they do not pose any physical hazard, health hazard, or other hazards covered under this section;
</P>
<P>(xi) Ionizing and nonionizing radiation; and,
</P>
<P>(xii) Biological hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I>


</P>
<P><I>Article</I> means a manufactured item other than a fluid or particle:
</P>
<P>(i) Which is formed to a specific shape or design during manufacture;
</P>
<P>(ii) Which has end use function(s) dependent in whole or in part upon its shape or design during end use; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Which under normal conditions of use does not release more than very small quantities, <I>e.g.,</I> minute or trace amounts of a hazardous chemical (as determined under paragraph (d) of this section), and does not pose a physical hazard or health risk to employees.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Bulk shipment</I> means any hazardous chemical transported where the mode of transportation comprises the immediate container (<I>i.e.</I> contained in tanker truck, rail car, or intermodal container).
</P>
<P><I>Chemical</I> means any substance, or mixture of substances.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical manufacturer</I> means an employer with a workplace where chemical(s) are produced for use or distribution.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical name</I> means the scientific designation of a chemical in accordance with the nomenclature system developed by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) or the Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) rules of nomenclature, or a name that will clearly identify the chemical for the purpose of conducting a hazard classification.
</P>
<P><I>Classification</I> means to identify the relevant data regarding the hazards of a chemical; review those data to ascertain the hazards associated with the chemical; and decide whether the chemical will be classified as hazardous according to the definition of hazardous chemical in this section. In addition, classification for health and physical hazards includes the determination of the degree of hazard, where appropriate, by comparing the data with the criteria for health and physical hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Combustible dust</I> means finely divided solid particulates of a substance or mixture that pose a flash-fire hazard or explosion hazard when dispersed in air or other oxidizing media.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial account</I> means an arrangement whereby a retail distributor sells hazardous chemicals to an employer, generally in large quantities over time and/or at costs that are below the regular retail price.
</P>
<P><I>Common name</I> means any designation or identification such as code name, code number, trade name, brand name or generic name used to identify a chemical other than by its chemical name.
</P>
<P><I>Container</I> means any bag, barrel, bottle, box, can, cylinder, drum, reaction vessel, storage tank, or the like that contains a hazardous chemical. For purposes of this section, pipes or piping systems, and engines, fuel tanks, or other operating systems in a vehicle, are not considered to be containers.
</P>
<P><I>Designated representative</I> means any individual or organization to whom an employee gives written authorization to exercise such employee's rights under this section. A recognized or certified collective bargaining agent shall be treated automatically as a designated representative without regard to written employee authorization.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Distributor</I> means a business, other than a chemical manufacturer or importer, which supplies hazardous chemicals to other distributors or to employers.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means a worker who may be exposed to hazardous chemicals under normal operating conditions or in foreseeable emergencies. Workers such as office workers or bank tellers who encounter hazardous chemicals only in non-routine, isolated instances are not covered.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means a person engaged in a business where chemicals are either used, distributed, or are produced for use or distribution, including a contractor or subcontractor.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure or exposed</I> means that an employee is subjected in the course of employment to a hazardous chemical, and includes potential (e.g., accidental or possible) exposure. “Subjected” in terms of health hazards includes any route of entry (e.g., inhalation, ingestion, skin contact or absorption.)
</P>
<P><I>Foreseeable emergency</I> means any potential occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment which could result in an uncontrolled release of a hazardous chemical into the workplace.
</P>
<P><I>Gas</I> means a substance which
</P>
<P>(i) At 122 °F (50 °C) has a vapor pressure greater than 43.51 PSI (300 kPa) (absolute); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is completely gaseous at 68 °F (20 °C) at a standard pressure of 14.69 PSI (101.3 kPa).
</P>
<P><I>Hazard category</I> means the division of criteria within each hazard class, e.g., oral acute toxicity and flammable liquids include four hazard categories. These categories compare hazard severity within a hazard class and should not be taken as a comparison of hazard categories more generally.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous chemical</I> means any chemical which is classified as a physical hazard or a health hazard, a simple asphyxiant, combustible dust, or hazard not otherwise classified.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard class</I> means the nature of the physical or health hazards, e.g., flammable solid, carcinogen, oral acute toxicity.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard not otherwise classified (HNOC)</I> means an adverse physical or health effect identified through evaluation of scientific evidence during the classification process that does not meet the specified criteria for the physical and health hazard classes addressed in this section. This does not extend coverage to adverse physical and health effects for which there is a hazard class addressed in this section, but the effect either falls below the cut-off value/concentration limit of the hazard class or is under a GHS hazard category that has not been adopted by OSHA (<I>e.g.,</I> acute toxicity Category 5).
</P>
<P><I>Hazard statement</I> means a statement assigned to a hazard class and category that describes the nature of the hazard(s) of a chemical, including, where appropriate, the degree of hazard.
</P>
<P><I>Health hazard</I> means a chemical which is classified as posing one of the following hazardous effects: acute toxicity (any route of exposure); skin corrosion or irritation; serious eye damage or eye irritation; respiratory or skin sensitization; germ cell mutagenicity; carcinogenicity; reproductive toxicity; specific target organ toxicity (single or repeated exposure); or aspiration hazard. The criteria for determining whether a chemical is classified as a health hazard are detailed in appendix A to § 1910.1200—Health Hazard Criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate outer package</I> means the first package enclosing the container of hazardous chemical.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate use</I> means that the hazardous chemical will be under the control of and used only by the person who transfers it from a labeled container and only within the work shift in which it is transferred.
</P>
<P><I>Importer</I> means the first business with employees within the Customs Territory of the United States which receives hazardous chemicals produced in other countries for the purpose of supplying them to distributors or employers within the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Label</I> means an appropriate group of written, printed or graphic information elements concerning a hazardous chemical that is affixed to, printed on, or attached to the immediate container of a hazardous chemical, or to the outside packaging.
</P>
<P><I>Label elements</I> means the specified pictogram, hazard statement, signal word and precautionary statement for each hazard class and category.




</P>
<P><I>Liquid</I> means a substance or mixture which at 122  °F (50 °C) has a vapor pressure of not more than 43.51 PSI (300 kPa (3 bar)), which is not completely gaseous at 68 °F (20 °C) and at a standard pressure of 14.69 PSI (101.3 kPa), and which has a melting point or initial melting point of 68 °F (20 °C) or less at a standard pressure of 14.69 PSI (101.3 kPa). Either ASTM D 4359-90 (R2019) (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6); or the test for determining fluidity (penetrometer test) prescribed in section 2.3.4 of ADR 2019 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6) can establish whether a viscous substance or mixture is a liquid if a specific melting point cannot be determined.




</P>
<P><I>Mixture</I> means a combination or a solution composed of two or more substances in which they do not react.




</P>
<P><I>Physical hazard</I> means a chemical that is classified as posing one of the following hazardous effects: explosive, flammable (gases, liquids, or solids); aerosols; chemical under pressure; oxidizer (gases, liquids, or solids); self-reactive; pyrophoric (liquid or solid); self-heating; organic peroxide; corrosive to metal; gas under pressure; in contact with water emits flammable gas; or desensitized explosive. The criteria for determining whether a chemical is classified as a physical hazard are detailed in appendix B to this section.






</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional (PLHCP)</I> means an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.,</I> license, registration, or certification) allows the individual to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the health care services referenced in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Pictogram</I> means a composition that may include a symbol plus other graphic elements, such as a border, background pattern, or color, that is intended to convey specific information about the hazards of a chemical. Eight pictograms are designated under this standard for application to a hazard category.
</P>
<P><I>Precautionary statement</I> means a phrase that describes recommended measures that should be taken to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to a hazardous chemical, or improper storage or handling.
</P>
<P><I>Produce</I> means to manufacture, process, formulate, blend, extract, generate, emit, or repackage.
</P>
<P><I>Product identifier</I> means the name or number used for a hazardous chemical on a label or in the SDS. It provides a unique means by which the user can identify the chemical. The product identifier used shall permit cross-references to be made among the list of hazardous chemicals required in the written hazard communication program, the label and the SDS.
</P>
<P><I>Released for shipment</I> means a chemical that has been packaged and labeled in the manner in which it will be distributed or sold.
</P>
<P><I>Responsible party</I> means someone who can provide additional information on the hazardous chemical and appropriate emergency procedures, if necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Safety data sheet (SDS)</I> means written or printed material concerning a hazardous chemical that is prepared in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Signal word</I> means a word used to indicate the relative level of severity of hazard and alert the reader to a potential hazard on the label. The signal words used in this section are “danger” and “warning.” “Danger” is used for the more severe hazards, while “warning” is used for the less severe.
</P>
<P><I>Simple asphyxiant</I> means a substance or mixture that displaces oxygen in the ambient atmosphere, and can thus cause oxygen deprivation in those who are exposed, leading to unconsciousness and death.
</P>
<P><I>Solid</I> means a substance or mixture which does not meet the definitions of liquid or gas.
</P>
<P><I>Specific chemical</I> identity means the chemical name, Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) Registry Number, or any other information that reveals the precise chemical designation of the substance.
</P>
<P><I>Substance</I> means chemical elements and their compounds in the natural state or obtained by any production process, including any additive necessary to preserve the stability of the product and any impurities deriving from the process used, but excluding any solvent which may be separated without affecting the stability of the substance or changing its composition.
</P>
<P><I>Trade secret</I> means any confidential formula, pattern, process, device, information or compilation of information that is used in an employer's business, and that gives the employer an opportunity to obtain an advantage over competitors who do not know or use it. Appendix E to § 1910.1200—Definition of Trade Secret, sets out the criteria to be used in evaluating trade secrets.
</P>
<P><I>Use</I> means to package, handle, react, emit, extract, generate as a byproduct, or transfer.




</P>
<P><I>Work area</I> means a room or defined space in a workplace where hazardous chemicals are produced or used, and where employees are present.






</P>
<P><I>Workplace</I> means an establishment, job site, or project, at one geographical location containing one or more work areas.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hazard classification.</I> (1) Chemical manufacturers and importers shall evaluate chemicals produced in their workplaces or imported by them to classify the chemicals in accordance with this section. Employers are not required to classify chemicals unless they choose not to rely on the classification performed by the chemical manufacturer or importer for the chemical to satisfy this paragraph (d)(1). For each chemical, the chemical manufacturer or importer shall determine the hazard classes, and where appropriate, the category of each class that apply to the chemical being classified. The hazard classification shall include any hazards associated with the chemical's intrinsic properties including:
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the chemical's physical form; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Chemical reaction products associated with known or reasonably anticipated uses or applications.


</P>
<P>(2) Chemical manufacturers, importers or employers classifying chemicals shall identify and consider the full range of available scientific literature and other evidence concerning the potential hazards. There is no requirement to test the chemical to determine how to classify its hazards. Appendix A to § 1910.1200 shall be consulted for classification of health hazards, and Appendix B to § 1910.1200 shall be consulted for the classification of physical hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mixtures.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, or employers evaluating chemicals shall follow the procedures described in appendices A and B to § 1910.1200 to classify the hazards of the chemicals, including determinations regarding when mixtures of the classified chemicals are covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When classifying mixtures they produce or import, chemical manufacturers and importers of mixtures may rely on the information provided on the current safety data sheets of the individual ingredients, except where the chemical manufacturer or importer knows, or in the exercise of reasonable diligence should know, that the safety data sheet misstates or omits information required by this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Written hazard communication program.</I> (1) Employers shall develop, implement, and maintain at each workplace, a written hazard communication program which at least describes how the criteria specified in paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section for labels and other forms of warning, safety data sheets, and employee information and training will be met, and which also includes the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of the hazardous chemicals known to be present using a product identifier that is referenced on the appropriate safety data sheet (the list may be compiled for the workplace as a whole or for individual work areas); and,
</P>
<P>(ii) The methods the employer will use to inform employees of the hazards of non-routine tasks (for example, the cleaning of reactor vessels), and the hazards associated with chemicals contained in unlabeled pipes in their work areas.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multi-employer workplaces.</I> Employers who produce, use, or store hazardous chemicals at a workplace in such a way that the employees of other employer(s) may be exposed (for example, employees of a construction contractor working on-site) shall additionally ensure that the hazard communication programs developed and implemented under this paragraph (e) include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The methods the employer will use to provide the other employer(s) on-site access to safety data sheets for each hazardous chemical the other employer(s)' employees may be exposed to while working;
</P>
<P>(ii) The methods the employer will use to inform the other employer(s) of any precautionary measures that need to be taken to protect employees during the workplace's normal operating conditions and in foreseeable emergencies; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) The methods the employer will use to inform the other employer(s) of the labeling system used in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer may rely on an existing hazard communication program to comply with these requirements, provided that it meets the criteria established in this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall make the written hazard communication program available, upon request, to employees, their designated representatives, the Assistant Secretary and the Director, in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.1020(e).
</P>
<P>(5) Where employees must travel between workplaces during a workshift, <I>i.e.,</I> their work is carried out at more than one geographical location, the written hazard communication program may be kept at the primary workplace facility.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Labels and other forms of warning</I>—(1) <I>Labels on shipped containers.</I> The chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor shall ensure that each container of hazardous chemicals leaving the workplace is labeled, tagged or marked. Hazards not otherwise classified and hazards identified and classified under (d)(1)(ii) do not have to be addressed on the container. Where the chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor is required to label, tag or mark the following shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Product identifier;
</P>
<P>(ii) Signal word;
</P>
<P>(iii) Hazard statement(s);
</P>
<P>(iv) Pictogram(s);
</P>
<P>(v) Precautionary statement(s);
</P>
<P>(vi) Name, U.S. address, and U.S. telephone number of the chemical manufacturer, importer, or other responsible party.
</P>
<P>(2) The chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor shall ensure that the information provided under paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (v) of this section is in accordance with Appendix C to § 1910.1200, for each hazard class and associated hazard category for the hazardous chemical, prominently displayed, and in English (other languages may also be included if appropriate).
</P>
<P>(3) The chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor shall ensure that the information provided under paragraphs (f)(1)(ii) through (iv) of this section is located together on the label, tag, or mark.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Solid materials.</I> (i) For solid metal (such as a steel beam or a metal casting), solid wood, or plastic items that are not exempted as articles due to their downstream use, or shipments of whole grain, the required label may be transmitted to the customer at the time of the initial shipment, and need not be included with subsequent shipments to the same employer unless the information on the label changes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The label may be transmitted with the initial shipment itself, or with the safety data sheet that is to be provided prior to or at the time of the first shipment; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) This exception to requiring labels on every container of hazardous chemicals is only for the solid material itself, and does not apply to hazardous chemicals used in conjunction with, or known to be present with, the material and to which employees handling the items in transit may be exposed (for example, cutting fluids or pesticides in grains).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transportation.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, or distributors shall ensure that each container of hazardous chemicals leaving the workplace is labeled, tagged, or marked in accordance with this section in a manner which does not conflict with the requirements of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 5101 <I>et seq.</I>) and regulations issued under that Act by the Department of Transportation (49 CFR subtitle B).
</P>
<P>(ii) The label for bulk shipments of hazardous chemicals must be on the immediate container, transmitted with the shipping papers or the bills of lading, or, with the agreement of the receiving entity, transmitted by technological or electronic means so that it is immediately available to workers in printed form on the receiving end of shipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where a pictogram required by the Department of Transportation under title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations appears on a shipped container, the pictogram specified in appendix C.4 to this section for the same hazard is not required on the label.
</P>
<P>(6) Workplace labeling. Except as provided in paragraphs (f)(7) and (f)(8) of this section, the employer shall ensure that each container of hazardous chemicals in the workplace is labeled, tagged or marked with either:
</P>
<P>(i) The information specified under paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for labels on shipped containers; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) Product identifier and words, pictures, symbols, or combination thereof, which provide at least general information regarding the hazards of the chemicals, and which, in conjunction with the other information immediately available to employees under the hazard communication program, will provide employees with the specific information regarding the physical and health hazards of the hazardous chemical.
</P>
<P>(7) The employer may use signs, placards, process sheets, batch tickets, operating procedures, or other such written materials in lieu of affixing labels to individual stationary process containers, as long as the alternative method identifies the containers to which it is applicable and conveys the information required by paragraph (f)(6) of this section to be on a label. The employer shall ensure the written materials are readily accessible to the employees in their work area throughout each work shift.
</P>
<P>(8) The employer is not required to label portable containers into which hazardous chemicals are transferred from labeled containers, and which are intended only for the immediate use of the employee who performs the transfer. For purposes of this section, drugs which are dispensed by a pharmacy to a health care provider for direct administration to a patient are exempted from labeling.
</P>
<P>(9) The employer shall not remove or deface existing labels on incoming containers of hazardous chemicals, unless the container is immediately marked with the required information.
</P>
<P>(10) The employer shall ensure that workplace labels or other forms of warning are legible, in English, and prominently displayed on the container, or readily available in the work area throughout each work shift. Employers having employees who speak other languages may add the information in their language to the material presented, as long as the information is presented in English as well.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Label updates.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, or employers who become newly aware of any significant information regarding the hazards of a chemical shall revise the labels for the chemical within six months of becoming aware of the new information and shall ensure that labels on containers of hazardous chemicals shipped after that time contain the new information. For chemicals that have been released for shipment and are awaiting future distribution, chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, or employers have the option not to relabel those containers; however, if they do not relabel the containers, they must provide the updated label for each individual container with each shipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the chemical is not currently produced or imported, the chemical manufacturer, importer, distributor, or employer shall add the information to the label before the chemical is shipped or introduced into the workplace again.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Small container labelling.</I> (i) This paragraph applies where the chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor can demonstrate that it is not feasible to use pull-out labels, fold-back labels, or tags containing the full label information required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a container less than or equal to 100 ml capacity, the chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor must include, at a minimum, the following information on the label of the container:
</P>
<P>(A) Product identifier;
</P>
<P>(B) Pictogram(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Signal word;
</P>
<P>(D) Chemical manufacturer's name and phone number; and
</P>
<P>(E) A statement that the full label information for the hazardous chemical is provided on the immediate outer package.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a container less than or equal to 3 ml capacity, where the chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor can demonstrate that any label interferes with the normal use of the container, no label is required, but the container must bear, at a minimum, the product identifier.
</P>
<P>(iv) For all small containers covered by paragraph (f)(12)(ii) or (iii) of this section, the immediate outer package must include:
</P>
<P>(A) The full label information required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section for each hazardous chemical in the immediate outer package. The label must not be removed or defaced, as required by paragraph (f)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the small container(s) inside must be stored in the immediate outer package bearing the complete label when not in use.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Safety data sheets.</I> (1) Chemical manufacturers and importers shall obtain or develop a safety data sheet for each hazardous chemical they produce or import. Employers shall have a safety data sheet in the workplace for each hazardous chemical which they use.
</P>
<P>(2) The chemical manufacturer or importer shall ensure that the safety data sheet is in English (although the employer may maintain copies in other languages as well), and includes at least the following section numbers and headings, and associated information under each heading, in the order listed (see appendix D to this section, for the specific content of each section of the safety data sheet):
</P>
<P>(i) Section 1, Identification;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 2, Hazard(s) identification;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 3, Composition/information on ingredients;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 4, First-aid measures;
</P>
<P>(v) Section 5, Fire-fighting measures;
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 6, Accidental release measures;
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 7, Handling and storage;
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 8, Exposure controls/personal protection;
</P>
<P>(ix) Section 9, Physical and chemical properties;
</P>
<P>(x) Section 10, Stability and reactivity;
</P>
<P>(xi) Section 11, Toxicological information.
</P>
<P>(xii) Section 12, Ecological information;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Section 13, Disposal considerations;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Section 14, Transport information;
</P>
<P>(xv) Section 15, Regulatory information; and
</P>
<P>(xvi) Section 16, Other information, including date of preparation or last revision.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2):
</HED>
<P>To be consistent with the GHS, an SDS must also include the headings in paragraphs (g)(2)(xii) through (g)(2)(xv) of this section in order.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2):
</HED>
<P>OSHA will not be enforcing information requirements in sections 12 through 15, as these areas are not under its jurisdiction.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) If no relevant information is found for any sub-heading within a section on the safety data sheet, the chemical manufacturer, importer or employer preparing the safety data sheet shall mark it to indicate that no applicable information was found.
</P>
<P>(4) Where complex mixtures have similar hazards and contents (<I>i.e.</I>, the chemical ingredients are essentially the same, but the specific composition varies from mixture to mixture), the chemical manufacturer, importer or employer may prepare one safety data sheet to apply to all of these similar mixtures.
</P>
<P>(5) The chemical manufacturer, importer or employer preparing the safety data sheet shall ensure that the information provided accurately reflects the scientific evidence used in making the hazard classification. If the chemical manufacturer, importer or employer preparing the safety data sheet becomes newly aware of any significant information regarding the hazards of a chemical, or ways to protect against the hazards, this new information shall be added to the safety data sheet within three months. If the chemical is not currently being produced or imported, the chemical manufacturer or importer shall add the information to the safety data sheet before the chemical is introduced into the workplace again.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Chemical manufacturers or importers shall ensure that distributors and employers are provided an appropriate safety data sheet with their initial shipment, and with the first shipment after a safety data sheet is updated;
</P>
<P>(ii) The chemical manufacturer or importer shall either provide safety data sheets with the shipped containers or send them to the distributor or employer prior to or at the time of the shipment;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the safety data sheet is not provided with a shipment that has been labeled as a hazardous chemical, the distributor or employer shall obtain one from the chemical manufacturer or importer as soon as possible; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) The chemical manufacturer or importer shall also provide distributors or employers with a safety data sheet upon request.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) Distributors shall ensure that safety data sheets, and updated information, are provided to other distributors and employers with their initial shipment and with the first shipment after a safety data sheet is updated;
</P>
<P>(ii) The distributor shall either provide safety data sheets with the shipped containers, or send them to the other distributor or employer prior to or at the time of the shipment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Retail distributors selling hazardous chemicals to employers having a commercial account shall provide a safety data sheet to such employers upon request, and shall post a sign or otherwise inform them that a safety data sheet is available;
</P>
<P>(iv) Wholesale distributors selling hazardous chemicals to employers over-the-counter may also provide safety data sheets upon the request of the employer at the time of the over-the-counter purchase, and shall post a sign or otherwise inform such employers that a safety data sheet is available;
</P>
<P>(v) If an employer without a commercial account purchases a hazardous chemical from a retail distributor not required to have safety data sheets on file (<I>i.e.,</I> the retail distributor does not have commercial accounts and does not use the materials), the retail distributor shall provide the employer, upon request, with the name, address, and telephone number of the chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor from which a safety data sheet can be obtained;
</P>
<P>(vi) Wholesale distributors shall also provide safety data sheets to employers or other distributors upon request; and,
</P>
<P>(vii) Chemical manufacturers, importers, and distributors need not provide safety data sheets to retail distributors that have informed them that the retail distributor does not sell the product to commercial accounts or open the sealed container to use it in their own workplaces.
</P>
<P>(8) The employer shall maintain in the workplace copies of the required safety data sheets for each hazardous chemical, and shall ensure that they are readily accessible during each work shift to employees when they are in their work area(s). (Electronic access and other alternatives to maintaining paper copies of the safety data sheets are permitted as long as no barriers to immediate employee access in each workplace are created by such options.)
</P>
<P>(9) Where employees must travel between workplaces during a workshift, <I>i.e.,</I> their work is carried out at more than one geographical location, the safety data sheets may be kept at the primary workplace facility. In this situation, the employer shall ensure that employees can immediately obtain the required information in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(10) Safety data sheets may be kept in any form, including as operating procedures, and may be stored in such a way to cover groups of hazardous chemicals in a work area where it may be more appropriate to address the hazards of a process rather than individual hazardous chemicals. However, the employer shall ensure that in all cases the required information is provided for each hazardous chemical, and is readily accessible during each work shift to employees when they are in their work area(s).
</P>
<P>(11) Safety data sheets shall also be made readily available, upon request, to designated representatives, the Assistant Secretary, and the Director, in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.1020(e).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (1) Employers shall provide employees with effective information and training on hazardous chemicals in their work area at the time of their initial assignment, and whenever a new chemical hazard the employees have not previously been trained about is introduced into their work area. Information and training may be designed to cover categories of hazards (e.g., flammability, carcinogenicity) or specific chemicals. Chemical-specific information must always be available through labels and safety data sheets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information.</I> Employees shall be informed of:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirements of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any operations in their work area where hazardous chemicals are present; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) The location and availability of the written hazard communication program, including the required list(s) of hazardous chemicals, and safety data sheets required by this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Training.</I> Employee training shall include at least:
</P>
<P>(i) Methods and observations that may be used to detect the presence or release of a hazardous chemical in the work area (such as monitoring conducted by the employer, continuous monitoring devices, visual appearance or odor of hazardous chemicals when being released, etc.);
</P>
<P>(ii) The physical, health, simple asphyxiation, combustible dust, and pyrophoric gas hazards, as well as hazards not otherwise classified, of the chemicals in the work area;
</P>
<P>(iii) The measures employees can take to protect themselves from these hazards, including specific procedures the employer has implemented to protect employees from exposure to hazardous chemicals, such as appropriate work practices, emergency procedures, and personal protective equipment to be used; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) The details of the hazard communication program developed by the employer, including an explanation of the labels received on shipped containers and the workplace labeling system used by their employer; the safety data sheet, including the order of information and how employees can obtain and use the appropriate hazard information.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Trade secrets.</I> (1) The chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer may withhold the specific chemical identity, including the chemical name, other specific identification of a hazardous chemical, and/or the exact percentage (concentration) or concentration range of the substance in a mixture, from section 3 of the safety data sheet, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The claim that the information withheld is a trade secret can be supported;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information contained in the safety data sheet concerning the properties and effects of the hazardous chemical is disclosed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The safety data sheet indicates that the specific chemical identity and/or concentration or concentration range of composition is being withheld as a trade secret;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the concentration or concentration range is being claimed as a trade secret then the safety data sheet provides the ingredient's concentration as one of the prescribed ranges below in paragraphs (i)(1)(iv)(A) through (M) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) from 0.1% to 1%;
</P>
<P>(B) from 0.5% to 1.5%;
</P>
<P>(C) from 1% to 5%;
</P>
<P>(D) from 3% to 7%;
</P>
<P>(E) from 5% to 10%;
</P>
<P>(F) from 7% to 13%;
</P>
<P>(G) from 10% to 30%;
</P>
<P>(H) from 15% to 40%;
</P>
<P>(I) from 30% to 60%;
</P>
<P>(J) from 45% to 70%;
</P>
<P>(K) from 60% to 80%;
</P>
<P>(L) from 65% to 85%; and
</P>
<P>(M) from 80% to 100%.
</P>
<P>(v) The prescribed concentration range used must be the narrowest range possible. If the exact concentration range falls between 0.1% and 30% and does not fit entirely into one of the prescribed concentration ranges of paragraphs (i)(1)(iv)(A) to (G) of this section, a single range created by the combination of two applicable consecutive ranges between paragraphs (i)(1)(iv)(A) and (G) of this section may be disclosed instead, provided that the combined concentration range does not include any range that falls entirely outside the exact concentration range in which the ingredient is present.
</P>
<P>(vi) Manufacturers may provide a range narrower than those prescribed in (i)(1)(v).
</P>
<P>(vii) The specific chemical identity and exact concentration or concentration range is made available to health professionals, employees, and designated representatives in accordance with the applicable provisions of this paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a treating PLHCP determines that a medical emergency exists and the specific chemical identity and/or specific concentration or concentration range of a hazardous chemical is necessary for emergency or first-aid treatment, the chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer shall immediately disclose the specific chemical identity or percentage composition of a trade secret chemical to that treating PLHCP, regardless of the existence of a written statement of need or a confidentiality agreement. The chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer may require a written statement of need and confidentiality agreement, in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (i)(3) and (4) of this section, as soon as circumstances permit.
</P>
<P>(3) In non-emergency situations, a chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer shall, upon request, disclose a specific chemical identity or exact concentration or concentration range, otherwise permitted to be withheld under paragraph (i)(1) of this section, to a health professional (e.g., PLHCP, industrial hygienist, toxicologist, or epidemiologist) providing medical or other occupational health services to exposed employee(s), and to employees or designated representatives, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The request is in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The request describes with reasonable detail one or more of the following occupational health needs for the information:
</P>
<P>(A) To assess the hazards of the chemicals to which employees will be exposed;
</P>
<P>(B) To conduct or assess sampling of the workplace atmosphere to determine employee exposure levels;
</P>
<P>(C) To conduct pre-assignment or periodic medical surveillance of exposed employees;
</P>
<P>(D) To provide medical treatment to exposed employees;
</P>
<P>(E) To select or assess appropriate personal protective equipment for exposed employees;
</P>
<P>(F) To design or assess engineering controls or other protective measures for exposed employees; and,
</P>
<P>(G) To conduct studies to determine the health effects of exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The request explains in detail why the disclosure of the specific chemical identity or percentage composition is essential and that, in lieu thereof, the disclosure of the following information to the health professional, employee, or designated representative, would not satisfy the purposes described in paragraph (i)(3)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The properties and effects of the chemical;
</P>
<P>(B) Measures for controlling workers' exposure to the chemical;
</P>
<P>(C) Methods of monitoring and analyzing worker exposure to the chemical; and,
</P>
<P>(D) Methods of diagnosing and treating harmful exposures to the chemical;
</P>
<P>(iv) The request includes a description of the procedures to be used to maintain the confidentiality of the disclosed information; and,
</P>
<P>(v) The health professional, and the employer or contractor of the services of the health professional (<I>i.e.</I> downstream employer, labor organization, or individual employee), employee, or designated representative, agree in a written confidentiality agreement that the health professional, employee, or designated representative, will not use the trade secret information for any purpose other than the health need(s) asserted and agree not to release the information under any circumstances other than to OSHA, as provided in paragraph (i)(6) of this section, except as authorized by the terms of the agreement or by the chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer.
</P>
<P>(4) The confidentiality agreement authorized by paragraph (i)(3)(iv) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) May restrict the use of the information to the health purposes indicated in the written statement of need;
</P>
<P>(ii) May provide for appropriate legal remedies in the event of a breach of the agreement, including stipulation of a reasonable pre-estimate of likely damages; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) May not include requirements for the posting of a penalty bond.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in this standard is meant to preclude the parties from pursuing non-contractual remedies to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(6) If the health professional, employee, or designated representative receiving the trade secret information decides that there is a need to disclose it to OSHA, the chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer who provided the information shall be informed by the health professional, employee, or designated representative prior to, or at the same time as, such disclosure.
</P>
<P>(7) If the chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer denies a written request for disclosure of a specific chemical identity or percentage composition, the denial must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be provided to the health professional, employee, or designated representative, within thirty days of the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Include evidence to support the claim that the specific chemical identity or percent of composition is a trade secret;
</P>
<P>(iv) State the specific reasons why the request is being denied; and,
</P>
<P>(v) Explain in detail how alternative information may satisfy the specific medical or occupational health need without revealing the trade secret.
</P>
<P>(8) The health professional, employee, or designated representative whose request for information is denied under paragraph (i)(3) of this section may refer the request and the written denial of the request to OSHA for consideration.
</P>
<P>(9) When a health professional, employee, or designated representative refers the denial to OSHA under paragraph (i)(8) of this section, OSHA shall consider the evidence to determine if:
</P>
<P>(i) The chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer has supported the claim that the specific chemical identity or percentage composition is a trade secret;
</P>
<P>(ii) The health professional, employee, or designated representative has supported the claim that there is a medical or occupational health need for the information; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) The health professional, employee or designated representative has demonstrated adequate means to protect the confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(10)(i) If OSHA determines that the specific chemical identity or percentage composition requested under paragraph (i)(3) of this section is not a “bona fide” trade secret, or that it is a trade secret, but the requesting health professional, employee, or designated representative has a legitimate medical or occupational health need for the information, has executed a written confidentiality agreement, and has shown adequate means to protect the confidentiality of the information, the chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer will be subject to citation by OSHA.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer demonstrates to OSHA that the execution of a confidentiality agreement would not provide sufficient protection against the potential harm from the unauthorized disclosure of a trade secret, the Assistant Secretary may issue such orders or impose such additional limitations or conditions upon the disclosure of the requested chemical information as may be appropriate to assure that the occupational health services are provided without an undue risk of harm to the chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer.
</P>
<P>(11) If a citation for a failure to release trade secret information is contested by the chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer, the matter will be adjudicated before the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission in accordance with the Act's enforcement scheme and the applicable Commission rules of procedure. In accordance with the Commission rules, when a chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer continues to withhold the information during the contest, the Administrative Law Judge may review the citation and supporting documentation “in camera” or issue appropriate orders to protect the confidentiality of such matters.
</P>
<P>(12) Notwithstanding the existence of a trade secret claim, a chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer shall, upon request, disclose to the Assistant Secretary any information which this section requires the chemical manufacturer, importer, or employer to make available. Where there is a trade secret claim, such claim shall be made no later than at the time the information is provided to the Assistant Secretary so that suitable determinations of trade secret status can be made and the necessary protections can be implemented.
</P>
<P>(13) Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as requiring the disclosure under any circumstances of process information which is a trade secret.


</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This section shall become effective July 19, 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Substances.</I> (i) Manufacturers, importers, and distributors, evaluating substances shall be in compliance with all modified provisions of this section no later than May 19, 2026.
</P>
<P>(ii) For substances, all employers shall, as necessary, update any alternative workplace labeling used under paragraph (f)(6) of this section, update the hazard communication program required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section, and provide any additional employee training in accordance with paragraph (h)(3) of this section for newly identified physical hazard, or health hazards or other hazards covered under this section no later than November 20, 2026.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mixtures.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, and distributors evaluating mixtures shall be in compliance with all modified provisions of this section no later than November 19, 2027.
</P>
<P>(ii) For mixtures, all employers shall, as necessary, update any alternative workplace labeling used under paragraph (f)(6) of this section, update the hazard communication program required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section, and provide any additional employee training in accordance with paragraph (h)(3) of this section for newly identified physical hazards, health hazards, or other hazards covered under this section no later than May 19, 2028.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compliance.</I> Between May 20, 2024 and the dates specified in paragraphs (j)(2) and (3) of this section, as applicable, chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, and employers may comply with either this section or § 1910.1200 revised as of July 1, 2023, or both during the transition period.






</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1200—Health Hazard Criteria (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD1>A.0 General Classification Considerations
</HD1>
<HD2>A.0.1 Classification
</HD2>
<P>A.0.1.1 The term “hazard classification” is used to indicate that only the intrinsic hazardous properties of chemicals are considered. Hazard classification incorporates three steps:
</P>
<P>(a) Identification of relevant data regarding the hazards of a chemical;
</P>
<P>(b) Subsequent review of those data to ascertain the hazards associated with the chemical;
</P>
<P>(c) Determination of whether the chemical will be classified as hazardous and the degree of hazard.
</P>
<P>A.0.1.2 For many hazard classes, the criteria are semi-quantitative or qualitative and expert judgment is required to interpret the data for classification purposes.
</P>
<P>A.0.1.3 Where impurities, additives or individual constituents of a substance or mixture have been identified and are themselves classified, they should be taken into account during classification if they exceed the cut-off value/concentration limit for a given hazard class.
</P>
<HD2>A.0.2 Available Data, Test Methods and Test Data Quality
</HD2>
<P>A.0.2.1 There is no requirement for testing chemicals.
</P>
<P>A.0.2.2 The criteria for determining health hazards are test method neutral,<I> i.e.,</I> they do not specify particular test methods, as long as the methods are scientifically validated.
</P>
<P>A.0.2.3 The term “scientifically validated” refers to the process by which the reliability and the relevance of a procedure are established for a particular purpose. Any test that determines hazardous properties, which is conducted according to recognized scientific principles, can be used for purposes of a hazard determination for health hazards. Test conditions need to be standardized so that the results are reproducible with a given substance, and the standardized test yields “valid” data for defining the hazard class of concern.
</P>
<P>A.0.2.4 Existing test data are acceptable for classifying chemicals, although expert judgment also may be needed for classification purposes.
</P>
<P>A.0.2.5 The effect of a chemical on biological systems is influenced, by the physico-chemical properties of the substance and/or ingredients of the mixture and the way in which ingredient substances are biologically available. A chemical need not be classified when it can be shown by conclusive experimental data from scientifically validated test methods that the chemical is not biologically available.
</P>
<P>A.0.2.6 For classification purposes, epidemiological data and experience on the effects of chemicals on humans (<I>e.g.,</I> occupational data, data from accident databases) shall be taken into account in the evaluation of human health hazards of a chemical.
</P>
<HD2>A.0.3 Classification Based on Weight of Evidence
</HD2>
<P>A.0.3.1 For some hazard classes, classification results directly when the data satisfy the criteria. For others, classification of a chemical shall be determined on the basis of the total weight of evidence using expert judgment. This means that all available information bearing on the classification of hazard shall be considered together, including the results of valid <I>in vitro</I> tests, relevant animal data, and human experience such as epidemiological and clinical studies and well-documented case reports and observations.
</P>
<P>A.0.3.2 The quality and consistency of the data shall be considered. Information on chemicals related to the material being classified shall be considered as appropriate, as well as site of action and mechanism or mode of action study results. Both positive and negative results shall be considered together in a single weight-of-evidence determination.
</P>
<P>A.0.3.3 Positive effects which are consistent with the criteria for classification, whether seen in humans or animals, shall normally justify classification. Where evidence is available from both humans and animals and there is a conflict between the findings, the quality and reliability of the evidence from both sources shall be evaluated in order to resolve the question of classification. Reliable, good quality human data shall generally have precedence over other data. However, even well-designed and conducted epidemiological studies may lack a sufficient number of subjects to detect relatively rare but still significant effects, or to assess potentially confounding factors. Therefore, positive results from well-conducted animal studies are not necessarily negated by the lack of positive human experience but require an assessment of the robustness, quality and statistical power of both the human and animal data.
</P>
<P>A.0.3.4 Route of exposure, mechanistic information, and metabolism studies are pertinent to determining the relevance of an effect in humans. When such information raises doubt about relevance in humans, a lower classification may be warranted. When there is scientific evidence demonstrating that the mechanism or mode of action is not relevant to humans, the chemical should not be classified.
</P>
<P>A.0.3.5 Both positive and negative results are considered together in the weight of evidence determination. However, a single positive study performed according to good scientific principles and with statistically and biologically significant positive results may justify classification.
</P>
<HD2>A.0.4 Considerations for the Classification of Mixtures
</HD2>
<P>A.0.4.1 Except as provided in A.0.4.2, the process of classification of mixtures is based on the following sequence:
</P>
<P>(a) Where test data are available for the complete mixture, the classification of the mixture will always be based on those data;
</P>
<P>(b) Where test data are not available for the mixture itself, the bridging principles designated in each health hazard chapter of this appendix shall be considered for classification of the mixture;
</P>
<P>(c) If test data are not available for the mixture itself, and the available information is not sufficient to allow application of the above-mentioned bridging principles, then the method(s) described in each chapter for estimating the hazards based on the information known will be applied to classify the mixture (<I>e.g.</I>, application of cut-off values/concentration limits).
</P>
<P>A.0.4.2 An exception to the above order or precedence is made for Carcinogenicity, Germ Cell Mutagenicity, and Reproductive Toxicity. For these three hazard classes, mixtures shall be classified based upon information on the ingredient substances, unless on a case-by-case basis, justification can be provided for classifying based upon the mixture as a whole. <I>See</I> A.5, A.6, and A.7 of this section for further information on case-by-case bases.
</P>
<P>A.0.4.3 Use of cut-off values/concentration limits
</P>
<P>A.0.4.3.1 When classifying an untested mixture based on the hazards of its ingredients, cut-off values/concentration limits for the classified ingredients of the mixture are used for several hazard classes. While the adopted cut-off values/concentration limits adequately identify the hazard for most mixtures, there may be some that contain hazardous ingredients at lower concentrations than the specified cut-off values/concentration limits that still pose an identifiable hazard. There may also be cases where the cut-off value/concentration limit is considerably lower than the established non-hazardous level for an ingredient.
</P>
<P>A.0.4.3.2 If the classifier has information that the hazard of an ingredient will be evident (<I>i.e.,</I> it presents a health risk) below the specified cut-off value/concentration limit, the mixture containing that ingredient shall be classified accordingly.
</P>
<P>A.0.4.3.3 In exceptional cases, conclusive data may demonstrate that the hazard of an ingredient will not be evident (<I>i.e.,</I> it does not present a health risk) when present at a level above the specified cut-off value/concentration limit(s). In these cases the mixture may be classified according to those data. The data must exclude the possibility that the ingredient will behave in the mixture in a manner that would increase the hazard over that of the pure substance. Furthermore, the mixture must not contain ingredients that would affect that determination.
</P>
<P>A.0.4.4 Synergistic or antagonistic effects
</P>
<P>When performing an assessment in accordance with these requirements, the evaluator must take into account all available information about the potential occurrence of synergistic effects among the ingredients of the mixture. Lowering classification of a mixture to a less hazardous category on the basis of antagonistic effects may be done only if the determination is supported by sufficient data.
</P>
<HD2>A.0.5 Bridging Principles for the Classification of Mixtures Where Test Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture
</HD2>
<P>A.0.5.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its toxicity, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data shall be used in accordance with the following bridging principles, subject to any specific provisions for mixtures for each hazard class. These principles ensure that the classification process uses the available data to the greatest extent possible in characterizing the hazards of the mixture.
</P>
<P>A.0.5.1.1 Dilution
</P>
<P>For mixtures classified in accordance with A.1 through A.10 of this Appendix, if a tested mixture is diluted with a diluent that has an equivalent or lower toxicity classification than the least toxic original ingredient, and which is not expected to affect the toxicity of other ingredients, then:
</P>
<P>(a) The new diluted mixture shall be classified as equivalent to the original tested mixture; or
</P>
<P>(b) For classification of acute toxicity in accordance with A.1 of this Appendix, paragraph A.1.3.6 (the additivity formula) shall be applied.
</P>
<P>A.0.5.1.2 Batching
</P>
<P>For mixtures classified in accordance with A.1 through A.10 of this Appendix, the toxicity of a tested production batch of a mixture can be assumed to be substantially equivalent to that of another untested production batch of the same mixture, when produced by or under the control of the same <I>chemical manufacturer</I>, unless there is reason to believe there is significant variation such that the toxicity of the untested batch has changed. If the latter occurs, a new classification is necessary.
</P>
<P>A.0.5.1.3 Concentration of mixtures
</P>
<P>For mixtures classified in accordance with A.1, A.2, A.3, A.4, A.8, A.9, or A.10 of this Appendix, if a tested mixture is classified in Category 1, and the concentration of the ingredients of the tested mixture that are in Category 1 is increased, the resulting untested mixture shall be classified in Category 1.
</P>
<P>A.0.5.1.4 Interpolation within one hazard category
</P>
<P>For mixtures classified in accordance with A.1, A.2, A.3, A.4, A.8, A.9, or A.10 of this Appendix, for three mixtures (A, B and C) with identical ingredients, where mixtures A and B have been tested and are in the same hazard category, and where untested mixture C has the same toxicologically active ingredients as mixtures A and B but has concentrations of toxicologically active ingredients intermediate to the concentrations in mixtures A and B, then mixture C is assumed to be in the same hazard category as A and B.
</P>
<P>A.0.5.1.5 Substantially similar mixtures
</P>
<P>For mixtures classified in accordance with A.1 through A.10 of this Appendix, given the following set of conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) Where there are two mixtures:
</P>
<P>(i) A + B;
</P>
<P>(ii) C + B;
</P>
<P>(b) The concentration of ingredient B is essentially the same in both mixtures;
</P>
<P>(c) The concentration of ingredient A in mixture (i) equals that of ingredient C in mixture (ii);
</P>
<P>(d) And data on toxicity for A and C are available and substantially equivalent; <I>i.e.,</I> they are in the same hazard category and are not expected to affect the toxicity of B; then
</P>
<P>If mixture (i) or (ii) is already classified based on test data, the other mixture can be assigned the same hazard category.
</P>
<P>A.0.5.1.6 Aerosols
</P>
<P>For mixtures classified in accordance with A.1, A.2, A.3, A.4, A.8, or A.9 of this Appendix, an aerosol form of a mixture shall be classified in the same hazard category as the tested, non-aerosolized form of the mixture, provided the added propellant does not affect the toxicity of the mixture when spraying.


</P>
<HD1>A.1 Acute Toxicity
</HD1>
<HD2>A.1.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Acute toxicity</I> refers to serious adverse health effects (<I>i.e.,</I> lethality) occurring after a single or short-term oral, dermal, or inhalation exposure to a substance or mixture.
</P>
<HD2>A.1.2 Classification Criteria for Substances
</HD2>
<P>A.1.2.1 Substances can be allocated to one of four hazard categories based on acute toxicity by the oral, dermal or inhalation route according to the numeric cut-off criteria as shown in Table A.1.1. Acute toxicity values are expressed as (approximate) LD50 (oral, dermal) or LC<E T="52">50</E> (inhalation) values or as acute toxicity estimates (ATE). While some <I>in vivo</I> methods determine LD50/LC50 values directly, other newer in vivo methods (<I>e.g.</I>, using fewer animals) consider other indicators of acute toxicity, such as significant clinical signs of toxicity, which are used by reference to assign the hazard category. See the footnotes following Table A.1.1 for further explanation on the application of these values.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.1.1—Acute Toxicity Estimate (ATE) Values and Criteria for Acute Toxicity Hazard Categories
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exposure route
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 4
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oral (mg/kg bodyweight)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ATE ≤ 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;5 ATE ≤ 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;50 ATE ≤ 300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;300 ATE ≤ 2000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">see: Note (a)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (b)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dermal (mg/kg bodyweight)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ATE ≤ 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;50 ATE ≤ 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;200 ATE ≤ 1000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;1000 ATE ≤ 2000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">see: Note (a)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (b)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation—Gases (ppmV)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ATE ≤ 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;100 ATE ≤ 500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;500 ATE ≤ 2500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2500 ATE ≤ 20000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">see: Note (a)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (b)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (c)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation—Vapors (mg/l)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ATE ≤ 0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;0.5 ATE ≤ 2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2.0 ATE ≤ 10.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;10.0 ATE ≤ 20.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">see: Note (a)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (b)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (c)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (d)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation -Dusts and Mists (mg/l)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ATE ≤ 0.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;0.05 ATE ≤ 0.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;0.5 ATE ≤ 1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;1.0 ATE ≤ 5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">see: Note (a)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (b)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"><E T="03">Note (c)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Gas concentrations are expressed in parts per million per volume (ppmV).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes to table A.1.1:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(a) The acute toxicity estimate (ATE) for the classification of a substance is derived using the LD50/LC50 where available;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(b) The acute toxicity estimate (ATE) for the classification of a substance or ingredient in a mixture is derived using:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (i) the LD<E T="0732">50</E>/LC<E T="0732">50</E> where available. Otherwise,
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (ii) the appropriate conversion value from table 1.2 that relates to the results of a range test, or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (iii) the appropriate conversion value from table 1.2 that relates to a classification category;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(c) Inhalation cut-off values in the table are based on 4 hour testing exposures. Conversion of existing inhalation toxicity data which has been generated according to 1 hour exposure is achieved by dividing by a factor of 2 for gases and vapors and 4 for dusts and mists;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(d) For some substances the test atmosphere will be a vapor which consists of a combination of liquid and gaseous phases. For other substances the test atmosphere may consist of a vapor which is nearly all the gaseous phase. In these latter cases, classification is based on ppmV as follows: Category 1 (100 ppmV), Category 2 (500 ppmV), Category 3 (2500 ppmV), Category 4 (20000 ppmV).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">The terms “dust”, “mist” and “vapor” are defined as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (i) Dust: solid particles of a substance or mixture suspended in a gas (usually air);
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (ii) Mist: liquid droplets of a substance or mixture suspended in a gas (usually air);
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (iii) Vapor: the gaseous form of a substance or mixture released from its liquid or solid state.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.1.2.3 The preferred test species for evaluation of acute toxicity by the oral and inhalation routes is the rat, while the rat or rabbit are preferred for evaluation of acute dermal toxicity. Test data already generated for the classification of chemicals under existing systems should be accepted when reclassifying these chemicals under the harmonized system. When experimental data for acute toxicity are available in several animal species, scientific judgment should be used in selecting the most appropriate LD<E T="52">50</E> value from among scientifically validated tests. In cases where data from human experience (<I>i.e.,</I> occupational data, data from accident databases, epidemiology studies, clinical reports) is also available, it should be considered in a weight of evidence approach consistent with the principles described in A.0.3.
</P>
<P>A.1.2.4 In addition to classification for inhalation toxicity, if data are available that indicates that the mechanism of toxicity was corrosivity of the substance or mixture, the classifier must consider if the chemical is <I>corrosive to the respiratory tract.</I> Corrosion of the respiratory tract is defined as destruction of the respiratory tract tissue after a single, limited period of exposure analogous to skin corrosion; this includes destruction of the mucosa. The corrosivity evaluation could be based on expert judgment using such evidence as: human and animal experience, existing (<I>in vitro</I>) data, Ph values, information from similar substances or any other pertinent data.
</P>
<P>A.1.2.4.1 If the classifier determines the chemical is corrosive to the respiratory tract and data are available that indicate that the effect leads to lethality, then in addition to the appropriate acute toxicity pictogram and hazard statement, the chemical must be labelled with the hazard statement “corrosive to the respiratory tract” and the corrosive pictogram.
</P>
<P>A.1.2.4.2 If the classifier determines the chemical is corrosive to the respiratory tract and the effect does not lead to lethality, then the chemical must be addressed in the Specific Target Organ Toxicity hazard classes (<I>see</I> A.8). If data is insufficient for classification under STOT, but the classifier determines, based on skin or eye data, that the chemical may be corrosive to the respiratory tract, then the hazard must be addressed using data for classification in the skin corrosion/irritation hazard class (see A.2) or Serious Eye Damage/Eye irritation hazard class (see A.3).
</P>
<HD2>A.1.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures
</HD2>
<P>A.1.3.1 The approach to classification of mixtures for acute toxicity is tiered, and is dependent upon the amount of information available for the mixture itself and for its ingredients. The flow chart of Figure A.1.1 indicates the process that must be followed:

</P>
<HD1>Figure A.1.1: Tiered Approach to Classification of Mixtures for Acute Toxicity




</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.000.gif"/>
<P>A.1.3.2 Classification of mixtures for acute toxicity may be carried out for each route of exposure, but is only required for one route of exposure as long as this route is followed (estimated or tested) for all ingredients and there is no relevant evidence to suggest acute toxicity by multiple routes. When there is relevant evidence of acute toxicity by multiple routes of exposure, classification is to be conducted for all appropriate routes of exposure. All available information shall be considered. The pictogram and signal word used shall reflect the most severe hazard category; and all relevant hazard statements shall be used.
</P>
<P>A.1.3.3 For purposes of classifying the hazards of mixtures in the tiered approach:
</P>
<P>(a) The “relevant ingredients” of a mixture are those which are present in concentrations ≥1% (weight/weight for solids, liquids, dusts, mists and vapors and volume/volume for gases). If there is reason to suspect that an ingredient present at a concentration &lt;1% will affect classification of the mixture for acute toxicity, that ingredient shall also be considered relevant. Consideration of ingredients present at a concentration &lt;1% is particularly important when classifying untested mixtures which contain ingredients that are classified in Category 1 and Category 2;
</P>
<P>(b) Where a classified mixture is used as an ingredient of another mixture, the actual or derived acute toxicity estimate (ATE) for that mixture is used when calculating the classification of the new mixture using the formulas in A.1.3.6.1 and A.1.3.6.2.4.
</P>
<P>(c) If the converted acute toxicity point estimates for all ingredients of a mixture are within the same category, then the mixture should be classified in that category.
</P>
<P>(d) When only range data (or acute toxicity hazard category information) are available for ingredients in a mixture, they may be converted to point estimates in accordance with Table A.1.2 when calculating the classification of the new mixture using the formulas in A.1.3.6.1 and A.1.3.6.2.4.
</P>
<P>A.1.3.4 Classification of mixtures where acute toxicity test data are available for the complete mixture
</P>
<P>Where the mixture itself has been tested to determine its acute toxicity, it is classified according to the same criteria as those used for substances, presented in Table A.1.1. If test data for the mixture are not available, the procedures presented below must be followed.
</P>
<P>A.1.3.5 Classification of mixtures where acute toxicity test data are not available for the complete mixture: bridging principles
</P>
<P>Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its acute toxicity, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data will be used in accordance with the following bridging principles as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution, Batching, Concentration of mixtures, Interpolation within one hazard category, Substantially similar mixtures, and Aerosols.
</P>
<P>A.1.3.6 Classification of mixtures based on ingredients of the mixture (additivity formula)
</P>
<P>A.1.3.6.1 Data available for all ingredients.
</P>
<P>The acute toxicity estimate (ATE) of ingredients is considered as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Include ingredients with a known acute toxicity, which fall into any of the acute hazard categories, or have an oral or dermal LD<E T="52">50</E> greater than 2000 but less than or equal to 5000 mg/kg body weight (or the equivalent dose for inhalation);
</P>
<P>(b) Ignore ingredients that are presumed not acutely toxic (<I>e.g.,</I> water, sugar);
</P>
<P>(c) Ignore ingredients if the data available are from a limit dose test (at the upper threshold for Category 4 for the appropriate route of exposure as provided in Table A.1.1) and do not show acute toxicity.
</P>
<P>Ingredients that fall within the scope of this paragraph are considered to be ingredients with a known acute toxicity estimate (ATE). <I>See</I> note (b) to Table A.1.1 and paragraph A.1.3.3 for appropriate application of available data to the equation below, and paragraph A.1.3.6.2.4.
</P>
<P>The ATE of the mixture is determined by calculation from the ATE values for all relevant ingredients according to the following formula below for oral, dermal or inhalation toxicity:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.224.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">i</E> = concentration of ingredient i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n ingredients and i is running from 1 to n;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ATE<E T="52">i</E> = Acute toxicity estimate of ingredient i;
</FP-2>
<P>A.1.3.6.2 Data are not available for one or more ingredients of the mixture.
</P>
<P>A.1.3.6.2.1 Where an ATE is not available for an individual ingredient of the mixture, but available information provides a derived conversion value, the formula in A.1.3.6.1 may be applied. This information may include evaluation of:
</P>
<P>(a) Extrapolation between oral, dermal and inhalation acute toxicity estimates. Such an evaluation requires appropriate pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic data;
</P>
<P>(b) Evidence from human exposure that indicates toxic effects but does not provide lethal dose data;
</P>
<P>(c) Evidence from any other toxicity tests/assays available on the substance that indicates toxic acute effects but does not necessarily provide lethal dose data; or
</P>
<P>(d) Data from closely analogous substances using structure/activity relationships.
</P>
<P>A.1.3.6.2.2 This approach requires substantial supplemental technical information, and a highly trained and experienced expert, to reliably estimate acute toxicity. If sufficient information is not available to reliably estimate acute toxicity, proceed to the provisions of A.1.3.6.2.4.
</P>
<P>A.1.3.6.2.3 In the event that an ingredient with unknown acute toxicity is used in a mixture at a concentration ≥1%, and the mixture has not been classified based on testing of the mixture as a whole, the mixture cannot be attributed a definitive acute toxicity estimate. In this situation the mixture is classified based on the known ingredients only.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A statement that × percent of the mixture consists of ingredient(s) of unknown acute (oral/dermal/inhalation) toxicity is required on the label and safety data sheet in such cases; see appendix C to this section, Allocation of Label Elements and appendix D to this section, Safety Data Sheets).</P></NOTE>
<P>A.1.3.6.2.4 If the total concentration of the relevant ingredient(s) with unknown acute toxicity is ≤10% then the formula presented in A.1.3.6.1 must be used. If the total concentration of the relevant ingredient(s) with unknown acute toxicity is &gt;10%, the formula presented in A.1.3.6.1 is corrected to adjust for the percentage of the unknown ingredient(s) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09oc24.008.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.1.2—Conversion From Experimentally Obtained Acute Toxicity Range Values (or Acute Toxicity Hazard Categories) to Acute Toxicity Point Estimates for Use in the Formulas for the Classification of Mixtures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exposure routes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Classification category or experimentally obtained


<br/>acute toxicity range estimate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Converted acute toxicity point estimate
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oral (mg/kg bodyweight)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 &lt; Category 1 ≤ 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 &lt; Category 2 ≤ 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 &lt; Category 3 ≤ 300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 &lt; Category 4 ≤ 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dermal (mg/kg bodyweight)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 &lt; Category 1 ≤ 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 &lt; Category 2 ≤ 200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 &lt; Category 3 ≤ 1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1000 &lt; Category 4 ≤ 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gases (ppmV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 &lt; Category 1 ≤ 100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 &lt; Category 2 ≤ 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 &lt; Category 3 ≤ 2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2500 &lt; Category 4 ≤ 20000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vapors (mg/l)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 &lt; Category 1 ≤ 0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 &lt; Category 2 ≤ 2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 &lt; Category 3 ≤ 10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 &lt; Category 4 ≤ 20.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dust/mist (mg/l)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 &lt; Category 1 ≤ 0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 &lt; Category 2 ≤ 0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 &lt; Category 3 ≤ 1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 &lt; Category 4 ≤ 5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Gas concentrations are expressed in parts per million per volume (ppmV).</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>A.2 Skin Corrosion/Irritation
</HD1>
<HD2>A.2.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>A.2.1.1 <I>Skin corrosion</I> refers to the production of irreversible damage to the skin; namely, visible necrosis through the epidermis and into the dermis occurring after initial exposure to a substance or mixture.
</P>
<P><I>Skin irritation</I> refers to the production of reversible damage to the skin occurring after initial exposure to a substance or mixture.
</P>
<P>A.2.1.2 To classify, all available and relevant information on skin corrosion/irritation is collected and its quality in terms of adequacy and reliability is assessed. Wherever possible classification should be based on data generated using internationally validated and accepted methods, such as OECD Test Guidelines (TG) or equivalent methods. Sections A.2.2.1 to A.2.2.6 provide classification criteria for the different types of information that may be available.
</P>
<P>A.2.1.3 A <I>tiered approach</I> (see A.2.2.7) organizes the available information into levels/tiers and provides for decision-making in a structured and sequential manner. Classification results directly when the information consistently satisfies the criteria. However, where the available information gives inconsistent and/or conflicting results within a tier, classification of a substance or a mixture is made on the basis of the weight of evidence within that tier. In some cases when information from different tiers gives inconsistent and/or conflicting results (see A.2.2.7.3) or where data individually are insufficient to conclude on the classification, an overall weight of evidence approach is used (see A.0.3).


</P>
<HD2>A.2.2 Classification Criteria for Substances


</HD2>
<P>Substances shall be allocated to one of the following categories within this hazard class:
</P>
<HD3>(a) Category 1 (Skin Corrosion)
</HD3>
<P>This category may be further divided into up to three sub-categories (1A, 1B, and 1C).
</P>
<P>Corrosive substances should be classified in Category 1 where data are not sufficient for sub-categorization.
</P>
<P>When data are sufficient, substances may be classified in one of the three sub-categories 1A, 1B, or 1C.
</P>
<HD3>(b) Category 2 (Skin Irritation)




</HD3>
<P>A.2.2.1 Classification Based on Standard Human Data
</P>
<P>Existing reliable and good quality human data on skin corrosion/irritation should be given high weight for classification. Existing human data could be derived from single or repeated exposure(s), for example in occupational, consumer, transport or emergency response scenarios and epidemiological and clinical studies in well-documented case reports and observations (see A.0.2.6 and A.0.3). Although human data from accident or poison center databases can provide evidence for classification, absence of incidents is not itself evidence for no classification, as exposures are generally unknown or uncertain.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.2 Classification Based on Standard Animal Test Data
</P>
<P>OECD TG 404 is the currently available internationally validated and accepted animal test for classification as skin corrosive or irritant (See Table A.2.1 and A.2.2) and is the standard animal test. The current version of OECD TG 404 uses a maximum of 3 animals. Results from animal studies conducted under previous versions of OECD TG 404 that used more than 3 animals are also considered standard animal tests.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.2.1 Skin Corrosion
</P>
<P>A.2.2.2.1.1 A substance is corrosive to the skin when it produces destruction of skin tissue, namely, visible necrosis through the epidermis and into the dermis, in at least one tested animal after initial exposure up to a 4-hour duration.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.2.1.2 Three sub-categories of Category 1 are provided in Table A.2.1, all of which shall be regulated as Category 1.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.2.1—Skin Corrosion Category and Sub-Categories <E T="01">
<sup>a</sup></E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Destruction of skin tissue, namely, visible necrosis through the epidermis and into the dermis, in at least one tested animal after exposure ≤4 h.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sub-category 1A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corrosive responses in at least one animal following exposure ≤3 min during an observation period ≤1 h.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sub-category 1B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corrosive responses in at least one animal following exposure &gt;3 min and ≤1 h and observations ≤14 days.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sub-category 1C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corrosive responses in at least one animal after exposures &gt;1 h and ≤ 4 h and observations ≤14 days.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> The use of human data is discussed in A.2.2.1.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.2.2.2.2 Skin Irritation
</P>
<P>A.2.2.2.2.1 A substance is irritant to skin when it produces reversible damage to the skin following its application for up to 4 hours.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.2.2.2 A single irritant category (Category 2) is presented in the Table A.2.2. A substance is irritant to skin, when after the first application, it produces reversible damage to the skin following its application for up to 4 hours. An irritation category (Category 2) is provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) recognizes that some test substances may lead to effects which persist throughout the length of the test; and
</P>
<P>(b) acknowledges that animal responses in a test may be variable.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.2.2.3 Reversibility of skin lesions is another consideration in evaluating irritant responses. When inflammation persists to the end of the observation period in two or more test animals, taking into consideration alopecia (limited area), hyperkeratosis, hyperplasia and scaling, then a chemical should be considered to be an irritant.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.2.2.4 Animal irritant responses within a test can be quite variable, as they are with corrosion. A separate irritant criterion accommodates cases when there is a significant irritant response but less than the mean score criterion for a positive test. For example, a substance should be designated as an irritant if at least 1 of 3 tested animals shows a very elevated mean score according to test method used throughout the study, including lesions persisting at the end of an observation period of normally 14 days. Other responses should also fulfil this criterion. However, it should be ascertained that the responses are the result of chemical exposure. Addition of this criterion increases the sensitivity of the classification system.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.2.2—Skin Irritation Category <E T="01">
<sup>a</sup></E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Irritant (Category 2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Mean score of ≥2.3 ≤ 4.0 for erythema/eschar or for edema in at least 2 of 3 tested animals from grading at 24, 48, and 72 hours after patch removal or, if reactions are delayed, from grades on 3 consecutive days after the onset of skin reactions; or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Inflammation that persists to the end of the observation period normally 14 days in a least 2 animals, particularly taking into account alopecia (limited area), hyperkeratosis, hyperplasia, and scaling; or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) In some cases where there is pronounced variability of response among animals, with very distinctive positive effects related to chemical exposure in a single animal but less than the criteria above.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Grading criteria are understood as described in OECD Test Guideline 404.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.2.2.3 Classification Based on In Vitro/Ex Vivo Data
</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.1 The currently available individual <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> test methods address either skin irritation or skin corrosion, but do not address both endpoints in one single test. Therefore, classification based solely on <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> test results may require data from more than one method.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.2 Wherever possible classification should be based on data generated using internationally validated and accepted <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> test methods, and the classification criteria provided in these test methods needs to be applied. <I>In vitro/ex vivo</I> data can only be used for classification when the tested substance is within the applicability domain of the test methods used. Additional limitations described in the published literature should also be taken into consideration.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.3 <I>Skin corrosion</I>




</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.3.1 Where tests have been undertaken in accordance with OECD Test Guidelines (TGs) 430, 431, or 435, a substance is classified for skin corrosion in category 1 (and, where possible and required into sub-categories 1A, 1B, or 1C).




</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.3.2 Some<I> in vitro/ex vivo</I> methods do not allow differentiation between sub-categories 1B and 1C. Where existing in vitro/ex vivo data cannot distinguish between the sub-categories, additional information has to be taken into account to differentiate between these two sub-categories. Where no or insufficient additional information is available, category 1 is applied.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.3.3 A substance identified as not corrosive should be considered for classification as skin irritant.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.4 <I>Skin irritation</I>




</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.4.1 Where a conclusion of corrosivity can be excluded and where tests have been undertaken in accordance with OECD Test Guideline 439, a substance is classified for skin irritation in category 2.




</P>
<P>A.2.2.3.4.2 A negative result in an internationally accepted and validated <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> test for skin irritation, <I>e.g.,</I> OECD TG 439, can be used to conclude as not classified for skin irritation.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.4 Classification Based on Other, Existing Skin Data in Animals
</P>
<P>Other existing skin data in animals may be used for classification, but there may be limitations regarding the conclusions that can be drawn if a substance is highly toxic via the dermal route, an <I>in vivo</I> skin corrosion/irritation study may not have been conducted since the amount of test substance to be applied would considerably exceed the toxic dose and, consequently, would result in the death of the animals. When observations of skin corrosion/irritation in acute toxicity studies are made, these data may be used for classification, provided that the dilutions used and species tested are relevant. Solid substances (powders) may become corrosive or irritant when moistened or in contact with moist skin or mucous membranes. This is generally indicated in the standardized test methods.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.5 Classification Based on Chemical Properties
</P>
<P>Skin effects may be indicated by pH extremes such as ≤2 and ≥11.5 especially when associated with significant acid/alkaline reserve (buffering capacity). Generally, such substances are expected to produce significant effects on the skin. In the absence of any other information, a substance is considered corrosive (Skin Category 1) if it has a pH ≤2 or a pH ≥11.5. However, if consideration of acid/alkaline reserve suggests the substance may not be corrosive despite the low or high pH, this needs to be confirmed by other data, preferably from an appropriate validated <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> test. Buffering capacity and pH can be determined by test methods including OECD TG 122.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.6 Classification Based on Non-Test Methods
</P>
<P>A.2.2.6.1 Classification, including non-classification, can be based on non-test methods, with due consideration of reliability and applicability, on a case-by-case basis. Such methods include computer models predicting qualitative structure-activity relationships (structural alerts, SAR); quantitative structure-activity relationships (QSARs); computer expert systems; and read-across using analogue and category approaches.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.6.2 Read-across using analogue or category approaches requires sufficiently reliable test data on similar substance(s) and justification of the similarity of the tested substance(s) with the substance(s) to be classified. Where adequate justification of the read-across approach is provided, it has in general higher weight than (Q)SARs.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.6.3 Classification based on (Q)SARs requires sufficient data and validation of the model. The validity of the computer models and the prediction should be assessed using internationally recognized principles for the validation of (Q)SARs. With respect to reliability, lack of alerts in a SAR or expert system is not sufficient evidence for no classification.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.7 Classification in a Tiered Approach
</P>
<P>A.2.2.7.1 A tiered approach to the evaluation of initial information should be considered, where applicable (Figure A.2.1), recognizing that not all elements may be relevant. However, all available and relevant information of sufficient quality needs to be examined for consistency with respect to the resulting classification.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.7.2 In the tiered approach (Figure A.2.1), existing human and animal data form the highest tier, followed by <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> data, other existing skin data in animals, and then other sources of information. Where information from data within the same tier is inconsistent and/or conflicting, the conclusion from that tier is determined by a weight of evidence approach.
</P>
<P>A.2.2.7.3 Where information from several tiers is inconsistent and/or conflicting with respect to the resulting classification, information of sufficient quality from a higher tier is generally given a higher weight than information from a lower tier. However, when information from a lower tier would result in a stricter classification than information from a higher tier and there is concern for misclassification, then classification is determined by an overall weight of evidence approach. The same would apply in the case where there is human data indicating irritation but positive results from an <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> test for corrosion.

</P>
<HD1>Figure A.2.1—Application of the Tiered Approach for Skin Corrosion and Irritation

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.226.gif"/>
<P>(a) Before applying the approach, the explanatory text in A.2.2.7 should be consulted. Only adequate and reliable data of sufficient quality should be included in applying the tiered approach.
</P>
<P>(b) Information may be inconclusive for various reasons, <I>e.g.</I>:
</P>
<FP-1>—The available data may be of insufficient quality, or otherwise insufficient/inadequate for the purpose of classification, <I>e.g.,</I> due to quality issues related to experimental design and/or reporting.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—The available data may be insufficient to conclude on the classification, <I>e.g.,</I> they might be adequate to demonstrate irritancy, but inadequate to demonstrate absence of corrosivity.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—The method used to generate the available data may not be suitable for concluding on no classification (see A.2.2. for details). Specifically, <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> and non-test methods need to be validated explicitly for this purpose.
</FP-1>
<HD2>A.2.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures
</HD2>
<P>A.2.3.1 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for the Complete Mixture
</P>
<P>A.2.3.1.1 In general, the mixture shall be classified using the criteria for substances, taking into account the tiered approach to evaluate data for this hazard class (as illustrated in Figure A.2.1) and A.2.3.1.2 and A.2.3.1.3. If classification is not possible using the tiered approach, then the approach described in A.2.3.2, or, if that is not applicable A.2.2.3.3 should be followed.
</P>
<P>A.2.3.1.2 <I>In vitro/ex vivo</I> data generated from validated test methods may not have been validated using mixtures; although these methods are considered broadly applicable to mixtures, they can only be used for classification of mixtures when all ingredients of the mixture fall within the applicability domain of the test methods used. Specific limitations regarding applicability domains are described in the respective test methods, and should be taken into consideration as well as any further information on the limitations from the published literature. Where there is reason to assume or evidence indicating that the applicability domain of a particular test method is limited, data interpretation should be exercised with caution, or the results should be considered not applicable.
</P>
<P>A.2.3.1.3 In the absence of any other information, a mixture is considered corrosive (Skin Category 1) if it has a pH ≤2 or a pH ≥11.5. However, if consideration of acid/alkaline reserve suggests the mixture may not be corrosive despite the low or high pH value, this needs to be confirmed by other data, preferably from an appropriate validated <I>in vitro/ex vivo</I> test.
</P>
<P>A.2.3.2 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture: Bridging Principles
</P>
<P>A.2.3.2.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its skin corrosion/irritation potential, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data will be used in accordance with the following bridging principles, as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution, Batching, Concentration of mixtures, Interpolation within one hazard category, Substantially similar mixtures, and Aerosols.
</P>
<P>A.2.3.3 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for All Ingredients or Only for Some Ingredients of the Mixture
</P>
<P>A.2.3.3.1 In order to make use of all available data for purposes of classifying the skin corrosion/irritation hazards of mixtures, the following assumption has been made and is applied where appropriate in the tiered approach:
</P>
<P>The “relevant ingredients” of a mixture are those which are present in concentrations ≥1% (weight/weight for solids, liquids, dusts, mists and vapors and volume/volume for gases.). If the classifier has reason to suspect that an ingredient present at a concentration &lt;1% will affect classification of the mixture for skin corrosion/irritation, that ingredient shall also be considered relevant.
</P>
<P>A.2.3.3.2 In general, the approach to classification of mixtures as corrosive or irritant to the skin when data are available on the ingredients, but not on the mixture as a whole, is based on the theory of additivity, such that each corrosive or irritant ingredient contributes to the overall corrosive or irritant properties of the mixture in proportion to its potency and concentration. A weighting factor of 10 is used for corrosive ingredients when they are present at a concentration below the concentration limit for classification with Category 1, but are at a concentration that will contribute to the classification of the mixture as an irritant. The mixture is classified as corrosive or irritant when the sum of the concentrations of such ingredients exceeds a cut-off value/concentration limit.
</P>
<P>A.2.3.3.3 Table A.2.3 below provides the cut-off value/concentration limits to be used to determine if the mixture is considered to be corrosive or irritant to the skin.
</P>
<P>A.2.3.3.4 Particular care shall be taken when classifying certain types of chemicals such as acids and bases, inorganic salts, aldehydes, phenols, and surfactants. The approach explained in A.2.3.3.1 and A.2.3.3.2 might not work given that many of such substances are corrosive or irritant at concentrations &lt;1%. For mixtures containing strong acids or bases the pH should be used as classification criteria since pH will be a better indicator of corrosion than the concentration limits in Table A.2.3. A mixture containing corrosive or irritant ingredients that cannot be classified based on the additivity approach shown in Table A.2.3, due to chemical characteristics that make this approach unworkable, should be classified as skin corrosion Category 1 if it contains ≥1% of a corrosive ingredient and as skin irritation Category 2 when it contains ≥3% of an irritant ingredient. Classification of mixtures with ingredients for which the approach in Table A.2.3 does not apply is summarized in Table A.2.4 below.
</P>
<P>A.2.3.3.5 On occasion, reliable data may show that the skin corrosion/irritation of an ingredient will not be evident when present at a level above the generic cut-off values/concentration limits mentioned in Tables A.2.3 and A.2.4. In these cases the mixture could be classified according to those data (<I>See Use of cut-off values/concentration limits, paragraph A.0.4.3 of this Appendix</I>).
</P>
<P>A.2.3.3.6 If there are data showing that (an) ingredient(s) may be corrosive or irritant to skin at a concentration of &lt;1% (corrosive) or &lt;3% (irritant), the mixture shall be classified accordingly (See <I>Use of cut-off values/concentration limits</I>, paragraph A.0.4.3 of this Appendix).


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.2.3—Concentration of Ingredients of a Mixture Classified as Skin Category 1 or 2 That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixture as Hazardous to Skin (Category 1 or 2)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Sum of ingredients classified as:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Concentration triggering classification of a mixture as:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skin corrosive
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skin irritant
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin Category 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥5%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1% but &lt;5%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin Category 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥10%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10 × Skin Category 1) + Skin Category 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥10%
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Where data are available and the sub-categories of skin Category 1 (corrosive) are used, the sum of all ingredients of a mixture classified as sub-category 1A, 1B or 1C respectively, must each be ≥5% in order to classify the mixture as either skin sub-category 1A, 1B or 1C. Where the sum of 1A ingredients is &lt;5% but the sum of 1A+1B ingredients is ≥5%, the mixture must be classified as sub-category 1B. Similarly, where the sum of 1A + 1B ingredients is &lt;5% but the sum of 1A + 1B + 1C ingredients is ≥5% the mixture must be classified as sub-category 1C. Where at least one relevant ingredient in a mixture is classified as Category 1 without sub-categorization, the mixture must be classified as Category 1 without sub-categorization if the sum of all ingredients corrosive to skin is ≥5%.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.2.4—Concentration of Ingredients of a Mixture When the Additivity Approach Does Not Apply, That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixture as Hazardous to Skin
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mixture classified as: Skin
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acid with pH ≤2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Category 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Base with pH ≥11.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Category 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other corrosive (Category 1) ingredient</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Category 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other irritant (Category 2) ingredient, including acids and bases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Category 2.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>A.3 Serious Eye Damage/Eye Irritation
</HD1>
<HD2>A.3.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>A.3.1.1 <I>Serious eye damage</I> refers to the production of tissue damage in the eye, or serious physical decay of vision, which is not fully reversible, occurring after exposure of the eye to a substance or mixture.
</P>
<P><I>Eye irritation</I> refers to the production of changes in the eye, which are fully reversible, occurring after exposure of the eye to a substance or mixture.
</P>
<P>A.3.1.2 Serious eye damage/eye irritation shall be classified using a tiered approach as detailed in Figure A.3.1. Emphasis shall be placed upon existing human data (<I>See</I> A.0.2.6), followed by existing animal data, followed by <I>in vitro</I> data and then other sources of information. Classification results directly when the data satisfy the criteria in this section. In case the criteria cannot be directly applied, classification of a substance or a mixture is made on the basis of the total weight of evidence (<I>See</I> A.0.3.1). This means that all available information bearing on the determination of serious eye damage/eye irritation is considered together, including the results of appropriate scientifically validated <I>in vitro</I> tests, relevant animal data, and human data such as epidemiological and clinical studies and well-documented case reports and observations.
</P>
<HD2>A.3.2 Classification Criteria for Substances
</HD2>
<P>Substances are allocated to one of the categories within this hazard class, Category 1 (serious eye damage) or Category 2 (eye irritation), as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Category 1 (serious eye damage/irreversible effects on the eye): substances that have the potential to seriously damage the eyes (see Table A.3.1).
</P>
<P>(b) Category 2 (eye irritation/reversible effects on the eye): substances that have the potential to induce reversible eye irritation (see Table A.3.2).
</P>
<P>A.3.2.1 Classification Based on Standard Animal Test Data
</P>
<P>A.3.2.1.1 Serious eye damage (Category 1)/Irreversible effects on the eye
</P>
<P>A single hazard category is provided in Table A.3.1, for substances that have the potential to seriously damage the eyes. Category 1, irreversible effects on the eye, includes the criteria listed below. These observations include animals with grade 4 cornea lesions and other severe reactions (e.g., destruction of cornea) observed at any time during the test, as well as persistent corneal opacity, discoloration of the cornea by a dye substance, adhesion, pannus, and interference with the function of the iris or other effects that impair sight. In this context, persistent lesions are considered those which are not fully reversible within an observation period of normally 21 days. Category 1 also contains substances fulfilling the criteria of corneal opacity ≥ 3 and/or iritis &gt; 1.5 observed in at least 2 of 3 tested animals detected in a Draize eye test with rabbits, because severe lesions like these usually do not reverse within a 21-day observation period.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.3.1—Serious Eye Damage/Irreversible Effects on the Eye Category <E T="0731">a</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 1: Serious eye damage/Irreversible effects on the eye</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A substance that produces:
<br/>(a) in at least one animal effects on the cornea, iris or conjunctiva that are not expected to reverse or have not fully reversed within an observation period of normally 21 days; and/or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) in at least 2 of 3 tested animals, a positive response of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (i) corneal opacity ≥3; and/or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (ii) iritis &gt;1.5;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">calculated as the mean scores following grading at 24, 48 and 72 hours after instillation of the test material.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Grading criteria are understood as described in OECD Test Guideline 405.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.3.2.1.2 Eye irritation (category 2)/reversible effects on the eye
</P>
<P>A single Category 2 is provided in Table A.3.2 for substances that have the potential to induce reversible eye irritation.
</P>
<P>When data are available, substances may be classified into Category 2A and Category 2B:
</P>
<P>(a) For substances inducing eye irritant effects reversing within an observation time of normally 21 days, Category 2A applies.
</P>
<P>(b) For substances inducing eye irritant effects reversing within an observation time of 7 days, Category 2B applies.
</P>
<P>When a substance is classified as Category 2, without further categorization, the classification criteria are the same as those for 2A.


</P>
<P>A.3.2.1.3 For those substances where there is pronounced variability among animal responses this information must be taken into account in determining the classification.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.3.2—Reversible Effects on the Eye Categories <E T="0731">a</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substances that have the potential to induce reversible eye irritation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 2/2A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substances that produce in at least 2 of 3 tested animals a positive response of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (a) corneal opacity ≥1; and/or.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (b) iritis ≥1; and/or.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (c) conjunctival redness ≥2; and/or.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (d) conjunctival oedema (chemosis) ≥2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">calculated as the mean scores following grading at 24, 48 and 72 hours after instillation of the test material, and which fully reverses within an observation period of normally 21 days.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 2B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within Category 2A an eye irritant is considered mildly irritating to eyes (Category 2B) when the effects listed above are fully reversible within 7 days of observation.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Grading criteria are understood as described in OECD Test Guideline 405.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>A.3.2.2 Classification in a Tiered Approach
</HD3>
<P>A.3.2.2.1 A tiered approach to the evaluation of initial information shall be used where applicable, recognizing that all elements may not be relevant in certain cases (Figure A.3.1).
</P>
<P>A.3.2.2.2 Existing human and animal data should be the first line of analysis, as they give information directly relevant to effects on the eye. Possible skin corrosion shall be evaluated prior to consideration of any testing for serious eye damage/eye irritation in order to avoid testing for local effects on eyes with skin corrosive substances.
</P>
<P>A.3.2.2.3 <I>In vitro</I> alternatives that have been validated and accepted should be used to make classification decisions.
</P>
<P>A.3.2.2.4 Likewise, pH extremes like ≤2 and ≥11.5, may indicate serious eye damage, especially when associated with significant acid/alkaline reserve (buffering capacity). Generally, such substances are expected to produce significant effects on the eyes. In the absence of any other information, a substance is considered to cause serious eye damage (Category 1) if it has a pH ≤2 or ≥11.5. However, if consideration of acid/alkaline reserve suggests the substance may not cause serious eye damage despite the low or high pH value, this needs to be confirmed by other data, preferably by data from an appropriate validated <I>in vitro</I> test.
</P>
<P>A.3.2.2.5 In some cases sufficient information may be available from structurally related substances to make classification decisions.
</P>
<P>A.3.2.2.6 The tiered approach provides guidance on how to organize existing information and to make a weight-of-evidence decision about hazard assessment and hazard classification (ideally without conducting new animal tests). Animal testing with corrosive substances should be avoided wherever possible. Although information might be gained from the evaluation of single parameters within a tier, consideration should be given to the totality of existing information and making an overall weight of evidence determination. This is especially true when there is conflict in information available on some parameters.
</P>
<P>A.3.2.2.7 The tiered approach explains how to organize existing information and to make a weight-of-evidence decision about hazard assessment and hazard classification. Although information might be gained from the evaluation of single parameters within a tier, consideration should be given to the totality of existing information and making an overall weight of evidence determination. This is especially true when there is conflict in information available.



</P>
<HD1>Figure A.3.1—Tiered Evaluation for Serious Eye Damage and Eye Irritation (See Also Figure A.2.1)

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.227.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.228.gif"/>
<P>
<SU>a</SU> Existing human or animal data could be derived from single or repeated exposure(s), for example in occupational, consumer, transport, or emergency response scenarios; or from purposely-generated data from animal studies conducted according to validated and internationally accepted test methods. Although human data from accident or poison center databases can provide evidence for classification, absence of incidents is not itself evidence for no classification as exposures are generally unknown or uncertain;
</P>
<P>
<SU>b</SU> Classify in the appropriate category as applicable;
</P>
<P>
<SU>c</SU> Existing animal data should be carefully reviewed to determine if sufficient serious eye damage/eye irritation evidence is available through other, similar information. It is recognized that not all skin irritants are eye irritants. Expert judgment should be exercised prior to making such a determination;
</P>
<P>
<SU>d</SU> Evidence from studies using validated protocols with isolated human/animal tissues or other non-tissue-based, validated protocols should be assessed. Examples of internationally accepted, validated test methods for identifying eye corrosives and severe irritants (i.e., Serious Eye Damage) include OECD Test Guidelines 437 (Bovine Corneal Opacity and Permeability (BCOP)), 438 (Isolated Chicken Eye (ICE) and 460 (Fluorescein leakage (FL)). Presently there are no validated and internationally accepted in vitro test methods for identifying eye irritation. A positive test result from a validated in vitro test on skin corrosion would lead to the conclusion to classify as causing serious eye damage;
</P>
<P>
<SU>e</SU> Measurement of pH alone may be adequate, but assessment of acid/alkaline reserve (buffering capacity) would be preferable. Presently, there is no validated and internationally accepted method for assessing this parameter;
</P>
<P>
<SU>f</SU> All information that is available on a substance must be considered and an overall determination made on the total weight of evidence. This is especially true when there is conflict in information available on some parameters. The weight of evidence including information on skin irritation may lead to classification for eye irritation. Negative results from applicable validated in vitro tests are considered in the total weight of evidence evaluation.
</P>
<HD2>A.3.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures
</HD2>
<P>A.3.3.1 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for the Complete Mixture
</P>
<P>A.3.3.1.1 The mixture will be classified using the criteria for substances, and taking into account the tiered approach to evaluate data for this hazard class (as illustrated in Figure A.3.1).
</P>
<P>A.3.3.1.2 When considering testing of the mixture, chemical manufacturers shall use a tiered approach as included in the criteria for classification of substances for skin corrosion and serious eye damage and eye irritation to help ensure an accurate classification, as well as to avoid unnecessary animal testing. In the absence of any other information, a mixture is considered to cause serious eye damage (Category 1) if it has a pH ≤2 or ≥11.5. However, if consideration of acid/alkaline reserve suggests the mixture may not have the potential to cause serious eye damage despite the low or high pH value, then further evaluation may be necessary.
</P>
<P>A.3.3.2 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture: Bridging Principles
</P>
<P>A.3.3.2.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its skin corrosivity or potential to cause serious eye damage or eye irritation, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data will be used in accordance with the following bridging principles, as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution, Batching, Concentration of mixtures, Interpolation within one hazard category, Substantially similar mixtures, and Aerosols.
</P>
<P>A.3.3.3 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for All Ingredients or Only for Some Ingredients of the Mixture
</P>
<P>A.3.3.3.1 For purposes of classifying the serious eye damage/eye irritation hazards of mixtures in the tiered approach:
</P>
<P>The “relevant ingredients” of a mixture are those which are present in concentrations ≥1% (weight/weight for solids, liquids, dusts, mists and vapors and volume/volume for gases.) If the classifier has reason to suspect that an ingredient present at a concentration &lt;1% will affect classification of the mixture for serious eye damage/eye irritation, that ingredient shall also be considered relevant.
</P>
<P>A.3.3.3.2 In general, the approach to classification of mixtures as seriously damaging to the eye or eye irritant when data are available on the ingredients, but not on the mixture as a whole, is based on the theory of additivity, such that each skin corrosive or serious eye damage/eye irritant ingredient contributes to the overall serious eye damage/eye irritation properties of the mixture in proportion to its potency and concentration. A weighting factor of 10 is used for skin corrosive and serious eye damaging ingredients when they are present at a concentration below the concentration limit for classification with Category 1, but are at a concentration that will contribute to the classification of the mixture as serious eye damaging/eye irritant. The mixture is classified as seriously damaging to the eye or eye irritant when the sum of the concentrations of such ingredients exceeds a threshold cut-off value/concentration limit.
</P>
<P>A.3.3.3.3 Table A.3.3 provides the cut-off value/concentration limits to be used to determine if the mixture must be classified as seriously damaging to the eye or an eye irritant.
</P>
<P>A.3.3.3.4 Particular care must be taken when classifying certain types of chemicals such as acids and bases, inorganic salts, aldehydes, phenols, and surfactants. The approach explained in A.3.3.3.1 and A.3.3.3.2 might not work given that many of such substances are seriously damaging to the eye/eye irritating at concentrations &lt;1%. For mixtures containing strong acids or bases, the pH should be used as classification criteria (<I>See</I> A.3.3.1.2) since pH will be a better indicator of serious eye damage (subject to consideration of acid/alkali reserve) than the concentration limits of Table A.3.3. A mixture containing skin corrosive or serious eye damaging/eye irritating ingredients that cannot be classified based on the additivity approach applied in Table A.3.3 due to chemical characteristics that make this approach unworkable, should be classified as serious eye damage (Category 1) if it contains ≥1% of a skin corrosive or serious eye damaging ingredient and as Eye Irritation (Category 2) when it contains ≥3% of an eye irritant ingredient. Classification of mixtures with ingredients for which the approach in Table A.3.3 does not apply is summarized in Table A.3.4.
</P>
<P>A.3.3.3.5 On occasion, reliable data may show that the irreversible/reversible eye effects of an ingredient will not be evident when present at a level above the generic cut-off values/concentration limits mentioned in Tables A.3.3 and A.3.4. In these cases the mixture could be classified according to those data (<I>See also</I> A.0.4.3 <I>Use of cut-off values/concentration limits</I>”). On occasion, when it is expected that the skin corrosion/irritation or the reversible/irreversible eye effects of an ingredient will not be evident when present at a level above the generic concentration/cut-off levels mentioned in Tables A.3.3 and A.3.4, testing of the mixture may be considered. In those cases, the tiered weight of evidence approach should be applied as referred to in section A.3.2, Figure A.3.1 and explained in detail in this chapter.
</P>
<P>A.3.3.3.6 If there are data showing that (an) ingredient(s) may be corrosive to the skin or seriously damaging to the eye/eye irritating at a concentration of ≤1% (corrosive to the skin or seriously damaging to the eye) or ≤3% (eye irritant), the mixture shall be classified accordingly (<I>See also</I> paragraph A.0.4.3, <I>Use of cut-off values/concentration limits</I>).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.3.3—Concentration of Ingredients of a Mixture Classified as Skin Category 1 and/or Eye Category 1 or 2 That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixtures as Hazardous to the Eye
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Sum of ingredients classified as
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Concentration triggering


<br/>classification of a mixture as
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Serious eye damage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eye irritation
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2/2A
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin corrosion (Category 1) + Serious eye damage (Category 1) 
<sup>a</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥3%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1% but &lt;3%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eye irritation (Category 2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥10% 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 × (Skin corrosion (Category 1) + Serious eye damage (Category 1)) 
<sup>a</sup> + Eye irritation (Category 2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥10%
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> If an ingredient is classified as both skin Category 1 and eye Category 1 its concentration is considered only once in the calculation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> A mixture may be classified as Eye Irritation Category 2B in cases when all relevant ingredients are classified as Eye Irritation Category 2B.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.3.4—Concentration of Ingredients of a Mixture for Which the Additivity Approach Does Not Apply, That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixture as Hazardous to the Eye
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration


<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mixture classified as
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acid with pH &lt;2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Serious eye damage (Category 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Base with pH ≥11.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Serious eye damage (Category 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other skin corrosive or serious eye damage (Category 1) ingredients</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Serious eye damage (Category 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eye irritant (Category 2) ingredients</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eye irritation (Category 2).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>A.4 Respiratory or Skin Sensitization
</HD1>
<HD2>A.4.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>A.4.1.1 <I>Respiratory sensitization</I> refers to hypersensitivity of the airways occurring after inhalation of a substance or mixture.
</P>
<P><I>Skin sensitization</I> refers to an allergic response occurring after skin contact with a substance or mixture.
</P>
<P>A.4.1.2 For the purpose of this chapter, sensitization includes two phases: the first phase is induction of specialized immunological memory in an individual by exposure to an allergen. The second phase is elicitation, <I>i.e.,</I> production of a cell-mediated or antibody-mediated allergic response by exposure of a sensitized individual to an allergen.
</P>
<P>A.4.1.3 For respiratory sensitization, the pattern of induction followed by elicitation phases is shared in common with skin sensitization. For skin sensitization, an induction phase is required in which the immune system learns to react; clinical symptoms can then arise when subsequent exposure is sufficient to elicit a visible skin reaction (elicitation phase). As a consequence, predictive tests usually follow this pattern in which there is an induction phase, the response to which is measured by a standardized elicitation phase, typically involving a patch test. The local lymph node assay is the exception, directly measuring the induction response. Evidence of skin sensitization in humans normally is assessed by a diagnostic patch test.
</P>
<P>A.4.1.4 Usually, for both skin and respiratory sensitization, lower levels are necessary for elicitation than are required for induction.
</P>
<P>A.4.1.5 The hazard class “respiratory or skin sensitization” is differentiated into:
</P>
<P>(a) Respiratory sensitization; and
</P>
<P>(b) Skin sensitization
</P>
<HD2>A.4.2 Classification Criteria for Substances
</HD2>
<P>A.4.2.1 Respiratory Sensitizers
</P>
<P>&gt;A.4.2.1.1 Hazard Categories
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.1.1 Effects seen in either humans or animals will normally justify classification in a weight of evidence approach for respiratory sensitizers. Substances may be allocated to one of the two sub-categories 1A or 1B using a weight of evidence approach in accordance with the criteria given in Table A.4.1 and on the basis of reliable and good quality evidence from human cases or epidemiological studies and/or observations from appropriate studies in experimental animals.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.1.2 Where data are not sufficient for sub-categorization, respiratory sensitizers shall be classified in Category 1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.4.1—Hazard Category and Sub-Categories for Respiratory Sensitizers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Respiratory sensitizer
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A substance is classified as a respiratory sensitizer
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) if there is evidence in humans that the substance can lead to specific respiratory hypersensitivity and/or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) if there are positive results from an appropriate animal test.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sub-category 1A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substances showing a high frequency of occurrence in humans; or a probability of occurrence of a high sensitization rate in humans based on animal or other tests.
<sup>1</sup> Severity of reaction may also be considered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sub-category 1B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substances showing a low to moderate frequency of occurrence in humans; or a probability of occurrence of a low to moderate sensitization rate in humans based on animal or other tests.
<sup>1</sup> Severity of reaction may also be considered.


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> As of May 20, 2024, recognized and validated animal models for the testing of respiratory hypersensitivity are not available. Under certain circumstances, data from animal studies may provide valuable information in a weight of evidence assessment.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.4.2.1.2 Human Evidence 
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.2.1 Evidence that a substance can lead to specific respiratory hypersensitivity will normally be based on human experience. In this context, hypersensitivity is normally seen as asthma, but other hypersensitivity reactions such as rhinitis/conjunctivitis and alveolitis are also considered. The condition will have the clinical character of an allergic reaction. However, immunological mechanisms do not have to be demonstrated.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.2.2 When considering the human evidence, it is necessary that in addition to the evidence from the cases, the following be taken into account:
</P>
<P>(a) The size of the population exposed;
</P>
<P>(b) The extent of exposure.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.3 The evidence referred to above could be:
</P>
<P>(a) Clinical history and data from appropriate lung function tests related to exposure to the substance, confirmed by other supportive evidence which may include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In vivo</I> immunological test (<I>e.g.,</I> skin prick test);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>In vitro</I> immunological test (<I>e.g.,</I> serological analysis);
</P>
<P>(iii) Studies that may indicate other specific hypersensitivity reactions where immunological mechanisms of action have not been proven, <I>e.g.,</I> repeated low-level irritation, pharmacologically mediated effects;
</P>
<P>(iv) A chemical structure related to substances known to cause respiratory hypersensitivity;
</P>
<P>(b) Data from positive bronchial challenge tests with the substance conducted according to accepted guidelines for the determination of a specific hypersensitivity reaction.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.2.4 Clinical history should include both medical and occupational history to determine a relationship between exposure to a specific substance and development of respiratory hypersensitivity. Relevant information includes aggravating factors both in the home and workplace, the onset and progress of the disease, family history and medical history of the patient in question. The medical history should also include a note of other allergic or airway disorders from childhood and smoking history.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.2.5 The results of positive bronchial challenge tests are considered to provide sufficient evidence for classification on their own. It is, however, recognized that in practice many of the examinations listed above will already have been carried out.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.3 Animal studies
</P>
<P>A.4.2.1.2.3 Data from appropriate animal studies 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> which may be indicative of the potential of a substance to cause sensitization by inhalation in humans 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> may include:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> At this writing, recognized and validated animal models for the testing of respiratory hypersensitivity are not available. Under certain circumstances, data from animal studies may provide valuable information in a weight of evidence assessment.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The mechanisms by which substances induce symptoms of asthma are not yet fully known. For preventive measures, these substances are considered respiratory sensitizers. However, if on the basis of the evidence, it can be demonstrated that these substances induce symptoms of asthma by irritation only in people with bronchial hyperactivity, they should not be considered as respiratory sensitizers.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) Measurements of Immunoglobulin E (IgE) and other specific immunological parameters, for example in mice
</P>
<P>(b) Specific pulmonary responses in guinea pigs.
</P>
<HD3>A.4.2.2 Skin Sensitizers
</HD3>
<P>A.4.2.2.1 Hazard categories
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.1.1 Effects seen in either humans or animals will normally justify classification in a weight of evidence approach for skin sensitizers. Substances may be allocated to one of the two sub-categories 1A or 1B using a weight of evidence approach in accordance with the criteria given in Table A.4.2 and on the basis of reliable and good quality evidence from human cases or epidemiological studies and/or observations from appropriate studies in experimental animals according to the guidance values provided in A.4.2.2.2.1 and A.4.2.2.3.2 for sub-category 1A and in A.4.2.2.2.2 and A.4.2.2.3.3 for sub-category 1B.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.1.2 Where data are not sufficient for sub-categorization, skin sensitizers shall be classified in Category 1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.4.2—Hazard Category and Sub-Categories for Skin Sensitizers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skin sensitizer
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A substance is classified as a skin sensitizer


<br/>(a) if there is evidence in humans that the substance can lead to sensitization by skin contact in a substantial number of persons, or

<br/>(b) if there are positive results from an appropriate animal test.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sub-category 1A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substances showing a high frequency of occurrence in humans and/or a high potency in animals can be presumed to have the potential to produce significant sensitization in humans. Severity of reaction may also be considered.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sub-category 1B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substances showing a low to moderate frequency of occurrence in humans and/or a low to moderate potency in animals can be presumed to have the potential to produce sensitization in humans. Severity of reaction may also be considered.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.4.2.2.2 Human Evidence
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.2.1 Human evidence for sub-category 1A may include:
</P>
<P>(a) Positive responses at ≤500 µg/cm2 (Human Repeat Insult Patch Test (HRIPT), Human Maximization Test (HMT)—induction threshold);
</P>
<P>(b) Diagnostic patch test data where there is a relatively high and substantial incidence of reactions in a defined population in relation to relatively low exposure;
</P>
<P>(c) Other epidemiological evidence where there is a relatively high and substantial incidence of allergic contact dermatitis in relation to relatively low exposure.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.2.2 Human evidence for sub-category 1B may include:
</P>
<P>(a) Positive responses at &gt;500 µg/cm2 (HRIPT, HMT—induction threshold);
</P>
<P>(b) Diagnostic patch test data where there is a relatively low but substantial incidence of reactions in a defined population in relation to relatively high exposure;
</P>
<P>(c) Other epidemiological evidence where there is a relatively low but substantial incidence of allergic contact dermatitis in relation to relatively high exposure.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.3 Animal Studies
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.3.1 For Category 1, when an adjuvant type test method for skin sensitization is used, a response of at least 30% of the animals is considered as positive. For a non-adjuvant Guinea pig test method, a response of at least 15% of the animals is considered positive. For Category 1, a stimulation index of three or more is considered a positive response in the local lymph node assay.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Test methods for skin sensitization are described in OECD Guideline 406 (the Guinea Pig Maximization test and the Buehler guinea pig test) and Guideline 429 (Local Lymph Node Assay). Other methods may be used provided that they are scientifically validated. The Mouse Ear Swelling Test (MEST), appears to be a reliable screening test to detect moderate to strong sensitizers, and can be used, in accordance with professional judgment, as a first stage in the assessment of skin sensitization potential.</P></FTNT>
<P>A.4.2.2.3.2 Animal test results for sub-category 1A can include data with values indicated in the following Table A.4.3:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.4.3—Animal Test Results for Sub-Category 1A
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assay
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Local lymph node assay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EC3 value ≤2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guinea pig maximization test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥30% responding at ≤0.1% intradermal induction dose or


<br/>≥60% responding at &gt;0.1% to ≤1% intradermal induction dose.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Buehler assay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥15% responding at ≤0.2% topical induction dose or


<br/>≥60% responding at &gt;0.2% to ≤20% topical induction dose.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> EC3 refers to the estimated concentration of test chemical required to induce a stimulation index of 3 in the local lymph node assay.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.4.2.2.3.3 Animal test results for sub-category 1B can include data with values indicated in Table A.4.4 below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.4.4—Animal Test Results for Sub-Category 1B
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assay
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Local lymph node assay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EC3 value &gt;2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guinea pig maximization test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥30% to &lt;60% responding at &gt;0.1% to ≤1% intradermal induction dose or


<br/>≥30% responding at &gt;1% intradermal induction dose.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Buehler assay</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥15% to &lt;60% responding at &gt;0.2% to ≤20% topical induction dose or


<br/>≥15% responding at &gt;20% topical induction dose.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> EC3 refers to the estimated concentration of test chemical required to induce a stimulation index of 3 in the local lymph node assay.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>A.4.2.2.4 Specific Considerations
</HD3>
<P>A.4.2.2.4.1 For classification of a substance, evidence shall include one or more of the following using a weight of evidence approach:
</P>
<P>(a) Positive data from patch testing, normally obtained in more than one dermatology clinic;
</P>
<P>(b) Epidemiological studies showing allergic contact dermatitis caused by the substance. Situations in which a high proportion of those exposed exhibit characteristic symptoms are to be looked at with special concern, even if the number of cases is small;
</P>
<P>(c) Positive data from appropriate animal studies;
</P>
<P>(d) Positive data from experimental studies in humans (See paragraph A.0.2.6 of this Appendix);
</P>
<P>(e) Well documented episodes of allergic contact dermatitis, normally obtained in more than one dermatology clinic;
</P>
<P>(f) Severity of reaction.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.4.2 Evidence from animal studies is usually much more reliable than evidence from human exposure. However, in cases where evidence is available from both sources, and there is conflict between the results, the quality and reliability of the evidence from both sources must be assessed in order to resolve the question of classification on a case-by-case basis. Normally, human data are not generated in controlled experiments with volunteers for the purpose of hazard classification but rather as part of risk assessment to confirm lack of effects seen in animal tests. Consequently, positive human data on skin sensitization are usually derived from case-control or other, less defined studies. Evaluation of human data must, therefore, be carried out with caution as the frequency of cases reflect, in addition to the inherent properties of the substances, factors such as the exposure situation, bioavailability, individual predisposition and preventive measures taken. Negative human data should not normally be used to negate positive results from animal studies. For both animal and human data, consideration should be given to the impact of vehicle.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.4.3 If none of the above-mentioned conditions are met, the substance need not be classified as a skin sensitizer. However, a combination of two or more indicators of skin sensitization, as listed below, may alter the decision. This shall be considered on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(a) Isolated episodes of allergic contact dermatitis;
</P>
<P>(b) Epidemiological studies of limited power, <I>e.g.,</I> where chance, bias or confounders have not been ruled out fully with reasonable confidence;
</P>
<P>(c) Data from animal tests, performed according to existing guidelines, which do not meet the criteria for a positive result described in A.4.2.2.3, but which are sufficiently close to the limit to be considered significant;
</P>
<P>(d) Positive data from non-standard methods;
</P>
<P>(e) Positive results from close structural analogues.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.4.4 Immunological contact urticaria
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.4.4.1 Substances meeting the criteria for classification as respiratory sensitizers may, in addition, cause immunological contact urticaria. Consideration shall be given to classifying these substances as skin sensitizers.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.4.4.2 Substances which cause immunological contact urticaria without meeting the criteria for respiratory sensitizers shall be considered for classification as skin sensitizers.
</P>
<P>A.4.2.2.4.4.3 There is no recognized animal model available to identify substances which cause immunological contact urticaria. Therefore, classification will normally be based on human evidence, similar to that for skin sensitization.
</P>
<HD2>A.4.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures
</HD2>
<P>A.4.3.1 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for the Complete Mixture
</P>
<P>When reliable and good quality evidence, as described in the criteria for substances, from human experience or appropriate studies in experimental animals, is available for the mixture, then the mixture shall be classified by weight of evidence evaluation of these data. Care must be exercised in evaluating data on mixtures that the dose used does not render the results inconclusive.
</P>
<P>A.4.3.2 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture: Bridging Principles
</P>
<P>A.4.3.2.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its sensitizing properties, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data will be used in accordance with the following agreed bridging principles as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution, Batching, Concentration of mixtures, Interpolation within one hazard category/subcategory, Substantially similar mixtures, and Aerosols.
</P>
<P>A.4.3.3 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for All Ingredients or Only for Some Ingredients of the Mixture
</P>
<P>The mixture shall be classified as a respiratory or skin sensitizer when at least one ingredient has been classified as a respiratory or skin sensitizer and is present at or above the appropriate cut-off value/concentration limit for the specific endpoint as shown in Table A.4.5.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.4.5—Cut-Off Values/Concentration Limits of Ingredients of a Mixture Classified as Either Respiratory Sensitizers or Skin Sensitizers That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixture
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Ingredient classified as
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Cut-off values/concentration limits triggering classification of a mixture as
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Respiratory sensitizer


<br/>Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skin sensitizer


<br/>Category 1
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Solid/liquid


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gas


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">All physical states


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Respiratory Sensitizer Category 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Respiratory Sensitizer Sub-category 1A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Respiratory Sensitizer Sub-category 1B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin Sensitizer Category 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin Sensitizer Sub-category 1A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin Sensitizer Sub-category 1B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>A.5 Germ Cell Mutagenicity
</HD1>
<HD2>A.5.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>A.5.1.1 <I>Germ cell mutagenicity</I> refers to heritable gene mutations, including heritable structure and numerical chromosome aberrations in germ cells occurring after exposure to a substance or mixture.
</P>
<P>A.5.1.2 A <I>mutation</I> is defined as a permanent change in the amount or structure of the genetic material in a cell. The term <I>mutation</I> applies both to heritable genetic changes that may be manifested at the phenotypic level and to the underlying DNA modifications when known (including, for example, specific base pair changes and chromosomal translocations). The term <I>mutagenic</I> and <I>mutagen</I> will be used for agents giving rise to an increased occurrence of mutations in populations of cells and/or organisms.
</P>
<P>A.5.1.3 The more general terms <I>genotoxic</I> and <I>genotoxicity</I> apply to agents or processes which alter the structure, information content, or segregation of DNA, including those which cause DNA damage by interfering with normal replication processes, or which in a non-physiological manner (temporarily) alter its replication. Genotoxicity test results are usually taken as indicators for mutagenic effects.
</P>
<P>A.5.1.4 This hazard class is primarily concerned with chemicals that may cause mutations in the germ cells of humans that can be transmitted to the progeny. However, mutagenicity/genotoxicity tests <I>in vitro</I> and in mammalian somatic cells <I>in vivo</I> are also considered in classifying substances and mixtures within this hazard class.
</P>
<HD2>A.5.2 Classification Criteria for Substances
</HD2>
<P>A.5.2.1 The classification system provides for two different categories of germ cell mutagens to accommodate the weight of evidence available. The two-category system is described in the Figure A.5.1.
</P>
<P>Figure A.5.1—Hazard Categories for Germ Cell Mutagens
</P>
<P-2><I>CATEGORY 1:</I> Substances known to induce heritable mutations or to be regarded as if they induce heritable mutations in the germ cells of humans
</P-2>
<P-2>Category 1A: Substances known to induce heritable mutations in germ cells of humans
</P-2>
<P-2>Positive evidence from human epidemiological studies.
</P-2>
<P-2>Category 1B: Substances which should be regarded as if they induce heritable mutations in the germ cells of humans
</P-2>
<P-2>(a) Positive result(s) from in vivo heritable germ cell mutagenicity tests in mammals; or
</P-2>
<P-2>(b) Positive result(s) from in vivo somatic cell mutagenicity tests in mammals, in combination with some evidence that the substance has potential to cause mutations to germ cells. This supporting evidence may, for example, be derived from mutagenicity/genotoxic tests in germ cells in vivo, or by demonstrating the ability of the substance or its metabolite(s) to interact with the genetic material of germ cells; or
</P-2>
<P-2>(c) Positive results from tests showing mutagenic effects in the germ cells of humans, without demonstration of transmission to progeny; for example, an increase in the frequency of aneuploidy in sperm cells of exposed people.
</P-2>
<P-2><I>CATEGORY 2:</I> Substances which cause concern for humans owing to the possibility that they may induce heritable mutations in the germ cells of humans
</P-2>
<P-2>Positive evidence obtained from experiments in mammals and/or in some cases from in vitro experiments, obtained from:
</P-2>
<P-2>(a) Somatic cell mutagenicity tests in vivo, in mammals; or
</P-2>
<P-2>(b) Other in vivo somatic cell genotoxicity tests which are supported by positive results from in vitro mutagenicity assays.
</P-2>
<P><I>Note: Substances which are positive in in vitro mammalian mutagenicity assays, and which also show structure activity relationship to known germ cell mutagens, should be considered for classification as Category 2 mutagens.</I>
</P>
<P>A.5.2.2 Specific considerations for classification of substances as germ cell mutagens:
</P>
<P>A.5.2.2.1 To arrive at a classification, test results are considered from experiments determining mutagenic and/or genotoxic effects in germ and/or somatic cells of exposed animals. Mutagenic and/or genotoxic effects determined in <I>in vitro</I> tests shall also be considered.
</P>
<P>A.5.2.2.2 The system is hazard based, classifying chemicals on the basis of their intrinsic ability to induce mutations in germ cells. The scheme is, therefore, not meant for the (quantitative) risk assessment of chemical substances.
</P>
<P>A.5.2.2.3 Classification for heritable effects in human germ cells is made on the basis of scientifically validated tests. Evaluation of the test results shall be done using expert judgment and all the available evidence shall be weighed for classification.
</P>
<P>A.5.2.2.4 The classification of substances shall be based on the total weight of evidence available, using expert judgment. In those instances where a single well-conducted test is used for classification, it shall provide clear and unambiguously positive results. The relevance of the route of exposure used in the study of the substance compared to the route of human exposure should also be taken into account.
</P>
<HD2>A.5.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> It should be noted that the classification criteria for health hazards usually include a tiered scheme in which test data available on the complete mixture are considered as the first tier in the evaluation, followed by the applicable bridging principles, and lastly, cut-off values/concentration limits or additivity. However, this approach is not used for Germ Cell Mutagenicity. These criteria for Germ Cell Mutagenicity consider the cut-off values/concentration limits as the primary tier and allow the classification to be modified only on a case-by-case evaluation based on available test data for the mixture as a whole.</P></FTNT>
<P>A.5.3.1 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for All Ingredients or Only for Some Ingredients of the Mixture
</P>
<P>A.5.3.1.1 Classification of mixtures shall be based on the available test data for the individual ingredients of the mixture using cut-off values/concentration limits for the ingredients classified as germ cell mutagens.
</P>
<P>A.5.3.1.2 The mixture will be classified as a mutagen when at least one ingredient has been classified as a Category 1A, Category 1B or Category 2 mutagen and is present at or above the appropriate cut-off value/concentration limit as shown in Table A.5.1 below for Category 1 and 2 respectively.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.5.1—Cut-off Values/Concentration Limits of Ingredients of a Mixture Classified as Germ Cell Mutagens That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixture
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Ingredient classified as
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cut-off/concentration limits


<br/>triggering classification of a

<br/>mixture as:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1 mutagen
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2 mutagen
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 1A/B mutagen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1%
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 2 mutagen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1.0%
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The cut-off values/concentration limits in the table above apply to solids and liquids (w/w units) as well as gases (v/v units).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.5.3.2 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for the Mixture Itself
</P>
<P>The classification may be modified on a case-by-case basis based on the available test data for the mixture as a whole. In such cases, the test results for the mixture as a whole must be shown to be conclusive taking into account dose and other factors such as duration, observations and analysis (<I>e.g.,</I> statistical analysis, test sensitivity) of germ cell mutagenicity test systems.
</P>
<P>A.5.3.3 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture: Bridging Principles
</P>
<P>A.5.3.3.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its germ cell mutagenicity hazard, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data will be used in accordance with the following bridging principles as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution, Batching, and Substantially similar mixtures.
</P>
<HD2>A.5.4 Examples of Scientifically Validated Test Methods
</HD2>
<P>A.5.4.1 Examples of <I>in vivo</I> heritable germ cell mutagenicity tests are:
</P>
<P>(a) Rodent dominant lethal mutation test (OECD 478)
</P>
<P>(b) Mouse heritable translocation assay (OECD 485)
</P>
<P>(c) Mouse specific locus test
</P>
<P>A.5.4.2 Examples of <I>in vivo</I> somatic cell mutagenicity tests are:
</P>
<P>(a) Mammalian bone marrow chromosome aberration test (OECD 475)
</P>
<P>(b) Mammalian erythrocyte micronucleus test (OECD 474)
</P>
<P>A.5.4.3 Examples of mutagenicity/genotoxicity tests in germ cells are:
</P>
<P>(a) Mutagenicity tests:
</P>
<P>(i) Mammalian spermatogonial chromosome aberration test (OECD 483)
</P>
<P>(ii) Spermatid micronucleus assay
</P>
<P>(b) Genotoxicity tests:
</P>
<P>(i) Sister chromatid exchange analysis in spermatogonia
</P>
<P>(ii) Unscheduled DNA synthesis test (UDS) in testicular cells
</P>
<P>A.5.4.4 Examples of genotoxicity tests in somatic cells are:
</P>
<P>(a) Liver Unscheduled DNA Synthesis (UDS) <I>in vivo</I> (OECD 486)
</P>
<P>(b) Mammalian bone marrow Sister Chromatid Exchanges (SCE)
</P>
<P>A.5.4.5 Examples of <I>in vitro</I> mutagenicity tests are:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In vitro</I> mammalian chromosome aberration test (OECD 473)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In vitro</I> mammalian cell gene mutation test (OECD 476)
</P>
<P>(c) Bacterial reverse mutation tests (OECD 471)
</P>
<P>A.5.4.6 As new, scientifically validated tests arise, these may also be used in the total weight of evidence to be considered.
</P>
<HD1>A.6 Carcinogenicity
</HD1>
<HD2>A.6.1 Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>Carcinogenicity</I> refers to the induction of cancer or an increase in the incidence of cancer occurring after exposure to a substance or mixture. Substances and mixtures which have induced benign and malignant tumors in well-performed experimental studies on animals are considered also to be presumed or suspected human carcinogens unless there is strong evidence that the mechanism of tumor formation is not relevant for humans.
</P>
<P>Classification of a substance or mixture as posing a carcinogenic hazard is based on its inherent properties and does not provide information on the level of the human cancer risk which the use of the substance or mixture may represent.
</P>
<HD2>A.6.2 Classification Criteria for Substances 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See Non-mandatory appendix F of this section, part A for further guidance regarding hazard classification for carcinogenicity. This appendix is consistent with the GHS and is provided as guidance excerpted from the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) “Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans” (2006).</P></FTNT>
<P>A.6.2.1 For the purpose of classification for carcinogenicity, substances are allocated to one of two categories based on strength of evidence and additional weight of evidence considerations. In certain instances, route-specific classification may be warranted.



</P>
<HD1>Figure A.6.1: Hazard Categories for Carcinogens
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.001.gif"/>
<P>A.6.2.2 Classification as a carcinogen is made on the basis of evidence from reliable and acceptable methods, and is intended to be used for substances which have an intrinsic property to produce such toxic effects. The evaluations are to be based on all existing data, peer-reviewed published studies and additional data accepted by regulatory agencies.
</P>
<P>A.6.2.3 <I>Carcinogen classification</I> is a one-step, criterion-based process that involves two interrelated determinations: evaluations of strength of evidence and consideration of all other relevant information to place substances with human cancer potential into hazard categories.
</P>
<P>A.6.2.4 <I>Strength of evidence</I> involves the enumeration of tumors in human and animal studies and determination of their level of statistical significance. Sufficient human evidence demonstrates causality between human exposure and the development of cancer, whereas sufficient evidence in animals shows a causal relationship between the agent and an increased incidence of tumors. Limited evidence in humans is demonstrated by a positive association between exposure and cancer, but a causal relationship cannot be stated. Limited evidence in animals is provided when data suggest a carcinogenic effect, but are less than sufficient. (Guidance on consideration of important factors in the classification of carcinogenicity and a more detailed description of the terms “limited” and “sufficient” have been developed by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) and are provided in non-mandatory appendix F of this section.)
</P>
<P>A.6.2.5 <I>Weight of evidence:</I> Beyond the determination of the strength of evidence for carcinogenicity, a number of other factors should be considered that influence the overall likelihood that an agent may pose a carcinogenic hazard in humans. The full list of factors that influence this determination is very lengthy, but some of the important ones are considered here.
</P>
<P>A.6.2.5.1 These factors can be viewed as either increasing or decreasing the level of concern for human carcinogenicity. The relative emphasis accorded to each factor depends upon the amount and coherence of evidence bearing on each. Generally, there is a requirement for more complete information to decrease than to increase the level of concern. Additional considerations should be used in evaluating the tumor findings and the other factors in a case-by-case manner.
</P>
<P>A.6.2.5.2 Some important factors which may be taken into consideration, when assessing the overall level of concern are:
</P>
<P>(a) Tumor type and background incidence;
</P>
<P>(b) Multisite responses;
</P>
<P>(c) Progression of lesions to malignancy;
</P>
<P>(d) Reduced tumor latency;
</P>
<P>Additional factors which may increase or decrease the level of concern include:
</P>
<P>(e) Whether responses are in single or both sexes;
</P>
<P>(f) Whether responses are in a single species or several species;
</P>
<P>(g) Structural similarity or not to a substance(s) for which there is good evidence of carcinogenicity;
</P>
<P>(h) Routes of exposure;
</P>
<P>(i) Comparison of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion between test animals and humans;
</P>
<P>(j) The possibility of a confounding effect of excessive toxicity at test doses; and,
</P>
<P>(k) Mode of action and its relevance for humans, such as mutagenicity, cytotoxicity with growth stimulation, mitogenesis, immunosuppression.
</P>
<P><I>Mutagenicity:</I> It is recognized that genetic events are central in the overall process of cancer development. Therefore, evidence of mutagenic activity <I>in vivo</I> may indicate that a substance has a potential for carcinogenic effects.
</P>
<P>A.6.2.5.3 A substance that has not been tested for carcinogenicity may in certain instances be classified in Category 1A, Category 1B, or Category 2 based on tumor data from a structural analogue together with substantial support from consideration of other important factors such as formation of common significant metabolites, <I>e.g.,</I> for benzidine congener dyes.
</P>
<P>A.6.2.5.4 The classification should also take into consideration whether or not the substance is absorbed by a given route(s); or whether there are only local tumors at the site of administration for the tested route(s), and adequate testing by other major route(s) show lack of carcinogenicity.
</P>
<P>A.6.2.5.5 It is important that whatever is known of the physico-chemical, toxicokinetic and toxicodynamic properties of the substances, as well as any available relevant information on chemical analogues, <I>i.e.,</I> structure activity relationship, is taken into consideration when undertaking classification.
</P>
<HD2>A.6.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> It should be noted that the classification criteria for health hazards usually include a tiered scheme in which test data available on the complete mixture are considered as the first tier i the evaluation, followed by the applicable bridging principles, and lastly, cut-off values/concentration limit or addivity. However, this approach is not used for Carcinogenicity. These criteria for Carcinogenicity consider the cut-off values/concentration limits as the primary tier and allow the classification to be modified only on a case-by-case evaluation based on available test data for the mixture as a whole.</P></FTNT>
<P>A.6.3.1 The mixture shall be classified as a carcinogen when at least one ingredient has been classified as a Category 1 or Category 2 carcinogen and is present at or above the appropriate cut-off value/concentration limit as shown in Table A.6.1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.6.1—Cut-Off Values/Concentration Limits of Ingredients of a Mixture Classified as Carcinogen That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixture
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ingredient classified as
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1 carcinogen
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2


<br/>carcinogen
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 1 carcinogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1%
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 2 carcinogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1% (note 1)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> <E T="03">If a Category 2 carcinogen ingredient is present in the mixture at a concentration between 0.1% and 1%, information is required on the SDS for a product. However, a label warning is optional. If a Category 2 carcinogen ingredient is present in the mixture at a concentration of ≥1%, both an SDS and a label is required and the information must be included on each.</E></P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.6.3.2 Classification of mixtures when data are available for the complete mixture
</P>
<P>A mixture may be classified based on the available test data for the mixture as a whole. In such cases, the test results for the mixture as a whole must be shown to be conclusive taking into account dose and other factors such as duration, observations and analysis (<I>e.g.,</I> statistical analysis, test sensitivity) of carcinogenicity test systems.
</P>
<P>A.6.3.3 Classification of mixtures when data are not available for the complete mixture: bridging principles
</P>
<P>Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its carcinogenic hazard, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data will be used in accordance with the following bridging principles as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution; Batching; and Substantially similar mixtures.
</P>
<HD2>A.6.4 Classification of Carcinogenicity 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See Non-mandatory appendix f of this section for further guidance regarding hazard classification for carcinogenicity and how to relate carcinogenicity classification information from IARC and NTP to GHS.</P></FTNT>
<P>A.6.4.1 Chemical manufacturers, importers and employers evaluating chemicals may treat the following sources as establishing that a substance is a carcinogen or potential carcinogen for hazard communication purposes in lieu of applying the criteria described herein:
</P>
<P>A.6.4.1.1 National Toxicology Program (NTP), “Report on Carcinogens” (latest edition);
</P>
<P>A.6.4.1.2 International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) “Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans” (latest editions)
</P>
<P>A.6.4.2 Where OSHA has included cancer as a health hazard to be considered by classifiers for a chemical covered by 29 CFR part 1910, subpart Z, chemical manufacturers, importers, and employers shall classify the chemical as a carcinogen.


</P>
<HD1>A.7 Reproductive Toxicity
</HD1>
<HD2>A.7.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>A.7.1.1 <I>Reproductive toxicity</I> refers to adverse effects on sexual function and fertility in adult males and females, as well as developmental toxicity in the offspring, occurring after exposure to a substance or mixture. Some reproductive toxic effects cannot be clearly assigned to either impairment of sexual function and fertility or to developmental toxicity. Nonetheless, substances and mixtures with these effects shall be classified as reproductive toxicants. For classification purposes, the known induction of genetically based inheritable effects in the offspring is addressed in <I>Germ cell mutagenicity</I> (<I>See</I> A.5).
</P>
<P>A.7.1.2 <I>Adverse effects on sexual function and fertility</I> means any effect of chemicals that interferes with reproductive ability or sexual capacity. This includes, but is not limited to, alterations to the female and male reproductive system, adverse effects on onset of puberty, gamete production and transport, reproductive cycle normality, sexual behavior, fertility, parturition, pregnancy outcomes, premature reproductive senescence, or modifications in other functions that are dependent on the integrity of the reproductive systems.
</P>
<P>A.7.1.3 <I>Adverse effects on development of the offspring</I> means any effect of chemicals which interferes with normal development of the conceptus either before or after birth, which is induced during pregnancy or results from parental exposure. These effects can be manifested at any point in the life span of the organism. The major manifestations of developmental toxicity include death of the developing organism, structural abnormality, altered growth and functional deficiency.
</P>
<P>A.7.1.4 Adverse effects on or via lactation are also included in reproductive toxicity, but for classification purposes, such effects are treated separately (<I>See</I> A.7.2.1).


</P>
<HD2>A.7.2 Classification Criteria for Substances
</HD2>
<P>A.7.2.1 For the purpose of classification for reproductive toxicity, substances shall be classified in one of two categories in accordance with Figure A.7.1(a). Effects on sexual function and fertility, and on development, shall be considered. In addition, effects on or via lactation shall be classified in a separate hazard category in accordance with Figure A.7.1(b).





</P>
<HD1>Figure A.7.1(a): Hazard Categories for Reproductive Toxicants


</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.002.gif"/>
<HD1>Figure A.7.1(b): Hazard Category for Effects On or Via Lactation
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.003.gif"/>
<P>A.7.2.2 Basis of Classification
</P>
<P>A.7.2.2.1 Classification is made on the basis of the criteria, outlined above, an assessment of the total weight of evidence, and the use of expert judgment. Classification as a reproductive toxicant is intended to be used for substances which have an intrinsic, specific property to produce an adverse effect on reproduction and substances should not be so classified if such an effect is produced solely as a non-specific secondary consequence of other toxic effects.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.2.2 In the evaluation of toxic effects on the developing offspring, it is important to consider the possible influence of maternal toxicity.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.2.3 For human evidence to provide the primary basis for a Category 1A classification there must be reliable evidence of an adverse effect on reproduction in humans. Evidence used for classification shall be from well conducted epidemiological studies, if available, which include the use of appropriate controls, balanced assessment, and due consideration of bias or confounding factors. Less rigorous data from studies in humans may be sufficient for a Category 1A classification if supplemented with adequate data from studies in experimental animals, but classification in Category 1B may also be considered.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.3 Weight of Evidence
</P>
<P>A.7.2.3.1 Classification as a reproductive toxicant is made on the basis of an assessment of the total weight of evidence using expert judgment. This means that all available information that bears on the determination of reproductive toxicity is considered together. Included is information such as epidemiological studies and case reports in humans and specific reproduction studies along with sub-chronic, chronic and special study results in animals that provide relevant information regarding toxicity to reproductive and related endocrine organs. Evaluation of substances chemically related to the material under study may also be included, particularly when information on the material is scarce. The weight given to the available evidence will be influenced by factors such as the quality of the studies, consistency of results, nature and severity of effects, level of statistical significance for intergroup differences, number of endpoints affected, relevance of route of administration to humans and freedom from bias. Both positive and negative results are considered together in a weight of evidence determination. However, a single, positive study performed according to good scientific principles and with statistically or biologically significant positive results may justify classification (<I>See</I> also A.7.2.2.3).
</P>
<P>A.7.2.3.2 Toxicokinetic studies in animals and humans, site of action and mechanism or mode of action study results may provide relevant information, which could reduce or increase concerns about the hazard to human health. If it is conclusively demonstrated that the clearly identified mechanism or mode of action has no relevance for humans or when the toxicokinetic differences are so marked that it is certain that the hazardous property will not be expressed in humans then a chemical which produces an adverse effect on reproduction in experimental animals should not be classified.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.3.3 In some reproductive toxicity studies in experimental animals the only effects recorded may be considered of low or minimal toxicological significance and classification may not necessarily be the outcome. These effects include, for example, small changes in semen parameters or in the incidence of spontaneous defects in the fetus, small changes in the proportions of common fetal variants such as are observed in skeletal examinations, or in fetal weights, or small differences in postnatal developmental assessments.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.3.4 Data from animal studies shall provide sufficient evidence of specific reproductive toxicity in the absence of other systemic toxic effects. However, if developmental toxicity occurs together with other toxic effects in the dam (mother), the potential influence of the generalized adverse effects should be assessed to the extent possible. The preferred approach is to consider adverse effects in the embryo/fetus first, and then evaluate maternal toxicity, along with any other factors which are likely to have influenced these effects, as part of the weight of evidence. In general, developmental effects that are observed at maternally toxic doses should not be automatically discounted. Discounting developmental effects that are observed at maternally toxic doses can only be done on a case-by-case basis when a causal relationship is established or refuted.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.3.5 If appropriate information is available it is important to try to determine whether developmental toxicity is due to a specific maternally mediated mechanism or to a non-specific secondary mechanism, like maternal stress and the disruption of homeostasis. Generally, the presence of maternal toxicity should not be used to negate findings of embryo/fetal effects, unless it can be clearly demonstrated that the effects are secondary non-specific effects. This is especially the case when the effects in the offspring are significant, <I>e.g.,</I> irreversible effects such as structural malformations. In some situations it is reasonable to assume that reproductive toxicity is due to a secondary consequence of maternal toxicity and discount the effects, for example if the chemical is so toxic that dams fail to thrive and there is severe inanition; they are incapable of nursing pups; or they are prostrate or dying.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.4 Maternal Toxicity
</P>
<P>A.7.2.4.1 Development of the offspring throughout gestation and during the early postnatal stages can be influenced by toxic effects in the mother either through non-specific mechanisms related to stress and the disruption of maternal homeostasis, or by specific maternally-mediated mechanisms. So, in the interpretation of the developmental outcome to decide classification for developmental effects it is important to consider the possible influence of maternal toxicity. This is a complex issue because of uncertainties surrounding the relationship between maternal toxicity and developmental outcome. Expert judgment and a weight of evidence approach, using all available studies, shall be used to determine the degree of influence to be attributed to maternal toxicity when interpreting the criteria for classification for developmental effects. The adverse effects in the embryo/fetus shall be first considered, and then maternal toxicity, along with any other factors which are likely to have influenced these effects, as weight of evidence, to help reach a conclusion about classification.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.4.2 Based on pragmatic observation, it is believed that maternal toxicity may, depending on severity, influence development via non-specific secondary mechanisms, producing effects such as depressed fetal weight, retarded ossification, and possibly resorptions and certain malformations in some strains of certain species. However, the limited numbers of studies which have investigated the relationship between developmental effects and general maternal toxicity have failed to demonstrate a consistent, reproducible relationship across species. Developmental effects which occur even in the presence of maternal toxicity are considered to be evidence of developmental toxicity, unless it can be unequivocally demonstrated on a case by case basis that the developmental effects are secondary to maternal toxicity. Moreover, classification shall be considered where there is a significant toxic effect in the offspring, <I>e.g.,</I> irreversible effects such as structural malformations, embryo/fetal lethality, or significant post-natal functional deficiencies.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.4.3 Classification shall not automatically be discounted for chemicals that produce developmental toxicity only in association with maternal toxicity, even if a specific maternally-mediated mechanism has been demonstrated. In such a case, classification in Category 2 may be considered more appropriate than Category 1. However, when a chemical is so toxic that maternal death or severe inanition results, or the dams (mothers) are prostrate and incapable of nursing the pups, it is reasonable to assume that developmental toxicity is produced solely as a secondary consequence of maternal toxicity and discount the developmental effects. Classification is not necessarily the outcome in the case of minor developmental changes, <I>e.g.,</I> a small reduction in fetal/pup body weight or retardation of ossification when seen in association with maternal toxicity.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.4.4 Some of the endpoints used to assess maternal toxicity are provided below. Data on these endpoints, if available, shall be evaluated in light of their statistical or biological significance and dose-response relationship.
</P>
<P>(a) Maternal mortality: An increased incidence of mortality among the treated dams over the controls shall be considered evidence of maternal toxicity if the increase occurs in a dose-related manner and can be attributed to the systemic toxicity of the test material. Maternal mortality greater than 10% is considered excessive and the data for that dose level shall not normally be considered to need further evaluation.
</P>
<P>(b) Mating index (Number of animals with seminal plugs or sperm/Number of mated × 100)
</P>
<P>(c) Fertility index (Number of animals with implants/Number of matings × 100)
</P>
<P>(d) Gestation length (If allowed to deliver)
</P>
<P>(e) Body weight and body weight change: Consideration of the maternal body weight change and/or adjusted (corrected) maternal body weight shall be included in the evaluation of maternal toxicity whenever such data are available. The calculation of an adjusted (corrected) mean maternal body weight change, which is the difference between the initial and terminal body weight minus the gravid uterine weight (or alternatively, the sum of the weights of the fetuses), may indicate whether the effect is maternal or intrauterine. In rabbits, the body weight gain may not be a useful indicator of maternal toxicity because of normal fluctuations in body weight during pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(f) Food and water consumption (if relevant): The observation of a significant decrease in the average food or water consumption in treated dams (mothers) compared to the control group may be useful in evaluating maternal toxicity, particularly when the test material is administered in the diet or drinking water. Changes in food or water consumption must be evaluated in conjunction with maternal body weights when determining if the effects noted are reflective of maternal toxicity or more simply, unpalatability of the test material in feed or water.
</P>
<P>(g) Clinical evaluations (including clinical signs, markers, and hematology and clinical chemistry studies): The observation of increased incidence of significant clinical signs of toxicity in treated dams (mothers) relative to the control group is useful in evaluating maternal toxicity. If this is to be used as the basis for the assessment of maternal toxicity, the types, incidence, degree and duration of clinical signs shall be reported in the study. Clinical signs of maternal intoxication include, but are not limited to: coma, prostration, hyperactivity, loss of righting reflex, ataxia, or labored breathing.
</P>
<P>(h) Post-mortem data: Increased incidence and/or severity of post-mortem findings may be indicative of maternal toxicity. This can include gross or microscopic pathological findings or organ weight data, including absolute organ weight, organ-to-body weight ratio, or organ-to-brain weight ratio. When supported by findings of adverse histopathological effects in the affected organ(s), the observation of a significant change in the average weight of suspected target organ(s) of treated dams (mothers), compared to those in the control group, may be considered evidence of maternal toxicity.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5 Animal and Experimental Data
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.1 A number of scientifically validated test methods are available, including methods for developmental toxicity testing (<I>e.g.,</I> OECD Test Guideline 414, ICH Guideline S5A, 1993), methods for peri- and post-natal toxicity testing (<I>e.g.,</I> ICH S5B, 1995), and methods for one or two-generation toxicity testing (e.g., OECD Test Guidelines 415, 416, 443).
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.2 Results obtained from screening tests (e.g., OECD Guidelines 421—Reproduction/Developmental Toxicity Screening Test, and 422—Combined Repeated Dose Toxicity Study with Reproduction/Development Toxicity Screening Test) can also be used to justify classification, although the quality of this evidence is less reliable than that obtained through full studies.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.3 Adverse effects or changes, seen in short- or long-term repeated dose toxicity studies, which are judged likely to impair reproductive function and which occur in the absence of significant generalized toxicity, may be used as a basis for classification, e.g., histopathological changes in the gonads.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.4 Evidence from <I>in vitro</I> assays, or non-mammalian tests, and from analogous substances using structure-activity relationship (SAR), can contribute to the procedure for classification. In all cases of this nature, expert judgment must be used to assess the adequacy of the data. Inadequate data shall not be used as a primary support for classification.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.5 It is preferable that animal studies are conducted using appropriate routes of administration which relate to the potential route of human exposure. However, in practice reproductive toxicity studies are commonly conducted using the oral route, and such studies will normally be suitable for evaluating the hazardous properties of the substance with respect to reproductive toxicity. However, if it can be conclusively demonstrated that the clearly identified mechanism or mode of action has no relevance for humans or when the toxicokinetic differences are so marked that it is certain that the hazardous property will not be expressed in humans then a substance which produces an adverse effect on reproduction in experimental animals should not be classified.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.6 Studies involving routes of administration such as intravenous or intraperitoneal injection, which may result in exposure of the reproductive organs to unrealistically high levels of the test substance, or elicit local damage to the reproductive organs, <I>e.g.,</I> by irritation, must be interpreted with extreme caution and on their own are not normally the basis for classification.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.7 There is general agreement about the concept of a limit dose, above which the production of an adverse effect may be considered to be outside the criteria which lead to classification. Some test guidelines specify a limit dose, other test guidelines qualify the limit dose with a statement that higher doses may be necessary if anticipated human exposure is sufficiently high that an adequate margin of exposure would not be achieved. Also, due to species differences in toxicokinetics, establishing a specific limit dose may not be adequate for situations where humans are more sensitive than the animal model.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.8 In principle, adverse effects on reproduction seen only at very high dose levels in animal studies (for example doses that induce prostration, severe inappetence, excessive mortality) do not normally lead to classification, unless other information is available, for example, toxicokinetics information indicating that humans may be more susceptible than animals, to suggest that classification is appropriate.
</P>
<P>A.7.2.5.9 However, specification of the actual “limit dose” will depend upon the test method that has been employed to provide the test results.
</P>
<HD2>A.7.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> It should be noted that the classification criteria for health hazards usually include a tiered scheme in which test data available on the complete mixture are considered as the first tier in the evaluation, followed by the applicable bridging principles, and lastly, cut-off values/concentration limits or additivity. However, this approach is not used for Reproductive Toxicity. These criteria for Reproductive Toxicity consider the cut-off values/concentration limits as the primary tier and allow the classification to be modified only on a case-by-case evaluation based on available test data for the mixture as a whole.</P></FTNT>
<P>A.7.3.1 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for All Ingredients or Only for Some Ingredients of the Mixture
</P>
<P>A.7.3.1.1 The mixture shall be classified as a reproductive toxicant when at least one ingredient has been classified as a Category 1 or Category 2 reproductive toxicant and is present at or above the appropriate cut-off value/concentration limit specified in Table A.7.1 for Category 1 and 2, respectively.
</P>
<P>A.7.3.1.2 The mixture shall be classified for effects on or via lactation when at least one ingredient has been classified for effects on or via lactation and is present at or above the appropriate cut-off value/concentration limit specified in Table A.7.1 for the additional category for effects on or via lactation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.7.1—Cut-Off Values/Concentration Limits of Ingredients of a Mixture Classified as Reproductive Toxicants or for Effects on or via Lactation That Trigger Classification of the Mixture
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Ingredients classified as:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Cut-off values/concentration limits triggering classification of a mixture as:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1


<br/>reproductive

<br/>toxicant
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2


<br/>reproductive

<br/>toxicant
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional


<br/>category for

<br/>effects on or

<br/>via lactation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 1 reproductive toxicant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1%
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 2 reproductive toxicant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1%
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Additional category for effects on or via lactation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥0.1%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.7.3.2 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for the Complete Mixture
</P>
<P>Available test data for the mixture as a whole may be used for classification on a case-by-case basis. In such cases, the test results for the mixture as a whole must be shown to be conclusive taking into account dose and other factors such as duration, observations and analysis (<I>e.g.,</I> statistical analysis, test sensitivity) of reproduction test systems.
</P>
<P>A.7.3.3 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture: Bridging Principles
</P>
<P>A.7.3.1.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its reproductive toxicity, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data shall be used in accordance with the following bridging principles as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution, Batching, and Substantially similar mixtures.
</P>
<HD1>A.8 Specific Target Organ Toxicity Single Exposure
</HD1>
<HD2>A.8.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>A.8.1.1 <I>Specific target organ toxicity—single exposure, (STOT-SE)</I> refers to specific, non-lethal toxic effects on target organs occurring after a single exposure to a substance or mixture. All significant health effects that can impair function, both reversible and irreversible, immediate and/or delayed and not specifically addressed in A.1 to A.7 and A.10 of this Appendix are included. Specific target organ toxicity following repeated exposure is classified in accordance with <I>SPECIFIC TARGET ORGAN TOXICITY—REPEATED EXPOSURE</I> (A.9 of this Appendix) and is therefore not included here.
</P>
<P>A.8.1.2 Classification identifies the chemical as being a specific target organ toxicant and, as such, it presents a potential for adverse health effects in people who are exposed to it.
</P>
<P>A.8.1.3 The adverse health effects produced by a single exposure include consistent and identifiable toxic effects in humans; or, in experimental animals, toxicologically significant changes which have affected the function or morphology of a tissue/organ, or have produced serious changes to the biochemistry or hematology of the organism, and these changes are relevant for human health. Human data is the primary source of evidence for this hazard class.
</P>
<P>A.8.1.4 Assessment shall take into consideration not only significant changes in a single organ or biological system but also generalized changes of a less severe nature involving several organs.
</P>
<P>A.8.1.5 Specific target organ toxicity can occur by any route that is relevant for humans, <I>i.e.,</I> principally oral, dermal or inhalation.
</P>
<P>A.8.1.6 The classification criteria for specific target organ toxicity—single exposure are organized as criteria for substances Categories 1 and 2 (<I>See</I> A.8.2.1), criteria for substances Category 3 (<I>See</I> A.8.2.2) and criteria for mixtures (<I>See</I> A.8.3). <I>See</I> also Figure A.8.1.
</P>
<HD2>A.8.2 Classification Criteria for Substances
</HD2>
<HD3>A.8.2.1 Substances of Category 1 and Category 2
</HD3>
<P>A.8.2.1.1 Substances shall be classified for immediate or delayed effects separately, by the use of expert judgment on the basis of the weight of all evidence available, including the use of recommended guidance values (<I>See</I> A.8.2.1.9). Substances shall then be classified in Category 1 or 2, depending upon the nature and severity of the effect(s) observed, in accordance with Figure A.8.1.





</P>
<HD1>Figure A.8.1: Hazard Categories for Specific Target Organ Toxicity Following Single Exposure
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.004.gif"/>
<P>A.8.2.1.2 The relevant route(s) of exposure by which the classified substance produces damage shall be identified.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.3 Classification is determined by expert judgment, on the basis of the weight of all evidence available including the guidance presented below.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.4 Weight of evidence of all available data, including human incidents, epidemiology, and studies conducted in experimental animals is used to substantiate specific target organ toxic effects that merit classification.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.5 The information required to evaluate specific target organ toxicity comes either from single exposure in humans (e.g., exposure at home, in the workplace or environmentally), or from studies conducted in experimental animals. The standard animal studies in rats or mice that provide this information are acute toxicity studies which can include clinical observations and detailed macroscopic and microscopic examination to enable the toxic effects on target tissues/organs to be identified. Results of acute toxicity studies conducted in other species may also provide relevant information.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.6 In exceptional cases, based on expert judgment, it may be appropriate to place certain substances with human evidence of target organ toxicity in Category 2: (a) when the weight of human evidence is not sufficiently convincing to warrant Category 1 classification, and/or (b) based on the nature and severity of effects. Dose/concentration levels in humans shall not be considered in the classification and any available evidence from animal studies shall be consistent with the Category 2 classification. In other words, if there are also animal data available on the substance that warrant Category 1 classification, the chemical shall be classified as Category 1.
</P>
<HD3>A.8.2.1.7 Effects Considered To Support Classification for Category 1 and 2
</HD3>
<P>A.8.2.1.7.1 Classification is supported by evidence associating single exposure to the substance with a consistent and identifiable toxic effect.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.7.2 Evidence from human experience/incidents is usually restricted to reports of adverse health consequences, often with uncertainty about exposure conditions, and may not provide the scientific detail that can be obtained from well-conducted studies in experimental animals.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.7.3 Evidence from appropriate studies in experimental animals can furnish much more detail, in the form of clinical observations, and macroscopic and microscopic pathological examination and this can often reveal hazards that may not be life-threatening but could indicate functional impairment. Consequently, all available evidence, and relevance to human health, must be taken into consideration in the classification process. Relevant toxic effects in humans and/or animals include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Morbidity resulting from single exposure;
</P>
<P>(b) Significant functional changes, more than transient in nature, in the respiratory system, central or peripheral nervous systems, other organs or other organ systems, including signs of central nervous system depression and effects on special senses (<I>e.g.,</I> sight, hearing and sense of smell);
</P>
<P>(c) Any consistent and significant adverse change in clinical biochemistry, hematology, or urinalysis parameters;
</P>
<P>(d) Significant organ damage that may be noted at necropsy and/or subsequently seen or confirmed at microscopic examination;
</P>
<P>(e) Multi-focal or diffuse necrosis, fibrosis or granuloma formation in vital organs with regenerative capacity;
</P>
<P>(f) Morphological changes that are potentially reversible but provide clear evidence of marked organ dysfunction; and,
</P>
<P>(g) Evidence of appreciable cell death (including cell degeneration and reduced cell number) in vital organs incapable of regeneration.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.8 Effects Considered Not To Support Classification for Category 1 and 2
</P>
<P>Effects may be seen in humans and/or animals that do not justify classification. Such effects include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Clinical observations or small changes in bodyweight gain, food consumption or water intake that may have some toxicological importance but that do not, by themselves, indicate “significant” toxicity;
</P>
<P>(b) Small changes in clinical biochemistry, hematology or urinalysis parameters and/or transient effects, when such changes or effects are of doubtful or of minimal toxicological importance;
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in organ weights with no evidence of organ dysfunction;
</P>
<P>(d) Adaptive responses that are not considered toxicologically relevant; and,
</P>
<P>(e) Substance-induced species-specific mechanisms of toxicity, <I>i.e.,</I> demonstrated with reasonable certainty to be not relevant for human health, shall not justify classification.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.9 Guidance Values To Assist With Classification Based on the Results Obtained From Studies Conducted in Experimental Animals for Category 1 and 2
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.9.1 In order to help reach a decision about whether a substance shall be classified or not, and to what degree it shall be classified (Category 1 vs. Category 2), dose/concentration “guidance values” are provided for consideration of the dose/concentration which has been shown to produce significant health effects. The principal argument for proposing such guidance values is that all chemicals are potentially toxic and there has to be a reasonable dose/concentration above which a degree of toxic effect is acknowledged.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.9.2 Thus, in animal studies, when significant toxic effects are observed that indicate classification, consideration of the dose/concentration at which these effects were seen, in relation to the suggested guidance values, provides useful information to help assess the need to classify (since the toxic effects are a consequence of the hazardous property(ies) and also the dose/concentration).
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.9.3 The guidance value (C) ranges for single-dose exposure which has produced a significant non-lethal toxic effect are those applicable to acute toxicity testing, as indicated in Table A.8.1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.8.1—Guidance Value Ranges for Single-Dose Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Route of exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Units
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Guidance value ranges for:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oral (rat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/kg body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000 ≥ C &gt; 300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Guidance values do not apply.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dermal (rat or rabbit)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/kg body weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000 ≥ C &gt; 1,000
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ppmV/4h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 2,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000 ≥ C &gt; 2,500
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) vapor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/1/4h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 ≥ C &gt; 10
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) dust/mist/fume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/l/4h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 ≥ C &gt; 1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.8.2.1.9.4 The guidance values and ranges mentioned in Table A.8.1 are intended only for guidance purposes, <I>i.e.,</I> to be used as part of the weight of evidence approach, and to assist with decisions about classification. They are not intended as strict demarcation values. Guidance values are not provided for Category 3 since this classification is primarily based on human data; animal data may be included in the weight of evidence evaluation.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.9.5 Thus, it is feasible that a specific profile of toxicity occurs at a dose/concentration below the guidance value, <I>e.g.,</I> &lt;2,000 mg/kg body weight by the oral route, however the nature of the effect may result in the decision not to classify. Conversely, a specific profile of toxicity may be seen in animal studies occurring at above a guidance value, <I>e.g.,</I> ≥2,000 mg/kg body weight by the oral route, and in addition there is supplementary information from other sources, <I>e.g.,</I> other single dose studies, or human case experience, which supports a conclusion that, in view of the weight of evidence, classification is the prudent action to take.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.10 Other Considerations
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.10.1 When a substance is characterized only by use of animal data the classification process includes reference to dose/concentration guidance values as one of the elements that contribute to the weight of evidence approach.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.10.2 When well-substantiated human data are available showing a specific target organ toxic effect that can be reliably attributed to single exposure to a substance, the substance shall be classified. Positive human data, regardless of probable dose, predominates over animal data. Thus, if a substance is unclassified because specific target organ toxicity observed was considered not relevant or significant to humans, if subsequent human incident data become available showing a specific target organ toxic effect, the substance shall be classified.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.1.10.3 A substance that has not been tested for specific target organ toxicity shall, where appropriate, be classified on the basis of data from a scientifically validated structure activity relationship and expert judgment-based extrapolation from a structural analogue that has previously been classified together with substantial support from consideration of other important factors such as formation of common significant metabolites.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.2 Substances of Category 3
</P>
<P>A.8.2.2.1 Criteria for respiratory tract irritation
</P>
<P>The criteria for classifying substances as Category 3 for respiratory tract irritation are:
</P>
<P>(a) Respiratory irritant effects (characterized by localized redness, edema, pruritis and/or pain) that impair function with symptoms such as cough, pain, choking, and breathing difficulties are included. It is recognized that this evaluation is based primarily on human data;
</P>
<P>(b) Subjective human observations supported by objective measurements of clear respiratory tract irritation (RTI) (<I>e.g.,</I> electrophysiological responses, biomarkers of inflammation in nasal or bronchoalveolar lavage fluids);
</P>
<P>(c) The symptoms observed in humans shall also be typical of those that would be produced in the exposed population rather than being an isolated idiosyncratic reaction or response triggered only in individuals with hypersensitive airways. Ambiguous reports simply of “irritation” should be excluded as this term is commonly used to describe a wide range of sensations including those such as smell, unpleasant taste, a tickling sensation, and dryness, which are outside the scope of classification for respiratory tract irritation;
</P>
<P>(d) There are currently no scientifically validated animal tests that deal specifically with RTI; however, useful information may be obtained from the single and repeated inhalation toxicity tests. For example, animal studies may provide useful information in terms of clinical signs of toxicity (dyspnoea, rhinitis etc.) and histopathology (<I>e.g.,</I> hyperemia, edema, minimal inflammation, thickened mucous layer) which are reversible and may be reflective of the characteristic clinical symptoms described above. Such animal studies can be used as part of weight of evidence evaluation; and,
</P>
<P>(e) This special classification will occur only when more severe organ effects including the respiratory system are not observed as those effects would require a higher classification.
</P>
<P>A.8.2.2.2 Criteria for Narcotic Effects
</P>
<P>The criteria for classifying substances in Category 3 for narcotic effects are:
</P>
<P>(a) Central nervous system depression including narcotic effects in humans such as drowsiness, narcosis, reduced alertness, loss of reflexes, lack of coordination, and vertigo are included. These effects can also be manifested as severe headache or nausea, and can lead to reduced judgment, dizziness, irritability, fatigue, impaired memory function, deficits in perception and coordination, reaction time, or sleepiness; and,
</P>
<P>(b) Narcotic effects observed in animal studies may include lethargy, lack of coordination righting reflex, narcosis, and ataxia. If these effects are not transient in nature, then they shall be considered for classification as Category 1 or 2.
</P>
<HD2>A.8.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures
</HD2>
<P>A.8.3.1 Mixtures are classified using the same criteria as for substances, or alternatively as described below. As with substances, mixtures may be classified for specific target organ toxicity following single exposure, repeated exposure, or both.
</P>
<P>A.8.3.2 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for the Complete Mixture
</P>
<P>When reliable and good quality evidence from human experience or appropriate studies in experimental animals, as described in the criteria for substances, is available for the mixture, then the mixture shall be classified by weight of evidence evaluation of this data. Care shall be exercised in evaluating data on mixtures, that the dose, duration, observation or analysis, do not render the results inconclusive.
</P>
<P>A.8.3.3 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture: Bridging Principles
</P>
<P>A.8.3.3.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its specific target organ toxicity, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data shall be used in accordance with the following bridging principles as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution, Batching, Concentration of mixtures, Interpolation within one hazard category, Substantially similar mixtures, or Aerosols.
</P>
<P>A.8.3.4 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for All Ingredients or Only for Some Ingredients of the Mixture
</P>
<P>A.8.3.4.1 Where there is no reliable evidence or test data for the specific mixture itself, and the bridging principles cannot be used to enable classification, then classification of the mixture is based on the classification of the ingredient substances. In this case, the mixture shall be classified as a specific target organ toxicant (specific organ specified), following single exposure, repeated exposure, or both when at least one ingredient has been classified as a Category 1 or Category 2 specific target organ toxicant and is present at or above the appropriate cut-off value/concentration limit specified in Table A.8.2 for Categories 1 and 2, respectively.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.8.2—Cut-Off Values/Concentration Limits of Ingredients of a Mixture Classified as a Specific Target Organ Toxicant That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixture as Category 1 or 2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Ingredient classified as
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cut-off values/concentration


<br/>limits triggering classification of a

<br/>mixture as
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 1 Target organ toxicant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1.0%
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 2 Target organ toxicant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1.0%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.8.3.4.2 These cut-off values and consequent classifications shall be applied equally and appropriately to both single- and repeated-dose target organ toxicants.
</P>
<P>A.8.3.4.3 Mixtures shall be classified for either or both single and repeated dose toxicity independently.
</P>
<P>A.8.3.4.4 Care shall be exercised when toxicants affecting more than one organ system are combined that the potentiation or synergistic interactions are considered, because certain substances can cause target organ toxicity at &lt;1% concentration when other ingredients in the mixture are known to potentiate its toxic effect.
</P>
<P>A.8.3.4.5 Care shall be exercised when extrapolating the toxicity of a mixture that contains Category 3 ingredient(s). A cut-off value/concentration limit of 20%, considered as an additive of all Category 3 ingredients for each hazard endpoint, is appropriate; however, this cut-off value/concentration limit may be higher or lower depending on the Category 3 ingredient(s) involved and the fact that some effects such as respiratory tract irritation may not occur below a certain concentration while other effects such as narcotic effects may occur below this 20% value. Expert judgment shall be exercised. Respiratory tract irritation and narcotic effects are to be evaluated separately in accordance with the criteria given in A.8.2.2. When conducting classifications for these hazards, the contribution of each ingredient should be considered additive, unless there is evidence that the effects are not additive.
</P>
<P>A.8.3.4.6 In cases where the additivity approach is used for Category 3 ingredients, the “relevant ingredients” of a mixture are those which are present in concentrations ≥1% (w/w for solids, liquids, dusts, mists, and vapours and v/v for gases), unless there is a reason to suspect that an ingredient present at a concentration &lt;1% is still relevant when classifying the mixture for respiratory tract irritation or narcotic effects.
</P>
<HD1>A.9 Specific Target Organ Toxicity—Repeated or Prolonged Exposure
</HD1>
<HD2>A.9.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>A.9.1.1 <I>Specific target organ toxicity—repeated exposure (STOT-RE)</I> refers to specific toxic effects on target organs occurring after repeated exposure to a substance or mixture. All significant health effects that can impair function, both reversible and irreversible, immediate and/or delayed and not specifically addressed in A.1 to A.7 and A.10 of this Appendix are included. Specific target organ toxicity following a single-event exposure is classified in accordance with <I>SPECIFIC TARGET ORGAN TOXICITY—SINGLE EXPOSURE</I> (A.8 of this Appendix) and is therefore not included here.
</P>
<P>A.9.1.2 Classification identifies the substance or mixture as being a specific target organ toxicant and, as such, it may present a potential for adverse health effects in people who are exposed to it.
</P>
<P>A.9.1.3 These adverse health effects produced by repeated exposure include consistent and identifiable toxic effects in humans, or, in experimental animals, toxicologically significant changes which have affected the function or morphology of a tissue/organ, or have produced serious changes to the biochemistry or hematology of the organism and these changes are relevant for human health. Human data will be the primary source of evidence for this hazard class.
</P>
<P>A.9.1.4 Assessment shall take into consideration not only significant changes in a single organ or biological system but also generalized changes of a less severe nature involving several organs.
</P>
<P>A.9.1.5 Specific target organ toxicity can occur by any route that is relevant for humans, <I>e.g.,</I> principally oral, dermal or inhalation.
</P>
<HD2>A.9.2 Classification Criteria for Substances
</HD2>
<P>A.9.2.1 Substances shall be classified as STOT—RE by expert judgment on the basis of the weight of all evidence available, including the use of recommended guidance values which take into account the duration of exposure and the dose/concentration which produced the effect(s), (<I>See</I> A.9.2.9). Substances shall be placed in one of two categories, depending upon the nature and severity of the effect(s) observed, in accordance with Figure A.9.1.
</P>
<HD1>Figure A.9.1—Hazard Categories for Specific Target Organ Toxicity Following Repeated Exposure
</HD1>
<P-2><I>CATEGORY 1:</I> Substances that have produced significant toxicity in humans, or that, on the basis of evidence from studies in experimental animals can be presumed to have the potential to produce significant toxicity in humans following repeated or prolonged exposure
</P-2>
<FP-2>Substances are classified in Category 1 for specific target organ toxicity (repeated exposure) on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<P-2>(a) reliable and good quality evidence from human cases or epidemiological studies; or,
</P-2>
<P-2>(b) observations from appropriate studies in experimental animals in which significant and/or severe toxic effects, of relevance to human health, were produced at generally low exposure concentrations. Guidance dose/concentration values are provided below (<I>See</I> A.9.2.9) to be used as part of weight-of-evidence evaluation.
</P-2>
<P-2><I>CATEGORY 2:</I> Substances that, on the basis of evidence from studies in experimental animals can be presumed to have the potential to be harmful to human health following repeated or prolonged exposure
</P-2>
<P-2>Substances are classified in Category 2 for specific target organ toxicity (repeated exposure) on the basis of observations from appropriate studies in experimental animals in which significant toxic effects, of relevance to human health, were produced at generally moderate exposure concentrations. Guidance dose/concentration values are provided below (<I>See</I> A.9.2.9) in order to help in classification.
</P-2>
<P-2>In exceptional cases human evidence can also be used to place a substance in Category 2 (<I>See</I> A.9.2.6).
</P-2>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The primary target organ/system shall be identified where possible, or the substance shall be identified as a general toxicant. The data shall be carefully evaluated and, where possible, shall not include secondary effects (e.g., a hepatotoxicant can produce secondary effects in the nervous or gastro-intestinal systems).</P></NOTE>
<P>A.9.2.2 The relevant route of exposure by which the classified substance produces damage shall be identified.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.3 Classification is determined by expert judgment, on the basis of the weight of all evidence available including the guidance presented below.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.4 Weight of evidence of all data, including human incidents, epidemiology, and studies conducted in experimental animals, is used to substantiate specific target organ toxic effects that merit classification.


</P>
<P>A.9.2.5 The information required to evaluate specific target organ toxicity comes either from repeated exposure in humans, e.g., exposure at home, in the workplace or environmentally, or from studies conducted in experimental animals. The standard animal studies in rats or mice that provide this information are 28 day, 90 day or lifetime studies (up to 2 years) that include hematological, clinico-chemical and detailed macroscopic and microscopic examination to enable the toxic effects on target tissues/organs to be identified. Data from repeat dose studies performed in other species may also be used. Other long-term exposure studies, <I>e.g.,</I> for carcinogenicity, neurotoxicity or reproductive toxicity, may also provide evidence of specific target organ toxicity that could be used in the assessment of classification.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.6 In exceptional cases, based on expert judgment, it may be appropriate to place certain substances with human evidence of specific target organ toxicity in Category 2: (a) when the weight of human evidence is not sufficiently convincing to warrant Category 1 classification, and/or (b) based on the nature and severity of effects. Dose/concentration levels in humans shall not be considered in the classification and any available evidence from animal studies shall be consistent with the Category 2 classification. In other words, if there are also animal data available on the substance that warrant Category 1 classification, the substance shall be classified as Category 1.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.7 Effects Considered To Support Classification
</P>
<P>A.9.2.7.1 Classification is supported by reliable evidence associating repeated exposure to the substance with a consistent and identifiable toxic effect.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.7.2 Evidence from human experience/incidents is usually restricted to reports of adverse health consequences, often with uncertainty about exposure conditions, and may not provide the scientific detail that can be obtained from well-conducted studies in experimental animals.


</P>
<P>A.9.2.7.3 Evidence from appropriate studies in experimental animals can furnish much more detail, in the form of clinical observations, hematology, clinical chemistry, macroscopic and microscopic pathological examination and this can often reveal hazards that may not be life-threatening but could indicate functional impairment. Consequently, all available evidence, and relevance to human health, must be taken into consideration in the classification process. Relevant toxic effects in humans and/or animals include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Morbidity or death resulting from repeated or long-term exposure. Morbidity or death may result from repeated exposure, even to relatively low doses/concentrations, due to bioaccumulation of the substance or its metabolites, or due to the overwhelming of the de-toxification process by repeated exposure;
</P>
<P>(b) Significant functional changes in the central or peripheral nervous systems or other organ systems, including signs of central nervous system depression and effects on special senses (<I>e.g.,</I> sight, hearing and sense of smell);
</P>
<P>(c) Any consistent and significant adverse change in clinical biochemistry, hematology, or urinalysis parameters;
</P>
<P>(d) Significant organ damage that may be noted at necropsy and/or subsequently seen or confirmed at microscopic examination;
</P>
<P>(e) Multi-focal or diffuse necrosis, fibrosis or granuloma formation in vital organs with regenerative capacity;
</P>
<P>(f) Morphological changes that are potentially reversible but provide clear evidence of marked organ dysfunction (<I>e.g.,</I> severe fatty change in the liver); and,
</P>
<P>(g) Evidence of appreciable cell death (including cell degeneration and reduced cell number) in vital organs incapable of regeneration.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.8 Effects Considered Not To Support Classification
</P>
<P>Effects may be seen in humans and/or animals that do not justify classification. Such effects include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Clinical observations or small changes in bodyweight gain, food consumption or water intake that may have some toxicological importance but that do not, by themselves, indicate “significant” toxicity;
</P>
<P>(b) Small changes in clinical biochemistry, hematology or urinalysis parameters and/or transient effects, when such changes or effects are of doubtful or of minimal toxicological importance;
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in organ weights with no evidence of organ dysfunction;
</P>
<P>(d) Adaptive responses that are not considered toxicologically relevant;
</P>
<P>(e) Substance-induced species-specific mechanisms of toxicity, <I>i.e.,</I> demonstrated with reasonable certainty to be not relevant for human health, shall not justify classification.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.9 Guidance Values To Assist With Classification Based on the Results Obtained From Studies Conducted in Experimental Animals
</P>
<P>A.9.2.9.1 In studies conducted in experimental animals, reliance on observation of effects alone, without reference to the duration of experimental exposure and dose/concentration, omits a fundamental concept of toxicology, <I>i.e.,</I> all substances are potentially toxic, and what determines the toxicity is a function of the dose/concentration and the duration of exposure. In most studies conducted in experimental animals the test guidelines use an upper limit dose value.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.9.2 In order to help reach a decision about whether a substance shall be classified or not, and to what degree it shall be classified (Category 1 vs. Category 2), dose/concentration “guidance values” are provided in Table A.9.1 for consideration of the dose/concentration which has been shown to produce significant health effects. The principal argument for proposing such guidance values is that all chemicals are potentially toxic and there has to be a reasonable dose/concentration above which a degree of toxic effect is acknowledged. Also, repeated-dose studies conducted in experimental animals are designed to produce toxicity at the highest dose used in order to optimize the test objective and so most studies will reveal some toxic effect at least at this highest dose. What is therefore to be decided is not only what effects have been produced, but also at what dose/concentration they were produced and how relevant is that for humans.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.9.3 Thus, in animal studies, when significant toxic effects are observed that indicate classification, consideration of the duration of experimental exposure and the dose/concentration at which these effects were seen, in relation to the suggested guidance values, provides useful information to help assess the need to classify (since the toxic effects are a consequence of the hazardous property(ies) and also the duration of exposure and the dose/concentration).
</P>
<P>A.9.2.9.4 The decision to classify at all can be influenced by reference to the dose/concentration guidance values at or below which a significant toxic effect has been observed.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.9.5 The guidance values refer to effects seen in a standard 90-day toxicity study conducted in rats. They can be used as a basis to extrapolate equivalent guidance values for toxicity studies of greater or lesser duration, using dose/exposure time extrapolation similar to Haber's rule for inhalation, which states essentially that the effective dose is directly proportional to the exposure concentration and the duration of exposure. The assessment should be done on a case- by-case basis; for example, for a 28-day study the guidance values below would be increased by a factor of three.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.9.6 Thus for Category 1 classification, significant toxic effects observed in a 90-day repeated-dose study conducted in experimental animals and seen to occur at or below the (suggested) guidance values (C) as indicated in Table A.9.1 would justify classification:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.9.1—Guidance Values To Assist in Category 1 Classification
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Applicable to a 90-day study]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Route of exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Units
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Guidance values


<br/>(dose/concentration)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oral (rat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/kg body weight/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dermal (rat or rabbit)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/kg body weight/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ppmV/6h/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) vapor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/liter/6h/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) dust/mist/fume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/liter/6h/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C ≤ 0.02</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.9.2.9.7 For Category 2 classification, significant toxic effects observed in a 90-day repeated-dose study conducted in experimental animals and seen to occur within the (suggested) guidance value ranges as indicated in Table A.9.2 would justify classification:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.9.2—Guidance Values To Assist in Category 2 Classification
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Applicable to a 90-day study]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Route of exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Units
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Guidance value range


<br/>(dose/concentration)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oral (rat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/kg body weight/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 &lt; C ≤ 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dermal (rat or rabbit)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/kg body weight/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 &lt; C ≤ 200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ppmV/6h/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 &lt; C ≤ 250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) vapor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/liter/6h/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 &lt; C ≤ 1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inhalation (rat) dust/mist/fume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">mg/liter/6h/day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02 &lt; C ≤ 0.2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.9.2.9.8 The guidance values and ranges mentioned in A.2.9.9.6 and A.2.9.9.7 are intended only for guidance purposes, <I>i.e.,</I> to be used as part of the weight of evidence approach, and to assist with decisions about classification. They are not intended as strict demarcation values.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.9.9 Thus, it is possible that a specific profile of toxicity occurs in repeat-dose animal studies at a dose/concentration below the guidance value, <I>e.g.,</I> &lt;100 mg/kg body weight/day by the oral route, however the nature of the effect, <I>e.g.,</I> nephrotoxicity seen only in male rats of a particular strain known to be susceptible to this effect, may result in the decision not to classify. Conversely, a specific profile of toxicity may be seen in animal studies occurring at above a guidance value, e.g., ≥100 mg/kg body weight/day by the oral route, and in addition there is supplementary information from other sources, e.g., other long-term administration studies, or human case experience, which supports a conclusion that, in view of the weight of evidence, classification is prudent.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.10 Other Considerations
</P>
<P>A.9.2.10.1 When a substance is characterized only by use of animal data the classification process includes reference to dose/concentration guidance values as one of the elements that contribute to the weight of evidence approach.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.10.2 When well-substantiated human data are available showing a specific target organ toxic effect that can be reliably attributed to repeated or prolonged exposure to a substance, the substance shall be classified. Positive human data, regardless of probable dose, predominates over animal data. Thus, if a substance is unclassified because no specific target organ toxicity was seen at or below the dose/concentration guidance value for animal testing, if subsequent human incident data become available showing a specific target organ toxic effect, the substance shall be classified.
</P>
<P>A.9.2.10.3 A substance that has not been tested for specific target organ toxicity may in certain instances, where appropriate, be classified on the basis of data from a scientifically validated structure activity relationship and expert judgment-based extrapolation from a structural analogue that has previously been classified together with substantial support from consideration of other important factors such as formation of common significant metabolites.
</P>
<HD2>A.9.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures
</HD2>
<P>A.9.3.1 Mixtures are classified using the same criteria as for substances, or alternatively as described below. As with substances, mixtures may be classified for specific target organ toxicity following single exposure, repeated exposure, or both.
</P>
<P>A.9.3.2 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for the Complete Mixture
</P>
<P>When reliable and good quality evidence from human experience or appropriate studies in experimental animals, as described in the criteria for substances, is available for the mixture, then the mixture shall be classified by weight of evidence evaluation of these data. Care shall be exercised in evaluating data on mixtures, that the dose, duration, observation or analysis, do not render the results inconclusive.
</P>
<HD3>A.9.3.3 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture: Bridging Principles
</HD3>
<P>A.9.3.3.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its specific target organ toxicity, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazards of the mixture, these data shall be used in accordance with the following bridging principles as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution; Batching; Concentration of mixtures; Interpolation within one hazard category; Substantially similar mixtures; and Aerosols.
</P>
<P>A.9.3.4 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for All Ingredients or Only for Some Ingredients of the Mixture
</P>
<P>A.9.3.4.1 Where there is no reliable evidence or test data for the specific mixture itself, and the bridging principles cannot be used to enable classification, then classification of the mixture is based on the classification of the ingredient substances. In this case, the mixture shall be classified as a specific target organ toxicant (specific organ specified), following single exposure, repeated exposure, or both when at least one ingredient has been classified as a Category 1 or Category 2 specific target organ toxicant and is present at or above the appropriate cut-off value/concentration limit specified in Table A.9.3 for Category 1 and 2 respectively.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.9.3—Cut-Off Value/Concentration Limits of Ingredients of a Mixture Classified as a Specific Target Organ Toxicant That Would Trigger Classification of the Mixture as Category 1 or 2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Ingredient classified as
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cut-off values/concentration


<br/>limits triggering classification of a mixture as
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 1 Target organ toxicant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1.0%
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category 2 Target organ toxicant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1.0%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.9.3.4.2 These cut-off values and consequent classifications shall be applied equally and appropriately to both single- and repeated-dose target organ toxicants.
</P>
<P>A.9.3.4.3 Mixtures shall be classified for either or both single- and repeated-dose toxicity independently.
</P>
<P>A.9.3.4.4 Care shall be exercised when toxicants affecting more than one organ system are combined that the potentiation or synergistic interactions are considered, because certain substances can cause specific target organ toxicity at &lt;1% concentration when other ingredients in the mixture are known to potentiate its toxic effect.
</P>
<HD1>A.10 Aspiration Hazard
</HD1>
<HD2>A.10.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>A.10.1.1 <I>Aspiration hazard</I> refers to severe acute effects such as chemical pneumonia, pulmonary injury or death occurring after aspiration of a substance or mixture.
</P>
<P>A.10.1.2 <I>Aspiration</I> means the entry of a liquid or solid chemical directly through the oral or nasal cavity, or indirectly from vomiting, into the trachea and lower respiratory system.
</P>
<P>A.10.1.3 Aspiration is initiated at the moment of inspiration, in the time required to take one breath, as the causative material lodges at the crossroad of the upper respiratory and digestive tracts in the laryngopharyngeal region.
</P>
<P>A.10.1.4 Aspiration of a substance or mixture can occur as it is vomited following ingestion. This may have consequences for labeling, particularly where, due to acute toxicity, a recommendation may be considered to induce vomiting after ingestion. However, if the substance/mixture also presents an aspiration toxicity hazard, the recommendation to induce vomiting may need to be modified.
</P>
<P>A.10.1.5 Specific Considerations
</P>
<P>A.10.1.5.1 The classification criteria refer to kinematic viscosity. The following provides the conversion between dynamic and kinematic viscosity:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.229.gif"/>
<P>A.10.1.5.2 Although the definition of aspiration in A.10.1.1 includes the entry of solids into the respiratory system, classification according to (b) in table A.10.1 for Category 1 is intended to apply to liquid substances and mixtures only.
</P>
<P>A.10.1.5.3 Classification of aerosol/mist products
</P>
<P>Aerosol and mist products are usually dispensed in containers such as self- pressurized containers, trigger and pump sprayers. Classification for these products shall be considered if their use may form a pool of product in the mouth, which then may be aspirated. If the mist or aerosol from a pressurized container is fine, a pool may not be formed. On the other hand, if a pressurized container dispenses product in a stream, a pool may be formed that may then be aspirated. Usually, the mist produced by trigger and pump sprayers is coarse and therefore, a pool may be formed that then may be aspirated. When the pump mechanism may be removed and contents are available to be swallowed then the classification of the products should be considered.
</P>
<HD2>A.10.2 Classification Criteria for Substances





</HD2>
<HD1>Table A.10.1: Criteria for Aspiration Toxicity
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.005.gif"/>
<HD2>A.10.3 Classification Criteria for Mixtures
</HD2>
<P>A.10.3.1 Classification When Data Are Available for the Complete Mixture
</P>
<P>A mixture shall be classified in Category 1 based on reliable and good quality human evidence.
</P>
<HD3>A.10.3.2 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Not Available for the Complete Mixture: Bridging Principles
</HD3>
<P>A.10.3.2.1 Where the mixture itself has not been tested to determine its aspiration toxicity, but there are sufficient data on both the individual ingredients and similar tested mixtures to adequately characterize the hazard of the mixture, these data shall be used in accordance with the following bridging principles as found in paragraph A.0.5 of this Appendix: Dilution; Batching; Concentration of mixtures; Interpolation within one hazard category; and Substantially similar mixtures. For application of the dilution bridging principle, the concentration of aspiration toxicants shall not be less than 10%.
</P>
<P>A.10.3.3 Classification of Mixtures When Data Are Available for All Ingredients or Only for Some Ingredients of the Mixture
</P>
<P>A.10.3.3.1 The “relevant ingredients” of a mixture are those which are present in concentrations ≥1%.
</P>
<P>A.10.3.3.2 <I>Category 1</I>
</P>
<P>A.10.3.3.2.1 A mixture is classified as Category 1 when the sum of the concentrations of Category 1 ingredients is ≥10%, and the mixture has a kinematic viscosity of ≤20.5 mm
<SU>2</SU>/s, measured at 40 °C.
</P>
<P>A.10.3.3.2.2 In the case of a mixture which separates into two or more distinct layers, the entire mixture is classified as Category 1 if in any distinct layer the sum of the concentrations of Category 1 ingredients is ≥10%, and it has a kinematic viscosity of ≤20.5 mm
<SU>2</SU>/s, measured at 40 °C.
</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1200—Physical Hazard Criteria (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<HD1>B.1 Explosives
</HD1>
<HD2>B.1.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.1.1.1 An <I>explosive chemical</I> is a solid or liquid chemical which is in itself capable by chemical reaction of producing gas at such a temperature and pressure and at such a speed as to cause damage to the surroundings. Pyrotechnic chemicals are included even when they do not evolve gases.
</P>
<P>A <I>pyrotechnic chemical</I> is a chemical designed to produce an effect by heat, light, sound, gas or smoke or a combination of these as the result of non-detonative self-sustaining exothermic chemical reactions.
</P>
<P>An <I>explosive item</I> is an item containing one or more explosive chemicals.
</P>
<P>A <I>pyrotechnic item</I> is an item containing one or more pyrotechnic chemicals.
</P>
<P>An <I>unstable explosive</I> is an explosive which is thermally unstable and/or too sensitive for normal handling, transport, or use.
</P>
<P>An <I>intentional explosive</I> is a chemical or item which is manufactured with a view to produce a practical explosive or pyrotechnic effect.
</P>
<P>B.1.1.2 The class of explosives comprises:
</P>
<P>(a) Explosive chemicals;
</P>
<P>(b) Explosive items, except devices containing explosive chemicals in such quantity or of such a character that their inadvertent or accidental ignition or initiation shall not cause any effect external to the device either by projection, fire, smoke, heat or loud noise; and
</P>
<P>(c) Chemicals and items not included under (a) and (b) of this section which are manufactured with the view to producing a practical explosive or pyrotechnic effect.
</P>
<HD2>B.1.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>Chemicals and items of this class shall be classified as unstable explosives or shall be assigned to one of the following six divisions depending on the type of hazard they present:
</P>
<P>(a) Division 1.1—Chemicals and items which have a mass explosion hazard (a mass explosion is one which affects almost the entire quantity present virtually instantaneously);
</P>
<P>(b) Division 1.2—Chemicals and items which have a projection hazard but not a mass explosion hazard;
</P>
<P>(c) Division 1.3—Chemicals and items which have a fire hazard and either a minor blast hazard or a minor projection hazard or both, but not a mass explosion hazard:
</P>
<P>(i) Combustion of which gives rise to considerable radiant heat; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Which burn one after another, producing minor blast or projection effects or both;
</P>
<P>(d) Division 1.4—Chemicals and items which present no significant hazard: chemicals and items which present only a small hazard in the event of ignition or initiation. The effects are largely confined to the package and no projection of fragments of appreciable size or range is to be expected. An external fire shall not cause virtually instantaneous explosion of almost the entire contents of the package;
</P>
<P>(e) Division 1.5—Very insensitive chemicals which have a mass explosion hazard: chemicals which have a mass explosion hazard but are so insensitive that there is very little probability of initiation or of transition from burning to detonation under normal conditions;
</P>
<P>(f) Division 1.6—Extremely insensitive items which do not have a mass explosion hazard: items which predominantly contain extremely insensitive detonating chemicals and which demonstrate a negligible probability of accidental initiation or propagation.
</P>
<HD2>B.1.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.1.3.1 Explosives shall be classified as unstable explosives or shall be assigned to one of the six divisions identified in B.1.2 in accordance with the three step procedure in Part I of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6). The first step is to ascertain whether the substance or mixture has explosive effects (Test Series 1). The second step is the acceptance procedure (Test Series 2 to 4) and the third step is the assignment to a hazard division (Test Series 5 to 7). The assessment whether a candidate for “ammonium nitrate emulsion or suspension or gel, intermediate for blasting explosives (ANE)” is insensitive enough for inclusion as an oxidizing liquid (<I>see</I> B.13 of this appendix) or an oxidizing solid (<I>see</I> B.14 of this appendix) is determined by Test Series 8 tests of UN ST/SG/AC.10/.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>Classification of solid chemicals shall be based on tests performed on the chemical as presented. If, for example, for the purposes of supply or transport, the same chemical is to be presented in a physical form different from that which was tested and which is considered likely to materially alter its performance in a classification test, classification must be based on testing of the chemical in the new form.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2:</HED>
<P>Some explosive chemicals are wetted with water or alcohols, diluted with other substances or dissolved or suspended in water or other liquid substances to suppress or reduce their explosive properties or sensitivity.
</P>
<P>These chemicals shall be classified as desensitized explosives (see Chapter B.17).</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3:</HED>
<P>Chemicals with a positive result in Test Series 2 in Part I, Section 12 of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6) which are exempted from classification as explosives (based on a negative result in Test Series 6 in Part I, Section 16 of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6)), still have explosive properties. The explosive properties of the chemical shall be communicated in Section 2 (Hazard identification) and Section 9 (Physical and chemical properties) of the Safety Data Sheet, as appropriate.</P></NOTE>
<P>B.1.3.2 Explosive properties are associated with the presence of certain chemical groups in a molecule which can react to produce very rapid increases in temperature or pressure. The screening procedure in B.1.3.1 is aimed at identifying the presence of such reactive groups and the potential for rapid energy release. If the screening procedure identifies the chemical as a potential explosive, the acceptance procedure (<I>see</I> section 10.3 of the UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 1910.6)) is necessary for classification.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Neither a Series 1 type (a) propagation of detonation test nor a Series 2 type (a) test of sensitivity to detonative shock is necessary if the exothermic decomposition energy of organic materials is less than 800 J/g.</P></NOTE>
<P>B.1.3.3 If a mixture contains any known explosives, the acceptance procedure is necessary for classification.
</P>
<P>B.1.3.4 A chemical is not classified as explosive if:
</P>
<P>(a) There are no chemical groups associated with explosive properties present in the molecule. Examples of groups which may indicate explosive properties are given in Table A6.1 in Appendix 6 of the UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; <I>See</I> § 1910.6); or
</P>
<P>(b) The substance contains chemical groups associated with explosive properties which include oxygen and the calculated oxygen balance is less than −200.
</P>
<P>The oxygen balance is calculated for the chemical reaction:
</P>
<FP-2>CxHyOz + [x + (y/4)−(z/2)] O2 → x. CO<E T="52">2</E> + (y/2) H<E T="52">2</E>O
</FP-2>
<FP>using the formula: oxygen balance = −1600 [2x + (y/2)−z]/molecular weight; or
</FP>
<P>(c) The organic substance or a homogenous mixture of organic substances contains chemical groups associated with explosive properties but the exothermic decomposition energy is less than 500 J/g and the onset of exothermic decomposition is below 500 °C (932 °F). The exothermic decomposition energy may be determined using a suitable calorimetric technique; or
</P>
<P>(d) For mixtures of inorganic oxidizing substances with organic material(s), the concentration of the inorganic oxidizing substance is:
</P>
<P>(i) less than 15%, by mass, if the oxidizing substance is assigned to Category 1 or 2;
</P>
<P>(ii) less than 30%, by mass, if the oxidizing substance is assigned to Category 3.
</P>
<HD1>B.2 Flammable Gases
</HD1>
<HD2>B.2.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Flammable gas</I> means a gas having a flammable range with air at 20 °C (68 °F) and a standard pressure of 101.3 kPa (14.7 psi).
</P>
<P>A <I>pyrophoric gas</I> means a flammable gas that is liable to ignite spontaneously in air at a temperature of 54 °C (130 °F) or below.
</P>
<P>A <I>chemically unstable gas</I> means a flammable gas that is able to react explosively even in the absence of air or oxygen.
</P>
<HD2>B.2.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>B.2.2.1 A flammable gas shall be classified in Category 1A, 1B, or 2 in accordance with Table B.2.1:



</P>
<HD1>Table B.2.1: Criteria for Flammable Gases
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.006.gif"/>
<HD2>B.2.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.2.3.1 Flammability shall be determined by tests or by calculation in accordance with ISO 10156:1996 or ISO 10156:2017 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6) and, if using fundamental burning velocity for Category 1B, use Annex C: Method of test for burning velocity measurement of flammable gases of ISO 817:2014(E) (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6). Where insufficient data are available to use this method, equivalent validated methods may be used.
</P>
<P>B.2.3.2 Pyrophoricity shall be determined at 130 °F (54 °C) in accordance with either IEC 60079-20-1 or DIN 51794:2003 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6).
</P>
<P>B.2.3.3 The classification procedure for pyrophoric gases need not be applied when experience in production or handling shows that the substance does not ignite spontaneously on coming into contact with air at a temperature of 130 °F (54 °C) or below. Flammable gas mixtures, which have not been tested for pyrophoricity and which contain more than one percent pyrophoric components shall be classified as a pyrophoric gas. Expert judgement on the properties and physical hazards of pyrophoric gases and their mixtures should be used in assessing the need for classification of flammable gas mixtures containing one percent or less pyrophoric components. In this case, testing need only be considered if expert judgement indicates a need for additional data to support the classification process.
</P>
<P>B.2.3.4 Chemical instability shall be determined in accordance with the method described in Part III of the UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6). If the calculations performed in accordance with ISO 10156:1996 or ISO 10156:2017 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6) show that a gas mixture is not flammable, no additional testing is required for determining chemical instability for classification purposes.
</P>
<HD1>B.3 Aerosols and Chemicals Under Pressure
</HD1>
<HD2>B.3.1 Aerosols
</HD2>
<HD3>B.3.1.1 Definition
</HD3>
<P><I>Aerosol</I> means any non-refillable receptacle containing a gas compressed, liquefied or dissolved under pressure, and fitted with a release device allowing the contents to be ejected as particles in suspension in a gas, or as a foam, paste, powder, liquid or gas.
</P>
<HD3>B.3.1.2 Classification Criteria
</HD3>
<P>B.3.1.2.1 Aerosols are classified in one of three categories, depending on their flammable properties and their heat of combustion. Aerosols shall be considered for classification in Categories 1 or 2 if they contain more than 1% components (by mass) which are classified as flammable in accordance with this Appendix B, <I>i.e.:</I>
</P>
<P>Flammable gases (<I>see</I> B.2);
</P>
<P>Flammable liquids (<I>see</I> B.6)
</P>
<P>Flammable solids (<I>see</I> B.7)
</P>
<P>or if their heat of combustion is at least 20 kJ/g.
</P>
<P>B.3.1.2.2 An aerosol shall be classified in one of the three categories for this class in accordance with Table B.3.1.







</P>
<HD1>Table B.3.1: Criteria for Aerosols
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.007.gif"/>
<HD2>B.3.2 Chemicals Under Pressure
</HD2>
<P>B.3.2.1 Definition
</P>
<P>C<I>hemicals under pressure</I> are liquids or solids (<I>e.g.,</I> pastes or powders), pressurized with a gas at a pressure of 200 kPa (gauge) or more at 20 °C in pressure receptacles other than aerosol dispensers and which are not classified as gases under pressure.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Chemicals under pressure typically contain 50% or more by mass of liquids or solids whereas mixtures containing more than 50% gases are typically considered as gases under pressure.</P></NOTE>
<P>B.3.2.2 Classification Criteria
</P>
<P>B.3.2.2.1 Chemicals under pressure are classified in one of three categories of this hazard class, in accordance with Table B.3.2, depending on their content of flammable components and their heat of combustion
</P>
<P>B.3.2.2.2 Flammable components are components which are classified as flammable in accordance with the GHS criteria, <I>i.e.:</I>
</P>
<FP-1>—Flammable gases (<I>see</I> B..2 of this section);
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Flammable liquids (<I>see</I> B.6 of this section);
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Flammable solids (<I>see</I> B.7 of this section).





</FP-1>
<HD1>Table B.3.2: Criteria for Chemicals Under Pressure
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.008.gif"/>
<HD2>B.3.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.3.3.1 To classify an aerosol, data on its flammable components, on its chemical heat of combustion and, if applicable, the results of the aerosol foam flammability test (for foam aerosols) and of the ignition distance test and enclosed space test (for spray aerosols) are necessary.
</P>
<P>B.3.3.2 The chemical heat of combustion (ΔHc), in kilojoules per gram (kJ/g), is the product of the theoretical heat of combustion (ΔHcomb), and a combustion efficiency, usually less than 1.0 (a typical combustion efficiency is 0.95 or 95%).
</P>
<P>For a composite formulation, the chemical heat of combustion is the summation of the weighted heats of combustion for the individual components, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.230.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔH<E T="52">c</E>(product) = specific heat of combustion (kJ/g) of the product;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔH<E T="52">c</E>(i) = specific heat of combustion (kJ/g) of component i in the product;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>w(i) = mass fraction of component i in the product;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n = total number of components in the product.
</FP-2>
<P>B.3.3.3 The chemical heats of combustion shall be found in literature, calculated or determined by tests: (see ASTM D 240-02; Sections 86.1 to 86.3 of ISO 13943; and NFPA 30B (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6)).






</P>
<P>B.3.3.4 The Ignition Distance Test, Enclosed Space Ignition Test and Aerosol Foam Flammability Test shall be performed in accordance with sub-sections 31.4, 31.5 and 31.6 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6).
</P>
<HD1>B.4 Oxidizing Gases
</HD1>
<HD2>B.4.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Oxidizing gas</I> means any gas which may, generally by providing oxygen, cause or contribute to the combustion of other material more than air does.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>“Gases which cause or contribute to the combustion of other material more than air does” means pure gases or gas mixtures with an oxidizing power greater than 23.5% (as determined by a method specified in ISO 10156:1996, ISO 10156:2017 or 10156-2:2005 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6) or an equivalent testing method).</P></NOTE>
<HD2>B.4.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>An oxidizing gas shall be classified in a single category for this class in accordance with Table B.4.1:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.4.1—Criteria for Oxidizing Gases
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any gas which may, generally by providing oxygen, cause or contribute to the combustion of other material more than air does.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>B.4.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>Classification shall be in accordance with tests or calculation methods as described in ISO 10156:1996, ISO 10156:2017 or 10156-2:2005 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6).
</P>
<HD1>B.5 Gases Under Pressure
</HD1>
<HD2>B.5.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Gases under pressure</I> are gases which are contained in a receptacle at a pressure of 200 kPa (29 psi) (gauge) or more at 20 °C (68 °F), or which are liquefied or liquefied and refrigerated.
</P>
<P>They comprise compressed gases, liquefied gases, dissolved gases and refrigerated liquefied gases.
</P>
<HD2>B.5.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>Gases under pressure shall be classified in one of four groups in accordance with Table B.5.1:





</P>
<HD1>Table B.5.1: Criteria for Gases Under Pressure

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.009.gif"/>
<P><I>(1) The critical temperature is the temperature above which a pure gas cannot be liquefied, regardless of the degree of compression.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Note: Aerosols and chemicals under pressure should not be classified as gases under pressure. See Appendix B.3 of this section.</I>


</P>
<HD1>B.6 Flammable Liquids
</HD1>
<HD2>B.6.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Flammable liquid</I> means a liquid having a flash point of not more than 93 °C (199.4 °F).
</P>
<P><I>Flash point</I> means the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off vapor in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface of the liquid, as determined by a method identified in Section B.6.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>B.6.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>A flammable liquid shall be classified in one of four categories in accordance with Table B.6.1 of this appendix:



</P>
<HD1>Table B.6.1: Criteria for Flammable Liquids
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.010.gif"/>
<HD2>B.6.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>The flash point shall be determined in accordance with ASTM D56-05, ASTM D3278, ASTM D3828, ASTM D93-08 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), or any method specified in 29 CFR 1910.106(a)(14). It may also be determined by any other method specified in GHS Revision 7, Chapter 2.6.
</P>
<P>The initial boiling point shall be determined in accordance with ASTM D86-07a or ASTM D1078 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6).
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> To determine the appropriate flammable liquid storage container size and type, the boiling point shall be determined by § 1910.106(a)(5). In addition, the manufacturer, importer, and distributor shall clearly note in sections 7 and 9 of the SDS if an alternate calculation was used for storage purposes and the classification for storage differs from the classification listed in Section 2 of the SDS.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>B.7 Flammable Solids
</HD1>
<HD2>B.71 Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>Flammable solid</I> means a solid which is a readily combustible solid, or which may cause or contribute to fire through friction.
</P>
<P><I>Readily combustible solids</I> are powdered, granular, or pasty chemicals which are dangerous if they can be easily ignited by brief contact with an ignition source, such as a burning match, and if the flame spreads rapidly.
</P>
<HD2>B.7.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>B.7.2.1 Powdered, granular or pasty chemicals shall be classified as flammable solids when the time of burning of one or more of the test runs, performed in accordance with the test method described in Part III, sub-section 33.2.1 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6), is less than 45 s or the rate of burning is more than 2.2 mm/s (0.0866 in/s).
</P>
<P>B.7.2.2 Powders of metals or metal alloys shall be classified as flammable solids when they can be ignited and the reaction spreads over the whole length of the sample in 10 min or less.
</P>
<P>B.7.2.3 Solids which may cause fire through friction shall be classified in this class by analogy with existing entries (<I>e.g.,</I> matches) until definitive criteria are established.
</P>
<P>B.7.2.4 A flammable solid shall be classified in one of the two categories for this class using Method N.1 as described in Part III, sub-section 33.2.1 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6), in accordance with Table B.7.1:







</P>
<HD1>Table B.7.1: Criteria for Flammable Solids
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.011.gif"/>
<HD1>B.8 Self-Reactive Chemicals
</HD1>
<HD2>B.8.1 Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>Self-reactive chemicals</I> are thermally unstable liquid or solid chemicals liable to undergo a strongly exothermic decomposition even without participation of oxygen (air). This definition excludes chemicals classified under this section as explosives, organic peroxides, oxidizing liquids or oxidizing solids.
</P>
<P>A self-reactive chemical is regarded as possessing explosive properties when in laboratory testing the formulation is liable to detonate, to deflagrate rapidly or to show a violent effect when heated under confinement.
</P>
<HD2>B.8.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>B.8.2.1 A self-reactive chemical shall be considered for classification in this class unless:
</P>
<P>(a) It is classified as an explosive according to B.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) It is classified as an oxidizing liquid or an oxidizing solid according to B.13 or B.14 of this appendix, except that a mixture of oxidizing substances which contains 5% or more of combustible organic substances shall be classified as a self-reactive chemical according to the procedure defined in B.8.2.2;
</P>
<P>(c) It is classified as an organic peroxide according to B.15 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Its heat of decomposition is less than 300 J/g; or
</P>
<P>(e) Its self-accelerating decomposition temperature (SADT) is greater than 75 °C (167 °F) for a 50 kg (110 lb) package.
</P>
<P>B.8.2.2 Mixtures of oxidizing substances, meeting the criteria for classification as oxidizing liquids or oxidizing solids, which contain 5% or more of combustible organic substances and which do not meet the criteria mentioned in B.8.2.1(a), (c), (d) or (e), shall be subjected to the self-reactive chemicals classification procedure in B.8.2.3. Such a mixture showing the properties of a self-reactive chemical type B to F shall be classified as a self-reactive chemical.
</P>
<P>B.8.2.3 Self-reactive chemicals shall be classified in one of the seven categories of “types A to G” for this class, according to the following principles:
</P>
<P>(a) Any self-reactive chemical which can detonate or deflagrate rapidly, as packaged, will be defined as self-reactive chemical TYPE A;
</P>
<P>(b) Any self-reactive chemical possessing explosive properties and which, as packaged, neither detonates nor deflagrates rapidly, but is liable to undergo a thermal explosion in that package will be defined as self-reactive chemical TYPE B;
</P>
<P>(c) Any self-reactive chemical possessing explosive properties when the chemical as packaged cannot detonate or deflagrate rapidly or undergo a thermal explosion will be defined as self-reactive chemical TYPE C;
</P>
<P>(d) Any self-reactive chemical which in laboratory testing meets the criteria in (d)(i), (ii), or (iii) will be defined as self-reactive chemical TYPE D:
</P>
<P>(i) Detonates partially, does not deflagrate rapidly and shows no violent effect when heated under confinement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not detonate at all, deflagrates slowly and shows no violent effect when heated under confinement; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not detonate or deflagrate at all and shows a medium effect when heated under confinement;
</P>
<P>(e) Any self-reactive chemical which, in laboratory testing, neither detonates nor deflagrates at all and shows low or no effect when heated under confinement will be defined as self-reactive chemical TYPE E;
</P>
<P>(f) Any self-reactive chemical which, in laboratory testing, neither detonates in the cavitated state nor deflagrates at all and shows only a low or no effect when heated under confinement as well as low or no explosive power will be defined as self-reactive chemical TYPE F;
</P>
<P>(g) Any self-reactive chemical which, in laboratory testing, neither detonates in the cavitated state nor deflagrates at all and shows no effect when heated under confinement nor any explosive power, provided that it is thermally stable (self- accelerating decomposition temperature is 60 °C (140 °F) to 75 °C (167 °F) for a 50 kg (110 lb) package), and, for liquid mixtures, a diluent having a boiling point greater than or equal to 150 °C (302 °F) is used for desensitization will be defined as self-reactive chemical TYPE G. If the mixture is not thermally stable or a diluent having a boiling point less than 150 °C (302 °F) is used for desensitization, the mixture shall be defined as self-reactive chemical TYPE F.
</P>
<HD2>B.8.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.8.3.1 For purposes of classification, the properties of self-reactive chemicals shall be determined in accordance with test series A to H as described in Part II of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6).
</P>
<P>B.8.3.2 Self-accelerating decomposition temperature (SADT) shall be determined in accordance with Part II, section 28 of UN ST/SG/AC.10, (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 1910.6).
</P>
<P>B.8.3.3 The classification procedures for self-reactive substances and mixtures need not be applied if:
</P>
<P>(a) There are no chemical groups present in the molecule associated with explosive or self-reactive properties; examples of such groups are given in Tables A6.1 and A6.2 in the Appendix 6 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6); or
</P>
<P>(b) For a single organic substance or a homogeneous mixture of organic substances, the estimated SADT is greater than 75 °C (167 °F) or the exothermic decomposition energy is less than 300 J/g. The onset temperature and decomposition energy may be estimated using a suitable calorimetric technique (See 20.3.3.3 in Part II of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6)).
</P>
<HD1>B.9 Pyrophoric Liquids
</HD1>
<HD2>B.9.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Pyrophoric liquid</I> means a liquid which, even in small quantities, is liable to ignite within five minutes after coming into contact with air.
</P>
<HD2>B.9.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>A pyrophoric liquid shall be classified in a single category for this class using test N.3 in Part III, sub-section 33.3.1.5 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6), in accordance with Table B.9.1 of this appendix:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.9.1— Criteria for Pyrophoric Liquids
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The liquid ignites within 5 min when added to an inert carrier and exposed to air, or it ignites or chars a filter paper on contact with air within 5 min.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>B.9.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>The classification procedure for pyrophoric liquids need not be applied when experience in production or handling shows that the chemical does not ignite spontaneously on coming into contact with air at normal temperatures (<I>i.e.,</I> the substance is known to be stable at room temperature for prolonged periods of time (days)).
</P>
<HD1>B.10 Pyrophoric Solids
</HD1>
<HD2>B.10.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Pyrophoric solid</I> means a solid which, even in small quantities, is liable to ignite within five minutes after coming into contact with air.
</P>
<HD2>B.10.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>A pyrophoric solid shall be classified in a single category for this class using test N.2 in Part III, sub-section 33.3.1.4 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference; see § 1910.6), in accordance with Table B.10.1 of this appendix:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.10.1— Criteria for Pyrophoric Solids
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The solid ignites within 5 min of coming into contact with air.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Classification of solid chemicals shall be based on tests performed on the chemical as presented. If, for example, for the purposes of supply or transport, the same chemical is to be presented in a physical form different from that which was tested and which is considered likely to materially alter its performance in a classification test, classification must be based on testing of the chemical in the new form.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>B.10.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>The classification procedure for pyrophoric solids need not be applied when experience in production or handling shows that the chemical does not ignite spontaneously on coming into contact with air at normal temperatures (<I>i.e.,</I> the chemical is known to be stable at room temperature for prolonged periods of time (days)).
</P>
<HD1>B.11—Self-Heating Chemicals
</HD1>
<HD2>B.11.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P>A <I>self-heating chemical</I> is a solid or liquid chemical, other than a pyrophoric liquid or solid, which, by reaction with air and without energy supply, is liable to self-heat; this chemical differs from a pyrophoric liquid or solid in that it will ignite only when in large amounts (kilograms) and after long periods of time (hours or days).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Self-heating of a substance or mixture is a process where the gradual reaction of that substance or mixture with oxygen (in air) generates heat. If the rate of heat production exceeds the rate of heat loss, then the temperature of the substance or mixture will rise which, after an induction time, may lead to self-ignition and combustion.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>B.11.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>B.11.2.1 A self-heating chemical shall be classified in one of the two categories for this class if, in tests performed in accordance with test method N.4 in Part III, sub-section 33.3.1.6 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), the result meets the criteria shown in Table B.11.1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.11.1— Criteria for Self-Heating Chemicals
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A positive result is obtained in a test using a 25 mm sample cube at 140 ° C (284 ° F).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A negative result is obtained in a test using a 25 mm cube sample at 140 ° C (284 ° F), a positive result is obtained in a test using a 100 mm sample cube at 140 ° C (284 ° F), and:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The unit volume of the chemical is more than 3 m3; or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) A positive result is obtained in a test using a 100 mm cube sample at 120 ° C (248 ° F) and the unit volume of the chemical is more than 450 liters; or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) A positive result is obtained in a test using a 100 mm cube sample at 100 ° C (212 ° F).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Classification of solid chemicals shall be based on tests performed on the chemical as presented. If, for example, for the purposes of supply or transport, the same chemical is to be presented in a physical form different from that which was tested and which is considered likely to materially alter its performance in a classification test, classification must be based on testing of the chemical in the new form.</P></NOTE>
<P>B.11.2.2 Chemicals with a temperature of spontaneous combustion higher than 50 ° C (122 ° F) for a volume of 27 m3 shall not be classified as self-heating chemicals.
</P>
<P>B.11.2.3 Chemicals with a spontaneous ignition temperature higher than 50° C (122° F) for a volume of 450 liters shall not be classified in Category 1 of this class.
</P>
<HD2>B.11.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.11.3.1 The classification procedure for self-heating chemicals need not be applied if the results of a screening test can be adequately correlated with the classification test and an appropriate safety margin is applied.
</P>
<P>B.11.3.2 Examples of screening tests are:
</P>
<P>(a) The Grewer Oven test (VDI guideline 2263, part 1, 1990, Test methods for the Determination of the Safety Characteristics of Dusts) with an onset temperature 80°K above the reference temperature for a volume of 1 l;
</P>
<P>(b) The Bulk Powder Screening Test (Gibson, N. Harper, D. J. Rogers, R. Evaluation of the fire and explosion risks in drying powders, Plant Operations Progress, 4 (3), 181-189, 1985) with an onset temperature 60°K above the reference temperature for a volume of 1 l.
</P>
<HD1>B.12 Chemicals Which, in Contact With Water, Emit Flammable Gases
</HD1>
<HD2>B.12.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Chemicals which, in contact with water, emit flammable gases</I> are solid or liquid chemicals which, by interaction with water, are liable to become spontaneously flammable or to give off flammable gases in dangerous quantities.
</P>
<HD2>B.12.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>B.12.2.1 A chemical which, in contact with water, emits flammable gases shall be classified in one of the three categories for this class, using test N.5 in Part III, sub-section 33.4.1.4 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), in accordance with Table B.12.1 of this appendix:


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.12.1—Criteria for Chemicals Which, in Contact With Water, Emit Flammable Gases
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which reacts vigorously with water at ambient temperatures and demonstrates generally a tendency for the gas produced to ignite spontaneously, or which reacts readily with water at ambient temperatures such that the rate of evolution of flammable gas is equal to or greater than 10 liters per kilogram of chemical over any one minute.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which reacts readily with water at ambient temperatures such that the maximum rate of evolution of flammable gas is equal to or greater than 20 liters per kilogram of chemical per hour, and which does not meet the criteria for Category 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which reacts slowly with water at ambient temperatures such that the maximum rate of evolution of flammable gas is greater than 1 liter per kilogram of chemical per hour, and which does not meet the criteria for Categories 1 and 2.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Classification of solid chemicals shall be based on tests performed on the chemical as presented. If, for example, for the purposes of supply or transport, the same chemical is to be presented in a physical form different from that which was tested and which is considered likely to materially alter its performance in a classification test, classification must be based on testing of the chemical in the new form.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>B.12.2.2 A chemical is classified as a chemical which, in contact with water, emits flammable gases if spontaneous ignition takes place in any step of the test procedure.
</P>
<HD2>B.12.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>The classification procedure for this class need not be applied if:
</P>
<P>(a) The chemical structure of the chemical does not contain metals or metalloids;
</P>
<P>(b) Experience in production or handling shows that the chemical does not react with water, (e.g., the chemical is manufactured with water or washed with water); or
</P>
<P>(c) The chemical is known to be soluble in water to form a stable mixture.
</P>
<HD1>B.13 Oxidizing Liquids
</HD1>
<HD2>B.13.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Oxidizing liquid</I> means a liquid which, while in itself not necessarily combustible, may, generally by yielding oxygen, cause, or contribute to, the combustion of other material.
</P>
<HD2>B.13.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>An oxidizing liquid shall be classified in one of the three categories for this class using test O.2 in Part III, sub-section 34.4.2 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), in accordance with Table B.13.1:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.13.1— Criteria for Oxidizing Liquids
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 1:1 mixture, by mass, of chemical and cellulose tested, spontaneously ignites; or the mean pressure rise time of a 1:1 mixture, by mass, of chemical and cellulose is less than that of a 1:1 mixture, by mass, of 50% perchloric acid and cellulose;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 1:1 mixture, by mass, of chemical and cellulose tested, exhibits a mean pressure rise time less than or equal to the mean pressure rise time of a 1:1 mixture, by mass, of 40% aqueous sodium chlorate solution and cellulose; and the criteria for Category 1 are not met;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 1:1 mixture, by mass, of chemical and cellulose tested, exhibits a mean pressure rise time less than or equal to the mean pressure rise time of a 1:1 mixture, by mass, of 65% aqueous nitric acid and cellulose; and the criteria for Categories 1 and 2 are not met.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>B.13.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.13.3.1 For organic chemicals, the classification procedure for this class shall not be applied if:
</P>
<P>(a) The chemical does not contain oxygen, fluorine or chlorine; or
</P>
<P>(b) The chemical contains oxygen, fluorine or chlorine and these elements are chemically bonded only to carbon or hydrogen.
</P>
<P>B.13.3.2 For inorganic chemicals, the classification procedure for this class shall not be applied if the chemical does not contain oxygen or halogen atoms.
</P>
<P>B.13.3.3 In the event of divergence between test results and known experience in the handling and use of chemicals which shows them to be oxidizing, judgments based on known experience shall take precedence over test results.
</P>
<P>B.13.3.4 In cases where chemicals generate a pressure rise (too high or too low), caused by chemical reactions not characterizing the oxidizing properties of the chemical, the test described in Part III, sub-section 34.4.2 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6) shall be repeated with an inert substance (<I>e.g.,</I> diatomite (kieselguhr)) in place of the cellulose in order to clarify the nature of the reaction.
</P>
<HD1>B.14 Oxidizing Solids
</HD1>
<HD2>B.14.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P><I>Oxidizing solid</I> means a solid which, while in itself is not necessarily combustible, may, generally by yielding oxygen, cause, or contribute to, the combustion of other material.
</P>
<HD2>B.14.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>An oxidizing solid shall be classified in one of the three categories for this class using test O.1 in Part III, sub-section 34.4.1, of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6) or test O.3 in Part III, sub-section 34.4.3 of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), in accordance with Table B.14.1:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.14.1—Criteria for Oxidizing Solids
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria using test O.1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria using test O.3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 4:1 or 1:1 sample-to-cellulose ratio (by mass) tested, exhibits a mean burning time less than the mean burning time of a 3:2 mixture, (by mass), of potassium bromate and cellulose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 4:1 or 1:1 sample-to- cellulose ratio (by mass) tested, exhibits a mean burning rate greater than the mean burning rate of a 3:1 mixture (by mass) of calcium peroxide and cellulose.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 4:1 or 1:1 sample-to-cellulose ratio (by mass) tested, exhibits a mean burning time equal to or less than the mean burning time of a 2:3 mixture (by mass) of potassium bromate and cellulose and the criteria for Category 1 are not met</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 4:1 or 1:1 sample-to- cellulose ratio (by mass) tested, exhibits a mean burning rate equal to or greater than the mean burning rate of a 1:1 mixture (by mass) of calcium peroxide and cellulose and the criteria for Category 1 are not met.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 4:1 or 1:1 sample-to-cellulose ratio (by mass) tested, exhibits a mean burning time equal to or less than the mean burning time of a 3:7 mixture (by mass) of potassium bromate and cellulose and the criteria for Categories 1 and 2 are not met</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any chemical which, in the 4:1 or 1:1 sample-to- cellulose ratio (by mass) tested, exhibits a mean burning rate equal to or greater than the mean burning rate of a 1:2 mixture (by mass) of calcium peroxide and cellulose and the criteria for Categories 1 and 2 are not met.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>Some oxidizing solids may present explosion hazards under certain conditions (e.g., when stored in large quantities). For example, some types of ammonium nitrate may give rise to an explosion hazard under extreme conditions and the “Resistance to detonation test” (International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes Code, IMO (IMSBC), Appendix 2, Section 5) may be used to assess this hazard. When information indicates that an oxidizing solid may present an explosion hazard, it shall be indicated on the Safety Data Sheet.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2:</HED>
<P>Classification of solid chemicals shall be based on tests performed on the chemical as presented. If, for example, for the purposes of supply or transport, the same chemical is to be presented in a physical form different from that which was tested and which is considered likely to materially alter its performance in a classification test, classification must be based on testing of the chemical in the new form.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>B.14.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.14.3.1 For organic chemicals, the classification procedure for this class shall not be applied if:
</P>
<P>(a) The chemical does not contain oxygen, fluorine or chlorine; or
</P>
<P>(b) The chemical contains oxygen, fluorine or chlorine and these elements are chemically bonded only to carbon or hydrogen.
</P>
<P>B.14.3.2 For inorganic chemicals, the classification procedure for this class shall not be applied if the chemical does not contain oxygen or halogen atoms.
</P>
<P>B.14.3.3 In the event of divergence between test results and known experience in the handling and use of chemicals which shows them to be oxidizing, judgements based on known experience shall take procedure over test results.
</P>
<HD1>B.15 Organic Peroxides
</HD1>
<HD2>B.15.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P>B.15.1.1 <I>Organic peroxide</I> means a liquid or solid organic chemical which contains the bivalent -0-0- structure and as such is considered a derivative of hydrogen peroxide, where one or both of the hydrogen atoms have been replaced by organic radicals. The term organic peroxide includes organic peroxide mixtures containing at least one organic peroxide. Organic peroxides are thermally unstable chemicals, which may undergo exothermic self-accelerating decomposition. In addition, they may have one or more of the following properties:
</P>
<P>(a) Be liable to explosive decomposition;
</P>
<P>(b) Burn rapidly;
</P>
<P>(c) Be sensitive to impact or friction;
</P>
<P>(d) React dangerously with other substances.
</P>
<P>B.15.1.2 An organic peroxide is regarded as possessing explosive properties when in laboratory testing the formulation is liable to detonate, to deflagrate rapidly or to show a violent effect when heated under confinement.
</P>
<HD2>B.15.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>B.15.2.1 Any organic peroxide shall be considered for classification in this class, unless it contains:
</P>
<P>(a) Not more than 1.0% available oxygen from the organic peroxides when containing not more than 1.0% hydrogen peroxide; or
</P>
<P>(b) Not more than 0.5% available oxygen from the organic peroxides when containing more than 1.0% but not more than 7.0% hydrogen peroxide.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The available oxygen content (%) of an organic peroxide mixture is given by the formula:</P></NOTE>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.231.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ni = number of peroxygen groups per molecule of organic peroxide i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ci = concentration (mass %) of organic peroxide i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>mi = molecular mass of organic peroxide i.
</FP-2>
<P>B.15.2.2 Organic peroxides shall be classified in one of the seven categories of “Types A to G” for this class, according to the following principles:
</P>
<P>(a) Any organic peroxide which, as packaged, can detonate or deflagrate rapidly shall be defined as organic peroxide TYPE A;
</P>
<P>(b) Any organic peroxide possessing explosive properties and which, as packaged, neither detonates nor deflagrates rapidly, but is liable to undergo a thermal explosion in that package shall be defined as organic peroxide TYPE B;
</P>
<P>(c) Any organic peroxide possessing explosive properties when the chemical as packaged cannot detonate or deflagrate rapidly or undergo a thermal explosion shall be defined as organic peroxide TYPE C;
</P>
<P>(d) Any organic peroxide which in laboratory testing meets the criteria in (d)(i), (ii), or (iii) shall be defined as organic peroxide TYPE D:
</P>
<P>(i) Detonates partially, does not deflagrate rapidly and shows no violent effect when heated under confinement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not detonate at all, deflagrates slowly and shows no violent effect when heated under confinement; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not detonate or deflagrate at all and shows a medium effect when heated under confinement;
</P>
<P>(e) Any organic peroxide which, in laboratory testing, neither detonates nor deflagrates at all and shows low or no effect when heated under confinement shall be defined as organic peroxide TYPE E;
</P>
<P>(f) Any organic peroxide which, in laboratory testing, neither detonates in the cavitated state nor deflagrates at all and shows only a low or no effect when heated under confinement as well as low or no explosive power shall be defined as organic peroxide TYPE F;
</P>
<P>(g) Any organic peroxide which, in laboratory testing, neither detonates in the cavitated state nor deflagrates at all and shows no effect when heated under confinement nor any explosive power, provided that it is thermally stable (self-accelerating decomposition temperature is 60 ° C (140 ° F) or higher for a 50 kg (110 lb) package), and, for liquid mixtures, a diluent having a boiling point of not less than 150 ;° C (302 ° F) is used for desensitization, shall be defined as organic peroxide TYPE G. If the organic peroxide is not thermally stable or a diluent having a boiling point less than 150 ° C (302° F) is used for desensitization, it shall be defined as organic peroxide TYPE F.
</P>
<HD2>B.15.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.15.3.1 For purposes of classification, the properties of organic peroxides shall be determined in accordance with test series A to H as described in Part II of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6).
</P>
<P>B.15.3.2 Self-accelerating decomposition temperature (SADT) shall be determined in accordance with UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), Part II, section 28.
</P>
<P>B.15.3.3 Mixtures of organic peroxides may be classified as the same type of organic peroxide as that of the most dangerous ingredient. However, as two stable ingredients can form a thermally less stable mixture, the SADT of the mixture shall be determined.
</P>
<HD1>B.16 Corrosive to Metals
</HD1>
<HD2>B.16.1 Definition
</HD2>
<P>A <I>chemical which is corrosive to metals</I> means a chemical which by chemical action will materially damage, or even destroy, metals.
</P>
<HD2>B.16.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>A chemical which is corrosive to metals shall be classified in a single category for this class, using the test in Part III, sub-section 37.4 of UN ST/SG/AC.10 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), in accordance with Table B.16.1:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.16.1—Criteria for Chemicals Corrosive to Metal
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corrosion rate on either steel or aluminum surfaces exceeding 6.25 mm per year at a test temperature of 55 ° C (131 ° F) when tested on both materials.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where an initial test on either steel or aluminium indicates the chemical being tested is corrosive the follow-up test on the other metal is not necessary.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>B.16.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>The specimen to be used for the test shall be made of the following materials:
</P>
<P>(a) For the purposes of testing steel, steel types S235JR+CR (1.0037 resp. St 37- 2), S275J2G3+CR (1.0144 resp. St 44-3), ISO 3574, Unified Numbering System (UNS) G 10200, or SAE 1020;
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of testing aluminium: non-clad types 7075-T6 or AZ5GU-T6.
</P>
<HD1>B.17 Desensitized Explosives
</HD1>
<HD2>B.17.1 Definitions and General Considerations
</HD2>
<P><I>Desensitized explosives</I> are solid or liquid explosive chemicals which are phlegmatized 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> to suppress their explosive properties in such a manner that they do not mass explode and do not burn too rapidly and therefore may be exempted from the hazard class “Explosives” (Chapter B.1; <I>see</I> also Note 2 of paragraph B.1.3).
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Phlegmatized means that a substance (or “phlegmatizer”) has been added to an explosive to enhance its safety in handling and transport. The phlegmatizer renders the explosive insensitive, or less sensitive, to the following actions: heat, shock, impact, percussion or friction. Typical phlegmatizing agents include, but are not limited to: wax, paper, water, polymers (such as chlorofluoropolymers), alcohol and oils (such as petroleum jelly and paraffin).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Unstable explosives as defined in Chapter B.1 can also be stabilized by desensitization and consequently may be re-classified as desensitized explosives, provided all criteria of Chapter B.17 are met. In this case, the desensitized explosive should be tested according to Test Series 3 (Part I of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev. 6 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6)) because information about its sensitiveness to mechanical stimuli is likely to be important for determining conditions for safe handling and use. The results shall be communicated on the safety data sheet.</P></FTNT>
<P>B.17.1.1 The class of desensitized explosives comprises:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Solid desensitized explosives:</I> explosive substances or mixtures which are wetted with water or alcohols or are diluted with other substances, to form a homogeneous solid mixture to suppress their explosive properties.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This includes desensitization achieved by formation of hydrates of the substances.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Liquid desensitized explosives:</I> explosive substances or mixtures which are dissolved or suspended in water or other liquid substances, to form a homogeneous liquid mixture to suppress their explosive properties.
</P>
<HD2>B.17.2 Classification Criteria
</HD2>
<P>B.17.2.1 Any explosive which is desensitized shall be considered in this class, unless:
</P>
<P>(a) It is intended to produce a practical, explosive or pyrotechnic effect; or
</P>
<P>It has a mass explosion hazard according to test series 6 (a) or 6 (b) or its corrected burning rate according to the burning rate test described in part V, subsection 51.4 of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6) is greater than 1200 kg/min; or
</P>
<P>(b) Its exothermic decomposition energy is less than 300 J/g.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>Substances or mixtures which meet the criterion (a) or (b) shall be classified as explosives (see Chapter B.1). Substances or mixtures which meet the criterion (c) may fall within the scope of other physical hazard classes.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2:</HED>
<P>The exothermic decomposition energy may be estimated using a suitable calorimetric technique (see section 20, sub-section 20.3.3.3 in Part II of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6).</P></NOTE>
<P>B.17.2.2 Desensitized explosives shall be classified in one of the four categories of this class depending on the corrected burning rate (Ac) using the test “burning rate test (external fire)” described in Part V, sub-section 51.4 of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6), according to Table B.17.1:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B.17.1—Criteria for Desensitized Explosives
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Desensitized explosives with a corrected burning rate (AC) equal to or greater than 300 kg/min but not more than 1200 kg/min.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Desensitized explosives with a corrected burning rate (AC) equal to or greater than 140 kg/min but less than 300 kg/min.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Desensitized explosives with a corrected burning rate (AC) equal to or greater than 60 kg/min but less than 140 kg/min.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Desensitized explosives with a corrected burning rate (AC) less than 60 kg/min.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>Desensitized explosives shall be prepared so that they remain homogeneous and do not separate during normal storage and handling, particularly if desensitized by wetting. The manufacturer, importer, or distributor shall provide information in Section 10 of the safety data sheet about the shelf-life and instructions on verifying desensitization. Under certain conditions the content of desensitizing agent (e.g., phlegmatizer, wetting agent or treatment) may decrease during supply and use, and thus, the hazard potential of the desensitized explosive may increase. In addition, Sections 5 and/or 8 of the safety data sheet shall include advice on avoiding increased fire, blast or protection hazards when the chemical is not sufficiently desensitized.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2:</HED>
<P>Explosive properties of desensitized explosives shall be determined using data from Test Series 2 of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6) and shall be communicated in the safety data sheet. For testing of liquid desensitized explosives, refer to section 32, sub-section 32.3.2 of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference, see 1910.6). Testing of solid desensitized explosives is addressed in section 33, sub-section 33.2.3 of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev.6 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6).</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3:</HED>
<P>Desensitized explosives do not fall additionally within the scope of chapters B.1 (explosives), B.6 (flammable liquids) and B.7 (flammable solids).</P></NOTE>
<HD2>B.17.3 Additional Classification Considerations
</HD2>
<P>B.17.3.1 The classification procedure for desensitized explosives does not apply if:
</P>
<P>(a) The substances or mixtures contain no explosives according to the criteria in Chapter B.1; or
</P>
<P>(b) The exothermic decomposition energy is less than 300 J/g.
</P>
<P>B.17.3.2 The exothermic decomposition energy shall be determined using the explosive already desensitized (<I>i.e.,</I> the homogenous solid or liquids mixture formed by the explosive and the substance(s) used to suppress its explosive properties). The exothermic decomposition energy may be estimated using a suitable calorimetric technique (<I>see</I> Section 20, sub-section 20.3.3.3 in Part II of UN ST/SG/AC.10/11/Rev. 6 (incorporated by reference, see § 1910.6).
</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1910.1200—Allocation of Label Elements (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>C.1 The label for each hazardous chemical shall include the product identifier used on the safety data sheet.
</P>
<P>C.1.1 The labels on shipped containers shall also include the name, address, and telephone number of the chemical manufacturer, importer, or responsible party.
</P>
<P>C.2 The label for each hazardous chemical that is classified shall include the signal word, hazard statement(s), pictogram(s), and precautionary statement(s) specified in C.4 for each hazard class and associated hazard category, except as provided for in C.2.1 through C.2.4.
</P>
<HD2>C.2.1 Precedence of Hazard Information
</HD2>
<P>C.2.1.1 If the signal word “Danger” is included, the signal word “Warning” shall not appear;
</P>
<P>C.2.1.2 If the skull and crossbones pictogram is included, the exclamation mark pictogram shall not appear where it is used for acute toxicity;
</P>
<P>C.2.1.3 If the corrosive pictogram is included, the exclamation mark pictogram shall not appear where it is used for skin or eye irritation;
</P>
<P>C.2.1.4 If the health hazard pictogram is included for respiratory sensitization, the exclamation mark pictogram shall not appear where it is used for skin sensitization or for skin or eye irritation.
</P>
<HD2>C.2.2 Hazard Statement Text
</HD2>
<P>C.2.2.1 The text of all applicable hazard statements shall appear on the label, except as otherwise specified. The information in italics shall be included as part of the hazard statement as provided. For example: “causes damage to organs (state all organs affected) through prolonged or repeated exposure (state route of exposure if no other routes of exposure cause the hazard)”. Hazard statements may be combined where appropriate to reduce the information on the label and improve readability, as long as all of the hazards are conveyed as required.
</P>
<P>C.2.2.2 If the chemical manufacturer, importer, or responsible party can demonstrate that all or part of the hazard statement is inappropriate to a specific substance or mixture, the corresponding statement may be omitted from the label.
</P>
<HD2>C.2.3 Pictograms
</HD2>
<P>C.2.3.1 Pictograms shall be in the shape of a square set at a point and shall include a black hazard symbol on a white background with a red frame sufficiently wide to be clearly visible. A square red frame set at a point without a hazard symbol is not a pictogram and is not permitted on the label.
</P>
<P>C.2.3.2 One of eight standard hazard symbols shall be used in each pictogram. The eight hazard symbols are depicted in Figure C.1. A pictogram using the exclamation mark symbol is presented in Figure C.2, for the purpose of illustration.





</P>
<HD1>Figure C.1—Hazard Symbols and Classes
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.012.gif"/>
<HD1>Figure C.2—Exclamation Mark Pictogram
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.233.gif"/>
<P>C.2.3.3 The exclamation mark pictogram is permitted (but not required) for HNOCs as long as the words “Hazard Not Otherwise Classified” or the letters “HNOC” appear below the pictogram.
</P>
<P>C.2.3.4 Pictograms may only appear once on a label. If multiple hazards require the use of the same pictogram, it may not appear a second time on the label.
</P>
<HD2>C.2.4 Precautionary Statement Text
</HD2>
<P>C.2.4.1 There are four types of precautionary statements presented, “prevention,” “response,” “storage,” and “disposal.” The core part of the precautionary statement is presented in bold print. This is the text, except as otherwise specified, that shall appear on the label. Where additional information is required, it is indicated in plain text.
</P>
<P>C.2.4.2 When a backslash or diagonal mark (/) appears in the precautionary statement text, it indicates that a choice has to be made between the separated phrases. In such cases, the chemical manufacturer, importer, or responsible party can choose the most appropriate phrase(s). For example, “Wear protective gloves/protective clothing/eye protection/face protection” could read “wear eye protection”.
</P>
<P>C.2.4.3 When three full stops (. . .) appear in the precautionary statement text, they indicate that all applicable conditions are not listed. For example, in “Use explosion-proof electrical/ventilating/lighting/. . ./equipment”, the use of “. . .” indicates that other equipment may need to be specified. In such cases, the chemical manufacturer, importer, or responsible party can choose the other conditions to be specified.
</P>
<P>C.2.4.4 When text <I>in italics</I> is used in a precautionary statement, this indicates specific conditions applying to the use or allocation of the precautionary statement. For example, “Use explosion-proof electrical/ventilating/lighting/. . ./equipment” is only required for flammable solids “<I>if dust clouds can occur</I>”. Text in italics is intended to be an explanatory, conditional note and is not intended to appear on the label.
</P>
<P>C.2.4.5 Where square brackets ([ ]) appear around text in a precautionary statement, this indicates that the text in square brackets is not appropriate in every case and should be used only in certain circumstances. In these cases, conditions for use explaining when the text should be used are provided. For example, one precautionary statement states: “[In case of inadequate ventilation] wear respiratory protection.” This statement is given with the condition for use “- text in square brackets may be used if additional information is provided with the chemical at the point of use that explains what type of ventilation would be adequate for safe use”. This means that, if additional information is provided with the chemical explaining what type of ventilation would be adequate for safe use, the text in square brackets should be used and the statement would read: “In case of inadequate ventilation wear respiratory protection.” However, if the chemical is supplied without such ventilation information, the text in square brackets should not be used, and the precautionary statement should read: “Wear respiratory protection.”


</P>
<P>C.2.4.6 Precautionary statements may be combined or consolidated to save label space and improve readability. For example, “Keep cool” and “Keep away from heat, hot surfaces, sparks, open flames and other ignition sources. No smoking.” can be combined to read “Keep cool and away from heat, hot surfaces, sparks, open flames and other ignition sources. No smoking.”




</P>
<P>C.2.4.7 Precautionary statements may incorporate minor textual variations from the text prescribed in this Appendix if these variations assist in communicating safety information (<I>e.g.</I>, spelling variations, synonyms or other equivalent terms) and the safety advice is not diluted or compromised. Any variations must be used consistently on the label and the safety data sheet.
</P>
<P>C.2.4.8 In most cases, the precautionary statements are independent (<I>e.g.</I>, the phrases for explosives hazards do not modify those related to certain health hazards, and products that are classified for both hazard classes shall bear appropriate precautionary statements for both). Where a chemical is classified for a number of hazards, and the precautionary statements are similar, the most stringent shall be included on the label (this will be applicable mainly to preventive measures).
</P>
<P>C.2.4.9 If the chemical manufacturer, importer, or responsible party can demonstrate that a precautionary statement is inappropriate to a specific substance or mixture, the precautionary statement may be omitted from the label.
</P>
<P>C.2.4.10 Where a substance or mixture is classified for a number of health hazards, this may trigger multiple precautionary statements relating to medical response, <I>e.g.</I>, calling a poison center/doctor/. . . and getting medical advice/attention.
</P>
<P>In general, the following principles should be applied:
</P>
<P>(a) Where the classification of a substance or mixture triggers several different precautionary statements, a system of prioritization should be applied. If the same medical response statement is triggered multiple times, the label need only include one precautionary statement reflecting the response at the highest level with the greatest urgency, which should always be combined with at least one route of exposure or symptom “IF” statement.
</P>
<P>(b) Routes of exposure, including “IF exposed or concerned,” may be combined when triggered with a medical response statement. If the response statement is triggered with three or more routes of exposure, “IF exposed or concerned” may be used. However, relevant “IF” statements describing symptoms must be included in full. If a route of exposure is triggered multiple times, it need only be included once.
</P>
<P>(c) This does not apply to “Get medical advice/attention if you feel unwell” or “Get immediate medical advice/attention” when they are combined with an “If” statement and must appear without prioritization.
</P>
<HD1>C.3 Supplementary Hazard Information
</HD1>
<P>C.3.1 To ensure that non-standardized information does not lead to unnecessarily wide variation or undermine the required information, supplementary information on the label is limited to when it provides further detail and does not contradict or cast doubt on the validity of the standardized hazard information.
</P>
<P>C.3.2 Where the chemical manufacturer, importer, or distributor chooses to add supplementary information on the label, the placement of supplemental information shall not impede identification of information required by this section.
</P>
<P>C.3.3 Where an ingredient with unknown acute toxicity is used in a mixture at a concentration ≥1%, and the mixture is not classified based on testing of the mixture as a whole, a statement that X% of the mixture consists of ingredient(s) of unknown acute toxicity (oral/dermal/inhalation) is required on the label and safety data sheet.

</P>
<HD1>C.4 Requirements for Signal Words, Hazard Statements, Pictograms, and Precautionary Statements




</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.234.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.235.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.236.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.237.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.238.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.239.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.240.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.241.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.242.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.243.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.244.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.245.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.246.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.247.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.248.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.249.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.250.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.10 REPRODUCTIVE TOXICITY
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix A.7 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.013.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.10 REPRODUCTIVE TOXICITY (CONTINUED)
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix A.7 of this section)
</HD1>
<HD1>(EFFECTS ON OR VIA LACTATION)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.253.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.254.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.255.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.256.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.257.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.258.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.14 EXPLOSIVES
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.1 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.015.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.14 EXPLOSIVES (CONTINUED)
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.1 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.016.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.14 EXPLOSIVES (CONTINUED)
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.1 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.017.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.14 EXPLOSIVES (CONTINUED)
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.1 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.018.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.14 EXPLOSIVES (CONTINUED)
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.1 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.264.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.265.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.266.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.267.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.16 AEROSOLS
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.3 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.020.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.16 AEROSOLS
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.3.1 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.021.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.16 CHEMICAL UNDER PRESSURE
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.3.2 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.022.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.16 CHEMICAL UNDER PRESSURE
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.3 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.023.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.272.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.273.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.274.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.19 FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.6 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.024.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.19 FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS (CONTINUED)
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.6 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.025.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.20 FLAMMABLE SOLIDS
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.7 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.026.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.21 SELF-REACTIVE SUBSTANCES AND MIXTURES
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.8 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.027.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.21 SELF-REACTIVE SUBSTANCES AND MIXTURES (CONTINUED)
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.8 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.028.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.21 SELF-REACTIVE SUBSTANCES AND MIXTURES (CONTINUED)
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.8 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.029.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.281.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.282.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.24 SELF-HEATING SUBSTANCES AND MIXTURES
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.11 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.030.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.284.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.285.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.286.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.287.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.288.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.289.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.290.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.291.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.292.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.293.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.30 DESENSITIZED EXPLOSIVES
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.17 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.031.gif"/>
<HD1>C.4.30 DESENSITIZED EXPLOSIVES
</HD1>
<HD1>(Classified in Accordance with Appendix B.17 of this section)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.296.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1910.1200 Safety Data Sheet (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>A safety data sheet (SDS) shall include the information specified in Table D.1 under the section number and heading indicated for sections 1-11 and 16. While each section of the SDS must contain all of the specified information, preparers of safety data sheets are not required to present the information in any particular order within each section. If no relevant information is found for any given subheading within a section, the SDS shall clearly indicate that no applicable information is available. Sections 12-15 may be included in the SDS, but are not mandatory.


</P>
<HD1>Table D.1. Minimum Information for an SDS
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.035.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08ja26.036.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1910.1200—Definition of “Trade Secret” (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>The following is a reprint of the <I>Restatement of Torts</I> section 757, comment <I>b</I> (1939):
</P>
<P><I>b. Definition of trade secret.</I> A trade secret may consist of any formula, pattern, device or compilation of information which is used in one's business, and which gives him an opportunity to obtain an advantage over competitors who do not know or use it. It may be a formula for a chemical compound, a process of manufacturing, treating or preserving materials, a pattern for a machine or other device, or a list of customers. It differs from other secret information in a business (see s759 of the <I>Restatement of Torts</I> which is not included in this Appendix) in that it is not simply information as to single or ephemeral events in the conduct of the business, as, for example, the amount or other terms of a secret bid for a contract or the salary of certain employees, or the security investments made or contemplated, or the date fixed for the announcement of a new policy or for bringing out a new model or the like. A trade secret is a process or device for continuous use in the operations of the business. Generally it relates to the production of goods, as, for example, a machine or formula for the production of an article. It may, however, relate to the sale of goods or to other operations in the business, such as a code for determining discounts, rebates or other concessions in a price list or catalogue, or a list of specialized customers, or a method of bookkeeping or other office management.
</P>
<P><I>Secrecy.</I> The subject matter of a trade secret must be secret. Matters of public knowledge or of general knowledge in an industry cannot be appropriated by one as his secret. Matters which are completely disclosed by the goods which one markets cannot be his secret. Substantially, a trade secret is known only in the particular business in which it is used. It is not requisite that only the proprietor of the business know it. He may, without losing his protection, communicate it to employees involved in its use. He may likewise communicate it to others pledged to secrecy. Others may also know of it independently, as, for example, when they have discovered the process or formula by independent invention and are keeping it secret. Nevertheless, a substantial element of secrecy must exist, so that, except by the use of improper means, there would be difficulty in acquiring the information. An exact definition of a trade secret is not possible. Some factors to be considered in determining whether given information is one's trade secret are: (1) The extent to which the information is known outside of his business; (2) the extent to which it is known by employees and others involved in his business; (3) the extent of measures taken by him to guard the secrecy of the information; (4) the value of the information to him and his competitors; (5) the amount of effort or money expended by him in developing the information; (6) the ease or difficulty with which the information could be properly acquired or duplicated by others.
</P>
<P><I>Novelty and prior art.</I> A trade secret may be a device or process which is patentable; but it need not be that. It may be a device or process which is clearly anticipated in the prior art or one which is merely a mechanical improvement that a good mechanic can make. Novelty and invention are not requisite for a trade secret as they are for patentability. These requirements are essential to patentability because a patent protects against unlicensed use of the patented device or process even by one who discovers it properly through independent research. The patent monopoly is a reward to the inventor. But such is not the case with a trade secret. Its protection is not based on a policy of rewarding or otherwise encouraging the development of secret processes or devices. The protection is merely against breach of faith and reprehensible means of learning another's secret. For this limited protection it is not appropriate to require also the kind of novelty and invention which is a requisite of patentability. The nature of the secret is, however, an important factor in determining the kind of relief that is appropriate against one who is subject to liability under the rule stated in this Section. Thus, if the secret consists of a device or process which is a novel invention, one who acquires the secret wrongfully is ordinarily enjoined from further use of it and is required to account for the profits derived from his past use. If, on the other hand, the secret consists of mechanical improvements that a good mechanic can make without resort to the secret, the wrongdoer's liability may be limited to damages, and an injunction against future use of the improvements made with the aid of the secret may be inappropriate.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1910.1200—Guidance for Hazard Classifications Re: Carcinogenicity (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>The mandatory criteria for classification of a chemical for carcinogenicity under HCS (§ 1910.1200) are found in Appendix A.6 to this section. This non-mandatory Appendix provides additional guidance on hazard classification for carcinogenicity. Part A of Appendix F includes background guidance provided by GHS based on the Preamble of the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) “Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans” (2006). Part B provides IARC classification information. Part C provides background guidance from the National Toxicology Program (NTP) “Report on Carcinogens” (RoC), and Part D is a table that compares GHS carcinogen hazard categories to carcinogen classifications under IARC and NTP, allowing classifiers to be able to use information from IARC and NTP RoC carcinogen classifications to complete their classifications under the GHS, and thus the HCS.
</P>
<HD1>Part A: Background Guidance 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD1>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The text of Appendix F, Part A, on the IARC Monographs, is paraphrased from the 2006 Preamble to the “Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans”; the Classifier is referred to the full IARC Preamble for the complete text. The text is not part of the agreed GHS text on the harmonized system developed by the OECD Task Force-HCL.</P></FTNT>
<P>As noted in Footnote 6 of Appendix A.6. to this section, the GHS includes as guidance for classifiers information taken from the Preamble of the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) “Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans” (2006), providing guidance on the evaluation of the strength and evidence of carcinogenic risks to humans. This guidance also discusses some additional considerations in classification and an approach to analysis, rather than hard-and-fast rules. Part A is consistent with Appendix A.6, and should help in evaluating information to determine carcinogenicity.
</P>
<P><I>Carcinogenicity in humans:</I>
</P>
<P>The evidence relevant to carcinogenicity from studies in humans is classified into one of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(a) Sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity: A causal relationship has been established between exposure to the agent and human cancer. That is, a positive relationship has been observed between the exposure and cancer in studies in which chance, bias and confounding could be ruled out with reasonable confidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Limited evidence of carcinogenicity: A positive association has been observed between exposure to the agent and cancer for which a causal interpretation is considered by the Working Group to be credible, but chance, bias or confounding could not be ruled out with reasonable confidence.
</P>
<P>In some instances, the above categories may be used to classify the degree of evidence related to carcinogenicity in specific organs or tissues.
</P>
<P><I>Carcinogenicity in experimental animals:</I>
</P>
<P>The evidence relevant to carcinogenicity in experimental animals is classified into one of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(a) Sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity: A causal relationship has been established between the agent and an increased incidence of malignant neoplasms or of an appropriate combination of benign and malignant neoplasms in two or more species of animals or two or more independent studies in one species carried out at different times or in different laboratories or under different protocols. An increased incidence of tumors in both sexes of a single species in a well-conducted study, ideally conducted under Good Laboratory Practices, can also provide sufficient evidence.
</P>
<P>Exceptionally, a single study in one species and sex might be considered to provide sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity when malignant neoplasms occur to an unusual degree with regard to incidence, site, type of tumor or age at onset, or when there are strong findings of tumors at multiple sites.
</P>
<P>(b) Limited evidence of carcinogenicity: The data suggest a carcinogenic effect but are limited for making a definitive evaluation because, e.g. the evidence of carcinogenicity is restricted to a single experiment; there are unresolved questions regarding the adequacy of the design, conduct or interpretation of the studies; the agent increases the incidence only of benign neoplasms or lesions of uncertain neoplastic potential; or the evidence of carcinogenicity is restricted to studies that demonstrate only promoting activity in a narrow range of tissues or organs.
</P>
<HD2>Guidance on How To Consider Important Factors in Classification of Carcinogenicity (See Reference Section)
</HD2>
<P>The weight of evidence analysis called for in GHS and the HCS (§ 1910.1200) is an integrative approach that considers important factors in determining carcinogenic potential along with the strength of evidence analysis. The IPCS “<I>Conceptual Framework for Evaluating a Mode of Action for Chemical Carcinogenesis”</I> (2001), International Life Sciences Institute (ILSI) “<I>Framework for Human Relevance Analysis of Information on Carcinogenic Modes of Action”</I> (Meek, <I>et al.,</I> 2003; Cohen <I>et al.,</I> 2003, 2004), and Preamble to the IARC Monographs (2006; Section B.6. (Scientific Review and Evaluation; Evaluation and Rationale)) provide a basis for systematic assessments that may be performed in a consistent fashion. The IPCS also convened a panel in 2004 to further develop and clarify the human relevance framework. However, the above documents are not intended to dictate answers, nor provide lists of criteria to be checked off.
</P>
<HD2>Mode of Action
</HD2>
<P>Various documents on carcinogen assessment all note that mode of action in and of itself, or consideration of comparative metabolism, should be evaluated on a case-by-case basis and are part of an analytic evaluative approach. One must look closely at any mode of action in animal experiments, taking into consideration comparative toxicokinetics/toxicodynamics between the animal test species and humans to determine the relevance of the results to humans. This may lead to the possibility of discounting very specific effects of certain types of substances. Life stage-dependent effects on cellular differentiation may also lead to qualitative differences between animals and humans. Only if a mode of action of tumor development is conclusively determined not to be operative in humans may the carcinogenic evidence for that tumor be discounted. However, a weight of evidence evaluation for a substance calls for any other tumorigenic activity to be evaluated, as well.
</P>
<HD2>Responses in Multiple Animal Experiments
</HD2>
<P>Positive responses in several species add to the weight of evidence that a substance is a carcinogen. Taking into account all of the factors listed in A.6.2.5.2 and more, such chemicals with positive outcomes in two or more species would be provisionally considered to be classified in GHS Category 1B until human relevance of animal results are assessed in their entirety. It should be noted, however, that positive results for one species in at least two independent studies, or a single positive study showing unusually strong evidence of malignancy may also lead to Category 1B.


</P>
<HD2>Responses Are in One Sex or Both Sexes
</HD2>
<P>Any case of sex-specific tumors should be evaluated in light of the total tumorigenic response to the substance observed at other sites (multi-site responses or incidence above background) in determining the carcinogenic potential of the substance.
</P>
<P>If tumors are seen only in one sex of an animal species, the mode of action should be carefully evaluated to see if the response is consistent with the postulated mode of action. Effects seen only in one sex in a test species may be less convincing than effects seen in both sexes, unless there is a clear patho-physiological difference consistent with the mode of action to explain the single sex response.




</P>
<HD2>Confounding Effects of Excessive Toxicity or Localized Effects
</HD2>
<P>Tumors occurring only at excessive doses associated with severe toxicity generally have doubtful potential for carcinogenicity in humans. In addition, tumors occurring only at sites of contact and/or only at excessive doses need to be carefully evaluated for human relevance for carcinogenic hazard. For example, forestomach tumors, following administration by gavage of an irritating or corrosive, non-mutagenic chemical, may be of questionable relevance. However, such determinations must be evaluated carefully in justifying the carcinogenic potential for humans; any occurrence of other tumors at distant sites must also be considered.
</P>
<HD2>Tumor Type, Reduced Tumor Latency
</HD2>
<P>Unusual tumor types or tumors occurring with reduced latency may add to the weight of evidence for the carcinogenic potential of a substance, even if the tumors are not statistically significant.
</P>
<P>Toxicokinetic behavior is normally assumed to be similar in animals and humans, at least from a qualitative perspective. On the other hand, certain tumor types in animals may be associated with toxicokinetics or toxicodynamics that are unique to the animal species tested and may not be predictive of carcinogenicity in humans. Very few such examples have been agreed internationally. However, one example is the lack of human relevance of kidney tumors in male rats associated with compounds causing α2u-globulin nephropathy (IARC, Scientific Publication N° 147 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>). Even when a particular tumor type may be discounted, expert judgment must be used in assessing the total tumor profile in any animal experiment.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> While most international agencies do not consider kidney tumors coincident with α2u-globulin nephropathy to be a predictor of risk in humans, this view is not universally held. (See: Doi et al., 2007).</P></FTNT>
<HD1>Part B: International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD1>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Preamble of the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) “Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Humans” (2006).</P></FTNT>
<P>IARC Carcinogen Classification Categories:
</P>
<P>Group 1: The agent is <I>carcinogenic to humans</I>
</P>
<P>This category is used when there is <I>sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in humans. Exceptionally, an agent may be placed in this category when evidence of carcinogenicity in humans is less than <I>sufficient</I> but there is <I>sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in experimental animals and strong evidence in exposed humans that the agent acts through a relevant mechanism of carcinogenicity.
</P>
<P>Group 2:
</P>
<P>This category includes agents for which, at one extreme, the degree of evidence of carcinogenicity in humans is almost <I>sufficient,</I> as well as those for which, at the other extreme, there are no human data but for which there is evidence of carcinogenicity in experimental animals. Agents are assigned to either Group 2A (<I>probably carcinogenic to humans</I>) or Group 2B (<I>possibly carcinogenic to humans</I>) on the basis of epidemiological and experimental evidence of carcinogenicity and mechanistic and other relevant data. The terms <I>probably carcinogenic</I> and <I>possibly carcinogenic</I> have no quantitative significance and are used simply as descriptors of different levels of evidence of human carcinogenicity, with <I>probably carcinogenic</I> signifying a higher level of evidence than <I>possibly carcinogenic.</I>
</P>
<P>Group 2A: The agent is <I>probably carcinogenic to human.</I>
</P>
<P>This category is used when there is <I>limited evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in humans and <I>sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in experimental animals. In some cases, an agent may be classified in this category when there is <I>inadequate evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in humans and <I>sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in experimental animals and strong evidence that the carcinogenesis is mediated by a mechanism that also operates in humans. Exceptionally, an agent may be classified in this category solely on the basis of <I>limited evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in humans. An agent may be assigned to this category if it clearly belongs, based on mechanistic considerations, to a class of agents for which one or more members have been classified in Group 1 or Group 2A.
</P>
<P>Group 2B: The agent is <I>possibly carcinogenic to humans.</I>
</P>
<P>This category is used for agents for which there is <I>limited evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in humans and less than <I>sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in experimental animals. It may also be used when there is <I>inadequate evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in humans but there is <I>sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in experimental animals. In some instances, an agent for which there is <I>inadequate evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in humans and less than <I>sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity</I> in experimental animals together with supporting evidence from mechanistic and other relevant data may be placed in this group. An agent may be classified in this category solely on the basis of strong evidence from mechanistic and other relevant data.
</P>
<HD1>Part C: National Toxicology Program (NTP), “Report on Carcinogens”, Background Guidance
</HD1>
<HD2>NTP Listing Criteria 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>See:</I> http://ntp.niehs.nih.gov/go/15209.</P></FTNT>
<P>The criteria for listing an agent, substance, mixture, or exposure circumstance in the Report on Carcinogens (RoC) are as follows:
</P>
<P>Known To Be A Human Carcinogen: There is sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity from studies in humans 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> that indicates a causal relationship between exposure to the agent, substance, or mixture, and human cancer.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> This evidence can include traditional cancer epidemiology studies, data from clinical studies, and/or data derived from the study of tissues or cells from humans exposed to the substance in question that can be useful for evaluating whether a relevant cancer mechanism is operating in people.</P></FTNT>
<P>Reasonably Anticipated To Be A Human Carcinogen: There is limited evidence of carcinogenicity from studies in humans that indicates that a causal interpretation is credible, but that alternative explanations, such as chance, bias, or confounding factors, could not adequately be excluded,
</P>
<FP><I>or</I>
</FP>
<FP>there is sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity from studies in experimental animals that indicates there is an increased incidence of malignant and/or a combination of malignant and benign tumors in multiple species or at multiple tissue sites, or by multiple routes of exposure, or to an unusual degree with regard to incidence, site, or type of tumor, or age at onset,
</FP>
<FP><I>or</I>
</FP>
<FP>there is less than sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity in humans or laboratory animals; however, the agent, substance, or mixture belongs to a well-defined, structurally-related class of substances whose members are listed in a previous Report on Carcinogens as either known to be a human carcinogen or reasonably anticipated to be a human carcinogen, or there is convincing relevant information that the agent acts through mechanisms indicating it would likely cause cancer in humans.
</FP>
<P>Conclusions regarding carcinogenicity in humans or experimental animals are based on scientific judgment, with consideration given to all relevant information. Relevant information includes, but is not limited to, dose response, route of exposure, chemical structure, metabolism, pharmacokinetics, sensitive sub-populations, genetic effects, or other data relating to mechanism of action or factors that may be unique to a given substance. For example, there may be substances for which there is evidence of carcinogenicity in laboratory animals, but there are compelling data indicating that the agent acts through mechanisms that do not operate in humans and would therefore not reasonably be anticipated to cause cancer in humans.
</P>
<HD1>Part D: Table Relating Approximate Equivalences Among IARC, NTP RoC, and GHS Carcinogenicity Classifications
</HD1>
<P>The following table may be used to perform hazard classifications for carcinogenicity under the HCS (§ 1910.1200). It relates the approximated GHS hazard categories for carcinogenicity to the classifications provided by IARC and NTP, as described in Parts B and C of this Appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Approximate Equivalences Among Carcinogen Classification Schemes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">IARC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">GHS
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NTP RoC
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Group 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Category 1A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Known.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Group 2A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Category 1B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reasonably Anticipated (See Note 1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Group 2B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Category 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reasonably Anticipated (See Note 1).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Note 1:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Limited evidence of carcinogenicity from studies in humans (corresponding to IARC 2A/GHS 1B);</I>
</P>
<P>2. <I>Sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity from studies in experimental animals (again, essentially corresponding to IARC 2A/GHS 1B);</I>
</P>
<P>3. <I>Less than sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity in humans or laboratory animals; however:</I>
</P>
<P>a. <I>The agent, substance, or mixture belongs to a well-defined, structurally-related class of substances whose members are listed in a previous RoC as either “Known” or “Reasonably Anticipated” to be a human carcinogen, or</I>
</P>
<P>b. <I>There is convincing relevant information that the agent acts through mechanisms indicating it would likely cause cancer in humans.</I>


</P>
<HD1>*References
</HD1>
<FP-2>Cohen, S.M., J. Klaunig, M.E. Meek, R.N. Hill, T. Pastoor, L. Lehman-McKeeman, J. Bucher, D.G. Longfellow, J. Seed, V. Dellarco, P. Fenner-Crisp, and D. Patton. 2004. Evaluating the human relevance of chemically induced animal tumors. <I>Toxicol. Sci.</I> 78(2):181-186.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Cohen, S.M., M.E. Meek, J.E. Klaunig, D.E. Patton, P.A. Fenner-Crisp. 2003. The human relevance of information on carcinogenic modes of action: Overview. <I>Crit. Rev. Toxicol.</I> 33(6):581-9.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Meek, M.E., J.R. Bucher, S.M. Cohen, V. Dellarco, R.N. Hill, L. Lehman-McKeeman, D.G. Longfellow, T. Pastoor, J. Seed, D.E. Patton. 2003. A framework for human relevance analysis of information on carcinogenic modes of action. <I>Crit. Rev. Toxicol.</I> 33(6):591-653.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Sonich-Mullin, C., R. Fielder, J. Wiltse, K. Baetcke, J. Dempsey, P. Fenner-Crisp, D. Grant, M. Hartley, A. Knapp, D. Kroese, I. Mangelsdorf, E. Meek, J.M. Rice, and M. Younes. 2001. The conceptual framework for evaluating a mode of action for chemical carcinogenesis. <I>Reg. Toxicol. Pharm.</I> 34:146-152.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>International Programme on Chemical Safety Harmonization Group. 2004. Report of the First Meeting of the Cancer Working Group. World Health Organization. Report IPCS/HSC-CWG-1/04. Geneva.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>International Agency for Research on Cancer. IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of Carcinogenic Risks to Human. Preambles to Volumes. World Health Organization. Lyon, France.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Cohen, S.M., P.A. Fenner-Crisp, and D.E. Patton. 2003. Special Issue: Cancer Modes of Action and Human Relevance. Critical Reviews in Toxicology, R.O. McClellan, ed., Volume 33/Issue 6. CRC Press.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capen, C.C., E. Dybing, and J.D. Wilbourn. 1999. Species differences in thyroid, kidney and urinary bladder carcinogenesis. International Agency for Research on Cancer, Scientific Publication N° 147.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Doi, A.M., G. Hill, J. Seely, J.R. Hailey, G. Kissling, and J.R. Buchera. 2007. α2u-Globulin nephropathy and renal tumors in National Toxicology Program studies. <I>Toxicol. Pathol.</I> 35:533-540.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 6170, Feb. 9, 1994, as amended at 59 FR 17479, Apr. 13, 1994; 59 FR 65948, Dec. 22, 1994; 61 FR 9245, Mar. 7, 1996; 77 FR 17785, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 9313, Feb. 8, 2013; 89 FR 44356, May 20, 2024; 89 FR 81830, Oct. 9, 2024; 91 FR 565, Jan. 8, 2026; 91 FR 1696, Jan. 15, 2026; 91 FR 6760, Feb. 13, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1201" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1201   Retention of DOT markings, placards and labels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employer who receives a package of hazardous material which is required to be marked, labeled or placarded in accordance with the U. S. Department of Transportation's Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR Parts 171 through 180) shall retain those markings, labels and placards on the package until the packaging is sufficiently cleaned of residue and purged of vapors to remove any potential hazards.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employer who receives a freight container, rail freight car, motor vehicle, or transport vehicle that is required to be marked or placarded in accordance with the Hazardous Materials Regulations shall retain those markings and placards on the freight container, rail freight car, motor vehicle or transport vehicle until the hazardous materials which require the marking or placarding are sufficiently removed to prevent any potential hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) Markings, placards and labels shall be maintained in a manner that ensures that they are readily visible.
</P>
<P>(d) For non-bulk packages which will not be reshipped, the provisions of this section are met if a label or other acceptable marking is affixed in accordance with the Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200).
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of this section, the term “hazardous material” and any other terms not defined in this section have the same definition as in the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR Parts 171 through 180).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 36700, July 19, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1910.1450" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1910.1450   Occupational exposure to hazardous chemicals in laboratories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section shall apply to all employers engaged in the laboratory use of hazardous chemicals as defined below.
</P>
<P>(2) Where this section applies, it shall supersede, for laboratories, the requirements of all other OSHA health standards in 29 CFR part 1910, subpart Z, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For any OSHA health standard, only the requirement to limit employee exposure to the specific permissible exposure limit shall apply for laboratories, unless that particular standard states otherwise or unless the conditions of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibition of eye and skin contact where specified by any OSHA health standard shall be observed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the action level (or in the absence of an action level, the permissible exposure limit) is routinely exceeded for an OSHA regulated substance with exposure monitoring and medical surveillance requirements, paragraphs (d) and (g)(1)(ii) of this section shall apply.
</P>
<P>(3) This section shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Uses of hazardous chemicals which do not meet the definition of laboratory use, and in such cases, the employer shall comply with the relevant standard in 29 CFR part 1910, subpart Z, even if such use occurs in a laboratory.
</P>
<P>(ii) Laboratory uses of hazardous chemicals which provide no potential for employee exposure. Examples of such conditions might include:
</P>
<P>(A) Procedures using chemically-impregnated test media such as Dip-and-Read tests where a reagent strip is dipped into the specimen to be tested and the results are interpreted by comparing the color reaction to a color chart supplied by the manufacturer of the test strip; and
</P>
<P>(B) Commercially prepared kits such as those used in performing pregnancy tests in which all of the reagents needed to conduct the test are contained in the kit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration designated in 29 CFR part 1910 for a specific substance, calculated as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average, which initiates certain required activities such as exposure monitoring and medical surveillance.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Carcinogen</I> (see <I>select carcinogen</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Hygiene Officer</I> means an employee who is designated by the employer, and who is qualified by training or experience, to provide technical guidance in the development and implementation of the provisions of the Chemical Hygiene Plan. This definition is not intended to place limitations on the position description or job classification that the designated indvidual shall hold within the employer's organizational structure.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Hygiene Plan</I> means a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth procedures, equipment, personal protective equipment and work practices that (i) are capable of protecting employees from the health hazards presented by hazardous chemicals used in that particular workplace and (ii) meets the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Designated area</I> means an area which may be used for work with “select carcinogens,” reproductive toxins or substances which have a high degree of acute toxicity. A designated area may be the entire laboratory, an area of a laboratory or a device such as a laboratory hood.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers or failure of control equipment which results in an uncontrolled release of a hazardous chemical into the workplace.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an individual employed in a laboratory workplace who may be exposed to hazardous chemicals in the course of his or her assignments.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous chemical</I> means any chemical which is classified as health hazard or simple asphyxiant in accordance with the Hazard Communication Standard (§ 1910.1200).
</P>
<P><I>Health hazard</I> means a chemical that is classified as posing one of the following hazardous effects: Acute toxicity (any route of exposure); skin corrosion or irritation; serious eye damage or eye irritation; respiratory or skin sensitization; germ cell mutagenicity; carcinogenity; reproductive toxicity; specific target organ toxicity (single or repeated exposure); aspiration hazard. The criteria for determining whether a chemical is classified as a health hazard are detailed in appendix A of the Hazard Communication Standard (§ 1910.1200) and § 1910.1200(c) (definition of “simple asphyxiant”).
</P>
<P><I>Laboratory</I> means a facility where the “laboratory use of hazardous chemicals” occurs. It is a workplace where relatively small quantities of hazardous chemicals are used on a non-production basis.
</P>
<P><I>Laboratory scale</I> means work with substances in which the containers used for reactions, transfers, and other handling of substances are designed to be easily and safely manipulated by one person. “Laboratory scale” excludes those workplaces whose function is to produce commercial quantities of materials.
</P>
<P><I>Laboratory-type hood</I> means a device located in a laboratory, enclosure on five sides with a moveable sash or fixed partial enclosed on the remaining side; constructed and maintained to draw air from the laboratory and to prevent or minimize the escape of air contaminants into the laboratory; and allows chemical manipulations to be conducted in the enclosure without insertion of any portion of the employee's body other than hands and arms.
</P>
<P>Walk-in hoods with adjustable sashes meet the above definition provided that the sashes are adjusted during use so that the airflow and the exhaust of air contaminants are not compromised and employees do not work inside the enclosure during the release of airborne hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<P><I>Laboratory use of hazardous chemicals</I> means handling or use of such chemicals in which all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Chemical manipulations are carried out on a “laboratory scale;”
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiple chemical procedures or chemicals are used;
</P>
<P>(iii) The procedures involved are not part of a production process, nor in any way simulate a production process; and
</P>
<P>(iv) “Protective laboratory practices and equipment” are available and in common use to minimize the potential for employee exposure to hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<P><I>Medical consultation</I> means a consultation which takes place between an employee and a licensed physician for the purpose of determining what medical examinations or procedures, if any, are appropriate in cases where a significant exposure to a hazardous chemical may have taken place.
</P>
<P><I>Mutagen</I> means chemicals that cause permanent changes in the amount or structure of the genetic material in a cell. Chemicals classified as mutagens in accordance with the Hazard Communication Standard (§ 1910.1200) shall be considered mutagens for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Physical hazard</I> means a chemical that is classified as posing one of the following hazardous effects: Explosive; flammable (gases, aerosols, liquids, or solids); oxidizer (liquid, solid, or gas); self reactive; pyrophoric (gas, liquid or solid); self-heating; organic peroxide; corrosive to metal; gas under pressure; in contact with water emits flammable gas; or combustible dust. The criteria for determining whether a chemical is classified as a physical hazard are in appendix B of the Hazard Communication Standard (§ 1910.1200) and § 1910.1200(c) (definitions of “combustible dust” and “pyrophoric gas”).
</P>
<P><I>Protective laboratory practices and equipment</I> means those laboratory procedures, practices and equipment accepted by laboratory health and safety experts as effective, or that the employer can show to be effective, in minimizing the potential for employee exposure to hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<P><I>Reproductive toxins</I> mean chemicals that affect the reproductive capabilities including adverse effects on sexual function and fertility in adult males and females, as well as adverse effects on the development of the offspring. Chemicals classified as reproductive toxins in accordance with the Hazard Communication Standard (§ 1910.1200) shall be considered reproductive toxins for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Select carcinogen</I> means any substance which meets one of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) It is regulated by OSHA as a carcinogen; or
</P>
<P>(ii) It is listed under the category, “known to be carcinogens,” in the Annual Report on Carcinogens published by the National Toxicology Program (NTP) (latest edition); or
</P>
<P>(iii) It is listed under Group 1 (“carcinogenic to humans”) by the International Agency for Research on Cancer Monographs (IARC) (latest editions); or
</P>
<P>(iv) It is listed in either Group 2A or 2B by IARC or under the category, “reasonably anticipated to be carcinogens” by NTP, and causes statistically significant tumor incidence in experimental animals in accordance with any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) After inhalation exposure of 6-7 hours per day, 5 days per week, for a significant portion of a lifetime to dosages of less than 10 mg/m
<SU>3</SU>;
</P>
<P>(B) After repeated skin application of less than 300 (mg/kg of body weight) per week; or
</P>
<P>(C) After oral dosages of less than 50 mg/kg of body weight per day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits.</I> For laboratory uses of OSHA regulated substances, the employer shall assure that laboratory employees' exposures to such substances do not exceed the permissible exposure limits specified in 29 CFR part 1910, subpart Z.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee exposure determination</I>—(1) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> The employer shall measure the employee's exposure to any substance regulated by a standard which requires monitoring if there is reason to believe that exposure levels for that substance routinely exceed the action level (or in the absence of an action level, the PEL).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic monitoring.</I> If the initial monitoring prescribed by paragraph (d)(1) of this section discloses employee exposure over the action level (or in the absence of an action level, the PEL), the employer shall immediately comply with the exposure monitoring provisions of the relevant standard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> Monitoring may be terminated in accordance with the relevant standard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> The employer shall, within 15 working days after the receipt of any monitoring results, notify the employee of these results in writing either individually or by posting results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Chemical hygiene plan—General.</I> (Appendix A of this section is non-mandatory but provides guidance to assist employers in the development of the Chemical Hygiene Plan.)
</P>
<P>(1) Where hazardous chemicals as defined by this standard are used in the workplace, the employer shall develop and carry out the provisions of a written Chemical Hygiene Plan which is:
</P>
<P>(i) Capable of protecting employees from health hazards associated with hazardous chemicals in that laboratory and
</P>
<P>(ii) Capable of keeping exposures below the limits specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Chemical Hygiene Plan shall be readily available to employees, employee representatives and, upon request, to the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) The Chemical Hygiene Plan shall include each of the following elements and shall indicate specific measures that the employer will take to ensure laboratory employee protection:
</P>
<P>(i) Standard operating procedures relevant to safety and health considerations to be followed when laboratory work involves the use of hazardous chemicals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Criteria that the employer will use to determine and implement control measures to reduce employee exposure to hazardous chemicals including engineering controls, the use of personal protective equipment and hygiene practices; particular attention shall be given to the selection of control measures for chemicals that are known to be extremely hazardous;
</P>
<P>(iii) A requirement that fume hoods and other protective equipment are functioning properly and specific measures that shall be taken to ensure proper and adequate performance of such equipment;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provisions for employee information and training as prescribed in paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The circumstances under which a particular laboratory operation, procedure or activity shall require prior approval from the employer or the employer's designee before implementation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provisions for medical consultation and medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) Designation of personnel responsible for implementation of the Chemical Hygiene Plan including the assignment of a Chemical Hygiene Officer and, if appropriate, establishment of a Chemical Hygiene Committee; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Provisions for additional employee protection for work with particularly hazardous substances. These include “select carcinogens,” reproductive toxins and substances which have a high degree of acute toxicity. Specific consideration shall be given to the following provisions which shall be included where appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Establishment of a designated area;
</P>
<P>(B) Use of containment devices such as fume hoods or glove boxes;
</P>
<P>(C) Procedures for safe removal of contaminated waste; and
</P>
<P>(D) Decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall review and evaluate the effectiveness of the Chemical Hygiene Plan at least annually and update it as necessary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (1) The employer shall provide employees with information and training to ensure that they are apprised of the hazards of chemicals present in their work area.
</P>
<P>(2) Such information shall be provided at the time of an employee's initial assignment to a work area where hazardous chemicals are present and prior to assignments involving new exposure situations. The frequency of refresher information and training shall be determined by the employer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information.</I> Employees shall be informed of:
</P>
<P>(i) The contents of this standard and its appendices which shall be made available to employees;
</P>
<P>(ii) The location and availability of the employer's Chemical Hygiene Plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The permissible exposure limits for OSHA regulated substances or recommended exposure limits for other hazardous chemicals where there is no applicable OSHA standard;
</P>
<P>(iv) Signs and symptoms associated with exposures to hazardous chemicals used in the laboratory; and
</P>
<P>(v) The location and availability of known reference material on the hazards, safe handling, storage and disposal of hazardous chemicals found in the laboratory including, but not limited to, safety data sheets received from the chemical supplier.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training.</I> (i) Employee training shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) Methods and observations that may be used to detect the presence or release of a hazardous chemical (such as monitoring conducted by the employer, continuous monitoring devices, visual appearance or odor of hazardous chemicals when being released, etc.);
</P>
<P>(B) The physical and health hazards of chemicals in the work area; and
</P>
<P>(C) The measures employees can take to protect themselves from these hazards, including specific procedures the employer has implemented to protect employees from exposure to hazardous chemicals, such as appropriate work practices, emergency procedures, and personal protective equipment to be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee shall be trained on the applicable details of the employer's written Chemical Hygiene Plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Medical consultation and medical examinations.</I> (1) The employer shall provide all employees who work with hazardous chemicals an opportunity to receive medical attention, including any follow-up examinations which the examining physician determines to be necessary, under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Whenever an employee develops signs or symptoms associated with a hazardous chemical to which the employee may have been exposed in the laboratory, the employee shall be provided an opportunity to receive an appropriate medical examination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where exposure monitoring reveals an exposure level routinely above the action level (or in the absence of an action level, the PEL) for an OSHA regulated substance for which there are exposure monitoring and medical surveillance requirements, medical surveillance shall be established for the affected employee as prescribed by the particular standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever an event takes place in the work area such as a spill, leak, explosion or other occurrence resulting in the likelihood of a hazardous exposure, the affected employee shall be provided an opportunity for a medical consultation. Such consultation shall be for the purpose of determining the need for a medical examination.
</P>
<P>(2) All medical examinations and consultations shall be performed by or under the direct supervision of a licensed physician and shall be provided without cost to the employee, without loss of pay and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the physician:
</P>
<P>(i) The identity of the hazardous chemical(s) to which the employee may have been exposed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the conditions under which the exposure occurred including quantitative exposure data, if available; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the signs and symptoms of exposure that the employee is experiencing, if any.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) For examination or consultation required under this standard, the employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician which shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Any recommendation for further medical follow-up;
</P>
<P>(B) The results of the medical examination and any associated tests;
</P>
<P>(C) Any medical condition which may be revealed in the course of the examination which may place the employee at increased risk as a result of exposure to a hazardous chemical found in the workplace; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the consultation or medical examination and any medical condition that may require further examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written opinion shall not reveal specific findings of diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hazard identification.</I> (1) With respect to labels and safety data sheets:
</P>
<P>(i) Employers shall ensure that labels on incoming containers of hazardous chemicals are not removed or defaced.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers shall maintain any safety data sheets that are received with incoming shipments of hazardous chemicals, and ensure that they are readily accessible to laboratory employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The following provisions shall apply to chemical substances developed in the laboratory:
</P>
<P>(i) If the composition of the chemical substance which is produced exclusively for the laboratory's use is known, the employer shall determine if it is a hazardous chemical as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. If the chemical is determined to be hazardous, the employer shall provide appropriate training as required under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the chemical produced is a byproduct whose composition is not known, the employer shall assume that the substance is hazardous and shall implement paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the chemical substance is produced for another user outside of the laboratory, the employer shall comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200) including the requirements for preparation of safety data sheets and labeling.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Use of respirators.</I> Where the use of respirators is necessary to maintain exposure below permissible exposure limits, the employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, the proper respiratory equipment. Respirators shall be selected and used in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) The employer shall establish and maintain for each employee an accurate record of any measurements taken to monitor employee exposures and any medical consultation and examinations including tests or written opinions required by this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that such records are kept, transferred, and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20.
</P>
<P>(k) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligation.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1910.1450—National Research Council Recommendations Concerning Chemical Hygiene In Laboratories (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>To assist employers in developing an appropriate laboratory Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP), the following non-mandatory recommendations were based on the National Research Council's (NRC) 2011 edition of “Prudent Practices in the Laboratory: Handling and Management of Chemical Hazards.” This reference, henceforth referred to as “Prudent Practices,” is available from the National Academies Press, 500 Fifth Street NW., Washington DC 20001 (<I>www.nap.edu</I>). “Prudent Practices” is cited because of its wide distribution and acceptance and because of its preparation by recognized authorities in the laboratory community through the sponsorship of the NRC. However, these recommendations do not modify any requirements of the OSHA Laboratory standard. This appendix presents pertinent recommendations from “Prudent Practices,” organized into a form convenient for quick reference during operation of a laboratory and during development and application of a CHP. For a detailed explanation and justification for each recommendation, consult “Prudent Practices.”
</P>
<P>“Prudent Practices” deals with both general laboratory safety and many types of chemical hazards, while the Laboratory standard is concerned primarily with chemical health hazards as a result of chemical exposures. The recommendations from “Prudent Practices” have been paraphrased, combined, or otherwise reorganized in order to adapt them for this purpose. However, their sense has not been changed.
</P>
<P>Section F contains information from the U.S. Chemical Safety Board's (CSB) Fiscal Year 2011 Annual Performance and Accountability report and Section F contains recommendations extracted from the CSB's 2011 case study, “Texas Tech University Laboratory Explosion,” available from: <I>http://www.csb.gov/.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Culture of Safety
</HD1>
<P>With the promulgation of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Laboratory standard (29 CFR 1910.1450), a culture of safety consciousness, accountability, organization, and education has developed in industrial, governmental, and academic laboratories. Safety and training programs have been implemented to promote the safe handling of chemicals from ordering to disposal, and to train laboratory personnel in safe practices. Laboratory personnel must realize that the welfare and safety of each individual depends on clearly defined attitudes of teamwork and personal responsibility. Learning to participate in this culture of habitual risk assessment, experiment planning, and consideration of worst-case possibilities—for oneself and one's fellow workers—is as much part of a scientific education as learning the theoretical background of experiments or the step-by-step protocols for doing them in a professional manner. A crucial component of chemical education for all personnel is to nurture basic attitudes and habits of prudent behavior so that safety is a valued and inseparable part of all laboratory activities throughout their career.
</P>
<P>Over the years, special techniques have been developed for handling chemicals safely. Local, state, and federal regulations hold institutions that sponsor chemical laboratories accountable for providing safe working environments. Beyond regulation, employers and scientists also hold themselves personally responsible for their own safety, the safety of their colleagues and the safety of the general public. A sound safety organization that is respected by all requires the participation and support of laboratory administrators, workers, and students. A successful health and safety program requires a daily commitment from everyone in the organization. To be most effective, safety and health must be balanced with, and incorporated into, laboratory processes. A strong safety and health culture is the result of positive workplace attitudes—from the chief executive officer to the newest hire; involvement and buy-in of all members of the workforce; mutual, meaningful, and measurable safety and health improvement goals; and policies and procedures that serve as reference tools, rather than obscure rules.
</P>
<P>In order to perform their work in a prudent manner, laboratory personnel must consider the health, physical, and environmental hazards of the chemicals they plan to use in an experiment. However, the ability to accurately identify and assess laboratory hazards must be taught and encouraged through training and ongoing organizational support. This training must be at the core of every good health and safety program. For management to lead, personnel to assess worksite hazards, and hazards to be eliminated or controlled, everyone involved must be trained.
</P>
<HD2>A. General Principles
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Minimize All Chemical Exposures and Risks
</HD3>
<P>Because few laboratory chemicals are without hazards, general precautions for handling all laboratory chemicals should be adopted. In addition to these general guidelines, specific guidelines for chemicals that are used frequently or are particularly hazardous should be adopted.
</P>
<P>Laboratory personnel should conduct their work under conditions that minimize the risks from both known and unknown hazardous substances. Before beginning any laboratory work, the hazards and risks associated with an experiment or activity should be determined and the necessary safety precautions implemented. Every laboratory should develop facility-specific policies and procedures for the highest-risk materials and procedures used in their laboratory. To identify these, consideration should be given to past accidents, process conditions, chemicals used in large volumes, and particularly hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<P>Perform Risk Assessments for Hazardous Chemicals and Procedures Prior to Laboratory Work:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify chemicals to be used, amounts required, and circumstances of use in the experiment. Consider any special employee or laboratory conditions that could create or increase a hazard. Consult sources of safety and health information and experienced scientists to ensure that those conducting the risk assessment have sufficient expertise.
</P>
<P>(b) Evaluate the hazards posed by the chemicals and the experimental conditions. The evaluation should cover toxic, physical, reactive, flammable, explosive, radiation, and biological hazards, as well as any other potential hazards posed by the chemicals.
</P>
<P>(c) For a variety of physical and chemical reasons, reaction scale-ups pose special risks, which merit additional prior review and precautions.
</P>
<P>(d) Select appropriate controls to minimize risk, including use of engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment (PPE) to protect workers from hazards. The controls must ensure that OSHA's Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs) are not exceeded. Prepare for contingencies and be aware of the institutional procedures in the event of emergencies and accidents.
</P>
<P>One sample approach to risk assessment is to answer these five questions:
</P>
<P>(a) What are the hazards?
</P>
<P>(b) What is the worst thing that could happen?
</P>
<P>(c) What can be done to prevent this from happening?
</P>
<P>(d) What can be done to protect from these hazards?
</P>
<P>(e) What should be done if something goes wrong?
</P>
<HD3>2. Avoid Underestimation of Risk
</HD3>
<P>Even for substances of no known significant hazard, exposure should be minimized; when working with substances that present special hazards, special precautions should be taken. Reference should be made to the safety data sheet (SDS) that is provided for each chemical. Unless otherwise known, one should assume that any mixture will be more toxic than its most toxic component and that all substances of unknown toxicity are toxic.
</P>
<P>Determine the physical and health hazards associated with chemicals before working with them. This determination may involve consulting literature references, laboratory chemical safety summaries (LCSSs), SDSs, or other reference materials. Consider how the chemicals will be processed and determine whether the changing states or forms will change the nature of the hazard. Review your plan, operating limits, chemical evaluations and detailed risk assessment with other chemists, especially those with experience with similar materials and protocols.
</P>
<P>Before working with chemicals, know your facility's policies and procedures for how to handle an accidental spill or fire. Emergency telephone numbers should be posted in a prominent area. Know the location of all safety equipment and the nearest fire alarm and telephone.
</P>
<HD3>3. Adhere to the Hierarchy of Controls
</HD3>
<P>The hierarchy of controls prioritizes intervention strategies based on the premise that the best way to control a hazard is to systematically remove it from the workplace, rather than relying on employees to reduce their exposure. The types of measures that may be used to protect employees (listed from most effective to least effective) are: engineering controls, administrative controls, work practices, and PPE. Engineering controls, such as chemical hoods, physically separate the employee from the hazard. Administrative controls, such as employee scheduling, are established by management to help minimize the employees' exposure time to hazardous chemicals. Work practice controls are tasks that are performed in a designated way to minimize or eliminate hazards. Personal protective equipment and apparel are additional protection provided under special circumstances and when exposure is unavoidable.
</P>
<P>Face and eye protection is necessary to prevent ingestion and skin absorption of hazardous chemicals. At a minimum, safety glasses, with side shields, should be used for all laboratory work. Chemical splash goggles are more appropriate than regular safety glasses to protect against hazards such as projectiles, as well as when working with glassware under reduced or elevated pressures (e.g., sealed tube reactions), when handling potentially explosive compounds (particularly during distillations), and when using glassware in high-temperature operations. Do not allow laboratory chemicals to come in contact with skin. Select gloves carefully to ensure that they are impervious to the chemicals being used and are of correct thickness to allow reasonable dexterity while also ensuring adequate barrier protection.
</P>
<P>Lab coats and gloves should be worn when working with hazardous materials in a laboratory. Wear closed-toe shoes and long pants or other clothing that covers the legs when in a laboratory where hazardous chemicals are used. Additional protective clothing should be used when there is significant potential for skin-contact exposure to chemicals. The protective characteristics of this clothing must be matched to the hazard. Never wear gloves or laboratory coats outside the laboratory or into areas where food is stored and consumed.
</P>
<HD3>4. Provide Laboratory Ventilation
</HD3>
<P>The best way to prevent exposure to airborne substances is to prevent their escape into the working atmosphere by the use of hoods and other ventilation devices. To determine the best choice for laboratory ventilation using engineering controls for personal protection, employers are referred to Table 9.3 of the 2011 edition of “Prudent Practices.” Laboratory chemical hoods are the most important components used to protect laboratory personnel from exposure to hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<P>(a) Toxic or corrosive chemicals that require vented storage should be stored in vented cabinets instead of in a chemical hood.
</P>
<P>(b) Chemical waste should not be disposed of by evaporation in a chemical hood.
</P>
<P>(c) Keep chemical hood areas clean and free of debris at all times.
</P>
<P>(d) Solid objects and materials, such as paper, should be prevented from entering the exhaust ducts as they can reduce the air flow.
</P>
<P>(e) Chemical hoods should be maintained, monitored and routinely tested for proper performance.
</P>
<P>A laboratory ventilation system should include the following characteristics and practices:
</P>
<P>(a) Heating and cooling should be adequate for the comfort of workers and operation of equipment. Before modification of any building HVAC, the impact on laboratory or hood ventilation should be considered, as well as how laboratory ventilation changes may affect the building HVAC.
</P>
<P>(b) A negative pressure differential should exist between the amount of air exhausted from the laboratory and the amount supplied to the laboratory to prevent uncontrolled chemical vapors from leaving the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(c) Local exhaust ventilation devices should be appropriate to the materials and operations in the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(d) The air in chemical laboratories should be continuously replaced so that concentrations of odoriferous or toxic substances do not increase during the workday.
</P>
<P>(e) Laboratory air should not be recirculated but exhausted directly outdoors.
</P>
<P>(f) Air pressure should be negative with respect to the rest of the building. Local capture equipment and systems should be designed only by an experienced engineer or industrial hygienist.
</P>
<P>(g) Ventilation systems should be inspected and maintained on a regular basis. There should be no areas where air remains static or areas that have unusually high airflow velocities.
</P>
<P>Before work begins, laboratory workers should be provided with proper training that includes how to use the ventilation equipment, how to ensure that it is functioning properly, the consequences of improper use, what to do in the event of a system failure or power outage, special considerations, and the importance of signage and postings.
</P>
<HD3>5. Institute a Chemical Hygiene Program
</HD3>
<P>A comprehensive chemical hygiene program is required. It should be designed to minimize exposures, injuries, illnesses and incidents. There should be a regular, continuing effort that includes program oversight, safe facilities, chemical hygiene planning, training, emergency preparedness and chemical security. The chemical hygiene program must be reviewed annually and updated as necessary whenever new processes, chemicals, or equipment is implemented. Its recommendations should be followed in all laboratories.
</P>
<HD3>6. Observe the PELs and TLVs
</HD3>
<P>OSHA's Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs) must not be exceeded. The American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists' Threshold Limit Values (TLVs) should also not be exceeded.
</P>
<HD2>B. Responsibilities
</HD2>
<P>Persons responsible for chemical hygiene include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<HD3>1. Chemical Hygiene Officer
</HD3>
<P>(a) Establishes, maintains, and revises the chemical hygiene plan (CHP).
</P>
<P>(b) Creates and revises safety rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) Monitors procurement, use, storage, and disposal of chemicals.
</P>
<P>(d) Conducts regular inspections of the laboratories, preparations rooms, and chemical storage rooms, and submits detailed laboratory inspection reports to administration.
</P>
<P>(e) Maintains inspection, personnel training, and inventory records.
</P>
<P>(f) Assists laboratory supervisors in developing and maintaining adequate facilities.
</P>
<P>(g) Seeks ways to improve the chemical hygiene program.
</P>
<HD3>2. Department Chairperson or Director
</HD3>
<P>(a) Assumes responsibility for personnel engaged in the laboratory use of hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<P>(b) Provides the chemical hygiene officer (CHO) with the support necessary to implement and maintain the CHP.
</P>
<P>(c) After receipt of laboratory inspection report from the CHO, meets with laboratory supervisors to discuss cited violations and to ensure timely actions to protect trained laboratory personnel and facilities and to ensure that the department remains in compliance with all applicable federal, state, university, local and departmental codes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) Provides budgetary arrangements to ensure the health and safety of the departmental personnel, visitors, and students.
</P>
<P>3. Departmental Safety Committee reviews accident reports and makes appropriate recommendations to the department chairperson regarding proposed changes in the laboratory procedures.
</P>
<P>4. Laboratory Supervisor or Principal Investigator has overall responsibility for chemical hygiene in the laboratory, including responsibility to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure that laboratory personnel comply with the departmental CHP and do not operate equipment or handle hazardous chemicals without proper training and authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) Always wear personal protective equipment (PPE) that is compatible to the degree of hazard of the chemical.
</P>
<P>(c) Follow all pertinent safety rules when working in the laboratory to set an example.
</P>
<P>(d) Review laboratory procedures for potential safety problems before assigning to other laboratory personnel.
</P>
<P>(e) Ensure that visitors follow the laboratory rules and assumes responsibility for laboratory visitors.
</P>
<P>(f) Ensure that PPE is available and properly used by each laboratory employee and visitor.
</P>
<P>(g) Maintain and implement safe laboratory practices.
</P>
<P>(h) Provide regular, formal chemical hygiene and housekeeping inspections, including routine inspections of emergency equipment;
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor the facilities and the chemical fume hoods to ensure that they are maintained and function properly. Contact the appropriate person, as designated by the department chairperson, to report problems with the facilities or the chemical fume hoods.
</P>
<HD3>5. Laboratory Personnel
</HD3>
<P>(a) Read, understand, and follow all safety rules and regulations that apply to the work area;
</P>
<P>(b) Plan and conduct each operation in accordance with the institutional chemical hygiene procedures;
</P>
<P>(c) Promote good housekeeping practices in the laboratory or work area.
</P>
<P>(d) Notify the supervisor of any hazardous conditions or unsafe work practices in the work area.
</P>
<P>(e) Use PPE as appropriate for each procedure that involves hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<HD2>C. The Laboratory Facility
</HD2>
<HD3>General Laboratory Design Considerations
</HD3>
<P>Wet chemical spaces and those with a higher degree of hazard should be separated from other spaces by a wall or protective barrier wherever possible. If the areas cannot be separated, then workers in lower hazard spaces may require additional protection from the hazards in connected spaces.
</P>
<HD3>1. Laboratory Layout and Furnishing
</HD3>
<P>(a) Work surfaces should be chemically resistant, smooth, and easy to clean.
</P>
<P>(b) Hand washing sinks for hazardous materials may require elbow, foot, or electronic controls for safe operation.
</P>
<P>(c) Wet laboratory areas should have chemically resistant, impermeable, slip-resistant flooring.
</P>
<P>(d) Walls should be finished with a material that is easy to clean and maintain.
</P>
<P>(e) Doors should have view panels to prevent accidents and should open in the direction of egress.
</P>
<P>(f) Operable windows should not be present in laboratories, particularly if there are chemical hoods or other local ventilation systems present.
</P>
<HD3>2. Safety Equipment and Utilities
</HD3>
<P>(a) An adequate number and placement of safety showers, eyewash units, and fire extinguishers should be provided for the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) Use of water sprinkler systems is resisted by some laboratories because of the presence of electrical equipment or water-reactive materials, but it is still generally safer to have sprinkler systems installed. A fire large enough to trigger the sprinkler system would have the potential to cause far more destruction than the local water damage.
</P>
<HD2>D. Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
</HD2>
<P>The OSHA Laboratory standard defines a CHP as “a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth procedures, equipment, personal protective equipment and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from the health hazards presented by hazardous chemicals used in that particular workplace.” (29 CFR 1910.1450(b)). The Laboratory Standard requires a CHP: “Where hazardous chemicals as defined by this standard are used in the workplace, the employer shall develop and carry out the provisions of a written Chemical Hygiene Plan.” (29 CFR 1910.1450(e)(1)). The CHP is the foundation of the laboratory safety program and must be reviewed and updated, as needed, and at least on an annual basis to reflect changes in policies and personnel. A CHP should be facility specific and can assist in promoting a culture of safety to protect workers from exposure to hazardous materials.
</P>
<P>1. The Laboratory's CHP must be readily available to workers and capable of protecting workers from health hazards and minimizing exposure. Include the following topics in the CHP:
</P>
<P>(a) Individual chemical hygiene responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(b) Standard operating procedures;
</P>
<P>(c) Personal protective equipment, engineering controls and apparel;
</P>
<P>(d) Laboratory equipment;
</P>
<P>(e) Safety equipment;
</P>
<P>(f) Chemical management;
</P>
<P>(g) Housekeeping;
</P>
<P>(h) Emergency procedures for accidents and spills;
</P>
<P>(i) Chemical waste;
</P>
<P>(j) Training;
</P>
<P>(k) Safety rules and regulations;
</P>
<P>(l) Laboratory design and ventilation;
</P>
<P>(m) Exposure monitoring;
</P>
<P>(n) Compressed gas safety;
</P>
<P>(o) Medical consultation and examination.
</P>
<P>It should be noted that the nature of laboratory work may necessitate addressing biological safety, radiation safety and security issues.
</P>
<HD3>2. Chemical Procurement, Distribution, and Storage
</HD3>
<P>Prudent chemical management includes the following processes:
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Procurement:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Information on proper handling, storage, and disposal should be known to those who will be involved before a substance is received.
</P>
<P>(b) Only containers with adequate identifying labels should be accepted.
</P>
<P>(c) Ideally, a central location should be used for receiving all chemical shipments.
</P>
<P>(d) Shipments with breakage or leakage should be refused or opened in a chemical hood.
</P>
<P>(e) Only the minimum amount of the chemical needed to perform the planned work should be ordered.
</P>
<P>(f) Purchases of high risk chemicals should be reviewed and approved by the CHO.
</P>
<P>(g) Proper protective equipment and handling and storage procedures should be in place before receiving a shipment.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Storage:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Chemicals should be separated and stored according to hazard category and compatibility.
</P>
<P>(b) SDS and label information should be followed for storage requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain existing labels on incoming containers of chemicals and other materials.
</P>
<P>(d) Labels on containers used for storing hazardous chemicals must include the chemical identification and appropriate hazard warnings.
</P>
<P>(e) The contents of all other chemical containers and transfer vessels, including, but not limited to, beakers, flasks, reaction vessels, and process equipment, should be properly identified.
</P>
<P>(f) Chemical shipments should be dated upon receipt and stock rotated.
</P>
<P>(g) Peroxide formers should be dated upon receipt, again dated upon opening, and stored away from heat and light with tight-fitting, nonmetal lids.
</P>
<P>(h) Open shelves used for chemical storage should be secured to the wall and contain 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch lips. Secondary containment devices should be used as necessary.
</P>
<P>(i) Consult the SDS and keep incompatibles separate during transport, storage, use, and disposal.
</P>
<P>(j) Oxidizers, reducing agents, and fuels should be stored separately to prevent contact in the event of an accident.
</P>
<P>(k) Chemicals should not be stored in the chemical hood, on the floor, in areas of egress, on the benchtop, or in areas near heat or in direct sunlight.
</P>
<P>(l) Laboratory-grade, flammable-rated refrigerators and freezers should be used to store sealed chemical containers of flammable liquids that require cool storage. Do not store food or beverages in the laboratory refrigerator.
</P>
<P>(m) Highly hazardous chemicals should be stored in a well-ventilated and secure area designated for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(n) Flammable chemicals should be stored in a spark-free environment and in approved flammable-liquid containers and storage cabinets. Grounding and bonding should be used to prevent static charge buildups when dispensing solvents.
</P>
<P>(o) Chemical storage and handling rooms should be controlled-access areas. They should have proper ventilation, appropriate signage, diked floors, and fire suppression systems.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Handling:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) As described above, a risk assessment should be conducted prior to beginning work with any hazardous chemical for the first time.
</P>
<P>(b) All SDS and label information should be read before using a chemical for the first time.
</P>
<P>(c) Trained laboratory workers should ensure that proper engineering controls (ventilation) and PPE are in place.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical Inventory:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Prudent management of chemicals in any laboratory is greatly facilitated by keeping an accurate inventory of the chemicals stored.
</P>
<P>(b) Unneeded items should be discarded or returned to the storeroom.
</P>
<P><I>Transporting Chemicals:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Secondary containment devices should be used when transporting chemicals.
</P>
<P>(b) When transporting chemicals outside of the laboratory or between stockrooms and laboratories, the transport container should be break-resistant.
</P>
<P>(c) High-traffic areas should be avoided.
</P>
<P><I>Transferring Chemicals:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Use adequate ventilation (such as a fume hood) when transferring even a small amount of a particularly hazardous substance (PHS).
</P>
<P>(b) While drum storage is not appropriate for laboratories, chemical stockrooms may purchase drum quantities of solvents used in high volumes. Ground and bond the drum and receiving vessel when transferring flammable liquids from a drum to prevent static charge buildup.
</P>
<P>(c) If chemicals from commercial sources are repackaged into transfer vessels, the new containers should be labeled with all essential information on the original container.
</P>
<P><I>Shipping Chemicals:</I> Outgoing chemical shipments must meet all applicable Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations and should be authorized and handled by the institutional shipper.
</P>
<HD3>3. Waste Management
</HD3>
<P>A waste management plan should be in place before work begins on any laboratory activity. The plan should utilize the following hierarchy of practices:
</P>
<P>(a) Reduce waste sources. The best approach to minimize waste generation is by reducing the scale of operations, reducing its formation during operations, and, if possible, substituting less hazardous chemicals for a particular operation.
</P>
<P>(b) Reuse surplus materials. Only the amount of material necessary for an experiment should be purchased, and, if possible, materials should be reused.
</P>
<P>(c) Recycle waste. If waste cannot be prevented or minimized, the organization should consider recycling chemicals that can be safely recovered or used as fuel.
</P>
<P>(d) Dispose of waste properly. Sink disposal may not be appropriate. Proper waste disposal methods include incineration, treatment, and land disposal. The organization's environmental health and safety (EHS) office should be consulted in determining which methods are appropriate for different types of waste.
</P>
<P><I>Collection and Storage of Waste:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Chemical waste should be accumulated at or near the point of generation, under the control of laboratory workers.
</P>
<P>(b) Each waste type should be stored in a compatible container pending transfer or disposal. Waste containers should be clearly labeled and kept sealed when not in use.
</P>
<P>(c) Incompatible waste types should be kept separate to ensure that heat generation, gas evolution, or another reaction does not occur.
</P>
<P>(d) Waste containers should be segregated by how they will be managed. Waste containers should be stored in a designated location that does not interfere with normal laboratory operations. Ventilated storage and secondary containment may be appropriate for certain waste types.
</P>
<P>(e) Waste containers should be clearly labeled and kept sealed when not in use. Labels should include the accumulation start date and hazard warnings as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) Non-explosive electrical systems, grounding and bonding between floors and containers, and non-sparking conductive floors and containers should be used in the central waste accumulation area to minimize fire and explosion hazards. Fire suppression systems, specialized ventilation systems, and dikes should be installed in the central waste accumulation area. Waste management workers should be trained in proper waste handling procedures as well as contingency planning and emergency response. Trained laboratory workers most familiar with the waste should be actively involved in waste management decisions to ensure that the waste is managed safely and efficiently. Engineering controls should be implemented as necessary, and personal protective equipment should be worn by workers involved in waste management.
</P>
<HD3>4. Inspection Program
</HD3>
<P>Maintenance and regular inspection of laboratory equipment are essential parts of the laboratory safety program. Management should participate in the design of a laboratory inspection program to ensure that the facility is safe and healthy, workers are adequately trained, and proper procedures are being followed.
</P>
<P>Types of inspections: The program should include an appropriate combination of routine inspections, self-audits, program audits, peer inspections, EHS inspections, and inspections by external entities.
</P>
<P>Elements of an inspection:
</P>
<P>(a) Inspectors should bring a checklist to ensure that all issues are covered and a camera to document issues that require correction.
</P>
<P>(b) Conversations with workers should occur during the inspection, as they can provide valuable information and allow inspectors an opportunity to show workers how to fix problems.
</P>
<P>(c) Issues resolved during the inspection should be noted.
</P>
<P>(d) An inspection report containing all findings and recommendations should be prepared for management and other appropriate workers.
</P>
<P>(e) Management should follow-up on the inspection to ensure that all corrections are implemented.
</P>
<HD3>5. Medical Consultation and Examination
</HD3>
<P>The employer must provide all employees who work with hazardous chemicals an opportunity to receive medical attention, including any follow-up examinations that the examining physician determines to be necessary, whenever an employee develops signs or symptoms associated with a hazardous chemical to which the employee may have been exposed in the laboratory. If an employee encounters a spill, leak, explosion or other occurrence resulting in the likelihood of a hazardous exposure, the affected employee must be provided an opportunity for a medical consultation by a licensed physician. All medical examinations and consultations must be performed by or under the direct supervision of a licensed physician and must be provided without cost to the employee, without loss of pay and at a reasonable time and place. The identity of the hazardous chemical, a description of the incident, and any signs and symptoms that the employee may experience must be relayed to the physician.
</P>
<HD3>6. Records
</HD3>
<P>All accident, fatality, illness, injury, and medical records and exposure monitoring records must be retained by the institution in accordance with the requirements of state and federal regulations (see 29 CFR part 1904 and § 1910.1450(j)). Any exposure monitoring results must be provided to affected laboratory staff within 15 working days after receipt of the results (29 CFR 1910.1450(d)(4)).
</P>
<HD3>7. Signs
</HD3>
<P>Prominent signs of the following types should be posted:
</P>
<P>(a) Emergency telephone numbers of emergency personnel/facilities, supervisors, and laboratory workers;
</P>
<P>(b) Location signs for safety showers, eyewash stations, other safety and first aid equipment, and exits; and
</P>
<P>(c) Warnings at areas or equipment where special or unusual hazards exist.
</P>
<HD3>8. Spills and Accidents
</HD3>
<P>Before beginning an experiment, know your facility's policies and procedures for how to handle an accidental release of a hazardous substance, a spill or a fire. Emergency response planning and training are especially important when working with highly toxic compounds. Emergency telephone numbers should be posted in a prominent area. Know the location of all safety equipment and the nearest fire alarm and telephone. Know who to notify in the event of an emergency. Be prepared to provide basic emergency treatment. Keep your co-workers informed of your activities so they can respond appropriately. Safety equipment, including spill control kits, safety shields, fire safety equipment, PPE, safety showers and eyewash units, and emergency equipment should be available in well-marked highly visible locations in all chemical laboratories. The laboratory supervisor or CHO is responsible for ensuring that all personnel are aware of the locations of fire extinguishers and are trained in their use. After an extinguisher has been used, designated personnel must promptly recharge or replace it (29 CFR 1910.157(c)(4)). The laboratory supervisor or CHO is also responsible for ensuring proper training and providing supplementary equipment as needed.
</P>
<P>Special care must be used when handling solutions of chemicals in syringes with needles. Do not recap needles, especially when they have been in contact with chemicals. Remove the needle and discard it immediately after use in the appropriate sharps containers. Blunt-tip needles are available from a number of commercial sources and should be used unless a sharp needle is required to puncture rubber septa or for subcutaneous injection.
</P>
<P>For unattended operations, laboratory lights should be left on, and signs should be posted to identify the nature of the experiment and the hazardous substances in use. Arrangements should be made, if possible, for other workers to periodically inspect the operation. Information should be clearly posted indicating who to contact in the event of an emergency. Depending on the nature of the hazard, special rules, precautions, and alert systems may be necessary.
</P>
<HD3>9. Training and Information
</HD3>
<P>Personnel training at all levels within the organization, is essential. Responsibility and accountability throughout the organization are key elements in a strong safety and health program. The employer is required to provide employees with information and training to ensure that they are apprised of the hazards of chemicals present in their work area (29 CFR 1910.1450(f)). This information must be provided at the time of an employee's initial assignment to a work area where hazardous chemicals are present and prior to assignments involving new exposure situations. The frequency of refresher information and training should be determined by the employer. At a minimum, laboratory personnel should be trained on their facility's specific CHP, methods and observations that may be used to detect the presence or release of a hazardous chemical (such as monitoring conducted by the employer, continuous monitoring devices, visual appearance or odor of hazardous chemicals when being released), the physical and health hazards of chemicals in the work area and means to protect themselves from these hazards. Trained laboratory personnel must know shut-off procedures in case of an emergency. All SDSs must be made available to the employees.
</P>
<HD2>E. General Procedures for Working With Chemicals
</HD2>
<P>The risk of laboratory injuries can be reduced through adequate training, improved engineering, good housekeeping, safe work practice and personal behavior.
</P>
<HD3>1. General Rules for Laboratory Work With Chemicals
</HD3>
<P>(a) Assigned work schedules should be followed unless a deviation is authorized by the laboratory supervisor.
</P>
<P>(b) Unauthorized experiments should not be performed.
</P>
<P>(c) Plan safety procedures before beginning any operation.
</P>
<P>(d) Follow standard operating procedures at all times.
</P>
<P>(e) Always read the SDS and label before using a chemical.
</P>
<P>(f) Wear appropriate PPE at all times.
</P>
<P>(g) To protect your skin from splashes, spills and drips, always wear long pants and closed-toe shoes.
</P>
<P>(h) Use appropriate ventilation when working with hazardous chemicals.
</P>
<P>(i) Pipetting should never be done by mouth.
</P>
<P>(j) Hands should be washed with soap and water immediately after working with any laboratory chemicals, even if gloves have been worn.
</P>
<P>(k) Eating, drinking, smoking, gum chewing, applying cosmetics, and taking medicine in laboratories where hazardous chemicals are used or stored should be strictly prohibited.
</P>
<P>(l) Food, beverages, cups, and other drinking and eating utensils should not be stored in areas where hazardous chemicals are handled or stored.
</P>
<P>(m) Laboratory refrigerators, ice chests, cold rooms, and ovens should not be used for food storage or preparation.
</P>
<P>(n) Contact the laboratory supervisor, Principal Investigator, CHO or EHS office with all safety questions or concerns.
</P>
<P>(o) Know the location and proper use of safety equipment.
</P>
<P>(p) Maintain situational awareness.
</P>
<P>(q) Make others aware of special hazards associated with your work.
</P>
<P>(r) Notify supervisors of chemical sensitivities or allergies.
</P>
<P>(s) Report all injuries, accidents, incidents, and near misses.
</P>
<P>(t) Unauthorized persons should not be allowed in the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(u) Report unsafe conditions to the laboratory supervisor or CHO.
</P>
<P>(v) Properly dispose of chemical wastes.
</P>
<HD3>Working Alone in the Laboratory
</HD3>
<P>Working alone in a laboratory is dangerous and should be strictly avoided. There have been many tragic accidents that illustrate this danger. Accidents are unexpected by definition, which is why coworkers should always be present. Workers should coordinate schedules to avoid working alone.
</P>
<HD3>Housekeeping
</HD3>
<P>Housekeeping can help reduce or eliminate a number of laboratory hazards. Proper housekeeping includes appropriate labeling and storage of chemicals, safe and regular cleaning of the facility, and proper arrangement of laboratory equipment.
</P>
<HD3>2. Nanoparticles and Nanomaterials
</HD3>
<P>Nanoparticles and nanomaterials have different reactivities and interactions with biological systems than bulk materials, and understanding and exploiting these differences is an active area of research. However, these differences also mean that the risks and hazards associated with exposure to engineered nanomaterials are not well known. Because this is an area of ongoing research, consult trusted sources for the most up to date information available. Note that the higher reactivity of many nanoscale materials suggests that they should be treated as potential sources of ignition, accelerants, and fuel that could result in fire or explosion. Easily dispersed dry nanomaterials may pose the greatest health hazard because of the risk of inhalation. Operations involving these nanomaterials deserve more attention and more stringent controls than those where the nanomaterials are embedded in solid or suspended in liquid matrixes.
</P>
<P>Consideration should be given to all possible routes of exposure to nanomaterials including inhalation, ingestion, injection, and dermal contact (including eye and mucous membranes). Avoid handling nanomaterials in the open air in a free-particle state. Whenever possible, handle and store dispersible nanomaterials, whether suspended in liquids or in a dry particle form, in closed (tightly-sealed) containers. Unless cutting or grinding occurs, nanomaterials that are not in a free form (encapsulated in a solid or a nanocomposite) typically will not require engineering controls. If a synthesis is being performed to create nanomaterials, it is not enough to only consider the final material in the risk assessment, but consider the hazardous properties of the precursor materials as well.
</P>
<P>To minimize laboratory personnel exposure, conduct any work that could generate engineered nanoparticles in an enclosure that operates at a negative pressure differential compared to the laboratory personnel breathing zone. Limited data exist regarding the efficacy of PPE and ventilation systems against exposure to nanoparticles. However, until further information is available, it is prudent to follow standard chemical hygiene practices. Conduct a hazard evaluation to determine PPE appropriate for the level of hazard according to the requirements set forth in OSHA's Personal Protective Equipment standard (29 CFR 1910.132).
</P>
<HD3>3. Highly Toxic and Explosive/Reactive Chemicals/Materials
</HD3>
<P>The use of highly toxic and explosive/reactive chemicals and materials has been an area of growing concern. The frequency of academic laboratory incidents in the U.S. is an area of significant concern for the Chemical Safety Board (CSB). The CSB issued a case study on an explosion at Texas Tech University in Lubbock, Texas, which severely injured a graduate student handling a high-energy metal compound. Since 2001, the CSB has gathered preliminary information on 120 different university laboratory incidents that resulted in 87 evacuations, 96 injuries, and three deaths.
</P>
<P>It is recommended that each facility keep a detailed inventory of highly toxic chemicals and explosive/reactive materials. There should be a record of the date of receipt, amount, location, and responsible individual for all acquisitions, syntheses, and disposal of these chemicals. A physical inventory should be performed annually to verify active inventory records. There should be a procedure in place to report security breaches, inventory discrepancies, losses, diversions, or suspected thefts.
</P>
<P>Procedures for disposal of highly toxic materials should be established before any experiments begin, possibly even before the chemicals are ordered. The procedures should address methods for decontamination of any laboratory equipment that comes into contact with highly toxic chemicals. All waste should be accumulated in clearly labeled impervious containers that are stored in unbreakable secondary containment.
</P>
<P>Highly reactive and explosive materials that may be used in the laboratory require appropriate procedures and training. An explosion can occur when a material undergoes a rapid reaction that results in a violent release of energy. Such reactions can happen spontaneously and can produce pressures, gases, and fumes that are hazardous. Some reagents pose a risk on contact with the atmosphere. It is prudent laboratory practice to use a safer alternative whenever possible.
</P>
<P>If at all possible, substitutes for highly acute, chronic, explosive, or reactive chemicals should be considered prior to beginning work and used whenever possible.
</P>
<HD3>4. Compressed Gas
</HD3>
<P>Compressed gases expose laboratory personnel to both chemical and physical hazards. It is essential that these are monitored for leaks and have the proper labeling. By monitoring compressed gas inventories and disposing of or returning gases for which there is no immediate need, the laboratory can substantially reduce these risks. Leaking gas cylinders can cause serious hazards that may require an immediate evacuation of the area and activation of the emergency response system. Only appropriately trained hazmat responders may respond to stop a leaking gas cylinder under this situation.
</P>
<HD2>F. Safety Recommendations—Physical Hazards
</HD2>
<P>Physical hazards in the laboratory include combustible liquids, compressed gases, reactives, explosives and flammable chemicals, as well as high pressure/energy procedures, sharp objects and moving equipment. Injuries can result from bodily contact with rotating or moving objects, including mechanical equipment, parts, and devices. Personnel should not wear loose-fitting clothing, jewelry, or unrestrained long hair around machinery with moving parts.
</P>
<P>The Chemical Safety Board has identified the following key lessons for laboratories that address both physical and other hazards:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that research-specific hazards are evaluated and then controlled by developing specific written protocols and training.
</P>
<P>(2) Expand existing laboratory safety plans to ensure that all safety hazards, including physical hazards of chemicals, are addressed.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that the organization's EHS office reports directly to an identified individual/office with organizational authority to implement safety improvements.
</P>
<P>(4) Develop a verification program that ensures that the safety provisions of the CHP are communicated, followed, and enforced at all levels within the organization.
</P>
<P>(5) Document and communicate all laboratory near-misses and previous incidents to track safety, provide opportunities for education and improvement to drive safety changes at the university.
</P>
<P>(6) Manage the hazards unique to laboratory chemical research in the academic environment. Utilize available practice guidance that identifies and describes methodologies to assess and control hazards.
</P>
<P>(7) Written safety protocols and training are necessary to manage laboratory risk.
</P>
<HD2>G. Emergency Planning
</HD2>
<P>In addition to laboratory safety issues, laboratory personnel should be familiar with established facility policies and procedures regarding emergency situations. Topics may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Evacuation procedures—when it is appropriate and alternate routes;
</P>
<P>(2) Emergency shutdown procedures—equipment shutdown and materials that should be stored safely;
</P>
<P>(3) Communications during an emergency—what to expect, how to report, where to call or look for information;
</P>
<P>(4) How and when to use a fire extinguisher;
</P>
<P>(5) Security issues—preventing tailgating and unauthorized access;
</P>
<P>(6) Protocol for absences due to travel restrictions or illness;
</P>
<P>(7) Safe practices for power outage;
</P>
<P>(8) Shelter in place—when it is appropriate;
</P>
<P>(9) Handling suspicious mail or phone calls;
</P>
<P>(10) Laboratory-specific protocols relating to emergency planning and response;
</P>
<P>(11) Handling violent behavior in the workplace; and
</P>
<P>(12) First-aid and CPR training, including automated external defibrillator training if available.
</P>
<P>It is prudent that laboratory personnel are also trained in how to respond to short-term, long-term and large-scale emergencies. Laboratory security can play a role in reducing the likelihood of some emergencies and assisting in preparation and response for others. Every institution, department, and individual laboratory should consider having an emergency preparedness plan. The level of detail of the plan will vary depending on the function of the group and institutional planning efforts already in place.
</P>
<P>Emergency planning is a dynamic process. As personnel, operations, and events change, plans will need to be updated and modified. To determine the type and level of emergency planning needed, laboratory personnel need to perform a vulnerability assessment. Periodic drills to assist in training and evaluation of the emergency plan are recommended as part of the training program.
</P>
<HD2>H. Emergency Procedures
</HD2>
<P>(1) Fire alarm policy. Most organizations use fire alarms whenever a building needs to be evacuated—for any reason. When a fire alarm sounds in the facility, evacuate immediately after extinguishing all equipment flames. Check on and assist others who may require help evacuating.
</P>
<P>(2) Emergency safety equipment. The following safety elements should be met:
</P>
<P>a. A written emergency action plan has been provided to workers;
</P>
<P>b. Fire extinguishers, eyewash units, and safety showers are available and tested on a regular basis; and
</P>
<P>c. Fire blankets, first-aid equipment, fire alarms, and telephones are available and accessible.
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical spills. Workers should contact the CHO or EHS office for instructions before cleaning up a chemical spill. All SDS and label instructions should be followed, and appropriate PPE should be worn during spill cleanup.
</P>
<P>(4) Accident procedures. In the event of an accident, immediately notify appropriate personnel and local emergency responders. Provide an SDS of any chemical involved to the attending physician. Complete an accident report and submit it to the appropriate office or individual within 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(5) Employee safety training program. New workers should attend safety training before they begin any activities. Additional training should be provided when they advance in their duties or are required to perform a task for the first time. Training documents should be recorded and maintained. Training should include hands-on instruction of how to use safety equipment appropriately.
</P>
<P>(6) Conduct drills. Practice building evacuations, including the use of alternate routes. Practice shelter-in-place, including plans for extended stays. Walk the fastest route from your work area to the nearest fire alarm, emergency eye wash and emergency shower. Learn how each is activated. In the excitement of an actual emergency, people rely on what they learned from drills, practice and training.
</P>
<P>(7) Contingency plans. All laboratories should have long-term contingency plans in place (e.g., for pandemics). Scheduling, workload, utilities and alternate work sites may need to be considered.
</P>
<HD2>I. Laboratory Security
</HD2>
<P>Laboratory security has evolved in the past decade, reducing the likelihood of some emergencies and assisting in preparation and response for others. Most security measures are based on the laboratory's vulnerability. Risks to laboratory security include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Theft or diversion of chemicals, biologicals, and radioactive or proprietary materials, mission-critical or high-value equipment;
</P>
<P>(2) Threats from activist groups;
</P>
<P>(3) Intentional release of, or exposure to, hazardous materials;
</P>
<P>(4) Sabotage or vandalism of chemicals or high-value equipment;
</P>
<P>(5) Loss or release of sensitive information; and
</P>
<P>(6) Rogue work or unauthorized laboratory experimentation. Security systems in the laboratory are used to detect and respond to a security breach, or a potential security breach, as well as to delay criminal activity by imposing multiple layered barriers of increasing stringency. A good laboratory security system will increase overall safety for laboratory personnel and the public, improve emergency preparedness by assisting with preplanning, and lower the organization's liability by incorporating more rigorous planning, staffing, training, and command systems and implementing emergency communications protocols, drills, background checks, card access systems, video surveillance, and other measures. The security plan should clearly delineate response to security issues, including the coordination of institution and laboratory personnel with both internal and external responders. </P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1910.1450—References (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>The following references are provided to assist the employer in the development of a Chemical Hygiene Plan. The materials listed below are offered as non-mandatory guidance. References listed here do not imply specific endorsement of a book, opinion, technique, policy or a specific solution for a safety or health problem. Other references not listed here may better meet the needs of a specific laboratory. (a) Materials for the development of the Chemical Hygiene Plan:
</P>
<P>1. American Chemical Society, Safety in Academic Chemistry Laboratories, 4th edition, 1985.
</P>
<P>2. Fawcett, H.H. and W. S. Wood, Safety and Accident Prevention in Chemical Operations, 2nd edition, Wiley-Interscience, New York, 1982.
</P>
<P>3. Flury, Patricia A., Environmental Health and Safety in the Hospital Laboratory, Charles C. Thomas Publisher, Springfield IL, 1978.
</P>
<P>4. Green, Michael E. and Turk, Amos, Safety in Working with Chemicals, Macmillan Publishing Co., NY, 1978.
</P>
<P>5. Kaufman, James A., Laboratory Safety Guidelines, Dow Chemical Co., Box 1713, Midland, MI 48640, 1977.
</P>
<P>6. National Institutes of Health, NIH Guidelines for the Laboratory use of Chemical Carcinogens, NIH Pub. No. 81-2385, GPO, Washington, DC 20402, 1981.
</P>
<P>7. National Research Council, Prudent Practices for Disposal of Chemicals from Laboratories, National Academy Press, Washington, DC, 1983.
</P>
<P>8. National Research Council, Prudent Practices for Handling Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories, National Academy Press, Washington, DC, 1981.
</P>
<P>9. Renfrew, Malcolm, Ed., Safety in the Chemical Laboratory, Vol. IV, <I>J. Chem. Ed.,</I> American Chemical Society, Easlon, PA, 1981.
</P>
<P>10. Steere, Norman V., Ed., Safety in the Chemical Laboratory, <I>J. Chem. Ed.</I> American Chemical Society, Easlon, PA, 18042, Vol. I, 1967, Vol. II, 1971, Vol. III 1974.
</P>
<P>11. Steere, Norman V., Handbook of Laboratory Safety, the Chemical Rubber Company Cleveland, OH, 1971.
</P>
<P>12. Young, Jay A., Ed., Improving Safety in the Chemical Laboratory, John Wiley &amp; Sons, Inc. New York, 1987.
</P>
<P>(b) Hazardous Substances Information:
</P>
<P>1. American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists, Threshold Limit Values for Chemical Substances and Physical Agents in the Workroom Environment with Intended Changes, 6500 Glenway Avenue, Bldg. D-7 Cincinnati, OH 45211-4438 (latest edition).
</P>
<P>2. Annual Report on Carcinogens, National Toxicology Program U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC, (latest edition).
</P>
<P>3. Best Company, Best Safety Directory, Vols. I and II, Oldwick, N.J., 1981.
</P>
<P>4. Bretherick, L., Handbook of Reactive Chemical Hazards, 2nd edition, Butterworths, London, 1979.
</P>
<P>5. Bretherick, L., Hazards in the Chemical Laboratory, 3rd edition, Royal Society of Chemistry, London, 1986.
</P>
<P>6. Code of Federal Regulations, 29 CFR part 1910 subpart Z. U.S. Govt. Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402 (latest edition).
</P>
<P>7. IARC Monographs on the Evaluation of the Carcinogenic Risk of Chemicals to Man, World Health Organization Publications Center, 49 Sheridan Avenue, Albany, New York 12210 (latest editions).
</P>
<P>8. NIOSH/OSHA Pocket Guide to Chemical Hazards. NIOSH Pub. No. 85-114, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC, 1985 (or latest edition).
</P>
<P>9. Occupational Health Guidelines, NIOSH/OSHA NIOSH Pub. No. 81-123 U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC, 1981.
</P>
<P>10. Patty, F.A., Industrial Hygiene and Toxicology, John Wiley &amp; Sons, Inc., New York, NY (Five Volumes).
</P>
<P>11. Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Centers for Disease Control, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Revised Annually, for sale from Superintendent of Documents U.S. Govt. Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402.
</P>
<P>12. The Merck Index: An Encyclopedia of Chemicals and Drugs. Merck and Company Inc. Rahway, N.J., 1976 (or latest edition).
</P>
<P>13. Sax, N.I. Dangerous Properties of Industrial Materials, 5th edition, Van Nostrand Reinhold, NY., 1979.
</P>
<P>14. Sittig, Marshall, Handbook of Toxic and Hazardous Chemicals, Noyes Publications, Park Ridge, NJ, 1981.
</P>
<P>(c) Information on Ventilation:
</P>
<P>1. American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists Industrial Ventilation (latest edition), 6500 Glenway Avenue, Bldg. D-7, Cincinnati, Ohio 45211-4438.
</P>
<P>2. American National Standards Institute, Inc. American National Standards Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems ANSI Z 9.2-1979 American National Standards Institute, N.Y. 1979.
</P>
<P>3. Imad, A.P. and Watson, C.L. Ventilation Index: An Easy Way to Decide about Hazardous Liquids, Professional Safety pp 15-18, April 1980.
</P>
<P>4. National Fire Protection Association, Fire Protection for Laboratories Using Chemicals NFPA-45, 1982.
</P>
<P>Safety Standard for Laboratories in Health Related Institutions, NFPA, 56c, 1980.
</P>
<P>Fire Protection Guide on Hazardous Materials, 7th edition, 1978.
</P>
<P>National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269.
</P>
<P>5. Scientific Apparatus Makers Association (SAMA), Standard for Laboratory Fume Hoods, SAMA LF7-1980, 1101 16th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20036.
</P>
<P>(d) Information on Availability of Referenced Material:
</P>
<P>1. American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018.
</P>
<P>2. American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 3327, Jan. 31, 1990; 55 FR 7967, Mar. 6, 1990; 55 FR 12111, Mar. 30, 1990; 57 FR 29204, July 1, 1992; 61 FR 5508, Feb. 13, 1996; 71 FR 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17887, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 4325, Jan. 22, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1910.1451-1910.1499" NODE="29:6.1.1.1.1.2.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1910.1451-1910.1499   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Apr. 28, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="7" NODE="29:7" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 7</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvii</E>—Occupational Safety and Health Administration, Department of Labor (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1911


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="29:7.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="XVII" NODE="29:7.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVII—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF LABOR (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1911" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1911—RULES OF PROCEDURE FOR PROMULGATING, MODIFYING, OR REVOKING OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY OR HEALTH STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4, 6, 8, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); secs. 1, 4, Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (41 U.S.C. 35, 38); secs. 2, 4, Service Contracts Act of 1965 (41 U.S.C. 351, 353); sec. 107, Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (Construction Safety Act) (40 U.S.C. 333); sec. 41, Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 941); sec. 5(j)(2), National Foundation on Arts and Humanities Act (20 U.S.C. 954(j)(2)); 5 U.S.C. 553; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393), as applicable. Sections 1911.12 and 1911.18 also issued under 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>36 FR 17507, Sept. 1, 1971, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1911.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth rules of procedure for promulgating, modifying, or revoking occupational safety or health standards under section 6(b) (1), (2), (3), and (4) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 and under any of the particular statutes listed in § 1911.2(d) which may also cover the employments affected by the standards. The purpose of the rules is to provide for single proceedings in the setting of standards under the several statutes, in order to assure uniformity of the standards to be enforced under the several statutes and in order to avoid needless multiplicity of rulemaking proceedings dealing with the same subjects and issues relating to occupational safety and health standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context clearly requires otherwise— 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act</I> means the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (84 Stat. 1590; 29 U.S.C. 650). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard</I> means an occupational safety and health standard which requires conditions, or the adoption or use of one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes, reasonably necessary or appropriate to provide safe or healthful employment and places of employment, and which is to be promulgated, modified, or revoked in accordance with section 6(b) (1), (2), (3), and (4) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Particular statute</I> means any of the following statutes of particular application: The Act of June 30, 1936, commonly known as the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (41 U.S.C. 35 et seq.), the Service Contract Act of 1965 (41 U.S.C. 351 et seq.), the Construction Safety Act (40 U.S.C. 333), the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 941), or the National Foundation on Arts and Humanities Act (20 U.S.C. 951 et seq.). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.3   Petition for the promulgation, modification, or revocation of a standard.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person may file with the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, D.C. 20210, a written petition for the promulgation, modification, or revocation of a standard. The petition should include, or be accompanied by, the proposed rule desired and a statement of the reasons therefor and intended effect thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.4   Additional or alternative procedural requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Upon reasonable notice to interested persons, the Assistant Secretary may in any particular proceeding prescribe additional or alternative procedural requirements: 
</P>
<P>(a) In order to expedite the conduct of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(b) In order to provide greater procedural protection to interested persons whenever it is found necessary or appropriate to do so; or 
</P>
<P>(c) For any other good cause which may be consistent with the applicable laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.5   Minor changes in standards.</HEAD>
<P>Section 6(b), when construed in light of the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553), is read as permitting the making of minor rules or amendments in which the public is not particularly interested without the notice and public procedure which is otherwise required. Whenever such a minor rule or amendment is adopted, it shall incorporate a finding of good cause to this effect for not providing notice and public procedure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 8664, Apr. 29, 1972] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Commencement of Rulemaking</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.10" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.11" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.11   Standards.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary may promulgate, modify, or revoke a standard in the following manner:

 
</P>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary may request the recommendations of an advisory committee appointed under section 7 of the Act or other statutory authority. In such event, the Assistant Secretary shall submit to the committee any proposal of his own or of the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare, together with all pertinent factual information available to him, including the results of research, demonstrations, and experiments. The committee shall submit to the Assistant Secretary its recommendations regarding the rule to be promulgated within the period prescribed by the Assistant Secretary, which in no event shall be longer than 270 days.

 
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of proposed rulemaking. Where an advisory committee has been consulted and the Assistant Secretary determines that a rule should be issued, the notice shall be published within 60 days after the submission of the committee's recommendations or the expiration of the period prescribed for such submissions, whichever date is earlier. The notice shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The terms of the proposed rule; 
</P>
<P>(2) A reference to section 6(b) of the Act and to the appropriate section of any particular statute applicable to the employments affected by the rule; 
</P>
<P>(3) An invitation to interested persons to submit within 30 days after publication of the notice written data, views, and arguments, which shall be available for public inspection and copying, except as to matters the disclosure of which is prohibited by law; 
</P>
<P>(4) Either the time and place of an informal hearing on the proposed rule to be held not earlier than 10 days from the last day of the period for written comments, or information to interested persons that they may file on or before the 30th day after publication of the notice written objections to the proposed rule meeting the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and request an informal hearing on the objections; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other appropriate provisions with regard to the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) Objections to be submitted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section shall comply with the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The objections must include the name and address of the objector; 
</P>
<P>(2) The objections must be postmarked on or before the 30th day after the date of publication of the notice of proposed rulemaking; 
</P>
<P>(3) The objections must specify with particularity the provision of the proposed rule to which objection is taken, and must state the grounds therefor; 
</P>
<P>(4) Each objection must be separately stated and numbered; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The objections must be accompanied by a summary of the evidence proposed to be adduced at the requested hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) Within 30 days after the last day for filing objections, if objections are filed in substantial compliance with paragraph (c) of this section, the Assistant Secretary shall, and in any other case may, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of informal hearing. The notice shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the time, place, and nature of the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) A reference to the authority under which the hearing is to be held; 
</P>
<P>(3) A specification of the provisions of the proposed rule which have been objected to, and on which an informal hearing has been requested; 
</P>
<P>(4) A specification of the issues on which the hearing is to be had, which shall include at least all the issues raised by any objections properly filed, on which a hearing has been requested; 
</P>
<P>(5) The requirement for the filing of an intention to appear at the hearing together with a statement of the position to be taken with regard to the issues specified and of the evidence to be adduced in support of the position; 
</P>
<P>(6) The designation of a presiding officer to conduct the hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Any other appropriate provisions with regard to the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any objector requesting a hearing on proposed rule, and any interested person who files a proper intention to appear shall be entitled to participate at a hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17507, Sept. 1, 1971, as amended at 90 FR 27999, July 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.12" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.12   Emergency standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Whenever an emergency standard is published pursuant to section 6(c) of the Act, the Assistant Secretary must commence a proceeding under section 6(b) of the Act, and the standard as published must serve as a proposed rule. Any notice of proposed rulemaking shall also give notice of any appropriate subsidiary proposals. 
</P>
<P>(2) An emergency standard promulgated pursuant to section 6(c) of the Act shall be considered issued at the time when the standard is officially filed in the Office of the Federal Register. The time of official filing in the Office of the Federal Register is established for the purpose of determining the prematurity, timeliness, or lateness of petitions for judicial review.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Assistant Secretary wishes to consult an advisory committee on any of the proposals as permitted by section 7(b) of the Act, he shall afford interested persons an opportunity to inspect and copy any recommendations of the advisory committee within a reasonable time before the commencement of any informal hearing which may be held under this part, or before the termination of the period for the submission of written comments whenever an informal hearing is not initially noticed under § 1910.11(b)(4) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6(c) requires that any standard must be promulgated following the rulemaking proceeding within 6 months after the publication of the emergency standard. Because of the shortness of this period, the conduct of the proceeding shall be expedited to the extent practicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 8664, Apr. 29, 1972, as amended at 42 FR 65166, Dec. 30, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.15" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.15   Nature of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The legislative history of section 6 indicates that Congress intended informal rather than formal rulemaking procedures to apply. See the Conference Report, H. Rept. No. 91-1765, 91st Cong., second sess., 34 (1970). The informality of the proceedings is also suggested by the fact that section 6(b) permits the making of a decision on the basis of written comments alone (unless an objection to a rule is made and a hearing is requested), the use of advisory committees, and the inherent legislative nature of the tasks involved. For these reasons, the proceedings pursuant to § 1911.11 shall be informal. 
</P>
<P>(2) Section 6(b)(3) provides an opportunity for a hearing on objections to proposed rulemaking, and section 6(f) provides in connection with the judicial review of standards, that determinations of the Secretary shall be conclusive if supported by substantial evidence in the record as a whole. Although these sections are not read as requiring a rulemaking proceeding within the meaning of the last sentence of 5 U.S.C. 553(c) requiring the application of the formal requirements of 5 U.S.C. 556 and 557, they do suggest a congressional expectation that the rulemaking would be on the basis of a record to which a substantial evidence test, where pertinent, may be applied in the event an informal hearing is held. 
</P>
<P>(3) The oral hearing shall be legislative in type. However, fairness may require an opportunity for cross-examination on crucial issues. The presiding officer is empowered to permit cross- examination under such circumstances. The essential intent is to provide an opportunity for effective oral presentation by interested persons which can be carried out with expedition and in the absence of rigid procedures which might unduly impede or protract the rulemaking process. 
</P>
<P>(b) Although any hearing shall be informal and legislative in type, this part is intended to provide more than the bare essentials of informal rulemaking under 5 U.S.C. 553. The additional requirements are the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The presiding officer shall be a hearing examiner appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105. 
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer shall provide an opportunity for cross-examination on crucial issues. 
</P>
<P>(3) The hearing shall be reported verbatim, and a transcript shall be available to any interested person on such terms as the presiding officer may provide. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 8664, Apr. 29, 1972, as amended at 37 FR 12231, June 21, 1972; 90 FR 27999, July 1, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.16" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.16   Powers of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>The officer presiding at a hearing shall have all the powers necessary or appropriate to conduct a fair and full hearing, including the powers: 
</P>
<P>(a) To regulate the course of the proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(b) To dispose of procedural requests, objections, and comparable matters; 
</P>
<P>(c) To confine the presentations to the issues specified in the notice of hearing, or, where no issues are specified, to matters pertinent to the proposed rule; 
</P>
<P>(d) To regulate the conduct of those present at the hearing by appropriate means; 
</P>
<P>(e) In his discretion, to permit cross- examination of any witness; 
</P>
<P>(f) To take official notice of material facts not appearing in the evidence in the record, so long as parties are entitled, on timely request, to an opportunity to show the contrary; and 
</P>
<P>(g) In his discretion, to keep the record open for a reasonable, stated time to receive written recommendations, and supporting reasons, and additional data, views, and arguments from any person who has participated in the oral proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.17" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.17   Certification of the record of a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon completion of the oral presentations, the transcript thereof, together with written submissions on the proposed rule, exhibits filed during the hearing, and all posthearing comments, recommendations, and supporting reasons shall be certified by the officer presiding at the hearing to the Assistant Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1911.18" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.1.0.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1911.18   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Within 60 days after the expiration of the period provided for the submission of written data, views, and arguments on a proposed rule on which no hearing is held, or within 60 days after the certification of the record of a hearing, the Assistant Secretary shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> either an appropriate rule promulgating, modifying, or revoking a standard, or a determination that such a rule should not be issued. The action of the Assistant Secretary shall be taken after consideration of all relevant matter presented in written submissions and in any hearings held under this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) A determination that a rule should not be issued on the basis of existing relevant matter may be accompanied by an invitation for the submission of additional data, views, or arguments from interested persons on the issue or issues involved. In which event, an appropriate rule or other determination shall be made within 60 days following the end of the period allowed for the submission of the additional comments. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any rule or standard adopted under paragraph (a) of this section shall incorporate a concise general statement of its basis and purpose. The statement is not required to include specific and detailed findings and conclusions of the kind customarily associated with formal proceedings. However, the statement will show the significant issues which have been faced, and will articulate the rationale for their solution. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where an advisory committee has been consulted in the formulation of a proposed rule, the Assistant Secretary may seek the advice of the advisory committee as to the disposition of the proceeding. In giving advice to the Assistant Secretary, an advisory committee shall consider all matter presented to the Assistant Secretary. The advice of an advisory committee shall take the form of written recommendations to be submitted to the Assistant Secretary within a period to be prescribed by him. When the recommendations are contained in the transcript of the meeting of an advisory committee, they shall be summary in form. See §§ 1912.33 and 1912.34 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) A rule promulgating, modifying, or revoking a standard, or a determination that a rule should not be promulgated, shall be considered issued at the time when the rule or determination is officially filed in the Office of the Federal Register. The time of official filing in the Office of the Federal Register is established for the purpose of determining the prematurity, timeliness, or lateness of petitions for judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 8665, Apr. 29, 1972, as amended at 42 FR 65166, Dec. 30, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1912" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1912—ADVISORY COMMITTEES ON STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 656, 657; 5 U.S.C. 553; 5 U.S.C. App. 2; 40 U.S.C. 333; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393), as applicable.</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28035, Oct. 11, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1912.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part prescribes the policies and procedures governing the composition and functions of advisory committees which have been, or may be, appointed under section 7(b) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (the Act) to assist the Assistant Secretary in carrying out the standards-setting duties of the Secretary of Labor under section 6 of the Act. Such committees are specifically authorized by section 7(b). This part also prescribes the policies and procedures governing the composition and functions of the:
</P>
<P>(1) Advisory Committee on Construction Safety and Health; and
</P>
<P>(2) Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health.
</P>
<P>(b) The policies and practices herein are intended to reflect those expressed in the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770) and will be applied in a manner consistent with the Act, Office of Management and Budget Circular A-63, “Committee Management”, and the Department of Labor's general rules under that Act which are published in part 15 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28035, Oct. 11, 1973, as amended at 85 FR 73423, Nov. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Organizational Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.2   Types of standards advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary establishes two types of advisory committees under section 7(b) of the Act to assist him in his standards-setting duties. These are: 
</P>
<P>(a) Continuing committees which have been, or may be established from time to time, to assist in the development of standards in areas where there is frequent rulemaking and the use of ad hoc committees is impractical; and
</P>
<P>(b) Ad hoc committees which are established to render advice in particular rulemaking proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.4   Avoidance of duplication.</HEAD>
<P>No standards advisory committee shall be created if its duties are being, or could be, performed by an existing advisory committee established under section 7(b) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.5   National Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(a) of the Act established a National Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health. The Committee is to advise, consult with, and make recommendations to the Secretary and the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare on matters relating to general administration of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Advisory committees appointed under section 7(b) of the Act, which are the subject of this part, have a more limited role. Such advisory committees are concerned exclusively with assisting the Assistant Secretary in his standards-setting functions under section 6 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) On the other hand, the Advisory Committee on Construction Safety and Health, established under the Construction Safety Act, provides assistance in both the setting of standards thereunder and policy matters arising in the administration of the Construction Safety Act. To the extent that the Advisory Committee on Construction Safety and Health renders advice to the Assistant Secretary on general policy matters, its activities should be coordinated with those of the National Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.6" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.6   Conflict of interest.</HEAD>
<P>No members of any advisory committee other than members representing employers or employees shall have an economic interest in any proposed rule. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.7" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.7   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary shall prepare, or cause to be prepared, for the Department of Labor's Committee Management Officer reports describing the committee's membership, functions, and actions as may be necessary for the performance of the duties of the Committee Management officer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.8" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.8   Committee charters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> No advisory committee shall take any action or conduct any business subsequent to January 5, 1973, until a committee charter has been filed with the Secretary of Labor, the standing committees of the Congress having legislative jurisdiction of the Department of Labor and the Library of Congress. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Committee charter information.</I> Each Advisory committee charter shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The committee's official designation; 
</P>
<P>(2) The committee's objectives and scope of activity; i.e., the standard or standards to be developed; 
</P>
<P>(3) The period of time necessary for the committee to carry out its purposes; 
</P>
<P>(4) The agency to whom the advisory committee reports (i.e., the Assistant Secretary); 
</P>
<P>(5) The agency responsible for providing support (i.e., the Occupational Safety and Health Administration); 
</P>
<P>(6) Description of the committee's duties; 
</P>
<P>(7) The estimated number and frequency of committee meetings; 
</P>
<P>(8) The estimated annual operating costs in dollars and man-years; 
</P>
<P>(9) The committee's termination date or other fixed period of termination, if less than 2 years; and

 
</P>
<P>(10) The date the charter is filed with the Department of Labor's Committee Management Officer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability of this section to subgroups</I> The applicability of this section to subgroups of an advisory committee depends upon the nature of the subgroup. With regard to formal subgroups, such as a formal subcommittee of an advisory committee, the requisite information should be set forth either in the charter of the parent committee or in a separate charter. Informal subgroups of an advisory committee, particularly those temporary in nature, need not be reflected expressly in a charter. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary shall file each charter with the Department's Committee Management Officer. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28035, Oct. 11, 1973, as amended at 90 FR 27999, July 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.9" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.9   Representation on section 7(b) committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any advisory committee appointed by the Assistant Secretary under section 7(b) of the Act shall contain the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) At least one member who is a designee of the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare; 
</P>
<P>(2) At least one member who is qualified by experience and affiliation to present the viewpoint of the employers involved, and at least one member who is similarly qualified to present the viewpoint of the employees involved. There shall be an equal number of representatives of employers and employees involved; and 
</P>
<P>(3) At least one representative of State health and safety agencies. 
</P>
<P>(b) The advisory committee may include such other persons as the Assistant Secretary may appoint who are qualified by knowledge and experience to make a useful contribution to the work of the committee, including one or more representatives of professional organizations of technicians or professionals specializing in occupational safety or health and one or more persons of nationally recognized standards-producing organizations, but the number of persons so appointed shall not exceed the number of persons appointed as representatives of Federal and State agencies. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each committee shall consist of not more than 15 members. 

 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28035, Oct. 11, 1973, as amended at 90 FR 27999, July 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.10" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.10   Terms of continuing committee members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each member of a continuing committee established under section 7(b) of the Act, other than those appointed to a committee when it is formed initially shall serve for a period of 2 years. Appointment of a member to the Committee for a fixed time period shall not affect the authority of the Secretary to remove, in his or her discretion, any member at any time. If a member resigns or is removed before his or her term expires, the Secretary of Labor may appoint for the remainder of the unexpired term a new member who shall represent the same interest as his or her predecessor.
</P>
<P>(b) To provide for continuity in the membership of continuing committees the initial appointments of its members may be varied. For example, in the case of a 15-member committee, the Assistant Secretary could appoint two members representing Federal and State agencies, two members representing employers, two members representing employees, and two members representing other interests to one year terms. He could appoint two members representing Federal and State agencies, two members representing employers, two members representing employees, and one member representing other interests for two year terms. Thereafter, at the expiration of such terms, members would be appointed or reappointed for regular terms of two years. The initial appointments to committees with fewer than 15 members could be similarly varied. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28035, Oct. 11, 1973, as amended at 67 FR 659, Jan. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.11" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.11   Terms of ad hoc committee members.</HEAD>
<P>Each member of an ad hoc advisory committee shall serve for such period as the Assistant Secretary may prescribe in his notice of appointment. Appointment of a member to the Committee for a fixed time period shall not affect the authority of the Secretary to remove, in his or her discretion, any member at any time. If a member resigns or is removed before his or her term expires, the Secretary of Labor may appoint a new member to serve for the remaining portion of the period prescribed in the notice appointing the original member of the committee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 659, Jan. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.12" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.12   Termination of advisory committees; renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every standards advisory committee established under section 7(b) of the Act shall terminate not later than 2 years after its charter has been filed, unless its charter is renewed by appropriate action for a successive period of not more than 2 years. The procedure for renewal shall be the same as that specified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each advisory committee established under section 7(b) of the Act which is in existence on January 5, 1973, shall terminate by January 5, 1975, unless it is renewed before the latter date. Before any advisory committee can be renewed, the Assistant Secretary must determine that such renewal is necessary, and so inform the Department of Labor's Committee Management Officer. The OMB Secretariat must be informed of this determination and the reasons for it. Such determination shall be made not more than 60 days before the scheduled date of termination. If the OMB Secretariat concurs, a new charter shall be filed renewing the advisory committee and a notice of the renewal shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless provided otherwise by the Assistant Secretary, the duration of a subgroup of a committee shall not be longer than that of the parent committee. 
</P>
<P>(d) No advisory committee required to file a new charter under this section shall take any action (other than the preparation and filing of charter) before the date on which the charter is filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.13" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.3.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.13   Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to the Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health, which has been established under section 3510 of the National Defense Authorization Act (Pub. L. 116-92, December 20, 2019) to advise the Secretary of Labor in formulating maritime industry standards and regarding matters pertaining to the administration of this Act related to the maritime industry. The composition of the Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health is consistent with that of advisory committees which may be appointed under section 7(b) of the Act. See paragraph (c) of this section. An additional advisory committee covering these duties will not normally be established under section 7(b) of the Act, unless the issue or issues involved extend beyond maritime activity. See § 1912.4 concerning the general policy against duplication of activity by advisory committees.
</P>
<P>(b) The Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health is a continuing advisory body. It is composed of 15 members appointed by the Secretary, one of whom is appointed as Chair. The composition of the Advisory Committee is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) One member who is a designee of the Secretary of Health and Human Services;
</P>
<P>(2) At least one member who is qualified by experience and affiliation to present the viewpoint of the employers involved, and at least one member who is similarly qualified to present the viewpoint of the employees involved. There shall be an equal number of representatives of employers and employees involved; and
</P>
<P>(3) At least one representative of state health and safety agencies.
</P>
<P>(4) The Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health may include such other persons as the Secretary may appoint who are qualified by knowledge and experience to make a useful contribution to the work of the committee, including one or more representatives of professional organizations of technicians or professionals specializing in occupational safety or health and one or more persons of nationally recognized standards-producing organizations, but the number of persons so appointed shall not exceed the number of persons appointed as representatives of Federal and state agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Each member of the Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health shall serve for a period of two years. Appointment of a member to the Committee for a fixed time period shall not affect the authority of the Secretary to remove, in his or her discretion, any member at any time. If a member resigns or is removed before his or her term expires, the Secretary of Labor may appoint for the remainder of the unexpired term a new member who shall represent the same interest as his or her predecessor.
</P>
<P>(d) Members may be appointed to successive terms.
</P>
<P>(e) A member who is otherwise qualified may continue to serve until a successor is appointed.
</P>
<P>(f) There shall be filed on behalf of the Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health a charter in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act upon the expiration of each successive two-year period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 73423, Nov. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Operation of Advisory Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.25" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.25   Call of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>No advisory committee shall hold any meeting except at the call of, or with the advance approval, of the Assistant Secretary or his representative designated for this purpose. The Department of Labor's Committee Management Officer shall be promptly informed of any meeting that is called. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.26" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.26   Approval of agenda.</HEAD>
<P>Each meeting of an advisory committee shall be conducted in accordance with an agenda approved by the Assistant Secretary or his representative designated for this purpose. No particular form for the agency is prescribed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.27" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.27   Notice of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Public notice of any meeting of an advisory committee shall be given by the officer or employee calling the meeting at least fifteen (15) days in advance of the meeting; except when it is impractical to do so, or in an emergency situation, in which event shorter advance notice may be given to the extent that any advance notice is practical. It shall, however, be a general policy to publish notices as far in advance of the meeting as circumstances will permit. Such notice shall be given by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In addition, notice may be given by such other means as press releases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 23185, May 24, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.28" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.28   Contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice shall give the name of the committee, and the time and place of the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(b) The notice shall describe fully or summarize adequately the agenda. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notice shall announce that the meeting is open to the public. 
</P>
<P>(d) The notice shall indicate that interested persons have an opportunity to file statements in written form with the committee. The notice may specify whether the statements are to be filed before or during the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(1) The chairman may permit oral statements before the committee by interested persons. In exercising his discretion in this regard, the chairman shall take into consideration the number of persons in attendance, the nature and extent of their proposed individual participation, the extent to which presentations would anticipate presentations which may be made in any rulemaking proceeding under section 6 of the Act subsequent to the recommendations of the committee, and the time, resources, and facilities available to the committee. When counsel is made available to the committee, the chairman shall consult counsel before making a decision on whether to permit oral statements. In his discretion, the chairman, upon consultation with counsel if made available to the committee, may allow or preclude the questioning of committee members or other participants. 
</P>
<P>(2) The person calling the meeting may provide in the notice of the meeting that summaries of any proposed oral presentations be filed in advance of the meeting, and may allow or preclude the questioning of committee members or other participants. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.29" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.29   Attendance by members.</HEAD>
<P>Any person appointed by the Assistant Secretary to an advisory committee has a right to be present at any duly called meeting. If any person representing the interests of employers, employees, or the States is unable to be present at a duly called meeting, he may notify the Assistant Secretary or his designee, and request that another member of the Committee representing the same interests be permitted to vote in his place on any matters coming before the advisory committee in the particular meeting. The request may be oral or in writing, and shall be accompanied by a statement of reasons for the anticipated absence. The Assistant Secretary or his designee shall grant the request whenever he is convinced that the reasons for absence are valid and that number of requested proxies for any particular meeting will not be so numerous as to impede materially the deliberations of the advisory committee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.30" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.30   Quorum; committee procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A majority of the members of any advisory committee, including the Construction Safety Advisory Committee, shall constitute a quorum, so long as there are present at least one member who is a representative of employees and one member who is a representative of employers. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the absence of its chairman, the committee may designate a member to preside at any meeting thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.31" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.31   Experts and consultants.</HEAD>
<P>At the request of an advisory committee or the person calling a meeting of an advisory committee, the Assistant Secretary may make available to the committee any experts or consultants in the field involved. Any expert or consultant so made available may participate in the deliberations of the committee with the consent of the committee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.32" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.32   Presence of OSHA officer or employee.</HEAD>
<P>The meetings of all advisory committees shall be in the presence of an OSHA officer or employee designated for this purpose. Such officer or employee shall be empowered to adjourn any meeting whenever he determines adjournment to be in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.33" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.33   Minutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Detailed minutes of advisory committee meetings shall be prepared, as directed, and certified as accurate, by the Chairman of the committee. In addition to the minutes there shall be kept verbatim transcripts of all advisory committee meetings. 
</P>
<P>(b) The minutes shall include at least the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A list of the advisory committee members and agency employees who were present at the meeting; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any significant conclusions reached which are not recommendations; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any written information made available for consideration by the committee, including copies of all reports received, issued, or approved by the committee; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any recommendations made by the committee to the Assistant Secretary and the reasons therefor; 
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation of the extent, if any, of public participation, including a list of interested persons who presented oral or written statements; and an estimate of the number of the members of the public who attended the meeting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.34" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.34   Freedom of Information Act.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and part 70 of this title and part 1913 of this chapter, there shall be available for public inspection and copying in the Office of Standards, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, documents which were made available to or prepared for or by each advisory committee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.35" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.35   Availability and cost of transcripts.</HEAD>
<P>Except where prohibited by contractual agreements entered into before the effective date of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (January 5, 1973), any transcripts of advisory committee meetings are to be made available to any person at the actual cost of duplication. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.36" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.4.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.36   Advice of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Approval by a majority of all members of an advisory committee is encouraged for rendering advice or making recommendations. However, a failure to marshal a majority of all members of an advisory committee shall not be a reason for not giving advice to the Assistant Secretary. The Assistant Secretary shall be informed of any concurring or dissenting views. 
</P>
<P>(b) An advisory committee shall submit to the Assistant Secretary its recommendations within 90 days from the date of its commencement of its assigned tasks, or within such longer or shorter period otherwise prescribed by the Assistant Secretary or one of his representatives. If a committee believes that it cannot submit its recommendations within the applicable period, its chairman may make a written request for an extension of time to the Director of the Office of Standards, before the expiration of the period. The Director of the Office of Standards may grant such a request, provided that the period of the extension or extensions, together with the original period for the submission of recommendations, is not longer than 270 days from the date the advisory committee commenced its assigned tasks. 
</P>
<P>(c) In a case where an advisory committee has not submitted its recommendations by the end of the applicable period therefor, the Assistant Secretary may dissolve the committee and direct the immediate transmittal to him of any materials submitted to, or prepared by, the advisory committee. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.40" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.5.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.40   General services.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary shall provide supporting services to advisory committees. Such services shall include clerical, stenographic, and other forms of technical assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.41" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.5.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.41   Legal services.</HEAD>
<P>The Solicitor of Labor shall provide such legal assistance as may be necessary or appropriate for advisory committees to carry out their functions in accordance with the requirements of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.42" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.5.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.42   Reservation.</HEAD>
<P>The policies and procedures set forth in this part are intended for general application. In specific situations where the Assistant Secretary determines that different policies or procedures would better serve the objectives of the Act, such policies or procedures may be modified upon appropriate notice to any persons affected by the modification to the extent that such policies or procedures are consistent with the Federal Advisory Committee Act and OMB Circular A-63, and are approved by the Solicitor under part 15 of this title. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.43" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.5.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.43   Petitions for changes in the rules; complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each interested person shall have the right to petition for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of rules published in this part. Any such petition will be considered in a reasonable time. Prompt notice shall be given of the denial in whole or in part of any petition. Except in affirming a prior denial or when the denial is self-explanatory, the notice shall be accompanied by a brief statement of the reasons therefor. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any advisory committee member or any other aggrieved person may file a written complaint with the Assistant Secretary alleging noncompliance with the rules in this part. Any complaint must be timely filed, but in no case shall any complaint be filed later than thirty (30) days following the act of alleged noncompliance. Any complaint shall be acted upon promptly and a written notice of the disposition of the complaint shall be provided to the complainant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912.44" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.2.0.5.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912.44   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part 1912, unless the context clearly requires otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (84 Stat. 1590; 29 U.S.C. 650). 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) For purposes of implementing the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the term <I>Advisory Committee</I> has the same meaning as set forth in section 3 (2) thereof. Hence, the term includes subcommittees to the extent that the conduct of their meetings relates to matters regulated by the Federal Advisory Committee Act. Consistent with that definition as interpreted in Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-63, the term does not include informal subgroups having few characteristics of formal advisory committees. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) For purposes of the Act, the term means any committee appointed under section 7(b) thereof to provide advice to the Assistant Secretary in the development of occupational safety and health standards under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The term also includes the Advisory Committee on Construction Safety and Health established under the Construction Safety Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Committee charter</I> means an order, statement or proclamation of the Assistant Secretary establishing, continuing, or using an advisory committee, as the case may be. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Construction Safety Act</I> means section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (83 Stat. 96; 40 U.S.C. 333). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1912a" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1912a—NATIONAL ADVISORY COMMITTEE ON OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4, 6, 7, 8, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 656, 657); 5 U.S.C. 553; Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. 2); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), or 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), as applicable.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 28934, Oct. 18, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 7(a) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 establishes a National Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health (hereinafter referred to as the Committee), to advise, consult with, and make recommendations to the Secretary of Labor and the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare, on matters relating to the administration of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part 1912a sets forth the procedures used by the Committee in fulfilling its responsibilities. They are intended to comply with the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), which obligates advisory committees used by federal agencies to adhere to certain basic methods of operation and administration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.2   Membership.</HEAD>
<P>The Committee is a continuing advisory body of 12 members. Two members will represent management, two members will represent labor, two members will represent the occupational health professions, two members will represent the occupational safety professions, and four members will represent the public. The Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare will designate the two members representative of the occupational health professions and two of the members representative of the public. All the members will be selected upon the basis of their experience and competence in the field of occupational safety and health. All the members will be appointed by the Secretary of Labor, who will designate one of the public members as Chairman. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.3   Terms of membership.</HEAD>
<P>Commencing on July 1, 1973, the terms of membership shall be divided into two classes, each consisting of six members. Members of the first class shall be appointed for a term of one year. Members of the second class shall be appointed for a term of two years. Thereafter, members shall be appointed for regular terms of two years. At all times the Committee shall be composed of representatives of management, labor, and occupational safety and health professions, and of the public. Appointment of a member to the Committee for a fixed time period shall not affect the authority of the Secretary to remove, in his or her discretion, any member at any time. If a member resigns or is removed before his or her term expires, the Secretary of Labor may appoint for the remainder of the unexpired term a new member who shall represent the same interest as his or her predecessor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 660, Jan. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.4   Meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Committee shall hold no fewer than two meetings during each calendar year and, it is contemplated that no more than six meetings a year will be held. No meeting shall be held except at the call of or with the advance approval of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Labor, or his duly authorized representative; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare, or his duly authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(b) An agenda shall be approved in advance by the person calling or approving the meeting, in consultation with the Chairman or his delegate. No particular form for the agenda is prescribed. Members of the Committee may propose items for the agenda to the Chairman. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.5   Advice and recommendations.</HEAD>
<P>Any advice or recommendations of the Committee shall be given or made with approval of a majority of all Committee members present. The Chairman shall include in any report of such advice or recommendations any concurring or dissenting views as well as abstentions and absences. Any member may submit his own advice and recommendations in the form of individual views with respect to any matter which has been considered by the Committee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.6" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.6   Quorum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A majority of the members of the Committee shall constitute a quorum.
</P>
<P>(b) In an absence of brief duration of its Chairman, the Committee may designate a public member to preside at any meeting thereof. In case of an extended absence, the Secretary of Labor or his delegate shall appoint a public member to preside.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 28934, Oct. 18, 1973, as amended at 48 FR 23185, May 24, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.7" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.7   Notice of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Public notice of any meeting of the Committee shall be given by the person calling the meeting in accordance with § 1912a.4 or at his direction at least fifteen (15) days in advance of the meeting; except when it is impractical to do so, or in an emergency situation, in which event shorter advance notice may be given. Such notice shall be given by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as much in advance of the meeting as circumstances will permit. In addition, notice may be given by such other means as press releases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 23185, May 24, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.8" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.8   Contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notices of meetings shall describe fully or summarize adequately the agenda. 
</P>
<P>(b) The notice shall announce that the meeting is open to the public. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notice shall indicate that interested persons have an opportunity to file statements in written form with the Committee. The notice shall specify when the statements are to be filed with the Committee. 
</P>
<P>(d) In the discretion of the Chairman of the meeting, oral statements may be made before the Committee by interested persons after taking into consideration the number of persons in attendance, the nature and extent of their proposed individual participation, and the time, resources, and facilities available to the Committee. As a general policy, time for such presentations will be made available only at subcommittee meetings. The time for a meeting of the full committee does not normally permit the reception of such presentations without substantially intruding upon the frequently limited time that the members may be able to devote to the meeting. The person calling the meeting may provide in the notice of the meeting that summaries of any proposed oral presentations be filed in advance of the meeting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.9" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.9   Assistance to the committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the request of the Committee or the person calling a meeting, the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health may make available to the Committee any needed experts or consultants. Any expert or consultant so made available may participate in the deliberations of the Committee with the consent of the Committee. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary shall furnish the Committee an executive secretary. He shall also furnish such secretarial, clerical, and other services as are deemed necessary to the conduct of its business. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Solicitor of Labor shall provide such legal assistance as may be necessary or appropriate for the Committee to carry out its functions in accordance with the requirements of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.10" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.10   Presence of OSHA officer or employee.</HEAD>
<P>The meetings of all advisory committees shall be in the presence of an officer or employee of the Federal Government referred to in § 1912a.4. Such officer or employee shall be empowered to adjourn any meeting whenever he determines adjournment to be in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.11" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.11   Minutes; transcript.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Detailed minutes of the Committee meetings shall be prepared, and shall be certified as accurate by the Chairman. In addition to the minutes there shall be kept verbatim transcripts of the Committee meetings. 
</P>
<P>(b) The minutes shall include at least the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A list of the Committee members and agency employees who were present at the meeting; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any significant conclusions reached which are not recommendations; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any written information made available for consideration by the Committee, including copies of all reports received, issued, or approved by the Committee; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any recommendations made by the Committee and the reasons therefor; 
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation of the extent, if any, of public participation, including a list of interested persons who presented oral or written statements; and an estimate of the number of the members of the public who attended the meeting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.12" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.12   Charter.</HEAD>
<P>The Committee shall operate in accordance with its charter. In accordance with section 14(b)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, there shall be filed on behalf of the Committee a charter in accordance with section 9(c) thereof upon the expiration of each successive two-year period following December 28, 1970, the date of enactment of the Occupational Safety and Health Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.13" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.13   Subcommittees and subgroups.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chairman may appoint from among the members of the Committee any number of subcommittees for the purpose of assisting the Committee in carrying out its functions. All the provisions of this part regarding the conduct of Committee meetings are applicable to the conduct of subcommittee meetings. For example, any meeting of subcommittees shall be open to the public, and notice of subcommittee meetings shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of any subcommittee is to give advice and make recommendations solely to the full Committee and under no circumstances may any subcommittee act outside this purpose. The Chairman may appoint any member of a Subcommittee to act as Chairman. 
</P>
<P>(c) Subcommittee shall operate in accordance with the Committee's charter and the procedures set forth in this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Chairman may appoint temporary informal subgroups from among the members to perform such services as assisting the Committee or the Chairman by gathering technical information or for suggesting schedules, plans, agenda, terms or methods of operation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1912a.14" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.3.0.6.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1912a.14   Petitions for changes in the rules; complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person shall have the right to petition for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of rules published in this part. Any such petition will be considered in a reasonable time. Prompt notice shall be given of the denial in whole or in part of any petition. Except in affirming a prior denial or when the denial is self-explanatory the notice shall be accompanied by a brief statement of the reasons therefor. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any advisory committee member or any other aggrieved person may file a written complaint with the Assistant Secretary alleging noncompliance with the rules in this part. Any complaint must be timely filed, but in no case shall any complaint be filed later than thirty (30) days following the day on which the act of alleged noncompliance occurred. Any complaint shall be acted upon promptly and a written notice of the disposition of the complaint shall be provided to the complainant. 
</P>
<P>(c) Complaints and petitions should make reference to this § 1912a.14 and be filed and addressed as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>United States Department of Labor 
</FP-1>
<FP>Washington, D.C. 20210.</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1913" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1913—RULES OF AGENCY PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE CONCERNING OSHA ACCESS TO EMPLOYEE MEDICAL RECORDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 657; 5 U.S.C. 553; 5 U.S.C. 301; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912) as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1913.10" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.4.0.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1913.10   Rules of agency practice and procedure concerning OSHA access to employee medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> OSHA access to employee medical records will in certain circumstances be important to the agency's performance of its statutory functions. Medical records, however, contain personal details concerning the lives of employees. Due to the substantial personal privacy interests involved, OSHA authority to gain access to personally identifiable employee medical information will be exercised only after the agency has made a careful determination of its need for this information, and only with appropriate safeguards to protect individual privacy. Once this information is obtained, OSHA examination and use of it will be limited to only that information needed to accomplish the purpose for access. Personally identifiable employee medical information will be retained by OSHA only for so long as needed to accomplish the purpose for access, will be kept secure while being used, and will not be disclosed to other agencies or members of the public except in narrowly defined circumstances. This section establishes procedures to implement these policies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) (3) through (6) below, this section applies to all requests by OSHA personnel to obtain access to records in order to examine or copy personally identifiable employee medical information, whether or not pursuant to the access provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1020(e). 
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this section, “personally identifiable employee medical information” means employee medical information accompanied by either direct identifiers (name, address, social security number, payroll number, etc.) or by information which could reasonably be used in the particular circumstances indirectly to identify specific employees (e.g., exact age, height, weight, race, sex, date of initial employment, job title, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not apply to OSHA access to, or the use of, aggregate employee medical information or medical records on individual employees which is not in a personally identifiable form. This section does not apply to records required by 29 CFR part 1904, to death certificates, or to employee exposure records, including biological monitoring records treated by 29 CFR 1910.1020(c)(5) or by specific occupational safety and health standards as exposure records. 
</P>
<P>(4) This section does not apply where OSHA compliance personnel conduct an examination of employee medical records solely to verify employer compliance with the medical surveillance recordkeeping requirements of an occupational safety and health standard, or with 29 CFR 1910.1020. An examination of this nature shall be conducted on-site and, if requested, shall be conducted under the observation of the recordholder. The OSHA compliance personnel shall not record and take off-site any information from medical records other than documentation of the fact of compliance or non-compliance. 
</P>
<P>(5) This section does not apply to agency access to, or the use of, personally identifiable employee medical information obtained in the course of litigation. 
</P>
<P>(6) This section does not apply where a written directive by the OSHA Medical Records Officer authorizes appropriately qualified personnel to conduct limited reviews of specific medical information mandated by an occupational safety and health standard, or of specific biological monitoring test results.
</P>
<P>(7) Even if not covered by the terms of this section, all medically related information reported in a personally identifiable form shall be handled with appropriate discretion and care befitting all information concerning specific employees. There may, for example, be personal privacy interests involved which militate against disclosure of this kind of information to the public (<I>See,</I> 29 CFR 70.26 and 70a.3). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsible persons</I>—(1) <I>Assistant Secretary.</I> The Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health (Assistant Secretary) shall designate an OSHA official with experience or training in the evaluation, use, and privacy protection of medical records to be the OSHA Medical Records Officer. The Assistant Secretary may change the designation of the OSHA Medical Records Officer at will.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>OSHA Medical Records Officer.</I> The OSHA Medical Records Officer shall be responsible for the overall administration and implementation of the procedures contained in this section. The OSHA Medical Records Officer shall report directly to the Assistant Secretary on matters concerning this section and be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(i) Making final determinations concerning the approval or denial of medical access orders (paragraph (d) of this section);
</P>
<P>(ii) Assuring that medical access orders meet the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Responding to objections concerning medical access orders (paragraph (f) of this section);
</P>
<P>(iv) Overseeing internal agency use and security of personally identifiable employee medical information (paragraphs (g) through (j) of this section);
</P>
<P>(v) Assuring that the results of agency analyses of personally identifiable medical information are, where appropriate, communicated to employees (paragraph (k) of this section);
</P>
<P>(vi) Preparing an annual report of OSHA's experience under this section (paragraph (l) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(vii) Making final determinations concerning inter-agency transfer or public disclosure of personally identifiable employee medical information (paragraph (m) of this section). The Medical Records Officer shall also assure that advance notice is given of intended inter-agency transfers or public disclosures.  
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Principal OSHA Investigator.</I> The Principal OSHA Investigator shall be the OSHA employee in each instance of access to personally identifiable employee medical information who is made primarily responsible for assuring that the examination and use of this information is performed in the manner prescribed by a written access order and the requirements of this section (paragraphs (d) through (m). When access is pursuant to a written access order, the Principal OSHA Investigator shall be professionally trained in medicine, public health, or allied fields (epidemiology, toxicology, industrial hygiene, biostatistics, environmental health, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Written access orders</I>—(1) <I>Requirement for medical access order.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, each request by an OSHA representative to examine or copy personally identifiable employee medical information contained in a record held by an employer or other recordholder shall be made pursuant to a written medical access order which has been approved by the OSHA Medical Records Officer. A medical access order does not constitute an administrative subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval criteria for medical access order.</I> Before approving a medical access order, the OSHA Medical Records Officer shall determine that:
</P>
<P>(i) The medical information to be examined or copied is relevant to a statutory purpose and there is a need to gain access to this personally identifiable information;
</P>
<P>(ii) The personally identifiable medical information to be examined or copied is limited to only that information needed to accomplish the purpose for access; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The personnel authorized to review and analyze the personally identifiable medical information are limited to those who have a need for access and have appropriate professional qualifications.  
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content of written access order.</I> Each written access order shall state with reasonable particularity: 
</P>
<P>(i) The statutory purposes for which access is sought, 
</P>
<P>(ii) A general description of the kind of employee medical information that will be examined and why there is a need to examine personally identifiable information, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether medical information will be examined on-site, and what type of information will be copied and removed off-site, 
</P>
<P>(iv) The name, address, and phone number of the Principal OSHA Investigator and the names of any other authorized persons who are expected to review and analyze the medical information. 
</P>
<P>(v) The name, address, and phone number of the OSHA Medical Records Officer, and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The anticipated period of time during which OSHA expects to retain the employee medical information in a personally identifiable form. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special situations.</I> Written access orders need not be obtained to examine or copy personally identifiable employee medical information under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Specific written consent.</I> If the specific written consent of an employee is obtained pursuant to 29 CFR 1910.1020(e)(2)(ii), and the agency or an agency employee is listed on the authorization as the designated representative to receive the medical information, then a written access order need not be obtained. Whenever personally identifiable employee medical information is obtained through specific written consent and taken off-site, a Principal OSHA Investigator shall be promptly named to assure protection of the information, and the OSHA Medical Records Officer shall be notified of this person's identity. The personally identifiable medical information obtained shall thereafter be subject to the use and security requirements of paragraphs (h) through (m) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Physician consultations.</I> A written access order need not be obtained where an OSHA staff or contract physician consults with an employer's physician concerning an occupational safety or health issue. In a situation of this nature, the OSHA physician may conduct on-site evaluation of employee medical records in consultation with the employer's physician, and may make necessary personal notes of his or her findings. No employee medical records, however, shall be taken off-site in the absence of a written access order or the specific written consent of an employee, and no notes of personally identifiable employee medical information made by the OSHA physician shall leave his or her control without the permission of the OSHA Medical Records Officer. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Presentation of written access order and notice to employees.</I> (1) The Principal OSHA Investigator, or someone under his or her supervision, shall present at least two (2) copies each of the written access order and an accompanying cover letter to the employer prior to examining or obtaining medical information subject to a written access order. At least one copy of the written access order shall not identify specific employees by direct personal identifier. The accompanying cover letter shall summarize the requirements of this section and indicate that questions or objections concerning the written access order may be directed to the Principal OSHA Investigator or to the OSHA Medical Records Officer. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Principal OSHA Investigator shall promptly present a copy of the written access order (which does not identify specific employees by direct personal identifier) and its accompanying cover letter to each collective bargaining agent representing employees whose medical records are subject to the written access order. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Principal OSHA Investigator shall indicate that the employer must promptly post a copy of the written access order which does not identify specific employees by direct personal identifier, as well as post its accompanying cover letter (<I>See,</I> 29 CFR 1910.1020(e)(3)(ii)). 
</P>
<P>(4) The Principal OSHA Investigator shall discuss with any collective bargaining agent and with the employer the appropriateness of individual notice to employees affected by the written access order. Where it is agreed that individual notice is appropriate, the Principal OSHA Investigator shall promptly provide to the employer an adequate number of copies of the written access order (which does not identify specific employees by direct personal identifier) and its accompanying cover letter to enable the employer either to individually notify each employee or to place a copy in each employee's medical file. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Objections concerning a written access order.</I> All employee, collective bargaining agent, and employer written objections concerning access to records pursuant to a written access order shall be transmitted to the OSHA Medical Records Officer. Unless the agency decides otherwise, access to the records shall proceed without delay notwithstanding the lodging of an objection. The OSHA Medical Records Officer shall respond in writing to each employee's and collective bargaining agent's written objection to OSHA access. Where appropriate, the OSHA Medical Records Officer may revoke a written access order and direct that any medical information obtained by it be returned to the original recordholder or destroyed. The Principal OSHA Investigator shall assure that such instructions by the OSHA Medical Records Officer are promptly implemented. 
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Internal agency use of personally identifiable employee medical information.</I> (1) The Principal OSHA Investigator shall in each instance of access be primarily responsible for assuring that personally identifiable employee medical information is used and kept secured in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Principal OSHA Investigator, the OSHA Medical Records Officer, the Assistant Secretary, and any other authorized person listed on a written access order may permit the examination or use of personally identifiable employee medical information by agency employees and contractors who have a need for access, and appropriate qualifications for the purpose for which they are using the information. No OSHA employee or contractor is authorized to examine or otherwise use personally identifiable employee medical information unless so permitted. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where a need exists, access to personally identifiable employee medical information may be provided to attorneys in the Office of the Solicitor of Labor, and to agency contractors who are physicians or who have contractually agreed to abide by the requirements of this section and implementing agency directives and instructions. 
</P>
<P>(4) OSHA employees and contractors are only authorized to use personally identifiable employee medical information for the purposes for which it was obtained, unless the specific written consent of an employee is obtained as to a secondary purpose, or the procedures of paragraphs (d) through (g) of this section are repeated with respect to the secondary purpose. 
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever practicable, the examination of personally identifiable employee medical information shall be performed on-site with a minimum of medical information taken off-site in a personally identifiable form. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Security procedures.</I> (1) Agency files containing personally identifiable employee medical information shall be segregated from other agency files. When not in active use, files containing this information shall be kept secured in a locked cabinet or vault.
</P>
<P>(2) The OSHA Medical Records Officer and the Principal OSHA Investigator shall each maintain a log of uses and transfers of personally identifiable employee medical information and lists of coded direct personal identifiers, except as to necessary uses by staff under their direct personal supervision.
</P>
<P>(3) The photocopying or other duplication of personally identifiable employee medical information shall be kept to the minimum necessary to accomplish the purposes for which the information was obtained.
</P>
<P>(4) The protective measures established by this section apply to all worksheets, duplicate copies, or other agency documents containing personally identifiable employee medical information.
</P>
<P>(5) Intra-agency transfers of personally identifiable employee medical information shall be by hand delivery, United States mail, or equally protective means. Inter-office mailing channels shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Retention and destruction of records.</I> (1) Consistent with OSHA records disposition programs, personally identifiable employee medical information and lists of coded direct personal identifiers shall be destroyed or returned to the original recordholder when no longer needed for the purposes for which they were obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) Personally identifiable employee medical information which is currently not being used actively but may be needed for future use shall be transferred to the OSHA Medical Records Officer. The OSHA Medical Records Officer shall conduct an annual review of all centrally-held information to determine which information is no longer needed for the purposes for which it was obtained.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Results of an agency analysis using personally identifiable employee medical information.</I> The OSHA Medical Records Officer shall, as appropriate, assure that the results of an agency analysis using personally identifiable employee medical information are communicated to the employees whose personal medical information was used as a part of the analysis.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Annual report.</I> The OSHA Medical Records Officer shall on an annual basis review OSHA's experience under this section during the previous year, and prepare a report to the Assistant Secretary which shall be made available to the public. This report shall discuss:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of written access orders approved and a summary of the purposes for access,
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and disposition of employee, collective bargaining agent, and employer written objections concerning OSHA access to personally identifiable employee medical information, and
</P>
<P>(3) The nature and disposition of requests for inter-agency transfer or public disclosure of personally identifiable employee medical information.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Inter-agency transfer and public disclosure.</I> (1) Personally identifiable employee medical information shall not be transferred to another agency or office outside of OSHA (other than to the Office of the Solicitor of Labor) or disclosed to the public (other than to the affected employee or the original recordholder) except when required by law or when approved by the OSHA Medical Records Officer.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (m)(3) of this section, the OSHA Medical Records Officer shall not approve a request for an inter-agency transfer of personally identifiable employee medical information, which has not been consented to by the affected employees, unless the request is by a public health agency which:
</P>
<P>(i) Needs the requested information in a personally identifiable form for a substantial public health purpose;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will not use the requested information to make individual determinations concerning affected employees which could be to their detriment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has regulations or established written procedures providing protection for personally identifiable medical information substantially equivalent to that of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Satisfies an exemption to the Privacy Act to the extent that the Privacy Act applies to the requested information (see 5 U.S.C. 552a(b); 29 CFR 70a.3).
</P>
<P>(3) Upon the approval of the OSHA Medical Records Officer, personally identifiable employee medical information may be transferred to:
</P>
<P>(i) The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Department of Justice when necessary with respect to a specific action under the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
</P>
<P>(4) The OSHA Medical Records Officer shall not approve a request for public disclosure of employee medical information containing direct personal identifiers unless there are compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual.
</P>
<P>(5) The OSHA Medical Records Officer shall not approve a request for public disclosure of employee medical information which contains information which could reasonably be used indirectly to identify specific employees when the disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy (see 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(6); 29 CFR 70.26).
</P>
<P>(6) Except as to inter-agency transfers to NIOSH or the Department of Justice, the OSHA Medical Records Officer shall ensure that advance notice is provided to any collective bargaining agent representing affected employees and to the employer on each occasion that OSHA intends to either transfer personally identifiable employee medical information to another agency or disclose it to a member of the public other than to an affected employee. When feasible, the OSHA Medical Records Officer shall take reasonable steps to assure that advance notice is provided to affected employees when the employee medical information to be transferred or disclosed contains direct personal identifiers.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Medical records maintained in electronic form.</I> (1) In general, when accessing and/or copying personally identifiable employee medical information in electronic form, OSHA personnel shall follow all of the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) When personally identifiable employee medical information in electronic form is taken off-site, the Principal OSHA Investigator is primarily responsible for ensuring that such information is properly used and kept secured.
</P>
<P>(i) The Principal OSHA Investigator is responsible for preventing any accidental or unintentional disclosure of, modification to, or destruction of personally identifiable employee medical information in electronic form.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Principal OSHA Investigator is responsible for controlling the flow of data into, through, and from agency computer operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Principal OSHA Investigator shall ensure the distribution and review of medical information in electronic form is limited to only those OSHA personnel and contractors with a need for access.
</P>
<P>(3) The transfer and/or duplication of medical information in electronic form shall be kept to the minimum necessary to accomplish the purpose for which it was obtained.
</P>
<P>(4) Electronic files containing personally identifiable employee medical information shall be downloaded only to a computer hard drive or laptop that is secured in accordance with Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 201-2 “Personal Identity Verification (PIV) of Federal Employees and Contractors” and “Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12: Policy for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors (HSPD-12).”
</P>
<P>(5) Electronic files containing personally identifiable employee medical information shall not be transferred to authorized personnel through email attachment unless appropriately encrypted.
</P>
<P>(6) When an employer or other record holder(s) provides access to employee medical information through a properly encrypted email attachment, the attachment shall be downloaded to a secured hard drive or laptop. After the attachment is downloaded, the email shall be permanently deleted.
</P>
<P>(7) Personally identifiable employee medical information in electronic form shall be secured when not in use.
</P>
<P>(i) Medical information in electronic form shall only be maintained or stored where facilities and conditions are designed to prevent unauthorized access.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personally identifiable employee medical information in electronic form shall be maintained only for so long as needed to accomplish the purpose for access.
</P>
<P>(iii) When no longer needed, the Principal OSHA Investigator shall ensure that all personally identifiable employee medical information on electronic files has been deleted, destroyed, or returned to the original record holder.
</P>
<P>(iv) The disposal of personally identifiable employee medical information maintained in electronic form shall be accomplished in such a manner as to make the data unattainable by unauthorized personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 35294, May 23, 1980; 45 FR 54334, Aug. 15, 1980, as amended at 71 FR 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 85 FR 45792, July 30, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1915" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1915—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH STANDARDS FOR SHIPYARD EMPLOYMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>33 U.S.C. 941; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754); 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393); 29 CFR part 1911; and 5 U.S.C. 553, as applicable.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1   Purpose and authority.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions in this part constitute safety and health regulations issued by the Secretary pursuant to section 41 of the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, as amended (33 U.S.C. 941) and occupational safety and health standards issued by the Secretary pursuant to section 6 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 655).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.2   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where otherwise provided, the provisions of this part shall apply to all ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking employments and related employments.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to matters under the control of the United States Coast Guard within the scope of Title 52 of the Revised Statutes and acts supplementary or amendatory thereto (46 U.S.C. secs. 1-1388 passim) including, but not restricted to, the master, ship's officer, crew members, design, construction and maintenance of the vessel, its gear and equipment; to matters within the regulatory authority of the United States Coast Guard to safeguard vessels, harbors, ports and waterfront facilities under the provisions of the Espionage Act of June 17, 1917, as amended (50 U.S.C. 191 et seq.; 22 U.S.C. 401 et seq.); including the provisions of Executive Order 10173, as amended by Executive Orders 10277 and 10352 (3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., pp. 356, 778 and 873); or to matters within the regulatory authority of the United States Coast Guard with respect to lights, warning devices, safety equipment and other matters relating to the promotion of safety of lives and property under section 4(e) of the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (43 U.S.C. 1333).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.3   Responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsibility for compliance with the regulations of this part is placed upon “employers” as defined in § 1915.4.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to owners, operators, agents or masters of vessels unless such persons are acting as “employers.” However, this part is not intended to relieve owners, operators, agents or masters of vessels who are not “employers” from responsibilities or duties now placed upon them by law, regulation or custom.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsibilities placed upon the competent person herein shall be deemed to be the responsibilities of the employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <E T="04">shall</E> indicates provisions which are mandatory.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>employer</I> means an employer, any of whose employees are employed, in whole or in part, in ship repairing, shipbuilding, shipbreaking or related employments as defined in this section on the navigable waters of the United States, including dry docks, graving docks and marine railways.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>employee</I> means any person engaged in ship repairing, shipbuilding, shipbreaking or related employments on the navigable waters of the United States, including dry docks, graving docks and marine railways, other than the master, ship's officers, crew of the vessel, or any person engaged by the master to repair any vessel under 18 net tons.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>gangway</I> means any ramp-like or stair-like means of access provided to enable personnel to board or leave a vessel including accommodation ladders, gangplanks and brows.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>vessel</I> includes every description of watercraft or other artificial contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on water, including special purpose floating structures not primarily designed for or used as a means of transportation on water.
</P>
<P>(g) For purposes of § 1915.74, the term <I>barge</I> means an unpowered, flat bottom, shallow draft vessel including scows, carfloats and lighters. For purposes of this section, the term does not include ship shaped or deep draft barges.
</P>
<P>(h) For purposes of § 1915.74, the term <I>river tow boat</I> means a shallow draft, low free board, self-propelled vessel designed to tow river barges by pushing ahead. For purposes of this section, the term does not include other towing vessels.
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>shipyard employment</I> means ship repairing, shipbuilding, shipbreaking and related employments.
</P>
<P>(j) The terms <I>ship repair</I> and <I>ship repairing</I> mean any repair of a vessel including, but not restricted to, alterations, conversions, installations, cleaning, painting, and maintenance work.
</P>
<P>(k) The term <I>shipbuilding</I> means the construction of a vessel including the installation of machinery and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(l) The term <I>shipbreaking</I> means any breaking down of a vessel's structure for the purpose of scrapping the vessel, including the removal of gear, equipment or any component part of a vessel.
</P>
<P>(m) The term <I>related employment</I> means any employment performed as an incident to or in conjunction with ship repairing, shipbuilding or shipbreaking work, including, but not restricted to, inspection, testing, and employment as a watchman.
</P>
<P>(n) The term <I>hazardous substance</I> means a substance which by reason of being explosive, flammable, poisonous, corrosive, oxidizing, irritant, or otherwise harmful is likely to cause injury.
</P>
<P>(o) The term <I>competent person</I> for purposes of this part means a person who is capable of recognizing and evaluating employee exposure to hazardous substances or to other unsafe conditions and is capable of specifying the necessary protection and precautions to be taken to ensure the safety of employees as required by the particular regulation under the condition to which it applies. For the purposes of subparts B, C, and D of this part, except for § 1915.35(b)(8) and § 1915.36(a)(5), to which the above definition applies, the competent person must also meet the additional requirements of § 1915.7.
</P>
<P>(p) The term <I>confined space</I> means a compartment of small size and limited access such as a double bottom tank, cofferdam, or other space which by its small size and confined nature can readily create or aggravate a hazardous exposure.
</P>
<P>(q) The term <I>enclosed space</I> means any space, other than a confined space, which is enclosed by bulkheads and overhead. It includes cargo holds, tanks, quarters, and machinery and boiler spaces.
</P>
<P>(r) The term <I>hot work</I> means riveting, welding, burning or other fire or spark producing operations.
</P>
<P>(s) The term <I>cold work</I> means any work which does not involve riveting, welding, burning or other fire or spark producing operations.
</P>
<P>(t) The term <I>portable unfired pressure vessel</I> means any pressure container or vessel used aboard ship, other than the ship's equipment, containing liquids or gases under pressure, excepting pressure vessels built to Department of Transportation regulations under 49 CFR part 178, subparts C and H.
</P>
<P>(u) The term <I>powder actuated fastening tool</I> means a tool or machine which drives a stud, pin, or fastener by means of an explosive charge.
</P>
<P>(v) For purposes of § 1915.97, the term <I>hazardous material</I> means a material which has one or more of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a flash point below 140 °F., closed cup, or is subject to spontaneous heating;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a threshold limit value below 500 p.p.m. in the case of a gas or vapor, below 500 mg./m.
<SU>3</SU> for fumes, and below 25 m.p.p.c.f. in case of a dust;
</P>
<P>(3) Has a single dose oral LD<E T="52">50</E> below 500 mg./kg.;
</P>
<P>(4) Is subject to polymerization with the release of large amounts of energy;
</P>
<P>(5) Is a strong oxidizing or reducing agent;
</P>
<P>(6) Causes first degree burns to skin in short time exposure, or is systemically toxic by skin contact; or
</P>
<P>(7) In the course of normal operations, may produce dusts, gases, fumes, vapors, mists, or smokes which have one or more of the above characteristics.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44541, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.5   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Specifications, standards, and codes of agencies of the U.S. Government, to the extent specified in the text, form a part of the regulations of this part. In addition, under the authority vested in the Secretary under the Act, the specifications, standards, and codes of organizations which are not agencies of the U.S. Government, in effect on the date of the promulgation of the regulations of this part as listed below, to the extent specified in the text, form a part of the regulations of this part.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The standards listed in this section are incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with <I>5 U.S.C. 552(a)</I> and <I>1 CFR part 51</I>. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, OSHA must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public.
</P>
<P>(2) Any changes in the standards incorporated by reference in this part and an official historic file of such changes are available for inspection in the Docket Office at the national office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627).
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of standards listed in this section and issued by private standards organizations are available for purchase from the issuing organizations at the addresses or through the other contact information listed elsewhere in this section for these private standards organizations. In addition, the standards are available for inspection at any Regional Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), or at the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3508, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627). These standards are also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of these standards at NARA, email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4900; fax: 212-398-0023; website: <I>www.ansi.org://</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI A14.1-1975 Safety Requirements for Portable Wood Ladders, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.72(a).</I>
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI A14.2-1972 Safety Requirements for Portable Metal Ladders, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.72(a).</I>
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI B7.1-1964 Safety Code for the Use, Care, and Protection of Abrasive Wheels, IBR approval for <I>§ 1915.134(c).</I>
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI Z41-1999, American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear; IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.156(b).</I> Copies of ANSI Z41-1999 are available for purchase only from the National Safety Council, 1121 Spring Lake Drive, Itasca, IL 60143-3201; telephone: (800) 621-7619; fax: 630-285-1434; website: <I>www.nsc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI Z41-1991, American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear; IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.156(b).</I> Copies of ANSI Z41-1991 are available for purchase only from the National Safety Council, 1121 Spring Lake Drive, Itasca, IL 60143-3201; telephone: (800) 621-7619; fax: 630-285-1434; website: <I>www.nsc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, approved April 13, 2010; IBR approved for § 1915.153(b). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) ANSI Webstore, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; website: <I>https://webstore.ansi.org;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (800) 447-2273; website: <I>https://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3025 Boardwalk Drive, Suite 220, Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (855) 999-9870; website: <I>www.t</I>echstreet.com.
</P>
<P>(7) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, approved June 19, 2003; IBR approved for § 1915.153(b). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) ANSI Webstore, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; website: <I>https://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (800) 447-2273; website: <I>https://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3025 Boardwalk Drive, Suite 220, Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (855) 999-9870; website: <I>www.techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(8) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, Reaffirmation approved January 4, 1999; IBR approved for § 1915.153(b). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) ANSI Webstore, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; website: <I>https://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (800) 447-2273; website: <I>https://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3025 Boardwalk Drive, Suite 220, Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (855) 999-9870; website: <I>www.techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection, approved January 26, 2009; IBR approved for § 1915.155(b). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2009 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1101 Wilson Boulevard, Suite 1425, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; website: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(10) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection; IBR approved for § 1915.155(b). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2003 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1101 Wilson Boulevard, Suite 1425, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; website: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(11) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial

Workers—Requirements; IBR approved for § 1915.155(b). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-1997 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1101 Wilson Boulevard, Suite 1425, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; website: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(12) ANSI/IESNA RP-7-01, Recommended Practice for Lighting Industrial Facilities, ANSI approved July 26, 2001, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.82(a).</I>
</P>
<P>(13) ANSI/ISEA Z308.1-2009, Revision of ANSI Z308.1-2003, Minimum Requirements for Workplace First Aid Kits and Supplies, ANSI approved May 8, 2009, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.87</I> Appendix A.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (d):
</HED>
<P>Unless otherwise indicated, all standards in this paragraph (d) are available from ANSI.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), Two Park Avenue, New York, New York 10016; telephone: (800) 843-2763; email: <I>CustomerCare@asme.org;</I> website: <I>https://www.asme.org/codes-standards:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Rules for Construction of Unfired Pressure Vessels, 1963, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.172(a).</I>
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH), 3640 Park 42 Drive, Cincinnati, OH 45241; telephone: (513) 742-2020; website: <I>https://www.acgih.org/publications/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Threshold limit values, 1970, IBR approved for <I>§§ 1915.12(b)</I> and <I>1915.1000,</I> table Z.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; telephone: 610-832-9500; fax: 610-832-9555; email: <I>service@astm.org;</I> website: <I>www.astm.org:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM F-2412-2005, Standard Test Methods for Foot Protection; IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.156(b).</I>
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM F-2413-2005, Standard Specification for Performance Requirements for Protective Footwear; IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.156(b).</I>
</P>
<P>(h) International Labour Organization (ILO), 4 route des Morillons, CH-1211 Genève 22, Switzerland; telephone: +41 (0) 22 799 6111; fax: +41 (0) 22 798 8685; website: <I>www.ilo.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised Edition 2011, Occupational safety and health series; 22 (Rev. 2011), IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.1001.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), 1 Batterymarch Park, P.O. Box 9101, Quincy, MA 02269-9101; telephone: (800) 344-3555; email: <I>orders@nfpa.org;</I> website: <I>https://www.nfpa.org/Codes-and-Standards:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFPA 1981-2002 Standard on Open-Circuit Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus for Fire and Emergency Services, IBR approved for <I>1915.505(e)</I>.
</P>
<P>(2) NFPA 1971-2000, Standard on Protective Ensemble for Structural Fire Fighting, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.505(e).</I>
</P>
<P>(3) NFPA 1976-2000, Standard on Protective Ensemble for Proximity Fire Fighting, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.505(e).</I>
</P>
<P>(4) NFPA 1982-1998, Standard on Personal Alert Safety Systems (PASS), IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.505(e).</I>
</P>
<P>(5) NFPA 1983-2001, Standard on Fire Service Life Safety Rope and System Components, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.505(e).</I>
</P>
<P>(6) NFPA 10-2002 Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers, IBR approved for § 1915.507(b).
</P>
<P>(7) NFPA 14-2003 Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems, IBR approved for <I>§§ 1915.507(b)</I> and (d).
</P>
<P>(8) NFPA 72-2002 National Fire Alarm Code, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(c).</I>
</P>
<P>(9) NFPA 13-2002 Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(10) NFPA 750-2003 Standard on Water Mist Fire Protection Systems, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(11) NFPA 25-2002, Inspection, Testing, and Maintenance of Water-Based Fire Protection Systems, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(12) NFPA 15-2001, Standard for Water Spray Fixed Systems for Fire Protection, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(13) NFPA 11-2005 Standard for Low-, Medium-, and High-Expansion Foam, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(14) NFPA 17-2002, Standard for Dry Chemical Extinguishing Systems, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(15) NFPA 12-2005, Standard on Carbon Dioxide Extinguishing Systems, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(16) NFPA 12A-2004, Standard on Halon 1301 Fire Extinguishing Systems, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(17) NFPA 2001-2004, Standard on Clean Agent Fire Extinguishing Systems, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.507(d).</I>
</P>
<P>(18) NFPA 1403-2002, Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions, IBR approved for <I>§ 1915.508(d).</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 54613, Oct. 4, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.6" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.6   commercial diving operations.</HEAD>
<P>commercial diving operations shall be subject to subpart T of part 1910, §§ 1910.401-1910.441 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.7" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.7   Competent person.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to shipyard employment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation.</I> (1) One or more competent persons shall be designated by the employer in accordance with the applicable requirements of this section, unless the requirements of subparts B, C, D and H of this part are always carried out by a Marine Chemist. <I>Exception:</I> The employer may designate any person who meets the applicable portions of the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section as a competent person who is limited to performing testing to the following situations: 
</P>
<P>(i) Repair work on small craft in boat yards where only combustible gas indicator tests are required for fuel tank leaks or when using flammable paints below decks; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Building of wooden vessels where only knowledge of the precautions to be taken when using flammable paints is required; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The breaking of vessels where there is no fuel oil or other flammable hazard; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Tests and inspections performed to comply with §§ 1915.35(b)(8) and 1915.36(a)(5). 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The employer shall maintain either a roster of designated competent persons or a statement that a Marine Chemist will perform the tests or inspections which require a competent person. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make the roster of designated persons or the statement available to employees, the employee's representative, the Director or the Assistant Secretary upon request. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The roster shall contain, as a minimum, the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) The employers' name, 
</P>
<P>(B) The designated competent person's name(s), and 
</P>
<P>(C) The date the employee was trained as a competent person. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria.</I> The employer shall ensure that each designated competent person has the following skills and knowledge: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ability to understand and carry out written or oral information or instructions left by Marine Chemist, Coast Guard authorized persons and Certified Industrial Hygienists; 
</P>
<P>(2) Knowledge of subparts B, C, D and H of this part; 
</P>
<P>(3) Knowledge of the structure, location, and designation of spaces where work is done; 
</P>
<P>(4) Ability to calibrate and use testing equipment including but not limited to, oxygen indicators, combustible gas indicators, carbon monoxide indicators, and carbon dioxide indicators, and to interpret accurately the test results of that equipment; 
</P>
<P>(5) Ability to perform all required tests and inspections which are or may be performed by a competent person as set forth in subparts B, C, D and H of this part. 
</P>
<P>(6) Ability to inspect, test, and evaluate spaces to determine the need for further testing by a Marine Chemist or a Certified Industrial Hygienist; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Ability to maintain records required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) When tests and inspections are performed by a competent person, Marine Chemist, or Certified Industrial Hygienist as required by any provisions of subparts B, C, D, or H of this part, the employer shall ensure that the person performing the test and inspection records the location, time, date, location of inspected spaces, and the operations performed, as well as the test results and any instructions. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that the records are posted in the immediate vicinity of the affected operations while work in the spaces is in progress. The records shall be kept on file for a period of at least three months from the completion date of the specific job for which they were generated. 
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that the records are available for inspection by the Assistant Secretary, Director, and employees and their representatives. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 37856, July 25, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.8" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.8   OMB control numbers under the Paperwork Reduction Act.</HEAD>
<P>The following sections or paragraphs contain a collection of information requirement which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the control number listed. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">29 CFR citation 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB control No. 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.11-1915.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0011 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0259
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0259
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0259
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0259
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.152(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.152(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.159(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.160(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.501(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.502(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.502(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.502(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.502(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.504(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.505(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.505(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.505(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.506(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.507(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.508(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.508(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.508(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.508(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.508(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.508(f)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0248
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0195 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0085 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0084 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0086 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0083 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0087 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0089 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0082 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0090 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0080 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0079 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0088 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0044 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0081 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0010 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0104 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0267
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0092 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0252
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1027</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0185 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0129 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1030</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0180 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1044</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0101 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0126 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1047</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0108 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0145 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0184 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1053</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0266
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0065 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0072 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1915.1450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0131</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 33547, June 20, 1997; 63 FR 13340, Mar. 19, 1998; 70 FR 13371, Mar. 21, 2005; 71 FR 38086, July 5, 2006; 77 FR 19, Jan. 3, 2012; 81 FR 48710, July 27, 2016; 83 FR 9703, Mar. 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.9" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.1.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.9   Compliance duties owed to each employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Standards in this part requiring the employer to provide personal protective equipment (PPE), including respirators and other types of PPE, because of hazards to employees impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must provide PPE to each employee required to use the PPE, and each failure to provide PPE to an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training.</I> Standards in this part requiring training on hazards and related matters, such as standards requiring that employees receive training or that the employer train employees, provide training to employees, or institute or implement a training program, impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must train each affected employee in the manner required by the standard, and each failure to train an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 75587, Dec. 12, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Confined and Enclosed Spaces and Other Dangerous Atmospheres in Shipyard Employment</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 37857, July 25, 1994, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1915.11" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.11   Scope, application and definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This subpart applies to work in confined and enclosed spaces and other dangerous atmospheres in shipyard employment, including vessels, vessel sections, and on land-side operations regardless of geographic location.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions applicable to this subpart. Adjacent spaces</I> means those spaces bordering a subject space in all directions, including all points of contact, corners, diagonals, decks, tank tops, and bulkheads. 
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, or designated representative. 
</P>
<P><I>Certified Industrial Hygienist</I> (CIH) means an industrial hygienist who is certified by the American Board of Industrial Hygiene. 
</P>
<P><I>Coast Guard authorized person</I> means an individual who meets the requirement of appendix B to subpart B of this part 1915 for tank vessels, for passenger vessels, and for cargo and miscellaneous vessels. 
</P>
<P><I>Dangerous atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere that may expose employees to the risk of death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue (i.e., escape unaided from a confined or enclosed space), injury, or acute illness. 
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designated representative. 
</P>
<P><I>Enter with Restrictions</I> denotes a space where entry for work is permitted only if engineering controls, personal protective equipment, clothing, and time limitations are as specified by the Marine Chemist, Certified Industrial Hygienist, or the shipyard competent person. 
</P>
<P><I>Entry</I> means the action by which a person passes through an opening into a space. Entry includes ensuing work activities in that space and is considered to have occurred as soon as any part of the entrant's body breaks the plane of an opening into the space. 
</P>
<P><I>Hot work</I> means any activity involving riveting, welding, burning, the use of powder-actuated tools or similar fire-producing operations. Grinding, drilling, abrasive blasting, or similar spark-producing operations are also considered hot work except when such operations are isolated physically from any atmosphere containing more than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit of a flammable or combustible substance. 
</P>
<P><I>Immediately dangerous to life or health</I> (IDLH) means an atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life or that is likely to result in acute or immediate severe health effects. 
</P>
<P><I>Inert or inerted atmosphere</I> means an atmospheric condition where: 
</P>
<P>(1) The oxygen content of the atmosphere in the space is maintained at a level equal to or less than 8.0 percent by volume or at a level at or below 50 percent of the amount required to support combustion, whichever is less; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The space is flooded with water and the vapor concentration of flammable or combustible materials in the free space atmosphere above the water line is less than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit for the flammable or combustible material. 
</P>
<P><I>Labeled</I> means identified with a sign, placard, or other form of written communication, including pictograms, that provides information on the status or condition of the work space to which it is attached. 
</P>
<P><I>Lower explosive limit</I> (LEL) means the minimum concentration of vapor in air below which propagation of a flame does not occur in the presence of an ignition source. 
</P>
<P><I>Marine Chemist</I> means an individual who possesses a current Marine Chemist Certificate issued by the National Fire Protection Association. 
</P>
<P><I>Not Safe for Hot Work</I> denotes a space where hot work may not be performed because the conditions do not meet the criteria for Safe for Hot Work. 
</P>
<P><I>Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory</I> (NRTL) means an organization recognized by OSHA, in accordance with appendix A of 29 CFR 1910.7, which tests for safety and lists or labels or accepts equipment and materials that meet all the criteria found in § 1910.7(b)(1) through (b)(4)(ii). 
</P>
<P><I>Not Safe for Workers</I> denotes a space where an employee may not enter because the conditions do not meet the criteria for Safe for Workers. 
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen-deficient atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere having an oxygen concentration of less than 19.5 percent by volume. 
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen-enriched</I> atmosphere means an atmosphere that contains 22.0 percent or more oxygen by volume. 
</P>
<P><I>Safe for Hot Work</I> denotes a space that meets all of the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) The oxygen content of the atmosphere does not exceed 22.0 percent by volume; 
</P>
<P>(2) The concentration of flammable vapors in the atmosphere is less than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit; 
</P>
<P>(3) The residues or materials in the space are not capable of producing a higher concentration than permitted in paragraph (1) or (2) of the above, under existing atmospheric conditions in the presence of hot work and while maintained as directed by the Marine Chemist or competent person, and 
</P>
<P>(4) All adjacent spaces have been cleaned, or inerted, or treated sufficiently to prevent the spread of fire. 
</P>
<P><I>Safe for Workers</I> denotes a space that meets the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) The oxygen content of the atmosphere is at least 19.5 percent and below 22 percent by volume; 
</P>
<P>(2) The concentration of flammable vapors is below 10 percent of the lower explosive limit (LEL); 
</P>
<P>(3) Any toxic materials in the atmosphere associated with cargo, fuel, tank coatings, or inerting media are within permissible concentrations at the time of the inspection; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any residues or materials associated with the work authorized by the Marine Chemist, Certified Industrial Hygienist, or competent person will not produce uncontrolled release of toxic materials under existing atmospheric conditions while maintained as directed. 
</P>
<P><I>Space</I> means an area on a vessel or vessel section or within a shipyard such as, but not limited to: cargo tanks or holds; pump or engine rooms; storage lockers; tanks containing flammable or combustible liquids, gases, or solids; rooms within buildings; crawl spaces; tunnels; or accessways. The atmosphere within a space is the entire area within its bounds. 
</P>
<P><I>Upper explosive limit</I> (UEL) means the maximum concentration of flammable vapor in air above which propagation of flame does not occur on contact with a source of ignition. 
</P>
<P><I>Vessel section</I> means a sub-assembly, module, or other component of a vessel being built, repaired, or broken. 
</P>
<P><I>Visual inspection</I> means the physical survey of the space, its surroundings and contents to identify hazards such as, but not limited to, restricted accessibility, residues, unguarded machinery, and piping or electrical systems. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.12" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.12   Precautions and the order of testing before entering confined and enclosed spaces and other dangerous atmospheres.</HEAD>
<P>The employer shall ensure that atmosphereic testing is performed in the following sequence: oxygen content, flammability, toxicity.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Oxygen content.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that the following spaces are visually inspected and tested by a competent person to determine the atmosphere's oxygen content prior to initial entry into the space by an employee: 
</P>
<P>(i) Spaces that have been sealed, such as, but not limited to, spaces that have been coated and closed up, and non-ventilated spaces that have been freshly painted; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Spaces and adjacent spaces that contain or have contained combustible or flammable liquids or gases; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Spaces and adjacent spaces that contain or have contained liquids, gases, or solids that are toxic, corrosive, or irritant; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Spaces and adjacent spaces that have been fumigated; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Spaces containing materials or residues of materials that create an oxygen-deficient atmosphere. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the space to be entered contains an oxygen deficient atmosphere, the space shall be labeled “Not Safe for Workers” or, if oxygen-enriched, “Not Safe for Workers—Not Safe for Hot Work.” If an oxygen-deficient or oxygen-enriched atmosphere is found, ventilation shall be provided at volumes and flow rates sufficient to ensure that the oxygen content is maintained at or above 19.5 percent and below 22.0 percent by volume. The warning label may be removed when the oxygen content is equal to or greater than 19.5 and less than 22.0 percent by volume. 
</P>
<P>(3) An employee may not enter a space where the oxygen content, by volume, is below 19.5 percent or above 22.0 percent. Exception: An employee may enter for emergency rescue or for a short duration for installation of ventilation equipment necessary to start work in the space provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) The atmosphere in the space is monitored for oxygen content, by volume, continuously; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Respiratory protection and other appropriate personal protective equipment and clothing are provided in accordance with subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>Other provisions for work in IDLH atmospheres are located in subpart I of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Flammable atmospheres.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that spaces and adjacent spaces that contain or have contained combustible or flammable liquids or gases are: 
</P>
<P>(i) Inspected visually by the competent person to determine the presence of combustible or flammable liquids; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Tested by a competent person prior to entry by an employee to determine the concentration of flammable vapors and gases within the space. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the concentration of flammable vapors or gases in the space to be entered is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit, the space shall be labeled “Not Safe for Workers” and “Not Safe for Hot Work.” Ventilation shall be provided at volumes and flow rates sufficient to ensure that the concentration of flammable vapors is maintained below 10 percent of the lower explosive limit. The warning labels may be removed when the concentration of flammable vapors is below 10 percent of the lower explosive limit. 
</P>
<P>(3) An employee may not enter a space where the concentration of flammable vapors or gases is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit. Exception: An employee may enter for emergency rescue or for a short duration for installation of ventilation equipment necessary to start work in the space, provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) No ignition sources are present; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The atmosphere in the space is monitored continuously; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Atmospheres at or above the upper explosive limit are maintained; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Respiratory protection and other appropriate personal protective equipment and clothing are provided in accordance with subpart I of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Additional provisions for work in IDLH atmospheres are located in subpart I of this part.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Additional provisions for work in spaces containing a flammable substance which also has a permissible exposure limit, are located in subpart Z of 29 CFR part 1915, and § 1915.12(c).</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Toxic, corrosive, irritant or fumigated atmospheres and residues.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that spaces or adjacent spaces that contain or have contained liquids, gases, or solids that are toxic, corrosive or irritant are: 
</P>
<P>(i) Inspected visually by the competent person to determine the presence of toxic, corrosive, or irritant residue contaminants; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Tested by a competent person prior to initial entry by an employee to determine the air concentration of toxics, corrosives, or irritants within the space. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a space contains an air concentration of a material which exceeds a part 1915 subpart Z permissible exposure limit (PEL) or is IDLH, the space shall be labeled “Not Safe for Workers.” Ventilation shall be provided at volumes and flow rates which will ensure that air concentrations are maintained within the PEL or, in the case of contaminants for which there is no established PEL, below the IDLH. The warning label may be removed when the concentration of contaminants is maintained within the PEL or below IDLH level. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a space cannot be ventilated to within the PELs or is IDLH, a Marine Chemist or CIH must re-test until the space can be certified “Enter with Restrictions” or “Safe for Workers.” 
</P>
<P>(4) An employee may not enter a space whose atmosphere exceeds a PEL or is IDLH. Exception: An employee may enter for emergency rescue, or for a short duration for installation of ventilation equipment provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) The atmosphere in the space is monitored continuously; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Respiratory protection and other necessary and appropriate personal protective equipment and clothing are provided in accordance with subpart I of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>):</HED>
<P>Other provisions for work in IDLH atmospheres are located in subpart I of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) <I>Training of employees entering confined and enclosed spaces or other dangerous atmospheres.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each employee that enters a confined or enclosed space and other areas with dangerous atmospheres is trained to perform all required duties safely. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each employee who enters a confined space, enclosed space, or other areas with dangerous atmospheres is trained to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Recognize the characteristics of the confined space; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Anticipate and be aware of the hazards that may be faced during entry; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Recognize the adverse health effects that may be caused by the exposure to a hazard; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Understand the physical signs and reactions related to exposures to such hazards; 
</P>
<P>(v) Know what personal protective equipment is needed for safe entry into and exit from the space; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Use personal protective equipment; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Where necessary, be aware of the presence and proper use of barriers that may be needed to protect an entrant from hazards. 
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that each entrant into confined or enclosed spaces or other dangerous atmospheres is trained to exit the space or dangerous atmosphere whenever: 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer or his or her representative orders evacuation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An evacuation signal such as an alarm is activated ; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The entrant perceives that he or she is in danger. 
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall provide each employee with training: 
</P>
<P>(i) Before the entrant begins work addressed by this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever there is a change in operations or in an employee's duties that presents a hazard about which the employee has not previously been trained. 
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall certify that the training required by paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(4) of this section has been accomplished. 
</P>
<P>(i) The certification shall contain the employee's name, the name of the certifier, and the date(s) of the certification. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The certification shall be available for inspection by the Assistant Secretary, the Director, employees, and their representatives. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rescue teams.</I> The employer shall either establish a shipyard rescue team or arrange for an outside rescue team which will respond promptly to a request for rescue service. 
</P>
<P>(1) Shipyard rescue teams shall meet the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee assigned to the shipyard team shall be provided with and trained to use the personal protective equipment he or she will need, including respirators and any rescue equipment necessary for making rescues from confined and enclosed spaces and other dangerous atmospheres. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee assigned to the shipyard rescue team shall be trained to perform his or her rescue functions including confined and enclosed and other dangerous atmosphere entry. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Shipyard rescue teams shall practice their skills at least once every 12 months. Practice drills shall include the use of mannequins and rescue equipment during simulated rescue operations involving physical facilities that approximate closely those facilities from which rescue may be needed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>If the team performs an actual rescue during the 12 month period, an additional practice drill for that type of rescue is not required.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) At least one person on each rescue team shall maintain current certification in basic first aid which includes maintenance of an airway, control of bleeding, maintenance of circulation and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) skills. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall inform outside rescue teams of the hazards that the team may encounter when called to perform confined and enclosed space or other dangerous atmosphere rescue at the employer's facility so that the rescue team can be trained and equipped.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>):</HED>
<P>The criteria for in-house rescue, listed in paragraph (e)(1) can be used by the employer in evaluating outside rescue services.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>Exchanging hazard information between employers.</I> Each employer whose employees work in confined and enclosed spaces or other dangerous atmospheres shall ensure that all available information on the hazards, safety rules, and emergency procedures concerning those spaces and atmospheres is exchanged with any other employer whose employees may enter the same spaces. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 37857, July 25, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 14219, Mar. 16, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.13" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.13   Cleaning and other cold work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Locations covered by this section.</I> The employer shall ensure that manual cleaning and other cold work are not performed in the following spaces unless the conditions of paragraph (b) of this section have been met: 
</P>
<P>(1) Spaces containing or having last contained bulk quantities of combustible or flammable liquids or gases; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Spaces containing or having last contained bulk quantities of liquids, gases or solids that are toxic, corrosive or irritating. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for performing cleaning or cold work.</I> (1) Liquid residues of hazardous materials shall be removed from work spaces as thoroughly as practicable before employees start cleaning operations or cold work in a space. Special care shall be taken to prevent the spilling or the draining of these materials into the water surrounding the vessel, or for shore-side operations, onto the surrounding work area. 
</P>
<P>(2) Testing shall be conducted by a competent person to determine the concentration of flammable, combustible, toxic, corrosive, or irritant vapors within the space prior to the beginning of cleaning or cold work. 
</P>
<P>(3) Continuous ventilation shall be provided at volumes and flow rates sufficient to ensure that the concentration(s) of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Flammable vapor is maintained below 10 percent of the lower explosive limit; and
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Spaces containing highly volatile residues may require additional ventilation to keep the concentration of flammable vapors below 10 percent of the lower explosive limit and within the permissible exposure limit.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Toxic, corrosive, or irritant vapors are maintained within the permissible exposure limits and below IDLH levels. 
</P>
<P>(4) Testing shall be conducted by the competent person as often as necessary during cleaning or cold work to assure that air concentrations are below 10 percent of the lower explosive limit and within the PELs and below IDLH levels. Factors such as, but not limited to, temperature, volatility of the residues and other existing conditions in and about the spaces are to be considered in determining the frequency of testing necessary to assure a safe atmosphere.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>See appendix A for additional information on frequency of testing.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Spills or other releases of flammable, combustible, toxic, corrosive, and irritant materials shall be cleaned up as work progresses. 
</P>
<P>(6) An employee may not enter a confined or enclosed space or other dangerous atmosphere if the concentration of flammable or combustible vapors in work spaces exceeds 10 percent of the lower explosive limit. Exception: An employee may enter for emergency rescue or for a short duration for installation of ventilation equipment provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) No ignition sources are present; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The atmosphere in the space is monitored continuously; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The atmosphere in the space is maintained above the upper explosive limit; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Respiratory protection, personal protective equipment, and clothing are provided in accordance with subpart I of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(6):</HED>
<P>Other provisions for work in IDLH and other dangerous atmospheres are located in subpart I of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(7) A competent person shall test ventilation discharge areas and other areas where discharged vapors may collect to determine if vapors discharged from the spaces being ventilated are accumulating in concentrations hazardous to employees. 
</P>
<P>(8) If the tests required in paragraph (b)(7) of this section indicate that concentrations of exhaust vapors that are hazardous to employees are accumulating, all work in the contaminated area shall be stopped until the vapors have dissipated or been removed. 
</P>
<P>(9) Only explosion-proof, self-contained portable lamps, or other electric equipment approved by a National Recognized Testing Laboratory (NRTL) for the hazardous location shall be used in spaces described in paragraph (a) of this section until such spaces have been certified as “Safe for Workers.”
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(9):</HED>
<P>Battery-fed, portable lamps or other electric equipment bearing the approval of a NRTL for the class, and division of the location in which they are used are deemed to meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(10) The employer shall prominently post signs that prohibit sources of ignition within or near a space that has contained flammable or combustible liquids or gases in bulk quantities: 
</P>
<P>(i) At the entrance to those spaces; 
</P>
<P>(ii) In adjacent spaces; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the open area adjacent to those spaces. 
</P>
<P>(11) All air moving equipment and its component parts, including duct work, capable of generating a static electric discharge of sufficient energy to create a source of ignition, shall be bonded electrically to the structure of a vessel or vessel section or, in the case of land-side spaces, grounded to prevent an electric discharge in the space. 
</P>
<P>(12) Fans shall have non-sparking blades, and portable air ducts shall be of non-sparking materials.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>See § 1915.12(c) of this part and applicable requirements of 29 CFR part 1915, subpart Z for other provisions affecting cleaning and cold work.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.14" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.14   Hot work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hot work requiring testing by a Marine Chemist or Coast Guard authorized person.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that hot work is not performed in or on any of the following confined and enclosed spaces and other dangerous atmospheres, boundaries of spaces or pipelines until the work area has been tested and certified by a Marine Chemist or a U.S. Coast Guard authorized person as “Safe for Hot Work”: 
</P>
<P>(i) Within, on, or immediately adjacent to spaces that contain or have contained combustible or flammable liquids or gases. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Within, on, or immediately adjacent to fuel tanks that contain or have last contained fuel; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) On pipelines, heating coils, pump fittings or other accessories connected to spaces that contain or have last contained fuel. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Exception: On dry cargo, miscellaneous and passenger vessels and in the landside operations within spaces which meet the standards for oxygen, flammability and toxicity in § 1915.12, but are adjacent to spaces containing flammable gases or liquids, with a flash point below 150 °F (65.6 °C) when the distance between such spaces and the work is 25 feet (7.62 m) or greater. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>For flammable liquids with flash points above 150 °F (65.6 °C), see paragraph (b) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The certificate issued by the Marine Chemist or Coast Guard authorized person shall be posted in the immediate vicinity of the affected operations while they are in progress and kept on file for a period of at least three months from the date of the completion of the operation for which the certificate was generated. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hot work requiring testing by a competent person.</I> (1) Hot work is not permitted in or on the following spaces or adjacent spaces or other dangerous atmospheres until they have been tested by a competent person and determined to contain no concentrations of flammable vapors equal to or greater than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit: 
</P>
<P>(i) Dry cargo holds, 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bilges, 
</P>
<P>(iii) The engine room and boiler spaces for which a Marine Chemist or a Coast Guard authorized person certificate is not required under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vessels and vessel sections for which a Marine Chemist or Coast Guard authorized person certificate is not required under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Land-side confined and enclosed spaces or other dangerous atmospheres not covered by paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the concentration of flammable vapors or gases is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit in the space or an adjacent space where the hot work is to be done, then the space shall be labeled “Not Safe for Hot Work” and ventilation shall be provided at volumes and flow rates sufficient to ensure that the concentration of flammable vapors or gases is below 10 percent by volume of the lower explosive limit. The warning label may be removed when the concentration of flammable vapors and gases are below 10 percent lower explosive limit.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1915.14:</HED>
<P>See appendix A of this subpart for additional information relevant to performing hot work safely.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 37857, July 25, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 14219, Mar. 16, 1995; 67 FR 44541, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.15" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.15   Maintenance of safe conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preventing hazardous materials from entering.</I> Pipelines that could carry hazardous materials into spaces that have been certified “Safe for Workers” or “Safe for Hot Work” shall be disconnected, blanked off, or otherwise blocked by a positive method to prevent hazardous materials from being discharged into the space. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alteration of existing conditions.</I> When a change that could alter conditions within a tested confined or enclosed space or other dangerous atmosphere occurs, work in the affected space or area shall be stopped. Work may not be resumed until the affected space or area is visually inspected and retested and found to comply with §§ 1915.12, 1915.13, and 1915.14 of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Examples of changes that would warrant the stoppage of work include: The opening of manholes or other closures or the adjusting of a valve regulating the flow of hazardous materials.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Tests to maintain the conditions of a Marine Chemist's or Coast Guard authorized person's certificates.</I> A competent person shall visually inspect and test each space certified as “Safe for Workers” or “Safe for Hot Work,” as often as necessary to ensure that atmospheric conditions within that space are maintained within the conditions established by the certificate after the certificate has been issued. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Change in the conditions of a Marine Chemist's or Coast Guard authorized person's certificate.</I> If a competent person finds that the atmospheric conditions within a certified space fail to meet the applicable requirements of §§ 1915.12, 1915.13, and 1915.14 of this part, work in the certified space shall be stopped and may not be resumed until the space has been retested by a Marine Chemist or Coast Guard authorized person and a new certificate issued in accordance with § 1915.14(a). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tests to maintain a competent person's findings.</I> After a competent person has conducted a visual inspection and tests required in §§ 1915.12, 1915.13, and 1915.14 of this part and determined a space to be safe for an employee to enter, he or she shall continue to test and visually inspect spaces as often as necessary to ensure that the required atmospheric conditions within the tested space are maintained.” 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Changes in conditions determined by competent person's findings.</I> After the competent person has determined initially that a space is safe for an employee to enter and he or she finds subsequently that the conditions within the tested space fail to meet the requirements of §§ 1915.12, 1915.13, and 1915.14, of this part, as applicable, work shall be stopped until the conditions in the tested space are corrected to comply with §§ 1915.12, 1915.13, and 1915.14, as applicable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 37857, July 25, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 14219, Mar. 16, 1995; 67 FR 44541, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.16" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.16   Warning signs and labels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employee comprehension of signs and labels.</I> The Employer shall ensure that each sign or label posted to comply with the requirements of this subpart is presented in a manner that can be perceived and understood by all employees. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting of large work areas.</I> A warning sign or label required by paragraph (a) of this section need not be posted at an individual tank, compartment or work space within a work area if the entire work area has been tested and certified: not safe for workers, not safe for hot work, and if the sign or label to this effect is posted conspicuously at each means of access to the work area. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2.6.7.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 1915—Compliance Assistance Guidelines for Confined and Enclosed Spaces and Other Dangerous Atmospheres
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix is a non-mandatory set of guidelines provided to assist employers in complying with the requirements of this subpart. This appendix neither creates additional obligations nor detracts from obligations otherwise contained in the standard. It is intended to provide explanatory information and educational material to employers and employees to foster understanding of, and compliance with, the standard. 
</P>
<P><I>Sections 1915.11 through 1915.16.</I> These standards are minimum safety standards for entering and working safely in vessel tanks and compartments. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.11(b) Definition of “Hot work.”</I> There are several instances in which circumstances do not necessitate that grinding, drilling, abrasive blasting be regarded as hot work. Some examples are: 
</P>
<P>1. Abrasive blasting of the external surface of the vessel (the hull) for paint preparation does not necessitate pumping and cleaning the tanks of the vessel.
</P>
<P>2. Prior to hot work on any hollow structure, the void space should be tested and appropriate precautions taken. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.11(b) Definition of “Lower explosive limit.”</I> The terms lower flammable limit (LFL) and lower explosive limit (LEL) are used interchangeably in fire science literature. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.11(b) Definition of “Upper explosive limit.”</I> The terms upper flammable limit (UFL) and upper explosive limit (UEL) are used interchangeably in fire science literature. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.12(a)(3).</I> After a tank has been properly washed and ventilated, the tank should contain 20.8 percent oxygen by volume. This is the same amount found in our normal atmosphere at sea level. However, it is possible that the oxygen content will be lower. When this is the case, the reasons for this deficiency should be determined and corrective action taken. 
</P>
<P>An oxygen content of 19.5 percent can support life and is adequate for entry. However, any oxygen level greater than 20.8 percent by volume should alert the competent person to look for the cause of the oxygen-enriched atmosphere and correct it prior to entry. In addition, any oxygen level lower than 19.5 percent level should also alert the competent person to look for the cause of the oxygen-deficiency and correct it prior to entry. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.12(b)(3) Flammable atmospheres.</I> Atmospheres with a concentration of flammable vapors at or above 10 percent of the lower explosive limit (LEL) are considered hazardous when located in confined spaces. However, atmospheres with flammable vapors below 10 percent of the LEL are not necessarily safe. 
</P>
<P>Such atmospheres are too lean to burn. Nevertheless, when a space contains or produces measurable flammable vapors below the 10 percent LEL, it might indicate that flammable vapors are being released or introduced into the space and could present a hazard in time. Therefore, the cause of the vapors should be investigated and, if possible, eliminated prior to entry. 
</P>
<P>Some situations that have produced measurable concentrations of flammable vapors that could exceed 10 percent of the LEL in time are: 
</P>
<P>1. Pipelines that should have been blanked or disconnected have opened, allowing product into the space. 
</P>
<P>2. The vessel may have shifted, allowing product not previously cleaned and removed during washing to move into other areas of the vessel. 
</P>
<P>3. Residues may be producing the atmosphere by releasing flammable vapor. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.12(b)(6) Flammable atmospheres that are toxic.</I> An atmosphere with a measurable concentration of a flammable substance below 10 percent of the LEL may be above the OSHA permissible exposure limit for that substance. In that case, refer to § 1915.12(c) (2), (3), and (4). 
</P>
<P><I>Sections 1915.13(b)(4), 1915.15(c), and 1915.15(e).</I> The frequency with which a tank is monitored to determine if atmospheric conditions are being maintained is a function of several factors that are discussed below: 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Temperature.</I> Higher temperatures will cause a combustible or flammable liquid to vaporize at a faster rate than lower temperatures. This is important since hotter days may cause tank residues to produce more vapors and that may result in the vapors exceeding 10 percent of the LEL or an overexposure to toxic contaminants. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Work in the tank.</I> Any activity in the tank could change the atmospheric conditions in that tank. Oxygen from a leaking oxyfuel hose or torch could result in an oxygen-enriched atmosphere that would more easily propagate a flame. Some welding operations use inert gas, and leaks can result in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere. Manual tank cleaning with high pressure spray devices can stir up residues and result in exposures to toxic contaminants. Simple cleaning or mucking out, where employees walk through and shovel residues and sludge, can create a change in atmospheric conditions. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Period of time elapsed.</I> If a period of time has elapsed since a Marine Chemist or Coast Guard authorized person has certified a tank as safe, the atmospheric condition should be rechecked by the competent person prior to entry and starting work. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Unattended tanks or spaces.</I> When a tank or space has been tested and declared safe, then subsequently left unattended for a period of time, it should be retested prior to entry and starting work. For example, when barges are left unattended at night, unidentified products from another barge are sometimes dumped into their empty tanks. Since this would result in a changed atmosphere, the tanks should be retested prior to entry and starting work. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Work break.</I> When workers take a break or leave at the end of the shift, equipment sometimes is inadvertently left in the tanks. At lunch or work breaks and at the end of the shift are the times when it is most likely someone will leave a burning or cutting torch in the tank, perhaps turned on and leaking oxygen or an inert gas. Since the former can produce an oxygen-enriched atmosphere, and the latter an oxygen-deficient atmosphere, tanks should be checked for equipment left behind, and atmosphere, monitored if necessary prior to re-entering and resuming work. In an oxygen-enriched atmosphere, the flammable range is severely broadened. This means that an oxygen-enriched atmosphere can promote very rapid burning. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Ballasting or trimming.</I> Changing the position of the ballast, or trimming or in any way moving the vessel so as to expose cargo that had been previously trapped, can produce a change in the atmosphere of the tank. The atmosphere should be retested after any such move and prior to entry or work. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.14 (a) and (b) Hot work.</I> This is a reminder that other sections of the OSHA shipyard safety and health standards in part 1915 should be reviewed prior to starting any hot work. Most notably, subpart D, Welding, Cutting and Heating, places additional restrictions on hot work. The requirements of §§ 1915.51 and 1915.53 must be met before hot work is begun on any metal that is toxic or is covered by a preservative coating respectively; the requirements of § 1915.54 must be met before welding, cutting, or heating is begun on any hollow containers or structures not covered by § 1915.12. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.12(a)(2).</I> During hot work, more than 20.8 percent oxygen by volume can be unsafe since it extends the normal flammable range. The standard permits the oxygen level to reach 22 percent by volume in order to account for instrument error. However, the cause of excess oxygen should be investigated and the source removed. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 1915.16(b).</I> If the entire vessel has been found to be in the same condition, then employers shall be considered to be in compliance with this requirement when signs using appropriate warning language in accordance with § 1915.16(a) are posted at the gangway and at all other means of access to the vessel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44541, July 3, 2002; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.2.6.7.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart B of Part 1915—Reprint of U.S. Coast Guard Regulations Referenced in Subpart B, for Determination of Coast Guard Authorized Persons
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix provides a complete reprint of U.S. Coast Guard regulations as of October 1, 1993, referenced in subpart B for purposes of determining who is a Coast Guard authorized person. 
</P>
<P>1. Title 46 CFR 35.01-1 (a) through (c) covering hot work on tank vessels reads as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) The provisions of “Standard for the Control of Gas Hazards on Vessels to be Repaired,” NFPA No. 306, published by National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269, shall be used as a guide in conducting the inspections and issuance of certificates required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Until an inspection has been made to determine that such operation can be undertaken with safety, no alterations, repairs, or other such operations involving riveting, welding, burning, or like fire-producing actions shall be made: 
</P>
<P>(1) Within or on the boundaries of cargo tanks that have been used to carry flammable or combustible liquid or chemicals in bulk, or within spaces adjacent to such cargo tanks; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Within or on the boundaries of fuel tanks; or 
</P>
<P>(3) To pipe lines, heating coils, pumps, fittings, or other appurtenances connected to such cargo or fuel tanks. 
</P>
<P>(c) Such inspections shall be made and evidenced as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) In ports or places in the United States or its territories and possessions, the inspection shall be made by a Marine Chemist certificated by the National Fire Protection Association; however, if the services of such certified Marine Chemists are not reasonably available, the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection, upon the recommendation of the vessel owner and his contractor or their representative, shall select a person who, in the case of an individual vessel, shall be authorized to make such inspection. If the inspection indicates that such operations can be undertaken with safety, a certificate setting forth the fact in writing and qualified as may be required, shall be issued by the certified Marine Chemist or the authorized person before the work is started. Such qualifications shall include any requirements as may be deemed necessary to maintain, insofar as can reasonably be done, the safe conditions in the spaces certified, throughout the operation and shall include such additional tests and certifications as considered required. Such qualifications and requirements shall include precautions necessary to eliminate or minimize hazards that may be present from protective coatings or residues from cargoes. 
</P>
<P>2. Title 46 CFR 71.60(c)(1) covering hot work on passenger vessels reads as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) The provisions of “Standard for the Control of Gas Hazards on Vessels to be Repaired,” NFPA No. 306, published by National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269, shall be used as a guide in conducting the inspections and issuance of certificates required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Until an inspection has been made to determine that such operation can be undertaken with safety, no alterations, repairs, or other such operations involving riveting, welding, burning, or like fire-producing actions shall be made: 
</P>
<P>(1) Within or on the boundaries of cargo tanks which have been used to carry flammable or combustible liquid or chemicals in bulk, or within spaces adjacent to such cargo tanks; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Within or on the boundaries of fuel tanks; or 
</P>
<P>(3) To pipe lines, heating coils, pumps, fittings, or other appurtenances connected to such cargo or fuel tanks. 
</P>
<P>(c) Such inspections shall be made and evidenced as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) In ports or places in the United States or its territories and possessions the inspection shall be made by a Marine Chemist certificated by the National Fire Protection Association; however, if the services of such certified Marine Chemist are not reasonably available, the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection, upon the recommendation of the vessel owner and his contractor or their representative, shall select a person who, in the case of an individual vessel, shall be authorized to make such inspection. If the inspection indicated that such operations can be undertaken with safety, a certificate setting forth the fact in writing and qualified as may be required, shall be issued by the certified Marine Chemist or the authorized person before the work is started. Such qualifications shall include any requirements as may be deemed necessary to maintain, insofar as can reasonably be done, the safe conditions in the spaces certified throughout the operation and shall include such additional tests and certifications as considered required. Such qualifications and requirements shall include precautions necessary to eliminate or minimize hazards that may be present from protective coatings or residues from cargoes. 
</P>
<P>3. Title 46 CFR 91.50-1(c)(1) covering hot work on cargo and miscellaneous vessels as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) The provisions of “Standard for the Control of Gas Hazards on Vessels to be Repaired,” NFPA No. 306, published by National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269, shall be used as a guide in conducting the inspections and issuance of certificates required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Until an inspection has been made to determine that such operation can be undertaken with safety, no alterations, repairs, or other such operations involving riveting, welding, burning, or like fire-producing actions shall be made: 
</P>
<P>(1) Within or on the boundaries of cargo tanks which have been used to carry flammable or combustible liquid or chemicals in bulk, or within spaces adjacent to such cargo tanks; or, 
</P>
<P>(2) Within or on the boundaries of fuel tanks; or, 
</P>
<P>(3) To pipe lines, heating coils, pumps, fittings, or other appurtenances connected to such cargo or fuel tanks. 
</P>
<P>(c) Such inspections shall be made and evidenced as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) In ports or places in the United States or its territories and possessions the inspection shall be made by a Marine Chemist certificated by the National Fire Protection Association; however, if the services of such certified Marine Chemist are not reasonably available, the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection, upon the recommendation of the vessel owner and his contractor or their representative, shall select a person who, in the case of an individual vessel, shall be authorized to make such inspection. If the inspection indicated that such operations can be undertaken with safety, a certificate setting forth the fact in writing and qualified as may be required, shall be issued by the certified Marine Chemist or the authorized person before the work is started. Such qualifications shall include any requirements as may be deemed necessary to maintain, insofar as can reasonably be done, the safe conditions in the spaces certified throughout the operation and shall include such additional tests and certifications as considered required. Such qualifications and requirements shall include precautions necessary to eliminate or minimize hazards that may be present from protective coatings or residues from cargoes.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Surface Preparation and Preservation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.31" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.31   Scope and application of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The standards contained in this subpart shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding and shall not apply to shipbreaking.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.32" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.32   Toxic cleaning solvents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When toxic solvents are used, the employer shall employ one or more of the following measures to safeguard the health of employees exposed to these solvents.
</P>
<P>(1) The cleaning operation shall be completely enclosed to prevent the escape of vapor into the working space.
</P>
<P>(2) Either natural ventilation or mechanical exhaust ventilation shall be used to remove the vapor at the source and to dilute the concentration of vapors in the working space to a concentration which is safe for the entire work period.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees shall be protected against toxic vapors by suitable respiratory protective equipment in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part and, where necessary, against exposure of skin and eye contact with toxic solvents and their vapors by suitable clothing and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) The principles in the threshold limit values to which attention is directed in § 1915.4 will be used by the Department of Labor in enforcement proceedings in defining a safe concentration of air contaminants.
</P>
<P>(c) When flammable solvents are used, precautions shall be taken in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.36.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 26351, May 24, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.33" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.33   Chemical paint and preservative removers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees shall be protected against skin contact during the handling and application of chemical paint and preservative removers and shall be protected against eye injury by goggles or face shields in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) When using flammable paint and preservative removers, precautions shall be taken in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.36.
</P>
<P>(c) When using chemical paint and preservative removers which contain volatile and toxic solvents, such as benzol, acetone and amyl acetate, the provisions of § 1915.32 shall be applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) When using paint and rust removers containing strong acids or alkalies, employees shall be protected by suitable face shields to prevent chemical burns on the face and neck.
</P>
<P>(e) When steam guns are used, all employees working within range of the blast shall be protected by suitable face shields. Metal parts of the steam gun itself shall be insulated to protect the operator against heat burns.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 26351, May 24, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.34" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.3.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.34   Mechanical paint removers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Power tools.</I> (1) Employees engaged in the removal of paints, preservatives, rusts, or other coatings by means of power tools shall be protected against eye injury by using goggles or face shields in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) All portable rotating tools used for the removal of paints, preservatives, rusts or other coatings shall be adequately guarded to protect both the operator and nearby workers from flying missiles.
</P>
<P>(3) Portable electric tools shall be grounded in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.132.
</P>
<P>(4) In a confined space, mechanical exhaust ventilation sufficient to keep the dust concentration to a minimum shall be used, or employees shall be protected by respiratory protective equipment in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Flame removal.</I> (1) Hardened preservative coatings shall not be removed by flame in enclosed spaces unless the employees exposed to fumes are protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I. Employees performing such an operation in the open air, and those exposed to the resulting fumes shall be protected by a fume filter type respirator in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Flame or heat shall not be used to remove soft and greasy preservative coatings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Abrasive blasting</I>—(1) <I>Equipment.</I> Hoses and fittings used for abrasive blasting shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hoses.</I> Hose of a type to prevent shocks from static electricity shall be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Hose couplings.</I> Hose lengths shall be joined by metal couplings secured to the outside of the hose to avoid erosion and weakening of the couplings.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Nozzles.</I> Nozzles shall be attached to the hose by fittings that will prevent the nozzle from unintentionally becoming disengaged. Nozzle attachments shall be of metal and shall fit onto the hose externally.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Dead man control.</I> A dead man control device shall be provided at the nozzle end of the blasting hose either to provide direct cutoff or to signal the pot tender by means of a visual and audible signal to cut off the flow, in the event the blaster loses control of the hose. The pot tender shall be available at all times to respond immediately to the signal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Replacement.</I> Hoses and all fittings used for abrasive blasting shall be inspected frequently to insure timely replacement before an unsafe amount of wear has occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> (i) Abrasive blasters working in enclosed spaces shall be protected by hoods and air line respirators, or by air helmets of a positive pressure type in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Abrasive blasters working in the open shall be protected as indicated in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section except that when synthetic abrasive containing less than one percent free silica are used, filter type respirators approved jointly by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health and the Mine Safety and Health Administration for exposure to lead dusts, used in conjunction with the proper eye, face and head protection, may be used in accordance with subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees, other than blasters, including machine tenders and abrasive recovery men, working in areas where unsafe concentrations of abrasive materials and dusts are present shall be protected by eye and respiratory protective equipment in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The blaster shall be protected against injury from exposure to the blast by appropriate protective clothing, including gloves.
</P>
<P>(v) Since surges from drops in pressure in the hose line can be of sufficient proportions to throw the blaster off the staging, the blaster shall be protected by a safety belt when blasting is being done from elevations where adequate protection against falling cannot be provided by railings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 26351, May 24, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.35" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.3.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.35   Painting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Paints mixed with toxic vehicles or solvents.</I> (1) When paints mixed with toxic vehicles or solvents are sprayed, the following conditions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(i) In confined spaces, employees continuously exposed to such spraying shall be protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In tanks or compartments, employees continuously exposed to such spraying shall be protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I. Where mechanical ventilation is provided, employees shall be protected by respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In large and well ventilated areas, employees exposed to such spraying shall be protected by respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where brush application of paints with toxic solvents is done in confined spaces or in other areas where lack of ventilation creates a hazard, employees shall be protected by filter respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) When flammable paints or vehicles are used, precautions shall be taken in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.36.
</P>
<P>(4) The metallic parts of air moving devices, including fans, blowers, and jet-type air movers, and all duct work shall be electrically bonded to the vessel's structure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Paints and tank coatings dissolved in highly volatile, toxic and flammable solvents.</I> Several organic coatings, adhesives and resins are dissolved in highly toxic, flammable and explosive solvents with flash points below 80 °F. Work involving such materials shall be done only when all of the following special precautions have been taken:
</P>
<P>(1) Sufficient exhaust ventilation shall be provided to keep the concentration of solvent vapors below ten (10) percent of the lower explosive limit. Frequent tests shall be made by a competent person to ascertain the concentration.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ventilation fails or if the concentration of solvent vapors reaches or exceeds ten (10) percent of the lower explosive limit, painting shall be stopped and the compartment shall be evacuated until the concentration again falls below ten (10) percent of the lower explosive limit. If the concentration does not fall when painting is stopped, additional ventilation to bring the concentration to below ten (10) percent of the lower explosive limit shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(3) Ventilation shall be continued after the completion of painting until the space or compartment is gas free. The final determination as to whether the space or compartment is gas free shall be made after the ventilating equipment has been shut off for at least 10 minutes.
</P>
<P>(4) Exhaust ducts shall discharge clear of working areas and away from sources of possible ignition. Periodic tests shall be made to ensure that the exhausted vapors are not accumulating in other areas within or around the vessel or dry dock.
</P>
<P>(5) All motors and control equipment shall be of the explosion-proof type. Fans shall have nonferrous blades. Portable air ducts shall also be of nonferrous materials. All motors and associated control equipment shall be properly maintained and grounded.
</P>
<P>(6) Only non-sparking paint buckets, spray guns and tools shall be used. Metal parts of paint brushes and rollers shall be insulated. Staging shall be erected in a manner which ensures that it is non-sparking.
</P>
<P>(7) Only explosion proof lights, approved by the Underwriters' Laboratories for use in Class I, Group D atmospheres, or approved as permissible by the Mine Safety and Health Administration or the U.S. Coast Guard, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(8) A competent person shall inspect all power and lighting cables to ensure that the insulation is in excellent condition, free of all cracks and worn spots, that there are no connections within fifty (50) feet of the operation, that lines are not overloaded, and that they are suspended with sufficient slack to prevent undue stress or chafing.
</P>
<P>(9) The face, eyes, head, hands, and all other exposed parts of the bodies of employees handling such highly volatile paints shall be protected. All footwear shall be non-sparking, such as rubbers, rubber boots or rubber soled shoes without nails. Coveralls or other outer clothing shall be of cotton. Rubber, rather than plastic, gloves shall be used because of the danger of static sparks.
</P>
<P>(10) No matches, lighted cigarettes, cigars, or pipes, and no cigarette lighters or ferrous articles shall be taken into the area where work is being done.
</P>
<P>(11) All solvent drums taken into the compartment shall be placed on nonferrous surfaces and shall be grounded to the vessel. Metallic contact shall be maintained between containers and drums when materials are being transferred from one to another.
</P>
<P>(12) Spray guns, paint pots, and metallic parts of connecting tubing shall be electrically bonded, and the bonded assembly shall be grounded to the vessel.
</P>
<P>(13) All employees continuously in a compartment in which such painting is being performed shall be protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part and by suitable protective clothing. Employees entering such compartments for a limited time shall be protected by filter cartridge type respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(14) All employees doing exterior paint spraying with such paints shall be protected by suitable filter cartridge type respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part and by suitable protective clothing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 26351, May 24, 1996; 67 FR 44541, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.36" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.3.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.36   Flammable liquids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all cases when liquid solvents, paint and preservative removers, paints or vehicles, other than those covered by § 1915.35(b), are capable of producing a flammable atmosphere under the conditions of use, the following precautions shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) Smoking, open flames, arcs and spark-producing equipment shall be prohibited in the area.
</P>
<P>(2) Ventilation shall be provided in sufficient quantities to keep the concentration of vapors below ten (10) percent of their lower explosive limit. Frequent tests shall be made by a competent person to ascertain the concentration.
</P>
<P>(3) Scrapings and rags soaked with these materials shall be kept in a covered metal container.
</P>
<P>(4) Only explosion proof lights, approved by the Underwriters' Laboratories for use in Class I, Group D atmospheres, or approved as permissible by the Mine Safety and Health Administration or the U.S. Coast Guard, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(5) A competent person shall inspect all power and lighting cables to ensure that the insulation is in excellent condition, free of all cracks and worn spots, that there are no connections within fifty (50) feet of the operation, that lines are not overloaded, and that they are suspended with sufficient slack to prevent undue stress or chafing.
</P>
<P>(6) Suitable fire extinguishing equipment shall be immediately available in the work area and shall be maintained in a state of readiness for instant use.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Welding, Cutting and Heating</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.51" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.51   Ventilation and protection in welding, cutting and heating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this section shall apply to all ship repairing, shipbuilding, and shipbreaking operations; except that paragraph (e) of this section shall apply only to ship repairing and shipbuilding. Paragraph (g) of this section shall apply only to ship repairing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mechanical ventilation requirements.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, mechanical ventilation shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical ventilation shall consist of either general mechanical ventilation systems or local exhaust systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) General mechanical ventilation shall be of sufficient capacity and so arranged as to produce the number of air changes necessary to maintain welding fumes and smoke within safe limits.
</P>
<P>(iii) Local exhaust ventilation shall consist of freely movable hoods intended to be placed by the welder or burner as close as practicable to the work. This system shall be of sufficient capacity and so arranged as to remove fumes and smoke at the source and keep the concentration of them in the breathing zone within safe limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) Contaminated air exhausted from a working space shall be discharged into the open air or otherwise clear of the source of intake air.
</P>
<P>(v) All air replacing that withdrawn shall be clean and respirable.
</P>
<P>(vi) Oxygen shall not be used for ventilation purposes, comfort cooling, blowing dust or dirt from clothing, or for cleaning the work area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Welding, cutting and heating in confined spaces.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3) and (d)(2) of this section either general ventilation meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section shall be provided whenever welding, cutting or heating is performed in a confined space.
</P>
<P>(2) The means of access shall be provided to a confined space and ventilation ducts to this space shall be arranged in accordance with § 1915.76(b) (1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(3) When sufficient ventilation cannot be obtained without blocking the means of access, employees in the confined space shall be protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.154, and an employee on the outside of such a confined space shall be assigned to maintain communication with those working within it and to aid them in an emergency. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Welding, cutting or heating of metals of toxic significance.</I> (1) Welding, cutting or heating in any enclosed spaces aboard the vessel involving the metals specified below shall be performed with either general mechanical or local exhaust ventilation meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Zinc-bearing base or filler metals or metals coated with zinc-bearing materials.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lead base metals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cadmium-bearing filler materials.
</P>
<P>(iv) Chromium-bearing metals or metals coated with chromium-bearing materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Welding, cutting or heating in any enclosed spaces aboard the vessel involving the metals specified below shall be performed with local exhaust ventilation in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section or employees shall be protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.154: 
</P>
<P>(i) Metals containing lead, other than as an impurity, or metals coated with lead-bearing materials. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Cadmium-bearing or cadmium coated base metals.
</P>
<P>(iii) Metals coated with mercury-bearing metals.
</P>
<P>(iv) Beryllium-containing base or filler metals. Because of its high toxicity, work involving beryllium shall be done with both local exhaust ventilation and air line respirators.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees performing such operations in the open air shall be protected by filter type respirators, and employees performing such operations on beryllium-containing base or filler metals shall be protected by air line respirators, in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.154. 
</P>
<P>(4) Other employees exposed to the same atmosphere as the welders or burners shall be protected in the same manner as the welder or burner.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inert-gas metal-arc welding.</I> (1) Since the inert-gas metal-arc welding process involves the production of ultraviolet radiation of intensities of 5 to 30 times that produced during shielded metal-arc welding, the decomposition of chlorinated solvents by ultraviolet rays, and the liberation of toxic fumes and gases, employees shall not be permitted to engage in, or be exposed to the process until the following special precautions have been taken:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of chlorinated solvents shall be kept at least two hundred (200) feet from the exposed arc, and surfaces prepared with chlorinated solvents shall be thoroughly dry before welding is permitted on such surfaces.
</P>
<P>(ii) Helpers and other employees in the area not protected from the arc by screening as provided in § 1915.56(e) shall be protected by filter lenses meeting the requirements of § 1915.153. When two or more welders are exposed to each other's arc, filter lens goggles of a suitable type meeting the requirements of § 1915.153 shall be worn under welding helmets or hand shields to protect the welder against flashes and radiant energy when either the helmet is lifted or the shield is removed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Welders and other employees who are exposed to radiation shall be suitably protected so that the skin is covered completely to prevent burns and other damage by ultraviolet rays. Welding helmets and hand shields shall be free of leaks and openings, and free of highly reflective surfaces.
</P>
<P>(iv) When inert-gas metal-arc welding is being performed on stainless steel, the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be met to protect against dangerous concentrations of nitrogen dioxide.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>General welding, cutting, and heating.</I> (1) Welding, cutting and heating not involving conditions or materials described in paragraph (c), (d) or (e) of this section may normally be done without mechanical ventilation or respiratory protective equipment, but where, because of unusual physical or atmospheric conditions, an unsafe accumulation of contaminants exists, suitable mechanical ventilation or respiratory protective equipment shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Employees performing any type of welding, cutting or heating shall be protected by suitable eye protective equipment in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.153. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Residues and cargoes of metallic ores.</I> (1) Residues and cargoes of metallic ores of toxic significance shall be removed from the area or protected from the heat before ship repair work which involves welding, cutting or heating is begun.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44541, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.53" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.53   Welding, cutting and heating in way of preservative coatings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions in this section shall apply to all ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking operations except for paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section which shall apply to ship repairing and shipbulding and shall not apply to shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(b) Before welding, cutting or heating is commenced on any surface covered by a preservative coating whose flammability is not known, a test shall be made by a competent person to determine its flammability. Preservative coatings shall be considered to be highly flammable when scrapings burn with extreme rapidity.
</P>
<P>(c) Precautions shall be taken to prevent ignition of highly flammable hardened preservative coatings. When coatings are determined to be highly flammable they shall be stripped from the area to be heated to prevent ignition, or, where shipbreaking is involved, the coatings may be burned away under controlled conditions. A 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inch or larger fire hose with fog nozzle, which has been uncoiled and placed under pressure, shall be immediately available for instant use in the immediate vicinity, consistent with avoiding freezing of the hose.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Protection against toxic preservative coatings.</I> (1) In enclosed spaces, all surfaces covered with toxic preservatives shall be stripped of all toxic coatings for a distance of at least 4 inches from the area of heat application or the employees shall be protected by air line respirators meeting the requirements of § 1915.154. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the open air, employees shall be protected by a filter type respirator in accordance with the requirements of § 1915.154. 
</P>
<P>(e) Before welding, cutting or heating is commenced in enclosed spaces on metals covered by soft and greasy preservatives, the following precautions shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) A competent person shall test the atmosphere in the space to ensure that it does not contain explosive vapors, since there is a possibility that some soft and greasy preservatives may have flash points below temperatures which may be expected to occur naturally. If such vapors are determined to be present, no hot work shall be commenced until such precautions have been taken as will ensure that the welding, cutting or heating can be performed in safety.
</P>
<P>(2) The preservative coatings shall be removed for a sufficient distance from the area to be heated to ensure that the temperature of the unstripped metal will not be appreciably raised. Artificial cooling of the metal surrounding the heated area may be used to limit the size of the area required to be cleaned. The prohibition contained in § 1915.34(b)(2) shall apply.
</P>
<P>(f) Immediately after welding, cutting or heating is commenced in enclosed spaces on metal covered by soft and greasy preservatives, and at frequent intervals thereafter, a competent person shall make tests to ensure that no flammable vapors are being produced by the coatings. If such vapors are determined to be present, the operation shall be stopped immediately and shall not be resumed until such additional precautions have been taken as are necessary to ensure that the operation can be resumed safely.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44542, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.54" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.54   Welding, cutting and heating of hollow metal containers and structures not covered by § 1915.12.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) Drums, containers, or hollow structures which have contained flammable substances shall, before welding, cutting, or heating is undertaken on them, either be filled with water or thoroughly cleaned of such substances and ventilated and tested.
</P>
<P>(b) Before heat is applied to a drum, container, or hollow structure, a vent or opening shall be provided for the release of any built-up pressure during the application of heat.
</P>
<P>(c) Before welding, cutting, heating or brazing is begun on structural voids such as skegs, bilge keels, fair waters, masts, booms, support stanchions, pipe stanchions or railings, a competent person shall inspect the object and, if necessary, test it for the presence of flammable liquids or vapors. If flammable liquids or vapors are present, the object shall be made safe.
</P>
<P>(d) Objects such as those listed in paragraph (c) of this section shall also be inspected to determine whether water or other non-flammable liquids are present which, when heated, would build up excessive pressure. If such liquids are determined to be present, the object shall be vented, cooled, or otherwise made safe during the application of heat.
</P>
<P>(e) Jacketed vessels shall be vented before and during welding, cutting or heating operations in order to release any pressure which may build up during the application of heat.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.55" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.4.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.55   Gas welding and cutting.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Transporting, moving and storing compressed gas cylinders.</I> (1) Valve protection caps shall be in place and secure. Oil shall not be used to lubricate protection caps.
</P>
<P>(2) When cylinders are hoisted, they shall be secured on a cradle, slingboard or pallet. They shall not be hoisted by means of magnets or choker slings.
</P>
<P>(3) Cylinders shall be moved by tilting and rolling them on their bottom edges. They shall not be intentionally dropped, struck, or permitted to strike each other violently.
</P>
<P>(4) When cylinders are transported by vehicle, they shall be secured in position.
</P>
<P>(5) Valve protection caps shall not be used for lifting cylinders from one vertical position to another. Bars shall not be used under valves or valve protection caps to pry cylinders loose when frozen. Warm, not boiling, water shall be used to thaw cylinders loose.
</P>
<P>(6) Unless cylinders are firmly secured on a special carrier intended for this purpose, regulators shall be removed and valve protection caps put in place before cylinders are moved.
</P>
<P>(7) A suitable cylinder truck, chain, or other steadying device shall be used to keep cylinders from being knocked over while in use.
</P>
<P>(8) When work is finished, when cylinders are empty or when cylinders are moved at any time, the cylinder valves shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(9) Acetylene cylinders shall be secured in an upright position at all times except, if necessary, for short periods of time while cylinders are actually being hoisted or carried.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Placing cylinders.</I> (1) Cylinders shall be kept far enough away from the actual welding or cutting operation so that sparks, hot slag or flame will not reach them. When this is impractical, fire resistant shields shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Cylinders shall be placed where they cannot become part of an electrical circuit. Electrodes shall not be struck against a cylinder to strike an arc.
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel gas cylinders shall be placed with valve end up whenever they are in use. They shall not be placed in a location where they would be subject to open flame, hot metal, or other sources of artificial heat.
</P>
<P>(4) Cylinders containing oxygen or acetylene or other fuel gas shall not be taken into confined spaces.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of cylinders.</I> (1) Cylinders, whether full or empty, shall not be used as rollers or supports.
</P>
<P>(2) No person other than the gas supplier shall attempt to mix gases in a cylinder. No one except the owner of the cylinder or person authorized by him shall refill a cylinder. No one shall use a cylinder's contents for purposes other than those intended by the supplier. Only cylinders bearing Interstate Commerce Commission identification and inspection markings shall be used.
</P>
<P>(3) No damaged or defective cylinder shall be used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of fuel gas.</I> The employer shall thoroughly instruct employees in the safe use of fuel gas, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Before connecting a regulator to a cylinder valve, the valve shall be opened slightly and closed immediately. (This action is generally termed “cracking” and is intended to clear the valve of dust or dirt that might otherwise enter the regulator.) The person cracking the valve shall stand to one side of the outlet, not in front of it. The valve of a fuel gas cylinder shall not be cracked where the gas would reach welding work, sparks, flame or other possible sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(2) The cylinder valve shall always be opened slowly to prevent damage to the regulator. To permit quick closing, valves on fuel gas cylinders shall not be opened more than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> turns. When a special wrench is required, it shall be left in position on the stem of the valve while the cylinder is in use so that the fuel gas flow can be shut off quickly in case of an emergency. In the case of manifolded or coupled cylinders, at least one such wrench shall always be available for immediate use. Nothing shall be placed on top of a fuel gas cylinder, when in use, which may damage the safety device or interfere with the quick closing of the valve.
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel gas shall not be used from cylinders through torches or other devices which are equipped with shut-off valves without reducing the pressure through a suitable regulator attached to the cylinder valve or manifold.
</P>
<P>(4) Before a regulator is removed from a cylinder valve, the cylinder valve shall always be closed and the gas released from the regulator.
</P>
<P>(5) If, when the valve on a fuel gas cylinder is opened, there is found to be a leak around the valve stem, the valve shall be closed and the gland nut tightened. If this action does not stop the leak, the use of the cylinder shall be discontinued, and it shall be properly tagged and removed from the vessel. In the event that fuel gas should leak from the cylinder valve rather than from the valve stem and the gas cannot be shut off, the cylinder shall be properly tagged and removed from the vessel. If a regulator attached to a cylinder valve will effectively stop a leak through the valve seat, the cylinder need not be removed from the vessel.
</P>
<P>(6) If a leak should develop at a fuse plug or other safety device, the cylinder shall be removed from the vessel
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fuel gas and oxygen manifolds.</I> (1) Fuel gas and oxygen manifolds shall bear the name of the substance they contain in letters at least one (1) inch high which shall be either painted on the manifold or on a sign permanently attached to it.
</P>
<P>(2) Fuel gas and oxygen manifolds shall be placed in safe and accessible locations in the open air. They shall not be located within enclosed spaces.
</P>
<P>(3) Manifold hose connections, including both ends of the supply hose that lead to the manifold, shall be such that the hose cannot be interchanged between fuel gas and oxygen manifolds and supply header connections. Adapters shall not be used to permit the interchange of hose. Hose connections shall be kept free of grease and oil.
</P>
<P>(4) When not in use, manifold and header hose connections shall be capped.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing shall be placed on top of a manifold, when in use, which will damage the manifold or interfere with the quick closing of the valves.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hose.</I> (1) Fuel gas hose and oxygen hose shall be easily distinguishable from each other. The contrast may be made by different colors or by surface characteristics readily distinguishable by the sense of touch. Oxygen and fuel gas hoses shall not be interchangeable. A single hose having more than one gas passage, a wall failure of which would permit the flow of one gas into the other gas passage, shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(2) When parallel sections of oxygen and fuel gas hose are taped together not more than 4 inches out of 8 inches shall be covered by tape.
</P>
<P>(3) All hose carrying acetylene, oxygen, natural or manufactured fuel gas, or any gas or substance which may ignite or enter into combustion or be in any way harmful to employees, shall be inspected at the beginning of each shift. Defective hose shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(4) Hose which has been subjected to flashback or which shows evidence of severe wear or damage shall be tested to twice the normal pressure to which it is subject, but in no case less than two hundered (200) psi. Defective hose or hose in doubtful condition shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(5) Hose couplings shall be of the type that cannot be unlocked or disconnected by means of a straight pull without rotary motion.
</P>
<P>(6) Boxes used for the stowage of gas hose shall be ventilated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Torches.</I> (1) Clogged torch tip openings shall be cleaned with suitable cleaning wires, drills or other devices designed for such purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) Torches shall be inspected at the beginning of each shift for leaking shutoff valves, hose couplings, and tip connections. Defective torches shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(3) Torches shall be lighted by friction lighters or other approved devices, and not by matches or from hot work.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pressure regulators.</I> Oxygen and fuel gas pressure regulators including their related gauges shall be in proper working order while in use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.56" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.4.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.56   Arc welding and cutting.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Manual electrode holders.</I> (1) Only manual electrode holders which are specifically designed for arc welding and cutting and are of a capacity capable of safely handling the maximum rated current required by the electrodes shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Any current carrying parts passing through the portion of the holder which the arc welder or cutter grips in his hand, and the outer surfaces of the jaws of the holder, shall be fully insulated against the maximum voltage encountered to ground.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Welding cables and connectors.</I> (1) All arc welding and cutting cables shall be of the completely insulated, flexible type, capable of handling the maximum current requirements of the work in progress, taking into account the duty cycle under which the arc welder or cutter is working.
</P>
<P>(2) Only cable free from repair or splices for a minimum distance of ten (10) feet from the cable end to which the electrode holder is connected shall be used, except that cables with standard insulated connectors or with splices whose insulating quality is equal to that of the cable are permitted.
</P>
<P>(3) When it becomes necessary to connect or splice lengths of cable one to another, substantial insulated connectors of a capacity at least equivalent to that of the cable shall be used. If connections are effected by means of cable lugs, they shall be securely fastened together to give good electrical contact, and the exposed metal parts of the lugs shall be completely insulated.
</P>
<P>(4) Cables in poor repair shall not be used. When a cable other than the cable lead referred to in paragraph (b)(2) of this section becomes worn to the extent of exposing bare conductors, the portion thus exposed shall be protected by means of rubber and friction tapes or other equivalent insulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ground returns and machine grounding.</I> (1) A ground return cable shall have a safe current carrying capacity equal to or exceeding the specified maximum output capacity of the arc welding or cutting unit which it services. When a single ground return cable services more than one unit, its safe current carrying capacity shall equal or exceed the total specified maximum output capacities of all the units which it services.
</P>
<P>(2) Structures or pipe lines, except pipe lines containing gases of flammable liquids or conduits containing electrical circuits, may be used as part of the ground return circuit, provided that the pipe or structure has a current carrying capacity equal to that required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When a structure or pipe line is employed as a ground return circuit, it shall be determined that the required electrical contact exists at all joints. The generation of an arc, sparks or heat at any point shall cause rejection of the structure as a ground circuit.
</P>
<P>(4) When a structure or pipe line is continuously employed as a ground return circuit, all joints shall be bonded, and periodic inspections shall be conducted to ensure that no condition of electrolysis or fire hazard exists by virtue of such use.
</P>
<P>(5) The frames of all arc welding and cutting machines shall be grounded either through a third wire in the cable containing the circuit conductor or through a separate wire which is grounded at the source of the current. Grounding circuits, other than by means of the vessel's structure, shall be checked to ensure that the circuit between the ground and the grounded power conductor has resistance low enough to permit sufficient current to flow to cause the fuse or circuit breaker to interrupt the current.
</P>
<P>(6) All ground connections shall be inspected to ensure that they are mechanically strong and electrically adequate for the required current.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operating instructions.</I> Employers shall instruct employees in the safe means of arc welding and cutting as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) When electrode holders are to be left unattended, the electrodes shall be removed and the holders shall be so placed or protected that they cannot make electrical contact with employees or conducting objects.
</P>
<P>(2) Hot electrode holders shall not be dipped in water, since to do so may expose the arc welder or cutter to electric shock.
</P>
<P>(3) When the arc welder or cutter has occasion to leave his work or to stop work for any appreciable length of time, or when the arc welding or cutting machine is to be moved, the power supply switch to the equipment shall be opened.
</P>
<P>(4) Any faulty or defective equipment shall be reported to the supervisor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Shielding.</I> Whenever practicable, all arc welding and cutting operations shall be shielded by noncombustible or flame-proof screens which will protect employees and other persons working in the vicinity from the direct rays of the arc.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.57" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.4.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.57   Uses of fissionable material in ship repairing and shipbuilding.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding only.
</P>
<P>(a) In activities involving the use of and exposure to sources of ionizing radiation not only on conventionally powered but also on nuclear powered vessels, the applicable provisions of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission's Standards for Protection Against Radiation (10 CFR part 20), relating to protection against occupational radiation exposure, shall apply.
</P>
<P>(b) Any activity which involves the use of radiocative material, whether or not under license from the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, shall be performed by competent persons specially trained in the proper and safe operation of such equipment. In the case of materials used under Commission license, only persons actually licensed, or competent persons under direction and supervision of the licensee, shall perform such work. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Scaffolds, Ladders and Other Working Surfaces</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.71" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.5.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.71   Scaffolds or staging.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> The provisions of this section shall apply to all ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking operations except that paragraphs (b)(8) through (b)(10) and paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section shall only apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding operations and shall not apply to shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) All scaffolds and their supports whether of lumber, steel or other material, shall be capable of supporting the load they are designed to carry with a safety factor of not less than four (4).
</P>
<P>(2) All lumber used in the construction of scaffolds shall be spruce, fir, long leaf yellow pine, Oregon pine or wood of equal strength. The use of hemlock, short leaf yellow pine, or short fiber lumber is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) Lumber dimensions as given in this subpart are nominal except where given in fractions of an inch.
</P>
<P>(4) All lumber used in the construction of scaffolds shall be sound, straight-grained, free from cross grain, shakes and large, loose or dead knots. It shall also be free from dry rot, large checks, worm holes or other defects which impair its strength or durability.
</P>
<P>(5) Scaffolds shall be maintained in a safe and secure condition. Any component of the scaffold which is broken, burned or otherwise defective shall be replaced.
</P>
<P>(6) Barrels, boxes, cans, loose bricks, or other unstable objects shall not be used as working platforms or for the support of planking intended as scaffolds or working platforms.
</P>
<P>(7) No scaffold shall be erected, moved, dismantled or altered except under the supervision of competent persons.
</P>
<P>(8) No welding, burning, riveting or open flame work shall be performed on any staging suspended by means of fiber rope.
</P>
<P>(9) Lifting bridles on working platforms suspended from cranes shall consist of four legs so attached that the stability of the platform is assured.
</P>
<P>(10) Unless the crane hook has a safety latch or is moused, the lifting bridles on working platforms suspended from cranes shall be attached by shackles to the lower lifting block or other positive means shall be taken to prevent them from becoming accidentally disengaged from the crane hook.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent pole wood scaffolds.</I> (1) All pole uprights shall be set plump. Poles shall rest on a foundation of sufficient size and strength to distribute the loan and to prevent displacement.
</P>
<P>(2) In light-duty scaffolds, not more than 24 feet in height, poles may be spliced by overlapping the ends not less than 4 feet and securely nailing them together. A substantial cleat shall be nailed to the lower section to form a support for the upper section except when bolted connections are used.
</P>
<P>(3) All other poles to be spliced shall be squared at the ends of each splice, abutted, and rigidly fastened together by not less than two cleats securely nailed or bolted thereto. Each cleat shall overlap each pole end by at least 24 inches and shall have a width equal to the face of the pole to which it is attached. The combined cross sectional area of the cleats shall be not less than the cross sectional area of the pole.
</P>
<P>(4) Ledgers shall extend over two consecutive pole spaces and shall overlap the poles at each end by not less than 4 inches. They shall be left in position to brace the poles as the platform is raised with the progress of the work. Ledgers shall be level and shall be securely nailed or bolted to each pole and shall be placed against the inside face of each pole.
</P>
<P>(5) All bearers shall be set with their greater dimension vertical and shall extend beyond the ledgers upon which they rest.
</P>
<P>(6) Diagonal bracing shall be provided between the parallel poles, and cross bracing shall be provided between the inner and outer poles or from the outer poles to the ground.
</P>
<P>(7) Minimum dimensions and spacing of members shall be in accordance with Table E-1 in § 1915.118.
</P>
<P>(8) Platform planking shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) Backrails and toeboards shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Independent pole metal scaffolds.</I> (1) Metal scaffold members shall be maintained in good repair and free of corrosion.
</P>
<P>(2) All vertical and horizontal members shall be fastened together with a coupler or locking device which will form a positive connection. The locking device shall be of a type which has no loose parts.
</P>
<P>(3) Posts shall be kept plumb during erection and the scaffold shall be subsequently kept plumb and rigid by means of adequate bracing.
</P>
<P>(4) Posts shall be fitted with bases supported on a firm foundation to distribute the load. When wooden sills are used, the bases shall be fastened thereto.
</P>
<P>(5) Bearers shall be located at each set of posts, at each level, and at each intermediate level where working platforms are installed.
</P>
<P>(6) Tubular bracing shall be applied both lengthwise and crosswise as required.
</P>
<P>(7) Platform planking shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) Backrails and toeboards shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Wood trestle and extension trestle ladders.</I> (1) The use of trestle ladders, or extension sections or base sections of extension trestle ladders longer than 20 feet is prohibited. The total height of base and extension may, however, be more than 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(2) The minimum dimensions of the side rails of the trestle ladder, or the base sections of the extension trestle ladder, shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Ladders up to and including those 16 feet long shall have side rails of not less than 1
<FR>5/16</FR> × 2
<FR>3/4</FR> inch lumber.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ladders over 16 feet long and up to and including those 20 feet long shall have side rails of not less than 1
<FR>5/16</FR> × 3 inch lumber. 
</P>
<P>(3) The side rails of the extension section of the extension trestle ladder shall be parallel and shall have minimum dimensions as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Ladders up to and including 12 feet long shall have side rails of not less than 1
<FR>5/16</FR> × 2
<FR>1/4</FR> inch lumber.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ladders over 12 feet long and up to and including those 16 feet long shall have side rails of not less than 1
<FR>5/16</FR> × 2
<FR>1/2</FR> inch lumber.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ladders over 16 feet long and up to and including those 20 feet long shall have side rails of not less than 1
<FR>5/16</FR> × 2
<FR>3/4</FR> inch lumber.
</P>
<P>(4) Trestle ladders and base sections of extension trestle ladders shall be so spread that when in an open position the spread of the trestle at the bottom, inside to inside, shall be not less than 5
<FR>1/2</FR> inches per foot of the length of the ladder.
</P>
<P>(5) The width between the side rails at the bottom of the trestle ladder or of the base section of the extension trestle ladder shall be not less than 21 inches for all ladders and sections 6 feet or less in length. For longer lengths of ladder, the width shall be increased at least 1 inch for each additional foot of length. The width between the side rails of the extension section of the trestle ladder shall be not less than 12 inches.
</P>
<P>(6) In order to limit spreading, the top ends of the side rails of both the trestle ladder and of the base section of the extension trestle ladder shall be beveled, or of equivalent construction, and shall be provided with a metal hinge.
</P>
<P>(7) A metal spreader or locking device to hold the front and back sections in an open position, and to hold the extension section securely in the elevated position, shall be a component of each trestle ladder or extension ladder. 
</P>
<P>(8) Rungs shall be parallel and level. On the trestle ladder, or on the base section of the extension trestle ladder, rungs shall be spaced not less than 8 inches nor more than 18 inches apart; on the extension section of the extension trestle ladder, rungs shall be spaced not less than 6 inches nor more than 12 inches apart.
</P>
<P>(9) Platform planking shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (i) of this section, except that the width of the platform planking shall not exceed the distance between the side rails. 
</P>
<P>(10) Backrails and toeboards shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Painters' suspended scaffolds.</I> (1) The supporting hooks of swinging scaffolds shall be constructed to be equivalent in strength to mild steel or wrought iron, shall be forged with care, shall be not less than 
<FR>7/8</FR> inch in diameter, and shall be secured to a safe anchorage at all times.
</P>
<P>(2) The ropes supporting a swinging scaffold shall be equivalent in strength to first-grade 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch diameter manila rope properly rigged into a set of standard 6 inch blocks consisting of at least one double and one single block.
</P>
<P>(3) Manila and wire ropes shall be carefully examined before each operation and thereafter as frequently as may be necessary to ensure their safe condition.
</P>
<P>(4) Each end of the scaffold platform shall be supported by a wrought iron or mild steel stirrup or hanger, which in turn is supported by the suspension ropes.
</P>
<P>(5) Stirrups shall be constructed so as to be equivalent in strength to wrought iron 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch in diameter.
</P>
<P>(6) The stirrups shall be formed with a horizontal bottom member to support the platform, shall be provided with means to support the guardrail and midrail and shall have a loop or eye at the top for securing the supporting hook on the block.
</P>
<P>(7) Two or more swinging scaffolds shall not at any time be combined into one by bridging the distance between them with planks or any other form of platform.
</P>
<P>(8) No more than two persons shall be permitted to work at one time on a swinging scaffold built to the minimum specifications contained in this paragraph. Where heavier construction is used, the number of persons permitted to work on the scaffold shall be determined by the size and the safe working load of the scaffold. 
</P>
<P>(9) Backrails and toeboards shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) The swinging scaffold platform shall be one of the three types described in paragraphs (f)(11), (12), and (13) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) The ladder-type platform consists of boards upon a horizontal ladder-like structure, referred to herein as the ladder, the side rails of which are parallel. If this type of platform is used the following requirements shall be met.
</P>
<P>(i) The width between the side rails shall be no more than 20 inches.
</P>
<P>(ii) The side rails of ladders in ladder-type platforms shall be equivalent in strength to a beam of clear straight-grained spruce of the dimensions contained in Table E-2 in § 1915.118.
</P>
<P>(iii) The side rails shall be tied together with tie rods. The tie rods shall be not less than 
<FR>5/16</FR> inch in diameter, located no more than 5 feet apart, pass through the rails, and be riveted up tight against washers at both ends.
</P>
<P>(iv) The rungs shall be of straight-grained oak, ash, or hickory, not less than 1
<FR>1/8</FR> inches diameter, with 
<FR>7/8</FR> inch tenons mortised into the side rails not less than 
<FR>7/8</FR> inch and shall be spaced no more than 18 inches on centers.
</P>
<P>(v) Flooring strips shall be spaced no more than 
<FR>5/8</FR> inch apart except at the side rails, where 1 inch spacing is permissible.
</P>
<P>(vi) Flooring strips shall be cleated on their undersides.
</P>
<P>(12) The plank-type platform consists of planks supported on the stirrups or hangers. If this type of platform is used, the following requirements shall be met:
</P>
<P>(i) The planks of plank-type platforms shall be of not less than 2 × 10 inch lumber.
</P>
<P>(ii) The platform shall be no more than 24 inches in width.
</P>
<P>(iii) The planks shall be tied together by cleats of not less than 1 × 6 inch lumber, nailed on their undersides at intervals of not more than 4 feet.
</P>
<P>(iv) The planks shall extend not less than 6 inches nor more than 18 inches beyond the supporting stirrups.
</P>
<P>(v) A cleat shall be nailed across the platform on the underside at each end outside the stirrup to prevent the platform from slipping off the stirrup.
</P>
<P>(vi) Stirrup supports shall be not more than 10 feet apart.
</P>
<P>(13) The beam-type platform consists of longitudinal side stringers with cross beams set on edge and spaced not more than 4 feet apart on which longitudinal platform planks are laid. If this type platform is used, the following requirements shall be met:
</P>
<P>(i) The side stringers shall be of sound, straight-grained lumber, free from knots, and of not less than 2 × 6 inch lumber, set on edge.
</P>
<P>(ii) The stringers shall be supported on the stirrups with a clear span between stirrups of not more than 16 feet.
</P>
<P>(iii) The stringers shall be bolted to the stirrups by U-bolts passing around the stirrups and bolted through the stringers with nuts drawn up tight on the inside face.
</P>
<P>(iv) The ends of the stringers shall extend beyond the stirrups not less than 6 inches nor more than 12 inches at each end of the platform.
</P>
<P>(v) The platform shall be supported on cross beams of 2 × 6 inch lumber between the side stringers securely nailed thereto and spaced not more than 4 feet on centers.
</P>
<P>(vi) The platform shall be not more than 24 inches wide.
</P>
<P>(vii) The platform shall be formed of boards 
<FR>7/8</FR> inch in thickness by not less than 6 inches in width, nailed tightly together, and extending to the outside face of the stringers.
</P>
<P>(viii) The ends of all platform boards shall rest on the top of the cross beams, shall be securely nailed, and at no intermediate points in the length of the platform shall there be any cantilever ends.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Horse scaffolds.</I> (1) The minimum dimensions of lumber used in the construction of horses shall be in accordance with Table E-3 in § 1915.118.
</P>
<P>(2) Horses constructed of materials other than lumber shall provide the strength, rigidity and security required of horses constructed of lumber.
</P>
<P>(3) The lateral spread of the legs shall be equal to not less than one-third of the height of the horse.
</P>
<P>(4) All horses shall be kept in good repair, and shall be properly secured when used in staging or in locations where they may be insecure.
</P>
<P>(5) Platform planking shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Backrails and toeboards shall be in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other types of scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffolds of a type for which specifications are not contained in this section shall meet the general requirements of paragraphs (b), (i), and (j) of this section, shall be in accordance with recognized principles of design and shall be constructed in accordance with accepted standards covering such equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Scaffold or platform planking.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (f)(11) and (13) of this section, platform planking shall be of not less than 2 × 10 inch lumber. Platform planking shall be straight-grained and free from large or loose knots and may be either rough or dressed.
</P>
<P>(2) Platforms of staging shall be not less than two 10 inch planks in width except in such cases as the structure of the vessel or the width of the trestle ladders make it impossible to provide such a width.
</P>
<P>(3) Platform planking shall project beyond the supporting members at either end by at least 6 inches but in no case shall project more than 12 inches unless the planks are fastened to the supporting members.
</P>
<P>(4) Table E-4 in § 1915.118 shall be used as a guide in determining safe loads for scaffold planks.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Backrails and toeboards.</I> (1) Scaffolding, staging, runways, or working platforms which are supported or suspended more than 5 feet above a solid surface, or at any distance above the water, shall be provided with a railing which has a top rail whose upper surface is from 42 to 45 inches above the upper surface of the staging, platform, or runway and a midrail located halfway between the upper rail and the staging, platform, or runway.
</P>
<P>(2) Rails shall be of 2 × 4 inch lumber, flat bar or pipe. When used with rigid supports, taut wire or fiber rope of adequate strength may be used. If the distance between supports is more than 8 feet, rails shall be equivalent in strength to 2 × 4 inch lumber. Rails shall be firmly secured. Where exposed to hot work or chemicals, fiber rope rails shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(3) Rails may be omitted where the structure of the vessel prevents their use. When rails are omitted, employees working more than 5 feet above solid surfaces shall be protected by safety belts and life lines meeting the requirements of §§ 1915.159 and 1915.160, and employees working over water shall be protected by buoyant work vests meeting the requirements of § 1915.158(a). 
</P>
<P>(4) Employees working from swinging scaffolds which are triced out of a vertical line below their supports or from scaffolds on paint floats subject to surging, shall be protected against falling toward the vessel by a railing or a safety belt and line attached to the backrail.
</P>
<P>(5) When necessary, to prevent tools and materials from falling on men below, toeboards of not less than 1 × 4 inch lumber shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Access to staging.</I> (1) Access from below to staging more than 5 feet above a floor, deck or the ground shall consist of well secured stairways, cleated ramps, fixed or portable ladders meeting the applicable requirements of § 1915.72 or rigid type non-collapsible trestles with parallel and level rungs.
</P>
<P>(2) Ramps and stairways shall be provided with 36-inch handrails with midrails.
</P>
<P>(3) Ladders shall be so located or other means shall be taken so that it is not necessary for employees to step more than one foot from the ladder to any intermediate landing or platform.
</P>
<P>(4) Ladders forming integral parts of prefabricated staging are deemed to meet the requirements of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) Access from above to staging more than 3 feet below the point of access shall consist of a straight, portable ladder meeting the applicable requirements of § 1915.72 or a Jacob's ladder properly secured, meeting the requirements of § 1915.74(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44542, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.72" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.5.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.72   Ladders.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The use of ladders with broken or missing rungs or steps, broken or split side rails, or other faulty or defective construction is prohibited. When ladders with such defects are discovered, they shall be immediately withdrawn from service. Inspection of metal ladders shall include checking for corrosion of interiors of open end, hollow rungs.
</P>
<P>(2) When sections of ladders are spliced, the ends shall be abutted, and not fewer than 2 cleats shall be securely nailed or bolted to each rail. The combined cross sectional area of the cleats shall be not less than the cross sectional area of the side rail. The dimensions of side rails for their total length shall be those specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Portable ladders shall be lashed, blocked or otherwise secured to prevent their being displaced. The side rails of ladders used for access to any level shall extend not less than 36 inches above that level. When this is not practical, grab rails which will provide a secure grip for an employee moving to or from the point of access shall be installed.
</P>
<P>(4) Portable metal ladders shall be of strength equivalent to that of wood ladders. Manufactured portable metal ladders provided by the employer shall be in accordance with the provisions of ANSI Standard A14.2-1972: Safety Requirements for Portable Metal Ladders (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5).
</P>
<P>(5) Portable metal ladders shall not be used near electrical conductors nor for electric arc welding operations.
</P>
<P>(6) Manufactured portable wood ladders provided by the employer shall be in accordance with the provisions of ANSI Standard A14.1-1975: Safety Requirements for Portable Wood Ladders (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Construction of portable wood cleated ladders up to 30 feet in length.</I> (1) Wood side rails shall be made from West Coast hemlock, Eastern spruce, Sitka spruce, or wood of equivalent strength. Material shall be seasoned, straight-grained wood, and free from shakes, checks, decay or other defects which will impair its strength. The use of low density woods is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) Side rails shall be dressed on all sides and kept free of splinters. 
</P>
<P>(3) All knots shall be sound and hard. The use of material containing loose knots is prohibited. Knots shall not appear on the narrow face of the rail and, when in the side face, shall be not more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch in diameter or within 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch of the edge of the rail or nearer than 3 inches to a tread or rung.
</P>
<P>(4) Pitch pockets not exceeding 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch in width, 2 inches in length and 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch in depth are permissible in wood side rails, provided that not more than one such pocket appears in each 4 feet of length.
</P>
<P>(5) The width between side rails at the base shall be not less than 11
<FR>1/2</FR> inches for ladders 10 feet or less in length. For longer ladders this width shall be increased at least 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch for each additional 2 feet in length.
</P>
<P>(6) Side rails shall be at least 1
<FR>5/8</FR> × 3
<FR>5/8</FR> inches in cross section.
</P>
<P>(7) Cleats (meaning rungs rectangular in cross section with the wide dimension parallel to the rails) shall be of the material used for side rails, straight-grained and free from knots. Cleats shall be mortised into the edges of the side rails 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch, or filler blocks shall be used on the rails between the cleats. The cleats shall be secured to each rail with three 10d common wire nails or fastened with through bolts or other fasteners of equivalent strength. Cleats shall be uniformly spaced not more than 12 inches apart.
</P>
<P>(8) Cleats 20 inches or less in length shall be at least 25/32 × 3 inches in cross section. Cleats over 20 inches but not more than 30 inches in length shall be at least 25/32 × 3
<FR>3/4</FR> inches in cross section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction of portable wood cleated ladders from 30 to 60 feet in length.</I> (1) Ladders from 30 to 60 feet in length shall be in accordance with the specifications of paragraph (b) of this section with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) Rails shall be of not less than 2 × 6 inch lumber.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cleats shall be of not less than 1 × 4 inch lumber.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cleats shall be nailed to each rail with five 10d common wire nails or fastened with through bolts or other fasteners of equivalent strength.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44542, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.73" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.5.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.73   Guarding of deck openings and edges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding operations and shall not apply to shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(b) When employees are working in the vicinity of flush manholes and other small openings of comparable size in the deck and other working surfaces, such openings shall be suitably covered or guarded to a height of not less than 30 inches, except where the use of such guards is made impracticable by the work actually in progress.
</P>
<P>(c) When employees are working around open hatches not protected by coamings to a height of 24 inches or around other large openings, the edge of the opening shall be guarded in the working area to height of 36 to 42 inches, except where the use of such guards is made impracticable by the work actually in progress.
</P>
<P>(d) When employees are exposed to unguarded edges of decks, platforms, flats, and similar flat surfaces, more than 5 feet above a solid surface, the edges shall be guarded by adequate guardrails meeting the requirements of § 1915.71(j) (1) and (2), unless the nature of the work in progress or the physical conditions prohibit the use or installation of such guardrails.
</P>
<P>(e) When employees are working near the unguarded edges of decks of vessels afloat, they shall be protected by personal flotation devices, meeting the requirements of § 1915.158(a).
</P>
<P>(f) Sections of bilges from which floor plates or gratings have been removed shall be guarded by guardrails except where they would interfere with work in progress. If these open sections are in a walkway at least two 10-inch planks placed side by side, or equivalent, shall be laid across the opening to provide a safe walking surface.
</P>
<P>(g) Gratings, walkways, and catwalks, from which sections or ladders have been removed, shall be barricaded with adequate guardrails.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44542, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.74" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.5.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.74   Access to vessels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Access to vessels afloat.</I> The employer shall not permit employees to board or leave any vessel, except a barge or river towboat, until the following requirements have been met:
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever practicable, a gangway of not less than 20 inches walking surface of adequate strength, maintained in safe repair and safely secured shall be used. If a gangway is not practicable, a substantial straight ladder, extending at least 36 inches above the upper landing surface and adequately secured against shifting or slipping shall be provided. When conditions are such that neither a gangway nor a straight ladder can be used, a Jacob's ladder meeting the requirements of paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Each side of such gangway, and the turn table if used, shall have a railing with a minimum height of approximately 33 inches measured perpendicularly from rail to walking surface at the stanchion, with a midrail. Rails shall be of wood, pipe, chain, wire or rope and shall be kept taut at all times.
</P>
<P>(3) Gangways on vessels inspected and certificated by the U.S. Coast Guard are deemed to meet the foregoing requirements, except in cases where the vessel's regular gangway is not being used.
</P>
<P>(4) The gangway shall be kept properly trimmed at all times.
</P>
<P>(5) When a fixed tread accommodations ladder is used, and the angle is low enough to require employees to walk on the edge of the treads, cleated duckboards shall be laid over and secured to the ladder.
</P>
<P>(6) When the lower end of a gangway overhangs the water between the ship and the dock in such a manner that there is danger of employees falling between the ship and the dock, a net or other suitable protection shall be rigged at the foot of the gangway in such a manner as to prevent employees from falling from the end of the gangway.
</P>
<P>(7) If the foot of the gangway is more than one foot away from the edge of the apron, the space between them shall be bridged by a firm walkway equipped with railings, with a minimum height of approximately 33 inches with midrails on both sides.
</P>
<P>(8) Supporting bridles shall be kept clear so as to permit unobstructed passage for employees using the gangway.
</P>
<P>(9) When the upper end of the means of access rests on or flush with the top of the bulwark, substantial steps properly secured and equipped with at least one substantial handrail approximately 33 inches in height shall be provided between the top of the bulwark and the deck.
</P>
<P>(10) Obstructions shall not be laid on or across the gangway.
</P>
<P>(11) The means of access shall be adequately illuminated for its full length.
</P>
<P>(12) Unless the construction of the vessel makes it impossible, the means of access shall be so located that drafts of cargo do not pass over it. In any event, loads shall not be passed over the means of access while employees are on it.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access to vessels in drydock or between vessels.</I> Gangways meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a) (1), (2), (9), (10), (11) of this section shall be provided for access from wingwall to vessel or, when two or more vessels, other than barges or river towboats, are lying abreast, from one vessel to another.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to barges and river towboats.</I> (1) Ramps for access of vehicles to or between barges shall be of adequate strength, provided with side boards, well maintained and properly secured.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless employees can step safely to or from the wharf, float, barge, or river towboat, either a ramp meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section or a safe walkway meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(7) of this section shall be provided. When a walkway is impracticable, a substantial straight ladder, extending at least 36 inches above the upper landing surface and adequately secured against shifting or slipping, shall be provided. When conditions are such that neither a walkway nor a straight ladder can be used, a Jacob's ladder in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section may be used.
</P>
<P>(3) The means of access shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (a) (9), (10), and (11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Jacob's ladders.</I> (1) Jacob's ladders shall be of the double rung or flat tread type. They shall be well maintained and properly secured.
</P>
<P>(2) A Jacob's ladder shall either hang without slack from its lashings or be pulled up entirely.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44542, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.75" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.5.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.75   Access to and guarding of dry docks and marine railways.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) A gangway, ramp or permanent stairway of not less than 20 inches walking surface, of adequate strength, maintained in safe repair and securely fastened, shall be provided between a floating dry dock and the pier or bulkhead.
</P>
<P>(b) Each side of such gangway, ramp or permanent stairway, including those which are used for access to wing walls from dry dock floors, shall have a railing with a midrail. Such railings on gangways or ramps shall be approximately 42 inches in height; and railings on permanent stairways shall be not less than approximately 30 or more than approximately 34 inches in height. Rails shall be of wood, pipe, chain, wire, or rope, and shall be kept taut at all times.
</P>
<P>(c) Railings meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section shall be provided on the means of access to and from the floors of graving docks.
</P>
<P>(d) Railings approximately 42 inches in height, with a midrail, shall be provided on the edges of wing walls of floating dry docks and on edges of graving docks. Sections of the railings may be temporarily removed where necessary to permit line handling while a vessel is entering or leaving the dock.
</P>
<P>(e) When employees are working on the floor of a floating dry dock where they are exposed to the hazard of falling into the water, the end of the dry dock shall be equipped with portable stanchions and 42 inch railings with a midrail. When such a railing would be impracticable or ineffective, other effective means shall be provided to prevent employees from falling into the water.
</P>
<P>(f) Access to wing walls from floors of dry docks shall be by ramps, permanent stairways or ladders meeting the applicable requirements of § 1915.72.
</P>
<P>(g) Catwalks on stiles of marine railways shall be no less than 20 inches wide and shall have on at least one side a guardrail and midrail meeting the requirements of § 1915.71(j) (1) and (2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44542, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.76" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.5.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.76   Access to cargo spaces and confined spaces.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking except that paragraph (a)(4) of this section applies to ship repairing only.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Cargo spaces.</I> (1) There shall be at least one safe and accessible ladder in any cargo space which employees must enter.
</P>
<P>(2) When any fixed ladder is visibly unsafe, the employer shall prohibit its use by employees.
</P>
<P>(3) Straight ladders of adequate strength and suitably secured against shifting or slipping shall be provided as necessary when fixed ladders in cargo spaces do not meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. When conditions are such that a straight ladder cannot be used, a Jacob's ladder meeting the requirements of § 1915.74(d) may be used.
</P>
<P>(4) When cargo is stowed within 4 inches of the back of ladder rungs, the ladder shall be deemed “unsafe” for the purpose of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Fixed ladders or straight ladders provided for access to cargo spaces shall not be used at the same time that cargo drafts, equipment, materials, scrap or other loads are entering or leaving the hold. Before using these ladders to enter or leave the hold, the employee shall be required to inform the winchman or crane signalman of his intention.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confined spaces.</I> (1) More than one means of access shall be provided to a confined space in which employees are working and in which the work may generate a hazardous atmosphere in the space except where the structure or arrangement of the vessel makes this provision impractical.
</P>
<P>(2) When the ventilation ducts required by these regulations must pass through these means of access, the ducts shall be of such a type and so arranged as to permit free passage of an employee through at least two of these means of access.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.77" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.5.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.77   Working surfaces.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding operations, and shall not apply to shipbreaking. Paragraph (e) of this section shall apply to shipbuilding, ship repairing and shipbreaking operations.
</P>
<P>(b) When firebox floors present tripping hazards of exposed tubing or of missing or removed refractory, sufficient planking to afford safe footing shall be laid while work is being carried on within the boiler.
</P>
<P>(c) When employees are working aloft, or elsewhere at elevations more than 5 feet above a solid surface, either scaffolds or a sloping ladder, meeting the requirements of this subpart, shall be used to afford safe footing, or the employees shall be protected by safety belts and lifelines meeting the requirements of §§ 1915.159 and 1915.160. Employees visually restricted by blasting hoods, welding helmets, and burning goggles shall work from scaffolds, not from ladders, except for the initial and final welding or burning operation to start or complete a job, such as the erection and dismantling of hung scaffolding, or other similar, nonrepetitive jobs of brief duration.
</P>
<P>(d) For work performed in restricted quarters, such as behind boilers and in between congested machinery units and piping, work platforms at least 20 inches wide meeting the requirements of § 1915.71(i)(1) shall be used. Backrails may be omitted if bulkheading, boilers, machinery units, or piping afford proper protection against falling.
</P>
<P>(e) When employees are boarding, leaving, or working from small boats or floats, they shall be protected by personal flotation devices meeting the requirements of § 1915.158(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—General Working Conditions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 24698, May 2, 2011., unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1915.80" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.80   Scope, application, definitions, and effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this subpart apply to general working conditions in shipyard employment, including work on vessels, on vessel sections, and at landside operations, regardless of geographic location.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions applicable to this subpart.</I> (1) <I>Additional safety measure.</I> A component of the tags-plus system that provides an impediment (in addition to the energy-isolating device) to the release of energy or the energization or startup of the machinery, equipment, or system being serviced. Examples of additional safety measures include, but are not limited to, removing an isolating circuit element; blocking a controlling switch; blocking, blanking, or bleeding lines; removing a valve handle or wiring it in place; opening an extra disconnecting device.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affected employee.</I> An employee who normally operates or uses the machinery, equipment, or system that is going to be serviced under lockout/tags-plus or who is working in the area where servicing is being performed under lockout/tags-plus. An affected employee becomes an authorized employee when the employer assigns the employee to service any machine, equipment, or system under a lockout/tags-plus application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authorized employee.</I> (i) An employee who performs one or more of the following lockout/tags-plus responsibilities:
</P>
<P>(A) Executes the lockout/tags-plus procedures;
</P>
<P>(B) Installs a lock or tags-plus system on machinery, equipment, or systems; or
</P>
<P>(C) Services any machine, equipment, or system under lockout/tags-plus application.
</P>
<P>(ii) An affected employee becomes an authorized employee when the employer assigns the employee to service any machine, equipment, or system under a lockout/tags-plus application.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capable of being locked out.</I> An energy-isolating device is capable of being locked out if it has a locking mechanism built into it, or it has a hasp or other means of attachment to which, or through which, a lock can be affixed. Other energy-isolating devices are capable of being locked out if lockout can be achieved without the need to dismantle, rebuild, or replace the energy-isolating device or permanently alter its energy-control capability.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Contract employer.</I> An employer, such as a painting, joinery, carpentry, or scaffolding subcontractor, that performs shipyard-related services or work under contract to the host employer or to another employer under contract to the host employer at the host employer's worksite. This excludes employers who provide services that are not directly related to shipyard employment, such as mail delivery, office supply, and food vending services.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Dummy load.</I> A device used in place of an antenna to aid in the testing of a radio transmitter that converts transmitted energy into heat to minimize energy radiating outward or reflecting back to its source during testing.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Energy-isolating device.</I> A mechanical device that, when utilized or activated, physically prevents the release or transmission of energy. Energy-isolating devices include, but are not limited to, manually operated electrical circuit breakers; disconnect switches; line valves; blocks; and any similar device used to block or isolate energy. Control-circuit devices (for example, push buttons, selector switches) are not considered energy-isolating devices.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hazardous energy.</I> Any energy source, including mechanical (for example, power transmission apparatus, counterbalances, springs, pressure, gravity), pneumatic, hydraulic, electrical, chemical, and thermal (for example, high or low temperature) energies, that could cause injury to employees.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Hazardous substances.</I> A substance that may cause injury, illness, or disease, or otherwise harm an employee by reason of being explosive, flammable, poisonous, corrosive, oxidizing, irritating, or otherwise harmful.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Health care professional.</I> A physician or any other healthcare professional whose legally permitted scope of practice allows the provider to independently provide, or be delegated the responsibility to provide, some or all of the advice or consultation this subpart requires.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Host employer.</I> An employer that is in charge of coordinating shipyard-related work, or that hires other employers to perform shipyard-related work or to provide shipyard-related services, at a multi-employer worksite.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Isolated location.</I> An area in which employees are working alone or with little assistance from others due to the type, time, or location of their work. Such locations include remote locations or other work areas where employees are not in close proximity to others.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Lock.</I> A device that utilizes a positive means, either a key or combination lock, to hold an energy-isolating device in a “safe” position that prevents the release of energy and the startup or energization of the machinery, equipment, or system to be serviced.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Lockout.</I> The placement of a lock on an energy-isolating device in accordance with an established procedure, thereby ensuring that the energy-isolating device and the equipment being controlled cannot be operated until the lock is removed.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Lockout/tags-plus coordinator.</I> An employee whom the employer designates to coordinate and oversee all lockout and tags-plus applications on vessels or vessel sections and at landside work areas when employees are performing multiple servicing operations on the same machinery, equipment, or systems at the same time, and when employees are servicing multiple machinery, equipment, or systems on the same vessel or vessel section at the same time. The lockout/tags-plus coordinator also maintains the lockout/tags-plus log.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Lockout/tags-plus materials and hardware.</I> Locks, chains, wedges, blanks, key blocks, adapter pins, self-locking fasteners, or other hardware used for isolating, blocking, or securing machinery, equipment, or systems to prevent the release of energy or the startup or energization of machinery, equipment, or systems to be serviced.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Motor vehicle.</I> Any motor-driven vehicle operated by an employee that is used to transport employees, material, or property. For the purposes of this subpart, motor vehicles include passenger cars, light trucks, vans, motorcycles, all-terrain vehicles, small utility trucks, powered industrial trucks, and other similar vehicles. Motor vehicles do not include boats, or vehicles operated exclusively on a rail or rails.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Motor vehicle safety equipment.</I> Systems and devices integral to or installed on a motor vehicle for the purpose of effecting the safe operation of the vehicle, and consisting of such systems or devices as safety belts, airbags, headlights, tail lights, emergency/hazard lights, windshield wipers, defogging or defrosting devices, brakes, horns, mirrors, windshields and other windows, and locks.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Navy ship's force.</I> The crew of a vessel that is owned or operated by the U.S. Navy, other than a time- or voyage-chartered vessel, that is under the control of a Commanding Officer or Master.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Normal production operations.</I> The use of machinery or equipment, including, but not limited to, punch presses, bending presses, shears, lathes, keel press rollers, and automated burning machines, to perform a shipyard-employment production process.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Portable toilet.</I> A non-sewered portable facility for collecting and containing urine and feces. A portable toilet may be either flushable or non-flushable. For purposes of this section, portable toilets do not include privies.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Potable water.</I> Water that meets the standards for drinking purposes of the state or local authority having jurisdiction, or water that meets the quality standards prescribed by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's National Primary Water Regulations (40 CFR part 141).
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Readily accessible/available.</I> Capable of being reached quickly enough to ensure, for example, that emergency medical services and first aid intervention are appropriate or that employees can reach sanitation facilities in time to meet their health and personal needs.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Sanitation facilities.</I> Facilities, including supplies, maintained for employee personal and health needs such as potable drinking water, toilet facilities, hand-washing and -drying facilities, showers (including quick-drenching or flushing) and changing rooms, eating and drinking areas, first aid stations, and on-site medical-service areas. Sanitation supplies include soap, waterless cleaning agents, single-use drinking cups, drinking water containers, toilet paper, and towels.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Serviceable condition.</I> The state or ability of supplies or goods, or of a tool, machine, vehicle, or other device, to be used or to operate in the manner prescribed by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Servicing.</I> Workplace activities that involve the construction, installation, adjustment, inspection, modification, testing, or repair of machinery, equipment, or systems. Servicing also includes maintaining machines, equipment, or systems when performing these activities would expose the employee to harm from the start-up or energization of the system being serviced, or the release of hazardous energy.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Sewered toilet.</I> A fixture maintained for the purpose of urination and defecation that is connected to a sanitary sewer, septic tank, holding tank (bilge), or on-site sewage-disposal treatment facility, and that is flushed with water.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Shield.</I> To install a covering, protective layer, or other effective measure on or around steam hoses or temporary steam-piping systems, including metal fittings and couplings, to protect employees from contacting hot surfaces or elements.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Short bight.</I> A loop created in a line or rope that is used to tie back or fasten objects such as hoses, wiring, and fittings.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Tag.</I> A prominent warning device that includes a means of attachment that can be securely fastened to an energy-isolating device in accordance with an established procedure to indicate that the energy-isolating device and the equipment being controlled must not be operated until the tag is removed by an authorized employee.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>Tags-plus system.</I> A system to control hazardous energy that consists of an energy-isolating device with a tag affixed to it, and at least one additional safety measure.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Verification of isolation.</I> The means necessary to detect the presence of hazardous energy, which may involve the use of a test instrument (for example, a voltmeter), and, for other than electric shock protection, a visual inspection, or a deliberate attempt to start-up the machinery, equipment, or system.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>Vermin.</I> Insects, birds, rodents and other animals that may create safety and health hazards for employees.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Vessel section.</I> A subassembly, module, or other component of a vessel being built or repaired.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Walkway.</I> Any surface, whether vertical, slanted, or horizontal, on which employees walk, including areas that employees pass through, to perform their job tasks. Walkways include, but are not limited to, access ways, designated walkways, aisles, exits, gangways, ladders, ramps, stairs, steps, passageways, and scaffolding. If an area is, or could be, used to gain access to other locations, it is to be considered a walkway.
</P>
<P>(36) <I>Work area.</I> A specific area, such as a machine shop, engineering space, or fabrication area, where one or more employees are performing job tasks.
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Working surface.</I> Any surface where work is occurring, or areas where tools, materials, and equipment are being staged for performing work.
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Worksite.</I> A general work location where one or more employees are performing work, such as a shipyard, pier, barge, vessel, or vessel section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective dates.</I> This final rule becomes effective and enforceable on August 1, 2011, except for the provisions in § 1915.89, which become effective and enforceable on October 31, 2011.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 24698, May 2, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 21555, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.81" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.81   Housekeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall establish and maintain good housekeeping practices to eliminate hazards to employees to the extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall eliminate slippery conditions, such as snow and ice, on walkways and working surfaces as necessary. If it is not practicable for the employer to remove slippery conditions, the employer either shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Restrict employees to designated walkways and working surfaces where the employer has eliminated slippery conditions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide slip-resistant footwear in accordance with 29 CFR part 1915, subpart I.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall store materials in a manner that does not create a hazard for employees.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall maintain easy and open access to each fire-alarm box, fire-call station, fire-fighting equipment, and each exit, including ladders, staircases, scaffolds, and gangways.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall dispose of flammable and combustible substances, such as paint thinners, solvents, rags, scrap, and waste, or store them in covered fire-resistant containers at the end of each workshift or when the job is completed, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Walkways.</I> (1) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a), the employer also shall ensure that each walkway:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides adequate passage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is clear of debris, including solid and liquid wastes, that may create a hazard for employees;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is clear of tools, materials, equipment, and other objects that may create a hazard for employees; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is clear of hoses and electrical service cords. The employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Place each hose and cord above walkways in a location that will prevent injury to employees and damage to the hoses and cords;
</P>
<P>(B) Place each hose and cord underneath walkways;
</P>
<P>(C) Place each hose and cord on walkways, provided the hoses and cords are covered by crossovers or other means that will prevent injury to employees and damage to the hoses and cords; or
</P>
<P>(D) Protect each hose and cord by other suitable means.
</P>
<P>(2) While a walkway or part of a walkway is being used as a working surface, the employer shall cordon off that portion to prevent it from being used as a walkway.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Working surfaces.</I> In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a), the employer also shall ensure that each working surface:
</P>
<P>(1) Is cleared of tools, materials, and equipment that are not necessary to perform the job in progress;
</P>
<P>(2) Is cleared of debris, including solid and liquid wastes, at the end of each workshift or job, whichever occurs first;
</P>
<P>(3) Is maintained, so far as practicable, in a dry condition. When a wet process is used, the employer shall maintain drainage and provide false floors, platforms, mats, or other dry standing places. When the employer demonstrates that this procedure is not practicable, the employer shall provide each employee working in the wet process with protective footgear, in accordance with 29 CFR part 1915, subpart I.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.82" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.82   Lighting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each work area and walkway is adequately lighted whenever an employee is present.
</P>
<P>(2) For landside areas, the employer shall provide illumination that meets the levels set forth in Table F-1 to § 1915.82.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-1 to § 1915.82—Minimum Lighting Intensities in Foot-Candles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lumens
<br/>(foot-candles)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Area or operation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General areas on vessels and vessel sections such as accessways, exits, gangways, stairs, and walkways.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General landside areas such as corridors, exits, stairs, and walkways.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All assigned work areas on any vessel or vessel section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Landside tunnels, shafts, vaults, pumping stations, and underground work areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Landside work areas such as machine shops, electrical equipment rooms, carpenter shops, lofts, tool rooms, warehouses, and outdoor work areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Changing rooms, showers, sewered toilets, and eating, drinking, and break areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First aid stations, infirmaries, and offices.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to table F-1 to § 1915.82:</HED>
<P>The required illumination levels in this table do not apply to emergency or portable lights.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) For vessels and vessel sections, the employer shall provide illumination that meets the levels set forth in the table to paragraph (a)(2) or meet ANSI/IESNA RP-7-01 (incorporated by reference, see 1915.5).
</P>
<P>(4) When adequate illumination is not obtainable by permanent lighting sources, temporary lighting may be used as supplementation.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure that neither matches nor open-flame devices are used for lighting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Temporary lights.</I> The employer shall ensure that temporary lights meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Lights with bulbs that are not completely recessed are equipped with guards to prevent accidental contact with the bulb;
</P>
<P>(2) Lights are equipped with electric cords designed with sufficient capacity to safely carry the electric load;
</P>
<P>(3) Connections and insulation on electric cords are maintained in a safe condition;
</P>
<P>(4) Lights and lighting stringers are not suspended solely by their electric cords unless they are designed by the manufacturer to be suspended in this way;
</P>
<P>(5) Lighting stringers do not overload branch circuits;
</P>
<P>(6) Branch circuits are equipped with over-current protection with a capacity that does not exceed the rated current-carrying capacity of the cord used;
</P>
<P>(7) Splices have insulation with a capacity that exceeds that of the original insulation of the cord; and
</P>
<P>(8) Exposed, non-current-carrying metal parts of lights are grounded. The employer shall ensure that grounding is provided either through a third wire in the cord containing the circuit conductors or through a separate wire that is grounded at the source of the current. Grounding shall be done in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910, subpart S.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Portable lights.</I> (1) In any dark area that does not have permanent or temporary lights, where lights are not working, or where lights are not readily accessible, the employer shall provide portable or emergency lights and ensure that employees do not enter those areas without such lights.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the only means of illumination on a vessel or vessel section are from lighting sources that are not part of the vessel or vessel section, the employer shall provide portable or emergency lights for the safe movement of each employee. If natural sunlight provides sufficient illumination, portable or emergency lights are not required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Explosion-proof, self-contained lights.</I> The employer shall provide and ensure that each employee uses only explosion-proof, self-contained temporary and portable lights, approved for hazardous conditions by a nationally recognized testing laboratory (NRTL), in any area that the atmosphere is determined to contain a concentration of flammable vapors that are at or above 10 percent of the lower explosive limit (LEL) as specified in 29 CFR part 1915, subparts B and C.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.83" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.83   Utilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Steam supply system.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that the vessel's steam piping system, including hoses, is designed to safely handle the working pressure prior to supplying steam from an outside source. The employer shall obtain a written or oral determination from a responsible vessel's representative, a contractor, or any other person who is qualified by training, knowledge, or experience to make such determination that the working pressure of the vessel's steam piping system is safe.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each outside steam supply connected to a vessel's steam piping system meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) A pressure gauge and a relief valve are installed at the point where the temporary steam hose joins the vessel's steam piping system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each relief valve is set to relieve excess steam at, and is capable of relieving steam at, a pressure that does not exceed the safe working pressure of the system in its present condition;
</P>
<P>(iii) There are no means of inadvertently disconnecting any relief valve from the system that it protects;
</P>
<P>(iv) Each pressure gauge and relief valve is legible and located so it is visible and readily accessible; and
</P>
<P>(v) Each relief valve is positioned so it is not likely to cause injury if steam is released.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Steam hoses.</I> The employer shall ensure that each steam hose meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The steam hose and its fittings are used in accordance with manufacturer's specifications;
</P>
<P>(2) Each steam hose is hung tightly with short bights that prevent chafing and to reduce tension on the hose and its fittings;
</P>
<P>(3) Each steam hose is protected from damage; and
</P>
<P>(4) Each steam hose or temporary steam piping, including metal fittings and couplings, that pass through a walking or working area is shielded to protect employees from contact.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electric shore power.</I> When a vessel is supplied with electric shore power, the employer shall take the following precautions prior to energizing any of the vessel's circuits:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the vessel is grounded;
</P>
<P>(2) Equip each circuit to be energized with over-current protection that does not exceed the rated current-carrying capacity of the conductors; and
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that each circuit to be energized is in a safe condition. The employer must obtain a determination of the safe condition, either orally or in writing, from a responsible vessel's representative, a contractor, or any other person who is qualified by training, knowledge, or experience to make such determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Heat lamps.</I> The employer shall ensure that each heat lamp, including the face, is equipped with surround-type guards to prevent contact with the lamp and bulb.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.84" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.84   Working alone.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 1915.51(c)(3) of this part, whenever an employee is working alone, such as in a confined space or isolated location, the employer shall account for each employee:
</P>
<P>(1) Throughout each workshift at regular intervals appropriate to the job assignment to ensure the employee's safety and health; and
</P>
<P>(2) At the end of the job assignment or at the end of the workshift, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall account for each employee by sight or verbal communication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.85" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.85   Vessel radar and communication systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall service each vessel's radar and communication systems in accordance with 29 CFR 1915.89, Control of Hazardous Energy.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall secure each vessel's radar and communication system so it is incapable of energizing or emitting radiation before any employee begins work:
</P>
<P>(1) On or in the vicinity of the system;
</P>
<P>(2) On or in the vicinity of a system equipped with a dummy load; or
</P>
<P>(3) Aloft, such as on a mast or king post.
</P>
<P>(c) When a vessel's radar or communication system is operated, serviced, repaired, or tested, the employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no other work in progress aloft; and
</P>
<P>(2) No employee is closer to the system's antenna or transmitter than the manufacturer's specified safe minimum distance for the type, model, and power of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer shall ensure that no employee enters an area designated as hazardous by manufacturers' specifications while a radar or communication system is capable of emitting radiation.
</P>
<P>(e) The requirements of this section do not apply when a radar or communication system is incapable of emitting radiation at levels that could injure workers in the vicinity of the system, or if the radar or communication system is incapable of energizing in a manner than could injure workers working on or in the vicinity of the system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.86" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.86   Lifeboats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before any employee works in or on a stowed or suspended lifeboat, the employer shall secure the lifeboat independently from the releasing gear to prevent it from falling or capsizing.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall not permit any employee to be in a lifeboat while it is being hoisted or lowered, except when the employer demonstrates that it is necessary to conduct operational tests or drills over water, or in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(c) The employer shall not permit any employee to work on the outboard side of a lifeboat that is stowed on chocks unless the lifeboat is secured by gripes or another device that prevents it from swinging.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.87" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.87   Medical services and first aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The employer shall ensure that emergency medical services and first aid are readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advice and consultation.</I> The employer shall ensure that healthcare professionals are readily available for advice and consultation on matters of workplace health.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>First aid providers.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that there is an adequate number of employees trained as first aid providers at each worksite during each workshift unless:
</P>
<P>(i) There is an on-site clinic or infirmary with first aid providers during each workshift; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer can demonstrate that outside first aid providers (i.e., emergency medical services) can reach the worksite within five (5) minutes of a report of injury or illness. The employer must take appropriate steps to ascertain that emergency medical assistance will be readily available promptly if an injury or illness occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that a first aid provider is able to reach an injured/ill employee within five (5) minutes of a report of a serious injury, illness, or accident such as one involving cardiac arrest, acute breathing problems, uncontrolled bleeding, suffocation, electrocution, or amputation.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall use the following factors in determining the number and location of employees who must have first aid training: size and location of each worksite; the number of employees at each worksite; the hazards present at each worksite; and the distance of each worksite from hospitals, clinics, and rescue squads.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall ensure that first aid providers are trained to render first aid, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure that each first aid provider maintains current first aid and CPR certifications, such as issued by the Red Cross, American Heart Association, or other equivalent organization.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>First aid supplies.</I> (1) The employer shall provide and maintain adequate first aid supplies that are readily accessible to each worksite. An employer's on-site infirmary or clinic containing first aid supplies that are readily accessible to each worksite complies with this requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that the placement, content, and amount of first aid supplies are adequate for the size and location of each worksite, the number of employees at each worksite, the hazards present at each worksite, and the distance of each worksite from hospitals, clinics, and rescue squads.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that first aid supplies are placed in a weatherproof container.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall maintain first aid supplies in a dry, sterile, and serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall replenish first aid supplies as necessary to ensure that there is an adequate supply when needed.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall inspect first aid supplies at sufficient intervals to ensure that they are adequate and in a serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quick-drenching and flushing facilities.</I> Where the potential exists for an employee to be splashed with a substance that may result in an acute or serious injury, the employer shall provide facilities for quick-drenching or flushing the eyes and body. The employer shall ensure that such a facility is located for immediate emergency use within close proximity to operations where such substances are being used.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Basket stretchers.</I> (1) The employer shall provide an adequate number of basket stretchers, or the equivalent, readily accessible to where work is being performed on a vessel or vessel section. The employer is not required to provide basket stretchers or the equivalent where emergency response services have basket stretchers or the equivalent that meet the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure each basket stretcher, or the equivalent, is equipped with:
</P>
<P>(i) Permanent lifting bridles that enable the basket stretcher, or the equivalent, to be attached to hoisting gear capable of lifting at least 5,000 pounds (2,270 kg);
</P>
<P>(ii) Restraints that are capable of securely holding the injured/ill employee while the basket stretcher, or the equivalent, is lifted or moved; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A blanket or other suitable covering for the injured/ill employee.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall store basket stretchers, or the equivalent, and related equipment (i.e., restraints, blankets) in a clearly marked location in a manner that prevents damage and protects the equipment from environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall inspect stretchers, or the equivalent, and related equipment at intervals that ensure the equipment remains in a safe and serviceable condition, but at least once a year.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1915.87—First Aid Kits and Automated External Defibrillators (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>1. First aid supplies are required to be adequate and readily accessible under paragraphs § 1915.87(a) and (d). An example of the minimal contents of a generic first aid kit for workplace settings is described in ANSI/ISEA Z308.1-2009, “Minimum Requirements for Workplace First Aid Kits and Supplies” (incorporated by reference as specified in § 1915.5). The contents of the kit listed in this ANSI standard should be adequate for small worksites. When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same worksite, employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies, and additional quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid kits.
</P>
<P>2. In a similar fashion, employers that have unique or changing first aid needs at their worksite may need to enhance their first aid kits. The employer can use the OSHA 300 Log, OSHA 301 Incident Report form, or other reports to identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local fire or rescue department, appropriate healthcare professional or local emergency room may be helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the specific needs of their worksite, employers can ensure that reasonably anticipated supplies are available. Employers should assess the specific needs of their worksite periodically, and augment first aid kits appropriately.
</P>
<P>3. If it is reasonably anticipated that employees will be exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first aid supplies, employers must provide appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) in compliance with the provisions of the Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens standard, § 1910.1030(d)(3). This standard lists appropriate PPE for this type of exposure, such as gloves, gowns, face shields, masks, and eye protection.
</P>
<P>4. Employers who provide automated external defibrillators (AEDs) at their workplaces should designate who will use AEDs and train those employees so they know how to correctly use the AEDs. Although a growing number of AEDs are now designed to be used by any person, even without training, training reinforces proper use and promotes the usefulness of AEDs as part of an effective cardiopulmonary resuscitation plan. For AEDs to be effective, employers should:
</P>
<P>a. Ensure that AEDs are located so they can be utilized within three to five minutes of a report of an accident or injury;
</P>
<P>b. Ensure that employees use AEDs in accordance with manufacturers' specifications; and
</P>
<P>c. Inspect, test, and maintain AEDs in accordance with manufacturers' specifications.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.88" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.88   Sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall provide adequate and readily accessible sanitation facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall establish and implement a schedule for servicing, cleaning, and supplying each facility to ensure it is maintained in a clean, sanitary, and serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Potable water.</I> (1) The employer shall provide potable water for all employee health and personal needs and ensure that only potable water is used for these purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall provide potable drinking water in amounts that are adequate to meet the health and personal needs of each employee.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall dispense drinking water from a fountain, a covered container with single-use drinking cups stored in a sanitary receptacle, or single-use bottles. The employer shall prohibit the use of shared drinking cups, dippers, and water bottles.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-potable water.</I> (1) The employer may use non-potable water for other purposes such as firefighting and cleaning outdoor premises so long as it does not contain chemicals, fecal matter, coliform, or other substances at levels that may create a hazard for employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall clearly mark non-potable water supplies and outlets as “not safe for health or personal use.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Toilets</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The employer shall ensure that sewered and portable toilets:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide privacy at all times. When a toilet facility contains more than one toilet, each toilet shall occupy a separate compartment with a door and walls or partitions that are sufficiently high to ensure privacy; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Are separate for each sex, except as provided in (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(A) The number of toilets provided for each sex shall be based on the maximum number of employees of that sex present at the worksite at any one time during a workshift. A single-occupancy toilet room shall be counted as one toilet regardless of the number of toilets it contains; and
</P>
<P>(B) The employer does not have to provide separate toilet facilities for each sex when they will not be occupied by more than one employee at a time, can be locked from the inside, and contain at least one toilet.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall establish and implement a schedule to ensure that each sewered and portable toilet is maintained in a clean, sanitary, and serviceable condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum number of toilets.</I> (i) The employer shall provide at least the following number of toilets for each sex. Portable toilets that meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section may be included in the minimum number of toilets.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-2 to § 1915.88
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of employees of each sex
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of toilets per sex
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 to 15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16 to 35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36 to 55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56 to 80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81 to 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">111 to 150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 additional toilet for each additional 40 employees.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note to Table F-2 of § 1915.88</E>: When toilets will only be used by men, urinals may be provided instead of toilets, except that the number of toilets in such cases shall not be reduced to less than two-thirds of the minimum specified.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Portable toilets.</I> (i) The employer shall provide portable toilets, pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(i) and Table to paragraph (d)(2) of this section, only when the employer demonstrates that it is not feasible to provide sewered toilets, or when there is a temporary increase in the number of employees for a short duration of time.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that each portable toilet is vented and equipped, as necessary, with lighting.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception for normally unattended worksites and mobile work crews.</I> The requirement to provide toilets does not apply to normally unattended worksites and mobile work crews, provided that the employer ensures that employees have immediately available transportation to readily accessible sanitation facilities that are maintained in a clean, sanitary, and serviceable condition and meet the other requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Handwashing facilities.</I> (1) The employer shall provide handwashing facilities at or adjacent to each toilet facility.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each handwashing facility:
</P>
<P>(i) Is equipped with either hot and cold or lukewarm running water and soap, or with waterless skin-cleansing agents that are capable of disinfecting the skin or neutralizing the contaminants to which the employee may be exposed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the facility uses soap and water, it is supplied with clean, single-use hand towels stored in a sanitary container and a sanitary means for disposing of them, clean individual sections of continuous cloth toweling, or a hand-drying air blower.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall inform each employee engaged in the application of paints or coatings or in other operations in which hazardous or toxic substances can be ingested or absorbed about the need for removing surface contaminants from their skins surface by thoroughly washing their hands and face at the end of the workshift and prior to eating, drinking, or smoking.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Showers.</I> (1) When showers are required by an OSHA standard, the employer shall provide one shower for each 10, or fraction of 10, employees of each sex who are required to shower during the same workshift.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each shower is equipped with soap, hot and cold water, and clean towels for each employee who uses the shower.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Changing rooms.</I> When an employer provides protective clothing to prevent employee exposure to hazardous or toxic substances, the employer shall provide the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Changing rooms that provide privacy for each sex; and
</P>
<P>(2) Storage facilities for street clothes, as well as separate storage facilities for protective clothing.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Eating, drinking, and break areas.</I> The employer shall ensure that food, beverages, and tobacco products are not consumed or stored in any area where employees may be exposed to hazardous or toxic substances.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Waste disposal.</I> (1) The employer shall provide waste receptacles that meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Each receptacle is constructed of materials that are corrosion resistant, leak-proof, and easily cleaned or disposable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each receptacle is equipped with a solid tight-fitting cover, unless it can be kept in clean, sanitary, and serviceable condition without the use of a cover;
</P>
<P>(iii) Receptacles are provided in numbers, sizes, and locations that encourage their use; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Each receptacle is emptied as often as necessary to prevent it from overfilling and in a manner that does not create a hazard for employees. Waste receptacles for food shall be emptied at least every day, unless unused.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall not permit employees to work in the immediate vicinity of uncovered garbage that could endanger their safety and health.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that employees working beneath or on the outboard side of a vessel are not contaminated by drainage or waste from overboard discharges.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Vermin control.</I> (1) To the extent reasonably practicable, the employer shall clean and maintain the workplace in a manner that prevents vermin infestation.
</P>
<P>(2) Where vermin are detected, the employer shall implement and maintain an effective vermin-control program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.89" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.89   Control of hazardous energy (lockout/tags-plus).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope, application, and effective dates</I> . (1) <I>Scope.</I> This section covers the servicing of machinery, equipment, and systems when the energization or startup of machinery, equipment, or systems, or the release of hazardous energy, could endanger an employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> (i) This section applies to the servicing of any machinery, equipment, or system that employees use in the course of shipyard employment work and that is conducted:
</P>
<P>(A) In any landside facility that performs shipyard employment work; and
</P>
<P>(B) On any vessel or vessel section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This section applies to such servicing conducted on a vessel by any employee including, but not limited to, the ship's officers and crew unless such application is preempted by the regulations of another federal agency.
</P>
<P>(3) When other standards in 29 CFR part 1915 and applicable standards in 29 CFR part 1910 require the use of a lock or tag, the employer shall use and supplement them with the procedural and training requirements specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions.</I> This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Work on cord-and-plug-connected machinery, equipment, or system, provided the employer ensures that the machinery, equipment, or system is unplugged and the plug is under the exclusive control of the employee performing the servicing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minor servicing activities performed during normal production operations, including minor tool changes and adjustments, that are routine, repetitive, and integral to the use of the machinery, equipment, or system, provided the employer ensures that the work is performed using measures that provide effective protection from energization, startup, or the release of hazardous energy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lockout/tags-plus program.</I> The employer shall establish and implement a written program and procedures for lockout and tags-plus systems to control hazardous energy during the servicing of any machinery, equipment, or system in shipyard employment. The program shall cover:
</P>
<P>(1) Procedures for lockout/tags-plus systems while servicing machinery, equipment, or systems in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for protecting employees involved in servicing any machinery, equipment, or system in accordance with paragraphs (d) through (m) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Specifications for locks and tags-plus hardware in accordance with paragraph (n) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Employee information and training in accordance with paragraph (o) of this section;
</P>
<P>(5) Incident investigations in accordance with paragraph (p) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(6) Program audits in accordance with paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that, before any authorized employee performs servicing when energization or startup, or the release of hazardous energy, may occur, all energy sources are identified and isolated, and the machinery, equipment, or system is rendered inoperative.
</P>
<P>(2) If an energy-isolating device is capable of being locked, the employer shall ensure the use of a lock to prevent energization or startup, or the release of hazardous energy, before any servicing is started, unless the employer can demonstrate that the utilization of a tags-plus system will provide full employee protection as set forth in paragraph (c)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If an energy-isolating device is not capable of being locked, the employer shall ensure the use of a tags-plus system to prevent energization or startup, or the release of hazardous energy, before any servicing is started.
</P>
<P>(4) Each tags-plus system shall consist of:
</P>
<P>(i) At least one energy-isolating device with a tag affixed to it; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At least one additional safety measure that, along with the energy-isolating device and tag required in (c)(4)(i) of this section, will provide the equivalent safety available from the use of a lock.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(4) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force maintains control of the machinery, equipment, or systems on a vessel and has implemented such additional measures it determines are necessary, the provisions of paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section shall not apply, provided that the employer complies with the verification procedures in paragraph (g) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) After October 31, 2011, the employer shall ensure that each energy-isolating device for any machinery, equipment, or system is designed to accept a lock whenever the machinery, equipment, or system is extensively repaired, renovated, modified, or replaced, or whenever new machinery, equipment, or systems are installed. This requirement does not apply when a shipyard employer:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not own the machinery, equipment, or system; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Builds or services a vessel or vessel section according to customer specifications.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Full employee protection.</I> (i) When a tag is used on an energy-isolating device that is capable of being locked out, the tag shall be attached at the same location that the lock would have been attached, and;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall demonstrate that the use of a tags-plus system will provide a level of safety equivalent to that obtained by using a lock. In demonstrating that an equivalent level of safety is achieved, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Demonstrate full compliance with all tags-plus-related provisions of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(B) Implement such additional safety measures as are necessary to provide the equivalent safety available from the use of a lock.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(6) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force maintains control of the machinery, equipment, or systems on a vessel and has implemented such additional measures it determines are necessary, the provisions of paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(B) of this section do not apply, provided that the employer complies with the verification procedures in paragraph (g) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(7) <I>Lockout/tags-plus coordination.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and implement lockout/tags-plus coordination when:
</P>
<P>(A) Employees on vessels and in vessel sections are servicing multiple machinery, equipment, or systems at the same time; or
</P>
<P>(B) Employees on vessels, in vessel sections, and at landside facilities are performing multiple servicing operations on the same machinery, equipment, or system at the same time.
</P>
<P>(ii) The coordination process shall include a lockout/tags-plus coordinator and a lockout/tags-plus log. Each log shall be specific to each vessel, vessel section, and landside work area.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall designate a lockout/tags-plus coordinator who is responsible for overseeing and approving:
</P>
<P>(A) The application of each lockout and tags-plus system;
</P>
<P>(B) The verification of hazardous-energy isolation before the servicing of any machinery, equipment, or system begins; and
</P>
<P>(C) The removal of each lockout and tags-plus system.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that the lockout/tags-plus coordinator maintains and administers a continuous log of each lockout and tags-plus system. The log shall contain:
</P>
<P>(A) Location of machinery, equipment, or system to be serviced;
</P>
<P>(B) Type of machinery, equipment, or system to be serviced;
</P>
<P>(C) Name of the authorized employee applying the lockout/tags-plus system;
</P>
<P>(D) Date that the lockout/tags-plus system is applied;
</P>
<P>(E) Name of authorized employee removing the lock or tags-plus system; and
</P>
<P>(F) Date that lockout/tags-plus system is removed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(7) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force serves as the lockout/tags-plus coordinator and maintains control of the lockout/tags-plus log, the employer will be in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (c)(7) of this section when coordination between the ship's force and the employer occurs to ensure that applicable lockout/tags-plus procedures are followed and documented.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) <I>Lockout/tags-plus written procedures.</I> (1) The employer shall establish and implement written procedures to prevent energization or startup, or the release of hazardous energy, during the servicing of any machinery, equipment, or system. Each procedure shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear and specific outline of the scope and purpose of the lockout/tags-plus procedure;
</P>
<P>(ii) The means the employer will use to enforce compliance with the lockout/tags-plus program and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The steps that must be followed for:
</P>
<P>(A) Preparing for shutting down and isolating of the machinery, equipment, or system to be serviced, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Applying the lockout/tags-plus system, in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Verifying isolation, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Testing the machinery, equipment, or system, in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Removing lockout/tags-plus systems, in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Starting up the machinery, equipment, or system that is being serviced, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Applying lockout/tags-plus systems in group servicing operations, in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section;
</P>
<P>(H) Addressing multi-employer worksites involved in servicing any machinery, equipment, or system, in accordance with paragraph (l) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(I) Addressing shift or personnel changes during servicing operations, in accordance with paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(1) of this section:</HED>
<P>The employer need only develop a single procedure for a group of similar machines, equipment, or systems if the machines, equipment, or systems have the same type and magnitude of energy and the same or similar types of controls, and if a single procedure can satisfactorily address the hazards and the steps to be taken to control these hazards.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The employer's lockout procedures do not have to be in writing for servicing machinery, equipment, or systems, provided that all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) There is no potential for hazardous energy to be released (or to reaccumulate) after shutting down, or restoring energy to, the machinery, equipment, or system;
</P>
<P>(ii) The machinery, equipment, or system has a single energy source that can be readily identified and isolated;
</P>
<P>(iii) The isolation and lock out of that energy source will result in complete de-energization and deactivation of the machinery, equipment, or system, and there is no potential for reaccumulation of energy;
</P>
<P>(iv) The energy source is isolated and secured from the machinery, equipment, or system during servicing;
</P>
<P>(v) Only one lock is necessary for isolating the energy source;
</P>
<P>(vi) The lock is under the exclusive control of the authorized employee performing the servicing;
</P>
<P>(vii) The servicing does not create a hazard for any other employee; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The employer, in utilizing this exception, has not had any accidents or incidents involving the activation or reenergization of this type of machinery, equipment, or system during servicing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for shutdown and isolation.</I> (1) Before an authorized employee shuts down any machinery, equipment, or system, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the authorized employee has knowledge of:
</P>
<P>(A) The source, type, and magnitude of the hazards associated with energization or startup of the machine, equipment, or system;
</P>
<P>(B) The hazards associated with the release of hazardous energy; and
</P>
<P>(C) The means to control these hazards; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify each affected employee that the machinery, equipment, or system will be shut down and deenergized prior to servicing, and that a lockout/tags-plus system will be implemented.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that the machinery, equipment, or system is shut down according to the written procedures the employer established.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall use an orderly shutdown to prevent exposing any employee to risks associated with hazardous energy.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall ensure that the authorized employee relieves, disconnects, restrains, or otherwise renders safe all potentially hazardous energy that is connected to the machinery, equipment, or system.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force shuts down any machinery, equipment, or system, and relieves, disconnects, restrains, or otherwise renders safe all potentially hazardous energy that is connected to the machinery, equipment, or system, the employer will be in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (e) of this section when the employer's authorized employee verifies that the machinery, equipment, or system being serviced has been properly shut down, isolated, and deenergized.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures for applying lockout/tags-plus systems.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that only an authorized employee applies a lockout/tags-plus system.
</P>
<P>(2) When using lockout systems, the employer shall ensure that the authorized employee affixes each lock in a manner that will hold the energy-isolating device in a safe or off position.
</P>
<P>(3) When using tags-plus systems, the employer shall ensure that the authorized employee affixes a tag directly to the energy-isolating device that clearly indicates that the removal of the device from a safe or off position is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(4) When the tag cannot be affixed directly to the energy-isolating device the employer shall ensure that the authorized employee locates it as close as safely possible to the device, in a safe and immediately obvious position.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure that each energy-isolating device that controls energy to the machinery, equipment, or system is effective in isolating the machinery, equipment, or system from all potentially hazardous energy source(s).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force applies the lockout/tags-plus systems or devices, the employer will be in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section when the employer's authorized employee verifies the application of the lockout/tags-plus systems or devices.</P></NOTE>
<P>(g) <I>Procedures for verification of deenergization and isolation.</I> (1) Before servicing machinery, equipment, or a system that has a lockout/tags-plus system, the employer shall ensure that the authorized employee, or the primary authorized employee in a group lockout/tags-plus application, verifies that the machinery, equipment, or system is deenergized and all energy sources isolated.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that the authorized employee, or the primary authorized employee in a group lockout/tags-plus application, continues verifying deenergization and isolation while servicing the machinery, equipment, or system.
</P>
<P>(3) Each authorized employee in a group lockout/tags-plus application who will be servicing the machinery, equipment, or system must be given the option to verify that the machinery, equipment, or system is deenergized and all energy sources isolated, even when verification is performed by the primary authorized employee.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Procedures for testing.</I> In each situation in which a lockout/tags-plus system must be removed temporarily and the machinery, equipment, or system restarted to test it or to position a component, the employer shall ensure that the authorized employee does the following in sequence:
</P>
<P>(1) Clears tools and materials from the work area;
</P>
<P>(2) Removes nonessential employees from the work area;
</P>
<P>(3) Removes each lockout/tags-plus system in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Restarts the machinery, equipment, or system and then proceeds with testing or positioning; and
</P>
<P>(5) After completing testing or positioning, deenergizes and shuts down the machinery, equipment, or system and reapplies all lockout/tags-plus systems in accordance with paragraphs (e)-(g) of this section to continue servicing.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force serves as the lockout/tags-plus coordinator, performs the testing, and maintains control of the lockout/tags-plus systems or devices during testing, the employer is in compliance with paragraph (h) when the employer's authorized employee acknowledges to the lockout/tags-plus coordinator that the employer's personnel and tools are clear and the machinery, equipment, or system being serviced is ready for testing, and upon completion of the testing, verifies the reapplication of the lockout/tags-plus systems.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures for removal of lockout and tags-plus systems.</I> (1) Before removing any lockout/tags-plus system and restoring the machinery, equipment, or system to use, the employer shall ensure that the authorized employee does the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Notifies all other authorized and affected employees that the lockout/tags-plus system will be removed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensures that all employees in the work area have been safely positioned or removed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Inspects the work area to ensure that nonessential items have been removed and machinery, equipment, or system components are operationally intact.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each lock or tags-plus system is removed by the authorized employee who applied it.
</P>
<P>(3) When the authorized employee who applied the lockout/tags-plus system is not available to remove it, the employer may direct removal by another authorized employee, provided the employer developed and incorporated into the lockout/tags-plus program the specific procedures and training that address such removal, and demonstrates that the specific procedures used provide a level of employee safety that is at least as effective in protecting employees as removal of the system by the authorized employee who applied it. After meeting these requirements, the employer shall do the following in sequence:
</P>
<P>(i) Verify that the authorized employee who applied the lockout/tags-plus system is not in the facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Make all reasonable efforts to contact the authorized employee to inform him/her that the lockout/tags-plus system has been removed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the authorized employee who applied the lock or tags-plus system has knowledge of the removal before resuming work on the affected machinery, equipment, or system.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force serves as lockout/tags-plus coordinator and removes the lockout/tags-plus systems or devices, the employer is in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (i) of this section when the employer's authorized employee informs the lockout/tags-plus coordinator that the procedures in paragraph (i)(1) of this section have been performed.</P></NOTE>
<P>(j) <I>Procedures for startup.</I> (1) Before an authorized employee turns on any machinery, equipment, or system after servicing is completed, the employer shall ensure that the authorized employee has knowledge of the source, type, and magnitude of the hazards associated with energization or startup, and the means to control these hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall execute an orderly startup to prevent or minimize any additional or increased hazard(s) to employees. The employer shall perform the following tasks before starting up the machinery, equipment, or system:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear tools and materials from the work area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Remove any non-essential employees from the work area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Start up the machinery, equipment, or system according to the detailed procedures the employer established for that machinery, equipment, or system.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">j</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force serves as lockout/tags-plus coordinator and maintains control of the lockout/tags-plus systems or devices during startup, and the employer is prohibited from starting up the machinery, equipment, or system, the employer is in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (j) of this section when the employer's authorized employee informs the lockout/tags-plus coordinator the procedures in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (j)(2)(ii) of this section have been performed.</P></NOTE>
<P>(k) <I>Procedures for group lockout/tags-plus.</I> When more than one authorized employee services the same machinery, equipment, or system at the same time, the following procedures shall be implemented:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Primary authorized employee.</I> The employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Assign responsibility to one primary authorized employee for each group of authorized employees performing servicing on the same machinery, equipment, or system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that the primary authorized employee determines the safe exposure status of each authorized employee in the group with regard to the lockout/tags-plus system;
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the primary authorized employee obtains approval from the lockout/tags-plus coordinator to apply and remove the lockout/tags-plus system; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that the primary authorized employee coordinates the servicing operation with the coordinator when required by paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authorized employees.</I> The employer shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Have each authorized employee apply a personal lockout/tags-plus system; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Use a procedure that the employer can demonstrate affords each authorized employee a level of protection equivalent to the protection provided by having each authorized employee apply a personal lockout/tags-plus system. Such procedures shall incorporate a means for each authorized employee to have personal control of, and accountability for, his or her protection such as, but not limited to, having each authorized employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Sign a group tag (or a group tag equivalent), attach a personal identification device to a group lockout device, or performs a comparable action before servicing is started; and
</P>
<P>(B) Sign off the group tag (or the group tag equivalent), remove the personal identification device, or perform a comparable action when servicing is finished.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">k</E>)(2) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the Navy ship's force maintains control of the machinery, equipment, or systems on a vessel and prohibits the employer from applying or removing the lockout/tags-plus system or starting up the machinery, equipment, or systems being serviced, the employer is in compliance with the requirements in paragraphs (k)(1)(iii) and (k)(2), provided that the employer ensures that the primary authorized employee takes the following steps in the following order: (1) Before servicing begins and after deenergization, (a) verifies the safe exposure status of each authorized employee, and (b) signs a group tag (or a group tag equivalent) or performs a comparable action; and (2) after servicing is complete and before reenergization, (a) verifies the safe exposure status of each authorized employee, and (b) signs off the group tag (or the group tag equivalent) or performs a comparable action.</P></NOTE>
<P>(l) <I>Procedures for multi-employer worksites.</I> (1) The host employer shall establish and implement procedures to protect employees from hazardous energy in multi-employer worksites. The procedures shall specify the responsibilities for host and contract employers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Host employer responsibilities.</I> The host employer shall carry out the following responsibilities in multi-employer worksites:
</P>
<P>(i) Inform each contract employer about the content of the host employer's lockout/tags-plus program and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Instruct each contract employer to follow the host employer's lockout/tags-plus program and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the lockout/tags-plus coordinator knows about all servicing operations and communicates with each contract employer who performs servicing or works in an area where servicing is being conducted.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contract employer responsibilities.</I> Each contract employer shall perform the following duties when working in a multi-employer worksite:
</P>
<P>(i) Follow the host employer's lockout/tags-plus program and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that the host employer knows about the lockout/tags-plus hazards associated with the contract employer's work and what the contract employer is doing to address these hazards; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Inform the host employer of any previously unidentified lockout/tags-plus hazards that the contract employer identifies at the multi-employer worksite.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>The host employer may include provisions in its contract with the contract employer for the contract employer to have more control over the lockout/tags-plus program if such provisions will provide an equivalent level of protection for the host employer's and contract employer's employees as that provided by paragraph (l) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>) of this section:</HED>
<P>When the U.S Navy contracts directly with a contract employer and the Navy ship's force maintains control of the lockout/tags-plus systems or devices, that contract employer shall consider the Navy to be the host employer for the purposes of § 1915.89(l)(3).</P></NOTE>
<P>(m) <I>Procedures for shift or personnel changes.</I> (1) The employer shall establish and implement specific procedures for shift or personnel changes to ensure the continuity of lockout/tags-plus protection.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall establish and implement provisions for the orderly transfer of lockout/tags-plus systems between authorized employees when they are starting and ending their workshifts, or when personnel changes occur during a workshift, to prevent energization or startup of the machinery, equipment, or system being serviced or the release of hazardous energy.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Lockout/tags-plus materials and hardware.</I> (1) The employer shall provide locks and tags-plus system hardware used for isolating, securing, or blocking machinery, equipment, or systems from all hazardous-energy sources.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each lock and tag is uniquely identified for the purpose of controlling hazardous energy and is not used for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that each lock and tag meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Durable.</I> (A) Each lock and tag is capable of withstanding the existing environmental conditions for the maximum period of time that servicing is expected to last;
</P>
<P>(B) Each tag is made so that weather conditions, wet or damp conditions, corrosive substances, or other conditions in the work area where the tag is used or stored will not cause it to deteriorate or become illegible;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Standardized.</I> (A) Each lock and tag is standardized in at least one of the following areas: color, shape, or size; and
</P>
<P>(B) Each tag is standardized in print and format;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Substantial.</I> (A) Each lock is sturdy enough to prevent removal without the use of extra force or unusual techniques, such as bolt cutters or other metal-cutting tools;
</P>
<P>(B) Each tag and tag attachment is sturdy enough to prevent inadvertent or accidental removal;
</P>
<P>(C) Each tag attachment has the general design and basic safety characteristics of a one-piece, all-environment-tolerant nylon tie;
</P>
<P>(D) Each tag attachment is non-reusable, attachable by hand, self-locking, and non-releasable, and has a minimum unlocking strength of 50 pounds;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Identifiable.</I> Each lock and tag indicates the identity of the authorized employee applying it; and
</P>
<P>(v) Each tag warns of hazardous conditions that could arise if the machinery, equipment, or system is energized and includes a legend such as one of the following: <I>“Do Not Start,” “Do Not Open,” “Do Not Close,” “Do Not Energize,” or “Do Not Operate.”</I>
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Information and training</I>—(1) <I>Initial training.</I> The employer shall train each employee in the applicable requirements of this section no later than October 31, 2011.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General training content.</I> The employer shall train each employee who is, or may be, in an area where lockout/tags-plus systems are being used so they know:
</P>
<P>(i) The purpose and function of the employer's lockout/tags-plus program and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) The unique identity of the locks and tags to be used in the lockout/tags-plus system, as well as the standardized color, shape or size of these devices;
</P>
<P>(iii) The basic components of the tags-plus system: an energy-isolating device with a tag affixed to it and an additional safety measure;
</P>
<P>(iv) The prohibition against tampering with or removing any lockout/tags-plus system; and
</P>
<P>(v) The prohibition against restarting or reenergizing any machinery, equipment, or system being serviced under a lockout/tags-plus system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional training requirements for affected employees.</I> In addition to training affected employees in the requirements in paragraph (o)(2) of this section, the employer also shall train each affected employee so he/she knows:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of the employer's lockout/tags-plus program and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) That affected employees are not to apply or remove any lockout/tags-plus system; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That affected employees are not to bypass, ignore, or otherwise defeat any lockout/tags-plus system.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional training requirements for authorized employees.</I> In addition to training authorized employees in the requirements in paragraphs (o)(2) and (o)(3) of this section, the employer also shall train each authorized employee so he/she knows:
</P>
<P>(i) The steps necessary for the safe application, use, and removal of lockout/tags-plus systems to prevent energization or startup or the release of hazardous energy during servicing of machinery, equipment, or systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of energy sources and the magnitude of the energy available at the worksite;
</P>
<P>(iii) The means and methods necessary for effective isolation and control of hazardous energy;
</P>
<P>(iv) The means for determining the safe exposure status of other employees in a group when the authorized employee is working as a group's primary authorized employee.
</P>
<P>(v) The requirement for tags to be written so they are legible and understandable to all employees;
</P>
<P>(vi) The requirement that tags and their means of attachment be made of materials that will withstand the environmental conditions encountered in the workplace;
</P>
<P>(vii) The requirement that tags be securely attached to energy-isolating devices so they cannot be accidentally removed while servicing machinery, equipment, or systems;
</P>
<P>(viii) That tags are warning devices, and alone do not provide physical barriers against energization or startup, or the release of hazardous energy, provided by locks, and energy-isolating devices; and
</P>
<P>(ix) That tags must be used in conjunction with an energy-isolating device to prevent energization or startup or the release of hazardous energy.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional training for lockout/tags-plus coordinator.</I> In addition to training lockout/tags-plus coordinators in the requirements in paragraphs (o)(2), (o)(3), and (o)(4) of this section, the employer shall train each lockout/tags-plus coordinator so he/she knows:
</P>
<P>(i) How to identify and isolate any machinery, equipment, or system that is being serviced; and
</P>
<P>(ii) How to accurately document lockout/tags-plus systems and maintain the lockout/tags-plus log.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee retraining.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall retrain each employee, as applicable, whenever:
</P>
<P>(A) There is a change in his/her job assignment that presents new hazards or requires a greater degree of knowledge about the employer's lockout/tags-plus program or procedures;
</P>
<P>(B) There is a change in machinery, equipment, or systems to be serviced that presents a new energy-control hazard;
</P>
<P>(C) There is a change in the employer's lockout/tags-plus program or procedures; or
</P>
<P>(D) It is necessary to maintain the employee's proficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer also shall retrain each employee, as applicable, whenever an incident investigation or program audit indicates that there are:
</P>
<P>(A) Deviations from, or deficiencies in, the employer's lockout/tags-plus program or procedures; or
</P>
<P>(B) Inadequacies in an employee's knowledge or use of the lockout/tags-plus program or procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that retraining establishes the required employee knowledge and proficiency in the employer's lockout/tags-plus program and procedures and in any new or revised energy-control procedures.
</P>
<P>(7) Upon completion of employee training, the employer shall keep a record that the employee accomplished the training, and that this training is current. The training record shall contain at least the employee's name, date of training, and the subject of the training.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Incident investigation.</I> (1) The employer shall investigate each incident that resulted in, or could reasonably have resulted in, energization or startup, or the release of hazardous energy, while servicing machinery, equipment, or systems.
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly but not later than 24 hours following the incident, the employer shall initiate an incident investigation and notify each employee who was, or could reasonably have been, affected by the incident.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that the incident investigation is conducted by at least one employee who has the knowledge of, and experience in, the employer's lockout/tags-plus program and procedures, and in investigating and analyzing incidents involving the release of hazardous energy. The employer may also use additional individuals to participate in investigating the incident.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall ensure that the individual(s) conducting the investigation prepare(s) a written report of the investigation that includes:
</P>
<P>(i) The date and time of the incident;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date and time the incident investigation began;
</P>
<P>(iii) Location of the incident;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the incident;
</P>
<P>(v) The factors that contributed to the incident;
</P>
<P>(vi) A copy of any lockout/tags-plus log that was current at the time of the incident; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Any corrective actions that need to be taken as a result of the incident.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall review the written incident report with each employee whose job tasks are relevant to the incident investigation findings, including contract employees when applicable.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall ensure that the incident investigation and written report are completed, and all corrective actions implemented, within 30 days following the incident.
</P>
<P>(7) If the employer demonstrates that it is infeasible to implement all of the corrective actions within 30 days, the employer shall prepare a written abatement plan that contains an explanation of the circumstances causing the delay, a proposed timetable for the abatement, and a summary of the steps the employer is taking in the interim to protect employees from hazardous energy while servicing machinery, equipment, or systems.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Program audits.</I> (1) The employer shall conduct an audit of the lockout/tags-plus program and procedures currently in use at least annually to ensure that the procedures and the requirements of this section are being followed and to correct any deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that the audit is performed by:
</P>
<P>(i) An authorized employee other than the one(s) currently using the energy-control procedure being reviewed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals other than an authorized employee who are knowledgeable about the employer's lockout/tags-plus program and procedures and the machinery, equipment, or systems being audited.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that the audit includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A review of the written lockout/tags-plus program and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) A review of the current lockout/tags-plus log;
</P>
<P>(iii) Verification of the accuracy of the lockout/tags-plus log;
</P>
<P>(iv) A review of incident reports since the last audit;
</P>
<P>(v) A review conducted between the auditor and authorized employees regarding the authorized employees' responsibilities under the lockout systems being audited; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A review conducted between the auditor and affected and authorized employees regarding their responsibilities under the tags-plus systems being audited.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall ensure that, within 15 days after completion of the audit, the individual(s) who conducted the audit prepare and deliver to the employer a written audit report that includes at least:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the audit;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of the individual(s) who performed the audit;
</P>
<P>(iii) The identity of the procedure and machinery, equipment, or system that were audited;
</P>
<P>(iv) The findings of the program audit and recommendations for correcting deviations or deficiencies identified during the audit;
</P>
<P>(v) Any incident investigation reports since the previous audit; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Descriptions of corrective actions the employer has taken in response to the findings and recommendations of any incident investigation reports prepared since the previous audit.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall promptly communicate the findings and recommendations in the written audit report to each employee having a job task that may be affected by such findings and recommendations.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall correct the deviations or inadequacies in the lockout/tags-plus program within 15 days after receiving the written audit report.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) Table to paragraph (r)(1) of this section specifies what records the employer must retain and how long the employer must retain them:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table to Paragraph (<E T="01">r</E>)(1) of This Section—Retention of Records Required by § 1915.89
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The employer must keep the following records . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">For at least . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Current lockout/tags-plus program and procedures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Until replaced by updated program and procedures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Training records</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Until replaced by updated records for each type of training.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Incident investigation reports</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Until the next program audit is completed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Program audit report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 months after being replaced by the next audit report.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The employer shall make all records required by this section available to employees, their representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with the procedures and time periods specified in 29 CFR 1910.1020(e)(1) and (e)(3).
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Appendices.</I> Non-mandatory Appendix A to this section is a guideline to assist employers and employees in complying with the requirements of this section, and to provide them with other useful information. The information in Appendix A does not add to, or in any way revise, the requirements of this section.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1915.89 (Non-Mandatory)—Typical Minimal Lockout/Tags-Plus Procedures
</HD1>
<HD1>General
</HD1>
<HD1>Lockout/Tags-Plus Procedure
</HD1>
<FP>Lockout/Tags-Plus Procedure for 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Name of company for single procedure or identification of machinery, equipment, or system if multiple procedures used.]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Purpose
</HD1>
<P>This procedure establishes the minimum requirements for the lockout/tags-plus application of energy-isolating devices on vessels and vessel sections, and for landside facilities whenever servicing is done on machinery, equipment, or systems in shipyards. This procedure shall be used to ensure that all potentially hazardous-energy sources have been isolated and the machinery, equipment, or system to be serviced has been rendered inoperative through the use of lockout or tags-plus procedures before employees perform any servicing when the energization or start-up of the machinery, equipment, or system, or the release of hazardous energy could cause injury.
</P>
<HD1>Compliance With This Program
</HD1>
<P>All employees are required to comply with the restrictions and limitations imposed on them during the use of lockout or tags-plus applications. Authorized employees are required to perform each lockout or tags-plus application in accordance with this procedure. No employee, upon observing that machinery, equipment, or systems are secured using lockout or tags-plus applications, shall attempt to start, open, close, energize, or operate that machinery, equipment, or system.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type of compliance enforcement to be taken for violation of the above.
</FP>
<HD1>Procedures for Lockout/Tags-Plus Systems
</HD1>
<P>(1) Notify each affected employee that servicing is required on the machinery, equipment, or system, and that it must be isolated and rendered inoperative using a lockout or tags-plus system.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Method of notifying all affected employees.
</FP>
<P>(2) The authorized employee shall refer to shipyard employer's procedures to identify the type and magnitude of the energy source(s) that the machinery, equipment, or system uses, shall understand the hazards of the energy, and shall know the methods to control the energy source(s).
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type(s) and magnitude(s) of energy, its hazards and the methods to control the energy.
</FP>
<P>(3) If the machinery, equipment, or system is operating, shut it down in accordance with the written procedures (depress the stop button, open switch, close valve, etc.) established by the employer.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type(s) and location(s) of machinery, equipment, or system operating controls.
</FP>
<P>(4) Secure each energy-isolating device(s) through the use of a lockout or tags-plus system (for instance, disconnecting, blanking, and affixing tags) so that the energy source is isolated and the machinery, equipment, or system is rendered inoperative.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type(s) and location(s) of energy-isolating devices.
</FP>
<P>(5) <I>Lockout System.</I> Affix a lock to each energy-isolating device(s) with assigned individual lock(s) that will hold the energy-isolating device(s) in a safe or off position. Potentially hazardous energy (such as that found in capacitors, springs, elevated machine members, rotating flywheels, hydraulic systems, and air, gas, steam, or water pressure, etc.) must be controlled by methods such as grounding, repositioning, blocking, bleeding down, etc.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tags-Plus System.</I> Affix a tag to each energy-isolating device and provide at least one additional safety measure that clearly indicates that removal of the device from the safe or off position is prohibited. Potentially hazardous energy (such as that found in capacitors, springs, elevated machine members, rotating flywheels, hydraulic systems and air, gas, steam, or water pressure, etc.) must be controlled by methods such as grounding, repositioning, blocking, bleeding down, etc.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type(s) of hazardous energy—methods used to control them.
</FP>
<P>(7) Ensure that the machinery, equipment, or system is relieved, disconnected, restrained, or rendered safe from the release of all potentially hazardous energy by checking that no personnel are exposed, and then verifying the isolation of energy to the machine, equipment, or system by operating the push button or other normal operating control(s), or by testing to make certain it will not operate.
</P>
<FP>CAUTION: Return operating control(s) to the safe or off position after verifying the isolation of the machinery, equipment, or system.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Method of verifying the isolation of the machinery, equipment, or system.
</FP>
<P>(8) The machinery, equipment, or system is now secured by a lockout or tags-plus system, and servicing by the authorized person may be performed.
</P>
<HD1>Procedures for Removal of Lockout/Tags-Plus Systems
</HD1>
<P>When servicing is complete and the machinery, equipment, or system is ready to return to normal operating condition, the following steps shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify each authorized and affected employee(s) that the lockout/tags-plus system will be removed and the machinery, equipment, or system reenergized.
</P>
<P>(2) Inspect the work area to ensure that all employees have been safely positioned or removed.
</P>
<P>(3) Inspect the machinery, equipment, or system and the immediate area around the machinery, equipment, or system to ensure that nonessential items have been removed and that the machinery, equipment or system components are operationally intact.
</P>
<P>(4) Reconnect the necessary components, remove the lockout/tags-plus material and hardware, and reenergize the machinery, equipment, or system through the established detailed procedures determined by the employer.
</P>
<P>(5) Notify all affected employees that servicing is complete and the machinery, equipment, or system is ready for testing or use.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.90" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.90   Safety color code for marking physical hazards.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to the requirements set forth at 29 CFR 1910.144 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.91" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.91   Accident prevention signs and tags.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to the requirements set forth at 29 CFR 1910.145 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.92" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.92   Retention of DOT markings, placards, and labels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employer who receives a package of hazardous material that is required to be marked, labeled, or placarded in accordance with the U.S. Department of Transportation Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) shall retain those markings, labels, and placards on the package until the packaging is sufficiently cleaned of residue and purged of vapors to remove any potential hazards.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employer who receives a freight container, rail freight car, motor vehicle, or transport vehicle that is required to be marked or placarded in accordance with the U.S. Department of Transportation Hazardous Materials Regulations shall retain those markings and placards on the freight container, rail freight car, motor vehicle, or transport vehicle until the hazardous materials are sufficiently removed to prevent any potential hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) The employer shall maintain markings, placards, and labels in a manner that ensures that they are readily visible.
</P>
<P>(d) For non-bulk packages that will not be reshipped, the requirements of this section are met if a label or other acceptable marking is affixed in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1200, Hazard Communication.
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of this section, the term “hazardous material” and any other terms not defined in this section have the same definition as specified in the U.S. Department of Transportation Hazardous Materials Regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.93" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.93   Motor vehicle safety equipment, operation and maintenance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> (1) This section applies to any motor vehicle used to transport employees, materials, or property at worksites engaged in shipyard employment. This section does not apply to motor vehicle operation on public streets and highways.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of this section apply to employer-provided motor vehicles. The requirements of paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(4), and (c)(2) of this section also apply to employee-provided motor vehicles.
</P>
<P>(3) Only the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) apply to powered industrial trucks, as defined in § 1910.178. The maintenance, inspection, operation, and training requirements in 29 CFR 1910.178 continue to apply to powered industrial trucks used for shipyard employment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motor vehicle safety equipment.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each motor vehicle acquired or initially used after August 1, 2011 is equipped with a safety belt for each employee operating or riding in the motor vehicle. This requirement does not apply to any motor vehicle that was not equipped with safety belts at the time of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each employee uses a safety belt, securely and tightly fastened, at all times while operating or riding in a motor vehicle.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that vehicle safety equipment is not removed from any employer-provided vehicle. The employer shall replace safety equipment that is removed.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall ensure that each motor vehicle used to transport an employee has firmly secured seats for each employee being transported and that all employees being transported are using such seats.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motor vehicle maintenance and operation.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each motor vehicle is maintained in a serviceable and safe operating condition, and removed from service if it is not in such condition.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that, before a motor vehicle is operated, any tools and materials being transported are secured if their movements may create a hazard for employees.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall implement measures to ensure that motor vehicle operators are able to see, and avoid harming, pedestrians and bicyclists at shipyards. Measures that employers may implement to comply with this requirement include:
</P>
<P>(i) Establishing dedicated travel lanes for motor vehicles, bicyclists, and pedestrians;
</P>
<P>(ii) Installing crosswalks and traffic control devices such as stop signs, mirrors at blind spots, or physical barriers to separate travel lanes;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishing appropriate speed limits for all motor vehicles;
</P>
<P>(iv) Establishing “no drive” times to allow for safe movement of pedestrians;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing reflective vests or other gear so pedestrians and bicyclists are clearly visible to motor vehicle operators;
</P>
<P>(vi) Ensuring that bicycles have reflectors, lights, or other equipment to maximize visibility of the bicyclist; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Other measures that the employer can demonstrate are as effective in protecting pedestrians and bicyclists as those measures specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(vi) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.94" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.6.6.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.94   Servicing multi-piece and single-piece rim wheels.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to the requirements set forth at 29 CFR 1910.177 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Gear and Equipment for Rigging and Materials Handling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.111" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.111   Inspection.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) All gear and equipment provided by the employer for rigging and materials handling shall be inspected before each shift and when necessary, at intervals during its use to ensure that it is safe. Defective gear shall be removed and repaired or replaced before further use.
</P>
<P>(b) The safe working load of gear as specified in §§ 1915.112 and 1915.113 shall not be exceeded.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.112" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.112   Ropes, chains and slings.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Manila rope and manila-rope slings.</I> Employers must ensure that manila rope and manila-rope slings:
</P>
<P>(1) Have permanently affixed and legible identification markings as prescribed by the manufacturer that indicate the recommended safe working load for the type(s) of hitch(es) used, the angle upon which it is based, and the number of legs if more than one;
</P>
<P>(2) Not be loaded in excess of its recommended safe working load as prescribed on the identification markings by the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(3) Not be used without affixed and legible identification markings as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Wire rope and wire-rope slings.</I> (1) Employers must ensure that wire rope and wire-rope slings:
</P>
<P>(i) Have permanently affixed and legible identification markings as prescribed by the manufacturer that indicate the recommended safe working load for the type(s) of hitch(es) used, the angle upon which it is based, and the number of legs if more than one;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not be loaded in excess of its recommended safe working load as prescribed on the identification markings by the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not be used without affixed and legible identification markings as required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Protruding ends of strands in splices on slings and bridles shall be covered or blunted.
</P>
<P>(3) When U-bolt wire rope clips are used to form eyes, employers must use Table G-1 in § 1915.118 to determine the number and spacing of clips. Employers must apply the U-bolt so that the “U” section is in contact with the dead end of the rope.
</P>
<P>(4) Wire rope shall not be secured by knots.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chain and chain slings.</I> (1) Employers must ensure that chain and chain slings:
</P>
<P>(i) Have permanently affixed and legible identification markings as prescribed by the manufacturer that indicate the recommended safe working load for the type(s) of hitch(es) used, the angle upon which it is based, and the number of legs if more than one;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not be loaded in excess of its recommended safe working load as prescribed on the identification markings by the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not be used without affixed and legible identification markings as required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) All sling chains, including end fastenings, shall be given a visual inspection before being used on the job. A thorough inspection of all chains in use shall be made every 3 months. Each chain shall bear an indication of the month in which it was thoroughly inspected. The thorough inspection shall include inspection for wear, defective welds, deformation and increase in length or stretch.
</P>
<P>(3) Employers must note interlink wear, not accompanied by stretch in excess of 5 percent, and remove the chain from service when maximum allowable wear at any point of link, as indicated in Table G-2 in § 1915.118, has been reached.
</P>
<P>(4) Chain slings shall be removed from service when, due to stretch, the increase in length of a measured section exceeds five (5) percent; when a link is bent, twisted or otherwise damaged; or when raised scarfs or defective welds appear.
</P>
<P>(5) All repairs to chains shall be made under qualified supervision. Links or portions of the chain found to be defective as described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section shall be replaced by links having proper dimensions and made of material similar to that of the chain. Before repaired chains are returned to service, they shall be proof tested to the proof test load recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(6) Wrought iron chains in constant use shall be annealed or normalized at intervals not exceeding six months when recommended by the manufacturer. The chain manufacturer shall be consulted for recommended procedures for annealing or normalizing. Alloy chains shall never be annealed.
</P>
<P>(7) A load shall not be lifted with a chain having a kink or knot in it. A chain shall not be shortened by bolting, wiring or knotting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.113" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.113   Shackles and hooks.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Shackles.</I> Employers must ensure that shackles:
</P>
<P>(1) Have permanently affixed and legible identification markings as prescribed by the manufacturer that indicate the recommended safe working load;
</P>
<P>(2) Not be loaded in excess of its recommended safe working load as prescribed on the identification markings by the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(3) Not be used without affixed and legible identification markings as required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hooks.</I> (1) The manufacturer's recommendations shall be followed in determining the safe working loads of the various sizes and types of specific and identifiable hooks. All hooks for which no applicable manufacturer's recommendations are available shall be tested to twice the intended safe working load before they are initially put into use. The employer shall maintain and keep readily available a certification record which includes the date of such tests, the signature of the person who performed the test and an identifier for the hook which was tested.
</P>
<P>(2) Loads shall be applied to the throat of the hook since loading the point overstresses and bends or springs the hook.
</P>
<P>(3) Hooks shall be inspected periodically to see that they have not been bent by overloading. Bent or sprung hooks shall not be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 51 FR 34562, Sept. 29, 1986; 76 FR 33609, June 8, 2011] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.114" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.114   Chain falls and pull-lifts.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) Chain falls and pull-lifts shall be clearly marked to show the capacity and the capacity shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(b) Chain falls shall be regularly inspected to ensure that they are safe, particular attention being given to the lift chain, pinion, sheaves and hooks for distortion and wear. Pull-lifts shall be regularly inspected to ensure that they are safe, particular attention being given to the ratchet, pawl, chain and hooks for distortion and wear.
</P>
<P>(c) Straps, shackles, and the beam or overhead structure to which a chain fall or pull-lift is secured shall be of adequate strength to support the weight of load plus gear. The upper hook shall be moused or otherwise secured against coming free of its support.
</P>
<P>(d) Scaffolding shall not be used as a point of attachment for lifting devices such as tackles, chain falls, and pull-lifts unless the scaffolding is specifically designed for that purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.115" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.115   Hoisting and hauling equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Derrick and crane certification.</I> (1) Derricks and cranes which are part of, or regularly placed aboard barges, other vessels, or on wingwalls of floating drydocks, and are used to transfer materials or equipment from or to a vessel or drydock, shall be tested and certificated in accordance with the standards provided in part 1919 of this title by persons accredited for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) The moving parts of hoisting and hauling equipment shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mobile crawler or truck cranes used on a vessel.</I> (1) The maximum manufacturer's rated safe working loads for the various working radii of the boom and the maximum and minimum radii at which the boom may be safely used with and without outriggers shall be conspicuously posted near the controls and shall be visible to the operator. A radius indicator shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) The posted safe working loads of mobile crawler or truck cranes under the conditions of use shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(d) Accessible areas within the swing radius of the outermost part of the body of a revolving derrick or crane, whether permanently or temporarily mounted, shall be guarded in such a manner as to prevent an employee from being in such a position as to be struck by the crane or caught between the crane and fixed parts of the vessel or of the crane itself.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Marine railways.</I> (1) The cradle or carriage on the marine railway shall be positively blocked or secured when in the hauled position to prevent it from being accidentally released.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.116" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.116   Use of gear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking except that paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding only.
</P>
<P>(b) Loads shall be safely rigged before being hoisted.
</P>
<P>(c) Plates shall be handled on and off hulls by means of shackles whenever possible. Clips or pads of ample size shall be welded to the plate to receive the shackle pins when there are no holes in the plate. When it is not possible to make holes in or to weld pads to the plate, alligator tongs, grab clamps or screw clamps may be used. In such cases special precautions shall be taken to keep employees from under such lifts.
</P>
<P>(d) Tag lines shall be provided on loads likely to swing or to need guidance.
</P>
<P>(e) When slings are secured to eye-bolts, the slings shall be so arranged, using spreaders if necessary, that the pull is within 20 degrees of the axis of the bolt.
</P>
<P>(f) Slings shall be padded by means of wood blocks or other suitable material where they pass over sharpe edges or corners of loads so as to prevent cutting or kinking.
</P>
<P>(g) Skips shall be rigged to be handled by not less than 3 legged bridles, and all legs shall always be used. When open end skips are used, means shall be taken to prevent the contents from falling.
</P>
<P>(h) Loose ends of idle legs of slings in use shall be hung on the hook.
</P>
<P>(i) Employees shall not be permitted to ride the hook or the load.
</P>
<P>(j) Loads (tools, equipment or other materials) shall not be swung or suspended over the heads of employees.
</P>
<P>(k) Pieces of equipment or structure susceptible to falling or dislodgement shall be secured or removed as early as possible.
</P>
<P>(l) An individual who is familiar with the signal code in use shall be assigned to act as a signalman when the hoist operator cannot see the load being handled. Communications shall be made by means of clear and distinct visual or auditory signals except that verbal signals shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(m) Pallets, when used, shall be of such material and contruction and so maintained as to safely support and carry the loads being handled on them.
</P>
<P>(n) A section of hatch through which materials or equipment are being raised, lowered, moved, or otherwise shifted manually or by a crane, winch, hoist, or derrick, shall be completely opened. The beam or pontoon left in place adjacent to an opening shall be sufficiently lashed, locked or otherwise secured to prevent it from moving so that it cannot be displaced by accident.
</P>
<P>(o) Hatches shall not be open or closed while employees are in the square of the hatch below.
</P>
<P>(p) Before loads or empty lifting gear are raised, lowered, or swung, clear and sufficient advance warning shall be given to employees in the vincinity of such operations.
</P>
<P>(q) At no time shall an employee be permitted to place himself in a hazardous position between a swinging load and a fixed object.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.117" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.117   Qualifications of operators.</HEAD>
<P>Paragraphs (a) and (d) of this section shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding only. Paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) When ship's gear is used to hoist materials aboard, a competent person shall determine that the gear is properly rigged, that it is in safe condition, and that it will not be overloaded by the size and weight of the lift.
</P>
<P>(b) Only those employees who understand the signs, notices, and operating instructions, and are familiar with the signal code in use, shall be permitted to operate a crane, winch, or other power operated hoisting apparatus.
</P>
<P>(c) No employee known to have defective uncorrected eyesight or hearing, or to be suffering from heart disease, epilepsy, or similar ailments which may suddenly incapacitate him, shall be permitted to operate a crane, winch or other power operated hoisting apparatus.
</P>
<P>(d) No minor under eighteen (18) years of age shall be employed in occupations involving the operation of any power-driven hoisting apparatus or assisting in such operations by work such as hooking on, loading slings, rigging gear, etc.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.118" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.118   Tables.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-1—Dimensions and Spacing of Wood Independent-Pole Scaffold Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Structural members
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Light duty (Up to 25 pounds per square foot)—Height in feet
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Heavy duty (25 to 75 pounds per square foot)—Height in feet
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≤24
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;24≤40
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;40≤60
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≤24
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;24≤40
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;40≤60
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poles or uprights (in inches)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 4 or 2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bearers (in inches)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ledgers (in inches)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stringers (not supporting bearers) (in inches)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Braces (in inches)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pole spacing—longitudinally (in feet)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pole spacing—transversely (in feet)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<fr>1/2</fr> min</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr> min</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<fr>1/2</fr> min</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ledger spacing—vertically (in feet)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-2—Specifications for Side Rails of Ladders
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Length (in feet)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cross section (in inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">At ends
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">At center
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 3
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 3
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>7/8</fr> × 4
<fr>1/2</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-3—Specifications for the Construction of Horses
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Structural members
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Height in feet
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≤10
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;10≤16
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">16≤20
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">inches</E></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">inches</E></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">inches</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Legs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bearers or headers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crossbraces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">or 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Longitudinal braces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-4—Safe Center Loads for Scaffold Plank of 1,100 Pounds Fibre Stress
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Span in feet
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="10" scope="col">Lumber dimensions in inches
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>5/8</fr> × 9
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>5/8</fr> × 11
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>5/8</fr> × 7
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>5/8</fr> × 9
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>5/8</fr> × 11
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">256</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">309</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">526</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">807
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">395</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">605
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">316</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">484
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">263</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">404
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">286</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">346
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">303
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">(A)—Rough lumber.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(B)—Dressed lumber.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-1—Number and Spacing of U-Bolt Wire Rope Clips
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Improved plow steel, rope diameter, inches 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number of clips
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Minimum spacing, inches
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drop forged
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other material
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>3/4</fr> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/4</fr> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<fr>3/4</fr> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<fr>1/4</fr> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Three clips shall be used on wire size less than 
<fr>1/2</fr>-inch diameter.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-2—Maximum Allowable Wear at Any Point of Link
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chain size in inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum allowable wear in fraction of inches
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr>(
<fr>9/32</fr>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/32</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 26351, May 24, 1996; 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002; 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.120" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.7.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.120   Powered industrial truck operator training.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.178(l) of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66274, Dec. 1, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Tools and Related Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.131" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.8.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.131   General precautions.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) Hand lines, slings, tackles of adequate strength, or carriers such as tool bags with shoulder straps shall be provided and used to handle tools, materials, and equipment so that employees will have their hands free when using ship's ladders and access ladders. The use of hose or electric cords for this purpose is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) When air tools of the reciprocating type are not in use, the dies and tools shall be removed.
</P>
<P>(c) All portable, power-driven circular saws shall be equipped with guards above and below the base plate or shoe. The upper guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc required to permit the base to be tilted for bevel cuts. The lower guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc required to allow proper retraction and contact with the work. When the tool is withdrawn from the work, the lower guard shall automatically and instantly return to the covering position.
</P>
<P>(d) The moving parts of machinery on a dry dock shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(e) Before use, pneumatic tools shall be secured to the extension hose or whip by some positive means to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected from the whip.
</P>
<P>(f) The moving parts of drive mechanisms, such as gearing and belting on large portable tools, shall be adequately guarded.
</P>
<P>(g) Headers, manifolds and widely spaced hose connections on compressed air lines shall bear the word “air” in letters at least 1-inch high, which shall be painted either on the manifolds or separate hose connections, or on signs permanently attached to the manifolds or connections. Grouped air connections may be marked in one location.
</P>
<P>(h) Before use, compressed air hose shall be examined. Visibly damaged and unsafe hose shall not be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.132" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.8.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.132   Portable electric tools.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking except that paragraph (e) of this section applies to ship repairing only.
</P>
<P>(a) The frames of portable electric tools and appliances, except double insulated tools approved by Underwriters' Laboratories, shall be grounded either through a third wire in the cable containing the circuit conductors or through a separate wire which is grounded at the source of the current.
</P>
<P>(b) Grounding circuits, other than by means of the structure of the vessel on which the tool is being used, shall be checked to ensure that the circuit between the ground and the grounded power conductor has resistance which is low enough to permit sufficient current to flow to cause the fuse or circuit breaker to interrupt the current.
</P>
<P>(c) Portable electric tools which are held in the hand shall be equipped with switches of a type which must be manually held in the closed position.
</P>
<P>(d) Worn or frayed electric cables shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(e) The employer shall notify the officer in charge of the vessel before using electric power tools operated with the vessel's current.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.133" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.8.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.133   Hand tools.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) Employers shall not issue or permit the use of unsafe hand tools.
</P>
<P>(b) Wrenches, including crescent, pipe, end and socket wrenches, shall not be used when jaws are sprung to the point that slippage occurs.
</P>
<P>(c) Impact tools, such as drift pins, wedges, and chisels, shall be kept free of mushroomed heads.
</P>
<P>(d) The wooden handles of tools shall be kept free of splinters or cracks and shall be kept tight in the tool.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.134" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.8.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.134   Abrasive wheels.</HEAD>
<P>This section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) Floor stand and bench mounted abrasive wheels used for external grinding shall be provided with safety guards (protection hoods). The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides shall be not more than 90 degrees, except that when work requires contact with the wheel below the horizontal plane of the spindle, the angular exposure shall not exceed 125 degrees. In either case the exposure shall begin not more than 65 degrees above the horizontal plane of the spindle. Safety guards shall be strong enough to withstand the effect of a bursting wheel.
</P>
<P>(b) Floor and bench mounted grinders shall be provided with work rests which are rigidly supported and readily adjustable. Such work rests shall be kept a distance not to exceed 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch from the surface of the wheel.
</P>
<P>(c) Cup type wheels used for external grinding shall be protected by either a revolving cup guard or a band type guard in accordance with the provisions of the United States of America Standard Safety Code for the Use, Care, and Protection of Abrasive Wheels, B7.1-1964. All other portable abrasive wheels used for external grinding shall be provided with safety guards (protection hoods) meeting the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) When the work location makes it impossible, in which case a wheel equipped with safety flanges as described in paragraph (f) of this section shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) When wheels 2 inches or less in diameter which are securely mounted on the end of a steel mandrel are used.
</P>
<P>(d) Portable abrasive wheels used for internal grinding shall be provided with safety flanges (protection flanges) meeting the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) When wheels 2 inches or less in diameter which are securely mounted on the end of a steel mandrel are used.
</P>
<P>(2) If the wheel is entirely within the work being ground while in use.
</P>
<P>(e) When safety guards are required, they shall be so mounted as to maintain proper alignment with the wheel, and the guard and its fastenings shall be of sufficient strength to retain fragments of the wheel in case of accidental breakage. The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides shall not exceed 180 degrees.
</P>
<P>(f) When safety flanges are required, they shall be used only with wheels designed to fit the flanges. Only safety flanges of a type and design and properly assembled so as to insure that the pieces of the wheel will be retained in case of accidental breakage shall be used.
</P>
<P>(g) All abrasive wheels shall be closely inspected and ring tested before mounting to ensure that they are free from cracks or defects.
</P>
<P>(h) Grinding wheels shall fit freely on the spindle and shall not be forced on. The spindle nut shall be tightened only enough to hold the wheel in place.
</P>
<P>(i) The power supply shall be sufficient to maintain the rated spindle speed under all conditions of normal grinding. The rated maximum speed of the wheel shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(j) All employees using abrasive wheels shall be protected by eye protection equipment in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part except when adequate eye protection is afforded by eye shields which are permanently attached to the bench or floor stand. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 26351, May 24, 1996; 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.135" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.8.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.135   Powder actuated fastening tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The section shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding only.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General precautions.</I> (1) Powder actuated fastening tools shall be tested each day before loading to ensure that the safety devices are in proper working condition. Any tool found not to be in proper working order shall be immediately removed from service until repairs are made.
</P>
<P>(2) Powder actuated fastening tools shall not be used in an explosive or flammable atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(3) All tools shall be used with the type of shield or muzzle guard appropriate for a particular use.
</P>
<P>(4) Fasteners shall not be driven into very hard or brittle materials such as cast iron, glazed tile, surface hardened steel, glass block, live rock, face brick or hollow title.
</P>
<P>(5) Fasteners shall not be driven into soft materials unless such materials are backed by a substance that will prevent the pin or fastener from passing completely through and creating a flying missile hazard on the opposite side.
</P>
<P>(6) Unless a special guard, fixture or jig is used, fasteners shall not be driven directly into materials such as brick or concrete within 3 inches of the unsupported edge or corner, or into steel surfaces within 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch of the unsupported edge or corner. When fastening other material, such as 2 × 4 inch lumber to a concrete surface, fasteners of greater than 
<FR>7/32</FR> inch shank diameter shall not be used and fasteners shall not be driven within 2 inches of the unsupported edge or corner of the work surface.
</P>
<P>(7) Fasteners shall not be driven through existing holes unless a positive guide is used to secure accurate alignment.
</P>
<P>(8) No attempt shall be made to drive a fastener into a spalled area caused by an unsatisfactory fastening.
</P>
<P>(9) Employees using powder actuated fastening tools shall be protected by personal protective equipment in accordance with the requirements of subpart I of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Instruction of operators.</I> Before employees are permitted to use powder actuated tools, they shall have been thoroughly instructed by a competent person with respect to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and the safe use of such tools as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Before using a tool, the operator shall inspect it to determine that it is clean, that all moving parts operate freely and that the barrel is free from obstructions.
</P>
<P>(2) When a tool develops a defect during use, the operator shall immediately cease to use it and shall notify his supervisor.
</P>
<P>(3) Tools shall not be loaded until just prior to the intended firing time and the tool shall not be left unattended while loaded.
</P>
<P>(4) The tool, whether loaded or empty, shall not be pointed at any person, and hands shall be kept clear of the open barrel end.
</P>
<P>(5) In case of a misfire, the operator shall hold the tool in the operating position for at least 15 seconds and shall continue to hold the muzzle against the work surface during disassembly or opening of the tool and removal of the powder load.
</P>
<P>(6) Neither tools nor powder charges shall be left unattended in places where they would be available to unauthorized persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 26351, May 24, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.136" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.8.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.136   Internal combustion engines, other than ship's equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing, shipbuilding and shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(a) When internal combustion engines furnished by the employer are used in a fixed position below decks, for such purposes as driving pumps, generators, and blowers, the exhaust shall be led to the open air, clear of any ventilation intakes and openings through which it might enter the vessel.
</P>
<P>(b) All exhaust line joints and connections shall be checked for tightness immediately upon starting the engine, and any leaks shall be corrected at once.
</P>
<P>(c) When internal combustion engines on vehicles, such as forklifts and mobile cranes, or on portable equipment such as fans, generators, and pumps exhaust into the atmosphere below decks, the competent person shall make tests of the carbon monoxide content of the atmosphere as frequently as conditions require to ensure that dangerous concentrations do not develop. Employees shall be removed from the compartment involved when the carbon monoxide concentration exceeds 50 parts per million (0.005%). The employer shall use blowers sufficient in size and number and so arranged as to maintain the concentration below this allowable limit before work is resumed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 26352, May 24, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1915.151" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.151   Scope, application and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This subpart applies to all work in shipyard employment regardless of geographic location. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions applicable to this subpart. Anchorage</I> means a secure point of attachment for lifelines, lanyards, or deceleration devices. 
</P>
<P><I>Body belt</I> means a strap with means for both securing it about the waist and attaching it to a lanyard, lifeline, or deceleration device. 
</P>
<P><I>Body harness</I> means straps which may be secured about the employee in a manner that will distribute the fall arrest forces over at least the thighs, shoulders, chest and pelvis with means for attaching it to other components of a personal fall arrest system. 
</P>
<P><I>Connector</I> means a device which is used to couple (connect) parts of a personal fall arrest system or parts of a positioning device system together. It may be an independent component of the system, such as a carabiner, or it may be an integral component of part of the system (such as a buckle or D-ring sewn into a body belt or body harness or a snaphook spliced or sewn to a lanyard or self-retracting lanyard). 
</P>
<P><I>Deceleration device</I> means any mechanism, such as a rope grab, ripstitch lanyard, specially woven lanyard, tearing or deforming lanyard, or automatic self-retracting lifeline/lanyard, which serves to dissipate a substantial amount of energy during a fall arrest, or otherwise limit the energy imposed on an employee during fall arrest. 
</P>
<P><I>Deceleration distance</I> means the additional vertical distance a falling employee travels, excluding lifeline elongation and free fall distance, before stopping, from the point at which the deceleration device begins to operate. It is measured as the distance between the location of an employee's body belt or body harness attachment point at the moment of activation (at the onset of fall arrest forces) of the deceleration device during a fall, and the location of that attachment point after the employee comes to a full stop. 
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent</I> means alternative designs, materials, or methods to protect against a hazard which the employer can demonstrate will provide an equal or greater degree of safety for employees than the method or item specified in the standard. 
</P>
<P><I>Free fall</I> means the act of falling before a personal fall arrest system begins to apply force to arrest the fall. 
</P>
<P><I>Free fall distance</I> means the vertical displacement of the fall arrest attachment point on the employee's body belt or body harness between onset of the fall and just before the system begins to apply force to arrest the fall. This distance excludes deceleration distance, and lifeline/lanyard elongation, but includes any deceleration device slide distance or self-retracting lifeline/lanyard extension before the device operates and fall arrest forces occur. 
</P>
<P><I>Lanyard</I> means a flexible line of rope, wire rope, or strap which generally has a connector at each end for connecting the body belt or body harness to a deceleration device, lifeline, or anchorage. 
</P>
<P><I>Lifeline</I> means a component consisting of a flexible line for connection to an anchorage at one end to hang vertically (vertical lifeline), or for connection to anchorages at both ends to stretch horizontally (horizontal lifeline), and which serves as a means for connecting other components of a personal fall arrest system to the anchorage. 
</P>
<P><I>Lower levels</I> means those areas or surfaces to which an employee can fall. Such areas or surfaces include but are not limited to ground levels, floors, ramps, tanks, materials, water, excavations, pits, vessels, structures, or portions thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system</I> means a system used to arrest an employee in a fall from a working level. It consists of an anchorage, connectors, body belt or body harness and may include a lanyard, a deceleration device, a lifeline, or a suitable combination of these. As of January 1, 1998, the use of a body belt for fall arrest is prohibited. 
</P>
<P><I>Positioning device system</I> means a body belt or body harness system rigged to allow an employee to be supported at an elevated vertical surface, such as a wall or window, and to be able to work with both hands free while leaning. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person</I> means a person who by possession of a recognized degree or certificate of professional standing, or who, by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated the ability to solve or resolve problems related to the subject matter and work. 
</P>
<P><I>Restraint (tether) line</I> means a line from an anchorage, or between anchorages, to which the employee is secured in such a way as to prevent the employee from walking or falling off an elevated work surface. Note: A restraint line is not necessarily designed to withstand forces resulting from a fall. 
</P>
<P><I>Rope grab</I> means a deceleration device which travels on a lifeline and automatically, by friction, engages the lifeline and locks so as to arrest the fall of an employee. A rope grab usually employs the principle of inertial locking, cam/level locking or both. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.152" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.152   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Provision and use of equipment.</I> The employer shall provide and shall ensure that each affected employee uses the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) for the eyes, face, head, extremities, torso, and respiratory system, including protective clothing, protective shields, protective barriers, personal fall protection equipment, and life saving equipment, meeting the applicable provisions of this subpart, wherever employees are exposed to work activity hazards that require the use of PPE. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hazard assessment and equipment.</I> The employer shall assess its work activity to determine whether there are hazards present, or likely to be present, which necessitate the employee's use of PPE. If such hazards are present, or likely to be present, the employer shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Select the type of PPE that will protect the affected employee from the hazards identified in the occupational hazard assessment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Communicate selection decisions to affected employees; 
</P>
<P>(3) Select PPE that properly fits each affected employee; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Verify that the required occupational hazard assessment has been performed through a document that contains the following information: occupation, the date(s) of the hazard assessment, and the name of the person performing the hazard assessment. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>A hazard assessment conducted according to the trade or occupation of affected employees will be considered to comply with paragraph (b) of this section, if the assessment addresses any PPE-related hazards to which employees are exposed in the course of their work activities.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Non-mandatory appendix A to this subpart contains examples of procedures that will comply with the requirement for an occupational hazard assessment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Defective and damaged equipment.</I> Defective or damaged PPE shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reissued equipment.</I> The employer shall ensure that all unsanitary PPE, including that which has been used by employees, be cleaned and disinfected before it is reissued. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training.</I> (1) The employer shall provide training to each employee who is required, by this section, to use PPE (exception: training in the use of personal fall arrest systems and positioning device systems training is covered in §§ 1915.159 and 1915.160). Each employee shall be trained to understand at least the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) When PPE is necessary; 
</P>
<P>(ii) What PPE is necessary; 
</P>
<P>(iii) How to properly don, doff, adjust, and wear PPE; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The limitations of the PPE; and, 
</P>
<P>(v) The proper care, maintenance, useful life and disposal of the PPE. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee demonstrates the ability to use PPE properly before being allowed to perform work requiring the use of PPE.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall retrain any employee who does not understand or display the skills required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section. Circumstances where retraining is required include, but are not limited to, situations where: 
</P>
<P>(i) Changes in occupation or work render previous training obsolete; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in the types of PPE to be used render previous training obsolete; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Inadequacies in an affected employee's knowledge or use of assigned PPE indicate that the employee has not retained the requisite understanding or skill. 
</P>
<P>(f) Payment for protective equipment. (1) Except as provided by paragraphs (f)(2) through (f)(6) of this section, the protective equipment, including personal protective equipment (PPE), used to comply with this part, shall be provided by the employer at no cost to employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is not required to pay for non-specialty safety-toe protective footwear (including steel-toe shoes or steel-toe boots) and non-specialty prescription safety eyewear, provided that the employer permits such items to be worn off the job-site.
</P>
<P>(3) When the employer provides metatarsal guards and allows the employee, at his or her request, to use shoes or boots with built-in metatarsal protection, the employer is not required to reimburse the employee for the shoes or boots.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer is not required to pay for:
</P>
<P>(i) Everyday clothing, such as long-sleeve shirts, long pants, street shoes, and normal work boots; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Ordinary clothing, skin creams, or other items, used solely for protection from weather, such as winter coats, jackets, gloves, parkas, rubber boots, hats, raincoats, ordinary sunglasses, and sunscreen.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer must pay for replacement PPE, except when the employee has lost or intentionally damaged the PPE.
</P>
<P>(6) Where an employee provides appropriate protective equipment he or she owns, the employer may allow the employee to use it and is not required to reimburse the employee for that equipment. The employer shall not require an employee to provide or pay for his or her own PPE, unless the PPE is excepted by paragraphs (f)(2) through (f)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) This paragraph (f) shall become effective on February 13, 2008. Employers must implement the PPE payment requirements no later than May 15, 2008.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1915.152(<E T="01">f</E>):</HED>
<P>When the provisions of another OSHA standard specify whether or not the employer must pay for specific equipment, the payment provisions of that standard shall prevail.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 26352, May 24, 1996; 61 FR 29957, June 13, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002; 72 FR 64428, Nov. 15, 2007; 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.153" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.153   Eye and face protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses appropriate eye or face protection where there are exposures to eye or face hazards caused by flying particles, molten metal, liquid chemicals, acid or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, or potentially injurious light radiation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses eye or face protection that provides side protection when there is a hazard from flying objects. Detachable side protectors (e.g., a clip-on or slide-on side shield) meeting the pertinent requirements of this section are acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee who wears prescription lenses while engaged in operations that involve eye hazards wears eye protection that incorporates the prescription in its design, unless the employee is protected by eye protection that can be worn over prescription lenses without disturbing the proper position of either the PPE or the prescription lenses. 
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses equipment with filter lenses that have a shade number that provides appropriate protection from injurious light radiation. Table I-1 is a listing of appropriate shade numbers for various operations. If filter lenses are used in goggles worn under a helmet which has a lens, the shade number of the lens in the helmet may be reduced so that the shade numbers of the two lenses will equal the value as shown in Table I-1, § 1915.153. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I-1—Filter Lenses for Protection Against Radiant Energy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Electrode size 1/32 in
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arc current
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum *
<br/>protective
<br/>shade
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shielded metal arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 3
<br/>3-5
<br/>5-8
<br/>More than 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 60
<br/>60-160
<br/>160-250
<br/>250-550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<br/>8
<br/>10
<br/>11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas metal arc welding and flux cored arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 60
<br/>60-160
<br/>160-250
<br/>250-500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<br/>10
<br/>10
<br/>10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Tungsten arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 50
<br/>50-150
<br/>150-500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<br/>8
<br/>10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air carbon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Light)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arc cutting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Heavy)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500-1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 20
<br/>20-100
<br/>100-400
<br/>400-800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<br/>8
<br/>10
<br/>11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plasma arc cutting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(light) **
<br/>(medium) **
<br/>(heavy) **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 300
<br/>300-400
<br/>400-800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<br/>9
<br/>10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torch brazing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torch soldering</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon arc welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">** These values apply where the actual arc is clearly seen. Lighter filters may be used when the arc is hidden by the workpiece.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Filter Lenses for Protection Against Radiant Energy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Plate thickness—inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Plate thickness—mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum *
<br/>protective
<br/>shade
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Welding:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Light</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 1/8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Medium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/8 to 1/2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 to 12.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Heavy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 1/2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 12.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxygen cutting:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Light</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Medium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 to 150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Heavy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* As a rule of thumb, start with a shade that is too dark to see the weld zone. Then go to a lighter shade which gives sufficient view of the weld zone without going below the minimum. In oxyfuel gas welding or cutting where the torch produces a high yellow light, it is desirable to use a filter lens that absorbs the yellow or sodium line in the visible light of the (spectrum) operation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for protective eye and face devices.</I> (1) Protective eye and face protection devices must comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1915.5;
</P>
<P>(ii) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1915.5; or
</P>
<P>(iii) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, incorporated by reference in § 1915.5;
</P>
<P>(2) Eye and face protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as protective as eye and face protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 26352, May 24, 1996,, as amended at 74 FR 46358, Sept. 9, 2009; 81 FR 16091, Mar. 25, 2016; 85 FR 8732, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.154" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.154   Respiratory protection.</HEAD>
<P>Respiratory protection for shipyard employment is covered by 29 CFR 1910.134. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.155" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.155   Head protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears a protective helmet when working in areas where there is a potential for injury to the head from falling objects. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears a protective helmet designed to reduce electrical shock hazards where there is potential for electric shock or burns due to contact with exposed electrical conductors which could contact the head. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for protective helmets.</I> (1) Head protection must comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1915.5;
</P>
<P>(ii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1915.5; or
</P>
<P>(iii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, “American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements,” incorporated by reference in § 1915.5.
</P>
<P>(2) Head protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as head protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 26352, May 24, 1996,, as amended at 74 FR 46358, Sept. 9, 2009; 77 FR 37599, June 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.156" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.156   Foot protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use.</I> The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears protective footwear when working in areas where there is a danger of foot injuries due to falling or rolling objects or objects piercing the sole. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for protective footwear.</I> (1) Protective footwear must comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) ASTM F-2412-2005, “Standard Test Methods for Foot Protection,” and ASTM F-2413-2005, “Standard Specification for Performance Requirements for Protective Footwear,” which are incorporated by reference in § 1915.5;
</P>
<P>(ii) ANSI Z41-1999, “American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear,” which is incorporated by reference in § 1915.5; or
</P>
<P>(iii) ANSI Z41-1991, “American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear,” which is incorporated by reference in § 1915.5.
</P>
<P>(2) Protective footwear that the employer demonstrates is at least as effective as protective footwear that is constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 26352, May 24, 1996,, as amended at 74 FR 46358, Sept. 9, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.157" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.157   Hand and body protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use.</I> The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses appropriate hand protection and other protective clothing where there is exposure to hazards such as skin absorption of harmful substances, severe cuts or lacerations, severe abrasions, punctures, chemical burns, thermal burns, harmful temperature extremes, and sharp objects. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hot work operations.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee wears clothing impregnated or covered in full or in part with flammable or combustible materials (such as grease or oil) while engaged in hot work operations or working near an ignition source. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electrical protective devices.</I> The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears protective electrical insulating gloves and sleeves or other electrical protective equipment, if that employee is exposed to electrical shock hazards while working on electrical equipment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.158" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.158   Lifesaving equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personal flotation devices.</I> (1) PFDs (life preservers, life jackets, or work vests) worn by each affected employee must be United States Coast Guard (USCG) approved pursuant to 46 CFR part 160 (Type I, II, III, or V PFD) and marked for use as a work vest, for commercial use, or for use on vessels. USCG approval is pursuant to 46 CFR part 160, Coast Guard Lifesaving Equipment Specifications.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to each use, personal floatation devices shall be inspected for dry rot, chemical damage, or other defects which may affect their strength and buoyancy. Defective personal floatation devices shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ring life buoys and ladders.</I> (1) When work is being performed on a floating vessel 200 feet (61 m) or more in length, at least three 30-inch (0.76 m) U.S. Coast Guard approved ring life buoys with lines attached shall be located in readily visible and accessible places. Ring life buoys shall be located one forward, one aft, and one at the access to the gangway. 
</P>
<P>(2) On floating vessels under 200 feet (61 m) in length, at least one 30-inch (0.76 m) U.S. Coast Guard approved ring life buoy with line attached shall be located at the gangway. 
</P>
<P>(3) At least one 30-inch (0.76 m) U. S. Coast Guard approved ring life buoy with a line attached shall be located on each staging alongside of a floating vessel on which work is being performed. 
</P>
<P>(4) At least 90 feet (27.43m) of line shall be attached to each ring life buoy.
</P>
<P>(5) There shall be at least one portable or permanent ladder in the vicinity of each floating vessel on which work is being performed. The ladder shall be of sufficient length to assist employees to reach safety in the event they fall into the water. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 26352, May 24, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 44543, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.159" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.159   Personal fall arrest systems (PFAS).</HEAD>
<P>The criteria of this section apply to PFAS and their use. Effective January 1, 1998, body belts and non-locking snaphooks are not acceptable as part of a personal fall arrest system. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for connectors and anchorages.</I> (1) Connectors shall be made of drop forged, pressed, or formed steel or shall be made of materials with equivalent strength. 
</P>
<P>(2) Connectors shall have a corrosion-resistant finish, and all surfaces and edges shall be smooth to prevent damage to the interfacing parts of the system. 
</P>
<P>(3) D-rings and snaphooks shall be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 5,000 pounds (22.24 Kn).
</P>
<P>(4) D-rings and snaphooks shall be proof-tested to a minimum tensile load of 3,600 pounds (16 Kn) without cracking, breaking, or being permanently deformed. 
</P>
<P>(5) Snaphooks shall be sized to be compatible with the member to which they are connected to prevent unintentional disengagement of the snaphook caused by depression of the snaphook keeper by the connected member, or shall be of a locking type that is designed and used to prevent disengagement of the snap-hook by contact of the snaphook keeper by the connected member. 
</P>
<P>(6) Snaphooks, unless of a locking type designed and used to prevent disengagement from the following connections, shall not be engaged: 
</P>
<P>(i) Directly to webbing, rope or wire rope; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To each other; 
</P>
<P>(iii) To a D-ring to which another snaphook or other connector is attached; 
</P>
<P>(iv) To a horizontal lifeline; or 
</P>
<P>(v) To any object that is incompatibly shaped or dimensioned in relation to the snaphook such that unintentional disengagement could occur by the connected object being able to depress the snaphook keeper and release itself. 
</P>
<P>(7) On suspended scaffolds or similar work platforms with horizontal lifelines that may become vertical lifelines, the devices used for connection to the horizontal lifeline shall be capable of locking in any direction on the lifeline. 
</P>
<P>(8) Anchorages used for attachment of personal fall arrest equipment shall be independent of any anchorage being used to support or suspend platforms. 
</P>
<P>(9) Anchorages shall be capable of supporting at least 5,000 pounds (22.24 Kn) per employee attached, or shall be designed, installed, and used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) As part of a complete personal fall arrest system which maintains a safety factor of at least two; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the direction and supervision of a qualified person. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for lifelines, lanyards, and personal fall arrest systems.</I> (1) When vertical lifelines are used, each employee shall be provided with a separate lifeline. 
</P>
<P>(2) Vertical lifelines and lanyards shall have a minimum tensile strength of 5,000 pounds (22.24 Kn).
</P>
<P>(3) Self-retracting lifelines and lanyards that automatically limit free fall distances to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less shall be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 3,000 pounds (13.34 Kn) applied to a self-retracting lifeline or lanyard with the lifeline or lanyard in the fully extended position.
</P>
<P>(4) Self-retracting lifelines and lanyards which do not limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, ripstitch lanyards and tearing and deforming lanyards shall be capable of sustaining a minimum static tensile load of 5,000 pounds (22.24 Kn) applied to the device when they are in the fully extended position.
</P>
<P>(5) Horizontal lifelines shall be designed, installed, and used under the supervision of a qualified person, and shall only be used as part of a complete personal fall arrest system that maintains a safety factor of at least two. 
</P>
<P>(6) Effective November 20, 1996, personal fall arrest systems shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Limit the maximum arresting force on a falling employee to 900 pounds (4 Kn) when used with a body belt; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Limit the maximum arresting force on a falling employee to 1,800 pounds (8 Kn) when used with a body harness; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Bring a falling employee to a complete stop and limit the maximum deceleration distance an employee travels to 3.5 feet (1.07 m), and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Have sufficient strength to withstand twice the potential impact energy of an employee free falling a distance of 6 feet (1.83 m), or the free fall distance permitted by the system, whichever is less;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(6) of this section:</HED>
<P>A personal fall arrest system which meets the criteria and protocols contained in appendix B, is considered to comply with paragraph (b)(6). If the combined tool and body weight is 310 pounds (140.62 kg) or more, systems that meet the criteria and protocols contained in appendix B will be deemed to comply with the provisions of paragraph (b)(6) only if they are modified appropriately to provide protection for the extra weight of the employee and tools.</P></NOTE>
<P>(7) Personal fall arrest systems shall be rigged such that an employee can neither free fall more than 6 feet (1.83 m) nor contact any lower level.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for selection, use and care of systems and system components.</I> (1) Lanyards shall be attached to employees using personal fall arrest systems, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The attachment point of a body harness shall be located in the center of the wearer's back near the shoulder level, or above the wearer's head. If the free fall distance is limited to less than 20 inches (50.8 cm), the attachment point may be located in the chest position; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The attachment point of a body belt shall be located in the center of the wearer's back. 
</P>
<P>(2) Ropes and straps (webbing) used in lanyards, lifelines and strength components of body belts and body harnesses shall be made from synthetic fibers or wire rope. 
</P>
<P>(3) Ropes, belts, harnesses, and lanyards shall be compatible with their hardware. 
</P>
<P>(4) Lifelines and lanyards shall be protected against cuts, abrasions, burns from hot work operations and deterioration by acids, solvents, and other chemicals. 
</P>
<P>(5) Personal fall arrest systems shall be inspected prior to each use for mildew, wear, damage, and other deterioration. Defective components shall be removed from service. 
</P>
<P>(6) Personal fall arrest systems and components subjected to impact loading shall be immediately removed from service and shall not be used again for employee protection until inspected and determined by a qualified person to be undamaged and suitable for reuse. 
</P>
<P>(7) The employer shall provide for prompt rescue of employees in the event of a fall or shall ensure that employees are able to rescue themselves. 
</P>
<P>(8) Body belts shall be at least one and five-eighths inches (4.13 cm) wide.
</P>
<P>(9) Personal fall arrest systems and components shall be used only for employee fall protection and not to hoist materials. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Training.</I> Before using personal fall arrest equipment, each affected employee shall be trained to understand the application limits of the equipment and proper hook-up, anchoring, and tie-off techniques. Affected employees shall also be trained so that they can demonstrate the proper use, inspection, and storage of their equipment. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 26352, May 24, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 44544, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.160" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.160   Positioning device systems.</HEAD>
<P>Positioning device systems and their use shall conform to the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for connectors and anchorages.</I> (1) Connectors shall have a corrosion-resistant finish, and all surfaces and edges shall be smooth to prevent damage to interfacing parts of this system. 
</P>
<P>(2) Connecting assemblies shall have a minimum tensile strength of 5,000 pounds (22.24 Kn).
</P>
<P>(3) Positioning device systems shall be secured to an anchorage capable of supporting at least twice the potential impact load of an employee's fall. 
</P>
<P>(4) Snaphooks, unless each is of a locking type designed and used to prevent disengagement, shall not be connected to each other. As of January 1, 1998, only locking type snaphooks shall be used in positioning device systems. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for positioning device systems.</I> (1) Restraint (tether) lines shall have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 pounds (13.34 Kn).
</P>
<P>(2) The following system performance criteria for positioning device systems are effective November 20, 1996: 
</P>
<P>(i) A window cleaner's positioning system shall be capable of withstanding without failure a drop test consisting of a 6 foot (1.83 m) drop of a 250-pound (113.4 kg) weight. The system shall limit the initial arresting force to not more than 2,000 pounds (8.9 Kn), with a duration not to exceed 2 milliseconds. The system shall limit any subsequent arresting forces imposed on the falling employee to not more than 1,000 pounds (4.45 Kn); 
</P>
<P>(ii) All other positioning device systems shall be capable of withstanding without failure a drop test consisting of a 4 foot (1.22 m) drop of a 250-pound (113.4 kg) weight.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2) of this section:</HED>
<P>Positioning device systems which comply with the provisions of section 2 of non-mandatory appendix B to this subpart shall be deemed to meet the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2).</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for the use and care of positioning device systems.</I> (1) Positioning device systems shall be inspected before each use for mildew, wear, damage, and other deterioration. Defective components shall be removed from service. 
</P>
<P>(2) A positioning device system or component subjected to impact loading shall be immediately removed from service and shall not be used again for employee protection, unless inspected and determined by a qualified person to be undamaged and suitable for reuse. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Training.</I> Before using a positioning device system, employees shall be trained in the application limits, proper hook-up, anchoring and tie-off techniques, methods of use, inspection, and storage of positioning device systems. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 26352, May 24, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 44544, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.11.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart I of Part 1915—Non-Mandatory Guidelines for Hazard Assessment, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) Selection, and PPE Training Program
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix is intended to provide compliance assistance for hazard assessment, selection of personal protective equipment (PPE) and PPE training. It neither adds to or detracts from the employer's responsibility to comply with the provisions of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Controlling hazards.</I> Employers and employees should not rely exclusively on PPE for protection from hazards. PPE should be used, where appropriate, in conjunction with engineering controls, guards, and safe work practices and procedures. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assessment and selection.</I> Employers need to consider certain general guidelines for assessing the hazardous situations that are likely to arise under foreseeable work activity conditions and to match employee PPE to the identified hazards. The employer should designate a safety officer or some other qualified person to exercise common sense and appropriate expertise to assess work activity hazards and select PPE. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Assessment guidelines.</I> In order to assess the need for PPE the following steps should be taken: 
</P>
<P>a. <I>Survey.</I> Conduct a walk-through survey of the area in question to identify sources of hazards.
</P>
<P>Categories for Consideration:
</P>
<P>(1) Impact 
</P>
<P>(2) Penetration 
</P>
<P>(3) Compression (roll-over) 
</P>
<P>(4) Chemical 
</P>
<P>(5) Heat 
</P>
<P>(6) Harmful dust 
</P>
<P>(7) Light (optical) radiation 
</P>
<P>(8) Drowning 
</P>
<P>(9) Falling
</P>
<P>b. <I>Sources.</I> During the walk-through survey the safety officer should observe: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sources of motion; for example, machinery or processes where any movement of tools, machine elements or particles could exist, or movement of personnel that could result in collision with stationary objects. 
</P>
<P>(2) Sources of high temperatures that could result in burns, eye injury or ignition of protective equipment. 
</P>
<P>(3) Types of chemical exposures. 
</P>
<P>(4) Sources of harmful dust. 
</P>
<P>(5) Sources of light radiation, for instance, welding, brazing, cutting, heat treating, furnaces, and high intensity lights. 
</P>
<P>(6) Sources of falling objects or potential for dropping objects. 
</P>
<P>(7) Sources of sharp objects which might pierce or cut the hands. 
</P>
<P>(8) Sources of rolling or pinching objects which could crush the feet. 
</P>
<P>(9) Layout of work place and location of co-workers. 
</P>
<P>(10) Any electrical hazards.
</P>
<P>(11) Review injury/accident data to help identify problem areas. 
</P>
<P><I>Organize data.</I> Following the walk-through survey, it is necessary to organize the data and other information obtained. That material provides the basis for hazard assessment that enables the employer to select the appropriate PPE. 
</P>
<P>d. <I>Analyze data.</I> Having gathered and organized data regarding a particular occupation, employers need to estimate the potential for injuries. Each of the identified hazards (see paragraph 3.a.) should be reviewed and classified as to its type, the level of risk, and the seriousness of any potential injury. Where it is foreseeable that an employee could be exposed to several hazards simultaneously, the consequences of such exposure should be considered. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Selection guidelines.</I> After completion of the procedures in paragraph 3, the general procedure for selection of protective equipment is to: 
</P>
<P>(a) become familiar with the potential hazards and the types of protective equipment that are available, and what they can do; for example, splash protection, and impact protection; 
</P>
<P>(b) compare the hazards associated with the environment; for instance, impact velocities, masses, projectile shapes, radiation intensities, with the capabilities of the available protective equipment; 
</P>
<P>(c) select the protective equipment which ensures a level of protection greater than the minimum required to protect employees from the hazards; and 
</P>
<P>(d) fit the user with the protective device and give instructions on care and use of the PPE. It is very important that users be made aware of all warning labels and limitations of their PPE. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Fitting the device.</I> Careful consideration must be given to comfort and fit. The employee will be most likely to wear the protective device if it fits comfortably. PPE that does not fit properly may not provide the necessary protection, and may create other problems for wearers. Generally, protective devices are available in a variety of sizes and choices. Therefore employers should be careful to select the appropriate sized PPE. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Devices with adjustable features.</I> (a) Adjustments should be made on an individual basis so the wearer will have a comfortable fit that maintains the protective device in the proper position. Particular care should be taken in fitting devices for eye protection against dust and chemical splash to ensure that the seal is appropriate for the face. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, proper fitting of hard hats is important to ensure that the hard hat will not fall off during work operations. In some cases a chin strap may be necessary to keep the hard hat on an employee's head. (Chin straps should break at a reasonably low force to prevent a strangulation hazard). Where manufacturer's instructions are available, they should be followed carefully. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Reassessment of hazards.</I> Compliance with the hazard assessment requirements of § 1915.152(b) will involve the reassessment of work activities where changing circumstances make it necessary. a. The employer should have a safety officer or other qualified person reassess the hazards of the work activity area as necessary. This reassessment should take into account changes in the workplace or work practices, such as those associated with the installation of new equipment, and the lessons learned from reviewing accident records, and a reevaluation performed to determine the suitability of PPE selected for use.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Selection chart guidelines for eye and face protection.</I> Examples of occupations for which eye protection should be routinely considered are carpenters, engineers, coppersmiths, instrument technicians, insulators, electricians, machinists, mobile equipment mechanics and repairers, plumbers and ship fitters, sheet metal workers and tinsmiths, grinding equipment operators, machine operators, welders, boiler workers, painters, laborers, grit blasters, ship fitters and burners. This is not a complete list of occupations that require the use of eye protection. The following chart provides general guidance for the proper selection of eye and face protection to protect against hazards associated with the listed hazard “source” operations. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Eye and Face Protection Selection Chart
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Source
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assessment of hazard
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Protection
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Impact:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Chipping, grinding machining, masonry work, woodworking, sawing, drilling, chiseling, powered fastening, riveting, and sanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Flying fragments, objects, large chips, particles, sand, dirt, etc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spectacles with side protection, goggles, face shields. See notes (1), (3), (5), (6), (10). For severe exposure, use face shield.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Furnace operations, pouring, casting, hot dipping, and welding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot sparks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Face shields, goggles, spectacles with side protection. For severe exposure use face shield. See notes (1), (2), (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Splash from molten metals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Face shields worn over goggles. See notes (1), (2), (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High temperature exposure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Screen face shields, reflective face shields. See notes (1), (2), (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chemicals:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Acid and chemicals handling, degreasing, plating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Splash</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goggles, eyecup and cover types. For severe exposure, use face shield. See notes (3), (11).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Irritating mists</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special-purpose goggles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dust:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Woodworking, buffing, general dusty conditions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nuisance dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Goggles, eyecup and cover types. See note (8).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light and/or Radiation: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Welding: Electric arc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Optical radiation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Welding helmets or welding shields. Typical shades: 10-14. See notes (9), (12).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Welding: Gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Optical radiation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Welding goggles or welding face shield. Typical shades: gas welding 4-8, cutting 3-6, brazing 3-4. See note (9).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cutting, Torch brazing, Torch soldering</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Optical radiation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spectacles or welding face-shield. Typical shades, 1.5-3. See notes (3), (9).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Glare</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Poor vision</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Spectacles with shaded or special-purpose lenses, as suitable. See notes (9), (10).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>Notes to Eye and Face Protection Selection Chart
</HD1>
<P>(a) Care should be taken to recognize the possibility of multiple and simultaneous exposure to a variety of hazards. Adequate protection against the highest level of each of the hazards should be provided. Protective devices do not provide unlimited protection. 
</P>
<P>(b) Operations involving heat may also involve light radiation. As required by the standard, protection from both hazards must be provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) Face shields should only be worn over primary eye protection (spectacles or goggles). 
</P>
<P>(d) As required by the standard, filter lenses must meet the requirements for shade designations in § 1915.153(a)(4). Tinted and shaded lenses are not filter lenses unless they are marked or identified as such. 
</P>
<P>(e) As required by the standard, persons whose vision requires the use of prescription (Rx) lenses must wear either protective devices fitted with prescription (Rx) lenses or protective devices designed to be worn over regular prescription (Rx) eye wear. 
</P>
<P>(f) Wearers of contact lenses must also wear appropriate eye and face protection devices in a hazardous environment. It should be recognized that dusty and/or chemical environments may represent an additional hazard to contact lens wearers. 
</P>
<P>(g) Caution should be exercised in the use of metal frame protective devices in electrical hazard areas. 
</P>
<P>(h) Atmospheric conditions and the restricted ventilation of the protector can cause lenses to fog. Frequent cleansing may be necessary. 
</P>
<P>(i) Welding helmets or face shields should be used only over primary eye protection (spectacles or goggles). 
</P>
<P>(j) Non-side shield spectacles are available for frontal protection only, but are not acceptable eye protection for the sources and operations listed for “impact.” 
</P>
<P>(k) Ventilation should be adequate, but well protected from splash entry. Eye and face protection should be designed and used so that it provides both adequate ventilation and protects the wearer from splash entry. 
</P>
<P>(l) Protection from light radiation is directly related to filter lens density. See note (d). Select the darkest shade that allows task performance. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Selection guidelines for head protection.</I> (a) Hard hats are designed to provide protection from impact and penetration hazards caused by falling objects. Head protection is also available which provides protection from electric shock and burn. When selecting head protection, knowledge of potential electrical hazards is important. Class A helmets, in addition to impact and penetration resistance, provide electrical protection from low-voltage conductors. (They are proof tested to 2,200 volts.) Class B helmets, in addition to impact and penetration resistance, provide electrical protection from high-voltage conductors. (They are proof tested to 20,000 volts.) Class C helmets provide impact and penetration resistance. (They are usually made of aluminum, which conducts electricity and should not be used around electrical hazards.) 
</P>
<P>(b) Where falling object hazards are present, head protection must be worn. Some examples of exposure include: working below other workers who are using tools and materials which could fall; working around or under conveyor belts which are carrying parts or materials; working below machinery or processes which might cause material or objects to fall; and working on exposed energized conductors. 
</P>
<P>(c) Examples of occupations for which head protection should be considered are: carpenters, electricians, machinists, boilermakers, erectors, plumbers, coppersmiths, ship fitters, welders, laborers and material handlers. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Selection guidelines for foot protection.</I> (a) Safety shoes and boots must meet ANSI Z41-1991 and provide impact and compression protection to the foot. Where necessary, safety shoes can be obtained which provide puncture protection. In some work situations, metatarsal (top of foot) protection should be provided, and in some other special situations, electrical conductive or insulating safety shoes would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Safety shoes or boots with impact protection would be required for carrying or handling materials such as packages, objects, parts or heavy tools, which could be dropped, and for other activities where objects might fall onto the feet. Safety shoes or boots with compression protection would be required for work activities involving skid trucks (manual material handling carts) around bulk rolls (such as paper rolls) and around heavy pipes, all of which could potentially roll over an employees' feet. Safety shoes or boots with puncture protection would be required where sharp objects such as nails, wire, tacks, screws, large staples, scrap metal etc., could be stepped on by employees, causing an injury. 
</P>
<P>(c) Some occupations (not a complete list) for which foot protection should be routinely considered are: shipping and receiving clerks, stock clerks, carpenters, electricians, machinists, boiler makers, plumbers, copper smiths, pipe fitters, ship fitters, burners, chippers and grinders, erectors, press operators, welders, laborers, and material handlers. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Selection guidelines for hand protection.</I> (a) Gloves are often relied upon to prevent cuts, abrasions, burns, and skin contact with chemicals that are capable of causing local or systemic effects following dermal exposure. OSHA is unaware of any gloves that provide protection against all potential hand hazards, and commonly available glove materials provide only limited protection against many chemicals. Therefore, it is important to select the most appropriate glove for a particular application and to determine how long it can be worn, and whether it can be reused. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is also important to know the performance characteristics of gloves relative to the specific hazard anticipated, e.g., chemical hazards, cut hazards, and flame hazards. These performance characteristics should be assessed by using standard test procedures. Before purchasing gloves, the employer should request documentation from the manufacturer that the gloves meet the appropriate test standard(s) for the hazard(s) anticipated. 
</P>
<P>(c) other general factors to be considered for glove selection are: 
</P>
<P>(A) As long as the performance characteristics are acceptable, in certain circumstances, it may be more cost effective to regularly change cheaper gloves than to reuse more expensive types; and, 
</P>
<P>(B) The work activities of the employee should be studied to determine the degree of dexterity required, the duration, frequency, and degree of exposure to the hazard, and the physical stresses that will be applied. 
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to selection of gloves for protection against chemical hazards: 
</P>
<P>(A) The toxic properties of the chemical(s) must be determined; in particular, the ability of the chemical to cause local effects on the skin or to pass through the skin and cause systemic effects or both; 
</P>
<P>(B) Generally, any “chemical resistant” glove can be used for dry powders; 
</P>
<P>(C) For mixtures and formulated products (unless specific test data are available), a glove should be selected on the basis of the chemical component with the shortest breakthrough time, since it is possible for solvents to carry active ingredients through polymeric materials; and, 
</P>
<P>(D) Employees must be able to remove the gloves in such a manner as to prevent skin contamination. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Cleaning and maintenance.</I> (a) It is important that all PPE be kept clean and be properly maintained. Cleaning is particularly important for eye and face protection where dirty or fogged lenses could impair vision. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of compliance, PPE should be inspected, cleaned, and maintained at regular intervals so that the PPE provides the requisite protection. 
</P>
<P>(c) It is important to ensure that contaminated PPE which cannot be decontaminated is disposed of in a manner that protects employees from exposure to hazards. 
</P>
<P>13. <I>Examples of work activities, trades and selection of basic PPE.</I> 
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1: Welder.</HED><PSPACE>Based on an assessment of the work activity area hazards to which welders are exposed, the equipment listed below is the basic PPE required for this occupation. This does not take into account a job location in which additional PPE may be required, such as where the welder works from an elevated platform without guard rails. In this situation the welder must also wear the proper fall protection equipment, such as a body harness.
</PSPACE>
<FP-1>—Hard hat 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Welding Shield (Face) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Welding Gloves 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Safety Glasses 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Safety Shoes 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Welding Sleeves (welding in the overhead position) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Signed and dated)</FP-1></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2: Yard Maintenance Worker.</HED><PSPACE>Based on an assessment of the workplace hazards to which shipyard maintenance workers are exposed, the equipment listed below is the basic PPE required for this occupation. Where maintenance workers are exposed to other hazards, such as asbestos, the insulation on a pipe is being repaired, maintenance workers must be provided with the appropriate supplemental PPE (requirements for asbestos PPE are set out in 1915.1001).
</PSPACE>
<FP-1>—Hard Hat 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Safety Glasses 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Work Gloves 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Safety Shoes 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Signed and Dated)</FP-1></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3: Chipper and Grinder Worker.</HED><PSPACE>Based on an assessment of the workplace hazards to which shipyard chipper and grinder workers are exposed, the equipment listed below is the basic PPE required for this occupation. Where workers are exposed to other hazards, such as hazardous dust from chipping or grinding operations, chipper and grinder workers must be provided with the appropriate supplemental PPE.
</PSPACE>
<FP-1>—Safety Glasses 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Transparent Face Shields 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Hearing Protection 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Foot Protection 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Gloves 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Signed and Dated)</FP-1></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4: Painter.</HED><PSPACE>Based on an assessment of the workplace hazards to which shipyard painters are exposed, the equipment listed below is the basic PPE required for this occupation. Where painters are exposed to other hazards, such as a fall from an elevation where no guardrails are present, painters must be provided with the appropriate supplemental PPE. 
</PSPACE>
<FP-1>—Hard Hats 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Safety Glasses 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Disposable Clothing 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Gloves 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Respiratory Protection, including Airline Respirators when working in Confined Spaces 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Barrier Creams 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Signed and Dated)</FP-1></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5: Tank Cleaner.</HED><PSPACE>Tank cleaning operations and the basic PPE required for them depend largely upon the type of cargo shipped in the tank. Therefore, the following example is given for a tank in which gasoline has been shipped. Based on an assessment of the workplace hazards to which shipyard tank cleaners are exposed, specifically benzene and flammability hazards, the equipment listed below is the basic PPE required for this situation. Other tank cleaning operations will require variations in the PPE listed below.
</PSPACE>
<FP-1>—Respiratory Protection, Airline Respirators for working in confined spaces or where personal exposure limits could be exceeded. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Chemically resistant clothing 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Face Shields 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Chemically resistant boots 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Chemically resistant gloves 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Fall Protection 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Non sparking tools and equipment 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Explosion-proof Lighting 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(Signed and Dated)</FP-1></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44544, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.9.6.11.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart I of Part 1915—General Testing Conditions and Additional Guidelines for Personal Fall Protection Systems (Non-Mandatory)
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Personal fall arrest systems</I>—(a) <I>General test conditions.</I> (1) Lifelines, lanyards, and deceleration devices should be attached to an anchorage and connected to the body-belt or body harness in the same manner as they would be when used to protect employees, except that lanyards should be tested only when connected directly to the anchorage, and not when connected to a lifeline. 
</P>
<P>(2) The anchorage should be rigid, and should not have a deflection greater than .04 inches (1 cm) when a force of 2,250 pounds (10.01 Kn) is applied. 
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency response of the load measuring instrumentation should be 100 Hz. 
</P>
<P>(4) The test weight used in the strength and force tests should be a rigid, metal cylindrical or torso-shaped object with a girth of 38 inches plus or minus 4 inches (96.5 cm plus or minus 10.16 cm). 
</P>
<P>(5) The lanyard or lifeline used to create the free fall distance should be the one supplied with the system, or in its absence, the least elastic lanyard or lifeline available to be used by the employee with the system. 
</P>
<P>(6) The test weight for each test should be hoisted to the required level and should be quickly released without having any appreciable motion imparted to it. 
</P>
<P>(7) The system's performance should be evaluated, taking into account the range of environmental conditions for which it is designed to be used. 
</P>
<P>(8) Following the test, the system need not be capable of further operation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Strength test.</I> (1) During the testing of all systems, a test weight of 300 pounds plus or minus 5 pounds (136.08 kg plus or minus 2.27 kg) should be used. (See paragraph (a)(4) above.) 
</P>
<P>(2) The test consists of dropping the test weight once. A new unused system should be used for each test. 
</P>
<P>(3) For lanyard systems, the lanyard length should be 6 feet plus or minus 2 inches (1.83 m plus or minus 5.08 cm) as measured from the fixed anchorage to the attachment on the body belt or harness. 
</P>
<P>(4) For rope-grab-type deceleration systems, the length of the lifeline above the center line of the grabbing mechanism to the lifeline's anchorage point should not exceed 2 feet (0.61 m). 
</P>
<P>(5) For lanyard systems, for systems with deceleration devices which do not automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, and for systems with deceleration devices which have a connection distance in excess of 1 foot (0.31 m) (measured between the centerline of the lifeline and the attachment point to the body belt or harness), the test weight should be rigged to free fall a distance of 7.5 feet (2.29 m) from a point that is 1.5 feet (45.72 cm) above the anchorage point, to its hanging location (6 feet (1.83 m) below the anchorage). The test weight should fall without interference, obstruction, or hitting the floor or the ground during the test. In some cases, a non-elastic wire lanyard of sufficient length may need to be added to the system (for test purposes) to create the necessary free fall distance. 
</P>
<P>(6) For deceleration device systems with integral lifelines or lanyards which automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, the test weight should be rigged to free fall a distance of four feet (1.22 m). 
</P>
<P>(7) Any weight which detaches from the belt or harness should constitute failure for the strength test. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Force test general.</I> The test consists of dropping the respective test weight once. A new, unused system should be used for each test. 
</P>
<P>(1) For lanyard systems. (i) A test weight of 220 pounds plus or minus three pounds (99.79 kg plus or minus 1.36 kg) should be used (see paragraph (a)(4) above). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Lanyard length should be 6 feet plus or minus 2 inches (1.83 m plus or minus 5.08 cm) as measured from the fixed anchorage to the attachment on the body belt or body harness.
</P>
<P>(iii) The test weight should fall free from the anchorage level to its handling location (a total of 6 feet (1.83 m) free fall distance) without interference, obstruction, or hitting the floor or ground during the test. 
</P>
<P>(2) For all other systems. (i) A test weight of 220 pounds plus or minus 3 pounds (99.79 kg plus or minus 1.36 kg) should be used (see paragraph (a)(4) above). 
</P>
<P>(ii) The free fall distance to be used in the test should be the maximum fall distance physically permitted by the system during normal use conditions, up to a maximum free fall distance for the test weight of 6 feet (1.83 m), except as follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) For deceleration systems which have a connection link or lanyard, the test weight should free fall a distance equal to the connection distance (measured between the center line of the lifeline and the attachment point to the body belt or harness). 
</P>
<P>(B) For deceleration device systems with integral life lines or lanyards which automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, the test weight should free fall a distance equal to that permitted by the system in normal use. (For example, to test a system with a self-retracting lifeline or lanyard, the test weight should be supported and the system allowed to retract the lifeline or lanyard as it would in normal use. The test weight would then be released and the force and deceleration distance measured.) 
</P>
<P>(3) Failure. A system fails the force test if the recorded maximum arresting force exceeds 1,260 pounds (5.6 Kn) when using a body belt, or exceeds 2,520 pounds (11.21 Kn) when using a body harness. 
</P>
<P>(4) Distances. The maximum elongation and deceleration distance should be recorded during the force test. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deceleration device tests—general.</I> The device should be evaluated or tested under the environmental conditions (such as rain, ice, grease, dirt, type of lifeline, etc.) for which the device is designed. 
</P>
<P>(1) Rope-grab-type deceleration devices. (i) Devices should be moved on a lifeline 1,000 times over the same length of line a distance of not less than 1 foot (30.48 cm), and the mechanism should lock each time. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the device is permanently marked to indicate the type of lifelines which must be used, several types (different diameters and different materials) of lifelines should be used to test the device. 
</P>
<P>(2) Other-self-activating-type deceleration devices. The locking mechanisms of other self-activating-type deceleration devices designed for more than one arrest should lock each of 1,000 times as they would in normal service. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Positioning device systems</I>—(a) <I>Test Conditions.</I> (1) The fixed anchorage should be rigid and should not have a deflection greater than .04 inches (1.02 mm) when a force of 2,250 pounds (10.01 Kn) is applied. 
</P>
<P>(2) For lineman's body belts and pole straps, the body belt should be secured to a 250 pound (113.4 kg) bag of sand at a point which simulates the waist of an employee. One end of the pole strap should be attached to the rigid anchorage and the other end to the body belt. The sand bag should be allowed to free fall a distance of 4 feet (1.22 m). Failure of the pole strap and body belt should be indicated by any breakage or slippage sufficient to permit the bag to fall free to the ground. 
</P>
<P>(3) For window cleaner's belts, the complete belt should withstand a drop test consisting of a 250 pound (113.4 kg) weight falling free for a distance of 6 feet (1.83 m). The weight should be a rigid object with a girth of 38 inches plus or minus four inches (96.52 cm plus or minus 10.16 cm.) The weight should be placed in the waistband with the belt buckle drawn firmly against the weight, as when the belt is worn by a window cleaner. One belt terminal should be attached to a rigid anchor and the other terminal should hang free. The terminals should be adjusted to their maximum span. The weight fastened in the freely suspended belt should then be lifted exactly 6 feet (1.83 m) above its “at rest” position and released so as to permit a free fall of 6 feet (1.83 m) vertically below the point of attachment of the terminal anchor. The belt system should be equipped with devices and instrumentation capable of measuring the duration and magnitude of the arrest forces. Any breakage or slippage which permits the weight to fall free of the system constitutes failure of the test. In addition, the initial and subsequent arresting force peaks should be measured and should not exceed 2,000 pounds (8.9 Kn) for more than 2 milliseconds for the initial impact, nor exceed 1,000 pounds (4.45 Kn) for the remainder of the arrest time. 
</P>
<P>(4) All other positioning device systems (except for restraint line systems) should withstand a drop test consisting of a 250-pound (113.4 kg) weight falling free for a distance of 4 feet (1.22 m). The weight should be a rigid object with a girth of 38 inches plus or minus 4 inches (96.52 cm plus or minus 10.16 cm). The body belt or harness should be affixed to the test weight as it would be to an employee. The system should be connected to the rigid anchor in the manner that the system would be connected in normal use. The weight should be lifted exactly 4 feet (1.22 m) above its “at rest” position and released so as to permit a vertical free fall of 4 feet (1.22 m). Any breakage or slippage which permits the weight to fall free to the ground should constitute failure of the system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44544, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Ship's Machinery and Piping Systems</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.161" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.10.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.161   Scope and application of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The standards contained in this subpart shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding and shall not apply to shipbreaking.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.162" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.10.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.162   Ship's boilers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before work is performed in the fire, steam, or water spaces of a boiler where employees may be subject to injury from the direct escape of a high temperature medium such as steam, or water, oil, or other medium at a high temperature entering from an interconnecting system, the employer shall insure that the following steps are taken:
</P>
<P>(1) The isolation and shutoff valves connecting the dead boiler with the live system or systems shall be secured, blanked, and then locked or tagged, in accordance with § 1915.89, indicating that employees are working on the boiler. This lock or tag shall not be removed nor the valves unblanked until it is determined that this may be done without creating a hazard to the employees working on the boiler, or until the work on the boiler is completed, in accordance with § 1915.89. When valves are welded instead of bolted, at least two isolation and shutoff valves connecting the dead boiler with the live system or systems shall be secured, and then locked or tagged, in accordance with § 1915.89.
</P>
<P>(2) Drain connections to atmosphere on all of the dead interconnecting systems shall be opened for visual observation of drainage.
</P>
<P>(3) A warning sign calling attention to the fact that employees are working in the boilers shall be hung in a conspicuous location in the engine room. This sign shall not be removed until it is determined that the work is completed and all employees are out of the boilers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 76 FR 24711, May 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.163" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.10.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.163   Ship's piping systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before work is performed on a valve, fitting, or section of piping in a piping system where employees may be subject to injury from the direct escape of steam, or water, oil, or other medium at a high temperature, the employer shall insure that the following steps are taken:
</P>
<P>(1) The isolation and shutoff valves connecting the dead system with the live system or systems shall be secured, blanked, and then locked or tagged, in accordance with § 1915.89, indicating that employees are working on the systems. The lock or tag shall not be removed or the valves unblanked until it is determined that this may be done without creating a hazard to the employees working on the system, or until the work on the system is completed, in accordance with § 1915.89. When valves are welded instead of bolted, at least two isolation and shutoff valves connecting the dead system with the live system or systems shall be secured, and then locked or tagged, in accordance with § 1915.89.
</P>
<P>(2) Drain connections to the atmosphere on all of the dead interconnecting systems shall be opened for visual observation of drainage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44545, July 3, 2002; 76 FR 24711, May 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.164" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.10.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.164   Ship's propulsion machinery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before work is performed on the main engine, reduction gear, or connecting accessories, the employer shall ensure that the following steps are taken:
</P>
<P>(1) The jacking gear shall be engaged to prevent the main engine from turning over. A sign shall be posted at the throttle indicating that the jacking gear is engaged. This sign shall not be removed until the jacking gear can be safely disengaged.
</P>
<P>(2) If the jacking gear is steam driven, the employer shall ensure that the stop valves to the jacking gear are secured, and then locked or tagged, in accordance with § 1915.89.
</P>
<P>(3) If the jacking gear is electrically driven, the circuit controlling the jacking gear shall be de-energized by tripping the circuit breaker, opening the switch, or removing the fuse, whichever is appropriate, and then locked or tagged in accordance with § 1915.89.
</P>
<P>(b) Before the jacking engine is operated, the following precautions shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) A check shall be made to ensure that all employees, equipment, and tools are clear of the engine, reduction gear, and its connecting accessories.
</P>
<P>(2) A check shall be made to ensure that all employees, equipment and tools are free of the propeller.
</P>
<P>(c) Before work is started on or in the immediate vicinity of the propeller, a warning sign calling attention to the fact that employees are working in that area shall be hung in a conspicuous location in the engine room. This sign shall not be removed until it is determined that the work is completed and all employees are free of the propeller.
</P>
<P>(d) Before the main engine is turned over (e.g., when warming up before departure or testing after an overhaul) a check shall be made to ensure that all employees, equipment, and tools are free of the propeller.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 76 FR 24711, May 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.165" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.10.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.165   Ship's deck machinery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before work is performed on the anchor windlass or any of its attached accessories, the employer shall ensure that the following steps are taken:
</P>
<P>(1) The devil claws (also known as chain stoppers) shall be made fast to the anchor chains. 
</P>
<P>(2) The riding pawls shall be in the engaged position.
</P>
<P>(3) In the absence of devil claws and riding pawls, the anchor chains shall be secured to a suitable fixed structure of the vessel. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44545, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Portable, Unfired Pressure Vessels, Drums and Containers, Other Than Ship's Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.171" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.11.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.171   Scope and application of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The standards contained in this subpart shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding and shall not apply to shipbreaking.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.172" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.11.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.172   Portable air receivers and other unfired pressure vessels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Portable, unfired pressure vessels, built after the effective date of this regulation, shall be marked and reported indicating that they have been designed and constructed to meet the standards of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, Rules for Construction of Unfired Pressure Vessels, 1963. They shall be subjected to a hydrostatic pressure test of one and one-half times the working pressure of the vessels.
</P>
<P>(b) Portable, unfired pressure vessels, not built to the code requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, and built prior to the effective date of this regulation, shall be examined quarterly by a competent person. They shall be subjected yearly to a hydrostatic pressure test of one and one-half times the working pressure of the vessels.
</P>
<P>(c) The relief valves on the portable, unfired pressure vessels in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall be set to the safe working pressure of the vessels, or set to the lowest safe working pressure of the systems, whichever is lower.
</P>
<P>(d) A certification record of such examinations and tests made in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall be maintained. The certification record shall include the date of examinations and tests, the signature of the person who performed the examinations or tests and the serial number, or other identifier, of the equipment examined and tested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 51 FR 34562, Sept. 29, 1986; 67 FR 44545, July 3, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.173" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.11.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.173   Drums and containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Shipping drums and containers shall not be pressurized to remove their contents.
</P>
<P>(b) A temporarily assembled pressurized piping system conveying hazardous liquids or gases shall be provided with a relief valve and by-pass to prevent rupture of the system and the escape of such hazardous liquids or gases.
</P>
<P>(c) Pressure vessels, drums and containers containing toxic or flammable liquids or gases shall not be stored or used where they are subject to open flame, hot metal, or other sources of artificial heat.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless pressure vessels, drums and containers of 30 gallon capacity or over containing flammable or toxic liquids or gases are placed in an out-of-the-way area where they will not be subject to physical injury from an outside source, barriers or guards shall be erected to protect them from such physical injury.
</P>
<P>(e) Containers of 55 gallons or more capacity containing flammable or toxic liquid shall be surrounded by dikes or pans which enclose a volume equal to at least 35 percent of the total volume of the containers.
</P>
<P>(f) Fire extinguishers adequate in number and suitable for the hazard shall be provided. These extinguishers shall be located in the immediate area where pressure vessels, drums and containers containing flammable liquids or gases are stored or in use. Such extinguishers shall be ready for use at all times.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Electrical Machinery</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.181" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.12.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.181   Electrical circuits and distribution boards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this section shall apply to ship repairing and shipbuilding and shall not apply to shipbreaking.
</P>
<P>(b) Before an employee is permitted to work on an electrical circuit, except when the circuit must remain energized for testing and adjusting, the circuit shall be deenergized and checked at the point at which the work is to be done to insure that it is actually deenergized. When testing or adjusting an energized circuit a rubber mat, duck board, or other suitable insulation shall be used underfoot where an insulated deck does not exist.
</P>
<P>(c) De-energizing the circuit shall be accomplished by opening the circuit breaker, opening the switch, or removing the fuse, whichever method is appropriate. The circuit breaker, switch, or fuse location shall then be locked out or tagged in accordance with § 1915.89. 
</P>
<P>(d) When work is performed immediately adjacent to an open-front energized board or in back of an energized board, the board shall be covered or some other equally safe means shall be used to prevent contact with any of the energized parts. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 16986, Apr. 20, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 44545, July 3, 2002; 76 FR 24711, May 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts M-O [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Fire Protection in Shipyard Employment</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 55702, Sept. 15, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1915.501" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.501   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the standard in this subpart is to require employers to protect all employees from fire hazards in shipyard employment, including employees engaged in fire response activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart covers employers with employees engaged in shipyard employment aboard vessels and vessel sections, and on land-side operations regardless of geographic location.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee participation.</I> The employer must provide ways for employees or employee representatives, or both to participate in developing and periodically reviewing programs and policies adopted to comply with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multi-employer worksites</I>—(1) <I>Host employer responsibilities.</I> The host employer's responsibilities are to:
</P>
<P>(i) Inform all employers at the worksite about the content of the fire safety plan including hazards, controls, fire safety and health rules, and emergency procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Make sure the safety and health responsibilities for fire protection are assigned as appropriate to other employers at the worksite; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If there is more than one host employer, each host employer must communicate relevant information about fire-related hazards to other host employers. When a vessel owner or operator (temporarily) becomes a host shipyard employer by directing the work of ships' crews on repair or modification of the vessel or by hiring other contractors directly, the vessel owner or operator must also comply with these provisions for host employers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contract employer responsibilities.</I> The contract employer's responsibilities are to:
</P>
<P>(i) Make sure that the host employer knows about the fire-related hazards associated with the contract employer's work and what the contract employer is doing to address them; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Advise the host employer of any previously unidentified fire-related hazards that the contract employer identifies at the worksite.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.502" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.502   Fire safety plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employer responsibilities.</I> The employer must develop and implement a written fire safety plan that covers all the actions that employers and employees must take to ensure employee safety in the event of a fire. (See Appendix A to this subpart for a Model Fire Safety Plan.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan elements.</I> The employer must include the following information in the fire safety plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the significant fire hazards;
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for recognizing and reporting unsafe conditions;
</P>
<P>(3) Alarm procedures;
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures for notifying employees of a fire emergency;
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures for notifying fire response organizations of a fire emergency;
</P>
<P>(6) Procedures for evacuation;
</P>
<P>(7) Procedures to account for all employees after an evacuation; and
</P>
<P>(8) Names, job titles, or departments for individuals who can be contacted for further information about the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reviewing the plan with employees.</I> The employer must review the plan with each employee at the following times:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 90 days of December 14, 2004, for employees who are currently working;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon initial assignment for new employees; and
</P>
<P>(3) When the actions the employee must take under the plan change because of a change in duties or a change in the plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional employer requirements.</I> The employer also must:
</P>
<P>(1) Keep the plan accessible to employees, employee representatives, and OSHA;
</P>
<P>(2) Review and update the plan whenever necessary, but at least annually;
</P>
<P>(3) Document that affected employees have been informed about the plan as required by paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure any outside fire response organization that the employer expects to respond to fires at the employer's worksite has been given a copy of the current plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contract employers.</I> Contract employers in shipyard employment must have a fire safety plan for their employees, and this plan must comply with the host employer's fire safety plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.503" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.503   Precautions for hot work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Designated Areas.</I> The employer may designate areas for hot work in sites such as vessels, vessel sections, fabricating shops, and subassembly areas that are free of fire hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-designated Areas.</I> (i) Before authorizing hot work in a non-designated area, the employer must visually inspect the area where hot work is to be performed, including adjacent spaces, to ensure the area is free of fire hazards, unless a Marine Chemist's certificate or Shipyard Competent Person's log is used for authorization.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall authorize employees to perform hot work only in areas that are free of fire hazards, or that have been controlled by physical isolation, fire watches, or other positive means.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>The requirements of paragraph (a)(2) apply to all hot work operations in shipyard employment except those covered by § 1915.14.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(1) <I>Maintaining fire hazard-free conditions.</I> The employer must keep all hot work areas free of new hazards that may cause or contribute to the spread of fire. Unexpected energizing and energy release are covered by 29 CFR 1915.181, Subpart L. Exposure to toxic and hazardous substances is covered in 29 CFR 1915.1000 through 1915.1450, subpart Z.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fuel gas and oxygen supply lines and torches.</I> The employer must make sure that:
</P>
<P>(i) No unattended fuel gas and oxygen hose lines or torches are in confined spaces;
</P>
<P>(ii) No unattended charged fuel gas and oxygen hose lines or torches are in enclosed spaces for more than 15 minutes; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All fuel gas and oxygen hose lines are disconnected at the supply manifold at the end of each shift;
</P>
<P>(iv) All disconnected fuel gas and oxygen hose lines are rolled back to the supply manifold or to open air to disconnect the torch; or extended fuel gas and oxygen hose lines are not reconnected at the supply manifold unless the lines are given a positive means of identification when they were first connected and the lines are tested using a drop test or other positive means to ensure the integrity of fuel gas and oxygen burning system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.504" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.504   Fire watches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written fire watch policy.</I> The employer must create and keep current a written policy that specifies the following requirements for employees performing fire watch in the workplace:
</P>
<P>(1) The training employees must be given (§ 1915.508(c) contains detailed fire watch training requirements);
</P>
<P>(2) The duties employees are to perform;
</P>
<P>(3) The equipment employees must be given; and
</P>
<P>(4) The personal protective equipment (PPE) that must be made available and worn as required by 29 CFR Part 1915, Subpart I.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting fire watches.</I> The employer must post a fire watch if during hot work any of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(1) Slag, weld splatter, or sparks might pass through an opening and cause a fire;
</P>
<P>(2) Fire-resistant guards or curtains are not used to prevent ignition of combustible materials on or near decks, bulkheads, partitions, or overheads;
</P>
<P>(3) Combustible material closer than 35 ft. (10.7m) to the hot work in either the horizontal or vertical direction cannot be removed, protected with flame-proof covers, or otherwise shielded with metal or fire-resistant guards or curtains;
</P>
<P>(4) The hot work is carried out on or near insulation, combustible coatings, or sandwich-type construction that cannot be shielded, cut back, or removed, or in a space within a sandwich type construction that cannot be inerted;
</P>
<P>(5) Combustible materials adjacent to the opposite sides of bulkheads, decks, overheads, metal partitions, or sandwich-type construction may be ignited by conduction or radiation;
</P>
<P>(6) The hot work is close enough to cause ignition through heat radiation or conduction on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Insulated pipes, bulkheads, decks, partitions, or overheads; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Combustible materials and/or coatings;
</P>
<P>(7) The work is close enough to unprotected combustible pipe or cable runs to cause ignition; or
</P>
<P>(8) A Marine Chemist, a Coast Guard-authorized person, or a shipyard Competent Person, as defined in 29 CFR Part 1915, Subpart B, requires that a fire watch be posted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assigning employees to fire watch duty.</I> (1) The employer must not assign other duties to a fire watch while the hot work is in progress.
</P>
<P>(2) Employers must ensure that employees assigned to fire watch duty:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a clear view of and immediate access to all areas included in the fire watch;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are able to communicate with workers exposed to hot work;
</P>
<P>(iii) Are authorized to stop work if necessary and restore safe conditions within the hot work area;
</P>
<P>(iv) Remain in the hot work area for at least 30 minutes after completion of the hot work, unless the employer or its representative surveys the exposed area and makes a determination that there is no further fire hazard;
</P>
<P>(v) Are trained to detect fires that occur in areas exposed to the hot work;
</P>
<P>(vi) Attempt to extinguish any incipient stage fires in the hot work area that are within the capability of available equipment and within the fire watch's training qualifications, as defined in § 1915.508;
</P>
<P>(vii) Alert employees of any fire beyond the incipient stage; and
</P>
<P>(viii) If unable to extinguish fire in the areas exposed to the hot work, activate the alarm.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must ensure that employees assigned to fire watch are physically capable of performing these duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.505" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.505   Fire response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employer responsibilities.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Decide what type of response will be provided and who will provide it; and
</P>
<P>(2) Create, maintain, and update a written policy that:
</P>
<P>(i) Describes the internal and outside fire response organizations that the employer will use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Defines what evacuation procedures employees must follow, if the employer chooses to require a total or partial evacuation of the worksite at the time of a fire.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required written policy information</I>—(1) <I>Internal fire response.</I> If an internal fire response is to be used, the employer must include the following information in the employer's written policy:
</P>
<P>(i) The basic structure of the fire response organization;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of trained fire response employees;
</P>
<P>(iii) The fire response functions that may need to be carried out;
</P>
<P>(iv) The minimum number of fire response employees necessary, the number and types of apparatuses, and a description of the fire suppression operations established by written standard operating procedures for each type of fire response at the employer's facility;
</P>
<P>(v) The type, amount, and frequency of training that must be given to fire response employees; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The procedures for using protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outside fire response.</I> If an outside fire response organization is used, the employer must include the following information in the written policy:
</P>
<P>(i) The types of fire suppression incidents to which the fire response organization is expected to respond at the employer's facility or worksite;
</P>
<P>(ii) The liaisons between the employer and the outside fire response organizations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A plan for fire response functions that:
</P>
<P>(A) Addresses procedures for obtaining assistance from the outside fire response organization;
</P>
<P>(B) Familiarizes the outside fire response organization with the layout of the employer's facility or worksite, including access routes to controlled areas, and site-specific operations, occupancies, vessels or vessel sections, and hazards; and,
</P>
<P>(C) Sets forth how hose and coupling connection threads are to be made compatible and includes where the adapter couplings are kept; or
</P>
<P>(D) States that the employer will not allow the use of incompatible hose connections.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>A combination of internal and outside fire response.</I> If a combination of internal and outside fire response is to be used, the employer must include the following information, in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, in the written policy:
</P>
<P>(i) The basic organizational structure of the combined fire response;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of combined trained fire responders;
</P>
<P>(iii) The fire response functions that may need to be carried out;
</P>
<P>(iv) The minimum number of fire response employees necessary, the number and types of apparatuses, and a description of the fire suppression operations established by written standard operating procedures for each particular type of fire response at the worksite; and
</P>
<P>(v) The type, amount, and frequency of joint training with outside fire response organizations if given to fire response employees.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee evacuation.</I> The employer must include the following information in the employer's written policy:
</P>
<P>(i) Emergency escape procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Procedures to be followed by employees who may remain longer at the worksite to perform critical shipyard employment operations during the evacuation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures to account for all employees after emergency evacuation is completed;
</P>
<P>(iv) The preferred means of reporting fires and other emergencies; and
</P>
<P>(v) Names or job titles of the employees or departments to be contacted for further information or explanation of duties.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rescue and emergency response.</I> The employer must include the following information in the employer's written policy:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the emergency rescue procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Names or job titles of the employees who are assigned to perform them.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Medical requirements for shipyard fire response employees.</I> The employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) All fire response employees receive medical examinations to assure that they are physically and medically fit for the duties they are expected to perform;
</P>
<P>(2) Fire response employees, who are required to wear respirators in performing their duties, meet the medical requirements of § 1915.154;
</P>
<P>(3) Each fire response employee has an annual medical examination; and
</P>
<P>(4) The medical records of fire response employees are kept in accordance with § 1915.1020.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Organization of internal fire response functions.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Organize fire response functions to ensure enough resources to conduct emergency operations safely;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish lines of authority and assign responsibilities to ensure that the components of the internal fire response are accomplished;
</P>
<P>(3) Set up an incident management system to coordinate and direct fire response functions, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific fire emergency responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Accountability for all fire response employees participating in an emergency operation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Resources offered by outside organizations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the information required in this paragraph (d) to the outside fire response organization to be used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Personal protective clothing and equipment for fire response employees</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Supply to all fire response employees, at no cost, the appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment they may need to perform expected duties; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that fire response employees wear the appropriate personal protective clothing and use the equipment, when necessary, to protect them from hazardous exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Thermal stability and flame resistance.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that each fire response employee exposed to the hazards of flame does not wear clothing that could increase the extent of injury that could be sustained; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibit wearing clothing made from acetate, nylon, or polyester, either alone or in blends, unless it can be shown that:
</P>
<P>(A) The fabric will withstand the flammability hazard that may be encountered; or
</P>
<P>(B) The clothing will be worn in such a way to eliminate the flammability hazard that may be encountered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respiratory protection.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) to all fire response employees involved in an emergency operation in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH), potentially IDLH, or unknown;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide SCBA to fire response employees performing emergency operations during hazardous chemical emergencies that will expose them to known hazardous chemicals in vapor form or to unknown chemicals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide fire response employees who perform or support emergency operations that will expose them to hazardous chemicals in liquid form either:
</P>
<P>(A) SCBA, or
</P>
<P>(B) Respiratory protective devices certified by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) under 42 CFR Part 84 as suitable for the specific chemical environment;
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that additional outside air supplies used in conjunction with SCBA result in positive pressure systems that are certified by NIOSH under 42 CFR Part 84;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide only SCBA that meet the requirements of NFPA 1981-2002 Standard on Open-Circuit Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus for Fire and Emergency Services (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Ensure that the respiratory protection program and all respiratory protection equipment comply with § 1915.154.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Interior structural firefighting operations.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Supply at no cost to all fire response employees exposed to the hazards of shipyard fire response, a helmet, gloves, footwear, and protective hoods, and either a protective coat and trousers or a protective coverall; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that this equipment meets the applicable recommendations in NFPA 1971-2000 Standard on Protective Ensemble for Structural Fire Fighting (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Proximity firefighting operations.</I> The employer must provide, at no cost, to all fire response employees who are exposed to the hazards of proximity firefighting, appropriate protective proximity clothing meets the applicable recommendations in NFPA 1976-2000 Standard on Protective Ensemble for Proximity Fire Fighting (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Personal Alert Safety System (PASS) devices.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide each fire response employee involved in firefighting operations with a PASS device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that each PASS device meets the recommendations in NFPA 1982-1998 Standard on Personal Alert Safety Systems (PASS), (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Life safety ropes, body harnesses, and hardware.</I> The employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) All life safety ropes, body harnesses, and hardware used by fire response employees for emergency operations meet the applicable recommendations in NFPA 1983-2001, Standard on Fire Service Life Safety Rope and System Components (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5);
</P>
<P>(ii) Fire response employees use only Class I body harnesses to attach to ladders and aerial devices; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Fire response employees use only Class II and Class III body harnesses for fall arrest and rappelling operations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equipment maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> The employer must inspect and maintain personal protective equipment used to protect fire response employees to ensure that it provides the intended protection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fire response equipment.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Keep fire response equipment in a state of readiness;
</P>
<P>(ii) Standardize all fire hose coupling and connection threads throughout the facility and on vessels and vessel sections by providing the same type of hose coupling and connection threads for hoses of the same or similar diameter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that either all fire hoses and coupling connection threads are the same within a facility or vessel or vessel section as those used by the outside fire response organization, or supply suitable adapter couplings if such an organization is expected to use the fire response equipment within a facility or vessel or vessel section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 55702, Sept. 15, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 60847, Oct. 17, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.506" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.506   Hazards of fixed extinguishing systems on board vessels and vessel sections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employer responsibilities.</I> The employer must comply with the provisions of this section whenever employees are exposed to fixed extinguishing systems that could create a dangerous atmosphere when activated in vessels and vessel sections, regardless of geographic location.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for automatic and manual systems.</I> Before any work is done in a space equipped with fixed extinguishing systems, the employer must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Physically isolate the systems or use other positive means to prevent the systems' discharge; or
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure employees are trained to recognize:
</P>
<P>(i) Systems' discharge and evacuation alarms and the appropriate escape routes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Hazards associated with the extinguishing systems and agents including the dangers of disturbing system components and equipment such as piping, cables, linkages, detection devices, activation devices, and alarm devices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sea and dock trials.</I> During trials, the employer must ensure that all systems shall remain operational.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Doors and hatches.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Take protective measures to ensure that all doors, hatches, scuttles, and other exit openings remain working and accessible for escape in the event the systems are activated; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that all inward opening doors, hatches, scuttles, and other potential barriers to safe exit are removed, locked open, braced, or otherwise secured so that they remain open and accessible for escape if systems' activation could result in a positive pressure in the protected spaces sufficient to impede escape.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Testing the system.</I> (1) When testing a fixed extinguishing system involves a total discharge of extinguishing medium into a space, the employer must evacuate all employees from the space and assure that no employees remain in the space during the discharge. The employer must retest the atmosphere in accordance with § 1915.12 to ensure that the oxygen levels are safe for employees to enter.
</P>
<P>(2) When testing a fixed extinguishing system does not involve a total discharge of the systems extinguishing medium, the employer must make sure that the system's extinguishing medium is physically isolated and that all employees not directly involved in the testing are evacuated from the protected space.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conducting system maintenance.</I> Before conducting maintenance on a fixed extinguishing system, the employer must ensure that the system is physically isolated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Using fixed manual extinguishing systems for fire protection.</I> If fixed manual extinguishing systems are used to provide fire protection for spaces in which the employees are working, the employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Only authorized employees are allowed to activate the system;
</P>
<P>(2) Authorized employees are trained to operate and activate the systems; and
</P>
<P>(3) All employees are evacuated from the protected spaces, and accounted for, before the fixed manual extinguishing system is activated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.507" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.507   Land-side fire protection systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employer responsibilities.</I> The employer must ensure all fixed and portable fire protection systems needed to meet an OSHA standard for employee safety or employee protection from fire hazards in land-side facilities, including, but not limited to, buildings, structures, and equipment, meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Portable fire extinguishers and hose systems.</I> (1) The employer must select, install, inspect, maintain, and test all portable fire extinguishers according to NFPA 10-2002 Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5).
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is permitted to use Class II or Class III hose systems, in accordance with NFPA 10-2002 (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5), as portable fire extinguishers if the employer selects, installs, inspects, maintains, and tests those systems according to the specific recommendations in NFPA 14-2003 Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements for fixed extinguishing systems.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that any fixed extinguishing system component or extinguishing agent is approved by an OSHA Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory, meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.7, for use on the specific hazards the employer expects it to control or extinguish;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify employees and take the necessary precautions to ensure employees are safe from fire if for any reason a fire extinguishing system stops working, until the system is working again;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure all repairs to fire extinguishing systems and equipment are done by a qualified technician or mechanic;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide and ensure employees use proper personal protective equipment when entering discharge areas in which the atmosphere remains hazardous to employee safety or health, or provide safeguards to prevent employees from entering those areas. See § 1915.12 for additional requirements applicable to safe entry into spaces containing dangerous atmospheres;
</P>
<P>(5) Post hazard warning or caution signs at both the entrance to and inside of areas protected by fixed extinguishing systems that use extinguishing agents in concentrations known to be hazardous to employee safety or health; and
</P>
<P>(6) Select, install, inspect, maintain, and test all automatic fire detection systems and emergency alarms according to NFPA 72-2002 National Fire Alarm Code (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5)
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fixed extinguishing systems.</I> The employer must select, install, maintain, inspect, and test all fixed systems required by OSHA as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Standpipe and hose systems according to NFPA 14-2003 Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5);
</P>
<P>(2) Automatic sprinkler systems according to NFPA 25-2002 Standard for the Inspection, Testing, and Maintenance of Water-based Fire Protection Systems, (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5), and either (i) NFPA 13-2002 Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5), or (ii) NFPA 750-2003 Standard on Water Mist Fire Protection Systems (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5);
</P>
<P>(3) Fixed extinguishing systems that use water or foam as the extinguishing agent according to NFPA 15-2001 Standard for Water Spray Fixed Systems for Fire Protection (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5) and NFPA 11-2005 Standard for Low-, Medium-, and High-Expansion Foam (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5);
</P>
<P>(4) Fixed extinguishing systems using dry chemical as the extinguishing agent according to NFPA 17-2002 Standard for Dry Chemical Extinguishing Systems (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5); and
</P>
<P>(5) Fixed extinguishing systems using gas as the extinguishing agent according to NFPA 12-2005 Standard on Carbon Dioxide Extinguishing Systems (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5); NFPA 12A-2004 Standard on Halon 1301 Fire Extinguishing Systems (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5); and NFPA 2001-2004 Standard on Clean Agent Fire Extinguishing Systems (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 55702, Sept. 15, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 60847, Oct. 17, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.508" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.508   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer must train employees in the applicable requirements of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 90 days of December 14, 2004, for employees currently working;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon initial assignment for new employees; and
</P>
<P>(3) When necessary to maintain proficiency for employees previously trained.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employee training.</I> The employer must ensure that all employees are trained on:
</P>
<P>(1) The emergency alarm signals, including system discharge alarms and employee evacuation alarms; and
</P>
<P>(2) The primary and secondary evacuation routes that employees must use in the event of a fire in the workplace. While all vessels and vessel sections must have a primary evacuation route, a secondary evacuation route is not required when impracticable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional training requirements for employees expected to fight incipient stage fires.</I> The employer must ensure that employees expected to fight incipient stage fires are trained on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The general principles of using fire extinguishers or hose lines, the hazards involved with incipient firefighting, and the procedures used to reduce these hazards;
</P>
<P>(2) The hazards associated with fixed and portable fire protection systems that employees may use or to which they may be exposed during discharge of those systems; and
</P>
<P>(3) The activation and operation of fixed and portable fire protection systems that the employer expects employees to use in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional training requirements for shipyard employees designated for fire response.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a written training policy stating that fire response employees must be trained and capable of carrying out their duties and responsibilities at all times;
</P>
<P>(2) Keep written standard operating procedures that address anticipated emergency operations and update these procedures as necessary;
</P>
<P>(3) Review fire response employee training programs and hands-on sessions before they are used in fire response training to make sure that fire response employees are protected from hazards associated with fire response training;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide training for fire response employees that ensures they are capable of carrying out their duties and responsibilities under the employer's standard operating procedures;
</P>
<P>(5) Train new fire response employees before they engage in emergency operations;
</P>
<P>(6) At least quarterly, provide training on the written operating procedures to fire response employees who are expected to fight fires;
</P>
<P>(7) Use qualified instructors to conduct the training;
</P>
<P>(8) Conduct any training that involves live fire response exercises in accordance with NFPA 1403-2002 Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5);
</P>
<P>(9) Conduct semi-annual drills according to the employer's written procedures for fire response employees that cover site-specific operations, occupancies, buildings, vessels and vessel sections, and fire-related hazards; and
</P>
<P>(10) Prohibit the use of smoke generating devices that create a dangerous atmosphere in training exercises.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional training requirements for fire watch duty.</I> (1) The employer must ensure that each fire watch is trained by an instructor with adequate fire watch knowledge and experience to cover the items as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Before being assigned to fire watch duty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever there is a change in operations that presents a new or different hazard;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the employer has reason to believe that the fire watch's knowledge, skills, or understanding of the training previously provided is inadequate; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Annually.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure that each employee who stands fire watch duty is trained in:
</P>
<P>(i) The basics of fire behavior, the different classes of fire and of extinguishing agents, the stages of fire, and methods for extinguishing fires;
</P>
<P>(ii) Extinguishing live fire scenarios whenever allowed by local and federal law;
</P>
<P>(iii) The recognition of the adverse health effects that may be caused by exposure to fire;
</P>
<P>(iv) The physical characteristics of the hot work area;
</P>
<P>(v) The hazards associated with fire watch duties;
</P>
<P>(vi) The personal protective equipment (PPE) needed to perform fire watch duties safely;
</P>
<P>(vii) The use of PPE;
</P>
<P>(viii) The selection and use of any fire extinguishers and fire hoses likely to be used by a fire watch in the work area;
</P>
<P>(ix) The location and use of barriers;
</P>
<P>(x) The means of communication designated by the employer for fire watches;
</P>
<P>(xi) When and how to start fire alarm procedures; and
</P>
<P>(xii) The employer's evacuation plan.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must ensure that each fire watch is trained to alert others to exit the space whenever:
</P>
<P>(i) The fire watch perceives an unsafe condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fire watch perceives that a worker performing hot work is in danger;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer or a representative of the employer orders an evacuation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An evacuation signal, such as an alarm, is activated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records.</I> The employer must keep records that demonstrate that employees have been trained as required by paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The employer must ensure that the records include the employee's name; the trainer's name; the type of training; and the date(s) on which the training took place.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must keep each training record for one year from the time it was made or until it is replaced with a new training record, whichever is shorter, and make it available for inspection and copying by OSHA on request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.509" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.509   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P><I>Alarm</I>—a signal or message from a person or device that indicates that there is a fire, medical emergency, or other situation that requires emergency response or evacuation. At some shipyards, this may be called an “incident” or a “call for service.”
</P>
<P><I>Alarm system</I>—a system that warns employees at the worksite of danger.
</P>
<P><I>Body harness</I>—a system of straps that may be secured about the employee in a manner that will distribute the fall arrest forces over at least the thighs, shoulders, chest, and pelvis, with means for attaching it to other components of a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P><I>Class II standpipe system</I>—a 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (3.8 cm) hose system which provides a means for the control or extinguishment of incipient stage fires.
</P>
<P><I>Contract employer</I>—an employer, such as a painter, joiner, carpenter, or scaffolding sub-contractor, who performs work under contract to the host employer or to another employer under contract to the host employer at the host employer's worksite. This excludes employers who provide incidental services that do not influence shipyard employment (such as mail delivery or office supply services).
</P>
<P><I>Dangerous atmosphere</I>—an atmosphere that may expose employees to the risk of death, incapacitation, injury, acute illness, or impairment of ability to self-rescue (<I>i.e.</I>, escape unaided from a confined or enclosed space).
</P>
<P><I>Designated area</I>—an area established for hot work after an inspection that is free of fire hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Drop Test</I>—a method utilizing gauges to ensure the integrity of an oxygen fuel gas burning system. The method requires that the burning torch is installed to one end of the oxygen and fuel gas lines and then the gauges are attached to the other end of the hoses. The manifold or cylinder supply valve is opened and the system is pressurized. The manifold or cylinder supply valve is then closed and the gauges are watched for at least sixty (60) seconds. Any drop in pressure indicates a leak.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency operations</I>—activities performed by fire response organizations that are related to: rescue, fire suppression, emergency medical care, and special operations or activities that include responding to the scene of an incident and all activities performed at that scene.
</P>
<P><I>Fire hazard</I>—a condition or material that may start or contribute to the spread of fire.
</P>
<P><I>Fire protection</I>—methods of providing fire prevention, response, detection, control, extinguishment, and engineering.
</P>
<P><I>Fire response</I>—the activity taken by the employer at the time of an emergency incident involving a fire at the worksite, including fire suppression activities carried out by internal or external resources or a combination of both, or total or partial employee evacuation of the area exposed to the fire.
</P>
<P><I>Fire response employee</I>—a shipyard employee who carries out the duties and responsibilities of shipyard firefighting in accordance with the fire safety plan.
</P>
<P><I>Fire response organization</I>—an organized group knowledgeable, trained, and skilled in shipyard firefighting operations that responds to shipyard fire emergencies, including: fire brigades, shipyard fire departments, private or contractual fire departments, and municipal fire departments.
</P>
<P><I>Fire suppression</I>—the activities involved in controlling and extinguishing fires.
</P>
<P><I>Fire watch</I>—the activity of observing and responding to the fire hazards associated with hot work in shipyard employment and the employees designated to do so.
</P>
<P><I>Fixed extinguishing system</I>—a permanently installed fire protection system that either extinguishes or controls fire occurring in the space it protects.
</P>
<P><I>Flammable liquid</I>—any liquid having a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), except any mixture having components with flashpoints of 100 °F (37.8 °C) or higher, the total of which make up 99 percent or more of the total volume of the mixture.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous substance</I>—a substance likely to cause injury by reason of being explosive, flammable, poisonous, corrosive, oxidizing, an irritant, or otherwise harmful.
</P>
<P><I>Hose systems</I>—fire protection systems consisting of a water supply, approved fire hose, and a means to control the flow of water at the output end of the hose.
</P>
<P><I>Host employer</I>—an employer who is in charge of coordinating work or who hires other employers to perform work at a multi-employer workplace.
</P>
<P><I>Incident management system</I>—a system that defines the roles and responsibilities to be assumed by personnel and the operating procedures to be used in the management and direction of emergency operations; the system is also referred to as an “incident command system” (ICS).
</P>
<P><I>Incipient stage fire</I>—a fire, in the initial or beginning stage, which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire extinguishers, Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P><I>Inerting</I>—the displacement of the atmosphere in a permit space by noncombustible gas (such as nitrogen) to such an extent that the resulting atmosphere is noncombustible. This procedure produces an IDLH oxygen-deficient atmosphere.
</P>
<P><I>Interior structural firefighting operations</I>—the physical activity of fire response, rescue, or both involving a fire beyond the incipient stage inside of buildings, enclosed structures, vessels, and vessel sections.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-employer workplace</I>—a workplace where there is a host employer and at least one contract employer.
</P>
<P><I>Personal Alert Safety System (PASS)</I>—a device that sounds a loud signal if the wearer becomes immobilized or is motionless for 30 seconds or more.
</P>
<P><I>Physical isolation</I>—the elimination of a fire hazard by removing the hazard from the work area (at least 35 feet for combustibles), by covering or shielding the hazard with a fire-resistant material, or physically preventing the hazard from entering the work area.
</P>
<P><I>Physically isolated</I>—positive isolation of the supply from the distribution piping of a fixed extinguishing system. Examples of ways to physically isolate include: removing a spool piece and installing a blank flange; providing a double block and bleed valve system; or completely disconnecting valves and piping from all cylinders or other pressure vessels containing extinguishing agents.
</P>
<P><I>Protected space</I>—any space into which a fixed extinguishing system can discharge.
</P>
<P><I>Proximity firefighting</I>—specialized fire-fighting operations that require specialized thermal protection and may include the activities of rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation at incidents involving fires producing very high levels of conductive, convective, and radiant heat such as aircraft fires, bulk flammable gas fires, and bulk flammable liquid fires. Proximity firefighting operations usually are exterior operations but may be combined with structural firefighting operations. Proximity firefighting is not entry firefighting.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified instructor</I>—a person with specific knowledge, training, and experience in fire response or fire watch activities to cover the material found in § 1915.508(b) or (c).
</P>
<P><I>Rescue</I>—locating endangered persons at an emergency incident, removing those persons from danger, treating the injured, and transporting the injured to an appropriate health care facility.
</P>
<P><I>Shipyard firefighting</I>—the activity of rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation involving buildings, enclosed structures, vehicles, vessels, aircraft, or similar properties involved in a fire or emergency situation.
</P>
<P><I>Small hose system</I>—a system of hoses ranging in diameter from 
<FR>5/8</FR>″ (1.6 cm) up to 1
<FR>1/2</FR>″ (3.8 cm) which is for the use of employees and which provides a means for the control and extinguishment of incipient stage fires.
</P>
<P><I>Standpipe</I>—a fixed fire protection system consisting of piping and hose connections used to supply water to approved hose lines or sprinkler systems. The hose may or may not be connected to the system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.14.6.10.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart P of Part 1915—Model Fire Safety Plan (Non-Mandatory)
</HEAD>
<HD1>Model Fire Safety Plan
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This appendix is non-mandatory and provides guidance to assist employers in establishing a Fire Safety Plan as required in § 1915.502.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>I. Purpose.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Work site fire hazards and how to properly control them.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Alarm systems and how to report fires.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. How to evacuate in different emergency situations.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V. Employee awareness.
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Purpose
</HD1>
<P>The purpose of this fire safety plan is to inform our employees of how we will control and reduce the possibility of fire in the workplace and to specify what equipment employees may use in case of fire.
</P>
<HD1>II. Work Site Fire Hazards and How To Properly Control Them
</HD1>
<P>A. Measures to contain fires.
</P>
<P>B. Teaching selected employees how to use fire protection equipment.
</P>
<P>C. What to do if you discover a fire.
</P>
<P>D. Potential ignition sources for fires and how to control them.
</P>
<P>E. Types of fire protection equipment and systems that can control a fire.
</P>
<P>F. The level of firefighting capability present in the facility, vessel, or vessel section.
</P>
<P>G. Description of the personnel responsible for maintaining equipment, alarms, and systems that are installed to prevent or control fire ignition sources, and to control fuel source hazards.
</P>
<HD1>III. Alarm Systems and How To Report Fires
</HD1>
<P>A. A demonstration of alarm procedures, if more than one type exists.
</P>
<P>B. The work site emergency alarm system.
</P>
<P>C. Procedures for reporting fires.
</P>
<HD1>IV. How To Evacuate in Different Emergency Situations
</HD1>
<P>A. Emergency escape procedures and route assignments.
</P>
<P>B. Procedures to account for all employees after completing an emergency evacuation.
</P>
<P>C. What type of evacuation is needed and what the employee's role is in carrying out the plan.
</P>
<P>D. Helping physically impaired employees.
</P>
<HD1>V. Employee Awareness
</HD1>
<P>Names, job titles, or departments of individuals who can be contacted for further information about this plan.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts Q-Y [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Z" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Z—Toxic and Hazardous Substances</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 35514, July 1, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1000" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1000   Air contaminants.</HEAD>
<P>Wherever this section applies, an employee's exposure to any substance listed in Table Z—Shipyards of this section shall be limited in accordance with the requirements of the following paragraphs of this section. 
</P>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Substances with limits preceded by “C”—Ceiling values.</I> An employee's exposure to any substance in Table Z—Shipyards, the exposure limit of which is preceded by a “C,” shall at no time exceed the exposure limit given for that substance. If instantaneous monitoring is not feasible, then the ceiling shall be assessed as a 15-minute time weighted average exposure which shall not be exceeded at any time over a working day. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other Substances—8-hour Time Weighted Averages.</I> An employee's exposure to any substance in Table Z—Shipyards, the exposure limit of which is not preceded by a “C,” shall not exceed the 8-hour Time Weighted Average given for that substance in any 8-hour work shift of a 40-hour work week.
</P>
<P>(b)-(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Computation formula.</I> The computation formula which shall apply to employee exposure to more than one substance for which 8-hour time weighted averages are listed in subpart Z of 29 CFR part 1915 in order to determine whether an employee is exposed over the regulatory limit is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The cumulative exposure for an 8-hour work shift shall be computed as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>E = (C<E T="52">a</E> T<E T="52">a</E> + C<E T="52">b</E> T<E T="52">b</E> + ...C<E T="52">n</E> T<E T="52">n</E>) ÷ 8
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E is the equivalent exposure for the working shift. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C is the concentration during any period of time T where the concentration remains constant. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T is the duration in hours of the exposure at the concentration C.
</FP-2>
<FP>The value of E shall not exceed the 8-hour time weighted average specified in subpart Z of 29 CFR part 1915 for the material involved.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) To illustrate the formula prescribed in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, assume that Substance A has an 8-hour time weighted average limit of 100 ppm noted in Table Z—Shipyards. Assume that an employee is subject to the following exposure:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Two hours exposure at 150 ppm
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Two hours exposure at 75 ppm
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Four hours exposure at 50 ppm
</FP-1>
<P>Substituting this information in the formula, we have
</P>
<FP-2>(2 × 150 + 2 × 75 + 4 × 50) ÷ 8 = 81.25 ppm
</FP-2>
<P>Since 81.25 ppm is less than 100 ppm, the 8-hour time weighted average limit, the exposure is acceptable. </P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2)(i) in case of a mixture of air contaminants an employer shall compute the equivalent exposure as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">m</E> = (C<E T="52">1</E> ÷ L<E T="52">1</E> + C<E T="52">2</E> ÷ L<E T="52">2</E>) + ...(C<E T="52">n</E> ÷ L<E T="52">n</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">m</E> is the equivalent exposure for the mixture.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C is the concentration of a particular contaminant.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L is the exposure limit for that substance specified in subpart Z of 29 CFR part 1915.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>The value of E<E T="52">m</E> shall not exceed unity (1).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) To illustrate the formula prescribed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, consider the following exposures:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Actual concentration of 8 hour exposure (ppm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8 hr. TWA PEL (ppm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Substituting in the formula, we have:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Em = 500 ÷ 1,000 + 45 ÷ 200 + 40 ÷ 200
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Em = 0.500 + 0.225 + 0.200
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Em = 0.925</P></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Since Em is less than unity (1), the exposure combination is within acceptable limits.
</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table Z—Shipyards
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CAS No. 
<sup>d</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ppm 
<sup>a *</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mg/m 
<sup>3 b *</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skin Designation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Abate; see Temephos
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-07-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-19-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-24-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-64-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetonitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-05-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Acetylaminofluorine; see § 1915.1014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53-96-3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-86-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetylene dichloride; see 1,2-Dichloroethylene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetylene tetrabromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-27-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrolein</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-02-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-06-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acrylonitrile; see § 1915.1045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-13-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aldrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">309-00-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-18-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-05-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl glycidyl ether (AGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-92-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)45</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allyl propyl disulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2179-59-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">alpha-Alumina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1344-28-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum, (as Al) Metal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7429-90-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alundum; see alpha-Alumina
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Aminodiphenyl; see § 1915.1011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-67-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Aminoethanol; see Ethanolamine
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Aminopyridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">504-29-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ammonium sulfamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7773-06-0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Amyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">628-63-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">525</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">sec-Amyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">626-38-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aniline and homologs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-53-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anisidine (o-, p-isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29191-52-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony and compounds (as Sb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-36-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANTU (alpha Naphthylthiourea)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86-88-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Argon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-37-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic, inorganic compounds (as As); see § 1915.1018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-38-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic, organic compounds (as As)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-38-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7784-42-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos; see 1915.1001
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Azinphos-methyl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86-50-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium, soluble compounds (as Ba)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7727-43-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benomyl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17804-35-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzene 
<sup>g</sup>; see § 1915.1028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-43-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzidine; see § 1915.1010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-87-5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Benzoquinone; see Quinone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzo(a)pyrene; see Coal tar pitch volatiles
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzoyl peroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-36-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-44-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium and beryllium compounds (as Be); see 1915.1024 <E T="51">(q)</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Biphenyl; see Diphenyl
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth telluride, Undoped</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1304-82-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bisphenol A; see Diglycidyl ether
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boron oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1303-86-2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boron tribromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10294-33-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boron trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7637-07-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7726-95-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine pentafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7789-30-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromoform</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-25-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butadiene (1,3-Butadiene); see 29 CFR 1910.1051; 29 CFR 1910.19(l)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-99-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>ppm/5
<br/>ppm
<br/>STEL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butanethiol; see Butyl mercaptan
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Butanone (Methyl ethyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-93-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">590</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Butoxyethanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-76-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Butyl-acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-86-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">710</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">sec-Butyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105-46-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">tert-Butyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540-88-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-36-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">sec-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-92-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">450</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">tert-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-65-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-73-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">tert-Butyl chromate (as CrO<E T="52">3</E>); see 1915.1026 
<sup>n</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1189-85-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Butyl glycidyl ether (BGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2426-08-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-79-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-tert-Butyltoluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-51-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium dust fume (as Cd); see 1915.1027</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-43-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium carbonate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium hydroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1305-62-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium hydroxide 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1305-78-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium silicate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1344-95-2 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7778-18-9 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Camphor, synthetic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-22-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbaryl (Sevin)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63-25-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon black</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1333-86-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124-38-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon disulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-15-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon monoxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">630-08-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon tetrachloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-23-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellulose</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9004-34-6 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlordane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-74-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated camphene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8001-35-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorinated diphenyl oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55720-99-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-50-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7790-91-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroacetaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-20-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">a-Chloroacetophenone (Phenacyl chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">532-27-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-90-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o-Chlorobenzylidene malononitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2698-41-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorobromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-97-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1050</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene; see beta-Chloroprene 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorodiphenyl (42% Chlorine) (PCB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53469-21-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorodiphenyl (54% Chlorine) (PCB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11097-69-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Chloro,2,3-epoxypropane; see Epichlorohydrin 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Chloroethanol; see Ethylene chlorohydrin 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroethylene; see Vinyl chloride 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloroform (Trichloromethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-66-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">bis(Chloromethyl) ether; see § 1915.1008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542-88-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloromethyl methyl ether; see § 1915.1006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-30-2 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Chloro-1-nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600-25-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chloropicrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-06-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">beta-Chloroprene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126-99-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Chloro-6-(trichloromethyl) pyridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1929-82-4 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium (II) compounds 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium (III) compounds 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium (VI) compounds; see 1915.1026 
<sup>o</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium metal and insol. salts (as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysene; see Coal tar pitch volatiles 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clopidol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2971-90-6 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coal tar pitch volatiles (benzene soluble fraction), anthracene, BaP, phenanthrene, acridine, chrysene, pyrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65966-93-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt metal, dust, and fume (as Co)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-48-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-50-8 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fume (as Cu)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dusts and mists (as Cu)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Corundum; see Emery 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cotton dust (raw)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crag herbicide (Sesone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136-78-7 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cresol, all isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1319-77-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crotonaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-73-9;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4170-30-3 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-82-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanides (as CN)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Varies with Compound</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyanogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">460-19-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-82-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1050</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-93-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-94-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-83-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1015</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclonite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-82-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclopentadiene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542-92-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4-D (Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-75-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decaborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17702-41-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Demeton (Systox)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8065-48-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diacetone alcohol (4-Hydroxy-4-methyl-2-pentanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-42-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Diaminoethane; see Ethylenediamine 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diazomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">334-88-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19287-45-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (CBCP); see § 1915.1044</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-12-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dibromoethane; see Ethylene dibromide 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-66-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dibutyl phthalate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84-74-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloroacetylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7572-29-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o-Dichlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-50-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Dichlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-46-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">450</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine; see § 1915.1007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-94-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorodifluoromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-71-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4950</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,3-Dichloro-5,5-dimethyl hydantoin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118-52-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-29-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1-Dichloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-34-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloroethane; see Ethylene dichloride 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540-59-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">790</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloroethyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-44-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)90</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloromethane; see Methylene chloride 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichloromonofluoromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-43-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1-Dichloro-1-nitroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594-72-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Dichloropropane; see Propylene dichloride 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorotetrafluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-14-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dichlorvos (DDVP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-73-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dicyclopentadienyl iron</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102-54-5 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dieldrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-57-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-89-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Diethylaminoethanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-37-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethylene triamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-40-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)42</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diethyl ether; see Ethyl ether 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Difluorodibromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-61-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">860</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diglycidyl ether (DGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2238-07-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)2.8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dihydroxybenzene; see Hydroquinone 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisobutyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-83-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">290</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diisopropylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-18-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene; see § 1915.1015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-11-7 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethoxymethane; see Methylal 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl acetamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127-19-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124-40-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylaminobenzene; see Xylidine 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylaniline (N,N-Dimethylaniline)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-69-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylbenzene; see Xylene 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl-1,2-dibromo- 2,2-dichloroethyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300-76-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylformamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68-12-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,6-Dimethyl-4-heptanone; see Diisobutyl ketone 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1-Dimethylhydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-14-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethylphthalate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">131-11-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimethyl sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77-78-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinitrobenzene (all isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ortho)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">528-29-0 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(meta)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-65-0 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(para)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-25-4 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinitro-o-cresol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">534-52-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinitrotoluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25321-14-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dioxane (Diethylene dioxide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-91-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenyl (Biphenyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-52-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122-39-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Diphenylmethane diisocyanate; see Methylene bisphenyl isocyanate 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dipropylene glycol methyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34590-94-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Di-sec octyl phthalate (Di-(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117-81-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12415-34-8 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endosulfan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115-29-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72-20-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Epichlorohydrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-89-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">EPN</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2104-64-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2-Epoxypropane; see Propylene oxide 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,3-Epoxy-1-propanol; see Glycidol 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-84-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethanethiol; see Ethyl mercaptan 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethanolamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-43-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Ethoxyethanol (Cellosolve)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-80-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Ethoxyethyl acetate (Cellosolve acetate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-15-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-78-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl acrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140-88-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-17-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1900</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-04-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl amyl ketone (5-Methyl-3-heptanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">541-85-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl benzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-41-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">435</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-96-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">890</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl butyl ketone (3-Heptanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-35-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-00-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2600</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-29-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl formate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-94-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-08-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl silicate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-10-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">850</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-85-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene chlorohydrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-07-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylenediamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-15-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dibromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-93-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)190</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene dichloride (1,2-Dichloroethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-06-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol dinitrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">628-96-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene glycol methyl acetate; see Methyl cellosolve acetate 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyleneimine; see § 1915.1012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151-56-4 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylene oxide; see § 1915.1047</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-21-8 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethylidene chloride; see 1,1-Dichloroethane 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-Ethylmorpholine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-74-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ferbam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14484-64-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ferrovanadium dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12604-58-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fibrous Glass 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorides (as F)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Varies with compound</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-41-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorotrichloromethane (Trichlorofluoromethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-69-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5600</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formaldehyde; see § 1915.1048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-00-0 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Formic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-18-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furfural</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-01-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furfuryl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-00-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gasoline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8006-61-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">A 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycerin (mist)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-81-5 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycidol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">556-52-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol monoethyl ether; see 2-Ethoxyethanol 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Graphite, natural, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-42-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Graphite, synthetic
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guthion; see Azinphos methyl 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gypsum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13397-24-5 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-58-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Helium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-59-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heptachlor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-44-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heptane (n-Heptane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142-82-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexachloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-72-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1335-87-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Hexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-54-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1800</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Hexanone (Methyl n-butyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591-78-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hexone (Methyl isobutyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-10-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">sec-Hexyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-84-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">302-01-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1333-74-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10035-10-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7647-01-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen cyanide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-90-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen fluoride (as F)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen peroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7722-84-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen selenide (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-07-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen sulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-06-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydroquinone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-31-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-13-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium and compounds (as In)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-74-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7553-56-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1309-37-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron salts (soluble) (as Fe)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Varies with compound</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isoamyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-92-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">525</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isoamyl alcohol (primary and secondary)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-51-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-19-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isobutyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-83-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isophorone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-59-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-21-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-63-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">980</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-31-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-20-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Isopropyl glycidyl ether (IGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4016-14-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kaolin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1332-58-7 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ketene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">463-51-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead, inorganic (as Pb); see § 1915.1025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-92-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Limestone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lindane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58-89-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium hydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7580-67-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.025</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L.P.G. (Liquefied petroleum gas)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68476-85-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1800 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">546-93-0 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1309-48-4 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total particulate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Malathion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-75-5 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maleic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-31-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese compounds (as Mn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-96-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese fume (as Mn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-96-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marble</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury (aryl and inorganic)(as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury (organo) alkyl compounds (as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury (vapor) (as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mesityl oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-79-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-82-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methanethiol; see Methyl mercaptan 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methoxychlor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72-43-5 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Methoxyethanol (Methyl cellosolve)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-86-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Methoxyethyl acetate (Methyl cellosolve acetate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-49-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-20-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acetylene (Propyne)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-99-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1650</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acetylene-propadiene mixture (MAPP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1800</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl acrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-33-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylal (Dimethoxy-methane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-87-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-56-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-89-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl amyl alcohol; see Methyl isobutyl carbinol 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl n-amyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-43-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">465</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-83-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)80</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl butyl ketone; see 2-Hexanone 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl cellosolve; see 2-Methoxyethanol 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl cellosolve acetate; see 2-Methoxyethyl acetate 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-87-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl chloroform (1,1,1-Trichloroethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-55-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1900</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylcyclohexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-87-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylcyclohexanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25639-42-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">470</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o-Methylcyclohexanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">583-60-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">460</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylene chloride; see § 1910.1052 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK); see 2-Butanone 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl formate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-31-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl hydrazine (Monomethyl hydrazine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-34-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl iodide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-88-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isoamyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-12-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">475</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isobutyl carbinol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-11-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isobutyl ketone; see Hexone 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl isocyanate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">624-83-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-93-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl methacrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-62-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl propyl ketone; see 2-Pentanone 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl silicate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">681-84-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">alpha-Methyl styrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-83-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)480</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methylene bisphenyl isocyanate (MDI)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101-68-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mica; see Silicates 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mineral wool 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum (as Mo)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-98-7 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Insoluble compounds 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"> Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monomethyl aniline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-61-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Monomethyl hydrazine; see Methyl hydrazine 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Morpholine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-91-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphtha (Coal tar)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8030-30-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-20-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">alpha-Naphthylamine; see § 1915.1004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134-32-7 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">beta-Naphthylamine; see § 1915.1009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-59-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-01-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel carbonyl (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13463-39-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.007</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel, metal and insoluble compounds (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-02-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel, soluble compounds (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-02-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nicotine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54-11-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7697-37-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitric oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-43-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Nitroaniline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-01-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-95-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Nitrochlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-00-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-Nitrodiphenyl; see § 1915.1003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-93-3 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-24-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">310</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7727-37-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-44-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-54-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitroglycerin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55-63-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-52-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-Nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-03-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-46-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-Nitrosodimethylamine; see § 1915.1016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-79-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrotoluene (all isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">o-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88-72-2; 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">m-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-08-1; 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">p-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-99-0 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrotrichloromethane; see Chloropicrin 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrous oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10024-97-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">E 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2234-13-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Octane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-65-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1900</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil mist, mineral</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8012-95-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium tetroxide (as Os)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20816-12-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxalic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144-62-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxygen difluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-41-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ozone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10028-15-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Paraquat, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4685-14-7;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1910-42-5; 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2074-50-2 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parathion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-38-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Particulates not otherwise regulated 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust organic and inorganic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PCB; see Chlorodiphenyl (42% and 54% chlorine)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19624-22-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1321-64-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentachlorophenol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87-86-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentaerythritol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115-77-5 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pentane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-66-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2-Pentanone (Methyl propyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-87-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloroethylene (Tetrachloroethylene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127-18-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">670</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloromethyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594-42-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perchloryl fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7616-94-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perlite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93763-70-3 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum distillates (Naphtha)(Rubber Solvent)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">A 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-95-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">p-Phenylene diamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-50-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl ether, vapor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101-84-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl ether-biphenyl mixture, vapor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenylethylene; see Styrene 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenyl glycidyl ether (PGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122-60-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phenylhydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-63-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosdrin (Mevinphos)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7786-34-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosgene (Carbonyl chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-44-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-51-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphoric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-38-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus (yellow)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7723-14-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus pentachloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10026-13-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus pentasulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-80-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus trichloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7719-12-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phthalic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-44-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Picloram</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1918-02-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Picric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88-89-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Piperazine dihydrochloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142-64-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pindone (2-Pivalyl-1,3-indandione)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83-26-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plaster of Paris</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26499-65-0 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum (as Pt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-06-4 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Metal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polytetrafluoroethylene decomposition products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">A 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Portland cement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65997-15-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propargyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-19-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">beta-Propriolactone; see § 1915.1013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-57-8 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propionic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-09-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Propyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-60-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">840</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Propyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-23-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">n-Propyl nitrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">627-13-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene dichloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-87-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene imine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-55-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propylene oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-56-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyne; see Methyl acetylene 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pyrethrum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8003-34-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pyridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-86-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quinone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-51-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RDX; see Cyclonite 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium (as Rh), metal fume and insoluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-16-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium (as Rh), soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-16-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ronnel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">299-84-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rotenone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83-79-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rouge</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium compounds (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-49-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium hexafluoride (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-79-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica, amorphous, precipitated and gel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112926-00-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica, amorphous, diatomaceous earth, containing less than 1% crystalline silica</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61790-53-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica, crystalline, respirable dust
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cristobalite; see 1915.1053</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14464-46-1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Quartz; see 1915.1053 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14808-60-7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tripoli (as quartz); see 1915.1053 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-95-9
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tridymite; see 1915.1053</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15468-32-3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silica, fused, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60676-86-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicates (less than 1% crystalline silica) 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Mica (respirable dust)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12001-26-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soapstone, total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soapstone, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Talc (containing asbestos)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Talc (containing no asbestos), respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14807-96-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tremolite, asbestiform</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-21-3 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon carbide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">409-21-2 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver, metal and soluble compounds (as Ag)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-22-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soapstone; see Silicates 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium fluoroacetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-74-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium hydroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1310-73-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Starch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9005-25-8 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stibine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-52-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stoddard solvent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8052-41-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1150</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strychnine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-24-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Styrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-42-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">420</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sucrose</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-50-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7446-09-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur hexafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2551-62-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfuric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-93-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur monochloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10025-67-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur pentafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5714-22-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfuryl fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2699-79-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Systox, see Demeton 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,5-T (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxyacetic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93-76-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Talc; see Silicates— 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum, metal and oxide dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-25-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TEDP (Sulfotep)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3689-24-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Teflon decomposition products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">A2 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium and compounds (as Te)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13494-80-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium hexafluoride (as Te)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-80-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Temephos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3383-96-8 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TEPP (Tetraethyl pyrophosphate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-49-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terphenyls</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26140-60-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-2,2-difluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-11-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4170</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-1,2-difluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-12-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4170</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-34-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachloroethylene; see Perchloroethylene 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachloromethane; see Carbon tetrachloride 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1335-88-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetraethyl lead (as Pb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-00-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-99-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">590</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethyl lead, (as Pb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-74-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetramethyl succinonitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3333-52-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetranitromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">509-14-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tetryl (2,4,6-Trinitrophenylmethylnitramine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">479-45-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium, soluble compounds (as Tl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-28-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,4′-Thiobis (6-tert, Butyl-m-cresol)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-69-5 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thiram</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">137-26-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin, inorganic compounds (except oxides) (as Sn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-31-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin, organic compounds (as Sn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-31-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin oxide (as Sn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21651-19-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13463-67-7 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-88-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene-2,4-diisocyanate (TDI)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">584-84-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.14</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">o-Toluidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-53-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toxaphene; see Chlorinated camphene 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite; see Silicates 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tributyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126-73-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,1-Trichloroethane; see Methyl chloroform 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2-Trichloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-00-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-01-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">535</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloromethane; see Chloroform
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trichloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1321-65-9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2,3-Trichloropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-18-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-13-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7600</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-44-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trifluorobromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-63-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trimethyl benzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25551-13-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,6-Trinitrophenyl; see Picric acid 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,6-Trinitrophenylmethylnitramine; see Tetryl 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,4,6-Trinitrotoluene (TNT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118-96-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triorthocresyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-30-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triphenyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115-86-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten (as W)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-33-7 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Insoluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turpentine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8006-64-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">560</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium (as U)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-61-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Insoluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-62-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable dust (as V<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fume (as V<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vegetable oil mist
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl benzene; see Styrene 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl chloride; see § 1915.1017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-01-4 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl cyanide; see Acrylonitrile 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vinyl toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25013-15-4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">480</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warfarin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81-81-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylenes (o-, m-, p-isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1330-20-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">435</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1300-73-8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-65-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc chloride fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7646-85-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-13-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-13-2 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc stearate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">557-05-1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium compounds (as Zr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-67-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Mineral Dusts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mppcf <E T="51">(j)</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SILICA:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crystalline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250 <E T="51">(k)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quartz. Threshold Limit calculated from the formula <E T="51">(p)</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">% SiO<E T="52">2</E> + 5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cristobalite 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Amorphous, including natural diatomaceous earth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SILICATES (less than 1% crystalline silica) 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mica</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Portland cement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Soapstone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Talc (non-asbestiform)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Talc (fibrous), use asbestos limit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">— 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Graphite (natural)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inert or Nuisance Particulates: <E T="51">(m)</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 (or 15 mg/m
<sup>3</sup> whichever is the smaller) of total dust &lt;1% SiO<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Conversion factors 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">mppcf × 35.3 = million particles per cubic meter = particles per c.c.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Footnotes to Table Z—Shipyards: 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> [Reserved] 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> See Mineral Dusts Table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Use Asbestos Limit § 1915.1001.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> See 1915.1001. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> See Mineral Dusts table for the exposure limit for any operations or sectors where the exposure limit in § 1915.1053 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* The PELs are 8-hour TWAs unless otherwise noted; a (C) designation denotes a ceiling limit. They are to be determined from breathing-zone air samples. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Parts of vapor or gas per million parts of contaminated air by volume at 25 °C and 760 torr. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Milligrams of substance per cubic meter of air. When entry is in this column only, the value is exact; when listed with a ppm entry, it is approximate. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> [Reserved] 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> The CAS number is for information only. Enforcement is based on the substance name. For an entry covering more than one metal compound, measured as the metal, the CAS number for the metal is given—not CAS numbers for the individual compounds. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">e-f</E> [Reserved] 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> For sectors excluded from § 1915.1028 the limit is 10 ppm TWA. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>h</sup> Where OSHA has published a proposal for a substance but has not issued a final rule, the proposal is referenced and the existing limit is published. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>i</sup> [Reserved] 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>j</sup> Millions of particles per cubic foot of air, based on impinger samples counted by light-field techniques. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>k</sup> The percentage of crystalline silica in the formula is the amount determined from airborne samples, except in those instances in which other methods have been shown to be applicable. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>m</sup> Covers all organic and inorganic particulates not otherwise regulated. Same as Particulates Not Otherwise Regulated.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>n</sup> If the exposure limit in § 1915.1026 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect, the exposure limit is a ceiling of 0.1 mg/m
<sup>3</sup>.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>o</sup> If the exposure limit in § 1915.1026 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect, the exposure limit is 0.1 mg/m
<sup>3</sup> (as CrO<E T="52">3</E>) as an 8-hour TWA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>p</sup> This standard applies to any operations or sectors for which the respirable crystalline silica standard, 1915.1053, is stayed or otherwise is not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>q</sup> This standard applies to any operations or sectors for which the beryllium standard, 1915.1024, is stayed or otherwise is not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">The 1970 TLV uses letter designations instead of a numerical value as follows: 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">A 
<sup>1</sup> [Reserved] 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">A 
<sup>2</sup> Polytetrafluoroethylene decomposition products. Because these products decompose in part by hydrolysis in alkaline solution, they can be quantitatively determined in air as fluoride to provide an index of exposure. No TLV is recommended pending determination of the toxicity of the products, but air concentrations should be minimal. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">A 
<sup>3</sup> Gasoline and/or Petroleum Distillates. The composition of these materials varies greatly and thus a single TLV for all types of these materials is no longer applicable. The content of benzene, other aromatics and additives should be determined to arrive at the appropriate TLV. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">E Simple asphyxiants. The limiting factor is the available oxygen which shall be at least 18% and be within the requirement addressing explosion in subpart B of part 1915.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35514, July 1, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 56856, Nov. 4, 1996; 62 FR 1619, Jan. 10, 1997; 67 FR 44545, July 3, 2002; 71 FR 10377, Feb. 28, 2006; 71 FR 36009, June 23, 2006; 76 FR 80740, Dec. 27, 2011; 81 FR 16874, Mar. 2 2016; 81 FR 31167, May 19, 2016; 81 FR 60273, Sept. 2, 2016; 82 FR 2744, Jan. 9, 2017]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1001" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1001   Asbestos.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section regulates asbestos exposure in all shipyard employment work as defined in 29 CFR part 1915, including but not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Demolition or salvage of structures, vessels, and vessel sections where asbestos is present; 
</P>
<P>(2) Removal or encapsulation of materials containing asbestos; 
</P>
<P>(3) Construction, alteration, repair, maintenance, or renovation of vessels, vessel sections, structures, substrates, or portions thereof, that contain asbestos; 
</P>
<P>(4) Installation of products containing asbestos; 
</P>
<P>(5) Asbestos spill/emergency cleanup; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Transportation, disposal, storage, containment of and housekeeping activities involving asbestos or products containing asbestos, on the site or location at which construction activities are performed.
</P>
<P>(7) Coverage under this standard shall be based on the nature of the work operation involving asbestos exposure.
</P>
<P>(8) This section does not apply to asbestos-containing asphalt roof cements, coatings and mastics.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Aggressive method</I> means removal or disturbance of building/vessel materials by sanding, abrading, grinding, or other method that breaks, crumbles, or otherwise disintegrates intact ACM.
</P>
<P><I>Amended water</I> means water to which surfactant (wetting agent) has been added to increase the ability of the liquid to penetrate ACM.
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos</I> includes chrysotile, amosite, crocidolite, tremolite asbestos, anthophyllite asbestos, actinolite asbestos, and any of these minerals that has been chemically treated and/or altered. For purposes of this standard, <I>asbestos</I> includes PACM, as defined below.
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos-containing material,</I> (ACM) means any material containing more than one percent asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person authorized by the employer and required by work duties to be present in regulated areas.
</P>
<P><I>Building/facility/vessel owner</I> is the legal entity, including a lessee, which exercises control over management and record keeping functions relating to a building, facility, and/or vessel in which activities covered by this standard take place. 
</P>
<P><I>Certified Industrial Hygienist</I> (CIH) means one certified in the practice of industrial hygiene by the American Board of Industrial Hygiene. 
</P>
<P><I>Class I asbestos work</I> means activities involving the removal of thermal system insulation or surfacing ACM/PACM. 
</P>
<P><I>Class II asbestos work</I> means activities involving the removal of ACM which is neither TSI or surfacing ACM. This includes, but is not limited to, the removal of asbestos-containing wallboard, floor tile and sheeting, roofing and siding shingles, and construction mastics. 
</P>
<P><I>Class III asbestos work</I> means repair and maintenance operations, where “ACM”, including TSI and surfacing ACM and PACM, is likely to be disturbed. 
</P>
<P><I>Class IV asbestos work</I> means maintenance and custodial activities during which employees contact but do not disturb ACM or PACM and activities to clean up dust, waste and debris resulting from Class I, II, and III activities. 
</P>
<P><I>Clean room</I> means an uncontaminated room having facilities for the storage of employees' street clothing and uncontaminated materials and equipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Closely resemble</I> means that the major workplace conditions which have contributed to the levels of historic asbestos exposure, are no more protective than conditions of the current workplace. 
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> see <I>qualified person.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Critical barrier</I> means one or more layers of plastic sealed over all openings into a work area or any other physical barrier sufficient to prevent airborne asbestos in a work area from migrating to an adjacent area. 
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination area</I> means an enclosed area adjacent and connected to the regulated area and consisting of an equipment room, shower area, and clean room, which is used for the decontamination of workers, materials, and equipment that are contaminated with asbestos. 
</P>
<P><I>Demolition</I> means the wrecking or taking out of any load-supporting structural member and any related razing, removing, or stripping of asbestos products. 
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Disturbance</I> means activities that disrupt the matrix of ACM or PACM, crumble or pulverize ACM or PACM, or generate visible debris from ACM or PACM. Disturbance includes cutting away small amounts of ACM and PACM, no greater than the amount which can be contained in one standard sized glove bag or waste bag, in order to access a building or vessel component. In no event shall the amount of ACM or PACM so disturbed exceed that which can be contained in one glove bag or waste bag which shall not exceed 60 inches in length and width. 
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means that exposure to airborne asbestos that would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protective equipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Equipment room</I> (change room) means a contaminated room located within the decontamination area that is supplied with impermeable bags or containers for the disposal of contaminated protective clothing and equipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Fiber</I> means a particulate form of asbestos, 5 micrometers or longer, with a length-to-diameter ratio of at least 3 to 1. 
</P>
<P><I>Glovebag</I> means not more than a 60 × 60 inch impervious plastic bag-like enclosure affixed around an asbestos-containing material, with glove-like appendages through which material and tools may be handled. 
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter</I> means a filter capable of trapping and retaining at least 99.97 percent of all mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter. 
</P>
<P><I>Homogeneous area</I> means an area of surfacing material or thermal system insulation that is uniform in color and texture. 
</P>
<P><I>Industrial hygienist</I> means a professional qualified by education, training, and experience to anticipate, recognize, evaluate and develop controls for occupational health hazards. 
</P>
<P><I>Intact</I> means that the ACM has not crumbled, been pulverized, or otherwise deteriorated so that the asbestos is no longer likely to be bound with its matrix. 
</P>
<P><I>Modification</I> for purposes of paragraph (g)(6)(ii) of this section means a changed or altered procedure, material or component of a control system, which replaces a procedure, material or component of a required system. Omitting a procedure or component, or reducing or diminishing the stringency or strength of a material or component of the control system is not a “modification” for purposes of paragraph (g)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Negative Initial Exposure Assessment</I> means a demonstration by the employer, which complies with the criteria in paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, that employee exposure during an operation is expected to be consistently below the PELs. 
</P>
<P><I>PACM</I> means <I>presumed asbestos containing material.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Presumed asbestos containing material</I> means thermal system insulation and surfacing material found in buildings, vessels, and vessel sections constructed no later than 1980. The designation of a material as “PACM” may be rebutted pursuant to paragraph (k)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Project Designer</I> means a person who has successfully completed the training requirements for an abatement project designer established by 40 U.S.C. § 763.90(g). 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person</I> means, in addition to the definition in 29 CFR 1926.32(f), one who is capable of identifying existing asbestos hazards in the workplace and selecting the appropriate control strategy for asbestos exposure, who has the authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them, as specified in 29 CFR 1926.32(f); in addition, for Class I and Class II work who is specially trained in a training course which meets the criteria of EPA's Model Accreditation Plan (40 CFR part 763) for supervisor, or its equivalent, and for Class III and Class IV work, who is trained in a manner consistent with EPA requirements for training of local education agency maintenance and custodial staff as set forth at 40 CFR 763.92(a)(2). 
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area established by the employer to demarcate areas where Class I, II, and III asbestos work is conducted, and any adjoining area where debris and waste from such asbestos work accumulate; and a work area within which airborne concentrations of asbestos, exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed the permissible exposure limit. Requirements for regulated areas are set out in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Removal</I> means all operations where ACM and/or PACM is taken out or stripped from structures or substrates, and includes demolition operations. 
</P>
<P><I>Renovation</I> means the modifying of any existing vessel, vessel section, structure, or portion thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Repair</I> means overhauling, rebuilding, reconstructing, or reconditioning of vessels, vessel sections, structures or substrates, including encapsulation or other repair of ACM or PACM attached to structures or substrates.
</P>
<P><I>Surfacing material</I> means material that is sprayed, troweled-on or otherwise applied to surfaces (such as acoustical plaster on ceilings and fireproofing materials on structural members, or other materials on surfaces for acoustical, fireproofing, and other purposes). 
</P>
<P><I>Surfacing ACM</I> means surfacing material which contains more than 1% asbestos. 
</P>
<P><I>Thermal system insulation</I> (TSI) means ACM applied to pipes, fittings, boilers, breeching, tanks, ducts or other structural components to prevent heat loss or gain. 
</P>
<P><I>Thermal system insulation ACM</I> is thermal system insulation which contains more than 1% asbestos. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits (PELS)</I>—(1) <I>Time-weighted average limit (TWA).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of asbestos in excess of 0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air as an eight (8) hour time-weighted average (TWA), as determined by the method prescribed in appendix A to this section, or by an equivalent method. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excursion limit.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of asbestos in excess of 1.0 fiber per cubic centimeter of air (1 f/cc) as averaged over a sampling period of thirty (30) minutes, as determined by the method prescribed in appendix A to this section, or by an equivalent method. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multi-employer worksites.</I> (1) On multi-employer worksites, an employer performing work requiring the establishment of a regulated area shall inform other employers on the site of the nature of the employer's work with asbestos and/or PACM, of the existence of and requirements pertaining to regulated areas, and the measures taken to ensure that employees of such other employers are not exposed to asbestos. 
</P>
<P>(2) Asbestos hazards at a multi-employer worksite shall be abated by the contractor who created or controls the source of asbestos contamination. For example, if there is a significant breach of an enclosure containing Class I work, the employer responsible for erecting the enclosure shall repair the breach immediately. 
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, all employers of employees exposed to asbestos hazards shall comply with applicable protective provisions to protect their employees. For example, if employees working immediately adjacent to a Class I asbestos job are exposed to asbestos due to the inadequate containment of such job, their employer shall either remove the employees from the area until the enclosure breach is repaired; or perform an initial exposure assessment pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) All employers of employees working adjacent to regulated areas established by another employer on a multi-employer worksite shall take steps on a daily basis to ascertain the integrity of the enclosure and/or the effectiveness of the control method relied on by the primary asbestos contractor to assure that asbestos fibers do not migrate to such adjacent areas. 
</P>
<P>(5) All general contractors on a shipyard project which includes work covered by this standard shall be deemed to exercise general supervisory authority over the work covered by this standard, even though the general contractor is not qualified to serve as the asbestos “qualified person” as defined by paragraph (b) of this section. As supervisor of the entire project, the general contractor shall ascertain whether the asbestos contractor is in compliance with this standard, and shall require such contractor to come into compliance with this standard when necessary. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) All Class I, II and III asbestos work shall be conducted within regulated areas. All other operations covered by this standard shall be conducted within a regulated area where airborne concentrations of asbestos exceed, or there is a reasonable possibility they may exceed a PEL. Regulated areas shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (e) (2), (3), (4) and (5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> The regulated area shall be demarcated in any manner that minimizes the number of persons within the area and protects persons outside the area from exposure to airborne asbestos. Where critical barriers or negative pressure enclosures are used, they may demarcate the regulated area. Signs shall be provided and displayed pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (k)(7) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons and to persons authorized by the Act or regulations issued pursuant thereto. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Respirators.</I> All persons entering a regulated area where employees are required pursuant to paragraph (h)(1) of this section to wear respirators shall be supplied with a respirator selected in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in the regulated area. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Qualified persons.</I> The employer shall ensure that all asbestos work performed within regulated areas is supervised by a qualified person, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. The duties of the qualified person are set out in paragraph (o) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exposure assessments and monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General monitoring criteria.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or work operation where exposure monitoring is required under this section shall perform monitoring to determine accurately the airborne concentrations of asbestos to which employees may be exposed. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of the 8-hour TWA and 30-minute short-term exposures of each employee. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Representative 8-hour TWA employee exposure shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing full-shift exposure for employees in each work area. Representative 30-minute short-term employee exposures shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing 30 minute exposures associated with operations that are most likely to produce exposures above the excursion limit for employees in each work area. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial exposure assessment.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this standard shall ensure that a “qualified person” conducts an exposure assessment immediately before or at the initiation of the operation to ascertain expected exposures during that operation or workplace. The assessment must be completed in time to comply with requirements which are triggered by exposure data or the lack of a “negative exposure assessment,” and to provide information necessary to assure that all control systems planned are appropriate for that operation and will work properly. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Basis of initial exposure assessment.</I> Unless a negative exposure assessment has been made pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, the initial exposure assessment shall, if feasible, be based on monitoring conducted pursuant to paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section. The assessment shall take into consideration both the monitoring results and all observations, information or calculations which indicate employee exposure to asbestos, including any previous monitoring conducted in the workplace, or of the operations of the employer which indicate the levels of airborne asbestos likely to be encountered on the job. For Class I asbestos work, until the employer conducts exposure monitoring and documents that employees on that job will not be exposed in excess of the PELs, or otherwise makes a negative exposure assessment pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, the employer shall presume that employees are exposed in excess of the TWA and excursion limit. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Negative initial exposure assessment.</I> For any one specific asbestos job which will be performed by employees who have been trained in compliance with the standard, the employer may demonstrate that employee exposures will be below the PELs by data which conform to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Objective data demonstrating that the product or material containing asbestos minerals or the activity involving such product or material cannot release airborne fibers in concentrations exceeding the TWA and excursion limit under those work conditions having the greatest potential for releasing asbestos; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the employer has monitored prior asbestos jobs for the PEL and the excursion limit within 12 months of the current or projected job, the monitoring and analysis were performed in compliance with the asbestos standard in effect; and the data were obtained during work operations conducted under workplace conditions “closely resembling” the processes, type of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions used and prevailing in the employer's current operations, the operations were conducted by employees whose training and experience are no more extensive than that of employees performing the current job, and these data show that under the conditions prevailing and which will prevail in the current workplace there is a high degree of certainty that employee exposures will not exceed the TWA and excursion limit; or
</P>
<P>(C) The results of initial exposure monitoring of the current job made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of the 8-hour TWA and 30-minute short-term exposures of each employee covering operations which are most likely during the performance of the entire asbestos job to result in exposures over the PELs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring</I>—(i) <I>Class I and II operations.</I> The employer shall conduct daily monitoring that is representative of the exposure of each employee who is assigned to work within a regulated area who is performing Class I or II work, unless the employer pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, has made a negative exposure assessment for the entire operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>All operations under the standard other than Class I and II operations.</I> The employer shall conduct periodic monitoring of all work where exposures are expected to exceed a PEL, at intervals sufficient to document the validity of the exposure prediction. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exception.</I> When all employees required to be monitored daily are equipped with supplied-air respirators operated in the pressure demand mode, or other positive pressure mode respirator, the employer may dispense with the daily monitoring required by this paragraph. However, employees performing Class I work using a control method which is not listed in paragraph (g)(4) (i), (ii), or (iii) of this section or using a modification of a listed control method, shall continue to be monitored daily even if they are equipped with supplied-air respirators.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> (i) If the periodic monitoring required by paragraph (f)(3) of this section reveals that employee exposures, as indicated by statistically reliable measurements, are below the permissible exposure limit and excursion limit the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (f) (2) and (3), and (f)(4) of this section, the employer shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraph (f)(3) of this section whenever there has been a change in process, control equipment, personnel or work practices that may result in new or additional exposures above the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit or when the employer has any reason to suspect that a change may result in new or additional exposures above the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit. Such additional monitoring is required regardless of whether a “negative exposure assessment” was previously produced for a specific job.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> The employer must, as soon as possible but no later than 5 days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall provide affected employees and their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to asbestos conducted in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to asbestos requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the observer shall be provided with and be required to use such clothing and equipment and shall comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering controls and work practices for all operations covered by this section.</I> The employer shall use the following engineering controls and work practices in all operations covered by this section, regardless of the levels of exposure:
</P>
<P>(i) Vacuum cleaners equipped with HEPA filters to collect all debris and dust containing ACM and PACM, except as provided in paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section in the case of roofing material; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Wet methods, or wetting agents, to control employee exposures during asbestos handling, mixing, removal, cutting, application, and cleanup, except where employers demonstrate that the use of wet methods is infeasible due to for example, the creation of electrical hazards, equipment malfunction, and, in roofing, except as provided in paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Prompt clean-up and disposal of wastes and debris contaminated with asbestos in leak-tight containers except in roofing operations, where the procedures specified in paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section apply. 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section above, the employer shall use the following control methods to achieve compliance with the TWA permissible exposure limit and excursion limit prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(i) Local exhaust ventilation equipped with HEPA filter dust collection systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enclosure or isolation of processes producing asbestos dust; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ventilation of the regulated area to move contaminated air away from the breathing zone of employees and toward a filtration or collection device equipped with a HEPA filter; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of other work practices and engineering controls that the Assistant Secretary can show to be feasible. 
</P>
<P>(v) Wherever the feasible engineering and work practice controls described above are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels attainable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibitions.</I> The following work practices and engineering controls shall not be used for work related to asbestos or for work which disturbs ACM or PACM, regardless of measured levels of asbestos exposure or the results of initial exposure assessments: 
</P>
<P>(i) High-speed abrasive disc saws that are not equipped with point of cut ventilator or enclosures with HEPA filtered exhaust air.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compressed air used to remove asbestos, or materials containing asbestos, unless the compressed air is used in conjunction with an enclosed ventilation system designed to capture the dust cloud created by the compressed air.
</P>
<P>(iii) Dry sweeping, shoveling or other dry clean-up of dust and debris containing ACM and PACM.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employee rotation as a means of reducing employee exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Class I requirements.</I> In addition to the provisions of paragraphs (g) (1) and (2) of this section, the following engineering controls and work practices and procedures shall be used.
</P>
<P>(i) All Class I work, including the installation and operation of the control system shall be supervised by a qualified person as defined in paragraph (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) For all Class I jobs involving the removal of more than 25 linear or 10 square feet of TSI or surfacing ACM or PACM; for all other Class I jobs, where the employer cannot produce a negative exposure assessment pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, or where employees are working in areas adjacent to the regulated area, while the Class I work is being performed, the employer shall use one of the following methods to ensure that airborne asbestos does not migrate from the regulated area: 
</P>
<P>(A) Critical barriers shall be placed over all the openings to the regulated area, except where activities are performed outdoors; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall use another barrier or isolation method which prevents the migration of airborne asbestos from the regulated area, as verified by perimeter area surveillance during each work shift at each boundary of the regulated area, showing no visible asbestos dust; and perimeter area monitoring showing that clearance levels contained in 40 CFR part 763, subpart E of the EPA Asbestos in Schools Rule are met, or that perimeter area levels, measured by Phase Contrast Microscopy (PCM) are no more than background levels representing the same area before the asbestos work began. The results of such monitoring shall be made known to the employer no later than 24 hours from the end of the work shift represented by such monitoring. Exception: For work completed outdoors where employees are not working in areas adjacent to the regulated areas, this paragraph (g)(4)(ii) is satisfied when the specific control methods in paragraph (g)(5) of this section are used. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For all Class I jobs, HVAC systems shall be isolated in the regulated area by sealing with a double layer of 6 mil plastic or the equivalent; 
</P>
<P>(iv) For all Class I jobs, impermeable dropcloths shall be placed on surfaces beneath all removal activity; 
</P>
<P>(v) For all Class I jobs, all objects within the regulated area shall be covered with impermeable dropcloths or plastic sheeting which is secured by duct tape or an equivalent.
</P>
<P>(vi) For all Class I jobs where the employer cannot produce a negative exposure assessment or where exposure monitoring shows the PELs are exceeded, the employer shall ventilate the regulated area to move contaminated air away from the breathing zone of employees toward a HEPA filtration or collection device.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Specific control systems for Class I work.</I> In addition, Class I asbestos work shall be performed using one or more of the following control methods pursuant to the limitations stated below: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Negative pressure enclosure (NPE) systems.</I> NPE systems may be used where the configuration of the work area does not make the erection of the enclosure infeasible, with the following specifications and work practices.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications</I>—(<I>1</I>) The negative pressure enclosure (NPE) may be of any configuration,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least 4 air changes per hour shall be maintained in the NPE,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A minimum of −0.02 column inches of water pressure differential, relative to outside pressure, shall be maintained within the NPE as evidenced by manometric measurements,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The NPE shall be kept under negative pressure throughout the period of its use, and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Air movement shall be directed away from employees performing asbestos work within the enclosure, and toward a HEPA filtration or a collection device.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work practices</I>—(<I>1</I>) Before beginning work within the enclosure and at the beginning of each shift, the NPE shall be inspected for breaches and smoke-tested for leaks, and any leaks sealed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Electrical circuits in the enclosure shall be deactivated, unless equipped with ground-fault circuit interrupters.
</P>
<P>(ii) Glove bag systems may be used to remove PACM and/or ACM from straight runs of piping and elbows and other connections with the following specifications and work practices: 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications</I>—(<I>1</I>) Glovebags shall be made of 6 mil thick plastic and shall be seamless at the bottom.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Glovebags used on elbows and other connections must be designed for that purpose and used without modifications. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work practices—(1)</I> Each glovebag shall be installed so that it completely covers the circumference of pipes or other structures where the work is to be done. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Glovebags shall be smoke-tested for leaks and any leaks sealed prior to use.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Glovebags may be used only once and may not be moved.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Glovebags shall not be used on surfaces whose temperature exceeds 150 °F.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Prior to disposal, glovebags shall be collapsed by removing air within them using a HEPA vacuum.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Before beginning the operation, loose and friable material adjacent to the glovebag/box operation shall be wrapped and sealed in two layers of six mil plastic or otherwise rendered intact. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Where a system uses an attached waste bag, such bag shall be connected to a collection bag using hose or other material which shall withstand the pressure of ACM waste and water without losing its integrity. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) A sliding valve or other device shall separate the waste bag from the hose to ensure no exposure when the waste bag is disconnected. 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) At least two persons shall perform Class I glovebag removal operations. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Negative pressure glove bag systems.</I> Negative pressure glove bag systems may be used to remove ACM or PACM from piping. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications:</I> In addition to the specifications for glove bag systems above, negative pressure glove bag systems shall attach the HEPA vacuum system or other device to the bag to prevent collapse during removal. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work practices</I>—(<I>1</I>) The employer shall comply with the work practices for glove bag systems in paragraph (g)(5)(ii)(B)(4) of this section, 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The HEPA vacuum cleaner or other device used to prevent collapse of bag during removal shall run continually during the operation until it is completed at which time the bag shall be collapsed prior to removal of the bag from the pipe. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where a separate waste bag is used along with a collection bag and discarded after one use, the collection bag may be reused if rinsed clean with amended water before reuse. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Negative pressure glove box systems.</I> Negative pressure glove boxes may be used to remove ACM or PACM from pipe runs with the following specifications and work practices. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications</I>—(<I>1</I>) Glove boxes shall be constructed with rigid sides and made from metal or other material which can withstand the weight of the ACM and PACM and water used during removal: 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A negative pressure generator shall be used to create negative pressure in the system: 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An air filtration unit shall be attached to the box: 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The box shall be fitted with gloved apertures: 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) An aperture at the base of the box shall serve as a bagging outlet for waste ACM and water: 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A back-up generator shall be present on site: 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Waste bags shall consist of 6 mil thick plastic double-bagged before they are filled or plastic thicker than 6 mil. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work practices</I>—(<I>1</I>) At least two persons shall perform the removal: 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The box shall be smoke-tested for leaks and any leaks sealed prior to each use. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Loose or damaged ACM adjacent to the box shall be wrapped and sealed in two layers of 6 mil plastic prior to the job, or otherwise made intact prior to the job. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A HEPA filtration system shall be used to maintain pressure barrier in box. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Water spray process system.</I> A water spray process system may be used for removal of ACM and PACM from cold line piping if, employees carrying out such process have completed a 40-hour separate training course in its use, in addition to training required for employees performing Class I work. The system shall meet the following specifications and shall be performed by employees using the following work practices. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications</I>—(<I>1</I>) Piping from which insulation will be removed shall be surrounded on 3 sides by rigid framing, 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A 360 degree water spray, delivered through nozzles supplied by a high pressure separate water line, shall be formed around the piping. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The spray shall collide to form a fine aerosol which provides a liquid barrier between workers and the ACM and PACM. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work practices</I>—(<I>1</I>) The system shall be run for at least 10 minutes before removal begins. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All removal shall take place within the barrier. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The system shall be operated by at least three persons, one of whom shall not perform removal but shall check equipment, and ensure proper operation of the system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) After removal, the ACM and PACM shall be bagged while still inside the water barrier. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A small walk-in enclosure which accommodates no more than two persons (mini-enclosure) may be used if the disturbance or removal can be completely contained by the enclosure, with the following specifications and work practices. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications</I>—(<I>1</I>) The fabricated or job-made enclosure shall be constructed of 6 mil plastic or equivalent: 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The enclosure shall be placed under negative pressure by means of a HEPA filtered vacuum or similar ventilation unit: 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work practices</I>—(<I>1</I>) Before use, the mini-enclosure shall be inspected for leaks and smoketested to detect breaches, and any breaches sealed. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Before reuse, the interior shall be completely washed with amended water and HEPA-vacuumed.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) During use, air movement shall be directed away from the employee's breathing zone within the mini-enclosure. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Alternative control methods for Class I work.</I> Class I work may be performed using a control method which is not referenced in paragraph (g)(5) of this section, or which modifies a control method referenced in paragraph (g)(5) of this section, if the following provisions are complied with: 
</P>
<P>(i) The control method shall enclose, contain or isolate the processes or source of airborne asbestos dust, or otherwise capture or redirect such dust before it enters the breathing zone of employees. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A certified industrial hygienist or licensed professional engineer who is also qualified as a project designer as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, shall evaluate the work area, the projected work practices and the engineering controls and shall certify in writing that: the planned control method is adequate to reduce direct and indirect employee exposure to below the PELs under worst-case conditions of use, and that the planned control method will prevent asbestos contamination outside the regulated area, as measured by clearance sampling which meets the requirements of EPA's Asbestos in Schools Rule issued under AHERA, or perimeter monitoring which meets the criteria in paragraph (g)(4)(ii)(B) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(A) Where the TSI or surfacing material to be removed is 25 linear or 10 square feet or less , the evaluation required in paragraph (g)(6) of this section may be performed by a “qualified person”, and may omit consideration of perimeter or clearance monitoring otherwise required. 
</P>
<P>(B) The evaluation of employee exposure required in paragraph (g)(6) of this section, shall include and be based on sampling and analytical data representing employee exposure during the use of such method under worst-case conditions and by employees whose training and experience are equivalent to employees who are to perform the current job. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Work practices and engineering controls for Class II work.</I> (i) All Class II work shall be supervised by a qualified person as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For all indoor Class II jobs, where the employer has not produced a negative exposure assessment pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, or where during the job, changed conditions indicate there may be exposure above the PEL or where the employer does not remove the ACM in a substantially intact state, the employer shall use one of the following methods to ensure that airborne asbestos does not migrate from the regulated area; 
</P>
<P>(A) Critical barriers shall be placed over all openings to the regulated area; or, 
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall use another barrier or isolation method which prevents the migration of airborne asbestos from the regulated area, as verified by perimeter area monitoring or clearance monitoring which meets the criteria set out in paragraph (g)(4)(ii)(B) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(C) Impermeable dropcloths shall be placed on surfaces beneath all removal activity; 
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) All Class II asbestos work shall be performed using the work practices and requirements set out above in paragraph (g)(1)(i) through (g)(1)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Additional controls for Class II work.</I> Class II asbestos work shall also be performed by complying with the work practices and controls designated for each type of asbestos work to be performed, set out in this paragraph. Where more than one control method may be used for a type of asbestos work, the employer may choose one or a combination of designated control methods. Class II work also may be performed using a method allowed for Class I work, except that glove bags and glove boxes are allowed if they fully enclose the Class II material to be removed. 
</P>
<P>(i) For removing vinyl and asphalt flooring/deck materials which contain ACM or for which in buildings constructed not later than 1980, the employer has not verified the absence of ACM pursuant to paragraph (g)(8)(i)(I): the employer shall ensure that employees comply with the following work practices and that employees are trained in these practices pursuant to paragraph (k)(9) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(A) Flooring/deck materials or its backing shall not be sanded. 
</P>
<P>(B) Vacuums equipped with HEPA filter, disposable dust bag, and metal floor tool (no brush) shall be used to clean floors. 
</P>
<P>(C) Resilient sheeting shall be removed by cutting with wetting of the snip point and wetting during delamination. Rip-up of resilient sheet floor material is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(D) All scraping of residual adhesive and/or backing shall be performed using wet methods. 
</P>
<P>(E) Dry sweeping is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(F) Mechanical chipping is prohibited unless performed in a negative pressure enclosure which meets the requirements of paragraph (g)(5)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(G) Tiles shall be removed intact, unless the employer demonstrates that intact removal is not possible. 
</P>
<P>(H) When tiles are heated and can be removed intact, wetting may be omitted. 
</P>
<P>(I) Resilient flooring/deck material in buildings/vessels constructed no later than 1980, including associated mastic and backing shall be assumed to be asbestos-containing unless an industrial hygienist determines that it is asbestos-free using recognized analytical techniques. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For removing roofing material which contains ACM the employer shall ensure that the following work practices are followed: 
</P>
<P>(A) Roofing material shall be removed in an intact state to the extent feasible. 
</P>
<P>(B) Wet methods shall be used to remove roofing materials that are not intact, or that will be rendered not intact during removal, unless such wet methods are not feasible or will create safety hazards. 
</P>
<P>(C) Cutting machines shall be continuously misted during use, unless a competent person determines that misting substantially decreases worker safety. 
</P>
<P>(D) When removing built-up roofs with asbestos-containing roofing felts and an aggregate surface using a power roof cutter, all dust resulting from the cutting operation shall be collected by a HEPA dust collector, or shall be HEPA vacuumed by vacuuming along the cut line. When removing built-up roofs with asbestos-containing roofing felts and a smooth surface using a power roof cutter, the dust resulting from the cutting operation shall be collected either by a HEPA dust collector or HEPA vacuuming along the cut line, or by gently sweeping and then carefully and completely wiping up the still-wet dust and debris left along the cut line. The dust and debris shall be immediately bagged or placed in covered containers. 
</P>
<P>(E) Asbestos-containing material that has been removed from a roof shall not be dropped or thrown to the ground. Unless the material is carried or passed to the ground by hand, it shall be lowered to the ground via covered, dust-tight chute, crane or hoist: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any ACM that is not intact shall be lowered to the ground as soon as is practicable, but in any event no later than the end of the work shift. While the material remains on the roof it shall either be kept wet, placed in an impermeable waste bag, or wrapped in plastic sheeting. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Intact ACM shall be lowered to the ground as soon as is practicable, but in any event no later than the end of the work shift. 
</P>
<P>(F) Upon being lowered, unwrapped material shall be transferred to a closed receptacle in such manner so as to preclude the dispersion of dust. 
</P>
<P>(G) Roof level heating and ventilation air intake sources shall be isolated or the ventilation system shall be shut down. 
</P>
<P>(H) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, removal or repair of sections of intact roofing less than 25 square feet in area does not require use of wet methods or HEPA vacuuming as long as manual methods which do not render the material non-intact are used to remove the material and no visible dust is created by the removal method used. In determining whether a job involves less than 25 square feet, the employer shall include all removal and repair work performed on the same roof on the same day. 
</P>
<P>(iii) When removing cementitious asbestos-containing siding and shingles or transite panels containing ACM on building exteriors (other than roofs, where paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section applies) the employer shall ensure that the following work practices are followed: 
</P>
<P>(A) Cutting, abrading or breaking siding, shingles, or transite panels shall be prohibited unless the employer can demonstrate that methods less likely to result in asbestos fiber release cannot be used. 
</P>
<P>(B) Each panel or shingle shall be sprayed with amended water prior to removal. 
</P>
<P>(C) Unwrapped or unbagged panels or shingles shall be immediately lowered to the ground via a covered dust-tight chute, crane or hoist, or be placed in an impervious waste bag or wrapped in plastic sheeting and lowered to the ground no later than the end of the work shift. 
</P>
<P>(D) Nails shall be cut with flat, sharp instruments. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When removing gaskets containing ACM, the employer shall ensure that the following work practices are followed: 
</P>
<P>(A) If a gasket is visibly deteriorated and unlikely to be removed intact, removal shall be undertaken within a glovebag as described in paragraph (g)(5)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(C) The gasket shall be immediately placed in a disposal container.
</P>
<P>(D) Any scraping to remove residue must be performed wet. 
</P>
<P>(v) When performing any other Class II removal of asbestos containing material for which specific controls have not been listed in paragraph (g)(8)(iv) (A) through (D) of this section, the employer shall ensure that the following work practices are complied with. 
</P>
<P>(A) The material shall be thoroughly wetted with amended water prior to and during its removal. 
</P>
<P>(B) The material shall be removed in an intact state unless the employer demonstrates that intact removal is not possible.
</P>
<P>(C) Cutting, abrading or breaking the material shall be prohibited unless the employer can demonstrate that methods less likely to result in asbestos fiber release are not feasible. 
</P>
<P>(D) Asbestos-containing material removed, shall be immediately bagged or wrapped, or kept wetted until transferred to a closed receptacle, no later than the end of the work shift. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Alternative work practices and controls.</I> Instead of the work practices and controls listed in paragraphs (g)(8) (i) through (v) of this section, the employer may use different or modified engineering and work practice controls if the following provisions are complied with. 
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall demonstrate by data representing employee exposure during the use of such method under conditions which closely resemble the conditions under which the method is to be used, that employee exposure will not exceed the PELs under any anticipated circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(B) A qualified person shall evaluate the work area, the projected work practices and the engineering controls, and shall certify in writing, that the different or modified controls are adequate to reduce direct and indirect employee exposure to below the PELs under all expected conditions of use and that the method meets the requirements of this standard. The evaluation shall include and be based on data representing employee exposure during the use of such method under conditions which closely resemble the conditions under which the method is to be used for the current job, and by employees whose training and experience are equivalent to employees who are to perform the current job. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Work practices and engineering controls for Class III asbestos work.</I> Class III asbestos work shall be conducted using engineering and work practice controls which minimize the exposure to employees performing the asbestos work and to bystander employees. 
</P>
<P>(i) The work shall be performed using wet methods. 
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent feasible, the work shall be performed using local exhaust ventilation. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the disturbance involves drilling, cutting, abrading, sanding, chipping, breaking, or sawing of thermal system insulation or surfacing material, the employer shall use impermeable dropcloths and shall isolate the operation using mini-enclosures or glove bag systems pursuant to paragraph (g)(5) of this section or another isolation method. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Where the employer does not demonstrate by a negative exposure assessment performed in compliance with paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section that the PELs will not be exceeded, or where monitoring results show exceedances of a PEL, the employer shall contain the area using impermeable dropcloths and plastic barriers or their equivalent, or shall isolate the operation using mini-enclosure or glove bag systems pursuant to paragraph (g)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(v) Employees performing Class III jobs which involve the disturbance of TSI or surfacing ACM or PACM or where the employer does not demonstrate by a “negative exposure assessment” in compliance with paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section that the PELs will not be exceeded or where monitoring results show exceedances of the PEL, shall wear respirators which are selected, used and fitted pursuant to provisions of paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Class IV asbestos work.</I> Class IV asbestos jobs shall be conducted by employees trained pursuant to the asbestos awareness training program set out in paragraph (k)(9) of this section. In addition, all Class IV jobs shall be conducted in conformity with the requirements set out in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, mandating wet methods, HEPA vacuums, and prompt clean up of debris containing ACM or PACM. 
</P>
<P>(i) Employees cleaning up debris and waste in a regulated area where respirators are required shall wear respirators which are selected, used and fitted pursuant to provisions of paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers of employees cleaning up waste and debris in an area where friable TSI or surfacing ACM/PACM is accessible, shall assume that such waste and debris contain asbestos. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Specific compliance methods for brake and clutch repair</I>—(i) <I>Engineering controls and work practices for brake and clutch repair and service.</I> During automotive brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair and assembly operations, the employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices to reduce employee exposure to materials containing asbestos using a negative pressure enclosure/HEPA vacuum system method or low pressure/wet cleaning method, which meets the detailed requirements set out in appendix L to this section. The employer may also comply using an equivalent method which follows written procedures which the employer demonstrates can achieve results equivalent to Method A. For facilities in which no more than 5 pair of brakes or 5 clutches are inspected, disassembled, repaired, or assembled per week, the method set for in paragraph [D] of appendix L to this section may be used. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer may also comply by using an equivalent method which follows written procedures, which the employer demonstrates can achieve equivalent exposure reductions as do the two “preferred methods.” Such demonstration must include monitoring data conducted under workplace conditions closely resembling the process, type of asbestos containing materials, control method, work practices and environmental conditions which the equivalent method will be used, or objective data, which document that under all reasonably foreseeable conditions of brake and clutch repair applications, the method results in exposures which are equivalent to the methods set out in appendix L to this section. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Alternative methods of compliance for installation, removal, repair, and maintenance of certain roofing and pipeline coating materials.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an employer who complies with all provisions of this paragraph (g)(12) when installing, removing, repairing, or maintaining intact pipeline asphaltic wrap, or roof flashings which contain asbestos fibers encapsulated or coated by bituminous or resinous compounds shall be deemed to be in compliance with this section. If an employer does not comply with all provisions of this paragraph (g)(12) or if during the course of the job the material does not remain intact, the provisions of paragraph (g)(8) of this section apply instead of this paragraph (g)(12).
</P>
<P>(i) Before work begins and as needed during the job, a qualified person who is capable of identifying asbestos hazards in the workplace and selecting the appropriate control strategy for asbestos exposure, and who has the authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate such hazards, shall conduct an inspection of the worksite and determine that the roofing material is intact and will likely remain intact. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All employees performing work covered by this paragraph (g)(12) shall be trained in a training program that meets the requirements of paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The material shall not be sanded, abraded, or ground. Manual methods which do not render the material non-intact shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Material that has been removed from a roof shall not be dropped or thrown to the ground. Unless the material is carried or passed to the ground by hand, it shall be lowered to the ground via covered, dust-tight chute, crane or hoist. All such material shall be removed from the roof as soon as is practicable, but in any event no later than the end of the work shift. 
</P>
<P>(v) Where roofing products which have been labeled as containing asbestos pursuant to paragraph (k)(8) of this section are installed on non-residential roofs during operations covered by this paragraph (g)(12), the employer shall notify the building owner of the presence and location of such materials no later than the end of the job. 
</P>
<P>(vi) All removal or disturbance of pipeline asphaltic wrap shall be performed using wet methods.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) During all Class I asbestos jobs. 
</P>
<P>(ii) During all Class II work where the ACM is not removed in a substantially intact state. 
</P>
<P>(iii) During all Class II and III work which is not performed using wet methods, provided, however, that respirators need not be worn during removal of ACM from sloped roofs when a negative exposure assessment has been made and the ACM is removed in an intact state. 
</P>
<P>(iv) During all Class II and III asbestos jobs where the employer does not produce a “negative exposure assessment.” 
</P>
<P>(v) During all Class III jobs where TSI or surfacing ACM or PACM is being disturbed. 
</P>
<P>(vi) During all Class IV work performed within regulated areas where employees performing other work are required to wear respirators. 
</P>
<P>(vii) During all work covered by this section where employees are exposed above the TWA or excursion limit. 
</P>
<P>(viii) In emergencies. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must select, and provide to employees at no cost, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134; however, employers must not select or use filtering facepiece respirators for use against asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers are to provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Inform employees that they may require the employer to provide a tight-fitting, powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) permitted for use under paragraph (h)(2)(i) of this standard instead of a negative pressure respirator.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide employees with a tight-fitting PAPR instead of a negative pressure respirator when the employees choose to use a tight-fitting PAPR and it provides them with the required protection against asbestos.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employers must provide employees with an air-purifying, half mask respirator, other than a filtering facepiece respirator, whenever the employees perform:
</P>
<P>(A) Class II or Class III asbestos work for which no negative exposure assessment is available.
</P>
<P>(B) Class III asbestos work involving disturbance of TSI or surfacing ACM or PACM.
</P>
<P>(v) Employers must provide employees with:
</P>
<P>(A) A tight-fitting, powered air-purifying respirator or a full facepiece, supplied-air respirator operated in the pressure-demand mode and equipped with either HEPA egress cartridges or an auxiliary positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) whenever the employees are in a regulated area performing Class I asbestos work for which a negative exposure assessment is not available and the exposure assessment indicates that the exposure level will be at or below 1 f/cc as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P>(B) A full facepiece, supplied-air respirator operated in the pressure-demand mode and equipped with an auxiliary positive-pressure SCBA whenever the employees are in a regulated area performing Class I asbestos work for which a negative exposure assessment is not available and the exposure assessment indicates that the exposure level will be above 1 f/cc as an 8-hour TWA. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) When respiratory protection is used, the employer shall institute a respiratory protection program in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.134(b) through (d) (except paragraph (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m) which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator. 
</P>
<P>(ii) No employee shall be assigned to tasks requiring the use of respirators if, based on his or her most recent examination, an examining physician determines that the employee will be unable to function normally wearing a respirator, or that the safety or health of the employee or of other employees will be impaired by the use of a respirator. Such employees shall be assigned to another job or given the opportunity to transfer to a different position, the duties of which he or she is able to perform with the same employer, in the same geographical area, and with the same seniority, status, and rate of pay and other job benefits he or she had just prior to such transfer, if such a different position is available. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protective clothing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall provide and require the use of protective clothing, such as coveralls or similar whole-body clothing, head coverings, gloves, and foot coverings for any employee exposed to airborne concentrations of asbestos that exceed the TWA and/or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, or for which a required negative exposure assessment is not produced, or for any employee performing Class I operations which involve the removal of over 25 linear or 10 square feet of TSI or surfacing ACM or PACM. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Laundering.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that laundering of contaminated clothing is done so as to prevent the release of airborne asbestos in excess of the TWA or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any employer who gives contaminated clothing to another person for laundering shall inform such person of the requirement in paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section to effectively prevent the release of airborne asbestos in excess of the TWA excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that contaminated clothing is transported in sealed impermeable bags, or other closed, impermeable containers, and labeled in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Inspection of protective clothing.</I> (i) The qualified person shall examine worksuits worn by employees at least once per workshift for rips or tears that may occur during the performance of work. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When rips or tears are detected while an employee is working, rips and tears shall be immediately mended, or the worksuit shall be immediately replaced. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices for employees.</I> (1) Requirements for employees performing Class I asbestos jobs involving over 25 linear or 10 square feet of TSI or surfacing ACM and PACM. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Decontamination areas.</I> For all Class I jobs involving over 25 linear or 10 square feet of TSI or surfacing ACM or PACM, the employer shall establish a decontamination area that is adjacent and connected to the regulated area for the decontamination of such employees. The decontamination area shall consist of an equipment room, shower area, and clean room in series. The employer shall ensure that employees enter and exit the regulated area through the decontamination area. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Equipment room.</I> The equipment room shall be supplied with impermeable, labeled bags and containers for the containment and disposal of contaminated protective equipment. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Shower area.</I> Shower facilities shall be provided which comply with 29 CFR 1910.141(d)(3), unless the employer can demonstrate that they are not feasible. The showers shall be adjacent both to the equipment room and the clean room, unless the employer can demonstrate that this location is not feasible. Where the employer can demonstrate that it is not feasible to locate the shower between the equipment room and the clean room, or where the work is performed outdoors, or when the work involving asbestos exposure takes place on board a ship, the employers shall ensure that employees: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Remove asbestos contamination from their worksuits in the equipment room using a HEPA vacuum before proceeding to a shower that is not adjacent to the work area; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Remove their contaminated worksuits in the equipment room, then don clean worksuits, and proceed to a shower that is not adjacent to the work area. 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Clean change room.</I> The clean room shall be equipped with a locker or appropriate storage container for each employee's use. When the employer can demonstrate that it is not feasible to provide a clean change area adjacent to the work area, or where the work is performed outdoors, or when the work takes place aboard a ship, the employer may permit employees engaged in Class I asbestos jobs to clean their protective clothing with a portable HEPA-equipped vacuum before such employees leave the regulated area. Following showering, such employees however must then change into street clothing in clean change areas provided by the employer which otherwise meet the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Decontamination area entry procedures.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees: 
</P>
<P>(A) Enter the decontamination area through the clean room; 
</P>
<P>(B) Remove and deposit street clothing within a locker provided for their use; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Put on protective clothing and respiratory protection before leaving the clean room. 
</P>
<P>(D) Before entering the regulated area, the employer shall ensure that employees pass through the equipment room. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Decontamination area exit procedures.</I> The employer shall ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Before leaving the regulated area, employees shall remove all gross contamination and debris from their protective clothing. 
</P>
<P>(B) Employees shall remove their protective clothing in the equipment room and deposit the clothing in labeled impermeable bags or containers. 
</P>
<P>(C) Employees shall not remove their respirators in the equipment room. 
</P>
<P>(D) Employees shall shower prior to entering the clean room. 
</P>
<P>(E) After showering, employees shall enter the clean room before changing into street clothes. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Lunch areas.</I> Whenever food or beverages are consumed at the worksite where employees are performing Class I asbestos work, the employer shall provide lunch areas in which the airborne concentrations of asbestos are below the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for Class I work involving less than 25 linear or 10 square feet of TSI or surfacing and PACM, and for Class II and Class III asbestos work operations where exposures exceed a PEL or where there is no negative exposure assessment produced before the operation.</I> (i) The employer shall establish an equipment room or area that is adjacent to the regulated area for the decontamination of employees and their equipment which is contaminated with asbestos which shall consist of an area covered by an impermeable drop cloth on the floor/deck or horizontal working surface. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The area must be of sufficient size as to accommodate cleaning of equipment and removing personal protective equipment without spreading contamination beyond the area (as determined by visible accumulations). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Work clothing must be cleaned with a HEPA vacuum before it is removed. 
</P>
<P>(iv) All equipment and surfaces of containers filled with ACM must be cleaned prior to removing them from the equipment room or area. 
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall ensure that employees enter and exit the regulated area through the equipment room or area. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for Class IV work.</I> Employers shall ensure that employees performing Class IV work within a regulated area comply with the hygiene practice required of employees performing work which has a higher classification within that regulated area. Otherwise employers of employees cleaning up debris and material which is TSI or surfacing ACM or identified as PACM shall provide decontamination facilities for such employees which are required by paragraph (j)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Smoking in work areas.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not smoke in work areas where they are occupationally exposed to asbestos because of activities in that work area. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Communication of hazards.</I> (1) This section applies to the communication of information concerning asbestos hazards in shipyard employment activities to facilitate compliance with this standard. Most asbestos-related shipyard activities involve previously installed building materials. Building/vessel owners often are the only and/or best sources of information concerning them. Therefore, they, along with employers of potentially exposed employees, are assigned specific information conveying and retention duties under this section. Installed Asbestos Containing Building/Vessel Material: Employers and building/vessel owners shall identify TSI and sprayed or troweled on surfacing materials as asbestos-containing unless the employer, by complying with paragraph (k)(5) of this section determines that the material is not asbestos-containing. Asphalt or vinyl flooring/decking material installed in buildings or vessels no later than 1980 must also be considered as asbestos containing unless the employer/owner, pursuant to paragraph (g)(8)(i)(I) of this section, determines it is not asbestos containing. If the employer or building/vessel owner has actual knowledge or should have known, through the exercise of due diligence, that materials other than TSI and sprayed-on or troweled-on surfacing materials are asbestos-containing, they must be treated as such. When communicating information to employees pursuant to this standard, owners and employers shall identify “PACM” as ACM. Additional requirements relating to communication of asbestos work on multi- employer worksites are set out in paragraph (d) of this standard. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duties of building/vessel and facility owners.</I> (i) Before work subject to this standard is begun, building/vessel and facility owners shall determine the presence, location, and quantity of ACM and/or PACM at the work site pursuant to paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Building/vessel and/or facility owners shall notify the following persons of the presence, location and quantity of ACM or PACM, at work sites in their buildings/facilities/vessels. Notification either shall be in writing or shall consist of a personal communication between the owner and the person to whom notification must be given or their authorized representatives: 
</P>
<P>(A) Prospective employers applying or bidding for work whose employees reasonably can be expected to work in or adjacent to areas containing such material; 
</P>
<P>(B) Employees of the owner who will work in or adjacent to areas containing such material: 
</P>
<P>(C) On multi-employer worksites, all employers of employees who will be performing work within or adjacent to areas containing such materials; 
</P>
<P>(D) Tenants who will occupy areas containing such materials.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duties of employers whose employees perform work subject to this standard in or adjacent to areas containing ACM and PACM.</I> Building/vessel and facility owners whose employees perform such work shall comply with these provisions to the extent applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) Before work in areas containing ACM and PACM is begun, employers shall identify the presence, location, and quantity of ACM, and/or PACM therein pursuant to paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before work under this standard is performed employers of employees who will perform such work shall inform the following persons of the location and quantity of ACM and/or PACM present at the worksite and the precautions to be taken to ensure that airborne asbestos is confined to the area. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 10 days of the completion of such work, the employer whose employees have performed work subject to this standard, shall inform the building/vessel or facility owner and employers of employees who will be working in the area of the current location and quantity of PACM and/or ACM remaining in the former regulated area and final monitoring results, if any.
</P>
<P>(4) In addition to the above requirements, all employers who discover ACM and/or PACM on a work site shall convey information concerning the presence, location and quantity of such newly discovered ACM and/or PACM to the owner and to other employers of employees working at the work site, within 24 hours of the discovery.
</P>
<P>(5) Criteria to rebut the designation of installed material as PACM. (i) At any time, an employer and/or building/vessel owner may demonstrate, for purposes of this standard, that PACM does not contain asbestos. Building/vessel owners and/or employers are not required to communicate information about the presence of building material for which such a demonstration pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (k)(5)(ii) of this section has been made. However, in all such cases, the information, data and analysis supporting the determination that PACM does not contain asbestos, shall be retained pursuant to paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An employer or owner may demonstrate that PACM does not contain more than 1% asbestos by the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) Having completed an inspection conducted pursuant to the requirements of AHERA (40 CFR part 763, subpart E) which demonstrates that the material is not ACM; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Performing tests of the material containing PACM which demonstrate that no ACM is present in the material. Such tests shall include analysis of bulk samples collected in the manner described in 40 CFR 763.86. The tests, evaluation and sample collection shall be conducted by an accredited inspector or by a CIH. Analysis of samples shall be performed by persons or laboratories with proficiency demonstrated by current successful participation in a nationally recognized testing program such as the National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP) or the National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) or the Round Robin for bulk samples administered by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA), or an equivalent nationally-recognized round robin testing program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer and/or building/vessel owner may demonstrate that flooring material including associated mastic and backing does not contain asbestos, by a determination of an industrial hygienist based upon recognized analytical techniques showing that the material is not ACM.
</P>
<P>(6) At the entrance to mechanical rooms/areas in which employees reasonably can be expected to enter and which contain ACM and/or PACM, the building/vessel owner shall post signs which identify the material which is present, its location, and appropriate work practices which, if followed, will ensure that ACM and/or PACM will not be disturbed. The employer shall ensure, to the extent feasible, that employees who come in contact with these signs can comprehend them. Means to ensure employee comprehension may include the use of foreign languages, pictographs, graphics, and awareness training. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Hazard communication.</I> (i) Labels shall be affixed to all products containing asbestos and to all containers containing such products, including waste containers. Where feasible, installed asbestos products shall contain a visible label.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General.</I> The employer shall include asbestos in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of asbestos and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of the HCS and paragraph (k)(9) of this section. The employer shall ensure that at least the following hazards are addressed: Cancer and lung effects.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Labels.</I> (A) The employer shall ensure that labels of bags or containers of protective clothing and equipment, scrap, waste, and debris containing asbestos fibers bear the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS ASBESTOS FIBERS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT BREATHE DUST
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on raw materials, mixtures or labels of bags or containers of protective clothing and equipment, scrap, waste, and debris containing asbestos fibers in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (k)(7)(ii) and (k)(7)(iii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS ASBESTOS FIBERS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Labels shall also contain a warning statement against breathing asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>(iv) The provisions for labels required in paragraph (k)(7) of this section do not apply where:
</P>
<P>(A) Asbestos fibers have been modified by a bonding agent, coating, binder, or other material, provided that the manufacturer can demonstrate that, during any reasonably foreseeable use, handling, storage, disposal, processing, or transportation, no airborne concentrations of asbestos fibers in excess of the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit will be released, or
</P>
<P>(B) Asbestos is present in a product in concentrations less than 1.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Signs.</I> (i) Warning signs that demarcate the regulated area shall be provided and displayed at each location where a regulated area is required to be established by paragraph (e) of this section. Signs shall be posted at such a distance from such a location that an employee may read the signs and take necessary protective steps before entering the area marked by the signs.
</P>
<P>(ii) The warning signs required by this paragraph (k)(8) shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASBESTOS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) In addition, where the use of respirators and protective clothing is required in the regulated area under this section, the warning signs shall include the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that employees working in and contiguous to regulated areas comprehend the warning signs required to be posted by paragraph (k)(8) of this section. Means to ensure employee comprehension may include the use of foreign languages, pictographs, and graphics.
</P>
<P>(v) When a building/vessel owner or employer identifies previously installed PACM and/or ACM, labels or signs shall be affixed or posted so that employees will be notified of what materials contain PACM and/or ACM. The employer shall attach such labels in areas where they will clearly be noticed by employees who are likely to be exposed, such as at the entrance to mechanical room/areas. Signs required by paragraph (k)(6) of this section may be posted in lieu of labels, so long as they contain information required for labeling. The employer shall ensure, to the extent feasible, that employees who come in contact with these signs or labels can comprehend them. Means to ensure employee comprehension may include the use of foreign languages, pictographs, graphics, and awareness training.
</P>
<P>(vi) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (k)(8)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASBESTOS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(vii) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (k)(8)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING ARE REQUIRED IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(9) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee who is likely to be exposed in excess of a PEL and each employee who performs Class I through IV asbestos operations in accordance with the requirements of this section. Training shall be provided at no cost to the employee. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Training for Class I operations and for Class II operations that require the use of critical barriers (or equivalent isolation methods) and/or negative pressure enclosures under this section shall be the equivalent in curriculum, training method and length to the EPA Model Accreditation Plan (MAP) asbestos abatement workers training (40 CFR part 763, subpart E, appendix C). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Training for other Class II work. 
</P>
<P>(A) For work with asbestos containing roofing materials, flooring materials, siding materials, ceiling tiles, or transite panels, training shall include at a minimum all the elements included in paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section and in addition, the specific work practices and engineering controls set forth in paragraph (g) of this section which specifically relate to that category. Such course shall include “hands-on” training and shall take at least 8 hours. 
</P>
<P>(B) An employee who works with more than one of the categories of material specified in paragraph (k)(9)(iv)(A) of this section shall receive training in the work practices applicable to each category of material that the employee removes and each removal method that the employee uses. 
</P>
<P>(C) For Class II operations not involving the categories of material specified in paragraph (k)(9)(iv)(A) of this section, training shall be provided which shall include at a minimum all the elements included in paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section and in addition, the specific work practices and engineering controls set forth in paragraph (g) of this section which specifically relate to the category of material being removed, and shall include “hands-on” training in the work practices applicable to each category of material that the employee removes and each removal method that the employee uses. 
</P>
<P>(v) Training for Class III employees shall be consistent with EPA requirements for training of local education agency maintenance and custodial staff as set forth at 40 CFR 763.92(a)(2). Such a course shall also include “hands-on” training and shall take at least 16 hours. Exception: For Class III operations for which the competent person determines that the EPA curriculum does not adequately cover the training needed to perform that activity, training shall include as a minimum all the elements included in paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section and in addition, the specific work practices and engineering controls set forth in paragraph (g) of this section which specifically relate to that activity, and shall include “hands-on” training in the work practices applicable to each category of material that the employee disturbs. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Training for employees performing Class IV operations shall be consistent with EPA requirements for training of local education agency maintenance and custodial staff as set forth at 40 CFR 763.92(a)(1). Such a course shall include available information concerning the locations of thermal system insulation and surfacing ACM/PACM, and asbestos-containing flooring material, or flooring material where the absence of asbestos has not yet been certified; and instruction in the recognition of damage, deterioration, and delamination of asbestos containing building materials. Such a course shall take at least 2 hours. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Training for employees who are likely to be exposed in excess of the PEL and who are not otherwise required to be trained under paragraph (k)(9) (iii) through (vi) of this section, shall meet the requirements of paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) The training program shall be conducted in a manner that the employee is able to understand. In addition to the content required by the provisions in paragraphs (k)(9)(iii) through (vi) of this section, the employer shall ensure that each such employee is informed of the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) Methods of recognizing asbestos, including the requirement in paragraph (k)(1) of this section to presume that certain building materials contain asbestos;
</P>
<P>(B) The health effects associated with asbestos exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) The relationship between smoking and asbestos in producing lung cancer;
</P>
<P>(D) The nature of operations that could result in exposure to asbestos, the importance of necessary protective controls to minimize exposure including, as applicable, engineering controls, work practices, respirators, housekeeping procedures, hygiene facilities, protective clothing, decontamination procedures, emergency procedures, and waste disposal procedures, and any necessary instruction in the use of these controls and procedures; where Class III and IV work will be or is performed, the contents of EPA 20T-2003, “Managing Asbestos In-Place” July 1990 or its equivalent in content;
</P>
<P>(E) The purpose, proper use, fitting instructions, and limitations of respirators as required by 29 CFR 1910.134;
</P>
<P>(F) The appropriate work practices for performing the asbestos job;
</P>
<P>(G) Medical surveillance program requirements;
</P>
<P>(H) The content of this standard including appendices;
</P>
<P>(I) The names, addresses and phone numbers of public health organizations which provide information, materials and/or conduct programs concerning smoking cessation. The employer may distribute the list of such organizations contained in appendix J to this section, to comply with this requirement; and
</P>
<P>(J) The requirements for posting signs and affixing labels and the meaning of the required legends for such signs and labels.
</P>
<P>(10) Access to training materials. (i) The employer shall make readily available to affected employees without cost, written materials relating to the employee training program, including a copy of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, upon request, all information and training materials relating to the employee information and training program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall inform all employees concerning the availability of self-help smoking cessation program material. Upon employee request, the employer shall distribute such material, consisting of NIH Publication No, 89-1647, or equivalent self-help material, which is approved or published by a public health organization listed in appendix J to this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>Vacuuming.</I> Where vacuuming methods are selected, HEPA filtered vacuuming equipment must be used. The equipment shall be used and emptied in a manner that minimizes the reentry of asbestos into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waste disposal.</I> Asbestos waste, scrap, debris, bags, containers, equipment, and contaminated clothing consigned for disposal shall be collected and disposed of in sealed, labeled, impermeable bags or other closed, labeled, impermeable containers except in roofing operations, where the procedures specified in paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Care of asbestos-containing flooring/deck material.</I> (i) All vinyl and asphalt flooring/deck material shall be maintained in accordance with this paragraph unless the building/facility owner demonstrates, pursuant to paragraph (g)(8)(i)(I) of this section that the flooring/deck does not contain asbestos.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sanding of flooring/deck material is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(iii) Stripping of finishes shall be conducted using low abrasion pads at speeds lower than 300 rpm and wet methods.
</P>
<P>(iv) Burnishing or dry buffing may be performed only on flooring/deck which has sufficient finish so that the pad cannot contact the flooring/deck material.
</P>
<P>(4) Waste and debris and accompanying dust in an area containing accessible thermal system insulation or surfacing ACM/PACM or visibly deteriorated ACM:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall not be dusted or swept dry, or vacuumed without using a HEPA filter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall be promptly cleaned up and disposed of in leak tight containers.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Employees covered.</I> (A) The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who for a combined total of 30 or more days per year are engaged in Class I, II and III work or are exposed at or above a permissible exposure limit. For purposes of this paragraph, any day in which a worker engages in Class II or Class III operations or a combination thereof on intact material for one hour or less (taking into account the entire time spent on the removal operation, including cleanup) and, while doing so, adheres fully to the work practices specified in this standard, shall not be counted. 
</P>
<P>(B) For employees otherwise required by this standard to wear a negative pressure respirator, employers shall ensure employees are physically able to perform the work and use the equipment. This determination shall be made under the supervision of a physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examination.</I> (A) The employer shall ensure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and are provided at no cost to the employee and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(B) Persons other than such licensed physicians who administer the pulmonary function testing required by this section shall complete a training course in spirometry sponsored by an appropriate academic or professional institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical examinations and consultations</I>—(i) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer shall make available medical examinations and consultations to each employee covered under paragraph (m)(1)(i) of this section on the following schedules:
</P>
<P>(A) Prior to assignment of the employee to an area where negative-pressure respirators are worn;
</P>
<P>(B) When the employee is assigned to an area where exposure to asbestos may be at or above the permissible exposure limit for 30 or more days per year, or engage in Class I, II, or III work for a combined total of 30 or more days per year, a medical examination must be given within 10 working days following the thirtieth day of exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) And at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(D) If the examining physician determines that any of the examinations should be provided more frequently than specified, the employer shall provide such examinations to affected employees at the frequencies specified by the physician.
</P>
<P>(E) Exception: No medical examination is required of any employee if adequate records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with this paragraph within the past 1-year period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content.</I> Medical examinations made available pursuant to paragraphs (m)(2)(i) (A) through (m)(2)(i) (C) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A medical and work history with special emphasis directed to the pulmonary, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal systems.
</P>
<P>(B) On initial examination, the standardized questionnaire contained in part 1 of appendix D to this section and, on annual examination, the abbreviated standardized questionnaire contained in part 2 of appendix D to this section.
</P>
<P>(C) A physical examination directed to the pulmonary and gastrointestinal systems, including a 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray to be administered at the discretion of the physician, and pulmonary function tests of forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>). Classification of all chest X-rays shall be conducted in accordance with appendix E to this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Any other examinations or tests deemed necessary by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and appendices D, E, and I to this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's representative exposure level or anticipated exposure level;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective and respiratory equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee that is not otherwise available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician. This written opinion shall contain the results of the medical examination and shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions that would place the employee at an increased risk of material health impairment from exposure to asbestos;
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations on the employee or on the use of personal protective equipment such as respirators; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions that may result from asbestos exposure.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the increased risk of lung cancer attributable to the combined effect of smoking and asbestos exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion given to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the physician's written opinion to the affected employee within 30 days from its receipt.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Objective data relied on pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section.</I> (i) Where the employer has relied on objective data that demonstrates that products made from or containing asbestos or the activity involving such products or material are not capable of releasing fibers of asbestos in concentrations at or above the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit under the expected conditions of processing, use, or handling to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of objective data reasonably relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The product qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of asbestos;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data support the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall keep an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to asbestos as prescribed in paragraph (f) of this section. Note: The employer may utilize the services of qualified organizations such as industry trade associations and employee associations to maintain the records required by this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to asbestos that is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and exposure of the employees whose exposures are represented.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance by paragraph (m) of this section, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the employee's medical examination results, including the medical history, questionnaire responses, results of any tests, and physician's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(C) Physician's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(D) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to asbestos; and
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that this record is maintained for the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training records.</I> The employer shall maintain all employee training records for one (1) year beyond the last date of employment by that employer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Data to rebut PACM.</I> (i) Where the building owner and employer have relied on data to demonstrate that PACM is not asbestos-containing, such data shall be maintained for as long as they are relied upon to rebut the presumption.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Records of required notification.</I> (i) Where the building/vessel owner has communicated and received information concerning the identity, location and quantity of ACM and PACM, written records of such notifications and their content shall be maintained by the owner for the duration of ownership and shall be transferred to successive owners of such buildings/facilities/vessels.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer, upon written request, shall make all records required to be maintained by this section available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer, upon request, shall make any exposure records required by paragraphs (f) and (n) of this section available for examination and copying to affected employees, former employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020(a) through (e) and (g) through (i).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer, upon request, shall make employee medical records required by paragraphs (m) and (n) of this section available for examination and copying to the subject employee, anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee, and the Assistant Secretary, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer shall comply with the requirements concerning transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Qualified person</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> On all shipyard worksites covered by this standard, the employer shall designate a qualified person, having the qualifications and authority for ensuring worker safety and health required by subpart C, General Safety and Health Provisions for Construction (29 CFR 1926.20 through 1926.32).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required inspections by the qualified person.</I> § 1926.20(b)(2) which requires health and safety prevention programs to provide for frequent and regular inspections of the job sites, materials, and equipment to be made by qualified persons, is incorporated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional inspections.</I> In addition, the qualified person shall make frequent and regular inspections of the job sites, in order to perform the duties set out in paragraph (o)(3)(i) of this section. For Class I jobs, on-site inspections shall be made at least once during each work shift, and at any time at employee request. For Class II, III and IV jobs, on-site inspections shall be made at intervals sufficient to assess whether conditions have changed, and at any reasonable time at employee request.
</P>
<P>(i) On all worksites where employees are engaged in Class I or II asbestos work, the qualified person designated in accordance with paragraph (e)(6) of this section shall perform or supervise the following duties, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) Set up the regulated area, enclosure, or other containment;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure (by on-site inspection) the integrity of the enclosure or containment;
</P>
<P>(C) Set up procedures to control entry to and exit from the enclosure and/or area;
</P>
<P>(D) Supervise all employee exposure monitoring required by this section and ensure that it is conducted as required by paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Ensure that employees working within the enclosure and/or using glove bags wear respirators and protective clothing as required by paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Ensure through on-site supervision, that employees set up, use, and remove engineering controls, use work practices and personal protective equipment in compliance with all requirements;
</P>
<P>(G) Ensure that employees use the hygiene facilities and observe the decontamination procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this section;
</P>
<P>(H) Ensure that through on-site inspection, engineering controls are functioning properly and employees are using proper work practices; and
</P>
<P>(I) Ensure that notification requirements in paragraph (k) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training for the competent person.</I> (i) For Class I and II asbestos work the qualified person shall be trained in all aspects of asbestos removal and handling, including: Abatement, installation, removal and handling; the contents of this standard; the identification of asbestos; removal procedures, where appropriate; and other practices for reducing the hazard. Such training shall be obtained in a comprehensive course for supervisors, that meets the criteria of EPA's Model Accreditation Plan (40 CFR part 763, subpart E, appendix C), such as a course conducted by an EPA-approved or state-approved training provider, certified by EPA or a state, or a course equivalent in stringency, content, and length.
</P>
<P>(ii) For Class III and IV asbestos work, the qualified person shall be trained in aspects of asbestos handling appropriate for the nature of the work, to include procedures for setting up glove bags and mini-enclosures, practices for reducing asbestos exposures, use of wet methods, the contents of this standard, and the identification of asbestos. Such training shall include successful completion of a course that is consistent with EPA requirements for training of local education agency maintenance and custodial staff as set forth at 40 CFR 763.92(a)(2), or its equivalent in stringency, content, and length. Qualified persons for Class III and Class IV work may also be trained pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (o)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Appendices.</I> (1) Appendices A, C, D, and E to this section are incorporated as part of this section and the contents of these appendices are mandatory.
</P>
<P>(2) Appendices B, F, H, I, J, and K to this section are informational and are not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1915.1001—OSHA Reference Method (Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>This mandatory appendix specifies the procedure for analyzing air samples for asbestos, and specifies quality control procedures that must be implemented by laboratories performing the analysis. The sampling and analytical methods described below represent the elements of the available monitoring methods (such as appendix B to this section, the most current version of the OSHA method ID-160, or the most current version of the NIOSH Method 7400) which OSHA considers to be essential to achieve adequate employee exposure monitoring while allowing employers to use methods that are already established within their organizations. All employers who are required to conduct air monitoring under paragraph (f) of this section are required to utilize analytical laboratories that use this procedure, or an equivalent method, for collecting and analyzing samples.
</P>
<HD2>Sampling and Analytical Procedure
</HD2>
<P>1. The sampling medium for air samples shall be mixed cellulose ester filter membranes. These shall be designated by the manufacturer as suitable for asbestos counting. See below for rejection of blanks.
</P>
<P>2. The preferred collection device shall be the 25-mm diameter cassette with an open-faced 50-mm extension cowl. The 37-mm cassette may be used if necessary but only if written justification for the need to use the 37-mm filter cassette accompanies the sample results in the employee's exposure monitoring record. Other cassettes such as the Bell-mouth may be used within the limits of their validation. Do not reuse or reload cassettes for asbestos sample collection.
</P>
<P>3. An air flow rate between 0.5 liter/min and 5 liters/min shall be selected for the 25-mm cassette. If the 37-mm cassette is used, an air flow rate between 1 liter/min and 5 liters/min shall be selected.
</P>
<P>4. Where possible, a sufficient air volume for each air sample shall be collected to yield between 100 and 1,300 fibers per square millimeter on the membrane filter. If a filter darkens in appearance or if loose dust is seen on the filter, a second sample shall be started.
</P>
<P>5. Ship the samples in a rigid container with sufficient packing material to prevent dislodging the collected fibers. Packing material that has a high electrostatic charge on its surface (e.g., expanded polystyrene) cannot be used because such material can cause loss of fibers to the sides of the cassette.
</P>
<P>6. Calibrate each personal sampling pump before and after use with a representative filter cassette installed between the pump and the calibration devices.
</P>
<P>7. Personal samples shall be taken in the “breathing zone” of the employee (i.e., attached to or near the collar or lapel near the worker's face).
</P>
<P>8. Fiber counts shall be made by positive phase contrast using a microscope with an 8 to 10× eyepiece and a 40 to 45× objective for a total magnification of approximately 400× and a numerical aperture of 0.65 to 0.75. The microscope shall also be fitted with a green or blue filter.
</P>
<P>9. The microscope shall be fitted with a Walton-Beckett eyepiece graticule calibrated for a field diameter of 100 micrometers (±2 micrometers).
</P>
<P>10. The phase-shift detection limit of the microscope shall be about 3 degrees measured using the HSE phase shift test slide as outlined below.
</P>
<P>a. Place the test slide on the microscope stage and center it under the phase objective.
</P>
<P>b. Bring the blocks of grooved lines into focus. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The slide consists of seven sets of grooved lines (ca. 20 grooves to each block) in descending order of visibility from sets 1 to 7, seven being the least visible. The requirements for asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite counting are that the microscope optics must resolve the grooved lines in set 3 completely, although they may appear somewhat faint, and that the grooved lines in sets 6 and 7 must be invisible. Sets 4 and 5 must be at least partially visible but may vary slightly in visibility between microscopes. A microscope that fails to meet these requirements has either too low or too high a resolution to be used for asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite counting.</P></NOTE>
<P>c. If the image deteriorates, clean and adjust the microscope optics. If the problem persists, consult the microscope manufacturer.
</P>
<P>11. Each set of samples taken will include 10% field blanks or a minimum of 2 field blanks. These blanks must come from the same lot as the filters used for sample collection. The field blank results shall be averaged and subtracted from the analytical results before reporting. A set consists of any sample or group of samples for which an evaluation for this standard must be made. Any samples represented by a field blank having a fiber count in excess of the detection limit of the method being used shall be rejected.
</P>
<P>12. The samples shall be mounted by the acetone/triacetin method or a method with an equivalent index of refraction and similar clarity.
</P>
<P>13. Observe the following counting rules.
</P>
<P>a. Count only fibers equal to or longer than 5 micrometers. Measure the length of curved fibers along the curve.
</P>
<P>b. In the absence of other information, count all particles as asbestos that have a length-to-width ratio (aspect ratio) of 3 to 1 or greater.
</P>
<P>c. Fibers lying entirely within the boundary of the Walton-Beckett graticule field shall receive a count of 1. Fibers crossing the boundary once, having one end within the circle, shall receive the count of one half (
<FR>1/2</FR>). Do not count any fiber that crosses the graticule boundary more than once. Reject and do not count any other fibers even though they may be visible outside the graticule area.
</P>
<P>d. Count bundles of fibers as one fiber unless individual fibers can be identified by observing both ends of an individual fiber.
</P>
<P>e. Count enough graticule fields to yield 100 fibers. Count a minimum of 20 fields; stop counting at 100 fields regardless of fiber count.
</P>
<P>14. Blind recounts shall be conducted at the rate of 10 percent.
</P>
<HD2>Quality Control Procedures
</HD2>
<P>1. Intra-laboratory program. Each laboratory and/or each company with more than one microscopist counting slides shall establish a statistically designed quality assurance program involving blind recounts and comparisons between microscopists to monitor the variability of counting by each microscopist and between microscopists. In a company with more than one laboratory, the program shall include all laboratories and shall also evaluate the laboratory-to-laboratory variability.
</P>
<P>2. a. Interlaboratory program. Each laboratory analyzing asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite samples for compliance determination shall implement an interlaboratory quality assurance program that as a minimum includes participation of at least two other independent laboratories. Each laboratory shall participate in round robin testing at least once every 6 months with at least all the other laboratories in its interlaboratory quality assurance group. Each laboratory shall submit slides typical of its own work load for use in this program. The round robin shall be designed and results analyzed using appropriate statistical methodology.
</P>
<P>b. All laboratories should participate in a national sample testing scheme such as the Proficiency Analytical Testing Program (PAT), the Asbestos Registry sponsored by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA).
</P>
<P>3. All individuals performing asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite analysis must have taken the NIOSH course for sampling and evaluating airborne asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite dust or an equivalent course.
</P>
<P>4. When the use of different microscopes contributes to differences between counters and laboratories, the effect of the different microscope shall be evaluated and the microscope shall be replaced, as necessary.
</P>
<P>5. Current results of these quality assurance programs shall be posted in each laboratory to keep the microscopists informed.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1915.1001—Detailed Procedures for Asbestos Sampling and Analysis (Non-mandatory)
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matrix:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">OSHA Permissible Exposure Limits: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Time Weighted Average</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 fiber/cc 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Excursion Level (30 minutes)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 fiber/cc 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Collection Procedure: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">A known volume of air is drawn through a 25-mm diameter cassette containing a mixed-cellulose ester filter. The cassette must be equipped with an electrically conductive 50-mm extension cowl. The sampling time and rate are chosen to give a fiber density of between 100 to 1,300 fibers/mm
<sup>2</sup> on the filter. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recommended Sampling Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 to 5.0 liters/minute (L/min) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recommended Air Volumes: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 L 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Maximum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400 L</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Analytical Procedure: A portion of the sample filter is cleared and prepared for asbestos fiber counting by Phase Contrast Microscopy (PCM) at 400X. 
</P>
<P>Commercial manufacturers and products mentioned in this method are for descriptive use only and do not constitute endorsements by USDOL-OSHA. Similar products from other sources can be substituted. 
</P>
<HD2>1. Introduction 
</HD2>
<P>This method describes the collection of airborne asbestos fibers using calibrated sampling pumps with mixed-cellulose ester (MCE) filters and analysis by phase contrast microscopy (PCM). Some terms used are unique to this method and are defined below: <I>Asbestos:</I> A term for naturally occurring fibrous minerals. Asbestos includes chrysotile, crocidolite, amosite (cummingtonite-grunerite asbestos), tremolite asbestos, actinolite asbestos, anthophyllite asbestos, and any of these minerals that have been chemically treated and/or altered. The precise chemical formulation of each species will vary with the location from which it was mined. Nominal compositions are listed: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mg<E T="52">3</E>Si<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Na<E T="52">2</E>Fe<E T="52">3</E>2 + Fe<E T="52">2</E>3 + Si<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amosite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E>Si<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite-actinolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca<E T="52">2</E>(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">5</E>Si<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E>Si<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Asbestos Fiber:</I> A fiber of asbestos which meets the criteria specified below for a fiber. 
</P>
<P><I>Aspect Ratio:</I> The ratio of the length of a fiber to it's diameter (e.g. 3:1, 5:1 aspect ratios). 
</P>
<P><I>Cleavage Fragments:</I> Mineral particles formed by comminution of minerals, especially those characterized by parallel sides and a moderate aspect ratio (usually less than 20:1). 
</P>
<P><I>Detection Limit:</I> The number of fibers necessary to be 95% certain that the result is greater than zero. 
</P>
<P><I>Differential Counting:</I> The term applied to the practice of excluding certain kinds of fibers from the fiber count because they do not appear to be asbestos. 
</P>
<P><I>Fiber:</I> A particle that is 5 µm or longer, with a length-to-width ratio of 3 to 1 or longer. 
</P>
<P><I>Field:</I> The area within the graticule circle that is superimposed on the microscope image. 
</P>
<P><I>Set:</I> The samples which are taken, submitted to the laboratory, analyzed, and for which, interim or final result reports are generated. 
</P>
<P><I>Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite:</I> The non-asbestos form of these minerals which meet the definition of a fiber. It includes any of these minerals that have been chemically treated and/or altered. 
</P>
<P><I>Walton-Beckett Graticule:</I> An eyepiece graticule specifically designed for asbestos fiber counting. It consists of a circle with a projected diameter of 100 ±2 µm (area of about 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU>) with a crosshair having tic-marks at 3-µm intervals in one direction and 5-µm in the orthogonal direction. There are marks around the periphery of the circle to demonstrate the proper sizes and shapes of fibers. This design is reproduced in figure 1. The disk is placed in one of the microscope eyepieces so that the design is superimposed on the field of view. 
</P>
<HD3>1.1. History 
</HD3>
<P>Early surveys to determine asbestos exposures were conducted using impinger counts of total dust with the counts expressed as million particles per cubic foot. The British Asbestos Research Council recommended filter membrane counting in 1969. In July 1969, the Bureau of Occupational Safety and Health published a filter membrane method for counting asbestos fibers in the United States. This method was refined by NIOSH and published as P &amp; CAM 239. On May 29, 1971, OSHA specified filter membrane sampling with phase contrast counting for evaluation of asbestos exposures at work sites in the United States. The use of this technique was again required by OSHA in 1986. Phase contrast microscopy has continued to be the method of choice for the measurement of occupational exposure to asbestos. 
</P>
<HD3>1.2. Principle 
</HD3>
<P>Air is drawn through a MCE filter to capture airborne asbestos fibers. A wedge shaped portion of the filter is removed, placed on a glass microscope slide and made transparent. A measured area (field) is viewed by PCM. All the fibers meeting defined criteria for asbestos are counted and considered a measure of the airborne asbestos concentration. 
</P>
<HD3>1.3. Advantages and Disadvantages 
</HD3>
<P>There are four main advantages of PCM over other methods: 
</P>
<P>(1) The technique is specific for fibers. Phase contrast is a fiber counting technique which excludes non-fibrous particles from the analysis. 
</P>
<P>(2) The technique is inexpensive and does not require specialized knowledge to carry out the analysis for total fiber counts. 
</P>
<P>(3) The analysis is quick and can be performed on-site for rapid determination of air concentrations of asbestos fibers. 
</P>
<P>(4) The technique has continuity with historical epidemiological studies so that estimates of expected disease can be inferred from long-term determinations of asbestos exposures. 
</P>
<P>The main disadvantage of PCM is that it does not positively identify asbestos fibers. Other fibers which are not asbestos may be included in the count unless differential counting is performed. This requires a great deal of experience to adequately differentiate asbestos from non-asbestos fibers. Positive identification of asbestos must be performed by polarized light or electron microscopy techniques. A further disadvantage of PCM is that the smallest visible fibers are about 0.2 µm in diameter while the finest asbestos fibers may be as small as 0.02 µm in diameter. For some exposures, substantially more fibers may be present than are actually counted. 
</P>
<HD3>1.4. Workplace Exposure 
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is used by the construction industry in such products as shingles, floor tiles, asbestos cement, roofing felts, insulation and acoustical products. Non-construction uses include brakes, clutch facings, paper, paints, plastics, and fabrics. One of the most significant exposures in the workplace is the removal and encapsulation of asbestos in schools, public buildings, and homes. Many workers have the potential to be exposed to asbestos during these operations. 
</P>
<P>About 95% of the asbestos in commercial use in the United States is chrysotile. Crocidolite and amosite make up most of the remainder. Anthophyllite and tremolite or actinolite are likely to be encountered as contaminants in various industrial products. 
</P>
<HD3>1.5. Physical Properties 
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos fiber possesses a high tensile strength along its axis, is chemically inert, non-combustible, and heat resistant. It has a high electrical resistance and good sound absorbing properties. It can be weaved into cables, fabrics or other textiles, and also matted into asbestos papers, felts, or mats. 
</P>
<HD2>2. Range and Detection Limit 
</HD2>
<P>2.1. The ideal counting range on the filter is 100 to 1,300 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. With a Walton-Beckett graticule this range is equivalent to 0.8 to 10 fibers/field. Using NIOSH counting statistics, a count of 0.8 fibers/field would give an approximate coefficient of variation (CV) of 0.13. 
</P>
<P>2.2. The detection limit for this method is 4.0 fibers per 100 fields or 5.5 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. This was determined using an equation to estimate the maximum CV possible at a specific concentration (95% confidence) and a Lower Control Limit of zero. The CV value was then used to determine a corresponding concentration from historical CV vs fiber relationships. As an example: 
</P>
<FP-2>Lower Control Limit (95% Confidence) = AC—1.645(CV)(AC) 
</FP-2>
<FP>Where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>AC = Estimate of the airborne fiber concentration (fibers/cc) Setting the Lower Control Limit = 0 and solving for CV: 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0 = AC—1.645(CV)(AC) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CV = 0.61 
</FP-2>
<P>This value was compared with CV vs. count curves. The count at which CV = 0.61 for Leidel-Busch counting statistics (8.9.) or for an OSHA Salt Lake Technical Center (OSHA-SLTC) CV curve (see appendix A for further information) was 4.4 fibers or 3.9 fibers per 100 fields, respectively. Although a lower detection limit of 4 fibers per 100 fields is supported by the OSHA-SLTC data, both data sets support the 4.5 fibers per 100 fields value. 
</P>
<HD2>3. Method Performance—Precision and Accuracy 
</HD2>
<P>Precision is dependent upon the total number of fibers counted and the uniformity of the fiber distribution on the filter. A general rule is to count at least 20 and not more than 100 fields. The count is discontinued when 100 fibers are counted, provided that 20 fields have already been counted. Counting more than 100 fibers results in only a small gain in precision. As the total count drops below 10 fibers, an accelerated loss of precision is noted. 
</P>
<P>At this time, there is no known method to determine the absolute accuracy of the asbestos analysis. Results of samples prepared through the Proficiency Analytical Testing (PAT) Program and analyzed by the OSHA-SLTC showed no significant bias when compared to PAT reference values. The PAT samples were analyzed from 1987 to 1989 (N = 36) and the concentration range was from 120 to 1,300 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. 
</P>
<HD2>4. Interferences 
</HD2>
<P>Fibrous substances, if present, may interfere with asbestos analysis. 
</P>
<P>Some common fibers are: 
</P>
<FP-1>fiberglass
</FP-1>
<FP-1>anhydrate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>plant fibers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>perlite veins
</FP-1>
<FP-1>gypsum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>some synthetic fibers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>membrane structures
</FP-1>
<FP-1>sponge spicules
</FP-1>
<FP-1>diatoms
</FP-1>
<FP-1>microorganism
</FP-1>
<FP-1>wollastonite
</FP-1>
<P>The use of electron microscopy or optical tests such as polarized light, and dispersion staining may be used to differentiate these materials from asbestos when necessary. 
</P>
<HD2>5. Sampling 
</HD2>
<HD3>5.1. Equipment 
</HD3>
<P><I>5.1.1.</I> Sample assembly (The assembly is shown in figure 3). Conductive filter holder consisting of a 25-mm diameter, 3-piece cassette having a 50-mm long electrically conductive extension cowl. Backup pad, 25-mm, cellulose. Membrane filter, mixed-cellulose ester (MCE), 25-mm, plain, white, 0.4 to 1.2-µm pore size.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notes:</HED>
<P>(a) DO NOT RE-USE CASSETTES.
</P>
<P>(b) Fully conductive cassettes are required to reduce fiber loss to the sides of the cassette due to electrostatic attraction. 
</P>
<P>(c) Purchase filters which have been selected by the manufacturer for asbestos counting or analyze representative filters for fiber background before use. Discard the filter lot if more than 4 fibers/100 fields are found. 
</P>
<P>(d) To decrease the possibility of contamination, the sampling system (filter-backup pad-cassette) for asbestos is usually preassembled by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(e) Other cassettes, such as the Bell-mouth, may be used within the limits of their validation.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>5.1.2.</I> Gel bands for sealing cassettes. 
</P>
<P><I>5.1.3.</I> Sampling pump. 
</P>
<P>Each pump must be a battery operated, self-contained unit small enough to be placed on the monitored employee and not interfere with the work being performed. The pump must be capable of sampling at the collection rate for the required sampling time. 
</P>
<P><I>5.1.4.</I> Flexible tubing, 6-mm bore. 
</P>
<P><I>5.1.5.</I> Pump calibration. 
</P>
<P>Stopwatch and bubble tube/burette or electronic meter. 
</P>
<HD3>5.2. Sampling Procedure 
</HD3>
<P><I>5.2.1.</I> Seal the point where the base and cowl of each cassette meet with a gel band or tape. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.2.</I> Charge the pumps completely before beginning. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.3.</I> Connect each pump to a calibration cassette with an appropriate length of 6-mm bore plastic tubing. Do not use luer connectors—the type of cassette specified above has built-in adapters. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.4.</I> Select an appropriate flow rate for the situation being monitored. The sampling flow rate must be between 0.5 and 5.0 L/min for personal sampling and is commonly set between 1 and 2 L/min. Always choose a flow rate that will not produce overloaded filters. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.5.</I> Calibrate each sampling pump before and after sampling with a calibration cassette in-line (Note: This calibration cassette should be from the same lot of cassettes used for sampling). Use a primary standard (e.g. bubble burette) to calibrate each pump. If possible, calibrate at the sampling site.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If sampling site calibration is not possible, environmental influences may affect the flow rate. The extent is dependent on the type of pump used. Consult with the pump manufacturer to determine dependence on environmental influences. If the pump is affected by temperature and pressure changes, correct the flow rate by using the formula shown in the section “Sampling Pump Flow Rate Corrections” at the end of this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>5.2.6.</I> Connect each pump to the base of each sampling cassette with flexible tubing. Remove the end cap of each cassette and take each air sample open face. Assure that each sample cassette is held open side down in the employee's breathing zone during sampling. The distance from the nose/mouth of the employee to the cassette should be about 10 cm. Secure the cassette on the collar or lapel of the employee using spring clips or other similar devices. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.7.</I> A suggested minimum air volume when sampling to determine TWA compliance is 25 L. For Excursion Limit (30 min sampling time) evaluations, a minimum air volume of 48 L is recommended. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.8.</I> The most significant problem when sampling for asbestos is overloading the filter with non-asbestos dust. Suggested maximum air sample volumes for specific environments are: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Environment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Air vol. (L)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos removal operations (visible dust)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos removal operations (little dust)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">240 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office environments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400 to 2,400</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Caution:</I> Do not overload the filter with dust. High levels of non-fibrous dust particles may obscure fibers on the filter and lower the count or make counting impossible. If more than about 25 to 30% of the field area is obscured with dust, the result may be biased low. Smaller air volumes may be necessary when there is excessive non-asbestos dust in the air. 
</P>
<P>While sampling, observe the filter with a small flashlight. If there is a visible layer of dust on the filter, stop sampling, remove and seal the cassette, and replace with a new sampling assembly. The total dust loading should not exceed 1 mg. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.9.</I> Blank samples are used to determine if any contamination has occurred during sample handling. Prepare two blanks for the first 1 to 20 samples. For sets containing greater than 20 samples, prepare blanks as 10% of the samples. Handle blank samples in the same manner as air samples with one exception: Do not draw any air through the blank samples. Open the blank cassette in the place where the sample cassettes are mounted on the employee. Hold it open for about 30 seconds. Close and seal the cassette appropriately. Store blanks for shipment with the sample cassettes. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.10.</I> Immediately after sampling, close and seal each cassette with the base and plastic plugs. Do not touch or puncture the filter membrane as this will invalidate the analysis. 
</P>
<P><I>5.2.11</I> Attach and secure a sample seal around each sample cassette in such a way as to assure that the end cap and base plugs cannot be removed without destroying the seal. Tape the ends of the seal together since the seal is not long enough to be wrapped end-to-end. Also wrap tape around the cassette at each joint to keep the seal secure. 
</P>
<HD3>5.3. Sample Shipment 
</HD3>
<P><I>5.3.1.</I> Send the samples to the laboratory with paperwork requesting asbestos analysis. List any known fibrous interferences present during sampling on the paperwork. Also, note the workplace operation(s) sampled. 
</P>
<P><I>5.3.2.</I> Secure and handle the samples in such that they will not rattle during shipment nor be exposed to static electricity. Do not ship samples in expanded polystyrene peanuts, vermiculite, paper shreds, or excelsior. Tape sample cassettes to sheet bubbles and place in a container that will cushion the samples in such a manner that they will not rattle. 
</P>
<P><I>5.3.3.</I> To avoid the possibility of sample contamination, always ship bulk samples in separate mailing containers. 
</P>
<HD2>6. Analysis 
</HD2>
<HD3>6.1. Safety Precautions 
</HD3>
<P><I>6.1.1.</I> Acetone is extremely flammable and precautions must be taken not to ignite it. Avoid using large containers or quantities of acetone. Transfer the solvent in a ventilated laboratory hood. Do not use acetone near any open flame. For generation of acetone vapor, use a spark free heat source. 
</P>
<P><I>6.1.2.</I> Any asbestos spills should be cleaned up immediately to prevent dispersal of fibers. Prudence should be exercised to avoid contamination of laboratory facilities or exposure of personnel to asbestos. Asbestos spills should be cleaned up with wet methods and/or a High Efficiency Particulate-Air (HEPA) filtered vacuum. 
</P>
<P><I>Caution:</I> Do not use a vacuum without a HEPA filter—It will disperse fine asbestos fibers in the air. 
</P>
<HD3>6.2. Equipment 
</HD3>
<P><I>6.2.1.</I> Phase contrast microscope with binocular or trinocular head. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.2.</I> Widefield or Huygenian 10X eyepieces (NOTE: The eyepiece containing the graticule must be a focusing eyepiece. Use a 40X phase objective with a numerical aperture of 0.65 to 0.75). 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.3.</I> Kohler illumination (if possible) with green or blue filter. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.4.</I> Walton-Beckett Graticule, type G-22 with 100 ±2 µm projected diameter. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.5.</I> Mechanical stage. A rotating mechanical stage is convenient for use with polarized light. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.6.</I> Phase telescope. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.7.</I> Stage micrometer with 0.01-mm subdivisions. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.8.</I> Phase-shift test slide, mark II (Available from PTR optics Ltd., and also McCrone). 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.9.</I> Precleaned glass slides, 25 mm × 75 mm. One end can be frosted for convenience in writing sample numbers, etc., or paste-on labels can be used. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.10.</I> Cover glass #1
<FR>1/2</FR>. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.11.</I> Scalpel (#10, curved blade). 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.12.</I> Fine tipped forceps. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.13.</I> Aluminum block for clearing filter (see appendix D and figure 4). 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.14.</I> Automatic adjustable pipette, 100- to 500-µL. 
</P>
<P><I>6.2.15.</I> Micropipette, 5 µL. 
</P>
<HD3>6.3. Reagents 
</HD3>
<P><I>6.3.1.</I> Acetone (HPLC grade). 
</P>
<P><I>6.3.2.</I> Triacetin (glycerol triacetate). 
</P>
<P><I>6.3.3.</I> Lacquer or nail polish. 
</P>
<HD3>6.4. Standard Preparation 
</HD3>
<P>A way to prepare standard asbestos samples of known concentration has not been developed. It is possible to prepare replicate samples of nearly equal concentration. This has been performed through the PAT program. These asbestos samples are distributed by the AIHA to participating laboratories. 
</P>
<P>Since only about one-fourth of a 25-mm sample membrane is required for an asbestos count, any PAT sample can serve as a “standard” for replicate counting. 
</P>
<HD3>6.5. Sample Mounting 
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See Safety Precautions in Section 6.1. before proceeding. The objective is to produce samples with a smooth (non-grainy) background in a medium with a refractive index of approximately 1.46. The technique below collapses the filter for easier focusing and produces permanent mounts which are useful for quality control and interlaboratory comparison.</P></NOTE>
<P>An aluminum block or similar device is required for sample preparation. 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.1.</I> Heat the aluminum block to about 70 °C. The hot block should not be used on any surface that can be damaged by either the heat or from exposure to acetone. 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.2.</I> Ensure that the glass slides and cover glasses are free of dust and fibers. 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.3.</I> Remove the top plug to prevent a vacuum when the cassette is opened. Clean the outside of the cassette if necessary. Cut the seal and/or tape on the cassette with a razor blade. Very carefully separate the base from the extension cowl, leaving the filter and backup pad in the base. 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.4.</I> With a rocking motion cut a triangular wedge from the filter using the scalpel. This wedge should be one-sixth to one-fourth of the filter. Grasp the filter wedge with the forceps on the perimeter of the filter which was clamped between the cassette pieces. DO NOT TOUCH the filter with your finger. Place the filter on the glass slide sample side up. Static electricity will usually keep the filter on the slide until it is cleared. 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.5.</I> Place the tip of the micropipette containing about 200 µL acetone into the aluminum block. Insert the glass slide into the receiving slot in the aluminum block. Inject the acetone into the block with slow, steady pressure on the plunger while holding the pipette firmly in place. Wait 3 to 5 seconds for the filter to clear, then remove the pipette and slide from the aluminum block. 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.6.</I> Immediately (less than 30 seconds) place 2.5 to 3.5 µL of triacetin on the filter (<E T="04">Note:</E> Waiting longer than 30 seconds will result in increased index of refraction and decreased contrast between the fibers and the preparation. This may also lead to separation of the cover slip from the slide). 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.7.</I> Lower a cover slip gently onto the filter at a slight angle to reduce the possibility of forming air bubbles. If more than 30 seconds have elapsed between acetone exposure and triacetin application, glue the edges of the cover slip to the slide with lacquer or nail polish. 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.8.</I> If clearing is slow, warm the slide for 15 min on a hot plate having a surface temperature of about 50 °C to hasten clearing. The top of the hot block can be used if the slide is not heated too long. 
</P>
<P><I>6.5.9.</I> Counting may proceed immediately after clearing and mounting are completed. 
</P>
<HD3>6.6. Sample Analysis 
</HD3>
<P>Completely align the microscope according to the manufacturer's instructions. Then, align the microscope using the following general alignment routine at the beginning of every counting session and more often if necessary. 
</P>
<HD3>6.6.1. Alignment 
</HD3>
<P>(1) Clean all optical surfaces. Even a small amount of dirt can significantly degrade the image. 
</P>
<P>(2) Rough focus the objective on a sample. 
</P>
<P>(3) Close down the field iris so that it is visible in the field of view. Focus the image of the iris with the condenser focus. Center the image of the iris in the field of view. 
</P>
<P>(4) Install the phase telescope and focus on the phase rings. Critically center the rings. Misalignment of the rings results in astigmatism which will degrade the image. 
</P>
<P>(5) Place the phase-shift test slide on the microscope stage and focus on the lines. The analyst must see line set 3 and should see at least parts of 4 and 5 but, not see line set 6 or 6. A microscope/microscopist combination which does not pass this test may not be used. 
</P>
<HD3>6.6.2. Counting Fibers 
</HD3>
<P>(1) Place the prepared sample slide on the mechanical stage of the microscope. Position the center of the wedge under the objective lens and focus upon the sample. 
</P>
<P>(2) Start counting from one end of the wedge and progress along a radial line to the other end (count in either direction from perimeter to wedge tip). Select fields randomly, without looking into the eyepieces, by slightly advancing the slide in one direction with the mechanical stage control. 
</P>
<P>(3) Continually scan over a range of focal planes (generally the upper 10 to 15 µm of the filter surface) with the fine focus control during each field count. Spend at least 5 to 15 seconds per field. 
</P>
<P>(4) Most samples will contain asbestos fibers with fiber diameters less than 1 µm. Look carefully for faint fiber images. The small diameter fibers will be very hard to see. However, they are an important contribution to the total count. 
</P>
<P>(5) Count only fibers equal to or longer than 5 µm. Measure the length of curved fibers along the curve. 
</P>
<P>(6) Count fibers which have a length to width ratio of 3:1 or greater. 
</P>
<P>(7) Count all the fibers in at least 20 fields. Continue counting until either 100 fibers are counted or 100 fields have been viewed; whichever occurs first. Count all the fibers in the final field. 
</P>
<P>(8) Fibers lying entirely within the boundary of the Walton-Beckett graticule field shall receive a count of 1. Fibers crossing the boundary once, having one end within the circle shall receive a count of 
<FR>1/2</FR>. Do not count any fiber that crosses the graticule boundary more than once. Reject and do not count any other fibers even though they may be visible outside the graticule area. If a fiber touches the circle, it is considered to cross the line. 
</P>
<P>(9) Count bundles of fibers as one fiber unless individual fibers can be clearly identified and each individual fiber is clearly not connected to another counted fiber. See figure 1 for counting conventions. 
</P>
<P>(10) Record the number of fibers in each field in a consistent way such that filter non-uniformity can be assessed. 
</P>
<P>(11) Regularly check phase ring alignment. 
</P>
<P>(12) When an agglomerate (mass of material) covers more than 25% of the field of view, reject the field and select another. Do not include it in the number of fields counted. 
</P>
<P>(13) Perform a “blind recount” of 1 in every 10 filter wedges (slides). Re-label the slides using a person other than the original counter. 
</P>
<HD3>6.7. Fiber Identification 
</HD3>
<P>As previously mentioned in Section 1.3., PCM does not provide positive confirmation of asbestos fibers. Alternate differential counting techniques should be used if discrimination is desirable. Differential counting may include primary discrimination based on morphology, polarized light analysis of fibers, or modification of PCM data by Scanning Electron or Transmission Electron Microscopy. 
</P>
<P>A great deal of experience is required to routinely and correctly perform differential counting. It is discouraged unless it is legally necessary. Then, only if a fiber is obviously not asbestos should it be excluded from the count. Further discussion of this technique can be found in reference 8.10. 
</P>
<P>If there is a question whether a fiber is asbestos or not, follow the rule: 
</P>
<P>“WHEN IN DOUBT, COUNT.” 
</P>
<HD3>6.8. Analytical Recommendations—Quality Control System 
</HD3>
<P><I>6.8.1.</I> All individuals performing asbestos analysis must have taken the NIOSH course for sampling and evaluating airborne asbestos or an equivalent course. 
</P>
<P><I>6.8.2.</I> Each laboratory engaged in asbestos counting shall set up a slide trading arrangement with at least two other laboratories in order to compare performance and eliminate inbreeding of error. The slide exchange occurs at least semiannually. The round robin results shall be posted where all analysts can view individual analyst's results. 
</P>
<P><I>6.8.3.</I> Each laboratory engaged in asbestos counting shall participate in the Proficiency Analytical Testing Program, the Asbestos Analyst Registry or equivalent. 
</P>
<P><I>6.8.4.</I> Each analyst shall select and count prepared slides from a “slide bank”. These are quality assurance counts. The slide bank shall be prepared using uniformly distributed samples taken from the workload. Fiber densities should cover the entire range routinely analyzed by the laboratory. These slides are counted blind by all counters to establish an original standard deviation. This historical distribution is compared with the quality assurance counts. A counter must have 95% of all quality control samples counted within three standard deviations of the historical mean. This count is then integrated into a new historical mean and standard deviation for the slide. 
</P>
<P>The analyses done by the counters to establish the slide bank may be used for an interim quality control program if the data are treated in a proper statistical fashion. 
</P>
<HD2>7. Calculations 
</HD2>
<P>7.1. Calculate the estimated airborne asbestos fiber concentration on the filter sample using the following formula:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="45" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.027.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>AC = Airborne fiber concentration 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FB = Total number of fibers greater than 5 µm counted 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL = Total number of fields counted on the filter 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BFB = Total number of fibers greater than 5 µm counted in the blank 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BFL = Total number of fields counted on the blank 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ECA = Effective collecting area of filter (385 mm
<SU>2</SU> nominal for a 25-mm filter.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FR = Pump flow rate (L/min) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MFA = Microscope count field area (mm
<SU>2</SU> ). This is 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU> for a Walton-Beckett Graticule. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = Sample collection time (min) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1,000 = Conversion of L to cc 
</FP-2>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The collection area of a filter is seldom equal to 385 mm
<SU>2</SU>. It is appropriate for laboratories to routinely monitor the exact diameter using an inside micrometer. The collection area is calculated according to the formula: 
</P>
<FP>Area = π(d/2) 
<SU>2</SU></FP></NOTE>
<HD3>7.2. Short-cut Calculation 
</HD3>
<P>Since a given analyst always has the same interpupillary distance, the number of fields per filter for a particular analyst will remain constant for a given size filter. The field size for that analyst is constant (i.e. the analyst is using an assigned microscope and is not changing the reticle). 
</P>
<P>For example, if the exposed area of the filter is always 385 mm
<SU>2</SU> and the size of the field is always 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU>, the number of fields per filter will always be 49,000. In addition it is necessary to convert liters of air to cc. These three constants can then be combined such that ECA/(1,000 × MFA) = 49. The previous equation simplifies to:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="43" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.028.gif"/></MATH>
<HD3>7.3. Recount Calculations
</HD3>
<P>As mentioned in step 13 of Section 6.6.2., a “blind recount” of 10% of the slides is performed. In all cases, differences will be observed between the first and second counts of the same filter wedge. Most of these differences will be due to chance alone, that is, due to the random variability (precision) of the count method. Statistical recount criteria enables one to decide whether observed differences can be explained due to chance alone or are probably due to systematic differences between analysts, microscopes, or other biasing factors. 
</P>
<P>The following recount criterion is for a pair of counts that estimate AC in fibers/cc. The criterion is given at the type-I error level. That is, there is 5% maximum risk that we will reject a pair of counts for the reason that one might be biased, when the large observed difference is really due to chance. 
</P>
<P>Reject a pair of counts if:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="43" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er29jn95.001.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>AC<E T="52">1</E> = lower estimated airborne fiber concentration 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AC<E T="52">2</E> = higher estimated airborne fiber concentration 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AC<E T="52">avg</E> = average of the two concentration estimates 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CV<E T="52">FB</E> = CV for the average of the two concentration estimates 
</FP-2>
<P>If a pair of counts are rejected by this criterion then, recount the rest of the filters in the submitted set. Apply the test and reject any other pairs failing the test. Rejection shall include a memo to the industrial hygienist stating that the sample failed a statistical test for homogeneity and the true air concentration may be significantly different than the reported value. 
</P>
<HD3>7.4. Reporting Results 
</HD3>
<P>Report results to the industrial hygienist as fibers/cc. Use two significant figures. If multiple analyses are performed on a sample, an average of the results is to be reported unless any of the results can be rejected for cause. 
</P>
<HD2>8. References 
</HD2>
<P>8.1. Dreesen, W.C., et al, <I>U.S. Public Health Service: A Study of Asbestosis in the Asbestos Textile Industry,</I> (Public Health Bulletin No. 241), US Treasury Dept., Washington, DC, 1938. 
</P>
<P>8.2. <I>Asbestos Research Council: The Measurement of Airborne Asbestos Dust by the Membrane Filter Method</I> (Technical Note), Asbestos Research Council, Rockdale, Lancashire, Great Britain, 1969. 
</P>
<P>8.3. Bayer, S.G., Zumwalde, R.D., Brown, T.A., <I>Equipment and Procedure for Mounting Millipore Filters and Counting Asbestos Fibers by Phase Contrast Microscopy,</I> Bureau of Occupational Health, U.S. Dept. of Health, Education and Welfare, Cincinnati,OH,1969. 
</P>
<P>8.4. <I>NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods,</I> 2nd ed., Vol. 1 (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. 77-157-A). National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Cincinnati, OH, 1977.pp.239-1-239-21. 
</P>
<P>8.5. <I>Asbestos,</I> Code of Federal Regulations 29 CFR 1910.1001. 1971. 
</P>
<P>8.6. <I>Occupational Exposure to Asbestos, Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite. Final Rule,</I> <E T="04">Federal Register</E> 51: 119 (20 June 1986). pp.22612-22790. 
</P>
<P>8.7. <I>Asbestos, Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite,</I> Code of Federal Regulations 1910.1001. 1988. pp 711-752. 
</P>
<P>8.8. <I>Criteria for a Recommended Standard—Occupational Exposure to Asbestos</I> (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. HSM 72-10267), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health NIOSH, Cincinnati, OH, 1972. pp. III-1-III-24. 
</P>
<P>8.9. Leidel, N.A., Bayer, S.G., Zumwalde, R.D., Busch, K.A., <I>USPHS/NIOSH Membrane Filter Method for Evaluating Airborne Asbestos Fibers</I> (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. 79-127). National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Cincinnati, OH, 1979. 
</P>
<P>8.10. Dixon, W.C., <I>Applications of Optical Microscopy in Analysis of Asbestos and Quartz,</I> Analytical Techniques in Occupational Health Chemistry, edited by D.D. Dollberg and A.W. Verstuyft. Wash. D.C.: American Chemical Society, (ACS Symposium Series 120) 1980. pp. 13-41. 
</P>
<HD2>Quality Control 
</HD2>
<P>The OSHA asbestos regulations require each laboratory to establish a quality control program. The following is presented as an example of how the OSHA-SLTC constructed its internal CV curve as part of meeting this requirement. Data is from 395 samples collected during OSHA compliance inspections and analyzed from October 1980 through April 1986. 
</P>
<P>Each sample was counted by 2 to 5 different counters independently of one another. The standard deviation and the CV statistic was calculated for each sample. This data was then plotted on a graph of CV vs. fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. A least squares regression was performed using the following equation: 
</P>
<FP-2>CV = antilog<E T="52">10</E>[A(log<E T="52">10</E>(x))
<SU>2</SU> + B(log<E T="52">10</E>(x)) + C] 
</FP-2>
<FP>Where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>x = the number of fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU> 
</FP-2>
<P>Application of least squares gave:
</P>
<FP-2>A = 0.182205 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = −0.973343 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = 0.327499 
</FP-2>
<P>Using these values, the equation becomes: 
</P>
<FP-2>CV = antilog<E T="52">10</E>[0.182205(log<E T="52">10</E> (x))
<SU>2</SU>−0.973343(log <E T="52">10</E>(x)) + 0.327499]
</FP-2>
<HD3>Sampling Pump Flow Rate Corrections
</HD3>
<P>This correction is used if a difference greater than 5% in ambient temperature and/or pressure is noted between calibration and sampling sites and the pump does not compensate for the differences.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="39" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.030.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">act</E> = actual flow rate 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">cal</E> = calibrated flow rate (if a rotameter was used, the rotameter value) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">cal</E> = uncorrected air pressure at calibration 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">act</E> = uncorrected air pressure at sampling site 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">act</E> = temperature at sampling site (K) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">cal</E> = temperature at calibration (K) 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Walton-Beckett Graticule
</HD2>
<P>When ordering the Graticule for asbestos counting, specify the exact disc diameter needed to fit the ocular of the microscope and the diameter (mm) of the circular counting area. Instructions for measuring the dimensions necessary are listed: 
</P>
<P>(1) Insert any available graticule into the focusing eyepiece and focus so that the graticule lines are sharp and clear. 
</P>
<P>(2) Align the microscope. 
</P>
<P>(3) Place a stage micrometer on the microscope object stage and focus the microscope on the graduated lines. 
</P>
<P>(4) Measure the magnified grid length, PL (µm), using the stage micrometer. 
</P>
<P>(5) Remove the graticule from the microscope and measure its actual grid length, AL (mm). This can be accomplished by using a mechanical stage fitted with verniers, or a jeweler's loupe with a direct reading scale. 
</P>
<P>(6) Let D = 100 µm. Calculate the circle diameter, d<E T="52">c</E> (mm), for the Walton-Beckett graticule and specify the diameter when making a purchase: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.031.gif"/></MATH>
<P>Example: If PL = 108 µm, AL = 2.93 mm and D = 100 µm, then, 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.032.gif"/>
<P>(7) Each eyepiece-objective-reticle combination on the microscope must be calibrated. Should any of the three be changed (by zoom adjustment, disassembly, replacement, etc.), the combination must be recalibrated. Calibration may change if interpupillary distance is changed. 
</P>
<P>Measure the field diameter, D (acceptable range: 100 ±2 µm) with a stage micrometer upon receipt of the graticule from the manufacturer. Determine the field area (mm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<FP-2>Field Area = π(D/2)
<SU>2</SU> 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>If D = 100 µm = 0.1 mm, then 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Field Area = π(0.1 mm/2)
<SU>2</SU> = 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU> 
</FP-2>
<P>The Graticule is available from: Graticules Ltd., Morley Road, Tonbridge TN9 IRN, Kent, England (Telephone 011-44-732-359061). Also available from PTR Optics Ltd., 145 Newton Street, Waltham, MA 02154 [telephone (617) 891-6000] or McCrone Accessories and Components, 2506 S. Michigan Ave., Chicago, IL 60616 [phone (312) 842-7100]. The graticule is custom made for each microscope.</P></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.008.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Counts for the Fibers in the Figure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Structure No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Count 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Explanation 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 to 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single fibers all contained within the circle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber crosses circle once.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber too short.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Two crossing fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber outside graticule.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber crosses graticule twice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Although split, fiber only crosses once.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1915.1001—Qualitative and Quantitative Fit Testing Procedures. Mandatory 
</HD1>
<P>Employers must perform fit testing in accordance with the fit-testing requirements of 29 CFR 1910.134(f) and the qualitative and quantitative fit-testing protocols and procedures specified in Appendix A of 29 CFR 1910.134. </P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1915.1001—Medical Questionnaires. Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>This mandatory appendix contains the medical questionnaires that must be administered to all employees who are exposed to asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, actinolite, or a combination of these minerals above the permissible exposure limit (0.1 f/cc), and who will therefore be included in their employer's medical surveillance program. Part 1 of the appendix contains the Initial Medical Questionnaire, which must be obtained for all new hires who will be covered by the medical surveillance requirements. Part 2 includes the abbreviated Periodical Medical Questionnaire, which must be administered to all employees who are provided periodic medical examinations under the medical surveillance provisions of the standard.</P></EXTRACT>
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<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1915.1001—Classification of Chest X-Rays. Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>(a) Chest X-rays shall be classified in accordance with the Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011) (incorporated by reference, see § 1915.5), and recorded on a classification form following the format of the CDC/NIOSH (M) 2.8 form. As a minimum, the content within the bold lines of this form (items 1 through 4) shall be included. This form is not to be submitted to NIOSH.
</P>
<P>(b) All X-rays shall be classified only by a B-Reader, a board eligible/certified radiologist, or an experienced physician with known expertise in pneumoconioses.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever classifying chest X-ray film, the physician shall have immediately available for reference a complete set of the ILO standard format radiographs provided for use with the Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011).
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever classifying digitally-acquired chest X-rays, the physician shall have immediately available for reference a complete set of ILO standard digital chest radiographic images provided for use with the Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011). Classification of digitally-acquired chest X-rays shall be based on the viewing of images displayed as electronic copies and shall not be based on the viewing of hard copy printed transparencies of images.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1915.1001—Work Practices and Engineering Controls for Class I Asbestos Operations Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>This is a non-mandatory appendix to the asbestos standards for construction and for shipyards. It describes criteria and procedures for erecting and using negative pressure enclosures for Class I Asbestos Work, when NPEs are used as an allowable control method to comply with paragraph (g)(5) (i) of this section. Many small and variable details are involved in the erection of a negative pressure enclosure. OSHA and most participants in the rulemaking agreed that only the major, more performance oriented criteria should be made mandatory. These criteria are set out in paragraph (g) of this section. In addition, this appendix includes these mandatory specifications and procedures in its guidelines in order to make this appendix coherent and helpful. The mandatory nature of the criteria which appear in the regulatory text is not changed because they are included in this “non-mandatory” appendix. Similarly, the additional criteria and procedures included as guidelines in the appendix, do not become mandatory because mandatory criteria are also included in these comprehensive guidelines.
</P>
<P>In addition, none of the criteria, both mandatory and recommended, are meant to specify or imply the need for use of patented or licensed methods or equipment. Recommended specifications included in this attachment should not discourage the use of creative alternatives which can be shown to reliably achieve the objectives of negative-pressure enclosures.
</P>
<P>Requirements included in this appendix, cover general provisions to be followed in all asbestos jobs, provisions which must be followed for all Class I asbestos jobs, and provisions governing the construction and testing of negative pressure enclosures. The first category includes the requirement for use of wet methods, HEPA vacuums, and immediate bagging of waste; Class I work must conform to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>• oversight by competent person
</P>
<P>• use of critical barriers over all openings to work area
</P>
<P>• isolation of HVAC systems 
</P>
<P>• use of impermeable dropcloths and coverage of all objects within regulated areas
</P>
<P>In addition, more specific requirements for NPEs include:
</P>
<P>• maintenance of −0.02 inches water gauge within enclosure
</P>
<P>• manometric measurements
</P>
<P>• air movement away from employees performing removal work
</P>
<P>• smoke testing or equivalent for detection of leaks and air direction
</P>
<P>• deactivation of electrical circuits, if not provided with ground-fault circuit interrupters.
</P>
<HD2>Planning the Project
</HD2>
<P>The standard requires that an exposure assessment be conducted before the asbestos job is begun § 1915.1001(f)(1). Information needed for that assessment, includes data relating to prior similar jobs, as applied to the specific variables of the current job. The information needed to conduct the assessment will be useful in planning the project, and in complying with any reporting requirements under this standard, when significant changes are being made to a control system listed in the standard, [see paragraph (k) of this section], as well as those of USEPA (40 CFR part 61, subpart M). Thus, although the standard does not explicitly require the preparation of a written asbestos removal plan, the usual constituents of such a plan, i.e., a description of the enclosure, the equipment, and the procedures to be used throughout the project, must be determined before the enclosure can be erected. The following information should be included in the planning of the system:
</P>
<P>A physical description of the work area; 
</P>
<P>A description of the approximate amount of material to be removed;
</P>
<P>A schedule for turning off and sealing existing ventilation systems; 
</P>
<P>Personnel hygiene procedures;
</P>
<P>A description of personal protective equipment and clothing to worn by employees;
</P>
<P>A description of the local exhaust ventilation systems to be used and how they are to be tested;
</P>
<P>A description of work practices to be observed by employees;
</P>
<P>An air monitoring plan;
</P>
<P>A description of the method to be used to transport waste material; and
</P>
<P>The location of the dump site.
</P>
<HD2>Materials and Equipment Necessary for Asbestos Removal
</HD2>
<P>Although individual asbestos removal projects vary in terms of the equipment required to accomplish the removal of the materials, some equipment and materials are common to most asbestos removal operations.
</P>
<P>Plastic sheeting used to protect horizontal surfaces, seal HVAC openings or to seal vertical openings and ceilings should have a minimum thickness of 6 mils. Tape or other adhesive used to attach plastic sheeting should be of sufficient adhesive strength to support the weight of the material plus all stresses encountered during the entire duration of the project without becoming detached from the surface.
</P>
<P>Other equipment and materials which should be available at the beginning of each project are:
</P>
<P>—HEPA Filtered Vacuum is essential for cleaning the work area after the asbestos has been removed. It should have a long hose capable of reaching out-of-the-way places, such as areas above ceiling tiles, behind pipes, etc.
</P>
<P>—Portable air ventilation systems installed to provide the negative air pressure and air removal from the enclosure must be equipped with a HEPA filter. The number and capacity of units required to ventilate an enclosure depend on the size of the area to be ventilated. The filters for these systems should be designed in such a manner that they can be replaced when the air flow volume is reduced by the build-up of dust in the filtration material. Pressure monitoring devices with alarms and strip chart recorders attached to each system to indicate the pressure differential and the loss due to dust buildup on the filter are recommended. 
</P>
<FP-1>—Water sprayers should be used to keep the asbestos material as saturated as possible during removal; the sprayers will provide a fine mist that minimizes the impact of the spray on the material.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Water used to saturate the asbestos containing material can be amended by adding at least 15 milliliters (
<FR>1/4</FR> ounce) of wetting agent in 1 liter (1 pint) of water. An example of a wetting agent is a 50/50 mixture of polyoxyethylene ether and polyoxyethylene polyglycol ester.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Backup power supplies are recommended, especially for ventilation systems.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Shower and bath water should be with mixed hot and cold water faucets. Water that has been used to clean personnel or equipment should either be filtered or be collected and discarded as asbestos waste. Soap and shampoo should be provided to aid in removing dust from the workers' skin and hair.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—See paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section for appropriate respiratory protection and protective clothing.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—See paragraph (k) of this section for required signs and labels.
</FP-1>
<HD2>Preparing the Work Area
</HD2>
<P>Disabling HVAC Systems: The power to the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning systems that service the restricted area must be deactivated and locked off. All ducts, grills, access ports, windows and vents must be sealed off with two layers of plastic to prevent entrainment of contaminated air.
</P>
<P>Operating HVAC Systems in the Restricted Area: If components of a HVAC system located in the restricted area are connected to a system that will service another zone during the project, the portion of the duct in the restricted area must be sealed and pressurized. Necessary precautions include caulking the duct joints, covering all cracks and openings with two layers of sheeting, and pressurizing the duct throughout the duration of the project by restricting the return air flow. The power to the fan supplying the positive pressure should be locked “on” to prevent pressure loss.
</P>
<P>Sealing Elevators: If an elevator shaft is located in the restricted area, it should be either shut down or isolated by sealing with two layers of plastic sheeting. The sheeting should provide enough slack to accommodate the pressure changes in the shaft without breaking the air-tight seal.
</P>
<P>Removing Mobile Objects: All movable objects should be cleaned and removed from the work area before an enclosure is constructed unless moving the objects creates a hazard. Mobile objects will be assumed to be contaminated and should be either cleaned with amended water and a HEPA vacuum and then removed from the area or wrapped and then disposed of as hazardous waste.
</P>
<P>Cleaning and Sealing Surfaces: After cleaning with water and a HEPA vacuum, surfaces of stationary objects should be covered with two layers of plastic sheeting. The sheeting should be secured with duct tape or an equivalent method to provide a tight seal around the object.
</P>
<P>Bagging Waste: In addition to the requirement for immediate bagging of waste for disposal, it is further recommended that the waste material be double-bagged and sealed in plastic bags designed for asbestos disposal. The bags should be stored in a waste storage area that can be controlled by the workers conducting the removal. Filters removed from air handling units and rubbish removed from the area are to be bagged and handled as hazardous waste.
</P>
<HD2>Constructing the Enclosure
</HD2>
<P>The enclosure should be constructed to provide an air-tight seal around ducts and openings into existing ventilation systems and around penetrations for electrical conduits, telephone wires, water lines, drain pipes, etc. Enclosures should be both airtight and watertight except for those openings designed to provide entry and/or air flow control.
</P>
<P>Size: An enclosure should be the minimum volume to encompass all of the working surfaces yet allow unencumbered movement by the worker(s), provide unrestricted air flow past the worker(s), and ensure walking surfaces can be kept free of tripping hazards.
</P>
<P>Shape: The enclosure may be any shape that optimizes the flow of ventilation air past the worker(s).
</P>
<P>Structural Integrity: The walls, ceilings and floors must be supported in such a manner that portions of the enclosure will not fall down during normal use.
</P>
<P>Openings: It is not necessary that the structure be airtight; openings may be designed to direct air flow. Such openings should be located at a distance from active removal operations. They should be designed to draw air into the enclosure under all anticipated circumstances. In the event that negative pressure is lost, they should be fitted with either HEPA filters to trap dust or automatic trap doors that prevent dust from escaping the enclosure. Openings for exits should be controlled by an airlock or a vestibule.
</P>
<P>Barrier Supports: Frames should be constructed to support all unsupported spans of sheeting.
</P>
<P>Sheeting: Walls, barriers, ceilings, and floors should be lined with two layers of plastic sheeting having a thickness of at least 6 mil.
</P>
<P>Seams: Seams in the sheeting material should be minimized to reduce the possibilities of accidental rips and tears in the adhesive or connections. All seams in the sheeting should overlap, be staggered and not be located at corners or wall-to- floor joints. Areas Within an Enclosure: Each enclosure consists of a work area, a decontamination area, and waste storage area. The work area where the asbestos removal operations occur should be separated from both the waste storage area and the contamination control area by physical curtains, doors, and/or airflow patterns that force any airborne contamination back into the work area.
</P>
<P>See paragraph (j) of § 1915.1001 for requirements for hygiene facilities.
</P>
<P>During egress from the work area, each worker should step into the equipment room, clean tools and equipment, and remove gross contamination from clothing by wet cleaning and HEPA vacuuming. Before entering the shower area, foot coverings, head coverings, hand coverings, and coveralls are removed and placed in impervious bags for disposal or cleaning. Airline connections from airline respirators with HEPA disconnects and power cables from powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs) will be disconnected just prior to entering the shower room.
</P>
<HD2>Establishing Negative Pressure Within the Enclosure
</HD2>
<P>Negative Pressure: Air is to be drawn into the enclosure under all anticipated conditions and exhausted through a HEPA filter for 24 hours a day during the entire duration of the project.
</P>
<P>Air Flow Tests: Air flow patterns will be checked before removal operations begin, at least once per operating shift and any time there is a question regarding the integrity of the enclosure. The primary test for air flow is to trace air currents with smoke tubes or other visual methods. Flow checks are made at each opening and at each doorway to demonstrate that air is being drawn into the enclosure and at each worker's position to show that air is being drawn away from the breathing zone.
</P>
<P>Monitoring Pressure Within the Enclosure: After the initial air flow patterns have been checked, the static pressure must be monitored within the enclosure. Monitoring may be made using manometers, pressure gauges, or combinations of these devices. It is recommended that they be attached to alarms and strip chart recorders at points identified by the design engineer.
</P>
<P>Corrective Actions: If the manometers or pressure gauges demonstrate a reduction in pressure differential below the required level, work should cease and the reason for the change investigated and appropriate changes made. The air flow patterns should be retested before work begins again.
</P>
<P>Pressure Differential: The design parameters for static pressure differentials between the inside and outside of enclosures typically range from 0.02 to 0.10 inches of water gauge, depending on conditions. All zones inside the enclosure must have less pressure than the ambient pressure outside of the enclosure (-0.02 inches water gauge differential). Design specifications for the differential vary according to the size, configuration, and shape of the enclosure as well as ambient and mechanical air pressure conditions around the enclosure.
</P>
<P>Air Flow Patterns: The flow of air past each worker shall be enhanced by positioning the intakes and exhaust ports to remove contaminated air from the worker's breathing zone, by positioning HEPA vacuum cleaners to draw air from the worker's breathing zone, by forcing relatively uncontaminated air past the worker toward an exhaust port, or by using a combination of methods to reduce the worker's exposure.
</P>
<P>Air Handling Unit Exhaust: The exhaust plume from air handling units should be located away from adjacent personnel and intakes for HVAC systems.
</P>
<P>Air Flow Volume: The air flow volume (cubic meters per minute) exhausted (removed) from the workplace must exceed the amount of makeup air supplied to the enclosure. The rate of air exhausted from the enclosure should be designed to maintain a negative pressure in the enclosure and air movement past each worker. The volume of air flow removed from the enclosure should replace the volume of the container at every 5 to 15 minutes. Air flow volume will need to be relatively high for large enclosures, enclosures with awkward shapes, enclosures with multiple openings, and operations employing several workers in the enclosure.
</P>
<P>Air Flow Velocity: At each opening, the air flow velocity must visibly “drag” air into the enclosure. The velocity of air flow within the enclosure must be adequate to remove airborne contamination from each worker's breathing zone without disturbing the asbestos-containing material on surfaces.
</P>
<P>Airlocks: Airlocks are mechanisms on doors and curtains that control the air flow patterns in the doorways. If air flow occurs, the patterns through doorways must be such that the air flows toward the inside of the enclosure. Sometimes vestibules, double doors, or double curtains are used to prevent air movement through the doorways. To use a vestibule, a worker enters a chamber by opening the door or curtain and then closing the entry before opening the exit door or curtain.
</P>
<P>Airlocks should be located between the equipment room and shower room, between the shower room and the clean room, and between the waste storage area and the outside of the enclosure. The air flow between adjacent rooms must be checked using smoke tubes or other visual tests to ensure the flow patterns draw air toward the work area without producing eddies.
</P>
<HD2>Monitoring for Airborne Concentrations
</HD2>
<P>In addition to the breathing zone samples taken as outlined in paragraph (f) of § 1915.1001 , samples of air should be taken to demonstrate the integrity of the enclosure, the cleanliness of the clean room and shower area, and the effectiveness of the HEPA filter. If the clean room is shown to be contaminated, the room must be relocated to an uncontaminated area.
</P>
<P>Samples taken near the exhaust of portable ventilation systems must be done with care.
</P>
<HD2>General Work Practices
</HD2>
<P>Preventing dust dispersion is the primary means of controlling the spread of asbestos within the enclosure. Whenever practical, the point of removal should be isolated, enclosed, covered, or shielded from the workers in the area. Waste asbestos containing materials must be bagged during or immediately after removal; the material must remain saturated until the waste container is sealed.
</P>
<P>Waste material with sharp points or corners must be placed in hard air-tight containers rather than bags.
</P>
<P>Whenever possible, large components should be sealed in plastic sheeting and removed intact.
</P>
<P>Bags or containers of waste will be moved to the waste holding area, washed, and wrapped in a bag with the appropriate labels.
</P>
<HD2>Cleaning the Work Area
</HD2>
<P>Surfaces within the work area should be kept free of visible dust and debris to the extent feasible. Whenever visible dust appears on surfaces, the surfaces within the enclosure must be cleaned by wiping with a wet sponge, brush, or cloth and then vacuumed with a HEPA vacuum.
</P>
<P>All surfaces within the enclosure should be cleaned before the exhaust ventilation system is deactivated and the enclosure is disassembled. An approved encapsulant may be sprayed onto areas after the visible dust has been removed.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix G to § 1915.1001 [Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix H to § 1915.1001—Substance Technical Information for Asbestos. Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Substance Identification
</HD2>
<P>A. Substance: “Asbestos” is the name of a class of magnesium-silicate minerals that occur in fibrous form. Minerals that are included in this group are chrysotile, crocidolite, amosite, anthophyllite asbestos, tremolite asbestos, and actinolite asbestos. 
</P>
<P>B. Asbestos is and was used in the manufacture of heat-resistant clothing, automotive brake and clutch linings, and a variety of building materials including floor tiles, roofing felts, ceiling tiles, asbestos-cement pipe and sheet, and fire-resistant drywall. Asbestos is also present in pipe and boiler insulation materials and in sprayed-on materials located on beams, in crawlspaces, and between walls. 
</P>
<P>C. The potential for an asbestos-containing product to release breathable fibers depends largely on its degree of friability. Friable means that the material can be crumbled with hand pressure and is therefore likely to emit fibers. The fibrous fluffy sprayed-on materials used for fireproofing, insulation, or sound proofing are considered to be friable, and they readily release airborne fibers if disturbed. Materials such as vinyl-asbestos floor tile or roofing felt are considered non-friable if intact and generally do not emit airborne fibers unless subjected to sanding, sawing and other aggressive operations. Asbestos—cement pipe or sheet can emit airborne fibers if the materials are cut or sawed, or if they are broken. 
</P>
<P>D. Permissible exposure: Exposure to airborne asbestos fibers may not exceed 0.1 fibers per cubic centimeter of air (0.1 f/cc) averaged over the 8-hour workday, and 1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air (1.0 f/cc) averaged over a 30 minute work period. 
</P>
<HD2>II. Health Hazard Data 
</HD2>
<P>A. Asbestos can cause disabling respiratory disease and various types of cancers if the fibers are inhaled. Inhaling or ingesting fibers from contaminated clothing or skin can also result in these diseases. The symptoms of these diseases generally do not appear for 20 or more years after initial exposure. 
</P>
<P>B. Exposure to asbestos has been shown to cause lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of the stomach and colon. Mesothelioma is a rare cancer of the thin membrane lining of the chest and abdomen. Symptoms of mesothelioma include shortness of breath, pain in the walls of the chest, and/or abdominal pain. 
</P>
<HD2>III. Respirators and Protective Clothing 
</HD2>
<P>A. Respirators: You are required to wear a respirator when performing tasks that result in asbestos exposure that exceeds the permissible exposure limit (PEL) of 0.1 f/cc and when performing certain designated operations. Air-purifying respirators equipped with a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter can be used where airborne asbestos fiber concentrations do not exceed 1.0 f/cc; otherwise, more protective respirators such as air-supplied, positive-pressure, full facepiece respirators must be used. Disposable respirators or dust masks are not permitted to be used for asbestos work. For effective protection, respirators must fit your face and head snugly. Your employer is required to conduct a fit test when you are first assigned a respirator and every 6 months thereafter. Respirators should not be loosened or removed in work situations where their use is required. 
</P>
<P>B. Protective Clothing: You are required to wear protective clothing in work areas where asbestos fiber concentrations exceed the permissible exposure limit (PEL) of 0.1 f/cc. 
</P>
<HD2>IV. Disposal Procedures and Clean-up 
</HD2>
<P>A. Wastes that are generated by processes where asbestos is present include: 
</P>
<P>1. Empty asbestos shipping containers. 
</P>
<P>2. Process wastes such as cuttings, trimmings, or reject materials. 
</P>
<P>3. Housekeeping waste from wet-sweeping or HEPA-vacuuming. 
</P>
<P>4. Asbestos fireproofing or insulating material that is removed from buildings. 
</P>
<P>5. Asbestos-containing building products removed during building renovation or demolition. 
</P>
<P>6. Contaminated disposable protective clothing. 
</P>
<P>B. Empty shipping bags can be flattened under exhaust hoods and packed into airtight containers for disposal. Empty shipping drums are difficult to clean and should be sealed. 
</P>
<P>C. Vacuum bags or disposable paper filters should not be cleaned, but should be sprayed with a fine water mist and placed into a labeled waste container. 
</P>
<P>D. Process waste and housekeeping waste should be wetted with water or a mixture of water and surfactant prior to packaging in disposable containers. 
</P>
<P>E. Asbestos-containing material that is removed from buildings must be disposed of in leak-tight 6-mil plastic bags, plastic-lined cardboard containers, or plastic-lined metal containers. These wastes, which are removed while wet, should be sealed in containers before they dry out to minimize the release of asbestos fibers during handling. 
</P>
<HD2>V. Access to Information 
</HD2>
<P>A. Each year, your employer is required to inform you of the information contained in this standard and appendices for asbestos. In addition, your employer must instruct you in the proper work practices for handling asbestos-containing materials, and the correct use of protective equipment. 
</P>
<P>B. Your employer is required to determine whether you are being exposed to asbestos. Your employer must treat exposure to thermal system insulation and sprayed-on and troweled-on surfacing material as asbestos exposure, unless results of laboratory analysis show that the material does not contain asbestos. You or your representative has the right to observe employee measurements and to record the results obtained. Your employer is required to inform you of your exposure, and, if you are exposed above the permissible exposure limit, he or she is required to inform you of the actions that are being taken to reduce your exposure to within the permissible limit. 
</P>
<P>C. Your employer is required to keep records of your exposures and medical examinations. These exposure records must be kept for at least thirty (30) years. Medical records must be kept for the period of your employment plus thirty (30) years. 
</P>
<P>D. Your employer is required to release your exposure and medical records to your physician or designated representative upon your written request.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix I to § 1915.1001—Medical Surveillance Guidelines for Asbestos, Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Route of Entry
</HD2>
<P>Inhalation, ingestion. 
</P>
<HD2>II. Toxicology 
</HD2>
<P>Clinical evidence of the adverse effects associated with exposure to asbestos is present in the form of several well- conducted epidemiological studies of occupationally exposed workers, family contacts of workers, and persons living near asbestos mines. These studies have shown a definite association between exposure to asbestos and an increased incidence of lung cancer, pleural and peritoneal mesothelioma, gastrointestinal cancer, and asbestosis. The latter is a disabling fibrotic lung disease that is caused only by exposure to asbestos. Exposure to asbestos has also been associated with an increased incidence of esophageal, kidney, laryngeal, pharyngeal, and buccal cavity cancers. As with other known chronic occupational diseases, disease associated with asbestos generally appears about 20 years following the first occurrence of exposure: There are no known acute effects associated with exposure to asbestos. 
</P>
<P>Epidemiological studies indicate that the risk of lung cancer among exposed workers who smoke cigarettes is greatly increased over the risk of lung cancer among non-exposed smokers or exposed nonsmokers. These studies suggest that cessation of smoking will reduce the risk of lung cancer for a person exposed to asbestos but will not reduce it to the same level of risk as that existing for an exposed worker who has never smoked. 
</P>
<HD1>III. Signs and Symptoms of Exposure-Related Disease
</HD1>
<P>The signs and symptoms of lung cancer or gastrointestinal cancer induced by exposure to asbestos are not unique, except that a chest X-ray of an exposed patient with lung cancer may show pleural plaques, pleural calcification, or pleural fibrosis, and may also show asbestosis (<I>i.e.,</I> small irregular parenchymal opacities). Symptoms characteristic of mesothelioma include shortness of breath, pain in the chest or abdominal pain. Mesothelioma has a much longer average latency period compared with lung cancer (40 years versus 15-20 years), and mesothelioma is therefore more likely to be found among workers who were first exposed to asbestos at an early age. Mesothelioma is a fatal disease.
</P>
<P>Asbestosis is pulmonary fibrosis caused by the accumulation of asbestos fibers in the lungs. Symptoms include shortness of breath, coughing, fatigue, and vague feelings of sickness. When the fibrosis worsens, shortness of breath occurs even at rest. The diagnosis of asbestosis is most commonly based on a history of exposure to asbestos, the presence of characteristic radiologic abnormalities, end-inspiratory crackles (rales), and other clinical features of fibrosing lung disease. Pleural plaques and thickening may be observed on chest X-rays. Asbestosis is often a progressive disease even in the absence of continued exposure, although this appears to be a highly individualized characteristic. In severe cases, death may be caused by respiratory or cardiac failure.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Surveillance and Preventive Considerations
</HD1>
<P>As noted in section III of this appendix, exposure to asbestos have been linked to an increased risk of lung cancer, mesothelioma, gastrointestinal cancer, and asbestosis among occupationally exposed workers. Adequate screening tests to determine an employee's potential for developing serious chronic diseases, such as a cancer, from exposure to asbestos do not presently exist. However, some tests, particularly chest X-rays and pulmonary function tests, may indicate that an employee has been overexposed to asbestos increasing his or her risk of developing exposure related chronic diseases. It is important for the physician to become familiar with the operating conditions in which occupational exposure to asbestos is likely to occur. This is particularly important in evaluating medical and work histories and in conducting physical examinations. When an active employee has been identified as having been overexposed to asbestos measures taken by the employer to eliminate or mitigate further exposure should also lower the risk of serious long-term consequences.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or will be exposed to asbestos at or above the permissible exposure limits (0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air) for 30 or more days per year and for all employees who are assigned to wear a negative-pressure respirator. All examinations and procedures must be performed by or under the supervision of licensed physician at a reasonable time and place, and at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>Although broad latitude is given to the physician in prescribing specific tests to be included in the medical surveillance program, OSHA requires inclusion of the following elements in the routine examination,
</P>
<P>(i) Medical and work histories with special emphasis directed to symptoms of the respiratory system, cardiovascular system, and digestive tract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Completion of the respiratory disease questionnaire contained in appendix D to this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A physical examination including a chest X-ray and pulmonary function test that includes measurement of the employee's forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>).
</P>
<P>(iv) Any laboratory or other test that the examining physician deems by sound medical practice to be necessary.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to make the prescribed tests available at least annually to those employees covered; more often than specified if recommended by the examining physician; and upon termination of employment.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to provide the physician with the following information: A copy of the standard in this section (including all appendices to this section); a description of the employee's duties as they relate to asbestos exposure; the employee's representative level of exposure to asbestos; a description of any personal protective and respiratory equipment used; and information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee that is not otherwise available to the physician. Making this information available to the physician will aid in the evaluation of the employee's health in relation to assigned duties and fitness to wear personal protective equipment, if required.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to obtain a written opinion from the examining physician containing the results of the medical examination; the physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions that would place the employee at an increased risk of exposure-related disease; any recommended limitations on the employee or on the use of personal protective equipment; and a statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions related to asbestos exposure that require further explanation or treatment. This written opinion must not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to exposure to asbestos, and a copy of the opinion must be provided to the affected employee.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix J to § 1915.1001—Smoking Cessation Program Information for Asbestos—Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>The following organizations provide smoking cessation information.
</P>
<P>1. The National Cancer Institute operates a toll-free Cancer Information Service (CIS) with trained personnel to help you. Call 1-800-4-CANCER* to reach the CIS office serving your area, or write: Office of Cancer Communications, National Cancer Institute, National Institutes of Health, Building 31, Room 10A24, Bethesda, Maryland 20892.
</P>
<P>2. American Cancer Society, 3340 Peachtree Road, N.E., Atlanta, Georgia 30026, (404) 320-3333.
</P>
<P>The American Cancer Society (ACS) is a voluntary organization composed of 58 divisions and 3,100 local units. Through “The Great American Smokeout” in November, the annual Cancer Crusade in April, and numerous educational materials, ACS helps people learn about the health hazards of smoking and become successful ex-smokers.
</P>
<P>3. American Heart Association, 7320 Greenville Avenue, Dallas, Texas 75231, (214) 750-5300.
</P>
<P>The American Heart Association (AHA) is a voluntary organization with 130,000 members (physicians, scientists, and laypersons) in 55 state and regional groups. AHA produces a variety of publications and audiovisual materials about the effects of smoking on the heart. AHA also has developed a guidebook for incorporating a weight-control component into smoking cessation programs.
</P>
<P>4. American Lung Association, 1740 Broadway, New York, New York 10019, (212) 245-8000.
</P>
<P>A voluntary organization of 7,500 members (physicians, nurses, and laypersons), the American Lung Association (ALA) conducted numerous public information programs about the health effects of smoking. ALA has 59 state and 85 local units. The organization actively supports legislation and information campaigns for non-smokers' rights and provides help for smokers who want to quit, for example, through “Freedom From Smoking,” a self-help smoking cessation program.
</P>
<P>5. Office on Smoking and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services 5600 Fishers Lane, Park Building, Room 110, Rockville, Maryland 20857.
</P>
<P>The Office on Smoking and Health (OSHA) is the Department of Health and Human Services' lead agency in smoking control. OSHA has sponsored distribution of publications on smoking-related topics, such as free flyers on relapse after initial quitting, helping a friend or family member quit smoking, the health hazards of smoking, and the effects of parental smoking on teenagers.
</P>
<P>*In Hawaii, on Oahu call 524-1234 (call collect from neighboring islands),
</P>
<P>Spanish-speaking staff members are available during daytime hours to callers from the following areas: California, Florida, Georgia, Illinois, New Jersey (area code 201), New York, and Texas. Consult your local telephone directory for listings of local chapters.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix K to § 1915.1001—Polarized Light Microscopy of Asbestos—Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<FP-1>Method number: ID-191
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Matrix: Bulk
</FP-1>
<HD3>Collection Procedure
</HD3>
<P>Collect approximately 1 to 2 grams of each type of material and place into separate 20 mL scintillation vials.
</P>
<HD3>Analytical Procedure
</HD3>
<P>A portion of each separate phase is analyzed by gross examination, phase-polar examination, and central stop dispersion microscopy.
</P>
<P>Commercial manufacturers and products mentioned in this method are for descriptive use only and do not constitute endorsements by USDOL-OSHA. Similar products from other sources may be substituted.
</P>
<HD2>1. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>This method describes the collection and analysis of asbestos bulk materials by light microscopy techniques including phase- polar illumination and central-stop dispersion microscopy. Some terms unique to asbestos analysis are defined below:
</P>
<P><I>Amphibole:</I> A family of minerals whose crystals are formed by long, thin units which have two thin ribbons of double chain silicate with a brucite ribbon in between. The shape of each unit is similar to an “I beam”. Minerals important in asbestos analysis include cummingtonite-grunerite, crocidolite, tremolite- actinolite and anthophyllite.
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos:</I> A term for naturally occurring fibrous minerals. Asbestos includes chrysotile, cummingtonite-grunerite asbestos (amosite), anthophyllite asbestos, tremolite asbestos, crocidolite, actinolite asbestos and any of these minerals which have been chemically treated or altered. The precise chemical formulation of each species varies with the location from which it was mined. Nominal compositions are listed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mg<E T="52">3</E> Si<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite (Riebeckite asbestos)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Na<E T="52">2</E>Fe<E T="52">3</E>2 + Fe<E T="52">2</E>3 + Si<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cummingtonite-Grunerite asbestos (Amosite)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite-Actinolite asbestos</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca<E T="52">2</E>(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">5</E>Si<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite asbestos</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E>O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Asbestos Fiber:</I> A fiber of asbestos meeting the criteria for a fiber. (See section 3.5.)
</P>
<P><I>Aspect Ratio:</I> The ratio of the length of a fiber to its diameter usually defined as “length : width”, e.g. 3:1.
</P>
<P><I>Brucite:</I> A sheet mineral with the composition Mg(OH)<E T="52">2</E>.
</P>
<P><I>Central Stop Dispersion Staining (microscope):</I> This is a dark field microscope technique that images particles using only light refracted by the particle, excluding light that travels through the particle unrefracted. This is usually accomplished with a McCrone objective or other arrangement which places a circular stop with apparent aperture equal to the objective aperture in the back focal plane of the microscope.
</P>
<P><I>Cleavage Fragments:</I> Mineral particles formed by the comminution of minerals, especially those characterized by relatively parallel sides and moderate aspect ratio.
</P>
<P><I>Differential Counting:</I> The term applied to the practice of excluding certain kinds of fibers from a phase contrast asbestos count because they are not asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Fiber:</I> A particle longer than or equal to 5 µm with a length to width ratio greater than or equal to 3:1. This may include cleavage fragments. (see section 3.5 of this appendix).
</P>
<P><I>Phase Contrast:</I> Contrast obtained in the microscope by causing light scattered by small particles to destructively interfere with unscattered light, thereby enhancing the visibility of very small particles and particles with very low intrinsic contrast.
</P>
<P><I>Phase Contrast Microscope:</I> A microscope configured with a phase mask pair to create phase contrast. The technique which uses this is called Phase Contrast Microscopy (PCM).
</P>
<P><I>Phase-Polar Analysis:</I> This is the use of polarized light in a phase contrast microscope. It is used to see the same size fibers that are visible in air filter analysis. Although fibers finer than 1 µm are visible, analysis of these is inferred from analysis of larger bundles that are usually present.
</P>
<P><I>Phase-Polar Microscope:</I> The phase-polar microscope is a phase contrast microscope which has an analyzer, a polarizer, a first order red plate and a rotating phase condenser all in place so that the polarized light image is enhanced by phase contrast.
</P>
<P><I>Sealing Encapsulant:</I> This is a product which can be applied, preferably by spraying, onto an asbestos surface which will seal the surface so that fibers cannot be released.
</P>
<P><I>Serpentine:</I> A mineral family consisting of minerals with the general composition Mg<E T="52">3</E>(Si2O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E> having the magnesium in brucite layer over a silicate layer. Minerals important in asbestos analysis included in this family are chrysotile, lizardite, antigorite.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. History 
</HD3>
<P>Light microscopy has been used for well over 100 years for the determination of mineral species. This analysis is carried out using specialized polarizing microscopes as well as bright field microscopes. The identification of minerals is an on-going process with many new minerals described each year. The first recorded use of asbestos was in Finland about 2500 B.C. where the material was used in the mud wattle for the wooden huts the people lived in as well as strengthening for pottery. Adverse health aspects of the mineral were noted nearly 2000 years ago when Pliny the Younger wrote about the poor health of slaves in the asbestos mines. Although known to be injurious for centuries, the first modern references to its toxicity were by the British Labor Inspectorate when it banned asbestos dust from the workplace in 1898. Asbestosis cases were described in the literature after the turn of the century. Cancer was first suspected in the mid 1930's and a causal link to mesothelioma was made in 1965. Because of the public concern for worker and public safety with the use of this material, several different types of analysis were applied to the determination of asbestos content. Light microscopy requires a great deal of experience and craft. Attempts were made to apply less subjective methods to the analysis. X-ray diffraction was partially successful in determining the mineral types but was unable to separate out the fibrous portions from the non-fibrous portions. Also, the minimum detection limit for asbestos analysis by X-ray diffraction (XRD) is about 1%. Differential Thermal Analysis (DTA) was no more successful. These provide useful corroborating information when the presence of asbestos has been shown by microscopy; however, neither can determine the difference between fibrous and non-fibrous minerals when both habits are present. The same is true of Infrared Absorption (IR). 
</P>
<P>When electron microscopy was applied to asbestos analysis, hundreds of fibers were discovered present too small to be visible in any light microscope. There are two different types of electron microscope used for asbestos analysis: Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) and Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). Scanning Electron Microscopy is useful in identifying minerals. The SEM can provide two of the three pieces of information required to identify fibers by electron microscopy: morphology and chemistry. The third is structure as determined by Selected Area Electron Diffraction—SAED which is performed in the TEM. Although the resolution of the SEM is sufficient for very fine fibers to be seen, accuracy of chemical analysis that can be performed on the fibers varies with fiber diameter in fibers of less than 0.2 µm diameter. The TEM is a powerful tool to identify fibers too small to be resolved by light microscopy and should be used in conjunction with this method when necessary. The TEM can provide all three pieces of information required for fiber identification. Most fibers thicker than 1 µm can adequately be defined in the light microscope. The light microscope remains as the best instrument for the determination of mineral type. This is because the minerals under investigation were first described analytically with the light microscope. It is inexpensive and gives positive identification for most samples analyzed. Further, when optical techniques are inadequate, there is ample indication that alternative techniques should be used for complete identification of the sample. 
</P>
<HD3>1.2. Principle 
</HD3>
<P>Minerals consist of atoms that may be arranged in random order or in a regular arrangement. Amorphous materials have atoms in random order while crystalline materials have long range order. Many materials are transparent to light, at least for small particles or for thin sections. The properties of these materials can be investigated by the effect that the material has on light passing through it. The six asbestos minerals are all crystalline with particular properties that have been identified and cataloged. These six minerals are anisotropic. They have a regular array of atoms, but the arrangement is not the same in all directions. Each major direction of the crystal presents a different regularity. Light photons travelling in each of these main directions will encounter different electrical neighborhoods, affecting the path and time of travel. The techniques outlined in this method use the fact that light traveling through fibers or crystals in different directions will behave differently, but predictably. The behavior of the light as it travels through a crystal can be measured and compared with known or determined values to identify the mineral species. Usually, Polarized Light Microscopy (PLM) is performed with strain-free objectives on a bright-field microscope platform. This would limit the resolution of the microscope to about 0.4 µm. Because OSHA requires the counting and identification of fibers visible in phase contrast, the phase contrast platform is used to visualize the fibers with the polarizing elements added into the light path. Polarized light methods cannot identify fibers finer than about 1µm in diameter even though they are visible. The finest fibers are usually identified by inference from the presence of larger, identifiable fiber bundles. When fibers are present, but not identifiable by light microscopy, use either SEM or TEM to determine the fiber identity. 
</P>
<HD3>1.3. Advantages and Disadvantages 
</HD3>
<P>The advantages of light microcopy are: 
</P>
<P>(a) Basic identification of the materials was first performed by light microscopy and gross analysis. This provides a large base of published information against which to check analysis and analytical technique. 
</P>
<P>(b) The analysis is specific to fibers. The minerals present can exist in asbestiform, fibrous, prismatic, or massive varieties all at the same time. Therefore, bulk methods of analysis such as X-ray diffraction, IR analysis, DTA, etc. are inappropriate where the material is not known to be fibrous. 
</P>
<P>(c) The analysis is quick, requires little preparation time, and can be performed on-site if a suitably equipped microscope is available. 
</P>
<P>The disadvantages are: 
</P>
<P>(a) Even using phase-polar illumination, not all the fibers present may be seen. This is a problem for very low asbestos concentrations where agglomerations or large bundles of fibers may not be present to allow identification by inference. 
</P>
<P>(b) The method requires a great degree of sophistication on the part of the microscopist. An analyst is only as useful as his mental catalog of images. Therefore, a microscopist's accuracy is enhanced by experience. The mineralogical training of the analyst is very important. It is the basis on which subjective decisions are made. 
</P>
<P>(c) The method uses only a tiny amount of material for analysis. This may lead to sampling bias and false results (high or low). This is especially true if the sample is severely inhomogeneous. 
</P>
<P>(d) Fibers may be bound in a matrix and not distinguishable as fibers so identification cannot be made. 
</P>
<HD3>1.4. Method Performance 
</HD3>
<P><I>1.4.1.</I> This method can be used for determination of asbestos content from 0 to 100% asbestos. The detection limit has not been adequately determined, although for selected samples, the limit is very low, depending on the number of particles examined. For mostly homogeneous, finely divided samples, with no difficult fibrous interferences, the detection limit is below 1%. For inhomogeneous samples (most samples), the detection limit remains undefined. NIST has conducted proficiency testing of laboratories on a national scale. Although each round is reported statistically with an average, control limits, etc., the results indicate a difficulty in establishing precision especially in the low concentration range. It is suspected that there is significant bias in the low range especially near 1%. EPA tried to remedy this by requiring a mandatory point counting scheme for samples less than 10%. The point counting procedure is tedious, and may introduce significant biases of its own. It has not been incorporated into this method. 
</P>
<P><I>1.4.2.</I> The precision and accuracy of the quantitation tests performed in this method are unknown. Concentrations are easier to determine in commercial products where asbestos was deliberately added because the amount is usually more than a few percent. An analyst's results can be “calibrated” against the known amounts added by the manufacturer. For geological samples, the degree of homogeneity affects the precision. 
</P>
<P><I>1.4.3.</I> The performance of the method is analyst dependent. The analyst must choose carefully and not necessarily randomly the portions for analysis to assure that detection of asbestos occurs when it is present. For this reason, the analyst must have adequate training in sample preparation, and experience in the location and identification of asbestos in samples. This is usually accomplished through substantial on-the-job training as well as formal education in mineralogy and microscopy. 
</P>
<HD3>1.5. Interferences 
</HD3>
<P>Any material which is long, thin, and small enough to be viewed under the microscope can be considered an interference for asbestos. There are literally hundreds of interferences in workplaces. The techniques described in this method are normally sufficient to eliminate the interferences. An analyst's success in eliminating the interferences depends on proper training. 
</P>
<P>Asbestos minerals belong to two mineral families: the serpentines and the amphiboles. In the serpentine family, the only common fibrous mineral is chrysotile. Occasionally, the mineral antigorite occurs in a fibril habit with morphology similar to the amphiboles. The amphibole minerals consist of a score of different minerals of which only five are regulated by federal standard: amosite, crocidolite, anthophyllite asbestos, tremolite asbestos and actinolite asbestos. These are the only amphibole minerals that have been commercially exploited for their fibrous properties; however, the rest can and do occur occasionally in asbestiform habit. 
</P>
<P>In addition to the related mineral interferences, other minerals common in building material may present a problem for some microscopists: gypsum, anhydrite, brucite, quartz fibers, talc fibers or ribbons, wollastonite, perlite, attapulgite, etc. Other fibrous materials commonly present in workplaces are: fiberglass, mineral wool, ceramic wool, refractory ceramic fibers, kevlar, nomex, synthetic fibers, graphite or carbon fibers, cellulose (paper or wood) fibers, metal fibers, etc. 
</P>
<P>Matrix embedding material can sometimes be a negative interference. The analyst may not be able to easily extract the fibers from the matrix in order to use the method. Where possible, remove the matrix before the analysis, taking careful note of the loss of weight. Some common matrix materials are: vinyl, rubber, tar, paint, plant fiber, cement, and epoxy. A further negative interference is that the asbestos fibers themselves may be either too small to be seen in Phase contrast Microscopy (PCM) or of a very low fibrous quality, having the appearance of plant fibers. The analyst's ability to deal with these materials increases with experience. 
</P>
<HD3>1.6. Uses and Occupational Exposure 
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is ubiquitous in the environment. More than 40% of the land area of the United States is composed of minerals which may contain asbestos. Fortunately, the actual formation of great amounts of asbestos is relatively rare. Nonetheless, there are locations in which environmental exposure can be severe such as in the Serpentine Hills of California. 
</P>
<P>There are thousands of uses for asbestos in industry and the home. Asbestos abatement workers are the most current segment of the population to have occupational exposure to great amounts of asbestos. If the material is undisturbed, there is no exposure. Exposure occurs when the asbestos-containing material is abraded or otherwise disturbed during maintenance operations or some other activity. Approximately 95% of the asbestos in place in the United States is chrysotile. 
</P>
<P>Amosite and crocidolite make up nearly all the difference. Tremolite and anthophyllite make up a very small percentage. Tremolite is found in extremely small amounts in certain chrysotile deposits. Actinolite exposure is probably greatest from environmental sources, but has been identified in vermiculite containing, sprayed-on insulating materials which may have been certified as asbestos-free. 
</P>
<HD3>1.7. Physical and Chemical Properties 
</HD3>
<P>The nominal chemical compositions for the asbestos minerals were given in Section 1. Compared to cleavage fragments of the same minerals, asbestiform fibers possess a high tensile strength along the fiber axis. They are chemically inert, non-combustible, and heat resistant. Except for chrysotile, they are insoluble in Hydrochloric acid (HCl). Chrysotile is slightly soluble in HCl. Asbestos has high electrical resistance and good sound absorbing characteristics. It can be woven into cables, fabrics or other textiles, or matted into papers, felts, and mats. 
</P>
<HD3>1.8. Toxicology (This Section is for Information Only and Should Not Be Taken as OSHA Policy) 
</HD3>
<P>Possible physiologic results of respiratory exposure to asbestos are mesothelioma of the pleura or peritoneum, interstitial fibrosis, asbestosis, pneumoconiosis, or respiratory cancer. The possible consequences of asbestos exposure are detailed in the NIOSH Criteria Document or in the OSHA Asbestos Standards 29 CFR 1910.1001 and 29 CFR 1926.1101 and 29 CFR 1915.1001. 
</P>
<HD2>2. Sampling Procedure 
</HD2>
<HD3>2.1. Equipment for Sampling 
</HD3>
<P>(a) Tube or cork borer sampling device 
</P>
<P>(b) Knife 
</P>
<P>(c) 20 mL scintillation vial or similar vial 
</P>
<P>(d) Sealing encapsulant 
</P>
<HD3>2.2. Safety Precautions 
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is a known carcinogen. Take care when sampling. While in an asbestos-containing atmosphere, a properly selected and fit-tested respirator should be worn. Take samples in a manner to cause the least amount of dust. Follow these general guidelines: 
</P>
<P>(a) Do not make unnecessary dust. 
</P>
<P>(b) Take only a small amount (1 to 2 g). 
</P>
<P>(c) Tightly close the sample container. 
</P>
<P>(d) Use encapsulant to seal the spot where the sample was taken, if necessary. 
</P>
<HD3>2.3. Sampling procedure 
</HD3>
<P>Samples of any suspect material should be taken from an inconspicuous place. Where the material is to remain, seal the sampling wound with an encapsulant to eliminate the potential for exposure from the sample site. Microscopy requires only a few milligrams of material. The amount that will fill a 20 mL scintillation vial is more than adequate. Be sure to collect samples from all layers and phases of material. If possible, make separate samples of each different phase of the material. This will aid in determining the actual hazard. <I>DO NOT USE ENVELOPES, PLASTIC OR PAPER BAGS OF ANY KIND TO COLLECT SAMPLES.</I> The use of plastic bags presents a contamination hazard to laboratory personnel and to other samples. When these containers are opened, a bellows effect blows fibers out of the container onto everything, including the person opening the container. 
</P>
<P>If a cork-borer type sampler is available, push the tube through the material all the way, so that all layers of material are sampled. Some samplers are intended to be disposable. These should be capped and sent to the laboratory. If a non-disposable cork borer is used, empty the contents into a scintillation vial and send to the laboratory. Vigorously and completely clean the cork borer between samples. 
</P>
<HD3>2.4 Shipment 
</HD3>
<P>Samples packed in glass vials must not touch or they might break in shipment. 
</P>
<P>(a) Seal the samples with a sample seal over the end to guard against tampering and to identify the sample. 
</P>
<P>(b) Package the bulk samples in separate packages from the air samples. They may cross-contaminate each other and will invalidate the results of the air samples. 
</P>
<P>(c) Include identifying paperwork with the samples, but not in contact with the suspected asbestos. 
</P>
<P>(d) To maintain sample accountability, ship the samples by certified mail, overnight express, or hand carry them to the laboratory. 
</P>
<HD2>3. Analysis 
</HD2>
<P>The analysis of asbestos samples can be divided into two major parts: sample preparation and microscopy. Because of the different asbestos uses that may be encountered by the analyst, each sample may need different preparation steps. The choices are outlined below. There are several different tests that are performed to identify the asbestos species and determine the percentage. They will be explained below. 
</P>
<HD3>3.1. Safety 
</HD3>
<P>(a) Do not create unnecessary dust. Handle the samples in HEPA-filter equipped hoods. If samples are received in bags, envelopes or other inappropriate container, open them only in a hood having a face velocity at or greater than 100 fpm. Transfer a small amount to a scintillation vial and only handle the smaller amount. 
</P>
<P>(b) Open samples in a hood, never in the open lab area. 
</P>
<P>(c) Index of refraction oils can be toxic. Take care not to get this material on the skin. Wash immediately with soap and water if this happens. 
</P>
<P>(d) Samples that have been heated in the muffle furnace or the drying oven may be hot. Handle them with tongs until they are cool enough to handle. 
</P>
<P>(e) Some of the solvents used, such as THF (tetrahydrofuran), are toxic and should only be handled in an appropriate fume hood and according to instructions given in the safety data sheet (SDS). 
</P>
<HD3>3.2. Equipment 
</HD3>
<P>(a) Phase contrast microscope with 10x, 16x and 40x objectives, 10x wide-field eyepieces, G-22 Walton-Beckett graticule, Whipple disk, polarizer, analyzer and first order red or gypsum plate, 100 Watt illuminator, rotating position condenser with oversize phase rings, central stop dispersion objective, Kohler illumination and a rotating mechanicalstage. (See figure 1). 
</P>
<P>(b) Stereo microscope with reflected light illumination, transmitted light illumination, polarizer, analyzer and first order red or gypsum plate, and rotating stage. 
</P>
<P>(c) Negative pressure hood for the stereo microscope 
</P>
<P>(d) Muffle furnace capable of 600 °C 
</P>
<P>(e) Drying oven capable of 50-150 °C 
</P>
<P>(f) Aluminum specimen pans 
</P>
<P>(g) Tongs for handling samples in the furnace 
</P>
<P>(h) High dispersion index of refraction oils (Special for dispersion staining.) 
</P>
<FP-1>n = 1.550 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.585 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.590 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.605 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.620 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.670 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.680 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.690 
</FP-1>
<P>(i) A set of index of refraction oils from about n = 1.350 to n = 2.000 in n = 0.005 increments. (Standard for Becke line analysis.) 
</P>
<P>(j) Glass slides with painted or frosted ends 1 × 3 inches 1mm thick, precleaned. 
</P>
<P>(k) Cover Slips 22 × 22 mm, #1
<FR>1/2</FR> 
</P>
<P>(l) Paper clips or dissection needles 
</P>
<P>(m) Hand grinder 
</P>
<P>(n) Scalpel with both #10 and #11 blades 
</P>
<P>(o) 0.1 molar HCl 
</P>
<P>(p) Decalcifying solution (Baxter Scientific Products) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic Acid,
</P>
<LDRWK>
<FL-2>Tetrasodium</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>0.7 g/l 
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Sodium Potassium Tartrate</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>8.0 mg/liter 
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Hydrochloric Acid</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>99.2 g/liter 
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Sodium Tartrate</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>0.14 g/liter</LDRFIG></LDRWK>
<P>(q) Tetrahydrofuran (THF)
</P>
<P>(r) Hotplate capable of 60 °C 
</P>
<P>(s) Balance 
</P>
<P>(t) Hacksaw blade 
</P>
<P>(u) Ruby mortar and pestle 
</P>
<HD3>3.3. Sample Pre-Preparation 
</HD3>
<P>Sample preparation begins with pre-preparation which may include chemical reduction of the matrix, heating the sample to dryness or heating in the muffle furnace. The end result is a sample which has been reduced to a powder that is sufficiently fine to fit under the cover slip. Analyze different phases of samples separately, e.g., tile and the tile mastic should be analyzed separately as the mastic may contain asbestos while the tile may not. 
</P>
<HD3>(a) Wet Samples 
</HD3>
<P>Samples with a high water content will not give the proper dispersion colors and must be dried prior to sample mounting. Remove the lid of the scintillation vial, place the bottle in the drying oven and heat at 100 °C to dryness (usually about 2 h). Samples which are not submitted to the lab in glass must be removed and placed in glass vials or aluminum weighing pans before placing them in the drying oven. 
</P>
<HD3>(b) Samples With Organic Interference—Muffle Furnace
</HD3>
<P>These may include samples with tar as a matrix, vinyl asbestos tile, or any other organic that can be reduced by heating. Remove the sample from the vial and weigh in a balance to determine the weight of the submitted portion. Place the sample in a muffle furnace at 500 °C for 1 to 2 h or until all obvious organic material has been removed. Retrieve, cool and weigh again to determine the weight loss on ignition. This is necessary to determine the asbestos content of the submitted sample, because the analyst will be looking at a reduced sample.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notes:</HED>
<P>Heating above 600 °C will cause the sample to undergo a structural change which, given sufficient time, will convert the chrysotile to forsterite. Heating even at lower temperatures for 1 to 2 h may have a measurable effect on the optical properties of the minerals. If the analyst is unsure of what to expect, a sample of standard asbestos should be heated to the same temperature for the same length of time so that it can be examined for the proper interpretation.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>(c) Samples With Organic Interference—THF
</HD3>
<P>Vinyl asbestos tile is the most common material treated with this solvent, although, substances containing tar will sometimes yield to this treatment. Select a portion of the material and then grind it up if possible. Weigh the sample and place it in a test tube. Add sufficient THF to dissolve the organic matrix. This is usually about 4 to 5 mL. <I>Remember, THF is highly flammable.</I> Filter the remaining material through a tared silver membrane, dry and weigh to determine how much is left after the solvent extraction. Further process the sample to remove carbonate or mount directly. 
</P>
<HD3>(d) Samples With Carbonate Interference
</HD3>
<P>Carbonate material is often found on fibers and sometimes must be removed in order to perform dispersion microscopy. Weigh out a portion of the material and place it in a test tube. Add a sufficient amount of 0.1 M HCl or decalcifying solution in the tube to react all the carbonate as evidenced by gas formation; i.e., when the gas bubbles stop, add a little more solution. If no more gas forms, the reaction is complete. Filter the material out through a tared silver membrane, dry and weigh to determine the weight lost. 
</P>
<HD3>3.4. Sample Preparation 
</HD3>
<P>Samples must be prepared so that accurate determination can be made of the asbestos type and amount present. The following steps are carried out in the low-flow hood (a low-flow hood has less than 50 fpm flow): 
</P>
<P>(1) If the sample has large lumps, is hard, or cannot be made to lie under a cover slip, the grain size must be reduced. Place a small amount between two slides and grind the material between them or grind a small amount in a clean mortar and pestle. The choice of whether to use an alumina, ruby, or diamond mortar depends on the hardness of the material. Impact damage can alter the asbestos mineral if too much mechanical shock occurs. (Freezer mills can completely destroy the observable crystallinity of asbestos and should not be used). For some samples, a portion of material can be shaved off with a scalpel, ground off with a hand grinder or hack saw blade. 
</P>
<P>The preparation tools should either be disposable or cleaned thoroughly. Use vigorous scrubbing to loosen the fibers during the washing. Rinse the implements with copious amounts of water and air-dry in a dust-free environment. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the sample is powder or has been reduced as in 1) above, it is ready to mount. Place a glass slide on a piece of optical tissue and write the identification on the painted or frosted end. Place two drops of index of refraction medium n = 1.550 on the slide. (The medium n = 1.550 is chosen because it is the matching index for chrysotile. Dip the end of a clean paper-clip or dissecting needle into the droplet of refraction medium <I>on the slide</I> to moisten it. Then dip the probe into the powder sample. Transfer what sticks on the probe to the slide. The material on the end of the probe should have a diameter of about 3 mm for a good mount. If the material is very fine, less sample may be appropriate. For non-powder samples such as fiber mats, forceps should be used to transfer a small amount of material to the slide. Stir the material in the medium on the slide, spreading it out and making the preparation as uniform as possible. Place a cover-slip on the preparation by gently lowering onto the slide and allowing it to fall “trapdoor” fashion on the preparation to push out any bubbles. Press gently on the cover slip to even out the distribution of particulate on the slide. If there is insufficient mounting oil on the slide, one or two drops may be placed near the edge of the coverslip on the slide. Capillary action will draw the necessary amount of liquid into the preparation. Remove excess oil with the point of a laboratory wiper. 
</P>
<P>Treat at least two different areas of each phase in this fashion. Choose representative areas of the sample. It may be useful to select particular areas or fibers for analysis. This is useful to identify asbestos in severely inhomogeneous samples. 
</P>
<P>When it is determined that amphiboles may be present, repeat the above process using the appropriate high- dispersion oils until an identification is made or all six asbestos minerals have been ruled out. Note that percent determination must be done in the index medium 1.550 because amphiboles tend to disappear in their matching mediums. 
</P>
<HD3>3.5. Analytical procedure 
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This method presumes some knowledge of mineralogy and optical petrography.</P></NOTE>
<P>The analysis consists of three parts: The determination of whether there is asbestos present, what type is present and the determination of how much is present. The general flow of the analysis is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Gross examination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Examination under polarized light on the stereo microscope. 
</P>
<P>(3) Examination by phase-polar illumination on the compound phase microscope. 
</P>
<P>(4) Determination of species by dispersion stain. Examination by Becke line analysis may also be used; however, this is usually more cumbersome for asbestos determination. 
</P>
<P>(5) Difficult samples may need to be analyzed by SEM or TEM, or the results from those techniques combined with light microscopy for a definitive identification. Identification of a particle as asbestos requires that it be asbestiform. Description of particles should follow the suggestion of Campbell. (Figure 1) 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.024.gif"/>
<P>For the purpose of regulation, the mineral must be one of the six minerals covered and must be in the asbestos growth habit. Large specimen samples of asbestos generally have the gross appearance of wood. Fibers are easily parted from it. Asbestos fibers are very long compared with their widths. The fibers have a very high tensile strength as demonstrated by bending without breaking. Asbestos fibers exist in bundles that are easily parted, show longitudinal fine structure and may be tufted at the ends showing “bundle of sticks” morphology. In the microscope some of these properties may not be observable. Amphiboles do not always show striations along their length even when they are asbestos. Neither will they always show tufting. They generally do not show a curved nature except for very long fibers. Asbestos and asbestiform minerals are usually characterized in groups by extremely high aspect ratios (greater than 100:1). While aspect ratio analysis is useful for characterizing populations of fibers, it cannot be used to identify individual fibers of intermediate to short aspect ratio. Observation of many fibers is often necessary to determine whether a sample consists of “cleavage fragments” or of asbestos fibers. 
</P>
<P>Most cleavage fragments of the asbestos minerals are easily distinguishable from true asbestos fibers. This is because true cleavage fragments usually have larger diameters than 1 µm. Internal structure of particles larger than this usually shows them to have no internal fibrillar structure. In addition, cleavage fragments of the monoclinic amphiboles show inclined extinction under crossed polars with no compensator. Asbestos fibers usually show extinction at zero degrees or ambiguous extinction if any at all. Morphologically, the larger cleavage fragments are obvious by their blunt or stepped ends showing prismatic habit. Also, they tend to be acicular rather than filiform. 
</P>
<P>Where the particles are less than 1 µm in diameter and have an aspect ratio greater than or equal to 3:1, it is recommended that the sample be analyzed by SEM or TEM if there is any question whether the fibers are cleavage fragments or asbestiform particles. 
</P>
<P>Care must be taken when analyzing by electron microscopy because the interferences are different from those in light microscopy and may structurally be very similar to asbestos. The classic interference is between anthophyllite and biopyribole or intermediate fiber. Use the same morphological clues for electron microscopy as are used for light microscopy, e.g. fibril splitting, internal longitudinal striation, fraying, curvature, etc. 
</P>
<P>(1) Gross examination: 
</P>
<P>Examine the sample, preferably in the glass vial. Determine the presence of any obvious fibrous component. Estimate a percentage based on previous experience and current observation. Determine whether any pre-preparation is necessary. Determine the number of phases present. This step may be carried out or augmented by observation at 6 to 40 × under a stereo microscope. 
</P>
<P>(2) After performing any necessary pre-preparation, prepare slides of each phase as described above. Two preparations of the same phase in the same index medium can be made side-by-side on the same glass for convenience. Examine with the polarizing stereo microscope. Estimate the percentage of asbestos based on the amount of birefringent fiber present. 
</P>
<P>(3) Examine the slides on the phase-polar microscopes at magnifications of 160 and 400 × . Note the morphology of the fibers. Long, thin, very straight fibers with little curvature are indicative of fibers from the amphibole family. Curved, wavy fibers are usually indicative of chrysotile. Estimate the percentage of asbestos on the phase-polar microscope under conditions of crossed polars and a gypsum plate. Fibers smaller than 1.0 µm in thickness must be identified by inference to the presence of larger, identifiable fibers and morphology. If no larger fibers are visible, electron microscopy should be performed. At this point, only a tentative identification can be made. Full identification must be made with dispersion microscopy. Details of the tests are included in the appendices. 
</P>
<P>(4) Once fibers have been determined to be present, they must be identified. Adjust the microscope for dispersion mode and observe the fibers. The microscope has a rotating stage, one polarizing element, and a system for generating dark-field dispersion microscopy (see Section 4.6. of this appendix). Align a fiber with its length parallel to the polarizer and note the color of the Becke lines. Rotate the stage to bring the fiber length perpendicular to the polarizer and note the color. Repeat this process for every fiber or fiber bundle examined. The colors must be consistent with the colors generated by standard asbestos reference materials for a positive identification. In n = 1.550, amphiboles will generally show a yellow to straw-yellow color indicating that the fiber indices of refraction are higher than the liquid. If long, thin fibers are noted and the colors are yellow, prepare further slides as above in the suggested matching liquids listed below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of asbestos 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Index of refraction 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.550.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amosite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.670 or 1.680. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.690. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.605 and 1.620. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.605 and 1.620. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.620.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Where more than one liquid is suggested, the first is preferred; however, in some cases this liquid will not give good dispersion color. Take care to avoid interferences in the other liquid; e.g., wollastonite in n = 1.620 will give the same colors as tremolite. In n = 1.605 wollastonite will appear yellow in all directions. Wollastonite may be determined under crossed polars as it will change from blue to yellow as it is rotated along its fiber axis by tapping on the cover slip. Asbestos minerals will not change in this way. 
</P>
<P>Determination of the angle of extinction may, when present, aid in the determination of anthophyllite from tremolite. True asbestos fibers usually have 0° extinction or ambiguous extinction, while cleavage fragments have more definite extinction. 
</P>
<P>Continue analysis until both preparations have been examined and all present species of asbestos are identified. If there are no fibers present, or there is less than 0.1% present, end the analysis with the minimum number of slides (2). 
</P>
<P>(5) Some fibers have a coating on them which makes dispersion microscopy very difficult or impossible. Becke line analysis or electron microscopy may be performed in those cases. Determine the percentage by light microscopy. TEM analysis tends to overestimate the actual percentage present. 
</P>
<P>(6) Percentage determination is an estimate of occluded area, tempered by gross observation. Gross observation information is used to make sure that the high magnification microscopy does not greatly over- or under-estimate the amount of fiber present. This part of the analysis requires a great deal of experience. Satisfactory models for asbestos content analysis have not yet been developed, although some models based on metallurgical grain-size determination have found some utility. Estimation is more easily handled in situations where the grain sizes visible at about 160 × are about the same and the sample is relatively homogeneous. 
</P>
<P>View all of the area under the cover slip to make the percentage determination. View the fields while moving the stage, paying attention to the clumps of material. These are not usually the best areas to perform dispersion microscopy because of the interference from other materials. But, they are the areas most likely to represent the accurate percentage in the sample. Small amounts of asbestos require slower scanning and more frequent analysis of individual fields. 
</P>
<P>Report the area occluded by asbestos as the concentration. This estimate does not generally take into consideration the difference in density of the different species present in the sample. For most samples this is adequate. Simulation studies with similar materials must be carried out to apply microvisual estimation for that purpose and is beyond the scope of this procedure. 
</P>
<P>(7) Where successive concentrations have been made by chemical or physical means, the amount reported is the percentage of the material in the “as submitted” or original state. The percentage determined by microscopy is multiplied by the fractions remaining after pre-preparation steps to give the percentage in the original sample. For example:
</P>
<FP-1>Step 1. 60% remains after heating at 550 °C for 1 h. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Step 2. 30% of the residue of step 1 remains after dissolution of carbonate in 0.1 m HCl. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Step 3. Microvisual estimation determines that 5% of the sample is chrysotile asbestos.
</FP-1>
<P>The reported result is:
</P>
<FP-1>R = (Microvisual result in percent) × (Fraction remaining after step 2) × (Fraction remaining of original sample after step 1) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R = (5) × (.30) × (.60) = 0.9% 
</FP-1>
<P>(8) Report the percent and type of asbestos present. For samples where asbestos was identified, but is less than 1.0%, report “Asbestos present, less than 1.0%.” There must have been at least two observed fibers or fiber bundles in the two preparations to be reported as present. For samples where asbestos was not seen, report as “None Detected.” 
</P>
<HD2>4. Auxiliary Information 
</HD2>
<P>Because of the subjective nature of asbestos analysis, certain concepts and procedures need to be discussed in more depth. This information will help the analyst understand why some of the procedures are carried out the way they are. 
</P>
<HD3>4.1. Light 
</HD3>
<P>Light is electromagnetic energy. It travels from its source in packets called quanta. It is instructive to consider light as a plane wave. The light has a direction of travel. Perpendicular to this and mutually perpendicular to each other, are two vector components. One is the magnetic vector and the other is the electric vector. We shall only be concerned with the electric vector. In this description, the interaction of the vector and the mineral will describe all the observable phenomena. From a light source such a microscope illuminator, light travels in all different direction from the filament. 
</P>
<P>In any given direction away from the filament, the electric vector is perpendicular to the direction of travel of a light ray. While perpendicular, its orientation is random about the travel axis. If the electric vectors from all the light rays were lined up by passing the light through a filter that would only let light rays with electric vectors oriented in one direction pass, the light would then be <I>POLARIZED.</I> 
</P>
<P>Polarized light interacts with matter in the direction of the electric vector. This is the polarization direction. Using this property it is possible to use polarized light to probe different materials and identify them by how they interact with light. The speed of light in a vacuum is a constant at about 2.99 × 10 
<SU>8</SU> m/s. When light travels in different materials such as air, water, minerals or oil, it does not travel at this speed. It travels slower. This slowing is a function of both the material through which the light is traveling and the wavelength or frequency of the light. In general, the more dense the material, the slower the light travels. Also, generally, the higher the frequency, the slower the light will travel. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to that in a material is called the index of refraction (n). It is usually measured at 589 nm (the sodium D line). If white light (light containing all the visible wavelengths) travels through a material, rays of longer wavelengths will travel faster than those of shorter wavelengths, this separation is called dispersion. Dispersion is used as an identifier of materials as described in Section 4.6. 
</P>
<HD3>4.2. Material Properties 
</HD3>
<P>Materials are either amorphous or crystalline. The difference between these two descriptions depends on the positions of the atoms in them. The atoms in amorphous materials are randomly arranged with no long range order. An example of an amorphous material is glass. The atoms in crystalline materials, on the other hand, are in regular arrays and have long range order. Most of the atoms can be found in highly predictable locations. Examples of crystalline material are salt, gold, and the asbestos minerals. 
</P>
<P>It is beyond the scope of this method to describe the different types of crystalline materials that can be found, or the full description of the classes into which they can fall. However, some general crystallography is provided below to give a foundation to the procedures described. 
</P>
<P>With the exception of anthophyllite, all the asbestos minerals belong to the monoclinic crystal type. The unit cell is the basic repeating unit of the crystal and for monoclinic crystals can be described as having three unequal sides, two 90° angles and one angle not equal to 90°. The orthorhombic group, of which anthophyllite is a member has three unequal sides and three 90° angles. The unequal sides are a consequence of the complexity of fitting the different atoms into the unit cell. Although the atoms are in a regular array, that array is not symmetrical in all directions. There is long range order in the three major directions of the crystal. However, the order is different in each of the three directions. This has the effect that the index of refraction is different in each of the three directions. Using polarized light, we can investigate the index of refraction in each of the directions and identify the mineral or material under investigation. The indices α, β, and γ are used to identify the lowest, middle, and highest index of refraction respectively. The x direction, associated with α is called the fast axis. Conversely, the z direction is associated with γ and is the slow direction. Crocidolite has α along the fiber length making it “length-fast”. The remainder of the asbestos minerals have the γ axis along the fiber length. They are called “length-slow”. This orientation to fiber length is used to aid in the identification of asbestos. 
</P>
<HD3>4.3. Polarized Light Technique 
</HD3>
<P>Polarized light microscopy as described in this section uses the phase-polar microscope described in Section 3.2. A phase contrast microscope is fitted with two polarizing elements, one below and one above the sample. The polarizers have their polarization directions at right angles to each other. Depending on the tests performed, there may be a compensator between these two polarizing elements. Light emerging from a polarizing element has its electric vector pointing in the polarization direction of the element. The light will not be subsequently transmitted through a second element set at a right angle to the first element. Unless the light is altered as it passes from one element to the other, there is no transmission of light. 
</P>
<HD3>4.4. Angle of Extinction 
</HD3>
<P>Crystals which have different crystal regularity in two or three main directions are said to be anisotropic. They have a different index of refraction in each of the main directions. When such a crystal is inserted between the crossed polars, the field of view is no longer dark but shows the crystal in color. The color depends on the properties of the crystal. The light acts as if it travels through the crystal along the optical axes. If a crystal optical axis were lined up along one of the polarizing directions (either the polarizer or the analyzer) the light would appear to travel only in that direction, and it would blink out or go dark. The difference in degrees between the fiber direction and the angle at which it blinks out is called the angle of extinction. When this angle can be measured, it is useful in identifying the mineral. The procedure for measuring the angle of extinction is to first identify the polarization direction in the microscope. A commercial alignment slide can be used to establish the polarization directions or use anthophyllite or another suitable mineral. This mineral has a zero degree angle of extinction and will go dark to extinction as it aligns with the polarization directions. When a fiber of anthophyllite has gone to extinction, align the eyepiece reticle or graticule with the fiber so that there is a visual cue as to the direction of polarization in the field of view. Tape or otherwise secure the eyepiece in this position so it will not shift. 
</P>
<P>After the polarization direction has been identified in the field of view, move the particle of interest to the center of the field of view and align it with the polarization direction. For fibers, align the fiber along this direction. Note the angular reading of the rotating stage. Looking at the particle, rotate the stage until the fiber goes dark or “blinks out”. Again note the reading of the stage. The difference in the first reading and the second is an angle of extinction. 
</P>
<P>The angle measured may vary as the orientation of the fiber changes about its long axis. Tables of mineralogical data usually report the maximum angle of extinction. Asbestos forming minerals, when they exhibit an angle of extinction, usually do show an angle of extinction close to the reported maximum, or as appropriate depending on the substitution chemistry. 
</P>
<HD3>4.5. Crossed Polars With Compensator 
</HD3>
<P>When the optical axes of a crystal are not lined up along one of the polarizing directions (either the polarizer or the analyzer) part of the light travels along one axis and part travels along the other visible axis. This is characteristic of birefringent materials. 
</P>
<P>The color depends on the difference of the two visible indices of refraction and the thickness of the crystal. The maximum difference available is the difference between the α and the γ axes. This maximum difference is usually tabulated as the birefringence of the crystal. 
</P>
<P>For this test, align the fiber at 45° to the polarization directions in order to maximize the contribution to each of the optical axes. The colors seen are called retardation colors. They arise from the recombination of light which has traveled through the two separate directions of the crystal. One of the rays is retarded behind the other since the light in that direction travels slower. On recombination, some of the colors which make up white light are enhanced by constructive interference and some are suppressed by destructive interference. The result is a color dependent on the difference between the indices and the thickness of the crystal. The proper colors, thicknesses, and retardations are shown on a Michel-Levy chart. The three items, retardation, thickness and birefringence are related by the following relationship:
</P>
<FP-1>R = t(n<E T="8064">γ</E>—<E T="8064">α</E>) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R = retardation, t = crystal thickness in µm, and 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="8064">α,γ</E> = indices of refraction. 
</FP-1>
<P>Examination of the equation for asbestos minerals reveals that the visible colors for almost all common asbestos minerals and fiber sizes are shades of gray and black. The eye is relatively poor at discriminating different shades of gray. It is very good at discriminating different colors. In order to compensate for the low retardation, a compensator is added to the light train between the polarization elements. The compensator used for this test is a gypsum plate of known thickness and birefringence. Such a compensator when oriented at 45° to the polarizer direction, provides a retardation of 530 nm of the 530 nm wavelength color. This enhances the red color and gives the background a characteristic red to red-magenta color. If this “full-wave” compensator is in place when the asbestos preparation is inserted into the light train, the colors seen on the fibers are quite different. Gypsum, like asbestos has a fast axis and a slow axis. When a fiber is aligned with its fast axis in the same direction as the fast axis of the gypsum plate, the ray vibrating in the slow direction is retarded by both the asbestos and the gypsum. This results in a higher retardation than would be present for either of the two minerals. The color seen is a second order blue. When the fiber is rotated 90° using the rotating stage, the slow direction of the fiber is now aligned with the fast direction of the gypsum and the fast direction of the fiber is aligned with the slow direction of the gypsum. Thus, one ray vibrates faster in the fast direction of the gypsum, and slower in the slow direction of the fiber; the other ray will vibrate slower in the slow direction of the gypsum and faster in the fast direction of the fiber. In this case, the effect is subtractive and the color seen is a first order yellow. As long as the fiber thickness does not add appreciably to the color, the same basic colors will be seen for all asbestos types except crocidolite. In crocidolite the colors will be weaker, may be in the opposite directions, and will be altered by the blue absorption color natural to crocidolite. Hundreds of other materials will give the same colors as asbestos, and therefore, this test is not definitive for asbestos. The test is useful in discriminating against fiberglass or other amorphous fibers such as some synthetic fibers. Certain synthetic fibers will show retardation colors different than asbestos; however, there are some forms of polyethylene and aramid which will show morphology and retardation colors similar to asbestos minerals. This test must be supplemented with a positive identification test when birefringent fibers are present which can not be excluded by morphology. This test is relatively ineffective for use on fibers less than 1 µm in diameter. For positive confirmation TEM or SEM should be used if no larger bundles or fibers are visible. 
</P>
<HD3>4.6. Dispersion Staining 
</HD3>
<P>Dispersion microscopy or dispersion staining is the method of choice for the identification of asbestos in bulk materials. Becke line analysis is used by some laboratories and yields the same results as does dispersion staining for asbestos and can be used in lieu of dispersion staining. Dispersion staining is performed on the same platform as the phase-polar analysis with the analyzer and compensator removed. One polarizing element remains to define the direction of the light so that the different indices of refraction of the fibers may be separately determined. Dispersion microscopy is a dark-field technique when used for asbestos. Particles are imaged with scattered light. Light which is unscattered is blocked from reaching the eye either by the back field image mask in a McCrone objective or a back field image mask in the phase condenser. The most convenient method is to use the rotating phase condenser to move an oversized phase ring into place. The ideal size for this ring is for the central disk to be just larger than the objective entry aperture as viewed in the back focal plane. The larger the disk, the less scattered light reaches the eye. This will have the effect of diminishing the intensity of dispersion color and will shift the actual color seen. The colors seen vary even on microscopes from the same manufacturer. This is due to the different bands of wavelength exclusion by different mask sizes. The mask may either reside in the condenser or in the objective back focal plane. It is imperative that the analyst determine by experimentation with asbestos standards what the appropriate colors should be for each asbestos type. The colors depend also on the temperature of the preparation and the exact chemistry of the asbestos. Therefore, some slight differences from the standards should be allowed. This is not a serious problem for commercial asbestos uses. This technique is used for identification of the indices of refraction for fibers by recognition of color. There is no direct numerical readout of the index of refraction. Correlation of color to actual index of refraction is possible by referral to published conversion tables. This is not necessary for the analysis of asbestos. Recognition of appropriate colors along with the proper morphology are deemed sufficient to identify the commercial asbestos minerals. Other techniques including SEM, TEM, and XRD may be required to provide additional information in order to identify other types of asbestos. 
</P>
<P>Make a preparation in the suspected matching high dispersion oil, e.g., n = 1.550 for chrysotile. Perform the preliminary tests to determine whether the fibers are birefringent or not. Take note of the morphological character. Wavy fibers are indicative of chrysotile while long, straight, thin, frayed fibers are indicative of amphibole asbestos. This can aid in the selection of the appropriate matching oil. The microscope is set up and the polarization direction is noted as in Section 4.4. Align a fiber with the polarization direction. Note the color. This is the color parallel to the polarizer. Then rotate the fiber rotating the stage 90° so that the polarization direction is across the fiber. This is the perpendicular position. Again note the color. Both colors must be consistent with standard asbestos minerals in the correct direction for a positive identification of asbestos. If only one of the colors is correct while the other is not, the identification is not positive. If the colors in both directions are bluish-white, the analyst has chosen a matching index oil which is higher than the correct matching oil, e.g. the analyst has used n = 1.620 where chrysotile is present. The next lower oil (Section 3.5.) should be used to prepare another specimen. If the color in both directions is yellow-white to straw-yellow-white, this indicates that the index of the oil is lower than the index of the fiber, e.g. the preparation is in n = 1.550 while anthophyllite is present. Select the next higher oil (Section 3.5.) and prepare another slide. Continue in this fashion until a positive identification of all asbestos species present has been made or all possible asbestos species have been ruled out by negative results in this test. Certain plant fibers can have similar dispersion colors as asbestos. Take care to note and evaluate the morphology of the fibers or remove the plant fibers in pre-preparation. Coating material on the fibers such as carbonate or vinyl may destroy the dispersion color. Usually, there will be some outcropping of fiber which will show the colors sufficient for identification. When this is not the case, treat the sample as described in Section 3.3. and then perform dispersion staining. Some samples will yield to Becke line analysis if they are coated or electron microscopy can be used for identification. 
</P>
<HD2>5. References 
</HD2>
<P>5.1. Crane, D.T., <I>Asbestos in Air,</I> OSHA method ID160, Revised November 1992. 
</P>
<P>5.2. Ford, W.E., <I>Dana's Textbook of Mineralogy</I>; Fourth Ed.; John Wiley and Son, New York, 1950, p. vii. 
</P>
<P>5.3. Selikoff,.I.J., Lee, D.H.K., <I>Asbestos and Disease,</I> Academic Press, New York, 1978, pp. 3, 20. 
</P>
<P>5.4. <I>Women Inspectors of Factories.</I> Annual Report for 1898, H.M. Statistical Office, London, p. 170 (1898). 
</P>
<P>5.5. Selikoff,.I.J., Lee, D.H.K., <I>Asbestos and Disease,</I> Academic Press, New York, 1978, pp. 26, 30. 
</P>
<P>5.6. Campbell, W.J., et al, <I>Selected Silicate Minerals and Their Asbestiform Varieties,</I> United States Department of the Interior, Bureau of Mines, Information Circular 8751, 1977. 
</P>
<P>5.7. <I>Asbestos,</I> Code of Federal Regulations, 29 CFR 1910.1001 and 29 CFR 1926.58. 
</P>
<P>5.8. <I>National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants; Asbestos NESHAP Revision,</I> <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> Vol. 55, No. 224, 20 November 1990, p. 48410. 
</P>
<P>5.9. Ross, M. <I>The Asbestos Minerals: Definitions, Description, Modes of Formation, Physical and Chemical Properties and Health Risk to the Mining Community,</I> Nation Bureau of Standards Special Publication, Washington, D.C., 1977. 
</P>
<P>5.10. Lilis, R., Fibrous Zeolites and Endemic Mesothelioma in Cappadocia, Turkey, <I>J. Occ Medicine,</I> 1981, 23, (8) ,548-550. 
</P>
<P>5.11. <I>Occupational Exposure to Asbestos—1972,</I> U.S. Department of Health Education and Welfare, Public Health Service, Center for Disease Control, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, HSM-72-10267. 
</P>
<P>5.12. Campbell,W.J., et al, Relationship of Mineral Habit to Size <I>Characteristics for Tremolite Fragments and Fibers,</I> United States Department of the Interior, Bureau of Mines, Information Circular 8367, 1979. 
</P>
<P>5.13. Mefford, D., DCM Laboratory, Denver, private communication, July 1987. 
</P>
<P>5.14. Deer, W.A., Howie, R.A., Zussman, J., <I>Rock Forming Minerals,</I> Longman, Thetford, UK, 1974. 
</P>
<P>5.15. Kerr, P.F., <I>Optical Mineralogy;</I> Third Ed. McGraw-Hill, New York, 1959. 
</P>
<P>5.16. Veblen, D.R. (Ed.), <I>Amphiboles and Other Hydrous Pyriboles—Mineralogy, Reviews in Mineralogy,</I> Vol 9A, Michigan, 1982, pp 1-102. 
</P>
<P>5.17. Dixon, W.C., <I>Applications of Optical Microscopy in the Analysis of Asbestos and Quartz,</I> ACS Symposium Series, No. 120, Analytical Techniques in Occupational Health Chemistry, 1979. 
</P>
<P>5.18. Polarized Light Microscopy, McCrone Research Institute, Chicago, 1976. 
</P>
<P>5.19. Asbestos Identification, McCrone Research Institute, G &amp; G printers, Chicago, 1987. 
</P>
<P>5.20. McCrone, W.C., Calculation of Refractive Indices from Dispersion Staining Data, The Microscope, No 37, Chicago, 1989. 
</P>
<P>5.21. Levadie, B. (Ed.), <I>Asbestos and Other Health Related Silicates,</I> ASTM Technical Publication 834, ASTM, Philadelphia 1982. 
</P>
<P>5.22. Steel, E. and Wylie, A., Riordan, P.H. (Ed.), Mineralogical Characteristics of Asbestos, <I>Geology of Asbestos Deposits,</I> pp. 93-101, SME-AIME, 1981. 
</P>
<P>5.23. Zussman, J., The Mineralogy of Asbestos, <I>Asbestos: Properties, Applications and Hazards,</I> pp. 45-67 Wiley, 1979.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix L to § 1915.1001—Work Practices and Engineering Controls for Automotive Brake and Clutch Inspection, Disassembly, Repair and Assembly—Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>This mandatory appendix specifies engineering controls and work practices that must be implemented by the employer during automotive brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair, and assembly operations. Proper use of these engineering controls and work practices by trained employees will reduce employees' asbestos exposure below the permissible exposure level during clutch and brake inspection, disassembly, repair, and assembly operations. The employer shall institute engineering controls and work practices using either the method set forth in paragraph [A] or paragraph [B] of this appendix, or any other method which the employer can demonstrate to be equivalent in terms of reducing employee exposure to asbestos as defined and which meets the requirements described in paragraph [C] of this appendix, for those facilities in which no more than 5 pairs of brakes or 5 clutches are inspected, disassembled, reassembled and/or repaired per week, the method set forth in paragraph [D] of this appendix may be used: 
</P>
<HD2>[A] Negative Pressure Enclosure/HEPA Vacuum System Method 
</HD2>
<P>(1) The brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair, and assembly operations shall be enclosed to cover and contain the clutch or brake assembly and to prevent the release of asbestos fibers into the worker's breathing zone. 
</P>
<P>(2) The enclosure shall be sealed tightly and thoroughly inspected for leaks before work begins on brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair, and assembly. 
</P>
<P>(3) The enclosure shall be such that the worker can clearly see the operation and shall provide impermeable sleeves through which the worker can handle the brake and clutch inspection, disassembly, repair and assembly. The integrity of the sleeves and ports shall be examined before work begins. 
</P>
<P>(4) A HEPA-filtered vacuum shall be employed to maintain the enclosure under negative pressure throughout the operation. Compressed-air may be used to remove asbestos fibers or particles from the enclosure. 
</P>
<P>(5) The HEPA vacuum shall be used first to loosen the asbestos containing residue from the brake and clutch parts and then to evacuate the loosened asbestos containing material from the enclosure and capture the material in the vacuum filter. 
</P>
<P>(6) The vacuum's filter, when full, shall be first wetted with a fine mist of water, then removed and placed immediately in an impermeable container, labeled according to paragraph (k)(8) of this section and disposed of according to paragraph (l) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(7) Any spills or releases of asbestos containing waste material from inside of the enclosure or vacuum hose or vacuum filter shall be immediately cleaned up and disposed of according to paragraph (l) of the section. 
</P>
<HD2>[B] Low Pressure/Wet Cleaning Method 
</HD2>
<P>(1) A catch basin shall be placed under the brake assembly, positioned to avoid splashes and spills. 
</P>
<P>(2) The reservoir shall contain water containing an organic solvent or wetting agent. The flow of liquid shall be controlled such that the brake assembly is gently flooded to prevent the asbestos-containing brake dust from becoming airborne. 
</P>
<P>(3) The aqueous solution shall be allowed to flow between the brake drum and brake support before the drum is removed. 
</P>
<P>(4) After removing the brake drum, the wheel hub and back of the brake assembly shall be thoroughly wetted to suppress dust. 
</P>
<P>(5) The brake support plate, brake shoes and brake components used to attach the brake shoes shall be thoroughly washed before removing the old shoes. 
</P>
<P>(6) In systems using filters, the filters, when full, shall be first wetted with a fine mist of water, then removed and placed immediately in an impermeable container, labeled according to paragraph (k)(8) of this section and disposed of according to paragraph (l) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(7) Any spills of asbestos-containing aqueous solution or any asbestos-containing waste material shall be cleaned up immediately and disposed of according to paragraph (l) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(8) The use of dry brushing during low pressure/wet cleaning operations is prohibited. 
</P>
<HD2>[C] Equivalent Methods 
</HD2>
<P>An equivalent method is one which has sufficient written detail so that it can be reproduced and has been demonstrated that the exposures resulting from the equivalent method are equal to or less than the exposures which would result from the use of the method described in paragraph [A] of this appendix. For purposes of making this comparison, the employer shall assume that exposures resulting from the use of the method described in paragraph [A] of this appendix shall not exceed 0.016 f/cc, as measured by the OSHA reference method and as averaged over at least 18 personal samples. 
</P>
<HD2>[D] Wet Method
</HD2>
<P>(1) A spray bottle, hose nozzle, or other implement capable of delivering a fine mist of water or amended water or other delivery system capable of delivering water at low pressure, shall be used to first thoroughly wet the brake and clutch parts. Brake and clutch components shall then be wiped clean with a cloth. 
</P>
<P>(2) The cloth shall be placed in an impermeable container, labelled according to paragraph (k)(8) of this section and then disposed of according to paragraph (l) of this section, or the cloth shall be laundered in a way to prevent the release of asbestos fibers in excess of 0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any spills of solvent or any asbestos containing waste material shall be cleaned up immediately according to paragraph (l) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) The use of dry brushing during the wet method operations is prohibited.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 41080, Aug. 10, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 33344, June 28, 1995; 60 FR 33987, June 29, 1995; 60 FR 36044, July 13, 1995; 60 FR 50412, Sept. 29, 1995; 61 FR 43457, Aug. 23, 1996; 63 FR 35137, June 29, 1998; 67 FR 44545, 44546, July 3, 2002; 70 FR 1143, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50191, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75587, Dec. 12, 2009; 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17888, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 9315, Feb. 8, 2013; 84 FR 21555, 12597, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1002" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1002   Coal tar pitch volatiles; interpretation of term.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1002 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1003" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1003   13 carcinogens (4-Nitrobiphenyl, etc.).</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1004" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1004   alpha-Naphthylamine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1005" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1005   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1006" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1006   Methyl chloromethyl ether.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1007" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1007   3,3′-Dichlorobenzidiene (and its salts).</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1008" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1008   bis-Chloromethyl ether.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1009" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1009   beta-Naphthylamine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1010" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1010   Benzidine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1011" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1011   4-Aminodiphenyl.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1012" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1012   Ethyleneimine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1013" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1013   beta-Propiolactone.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1014" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1014   2-Acetylaminofluorene.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1015" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1015   4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1016" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1016   N-Nitrosodimethylamine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1017" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1017   Vinyl chloride.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1017 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31430, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1018" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1018   Inorganic arsenic.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1018 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1020" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1020   Access to employee exposure and medical records.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1020 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1024" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1024   Beryllium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This standard applies to occupational exposure to beryllium in all forms, compounds, and mixtures in shipyards, except those articles and materials exempted by paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) This standard does not apply to articles, as defined in the Hazard Communication standard (HCS) (29 CFR 1910.1200(c)), that contain beryllium and that the employer does not process.
</P>
<P>(3) This standard does not apply to materials containing less than 0.1% beryllium by weight where the employer has objective data demonstrating that employee exposure to beryllium will remain below the action level as an 8-hour TWA under any foreseeable conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this standard:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne beryllium of 0.1 micrograms per cubic meter of air (µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Airborne exposure</I> and <I>airborne exposure to beryllium</I> mean the exposure to airborne beryllium that would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, United States Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test (BeLPT)</I> means the measurement of blood lymphocyte proliferation in a laboratory test when lymphocytes are challenged with a soluble beryllium salt.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium sensitization</I> means a response in the immune system of a specific individual who has been exposed to beryllium. There are no associated physical or clinical symptoms and no illness or disability with beryllium sensitization alone, but the response that occurs through beryllium sensitization can enable the immune system to recognize and react to beryllium. While not every beryllium-sensitized person will develop chronic beryllium disease (CBD), beryllium sensitization is essential for development of CBD.
</P>
<P><I>CBD diagnostic center</I> means a medical diagnostic center that has a pulmonologist or pulmonary specialist on staff and on-site facilities to perform a clinical evaluation for the presence of chronic beryllium disease (CBD). The CBD diagnostic center must have the capacity to perform pulmonary function testing (as outlined by the American Thoracic Society criteria), bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), and transbronchial biopsy. The CBD diagnostic center must also have the capacity to transfer BAL samples to a laboratory for appropriate diagnostic testing within 24 hours. The pulmonologist or pulmonary specialist must be able to interpret the biopsy pathology and the BAL diagnostic test results.
</P>
<P><I>Chronic beryllium disease (CBD)</I> means a chronic granulomatous lung disease caused by inhalation of airborne beryllium by an individual who is beryllium-sensitized.
</P>
<P><I>Confirmed positive</I> means the person tested has had two abnormal BeLPT test results, an abnormal and a borderline test result, or three borderline test results from tests conducted within a 3-year period. It also means the result of a more reliable and accurate test indicating a person has been identified as having beryllium sensitization.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means information, such as air monitoring data from industry-wide surveys or calculations based on the composition of a substance, demonstrating airborne exposure to beryllium associated with a particular product or material or a specific process, task, or activity. The data must reflect workplace conditions closely resembling or with a higher airborne exposure potential than the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional (PLHCP)</I> means an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.,</I> license, registration, or certification) allows the individual to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the health care services required by paragraph (k) of this standard.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area, including temporary work areas where maintenance or non-routine tasks are performed, where an employee's airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, either the time-weighted average (TWA) permissible exposure limit (PEL) or short term exposure limit (STEL).
</P>
<P><I>This standard</I> means this beryllium standard, 29 CFR 1915.1024.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs)</I>—(1) <I>Time-weighted average (TWA) PEL.</I> The employer must ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of beryllium in excess of 0.2 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> calculated as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short-term exposure limit (STEL).</I> The employer must ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of beryllium in excess of 2.0 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> as determined over a sampling period of 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure assessment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer must assess the airborne exposure of each employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be exposed to airborne beryllium in accordance with either the performance option in paragraph (d)(2) or the scheduled monitoring option in paragraph (d)(3) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Performance option.</I> The employer must assess the 8-hour TWA exposure and the 15-minute short-term exposure for each employee on the basis of any combination of air monitoring data and objective data sufficient to accurately characterize airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scheduled monitoring option.</I> (i) The employer must perform initial monitoring to assess the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of one or more personal breathing zone air samples that reflect the airborne exposure of employees on each shift, for each job classification, and in each work area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must perform initial monitoring to assess the short-term exposure from 15-minute personal breathing zone air samples measured in operations that are likely to produce airborne exposure above the STEL for each work shift, for each job classification, and in each work area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where several employees perform the same tasks on the same shift and in the same work area, the employer may sample a representative fraction of these employees in order to meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this standard. In representative sampling, the employer must sample the employee(s) expected to have the highest airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iv) If initial monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is below the action level and at or below the STEL, the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose airborne exposure is represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(v) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is at or above the action level but at or below the TWA PEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vi) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is above the TWA PEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within three months of the most recent 8-hour TWA exposure monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where the most recent (non-initial) exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is below the action level, the employer must repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring until two consecutive measurements, taken 7 or more days apart, are below the action level, at which time the employer may discontinue 8-hour TWA exposure monitoring for those employees whose exposure is represented by such monitoring, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(viii) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is above the STEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within three months of the most recent short-term exposure monitoring until two consecutive measurements, taken 7 or more days apart, are below the STEL, at which time the employer may discontinue short-term exposure monitoring for those employees whose exposure is represented by such monitoring, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reassessment of exposure.</I> The employer must reassess airborne exposure whenever a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel, or work practices may reasonably be expected to result in new or additional airborne exposure at or above the action level or STEL, or when the employer has any reason to believe that new or additional airborne exposure at or above the action level or STEL has occurred.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Methods of sample analysis.</I> The employer must ensure that all air monitoring samples used to satisfy the monitoring requirements of paragraph (d) of this standard are evaluated by a laboratory that can measure beryllium to an accuracy of plus or minus 25 percent within a statistical confidence level of 95 percent for airborne concentrations at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee notification of assessment results.</I> (i) Within 15 working days after completing an exposure assessment in accordance with paragraph (d) of this standard, the employer must notify each employee whose airborne exposure is represented by the assessment of the results of that assessment individually in writing or post the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to each of these employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever an exposure assessment indicates that airborne exposure is above the TWA PEL or STEL, the employer must describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce airborne exposure to or below the exposure limit(s) exceeded where feasible corrective action exists but had not been implemented when the monitoring was conducted.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) The employer must provide an opportunity to observe any exposure monitoring required by this standard to each employee whose airborne exposure is measured or represented by the monitoring and each employee's representative(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of personal protective clothing or equipment (which may include respirators) is required, the employer must provide each observer with appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment at no cost to the observer and must ensure that each observer uses such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that each observer follows all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> The employer must establish and maintain a regulated area wherever employees are, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium at levels above the TWA PEL or STEL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> The employer must identify each regulated area in accordance with paragraph (m)(2) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> The employer must limit access to regulated areas to:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons the employer authorizes or requires to be in a regulated area to perform work duties;
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons entering a regulated area as designated representatives of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe exposure monitoring procedures under paragraph (d)(7) of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Persons authorized by law to be in a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision of personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators.</I> The employer must provide and ensure that each employee entering a regulated area uses:
</P>
<P>(i) Respiratory protection in accordance with paragraph (g) of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraph (h) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Written exposure control plan.</I> (i) The employer must establish, implement, and maintain a written exposure control plan, which must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) A list of operations and job titles reasonably expected to involve exposure to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(B) A list of engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection required by paragraph (f)(2) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(C) A list of personal protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (h) of this standard; 
</P>
<P>(D) Procedures used to ensure the integrity of each containment used to minimize exposures to employees outside of the containment; and
</P>
<P>(E) Procedures for removing, cleaning, and maintaining personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraph (h) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must review and evaluate the effectiveness of each written exposure control plan at least annually and update it, as necessary, when:
</P>
<P>(A) Any change in production processes, materials, equipment, personnel, work practices, or control methods results, or can reasonably be expected to result, in new or additional airborne exposure to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(B) The employer is notified that an employee is eligible for medical removal in accordance with paragraph (l)(1) of this standard, referred for evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center, or shows signs or symptoms associated with exposure to beryllium; or
</P>
<P>(C) The employer has any reason to believe that new or additional airborne exposure is occurring or will occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must make a copy of the written exposure control plan accessible to each employee who is, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium in accordance with OSHA's Access to Employee Exposure and Medical Records (Records Access) standard (29 CFR 1910.1020(e)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> The employer must use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee airborne exposure to beryllium to or below the TWA PEL and STEL, unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever the employer demonstrates that it is not feasible to reduce airborne exposure to or below the PELs with engineering and work practice controls, the employer must implement and maintain engineering and work practice controls to reduce airborne exposure to the lowest levels feasible and supplement these controls by using respiratory protection in accordance with paragraph (g) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibition of rotation.</I> The employer must not rotate employees to different jobs to achieve compliance with the PELs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer must provide respiratory protection at no cost to the employee and ensure that each employee uses respiratory protection:
</P>
<P>(i) During periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls where airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(ii) During operations, including maintenance and repair activities and non-routine tasks, when engineering and work practice controls are not feasible and airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(iii) During operations for which an employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work practice controls when such controls are not sufficient to reduce airborne exposure to or below the TWA PEL or STEL; and
</P>
<P>(iv) When an employee who is eligible for medical removal under paragraph (l)(1) chooses to remain in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level, as permitted by paragraph (l)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> Where this standard requires an employer to provide respiratory protection, the selection and use of such respiratory protection must be in accordance with the Respiratory Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.134).
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must provide at no cost to the employee a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) instead of a negative pressure respirator when:
</P>
<P>(i) Respiratory protection is required by this standard;
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee entitled to such respiratory protection requests a PAPR; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The PAPR provides adequate protection to the employee in accordance with paragraph (g)(2) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Personal protective clothing and equipment</I>— 

(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL, the employer must provide at no cost, and ensure that each employee uses, appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with the written exposure control plan required under paragraph (f)(1) of this standard and OSHA's Personal Protective Equipment standards for shipyards (subpart I of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal of personal protective clothing and equipment.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that each employee removes all personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard at the end of the work shift or at the completion of all tasks involving beryllium, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard is not removed in a manner that disperses beryllium into the air, and is removed as specified in the written exposure control plan required by paragraph (f)(1) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that no employee with reasonably expected exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL removes personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard from the workplace unless it has been cleaned in accordance with paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that all reusable personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard is cleaned, laundered, repaired, and replaced as needed to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that beryllium is not removed from personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard by blowing, shaking, or any other means that disperses beryllium into the air.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) When cleaning dust resulting from operations that cause, or can reasonably be expected to cause, airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL, the employer must ensure the use of methods that minimize the likelihood and level of airborne exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must not allow dry sweeping or brushing for cleaning up dust resulting from operations that cause, or can reasonably be expected to cause, airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL unless methods that minimize the likelihood and level of airborne exposure are not safe or effective.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must not allow the use of compressed air for cleaning where the use of compressed air causes, or can reasonably be expected to cause, airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL.
</P>
<P>(4) Where employees use dry sweeping, brushing, or compressed air to clean, the employer must provide, and ensure that each employee uses, respiratory protection and personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraphs (g) and (h) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer must ensure that cleaning equipment is handled and maintained in a manner that minimizes the likelihood and level of airborne exposure and the re-entrainment of airborne beryllium in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer must make medical surveillance required by this paragraph available at no cost to the employee, and at a reasonable time and place, to each employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Who is or is reasonably expected to be exposed at or above the action level for more than 30 days per year;
</P>
<P>(B) Who shows signs or symptoms of CBD or other beryllium-related health effects; or
</P>
<P>(C) Whose most recent written medical opinion required by paragraph (k)(6) or (k)(7) recommends periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this standard are performed by, or under the direction of, a licensed physician.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer must provide a medical examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days after determining that:
</P>
<P>(A) An employee meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(A) of this standard, unless the employee has received a medical examination, provided in accordance with this standard, within the last two years; or
</P>
<P>(B) An employee meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(B) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least every two years thereafter for each employee who continues to meet the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(A), (B), or (C) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) At the termination of employment for each employee who meets any of the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this standard at the time the employee's employment terminates, unless an examination has been provided in accordance with this standard during the six months prior to the date of termination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of examination.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that the PLHCP conducting the examination advises the employee of the risks and benefits of participating in the medical surveillance program and the employee's right to opt out of any or all parts of the medical examination.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that the employee is offered a medical examination that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A medical and work history, with emphasis on past and present exposure to beryllium, smoking history, and any history of respiratory system dysfunction;
</P>
<P>(B) A physical examination with emphasis on the respiratory system;
</P>
<P>(C) A physical examination for skin rashes;
</P>
<P>(D) Pulmonary function tests, performed in accordance with the guidelines established by the American Thoracic Society including forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>);
</P>
<P>(E) A standardized BeLPT or equivalent test, upon the first examination and at least every two years thereafter, unless the employee is confirmed positive. If the results of the BeLPT are other than normal, a follow-up BeLPT must be offered within 30 days, unless the employee has been confirmed positive. Samples must be analyzed in a laboratory certified under the College of American Pathologists/Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) guidelines to perform the BeLPT.
</P>
<P>(F) A low dose computed tomography (LDCT) scan, when recommended by the PLHCP after considering the employee's history of exposure to beryllium along with other risk factors, such as smoking history, family medical history, sex, age, and presence of existing lung disease; and
</P>
<P>(G) Any other test deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the PLHCP.</I> The employer must ensure that the examining PLHCP (and the agreed-upon CBD diagnostic center, if an evaluation is required under paragraph (k)(7) of this standard) has a copy of this standard and must provide the following information, if known:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the employee's former and current duties that relate to the employee's exposure to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's former and current levels of airborne exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators, used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used that personal protective clothing and equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee, currently within the control of the employer, after obtaining written consent from the employee.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Licensed physician's written medical report for the employee.</I> The employer must ensure that the employee receives a written medical report from the licensed physician within 45 days of the examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard) and that the PLHCP explains the results of the examination to the employee. The written medical report must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including the licensed physician's opinion as to whether the employee has:
</P>
<P>(A) Any detected medical condition, such as CBD or beryllium sensitization (<I>i.e.,</I> the employee is confirmed positive, as defined in paragraph (b) of this standard), that may place the employee at increased risk from further airborne exposure, and
</P>
<P>(B) Any medical conditions related to airborne exposure that require further evaluation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommendations on:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee's use of respirators, protective clothing, or equipment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Limitations on the employee's airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD or if the licensed physician otherwise deems it appropriate, the written report must also contain a referral for an evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD the written report must also contain a recommendation for continued periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(v) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD the written report must also contain a recommendation for medical removal from airborne exposure to beryllium, as described in paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Licensed physician's written medical opinion for the employer.</I> (i) The employer must obtain a written medical opinion from the licensed physician within 45 days of the medical examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard). The written medical opinion must contain only the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the examination;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the examination has met the requirements of this standard;
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators, protective clothing, or equipment; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the PLHCP has explained the results of the medical examination to the employee, including any tests conducted, any medical conditions related to airborne exposure that require further evaluation or treatment, and any special provisions for use of personal protective clothing or equipment;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain any recommended limitations on the employee's airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD or if the licensed physician otherwise deems it appropriate, and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a referral for an evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a recommendation for continued periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(v) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a recommendation for medical removal from airborne exposure to beryllium, as described in paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer must ensure that each employee receives a copy of the written medical opinion described in paragraph (k)(6) of this standard within 45 days of any medical examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard) performed for that employee.




</P>
<P>(7) <I>CBD diagnostic center.</I> 

(i) The employer must provide an evaluation at no cost to the employee at a CBD diagnostic center that is mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee. The evaluation at the CBD diagnostic center must be scheduled within 30 days, and must occur within a reasonable time, of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The employer's receipt of a physician's written medical opinion to the employer that recommends referral to a CBD diagnostic center; or
</P>
<P>(B) The employee presenting to the employer a physician's written medical report indicating that the employee has been confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD, or recommending referral to a CBD diagnostic center.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that, as part of the evaluation, the employee is offered any tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician at the CBD diagnostic center, such as pulmonary function testing (as outlined by the American Thoracic Society criteria), bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), and transbronchial biopsy. If any of the tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician are not available at the CBD diagnostic center, they may be performed at another location that is mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that the employee receives a written medical report from the CBD diagnostic center that contains all the information required in paragraph (k)(5)(i), (ii), (iv), and (v) and that the PLHCP explains the results of the examination to the employee within 30 days of the examination.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer must obtain a written medical opinion from the CBD diagnostic center within 30 days of the medical examination. The written medical opinion must contain only the information in paragraphs (k)(6)(i), as applicable, unless the employee provides written authorization to release additional information. If the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain the information from paragraphs (k)(6)(ii), (iv), and (v), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer must ensure that each employee receives a copy of the written medical opinion from the CBD diagnostic center described in paragraph (k)(7) of this standard within 30 days of any medical examination performed for that employee.
</P>
<P>(vi) After an employee has received the initial clinical evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center described in paragraph (k)(7)(i) of this standard, the employee may choose to have any subsequent medical examinations for which the employee is eligible under paragraph (k) of this standard performed at a CBD diagnostic center mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee, and the employer must provide such examinations at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Medical removal.</I> (1) An employee is eligible for medical removal, if the employee works in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level and either:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee provides the employer with:
</P>
<P>(A) A written medical report indicating a confirmed positive finding or CBD diagnosis; or
</P>
<P>(B) A written medical report recommending removal from airborne exposure to beryllium in accordance with paragraph (k)(5)(v) or (k)(7)(ii) of this standard; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer receives a written medical opinion recommending removal from airborne exposure to beryllium in accordance with paragraph (k)(6)(v) or (k)(7)(iii) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) If an employee is eligible for medical removal, the employer must provide the employee with the employee's choice of:
</P>
<P>(i) Removal as described in paragraph (l)(3) of this standard; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Remaining in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level, provided that the employer provides, and ensures that the employee uses, respiratory protection that complies with paragraph (g) of this standard whenever airborne exposures are at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(3) If the employee chooses removal:
</P>
<P>(i) If a comparable job is available where airborne exposures to beryllium are below the action level, and the employee is qualified for that job or can be trained within one month, the employer must remove the employee to that job. The employer must maintain for six months from the time of removal the employee's base earnings, seniority, and other rights and benefits that existed at the time of removal.
</P>
<P>(ii) If comparable work is not available, the employer must maintain the employee's base earnings, seniority, and other rights and benefits that existed at the time of removal for six months or until such time that comparable work described in paragraph (l)(3)(i) becomes available, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program, or receives income from another employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, and employers must comply with all requirements of the HCS (29 CFR 1910.1200) for beryllium.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers must include beryllium in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS. Employers must ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of beryllium and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of the HCS (29 CFR 1910.1200) and paragraph (m)(3) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Warning signs.</I> (i) <I>Posting.</I> The employer must provide and display warning signs at each approach to a regulated area so that each employee is able to read and understand the signs and take necessary protective steps before entering the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sign specification.</I> (A) The employer must ensure that the warning signs required by paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this standard are legible and readily visible.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer must ensure each warning sign required by paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this standard bears the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>REGULATED AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BERYLLIUM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND PERSONAL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING AND EQUIPMENT IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Employee information and training.</I>  (i) For each employee who has, or can reasonably be expected to have, airborne exposure to beryllium:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer must provide information and training in accordance with the HCS (29 CFR 1910.1200(h));
</P>
<P>(B) The employer must provide initial training to each employee by the time of initial assignment; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employer must repeat the training required under this standard annually for each employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that each employee who is, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium can demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The health hazards associated with exposure to beryllium, including the signs and symptoms of CBD;
</P>
<P>(B) The written exposure control plan, with emphasis on the location(s) of any regulated areas, and the specific nature of operations that could result in airborne exposure, especially airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose, proper selection, fitting, proper use, and limitations of personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators;
</P>
<P>(D) Measures employees can take to protect themselves from exposure to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(E) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (k) of this standard including risks and benefits of each test to be offered;
</P>
<P>(F) The purpose and a description of the medical removal protection provided under paragraph (l) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(G) The contents of the standard; and
</P>
<P>(H) The employee's right of access to records under the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(iii) When a workplace change (such as modification of equipment, tasks, or procedures) results in new or increased airborne exposure that exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, either the TWA PEL or the STEL, the employer must provide additional training to those employees affected by the change in airborne exposure.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer must make a copy of this standard and its appendices readily available at no cost to each employee and designated employee representative(s).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Air monitoring data.</I> (i) The employer must make and maintain a record of all exposure measurements taken to assess airborne exposure as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record must include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The task that is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) The sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) The number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) The type of personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators, worn by monitored employees at the time of monitoring; and
</P>
<P>(F) The name and job classification of each employee represented by the monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) Where an employer uses objective data to satisfy the exposure assessment requirements under paragraph (d)(2) of this standard, the employer must make and maintain a record of the objective data relied upon.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record must include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The data relied upon;
</P>
<P>(B) The beryllium-containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(C) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the process, task, or activity on which the objective data were based; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the process, task, activity, material, or airborne exposure on which the objective data were based.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that objective data are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer must make and maintain a record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (k) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record must include the following information about each employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and job classification;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of all licensed physicians' written medical opinions for each employee; and
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the PLHCP as required by paragraph (k)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that medical records are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training.</I>  (i) At the completion of any training required by this standard, the employer must prepare a record that indicates the name and job classification of each employee trained, the date the training was completed, and the topic of the training.</P>
<P>(ii) This record must be maintained for three years after the completion of training.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Access to records.</I> Upon request, the employer must make all records maintained as a requirement of this standard available for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, each employee, and each employee's designated representative(s) in accordance the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer must comply with the requirements involving transfer of records set forth in the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This standard shall become effective March 10, 2017.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance dates.</I> (i) All obligations contained in paragraph (c) of this standard commence and become enforceable on March 12, 2018; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All other obligations of this standard commence and become enforceable on September 30, 2020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 2744, Jan. 9, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 51399, Sept. 30, 2019; 85 FR 53996, Aug. 31, 2020; 86 FR 11119, Feb. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1025" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1025   Lead.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1025 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1026" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1026   Chromium (VI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This standard applies to occupational exposures to chromium (VI) in all forms and compounds in shipyards, marine terminals, and longshoring, except:
</P>
<P>(2) Exposures that occur in the application of pesticides regulated by the Environmental Protection Agency or another Federal government agency (e.g., the treatment of wood with preservatives);
</P>
<P>(3) Exposures to portland cement; or
</P>
<P>(4) Where the employer has objective data demonstrating that a material containing chromium or a specific process, operation, or activity involving chromium cannot release dusts, fumes, or mists of chromium (VI) in concentrations at or above 0.5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU> as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) under any expected conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne chromium (VI) of 2.5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (2.5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU>) calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Chromium (VI) [hexavalent chromium or Cr(VI)]</I> means chromium with a valence of positive six, in any form and in any compound.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence that results, or is likely to result, in an uncontrolled release of chromium (VI). If an incidental release of chromium (VI) can be controlled at the time of release by employees in the immediate release area, or by maintenance personnel, it is not an emergency.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means the exposure to airborne chromium (VI) that would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air [HEPA] filter</I> means a filter that is at least 99.97 percent efficient in removing mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter or larger.
</P>
<P><I>Historical monitoring data</I> means data from chromium (VI) monitoring conducted prior to May 30, 2006, obtained during work operations conducted under workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means information such as air monitoring data from industry-wide surveys or calculations based on the composition or chemical and physical properties of a substance demonstrating the employee exposure to chromium (VI) associated with a particular product or material or a specific process, operation, or activity. The data must reflect workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional [PLHCP]</I> is an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (i.e., license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the particular health care services required by paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this § 1915.1026 chromium (VI) standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit (PEL).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of chromium (VI) in excess of 5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU>), calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure determination</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this section shall determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee exposed to chromium (VI). This determination shall be made in accordance with either paragraph (d)(2) or paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scheduled monitoring option.</I> (i) The employer shall perform initial monitoring to determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of a sufficient number of personal breathing zone air samples to accurately characterize full shift exposure on each shift, for each job classification, in each work area. Where an employer does representative sampling instead of sampling all employees in order to meet this requirement, the employer shall sample the employee(s) expected to have the highest chromium (VI) exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) If initial monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iii) If monitoring reveals employee exposures to be at or above the action level, the employer shall perform periodic monitoring at least every six months.
</P>
<P>(iv) If monitoring reveals employee exposures to be above the PEL, the employer shall perform periodic monitoring at least every three months.
</P>
<P>(v) If periodic monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, and the result is confirmed by the result of another monitoring taken at least seven days later, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall perform additional monitoring when there has been any change in the production process, raw materials, equipment, personnel, work practices, or control methods that may result in new or additional exposures to chromium (VI), or when the employer has any reason to believe that new or additional exposures have occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Performance-oriented option.</I> The employer shall determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of any combination of air monitoring data, historical monitoring data, or objective data sufficient to accurately characterize employee exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee notification of determination results.</I> (i) Within 5 work days after making an exposure determination in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) or paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the employer shall individually notify each affected employee in writing of the results of that determination or post the results in an appropriate location accessible to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the exposure determination indicates that employee exposure is above the PEL, the employer shall describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> Where air monitoring is performed to comply with the requirements of this section, the employer shall use a method of monitoring and analysis that can measure chromium (VI) to within an accuracy of plus or minus 25 percent (±25%) and can produce accurate measurements to within a statistical confidence level of 95 percent for airborne concentrations at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) Where air monitoring is performed to comply with the requirements of this section, the employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with clothing and equipment and shall assure that the observer uses such clothing and equipment and complies with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> (i) Except as permitted in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, the employer shall use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to chromium (VI) to or below the PEL unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever feasible engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable, and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer can demonstrate that a process or task does not result in any employee exposure to chromium (VI) above the PEL for 30 or more days per year (12 consecutive months), the requirement to implement engineering and work practice controls to achieve the PEL does not apply to that process or task.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibition of rotation.</I> The employer shall not rotate employees to different jobs to achieve compliance with the PEL.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Where respiratory protection is required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respiratory protection is required during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls;
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities, for which engineering and work practice controls are not feasible;
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which an employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work practice controls and such controls are not sufficient to reduce exposures to or below the PEL;
</P>
<P>(iv) Work operations where employees are exposed above the PEL for fewer than 30 days per year, and the employer has elected not to implement engineering and work practice controls to achieve the PEL; or
</P>
<P>(v) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> Where respirator use is required by this section, the employer shall institute a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134, which covers each employee required to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where a hazard is present or is likely to be present from skin or eye contact with chromium (VI), the employer shall provide appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment at no cost to employees, and shall ensure that employees use such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that employees remove all protective clothing and equipment contaminated with chromium (VI) at the end of the work shift or at the completion of their tasks involving chromium (VI) exposure, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that no employee removes chromium (VI)-contaminated protective clothing or equipment from the workplace, except for those employees whose job it is to launder, clean, maintain, or dispose of such clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) When contaminated protective clothing or equipment is removed for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal, the employer shall ensure that it is stored and transported in sealed, impermeable bags or other closed, impermeable containers.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that bags or containers of contaminated protective clothing or equipment that are removed from change rooms for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal are labeled in accordance with the requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall clean, launder, repair and replace all protective clothing and equipment required by this section as needed to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of chromium (VI) from protective clothing and equipment by blowing, shaking, or any other means that disperses chromium (VI) into the air or onto an employee's body.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment contaminated with chromium (VI) of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to chromium (VI) and that the clothing and equipment should be laundered or cleaned in a manner that minimizes skin or eye contact with chromium (VI) and effectively prevents the release of airborne chromium (VI) in excess of the PEL.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hygiene areas and practices</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Where protective clothing and equipment is required, the employer shall provide change rooms in conformance with 29 CFR 1910.141. Where skin contact with chromium (VI) occurs, the employer shall provide washing facilities in conformance with 29 CFR 1915.97. Eating and drinking areas provided by the employer shall also be in conformance with § 1915.97.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall assure that change rooms are equipped with separate storage facilities for protective clothing and equipment and for street clothes, and that these facilities prevent cross-contamination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Washing facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall provide readily accessible washing facilities capable of removing chromium (VI) from the skin, and shall ensure that affected employees use these facilities when necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees who have skin contact with chromium (VI) wash their hands and faces at the end of the work shift and prior to eating, drinking, smoking, chewing tobacco or gum, applying cosmetics, or using the toilet.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eating and drinking areas.</I> (i) Whenever the employer allows employees to consume food or beverages at a worksite where chromium (VI) is present, the employer shall ensure that eating and drinking areas and surfaces are maintained as free as practicable of chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees do not enter eating and drinking areas with protective work clothing or equipment unless surface chromium (VI) has been removed from the clothing and equipment by methods that do not disperse chromium (VI) into the air or onto an employee's body.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in areas where skin or eye contact with chromium (VI) occurs; or carry the products associated with these activities, or store such products in these areas.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make medical surveillance available at no cost to the employee, and at a reasonable time and place, for all employees:
</P>
<P>(A) Who are or may be occupationally exposed to chromium (VI) at or above the action level for 30 or more days a year;
</P>
<P>(B) Experiencing signs or symptoms of the adverse health effects associated with chromium (VI) exposure; or
</P>
<P>(C) Exposed in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this section are performed by or under the supervision of a PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer shall provide a medical examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days after initial assignment, unless the employee has received a chromium (VI) related medical examination that meets the requirements of this paragraph within the last twelve months;
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually;
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 30 days after a PLHCP's written medical opinion recommends an additional examination;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whenever an employee shows signs or symptoms of the adverse health effects associated with chromium (VI) exposure;
</P>
<P>(v) Within 30 days after exposure during an emergency which results in an uncontrolled release of chromium (VI); or
</P>
<P>(vi) At the termination of employment, unless the last examination that satisfied the requirements of paragraph (i) of this section was less than six months prior to the date of termination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of examination.</I> A medical examination consists of:
</P>
<P>(i) A medical and work history, with emphasis on: past, present, and anticipated future exposure to chromium (VI); any history of respiratory system dysfunction; any history of asthma, dermatitis, skin ulceration, or nasal septum perforation; and smoking status and history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical examination of the skin and respiratory tract; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any additional tests deemed appropriate by the examining PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the PLHCP.</I> The employer shall ensure that the examining PLHCP has a copy of this standard, and shall provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the affected employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used that equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the affected employee, currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>PLHCP's written medical opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written medical opinion from the PLHCP, within 30 days for each medical examination performed on each employee, which contains:
</P>
<P>(A) The PLHCP's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from further exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to chromium (VI) or upon the use of personal protective equipment such as respirators;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the PLHCP has explained to the employee the results of the medical examination, including any medical conditions related to chromium (VI) exposure that require further evaluation or treatment, and any special provisions for use of protective clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The PLHCP shall not reveal to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the PLHCP's written medical opinion to the examined employee within two weeks after receiving it.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Communication of chromium (VI) hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.</I> The employer shall include chromium (VI) in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of chromium (VI) and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of HCS and paragraph (j)(2) of this section. The employer shall ensure that at least the following hazards are addressed: Cancer; skin sensitization; and eye irritation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that each employee can demonstrate knowledge of at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The contents of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make a copy of this section readily available without cost to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Air monitoring data.</I> (i) The employer shall maintain an accurate record of all air monitoring conducted to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to chromium (VI) that is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and the results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of personal protective equipment, such as respirators worn; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and job classification of all employees represented by the monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historical monitoring data.</I> (i) Where the employer has relied on historical monitoring data to determine exposure to chromium (VI), the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of the historical monitoring data relied upon.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include information that reflects the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The data were collected using methods that meet the accuracy requirements of paragraph (d)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The processes and work practices that were in use when the historical monitoring data were obtained are essentially the same as those to be used during the job for which exposure is being determined;
</P>
<P>(C) The characteristics of the chromium (VI) containing material being handled when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which exposure is being determined;
</P>
<P>(D) Environmental conditions prevailing when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which exposure is being determined; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exception.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that historical exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) The employer shall maintain an accurate record of all objective data relied upon to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The chromium containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol and results of testing, or analysis of the material for the release of chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the process, operation, or activity and how the data support the determination; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the process, operation, activity, material, or employee exposures.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that objective data are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include the following information about the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the PLHCP's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the PLHCP as required by paragraph (i)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that medical records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Dates.</I> (1) For employers with 20 or more employees, all obligations of this section, except engineering controls required by paragraph (e) of this section, commence November 27, 2006.
</P>
<P>(2) For employers with 19 or fewer employees, all obligations of this section, except engineering controls required by paragraph (e) of this section, commence May 30, 2007.
</P>
<P>(3) For all employers, engineering controls required by paragraph (e) of this section shall be implemented no later than May 31, 2010.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 10378, Feb. 28, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 75587, Dec. 12, 2008; 75 FR 12686, Mar. 17, 2010; 77 FR 17889, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21597, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1027" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1027   Cadmium.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1027 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1028" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1028   Benzene.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1028 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1030" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1030   Bloodborne pathogens.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1030 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1044" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1044   1,2-dibromo-3-chloropropane.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1044 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1045" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1045   Acrylonitrile.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1045 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1047" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1047   Ethylene oxide.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1047 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1048" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1048   Formaldehyde.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1048 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1050" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1050   Methylenedianiline.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1050 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1052" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1052   Methylene chloride.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at 29 CFR 1910.1052.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 1619, Jan. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1053" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1053   Respirable crystalline silica.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1053 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 16875, Mar. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1200" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1200   Hazard communication.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1200 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1450" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1450   Occupational exposure to hazardous chemicals in laboratories.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1450 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1915.1501" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.5.16.6.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1915.1501   COVID-19.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements applicable to shipyard employment under this section are identical to those set forth at 29 CFR 1910.501.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 61554, Nov. 5, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1917" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1917—MARINE TERMINALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>33 U.S.C. 941; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), 8-2020 (85 FR 58393), or 7-2025 (90 FR 27878), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE><P>Sections 1917.28 and 1917.31 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553.
</P><P>Section 1917.29 also issued under 49 U.S.C. 1801-1819 and 5 U.S.C. 553.


</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.1   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations of this part apply to employment within a marine terminal as defined in § 1917.2, including the loading, unloading, movement or other handling of cargo, ship's stores or gear within the terminal or into or out of any land carrier, holding or consolidation area, any other activity within and associated with the overall operation and functions of the terminal, such as the use and routine maintenance of facilities and equipment. All cargo transfer accomplished with the use of shore-based material handling devices shall be regulated by this part. 
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of this part 1917 do not apply to the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Facilities used solely for the bulk storage, handling and transfer of flammable, non-flammable and combustible liquids and gases. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilities subject to the regulations of the Office of Pipeline Safety Regulation of the Materials Transportation Bureau, Department of Transportation, to the extent such regulations apply. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Fully automated bulk coal handling facilities contiguous to electrical power generating plants. 
</P>
<P>(2) Part 1910 of this chapter does not apply to marine terminals except for the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Abrasive blasting.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.94(a); 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Access to employee exposure and medical records.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1020; 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Commercial diving operations.</I> Subpart T of part 1910; 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Electrical.</I> Subpart S of part 1910; 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Grain handling facilities.</I> Subpart R, § 1910.272; 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Hazard communication.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1200; 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Ionizing radiation.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1096; 
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Noise.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.95; 
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Nonionizing radiation.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.97; 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Respiratory protection.</I> Subpart I, § 1910.134; 
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Safety requirements for scaffolding.</I> Subpart D, § 1910.28; 
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Servicing multi-piece and single piece rim wheels.</I> Subpart N, § 1910.177;
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Toxic and hazardous substances.</I> Subpart Z applies to marine cargo handling activities except for the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) When a substance or cargo is contained within a sealed, intact means of packaging or containment complying with Department of Transportation or International Maritime Organization requirements; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The International Maritime Organization publishes the International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code to aid compliance with the international legal requirements of the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, 1960.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Bloodborne pathogens, § 1910.1030; 
</P>
<P>(C) Carbon monoxide, § 1910.1000 (See § 1917.24(a)); and 
</P>
<P>(D) Hydrogen sulfide, § 1910.1000 (See § 1917.73(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(E) Hexavalent chromium § 1910.1026 (See § 1915.1026) 
</P>
<P>(xiv) Powered industrial truck operator training, Subpart N, § 1910.178(1).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">xiv</E>):</HED>
<P>The compliance dates of December 1, 1999 set forth in 29 CFR 1910.178(l)(7) are stayed until March 1, 2000 for Marine Terminals.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) Section 1915.1026 applies to any occupational exposures to hexavalent chromium in workplaces covered by this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 36026, Sept. 25, 1987; 52 FR 49624, Dec. 31, 1987; 62 FR 40196, July 25, 1997; 63 FR 66274, Dec. 1, 1998; 64 FR 46847, Aug. 27, 1999; 65 FR 40938, June 30, 2000; 71 FR 10381, Feb. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Apron</I> means that open portion of a marine terminal immediately adjacent to a vessel berth and used in the direct transfer of cargo between the terminal and vessel. 
</P>
<P><I>Authorized,</I> in reference to an employee's assignment, means selected by the employer for that purpose. 
</P>
<P><I>Cargo door</I> (transit shed door) means a door designed to permit transfer of cargo to and from a marine terminal structure. 
</P>
<P><I>Cargo packaging</I> means any method of containment for shipment, including cases, cartons, crates and sacks, but excluding large units such as intermodal containers, vans or similar devices. 
</P>
<P><I>Confined space</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A space having all of the following characteristics: 
</P>
<P>(i) Small size; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Severely limited natural ventilation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Capability to accumulate or contain a hazardous atmosphere; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Exits that are not readily accessible; and
</P>
<P>(v) A design not meant for continuous human occupancy. 
</P>
<P>(2) Examples of confined spaces are intermodal tank containers, bailwater tanks and portable tanks. 
</P>
<P><I>Conveyor</I> means a device designed exclusively for transporting bulk materials, packages or objects in a predetermined path and having fixed or selective points of loading or discharge. 
</P>
<P><I>Danger zone</I> means any place in or about a machine or piece of equipment where an employee may be struck by or caught between moving parts, caught between moving and stationary objects or parts of the machine, caught between the material and a moving part of the machine, burned by hot surfaces or exposed to electric shock. Examples of danger zones are nip and shear points, shear lines, drive mechanisms, and areas beneath counterweights. 
</P>
<P><I>Designated person</I> means a person who possesses specialized abilities in a specific area and is assigned by the employer to perform a specific task in that area. 
</P>
<P><I>Dock</I> means a wharf or pier forming all or part of a waterfront facility, including marginal or quayside berthing facilities; not to be confused with “loading dock” as at a transit shed or container freight station, or with the body of water between piers or wharves. 
</P>
<P><I>Dockboards</I> (car and bridge plates) mean devices for spanning short distances between rail cars or highway vehicles and loading platforms that do not expose employees to falls greater than 4 feet (1.22 m). 
</P>
<P><I>Enclosed space</I> means an indoor space, other than a confined space, that may contain or accumulate a hazardous atmosphere due to inadequate natural ventilation. Examples of enclosed spaces are trailers, railcars, and storage rooms. 
</P>
<P><I>Examination,</I> as applied to material handling devices required by this part to be certificated, means a comprehensive survey consisting of the criteria outlined in 29 CFR 1919.71(d) as applicable to the type of gear or device. The examination is supplemented by a unit proof test in the case of a quadrennial survey.
</P>
<P><I>Flammable atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere containing more than 10 percent of the lower flammable limit of a flammable or combustible vapor or dust mixed with air.
</P>
<P><I>Front-end attachments.</I> (1) As applied to power-operated industrial trucks, means the various devices, such as roll clamps, rotating and sideshifting carriages, magnets, rams, crane arms or booms, load stabilizers, scoops, buckets and dumping bins, attached to the load end for handling lifts as single or multiple units.
</P>
<P>(2) As applied to cranes, means various attachments applied to the basic machine for the performance of functions such as lifting, clamshell or magnet services.
</P>
<P><I>Fumigant</I> is a substance or mixture of substances, used to kill pests or prevent infestation, which is a gas or is rapidly or progressively transformed to the gaseous state, even though some nongaseous or particulate matter may remain and be dispersed in the treatment space.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous cargo, material, substance or atmosphere</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any substance listed in 29 CFR part 1910, subpart Z;
</P>
<P>(2) Any material in the Hazardous Materials Table and Hazardous Materials Communications Regulations of the Department of Transportation, 49 CFR part 172;
</P>
<P>(3) Any article not properly described by a name in the Hazardous Materials Table and Hazardous Materials Communications Regulations of the Department of Transportation, 49 CFR part 172 but which is properly classified under the definition of those categories of dangerous articles given in 49 CFR Part 173; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any atmosphere with an oxygen content of less than 19.5%.
</P>
<P><I>House falls</I> means spans and supporting members, winches, blocks, and standing and running rigging forming part of a marine terminal and used with a vessel's cargo gear to load or unload by means of married falls.
</P>
<P><I>Inspection,</I> as applied to material handling devices required by this part to be certificated, means a complete visual examination of all visible parts of the device.
</P>
<P><I>Intermodal container</I> means a reusable cargo container of a rigid construction and rectangular configuration; fitted with devices permitting its ready handling, particularly its transfer from one mode of transport to another; so designed to be readily filled and emptied; intended to contain one or more articles of cargo or bulk commodities for transportation by water and one or more other transport modes. The term includes completely enclosed units, open top units, fractional height units, units incorporating liquid or gas tanks and other variations fitting into the container system. It does not include cylinders, drums, crates, cases, cartons, packages, sacks, unitized loads or any other form of packaging. 
</P>
<P><I>Loose gear</I> means removable and replaceable components of equipment or devices which may be used with or as a part of assembled material handling units for purposes such as making connections, changing line direction and multiplying mechanical advantage. Examples are shackles and snatch blocks.
</P>
<P><I>Marine terminal</I> means wharves, bulkheads, quays, piers, docks and other berthing locations and adjacent storage or adjacent areas and structures associated with the primary movement of cargo or materials from vessel to shore or shore to vessel including structures which are devoted to receiving, handling, holding, consolidating and loading or delivery of waterborne shipments or passengers, including areas devoted to the maintenance of the terminal or equipment. The term does not include production or manufacturing areas nor does the term include storage facilities directly associated with those production or manufacturing areas. 
</P>
<P><I>Ramps</I> mean other flat-surface devices for passage between levels and across openings not covered under “dockboards.” 
</P>
<P><I>Ship's stores</I> means materials that are aboard a vessel for the upkeep, maintenance, safety, operation, or navigation of the vessel, or for the safety or comfort of the vessel's passengers or crew.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40196, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40938, June 30, 2000; 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.1.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.3   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) (1) The standards of agencies of the U.S. Government, and organizations which are not agencies of the U.S. Government which are incorporated by reference in this part, have the same force and effect as other standards in this part. Only the mandatory provisions (i.e. provisions containing the word “shall” or other mandatory language) of standards incorporated by reference are adopted as standards under the Occupational Safety and Health Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) The standards listed in paragraph (b) of this section are incorporated by reference in the corresponding sections noted as the sections exist on the date of the approval, and a notice of any change in these standards will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Director of the Federal Register approved these incorporations by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
</P>
<P>(3) Any changes in the standards incorporated by reference in this part and an official historic file of such changes are available for inspection in the Docket Office at the national office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20910; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627).
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of standards listed in this section and issued by private standards organizations are available for purchase from the issuing organizations at the addresses or through the other contact information listed below for these private standards organizations. In addition, these standards are available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, telephone: 202-741-6030, or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Also, the material is available for inspection at any Regional Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), or at the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-2625, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627).
</P>
<P>(b) Except as noted, copies of the standards listed below in this paragraph are available for purchase from the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4900; fax: 212-398-0023; Web site: <I>http://www.ansi.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI A14.1-1990, Safety Requirements for Portable Wood Ladders; IBR approved for § 1917.119(c). 
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI A14.2-1990, Safety Requirements for Portable Metal Ladders; IBR approved for § 1917.119(c). 
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI A14.5-1992, Safety Requirements for Portable Reinforced Plastic Ladders; IBR approved for § 1917.119(c). 
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI Z41-1999, American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear; IBR approved for § 1917.94(b)(1)(ii). Copies of ANSI Z41-1999 are available for purchase only from the National Safety Council, P.O. Box 558, Itasca, IL 60143-0558; telephone: 1-800-621-7619; fax: 708-285-0797; Web site: <I>http://www.nsc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI Z41-1991, American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear; IBR approved for § 1917.94(b)(1)(iii). Copies of ANSI Z41-1991 are available for purchase only from the National Safety Council, P.O. Box 558, Itasca, IL 60143-0558; telephone: 1-800-621-7619; fax: 708-285-0797; Web site: <I>http://www.nsc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, Approved April 13, 2010; IBR approved for § 1917.91(a). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org</I>/;
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(7) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, Approved April 13, 2010; IBR approved for § 1917.91(a). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(8) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, Reaffirmation approved January 4, 1999; IBR approved for § 1917.91(a). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection, approved January 26, 2009; IBR approved for § 1917.93(b)(1)(i). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2009 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(10) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection; IBR approved for § 1917.93(b)(1)(ii). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2003 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(11) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements; IBR approved for § 1917.93(b)(1)(iii). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-1997 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(12) ASME B56.1, 1959, Safety Code for Powered Industrial Trucks, pages 8 and 13; IBR approved for § 1917.50(j)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) Copies of the following standards are available for purchase from ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; telephone: 610-832-9585; fax: 610-832-9555; e-mail: <I>seviceastm.org</I>; Web site: <I>http://www.astm.org</I>:
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM F-2412-2005, Standard Test Methods for Foot Protection; IBR approved for § 1917.94(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM F-2413-2005, Standard Specification for Performance Requirements for Protective Footwear; IBR approved for § 1917.94(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40196, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40938, June 30, 2000; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 74 FR 46358, Sept. 9, 2009; 77 FR 37599, June 22, 2012; 81 FR 16091, Mar. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.1.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.4   OMB control numbers under the Paperwork Reduction Act.</HEAD>
<P>The following list identifies the 29 CFR citations for sections or paragraphs in this part that contain a collection of information requirement approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The list also provides the control number assigned by OMB to each approved requirement; control number 1218-0196 expires on May 31, 2002 and control number 1218-0003 expires on July 31, 2001. The list follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">29 CFR citation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB control number.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.17(n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.17(o)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.23(b)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.23(b)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.23(d)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.24(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.24(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.25(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.25(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.25(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.25(f)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.26(d)(7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.30(a)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.30(a)(5)(iii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.42(b)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.42(b)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.42(c)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.42(d)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.42(g)(3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.42(h)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.42(h)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.42(h)(5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.44(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.44(h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.45(f)(1)(i)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.45(f)(4)(iv)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.45(f)(6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.45(g)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.45(g)(3)(iii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.45(g)(8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.45(k)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.45(k)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.46(a)(1)(v)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.50(c)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.50(c)(3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.50(c)(4)(i)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.50(c)(5)(ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.50(c)(5)(iii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.50(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.50(g)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.50(h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.71(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.71(b)(2)(i)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.71(b)(2)(ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.71(b)(6)(ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.71(f)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.111(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.115(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.116(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.116(g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.117(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.117(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.117(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.117(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.117(f)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.117(l)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.118(e)(4)(i)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.119(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.122(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.122(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.128(b)(1)-(b)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.151(e)(5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.152(d)(2)(v)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1917.152(d)(2)(vi)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 61505, Nov. 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.1.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.5   Compliance duties owed to each employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Standards in this part requiring the employer to provide personal protective equipment (PPE), including respirators and other types of PPE, because of hazards to employees impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must provide PPE to each employee required to use the PPE, and each failure to provide PPE to an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training.</I> Standards in this part requiring training on hazards and related matters, such as standards requiring that employees receive training or that the employer train employees, provide training to employees, or institute or implement a training program, impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must train each affected employee in the manner required by the standard, and each failure to train an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 75587, Dec. 12, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Marine Terminal Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.11" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.11   Housekeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Active work areas shall be kept free of equipment and materials not in use, and clear of debris, projecting nails, strapping and other sharp objects not necessary for the work in progress.
</P>
<P>(b) Hatch beams, covers and pontoons placed in terminal working areas shall be stowed in stable piles with beams secured against tipping or falling. Alternatively, beams may be laid on their sides. When beams and pontoons are stowed in tiers more than one high, dunnage or other suitable material shall be used under and between tiers.
</P>
<P>(c) Cargo and material shall not obstruct access to vessels, cranes, vehicles or buildings. Means of access and egress within buildings shall be similarly unobstructed.
</P>
<P>(d) Dunnage, lumber, or shoring material in which there are visibly protruding nails shall be removed from the immediate work area or if left in the area, the nails shall be rendered harmless. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40196, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.12" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.12   Slippery conditions.</HEAD>
<P>The employer shall eliminate, to the extent possible, conditions causing slippery working and walking surfaces in immediate work areas used by employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.13" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.13   Slinging.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drafts shall be safely slung before being hoisted. Loose dunnage or debris hanging or protruding from loads shall be removed.
</P>
<P>(b) Bales of cotton, wool, cork, wood pulp, gunny bags or similar articles shall be hoisted only by straps strong enough to support the weight of the bale. At least two hooks, each in a separate strap, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(c) Unitized loads bound by bands or straps may be hoisted by the banding or strapping only if the banding or strapping is suitable for hoisting and is strong enough to support the weight of the load.
</P>
<P>(d) Additional means of hoisting shall be employed to ensure safe lifting of unitized loads having damaged banding or strapping.
</P>
<P>(e) Case hooks shall be used only with cases designed to be hoisted by these hooks.
</P>
<P>(f) Loads requiring continuous manual guidance during handling shall be guided by guide ropes (tag lines) that are long enough to control the load.
</P>
<P>(g) Intermodal containers shall be handled in accordance with § 1917.71(f). 
</P>
<P>(h) The employer shall require employees to stay clear of the area beneath overhead drafts or descending lifting gear. 
</P>
<P>(i) Employees shall not be permitted to ride the hook or the load. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40197, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.14" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.14   Stacking of cargo and pallets.</HEAD>
<P>Cargo, pallets and other material stored in tiers shall be stacked in such a manner as to provide stability against sliding and collapse.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.15" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.15   Coopering.</HEAD>
<P>Repair and reconditioning of damaged or leaking cargo packaging (coopering) shall be performed so as not to endanger employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.16" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.16   Line handling. (See also § 1917.95(b)).</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to provide safe access for handling lines while mooring and unmooring vessels, cargo or material shall not be stowed or vehicles placed where they obstruct the work surface to be used.
</P>
<P>(b) When stringpiece or apron width is insufficient for safe footing, grab lines or rails shall be installed on the sides of permanent structures. (“Stringpiece” means a narrow walkway between the water edge of a berth and a shed or other structure.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.17" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.17   Railroad facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Work shall be performed in railcars only if floors of the railcars are in visibly safe condition for the work activity being conducted and equipment being used.
</P>
<P>(b) A route shall be established to allow employees to pass to and from places of employment without passing under, over or through railcars, or between cars less than 10 feet (3 m) apart on the same track.
</P>
<P>(c) The employer shall direct that no employees remain in railcars after work is concluded.
</P>
<P>(d) Railcars shall be chocked or otherwise prevented from moving:
</P>
<P>(1) While dockboards or carplates are in position; or 
</P>
<P>(2) While employees are working within, on or under the railcars or near the tracks at the ends of the cars.
</P>
<P>(e) When employees are working in, on, or under a railcar, positive means shall be taken to protect them from exposure to impact from moving railcars.
</P>
<P>(f) Before cars are moved, unsecured and overhanging stakes, wire straps, banding and similar objects shall be removed or placed so as not to create hazards.
</P>
<P>(g) The employer shall institute all necessary controls during railcar movement to safeguard personnel. If winches or capstans are employed for movement, employees shall stand clear of the hauling rope and shall not stand between the rope and the cars.
</P>
<P>(h) Before being opened fully, doors shall be opened slightly to ensure that the load has not shifted during transit. Special precautions shall be taken if the doors being opened are visibly damaged.
</P>
<P>(i) If powered industrial trucks are used to open railcar doors, the trucks or the railcar doors shall be equipped with door opening attachments. Employees shall stand clear of the railcar doors while they are being opened and closed. 
</P>
<P>(j) Only railcar door openers or powered industrial trucks equipped with door opening attachments shall be used to open jammed doors. 
</P>
<P>(k) Employees shall not remain in or on gondolas or flat cars when drafts that create overhead, caught-in, caught-between or struck-by hazards are being landed in or on the railcar; end gates, if raised, shall be secured. 
</P>
<P>(l) Operators of railcar dumps shall have an unrestricted view of dumping operations and shall have emergency means of stopping movement.
</P>
<P>(m) Recessed railroad switches shall be enclosed to provide a level surface.
</P>
<P>(n) Warning signs shall be posted where doorways open onto tracks, at blind corners and at similar places where vision may be restricted.
</P>
<P>(o) Warning signs shall be posted if insufficient clearance for personnel exists between railcars and structures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40197, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.18" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.18   Log handling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure that structures (bunks) used to contain logs have rounded corners and rounded structural parts to avoid sling damage.
</P>
<P>(b) Two or more binders or equivalently safe means of containment shall remain on logging trucks and railcars to secure logs during movement of the truck or car within the terminal. During unloading, logs shall be prevented from moving while binders are being removed.
</P>
<P>(c) Logs shall be hoisted by two slings or by other gear designed for safe hoisting.
</P>
<P>(d) Logs placed adjacent to vehicle curbs on the dock shall not be over one tier high unless placed in bunks or so stacked as not to roll or otherwise create a hazard to employees.
</P>
<P>(e) Before logs are slung up from the dock, they shall be stably supported to prevent spreading and to allow passage of slings beneath the load. When bunks or similar retaining devices are used, no log shall be higher than the stanchions or retaining members of the device. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.19" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.19   Movement of barges and railcars.</HEAD>
<P>Barges and railcars shall not be moved by cargo runners (running rigging) from vessel cargo booms, cranes or other equipment not suitable for the purpose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.20" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.20   Interference with communications.</HEAD>
<P>Cargo handling operations shall not be carried on when noise-producing, maintenance, construction or repair work interferes with the communication of warnings or instructions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40197, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.21" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.21   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.22" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.22   Hazardous cargo 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> (See § 1917.2(p)).</HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The Department of Transportation and the United States Coast Guard apply requirements related to handling, storing and transportation of hazardous cargo (see 33 CFR part 126, 46 CFR, 49 CFR).</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) Before cargo handling operations begin, the employer shall ascertain whether any hazardous cargo is to be handled and shall determine the nature of the hazard. The employer shall inform employees of the nature of any hazard and any special precautions to be taken to prevent employee exposure, and shall instruct employees to notify him of any leaks or spills. 
</P>
<P>(b) All hazardous cargo shall be slung and secured so that neither the draft nor individual packages can fall as a result of tipping the draft or slacking of the supporting gear. 
</P>
<P>(c) If hazardous cargo is spilled or if its packaging leaks, employees shall be removed from the affected area until the employer has ascertained the specific hazards, provided any equipment, clothing and ventilation and fire protection equipment necessary to eliminate or protect against the hazard, and has instructed cleanup employees in a safe method of cleaning up and disposing of a spill and handling and disposing of leaking containers. Actual cleanup or disposal work shall be conducted under the supervision of a designated person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.23" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.23   Hazardous atmospheres and substances (see also § 1917.2 Hazardous cargo, material, substance or atmosphere).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This section covers areas in which the employer is aware that a hazardous atmosphere or substance may exist, except where one or more of the following sections apply: § 1917.22 Hazardous cargo; § 1917.24 Carbon monoxide; § 1917.25 Fumigants, pesticides, insecticides and hazardous preservatives; § 1917.73 Terminal facilities handling menhaden and similar species of fish; § 1917.152 Welding, cutting, and heating (hot work); and § 1917.153 Spray painting. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of hazard.</I> (1) When the employer is aware that a room, building, vehicle, railcar, or other space contains or has contained a hazardous atmosphere, a designated and appropriately equipped person shall test the atmosphere before employee entry to determine whether a hazardous atmosphere exists. 
</P>
<P>(2) Records of results of any tests required by this section shall be maintained for at least thirty (30) days. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Testing during ventilation.</I> When mechanical ventilation is used to maintain a safe atmosphere, tests shall be made by a designated person to ensure that the atmosphere is not hazardous.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Entry into hazardous atmospheres.</I> Only designated persons shall enter hazardous atmospheres, in which case the following shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Persons entering a space containing a hazardous atmosphere shall be protected by respiratory and emergency protective equipment meeting the requirements of subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Persons entering a space containing a hazardous atmosphere shall be instructed in the nature of the hazard, precautions to be taken, and the use of protective and emergency equipment. Standby observers, similarly equipped and instructed, shall continuously monitor the activity of employees within such space; 
</P>
<P>(3) Except for emergency or rescue operations, employees shall not enter into any atmosphere which has been identified as flammable or oxygen deficient (less than 19.5% oxygen). Persons who may be required to enter flammable or oxygen deficient atmospheres in emergency operations shall be instructed in the dangers attendant to those atmospheres and instructed in the use of self-contained breathing apparatus, which shall be utilized. 
</P>
<P>(4) To prevent inadvertent employee entry into spaces that have been identified as having hazardous, flammable or oxygen deficient atmospheres, appropriate warning signs or equivalent means shall be posted at all means of access to those spaces. 
</P>
<P>(e) When the packaging of asbestos cargo leaks, spillage shall be cleaned up by designated employees protected from the harmful effects of asbestos as required by § 1910.1001 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 28551, July 13, 1984; 61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996; 62 FR 40197, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40938, June 30, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.24" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.24   Carbon monoxide.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exposure limits.</I> The carbon monoxide content of the atmosphere in a room, building, vehicle, railcar, or any enclosed space shall be maintained at not more than 50 parts per million (ppm) (0.005%) as an eight hour average area level and employees shall be removed from the enclosed space if the carbon monoxide concentration exceeds a ceiling of 100 ppm (0.01%). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing.</I> Tests to determine carbon monoxide concentration shall be made when necessary to ensure that employee exposure does not exceed the limits specified in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Instrumentation.</I> Tests for carbon monoxide concentration shall be made by designated persons using gas detector tube units certified by NIOSH under 30 CFR part 11 or other measuring instruments whose accuracy is as great or greater. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records.</I> A record of the date, time, location and results of carbon monoxide tests shall be available for at least thirty (30) days. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 28551, July 13, 1984; 61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996; 62 FR 40197, July 25, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.25" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.25   Fumigants, pesticides, insecticides and hazardous preservatives (see also § 1917.2 Hazardous cargo, material, substance or atmosphere).</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time that the concentration in any space reaches the level specified as hazardous by the fumigant manufacturer or by Table Z-1 of 29 CFR 1910.1000, whichever is lower, all employees shall be removed from the space and shall not be permitted to re-enter until such time as tests demonstrate that the atmosphere is safe. 
</P>
<P>(b) Tests to determine the atmospheric concentration of chemicals used to treat cargo shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate for the hazard involved; 
</P>
<P>(2) Conducted by designated persons; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Performed at the intervals necessary to ensure that employee exposure does not exceed the permissible exposure limit for the chemical involved. 
</P>
<P>(c) Results of any tests shall be available for at least 30 days. Such records may be entered on any retrievable medium, and shall be available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(d) Chemicals shall only be applied to cargoes by designated persons. 
</P>
<P>(e) Only designated persons shall enter hazardous atmospheres, in which case the following provisions apply. 
</P>
<P>(1) Persons entering a space containing a hazardous atmosphere shall be protected by respiratory and emergency protective equipment meeting the requirements of subpart E of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Persons entering a space containing a hazardous atmosphere shall be instructed in the nature of the hazard, precautions to be taken, and the use of protective and emergency equipment. Standby observers, similarly equipped and instructed, shall continuously monitor the activity of employees within such a space. 
</P>
<P>(f) Signs shall be clearly posted where fumigants, pesticides or hazardous preservatives have created a hazardous atmosphere. These signs shall note the danger, identify specific chemical hazards, and give appropriate information and precautions, including instructions for the emergency treatment of employees affected by any chemical in use. 
</P>
<P>(g) In the case of containerized shipments of fumigated tobacco, the contents of the container shall be aerated by opening the container doors for a period of 48 hours after the completion of fumigation and prior to loading. When tobacco is within shipping cases having polyethylene or similar bag liners, the aeration period shall be 72 hours. The employer shall obtain a written warranty from the fumigation facility stating that the appropriate aeration period has been met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 28551, July 13, 1984; 61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996; 62 FR 40197, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.26" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.26   First aid and lifesaving facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers shall instruct employees to report every injury, regardless of severity, to the employer. 
</P>
<P>(b) A first aid kit shall be available at the terminal, and at least one person holding a valid first aid certificate shall be at the terminal when work is in progress. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>First aid kit.</I> First aid kits shall be weatherproof and shall contain individual sealed packages for each item that must be kept sterile. The contents of each kit shall be determined by a person certified in first aid and cognizant of the hazards found in marine cargo handling operations. The contents shall be checked at intervals that allow prompt replacement of expended items. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Stretchers.</I> (1) There shall be available for each vessel being worked one Stokes basket stretcher, or its equivalent, permanently equipped with bridles for attaching to the hoisting gear. 
</P>
<P>(2) Stretchers shall be kept close to vessels and shall be positioned to avoid damage to the stretcher. 
</P>
<P>(3) A blanket or other suitable covering shall be available. 
</P>
<P>(4) Stretchers shall have at least four sets of effective patient restraints in operable condition. 
</P>
<P>(5) Lifting bridles shall be of adequate strength, capable of lifting 1,000 pounds (454 kg) with a safety factor of five, and shall be maintained in operable condition. Lifting bridles shall be provided for making vertical patient lifts at container berths. Stretchers for vertical lifts shall have foot plates. 
</P>
<P>(6) Stretchers shall be maintained in operable condition. Struts and braces shall be inspected for damage. Wire mesh shall be secured and have no burrs. Damaged stretchers shall not be used until repaired. 
</P>
<P>(7) Stretchers in permanent locations shall be mounted to prevent damage and shall be protected from the elements if located out-of-doors. If concealed from view, closures shall be marked to indicate the location of the life saving equipment. 
</P>
<P>(e) Telephone or equivalent means of communication shall be readily available. 
</P>
<P>(f) A U.S. Coast Guard approved 30-inch (76.2 cm) life ring, with at least 90 feet (27.43m) of line attached, shall be available at readily accessible points at each waterside work area where the employees' work exposes them to the hazard of drowning. Employees working on any bridge or structure leading to a detached vessel berthing installation shall wear U.S. Coast Guard approved personal flotation devices except where protected by railings, nets, or safety belts and lifelines. A readily available portable or permanent ladder giving access to the water shall also be provided within 200 feet (61 m) of such work areas. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40197, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40938, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.27" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.27   Personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifications of machinery operators.</I> (1) Only those employees determined by the employer to be competent by reason of training or experience, and who understand the signs, notices and operating instructions and are familiar with the signal code in use shall be permitted to operate a crane, winch or other power operated cargo handling apparatus, or any power operated vehicle, or give signals to the operator of any hoisting apparatus. <I>Exception:</I> Employees being trained and supervised by a designated person may operate such machinery and give signals to operators during training.
</P>
<P>(2) No employee known to have defective uncorrected eyesight or hearing, or to be suffering from heart disease, epilepsy, or similar ailments that may suddenly incapacitate the employee, shall be permitted to operate a crane, winch or other power-operated cargo handling apparatus or a power-operated vehicle. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>OSHA is defining suddenly incapacitating medical ailments consistent with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), 42 U.S.C. 12101 (1990). Therefore, employers who act in accordance with the employment provisions (Title I) of the ADA (42 U.S.C. 12111-12117), the regulations implementing Title I (29 CFR Part 1630), and the Technical Assistance Manual for Title I issued by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (Publication number: EEOC—M1A), will be considered as being in compliance with this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Supervisory accident prevention proficiency.</I> (1) After October 3, 1985 immediate supervisors of cargo-handling operations of more than five (5) persons shall satisfactorily complete a course in accident prevention. Employees newly assigned to supervisory duties after that date shall be required to meet the provisions of this paragraph within ninety (90) days of such assignment. 
</P>
<P>(2) The course shall consist of instruction suited to the particular operations involved. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The following are recommended topics: (i) Safety responsibility and authority; (ii) elements of accident prevention; (iii) attitudes, leadership and motivation; (iv) hazards of longshoring, including peculiar local circumstances; (v) hazard identification and elimination; (vi) applicable regulations; and (vii) accident investigations.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40197, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40938, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.28" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.28   Hazard communication (See also § 1917.1(a)(2)(vi)).</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.29" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.29   Retention of DOT markings, placards and labels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employer who receives a package of hazardous material which is required to be marked, labeled or placarded in accordance with the U. S. Department of Transportation's Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) shall retain those markings, labels and placards on the package until the packaging is sufficiently cleaned of residue and purged of vapors to remove any potential hazards. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any employer who receives a freight container, rail freight car, motor vehicle, or transport vehicle that is required to be marked or placarded in accordance with the Hazardous Materials Regulations shall retain those markings and placards on the freight container, rail freight car, motor vehicle or transport vehicle until the hazardous materials which require the marking or placarding are sufficiently removed to prevent any potential hazards. 
</P>
<P>(c) Markings, placards and labels shall be maintained in a manner that ensures that they are readily visible. 
</P>
<P>(d) For non-bulk packages which will not be reshipped, the provisions of this section are met if a label or other acceptable marking is affixed in accordance with the Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200). 
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of this section, the term “hazardous material” and any other terms not defined in this section have the same definition as in the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 36700, July 19, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.30" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.30   Emergency action plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Emergency action plans</I>—(1) <I>Scope and application.</I> This paragraph (a) requires all employers to develop and implement an emergency action plan. 
<SU>3a</SU>
<FTREF/> The emergency action plan shall be in writing (except as provided in paragraph (a)(5)(iv) of this section) and shall cover those designated actions employers and employees must take to ensure employee safety from fire and other emergencies. 


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3a</SU> When an employer directs his employees to respond to an emergency that is beyond the scope of the Emergency Action Plan developed in accordance with this section, then § 1910.120(q) of this chapter shall apply.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Elements.</I> The following elements, at a minimum, shall be included in the plan:
</P>
<P>(i) Emergency escape procedures and emergency escape route assignments; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Procedures to be followed by employees who remain to operate critical plant operations before they evacuate; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures to account for all employees after emergency evacuation has been completed; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Rescue and medical duties for those employees who are to perform them; 
</P>
<P>(v) The preferred means of reporting fires and other emergencies; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Names or regular job titles of persons or departments that can be contacted for further information or explanation of duties under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alarm system.</I> The employer shall establish an employee alarm system that provides warning for necessary emergency action and for reaction time for safe escape of employees from the workplace or the immediate work area. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Evacuation.</I> The employer shall establish the types of evacuation to be used in emergency circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Training.</I> (i) Before implementing the emergency action plan, the employer shall designate and train a sufficient number of persons to assist in the safe and orderly emergency evacuation of employees. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall review the plan with each employee covered by the plan at the following times:
</P>
<P>(A) Initially when the plan is developed; 
</P>
<P>(B) Whenever the employee's responsibilities or designated actions under the plan change; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Whenever the plan is changed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall review with each employee upon initial assignment those parts of the plan that the employee must know to protect the employee in the event of an emergency. The written plan shall be kept at the workplace and be made available for employee review. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Employers with 10 or fewer employees may communicate the plan orally to employees and need not maintain a written plan 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40198, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40938, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.31" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.2.6.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.31   COVID-19.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements applicable to marine terminal work under this section are identical to those set forth at 29 CFR 1910.501.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 61554, Nov. 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Cargo Handling Gear and Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.41" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.41   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.42" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.42   Miscellaneous auxiliary gear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Routine inspection.</I> (1) At the completion of each use, loose gear such as slings, chains, bridles, blocks and hooks shall be so placed as to avoid damage to the gear. Loose gear shall be inspected and any defects corrected before reuse. 
</P>
<P>(2) All loose gear shall be inspected by the employer or his authorized representative before each use and, when necessary, at intervals during its use, to ensure that it is safe. Any gear which is found upon such inspection to be visibly unsafe shall not be used until it is made safe.
</P>
<P>(3) Defective gear shall not be used. Distorted hooks, shackles or similar gear shall be discarded.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Wire rope and wire rope slings.</I> (1) The employer shall ascertain and adhere to the manufacturer's recommended ratings for wire rope and wire rope slings and shall have such ratings available for inspection. When the manufacturer is unable to supply such ratings, the employer shall use the tables for wire rope and wire rope slings found in American National Safety Standard for Slings, ANSI B30.9-1971. A design safety factor of at least five shall be maintained for the common sizes of running wire used as falls, in purchases or in such uses as light load slings. Wire rope with a safety factor of less than five may be used only:
</P>
<P>(i) In specialized equipment, such as but not limited to cranes, designed to be used with lesser wire rope safety factors; 
</P>
<P>(ii) In accordance with design factors in standing rigging applications; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) For heavy lifts or other purposes for which a safety factor of five is impracticable and for which the employer can demonstrate that equivalent safety is ensured. 
</P>
<P>(2) Wire rope or wire rope slings having any of the following conditions shall not be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Ten randomly distributed broken wires in one rope lay or three or more broken wires in one strand in one rope lay;
</P>
<P>(ii) Kinking, crushing, bird caging or other damage resulting in distortion of the wire rope structure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence of heat damage;
</P>
<P>(iv) Excessive wear or corrosion, deformation or other defect in the wire or attachments, including cracks in attachments;
</P>
<P>(v) Any indication of strand or wire slippage in end attachments; or
</P>
<P>(vi) More than one broken wire in the close vicinity of a socket or swaged fitting.
</P>
<P>(3) Protruding ends of strands in splices on slings and bridles shall be covered or blunted. Coverings shall be removable so that splices can be examined. Means used to cover or blunt ends shall not damage the wire.
</P>
<P>(4) Where wire rope clips are used to form eyes, the employer shall adhere to the manufacturers' recommendations, which shall be made available for inspection. If “U” bolt clips are used and the manufacturers' recommendations are not available, Table C-1 shall be used to determine the number and spacing of the clips. “U” bolts shall be applied with the “U” section in contact with the dead end of the rope. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C-1—Number and Spacing of U-Bolt Wire Rope Clips 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Improved plow steel, rope diameter (inches/(cm)) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum number of clips 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>spacing (inches/(cm)) 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drop forged 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other
<br/>material 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr> or less (1.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.6) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr> (1.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>3/4</fr> (9.5) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr> (1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr> (11.4) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr> (2.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/4</fr> (13.3) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 (2.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.2) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr> (2.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<fr>3/4</fr> (17.1) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr> (19.1) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr> (3.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<fr>1/4</fr> (21.0) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 (22.9)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) Wire rope shall not be secured by knots.
</P>
<P>(6) Eyes in wire rope bridles, slings, bull wires, or in single parts used for hoisting shall not be formed by wire rope clips or knots.
</P>
<P>(7) Eye splices in wire ropes shall have at least three tucks with a whole strand of the rope and two tucks with one-half of the wire cut from each strand. Other forms of splices or connections which are shown to be equivalently safe may be used.
</P>
<P>(8) Except for eye splices in the ends of wires and for endless rope slings, each wire rope used in hoisting or lowering, or in bulling cargo, shall consist of one continuous piece without knot or splice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Natural fiber rope.</I> (1) The employer shall ascertain the manufacturers' ratings for the specific natural fiber rope used and have such ratings available for inspection. The manufacturers' ratings shall be adhered to and a minimum design safety factor of five maintained. 
</P>
<P>(2) Eye splices shall consist of at least three full tucks. Short splices shall consist of at least six full tucks, three on each side of the center line.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Synthetic rope.</I> (1) The employer shall adhere to the manufacturers' ratings and use recommendations for the specific synthetic fiber rope used and shall make such ratings available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Unless otherwise recommended by the manufacturer, when synthetic fiber ropes are substituted for fiber ropes of less than three inches (7.62 cm) in circumference, the substitute shall be of equal size. Where substituted for fiber rope of three inches or more in circumference, the size of the synthetic rope shall be determined from the formula:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="18" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er30jn00.079.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Where C = the required circumference of the synthetic rope in inches, Cs= the circumference to the nearest one-quarter inch of a synthetic rope having a breaking strength not less than that of the size fiber rope that is required by paragraph (c) of this section and Cm= the circumference of the fiber rope in inches that is required by paragraph (c) of this section.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) In making such substitution, it shall be ascertained that the inherent characteristics of the synthetic fiber are suitable for hoisting. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Removal of natural and synthetic rope from service.</I> Natural and synthetic rope having any of the following defects shall be removed from service:
</P>
<P>(1) Abnormal wear;
</P>
<P>(2) Powdered fiber between strands;
</P>
<P>(3) Sufficient cut or broken fibers to affect the capability of the rope;
</P>
<P>(4) Variations in the size or roundness of strands;
</P>
<P>(5) Discolorations other than stains not associated with rope damage;
</P>
<P>(6) Rotting; or
</P>
<P>(7) Distortion or other damage to attached hardware.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Thimbles.</I> Properly fitting thimbles shall be used where any rope is secured permanently to a ring, shackle or attachment, where practicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Synthetic web slings.</I> (1) Slings and nets or other combinations of more than one piece of synthetic webbing assembled and used as a single unit (synthetic web slings) shall not be used to hoist loads in excess of the sling's rated capacity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Synthetic web slings shall be removed from service if they exhibit any of the following defects:
</P>
<P>(i) Acid or caustic burns;
</P>
<P>(ii) Melting or charring of any part of the sling surface;
</P>
<P>(iii) Snags, punctures, tears or cuts;
</P>
<P>(iv) Broken or worn stitches; or
</P>
<P>(v) Distortion or damage to fittings.
</P>
<P>(vi) Display of visible warning threads or markers designed to indicate excessive wear or damage. 
</P>
<P>(3) Defective synthetic web slings removed from service shall not be returned to service unless repaired by a sling manufacturer or similar entity. Each repaired sling shall be proof tested by the repairer to twice the slings' rated capacity prior to its return to service. The employer shall retain a certificate of the proof test and make it available for examination.
</P>
<P>(4) Synthetic web slings provided by the employer shall only be used in accordance with the manufacturer's use recommendations, which shall be available.
</P>
<P>(5) Fittings shall have a breaking strength at least equal to that of the sling to which they are attached and shall be free of sharp edges. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Chains and chain slings used for hoisting.</I> (1) The employer shall adhere to the manufacturer's recommended ratings for safe working loads for the sizes of wrought iron and alloy steel chains and chain slings used and shall have such ratings available. When the manufacturer is unable to provide such ratings, the employer shall use the tables for chains and chain slings found in American National Safety Standard for Slings, ANSI B30.9-1971.
</P>
<P>(2) Proof coil steel chain, also known as common or hardware chain, and other chain not recommended by the manufacturer for slinging or hoisting shall not be used for slinging or hoisting.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Sling chains, including end fastenings, shall be inspected for visible defects before each day's use and as often as necessary during use to ensure integrity of the sling.
</P>
<P>(ii) Thorough inspections of chains in use shall be made quarterly to detect wear, defective welds, deformation or increase in length or stretch. The month of inspection shall be indicated on each chain by color of paint on a link or by other equally effective means. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Chains shall be removed from service when maximum allowable wear, as indicated in Table C-2, is reached at any point of link.
</P>
<P>(iv) Chain slings shall be removed from service when stretch has increased the length of a measured section by more than five percent; when a link is bent, twisted or otherwise damaged; or when a link has a raised scarf or defective weld.
</P>
<P>(v) Only designated persons shall inspect chains used for slinging and hoisting.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C-2—Maximum Allowable Wear at Any Point of Link
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Chain size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Maximum allowable wear
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(cm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr>(
<fr>9/32</fr>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/64</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/64</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/64</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/64</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/32</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/64</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/32</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.6)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.6)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/32</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(4.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/32</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.9)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Chains shall be repaired only under qualified supervision. Links or portions of chain defective under any of the criteria of paragraph (h)(3)(iii) of this section shall be replaced with properly dimensioned links or connections of material similar to those of the original chain. Before repaired chains are returned to service, they shall be tested to the proof load recommended by the manufacturer of the original chain. Tests shall be performed by the manufacturer or shall be certified by an agency accredited for the purpose under part 1919 of this chapter. Test certificates shall be available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(5) Wrought iron chains in constant use shall be annealed or normalized at intervals not exceeding six months. Heat treatment certificates shall be available for inspection. Alloy chains shall not be annealed. 
</P>
<P>(6) Kinked or knotted chains shall not be used for lifting. Chains shall not be shortened by bolting, wiring or knotting. Makeshift links or fasteners such as wire, bolts or rods shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(7) Hooks, rings, links and attachments affixed to sling chains shall have rated capacities at least equal to that of the chains to which they are attached.
</P>
<P>(8) Chain slings shall bear identification of size, grade and rated capacity. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Shackles.</I> (1) If available, the manufacturer's recommended safe working loads for shackles shall not be exceeded. In the absence of manufacturer's recommendations, Table C-3 shall apply.
</P>
<P>(2) Screw pin shackles used aloft in house fall or other gear, except in cargo hook assemblies, shall have their pins moused or otherwise effectively secured.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C-3—Safe Working Loads for Shackles 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Material size 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Pin diameter 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Safe working load in 2,000 lb tons 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inches 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(cm) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inches 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(cm) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.6)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.9)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.2)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.5)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.9)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.2)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.5)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.8)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(4.1)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">11.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(4.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.1)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">16.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.7)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">21.2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(j) <I>Hooks other than hand hooks.</I> (1) The manufacturers' recommended safe working loads for hooks shall not be exceeded. Hooks other than hand hooks shall be tested in accordance with § 1917.50(c)(6). 
</P>
<P>(2) Bent or sprung hooks shall be discarded.
</P>
<P>(3) Teeth of case hooks shall be maintained in safe condition.
</P>
<P>(4) Jaws of patent clamp-type plate hooks shall be maintained in condition to grip plates securely.
</P>
<P>(5) Loads shall be applied to the throat of the hook only.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Pallets.</I> (1) Pallets shall be made and maintained to safely support and carry loads being handled. Fastenings of reusable pallets used for hoisting shall be bolts and nuts, drive screws (helically threaded nails), annular threaded nails or fastenings of equivalent holding strength.
</P>
<P>(2) Damaged pallets shall be stored in designated areas and identified.
</P>
<P>(3) Reusable wing or lip-type pallets shall be hoisted by bar bridles or other suitable gear and shall have an overhanging wing or lip of at least three inches (7.62cm). They shall not be hoisted by wire slings alone. 
</P>
<P>(4) Loaded pallets that do not meet the requirements of this paragraph shall be hoisted only after being placed on pallets meeting such requirements or shall be handled by other means providing equivalent safety.
</P>
<P>(5) Bridles for handling flush end or box-type pallets shall be designed to prevent disengagement from the pallet under load.
</P>
<P>(6) Pallets shall be stacked or placed to prevent falling, collapsing or otherwise causing a hazard under standard operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(7) Disposable pallets intended only for one use shall not be reused for hoisting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40198, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40938, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.43" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.43   Powered industrial trucks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to every type of powered industrial truck used for material or equipment handling within a marine terminal. It does not apply to over-the-road vehicles.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> (1) After October 3, 1983, modifications, such as adding counterweights, that might affect the vehicle's capacity or safety shall not be performed without either the manufacturer's prior written approval or the written approval of a professional engineer experienced with the equipment who has consulted with the manufacturer, if available. Capacity, operation and maintenance instruction plates, tags or decals shall be changed to conform to the equipment as modified.
</P>
<P>(2) Unauthorized personnel shall not ride on powered industrial trucks. A safe place to ride shall be provided when riding is authorized.
</P>
<P>(3) When a powered industrial truck is left unattended, load-engaging means shall be fully lowered, controls neutralized and brakes set. Unless the truck is in view and within 25 feet (7.62 m) of the operator, power shall be shut off. Wheels shall be blocked or curbed if the truck is on an incline. 
</P>
<P>(4) Powered industrial trucks shall not be operated inside highway vehicles or railcars having damage which could affect operational safety.
</P>
<P>(5) Powered industrial trucks shall be marked with their rated capacities, which shall be visible to the operator.
</P>
<P>(6) Only stable and safely arranged loads within the rated capacity of the truck shall be handled.
</P>
<P>(7) The employer shall direct drivers to ascend and descend grades slowly.
</P>
<P>(8) The employer shall direct drivers to slow down and sound the horn at crossaisles and other locations where visibility is obstructed.
</P>
<P>(9) If the load obstructs the forward view, the employer shall direct drivers to travel with the load trailing.
</P>
<P>(10) Steering knobs shall not be used unless the truck is equipped with power steering.
</P>
<P>(11) When powered industrial trucks use cargo lifting devices that have a means of engagement hidden from the operator, a means shall be provided to enable the operator to determine that the cargo has been engaged.
</P>
<P>(12) When cargo is being towed on pipe trucks or similar equipment, a safe means shall be provided to protect the driver from sliding loads.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenace.</I> (1) Only designated persons shall perform maintenance and repair.
</P>
<P>(2) Batteries on all powered trucks shall be disconnected during repairs to the primary electrical system unless power is necessary for testing and repair. On trucks equipped with systems capable of storing residual energy, that energy shall be safely discharged before work on the primary electrical system begins.
</P>
<P>(3) Replacement parts whose function might affect operational safety shall be equivalent in strength and performance capability to the original parts which they replace.
</P>
<P>(4) Braking systems or other mechanisms used for braking shall be operable and in safe condition.
</P>
<P>(5) Powered industrial trucks shall be maintained in safe working order. Safety devices shall not be removed or made inoperative except as otherwise provided in this section. Trucks with a fuel system leak or any other safety defect shall not be operated.
</P>
<P>(6) Those repairs to the fuel and ignition systems of industrial trucks which involve fire hazards shall be conducted only in locations designated as safe for such repairs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approved trucks</I>—(1) <I>Approved power-operated industrial truck</I> means one listed or approved for the intended use by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. 
</P>
<P>(2) Approved trucks acquired and used after February 15, 1972, shall bear a label or other identification indicating testing laboratory approval. 
</P>
<P>(3) When the atmosphere in an area is hazardous and the provisions of United States Coast Guard regulations at 33 CFR 126.15(e) do not apply, only power-operated industrial trucks approved for such locations shall be used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fork lift trucks</I>—(1) <I>Overhead guards.</I> (i) When operators are exposed to overhead falling hazards, fork lift trucks shall be equipped with securely attached overhead guards. Guards shall be constructed to protect the operator from falling boxes, cartons, packages, or similar objects. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Overhead guards shall not obstruct the operator's view, and openings in the top of the guard shall not exceed six inches (15.24 cm) in one of the two directions, width or length. Larger openings are permitted if no opening allows the smallest unit of cargo being handled to fall through the guard. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Overhead guards shall be built so that failure of the vehicle's mast tilting mechanism will not displace the guard. 
</P>
<P>(iv) An overhead guard, otherwise required by this paragraph, may be removed only when it would prevent a truck from entering a work space and if the operator is not exposed to low overhead obstructions in the work space. 
</P>
<P>(v) Overhead guards shall be large enough to extend over the operator during all truck operations, including forward tilt. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Load backrest extensions.</I> Where necessary to protect the operator, fork lift trucks shall be fitted with a vertical load backrest extension to prevent the load from hitting the mast when the mast is positioned at maximum backward tilt. For this purpose, a “load backrest extension” means a device extending vertically from the fork carriage frame to prevent raised loads from falling backward. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Forks.</I> Forks, fork extensions and other attachments shall be secured so that they cannot be accidentally dislodged, and shall be used only in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Counterweights.</I> Counterweights shall be so affixed that they cannot be accidentally dislodged. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Capacities and weights.</I> (i) Fork lift truck rated capacities, with and without removable counterweights, shall not be exceeded. Rated capacities shall be marked on the vehicle and shall be visible to the operator. The vehicle weight, with and without counterweight, shall be similarly marked. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If loads are lifted by two or more trucks working in unison, the total weight of the load shall not exceed the combined rated lifting capacity of all trucks involved. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Lifting of employees.</I> Employees may be elevated by fork lift trucks only when a platform is secured to the lifting carriage or forks. The platform shall meet the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(i) The platform shall have a railing complying with § 1917.112(c). 
</P>
<P>(ii) The platform shall have toeboards complying with § 1917.112(d) if tools or other objects could fall on employees below. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee shall be at the truck's controls whenever employees are elevated. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Employees on the platform shall be protected from exposure to moving truck parts. 
</P>
<P>(v) The platform floor shall be skid resistant. 
</P>
<P>(vi) When the truck has controls elevated with the lifting carriage, means shall be provided for employees on the platform to shut off power to the vehicle. 
</P>
<P>(vii) While employees are elevated, the truck may be moved only to make minor placement adjustments.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Bulk cargo-moving vehicles.</I> (1) Where a seated operator may come into contact with projecting overheads, crawler-type bulk-cargo-moving vehicles that are rider operated shall be equipped with operator's guards.
</P>
<P>(2) Guards and their attachment points shall be so designed as to be able to withstand, without excessive deflection, a load applied horizontally at the operator's shoulder level equal to the drawbar pull of the machine.
</P>
<P>(3) After July 26, 1999 bulk cargo-moving vehicles shall be equipped with rollover protection of such design and construction as to prevent the possibility of the operator being crushed because of a rollover or upset.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Straddle trucks</I>—(1) <I>Accessibility.</I> Straddle trucks shall have a permanent means of access to the operator's station, including any handholds necessary for safe ascent and descent. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guarding.</I> (i) Main sprockets and chains to the wheels shall be guarded as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The upper sprocket shall be enclosed;
</P>
<P>(B) The upper half of the lower sprocket shall be enclosed; and
</P>
<P>(C) The drive chain shall be enclosed to a height of eight feet (2.44 m) except for that portion at the lower half of the lower sprocket. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Gears shall be enclosed and revolving parts which may be contacted by the operator shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(iii) When straddle trucks are used in the vicinity of employees, personnel-deflecting guards shall be provided around leading edges of front and rear wheels.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Visibility.</I> Operator visibility shall be provided in all directions of movement.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Trailer-spotting tractors.</I> (1) Trailer-spotting tractors (fifth wheels) shall be fitted with any hand grabs and footing necessary for safe access to the fifth wheel.
</P>
<P>(2) Rear cab windows shall be of safety glass or of equivalent material. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40198, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40939, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.44" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.44   General rules applicable to vehicles. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The United States Coast Guard at 33 CFR 126.15(d) and (e) has additional regulations applicable to vehicles in terminals.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) The requirements of this section apply to general vehicle use within marine terminals. <I>Exception:</I> The provisions of paragraphs (c) and (l) of this section do not apply when preempted by applicable regulations of the Department of Transportation. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Department of Transportation regulations in 49 CFR part 393, Subpart C—Brakes, address the immobilization of trailer road wheels prior to disconnection of the trailer and until braking is again provided. Section 49 CFR 393.84 addresses the condition of flooring. These DOT rules apply when the motor carrier is engaged in interstate commerce or in the transport of certain hazardous items wholly within a municipality or the commercial zone thereof.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Private vehicle parking in marine terminals shall be allowed only in designated areas.
</P>
<P>(c) Trailers shall not be disconnected from tractors at loading docks until the road wheels have been immobilized. The road wheels shall be immobilized from the time the brake system is disconnected until braking is again provided. Supplementary front end support shall be employed as necessary to prevent tipping when a trailer is entered by a material handling vehicle. Rear end support shall be employed if rear wheels are so far forward as to allow tipping when the trailer is entered.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer shall direct motor vehicle operators to comply with any posted speed limits and other traffic control signs or signals, and written traffic instructions.
</P>
<P>(e) Stop signs shall be posted at main entrances and exits of structures where visibility is impaired, and at blind intersections, unless direct traffic control or warning mirror systems or other systems of equivalent safety are provided. 
</P>
<P>(f) Vehicular routes, traffic rules, and parking areas shall be established, identified, and used. 
</P>
<P>(g) The employer shall direct vehicle drivers to warn employees in traffic lanes of the vehicle's approach. 
</P>
<P>(h) Signs indicating pedestrian traffic shall be clearly posted at vehicular check-in and check-out lines and similar locations where employees may be working. 
</P>
<P>(i) A distance of not less than 20 feet (6.1 m) shall be maintained between the first two vehicles in a check-in, check-out, roadability, or vessel loading/discharging line. This distance shall be maintained between any subsequent vehicles behind which employees are required to work. 
</P>
<P>(j) No unattended vehicle shall be left with its engine running unless secured against movement (see § 1917.43(b)(3) for powered industrial trucks). 
</P>
<P>(k) When the rear of a vehicle is elevated to facilitate loading or discharging, a ramp shall be provided and secured. The vehicle shall be secured against accidental movement during loading or discharging.
</P>
<P>(l) Only highway vehicle floors in safe condition shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(m) When flatbed trucks, platform containers or similar conveyances are loaded or discharged and the cargo consists of pipe or other products which could spread or roll to endanger employees, the cargo shall be contained to prevent movement. 
</P>
<P>(n) Vehicles used to transport employees within a terminal shall be maintained in safe working order and safety devices shall not be removed or made inoperative. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Servicing multi-piece and single piece rim wheels.</I> Servicing of multi-piece and single piece rim wheels is covered by § 1910.177 of this chapter. (See § 1917.1(a)(2)(xii)). 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph applies to the servicing of vehicle wheels containing tube-type tires mounted on multi-piece rims. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition.</I> “Multi-piece rim” means a vehicle wheel rim consisting of two or more parts, one of which is a (side) locking ring designed to hold the tire on the rim by tension on interlocking components when the tire is inflated, regardless of the relative sizes of the component parts. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Employee training.</I> (i) Only employees trained in the procedures required in paragraph (o)(4) of this section and who have demonstrated their ability to service multi-piece rim wheels shall be assigned such duties. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees assigned such duties shall have demonstrated their ability by the safe performance of the following tasks:
</P>
<P>(A) Tire demounting (including deflation); 
</P>
<P>(B) Inspection of wheel components; 
</P>
<P>(C) Mounting of tires; 
</P>
<P>(D) Inflation of tires, including use of a restraining device; 
</P>
<P>(E) Handling of wheels; 
</P>
<P>(F) Inflation of tires when a wheel is mounted on the vehicle; and 
</P>
<P>(G) Installation and removal of wheels. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Servicing procedures.</I> The following procedures shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(i) Tires shall be completely deflated before demounting by removal of the valve core; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The valve core shall be removed before the wheel is removed from the axle when:
</P>
<P>(A) The tire has been operated underinflated at 80% or less of its recommended pressure, or
</P>
<P>(B) There is discernible or suspected damage to the tire or wheel components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Mating surfaces shall be free of dirt, surface rust, scale and rubber buildup before mounting;
</P>
<P>(iv) Rubber lubricant shall be applied to bead and rim mating surfaces upon wheel assembly and inflation of the tire;
</P>
<P>(v) Air pressure shall not exceed 3 psig (0.21 kg/cm
<SU>2</SU>) when seating the locking ring or rounding out the tube when a tire is being partially inflated without a restraining device;
</P>
<P>(vi) While the tire is pressurized, components shall not be struck or forced to correct the seating of side or lock rings;
</P>
<P>(vii) There shall not be any contact between an employee or unit of equipment and a restraining device during tire inflation;
</P>
<P>(viii) After inflation, tires, rims and rings shall be inspected while within the restraining device to ensure seating and locking. If adjustment is necessary the tire shall first be deflated by valve core removal; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Before assembly, wheel components shall be inspected, and damaged rim components shall not be reused.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Charts and manuals.</I> (i) The employer shall provide a chart containing as a minimum the instructions and information provided in the United States Department of Transportation, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) publication “Safety Precautions for Mounting and Demounting Tube-Type Truck/Bus Tires” and “Multi-Piece Rim Wheel Matching Chart,” and pertinent to the type(s) of multi-piece rim wheels being serviced. The chart shall be available in the terminal's service area. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> NHTSA charts are available from General Services Division, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, Attention: N48-51, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Washington, D.C. 20590. Industry charts are available upon request from the manufacturer.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) A current rim manual containing the manufacturer's instructions for mounting, demounting, maintenance and safety precautions relating to the multi-piece rim wheels being serviced shall be available in the terminal's service area.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Restraining devices.</I> (i) Except as otherwise noted, inflation shall be done within a restraining device such as a cage, rack or other device capable of withstanding the maximum force that would be transferred to it during an explosive wheel separation occurring at 150% of maximum tire specification pressure for the wheels being serviced. The restraining device shall be capable of preventing rim components from being thrown outside the frame of the device for any wheel position within the device. When the wheel assembly is mounted on a vehicle, tires may be inflated without a restraining device only if they have more than 80% of the recommended pressure and if remote control inflation equipment is used and employees are clear of the danger area.
</P>
<P>(ii) Restraining devices shall be kept in good repair and be capable of preventing rim components from being thrown outside the device.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Inflation hoses.</I> Inflation hoses shall have a manual clip-on chuck with sufficient hose to permit an employee to be clear of the danger zone. An in-line, manually operated valve with gauge or a preset pressure regulator shall be used to inflate tires.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Other equipment.</I> (i) Only tools recommended in the rim manual for the type of wheel being serviced shall be used to service multi-piece rim wheels.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wheel components shall not be interchanged except as provided in the applicable chart or manual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 36026, Sept. 25, 1987; 62 FR 40199, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40939, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.45" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.45   Cranes and derricks (See also § 1917.50).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> (1) This section applies to every kind of crane and derrick and to any other type of equipment performing the functions of a crane or derrick except as noted in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to small industrial truck-type cranes, container handling top-loaders and sideloaders, chain hoists, and mobile straddle-type cranes incapable of straddling two or more intermodal containers (16 feet (4.88 m) in width).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ratings.</I> (1) Except for bridge cranes covered by paragraph (g) of this section, cranes and derricks having ratings that vary with boom length, radius (outreach) or other variables shall have a durable rating chart visible to the operator, covering the complete range of the manufacturer's (or design) capacity ratings. The rating chart shall include all operating radii (outreach) for all permissible boom lengths and jib lengths as applicable, with and without outriggers, and alternate ratings for optional equipment affecting such ratings. Precautions or warnings specified by the owner or manufacturer shall be included along with the chart.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's (or design) rated loads for the conditions of use shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(3) Designated working loads shall not be increased beyond the manufacturer's ratings or original design limitations unless such increase receives the manufacturer's approval. When the manufacturer's services are not available or where the equipment is of foreign manufacture, engineering design analysis shall be performed or approved by a person accredited for certificating the equipment under part 1919 of this chapter. Engineering design analysis shall be performed by a registered professional engineer competent in the field of cranes and derricks. Any structural changes necessitated by the change in rating shall be carried out.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Radius indicator.</I> When the rated load varies with the boom radius, the crane or derrick shall be fitted with a boom angle or radius indicator visible to the operator.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited usage.</I> (1) Equipment shall not be used in a manner that exerts sideloading stresses upon the crane or derrick boom.
</P>
<P>(2) No crane or derrick having a visible or known defect that affects safe operation shall be used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protective devices.</I> (1) When exposed moving parts such as gears, chains and chain sprockets present a hazard to employees during crane and derrick operations, those parts shall be securely guarded.
</P>
<P>(2) Crane hooks shall be latched or otherwise secured to prevent accidental load disengagement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Operating controls.</I> (i) Crane and derrick operating controls shall be clearly marked, or a chart indicating their function shall be posted at the operator's position.
</P>
<P>(ii) After October 3, 1984, overhead bridge and container gantry crane operating control levers shall be self-centering so that they will automatically move to the “off” position when the operator releases the control.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Booms.</I> Cranes with elevatable booms and without operable automatic limiting devices shall be provided with boom stops if boom elevation can exceed maximum design angles from the horizontal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foot pedals.</I> Foot pedals shall have a non-skid surface.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Access.</I> Ladders, stairways, stanchions, grab irons, foot steps or equivalent means shall be provided as necessary to ensure safe access to footwalks, cab platforms, the cab and any portion of the superstructure which employees must reach.
</P>
<P>(i) Footwalks shall be of rigid construction, and shall be capable of supporting a load of 100 pounds (4.79 kPa) per square foot.
</P>
<P>(ii) If more than 20 feet (6.1 m) in height, vertical ladders shall comply with § 1917.118 (d), (e)(1), (e)(2)(iii), and (e)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>(iii) Stairways on cranes shall be equipped with rigid handrails meeting the requirements of § 1917.112(e). 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the top of a ladder or stairway or any position thereof is located where a moving part of a crane, such as a revolving house, could strike an employee ascending or descending the ladder or stairway, a prominent warning sign shall be posted at the foot of the ladder or stairway. A system of communication (such as a buzzer or bell) shall be established and maintained between the foot of the ladder or stairway and the operator's cab.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Operator's station.</I> (i) The cab, controls and mechanism of the equipment shall be so arranged that the operator has a clear view of the load or signalman, when one is used. Cab glass, when used, shall be safety plate glass or equivalent. Cranes with missing, broken, cracked, scratched, or dirty glass (or equivalent) that impairs operator visibility shall not be used. Clothing, tools and equipment shall be stored so as not to interfere with access, operation, and the operator's view. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A seat (lap) belt, meeting the requirements of 49 CFR 571.208-210 for a Type 1 seat belt assembly, shall be installed on the operator's seat of high speed container gantry cranes where the seat trolleys. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Counterweights or ballast.</I> Cranes shall be operated only with the specified type and amount of ballast or counterweights. Ballast or counterweight shall be located and secured only as provided in the manufacturer's or design specifications, which shall be available.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Outriggers.</I> Outriggers shall be used according to the manufacturers' specifications or design data, which shall be available. Floats, when used, shall be securely attached to the outriggers. Wood blocks or other support shall be of sufficient size to support the outrigger, free of defects that may affect safety and of sufficient width and length to prevent the crane from shifting or toppling under load. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Exhaust gases.</I> Engine exhaust gases shall be discharged away from the normal position of crane operating personnel.
</P>
<P>(9) Electrical equipment shall be so located or enclosed that live parts will not be exposed to accidental contact. Designated persons may work on energized equipment only if necessary during inspection, maintenance, or repair.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Fire extinguisher.</I> (i) At least one portable fire extinguisher of at least 5-BC rating or equivalent shall be accessible in the cab of the crane or derrick.
</P>
<P>(ii) No portable fire extinguisher using carbon tetrachloride or chlorobromomethane extinguishing agents shall be used.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Rope on drums.</I> At least three full turns of rope shall remain on ungrooved drums, and two turns on grooved drums, under all operating conditions. Wire rope shall be secured to drums by clamps, U-bolts, shackles or equivalent means. Fiber rope fastenings are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Assembly or disassembly of boom sections.</I> Mobile crane booms being assembled or disassembled on the ground with or without the support of the boom harness shall be blocked to prevent dropping of the boom or boom sections.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Brakes.</I> (i) Each independent hoisting unit of a crane shall be equipped with at least one holding brake, applied directly to the motor shaft or gear train.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each independent hoisting unit of a crane, except worm geared hoists, the angle of whose worm is such as to prevent the load from accelerating in the lowering direction, shall, in addition to a holding brake, be equipped with a controlled braking means to control lowering speeds. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Holding brakes for hoist units shall have not less than the following percentage of the rated load hoisting torque at the point where the brake is applied:
</P>
<P>(A) 125 percent when used with an other than mechanically controlled braking means; or 
</P>
<P>(B) 100 percent when used with a mechanically-controlled braking means.
</P>
<P>(C) 100 percent when two holding brakes are provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) All power control braking means shall be capable of maintaining safe lowering speeds of rated loads.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rail-mounted cranes (excluding locomotive types).</I> (1) For the purposes of this section, rail-mounted cranes include bridge cranes and portal cranes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rated load marking.</I> The rated loads of bridge cranes shall be plainly marked on each side of the crane and in the cab. If there is more than one hoisting unit, each hoist shall have its rated load marked on it or on its load block. Marking shall be legible from the ground level.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Wind-indicating devices.</I> (i) After October 3, 1983, each rail-mounted bridge and portal crane located outside of an enclosed structure shall be fitted with an operable wind-indicating device.
</P>
<P>(ii) The wind indicating device shall provide a visible or audible warning to alert the operator of high wind conditions. That warning shall be transmitted whenever the following circumstances are present:
</P>
<P>(A) When wind velocity reaches the warning speed, not exceeding the crane manufacturer's recommendations; and
</P>
<P>(B) When wind velocity reaches the shutdown speed, not exceeding the crane manufacturer's recommendations, at which work is to be stopped and the crane secured.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Instructions.</I> The employer shall post operating instructions for high wind conditions in the operator's cab of each crane. Operators shall be directed to comply with these instructions. The instructions shall include procedures for responding to high wind alerts and for any coordination necessary with other cranes.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Securing of cranes in high winds.</I> (i) When the wind reaches the crane's warning speed:
</P>
<P>(A) Gantry travel shall be stopped; and
</P>
<P>(B) The crane shall be readied for shutdown.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the wind reaches the crane's shutdown speed:
</P>
<P>(A) Any portion of the crane spanning or partially spanning a vessel shall be moved clear of the vessel if safe to do so; and
</P>
<P>(B) The crane shall be secured against travel, using all available means of securing.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall monitor local weather conditions by subscribing to a weather service or using equally effective means.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Stops and bumpers.</I> (i) The ends of all tracks shall be equipped with stops or bumpers. If a stop engages the tread of the wheel, it shall be of a height not less than the radius of the wheel.
</P>
<P>(ii) When more than one crane operates on the same runway or more than one trolley on the same bridge, each crane or trolley shall be equipped with bumpers or equivalent devices at adjacent ends subject to impact.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee exposure to crane movement.</I> When employees may be in the vicinity of the tracks, crane trucks shall be equipped with personnel-deflecting guards.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Pedestrian clearance.</I> If the track area is used for employee passage or for work, a minimum clearance of three feet (.91 m) shall be provided between trucks or the structures of rail-mounted cranes and any other structure or obstruction. When the required clearance is not available on at least one side of the crane's trucks, the area shall not be used and shall be marked and identified. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Warning devices.</I> Rail-mounted cranes shall be equipped with an effective travel warning device which shall be used to warn employees who may be in the path of the moving crane.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Communications.</I> Means of communication shall be provided between the operator's cab and the base of the gantry of all rail-mounted cranes. This requirement may be met by telephone, radio, sound-signalling system or other effective methods, but not solely by hand-signalling.
</P>
<P>(11) Limit switch bypass systems shall be secured during all cargo operations. Such bypass systems shall not be used except in an emergency or during non-cargo handling operations such as stowing cranes or derricks or performing repairs. When a situation requiring the use of a bypass system or the readjustment of a limit switch arises, it shall be done only under the direction of a crane mechanic. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Stabilizing of locomotive cranes.</I> Loads may be hoisted by locomotive cranes only if outriggers are in place, unless means are taken to prevent the load being carried by the truck springs of the crane.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Operations.</I> (1) Use of cranes together. When two or more cranes hoist a load in unison, a designated person shall direct the operation and instruct personnel in positioning, rigging of the load and movements to be made.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guarding of swing radius.</I> Accessible areas within the swing radius of the body of a revolving crane shall be physically guarded during operations to prevent an employee from being caught between the body of the crane and any fixed structure or between parts of the crane.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Securing mobile crane components in transit.</I> The crane's superstructure and boom shall be secured against rotation and carried in line with the direction of travel except when negotiating turns with an operator in the cab or when the boom is supported on a dolly. The empty hook or other attachment shall be secured.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unattended cranes.</I> The following steps shall be taken before leaving a crane unattended between work periods:
</P>
<P>(i) Suspended loads, such as those hoisted by lifting magnets or clamshell buckets, shall be landed unless the storage position or maximum hoisting of the suspended device will provide equivalent safety;
</P>
<P>(ii) Clutches shall be disengaged;
</P>
<P>(iii) The power supply shall be shut off;
</P>
<P>(iv) The crane shall be secured against accidental travel; and
</P>
<P>(v) The boom shall be lowered or secured against movement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Operating near electric power lines.</I> (i) <I>Clearance.</I> Unless electrical distribution and transmission lines are de-energized and visibly grounded at the point of work, or unless insulating barriers not a part of or attached to the crane have been erected to prevent physical contact with lines, cranes may be operated near power lines only in accordance with the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) For lines rated 50 kV or below, minimum clearance between the lines and any part of the crane or load shall be 10 feet (3.05 m); 
</P>
<P>(B) For lines rated over 50 kV, minimum clearance between the lines and any part of the crane or load shall be either 10 feet (3.05 m) plus 0.4 inch (10.16 mm) for each 1 kV over 50 kV, or twice the length of the line insulator, but never less than 10 feet; and 
</P>
<P>(C) In transit with no load and boom lowered, the clearance shall be a minimum of 4 feet (1.22 m). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Boom guards.</I> Cage-type boom guards, insulating links or proximity warning devices may be used on cranes, but they shall not be used in place of the clearances required by paragraph (i)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determination of energized lines.</I> Any overhead line shall be presumed to be energized until the owner of the line indicates that it is not energized.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protection for employees being hoisted.</I> (1) No employee shall be hoisted by the load hoisting apparatus of a crane or derrick except:
</P>
<P>(i) On intermodal container spreaders, equipped in accordance with paragraph (j)(8) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In a boatswain's chair or other device rigged to prevent it from accidental disengagement from the hook or supporting member; or
</P>
<P>(iii) On a platform meeting the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Enclosed by a railing or other means providing protection equivalent to that described in § 1917.112(c). If equipped with open railings, the platform shall be fitted with toe boards;
</P>
<P>(B) Having a safety factor of four based on ultimate strength; 
</P>
<P>(C) Bearing a plate or permanent marking indicating maximum load rating, which shall not be exceeded, and the weight of the platform itself;
</P>
<P>(D) Equipped with a device to prevent access doors, when used, from opening accidentally; 
</P>
<P>(E) Equipped with overhead protection for employees on the platform if they are exposed to falling objects or overhead hazards; 
</P>
<P>(F) Secured to the load line by means other than wedge and socket attachments, unless the free (bitter) end of the line is secured back to itself by a clamp placed as close above the wedge as possible. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except in an emergency, the hoisting mechanism of all cranes or derricks used to hoist personnel shall operate only in power up and power down, with automatic brake application when not hoisting or lowering. 
</P>
<P>(3) Variable radius booms of a crane or derrick used to hoist personnel shall be so constructed or secured as to prevent accidental boom movement. 
</P>
<P>(4) Platforms or devices used to hoist employees shall be inspected for defects before each day's use and shall be removed from service if defective. 
</P>
<P>(5) Employees being hoisted shall remain in continuous sight of and communication with the operator or signalman. 
</P>
<P>(6) Operators shall remain at the controls when employees are hoisted. 
</P>
<P>(7) Cranes shall not travel while employees are hoisted, except in emergency or in normal tier to tier transfer of employees during container operations. 
</P>
<P>(8) When intermodal container spreaders are used to transfer employees to or from the tops of containers, the spreaders shall be equipped with a personnel platform equipped with fixed railings, provided that the railings have one or more openings for access. The openings shall be fitted with a means of closure, such as chains with hooks. Existing railings shall be at least 36 inches (0.91 m) in height. New railings installed after October 3, 1983 shall be 42 inches (1.07 m), plus or minus 3 inches (7.62 cm), in height. The provisions of paragraphs (j)(1)(iii)(C), (j)(1)(iii)(D), and (j)(1)(iii)(F) of this section also apply to personnel platforms when such container spreaders are used. 
</P>
<P>(9) Employees shall not be hoisted on intermodal container spreaders while a load is engaged. 
</P>
<P>(10) All cranes and derricks used to hoist personnel shall be equipped with an anti-two-blocking device. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Routine inspection.</I> (1) Designated persons shall visually inspect each crane and derrick on each day of use for defects in functional operating components and shall report any defect found to the employer. The employer shall inform the operator of the findings. 
</P>
<P>(2) A designated person shall thoroughly inspect all functional components and accessible structural features of each crane or device at monthly intervals.
</P>
<P>(3) Any defects found during such inspections which may create a safety hazard shall be corrected before further equipment use. Repairs shall be performed only by designated persons. 
</P>
<P>(4) A record of monthly inspections shall be maintained for six months in or on the crane or derrick or at the terminal. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40199, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40940, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.46" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.46   Load indicating devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(viii) of this section, every crane after October 3, 1984 shall be fitted with a load indicating device or alternative device in proper working condition which shall meet the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(i) The type or model or any load indicating or alternate device which is used shall provide: 
</P>
<P>(A) A direct indication in the cab of actual weight hoisted or a means of determining this by referencing a weight indication to crane ratings posted and visible to the operator, except that the use of a dynamometer or simple scale alone will not meet this requirement; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Indications in the cab according to the radius and load at the moment; or 
</P>
<P>(C) A direct means to prevent an overload from occurring. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The accuracy of the load indicating device, weight-moment device, or overload protection device shall be such that any indicated load (or limit), including the sum of actual weight hoisted and additional equipment or “add ons” such as slings, sensors, blocks, etc., is within the range between 95 percent (5 percent underload) and 110 percent (10 percent overload) of the actual true total load. Such accuracy shall be required over the range of daily operating variables reasonably anticipated under the conditions of use. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The device shall permit the operator to determine, before making any lift, that the indicating or substitute system is operative. In the alternative, if a device is so mounted or attached to preclude such a determination, it may not be used unless it has been certified by the manufacturer to remain operable within the limits stated in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for a specific period of use. Checks for accuracy, using known values of load, shall be performed at the time of every certification survey (see § 1917.50) and at such additional times as may be recommended by the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When a load indicating device or alternative system is so arranged in the supporting system (crane structure) that its failure could cause the load to be dropped, its strength shall not be the limiting factor of the supporting system (crane structure). 
</P>
<P>(v) Marking shall be conspicuously placed giving: units of measure in pounds or both pounds and kilograms, capacity of the indicating system, accuracy of the indicating system, and operating instructions and precautions. In the case of systems utilizing indications other than actual weights, the marking shall include data on: the means of measurement, capacity of the system, accuracy of the system, and operating instructions and precautions. If the system used provides no readout, but is such as to automatically cease crane operation when the rated load limit under any specific condition of use is reached, marking shall be provided giving the make and model of the device installed, a description of what it does, how it is operated, and any necessary precautions regarding the system. All weight indications, other types of loading indications, and other data required shall be readily visible to the operator. 
</P>
<P>(vi) All load indicating devices shall be operative over the full operating radius. Overall accuracy shall be based on actual applied load and not on full scale (full capacity) load.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Explanatory Note:</HED>
<P>For example, if accuracy of the load indicating device is based on full scale load and the device is arbitrarily set at plus/minus 10 percent, it would accept a reading between 90,000 and 110,000 lbs., at full capacity of a machine with 100,000 lbs., maximum rating, but would also allow a reading between zero and 20,000 lbs., at that outreach (radius) at which the rating would be 10,000 lbs., capacity—an unacceptable figure. If, however, accuracy is based on actual applied load under the same conditions, the acceptable range would remain the same with the 100,000-lb. load but becomes a figure between 9,000 and 11,000 lbs., a much different and acceptable condition, at the 10,000-lb. load.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vii) When the device uses the radius as a factor in its use or in its operating indications, the indicated radius (which may be in feet and/or meters, or degrees of boom angle, depending on the system used) shall be a figure which is within the range of a figure no greater than 110 percent of the actual radius to a figure which is no less than 97 percent of the actual (true) radius. A conversion chart shall be provided whenever it is necessary to convert between degrees of radius and feet or meters. 
</P>
<P>(viii) The load indicating device requirements of this subparagraph do not apply to a crane: 
</P>
<P>(A) Of trolley equipped bridge type or overhead type while handling intermodal containers known to be identified as empty, or loaded, and in either case in compliance with the provisions of § 1917.71, or while hoisting other lifts by means of a lifting beam supplied by the crane manufacturer for the purpose, and in all cases within the crane rating; 
</P>
<P>(B) While handling bulk commodities or cargoes by means of clamshell bucket or magnet;
</P>
<P>(C) While used to handle or hold hoses in connection with transfer of bulk liquids or other hose handled products; or
</P>
<P>(D) While the crane is used exclusively to handle cargo or equipment the total actual gross weight of which is known by means of marking of the unit or units hoisted, when such total actual gross weight never exceeds 11,200 lbs., and when 11,200 lbs., is less than the rated capacity of the crane at the maximum outreach that is possible under the conditions of use at the time. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40199, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.47" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.47   Winches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Moving winch parts which present caught-in hazards to employees shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(b) Winches shall have clearly identifiable and readily accessible stop controls. 
</P>
<P>(c) Portable winches shall be secured against accidental shifting while in use. 
</P>
<P>(d) Portable winches shall be fitted with limit switches if employees have access to areas from which it is possible to be drawn into the winch. 
</P>
<P>(e) The provisions of § 1917.45(f)(11) shall apply to winches. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.48" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.48   Conveyors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Guards.</I> (1) Danger zones at or adjacent to conveyors shall be guarded to protect employees. 
</P>
<P>(2) An elevated walkway with guardrail or equivalent means of protection shall be provided where employees cross over moving conveyors, and suitable guarding shall be provided when employees pass under moving conveyors. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Moving parts.</I> Conveyor rollers and wheels shall be secured in position. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Positioning.</I> Gravity conveyor sections shall be firmly placed and secured to prevent them from falling. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Braking.</I> (1) When necessary for safe operation, provisions shall be made for braking objects at the delivery end of the conveyor. 
</P>
<P>(2) Conveyors using electrically released brakes shall be constructed so that the brakes cannot be released until power is applied, and so that the brakes are automatically engaged if the power fails or the operating control is returned to the “stop” position. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stability.</I> Portable conveyors shall be stable within their operating ranges. When used at variable fixed levels, the unit shall be secured at the operating level. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Emergency stop devices.</I> Readily accessible stop controls shall be provided for use in an emergency. Whenever the operation of any power conveyor requires personnel to work in the immediate vicinity of the conveyor, the Conveyor or controls shall not be left unattended while the conveyor is in operation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Starting powered conveyors.</I> Powered conveyors shall not be started until all employees are clear of the conveyor or have been warned that the conveyor is about to start.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Loading and unloading.</I> The area around conveyor loading and unloading points shall be kept clear of obstructions during conveyor operations. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Lockout/Tagout.</I> (1) Conveyors shall be stopped and their power sources locked out and tagged out during maintenance, repair, and servicing, unless power is necessary for testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The starting device shall be locked out and tagged out in the stop position before an attempt is made to remove the cause of a jam or overload of the conveying medium, unless it is necessary to have the power on to remove the jam.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Safe practices.</I> (1) Only designated persons shall operate, repair or service powered conveyors.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall direct employees to stay off operating conveyors. 
</P>
<P>(3) Conveyors shall be operated only with all overload devices, guards and safety devices in place and operable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40200, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.49" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.49   Spouts, chutes, hoppers, bins, and associated equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Standing and running rigging and associated gear used as a permanent part of spouts, chutes or similar devices shall be inspected before each use and shall not be used if it has any functional defects. (See also § 1917.50(c)(2) for certification requirements.)
</P>
<P>(b) Direct communication shall be provided between the discharge or shipboard control end of loading spouts and chutes and the point in the terminal from which the flow of cargo is controlled.
</P>
<P>(c) Chute and hopper openings which present a hazard shall be guarded to prevent employees from falling through them.
</P>
<P>(d) When employees are working on hoppers, the hopper shall be equipped with a safe walkway and means of access.
</P>
<P>(e) When necessary for the safety of employees, chutes shall be equipped with sideboards to afford protection from falling objects.
</P>
<P>(f) Chutes shall be firmly placed and secured to prevent them from falling.
</P>
<P>(g) When necessary for the safety of employees, provisions shall be made for braking objects other than bulk commodities at the delivery end of the chute.
</P>
<P>(h) Before an employee enters an empty bin:
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel controlling the flow of cargo into the bin shall have been notified of the entry; and
</P>
<P>(2) The power supply to the equipment carrying the cargo to the bin shall be turned off, locked out and tagged.
</P>
<P>(i) Before an employee enters a bin containing a bulk commodity such as coal or sugar, the employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel controlling the flow of cargo into the bin have been notified of the entry;
</P>
<P>(2) The power supply to the equipment carrying the cargo to the bin is turned off, locked out and tagged.
</P>
<P>(3) The employee entering the bin wears a lifeline and safety harness; and 
</P>
<P>(4) A standby attendant equipped to perform a rescue is continuously stationed outside the bin until the employee has left the bin.
</P>
<P>(j) Bin top openings that present a hazard to employees shall be covered to prevent employees from falling into bins.
</P>
<P>(k) Chutes and hoppers shall be repaired only by designated persons. 
</P>
<P>(l)(1) Before power shoveling operations begin, a designated person shall inspect the equipment to be used. The inspection shall include at least the eye bolts, wires, and sheaves.
</P>
<P>(2) Power shovels and associated equipment with defects affecting safe operation shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(3) Before adjustments are made to a power shovel, wire, or associated equipment, the power supply to the shovel shall be turned off, locked out, and tagged, the belt stopped, and the hopper closed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.50" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.50   Certification of marine terminal material handling devices (See also mandatory appendix I, of this part).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall not use any material handling device listed in paragraph (c) of this section until he has ascertained that the device has been certificated, as evidenced by current and valid documents attesting to compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Certification surveys are to be completed for the conditions of use found at the time such surveys are completed, with the understanding that equipment owners/users can change the configurations of the equipment according to the manufacturer's specifications without affecting the established certification status for the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases of foreign manufactured cranes, there shall be an owner's warranty that the design is adequate for the intended use. The warranty shall be based on a thorough examination of the design specifications by a registered professional engineer familiar with the equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) The certifications required by this section shall be performed:
</P>
<P>(1) In accordance with part 1919 of this chapter, by persons then currently accredited by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration as provided in that part; or
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with standards established and enforced by the state in which the device is located or by a political subdivision thereof, which have been found by the Secretary to be compatible with part 1919 of this chapter, by persons designated as competent to perform such certification by competent state authority and recognized as such by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) The marine terminal material handling devices listed below shall be certificated in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Each crane and derrick shall be tested as a unit quadrennially, and shall be examined annually. Certificates of tests and examinations shall be made readily available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) Bulk cargo spouts and suckers, together with any portable extensions and rigging or outriggers supporting them vertically, shall be examined annually. Certificates attesting to the required examination shall be made readily available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(3) Vertical pocket or bucket conveyors such as banana, sugar, and grain marine legs (other than those within a grain elevator structure) used within a marine terminal facility shall be examined annually. The annual examination shall include all supporting structures, rigging and mechanical components and observation of all steps of operations. Certificates attesting to the required examinations shall be readily available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) House fall cargo-handling gear in use shall be proof load tested as a unit upon initial certification and every fourth year thereafter. An examination shall be carried out in conjunction with each unit proof load test and annually thereafter. The unit test shall consist of a proof load of 25 percent in excess of the rated safe working load. Examinations shall include all supporting structures and components. Certificates attesting to the required tests and examinations shall be readily available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(ii) House fall span beams or other house fall block supports shall be marked with the safe working load, which shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special gear.</I> (i) Special stevedoring gear provided by the employer, the strength of which depends upon components other than commonly used stock items such as shackles, ropes, or chains, and that has a Safe Working Load (SWL) greater than five short tons (10,000 lbs or 4.54 metric tons) shall be inspected and tested as a unit before initial use (see Table A in paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section). In addition, any special stevedoring gear that suffers damage necessitating structural repair shall be inspected and retested after repair and before being returned to service. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Special stevedoring gear provided by the employer that has a SWL of five short tons (10,000 lbs or 4.54 metric tons) or less shall be inspected and tested as a unit before initial use according to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section or by a designated person (see Table A in this paragraph (c)(5)(ii)).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safe working load 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proof load 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20 short tons (18.1metric tons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent in excess. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 20 through 50 short tons (18.1 to 45.4 metric tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 short tons in excess. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 50 short tons (45.4 metric tons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent in excess.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Every spreader that is not a part of ship's gear and is used for handling intermodal containers shall be inspected and tested before initial use to a proof load equal to 25 percent greater than its rated capacity. In addition, any spreader that suffers damage necessitating structural repair shall be inspected and retested after repair and before being returned to service. 
</P>
<P>(iv) All cargo handling gear covered by this section with a SWL greater than five short tons (10,000 lbs. or 4.54 metric tons) shall be proof load tested according to Table A of this section every 4 years in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section or by a designated person. 
</P>
<P>(v) Certificates and inspection and test records attesting to the tests required by this section shall be available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(6) Wire rope and loose gear obtained after October 3, 1983, and used for material handling shall have been tested and certificated before being placed into use in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (a), (c), and (d) of §§ 1919.31 and 1919.32 through 1919.34 of this chapter as applicable. Certificates attesting to the required tests, inspections and examinations shall be available.
</P>
<P>(d) Disassembly and reassembly of equipment does not require recertification of the equipment provided that the equipment is reassembled and used in a manner consistent with its certification.
</P>
<P>(e) For equipment certificated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section and transferred to a job site in another state, the current certification shall remain valid until the next inspection or examination becomes due.
</P>
<P>(f) Certification procedures shall not be construed as a substitute for, or cause for elimination of, normal operational inspection and maintenance routine throughout the year.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Every unit of equipment requiring quadrennial certification shall have had such quadrennial certification within the previous 48 months. Equipment requiring annual certification shall have had such annual certification within the previous 12 months, except that no annual certification is required within 12 months after any required quadrennial certification. Annual examinations for certification may be accomplished up to one month early without effect on subsequent due dates.
</P>
<P>(2) When certificated equipment is out of service for 6 months or more beyond the due date of a certification inspection, an examination equivalent to an initial certification, including unit proof load test, shall be performed before the equipment re-enters service.
</P>
<P>(h) Loose gear obtained after October 3, 1983 shall bear a legible mark indicating that it has been tested (see paragraph (c)(6) of this section). Single sheave blocks shall be marked with safe working loads and proof test loads. Marks relating to testing shall be identifiable on the related certificates, which shall be available.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Safe working load.</I> (1) The safe working load of gear as specified in this section shall not be exceeded. 
</P>
<P>(2) All cargo handling gear provided by the employer with a safe working load greater than five short tons (10,000 lbs. or 4.54 metric tons) shall have its safe working load plainly marked on it. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Exceptions:</I> The certification requirements of this section do not apply to the following equipment: 
</P>
<P>(1) Small industrial crane trucks as described on page 8 and illustrated on page 13 of ASME B56.1, 1959, “Safety Code for Powered Industrial Trucks”, and powered industrial trucks; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any straddle truck not capable of straddling two or more intermodal containers 16 feet (4.88 m) in width; and
</P>
<P>(3) Gear used only for handling or holding hoses, handling ship's stores or handling the gangway. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 28551, July 13, 1984; 61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996; 62 FR 40200, July 25, 1997; 64 FR 61506, Nov. 12, 1999; 65 FR 40940, June 30, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.51" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.3.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.51   Hand tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hand tools used by employees shall be maintained in safe operating condition.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Hand-held portable electric tools shall be equipped with switches that must be manually held in a closed position to operate the tool.
</P>
<P>(2) Portable power-driven circular saws shall be equipped with guards above and below the base plate or shoe. The upper guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc needed to permit the base to be tilted for bevel cuts. The lower guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc needed to allow proper retraction and contact with the work. When the tool is withdrawn from the work, the lower guard shall automatically and instantly return to the covering position.
</P>
<P>(c) Only cutting tools shall be used to cut metal strapping or banding used to secure cargo. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Specialized Terminals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.70" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.70   General.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this subpart D shall apply to specialized terminals in addition to any other applicable requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.71" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.71   Terminals handling intermodal containers or roll-on roll-off operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every intermodal container shall be legibly and permanently marked with:
</P>
<P>(1) The weight of the container when empty, in pounds;
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum cargo weight the container is designed to carry, in pounds; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sum of the weight of the container and the cargo, in pounds.
</P>
<P>(b) No container shall be hoisted by any crane or derrick unless the following conditions have been met:
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall ascertain from the carrier whether a container to be hoisted is loaded or empty. Empty containers shall be identified before loading or discharge in such a manner as will inform every supervisor and foreman on the site and in charge of loading or discharging, or every crane or other hoisting equipment operator and signalman, if any, that such container is empty. Methods of identification may include cargo plans, manifests or markings on the container.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a loaded container:
</P>
<P>(i) The actual gross weight shall be plainly marked so as to be visible to the crane or other hoisting equipment operator or signalman, or to every supervisor and foreman on the site and in charge of the operation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The cargo stowage plan or equivalent permanently recorded display serving the same purpose, containing the actual gross weight and the serial number or other positive identification of that specific container, shall be provided to the crane or other hoisting equipment operator and signalman, if any, and to every supervisor and foreman on the site and in charge of the operation.
</P>
<P>(3) Every outbound loaded container which is received at a marine terminal ready to load aboard a vessel without further consolidation or loading shall be weighed to obtain the actual gross weight, either at the terminal or elsewhere, before being hoisted.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) When container weighing scales are located at a marine terminal, any outbound container with a load consolidated at that terminal shall be weighed to obtain an actual weight before being hoisted.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the terminal has no scales, the actual gross weight may be calculated on the basis of the container's contents and the container's empty weight. The weights used in the calculation shall be posted conspicuously on the container, with the name of the person making the calculation and the date.
</P>
<P>(5) Open type vehicle carrying containers and those built specifically and used solely for the carriage of compressed gases are excepted from paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Closed dry van containers carrying vehicles are exempted from paragraph (b)(4) of this section provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The container carries only completely assembled vehicles and no other cargo; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The container is marked on the outside in such a manner that an employee can readily discern that the container is carrying vehicles; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The vehicles were loaded into the container at the marine terminal. 
</P>
<P>(7) The weight of loaded inbound containers from foreign ports shall be determined by weighing or by the method of calculation described in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section or by shipping documents. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any scale used within the United States to weigh containers for the purpose of the requirements of this section shall meet the accuracy standards of the state or local public authority in which the scale is located. 
</P>
<P>(c) No container or containers shall be hoisted if their actual gross weight exceeds the weight marked as required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or if it exceeds the capacity of the crane or other hoisting device intended to be used. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Marked or designated areas shall be set aside within a container or roll-on roll-off terminal for passage of employees to and from active cargo transfer points, except where transportation to and from those points is provided by the employer.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall direct employees to stay clear of the area beneath a suspended container.
</P>
<P>(e) Each employee working in the immediate area of container handling equipment or in the terminal's traffic lanes shall wear a high visibility vest (or equivalent protection). 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Decals on hard hats will not be considered equivalent protection for the purposes of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>):</HED>
<P>High visibility vests or equivalent protection means high visibility/retro-reflective materials which are intended to make the user clearly visible by day through the use of high visibility (fluorescent) material and in the dark by vehicle headlights through the use of retro-reflective material. For example, an acceptable area of material for a vest or equivalent protection is .5 m
<SU>2</SU> (760 in.
<SU>2</SU>) for fluorescent (background) material and .13m
<SU>2</SU> (197 in.
<SU>2</SU>) for retro-reflective material. Vests or equivalent protection, such as high visibility/retro-reflective coveralls, that are available for industrial use, may also be acceptable.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) Containers shall be handled using lifting fittings or other arrangements suitable and intended for the purpose as set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(4) of this section, unless damage to an intermodal container makes special means of handling necessary. 
</P>
<P>(1) Loaded intermodal containers of 20 feet (6.1 m) or more in length shall be hoisted as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When hoisting containers by the top fittings, the lifting forces shall be applied vertically from at least four such fittings. A less than vertical lift is permitted only under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(A) The container being lifted is an ISO closed box container; 
</P>
<P>(B) The condition of the box is sound; 
</P>
<P>(C) The speed of hoisting and lowering is moderated when heavily ladened containers 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> are encountered; 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> A heavily laden container is one that is loaded to within 20 percent of its rated capacity.</P></FTNT>
<P>(D) The lift angle is at 80 to 90 degrees; 
</P>
<P>(E) The distance between the lifting beam and the load is at least 8 feet and 2.4 inches (2.5 m); and 
</P>
<P>(F) The length of the spreader beam is at least 16.3 feet (5 m) for a 20-foot container, and at least 36.4 feet (11.1 m) for a 40-foot container. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If hoisted from bottom fittings, the hoisting connections shall bear on the fittings only, making no other contact with the container. The angles of the four bridle legs shall not be less than 30° to the horizontal in the case of 40 foot (12.2 m) containers, 37° in the case of 30 foot (9.1 m) containers, and 45° in the case of 20 foot (6.1 m) containers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lifting containers by fork lift trucks or by grappling arms from above or from one side may be done only if the container is designed for this type of handling.
</P>
<P>(iv) Other means of hoisting may be used only if the containers and hoisting means are designed for such use.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) When using intermodal container spreaders that employ lanyards for activation of load disengagement, all possible precautions shall be taken to prevent accidental release of the load.
</P>
<P>(ii) Intermodal container spreader twistlock systems shall be designed and used so that a suspended load cannot accidentally be released.
</P>
<P>(3) Flat bed trucks or container chassis used to move intermodal containers shall be equipped with pins, flanges, or other means to prevent the container from shifting.
</P>
<P>(4) After July 27, 1998, flat bed, low boy trailers (mafis) and other similar equipment used to transport containers shall be marked with their cargo capacities and shall not be overloaded. 
</P>
<P>(5) Each tractor shall have all brake air lines connected when pulling trailers equipped with air brakes and shall have the brakes tested before commencing operations. 
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Intermodal containers shall be inspected for defects in structural members or fittings before handling.
</P>
<P>(2) Any intermodal container found to be unsafe shall be identified as such, promptly removed from service and repaired before being returned to service.
</P>
<P>(h) Containers shall not be hoisted unless all engaged chassis twist locks are released.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Vertical tandem lifts.</I> The following requirements apply to operations involving the lifting of two or more intermodal containers by the top container (vertical tandem lifts or VTLs). These requirements do not apply to operations involving the lifting of two or more interconnected platform containers.
</P>
<P>(1) Each employee involved in VTL operations shall be trained and competent in the safety-related work practices, safety procedures, and other requirements in this section that pertain to their respective job assignments.
</P>
<P>(2) No more than two intermodal containers may be lifted in a VTL.
</P>
<P>(3) Before the lift begins, the employer shall ensure that the two containers lifted as part of a VTL are empty.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>The lift begins immediately following the end of the prelift required by paragraph (i)(5) of this section. Thus, the weight may be determined during the prelift using a load indicating device meeting § 1917.46(a)(1)(i)(A) on the crane being used to lift the VTL.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) The lift shall be performed using either a shore-based container gantry crane or another type of crane that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has the precision control necessary to restrain unintended rotation of the containers about any axis,
</P>
<P>(ii) Is capable of handling the load volume and wind sail potential of VTLs, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is specifically designed to handle containers.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure that the crane operator pauses the lift when the vertically coupled containers have just been lifted above the supporting surface to assure that each interbox connector is properly engaged.
</P>
<P>(6) Containers below deck may not be handled as a VTL.
</P>
<P>(7) VTL operations may not be conducted when the wind speed exceeds the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) 55 km/h (34 mph or 30 knots) or
</P>
<P>(ii) The crane manufacturer's recommendation for maximum wind speed.
</P>
<P>(8) The employer shall ensure that each interbox connector used in a VTL operation:
</P>
<P>(i) Automatically locks into corner castings on containers but only unlocks manually (manual twistlocks or latchlocks are not permitted);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is designed to indicate whether it is locked or unlocked when fitted into a corner casting;
</P>
<P>(iii) Locks and releases in an identical direction and manner as all other interbox connectors in the VTL;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has been tested and certificated by a competent authority authorized under § 1918.11 of this chapter (for interbox connectors that are part of a vessel's gear) or § 1917.50 (for other interbox connectors):
</P>
<P>(A) As having a load-bearing surface area of 800 mm
<SU>2</SU> when connected to a corner casting with an opening that is 65.0 mm wide; and
</P>
<P>(B) As having a safe working load of 98 kN (10,000 kg) with a safety factor of five when the load is applied by means of two corner castings with openings that are 65.0 mm wide or equivalent devices;
</P>
<P>(v) Has a certificate that is available for inspection and that attests that the interbox connector meets the strength criteria given in paragraph (i)(8)(iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Is clearly and durably marked with its safe working load for lifting and an identifying number or mark that will enable it to be associated with its test certificate.
</P>
<P>(9) The employer shall ensure that each container and interbox connector used in a VTL and each corner casting to which a connector will be coupled is inspected immediately before use in the VTL.
</P>
<P>(i) Each employee performing the inspection shall be capable of detecting defects or weaknesses and be able to assess their importance in relation to the safety of VTL operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The inspection of each interbox connector shall include: a visual examination for obvious structural defects, such as cracks; a check of its physical operation to determine that the lock is fully functional with adequate spring tension on each head; and a check for excessive corrosion and deterioration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The inspection of each container and each of its corner castings shall include: a visual examination for obvious structural defects, such as cracks; a check for excessive corrosion and deterioration; and a visual examination to ensure that the opening to which an interbox connector will be connected has not been enlarged, that the welds are in good condition, and that it is free from ice, mud or other debris.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall establish a system to ensure that each defective or damaged interbox connector is removed from service.
</P>
<P>(v) An interbox connector that has been found to be defective or damaged shall be removed from service and may not be used in VTL operations until repaired.
</P>
<P>(vi) A container with a corner casting that exhibits any of the problems listed in paragraph (i)(9)(iii) of this section may not be lifted in a VTL.
</P>
<P>(vii) The requirements of paragraph (i)(9) of this section do not apply to ship-to-shore VTLs.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Transporting vertically coupled containers.</I> (1) Equipment other than cranes used to transport vertically connected containers shall be either specifically designed for this application or evaluated by a qualified engineer and determined to be capable of operating safely in this mode of operation.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall develop, implement, and maintain a written plan for transporting vertically connected containers. The written plan shall establish procedures to ensure safe operating and turning speeds and shall address all conditions in the terminal that could affect the safety of VTL-related operations, including communication and coordination among all employees involved in these operations.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Safe work zone.</I> The employer shall establish a safe work zone within which employees may not be present when vertically connected containers are in motion.
</P>
<P>(1) The safe work zone shall be sufficient to protect employees in the event that a container drops or overturns.
</P>
<P>(2) The written transport plan required by paragraph (j)(2) of this section shall include the safe work zone and procedures to ensure that employees are not in this zone when a VTL is in motion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40200, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40940, June 30, 2000; 73 FR 75289, Dec. 10, 2008; 79 FR 22020, Apr. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.73" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.73   Terminal facilities handling menhaden and similar species of fish (see also § 1917.2, definition of hazardous cargo, material, substance or atmosphere).</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Tanks in terminal areas used for receiving or storing bailwater for recirculating into vessel holds in discharging operations shall be opened or ventilated to minimize contamination of water circulated to the vessel. Bailwater tanks shall be thoroughly drained upon completion of each day's operations and shall be left open to the air. Drainage is unnecessary when bailwater has been treated to remove hydrogen sulfide-producing contaminants and the efficiency of such treatment has been established by the employer. 
</P>
<P>(2) Before employees enter a dock tank, it shall first be drained, rinsed and tested for hydrogen sulfide and oxygen deficiency. Employees shall not enter the tank when the hydrogen sulfide level exceeds 20 ppm or oxygen content is less than 19.5 percent, except in emergencies.
</P>
<P>(3) Tests shall be conducted by designated personnel with suitable test equipment and respiratory protective equipment complying with the provisions of § 1910.134 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Pipelines and hoses on the dock or terminal used for receiving and circulating used bailwater shall be completely drained upon completion of each day's operation and left open to the air. 
</P>
<P>(c) At least four units of respiratory protective equipment consisting of supplied-air respirators or self-contained breathing apparatus complying with the requirements of § 1910.134 of this chapter shall be available in a suitably labeled cabinet for immediate use in case of emergency caused by oxygen deficiency or hydrogen sulfide. Any employee entering a tank in an emergency shall, in addition to respiratory protective equipment, wear a lifeline and safety harness to facilitate rescue. At least two other employees, similarly equipped, shall be continuously stationed outside the tank to observe and to provide rescue services.
</P>
<P>(d) The plant superintendent and foremen shall be trained and knowledgeable about the hazards of hydrogen sulfide and oxygen deficiency. They shall be trained in the use of appropriate respiratory and other protective equipment, and in rescue procedures. Other supervisory plant personnel shall be informed of these hazards and instructed in the necessary safety measures, including use of respiratory and rescue equipment.
</P>
<P>(e) Supervisory personnel shall be on hand at dockside to supervise discharging of bailwater from vessels. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 40940, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Personal Protection</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.91" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.5.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.91   Eye and face protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1)(i) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses protective eye and face protection devices that comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(A) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1917.3;
</P>
<P>(B) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1917.3;
</P>
<P>or
</P>
<P>(C) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, incorporated by reference in § 1917.3;
</P>
<P>(ii) Protective eye and face protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as protective eye and face protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For employees wearing corrective spectacles, eye protection equipment required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be of a type which can be worn over spectacles. Prescription ground safety lenses may be substituted if they provide equivalent protection.
</P>
<P>(3) For additional requirements covering eye protection against radiant energy, see § 1917.152(h).
</P>
<P>(b) Eye protection equipment shall be maintained in good condition.
</P>
<P>(c) Used eye protection equipment shall be cleaned and disinfected before reissuance to another employee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997; 74 FR 46359, Sept. 9, 2009; 81 FR 16091, Mar. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.92" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.5.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.92   Respiratory protection.</HEAD>
<P>(See § 1917.1(a)(2)(x)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 40941, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.93" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.5.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.93   Head protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears a protective helmet when working in areas where there is a potential for injury to the head from falling objects. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The employer must ensure that head protection complies with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1917.3;
</P>
<P>(ii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1917.3; or
</P>
<P>(iii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, “American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements,” incorporated by reference in § 1917.3.
</P>
<P>(2) Head protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as head protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Protective hats previously worn shall be cleaned and disinfected before issuance by the employer to another employee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997; 74 FR 46359, Sept. 9, 2009; 77 FR 37599, June 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.94" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.5.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.94   Foot protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears protective footwear when working in areas where there is a danger of foot injuries due to falling or rolling objects or objects piercing the sole. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The employer must ensure that protective footwear complies with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) ASTM F-2412-2005, “Standard Test Methods for Foot Protection,” and ASTM F-2413-2005, “Standard Specification for Performance Requirements for Protective Footwear,” which are incorporated by reference in § 1917.3;
</P>
<P>(ii) ANSI Z41-1999, “American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear,” which is incorporated by reference in § 1917.3; or
</P>
<P>(iii) ANSI Z41-1991, “American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear,” which is incorporated by reference in § 1917.3.
</P>
<P>(2) Protective footwear that the employer demonstrates is at least as effective as protective footwear that is constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 46359, Sept. 9, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.95" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.5.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.95   Other protective measures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protective clothing.</I> (1) Employees performing work that requires special protective clothing shall be directed by the employer to wear the necessary special protective clothing.
</P>
<P>(2) When necessary, protective clothing previously worn shall be cleaned and disinfected before reissuance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal flotation devices</I> (<I>PFDs</I>). (1) The employer shall provide, and shall direct the wearing of PFDs for those employees, such as line handlers, who are engaged in work in which they may be pulled into the water: 
</P>
<P>(i) When such employees are working in isolation, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where physical limitations of available working space creates a hazard of falling into the water, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the work area is obstructed by cargo or other obstacles so as to prevent employees from obtaining safe footing for their work.
</P>
<P>(2) PFDs (life preservers, life jackets, or work vests) worn by each affected employee must be United States Coast Guard (USCG) approved pursuant to 46 CFR part 160 (Type I, II, III, or V PFD) and marked for use as a work vest, for commercial use, or for use on vessels. 
</P>
<P>(3) Personal flotation devices shall be maintained in safe condition and shall be considered unserviceable when damaged so as to affect buoyancy or fastening capability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Emergency facilities.</I> When employees are exposed to hazardous substances which may require emergency bathing, eye washing or other facilities, the employer shall provide such facilities and maintain them in good working order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40941, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.96" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.5.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.96   Payment for protective equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section, the protective equipment, including personal protective equipment (PPE), used to comply with this part, shall be provided by the employer at no cost to employees.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer is not required to pay for non-specialty safety-toe protective footwear (including steel-toe shoes or steel-toe boots) and non-specialty prescription safety eyewear, provided that the employer permits such items to be worn off the job-site.
</P>
<P>(c) When the employer provides metatarsal guards and allows the employee, at his or her request, to use shoes or boots with built-in metatarsal protection, the employer is not required to reimburse the employee for the shoes or boots.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer is not required to pay for:
</P>
<P>(1) Everyday clothing, such as long-sleeve shirts, long pants, street shoes, and normal work boots; or
</P>
<P>(2) Ordinary clothing, skin creams, or other items, used solely for protection from weather, such as winter coats, jackets, gloves, parkas, rubber boots, hats, raincoats, ordinary sunglasses, and sunscreen.
</P>
<P>(e) The employer must pay for replacement PPE, except when the employee has lost or intentionally damaged the PPE.
</P>
<P>(f) Where an employee provides adequate protective equipment he or she owns, the employer may allow the employee to use it and is not required to reimburse the employee for that equipment. The employer shall not require an employee to provide or pay for his or her own PPE, unless the PPE is excepted by paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) This section shall become effective on February 13, 2008. Employers must implement the PPE payment requirements no later than May 15, 2008. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1917.96:</HED>
<P>When the provisions of another OSHA standard specify whether or not the employer must pay for specific equipment, the payment provisions of that standard shall prevail.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 64429, Nov. 15, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Terminal Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.111" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.111   Maintenance and load limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The structural integrity of docks, piers, wharves, terminals and working surfaces shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) Maximum safe load limits, in pounds per square foot (kilograms per square meter), of floors elevated above ground level, and pier structures over the water shall be conspicuously posted in all cargo areas.
</P>
<P>(c) Maximum safe load limits shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(d) All walking and working surfaces in the terminal area shall be maintained in good repair.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.112" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.112   Guarding of edges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Vehicle protection.</I> (1) Vehicle curbs, bull rails, or other effective barriers at least six inches (15.24 cm) in height shall be provided at the waterside edges of aprons and bulkheads, except where vehicles are prohibited. Curbs or bull rails installed after October 3, 1983, shall be at least 10 inches (25.4 cm) in height. 
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section also apply at the edge of any fixed level above the common floor area from which vehicles may fall, except at loading docks, platforms and skids where cargo is moved by vehicles.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employee protection.</I> (1) Guardrails shall be provided at locations where employees are exposed to floor or wall openings or waterside edges, including bridges or gangway-like structures leading to pilings or vessel mooring or berthing installations, which present a hazard of falling more than 4 feet (1.22 m) or into the water, except as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Guardrails are not required:
</P>
<P>(i) At loading platforms and docks;
</P>
<P>(ii) At waterside edges used for cargo handling;
</P>
<P>(iii) On the working sides of work platforms, skids or similar workplaces; or
</P>
<P>(iv) On railroad rolling stock, highway vehicles, intermodal containers or similar equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Where guardrails are impracticable due to machinery requirements or work processes, an alternate means of protecting employees from falling, such as nets, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for guardrails.</I> Guardrails shall meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) They shall be capable of withstanding a force of at least 200 pounds (890 N) applied in any direction at mid-span of the top rail (when used), or at the uppermost point if there is no top rail.
</P>
<P>(2) If not of solid baluster, grillwork, slatted or similar construction, guardrails shall consist of top rails and midrails. Midrails, when used, shall be positioned at approximately half the height of the top rail.
</P>
<P>(3) The top surface of guardrails installed before October 3, 1983, shall be at least 36 inches (0.91 m) high. Those installed after October 3, 1983, shall be 42 inches (1.07 m), plus or minus 2 inches (5.1 cm), high. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any non-rigid railing such as chain or wire rope shall have a maximum sag limit at the mid-point between posts of not more than 6 inches (15.24 cm). 
</P>
<P>(5) Top rails shall be free of puncture and laceration hazards.
</P>
<P>(6) Rail ends shall not overhang to constitute a hazard, but this does not prohibit scrollwork, boxed ends or similar non-hazardous projections.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Toeboards.</I> Toeboards shall be provided when employees below could be exposed to falling objects such as tools. Toeboards shall be at least 3
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (8.9 cm) in height from top edge to floor level, and be capable of withstanding a force of 50 pounds (222 N) applied in any direction. Drainage clearance under toeboards is permitted. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stair railings.</I> Stair railings shall be capable of withstanding a force of at least 200 pounds (890 N) applied in any direction, and shall not be more than 36 inches (0.91 m) nor less than 32 inches (0.81 m) in height from the upper top rail surface to the tread surface in line with the leading edge of the tread. Railings and midrails shall be provided at any stairway having four or more risers, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) For stairways less than 44 inches (1.12 m) wide, at least one railing; and
</P>
<P>(2) For stairways more than 44 inches (1.12 m) but less than 88 inches (2.24 m) wide, a stair rail or handrail on each side, and if 88 or more inches wide, an additional intermediate handrail.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Condition.</I> Railings shall be maintained free of sharp edges and in good repair.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40941, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.113" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.113   Clearance heights.</HEAD>
<P>Clearance heights shall be prominently posted where the height is insufficient for vehicles and equipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.114" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.114   Cargo doors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mechanically operated.</I> (1) Cargo door counterweights shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(2) Lift trucks and cranes shall not be used to move mechanically operated doors except when necessary during repair on the doors, in which case ropes or other guarding shall be provided to prevent entry into the area where the door may fall or slide.
</P>
<P>(3) Vertically operated doors partially opened for work or ventilation shall be secured to prevent accidental closing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tackle operated.</I> (1) The door shall be connected to its lifting tackle with shackles or equally secure means.
</P>
<P>(2) Lifting bridles and tackles shall have a safety factor of five, based upon maximum anticipated static loading conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) Devices shall be provided to hold overhead doors in the open position and to secure them when closed.
</P>
<P>(4) Lifting gear and hardware shall be maintained in safe condition.
</P>
<P>(5) Lifting ropes, when used, shall be placed out of the work area and off the floor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Horizontal sliding.</I> (1) Horizontal sliding door rollers shall be constructed to prevent the door from jumping from overhead tracks.
</P>
<P>(2) Sliding doors shall be secured to prevent them from swinging.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.115" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.115   Platforms and skids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Platforms and skids extending from piers, transit sheds or lofts and used for landing or hooking on drafts shall be provided at the open sides with guardrails meeting the requirements of § 1917.112(c) or alternate means, such as nets, to protect employees against falls.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee working below a second-story platform or skid shall be protected from falling objects by a net stretched from the platform or skid to the vessel.
</P>
<P>(c) Platforms and skids shall be strong enough to bear the loads handled and shall be maintained in safe condition. Safe working loads, which shall be posted or marked on or adjacent to platforms and skids, shall have a minimum safety factor of five for any part, based upon maximum anticipated static loading conditions and the ultimate strength of the construction material.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer shall provide and maintain platform and skid attachments that will prevent accidental movement of the skid or platform.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.116" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.116   Elevators and escalators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) “Elevator” means a permanent hoisting and lowering mechanism with a car or platform moving vertically in guides and serving two or more floors of a structure. The term excludes such devices as conveyors, tiering or piling machines, material hoists, skip or furnace hoists, wharf ramps, lift bridges, car lifts and dumpers.
</P>
<P>(b) “Escalator” means a power-driven continuous moving stairway principally intended for the use of persons.
</P>
<P>(c) No elevator or escalator with a defect which affects safety shall be used.
</P>
<P>(d) Elevator safety devices shall not be overridden or made inoperable.
</P>
<P>(e) Elevators and escalators shall be thoroughly inspected at intervals not exceeding one year. Additional monthly inspections for satisfactory operation shall be conducted by designated persons. Records of the results of the latest annual elevator inspections shall be posted in elevators. Records of annual escalator inspections shall be posted in the vicinity of the escalator or be available at the terminal.
</P>
<P>(f) Elevator landing openings shall be provided with doors, gates or equivalent protection which shall be in place when the elevator is not at that landing, to prevent employees from falling into the shaft.
</P>
<P>(g) The elevator's or escalator's maximum load limits shall be posted and not exceeded. Elevator load limits shall be posted conspicuously both inside and outside of the car.
</P>
<P>(h) Elevators shall be operated only by designated persons except for automatic or door interlocking elevators which provide full shaft door closing and automatic car leveling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 28551, July 13, 1984; 61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.117" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.117   Manlifts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inspection.</I> Manlifts shall be inspected monthly by a designated person. Safety switches shall be checked weekly. Manlifts found to be unsafe shall not be operated until repaired. Inspections shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Step fastenings;
</P>
<P>(2) Rails;
</P>
<P>(3) Rail supports and fastenings;
</P>
<P>(4) Roller and slides;
</P>
<P>(5) Belt and belt tension;
</P>
<P>(6) Handholds and fastenings;
</P>
<P>(7) Floor landings;
</P>
<P>(8) Guardrails;
</P>
<P>(9) Lubrication;
</P>
<P>(10) Safety switches;
</P>
<P>(11) Warning signs and lights;
</P>
<P>(12) Illumination;
</P>
<P>(13) Drive pulley;
</P>
<P>(14) Bottom (boot) pulley and clearance;
</P>
<P>(15) Pulley supports;
</P>
<P>(16) Motor;
</P>
<P>(17) Drive mechanism;
</P>
<P>(18) Brake;
</P>
<P>(19) Electrical switches;
</P>
<P>(20) Vibration and misalignment;
</P>
<P>(21) “Skip” on up or down run when mounting the step (indicating worn gears); and 
</P>
<P>(22) Emergency exit ladders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection records.</I> Inspection records shall be kept for at least one year. The record of the most recent inspection shall be posted in the vicinity of the manlift or in the terminal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Emergency stop.</I> An emergency stop device shall be available within easy reach from any position on the belt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Instructions.</I> Manlift use instructions shall be conspicuously posted.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Top floor warning sign and light.</I> An illuminated sign and red light that are visible to the user shall be provided under the top floor opening of the manlift to warn the user to get off at that floor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Bottom floor warning sign.</I> A sign visible to descending passengers shall be provided to warn them to get off at the bottom floor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Upper limit stop.</I> An automatic stop device shall be provided to stop the manlift when a loaded step passes the top landing, except that manlifts installed after October 3, 1983 shall have two such devices.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Handholds and steps.</I> Each step shall be provided with a corresponding handhold.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency ladder.</I> A fixed emergency ladder accessible from any position on the lift and in accordance with the requirements of § 1917.118(d) shall be provided for the entire run of the manlift. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Landings.</I> (1) Clear and unobstructed landing spaces shall be provided at each level. Manlifts constructed after October 3, 1983 and that have a distance of 50 feet (15.24 m) or more between floor landings shall have an emergency landing every 25 feet (7.62 m) or less of manlift travel.
</P>
<P>(2) Open sides of emergency landings shall be protected by guardrails.
</P>
<P>(3) Floor landing entrances and exits shall be guarded by mazes, self-closing gates, or equivalent devices.
</P>
<P>(4) Landings shall be of sufficient size and strength to support 250 pounds (1,112 N). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Floor opening guards.</I> The ascending sides of manlift floor openings shall be provided with cones or bevel guards to direct the user through the openings. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Maintenance.</I> Manlifts shall be equipped, maintained, and used in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications, which shall be available at the terminal.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Bottom pulley.</I> (1) The lower pulley shall be supported by the lowest landing.
</P>
<P>(2) Sides of the bottom pulley support shall be guarded to prevent contact with the pulley or the steps.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Top clearance.</I> A clearance of at least 11 feet (3.35 m) shall be provided between the top landing and the ceiling. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Brakes.</I> Manlifts shall be equipped with brakes that are:
</P>
<P>(1) Self-engaging;
</P>
<P>(2) Electrically released; and
</P>
<P>(3) Capable of stopping and holding the manlift when the descending side is loaded with the maximum rated load.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 40941, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.118" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.118   Fixed ladders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and applicability.</I> This section applies to all fixed ladders except:
</P>
<P>(1) Ladders forming an integral part of railway cars, highway carriers, cargo containers or other transportation carrier equipment;
</P>
<P>(2) Climbing devices such as step bolts or structural members of tanks and towers;
</P>
<P>(3) Ladders built into or vertically attached to tubular scaffold framing; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ladders used only for fire-fighting or emergency purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Cage</I> (basket guard) means a barrier enclosing or nearly enclosing a ladder's climbing space and fastened to one or both of the ladder's side rails or to another structure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fixed ladder</I> means a ladder, including individual rung ladders, permanently attached to a structure, building or piece of equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ladder safety device</I> means a support system limiting an employee's drop or fall from the ladder, and which may incorporate friction brakes, lifelines and lanyards, or sliding attachments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Well</I> means a permanent complete enclosure around a fixed ladder, which is attached to the walls of the well.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Defects.</I> (1) Ladders with broken, split or missing rungs, steps or rails, broken welds or connections, corrosion or wastage or other defect which may affect safe use shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(2) Ladder repairs shall provide strength at least equivalent to that of the original ladder.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ladder specifications.</I> (1)(i) Ladders installed before October 3, 1983, shall be capable of withstanding without damage a minimum concentrated load, applied uniformly over a 3
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (8.9 cm) width at the rung center, of 200 pounds (890 N). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ladders installed after October 3, 1983 shall be capable of withstanding 250 pounds (1,112 N) applied as described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. If used by more than one employee simultaneously, the ladder as a unit shall be capable of simultaneous additional loading in 250 pound (1,112 N) increments for each additional employee, applied to a corresponding number of rungs. The unit shall have a safety factor of four (4), based on ultimate strength, in the designed service. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Ladders installed before October 3, 1983, shall have rungs evenly spaced from nine to 16
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (22.9 to 41.9 cm) apart, center to center. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ladders installed after October 3, 1983 shall have rungs evenly spaced from 12±2 inches (30.5±5.08 cm) apart, center to center. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Ladders installed before October 3, 1983 shall have a width between side rails of at least 10 inches (25.4 cm).
</P>
<P>(ii) Ladders installed after October 3, 1983 shall have a width between side rails of at least 12 inches (30.48 cm).
</P>
<P>(4) The minimum distance between the rung center line and the nearest permanent object behind the rung shall be 4 inches (10.16 cm), except that in ladders installed after October 3, 1983, the minimum distance shall be 7 inches (17.78 cm) unless physical limitations make a lesser distance, not less than 4
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (11.43 cm), necessary. 
</P>
<P>(5) When a ladder passes through an opening or past overhead obstructions, a minimum 24 inch (.61 m) clearance shall exist between the climbing side and any obstruction. Where this distance is less than 30 inches (0.76 m), a deflection device shall be installed for guidance through the opening.
</P>
<P>(6) The side rails of ladders shall extend at least 36 inches (0.91 m) above the top landing surface, unless grab bars or equivalent holds are provided.
</P>
<P>(7) Ladders whose pitch exceeds 90° to the horizontal (slanting backward on the climbing side) shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protection against falls.</I> (1) Fixed ladders more than 20 feet (6.1 m) in height shall be provided with a cage, well, or ladder safety device.
</P>
<P>(2) When a well or cage is used, ladders with length of climb exceeding 30 feet (9.14 m) shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) The ladder shall consist of multiple sections not exceeding 30 feet (9.14 m) each;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each section shall be horizontally offset from adjacent sections, except as specified in paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A landing platform capable of supporting a load of 100 pounds per square foot (4.79 kPa) and fitted with guardrails complying with Sec. 1917.112(c) shall be provided at least every 30 feet (9.14 m), except as specified in paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iv) For ladders installed after October 3, 1983, offset sections and landing platforms are not required if hinged platforms capable of supporting 100 pounds per square foot (4.79 kPa), and which are kept closed except when opened for passage, are within the cage or well at intervals not exceeding 30 feet (9.14 m). 
</P>
<P>(3) Ladders equipped with ladder safety devices shall have rest platforms;
</P>
<P>(i) Capable of supporting a load of 100 pounds per square foot (4.79 kPa);
</P>
<P>(ii) Located at intervals of 150 feet (45.7 m) or less; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Protected by guardrails complying with § 1917.112(c) of three sides.
</P>
<P>(4) Where used, ladder safety devices shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be installed and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, which shall be available for inspection;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be repaired only with replacement parts having performance capability at least equal to that of the original parts; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Have a connection length between carrier centerlines and safety belts of 10±2 inches (25.4±5.08 cm); and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Be installed in a manner that does not reduce the ladder's structural capability.
</P>
<P>(5) Ladder cages or wells shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Be of rigid construction that allows unobstructed use but prevents an employee from falling through or dislodging the cage or well by falling against it;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have smooth inner surfaces;
</P>
<P>(iii) Extend at least 36 inches (0.91m) above landings; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Extend to within 8 feet (2.44 m) above the ground or base, except that a maximum of 20 feet (6.1 m) is permitted where the cage or well would extend into traffic lanes. 
</P>
<P>(6) Ladders installed after (effective date of standard) on radio, microwave communications, electrical power and similar towers, poles and structures, including stacks and chimneys, shall meet the requirements of this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Individual rung ladders.</I> Ladders consisting of individual rungs that are attached to walls, conical manhole sections or river cells shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be capable of supporting a load of 350 pounds (1557 N) without deformation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Form a continuous ladder, uniformly spaced vertically from 12 inches to 16 inches (30.5 to 40.6 cm) apart, with a minimum width of 10 inches (25.4 cm) and projecting at least 4
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (11.43 cm) from the wall; 
</P>
<P>(3) Be so constructed that an employee's foot cannot slide off the ends; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Be firmly attached and without sharp edges.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40941, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.119" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.119   Portable ladders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and applicability.</I> This section applies to all portable ladders, including job-made ladders for temporary use, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards for existing manufactured portable ladders.</I> (1) Rungs of manufactured portable ladders obtained before October 3, 1983, shall be capable of supporting a 200-pound (890 N) load without deformation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Rungs shall be evenly spaced from 9 to 16
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (22.9 to 41.9 cm), center to center.
</P>
<P>(3) Rungs shall be continuous members between rails. Each rung of a double-rung ladder (two side rails and a center rail) shall extend the full width of the ladder.
</P>
<P>(4) Width between side rails at the base of the ladder shall be at least 12 inches (30.48 cm) for ladders 10 feet (3.05 m) or less in overall length, and shall increase at least 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch (0.64 cm) for each additional 2 feet (0.61 m) of ladder length. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards for manufactured portable ladders.</I> Portable manufactured ladders obtained after January 21, 1998 shall bear identification indicating that they meet the appropriate ladder construction requirements of the following standards: 
</P>
<FP-1>ANSI A14.1-1990, Safety Requirements for Portable Wood Ladders 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ANSI A14.2-1990, Safety Requirements for Portable Metal Ladders 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ANSI A14.5-1992, Safety Requirements for Portable Reinforced Plastic Ladders 
</FP-1>
<P>(d) <I>Standards for job-made portable ladders.</I> Job-made ladders shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a minimum and uniform distance between rungs of 12 inches (30.48 cm), center to center; 
</P>
<P>(2) Are capable of supporting a 250-pound (1,112 N) load without deformation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Have a minimum width between side rails of 12 inches (30.48 cm) for ladders 10 feet (3.05 m) in height. Width between rails shall increase at least 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch (0.64 cm) for each additional 2 feet (0.61 m) of ladder length. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Maintenance and inspection.</I> (1) The employer shall maintain portable ladders in safe condition. Ladders with the following defects shall not be used and either shall be tagged as unusable if kept on the premises or shall be removed from the worksite:
</P>
<P>(i) Broken, split or missing rungs, cleats or steps;
</P>
<P>(ii) Broken or split side rails;
</P>
<P>(iii) Missing or loose bolts, rivets or fastenings;
</P>
<P>(iv) Defective ropes; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other structural defect.
</P>
<P>(2) Ladders shall be inspected for defects prior to each day's use, and after any occurrence, such as a fall, which could damage the ladder.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Ladder usage.</I> (1) Ladders made by fastening rungs or devices across a single rail are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) Ladders shall not be used:
</P>
<P>(i) As guys, braces or skids; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As platforms, runways or scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(3) Metal and wire-reinforced ladders with wooden side rails shall not be used when employees on the ladder might come into contact with energized electrical conductors.
</P>
<P>(4) Individual sections from different multi-sectional ladders or two or more single straight ladders shall not be tied or fastened together to achieve additional length. 
</P>
<P>(5) Except for combination ladders, self-supporting ladders shall not be used as single straight ladders.
</P>
<P>(6) Unless intended for cantilever operation, non-self-supporting ladders shall not be used to climb above the top support point.
</P>
<P>(7) Ladders shall extend at least 36 inches (0.91 m) above the upper support level if employees are to leave or mount the ladder at that level, except that where such extension is impractical other equivalent means such as grab bars may be used to provide a hand grip.
</P>
<P>(8) Ladders shall be securely positioned on a level and firm base. 
</P>
<P>(9) Ladders shall be fitted with slip-resistant bases and secured at top or bottom to prevent the ladder from slipping.
</P>
<P>(10) The employer shall direct that ladders shall be placed so that employees climbing are not exposed to injury from projecting objects or doors that open toward the ladder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40941, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.120" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.120   Fixed stairways.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> “Fixed stairway” means interior and exterior stairs serving machinery, tanks and equipment, and stairs to or from floors, platforms or pits. The term does not apply to stairs intended only for fire exit purposes, to articulated stairs (the angle of which changes with the rise and fall of the base support) or to stairs forming an intergral part of machinery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New installations.</I> (1) Fixed stairs installed after October 3, 1983 shall be positioned within the range of 30 degrees to 50 degrees to the horizontal with uniform riser height and tread width throughout each run and be capable of a minimum loading of 100 pounds per square foot (445 N) and a minimum concentrated load of 300 pounds (1,334 N) at the center of any treadspan. Riser height shall be from 6 to 7.5 inches (15.24 to 19.05 cm), stair width a minimum of 22 inches (55.88 cm) between vertical barriers, tread depth a minimum of 12±2 inches (30.48±5.08 cm), and tread nosing shall be straight leading edges. 
</P>
<P>(2) Stair landings shall be at least 20 inches (50.8 cm) in depth. Where doors or gates open on a stairway, a landing platform shall be provided. Door swing shall not reduce effective standing area on the landing to less than 18 inches (45.72 cm) in depth. 
</P>
<P>(3) Fixed stairs having four or more risers shall have stair railings or handrails complying with § 1917.112(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) Railing height from tread surface at the riser face shall be 33±3 inches (83.82 cm ±7.62 cm). 
</P>
<P>(5) Restricted areas. When physical features require stairs steeper than those provided for by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, stairs at angles of 50° to 75° from the horizontal may be used if they:
</P>
<P>(i) Are capable of a single concentrated load of 200 pounds (890 N) at the tread centers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have open treads at least 4 inches (10.16 cm) in depth and 18 inches (45.72 cm) in width with a uniformly spaced vertical rise between treads of 6 to 9.5 inches (15.24 to 24.13 cm); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Have handrails that meet the requirements of § 1917.112(c)(1) on both sides and that are not less than 30 inches (76.2 cm) in height from the tread surface at the riser face.
</P>
<P>(6) Maintenance. Fixed stairways shall be maintained in safe condition and shall not be obstructed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 40942, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.121" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.121   Spiral stairways.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> “Spiral stairway” means one with closed circular form, uniform sector-shaped treads and a supporting column.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> Spiral stairways shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Stairways shall conform to the minimum dimensions of Figure F-1;
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.020.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Spiral Stairway—Minimum Dimensions 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A (half-tread width) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Normal use by employees</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11 inches (27.94 cm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 inches (15.24 cm). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Limited access</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 inches (22.86 cm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 inches (12.7 cm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Stairway risers shall be uniform and shall range from 6
<FR>1/2</FR> to 10
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (16.5 to 26.67 cm) in height; 
</P>
<P>(3) Minimum loading capability shall be 100 pounds per square foot (4.79kN), and minimum tread center concentrated loading shall be 300 pounds (1334 N);
</P>
<P>(4) Railings shall conform to the requirements of § 1917.112(c)(1). If balusters are used, there shall be a minimum of one per tread. Handrails shall be a minimum of 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches (3.18 cm) in outside diameter; and
</P>
<P>(5) Vertical clearance shall be at least 6 feet, 6 inches (1.98 m) above the top step.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance.</I> Spiral stairways shall be maintained in safe condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40942, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.122" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.122   Employee exits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employee exits shall be clearly marked.
</P>
<P>(b) If an employee exit is not visible from employees' work stations, directional signs indicating routes to the exit shall be posted.
</P>
<P>(c) Exits shall be readily accessible and sufficient in number to provide employees with a convenient means of escape in emergencies. A clear passage to the exit shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(d) The minimum width of any employee exit shall be 28 inches (71.12 cm). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 40942, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.123" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.123   Illumination. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The United States Coast Guard, at 33 CFR 126.15(1) and (n), and 33 CFR 154.570 sets out requirements for illumination at “designated waterfront facilities” and “large oil transfer facilities.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) Working and walking areas shall be illuminated. Unless conditions described in the regulations of the United States Coast Guard (33 CFR 126.15(1) and (n), and 33 CFR 154.570) exist in the case of specific operations, illumination in active work areas (for example, cargo transfer points) shall be of an average minimum light intensity of 5 foot-candles. The illumination in other work areas (for example, farm areas) shall be of an average minimum light intensity of 1 foot-candle except for security purposes when a minimum light intensity of 
<FR>1/2</FR> foot-candle shall be maintained. Where occasional work tasks require more light than that which is consistently and permanently provided, supplemental lighting shall be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The lighting intensity shall be measured at the task/working surface, in the plane in which the task/working surface is present.
</P>
<P>(c) Lights shall, so far as possible, be placed so that they will not shine in the eyes of employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.124" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.124   Dockboards (car and bridge plates).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The employer shall provide safe means of passage between different surface levels and across openings.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dockboards (car and bridge plates).</I> (1) Dockboards shall be strong enough to support the loads imposed on them.
</P>
<P>(2) Portable dockboards shall be anchored in position or be equipped with devices to prevent their movement.
</P>
<P>(3) Hand holds or other effective means shall be provided on portable dockboards to permit safe handling.
</P>
<P>(4) Positive means shall be used to prevent railcars or highway vehicles from being moved while dockboards or bridge plates are in position.
</P>
<P>(5) Be designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent vehicles from running off the edge. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> When the gap to be bridged to greater than 36 inches (.91 m), an acceptable means of preventing vehicles from running off the edge is a minimum side board height of two and three-quarter inches.</P></FTNT>
<P>(6) Dockboards shall be well maintained. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ramps.</I> (1) Ramps shall be strong enough to support the loads imposed on them and be designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent vehicles from running off the edge. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> When the gap to be bridged is greater than 36 inches (.91 m), an acceptable means of preventing vehicles from running off the edge is a minumum side board height of two and three-quarter inches.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Ramps shall be equipped with a guardrail meeting the requirement of § 1917.112(c)(1) if the slope is more than 20 degrees to the horizontal or if employees could fall more than 4 feet (1.22 m). 
</P>
<P>(3) Ramps shall have slip-resistant surfaces.
</P>
<P>(4) When necessary to prevent displacement by vehicle wheels, steel plates or similar devices used to temporarily bridge or cover uneven surfaces or tracks, shall be anchored. 
</P>
<P>(5) Ramps shall be well maintained. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40942, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.125" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.125   Guarding temporary hazards.</HEAD>
<P>Ditches, pits, excavations and surfaces in poor repair shall be guarded by readily visible barricades, rails or other equally effective means.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.126" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.126   River banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to temporary installations or temporary operations near a river bank.
</P>
<P>(b) Where working surfaces at river banks slope so steeply that an employee could slip or fall into the water, the outer perimeter of the working surface shall be protected by posting or other portable protection such as roping off. In these situations, employees must wear a personal flotation device meeting the requirements of § 1917.95(b). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40201, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.127" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.127   Sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Washing and toilet facilities.</I> (1) The employer shall provide accessible washing and toilet facilities sufficient for the sanitary requirements of employees. The facilities shall have:
</P>
<P>(i) Running water, including hot and cold or tepid water at a minimum of one accessible location (when cargo handling is conducted at locations without permanent facilities, potable water may be provided in lieu of running water); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Soap;
</P>
<P>(iii) Individual hand towels, clean individual sections of continuous toweling, or air blowers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Fixed or portable toilets in separate compartments with latch-equipped doors. Separate toilet facilities shall be provided for male and female employees except when toilet rooms will be occupied by only one person at a time.
</P>
<P>(2) Washing and toilet facilities shall be regularly cleaned and maintained in good order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Drinking water.</I> (1) Potable drinking water shall be accessible to employees at all times.
</P>
<P>(2) Potable drinking water containers shall be clean, containing only water and ice, and shall be fitted with covers.
</P>
<P>(3) Common drinking cups are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited eating areas.</I> Consumption of food or beverages in areas where hazardous materials are being stored or handled shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Garbage and overboard discharges.</I> Work shall not be conducted in the immediate vicinity of uncovered garbage or in the way of overboard discharges from the vessel's sanitary lines unless employees are protected from the garbage or discharge by a baffle or splash boards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983,, as amended at 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.128" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.6.6.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.128   Signs and marking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Signs required by this part shall be clearly worded and legible, and shall contain a key word or legend indicating the reason for the sign.
</P>
<P>(1) Key words are such words as Danger, Warning, Caution.
</P>
<P>(2) Legends are more specific explanations such as High Voltage, Close Clearance, Pedestrian Crossing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific.</I> Every marine terminal shall have conspicuously posted signs as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Locations of first aid facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Locations of telephones;
</P>
<P>(3) Telephone numbers of the closest ambulance service, hospital or other source of medical attention, police, fire department, and emergency squad (if any); and
</P>
<P>(4) Locations of firefighting and emergency equipment and fire exits.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Related Terminal Operations and Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.151" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.151   Machine guarding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> “Guarded” means shielded, fenced, or enclosed by covers, casings, shields, troughs, spillways or railings, or guarded by position or location. Examples of guarding methods are guarding by location (positioning hazards so they are inaccessible to employees) and point of operation guarding (using barrier guards, two-hand tripping devices, electronic safety devices, or other such devices).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> (1) Danger zones on machines and equipment used by employees shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(2) Where chips and dust produced by machine operation may result in a hazard to the operator, the machinery shall be equipped with an effective exhaust system at the point of origin, or other equally effective means shall be provided to protect the operator.
</P>
<P>(3) Fixed machinery shall be secured to prevent shifting.
</P>
<P>(4) A power cut-off device for machinery and equipment shall be provided at the operator's working position.
</P>
<P>(5) Machines driven by belts and shafting shall be fitted with a belt-locking or equivalent protective device if the belt can be shifted.
</P>
<P>(6) In operations where injury to the operator might result if motors were to restart after power failures, provisions shall be made to prevent machines from automatically restarting upon restoration of power.
</P>
<P>(7) The power supply to machines shall be turned off, locked out, and tagged out during repair, adjustment, or servicing.
</P>
<P>(8) Machines shall be maintained in a safe working condition.
</P>
<P>(9) Only designated employees shall maintain or repair machinery and equipment.
</P>
<P>(10) Machines with defects that affect the safety of operation shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hand-fed circular ripsaws and hand-fed circular crosscut table saws.</I> Unless fixed or manually adjustable enclosures or guarding provides equivalent protection, hand-fed circular ripsaws and hand-fed circular crosscut table saws shall be guarded as follows to keep employees clear of any danger zones:
</P>
<P>(1) They shall be equipped with hoods completely enclosing those portions of the saw above the table and the material being cut;
</P>
<P>(2) They shall have spreaders to prevent material from squeezing the saw. Spreaders shall be in true alignment with the saw. Spreaders may be removed only during grooving, dadoing, or rabbeting operations, and shall be replaced at the completion of such operations; and
</P>
<P>(3) They shall have non-kickback fingers or dogs to oppose the tendency of the saw to pick up material or throw material toward the operator.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Swing cutoff saws.</I> (1) Swing cutoff saws shall have hoods completely enclosing the upper half of the saw, the arbor end and the point of operation at all saw positions to protect the operator from material thrown up by the saw. The hood shall automatically cover the lower portion of the blade, so that when the saw returns to the back of the table the hood rises on top of the fence, and when the saw is moved forward the hood drops on top, remaining in contact with the table or the material.
</P>
<P>(2) Swing cutoff saws shall have a device to return the saw automatically to the back of the table without rebound. The device shall not be dependent upon rope, cord or springs.
</P>
<P>(3) Devices shall be provided to prevent saws from swinging beyond the front or back edges of the table.
</P>
<P>(4) Inverted swing cutoff saws shall have hoods covering the part of the saw protruding above the table top or the material being cut. Hoods shall automatically adjust to the thickness of, and remain in contact with, material being cut.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Radial saws.</I> Unless fixed or manually adjustable enclosures or guards provide equivalent protection, radial saws shall be guarded as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The upper hood of radial saws shall enclose the upper portion of the blade up to and including the end of the saw arbor and shall protect the operator from being struck by debris. The sides of the lower exposed portion of the blade shall be guarded to the blade diameter by a device automatically adjusting to the thickness of the stock and remaining in contact with the stock. The lower guard may be removed only when the saw is used for bevel cuts;
</P>
<P>(2) Radial saws used for ripping shall have non-kickback fingers or dogs on both sides to oppose the thrust or tendency of the saw to pick up material or throw material toward the operator;
</P>
<P>(3) Adjustable stop shall be provided to prevent travel of radial saw blades beyond the table's edge;
</P>
<P>(4) Radial saws shall be installed so that the cutting head returns to the starting position without rebound when released; and
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall direct that employees perform ripping and ploughing against the saw turning direction. Rotation direction and an indication of the end of the saw to be used shall be conspicuously marked on the hood.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Band saws and band resaws.</I> (1) Saw blades and band saw wheels shall be enclosed or guarded, except for the working portion of the blade between the bottom of the guide rolls and the table, to protect employees from point-of-operation hazards and flying debris.
</P>
<P>(2) Band saws shall be equipped with brakes to stop the band saw wheel if the blade breaks.
</P>
<P>(3) Band saws shall be equipped with a tension control device to keep the blade taut.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Abrasive wheels and machinery.</I> (1) Abrasive wheels shall be used only on machines having enclosure guards to restrain pieces of grinding wheels and to protect employees if the wheel breaks, except as provided in paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this section. Where the operator must stand in front of the safety guard opening, the safety guard shall be adjustable or have an adjustable tongue or piece at the top of the opening. The safety guard or the tongue shall be adjusted so that they are always close to the periphery of the wheel. Guards shall be aligned with the wheel and the strength of fastenings shall be greater than the strength of the guard.
</P>
<P>(2) When the work provides equivalent protection, or when the machine is designed as a portable saw, guards may be constructed with the spindle end, nut and outer flange exposed. When the work entirely covers the side of the wheel, the side covers of the guard may be removed.
</P>
<P>(3) Guarding is not required:
</P>
<P>(i) For wheels used for internal work while the wheel is contained within the work being ground; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For mounted wheels 2 inches (5 cm) and smaller in diameter used in portable operations.
</P>
<P>(4) Work rests shall be used on fixed grinding machines. Work rests shall be rigidly constructed and adjustable for wheel wear. They shall be adjusted closely to the wheel with a maximum opening of 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch (3.18 mm) and shall be securely clamped. Adjustment shall not be made while the wheel is in motion. 
</P>
<P>(5) Grinding wheels shall fit freely on the spindle. The spindle nut shall be tightened only enough to hold the wheel in place.
</P>
<P>(6) Grinding machine wheels shall turn at a speed that is compatible with the rated speed of the wheel.
</P>
<P>(7) Flanges and blotters shall be used only with wheels designed for their use. Flanges shall be of a type ensuring retention of pieces of the wheel in case of breakage.
</P>
<P>(8) Abrasive wheels with operational defects shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Rotating parts, drives and connections.</I> (1) Rotating parts, such as gears and pulleys, that are located 7 feet (2.13 m) or less above working surfaces shall be guarded to prevent employee contact with moving parts. 
</P>
<P>(2) Belt, rope and chain drives shall be guarded to prevent employees from coming into contact with moving parts.
</P>
<P>(3) Gears, sprockets and chains shall be guarded to prevent employees from coming into contact with moving parts. This requirement does not apply to manually operated sprockets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 40942, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.152" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.152   Welding, cutting and heating (hot work) 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> (See also § 1917.2, definition of Hazardous cargo, materials, substance, or atmosphere).</HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> The U.S. Coast Guard, at 33 CFR 126.15(c), requires prior permission of the Captain of the Port if welding or other hot work is to be carried out at a facility where dangerous cargoes as defined by 33 CFR 126.07 are located or being handled.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> “Hot work” means riveting, welding, flame cutting or other fire or spark-producing operation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hot work in confined spaces.</I> Hot work shall not be performed in a confined space until a designated person has tested the atmosphere and determined that it is not hazardous.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fire protection.</I> (1) To the extent possible, hot work shall be performed in designated locations that are free of fire hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) When hot work must be performed in a location that is not free of fire hazards, all necessary precautions shall be taken to confine heat, sparks, and slag so that they cannot contact flammable or combustible material.
</P>
<P>(3) Fire extinguishing equipment suitable for the location shall be immediately available and shall be maintained in readiness for use at all times.
</P>
<P>(4) When the hot work operation is such that normal fire prevention precautions are not sufficient, additional personnel shall be assigned to guard against fire during hot work and for a sufficient time after completion of the work to ensure that no fire hazard remains. The employer shall instruct all employees involved in hot work operations as to potential fire hazards and the use of firefighting equipment.
</P>
<P>(5) Drums and containers which contain or have contained flammable or combustible liquids shall be kept closed. Empty containers shall be removed from the hot work area.
</P>
<P>(6) When openings or cracks in flooring cannot be closed, precautions shall be taken to ensure that no employees or flammable or combustible materials on the floor below are exposed to sparks dropping through the floor. Similar precautions shall be taken regarding cracks or holes in walls, open doorways and open or broken windows.
</P>
<P>(7) Hot work shall not be performed:
</P>
<P>(i) In flammable or potentially flammable atmospheres:
</P>
<P>(ii) On or in equipment or tanks that have contained flammable gas or liquid or combustible liquid or dust-producing material, until a designated person has tested the atmosphere inside the equipment or tanks and determined that it is not hazardous; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Near any area in which exposed readily ignitable materials such as bulk sulphur, baled paper or cotton are stored. Bulk sulphur is excluded from this prohibition if suitable precautions are followed, the person in charge is knowledgeable and the person performing the work has been instructed in preventing and extinguishing sulphur fires.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Drums, containers or hollow structures that have contained flammable or combustible substances shall either be filled with water or cleaned, and shall then be ventilated. A designated person shall test the atmosphere and determine that it is not hazardous before hot work is performed on or in such structures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before heat is applied to a drum, container or hollow structure, an opening to release built-up pressure during heat application shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Gas welding and cutting.</I> (1) Compressed gas cylinders: 
</P>
<P>(i) Shall have valve protection caps in place except when in use, hooked up or secured for movement. Oil shall not be used to lubricate caps;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall be hoisted only while secured, as on a cradle or pallet, and shall not be hoisted by magnet, choker sling or cylinder caps;
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall be moved only by tilting or rolling on their bottom edges;
</P>
<P>(iv) Shall be secured when moved by vehicle;
</P>
<P>(v) Shall be secured while in use;
</P>
<P>(vi) Shall have valves closed when cylinders are empty, being moved or stored;
</P>
<P>(vii) Shall be secured upright except when hoisted or carried;
</P>
<P>(viii) Shall not be freed when frozen by prying the valves or caps with bars or by hitting the valve with a tool;
</P>
<P>(ix) Shall not be thawed by boiling water;
</P>
<P>(x) Shall not be exposed to sparks, hot slag, or flame;
</P>
<P>(xi) Shall not be permitted to become part of electrical circuits or have electrodes struck against them to strike arcs; 
</P>
<P>(xii) Shall not be used as rollers or supports; 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Shall not have contents used for purposes not authorized by the supplier; 
</P>
<P>(xiv) Shall not be used if damaged or defective; 
</P>
<P>(xv) Shall not have gases mixed within, except by gas suppliers; 
</P>
<P>(xvi) Shall be stored so that oxygen cylinders are separated from fuel gas cylinders and combustible materials by either a minimum distance of 20 feet (6.1 m) or a barrier having a fire-resistance rating of 30 minutes; and 
</P>
<P>(xvii) Shall not have objects that might either damage the safety device or obstruct the valve placed on top of the cylinder when in use. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of fuel gas.</I> Fuel gas shall be used only as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Before regulators are connected to cylinder valves, the valves shall be opened slightly (cracked) and closed immediately to clear away dust or dirt. Valves shall not be cracked if gas could reach possible sources of ignition; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Cylinder valves shall be opened slowly to prevent regulator damage and shall not be opened more than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> turns. Any special wrench required for emergency closing shall be positioned on the valve stem during cylinder use. For manifolded or coupled cylinders, at least one wrench shall be immediately available. Nothing shall be placed on top of a cylinder or associated parts when the cylinder is in use. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Pressure-reducing regulators shall be attached to cylinder valves when cylinders are supplying torches or devices equipped with shut-off valves; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Cylinder valves shall be closed and gas released from the regulator or manifold before regulators are removed; 
</P>
<P>(v) Leaking fuel gas cylinder valves shall be closed and the gland nut tightened. If the leak continues, the cylinder shall be tagged, removed from service, and moved to a location where the leak will not be hazardous. If a regulator attached to a valve stops a leak, the cylinder need not be removed from the workplace but shall be tagged and may not be used again before it is repaired; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) If a plug or safety device leaks, the cylinder shall be tagged, removed from service, and moved to a location where the leak will not be hazardous. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hose.</I> (i) Fuel gas and oxygen hoses shall be easily distinguishable from each other by color or sense of touch. Oxygen and fuel hoses shall not be interchangeable. Hoses having more than one gas passage shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When oxygen and fuel gas hoses are taped together, not more than four (4) of each 12 inches (10.16 cm of each 30.48 cm) shall be taped. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Hose shall be inspected before use. Hose subjected to flashback or showing evidence of severe wear or damage shall be tested to twice the normal working pressure but not less than 200 p.s.i. (1378.96 kPa) before reuse. Defective hose shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Hose couplings shall not unlock or disconnect without rotary motion. 
</P>
<P>(v) Hose connections shall be clamped or securely fastened to withstand twice the normal working pressure but not less than 300 p.s.i. (2068.44 kPa) without leaking. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Gas hose storage boxes shall be ventilated. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Torches.</I> (i) Torch tip openings shall only be cleaned with devices designed for that purpose. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Torches shall be inspected before each use for leaking shut-off valves, hose couplings and tip connections. Torches with such defects shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Torches shall not be lighted from matches, cigarette lighters, other flames or hot work. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pressure regulators.</I> Pressure regulators, including associated gauges, shall be maintained in safe working order. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Operational precaution.</I> Gas welding equipment shall be maintained free of oil and grease. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Arc welding and cutting.</I> (1) Manual electrode holders. (i) The employer shall ensure that only manual electrode holders intended for arc welding and cutting and capable of handling the maximum current required for such welding or cutting shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Current-carrying parts passing through those portions of the holder gripped by the user and through the outer surfaces of the jaws of the holder shall be insulated against the maximum voltage to ground. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Welding cables and connectors.</I> (i) Arc welding and cutting cables shall be insulated, flexible and capable of handling the maximum current required by the operations, taking into account the duty cycles. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Only cable free from repair or splice for 10 feet (3 m) from the electrode holder shall be used unless insulated connectors or splices with insulating quality equal to that of the cable are provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a cable other than the lead mentioned in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section wears and exposes bare conductors, the portion exposed shall not be used until it is protected by insulation equivalent in performance capacity to the original.
</P>
<P>(iv) Insulated connectors of equivalent capacity shall be used for connecting or splicing cable. Cable lugs, where used as connectors, shall provide electrical contact. Exposed metal parts shall be insulated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ground returns and machine grounding.</I> (i) Ground return cables shall have current-carrying capacity equal to or exceeding the total maximum output capacities of the welding or cutting units served.
</P>
<P>(ii) Structures or pipelines, other than those containing gases or flammable liquids or conduits containing electrical circuits, may be used in the ground return circuit if their current-carrying capacity equals or exceeds the total maximum output capacities of the welding or cutting units served.
</P>
<P>(iii) Structures or pipelines forming a temporary ground return circuit shall have electrical contact at all joints. Arcs, sparks or heat at any point in the circuit shall cause rejection as a ground circuit.
</P>
<P>(iv) Structures or pipelines acting continuously as ground return circuits shall have joints bonded and maintained to ensure that no electrolysis or fire hazard exists.
</P>
<P>(v) Arc welding and cutting machine frames shall be grounded, either through a third wire in the cable containing the circuit conductor or through a separate wire at the source of the current. Grounding circuits shall have resistance low enough to permit sufficient current to flow to cause the fuse or circuit breaker to interrupt the current.
</P>
<P>(vi) Ground connections shall be mechanically and electrically adequate to carry the current.
</P>
<P>(4) When electrode holders are left unattended, electrodes shall be removed and holders placed to prevent employee injury.
</P>
<P>(5) Hot electrode holders shall not be dipped in water.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer shall ensure that when arc welders or cutters leave or stop work or when machines are moved, the power supply switch shall be kept in the off position.
</P>
<P>(7) Arc welding or cutting equipment having a functional defect shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Arc welding and cutting operations shall be separated from other operations by shields, screens, or curtains to protect employees in the vicinity from the direct rays and sparks of the arc.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees in areas not protected from the arc by screening shall be protected by appropriate filter lenses in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section. When welders are exposed to their own arc or to each other's arc, they shall wear filter lenses complying with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) The control apparatus of arc welding machines shall be enclosed, except for operating wheels, levers, and handles.
</P>
<P>(10) Input power terminals, top change devices and live metal parts connected to imput circuits shall be enclosed and accessible only by means of insulated tools. 
</P>
<P>(11) When arc welding is performed in wet or high-humidity conditions, employees shall use additional protection, such as rubber pads or boots, against electric shock.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Ventilation and employee protection in welding, cutting and heating</I>—(1) <I>Mechanical ventilation requirements.</I> The employer shall ensure that general mechanical ventilation or local exhaust systems shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) General mechanical ventilation shall maintain vapors, fumes and smoke below a hazardous level.
</P>
<P>(ii) Local exhaust ventilation shall consist of movable hoods positioned close to the work and shall be of such capacity and arrangement as to keep breathing zone concentrations below hazardous levels.
</P>
<P>(iii) Exhausts from working spaces shall be discharged into the open air, clear of intake air sources;
</P>
<P>(iv) Replacement air shall be clean and respirable; and
</P>
<P>(v) Oxygen shall not be used for ventilation, cooling or cleaning clothing or work areas.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hot work in confined spaces.</I> Except as specified in paragraphs (f)(3)(ii) and (f)(3)(iii) of this section, when hot work is performed in a confined space the employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) General mechanical or local exhaust ventilations shall be provided; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees in the space shall wear supplied air respirators in accordance with § 1910.134 and a standby on the outside shall maintain communication with employees inside the space and shall be equipped and prepared to provide emergency aid.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Welding, cutting or heating of toxic metals.</I> (i) In confined or enclosed spaces, hot work involving the following metals shall only be performed with general mechanical or local exhaust ventilation that ensures that employees are not exposed to hazardous levels of fumes:
</P>
<P>(A) Lead base metals; 
</P>
<P>(B) Cadmium-bearing filler materials; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Chromium-bearing metals or metals coated with chromium-bearing materials. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In confined or enclosed spaces, hot work involving the following metals shall only be performed with local exhaust ventilation meeting the requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section or by employees wearing supplied air respirators in accordance with § 1910.134;
</P>
<P>(A) Zinc-bearing base or filler metals or metals coated with zinc-bearing materials; 
</P>
<P>(B) Metals containing lead other than as an impurity, or coated with lead-bearing materials; 
</P>
<P>(C) Cadmium-bearing or cadmium-coated base metals; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Metals coated with mercury-bearing materials. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees performing hot work in confined or enclosed spaces involving beryllium-containing base or filler metals shall be protected by local exhaust ventilation and wear supplied air respirators or self-contained breathing apparatus, in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.134. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that employees performing hot work in the open air that involves any of the metals listed in paragraphs (f)(3)(i) and (f)(3)(ii) of this section shall be protected by respirators in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.134, and those working on beryllium-containing base or filler metals shall be protected by supplied air respirators, in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.134. 
</P>
<P>(v) Any employee exposed to the same atmosphere as the welder or burner shall be protected by the same type of respiratory and other protective equipment as that worn by the welder or burner. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Inert-gas metal-arc welding.</I> Employees shall not engage in and shall not be exposed to the inert-gas metal-arc welding process unless the following precautions are taken: 
</P>
<P>(i) Chlorinated solvents shall not be used within 200 feet (61 m) of the exposed arc. Surfaces prepared with chlorinated solvents shall be thoroughly dry before welding is performed on them. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees in areas not protected from the arc by screening shall be protected by appropriate filter lenses in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section. When welders are exposed to their own arc or to each other's arc, filter lenses complying with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section shall be worn to protect against flashes and radiant energy. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees exposed to radiation shall have their skin covered completely to prevent ultraviolet burns and damage. Helmets and hand shields shall not have leaks, openings or highly reflective surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Inert-gas metal-arc welding on stainless steel shall not be performed unless exposed employees are protected either by local exhaust ventilation or by wearing supplied air respirators. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Welding, cutting and heating on preservative coatings.</I> (1) Before hot work is commenced on surfaces covered by a preservative coating of unknown flammability, a test shall be made by a designated person to determine the coating's flammability. Preservative coatings shall be considered highly flammable when scrapings burn with extreme rapidity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate precaution shall be taken to prevent ignition of highly flammable hardened preservative coatings. Highly flammable coatings shall be stripped from the area to be heated. An uncoiled fire hose with fog nozzle, under pressure, shall be immediately available in the hot work area.
</P>
<P>(3) Surfaces covered with preservative coatings shall be stripped for at least 4 inches (10.16 cm) from the area of heat application or employees shall be protected by supplied air respirators in accordance with the requirements of § 1910.134 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protection against radiant energy.</I> (1) Employees shall be protected from radiant energy eye hazards by spectacles, cup goggles, helmets, hand shields or face shields with filter lenses complying with the requirements of this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(2) Filter lenses shall have an appropriate shade number, as indicated in Table G-1, for the work performed. Variations of one or two shade numbers are permissible to suit individual preferences.
</P>
<P>(3) If filter lenses are used in goggles worn under the helmet, the shade numbers of both lenses equals the value shown in Table G-1 for the operation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table G-1—Filter Lenses for Protection Against Radiant Energy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operation 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Shade No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soldering</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torch Brazing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 or 4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light cutting, up to 1 inch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 or 4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium cutting, 1-6 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 or 5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy cutting, over 6 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 or 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light gas welding, up to 
<fr>1/8</fr> inch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 or 5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium gas welding, 
<fr>1/8</fr>-
<fr>1/2</fr> inch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 or 6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy gas welding, over 
<fr>1/2</fr> inch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 or 8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shielded Metal-Arc Welding 
<fr>1/16</fr> to 
<fr>5/32</fr>-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inert-gas Metal-Arc Welding (Non-ferrous) 1/16- to 5/32-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shielded Metal-Arc Welding:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3/16- to 
<fr>1/4</fr>-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">5/16- and 
<fr>3/8</fr>-inch electrodes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40942, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.153" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.153   Spray painting (See also § 1917.2, definition of Hazardous cargo, materials, substance, or atmosphere).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section covers painting operations connected with maintenance of structures, equipment and gear at the marine terminal and of transient equipment serviced at the terminal. It does not apply to overall painting of terminal structures under construction, major repair or rebuilding of terminal structures, or portable spraying apparatus not used regularly in the same location.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Spraying area</I> means any area where flammable vapors, mists or combustible residues, dusts or deposits may be present due to paint spraying operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spray booth</I> means an enclosure containing a flammable or combustible spraying operation and confining and limiting the escape of paint, vapor and residue by means of a powered exhaust system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approved</I> means, for the purpose of this section, that the equipment has been approved for the specified use by a nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Spray painting requirements for indoor and outdoor spraying areas and booths.</I> (1) Shut-off valves, containers or piping with attached hoses or flexible connections shall have shut-off valves closed at the connection when not in use.
</P>
<P>(2) Pumps used to transfer paint supplies shall have automatic pressure-relieving devices.
</P>
<P>(3) Hoses and couplings shall be inspected before use. Hoses showing deterioration, leakage or weakness in the carcass or at the couplings shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) No open flame or spark-producing equipment shall be within 20 feet (6.1 m) of a spraying area unless it is separated from the spraying area by a fire-retardant partition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hot surfaces shall not be located in spraying areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever combustible residues may accumulate on electrical installations, wiring shall be in rigid conduit or in boxes containing no taps, splices or connections.
</P>
<P>(iv) Portable electric lights shall not be used during spraying operations. Lights used during cleaning or repairing operations shall be approved for the location in which they are used.
</P>
<P>(5) When flammable or combustible liquids are being transferred between containers, both containers shall be bonded and grounded.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Spraying shall be performed only in designated spray booths or spraying areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spraying areas shall be kept as free from combustible residue accumulations as practicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Residue scrapings, debris, rags, and waste shall be removed from the spraying area as they accumulate.
</P>
<P>(7) Spraying with organic peroxides and other dual-component coatings shall only be conducted in sprinkler-equipped spray booths.
</P>
<P>(8) Only the quantity of flammable or combustible liquids required for the operation shall be allowed in the spraying area, and in no case shall the amount exceed a one-day supply.
</P>
<P>(9) Smoking shall be prohibited and “No Smoking” signs shall be posted in spraying and paint storage areas.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional requirements for spraying areas and spray booths.</I> (1) Distribution or baffle plates shall be of noncombustible material and shall be removable or accessible for cleaning. They shall not be located in exhaust ducts.
</P>
<P>(2) Any discarded filter shall be removed from the work area or placed in water.
</P>
<P>(3) Filters shall not be used when the material being sprayed is highly susceptible to spontaneous heating and ignition.
</P>
<P>(4) Filters shall be noncombustible or of an approved type. The same filter shall not be used when spraying with different coating materials if the combination of materials may spontaneously ignite.
</P>
<P>(5) Spraying areas shall be mechanically ventilated for removal of flammable and combustible vapor and mist.
</P>
<P>(6) Mechanical ventilation shall be in operation during spraying operations and long enough thereafter to exhaust hazardous vapor concentrations.
</P>
<P>(7) Rotating fan elements shall be nonsparking or the casing shall consist of or be lined with nonsparking material.
</P>
<P>(8) Piping systems conveying flammable or combustible liquids to the spraying booth or area shall be made of metal and be both bonded and grounded.
</P>
<P>(9) Air exhausted from spray operations shall not contaminate makeup air or other ventilation intakes. Exhausted air shall not be recirculated unless it is first cleaned of any hazardous contaminants.
</P>
<P>(10) Original closed containers, approved portable tanks, approved safety cans or a piping system shall be used to bring flammable or combustible liquids into spraying areas.
</P>
<P>(11) If flammable or combustible liquids are supplied to spray nozzles by positive displacement pumps, the pump discharge line shall have a relief valve discharging either to a pump section or detached location, or the line shall be equipped with a device to stop the prime mover when discharge pressure exceeds the system's safe operating pressure.
</P>
<P>(12) Wiring, motors and equipment in a spray booth shall be of approved explosion-proof type for Class I, Group D locations and conform to subpart S of Part 1910 of this chapter for Class I, Division 1, Hazardous Locations. Wiring, motors and equipment within 20 feet (6.1m) of any interior spraying area and not separated by vapor-tight partitions shall not produce sparks during operation and shall conform to the requirements of subpart S of Part 1910 of this chapter for Class I, Division 2, Hazardous Locations. 
</P>
<P>(13) Outside electrical lights within 10 feet (3.05m) of spraying areas and not separated from the areas by partitions shall be enclosed and protected from damage. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional requirements for spray booths.</I> (1) Spray booths shall be substantially constructed of noncombustible material and have smooth interior surfaces. Spray booth floors shall be covered with noncombustible material. As an aid to cleaning, paper may be used to cover the floor during painting operations if it is removed after the painting is completed.
</P>
<P>(2) Spray booths shall be separated from other operations by at least 3 feet (0.91m) or by fire-retardant partitions or walls.
</P>
<P>(3) A space of at least 3 feet (0.91m) on all sides of the spray booth shall be maintained free of storage or combustible materials.
</P>
<P>(4) Metal parts of spray booths, exhaust ducts, piping and airless high-pressure spray guns and conductive objects being sprayed shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(5) Electric motors driving exhaust fans shall not be located inside booths or ducts.
</P>
<P>(6) Belts shall not enter ducts or booths unless the belts are completely enclosed.
</P>
<P>(7) Exhaust ducts shall be made of steel, shall have sufficient access doors to permit cleaning, and shall have a minimum clearance of 18 inches (0.46m) from combustible materials. Any installed dampers shall be fully opened when the ventilating system is operating.
</P>
<P>(8) Spray booths shall not be alternately used to spray different types of coating materials if the combination of the materials may spontaneously ignite unless deposits of the first material are removed from the booth and from exhaust ducts before spraying of the second material begins.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 40942, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.154" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.154   Compressed air.</HEAD>
<P>Employees shall be protected by chip guarding and personal protective equipment complying with the provisions of subpart E of this part during cleaning with compressed air. Compressed air used for cleaning shall not exceed a pressure of 30 psi. Compressed air shall not be used to clean employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.155" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.155   Air receivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to compressed air receivers and equipment used for operations such as cleaning, drilling, hoisting and chipping. It does not apply to equipment used to convey materials or in such transportation applications as railways, vehicles or cranes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Gauges and valves.</I> (1) Air receivers shall be equipped with indicating pressure gauges and spring-loaded safety valves. Safety valves shall prevent receiver pressure from exceeding 110 percent of the maximum allowable working pressure.
</P>
<P>(2) No other valves shall be placed between air receivers and their safety valves.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.156" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.156   Fuel handling and storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liquid fuel.</I> (1) Only designated persons shall conduct fueling operations.
</P>
<P>(2) In case of spillage, filler caps shall be replaced and spillage disposed of before engines are started.
</P>
<P>(3) Engines shall be stopped and operators shall not be on the equipment during refueling operations.
</P>
<P>(4) Smoking and open flames shall be prohibited in areas used for fueling, fuel storage or enclosed storage of equipment containing fuel.
</P>
<P>(5) Equipment shall be refueled only at designated locations.
</P>
<P>(6) Liquid fuels not handled by pump shall be handled and transported only in portable containers or equivalent means designed for that purpose. Portable containers shall be metal, have tight closures with screw or spring covers and shall be equipped with spouts or other means to allow pouring without spilling. Leaking containers shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(7) Flammable liquids may be dispensed in the open from a tank or from other vehicles equipped for delivering fuel to another vehicle only if:
</P>
<P>(i) Dispensing hoses do not exceed 50 feet (15.24 m) in length; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any powered dispensing nozzles used are of the automatic-closing type.
</P>
<P>(8) Liquid fuel dispensing devices shall be provided with an easily accessible and clearly identified shut-off device, such as a switch or circuit breaker, to shut off the power in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(9) Liquid fuel dispensing devices, such as pumps, shall be mounted either on a concrete island or be otherwise protected against collision damage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquefied gas fuels</I>—(1) <I>Fueling locations.</I> (i) Liquefied gas powered equipment shall be fueled only at designated locations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment with permanently mounted fuel containers shall be charged outdoors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment shall not be fueled or stored near underground entrances, elevator shafts or other places where gas or fumes might accumulate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fuel containers.</I> (i) When removable fuel containers are used, the escape of fuel when containers are exchanged shall be minimized by:
</P>
<P>(A) Automatic quick-closing couplings (closing in both directions when uncoupled) in fuel lines; or
</P>
<P>(B) Closing fuel container valves and allowing engines to run until residual fuel is exhausted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pressure-relief valve openings shall be in continuous contact with the vapor space (top) of the cylinder.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fuel containers shall be secured to prevent their being jarred loose, slipping or rotating.
</P>
<P>(iv) Containers shall be located to prevent damage to the container. If located within a compartment, that compartment shall be vented. Containers near the engine or exhaust system shall be shielded against direct heat radiation.
</P>
<P>(v) Container installation shall provide the container with at least the vehicle's road clearance under maximum spring deflection, which shall be to the bottom of the container or to the lowest fitting on the container or housing, whichever is lower.
</P>
<P>(vi) Valves and connections shall be protected from contact damage. Permanent protection shall be provided for fittings on removable containers.
</P>
<P>(vii) Defective containers shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fueling operations.</I> (i) To the extent applicable, fueling operations for liquefied gas fuels shall also comply with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Using matches or flames to check for leaks is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(iii) Containers shall be examined before recharging and again before reuse for the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Dents, scrapes and gouges of pressure vessels;
</P>
<P>(B) Damage to valves and liquid level gauges;
</P>
<P>(C) Debris in relief valves;
</P>
<P>(D) Leakage at valves or connections; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Deterioration or loss of flexible seals in filling or servicing connections.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fuel storage.</I> (i) Stored fuel containers shall be located to minimize exposure to excessive temperatures and physical damage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Containers shall not be stored near exits, stairways or areas normally used or intended for egress.
</P>
<P>(iii) Outlet valves of containers in storage or transport shall be closed. Relief valves shall connect with vapor spaces.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Vehicle storage and servicing.</I> (i) Liquefied gas fueled vehicles may be stored or serviced inside garages or shops only if there are no fuel system leaks.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liquefied gas fueled vehicles under repair shall have container shut-off valves closed unless engine operation is necessary for repairs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Liquefied gas fueled vehicles shall not be parked near open flames, sources of ignition or unventilated open pits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997; 65 FR 40943, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.157" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.157   Battery charging and changing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only designated persons shall change or charge batteries.
</P>
<P>(b) Battery charging and changing shall be performed only in areas designated by the employer.
</P>
<P>(c) Smoking and other ignition sources are prohibited in charging areas.
</P>
<P>(d) Filler caps shall be in place when batteries are being moved.
</P>
<P>(e) Parking brakes shall be applied before batteries are charged or changed.
</P>
<P>(f) When a jumper battery is connected to a battery in a vehicle, the ground lead shall connect to ground away from the vehicle's battery. Ignition, lights and accessories on the vehicle shall be turned off before connections are made.
</P>
<P>(g) Batteries shall be free of corrosion buildup and cap vent holes shall be open.
</P>
<P>(h) Adequate ventilation shall be provided during charging.
</P>
<P>(i) Facilities for flushing the eyes, body and work area with water shall be provided wherever electrolyte is handled, except that this requirement does not apply when employees are only checking battery electrolyte levels or adding water.
</P>
<P>(j) Carboy tilters or siphons shall be used to handle electrolyte in large containers.
</P>
<P>(k) Battery handling equipment which could contact battery terminals or cell connectors shall be insulated or otherwise protected.
</P>
<P>(l) Metallic objects shall not be placed on uncovered batteries.
</P>
<P>(m) When batteries are being charged, the vent caps shall be in place.
</P>
<P>(n) Chargers shall be turned off when leads are being connected or disconnected. 
</P>
<P>(o) Installed batteries shall be secured to avoid physical or electrical contact with compartment walls or components.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30909, July 5, 1983, as amended at 62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1917.158" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1917.158   Prohibited operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Spray painting and abrasive blasting operations shall not be conducted in the vicinity of cargo handling operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Welding and burning operations shall not be conducted in the vicinity of cargo handling operations unless such hot work is part of the cargo operation. 





</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.6.7.6.9.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 1917—Special Cargo Gear and Container Spreader Test Requirements (Mandatory) [see § 1917.50(<E T="01">c</E>)(5)]

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Type gear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tested by</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Proof test 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">A. All Special Cargo Handling Gear Purchased or Manufactured on or After January 21, 1998</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Safe Working Load—greater than 5 short tons (10,000 lbs./4.5 metric tons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to initial use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency only</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 20 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">125% SWL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From 20 to 50 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 short tons in excess of SWL 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every four years after initial proof load test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person (40)(1) 125% SWL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 50 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110% SWL 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Safe Working Load—5 short tons or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to initial use
<br/>Prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">125% SWL 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Intermodal container spreaders not part of vessel's cargo handling gear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to initial use
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency only 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every four years after initial proof load test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">125% SWL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">B. All Special Cargo Handling Gear in Use Prior to January 21, 1998</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Any Safe Working Load</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every four years starting on January 21, 1998</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 20 short tons
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to initial use or prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From 20 to 50 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 short tons in excess of SWL 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 50 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110% SWL 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Intermodal container spreaders not part of ship's gear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every four years starting on January 21, 1998</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to initial use or prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">125% SWL</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 40943, June 30, 2000]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1918" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1918—SAFETY AND HEALTH REGULATIONS FOR LONGSHORING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>33 U.S.C. 941; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393), as applicable; and 29 CFR 1911.
</PSPACE><P>Sections 1918.90 and 1918.110 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553.
</P><P>Section 1918.100 also issued under 49 U.S.C. 5101 et seq. and 5 U.S.C. 553.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.1   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations of this part apply to longshoring operations and related employments aboard vessels. All cargo transfer accomplished with the use of shore-based material handling devices is covered by part 1917 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Part 1910 of this chapter does not apply to longshoring except for the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Access to employee exposure and medical records.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1020; 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Commercial diving operations.</I> Subpart T; 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electrical.</I> Subpart S when shore-based electrical installations provide power for use aboard vessels; 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hazard communication.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1200; 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Ionizing radiation.</I> Subpart Z, § 1910.1096; 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Noise.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.95; 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Nonionizing radiation.</I> Subpart G, § 1910.97; 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(7):</HED>
<P>Exposures to nonionizing radiation emissions from commercial vessel radar transmitters are considered hazardous under the following situations: (a) Where the radar is transmitting, the scanner is stationary, and the exposure distance is 19 feet (5.79 m) or less; or (b) where the radar is transmitting, the scanner is rotating, and the exposure distance is 5 feet (1.52 m.) or less.</P></NOTE>
<P>(8) <I>Respiratory protection.</I> Subpart I, § 1910.134;
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Toxic and hazardous substances.</I> Subpart Z applies to marine cargo handling activities except for the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) When a substance or cargo is contained within a sealed, intact means of packaging or containment complying with Department of Transportation or International Maritime Organization requirements;
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The International Maritime Organization publishes the International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code to aid compliance with the international legal requirements of the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, 1960.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Bloodborne pathogens, § 1910.1030; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Carbon monoxide, § 1910.1000 (See § 1918.94(a)); and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Hydrogen sulfide, § 1910.1000 (See § 1918.94(f)); and
</P>
<P>(v) Hexavalent chromium § 1910.1026 (See § 1915.1026) 
</P>
<P>(10) Powered industrial truck operator training, Subpart N, § 1910.178(l).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(10):</HED>
<P>The Compliance dates of December 1, 1999 set forth in 29 CFR 1910.178(l)(7) are stayed until March 1, 2000 for Longshoring.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) Section 1915.1026 applies to any occupational exposures to hexavalent chromium in workplaces covered by this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 66274, Dec. 1, 1998; 64 FR 46847, Aug. 27, 1999; 65 FR 40943, June 30, 2000; 71 FR 10381, Feb. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Barge</I> means an unpowered, flatbottomed, shallow draft vessel including river barges, scows, carfloats, and lighters. It does not include ship shaped or deep draft barges. 
</P>
<P><I>Bulling</I> means the horizontal dragging of cargo across a surface with none of the weight of the cargo supported by the fall. 
</P>
<P><I>Danger zone</I> means any place in or about a machine or piece of equipment where an employee may be struck by or caught between moving parts, caught between moving and stationary objects or parts of the machine, caught between the material and a moving part of the machine, burned by hot surfaces or exposed to electric shock. Examples of danger zones are nip and shear points, shear lines, drive mechanisms, and areas underneath counterweights. 
</P>
<P><I>Designated person</I> means a person who possesses specialized abilities in a specific area and is assigned by the employer to do a specific task in that area. 
</P>
<P><I>Dockboards</I> (car and bridge plates) mean devices for spanning short distances between, for example, two barges, that is not higher than four feet (1.22m) above the water or next lower level. 
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any longshore worker or other person engaged in longshoring operations or related employments other than the master, ship's officers, crew of the vessel, or any person engaged by the master to load or unload any vessel of less than 18 net tons. 
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means a person that employs employees in longshoring operations or related employments, as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Enclosed space</I> means an interior space in or on a vessel that may contain or accumulate a hazardous atmosphere due to inadequate natural ventilation. Examples of enclosed spaces are holds, deep tanks and refrigerated compartments. 
</P>
<P><I>Fall hazard</I> means the following situations: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever employees are working within three feet (.91 m) of the unprotected edge of a work surface that is 8 feet or more (2.44 m) above the adjoining surface and twelve inches (.3 m) or more, horizontally, from the adjacent surface; or
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever weather conditions may impair the vision or sound footing of employees working on top of containers. 
</P>
<P><I>Fumigant</I> is a substance or mixture of substances, used to kill pests or prevent infestation, that is a gas or is rapidly or progressively transformed to the gaseous state, although some nongaseous or particulate matter may remain and be dispersed in the treatment space. 
</P>
<P><I>Gangway</I> means any ramp-like or stair-like means of access provided to enable personnel to board or leave a vessel, including accommodation ladders, gangplanks and brows. 
</P>
<P><I>Hatch beam</I> or <I>strongback</I> mean a portable transverse or longitudinal beam placed across a hatchway that acts as a bearer to support the hatch covers. 
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous cargo, materials, substance or atmosphere</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any substance listed in 29 CFR part 1910, subpart Z; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any material in the Hazardous Materials Table and Hazardous Materials Communications Regulations of the Department of Transportation, 49 CFR part 172; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any article not properly described by a name in the Hazardous Materials Table and Hazardous Materials Communication Regulations of the Department of Transportation, 49 CFR part 172, but which is properly classified under the definitions of those categories of dangerous articles given in 49 CFR part 173; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any atmosphere with an oxygen content of less than 19.5 percent or greater than 23 percent. 
</P>
<P><I>Intermodal container</I> means a reusable cargo container of a rigid construction and rectangular configuration; fitted with devices permitting its ready handling, particularly its transfer from one mode of transport to another; so designed to be readily filled and emptied; intended to contain one or more articles of cargo or bulk commodities for transportation by water and one or more other transport modes. The term includes completely enclosed units, open top units, fractional height units, units incorporating liquid or gas tanks and other variations fitting into the container system. It does not include cylinders, drums, crates, cases, cartons, packages, sacks, unitized loads or any other form of packaging. 
</P>
<P><I>Longshoring operations</I> means the loading, unloading, moving or handling of cargo, ship's stores, gear, or any other materials, into, in, on, or out of any vessel. 
</P>
<P><I>Mississippi River System</I> includes the Mississippi River from the head of navigation to its mouth, and navigable tributaries including the Illinois Waterway, Missouri River, Ohio River, Tennessee River, Allegheny River, Cumberland River, Green River, Kanawha River, Monongahela River, and such others to which barge operations extend. 
</P>
<P><I>Public vessel</I> means a vessel owned and operated by a government and not regularly employed in merchant service. 
</P>
<P><I>Ramp</I> means other flat surface devices for passage between levels and across openings not covered under the term <I>dockboards.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Related employments</I> means any employments performed incidental to or in conjunction with longshoring operations, including, but not restricted to, securing cargo, rigging, and employment as a porter, clerk, checker, or security officer. 
</P>
<P><I>River towboat</I> means a shallow draft, low freeboard, self-propelled vessel designed to tow river barges by pushing ahead. It does not include other towing vessels. 
</P>
<P><I>Ro-Ro operations</I> are those cargo handling and related operations, such as lashing, that occur on Ro-Ro vessels, which are vessels whose cargo is driven on or off the vessel by way of ramps and moved within the vessel by way of ramps and/or elevators. 
</P>
<P><I>Ship's stores</I> means materials that are aboard a vessel for the upkeep, maintenance, safety, operation, or navigation of the vessel, or for the safety or comfort of the vessel's passengers or crew.
</P>
<P><I>Small trimming hatch</I> means a small hatch or opening, pierced in the between deck or other intermediate deck of a vessel, and intended for the trimming of dry bulk cargoes. It does not refer to the large hatchways through which cargo is normally handled. 
</P>
<P><I>Vessel</I> includes every description of watercraft or other artificial contrivance used or capable of being used for transportation on water, including special purpose floating structures not primarily designed for or used for transportation on water. 
</P>
<P><I>Vessel's cargo handling gear</I> includes that gear that is a permanent part of the vessel's equipment and used for the handling of cargo other than bulk liquids. The term covers all stationary or mobile cargo handling appliances used on board ship for suspending, raising or lowering loads or moving them from one position to another while suspended or supported. This includes, but is not limited to, cargo elevators, forklifts, and other powered industrial equipment. It does not include gear used only for handling or holding hoses, handling ship's stores or handling the gangway, or boom conveyor belt systems for the self-unloading of bulk cargo vessels. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000; 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.1.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.3   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) (1) The standards of agencies of the U.S. Government, and organizations which are not agencies of the U.S. Government which are incorporated by reference in this part, have the same force and effect as other standards in this part. Only the mandatory provisions (i.e. provisions containing the word “shall” or other mandatory language) of standards incorporated by reference are adopted as standards under the Occupational Safety and Health Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) The standards listed in paragraph (b) of this section are incorporated by reference in the corresponding sections noted as the sections exist on the date of the approval, and a notice of any change in these standards will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Director of the Federal Register approved these incorporations by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
</P>
<P>(3) Any changes in the standards incorporated by reference in this part and an official historic file of such changes are available for inspection in the Docket Office at the national office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20910; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627).
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of standards listed in this section and issued by private standards organizations are available for purchase from the issuing organizations at the addresses or through the other contact information listed below for these private standards organizations. In addition, these standards are available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, telephone: 202-741-6030, or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Also, the standards are available for inspection at any Regional Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), or at the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-2625, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627). 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as noted, copies of the standards listed below in this paragraph are available for purchase from the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4900; fax: 212-398-0023; Web site:
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI A14.1-1990, Safety Requirements for Portable Wood Ladders; IBR approved for § 1918.24(g)(1). 
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI A14.2-1990, Safety Requirements for Portable Metal Ladders; IBR approved for § 1918.24(g)(2). 
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI A14.5-1992, Safety Requirements for Portable Reinforced Plastic Ladders; IBR approved for § 1918.24(g)(3). 
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI Z41-1999, American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear; IBR approved for § 1918.104(b)(1)(ii). Copies of ANSI Z41-1999 are available for purchase only from the National Safety Council, P.O. Box 558, Itasca, IL 60143-0558; telephone: 1-800-621-7619; fax: 708-285-0797; Web site: <I>http://www.nsc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI Z41-1991, American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear; IBR approved for § 1918.104(b)(1)(iii). Copies of ANSI Z41-1991 are available for purchase only from the National Safety Council, P.O. Box 558, Itasca, IL 60143-0558; telephone: 1-800-621-7619; fax: 708-285-0797; Web site: <I>http://www.nsc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, Approved April 13, 2010; IBR approved for § 1918.101(a). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(7) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, Approved June 19, 2003; IBR approved for § 1918.101(a). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(8) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, Reaffirmation approved January 4, 1999; IBR approved for § 1918.101(a). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection, approved January 26, 2009; IBR approved for § 1918.103(b)(1)(i). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2009 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(10) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection; IBR approved for § 1918.103(b)(1)(ii). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2003 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(11) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements; IBR approved for § 1918.103(b)(1)(iii). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-1997 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Copies of the following standards are available for purchase from ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; telephone: 610-832-9585; fax: 610-832-9555; e-mail: <I>seviceastm.org</I>; Web site: <I>http://www.astm.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM F-2412-2005, Standard Test Methods for Foot Protection; IBR approved for § 1917.94(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM F-2413-2005, Standard Specification for Performance Requirements for Protective Footwear; IBR approved for § 1917.94(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 74 FR 46360, Sept. 9, 2009; 77 FR 37599, June 22, 2012; 81 FR 16091, Mar. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.1.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.4   OMB control numbers under the Paperwork Reduction Act.</HEAD>
<P>The following list identifies the 29 CFR citations for sections or paragraphs in this part that contain a collection of information requirement approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The list also provides the control number assigned by OMB to each approved requirement; control number 1218-0196 expires on May 31, 2002 and control number 1218-0003 expires on July 31, 2001. The list follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">29 CFR citation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB control No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.22(g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.24(i)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.61(b)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.61(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.61(f)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.61(f)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.61(g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.61(h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.61(i)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(b)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(b)(5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(c)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(d)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(g)(3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(g)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(h)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(h)(3)(ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.62(h)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.64(k)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.64(k)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.65(b)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.66(a)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.66(a)(8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.66(a)(9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.66(a)(11)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.66(a)(15)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.66(d)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.66(d)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.66(f)(1)(v)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.85(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.85(b)(4)(ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.85(k)(13)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.86(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.86(e)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.86(g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.86(h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.93(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.93(d)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.94(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.96(e)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.97(d)(7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.100(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1918.100(e)(3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0196</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 61506, Nov. 12, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.1.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.5   Compliance duties owed to each employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Standards in this part requiring the employer to provide personal protective equipment (PPE), including respirators and other types of PPE, because of hazards to employees impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must provide PPE to each employee required to use the PPE, and each failure to provide PPE to an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training.</I> Standards in this part requiring training on hazards and related matters, such as standards requiring that employees receive training or that the employer train employees, provide training to employees, or institute or implement a training program, impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must train each affected employee in the manner required by the standard, and each failure to train an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 75588, Dec. 12, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Gear Certification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.11" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.11   Gear certification (See also §§ 1918.2, definition of “Vessel's cargo handling gear” and 1918.51).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall not use the vessel's cargo handling gear until it has been ascertained that the vessel has a current and valid cargo gear register and certificates that in form and content are in accordance with the recommendations of the International Labor Office, as set forth in appendix I of this part, and as provided by International Labor Organization Convention No. 152, and that shows that the cargo gear has been tested, examined and heat treated by or under the supervision of persons or organizations defined as competent to make register entries and issue certificates pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) Annual thorough examinations under ILO 152 are required after July 27, 1998. 
</P>
<P>(2) Testing under ILO 152 is required after July 16, 2001. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the interim period(s), prior to the effective dates noted in paragraph (a) (1) and (2), vessels with cargo gear and a cargo gear register according to ILO 32 are deemed to meet the requirements of this paragraph (a). 
</P>
<P>(b) Public vessels and vessels holding a valid Certificate of Inspection issued by the U.S. Coast Guard pursuant to 46 CFR part 91 are deemed to meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to U.S. vessels not holding a valid Certificate of Inspection issued by the U.S. Coast Guard, entries in the registers and the issuance of certificates required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be made only by competent persons currently accredited by the U.S. Department of Labor (OSHA) for full function vessels or loose gear and wire rope testing, as appropriate, as provided in part 1919 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to vessels under foreign registries, persons or organizations competent to make entries in the registers and issue the certificates required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) Those acceptable as such to any foreign nation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Those acceptable to the Commandant of the U.S. Coast Guard; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Those currently accredited by the U.S. Department of Labor (OSHA), for full function vessels or loose gear and wire rope testing, as appropriate and as provided in part 1919 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Gangways and Other Means of Access</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.21" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.21   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The employer shall not permit employees to board or leave any vessel, except a barge or river towboat, until all of the applicable requirements of this subpart have been met. 
</P>
<P>(a) If possible, the vessel's means of access shall be located so that suspended loads do not pass over it. In any event, suspended loads shall not be passed over the means of access while employees or others are on it. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the upper end of the means of access rests on or is flush with the top of the bulwark, substantial steps, properly secured, trimmed and equipped with at least one substantial handrail, 33 inches (.84 m) in height, shall be provided between the top of the bulwark and the deck. 
</P>
<P>(c) The means of access shall be illuminated for its full length in accordance with § 1918.92. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> § 1918.92 requires, along with other requirements, an average light intensity of five foot-candles (54 lux).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.22" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.22   Gangways.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever practicable, a gangway of not less than 20 inches (.51 m) in width, of adequate strength, maintained in safe repair and safely secured shall be used. If a gangway is not practicable, a straight ladder meeting the requirements of § 1918.24 that extends at least 36 inches (.91 m) above the upper landing surface and is secured against shifting or slipping shall be provided. When conditions are such that neither a gangway nor straight ladder can be used, a Jacob's ladder meeting the requirements of § 1918.23 may be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each side of the gangway, and the turntable, if used, shall have a hand rail with a minimum height of 33 inches (.84 m) measured perpendicularly from rail to walking surfaces at the stanchion, with a midrail. Rails shall be of wood, pipe, chain, wire, rope or materials of equivalent strength and shall be kept taut always. Portable stanchions supporting railings shall be supported or secured to prevent accidental dislodgement. 
</P>
<P>(c) The gangway shall be kept properly trimmed. 
</P>
<P>(d) When a fixed flat tread accommodation ladder is used, and the angle is low enough to require employees to walk on the edge of the treads, cleated duckboards shall be laid over and secured to the ladder. 
</P>
<P>(e) When the gangway overhangs the water so that there is danger of employees falling between the ship and the dock, a net or suitable protection shall be provided to prevent employees from receiving serious injury from falls to a lower level. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the foot of a gangway is more than one foot (.30 m) away from the edge of the apron, the space between them shall be bridged by a firm walkway equipped with a hand rail with a minimum height of approximately 33 inches (.84 m) with midrails on both sides. 
</P>
<P>(g) Gangways shall be kept clear of supporting bridles and other obstructions, to provide unobstructed passage. If, because of design, the gangway bridle cannot be moved to provide unobstructed passage, then the hazard shall be properly marked to alert employees of the danger. 
</P>
<P>(h) Obstructions shall not be laid on or across the gangway. 
</P>
<P>(i) Handrails and walking surfaces of gangways shall be maintained in a safe condition to prevent employees from slipping or falling. 
</P>
<P>(j) Gangways on vessels inspected and certificated by the U.S. Coast Guard are deemed to meet the requirements of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.23" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.23   Jacob's ladders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Jacob's ladders shall be of the double rung or flat tread type. They shall be well maintained and properly secured. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Jacob's ladder shall either hang without slack from its lashings or be pulled up entirely. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a Jacob's ladder is used as the means of access to a barge being worked, spacers (bumpers) shall be hung between the vessel, barge, or other structure to which the barge is tied alongside, or other equally effective means shall be provided to prevent damage to the bottom rungs of the ladder. 
</P>
<P>(d) When a Jacob's ladder is being used so that there is a danger of an employee falling or being crushed between the vessel, barge, or other structure (pier), suitable protection shall be provided. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.24" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.3.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.24   Fixed and portable ladders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There shall be at least one safe and accessible ladder for each gang working in a single hatch. An effective means of gaining a handhold shall be provided at or near the head of each vertical fixed ladder. No more than two ladders are required in any hatch regardless of the number of gangs present. 
</P>
<P>(b) When any fixed ladder is visibly unsafe (or known to be unsafe), the employer shall identify such ladder and prohibit its use by employees. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where portable straight ladders are used, they shall be of sufficient length to extend three feet (.91 m) above the upper landing surface, and be positively secured or held against shifting or slipping. When conditions are such that a straight ladder cannot be used, Jacob's ladders meeting the requirements of § 1918.23 may be used. 
</P>
<P>(d) For vessels built after July 16, 2001, when six inches (15.24 cm) or more clearance does not exist behind the rungs of a fixed ladder, the ladder shall be deemed “unsafe” for the purposes of this section. Alternate means of access (for example, a portable ladder) must be used. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Where access to or from a stowed deckload or other cargo is needed and no other safe means is available, ladders or steps of adequate strength shall be furnished and positively secured or held against shifting or slipping while in use. Steps formed by the cargo itself are acceptable when the employer demonstrates that the nature of the cargo and the type of stowage provides equivalent safe access. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where portable straight ladders are used they shall be of sufficient length to extend at least three feet (.91 m) above the upper landing surface. 
</P>
<P>(f) The following standards for existing manufactured portable ladders must be met: 
</P>
<P>(1) Rungs of manufactured portable ladders obtained before January 21, 1998 shall be capable of supporting a 200-pound (890 N) load without deformation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Rungs shall be evenly spaced from nine to sixteen and one-half inches (22.9 to 41.9 cm), center to center. 
</P>
<P>(3) Rungs shall be continuous members between rails. Each rung of a double-rung ladder (two side rails and a center rail) shall extend the full width of the ladder. 
</P>
<P>(4) Width between side rails at the base of the ladder shall be at least 12 inches (30.48 cm) for ladders 10 feet (3.05 m) or less in overall length, and shall increase at least one-fourth inch (0.64 cm) for each additional two feet (0.61 m) of ladder length. 
</P>
<P>(g) Portable manufactured ladders obtained after January 21, 1998 shall bear identification showing that they meet the appropriate ladder construction requirements of the following standards: 
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI A14.1-1990, Safety Requirements for Portable Wood Ladders; 
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI A14.2-1990, Safety Requirements for Portable Metal Ladders; 
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI A14.5-1992, Safety Requirements for Portable Reinforced Plastic Ladders. 
</P>
<P>(h) Job-made ladders shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Have a uniform distance between rungs of at least 12 inches (30.48cm) center to center; 
</P>
<P>(2) Be capable of supporting a 250-pound (1,112 N) load without deformation; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Have a minimum width between side rails of 12 inches (30.48 cm) for ladders 10 feet (3.05 m) or less in height. Width between rails shall increase at least one-fourth inch (0.64 cm) for each additional two feet (0.61 m) of ladder length. 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain portable ladders in safe condition. Ladders with the following defects shall not be used, and shall either be tagged as unusable if kept on board, or shall be removed from the vessel: 
</P>
<P>(i) Broken, split or missing rungs, cleats or steps; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Broken or split side rails; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Missing or loose bolts, rivets or fastenings; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Defective ropes; or 
</P>
<P>(v) Any other structural defect. 
</P>
<P>(2) Ladders shall be inspected for defects before each day's use, and after any occurrence, such as a fall, which could damage the ladder. 
</P>
<P>(j) Ladders shall be used in the following manner: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ladders shall be securely positioned on a level and firm base. 
</P>
<P>(2) Ladders shall be fitted with slip-resistant bases and/or be positively secured or held in place to prevent slipping or shifting while in use. 
</P>
<P>(3) Except for combination ladders, self-supporting ladders shall not be used as single straight ladders. 
</P>
<P>(4) Unless intended for cantilever operation, non-self-supporting ladders shall not be used to climb above the top support point. 
</P>
<P>(5) Ladders shall not be used: 
</P>
<P>(i) As guys, braces or skids; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) As platforms, runways or scaffolds. 
</P>
<P>(6) Metal and wire-reinforced ladders (even with wooden side rails) shall not be used when employees on the ladder might contact energized electrical conductors. 
</P>
<P>(7) Individual sections from different multi-sectional ladders or two or more single straight ladders shall not be tied or fastened together to achieve additional length. 
</P>
<P>(8) Single rail ladders (i.e. made by fastening rungs or devices across a single rail) shall not be used. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.25" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.3.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.25   Bridge plates and ramps (See also § 1918.86).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bridge and car plates (dockboards).</I> Bridge and car plates used afloat shall be well maintained and shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be strong enough to support the loads imposed on them; 
</P>
<P>(2) Be secured or equipped with devices to prevent their dislodgement; 
</P>
<P>(3) Be equipped with hand holds or other effective means to permit safe handling; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Be designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent vehicles from running off the edge. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> When the gap to be bridged is greater than 36 inches (.91m), an acceptalbe means of preventing vehicles from running off the edge is a minimum side board height of two and three-quarter inches.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Portable ramps.</I> Portable ramps used afloat shall be well maintained and shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be strong enough to support the loads imposed on them; 
</P>
<P>(2) Be equipped with a railing meeting the requirements of § 1918.21(b), if the slope is more than 20 degrees to the horizontal or if employees could fall more than four feet (1.22 m); 
</P>
<P>(3) Be equipped with a slip resistant surface; 
</P>
<P>(4) Be properly secured; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Be designed, constructed, and maintained to prevent vehicles from running off the edge. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> When the gap to be bridged is greater than 36 inches (.91m), an acceptable means of preventing vehicles from running off the edge is a minimum side board height of two and three-quarter inches.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.26" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.3.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.26   Access to barges and river towboats.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With the exception of § 1918.25(b)(2), ramps used solely for vehicle access to or between barges shall meet the requirements of § 1918.25. 
</P>
<P>(b) When employees cannot step safely to or from the wharf and a float, barge, or river towboat, either a ramp meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section or a safe walkway meeting the requirements of § 1918.22(f) shall be provided. When a ramp or walkway cannot be used, a straight ladder meeting the requirements of § 1918.24 and extending at least three feet (.91 m) above the upper landing surface and adequately secured or held against shifting or slipping shall be provided. When neither a walkway nor a straight ladder can be used, a Jacob's ladder meeting the requirements of § 1918.23 shall be provided. Exception: For barges operating on the Mississippi River System, where the employer shows that these requirements cannot reasonably be met due to local conditions, other safe means of access shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a barge or raft is being worked alongside a larger vessel, a Jacob's ladder meeting the requirements of § 1918.23 shall be provided for each gang working alongside unless other safe means of access is provided. However, no more than two Jacob's ladders are required for any single barge or raft being worked. 
</P>
<P>(d) When longshoring operations are in progress on barges, the barges shall be securely made fast to the vessel, wharf, or dolphins. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Working Surfaces</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.31" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.31   Hatch coverings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No cargo, dunnage, or other material shall be loaded or unloaded by means requiring the services of employees at any partially opened intermediate deck unless either the hatch at that deck is sufficiently covered or an adequate landing area suitable for the prevailing conditions exists. In no event shall such work be done unless the working area available for such employees extends for a distance of 10 feet (3.05 m) or more fore and aft and athwartships. 
</P>
<P>(b) Cargo shall not be landed on or handled over a covered hatch or 'tween-decks unless all hatch beams are in place under the hatch covers. 
</P>
<P>(c) Missing, broken, or poorly fitting hatch covers that would not protect employees shall be reported at once to the officer in charge of the vessel. Pending replacement or repairs by the vessel, work shall not be performed in the section containing the unsafe covers or in adjacent sections unless the flooring is made safe. 
</P>
<P>(d) Hatch covers and hatch beams not of uniform size shall be placed only in the hatch, deck, and section in which they fit properly. 
</P>
<P>(e) Small trimming hatches in intermediate decks shall be securely covered or guarded while work is going on in the hatch in which they are found, unless they are actually in use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.32" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.32   Stowed cargo and temporary landing surfaces.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Temporary surfaces on which loads are to be landed shall be of sufficient size and strength to permit employees to work safely. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the edge of a hatch section or of stowed cargo may constitute a fall hazard to an employee, the edge shall be guarded by a vertical safety net, or other means providing equal protection, to prevent an employee from falling. When the employer can demonstrate that vertical nets or other equally effective means of guarding cannot be used due to the type of cargo, cargo stowage, or other circumstances, a trapeze net shall be rigged at the top edge of the elevation or other means shall be taken to prevent injury if an employee falls. Safety nets shall be maintained in good condition and be of adequate strength for the purpose intended. 
</P>
<P>(c) When two gangs are working in the same hatch on different levels, a vertical safety net shall be rigged and securely fastened to prevent employees or cargo from falling. Safety nets shall be maintained in good condition and be of adequate strength for the purpose intended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.33" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.33   Deck loads.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees shall not be permitted to pass over or around deck loads unless there is a safe route of passage. 
</P>
<P>(b) Employees giving signals to crane operators shall not be permitted to walk over deck loads from rail to coaming unless there is a safe route of passage. If it is necessary to stand or walk at the outboard or inboard edge of the deck load having less than 24 inches (.61 m) of bulwark, rail, coaming, or other protection, those employees shall be provided with protection against falling from the deck load. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.34" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.4.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.34   Other decks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cargo shall not be worked on decks that were not designed to support the load being worked. 
</P>
<P>(b) Grated decks shall be properly placed, supported, maintained and designed to support employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.35" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.4.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.35   Open hatches.</HEAD>
<P>Open weather deck hatches around which employees must work that are not protected to a height of 24 inches (.61 m) by coamings shall be guarded by taut lines or barricades at a height of 36 to 42 inches (.91 to 1.07 m) above the deck, except on the side on which cargo is being worked. Any portable stanchions or uprights used shall be supported or secured to prevent accidental dislodgement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.36" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.4.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.36   Weather deck rails.</HEAD>
<P>Removable weather deck rails shall be kept in place except when cargo operations require them to be removed, in which case they shall be replaced as soon as such cargo operations are completed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.37" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.4.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.37   Barges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Walking shall be prohibited along the sides of covered lighters or barges with coamings or cargo more than five feet (1.52 m) high unless a three-foot (.91 m) clear walkway or a grab rail or taut handline is provided. 
</P>
<P>(b) Walking or working shall be prohibited on the decks of barges to be loaded unless the walking or working surfaces have been determined by visual inspection to be structurally sound and maintained properly. If, while discharging a barge, an unsound deck surface is discovered, work shall be discontinued and shall not be resumed until means have been taken to ensure a safe work surface. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Opening and Closing Hatches</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.41" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.5.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.41   Coaming clearances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Weather decks.</I> If a deck load (such as lumber or other smooth sided deck cargo) more than five feet (1.52 m) high is stowed within three feet (.91 m) of the hatch coaming and employees handling hatch beams and hatch covers are not protected by a coaming at least 24-inch (.61 m) high, a taut handline shall be provided along the side of the deckload. The requirements of § 1918.35 are not intended to apply in this situation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Intermediate decks.</I> (1) There shall be a three-foot (.91 m) working space between the stowed cargo and the coaming at both sides and at one end of the hatches with athwartship hatch beams, and at both ends of those hatches with fore and aft hatch beams, before intermediate deck hatch covers and hatch beams are removed or replaced. Exception: The three-foot (.91 m) clearance is not required on the covered portion of a partially open hatch, nor is it required when lower decks have been filled to hatch beam height with cargo of such a nature as to provide a safe surface upon which employees may work. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, fitted gratings that are in good condition shall be considered a part of the decking when properly placed within the three-foot (.91 m) area. 
</P>
<P>(c) Grab rails or taut handlines shall be provided for the protection of employees handling hatch beams and hatch covers, when bulkheads, lockers, reefer compartments or large spare parts are within three feet (.91 m) of the coaming. 
</P>
<P>(d) The clearances in this section do not apply to hatches opened or closed solely by hydraulic or other mechanical means; except that, in all cases in which the three-foot (.91 m) clearance does not exist, cargo that is stowed within three feet (.91 m) of the edge of the hatch shall be adequately secured to prevent cargo from falling into the hold. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.42" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.5.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.42   Hatch beam and pontoon bridles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hatch beam and pontoon bridles shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) Long enough to reach the holes, rings, or other lifting attachments on the hatch beams and pontoons easily; 
</P>
<P>(2) Of adequate strength to lift the load safely; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Properly maintained, including covering or blunting of protruding ends in wire rope splices. 
</P>
<P>(b) Bridles for lifting hatch beams shall be equipped with toggles, shackles, or hooks, or other devices of such design that they cannot become accidentally dislodged from the hatch beams with which they are used. Hooks other than those described in this section may be used only when they are hooked into the standing part of the bridle. Toggles, when used, shall be at least one inch (2.54 cm) longer than twice the largest diameter of the holes into which they are placed. 
</P>
<P>(c) Bridles used for lifting pontoons and plugs shall have the number of legs required by the design of the pontoon or plug, and all of which shall be used. Where any use of a bridle requires fewer than the number of legs provided, idle legs shall be hung on the hook or ring, or otherwise prevented from swinging free. 
</P>
<P>(d) At least two legs of all strongback and pontoon bridles shall be equipped with a lanyard at least eight feet (2.44 m) long and in good condition. The bridle end of the lanyard shall be of chain or wire. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.43" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.5.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.43   Handling hatch beams and covers.</HEAD>
<P>Paragraphs (f)(2), (g), and (h) of this section apply only to folding, sliding, or hinged metal hatch covers or to those hatch covers handled by cranes. 
</P>
<P>(a) (1) When hatch covers or pontoons are stowed on the weather deck abreast of hatches, they shall be arranged in stable piles not closer to the hatch coaming than three feet (.91 m). Exception: On the working side of the hatch, hatch covers or pontoons may be spread one high between the coaming and bulwark with no space between them, provided the height of the hatch coaming is no less than 24 inches (.61 m). Under no circumstances shall hatch covers or pontoons be stacked higher than the hatch coaming or bulwark on the working side of the hatch. 
</P>
<P>(2) On seagoing vessels, hatch boards or similar covers removed from the hatch beams in a section of partially opened hatch during cargo handling, cleaning or other operations shall not be stowed on the boards or covers left in place within that section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Hatch beams shall be laid on their sides, or stood on an edge close together and lashed. Exception: This paragraph (b) shall not apply in cases where hatch beams are of such design that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The width of the flange is 50 percent or more of the height of the web; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The flange rests flat on the deck when the hatch beam is stood upright. 
</P>
<P>(c) Strongbacks, hatch covers, and pontoons removed from hatch openings and placed on the weather deck shall not obstruct clear fore-and-aft or coaming-to-bulwark passageways and shall be lashed or otherwise secured to prevent accidental dislodgement. Dunnage or other suitable material shall be used under and between tiers of strongbacks and pontoons to prevent them from sliding when stowed on steel decks. 
</P>
<P>(d) Hatch covers unshipped in an intermediate deck shall be placed at least three feet (.91 m) from the coaming or they shall be removed to another deck. Strongbacks unshipped in an intermediate deck shall not be placed closer than six inches (15.24 cm) from the coaming and, if placed closer than three feet (.91 m), shall be secured so that they cannot be tipped or dragged into a lower compartment. If such placement or securement is not possible, strongbacks shall be removed to another deck. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any hatch beam or pontoon left in place next to an open hatch section being worked shall be locked or otherwise secured, so that it cannot be accidentally displaced. All portable, manually handled hatch covers, including those bound together to make a larger cover, shall be removed from any working section, and adjacent sections, unless securely lashed. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) The roller hatch beam at the edge of the open section of the hatch shall be lashed or pinned back so that it cannot be moved toward the open section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Rolling, sectional or telescopic hatch covers of barges that open in a fore and aft direction shall be secured against unintentional movement while in the open position. 
</P>
<P>(g) Hinged or folding hatch covers normally stowed in an approximately vertical position shall be positively secured when in the upright position, unless the design of the system otherwise prevents unintentional movement. 
</P>
<P>(h) Hatches shall not be opened or closed while employees are in the square of the hatch below. 
</P>
<P>(i) All materials such as dunnage, lashings, twist locks, or stacking cones shall be removed from the hatch cover or be secured to prevent them from falling off the cover before the hatch cover is moved. 
</P>
<P>(j) When a hatch is to be covered, hatch covers or night tents shall be used. Any covering that only partially covers the hatch, such as alternate hatch covers or strips of dunnage, shall not be covered by a tarpaulin. Exception: A tarpaulin may be used to cover an open or partially open hatch to reduce dust emissions during bulk cargo loading operations, if positive means are taken to prevent employees from walking on the tarpaulin. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Vessel's Cargo Handling Gear</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.51" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.6.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.51   General requirements (See also § 1918.11 and appendix III of this part).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The safe working load specified in the cargo gear certification papers or marked on the booms shall not be exceeded. Any limitations imposed by the certificating authority shall be followed. 
</P>
<P>(b) All components of cargo handling gear, including tent gantlines and associated rigging, shall be inspected by the employer or a designated person before each use and at appropriate intervals during use. Any gear that is found unsafe shall not be used until it is made safe. 
</P>
<P>(c) The employer shall determine the load ratings shown on the vessel's wire rope certificates for all wire rope and wire rope slings comprising part of ship's gear and shall observe these load ratings. 
</P>
<P>(d) The following limitations shall apply to the use of wire rope as a part of the ship's cargo handling gear: 
</P>
<P>(1) Eye splices in wire ropes shall have at least three tucks with a whole strand of the rope and two tucks with one-half of the wire cut from each strand. Other forms of splices or connections that the employer demonstrates will provide the same level of safety may be used; 
</P>
<P>(2) Except for eye splices in the ends of wires, each wire rope used in hoisting or lowering, in guying derricks, or as a topping lift, preventer, segment of a multi-part preventer, or pendant, shall consist of one continuous piece without knot or splice; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Wire rope and wire rope slings exhibiting any of the defects or conditions specified in § 1918.62(b)(3)(i) through (vi) shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(e) Natural and synthetic fiber rope slings exhibiting any of the defects or conditions specified in § 1918.62(e) (1) through (7) shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(f) Synthetic web slings exhibiting any of the defects or conditions specified in § 1918.62(g)(2)(i) through (vi) shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(g) Chains, including slings, exhibiting any of the defects or conditions specified in § 1918.62 (h)(3) (iii), (iv), or (h)(6) shall not be used. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.52" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.6.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.52   Specific requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preventers.</I> (1) When preventers are used they shall be of sufficient strength for the intended purpose. They shall be secured to the head of the boom independent of working guys unless, for cast fittings, the strength of the fitting exceeds the total strength of all lines secured to it. Any tails, fittings, or other means of making the preventers fast on the deck shall provide strength equal to that of the preventer itself. 
</P>
<P>(2) Wire rope clips or knots shall not be used to form eyes in, nor to join sections of, preventer guys. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stoppers.</I> (1) Chain topping lift stoppers shall be in good condition, equipped with fiber tails, and long enough to allow not fewer than three half-hitches in the chain. 
</P>
<P>(2) Chain stoppers shall be shackled or otherwise secured so that their links are not bent by being passed around fittings. The point of attachment shall be of sufficient strength and so placed that the stoppers are in line with the normal topping lift lead at the time the stopper is applied. 
</P>
<P>(3) Patent stoppers of the clamp type shall be appropriate for the size of the rope used. Clamps shall be in good condition and free of any substance that would prevent their being drawn tight. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Falls.</I> (1) The end of the winch fall shall be secured to the drum by clamps, U-bolts, shackles, or other equally strong methods. Fiber rope fastenings shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(2) Winch falls shall not be used with fewer than three turns on the winch drum. 
</P>
<P>(3) Eyes in the ends of wire rope cargo falls shall not be formed by knots and, in single part falls, shall not be formed by wire rope clips. 
</P>
<P>(4) When the design of the winch permits, the fall shall be wound on the drum so that the cargo hook rises when the winch control lever is pulled back and lowers when the lever is pushed forward. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Heel blocks.</I> (1) When an employee works in the bight formed by the heel block, a preventer at least three-quarters of an inch (1.91 cm) in diameter wire rope shall be securely rigged, or equally effective means shall be taken, to hold the block and fall if the heel block attachments fail. Where physical limitations prohibit the fitting of a wire rope preventer of the required size, two turns of a one-half inch (1.27 cm) diameter wire rope shall be sufficient. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the heel block is not so rigged as to prevent its falling when not under strain, it shall be secured to prevent alternate raising and dropping of the block. This requirement shall not apply when the heel block is at least 10 feet (3.05 m) above the deck when at its lowest point. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Coaming rollers.</I> Portable coaming rollers shall be secured by wire preventers in addition to the regular coaming clamps. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cargo hooks.</I> Cargo hooks shall be as close to the junction of the falls as the assembly permits, but never farther than two feet (.61 m) from it. Exception: This provision shall not apply when the construction of the vessel and the operation in progress are such that fall angles are less than 120 degrees. Overhaul chains shall not be shortened by bolting or knotting. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40944, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.53" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.6.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.53   Cargo winches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Moving parts of winches and other deck machinery shall be guarded. 
</P>
<P>(b) Winches shall not be used if control levers operate with excessive friction or excessive play. 
</P>
<P>(c) Double gear winches or other winches equipped with a clutch shall not be used unless a positive means of locking the gear shift is provided. 
</P>
<P>(d) There shall be no load other than the fall and cargo hook assembly on the winch when changing gears on a two-gear winch. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any defect or malfunction of winches that could endanger employees shall be reported immediately to the officer in charge of the vessel, and the winch shall not be used until the defect or malfunction is corrected. 
</P>
<P>(f) Temporary seats and shelters for winch drivers that create a hazard to the winch operator or other employees shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(g) Except for short handles on wheel type controls, winch drivers shall not be permitted to use winch control extension levers unless they are provided by either the ship or the employer. Such levers shall be of adequate strength and securely fastened with metal connections at the fulcrum and at the permanent control lever. 
</P>
<P>(h) Extension control levers that tend to fall due to their own weight shall be counterbalanced. 
</P>
<P>(i) Winch brakes shall be monitored during use. If winch brakes are unable to hold the load, the winch shall be removed from service. 
</P>
<P>(j) Winches shall not be used when one or more control points, either hoisting or lowering, are not operating properly. Only authorized personnel shall adjust control systems. 
</P>
<P>(k) When winches are left unattended, control levers shall be placed in the neutral position and the power shall be shut off or control levers shall be locked at the winch or the operating controls. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.54" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.6.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.54   Rigging gear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Guy and preventer placement.</I> Each guy or preventer shall be placed to prevent it from making contact with any other guy, preventer, or stay. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guys.</I> When alternate positions for securing guys are provided, the guys shall be so placed as to produce a minimum stress and not permit the boom to jackknife. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Boom placement.</I> The head of the midship boom shall be spotted no farther outboard of the coaming than is necessary for control of the load. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preventers.</I> (1) Preventers shall be properly secured to suitable fittings other than those to which the guys are secured, and shall be as nearly parallel to the guys as the fittings will permit. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the cleat is also a chock and the hauling part is led through the chock opening, the leads of preventers to cleats shall be such that the direction of the line pull of the preventer is as parallel as possible to the plane of the surface on which the cleat is mounted. 
</P>
<P>(3) Guys and associated preventers shall be adjusted to share the load as equally as possible where cargo operations are being conducted by burtoning. Exception: Where guys are designed and intended for trimming purposes only, and the preventer is intended to do the function of the guy, the guy may be left slack. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cargo falls.</I> Cargo falls under load shall not be permitted to chafe on any standing or other running rigging. Exception: Rigging shall not be construed to mean hatch coamings or other similar structural parts of the vessel. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Bull wire.</I> (1) Where a bull wire is taken to a winch head for lowering or topping a boom, the bull wire shall be secured to the winch head by shackle or other equally strong method. Securing by fiber rope fastening does not meet this requirement. 
</P>
<P>(2) When, in lowering or topping a boom, it is not possible to secure the bull wire to the winch head, or when the topping lift itself is taken to the winch head, at least five turns of wire shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Trimming and deckloads.</I> When deck loads extend above the rail and there is less than 12 inches (30.48 cm) horizontal clearance between the edge of the deck load and the inside of the bulwark or rail, a pendant or other alternate device shall be provided to allow trimming of the gear and to prevent employees from going over the side. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40945, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.55" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.6.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.55   Cranes (See also § 1918.11).</HEAD>
<P>The following requirements shall apply to the use of cranes forming part of a vessel's permanent equipment. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Defects.</I> Cranes with a visible or known defect that affects safe operation shall not be used. Defects shall be reported immediately to the officer in charge of the vessel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operator's station.</I> (1) Cranes with missing, broken, cracked, scratched, or dirty glass (or equivalent) that impairs operator visibility shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(2) Clothing, tools and equipment shall be stored so as not to interfere with access, operation or the operator's view. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cargo operations.</I> (1) Accessible areas within the swing radius of the body of a revolving crane or within the travel of a shipboard gantry crane shall be physically guarded or other equally effective means shall be taken during operations to prevent an employee from being caught between the body of the crane and any fixed structure, or between parts of the crane. Verbal warnings to employees to avoid the dangerous area do not meet this requirement. 
</P>
<P>(2) Limit switch bypass systems shall be secured during all cargo operations. Such bypass systems shall not be used except in an emergency or during non-cargo handling operations such as stowing cranes or derricks or performing repairs. Any time a bypass system is used, it shall be done only under the direction of an officer of the vessel. 
</P>
<P>(3) Under all operating conditions, at least three full turns of rope shall remain on ungrooved drums, and two full turns on grooved drums. 
</P>
<P>(4) Crane brakes shall be monitored during use. If crane brakes are unable to hold the load, the crane shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(5) Cranes shall not be used if control levers operate with excessive friction or excessive play. 
</P>
<P>(6) When cranes are equipped with power down capability, there shall be no free fall of the gear when a load is attached. 
</P>
<P>(7) When two or more cranes hoist a load in unison, a designated person shall direct the operation and instruct personnel in positioning, rigging of the gear and movements to be made. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unattended cranes.</I> When cranes are left unattended between work periods, § 1918.66(b) (4)(i) through (v) shall apply. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Cargo Handling Gear and Equipment Other Than Ship's Gear</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.61" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.61   General (See also appendix IV of this part).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employer provided gear inspection.</I> All gear and equipment provided by the employer shall be inspected by the employer or designated person before each use and, when appropriate, at intervals during its use, to ensure that it is safe. Any gear that is found upon such inspection to be unsafe shall not be used until it is made safe. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe working load.</I> (1) The safe working load of gear as specified in §§ 1918.61 through 1918.66 shall not be exceeded. 
</P>
<P>(2) All cargo handling gear provided by the employer with a safe working load greater than five short tons (10,000 lbs. or 4.54 metric tons) shall have its safe working load plainly marked on it. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Gear weight markings.</I> The weight shall be plainly marked on any article of stevedoring gear hoisted by ship's gear and weighing more than 2,000 lbs. (.91 metric tons). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> The employer shall not use any material handling device listed in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section until the device has been certificated, as evidenced by current and valid documents attesting to compliance with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification procedures.</I> Each certification required by this section shall be performed in accordance with part 1919 of this chapter, by a person then currently accredited by OSHA as provided in that part. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special gear.</I> (1) Special stevedoring gear provided by the employer, the strength of which depends upon components other than commonly used stock items such as shackles, ropes, or chains, and that has a Safe Working Load (SWL) greater than five short tons (10,000 lbs or 4.54 metric tons) shall be inspected and tested as a unit before initial use (see Table A in paragraph (f)(2) of this section). In addition, any special stevedoring gear that suffers damage necessitating structural repair shall be inspected and retested after repair and before being returned to service. 
</P>
<P>(2) Special stevedoring gear provided by the employer that has a SWL of five short tons (10,000 lbs. or 4.54 metric tons) or less shall be inspected and tested as a unit before initial use according to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section or by a designated person (see Table A in this paragraph (f)(2)). 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safe working load 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proof load 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20 short tons (18.1 metric tons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent in excess. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 20 through 50 short tons (18.1 to 45.4 metric tons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 short tons in excess 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 50 short tons (45.4 metric tons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent in excess</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) Every spreader that is not a part of ship's gear and is used for handling intermodal containers shall be inspected and tested before initial use to a proof load equal to 25 percent greater than its rated capacity. In addition, any spreader that suffers damage necessitating structural repair shall be inspected and retested after repair and before being returned to service. 
</P>
<P>(h) All cargo handling gear covered by this section with a SWL greater than five short tons (10,000 lbs. or 4.54 metric tons) shall be proof load tested according to Table A in paragraph (f) or paragraph (g), as applicable, of this section every four years and in accordance with paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section or by a designated person. 
</P>
<P>(i) Certificates and inspection and test records attesting to the tests required by this section shall be available for inspection. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40945, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.62" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.62   Miscellaneous auxiliary gear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Routine inspection.</I> (1) At the completion of each use, loose gear such as slings, chains, bridles, blocks and hooks shall be so placed as to avoid damage to the gear. Loose gear shall be inspected and any defects corrected before reuse. 
</P>
<P>(2) Defective gear, as defined by the manufacturers' specifications (when available), shall not be used. Distorted hooks, shackles or similar gear shall be discarded. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>When manufacturers' specifications are not available to determine whether gear is defective, the employer shall use the appropriate paragraphs of this section to make these determinations.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Wire rope and wire rope slings.</I> (1) The employer shall follow the manufacturers' recommended ratings for wire rope and wire rope slings provided for use aboard ship, and shall have such ratings available for inspection. When the manufacturer is unable to supply such ratings, the employer shall use the tables for wire rope and wire rope slings found in appendix II to this part. A design safety factor of at least five shall be maintained for the common sizes of running wire used as falls in purchases, or in such uses as light load slings. 
</P>
<P>(2) Wire rope with a safety factor of less than five may be used only as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) In specialized equipment, such as cranes, designed to be used with lesser wire rope safety factors; 
</P>
<P>(ii) According to design factors in standing rigging applications; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) For heavy lifts or other purposes for which a safety factor of five is not feasible and for which the employer can show that equivalent safety is ensured. 
</P>
<P>(3) Wire rope or wire rope slings provided by the employer and having any of the following conditions shall not be used: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ten randomly distributed broken wires in one rope lay or three or more broken wires in one strand in one rope lay; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Kinking, crushing, bird caging or other damage resulting in distortion of the wire rope structure; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence of heat damage; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Excessive wear or corrosion, deformation or other defect in the wire or attachments, including cracks in attachments; 
</P>
<P>(v) Any indication of strand or wire slippage in end attachments; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) More than one broken wire close to a socket or swaged fitting. 
</P>
<P>(4) Protruding ends of strands in splices on slings and bridles shall be covered or blunted. Coverings shall be removable so that splices can be examined. Means used to cover or blunt ends shall not damage the wire. 
</P>
<P>(5) Where wire rope clips are used to form eyes, the employer shall follow the manufacturers' recommendations, which shall be available for inspection. If “U” bolt clips are used and the manufacturers' recommendations are not available, table 1 of appendix II to this part shall be used to determine the number and spacing of clips. “U” bolts shall be applied with the “U” section in contact with the dead end of the rope. 
</P>
<P>(6) Wire rope shall not be secured by knotting. 
</P>
<P>(7) Eyes in wire rope bridles, slings, bull wires, or in single parts used for hoisting shall not be formed by wire rope clips or knots. 
</P>
<P>(8) Eye splices in wire ropes shall have at least three tucks with a whole strand of the rope, and two tucks with one-half of the wire cut from each strand. Other forms of splices or connections that the employer demonstrates to be equivalently safe may be used. 
</P>
<P>(9) Except for eye splices in the ends of wires and endless rope slings, each wire rope used in hoisting or lowering, or bulling cargo, shall consist of one continuous piece without knot or splice. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Natural fiber rope.</I> (1) The employer shall follow the manufacturers' recommended ratings for natural fiber rope and natural fiber rope slings provided for use aboard ship, and shall have such ratings available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the manufacturers' recommended ratings and use recommendations are unavailable, the employer shall use table 2 of appendix II to this part to determine safe working loads of natural fiber rope slings comprising part of pre-slung drafts. 
</P>
<P>(3) Eye splices shall consist of at least three full tucks. Short splices shall consist of at least six tucks, three on each side of the centerline. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Synthetic rope.</I> (1) The employer shall follow the manufacturers' ratings and use recommendations for the specific synthetic fiber rope and synthetic fiber rope slings provided for use aboard ship, and shall have such ratings available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the manufacturers' recommended ratings and use recommendations are unavailable, tables 3A and B of appendix II to this part shall be used to determine the safe working load of synthetic fiber rope and of synthetic rope slings that comprise this part of pre-slung drafts. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Unless otherwise recommended by the manufacturer, when synthetic fiber ropes are substituted for fiber ropes of less than three inches (7.62 cm) in circumference, the substitute shall be of equal size. Where substituted for fiber rope of three inches or more in circumference, the size of the synthetic rope shall be determined from the formula:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="18" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er30jn00.071.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where C = the required circumference of the synthetic rope in inches, Cs= the circumference to the nearest one-quarter inch of a synthetic rope having a breaking strength not less than that of the size fiber rope that is required by paragraph (c) of this section and Cm = the circumference of the fiber rope in inches that is required by paragraph (c) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) In making such substitution, it shall be ascertained that the inherent characteristics of the synthetic fiber are suitable for hoisting. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Removal of natural and synthetic rope from service.</I> Natural and synthetic rope having any of the following defects shall be removed from service: 
</P>
<P>(1) Abnormal or excessive wear including heat and chemical damage; 
</P>
<P>(2) Powdered fiber between strands; 
</P>
<P>(3) Sufficient cut or broken fibers to affect the capability of the rope; 
</P>
<P>(4) Variations in the size or roundness of strands; 
</P>
<P>(5) Discolorations other than stains not associated with rope damage; 
</P>
<P>(6) Rotting; or 
</P>
<P>(7) Distortion or other damage to attached hardware. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Thimbles.</I> Properly fitting thimbles shall be used when any rope is secured permanently to a ring, shackle or attachment, where practicable. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Synthetic web slings.</I> (1) Slings and nets or other combinations of more than one piece of synthetic webbing assembled and used as a single unit (synthetic web slings) shall not be used to hoist loads greater than the sling's rated capacity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Synthetic web slings shall be removed from service if they exhibit any of the following defects: 
</P>
<P>(i) Acid or caustic burns; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Melting or charring of any part of the sling surface; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Snags, punctures, tears or cuts; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Broken or worn stitches; 
</P>
<P>(v) Distortion or damage to fittings; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Display of visible warning threads or markers designed to indicate excessive wear or damage. 
</P>
<P>(3) Defective synthetic web slings removed from service shall not be returned to service unless repaired by a sling manufacturer or an entity of similar competence. Each repaired sling shall be proof tested by the repairer to twice the sling's rated capacity before its return to service. The employer shall retain a certificate of the proof test and make it available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(4) Synthetic web slings provided by the employer shall only be used according to the manufacturers' use recommendations, which shall be available. 
</P>
<P>(5) Fittings shall have a breaking strength at least equal to that of the sling to which they are attached and shall be free of sharp edges. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Chains and chain slings used for hoisting.</I> (1) The employer shall follow the manufacturers' recommended ratings for safe working loads for the size of wrought iron and alloy steel chains and chain slings and shall have such ratings available for inspection. When the manufacturer does not provide such ratings, the employer shall use table 4A of appendix II to this part to determine safe working loads for alloy steel chains and chain slings only. 
</P>
<P>(2) Proof coil steel chain, also known as common or hardware chain, and other chain not recommended by the manufacturer for slinging or hoisting shall not be used for slinging or hoisting. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Sling chains, including end fastenings, shall be inspected for visible defects before each day's use and as often as necessary during use to ensure integrity of the sling. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Thorough inspections of chains in use shall be made quarterly to detect wear, defective welds, deformation or increase in length or stretch. The month of inspection shall be shown on each chain by color of paint on a link or by other equally effective means. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Chains shall be removed from service when maximum allowable wear, as indicated in table 4B of appendix II to this part, is reached at any point of a link. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Chain slings shall be removed from service when stretch has increased the length of a measured section by more than 5 percent; when a link is bent, twisted or otherwise damaged; or when a link has a raised scarf or defective weld. 
</P>
<P>(v) Only designated persons shall inspect chains used for slinging and hoisting. 
</P>
<P>(4) Chains shall only be repaired by a designated person. Links or portions of a chain defective under any of the criteria of paragraph (h)(3)(iv) of this section shall be replaced with properly dimensioned links or connections of material similar to that of the original chain. Before repaired chains are returned to service, they shall be tested to the proof test load recommended by the manufacturer for the original chain. Tests shall be done by the manufacturer or shall be certified by an agency accredited for the purpose under part 1919 of this chapter. Test certificates shall be available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Wrought iron chains in constant use shall be annealed or normalized at intervals not exceeding six months. Heat treatment certificates shall be available for inspection. Alloy chains shall not be annealed. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any part of a lifting appliance or item of loose gear installed after January 21, 1998 shall not be manufactured of wrought iron. 
</P>
<P>(6) Kinked or knotted chains shall not be used for lifting. Chains shall not be shortened by bolting, wiring or knotting. Makeshift links or fasteners such as wire, bolts or rods shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(7) Hooks, rings, links and attachments affixed to sling chains shall have rated capacities at least equal to those of the chains to which they are attached. 
</P>
<P>(8) Chain slings shall bear identification of size, grade and rated capacity. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Shackles.</I> (1) If the manufacturers' recommended safe working loads for shackles are available, they shall not be exceeded. If the manufacturers' recommendations are not available, table 5 of appendix II to this part shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(2) Screw pin shackles provided by the employer and used aloft, except in cargo hook assemblies, shall have their pins positively secured. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hooks other than hand hooks.</I> (1) The manufacturer's recommended safe working loads for hooks shall not be exceeded. Hooks other than hand hooks shall be tested before initial use in accordance with the provisions of § 1919.31 (a), (c), and (d) of this chapter. <I>Exception:</I> Manufacturers' test certificates indicating performance to the criteria in § 1919.31 (a), (c) and (d) of this chapter shall be acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(2) Bent or sprung hooks shall be discarded. 
</P>
<P>(3) Teeth of case hooks shall be maintained in safe condition. 
</P>
<P>(4) Jaws of patent clamp-type plate hooks shall be maintained in condition to grip plates securely. 
</P>
<P>(5) Loads shall be applied to the throat of the hook only. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Pallets.</I> (1) Pallets shall be made and maintained to support and carry loads being handled safely. Fastenings of reusable pallets used for hoisting shall be bolts and nuts, drive screws (helically threaded nails), annular threaded nails or fastenings of equivalent holding strength. 
</P>
<P>(2) Reusable wing or lip-type pallets shall be hoisted by bar bridles or other suitable gear and shall have an overhanging wing or lip of at least three inches (7.6 cm). They shall not be hoisted by wire slings alone. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loaded pallets that do not meet the requirements of this paragraph shall be hoisted only after being placed on pallets meeting such requirements, or shall be handled by other means providing equivalent safety. 
</P>
<P>(4) Bridles for handling flush end or box-type pallets shall be designed to prevent disengagement from the pallet under load. 
</P>
<P>(5) Pallets shall be stacked or placed to prevent falling, collapsing or otherwise causing a hazard under standard operating conditions. 
</P>
<P>(6) Disposable pallets intended only for one use shall not be reused for hoisting. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40945, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.63" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.63   Chutes, gravity conveyors and rollers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Chutes shall be of adequate length and strength to support the conditions of use, and shall be free of splinters and sharp edges. 
</P>
<P>(b) When necessary for the safety of employees, chutes shall be equipped with sideboards to afford protection from falling objects. 
</P>
<P>(c) When necessary for the safety of employees, provisions shall be made for stopping objects other than bulk commodities at the delivery end of the chute. 
</P>
<P>(d) Chutes and gravity conveyor roller sections shall be firmly placed and secured to prevent displacement, shifting, or falling. 
</P>
<P>(e) Gravity conveyors shall be of sufficient strength to support the weight of materials placed upon them safely. Conveyor rollers shall be installed in a way that prevents them from falling or jumping out of the frame. 
</P>
<P>(f) Frames shall be kept free of burrs and sharp edges. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.64" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.64   Powered conveyors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Emergency stop.</I> Readily accessible stop controls shall be provided for use in an emergency. Whenever the operation of any power conveyor requires personnel to work close to the conveyor, the conveyor controls shall not be left unattended while the conveyor is in operation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guarding.</I> All conveyor and trimmer drives that create a hazard shall be adequately guarded. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approved for location.</I> Electric motors and controls on conveyors and trimmers used to handle grain and exposed to grain dust shall be of a type approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory for use in Class II, Division I locations. (See § 1910.7 of this chapter.) 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grain trimmer control box.</I> Each grain trimmer shall have a control box on the weather deck close to the spout feeding the trimmer. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Grain trimmer power cable.</I> Power cables between the deck control box and the grain trimmer shall be used only in continuous lengths without splice or tap between connections. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Portable conveyors.</I> Portable conveyors shall be stable within their operating ranges. When used at variable fixed levels, the unit shall be secured at the operating level. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Delivery and braking.</I> When necessary for the safety of employees, provisions shall be made for braking objects at the delivery end of the conveyor. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electric brakes.</I> Conveyors using electrically released brakes shall be constructed so that the brakes cannot be released until power is applied and the brakes are automatically engaged if the power fails or the operating control is returned to the “stop” position. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Starting powered conveyors.</I> Powered conveyors shall not be started until all employees are clear of the conveyor or have been warned that the conveyor is about to start up. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Loading and unloading.</I> The area around conveyor loading and unloading points shall be kept clear of obstructions during conveyor operations. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Lockout/tagout.</I> (1) Conveyors shall be stopped and their power sources locked out and tagged out during maintenance, repair, and servicing. If power is necessary for testing or for making minor adjustments, power shall only be supplied to the servicing operation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The starting device shall be locked out and tagged out in the stop position before an attempt is made to remove the cause of a jam or overload of the conveying medium. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Safe practices.</I> (1) Only designated persons shall operate, repair or service powered conveyors. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each employee stays off operating conveyors. 
</P>
<P>(3) Conveyors shall be operated only with all overload devices, guards and safety devices in place and operable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.65" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.65   Mechanically powered vehicles used aboard vessels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to every type of mechanically powered vehicle used for material or equipment handling aboard a vessel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> (1) Modifications, such as adding counterweights that might affect the vehicle's capacity or safety, shall not be done without either the manufacturers' prior written approval or the written approval of a registered professional engineer experienced with the equipment, who has consulted with the manufacturer, if available. Capacity, operation and maintenance instruction plates, tags or decals shall be changed to conform to the equipment as modified. 
</P>
<P>(2) Rated capacities, with and without removable counterweights, shall not be exceeded. Rated capacities shall be marked on the vehicle and shall be visible to the operator. The vehicle weight, with and without a counterweight, shall be similarly marked. 
</P>
<P>(3) If loads are lifted by two or more trucks working in unison, the total weight shall not exceed the combined safe lifting capacity of all trucks. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Guards for fork lift trucks.</I> (1) Except as noted in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, fork lift trucks shall be equipped with overhead guards securely attached to the machines. The guard shall be of such design and construction as to protect the operator from boxes, cartons, packages, bagged material, and other similar items of cargo that might fall from the load being handled or from stowage. 
</P>
<P>(2) Overhead guards shall not obstruct the operator's view, and openings in the top of the guard shall not exceed six inches (15.24 cm) in one of the two directions, width or length. Larger openings are permitted if no opening allows the smallest unit of cargo being handled through the guard. 
</P>
<P>(3) Overhead guards shall be built so that failure of the vehicle's mast tilting mechanism will not displace the guard. 
</P>
<P>(4) Overhead guards shall be large enough to extend over the operator during all truck operations, including forward tilt. 
</P>
<P>(5) An overhead guard may be removed only when it would prevent a truck from entering a work space and only if the operator is not exposed to low overhead obstructions in the work space. 
</P>
<P>(6) Where necessary to protect the operator, fork lift trucks shall be fitted with a vertical load backrest extension to prevent the load from hitting the mast when the mast is positioned at maximum backward tilt. For this purpose, a “load backrest extension” means a device extending vertically from the fork carriage frame to prevent raised loads from falling backward. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Guards for bulk cargo-moving vehicles.</I> (1) Every crawler type, rider operated, bulk cargo-moving vehicle shall be equipped with an operator's guard of such design and construction as to protect the operator, when seated, against injury from contact with a projecting overhead hazard. 
</P>
<P>(2) Overhead guards and their attachment points shall be so designed as to be able to withstand, without excessive deflection, a load applied horizontally at the operator's shoulder level equal to the drawbar pull of the machine. 
</P>
<P>(3) Overhead guards are not required when the vehicle is used in situations in which the seated operator cannot contact projecting overhead hazards. 
</P>
<P>(4) After July 26, 1999, bulk cargo-moving vehicles shall be equipped with rollover protection of such design and construction as to prevent the possibility of the operator being crushed because of a rollover or upset. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Approved trucks.</I> (1) “Approved power-operated industrial truck” means one listed as approved for the intended use or location by a nationally recognized testing laboratory (see § 1910.7 of this chapter). 
</P>
<P>(2) Approved power-operated industrial trucks shall bear a label or other identification indicating testing laboratory approval. 
</P>
<P>(3) When the atmosphere in an area is hazardous (see § 1918.2 and § 1918.93), only approved power-operated industrial trucks shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Maintenance.</I> (1) Mechanically powered vehicles shall be maintained in safe working order. Safety devices shall not be removed or made inoperative except where permitted in this section. Vehicles with a fuel system leak or any other safety defect shall not be operated. 
</P>
<P>(2) Braking systems or other mechanisms used for braking shall be operable and in safe condition. 
</P>
<P>(3) Replacement parts whose function might affect operational safety shall be equivalent in strength and performance capability to the original parts that they replace. 
</P>
<P>(4) Repairs to the fuel and ignition systems of mechanically powered vehicles that involve fire hazards shall be conducted only in locations designated as safe for such repairs. 
</P>
<P>(5) Batteries on all mechanically powered vehicles shall be disconnected during repairs to the primary electrical system except when power is necessary for testing and repair. On vehicles equipped with systems capable of storing residual energy, that energy shall be safely discharged before work on the primary electrical system begins. 
</P>
<P>(6) Only designated persons shall do maintenance and repair. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Parking brakes.</I> All mechanically powered vehicles purchased after January 21, 1998, shall be equipped with parking brakes. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Operation.</I> (1) Only stable and safely arranged loads within the rated capacity of the mechanically powered vehicle shall be handled. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall require drivers to ascend and descend grades slowly. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the load obstructs the forward view, the employer shall require drivers to travel with the load trailing. 
</P>
<P>(4) Steering knobs shall not be used unless the vehicle is equipped with power steering. 
</P>
<P>(5) When mechanically powered vehicles use cargo lifting devices that have a means of engagement hidden from the operator, a means shall be provided to enable the operator to determine that the cargo has been engaged. 
</P>
<P>(6) No load on a mechanically powered vehicle shall be suspended or swung over any employee. 
</P>
<P>(7) When mechanically powered vehicles are used, provisions shall be made to ensure that the working surface can support the vehicle and load, and that hatch covers, truck plates, or other temporary surfaces cannot be dislodged by movement of the vehicle. 
</P>
<P>(8) When mechanically powered vehicles are left unattended, load-engaging means shall be fully lowered, controls neutralized, brakes set and power shut off. Wheels shall be blocked or curbed if the vehicle is on an incline. 
</P>
<P>(9) When lift trucks or other mechanically powered vehicles are being operated on open deck-type barges, the edges of the barges shall be guarded by railings, sideboards, timbers, or other means sufficient to prevent vehicles from rolling overboard. When such vehicles are operated on covered lighters where door openings other than those being used are left open, means shall be provided to prevent vehicles from rolling overboard through such openings. 
</P>
<P>(10) Unauthorized personnel shall not ride on mechanically powered vehicles. A safe place to ride shall be provided when riding is authorized. 
</P>
<P>(11) An employee may be elevated by fork lift trucks only when a platform is secured to the lifting carriage or forks. The platform shall meet the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(i) The platform shall have a railing complying with § 1917.112(c) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The platform shall have toeboards complying with § 1917.112(d) of this chapter, if tools or other objects could fall on employees below. 
</P>
<P>(iii) When the truck has controls elevated with the lifting carriage, means shall be provided for employees on the platform to shut off power to the vehicle. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Employees on the platform shall be protected from exposure to moving truck parts. 
</P>
<P>(v) The platform floor shall be skid resistant. 
</P>
<P>(vi) An employee shall be at the truck's controls whenever employees are elevated. 
</P>
<P>(vii) While an employee is elevated, the truck may be moved only to make minor adjustments in placement. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40945, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.66" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.66   Cranes and derricks other than vessel's gear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The following requirements shall apply to the use of cranes and derricks brought aboard vessels for conducting longshoring operations. They shall not apply to cranes and derricks forming part of a vessel's permanent equipment. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certification.</I> Cranes and derricks shall be certificated in accordance with part 1919 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Posted weight.</I> The crane weight shall be posted on all cranes hoisted aboard vessels for temporary use. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rating chart.</I> All cranes and derricks having ratings that vary with boom length, radius (outreach) or other variables shall have a durable rating chart visible to the operator, covering the complete range of the manufacturers' (or design) capacity ratings. The rating chart shall include all operating radii (outreach) for all permissible boom lengths and jib lengths, as applicable, with and without outriggers, and alternate ratings for optional equipment affecting such ratings. Precautions or warnings specified by the owner or manufacturer shall be included along with the chart. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rated loads.</I> The manufacturers' (or design) rated loads for the conditions of use shall not be exceeded. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Change of rated loads.</I> Designated working loads shall not be increased beyond the manufacturers' ratings or original design limitations unless such increase receives the manufacturers' approval. When the manufacturers' services are not available or where the equipment is of foreign manufacture, engineering design analysis shall be done or approved by a person accredited for certificating the equipment under part 1919 of this chapter. Engineering design analysis shall be done by a registered professional engineer competent in the field of cranes and derricks. Any structural changes required by the change in rating shall be carried out. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Radius indicator.</I> When the rated load varies with the boom radius, the crane or derrick shall be fitted with a boom angle or radius indicator visible to the operator. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Operator's station.</I> The cab, controls and mechanism of the equipment shall be so arranged that the operator has a clear view of the load or signalman, when one is used. Cab glass, when used, shall be safety plate glass or equivalent. Cranes with missing, broken, cracked, scratched, or dirty glass (or equivalent), that impairs operator vision shall not be used. Clothing, tools, and equipment shall be stored so as not to interfere with access, operation, and the operator's view. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Counterweights or ballast.</I> Cranes shall be operated only with the specified type and amount of ballast or counterweights. Ballast or counterweights shall be located and secured only as provided in the manufacturers' or design specifications, which shall be available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Outriggers.</I> Outriggers shall be used according to the manufacturers' specifications or design data, which shall be available for inspection. Floats, when used, shall be securely attached to the outriggers. Wood blocks or other support shall be of sufficient size to support the outrigger, free of defects that may affect safety, and of sufficient width and length to prevent the crane from shifting or toppling under load. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Exhaust gases.</I> Engine exhaust gases shall be discharged away from crane operating personnel. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Electrical/Guarding.</I> Electrical equipment shall be so placed or enclosed that live parts will not be exposed to accidental contact. Designated persons may work on energized equipment only if necessary during inspection, maintenance, or repair; otherwise the equipment shall be stopped and its power source locked out and tagged out. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Fire extinguisher.</I> (i) At least one portable approved or listed fire extinguisher of at least a 5-B:C rating or equivalent shall be accessible in the cab of the crane or derrick. 
</P>
<P>(ii) No portable fire extinguisher using carbon tetrachloride or chlorobromomethane extinguishing agents shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Rope on drums.</I> At least three full turns of rope shall remain on ungrooved drums, and two turns on grooved drums, under all operating conditions. Wire rope shall be secured to drums by clamps, U-bolts, shackles or equivalent means. Fiber rope fastenings are prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Brakes.</I> (i) Each independent hoisting unit of a crane shall be equipped with at least one holding brake, applied directly to the motor shaft or gear train. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each independent hoisting unit of a crane shall, in addition to the holding brake, be equipped with a controlled braking means to control lowering speeds. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Holding brakes for hoist units shall have not less than the following percentage of the rated load hoisting torque at the point where the brake is applied: 
</P>
<P>(A) 125 percent when used with an other than mechanically controlled braking means; 
</P>
<P>(B) 100 percent when used with a mechanically controlled braking means; or 
</P>
<P>(C) 100 percent when two holding brakes are provided. 
</P>
<P>(iv) All power control braking means shall be capable of maintaining safe lowering speeds of rated loads. 
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Operating controls.</I> Crane and derrick operating controls shall be clearly marked, or a chart showing their function shall be posted at the operator's position. 
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Booms.</I> Cranes with elevatable booms and without operable automatic limiting devices shall be provided with boom stops if boom elevation can exceed maximum design angles from the horizontal. 
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Foot pedals.</I> Foot pedals shall have a non-skid surface. 
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Access.</I> Ladders, stairways, stanchions, grab irons, foot steps or equivalent means shall be provided as necessary to ensure safe access to footwalks, cab platforms, the cab and any portion of the superstructure that employees must reach. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operations</I>—(1) <I>Use of cranes together.</I> When two or more cranes hoist a load in unison, a designated person shall direct the operation and instruct personnel in positioning, rigging of the load and movements to be made. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guarding of swing radius.</I> Accessible areas within the swing radius of the body of a revolving crane shall be physically guarded during operations to prevent an employee from being caught between the body of the crane and any fixed structure or between parts of the crane. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibited usage.</I> (i) Equipment shall not be used in a way that exerts side loading stresses upon the crane or derrick boom. 
</P>
<P>(ii) No crane or derrick having a visible or known defect that may affect safe operation shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unattended cranes.</I> The following steps shall be taken before leaving a crane unattended between work periods: 
</P>
<P>(i) Suspended loads, such as those hoisted by lifting magnets or clamshell buckets, shall be landed unless the storage position or maximum hoisting of the suspended device will provide equivalent safety; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Clutches shall be disengaged; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The power supply shall be shut off; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The crane shall be secured against accidental travel; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The boom shall be lowered or secured against movement. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection for employees being hoisted.</I> (1) No employee shall be hoisted by the load hoisting apparatus of a crane or derrick except on a platform meeting the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(i) Enclosed by a railing or other means providing protection equivalent to that described in § 1917.112(c) of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Fitted with toe boards if the platform has open railings; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A safety factor of four based on ultimate strength; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Bearing a plate or permanent marking indicating maximum load rating, which shall not be exceeded, and the weight of the platform itself; 
</P>
<P>(v) Equipped with a device to prevent access doors, when used, from opening accidentally; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Equipped with overhead protection for employees on the platform if they are exposed to falling objects or overhead hazards; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Secured to the load line by means other than wedge and socket attachments, unless the free (bitter) end of the line is secured back to itself by a clamp placed as close above the wedge as possible. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except in an emergency, the hoisting mechanism of all cranes or derricks used to hoist personnel shall operate only in power up and power down, with automatic brake application when not hoisting or lowering. 
</P>
<P>(3) All cranes and derricks used to hoist personnel shall be equipped with an anti-two-blocking device. 
</P>
<P>(4) Variable radius booms of a crane or derrick used to hoist personnel shall be so constructed or secured as to prevent accidental boom movement. 
</P>
<P>(5) Platforms or devices used to hoist employees shall be inspected for defects before each day's use and shall be removed from service if defective. 
</P>
<P>(6) Employees being hoisted shall remain in continuous sight of and communication with the operator or signalman. 
</P>
<P>(7) Operators shall remain at the controls when employees are hoisted. 
</P>
<P>(8) Cranes shall not travel while employees are hoisted, except in emergencies or in normal tier-to-tier transfer of employees during container operations. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Routine inspection.</I> (1) Designated persons shall visually inspect each crane and derrick on each day of use for defects in functional operating components and shall report any defect found to the employer. The employer shall inform the operator of the result of the inspection. 
</P>
<P>(2) A designated person shall thoroughly inspect all functional components and accessible structural features of each crane or device at monthly intervals. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any defects found during such inspections that may create a safety hazard shall be corrected before further equipment use. Repairs shall be done only by designated persons. 
</P>
<P>(4) A record of each monthly inspection shall be maintained for six months in or on the crane or derrick or at the terminal. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protective devices.</I> (1) When exposed moving parts such as gears, chains and chain sprockets present a hazard to employees during crane and derrick operations, those parts shall be securely guarded. 
</P>
<P>(2) Crane hooks shall be latched or otherwise secured to prevent accidental load disengagement. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Load-indicating devices.</I> (1) Unless exempted by the provisions of paragraph (f)(1)(viii) of this section, every crane used to load or discharge cargo into or out of a vessel shall be fitted with a load-indicating device or alternative device in proper working condition that shall meet the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(i) The type or model of any load-indicating device used shall be such as to provide: 
</P>
<P>(A) A direct indication in the cab of actual weight hoisted or a means of determining this by reference to crane ratings posted and visible to the operator, except that the use of a dynamometer or simple scale alone will not meet this requirement; or 
</P>
<P>(B) An automatic weight-moment device (e.g., a computer) providing indications in the cab according to the radius and load at the moment; or 
</P>
<P>(C) A device that will prevent an overloaded condition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The accuracy of the load-indicating device, weight-moment device, or overload protection device shall be such that any indicated load (or limit), including the sum of actual weight hoisted and additional equipment or “add ons” such as slings, sensors, blocks, etc., is within the range between 95 percent (5 percent underload) and 110 percent (10 percent overload) of the actual true total load. Such accuracy shall be required over the range of daily operating variables reasonably anticipated under the conditions of use. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The device shall enable the operator to decide before making any lift that the load indicating device or alternative device is operative. In the alternative, if the device is not so mounted or attached and does not include such means of checking, it shall be certified by the manufacturer to remain operative for a specific time. The device shall be checked for accuracy, using known values of the load, at the time of every certification survey (see § 1918.11) and at such additional times as may be recommended by the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When the load indicating device or alternative device is so arranged in the supporting system (crane structure) that its failure could cause the load to be dropped, its strength shall not be the limiting factor of the supporting system (crane structure). 
</P>
<P>(v) Units of measure in pounds or both pounds and kilograms (or other indicators of measurement, such as colored indicator lights), capacity of the indicating system, accuracy of the indicating system, and operating instructions and precautions shall be conspicuously marked. If the system used provides no readout but automatically ceases crane operation when the rated load limit is reached under any specific condition of use, the marking shall provide the make and model of the device installed, a description of what it does, how it is operated, and any necessary precautions regarding the system. All of these markings shall be readily visible to the operator. 
</P>
<P>(vi) All load indicating devices shall operate over the full operating radius. Overall accuracy shall be based on actual applied loads and not on full scale (full capacity) load. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(1)(<E T="01">vi</E>):</HED>
<P>If the accuracy of the load indicating device is based on full scale loads and the device is arbitrarily set at plus or minus 10 percent, it would accept a reading between 90,000 and 110,000 lbs. at full capacity for a machine with a maximum rating of 100,000 lbs. but would also show a reading of between zero and 20,000 lbs. at that outreach (radius) at which the load would be 10,000 lbs.; this is clearly unacceptable. If, however, the accuracy of the device is based on actual applied loads under the same conditions, the acceptable range would remain the same with the 100,000-lb. load but would show a figure between 9,000 and 11,000 lbs. at the 10,000-lb. load; this is an acceptable reading.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vii) When a load-indicating device uses the radius as a factor in its use or in its operating indications, the indicated radius (which may be in feet and/or meters, or degrees of boom angle, depending on the system used) shall be within the range between 97 percent and 110 percent of the actual (true) radius. When radius is presented in degrees, and feet or meters are required for necessary determinations, a conversion chart shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(viii) The load indicating device requirements of this paragraph do not apply to a crane: 
</P>
<P>(A) Of the trolley equipped bridge type while handling containers known to be and identified as empty, or loaded, and in either case according to the provisions of § 1918.85(b) of this part, or while hoisting other lifts by means of a lifting beam supplied by the crane manufacturer for the purpose and in all cases within the crane rating; 
</P>
<P>(B) While handling bulk commodities or cargoes by means of clamshell bucket or magnet; 
</P>
<P>(C) While used to handle or hold hoses in connection with transfer of bulk liquids, or other hose-handled products; or 
</P>
<P>(D) While the crane is used exclusively to handle cargo or equipment whose total actual gross weight is marked on the unit or units hoisted, and the total actual gross weight never exceeds 11,200 lbs., and the load is less than the rated capacity of the crane at the maximum outreach possible at the time.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40945, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.67" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.67   Notifying the ship's officers before using certain equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall notify the officer in charge of the vessel before bringing aboard ship internal combustion or electric powered tools, equipment or vehicles. 
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall also notify the officer in charge of the vessel before using the ship's electric power for the operation of any electric tools or equipment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.68" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.68   Grounding.</HEAD>
<P>The frames of portable electrical equipment and tools, other than double insulated tools and battery operated tools, shall be grounded through a separate equipment conductor run with or enclosing the circuit conductors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.69" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.69   Tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Employers shall not issue or permit the use of visibly unsafe tools. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Portable electric tools.</I> (1) Portable hand-held electric tools shall be equipped with switches of a type that must be manually held in a closed position in order to operate the tool. 
</P>
<P>(2) All portable, power-driven circular saws shall be equipped with guards above and below the base plate or shoe. The upper guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc required to permit the base to be tilted for bevel cuts. The lower guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc required to allow proper retraction and contact with the work. When the tool is withdrawn from the work, the lower guard shall automatically and instantly return to the covering position. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1918.70-1918.80" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.7.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1918.70-1918.80   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Handling Cargo</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.81" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.81   Slinging.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drafts shall be safely slung before being hoisted. Loose dunnage or debris hanging or protruding from loads shall be removed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Cargo handling bridles, such as pallet bridles, which are to remain attached to the hoisting gear while hoisting successive drafts, shall be attached by shackles, or other positive means shall be taken to prevent them from being accidentally disengaged from the cargo hook. 
</P>
<P>(c) Drafts of lumber, pipe, dunnage and other pieces, the top layer of which is not bound by the sling, shall be slung in a way that prevents sliders. Double slings shall be used on unstrapped dunnage, unless, due to the size of hatch or deep tank openings, using them is impracticable. 
</P>
<P>(d) Case hooks shall be used only with cases designed to be hoisted by these hooks. 
</P>
<P>(e) Bales of cotton, wool, cork, wood pulp, gunny bags or similar articles shall not be hoisted by straps unless the straps are strong enough to support the weight of the bale. At least two hooks, each in a separate strap, shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(f) Unitized loads bound by bands or straps may be hoisted by the banding or strapping only if the banding or strapping is suitable for hoisting and is strong enough to support the weight of the load. 
</P>
<P>(g) Additional means to maintain the unitized loads during hoisting shall be employed to ensure safe lifting of such loads having damaged banding or strapping. 
</P>
<P>(h) Loads requiring continuous manual guidance during handling shall be guided by guide ropes (tag lines) that are long enough to control the load. 
</P>
<P>(i) No draft shall be hoisted unless the winch or crane operator(s) can clearly see the draft itself or see the signals of a signalman who is observing the draft's movement. 
</P>
<P>(j) Intermodal containers shall be handled in accordance with § 1918.85. 
</P>
<P>(k) The employer shall require that employees stay clear of the area beneath overhead drafts or descending lifting gear. 
</P>
<P>(l) The employer shall not permit employees to ride the hook or the load, except as provided for in § 1918.85(g). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.82" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.82   Building drafts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Drafts shall be built or means shall be taken to prevent cargo from falling from them. 
</P>
<P>(b) Buckets and tubs used in handling bulk or frozen cargo shall not be loaded above their rims. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.83" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.83   Stowed cargo; tiering and breaking down.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When necessary to protect personnel working in a hold, the employer shall secure or block stowed cargo that is likely to shift or roll. 
</P>
<P>(b) In breaking down stowed cargo, precautions shall be taken to prevent remaining cargo from falling. 
</P>
<P>(c) Employees trimming bulk cargo shall be checked in and out by the job boss. Before securing any reefer compartment, a check shall be made to ensure that no employee remains inside. Frequent checks shall be made to ensure the safety of any employee working alone in a tank or cargo compartment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.84" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.84   Bulling cargo.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Bulling cargo shall be done with the bull line led directly from the heel block. However, bulling may be done from the head of the boom when the nature of the cargo and the surface over which it is dragged are such that the load cannot be stalled, or when the winch actually does not have sufficient strength, with the purchase used, to overload the boom. 
</P>
<P>(b) Snatch blocks shall be used to provide a fair lead for the bull line to avoid unnecessary dragging of the bull line against coamings and obstructions. 
</P>
<P>(c) Snatch blocks shall not be used with the point of the hook resting on the flange of a beam, but shall be hung from padeyes, straps, or beam clamps. Snatch blocks or straps shall not be made fast to batten cleats or other insecure fittings. 
</P>
<P>(d) Beam frame clamps shall be so secured as to prevent their slipping, falling, or being pulled from their stationary attachment. 
</P>
<P>(e) Falls led from cargo booms of vessels shall not be used to move scows, lighters or railcars. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.85" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.85   Containerized cargo operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Container markings.</I> Every intermodal container shall be legibly and permanently marked with: 
</P>
<P>(1) The weight of the container when empty, in pounds; 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum cargo weight the container is designed to carry, in pounds; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The sum of the weight of the container and the maximum cargo weight, in pounds. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Container weight.</I> No container shall be hoisted by any lifting appliance unless the following conditions have been met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall determine from the carrier whether a container to be hoisted is loaded or empty. Before loading or discharging, empty containers shall be identified in a manner that will inform every supervisor and job boss on the site and in charge of loading or discharging, or every crane or other hoisting equipment operator and signalman, that such container is empty. Methods of identification may include cargo plans, manifests, or markings on the container. 
</P>
<P>(2) For a loaded container: 
</P>
<P>(i) The actual gross weight shall be plainly marked and visible to the crane or other hoisting equipment operator or signalman, or to every supervisor or job boss on site and in charge of the operation; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The cargo stowage plan or equivalent permanently recorded display serving the same purpose, containing the actual gross weight and the serial number or other positive identification of that specific container, shall be provided to the crane or other hoisting equipment operator and signalman, and to every supervisor and job boss on site and in charge of the operation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Every outbound container received at a marine terminal ready to load aboard a vessel without further consolidation or loading shall be weighed to obtain the actual gross weight, either at the terminal or elsewhere, before being hoisted. 
</P>
<P>(4)(i) When container weighing scales are found at a marine terminal, any outbound container with a load consolidated at that terminal shall be weighed to obtain the actual weight before being hoisted. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the terminal has no scales, the actual gross weight may be calculated from the container's contents and the container's empty weight. The weights used in the calculation shall be posted conspicuously on the container, with the name of the person making the calculation, and the date. 
</P>
<P>(5) Open top vehicle-carrying containers, and those built specifically and used solely for the carriage of compressed gases, are excepted from paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) Closed dry van containers carrying vehicles are exempted from paragraph (b)(4) of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The container carries only completely assembled vehicles and no other cargo; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The container is marked on the outside so that an employee can readily discern that the container is carrying vehicles; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The vehicles were loaded into the container at the marine terminal. 
</P>
<P>(7) The weight of loaded inbound containers from foreign ports shall be determined by weighing, by the method of calculation described in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section or by shipping documents. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any scale used within the United States to weigh containers for the requirements of this section shall meet the accuracy standards of the state or local public authority in which the scale is found. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Overloaded containers.</I> No container shall be hoisted if its actual gross weight exceeds the weight marked as required in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or it exceeds the capacity of the lifting appliance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Container inspection.</I> (1) Prior to hoisting, each container shall be inspected for any visible defects in structural members and fittings that would make the handling of such container unsafe. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any container found to have such a defect shall either be handled by a special means to ensure safe handling or shall be emptied before handling. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Suspended containers.</I> The employer shall prohibit employees from working beneath a suspended container. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Lifting fittings.</I> Containers shall be handled using lifting fittings or other arrangements suitable and intended for the purpose as set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) and (f)(2) of this section, unless damage to an intermodal container makes special means of handling necessary. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loaded intermodal containers.</I> Loaded intermodal containers of 20 feet (6.1 m) or more shall be hoisted as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) When hoisting containers by the top fittings, the lifting forces shall be applied vertically from at least four such fittings. A less than vertical lift is permitted only under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(A) The container being lifted is an ISO “closed box container”; 
</P>
<P>(B) The condition of the box is sound; 
</P>
<P>(C) The speed of hoisting and lowering is moderated when heavily ladened containers 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> are encountered; 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> A heavily laden container is one that is loaded to within 20 percent of its rated capacity.</P></FTNT>
<P>(D) The lift angle is at 80 to 90 degrees; 
</P>
<P>(E) The distance between the lifting beam and the load is at least 8 feet, 2.4 inches (2.5 m); and 
</P>
<P>(F) The length of the spreader beam is at least 16.3 feet (5 m) for a 20-foot container, and at least 36.4 feet (11.1 m) for a 40-foot container. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When hoisting containers from bottom fittings, the hoisting connections shall bear on the fittings only, making no other contact with the container. The angles of the four bridle legs shall not be less than 30 degrees to the horizontal for 40-foot (12.19 m) containers; 37 degrees for 30-foot (9.14 m) containers; and 45 degrees for 20-foot (6.1 m) containers. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Lifting containers by fork lift trucks or grappling arms from above or from one side may be done only if the container is designed for this type of handling. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Other means of hoisting may be used only if the containers and hoisting means are designed for such use. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermodal container spreaders.</I> (i) When using intermodal container spreaders that employ lanyards for activation and load disengagement, all possible precautions shall be taken to prevent accidental release of the load. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Intermodal container spreaders that utilize automatic twist lock systems shall be designed and used so that a suspended load cannot accidentally be released. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Safe container top access.</I> A safe means of access shall be provided for each employee required to work on the top of an intermodal container. Unless ladders are used for access, such means shall comply with the requirements of § 1917.45(j) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Employee hoisting prohibition.</I> Employees shall not be hoisted on intermodal container spreaders while a load is engaged. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Portable ladder access.</I> When other safer means are available, portable ladders shall not be used in gaining access to container stacks more than two containers high. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Fall protection</I>—(1) <I>Containers being handled by container gantry cranes.</I> (i) After July 26, 1999, where a container gantry crane is being used to handle containers, the employer shall ensure that no employee is on top of a container. Exception: An employee may be on top of a container only to perform a necessary function that cannot be eliminated by the use of positive container securing devices. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Examples of work that may not be eliminated by positive container securing devices and that may require employees to work on top of containers include, but are not limited to: installing or removing bridge clamps; hooking up or detaching over-height containers; or freeing a jammed semi-automatic twist lock.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) After July 26, 1999, the employer shall ensure that positive container securing devices, such as semi-automatic twist locks and above deck cell guides, are used wherever container gantry cranes are used to hoist containers. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that each employee on top of a container is protected from fall hazards by a fall protection system meeting the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Containers being handled by other hoisting devices.</I> Where containers are being handled by hoisting devices other than container gantry cranes, the employer shall ensure that each employee on top of a container is protected by a fall protection system meeting the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other exposure to fall hazards.</I> The employer shall ensure that each employee exposed to a fall hazard is protected by a fall protection system meeting the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section. Exception: Where the employer can demonstrate that fall protection for an employee would be infeasible or create a greater hazard due to vessel design, container design, container storage, other cargo stowage, container handling equipment, lifting gear, or port conditions, the employer shall alert the affected employee about the fall hazard and instruct the employee in ways to minimize exposure to that hazard. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Fall protection systems.</I> When fall protection systems required by paragraph (j) of this section are employed, the following shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each fall protection system component, except anchorages, shall have fall arrest/restraint as its only use. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each fall protection system subjected to impact loading shall be immediately withdrawn from service and not be used again until inspected and determined by a designated person to be undamaged and suitable for use. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each fall protection system shall be rigged so that a falling employee cannot contact any lower level stowage or vessel structure. 
</P>
<P>(4) Each fall protection system adopted for use shall have an energy absorbing mechanism that will produce an arresting force on an employee of not greater than 1800 pounds (8 kN). 
</P>
<P>(5) Each component of a fall protection system shall be designed and used to prevent accidental disengagement. 
</P>
<P>(6) Each fall protection system's fixed anchorages shall be capable of sustaining a force of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN) or be certified as capable of sustaining at least twice the potential impact load of an employee's fall. Such certification must be made by a qualified person. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> When more than one employee is attached to an anchorage, these limits shall be multiplied by the number of employees attached. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> For the purposes of this paragraph, qualified person means one with a recognized degree or professional certificate and extensive knowledge and experience in the subject field who is capable of design, analysis, evaluation and specifications in the subject work, project, or product.</P></FTNT>
<P>(7) When “live” (activated) container gantry crane lifting beams or attached devices are used as anchorage points, the following requirements apply: 
</P>
<P>(i) The crane shall be placed into a “slow” speed mode; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The crane shall be equipped with a remote shut-off switch that can stop trolley, gantry, and hoist functions and that is in the control of the employee(s) attached to the beam; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A visible or audible indicator shall be present to alert the exposed employee(s) when the remote shut-off is operational. 
</P>
<P>(8) Fall protection system components, other than the anchorages, shall be certified as a unit of being capable of sustaining at least twice the potential impact load of an employee's fall. Such certification shall be made by a qualified person. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> For the purposes of this paragraph, qualified person means one with a recognized degree or professional certificate and extensive knowledge and experience in the subject field who is capable of design, analysis, evaluation and specifications in the subject work, project, or product.</P></FTNT>
<P>(9) Each fall protection system shall incorporate the use of a full body harness. 
</P>
<P>(10) Each device, such as a safety cage, used to transport an employee(s) by being attached to a container gantry crane spreader, shall have a secondary means to prevent accidental disengagement and the secondary means shall be engaged. 
</P>
<P>(11) Each fall protection system shall be inspected before each day's use by a designated person. Any defective components shall be removed from service. 
</P>
<P>(12) Before using any fall protection system, the employee shall be trained in the use and application limits of the equipment, proper hookup, anchoring and tie-off techniques, methods of use, and proper methods of equipment inspection and storage. 
</P>
<P>(13) The employer shall establish and implement a procedure to retrieve personnel safely in case of a fall. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Working along unguarded edges.</I> The employer shall provide, and ensure that the employee use, fall protection meeting the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section whenever the employee works along an unguarded edge where a fall hazard exists (see § 1918.2). 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Vertical tandem lifts.</I> Operations involving the lifting of two or more intermodal containers by the top container shall be performed following § 1917.71(i) and (k)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000; 73 FR 75290, Dec. 10, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.86" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.86   Roll-on roll-off (Ro-Ro) operations (see also § 1918.2, Ro-Ro operations, and § 1918.25).
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>Traffic control system.</I> An organized system of vehicular and pedestrian traffic control shall be established and maintained at each entrance/exit ramp and on ramps within the vessel as traffic flow warrants. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ramp load limit.</I> Each ramp shall be plainly marked with its load capacity. The marked capacity shall not be exceeded. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pedestrian traffic.</I> Bow, stern, and side port ramps also used for pedestrian access shall meet the requirements of § 1918.25. Such ramps shall provide a physical separation between pedestrian and vehicular routes. When the design of the ramp prevents physical separation, a positive means shall be established to prevent simultaneous use of the ramp by vehicles and pedestrians. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ramp maintenance.</I> Ramps shall be properly maintained and secured. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hazardous routes.</I> Before the start of Ro-Ro operations, the employer shall identify any hazardous routes or areas that could be mistaken for normal drive-on/drive-off routes. Such hazardous routes shall be clearly marked and barricaded. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Air brake connections.</I> Each tractor shall have all air lines connected when pulling trailers equipped with air brakes and shall have the brakes tested before commencing operations. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Trailer load limits.</I> After July 27, 1998, flat bed and low boy trailers shall be marked with their cargo capacities and shall not be overloaded. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Cargo weights.</I> Cargo to be handled via a Ro-Ro ramp shall be plainly marked with its weight in pounds (kilograms). Alternatively, the cargo stow plan or equivalent record containing the actual gross weight of the load may be used to determine the weight of the cargo. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Tractors.</I> Tractors used in Ro-Ro operations shall have: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sufficient power to ascend ramp inclines safely; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Sufficient braking capacity to descend ramp inclines safely. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Safe speeds.</I> Power driven vehicles used in Ro-Ro operations shall be operated at speeds that are safe for prevailing conditions. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Ventilation.</I> Internal combustion engine-driven vehicles shall be operated only where adequate ventilation exists or is provided. (Air contaminant requirements are found in § 1918.94 and part 1910, subpart Z, of this chapter.) 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Securing cargo.</I> Cargo loaded or discharged during Ro-Ro operations shall be secured to prevent sliding loads. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Authorized personnel.</I> Only authorized persons shall be permitted on any deck while loading or discharging operations are being conducted. Such authorized persons shall be equipped with high visibility vests (or equivalent protection 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>). 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Decals on hard hats will not be considered equivalent protection for the purposes of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">m</E>):</HED>
<P>High visibility vests or equivalent protection means high visibility/retro-reflective materials which are intended to make the user clearly visible by day through the use of high visibility (fluorescent) material and in the dark by vehicle headlights through the use of retro-reflective material. For example, an acceptable area of material for a vest or equivalent protection is .5 m
<SU>2</SU> (760 in.
<SU>2</SU>) for fluorescent (background) material and .13m
<SU>2</SU> (197 in.
<SU>2</SU>) for retro-reflective material. Vests or equivalent protection, such as high visibility/retro-reflective coveralls, that are available for industrial use, may also be acceptable.</P></NOTE>
<P>(n) <I>Vehicle stowage positioning.</I> Drivers shall not drive vehicles, either forward or backward, while any personnel are in positions where they could be struck. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.87" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.87   Ship's cargo elevators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Safe working load.</I> The safe working loads of ship's cargo elevators shall be determined and followed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Load distribution.</I> Loads shall be evenly distributed and maintained on the elevator's platform. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Elevator personnel restrictions.</I> Personnel shall not be permitted to ride on the elevator's platform if a fall hazard exists. (See § 1918.2.) 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Open deck barricades.</I> During elevator operation, each open deck that presents a fall hazard to employees shall be effectively barricaded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.88" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.88   Log operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Working in holds.</I> When loading logs into the holds of vessels and using dumper devices to roll logs into the wings, the employer shall ensure that employees remain clear of areas where logs being dumped could strike, roll upon, or pin them. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal flotation devices.</I> Each employee working on a log boom shall be protected by a personal flotation device meeting the requirements of § 1918.105(b)(2). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Footwear.</I> The employer shall provide each employee that is working logs with appropriate footwear, such as spiked shoes or caulked sandals, and shall ensure that each employee wears appropriate footwear to climb or walk on logs. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Lifelines.</I> When employees are working on log booms or cribs, lifelines shall be furnished and hung overside to the water's edge. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Jacob's ladder.</I> When a log boom is being worked, a Jacob's ladder meeting the requirements of § 1918.23 shall be provided for each gang working alongside unless other safe means of access (such as the vessel's gangway) is provided. However, no more than two Jacob's ladders are required for any single log boom being worked. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Life-ring.</I> When working a log boom alongside a ship, a U.S. Coast Guard approved 30-inch (76.2 cm) life-ring, with no less than 90 feet (27.4 m) of line, shall be provided either on the floating unit itself or aboard the ship close to each floating unit being worked. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rescue boat.</I> When employees are working on rafts or booms, a rescue boat capable of effecting an immediate rescue shall be available. Powered rescue boats are required when the current exceeds one knot. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Log rafts.</I> When an employee is working logs out of the water, walking sticks 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> (safety sticks) shall be provided as follows: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> A “walking stick” is two logs bolted or otherwise secured together with two or three planks firmly attached on top that serves as a floating walking and working surface and that is used in the loading of logs onto vessels from the water.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) They shall be planked and be no less than 24 inches (.61 m) wide; 
</P>
<P>(2) They shall extend along the entire length of all rafts on the side(s) of the vessel being worked, and to the means of access to the log raft(s); and 
</P>
<P>(3) They shall be buoyant enough to keep the walking surface above the waterline when employees are walking on them. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.89" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.8.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.89   Handling hazardous cargo (See also § 1918.2 and § 1918.99).</HEAD>
<P>Hazardous cargo shall be slung and secured so that neither the draft nor individual packages can fall because of tipping of the draft or slacking of the supporting gear. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—General Working Conditions.</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.90" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.90   Hazard communication.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1918.1(b)(4). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.91" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.91   Housekeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Active work areas shall be kept free of equipment, such as lashing gear, and materials not in use, and clear of debris, projecting nails, strapping and other objects not necessary to the work in progress. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Slippery surfaces.</I> The employer shall eliminate conditions causing slippery walking and working surfaces in immediate areas used by employees. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Free movement of drafts.</I> Dunnage shall not be placed at any location where it interferes with the free movement of drafts. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dunnage height.</I> Dunnage racked against sweat battens or bulkheads shall not be used when the levels of such racks are above the safe reach of employees. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Coaming clearance.</I> Dunnage, hatch beams, tarpaulins or gear not in use shall be stowed no closer than three feet (.91 m) to the port and starboard sides of the weather deck hatch coaming. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nails.</I> (1) Nails that are protruding from shoring or fencing in the work area shall be rendered harmless. 
</P>
<P>(2) Dunnage, lumber, or shoring material in which there are visibly protruding nails shall be removed from the work area, or, if left in the area, the nails shall be rendered harmless. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ice aloft.</I> Employees shall be protected from ice that may fall from aloft. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.92" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.92   Illumination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Walking, working, and climbing areas.</I> Walking, working, and climbing areas shall be illuminated. Unless conditions described in the regulations of the U.S. Coast Guard (33 CFR 154.570) exist for specific operations, illumination for cargo transfer operations shall be of a minimum light intensity of five foot-candles (54 lux). Where work tasks require more light to be performed safely, supplemental lighting shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Intensity measurement.</I> The lighting intensity shall be measured at the task/working surface, in the plane in which the task/working surface is present. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Arrangement of lights.</I> Lights shall be arranged so that they do not shine into the eyes of winch-drivers, crane operators or hatch tenders. On Ro-Ro ships, stationary lights shall not shine directly into the eyes of drivers. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Portable lights.</I> Portable lights shall meet the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) Portable lights shall be equipped with substantial reflectors and guards to prevent materials from coming into contact with the bulb. 
</P>
<P>(2) Flexible electric cords used with temporary lights shall be designed by the manufacturer for hard or extra-hard usage. Temporary and portable lights shall not be suspended by their electric cords unless the cords and lights are designed for this means of suspension. Connections and insulation shall be maintained in safe condition. 
</P>
<P>(3) Electric conductors and fixtures for portable lights shall be so arranged as to be free from contact with drafts, running gear, and other moving equipment. 
</P>
<P>(4) Portable cargo lights furnished by the employer for use aboard vessels shall be listed as approved for marine use by the U.S. Coast Guard or by a nationally recognized testing laboratory (see § 1910.7). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Entry into darkened areas.</I> Employees shall not be permitted to enter dark holds, compartments, decks or other spaces without a flashlight or other portable light. The use of matches or open flames is prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.93" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.93   Hazardous atmospheres and substances (See also § 1918.2).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This section covers areas in which the employer knows, or has reason to believe, that a hazardous atmosphere or substance may exist, except where one or more of the following sections apply: § 1918.94(a), Carbon monoxide; § 1918.94(b), Fumigated grains; § 1918.94(c), Fumigated tobacco; § 1918.94(d), Other fumigated cargoes; § 1918.94(e), Catch of menhaden and similar species of fish. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of the hazard.</I> When the employer knows, or has reason to believe, that a space on a vessel contains or has contained a hazardous atmosphere, a designated and appropriately equipped person shall test the atmosphere prior to employee entry to detect whether a hazardous atmosphere exists. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Testing during ventilation.</I> When mechanical ventilation is used to maintain a safe atmosphere, tests shall be made by a designated person to ensure that the atmosphere is not hazardous. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Entry into hazardous atmospheres.</I> Only designated persons shall enter hazardous atmospheres, in which case the following provisions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Persons entering a space containing a hazardous atmosphere shall be protected by respiratory and emergency protective equipment meeting the requirements of subpart J of this part; 
</P>
<P>(2) Persons entering a space containing a hazardous atmosphere shall be instructed about the hazards, precautions to be taken, and the use of protective and emergency equipment. Standby observers, similarly equipped and instructed, shall continuously monitor the activity of employees within such space; 
</P>
<P>(3) Except in emergency or rescue operations, employees shall not enter any atmosphere identified as flammable or oxygen-deficient (less than 19.5% oxygen). Persons who may be required to enter flammable or oxygen-deficient atmospheres in emergency operations shall be instructed in the dangers attendant to those atmospheres and be instructed in the use of self-contained breathing apparatus which shall be used for entry. 
</P>
<P>(4) To prevent inadvertent employee entry into spaces identified as having hazardous, flammable or oxygen-deficient atmospheres, appropriate warning signs or equivalent means shall be posted at all means of access to those spaces. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Asbestos cargo leak.</I> When the packaging of asbestos cargo leaks, spillage shall be cleaned up by designated employees protected from the harmful effects of asbestos as required by § 1910.1001 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.94" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.94   Ventilation and atmospheric conditions (See also § 1918.2, definitions of Hazardous cargo, materials, substance or atmosphere and Ro-Ro operations).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ventilation with respect to carbon monoxide.</I> (1) When internal combustion engines exhaust into a hold, intermediate deck, or any other compartment, the employer shall ensure that the atmosphere is tested as frequently as needed to prevent carbon monoxide (CO) concentrations from exceeding allowable limits. Such tests shall be made in the area in which employees are working by persons competent in the use of the test equipment and procedures. If operations are in a deep tank or refrigerated compartment, the first test shall be made within one half hour of the time the engine starts. To decide the need for further testing, the initial test in all other cargo handling areas shall be taken no later than one hour after the time the engine starts. 
</P>
<P>(i) The CO content of the atmosphere in a compartment, hold, or any enclosed space shall be maintained at not more than 50 parts per million (ppm) (0.005%) as an eight hour average area level and employees shall be removed from the enclosed space if the CO concentration exceeds a ceiling of 100 ppm (0.01%). Exception: The ceiling shall be 200 ppm (0.02%) instead of 100 ppm (0.01%) for Ro-Ro operations.
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>The term eight hour average area level means that for any period in which the concentration exceeds 50 parts per million, the concentration shall be maintained for a corresponding period below 50 parts per million.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) When both natural ventilation and the vessel's ventilation system are inadequate to keep the CO concentration within the allowable limits, the employer shall use supplementary means to bring such concentration within allowable limits, as determined by monitoring. 
</P>
<P>(2) The intakes of portable blowers and any exposed belt drives shall be guarded to prevent injury to employees. 
</P>
<P>(3) The frames of portable blowers shall be grounded at the source of the current by means of an equipment grounding conductor run with or enclosing the circuit conductors. When the vessel is the source of the current, the equipment grounding conductor shall be bonded to the structure of the vessel. Electric cords shall be free from visible defects. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fumigated grains.</I> (1) Before commencing to handle bulk grain in any compartment of a vessel in which employees will or may be present, the employer shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether the grain has been or will be fumigated at the elevator; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine whether that compartment, or any cargo within it loaded at a prior berth, has been treated with a fumigant or any other chemical. 
</P>
<P>(2) If fumigant or chemical treatment has been carried out, or if there is reason to suspect that such treatment has been carried out, it shall be determined by atmospheric testing that the compartment's atmosphere is within allowable limits. (See paragraph (b)(3) of this section.) 
</P>
<P>(3) A test of the fumigant concentration in the atmosphere of the compartment shall be made after loading begins and before employees enter the compartment. Additional tests shall be made as often as necessary to ensure that hazardous concentrations do not develop. 
</P>
<P>(i) Tests for fumigant concentration shall be conducted by a designated person, who shall be thoroughly familiar with the characteristics of the fumigant being used, the correct procedure for measurement, the proper measuring equipment to be used, the fumigant manufacturers' recommendations and warnings, and the proper use of personal protective equipment to guard against the specific hazard. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the concentration in any compartment reaches the level specified as hazardous by the fumigant manufacturer, or exceeds the permissible exposure limits of part 1910, subpart Z of this chapter, whichever is lower, all employees shall be removed from such compartments and shall not be permitted to reenter until tests prove that the atmosphere is within allowable limits. 
</P>
<P>(iii) No employee shall be permitted to enter any compartment in which grain fumigation has been carried out, or any compartment immediately next to such a compartment, until it has been determined by testing that the atmosphere in the compartment to be entered is within allowable limits for entry. 
</P>
<P>(iv) In the event a compartment containing a hazardous or unknown concentration of fumigants must be entered for testing of the atmosphere, or for emergency purposes, each employee entering shall be protected by respiratory protective equipment following the provisions of § 1918.102, and by any protective clothing and other personal protective equipment recommended by the fumigant manufacturer for protection against the particular hazard. At least two other employees shall be stationed outside the compartment as observers, to provide rescue services in case of emergency. The observers shall be equipped with similar personal protective equipment. 
</P>
<P>(v) One or more employees on duty shall be equipped and trained to provide any specific emergency medical treatment stipulated for the particular fumigant. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Emergency equipment required by this paragraph shall be readily accessible wherever fumigated grains are being handled. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a compartment is treated for local infestation before loading grain by a chemical other than a fumigant, the employee applying the treatment, and any other employees entering the compartment, shall be provided with and required to use any personal protective equipment recommended by the manufacturer of the product to protect them against the effects of exposure. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fumigated tobacco.</I> The employer shall not load break-bulk tobacco until the carrier has provided written notification about whether or not the cargo has been fumigated. If break-bulk tobacco cargo has been treated with any toxic fumigant, loading shall not commence until a written warranty has been received from the fumigation facility that the aeration of the cargo has been such as to reduce the concentration of the fumigant to within the level specified as hazardous by the fumigant manufacturer, or does not exceed the permissible exposure limits of part 1910, subpart Z of this chapter, whichever is lower. Such notification and warranty shall be maintained for at least 30 days after the loading of the tobacco has been completed, and shall be available for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other fumigated cargoes.</I> Before commencing to load or discharge fumigated cargo other than the cargo specifically addressed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the employer shall determine that the concentration of fumigants is within the level specified as hazardous by the fumigant manufacturer, or does not exceed the permissible exposure limits of part 1910, subpart Z of this chapter, whichever is lower. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Grain dust.</I> When employees are exposed to concentrations of grain dust greater than the allowable limit found in subpart Z of part 1910 of this chapter, they shall be protected by suitable respiratory protective equipment as required by § 1918.102. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Catch of menhaden and similar species of fish.</I> (1) The provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to vessels having and utilizing refrigerated holds for the carriage of all cargo. 
</P>
<P>(2) After a vessel has arrived at berth for discharge of menhaden, but before personnel enter the hold, and as frequently thereafter as tests show to be necessary, tests shall be made of the atmosphere in the vessel's hold to ensure a safe work space. The tests shall be done for the presence of hydrogen sulfide and for oxygen deficiency. 
</P>
<P>(3) Tests required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be made by designated supervisory personnel, trained and competent in the nature of hazards and the use of test equipment and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(4) Before employees enter a hold it shall be tested for hydrogen sulfide and oxygen deficiency. Employees shall not enter the hold when the hydrogen sulfide level exceeds 20 ppm ceiling or when the oxygen content is less than 19.5 percent, except in emergencies. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.95" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.95   Sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Washing and toilet facilities.</I> (1) Accessible washing and toilet facilities sufficient for the sanitary requirements of employees shall be readily accessible at the worksite. The facilities shall have: 
</P>
<P>(i) Running water, including hot and cold or tepid water, at a minimum of one accessible location (when longshoring operations are conducted at locations without permanent facilities, potable water may be provided instead of running water); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Soap; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Individual hand towels, clean individual sections of continuous toweling, or air blowers; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Fixed or portable toilets in separate compartments with latch-equipped doors. Separate toilet facilities shall be provided for male and female employees unless toilet rooms will be occupied by only one person at a time. 
</P>
<P>(2) Washing and toilet facilities shall be regularly cleaned and maintained in good order. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Drinking water.</I> (1) Potable drinking water shall be accessible to employees at all times. 
</P>
<P>(2) Potable drinking water containers shall be clean, containing only water and ice, and shall be fitted with covers. 
</P>
<P>(3) Common drinking cups are prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited eating areas.</I> Consumption of food or beverages in areas where hazardous materials are stowed or being handled is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Garbage and overboard discharges.</I> Work shall not be conducted close to uncovered garbage or in the way of overboard discharges from the vessel's sanitary lines unless employees are protected from the garbage or discharge by a baffle or splash boards. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.96" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.96   Maintenance and repair work in the vicinity of longshoring operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Noise interference</I> (See also § 1918.1(b)(6).) Longshoring operations shall not be carried on when noise interferes with communications of warnings or instructions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Falling objects.</I> Longshoring operations shall not be carried on in the hold or on deck beneath work being conducted overhead whenever such work exposes the employee to a hazard of falling objects. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hot work.</I> Longshoring operations shall not be carried on where the employee is exposed to damaging light rays, hot metal, or sparks from welding or cutting. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Abrasive blasting and spray painting.</I> Longshoring operations shall not be carried on in the immediate vicinity of abrasive blasting or spray painting operations. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Machine guarding.</I> (See also § 1918.2, definition of “Danger zone”.) 
</P>
<P>(1) Danger zones on machines and equipment used by employees shall be guarded. 
</P>
<P>(2) The power supply to machines shall be turned off, locked out, and tagged out during repair, adjustment, or servicing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.97" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.97   First aid and lifesaving facilities. (See appendix V of this part).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Injury reporting.</I> The employer shall require each employee to report every work-related injury, regardless of severity, to the employer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>First aid.</I> A first aid kit shall be available at or near each vessel being worked. At least one person holding a valid first aid certificate, such as is issued by the Red Cross or other equivalent organization, shall be available to render first aid when work is in progress. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>First aid kits.</I> First aid kits shall be weatherproof and shall contain individual sealed packages for each item that must be kept sterile. The contents of each kit shall be determined by a person certified in first aid and cognizant of the hazards found in marine cargo handling operations. The contents shall be checked at intervals that allow prompt replacement of expended items. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Stretchers.</I> (1) For each vessel being worked, at least one Stokes basket stretcher, or its equivalent, shall be available to be permanently equipped with bridles for attachment to the hoisting gear. 
</P>
<P>(2) Stretchers shall be kept close to vessels and shall be positioned to avoid damage to the stretcher. 
</P>
<P>(3) A blanket or other suitable covering shall be available. 
</P>
<P>(4) Stretchers shall have at least four sets of effective patient restraints in operable condition. 
</P>
<P>(5) Lifting bridles shall be of adequate strength, capable of lifting 1,000 pounds (454 kg) with a safety factor of five (lifting capability of 5,000 pounds), and shall be maintained in operable condition. Lifting bridles shall be provided for making vertical patient lifts at container berths. Stretchers for vertical lifts shall have foot plates. 
</P>
<P>(6) Stretchers shall be maintained in operable condition. Struts and braces shall be inspected for damage. Wire mesh shall be secured and have no burrs. Damaged stretchers shall not be used until repaired. 
</P>
<P>(7) Stretchers in permanent locations shall be mounted to prevent damage and be protected from the elements if located out-of-doors. If concealed from view, enclosures shall be marked to indicate the location of the lifesaving equipment. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Life-rings.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that there is in the vicinity of each vessel being worked at least one U.S. Coast Guard approved 30-inch (76.2 cm) life-ring with no less than 90 feet (27.43 m) of line attached, and at least one portable or permanent ladder that will reach from the top of the apron to the surface of the water. 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, when working a barge, scow, raft, lighter, log boom, or carfloat alongside a ship, a U.S. Coast Guard approved 30-inch (76.2 cm) life-ring, with no less than 90 feet (27.43 m) of line shall be provided either on the floating unit itself or aboard the ship in the immediate vicinity of each floating unit being worked. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Communication.</I> Telephone or equivalent means of communication shall be readily available at the worksite. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000; ]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.98" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.98   Qualifications of machinery operators and supervisory training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualification of machinery operators.</I> (1) Only an employee determined by the employer to be competent by reason of training or experience, and who understands the signs, notices and operating instructions and is familiar with the signal code in use, shall be permitted to operate a crane, winch, or other power-operated cargo handling apparatus, or any power-operated vehicle, or give signals to the operator of any hoisting apparatus. However, an employee being trained and supervised by a designated person may operate such machinery and give signals to operators during training. 
</P>
<P>(2) No employee known to have defective uncorrected eyesight or hearing, or to be suffering from heart disease, epilepsy, or similar ailments that may suddenly incapacitate the employee, shall be permitted to operate a crane, winch or other power-operated cargo handling apparatus or a power-operated vehicle. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>OSHA is defining suddenly incapacitating medical ailments consistent with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), 42 U.S.C. 12101 (1990). Therefore, employers who act in accordance with the employment provisions (Title I) of the ADA (42 U.S.C. 12111-12117), the regulations implementing Title I (29 CFR Part 1630), and the Technical Assistance Manual for Title I issued by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (Publication number: EEOC-M1A), will be considered as being in compliance with this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Supervisory accident prevention proficiency.</I> (1) By July 16, 1999, each immediate supervisor of a cargo handling operation of more than five persons shall satisfactorily complete a course in accident prevention. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each employee newly assigned to supervisory duties after that date shall be required to meet the provisions of this paragraph within 90 days of such assignment. 
</P>
<P>(3) The accident prevention course shall consist of instruction suited to the particular operations involved. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> The following are recommended topics: Safety responsibility and authority; elements of accidents prevention; attitudes, leadership and motivation; hazards of longshoring, including peculiar local circumstances; hazard identification and elimination; applicable regulations; and accident investigations.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.99" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.99   Retention of DOT markings, placards and labels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employer who receives a package of hazardous material that is required to be marked, labeled or placarded in accordance with the U.S. Department of Transportation's Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) shall retain those markings, labels and placards on the package until the packaging is sufficiently cleaned of residues and purged of vapors to remove any potential hazards. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any employer who receives a freight container, rail freight car, motor vehicle, or transport vehicle that is required to be marked or placarded in accordance with the Hazardous Materials Regulations shall retain those markings and placards on the freight container, rail freight car, motor vehicle or transport vehicle until the hazardous materials that require the marking or placarding are sufficiently removed to prevent any potential hazards. 
</P>
<P>(c) Markings, placards and labels shall be maintained in a manner that ensures that they are readily visible. 
</P>
<P>(d) For non-bulk packages that will not be reshipped, the provisions of the section are met if a label or other acceptable marking is affixed in accordance with OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200). 
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of this section, the term “hazardous material” has the same definition as in the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.100" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.9.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.100   Emergency action plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section requires all employers to develop and implement an emergency action plan. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> The emergency action plan shall be in writing (except as provided in the last sentence of paragraph (e)(3) of this section) and shall cover those designated actions employers and employees must take to ensure employee safety from fire and other emergencies. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> When an employer directs his employees to respond to an emergency that is beyond the scope of the Emergency Action Plan, a plan developed in accordance with § 1910.120(q) of this chapter shall apply.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Elements.</I> The following elements, at a minimum, shall be included in the plan: 
</P>
<P>(1) Emergency escape procedures and emergency escape route assignments; 
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures to be followed by employees who remain to operate critical operations before they evacuate; 
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures to account for all employees after emergency evacuation has been completed; 
</P>
<P>(4) Rescue and medical duties for those employees who are to perform them; 
</P>
<P>(5) The preferred means of reporting fires and other emergencies; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Names or regular job titles of persons or departments that can be contacted for further information or explanation of duties under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alarm system.</I> The employer shall establish an employee alarm system that provides warning for necessary emergency action or for reaction time for safe escape of employees from the workplace or the immediate work area, or both. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evacuation.</I> The employer shall establish the types of evacuation to be used in emergency circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training.</I> (1) Before implementing the emergency action plan, the employer shall designate and train a sufficient number of persons to assist in the safe and orderly emergency evacuation of employees. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall review the plan with each employee covered by the plan at the following times: 
</P>
<P>(i) Initially when the plan is developed; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the employee's responsibilities or designated actions under the plan change; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the plan is changed. 
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall review with each employee upon initial assignment those parts of the plan that the employee must know to protect the employee in the event of an emergency. The written plan shall be kept at the workplace and made available for employee review. Employers with 10 or fewer employees may communicate the plan orally to employees and need not maintain a written plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Personal Protective Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.101" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.10.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.101   Eye and face protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Employers must ensure that each employee uses appropriate eye and/or face protection when the employee is exposed to an eye or face hazards, and that protective eye and face devices comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(A) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1918.3;
</P>
<P>(B) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1918.3; or
</P>
<P>(C) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, incorporated by reference in § 1918.3
</P>
<P>(ii) Protective eye and face protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as protective eye and face protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For an employee wearing corrective glasses, eye protection equipment required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be of the type that can be worn over glasses. Prescription-ground safety lenses may be substituted if they provide equivalent protection. 
</P>
<P>(b) Eye protection shall be maintained in good condition. 
</P>
<P>(c) Used eye protection shall be cleaned and disinfected before issuance to another employee. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 46361, Sept. 9, 2009; 81 FR 16092, Mar. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.102" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.10.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.102   Respiratory protection.</HEAD>
<P>(See § 1918.1(b)(8)). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.103" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.10.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.103   Head protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears a protective helmet when working in areas where there is a potential for injury to the head from falling objects. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The employer must ensure that head protection complies with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1918.3;
</P>
<P>(ii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1918.3; or
</P>
<P>(iii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, “American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements,” incorporated by reference in § 1918.3.
</P>
<P>(2) Head protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as head protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Previously worn protective hats shall be cleaned and disinfected before issuance by the employer to another employee. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 46361, Sept. 9, 2009; 77 FR 37600, June 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.104" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.10.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.104   Foot protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee wears protective footwear when working in areas where there is a danger of foot injuries due to falling or rolling objects or objects piercing the sole. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The employer must ensure that protective footwear complies with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) ASTM F-2412-2005, “Standard Test Methods for Foot Protection,” and ASTM F-2413-2005, “Standard Specification for Performance Requirements for Protective Footwear,” which are incorporated by reference in § 1918.3;
</P>
<P>(ii) ANSI Z41-1999, “American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear,” which is incorporated by reference in § 1918.3; or
</P>
<P>(iii) ANSI Z41-1991, “American National Standard for Personal Protection—Protective Footwear,” which is incorporated by reference in § 1918.3.
</P>
<P>(2) Protective footwear that the employer demonstrates is at least as effective as protective footwear that is constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 46361, Sept. 9, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.105" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.10.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.105   Other protective measures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protective clothing.</I> (1) The employer shall provide and shall require the wearing of special protective clothing for each employee engaged in work where protective clothing is necessary. 
</P>
<P>(2) When necessary, protective clothing shall be cleaned and disinfected before reissuance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal flotation devices (PFDs).</I> (1) The employer shall provide and shall require the wearing of PFDs for each employee engaged in work in which the employee might fall into the water. 
</P>
<P>(2) PFDs (life preservers, life jackets, or work vests) worn by each affected employee must be United States Coast Guard (USCG) approved pursuant to 46 CFR part 160 (Type I, II, III, or V PFD) and marked for use as a work vest, for commercial use, or for use on vessels. 
</P>
<P>(3) Personal flotation devices shall be maintained in safe condition and shall be considered unserviceable when damaged in a manner that affects buoyancy or fastening capability. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40946, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.106" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.10.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.106   Payment for protective equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section, the protective equipment, including personal protective equipment (PPE), used to comply with this part, shall be provided by the employer at no cost to employees.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer is not required to pay for non-specialty safety-toe protective footwear (including steel-toe shoes or steel-toe boots) and non-specialty prescription safety eyewear, provided that the employer permits such items to be worn off the job-site.
</P>
<P>(c) When the employer provides metatarsal guards and allows the employee, at his or her request, to use shoes or boots with built-in metatarsal protection, the employer is not required to reimburse the employee for the shoes or boots.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer is not required to pay for:
</P>
<P>(1) Everyday clothing, such as long-sleeve shirts, long pants, street shoes, and normal work boots; or
</P>
<P>(2) Ordinary clothing, skin creams, or other items, used solely for protection from weather, such as winter coats, jackets, gloves, parkas, rubber boots, hats, raincoats, ordinary sunglasses, and sunscreen.
</P>
<P>(e) The employer must pay for replacement PPE, except when the employee has lost or intentionally damaged the PPE.
</P>
<P>(f) Where an employee provides adequate protective equipment he or she owns, the employer may allow the employee to use it and is not required to reimburse the employee for that equipment. The employer shall not require an employee to provide or pay for his or her own PPE, unless the PPE is excepted by paragraphs (b) through (e).
</P>
<P>(g) This section shall become effective on February 13, 2008. Employers must implement the PPE payment requirements no later than May 15, 2008.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1918.106:</HED>
<P>When the provisions of another OSHA standard specify whether or not the employer must pay for specific equipment, the payment provisions of that standard shall prevail.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 64429, Nov. 15, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—COVID-19.</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 61555, Nov. 5, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§§ 1918.107-1918.109" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.11.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1918.107-1918.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1918.110" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.11.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1918.110   COVID-19.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements applicable to longshoring work under this section are identical to those set forth at 29 CFR 1910.501.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.11.6.3.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 1918—Cargo Gear Register and Certificates (Non-mandatory)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This appendix is non-mandatory and provides guidance to part 1918 to assist employers and employees in complying with the requirements of this standard, as well as to provide other helpful information. Nothing in this appendix adds or detracts from any of the requirements of this standard. The language in this appendix is taken directly from the recommended ILO document.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Form No. 1 
</HD3>
<HD1>Identity of National Authority or Competent Organization Register of Ships' Lifting Appliances and Cargo Handling Gear 
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Name of Ship 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Official Number 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Call Sign 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Port of Registry 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Owner 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Register Number 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Issue 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issued by 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature and Stamp
</FP-DASH>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This register is the standard international form as recommended by the International Labour Office in accordance with the ILO Convention No. 152.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>General 
</HD1>
<P>The tests, examinations and inspections indicated in this register are based on the requirements of ILO Convention 152 and Recommendation 160. They are intended to ensure that ships having lifting appliances are initially certified by a competent person, and to establish periodically that they continue to be in safe working order to the satisfaction of a competent person acceptable to a competent authority. A Register of lifting appliances and items of loose gear shall be kept in a form prescribed by the competent authority, account being taken of this model recommended by the International Labour Office. This Register and related certificates shall be kept available to any person authorized by the competent authority. The Register and certificates for gear currently aboard the ship shall be preserved for at least five years after the date of the last entry. 
</P>
<HD1>Instruction 
</HD1>
<HD2>1. Initial Examination and Certification 
</HD2>
<P>1.1. Every lifting appliance shall be certified by a competent person before being taken into use for the first time to ensure that it is of good design and construction and of adequate strength for the purpose for which it is intended. 
</P>
<P>1.2. Before being taken into use for the first time, a competent person shall supervise and witness testing, and shall thoroughly examine every lifting appliance. 
</P>
<P>1.3. Every item of loose gear shall, before being taken into use for the first time, shall be tested, thoroughly examined and certified by a competent person, in accordance with national law or regulations. 
</P>
<P>1.4. Upon satisfactory completion of the procedures indicated above, the competent person shall complete and issue the Register of lifting appliances and attach the appropriate certificates. An entry shall be made in part I of the Register. 
</P>
<P>1.5. A rigging plan showing the arrangement of lifting appliances shall be provided. In the case of derricks and derrick cranes, the rigging should show at least the following information: 
</P>
<P>(a) The position of guys; 
</P>
<P>(b) The resultant force on blocks, guys, wire ropes and booms; 
</P>
<P>(c) The position of blocks; 
</P>
<P>(d) The identification mark of individual items; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Arrangements and working range of union purchase. 
</P>
<HD2>2. Periodic Examination and Re-testing 
</HD2>
<P>2.1. All lifting appliances and every item of loose gear shall be thoroughly examined by a competent person at least once in every twelve months. The particulars of these thorough examinations shall be entered in part I of the Register. 
</P>
<P>2.2. Re-testing and thorough examination of all lifting appliances and every item of loose gear is to be carried out: 
</P>
<P>(a) after any substantial alteration or renewal, or after repair to any stress bearing part, and 
</P>
<P>(b) in the case of lifting appliances, at least once in every five years. 
</P>
<P>2.3. The retesting referred to in paragraph 2.2(a) may be omitted provided the part which has been renewed or repaired is subjected by separate test, to the same stress as would be imposed on it if it had been tested in-situ during the testing of the lifting appliance. 
</P>
<P>2.4. The thorough examinations and tests referred to in paragraph 2.2. are to be entered in part I of the Register. 
</P>
<P>2.5. No new item of loose gear shall be manufactured of wrought iron. Heat treatment of any existing wrought iron components should be carried out to the satisfaction of the competent person. No heat treatment should be applied to any item of loose gear unless the treatment is in accordance with the manufacturer's instruction; and to the satisfaction of the competent person. Any heat treatment and the associated examination are to be recorded by the competent person in part I of the Register. 
</P>
<HD2>3. Inspections 
</HD2>
<P>3.1. Regular visual inspections of every item of loose gear shall be carried out by a responsible person before use. A record of these regular inspections is to be entered in part II of the Register, but entries need only be made when the inspection has indicated a defect in the item. 
</P>
<HD2>4. Certificates 
</HD2>
<P>4.1. The certification forms to be used in conjunction with this Register (Form No. 1) are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(Form No. 2)—Certificate of test and thorough examination of lifting appliance. 
</P>
<P>(Form No. 2(U))—Certificate of test and thorough examination of derricks used in union purchase. 
</P>
<P>(Form No. 3)—Certificate of test and thorough examination of loose gear. 
</P>
<P>(Form No. 4)—Certificate of test and thorough examination of wire rope. 
</P>
<HD1>Definitions 
</HD1>
<P>(a) The term “competent authority” means a minister, government department, or other authority empowered to issue regulations, orders or other instructions having the force of law. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term “competent person” means a person appointed by the master of the ship or the owner of the gear to be responsible for the performance of inspections and who has sufficient knowledge and experience to undertake such inspections. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term “thorough examination” means a detailed visual examination by a competent person, supplemented if necessary by other suitable means or measures in order to arrive at a reliable conclusion as to the safety of the lifting appliance or item of loose gear examined. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term “lifting appliance” covers all stationary or mobile cargo handling appliances used on board ship for suspending, raising or lowering loads or moving them from one position to another while suspended or supported. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term “loose gear” covers any gear by means of which a load can be attached to a lifting appliance, but which does not form an integral part of the appliance or load. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">The Following Are Sample Forms of Certificates as Recommended by the ILO
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Part I—Thorough Examination of Lifting Appliances and Loose Gear]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Situation and description of lifting appliances and loose gear (with distinguishing numbers or marks, if any) which have been thoroughly examined. (See note 1)
<br/>(1)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Certificate Nos.
<br/>(2)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examination performed (see note 2)
<br/>(3)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I certify that on the date to which I have appended my signature, the gear shown in col. (1) was thoroughly examined and no defects affecting its safe working condition were found other than those shown in col. (5) (date and signature)
<br/>(4)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remarks (to be dated and signed)
<br/>(5)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note</E> 1: If all the lifting appliances are thoroughly examined on the same date it will be sufficient to enter in Col. (1) “All lifting appliances and loose gear”. If not, the parts that have been thoroughly examined on the dates stated must be clearly indicated.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note</E> 2: The thorough examinations to be indicated in Col. (3) include:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (a) Initial.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (b) 12 monthly.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (c) 5 yearly.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (d) Repair/Damage.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (e) Other thorough examinations.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_description">[Part II—Regular Inspections of Loose Gear]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Situation and description of loose gear (with distinguishing numbers or marks, if any) that has been inspected.
<br/>(See note 1)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Signature and date of the responsible person carrying out the inspection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remarks (to be dated and signed)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note</E> 1: All loose gear should be inspected before use. However, entries need only be made when the inspection discloses a defect.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>Form No. 2 
</HD3>
<HD2>Identity of National Authority or Competent Organization Certificate of Test and Thorough Examination of Lifting Appliances 
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>Name of Ship
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Official Number
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Call Sign
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Port of Registry
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Owner
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Certificate No. 
</FP-DASH>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Situation and description of lifting appliances (with distinguishing numbers or marks, if any) which have been tested and thoroughly examined
<br/>(1)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Angle to the horizontal or radius at which test load applied
<br/>(2)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load (tonnes)
<br/>(3)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safe working load at angle or radius shown in col. 2 (tonnes)
<br/>(4)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Name and address of the firm or competent person who witnessed testing and carried out thorough examination. 
</P>
<P>I certify that on the date to which I have appended my signature, the gear shown in Col. (1) was tested and thoroughly examined and no defects or permanent deformation was found and that the safe working load is as shown. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Place: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This certificate is the standard international form as recommended by the International Labor Office in accordance with ILO Convention No. 152.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Reverse of Form No. 2 
</HD3>
<HD1>Instructions 
</HD1>
<P>1. Every lifting appliance shall be tested with a test load which shall exceed the Safe Working Load (SWL) as follows: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SWL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent in excess. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 to 50 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 tonnes in excess. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 50 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent in excess.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. In the case of derrick systems, the test load shall be lifted with the ship's normal tackle with the derrick at the minimum angle to the horizontal for which the derrick system was designed (generally 15 degrees), or at such greater angle as may be agreed. The angle at which the test was made should be stated in the certificate.
</P>
<P>2.1. The SWL shown is applicable to swinging derrick systems only. When derricks are used in union purchase, the SWL (U) is to be shown on Form 2 (U). 
</P>
<P>2.2. In the case of heavy derricks, care should be taken to ensure that the appropriate stays are correctly rigged. 
</P>
<P>3. In the case of cranes, the test load is to be hoisted and luffed at slow speed. Gantry and traveling cranes together with their trolleys, where appropriate, are to be traversed and traveled over the full length of their track. 
</P>
<P>3.1. In the case of variable load-radius cranes, the tests are generally to be carried out with the appropriate test load at maximum, minimum and intermediate radii. 
</P>
<P>3.2. In the case of hydraulic cranes where limitations of pressure make it impossible to lift a test load 25 percent in excess of the safe working load, it will be sufficient to lift the greatest possible load, but in general this should not be less than 10 percent in excess of the safe working load. 
</P>
<P>4. As a general rule, tests should be carried out using test loads, and no exception should be allowed in the case of initial tests. In the case of repairs/replacement or when the periodic examination calls for re-test, consideration may be given to the use of spring or hydraulic balances provided the SWL of the lifting appliance does not exceed 15 tonnes. Where a spring or hydraulic balance is used, it shall be calibrated and accurate to within #2 percent and the indicator should remain constant for five minutes. 
</P>
<P>4.1. If the test weights are not used, this is to be indicated in Col. (3). 
</P>
<P>5. The expression “tonne” shall mean a tonne of 1000 kg. 
</P>
<P>6. The terms “competent person”, “thorough examination”, and “lifting appliance” are defined in Form No. 1. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For recommendations on test procedures reference may be made to the ILO document “Safety and Health in Dock Work”.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Form No. 2(U) 
</HD3>
<HD1>Identity of National Authority or Competent Organization Certificate of Test and Thorough Examination of Derricks Used in Union Purchase 
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Name of Ship
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Official Number
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Call Sign
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Port of Registry
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Owner
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Certificate No. 
</FP-DASH>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Situation and description of derricks used in Union Purchase (with distinguishing numbers or marks) which have been tested and thoroughly examined
<br/>(1)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max. height of triangle plate above hatch coaming (m) or max. angle between runners
<br/>(2)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load (tonnes)
<br/>(3)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safe working load, SWL when operating in union purchase (tonnes)
<br/>(4)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP-2>Position of outboard preventer guy attachments: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>(a) forward/aft * of mast—(m) and 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(b) from ship's centerline—(m) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Position of inboard preventer guy attachments: 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>(a) forward/aft * of mast—(m) and 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>(b) from ship's centerline—(m)
</FP1-2>
<P>* Delete as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>Name and address of the firm or competent person who witnessed testing and carried out thorough examination
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>I certify that on the date to which I have appended my signature, the gear shown in Col. (1) was tested and thoroughly examined and no defects or permanent deformation was found and that the safe working load is as shown. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Place: 
</FP-DASH>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This certificate is the standard international form as recommended by the International Labour Office in accordance with ILO Convention No. 152.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Reverse Form No. 2 (U) 
</HD3>
<HD1>Instructions 
</HD1>
<P>1. Before being taken into use, the derricks rigged in Union Purchase shall be tested with a test load which shall exceed the Safe Working Load (SWL (U)) as follows: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SWL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent in excess.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 to 50 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 tonnes in excess. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 50 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent in excess.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. Tests are to be carried out at the approved maximum height of the triangle plate above the hatch coaming or at the angle between the cargo runners and with the derrick booms in their working positions, to prove the strength of deck eye plates and the Union Purchase system. These heights or angles must not exceed the values shown on the rigging plan. 
</P>
<P>3. Tests should be carried out using test loads. 
</P>
<P>4. The expression “tonne” shall mean a tonne of 1000 kg. 
</P>
<P>5. The terms “competent person”, “thorough examination” and “lifting appliance” are defined in Form No. 1. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For recommendations on test procedures, reference may be made to the ILO document “Safety and Health in Dock Work”.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Form 3 
</HD3>
<HD1>Identity of National Authority or Competent Organization Certificate of Test and Thorough Examination of Loose Gear 
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Name of Ship
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Official Number
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Call Sign
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Port of Registry
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Owner
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Certificate No.
</FP-DASH>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distinguishing number or mark
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description of loose gear
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number tested
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date of test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load (tonnes)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safe work load (SWL) (tonnes)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Name and address of makers or suppliers: 
</P>
<P>Name and address of the firm or competent person who witnessed testing and carried out thorough examination. 
</P>
<P>I certify that the above items of loose gear were tested and thoroughly examined and no defects affecting their SWL were found. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Place:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This certificate is the standard international form as recommended by the International Labour Office in accordance with ILO Convention No. 152.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Reverse Form No. 3 
</HD3>
<HD1>Instructions
</HD1>
<P>1. Every item of loose gear is to be tested and thoroughly examined before being put into use for the first time and after any substantial alteration or repair to any part liable to affect its safety. The test loads to be applied shall be in accordance with the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load (tonnes)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single sheave blocks (See Note 1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × SWL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multi sheave blocks (See Note 2):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL &lt;25 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × SWL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">25 tonnes &lt;SWL ≤160 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.933 × SWL) + 27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL &gt;160 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × SWL 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chains, hooks, rings, shackles, swivels, etc.:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL &lt;25 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × SWL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL &gt;25 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.22 × SWL) + 20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lifting beams, spreaders, frames and similar devices: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL ≤10 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × SWL
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">10 tonnes &lt;SWL ≤160 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.04 × SWL) + 9.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL &gt;160 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × SWL</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>1. The SWL for a single sheave block, including single sheave blocks with beckets, is to be taken as one-half of the resultant load on the head fitting.</P></NOTE>
<P>2. The SWL of a multi-sheave block is to be taken as the resultant load on the head fitting. 
</P>
<P>3. This form may also be used for the certification of interchangeable components of lifting appliances. 
</P>
<P>4. The expression “ton” shall mean a ton of 1,000 kg. 
</P>
<P>5. The terms “competent person”, “thorough examination” and “loose gear” are defined in Form No. 1. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For recommendations on test procedures reference may be made to the ILO document “Safety and Health in Dock Work”.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Form No. 4 
</HD3>
<HD1>Identity of National Authority or Competent Organization Certificate of Test and Thorough Examination of Wire Rope 
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Name of Ship
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Official Number
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Call Sign
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Port of Registry
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Owner
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Certificate No.
</FP-DASH>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name and address of maker or supplier
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nominal diameter of rope (mm) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Number of strands 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Number of wires per strand 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lay 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quality of wire (N/mm
<sup>2</sup>) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Date of test of sample 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Load at which sample broke (tonnes) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Safe working load of rope (tonnes) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Intended use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Name and address of the firm or competent person who witnessed testing and carried out thorough examination. 
</P>
<P>I certify that the above particulars are correct, and that the rope was tested and thoroughly examined and no defects affecting its SWL were found. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Place:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This certificate is the standard international form as recommended by the International Labour Office in accordance with ILO Convention No. 152.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Reverse Form No. 4 
</HD3>
<HD1>Instructions 
</HD1>
<P>1. Wire rope shall be tested by sample, a piece being tested to destruction. 
</P>
<P>2. The test procedure should be in accordance with an International or recognized National standard. 
</P>
<P>3. The SWL of the rope is to be determined by dividing the load at which the sample broke, by a co-efficient of utilization, determined as follows: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Coefficient
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wire rope forming part of a sling: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL of the sling</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL &lt;10 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">10 tonnes &lt;SWL ≤160 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8.85 × SWL) + 1910
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL &gt;160 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wire rope as integral part of a lifting appliance: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL of lifting appliance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL ≤160 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8.85 × SWL) + 1910
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">SWL &gt;160 tonnes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>These coefficients should be adopted unless other requirements are specified by a National Authority. 
</P>
<P>4. The expression “tonne” shall mean a tonne of 1000 kg. 
</P>
<P>5. The terms “competent person”, “thorough examination” and “lifting appliance” are defined in Form No. 1. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For recommendations on test procedures reference may be made to the ILO document “Safety and Health in Dock Work”.</P></NOTE>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix II" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.11.6.3.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix II to Part 1918—Tables for Selected Miscellaneous Auxiliary Gear (Mandatory)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This appendix is mandatory and is to be used in the appropriate sections of part 1918 when certificates or the manufacturers' use recommendations are not available.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Wire Rope Clips 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Improved plow steel, rope (Inches (cm)) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum number of clips 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Minimum spacing (Inches (cm)) 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drop forged 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other
<br/>material 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr> or less (1.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.6) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr> (1.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>3/4</fr> (9.5) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr> (1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr> (11.4) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr> (2.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/4</fr> (13.3) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 (2.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.2) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr> (2.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<fr>3/4</fr> (17.1) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr> (19.1) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr> (3.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<fr>1/4</fr> (21.0) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 (22.9)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Natural Fiber Rope and Rope Slings—Load Capacity in Pounds (lbs.) Safety Factor = 5—Eye and Eye Sling—Basket Hitch 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Angle of rope to horizontal—90 deg. 60 deg. 45 deg. 30 deg.] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Rope diameter nominal inch 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Vertical hitch 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Choker hitch 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Angle of rope to vertical 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0 deg. 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">30 deg. 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">45 deg. 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">60 deg. 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">550 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,850</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="7" scope="row"><E T="02">Endless Sling</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,900 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,500</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3A
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene Rope and Rope Slings 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Load Capacity in Pounds (lbs.) Safety Factor = 6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eye and Eye Sling 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basket Hitch 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angle of rope to horizontal</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Rope diameter nominal in.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Vertical hitch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Choker hitch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Angle of rope to vertical
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0 deg.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">30 deg.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">45 deg.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">60 deg. 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,900 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,500</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3B
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polypropylene Rope and Rope Slings 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Load Capacity in Pounds (lbs.) Safety Factor = 6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endless Sling 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basket Hitch 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Angle of rope to horizontal 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90 deg.  60 deg.  45 deg.  30 deg.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Rope diameter nominal in.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Vertical hitch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Choker hitch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Angle of rope to vertical
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0 deg.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">30 deg.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">45 deg.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">60 deg. 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>13/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,600 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,500</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4A—Rated Load for Grade 80 Alloy Steel Chain Slings
<sup>1</sup> (Chain per NACM) 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Chain size nominal 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single leg sling-90 deg. to horizontal loading 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Rated load double leg sling horizontal angle (note 2) 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">inch 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">mm 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">lb 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">kg 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">60 deg.
<br/>Double at 60 deg. 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">45 deg.
<br/>Double at 45 deg. 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">30 deg.
<br/>Double at 30 deg. 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">lb 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kg 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">lb 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kg 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">lb 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kg 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,590 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,900 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,700 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37,900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,900 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32,800 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Notes:</E> 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) Other grades of proof tested steel chain include Proof Coil (Grade 28), Hi-Test (grade 43 Chain, and Transport (grade 70) Chain. These grades are not recommended for overhead lifting and therefore are not covered by this standard. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) Rating of multi-leg slings adjusted for angle of loading between the inclined leg and the horizontal plane of the load.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4B—Maximum Allowable Wear at any Point of Link 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Nominal chain or coupling link size 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Maximum allowable wear of cross-sectional diameter, in. 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">inch 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mm 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.037 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.052 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.060 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.084 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.105 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.116 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.137 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.169 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> For other sizes, consult chain or sling manufacturer.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Safe Working Loads for Shackles 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In tons of 2,000 pounds] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Material size 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Pin diameter 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Safe working load in 2,000 lb tons 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inches 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(cm) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inches 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(cm) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(4.1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(4.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Wire Rope Table—Rate Loads for Single Leg Slings 6 × 19 or 6 × 37 Classification Improved Plow Steel Grade Rope With Fiber Core (FC) 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Rated loads [note 1], tons (2,000 lb)] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Vertical 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Choker 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rope diameter, inch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HT 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MS 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HT, MS&amp;S 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">HT = Hand Tucked Splice. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">For Hidden Tuck Splice (IWRC), use vales in HT (FC) columns. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">MS = Mechanical Splice. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">S = Poured Socket or Swaged Socket. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> (1) These values are based on slings being vertical. If they are not vertical, the rated load shall be reduced. If two or more slings are used, the minimum horizontal angle between the slings shall also be considered.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Wire Rope Table—Rated Loads for Single Leg Slings 6 × 19 or 6 × 37 Classification Extra Improved Plow Steel Grade Rope With Independent Wire Rope Core (IWRC) 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Rated loads [note 1] , tons (2,000 lb)] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Vertical 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Choker 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Vertical basket 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rope diameter, inch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HT 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MS 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HT, MS&amp;S 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[Note (2)] HT 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[Note (3)] MS&amp;S 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">HT = Hand tucked Splice 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">For Hidden Tuck Splice (IWRC), use values in HT columns of Table 3. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">MS = Mechanical Splice. S = Poured Socket or Swaged Socket. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Notes:</E> 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) These values are based on slings being vertical. If they are not vertical, the rated load shall be reduced. If they are not vertical, the rated load shall be reduced. If two or more slings are used, the minimum horizontal angle between the slings shall also be considered. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) These values only apply when the D/d ratio is 15 or greater. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(3) These values only apply when the D/d ratio is 25 or greater. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">D = Diameter or curvature around which the body of the sling is bent. d = Diameter of rope.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Wire Rope Table-Rated Loads for Single Leg Slings 6 × 19 or 6 × 37 Classification Extra Improved Plow Steel Grade Rope With Independent Wire Rope Core (IWRC) 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Rated loads [note 1], tons (2,000 lb)] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Vertical 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Choker 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Vertical basket
<br/>[note (2)] 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rope diameter 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MS 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MS&amp;S 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">MS&amp;S 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.074</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>9/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">HT = Hand tucked Splice 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">For Hidden Tuck Splice (IWRC), use values in HT columns of Table 3. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">MS = Mechanical Splice. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">S = Poured Socket or Swaged Socket. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> (1) These values are based on slings being vertical. If they are not vertical, the rated load shall be reduced. If they are not vertical, the rated load shall be reduced. If two or more slings are used, the minimum horizontal angle between the slings shall also be considered. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) These values only apply when the D/d ratio is 25 or greater.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 40202, July 25, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 40947, June 30, 2000]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix III" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.11.6.3.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix III to Part 1918—The Mechanics of Conventional Cargo Gear (Non-mandatory)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This appendix is non-mandatory and provides an explanation of the mechanics in the correct spotting of cargo handling gear.</P></NOTE>
<P>Although the most prevalent method of cargo handling is accomplished through the use of modern shoreside container gantry cranes, there are occasions when break-bulk cargo is handled with conventional ship's cargo gear. This appendix provides a reference for those unfamiliar with such cargo gear. 
</P>
<P>Sections 1918.52, 1918.53, and 1918.54 all address the subject of rigging and operating vessel's cargo handling gear. It is important to understand that under the Burton System of cargo handling (conventional gear consisting of two cargo derricks with married falls), the midships or up-and-down boom should be spotted as close to the fore and aft centerline of the hatch as operationally possible. Such spotting of the up-and-down boom will allow the most effective leads for the guy(s) and preventer(s) to safely support the lateral stresses generated in the boom(s) by the married falls. As the lead of the guy(s) and preventer(s) approaches the vertical, in supporting the boom(s) head, the total stress in the guy(s) increases rapidly due to the increased vertical force that is generated in the guy(s) in order to counteract any particular horizontal or lateral force exerted on the boom(s) head. The appreciable vertical forces that are generated in this process are transmitted, in substantial part, to the boom(s) and topping lift(s), causing proportionate compressive stresses in the boom(s) and tension stresses in the topping lift(s). 
</P>
<P>In general, guys and preventers must be located so that enough vertical resistance is developed so as to prohibit the boom(s) from jackknifing as cargo passes across the deck. Special care must be exercised in the proper placement of guys and preventers associated with the Burton or yard boom. Preventers, when used, must parallel as closely as possible the guys that they support. Guys and preventers must not be attached to the same fitting. 
</P>
<P>While under a load, the cargo falls (running rigging) must not be permitted to chafe on any standing or other running gear. Special attention must be paid to ensure that cargo runners work freely through the heel block, without chafing the cheek of the block. Also, bobbing chains and heel block preventers must be attached so as to not interfere with the movement of the cargo runners.



</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix IV" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.11.6.3.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix IV to Part 1918—Special Cargo Gear and Container Spreader Test Requirements (Mandatory) [see § 1918.61 (<E T="01">f</E>), (<E T="01">g</E>), (<E T="01">h</E>)] 

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Type gear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tested by</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Proof test 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">A. All Special Cargo Handling Gear Purchased or Manufactured on or After January 21, 1998</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Safe Working Load—greater than 5 short tons (10,000 lbs./4.5 metric tons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to initial use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency only</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 20 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">125% SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From 20 to 50 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 short tons in excess of SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every four years after initial proof load test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 50 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110% SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Safe Working Load—5 short tons or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to initial use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">125% SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to reuse after structural damage repair
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Intermodal container spreaders not part of vessel's cargo handling gear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to initial use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency only</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">125% SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to reuse after structural damage repair
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every four years after initial proof load test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">B. All Special Cargo Handling Gear in Use Prior to January 21, 1998 and Proof Load Tested Prior to Initial Use (See Note Below)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Safe Working Load—greater than 5 short tons (10,000 lbs./4540 kg.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every four years starting on January 21, 1998</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 20 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">125% SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From 20 to 50 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 short tons in excess of SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 50 short tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110% SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Safe Working Load—5 short tons or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">125% SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Intermodal container spreaders not part of vessel's cargo handling gear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every four years starting on January 21, 1998</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency or designated person</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">125% SWL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to reuse after structural damage repair</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OSHA accredited agency.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to appendix IV:</HED>
<P>Special stevedoring gear in use prior to January 21, 1998 was covered by § 1918.61(b), in effect prior to January 21, 1998. (See 29 CFR Parts 1911 to 1925 revised as of July 1, 1997). The assumption is made that gear in use prior to January 21, 1998, has already been proof load tested, although not necessarily by an accredited agency. However, if the employer cannot certify that such gear was proof load tested under § 1918.61(b), in effect prior to January 21, 1998, (See 29 CFR Parts 1911 to 1925 revised as of July 1, 1997), than it must be proof load tested in accordance with § 1918.61 in effect on January 21, 1998, (See 29 CFR Parts 1911 to 1925 revised as of July 1, 1998.)</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 40950, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix V" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.7.11.6.3.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix V to Part 1918—Basic Elements of a First Aid Training Program (Non-mandatory)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This appendix is non-mandatory and provides guidelines for small businesses, institutions teaching first aid, and the recipients of first aid training.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>General Program Elements 
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Teaching Methods 
</HD2>
<P>1. Trainees should develop “hands on” skills through the use of manikins and trainee partners during their training. 
</P>
<P>2. Trainees should be exposed to acute injury and illness settings as well as the appropriate response to those settings through the use of visual aids, such as video tape and slides. 
</P>
<P>3. Training should include a course workbook which discusses first aid principles and responses to settings that require interventions. 
</P>
<P>4. Training duration should allow enough time for particular emphasis on situations likely to be encountered in particular workplaces. 
</P>
<P>5. An emphasis on quick response to first aid situations should be incorporated throughout the program. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Principles of Responding to a Health Emergency 
</HD2>
<P>The training program should include instruction in: 
</P>
<P>1. Injury and acute illness as a health problem. 
</P>
<P>2. Interactions with the local emergency medical services system. Trainees have the responsibility for maintaining a current list of emergency telephone numbers (police, fire, ambulance, poison control) easily accessible to all employees. 
</P>
<P>3. The principles of triage. 
</P>
<P>4. The legal aspects of providing first aid services. 
</P>
<HD2>C. Methods of Surveying the Scene and the Victim(s) 
</HD2>
<P>The training program should include instruction in: 
</P>
<P>1. The assessment of scenes that require first aid services including:
</P>
<P>a. general scene safety.
</P>
<P>b. likely event sequence.
</P>
<P>c. rapid estimate of the number of persons injured.
</P>
<P>d. identification of others able to help at the scene. 
</P>
<P>2. Performing a primary survey of each victim including airway, breathing, and circulation assessments as well as the presence of any bleeding. 
</P>
<P>3. The techniques and principles of taking a victim's history at the scene of an emergency. 
</P>
<P>4. Performing a secondary survey of the victim including assessments of vital signs, skin appearance, head and neck, eye, chest, abdomen, back, extremities, and medical alert symbols. 
</P>
<HD2>D. Basic Adult Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) 
</HD2>
<P>Basic adult CPR training should be included in the program. Retesting should occur every year. The training program should include instruction in: 
</P>
<P>1. Establishing and maintaining adult airway patency. 
</P>
<P>2. Performing adult breathing resuscitation. 
</P>
<P>3. Performing adult circulatory resuscitation. 
</P>
<P>4. Performing choking assessments and appropriate first aid interventions. 
</P>
<P>5. Resuscitating the drowning victim. 
</P>
<HD2>E. Basic First Aid Intervention 
</HD2>
<P>Trainees should receive instruction in the principles and performance of: 
</P>
<P>1. Bandaging of the head, chest, shoulder, arm, leg, wrist, elbow, foot, ankle, fingers, toes, and knee. 
</P>
<P>2. Splinting of the arm, elbow, clavicle, fingers, hand, forearm, ribs, hip, femur, lower leg, ankle, knee, foot, and toes. 
</P>
<P>3. Moving and rescuing victims including one and two person lifts, ankle and shoulder pulls, and the blanket pull. 
</P>
<HD2>F. Universal Precautions 
</HD2>
<P>Trainees should be provided with adequate instruction on the need for and use of universal precautions. This should include: 
</P>
<P>1. The meaning of universal precautions, which body fluids are considered potentially infectious, and which are regarded as hazardous. 
</P>
<P>2. The value of universal precautions for infectious diseases such as AIDS and hepatitis B. 
</P>
<P>3. A copy of OSHA's standard for occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens or information on how to obtain a copy. 
</P>
<P>4. The necessity for keeping gloves and other protective equipment readily available and the appropriate use of them. 
</P>
<P>5. The appropriate tagging and disposal of any sharp item or instrument requiring special disposal measures such as blood soaked material. 
</P>
<P>6. The appropriate management of blood spills. 
</P>
<HD2>G. First Aid Supplies 
</HD2>
<P>The first aid provider should be responsible for the type, amount, and maintenance of first aid supplies needed for their particular worksite(s). These supplies need to be stored in a convenient area available for emergency access. 
</P>
<HD2>H. Trainee Assessments 
</HD2>
<P>Assessment of successful completion of the first aid training program should include instructor observation of acquired skills and written performance assessments. First aid skills and knowledge should be reviewed every three years. 
</P>
<HD2>I. Program Update 
</HD2>
<P>The training program should be periodically reviewed with current first aid techniques and knowledge. Outdated material should be replaced or removed. 
</P>
<HD1>Specific Program Elements 
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Type of Injury Training 
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Shock 
</HD3>
<P>Instruction in the principles and first aid intervention in:
</P>
<P>a. shock due to injury.
</P>
<P>b. shock due to allergic reactions.
</P>
<P>c. the appropriate assessment and first aid treatment of a victim who has fainted. 
</P>
<HD3>2. Bleeding
</HD3>
<P>a. the types of bleeding including arterial, venous, capillary, external, and internal.
</P>
<P>b. the principles and performance of bleeding control interventions including direct pressure, pressure points, elevation, and pressure bandaging.
</P>
<P>c. the assessment and approach to wounds including abrasions, incisions, lacerations, punctures, avulsions, amputations, and crush injuries.
</P>
<P>d. the principles of wound care including infection precautions, wounds requiring medical attention, and the need for tetanus prophylaxis. 
</P>
<HD3>3. Poisoning 
</HD3>
<P>Instruction in the principles and first aid intervention of:
</P>
<P>a. alkali, acid and systemic poisons. In addition, all trainees should know how and when to contact the local Poison Control Center.
</P>
<P>b. inhaled poisons including carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, smoke, and chemical fumes, vapors and gases as well as the importance of assessing the toxic potential of the environment to the rescuer and the need for respirators. 
</P>
<P>Trainees should be instructed in the acute effect of chemicals utilized in their plants, the location of chemical inventories, material safety data sheets (MSDS's), chemical emergency information, and antidote supplies.
</P>
<P>c. topical poisons including poison ivy, poison sumac, poison oak, and insecticides.
</P>
<P>d. drugs of abuse including alcohol, narcotics such as heroin and cocaine, tranquilizers, and amphetamines. 
</P>
<HD3>4. Burns 
</HD3>
<P>Instruction in the principles and first aid intervention of:
</P>
<P>a. assessing the severity of the burn including first degree, second degree, and third degree burns.
</P>
<P>b. differentiating between the types of third degree burns (thermal, electrical, and chemical) and their specific interventions. Particular attention should be focused upon chemical burns, and the use of specific chemicals in the workplace which may cause them. 
</P>
<HD3>5. Temperature Extremes 
</HD3>
<P>Instruction in the principles and first aid intervention of:
</P>
<P>a. exposure to cold including frostbite and hypothermia.
</P>
<P>b. exposure to heat including heat cramps, heat exhaustion, and heat stroke. 
</P>
<HD3>6. Musculoskeletal Injuries 
</HD3>
<P>The training program should include instruction in the principles and first aid intervention in:
</P>
<P>a. open fractures, closed fractures, and splinting.
</P>
<P>b. dislocations, especially the methods of joint dislocations of the upper extremity. The importance of differentiating dislocations from fractures.
</P>
<P>c. joint sprains.
</P>
<P>d. muscle strains, contusions, and cramps.
</P>
<P>e. head, neck, back, and spinal injuries. 
</P>
<HD3>7. Bites and Stings 
</HD3>
<P>Instruction in the principles and first aid intervention in:
</P>
<P>a. human and animal (especially dog and snake) bites.
</P>
<P>b. bites and stings from insects (spiders, ticks, scorpions, hornets and wasps). Interventions should include responses to anaphylactic shock; other allergic manifestations; rabies and tetanus prophylaxis. 
</P>
<HD3>8. Medical Emergencies 
</HD3>
<P>Instruction in the principles and first aid intervention of: 
</P>
<P>a. heart attacks 
</P>
<P>b. strokes 
</P>
<P>c. asthma attacks 
</P>
<P>d. diabetic emergencies including diabetic coma, insulin shock, hyperglycemia, and hypoglycemia. 
</P>
<P>e. seizures including tonic-clonic and absence seizures. Importance of <I>not</I> putting gags in mouth. 
</P>
<P>f. pregnancy including the appropriate care of any abdominal injury or vaginal bleeding. 
</P>
<HD3>9. Confined Spaces
</HD3>
<P>a. the danger of entering a confined space to administer first aid without having the appropriate respiratory protection.
</P>
<P>b. if first aid personnel will be required to assist evacuations from confined spaces, additional training will be needed. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Site of Injury Training 
</HD2>
<P>Instruction in the principles and first aid intervention of injuries to the following sites: 
</P>
<HD3>1. Head and Neck
</HD3>
<P>a. including skull fractures, concussions, and mental status assessments with particular attention to temporary loss of consciousness and the need for referral to a physician.
</P>
<P>b. including the appropriate approach to the management of the individual who has suffered a potential neck injury or fracture. 
</P>
<HD3>2. Eye
</HD3>
<P>a. foreign bodies, corneal abrasions and lacerations.
</P>
<P>b. chemical burns and the importance of flushing out the eye.
</P>
<P>c. the importance of not applying antibiotics without physician supervision. 
</P>
<HD3>3. Nose
</HD3>
<P>a. nose injuries and nose bleeds. 
</P>
<HD3>4. Mouth and Teeth
</HD3>
<P>a. oral injuries, lip and tongue injuries, and broken and removed teeth. The importance of preventing inhalation of blood and teeth. 
</P>
<HD3>5. Chest
</HD3>
<P>a. rib fractures, flail chest, and penetrating wounds. 
</P>
<HD3>6. Abdomen
</HD3>
<P>a. blunt injuries, penetrating injuries, and protruding organs. 
</P>
<HD3>7. Hand, Finger, and Foot Injuries
</HD3>
<P>a. finger/toe nail hematoma, lacerations, splinters, finger nail avulsion, ring removal, and foreign bodies.
</P>
<P>b. the importance of identifying amputation care hospitals in the area. When an amputation occurs, appropriate handling of amputated fingers, hands, and feet during the immediate transportation of the victim and body part to the hospital.
</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editor's Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 85 FR 8733, Feb. 18, 2020, appendix V was amended; however, the amendatory instruction could not be followed.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1919" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1919—GEAR CERTIFICATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>33 U.S.C. 941; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), or 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), as applicable; and 29 CFR 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this Part implement §§ 1915.115, 1917.50 and 1918.11 of this chapter. They provide procedures and standards governing accreditation of persons by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, for the purpose of certificating vessels' cargo gear and shore-based material handling devices, and the manner in which such certification shall be performed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Accreditation is not required, and the regulations of this part are not applicable, under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) When cargo gear certification is performed for vessels inspected and certificated under the authority of the U.S. Coast Guard, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or for foreign vessels certificated under the requirements of a foreign nation or by persons acceptable for certification purposes by a foreign nation. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Jurisdiction of the U.S. Coast Guard extends to matters within the scope of title 52 of the Revised Statutes and Acts supplementary or amendatory thereto (46 U.S.C. 1-1388, passim); to matters within the regulatory authority of the U.S. Coast Guard under the provisions of the Espionage Act of June 15, 1917, as amended (40 Stat. 220; 50 U.S.C. 191 et seq.; 22 U.S.C. 401 et seq.) or to matters within the regulatory authority of the U.S. Coast Guard under section 4(e) of the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act of Aug. 7, 1953 (67 Stat. 462; 43 U.S.C. 1333).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) When cargo gear certification is performed for shore-based material handling devices under standards established and enforced by the States wherein the devices are located, or by political subdivisions delegated this responsibility by the States, provided such standards meet the requirements of § 1917.50(b)(2) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) Persons not required to be accredited for gear certification purposes, as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, may, nevertheless, apply for and receive accreditation by the Administration. The appropriate subparts of this part shall apply to persons accredited pursuant to this paragraph except insofar as exemptions may be granted. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 65 FR 40951, June 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.2   Definition of terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Vessel</I> means every description of watercraft or other artificial contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on water, including special-purpose floating structures not primarily designed for or used as a means of transportation on water. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise noted, <I>cargo gear,</I> as used in subparts B through E of this part, includes that gear forming a part of a vessel's equipment which is used for the handling of cargo other than bulk liquids, but does not include gear which is used only for handling or holding hoses, handling ships' stores, or handling the gangway, or boom conveyor belt. 
</P>
<P>(c) With reference to equipment covered by this part— 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Derrick</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) When applied to vessels' cargo handling gear, a mechanical device for lifting, including a boom which is suspended at its head by a topping lift from a mast, king post, or similar structure, controlled in the horizontal plane by vangs, and used either singly or in pairs with married falls; 
</P>
<P>(ii) When applied to shore-based material handling devices, a mechanical device intended for lifting, with or without a boom supported at its head by a topping lift from a mast, fixed A frame, or similar structure. The mast or equivalent member may or may not be supported by guys or braces. The boom, where fitted, may or may not be controlled in the horizontal plane by guys (vangs). The term includes shear legs. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Crane</I> means a mechanical device, intended for lifting or lowering a load and moving it horizontally, in which the hoisting mechanism is an integral part of the machine. A crane may be a fixed or mobile machine. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bulk cargo spout</I> means a spout which may or may not be telescopic and may or may not have removable sections, but is suspended over the vessel from some overhead structure by wire rope or other means. Such a spout is often used with a “thrower” or “trimming machine”. A grain loading spout is an example of those covered by this definition. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bulk cargo sucker</I> means a pneumatic conveyor which utilizes a spoutlike device, which may be adjustable vertically and/or laterally, and which is suspended over a vessel from some overhead structure by wire rope or other means. An example of an installation of this nature is the “grain sucker” used to discharge grain from barges. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or his authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administration</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Person</I> includes any individual, partnership, corporation, agency, association, or organization. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Competent person</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An individual qualified to perform gear certification functions with respect to vessels' cargo handling gear, as specifically set forth in § 1919.37. 
</P>
<P>(2) An individual qualified under the provisions of subparts F and G of this part to perform gear certification functions with respect to shore-based material handling devices. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Ton</I> means a ton of 2,240 pounds when applied to vessels' cargo handling gear, and a ton of 2,000 pounds when applied to shore-based material handling devices or to shore-type cranes permanently mounted aboard barges or other vessels employed in domestic trade and designed on the basis of the 2,000-pound ton. Capacity ratings may be stated in pounds. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Nondestructive examination</I> means examination of structure or parts by electronic, ultrasonic, or other nondestructive examination suitable for the purpose. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedure Governing Accreditation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.3   Application for accreditation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> Any person seeking accreditation shall file an original and duplicate copy of an application for accreditation with the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, United States Department of Labor, Washington, D.C. 20210, on a form provided by the Administration for this purpose. Each application shall be signed and certified by the applicant and, if the applicant is an agency or organization, by a responsible officer of such agency or organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of application.</I> The application form shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement detailing the applicable types of work performed by the applicant in the past, noting the amount and extent of such work performed within the previous three years, listing representative vessels involved, and including representative job orders, if available, or equivalent evidence; 
</P>
<P>(2) Descriptive details concerning any testing instruments and heat treatment furnaces which are to be used in conducting required tests or heat treatments. Test reports indicating that instruments meet the accuracy standards set forth in this part shall be included; 
</P>
<P>(3) A list setting forth the ports in which applicant currently conducts his business as well as those in which he proposes to conduct gear certification activities; 
</P>
<P>(4) A list of the applicant's responsible qualified personnel, both supervisory and managerial and including any surveyors, with resumes of their individual experience in the testing, examination, inspection and heat treatment of cargo gear. Such list shall include any branch office personnel or surveyors appointed to act in the applicant's behalf in any of the ports of the United States: <I>Provided, however,</I> That where the submission of individual resumes would be unduly burdensome because of the large number of persons engaged in the applicant's behalf, the applicant, after stating this fact, need only submit a list of its personnel together with a detailed statement of the qualifications upon which the appointment of surveyors is based; 
</P>
<P>(5) A detailed schedule of the fees proposed to be charged for the various gear certification services; 
</P>
<P>(6) Evidence of financial stability; 
</P>
<P>(7) Names of at least three business references who will furnish information regarding work performed by applicant; 
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional information the applicant deems to be pertinent. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Section 1919.3 contains a collection of information which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under OMB Control No. 1218-0003) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.2.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.4   Action upon application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of an application for accreditation, the Assistant Secretary shall approve or deny the application. The Assistant Secretary may conduct an investigation, which may include a hearing, prior to approving or denying an application. To the extent he deems appropriate, the Assistant Secretary may provide an opportunity to other interested persons to present data and views on the application prior to approval or denial. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any application which fails to present the information required by the prescribed form may be returned to the applicant with a notation of deficiencies and without prejudice to submission of a new or revised application. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the application is approved, notice of approval shall be mailed to the applicant. If the application is denied, notice of such denial shall be mailed to the applicant and such denial shall be without prejudice to any subsequent application except where such action is deemed to be in the public interest. In the event an application is denied with prejudice, the provisions of § 1919.9 shall be applicable. 
</P>
<P>(d) A copy of the notice of accreditation shall be kept on file by applicant at the applicant's place of business. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.2.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.5   Duration and renewal of accreditation.</HEAD>
<P>The period of accreditation shall not exceed three years. Applications for renewal of accreditation shall be made on the same form as described in § 1919.3. No accreditation shall expire until action on an application for renewal shall have been finally determined, provided that such application has been properly executed in accordance with § 1919.3 and filed with and received by the Assistant Secretary not less than 15 nor more than 60 days prior to the expiration date. A final determination means either the approval or initial denial of the application for renewal. The procedure specified in § 1919.4 shall be applicable to all applications for renewal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.6" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.2.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.6   Criteria governing accreditation to certificate vessels' cargo gear.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A person applying for accreditation to issue registers and pertinent certificates, to maintain registers and appropriate records, and to conduct initial, annual and quinquennial surveys, shall not be accredited unless that person is engaged in one or more of the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(i) Classification of vessels; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Certification of vessels' cargo gear; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Shipbuilding or ship repairing, or both insofar as related to work on vessels' cargo handling gear; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Unit and loose gear testing of vessels' cargo handling gear. 
</P>
<P>(2) Applicants for accreditation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section for operations in coastal or Great Lakes ports who come within paragraph (a)(1) (ii) or (iv) shall not be accredited unless they conduct at least 1,500 hours of cargo gear certification work per year. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person applying for accreditation to carry out tests of loose gear or wire rope, or both, or to carry out heat treatments, and to issue the related certificates, shall be engaged in one or both of the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(1) Testing of loose gear or wire rope, or both; 
</P>
<P>(2) Heat treatment of chains and loose cargo gear. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A person applying for accreditation shall be staffed by individuals technically qualified to conduct the inspections and examinations and to conduct or supervise tests and heat treatments prescribed in this part. Any representatives, agents or surveyors acting on behalf of a person applying for accreditation in ports in which such operations are conducted shall be similarly qualified. 
</P>
<P>(2) Accreditation to conduct such nondestructive examination as may be a part of any certification activity may be granted to applicants found competent and equipped to carry out this activity. 
</P>
<P>(d) Except as noted in § 1919.1(c), and unless exemptions are granted under § 1919.10(h), a person applying for accreditation as specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be prepared to carry out all of the requirements of subparts C, D, and E, of this part except that loose gear and wire rope tests and heat treatments may be carried out by the manufacturer of the gear concerned or by another person accredited specifically for this purpose. 
</P>
<P>(e) A person applying for accreditation shall have a satisfactory record of performance, and shall be in sound financial condition. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.7" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.2.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.7   Voluntary amendment or termination of accreditation.</HEAD>
<P>The accreditation of any person may be voluntarily amended or terminated upon written request filed with the Assistant Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.8" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.2.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.8   Suspension or revocation of accreditation.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary may suspend or revoke the accreditation of any person for cause. Except in cases of willfulness or cases in which the public interest requires otherwise, before any accreditation is suspended or revoked, facts or conduct which may warrant such action shall be called to the attention of the person involved in writing and that person shall be afforded an opportunity to achieve or demonstrate appropriate compliance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.9" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.2.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.9   Reconsideration and review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person aggrieved by the action of the Assistant Secretary or his authorized representative in denying, granting, suspending or revoking an accreditation under this part may within 15 days after such action, (1) file a written request for reconsideration thereof by the Assistant Secretary or the authorized representative of the Assistant Secretary who made the decision in the first instance, or (2) file a written request for review of the decision by the Assistant Secretary or an authorized representative of the Assistant Secretary, who has taken no part in the action which is the subject for review. 
</P>
<P>(b) A request for reconsideration shall be granted where the applicant shows that there is additional evidence which may materially affect the decision and that there were reasonable grounds for failure to adduce such evidence in the original proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person aggrieved by the action of the Assistant Secretary or authorized representative of the Assistant Secretary in denying a request for reconsideration may, within 15 days after the denial of such request, file with the Assistant Secretary or his authorized representative a written request for review. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person aggrieved by the reconsidered determination of the Assistant Secretary or authorized representative of the Assistant Secretary, may within 15 days after such determination, file with the Assistant Secretary a written request for review. 
</P>
<P>(e) A request for review shall be granted where reasonable grounds for the review are set forth in the request. 
</P>
<P>(f) If a request for reconsideration or review is granted, all interested persons shall be afforded an opportunity to present their views. 
</P>
<P>(g) No cargo gear certification function shall be performed by any person seeking reconsideration or review under this section pending the final decision with respect to such reconsideration or review. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Duties of Persons Accredited To Certificate Vessels' Cargo Gear</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.10" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.10   General duties; exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as noted in § 1919.1 and in paragraph (h) of this section, the requirements set forth in subparts D and E of this part shall be strictly adhered to in all testing, examinations, inspections, and heat treatments. 
</P>
<P>(b) Supervision of all testing, examinations, inspections, and heat treatments shall be carried out only by such persons as are listed in the application for accreditation, or subsequent supplements thereto, submitted pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The certificates issued by an accredited person shall be signed and all register entries made only by an authorized agent of such accredited person. No certification shall be issued until any deficiencies considered by the accredited person to constitute a currently unsatisfactory condition have been corrected. Replacement parts shall be of equal or better quality as original equipment and suitable for the purpose. In the event deficiencies remain uncorrected and no certification may therefore be issued, the accredited person shall inform the nearest District Office of the Administration of the circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(d) Dynamometers or other recording test equipment owned by an accredited person shall have been tested for accuracy within the six months next preceding application for accreditation or renewal of same. Such test shall be performed with calibrating equipment which has been checked in turn so that indications are traceable to the National Bureau of Standards. A copy of test reports shall accompany the application. Where test equipment is not the property of the accredited person, that person shall not issue any certificate based upon the use of such equipment unless its owner has made available a certificate of accuracy based on the requirements of this paragraph, obtained within 1 year prior to such use and stating the errors of the equipment. Reasonable standards of accuracy shall be met and proof loads adjusted as necessary. 
</P>
<P>(e) An accredited person shall, upon request, provide the nearest local office of the Administration with advance information as to scheduled testing or of such other functions as are performed and facilitate the Administration's observation of any such activities as it may desire to witness: <I>Provided, however,</I> That tests need not be delayed, except when specifically requested by the Administration under unusual circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(f) All cargo gear registers or certificates issued by an accredited person shall be made on forms prescribed or approved by the Administration. 
</P>
<P>(g) Unless otherwise instructed by the Assistant Secretary in specific instances, any person accredited under § 1919.6(a) shall accept certificates, relating to loose gear or wire rope tests or to heat treatments which are issued by the manufacturer of the gear concerned, by another person accredited specifically by the Assistant Secretary for this purpose, or by any other person whose certificates are acceptable to the Administration. Such certificates shall either be attached as a part of the vessel's certification or shall be used as the basis for the issuance of the accredited person's own loose gear, wire rope, or heat treatment certificates. In the latter case, the original certificates shall be kept on file by the accredited person as part of the permanent record of the vessel concerned. 
</P>
<P>(h) In case of practical difficulties or unnecessary hardships, the Assistant Secretary in his discretion may grant exemptions from any provision of subparts C, D, and E of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.11" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.11   Recordkeeping and related procedures concerning records in custody of accredited persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An accredited person shall maintain records of all work performed under subparts D and E of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) An accredited person shall maintain a continuous record of the status of the certification of each vessel issued a register by such person. 
</P>
<P>(c) The records required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall be available for examination by the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(d) When annual or quinquennial tests, inspections, examinations, or heat treatments are performed by an accredited person, other than the person who originally issued the vessel's register, such accredited person shall furnish copies of any certificates issued and information as to register entries to the person originally issuing the register. 
</P>
<P>(e) An accredited person shall inform the nearest local office of the Administration whenever a vessel is initially certificated under these regulations and a register in the prescribed form has been issued. 
</P>
<P>(f) A copy of each certificate relating to unit tests or thorough examinations, except those issued by the manufacturer and those issued by accredited persons outside of the United States, shall be sent to the nearest local office of the Administration within 10 days after issuance. Such records shall form a part of the Administration's file on the accredited person. 
</P>
<P>(g) An accredited person shall promptly notify the nearest local office of the Administration with respect to any changes in technical personnel, in fee schedules in geographical areas in which operations are conducted, or other pertinent substantial changes in its organization or operations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.12" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.12   Recordkeeping and related procedures concerning records in custody of the vessel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A fully completed and up-to-date register shall be kept in the form prescribed or approved by the Administration, giving the particulars required with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The inspections and thorough examinations required by § 1919.15(a) and (b). 
</P>
<P>(2) The thorough examinations required by § 1919.15(c). 
</P>
<P>(3) The thorough examinations required by § 1919.17. 
</P>
<P>(4) The heat treatment required by § 1919.16 (a) and (b), and § 1919.19. 
</P>
<P>(b) Certificates in the form prescribed or approved by the Administration shall be kept up-to-date, be attached to the register, and shall contain the particulars required with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The testing and examinations required by §§ 1919.14, 1919.15(a), and 1919.19. 
</P>
<P>(2) The heat treatment required by §§ 1919.16 and 1919.19. 
</P>
<P>(c) The certificates and entries in the register shall be signed by a person qualified under § 1919.37. 
</P>
<P>(d) Adequate means shall be provided to enable persons examining the register, or any certificate attached thereto, to identify items of cargo gear referred to therein. Small items of gear, such as shackles, shall bear a mark to indicate that they have been initially tested. 
</P>
<P>(e) Records shall be kept aboard vessels identifying wire rope or articles of loose gear obtained from time to time and required to be certificated under the regulations of this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) An accredited person shall instruct the vessel's officers, or the vessel's operator if the vessel is unmanned, that the vessel's register and certificates shall be preserved for at least 5 years after the date of the latest entry except in the case of nonrecurring test certificates concerning gear which is kept in use for a longer period, in which event the pertinent certificates shall be retained so long as that gear is continued in use. 
</P>
<P>(g) In cases where derricks, spouts, suckers, or cranes are mounted permanently aboard barges which remain in domestic inland waters service, the certification documentation shall comply with the provisions of § 1919.90 of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Certification of Vessels' Cargo Gear</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.13" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.13   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as noted in § 1919.1 and as provided in exemptions under § 1919.10(h), certification performed by accredited persons shall conform to the requirements contained in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) Safe working loads assigned to assembled units of gear, shall be based on applicable design criteria acceptable to the accredited person. Where no design data on which to base a rating is obtainable, the safe working load ratings assigned shall be based on the owner's information and warranty that those so assigned are correct. Unit test certificates shall state the basis for any such safe working load assignment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.14" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.14   Initial tests of cargo gear and tests after alterations, renewals or repairs.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Before being taken into use, hoisting machines, fixed gear aboard vessels accessory thereto, and loose gear and wire rope used in connection therewith shall be tested and examined and the safe working load thereof certified in the manner set forth in subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Replacement or additional loose gear and wire rope obtained from time to time shall also be tested and examined in the manner set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. However, the replacement of a component part of an article of loose gear such as a sheave, pin, or bushing does not require a new test certificate as long as the new component at least equals in all particulars the part replaced. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of untested gear which has been in use, an initial test in conformance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be carried out: <I>Provided, however,</I> That existing standing rigging and wire rope will not be required to be tested but shall be thoroughly examined to ascertain its fitness for continued use in conformance with the requirements of §§ 1919.24 and 1919.25. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of important alterations or renewals of the machinery and gear and also after repairs due to failure of or damage to other than loose components, a test as required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be carried out. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the operation in which cargo gear is engaged never utilizes more than a fraction of the safe working load rating, the owner may, at his option, have said gear certificated for, and limited in operation to, a lesser maximum safe working load: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the gear concerned is physically capable of operation at the original load rating and the load reduction is not for the purpose of avoiding correction of any deficiency. 
</P>
<P>(e) In no case shall safe working loads be increased beyond the original design limitations unless such increase is based on engineering calculations by or acceptable to the accredited certification agency, and all necessary structural changes are carried out. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.15" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.15   Periodic tests, examinations and inspections.</HEAD>
<P>After being taken into use, every hoisting machine, all fixed gear aboard vessels accessory thereto and loose gear used in connection therewith shall be tested, thoroughly examined or inspected as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Derricks with their winches and accessory gear, including the attachments, as a unit; and cranes and other hoisting machines with their accessory gear, as a unit, shall be tested and thoroughly examined every 5 years in the manner set forth in subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Derricks, their permanent attachments and any other fixed gear, the dismantling of which is especially difficult, shall be visually inspected every twelve months. In order to facilitate such inspection, all derricks shall be lowered. 
</P>
<P>(c) All hoisting machines (e.g., cranes, winches, blocks, shackles, and all other accessory gear) not included in paragraph (b) of this section shall be thoroughly examined every 12 months by means of a visual examination, supplemented as necessary by other means, such as a hammer test or with electronic, ultrasonic, or other nondestructive methods, carried out as carefully as conditions permit in order to arrive at a reliable conclusion as to the safety of the parts examined. Particular attention shall be paid to the suitability for continued use of all swivels and the pins and bushings of blocks. If necessary, parts of the machines or gear shall be dismantled. If blocks are disassembled, all shell bolt nuts shall be securely locked upon reassembly. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where a derrick or crane is mounted on a barge hull, and ballast tanks within the hull are used to facilitate use of the derrick or crane, or uncontrolled free surface may be a factor, each annual inspection or examination, as required, shall include such inspection as is necessary for the purpose of determining the integrity of any internals contributing to stability under conditions of use. The owner shall provide the accredited person with necessary information on any ballasting arrangements required. 
</P>
<P>(e) Annual inspection or examination, as required, shall include, among other things, examination of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Derrick heel attachment points. Heel pins may, if possible, be examined by nondestructive examination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Shrouds and stays necessary in the use of the gear, together with attachment points. 
</P>
<P>(3) Deck fittings for the securing of vangs, topping lifts, and/or preventers. 
</P>
<P>(4) Means of attachment to the hull of “A” frame or other fixed derrick or crane structure and of mobile types of equipment permanently placed aboard the barge or vessel. 
</P>
<P>(5) Clamshell buckets or other similar equipment, such as magnets, etc., used in conjunction with a derrick or crane mounted aboard a vessel, with particular attention to closing line wires and sheaves. The accredited person may supplement such examination by requesting any operational tests he may deem appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(6) Winch and other operating drums for excessive wear or defect. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.16" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.16   Heat treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All chains (other than bridle chains attached to derricks or masts), rings, hooks, shackles, and swivels made of wrought iron, which are used in hoisting or lowering, shall be annealed in accordance with § 1919.36 at the following intervals: 
</P>
<P>(1) Half-inch and smaller chains, rings, hooks, shackles and swivels in general use, at least once every six months; and 
</P>
<P>(2) All other chains, rings, hooks, shackles, and swivels in general use, at least once every twelve months. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of gear used solely on lifting machinery worked by hand, twelve months shall be substituted for six months in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and two years for twelve months in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) When used in this paragraph, the term “in general use” means used on fifty-two or more days in a year. In any case, however, the period between annealings shall not exceed two years. 
</P>
<P>(b) Chains, rings, hooks, shackles, and swivels made of material other than wrought iron or steel shall be heat treated when necessary in accordance with § 1919.36(b). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.17" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.17   Exemptions from heat treatment.</HEAD>
<P>Gear made of steel, or gear which contains (as in ball bearings swivels), or is permanently attached to (as with blocks) equipment made of materials which cannot be subjected to heat treatment shall be exempt from the requirements of § 1919.16. Such gear, however, shall be thoroughly examined in the manner described in § 1919.15(c). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.18" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.18   Grace periods.</HEAD>
<P>Grace periods allowed in connection with the requirements of this subpart are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Annual or six-month requirements—by the end of the voyage during which they become due; 
</P>
<P>(b) Quinquennial requirements—within six months after the date when due;
</P>
<P>(c) Grace periods shall not be deemed to extend subsequent due dates. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 76 FR 33610, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.19" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.19   Gear requiring welding.</HEAD>
<P>Chains or other gear which have been lengthened, altered or repaired by welding shall be properly heat treated where necessary, and, before again being put into use, shall be tested and reexamined in the manner set forth in subpart E of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.20" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.20   Damaged components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to § 1918.51(b) of this chapter, any derrick or associated permanent fitting which is deformed in service between surveys shall be subjected to proof test to determine its suitability for continued service. If a proof test indicates that the derrick or associated permanent fitting may be continued in service without repair, a note of the existing deformity shall be made on the test certificate. When, in the opinion of the accredited person, it is unsafe to conduct a proof test with an existing deformity, the derrick or associated permanent fitting shall be replaced or repaired and then subjected to proof test in accordance with subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any loose gear components which are injured or deformed by a proof load shall be replaced before a certificate is issued. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any derrick, other fixed installation, or associated permanent fitting which is injured or deformed by a proof load shall be replaced or repaired and another proof load test shall be conducted without damage before a certificate is issued. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.21" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.21   Marking and posting of safe working loads.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The safe working load of the assembled gear and the minimum angle to the horizontal at which this load may be applied shall be plainly marked at the heels of all booms along with the date of the test. Where gear is certificated for use in union purchase, the union purchase safe working load shall also be plainly marked. Any limitations shall be noted in the vessel's papers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The safe working load shall be marked on all blocks used in hoisting or lowering. 
</P>
<P>(c) When the capacity of the boom of a crane or derrick has been or will be rated in accordance with the variance of its radius, the maximum safe working loads for the various working angles of the boom and the maximum and minimum radii at which the boom may be safely used shall be conspicuously posted near the controls and visible to the crane operator. Ratings may be stated in pounds. When they are stated in tons of 2,000 pounds, this fact shall be indicated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.22" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.22   Requirements governing braking devices and power sources.</HEAD>
<P>All types of winches and cranes shall be provided with means to stop and hold the proof load in any position, and the efficiency of such means shall be demonstrated. Electric winches, electrohydraulic winches fitted with electromagnetic or hydraulic brakes at the winch, or electric cranes shall be equipped so that a failure of the electric power shall stop the motion and set the brakes without any action on the part of the operator. Current for operation of electric winches and cranes during the tests shall be taken from the vessel's circuits. Shore current may be used if it passes through the vessel's main switchboard. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.23" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.23   Means of derrick attachment.</HEAD>
<P>Appropriate measures shall be taken to prevent the foot of a derrick from being accidentally lifted from its socket or support during the test. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.24" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.24   Limitations on use of wire rope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An eye splice made in any wire rope shall have at least three tucks with a whole strand of rope and two tucks with one-half of the wires cut out of each strand. However, this requirement shall not operate to preclude the use of another form of splice or connection which can be shown to be as efficient and which is not prohibited by part 1918 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except for eye splices in the ends of wires, each wire rope used in hoisting or lowering, in guying derricks, or as a topping lift, preventer or pendant shall consist of one continuous piece without knot or splice. 
</P>
<P>(c) Eyes in the ends of wire rope cargo falls shall not be formed by knots and, in single part falls, shall not be formed by wire rope clips. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ends of falls shall be secured to the winch drums by clamps, U-bolts, shackles or some other equally strong method. Fiber rope fastenings shall not be used. 
</P>
<P>(e) Wire rope shall not be used for the vessel's cargo gear if in any length of eight diameters, the total number of visible broken wires exceeds 10 percent of the total number of wires, or if the rope shows other signs of excessive wear, corrosion, or defect. Particular attention shall be given to the condition of those sections of wire rope adjacent to any terminal connections, those sections exposed to abnormal wear, and those sections not normally exposed for examination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.25" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.4.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.25   Limitations on use of chains.</HEAD>
<P>Chains forming a part of vessel's cargo gear shall not be used when, due to stretch, the increase of length of a measured section exceeds five percent, when a link is damaged, or when other external defects are evident. Chains shall not be shortened by bolting, wiring, or knotting. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Certification of Vessels: Tests and Proof Loads; Heat Treatment; Competent Persons</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.26" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.26   Visual inspection before tests.</HEAD>
<P>Before any test under this subpart E is carried out, a visual inspection of the gear involved shall be conducted and any visibly defective gear shall be replaced or repaired. The provisions of § 1919.15(d) shall be adhered to. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.27" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.27   Unit proof tests—winches, derricks and gear accessory thereto.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Winches, with the whole of the gear accessory thereto (including derricks, goosenecks, eye plates, eye bolts, or other attachments), shall be tested with a proof load which shall exceed the safe working load as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safe working load
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proof load
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent in excess.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20-50 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 tons in excess.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 50 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent in excess.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The proof load shall be lifted with the vessel's normal tackle with the derrick at an angle not more than 15 degrees to the horizontal, or, at the designed minimum angle when this is greater, or, when this is impracticable, at the lowest practicable angle. The angle at which the test was made shall be stated in the certificate of test. After the proof load has been lifted, it shall be swung as far as possible in both directions. In applying the proof load, the design factors of the gear concerned will determine whether the load is applied with a single part fall or with a purchase and the certificate of test shall state the means used. Where winches are fitted with mechanical brakes for manual operation they shall be demonstrated to be in satisfactory operating condition. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of heavy lift derrick barges, proof loads shall be applied, except as limited by design and stability considerations, at the maximum and minimum radii for which designed, as well as at any intermediate radius which the surveyor may deem necessary, and shall be swung as far as possible in both directions. Data with respect to each proof load applied shall be entered in the test certificate. 
</P>
<P>(d) No items of cargo gear furnished by outside sources shall be used as a part of the vessel's gear for the purpose of accomplishing the proof test. 
</P>
<P>(e) All tests prescribed by this section should in general be carried out by dead load, except that in the case of quadrennial tests, replacements, or renewals, spring or hydraulic balances may be used where dead loads are not reasonably available. However, no exception shall be allowed in the case of gear on new vessels. 
</P>
<P>(f) The test shall not be regarded as satisfactory unless the indicator remains constant under the proof load for a period of at least 5 minutes. 
</P>
<P>(g)(1) The safe working load, determined pursuant to the requirements of this section, shall be applicable only to a swinging derrick. When using two fixed derricks in “union purchase” rigs, the safe working load should generally be reduced. It is recommended that owners obtain union purchase safe working load certification based upon design study and analysis by, or acceptable to, a qualified technical office of an accredited gear certification agency, with the recognition that such determinations are valid only for the conditions contemplated in the analysis. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where both guys and preventers are fitted, union purchase certification shall state whether the guy or the preventer is the working strength member, when the guy is for slewing only, and when the guy and preventer should share working loads as far as practicable. 
</P>
<P>(h) When necessary in the proof testing of heavy derricks, the appropriate shrouds and stays shall be rigged. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.28" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.28   Unit proof tests—cranes and gear accessory thereto.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as noted in paragraph (e) of this section, cranes and other hoisting machines, together with gear accessory thereto, shall be tested with a proof load which shall exceed the safe working load as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safe working load
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proof load
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent in excess.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20-50 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 tons in excess.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 50 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent in excess.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The proof load shall be lifted and swung as far as possible in both directions. If the jib or boom of the crane has a variable radius, it shall be tested with proof loads, as specified in paragraph (a) of this section, at the maximum and minimum radii. In the case of hydraulic cranes, when due to the limitation of pressure it is impossible to lift a load 25 percent in excess of the safe working load, it will be sufficient to lift the greatest possible load. 
</P>
<P>(c) Initial proof tests of new cranes shall be made only with a dead load as specified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) Initial tests of cranes which have been in service, quadrennial tests, or tests associated with replacements or renewals, may be made with spring or hydraulic balances where dead loads are not reasonably available under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Tests shall be conducted at maximum, minimum, and intermediate radius points, as well as such points in the arc of rotation as meet with the approval of the accredited person. 
</P>
<P>(2) An additional test shall be conducted with partial load and shall include all functions and movements contemplated in the use of the crane. 
</P>
<P>(e) In cases where shore-type cranes are mounted permanently aboard barges, the requirements of this Subpart E with respect to unit proof tests and examinations shall not apply and the applicable requirements of Subpart H of this part shall be adhered to with respect to unit proof tests and examinations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.29" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.29   Limitations on safe working loads and proof loads.</HEAD>
<P>The proof loads specified by §§ 1919.27 and 1919.28 shall be adjusted as necessary to meet any pertinent limitations based on stability and/or on structural competence at particular radii. Safe working loads shall be reduced accordingly. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.30" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.30   Examinations subsequent to unit tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After satisfactory completion of the unit proof load tests required by §§ 1919.27 and 1919.28, the cargo gear and all component parts thereof shall be given a thorough visual examination, supplemented as necessary by other means, such as a hammer test or with electronic, ultrasonic, or other nondestructive methods, to determine if any of the parts were damaged, deformed, or otherwise rendered unsafe for further use. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the test of gear referred to in paragraph (a) of this section is being conducted for the first time on a vessel, accessory gear shall be dismantled or disassembled for examination after the test. The sheaves and pins of the blocks included in this test need not be removed unless there is evidence of deformation or failure. 
</P>
<P>(c) For subsequent tests such parts of the gear shall be dismantled or disassembled after the test as necessary to determine their suitability for continued service. 
</P>
<P>(d) When blocks are disassembled all shell bolt nuts shall be securely locked upon reassembly. 
</P>
<P>(e) In carrying out the requirements of this section, replacement shall be required of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any swivel found to have excessive tolerance as a result of wear on any bearing surface. 
</P>
<P>(2) Pins of blocks found to be shouldered, notched, or grooved from wear, in which case, in addition to replacing the pin, sheave bushings shall be examined for suitability for continued use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.31" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.31   Proof tests—loose gear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Chains, rings, shackles and other loose gear (whether accessory to a machine or not) shall be tested with a proof load against the article equal to that shown in the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Article of gear
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proof load
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chain, ring, hook, shackle or swivel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 percent in excess of the safe working load.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blocks:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Single sheave block</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 percent in excess of the safe working load. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Multiple sheave block with safe working load up to and including 20 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 percent in excess of the safe working load.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Multiple sheave block with safe working load over 20 tons up to and including 40 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 tons in excess of the safe working load.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Multiple sheave block with safe working load over 40 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 percent in excess of the safe working load.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pitched chains used with hand-operated blocks and rings, hooks, shackles or swivels permanently attached thereto</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 percent in excess of the safe working load.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hand-operated blocks used with pitched chains and rings, hooks, shackles or swivels permanently attached thereto</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 percent in excess of the safe working load.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The proof load applied to the block is equivalent to twice the maximum resultant load on the eye of pin of the block when lifting the nominal safe working load defined in (i) below. The proof load is, therefore, equal to four times the safe working load as defined in (i) below or twice the safe working load as defined in (ii) below.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(i) The nominal safe working load of a single-sheave block should be the maximum load which can be safely lifted by the block when the load is attached to a rope which passes around the sheave of the block.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(ii) In the case of a single-sheave block where the load is attached directly to the block instead of to a rope passing around the sheave, it is permissible to lift a load equal to twice the nominal safe working load of the block as defined in (i) above.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(iii) In the case of a lead block so situated that an acute angle cannot be formed by the two parts of the rope passing over it (i.e., the angle is always 90° or more), the block need not have a greater nominal safe working load than one-half the maximum resultant load which can be placed upon it.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) In cases where persons accredited to carry out loose gear tests may be retained to conduct tests of special stevedoring gear as described in § 1918.61(b) of this chapter, which does not form part of a vessel's equipment, such tests shall adhere to the requirements set forth in § 1918.61(b) (1), (2), and (3) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) After being tested as required by paragraph (a) of this section, and before being taken into use, all chains, rings, hooks, shackles, blocks or other loose gear, except as noted in § 1919.32, shall be thoroughly examined, the sheaves and pins of the blocks being removed for this purpose, to determine whether any part has been injured or permanently deformed by the test. Shell bolt nuts shall be securely locked upon reassembly. Defective loose gear components shall be replaced before the certificate is issued. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any certificate relating to shackles, swivels or strength members of single-sheave blocks which have been restored to original dimensions by welding shall state this fact. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.32" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.32   Specially designed blocks and components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Blocks and connecting components of an unusual nature which are specially designed and constructed as an integral part of a particular lifting unit and are either permanently affixed or of such design that two or more components must be tested together need not be considered as loose gear for purposes of § 1919.31. 
</P>
<P>(b) In lieu of the loose gear proof test required by § 1919.31(a), design data shall be submitted to an accredited certification agency indicating design and material specifications and analysis whereby the designed strength of such gear may be determined. 
</P>
<P>(c) Subsequent to the test of the lifting unit as a whole, a thorough visual examination shall be made of disassembled parts and an electronic, ultrasonic, or other equally efficient nondestructive examination shall be made of those parts not dismantled to ensure the safe condition of such parts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.33" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.33   Proof tests—wire rope.</HEAD>
<P>Wire rope, except as provided in § 1919.14(b), shall be tested by sample, a piece being tested to destruction, and the safe working load of running ropes, unless otherwise acceptable to the Administration on the basis of design, shall not exceed one-fifth of the breaking load of the sample tested. In the case of running ropes used in gear with a safe working load exceeding 10 tons, the safe working load shall not exceed one-fourth of the breaking load of the sample tested. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.34" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.34   Proof tests after repairs or alterations.</HEAD>
<P>When proof loads are applied after repairs or alterations, all parts of the assembled gear shall be examined as required in §§ 1919.30, 1919.31(c), or 1919.32(c), whichever is applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.35" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.35   Order of tests.</HEAD>
<P>When both unit and loose gear proof load tests are required, the loose gear test may be carried out after completion of the unit test. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.36" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.36   Heat treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The annealing of wrought iron gear required by this part shall be accomplished at a temperature between 1100° and 1200 °F. and the exposure shall be of between 30 and 60 minutes duration. After being annealed, the gear shall be allowed to cool slowly and shall then be carefully inspected. All annealing shall be carried out in a closed furnace. 
</P>
<P>(b) When heat treatment of loose gear made of other than wrought iron or steel is recommended by the manufacturer, it shall be carried out in accordance with the specifications of the manufacturer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.37" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.5.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.37   Competent persons.</HEAD>
<P>All gear certification functions shall be performed by competent persons as set forth in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Functions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Competent person
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any testing, examination, inspection, or heat treatment required in United States ports</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Responsible individual, surveyor or other authorized agent of a person accredited by the Administration under the regulations contained in this part.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any testing, examination, inspection, or heat treatment required while the vessel is in other than United States ports</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Responsible individual, surveyor or other authorized agent of persons recognized by the Commandant of the United States Coast Guard or by a foreign nation whose certification is accepted by the Administration as being in substantial accordance with § 1918.12(a) of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Testing, examination and inspection of loose gear or wire rope; heat treatment of loose gear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employees or authorized agents of persons accredited specifically by the Administration for this purpose under the regulations contained in this part, or the manufacturer of the gear concerned unless disapproved by the Assistant Secretary.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Accreditation To Certificate Shore-Based Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.50" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.6.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.50   Eligibility for accreditation to certificate shore-based material handling devices covered by § 1917.50 of this chapter, safety and health regulations for marine terminals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person applying for accreditation to carry out certification activities and to issue and maintain the requisite records must be: 
</P>
<P>(1) A manufacturer of cranes or derricks or of specialized equipment of the type for which accreditation application is made, or a person or organization representing such a manufacturer in a technical capacity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Technically experienced and qualified to carry out examinations and/or testing, as applicable, of vessels or shore-based equipment or gear of the type for which accreditation application is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) The owner of shore-based equipment affected may designate a member of his organization to carry out certification functions respecting the owner's equipment, on the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The designee is technically experienced and qualified in the inspection and maintenance or design of the type of equipment involved, aside from employment as an operator only. 
</P>
<P>(2) The designee has applied to an accredited, nationally operating certification agency and has been granted appointment or equivalent recognition by that agency as a surveyor for the purpose intended. 
</P>
<P>(3) Certification activities carried out by the designee are cleared through the offices, and are subject to the approval, of the accredited certificating agency. When equipment is found satisfactory for use upon any survey, said equipment may be used pending receipt of notification of such approval or any disapproval. 
</P>
<P>(4) In cases where equipment is certificated by a person designated by the equipment owner, the cognizant accredited certification agency retains the right to inspect such equipment as desired and convenient in order to ascertain the adequacy of the certification activity performed. 
</P>
<P>(c) Accreditation to conduct such nondestructive examination as may be a part of any certification activity may be granted to applicants found competent and equipped to carry out this activity. 
</P>
<P>(d) Unless exemptions are granted at the discretion of the Assistant Secretary in cases of practical difficulties or unnecessary hardship, applicants for accreditation as specified in this section shall be prepared to carry out all necessary functions, except that any requisite wire rope tests, nondestructive examinations, and heat treatments may be carried out by the manufacturer of the gear concerned or by another person accredited specifically for these purposes. 
</P>
<P>(e) A person applying for accreditation shall have a satisfactory record of relevant experience and performance, and shall be in sound financial condition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.51" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.6.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.51   Provisions respecting application for accreditation, action upon the application, and related matters.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of §§ 1919.3, 1919.4, 1919.5, 1919.7, 1919.8, and 1919.9 shall govern accreditation to certificate shore-based material handling devices to the extent applicable. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Section 1919.51 contains a collection of information which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under OMB Control No. 1218-0003) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Duties of Persons Accredited To Certificate Shore-Based Material Handling Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.60" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.7.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.60   General duties, exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of subpart H of this part shall be strictly observed: <I>Provided, however,</I> That in cases of practical difficulties or unnecessary hardship, the Assistant Secretary in his discretion may grant exemptions or variations from any provision in that subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise noted in this part, all functions required by subpart H of this part shall be carried out by or under the supervision of a person accredited for the purpose or by his authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(c) All required unit proof load tests shall be carried out by the use of weights as a dead load. Only where this is not possible may dynamometers or other recording test equipment be used. Any such recording test equipment owned by an accredited person shall have been tested for accuracy within the 6 months next preceding application for accreditation or renewal thereof. Such test shall be performed with calibrating equipment which has been checked in turn so that indications are traceable to the National Bureau of Standards. A copy of test reports shall accompany the accreditation application. Where test equipment is not the property of the accredited person, that person shall not issue any certificate based upon the use of such equipment unless its owner has made available a certificate of accuracy based on the requirements of this paragraph obtained within the year prior to such use, and stating the errors of the equipment. In any event, reasonable standards of accuracy shall be met and proof loads adjusted as necessary. 
</P>
<P>(d) The qualifications of any person appointed or recognized by any accredited person for the purpose of carrying out certification functions shall meet with the approval of the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(e) Sections 1919.10(e) and (g) and 1919.11 shall govern, to the extent applicable, persons accredited under subpart F of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Certification of Shore-Based Material Handling Devices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.70" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.70   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certification of shore-based material handling devices shall conform to the requirements contained in this subpart, except in cases for which exemptions or variations have been granted by the Assistant Secretary as provided in §§ 1919.50(d) and 1919.60(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) Any replacements or repairs deemed necessary by the accredited person shall be carried out before application of a proof test. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ton</I> in this subpart means a ton of 2,000 pounds. 
</P>
<P>(d) When applied to shore-based material handling devices, ratings may be stated in pounds rather than tons. When stated in tons of 2,000 pounds, this fact shall be indicated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.71" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.71   Unit proof test and examination of cranes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unit proof tests of cranes shall be carried out at the following times: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the cases of new cranes, before initial use and every 4 years thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the cases of uncertificated cranes which have been in use, at the time of initial certification and every 4 years thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(3) After important alterations and renewals and after repairs due to failure of, or damage to major components. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unit proof load tests of cranes shall be carried out where applicable with the boom in the least stable direction relative to the mounting, based on the manufacturer's specifications. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unit proof load tests shall be based on the manufacturer's load ratings for the conditions of use and shall, except in the case of bridge type cranes utilizing a trolley, consist of application of a proof load of 10 percent in excess of the load ratings at maximum and minimum radii, and at such intermediate radii as the certificating authority may deem necessary in the circumstances. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Trolley equipped cranes shall be subject to a proof load of 25 percent in excess of the manufacturer's load rating. In cases of foreign manufacture, the manufacturer's specifications shall be subject to approval by the certificating authority as being equivalent to U.S. practice. The weight of all auxiliary handling devices such as, but not limited to, magnets, hooks, slings, and clamshell buckets, shall be considered part of the load. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The manufacturer's load ratings are usually based upon percentage of tipping loads under some conditions and upon limitations of structural competence at others, as well as on other criteria such as type of crane mounting, whether or not outriggers are used, etc. Some cranes utilizing a trolley may have only one load rating assigned and applicable at any outreach. It is important that the manufacturer's ratings be used.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) An examination shall be carried out in conjunction with each unit proof load test. The accredited person, or his authorized representative, shall make a determination as to correction of deficiencies found. The examination shall cover the following points as applicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) All functional operating mechanisms shall be examined for improper function, maladjustment, and excessive component wear, with particular attention to sheaves, pins, and drums. The examination shall include operation with partial load, in which all functions and movements, including, where applicable, maximum possible rotation in both directions, are performed. 
</P>
<P>(2) All safety devices shall be examined for malfunction. 
</P>
<P>(3) Lines, tanks, valves, drains, pumps, and other parts of air or hydraulic systems shall be examined for deterioration or leakage. 
</P>
<P>(4) Loose gear components, such as hooks, including wire rope and wire rope terminals and connections, shall be checked with particular attention to sections of wire rope exposed to abnormal wear and to sections not normally exposed for examination. The provisions of § 1919.24 shall apply in wire rope examinations. Cracked or deformed hooks shall be discarded and not reused on any equipment subject to the provisions of part 1918 of this chapter and this part 1919. 
</P>
<P>(5) Rope reeving shall comply with manufacturer's recommendations. 
</P>
<P>(6) Deformed, cracked, or excessively corroded members in crane structure and boom shall be repaired or replaced as necessary. 
</P>
<P>(7) Loose bolts, rivets, or other connections shall be corrected. 
</P>
<P>(8) Worn, cracked, or distorted parts affecting safe operation shall be corrected. 
</P>
<P>(9) Brake and clutch system parts, linings, pawls, and ratchets shall be examined for excessive wear and free operation. 
</P>
<P>(10) Load, boom angle, or other indicators shall be checked over their full range for any significant inaccuracy. A boom angle or radius indicator shall be fitted. 
</P>
<P>(11) It shall be ascertained that there is a durable rating chart visible to the operator, covering the complete range of the manufacturer's capacity ratings at all operating radii, for all permissible boom lengths and jib lengths, with alternate ratings for optional equipment affecting such ratings. Necessary precautions or warnings shall be included. Operating controls shall be marked or an explanation of controls shall be posted at the operator's position to indicate function. 
</P>
<P>(12) Where used, clamshell buckets or other similar equipment such as magnets, etc., shall be carefully examined in all respects, with particular attention to closing line wires and sheaves. The accredited person may supplement such examination by requesting any operational tests as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(13) Careful examination of the junction areas of removable boom sections, particularly for proper seating, cracks, deformities, or other defects in securing bolts and in the vicinity of such bolts. 
</P>
<P>(14) It shall be ascertained that no counterweights in excess of the manufacturer's specifications are fitted. 
</P>
<P>(15) Such other examination or supplemental functional tests shall be made as may be deemed necessary by the accredited person under the circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.72" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.72   Annual examination of cranes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any year in which no quadrennial unit proof test is required, an examination shall be carried out by an accredited person or his authorized representative. Such examination shall be made not later than the anniversary date of the quadrennial certification and shall conform with the requirements of § 1919.71(d). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.73" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.73   Unit proof test and examination of derricks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unit proof tests of derricks shall be carried out at the same times as are specified in § 1919.71(a) for cranes. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unit proof load tests and safe working load ratings shall be based on the design load ratings at the ranges of boom angles or operating radii. Unit proof loads shall exceed the safe working load as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safe working load
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proof Load
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent in excess.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20-50 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 tons in excess.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 50 tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent in excess.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Proof loads shall be applied at the designed maximum and minimum boom angles or radii, or, if this is impracticable, as close to these as practicable. The angles or radii of test shall be stated in the certificate of test. Proof loads shall be swung as far as possible in both directions. The weight of all auxiliary handling devices shall be considered a part of the load. 
</FP>
<P>(c) After satisfactory completion of a unit proof load test, the derrick and all component parts thereof shall be carefully examined in accordance with the requirements of § 1919.71(d), as far as applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.74" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.74   Annual examination of derricks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any year in which no quadrennial unit proof test is required, an examination shall be carried out by an accredited person or his authorized representative. Such annual examination shall be made not later than the anniversary date of the quadrennial certification and shall conform in all applicable respect with § 1919.71(d). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.75" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.75   Determination of crane or derrick safe working loads and limitations in absence of manufacturer's data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event neither manufacturer's data nor design data on safe working loads (including any applicable limitations) are obtainable, the safe working load ratings assigned shall be based on the owner's information and warranty that those so assigned are correct. Unit test certificates shall state the basis for any such safe working load assignment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.76" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.76   Safe working load reduction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the operation in which equipment is engaged never utilizes more than a fraction of the safe working load rating, the owner of such equipment may, at his option, have the crane or derrick certificated for and operated at a lesser maximum safe working load in keeping with the use and based on radius and other pertinent factors: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the equipment concerned is physically capable of operation at the original load rating and the load reduction is not for the purpose of avoiding correction of any deficiency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.77" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.77   Safe working load increase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In no case shall safe working loads be increased beyond the manufacturer's ratings or original design limitations unless such increase meets with the manufacturer's approval. Where the manufacturer's services are not available, or where the equipment is of foreign manufacture, engineering design analysis by, or acceptable to, the accredited certification agency is required. All necessary structural changes shall be carried out. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.78" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.78   Nondestructive examinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wherever it is considered necessary by the accredited person or his authorized representative and wherever it is practical and advisable to avoid disassembly of equipment, removal of pins, etc., examination of structure or parts by electronic, ultrasonic, or other nondestructive methods may be carried out, provided that the procedure followed is acceptable to the Assistant Secretary and the person carrying out such examination is accredited or acceptable to the Assistant Secretary for the purpose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.79" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.79   Wire rope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wire rope and replacement wire rope shall be of the same size, same or better grade, and same construction as originally furnished by the equipment manufacturer or contemplated in the design, unless otherwise recommended by the equipment or the wire rope manufacturer due to actual working condition requirements. In the absence of specific requirements as noted, wire rope shall be of a size and construction suitable for the purpose, and a safety factor of 4 shall be adhered to, and verified by wire rope test certificate. 
</P>
<P>(b) Wire rope in use on equipment previously constructed and prior to initial certification of said equipment shall not be required to be tested, but shall be subject to thorough examination at the time of initial certification of the equipment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.80" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.80   Heat treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wherever heat treatment of any loose gear is recommended by the manufacturer, it shall be carried out in accordance with the specifications of the manufacturer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.81" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.81   Examination of bulk cargo loading or discharging spouts or suckers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Those portions of bulk cargo loading or discharging spouts or suckers which extend over vessels, together with any portable extensions, rigging components, outriggers, and attachment points supporting them or any of their components vertically, shall be examined annually. The examination shall be carried out with particular attention to the condition of wire rope and accessories. The equipment shall not be considered satisfactory unless, in the opinion of the accredited person or his authorized representative, it is deemed fit to serve its intended function. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1919.90" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.8.8.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1919.90   Documentation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Documents issued respecting a certification function by an accredited person shall be on forms approved for such use by the Assistant Secretary and shall so state. 
</P>
<P>(b) Such documents shall be issued by the accredited person to the owners of affected equipment, attesting to satisfactory compliance with applicable requirements. The forms used shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Unit proof tests where required— 
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of crane or derrick including manufacturer, model number, serial number, and ownership. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Basis for assignment of safe worksigned (i.e., whether based on manufacturing load ratings, with the ratings asturer's ratings, whether for any specific service, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Proof test details noting radii and proof loads, how applied, and, where applicable, direction relative to mounting. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the test and associated examination were conducted and all applicable requirements of this subpart are met. 
</P>
<P>(v) Any necessary remarks or supplementary data, including limitations imposed and the reason thereof. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Name of accredited person and identification of authorized representative actually conducting test and/or examination. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Authorized signature of accredited person; date and place of test and/or examination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Annual examination of cranes or derricks— 
</P>
<P>(i) Information specified in paragraphs (b)(1) (i), (v), (vi), and (vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the required examination has been carried out and that, in the opinion of the accredited person or his authorized representative, the equipment has been found in compliance in all applicable respects with the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) Annual examination of bulk cargo loading or discharging spouts or suckers— 
</P>
<P>(i) Specific identification of equipment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that examination has been completed and that, in the opinion of the accredited person or his authorized representative, the equipment meets the criteria of § 1919.81(a). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Information specified in paragraphs (b)(1) (v), (vi), and (vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Certificates relating to wire rope, whether tested by or under the supervision of the accredited person or by its manufacturer and whether or not issued on the basis of the manufacturer's certificates, shall follow the general format of a wire rope test form approved by the Administration. 
</P>
<P>(d) Accredited persons shall advise owners of affected equipment of the necessity for maintaining required documentation or acceptable copies thereof available for inspection at or near the worksite of the equipment involved. 
</P>
<P>(1) Where initial and periodic tests as well as annual examinations are required, documentation available for inspection shall include the latest unit test certificate and any subsequent annual examination certificates, together with wire rope test certificates relating to any replacements since the last unit test or annual examination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where only annual examination is required, documentation available for inspection shall include the latest annual examination certificate and wire rope test certificates relating to any wire replaced since the last annual examination. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the event that the heat treatment of any loose gear is recommended by its manufacturer, the latest heat treatment certificate, attesting to compliance with the manufacturer's specifications, shall be part of the available documentation. 
</P>
<P>(e) No certification shall be issued until any deficiencies considered by the accredited person to constitute a currently unsatisfactory condition have been corrected. Replacement parts shall be of equal or better quality than original equipment and suitable for the purpose. In the event deficiencies remain uncorrected and no certification therefore is issued, the accredited person shall inform the nearest district office of the Administration of the circumstances.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Section 1919.90 contains a collection of information which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under OMB Control No. 1218-0003) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22096, June 19, 1974, as amended at 61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1920" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1920—PROCEDURE FOR VARIATIONS FROM SAFETY AND HEALTH REGULATIONS UNDER THE LONGSHOREMEN'S AND HARBOR WORKERS' COMPENSATION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 41, Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 941); sec. 6, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 655). 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1920.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.9.0.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1920.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part governs the procedure for the granting of variations from the safety and health regulations established pursuant to section 41 of the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act. The part provides the same procedures under this Act as are available for considering variances under the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 et seq.). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 10800, May 31, 1972] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1920.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.9.0.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1920.2   Variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Variances from standards in parts 1915 through 1918 of this chapter may be granted in the same circumstances in which variances may be granted under sections 6(b) (6)(A) or 6(d) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 655). The procedures for the granting of variances from Parts 1915-1918 of this chapter are those published in Part 1905 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any requests for variances shall also be considered requests for variances under the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, and any variance from §§ 1910.13 through 1910.16 of this chapter which adopt parts 1915-1918 of this chapter, shall be deemed a variance from the standard under both the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act and the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 10800, May 31, 1972]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1921" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1921—RULES OF PRACTICE IN ENFORCEMENT PROCEEDINGS UNDER SECTION 41 OF THE LONGSHOREMEN'S AND HARBOR WORKERS' COMPENSATION ACT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 41, Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 941); 5 U.S.C. 301.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>27 FR 4165, May 2, 1962, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 28 FR 7909, Aug. 2, 1963, and further redesignated at 36 FR 25232, Dec. 31, 1971. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Applicability of Rules; Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.1   Applicability of rules.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides rules of practice for administrative hearings relating to the enforcement of section 41 of the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act and the safety regulations promulgated thereunder which are published in parts 1915 and 1918 of this subtitle. This part applies only to proceedings held under section 41(b)(5) of the Act. It does not apply to any other administrative proceedings held under section 41 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chief Hearing Examiner</I> means the Chief Hearing Examiner, United States Department of Labor, Washington DC 20210. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Respondent</I> means the person or organization proceeded against. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Prehearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.3   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> The Deputy Solicitor of Labor shall institute enforcement proceedings by issuing a complaint and causing the complaint to be served upon the respondent. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The complaint shall contain a clear and concise factual statement sufficient to inform the respondent with reasonable definiteness of the types of acts or practices alleged to have occurred and to violate section 41 of the Act or the provisions of parts 1915 and 1918 of this subtitle. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amendments.</I> At any time prior to the close of the hearing, the complaint may be amended in the discretion of the hearing examiner and on such terms as he may approve. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> The hearing examiner shall notify the parties of the time and place for a hearing within 10 days after the service of the complaint. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.2.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.4   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing and service.</I> Within 14 days after the service of the complaint, the respondent shall file an answer with the Chief Hearing Examiner. The answer shall be signed by the respondent or his attorney. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents; failure to file.</I> The answer shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Contain a statement of the facts which constitute the grounds of defense, and shall specifically admit, explain, or deny, each of the allegations of the complaint unless the respondent is without knowledge, in which case the answer shall so state; or
</P>
<P>(2) State that the respondent admits all of the allegations of the complaint. The answer may contain a waiver of hearing.
</P>
<FP>Failure to file an answer to or plead specifically to any allegation of the complaint shall constitute an admission of such allegation. 
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon admission of facts.</I> The admission, in the answer or by failure to file an answer, of all the material allegations of fact contained in the complaint shall constitute a waiver of hearing. Upon such admission of facts, the hearing examiner without further hearing shall prepare his decision in which he shall adopt as his proposed findings of fact the material facts alleged in the complaint. The parties shall be given an opportunity to file exceptions to his decision, and to file briefs in support of the exceptions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.2.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.5   Motions and requests.</HEAD>
<P>Motions or requests shall be filed with the Chief Hearing Examiner, except that those made during the course of the hearing shall be filed with the hearing examiner or shall be stated orally and made part of the transcript. Each motion or request shall state the particular order, ruling, or action desired, and the grounds therefor. The hearing examiner is authorized to rule upon all motions or requests filed or made prior to the filing of his report. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.6" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.2.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.6   Intervention.</HEAD>
<P>At any time after the institution of proceedings and before the hearing examiner makes his decision, the hearing examiner may, upon petition in writing and for good cause shown, permit any interested person, including an employer, employee, labor or trade organization, or Federal or State agency, to intervene therein. The petition shall state with precision and particularity:
</P>
<P>(a) The petitioner's relationship to the matters involved in the proceedings,
</P>
<P>(b) The nature of any material he intends to present in evidence, 
</P>
<P>(c) The nature of any argument he intends to make, and
</P>
<P>(d) Any other reason that he should be allowed to intervene. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.7" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.2.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.7   Stipulations of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>At any time prior to the issuance of a complaint in the proceeding, the Assistant Solicitor in charge of trial litigation may in his discretion, enter into stipulations with the prospective respondent, whereby the latter admits the material facts and agrees to discontinue the acts or practices which are intended to be set up as violative of the Act or parts 1915 and 1918 of this subtitle. Such stipulations shall be admissible as evidence of such acts and practices in any subsequent proceeding in law or equity or under these regulations against such person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.8" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.2.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.8   Consent findings and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the issuance of a complaint and prior to the receiption of evidence in any proceeding, the respondent may move to defer the receipt of any evidence for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such deferment and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the hearing examiner, after consideration of the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of an agreement being reached which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding shall also provide: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the complaint and the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the hearing examiner or the Director; and 
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and order entered into in accordance with the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their counsel may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement to the hearing examiner for his consideration; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the hearing examiner that agreement cannot be reached. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event an agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the hearing examiner within 30 days thereafter shall accept such agreement by issuing his decision based upon the agreed findings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.9" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.2.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.9   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon his own motion or the motion of the parties, the hearing examiner may direct the parties or their counsel to meet with him for a conference to consider: 
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues; 
</P>
<P>(2) Necessity or desirability of amendments to pleadings for purposes of clarification, simplification, or limitation; 
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations, admissions of fact and of contents and authenticity of documents; 
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of expert witnesses; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the disposition of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record shall show the matters disposed of by order and by agreement in such pretrial conferences. The subsequent course of the proceeding shall be controlled by such action. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hearing and Related Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.10" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.10   Appearances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Representation.</I> The parties may appear in person or by counsel. The term “counsel” means a member in good standing of the bar of a Federal Court or of the highest court of any State or Territory of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to appear.</I> In the event that a party appears at the hearing and no party appears for the opposing side, the party who is present shall have an election to present his evidence in whole or such portion thereof sufficient to make a prima facie case before the hearing examiner. Failure to appear at a hearing shall not be deemed to be a waiver of the right to be served with a copy of the hearing examiner's decision and to file exceptions thereto. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.11" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.11   Postponement or change of place of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If in the judgment of the hearing examiner convenience or necessity so requires, he may postpone the time or change the place of the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.12" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.12   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Order of proceeding; burden of proof.</I> Except as may be determined otherwise by the hearing examiner, counsel supporting the complaint shall proceed first at the hearing. The Assistant Solicitor of Labor in charge of trial litigation, supporting the complaint, shall have the burden of proof. The burden of proof shall be satisfied by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The testimony of witnesses shall be upon oath or affirmation administered by the hearing examiner and shall be subject to such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts. The hearing examiner shall exclude evidence which is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objections.</I> If a party objects to the admission or rejection of any evidence or to the limitation of the scope of any examination or cross-examination or the failure to limit such scope, he shall state briefly the grounds for such objection. Rulings on all objections shall appear in the record. Only objections made before the hearing examiner may be relied upon subsequently in the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions.</I> Formal exception to an adverse ruling is not required. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Official notice.</I> Official notice may be taken of any material fact not appearing in evidence in the record, which is among the traditional matters of judicial notice and also concerning which the Department by reason of its functions is presumed to be expert: <I>Provided,</I> That the parties shall be given adequate notice, at the hearing or by reference in the hearing examiner's decision of the matters so noticed, and shall be given adequate opportunity to show the contrary. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Oral argument before the hearing examiner.</I> Oral argument before the hearing examiner may be allowed. However, such argument may be limited by the hearing examiner to any extent that he finds necessary for the expeditious disposition of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transcript.</I> Hearings shall be stenographically reported. Copies of the transcript may be obtained by the parties upon written application filed with the reporter, and upon the payment of fees at the rate provided in the agreement between the Assistant Secretary and the reporter. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Decision and Order</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.13" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.13   Decision of the hearing examiner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of transcript of evidence.</I> As soon as practicable after the close of the hearing, the reporter shall transmit to the Chief Hearing Examiner the copies of the transcript of the testimony and the exhibits introduced in evidence at the hearing except such copies of the transcript and exhibits as are forwarded to the hearing examiner. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and orders.</I> Within 10 days after receipt of notice that the transcript of the testimony has been filed or such additional time as the hearing examiner may allow, each party may file with the hearing examiner proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, together with a supporting brief including the reasons for any proposals. Such proposals shall be served upon all parties, and shall contain adequate references to the record and authorities relied upon. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision of the hearing examiner.</I> Within a reasonable time after the termination of the time allowed for the filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and orders, or after the date of submission of an agreement containing consent findings and order, the hearing examiner shall prepare his decision, which shall become the decision of the Assistant Secretary 20 days after service thereof unless exceptions are filed thereto, as provided in § 1921.14 except in cases dealt with in § 1921.8(b). Except in cases under § 1921.8(b) the decision of the hearing examiner shall include a statement of:
</P>
<P>(1) Findings and conclusions, with reasons and bases, therefor, upon each material issue of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record, and
</P>
<P>(2) An appropriate order.
</P>
<FP>Except in cases under § 1921.8(b), the decision of the hearing examiner shall be based upon a consideration of the whole record and supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and upon the basis of the preponderance of the evidence. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.14" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.14   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>Within 20 days after the date of the decision of the hearing examiner, the parties may file exceptions thereto with supporting reasons. Any party who desires to take exception to any matter set out in that decision shall transmit his exceptions in writing to the Chief Hearing Examiner, referring to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order excepted to, and the specific pages of transcript relevant to the exceptions, and suggesting corrected findings of fact, conclusions of law, or order. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.15" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.15   Transmittal of record.</HEAD>
<P>Immediately following the period allowed for filing exceptions, the hearing examiner shall transmit the record of the proceeding to the Assistant Secretary. The record shall include: The pleadings, motions, and requests filed, and rulings thereon; the transcript of the testimony taken at the hearing, together with the exhibits filed; any documents or papers filed in connection with prehearing conferences; such proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and orders, and supporting reasons, as may have been filed in connection with the hearing; the hearing examiner's decision; and such exceptions, statements of objections, and briefs in support thereof, as may have been filed in the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.16" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.4.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.16   Decision and order of the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the basis of and after due consideration of the whole record, the Assistant Secretary shall render his decision, which shall adopt, modify, or set aside the findings, conclusions, and order contained in the decision of the hearing examiner, and shall include a statement of the reasons or bases for the action taken. With respect to the findings of fact, the Assistant Secretary shall upset only those findings that are clearly erroneous. Copies of the decision and order shall be served upon the parties. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a final order of the Assistant Secretary issued pursuant to § 1921.13(c) or paragraph (a) of this section has been in force for 2 years or more, a party may file with the Assistant Secretary a petition for modification or vacation of the order. Such petition must be in writing, and must be based upon satisfactory compliance with the order during the 24 months immediately preceding the filing thereof and upon such changes in conditions and circumstances as to demonstrate, if established, that a continuation of the order in full force and effect is no longer required to assure satisfactory compliance with the regulations under the order. Such changes in conditions and circumstances as are relied upon must be expressly set forth together with the reasons why petitioner believes relief is justified and the precise nature of the relief sought. The petition may be supported by affidavits as to matters of fact. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, after such investigation as the Assistant Secretary deems appropriate, in his judgment sufficient cause has been shown to justify the relief requested, he will enter an order granting relief. If in his judgment, sufficient cause has not been shown he shall so notify petitioner, who may then in writing request a hearing. Upon receipt of such request the Assistant Secretary will refer the petition with its supporting documents and the request to the Chief Hearing Examiner who will assign the matter for a hearing to be held on not less than 10 days notice at a time and place to be set by the hearing examiner. The Deputy Solicitor of Labor may file a pleading and otherwise appear in opposition to the petition. The hearing will be subject to all of the provisions of §§ 1921.9 through 1921.22. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 11144, Aug. 23, 1966] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.17" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.5.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.17   Service; copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Manner of service.</I> Service upon any party shall be made by the party filing the pleading or document by delivering a copy or mailing a copy to the last known address. If the person upon whom service is made by mail resides 500 miles or more from the party effecting service, such mailing must be by airmail. When a party is represented by an attorney the service may be upon the attorney. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate of the person serving the pleading or other document by personal delivery or by mailing, setting forth the manner of said service shall be proof of the service of the pleading or other document. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service upon Department, number of copies of pleading or other documents.</I> An original and three copies of all pleadings and other documents shall be filed with the Department of Labor, whether to the Assistant Solicitor in charge of trial litigation, the hearing examiner, or the Assistant Secretary, as the case may be. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.18" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.5.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.18   Witnesses and fees.</HEAD>
<P>Witnesses subpoenaed by any party shall be paid the same fees and mileage as are paid for like services in the District Courts of the United States. The witness fees and mileage shall be paid by the party at whose instance the witnesses appear. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.19" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.5.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.19   Depositions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When, how, and by whom taken.</I> For good cause shown, the testimony of any witness may be taken by deposition in any proceeding, when a complaint has been filed, whether at issue or not. Depositions may be taken orally or upon written interrogatories before any person designated by the hearing examiner and having power to administer oaths. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> Any party desiring to take the deposition of a witness shall make application in writing to the hearing examiner, setting forth the reasons why such deposition should be taken; the time when, the place where, and the name and post office address of the person before whom the deposition is to be taken; the name and address of each witness; and the subject matter concerning which each witness is expected to testify. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice.</I> Such notice as the hearing examiner shall order shall be given for the taking of a deposition, but this shall not be less than 5 days' written notice when the deposition is to be taken within the United States and not less than 15 days' written notice when the deposition is to be taken elsewhere. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Taking and receiving in evidence.</I> Each witness testifying upon deposition shall be sworn, and the adverse party shall have the right to cross-examine. The questions propounded and the answers thereto, together with all objections made, shall be reduced to writing, read to the witness, subscribed by him, and certified by the officer. Thereafter, the officer shall seal the deposition, with two copies thereof, in an envelope and mail the same by registered mail to the hearing examiner. Subject to such objections to the questions and answers as were noted at the time of taking the deposition and would be valid were the witness personally present and testifying, such deposition may be read and offered in evidence by the party taking it as against any party who was present or represented at the taking of the deposition or who had due notice thereof. No part of a deposition shall be admitted in evidence unless there is a showing that the reasons for the taking of the deposition in the first instance exist at the time of hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.20" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.5.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.20   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>All applications for subpoenas ad testificandum and subpoenas duces tecum shall be made in writing to the hearing examiner. Application for subpoenas duces tecum shall specify as exactly as possible the documents to be produced, showing their general relevancy and reasonable scope. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.21" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.5.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.21   Hearing examiners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who presides.</I> All hearings shall be presided over by a hearing examiner appointed under section 11 of the Administrative Procedure Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How assigned.</I> The presiding hearing examiner shall be designated by the Secretary or the Chief Hearing Examiner. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Powers.</I> Hearing examiners shall have all powers necessary to the conduct of fair and impartial hearings, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations; 
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas upon proper applications as provided in § 1921.20; 
</P>
<P>(3) To rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence; 
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause to be taken depositions and to determine their scope; 
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel therein; 
</P>
<P>(6) To hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties; 
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon procedural requests; 
</P>
<P>(8) To make and file decisions in conformity with this part. 
</P>
<P>(9) To take any action authorized by the rules in this part or in conformance with the Administrative Procedure Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consultation.</I> The hearing examiner shall not consult any person or party on any fact in issue unless upon notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disqualification of hearing examiners.</I> (1) When a hearing examiner deems himself disqualified to preside in a particular proceeding, he shall withdraw therefrom by notice on the record directed to the Chief Hearing Examiner. 
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever any party shall deem the hearing examiner for any reason to be disqualified to preside, or to continue to preside, in a particular proceeding, that party shall file with the Chief Hearing Examiner a motion to disqualify and remove such hearing examiner, such motion to be supported by affidavits setting forth the alleged grounds for disqualification. The Chief Hearing Examiner shall rule upon the motion. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contemptuous conduct; failure or refusal of a witness to appear or answer.</I> In the event of contemptuous conduct, including the failure or refusal of a witness to appear at any hearing or to answer any question which has been ruled to be proper, the hearing examiner may take any action reasonable under 41 CFR 50-203.8(l), promulgated under section 5 of the Act of June 30, 1936 (41 U.S.C. 39). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1921.22" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.10.5.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1921.22   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>Sundays and holidays shall be included in computing the time allowed for filing any document or paper under this part. When such time expires on a Sunday or legal holiday, such period shall be extended to include the next following business day. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1922" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1922—INVESTIGATIONAL HEARINGS UNDER SECTION 41 OF THE LONGSHOREMEN'S AND HARBOR WORKERS' COMPENSATION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 41, Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 941); 5 U.S.C. 301. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>27 FR 4168, May 2, 1962, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 28 FR 7909, Aug. 2, 1963, and further redesignated at 36 FR 25232, Dec. 30, 1971. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1922.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.11.0.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1922.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Investigation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administration</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Injury</I> means accidental injury or death arising out of and in the course of employment, and such occupational disease or infection as arises naturally out of such employment or as naturally or unavoidably results from such accidental injury. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1922.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.11.0.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1922.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any serious injury results from the employments covered by the Act or whenever it is otherwise appropriate, the Assistant Secretary may appoint a Board of Investigation to hold an investigational hearing during the course of any investigation made under section 41 of the Act. This part prescribes the manner in which any investigational hearings shall be conducted. This part does not apply to any adjudicative proceedings held under section 41(b)(5) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1922.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.11.0.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1922.3   Composition of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall be composed of three members appointed by the Assistant Secretary, one of whom shall be designated as Chairman. All members shall be employees of the United States Department of Labor, and shall have experience in the field of maritime safety. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1922.4" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.11.0.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1922.4   Responsibilities of the Board; voting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determinations and recommendations.</I> To the extent possible, the Board shall determine the facts, conditions, and circumstances relating to any injury or condition which is the subject of investigation, the probable cause thereof, and shall recommend measures which will provide the best means of preventing future injuries or conditions of similar character. The determinations and recommendations shall be made after hearing such witnesses and receiving such documents and other data relating to the subject or subjects of investigation as may be found available as a result of preliminary investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Report.</I> Upon completion of the investigational hearing, the Board shall file a report of its investigation with the Assistant Secretary. The report shall contain the determinations and recommendations required under paragraph (a) of this section. Any member may file a separate report in order to express determinations, recommendations, or reasons for determinations or recommendations which differ from those of a majority of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voting.</I> Actions of the Board, including the determinations and recommendations required under paragraph (a) of this section, shall require a vote of a majority of its members. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1922.5" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.11.0.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1922.5   Notice of investigational hearings.</HEAD>
<P>The Chairman of the Board shall give reasonable notice of the time and place of any investigational hearing to any person whose conduct is or may be pertinent to the subjects of investigation; to any prospective witnesses; and to any Federal or State agency engaged in similar investigative work. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1922.6" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.11.0.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1922.6   Investigational hearings.</HEAD>
<P>The Chairman shall regulate the course of the hearing; dispose of procedural requests, objections, and related matters; and confine the hearing to the matters for which the Board is responsible. In the performance of these duties, the Chairman may be assisted by counsel assigned by the Solicitor of Labor. In the discretion of the Board, the hearing may be stenographically reported. When the hearing is so reported, copies of the transcript may be obtained upon such terms as the Chairman may provide. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1924" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1924—SAFETY STANDARDS APPLICABLE TO WORKSHOPS AND REHABILITATION FACILITIES ASSISTED BY GRANTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 12, 13, Vocational Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1965 (29 U.S.C. 41a, 41b). 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1924.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.12.0.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1924.1   Applicable safety standards.</HEAD>
<P>The safety standards provided in 41 CFR part 50-204 shall have effect to the extent applicable to any workshop or rehabilitation facility assisted by a grant pursuant to section 12 or section 13 of the Vocational Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1965, 79 Stat. 1284, 1286. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 3052, Feb. 18, 1967. Redesignated at 32 FR 4170, Mar. 17, 1967. Further redesignated at 36 FR 25232, Dec. 30, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1925" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1925—SAFETY AND HEALTH STANDARDS FOR FEDERAL SERVICE CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Service Contracts Act of 1965 (41 U.S.C. 351, et. seq.); 5 U.S.C. 301. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1925.1" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.13.0.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1925.1   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act of 1965 (79 Stat. 1034, 41 U.S.C. 351, et seq.) requires that every contract entered into by the United States or the District of Columbia in excess of $2,500 (except as provided in section 7 of the Act), the principal purpose of which is to furnish services in the United States through the use of service employees, must contain, among other provisions, a stipulation that “no part of the services covered by this Act will be performed in buildings or surroundings or under working conditions, provided by or under the control or supervision of the contractor or any subcontractor, which are unsanitary or hazardous or dangerous to the health or safety of service employees engaged to furnish the services.” This part 1925 expresses certain minimum safety and health standards which will be applied in the administration and enforcement of the Act to determine whether services covered by the Act are being, or have been, performed in compliance with its safety and health requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Investigators conducting investigations and all officers of the Department of Labor evaluating, reviewing and analyzing investigations, as well as officers of the Department determining whether there are or have been violations of the safety and health requirements of the Service Contract Act of 1965 or any contract subject thereto and the terms on which there may be a settlement of issues arising from an investigation without resort to administrative or judicial litigation, will consider a failure to comply with the safety and health measures provided in § 1925.2 to result in working conditions which are “unsanitary or hazardous or dangerous to the health or safety of service employees” within the meaning of section 2(a)(3) of the Act and the contract stipulation it requires. 
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(d) The standards expressed in this part 1925 are for application to ordinary employment situations, and do not preclude proof or recognition of the necessity for additional standards in employment situations of extraordinary hazard. Neither do the standards expressed in this Part 1925 purport to cover all of the working conditions which are unsanitary or hazardous or dangerous to the health or safety of service employees. Other working conditions may be found to be unsanitary or hazardous or dangerous to the health or safety of such employees on evidence to that effect. 
</P>
<P>(e) Compliance with the standards expressed in this part 1925 will not relieve anyone from any obligation he may have to comply with any stricter standard, such as state or local law or ordinance or collective bargaining agreement. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 21036, Dec. 30, 1967, as amended at 36 FR 9866, May 29, 1971. Redesignated at 36 FR 25232, Dec. 30, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1925.2" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.13.0.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1925.2   Safety and health standards.</HEAD>
<P>Every contractor and subcontractor shall comply with the safety and health standards published in 41 CFR part 50-204, including any matters incorporated by reference therein. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 9866, May 29, 1971. Redesignated at 36 FR 25232, Dec. 30, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1925.3" NODE="29:7.1.1.1.13.0.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1925.3   Records.</HEAD>
<P>Every contractor or subcontractor shall comply with the recordkeeping requirements of 29 CFR part 1904. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 3593, Jan. 23, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>January 14, 2025
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="8" NODE="29:8" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 8</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvii</E>—Occupational Safety and Health Administration, Department of Labor (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1926


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="29:8.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)


</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="XVII" NODE="29:8.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVII—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF LABOR (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1926" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1926—SAFETY AND HEALTH REGULATIONS FOR CONSTRUCTION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3704; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657; and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911, unless otherwise noted
</PSPACE><P>Sections 1926.58, 1926.59, 1926.60, and 1926.65 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553 and 29 CFR part 1911.
</P><P>Section 1926.61 also issued under 49 U.S.C. 1801-1819 and 5 U.S.C. 553.
</P><P>Section 1926.62 also issued under sec. 1031, Public Law 102-550, 106 Stat. 3672 (42 U.S.C. 4853).
</P><P>Section 1926.65 also issued under sec. 126, Public Law 99-499, 100 Stat. 1614 (reprinted at 29 U.S.C.A. 655 Note) and 5 U.S.C. 553.




</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Notes:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1926 appear at 84 FR 21597, May 14, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.




</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the safety and health standards promulgated by the Secretary of Labor under section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act. The standards are published in subpart C of this part and following subparts.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of this part contains statements of general policy and interpretations of section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act having general applicability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.2   Variances from safety and health standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Variances from standards which are, or may be, published in this part may be granted under the same circumstances whereunder variances may be granted under section 6(b)(A) or 6(d) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 65). The procedures for the granting of variances and for related relief under this part are those published in part 1905 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Any requests for variances under this section shall also be considered requests for variances under the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, and any requests for variances under Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act with respect to construction safety or health standards shall be considered to be also variances under the Construction Safety Act. Any variance from a construction safety or health standard which is contained in this part and which is incorporated by reference in part 1910 of this title shall be deemed a variance from the standard under both the Construction Safety Act and the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.3" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.3   Inspections—right of entry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It shall be a condition of each contract which is subject to section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act that the Secretary of Labor or any authorized representative shall have a right of entry to any site of contract performance for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To inspect or investigate the matter of compliance with the safety and health standards contained in subpart C of this part and following subparts; and
</P>
<P>(2) To carry out the duties of the Secretary under section 107(b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of carrying out his investigative duties under the Act, the Secretary of Labor may, by agreement, use with or without reimbursement the services, personnel, and facilities of any State or Federal agency. Any agreements with States under this section shall be similar to those provided for under the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act under 41 CFR part 50-205.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.4" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.4   Rules of practice for administrative adjudications for enforcement of safety and health standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules of practice for administrative adjudications for the enforcement of the safety and health standards contained in subpart C of this part and the following subparts shall be the same as those published in part 6 of this title with respect to safety and health violations of the Service Contract Act of 1965 (69 Stat. 1035), except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of debarment, the findings required by section 107(d) of the Act shall be made by the hearing examiner or the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, as the case may be. Whenever, as provided in section 107(d)(2), a contractor requests termination of debarment before the end of the 3-year period prescribed in that section, the request shall be filed in writing with the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health who shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that the request has been received and afford interested persons an opportunity to be heard upon the request, and thereafter the provisions of part 6 of this title shall apply with respect to prehearing conferences, hearings and related matters, and decisions and orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.5" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.5   OMB control numbers under the Paperwork Reduction Act.</HEAD>
<P>The following sections or paragraphs each contain a collection of information requirement which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the control number listed.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">29 CFR citation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB control No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0065
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0093
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0048
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0103
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0072
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0183
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0189
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0202
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0099
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0093
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0233
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.403</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.404</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.405</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.407</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.408</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.453(a)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0216
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.502</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0197
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.503</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0197
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.550(a)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0115
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.550(a)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0115
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.550(a)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0115
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.550(a)(6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.550(a)(11)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0054
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.550(a)(16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0115
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.550(b)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0232
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.550(g)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0151
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.552</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0231
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.652</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0137
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.703</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0095
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0067
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.803</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0067
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0217
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.903</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0227
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1080</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1081</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1083</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1090</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1091</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0069
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0134
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0085
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0084
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0086
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0083
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0087
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0089
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0082
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0090
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0079
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0088
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0044
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0081
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0267
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0252
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0186
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0129
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0128
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0101
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0108
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0145
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0266
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1204</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1206</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1208</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1209</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1402</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1403</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1404</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1406</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1407</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1408</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1409</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1410</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1411</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1412</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1413</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1414</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1417</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1423</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1424</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1427</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0270
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1428</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1431</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1433</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1434</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1436</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1437</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1441</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1218-0261</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 5509, Feb. 13, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 3814, Jan. 27, 1998; 63 FR 13340, Mar. 19, 1998; 63 FR 17094, Apr. 8, 1998; 64 FR 18810, Apr. 16, 1999; 71 FR 38086, July 5, 2006; 75 FR 68430, Nov. 8, 2010; 81 FR 48710, July 26, 2016; 81 FR 53268, Aug. 12, 2016; 83 FR 9703, Mar. 7, 2018; 84 FR 34785, July 19, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.6" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.1.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.6   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The standards of agencies of the U.S. Government, and organizations which are not agencies of the U.S. Government which are incorporated by reference in this part, have the same force and effect as other standards in this part. Only the mandatory provisions (<I>i.e.,</I> provisions containing the word “shall” or other mandatory language) of standards incorporated by reference are adopted as standards under the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The standards listed in this section are incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, OSHA must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) Copies of standards listed in this section and issued by private standards organizations are available for purchase from the issuing organizations at the addresses or through the other contact information listed below for these private standards organizations. In addition, the standards are available for inspection at any Regional Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), or at the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3508, Washington, DC 20210; telephone: 202-693-2350 (TTY number: 877-889-5627). These standards are also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of these standards at NARA, telephone: 202-741-6030, or go to <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) The following material is available for purchase from the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH), 1330 Kemper Meadow Drive, Cincinnati, OH 45240; telephone: 513-742-6163; fax: 513-742-3355; e-mail: <I>mail@acgih.org</I>; Web site: <I>http://www.acgih.org</I>:
</P>
<P>(1) Threshold Limit Values of Airborne Contaminants for 1970, 1970, IBR approved for § 1926.55(a) and appendix A of § 1926.55.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) The following material is available for purchase from the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd Street, Fourth Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4900; fax: 212-302-1286; e-mail: <I>info@ansi.org;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.ansi.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI A10.3-1970, Safety Requirements for Explosive-Actuated Fastening Tools, IBR approved for § 1926.302(e).
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI A10.4-1963, Safety Requirements for Workmen's Hoists, IBR approved for § 1926.552(c).
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI A10.5-1969, Safety Requirements for Material Hoists, IBR approved for § 1926.552(b).
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI A11.1-1965 (R1970), Practice for Industrial Lighting, IBR approved for § 1926.56(b).
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI A17.1-1965, Elevators, Dumbwaiters, Escalators, and Moving Walks, IBR approved for § 1926.552(d).
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI A17.1a-1967, Elevators, Dumbwaiters, Escalators, and Moving Walks Supplement, IBR approved for § 1926.552(d).
</P>
<P>(7) ANSI A17.1b-1968, Elevators, Dumbwaiters, Escalators, and Moving Walks Supplement, IBR approved for § 1926.552(d).
</P>
<P>(8) ANSI A17.1c-1969, Elevators, Dumbwaiters, Escalators, and Moving Walks Supplement, IBR approved for § 1926.552(d).
</P>
<P>(9) ANSI A17.1d-1970, Elevators, Dumbwaiters, Escalators, and Moving Walks Supplement, IBR approved for § 1926.552(d).
</P>
<P>(10) ANSI A17.2-1960, Practice for the Inspection of Elevators (Inspector's Manual), IBR approved for § 1926.552(d).
</P>
<P>(11) ANSI A17.2a-1965, Practice for the Inspection of Elevators (Inspector's Manual) Supplement, IBR approved for § 1926.552(d).
</P>
<P>(12) ANSI A17.2b-1967, Practice for the Inspection of Elevators (Inspector's Manual) Supplement, IBR approved for § 1926.552(d).
</P>
<P>(13) ANSI A92.2-1969, Vehicle Mounted Elevating and Rotating Work Platforms, IBR approved for §§ 1926.453(a) and 1926.453(b).
</P>
<P>(14) ANSI B7.1-1970, Safety Code for the Use, Care, and Protection of Abrasive Wheels, IBR approved for §§ 1926.57(g), 1926.303(b), 1926.303(c), and 1926.303(d).
</P>
<P>(15) ANSI B20.1-1957, Safety Code for Conveyors, Cableways, and Related Equipment, IBR approved for § 1926.555(a).
</P>
<P>(16) ANSI B56.1-1969, Safety Standards for Powered Industrial Trucks, IBR approved for § 1926.602(c).
</P>
<P>(17)-(22) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(23) ANSI O1.1-1961, Safety Code for Woodworking Machinery, IBR approved for § 1926.304(f).
</P>
<P>(24) ANSI Z35.1-1968, Specifications for Accident Prevention Signs; IBR approved for § 1926.200(b), (c), and 1 (i). Copies available for purchase from the IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 1-877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(25) ANSI Z35.2-1968, Specifications for Accident Prevention Tags, IBR approved for § 1926.200(i).
</P>
<P>(26) ANSI Z49.1-1967, Safety in Welding and Cutting, IBR approved for § 1926.350(j).
</P>
<P>(27) USA Z53.1-1967 (also referred to as ANSI Z53.1-1967), Safety Color Code for Marking Physical Hazards, ANSI approved October 9, 1967; IBR approved for § 1926.200(c). Copies available for purchase from the IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 1-877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(28) ANSI Z535.1-2006 (R2011), Safety Colors, reaffirmed July 19, 2011; IBR approved for § 1926.200(c). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: 877-699-9277; Web site: <I>www.techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(29) ANSI Z535.2-2011, Environmental and Facility Safety Signs, published September 15, 2011; IBR approved for § 1926.200(b), (c), and (i). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: 877-699-9277; Web site: <I>www.techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(30) ANSI Z535.5-2011, Safety Tags and Barricade Tapes (for Temporary Hazards), published September 15, 2011, including Errata, November 14, 2011; IBR approved for § 1926.200(h) and (i). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: 212-642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: 877-413-5184; Web site: <I>www.global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: 877-699-9277; Web site: <I>www.techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(31) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, Approved April 3, 2010; IBR approved for § 1926.102(b). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(32) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, Approved June 19, 2003; IBR approved for § 1926.102(b). Copies available for purchase from the:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(33) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, Reaffirmation approved January 4, 1999; IBR approved for § 1926.102(b). Copies are available for purchase from:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute's e-Standards Store, 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; telephone: (212) 642-4980; Web site: <I>http://webstore.ansi.org/;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) IHS Standards Store, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; telephone: (877) 413-5184; Web site: <I>http://global.ihs.com;</I> or
</P>
<P>(iii) TechStreet Store, 3916 Ranchero Dr., Ann Arbor, MI 48108; telephone: (877) 699-9277; Web site: <I>http://techstreet.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(34) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection, approved January 26, 2009; IBR approved for § 1926.100(b)(1)(i). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2009 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(35) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection; IBR approved for § 1926.100(b)(1)(ii). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-2003 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(36) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements; IBR approved for § 1926.100(b)(1)(iii). Copies of ANSI Z89.1-1997 are available for purchase only from the International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Arlington, VA 22209-1762; telephone: 703-525-1695; fax: 703-528-2148; Web site: <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) The following material is available for purchase from standards resellers such as the Document Center Inc., 111 Industrial Road, Suite 9, Belmont, CA 94002; telephone: 650-591-7600; fax: 650-591-7617; e-mail: <I>info@document-center.com</I>; Web site: <I>http://www.document-center.com/</I>:
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI B15.1-1953 (R1958), Safety Code for Mechanical Power-Transmission Apparatus, revised 1958, IBR approved for § 1926.300(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI B30.5-1968, Crawler, Locomotive, and Truck Cranes, approved Dec. 16, 1968, IBR approved for § 1926.1433(a).
</P>
<P>(g) The following material is available for purchase from the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, PO Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA, 19428-2959; telephone: 610-832-9585; fax: 610-832-9555; e-mail: <I>service@astm.org;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.astm.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM A370-1968, Methods and Definitions for Mechanical Testing and Steel Products, IBR approved for § 1926.1001(f).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) ASTM D56-1969, Standard Method of Test for Flash Point by the Tag Closed Tester, IBR approved for § 1926.155(i).
</P>
<P>(4) ASTM D93-1969, Standard Method of Test for Flash Point by the Pensky Martens Closed Tester, IBR approved for § 1926.155(i).
</P>
<P>(5) ASTM D323-1958 (R1968), Standard Method of Test for Vapor Pressure of Petroleum Products (Reid Method), IBR approved for § 1926.155(m).
</P>
<P>(h) The following material is available for purchase from the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), Three Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016; telephone: 1-800-843-2763; fax: 973-882-1717; e-mail: <I>infocentral@asme.org;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.asme.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASME B30.2-2005, Overhead and Gantry Cranes (Top Running Bridge, Single or Multiple Girder, Top Running Trolley Hoist), issued Dec. 30, 2005 (“ASME B30.2-2005”), IBR approved for § 1926.1438(b).
</P>
<P>(2) ASME B30.5-2004, Mobile and Locomotive Cranes, issued Sept. 27, 2004 (“ASME B30.5-2004”), IBR approved for §§ 1926.1414(b); 1926.1414(e); 1926.1433(b).
</P>
<P>(3) ASME B30.7-2001, Base-Mounted Drum Hoists, issued Jan. 21, 2002 (“ASME B30.7-2001”), IBR approved for § 1926.1436(e).
</P>
<P>(4) ASME B30.14-2004, Side Boom Tractors, issued Sept. 20, 2004 (“ASME B30.14-2004”), IBR approved for § 1926.1440(c).
</P>
<P>(5) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, 1968, IBR approved for §§ 1926.152(i), 1926.306(a), and 1926.603(a).
</P>
<P>(6) ASME Power Boilers, Section I, 1968, IBR approved for § 1926.603(a).
</P>
<P>(i) The following material is available for purchase from the American Society of Agricultural and Biological Engineers (ASABE), 2950 Niles Road, St. Joseph, MI 49085; telephone: 269-429-0300; fax: 269-429-3852; e-mail: <I>hq@asabe.org;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.asabe.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASAE R313.1-1971, Soil Cone Penetrometer, reaffirmed 1975, IBR approved for § 1926.1002(e).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) The following material is available for purchase from the American Welding Society (AWS), 550 N.W. LeJeune Road, Miami, Florida 33126; telephone: 1-800-443-9353; Web site: <I>http://www.aws.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) AWS D1.1/D1.1M:2002, Structural Welding Code—Steel, 18th ed., ANSI approved Aug. 31, 2001 (“AWS D1.1/D1.1M:2002”), IBR approved for § 1926.1436(c).
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/AWS D14.3-94, Specification for Welding Earthmoving and Construction Equipment, ANSI approved Jun. 11, 1993 (“ANSI/AWS D14.3-94”), IBR approved for § 1926.1436(c).
</P>
<P>(k) The following material is available for purchase from the British Standards Institution (BSI), 389 Chiswick High Road, London, W4 4AL, United Kingdom; telephone: + 44 20 8996 9001; fax: + 44 20 8996 7001; e-mail: <I>cservices@bsigroup.com;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.bsigroup.com/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) BS EN 13000:2004, Cranes—Mobile Cranes, published Jan. 4, 2006 (“BS EN 13000:2004”), IBR approved for § 1926.1433(c).
</P>
<P>(2) BS EN 14439:2006, Cranes—Safety—Tower Cranes, published Jan. 31, 2007 (“BS EN 14439:2006”), IBR approved for § 1926.1433(c).
</P>
<P>(l) The following material is available for purchase from the Bureau of Reclamation, United States Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street, NW., Washington DC 20240; telephone: 202-208-4501; Web site: <I>http://www.usbr.gov/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Safety and Health Regulations for Construction, Part II, Sept. 1971, IBR approved for § 1926.1000(f).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) The following material is available for purchase from the California Department of Industrial Relations, 455 Golden Gate Avenue, San Francisco CA 94102; telephone: (415) 703-5070; e-mail: <I>info@dir.ca.gov;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.dir.ca.gov/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Construction Safety Orders, IBR approved for § 1926.1000(f).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(n) The following material is available from the Federal Highway Administration, United States Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 202-366-4000; website: <I>www.fhwa.dot.gov/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices for Streets and Highways, 2009 Edition, December 2009 (including Revision 1 dated May 2012 and Revision 2 dated May 2012), (“MUTCD”) IBR approved for §§ 1926.200(g) and 1926.201(a).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) The following material is available for purchase from the General Services Administration (GSA), 1800 F Street, NW., Washington, DC 20405; telephone: (202) 501-0800; Web site: <I>http://www.gsa.gov/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) QQ-P-416, Federal Specification Plating Cadmium (Electrodeposited), IBR approved for § 1926.104(e).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(p) The following material is available for purchase from the Institute of Makers of Explosives (IME), 1120 19th Street, NW., Suite 310, Washington, DC 20036; telephone: 202-429-9280; fax: 202-429-9280; e-mail: <I>info@ime.org;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.ime.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IME Pub. No. 2, American Table of Distances for Storage of Explosives, Jun. 5, 1964, IBR approved for § 1926.914(a).
</P>
<P>(2) IME Pub. No. 20, Radio Frequency Energy—A Potential Hazard in the Use of Electric Blasting Caps, Mar. 1968, IBR approved for § 1926.900(k).
</P>
<P>(q) The following material is available from the International Labour Organization (ILO), 4 route des Morillons, CH-1211 Genève 22, Switzerland; telephone: +41 (0) 22 799 6111; fax: +41 (0) 22 798 8685; website:<I>//www.ilo.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised Edition 2011, Occupational safety and health series; 22 (Rev.2011), IBR approved for § 1926.1101.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(r) The following material is available for purchase from the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), 1, ch. de la Voie-Creuse, Case postale 56, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland; telephone: + 41 22 749 01 11; fax: + 41 22 733 34 30; Web site: <I>http://www.iso.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ISO 3471:2008(E), Earth-moving machinery—Roll-over protective structures—Laboratory tests and performance requirements, Fourth Edition, Aug. 8, 2008 (“ISO 3471:2008”), IBR approved for §§ 1926.1001(c) and 1926.1002(c).
</P>
<P>(2) ISO 5700:2013(E), Tractors for agriculture and forestry—Roll-over protective structures—Static test method and acceptance conditions, Fifth Edition, May 1, 2013 (“ISO 5700:2013”), IBR approved for § 1926.1002(c).
</P>
<P>(3) ISO 27850:2013(E), Tractors for agriculture and forestry—Falling object protective structures—Test procedures and performance requirements, First Edition, May.01, 2013 (“ISO 27850:2013”), IBR approved for § 1926.1003(c).
</P>
<P>(4) ISO 11660-1:2008(E), Cranes—Access, guards and restraints—Part 1: General, 2d ed., Feb. 15, 2008 (“ISO 11660-1:2008(E)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1423(c).
</P>
<P>(5) ISO 11660-2:1994(E), Cranes—Access, guards and restraints—Part 2: Mobile cranes, 1994 (“ISO 11660-2:1994(E)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1423(c).
</P>
<P>(6) ISO 11660-3:2008(E), Cranes—Access, guards and restraints—Part 3: Tower cranes, 2d ed., Feb. 15, 2008 (“ISO 11660-3:2008(E)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1423(c).
</P>
<P>(s) The following material is available for purchase from the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169; telephone: 617-770-3000; fax: 617-770-0700; Web site: <I>http://www.nfpa.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFPA 10A-1970, Maintenance and Use of Portable Fire Extinguishers, IBR approved for § 1926.150(c).
</P>
<P>(2) NFPA 13-1969, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems, IBR approved for § 1926.152(d).
</P>
<P>(3) NFPA 30-1969, The Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, IBR approved for § 1926.152(c).
</P>
<P>(4) NFPA 80-1970, Standard for Fire Doors and Windows, Class E or F Openings, IBR approved for § 1926.152(b).
</P>
<P>(5) NFPA 251-1969, Standard Methods of Fire Test of Building Construction and Material, IBR approved for §§ 1926.152(b) and 1926.155(f).
</P>
<P>(6) NFPA 385-1966, Standard for Tank Vehicles for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, IBR approved for § 1926.152(g).
</P>
<P>(t) The following material is available for purchase from the Power Crane and Shovel Association (PCSA), 6737 W. Washington Street, Suite 2400, Milwaukee, WI 53214; telephone: 1-800-369-2310; fax: 414-272-1170; Web site: <I>http://www.aem.org/CBC/ProdSpec/PCSA/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) PCSA Std. No. 1, Mobile Crane and Excavator Standards, 1968, IBR approved for § 1926.602(b).
</P>
<P>(2) PCSA Std. No. 2, Mobile Hydraulic Crane Standards, 1968 (“PCSA Std. No. 2 (1968)”), IBR approved for §§ 1926.602(b) and 1926.1433(a).
</P>
<P>(3) PCSA Std. No. 3, Mobile Hydraulic Excavator Standards, 1969, IBR approved for § 1926.602(b).
</P>
<P>(u) The following material is available from the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), 400 Commonwealth Drive, Warrendale, PA 15096; telephone: 1-877-606-7323; fax: 724-776-0790; website: <I>www.sae.org/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) SAE 1970 Handbook, IBR approved for § 1926.602(b).
</P>
<P>(2) SAE J166-1971, Trucks and Wagons, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
</P>
<P>(3) SAE J167, Protective Frame with Overhead Protection-Test Procedures and Performance Requirements, approved July 1970, IBR approved for § 1926.1003(b).
</P>
<P>(4) SAE J168, Protective Enclosures-Test Procedures and Performance Requirements, approved July 1970, IBR approved for § 1926.1002(b).
</P>
<P>(5) SAE J185 (reaf. May 2003), Access Systems for Off-Road Machines, reaffirmed May 2003 (“SAE J185 (May 1993)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1423(c).
</P>
<P>(6) SAE J236-1971, Self-Propelled Graders, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
</P>
<P>(7) SAE J237-1971, Front End Loaders and Dozers, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
</P>
<P>(8) SAE J319b-1971, Self-Propelled Scrapers, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
</P>
<P>(9) SAE J320a, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Rubber-Tired, Self-Propelled Scrapers, revised July 1969 (editorial change July 1970), IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
</P>
<P>(10) SAE J321a-1970, Fenders for Pneumatic-Tired Earthmoving Haulage Equipment, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
</P>
<P>(11) SAE J333a-1970, Operator Protection for Agricultural and Light Industrial Tractors, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
</P>
<P>(12) SAE J334a, Protective Frame Test Procedures and Performance Requirements, revised July 1970, IBR approved for § 1926.1002(b).
</P>
<P>(13) SAE J386-1969, Seat Belts for Construction Equipment, IBR approved for § 1926.602(a).
</P>
<P>(14) SAE J394, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Rubber-Tired Front End Loaders and Rubber-Tired Dozers, approved July 1969 (editorial change July 1970), IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
</P>
<P>(15) SAE J395, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Crawler Tractors and Crawler-Type Loaders, approved July 1969 (editorial change July 1970), IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
</P>
<P>(16) SAE J396, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Motor Graders, approved July 1969 (editorial change July 1970), IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
</P>
<P>(17) SAE J397, Critical Zone Characteristics and Dimensions for Operators of Construction and Industrial Machinery, approved July 1969, IBR approved for § 1926.1001(b).
</P>
<P>(18) SAE J987 (rev. Jun. 2003), Lattice Boom Cranes—Method of Test, revised Jun. 2003 (“SAE J987 (Jun. 2003)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1433(c).
</P>
<P>(19) SAE J1063 (rev. Nov. 1993), Cantilevered Boom Crane Structures—Method of Test, revised Nov. 1993 (“SAE J1063 (Nov. 1993)”), IBR approved for § 1926.1433(c).
</P>
<P>(v) The following material is available for purchase from the United States Army Corps of Engineers, 441 G Street, NW., Washington, DC 20314; telephone: 202-761-0011; e-mail: <I>hq-publicaffairs@usace.army.mil;</I> Web site: <I>http://www.usace.army.mil/:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) EM-385-1-1, General Safety Requirements, Mar. 1967, IBR approved for § 1926.1000(f).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 48130, Aug. 9, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 37600, June 22, 2012; 78 FR 35566, June 13, 2013; 78 FR 66641, Nov. 6, 2013; 79 FR 20692, Apr. 11, 2014; 81 FR 16092, Mar. 25, 2016; 84 FR 21574, May 14, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Interpretations</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 107, Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (Construction Safety Act) (40 U.S.C. 333).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.10" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.2.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.10   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart contains the general rules of the Secretary of Labor interpreting and applying the construction safety and health provisions of section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (83 Stat. 96). Section 107 requires as a condition of each contract which is entered into under legislation subject to Reorganization Plan Number 14 of 1950 (64 Stat. 1267), and which is for construction, alteration, and/or repair, including painting and decorating, that no contractor or subcontractor contracting for any part of the contract work shall require any laborer or mechanic employed in the performance of the contract to work in surroundings or under working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to his health or safety, as determined under construction safety and health standards promulgated by the Secretary by regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.11" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.2.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.11   Coverage under section 103 of the act distinguished.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage under section 103.</I> It is important to note that the coverage of section 107 differs from that for the overtime requirements of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act. The application of the overtime requirements is governed by section 103, which subject to specific exemptions, includes: (1) Federal contracts requiring or involving the employment of laborers or mechanics (thus including, but not limited to, contracts for construction), and (2) contracts assisted in whole or in part by Federal loans, grants, or guarantees under any statute “providing wage standards for such work.” The statutes “providing wage standards for such work” include statutes for construction which require the payment of minimum wages in accordance with prevailing wage findings by the Secretary of Labor in accordance with the Davis-Bacon Act. A provision to section 103 excludes from the overtime requirements work where the Federal assistance is only in the form of a loan guarantee or insurance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage under section 107.</I> To be covered by section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, a contract must be one which (1) is entered into under a statute that is subject to Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950 (64 Stat. 1267); and (2) is for “construction, alteration, and/or repair, including painting and decorating.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.12" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.2.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.12   Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions.</I> Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950 relates to the prescribing by the Secretary of Labor of “appropriate standards, regulations, and procedures” with respect to the enforcement of labor standards under Federal and federally assisted contracts which are subject to various statutes subject to the Plan. The rules of the Secretary of Labor implementing the Plan are published in part 5 of this title. Briefly, the statutes subject to the Plan include the Davis-Bacon Act, including its extension to Federal-aid highway legislation subject to 23 U.S.C. 113, and other statutes subject to the Plan by its original terms, statutes by which the Plan is expressly applied, such as the Contract Work Hours Standards Act by virtue of section 104(d) thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Plan.</I> (1) The statutes subject to Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950 are cited and briefly described in the remaining paragraphs of this section. These descriptions are general in nature and not intended to convey the full scope of the work to be performed under each statute. The individual statutes should be resorted to for a more detailed scope of the work.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal-Aid Highway Acts.</I> The provisions codified in 23 U.S.C. 113 apply to the initial construction, reconstruction, or improvement work performed by contractors or subcontractors on highway projects on the Federal-aid systems, the primary and secondary, as well as their extensions in urban areas, and the Interstate System, authorized under the highway laws providing for the expenditure of Federal funds upon the Federal-aid system. As cited in 41 Op. A.G. 488, 496, the Attorney General ruled that the Federal-Aid Highway Acts are subject to Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1713, 1715a, 1715e, 1715k, 1715l(d)(3) and (4), 1715v, 1715w, 1715x, 1743, 1747, 1748, 1748h-2, 1750g, 1715l(h)(1), 1715z(j)(1), 1715z-1, 1715y(d), Subchapter 1x-A and 1x-B, 1715z-7).</I> This act covers construction which is financed with assistance by the Federal Government through programs of loan and mortgage insurance for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Rental Housing—Section 1713 provides mortgage and insurance on rental housing of eight or more units and on mobile-home courts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 1715a—Repealed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cooperative Housing—Section 1715e authorizes mortgage insurance on cooperative housing of five or more units as well as supplementary loans for improvement of repair or resale of memberships.
</P>
<P>(iv) Urban Renewal Housing—Section 1715k provides mortgage insurance on single family or multifamily housing in approved urban renewal areas.
</P>
<P>(v) Low or Moderate Income Housing—Section 1715L(d) (3) and (4) insures mortgages on low-cost single family or multifamily housing.
</P>
<P>(vi) Housing for Elderly—Section 1715v provides mortgage insurance on rental housing for elderly or handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(vii) Nursing Homes—Section 1715w authorizes mortgage insurance on nursing home facilities and major equipment.
</P>
<P>(viii) Experimental Housing—Section 1715x provides mortgage insurance on single family or multifamily housing with experimental design of materials.
</P>
<P>(ix) War Housing Insurance—Section 1743 not active.
</P>
<P>(x) Yield Insurance—Section 1747 insures investment returns on multifamily housing.
</P>
<P>(xi) Armed Services Housing—Section 1748b to assist in relieving acute shortage and urgent need for family housing at or in areas adjacent to military installations.
</P>
<P>(xii) Defense Housing for Impacted Areas—Section 1748h-2 provides mortgage insurance on single family or multifamily housing for sale or rent primarily to military or civilian personnel of the Armed Services, National Aeronautics and Space Administration, or Atomic Energy Commission.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Defense Rental Housing—Section 1750g provides for mortgage insurance in critical defense housing areas.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Rehabilitation—Section 1715L (h)(1) provides mortgage insurance for nonprofit organizations to finance the purchase and rehabilitation of deteriorating or substandard housing for subsequent resale to low-income home purchasers. There must be located on the property five or more single family dwellings of detached, semidetached, or row construction.
</P>
<P>(xv) Homeowner Assistance—Section 1715Z(j)(1) authorizes mortgage insurance to nonprofit organizations or public bodies or agencies executed to finance sale of individual dwellings to lower income individuals or families. Also includes the rehabilitation of such housing if it is deteriorating or substandard for subsequent resale to lower income home purchasers.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Rental Housing Assistance—Section 1715Z-1 authorizes mortgage insurance and interest reduction payments on behalf of owners of rental housing projects designed for occupancy by lower income families. Payments are also authorized for certain State or locally aided projects.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Condominium Housing—Section 1715y(d) provides mortgage insurance on property purchased for the development of building sites. This includes waterlines and water supply installations, sewer lines and sewage disposal installations, steam, gas, and electrical lines and installations, roads, streets, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, storm drainage facilities, and other installations or work.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Group Medical Practice Facilities—Subchapter LX-B authorizes mortgage insurance for the financing of construction and equipment, of facilities for group practice of medicine, optometry, or dentistry.
</P>
<P>(xix) Nonprofit Hospitals—1715z-7 authorizes mortgage insurance to cover new and rehabilitated hospitals, including initial equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hospital Survey and Construction Act, as amended by the Hospital and Medical Facilities Amendments of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 291e).</I>The provisions of this Act cover construction contracts made by State or local authorities or private institutions under Federal grant-in-aid programs for the construction of hospitals and other medical facilities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Federal Airport Act (49 U.S.C. 1114(b)).</I> The act provides grant-in-aid funds for airport construction limited to general site preparation runways, taxiways, aprons, lighting appurtenant thereto, and fire, rescue, and maintenance buildings. The act excludes construction intended for use as a public parking facility for passenger automobiles and the cost of construction of any part of an airport building except such of those buildings or parts of buildings to house facilities or activities directly related to the safety of persons at the airport.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Housing Act of 1949 (42 U.S.C. 1459).</I> Construction contracts awarded by local authorities financed with the assistance of loans and grants from the Federal Government. The construction programs are for slum clearance and urban renewal which includes rehabilitation grants, neighborhood development programs, neighborhood renewal plans, community renewal, demolition projects, and assistance for blighted areas. See the Housing Act of 1964, paragraph (b)(21) of this section, concerning financial assistance for low-rent housing for domestic farm labor.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>School Survey and Construction Act of 1950 (20 U.S.C. 636).</I> This act provides for a Federal grant-in-aid program to assist in the construction of schools in federally affected areas.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Defense Housing &amp; Community Facilities &amp; Services Act of 1951 (42 U.S.C. 1592i).</I> Inactive Program.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>United States Housing Act of 1937 (42 U.S.C. 1416).</I> This statute covers the construction of low-rent public housing and slum clearance projects awarded by local authorities. These projects are financed with the assistance of loans and grants from the Federal Government. The slum clearance is the demolition and removal of buildings from any slum area to be used for a low-rent housing project.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Federal Civil Defense Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. App. 2281).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance to the several States and their political subdivisions in the field of civil defense which includes procurement, construction, leasing, or renovating of materials and facilities.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Delaware River Basin Compact (sec. 15.1, 75 Stat. 714).</I> This joint resolution creates, by intergovernmental compact between the United States, Delaware, New Jersey, New York, and Pennsylvania, a regional agency for planning, conservation, utilization, development, management and control of the water and related sources of the Delaware River.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Cooperative Research Act (20 U.S.C. 332a(c)).</I> This act provides Federal grants to a university, college, or other appropriate public or nonprofit private agency or institution for part or all of the cost of constructing a facility for research or for research and related purposes. Research and related purposes means research, research training, surveys, or demonstrations in the field of education, or the dissemination of information derived therefrom, or all of such activities, including (but without limitation) experimental schools, except that such term does not include research, research training, surveys, or demonstrations in the field of sectarian instruction or the dissemination of information derived therefrom. Construction includes new buildings, and the acquisition, expansion, remodeling, replacement, and alteration of existing buildings and the equipping of new buildings and existing buildings.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Health Professions Educational Assistance Act of 1963 (42 U.S.C. 292d (c)(4), 293a(c)(5)).</I> The provisions of this act provide for grants to assist public and nonprofit medical, dental, and similar schools for the construction, expansion, or renovation of teaching facilities.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Mental Retardation Facilities Construction Act (42 U.S.C. 295(a)(2)(D), 2662(5), 2675(a)(5)).</I> This act authorizes Federal financial assistance in the construction of centers for research on mental retardation and related aspects of human development, of university-affiliated facilities for the mentally retarded and of facilities for the mentally retarded.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Community Mental Health Centers Act (42 U.S.C. 2685(a)(5)).</I> This act authorizes Federal grants for the construction of public and other nonprofit community mental health centers.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Higher Education Facilities Act of 1963 (20 U.S.C. 753).</I> This act authorizes the grant or loan of Federal funds to assist public and other nonprofit institutions of higher education in financing the construction, rehabilitation, or improvement of academic and related facilities in undergraduate and graduate schools.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Vocational Educational Act of 1963 (20 U.S.C. 35f).</I> This act provides for Federal grants to the various States for construction of area vocational education school facilities.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Library Services and Construction Act (20 U.S.C. 355e(a)(4)).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance to the various States for the construction of public libraries.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Urban Mass Transportation Act of 1954 (49 U.S.C. 1609).</I> This act provides for grants and loans to assist States and local public bodies and agencies thereof in financing the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, and improvement of facilities and equipment for use, by operation or lease or otherwise, in mass transportation service in urban areas and in coordinating such service with highway and other transportation in such areas.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Economic Opportunity Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2947).</I> This act covers construction which is financed with assistance of the Federal Government for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Authorizes Federal assistance for construction of projects, buildings and works which will provide young men and women in rural and urban residential centers with education, vocational training, and useful work experience (Title I).
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorizes financial assistance for construction work planned and carried out at the community level for antipoverty programs (Title II):
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Authorizes loans to low income rural families by assisting them to acquire or improve real estate or reduce encumbrances or erect improvements thereon, and to participate in cooperative associations and/or to finance nonagricultural enterprises which will enable such families to supplement their income (Title III);
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Authorizes loans to local cooperative associations furnishing essential processing, purchasing, or marketing services, supplies, or facilities predominantly to low-income rural families (Title III);
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Authorizes financial assistance to States, political subdivisions of States, public and nonprofit agencies, institutions, organizations, farm associations, or individuals in establishing housing, sanitation, education, and child day-care programs for migrants and other seasonally employed agricultural employees and their families (Title III).
</P>
<P>(iii) Authorizes loans or guarantees loans to small businesses for construction work (Title IV).
</P>
<P>(iv) Authorizes the payment of the cost of experimental, pilot, or demonstration projects to foster State programs providing construction work experience or training for unemployed fathers and needy people (Title V).
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Housing Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 1486(f); 42 U.S.C. 1452b(e)).</I> Provides financial assistance for low-rent housing for domestic farm labor. The Act further provides for loans, through public or private agencies, where feasible, to owners or tenants of property in urban renewal areas to finance rehabilitation required to conform the property to applicable code requirements or carry out the objectives of the urban renewal plan for the area.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>The Commercial Fisheries Research and Development Act of 1964 (16 U.S.C. 779e(b)).</I> This Act authorizes financial assistance to State agencies for construction projects designed for the research and development of the commercial fisheries resources of the Nation.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>The Nurse Training Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 296a(b)(5)).</I> This act provides for grants to assist in the construction of new facilities for collegiate, associate degree, and diploma schools of nursing, or replacement or rehabilitation of existing facilities of such schools.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 241i, 848).</I> The purpose of the act is to provide financial assistance to local educational agencies serving areas with concentrations of children from low-income families for construction in connection with the expansion or improvement of their educational programs.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended by the Water Quality Act of 1965 (3 U.S.C. 466e(g)).</I> Provides for financial assistance to States or municipalities for construction of facilities in connection with the prevention and control of water pollution. This includes projects that will control the discharge into any waters of untreated or inadequately treated sewage.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Appalachian Regional Development Act of 1965 (40 U.S.C. App. 402).</I> Authorizes Federal assistance in the construction of an Appalachian development highway system; construction of multicounty demonstration health facilities, hospitals, regional health, diagnostic and treatment centers, and other facilities for health; seal and fill voids in abandoned mines and to rehabilitate strip mine areas; construction of school facilities for vocational education; and to assist in construction of sewage treatment works.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>National Technical Institute for the Deaf Act (20 U.S.C. 684(b)(5)).</I> Provides for financial assistance for institutions of higher education for the establishment, construction, including equipment and operation, of a National Institution for the Deaf.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Housing Act of 1959 (12 U.S.C. 1701(q)(c)(3)).</I> This act authorizes loans to nonprofit corporations to be used for the construction of housing and related facilities for elderly families. Also, the provisions of the act provide for rehabilitation, alteration, conversion or improvement of existing structures which are otherwise inadequate for proposed dwellings used by such families.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>College Housing Act of 1950, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1749a(f)).</I> This act provides for Federal loans to assist educational institutions in providing housing and other educational facilities for students and faculties.
</P>
<P>(30) <I>Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965 (42 U.S.C. 1500c-3, 3107).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Grants to States and local public bodies to assist in any construction work to be carried out under the open-space land and urban beautification provisions contained therein. It provides for parks and recreation areas, conservation of land and other natural resources, and historical and scenic purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Grants to local public bodies and agencies to finance specific projects for basic public water facilities (including works for the storage, treatment, purification, and distribution of water), and for basic public sewer facilities (other than “treatment works” as defined in the Federal Water Pollution Control Act).
</P>
<P>(iii) Grants to any local public body or agency to assist in financing neighborhood facilities. These facilities must be necessary for carrying out a program of health, recreational, social, or similar community service and located so as to be available for the use of the area's low or moderate income residents.
</P>
<P>(31) <I>National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 954(k)).</I> The act establishes the “National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities” which may provide matching grants to groups (nonprofit organizations and State and other public organizations) and to individuals engaged in creative and performing arts for the entire range of artistic activity, including construction of necessary facilities.
</P>
<P>(32) <I>Public Works and Economic Development Act of 1965 (42 U.S.C. 3222).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Grants for the acquisition or development of land or improvements for public works or development facility usage in redevelopment areas. It authorizes loans to assist in financing the purchase or development of land for public works which will assist in the creation of long-term employment opportunities in the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans for the purchase or development of land and facilities (including machinery and equipment) for industrial or commercial usage within redevelopment areas; guarantee of loans for working capital made to private borrowers by private lending institutions in connection with direct loan projects; and to contract to pay to, or on behalf of, business entities locating in redevelopment areas, a portion of the interest costs which they incur in financing their expansions from private sources.
</P>
<P>(iii) Loans and grants to create economic development centers within designated county economic development districts.
</P>
<P>(33) <I>High-Speed Ground Transportation Study (40 U.S.C. 1636(b)).</I> This act provides for financial assistance for construction activities in connection with research and development of different forms of high-speed ground transportation and demonstration projects relating to intercity rail passenger service.
</P>
<P>(34) <I>Heart Disease, Cancer and Stroke Amendments of 1965 (42 U.S.C. 299(b)(4)).</I> This act provides for grants to public or nonprofit private universities, medical schools, research, institutions, hospitals, and other public and nonprofit agencies and institutions, or associations thereof to assist in construction and equipment of facilities in connection with research, training, demonstration of patient care, diagnostic and treatment related to heart disease, cancer, stroke, and other major diseases.
</P>
<P>(35) <I>Mental Retardation Facilities and Community Mental Health Centers Construction Act Amendments of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 618(g)).</I> These provisions provide for grants to institutions of higher education for construction of facilities for research or for research and related purposes relating to education for mentally retarded, hard of hearing, deaf, speech impaired, visually handicapped, seriously emotionally disturbed, crippled, or other health impaired children who by reason thereof require special education.
</P>
<P>(36) <I>Vocational Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1965 (29 U.S.C. 41a(b)(4)).</I> This act authorizes grants to assist in meeting the costs of construction of public or other nonprofit workshops and rehabilitation facilities.
</P>
<P>(37) <I>Clean Air and Solid Waste Disposal Acts (42 U.S.C. 3256).</I> This act provides for financial assistance to public (Federal, State, interstate, or local) authorities, agencies, and institutions, private agencies and institutions, and individuals in the construction of facilities for solid-waste disposal. The term construction includes the installation of initial equipment.
</P>
<P>(38) <I>Medical Library Assistance Act of 1965 (42 U.S.C. 280b-3(b)(3)).</I> This act provides for grants to public or private non-profit agencies or institutions for the cost of construction of medical library facilities.
</P>
<P>(39) <I>Veterans Nursing Home Care Act (38 U.S.C. 5035(a)(8)).</I> The construction industry health and safety standards do not apply to this act since it is not subject to Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950.
</P>
<P>(40) <I>National Capital Transportation Act of 1965 (40 U.S.C. 682(b)(4)).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance to the National Capital Transportation Agency for construction of a rail rapid transit system and related facilities for the Nation's Capital.
</P>
<P>(41) <I>Alaska Centennial—1967 (80 Stat. 82).</I> The program under this legislation has expired.
</P>
<P>(42) <I>Model Secondary School for the Deaf Act (80 Stat. 1028).</I> This act provides for funds to establish and operate, including construction and initial equipment of new buildings, expansion, remodeling, and alteration of existing buildings and equipment thereof, a model secondary school for the deaf to serve the residents of the District of Columbia and nearby States.
</P>
<P>(43) <I>Allied Health Professions Personnel Training Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 295h(b)(2)(E)).</I> This act provides for grants to assist in the construction of new facilities for training centers for allied health professions, or replacement or rehabilitation of existing facilities for such centers.
</P>
<P>(44) <I>Demonstration Cities and Metropolitan Development Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 3310; 12 U.S.C. 1715c; 42 U.S.C. 1416).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Grants to assist in the construction, rehabilitation, alteration, or repair of residential property only if such residential property is designed for residential use for eight or more families to enable city demonstration agencies to carry out comprehensive city demonstration programs (42 U.S.C. 3310).
</P>
<P>(ii) Amends the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1715c) and the Housing Act of 1937 (42 U.S.C. 1416). See these acts for coverage.
</P>
<P>(45) <I>Air Quality Act of 1967 (42 U.S.C. 1857j-3).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance to public or nonprofit agencies, institutions, and organizations and to individuals, and contracts with public or private agencies, institutions, or persons for construction of research and development facilities and demonstration plants relating to the application of preventing or controlling discharges into the air of various types of pollutants.
</P>
<P>(46) <I>Elementary and Secondary Education Amendments of 1967 (Title VII—Bilingual Education Act) (20 U.S.C. 880b-6).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance to local educational agencies or to an institution of higher education applying jointly with a local educational agency for minor remodeling projects in connection with bilingual education programs to meet the special needs of children with limited English-speaking ability in the United States.
</P>
<P>(47) <I>Vocational Rehabilitation Amendments of 1967 (29 U.S.C. 42a(c)(3)).</I> This act authorizes Federal assistance to any public or nonprofit private agency or organization for the construction of a center for vocational rehabilitation of handicapped individuals who are both deaf and blind which shall be known as the National Center for Deaf-Blind Youths and Adults. Construction includes new buildings and expansion, remodeling, alteration and renovation of existing buildings, and initial equipment of such new, newly acquired, expanded, remodeled, altered, or renovated buildings.
</P>
<P>(48) <I>National Visitor Center Facilities Act of 1968 (40 U.S.C. 808).</I> This act authorizes agreements and leases with the owner of property in the District of Columbia known as Union Station for the use of all or a part of such property for a national visitor center to be known as the National Visitor Center. The agreements and leases shall provide for such alterations of the Union Station Building as necessary to provide adequate facilities for visitors. They also provide for the construction of a parking facility, including necessary approaches and ramps.
</P>
<P>(49) <I>Juvenile Delinquency Prevention and Control Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 3843).</I> This act provides for Federal grants to State, county, municipal, or other public agency or combination thereof for the construction of facilities to be used in connection with rehabilitation services for the diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation of delinquent youths and youths in danger of becoming delinquent.
</P>
<P>(50) <I>Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968 (including New Communities Act of 1968) (42 U.S.C. 3909).</I> This act provides for Federal assistance for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Guarantees, and commitments to guarantee, the bonds, debentures, notes, and other obligations issued by new community developers to help finance new community development projects.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amends section 212(a) of the National Housing Act, adding section 236 for “Rental Housing for Lower Income Families” and section 242 “Mortgage Insurance for Nonprofit Hospitals” thereto.
</P>
<P>(51) <I>Public Health Service Act Amendment (Alcoholic and Narcotic Addict Rehabilitation Amendments of 1968) (42 U.S.C. 2681, et seq.).</I> This act provides for grants to a public and nonprofit private agency or organization for construction projects consisting of any facilities (including post-hospitalization treatment facilities for the prevention and treatment of alcoholism or treatment of narcotic addicts.)
</P>
<P>(52) <I>Vocational Education Amendments of 1968 (20 U.S.C. 1246).</I> This act provides for grants to States for the construction of area vocational education school facilities. The act further provides grants to public educational agencies, organizations, or institutions for construction of residential schools to provide vocational education for the purpose of demonstrating the feasibility and desirability of such schools. The act still further provides grants to State boards, to colleges and universities, to public educational agencies, organizations or institutions to reduce the cost of borrowing funds for the construction of residential schools and dormitories.
</P>
<P>(53) <I>Postal Reorganization Act (39 U.S.C. 410(d)(2)).</I> This Act provides for construction, modification, alteration, repair, and other improvements of postal facilities located in leased buildings.
</P>
<P>(54) <I>Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-258, section 52(b)(7)).</I> This Act provides for Federal financial assistance to States and localities for the construction, improvement, or repair of public airports.
</P>
<P>(55)(i) <I>Public Law 91-230.</I> This Act provides for federal financial assistance to institutions of higher learning for the construction of a National Center on Educational Media and Materials for the Handicapped. The program under this statute expires on July 1, 1971. Public Law 91-230, section 662(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Education of the Handicapped Act (20 U.S.C. 12326, 1404(a)).</I> This Act provides for financial assistance to States for construction, expansion, remodeling, or alteration of facilities for the education of handicapped children at the preschool, elementary school, and secondary school levels.
</P>
<P>(56) <I>Housing and Urban Development Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-609, section 707(b)).</I> This Act provides for grants to States and local public agencies to help finance the development of open-space or other land in urban areas for open-space uses. This Act becomes effective on July 1, 1971.
</P>
<P>(57) <I>Developmental Disabilities Services and Facilities Construction Amendments of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-517, section 135(a)(5)).</I> This Act authorizes grants to States for construction of facilities for the provision of services to persons with developmental disabilities who are unable to pay for such services.
</P>
<P>(58) <I>Rail Passenger Service Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-518, section 405(d)).</I> This statute provides that the National Railroad Passenger Corporation may construct physical facilities necessary to intercity rail passenger operations within the basic national rail passenger system designated by the Secretary of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>VA and FHA housing.</I> In the course of the legislative development of section 107, it was recognized that section 107 would not apply to housing construction for which insurance was issued by the Federal Housing Authority and Veterans' Administration for individual home ownership. Concerning construction under the National Housing Act, Reorganization Plan No. 14 of 1950 applies to construction which is subject to the minimum wage requirements of section 212(a) thereof (12 U.S.C. 1715c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.13" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.2.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.13   Interpretation of statutory terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms <I>construction, alteration,</I> and <I>repair</I> used in section 107 of the Act are also used in section 1 of the Davis-Bacon Act (40 U.S.C. 276a), providing minimum wage protection on Federal construction contracts, and section 1 of the Miller Act (40 U.S.C. 270a), providing performance and payment bond protection on Federal construction contracts. Similarly, the terms <I>contractor</I> and <I>subcontractor</I> are used in those statutes, as well as in Copeland (Anti-Kickback) Act (40 U.S.C. 276c) and the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act itself, which apply concurrently with the Miller Act and the Davis-Bacon Act on Federal construction contracts and also apply to most federally assisted construction contracts. The use of the same or identical terms in these statutes which apply concurrently with section 107 of the Act have considerable precedential value in ascertaining the coverage of section 107.
</P>
<P>(b) It should be noted that section 1 of the Davis-Bacon Act limits minimum wage protection to laborers and mechanics “employed directly” upon the “site of the work.” There is no comparable limitation in section 107 of the Act. Section 107 expressly requires as a self-executing condition of each covered contract that no contractor or subcontractor shall require “any laborer or mechanic employed in the performance of the contract to work in surroundings or under working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to his health or safety” as these health and safety standards are applied in the rules of the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>subcontractor</I> under section 107 is considered to mean a person who agrees to perform any part of the labor or material requirements of a contract for construction, alteration or repair. Cf. MacEvoy Co. v. United States, 322 U.S. 102, 108-9 (1944). A person who undertakes to perform a portion of a contract involving the furnishing of supplies or materials will be considered a “subcontractor” under this part and section 107 if the work in question involves the performance of construction work and is to be performed: (1) Directly on or near the construction site, or (2) by the employer for the specific project on a customized basis. Thus, a supplier of materials which will become an integral part of the construction is a “subcontractor” if the supplier fabricates or assembles the goods or materials in question specifically for the construction project and the work involved may be said to be construction activity. If the goods or materials in question are ordinarily sold to other customers from regular inventory, the supplier is not a “subcontractor.” Generally, the furnishing of prestressed concrete beams and prestressed structural steel would be considered manufacturing; therefore a supplier of such materials would not be considered a “subcontractor.” An example of material supplied “for the specific project on a customized basis” as that phrase is used in this section would be ventilating ducts, fabricated in a shop away from the construction job site and specifically cut for the project according to design specifications. On the other hand, if a contractor buys standard size nails from a foundry, the foundry would not be a covered “subcontractor.” Ordinarily a contract for the supplying of construction equipment to a contractor would not, in and of itself, be considered a “subcontractor” for purposes of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.14" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.2.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.14   Federal contract for “mixed” types of performance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the intent of the Congress to provide safety and health protection of Federal, federally financed, or federally assisted construction. See, for example, H. Report No. 91-241, 91st Cong., first session, p. 1 (1969). Thus, it is clear that when a Federal contract calls for mixed types of performance, such as both manufacturing and construction, section 107 would apply to the construction. By its express terms, section 107 applies to a contract which is “for construction, alteration, and/or repair.” Such a contract is not required to be exclusively for such services. The application of the section is not limited to contracts which permit an overall characterization as “construction contracts.” The text of section 107 is not so limited.
</P>
<P>(b) When the mixed types of performances include both construction and manufacturing, see also § 1926.15(b) concerning the relationship between the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act and section 107.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.15" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.2.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.15   Relationship to the Service Contract Act; Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A contract for “construction” is one for nonpersonal service. See, e.g., 41 CFR 1-1.208. Section 2(e) of the Service Contract Act of 1965 requires as a condition of every Federal contract (and bid specification therefor) exceeding $2,500, the “principal purpose” of which is to furnish services to the United States through the use of “service employees,” that certain safety and health standards be met. See 29 CFR part 1925, which contains the Department rules concerning these standards. Section 7 of the Service Contract Act provides that the Act shall not apply to “any contract of the United States or District of Columbia for construction, alteration, and/or repair, including painting and decorating of public buildings or public works.” It is clear from the legislative history of section 107 that no gaps in coverage between the two statutes are intended.
</P>
<P>(b) The Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act requires that contracts entered into by any Federal agency for the manufacture or furnishing of materials, supplies, articles, and equipment in any amount exceeding $10,000 must contain, among other provisions, a requirement that “no part of such contract will be performed nor will any of the materials, supplies, articles or equipment to be manufactured or furnished under said contract be manufactured or fabricated in any plants, factories, buildings, or surroundings or under working conditions which are unsanitary or hazardous or dangerous to the health and safety of employees engaged in the performance of said contract.” The rules of the Secretary concerning these standards are published in 41 CFR part 50-204, and express the Secretary of Labor's interpretation and application of section 1(e) of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act to certain particular working conditions. None of the described working conditions are intended to deal with construction activities, although such activities may conceivably be a part of a contract which is subject to the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act. Nevertheless, such activities remain subject to the general statutory duty prescribed by section 1(e). Section 103(b) of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act provides, among other things, that the Act shall not apply to any work required to be done in accordance with the provisions of the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.16" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.2.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.16   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prime contractor and any subcontractors may make their own arrangements with respect to obligations which might be more appropriately treated on a jobsite basis rather than individually. Thus, for example, the prime contractor and his subcontractors may wish to make an express agreement that the prime contractor or one of the subcontractors will provide all required first-aid or toilet facilities, thus relieving the subcontractors from the actual, but not any legal, responsibility (or, as the case may be, relieving the other subcontractors from this responsibility). In no case shall the prime contractor be relieved of overall responsibility for compliance with the requirements of this part for all work to be performed under the contract.
</P>
<P>(b) By contracting for full performance of a contract subject to section 107 of the Act, the prime contractor assumes all obligations prescribed as employer obligations under the standards contained in this part, whether or not he subcontracts any part of the work.
</P>
<P>(c) To the extent that a subcontractor of any tier agrees to perform any part of the contract, he also assumes responsibility for complying with the standards in this part with respect to that part. Thus, the prime contractor assumes the entire responsibility under the contract and the subcontractor assumes responsibility with respect to his portion of the work. With respect to subcontracted work, the prime contractor and any subcontractor or subcontractors shall be deemed to have joint responsibility.
</P>
<P>(d) Where joint responsibility exists, both the prime contractor and his subcontractor or subcontractors, regardless of tier, shall be considered subject to the enforcement provisions of the Act.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—General Safety and Health Provisions</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912) as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.20" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.20   General safety and health provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contractor requirements.</I> (1) Section 107 of the Act requires that it shall be a condition of each contract which is entered into under legislation subject to Reorganization Plan Number 14 of 1950 (64 Stat. 1267), as defined in § 1926.12, and is for construction, alteration, and/or repair, including painting and decorating, that no contractor or subcontractor for any part of the contract work shall require any laborer or mechanic employed in the performance of the contract to work in surroundings or under working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to his health or safety.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accident prevention responsibilities.</I> (1) It shall be the responsibility of the employer to initiate and maintain such programs as may be necessary to comply with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Such programs shall provide for frequent and regular inspections of the job sites, materials, and equipment to be made by competent persons designated by the employers.
</P>
<P>(3) The use of any machinery, tool, material, or equipment which is not in compliance with any applicable requirement of this part is prohibited. Such machine, tool, material, or equipment shall either be identified as unsafe by tagging or locking the controls to render them inoperable or shall be physically removed from its place of operation.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall permit only those employees qualified by training or experience to operate equipment and machinery.
</P>
<P>(c) The standards contained in this part shall apply with respect to employments performed in a workplace in a State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Wake Island, Outer Continental Shelf lands defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act, and Johnston Island.
</P>
<P>(d) (1) If a particular standard is specifically applicable to a condition, practice, means, method, operation, or process, it shall prevail over any different general standard which might otherwise be applicable to the same condition, practice, means, method, operation, or process.
</P>
<P>(2) On the other hand, any standard shall apply according to its terms to any employment and place of employment in any industry, even though particular standards are also prescribed for the industry to the extent that none of such particular standards applies.
</P>
<P>(e) In the event a standard protects on its face a class of persons larger than employees, the standard shall be applicable under this part only to employees and their employment and places of employment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Compliance duties owed to each employee</I>—(1) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Standards in this part requiring the employer to provide personal protective equipment (PPE), including respirators and other types of PPE, because of hazards to employees impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must provide PPE to each employee required to use the PPE, and each failure to provide PPE to an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training.</I> Standards in this part requiring training on hazards and related matters, such as standards requiring that employees receive training or that the employer train employees, provide training to employees, or institute or implement a training program, impose a separate compliance duty with respect to each employee covered by the requirement. The employer must train each affected employee in the manner required by the standard, and each failure to train an employee may be considered a separate violation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35078, June 30, 1993; 73 FR 75588, Dec. 12, 2008; 85 FR 8735, Feb. 18, 2020; 85 FR 8735, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.21" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.21   Safety training and education.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The Secretary shall, pursuant to section 107(f) of the Act, establish and supervise programs for the education and training of employers and employees in the recognition, avoidance and prevention of unsafe conditions in employments covered by the act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employer responsibility.</I> (1) The employer should avail himself of the safety and health training programs the Secretary provides.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall instruct each employee in the recognition and avoidance of unsafe conditions and the regulations applicable to his work environment to control or eliminate any hazards or other exposure to illness or injury.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees required to handle or use poisons, caustics, and other harmful substances shall be instructed regarding the safe handling and use, and be made aware of the potential hazards, personal hygiene, and personal protective measures required.
</P>
<P>(4) In job site areas where harmful plants or animals are present, employees who may be exposed shall be instructed regarding the potential hazards, and how to avoid injury, and the first aid procedures to be used in the event of injury.
</P>
<P>(5) Employees required to handle or use flammable liquids, gases, or toxic materials shall be instructed in the safe handling and use of these materials and made aware of the specific requirements contained in subparts D, F, and other applicable subparts of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 80 FR 25518, May 4, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.22" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.22   Recording and reporting of injuries. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.23" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.23   First aid and medical attention.</HEAD>
<P>First aid services and provisions for medical care shall be made available by the employer for every employee covered by these regulations. Regulations prescribing specific requirements for first aid, medical attention, and emergency facilities are contained in subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.24" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.24   Fire protection and prevention.</HEAD>
<P>The employer shall be responsible for the development and maintenance of an effective fire protection and prevention program at the job site throughout all phases of the construction, repair, alteration, or demolition work. The employer shall ensure the availability of the fire protection and suppression equipment required by subpart F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.25" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.25   Housekeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the course of construction, alteration, or repairs, form and scrap lumber with protruding nails, and all other debris, shall be kept cleared from work areas, passageways, and stairs, in and around buildings or other structures.
</P>
<P>(b) Combustible scrap and debris shall be removed at regular intervals during the course of construction. Safe means shall be provided to facilitate such removal.
</P>
<P>(c) Containers shall be provided for the collection and separation of waste, trash, oily and used rags, and other refuse. Containers used for garbage and other oily, flammable, or hazardous wastes, such as caustics, acids, harmful dusts, etc. shall be equipped with covers. Garbage and other waste shall be disposed of at frequent and regular intervals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.26" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.26   Illumination.</HEAD>
<P>Construction areas, aisles, stairs, ramps, runways, corridors, offices, shops, and storage areas where work is in progress shall be lighted with either natural or artificial illumination. The minimum illumination requirements for work areas are contained in subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.27" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.27   Sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>Health and sanitation requirements for drinking water are contained in subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.28" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.28   Personal protective equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer is responsible for requiring the wearing of appropriate personal protective equipment in all operations where there is an exposure to hazardous conditions or where this part indicates the need for using such equipment to reduce the hazards to the employees.
</P>
<P>(b) Regulations governing the use, selection, and maintenance of personal protective and lifesaving equipment are described under subpart E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.29" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.29   Acceptable certifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pressure vessels.</I> Current and valid certification by an insurance company or regulatory authority shall be deemed as acceptable evidence of safe installation, inspection, and testing of pressure vessels provided by the employer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Boilers.</I> Boilers provided by the employer shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this part when evidence of current and valid certification by an insurance company or regulatory authority attesting to the safe installation, inspection, and testing is presented.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other requirements.</I> Regulations prescribing specific requirements for other types of pressure vessels and similar equipment are contained in subparts F and O of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.30" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.30   Shipbuilding and ship repairing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Shipbuilding, ship repairing, alterations, and maintenance performed on ships under Government contract, except naval ship construction, is work subject to the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicable safety and health standards.</I> For the purpose of work carried out under this section, the safety and health regulations in part 1915 of this title, Shipyard Employment, shall apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 61 FR 9249, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.32" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.32   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions shall apply in the application of the regulations in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act, commonly known as the Construction Safety Act (86 Stat. 96; 40 U.S.C. 333).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ANSI</I> means American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approved</I> means sanctioned, endorsed, accredited, certified, or accepted as satisfactory by a duly constituted and nationally recognized authority or agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authorized person</I> means a person approved or assigned by the employer to perform a specific type of duty or duties or to be at a specific location or locations at the jobsite.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administration</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Competent person</I> means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Construction work.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>Construction work</I> means work for construction, alteration, and/or repair, including painting and decorating.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Defect</I> means any characteristic or condition which tends to weaken or reduce the strength of the tool, object, or structure of which it is a part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Designated person</I> means “authorized person” as defined in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Employee</I> means every laborer or mechanic under the Act regardless of the contractual relationship which may be alleged to exist between the laborer and mechanic and the contractor or subcontractor who engaged him. “Laborer and mechanic” are not defined in the Act, but the identical terms are used in the Davis-Bacon Act (40 U.S.C. 276a), which provides for minimum wage protection on Federal and federally assisted construction contracts. The use of the same term in a statute which often applies concurrently with section 107 of the Act has considerable precedential value in ascertaining the meaning of “laborer and mechanic” as used in the Act. <I>Laborer</I> generally means one who performs manual labor or who labors at an occupation requiring physical strength; <I>mechanic</I> generally means a worker skilled with tools. See 18 Comp. Gen. 341.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Employer</I> means contractor or subcontractor within the meaning of the Act and of this part.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Hazardous substance</I> means a substance which, by reason of being explosive, flammable, poisonous, corrosive, oxidizing, irritating, or otherwise harmful, is likely to cause death or injury.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Qualified</I> means one who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated his ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Safety factor</I> means the ratio of the ultimate breaking strength of a member or piece of material or equipment to the actual working stress or safe load when in use.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>SAE</I> means Society of Automotive Engineers.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Shall</I> means mandatory.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Should</I> means recommended.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Suitable</I> means that which fits, and has the qualities or qualifications to meet a given purpose, occasion, condition, function, or circumstance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35078, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.33" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.33   Access to employee exposure and medical records.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1020 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.34" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.34   Means of egress.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In every building or structure exits shall be so arranged and maintained as to provide free and unobstructed egress from all parts of the building or structure at all times when it is occupied. No lock or fastening to prevent free escape from the inside of any building shall be installed except in mental, penal, or corrective institutions where supervisory personnel is continually on duty and effective provisions are made to remove occupants in case of fire or other emergency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exit marking.</I> Exits shall be marked by a readily visible sign. Access to exits shall be marked by readily visible signs in all cases where the exit or way to reach it is not immediately visible to the occupants.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance and workmanship.</I> Means of egress shall be continually maintained free of all obstructions or impediments to full instant use in the case of fire or other emergency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35083, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.35" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.3.13.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.35   Employee emergency action plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to all emergency action plans required by a particular OSHA standard. The emergency action plan shall be in writing (except as provided in the last sentence of paragraph (e)(3) of this section) and shall cover those designated actions employers and employees must take to ensure employee safety from fire and other emergencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elements.</I> The following elements, at a minimum, shall be included in the plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Emergency escape procedures and emergency escape route assignments;
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures to be followed by employees who remain to operate critical plant operations before they evacuate;
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures to account for all employees after emergency evacuation has been completed;
</P>
<P>(4) Rescue and medical duties for those employees who are to perform them;
</P>
<P>(5) The preferred means of reporting fires and other emergencies; and
</P>
<P>(6) Names or regular job titles of persons or departments who can be contacted for further information or explanation of duties under the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alarm system.</I> (1) The employer shall establish an employee alarm system which complies with § 1926.159.
</P>
<P>(2) If the employee alarm system is used for alerting fire brigade members, or for other purposes, a distinctive signal for each purpose shall be used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evacuation.</I> The employer shall establish in the emergency action plan the types of evacuation to be used in emergency circumstances.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training.</I> (1) Before implementing the emergency action plan, the employer shall designate and train a sufficient number of persons to assist in the safe and orderly emergency evacuation of employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall review the plan with each employee covered by the plan at the following times:
</P>
<P>(i) Initially when the plan is developed,
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the employee's responsibilities or designated actions under the plan change, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the plan is changed.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall review with each employee upon initial assignment those parts of the plan which the employee must know to protect the employee in the event of an emergency. The written plan shall be kept at the workplace and made available for employee review. For those employers with 10 or fewer employees the plan may be communicated orally to employees and the employer need not maintain a written plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35083, June 30, 1993]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Occupational Health and Environmental Controls</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3704; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657; and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE><P>Sections 1926.59, 1926.60, and 1926.65 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553 and 29 CFR part 1911.
</P><P>Section 1926.61 also issued under 49 U.S.C. 1801-1819 and 5 U.S.C. 553.
</P><PSPACE>Section 1926.62 also issued under sec. 1031, Public Law 102-550, 106 Stat. 3672 (42 U.S.C. 4853).
</PSPACE><P>Section 1926.65 also issued under sec. 126, Public Law 99-499, 100 Stat. 1614 (reprinted at 29 U.S.C.A. 655 Note) and 5 U.S.C. 553.






</P></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.50" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.50   Medical services and first aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall insure the availability of medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
</P>
<P>(b) Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
</P>
<P>(c) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, hospital, or physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the worksite, which is available for the treatment of injured employees, a person who has a valid certificate in first-aid training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary evidence, shall be available at the worksite to render first aid.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) First aid supplies shall be easily accessible when required.
</P>
<P>(2) The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item, and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
</P>
<P>(e) Proper equipment for prompt transportation of the injured person to a physician or hospital, or a communication system for contacting necessary ambulance service, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) In areas where 911 emergency dispatch services are not available, the telephone numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously posted.
</P>
<P>(2) In areas where 911 emergency dispatch services are available and an employer uses a communication system for contacting necessary emergency-medical service, the employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the communication system is effective in contacting the emergency-medical service; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) When using a communication system in an area that does not automatically supply the caller's latitude and longitude information to the 911 emergency dispatcher, the employer must post in a conspicuous location at the worksite either:
</P>
<P>(1) The latitude and longitude of the worksite; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other location-identification information that communicates effectively to employees the location of the worksite.
</P>
<P>(B) The requirement specified in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section does not apply to worksites with readily available telephone land lines that have 911 emergency service that automatically identifies the location of the caller.
</P>
<P>(g) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for immediate emergency use.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1926.50—First aid Kits (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>First aid supplies are required to be easily accessible under paragraph § 1926.50(d)(1). An example of the minimal contents of a generic first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1-1978 “Minimum Requirements for Industrial Unit-Type First-aid Kits”. The contents of the kit listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small work sites. When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same location, employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at the worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and additional quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid kits.
</P>
<P>In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or changing first-aid needs in their workplace may need to enhance their first-aid kits. The employer can use the OSHA 300 log, OSHA 301 log, or other reports to identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local fire/rescue department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency room may be helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the specific needs of their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably anticipated supplies are available. Employers should assess the specific needs of their worksite periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
</P>
<P>If it is reasonably anticipated employees will be exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first-aid supplies, employers should provide personal protective equipment (PPE). Appropriate PPE includes gloves, gowns, face shields, masks and eye protection (see “Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens”, 29 CFR 1910.1030(d)(3)) (56 FR 64175).</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984; 58 FR 35084, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 33469, June 18, 1998; 76 FR 80740, Dec. 27, 2011; 84 FR 21575, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.51" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.51   Sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Potable water.</I> (1) An adequate supply of potable water shall be provided in all places of employment.
</P>
<P>(2) Portable containers used to dispense drinking water shall be capable of being tightly closed, and equipped with a tap. Water shall not be dipped from containers.
</P>
<P>(3) Any container used to distribute drinking water shall be clearly marked as to the nature of its contents and not used for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>(4) The common drinking cup is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(5) Where single service cups (to be used but once) are supplied, both a sanitary container for the unused cups and a receptacle for disposing of the used cups shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Potable water</I> means water that meets the standards for drinking purposes of the State or local authority having jurisdiction, or water that meets the quality standards prescribed by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's National Primary Drinking Water Regulations (40 CFR part 141).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonpotable water.</I> (1) Outlets for nonpotable water, such as water for industrial or firefighting purposes only, shall be identified by signs meeting the requirements of subpart G of this part, to indicate clearly that the water is unsafe and is not to be used for drinking, washing, or cooking purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) There shall be no cross-connection, open or potential, between a system furnishing potable water and a system furnishing nonpotable water.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Toilets at construction jobsites.</I> (1) Toilets shall be provided for employees according to the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of employees
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of facilities
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 toilet seat and 1 urinal per 40 workers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 toilet seat and 1 urinal per 50 workers.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Under temporary field conditions, provisions shall be made to assure not less than one toilet facility is available.
</P>
<P>(3) Job sites, not provided with a sanitary sewer, shall be provided with one of the following toilet facilities unless prohibited by local codes:
</P>
<P>(i) Privies (where their use will not contaminate ground or surface water);
</P>
<P>(ii) Chemical toilets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Recirculating toilets;
</P>
<P>(iv) Combustion toilets.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of this paragraph (c) for sanitation facilities shall not apply to mobile crews having transportation readily available to nearby toilet facilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Food handling.</I> (1) All employees' food service facilities and operations shall meet the applicable laws, ordinances, and regulations of the jurisdictions in which they are located.
</P>
<P>(2) All employee food service facilities and operations shall be carried out in accordance with sound hygienic principles. In all places of employment where all or part of the food service is provided, the food dispensed shall be wholesome, free from spoilage, and shall be processed, prepared, handled, and stored in such a manner as to be protected against contamination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Temporary sleeping quarters.</I> When temporary sleeping quarters are provided, they shall be heated, ventilated, and lighted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Washing facilities.</I> (1) The employer shall provide adequate washing facilities for employees engaged in the application of paints, coating, herbicides, or insecticides, or in other operations where contaminants may be harmful to the employees. Such facilities shall be in near proximity to the worksite and shall be so equipped as to enable employees to remove such substances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> Washing facilities shall be maintained in a sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lavatories.</I> (i) Lavatories shall be made available in all places of employment. The requirements of this subdivision do not apply to mobile crews or to normally unattended work locations if employees working at these locations have transportation readily available to nearby washing facilities which meet the other requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each lavatory shall be provided with hot and cold running water, or tepid running water.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hand soap or similar cleansing agents shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) Individual hand towels or sections thereof, of cloth or paper, air blowers or clean individual sections of continuous cloth toweling, convenient to the lavatories, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Showers.</I> (i) Whenever showers are required by a particular standard, the showers shall be provided in accordance with paragraphs (f)(4) (ii) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) One shower shall be provided for each 10 employees of each sex, or numerical fraction thereof, who are required to shower during the same shift.
</P>
<P>(iii) Body soap or other appropriate cleansing agents convenient to the showers shall be provided as specified in paragraph (f)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Showers shall be provided with hot and cold water feeding a common discharge line.
</P>
<P>(v) Employees who use showers shall be provided with individual clean towels.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Eating and drinking areas.</I> No employee shall be allowed to consume food or beverages in a toilet room nor in any area exposed to a toxic material.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Vermin control.</I> Every enclosed workplace shall be so constructed, equipped, and maintained, so far as reasonably practicable, as to prevent the entrance or harborage of rodents, insects, and other vermin. A continuing and effective extermination program shall be instituted where their presence is detected.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Change rooms.</I> Whenever employees are required by a particular standard to wear protective clothing because of the possibility of contamination with toxic materials, change rooms equipped with storage facilities for street clothes and separate storage facilities for the protective clothing shall be provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35084, June 30, 1993; 76 FR 33611, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.52" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.52   Occupational noise exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Protection against the effects of noise exposure shall be provided when the sound levels exceed those shown in Table D-2 of this section when measured on the A-scale of a standard sound level meter at slow response.
</P>
<P>(b) When employees are subjected to sound levels exceeding those listed in Table D-2 of this section, feasible administrative or engineering controls shall be utilized. If such controls fail to reduce sound levels within the levels of the table, personal protective equipment as required in subpart E, shall be provided and used to reduce sound levels within the levels of the table.
</P>
<P>(c) If the variations in noise level involve maxima at intervals of 1 second or less, it is to be considered continuous.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) In all cases where the sound levels exceed the values shown herein, a continuing, effective hearing conservation program shall be administered.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-2—Permissible Noise Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Duration per day, hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sound level dBA slow response
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr> or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2)(i) When the daily noise exposure is composed of two or more periods of noise exposure of different levels, their combined effect should be considered, rather than the individual effect of each. Exposure to different levels for various periods of time shall be computed according to the formula set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>F</I><E T="52">e</E> = (<I>T</I><E T="54">1</E>/<I>L</I><E T="54">1</E>) + (<I>T</I><E T="54">2</E>/<I>L</I><E T="54">2</E>) + · · · + (<I>T</I><E T="54">n</E>/<I>L</I><E T="54">n</E>)
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>F</I><E T="52">e</E> = The equivalent noise exposure factor.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I> = The period of noise exposure at any essentially constant level.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L</I> = The duration of the permissible noise exposure at the constant level (from Table D-2).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>If the value of <I>F</I><E T="52">e</E> exceeds unity (1) the exposure exceeds permissible levels.
</FP>
<P>(iii) A sample computation showing an application of the formula in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section is as follows. An employee is exposed at these levels for these periods:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>110 db A 
<FR>1/4</FR> hour.
</FP>
<FP>100 db A 
<FR>1/2</FR> hour.
</FP>
<FP>90 db A 1
<FR>1/2</FR> hours.
</FP>
<FP-2><I>F</I><E T="52">e</E> = (
<FR>1/4</FR>/
<FR>1/2</FR>) + (
<FR>1/2</FR>/2) + (1
<FR>1/2</FR>/8)
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>F</I><E T="52">e</E> = 0.500 + 0.25 + 0.188
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>F</I><E T="52">e</E> = 0.938</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>Since the value of <I>F</I><E T="52">e</E> does not exceed unity, the exposure is within permissible limits.
</FP>
<P>(e) Exposure to impulsive or impact noise should not exceed 140 dB peak sound pressure level.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.53" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.53   Ionizing radiation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In construction and related activities involving the use of sources of ionizing radiation, the pertinent provisions of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission's Standards for Protection Against Radiation (10 CFR part 20), relating to protection against occupational radiation exposure, shall apply.
</P>
<P>(b) Any activity which involves the use of radioactive materials or X-rays, whether or not under license from the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, shall be performed by competent persons specially trained in the proper and safe operation of such equipment. In the case of materials used under Commission license, only persons actually licensed, or competent persons under direction and supervision of the licensee, shall perform such work.
</P>
<P>(c)-(r) [Reserved]
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under paragraphs (c) through (r) of this section are identical to those set forth at paragraphs (a) through (p) of § 1910.1096 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.54" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.54   Nonionizing radiation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only qualified and trained employees shall be assigned to install, adjust, and operate laser equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of qualification of the laser equipment operator shall be available and in possession of the operator at all times.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees, when working in areas in which a potential exposure to direct or reflected laser light greater than 0.005 watts (5 milliwatts) exists, shall be provided with antilaser eye protection devices as specified in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Areas in which lasers are used shall be posted with standard laser warning placards.
</P>
<P>(e) Beam shutters or caps shall be utilized, or the laser turned off, when laser transmission is not actually required. When the laser is left unattended for a substantial period of time, such as during lunch hour, overnight, or at change of shifts, the laser shall be turned off.
</P>
<P>(f) Only mechanical or electronic means shall be used as a detector for guiding the internal alignment of the laser.
</P>
<P>(g) The laser beam shall not be directed at employees.
</P>
<P>(h) When it is raining or snowing, or when there is dust or fog in the air, the operation of laser systems shall be prohibited where practicable; in any event, employees shall be kept out of range of the area of source and target during such weather conditions.
</P>
<P>(i) Laser equipment shall bear a label to indicate maximum output.
</P>
<P>(j) Employees shall not be exposed to light intensities above:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct staring: 1 micro-watt per square centimeter;
</P>
<P>(2) Incidental observing: 1 milliwatt per square centimeter;
</P>
<P>(3) Diffused reflected light: 2
<FR>1/2</FR> watts per square centimeter.
</P>
<P>(k) Laser unit in operation should be set up above the heads of the employees, when possible.
</P>
<P>(l) Employees shall not be exposed to microwave power densities in excess of 10 milliwatts per square centimeter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.55" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.55   Gases, vapors, fumes, dusts, and mists.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers must limit an employee's exposure to any substance listed in Table 1 or 2 of this section in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Substances with limits preceded by (C)—Ceiling Values.</I> An employee's exposure, as determined from breathing-zone air samples, to any substance in Table 1 of this section with a permissible exposure limit preceded by (C) must at no time exceed the exposure limit specified for that substance. If instantaneous monitoring is not feasible, then the employer must assess the ceiling as a 15-minute time-weighted average exposure that the employer cannot exceed at any time during the working day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other substances—8-hour Time Weighted Averages.</I> An employee's exposure, as determined from breathing-zone air samples, to any substance in Table 1 or 2 of this section with a permissible exposure limit not preceded by (C) must not exceed the limit specified for that substance measured as an 8-hour time-weighted average in any work shift.
</P>
<P>(b) To achieve compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, administrative or engineering controls must first be implemented whenever feasible. When such controls are not feasible to achieve full compliance, protective equipment or other protective measures shall be used to keep the exposure of employees to air contaminants within the limits prescribed in this section. Any equipment and technical measures used for this purpose must first be approved for each particular use by a competent industrial hygienist or other technically qualified person. Whenever respirators are used, their use shall comply with § 1926.103.
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to the exposure of employees to airborne asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, or actinolite dust. Whenever any employee is exposed to airborne asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, or actinolite dust, the requirements of § 1926.1101 shall apply.
</P>
<P>(d) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to the exposure of employees to formaldehyde. Whenever any employee is exposed to formaldehyde, the requirements of § 1910.1048 of this title shall apply.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1926.55—Permissible Exposure Limits for Airborne Contaminants 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CAS No. 
<sup>d</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ppm 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mg/m 
<sup>3 b</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skin
<br/>designation *
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Abate; see Temephos
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-07-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-19-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-24-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-64-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetonitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-05-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Acetylaminofluorine; see § 1926.1114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53-96-3
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-86-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetylene dichloride; see 1,2-Dichloroethylene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acetylene tetrabromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-27-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrolein</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-02-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrylamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-06-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrylonitrile; see § 1926.1145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-13-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aldrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">309-00-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Allyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-18-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Allyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-05-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Allyl glycidyl ether (AGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-92-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)45</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Allyl propyl disulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2179-59-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">alpha-Alumina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1344-28-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Alundum; see alpha-Alumina
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-Aminodiphenyl; see § 1926.1111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-67-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Aminoethanol; see Ethanolamine
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Aminopyridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">504-29-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ammonia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-41-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ammonium sulfamate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7773-06-0
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">n-Amyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">628-63-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">525</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">sec-Amyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">626-38-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aniline and homologs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-53-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Anisidine (o-, p-isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29191-52-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Antimony and compounds (as Sb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-36-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">ANTU (alpha Naphthylthiourea)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86-88-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Argon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-37-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Arsenic, inorganic compounds (as As); see § 1926.1118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-38-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Arsenic, organic compounds (as As)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-38-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Arsine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7784-42-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Asbestos; see § 1926.1101
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Azinphos-methyl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86-50-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Barium, soluble compounds (as Ba)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-39-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzene 
<sup>g</sup>; see § 1926.1128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-43-2
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzidine; see § 1926.1110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-87-5
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">p-Benzoquinone; see Quinone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzo(a)pyrene; see Coal tar pitch volatiles
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzoyl peroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-36-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Benzyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-44-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Beryllium and beryllium compounds (as Be); see 1926.1124 <E T="51">(q)</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-41-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Biphenyl; see Diphenyl
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Bisphenol A; see Diglycidyl ether
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Boron oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1303-86-2
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Boron tribromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10294-33-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Boron trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7637-07-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Bromine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7726-95-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Bromine pentafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7789-30-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Bromoform</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-25-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butadiene (1,3-Butadiene); see 29 CFR 1910.1051; 29 CFR 1910.19(l)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-99-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">STEL 1 ppm/5 ppm</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butanethiol; see Butyl mercaptan
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Butanone (Methyl ethyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-93-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">590</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Butoxyethanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-76-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">n-Butyl-acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-86-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">710</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">sec-Butyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105-46-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">tert-Butyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540-88-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">n-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-36-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">sec-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-92-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">450</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">tert-Butyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-65-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-73-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">tert-Butyl chromate (as CrO<E T="52">3</E>); see 1926.1126 
<sup>n</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1189-85-1 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">n-Butyl glycidyl ether (BGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2426-08-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">270</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-79-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">p-tert-Butyltoluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-51-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cadmium (as Cd); see 1926.1127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-43-9
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium carbonate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1305-78-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7778-18-9
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Camphor, synthetic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-22-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Carbaryl (Sevin)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63-25-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Carbon black</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1333-86-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Carbon dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124-38-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">9000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Carbon disulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-15-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Carbon monoxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">630-08-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Carbon tetrachloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-23-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cellulose</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9004-34-6
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlordane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-74-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorinated camphene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8001-35-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorinated diphenyl oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55720-99-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-50-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorine dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10049-04-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorine trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7790-91-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chloroacetaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-20-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">a-Chloroacetophenone (Phenacyl chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">532-27-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-90-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">o-Chlorobenzylidene malononitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2698-41-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorobromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-97-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1050</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene; see beta-Chloroprene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorodiphenyl (42% Chlorine) (PCB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53469-21-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorodiphenyl (54% Chlorine) (PCB)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11097-69-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1-Chloro,2,3-epoxypropane; see Epichlorohydrin
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Chloroethanol; see Ethylene chlorohydrin
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chloroethylene; see Vinyl chloride
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chloroform (Trichloromethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-66-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">bis(Chloromethyl) ether; see § 1926.1108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542-88-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chloromethyl methyl ether; see § 1926.1106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-30-2
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1-Chloro-1-nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600-25-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chloropicrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-06-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">beta-Chloroprene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126-99-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chromium (II) compounds
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chromium (III) compounds
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chromium (VI) compounds; See 1926.1126 
<sup>o</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chromium metal and insol. salts (as Cr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-47-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chrysene; see Coal tar pitch volatiles
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Coal tar pitch volatiles (benzene soluble fraction), anthracene, BaP, phenanthrene, acridine, chrysene, pyrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65996-93-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cobalt metal, dust, and fume (as Co)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-48-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Copper</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-50-8
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fume (as Cu)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dusts and mists (as Cu)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Corundum; see Emery
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cotton dust (raw)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crag herbicide (Sesone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136-78-7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cresol, all isomers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1319-77-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crotonaldehyde</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-73-9;</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4170-30-3
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cumene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-82-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">245</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cyanides (as CN)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Varies with Compound</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cyanogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">460-19-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cyclohexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-82-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1050</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cyclohexanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-93-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cyclohexanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-94-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cyclohexene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-83-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1015</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cyclonite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-82-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cyclopentadiene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542-92-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">DDT, see Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">DDVP, see Dichlorvos
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,4-D (Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-75-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Decaborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17702-41-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Demeton (Systox)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8065-48-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diacetone alcohol (4-Hydroxy-4-methyl-2-pentanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-42-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2-Diaminoethane; see Ethylenediamine
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diazomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">334-88-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19287-45-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (DBCP); see § 1926.1144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-12-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2-Dibromoethane; see Ethylene dibromide
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dibutyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-66-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dibutyl phthalate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84-74-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dichloroacetylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7572-29-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">o-Dichlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-50-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">p-Dichlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-46-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">450</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine; see § 1926.1107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-94-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dichlorodifluoromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-71-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4950</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,3-Dichloro-5,5-dimethyl hydantoin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118-52-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-29-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1-Dichloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-34-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2-Dichloroethane; see Ethylene dichloride
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2-Dichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540-59-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">790</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dichloroethyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-44-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)90</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dichloromethane; see Methylene chloride
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dichloromonofluoromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-43-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1-Dichloro-1-nitroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594-72-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2-Dichloropropane; see Propylene dichloride
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dichlorotetrafluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-14-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dichlorvos (DDVP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-73-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dieldrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-57-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-89-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Diethylaminoethanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-37-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diethylene triamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-40-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)42</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diethyl ether; see Ethyl ether
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Difluorodibromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-61-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">860</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diglycidyl ether (DGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2238-07-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)2.8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dihydroxybenzene; see Hydroquinone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diisobutyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-83-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">290</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diisopropylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-18-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene; see § 1926.1115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-11-7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethoxymethane; see Methylal
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethyl acetamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127-19-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124-40-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethylaminobenzene; see Xylidine
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethylaniline (N,N-Dimethylaniline)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-69-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethylbenzene; see Xylene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethyl-1,2-dibromo- 2,2-dichloroethyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300-76-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethylformamide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68-12-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,6-Dimethyl-4-heptanone; see Diisobutyl ketone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1-Dimethylhydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-14-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethylphthalate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">131-11-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dimethyl sulfate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77-78-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dinitrobenzene (all isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(ortho)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">528-29-0
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(meta)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-65-0
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(para)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-25-4
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dinitro-o-cresol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">534-52-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dinitrotoluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25321-14-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dioxane (Diethylene dioxide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-91-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diphenyl (Biphenyl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-52-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diphenylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122-39-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diphenylmethane diisocyanate; see Methylene bisphenyl isocyanate
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Dipropylene glycol methyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34590-94-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Di-sec octyl phthalate (Di-(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117-81-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Emery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12415-34-8
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Endosulfan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115-29-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Endrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72-20-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Epichlorohydrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-89-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">EPN</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2104-64-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2-Epoxypropane; see Propylene oxide
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,3-Epoxy-1-propanol; see Glycidol
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-84-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethanethiol; see Ethyl mercaptan
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethanolamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-43-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Ethoxyethanol (Cellosolve)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-80-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">740</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Ethoxyethyl acetate (Cellosolve acetate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-15-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-78-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl acrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140-88-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-17-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1900</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-04-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl amyl ketone (5-Methyl-3-heptanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">541-85-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl benzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-41-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">435</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-96-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">890</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl butyl ketone (3-Heptanone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-35-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">230</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-00-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2600</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-29-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl formate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-94-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-08-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyl silicate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-10-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">850</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-85-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene chlorohydrin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-07-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylenediamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-15-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene dibromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-93-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)190</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene dichloride (1,2-Dichloroethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-06-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene glycol dinitrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">628-96-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene glycol methyl acetate; see Methyl cellosolve acetate
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethyleneimine; see § 1926.1112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151-56-4
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylene oxide; see § 1926.1147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-21-8
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ethylidene chloride; see 1,1-Dichloroethane
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">N-Ethylmorpholine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-74-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ferbam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14484-64-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ferrovanadium dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12604-58-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fibrous Glass
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fluorides (as F)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Varies with compound</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fluorine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-41-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fluorotrichloromethane (Trichlorofluoromethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-69-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5600</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Formaldehyde; see § 1926.1148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-00-0
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Formic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64-18-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Furfural</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-01-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Furfuryl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-00-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Gasoline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8006-61-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">A 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glycerin (mist)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-81-5
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glycidol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">556-52-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glycol monoethyl ether; see 2-Ethoxyethanol
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Graphite, natural, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-42-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Graphite, synthetic
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Guthion; see Azinphos methyl
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Gypsum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13397-24-5
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hafnium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-58-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Helium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-59-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Heptachlor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-44-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Heptane (n-Heptane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142-82-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hexachloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-72-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hexachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1335-87-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">n-Hexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-54-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1800</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Hexanone (Methyl n-butyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591-78-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">410</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hexone (Methyl isobutyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-10-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">410</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">sec-Hexyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-84-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">302-01-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1333-74-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10035-10-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7647-01-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen cyanide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-90-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen fluoride (as F)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-39-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen peroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7722-84-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen selenide (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-07-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">.02</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrogen sulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-06-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydroquinone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-31-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Indene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-13-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Indium and compounds (as In)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-74-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Iodine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7553-56-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Iron oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1309-37-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Iron salts (soluble) (as Fe)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Varies with compound</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isoamyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-92-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">525</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isoamyl alcohol (primary and secondary)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123-51-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isobutyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-19-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isobutyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-83-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isophorone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-59-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isopropyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-21-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">950</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isopropyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-63-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">980</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isopropylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-31-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isopropyl ether</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-20-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Isopropyl glycidyl ether (IGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4016-14-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Kaolin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1332-58-7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ketene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">463-51-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lead, inorganic (as Pb); see 1926.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-92-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Limestone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lindane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58-89-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lithium hydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7580-67-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.025</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">L.P.G. (Liquefied petroleum gas)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68476-85-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1800
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Magnesite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">546-93-0
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Magnesium oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1309-48-4
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total particulate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Malathion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-75-5
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Maleic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-31-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Manganese compounds (as Mn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-96-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Manganese fume (as Mn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-96-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Marble</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-65-3
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mercury (aryl and inorganic)(as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mercury (organo) alkyl compounds (as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mercury (vapor) (as Hg)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-97-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mesityl oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141-79-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-82-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methanethiol; see Methyl mercaptan
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methoxychlor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72-43-5
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Methoxyethanol (Methyl cellosolve)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-86-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Methoxyethyl acetate (Methyl cellosolve acetate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-49-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-20-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">610</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl acetylene (Propyne)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-99-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1650</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl acetylene-propadiene mixture (MAPP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1800</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl acrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-33-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylal (Dimethoxy-methane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-87-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67-56-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-89-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl amyl alcohol; see Methyl isobutyl carbinol
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl n-amyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-43-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">465</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl bromide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-83-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)80</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl butyl ketone; see 2-Hexanone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl cellosolve; see 2-Methoxyethanol
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl cellosolve acetate; see 2-Methoxyethyl acetate
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylene chloride; see § 1910.1052
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl chloroform (1,1,1-Trichloroethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-55-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1900</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylcyclohexane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-87-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylcyclohexanol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25639-42-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">470</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">o-Methylcyclohexanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">583-60-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">460</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylene chloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-09-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1740</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylenedianiline (MDA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101-77-9
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK); see 2-Butanone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl formate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-31-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl hydrazine (Monomethyl hydrazine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60-34-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl iodide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-88-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl isoamyl ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-12-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">475</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl isobutyl carbinol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-11-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl isobutyl ketone; see Hexone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl isocyanate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">624-83-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-93-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl methacrylate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-62-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">410</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl propyl ketone; see 2-Pentanone
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methyl silicate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">681-84-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">alpha-Methyl styrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-83-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)480</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylene bisphenyl isocyanate (MDI)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101-68-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.02</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mica; see Silicates
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Molybdenum (as Mo)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7439-98-7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Insoluble compounds
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em"> Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Monomethyl aniline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-61-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Monomethyl hydrazine; see Methyl hydrazine
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Morpholine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-91-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Naphtha (Coal tar)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8030-30-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Naphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-20-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">alpha-Naphthylamine; see § 1926.1104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134-32-7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">beta-Naphthylamine; see § 1926.1109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91-59-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Neon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-01-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nickel carbonyl (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13463-39-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.007</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nickel, metal and insoluble compounds (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-02-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nickel, soluble compounds (as Ni)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-02-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nicotine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54-11-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7697-37-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitric oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-43-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">p-Nitroaniline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-01-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitrobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98-95-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">p-Nitrochlorobenzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-00-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-Nitrodiphenyl; see § 1926.1103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92-93-3
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-24-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">310</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitrogen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7727-37-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitrogen dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10102-44-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitrogen trifluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-54-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitroglycerin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55-63-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-52-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1-Nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-03-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Nitropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-46-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">N-Nitrosodimethylamine; see § 1926.1116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-79-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitrotoluene (all isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">o-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88-72-2;
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">m-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-08-1;
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">p-isomer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99-99-0
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitrotrichloromethane; see Chloropicrin
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Nitrous oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10024-97-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Octachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2234-13-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Octane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">111-65-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1900</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oil mist, mineral</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8012-95-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Osmium tetroxide (as Os)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20816-12-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxalic acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144-62-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxygen difluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-41-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ozone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10028-15-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Paraquat, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4685-14-7;</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1910-42-5;
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2074-50-2
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Parathion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56-38-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Particulates not otherwise regulated
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust organic and inorganic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">PCB; see Chlorodiphenyl (42% and 54% chlorine)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pentaborane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19624-22-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pentachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1321-64-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pentachlorophenol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87-86-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pentaerythritol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115-77-5
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pentane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-66-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-Pentanone (Methyl propyl ketone)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-87-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Perchloroethylene (Tetrachloroethylene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127-18-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">670</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Perchloromethyl mercaptan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594-42-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Perchloryl fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7616-94-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Petroleum distillates (Naphtha)(Rubber Solvent)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">A 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-95-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">p-Phenylene diamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-50-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenyl ether, vapor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101-84-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenyl ether-biphenyl mixture, vapor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenylethylene; see Styrene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenyl glycidyl ether (PGE)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122-60-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phenylhydrazine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-63-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phosdrin (Mevinphos)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7786-34-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phosgene (Carbonyl chloride)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-44-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phosphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-51-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phosphoric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-38-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phosphorus (yellow)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7723-14-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phosphorus pentachloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10026-13-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phosphorus pentasulfide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-80-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phosphorus trichloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7719-12-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Phthalic anhydride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-44-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Picric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88-89-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pindone (2-Pivalyl-1,3-indandione)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83-26-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Plaster of Paris</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26499-65-0
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Platinum (as Pt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-06-4
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Metal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble salts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polytetrafluoroethylene decomposition products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">A 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Portland cement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65997-15-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74-98-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">E
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propargyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-19-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">beta-Propriolactone; see § 1926.1113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-57-8
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">n-Propyl acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-60-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">840</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">n-Propyl alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71-23-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">n-Propyl nitrate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">627-13-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propylene dichloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-87-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">350</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propylene imine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-55-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propylene oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-56-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propyne; see Methyl acetylene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pyrethrum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8003-34-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pyridine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110-86-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Quinone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106-51-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">RDX; see Cyclonite
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rhodium (as Rh), metal fume and insoluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-16-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rhodium (as Rh), soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-16-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ronnel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">299-84-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rotenone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83-79-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rouge
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Selenium compounds (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7782-49-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Selenium hexafluoride (as Se)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-79-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silica, amorphous, precipitated and gel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112926-00-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silica, amorphous, diatomaceous earth, containing less than 1% crystalline silica</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61790-53-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silica, crystalline, respirable dust
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cristobalite; see 1926.1153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14464-46-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Quartz; see 1926.1153 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14808-60-7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tripoli (as quartz); see 1926.1153 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1317-95-9
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tridymite; see 1926.1153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15468-32-3
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silica, fused, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60676-86-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silicates (less than 1% crystalline silica)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Mica (respirable dust)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12001-26-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soapstone, total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soapstone, respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Talc (containing asbestos); use asbestos limit; see § 1926.1101
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Talc (containing no asbestos), respirable dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 14807-96-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tremolite, asbestiform; see § 1926.1101
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silicon carbide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">409-21-2
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silver, metal and soluble compounds (as Ag)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-22-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Soapstone; see Silicates
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium fluoroacetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62-74-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sodium hydroxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1310-73-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Starch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9005-25-8
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stibine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7803-52-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stoddard solvent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8052-41-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1150</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Strychnine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-24-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Styrene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-42-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)420</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sucrose</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57-50-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sulfur dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7446-09-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sulfur hexafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2551-62-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sulfuric acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7664-93-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sulfur monochloride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10025-67-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sulfur pentafluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5714-22-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.025</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sulfuryl fluoride</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2699-79-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Systox, see Demeton
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,4,5-T (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxyacetic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93-76-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Talc; see Silicates—
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tantalum, metal and oxide dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-25-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">TEDP (Sulfotep)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3689-24-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Teflon decomposition products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">A2
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tellurium and compounds (as Te)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13494-80-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tellurium hexafluoride (as Te)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7783-80-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Temephos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3383-96-8
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">TEPP (Tetraethyl pyrophosphate)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107-49-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Terphenyls</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26140-60-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-2,2-difluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-11-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4170</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-1,2-difluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-12-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4170</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-34-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetrachloroethylene; see Perchloroethylene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetrachloromethane; see Carbon tetrachloride
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetrachloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1335-88-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetraethyl lead (as Pb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-00-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetrahydrofuran</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109-99-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">590</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetramethyl lead, (as Pb)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-74-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetramethyl succinonitrile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3333-52-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetranitromethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">509-14-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tetryl (2,4,6-Trinitrophenylmethylnitramine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">479-45-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Thallium, soluble compounds (as Tl)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-28-0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Thiram</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">137-26-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tin, inorganic compounds (except oxides) (as Sn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-31-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tin, organic compounds (as Sn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-31-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tin oxide (as Sn)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21651-19-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Titanium dioxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13463-67-7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108-88-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Toluene-2,4-diisocyanate (TDI)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">584-84-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.02</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.14</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">o-Toluidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-53-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Toxaphene; see Chlorinated camphene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tremolite; see Silicates
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tributyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126-73-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1,1-Trichloroethane; see Methyl chloroform
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1,2-Trichloroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-00-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Trichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79-01-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">535</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Trichloromethane; see Chloroform
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Trichloronaphthalene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1321-65-9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,2,3-Trichloropropane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96-18-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76-13-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7600</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triethylamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121-44-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Trifluorobromomethane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-63-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Trimethyl benzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25551-13-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,4,6-Trinitrophenol; see Picric acid
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,4,6-Trinitrophenylmethylnitramine; see Tetryl
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,4,6-Trinitrotoluene (TNT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118-96-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triorthocresyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78-30-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Triphenyl phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115-86-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tungsten (as W)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-33-7
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Insoluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Turpentine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8006-64-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">560</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Uranium (as U)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-61-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Soluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Insoluble compounds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vanadium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-62-1
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable dust (as V<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fume (as V<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vegetable oil mist
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl benzene; see Styrene
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl chloride; see § 1926.1117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-01-4
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl cyanide; see Acrylonitrile
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vinyl toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25013-15-4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">480</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Warfarin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81-81-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Xylenes (o-, m-, p-isomers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1330-20-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">435</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Xylidine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1300-73-8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Yttrium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-65-5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zinc chloride fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7646-85-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zinc oxide fume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-13-2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zinc oxide</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1314-13-2
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total dust</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Respirable fraction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Zirconium compounds (as Zr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7440-67-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 1926.55—Mineral Dusts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Substance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mppcf <E T="51">(j)</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SILICA:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crystalline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250<E T="0731">(k)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quartz. Threshold Limit calculated from the formula<E T="0731">(p)</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">% SiO<E T="52">2</E> + 5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cristobalite
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Amorphous, including natural diatomaceous earth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SILICATES (less than 1% crystalline silica)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mica</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Portland cement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Soapstone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Talc (non-asbestiform)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Talc (fibrous), use asbestos limit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Graphite (natural)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inert or Nuisance Particulates: <E T="51">(m)</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 (or 15 mg/m
<sup>3</sup> whichever is the smaller) of total dust &lt;1% SiO<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Inert or Nuisance Dusts includes all mineral, inorganic, and organic dusts as indicated by examples in TLV's appendix D]
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Conversion factors
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">mppcf × 35.3 = million particles per cubic meter = particles per c.c.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Footnotes to Tables 1 and 2 of this section:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> See Table 2 of this section.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Use Asbestos Limit § 1926.1101.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> See Table 2 of this section for the exposure limit for any operations or sectors where the exposure limit in § 1926.1153 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* An “X” designation in the “Skin Designation” column indicates that the substance is a dermal hazard.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Parts of vapor or gas per million parts of contaminated air by volume at 25 °C and 760 torr.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Milligrams of substance per cubic meter of air. When entry is in this column only, the value is exact; when listed with a ppm entry, it is approximate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> The CAS number is for information only. Enforcement is based on the substance name. For an entry covering more than one metal compound, measured as the metal, the CAS number for the metal is given—not CAS numbers for the individual compounds.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">e-f</E> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> For sectors excluded from § 1926.1128 the limit is 10 ppm TWA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">h-i</E> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>j</sup> Millions of particles per cubic foot of air, based on impinger samples counted by light-field techniques.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>k</sup> The percentage of crystalline silica in the formula is the amount determined from airborne samples, except in those instances in which other methods have been shown to be applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>l</sup> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>m</sup> Covers all organic and inorganic particulates not otherwise regulated. Same as Particulates Not Otherwise Regulated.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>n</sup> If the exposure limit in § 1926.1126 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect, the exposure limit is a ceiling of 0.1 mg/m
<sup>3</sup>.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>o</sup> If the exposure limit in § 1926.1126 is stayed or is otherwise not in effect, the exposure limit is 0.1 mg/m
<sup>3</sup> (as CrO<E T="52">3</E>) as an 8-hour TWA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>p</sup> This standard applies to any operations or sectors for which the respirable crystalline silica standard, 1926.1153, is stayed or otherwise is not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>q</sup> This standard applies to any operations or sectors for which the beryllium standard, 1926.1124, is stayed or otherwise is not in effect.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">The 1970 TLV uses letter designations instead of a numerical value as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">A 
<sup>1</sup> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">A 
<sup>2</sup> Polytetrafluoroethylene decomposition products. Because these products decompose in part by hydrolysis in alkaline solution, they can be quantitatively determined in air as fluoride to provide an index of exposure. No TLV is recommended pending determination of the toxicity of the products, but air concentrations should be minimal.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">A 
<sup>3</sup> Gasoline and/or Petroleum Distillates. The composition of these materials varies greatly and thus a single TLV for all types of these materials is no longer applicable. The content of benzene, other aromatics and additives should be determined to arrive at the appropriate TLV.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">E Simple asphyxiants. The limiting factor is the available oxygen which shall be at least 19.5% and be within the requirements addressing explosion in part 1926.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22801, June 24, 1974, as amended at 51 FR 37007, Oct. 17, 1986; 52 FR 46312, Dec. 4, 1987; 58 FR 35089, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9249, 9250, Mar. 7, 1996; 61 FR 56856, Nov. 4, 1996; 62 FR 1619, Jan. 10, 1997; 71 FR 10381, Feb. 28, 2006; 71 FR 36009, June 23, 2006; 81 FR 16875, Mar. 25, 2016; 81 FR 31168, May 18, 2016; 81 FR 60273, Sept. 1, 2016; 82 FR 2750, Jan. 9, 2017; 84 FR 21576, May 14, 2019]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.56" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.56   Illumination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Construction areas, ramps, runways, corridors, offices, shops, and storage areas shall be lighted to not less than the minimum illumination intensities listed in Table D-3 while any work is in progress:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-3—Minimum Illumination Intensities in Foot-Candles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foot-candles
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Area or operation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General construction area lighting.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General construction areas, concrete placement, excavation and waste areas, accessways, active storage areas, loading platforms, refueling, and field maintenance areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoors: warehouses, corridors, hallways, and exitways.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tunnels, shafts, and general underground work areas: (Exception: minimum of 10 foot-candles is required at tunnel and shaft heading during drilling, mucking, and scaling. Bureau of Mines approved cap lights shall be acceptable for use in the tunnel heading.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General construction plant and shops (e.g., batch plants, screening plants, mechanical and electrical equipment rooms, carpenter shops, rigging lofts and active storerooms, barracks or living quarters, locker or dressing rooms, mess halls, and indoor toilets and workrooms).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First aid stations, infirmaries, and offices.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Other areas.</I> For areas or operations not covered above, refer to the American National Standard A11.1-1965, R1970, Practice for Industrial Lighting, for recommended values of illumination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.57" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.57   Ventilation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Whenever hazardous substances such as dusts, fumes, mists, vapors, or gases exist or are produced in the course of construction work, their concentrations shall not exceed the limits specified in § 1926.55(a). When ventilation is used as an engineering control method, the system shall be installed and operated according to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Local exhaust ventilation.</I> Local exhaust ventilation when used as described in (a) shall be designed to prevent dispersion into the air of dusts, fumes, mists, vapors, and gases in concentrations causing harmful exposure. Such exhaust systems shall be so designed that dusts, fumes, mists, vapors, or gases are not drawn through the work area of employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Design and operation.</I> Exhaust fans, jets, ducts, hoods, separators, and all necessary appurtenances, including refuse receptacles, shall be so designed, constructed, maintained and operated as to ensure the required protection by maintaining a volume and velocity of exhaust air sufficient to gather dusts, fumes, vapors, or gases from said equipment or process, and to convey them to suitable points of safe disposal, thereby preventing their dispersion in harmful quantities into the atmosphere where employees work.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration of operations.</I> (1) The exhaust system shall be in operation continually during all operations which it is designed to serve. If the employee remains in the contaminated zone, the system shall continue to operate after the cessation of said operations, the length of time to depend upon the individual circumstances and effectiveness of the general ventilation system.
</P>
<P>(2) Since dust capable of causing disability is, according to the best medical opinion, of microscopic size, tending to remain for hours in suspension in still air, it is essential that the exhaust system be continued in operation for a time after the work process or equipment served by the same shall have ceased, in order to ensure the removal of the harmful elements to the required extent. For the same reason, employees wearing respiratory equipment should not remove same immediately until the atmosphere seems clear.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disposal of exhaust materials.</I> The air outlet from every dust separator, and the dusts, fumes, mists, vapors, or gases collected by an exhaust or ventilating system shall discharge to the outside atmosphere. Collecting systems which return air to work area may be used if concentrations which accumulate in the work area air do not result in harmful exposure to employees. Dust and refuse discharged from an exhaust system shall be disposed of in such a manner that it will not result in harmful exposure to employees.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Abrasive blasting</I>—(1) <I>Definitions applicable to this paragraph</I>—(i) <I>Abrasive.</I> A solid substance used in an abrasive blasting operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Abrasive-blasting respirator.</I> A respirator constructed so that it covers the wearer's head, neck, and shoulders to protect the wearer from rebounding abrasive.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Blast cleaning barrel.</I> A complete enclosure which rotates on an axis, or which has an internal moving tread to tumble the parts, in order to expose various surfaces of the parts to the action of an automatic blast spray.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Blast cleaning room.</I> A complete enclosure in which blasting operations are performed and where the operator works inside of the room to operate the blasting nozzle and direct the flow of the abrasive material.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Blasting cabinet.</I> An enclosure where the operator stands outside and operates the blasting nozzle through an opening or openings in the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Clean air.</I> Air of such purity that it will not cause harm or discomfort to an individual if it is inhaled for extended periods of time.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Dust collector.</I> A device or combination of devices for separating dust from the air handled by an exhaust ventilation system.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Exhaust ventilation system.</I> A system for removing contaminated air from a space, comprising two or more of the following elements (A) enclosure or hood, (B) duct work, (C) dust collecting equipment, (D) exhauster, and (E) discharge stack.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Particulate-filter respirator.</I> An air purifying respirator, commonly referred to as a dust or a fume respirator, which removes most of the dust or fume from the air passing through the device.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Respirable dust.</I> Airborne dust in sizes capable of passing through the upper respiratory system to reach the lower lung passages.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Rotary blast cleaning table.</I> An enclosure where the pieces to be cleaned are positioned on a rotating table and are passed automatically through a series of blast sprays.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Abrasive blasting.</I> The forcible application of an abrasive to a surface by pneumatic pressure, hydraulic pressure, or centrifugal force.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dust hazards from abrasive blasting.</I> (i) Abrasives and the surface coatings on the materials blasted are shattered and pulverized during blasting operations and the dust formed will contain particles of respirable size. The composition and toxicity of the dust from these sources shall be considered in making an evaluation of the potential health hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) The concentration of respirable dust or fume in the breathing zone of the abrasive-blasting operator or any other worker shall be kept below the levels specified in § 1926.55 or other pertinent sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Organic abrasives which are combustible shall be used only in automatic systems. Where flammable or explosive dust mixtures may be present, the construction of the equipment, including the exhaust system and all electric wiring, shall conform to the requirements of American National Standard Installation of Blower and Exhaust Systems for Dust, Stock, and Vapor Removal or Conveying, Z33.1-1961 (NFPA 91-1961), and subpart S of this part. The blast nozzle shall be bonded and grounded to prevent the build up of static charges. Where flammable or explosive dust mixtures may be present, the abrasive blasting enclosure, the ducts, and the dust collector shall be constructed with loose panels or explosion venting areas, located on sides away from any occupied area, to provide for pressure relief in case of explosion, following the principles set forth in the National Fire Protection Association Explosion Venting Guide. NFPA 68-1954.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Blast-cleaning enclosures.</I> (i) Blast-cleaning enclosures shall be exhaust ventilated in such a way that a continuous inward flow of air will be maintained at all openings in the enclosure during the blasting operation.
</P>
<P>(A) All air inlets and access openings shall be baffled or so arranged that by the combination of inward air flow and baffling the escape of abrasive or dust particles into an adjacent work area will be minimized and visible spurts of dust will not be observed.
</P>
<P>(B) The rate of exhaust shall be sufficient to provide prompt clearance of the dust-laden air within the enclosure after the cessation of blasting.
</P>
<P>(C) Before the enclosure is opened, the blast shall be turned off and the exhaust system shall be run for a sufficient period of time to remove the dusty air within the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(D) Safety glass protected by screening shall be used in observation windows, where hard deep-cutting abrasives are used.
</P>
<P>(E) Slit abrasive-resistant baffles shall be installed in multiple sets at all small access openings where dust might escape, and shall be inspected regularly and replaced when needed.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Doors shall be flanged and tight when closed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Doors on blast-cleaning rooms shall be operable from both inside and outside, except that where there is a small operator access door, the large work access door may be closed or opened from the outside only.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exhaust ventilation systems.</I> (i) The construction, installation, inspection, and maintenance of exhaust systems shall conform to the principles and requirements set forth in American National Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960, and ANSI Z33.1-1961.
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) When dust leaks are noted, repairs shall be made as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The static pressure drop at the exhaust ducts leading from the equipment shall be checked when the installation is completed and periodically thereafter to assure continued satisfactory operation. Whenever an appreciable change in the pressure drop indicates a partial blockage, the system shall be cleaned and returned to normal operating condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) In installations where the abrasive is recirculated, the exhaust ventilation system for the blasting enclosure shall not be relied upon for the removal of fines from the spent abrasive instead of an abrasive separator. An abrasive separator shall be provided for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) The air exhausted from blast-cleaning equipment shall be discharged through dust collecting equipment. Dust collectors shall be set up so that the accumulated dust can be emptied and removed without contaminating other working areas.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> (i) Employers must use only respirators approved by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84 for protecting employees from dusts produced during abrasive-blasting operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Abrasive-blasting respirators shall be worn by all abrasive-blasting operators:
</P>
<P>(A) When working inside of blast-cleaning rooms, or
</P>
<P>(B) When using silica sand in manual blasting operations where the nozzle and blast are not physically separated from the operator in an exhaust ventilated enclosure, or
</P>
<P>(C) Where concentrations of toxic dust dispersed by the abrasive blasting may exceed the limits set in § 1926.55 or other pertinent sections of this part and the nozzle and blast are not physically separated from the operator in an exhaust-ventilated enclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Properly fitted particulate-filter respirators, commonly referred to as dust-filter respirators, may be used for short, intermittent, or occasional dust exposures such as cleanup, dumping of dust collectors, or unloading shipments of sand at a receiving point when it is not feasible to control the dust by enclosure, exhaust ventilation, or other means. The respirators used must be approved by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84 for protection against the specific type of dust encountered.
</P>
<P>(iv) A respiratory protection program as defined and described in § 1926.103, shall be established wherever it is necessary to use respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(v) Operators shall be equipped with heavy canvas or leather gloves and aprons or equivalent protection to protect them from the impact of abrasives. Safety shoes shall be worn to protect against foot injury where heavy pieces of work are handled.
</P>
<P>(A) Safety shoes shall conform to the requirements of American National Standard for Men's Safety-Toe Footwear, Z41.1-1967.
</P>
<P>(B) Equipment for protection of the eyes and face shall be supplied to the operator when the respirator design does not provide such protection and to any other personnel working in the vicinity of abrasive blasting operations. This equipment shall conform to the requirements of § 1926.102.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Air supply and air compressors.</I> Air for abrasive-blasting respirators must be free of harmful quantities of dusts, mists, or noxious gases, and must meet the requirements for supplied-air quality and use specified in 29 CFR 1910.134(i).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Operational procedures and general safety.</I> Dust shall not be permitted to accumulate on the floor or on ledges outside of an abrasive-blasting enclosure, and dust spills shall be cleaned up promptly. Aisles and walkways shall be kept clear of steel shot or similar abrasive which may create a slipping hazard.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph applies to all operations where an abrasive is forcibly applied to a surface by pneumatic or hydraulic pressure, or by centrifugal force. It does not apply to steam blasting, or steam cleaning, or hydraulic cleaning methods where work is done without the aid of abrasives.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Grinding, polishing, and buffing operations.</I> (1) Definitions applicable to this paragraph—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Abrasive cutting-off wheels.</I> Organic-bonded wheels, the thickness of which is not more than one forty-eighth of their diameter for those up to, and including, 20 inches (50.8 cm) in diameter, and not more than one-sixtieth of their diameter for those larger than 20 inches (50.8 cm) in diameter, used for a multitude of operations variously known as cutting, cutting off, grooving, slotting, coping, and jointing, and the like. The wheels may be “solid” consisting of organic-bonded abrasive material throughout, “steel centered” consisting of a steel disc with a rim of organic-bonded material moulded around the periphery, or of the “inserted tooth” type consisting of a steel disc with organic-bonded abrasive teeth or inserts mechanically secured around the periphery.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Belts.</I> All power-driven, flexible, coated bands used for grinding, polishing, or buffing purposes.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Branch pipe.</I> The part of an exhaust system piping that is connected directly to the hood or enclosure.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Cradle.</I> A movable fixture, upon which the part to be ground or polished is placed.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Disc wheels.</I> All power-driven rotatable discs faced with abrasive materials, artificial or natural, and used for grinding or polishing on the side of the assembled disc.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Entry loss.</I> The loss in static pressure caused by air flowing into a duct or hood. It is usually expressed in inches of water gauge.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Exhaust system.</I> A system consisting of branch pipes connected to hoods or enclosures, one or more header pipes, an exhaust fan, means for separating solid contaminants from the air flowing in the system, and a discharge stack to outside.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Grinding wheels.</I> All power-driven rotatable grinding or abrasive wheels, except disc wheels as defined in this standard, consisting of abrasive particles held together by artificial or natural bonds and used for peripheral grinding.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Header pipe (main pipe).</I> A pipe into which one or more branch pipes enter and which connects such branch pipes to the remainder of the exhaust system.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Hoods and enclosures.</I> The partial or complete enclosure around the wheel or disc through which air enters an exhaust system during operation.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Horizontal double-spindle disc grinder.</I> A grinding machine carrying two power-driven, rotatable, coaxial, horizontal spindles upon the inside ends of which are mounted abrasive disc wheels used for grinding two surfaces simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(xii) Horizontal single-spindle disc grinder. A grinding machine carrying an abrasive disc wheel upon one or both ends of a power-driven, rotatable single horizontal spindle.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Polishing and buffing wheels.</I> All power-driven rotatable wheels composed all or in part of textile fabrics, wood, felt, leather, paper, and may be coated with abrasives on the periphery of the wheel for purposes of polishing, buffing, and light grinding.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Portable grinder.</I> Any power-driven rotatable grinding, polishing, or buffing wheel mounted in such manner that it may be manually manipulated.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Scratch brush wheels.</I> All power-driven rotatable wheels made from wire or bristles, and used for scratch cleaning and brushing purposes.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Swing-frame grinder.</I> Any power-driven rotatable grinding, polishing, or buffing wheel mounted in such a manner that the wheel with its supporting framework can be manipulated over stationary objects.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Velocity pressure (vp).</I> The kinetic pressure in the direction of flow necessary to cause a fluid at rest to flow at a given velocity. It is usually expressed in inches of water gauge.
</P>
<P>(xviii) <I>Vertical spindle disc grinder.</I> A grinding machine having a vertical, rotatable power-driven spindle carrying a horizontal abrasive disc wheel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> Wherever dry grinding, dry polishing or buffing is performed, and employee exposure, without regard to the use of respirators, exceeds the permissible exposure limits prescribed in § 1926.55 or other pertinent sections of this part, a local exhaust ventilation system shall be provided and used to maintain employee exposures within the prescribed limits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hood and branch pipe requirements.</I> (i) Hoods connected to exhaust systems shall be used, and such hoods shall be designed, located, and placed so that the dust or dirt particles shall fall or be projected into the hoods in the direction of the air flow. No wheels, discs, straps, or belts shall be operated in such manner and in such direction as to cause the dust and dirt particles to be thrown into the operator's breathing zone.
</P>
<P>(ii) Grinding wheels on floor stands, pedestals, benches, and special-purpose grinding machines and abrasive cutting-off wheels shall have not less than the minimum exhaust volumes shown in Table D-57.1 with a recommended minimum duct velocity of 4,500 feet per minute in the branch and 3,500 feet per minute in the main. The entry losses from all hoods except the vertical-spindle disc grinder hood, shall equal 0.65 velocity pressure for a straight takeoff and 0.45 velocity pressure for a tapered takeoff. The entry loss for the vertical-spindle disc grinder hood is shown in figure D-57.1 (following paragraph (g) of this section).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.1—Grinding and Abrasive Cutting-Off Wheels
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel diameter, inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel width, inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum exhaust volume (feet
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">To 9 (22.86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.81)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9 to 16 (22.86 to 40.64)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 16 to 19 (40.64 to 48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 to 24 (48.26 to 60.96)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (10.16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 24 to 30 (60.96 to 76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 (12.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 36 (76.2 to 91.44)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>For any wheel wider than wheel diameters shown in Table D-57.1, increase the exhaust volume by the ratio of the new width to the width shown.
</FP>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>If wheel width = 4
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (11.43 cm),
</PSPACE>
<FP>then 4.5 ÷ 4 × 610 = 686 (rounded to 690).</FP></EXAMPLE>
<P>(iii) Scratch-brush wheels and all buffing and polishing wheels mounted on floor stands, pedestals, benches, or special-purpose machines shall have not less than the minimum exhaust volume shown in Table D-57.2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.2—Buffing and Polishing Wheels
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel diameter, inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wheel width, inches cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum exhaust volume (feet
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">To 9 (22.86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9 to 16 (22.86 to 40.64)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 16 to 19 (40.64 to 48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (10.16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 to 24 (48.26 to 60.96)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 (12.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 24 to 30 (60.96 to 76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 36 (76.2 to 91.44)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) Grinding wheels or discs for horizontal single-spindle disc grinders shall be hooded to collect the dust or dirt generated by the grinding operation and the hoods shall be connected to branch pipes having exhaust volumes as shown in Table D-57.3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.3—Horizontal Single-Spindle Disc Grinder
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Disc diameter, inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust volume (ft.
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 12 (30.48)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 12 to 19 (30.48 to 48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 to 30 (48.26 to 76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 36 (76.2 to 91.44)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) Grinding wheels or discs for horizontal double-spindle disc grinders shall have a hood enclosing the grinding chamber and the hood shall be connected to one or more branch pipes having exhaust volumes as shown in Table D-57.4.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.4—Horizontal Double-Spindle Disc Grinder
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Disc diameter, inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust volume (ft.
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 to 25 (48.26 to 63.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 25 to 30 (63.5 to 76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 53 (76.2 to 134.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53 to 72 (134.62 to 182.88)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,280</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) Grinding wheels or discs for vertical single-spindle disc grinders shall be encircled with hoods to remove the dust generated in the operation. The hoods shall be connected to one or more branch pipes having exhaust volumes as shown in Table D-57.5.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.5—Vertical Spindle Disc Grinder
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Disc diameter, inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">One-half or more of disc covered
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Disc not covered
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust foot 
<sup>3</sup>/min.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust foot
<sup>3</sup>/min.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 20 (50.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 20 to 30 (50.8 to 76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,480
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 to 53 (76.2 to 134.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,530
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53 to 72 (134.62 to 182.88)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,010
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Number of exhaust outlets around periphery of hood, or equal distribution provided by other means.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vii) Grinding and polishing belts shall be provided with hoods to remove dust and dirt generated in the operations and the hoods shall be connected to branch pipes having exhaust volumes as shown in Table D-57.6.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.6—Grinding and Polishing Belts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Belts width, inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust volume (ft.
<sup>3</sup>/min.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 3 (7.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 3 to 5 (7.62 to 12.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 5 to 7 (12.7 to 17.78)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 7 to 9 (17.78 to 22.86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9 to 11 (22.86 to 27.94)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 11 to 13 (27.94 to 33.02)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(viii) Cradles and swing-frame grinders. Where cradles are used for handling the parts to be ground, polished, or buffed, requiring large partial enclosures to house the complete operation, a minimum average air velocity of 150 feet per minute shall be maintained over the entire opening of the enclosure. Swing-frame grinders shall also be exhausted in the same manner as provided for cradles. (See fig. D-57.3)
</P>
<P>(ix) Where the work is outside the hood, air volumes must be increased as shown in American Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960 (section 4, exhaust hoods).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exhaust systems.</I> (i) Exhaust systems for grinding, polishing, and buffing operations should be designed in accordance with American Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exhaust systems for grinding, polishing, and buffing operations shall be tested in the manner described in American Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960.
</P>
<P>(iii) All exhaust systems shall be provided with suitable dust collectors.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hood and enclosure design.</I> (i) (A) It is the dual function of grinding and abrasive cutting-off wheel hoods to protect the operator from the hazards of bursting wheels as well as to provide a means for the removal of dust and dirt generated. All hoods shall be not less in structural strength than specified in the American National Standard Safety Code for the Use, Care, and Protection of Abrasive Wheels, B7.1-1970.
</P>
<P>(B) Due to the variety of work and types of grinding machines employed, it is necessary to develop hoods adaptable to the particular machine in question, and such hoods shall be located as close as possible to the operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exhaust hoods for floor stands, pedestals, and bench grinders shall be designed in accordance with figure D-57.2. The adjustable tongue shown in the figure shall be kept in working order and shall be adjusted within one-fourth inch (0.635 cm) of the wheel periphery at all times.
</P>
<P>(iii) Swing-frame grinders shall be provided with exhaust booths as indicated in figure D-57.3.
</P>
<P>(iv) Portable grinding operations, whenever the nature of the work permits, shall be conducted within a partial enclosure. The opening in the enclosure shall be no larger than is actually required in the operation and an average face air velocity of not less than 200 feet per minute shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(v) Hoods for polishing and buffing and scratch-brush wheels shall be constructed to conform as closely to figure D-57.4 as the nature of the work will permit.
</P>
<P>(vi) Cradle grinding and polishing operations shall be performed within a partial enclosure similar to figure D-57.5. The operator shall be positioned outside the working face of the opening of the enclosure. The face opening of the enclosure should not be any greater in area than that actually required for the performance of the operation and the average air velocity into the working face of the enclosure shall not be less than 150 feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(vii) Hoods for horizontal single-spindle disc grinders shall be constructed to conform as closely as possible to the hood shown in figure D-57.6. It is essential that there be a space between the back of the wheel and the hood, and a space around the periphery of the wheel of at least 1 inch (2.54 cm) in order to permit the suction to act around the wheel periphery. The opening on the side of the disc shall be no larger than is required for the grinding operation, but must never be less than twice the area of the branch outlet.
</P>
<P>(viii) Horizontal double-spindle disc grinders shall have a hood encircling the wheels and grinding chamber similar to that illustrated in figure D-57.7. The openings for passing the work into the grinding chamber should be kept as small as possible, but must never be less than twice the area of the branch outlets.
</P>
<P>(ix) Vertical-spindle disc grinders shall be encircled with a hood so constructed that the heavy dust is drawn off a surface of the disc and the lighter dust exhausted through a continuous slot at the top of the hood as shown in figure D-57.1.
</P>
<P>(x) Grinding and polishing belt hoods shall be constructed as close to the operation as possible. The hood should extend almost to the belt, and 1-inch (2.54 cm) wide openings should be provided on either side. Figure D-57.8 shows a typical hood for a belt operation.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.000.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-57.1—Vertical Spindle Disc Grinder Exhaust Hood and Branch Pipe Connections</E></BCAP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Dia. <E T="03">D</E> inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Exhaust <E T="03">E</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Volume Exhausted at 4,500 ft/min ft
<sup>3</sup>/min
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Note
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No Pipes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dia.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 (50.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/4</fr> (10.795)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When one-half or more of the disc can be hooded, use exhaust ducts as shown at the left.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 20 (50.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (10.16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72 (182.88)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53 (134.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72 (182.88)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8 (20.32)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,140
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 (50.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (10.16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When no hood can be used over disc, use exhaust ducts as shown at left.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 20 (50.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 (50.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (10.16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/2</fr> (13.97)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,480
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53 (134.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53 (134.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,530
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72 (182.88)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7 (17.78)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,010
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 1.0 slot velocity pressure + 0.5 branch velocity pressure.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Minimum slot velocity = 2,000 ft/min—
<fr>1/2</fr>-inch (1.27 cm) slot width.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.001.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-57.2—Standard Grinder Hood</E></BCAP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Wheel dimension, inches (centimeters)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Exhaust outlet, inches (centimeters) <E T="03">E</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Volume of air at 4,500 ft/min
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Width, Max
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min= <E T="03">d</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max= <E T="03">D</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9 (22.86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.81)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9 (22.86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 (40.64)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 16 (40.64)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24 (60.96)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (10.16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 24 (60.96)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 (12.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36 (91.44)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff 0.65 velocity pressure for straight takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.002.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-57.3—A Method of Applying an Exhaust Enclosure to Swing-Frame Grinders</E></BCAP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Baffle to reduce front opening as much as possible</P></NOTE>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.003.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-57.4</E></BCAP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Standard Buffing and Polishing Hood
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Wheel dimension, inches (centimeters)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Exhaust outlet, inches <E T="03">E</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Volume of air at 4,500 ft/min
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Diameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Width, Max
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min= <E T="03">d</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max= <E T="03">D</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9 (22.86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.81)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 9 (22.86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 (40.64)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (5.08)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 16 (40.64)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (11.43)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24 (60.96)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 (12.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 24 (60.96)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36 (91.44)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.200
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.15 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff; 0.65 velocity pressure for straight takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.004.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-57.5—Cradle Polishing or Grinding Enclosure</E></BCAP>
<HD3>Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.005.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-57.6—Horizontal Single-Spindle Disc Grinder Exhaust Hood and Branch Pipe Connections</E></BCAP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Dia <E T="03">D,</E> inches (centimeters)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Exhaust <E T="03">E,</E> dia. inches (cm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Volume exhausted at 4,500 ft/min ft
<sup>3</sup>/min
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12 (30.48)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 12 (30.48)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (10.16)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 (12.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36 (91.44)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (15.24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> If grinding wheels are used for disc grinding purposes, hoods must conform to structural strength and materials as described in 9.1.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.006.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-57.7—Horizontal Double-Spindle Disc Grinder Exhaust Hood and Branch Pipe Connections</E></BCAP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Disc dia. inches (centimeters)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Exhaust E
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Volume exhaust at 4,500 ft/min. ft
<sup>3</sup>/min
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Note
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Min.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Max.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No Pipes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dia.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 19 (48.26)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25 (63.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When width “W” permits, exhaust ducts should be as near heaviest grinding as possible.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 25 (63.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 30 (76.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53 (134.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 53 (134.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72 (182.88)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,280
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.007.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure D-57.8—A Typical Hood for a Belt Operation</E></BCAP>
<HD3>Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Belt width W. inches (centimeters)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exhaust volume. ft.
<sup>1</sup>/min
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 3 (7.62)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 to 5 (7.62 to 12.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 to 7 (12.7 to 17.78)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 to 9 (17.78 to 22.86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 to 11 (22.86 to 27.94)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 to 13 (27.94 to 33.02)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">740
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Minimum duct velocity = 4,500 ft/min branch, 3,500 ft/min main.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Entry loss = 0.45 velocity pressure for tapered takeoff; 0.65 velocity pressure for straight takeoff.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph (g), prescribes the use of exhaust hood enclosures and systems in removing dust, dirt, fumes, and gases generated through the grinding, polishing, or buffing of ferrous and nonferrous metals.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Spray finishing operations</I>—(1) <I>Definitions applicable to this paragraph</I>—(i) <I>Spray-finishing operations.</I> Spray-finishing operations are employment of methods wherein organic or inorganic materials are utilized in dispersed form for deposit on surfaces to be coated, treated, or cleaned. Such methods of deposit may involve either automatic, manual, or electrostatic deposition but do not include metal spraying or metallizing, dipping, flow coating, roller coating, tumbling, centrifuging, or spray washing and degreasing as conducted in self-contained washing and degreasing machines or systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Spray booth.</I> Spray booths are defined and described in § 1926.66(a). (See sections 103, 104, and 105 of the Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable and Combustible Materials, NFPA No. 33-1969).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Spray room.</I> A spray room is a room in which spray-finishing operations not conducted in a spray booth are performed separately from other areas.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Minimum maintained velocity.</I> Minimum maintained velocity is the velocity of air movement which must be maintained in order to meet minimum specified requirements for health and safety.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location and application.</I> Spray booths or spray rooms are to be used to enclose or confine all operations. Spray-finishing operations shall be located as provided in sections 201 through 206 of the Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable and Combustible Materials, NFPA No. 33-1969.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design and construction of spray booths.</I> (i) Spray booths shall be designed and constructed in accordance with § 1926.66(b) (1) through (4) and (6) through (10) (see sections 301-304 and 306-310 of the Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable and Combustible Materials, NFPA No. 33-1969), for general construction specifications. For a more detailed discussion of fundamentals relating to this subject, see ANSI Z9.2-1960
</P>
<P>(A) Lights, motors, electrical equipment, and other sources of ignition shall conform to the requirements of § 1926.66(b)(10) and (c). (See section 310 and chapter 4 of the Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable and Combustible Materials NFPA No. 33-1969.)
</P>
<P>(B) In no case shall combustible material be used in the construction of a spray booth and supply or exhaust duct connected to it.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unobstructed walkways shall not be less than 6
<FR>1/2</FR> feet (1.976 m) high and shall be maintained clear of obstruction from any work location in the booth to a booth exit or open booth front. In booths where the open front is the only exit, such exits shall be not less than 3 feet (0.912 m) wide. In booths having multiple exits, such exits shall not be less than 2 feet (0.608 m) wide, provided that the maximum distance from the work location to the exit is 25 feet (7.6 m) or less. Where booth exits are provided with doors, such doors shall open outward from the booth.
</P>
<P>(iii) Baffles, distribution plates, and dry-type overspray collectors shall conform to the requirements of § 1926.66(b) (4) and (5). (See sections 304 and 305 of the Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable and Combustible Materials, NFPA No. 33-1969.)
</P>
<P>(A) Overspray filters shall be installed and maintained in accordance with the requirements of § 1926.66(b)(5), (see section 305 of the Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable and Combustible Materials, NFPA No. 33-1969), and shall only be in a location easily accessible for inspection, cleaning, or replacement.
</P>
<P>(B) Where effective means, independent of the overspray filters, are installed which will result in design air distribution across the booth cross section, it is permissible to operate the booth without the filters in place.
</P>
<P>(iv) (A) For wet or water-wash spray booths, the water-chamber enclosure, within which intimate contact of contaminated air and cleaning water or other cleaning medium is maintained, if made of steel, shall be 18 gage or heavier and adequately protected against corrosion.
</P>
<P>(B) Chambers may include scrubber spray nozzles, headers, troughs, or other devices. Chambers shall be provided with adequate means for creating and maintaining scrubbing action for removal of particulate matter from the exhaust air stream.
</P>
<P>(v) Collecting tanks shall be of welded steel construction or other suitable non-combustible material. If pits are used as collecting tanks, they shall be concrete, masonry, or other material having similar properties.
</P>
<P>(A) Tanks shall be provided with weirs, skimmer plates, or screens to prevent sludge and floating paint from entering the pump suction box. Means for automatically maintaining the proper water level shall also be provided. Fresh water inlets shall not be submerged. They shall terminate at least one pipe diameter above the safety overflow level of the tank.
</P>
<P>(B) Tanks shall be so constructed as to discourage accumulation of hazardous deposits.
</P>
<P>(vi) Pump manifolds, risers, and headers shall be adequately sized to insure sufficient water flow to provide efficient operation of the water chamber.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Design and construction of spray rooms.</I> (i) Spray rooms, including floors, shall be constructed of masonry, concrete, or other noncombustible material.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spray rooms shall have noncombustible fire doors and shutters.
</P>
<P>(iii) Spray rooms shall be adequately ventilated so that the atmosphere in the breathing zone of the operator shall be maintained in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (h)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Spray rooms used for production spray-finishing operations shall conform to the requirements for spray booths.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Ventilation.</I> (i) Ventilation shall be provided in accordance with provisions of § 1926.66(d) (see chapter 5 of the Standard for Spray Finishing Using Flammable or Combustible Materials, NFPA No. 33-1969), and in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Where a fan plenum is used to equalize or control the distribution of exhaust air movement through the booth, it shall be of sufficient strength or rigidity to withstand the differential air pressure or other superficially imposed loads for which the equipment is designed and also to facilitate cleaning. Construction specifications shall be at least equivalent to those of paragraph (h)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Inlet or supply ductwork used to transport makeup air to spray booths or surrounding areas shall be constructed of noncombustible materials.
</P>
<P>(A) If negative pressure exists within inlet ductwork, all seams and joints shall be sealed if there is a possibility of infiltration of harmful quantities of noxious gases, fumes, or mists from areas through which ductwork passes.
</P>
<P>(B) Inlet ductwork shall be sized in accordance with volume flow requirements and provide design air requirements at the spray booth.
</P>
<P>(C) Inlet ductwork shall be adequately supported throughout its length to sustain at least its own weight plus any negative pressure which is exerted upon it under normal operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(A) Exhaust ductwork shall be adequately supported throughout its length to sustain its weight plus any normal accumulation in interior during normal operating conditions and any negative pressure exerted upon it.
</P>
<P>(B) Exhaust ductwork shall be sized in accordance with good design practice which shall include consideration of fan capacity, length of duct, number of turns and elbows, variation in size, volume, and character of materials being exhausted. See American National Standard Z9.2-1960 for further details and explanation concerning elements of design.
</P>
<P>(C) Longitudinal joints in sheet steel ductwork shall be either lock-seamed, riveted, or welded. For other than steel construction, equivalent securing of joints shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(D) Circumferential joints in ductwork shall be substantially fastened together and lapped in the direction of airflow. At least every fourth joint shall be provided with connecting flanges, bolted together, or of equivalent fastening security.
</P>
<P>(E) Inspection or clean-out doors shall be provided for every 9 to 12 feet (2.736 to 3.648 m) of running length for ducts up to 12 inches (0.304 m) in diameter, but the distance between cleanout doors may be greater for larger pipes. (See 8.3.21 of American National Standard Z9.1-1951.) A clean-out door or doors shall be provided for servicing the fan, and where necessary, a drain shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(F) Where ductwork passes through a combustible roof or wall, the roof or wall shall be protected at the point of penetration by open space or fire-resistive material between the duct and the roof or wall. When ducts pass through firewalls, they shall be provided with automatic fire dampers on both sides of the wall, except that three-eighth-inch steel plates may be used in lieu of automatic fire dampers for ducts not exceeding 18 inches (45.72 cm) in diameter.
</P>
<P>(G) Ductwork used for ventilating any process covered in this standard shall not be connected to ducts ventilating any other process or any chimney or flue used for conveying any products of combustion.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Velocity and air flow requirements.</I> (i) Except where a spray booth has an adequate air replacement system, the velocity of air into all openings of a spray booth shall be not less than that specified in Table D-57.7 for the operating conditions specified. An adequate air replacement system is one which introduces replacement air upstream or above the object being sprayed and is so designed that the velocity of air in the booth cross section is not less than that specified in Table D-57.7 when measured upstream or above the object being sprayed.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.7—Minimum Maintained Velocities Into Spray Booths
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Operating conditions for objects completely inside booth
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Crossdraft, f.p.m.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Airflow velocities, f.p.m.
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Design
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Range
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrostatic and automatic airless operation contained in booth without operator</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Negligible</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 large booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50-75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 small booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-operated guns, manual or automatic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 large booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 small booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125-175
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-operated guns, manual or automatic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 large booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125-175
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 small booth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150-250
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (1) Attention is invited to the fact that the effectiveness of the spray booth is dependent upon the relationship of the depth of the booth to its height and width.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (2) Crossdrafts can be eliminated through proper design and such design should be sought. Crossdrafts in excess of 100fpm (feet per minute) should not be permitted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (3) Excessive air pressures result in loss of both efficiency and material waste in addition to creating a backlash that may carry overspray and fumes into adjacent work areas.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> (4) Booths should be designed with velocities shown in the column headed “Design.” However, booths operating with velocities shown in the column headed “Range” are in compliance with this standard.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (h)(6)(i) of this section the total air volume exhausted through a spray booth shall be such as to dilute solvent vapor to at least 25 percent of the lower explosive limit of the solvent being sprayed. An example of the method of calculating this volume is given below.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>To determine the lower explosive limits of the most common solvents used in spray finishing, see Table D-57.8. Column 1 gives the number of cubic feet of vapor per gallon of solvent and column 2 gives the lower explosive limit (LEL) in percentage by volume of air. Note that the quantity of solvent will be diminished by the quantity of solids and nonflammables contained in the finish.
</PSPACE><P>To determine the volume of air in cubic feet necessary to dilute the vapor from 1 gallon of solvent to 25 percent of the lower explosive limit, apply the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>Dilution volume required per gallon of solvent = 4 (100-LEL) (cubic feet of vapor per gallon) ÷ LEL
</FP-2>
<FP>Using toluene as the solvent.
</FP><PSPACE>(1) LEL of toluene from Table D-57.8, column 2, is 1.4 percent.
</PSPACE><P>(2) Cubic feet of vapor per gallon from Table D-57.8, column 1, is 30.4 cubic feet per gallon.
</P><P>(3) Dilution volume required =
</P>
<FP-2>4 (100-1.4) 30.4 ÷ 1.4 = 8,564 cubic feet.
</FP-2><PSPACE>(4) To convert to cubic feet per minute of required ventilation, multiply the dilution volume required per gallon of solvent by the number of gallons of solvent evaporated per minute.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.8—Lower Explosive Limit of Some Commonly Used Solvents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Solvent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cubic feet per gallon of vapor of liquid at 70 °F (21.11 °C).
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lower explosive limit in percent by volume of air at 70 °F (21.11 °C)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Column 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Column 2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acetone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amyl Acetate (iso)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amyl Alcohol (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amyl Alcohol (iso)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl Acetate (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl Alcohol (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butyl Cellosolve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellosolve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cellosolve Acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cyclohexanone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,1 Dichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,2 Dichloroethylene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl Acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl Alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ethyl Lactate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Acetate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Alcohol</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Cellosolve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl Ethyl Ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Methyl n-Propyl Ketone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphtha (VM&amp;P) (76°Naphtha)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphtha (100°Flash) Safety Solvent—Stoddard Solvent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Acetate (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Acetate (iso)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Alcohol (n)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propyl Alcohol (iso)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toluene</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Turpentine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xylene (o)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At 212 °F (100 °C).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii)(A) When an operator is in a booth downstream of the object being sprayed, an air-supplied respirator or other type of respirator approved by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84 for the material being sprayed should be used by the operator.
</P>
<P>(B) Where downdraft booths are provided with doors, such doors shall be closed when spray painting.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Make-up air.</I> (i) Clean fresh air, free of contamination from adjacent industrial exhaust systems, chimneys, stacks, or vents, shall be supplied to a spray booth or room in quantities equal to the volume of air exhausted through the spray booth.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where a spray booth or room receives make-up air through self-closing doors, dampers, or louvers, they shall be fully open at all times when the booth or room is in use for spraying. The velocity of air through such doors, dampers, or louvers shall not exceed 200 feet per minute. If the fan characteristics are such that the required air flow through the booth will be provided, higher velocities through the doors, dampers, or louvers may be used.
</P>
<P>(iii) (A) Where the air supply to a spray booth or room is filtered, the fan static pressure shall be calculated on the assumption that the filters are dirty to the extent that they require cleaning or replacement.
</P>
<P>(B) The rating of filters shall be governed by test data supplied by the manufacturer of the filter. A pressure gage shall be installed to show the pressure drop across the filters. This gage shall be marked to show the pressure drop at which the filters require cleaning or replacement. Filters shall be replaced or cleaned whenever the pressure drop across them becomes excessive or whenever the air flow through the face of the booth falls below that specified in Table D-57.7.
</P>
<P>(iv) (A) Means for heating make-up air to any spray booth or room, before or at the time spraying is normally performed, shall be provided in all places where the outdoor temperature may be expected to remain below 55 °F. (12.77 °C.) for appreciable periods of time during the operation of the booth except where adequate and safe means of radiant heating for all operating personnel affected is provided. The replacement air during the heating seasons shall be maintained at not less than 65 °F. (18.33 °C.) at the point of entry into the spray booth or spray room. When otherwise unheated make-up air would be at a temperature of more than 10 °F. below room temperature, its temperature shall be regulated as provided in section 3.6.3 of ANSI Z9.2-1960.
</P>
<P>(B) As an alternative to an air replacement system complying with the preceding section, general heating of the building in which the spray room or booth is located may be employed provided that all occupied parts of the building are maintained at not less than 65 °F. (18.33 °C.) when the exhaust system is in operation or the general heating system supplemented by other sources of heat may be employed to meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(C) No means of heating make-up air shall be located in a spray booth.
</P>
<P>(D) Where make-up air is heated by coal or oil, the products of combustion shall not be allowed to mix with the make-up air, and the products of combustion shall be conducted outside the building through a flue terminating at a point remote from all points where make-up air enters the building.
</P>
<P>(E) Where make-up air is heated by gas, and the products of combustion are not mixed with the make-up air but are conducted through an independent flue to a point outside the building remote from all points where make-up air enters the building, it is not necessary to comply with paragraph (h)(7)(iv)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) Where make-up air to any manually operated spray booth or room is heated by gas and the products of combustion are allowed to mix with the supply air, the following precautions must be taken:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The gas must have a distinctive and strong enough odor to warn workmen in a spray booth or room of its presence if in an unburned state in the make-up air.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The maximum rate of gas supply to the make-up air heater burners must not exceed that which would yield in excess of 200 p.p.m. (parts per million) of carbon monoxide or 2,000 p.p.m. of total combustible gases in the mixture if the unburned gas upon the occurrence of flame failure were mixed with all of the make-up air supplied.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A fan must be provided to deliver the mixture of heated air and products of combustion from the plenum chamber housing the gas burners to the spray booth or room.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Scope.</I> Spray booths or spray rooms are to be used to enclose or confine all spray finishing operations covered by this paragraph (h). This paragraph does not apply to the spraying of the exteriors of buildings, fixed tanks, or similar structures, nor to small portable spraying apparatus not used repeatedly in the same location.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Open surface tanks</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) This paragraph applies to all operations involving the immersion of materials in liquids, or in the vapors of such liquids, for the purpose of cleaning or altering the surface or adding to or imparting a finish thereto or changing the character of the materials, and their subsequent removal from the liquid or vapor, draining, and drying. These operations include washing, electroplating, anodizing, pickling, quenching, dying, dipping, tanning, dressing, bleaching, degreasing, alkaline cleaning, stripping, rinsing, digesting, and other similar operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except where specific construction specifications are prescribed in this section, hoods, ducts, elbows, fans, blowers, and all other exhaust system parts, components, and supports thereof shall be so constructed as to meet conditions of service and to facilitate maintenance and shall conform in construction to the specifications contained in American National Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classification of open-surface tank operations.</I> (i) Open-surface tank operations shall be classified into 16 classes, numbered A-1 to D-4, inclusive.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination of class.</I> Class is determined by two factors, hazard potential designated by a letter from A to D, inclusive, and rate of gas, vapor, or mist evolution designated by a number from 1 to 4, inclusive (for example, B.3).
</P>
<P>(iii) Hazard potential is an index, on a scale of from A to D, inclusive, of the severity of the hazard associated with the substance contained in the tank because of the toxic, flammable, or explosive nature of the vapor, gas, or mist produced therefrom. The toxic hazard is determined from the concentration, measured in parts by volume of a gas or vapor, per million parts by volume of contaminated air (p.p.m.), or in milligrams of mist per cubic meter of air (mg./m.
<SU>3</SU>), below which ill effects are unlikely to occur to the exposed worker. The concentrations shall be those in § 1926.55 or other pertinent sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) The relative fire or explosion hazard is measured in degrees Fahrenheit in terms of the closed-cup flash point of the substance in the tank. Detailed information on the prevention of fire hazards in dip tanks may be found in Dip Tanks Containing Flammable or Combustible Liquids, NFPA No. 34-1966, National Fire Protection Association. Where the tank contains a mixture of liquids, other than organic solvents, whose effects are additive, the hygienic standard of the most toxic component (for example, the one having the lowest p.p.m. or mg./m.
<SU>3</SU>) shall be used, except where such substance constitutes an insignificantly small fraction of the mixture. For mixtures of organic solvents, their combined effect, rather than that of either individually, shall determine the hazard potential. In the absence of information to the contrary, the effects shall be considered as additive. If the sum of the ratios of the airborne concentration of each contaminant to the toxic concentration of that contaminant exceeds unity, the toxic concentration shall be considered to have been exceeded. (See Note A to paragraph (i)(2)(v) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(v) Hazard potential shall be determined from Table D-57.9, with the value indicating greater hazard being used. When the hazardous material may be either a vapor with a threshold limit value (<I>TLV</I>) in p.p.m. or a mist with a <I>TLV</I> in mg./m.<E T="52">3</E>, the <I>TLV</I> indicating the greater hazard shall be used (for example, A takes precedence over B or C; B over C; C over D).
</P>
<P><E T="04">Note A:</E> 
</P>
<FP-2>(<I>c</I><E T="52">1</E> ÷ <I>TLV</I><E T="52">1</E>) + (<I>c</I><E T="52">2</E> ÷ <I>TLV</I><E T="52">2</E>) + (<I>c</I><E T="52">3</E> ÷ <I>TLV</I><E T="52">3</E>) + ; . . .(<I>c</I><E T="52">N</E> ÷ <I>TLV</I><E T="52">N</E>)1
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>c = Concentration measured at the operation in p.p.m.
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.9—Determination of Hazard Potential
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Hazard potential
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Toxicity group
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gas or vapor (p.p.m.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mist (mg./m
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flash point in degrees F. (C.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0-10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0-0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11-100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11-1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 100 (37.77)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101-500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1-10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 200 (37.77-93.33)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 200 (93.33)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) Rate of gas, vapor, or mist evolution is a numerical index, on a scale of from 1 to 4, inclusive, both of the relative capacity of the tank to produce gas, vapor, or mist and of the relative energy with which it is projected or carried upwards from the tank. Rate is evaluated in terms of
</P>
<P>(A) The temperature of the liquid in the tank in degrees Fahrenheit;
</P>
<P>(B) The number of degrees Fahrenheit that this temperature is below the boiling point of the liquid in degrees Fahrenheit;
</P>
<P>(C) The relative evaporation of the liquid in still air at room temperature in an arbitrary scale—fast, medium, slow, or nil; and
</P>
<P>(D) The extent that the tank gases or produces mist in an arbitrary scale—high, medium, low, and nil. (See Table D-57.10, Note 2.) Gassing depends upon electrochemical or mechanical processes, the effects of which have to be individually evaluated for each installation (see Table D-57.10, Note 3).
</P>
<P>(vii) Rate of evolution shall be determined from Table D-57.10. When evaporation and gassing yield different rates, the lowest numerical value shall be used.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.10—Determination of Rate of Gas, Vapor, or Mist Evolution 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid temperature, °F. (C.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Degrees below boiling point
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Relative evaporation 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gassing 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 200 (93.33)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0-20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fast</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150-200 (65.55-93.33)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21-50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94-149 (34.44-65)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51-100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Slow</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 94 (34.44)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nil.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> In certain classes of equipment, specifically vapor degreasers, an internal condenser or vapor level thermostat is used to prevent the vapor from leaving the tank during normal operation. In such cases, rate of vapor evolution from the tank into the workroom is not dependent upon the factors listed in the table, but rather upon abnormalities of operating procedure, such as carryout of vapors from excessively fast action, dragout of liquid by entrainment in parts, contamination of solvent by water and other materials, or improper heat balance. When operating procedure is excellent, effective rate of evolution may be taken as 4. When operating procedure is average, the effective rate of evolution may be taken as 3. When operation is poor, a rate of 2 or 1 is indicated, depending upon observed conditions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Relative evaporation rate is determined according to the methods described by A. K. Doolittle in Industrial and Engineering Chemistry, vol. 27, p. 1169, (3) where time for 100-percent evaporation is as follows: Fast: 0-3 hours; Medium: 3-12 hours; Slow: 12-50 hours; Nil: more than 50 hours.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Gassing means the formation by chemical or electrochemical action of minute bubbles of gas under the surface of the liquid in the tank and is generally limited to aqueous solutions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Ventilation.</I> Where ventilation is used to control potential exposures to workers as defined in paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section, it shall be adequate to reduce the concentration of the air contaminant to the degree that a hazard to the worker does not exist. Methods of ventilation are discussed in American National Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Control requirements.</I> (i) Control velocities shall conform to Table D-57.11 in all cases where the flow of air past the breathing or working zone of the operator and into the hoods is undisturbed by local environmental conditions, such as open windows, wall fans, unit heaters, or moving machinery.
</P>
<P>(ii) All tanks exhausted by means of hoods which
</P>
<P>(A) Project over the entire tank;
</P>
<P>(B) Are fixed in position in such a location that the head of the workman, in all his normal operating positions while working at the tank, is in front of all hood openings; and
</P>
<P>(C) Are completely enclosed on at least two sides, shall be considered to be exhausted through an enclosing hood.
</P>
<P>(D) The quantity of air in cubic feet per minute necessary to be exhausted through an enclosing hood shall be not less than the product of the control velocity times the net area of all openings in the enclosure through which air can flow into the hood.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.11—Control Velocities in Feet Per Minute (f.p.m.) for Undisturbed Locations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Enclosing hood
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Lateral exhaust 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Canopy hood 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">One open side
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Two open sides
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Three open sides
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Four open sides
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B-1 and A-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Do not use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Do not use
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-3 
<sup>2</sup>, B-1, B-2, and C-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-3, C-2, and D-1 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B-4 
<sup>2</sup>, C-3, and D-2 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A-4, C-4, D-3 
<sup>3</sup>, and D-4 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See Table D-57.12 for computation of ventilation rate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Do not use canopy hood for Hazard Potential A processes.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Where complete control of hot water is desired, design as next highest class.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> General room ventilation required.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) All tanks exhausted by means of hoods which do not project over the entire tank, and in which the direction of air movement into the hood or hoods is substantially horizontal, shall be considered to be laterally exhausted. The quantity of air in cubic feet per minute necessary to be laterally exhausted per square foot of tank area in order to maintain the required control velocity shall be determined from Table D-57.12 for all variations in ratio of tank width (<I>W</I>) to tank length $(<I>L</I>). The total quantity of air in cubic feet per minute required to be exhausted per tank shall be not less than the product of the area of tank surface times the cubic feet per minute per square foot of tank area, determined from Table D-57.12.
</P>
<P>(A) For lateral exhaust hoods over 42 inches (1.06 m) wide, or where it is desirable to reduce the amount of air removed from the workroom, air supply slots or orifices shall be provided along the side or the center of the tank opposite from the exhaust slots. The design of such systems shall meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The supply air volume plus the entrained air shall not exceed 50 percent of the exhaust volume.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The velocity of the supply airstream as it reaches the effective control area of the exhaust slot shall be less than the effective velocity over the exhaust slot area.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-57.12—Minimum Ventilation Rate in Cubic Feet of Air Per Minute Per Square Foot of Tank Area for Lateral Exhaust
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Required minimum control velocity, f.p.m. (from Table D-57.11)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">C.f.m. per sq. ft. to maintain required minimum velocities at following ratios (tank width (W)/tank length (L)). 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.0-0.09
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.1-0.24
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.25-0.49
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.5-0.99
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.0-2.0
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row">Hood along one side or two parallel sides of tank when one hood is against a wall or baffle. 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row">Also for a manifold along tank centerline. 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row">Hood along one side or two parallel sides of free standing tank not against wall or baffle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">340</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">375
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> It is not practicable to ventilate across the long dimension of a tank whose ratio <E T="03">W</E>/<E T="03">L</E> exceeds 2.0.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">It is undesirable to do so when <E T="03">W</E>/<E T="03">L</E> exceeds 1.0. For circular tanks with lateral exhaust along up to 
<fr>1/2</fr> the circumference, use <E T="03">W</E>/<E T="03">L</E> = 1.0; for over one-half the circumference use <E T="03">W</E>/<E T="03">L</E> = 0.5.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Baffle is a vertical plate the same length as the tank, and with the top of the plate as high as the tank is wide. If the exhaust hood is on the side of a tank against a building wall or close to it, it is perfectly baffled.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Use <E T="03">W</E>/2 as tank width in computing when manifold is along centerline, or when hoods are used on two parallel sides of a tank.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Tank Width (<E T="03">W</E>) means the effective width over which the hood must pull air to operate (for example, where the hood face is set back from the edge of the tank, this set back must be added in measuring tank width). The surface area of tanks can frequently be reduced and better control obtained (particularly on conveyorized systems) by using covers extending from the upper edges of the slots toward the center of the tank.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The vertical height of the receiving exhaust hood, including any baffle, shall not be less than one-quarter the width of the tank.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The supply airstream shall not be allowed to impinge on obstructions between it and the exhaust slot in such a manner as to significantly interfere with the performance of the exhaust hood.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Since most failure of push-pull systems result from excessive supply air volumes and pressures, methods of measuring and adjusting the supply air shall be provided. When satisfactory control has been achieved, the adjustable features of the hood shall be fixed so that they will not be altered.
</P>
<P>(iv) All tanks exhausted by means of hoods which project over the entire tank, and which do not conform to the definition of enclosing hoods, shall be considered to be overhead canopy hoods. The quantity of air in cubic feet per minute necessary to be exhausted through a canopy hood shall be not less than the product of the control velocity times the net area of all openings between the bottom edges of the hood and the top edges of the tank.
</P>
<P>(v) The rate of vapor evolution (including steam or products of combustion) from the process shall be estimated. If the rate of vapor evolution is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the calculated exhaust volume required, the exhaust volume shall be increased in equal amount.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Spray cleaning and degreasing.</I> Wherever spraying or other mechanical means are used to disperse a liquid above an open-surface tank, control must be provided for the airborne spray. Such operations shall be enclosed as completely as possible. The inward air velocity into the enclosure shall be sufficient to prevent the discharge of spray into the workroom. Mechanical baffles may be used to help prevent the discharge of spray. Spray painting operations are covered by paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Control means other than ventilation.</I> Tank covers, foams, beads, chips, or other materials floating on the tank surface so as to confine gases, mists, or vapors to the area under the cover or to the foam, bead, or chip layer; or surface tension depressive agents added to the liquid in the tank to minimize mist formation, or any combination thereof, may all be used as gas, mist, or vapor control means for open-surface tank operations, provided that they effectively reduce the concentrations of hazardous materials in the vicinity of the worker below the limits set in accordance with paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System design.</I> (i) The equipment for exhausting air shall have sufficient capacity to produce the flow of air required in each of the hoods and openings of the system.
</P>
<P>(ii) The capacity required in paragraph (i)(7)(i) of this section shall be obtained when the airflow producing equipment is operating against the following pressure losses, the sum of which is the static pressure:
</P>
<P>(A) Entrance losses into the hood.
</P>
<P>(B) Resistance to airflow in branch pipe including bends and transformations.
</P>
<P>(C) Entrance loss into the main pipe.
</P>
<P>(D) Resistance to airflow in main pipe including bends and transformations.
</P>
<P>(E) Resistance of mechanical equipment; that is, filters, washers, condensers, absorbers, etc., plus their entrance and exit losses.
</P>
<P>(F) Resistance in outlet duct and discharge stack.
</P>
<P>(iii) Two or more operations shall not be connected to the same exhaust system where either one or the combination of the substances removed may constitute a fire, explosion, or chemical reaction hazard in the duct system. Traps or other devices shall be provided to insure that condensate in ducts does not drain back into any tank.
</P>
<P>(iv) The exhaust system, consisting of hoods, ducts, air mover, and discharge outlet, shall be designed in accordance with American National Standard Fundamentals Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960, or the manual, Industrial Ventilation, published by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists 1970. Airflow and pressure loss data provided by the manufacturer of any air cleaning device shall be included in the design calculations.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Operation.</I> (i) The required airflow shall be maintained at all times during which gas, mist, or vapor is emitted from the tank, and at all times the tank, the draining, or the drying area is in operation or use. When the system is first installed, the airflow from each hood shall be measured by means of a pitot traverse in the exhaust duct and corrective action taken if the flow is less than that required. When the proper flow is obtained, the hood static pressure shall be measured and recorded. At intervals of not more than 3 months operation, or after a prolonged shutdown period, the hoods and duct system shall be inspected for evidence of corrosion or damage. In any case where the airflow is found to be less than required, it shall be increased to the required value. (Information on airflow and static pressure measurement and calculations may be found in American National Standard Fundamental Governing the Design and Operation of Local Exhaust Systems, Z9.2-1960, or in the manual, Industrial Ventilation, published by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists.)
</P>
<P>(ii) The exhaust system shall discharge to the outer air in such a manner that the possibility of its effluent entering any building is at a minimum. Recirculation shall only be through a device for contaminant removal which will prevent the creation of a health hazard in the room or area to which the air is recirculated.
</P>
<P>(iii) A volume of outside air in the range of 90 percent to 110 percent of the exhaust volume shall be provided to each room having exhaust hoods. The outside air supply shall enter the workroom in such a manner as not to be detrimental to any exhaust hood. The airflow of the makeup air system shall be measured on installation. Corrective action shall be taken when the airflow is below that required. The makeup air shall be uncontaminated.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Personal protection.</I> (i) All employees working in and around open-surface tank operations must be instructed as to the hazards of their respective jobs, and in the personal protection and first aid procedures applicable to these hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) All persons required to work in such a manner that their feet may become wet shall be provided with rubber or other impervious boots or shoes, rubbers, or wooden-soled shoes sufficient to keep feet dry.
</P>
<P>(iii) All persons required to handle work wet with a liquid other than water shall be provided with gloves impervious to such a liquid and of a length sufficient to prevent entrance of liquid into the tops of the gloves. The interior of gloves shall be kept free from corrosive or irritating contaminants.
</P>
<P>(iv) All persons required to work in such a manner that their clothing may become wet shall be provided with such aprons, coats, jackets, sleeves, or other garments made of rubber, or of other materials impervious to liquids other than water, as are required to keep their clothing dry. Aprons shall extend well below the top of boots to prevent liquid splashing into the boots. Provision of dry, clean, cotton clothing along with rubber shoes or short boots and an apron impervious to liquids other than water shall be considered a satisfactory substitute where small parts are cleaned, plated, or acid dipped in open tanks and rapid work is required.
</P>
<P>(v) Whenever there is a danger of splashing, for example, when additions are made manually to the tanks, or when acids and chemicals are removed from the tanks, the employees so engaged shall be required to wear either tight-fitting chemical goggles or an effective face shield. See § 1926.102.
</P>
<P>(vi) When, during the emergencies specified in paragraph (i)(11)(v) of this section, employees must be in areas where concentrations of air contaminants are greater than the limits set by paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section or oxygen concentrations are less than 19.5 percent, they must use respirators that reduce their exposure to a level below these limits or that provide adequate oxygen. Such respirators must also be provided in marked, quickly-accessible storage compartments built for this purpose when the possibility exists of accidental release of hazardous concentrations of air contaminants. Respirators must be approved by NIOSH under 42 CFR part 84, selected by a competent industrial hygienist or other technically-qualified source, and used in accordance with 29 CFR 1926.103.
</P>
<P>(vii) Near each tank containing a liquid which may burn, irritate, or otherwise be harmful to the skin if splashed upon the worker's body, there shall be a supply of clean cold water. The water pipe (carrying a pressure not exceeding 25 pounds (11.325 kg)) shall be provided with a quick opening valve and at least 48 inches (1.216 m) of hose not smaller than three-fourths inch, so that no time may be lost in washing off liquids from the skin or clothing. Alternatively, deluge showers and eye flushes shall be provided in cases where harmful chemicals may be splashed on parts of the body.
</P>
<P>(viii) Operators with sores, burns, or other skin lesions requiring medical treatment shall not be allowed to work at their regular operations until so authorized by a physician. Any small skin abrasions, cuts, rash, or open sores which are found or reported shall be treated by a properly designated person so that chances of exposures to the chemicals are removed. Workers exposed to chromic acids shall have a periodic examination made of the nostrils and other parts of the body, to detect incipient ulceration.
</P>
<P>(ix) Sufficient washing facilities, including soap, individual towels, and hot water, shall be provided for all persons required to use or handle any liquids which may burn, irritate, or otherwise be harmful to the skin, on the basis of at least one basin (or its equivalent) with a hot water faucet for every 10 employees. See § 1926.51(f).
</P>
<P>(x) Locker space or equivalent clothing storage facilities shall be provided to prevent contamination of street clothing.
</P>
<P>(xi) First aid facilities specific to the hazards of the operations conducted shall be readily available.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Special precautions for cyanide.</I> Dikes or other arrangements shall be provided to prevent the possibility of intermixing of cyanide and acid in the event of tank rupture.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Inspection, maintenance, and installation.</I> (i) Floors and platforms around tanks shall be prevented from becoming slippery both by original type of construction and by frequent flushing. They shall be firm, sound, and of the design and construction to minimize the possibility of tripping.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before cleaning the interior of any tank, the contents shall be drained off, and the cleanout doors shall be opened where provided. All pockets in tanks or pits, where it is possible for hazardous vapors to collect, shall be ventilated and cleared of such vapors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tanks which have been drained to permit employees to enter for the purposes of cleaning, inspection, or maintenance may contain atmospheres which are hazardous to life or health, through the presence of flammable or toxic air contaminants, or through the absence of sufficient oxygen. Before employees shall be permitted to enter any such tank, appropriate tests of the atmosphere shall be made to determine if the limits set by paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section are exceeded, or if the oxygen concentration is less than 19.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the tests made in accordance with paragraph (i)(11)(iii) of this section indicate that the atmosphere in the tank is unsafe, before any employee is permitted to enter the tank, the tank shall be ventilated until the hazardous atmosphere is removed, and ventilation shall be continued so as to prevent the occurrence of a hazardous atmosphere as long as an employee is in the tank.
</P>
<P>(v) If, in emergencies, such as rescue work, it is necessary to enter a tank which may contain a hazardous atmosphere, suitable respirators, such as self-contained breathing apparatus; hose mask with blower, if there is a possibility of oxygen deficiency; or a gas mask, selected and operated in accordance with paragraph (i)(9)(vi) of this section, shall be used. If a contaminant in the tank can cause dermatitis, or be absorbed through the skin, the employee entering the tank shall also wear protective clothing. At least one trained standby employee, with suitable respirator, shall be present in the nearest uncontaminated area. The standby employee must be able to communicate with the employee in the tank and be able to haul him out of the tank with a lifeline if necessary.
</P>
<P>(vi) Maintenance work requiring welding or open flame, where toxic metal fumes such as cadmium, chromium, or lead may be evolved, shall be done only with sufficient local exhaust ventilation to prevent the creation of a health hazard, or be done with respirators selected and used in accordance with paragraph (i)(9)(vi) of this section. Welding, or the use of open flames near any solvent cleaning equipment shall be permitted only after such equipment has first been thoroughly cleared of solvents and vapors.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Vapor degreasing tanks.</I> (i) In any vapor degreasing tank equipped with a condenser or vapor level thermostat, the condenser or thermostat shall keep the level of vapors below the top edge of the tank by a distance at least equal to one-half the tank width, or at least 36 inches (0.912 m), whichever is shorter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where gas is used as a fuel for heating vapor degreasing tanks, the combustion chamber shall be of tight construction, except for such openings as the exhaust flue, and those that are necessary for supplying air for combustion. Flues shall be of corrosion-resistant construction and shall extend to the outer air. If mechanical exhaust is used on this flue, a draft diverter shall be used. Special precautions must be taken to prevent solvent fumes from entering the combustion air of this or any other heater when chlorinated or fluorinated hydrocarbon solvents (for example, trichloroethylene, Freon) are used.
</P>
<P>(iii) Heating elements shall be so designed and maintained that their surface temperature will not cause the solvent or mixture to decompose, break down, or be converted into an excessive quantity of vapor.
</P>
<P>(iv) Tanks or machines of more than 4 square feet (0.368 m
<SU>2</SU>) of vapor area, used for solvent cleaning or vapor degreasing, shall be equipped with suitable cleanout or sludge doors located near the bottom of each tank or still. These doors shall be so designed and gasketed that there will be no leakage of solvent when they are closed.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Scope.</I> (i) This paragraph (i) applies to all operations involving the immersion of materials in liquids, or in the vapors of such liquids, for the purpose of cleaning or altering their surfaces, or adding or imparting a finish thereto, or changing the character of the materials, and their subsequent removal from the liquids or vapors, draining, and drying. Such operations include washing, electroplating, anodizing, pickling, quenching, dyeing, dipping, tanning, dressing, bleaching, degreasing, alkaline cleaning, stripping, rinsing, digesting, and other similar operations, but do not include molten materials handling operations, or surface coating operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Molten materials handling operations</I> means all operations, other than welding, burning, and soldering operations, involving the use, melting, smelting, or pouring of metals, alloys, salts, or other similar substances in the molten state. Such operations also include heat treating baths, descaling baths, die casting stereotyping, galvanizing, tinning, and similar operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Surface coating operations</I> means all operations involving the application of protective, decorative, adhesive, or strengthening coating or impregnation to one or more surfaces, or into the interstices of any object or material, by means of spraying, spreading, flowing, brushing, roll coating, pouring, cementing, or similar means; and any subsequent draining or drying operations, excluding open-tank operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35099, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9250, Mar. 3, 1996; 63 FR 1295, Jan. 8, 1998]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.58" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.58   COVID-19.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at 29 CFR 1910.501 subpart U.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 61555, Nov. 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.59" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.59   Hazard communication.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1200 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.60" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.60   Methylenedianiline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to all construction work as defined in 29 CFR 1910.12(b), in which there is exposure to MDA, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Construction, alteration, repair, maintenance, or renovation of structures, substrates, or portions thereof, that contain MDA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Installation or the finishing of surfaces with products containing MDA;
</P>
<P>(iii) MDA spill/emergency cleanup at construction sites; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Transportation, disposal, storage, or containment of MDA or products containing MDA on the site or location at which construction activities are performed.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(7) and (f)(5) of this section, this section does not apply to the processing, use, and handling of products containing MDA where initial monitoring indicates that the product is not capable of releasing MDA in excess of the action level under the expected conditions of processing, use, and handling which will cause the greatest possible release; and where no “dermal exposure to MDA” can occur.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, this section does not apply to the processing, use, and handling of products containing MDA where objective data are reasonably relied upon which demonstrate the product is not capable of releasing MDA under the expected conditions of processing, use, and handling which will cause the greatest possible release; and where no “dermal exposure to MDA” can occur.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, this section does not apply to the storage, transportation, distribution or sale of MDA in intact containers sealed in such a manner as to contain the MDA dusts, vapors, or liquids, except for the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1200 and paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, this section does not apply to materials in any form which contain less than 0.1% MDA by weight or volume.
</P>
<P>(6) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, this section does not apply to “finished articles containing MDA.”
</P>
<P>(7) Where products containing MDA are exempted under paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(6) of this section, the employer shall maintain records of the initial monitoring results or objective data supporting that exemption and the basis for the employer's reliance on the data, as provided in the recordkeeping provision of paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne MDA of 5 ppb as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter a regulated area, or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the right to observe monitoring and measuring procedures under paragraph (p) of this section, or any other person authorized by the Act or regulations issued under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Container</I> means any barrel, bottle, can, cylinder, drum, reaction vessel, storage tank, commercial packaging or the like, but does not include piping systems.
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination area</I> means an area outside of but as near as practical to the regulated area, consisting of an equipment storage area, wash area, and clean change area, which is used for the decontamination of workers, materials, and equipment contaminated with MDA.
</P>
<P><I>Dermal exposure to MDA</I> occurs where employees are engaged in the handling, application or use of mixtures or materials containing MDA, with any of the following non-airborne forms of MDA:
</P>
<P>(i) Liquid, powdered, granular, or flaked mixtures containing MDA in concentrations greater than 0.1% by weight or volume; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Materials other than “finished articles” containing MDA in concentrations greater than 0.1% by weight or volume.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment which results in an unexpected and potentially hazardous release of MDA.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means exposure to MDA which would occur if the employee were not using respirators or protective work clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Finished article containing MDA</I> is defined as a manufactured item:
</P>
<P>(i) Which is formed to a specific shape or design during manufacture;
</P>
<P>(ii) Which has end use function(s) dependent in whole or part upon its shape or design during end use; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Where applicable, is an item which is fully cured by virtue of having been subjected to the conditions (temperature, time) necessary to complete the desired chemical reaction.
</P>
<P><I>Historical monitoring data</I> means monitoring data for construction jobs that meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The data upon which judgments are based are scientifically sound and were collected using methods that are sufficiently accurate and precise;
</P>
<P>(ii) The processes and work practices that were in use when the historical monitoring data were obtained are essentially the same as those to be used during the job for which initial monitoring will not be performed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The characteristics of the MDA-containing material being handled when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which initial monitoring will not be performed;
</P>
<P>(iv) Environmental conditions prevailing when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which initial monitoring will not be performed; and
</P>
<P>(v) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exception are substantially similar. The data must be scientifically sound, the characteristics of the MDA containing material must be similar and the environmental conditions comparable.
</P>
<P><I>4,4</I>′<I>Methylenedianiline or MDA</I> means the chemical; 4,4′-diaminodiphenylmethane, Chemical Abstract Service Registry number 101-77-9, in the form of a vapor, liquid, or solid. The definition also includes the salts of MDA.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated Areas</I> means areas where airborne concentrations of MDA exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the permissible exposure limits, or where “dermal exposure to MDA” can occur.
</P>
<P><I>STEL</I> means short term exposure limit as determined by any 15-minute sample period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits.</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of MDA in excess of ten parts per billion (10 ppb) as an 8-hour time-weighted average and a STEL of one hundred parts per billion (100 ppb).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Communication among employers.</I> On multi-employer worksites, an employer performing work involving the application of MDA or materials containing MDA for which establishment of one or more regulated areas is required shall inform other employers on the site of the nature of the employer's work with MDA and of the existence of, and requirements pertaining to, regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Emergency situations</I>—(1) <I>Written plan.</I> (i) A written plan for emergency situations shall be developed for each construction operation where there is a possibility of an emergency. The plan shall include procedures where the employer identifies emergency escape routes for his employees at each construction site before the construction operation begins. Appropriate portions of the plan shall be implemented in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan shall specifically provide that employees engaged in correcting emergency conditions shall be equipped with the appropriate personal protective equipment and clothing as required in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan shall specifically include provisions for alerting and evacuating affected employees as well as the applicable elements prescribed in 29 CFR 1910.38 and 29 CFR 1910.39, “Emergency action plans” and “Fire prevention plans,” respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alerting employees.</I> Where there is the possibility of employee exposure to MDA due to an emergency, means shall be developed to promptly alert employees who have the potential to be directly exposed. Affected employees not engaged in correcting emergency conditions shall be evacuated immediately in the event that an emergency occurs. Means shall also be developed for alerting other employees who may be exposed as a result of the emergency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of each employee's exposure to airborne MDA over an eight (8) hour period. Determination of employee exposure to the STEL shall be made from breathing zone air samples collected over a 15 minute sampling period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Representative employee exposure shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing full shift exposure for each shift for each job classification in each work area where exposure to MDA may occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer can document that exposure levels are equivalent for similar operations in different work shifts, the employer shall only be required to determine representative employee exposure for that operation during one shift.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this standard shall perform initial monitoring to determine accurately the airborne concentrations of MDA to which employees may be exposed unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer can demonstrate, on the basis of objective data, that the MDA-containing product or material being handled cannot cause exposures above the standard's action level, even under worst-case release conditions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer has historical monitoring or other data demonstrating that exposures on a particular job will be below the action level.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring and monitoring frequency.</I> (i) If the monitoring required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure at or above the action level, but at or below the PELs, the employer shall repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every six (6) months.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the monitoring required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure above the PELs, the employer shall repeat such monitoring for each such employee at least every three (3) months.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers who are conducting MDA operations within a regulated area can forego periodic monitoring if the employees are all wearing supplied-air respirators while working in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer may alter the monitoring schedule from every three months to every six months for any employee for whom two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart indicate that the employee exposure has decreased to below the PELs but above the action level.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> (i) If the initial monitoring required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section reveals employee exposure to be below the action level, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for that employee, except as otherwise required by paragraph (f)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the periodic monitoring required by paragraph (f)(3) of this section reveals that employee exposures, as indicated by at least two consecutive measurements taken at least 7 days apart, are below the action level the employer may discontinue the monitoring for that employee, except as otherwise required by paragraph (f)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> The employer shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section when there has been a change in production process, chemicals present, control equipment, personnel, or work practices which may result in new or additional exposures to MDA, or when the employer has any reason to suspect a change which may result in new or additional exposures.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of monitoring.</I> Monitoring shall be accurate, to a confidence level of 95 percent, to within plus or minus 25 percent for airborne concentrations of MDA.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> (i) The employer must, as soon as possible but no later than 5 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written notification required by paragraph (f)(7)(i) of this section shall contain the corrective action being taken by the employer or any other protective measures which have been implemented to reduce the employee exposure to or below the PELs, wherever the PELs are exceeded.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Visual monitoring.</I> The employer shall make routine inspections of employee hands, face and forearms potentially exposed to MDA. Other potential dermal exposures reported by the employee must be referred to the appropriate medical personnel for observation. If the employer determines that the employee has been exposed to MDA the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the source of exposure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement protective measures to correct the hazard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain records of the corrective actions in accordance with paragraph (o) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment</I>—(i) <I>Airborne exposures.</I> The employer shall establish regulated areas where airborne concentrations of MDA exceed or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the permissible exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dermal exposures.</I> Where employees are subject to “dermal exposure to MDA” the employer shall establish those work areas as regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> Regulated areas shall be demarcated from the rest of the workplace in a manner that minimizes the number of persons potentially exposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Personal protective equipment and clothing.</I> Each person entering a regulated area shall be supplied with, and required to use, the appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering controls and work practices and respirators.</I> (i) The employer shall use one or any combination of the following control methods to achieve compliance with the permissible exposure limits prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Local exhaust ventilation equipped with HEPA filter dust collection systems;
</P>
<P>(B) General ventilation systems;
</P>
<P>(C) Use of workpractices; or
</P>
<P>(D) Other engineering controls such as isolation and enclosure that the Assistant Secretary can show to be feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever the feasible engineering controls and work practices “which can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protective devices which comply with the requirements of paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special Provisions.</I> For workers engaged in spray application methods, respiratory protection must be used in addition to feasible engineering controls and work practices to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibitions.</I> Compressed air shall not be used to remove MDA, unless the compressed air is used in conjunction with an enclosed ventilation system designed to capture the dust cloud created by the compressed air.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee rotation.</I> The employer shall not use employee rotation as a means of compliance with the exposure limits prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs by means of engineering and work practice controls, as required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section, and by use of respiratory protection where permitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon request this written program shall be furnished for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, affected employees and designated employee representatives. The employer shall review and, as necessary, update such plans at least once every 12 months to make certain they reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities and spray-application processes, for which engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which feasible engineering and work-practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PELs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134 (b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators.
</P>
<P>(C) For escape, provide employees with one of the following respirator options: Any self-contained breathing apparatus with a full facepiece or hood operated in the positive-pressure or continuous-flow mode; or a full facepiece air-purifying respirator.
</P>
<P>(D) Provide a combination HEPA filter and organic vapor canister or cartridge with air-purifying respirators when MDA is in liquid form or used as part of a process requiring heat. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee who cannot use a negative-pressure respirator must be given the option of using a positive-pressure respirator, or a supplied-air respirator operated in the continuous-flow or pressure-demand mode.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where employees are subject to dermal exposure to MDA, where liquids containing MDA can be splashed into the eyes, or where airborne concentrations of MDA are in excess of the PEL, the employer shall provide, at no cost to the employee, and ensure that the employee uses, appropriate protective work clothing and equipment which prevent contact with MDA such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Aprons, coveralls or other full-body work clothing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gloves, head coverings, and foot coverings; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields, chemical goggles; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Other appropriate protective equipment which comply with 29 CFR 1910.133.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that, at the end of their work shift, employees remove MDA-contaminated protective work clothing and equipment that is not routinely removed throughout the day in change areas provided in accordance with the provisions in paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that, during their work shift, employees remove all other MDA-contaminated protective work clothing or equipment before leaving a regulated area.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that no employee takes MDA-contaminated work clothing or equipment out of the decontamination areas, except those employees authorized to do so for the purpose of laundering, maintenance, or disposal.
</P>
<P>(iv) MDA-contaminated work clothing or equipment shall be placed and stored and transported in sealed, impermeable bags, or other closed impermeable containers.
</P>
<P>(v) Containers of MDA-contaminated protective work clothing or equipment which are to be taken out of decontamination areas or the workplace for cleaning, maintenance, or disposal, shall bear labels warning of the hazards of MDA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the employee with clean protective clothing and equipment. The employer shall ensure that protective work clothing or equipment required by this paragraph is cleaned, laundered, repaired, or replaced at intervals appropriate to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of MDA from protective work clothing or equipment by blowing, shaking, or any methods which allow MDA to re-enter the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that laundering of MDA-contaminated clothing shall be done so as to prevent the release of MDA in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any employer who gives MDA-contaminated clothing to another person for laundering shall inform such person of the requirement to prevent the release of MDA.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment contaminated with MDA of the potentially harmful effects of exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Visual Examination.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that employees' work clothing is examined periodically for rips or tears that may occur during performance of work.
</P>
<P>(ii) When rips or tears are detected, the protective equipment or clothing shall be repaired and replaced immediately.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall provide decontamination areas for employees required to work in regulated areas or required by paragraph (j)(1) of this section to wear protective clothing. <I>Exception:</I> In lieu of the decontamination area requirement specified in paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section, the employer may permit employees engaged in small scale, short duration operations, to clean their protective clothing or dispose of the protective clothing before such employees leave the area where the work was performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Change areas.</I> The employer shall ensure that change areas are equipped with separate storage facilities for protective clothing and street clothing, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.141(e).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Equipment area.</I> The equipment area shall be supplied with impermeable, labeled bags and containers for the containment and disposal of contaminated protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shower area.</I> (i) Where feasible, shower facilities shall be provided which comply with 29 CFR 1910.141(d)(3) wherever the possibility of employee exposure to airborne levels of MDA in excess of the permissible exposure limit exists.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where dermal exposure to MDA occurs, the employer shall ensure that materials spilled or deposited on the skin are removed as soon as possible by methods which do not facilitate the dermal absorption of MDA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lunch Areas.</I> (i) Whenever food or beverages are consumed at the worksite and employees are exposed to MDA the employer shall provide clean lunch areas were MDA levels are below the action level and where no dermal exposure to MDA can occur.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees wash their hands and faces with soap and water prior to eating, drinking, smoking, or applying cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that employees do not enter lunch facilities with contaminated protective work clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Communication of hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.</I> The employer shall include Methylenedianiline (MDA) in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of MDA and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of HCS and paragraph (l)(3) of this section. The employer shall ensure that at least the following hazards are addressed: Cancer; liver effects; and skin sensitization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs and labels</I>—(i) <I>Signs.</I> (A) The employer shall post and maintain legible signs demarcating regulated areas and entrances or access-ways to regulated areas that bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MDA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE LIVER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING MAY BE REQUIRED IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (l)(2)(i)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MDA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LIVER TOXIN 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING MAY BE REQUIRED TO BE WORN IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Labels.</I> (A) The employer shall ensure that labels or other appropriate forms of warning are provided for containers of MDA within the workplace. The labels shall comply with the requirements of § 1910.1200(f) and shall include at least the following information for pure MDA and mixtures containing MDA:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS MDA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE LIVER</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information workplace labels in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For Pure MDA:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS MDA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LIVER TOXIN</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For mixtures containing MDA:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS MDA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS MATERIALS WHICH MAY CAUSE CANCER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LIVER TOXIN</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall provide employees with information and training on MDA, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1200(h), at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the information required under 29 CFR 1910.1200, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide an explanation of the contents of this section, including appendices A and B of this section, and indicate to employees where a copy of the standard is available;
</P>
<P>(B) Describe the medical surveillance program required under paragraph (n) of this section, and explain the information contained in appendix C of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Describe the medical removal provision required under paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees, without cost, all written materials relating to the employee training program, including a copy of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, upon request, all information and training materials relating to the employee information and training program.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) All surfaces shall be maintained as free as practicable of visible accumulations of MDA.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall institute a program for detecting MDA leaks, spills, and discharges, including regular visual inspections of operations involving liquid or solid MDA.
</P>
<P>(3) All leaks shall be repaired and liquid or dust spills cleaned up promptly.
</P>
<P>(4) Surfaces contaminated with MDA may not be cleaned by the use of compressed air.
</P>
<P>(5) Shoveling, dry sweeping, and other methods of dry clean-up of MDA may be used where HEPA filtered vacuuming and/or wet cleaning are not feasible or practical.
</P>
<P>(6) Waste, scrap, debris, bags, containers, equipment, and clothing contaminated with MDA shall be collected and disposed of in a manner to prevent the re-entry of MDA into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make available a medical surveillance program for employees exposed to MDA under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) Employees exposed at or above the action level for 30 or more days per year;
</P>
<P>(B) Employees who are subject to dermal exposure to MDA for 15 or more days per year;
</P>
<P>(C) Employees who have been exposed in an emergency situation;
</P>
<P>(D) Employees whom the employer, based on results from compliance with paragraph (f)(8) of this section, has reason to believe are being dermally exposed; and
</P>
<P>(E) Employees who show signs or symptoms of MDA exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician at a reasonable time and place, and provided without cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examinations.</I> (i) Within 150 days of the effective date of this standard, or before the time of initial assignment, the employer shall provide each employee covered by paragraph (n)(1)(i) of this section with a medical examination including the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed history which includes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Past work exposure to MDA or any other toxic substances;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A history of drugs, alcohol, tobacco, and medication routinely taken (duration and quantity); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A history of dermatitis, chemical skin sensitization, or previous hepatic disease.
</P>
<P>(B) A physical examination which includes all routine physical examination parameters, skin examination, and examination for signs of liver disease.
</P>
<P>(C) Laboratory tests including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Liver function tests and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Urinalysis.
</P>
<P>(D) Additional tests as necessary in the opinion of the physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) No initial medical examination is required if adequate records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with the requirements of this section within the previous six months prior to the effective date of this standard or prior to the date of initial assignment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) The employer shall provide each employee covered by this section with a medical examination at least annually following the initial examination. These periodic examinations shall include at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A brief history regarding any new exposure to potential liver toxins, changes in drug, tobacco, and alcohol intake, and the appearance of physical signs relating to the liver, and the skin;
</P>
<P>(B) The appropriate tests and examinations including liver function tests and skin examinations; and
</P>
<P>(C) Appropriate additional tests or examinations as deemed necessary by the physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) If in the physician's opinion the results of liver function tests indicate an abnormality, the employee shall be removed from further MDA exposure in accordance with paragraph (n)(9) of this section. Repeat liver function tests shall be conducted on advice of the physician.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Emergency examinations.</I> If the employer determines that the employee has been exposed to a potentially hazardous amount of MDA in an emergency situation under paragraph (e) of this section, the employer shall provide medical examinations in accordance with paragraphs (n)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section. If the results of liver function testing indicate an abnormality, the employee shall be removed in accordance with paragraph (n)(9) of this section. Repeat liver function tests shall be conducted on the advice of the physician. If the results of the tests are normal, tests must be repeated two to three weeks from the initial testing. If the results of the second set of tests are normal and on the advice of the physician, no additional testing is required.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional examinations.</I> Where the employee develops signs and symptoms associated with exposure to MDA, the employer shall provide the employee with an additional medical examination including liver function tests. Repeat liver function tests shall be conducted on the advice of the physician. If the results of the tests are normal, tests must be repeated two to three weeks from the initial testing. If the results of the second set of tests are normal and on the advice of the physician, no additional testing is required.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Multiple physician review mechanism.</I> (i) If the employer selects the initial physician who conducts any medical examination or consultation provided to an employee under this section, and the employee has signs or symptoms of occupational exposure to MDA (which could include an abnormal liver function test), and the employee disagrees with the opinion of the examining physician, and this opinion could affect the employee's job status, the employee may designate an appropriate and mutually acceptable second physician:
</P>
<P>(A) To review any findings, determinations or recommendations of the initial physician; and
</P>
<P>(B) To conduct such examinations, consultations, and laboratory tests as the second physician deems necessary to facilitate this review.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall promptly notify an employee of the right to seek a second medical opinion after each occasion that an initial physician conducts a medical examination or consultation pursuant to this section. The employer may condition its participation in, and payment for, the multiple physician review mechanism upon the employee doing the following within fifteen (15) days after receipt of the foregoing notification, or receipt of the initial physician's written opinion, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee informing the employer that he or she intends to seek a second medical opinion, and
</P>
<P>(B) The employee initiating steps to make an appointment with a second physician.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the second physician differ from those of the initial physician, then the employer and the employee shall assure that efforts are made for the two physicians to resolve any disagreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the two physicians have been unable to quickly resolve their disagreement, then the employer and the employee through their respective physicians shall designate a third physician:
</P>
<P>(A) To review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the prior physicians; and
</P>
<P>(B) To conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests, and discussions with the prior physicians as the third physician deems necessary to resolve the disagreement of the prior physicians.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall act consistent with the findings, determinations, and recommendations of the second physician, unless the employer and the employee reach a mutually acceptable agreement.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Information provided to the examining physician.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of this regulation and its appendices;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's potential exposure to MDA;
</P>
<P>(C) The employee's current actual or representative MDA exposure level;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(E) Information from previous employment related medical examinations of the affected employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide the foregoing information to a second physician under this section upon request either by the second physician, or by the employee.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) For each examination under this section, the employer shall obtain, and provide the employee with a copy of, the examining physician's written opinion within 15 days of its receipt. The written opinion shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The occupationally pertinent results of the medical examination and tests;
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion concerning whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of health from exposure to MDA;
</P>
<P>(C) The physician's recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to MDA or upon the employee's use of protective clothing or equipment and respirators; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions resulting from MDA exposure which require further explanation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written opinion obtained by the employer shall not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposures.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Medical removal</I>—(i) <I>Temporary medical removal of an employee</I>—(A) <I>Temporary removal resulting from occupational exposure.</I> The employee shall be removed from work environments in which exposure to MDA is at or above the action level or where dermal exposure to MDA may occur, following an initial examination (paragraph (n)(2) of this section), periodic examinations (paragraph (n)(3) of this section), an emergency situation (paragraph (n)(4) of this section), or an additional examination (paragraph (n)(5) of this section) in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When the employee exhibits signs and/or symptoms indicative of acute exposure to MDA; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When the examining physician determines that an employee's abnormal liver function tests are not associated with MDA exposure but that the abnormalities may be exacerbated as a result of occupational exposure to MDA.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Temporary removal due to a final medical determination.</I> (<I>1</I>) The employer shall remove an employee from work having an exposure to MDA at or above the action level or where the potential for dermal exposure exists on each occasion that a final medical determination results in a medical finding, determination, or opinion that the employee has a detected medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to MDA.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For the purposes of this section, the phrase “final medical determination” shall mean the outcome of the physician review mechanism used pursuant to the medical surveillance provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where a final medical determination results in any recommended special protective measures for an employee, or limitations on an employee's exposure to MDA, the employer shall implement and act consistent with the recommendation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Return of the employee to former job status.</I> (A) The employer shall return an employee to his or her former job status:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When the employee no longer shows signs or symptoms of exposure to MDA, or upon the advice of the physician.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When a subsequent final medical determination results in a medical finding, determination, or opinion that the employee no longer has a detected medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to MDA.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer return an employee to his or her former job status is not intended to expand upon or restrict any rights an employee has or would have had, absent temporary medical removal, to a specific job classification or position under the terms of a collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Removal of other employee special protective measure or limitations.</I> The employer shall remove any limitations placed on an employee or end any special protective measures provided to an employee pursuant to a final medical determination when a subsequent final medical determination indicates that the limitations or special protective measures are no longer necessary.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Employer options pending a final medical determination.</I> Where the physician review mechanism used pursuant to the medical surveillance provisions of this section, has not yet resulted in a final medical determination with respect to an employee, the employer shall act as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Removal.</I> The employer may remove the employee from exposure to MDA, provide special protective measures to the employee, or place limitations upon the employee, consistent with the medical findings, determinations, or recommendations of the physician who has reviewed the employee's health status.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Return.</I> The employer may return the employee to his or her former job status, and end any special protective measures provided to the employee, consistent with the medical findings, determinations, or recommendations of any of the physicians who have reviewed the employee's health status, with two exceptions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the initial removal, special protection, or limitation of the employee resulted from a final medical determination which differed from the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the initial physician; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employee has been on removal status for the preceding six months as a result of exposure to MDA, then the employer shall await a final medical determination.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Medical removal protection benefits</I>—(A) <I>Provisions of medical removal protection benefits.</I> The employer shall provide to an employee up to six (6) months of medical removal protection benefits on each occasion that an employee is removed from exposure to MDA or otherwise limited pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Definition of medical removal protection benefits.</I> For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer provide medical removal protection benefits means that the employer shall maintain the earnings, seniority, and other employment rights and benefits of an employee as though the employee had not been removed from normal exposure to MDA or otherwise limited.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Follow-up medical surveillance during the period of employee removal or limitations.</I> During the period of time that an employee is removed from normal exposure to MDA or otherwise limited, the employer may condition the provision of medical removal protection benefits upon the employee's participation in follow-up medical surveillance made available pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Workers' compensation claims.</I> If a removed employee files a claim for workers' compensation payments for a MDA-related disability, then the employer shall continue to provide medical removal protection benefits pending disposition of the claim. To the extent that an award is made to the employee for earnings lost during the period of removal, the employer's medical removal protection obligation shall be reduced by such amount. The employer shall receive no credit for workers' compensation payments received by the employee for treatment-related expenses.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Other credits.</I> The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal either from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program, or receives income from employment with any employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Employees who do not recover within the 6 months of removal.</I> The employer shall take the following measures with respect to any employee removed from exposure to MDA:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The employer shall make available to the employee a medical examination pursuant to this section to obtain a final medical determination with respect to the employee;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employer shall assure that the final medical determination obtained indicates whether or not the employee may be returned to his or her former job status, and, if not, what steps should be taken to protect the employee's health;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where the final medical determination has not yet been obtained, or once obtained indicates that the employee may not yet be returned to his or her former job status, the employer shall continue to provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee until either the employee is returned to former job status, or a final medical determination is made that the employee is incapable of ever safely returning to his or her former job status; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Where the employer acts pursuant to a final medical determination which permits the return of the employee to his or her former job status despite what would otherwise be an unacceptable liver function test, later questions concerning removing the employee again shall be decided by a final medical determination. The employer need not automatically remove such an employee pursuant to the MDA removal criteria provided by this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Voluntary removal or restriction of an employee.</I> Where an employer, although not required by this section to do so, removes an employee from exposure to MDA or otherwise places limitations on an employee due to the effects of MDA exposure on the employee's medical condition, the employer shall provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee equal to that required by paragraph (n)(9)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Objective data for exempted operations.</I> (i) Where the employer has relied on objective data that demonstrate that products made from or containing MDA are not capable of releasing MDA or do not present a dermal exposure problem under the expected conditions of processing, use, or handling to exempt such operations from the initial monitoring requirements under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of objective data reasonably relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The product qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of MDA;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data support the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historical monitoring data.</I> (i) Where the employer has relied on historical monitoring data that demonstrate that exposures on a particular job will be below the action level to exempt such operations from the initial monitoring requirements under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of historical monitoring data reasonably relied upon in support of the exception.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include information that reflect the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The data upon which judgments are based are scientifically sound and were collected using methods that are sufficiently accurate and precise;
</P>
<P>(B) The processes and work practices that were in use when the historical monitoring data were obtained are essentially the same as those to be used during the job for which initial monitoring will not be performed;
</P>
<P>(C) The characteristics of the MDA-containing material being handled when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which initial monitoring will not be performed;
</P>
<P>(D) Environmental conditions prevailing when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which initial monitoring will not be performed; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exception.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such historical monitoring data.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer may utilize the services of competent organizations such as industry trade associations and employee associations to maintain the records required by this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall keep an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to MDA.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to MDA;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and exposure of the employees whose exposures are represented.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.33.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance by paragraph (n) of this section, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.33.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the employee's medical examination results, including the medical history, questionnaire responses, results of any tests, and physician's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(C) Physician's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(D) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to MDA; and
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that this record is maintained for the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.33.
</P>
<P>(iv) A copy of the employee's medical removal and return to work status.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Training records.</I> The employer shall maintain all employee training records for one (1) year beyond the last date of employment.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer, upon written request, shall make all records required to be maintained by this section available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer, upon request, shall make any exposure records required by paragraphs (f) and (n) of this section available for examination and copying to affected employees, former employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.33(a)-(e) and (g)-(i).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer, upon request, shall make employee medical records required by paragraphs (n) and (o) of this section available for examination and copying to the subject employee, anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee, and the Assistant Secretary, in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.33.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer shall comply with the requirements concerning transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees, or their designated representatives, an opportunity to observe the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to MDA conducted pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of the measuring or monitoring of employee exposure to MDA requires entry into areas where the use of protective clothing and equipment or respirators is required, the employer shall provide the observer with personal protective clothing and equipment or respirators required to be worn by employees working in the area, assure the use of such clothing and equipment or respirators, and require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in appendices A, B, C, and D of this section is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed by this standard nor detract from any existing obligation. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1926.60—Substance Data Sheet, for 4-4′ Methylenedianiline
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix A are identical to those set forth in appendix A to § 1910.1050 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1926.60—Substance Technical Guidelines, MDA
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix B are identical to those set forth in appendix B to § 1910.1050 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1926.60—Medical Surveillance Guidelines for MDA
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix C are identical to those set forth in appendix C to § 1910.1050 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1926.60—Sampling and Analytical Methods for MDA Monitoring and Measurement Procedures
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix D are identical to those set forth in appendix D to § 1910.1050 of this chapter.</P></NOTE></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 35681, Aug. 10, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 49649, Nov. 3, 1992; 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 61 FR 31431, June 20, 1996; 63 FR 1296, Jan. 8, 1998; 69 FR 70373, Dec. 6, 2004; 70 FR 1143, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50191, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75588, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33611, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17889, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.61" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.61   Retention of DOT markings, placards and labels.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1201 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.62" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.62   Lead.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all construction work where an employee may be occupationally exposed to lead. All construction work excluded from coverage in the general industry standard for lead by 29 CFR 1910.1025(a)(2) is covered by this standard. Construction work is defined as work for construction, alteration and/or repair, including painting and decorating. It includes but is not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Demolition or salvage of structures where lead or materials containing lead are present;
</P>
<P>(2) Removal or encapsulation of materials containing lead;
</P>
<P>(3) New construction, alteration, repair, or renovation of structures, substrates, or portions thereof, that contain lead, or materials containing lead;
</P>
<P>(4) Installation of products containing lead;
</P>
<P>(5) Lead contamination/emergency cleanup;
</P>
<P>(6) Transportation, disposal, storage, or containment of lead or materials containing lead on the site or location at which construction activities are performed, and
</P>
<P>(7) Maintenance operations associated with the construction activities described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means employee exposure, without regard to the use of respirators, to an airborne concentration of lead of 30 micrograms per cubic meter of air (30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable lead hazards in the surroundings or working conditions and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Lead</I> means metallic lead, all inorganic lead compounds, and organic lead soaps. Excluded from this definition are all other organic lead compounds.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to lead at concentrations greater than fifty micrograms per cubic meter of air (50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) averaged over an 8-hour period.
</P>
<P>(2) If an employee is exposed to lead for more than 8 hours in any work day the employees' allowable exposure, as a time weighted average (TWA) for that day, shall be reduced according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>Allowable employee exposure (in µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) = 400 divided by hours worked in the day.
</FP-2>
<P>(3) When respirators are used to limit employee exposure as required under paragraph (c) of this section and all the requirements of paragraphs (e)(1) and (f) of this section have been met, employee exposure may be considered to be at the level provided by the protection factor of the respirator for those periods the respirator is worn. Those periods may be averaged with exposure levels during periods when respirators are not worn to determine the employee's daily TWA exposure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure assessment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or operation covered by this standard shall initially determine if any employee may be exposed to lead at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P>(iii) With the exception of monitoring under paragraph (d)(3), where monitoring is required under this section, the employer shall collect personal samples representative of a full shift including at least one sample for each job classification in each work area either for each shift or for the shift with the highest exposure level.
</P>
<P>(iv) Full shift personal samples shall be representative of the monitored employee's regular, daily exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection of employees during assessment of exposure.</I> (i) With respect to the lead related tasks listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, where lead is present, until the employer performs an employee exposure assessment as required in paragraph (d) of this section and documents that the employee performing any of the listed tasks is not exposed above the PEL, the employer shall treat the employee as if the employee were exposed above the PEL, and not in excess of ten (10) times the PEL, and shall implement employee protective measures prescribed in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section. The tasks covered by this requirement are:
</P>
<P>(A) Where lead containing coatings or paint are present: Manual demolition of structures (e.g, dry wall), manual scraping, manual sanding, heat gun applications, and power tool cleaning with dust collection systems;
</P>
<P>(B) Spray painting with lead paint.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, with regard to tasks not listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i), where the employee has any reason to believe that an employee performing the task may be exposed to lead in excess of the PEL, until the employer performs an employee exposure assessment as required by paragraph (d) of this section and documents that the employee's lead exposure is not above the PEL the employer shall treat the employee as if the employee were exposed above the PEL and shall implememt employee protective measures as prescribed in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to the tasks listed in this paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, where lead is present, until the employer performs an employee exposure assessment as required in this paragraph (d), and documents that the employee performing any of the listed tasks is not exposed in excess of 500 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, the employer shall treat the employee as if the employee were exposed to lead in excess of 500 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> and shall implement employee protective measures as prescribed in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section. Where the employer does establish that the employee is exposed to levels of lead below 500 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, the employer may provide the exposed employee with the appropriate respirator prescribed for such use at such lower exposures, in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. The tasks covered by this requirement are:
</P>
<P>(A) Using lead containing mortar; lead burning
</P>
<P>(B) Where lead containing coatings or paint are present: rivet busting; power tool cleaning without dust collection systems; cleanup activities where dry expendable abrasives are used; and abrasive blasting enclosure movement and removal.


</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to the tasks listed in this paragraph (d)(2)(iv), where lead is present, until the employer performs an employee exposure assessment as required in this paragraph (d) and documents that the employee performing any of the listed tasks is not exposed to lead in excess of 2,500 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (50×PEL), the employer shall treat the employee as if the employee were exposed to lead in excess of 2,500 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> and shall implement employee protective measures as prescribed in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section. Where the employer does establish that the employee is exposed to levels of lead below 2,500 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, the employer may provide the exposed employee with the appropriate respirator prescribed for use at such lower exposures, in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. Interim protection as described in this paragraph is required where lead containing coatings or paint are present on structures when performing:
</P>
<P>(A) Abrasive blasting,
</P>
<P>(B) Welding,
</P>
<P>(C) Cutting, and
</P>
<P>(D) Torch burning.






</P>
<P>(v) Until the employer performs an employee exposure assessment as required under paragraph (d) of this section and determines actual employee exposure, the employer shall provide to employees performing the tasks described in paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii), (d)(2)(iii), and (d)(2)(iv) of this section with interim protection as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Appropriate respiratory protection in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Change areas in accordance with paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Hand washing facilities in accordance with paragraph (i)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) Biological monitoring in accordance with paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section, to consist of blood sampling and analysis for lead and zinc protoporphyrin levels, and
</P>
<P>(F) Training as required under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section regarding 29 CFR 1926.59, Hazard Communication; training as required under paragraph (1)(2)(iii) of this section, regarding use of respirators; and training in accordance with 29 CFR 1926.21, Safety training and education. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Basis of initial determination.</I> (i) Except as provided under paragraphs (d)(3)(iii) and (d)(3)(iv) of this section the employer shall monitor employee exposures and shall base initial determinations on the employee exposure monitoring results and any of the following, relevant considerations:
</P>
<P>(A) Any information, observations, or calculations which would indicate employee exposure to lead;
</P>
<P>(B) Any previous measurements of airborne lead; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any employee complaints of symptoms which may be attributable to exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitoring for the initial determination where performed may be limited to a representative sample of the exposed employees who the employer reasonably believes are exposed to the greatest airborne concentrations of lead in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer has previously monitored for lead exposures, and the data were obtained within the past 12 months during work operations conducted under workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, type of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions used and prevailing in the employer's current operations, the employer may rely on such earlier monitoring results to satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (d)(6) of this section if the sampling and analytical methods meet the accuracy and confidence levels of paragraph (d)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where the employer has objective data, demonstrating that a particular product or material containing lead or a specific process, operation or activity involving lead cannot result in employee exposure to lead at or above the action level during processing, use, or handling, the employer may rely upon such data instead of implementing initial monitoring.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record documenting the nature and relevancy of objective data as specified in paragraph (n)(4) of this section, where used in assessing employee exposure in lieu of exposure monitoring.
</P>
<P>(B) Objective data, as described in paragraph (d)(3)(iv) of this section, is not permitted to be used for exposure assessment in connection with paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Positive initial determination and initial monitoring.</I> (i) Where a determination conducted under paragraphs (d) (1), (2) and (3) of this section shows the possibility of any employee exposure at or above the action level the employer shall conduct monitoring which is representative of the exposure for each employee in the workplace who is exposed to lead.




</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer has previously monitored for lead exposure, and the data were obtained within the past 12 months during work operations conducted under workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, type of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions used and prevailing in the employer's current operations, the employer may rely on such earlier monitoring results to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section if the sampling and analytical methods meet the accuracy and confidence levels of paragraph (d)(9) of this section.




</P>
<P>(5) <I>Negative initial determination.</I> Where a determination, conducted under paragraphs (d) (1), (2), and (3) of this section is made that no employee is exposed to airborne concentrations of lead at or above the action level the employer shall make a written record of such determination. The record shall include at least the information specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section and shall also include the date of determination, location within the worksite, and the name of each employee monitored.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Frequency.</I> (i) If the initial determination reveals employee exposure to be below the action level further exposure determination need not be repeated except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the initial determination or subsequent determination reveals employee exposure to be at or above the action level but at or below the PEL the employer shall perform monitoring in accordance with this paragraph at least every 6 months. The employer shall continue monitoring at the required frequency until at least two consecutive measurements, taken at least 7 days apart, are below the action level at which time the employer may discontinue monitoring for that employee except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the initial determination reveals that employee exposure is above the PEL the employer shall perform monitoring quarterly. The employer shall continue monitoring at the required frequency until at least two consecutive measurements, taken at least 7 days apart, are at or below the PEL but at or above the action level at which time the employer shall repeat monitoring for that employee at the frequency specified in paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(7) of this section. The employer shall continue monitoring at the required frequency until at least two consecutive measurements, taken at least 7 days apart, are below the action level at which time the employer may discontinue monitoring for that employee except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Additional exposure assessments.</I> Whenever there has been a change of equipment, process, control, personnel or a new task has been initiated that may result in additional employees being exposed to lead at or above the action level or may result in employees already exposed at or above the action level being exposed above the PEL, the employer shall conduct additional monitoring in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) The employer must, as soon as possible but no later than 5 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the results indicate that the representative employee exposure, without regard to respirators, is at or above the PEL the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that the employees exposure was at or above that level and a description of the corrective action taken or to be taken to reduce exposure to below that level.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> The employer shall use a method of monitoring and analysis which has an accuracy (to a confidence level of 95%) of not less than plus or minus 25 percent for airborne concentrations of lead equal to or greater than 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> The employer shall implement engineering and work practice controls, including administrative controls, to reduce and maintain employee exposure to lead to or below the permissible exposure limit to the extent that such controls are feasible. Wherever all feasible engineering and work practices controls that can be instituted are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest feasible level and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Prior to commencement of the job each employer shall establish and implement a written compliance program to achieve compliance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Written plans for these compliance programs shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each activity in which lead is emitted; e.g. equipment used, material involved, controls in place, crew size, employee job responsibilities, operating procedures and maintenance practices;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the specific means that will be employed to achieve compliance and, where engineering controls are required engineering plans and studies used to determine methods selected for controlling exposure to lead;
</P>
<P>(C) A report of the technology considered in meeting the PEL;
</P>
<P>(D) Air monitoring data which documents the source of lead emissions;
</P>
<P>(E) A detailed schedule for implementation of the program, including documentation such as copies of purchase orders for equipment, construction contracts, etc.;
</P>
<P>(F) A work practice program which includes items required under paragraphs (g), (h) and (i) of this section and incorporates other relevant work practices such as those specified in paragraph (e)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) An administrative control schedule required by paragraph (e)(4) of this section, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(H) A description of arrangements made among contractors on multi-contractor sites with respect to informing affected employees of potential exposure to lead and with respect to responsibility for compliance with this section as set-forth in § 1926.16.
</P>
<P>(I) Other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The compliance program shall provide for frequent and regular inspections of job sites, materials, and equipment to be made by a competent person.
</P>
<P>(iv) Written programs shall be submitted upon request to any affected employee or authorized employee representatives, to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(v) Written programs must be revised and updated at least annually to reflect the current status of the program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mechanical ventilation.</I> When ventilation is used to control lead exposure, the employer shall evaluate the mechanical performance of the system in controlling exposure as necessary to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Administrative controls.</I> If administrative controls are used as a means of reducing employees TWA exposure to lead, the employer shall establish and implement a job rotation schedule which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Name or identification number of each affected employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Duration and exposure levels at each job or work station where each affected employee is located; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information which may be useful in assessing the reliability of administrative controls to reduce exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer shall ensure that, to the extent relevant, employees follow good work practices such as described in appendix B of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods when an employee's exposure to lead exceeds the PEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations for which engineering and work-practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(iii) Periods when an employee requests a respirator.
</P>
<P>(iv) Periods when respirators are required to provide interim protection of employees while they perform the operations specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134(b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employee has breathing difficulty during fit testing or respirator use, the employer must provide the employee with a medical examination in accordance with paragraph (j)(3)(i)(B) of this section to determine whether or not the employee can use a respirator while performing the required duty.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide employees with a full facepiece respirator instead of a half mask respirator for protection against lead aerosols that may cause eye or skin irritation at the use concentrations.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must provide a powered air-purifying respirator when an employee chooses to use such a respirator and it will provide adequate protection to the employee.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where an employee is exposed to lead above the PEL without regard to the use of respirators, where employees are exposed to lead compounds which may cause skin or eye irritation (e.g. lead arsenate, lead azide), and as interim protection for employees performing tasks as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the employer shall provide at no cost to the employee and assure that the employee uses appropriate protective work clothing and equipment that prevents contamination of the employee and the employee's garments such as, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Coveralls or similar full-body work clothing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gloves, hats, and shoes or disposable shoe coverlets; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields, vented goggles, or other appropriate protective equipment which complies with § 1910.133 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the protective clothing required in paragraph (g)(1) of this section in a clean and dry condition at least weekly, and daily to employees whose exposure levels without regard to a respirator are over 200 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> of lead as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide for the cleaning, laundering, and disposal of protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall repair or replace required protective clothing and equipment as needed to maintain their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that all protective clothing is removed at the completion of a work shift only in change areas provided for that purpose as prescribed in paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall assure that contaminated protective clothing which is to be cleaned, laundered, or disposed of, is placed in a closed container in the change area which prevents dispersion of lead outside the container.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall inform in writing any person who cleans or launders protective clothing or equipment of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(vii)(A) The employer shall ensure that the containers of contaminated protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (g)(2)(v) of this section are labeled as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER: CLOTHING AND EQUIPMENT CONTAMINATED WITH LEAD. MAY DAMAGE FERTILITY OR THE UNBORN CHILD. CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM. DO NOT EAT, DRINK OR SMOKE WHEN HANDLING. DO NOT REMOVE DUST BY BLOWING OR SHAKING. DISPOSE OF LEAD CONTAMINATED WASH WATER IN ACCORDANCE WITH APPLICABLE LOCAL, STATE, OR FEDERAL REGULATIONS.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on bags or containers of contaminated protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (g)(2)(v) in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraph (g)(2)(vii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Caution: Clothing contaminated with lead. Do not remove dust by blowing or shaking. Dispose of lead contaminated wash water in accordance with applicable local, state, or federal regulations.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(viii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of lead from protective clothing or equipment by blowing, shaking, or any other means which disperses lead into the air.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) All surfaces shall be maintained as free as practicable of accumulations of lead.
</P>
<P>(2) Clean-up of floors and other surfaces where lead accumulates shall wherever possible, be cleaned by vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of lead becoming airborne.
</P>
<P>(3) Shoveling, dry or wet sweeping, and brushing may be used only where vacuuming or other equally effective methods have been tried and found not to be effective.
</P>
<P>(4) Where vacuuming methods are selected, the vacuums shall be equipped with HEPA filters and used and emptied in a manner which minimizes the reentry of lead into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(5) Compressed air shall not be used to remove lead from any surface unless the compressed air is used in conjunction with a ventilation system designed to capture the airborne dust created by the compressed air.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices.</I> (1) The employer shall assure that in areas where employees are exposed to lead above the PEL without regard to the use of respirators, food or beverage is not present or consumed, tobacco products are not present or used, and cosmetics are not applied.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change areas.</I> (i) The employer shall provide clean change areas for employees whose airborne exposure to lead is above the PEL, and as interim protection for employees performing tasks as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, without regard to the use of respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that change areas are equipped with separate storage facilities for protective work clothing and equipment and for street clothes which prevent cross-contamination.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that employees do not leave the workplace wearing any protective clothing or equipment that is required to be worn during the work shift.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer shall provide shower facilities, where feasible, for use by employees whose airborne exposure to lead is above the PEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure, where shower facilities are available, that employees shower at the end of the work shift and shall provide an adequate supply of cleansing agents and towels for use by affected employees.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eating facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall provide lunchroom facilities or eating areas for employees whose airborne exposure to lead is above the PEL, without regard to the use of respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that lunchroom facilities or eating areas are as free as practicable from lead contamination and are readily accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that employees whose airborne exposure to lead is above the PEL, without regard to the use of a respirator, wash their hands and face prior to eating, drinking, smoking or applying cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that employees do not enter lunchroom facilities or eating areas with protective work clothing or equipment unless surface lead dust has been removed by vacuuming, downdraft booth, or other cleaning method that limits dispersion of lead dust.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hand washing facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall provide adequate handwashing facilities for use by employees exposed to lead in accordance with 29 CFR 1926.51(f).
</P>
<P>(ii) Where showers are not provided the employer shall assure that employees wash their hands and face at the end of the work-shift.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make available initial medical surveillance to employees occupationally exposed on any day to lead at or above the action level. Initial medical surveillance consists of biological monitoring in the form of blood sampling and analysis for lead and zinc protoporphyrin levels.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program in accordance with paragraphs (j)(2) and (j)(3) of this section for all employees who are or may be exposed by the employer at or above the action level for more than 30 days in any consecutive 12 months;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall make available the required medical surveillance including multiple physician review under paragraph (j)(3)(iii) without cost to employees and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Biological monitoring</I>—(i) <I>Blood lead and ZPP level sampling and analysis.</I> The employer shall make available biological monitoring in the form of blood sampling and analysis for lead and zinc protoporphyrin levels to each employee covered under paragraphs (j)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section on the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(A) For each employee covered under paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section, at least every 2 months for the first 6 months and every 6 months thereafter;
</P>
<P>(B) For each employee covered under paragraphs (j)(1) (i) or (ii) of this section whose last blood sampling and analysis indicated a blood lead level at or above 40 µg/dl, at least every two months. This frequency shall continue until two consecutive blood samples and analyses indicate a blood lead level below 40 µg/dl; and
</P>
<P>(C) For each employee who is removed from exposure to lead due to an elevated blood lead level at least monthly during the removal period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Follow-up blood sampling tests.</I> Whenever the results of a blood lead level test indicate that an employee's blood lead level is at or above the numerical criterion for medical removal under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section, the employer shall provide a second (follow-up) blood sampling test within two weeks after the employer receives the results of the first blood sampling test.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accuracy of blood lead level sampling and analysis.</I> Blood lead level sampling and analysis provided pursuant to this section shall have an accuracy (to a confidence level of 95 percent) within plus or minus 15 percent or 6 µg/dl, whichever is greater, and shall be conducted by a laboratory approved by OSHA.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Employee notification.</I> (A) Within five working days after the receipt of biological monitoring results, the employer shall notify each employee in writing of his or her blood lead level; and
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall notify each employee whose blood lead level is at or above 40 µg/dl that the standard requires temporary medical removal with Medical Removal Protection benefits when an employee's blood lead level is at or above the numerical criterion for medical removal under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical examinations and consultations</I>—(i) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer shall make available medical examinations and consultations to each employee covered under paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section on the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(A) At least annually for each employee for whom a blood sampling test conducted at any time during the preceding 12 months indicated a blood lead level at or above 40 µg/dl;
</P>
<P>(B) As soon as possible, upon notification by an employee either that the employee has developed signs or symptoms commonly associated with lead intoxication, that the employee desires medical advice concerning the effects of current or past exposure to lead on the employee's ability to procreate a healthy child, that the employee is pregnant, or that the employee has demonstrated difficulty in breathing during a respirator fitting test or during use; and
</P>
<P>(C) As medically appropriate for each employee either removed from exposure to lead due to a risk of sustaining material impairment to health, or otherwise limited pursuant to a final medical determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content.</I> The content of medical examinations made available pursuant to paragraph (j)(3)(i)(B)-(C) of this section shall be determined by an examining physician and, if requested by an employee, shall include pregnancy testing or laboratory evaluation of male fertility. Medical examinations made available pursuant to paragraph (j)(3)(i)(A) of this section shall include the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed work history and a medical history, with particular attention to past lead exposure (occupational and non-occupational), personal habits (smoking, hygiene), and past gastrointestinal, hematologic, renal, cardiovascular, reproductive and neurological problems;
</P>
<P>(B) A thorough physical examination, with particular attention to teeth, gums, hematologic, gastrointestinal, renal, cardiovascular, and neurological systems. Pulmonary status should be evaluated if respiratory protection will be used;
</P>
<P>(C) A blood pressure measurement;
</P>
<P>(D) A blood sample and analysis which determines:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Blood lead level;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Hemoglobin and hematocrit determinations, red cell indices, and examination of peripheral smear morphology;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Zinc protoporphyrin;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Blood urea nitrogen; and,
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Serum creatinine;
</P>
<P>(E) A routine urinalysis with microscopic examination; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any laboratory or other test relevant to lead exposure which the examining physician deems necessary by sound medical practice.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple physician review mechanism.</I> (A) If the employer selects the initial physician who conducts any medical examination or consultation provided to an employee under this section, the employee may designate a second physician:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) To review any findings, determinations or recommendations of the initial physician; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To conduct such examinations, consultations, and laboratory tests as the second physician deems necessary to facilitate this review.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall promptly notify an employee of the right to seek a second medical opinion after each occasion that an initial physician conducts a medical examination or consultation pursuant to this section. The employer may condition its participation in, and payment for, the multiple physician review mechanism upon the employee doing the following within fifteen (15) days after receipt of the foregoing notification, or receipt of the initial physician's written opinion, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The employee informing the employer that he or she intends to seek a second medical opinion, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The employee initiating steps to make an appointment with a second physician.
</P>
<P>(C) If the findings, determinations or recommendations of the second physician differ from those of the initial physician, then the employer and the employee shall assure that efforts are made for the two physicians to resolve any disagreement.
</P>
<P>(D) If the two physicians have been unable to quickly resolve their disagreement, then the employer and the employee through their respective physicians shall designate a third physician:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) To review any findings, determinations or recommendations of the prior physicians; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests and discussions with the prior physicians as the third physician deems necessary to resolve the disagreement of the prior physicians.
</P>
<P>(E) The employer shall act consistent with the findings, determinations and recommendations of the third physician, unless the employer and the employee reach an agreement which is otherwise consistent with the recommendations of at least one of the three physicians.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Information provided to examining and consulting physicians.</I> (A) The employer shall provide an initial physician conducting a medical examination or consultation under this section with the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A copy of this regulation for lead including all Appendices;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The employee's exposure level or anticipated exposure level to lead and to any other toxic substance (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Prior blood lead determinations; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) All prior written medical opinions concerning the employee in the employer's possession or control.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall provide the foregoing information to a second or third physician conducting a medical examination or consultation under this section upon request either by the second or third physician, or by the employee.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Written medical opinions.</I> (A) The employer shall obtain and furnish the employee with a copy of a written medical opinion from each examining or consulting physician which contains only the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from exposure to lead;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any recommended special protective measures to be provided to the employee, or limitations to be placed upon the employee's exposure to lead;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any recommended limitation upon the employee's use of respirators, including a determination of whether the employee can wear a powered air purifying respirator if a physician determines that the employee cannot wear a negative pressure respirator; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The results of the blood lead determinations.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall instruct each examining and consulting physician to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Not reveal either in the written opinion or orally, or in any other means of communication with the employer, findings, including laboratory results, or diagnoses unrelated to an employee's occupational exposure to lead; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Advise the employee of any medical condition, occupational or nonoccupational, which dictates further medical examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Alternate physician determination mechanisms.</I> The employer and an employee or authorized employee representative may agree upon the use of any alternate physician determination mechanism in lieu of the multiple physician review mechanism provided by paragraph (j)(3)(iii) of this section so long as the alternate mechanism is as expeditious and protective as the requirements contained in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Chelation.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that any person whom he retains, employs, supervises or controls does not engage in prophylactic chelation of any employee at any time.
</P>
<P>(ii) If therapeutic or diagnostic chelation is to be performed by any person in paragraph (j)(4)(i) of this section, the employer shall assure that it be done under the supervision of a licensed physician in a clinical setting with thorough and appropriate medical monitoring and that the employee is notified in writing prior to its occurrence.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical removal protection</I>—(1) <I>Temporary medical removal and return of an employee</I>—(i) <I>Temporary removal due to elevated blood lead level.</I> The employer shall remove an employee from work having an exposure to lead at or above the action level on each occasion that a periodic and a follow-up blood sampling test conducted pursuant to this section indicate that the employee's blood lead level is at or above 50 µg/dl; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Temporary removal due to a final medical determination.</I> (A) The employer shall remove an employee from work having an exposure to lead at or above the action level on each occasion that a final medical determination results in a medical finding, determination, or opinion that the employee has a detected medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purposes of this section, the phrase <I>final medical determination</I> means the written medical opinion on the employees' health status by the examining physician or, where relevant, the outcome of the multiple physician review mechanism or alternate medical determination mechanism used pursuant to the medical surveillance provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Where a final medical determination results in any recommended special protective measures for an employee, or limitations on an employee's exposure to lead, the employer shall implement and act consistent with the recommendation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Return of the employee to former job status.</I> (A) The employer shall return an employee to his or her former job status:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For an employee removed due to a blood lead level at or above 50 µg/dl when two consecutive blood sampling tests indicate that the employee's blood lead level is below 40 µg/dl;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For an employee removed due to a final medical determination, when a subsequent final medical determination results in a medical finding, determination, or opinion that the employee no longer has a detected medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer return an employee to his or her former job status is not intended to expand upon or restrict any rights an employee has or would have had, absent temporary medical removal, to a specific job classification or position under the terms of a collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Removal of other employee special protective measure or limitations.</I> The employer shall remove any limitations placed on an employee or end any special protective measures provided to an employee pursuant to a final medical determination when a subsequent final medical determination indicates that the limitations or special protective measures are no longer necessary.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Employer options pending a final medical determination.</I> Where the multiple physician review mechanism, or alternate medical determination mechanism used pursuant to the medical surveillance provisions of this section, has not yet resulted in a final medical determination with respect to an employee, the employer shall act as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Removal.</I> The employer may remove the employee from exposure to lead, provide special protective measures to the employee, or place limitations upon the employee, consistent with the medical findings, determinations, or recommendations of any of the physicians who have reviewed the employee's health status.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Return.</I> The employer may return the employee to his or her former job status, end any special protective measures provided to the employee, and remove any limitations placed upon the employee, consistent with the medical findings, determinations, or recommendations of any of the physicians who have reviewed the employee's health status, with two exceptions.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the initial removal, special protection, or limitation of the employee resulted from a final medical determination which differed from the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the initial physician or;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the employee has been on removal status for the preceding eighteen months due to an elevated blood lead level, then the employer shall await a final medical determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical removal protection benefits</I>—(i) <I>Provision of medical removal protection benefits.</I> The employer shall provide an employee up to eighteen (18) months of medical removal protection benefits on each occasion that an employee is removed from exposure to lead or otherwise limited pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Definition of medical removal protection benefits.</I> For the purposes of this section, the requirement that an employer provide medical removal protection benefits means that, as long as the job the employee was removed from continues, the employer shall maintain the total normal earnings, seniority and other employment rights and benefits of an employee, including the employee's right to his or her former job status as though the employee had not been medically removed from the employee's job or otherwise medically limited.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Follow-up medical surveillance during the period of employee removal or limitation.</I> During the period of time that an employee is medically removed from his or her job or otherwise medically limited, the employer may condition the provision of medical removal protection benefits upon the employee's participation in follow-up medical surveillance made available pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Workers' compensation claims.</I> If a removed employee files a claim for workers' compensation payments for a lead-related disability, then the employer shall continue to provide medical removal protection benefits pending disposition of the claim. To the extent that an award is made to the employee for earnings lost during the period of removal, the employer's medical removal protection obligation shall be reduced by such amount. The employer shall receive no credit for workers' compensation payments received by the employee for treatment- related expenses.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other credits.</I> The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal either from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program, or receives income from employment with another employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Voluntary removal or restriction of an employee.</I> Where an employer, although not required by this section to do so, removes an employee from exposure to lead or otherwise places limitations on an employee due to the effects of lead exposure on the employee's medical condition, the employer shall provide medical removal protection benefits to the employee equal to that required by paragraph (k)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Hazard communication.</I> The employer shall include lead in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of lead and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of HCS and paragraph (l) of this section. The employer shall ensure that at least the following hazards are addressed:
</P>
<P>(A) Reproductive/developmental toxicity;
</P>
<P>(B) Central nervous system effects;
</P>
<P>(C) Kidney effects;
</P>
<P>(D) Blood effects; and
</P>
<P>(E) Acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall train each employee who is subject to exposure to lead at or above the action level on any day, or who is subject to exposure to lead compounds which may cause skin or eye irritation (<I>e.g.</I>, lead arsenate, lead azide), in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide the training program as initial training prior to the time of job assignment or prior to the start up date for this requirement, whichever comes last.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall also provide the training program at least annually for each employee who is subject to lead exposure at or above the action level on any day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training program.</I> The employer shall assure that each employee is trained in the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The content of this standard and its appendices;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific nature of the operations which could result in exposure to lead above the action level;
</P>
<P>(iii) The purpose, proper selection, fitting, use, and limitations of respirators;
</P>
<P>(iv) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program, and the medical removal protection program including information concerning the adverse health effects associated with excessive exposure to lead (with particular attention to the adverse reproductive effects on both males and females and hazards to the fetus and additional precautions for employees who are pregnant);
</P>
<P>(v) The engineering controls and work practices associated with the employee's job assignment including training of employees to follow relevant good work practices described in appendix B of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) The contents of any compliance plan in effect;
</P>
<P>(vii) Instructions to employees that chelating agents should not routinely be used to remove lead from their bodies and should not be used at all except under the direction of a licensed physician; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The employee's right of access to records under 29 CFR 1910.20.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access to information and training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees a copy of this standard and its appendices.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to affected employees and their designated representatives, and to the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Signs</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall post the following warning signs in each work area where an employee's exposure to lead is above the PEL.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEAD WORK AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY DAMAGE FERTILITY OR THE UNBORN CHILD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT EAT, DRINK OR SMOKE IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that no statement appears on or near any sign required by this paragraph (m) that contradicts or detracts from the meaning of the required sign.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that signs required by this paragraph (m) are illuminated and cleaned as necessary so that the legend is readily visible.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer may use signs required by other statutes, regulations or ordinances in addition to, or in combination with, signs required by this paragraph (m).
</P>
<P>(v) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (m)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>WARNING 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEAD WORK AREA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>POISON 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NO SMOKING OR EATING</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure assessment.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all monitoring and other data used in conducting employee exposure assessments as required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exposure monitoring records shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The date(s), number, duration, location and results of each of the samples taken if any, including a description of the sampling procedure used to determine representative employee exposure where applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(C) The type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any;
</P>
<P>(D) Name and job classification of the employee monitored and of all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent; and
</P>
<P>(E) The environmental variables that could affect the measurement of employee exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain monitoring and other exposure assessment records in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.33.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance as required by paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and description of the duties of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the physician's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) Results of any airborne exposure monitoring done on or for that employee and provided to the physician; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall keep, or assure that the examining physician keeps, the following medical records:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the medical examination results including medical and work history required under paragraph (j) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the laboratory procedures and a copy of any standards or guidelines used to interpret the test results or references to that information;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the results of biological monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall maintain or assure that the physician maintains medical records in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.33.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical removals.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee removed from current exposure to lead pursuant to paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each record shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of each occasion that the employee was removed from current exposure to lead as well as the corresponding date on which the employee was returned to his or her former job status;
</P>
<P>(C) A brief explanation of how each removal was or is being accomplished; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement with respect to each removal indicating whether or not the reason for the removal was an elevated blood lead level.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain each medical removal record for at least the duration of an employee's employment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Objective data for exemption from requirement for initial monitoring.</I> (i) For purposes of this section, objective data are information demonstrating that a particular product or material containing lead or a specific process, operation, or activity involving lead cannot release dust or fumes in concentrations at or above the action level under any expected conditions of use. Objective data can be obtained from an industry-wide study or from laboratory product test results from manufacturers of lead containing products or materials. The data the employer uses from an industry-wide survey must be obtained under workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall maintain the record of the objective data relied upon for at least 30 years.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Availability.</I> The employer shall make available upon request all records required to be maintained by paragraph (n) of this section to affected employees, former employees, and their designated representatives, and to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (i) Whenever the employer ceases to do business, the successor employer shall receive and retain all records required to be maintained by paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall also comply with any additional requirements involving the transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to lead conducted pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> (i) Whenever observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to lead requires entry into an area where the use of respirators, protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with and assure the use of such respirators, clothing and equipment, and shall require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without interfering with the monitoring, observers shall be entitled to:
</P>
<P>(A) Receive an explanation of the measurement procedures;
</P>
<P>(B) Observe all steps related to the monitoring of lead performed at the place of exposure; and
</P>
<P>(C) Record the results obtained or receive copies of the results when returned by the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices to this section is not intended by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed by this standard nor detract from any existing obligation.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1926.62—Substance Data Sheet for Occupational Exposure to Lead
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Substance Identification
</HD2>
<P>A. <I>Substance:</I> Pure lead (Pb) is a heavy metal at room temperature and pressure and is a basic chemical element. It can combine with various other substances to form numerous lead compounds.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Compounds covered by the standard:</I> The word <I>lead</I> when used in this interim final standard means elemental lead, all inorganic lead compounds and a class of organic lead compounds called lead soaps. This standard does not apply to other organic lead compounds.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Uses:</I> Exposure to lead occurs in several different occupations in the construction industry, including demolition or salvage of structures where lead or lead-containing materials are present; removal or encapsulation of lead-containing materials, new construction, alteration, repair, or renovation of structures that contain lead or materials containing lead; installation of products containing lead. In addition, there are construction related activities where exposure to lead may occur, including transportation, disposal, storage, or containment of lead or materials containing lead on construction sites, and maintenance operations associated with construction activities.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Permissible exposure:</I> The permissible exposure limit (PEL) set by the standard is 50 micrograms of lead per cubic meter of air (50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), averaged over an 8-hour workday.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Action level:</I> The interim final standard establishes an action level of 30 micrograms of lead per cubic meter of air (30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), averaged over an 8-hour workday. The action level triggers several ancillary provisions of the standard such as exposure monitoring, medical surveillance, and training.
</P>
<HD2>II. Health Hazard Data
</HD2>
<P>A. <I>Ways in which lead enters your body.</I> When absorbed into your body in certain doses, lead is a toxic substance. The object of the lead standard is to prevent absorption of harmful quantities of lead. The standard is intended to protect you not only from the immediate toxic effects of lead, but also from the serious toxic effects that may not become apparent until years of exposure have passed. Lead can be absorbed into your body by inhalation (breathing) and ingestion (eating). Lead (except for certain organic lead compounds not covered by the standard, such as tetraethyl lead) is not absorbed through your skin. When lead is scattered in the air as a dust, fume respiratory tract. Inhalation of airborne lead is generally the most important source of occupational lead absorption. You can also absorb lead through your digestive system if lead gets into your mouth and is swallowed. If you handle food, cigarettes, chewing tobacco, or make-up which have lead on them or handle them with hands contaminated with lead, this will contribute to ingestion. A significant portion of the lead that you inhale or ingest gets into your blood stream. Once in your blood stream, lead is circulated throughout your body and stored in various organs and body tissues. Some of this lead is quickly filtered out of your body and excreted, but some remains in the blood and other tissues. As exposure to lead continues, the amount stored in your body will increase if you are absorbing more lead than your body is excreting. Even though you may not be aware of any immediate symptoms of disease, this lead stored in your tissues can be slowly causing irreversible damage, first to individual cells, then to your organs and whole body systems.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Effects of overexposure to lead</I>—(1) <I>Short term (acute) overexposure.</I> Lead is a potent, systemic poison that serves no known useful function once absorbed by your body. Taken in large enough doses, lead can kill you in a matter of days. A condition affecting the brain called acute encephalopathy may arise which develops quickly to seizures, coma, and death from cardiorespiratory arrest. A short term dose of lead can lead to acute encephalopathy. Short term occupational exposures of this magnitude are highly unusual, but not impossible. Similar forms of encephalopathy may, however, arise from extended, chronic exposure to lower doses of lead. There is no sharp dividing line between rapidly developing acute effects of lead, and chronic effects which take longer to acquire. Lead adversely affects numerous body systems, and causes forms of health impairment and disease which arise after periods of exposure as short as days or as long as several years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Long-term (chronic) overexposure.</I> Chronic overexposure to lead may result in severe damage to your blood-forming, nervous, urinary and reproductive systems. Some common symptoms of chronic overexposure include loss of appetite, metallic taste in the mouth, anxiety, constipation, nausea, pallor, excessive tiredness, weakness, insomnia, headache, nervous irritability, muscle and joint pain or soreness, fine tremors, numbness, dizziness, hyperactivity and colic. In lead colic there may be severe abdominal pain. Damage to the central nervous system in general and the brain (encephalopathy) in particular is one of the most severe forms of lead poisoning. The most severe, often fatal, form of encephalopathy may be preceded by vomiting, a feeling of dullness progressing to drowsiness and stupor, poor memory, restlessness, irritability, tremor, and convulsions. It may arise suddenly with the onset of seizures, followed by coma, and death. There is a tendency for muscular weakness to develop at the same time. This weakness may progress to paralysis often observed as a characteristic “wrist drop” or “foot drop” and is a manifestation of a disease to the nervous system called peripheral neuropathy. Chronic overexposure to lead also results in kidney disease with few, if any, symptoms appearing until extensive and most likely permanent kidney damage has occurred. Routine laboratory tests reveal the presence of this kidney disease only after about two-thirds of kidney function is lost. When overt symptoms of urinary dysfunction arise, it is often too late to correct or prevent worsening conditions, and progression to kidney dialysis or death is possible. Chronic overexposure to lead impairs the reproductive systems of both men and women. Overexposure to lead may result in decreased sex drive, impotence and sterility in men. Lead can alter the structure of sperm cells raising the risk of birth defects. There is evidence of miscarriage and stillbirth in women whose husbands were exposed to lead or who were exposed to lead themselves. Lead exposure also may result in decreased fertility, and abnormal menstrual cycles in women. The course of pregnancy may be adversely affected by exposure to lead since lead crosses the placental barrier and poses risks to developing fetuses. Children born of parents either one of whom were exposed to excess lead levels are more likely to have birth defects, mental retardation, behavioral disorders or die during the first year of childhood. Overexposure to lead also disrupts the blood-forming system resulting in decreased hemoglobin (the substance in the blood that carries oxygen to the cells) and ultimately anemia. Anemia is characterized by weakness, pallor and fatigability as a result of decreased oxygen carrying capacity in the blood.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Health protection goals of the standard.</I> Prevention of adverse health effects for most workers from exposure to lead throughout a working lifetime requires that a worker's blood lead level (BLL, also expressed as PbB) be maintained at or below forty micrograms per deciliter of whole blood (40 µg/dl). The blood lead levels of workers (both male and female workers) who intend to have children should be maintained below 30 µg/dl to minimize adverse reproductive health effects to the parents and to the developing fetus. The measurement of your blood lead level (BLL) is the most useful indicator of the amount of lead being absorbed by your body. Blood lead levels are most often reported in units of milligrams (mg) or micrograms (µg) of lead (1 mg = 1000 µg) per 100 grams (100g), 100 milliliters (100 ml) or deciliter (dl) of blood. These three units are essentially the same. Sometime BLLs are expressed in the form of mg% or µg%. This is a shorthand notation for 100g, 100 ml, or dl. (References to BLL measurements in this standard are expressed in the form of µg/dl.)
</P>
<P>BLL measurements show the amount of lead circulating in your blood stream, but do not give any information about the amount of lead stored in your various tissues. BLL measurements merely show current absorption of lead, not the effect that lead is having on your body or the effects that past lead exposure may have already caused. Past research into lead-related diseases, however, has focused heavily on associations between BLLs and various diseases. As a result, your BLL is an important indicator of the likelihood that you will gradually acquire a lead-related health impairment or disease.
</P>
<P>Once your blood lead level climbs above 40 µg/dl, your risk of disease increases. There is a wide variability of individual response to lead, thus it is difficult to say that a particular BLL in a given person will cause a particular effect. Studies have associated fatal encephalopathy with BLLs as low as 150 µg/dl. Other studies have shown other forms of diseases in some workers with BLLs well below 80 µg/dl. Your BLL is a crucial indicator of the risks to your health, but one other factor is also extremely important. This factor is the length of time you have had elevated BLLs. The longer you have an elevated BLL, the greater the risk that large quantities of lead are being gradually stored in your organs and tissues (body burden). The greater your overall body burden, the greater the chances of substantial permanent damage. The best way to prevent all forms of lead-related impairments and diseases—both short term and long term—is to maintain your BLL below 40 µg/dl. The provisions of the standard are designed with this end in mind.
</P>
<P>Your employer has prime responsibility to assure that the provisions of the standard are complied with both by the company and by individual workers. You, as a worker, however, also have a responsibility to assist your employer in complying with the standard. You can play a key role in protecting your own health by learning about the lead hazards and their control, learning what the standard requires, following the standard where it governs your own actions, and seeing that your employer complies with provisions governing his or her actions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reporting signs and symptoms of health problems.</I> You should immediately notify your employer if you develop signs or symptoms associated with lead poisoning or if you desire medical advice concerning the effects of current or past exposure to lead or your ability to have a healthy child. You should also notify your employer if you have difficulty breathing during a respirator fit test or while wearing a respirator. In each of these cases, your employer must make available to you appropriate medical examinations or consultations. These must be provided at no cost to you and at a reasonable time and place. The standard contains a procedure whereby you can obtain a second opinion by a physician of your choice if your employer selected the initial physician.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1926.62—Employee Standard Summary
</HD1>
<P>This appendix summarizes key provisions of the interim final standard for lead in construction that you as a worker should become familiar with.
</P>
<HD2>I. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)—Paragraph (C)
</HD2>
<P>The standard sets a permissible exposure limit (PEL) of 50 micrograms of lead per cubic meter of air (50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), averaged over an 8-hour workday which is referred to as a time-weighted average (TWA). This is the highest level of lead in air to which you may be permissibly exposed over an 8-hour workday. However, since this is an 8-hour average, short exposures above the PEL are permitted so long as for each 8-hour work day your average exposure does not exceed this level. This interim final standard, however, takes into account the fact that your daily exposure to lead can extend beyond a typical 8-hour workday as the result of overtime or other alterations in your work schedule. To deal with this situation, the standard contains a formula which reduces your permissible exposure when you are exposed more than 8 hours. For example, if you are exposed to lead for 10 hours a day, the maximum permitted average exposure would be 40 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<HD2>II. Exposure Assessment—Paragraph (D)
</HD2>
<P>If lead is present in your workplace in any quantity, your employer is required to make an initial determination of whether any employee's exposure to lead exceeds the action level (30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> averaged over an 8-hour day). Employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator. This initial determination requires your employer to monitor workers' exposures unless he or she has objective data which can demonstrate conclusively that no employee will be exposed to lead in excess of the action level. Where objective data is used in lieu of actual monitoring the employer must establish and maintain an accurate record, documenting its relevancy in assessing exposure levels for current job conditions. If such objective data is available, the employer need proceed no further on employee exposure assessment until such time that conditions have changed and the determination is no longer valid.
</P>
<P>Objective data may be compiled from various sources, e.g., insurance companies and trade associations and information from suppliers or exposure data collected from similar operations. Objective data may also comprise previously-collected sampling data including area monitoring. If it cannot be determined through using objective data that worker exposure is less than the action level, your employer must conduct monitoring or must rely on relevant previous personal sampling, if available. Where monitoring is required for the initial determination, it may be limited to a representative number of employees who are reasonably expected to have the highest exposure levels. If your employer has conducted appropriate air sampling for lead in the past 12 months, he or she may use these results, provided they are applicable to the same employee tasks and exposure conditions and meet the requirements for accuracy as specified in the standard. As with objective data, if such results are relied upon for the initial determination, your employer must establish and maintain a record as to the relevancy of such data to current job conditions.
</P>
<P>If there have been any employee complaints of symptoms which may be attributable to exposure to lead or if there is any other information or observations which would indicate employee exposure to lead, this must also be considered as part of the initial determination.
</P>
<P>If this initial determination shows that a reasonable possibility exists that any employee may be exposed, without regard to respirators, over the action level, your employer must set up an air monitoring program to determine the exposure level representative of each employee exposed to lead at your workplace. In carrying out this air monitoring program, your employer is not required to monitor the exposure of every employee, but he or she must monitor a representative number of employees and job types. Enough sampling must be done to enable each employee's exposure level to be reasonably represent full shift exposure. In addition, these air samples must be taken under conditions which represent each employee's regular, daily exposure to lead. Sampling performed in the past 12 months may be used to determine exposures above the action level if such sampling was conducted during work activities essentially similar to present work conditions.
</P>
<P>The standard lists certain tasks which may likely result in exposures to lead in excess of the PEL and, in some cases, exposures in excess of 50 times the PEL. If you are performing any of these tasks, your employer must provide you with appropriate respiratory protection, protective clothing and equipment, change areas, hand washing facilities, biological monitoring, and training until such time that an exposure assessment is conducted which demonstrates that your exposure level is below the PEL.
</P>
<P>If you are exposed to lead and air sampling is performed, your employer is required to notify you in writing within 5 working days of the air monitoring results which represent your exposure. If the results indicate that your exposure exceeds the PEL (without regard to your use of a respirator), then your employer must also notify you of this in writing, and provide you with a description of the corrective action that has been taken or will be taken to reduce your exposure.
</P>
<P>Your exposure must be rechecked by monitoring, at least every six months if your exposure is at or over the action level but below the PEL. Your employer may discontinue monitoring for you if 2 consecutive measurements, taken at least 7 days apart, are at or below the action level. Air monitoring must be repeated every 3 months if you are exposed over the PEL. Your employer must continue monitoring for you at this frequency until 2 consecutive measurements, taken at least 7 days apart, are below the PEL but above the action level, at which time your employer must repeat monitoring of your exposure every six months and may discontinue monitoring only after your exposure drops to or below the action level. However, whenever there is a change of equipment, process, control, or personnel or a new type of job is added at your workplace which may result in new or additional exposure to lead, your employer must perform additional monitoring.
</P>
<HD2>III. Methods of Compliance—Paragraph (E)
</HD2>
<P>Your employer is required to assure that no employee is exposed to lead in excess of the PEL as an 8-hour TWA. The interim final standard for lead in construction requires employers to institute engineering and work practice controls including administrative controls to the extent feasible to reduce employee exposure to lead. Where such controls are feasible but not adequate to reduce exposures below the PEL they must be used nonetheless to reduce exposures to the lowest level that can be accomplished by these means and then supplemented with appropriate respiratory protection.
</P>
<P>Your employer is required to develop and implement a written compliance program prior to the commencement of any job where employee exposures may reach the PEL as an 8-hour TWA. The interim final standard identifies the various elements that must be included in the plan. For example, employers are required to include a description of operations in which lead is emitted, detailing other relevant information about the operation such as the type of equipment used, the type of material involved, employee job responsibilities, operating procedures and maintenance practices. In addition, your employer's compliance plan must specify the means that will be used to achieve compliance and, where engineering controls are required, include any engineering plans or studies that have been used to select the control methods. If administrative controls involving job rotation are used to reduce employee exposure to lead, the job rotation schedule must be included in the compliance plan. The plan must also detail the type of protective clothing and equipment, including respirators, housekeeping and hygiene practices that will be used to protect you from the adverse effects of exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>The written compliance program must be made available, upon request, to affected employees and their designated representatives, the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>Finally, the plan must be reviewed and updated at least every 6 months to assure it reflects the current status in exposure control.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Respiratory Protection—Paragraph (F)
</HD2>
<P>Your employer is required to provide and assure your use of respirators when your exposure to lead is not controlled below the PEL by other means. The employer must pay the cost of the respirator. Whenever you request one, your employer is also required to provide you a respirator even if your air exposure level is not above the PEL. You might desire a respirator when, for example, you have received medical advice that your lead absorption should be decreased. Or, you may intend to have children in the near future, and want to reduce the level of lead in your body to minimize adverse reproductive effects. While respirators are the least satisfactory means of controlling your exposure, they are capable of providing significant protection if properly chosen, fitted, worn, cleaned, maintained, and replaced when they stop providing adequate protection.
</P>
<P>Your employer is required to select your respirator according to the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.62(f)(3), including the requirements referenced in 29 CFR 1910.134(d)(3)(i)(A) of this chapter. Any respirator chosen must be approved by NIOSH under the provisions of 42 CFR part 84. These respirator selection references will enable your employer to choose a type of respirator that will give you a proper amount of protection based on your airborne lead exposure. Your employer may select a type of respirator that provides greater protection than that required by the standard; that is, one recommended for a higher concentration of lead than is present in your workplace. For example, a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) is much more protective than a typical negative pressure respirator, and may also be more comfortable to wear. A PAPR has a filter, cartridge, or canister to clean the air, and a power source that continuously blows filtered air into your breathing zone. Your employer might make a PAPR available to you to ease the burden of having to wear a respirator for long periods of time. The standard provides that you can obtain a PAPR upon request.
</P>
<P>Your employer must also start a Respiratory Protection Program. This program must include written procedures for the proper selection, use, cleaning, storage, and maintenance of respirators.
</P>
<P>Your employer must ensure that your respirator facepiece fits properly. Proper fit of a respirator facepiece is critical to your protection from airborne lead. Obtaining a proper fit on each employee may require your employer to make available several different types of respirator masks. To ensure that your respirator fits properly and that facepiece leakage is minimal, your employer must give you either a qualitative or quantitative fit test as specified in appendix A of the Respiratory Protection standard located at 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>You must also receive from your employer proper training in the use of respirators. Your employer is required to teach you how to wear a respirator, to know why it is needed, and to understand its limitations.
</P>
<P>The standard provides that if your respirator uses filter elements, you must be given an opportunity to change the filter elements whenever an increase in breathing resistance is detected. You also must be permitted to periodically leave your work area to wash your face and respirator facepiece whenever necessary to prevent skin irritation. If you ever have difficulty in breathing during a fit test or while using a respirator, your employer must make a medical examination available to you to determine whether you can safely wear a respirator. The result of this examination may be to give you a positive pressure respirator (which reduces breathing resistance) or to provide alternative means of protection.
</P>
<HD2>V. Protective Work Clothing and Equipment—Paragraph (G)
</HD2>
<P>If you are exposed to lead above the PEL as an 8-hour TWA, without regard to your use of a respirator, or if you are exposed to lead compounds such as lead arsenate or lead azide which can cause skin and eye irritation, your employer must provide you with protective work clothing and equipment appropriate for the hazard. If work clothing is provided, it must be provided in a clean and dry condition at least weekly, and daily if your airborne exposure to lead is greater than 200 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>. Appropriate protective work clothing and equipment can include coveralls or similar full-body work clothing, gloves, hats, shoes or disposable shoe coverlets, and face shields or vented goggles. Your employer is required to provide all such equipment at no cost to you. In addition, your employer is responsible for providing repairs and replacement as necessary, and also is responsible for the cleaning, laundering or disposal of protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>The interim final standard requires that your employer assure that you follow good work practices when you are working in areas where your exposure to lead may exceed the PEL. With respect to protective clothing and equipment, where appropriate, the following procedures should be observed prior to beginning work:
</P>
<P>1. Change into work clothing and shoe covers in the clean section of the designated changing areas;
</P>
<P>2. Use work garments of appropriate protective gear, including respirators before entering the work area; and
</P>
<P>3. Store any clothing not worn under protective clothing in the designated changing area.
</P>
<P>Workers should follow these procedures upon leaving the work area:
</P>
<P>1. HEPA vacuum heavily contaminated protective work clothing while it is still being worn. At no time may lead be removed from protective clothing by any means which result in uncontrolled dispersal of lead into the air;
</P>
<P>2. Remove shoe covers and leave them in the work area;
</P>
<P>3. Remove protective clothing and gear in the dirty area of the designated changing area. Remove protective coveralls by carefully rolling down the garment to reduce exposure to dust.
</P>
<P>4. Remove respirators last; and
</P>
<P>5. Wash hands and face.
</P>
<P>Workers should follow these procedures upon finishing work for the day (in addition to procedures described above):
</P>
<P>1. Where applicable, place disposal coveralls and shoe covers with the abatement waste;
</P>
<P>2. Contaminated clothing which is to be cleaned, laundered or disposed of must be placed in closed containers in the change room.
</P>
<P>3. Clean protective gear, including respirators, according to standard procedures;
</P>
<P>4. Wash hands and face again. If showers are available, take a shower and wash hair. If shower facilities are not available at the work site, shower immediately at home and wash hair.
</P>
<HD2>VI. Housekeeping—Paragraph (H)
</HD2>
<P>Your employer must establish a housekeeping program sufficient to maintain all surfaces as free as practicable of accumulations of lead dust. Vacuuming is the preferred method of meeting this requirement, and the use of compressed air to clean floors and other surfaces is generally prohibited unless removal with compressed air is done in conjunction with ventilation systems designed to contain dispersal of the lead dust. Dry or wet sweeping, shoveling, or brushing may not be used except where vacuuming or other equally effective methods have been tried and do not work. Vacuums must be used equipped with a special filter called a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter and emptied in a manner which minimizes the reentry of lead into the workplace.
</P>
<HD2>VII. Hygiene Facilities and Practices—Paragraph (I)
</HD2>
<P>The standard requires that hand washing facilities be provided where occupational exposure to lead occurs. In addition, change areas, showers (where feasible), and lunchrooms or eating areas are to be made available to workers exposed to lead above the PEL. Your employer must assure that except in these facilities, food and beverage is not present or consumed, tobacco products are not present or used, and cosmetics are not applied, where airborne exposures are above the PEL. Change rooms provided by your employer must be equipped with separate storage facilities for your protective clothing and equipment and street clothes to avoid cross-contamination. After showering, no required protective clothing or equipment worn during the shift may be worn home. It is important that contaminated clothing or equipment be removed in change areas and not be worn home or you will extend your exposure and expose your family since lead from your clothing can accumulate in your house, car, etc.
</P>
<P>Lunchrooms or eating areas may not be entered with protective clothing or equipment unless surface dust has been removed by vacuuming, downdraft booth, or other cleaning method. Finally, workers exposed above the PEL must wash both their hands and faces prior to eating, drinking, smoking or applying cosmetics.
</P>
<P>All of the facilities and hygiene practices just discussed are essential to minimize additional sources of lead absorption from inhalation or ingestion of lead that may accumulate on you, your clothes, or your possessions. Strict compliance with these provisions can virtually eliminate several sources of lead exposure which significantly contribute to excessive lead absorption.
</P>
<HD2>VIII. Medical Surveillance—Paragraph (J)
</HD2>
<P>The medical surveillance program is part of the standard's comprehensive approach to the prevention of lead-related disease. Its purpose is to supplement the main thrust of the standard which is aimed at minimizing airborne concentrations of lead and sources of ingestion. Only medical surveillance can determine if the other provisions of the standard have affectively protected you as an individual. Compliance with the standard's provision will protect most workers from the adverse effects of lead exposure, but may not be satisfactory to protect individual workers (1) who have high body burdens of lead acquired over past years, (2) who have additional uncontrolled sources of non-occupational lead exposure, (3) who exhibit unusual variations in lead absorption rates, or (4) who have specific non-work related medical conditions which could be aggravated by lead exposure (e.g., renal disease, anemia). In addition, control systems may fail, or hygiene and respirator programs may be inadequate. Periodic medical surveillance of individual workers will help detect those failures. Medical surveillance will also be important to protect your reproductive ability-regardless of whether you are a man or woman.
</P>
<P>All medical surveillance required by the interim final standard must be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician. The employer must provide required medical surveillance without cost to employees and at a reasonable time and place. The standard's medical surveillance program has two parts—periodic biological monitoring and medical examinations. Your employer's obligation to offer you medical surveillance is triggered by the results of the air monitoring program. Full medical surveillance must be made available to all employees who are or may be exposed to lead in excess of the action level for more than 30 days a year and whose blood lead level exceeds 40 µg/dl. Initial medical surveillance consisting of blood sampling and analysis for lead and zinc protoporphyrin must be provided to all employees exposed at any time (1 day) above the action level.
</P>
<P>Biological monitoring under the standard must be provided at least every 2 months for the first 6 months and every 6 months thereafter until your blood lead level is below 40 µg/dl. A zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP) test is a very useful blood test which measures an adverse metabolic effect of lead on your body and is therefore an indicator of lead toxicity.
</P>
<P>If your BLL exceeds 40 µg/dl the monitoring frequency must be increased from every 6 months to at least every 2 months and not reduced until two consecutive BLLs indicate a blood lead level below 40 µg/dl. Each time your BLL is determined to be over 40 µg/dl, your employer must notify you of this in writing within five working days of his or her receipt of the test results. The employer must also inform you that the standard requires temporary medical removal with economic protection when your BLL exceeds 50 µg/dl. (See Discussion of Medical Removal Protection-Paragraph (k).) Anytime your BLL exceeds 50 µg/dl your employer must make available to you within two weeks of receipt of these test results a second follow-up BLL test to confirm your BLL. If the two tests both exceed 50 µg/dl, and you are temporarily removed, then your employer must make successive BLL tests available to you on a monthly basis during the period of your removal.
</P>
<P>Medical examinations beyond the initial one must be made available on an annual basis if your blood lead level exceeds 40 µg/dl at any time during the preceding year and you are being exposed above the airborne action level of 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for 30 or more days per year. The initial examination will provide information to establish a baseline to which subsequent data can be compared.
</P>
<P>An initial medical examination to consist of blood sampling and analysis for lead and zinc protoporphyrin must also be made available (prior to assignment) for each employee being assigned for the first time to an area where the airborne concentration of lead equals or exceeds the action level at any time. In addition, a medical examination or consultation must be made available as soon as possible if you notify your employer that you are experiencing signs or symptoms commonly associated with lead poisoning or that you have difficulty breathing while wearing a respirator or during a respirator fit test. You must also be provided a medical examination or consultation if you notify your employer that you desire medical advice concerning the effects of current or past exposure to lead on your ability to procreate a healthy child.
</P>
<P>Finally, appropriate follow-up medical examinations or consultations may also be provided for employees who have been temporarily removed from exposure under the medical removal protection provisions of the standard. (See Part IX, below.)
</P>
<P>The standard specifies the minimum content of pre-assignment and annual medical examinations. The content of other types of medical examinations and consultations is left up to the sound discretion of the examining physician. Pre-assignment and annual medical examinations must include (1) a detailed work history and medical history; (2) a thorough physical examination, including an evaluation of your pulmonary status if you will be required to use a respirator; (3) a blood pressure measurement; and (4) a series of laboratory tests designed to check your blood chemistry and your kidney function. In addition, at any time upon your request, a laboratory evaluation of male fertility will be made (microscopic examination of a sperm sample), or a pregnancy test will be given.
</P>
<P>The standard does not require that you participate in any of the medical procedures, tests, etc. which your employer is required to make available to you. Medical surveillance can, however, play a very important role in protecting your health. You are strongly encouraged, therefore, to participate in a meaningful fashion. The standard contains a multiple physician review mechanism which will give you a chance to have a physician of your choice directly participate in the medical surveillance program. If you are dissatisfied with an examination by a physician chosen by your employer, you can select a second physician to conduct an independent analysis. The two doctors would attempt to resolve any differences of opinion, and select a third physician to resolve any firm dispute. Generally your employer will choose the physician who conducts medical surveillance under the lead standard-unless you and your employer can agree on the choice of a physician or physicians. Some companies and unions have agreed in advance, for example, to use certain independent medical laboratories or panels of physicians. Any of these arrangements are acceptable so long as required medical surveillance is made available to workers.
</P>
<P>The standard requires your employer to provide certain information to a physician to aid in his or her examination of you. This information includes (1) the standard and its appendices, (2) a description of your duties as they relate to occupational lead exposure, (3) your exposure level or anticipated exposure level, (4) a description of any personal protective equipment you wear, (5) prior blood lead level results, and (6) prior written medical opinions concerning you that the employer has. After a medical examination or consultation the physician must prepare a written report which must contain (1) the physician's opinion as to whether you have any medical condition which places you at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to lead, (2) any recommended special protective measures to be provided to you, (3) any blood lead level determinations, and (4) any recommended limitation on your use of respirators. This last element must include a determination of whether you can wear a powered air purifying respirator (PAPR) if you are found unable to wear a negative pressure respirator.
</P>
<P>The medical surveillance program of the interim lead standard may at some point in time serve to notify certain workers that they have acquired a disease or other adverse medical condition as a result of occupational lead exposure. If this is true, these workers might have legal rights to compensation from public agencies, their employers, firms that supply hazardous products to their employers, or other persons. Some states have laws, including worker compensation laws, that disallow a worker who learns of a job-related health impairment to sue, unless the worker sues within a short period of time after learning of the impairment. (This period of time may be a matter of months or years.) An attorney can be consulted about these possibilities. It should be stressed that OSHA is in no way trying to either encourage or discourage claims or lawsuits. However, since results of the standard's medical surveillance program can significantly affect the legal remedies of a worker who has acquired a job-related disease or impairment, it is proper for OSHA to make you aware of this.
</P>
<P>The medical surveillance section of the standard also contains provisions dealing with chelation. Chelation is the use of certain drugs (administered in pill form or injected into the body) to reduce the amount of lead absorbed in body tissues. Experience accumulated by the medical and scientific communities has largely confirmed the effectiveness of this type of therapy for the treatment of very severe lead poisoning. On the other hand, it has also been established that there can be a long list of extremely harmful side effects associated with the use of chelating agents. The medical community has balanced the advantages and disadvantages resulting from the use of chelating agents in various circumstances and has established when the use of these agents is acceptable. The standard includes these accepted limitations due to a history of abuse of chelation therapy by some lead companies. The most widely used chelating agents are calcium disodium EDTA, (Ca Na2 EDTA), Calcium Disodium Versenate (Versenate), and d-penicillamine (pencillamine or Cupramine).
</P>
<P>The standard prohibits “prophylactic chelation” of any employee by any person the employer retains, supervises or controls. <I>Prophylactic chelation</I> is the routine use of chelating or similarly acting drugs to prevent elevated blood levels in workers who are occupationally exposed to lead, or the use of these drugs to routinely lower blood lead levels to predesignated concentrations believed to be “safe”. It should be emphasized that where an employer takes a worker who has no symptoms of lead poisoning and has chelation carried out by a physician (either inside or outside of a hospital) solely to reduce the worker's blood lead level, that will generally be considered prophylactic chelation. The use of a hospital and a physician does not mean that prophylactic chelation is not being performed. Routine chelation to prevent increased or reduce current blood lead levels is unacceptable whatever the setting.
</P>
<P>The standard allows the use of “therapeutic” or “diagnostic” chelation if administered under the supervision of a licensed physician in a clinical setting with thorough and appropriate medical monitoring. Therapeutic chelation responds to severe lead poisoning where there are marked symptoms. Diagnostic chelation involved giving a patient a dose of the drug then collecting all urine excreted for some period of time as an aid to the diagnosis of lead poisoning.
</P>
<P>In cases where the examining physician determines that chelation is appropriate, you must be notified in writing of this fact before such treatment. This will inform you of a potentially harmful treatment, and allow you to obtain a second opinion.
</P>
<HD2>IX. Medical Removal Protection—Paragraph (K)
</HD2>
<P>Excessive lead absorption subjects you to increased risk of disease. Medical removal protection (MRP) is a means of protecting you when, for whatever reasons, other methods, such as engineering controls, work practices, and respirators, have failed to provide the protection you need. MRP involves the temporary removal of a worker from his or her regular job to a place of significantly lower exposure without any loss of earnings, seniority, or other employment rights or benefits. The purpose of this program is to cease further lead absorption and allow your body to naturally excrete lead which has previously been absorbed. Temporary medical removal can result from an elevated blood lead level, or a medical opinion. For up to 18 months, or for as long as the job the employee was removed from lasts, protection is provided as a result of either form of removal. The vast majority of removed workers, however, will return to their former jobs long before this eighteen month period expires.
</P>
<P>You may also be removed from exposure even if your blood lead level is below 50 µg/dl if a final medical determination indicates that you temporarily need reduced lead exposure for medical reasons. If the physician who is implementing your employers medical program makes a final written opinion recommending your removal or other special protective measures, your employer must implement the physician's recommendation. If you are removed in this manner, you may only be returned when the doctor indicates that it is safe for you to do so.
</P>
<P>The standard does not give specific instructions dealing with what an employer must do with a removed worker. Your job assignment upon removal is a matter for you, your employer and your union (if any) to work out consistent with existing procedures for job assignments. Each removal must be accomplished in a manner consistent with existing collective bargaining relationships. Your employer is given broad discretion to implement temporary removals so long as no attempt is made to override existing agreements. Similarly, a removed worker is provided no right to veto an employer's choice which satisfies the standard.
</P>
<P>In most cases, employers will likely transfer removed employees to other jobs with sufficiently low lead exposure. Alternatively, a worker's hours may be reduced so that the time weighted average exposure is reduced, or he or she may be temporarily laid off if no other alternative is feasible.
</P>
<P>In all of these situation, MRP benefits must be provided during the period of removal—i.e., you continue to receive the same earnings, seniority, and other rights and benefits you would have had if you had not been removed. Earnings includes more than just your base wage; it includes overtime, shift differentials, incentives, and other compensation you would have earned if you had not been removed. During the period of removal you must also be provided with appropriate follow-up medical surveillance. If you were removed because your blood lead level was too high, you must be provided with a monthly blood test. If a medical opinion caused your removal, you must be provided medical tests or examinations that the doctor believes to be appropriate. If you do not participate in this follow up medical surveillance, you may lose your eligibility for MRP benefits.
</P>
<P>When you are medically eligible to return to your former job, your employer must return you to your “former job status.” This means that you are entitled to the position, wages, benefits, etc., you would have had if you had not been removed. If you would still be in your old job if no removal had occurred that is where you go back. If not, you are returned consistent with whatever job assignment discretion your employer would have had if no removal had occurred. MRP only seeks to maintain your rights, not expand them or diminish them.
</P>
<P>If you are removed under MRP and you are also eligible for worker compensation or other compensation for lost wages, your employer's MRP benefits obligation is reduced by the amount that you actually receive from these other sources. This is also true if you obtain other employment during the time you are laid off with MRP benefits.
</P>
<P>The standard also covers situations where an employer voluntarily removes a worker from exposure to lead due to the effects of lead on the employee's medical condition, even though the standard does not require removal. In these situations MRP benefits must still be provided as though the standard required removal. Finally, it is important to note that in all cases where removal is required, respirators cannot be used as a substitute. Respirators may be used before removal becomes necessary, but not as an alternative to a transfer to a low exposure job, or to a lay-off with MRP benefits.
</P>
<HD2>X. Employee Information and Training—Paragraph (L)
</HD2>
<P>Your employer is required to provide an information and training program for all employees exposed to lead above the action level or who may suffer skin or eye irritation from lead compounds such as lead arsenate or lead azide. The program must train these employees regarding the specific hazards associated with their work environment, protective measures which can be taken, including the contents of any compliance plan in effect, the danger of lead to their bodies (including their reproductive systems), and their rights under the standard. All employees must be trained prior to initial assignment to areas where there is a possibility of exposure over the action level.
</P>
<P>This training program must also be provided at least annually thereafter unless further exposure above the action level will not occur.
</P>
<HD2>XI. Signs—Paragraph (M)
</HD2>
<P>The standard requires that the following warning sign be posted in work areas when the exposure to lead is above the PEL:
</P>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEAD WORK AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY DAMAGE FERTILITY OR THE UNBORN CHILD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT EAT, DRINK OR SMOKE IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<P>Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified above:
</P>
<FP-1>WARNING 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LEAD WORK AREA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>POISON 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NO SMOKING OR EATING
</FP-1>
<HD2>XII. Recordkeeping—Paragraph (N)
</HD2>
<P>Your employer is required to keep all records of exposure monitoring for airborne lead. These records must include the name and job classification of employees measured, details of the sampling and analytical techniques, the results of this sampling, and the type of respiratory protection being worn by the person sampled. Such records are to be retained for at least 30 years. Your employer is also required to keep all records of biological monitoring and medical examination results. These records must include the names of the employees, the physician's written opinion, and a copy of the results of the examination. Medical records must be preserved and maintained for the duration of employment plus 30 years. However, if the employee's duration of employment is less than one year, the employer need not retain that employee's medical records beyond the period of employment if they are provided to the employee upon termination of employment.
</P>
<P>Recordkeeping is also required if you are temporarily removed from your job under the medical removal protection program. This record must include your name, the date of your removal and return, how the removal was or is being accomplished, and whether or not the reason for the removal was an elevated blood lead level. Your employer is required to keep each medical removal record only for as long as the duration of an employee's employment.
</P>
<P>The standard requires that if you request to see or copy environmental monitoring, blood lead level monitoring, or medical removal records, they must be made available to you or to a representative that you authorize. Your union also has access to these records. Medical records other than BLL's must also be provided upon request to you, to your physician or to any other person whom you may specifically designate. Your union does not have access to your personal medical records unless you authorize their access.
</P>
<HD2>XIII. Observation of Monitoring—Paragraph (O)
</HD2>
<P>When air monitoring for lead is performed at your workplace as required by this standard, your employer must allow you or someone you designate to act as an observer of the monitoring. Observers are entitled to an explanation of the measurement procedure, and to record the results obtained. Since results will not normally be available at the time of the monitoring, observers are entitled to record or receive the results of the monitoring when returned by the laboratory. Your employer is required to provide the observer with any personal protective devices required to be worn by employees working in the area that is being monitored. The employer must require the observer to wear all such equipment and to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<HD2>XIV. For Additional Information
</HD2>
<P>A. A copy of the interim standard for lead in construction can be obtained free of charge by calling or writing the OSHA Office of Publications, room N-3101, United States Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210: Telephone (202) 219-4667.
</P>
<P>B. Additional information about the standard, its enforcement, and your employer's compliance can be obtained from the nearest OSHA Area Office listed in your telephone directory under United States Government/Department of Labor.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1926.62—Medical Surveillance Guidelines
</HD1>
<HD2>Introduction
</HD2>
<P>The primary purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 is to assure, so far as possible, safe and healthful working conditions for every working man and woman. The interim final occupational health standard for lead in construction is designed to protect workers exposed to inorganic lead including metallic lead, all inorganic lead compounds and organic lead soaps.
</P>
<P>Under this interim final standard occupational exposure to inorganic lead is to be limited to 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (micrograms per cubic meter) based on an 8 hour time-weighted average (TWA). This permissible exposure limit (PEL) must be achieved through a combination of engineering, work practice and administrative controls to the extent feasible. Where these controls are in place but are found not to reduce employee exposures to or below the PEL, they must be used nonetheless, and supplemented with respirators to meet the 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> exposure limit.
</P>
<P>The standard also provides for a program of biological monitoring for employees exposed to lead above the action level at any time, and additional medical surveillance for all employees exposed to levels of inorganic lead above 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> (TWA) for more than 30 days per year and whose BLL exceeds 40 µg/dl.
</P>
<P>The purpose of this document is to outline the medical surveillance provisions of the interim standard for inorganic lead in construction, and to provide further information to the physician regarding the examination and evaluation of workers exposed to inorganic lead.
</P>
<P>Section 1 provides a detailed description of the monitoring procedure including the required frequency of blood testing for exposed workers, provisions for medical removal protection (MRP), the recommended right of the employee to a second medical opinion, and notification and recordkeeping requirements of the employer. A discussion of the requirements for respirator use and respirator monitoring and OSHA's position on prophylactic chelation therapy are also included in this section.
</P>
<P>Section 2 discusses the toxic effects and clinical manifestations of lead poisoning and effects of lead intoxication on enzymatic pathways in heme synthesis. The adverse effects on both male and female reproductive capacity and on the fetus are also discussed.
</P>
<P>Section 3 outlines the recommended medical evaluation of the worker exposed to inorganic lead, including details of the medical history, physical examination, and recommended laboratory tests, which are based on the toxic effects of lead as discussed in Section 2.
</P>
<P>Section 4 provides detailed information concerning the laboratory tests available for the monitoring of exposed workers. Included also is a discussion of the relative value of each test and the limitations and precautions which are necessary in the interpretation of the laboratory results.
</P>
<HD2>I. Medical Surveillance and Monitoring Requirements for Workers Exposed to Inorganic Lead
</HD2>
<P>Under the interim final standard for inorganic lead in the construction industry, initial medical surveillance consisting of biological monitoring to include blood lead and ZPP level determination shall be provided to employees exposed to lead at or above the action level on any one day. In addition, a program of biological monitoring is to be made available to all employees exposed above the action level at any time and additional medical surveillance is to be made available to all employees exposed to lead above 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> TWA for more than 30 days each year and whose BLL exceeds 40 µg/dl. This program consists of periodic blood sampling and medical evaluation to be performed on a schedule which is defined by previous laboratory results, worker complaints or concerns, and the clinical assessment of the examining physician.
</P>
<P>Under this program, the blood lead level (BLL) of all employees who are exposed to lead above 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for more than 30 days per year or whose blood lead is above 40 µg/dl but exposed for no more than 30 days per year is to be determined at least every two months for the first six months of exposure and every six months thereafter. The frequency is increased to every two months for employees whose last blood lead level was 40 µg/dl or above. For employees who are removed from exposure to lead due to an elevated blood lead, a new blood lead level must be measured monthly. A zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP) measurement is strongly recommended on each occasion that a blood lead level measurement is made.
</P>
<P>An annual medical examination and consultation performed under the guidelines discussed in Section 3 is to be made available to each employee exposed above 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for more than 30 days per year for whom a blood test conducted at any time during the preceding 12 months indicated a blood lead level at or above 40 µg/dl. Also, an examination is to be given to all employees prior to their assignment to an area in which airborne lead concentrations reach or exceed the 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> for more than 30 days per year. In addition, a medical examination must be provided as soon as possible after notification by an employee that the employee has developed signs or symptoms commonly associated with lead intoxication, that the employee desires medical advice regarding lead exposure and the ability to procreate a healthy child, or that the employee has demonstrated difficulty in breathing during a respirator fitting test or during respirator use. An examination is also to be made available to each employee removed from exposure to lead due to a risk of sustaining material impairment to health, or otherwise limited or specially protected pursuant to medical recommendations.
</P>
<P>Results of biological monitoring or the recommendations of an examining physician may necessitate removal of an employee from further lead exposure pursuant to the standard's medical removal protection (MRP) program. The object of the MRP program is to provide temporary medical removal to workers either with substantially elevated blood lead levels or otherwise at risk of sustaining material health impairment from continued substantial exposure to lead.
</P>
<P>Under the standard's ultimate worker removal criteria, a worker is to be removed from any work having an eight hour TWA exposure to lead of 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> when his or her blood lead level reaches 50 µg/dl and is confirmed by a second follow-up blood lead level performed within two weeks after the employer receives the results of the first blood sampling test. Return of the employee to his or her job status depends on a worker's blood lead level declining to 40 µg/dl.
</P>
<P>As part of the interim standard, the employer is required to notify in writing each employee whose blood lead level exceeds 40 µg/dl. In addition each such employee is to be informed that the standard requires medical removal with MRP benefits, discussed below, when an employee's blood lead level exceeds the above defined limit.
</P>
<P>In addition to the above blood lead level criterion, temporary worker removal may also take place as a result of medical determinations and recommendations. Written medical opinions must be prepared after each examination pursuant to the standard. If the examining physician includes a medical finding, determination or opinion that the employee has a medical condition which places the employee at increased risk of material health impairment from exposure to lead, then the employee must be removed from exposure to lead at or above 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>. Alternatively, if the examining physician recommends special protective measures for an employee (e.g., use of a powered air purifying respirator) or recommends limitations on an employee's exposure to lead, then the employer must implement these recommendations.
</P>
<P>Recommendations may be more stringent than the specific provisions of the standard. The examining physician, therefore, is given broad flexibility to tailor special protective procedures to the needs of individual employees. This flexibility extends to the evaluation and management of pregnant workers and male and female workers who are planning to raise children. Based on the history, physical examination, and laboratory studies, the physician might recommend special protective measures or medical removal for an employee who is pregnant or who is planning to conceive a child when, in the physician's judgment, continued exposure to lead at the current job would pose a significant risk. The return of the employee to his or her former job status, or the removal of special protections or limitations, depends upon the examining physician determining that the employee is no longer at increased risk of material impairment or that special measures are no longer needed.
</P>
<P>During the period of any form of special protection or removal, the employer must maintain the worker's earnings, seniority, and other employment rights and benefits (as though the worker had not been removed) for a period of up to 18 months or for as long as the job the employee was removed from lasts if less than 18 months. This economic protection will maximize meaningful worker participation in the medical surveillance program, and is appropriate as part of the employer's overall obligation to provide a safe and healthful workplace. The provisions of MRP benefits during the employee's removal period may, however, be conditioned upon participation in medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>The lead standard provides for a multiple physician review in cases where the employee wishes a second opinion concerning potential lead poisoning or toxicity. If an employee wishes a second opinion, he or she can make an appointment with a physician of his or her choice. This second physician will review the findings, recommendations or determinations of the first physician and conduct any examinations, consultations or tests deemed necessary in an attempt to make a final medical determination. If the first and second physicians do not agree in their assessment they must try to resolve their differences. If they cannot reach an agreement then they must designate a third physician to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P>The employer must provide examining and consulting physicians with the following specific information: A copy of the lead regulations and all appendices, a description of the employee's duties as related to exposure, the exposure level or anticipated level to lead and any other toxic substances (if applicable), a description of personal protective equipment used, blood lead levels, and all prior written medical opinions regarding the employee in the employer's possession or control. The employer must also obtain from the physician and provide the employee with a written medical opinion containing blood lead levels, the physicians's opinion as to whether the employee is at risk of material impairment to health, any recommended protective measures for the employee if further exposure is permitted, as well as any recommended limitations upon an employee's use of respirators.
</P>
<P>Employers must instruct each physician not to reveal to the employer in writing or in any other way his or her findings, laboratory results, or diagnoses which are felt to be unrelated to occupational lead exposure. They must also instruct each physician to advise the employee of any occupationally or non-occupationally related medical condition requiring further treatment or evaluation.
</P>
<P>The standard provides for the use of respirators where engineering and other primary controls are not effective. However, the use of respirator protection shall not be used in lieu of temporary medical removal due to elevated blood lead levels or findings that an employee is at risk of material health impairment. This is based on the numerous inadequacies of respirators including skin rash where the facepiece makes contact with the skin, unacceptable stress to breathing in some workers with underlying cardiopulmonary impairment, difficulty in providing adequate fit, the tendency for respirators to create additional hazards by interfering with vision, hearing, and mobility, and the difficulties of assuring the maximum effectiveness of a complicated work practice program involving respirators. Respirators do, however, serve a useful function where engineering and work practice controls are inadequate by providing supplementary, interim, or short-term protection, provided they are properly selected for the environment in which the employee will be working, properly fitted to the employee, maintained and cleaned periodically, and worn by the employee when required.
</P>
<P>In its interim final standard on occupational exposure to inorganic lead in the construction industry, OSHA has prohibited prophylactic chelation. Diagnostic and therapeutic chelation are permitted only under the supervision of a licensed physician with appropriate medical monitoring in an acceptable clinical setting. The decision to initiate chelation therapy must be made on an individual basis and take into account the severity of symptoms felt to be a result of lead toxicity along with blood lead levels, ZPP levels, and other laboratory tests as appropriate. EDTA and penicillamine which are the primary chelating agents used in the therapy of occupational lead poisoning have significant potential side effects and their use must be justified on the basis of expected benefits to the worker. Unless frank and severe symptoms are present, therapeutic chelation is not recommended, given the opportunity to remove a worker from exposure and allow the body to naturally excrete accumulated lead. As a diagnostic aid, the chelation mobilization test using CA-EDTA has limited applicability. According to some investigators, the test can differentiate between lead-induced and other nephropathies. The test may also provide an estimation of the mobile fraction of the total body lead burden.
</P>
<P>Employers are required to assure that accurate records are maintained on exposure assessment, including environmental monitoring, medical surveillance, and medical removal for each employee. Exposure assessment records must be kept for at least 30 years. Medical surveillance records must be kept for the duration of employment plus 30 years except in cases where the employment was less than one year. If duration of employment is less than one year, the employer need not retain this record beyond the term of employment if the record is provided to the employee upon termination of employment. Medical removal records also must be maintained for the duration of employment. All records required under the standard must be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health and the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health. Employers must also make environmental and biological monitoring and medical removal records available to affected employees and to former employees or their authorized employee representatives. Employees or their specifically designated representatives have access to their entire medical surveillance records.
</P>
<P>In addition, the standard requires that the employer inform all workers exposed to lead at or above 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> of the provisions of the standard and all its appendices, the purpose and description of medical surveillance and provisions for medical removal protection if temporary removal is required. An understanding of the potential health effects of lead exposure by all exposed employees along with full understanding of their rights under the lead standard is essential for an effective monitoring program.
</P>
<HD2>II. Adverse Health Effects of Inorganic Lead
</HD2>
<P>Although the toxicity of lead has been known for 2,000 years, the knowledge of the complex relationship between lead exposure and human response is still being refined. Significant research into the toxic properties of lead continues throughout the world, and it should be anticipated that our understanding of thresholds of effects and margins of safety will be improved in future years. The provisions of the lead standard are founded on two prime medical judgments: First, the prevention of adverse health effects from exposure to lead throughout a working lifetime requires that worker blood lead levels be maintained at or below 40 µg/dl and second, the blood lead levels of workers, male or female, who intend to parent in the near future should be maintained below 30 µg/dl to minimize adverse reproductive health effects to the parents and developing fetus. The adverse effects of lead on reproduction are being actively researched and OSHA encourages the physician to remain abreast of recent developments in the area to best advise pregnant workers or workers planning to conceive children.
</P>
<P>The spectrum of health effects caused by lead exposure can be subdivided into five developmental stages: Normal, physiological changes of uncertain significance, pathophysiological changes, overt symptoms (morbidity), and mortality. Within this process there are no sharp distinctions, but rather a continuum of effects. Boundaries between categories overlap due to the wide variation of individual responses and exposures in the working population. OSHA's development of the lead standard focused on pathophysiological changes as well as later stages of disease.
</P>
<P>1. Heme Synthesis Inhibition. The earliest demonstrated effect of lead involves its ability to inhibit at least two enzymes of the heme synthesis pathway at very low blood levels. Inhibition of delta aminolevulinic acid dehydrase (ALA-D) which catalyzes the conversion of delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) to protoporphyrin is observed at a blood lead level below 20 µg/dl. At a blood lead level of 40 µg/dl, more than 20% of the population would have 70% inhibition of ALA-D. There is an exponential increase in ALA excretion at blood lead levels greater than 40 µg/dl.
</P>
<P>Another enzyme, ferrochelatase, is also inhibited at low blood lead levels. Inhibition of ferrochelatase leads to increased free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP) in the blood which can then bind to zinc to yield zinc protoporphyrin. At a blood lead level of 50 µg/dl or greater, nearly 100% of the population will have an increase in FEP. There is also an exponential relationship between blood lead levels greater than 40 µg/dl and the associated ZPP level, which has led to the development of the ZPP screening test for lead exposure.
</P>
<P>While the significance of these effects is subject to debate, it is OSHA's position that these enzyme disturbances are early stages of a disease process which may eventually result in the clinical symptoms of lead poisoning. Whether or not the effects do progress to the later stages of clinical disease, disruption of these enzyme processes over a working lifetime is considered to be a material impairment of health.
</P>
<P>One of the eventual results of lead-induced inhibition of enzymes in the heme synthesis pathway is anemia which can be asymptomatic if mild but associated with a wide array of symptoms including dizziness, fatigue, and tachycardia when more severe. Studies have indicated that lead levels as low as 50 µg/dl can be associated with a definite decreased hemoglobin, although most cases of lead-induced anemia, as well as shortened red-cell survival times, occur at lead levels exceeding 80 µg/dl. Inhibited hemoglobin synthesis is more common in chronic cases whereas shortened erythrocyte life span is more common in acute cases.
</P>
<P>In lead-induced anemias, there is usually a reticulocytosis along with the presence of basophilic stippling, and ringed sideroblasts, although none of the above are pathognomonic for lead-induced anemia.
</P>
<P>2. Neurological Effects. Inorganic lead has been found to have toxic effects on both the central and peripheral nervous systems. The earliest stages of lead-induced central nervous system effects first manifest themselves in the form of behavioral disturbances and central nervous system symptoms including irritability, restlessness, insomnia and other sleep disturbances, fatigue, vertigo, headache, poor memory, tremor, depression, and apathy. With more severe exposure, symptoms can progress to drowsiness, stupor, hallucinations, delirium, convulsions and coma.
</P>
<P>The most severe and acute form of lead poisoning which usually follows ingestion or inhalation of large amounts of lead is acute encephalopathy which may arise precipitously with the onset of intractable seizures, coma, cardiorespiratory arrest, and death within 48 hours.
</P>
<P>While there is disagreement about what exposure levels are needed to produce the earliest symptoms, most experts agree that symptoms definitely can occur at blood lead levels of 60 µg/dl whole blood and therefore recommend a 40 µg/dl maximum. The central nervous system effects frequently are not reversible following discontinued exposure or chelation therapy and when improvement does occur, it is almost always only partial.
</P>
<P>The peripheral neuropathy resulting from lead exposure characteristically involves only motor function with minimal sensory damage and has a marked predilection for the extensor muscles of the most active extremity. The peripheral neuropathy can occur with varying degrees of severity. The earliest and mildest form which can be detected in workers with blood lead levels as low as 50 µg/dl is manifested by slowing of motor nerve conduction velocity often without clinical symptoms. With progression of the neuropathy there is development of painless extensor muscle weakness usually involving the extensor muscles of the fingers and hand in the most active upper extremity, followed in severe cases by wrist drop or, much less commonly, foot drop.
</P>
<P>In addition to slowing of nerve conduction, electromyographical studies in patients with blood lead levels greater than 50 µg/dl have demonstrated a decrease in the number of acting motor unit potentials, an increase in the duration of motor unit potentials, and spontaneous pathological activity including fibrillations and fasciculations. Whether these effects occur at levels of 40 µg/dl is undetermined.
</P>
<P>While the peripheral neuropathies can occasionally be reversed with therapy, again such recovery is not assured particularly in the more severe neuropathies and often improvement is only partial. The lack of reversibility is felt to be due in part to segmental demyelination.
</P>
<P>3. Gastrointestinal. Lead may also affect the gastrointestinal system producing abdominal colic or diffuse abdominal pain, constipation, obstipation, diarrhea, anorexia, nausea and vomiting. Lead colic rarely develops at blood lead levels below 80 µg/dl.
</P>
<P>4. Renal. Renal toxicity represents one of the most serious health effects of lead poisoning. In the early stages of disease nuclear inclusion bodies can frequently be identified in proximal renal tubular cells. Renal function remains normal and the changes in this stage are probably reversible. With more advanced disease there is progressive interstitial fibrosis and impaired renal function. Eventually extensive interstitial fibrosis ensues with sclerotic glomeruli and dilated and atrophied proximal tubules; all represent end stage kidney disease. Azotemia can be progressive, eventually resulting in frank uremia necessitating dialysis. There is occasionally associated hypertension and hyperuricemia with or without gout.
</P>
<P>Early kidney disease is difficult to detect. The urinalysis is normal in early lead nephropathy and the blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine increase only when two-thirds of kidney function is lost. Measurement of creatinine clearance can often detect earlier disease as can other methods of measurement of glomerular filtration rate. An abnormal Ca-EDTA mobilization test has been used to differentiate between lead-induced and other nephropathies, but this procedure is not widely accepted. A form of Fanconi syndrome with aminoaciduria, glycosuria, and hyperphosphaturia indicating severe injury to the proximal renal tubules is occasionally seen in children.
</P>
<P>5. Reproductive effects. Exposure to lead can have serious effects on reproductive function in both males and females. In male workers exposed to lead there can be a decrease in sexual drive, impotence, decreased ability to produce healthy sperm, and sterility. Malformed sperm (teratospermia), decreased number of sperm (hypospermia), and sperm with decreased motility (asthenospermia) can all occur. Teratospermia has been noted at mean blood lead levels of 53 µg/dl and hypospermia and asthenospermia at 41 µg/dl. Furthermore, there appears to be a dose-response relationship for teratospermia in lead exposed workers.
</P>
<P>Women exposed to lead may experience menstrual disturbances including dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia and amenorrhea. Following exposure to lead, women have a higher frequency of sterility, premature births, spontaneous miscarriages, and stillbirths.
</P>
<P>Germ cells can be affected by lead and cause genetic damage in the egg or sperm cells before conception and result in failure to implant, miscarriage, stillbirth, or birth defects.
</P>
<P>Infants of mothers with lead poisoning have a higher mortality during the first year and suffer from lowered birth weights, slower growth, and nervous system disorders.
</P>
<P>Lead can pass through the placental barrier and lead levels in the mother's blood are comparable to concentrations of lead in the umbilical cord at birth. Transplacental passage becomes detectable at 12-14 weeks of gestation and increases until birth.
</P>
<P>There is little direct data on damage to the fetus from exposure to lead but it is generally assumed that the fetus and newborn would be at least as susceptible to neurological damage as young children. Blood lead levels of 50-60 µg/dl in children can cause significant neurobehavioral impairments and there is evidence of hyperactivity at blood levels as low as 25 µg/dl. Given the overall body of literature concerning the adverse health effects of lead in children, OSHA feels that the blood lead level in children should be maintained below 30 µg/dl with a population mean of 15 µg/dl. Blood lead levels in the fetus and newborn likewise should not exceed 30 µg/dl.
</P>
<P>Because of lead's ability to pass through the placental barrier and also because of the demonstrated adverse effects of lead on reproductive function in both the male and female as well as the risk of genetic damage of lead on both the ovum and sperm, OSHA recommends a 30 µg/dl maximum permissible blood lead level in both males and females who wish to bear children.
</P>
<P>6. Other toxic effects. Debate and research continue on the effects of lead on the human body. Hypertension has frequently been noted in occupationally exposed individuals although it is difficult to assess whether this is due to lead's adverse effects on the kidney or if some other mechanism is involved. Vascular and electrocardiographic changes have been detected but have not been well characterized. Lead is thought to impair thyroid function and interfere with the pituitary-adrenal axis, but again these effects have not been well defined.
</P>
<HD2>III. Medical Evaluation
</HD2>
<P>The most important principle in evaluating a worker for any occupational disease including lead poisoning is a high index of suspicion on the part of the examining physician. As discussed in Section 2, lead can affect numerous organ systems and produce a wide array of signs and symptoms, most of which are non-specific and subtle in nature at least in the early stages of disease. Unless serious concern for lead toxicity is present, many of the early clues to diagnosis may easily be overlooked.
</P>
<P>The crucial initial step in the medical evaluation is recognizing that a worker's employment can result in exposure to lead. The worker will frequently be able to define exposures to lead and lead containing materials but often will not volunteer this information unless specifically asked. In other situations the worker may not know of any exposures to lead but the suspicion might be raised on the part of the physician because of the industry or occupation of the worker. Potential occupational exposure to lead and its compounds occur in many occupations in the construction industry, including demolition and salvaging operations, removal or encapsulation of materials containing lead, construction, alteration, repair or renovation of structures containing lead, transportation, disposal, storage or containment of lead or lead-containing materials on construction sites, and maintenance operations associated with construction activities.
</P>
<P>Once the possibility for lead exposure is raised, the focus can then be directed toward eliciting information from the medical history, physical exam, and finally from laboratory data to evaluate the worker for potential lead toxicity.
</P>
<P>A complete and detailed work history is important in the initial evaluation. A listing of all previous employment with information on job description, exposure to fumes or dust, known exposures to lead or other toxic substances, a description of any personal protective equipment used, and previous medical surveillance should all be included in the worker's record. Where exposure to lead is suspected, information concerning on-the-job personal hygiene, smoking or eating habits in work areas, laundry procedures, and use of any protective clothing or respiratory protection equipment should be noted. A complete work history is essential in the medical evaluation of a worker with suspected lead toxicity, especially when long term effects such as neurotoxicity and nephrotoxicity are considered.
</P>
<P>The medical history is also of fundamental importance and should include a listing of all past and current medical conditions, current medications including proprietary drug intake, previous surgeries and hospitalizations, allergies, smoking history, alcohol consumption, and also non-occupational lead exposures such as hobbies (hunting, riflery). Also known childhood exposures should be elicited. Any previous history of hematological, neurological, gastrointestinal, renal, psychological, gynecological, genetic, or reproductive problems should be specifically noted.
</P>
<P>A careful and complete review of systems must be performed to assess both recognized complaints and subtle or slowly acquired symptoms which the worker might not appreciate as being significant. The review of symptoms should include the following:
</P>
<P>1. General—weight loss, fatigue, decreased appetite.
</P>
<P>2. Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat (HEENT)—headaches, visual disturbances or decreased visual acuity, hearing deficits or tinnitus, pigmentation of the oral mucosa, or metallic taste in mouth.
</P>
<P>3. Cardio-pulmonary—shortness of breath, cough, chest pains, palpitations, or orthopnea.
</P>
<P>4. Gastrointestinal—nausea, vomiting, heartburn, abdominal pain, constipation or diarrhea.
</P>
<P>5. Neurologic—irritability, insomnia, weakness (fatigue), dizziness, loss of memory, confusion, hallucinations, incoordination, ataxia, decreased strength in hands or feet, disturbances in gait, difficulty in climbing stairs, or seizures.
</P>
<P>6. Hematologic—pallor, easy fatigability, abnormal blood loss, melena.
</P>
<P>7. Reproductive (male and female and spouse where relevant)—history of infertility, impotence, loss of libido, abnormal menstrual periods, history of miscarriages, stillbirths, or children with birth defects.
</P>
<P>8. Musculo-skeletal—muscle and joint pains.
</P>
<P>The physical examination should emphasize the neurological, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular systems. The worker's weight and blood pressure should be recorded and the oral mucosa checked for pigmentation characteristic of a possible Burtonian or lead line on the gingiva. It should be noted, however, that the lead line may not be present even in severe lead poisoning if good oral hygiene is practiced.
</P>
<P>The presence of pallor on skin examination may indicate an anemia which, if severe, might also be associated with a tachycardia. If an anemia is suspected, an active search for blood loss should be undertaken including potential blood loss through the gastrointestinal tract.
</P>
<P>A complete neurological examination should include an adequate mental status evaluation including a search for behavioral and psychological disturbances, memory testing, evaluation for irritability, insomnia, hallucinations, and mental clouding. Gait and coordination should be examined along with close observation for tremor. A detailed evaluation of peripheral nerve function including careful sensory and motor function testing is warranted. Strength testing particularly of extensor muscle groups of all extremities is of fundamental importance.
</P>
<P>Cranial nerve evaluation should also be included in the routine examination.
</P>
<P>The abdominal examination should include auscultation for bowel sounds and abdominal bruits and palpation for organomegaly, masses, and diffuse abdominal tenderness.
</P>
<P>Cardiovascular examination should evaluate possible early signs of congestive heart failure. Pulmonary status should be addressed particularly if respirator protection is contemplated.
</P>
<P>As part of the medical evaluation, the interim lead standard requires the following laboratory studies:
</P>
<P>1. Blood lead level
</P>
<P>2. Hemoglobin and hematocrit determinations, red cell indices, and examination of the peripheral blood smear to evaluate red blood cell morphology
</P>
<P>3. Blood urea nitrogen
</P>
<P>4. Serum creatinine
</P>
<P>5. Routine urinalysis with microscopic examination.
</P>
<P>6. A zinc protoporphyrin level.
</P>
<P>In addition to the above, the physician is authorized to order any further laboratory or other tests which he or she deems necessary in accordance with sound medical practice. The evaluation must also include pregnancy testing or laboratory evaluation of male fertility if requested by the employee. Additional tests which are probably not warranted on a routine basis but may be appropriate when blood lead and ZPP levels are equivocal include delta aminolevulinic acid and coproporphyrin concentrations in the urine, and dark-field illumination for detection of basophilic stippling in red blood cells.
</P>
<P>If an anemia is detected further studies including a careful examination of the peripheral smear, reticulocyte count, stool for occult blood, serum iron, total iron binding capacity, bilirubin, and, if appropriate, vitamin B12 and folate may be of value in attempting to identify the cause of the anemia.
</P>
<P>If a peripheral neuropathy is suspected, nerve conduction studies are warranted both for diagnosis and as a basis to monitor any therapy.
</P>
<P>If renal disease is questioned, a 24 hour urine collection for creatinine clearance, protein, and electrolytes may be indicated. Elevated uric acid levels may result from lead-induced renal disease and a serum uric acid level might be performed.
</P>
<P>An electrocardiogram and chest x-ray may be obtained as deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>Sophisticated and highly specialized testing should not be done routinely and where indicated should be under the direction of a specialist.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Laboratory Evaluation
</HD2>
<P>The blood lead level at present remains the single most important test to monitor lead exposure and is the test used in the medical surveillance program under the lead standard to guide employee medical removal. The ZPP has several advantages over the blood lead level. Because of its relatively recent development and the lack of extensive data concerning its interpretation, the ZPP currently remains an ancillary test.
</P>
<P>This section will discuss the blood lead level and ZPP in detail and will outline their relative advantages and disadvantages. Other blood tests currently available to evaluate lead exposure will also be reviewed.
</P>
<P>The blood lead level is a good index of current or recent lead absorption when there is no anemia present and when the worker has not taken any chelating agents. However, blood lead levels along with urinary lead levels do not necessarily indicate the total body burden of lead and are not adequate measures of past exposure. One reason for this is that lead has a high affinity for bone and up to 90% of the body's total lead is deposited there. A very important component of the total lead body burden is lead in soft tissue (liver, kidney, and brain). This fraction of the lead body burden, the biologically active lead, is not entirely reflected by blood lead levels since it is a function of the dynamics of lead absorption, distribution, deposition in bone and excretion. Following discontinuation of exposure to lead, the excess body burden is only slowly mobilized from bone and other relatively stable body stores and excreted. Consequently, a high blood lead level may only represent recent heavy exposure to lead without a significant total body excess and likewise a low blood lead level does not exclude an elevated total body burden of lead.
</P>
<P>Also due to its correlation with recent exposures, the blood lead level may vary considerably over short time intervals.
</P>
<P>To minimize laboratory error and erroneous results due to contamination, blood specimens must be carefully collected after thorough cleaning of the skin with appropriate methods using lead-free blood containers and analyzed by a reliable laboratory. Under the standard, samples must be analyzed in laboratories which are approved by OSHA. Analysis is to be made using atomic absorption spectrophotometry, anodic stripping voltammetry or any method which meets the accuracy requirements set forth by the standard.
</P>
<P>The determination of lead in urine is generally considered a less reliable monitoring technique than analysis of whole blood primarily due to individual variability in urinary excretion capacity as well as the technical difficulty of obtaining accurate 24 hour urine collections. In addition, workers with renal insufficiency, whether due to lead or some other cause, may have decreased lead clearance and consequently urine lead levels may underestimate the true lead burden. Therefore, urine lead levels should not be used as a routine test.
</P>
<P>The zinc protoporphyrin test, unlike the blood lead determination, measures an adverse metabolic effect of lead and as such is a better indicator of lead toxicity than the level of blood lead itself. The level of ZPP reflects lead absorption over the preceding 3 to 4 months, and therefore is a better indicator of lead body burden. The ZPP requires more time than the blood lead to read significantly elevated levels; the return to normal after discontinuing lead exposure is also slower. Furthermore, the ZPP test is simpler, faster, and less expensive to perform and no contamination is possible. Many investigators believe it is the most reliable means of monitoring chronic lead absorption.
</P>
<P>Zinc protoporphyrin results from the inhibition of the enzyme ferrochelatase which catalyzes the insertion of an iron molecule into the protoporphyrin molecule, which then becomes heme. If iron is not inserted into the molecule then zinc, having a greater affinity for protoporphyrin, takes the place of the iron, forming ZPP.
</P>
<P>An elevation in the level of circulating ZPP may occur at blood lead levels as low as 20-30 µg/dl in some workers. Once the blood lead level has reached 40 µg/dl there is more marked rise in the ZPP value from its normal range of less than 100 µg/dl100 ml. Increases in blood lead levels beyond 40 µg/100 g are associated with exponential increases in ZPP.
</P>
<P>Whereas blood lead levels fluctuate over short time spans, ZPP levels remain relatively stable. ZPP is measured directly in red blood cells and is present for the cell's entire 120 day life-span. Therefore, the ZPP level in blood reflects the average ZPP production over the previous 3-4 months and consequently the average lead exposure during that time interval.
</P>
<P>It is recommended that a hematocrit be determined whenever a confirmed ZPP of 50 µg/100 ml whole blood is obtained to rule out a significant underlying anemia. If the ZPP is in excess of 100 µg/100 ml and not associated with abnormal elevations in blood lead levels, the laboratory should be checked to be sure that blood leads were determined using atomic absorption spectrophotometry anodic stripping voltammetry, or any method which meets the accuracy requirements set forth by the standard by an OSHA approved laboratory which is experienced in lead level determinations. Repeat periodic blood lead studies should be obtained in all individuals with elevated ZPP levels to be certain that an associated elevated blood lead level has not been missed due to transient fluctuations in blood leads.
</P>
<P>ZPP has a characteristic fluorescence spectrum with a peak at 594 nm which is detectable with a hematofluorimeter. The hematofluorimeter is accurate and portable and can provide on-site, instantaneous results for workers who can be frequently tested via a finger prick.
</P>
<P>However, careful attention must be given to calibration and quality control procedures. Limited data on blood lead-ZPP correlations and the ZPP levels which are associated with the adverse health effects discussed in Section 2 are the major limitations of the test. Also it is difficult to correlate ZPP levels with environmental exposure and there is some variation of response with age and sex. Nevertheless, the ZPP promises to be an important diagnostic test for the early detection of lead toxicity and its value will increase as more data is collected regarding its relationship to other manifestations of lead poisoning.
</P>
<P>Levels of delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) in the urine are also used as a measure of lead exposure. Increasing concentrations of ALA are believed to result from the inhibition of the enzyme delta-aminolevulinic acid dehydrase (ALA-D). Although the test is relatively easy to perform, inexpensive, and rapid, the disadvantages include variability in results, the necessity to collect a complete 24 hour urine sample which has a specific gravity greater than 1.010, and also the fact that ALA decomposes in the presence of light.
</P>
<P>The pattern of porphyrin excretion in the urine can also be helpful in identifying lead intoxication. With lead poisoning, the urine concentrations of coproporphyrins I and II, porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin I rise. The most important increase, however, is that of coproporphyrin III; levels may exceed 5,000 µg/l in the urine in lead poisoned individuals, but its correlation with blood lead levels and ZPP are not as good as those of ALA. Increases in urinary porphyrins are not diagnostic of lead toxicity and may be seen in porphyria, some liver diseases, and in patients with high reticulocyte counts.
</P>
<P>Summary. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration's interim standard for inorganic lead in the construction industry places significant emphasis on the medical surveillance of all workers exposed to levels of inorganic lead above 30 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> TWA. The physician has a fundamental role in this surveillance program, and in the operation of the medical removal protection program.
</P>
<P>Even with adequate worker education on the adverse health effects of lead and appropriate training in work practices, personal hygiene and other control measures, the physician has a primary responsibility for evaluating potential lead toxicity in the worker. It is only through a careful and detailed medical and work history, a complete physical examination and appropriate laboratory testing that an accurate assessment can be made. Many of the adverse health effects of lead toxicity are either irreversible or only partially reversible and therefore early detection of disease is very important.
</P>
<P>This document outlines the medical monitoring program as defined by the occupational safety and health standard for inorganic lead. It reviews the adverse health effects of lead poisoning and describes the important elements of the history and physical examinations as they relate to these adverse effects. Finally, the appropriate laboratory testing for evaluating lead exposure and toxicity is presented.
</P>
<P>It is hoped that this review and discussion will give the physician a better understanding of the OSHA standard with the ultimate goal of protecting the health and well-being of the worker exposed to lead under his or her care.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 26627, May 4, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 34218, June 24, 1993; 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1296, Jan. 8, 1998; 70 FR 1143, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50191, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75588, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33611, June 8, 2011; 76 FR 80741, Dec. 27, 2011; 77 FR 17890, Mar. 26, 2012; 85 FR 8735, Feb. 18, 2020; 87 FR 38986, June 30, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.64" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.64   Process safety management of highly hazardous chemicals.</HEAD>
<P>For requirements regarding the process safety management of highly hazardous chemicals as it pertains to construction work, follow the requirements in 29 CFR 1910.119.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 21576, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.65" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.65   Hazardous waste operations and emergency response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope, application, and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section covers the following operations, unless the employer can demonstrate that the operation does not involve employee exposure or the reasonable possibility for employee exposure to safety or health hazards:
</P>
<P>(i) Clean-up operations required by a governmental body, whether Federal, state, local or other involving hazardous substances that are conducted at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites (including, but not limited to, the EPA's National Priority Site List (NPL), state priority site lists, sites recommended for the EPA NPL, and initial investigations of government identified sites which are conducted before the presence or absence of hazardous substances has been ascertained);
</P>
<P>(ii) Corrective actions involving clean-up operations at sites covered by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA) as amended (42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Voluntary clean-up operations at sites recognized by Federal, state, local or other governmental bodies as uncontrolled hazardous waste sites;
</P>
<P>(iv) Operations involving hazardous wastes that are conducted at treatment, storage, and disposal (TSD) facilities regulated by 40 CFR parts 264 and 265 pursuant to RCRA; or by agencies under agreement with U.S.E.P.A. to implement RCRA regulations; and
</P>
<P>(v) Emergency response operations for releases of, or substantial threats of releases of, hazardous substances without regard to the location of the hazard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> (i) All requirements of 29 CFR parts 1910 and 1926 apply pursuant to their terms to hazardous waste and emergency response operations whether covered by this section or not. If there is a conflict or overlap, the provision more protective of employee safety and health shall apply without regard to 29 CFR 1926.20(e). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hazardous substance clean-up operations within the scope of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iii) of this section must comply with all paragraphs of this section except paragraphs (p) and (q).
</P>
<P>(iii) Operations within the scope of paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section must comply only with the requirements of paragraph (p) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notes and Exceptions:</HED>
<P>(A) All provisions of paragraph (p) of this section cover any treatment, storage or disposal (TSD) operation regulated by 40 CFR parts 264 and 265 or by state law authorized under RCRA, and required to have a permit or interim status from EPA pursuant to 40 CFR 270.1 or from a state agency pursuant to RCRA.
</P>
<P>(B) Employers who are not required to have a permit or interim status because they are conditionally exempt small quantity generators under 40 CFR 261.5 or are generators who qualify under 40 CFR 262.34 for exemptions from regulation under 40 CFR parts 264, 265 and 270 (“excepted employers”) are not covered by paragraphs (p)(1) through (p)(7) of this section. Excepted employers who are required by the EPA or state agency to have their employees engage in emergency response or who direct their employees to engage in emergency response are covered by paragraph (p)(8) of this section, and cannot be exempted by (p)(8)(i) of this section. Excepted employers who are not required to have employees engage in emergency response, who direct their employees to evacuate in the case of such emergencies and who meet the requirements of paragraph (p)(8)(i) of this section are exempt from the balance of paragraph (p)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) If an area is used primarily for treatment, storage or disposal, any emergency response operations in that area shall comply with paragraph (p)(8) of this section. In other areas not used primarily for treatment, storage, or disposal, any emergency response operations shall comply with paragraph (q) of this section. Compliance with the requirements of paragraph (q) of this section shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (p)(8) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) Emergency response operations for releases of, or substantial threats of releases of, hazardous substances which are not covered by paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section must only comply with the requirements of paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions—Buddy system</I> means a system of organizing employees into work groups in such a manner that each employee of the work group is designated to be observed by at least one other employee in the work group. The purpose of the buddy system is to provide rapid assistance to employees in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P><I>Clean-up operation</I> means an operation where hazardous substances are removed, contained, incinerated, neutralized, stabilized, cleared-up, or in any other manner processed or handled with the ultimate goal of making the site safer for people or the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination</I> means the removal of hazardous substances from employees and their equipment to the extent necessary to preclude the occurrence of foreseeable adverse health affects.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency response</I> or <I>responding to emergencies</I> means a response effort by employees from outside the immediate release area or by other designated responders (i.e., mutual-aid groups, local fire departments, etc.) to an occurrence which results, or is likely to result, in an uncontrolled release of a hazardous substance. Responses to incidental releases of hazardous substances where the substance can be absorbed, neutralized, or otherwise controlled at the time of release by employees in the immediate release area, or by maintenance personnel are not considered to be emergency responses within the scope of this standard. Responses to releases of hazardous substances where there is no potential safety or health hazard (i.e., fire, explosion, or chemical exposure) are not considered to be emergency responses.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means (A) any building, structure, installation, equipment, pipe or pipeline (including any pipe into a sewer or publicly owned treatment works), well, pit, pond, lagoon, impoundment, ditch, storage container, motor vehicle, rolling stock, or aircraft, or (B) any site or area where a hazardous substance has been deposited, stored, disposed of, or placed, or otherwise come to be located; but does not include any consumer product in consumer use or any water-borne vessel.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous materials response (HAZMAT) team</I> means an organized group of employees, designated by the employer, who are expected to perform work to handle and control actual or potential leaks or spills of hazardous substances requiring possible close approach to the substance. The team members perform responses to releases or potential releases of hazardous substances for the purpose of control or stabilization of the incident. A HAZMAT team is not a fire brigade nor is a typical fire brigade a HAZMAT team. A HAZMAT team, however, may be a separate component of a fire brigade or fire department.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous substance</I> means any substance designated or listed under paragraphs (A) through (D) of this definition, exposure to which results or may result in adverse affects on the health or safety of employees:
</P>
<P>(A) Any substance defined under section 101(14) of CERCLA;
</P>
<P>(B) Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent which after release into the environment and upon exposure, ingestion, inhalation, or assimilation into any person, either directly from the environment or indirectly by ingestion through food chains, will or may reasonably be anticipated to cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction) or physical deformations in such persons or their offspring;
</P>
<P>(C) Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as hazardous materials under 49 CFR 172.101 and appendices; and
</P>
<P>(D) Hazardous waste as herein defined.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste</I> means—(A) A waste or combination of wastes as defined in 40 CFR 261.3, or
</P>
<P>(B) Those substances defined as hazardous wastes in 49 CFR 171.8.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste operation</I> means any operation conducted within the scope of this standard.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste site</I> or <I>Site</I> means any facility or location within the scope of this standard at which hazardous waste operations take place.
</P>
<P><I>Health hazard</I> means a chemical or a pathogen where acute or chronic health effects may occur in exposed employees. It also includes stress due to temperature extremes. The term <I>health hazard</I> includes chemicals that are classified in accordance with the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1910.1200, as posing one of the following hazardous effects: acute toxicity (any route of exposure); skin corrosion or irritation; serious eye damage or eye irritation; respiratory or skin sensitization; germ cell mutagenicity; carcinogenicity; reproductive toxicity; specific target organ toxicity (single or repeated exposure); aspiration toxicity or simple asphyxiant. (<I>See</I> Appendix A to § 1910.1200—Health Hazard Criteria (Mandatory) for the criteria for determining whether a chemical is classified as a health hazard.)
</P>
<P><I>IDLH</I> or <I>Immediately dangerous to life or health</I> means an atmospheric concentration of any toxic, corrosive or asphyxiant substance that poses an immediate threat to life or would cause irreversible or delayed adverse health effects or would interfere with an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere.
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen deficiency</I> means that concentration of oxygen by volume below which atmosphere supplying respiratory protection must be provided. It exists in atmospheres where the percentage of oxygen by volume is less than 19.5 percent oxygen.
</P>
<P><I>Permissible exposure limit</I> means the exposure, inhalation or dermal permissible exposure limit specified either in § 1926.55, elsewhere in subpart D, or in other pertinent sections of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Published exposure level</I> means the exposure limits published in “NIOSH Recommendations for Occupational Health Standards” dated 1986 incorporated by reference, or if none is specified, the exposure limits published in the standards specified by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists in their publication “Threshold Limit Values and Biological Exposure Indices for 1987-88” dated 1987 incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P><I>Post emergency response</I> means that portion of an emergency response performed after the immediate threat of a release has been stabilized or eliminated and clean-up of the site has begun. If post emergency response is performed by an employer's own employees who were part of the initial emergency response, it is considered to be part of the initial response and not post emergency response. However, if a group of an employer's own employees, separate from the group providing initial response, performs the clean-up operation, then the separate group of employees would be considered to be performing post-emergency response and subject to paragraph (q)(11) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person</I> means a person with specific training, knowledge and experience in the area for which the person has the responsibility and the authority to control.
</P>
<P><I>Site safety and health supervisor (or official)</I> means the individual located on a hazardous waste site who is responsible to the employer and has the authority and knowledge necessary to implement the site safety and health plan and verify compliance with applicable safety and health requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Small quantity generator</I> means a generator of hazardous wastes who in any calendar month generates no more than 1,000 kilograms (2,205 pounds) of hazardous waste in that month.
</P>
<P><I>Uncontrolled hazardous waste site,</I> means an area identified as an uncontrolled hazardous waste site by a governmental body, whether Federal, state, local or other where an accumulation of hazardous substances creates a threat to the health and safety of individuals or the environment or both. Some sites are found on public lands such as those created by former municipal, county or state landfills where illegal or poorly managed waste disposal has taken place. Other sites are found on private property, often belonging to generators or former generators of hazardous substance wastes. Examples of such sites include, but are not limited to, surface impoundments, landfills, dumps, and tank or drum farms. Normal operations at TSD sites are not covered by this definition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safety and health program.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Safety and health programs developed and implemented to meet other Federal, state, or local regulations are considered acceptable in meeting this requirement if they cover or are modified to cover the topics required in this paragraph. An additional or separate safety and health program is not required by this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Employers shall develop and implement a written safety and health program for their employees involved in hazardous waste operations. The program shall be designed to identify, evaluate, and control safety and health hazards, and provide for emergency response for hazardous waste operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written safety and health program shall incorporate the following:
</P>
<P>(A) An organizational structure;
</P>
<P>(B) A comprehensive workplan;
</P>
<P>(C) A site-specific safety and health plan which need not repeat the employer's standard operating procedures required in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(F) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) The safety and health training program;
</P>
<P>(E) The medical surveillance program;
</P>
<P>(F) The employer's standard operating procedures for safety and health; and
</P>
<P>(G) Any necessary interface between general program and site specific activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Site excavation.</I> Site excavations created during initial site preparation or during hazardous waste operations shall be shored or sloped as appropriate to prevent accidental collapse in accordance with subpart P of 29 CFR part 1926.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Contractors and sub-contractors.</I> An employer who retains contractor or sub-contractor services for work in hazardous waste operations shall inform those contractors, sub-contractors, or their representatives of the site emergency response procedures and any potential fire, explosion, health, safety or other hazards of the hazardous waste operation that have been identified by the employer, including those identified in the employer's information program.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Program availability.</I> The written safety and health program shall be made available to any contractor or subcontractor or their representative who will be involved with the hazardous waste operation; to employees; to employee designated representatives; to OSHA personnel, and to personnel of other Federal, state, or local agencies with regulatory authority over the site.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Organizational structure part of the site program.</I> (i) The organizationa1 structure part of the program shall establish the specific chain of command and specify the overall responsibilities of supervisors and employees. It shall include, at a minimum, the following elements:
</P>
<P>(A) A general supervisor who has the responsibility and authority to direct all hazardous waste operations.
</P>
<P>(B) A site safety and health supervisor who has the responsibility and authority to develop and implement the site safety and health plan and verify compliance.
</P>
<P>(C) All other personnel needed for hazardous waste site operations and emergency response and their general functions and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(D) The lines of authority, responsibility, and communication.
</P>
<P>(ii) The organizational structure shall be reviewed and updated as necessary to reflect the current status of waste site operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Comprehensive workplan part of the site program.</I> The comprehensive workplan part of the program shall address the tasks and objectives of the site operations and the logistics and resources required to reach those tasks and objectives.
</P>
<P>(i) The comprehensive workplan shall address anticipated clean-up activities as well as normal operating procedures which need not repeat the employer's procedures available elsewhere.
</P>
<P>(ii) The comprehensive workplan shall define work tasks and objectives and identify the methods for accomplishing those tasks and objectives.
</P>
<P>(iii) The comprehensive workplan shall establish personnel requirements for implementing the plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The comprehensive workplan shall provide for the implementation of the training required in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The comprehensive workplan shall provide for the implementation of the required informational programs required in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The comprehensive workplan shall provide for the implementation of the medical surveillance program described in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Site-specific safety and health plan part of the program</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The site safety and health plan, which must be kept on site, shall address the safety and health hazards of each phase of site operation and include the requirements and procedures for employee protection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Elements.</I> The site safety and health plan, as a minimum, shall address the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A safety and health risk or hazard analysis for each site task and operation found in the workplan.
</P>
<P>(B) Employee training assignments to assure compliance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Personal protective equipment to be used by employees for each of the site tasks and operations being conducted as required by the personal protective equipment program in paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Medical surveillance requirements in accordance with the program in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) Frequency and types of air monitoring, personnel monitoring, and environmental sampling techniques and instrumentation to be used, including methods of maintenance and calibration of monitoring and sampling equipment to be used.
</P>
<P>(F) Site control measures in accordance with the site control program required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(G) Decontamination procedures in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(H) An emergency response plan meeting the requirements of paragraph (l) of this section for safe and effective responses to emergencies, including the necessary PPE and other equipment.
</P>
<P>(I) Confined space entry procedures.
</P>
<P>(J) A spill containment program meeting the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Pre-entry briefing.</I> The site specific safety and health plan shall provide for pre-entry briefings to be held prior to initiating any site activity, and at such other times as necessary to ensure that employees are apprised of the site safety and health plan and that this plan is being followed. The information and data obtained from site characterization and analysis work required in paragraph (c) of this section shall be used to prepare and update the site safety and health plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Effectiveness of site safety and health plan.</I> Inspections shall be conducted by the site safety and health supervisor or, in the absence of that individual, another individual who is knowledgeable in occupational safety and health, acting on behalf of the employer as necessary to determine the effectiveness of the site safety and health plan. Any deficiencies in the effectiveness of the site safety and health plan shall be corrected by the employer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Site characterization and analysis</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Hazardous waste sites shall be evaluated in accordance with this paragraph to identify specific site hazards and to determine the appropriate safety and health control procedures needed to protect employees from the identified hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preliminary evaluation.</I> A preliminary evaluation of a site's characteristics shall be performed prior to site entry by a qualified person in order to aid in the selection of appropriate employee protection methods prior to site entry. Immediately after initial site entry, a more detailed evaluation of the site's specific characteristics shall be performed by a qualified person in order to further identify existing site hazards and to further aid in the selection of the appropriate engineering controls and personal protective equipment for the tasks to be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hazard identification.</I> All suspected conditions that may pose inhalation or skin absorption hazards that are immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH), or other conditions that may cause death or serious harm, shall be identified during the preliminary survey and evaluated during the detailed survey. Examples of such hazards include, but are not limited to, confined space entry, potentially explosive or flammable situations, visible vapor clouds, or areas where biological indicators such as dead animals or vegetation are located.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Required information.</I> The following information to the extent available shall be obtained by the employer prior to allowing employees to enter a site:
</P>
<P>(i) Location and approximate size of the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of the response activity and/or the job task to be performed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Duration of the planned employee activity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Site topography and accessibility by air and roads.
</P>
<P>(v) Safety and health hazards expected at the site.
</P>
<P>(vi) Pathways for hazardous substance dispersion.
</P>
<P>(vii) Present status and capabilities of emergency response teams that would provide assistance to hazardous waste clean-up site employees at the time of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(viii) Hazardous substances and health hazards involved or expected at the site, and their chemical and physical properties.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Personal protective equipment (PPE) shall be provided and used during initial site entry in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Based upon the results of the preliminary site evaluation, an ensemble of PPE shall be selected and used during initial site entry which will provide protection to a level of exposure below permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels for known or suspected hazardous substances and health hazards, and which will provide protection against other known and suspected hazards identified during the preliminary site evaluation. If there is no permissible exposure limit or published exposure level, the employer may use other published studies and information as a guide to appropriate personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus is not used as part of the entry ensemble, and if respiratory protection is warranted by the potential hazards identified during the preliminary site evaluation, an escape self-contained breathing apparatus of at least five minute's duration shall be carried by employees during initial site entry.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the preliminary site evaluation does not produce sufficient information to identify the hazards or suspected hazards of the site, an ensemble providing protection equivalent to Level B PPE shall be provided as minimum protection, and direct reading instruments shall be used as appropriate for identifying IDLH conditions. (See appendix B for a description of Level B hazards and the recommendations for Level B protective equipment.)
</P>
<P>(iv) Once the hazards of the site have been identified, the appropriate PPE shall be selected and used in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Monitoring.</I> The following monitoring shall be conducted during initial site entry when the site evaluation produces information that shows the potential for ionizing radiation or IDLH conditions, or when the site information is not sufficient reasonably to eliminate these possible conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring with direct reading instruments for hazardous levels of ionizing radiation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitoring the air with appropriate direct reading test equipment (i.e., combustible gas meters, detector tubes) for IDLH and other conditions that may cause death or serious harm (combustible or explosive atmospheres, oxygen deficiency, toxic substances).
</P>
<P>(iii) Visually observing for signs of actual or potential IDLH or other dangerous conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) An ongoing air monitoring program in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section shall be implemented after site characterization has determined the site is safe for the start-up of operations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Risk identification.</I> Once the presence and concentrations of specific hazardous substances and health hazards have been established, the risks associated with these substances shall be identified. Employees who will be working on the site shall be informed of any risks that have been identified. In situations covered by the Hazard Communication Standard, 29 CFR 1926.59, training required by that standard need not be duplicated.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to (<E T="01">c</E>)(7).</HED>
<P>Risks to consider include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Exposures exceeding the permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(b) IDLH concentrations.
</P>
<P>(c) Potential skin absorption and irritation sources.
</P>
<P>(d) Potential eye irritation sources.
</P>
<P>(e) Explosion sensitivity and flammability ranges.
</P>
<P>(f) Oxygen deficiency.</P></NOTE>
<P>(8) <I>Employee notification.</I> Any information concerning the chemical, physical, and toxicologic properties of each substance known or expected to be present on site that is available to the employer and relevant to the duties an employee is expected to perform shall be made available to the affected employees prior to the commencement of their work activities. The employer may utilize information developed for the hazard communication standard for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Site control</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Appropriate site control procedures shall be implemented to control employee exposure to hazardous substances before clean-up work begins.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Site control program.</I> A site control program for protecting employees which is part of the employer's site safety and health program required in paragraph (b) of this section shall be developed during the planning stages of a hazardous waste clean-up operation and modified as necessary as new information becomes available.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Elements of the site control program.</I> The site control program shall, as a minimum, include: A site map; site work zones; the use of a “buddy system”; site communications including alerting means for emergencies; the standard operating procedures or safe work practices; and, identification of the nearest medical assistance. Where these requirements are covered elsewhere they need not be repeated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) All employees working on site (such as but not limited to equipment operators, general laborers and others) exposed to hazardous substances, health hazards, or safety hazards and their supervisors and management responsible for the site shall receive training meeting the requirements of this paragraph before they are permitted to engage in hazardous waste operations that could expose them to hazardous substances, safety, or health hazards, and they shall receive review training as specified in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees shall not be permitted to participate in or supervise field activities until they have been trained to a level required by their job function and responsibility.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements to be covered.</I> The training shall thoroughly cover the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Names of personnel and alternates responsible for site safety and health;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety, health and other hazards present on the site;
</P>
<P>(iii) Use of personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(iv) Work practices by which the employee can minimize risks from hazards;
</P>
<P>(v) Safe use of engineering controls and equipment on the site;
</P>
<P>(vi) Medical surveillance requirements, including recognition of symptoms and signs which might indicate overexposure to hazards; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The contents of paragraphs (G) through (J) of the site safety and health plan set forth in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial training.</I> (i) General site workers (such as equipment operators, general laborers and supervisory personnel) engaged in hazardous substance removal or other activities which expose or potentially expose workers to hazardous substances and health hazards shall receive a minimum of 40 hours of instruction off the site, and a minimum of three days actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Workers on site only occasionally for a specific limited task (such as, but not limited to, ground water monitoring, land surveying, or geo-physical surveying) and who are unlikely to be exposed over permissible exposure limits and published exposure limits shall receive a minimum of 24 hours of instruction off the site, and the minimum of one day actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Workers regularly on site who work in areas which have been monitored and fully characterized indicating that exposures are under permissible exposure limits and published exposure limits where respirators are not necessary, and the characterization indicates that there are no health hazards or the possibility of an emergency developing, shall receive a minimum of 24 hours of instruction off the site and the minimum of one day actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
</P>
<P>(iv) Workers with 24 hours of training who are covered by paragraphs (e)(3)(ii) and (e)(3)(iii) of this section, and who become general site workers or who are required to wear respirators, shall have the additional 16 hours and two days of training necessary to total the training specified in paragraph (e)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Management and supervisor training.</I> On-site management and supervisors directly responsible for, or who supervise employees engaged in, hazardous waste operations shall receive 40 hours initial training, and three days of supervised field experience (the training may be reduced to 24 hours and one day if the only area of their responsibility is employees covered by paragraphs (e)(3)(ii) and (e)(3)(iii)) and at least eight additional hours of specialized training at the time of job assignment on such topics as, but not limited to, the employer's safety and health program and the associated employee training program, personal protective equipment program, spill containment program, and health hazard monitoring procedure and techniques.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Qualifications for trainers.</I> Trainers shall be qualified to instruct employees about the subject matter that is being presented in training. Such trainers shall have satisfactorily completed a training program for teaching the subjects they are expected to teach, or they shall have the academic credentials and instructional experience necessary for teaching the subjects. Instructors shall demonstrate competent instructional skills and knowledge of the applicable subject matter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Training certification.</I> Employees and supervisors that have received and successfully completed the training and field experience specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(4) of this section shall be certified by their instructor or the head instructor and trained supervisor as having successfully completed the necessary training. A written certificate shall be given to each person so certified. Any person who has not been so certified or who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(9) of this section shall be prohibited from engaging in hazardous waste operations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Emergency response.</I> Employees who are engaged in responding to hazardous emergency situations at hazardous waste clean-up sites that may expose them to hazardous substances shall be trained in how to respond to such expected emergencies.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Refresher training.</I> Employees specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and managers and supervisors specified in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, shall receive eight hours of refresher training annually on the items specified in paragraph (e)(2) and/or (e)(4) of this section, any critique of incidents that have occurred in the past year that can serve as training examples of related work, and other relevant topics.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Equivalent training.</I> Employers who can show by documentation or certification that an employee's work experience and/or training has resulted in training equivalent to that training required in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(4) of this section shall not be required to provide the initial training requirements of those paragraphs to such employees and shall provide a copy of the certification or documentation to the employee upon request. However, certified employees or employees with equivalent training new to a site shall receive appropriate, site specific training before site entry and have appropriate supervised field experience at the new site. Equivalent training includes any academic training or the training that existing employees might have already received from actual hazardous waste site work experience.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Employers engaged in operations specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section and not covered by (a)(2)(iii) exceptions and employers of employees specified in paragraph (q)(9) shall institute a medical surveillance program in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employees covered.</I> The medical surveillance program shall be instituted by the employer for the following employees:
</P>
<P>(i) All employees who are or may be exposed to hazardous substances or health hazards at or above the permissible exposure limits or, if there is no permissible exposure limit, above the published exposure levels for these substances, without regard to the use of respirators, for 30 days or more a year;
</P>
<P>(ii) All employees who wear a respirator for 30 days or more a year or as required by § 1926.103;
</P>
<P>(iii) All employees who are injured, become ill or develop signs or symptoms due to possible overexposure involving hazardous substances or health hazards from an emergency response or hazardous waste operation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Members of HAZMAT teams.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency of medical examinations and consultations.</I> Medical examinations and consultations shall be made available by the employer to each employee covered under paragraph (f)(2) of this section on the following schedules:
</P>
<P>(i) For employees covered under paragraphs (f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(ii), and (f)(2)(iv):
</P>
<P>(A) Prior to assignment;
</P>
<P>(B) At least once every twelve months for each employee covered unless the attending physician believes a longer interval (not greater than biennially) is appropriate;
</P>
<P>(C) At termination of employment or reassignment to an area where the employee would not be covered if the employee has not had an examination within the last six months;
</P>
<P>(D) As soon as possible upon notification by an employee that the employee has developed signs or symptoms indicating possible overexposure to hazardous substances or health hazards, or that the employee has been injured or exposed above the permissible exposure limits or published exposure levels in an emergency situation;
</P>
<P>(E) At more frequent times, if the examining physician determines that an increased frequency of examination is medically necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) For employees covered under paragraph (f)(2)(iii) and for all employees including those of employers covered by paragraph (a)(1)(v) who may have been injured, received a health impairment, developed signs or symptoms which may have resulted from exposure to hazardous substances resulting from an emergency incident, or exposed during an emergency incident to hazardous substances at concentrations above the permissible exposure limits or the published exposure levels without the necessary personal protective equipment being used:
</P>
<P>(A) As soon as possible following the emergency incident or development of signs or symptoms;
</P>
<P>(B) At additional times, if the examining physician determines that follow-up examinations or consultations are medically necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Content of medical examinations and consultations.</I> (i) Medical examinations required by paragraph (f)(3) of this section shall include a medical and work history (or updated history if one is in the employee's file) with special emphasis on symptoms related to the handling of hazardous substances and health hazards, and to fitness for duty including the ability to wear any required PPE under conditions (i.e., temperature extremes) that may be expected at the work site.
</P>
<P>(ii) The content of medical examinations or consultations made available to employees pursuant to paragraph (f) shall be determined by the attending physician. The guidelines in the <I>Occupational Safety and Health Guidance Manual for Hazardous Waste Site Activities</I> (See appendix D, Reference #10) should be consulted.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examination bv a physician and costs.</I> All medical examinations and procedures shall be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, preferably one knowledgeable in occupational medicine, and shall be provided without cost to the employee, without loss of pay, and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide one copy of this standard and its appendices to the attending physician, and in addition the following for each employee:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's exposure levels or anticipated exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from previous medical examinations of the employee which is not readily available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(v) Information required by § 1926.103.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain and furnish the employee with a copy of a written opinion from the attending physician containing the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions which would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from work in hazardous waste operations or emergency response, or from respirator use.
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's recommended limitations upon the employee's assigned work.
</P>
<P>(C) The results of the medical examination and tests if requested by the employee.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions which require further examination or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written opinion obtained by the employer shall not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposures.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (i) An accurate record of the medical surveillance required by paragraph (f) of this section shall be retained. This record shall be retained for the period specified and meet the criteria of 29 CFR 1926.33.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record required in paragraph (f)(8)(i) of this section shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) Physician's written opinions, recommended limitations, and results of examinations and tests;
</P>
<P>(C) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to hazardous substances;
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the information provided to the examining physician by the employer, with the exception of the standard and its appendices.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Engineering controls, work practices, and personal protective equipment for employee protection.</I> Engineering controls, work practices, personal protective equipment, or a combination of these shall be implemented in accordance with this paragraph to protect employees from exposure to hazardous substances and safety and health hazards.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Engineering controls, work practices and PPE for substances regulated either in § 1926.55, elsewhere in subpart D, or in other pertinent sections of this part.</I> (i) Engineering controls and work practices shall be instituted to reduce and maintain employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limits for substances regulated either in § 1926.55 or other pertinent sections of this part, except to the extent that such controls and practices are not feasible.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to (<E T="01">g</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Engineering controls which may be feasible include the use of pressurized cabs or control booths on equipment, and/or the use of remotely operated material handling equipment. Work practices which may be feasible are removing all non-essential employees from potential exposure during opening of drums, wetting down dusty operations and locating employees upwind of possible hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever engineering controls and work practices are not feasible or not required, any reasonable combination of engineering controls, work practices and PPE shall be used to reduce and maintain employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limits or dose limits for substances regulated either in § 1926.55 or other pertinent sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall not implement a schedule of employee rotation as a means of compliance with permissible exposure limits or dose limits except when there is no other feasible way of complying with the airborne or dermal dose limits for ionizing radiation.
</P>
<P>(iv) The provisions of subpart D shall be followed.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Engineering controls, work practices, and PPE for substances not regulated either in § 1926.55, elsewhere in subpart D, or in other pertinent sections of this part.</I> An appropriate combination of engineering controls, work practices, and personal protective equipment shall be used to reduce and maintain employee exposure to or below published exposure levels for hazardous substances and health hazards not regulated either in § 1926.55, elsewhere in subpart D, or in other pertinent sections of this part. The employer may use the published literature and Safety Data Sheets (SDS) as a guide in making the employer's determination as to what level of protection the employer believes is appropriate for hazardous substances and health hazards for which there is no permissible exposure limit or published exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personal protective equipment selection.</I> (i) Personal protective equipment (PPE) shall be selected and used which will protect employees from the hazards and potential hazards they are likely to encounter as identified during the site characterization and analysis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal protective equipment selection shall be based on an evaluation of the performance characteristics of the PPE relative to the requirements and limitations of the site, the task-specific conditions and duration, and the hazards and potential hazards identified at the site.
</P>
<P>(iii) Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, or positive pressure air-line respirators equipped with an escape air supply, shall be used when chemical exposure levels present will create a substantial possibility of immediate death, immediate serious illness or injury, or impair the ability to escape.
</P>
<P>(iv) Totally-encapsulating chemical protective suits (protection equivalent to Level A protection as recommended in appendix B) shall be used in conditions where skin absorption of a hazardous substance may result in a substantial possibility of immediate death, immediate serious illness or injury, or impair the ability to escape.
</P>
<P>(v) The level of protection provided by PPE selection shall be increased when additional information on site conditions indicates that increased protection is necessary to reduce employee exposures below permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels for hazardous substances and health hazards. (See appendix B for guidance on selecting PPE ensembles.)
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to (<E T="01">g</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>The level of employee protection provided may be decreased when additional information or site conditions show that decreased protection will not result in hazardous exposures to employees.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) Personal protective equipment shall be selected and used to meet the requirements of subpart E of this part and additional requirements specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Totally-encapsulating chemical protective suits.</I> (i) Totally-encapsulating suits shall protect employees from the particular hazards which are identified during site characterization and analysis.
</P>
<P>(ii) Totally-encapsulating suits shall be capable of maintaining positive air pressure. (See appendix A for a test method which may be used to evaluate this requirement.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Totally-encapsulating suits shall be capable of preventing inward test gas leakage of more than 0.5 percent. (See appendix A for a test method which may be used to evaluate this requirement.)
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal protective equipment (PPE) program.</I> A written personal protective equipment program, which is part of the employer's safety and health program required in paragraph (b) of this section or required in paragraph (p)(1) of this section and which is also a part of the site-specific safety and health plan shall be established. The PPE program shall address the elements listed below. When elements, such as donning and doffing procedures, are provided by the manufacturer of a piece of equipment and are attached to the plan, they need not be rewritten into the plan as long as they adequately address the procedure or element.
</P>
<P>(i) PPE selection based upon site hazards,
</P>
<P>(ii) PPE use and limitations of the equipment,
</P>
<P>(iii) Work mission duration,
</P>
<P>(iv) PPE maintenance and storage,
</P>
<P>(v) PPE decontamination and disposal,
</P>
<P>(vi) PPE training and proper fitting,
</P>
<P>(vii) PPE donning and doffing procedures,
</P>
<P>(viii) PPE inspection procedures prior to, during, and after use,
</P>
<P>(ix) Evaluation of the effectiveness of the PPE program, and
</P>
<P>(x) Limitations during temperature extremes, heat stress, and other appropriate medical considerations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Monitoring shall be performed in accordance with this paragraph where there may be a question of employee exposure to hazardous concentrations of hazardous substances in order to assure proper selection of engineering controls, work practices and personal protective equipment so that employees are not exposed to levels which exceed permissible exposure limits, or published exposure levels if there are no permissible exposure limits, for hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>(ii) Air monitoring shall be used to identify and quantify airborne levels of hazardous substances and safety and health hazards in order to determine the appropriate level of employee protection needed on site.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial entry.</I> Upon initial entry, representative air monitoring shall be conducted to identify any IDLH condition, exposure over permissible exposure limits or published exposure levels, exposure over a radioactive material's dose limits or other dangerous condition such as the presence of flammable atmospheres or oxygen-deficient environments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring.</I> Periodic monitoring shall be conducted when the possibility of an IDLH condition or flammable atmosphere has developed or when there is indication that exposures may have risen over permissible exposure limits or published exposure levels since prior monitoring. Situations where it shall be considered whether the possibility that exposures have risen are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When work begins on a different portion of the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) When contaminants other than those previously identified are being handled.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a different type of operation is initiated (e.g., drum opening as opposed to exploratory well drilling).
</P>
<P>(iv) When employees are handling leaking drums or containers or working in areas with obvious liquid contamination (e.g., a spill or lagoon).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Monitoring of high-risk employees.</I> After the actual clean-up phase of any hazardous waste operation commences; for example, when soil, surface water or containers are moved or disturbed; the employer shall monitor those employees likely to have the highest exposures to hazardous substances and health hazards likely to be present above permissible exposure limits or published exposure levels by using personal sampling frequently enough to characterize employee exposures. If the employees likely to have the highest exposure are over permissible exposure limits or published exposure limits, then monitoring shall continue to determine all employees likely to be above those limits. The employer may utilize a representative sampling approach by documenting that the employees and chemicals chosen for monitoring are based on the criteria stated above.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to (<E T="01">h</E>):</HED>
<P>It is not required to monitor employees engaged in site characterization operations covered by paragraph (c) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Informational programs.</I> Employers shall develop and implement a program, which is part of the employer's safety and health program required in paragraph (b) of this section, to inform employees, contractors, and subcontractors (or their representative) actually engaged in hazardous waste operations of the nature, level and degree of exposure likely as a result of participation in such hazardous waste operations. Employees, contractors and subcontractors working outside of the operations part of a site are not covered by this standard.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Handling drums and containers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Hazardous substances and contaminated soils, liquids, and other residues shall be handled, transported, labeled, and disposed of in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Drums and containers used during the clean-up shall meet the appropriate DOT, OSHA, and EPA regulations for the wastes that they contain.
</P>
<P>(iii) When practical, drums and containers shall be inspected and their integrity shall be assured prior to being moved. Drums or containers that cannot be inspected before being moved because of storage conditions (i.e., buried beneath the earth, stacked behind other drums, stacked several tiers high in a pile, etc.) shall be moved to an accessible location and inspected prior to further handling.
</P>
<P>(iv) Unlabelled drums and containers shall be considered to contain hazardous substances and handled accordingly until the contents are positively identified and labeled.
</P>
<P>(v) Site operations shall be organized to minimize the amount of drum or container movement.
</P>
<P>(vi) Prior to movement of drums or containers, all employees exposed to the transfer operation shall be warned of the potential hazards associated with the contents of the drums or containers.
</P>
<P>(vii) U.S. Department of Transportation specified salvage drums or containers and suitable quantities of proper absorbent shall be kept available and used in areas where spills, leaks, or ruptures may occur.
</P>
<P>(viii) Where major spills may occur, a spill containment program, which is part of the employer's safety and health program required in paragraph (b) of this section, shall be implemented to contain and isolate the entire volume of the hazardous substance being transferred.
</P>
<P>(ix) Drums and containers that cannot be moved without rupture, leakage, or spillage shall be emptied into a sound container using a device classified for the material being transferred.
</P>
<P>(x) A ground-penetrating system or other type of detection system or device shall be used to estimate the location and depth of buried drums or containers.
</P>
<P>(xi) Soil or covering material shall be removed with caution to prevent drum or container rupture.
</P>
<P>(xii) Fire extinguishing equipment meeting the requirements of subpart F of this part shall be on hand and ready for use to control incipient fires.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opening drums and containers.</I> The following procedures shall be followed in areas where drums or containers are being opened:
</P>
<P>(i) Where an airline respirator system is used, connections to the source of air supply shall be protected from contamination and the entire system shall be protected from physical damage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees not actually involved in opening drums or containers shall be kept a safe distance from the drums or containers being opened.
</P>
<P>(iii) If employees must work near or adjacent to drums or containers being opened, a suitable shield that does not interfere with the work operation shall be placed between the employee and the drums or containers being opened to protect the employee in case of accidental explosion.
</P>
<P>(iv) Controls for drum or container opening equipment, monitoring equipment, and fire suppression equipment shall be located behind the explosion-resistant barrier.
</P>
<P>(v) When there is a reasonable possibility of flammable atmospheres being present, material handling equipment and hand tools shall be of the type to prevent sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(vi) Drums and containers shall be opened in such a manner that excess interior pressure will be safely relieved. If pressure can not be relieved from a remote location, appropriate shielding shall be placed between the employee and the drums or containers to reduce the risk of employee injury.
</P>
<P>(vii) Employees shall not stand upon or work from drums or containers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Material handling equipment.</I> Material handiing equipment used to transfer drums and containers shall be selected, positioned and operated to minimize sources of ignition related to the equipment from igniting vapors released from ruptured drums or containers.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Radioactive wastes.</I> Drums and containers containing radioactive wastes shall not be handled until such time as their hazard to employees is properly assessed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shock sensitive wastes.</I> As a minimum, the following special precautions shall be taken when drums and containers containing or suspected of containing shock-sensitive wastes are handled:
</P>
<P>(i) All non-essential employees shall be evacuated from the area of transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Material handling equipment shall be provided with explosive containment devices or protective shields to protect equipment operators from exploding containers.
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee alarm system capable of being perceived above surrounding light and noise conditions shall be used to signal the commencement and completion of explosive waste handling activities.
</P>
<P>(iv) Continuous communications (i.e., portable radios, hand signals, telephones, as appropriate) shall be maintained between the employee-in-charge of the immediate handling area and both the site safety and health supervisor and the command post until such time as the handling operation is completed. Communication equipment or methods that could cause shock sensitive materials to explode shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(v) Drums and containers under pressure, as evidenced by bulging or swelling, shall not be moved until such time as the cause for excess pressure is determined and appropriate containment procedures have been implemented to protect employees from explosive relief of the drum.
</P>
<P>(vi) Drums and containers containing packaged laboratory wastes shall be considered to contain shock-sensitive or explosive materials until they have been characterized.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP><E T="04">Caution:</E> Shipping of shock sensitive wastes may be prohibited under U.S. Department of Transportation regulations. Employers and their shippers should refer to 49 CFR 173.21 and 173.50.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>Laboratory waste packs.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (j)(5) of this section, the following precautions shall be taken, as a minimum, in handling laboratory waste packs (lab packs):
</P>
<P>(i) Lab packs shall be opened only when necessary and then only by an individual knowledgeable in the inspection, classification, and segregation of the containers within the pack according to the hazards of the wastes.
</P>
<P>(ii) If crystalline material is noted on any container, the contents shall be handled as a shock-sensitive waste until the contents are identified.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Sampling of drum and container contents.</I> Sampling of containers and drums shall be done in accordance with a sampling procedure which is part of the site safety and health plan developed for and available to employees and others at the specific worksite.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Shipping and transport.</I> (i) Drums and containers shall be identified and classified prior to packaging for shipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Drum or container staging areas shall be kept to the minimum number necessary to identify and classify materials safely and prepare them for transport.
</P>
<P>(iii) Staging areas shall be provided with adequate access and egress routes.
</P>
<P>(iv) Bulking of hazardous wastes shall be permitted only after a thorough characterization of the materials has been completed.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Tank and vault procedures.</I> (i) Tanks and vaults containing hazardous substances shall be handled in a manner similar to that for drums and containers, taking into consideration the size of the tank or vault.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate tank or vault entry procedures as described in the employer's safety and health plan shall be followed whenever employees must enter a tank or vault.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Decontamination</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Procedures for all phases of decontamination shall be developed and implemented in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decontamination procedures.</I> (i) A decontamination procedure shall be developed, communicated to employees and implemented before any employees or equipment may enter areas on site where potential for exposure to hazardous substances exists.
</P>
<P>(ii) Standard operating procedures shall be developed to minimize employee contact with hazardous substances or with equipment that has contacted hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>(iii) All employees leaving a contaminated area shall be appropriately decontaminated; all contaminated clothing and equipment leaving a contaminated area shall be appropriately disposed of or decontaminated.
</P>
<P>(iv) Decontamination procedures shall be monitored by the site safety and health supervisor to determine their effectiveness. When such procedures are found to be ineffective, appropriate steps shall be taken to correct any deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Location.</I> Decontamination shall be performed in geographical areas that will minimize the exposure of uncontaminated employees or equipment to contaminated employees or equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equipment and solvents.</I> All equipment and solvents used for decontamination shall be decontaminated or disposed of properly.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal protective clothing and equipment.</I> (i) Protective clothing and equipment shall be decontaminated, cleaned, laundered, maintained or replaced as needed to maintain their effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees whose non-impermeable clothing becomes wetted with hazardous substances shall immediately remove that clothing and proceed to shower. The clothing shall be disposed of or decontaminated before it is removed from the work zone.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Unauthorized employees.</I> Unauthorized employees shall not remove protective clothing or equipment from change rooms.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Commercial laundries or cleaning establishments.</I> Commercial laundries or cleaning establishments that decontaminate protective clothing or equipment shall be informed of the potentially harmful effects of exposures to hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Showers and change rooms.</I> Where the decontamination procedure indicates a need for regular showers and change rooms outside of a contaminated area, they shall be provided and meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.141. If temperature conditions prevent the effective use of water, then other effective means for cleansing shall be provided and used.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Emergency response by employees at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites</I>—(1) <I>Emergency response plan.</I> (i) An emergency response plan shall be developed and implemented by all employers within the scope of paragraphs (a)(1) (i)-(ii) of this section to handle anticipated emergencies prior to the commencement of hazardous waste operations. The plan shall be in writing and available for inspection and copying by employees, their representatives, OSHA personnel and other governmental agencies with relevant responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers who will evacuate their employees from the danger area when an emergency occurs, and who do not permit any of their employees to assist in handling the emergency, are exempt from the requirements of this paragraph if they provide an emergency action plan complying with § 1926.35 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements of an emergency response plan.</I> The employer shall develop an emergency response plan for emergencies which shall address, as a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-emergency planning.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personnel roles, lines of authority, and communication.
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency recognition and prevention.
</P>
<P>(iv) Safe distances and places of refuge.
</P>
<P>(v) Site security and control.
</P>
<P>(vi) Evacuation routes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Decontamination procedures which are not covered by the site safety and health plan.
</P>
<P>(viii) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
</P>
<P>(ix) Emergency alerting and response procedures.
</P>
<P>(x) Critique of response and follow-up.
</P>
<P>(xi) PPE and emergency equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures for handling emergency incidents.</I> (i) In addition to the elements for the emergency response plan required in paragraph (1)(2) of this section, the following elements shall be included for emergency response plans:
</P>
<P>(A) Site topography, layout, and prevailing weather conditions.
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for reporting incidents to local, state, and federal governmental agencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) The emergency response plan shall be a separate section of the Site Safety and Health Plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The emergency response plan shall be compatible and integrated with the disaster, fire and/or emergency response plans of local, state, and federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(iv) The emergency response plan shall be rehearsed regularly as part of the overall training program for site operations.
</P>
<P>(v) The site emergency response plan shall be reviewed periodically and, as necessary, be amended to keep it current with new or changing site conditions or information.
</P>
<P>(vi) An employee alarm system shall be installed to notify employees of an emergency situation; to stop work activities if necessary; to lower background noise in order to speed communication; and to begin emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Based upon the information available at time of the emergency, the employer shall evaluate the incident and the site response capabilities and proceed with the appropriate steps to implement the site emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Illumination.</I> Areas accessible to employees shall be lighted to not less than the minimum illumination intensities listed in the following Table D-65.1 while any work is in progress:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-65.1—Minimum Illumination Intensities in Foot-Candles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foot-candles
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Area or operations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General site areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Excavation and waste areas, accessways, active storage areas, loading platforms, refueling, and field maintenance areas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoors: Warehouses, corridors, hallways, and exitways.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tunnels, shafts, and general underground work areas. (Exception: Minimum of 10 foot-candles is required at tunnel and shaft heading during drilling mucking, and scaling. Mine Safety and Health Administration approved cap lights shall be acceptable for use in the tunnel heading.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General shops (e.g., mechanical and electrical equipment rooms, active storerooms, barracks or living quarters, locker or dressing rooms, dining areas, and indoor toilets and workrooms.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First aid stations, infirmaries, and offices.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(n) <I>Sanitation at temporary workplaces</I>—(1) <I>Potable water.</I> (i) An adequate supply of potable water shall be provided on the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) Portable containers used to dispense drinking water shall be capable of being tightly closed, and equipped with a tap. Water shall not be dipped from containers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any container used to distribute drinking water shall be clearly marked as to the nature of its contents and not used for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where single service cups (to be used but once) are supplied, both a sanitary container for the unused cups and a receptacle for disposing of the used cups shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonpotable water.</I> (i) Outlets for nonpotable water, such as water for firefighting purposes, shall be identified to indicate clearly that the water is unsafe and is not to be used for drinking, washing, or cooking purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) There shall be no cross-connection, open or potential, between a system furnishing potable water and a system furnishing nonpotable water.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Toilet facilities.</I> (i) Toilets shall be provided for employees according to the following Table D-65.2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-65.2—Toilet Facilities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of employees
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of facilities
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 or fewer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 20, fewer than 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One toilet seat and one urinal per 40 employees.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One toilet seat and one urinal per 50 employees.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Under temporary field conditions, provisions shall be made to assure that at least one toilet facility is available.
</P>
<P>(iii) Hazardous waste sites not provided with a sanitary sewer shall be provided with the following toilet facilities unless prohibited by local codes:
</P>
<P>(A) Chemical toilets;
</P>
<P>(B) Recirculating toilets;
</P>
<P>(C) Combustion toilets; or
</P>
<P>(D) Flush toilets.
</P>
<P>(iv) The requirements of this paragraph for sanitation facilities shall not apply to mobile crews having transportation readily available to nearby toilet facilities.
</P>
<P>(v) Doors entering toilet facilities shall be provided with entrance locks controlled from inside the facility.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Food handling.</I> All food service facilities and operations for employees shall meet the applicable laws, ordinances, and regulations of the jurisdictions in which they are located.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Temporary sleeping quarters.</I> When temporary sleeping quarters are provided, they shall be heated, ventilated, and lighted.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Washing facilities.</I> The employer shall provide adequate washing facilities for employees engaged in operations where hazardous substances may be harmful to employees. Such facilities shall be in near proximity to the worksite; in areas where exposures are below permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels and which are under the controls of the employer; and shall be so equipped as to enable employees to remove hazardous substances from themselves.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Showers and change rooms.</I> When hazardous waste clean-up or removal operations commence on a site and the duration of the work will require six months or greater time to complete, the employer shall provide showers and change rooms for all employees exposed to hazardous substances and health hazards involved in hazardous waste clean-up or removal operations.
</P>
<P>(i) Showers shall be provided and shall meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.51(f)(4).
</P>
<P>(ii) Change rooms shall be provided and shall meet the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.51(i). Change rooms shall consist of two separate change areas separated by the shower area required in paragraph (n)(7)(i) of this section. One change area, with an exit leading off the worksite, shall provide employees with a clean area where they can remove, store, and put on street clothing. The second area, with an exit to the worksite, shall provide employees with an area where they can put on, remove and store work clothing and personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Showers and change rooms shall be located in areas where exposures are below the permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels. If this cannot be accomplished, then a ventilation system shall be provided that will supply air that is below the permissible exposure limits and published exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employers shall assure that employees shower at the end of their work shift and when leaving the hazardous waste site.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>New technology programs.</I> (1) The employer shall develop and implement procedures for the introduction of effective new technologies and equipment developed for the improved protection of employees working with hazardous waste clean-up operations, and the same shall be implemented as part of the site safety and health program to assure that employee protection is being maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) New technologies, equipment or control measures available to the industry, such as the use of foams, absorbents, adsorbents, neutralizers, or other means to suppress the level of air contaminates while excavating the site or for spill control, shall be evaluated by employers or their representatives. Such an evaluation shall be done to determine the effectiveness of the new methods, materials, or equipment before implementing their use on a large scale for enhancing employee protection. Information and data from manufacturers or suppliers may be used as part of the employer's evaluation effort. Such evaluations shall be made available to OSHA upon request.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Certain operations conducted under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA).</I> Employers conducting operations at treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) facilities specified in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section shall provide and implement the programs specified in this paragraph. See the “Notes and Exceptions” to paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section for employers not covered.)”.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Safety and health program.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a written safety and health program for employees involved in hazardous waste operations that shall be available for inspection by employees, their representatives and OSHA personnel. The program shall be designed to identify, evaluate and control safety and health hazards in their facilities for the purpose of employee protection, to provide for emergency response meeting the requirements of paragraph (p)(8) of this section and to address as appropriate site analysis, engineering controls, maximum exposure limits, hazardous waste handling procedures and uses of new technologies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hazard communication program.</I> The employer shall implement a hazard communication program meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.59 as part of the employer's safety and program.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to 1926.65:</HED>
<P>The exemption for hazardous waste provided in § 1926.59 is applicable to this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance program.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a medical surveillance program meeting the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decontamination program.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a decontamination procedure meeting the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>New technology program.</I> The employer shall develop and implement procedures meeting the requirements of paragraph (o) of this section for introducing new and innovative equipment into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Material handling program.</I> Where employees will be handling drums or containers, the employer shall develop and implement procedures meeting the requirements of paragraphs (j)(1) (ii) through (viii) and (xi) of this section, as well as (j)(3) and (j)(8) of this section prior to starting such work.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Training program</I>—(i) <I>New employees.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a training program, which is part of the employer's safety and health program, for employees exposed to health hazards or hazardous substances at TSD operations to enable the employees to perform their assigned duties and functions in a safe and healthful manner so as not endanger themselves or other employees. The initial training shall be for 24 hours and refresher training shall be for eight hours annually. Employees who have received the initial training required by this paragraph shall be given a written certificate attesting that they have successfully completed the necessary training.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Current employees.</I> Employers who can show by an employee's previous work experience and/or training that the employee has had training equivalent to the initial training required by this paragraph, shall be considered as meeting the initial training requirements of this paragraph as to that employee. Equivalent training includes the training that existing employees might have already received from actual site work experience. Current employees shall receive eight hours of refresher training annually.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Trainers.</I> Trainers who teach initial training shall have satisfactorily completed a training course for teaching the subjects they are expected to teach or they shall have the academic credentials and instruction experience necessary to demonstrate a good command of the subject matter of the courses and competent instructional skills.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Emergency response program</I>—(i) <I>Emergency response plan.</I> An emergency response plan shall be developed and implemented by all employers. Such plans need not duplicate any of the subjects fully addressed in the employer's contingency planning required by permits, such as those issued by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, provided that the contingency plan is made part of the emergency response plan. The emergency response plan shall be a written portion of the employers safety and health program required in paragraph (p)(1) of this section. Employers who will evacuate their employees from the worksite location when an emergency occurs and who do not permit any of their employees to assist in handling the emergency are exempt from the requirements of paragraph (p)(8) if they provide an emergency action plan complying with § 1926.35 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Elements of an emergency response plan.</I> The employer shall develop an emergency response plan for emergencies which shall address, as a minimum, the following areas to the extent that they are not addressed in any specific program required in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(A) Pre-emergency planning and coordination with outside parties.
</P>
<P>(B) Personnel roles, lines of authority, and communication.
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency recognition and prevention.
</P>
<P>(D) Safe distances and places of refuge.
</P>
<P>(E) Site security and control.
</P>
<P>(F) Evacuation routes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) Decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
</P>
<P>(I) Emergency alerting and response procedures.
</P>
<P>(J) Critique of response and follow-up.
</P>
<P>(K) PPE and emergency equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Training.</I> (A) Training for emergency response employees shall be completed before they are called upon to perform in real emergencies. Such training shall include the elements of the emergency response plan, standard operating procedures the employer has established for the job, the personal protective equipment to be worn and procedures for handling emergency incidents.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>Exception #1:</I> An employer need not train all employees to the degree specified if the employer divides the work force in a manner such that a sufficient number of employees who have responsibility to control emergencies have the training specified, and all other employees, who may first respond to an emergency incident, have sufficient awareness training to recognize that an emergency response situation exists and that they are instructed in that case to summon the fully trained employees and not attempt control activities for which they are not trained.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Exception #2:</I> An employer need not train all employees to the degree specified if arrangements have been made in advance for an outside fully-trained emergency response team to respond in a reasonable period and all employees, who may come to the incident first, have sufficient awareness training to recognize that an emergency response situation exists and they have been instructed to call the designated outside fully-trained emergency response team for assistance.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Employee members of TSD facility emergency response organizations shall be trained to a level of competence in the recognition of health and safety hazards to protect themselves and other employees. This would include training in the methods used to minimize the risk from safety and health hazards; in the safe use of control equipment; in the selection and use of appropriate personal protective equipment; in the safe operating procedures to be used at the incident scene; in the techniques of coordination with other employees to minimize risks; in the appropriate response to over exposure from health hazards or injury to themselves and other employees; and in the recognition of subsequent symptoms which may result from over exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) The employer shall certify that each covered employee has attended and successfully completed the training required in paragraph (p)(8)(iii) of this section, or shall certify the employee's competency at least yearly. The method used to demonstrate competency for certification of training shall be recorded and maintained by the employer.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Procedures for handling emergency incidents.</I> (A) In addition to the elements for the emergency response plan required in paragraph (p)(8)(ii) of this section, the following elements shall be included for emergency response plans to the extent that they do not repeat any information already contained in the emergency response plan:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Site topography, layout, and prevailing weather conditions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Procedures for reporting incidents to local, state, and federal governmental agencies.
</P>
<P>(B) The emergency response plan shall be compatible and integrated with the disaster, fire and/or emergency response plans of local, state, and federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(C) The emergency response plan shall be rehearsed regularly as part of the overall training program for site operations.
</P>
<P>(D) The site emergency response plan shall be reviewed periodically and, as necessary, be amended to keep it current with new or changing site conditions or information.
</P>
<P>(E) An employee alarm system shall be installed to notify employees of an emergency situation; to stop work activities if necessary; to lower background noise in order to speed communication; and to begin emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(F) Based upon the information available at time of the emergency, the employer shall evaluate the incident and the site response capabilities and proceed with the appropriate steps to implement the site emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Emerqency response to hazardous substance releases.</I> This paragraph covers employers whose employees are engaged in emergency response no matter where it occurs except that it does not cover employees engaged in operations specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section. Those emergency response organizations who have developed and implemented programs equivalent to this paragraph for handling releases of hazardous substances pursuant to section 303 of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, 42 U.S.C. 11003) shall be deemed to have met the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Emergency response plan.</I> An emergency response plan shall be developed and implemented to handle anticipated emergencies prior to the commencement of emergency response operations. The plan shall be in writing and available for inspection and copying by employees, their representatives and OSHA personnel. Employers who will evacuate their employees from the danger area when an emergency occurs, and who do not permit any of their employees to assist in handling the emergency, are exempt from the requirements of this paragraph if they provide an emergency action plan in accordance with § 1926.35 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements of an emergency response plan.</I> The employer shall develop an emergency response plan for emergencies which shall address, as a minimum, the following to the extent that they are not addressed elsewhere:
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-emergency planning and coordination with outside parties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personnel roles, lines of authority, training, and communication.
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency recognition and prevention.
</P>
<P>(iv) Safe distances and places of refuge.
</P>
<P>(v) Site security and control.
</P>
<P>(vi) Evacuation routes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Decontamination.
</P>
<P>(viii) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
</P>
<P>(ix) Emergency alerting and response procedures.
</P>
<P>(x) Critique of response and follow-up.
</P>
<P>(xi) PPE and emergency equipment.
</P>
<P>(xii) Emergency response organizations may use the local emergency response plan or the state emergency response plan or both, as part of their emergency response plan to avoid duplication. Those items of the emergency response plan that are being properly addressed by the SARA Title III plans may be substituted into their emergency plan or otherwise kept together for the employer and employee's use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures for handling emergency response.</I> (i) The senior emergency response official responding to an emergency shall become the individual in charge of a site-specific Incident Command System (ICS). All emergency responders and their communications shall be coordinated and controlled through the individual in charge of the ICS assisted by the senior official present for each employer.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to (<E T="01">g</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>The <I>senior official</I> at an emergency response is the most senior official on the site who has the responsibility for controlling the operations at the site. Initially it is the senior officer on the first-due piece of responding emergency apparatus to arrive on the incident scene. As more senior officers arrive (i.e., battalion chief, fire chief, state law enforcement official, site coordinator, etc.) the position is passed up the line of authority which has been previously established.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) The individual in charge of the ICS shall identify, to the extent possible, all hazardous substances or conditions present and shall address as appropriate site analysis, use of engineering controls, maximum exposure limits, hazardous substance handling procedures, and use of any new technologies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Based on the hazardous substances and/or conditions present, the individual in charge of the ICS shall implement appropriate emergency operations, and assure that the personal protective equipment worn is appropriate for the hazards to be encountered.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to hazardous substances presenting an inhalation hazard or potential inhalation hazard shall wear positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus while engaged in emergency response, until such time that the individual in charge of the ICS determines through the use of air monitoring that a decreased level of respiratory protection will not result in hazardous exposures to employees.
</P>
<P>(v) The individual in charge of the ICS shall limit the number of emergency response personnel at the emergency site, in those areas of potential or actual exposure to incident or site hazards, to those who are actively performing emergency operations. However, operations in hazardous areas shall be performed using the buddy system in groups of two or more.
</P>
<P>(vi) Back-up personnel shall stand by with equipment ready to provide assistance or rescue. Advance first aid support personnel, as a minimum, shall also stand by with medical equipment and transportation capability.
</P>
<P>(vii) The individual in charge of the ICS shall designate a safety official, who is knowledgable in the operations being implemented at the emergency response site, with specific responsibility to identify and evaluate hazards and to provide direction with respect to the safety of operations for the emergency at hand.
</P>
<P>(viii) When activities are judged by the safety official to be an IDLH condition and/or to involve an imminent danger condition, the safety official shall have the authority to alter, suspend, or terminate those activities. The safety official shall immediately inform the individual in charge of the ICS of any actions needed to be taken to correct these hazards at the emergency scene.
</P>
<P>(ix) After emergency operations have terminated, the individual in charge of the ICS shall implement appropriate decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(x) When deemed necessary for meeting the tasks at hand, approved self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus may be used with approved cylinders from other approved self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus provided that such cylinders are of the same capacity and pressure rating. All compressed air cylinders used with self-contained breathing apparatus shall meet U.S. Department of Transportation and National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health criteria.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Skilled support personnel.</I> Personnel, not necessarily an employer's own employees, who are skilled in the operation of certain equipment, such as mechanized earth moving or digging equipment or crane and hoisting equipment, and who are needed temporarily to perform immediate emergency support work that cannot reasonably be performed in a timely fashion by an employer's own employees, and who will be or may be exposed to the hazards at an emergency response scene, are not required to meet the training required in this paragraph for the employer's regular employees. However, these personnel shall be given an initial briefing at the site prior to their participation in any emergency response. The initial briefing shall include instruction in the wearing of appropriate personal protective equipment, what chemical hazards are involved, and what duties are to be performed. All other appropriate safety and health precautions provided to the employer's own employees shall be used to assure the safety and health of these personnel.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Specialist employees.</I> Employees who, in the course of their regular job duties, work with and are trained in the hazards of specific hazardous substances, and who will be called upon to provide technical advice or assistance at a hazardous substance release incident to the individual in charge, shall receive training or demonstrate competency in the area of their specialization annually.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Training.</I> Training shall be based on the duties and function to be performed by each responder of an emergency response organization. The skill and knowledge levels required for all new responders, those hired after the effective date of this standard, shall be conveyed to them through training before they are permitted to take part in actual emergency operations on an incident. Employees who participate, or are expected to participate, in emergency response, shall be given training in accordance with the following paragraphs:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>First responder awareness level.</I> First responders at the awareness level are individuals who are likely to witness or discover a hazardous substance release and who have been trained to initiate an emergency response sequence by notifying the proper authorities of the release. They would take no further action beyond notifying the authorities of the release. First responders at the awareness level shall have sufficient training or have had sufficient experience to objectively demonstrate competency in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(A) An understanding of what hazardous substances are, and the risks associated with them in an incident.
</P>
<P>(B) An understanding of the potential outcomes associated with an emergency created when hazardous substances are present.
</P>
<P>(C) The ability to recognize the presence of hazardous substances in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(D) The ability to identify the hazardous substances, if possible.
</P>
<P>(E) An understanding of the role of the first responder awareness individual in the employer's emergency response plan including site security and control and the U.S. Department of Transportation's Emergency Response Guidebook.
</P>
<P>(F) The ability to realize the need for additional resources, and to make appropriate notifications to the communication center.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>First responder operations level.</I> First responders at the operations level are individuals who respond to releases or potential releases of hazardous substances as part of the initial response to the site for the purpose of protecting nearby persons, property, or the environment from the effects of the release. They are trained to respond in a defensive fashion without actually trying to stop the release. Their function is to contain the release from a safe distance, keep it from spreading, and prevent exposures. First responders at the operational level shall have received at least eight hours of training or have had sufficient experience to objectively demonstrate competency in the following areas in addition to those listed for the awareness level and the employer shall so certify:
</P>
<P>(A) Knowledge of the basic hazard and risk assessment techniques.
</P>
<P>(B) Know how to select and use proper personal protective equipment provided to the first responder operational level.
</P>
<P>(C) An understanding of basic hazardous materials terms.
</P>
<P>(D) Know how to perform basic control, containment and/or confinement operations within the capabilities of the resources and personal protective equipment available with their unit.
</P>
<P>(E) Know how to implement basic decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(F) An understanding of the relevant standard operating procedures and termination procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Hazardous materials technician.</I> Hazardous materials technicians are individuals who respond to releases or potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release. They assume a more aggressive role than a first responder at the operations level in that they will approach the point of release in order to plug, patch or otherwise stop the release of a hazardous substance. Hazardous materials technicians shall have received at least 24 hours of training equal to the first responder operations level and in addition have competency in the following areas and the employer shall so certify:
</P>
<P>(A) Know how to implement the employer's emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(B) Know the classification, identification and verification of known and unknown materials by using field survey instruments and equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Be able to function within an assigned role in the Incident Command System.
</P>
<P>(D) Know how to select and use proper specialized chemical personal protective equipment provided to the hazardous materials technician.
</P>
<P>(E) Understand hazard and risk assessment techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) Be able to perform advance control, containment, and/or confinement operations within the capabilities of the resources and personal protective equipment available with the unit.
</P>
<P>(G) Understand and implement decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) Understand termination procedures.
</P>
<P>(I) Understand basic chemical and toxicological terminology and behavior.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Hazardous materials specialist.</I> Hazardous materials specialists are individuals who respond with and provide support to hazardous materials technicians. Their duties parallel those of the hazardous materials technician, however, those duties require a more directed or specific knowledge of the various substances they may be called upon to contain. The hazardous materials specialist would also act as the site liaison with Federal, state, local and other government authorities in regards to site activities. Hazardous materials specialists shall have received at least 24 hours of training equal to the technician level and in addition have competency in the following areas and the employer shall so certify:
</P>
<P>(A) Know how to implement the local emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(B) Understand classification, identification and verification of known and unknown materials by using advanced survey instruments and equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Know of the state emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(D) Be able to select and use proper specialized chemical personal protective equipment provided to the hazardous materials specialist.
</P>
<P>(E) Understand in-depth hazard and risk techniques.
</P>
<P>(F) Be able to perform specialized control, containment, and/or confinement operations within the capabilities of the resources and personal protective equipment available.
</P>
<P>(G) Be able to determine and implement decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) Have the ability to develop a site safety and control plan.
</P>
<P>(I) Understand chemical, radiological and toxicological terminology and behavior.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>On scene incident commander.</I> Incident commanders, who will assume control of the incident scene beyond the first responder awareness level, shall receive at least 24 hours of training equal to the first responder operations level and in addition have competency in the following areas and the employer shall so certify:
</P>
<P>(A) Know and be able to implement the employer's incident command system.
</P>
<P>(B) Know how to implement the employer's emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(C) Know and understand the hazards and risks associated with employees working in chemical protective clothing.
</P>
<P>(D) Know how to implement the local emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(E) Know of the state emergency response plan and of the Federal Regional Response Team.
</P>
<P>(F) Know and understand the importance of decontamination procedures.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Trainers.</I> Trainers who teach any of the above training subjects shall have satisfactorily completed a training course for teaching the subjects they are expected to teach, such as the courses offered by the U.S. National Fire Academy, or they shall have the training and/or academic credentials and instructional experience necessary to demonstrate competent instructional skills and a good command of the subject matter of the courses they are to teach.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Refresher training.</I> (i) Those employees who are trained in accordance with paragraph (q)(6) of this section shall receive annual refresher training of sufficient content and duration to maintain their competencies, or shall demonstrate competency in those areas at least yearly.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement shall be made of the training or competency, and if a statement of competency is made, the employer shall keep a record of the methodology used to demonstrate competency.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Medical surveillance and consultation.</I> (i) Members of an organized and designated HAZMAT team and hazardous materials specialists shall receive a baseline physical examination and be provided with medical surveillance as required in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any emergency response employees who exhibits signs or symptoms which may have resulted from exposure to hazardous substances during the course of an emergency incident, either immediately or subsequently, shall be provided with medical consultation as required in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Chemical protective clothing.</I> Chemical protective clothing and equipment to be used by organized and designated HAZMAT team members, or to be used by hazardous materials specialists, shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (g) (3) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Post-emergency response operations.</I> Upon completion of the emergency response, if it is determined that it is necessary to remove hazardous substances, health hazards, and materials contaminated with them (such as contaminated soil or other elements of the natural environment) from the site of the incident, the employer conducting the clean-up shall comply with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet all of the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (o) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the clean-up is done on plant property using plant or workplace employees, such employees shall have completed the training requirements of the following: 29 CFR 1926.35, 1926.59, and 1926.103, and other appropriate safety and health training made necessary by the tasks that they are expected to be performed such as personal protective equipment and decontamination procedures. All equipment to be used in the performance of the clean-up work shall be in serviceable condition and shall have been inspected prior to use.


</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendices to § 1926.65—Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response</HD1></EXTRACT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The following appendices serve as non-mandatory guidelines to assist employees and employers in complying with the appropriate requirements of this section. However § 1926.65(g) makes mandatory in certain circumstances the use of Level A and Level B PPE protection.</P></NOTE>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1926.65—Personal Protective Equipment Test Methods
</HD1>
<P>This appendix sets forth the non-mandatory examples of tests which may be used to evaluate compliance with § 1926.65(g)(4) (ii) and (iii). Other tests and other challenge agents may be used to evaluate compliance.
</P>
<HD2>A. Totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit pressure test
</HD2>
<P>1.0—Scope
</P>
<P>1.1 This practice measures the ability of a gas tight totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit material, seams, and closures to maintain a fixed positive pressure. The results of this practice allow the gas tight integrity of a totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit to be evaluated.
</P>
<P>1.2 Resistance of the suit materials to permeation, penetration, and degradation by specific hazardous substances is not determined by this test method.
</P>
<P>2.0—Definition of terms
</P>
<P>2.1 <I>Totally-encapsulated chemical protective suit (TECP suit)</I> means a full body garment which is constructed of protective clothing materials; covers the wearer's torso, head, arms, legs and respirator; may cover the wearer's hands and feet with tightly attached gloves and boots; completely encloses the wearer and respirator by itself or in combination with the wearer's gloves and boots.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Protective clothing material</I> means any material or combination of materials used in an item of clothing for the purpose of isolating parts of the body from direct contact with a potentially hazardous liquid or gaseous chemicals.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Gas tight</I> means, for the purpose of this test method, the limited flow of a gas under pressure from the inside of a TECP suit to atmosphere at a prescribed pressure and time interval.
</P>
<P>3.0—Summary of test method
</P>
<P>3.1 The TECP suit is visually inspected and modified for the test. The test apparatus is attached to the suit to permit inflation to the pre-test suit expansion pressure for removal of suit wrinkles and creases. The pressure is lowered to the test pressure and monitored for three minutes. If the pressure drop is excessive, the TECP suit fails the test and is removed from service. The test is repeated after leak location and repair.
</P>
<P>4.0—Required Supplies
</P>
<P>4.1 Source of compressed air.
</P>
<P>4.2 Test apparatus for suit testing, including a pressure measurement device with a sensitivity of at least 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch water gauge.
</P>
<P>4.3 Vent valve closure plugs or sealing tape.
</P>
<P>4.4 Soapy water solution and soft brush.
</P>
<P>4.5 Stop watch or appropriate timing device.
</P>
<P>5.0—Safety Precautions
</P>
<P>5.1 Care shall be taken to provide the correct pressure safety devices required for the source of compressed air used.
</P>
<P>6.0—Test Procedure
</P>
<P>6.1 Prior to each test, the tester shall perform a visual inspection of the suit. Check the suit for seam integrity by visually examining the seams and gently pulling on the seams. Ensure that all air supply lines, fittings, visor, zippers, and valves are secure and show no signs of deterioration.
</P>
<P>6.1.1 Seal off the vent valves along with any other normal inlet or exhaust points (such as umbilical air line fittings or face piece opening) with tape or other appropriate means (caps, plugs, fixture, etc.). Care should be exercised in the sealing process not to damage any of the suit components.
</P>
<P>6.1.2 Close all closure assemblies.
</P>
<P>6.1.3 Prepare the suit for inflation by providing an improvised connection point on the suit for connecting an airline. Attach the pressure test apparatus to the suit to permit suit inflation from a compressed air source equipped with a pressure indicating regulator. The leak tightness of the pressure test apparatus should be tested before and after each test by closing off the end of the tubing attached to the suit and assuring a pressure of three inches water gauge for three minutes can be maintained. If a component is removed for the test, that component shall be replaced and a second test conducted with another component removed to permit a complete test of the ensemble.
</P>
<P>6.1.4 The pre-test expansion pressure (A) and the suit test pressure (B) shall be supplied by the suit manufacturer, but in no case shall they be less than: (A) = three inches water gauge; and (B) = two inches water gauge. The ending suit pressure (C) shall be no less than 80 percent of the test pressure (B); i.e., the pressure drop shall not exceed 20 percent of the test pressure (B).
</P>
<P>6.1.5 Inflate the suit until the pressure inside is equal to pressure (A), the pre-test expansion suit pressure. Allow at least one minute to fill out the wrinkles in the suit. Release sufficient air to reduce the suit pressure to pressure (B), the suit test pressure. Begin timing. At the end of three minutes, record the suit pressure as pressure (C), the ending suit pressure. The difference between the suit test pressure and the ending suit test pressure (B-C) shall be defined as the suit pressure drop.
</P>
<P>6.1.6 If the suit pressure drop is more than 20 percent of the suit test pressure (B) during the three-minute test period, the suit fails the test and shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>7.0—Retest Procedure
</P>
<P>7.1 If the suit fails the test check for leaks by inflating the suit to pressure (A) and brushing or wiping the entire suit (including seams, closures, lens gaskets, glove-to-sleeve joints, etc.) with a mild soap and water solution. Observe the suit for the formation of soap bubbles, which is an indication of a leak. Repair all identified leaks.
</P>
<P>7.2 Retest the TECP suit as outlined in Test procedure 6.0.
</P>
<P>8.0—Report
</P>
<P>8.1 Each TECP suit tested by this practice shall have the following information recorded:
</P>
<P>8.1.1 Unique identification number, identifying brand name, date of purchase, material of construction, and unique fit features, e.g., special breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P>8.1.2 The actual values for test pressures (A), (B), and (C) shall be recorded along with the specific observation times. If the ending pressure (C) is less than 80 percent of the test pressure (B), the suit shall be identified as failing the test. When possible, the specific leak location shall be identified in the test records. Retest pressure data shall be recorded as an additional test.
</P>
<P>8.1.3 The source of the test apparatus used shall be identified and the sensitivity of the pressure gauge shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>8.1.4 Records shall be kept for each pressure test even if repairs are being made at the test location.
</P>
<HD1>CAUTION
</HD1>
<P>Visually inspect all parts of the suit to be sure they are positioned correctly and secured tightly before putting the suit back into service. Special care should be taken to examine each exhaust valve to make sure it is not blocked.
</P>
<P>Care should also be exercised to assure that the inside and outside of the suit is completely dry before it is put into storage.
</P>
<HD2>B. Totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit qualitative leak test
</HD2>
<P>1.0—Scope
</P>
<P>1.1 This practice semi-qualitatively tests gas tight totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit integrity by detecting inward leakage of ammonia vapor. Since no modifications are made to the suit to carry out this test, the results from this practice provide a realistic test for the integrity of the entire suit.
</P>
<P>1.2 Resistance of the suit materials to permeation, penetration, and degradation is not determined by this test method. ASTM test methods are available to test suit materials for these characteristics and the tests are usually conducted by the manufacturers of the suits.
</P>
<P>2.0—Definition of terms
</P>
<P>2.1 <I>Totally-encapsulated chemical protective suit (TECP suit)</I> means a full body garment which is constructed of protective clothing materials; covers the wearer's torso, head, arms, legs and respirator; may cover the wearer's hands and feet with tightly attached gloves and boots; completely encloses the wearer and respirator by itself or in combination with the wearer's gloves, and boots.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Protective clothing material</I> means any material or combination of materials used in an item of clothing for the purpose of isolating parts of the body from direct contact with a potentially hazardous liquid or gaseous chemicals.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Gas tight</I> means, for the purpose of this test method, the limited flow of a gas under pressure from the inside of a TECP suit to atmosphere at a prescribed pressure and time interval.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Intrusion Coefficient</I> means a number expressing the level of protection provided by a gas tight totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit. The intrusion coefficient is calculated by dividing the test room challenge agent concentration by the concentration of challenge agent found inside the suit. The accuracy of the intrusion coefficient is dependent on the challenge agent monitoring methods. The larger the intrusion coefficient the greater the protection provided by the TECP suit.
</P>
<P>3.0—Summary of recommended practice
</P>
<P>3.1 The volume of concentrated aqueous ammonia solution (ammonia hydroxide NH<E T="52">4</E> OH) required to generate the test atmosphere is determined using the directions outlined in 6.1. The suit is donned by a person wearing the appropriate respiratory equipment (either a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus or a positive pressure supplied air respirator) and worn inside the enclosed test room. The concentrated aqueous ammonia solution is taken by the suited individual into the test room and poured into an open plastic pan. A two-minute evaporation period is observed before the test room concentration is measured, using a high range ammonia length of stain detector tube. When the ammonia vapor reaches a concentration of between 1000 and 1200 ppm, the suited individual starts a standardized exercise protocol to stress and flex the suit. After this protocol is completed, the test room concentration is measured again. The suited individual exits the test room and his stand-by person measures the ammonia concentration inside the suit using a low range ammonia length of stain detector tube or other more sensitive ammonia detector. A stand-by person is required to observe the test individual during the test procedure; aid the person in donning and doffing the TECP suit; and monitor the suit interior. The intrusion coefficient of the suit can be calculated by dividing the average test area concentration by the interior suit concentration. A colorimetric ammonia indicator strip of bromophenol blue or equivalent is placed on the inside of the suit face piece lens so that the suited individual is able to detect a color change and know if the suit has a significant leak. If a color change is observed the individual shall leave the test room immediately.
</P>
<P>4.0—Required supplies
</P>
<P>4.1 A supply of concentrated aqueous ammonium hydroxide (58% by weight).
</P>
<P>4.2 A supply of bromophenol/blue indicating paper or equivalent, sensitive to 5-10 ppm ammonia or greater over a two-minute period of exposure. [pH 3.0 (yellow) to pH 4.6 (blue)]
</P>
<P>4.3 A supply of high range (0.5-10 volume percent) and low range (5-700 ppm) detector tubes for ammonia and the corresponding sampling pump. More sensitive ammonia detectors can be substituted for the low range detector tubes to improve the sensitivity of this practice.
</P>
<P>4.4 A shallow plastic pan (PVC) at least 12″:14″:1″ and a half pint plastic container (PVC) with tightly closing lid.
</P>
<P>4.5 A graduated cylinder or other volumetric measuring device of at least 50 milliliters in volume with an accuracy of at least ±1 milliliters.
</P>
<HD1>5.0—Safety precautions
</HD1>
<P>5.1 Concentrated aqueous ammonium hydroxide, NH<E T="52">4</E> OH, is a corrosive volatile liquid requiring eye, skin, and respiratory protection. The person conducting the test shall review the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for aqueous ammonia.
</P>
<P>5.2 Since the established permissible exposure limit for ammonia is 35 ppm as a 15 minute STEL, only persons wearing a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus or a positive pressure supplied air respirator shall be in the chamber. Normally only the person wearing the totally-encapsulating suit will be inside the chamber. A stand-by person shall have a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, or a positive pressure supplied air respirator available to enter the test area should the suited individual need assistance.
</P>
<P>5.3 A method to monitor the suited individual must be used during this test. Visual contact is the simplest but other methods using communication devices are acceptable.
</P>
<P>5.4 The test room shall be large enough to allow the exercise protocol to be carried out and then to be ventilated to allow for easy exhaust of the ammonia test atmosphere after the test(s) are completed.
</P>
<P>5.5 Individuals shall be medically screened for the use of respiratory protection and checked for allergies to ammonia before participating in this test procedure.
</P>
<HD1>6.0—Test procedure
</HD1>
<P>6.1.1 Measure the test area to the nearest foot and calculate its volume in cubic feet. Multiply the test area volume by 0.2 milliliters of concentrated aqueous ammonia solution per cubic foot of test area volume to determine the approximate volume of concentrated aqueous ammonia required to generate 1000 ppm in the test area.
</P>
<P>6.1.2 Measure this volume from the supply of concentrated aqueous ammonia and place it into a closed plastic container.
</P>
<P>6.1.3 Place the container, several high range ammonia detector tubes, and the pump in the clean test pan and locate it near the test area entry door so that the suited individual has easy access to these supplies.
</P>
<P>6.2.1 In a non-contaminated atmosphere, open a pre-sealed ammonia indicator strip and fasten one end of the strip to the inside of the suit face shield lens where it can be seen by the wearer. Moisten the indicator strip with distilled water. Care shall be taken not to contaminate the detector part of the indicator paper by touching it. A small piece of masking tape or equivalent should be used to attach the indicator strip to the interior of the suit face shield.
</P>
<P>6.2.2 If problems are encountered with this method of attachment, the indicator strip can be attached to the outside of the respirator face piece lens being used during the test.
</P>
<P>6.3 Don the respiratory protective device normally used with the suit, and then don the TECP suit to be tested. Check to be sure all openings which are intended to be sealed (zippers, gloves, etc.) are completely sealed. DO NOT, however, plug off any venting valves.
</P>
<P>6.4 Step into the enclosed test room such as a closet, bathroom, or test booth, equipped with an exhaust fan. No air should be exhausted from the chamber during the test because this will dilute the ammonia challenge concentrations.
</P>
<P>6.5 Open the container with the pre-measured volume of concentrated aqueous ammonia within the enclosed test room, and pour the liquid into the empty plastic test pan. Wait two minutes to allow for adequate volatilization of the concentrated aqueous ammonia. A small mixing fan can be used near the evaporation pan to increase the evaporation rate of the ammonia solution.
</P>
<P>6.6 After two minutes a determination of the ammonia concentration within the chamber should be made using the high range colorimetric detector tube. A concentration of 1000 ppm ammonia or greater shall be generated before the exercises are started.
</P>
<P>6.7 To test the integrity of the suit the following four minute exercise protocol should be followed:
</P>
<P>6.7.1 Raising the arms above the head with at least 15 raising motions completed in one minute.
</P>
<P>6.7.2 Walking in place for one minute with at least 15 raising motions of each leg in a one-minute period.
</P>
<P>6.7.3 Touching the toes with a least 10 complete motions of the arms from above the head to touching of the toes in a one-minute period.
</P>
<P>6.7.4 Knee bends with at least 10 complete standing and squatting motions in a one-minute period.
</P>
<P>6.8 If at any time during the test the colorimetric indicating paper should change colors, the test should be stopped and section 6.10 and 6.12 initiated (See ¶ 4.2).
</P>
<P>6.9 After completion of the test exercise, the test area concentration should be measured again using the high range colorimetric detector tube.
</P>
<P>6.10 Exit the test area.
</P>
<P>6.11 The opening created by the suit zipper or other appropriate suit penetration should be used to determine the ammonia concentration in the suit with the low range length of stain detector tube or other ammonia monitor. The internal TECP suit air should be sampled far enough from the enclosed test area to prevent a false ammonia reading.
</P>
<P>6.12 After completion of the measurement of the suit interior ammonia concentration the test is concluded and the suit is doffed and the respirator removed.
</P>
<P>6.13 The ventilating fan for the test room should be turned on and allowed to run for enough time to remove the ammonia gas. The fan shall be vented to the outside of the building.
</P>
<P>6.14 Any detectable ammonia in the suit interior (five ppm ammonia (NH<E T="52">3</E>) or more for the length of stain detector tube) indicates that the suit has failed the test. When other ammonia detectors are used a lower level of detection is possible, and it should be specified as the pass/fail criteria.
</P>
<P>6.15 By following this test method, an intrusion coefficient of approximately 200 or more can be measured with the suit in a completely operational condition. If the intrusion coefficient is 200 or more, then the suit is suitable for emergency response and field use.
</P>
<HD3>7.0—Retest procedures
</HD3>
<P>7.1 If the suit fails this test, check for leaks by following the pressure test in test A above.
</P>
<P>7.2 Retest the TECP suit as outlined in the test procedure 6.0.
</P>
<HD3>8.0—Report
</HD3>
<P>8.1 Each gas tight totally-encapsulating chemical protective suit tested by this practice shall have the following information recorded.
</P>
<P>8.1.1 Unique identification number, identifying brand name, date of purchase, material of construction, and unique suit features; e.g., special breathing apparatus.
</P>
<P>8.1.2 General description of test room used for test.
</P>
<P>8.1.3 Brand name and purchase date of ammonia detector strips and color change data.
</P>
<P>8.1.4 Brand name, sampling range, and expiration date of the length of stain ammonia detector tubes. The brand name and model of the sampling pump should also be recorded. If another type of ammonia detector is used, it should be identified along with its minimum detection limit for ammonia.
</P>
<P>8.1.5 Actual test results shall list the two test area concentrations, their average, the interior suit concentration, and the calculated intrusion coefficient. Retest data shall be recorded as an additional test.
</P>
<P>8.2 The evaluation of the data shall be specified as “suit passed” or “suit failed,” and the date of the test. Any detectable ammonia (five ppm or greater for the length of stain detector tube) in the suit interior indicates the suit has failed this test. When other ammonia detectors are used, a lower level of detection is possible and it should be specified as the pass fail criteria.
</P>
<HD1>CAUTION
</HD1>
<P>Visually inspect all parts of the suit to be sure they are positioned correctly and secured tightly before putting the suit back into service. Special care should be taken to examine each exhaust valve to make sure it is not blocked.
</P>
<P>Care should also be exercised to assure that the inside and outside of the suit is completely dry before it is put into storage.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1926.65—General Description and Discussion of the Levels of Protection and Protective Gear
</HD1>
<P>This appendix sets forth information about personal protective equipment (PPE) protection levels which may be used to assist employers in complying with the PPE requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>As required by the standard, PPE must be selected which will protect employees from the specific hazards which they are likely to encounter during their work on-site.
</P>
<P>Selection of the appropriate PPE is a complex process which should take into consideration a variety of factors. Key factors involved in this process are identification of the hazards, or suspected hazards; their routes of potential hazard to employees (inhalation, skin absorption, ingestion, and eye or skin contact); and the performance of the PPE <I>materials</I> (and seams) in providing a barrier to these hazards. The amount of protection provided by PPE is material-hazard specific. That is, protective equipment materials will protect well against some hazardous substances and poorly, or not at all, against others. In many instances, protective equipment materials cannot be found which will provide continuous protection from the particular hazardous substance. In these cases the breakthrough time of the protective material should exceed the work durations.
</P>
<P>Other factors in this selection process to be considered are matching the PPE to the employee's work requirements and task-specific conditions. The durability of PPE materials, such as tear strength and seam strength, should be considered in relation to the employee's tasks. The effects of PPE in relation to heat stress and task duration are a factor in selecting and using PPE. In some cases layers of PPE may be necessary to provide sufficient protection, or to protect expensive PPE inner garments, suits or equipment.
</P>
<P>The more that is known about the hazards at the site, the easier the job of PPE selection becomes. As more information about the hazards and conditions at the site becomes available, the site supervisor can make decisions to up-grade or down-grade the level of PPE protection to match the tasks at hand.
</P>
<P>The following are guidelines which an employer can use to begin the selection of the appropriate PPE. As noted above, the site information may suggest the use of combinations of PPE selected from the different protection levels (i.e., A, B, C, or D) as being more suitable to the hazards of the work. It should be cautioned that the listing below does not fully address the performance of the specific PPE material in relation to the specific hazards at the job site, and that PPE selection, evaluation and re-selection is an ongoing process until sufficient information about the hazards and PPE performance is obtained.
</P>
<P><I>Part A.</I> Personal protective equipment is divided into four categories based on the degree of protection afforded. (See part B of this appendix for further explanation of Levels A, B, C, and D hazards.)
</P>
<P>I. <I>Level A—</I> To be selected when the greatest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection is required.
</P>
<P>The following constitute Level A equipment; it may be used as appropriate;
</P>
<P>1. Positive pressure, full face-piece self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA), or positive pressure supplied air respirator with escape SCBA, approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
</P>
<P>2. Totally-encapsulating chemical-protective suit.
</P>
<P>3. Coveralls. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>4. Long underwear. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>5. Gloves, outer, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>6. Gloves, inner, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>7. Boots, chemical-resistant, steel toe and shank.
</P>
<P>8. Hard hat (under suit). 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>9. Disposable protective suit, gloves and boots (depending on suit construction, may be worn over totally-encapsulating suit).
</P>
<P>II. <I>Level B</I>—The highest level of respiratory protection is necessary but a lesser level of skin protection is needed.
</P>
<P>The following constitute Level B equipment; it may be used as appropriate.
</P>
<P>1. Positive pressure, full-facepiece self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA), or positive pressure supplied air respirator with escape SCBA (NIOSH approved).
</P>
<P>2. Hooded chemical-resistant clothing (overalls and long-sleeved jacket; coveralls; one or two-piece chemical-splash suit; disposable chemical-resistant overalls).
</P>
<P>3. Coveralls. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>4. Gloves, outer, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>5. Gloves, inner, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>6. Boots, outer, chemical-resistant steel toe and shank.
</P>
<P>7. Boot-covers, outer, chemical-resistant (disposable). 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>8. Hard hat. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>9. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>10. Face shield. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>III. <I>Level C</I>—The concentration(s) and type(s) of airborne substance(s) is known and the criteria for using air purifying respirators are met.
</P>
<P>The following constitute Level C equipment; it may be used as appropriate.
</P>
<P>1. Full-face or half-mask, air purifying respirators (NIOSH approved).
</P>
<P>2. Hooded chemical-resistant clothing (overalls; two-piece chemical-splash suit; disposable chemical-resistant overalls).
</P>
<P>3. Coveralls. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Optional, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. Gloves, outer, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>5. Gloves, inner, chemical-resistant.
</P>
<P>6. Boots (outer), chemical-resistant steel toe and shank. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>7. Boot-covers, outer, chemical-resistant (disposable) 
<SU>1</SU>.
</P>
<P>8. Hard hat. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>9. Escape mask. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>10. Face shield. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>IV. <I>Level D</I>—A work uniform affording minimal protection, used for nuisance contamination only.
</P>
<P>The following constitute Level D equipment; it may be used as appropriate:
</P>
<P>1. Coveralls.
</P>
<P>2. Gloves. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>3. Boots/shoes, chemical-resistant steel toe and shank.
</P>
<P>4. Boots, outer, chemical-resistant (disposable). 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>5. Safety glasses or chemical splash goggles *.
</P>
<P>6. Hard hat. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>7. Escape mask. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>8. Face shield. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P><I>Part B.</I> The types of hazards for which levels A, B, C, and D protection are appropriate are described below:
</P>
<P>I. <I>Level A</I>—Level A protection should be used when:
</P>
<P>1. The hazardous substance has been identified and requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes, and the respiratory system based on either the measured (or potential for) high concentration of atmospheric vapors, gases, or particulates; or the site operations and work functions involve a high potential for splash, immersion, or exposure to unexpected vapors, gases, or particulates of materials that are harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through the skin;
</P>
<P>2. Substances with a high degree of hazard to the skin are known or suspected to be present, and skin contact is possible; or
</P>
<P>3. Operations are being conducted in confined, poorly ventilated areas, and the absence of conditions requiring Level A have not yet been determined.
</P>
<P>II. <I>Level B</I>—Level B protection should be used when:
</P>
<P>1. The type and atmospheric concentration of substances have been identified and require a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection;
</P>
<P>2. The atmosphere contains less than 19.5 percent oxygen; or
</P>
<P>3. The presence of incompletely identified vapors or gases is indicated by a direct-reading organic vapor detection instrument, but vapors and gases are not suspected of containing high levels of chemicals harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through the skin.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This involves atmospheres with IDLH concentrations of specific substances that present severe inhalation hazards and that do not represent a severe skin hazard; or that do not meet the criteria for use of air-purifying respirators.</P></NOTE>
<P>III. <I>Level C</I>—Level C protection should be used when:
</P>
<P>1. The atmospheric contaminants, liquid splashes, or other direct contact will not adversely affect or be absorbed through any exposed skin;
</P>
<P>2. The types of air contaminants have been identified, concentrations measured, and an air-purifying respirator is available that can remove the contaminants; and
</P>
<P>3. All criteria for the use of air-purifying respirators are met.
</P>
<P>IV. <I>Level D</I>—Level D protection should be used when:
</P>
<P>1. The atmosphere contains no known hazard; and
</P>
<P>2. Work functions preclude splashes, immersion, or the potential for unexpected inhalation of or contact with hazardous levels of any chemicals.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>As stated before, combinations of personal protective equipment other than those described for Levels A, B, C, and D protection may be more appropriate and may be used to provide the proper level of protection.
</P>
<P>As an aid in selecting suitable chemical protective clothing, it should be noted that the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has developed standards on chemical protective clothing. The standards that have been adopted by include:
</P>
<P>NFPA 1991—Standard on Vapor-Protective Suits for Hazardous Chemical Emergencies (EPA Level A Protective Clothing).
</P>
<P>NFPA 1992—Standard on Liquid Splash-Protective Suits for Hazardous Chemical Emergencies (EPA Level B Protective Clothing).
</P>
<P>NFPA 1993—Standard on Liquid Splash-Protective Suits for Non-emergency, Non-flammable Hazardous Chemical Situations (EPA Level B Protective Clothing).
</P>
<P>These standards apply documentation and performance requirements to the manufacture of chemical protective suits. Chemical protective suits meeting these requirements are labelled as compliant with the appropriate standard. It is recommended that chemical protective suits that meet these standards be used.</P></NOTE></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1926.65—Compliance Guidelines
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Occupational Safety and Health Program.</I> Each hazardous waste site clean-up effort will require an occupational safety and health program headed by the site coordinator or the employer's representative. The purpose of the program will be the protection of employees at the site and will be an extension of the employer's overall safety and health program. The program will need to be developed before work begins on the site and implemented as work proceeds as stated in paragraph (b). The program is to facilitate coordination and communication of safety and health issues among personnel responsible for the various activities which will take place at the site. It will provide the overall means for planning and implementing the needed safety and health training and job orientation of employees who will be working at the site. The program will provide the means for identifying and controlling worksite hazards and the means for monitoring program effectiveness. The program will need to cover the responsibilities and authority of the site coordinator or the employer's manager on the site for the safety and health of employees at the site, and the relationships with contractors or support services as to what each employer's safety and health responsibilities are for their employees on the site. Each contractor on the site needs to have its own safety and health program so structured that it will smoothly interface with the program of the site coordinator or principal contractor.
</P>
<P>Also those employers involved with treating, storing or disposal of hazardous waste as covered in paragraph (p) must have implemented a safety and health program for their employees. This program is to include the hazard communication program required in paragraph (p)(1) and the training required in paragraphs (p)(7) and (p)(8) as parts of the employers comprehensive overall safety and health program. This program is to be in writing.
</P>
<P>Each site or workplace safety and health program will need to include the following: (1) Policy statements of the line of authority and accountability for implementing the program, the objectives of the program and the role of the site safety and health supervisor or manager and staff; (2) means or methods for the development of procedures for identifying and controlling workplace hazards at the site; (3) means or methods for the development and communication to employees of the various plans, work rules, standard operating procedures and practices that pertain to individual employees and supervisors; (4) means for the training of supervisors and employees to develop the needed skills and knowledge to perform their work in a safe and healthful manner; (5) means to anticipate and prepare for emergency situations; and (6) means for obtaining information feedback to aid in evaluating the program and for improving the effectiveness of the program. The management and employees should be trying continually to improve the effectiveness of the program thereby enhancing the protection being afforded those working on the site.
</P>
<P>Accidents on the site or workplace should be investigated to provide information on how such occurrences can be avoided in the future. When injuries or illnesses occur on the site or workplace, they will need to be investigated to determine what needs to be done to prevent this incident from occurring again. Such information will need to be used as feedback on the effectiveness of the program and the information turned into positive steps to prevent any reoccurrence. Receipt of employee suggestions or complaints relating to safety and health issues involved with site or workplace activities is also a feedback mechanism that can be used effectively to improve the program and may serve in part as an evaluative tool(s).
</P>
<P>For the development and implementation of the program to be the most effective, professional safety and health personnel should be used. Certified Safety Professionals, Board Certified Industrial Hygienists or Registered Professional Safety Engineers are good examples of professional stature for safety and health managers who will administer the employer's program.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Training.</I> The training programs for employees subject to the requirements of paragraph (e) of this standard should address: the safety and health hazards employees should expect to find on hazardous waste clean-up sites; what control measures or techniques are effective for those hazards; what monitoring procedures are effective in characterizing exposure levels; what makes an effective employer's safety and health program; what a site safety and health plan should include; hands on training with personal protective equipment and clothing they may be expected to use; the contents of the OSHA standard relevant to the employee's duties and function; and, employee's responsibilities under OSHA and other regulations. Supervisors will need training in their responsibilities under the safety and health program and its subject areas such as the spill containment program, the personal protective equipment program, the medical surveillance program, the emergency response plan and other areas.
</P>
<P>The training programs for employees subject to the requirements of paragraph (p) of this standard should address: the employers safety and health program elements impacting employees; the hazard communication program; the medical surveillance program; the hazards and the controls for such hazards that employees need to know for their job duties and functions. All require annual refresher training.
</P>
<P>The training programs for employees covered by the requirements of paragraph (q) of this standard should address those competencies required for the various levels of response such as: the hazards associated with hazardous substances; hazard identification and awareness; notification of appropriate persons; the need for and use of personal protective equipment including respirators; the decontamination procedures to be used; preplanning activities for hazardous substance incidents including the emergency reponse plan; company standard operating procedures for hazardous substance emergency responses; the use of the incident command system and other subjects. Hands-on training should be stressed whenever possible. Critiques done after an incident which include an evaluation of what worked and what did not and how could the incident be better handled the next time may be counted as training time.
</P>
<P>For hazardous materials specialists (usually members of hazardous materials teams), the training should address the care, use and/or testing of chemical protective clothing including totally encapsulating suits, the medical surveillance program, the standard operating procedures for the hazardous materials team including the use of plugging and patching equipment and other subject areas.
</P>
<P>Officers and leaders who may be expected to be in charge at an incident should be fully knowledgeable of their company's incident command system. They should know where and how to obtain additional assistance and be familiar with the local district's emergency response plan and the state emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>Specialist employees such as technical experts, medical experts or environmental experts that work with hazardous materials in their regular jobs, who may be sent to the incident scene by the shipper, manufacturer or governmental agency to advise and assist the person in charge of the incident should have training on an annual basis. Their training should include the care and use of personal protective equipment including respirators; knowledge of the incident command system and how they are to relate to it; and those areas needed to keep them current in their respective field as it relates to safety and health involving specific hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>Those skilled support personnel, such as employees who work for public works departments or equipment operators who operate bulldozers, sand trucks, backhoes, etc., who may be called to the incident scene to provide emergency support assistance, should have at least a safety and health briefing before entering the area of potential or actual exposure. These skilled support personnel, who have not been a part of the emergency response plan and do not meet the training requirements, should be made aware of the hazards they face and should be provided all necessary protective clothing and equipment required for their tasks.
</P>
<P>There are two National Fire Protection Association standards, NFPA 472—“Standard for Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Material Incidents” and NFPA 471—“Recommended Practice for Responding to Hazardous Material Incidents”, which are excellent resource documents to aid fire departments and other emergency response organizations in developing their training program materials. NFPA 472 provides guidance on the skills and knowledge needed for first responder awareness level, first responder operations level, hazmat technicians, and hazmat specialist. It also offers guidance for the officer corp who will be in charge of hazardous substance incidents.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Decontamination.</I> Decontamination procedures should be tailored to the specific hazards of the site, and may vary in complexity and number of steps, depending on the level of hazard and the employee's exposure to the hazard. Decontamination procedures and PPE decontamination methods will vary depending upon the specific substance, since one procedure or method may not work for all substances. Evaluation of decontamination methods and procedures should be performed, as necessary, to assure that employees are not exposed to hazards by re-using PPE. References in appendix D may be used for guidance in establishing an effective decontamination program. In addition, the U.S. Coast Guard's Manual, “Policy Guidance for Response to Hazardous Chemical Releases,” U.S. Department of Transportation, Washington, DC (COMDTINST M16465.30) is a good reference for establishing an effective decontamination program.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Emergency response plans.</I> States, along with designated districts within the states, will be developing or have developed local emergency response plans. These state and district plans should be utilized in the emergency response plans called for in the standard. Each employer should assure that its emergency response plan is compatible with the local plan. The major reference being used to aid in developing the state and local district plans is the <I>Hazardous Materials Emergency Planning Guide,</I> NRT-1. The current Emergency Response Guidebook from the U.S. Department of Transportation, CMA's CHEMTREC and the Fire Service Emergency Management Handbook may also be used as resources.
</P>
<P>Employers involved with treatment, storage, and disposal facilities for hazardous waste, which have the required contingency plan called for by their permit, would not need to duplicate the same planning elements. Those items of the emergency response plan that are properly addressed in the contingency plan may be substituted into the emergency response plan required in 1926.65 or otherwise kept together for employer and employee use.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Personal protective equipment programs.</I> The purpose of personal protective clothing and equipment (PPE) is to shield or isolate individuals from the chemical, physical, and biologic hazards that may be encountered at a hazardous substance site.
</P>
<P>As discussed in appendix B, no single combination of protective equipment and clothing is capable of protecting against all hazards. Thus PPE should be used in conjunction with other protective methods and its effectiveness evaluated periodically.
</P>
<P>The use of PPE can itself create significant worker hazards, such as heat stress, physical and psychological stress, and impaired vision, mobility, and communication. For any given situation, equipment and clothing should be selected that provide an adequate level of protection. However, over-protection, as well as under-protection, can be hazardous and should be avoided where possible.
</P>
<P>Two basic objectives of any PPE program should be to protect the wearer from safety and health hazards, and to prevent injury to the wearer from incorrect use and/or malfunction of the PPE. To accomplish these goals, a comprehensive PPE program should include hazard identification, medical monitoring, environmental surveillance, selection, use, maintenance, and decontamination of PPE and its associated training.
</P>
<P>The written PPE program should include policy statements, procedures, and guidelines. Copies should be made available to all employees, and a reference copy should be made available at the worksite. Technical data on equipment, maintenance manuals, relevant regulations, and other essential information should also be collected and maintained.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Incident command system (ICS).</I> Paragraph 1926.65(q)(3)(ii) requires the implementation of an ICS. The ICS is an organized approach to effectively control and <I>manage</I> operations at an emergency incident. The individual in charge of the ICS is the senior official responding to the incident. The ICS is not much different than the “command post” approach used for many years by the fire service. During large complex fires involving several companies and many pieces of apparatus, a command post would be established. This enabled <I>one</I> individual to be in charge of managing the incident, rather than having several officers from different companies making separate, and sometimes conflicting, decisions. The individual in charge of the command post would delegate responsibility for performing various tasks to subordinate officers. Additionally, all communications were routed through the command post to reduce the number of radio transmissions and eliminate confusion. However, strategy, tactics, and all decisions were made by one individual.
</P>
<P>The ICS is a very similar system, except it is implemented for emergency response to all incidents, both large and small, that involve hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>For a small incident, the individual in charge of the ICS may perform many tasks of the ICS. There may not be any, or little, delegation of tasks to subordinates. For example, in response to a small incident, the individual in charge of the ICS, in addition to normal command activities, may become the safety officer and may designate only one employee (with proper equipment) as a back-up to provide assistance if needed. OSHA does recommend, however, that at least two employees be designated as back-up personnel since the assistance needed may include rescue.
</P>
<P>To illustrate the operation of the ICS, the following scenario might develop during a small incident, such as an overturned tank truck with a small leak of flammable liquid.
</P>
<P>The first responding senior officer would implement and take command of the ICS. That person would size-up the incident and determine if additional personnel and apparatus were necessary; would determine what actions to take to control the leak; and, determine the proper level of personal protective equipment. If additional assistance is not needed, the individual in charge of the ICS would implement actions to stop and control the leak using the fewest number of personnel that can effectively accomplish the tasks. The individual in charge of the ICS then would designate himself as the safety officer and two other employees as a back-up in case rescue may become necessary. In this scenario, decontamination procedures would not be necessary.
</P>
<P>A large complex incident may require many employees and difficult, time-consuming efforts to control. In these situations, the individual in charge of the ICS will want to delegate different tasks to subordinates in order to maintain a span of control that will keep the number of subordinates, that are reporting, to a manageable level.
</P>
<P>Delegation of task at large incidents may be by location, where the incident scene is divided into sectors, and subordinate officers coordinate activities within the sector that they have been assigned.
</P>
<P>Delegation of tasks can also be by function. Some of the functions that the individual in charge of the ICS may want to delegate at a large incident are: medical services; evacuation; water supply; resources (equipment, apparatus); media relations; safety; and, site control (integrate activities with police for crowd and traffic control). Also for a large incident, the individual in charge of the ICS will designate several employees as back-up personnel; and a number of safety officers to monitor conditions and recommend safety precautions.
</P>
<P>Therefore, no matter what size or complexity an incident may be, by implementing an ICS there will be <I>one individual in charge</I> who makes the decisions and gives directions; and, all actions, and communications are coordinated through one central point of command. Such a system should reduce confusion, improve safety, organize and coordinate actions, and should facilitate effective management of the incident.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Site Safety and Control Plans.</I> The safety and security of response personnel and others in the area of an emergeny response incident site should be of primary concern to the incident commander. The use of a site safety and control plan could greatly assist those in charge of assuring the safety and health of employees on the site.
</P>
<P>A comprehensive site safety and control plan should include the following: summary analysis of hazards on the site and a risk analysis of those hazards; site map or sketch; site work zones (clean zone, transition or decontamination zone, work or hot zone); use of the buddy system; site communications; command post or command center; standard operating procedures and safe work practices; medical assistance and triage area; hazard monitoring plan (air contaminate monitoring, etc.); decontamination procedures and area; and other relevant areas. This plan should be a part of the employer's emergency response plan or an extension of it to the specific site.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Medical surveillance programs.</I> Workers handling hazardous substances may be exposed to toxic chemicals, safety hazards, biologic hazards, and radiation. Therefore, a medical surveillance program is essential to assess and monitor workers' health and fitness for employment in hazardous waste operations and during the course of work; to provide emergency and other treatment as needed; and to keep accurate records for future reference.
</P>
<P>The <I>Occupational Safety and Health Guidance Manual for Hazardous Waste Site Activities</I> developed by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), the U.S. Coast Guard (USCG), and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA); October 1985 provides an excellent example of the types of medical testing that should be done as part of a medical surveillance program.
</P>
<P>9. <I>New Technology and Spill Containment Programs.</I> Where hazardous substances may be released by spilling from a container that will expose employees to the hazards of the materials, the employer will need to implement a program to contain and control the spilled material. Diking and ditching, as well as use of absorbents like diatomaceous earth, are traditional techniques which have proven to be effective over the years. However, in recent years new products have come into the marketplace, the use of which complement and increase the effectiveness of these traditional methods. These new products also provide emergency responders and others with additional tools or agents to use to reduce the hazards of spilled materials.
</P>
<P>These agents can be rapidly applied over a large area and can be uniformly applied or otherwise can be used to build a small dam, thus improving the workers' ability to control spilled material. These application techniques enhance the intimate contact between the agent and the spilled material allowing for the quickest effect by the agent or quickest control of the spilled material. Agents are available to solidify liquid spilled materials, to suppress vapor generation from spilled materials, and to do both. Some special agents, which when applied as recommended by the manufacturer, will react in a controlled manner with the spilled material to neutralize acids or caustics, or greatly reduce the level of hazard of the spilled material.
</P>
<P>There are several modern methods and devices for use by emergency response personnel or others involved with spill control efforts to safely apply spill control agents to control spilled material hazards. These include portable pressurized applicators similar to hand-held portable fire extinguishing devices, and nozzle and hose systems similar to portable fire fighting foam systems which allow the operator to apply the agent without having to come into contact with the spilled material. The operator is able to apply the agent to the spilled material from a remote position.
</P>
<P>The solidification of liquids provides for rapid containment and isolation of hazardous substance spills. By directing the agent at run-off points or at the edges of the spill, the reactant solid will automatically create a barrier to slow or stop the spread of the material. Clean-up of hazardous substances is greatly improved when solidifying agents, acid or caustic neutralizers, or activated carbon adsorbents are used. Properly applied, these agents can totally solidify liquid hazardous substances or neutralize or absorb them, which results in materials which are less hazardous and easier to handle, transport, and dispose of. The concept of spill treatment, to create less hazardous substances, will improve the safety and level of protection of employees working at spill clean-up operations or emergency response operations to spills of hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>The use of vapor suppression agents for volatile hazardous substances, such as flammable liquids and those substances which present an inhalation hazard, is important for protecting workers. The rapid and uniform distribution of the agent over the surface of the spilled material can provide quick vapor knockdown. There are temporary and long-term foam-type agents which are effective on vapors and dusts, and activated carbon adsorption agents which are effective for vapor control and soaking-up of the liquid. The proper use of hose lines or hand-held portable pressurized applicators provides good mobility and permits the worker to deliver the agent from a safe distance without having to step into the untreated spilled material. Some of these systems can be recharged in the field to provide coverage of larger spill areas than the design limits of a single charged applicator unit. Some of the more effective agents can solidify the liquid flammable hazardous substances and at the same time elevate the flashpoint above 140 °F so the resulting substance may be handled as a nonhazardous waste material if it meets the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's 40 CFR part 261 requirements (See particularly § 261.21).
</P>
<P>All workers performing hazardous substance spill control work are expected to wear the proper protective clothing and equipment for the materials present and to follow the employer's established standard operating procedures for spill control. All involved workers need to be trained in the established operating procedures; in the use and care of spill control equipment; and in the associated hazards and control of such hazards of spill containment work.
</P>
<P>These new tools and agents are the things that employers will want to evaluate as part of their new technology program. The treatment of spills of hazardous substances or wastes at an emergency incident as part of the immediate spill containment and control efforts is sometimes acceptable to EPA and a permit exception is described in 40 CFR 264.1(g)(8) and 265.1(c)(11).</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1926.65—References
</HD1>
<P>The following references may be consulted for further information on the subject of this standard:
</P>
<P>1. OSHA Instruction DFO CPL 2.70—January 29, 1986, <I>Special Emphasis Program: Hazardous Waste Sites.</I>
</P>
<P>2. OSHA Instruction DFO CPL 2-2.37A—January 29, 1986, <I>Technical Assistance and Guidelines for Superfund and Other Hazardous Waste Site Activities.</I>
</P>
<P>3. OSHA Instruction DTS CPL 2.74—January 29, 1986, <I>Hazardous Waste Activity Form, OSHA 175.</I>
</P>
<P>4. <I>Hazardous Waste Inspections Reference Manual,</I> U.S. Department of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, 1986.
</P>
<P>5. Memorandum of Understanding Among the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, the United States Coast Guard, and the United States Environmental Protection Agency, <I>Guidance for Worker Protection During Hazardous Waste Site Investigations and Clean-up and Hazardous Substance Emergencies.</I> December 18, 1980.
</P>
<P>6. <I>National Priorities List,</I> 1st Edition, October 1984; U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Revised periodically.
</P>
<P>7. <I>The Decontamination of Response Personnel,</I> Field Standard Operating Procedures (F.S.O.P.) 7; U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Emergency and Remedial Response, Hazardous Response Support Division, December 1984.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Preparation of a Site Safety Plan,</I> Field Standard Operating Procedures (F.S.O.P.) 9; U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Emergency and Remedial Response, Hazardous Response Support Division, April 1985.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Standard Operating Safety Guidelines;</I> U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Emergency and Remedial Response, Hazardous Response Support Division, Environmental Response Team; November 1984.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Occupational Safety and Health Guidance Manual for Hazardous Waste Site Activities,</I> National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), U.S. Coast Guard (USCG), and Environmental Protection Agency (EPA); October 1985.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Protecting Health and Safety at Hazardous Waste Sites: An Overview,</I> U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA/625/9-85/006; September 1985.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Hazardous Waste Sites and Hazardous Substance Emergencies,</I> NIOSH Worker Bulletin, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Centers for Disease Control, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health; December 1982.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Personal Protective Equipment for Hazardous Materials Incidents: A Selection Guide;</I> U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Centers for Disease Control, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health; October 1984.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Fire Service Emergency Management Handbook,</I> International Association of Fire Chiefs Foundation, 101 East Holly Avenue, Unit 10B, Sterling, VA 22170, January 1985.
</P>
<P>15. <I>Emergency Response Guidebook,</I> U.S Department of Transportation, Washington, DC, 1987.
</P>
<P>16. <I>Report to the Congress on Hazardous Materials Training, Planning and Preparedness,</I> Federal Emergency Management Agency, Washington, DC, July 1986.
</P>
<P>17. <I>Workbook for Fire Command,</I> Alan V. Brunacini and J. David Beageron, National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269, 1985.
</P>
<P>18. <I>Fire Command,</I> Alan V. Brunacini, National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park,, Quincy, MA 02269, 1985.
</P>
<P>19. <I>Incident Command System,</I> Fire Protection Publications, Oklahoma State University, Stillwater, OK 74078, 1983.
</P>
<P>20. <I>Site Emergency Response Planning,</I> Chemical Manufacturers Association, Washington, DC 20037, 1986.
</P>
<P>21. <I>Hazardous Materials Emergency Planning Guide,</I> NRT-1, Environmental Protection Agency, Washington, DC, March 1987.
</P>
<P>22. <I>Community Teamwork: Working Together to Promote Hazardous Materials Transportation Safety.</I> U.S. Department of Transportation, Washington, DC, May 1983.
</P>
<P>23. <I>Disaster Planning Guide for Business and Industry,</I> Federal Emergency Management Agency, Publication No. FEMA 141, August 1987.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1926.65—Training Curriculum Guidelines
</HD1>
<P>The following non-mandatory general criteria may be used for assistance in developing site-specific training curriculum used to meet the training requirements of 29 CFR 1926.65(e); 29 CFR 1926.65(p)(7), (p)(8)(iii); and 29 CFR 1926.65(q)(6), (q)(7), and (q)(8). These are generic guidelines and they are not presented as a complete training curriculum for any specific employer. Site-specific training programs must be developed on the basis of a needs assessment of the hazardous waste site, RCRA/TSDF, or emergency response operation in accordance with 29 CFR 1926.65.
</P>
<P><I>It is noted that</I> the legal requirements are set forth in the regulatory text of § 1926.65. The guidance set forth here presents a highly effective program that in the areas covered would meet or exceed the regulatory requirements. In addition, other approaches could meet the regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Suggested General Criteria</I>
</P>
<P><I>Definitions:</I>
</P>
<P><I>Competent</I> means possessing the skills, knowledge, experience, and judgment to perform assigned tasks or activities satisfactorily as determined by the employer.
</P>
<P><I>Demonstration</I> means the showing by actual use of equipment or procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Hands-on training</I> means training in a simulated work environment that permits each student to have experience performing tasks, making decisions, or using equipment appropriate to the job assignment for which the training is being conducted.
</P>
<P><I>Initial training</I> means training required prior to beginning work.
</P>
<P><I>Lecture</I> means an interactive discourse with a class lead by an instructor.
</P>
<P><I>Proficient</I> means meeting a stated level of achievement.
</P>
<P><I>Site-specific</I> means individual training directed to the operations of a specific job site.
</P>
<P><I>Training hours</I> means the number of hours devoted to lecture, learning activities, small group work sessions, demonstration, evaluations, or hands-on experience.
</P>
<P><I>Suggested Core Criteria:</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Training facility.</I> The training facility should have available sufficient resources, equipment, and site locations to perform didactic and hands-on training when appropriate. Training facilities should have sufficient organization, support staff, and services to conduct training in each of the courses offered.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Training Director.</I> Each training program should be under the direction of a training director who is responsible for the program. The Training Director should have a minimum of two years of employee education experience.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Instructors.</I> Instructors should be deem competent on the basis of previous documented experience in their area of instruction, successful completion of a “train-the-trainer” program specific to the topics they will teach, and an evaluation of instructional competence by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>Instructors should be required to maintain professional competency by participating in continuing education or professional development programs or by completing successfully an annual refresher course and having an annual review by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>The annual review by the Training Director should include observation of an instructor's delivery, a review of those observations with the trainer, and an analysis of any instructor or class evaluations completed by the students during the previous year.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Course materials.</I> The Training Director should approve all course materials to be used by the training provider. Course materials should be reviewed and updated at least annually. Materials and equipment should be in good working order and maintained properly.
</P>
<P>All written and audio-visual materials in training curricula should be peer reviewed by technically competent outside reviewers or by a standing advisory committee.
</P>
<P>Reviews should possess expertise in the following disciplines were applicable: occupational health, industrial hygiene and safety, chemical/environmental engineering, employee education, or emergency response. One or more of the peer reviewers should be a employee experienced in the work activities to which the training is directed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Students.</I> The program for accepting students should include:
</P>
<P>a. Assurance that the student is or will be involved in work where chemical exposures are likely and that the student possesses the skills necessary to perform the work.
</P>
<P>b. A policy on the necessary medical clearance.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Ratios.</I> Student-instructor ratios should not exceed 30 students per instructor. Hands-on activity requiring the use of personal protective equipment should have the following student-instructor ratios. For Level C or Level D personal protective equipment the ratio should be 10 students per instructor. For Level A or Level B personal protective equipment the ratio should be 5 students per instructor.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Proficiency assessment.</I> Proficiency should be evaluated and documented by the use of a written assessment and a skill demonstration selected and developed by the Training Director and training staff. The assessment and demonstration should evaluate the knowledge and individual skills developed in the course of training. The level of minimum achievement necessary for proficiency shall be specified in writing by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>If a written test is used, there should be a minimum of 50 questions. If a written test is used in combination with a skills demonstration, a minimum of 25 questions should be used. If a skills demonstration is used, the tasks chosen and the means to rate successful completion should be fully documented by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>The content of the written test or of the skill demonstration shall be relevant to the objectives of the course. The written test and skill demonstration should be updated as necessary to reflect changes in the curriculum and any update should be approved by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>The proficiency assessment methods, regardless of the approach or combination of approaches used, should be justified, document and approved by the Training Director.
</P>
<P>The proficiency of those taking the additional courses for supervisors should be evaluated and document by using proficiency assessment methods acceptable to the Training Director. These proficiency assessment methods must reflect the additional responsibilities borne by supervisory personnel in hazardous waste operations or emergency response.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Course certificate.</I> Written documentation should be provided to each student who satisfactorily completes the training course. The documentation should include:
</P>
<P>a. Student's name.
</P>
<P>b. Course title.
</P>
<P>c. Course date.
</P>
<P>d. Statement that the student has successfully completed the course.
</P>
<P>e. Name and address of the training provider.
</P>
<P>f. An individual identification number for the certificate.
</P>
<P>g. List of the levels of personal protective equipment used by the student to complete the course.
</P>
<P>This documentation may include a certificate and an appropriate wallet-sized laminated card with a photograph of the student and the above information. When such course certificate cards are used, the individual identification number for the training certificate should be shown on the card.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Training providers should maintain records listing the dates courses were presented, the names of the individual course attenders, the names of those students successfully completing each course, and the number of training certificates issued to each successful student. These records should be maintained for a minimum of five years after the date an individual participated in a training program offered by the training provider. These records should be available and provided upon the student's request or as mandated by law.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Program quality control.</I> The Training Director should conduct or direct an annual written audit of the training program. Program modifications to address deficiencies, if any, should be documented, approved, and implemented by the training provider. The audit and the program modification documents should be maintained at the training facility.
</P>
<P><I>Suggested Program Quality Control Criteria</I>
</P>
<P>Factors listed here are suggested criteria for determining the quality and appropriateness of employee health and safety training for hazardous waste operations and emergency response.
</P>
<P><I>A. Training Plan.</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of the training program's curriculum development, instructor training, distribution of course materials, and direct student training should be considered, including
</P>
<P>1. The duration of training, course content, and course schedules/agendas;
</P>
<P>2. The different training requirements of the various target populations, as specified in the appropriate generic training curriculum;
</P>
<P>3. The process for the development of curriculum, which includes appropriate technical input, outside review, evaluation, program pretesting.
</P>
<P>4. The adequate and appropriate inclusion of hands-on, demonstration, and instruction methods;
</P>
<P>5. Adequate monitoring of student safety, progress, and performance during the training.
</P>
<P><I>B. Program management, Training Director, staff, and consultants.</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of staff performance and delivering an effective training program should be considered, including
</P>
<P>1. Demonstration of the training director's leadership in assuring quality of health and safety training.
</P>
<P>2. Demonstration of the competency of the staff to meet the demands of delivering high quality hazardous waste employee health and safety training.
</P>
<P>3. Organization charts establishing clear lines of authority.
</P>
<P>4. Clearly defined staff duties including the relationship of the training staff to the overall program.
</P>
<P>5. Evidence that the training organizational structure suits the needs of the training program.
</P>
<P>6. Appropriateness and adequacy of the training methods used by the instructors.
</P>
<P>7. Sufficiency of the time committed by the training director and staff to the training program.
</P>
<P>8. Adequacy of the ratio of training staff to students.
</P>
<P>9. Availability and commitment of the training program of adequate human and equipment resources in the areas of
</P>
<P>a. Health effects,
</P>
<P>b. Safety,
</P>
<P>c. Personal protective equipment (PPE),
</P>
<P>d. Operational procedures,
</P>
<P>e. Employee protection practices/procedures.
</P>
<P>10. Appropriateness of management controls.
</P>
<P>11. Adequacy of the organization and appropriate resources assigned to assure appropriate training.
</P>
<P>12. In the case of multiple-site training programs, adequacy of satellite centers management.
</P>
<P><I>C. Training facilities and resources.</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of the facilities and resources for supporting the training program should be considered, including,
</P>
<P>1. Space and equipment to conduct the training.
</P>
<P>2. Facilities for representative hands-on training.
</P>
<P>3. In the case of multiple-site programs, equipment and facilities at the satellite centers.
</P>
<P>4. Adequacy and appropriateness of the quality control and evaluations program to account for instructor performance.
</P>
<P>5. Adequacy and appropriateness of the quality control and evaluation program to ensure appropriate course evaluation, feedback, updating, and corrective action.
</P>
<P>6. Adequacy and appropriateness of disciplines and expertise being used within the quality control and evaluation program.
</P>
<P>7. Adequacy and appropriateness of the role of student evaluations to provide feedback for training program improvement.
</P>
<P><I>D. Quality control and evaluation.</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of quality control and evaluation plans for training programs should be considered, including:
</P>
<P>1. A balanced advisory committee and/or competent outside reviewers to give overall policy guidance;
</P>
<P>2. Clear and adequate definition of the composition and active programmatic role of the advisory committee or outside reviewers.
</P>
<P>3. Adequacy of the minutes or reports of the advisory committee or outside reviewers' meetings or written communication.
</P>
<P>4. Adequacy and appropriateness of the quality control and evaluations program to account for instructor performance.
</P>
<P>5. Adequacy and appropriateness of the quality control and evaluation program to ensure appropriate course evaluation, feedback, updating, and corrective action.
</P>
<P>6. Adequacy and appropriateness of disciplines and expertise being used within the quality control and evaluation program.
</P>
<P>7. Adequacy and appropriateness of the role of student evaluations to provide feedback for training program improvement.
</P>
<P><I>E. Students</I>
</P>
<P>Adequacy and appropriateness of the program for accepting students should be considered, including
</P>
<P>1. Assurance that the student already possess the necessary skills for their job, including necessary documentation.
</P>
<P>2. Appropriateness of methods the program uses to ensure that recruits are capable of satisfactorily completing training.
</P>
<P>3. Review and compliance with any medical clearance policy.
</P>
<P><I>F. Institutional Environment and Administrative Support.</I> The adequacy and appropriateness of the institutional environment and administrative support system for the training program should be considered, including
</P>
<P>1. Adequacy of the institutional commitment to the employee training program.
</P>
<P>2. Adequacy and appropriateness of the administrative structure and administrative support.
</P>
<P><I>G. Summary of Evaluation Questions</I> Key questions for evaluating the quality and appropriateness of an overall training program should include the following:
</P>
<P>1. Are the program objectives clearly stated?
</P>
<P>2. Is the program accomplishing its objectives?
</P>
<P>3. Are appropriate facilities and staff available?
</P>
<P>4. Is there an appropriate mix of classroom, demonstration, and hands-on training?
</P>
<P>5. Is the program providing quality employee health and safety training that fully meets the intent of regulatory requirements?
</P>
<P>6. What are the program's main strengths?
</P>
<P>7. What are the program's main weaknesses?
</P>
<P>8. What is recommended to improve the program?
</P>
<P>9. Are instructors instructing according to their training outlines?
</P>
<P>10. Is the evaluation tool current and appropriate for the program content?
</P>
<P>11. Is the course material current and relevant to the target group?
</P>
<P><I>Suggested Training Curriculum Guidelines</I>
</P>
<P>The following training curriculum guidelines are for those operations specifically identified in 29 CFR 1926.65 as requiring training. Issues such as qualifications of instructors, training certification, and similar criteria appropriate to all categories of operations addressed in 1926.65 have been covered in the preceding section and are not re-addressed in each of the generic guidelines. Basic core requirements for training programs that are addressed include
</P>
<P>1. General Hazardous Waste Operations
</P>
<P>2. RCRA operations—Treatment, storage, and disposal facilities.
</P>
<P>3. Emergency Response.
</P>
<P><I>A. General Hazardous Waste Operations and Site-specific Training</I> 1. <I>Off-site training.</I>
</P>
<P>Minimum training course content for hazardous waste operations, required by 29 CFR 1926.65(e), should include the following topics or procedures:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Regulatory knowledge.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) A review of 29 CFR 1926.65 and the core elements of an occupational safety and health program.
</P>
<P>(2) The content of a medical surveillance program as outlined in 29 CFR 1926.65(f).
</P>
<P>(3) The content of an effective site safety and health plan consistent with the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.65(b)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>(4) Emergency response plan and procedures as outlined in 29 CFR 1910.38 and 29 CFR 1926.65(l).
</P>
<P>(5) Adequate illumination.
</P>
<P>(6) Sanitation recommendation and equipment.
</P>
<P>(7) Review and explanation of OSHA's hazard-communication standard (29 CFR 1910.1200) and lock-out-tag-out standard (29 CFR 1910.147).
</P>
<P>(8) Review of other applicable standards including but not limited to those in the construction standards (29 CFR part 1926).
</P>
<P>(9) Rights and responsibilities of employers and employees under applicable OSHA and EPA laws.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Technical knowledge.</I> (1) Type of potential exposures to chemical, biological, and radiological hazards; types of human responses to these hazards and recognition of those responses; principles of toxicology and information about acute and chronic hazards; health and safety considerations of new technology.
</P>
<P>(2) Fundamentals of chemical hazards including but not limited to vapor pressure, boiling points, flash points, ph, other physical and chemical properties.
</P>
<P>(3) Fire and explosion hazards of chemicals.
</P>
<P>(4) General safety hazards such as but not limited to electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, walking-working surface hazards, excavation hazards, and hazards associated with working in hot and cold temperature extremes.
</P>
<P>(5) Review and knowledge of confined space entry procedures in 29 CFR 1910.146.
</P>
<P>(6) Work practices to minimize employee risk from site hazards.
</P>
<P>(7) Safe use of engineering controls, equipment, and any new relevant safety technology or safety procedures.
</P>
<P>(8) Review and demonstration of competency with air sampling and monitoring equipment that may be used in a site monitoring program.
</P>
<P>(9) Container sampling procedures and safeguarding; general drum and container handling procedures including special requirement for laboratory waste packs, shock-sensitive wastes, and radioactive wastes.
</P>
<P>(10) The elements of a spill control program.
</P>
<P>(11) Proper use and limitations of material handling equipment.
</P>
<P>(12) Procedures for safe and healthful preparation of containers for shipping and transport.
</P>
<P>(13) Methods of communication including those used while wearing respiratory protection.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Technical skills.</I> (1) Selection, use maintenance, and limitations of personal protective equipment including the components and procedures for carrying out a respirator program to comply with 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(2) Instruction in decontamination programs including personnel, equipment, and hardware; hands-on training including level A, B, and C ensembles and appropriate decontamination lines; field activities including the donning and doffing of protective equipment to a level commensurate with the employee's anticipated job function and responsibility and to the degree required by potential hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) Sources for additional hazard information; exercises using relevant manuals and hazard coding systems.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Additional suggested items.</I> (1) A laminated, dated card or certificate with photo, denoting limitations and level of protection for which the employee is trained should be issued to those students successfully completing a course.
</P>
<P>(2) Attendance should be required at all training modules, with successful completion of exercises and a final written or oral examination with at least 50 questions.
</P>
<P>(3) A minimum of one-third of the program should be devoted to hands-on exercises.
</P>
<P>(4) A curriculum should be established for the 8-hour refresher training required by 29 CFR 1926.65(e)(8), with delivery of such courses directed toward those areas of previous training that need improvement or reemphasis.
</P>
<P>(5) A curriculum should be established for the required 8-hour training for supervisors. Demonstrated competency in the skills and knowledge provided in a 40-hour course should be a prerequisite for supervisor training.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Refresher training.</I> The 8-hour annual refresher training required in 29 CFR 1926.65(e)(8) should be conducted by qualified training providers. Refresher training should include at a minimum the following topics and procedures:
</P>
<P>(a) Review of and retraining on relevant topics covered in the 40-hour program, as appropriate, using reports by the students on their work experiences.
</P>
<P>(b) Update on developments with respect to material covered in the 40-hour course.
</P>
<P>(c) Review of changes to pertinent provisions of EPA or OSHA standards or laws.
</P>
<P>(d) Introduction of additional subject areas as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Hands-on review of new or altered PPE or decontamination equipment or procedures. Review of new developments in personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(f) Review of newly developed air and contaminant monitoring equipment.
</P>
<P>3. <I>On-site training.</I> a. The employer should provide employees engaged in hazardous waste site activities with information and training prior to initial assignment into their work area, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of the hazard communication program including the location and availability of the written program, required lists of hazardous chemicals, and safety data sheets.
</P>
<P>(2) Activities and locations in their work area where hazardous substance may be present.
</P>
<P>(3) Methods and observations that may be used to detect the present or release of a hazardous chemical in the work area (such as monitoring conducted by the employer, continuous monitoring devices, visual appearances, or other evidence (sight, sound or smell) of hazardous chemicals being released, and applicable alarms from monitoring devices that record chemical releases.
</P>
<P>(4) The physical and health hazards of substances known or potentially present in the work area.
</P>
<P>(5) The measures employees can take to help protect themselves from work-site hazards, including specific procedures the employer has implemented.
</P>
<P>(6) An explanation of the labeling system and safety data sheets and how employees can obtain and use appropriate hazard information.
</P>
<P>(7) The elements of the confined space program including special PPE, permits, monitoring requirements, communication procedures, emergency response, and applicable lock-out procedures.
</P>
<P>b. The employer should provide hazardous waste employees information and training and should provide a review and access to the site safety and plan as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Names of personnel and alternate responsible for site safety and health.
</P>
<P>(2) Safety and health hazards present on the site.
</P>
<P>(3) Selection, use, maintenance, and limitations of personal protective equipment specific to the site.
</P>
<P>(4) Work practices by which the employee can minimize risks from hazards.
</P>
<P>(5) Safe use of engineering controls and equipment available on site.
</P>
<P>(6) Safe decontamination procedures established to minimize employee contact with hazardous substances, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Employee decontamination,
</P>
<P>(B) Clothing decontamination, and
</P>
<P>(C) Equipment decontamination.
</P>
<P>(7) Elements of the site emergency response plan, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Pre-emergency planning.
</P>
<P>(B) Personnel roles and lines of authority and communication.
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency recognition and prevention.
</P>
<P>(D) Safe distances and places of refuge.
</P>
<P>(E) Site security and control.
</P>
<P>(F) Evacuation routes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) Decontamination procedures not covered by the site safety and health plan.
</P>
<P>(H) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
</P>
<P>(I) Emergency equipment and procedures for handling emergency incidents.
</P>
<P>c. The employer should provide hazardous waste employees information and training on personal protective equipment used at the site, such as the following:
</P>
<P>(1) PPE to be used based upon known or anticipated site hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) PPE limitations of materials and construction; limitations during temperature extremes, heat stress, and other appropriate medical considerations; use and limitations of respirator equipment as well as documentation procedures as outlined in 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(3) PPE inspection procedures prior to, during, and after use.
</P>
<P>(4) PPE donning and doffing procedures.
</P>
<P>(5) PPE decontamination and disposal procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) PPE maintenance and storage.
</P>
<P>(7) Task duration as related to PPE limitations.
</P>
<P>d. The employer should instruct the employee about the site medical surveillance program relative to the particular site, including
</P>
<P>(1) Specific medical surveillance programs that have been adapted for the site.
</P>
<P>(2) Specific signs and symptoms related to exposure to hazardous materials on the site.
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency and extent of periodic medical examinations that will be used on the site.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintenance and availability of records.
</P>
<P>(5) Personnel to be contacted and procedures to be followed when signs and symptoms of exposures are recognized.
</P>
<P>e. The employees will review and discuss the site safety plan as part of the training program. The location of the site safety plan and all written programs should be discussed with employees including a discussion of the mechanisms for access, review, and references described.
</P>
<P><I>B. RCRA Operations Training for Treatment, Storage and Disposal Facilities.</I>
</P>
<P>1. As a minimum, the training course required in 29 CFR 1926.65 (p) should include the following topics:
</P>
<P>(a) Review of the applicable paragraphs of 29 CFR 1926.65 and the elements of the employer's occupational safety and health plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Review of relevant hazards such as, but not limited to, chemical, biological, and radiological exposures; fire and explosion hazards; thermal extremes; and physical hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) General safety hazards including those associated with electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, lock-out-tag-out procedures, motor vehicle hazards and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(d) Confined-space hazards and procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) Work practices to minimize employee risk from workplace hazards.
</P>
<P>(f) Emergency response plan and procedures including first aid meeting the requirements of paragraph (p)(8).
</P>
<P>(g) A review of procedures to minimize exposure to hazardous waste and various type of waste streams, including the materials handling program and spill containment program.
</P>
<P>(h) A review of hazard communication programs meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(i) A review of medical surveillance programs meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.65(p)(3) including the recognition of signs and symptoms of overexposure to hazardous substance including known synergistic interactions.
</P>
<P>(j) A review of decontamination programs and procedures meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.65(p)(4).
</P>
<P>(k) A review of an employer's requirements to implement a training program and its elements.
</P>
<P>(l) A review of the criteria and programs for proper selection and use of personal protective equipment, including respirators.
</P>
<P>(m) A review of the applicable appendices to 29 CFR 1926.65.
</P>
<P>(n) Principles of toxicology and biological monitoring as they pertain to occupational health.
</P>
<P>(o) Rights and responsibilities of employees and employers under applicable OSHA and EPA laws.
</P>
<P>(p) Hands-on exercises and demonstrations of competency with equipment to illustrate the basic equipment principles that may be used during the performance of work duties, including the donning and doffing of PPE.
</P>
<P>(q) Sources of reference, efficient use of relevant manuals, and knowledge of hazard coding systems to include information contained in hazardous waste manifests.
</P>
<P>(r) At least 8 hours of hands-on training.
</P>
<P>(s) Training in the job skills required for an employee's job function and responsibility before they are permitted to participate in or supervise field activities.
</P>
<P>2. The individual employer should provide hazardous waste employees with information and training prior to an employee's initial assignment into a work area. The training and information should cover the following topics:
</P>
<P>(a) The Emergency response plan and procedures including first aid.
</P>
<P>(b) A review of the employer's hazardous waste handling procedures including the materials handling program and elements of the spill containment program, location of spill response kits or equipment, and the names of those trained to respond to releases.
</P>
<P>(c) The hazardous communication program meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(d) A review of the employer's medical surveillance program including the recognition of signs and symptoms of exposure to relevant hazardous substance including known synergistic interactions.
</P>
<P>(e) A review of the employer's decontamination program and procedures.
</P>
<P>(f) An review of the employer's training program and the parties responsible for that program.
</P>
<P>(g) A review of the employer's personal protective equipment program including the proper selection and use of PPE based upon specific site hazards.
</P>
<P>(h) All relevant site-specific procedures addressing potential safety and health hazards. This may include, as appropriate, biological and radiological exposures, fire and explosion hazards, thermal hazards, and physical hazards such as electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, lock-out-tag-out hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(i) Safe use engineering controls and equipment on site.
</P>
<P>(j) Names of personnel and alternates responsible for safety and health.
</P>
<P><I>C. Emergency response training.</I>
</P>
<P>Federal OSHA standards in 29 CFR 1926.65(q) are directed toward private sector emergency responders. Therefore, the guidelines provided in this portion of the appendix are directed toward that employee population. However, they also impact indirectly through State OSHA or USEPA regulations some public sector emergency responders. Therefore, the guidelines provided in this portion of the appendix may be applied to both employee populations.
</P>
<P>States with OSHA state plans must cover their employees with regulations at least as effective as the Federal OSHA standards. Public employees in states without approved state OSHA programs covering hazardous waste operations and emergency response are covered by the U.S. EPA under 40 CFR 311, a regulation virtually identical to § 1926.65.
</P>
<P>Since this is a non-mandatory appendix and therefore not an enforceable standard, OSHA recommends that those employers, employees or volunteers in public sector emergency response organizations outside Federal OSHA jurisdiction consider the following criteria in developing their own training programs. A unified approach to training at the community level between emergency response organizations covered by Federal OSHA and those not covered directly by Federal OSHA can help ensure an effective community response to the release or potential release of hazardous substances in the community.
</P>
<P>a. <I>General considerations.</I>
</P>
<P>Emergency response organizations are required to consider the topics listed in § 1926.65(q)(6). Emergency response organizations may use some or all of the following topics to supplement those mandatory topics when developing their response training programs. Many of the topics would require an interaction between the response provider and the individuals responsible for the site where the response would be expected.
</P>
<P>(1) Hazard recognition, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Nature of hazardous substances present,
</P>
<P>(B) Practical applications of hazard recognition, including presentations on biology, chemistry, and physics.
</P>
<P>(2) Principles of toxicology, biological monitoring, and risk assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) Safe work practices and general site safety.
</P>
<P>(4) Engineering controls and hazardous waste operations.
</P>
<P>(5) Site safety plans and standard operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) Decontamination procedures and practices.
</P>
<P>(7) Emergency procedures, first aid, and self-rescue.
</P>
<P>(8) Safe use of field equipment.
</P>
<P>(9) Storage, handling, use and transportation of hazardous substances.
</P>
<P>(10) Use, care, and limitations of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(11) Safe sampling techniques.
</P>
<P>(12) Rights and responsibilities of employees under OSHA and other related laws concerning right-to-know, safety and health, compensations and liability.
</P>
<P>(13) Medical monitoring requirements.
</P>
<P>(14) Community relations.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Suggested criteria for specific courses.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>First responder awareness level.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Review of and demonstration of competency in performing the applicable skills of 29 CFR 1926.65(q).
</P>
<P>(B) Hands-on experience with the U.S. Department of Transportation's <I>Emergency Response Guidebook</I> (ERG) and familiarization with OSHA standard 29 CFR 1926.60.
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the principles and practices for analyzing an incident to determine both the hazardous substances present and the basic hazard and response information for each hazardous substance present.
</P>
<P>(D) Review of procedures for implementing actions consistent with the local emergency response plan, the organization's standard operating procedures, and the current edition of DOT's ERG including emergency notification procedures and follow-up communications.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of the expected hazards including fire and explosions hazards, confined space hazards, electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(F) Awareness and knowledge of the competencies for the First Responder at the Awareness Level covered in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 472, <I>Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>First responder operations level.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Review of and demonstration of competency in performing the applicable skills of 29 CFR 1926.65(q).
</P>
<P>(B) Hands-on experience with the U.S. Department of Transportation's <I>Emergency Response Guidebook</I> (ERG), manufacturer safety data sheets, CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, shipper or manufacturer contacts and other relevant sources of information addressing hazardous substance releases. Familiarization with OSHA standard 29 CFR 1926.60.
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the principles and practices for analyzing an incident to determine the hazardous substances present, the likely behavior of the hazardous substance and its container, the types of hazardous substance transportation containers and vehicles, the types and selection of the appropriate defensive strategy for containing the release.
</P>
<P>(D) Review of procedures for implementing continuing response actions consistent with the local emergency response plan, the organization's standard operating procedures, and the current edition of DOT's ERG including extended emergency notification procedures and follow-up communications.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of the principles and practice for proper selection and use of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(F) Review of the principles and practice of personnel and equipment decontamination.
</P>
<P>(G) Review of the expected hazards including fire and explosions hazards, confined space hazards, electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(H) Awareness and knowledge of the competencies for the First Responder at the Operations Level covered in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 472, <I>Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hazardous materials technician.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Review of and demonstration of competency in performing the applicable skills of 29 CFR 1926.65(q).
</P>
<P>(B) Hands-on experience with written and electronic information relative to response decision making including but not limited to the U.S. Department of Transportation's <I>Emergency Response Guidebook</I> (ERG), manufacturer safety data sheets, CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, shipper or manufacturer contacts, computer data bases and response models, and other relevant sources of information addressing hazardous substance releases. Familiarization with 29 CFR 1926.60.
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the principles and practices for analyzing an incident to determine the hazardous substances present, their physical and chemical properties, the likely behavior of the hazardous substance and its container, the types of hazardous substance transportation containers and vehicles involved in the release, the appropriate strategy for approaching release sites and containing the release.
</P>
<P>(D) Review of procedures for implementing continuing response actions consistent with the local emergency response plan, the organization's standard operating procedures, and the current edition of DOT's ERG including extended emergency notification procedures and follow-up communications.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of the principles and practice for proper selection and use of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(F) Review of the principles and practices of establishing exposure zones, proper decontamination and medical surveillance stations and procedures.
</P>
<P>(G) Review of the expected hazards including fire and explosions hazards, confined space hazards, electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(H) Awareness and knowledge of the competencies for the Hazardous Materials Technician covered in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 472, <I>Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hazardous materials specialist.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Review of and demonstration of competency in performing the applicable skills of 29 CFR 1926.65(q).
</P>
<P>(B) Hands-on experience with retrieval and use of written and electronic information relative to response decision making including but not limited to the U.S. Department of Transportation's <I>Emergency Response Guidebook</I> (ERG), manufacturer safety data sheets, CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, shipper or manufacturer contacts, computer data bases and response models, and other relevant sources of information addressing hazardous substance releases. Familiarization with 29 CFR 1926.60.
</P>
<P>(C) Review of the principles and practices for analyzing an incident to determine the hazardous substances present, their physical and chemical properties, and the likely behavior of the hazardous substance and its container, vessel, or vehicle.
</P>
<P>(D) Review of the principles and practices for identification of the types of hazardous substance transportation containers, vessels and vehicles involved in the release; selecting and using the various types of equipment available for plugging or patching transportation containers, vessels or vehicles; organizing and directing the use of multiple teams of hazardous material technicians and selecting the appropriate strategy for approaching release sites and containing or stopping the release.
</P>
<P>(E) Review of procedures for implementing continuing response actions consistent with the local emergency response plan, the organization's standard operating procedures, including knowledge of the available public and private response resources, establishment of an incident command post, direction of hazardous material technician teams, and extended emergency notification procedures and follow-up communications.
</P>
<P>(F) Review of the principles and practice for proper selection and use of personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(G) Review of the principles and practices of establishing exposure zones and proper decontamination, monitoring and medical surveillance stations and procedures.
</P>
<P>(H) Review of the expected hazards including fire and explosions hazards, confined space hazards, electrical hazards, powered equipment hazards, motor vehicle hazards, and walking-working surface hazards.
</P>
<P>(I) Awareness and knowledge of the competencies for the Off-site Specialist Employee covered in the National Fire Protection Association's Standard No. 472, <I>Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Incident commander.</I> The incident commander is the individual who, at any one time, is responsible for and in control of the response effort. This individual is the person responsible for the direction and coordination of the response effort. An incident commander's position should be occupied by the most senior, appropriately trained individual present at the response site. Yet, as necessary and appropriate by the level of response provided, the position may be occupied by many individuals during a particular response as the need for greater authority, responsibility, or training increases. It is possible for the first responder at the awareness level to assume the duties of incident commander until a more senior and appropriately trained individual arrives at the response site.
</P>
<P>Therefore, any emergency responder expected to perform as an incident commander should be trained to fulfill the obligations of the position at the level of response they will be providing including the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Ability to analyze a hazardous substance incident to determine the magnitude of the response problem.
</P>
<P>(B) Ability to plan and implement an appropriate response plan within the capabilities of available personnel and equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Ability to implement a response to favorably change the outcome of the incident in a manner consistent with the local emergency response plan and the organization's standard operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(D) Ability to evaluate the progress of the emergency response to ensure that the response objectives are being met safely, effectively, and efficiently.
</P>
<P>(E) Ability to adjust the response plan to the conditions of the response and to notify higher levels of response when required by the changes to the response plan.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35129, June 30, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 43275, Aug. 22, 1994: 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 77 FR 17890, Mar. 26, 2012; 78 FR 9315, Feb. 8, 2013; 85 FR 8736, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.66" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.4.13.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.66   Criteria for design and construction of spray booths.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions applicable to this section</I>—(1) <I>Aerated solid powders.</I> Aerated powders shall mean any powdered material used as a coating material which shall be fluidized within a container by passing air uniformly from below. It is common practice to fluidize such materials to form a fluidized powder bed and then dip the part to be coated into the bed in a manner similar to that used in liquid dipping. Such beds are also used as sources for powder spray operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spraying area.</I> Any area in which dangerous quantities of flammable vapors or mists, or combustible residues, dusts, or deposits are present due to the operation of spraying processes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Spray booth.</I> A power-ventilated structure provided to enclose or accommodate a spraying operation to confine and limit the escape of spray, vapor, and residue, and to safely conduct or direct them to an exhaust system.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Waterwash spray booth.</I> A spray booth equipped with a water washing system designed to minimize dusts or residues entering exhaust ducts and to permit the recovery of overspray finishing material.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dry spray booth.</I> A spray booth not equipped with a water washing system as described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. A dry spray booth may be equipped with
</P>
<P>(i) Distribution or baffle plates to promote an even flow of air through the booth or cause the deposit of overspray before it enters the exhaust duct; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Overspray dry filters to minimize dusts; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Overspray dry filters to minimize dusts or residues entering exhaust ducts; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Overspray dry filter rolls designed to minimize dusts or residues entering exhaust ducts; or
</P>
<P>(v) Where dry powders are being sprayed, with powder collection systems so arranged in the exhaust to capture oversprayed material.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Fluidized bed.</I> A container holding powder coating material which is aerated from below so as to form an air-supported expanded cloud of such material through which the preheated object to be coated is immersed and transported.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Electrostatic fluidized bed.</I> A container holding powder coating material which is aerated from below so as to form an air-supported expanded cloud of such material which is electrically charged with a charge opposite to the charge of the object to be coated; such object is transported, through the container immediately above the charged and aerated materials in order to be coated.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Approved.</I> Shall mean approved and listed by a nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Listed.</I> See “approved” in paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Spray booths</I>—(1) <I>Construction.</I> Spray booths shall be substantially constructed of steel, securely and rigidly supported, or of concrete or masonry except that aluminum or other substantial noncombustible material may be used for intermittent or low volume spraying. Spray booths shall be designed to sweep air currents toward the exhaust outlet.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interiors.</I> The interior surfaces of spray booths shall be smooth and continuous without edges and otherwise designed to prevent pocketing of residues and facilitate cleaning and washing without injury.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Floors.</I> The floor surface of a spray booth and operator's working area, if combustible, shall be covered with noncombustible material of such character as to facilitate the safe cleaning and removal of residues.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Distribution or baffle plates.</I> Distribution or baffle plates, if installed to promote an even flow of air through the booth or cause the deposit of overspray before it enters the exhaust duct, shall be of noncombustible material and readily removable or accessible on both sides for cleaning. Such plates shall not be located in exhaust ducts.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dry type overspray collectors—(exhaust air filters).</I> In conventional dry type spray booths, overspray dry filters or filter rolls, if installed, shall conform to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The spraying operations except electrostatic spraying operations shall be so designed, installed and maintained that the average air velocity over the open face of the booth (or booth cross section during spraying operations) shall be not less than 100 linear feet per minute. Electrostatic spraying operations may be conducted with an air velocity over the open face of the booth of not less than 60 linear feet per minute, or more, depending on the volume of the finishing material being applied and its flammability and explosion characteristics. Visible gauges or audible alarm or pressure activated devices shall be installed to indicate or insure that the required air velocity is maintained. Filter rolls shall be inspected to insure proper replacement of filter media.
</P>
<P>(ii) All discarded filter pads and filter rolls shall be immediately removed to a safe, well-detached location or placed in a water-filled metal container and disposed of at the close of the day's operation unless maintained completely in water.
</P>
<P>(iii) The location of filters in a spray booth shall be so as to not reduce the effective booth enclosure of the articles being sprayed.
</P>
<P>(iv) Space within the spray booth on the downstream and upstream sides of filters shall be protected with approved automatic sprinklers.
</P>
<P>(v) Filters or filter rolls shall not be used when applying a spray material known to be highly susceptible to spontaneous heating and ignition.
</P>
<P>(vi) Clean filters or filter rolls shall be noncombustible or of a type having a combustibility not in excess of class 2 filters as listed by Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc. Filters and filter rolls shall not be alternately used for different types of coating materials, where the combination of materials may be conducive to spontaneous ignition.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Frontal area.</I> Each spray booth having a frontal area larger than 9 square feet shall have a metal deflector or curtain not less than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (5.35 cm) deep installed at the upper outer edge of the booth over the opening.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Conveyors.</I> Where conveyors are arranged to carry work into or out of spray booths, the openings therefor shall be as small as practical.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Separation of operations.</I> Each spray booth shall be separated from other operations by not less than 3 feet (0.912 m), or by a greater distance, or by such partition or wall as to reduce the danger from juxtaposition of hazardous operations. See also paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Cleaning.</I> Spray booths shall be so installed that all portions are readily accessible for cleaning. A clear space of not less than 3 feet (0.912 m) on all sides shall be kept free from storage or combustible construction.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Illumination.</I> When spraying areas are illuminated through glass panels or other transparent materials, only fixed lighting units shall be used as a source of illumination. Panels shall effectively isolate the spraying area from the area in which the lighting unit is located, and shall be of a noncombustible material of such a nature or so protected that breakage will be unlikely. Panels shall be so arranged that normal accumulations of residue on the exposed surface of the panel will not be raised to a dangerous temperature by radiation or conduction from the source of illumination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electrical and other sources of ignition</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> All electrical equipment, open flames and other sources of ignition shall conform to the requirements of this paragraph, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Electrostatic apparatus shall conform to the requirements of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Drying, curing, and fusion apparatus shall conform to the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) Powder coating equipment shall conform to the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum separation.</I> There shall be no open flame or spark producing equipment in any spraying area nor within 20 feet (6.08 m) thereof, unless separated by a partition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hot surfaces.</I> Space-heating appliances, steampipes, or hot surfaces shall not be located in a spraying area where deposits of combustible residues may readily accumulate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Wiring conformance.</I> Electrical wiring and equipment shall conform to the provisions of this paragraph and shall otherwise be in accordance with subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Combustible residues, areas.</I> Unless specifically approved for locations containing both deposits of readily ignitable residue and explosive vapors, there shall be no electrical equipment in any spraying area, whereon deposits of combustible residues may readily accumulate, except wiring in rigid conduit or in boxes or fittings containing no taps, splices, or terminal connections.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Wiring type approved.</I> Electrical wiring and equipment not subject to deposits of combustible residues but located in a spraying area as herein defined shall be of explosion-proof type approved for Class I, group D locations and shall otherwise conform to the provisions of subpart S of this part, for Class I, Division 1, Hazardous Locations. Electrical wiring, motors, and other equipment outside of but within 20 feet (6.08 m) of any spraying area, and not separated therefrom by partitions, shall not produce sparks under normal operating conditions and shall otherwise conform to the provisions of subpart S of this part for Class I, Division 2 Hazardous Locations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Lamps.</I> Electric lamps outside of, but within 20 feet (6.08 m) of any spraying area, and not separated therefrom by a partition, shall be totally enclosed to prevent the falling of hot particles and shall be protected from mechanical injury by suitable guards or by location.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Portable lamps.</I> Portable electric lamps shall not be used in any spraying area during spraying operations. Portable electric lamps, if used during cleaning or repairing operations, shall be of the type approved for hazardous Class I locations.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Grounding.</I> (i) All metal parts of spray booths, exhaust ducts, and piping systems conveying flammable or combustible liquids or aerated solids shall be properly electrically grounded in an effective and permanent manner.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ventilation</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> Ventilating and exhaust systems shall be in accordance with the Standard for Blower and Exhaust Systems for Vapor Removal, NFPA No. 91-1961, where applicable and shall also conform to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General.</I> All spraying areas shall be provided with mechanical ventilation adequate to remove flammable vapors, mists, or powders to a safe location and to confine and control combustible residues so that life is not endangered. Mechanical ventilation shall be kept in operation at all times while spraying operations are being conducted and for a sufficient time thereafter to allow vapors from drying coated articles and drying finishing material residue to be exhausted.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Independent exhaust.</I> Each spray booth shall have an independent exhaust duct system discharging to the exterior of the building, except that multiple cabinet spray booths in which identical spray finishing material is used with a combined frontal area of not more than 18 square feet may have a common exhaust. If more than one fan serves one booth, all fans shall be so interconnected that one fan cannot operate without all fans being operated.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fan-rotating element.</I> The fan-rotating element shall be nonferrous or nonsparking or the casing shall consist of or be lined with such material. There shall be ample clearance between the fan-rotating element and the fan casing to avoid a fire by friction, necessary allowance being made for ordinary expansion and loading to prevent contact between moving parts and the duct or fan housing. Fan blades shall be mounted on a shaft sufficiently heavy to maintain perfect alignment even when the blades of the fan are heavily loaded, the shaft preferably to have bearings outside the duct and booth. All bearings shall be of the self-lubricating type, or lubricated from the outside duct.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electric motors.</I> Electric motors driving exhaust fans shall not be placed inside booths or ducts. See also paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Belts.</I> Belts shall not enter the duct or booth unless the belt and pulley within the duct or booth are thoroughly enclosed.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exhaust ducts.</I> Exhaust ducts shall be constructed of steel and shall be substantially supported. Exhaust ducts without dampers are preferred; however, if dampers are installed, they shall be maintained so that they will be in a full open position at all times the ventilating system is in operation.
</P>
<P>(i) Exhaust ducts shall be protected against mechanical damage and have a clearance from unprotected combustible construction or other combustible material of not less than 18 inches (45.72 cm).
</P>
<P>(ii) If combustible construction is provided with the following protection applied to all surfaces within 18 inches (45.72 cm), clearances may be reduced to the distances indicated:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">a</E>) 28-gage sheet metal on 1/4-inch asbestos mill board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 inches (30.48 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">b</E>) 28-gage sheet metal on 1/8-inch asbestos mill board spaced out 1 inch (2.54 cm) on noncombustible spacers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 inches (22.86 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">c</E>) 22-gage sheet metal on 1-inch rockwool batts reinforced with wire mesh or the equivalent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 inches (7.62 cm).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">d</E>) Where ducts are protected with an approved automatic sprinkler system, properly maintained, the clearance required in paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section may be reduced to 6 inches (15.24 cm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) <I>Discharge clearance.</I> Unless the spray booth exhaust duct terminal is from a water-wash spray booth, the terminal discharge point shall be not less than 6 feet from any combustible exterior wall or roof nor discharge in the direction of any combustible construction or unprotected opening in any noncombustible exterior wall within 25 feet (7.6 m).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Air exhaust.</I> Air exhaust from spray operations shall not be directed so that it will contaminate makeup air being introduced into the spraying area or other ventilating intakes, nor directed so as to create a nuisance. Air exhausted from spray operations shall not be recirculated.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Access doors.</I> When necessary to facilitate cleaning, exhaust ducts shall be provided with an ample number of access doors.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Room intakes.</I> Air intake openings to rooms containing spray finishing operations shall be adequate for the efficient operation of exhaust fans and shall be so located as to minimize the creation of dead air pockets.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Drying spaces.</I> Freshly sprayed articles shall be dried only in spaces provided with adequate ventilation to prevent the formation of explosive vapors. In the event adequate and reliable ventilation is not provided such drying spaces shall be considered a spraying area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fixed electrostatic apparatus</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> Where installation and use of electrostatic spraying equipment is used, such installation and use shall conform to all other paragraphs of this section, and shall also conform to the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Type approval.</I> Electrostatic apparatus and devices used in connection with coating operations shall be of approved types.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Location.</I> Transformers, power packs, control apparatus, and all other electrical portions of the equipment, with the exception of high-voltage grids, electrodes, and electrostatic atomizing heads and their connections, shall be located outside of the spraying area, or shall otherwise conform to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Support.</I> Electrodes and electrostatic atomizing heads shall be adequately supported in permanent locations and shall be effectively insulated from the ground. Electrodes and electrostatic atomizing heads which are permanently attached to their bases, supports, or reciprocators, shall be deemed to comply with this section. Insulators shall be nonporous and noncombustible.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Insulators, grounding.</I> High-voltage leads to electrodes shall be properly insulated and protected from mechanical injury or exposure to destructive chemicals. Electrostatic atomizing heads shall be effectively and permanently supported on suitable insulators and shall be effectively guarded against accidental contact or grounding. An automatic means shall be provided for grounding the electrode system when it is electrically deenergized for any reason. All insulators shall be kept clean and dry.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safe distance.</I> A safe distance shall be maintained between goods being painted and electrodes or electrostatic atomizing heads or conductors of at least twice the sparking distance. A suitable sign indicating this safe distance shall be conspicuously posted near the assembly.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Conveyors required.</I> Goods being painted using this process are to be supported on conveyors. The conveyors shall be so arranged as to maintain safe distances between the goods and the electrodes or electrostatic atomizing heads at all times. Any irregularly shaped or other goods subject to possible swinging or movement shall be rigidly supported to prevent such swinging or movement which would reduce the clearance to less than that specified in paragraph (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Prohibition.</I> This process is not acceptable where goods being coated are manipulated by hand. When finishing materials are applied by electrostatic equipment which is manipulated by hand, see paragraph (f) of this section for applicable requirements.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Fail-safe controls.</I> Electrostatic apparatus shall be equipped with automatic controls which will operate without time delay to disconnect the power supply to the high voltage transformer and to signal the operator under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Stoppage of ventilating fans or failure of ventilating equipment from any cause.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stoppage of the conveyor carrying goods through the high voltage field.
</P>
<P>(iii) Occurrence of a ground or of an imminent ground at any point on the high voltage system.
</P>
<P>(iv) Reduction of clearance below that specified in paragraph (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Guarding.</I> Adequate booths, fencing, railings, or guards shall be so placed about the equipment that they, either by their location or character or both, assure that a safe isolation of the process is maintained from plant storage or personnel. Such railings, fencing, and guards shall be of conducting material, adequately grounded.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Ventilation.</I> Where electrostatic atomization is used the spraying area shall be so ventilated as to insure safe conditions from a fire and health standpoint.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Fire protection.</I> All areas used for spraying, including the interior of the booth, shall be protected by automatic sprinklers where this protection is available. Where this protection is not available, other approved automatic extinguishing equipment shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Electrostatic hand spraying equipment</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph shall apply to any equipment using electrostatically charged elements for the atomization and/or, precipitation of materials for coatings on articles, or for other similar purposes in which the atomizing device is hand held and manipulated during the spraying operation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conformance.</I> Electrostatic hand spraying equipment shall conform with the other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equipment approval and specifications.</I> Electrostatic hand spray apparatus and devices used in connection with coating operations shall be of approved types. The high voltage circuits shall be designed so as to not produce a spark of sufficient intensity to ignite any vapor-air mixtures nor result in appreciable shock hazard upon coming in contact with a grounded object under all normal operating conditions. The electrostatically charged exposed elements of the handgun shall be capable of being energized only by a switch which also controls the coating material supply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electrical support equipment.</I> Transformers, powerpacks, control apparatus, and all other electrical portions of the equipment, with the exception of the handgun itself and its connections to the power supply shall be located outside of the spraying area or shall otherwise conform to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Spray gun ground.</I> The handle of the spraying gun shall be electrically connected to ground by a metallic connection and to be so constructed that the operator in normal operating position is in intimate electrical contact with the grounded handle.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Grounding-general.</I> All electrically conductive objects in the spraying area shall be adequately grounded. This requirement shall apply to paint containers, wash cans, and any other objects or devices in the area. The equipment shall carry a prominent permanently installed warning regarding the necessity for this grounding feature.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Maintenance of grounds.</I> Objects being painted or coated shall be maintained in metallic contact with the conveyor or other grounded support. Hooks shall be regularly cleaned to insure this contact and areas of contact shall be sharp points or knife edges where possible. Points of support of the object shall be concealed from random spray where feasible and where the objects being sprayed are supported from a conveyor, the point of attachment to the conveyor shall be so located as to not collect spray material during normal operation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Interlocks.</I> The electrical equipment shall be so interlocked with the ventilation of the spraying area that the equipment cannot be operated unless the ventilation fans are in operation.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Ventilation.</I> The spraying operation shall take place within a spray area which is adequately ventilated to remove solvent vapors released from the operation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Drying, curing, or fusion apparatus</I>—(1) <I>Conformance.</I> Drying, curing, or fusion apparatus in connection with spray application of flammable and combustible finishes shall conform to the Standard for Ovens and Furnaces, NFPA 86A-1969, where applicable and shall also conform with the following requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternate use prohibited.</I> Spray booths, rooms, or other enclosures used for spraying operations shall not alternately be used for the purpose of drying by any arrangement which will cause a material increase in the surface temperature of the spray booth, room, or enclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjacent system interlocked.</I> Except as specifically provided in paragraph (g)(4) of this section, drying, curing, or fusion units utilizing a heating system having open flames or which may produce sparks shall not be installed in a spraying area, but may be installed adjacent thereto when equipped with an interlocked ventilating system arranged to:
</P>
<P>(i) Thoroughly ventilate the drying space before the heating system can be started;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain a safe atmosphere at any source of ignition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Automatically shut down the heating system in the event of failure of the ventilating system.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternate use permitted.</I> Automobile refinishing spray booths or enclosures, otherwise installed and maintained in full conformity with this section, may alternately be used for drying with portable electrical infrared drying apparatus when conforming with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Interior (especially floors) of spray enclosures shall be kept free of overspray deposits.
</P>
<P>(ii) During spray operations, the drying apparatus and electrical connections and wiring thereto shall not be located within spray enclosure nor in any other location where spray residues may be deposited thereon.
</P>
<P>(iii) The spraying apparatus, the drying apparatus, and the ventilating system of the spray enclosure shall be equipped with suitable interlocks so arranged that:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) The spraying apparatus cannot be operated while the drying apparatus is inside the spray enclosure.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) The spray enclosure will be purged of spray vapors for a period of not less than 3 minutes before the drying apparatus can be energized.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) The ventilating system will maintain a safe atmosphere within the enclosure during the drying process and the drying apparatus will automatically shut off in the event of failure of the ventilating system.
</P>
<P>(iv) All electrical wiring and equipment of the drying apparatus shall conform with the applicable sections of subpart S of this part. Only equipment of a type approved for Class I, Division 2 hazardous locations shall be located within 18 inches (45.72 cm) of floor level. All metallic parts of the drying apparatus shall be properly electrically bonded and grounded.
</P>
<P>(v) The drying apparatus shall contain a prominently located, permanently attached warning sign indicating that ventilation should be maintained during the drying period and that spraying should not be conducted in the vicinity that spray will deposit on apparatus.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35149, June 30, 1993]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Personal Protective and Life Saving Equipment</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.95" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.95   Criteria for personal protective equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> Protective equipment, including personal protective equipment for eyes, face, head, and extremities, protective clothing, respiratory devices, and protective shields and barriers, shall be provided, used, and maintained in a sanitary and reliable condition wherever it is necessary by reason of hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants encountered in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any part of the body through absorption, inhalation or physical contact.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employee-owned equipment.</I> Where employees provide their own protective equipment, the employer shall be responsible to assure its adequacy, including proper maintenance, and sanitation of such equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Design and selection.</I> Employers must ensure that all personal protective equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) Is of safe design and construction for the work to be performed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is selected to ensure that it properly fits each affected employee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment for protective equipment.</I> (1) Except as provided by paragraphs (d)(2) through (d)(6) of this section, the protective equipment, including personal protective equipment (PPE), used to comply with this part, shall be provided by the employer at no cost to employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is not required to pay for non-specialty safety-toe protective footwear (including steel-toe shoes or steel-toe boots) and non-specialty prescription safety eyewear, provided that the employer permits such items to be worn off the job-site.
</P>
<P>(3) When the employer provides metatarsal guards and allows the employee, at his or her request, to use shoes or boots with built-in metatarsal protection, the employer is not required to reimburse the employee for the shoes or boots.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer is not required to pay for:
</P>
<P>(i) Everyday clothing, such as long-sleeve shirts, long pants, street shoes, and normal work boots; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Ordinary clothing, skin creams, or other items, used solely for protection from weather, such as winter coats, jackets, gloves, parkas, rubber boots, hats, raincoats, ordinary sunglasses, and sunscreen.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer must pay for replacement PPE, except when the employee has lost or intentionally damaged the PPE.
</P>
<P>(6) Where an employee provides adequate protective equipment he or she owns pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the employer may allow the employee to use it and is not required to reimburse the employee for that equipment. The employer shall not require an employee to provide or pay for his or her own PPE, unless the PPE is excepted by paragraphs (d)(2) through (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) This section shall become effective on February 13, 2008. Employers must implement the PPE payment requirements no later than May 15, 2008. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1926.95(<E T="01">d</E>):</HED>
<P>When the provisions of another OSHA standard specify whether or not the employer must pay for specific equipment, the payment provisions of that standard shall prevail.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35152, June 30, 1993, as amended at 72 FR 64429, Nov. 15, 2007; 89 FR 100346, Dec. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.96" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.96   Occupational foot protection.</HEAD>
<P>Safety-toe footwear for employees shall meet the requirements and specifications in American National Standard for Men's Safety-Toe Footwear, Z41.1-1967.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35152, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.97" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.97   Electrical protective equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Design requirements for specific types of electrical protective equipment.</I> Rubber insulating blankets, rubber insulating matting, rubber insulating covers, rubber insulating line hose, rubber insulating gloves, and rubber insulating sleeves shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Manufacture and marking of rubber insulating equipment.</I> (i) Blankets, gloves, and sleeves shall be produced by a seamless process.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each item shall be clearly marked as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Class 00 equipment shall be marked Class 00.
</P>
<P>(B) Class 0 equipment shall be marked Class 0.
</P>
<P>(C) Class 1 equipment shall be marked Class 1.
</P>
<P>(D) Class 2 equipment shall be marked Class 2.
</P>
<P>(E) Class 3 equipment shall be marked Class 3.
</P>
<P>(F) Class 4 equipment shall be marked Class 4.
</P>
<P>(G) Nonozone-resistant equipment shall be marked Type I.
</P>
<P>(H) Ozone-resistant equipment shall be marked Type II.
</P>
<P>(I) Other relevant markings, such as the manufacturer's identification and the size of the equipment, may also be provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) Markings shall be nonconducting and shall be applied in such a manner as not to impair the insulating qualities of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Markings on gloves shall be confined to the cuff portion of the glove.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electrical requirements.</I> (i) Equipment shall be capable of withstanding the ac proof-test voltage specified in Table E-1 or the dc proof-test voltage specified in Table E-2.
</P>
<P>(A) The proof test shall reliably indicate that the equipment can withstand the voltage involved.
</P>
<P>(B) The test voltage shall be applied continuously for 3 minutes for equipment other than matting and shall be applied continuously for 1 minute for matting.
</P>
<P>(C) Gloves shall also be capable of separately withstanding the ac proof-test voltage specified in Table E-1 after a 16-hour water soak. (See the note following paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(ii) When the ac proof test is used on gloves, the 60-hertz proof-test current may not exceed the values specified in Table E-1 at any time during the test period.
</P>
<P>(A) If the ac proof test is made at a frequency other than 60 hertz, the permissible proof-test current shall be computed from the direct ratio of the frequencies.
</P>
<P>(B) For the test, gloves (right side out) shall be filled with tap water and immersed in water to a depth that is in accordance with Table E-3. Water shall be added to or removed from the glove, as necessary, so that the water level is the same inside and outside the glove.
</P>
<P>(C) After the 16-hour water soak specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(C) of this section, the 60-hertz proof-test current may not exceed the values given in Table E-1 by more than 2 milliamperes.
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment that has been subjected to a minimum breakdown voltage test may not be used for electrical protection. (See the note following paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(iv) Material used for Type II insulating equipment shall be capable of withstanding an ozone test, with no visible effects. The ozone test shall reliably indicate that the material will resist ozone exposure in actual use. Any visible signs of ozone deterioration of the material, such as checking, cracking, breaks, or pitting, is evidence of failure to meet the requirements for ozone-resistant material. (See the note following paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Workmanship and finish.</I> (i) Equipment shall be free of physical irregularities that can adversely affect the insulating properties of the equipment and that can be detected by the tests or inspections required under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Surface irregularities that may be present on all rubber goods (because of imperfections on forms or molds or because of inherent difficulties in the manufacturing process) and that may appear as indentations, protuberances, or imbedded foreign material are acceptable under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The indentation or protuberance blends into a smooth slope when the material is stretched.
</P>
<P>(B) Foreign material remains in place when the insulating material is folded and stretches with the insulating material surrounding it.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>Rubber insulating equipment meeting the following national consensus standards is deemed to be in compliance with the performance requirements of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) D120-09, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Gloves.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D178-01 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Matting.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1048-12, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Blankets.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1049-98 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Covers.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1050-05 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Line Hose.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1051-08, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Sleeves.</I>
</P>
<P>The preceding standards also contain specifications for conducting the various tests required in paragraph (a) of this section. For example, the ac and dc proof tests, the breakdown test, the water-soak procedure, and the ozone test mentioned in this paragraph are described in detail in these ASTM standards.
</P>
<P>ASTM F1236-96 (2012), <I>Standard Guide for Visual Inspection of Electrical Protective Rubber Products,</I> presents methods and techniques for the visual inspection of electrical protective equipment made of rubber. This guide also contains descriptions and photographs of irregularities that can be found in this equipment.
</P>
<P>ASTM F819-10, <I>Standard Terminology Relating to Electrical Protective Equipment for Workers,</I> includes definitions of terms relating to the electrical protective equipment covered under this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Design requirements for other types of electrical protective equipment.</I> The following requirements apply to the design and manufacture of electrical protective equipment that is not covered by paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Voltage withstand.</I> Insulating equipment used for the protection of employees shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, the voltages that may be imposed upon it.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>These voltages include transient overvoltages, such as switching surges, as well as nominal line voltage. See appendix B to subpart V of this part for a discussion of transient overvoltages on electric power transmission and distribution systems. See IEEE Std 516-2009, <I>IEEE Guide for Maintenance Methods on Energized Power Lines,</I> for methods of determining the magnitude of transient overvoltages on an electrical system and for a discussion comparing the ability of insulation equipment to withstand a transient overvoltage based on its ability to withstand ac voltage testing.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Equipment current.</I> (i) Protective equipment used for the primary insulation of employees from energized circuit parts shall be capable of passing a current test when subjected to the highest nominal voltage on which the equipment is to be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) When insulating equipment is tested in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the equipment current may not exceed 1 microampere per kilovolt of phase-to-phase applied voltage.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>This paragraph applies to equipment that provides primary insulation of employees from energized parts. It does not apply to equipment used for secondary insulation or equipment used for brush contact only.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>For ac excitation, this current consists of three components: Capacitive current because of the dielectric properties of the insulating material itself, conduction current through the volume of the insulating equipment, and leakage current along the surface of the tool or equipment. The conduction current is normally negligible. For clean, dry insulating equipment, the leakage current is small, and the capacitive current predominates.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Plastic guard equipment is deemed to conform to the performance requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if it meets, and is used in accordance with, ASTM F712-06 (2011), <I>Standard Test Methods and Specifications for Electrically Insulating Plastic Guard Equipment for Protection of Workers.</I></P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>In-service care and use of electrical protective equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Electrical protective equipment shall be maintained in a safe, reliable condition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific requirements.</I> The following specific requirements apply to rubber insulating blankets, rubber insulating covers, rubber insulating line hose, rubber insulating gloves, and rubber insulating sleeves:
</P>
<P>(i) Maximum use voltages shall conform to those listed in Table E-4.
</P>
<P>(ii) Insulating equipment shall be inspected for damage before each day's use and immediately following any incident that can reasonably be suspected of causing damage. Insulating gloves shall be given an air test, along with the inspection.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>ASTM F1236-96 (2012), <I>Standard Guide for Visual Inspection of Electrical Protective Rubber Products,</I> presents methods and techniques for the visual inspection of electrical protective equipment made of rubber. This guide also contains descriptions and photographs of irregularities that can be found in this equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Insulating equipment with any of the following defects may not be used:
</P>
<P>(A) A hole, tear, puncture, or cut;
</P>
<P>(B) Ozone cutting or ozone checking (that is, a series of interlacing cracks produced by ozone on rubber under mechanical stress);
</P>
<P>(C) An embedded foreign object;
</P>
<P>(D) Any of the following texture changes: Swelling, softening, hardening, or becoming sticky or inelastic.
</P>
<P>(E) Any other defect that damages the insulating properties.
</P>
<P>(iv) Insulating equipment found to have other defects that might affect its insulating properties shall be removed from service and returned for testing under paragraphs (c)(2)(viii) and (c)(2)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Insulating equipment shall be cleaned as needed to remove foreign substances.
</P>
<P>(vi) Insulating equipment shall be stored in such a location and in such a manner as to protect it from light, temperature extremes, excessive humidity, ozone, and other damaging substances and conditions.
</P>
<P>(vii) Protector gloves shall be worn over insulating gloves, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Protector gloves need not be used with Class 0 gloves, under limited-use conditions, when small equipment and parts manipulation necessitate unusually high finger dexterity.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">vii</E>)(A):</HED>
<P>Persons inspecting rubber insulating gloves used under these conditions need to take extra care in visually examining them. Employees using rubber insulating gloves under these conditions need to take extra care to avoid handling sharp objects.</P></NOTE>
<P>(B) If the voltage does not exceed 250 volts, ac, or 375 volts, dc, protector gloves need not be used with Class 00 gloves, under limited-use conditions, when small equipment and parts manipulation necessitate unusually high finger dexterity.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">vii</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>Persons inspecting rubber insulating gloves used under these conditions need to take extra care in visually examining them. Employees using rubber insulating gloves under these conditions need to take extra care to avoid handling sharp objects.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) Any other class of glove may be used without protector gloves, under limited-use conditions, when small equipment and parts manipulation necessitate unusually high finger dexterity but only if the employer can demonstrate that the possibility of physical damage to the gloves is small and if the class of glove is one class higher than that required for the voltage involved.
</P>
<P>(D) Insulating gloves that have been used without protector gloves may not be reused until they have been tested under the provisions of paragraphs (c)(2)(viii) and (c)(2)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Electrical protective equipment shall be subjected to periodic electrical tests. Test voltages and the maximum intervals between tests shall be in accordance with Table E-4 and Table E-5.
</P>
<P>(ix) The test method used under paragraphs (c)(2)(viii) and (c)(2)(xi) of this section shall reliably indicate whether the insulating equipment can withstand the voltages involved.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ix</E>):</HED>
<P>Standard electrical test methods considered as meeting this paragraph are given in the following national consensus standards:
</P>
<P>ASTM D120-09, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Gloves.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D178-01 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Matting.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1048-12, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Blankets.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1049-98 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Covers.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1050-05 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Line Hose.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM D1051-08, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Sleeves.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM F478-09, <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Line Hose and Covers.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM F479-06 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Blankets.</I>
</P>
<P>ASTM F496-08, <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Gloves and Sleeves.</I></P></NOTE>
<P>(x) Insulating equipment failing to pass inspections or electrical tests may not be used by employees, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Rubber insulating line hose may be used in shorter lengths with the defective portion cut off.
</P>
<P>(B) Rubber insulating blankets may be salvaged by severing the defective area from the undamaged portion of the blanket. The resulting undamaged area may not be smaller than 560 millimeters by 560 millimeters (22 inches by 22 inches) for Class 1, 2, 3, and 4 blankets.
</P>
<P>(C) Rubber insulating blankets may be repaired using a compatible patch that results in physical and electrical properties equal to those of the blanket.
</P>
<P>(D) Rubber insulating gloves and sleeves with minor physical defects, such as small cuts, tears, or punctures, may be repaired by the application of a compatible patch. Also, rubber insulating gloves and sleeves with minor surface blemishes may be repaired with a compatible liquid compound. The repaired area shall have electrical and physical properties equal to those of the surrounding material. Repairs to gloves are permitted only in the area between the wrist and the reinforced edge of the opening.
</P>
<P>(xi) Repaired insulating equipment shall be retested before it may be used by employees.
</P>
<P>(xii) The employer shall certify that equipment has been tested in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(iv), (c)(2)(vii)(D), (c)(2)(viii), (c)(2)(ix), and (c)(2)(xi) of this section. The certification shall identify the equipment that passed the test and the date it was tested and shall be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health and to employees or their authorized representatives.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)(<E T="01">xii</E>):</HED>
<P>Marking equipment with, and entering onto logs, the results of the tests and the dates of testing are two acceptable means of meeting the certification requirement.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-1—AC Proof-Test Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Proof-test
<br/>voltage
<br/>rms V
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum proof-test current, mA
<br/>(gloves only)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">280-mm
<br/>(11-in)
<br/>glove
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">360-mm
<br/>(14-in)
<br/>glove
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">410-mm
<br/>(16-in)
<br/>glove
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">460-mm
<br/>(18-in)
<br/>glove
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-2—DC Proof-Test Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proof-test voltage
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70,000
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The dc voltages listed in this table are not appropriate for proof testing rubber insulating line hose or covers. For this equipment, dc proof tests shall use a voltage high enough to indicate that the equipment can be safely used at the voltages listed in Table E-4. See ASTM D1050-05 (2011) and ASTM D1049-98 (2010) for further information on proof tests for rubber insulating line hose and covers, respectively.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-3—Glove Tests—Water Level 
<sup>1</sup> 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Class of glove
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">AC proof test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">DC proof test
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">in
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">in
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The water level is given as the clearance from the reinforced edge of the glove to the water line, with a tolerance of ±13 mm. (±0.5 in.).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> If atmospheric conditions make the specified clearances impractical, the clearances may be increased by a maximum of 25 mm. (1 in.).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-4—Rubber Insulating Equipment, Voltage Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum use voltage 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>AC rms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retest
<br/>voltage 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>AC rms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retest
<br/>voltage 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>DC avg
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70,000
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The maximum use voltage is the ac voltage (rms) classification of the protective equipment that designates the maximum nominal design voltage of the energized system that may be safely worked. The nominal design voltage is equal to the phase-to-phase voltage on multiphase circuits. However, the phase-to-ground potential is considered to be the nominal design voltage if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) There is no multiphase exposure in a system area and the voltage exposure is limited to the phase-to-ground potential, or
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) The electric equipment and devices are insulated or isolated or both so that the multiphase exposure on a grounded wye circuit is removed.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The proof-test voltage shall be applied continuously for at least 1 minute, but no more than 3 minutes.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-5—Rubber Insulating Equipment, Test Intervals
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">When to test
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating line hose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Upon indication that insulating value is suspect and after repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating covers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Upon indication that insulating value is suspect and after repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating blankets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before first issue and every 12 months thereafter;
<sup>1</sup> upon indication that insulating value is suspect; and after repair.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating gloves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before first issue and every 6 months thereafter;
<sup>1</sup> upon indication that insulating value is suspect; after repair; and after use without protectors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubber insulating sleeves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Before first issue and every 12 months thereafter;
<sup>1</sup> upon indication that insulating value is suspect; and after repair.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the insulating equipment has been electrically tested but not issued for service, the insulating equipment may not be placed into service unless it has been electrically tested within the previous 12 months.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 20693, Apr. 11, 2014]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.98" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.98   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.100   Head protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees working in areas where there is a possible danger of head injury from impact, or from falling or flying objects, or from electrical shock and burns, shall be protected by protective helmets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for head protection.</I> (1) The employer must provide each employee with head protection that meets the specifications contained in any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2009, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1926.6;
</P>
<P>(ii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-2003, “American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection,” incorporated by reference in § 1926.6; or
</P>
<P>(iii) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1-1997, “American National Standard for Personnel Protection—Protective Headwear for Industrial Workers—Requirements,” incorporated by reference in § 1926.6.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure that the head protection provided for each employee exposed to high-voltage electric shock and burns also meets the specifications contained in Section 9.7 (“Electrical Insulation”) of any of the consensus standards identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) OSHA will deem any head protection device that the employer demonstrates is at least as effective as a head protection device constructed in accordance with one of the consensus standards identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979, as amended at 77 FR 37600, June 22, 2012; 77 FR 42988, July 23, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.101   Hearing protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wherever it is not feasible to reduce the noise levels or duration of exposures to those specified in Table D-2, Permissible Noise Exposures, in § 1926.52, ear protective devices shall be provided and used.
</P>
<P>(b) Ear protective devices inserted in the ear shall be fitted or determined individually by competent persons.
</P>
<P>(c) Plain cotton is not an acceptable protective device.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.102   Eye and face protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses appropriate eye or face protection when exposed to eye or face hazards from flying particles, molten metal, liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, or potentially injurious light radiation.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee uses eye protection that provides side protection when there is a hazard from flying objects. Detachable side protectors (<I>e.g.</I> clip-on or slide-on side shields) meeting the pertinent requirements of this section are acceptable.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall ensure that each affected employee who wears prescription lenses while engaged in operations that involve eye hazards wears eye protection that incorporates the prescription in its design, or wears eye protection that can be worn over the prescription lenses without disturbing the proper position of the prescription lenses or the protective lenses.
</P>
<P>(4) Eye and face PPE shall be distinctly marked to facilitate identification of the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(5) Protectors shall meet the following minimum requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) They shall provide adequate protection against the particular hazards for which they are designed.
</P>
<P>(ii) They shall be reasonably comfortable when worn under the designated conditions.
</P>
<P>(iii) They shall fit snugly and shall not unduly interfere with the movements of the wearer.
</P>
<P>(iv) They shall be durable.
</P>
<P>(v) They shall be capable of being disinfected.
</P>
<P>(vi) They shall be easily cleanable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for protective eye and face protection.</I> (1) Protective eye and face protection devices must comply with any of the following consensus standards:
</P>
<P>(i) ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1926.6;
</P>
<P>(ii) ANSI Z87.1-2003, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices, incorporated by reference in § 1926.6; or
</P>
<P>(iii) ANSI Z87.1-1989 (R-1998), Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection, incorporated by reference in § 1926.6;
</P>
<P>(2) Protective eye and face protection devices that the employer demonstrates are at least as effective as protective eye and face protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above consensus standards will be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection against radiant energy</I>—(1) <I>Selection of shade numbers for welding filter.</I> Table E-1 shall be used as a guide for the selection of the proper shade numbers of filter lenses or plates used in welding. Shades more dense than those listed may be used to suit the individual's needs.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-1—Filter Lens Shade Numbers for Protection Against Radiant Energy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Welding operation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Shade number
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shielded metal-arc welding 1/16-, 3/32-, 1/8-, 5/32-inch diameter electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-shielded arc welding (nonferrous) 1/16-, 3/32-, 1/8-, 5/32-inch diameter electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-shielded arc welding (ferrous) 1/16-, 3/32-, 1/8-, 5/32-inch diameter electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shielded metal-arc welding 3/16-, 7/32-, 1/4-inch diameter electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/16-, 3/8-inch diameter electrodes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Atomic hydrogen welding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10-14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon-arc welding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Soldering</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torch brazing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 or 4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light cutting, up to 1 inch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 or 4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium cutting, 1 inch to 6 inches</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 or 5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy cutting, over 6 inches</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 or 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas welding (light), up to 1/8-inch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 or 5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas welding (medium), 1/8-inch to 1/2-inch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 or 6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas welding (heavy), over 1/2-inch</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 or 8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Laser protection.</I> (i) Employees whose occupation or assignment requires exposure to laser beams shall be furnished suitable laser safety goggles which will protect for the specific wavelength of the laser and be of optical density (O.D.) adequate for the energy involved. Table E-2 lists the maximum power or energy density for which adequate protection is afforded by glasses of optical densities from 5 through 8. Output levels falling between lines in this table shall require the higher optical density.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E-2—Selecting Laser Safety Glass
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Intensity, CW maximum power density (watts/cm
<sup>2</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Attenuation
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Optical density (O.D.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Attenuation factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
<sup>8</sup></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) All protective goggles shall bear a label identifying the following data:
</P>
<P>(A) The laser wavelengths for which use is intended;
</P>
<P>(B) The optical density of those wavelengths;
</P>
<P>(C) The visible light transmission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35160, June 30, 1993; 81 FR 16092, Mar. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.103   Respiratory protection.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at 29 CFR 1910.134 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1297; Jan. 8, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.104   Safety belts, lifelines, and lanyards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lifelines, safety belts, and lanyards shall be used only for employee safeguarding. Any lifeline, safety belt, or lanyard actually subjected to in-service loading, as distinguished from static load testing, shall be immediately removed from service and shall not be used again for employee safeguarding.
</P>
<P>(b) Lifelines shall be secured above the point of operation to an anchorage or structural member capable of supporting a minimum dead weight of 5,400 pounds.
</P>
<P>(c) Lifelines used on rock-scaling operations, or in areas where the lifeline may be subjected to cutting or abrasion, shall be a minimum of 
<FR>7/8</FR>-inch wire core manila rope. For all other lifeline applications, a minimum of 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch manila or equivalent, with a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(d) Safety belt lanyard shall be a minimum of 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch nylon, or equivalent, with a maximum length to provide for a fall of no greater than 6 feet. The rope shall have a nominal breaking strength of 5,400 pounds.
</P>
<P>(e) All safety belt and lanyard hardware shall be drop forged or pressed steel, cadmium plated in accordance with type 1, Class B plating specified in Federal Specification QQ-P-416. Surface shall be smooth and free of sharp edges.
</P>
<P>(f) All safety belt and lanyard hardware, except rivets, shall be capable of withstanding a tensile loading of 4,000 pounds without cracking, breaking, or taking a permanent deformation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 84 FR 21577, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.105   Safety nets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Safety nets shall be provided when workplaces are more than 25 feet above the ground or water surface, or other surfaces where the use of ladders, scaffolds, catch platforms, temporary floors, safety lines, or safety belts is impractical.
</P>
<P>(b) Where safety net protection is required by this part, operations shall not be undertaken until the net is in place and has been tested.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Nets shall extend 8 feet beyond the edge of the work surface where employees are exposed and shall be installed as close under the work surface as practical but in no case more than 25 feet below such work surface. Nets shall be hung with sufficient clearance to prevent user's contact with the surfaces or structures below. Such clearances shall be determined by impact load testing.
</P>
<P>(2) It is intended that only one level of nets be required for bridge construction.
</P>
<P>(d) The mesh size of nets shall not exceed 6 inches by 6 inches. All new nets shall meet accepted performance standards of 17,500 foot-pounds minimum impact resistance as determined and certified by the manufacturers, and shall bear a label of proof test. Edge ropes shall provide a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds.
</P>
<P>(e) Forged steel safety hooks or shackles shall be used to fasten the net to its supports.
</P>
<P>(f) Connections between net panels shall develop the full strength of the net.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.106   Working over or near water.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees working over or near water, where the danger of drowning exists, shall be provided with U.S. Coast Guard-approved life jacket or buoyant work vests.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to and after each use, the buoyant work vests or life preservers shall be inspected for defects which would alter their strength or buoyancy. Defective units shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(c) Ring buoys with at least 90 feet of line shall be provided and readily available for emergency rescue operations. Distance between ring buoys shall not exceed 200 feet.
</P>
<P>(d) At least one lifesaving skiff shall be immediately available at locations where employees are working over or adjacent to water.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.5.13.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.107   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contaminant</I> means any material which by reason of its action upon, within, or to a person is likely to cause physical harm.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lanyard</I> means a rope, suitable for supporting one person. One end is fastened to a safety belt or harness and the other end is secured to a substantial object or a safety line.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Lifeline</I> means a rope, suitable for supporting one person, to which a lanyard or safety belt (or harness) is attached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>O.D.</I> means optical density and refers to the light refractive characteristics of a lens.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Radiant energy</I> means energy that travels outward in all directions from its sources.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safety belt</I> means a device, usually worn around the waist which, by reason of its attachment to a lanyard and lifeline or a structure, will prevent a worker from falling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Fire Protection and Prevention</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 107 of the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 3704); Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736),1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (62 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 650008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.150" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.6.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.150   Fire protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall be responsible for the development of a fire protection program to be followed throughout all phases of the construction and demolition work, and he shall provide for the firefighting equipment as specified in this subpart. As fire hazards occur, there shall be no delay in providing the necessary equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Access to all available firefighting equipment shall be maintained at all times.
</P>
<P>(3) All firefighting equipment, provided by the employer, shall be conspicuously located.
</P>
<P>(4) All firefighting equipment shall be periodically inspected and maintained in operating condition. Defective equipment shall be immediately replaced.
</P>
<P>(5) As warranted by the project, the employer shall provide a trained and equipped firefighting organization (Fire Brigade) to assure adequate protection to life.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Water supply.</I> (1) A temporary or permanent water supply, of sufficient volume, duration, and pressure, required to properly operate the firefighting equipment shall be made available as soon as combustible materials accumulate.
</P>
<P>(2) Where underground water mains are to be provided, they shall be installed, completed, and made available for use as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Portable firefighting equipment</I>—(1) <I>Fire extinguishers and small hose lines.</I> (i) A fire extinguisher, rated not less than 2A, shall be provided for each 3,000 square feet of the protected building area, or major fraction thereof. Travel distance from any point of the protected area to the nearest fire extinguisher shall not exceed 100 feet.
</P>
<P>(ii) One 55-gallon open drum of water with two fire pails may be substituted for a fire extinguisher having a 2A rating.
</P>
<P>(iii) A 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch diameter garden-type hose line, not to exceed 100 feet in length and equipped with a nozzle, may be substituted for a 2A-rated fire extinguisher, providing it is capable of discharging a minimum of 5 gallons per minute with a minimum hose stream range of 30 feet horizontally. The garden-type hose lines shall be mounted on conventional racks or reels. The number and location of hose racks or reels shall be such that at least one hose stream can be applied to all points in the area.
</P>
<P>(iv) One or more fire extinguishers, rated not less than 2A, shall be provided on each floor. In multistory buildings, at least one fire extinguisher shall be located adjacent to stairway.
</P>
<P>(v) Extinguishers and water drums, subject to freezing, shall be protected from freezing.
</P>
<P>(vi) A fire extinguisher, rated not less than 10B, shall be provided within 50 feet of wherever more than 5 gallons of flammable or combustible liquids or 5 pounds of flammable gas are being used on the jobsite. This requirement does not apply to the integral fuel tanks of motor vehicles.
</P>
<P>(vii) Carbon tetrachloride and other toxic vaporizing liquid fire extinguishers are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(viii) Portable fire extinguishers shall be inspected periodically and maintained in accordance with Maintenance and Use of Portable Fire Extinguishers, NFPA No. 10A-1970.
</P>
<P>(ix) Fire extinguishers which have been listed or approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory, shall be used to meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(x) Table F-1 may be used as a guide for selecting the appropriate portable fire extinguishers.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.012.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Fire hose and connections.</I> (i) One hundred feet, or less, of 1
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch hose, with a nozzle capable of discharging water at 25 gallons or more per minute, may be substituted for a fire extinguisher rated not more than 2A in the designated area provided that the hose line can reach all points in the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) If fire hose connections are not compatible with local firefighting equipment, the contractor shall provide adapters, or equivalent, to permit connections.
</P>
<P>(iii) During demolition involving combustible materials, charged hose lines, supplied by hydrants, water tank trucks with pumps, or equivalent, shall be made available.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fixed firefighting equipment</I>—(1) <I>Sprinkler protection.</I> (i) If the facility being constructed includes the installation of automatic sprinkler protection, the installation shall closely follow the construction and be placed in service as soon as applicable laws permit following completion of each story.
</P>
<P>(ii) During demolition or alterations, existing automatic sprinkler installations shall be retained in service as long as reasonable. The operation of sprinkler control valves shall be permitted only by properly authorized persons. Modification of sprinkler systems to permit alterations or additional demolition should be expedited so that the automatic protection may be returned to service as quickly as possible. Sprinkler control valves shall be checked daily at close of work to ascertain that the protection is in service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standpipes.</I> In all structures in which standpipes are required, or where standpipes exist in structures being altered, they shall be brought up as soon as applicable laws permit, and shall be maintained as construction progresses in such a manner that they are always ready for fire protection use. The standpipes shall be provided with Siamese fire department connections on the outside of the structure, at the street level, which shall be conspicuously marked. There shall be at least one standard hose outlet at each floor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fire alarm devices.</I> (1) An alarm system, e.g., telephone system, siren, etc., shall be established by the employer whereby employees on the site and the local fire department can be alerted for an emergency.
</P>
<P>(2) The alarm code and reporting instructions shall be conspicuously posted at phones and at employee entrances.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fire cutoffs.</I> (1) Fire walls and exit stairways, required for the completed buildings, shall be given construction priority. Fire doors, with automatic closing devices, shall be hung on openings as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Fire cutoffs shall be retained in buildings undergoing alterations or demolition until operations necessitate their removal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35162, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.151" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.6.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.151   Fire prevention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ignition hazards.</I> (1) Electrical wiring and equipment for light, heat, or power purposes shall be installed in compliance with the requirements of subpart K of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Internal combustion engine powered equipment shall be so located that the exhausts are well away from combustible materials. When the exhausts are piped to outside the building under construction, a clearance of at least 6 inches shall be maintained between such piping and combustible material.
</P>
<P>(3) Smoking shall be prohibited at or in the vicinity of operations which constitute a fire hazard, and shall be conspicuously posted: “No Smoking or Open Flame.”
</P>
<P>(4) Portable battery powered lighting equipment, used in connection with the storage, handling, or use of flammable gases or liquids, shall be of the type approved for the hazardous locations.
</P>
<P>(5) The nozzle of air, inert gas, and steam lines or hoses, when used in the cleaning or ventilation of tanks and vessels that contain hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapors, shall be bonded to the tank or vessel shell. Bonding devices shall not be attached or detached in hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Temporary buildings.</I> (1) No temporary building shall be erected where it will adversely affect any means of exit.
</P>
<P>(2) Temporary buildings, when located within another building or structure, shall be of either noncombustible construction or of combustible construction having a fire resistance of not less than 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(3) Temporary buildings, located other than inside another building and not used for the storage, handling, or use of flammable or combustible liquids, flammable gases, explosives, or blasting agents, or similar hazardous occupancies, shall be located at a distance of not less than 10 feet from another building or structure. Groups of temporary buildings, not exceeding 2,000 square feet in aggregate, shall, for the purposes of this part, be considered a single temporary building.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Open yard storage.</I> (1) Combustible materials shall be piled with due regard to the stability of piles and in no case higher than 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(2) Driveways between and around combustible storage piles shall be at least 15 feet wide and maintained free from accumulation of rubbish, equipment, or other articles or materials. Driveways shall be so spaced that a maximum grid system unit of 50 feet by 150 feet is produced.
</P>
<P>(3) The entire storage site shall be kept free from accumulation of unnecessary combustible materials. Weeds and grass shall be kept down and a regular procedure provided for the periodic cleanup of the entire area.
</P>
<P>(4) When there is a danger of an underground fire, that land shall not be used for combustible or flammable storage.
</P>
<P>(5) Method of piling shall be solid wherever possible and in orderly and regular piles. No combustible material shall be stored outdoors within 10 feet of a building or structure.
</P>
<P>(6) Portable fire extinguishing equipment, suitable for the fire hazard involved, shall be provided at convenient, conspicuously accessible locations in the yard area. Portable fire extinguishers, rated not less than 2A, shall be placed so that maximum travel distance to the nearest unit shall not exceed 100 feet.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indoor storage.</I> (1) Storage shall not obstruct, or adversely affect, means of exit.
</P>
<P>(2) All materials shall be stored, handled, and piled with due regard to their fire characteristics.
</P>
<P>(3) Noncompatible materials, which may create a fire hazard, shall be segregated by a barrier having a fire resistance of at least 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(4) Material shall be piled to minimize the spread of fire internally and to permit convenient access for firefighting. Stable piling shall be maintained at all times. Aisle space shall be maintained to safely accommodate the widest vehicle that may be used within the building for firefighting purposes.
</P>
<P>(5) Clearance of at least 36 inches shall be maintained between the top level of the stored material and the sprinkler deflectors.
</P>
<P>(6) Clearance shall be maintained around lights and heating units to prevent ignition of combustible materials.
</P>
<P>(7) A clearance of 24 inches shall be maintained around the path of travel of fire doors unless a barricade is provided, in which case no clearance is needed. Material shall not be stored within 36 inches of a fire door opening.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.152" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.6.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.152   Flammable liquids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Only approved containers and portable tanks shall be used for storage and handling of flammable liquids. Approved safety cans or Department of Transportation approved containers shall be used for the handling and use of flammable liquids in quantities of 5 gallons or less, except that this shall not apply to those flammable liquid materials which are highly viscid (extremely hard to pour), which may be used and handled in original shipping containers. For quantities of one gallon or less, the original container may be used, for storage, use and handling of flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(2) Flammable liquids shall not be stored in areas used for exits, stairways, or normally used for the safe passage of people.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indoor storage of flammable liquids.</I> (1) No more than 25 gallons of flammable liquids shall be stored in a room outside of an approved storage cabinet. For storage of liquefied petroleum gas, see § 1926.153.
</P>
<P>(2) Quantities of flammable liquid in excess of 25 gallons shall be stored in an acceptable or approved cabinet meeting the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Acceptable wooden storage cabinets shall be constructed in the following manner, or equivalent: The bottom, sides, and top shall be constructed of an exterior grade of plywood at least 1 inch in thickness, which shall not break down or delaminate under standard fire test conditions. All joints shall be rabbeted and shall be fastened in two directions with flathead wood screws. When more than one door is used, there shall be a rabbeted overlap of not less than 1 inch. Steel hinges shall be mounted in such a manner as to not lose their holding capacity due to loosening or burning out of the screws when subjected to fire. Such cabinets shall be painted inside and out with fire retardant paint.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approved metal storage cabinets will be acceptable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cabinets shall be labeled in conspicuous lettering, “Flammable-Keep Away from Open Flames.”
</P>
<P>(3) Not more than 60 gallons of Category 1, 2 and/or 3 flammable liquids or 120 gallons of Category 4 flammable liquids shall be stored in any one storage cabinet. Not more than three such cabinets may be located in a single storage area. Quantities in excess of this shall be stored in an inside storage room.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Inside storage rooms shall be constructed to meet the required fire-resistive rating for their use. Such construction shall comply with the test specifications set forth in Standard Methods of Fire Test of Building Construction and Material, NFPA 251-1969.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where an automatic extinguishing system is provided, the system shall be designed and installed in an approved manner. Openings to other rooms or buildings shall be provided with noncombustible liquid-tight raised sills or ramps at least 4 inches in height, or the floor in the storage area shall be at least 4 inches below the surrounding floor. Openings shall be provided with approved self-closing fire doors. The room shall be liquid-tight where the walls join the floor. A permissible alternate to the sill or ramp is an open-grated trench, inside of the room, which drains to a safe location. Where other portions of the building or other buildings are exposed, windows shall be protected as set forth in the Standard for Fire Doors and Windows, NFPA No. 80-1970, for Class E or F openings. Wood of at least 1-inch nominal thickness may be used for shelving, racks, dunnage, scuffboards, floor overlay, and similar installations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Materials which will react with water and create a fire hazard shall not be stored in the same room with flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(iv) Storage in inside storage rooms shall comply with Table F-2 following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fire protection provided
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fire resistance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total allowable quantities gals./sq. ft./floor area
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 hrs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 sq. ft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 hrs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 sq. ft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 sq. ft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150 sq. ft</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> Fire protection system shall be sprinkler, water spray, carbon dioxide or other system approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory for this purpose.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) Electrical wiring and equipment located in inside storage rooms shall be approved for Class I, Division 1, Hazardous Locations. For definition of Class I, Division 1, Hazardous Locations, see § 1926.449.
</P>
<P>(vi) Every inside storage room shall be provided with either a gravity or a mechanical exhausting system. Such system shall commence not more than 12 inches above the floor and be designed to provide for a complete change of air within the room at least 6 times per hour. If a mechanical exhausting system is used, it shall be controlled by a switch located outside of the door. The ventilating equipment and any lighting fixtures shall be operated by the same switch. An electric pilot light shall be installed adjacent to the switch if Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids are dispensed within the room. Where gravity ventilation is provided, the fresh air intake, as well as the exhausting outlet from the room, shall be on the exterior of the building in which the room is located.
</P>
<P>(vii) In every inside storage room there shall be maintained one clear aisle at least 3 feet wide. Containers over 30 gallons capacity shall not be stacked one upon the other.
</P>
<P>(viii) Flammable liquids in excess of that permitted in inside storage rooms shall be stored outside of buildings in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Quantity.</I> The quantity of flammable liquids kept in the vicinity of spraying operations shall be the minimum required for operations and should ordinarily not exceed a supply for 1 day or one shift. Bulk storage of portable containers of flammable liquids shall be in a separate, constructed building detached from other important buildings or cut off in a standard manner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Storage outside buildings.</I> (1) Storage of containers (not more than 60 gallons each) shall not exceed 1,100 gallons in any one pile or area. Piles or groups of containers shall be separated by a 5-foot clearance. Piles or groups of containers shall not be nearer than 20 feet to a building.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 200 feet of each pile of containers, there shall be a 12-foot-wide access way to permit approach of fire control apparatus.
</P>
<P>(3) The storage area shall be graded in a manner to divert possible spills away from buildings or other exposures, or shall be surrounded by a curb or earth dike at least 12 inches high. When curbs or dikes are used, provisions shall be made for draining off accumulations of ground or rain water, or spills of flammable liquids. Drains shall terminate at a safe location and shall be accessible to operation under fire conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Outdoor portable tank storage: (i) Portable tanks shall not be nearer than 20 feet from any building. Two or more portable tanks, grouped together, having a combined capacity in excess of 2,200 gallons, shall be separated by a 5-foot-clear area. Individual portable tanks exceeding 1,100 gallons shall be separated by a 5-foot-clear area.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 200 feet of each portable tank, there shall be a 12-foot-wide access way to permit approach of fire control apparatus.
</P>
<P>(5) Storage areas shall be kept free of weeds, debris, and other combustible material not necessary to the storage.
</P>
<P>(6) Portable tanks, not exceeding 660 gallons, shall be provided with emergency venting and other devices, as required by chapters III and IV of NFPA 30-1969, The Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code.
</P>
<P>(7) Portable tanks, in excess of 660 gallons, shall have emergency venting and other devices, as required by chapters II and III of The Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, NFPA 30-1969.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fire control for flammable liquid storage.</I> (1) At least one portable fire extinguisher, having a rating of not less than 20-B units, shall be located outside of, but not more than 10 feet from, the door opening into any room used for storage of more than 60 gallons of flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(2) At least one portable fire extinguisher having a rating of not less than 20-B units shall be located not less than 25 feet, nor more than 75 feet, from any flammable liquid storage area located outside.
</P>
<P>(3) When sprinklers are provided, they shall be installed in accordance with the Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems, NFPA 13-1969.
</P>
<P>(4) At least one portable fire extinguisher having a rating of not less than 20-B:C units shall be provided on all tank trucks or other vehicles used for transporting and/or dispensing flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dispensing liquids.</I> (1) Areas in which flammable liquids are transferred at one time, in quantities greater than 5 gallons from one tank or container to another tank or container, shall be separated from other operations by 25-feet distance or by construction having a fire resistance of at least 1 hour. Drainage or other means shall be provided to control spills. Adequate natural or mechanical ventilation shall be provided to maintain the concentration of flammable vapor at or below 10 percent of the lower flammable limit.
</P>
<P>(2) Transfer of Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids from one container to another shall be done only when containers are electrically interconnected (bonded).
</P>
<P>(3) Flammable liquids shall be drawn from or transferred into vessels, containers, or tanks within a building or outside only through a closed piping system, from safety cans, by means of a device drawing through the top, or from a container, or portable tanks, by gravity or pump, through an approved self-closing valve. Transferring by means of air pressure on the container or portable tanks is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(4) The dispensing units shall be protected against collision damage.
</P>
<P>(5) Dispensing devices and nozzles for Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids shall be of an approved type.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Handling liquids at point of final use.</I> (1) Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids shall be kept in closed containers when not actually in use.
</P>
<P>(2) Leakage or spillage of flammable liquids shall be disposed of promptly and safely.
</P>
<P>(3) Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids may be used only where there are no open flames or other sources of ignition within 50 feet of the operation, unless conditions warrant greater clearance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Service and refueling areas.</I> (1) Flammable liquids shall be stored in approved closed containers, in tanks located underground, or in aboveground portable tanks.
</P>
<P>(2) The tank trucks shall comply with the requirements covered in the Standard for Tank Vehicles for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, NFPA No. 385-1966.
</P>
<P>(3) The dispensing hose shall be an approved type.
</P>
<P>(4) The dispensing nozzle shall be an approved automatic-closing type without a latch-open device.
</P>
<P>(5) Underground tanks shall not be abandoned.
</P>
<P>(6) Clearly identified and easily accessible switch(es) shall be provided at a location remote from dispensing devices to shut off the power to all dispensing devices in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) Heating equipment of an approved type may be installed in the lubrication or service area where there is no dispensing or transferring of Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids, provided the bottom of the heating unit is at least 18 inches above the floor and is protected from physical damage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Heating equipment installed in lubrication or service areas, where Category 1, 2, or 3 flammable liquids are dispensed, shall be of an approved type for garages, and shall be installed at least 8 feet above the floor.
</P>
<P>(8) There shall be no smoking or open flames in the areas used for fueling, servicing fuel systems for internal combustion engines, receiving or dispensing of flammable liquids.
</P>
<P>(9) Conspicuous and legible signs prohibiting smoking shall be posted.
</P>
<P>(10) The motors of all equipment being fueled shall be shut off during the fueling operation.
</P>
<P>(11) Each service or fueling area shall be provided with at least one fire extinguisher having a rating of not less than 20-B:C located so that an extinguisher will be within 75 feet of each pump, dispenser, underground fill pipe opening, and lubrication or service area.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to the handling, storage, and use of flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or below 199.4 °F (93 °C). This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Bulk transportation of flammable liquids; and
</P>
<P>(2) Storage, handling, and use of fuel oil tanks and containers connected with oil burning equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Tank storage</I>—(1) <I>Design and construction of tanks</I>—(i) <I>Materials.</I> (A) Tanks shall be built of steel except as provided in paragraphs (i)(1)(i) (B) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Tanks may be built of materials other than steel for installation underground or if required by the properties of the liquid stored. Tanks located above ground or inside buildings shall be of noncombustible construction.
</P>
<P>(C) Tanks built of materials other than steel shall be designed to specifications embodying principles recognized as good engineering design for the material used.
</P>
<P>(D) Unlined concrete tanks may be used for storing flammable liquids having a gravity of 40° API or heavier. Concrete tanks with special lining may be used for other services provided the design is in accordance with sound engineering practice.
</P>
<P>(E) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(F) Special engineering consideration shall be required if the specific gravity of the liquid to be stored exceeds that of water or if the tanks are designed to contain flammable liquids at a liquid temperature below 0 °F.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fabrication.</I> (A) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(B) Metal tanks shall be welded, riveted, and caulked, brazed, or bolted, or constructed by use of a combination of these methods. Filler metal used in brazing shall be nonferrous metal or an alloy having a melting point above 1000 °F. and below that of the metal joined.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Atmospheric tanks.</I> (A) Atmospheric tanks shall be built in accordance with acceptable good standards of design. Atmospheric tanks may be built in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc., Subjects No. 142, Standard for Steel Aboveground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, 1968; No. 58, Standard for Steel Underground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, Fifth Edition, December 1961; or No. 80, Standard for Steel Inside Tanks for Oil-Burner Fuel, September 1963.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) American Petroleum Institute Standards No. 12A, Specification for Oil Storage Tanks with Riveted Shells, Seventh Edition, September 1951, or No. 650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage, Third Edition, 1966.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) American Petroleum Institute Standards No. 12B, Specification for Bolted Production Tanks, Eleventh Edition, May 1958, and Supplement 1, March 1962; No. 12D, Specification for Large Welded Production Tanks, Seventh Edition, August 1957; or No. 12F, Specification for Small Welded Production Tanks, Fifth Edition, March 1961. Tanks built in accordance with these standards shall be used only as production tanks for storage of crude petroleum in oil-producing areas.
</P>
<P>(B) Tanks designed for underground service not exceeding 2,500 gallons (9,462.5 L) capacity may be used aboveground.
</P>
<P>(C) Low-pressure tanks and pressure vessels may be used as atmospheric tanks.
</P>
<P>(D) Atmospheric tanks shall not be used for the storage of a flammable liquid at a temperature at or above its boiling point.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Low pressure tanks.</I> (A) The normal operating pressure of the tank shall not exceed the design pressure of the tank.
</P>
<P>(B) Low-pressure tanks shall be built in accordance with acceptable standards of design. Low-pressure tanks may be built in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) American Petroleum Institute Standard No. 620. Recommended Rules for the Design and Construction of Large, Welded, Low-Pressure Storage Tanks, Third Edition, 1966.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The principles of the Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels, Section VIII of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessels Code, 1968.
</P>
<P>(C) Atmospheric tanks built according to Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc., requirements in paragraph (i)(1)(iii)(A) of this section and shall be limited to 2.5 p.s.i.g. under emergency venting conditions.
</P>
<FP>This paragraph may be used for operating pressures not exceeding 1 p.s.i.g.
</FP>
<P>(D) Pressure vessels may be used as low-pressure tanks.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Pressure vessels.</I> (A) The normal operating pressure of the vessel shall not exceed the design pressure of the vessel.
</P>
<P>(B) Pressure vessels shall be built in accordance with the Code for Unfired Pressure Vessels, Section VIII of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code 1968.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Provisions for internal corrosion.</I> When tanks are not designed in accordance with the American Petroleum Institute, American Society of Mechanical Engineers, or the Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc.'s, standards, or if corrosion is anticipated beyond that provided for in the design formulas used, additional metal thickness or suitable protective coatings or linings shall be provided to compensate for the corrosion loss expected during the design life of the tank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation of outside aboveground tanks.</I> (i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Spacing (shell-to-shell) between aboveground tanks.</I> (A) The distance between any two flammable liquid storage tanks shall not be less than 3 feet (0.912 m).
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2)(ii)(C) of this section, the distance between any two adjacent tanks shall not be less than one-sixth the sum of their diameters. When the diameter of one tank is less than one-half the diameter of the adjacent tank, the distance between the two tanks shall not be less than one-half the diameter of the smaller tank.
</P>
<P>(C) Where crude petroleum in conjunction with production facilities are located in noncongested areas and have capacities not exceeding 126,000 gallons (3,000 barrels), the distance between such tanks shall not be less than 3 feet (0.912 m).
</P>
<P>(D) Where unstable flammable liquids are stored, the distance between such tanks shall not be less than one-half the sum of their diameters.
</P>
<P>(E) When tanks are compacted in three or more rows or in an irregular pattern, greater spacing or other means shall be provided so that inside tanks are accessible for firefighting purposes.
</P>
<P>(F) The minimum separation between a liquefied petroleum gas container and a flammable liquid storage tank shall be 20 feet (6.08 m), except in the case of flammable liquid tanks operating at pressures exceeding 2.5 p.s.i.g. or equipped with emergency venting which will permit pressures to exceed 2.5 p.s.i.g. in which case the provisions of paragraphs (i)(2)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section shall apply. Suitable means shall be taken to prevent the accumulation of flammable liquids under adjacent liquefied petroleum gas containers such as by diversion curbs or grading. When flammable liquid storage tanks are within a diked area, the liquefied petroleum gas containers shall be outside the diked area and at least 10 feet (3.04 m) away from the centerline of the wall of the diked area. The foregoing provisions shall not apply when liquefied petroleum gas containers of 125 gallons (473.125 L) or less capacity are installed adjacent to fuel oil supply tanks of 550 gallons (2,081.75 L) or less capacity.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Normal venting for aboveground tanks.</I> (A) Atmospheric storage tanks shall be adequately vented to prevent the development of vacuum or pressure sufficient to distort the roof of a cone roof tank or exceeding the design pressure in the case of other atmospheric tanks, as a result of filling or emptying, and atmospheric temperature changes.
</P>
<P>(B) Normal vents shall be sized either in accordance with: (<I>1</I>) The American Petroleum Institute Standard 2000 (1968), Venting Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage Tanks; or (<I>2</I>) other accepted standard; or (<I>3</I>) shall be at least as large as the filling or withdrawal connection, whichever is larger but in no case less than 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch (3.175 cm) nominal inside diameter.
</P>
<P>(C) Low-pressure tanks and pressure vessels shall be adequately vented to prevent development of pressure or vacuum, as a result of filling or emptying and atmospheric temperature changes, from exceeding the design pressure of the tank or vessel. Protection shall also be provided to prevent overpressure from any pump discharging into the tank or vessel when the pump discharge pressure can exceed the design pressure of the tank or vessel.
</P>
<P>(D) If any tank or pressure vessel has more than one fill or withdrawal connection and simultaneous filling or withdrawal can be made, the vent size shall be based on the maximum anticipated simultaneous flow.
</P>
<P>(E) Unless the vent is designed to limit the internal pressure 2.5 p.s.i. or less, the outlet of vents and vent drains shall be arranged to discharge in such a manner as to prevent localized overheating of any part of the tank in the event vapors from such vents are ignited.
</P>
<P>(F) Tanks and pressure vessels storing Category 1 flammable liquids shall be equipped with venting devices that shall be normally closed except when venting to pressure or vacuum conditions. Tanks and pressure vessels storing Category 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be equipped with venting devices that shall be normally closed except when venting under pressure or vacuum conditions, or with approved flame arresters.
</P>
<P><I>Exemption:</I> Tanks of 3,000 bbls (barrels) (84 m(3)) capacity or less containing crude petroleum in crude-producing areas; and, outside aboveground atmospheric tanks under 1,000 gallons (3,785 L) capacity containing other than Category 1 flammable liquids may have open vents. (<I>See</I> paragraph (i)(2)(vi)(B) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(G) Flame arresters or venting devices required in paragraph (i)(2)(iv)(F) of this section may be omitted for Category 2 flammable liquids or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C) where conditions are such that their use may, in case of obstruction, result in tank damage.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Emergency relief venting for fire exposure for aboveground tanks.</I> (A) Every aboveground storage tank shall have some form of construction or device that will relieve excessive internal pressure caused by exposure fires.
</P>
<P>(B) In a vertical tank the construction referred to in paragraph (i)(2)(v)(A) of this section may take the form of a floating roof, lifter roof, a weak roof-to-shell seam, or other approved pressure relieving construction. The weak roof-to-shell seam shall be constructed to fail preferential to any other seam.
</P>
<P>(C) Where entire dependence for emergency relief is placed upon pressure relieving devices, the total venting capacity of both normal and emergency vents shall be enough to prevent rupture of the shell or bottom of the tank if vertical, or of the shell or heads if horizontal. If unstable liquids are stored, the effects of heat or gas resulting from polymerization, decomposition, condensation, or self-reactivity shall be taken into account. The total capacity of both normal and emergency venting devices shall be not less than that derived from Table F-10 except as provided in paragraph (i)(2)(v) (E) or (F) of this section. Such device may be a self-closing manhole cover, or one using long bolts that permit the cover to lift under internal pressure, or an additional or larger relief valve or valves. The wetted area of the tank shall be calculated on the basis of 55 percent of the total exposed area of a sphere or spheroid, 75 percent of the total exposed area of a horizontal tank and the first 30 feet (9.12 m) above grade of the exposed shell area of a vertical tank.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-10—Wetted Area Versus Cubic Feet (Meters) Free Air Per Hour
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[14.7 psia and 60 °F. (15.55 °C)]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Square feet (m
<sup>2</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFH (m
<sup>3</sup>H)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Square feet (m
<sup>2</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFH (m
<sup>3</sup>H)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Square feet (m
<sup>2</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFH (m
<sup>3</sup>H)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 (1.84)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,100 (590.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200 (18.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211,000 (5,908)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000 (90.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">524,000 (14,672)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30 (2.76)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31,600 (884.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250 (23)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">239,000 (6,692)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200 (110.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">557,000 (15,596)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40 (3.68)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42,100 (1,178.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300 (27.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">265,000 (7,420)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400 (128.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">587,000 (16,436)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50 (4.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52,700 (1,475.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">350 (32.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288,000 (8,064)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600 (147.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">614,000 (17,192)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60 (5.52)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63,200 (1,769.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400 (36.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">312,000 (8,736)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800 (165.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">639,000 (17,892)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70 (6.44)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73,700 (2,063.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500 (46)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">354,000 (9,912)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000 (180.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">662,000 (18,536)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80 (7.36)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84,200 (2,357.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600 (55.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">392,000 (10,976)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400 (220.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">704,000 (19,712)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90 (8.28)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94,800 (2,654.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700 (64.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">428,000 (11,984)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,800 (257.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">742,000 (20,776)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100 (9.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105,000 (2,940)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800 (73.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">462,000 (12,936)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">and
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120 (11.04)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126,000 (3,528)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900 (82.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">493,000 (13,804)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">over
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">140 (12.88)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">147,000 (4,116)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000 (90.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">524,000 (14,672)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">160 (14.72)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168,000 (4,704)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180 (16.56)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,000 (5,320)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200 (18.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211,000 (5,908)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(D) For tanks and storage vessels designed for pressure over 1 p.s.i.g., the total rate of venting shall be determined in accordance with Table F-10, except that when the exposed wetted area of the surface is greater than 2,800 square feet (257.6 m
<SU>2</SU>), the total rate of venting shall be calculated by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2><I>CFH</I> = 1,107<I>A</I>
<SU>0.82</SU>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>CFH</I> = Venting requirement, in cubic feet (meters) of free air per hour.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I> = Exposed wetted surface, in square feet (m
<SU>2</SU>).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The foregoing formula is based on <I>Q = 21,000A</I>
<SU>0.82</SU>.</P></NOTE>
<P>(E) The total emergency relief venting capacity for any specific stable liquid may be determined by the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2><I>V</I> = 1337 ÷ <I>L</I><E T="51">√</E> <I>M</I>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2><I>V</I> = Cubic feet (meters) of free air per hour from Table F-10.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L</I> = Latent heat of vaporization of specific liquid in B.t.u. per pound.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>M</I> = Molecular weight of specific liquids.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(F) The required airflow rate of paragraph (i)(2)(v) (C) or (E) of this section may be multiplied by the appropriate factor listed in the following schedule when protection is provided as indicated. Only one factor may be used for any one tank.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>0.5 for drainage in accordance with paragraph (i)(2)(vii)(B) of this section for tanks over 200 square feet (18.4 m
<SU>2</SU>) of wetted area.
</FP>
<FP>0.3 for approved water spray.
</FP>
<FP>0.3 for approved insulation.
</FP>
<FP>0.15 for approved water spray with approved insulation.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(G) The outlet of all vents and vent drains on tanks equipped with emergency venting to permit pressures exceeding 2.5 p.s.i.g. shall be arranged to discharge in such a way as to prevent localized overheating of any part of the tank, in the event vapors from such vents are ignited.
</P>
<P>(H) Each commercial tank venting device shall have stamped on it the opening pressure, the pressure at which the valve reaches the full open position, and the flow capacity at the latter pressure, expressed in cubic feet (meters) per hour of air at 60 °F. (15.55 °C) and at a pressure of 14.7 p.s.i.a.
</P>
<P>(I) The flow capacity of tank venting devices 12 inches (30.48 cm) and smaller in nominal pipe size shall be determined by actual test of each type and size of vent. These flow tests may be conducted by the manufacturer if certified by a qualified impartial observer, or may be conducted by an outside agency. The flow capacity of tank venting devices larger than 12 inches (30.48 cm) nominal pipe size, including manhole covers with long bolts or equivalent, may be calculated provided that the opening pressure is actually measured, the rating pressure and corresponding free orifice area are stated, the word “calculated” appears on the nameplate, and the computation is based on a flow coefficient of 0.5 applied to the rated orifice area.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Vent piping for aboveground tanks.</I> (A) Vent piping shall be constructed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Where vent pipe outlets for tanks storing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), are adjacent to buildings or public ways, they shall be located so that the vapors are released at a safe point outside of buildings and not less than 12 feet (3.658 m) above the adjacent ground level. In order to aid their dispersion, vapors shall be discharged upward or horizontally away from closely adjacent walls. Vent outlets shall be located so that flammable vapors will not be trapped by eaves or other obstructions and shall be at least 5 feet (1.52 m) from building openings.
</P>
<P>(C) When tank vent piping is manifolded, pipe sizes shall be such as to discharge, within the pressure limitations of the system, the vapors they may be required to handle when manifolded tanks are subject to the same fire exposure.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Drainage, dikes, and walls for aboveground tanks</I>—(A) <I>Drainage and diked areas.</I> The area surrounding a tank or a group of tanks shall be provided with drainage as in paragraph (i)(2)(vii)(B) of this section, or shall be diked as provided in (i)(2)(vii)(C) of this section, to prevent accidental discharge of liquid from endangering adjoining property or reaching waterways.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Drainage.</I> Where protection of adjoining property or waterways is by means of a natural or manmade drainage system, such systems shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The drainage system shall terminate in vacant land or other area or in an impounding basin having a capacity not smaller than that of the largest tank served. This termination area and the route of the drainage system shall be so located that, if the flammable liquids in the drainage system are ignited, the fire will not seriously expose tanks or adjoining property.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Diked areas.</I> Where protection of adjoining property or waterways is accomplished by retaining the liquid around the tank by means of a dike, the volume of the diked area shall comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2)(vii)(C)(2) of this section, the volumetric capacity of the diked area shall not be less than the greatest amount of liquid that can be released from the largest tank within the diked area, assuming a full tank. The capacity of the diked area enclosing more than one tank shall be calculated by deducting the volume of the tanks other than the largest tank below the height of the dike.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a tank or group of tanks with fixed roofs containing crude petroleum with boilover characteristics, the volumetric capacity of the diked area shall be not less than the capacity of the largest tank served by the enclosure, assuming a full tank. The capacity of the diked enclosure shall be calculated by deducting the volume below the height of the dike of all tanks within the enclosure.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Walls of the diked area shall be of earth, steel, concrete or solid masonry designed to be liquidtight and to withstand a full hydrostatic head. Earthen walls 3 feet (0.912 m) or more in height shall have a flat section at the top not less than 2 feet (0.608 m) wide. The slope of an earthen wall shall be consistent with the angle of repose of the material of which the wall is constructed.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The walls of the diked area shall be restricted to an average height of 6 feet (1.824 m) above interior grade.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) No loose combustible material, empty or full drum or barrel, shall be permitted within the diked area.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Tank openings other than vents for aboveground tanks.</I>
</P>
<P>(A)-(C) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(D) Openings for gaging shall be provided with a vaportight cap or cover.
</P>
<P>(E) For Category 2 flammable liquids or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), other than crude oils, gasolines, and asphalts, the fill pipe shall be so designed and installed as to minimize the possibility of generating static electricity. A fill pipe entering the top of a tank shall terminate within 6 inches (15.24 cm) of the bottom of the tank and shall be installed to avoid excessive vibration.
</P>
<P>(F) Filling and emptying connections which are made and broken shall be located outside of buildings at a location free from any source of ignition and not less than 5 feet (1.52 m) away from any building opening. Such connection shall be closed and liquidtight when not in use. The connection shall be properly identified.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Installation of underground tanks</I>—(i) <I>Location.</I> Evacuation for underground storage tanks shall be made with due care to avoid undermining of foundations of existing structures. Underground tanks or tanks under buildings shall be so located with respect to existing building foundations and supports that the loads carried by the latter cannot be transmitted to the tank. The distance from any part of a tank storing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), to the nearest wall of any basement or pit shall be not less than 1 foot (0.304 m), and to any property line that may be built upon, not less than 3 feet (0.912 m). The distance from any part of a tank storing Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids to the nearest wall of any basement, pit or property line shall be not less than 1 foot (0.304 m).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Depth and cover.</I> Underground tanks shall be set on firm foundations and surrounded with at least 6 inches (15.24 cm) of noncorrosive, inert materials such as clean sand, earth, or gravel well tamped in place. The tank shall be placed in the hole with care since dropping or rolling the tank into the hole can break a weld, puncture or damage the tank, or scrape off the protective coating of coated tanks. Tanks shall be covered with a minimum of 2 feet (0.608 m) of earth, or shall be covered with not less than 1 foot (0.304 m) of earth, on top of which shall be placed a slab of reinforced concrete not less than 4 inches (10.16 cm) thick. When underground tanks are, or are likely to be, subject to traffic, they shall be protected against damage from vehicles passing over them by at least 3 feet (0.912 m) of earth cover, or 18 inches (45.72 cm) of well-tamped earth, plus 6 inches (15.24 cm) of reinforced concrete or 8 inches (20.32 cm) of asphaltic concrete. When asphaltic or reinforced concrete paving is used as part of the protection, it shall extend at least 1 foot (0.304 m) horizontally beyond the outline of the tank in all directions.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Corrosion protection.</I> Corrosion protection for the tank and its piping shall be provided by one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(A) Use of protective coatings or wrappings;
</P>
<P>(B) Cathodic protection; or,
</P>
<P>(C) Corrosion resistant materials of construction.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Vents.</I> (A) Location and arrangement of vents for Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C). Vent pipes from tanks storing Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be so located that the discharge point is outside of buildings, higher than the fill pipe opening, and not less than 12 feet (3.658 m) above the adjacent ground level. Vent pipes shall discharge only upward in order to disperse vapors. Vent pipes 2 inches (5.08 cm) or less in nominal inside diameter shall not be obstructed by devices that will cause excessive back pressure. Vent pipe outlets shall be so located that flammable vapors will not enter building openings, or be trapped under eaves or other obstructions. If the vent pipe is less than 10 feet (3.04 m) in length, or greater than 2 inches (5.08 cm) in nominal inside diameter, the outlet shall be provided with a vacuum and pressure relief device or there shall be an approved flame arrester located in the vent line at the outlet or within the approved distance from the outlet.
</P>
<P>(B) Size of vents. Each tank shall be vented through piping adequate in size to prevent blow-back of vapor or liquid at the fill opening while the tank is being filled. Vent pipes shall be not less than 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch (3.175 cm) nominal inside diameter.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-11—Vent Line Diameters
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Maximum flow GPM (L)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Pipe length 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50 feet (15.2 m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100 feet (30.4 m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">200 feet (60.8 m)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Inches (cm)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Inches (cm)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Inches (cm)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100 (378.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200 (757)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 (1,135.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.81)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400 (1,514)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> (3.175)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.81)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500 (1,892.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.81)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.81)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600 (2,271)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr> (3.81)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700 (2,649.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">800 (3,028)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.62) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">900 (3,406.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.62) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000 (3,785)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 (5.08) </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (7.62) 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Vent lines of 50 ft. (15.2 m), 100 ft. (30.4 m), and 200 ft. (60.8 m) of pipe plus 7 ells.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) Location and arrangement of vents for Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids. Vent pipes from tanks storing Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C) or Category 4 flammable liquids shall terminate outside of the building and higher than the fill pipe opening. Vent outlets shall be above normal snow level. They may be fitted with return bends, coarse screens or other devices to minimize ingress of foreign material.
</P>
<P>(D) Vent piping shall be constructed in accordance with paragraph (3)(iv)(C) of this section. Vent pipes shall be so laid as to drain toward the tank without sags or traps in which liquid can collect. They shall be located so that they will not be subjected to physical damage. The tank end of the vent pipe shall enter the tank through the top.
</P>
<P>(E) When tank vent piping is manifolded, pipe sizes shall be such as to discharge, within the pressure limitations of the system, the vapors they may be required to handle when manifolded tanks are filled simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Tank openings other than vents.</I> (A) Connections for all tank openings shall be vapor or liquid tight.
</P>
<P>(B) Openings for manual gaging, if independent of the fill pipe, shall be provided with a liquid-tight cap or cover. If inside a building, each such opening shall be protected against liquid overflow and possible vapor release by means of a spring loaded check valve or other approved device.
</P>
<P>(C) Fill and discharge lines shall enter tanks only through the top. Fill lines shall be sloped toward the tank.
</P>
<P>(D) For Category 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), other than crude oils, gasolines, and asphalts, the fill pipe shall be so designed and installed as to minimize the possibility of generating static electricity by terminating within 6 inches (15.24 cm) of the bottom of the tank.
</P>
<P>(E) Filling and emptying connections which are made and broken shall be located outside of buildings at a location free from any source of ignition and not less than 5 feet (1.52 m) away from any building opening. Such connection shall be closed and liquidtight when not in use. The connection shall be properly identified.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Installation of tanks inside of buildings</I>—(i) <I>Location.</I> Tanks shall not be permitted inside of buildings except as provided in paragraphs (e), (g), (h), or (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Vents.</I> Vents for tanks inside of buildings shall be as provided in paragraphs (i)(2) (iv), (v), (vi)(B), and (3)(iv) of this section, except that emergency venting by the use of weak roof seams on tanks shall not be permitted. Vents shall discharge vapors outside the buildings.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Vent piping.</I> Vent piping shall be constructed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Tank openings other than vents.</I> (A) Connections for all tank openings shall be vapor or liquidtight. Vents are covered in paragraph (i)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Each connection to a tank inside of buildings through which liquid can normally flow shall be provided with an internal or an external valve located as close as practical to the shell of the tank. Such valves, when external, and their connections to the tank shall be of steel except when the chemical characteristics of the liquid stored are incompatible with steel. When materials other than steel are necessary, they shall be suitable for the pressures, structural stresses, and temperatures involved, including fire exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) Flammable liquid tanks located inside of buildings, except in one-story buildings designed and protected for flammable liquid storage, shall be provided with an automatic-closing heat-actuated valve on each withdrawal connection below the liquid level, except for connections used for emergency disposal, to prevent continued flow in the event of fire in the vicinity of the tank. This function may be incorporated in the valve required in paragraph (i)(4)(iv)(B) of this section, and if a separate valve, shall be located adjacent to the valve required in paragraph (i)(4)(iv)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Openings for manual gaging, if independent of the fill pipe (see paragraph (i)(4)(iv)(F) of this section), shall be provided with a vaportight cap or cover. Each such opening shall be protected against liquid overflow and possible vapor release by means of a spring loaded check valve or other approved device.
</P>
<P>(E) For Category 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), other than crude oils, gasolines, and asphalts, the fill pipe shall be so designed and installed as to minimize the possibility of generating static electricity by terminating within 6 inches (15.24 cm) of the bottom of the tank.
</P>
<P>(F) The fill pipe inside of the tank shall be installed to avoid excessive vibration of the pipe.
</P>
<P>(G) The inlet of the fill pipe shall be located outside of buildings at a location free from any source of ignition and not less than 5 feet (1.52 m) away from any building opening. The inlet of the fill pipe shall be closed and liquidtight when not in use. The fill connection shall be properly identified.
</P>
<P>(H) Tanks inside buildings shall be equipped with a device, or other means shall be provided, to prevent overflow into the building.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Supports, foundations, and anchorage for all tank locations</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Tank supports shall be installed on firm foundations. Tank supports shall be of concrete, masonry, or protected steel. Single wood timber supports (not cribbing) laid horizontally may be used for outside aboveground tanks if not more than 12 inches (30.48 cm) high at their lowest point.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fire resistance.</I> Steel supports or exposed piling shall be protected by materials having a fire resistance rating of not less than 2 hours, except that steel saddles need not be protected if less than 12 inches (30.48 cm) high at their lowest point. Water spray protection or its equivalent may be used in lieu of fire-resistive materials to protect supports.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Spheres.</I> The design of the supporting structure for tanks such as spheres shall receive special engineering consideration.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Load distribution.</I> Every tank shall be so supported as to prevent the excessive concentration of loads on the supporting portion of the shell.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Foundations.</I> Tanks shall rest on the ground or on foundations made of concrete, masonry, piling, or steel. Tank foundations shall be designed to minimize the possibility of uneven settling of the tank and to minimize corrosion in any part of the tank resting on the foundation.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Flood areas.</I> Where a tank is located in an area that may be subjected to flooding, the applicable precautions outlined in this subdivision shall be observed.
</P>
<P>(A) No aboveground vertical storage tank containing a flammable liquid shall be located so that the allowable liquid level within the tank is below the established maximum flood stage, unless the tank is provided with a guiding structure such as described in paragraphs (i)(5)(vi) (M), (N), and (O) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Independent water supply facilities shall be provided at locations where there is no ample and dependable public water supply available for loading partially empty tanks with water.
</P>
<P>(C) In addition to the preceding requirements, each tank so located that more than 70 percent, but less than 100 percent, of its allowable liquid storage capacity will be submerged at the established maximum flood stage, shall be safeguarded by one of the following methods: Tank shall be raised, or its height shall be increased, until its top extends above the maximum flood stage a distance equivalent to 30 percent or more of its allowable liquid storage capacity: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the submerged part of the tank shall not exceed two and one-half times the diameter. Or, as an alternative to the foregoing, adequate noncombustible structural guides, designed to permit the tank to float vertically without loss of product, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(D) Each horizontal tank so located that more than 70 percent of its storage capacity will be submerged at the established flood stage, shall be anchored, attached to a foundation of concrete or of steel and concrete, of sufficient weight to provide adequate load for the tank when filled with flammable liquid and submerged by flood waters to the established flood stage, or adequately secured by other means.
</P>
<P>(E) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(F) At locations where there is no ample and dependable water supply, or where filling of underground tanks with liquids is impracticable because of the character of their contents, their use, or for other reasons, each tank shall be safeguarded against movement when empty and submerged by high ground water or flood waters by anchoring, weighting with concrete or other approved solid loading material, or securing by other means. Each such tank shall be so constructed and installed that it will safely resist external pressures due to high ground water or flood waters.
</P>
<P>(G) At locations where there is an ample and dependable water supply available, underground tanks containing flammable liquids, so installed that more than 70 percent of their storage capacity will be submerged at the maximum flood stage, shall be so anchored, weighted, or secured by other means, as to prevent movement of such tanks when filled with flammable liquids, and submerged by flood waters to the established flood stage.
</P>
<P>(H) Pipe connections below the allowable liquid level in a tank shall be provided with valves or cocks located as closely as practicable to the tank shell. Such valves and their connections to tanks shall be of steel or other material suitable for use with the liquid being stored. Cast iron shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(I) At locations where an independent water supply is required, it shall be entirely independent of public power and water supply. Independent source of water shall be available when flood waters reach a level not less than 10 feet (3.04 m) below the bottom of the lowest tank on a property.
</P>
<P>(J) The self-contained power and pumping unit shall be so located or so designed that pumping into tanks may be carried on continuously throughout the rise in flood waters from a level 10 feet (3.04 m) below the lowest tank to the level of the potential flood stage.
</P>
<P>(K) Capacity of the pumping unit shall be such that the rate of rise of water in all tanks shall be equivalent to the established potential average rate of rise of flood waters at any stage.
</P>
<P>(L) Each independent pumping unit shall be tested periodically to insure that it is in satisfactory operating condition.
</P>
<P>(M) Structural guides for holding floating tanks above their foundations shall be so designed that there will be no resistance to the free rise of a tank, and shall be constructed of noncombustible material.
</P>
<P>(N) The strength of the structure shall be adequate to resist lateral movement of a tank subject to a horizontal force in any direction equivalent to not less than 25 pounds per square foot (1.05 kg m
<SU>2</SU>) acting on the projected vertical cross-sectional area of the tank.
</P>
<P>(O) Where tanks are situated on exposed points or bends in a shoreline where swift currents in flood waters will be present, the structures shall be designed to withstand a unit force of not less than 50 pounds per square foot (2.1 kg m
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P>(P) The filling of a tank to be protected by water loading shall be started as soon as flood waters reach a dangerous flood stage. The rate of filling shall be at least equal to the rate of rise of the floodwaters (or the established average potential rate of rise).
</P>
<P>(Q) Sufficient fuel to operate the water pumps shall be available at all times to insure adequate power to fill all tankage with water.
</P>
<P>(R) All valves on connecting pipelines shall be closed and locked in closed position when water loading has been completed.
</P>
<P>(S) Where structural guides are provided for the protection of floating tanks, all rigid connections between tanks and pipelines shall be disconnected and blanked off or blinded before the floodwaters reach the bottom of the tank, unless control valves and their connections to the tank are of a type designed to prevent breakage between the valve and the tank shell.
</P>
<P>(T) All valves attached to tanks other than those used in connection with water loading operations shall be closed and locked.
</P>
<P>(U) If a tank is equipped with a swing line, the swing pipe shall be raised to and secured at its highest position.
</P>
<P>(V) Inspections. The Assistant Secretary or his designated representative shall make periodic inspections of all plants where the storage of flammable liquids is such as to require compliance with the foregoing requirements, in order to assure the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That all flammable liquid storage tanks are in compliance with these requirements and so maintained.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That detailed printed instructions of what to do in flood emergencies are properly posted.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) That station operators and other employees depended upon to carry out such instructions are thoroughly informed as to the location and operation of such valves and other equipment necessary to effect these requirements.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Earthquake areas.</I> In areas subject to earthquakes, the tank supports and connections shall be designed to resist damage as a result of such shocks.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sources of ignition.</I> In locations where flammable vapors may be present, precautions shall be taken to prevent ignition by eliminating or controlling sources of ignition. Sources of ignition may include open flames, lightning, smoking, cutting and welding, hot surfaces, frictional heat, sparks (static, electrical, and mechanical), spontaneous ignition, chemical and physical-chemical reactions, and radiant heat.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Testing</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> All tanks, whether shop built or field erected, shall be strength tested before they are placed in service in accordance with the applicable paragraphs of the code under which they were built. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) code stamp, American Petroleum Institute (API) monogram, or the label of the Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc., on a tank shall be evidence of compliance with this strength test. Tanks not marked in accordance with the above codes shall be strength tested before they are placed in service in accordance with good engineering principles and reference shall be made to the sections on testing in the codes listed in paragraphs (i)(1) (iii)(A), (iv)(B), or (v)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Strength.</I> When the vertical length of the fill and vent pipes is such that when filled with liquid the static head imposed upon the bottom of the tank exceeds 10 pounds per square inch (68.94 kPa), the tank and related piping shall be tested hydrostatically to a pressure equal to the static head thus imposed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Tightness.</I> In addition to the strength test called for in paragraphs (i)(7) (i) and (ii) of this section, all tanks and connections shall be tested for tightness. Except for underground tanks, this tightness test shall be made at operating pressure with air, inert gas, or water prior to placing the tank in service. In the case of field-erected tanks the strength test may be considered to be the test for tank tightness. Underground tanks and piping, before being covered, enclosed, or placed in use, shall be tested for tightness hydrostatically, or with air pressure at not less than 3 pounds per square inch (20.68 kPa) and not more than 5 pounds per square inch (34.47 kPa).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Repairs.</I> All leaks or deformations shall be corrected in an acceptable manner before the tank is placed in service. Mechanical caulking is not permitted for correcting leaks in welded tanks except pinhole leaks in the roof.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Derated operations.</I> Tanks to be operated at pressures below their design pressure may be tested by the applicable provisions of paragraphs (i)(7) (i) or (ii) of this section, based upon the pressure developed under full emergency venting of the tank.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Piping, valves, and fittings</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Design.</I> The design (including selection of materials) fabrication, assembly, test, and inspection of piping systems containing flammable liquids shall be suitable for the expected working pressures and structural stresses. Conformity with the applicable provisions of Pressure Piping, ANSI B31 series and the provisions of this paragraph, shall be considered prima facie evidence of compliance with the foregoing provisions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> This paragraph does not apply to any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Tubing or casing on any oil or gas wells and any piping connected directly thereto.
</P>
<P>(B) Motor vehicle, aircraft, boat, or portable or stationary engines.
</P>
<P>(C) Piping within the scope of any applicable boiler and pressures vessel code.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this paragraph, piping systems consist of pipe, tubing, flanges, bolting, gaskets, valves, fittings, the pressure containing parts of other components such as expansion joints and strainers, and devices which serve such purposes as mixing, separating, snubbing, distributing, metering, or controlling flow.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Materials for piping, valves, and fittings</I>—(i) <I>Required materials.</I> Materials for piping, valves, or fittings shall be steel, nodular iron, or malleable iron, except as provided in paragraphs (j)(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> Materials other than steel, nodular iron, or malleable iron may be used underground, or if required by the properties of the flammable liquid handled. Material other than steel, nodular iron, or malleable iron shall be designed to specifications embodying principles recognized as good engineering practices for the material used.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Linings.</I> Piping, valves, and fittings may have combustible or noncombustible linings.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Low-melting materials.</I> When low-melting point materials such as aluminum and brass or materials that soften on fire exposure such as plastics, or non-ductile materials such as cast iron, are necessary, special consideration shall be given to their behavior on fire exposure. If such materials are used in above ground piping systems or inside buildings, they shall be suitably protected against fire exposure or so located that any spill resulting from the failure of these materials could not unduly expose persons, important buildings or structures or can be readily controlled by remote valves.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pipe joints.</I> Joints shall be made liquid tight. Welded or screwed joints or approved connectors shall be used. Threaded joints and connections shall be made up tight with a suitable lubricant or piping compound. Pipe joints dependent upon the friction characteristics of combustible materials for mechanical continuity of piping shall not be used inside buildings. They may be used outside of buildings above or below ground. If used above ground, the piping shall either be secured to prevent disengagement at the fitting or the piping system shall be so designed that any spill resulting from such disengagement could not unduly expose persons, important buildings or structures, and could be readily controlled by remote valves.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supports.</I> Piping systems shall be substantially supported and protected against physical damage and excessive stresses arising from settlement, vibration, expansion, or contraction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Protection against corrosion.</I> All piping for flammable liquids, both aboveground and underground, where subject to external corrosion, shall be painted or otherwise protected.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Valves.</I> Piping systems shall contain a sufficient number of valves to operate the system properly and to protect the plant. Piping systems in connection with pumps shall contain a sufficient number of valves to control properly the flow of liquid in normal operation and in the event of physical damage. Each connection to pipelines, by which equipments such as tankcars or tank vehicles discharge liquids by means of pumps into storage tanks, shall be provided with a check valve for automatic protection against backflow if the piping arrangement is such that backflow from the system is possible.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Testing.</I> All piping before being covered, enclosed, or placed in use shall be hydrostatically tested to 150 percent of the maximum anticipated pressure of the system, or pneumatically tested to 110 percent of the maximum anticipated pressure of the system, but not less than 5 pounds per square inch gage at the highest point of the system. This test shall be maintained for a sufficient time to complete visual inspection of all joints and connections, but for at least 10 minutes.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Marine service stations</I>—(1) <I>Dispensing.</I> (i) The dispensing area shall be located away from other structures so as to provide room for safe ingress and egress of craft to be fueled. Dispensing units shall in all cases be at least 20 feet (6.08 m) from any activity involving fixed sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dispensing shall be by approved dispensing units with or without integral pumps and may be located on open piers, wharves, or floating docks or on shore or on piers of the solid fill type.
</P>
<P>(iii) Dispensing nozzles shall be automatic-closing without a hold-open latch.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tanks and pumps.</I> (i) Tanks, and pumps not integral with the dispensing unit, shall be on shore or on a pier of the solid fill type, except as provided in paragraphs (k)(2) (ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where shore location would require excessively long supply lines to dispensers, tanks may be installed on a pier provided that applicable portions of paragraph (b) of this section relative to spacing, diking, and piping are complied with and the quantity so stored does not exceed 1,100 gallons (4,163.5 L) aggregate capacity.
</P>
<P>(iii) Shore tanks supplying marine service stations may be located above ground, where rock ledges or high water table make underground tanks impractical.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where tanks are at an elevation which would produce gravity head on the dispensing unit, the tank outlet shall be equipped with a pressure control valve positioned adjacent to and outside the tank block valve specified in § 1926.152(c)(8) of this section, so adjusted that liquid cannot flow by gravity from the tank in case of piping or hose failure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Piping.</I> (i) Piping between shore tanks and dispensing units shall be as described in paragraph (k)(2)(iii) of this section, except that, where dispensing is from a floating structure, suitable lengths of oil-resistant flexible hose may be employed between the shore piping and the piping on the floating structure as made necessary by change in water level or shoreline.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr12.128.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr12.129.gif"/>
<P>(ii) A readily accessible valve to shut off the supply from shore shall be provided in each pipeline at or near the approach to the pier and at the shore end of each pipeline adjacent to the point where flexible hose is attached.
</P>
<P>(iii) Piping shall be located so as to be protected from physical damage.
</P>
<P>(iv) Piping handling Category 1 or 2 flammable liquids, or Category 3 flammable liquids with a flashpoint below 100 °F (37.8 °C), shall be grounded to control stray currents.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definition; as used in this section:</I> Marine service station shall mean that portion of a property where flammable liquids used as fuels are stored and dispensed from fixed equipment on shore, piers, wharves, or floating docks into the fuel tanks of self-propelled craft, and shall include all facilities used in connection therewith.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986; 58 FR 35162, June 30, 1993; 63 FR 33469, June 18, 1998; 77 FR 17891, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.153" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.6.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.153   Liquefied petroleum gas (LP-Gas).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval of equipment and systems.</I> (1) Each system shall have containers, valves, connectors, manifold valve assemblies, and regulators of an approved type.
</P>
<P>(2) All cylinders shall meet the Department of Transportation specification identification requirements published in 49 CFR part 178, Shipping Container Specifications.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition.</I> As used in this section, <I>Containers</I>—All vessels, such as tanks, cylinders, or drums, used for transportation or storing liquefied petroleum gases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Welding on LP-Gas containers.</I> Welding is prohibited on containers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Container valves and container accessories.</I> (1) Valves, fittings, and accessories connected directly to the container, including primary shut off valves, shall have a rated working pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g. and shall be of material and design suitable for LP-Gas service.
</P>
<P>(2) Connections to containers, except safety relief connections, liquid level gauging devices, and plugged openings, shall have shutoff valves located as close to the container as practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safety devices.</I> (1) Every container and every vaporizer shall be provided with one or more approved safety relief valves or devices. These valves shall be arranged to afford free vent to the outer air with discharge not less than 5 feet horizontally away from any opening into a building which is below such discharge.
</P>
<P>(2) Shutoff valves shall not be installed between the safety relief device and the container, or the equipment or piping to which the safety relief device is connected, except that a shutoff valve may be used where the arrangement of this valve is such that full required capacity flow through the safety relief device is always afforded.
</P>
<P>(3) Container safety relief devices and regulator relief vents shall be located not less than 5 feet in any direction from air openings into sealed combustion system appliances or mechanical ventilation air intakes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dispensing.</I> (1) Filling of fuel containers for trucks or motor vehicles from bulk storage containers shall be performed not less than 10 feet from the nearest masonry-walled building, or not less than 25 feet from the nearest building or other construction and, in any event, not less than 25 feet from any building opening.
</P>
<P>(2) Filling of portable containers or containers mounted on skids from storage containers shall be performed not less than 50 feet from the nearest building.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requirements for appliances.</I> (1) LP-Gas consuming appliances shall be approved types.
</P>
<P>(2) Any appliance that was originally manufactured for operation with a gaseous fuel other than LP-Gas, and is in good condition, may be used with LP-Gas only after it is properly converted, adapted, and tested for performance with LP-Gas before the appliance is placed in use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Containers and regulating equipment installed outside of buildings or structures.</I> Containers shall be upright upon firm foundations or otherwise firmly secured. The possible effect on the outlet piping of settling shall be guarded against by a flexible connection or special fitting.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Containers and equipment used inside of buildings or structures.</I> (1) When operational requirements make portable use of containers necessary, and their location outside of buildings or structures is impracticable, containers and equipment shall be permitted to be used inside of buildings or structures in accordance with paragraphs (h)(2) through (11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Containers in use</I> means connected for use.
</P>
<P>(3) Systems utilizing containers having a water capacity greater than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds (nominal 1 pound LP-Gas capacity) shall be equipped with excess flow valves. Such excess flow valves shall be either integral with the container valves or in the connections to the container valve outlets.
</P>
<P>(4) Regulators shall be either directly connected to the container valves or to manifolds connected to the container valves. The regulator shall be suitable for use with LP-Gas. Manifolds and fittings connecting containers to pressure regulator inlets shall be designed for at least 250 p.s.i.g. service pressure.
</P>
<P>(5) Valves on containers having water capacity greater than 50 pounds (nominal 20 pounds LP-Gas capacity) shall be protected from damage while in use or storage.
</P>
<P>(6) Aluminum piping or tubing shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(7) Hose shall be designed for a working pressure of at least 250 p.s.i.g. Design, construction, and performance of hose, and hose connections shall have their suitability determined by listing by a nationally recognized testing agency. The hose length shall be as short as practicable. Hoses shall be long enough to permit compliance with spacing provisions of paragraphs (h)(1) through (13) of this section, without kinking or straining, or causing hose to be so close to a burner as to be damaged by heat.
</P>
<P>(8) Portable heaters, including salamanders, shall be equipped with an approved automatic device to shut off the flow of gas to the main burner, and pilot if used, in the event of flame failure. Such heaters, having inputs above 50,000 B.t.u. per hour, shall be equipped with either a pilot, which must be lighted and proved before the main burner can be turned on, or an electrical ignition system.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The provisions of this subparagraph do not apply to portable heaters under 7,500 B.t.u. per hour input when used with containers having a maximum water capacity of 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds.</P></NOTE>
<P>(9) Container valves, connectors, regulators, manifolds, piping, and tubing shall not be used as structural supports for heaters.
</P>
<P>(10) Containers, regulating equipment, manifolds, pipe, tubing, and hose shall be located to minimize exposure to high temperatures or physical damage.
</P>
<P>(11) Containers having a water capacity greater than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> pounds (nominal 1 pound LP-Gas capacity) connected for use shall stand on a firm and substantially level surface and, when necessary, shall be secured in an upright position.
</P>
<P>(12) The maximum water capacity of individual containers shall be 245 pounds (nominal 100 pounds LP-Gas capacity).
</P>
<P>(13) For temporary heating, heaters (other than integral heater-container units) shall be located at least 6 feet from any LP-Gas container. This shall not prohibit the use of heaters specifically designed for attachment to the container or to a supporting standard, provided they are designed and installed so as to prevent direct or radiant heat application from the heater onto the containers. Blower and radiant type heaters shall not be directed toward any LP-Gas container within 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(14) If two or more heater-container units, of either the integral or nonintegral type, are located in an unpartitioned area on the same floor, the container or containers of each unit shall be separated from the container or containers of any other unit by at least 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(15) When heaters are connected to containers for use in an unpartitioned area on the same floor, the total water capacity of containers, manifolded together for connection to a heater or heaters, shall not be greater than 735 pounds (nominal 300 pounds LP-Gas capacity). Such manifolds shall be separated by at least 20 feet.
</P>
<P>(16) Storage of containers awaiting use shall be in accordance with paragraphs (j) and (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Multiple container systems.</I> (1) Valves in the assembly of multiple container systems shall be arranged so that replacement of containers can be made without shutting off the flow of gas in the system. This provision is not to be construed as requiring an automatic changeover device.
</P>
<P>(2) Heaters shall be equipped with an approved regulator in the supply line between the fuel cylinder and the heater unit. Cylinder connectors shall be provided with an excess flow valve to minimize the flow of gas in the event the fuel line becomes ruptured.
</P>
<P>(3) Regulators and low-pressure relief devices shall be rigidly attached to the cylinder valves, clyinders, supporting standards, the building walls, or otherwise rigidly secured, and shall be so installed or protected from the elements.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Storage of LPG containers.</I> Storage of LPG within buildings is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Storage outside of buildings.</I> (1) Storage outside of buildings, for containers awaiting use, shall be located from the nearest building or group of buildings, in accordance with the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-3
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quantity of LP-Gas stored
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance (feet)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500 lbs. or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 6,000 lbs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6,001 to 10,000 lbs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 10,000 lbs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Containers shall be in a suitable ventilated enclosure or otherwise protected against tampering.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Fire protection.</I> Storage locations shall be provided with at least one approved portable fire extinguisher having a rating of not less than 20-B:C.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Systems utilizing containers other than DOT containers</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This paragraph applies specifically to systems utilizing storage containers other than those constructed in accordance with DOT specifications. Paragraph (b) of this section applies to this paragraph unless otherwise noted in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design pressure and classification of storage containers.</I> Storage containers shall be designed and classified in accordance with Table F-31.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-31
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Container type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">For gases with vapor press. Not to exceed lb. per sq. in. gage at 100 °F. (37.8 °C.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum design pressure of container, lb. per sq. in. gage
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1949 and earlier editions of ASME Code (Par. U-68, U-69)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1949 edition of ASME Code (Par. U-200, U-201); 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965, and 1968 (Division 1) editions of ASME Code; All editions of API-ASME Code 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>1</sup> 80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">156
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">187
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">219
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>2</sup> 200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> New storage containers of the 80 type have not been authorized since Dec. 31, 1947.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Container type may be increased by increments of 25. The minimum design pressure of containers shall be 100% of the container type designation when constructed under 1949 or earlier editions of the ASME Code (Par. U-68 and U-69). The minimum design pressure of containers shall be 125% of the container type designation when constructed under: (1) the 1949 ASME Code (Par. U-200 and U-201), (2) 1950, 1952, 1956, 1959, 1962, 1965, and 1968 (Division 1) editions of the ASME Code, and (3) all editions of the API-ASME Code.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Construction of containers under the API-ASME Code is not authorized after July 1, 1961.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Containers with foundations attached (portable or semiportable b containers with suitable steel “runners” or “skids” and popularly known in the industry as “skid tanks”) shall be designed, installed, and used in accordance with these rules subject to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) If they are to be used at a given general location for a temporary period not to exceed 6 months they need not have fire-resisting foundations or saddles but shall have adequate ferrous metal supports.
</P>
<P>(ii) They shall not be located with the outside bottom of the container shell more than 5 feet (1.52 m) above the surface of the ground unless fire-resisting supports are provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) The bottom of the skids shall not be less than 2 inches (5.08 cm) or more than 12 inches (30.48 cm) below the outside bottom of the container shell.
</P>
<P>(iv) Flanges, nozzles, valves, fittings, and the like, having communication with the interior of the container, shall be protected against physical damage.
</P>
<P>(v) When not permanently located on fire-resisting foundations, piping connections shall be sufficiently flexible to minimize the possibility of breakage or leakage of connections if the container settles, moves, or is otherwise displaced.
</P>
<P>(vi) Skids, or lugs for attachment of skids, shall be secured to the container in accordance with the code or rules under which the container is designed and built (with a minimum factor of safety of four) to withstand loading in any direction equal to four times the weight of the container and attachments when filled to the maximum permissible loaded weight.
</P>
<P>(4) Field welding where necessary shall be made only on saddle plates or brackets which were applied by the manufacturer of the tank.
</P>
<P>(n) When LP-Gas and one or more other gases are stored or used in the same area, the containers shall be marked to identify their content. Marking shall be in compliance with American National Standard Z48.1-1954, “Method of Marking Portable Compressed Gas Containers To Identify the Material Contained.”
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Damage from vehicles.</I> When damage to LP-Gas systems from vehicular traffic is a possibility, precautions against such damage shall be taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35170, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.154" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.6.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.154   Temporary heating devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ventilation.</I> (1) Fresh air shall be supplied in sufficient quantities to maintain the health and safety of workmen. Where natural means of fresh air supply is inadequate, mechanical ventilation shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) When heaters are used in confined spaces, special care shall be taken to provide sufficient ventilation in order to ensure proper combustion, maintain the health and safety of workmen, and limit temperature rise in the area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearance and mounting.</I> (1) Temporary heating devices shall be installed to provide clearance to combustible material not less than the amount shown in Table F-4.
</P>
<P>(2) Temporary heating devices, which are listed for installation with lesser clearances than specified in Table F-4, may be installed in accordance with their approval.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table F-4
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Heating appliances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Minimum clearance, (inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sides
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rear
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chimney connector
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Room heater, circulating type</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Room heater, radiant type</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Heaters not suitable for use on wood floors shall not be set directly upon them or other combustible materials. When such heaters are used, they shall rest on suitable heat insulating material or at least 1-inch concrete, or equivalent. The insulating material shall extend beyond the heater 2 feet or more in all directions.
</P>
<P>(4) Heaters used in the vicinity of combustible tarpaulins, canvas, or similar coverings shall be located at least 10 feet from the coverings. The coverings shall be securely fastened to prevent ignition or upsetting of the heater due to wind action on the covering or other material.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stability.</I> Heaters, when in use, shall be set horizontally level, unless otherwise permitted by the manufacturer's markings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Solid fuel salamanders.</I> Solid fuel salamanders are prohibited in buildings and on scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oil-fired heaters.</I> (1) Flammable liquid-fired heaters shall be equipped with a primary safety control to stop the flow of fuel in the event of flame failure. Barometric or gravity oil feed shall not be considered a primary safety control.
</P>
<P>(2) Heaters designed for barometric or gravity oil feed shall be used only with the integral tanks.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Heaters specifically designed and approved for use with separate supply tanks may be directly connected for gravity feed, or an automatic pump, from a supply tank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.155" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.6.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.155   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approved,</I> for the purpose of this subpart, means equipment that has been listed or approved by a nationally recognized testing laboratory such as Factory Mutual Engineering Corp., or Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc., or Federal agencies such as Bureau of Mines, or U.S. Coast Guard, which issue approvals for such equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Closed container</I> means a container so sealed by means of a lid or other device that neither liquid nor vapor will escape from it at ordinary temperatures.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Combustion</I> means any chemical process that involves oxidation sufficient to produce light or heat.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fire brigade</I> means an organized group of employees that are knowledgeable, trained, and skilled in the safe evacuation of employees during emergency situations and in assisting in fire fighting operations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fire resistance</I> means so resistant to fire that, for specified time and under conditions of a standard heat intensity, it will not fail structurally and will not permit the side away from the fire to become hotter than a specified temperature. For purposes of this part, fire resistance shall be determined by the Standard Methods of Fire Tests of Building Construction and Materials, NFPA 251-1969.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Flammable</I> means capable of being easily ignited, burning intensely, or having a rapid rate of flame spread.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Flammable liquid</I> means any liquid having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 pounds per square inch (absolute) at 100 °F (37.8 °C) and having a flashpoint at or below 199.4 °F (93 °C). Flammable liquids are divided into four categories as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Category 1 shall include liquids having flashpoints below 73.4 °F (23 °C) and having a boiling point at or below 95 °F (35 °C).
</P>
<P>(2) Category 2 shall include liquids having flashpoints below 73.4 °F (23 °C) and having a boiling point above 95 °F (35 °C).
</P>
<P>(3) Category 3 shall include liquids having flashpoints at or above 73.4 °F (23 °C) and at or below 140 °F (60 °C).
</P>
<P>(4) Category 4 shall include liquids having flashpoints above 140 °F (60 °C) and at or below 199.4 °F (93 °C).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Flash point</I> of the liquid means the temperature at which it gives off vapor sufficient to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the surface of the liquid or within the vessel used as determined by appropriate test procedure and apparatus as specified below.
</P>
<P>(1) The flashpoint of liquids having a viscosity less than 45 Saybolt Universal Second(s) at 100 °F (37.8 °C) and a flashpoint below 175 °F (79.4 °C) shall be determined in accordance with the Standard Method of Test for Flash Point by the Tag Closed Tester, ASTM D-56-69 (incorporated by reference; <I>See</I> § 1926.6), or an equivalent method as defined by § 1910.1200 appendix B.
</P>
<P>(2) The flashpoints of liquids having a viscosity of 45 Saybolt Universal Second(s) or more at 175 °F (79.4 °C) or higher shall be determined in accordance with the Standard Method of Test for Flash Point by the Pensky Martens Closed Tester, ASTM D-93-69 (incorporated by reference; <I>See</I> § 1926.6), or an equivalent method as defined by § 1910.1200 appendix B.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Liquefied petroleum gases, LPG</I> and <I>LP Gas</I> mean and include any material which is composed predominantly of any of the following hydrocarbons, or mixtures of them, such as propane, propylene, butane (normal butane or iso-butane), and butylenes.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Portable tank</I> means a closed container having a liquid capacity more than 60 U.S. gallons, and not intended for fixed installation.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Safety can</I> means an approved closed container, of not more than 5 gallons capacity, having a flash-arresting screen, spring-closing lid and spout cover and so designed that it will safely relieve internal pressure when subjected to fire exposure.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Vapor pressure</I> means the pressure, measured in pounds per square inch (absolute), exerted by a volatile liquid as determined by the “Standard Method of Test for Vapor Pressure of Petroleum Products (Reid Method).” (ASTM D-323-58).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 77 FR 17894, Mar. 26, 2012]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Signs, Signals, and Barricades</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 333; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.200" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.7.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.200   Accident prevention signs and tags.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Signs and symbols required by this subpart shall be visible at all times when work is being performed, and shall be removed or covered promptly when the hazards no longer exist.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Danger signs.</I> (1) Danger signs shall be used only where an immediate hazard exists, and shall follow the specifications illustrated in Figure 1 of ANSI Z35.1-1968 or in Figures 1 to 13 of ANSI Z535.2-2011, incorporated by reference in § 1926.6.
</P>
<P>(2) Danger signs shall have red as the predominating color for the upper panel; black outline on the borders; and a white lower panel for additional sign wording.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Caution signs.</I> (1) Caution signs shall be used only to warn against potential hazards or to caution against unsafe practices, and shall follow the specifications illustrated in Figure 4 of ANSI Z35.1-1968 or in Figures 1 to 13 of ANSI Z535.2-2011, incorporated by reference in § 1926.6.
</P>
<P>(2) Caution signs shall have yellow as the predominating color; black upper panel and borders: yellow lettering of “caution” on the black panel; and the lower yellow panel for additional sign wording. Black lettering shall be used for additional wording.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.013.gif"/>
<P>(3) The standard color of the background shall be yellow; and the panel, black with yellow letters. Any letters used against the yellow background shall be black. The colors shall be those of opaque glossy samples as specified in Table 1 of ANSI Z53.1-1967 or in Table 1 of ANSI Z535.1-2006(R2011), incorporated by reference in § 1926.6.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exit signs.</I> Exit signs, when required, shall be lettered in legible red letters, not less than 6 inches high, on a white field and the principal stroke of the letters shall be at least three-fourths inch in width.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Safety instruction signs.</I> Safety instruction signs, when used, shall be white with green upper panel with white letters to convey the principal message. Any additional wording on the sign shall be black letters on the white background.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Directional signs.</I> Directional signs, other than automotive traffic signs specified in paragraph (g) of this section, shall be white with a black panel and a white directional symbol. Any additional wording on the sign shall be black letters on the white background.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Traffic control signs and devices.</I> (1) At points of hazard, construction areas shall be posted with legible traffic control signs and protected by traffic control devices.
</P>
<P>(2) The design and use of all traffic control devices, including signs, signals, markings, barricades, and other devices, for protection of construction workers shall conform to Part 6 of the MUTCD (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Accident prevention tags.</I> (1) Accident prevention tags shall be used as a temporary means of warning employees of an existing hazard, such as defective tools, equipment, etc. They shall not be used in place of, or as a substitute for, accident prevention signs.
</P>
<P>(2) For accident prevention tags, employers shall follow specifications that are similar to those in Figures 1 to 4 of ANSI Z35.2-1968 or Figures 1 to 8 of ANSI Z535.5-2011, incorporated by reference in § 1926.6.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Additional rules.</I> ANSI Z35.1-1968, ANSI Z535.2-2011, ANSI Z35.2-1968, and ANSI Z535.5-2011, incorporated by reference in § 1926.6, contain rules in addition to those specifically prescribed in this subpart. The employer shall comply with ANSI Z35.1-1968 or ANSI Z535.2-2011, and ANSI Z35.2-1968 or Z535.5-2011, with respect to such additional rules.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35173, June 30, 1993; 67 FR 57736, Sept. 12, 2002; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 78 FR 35567, June 13, 2013; 78 FR 66642, Nov. 6, 2013; 84 FR 21577, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.201" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.7.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.201   Signaling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Flaggers.</I> Signaling by flaggers and the use of flaggers, including warning garments worn by flaggers, shall conform to Part 6 of the MUTCD (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Crane and hoist signals.</I> Regulations for crane and hoist signaling will be found in applicable American National Standards Institute standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 67 FR 57736, Sept. 12, 2002; 78 FR 35567, June 13, 2013; 84 FR 21577, May 14, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Materials Handling, Storage, Use, and Disposal</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable. Section 1926.250 also issued under 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.250" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.8.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.250   General requirements for storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) All materials stored in tiers shall be stacked, racked, blocked, interlocked, or otherwise secured to prevent sliding, falling or collapse.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The weight of stored materials on floors within buildings and structures shall not exceed maximum safe load limits.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers shall conspicuously post maximum safe load limits of floors within buildings and structures, in pounds per square foot, in all storage areas, except when the storage area is on a floor or slab on grade. Posting is not required for storage areas in all single-family residential structures and wood-framed multi-family residential structures.
</P>
<P>(3) Aisles and passageways shall be kept clear to provide for the free and safe movement of material handling equipment or employees. Such areas shall be kept in good repair.
</P>
<P>(4) When a difference in road or working levels exist, means such as ramps, blocking, or grading shall be used to ensure the safe movement of vehicles between the two levels.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Material storage.</I> (1) Material stored inside buildings under construction shall not be placed within 6 feet of any hoistway or inside floor openings, nor within 10 feet of an exterior wall which does not extend above the top of the material stored.
</P>
<P>(2) Each employee required to work on stored material in silos, hoppers, tanks, and similar storage areas shall be equipped with personal fall arrest equipment meeting the requirements of subpart M of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Noncompatible materials shall be segregated in storage.
</P>
<P>(4) Bagged materials shall be stacked by stepping back the layers and cross-keying the bags at least every 10 bags high.
</P>
<P>(5) Materials shall not be stored on scaffolds or runways in excess of supplies needed for immediate operations.
</P>
<P>(6) Brick stacks shall not be more than 7 feet in height. When a loose brick stack reaches a height of 4 feet, it shall be tapered back 2 inches in every foot of height above the 4-foot level.
</P>
<P>(7) When masonry blocks are stacked higher than 6 feet, the stack shall be tapered back one-half block per tier above the 6-foot level.
</P>
<P>(8) Lumber:
</P>
<P>(i) Used lumber shall have all nails withdrawn before stacking.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lumber shall be stacked on level and solidly supported sills.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lumber shall be so stacked as to be stable and self-supporting.
</P>
<P>(iv) Lumber piles shall not exceed 20 feet in height provided that lumber to be handled manually shall not be stacked more than 16 feet high.
</P>
<P>(9) Structural steel, poles, pipe, bar stock, and other cylindrical materials, unless racked, shall be stacked and blocked so as to prevent spreading or tilting.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Housekeeping.</I> Storage areas shall be kept free from accumulation of materials that constitute hazards from tripping, fire, explosion, or pest harborage. Vegetation control will be exercised when necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dockboards (bridge plates).</I> (1) Portable and powered dockboards shall be strong enough to carry the load imposed on them.
</P>
<P>(2) Portable dockboards shall be secured in position, either by being anchored or equipped with devices which will prevent their slipping.
</P>
<P>(3) Handholds, or other effective means, shall be provided on portable dockboards to permit safe handling.
</P>
<P>(4) Positive protection shall be provided to prevent railroad cars from being moved while dockboards or bridge plates are in position.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984; 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 58 FR 35173, June 30, 1993; 59 FR 40729, Aug. 9, 1994; 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 84 FR 21577, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.251" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.8.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.251   Rigging equipment for material handling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Rigging equipment for material handling shall be inspected prior to use on each shift and as necessary during its use to ensure that it is safe. Defective rigging equipment shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(2) Employers must ensure that rigging equipment:
</P>
<P>(i) Has permanently affixed and legible identification markings as prescribed by the manufacturer that indicate the recommended safe working load;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not be loaded in excess of its recommended safe working load as prescribed on the identification markings by the manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not be used without affixed, legible identification markings, required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Rigging equipment, when not in use, shall be removed from the immediate work area so as not to present a hazard to employees.
</P>
<P>(4) Special custom design grabs, hooks, clamps, or other lifting accessories, for such units as modular panels, prefabricated structures and similar materials, shall be marked to indicate the safe working loads and shall be proof-tested prior to use to 125 percent of their rated load.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to slings used in conjunction with other material handling equipment for the movement of material by hoisting, in employments covered by this part. The types of slings covered are those made from alloy steel chain, wire rope, metal mesh, natural or synthetic fiber rope (conventional three strand construction), and synthetic web (nylon, polyester, and polypropylene).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Inspections.</I> Each day before being used, the sling and all fastenings and attachments shall be inspected for damage or defects by a competent person designated by the employer. Additional inspections shall be performed during sling use, where service conditions warrant. Damaged or defective slings shall be immediately removed from service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alloy steel chains.</I> (1) Welded alloy steel chain slings shall have permanently affixed durable identification stating size, grade, rated capacity, and sling manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) Hooks, rings, oblong links, pear-shaped links, welded or mechanical coupling links, or other attachments, when used with alloy steel chains, shall have a rated capacity at least equal to that of the chain.
</P>
<P>(3) Job or shop hooks and links, or makeshift fasteners, formed from bolts, rods, etc., or other such attachments, shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(4) Employers must not use alloy steel-chain slings with loads in excess of the rated capacities (i.e., working load limits) indicated on the sling by permanently affixed and legible identification markings prescribed by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever wear at any point of any chain link exceeds that shown in Table H-1, the assembly shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Inspections.</I> (i) In addition to the inspection required by other paragraphs of this section, a thorough periodic inspection of alloy steel chain slings in use shall be made on a regular basis, to be determined on the basis of (A) frequency of sling use; (B) severity of service conditions; (C) nature of lifts being made; and (D) experience gained on the service life of slings used in similar circumstances. Such inspections shall in no event be at intervals greater than once every 12 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make and maintain a record of the most recent month in which each alloy steel chain sling was thoroughly inspected, and shall make such record available for examination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Wire rope.</I> (1) Employers must not use improved plow-steel wire rope and wire-rope slings with loads in excess of the rated capacities (i.e., working load limits) indicated on the sling by permanently affixed and legible identification markings prescribed by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) Protruding ends of strands in splices on slings and bridles shall be covered or blunted.
</P>
<P>(3) Wire rope shall not be secured by knots, except on haul back lines on scrapers.
</P>
<P>(4) The following limitations shall apply to the use of wire rope:
</P>
<P>(i) An eye splice made in any wire rope shall have not less than three full tucks. However, this requirement shall not operate to preclude the use of another form of splice or connection which can be shown to be as efficient and which is not otherwise prohibited.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for eye splices in the ends of wires and for endless rope slings, each wire rope used in hoisting or lowering, or in pulling loads, shall consist of one continuous piece without knot or splice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Eyes in wire rope bridles, slings, or bull wires shall not be formed by wire rope clips or knots.
</P>
<P>(iv) Wire rope shall not be used if, in any length of eight diameters, the total number of visible broken wires exceeds 10 percent of the total number of wires, or if the rope shows other signs of excessive wear, corrosion, or defect.
</P>
<P>(5) When U-bolt wire rope clips are used to form eyes, Table H-2 shall be used to determine the number and spacing of clips.
</P>
<P>(i) When used for eye splices, the U-bolt shall be applied so that the “U” section is in contact with the dead end of the rope.
</P>
<P>(i1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) Slings shall not be shortened with knots or bolts or other makeshift devices.
</P>
<P>(7) Sling legs shall not be kinked.
</P>
<P>(8) Slings used in a basket hitch shall have the loads balanced to prevent slippage.
</P>
<P>(9) Slings shall be padded or protected from the sharp edges of their loads.
</P>
<P>(10) Hands or fingers shall not be placed between the sling and its load while the sling is being tightened around the load.
</P>
<P>(11) Shock loading is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(12) A sling shall not be pulled from under a load when the load is resting on the sling.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Minimum sling lengths.</I> (i) Cable laid and 6 × 19 and 6 × 37 slings shall have a minimum clear length of wire rope 10 times the component rope diameter between splices, sleeves or end fittings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Braided slings shall have a minimum clear length of wire rope 40 times the component rope diameter between the loops or end fittings.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cable laid grommets, strand laid grommets and endless slings shall have a minimum circumferential length of 96 times their body diameter.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Safe operating temperatures.</I> Fiber core wire rope slings of all grades shall be permanently removed from service if they are exposed to temperatures in excess of 200 °F (93.33 °C). When nonfiber core wire rope slings of any grade are used at temperatures above 400 °F (204.44 °C) or below minus 60 °F (15.55 °C), recommendations of the sling manufacturer regarding use at that temperature shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>End attachments.</I> (i) Welding of end attachments, except covers to thimbles, shall be performed prior to the assembly of the sling.
</P>
<P>(ii) All welded end attachments shall not be used unless proof tested by the manufacturer or equivalent entity at twice their rated capacity prior to initial use. The employer shall retain a certificate of the proof test, and make it available for examination.
</P>
<P>(16) Wire rope slings shall have permanently affixed, legible identification markings stating size, rated capacity for the type(s) of hitch(es) used and the angle upon which it is based, and the number of legs if more than one.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Natural rope, and synthetic fiber.</I> (1) Employers must not use natural- and synthetic-fiber rope slings with loads in excess of the rated capacities (i.e., working load limits) indicated on the sling by permanently affixed and legible identification markings prescribed by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) All splices in rope slings provided by the employer shall be made in accordance with fiber rope manufacturers recommendations.
</P>
<P>(i) In manila rope, eye splices shall contain at least three full tucks, and short splices shall contain at least six full tucks (three on each side of the centerline of the splice).
</P>
<P>(ii) In layed synthetic fiber rope, eye splices shall contain at least four full tucks, and short splices shall contain at least eight full tucks (four on each side of the centerline of the splice).
</P>
<P>(iii) Strand end tails shall not be trimmed short (flush with the surface of the rope) immediately adjacent to the full tucks. This precaution applies to both eye and short splices and all types of fiber rope. For fiber ropes under 1-inch diameter, the tails shall project at least six rope diameters beyond the last full tuck. For fiber ropes 1-inch diameter and larger, the tails shall project at least 6 inches beyond the last full tuck. In applications where the projecting tails may be objectionable, the tails shall be tapered and spliced into the body of the rope using at least two additional tucks (which will require a tail length of approximately six rope diameters beyond the last full tuck).
</P>
<P>(iv) For all eye splices, the eye shall be sufficiently large to provide an included angle of not greater than 60° at the splice when the eye is placed over the load or support.
</P>
<P>(v) Knots shall not be used in lieu of splices.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe operating temperatures.</I> Natural and synthetic fiber rope slings, except for wet frozen slings, may be used in a temperature range from minus 20 °F (−28.88 °C) to plus 180 °F (82.2 °C) without decreasing the working load limit. For operations outside this temperature range and for wet frozen slings, the sling manufacturer's recommendations shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Splicing.</I> Spliced fiber rope slings shall not be used unless they have been spliced in accordance with the following minimum requirements and in accordance with any additional recommendations of the manufacturer:
</P>
<P>(i) In manila rope, eye splices shall consist of at least three full tucks, and short splices shall consist of at least six full tucks, three on each side of the splice center line.
</P>
<P>(ii) In synthetic fiber rope, eye splices shall consist of at least four full tucks, and short splices shall consist of at least eight full tucks, four on each side of the center line.
</P>
<P>(iii) Strand end tails shall not be trimmed flush with the surface of the rope immediately adjacent to the full tucks. This applies to all types of fiber rope and both eye and short splices. For fiber rope under 1 inch (2.54 cm) in diameter, the tail shall project at least six rope diameters beyond the last full tuck. For fiber rope 1 inch (2.54 cm) in diameter and larger, the tail shall project at least 6 inches (15.24 cm) beyond the last full tuck. Where a projecting tail interferes with the use of the sling, the tail shall be tapered and spliced into the body of the rope using at least two additional tucks (which will require a tail length of approximately six rope diameters beyond the last full tuck).
</P>
<P>(iv) Fiber rope slings shall have a minimum clear length of rope between eye splices equal to 10 times the rope diameter.
</P>
<P>(v) Knots shall not be used in lieu of splices.
</P>
<P>(vi) Clamps not designed specifically for fiber ropes shall not be used for splicing.
</P>
<P>(vii) For all eye splices, the eye shall be of such size to provide an included angle of not greater than 60 degrees at the splice when the eye is placed over the load or support.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>End attachments.</I> Fiber rope slings shall not be used if end attachments in contact with the rope have sharp edges or projections.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Removal from service.</I> Natural and synthetic fiber rope slings shall be immediately removed from service if any of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(i) Abnormal wear.
</P>
<P>(ii) Powdered fiber between strands.
</P>
<P>(iii) Broken or cut fibers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Variations in the size or roundness of strands.
</P>
<P>(v) Discoloration or rotting.
</P>
<P>(vi) Distortion of hardware in the sling.
</P>
<P>(7) Employers must use natural- and synthetic-fiber rope slings that have permanently affixed and legible identification markings that state the rated capacity for the type(s) of hitch(es) used and the angle upon which it is based, type of fiber material, and the number of legs if more than one.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Synthetic webbing</I> (<I>nylon, polyester, and polypropylene</I>). (1) The employer shall have each synthetic web sling marked or coded to show:
</P>
<P>(i) Name or trademark of manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rated capacities for the type of hitch.
</P>
<P>(iii) Type of material.
</P>
<P>(2) Rated capacity shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Webbing.</I> Synthetic webbing shall be of uniform thickness and width and selvage edges shall not be split from the webbing's width.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fittings.</I> Fittings shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Of a minimum breaking strength equal to that of the sling; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Free of all sharp edges that could in any way damage the webbing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Attachment of end fittings to webbing and formation of eyes.</I> Stitching shall be the only method used to attach end fittings to webbing and to form eyes. The thread shall be in an even pattern and contain a sufficient number of stitches to develop the full breaking strength of the sling.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Environmental conditions.</I> When synthetic web slings are used, the following precautions shall be taken:
</P>
<P>(i) Nylon web slings shall not be used where fumes, vapors, sprays, mists or liquids of acids or phenolics are present.
</P>
<P>(ii) Polyester and polypropylene web slings shall not be used where fumes, vapors, sprays, mists or liquids of caustics are present.
</P>
<P>(iii) Web slings with aluminum fittings shall not be used where fumes, vapors, sprays, mists or liquids of caustics are present.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Safe operating temperatures.</I> Synthetic web slings of polyester and nylon shall not be used at temperatures in excess of 180 °F (82.2 °C). Polypropylene web slings shall not be used at temperatures in excess of 200 °F (93.33 °C).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Removal from service.</I> Synthetic web slings shall be immediately removed from service if any of the following conditions are present:
</P>
<P>(i) Acid or caustic burns;
</P>
<P>(ii) Melting or charring of any part of the sling surface;
</P>
<P>(iii) Snags, punctures, tears or cuts;
</P>
<P>(iv) Broken or worn stitches; or
</P>
<P>(v) Distortion of fittings.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Shackles and hooks.</I> (1) Employers must not use shackles with loads in excess of the rated capacities (i.e., working load limits) indicated on the shackle by permanently affixed and legible identification markings prescribed by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's recommendations shall be followed in determining the safe working loads of the various sizes and types of specific and identifiable hooks. All hooks for which no applicable manufacturer's recommendations are available shall be tested to twice the intended safe working load before they are initially put into use. The employer shall maintain a record of the dates and results of such tests.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-1—Maximum Allowable Wear at any Point of Link
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Chain size (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum allowable wear (inch)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/64</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>7/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>9/32</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>5/16</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>11/32</fr></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-2—Number and Spacing of U-Bolt Wire Rope Clips
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Improved plow steel, rope diameter (inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Number of clips
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Minimum spacing (inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drop forged
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other material
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>5/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>3/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<fr>7/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
<fr>3/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/4</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
<fr>1/4</fr>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35173, June 30, 1993; 76 FR 33611, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 23118, Apr. 18, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.252" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.8.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.252   Disposal of waste materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever materials are dropped more than 20 feet to any point lying outside the exterior walls of the building, an enclosed chute of wood, or equivalent material, shall be used. For the purpose of this paragraph, an enclosed chute is a slide, closed in on all sides, through which material is moved from a high place to a lower one.
</P>
<P>(b) When debris is dropped through holes in the floor without the use of chutes, the area onto which the material is dropped shall be completely enclosed with barricades not less than 42 inches high and not less than 6 feet back from the projected edge of the opening above. Signs warning of the hazard of falling materials shall be posted at each level. Removal shall not be permitted in this lower area until debris handling ceases above.
</P>
<P>(c) All scrap lumber, waste material, and rubbish shall be removed from the immediate work area as the work progresses.
</P>
<P>(d) Disposal of waste material or debris by burning shall comply with local fire regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) All solvent waste, oily rags, and flammable liquids shall be kept in fire resistant covered containers until removed from worksite.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Tools—Hand and Power</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), or 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911. Section 1926.307 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.300" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.300   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Condition of tools.</I> All hand and power tools and similar equipment, whether furnished by the employer or the employee, shall be maintained in a safe condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guarding.</I> (1) When power operated tools are designed to accommodate guards, they shall be equipped with such guards when in use.
</P>
<P>(2) Belts, gears, shafts, pulleys, sprockets, spindles, drums, fly wheels, chains, or other reciprocating, rotating or moving parts of equipment shall be guarded if such parts are exposed to contact by employees or otherwise create a hazard. Guarding shall meet the requirements as set forth in American National Standards Institute, B15.1-1953 (R1958), Safety Code for Mechanical Power-Transmission Apparatus.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of guarding.</I> One or more methods of machine guarding shall be provided to protect the operator and other employees in the machine area from hazards such as those created by point of operation, ingoing nip points, rotating parts, flying chips and sparks. Examples of guarding methods are—barrier guards, two-hand tripping devices, electronic safety devices, etc.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Point of operation guarding.</I> (i) Point of operation is the area on a machine where work is actually performed upon the material being processed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The point of operation of machines whose operation exposes an employee to injury, shall be guarded. The guarding device shall be in conformity with any appropriate standards therefor, or, in the absence of applicable specific standards, shall be so designed and constructed as to prevent the operator from having any part of his body in the danger zone during the operating cycle.
</P>
<P>(iii) Special handtools for placing and removing material shall be such as to permit easy handling of material without the operator placing a hand in the danger zone. Such tools shall not be in lieu of other guarding required by this section, but can only be used to supplement protection provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) The following are some of the machines which usually require point of operation guarding:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Guillotine cutters.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Shears.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Alligator shears.
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Power presses.
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Milling machines.
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) Power saws.
</P>
<P>(<I>g</I>) Jointers.
</P>
<P>(<I>h</I>) Portable power tools.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Forming rolls and calenders.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposure of blades.</I> When the periphery of the blades of a fan is less than 7 feet (2.128 m) above the floor or working level, the blades shall be guarded. The guard shall have openings no larger than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (1.27 cm).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Anchoring fixed machinery.</I> Machines designed for a fixed location shall be securely anchored to prevent walking or moving.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Guarding of abrasive wheel machinery—exposure adjustment.</I> Safety guards of the types described in paragraphs (b) (8) and (9) of this section, where the operator stands in front of the opening, shall be constructed so that the peripheral protecting member can be adjusted to the constantly decreasing diameter of the wheel. The maximum angular exposure above the horizontal plane of the wheel spindle as specified in paragraphs (b) (8) and (9) of this section shall never be exceeded, and the distance between the wheel periphery and the adjustable tongue or the end of the peripheral member at the top shall never exceed 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch (0.635 cm). (See Figures I-1 through I-6.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr96.000.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>   Figure I-1      Figure I-2
</P>
<P>  <I>Correct</I>
</P>
<FP-2>Showing adjustable tongue giving required angle protection for all sizes of wheel used.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr96.001.gif"/>
<P>   Figure I-3      Figure I-4
</P>
<FP-2>  <I>Correct</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Showing movable guard with opening small enough to give required protection for the smallest size wheel used.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr96.002.gif"/>
<P>   Figure I-5      Figure I-6
</P>
<P>  <I>Incorrect</I>
</P>
<FP-2>Showing movable guard with size of opening correct for full size wheel but too large for smaller wheel.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(8) <I>Bench and floor stands.</I> The angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides for safety guards used on machines known as bench and floor stands should not exceed 90° or one-fourth of the periphery. This exposure shall begin at a point not more than 65° above the horizontal plane of the wheel spindle. (See Figures I-7 and I-8 and paragraph (b)(7) of this section.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr96.003.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>   Figure I-7      Figure I-8
</P>
<FP-2>Wherever the nature of the work requires contact with the wheel below the horizontal plane of the spindle, the exposure shall not exceed 125° (See Figures I-9 and I-10.)
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr96.004.gif"/>
<P>  Figure I-9      Figure I-10</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(9) <I>Cylindrical grinders.</I> The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides for safety guards used on cylindrical grinding machines shall not exceed 180°. This exposure shall begin at a point not more than 65° above the horizontal plane of the wheel spindle. (See Figures I-11 and I-12 and paragraph (b)(7) of this section.)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr96.005.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>  Figure I-11      Figure I-12</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> Employees using hand and power tools and exposed to the hazard of falling, flying, abrasive, and splashing objects, or exposed to harmful dusts, fumes, mists, vapors, or gases shall be provided with the particular personal protective equipment necessary to protect them from the hazard. All personal protective equipment shall meet the requirements and be maintained according to subparts D and E of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Switches.</I> (1) All hand-held powered platen sanders, grinders with wheels 2-inch diameter or less, routers, planers, laminate trimmers, nibblers, shears, scroll saws, and jigsaws with blade shanks one-fourth of an inch wide or less may be equipped with only a positive “on-off” control.
</P>
<P>(2) All hand-held powered drills, tappers, fastener drivers, horizontal, vertical, and angle grinders with wheels greater than 2 inches in diameter, disc sanders, belt sanders, reciprocating saws, saber saws, and other similar operating powered tools shall be equipped with a momentary contact “on-off” control and may have a lock-on control provided that turnoff can be accomplished by a single motion of the same finger or fingers that turn it on.
</P>
<P>(3) All other hand-held powered tools, such as circular saws, chain saws, and percussion tools without positive accessory holding means, shall be equipped with a constant pressure switch that will shut off the power when the pressure is released.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of this paragraph shall become effective on July 15, 1972.
</P>
<P>(5) Exception: This paragraph does not apply to concrete vibrators, concrete breakers, powered tampers, jack hammers, rock drills, and similar hand operated power tools.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35175, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9250, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.301" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.301   Hand tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers shall not issue or permit the use of unsafe hand tools.
</P>
<P>(b) Wrenches, including adjustable, pipe, end, and socket wrenches shall not be used when jaws are sprung to the point that slippage occurs.
</P>
<P>(c) Impact tools, such as drift pins, wedges, and chisels, shall be kept free of mushroomed heads.
</P>
<P>(d) The wooden handles of tools shall be kept free of splinters or cracks and shall be kept tight in the tool.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.302" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.302   Power-operated hand tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electric power-operated tools.</I> (1) Electric power operated tools shall either be of the approved double-insulated type or grounded in accordance with subpart K of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of electric cords for hoisting or lowering tools shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pneumatic power tools.</I> (1) Pneumatic power tools shall be secured to the hose or whip by some positive means to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.
</P>
<P>(2) Safety clips or retainers shall be securely installed and maintained on pneumatic impact (percussion) tools to prevent attachments from being accidentally expelled.
</P>
<P>(3) All pneumatically driven nailers, staplers, and other similar equipment provided with automatic fastener feed, which operate at more than 100 p.s.i. pressure at the tool shall have a safety device on the muzzle to prevent the tool from ejecting fasteners, unless the muzzle is in contact with the work surface.
</P>
<P>(4) Compressed air shall not be used for cleaning purposes except where reduced to less than 30 p.s.i. and then only with effective chip guarding and personal protective equipment which meets the requirements of subpart E of this part. The 30 p.s.i. requirement does not apply for concrete form, mill scale and similar cleaning purposes.
</P>
<P>(5) The manufacturer's safe operating pressure for hoses, pipes, valves, filters, and other fittings shall not be exceeded,
</P>
<P>(6) The use of hoses for hoisting or lowering tools shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(7) All hoses exceeding 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch inside diameter shall have a safety device at the source of supply or branch line to reduce pressure in case of hose failure.
</P>
<P>(8) Airless spray guns of the type which atomize paints and fluids at high pressures (1,000 pounds or more per square inch) shall be equipped with automatic or visible manual safety devices which will prevent pulling of the trigger to prevent release of the paint or fluid until the safety device is manually released.
</P>
<P>(9) In lieu of the above, a diffuser nut which will prevent high pressure, high velocity release, while the nozzle tip is removed, plus a nozzle tip guard which will prevent the tip from coming into contact with the operator, or other equivalent protection, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Abrasive blast cleaning nozzles.</I> The blast cleaning nozzles shall be equipped with an operating valve which must be held open manually. A support shall be provided on which the nozzle may be mounted when it is not in use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fuel powered tools.</I> (1) All fuel powered tools shall be stopped while being refueled, serviced, or maintained, and fuel shall be transported, handled, and stored in accordance with subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) When fuel powered tools are used in enclosed spaces, the applicable requirements for concentrations of toxic gases and use of personal protective equipment, as outlined in subparts D and E of this part, shall apply.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hydraulic power tools.</I> (1) The fluid used in hydraulic powered tools shall be fire-resistant fluids approved under Schedule 30 of the U.S. Bureau of Mines, Department of the Interior, and shall retain its operating characteristics at the most extreme temperatures to which it will be exposed.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's safe operating pressures for hoses, valves, pipes, filters, and other fittings shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Powder-actuated tools.</I> (1) Only employees who have been trained in the operation of the particular tool in use shall be allowed to operate a powder-actuated tool.
</P>
<P>(2) The tool shall be tested each day before loading to see that safety devices are in proper working condition. The method of testing shall be in accordance with the manufacturer's recommended procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) Any tool found not in proper working order, or that develops a defect during use, shall be immediately removed from service and not used until properly repaired.
</P>
<P>(4) Personal protective equipment shall be in accordance with subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Tools shall not be loaded until just prior to the intended firing time. Neither loaded nor empty tools are to be pointed at any employees. Hands shall be kept clear of the open barrel end.
</P>
<P>(6) Loaded tools shall not be left unattended.
</P>
<P>(7) Fasteners shall not be driven into very hard or brittle materials including, but not limited to, cast iron, glazed tile, surface-hardened steel, glass block, live rock, face brick, or hollow tile.
</P>
<P>(8) Driving into materials easily penetrated shall be avoided unless such materials are backed by a substance that will prevent the pin or fastener from passing completely through and creating a flying missile hazard on the other side.
</P>
<P>(9) No fastener shall be driven into a spalled area caused by an unsatisfactory fastening.
</P>
<P>(10) Tools shall not be used in an explosive or flammable atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(11) All tools shall be used with the correct shield, guard, or attachment recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(12) Powder-actuated tools used by employees shall meet all other applicable requirements of American National Standards Institute, A10.3-1970, Safety Requirements for Explosive-Actuated Fastening Tools.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35175, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.303" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.303   Abrasive wheels and tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Power.</I> All grinding machines shall be supplied with sufficient power to maintain the spindle speed at safe levels under all conditions of normal operation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guarding.</I> (1) Grinding machines shall be equipped with safety guards in conformance with the requirements of American National Standards Institute, B7.1-1970, Safety Code for the Use, Care and Protection of Abrasive Wheels, and paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guard design.</I> The safety guard shall cover the spindle end, nut, and flange projections. The safety guard shall be mounted so as to maintain proper alignment with the wheel, and the strength of the fastenings shall exceed the strength of the guard, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety guards on all operations where the work provides a suitable measure of protection to the operator, may be so constructed that the spindle end, nut, and outer flange are exposed; and where the nature of the work is such as to entirely cover the side of the wheel, the side covers of the guard may be omitted; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The spindle end, nut, and outer flange may be exposed on machines designed as portable saws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of abrasive wheels.</I> (1) Floor stand and bench mounted abrasive wheels, used for external grinding, shall be provided with safety guards (protection hoods). The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides shall be not more than 90°, except that when work requires contact with the wheel below the horizontal plane of the spindle, the angular exposure shall not exceed 125°. In either case, the exposure shall begin not more than 65° above the horizontal plane of the spindle. Safety guards shall be strong enough to withstand the effect of a bursting wheel.
</P>
<P>(2) Floor and bench-mounted grinders shall be provided with work rests which are rigidly supported and readily adjustable. Such work rests shall be kept at a distance not to exceed one-eighth inch from the surface of the wheel.
</P>
<P>(3) Cup type wheels used for external grinding shall be protected by either a revolving cup guard or a band type guard in accordance with the provisions of the American National Standards Institute, B7.1-1970 Safety Code for the Use, Care, and Protection of Abrasive Wheels. All other portable abrasive wheels used for external grinding, shall be provided with safety guards (protection hoods) meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(5) of this section, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When the work location makes it impossible, a wheel equipped with safety flanges, as described in paragraph (c)(6) of this section, shall be used;
</P>
<P>(ii) When wheels 2 inches or less in diameter which are securely mounted on the end of a steel mandrel are used.
</P>
<P>(4) Portable abrasive wheels used for internal grinding shall be provided with safety flanges (protection flanges) meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(6) of this section, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When wheels 2 inches or less in diameter which are securely mounted on the end of a steel mandrel are used;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the wheel is entirely within the work being ground while in use.
</P>
<P>(5) When safety guards are required, they shall be so mounted as to maintain proper alignment with the wheel, and the guard and its fastenings shall be of sufficient strength to retain fragments of the wheel in case of accidental breakage. The maximum angular exposure of the grinding wheel periphery and sides shall not exceed 180°.
</P>
<P>(6) When safety flanges are required, they shall be used only with wheels designed to fit the flanges. Only safety flanges, of a type and design and properly assembled so as to ensure that the pieces of the wheel will be retained in case of accidental breakage, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(7) All abrasive wheels shall be closely inspected and ring-tested before mounting to ensure that they are free from cracks or defects.
</P>
<P>(8) Grinding wheels shall fit freely on the spindle and shall not be forced on. The spindle nut shall be tightened only enough to hold the wheel in place.
</P>
<P>(9) All employees using abrasive wheels shall be protected by eye protection equipment in accordance with the requirements of subpart E of this part, except when adequate eye protection is afforded by eye shields which are permanently attached to the bench or floor stand.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other requirements.</I> All abrasive wheels and tools used by employees shall meet other applicable requirements of American National Standards Institute, B7.1-1970, Safety Code for the Use, Care and Protection of Abrasive Wheels.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Work rests.</I> On offhand grinding machines, work rests shall be used to support the work. They shall be of rigid construction and designed to be adjustable to compensate for wheel wear. Work rests shall be kept adjusted closely to the wheel with a maximum opening of 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch (0.3175 cm) to prevent the work from being jammed between the wheel and the rest, which may cause wheel breakage. The work rest shall be securely clamped after each adjustment. The adjustment shall not be made with the wheel in motion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35175, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.304" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.304   Woodworking tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disconnect switches.</I> All fixed power driven woodworking tools shall be provided with a disconnect switch that can either be locked or tagged in the off position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Speeds.</I> The operating speed shall be etched or otherwise permanently marked on all circular saws over 20 inches in diameter or operating at over 10,000 peripheral feet per minute. Any saw so marked shall not be operated at a speed other than that marked on the blade. When a marked saw is retensioned for a different speed, the marking shall be corrected to show the new speed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-feed.</I> Automatic feeding devices shall be installed on machines whenever the nature of the work will permit. Feeder attachments shall have the feed rolls or other moving parts covered or guarded so as to protect the operator from hazardous points.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Guarding.</I> All portable, power-driven circular saws shall be equipped with guards above and below the base plate or shoe. The upper guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc required to permit the base to be tilted for bevel cuts. The lower guard shall cover the saw to the depth of the teeth, except for the minimum arc required to allow proper retraction and contact with the work. When the tool is withdrawn from the work, the lower guard shall automatically and instantly return to the covering position.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> All personal protective equipment provided for use shall conform to subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other requirements.</I> All woodworking tools and machinery shall meet other applicable requirements of American National Standards Institute, 01.1-1961, Safety Code for Woodworking Machinery.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Radial saws.</I> (1) The upper hood shall completely enclose the upper portion of the blade down to a point that will include the end of the saw arbor. The upper hood shall be constructed in such a manner and of such material that it will protect the operator from flying splinters, broken saw teeth, etc., and will deflect sawdust away from the operator. The sides of the lower exposed portion of the blade shall be guarded to the full diameter of the blade by a device that will automatically adjust itself to the thickness of the stock and remain in contact with stock being cut to give maximum protection possible for the operation being performed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hand-fed crosscut table saws.</I> (1) Each circular crosscut table saw shall be guarded by a hood which shall meet all the requirements of paragraph (i)(1) of this section for hoods for circular ripsaws.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hand-fed ripsaws.</I> (1) Each circular hand-fed ripsaw shall be guarded by a hood which shall completely enclose that portion of the saw above the table and that portion of the saw above the material being cut. The hood and mounting shall be arranged so that the hood will automatically adjust itself to the thickness of and remain in contact with the material being cut but it shall not offer any considerable resistance to insertion of material to saw or to passage of the material being sawed. The hood shall be made of adequate strength to resist blows and strains incidental to reasonable operation, adjusting, and handling, and shall be so designed as to protect the operator from flying splinters and broken saw teeth. It shall be made of material that is soft enough so that it will be unlikely to cause tooth breakage. The hood shall be so mounted as to insure that its operation will be positive, reliable, and in true alignment with the saw; and the mounting shall be adequate in strength to resist any reasonable side thrust or other force tending to throw it out of line.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35175, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9251, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.305" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.305   Jacks—lever and ratchet, screw, and hydraulic.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The manufacturer's rated capacity shall be legibly marked on all jacks and shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(2) All jacks shall have a positive stop to prevent overtravel.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Blocking.</I> When it is necessary to provide a firm foundation, the base of the jack shall be blocked or cribbed. Where there is a possibility of slippage of the metal cap of the jack, a wood block shall be placed between the cap and the load.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Operation and maintenance.</I> (i) After the load has been raised, it shall be cribbed, blocked, or otherwise secured at once.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hydraulic jacks exposed to freezing temperatures shall be supplied with an adequate antifreeze liquid.
</P>
<P>(iii) All jacks shall be properly lubricated at regular intervals.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each jack shall be thoroughly inspected at times which depend upon the service conditions. Inspections shall be not less frequent than the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) For constant or intermittent use at one locality, once every 6 months,
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) For jacks sent out of shop for special work, when sent out and when returned,
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) For a jack subjected to abnormal load or shock, immediately before and immediately thereafter.
</P>
<P>(v) Repair or replacement parts shall be examined for possible defects.
</P>
<P>(vi) Jacks which are out of order shall be tagged accordingly, and shall not be used until repairs are made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 42328, Oct. 18, 1990; 58 FR 35176, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.306" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.306   Air receivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to compressed air receivers, and other equipment used in providing and utilizing compressed air for performing operations such as cleaning, drilling, hoisting, and chipping. On the other hand, however, this section does not deal with the special problems created by using compressed air to convey materials nor the problems created when men work in compressed air as in tunnels and caissons. This section is not intended to apply to compressed air machinery and equipment used on transportation vehicles such as steam railroad cars, electric railway cars, and automotive equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New and existing equipment.</I> (i) All new air receivers installed after the effective date of these regulations shall be constructed in accordance with the 1968 edition of the A.S.M.E. Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code Section VIII.
</P>
<P>(ii) All safety valves used shall be constructed, installed, and maintained in accordance with the A.S.M.E. Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII Edition 1968.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Installation and equipment requirements</I>—(1) <I>Installation.</I> Air receivers shall be so installed that all drains, handholes, and manholes therein are easily accessible. Under no circumstances shall an air receiver be buried underground or located in an inaccessible place.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Drains and traps.</I> A drain pipe and valve shall be installed at the lowest point of every air receiver to provide for the removal of accumulated oil and water. Adequate automatic traps may be installed in addition to drain valves. The drain valve on the air receiver shall be opened and the receiver completely drained frequently and at such intervals as to prevent the accumulation of excessive amounts of liquid in the receiver.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Gages and valves.</I> (i) Every air receiver shall be equipped with an indicating pressure gage (so located as to be readily visible) and with one or more spring-loaded safety valves. The total relieving capacity of such safety valves shall be such as to prevent pressure in the receiver from exceeding the maximum allowable working pressure of the receiver by more than 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) No valve of any type shall be placed between the air receiver and its safety valve or valves.
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety appliances, such as safety valves, indicating devices and controlling devices, shall be constructed, located, and installed so that they cannot be readily rendered inoperative by any means, including the elements.
</P>
<P>(iv) All safety valves shall be tested frequently and at regular intervals to determine whether they are in good operating condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35176, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.307" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.9.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.307   Mechanical power-transmission apparatus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) This section covers all types and shapes of power-transmission belts, except the following when operating at two hundred and fifty (250) feet per minute or less: (i) Flat belts 1 inch (2.54 cm) or less in width, (ii) flat belts 2 inches (5.08 cm) or less in width which are free from metal lacings or fasteners, (iii) round belts 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (1.27 cm) or less in diameter; and (iv) single strand V-belts, the width of which is thirteen thirty-seconds (
<FR>13/32</FR>) inch or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Vertical and inclined belts (paragraphs (e) (3) and (4) of this section) if not more than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (6.35 cm) wide and running at a speed of less than one thousand (1,000) feet per minute, and if free from metal lacings or fastenings may be guarded with a nip-point belt and pulley guard.
</P>
<P>(3) For the Textile Industry, because of the presence of excessive deposits of lint, which constitute a serious fire hazard, the sides and face sections only of nip-point belt and pulley guards are required, provided the guard shall extend at least 6 inches (15.24 cm) beyond the rim of the pulley on the in-running and off-running sides of the belt and at least 2 inches (5.08 cm) away from the rim and face of the pulley in all other directions.
</P>
<P>(4) This section covers the principal features with which power transmission safeguards shall comply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prime-mover guards</I>—(1) <I>Flywheels.</I> Flywheels located so that any part is 7 feet (2.128 m) or less above floor or platform shall be guarded in accordance with the requirements of this subparagraph:
</P>
<P>(i) With an enclosure of sheet, perforated, or expanded metal, or woven wire;
</P>
<P>(ii) With guard rails placed not less than 15 inches (38.1 cm) nor more than 20 inches (50.8 cm) from rim. When flywheel extends into pit or is within 12 inches (30.48 cm) of floor, a standard toeboard shall also be provided;
</P>
<P>(iii) When the upper rim of flywheel protrudes through a working floor, it shall be entirely enclosed or surrounded by a guardrail and toeboard.
</P>
<P>(iv) For flywheels with smooth rims 5 feet (1.52 m) or less in diameter, where the preceding methods cannot be applied, the following may be used: A disk attached to the flywheel in such manner as to cover the spokes of the wheel on the exposed side and present a smooth surface and edge, at the same time providing means for periodic inspection. An open space, not exceeding 4 inches (10.16 cm) in width, may be left between the outside edge of the disk and the rim of the wheel if desired, to facilitate turning the wheel over. Where a disk is used, the keys or other dangerous projections not covered by disk shall be cut off or covered. This subdivision does not apply to flywheels with solid web centers.
</P>
<P>(v) Adjustable guard to be used for starting engine or for running adjustment may be provided at the flywheel of gas or oil engines. A slot opening for jack bar will be permitted.
</P>
<P>(vi) Wherever flywheels are above working areas, guards shall be installed having sufficient strength to hold the weight of the flywheel in the event of a shaft or wheel mounting failure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cranks and connecting rods.</I> Cranks and connecting rods, when exposed to contact, shall be guarded in accordance with paragraphs (m) and (n) of this section, or by a guardrail as described in paragraph (o)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tail rods or extension piston rods.</I> Tail rods or extension piston rods shall be guarded in accordance with paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section, or by a guardrail on sides and end, with a clearance of not less than 15 (38.1 cm) nor more than 20 inches (50.8 cm) when rod is fully extended.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Shafting</I>—(1) <I>Installation.</I> (i) Each continuous line of shafting shall be secured in position against excessive endwise movement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Inclined and vertical shafts, particularly inclined idler shafts, shall be securely held in position against endwise thrust.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guarding horizontal shafting.</I> (i) All exposed parts of horizontal shafting 7 feet (2.128 m) or less from floor or working platform, excepting runways used exclusively for oiling, or running adjustments, shall be protected by a stationary casing enclosing shafting completely or by a trough enclosing sides and top or sides and bottom of shafting as location requires.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shafting under bench machines shall be enclosed by a stationary casing, or by a trough at sides and top or sides and bottom, as location requires. The sides of the trough shall come within at least 6 inches (15.24 cm) of the underside of table, or if shafting is located near floor within 6 inches (15.24 cm) of floor. In every case the sides of trough shall extend at least 2 inches (5.08 cm) beyond the shafting or protuberance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Guarding vertical and inclined shafting.</I> Vertical and inclined shafting 7 feet (2.128 m) or less from floor or working platform, excepting maintenance runways, shall be enclosed with a stationary casing in accordance with requirements of paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Projecting shaft ends.</I> (i) Projecting shaft ends shall present a smooth edge and end and shall not project more than one-half the diameter of the shaft unless guarded by nonrotating caps or safety sleeves.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unused keyways shall be filled up or covered.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Power-transmission apparatus located in basements.</I> All mechanical power transmission apparatus located in basements, towers, and rooms used exclusively for power transmission equipment shall be guarded in accordance with this section, except that the requirements for safeguarding belts, pulleys, and shafting need not be complied with when the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The basement, tower, or room occupied by transmission equipment is locked against unauthorized entrance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The vertical clearance in passageways between the floor and power transmission beams, ceiling, or any other objects, is not less than 5 ft. 6 in. (1.672 m).
</P>
<P>(iii) The intensity of illumination conforms to the requirements of ANSI A11.1-1965 (R-1970).
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) The route followed by the oiler is protected in such manner as to prevent accident.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pulleys</I>—(1) <I>Guarding.</I> Pulleys, any parts of which are 7 feet (2.128 m) or less from the floor or working platform, shall be guarded in accordance with the standards specified in paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section. Pulleys serving as balance wheels (<I>e.g.,</I> punch presses) on which the point of contact between belt and pulley is more than 6 ft. 6 in. (1.976 m) from the floor or platform may be guarded with a disk covering the spokes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location of pulleys.</I> (i) Unless the distance to the nearest fixed pulley, clutch, or hanger exceeds the width of the belt used, a guide shall be provided to prevent the belt from leaving the pulley on the side where insufficient clearance exists.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Broken pulleys.</I> Pulleys with cracks, or pieces broken out of rims, shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pulley speeds.</I> Pulleys intended to operate at rim speed in excess of manufacturers normal recommendations shall be specially designed and carefully balanced for the speed at which they are to operate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Belt, rope, and chain drives</I>—(1) <I>Horizontal belts and ropes.</I> (i) Where both runs of horizontal belts are 7 feet (2.128 m) or less from the floor level, the guard shall extend to at least 15 inches (38.1 cm) above the belt or to a standard height except that where both runs of a horizontal belt are 42 inches (106.68 cm) or less from the floor, the belt shall be fully enclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) In powerplants or power-development rooms, a guardrail may be used in lieu of the guard required by paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Overhead horizontal belts.</I> (i) Overhead horizontal belts, with lower parts 7 feet (2.128 m) or less from the floor or platform, shall be guarded on sides and bottom in accordance with paragraph (o)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Horizontal overhead belts more than 7 feet (2.128 m) above floor or platform shall be guarded for their entire length under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) If located over passageways or work places and traveling 1,800 feet or more per minute.
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) If center to center distance between pulleys is 10 feet (3.04 m) or more.
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) If belt is 8 inches (20.32 cm) or more in width.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the upper and lower runs of horizontal belts are so located that passage of persons between them would be possible, the passage shall be either:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Completely barred by a guardrail or other barrier in accordance with paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Where passage is regarded as necessary, there shall be a platform over the lower run guarded on either side by a railing completely filled in with wire mesh or other filler, or by a solid barrier. The upper run shall be so guarded as to prevent contact therewith either by the worker or by objects carried by him. In powerplants only the lower run of the belt need be guarded.
</P>
<P>(iv) Overhead chain and link belt drives are governed by the same rules as overhead horizontal belts and shall be guarded in the same manner as belts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vertical and inclined belts.</I> (i) Vertical and inclined belts shall be enclosed by a guard conforming to standards in paragraphs (m) and (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) All guards for inclined belts shall be arranged in such a manner that a minimum clearance of 7 feet (2.128 m) is maintained between belt and floor at any point outside of guard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Vertical belts.</I> Vertical belts running over a lower pulley more than 7 feet (2.128 m) above floor or platform shall be guarded at the bottom in the same manner as horizontal overhead belts, if conditions are as stated in paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) (<I>a</I>) and (<I>c</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cone-pulley belts.</I> (i) The cone belt and pulley shall be equipped with a belt shifter so constructed as to adequately guard the nip point of the belt and pulley. If the frame of the belt shifter does not adequately guard the nip point of the belt and pulley, the nip point shall be further protected by means of a vertical guard placed in front of the pulley and extending at least to the top of the largest step of the cone.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the belt is of the endless type or laced with rawhide laces, and a belt shifter is not desired, the belt will be considered guarded if the nip point of the belt and pulley is protected by a nip point guard located in front of the cone extending at least to the top of the largest step of the cone, and formed to show the contour of the cone in order to give the nip point of the belt and pulley the maximum protection.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the cone is located less than 3 feet (0.912 m) from the floor or working platform, the cone pulley and belt shall be guarded to a height of 3 feet (0.912 m) regardless of whether the belt is endless or laced with rawhide.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Belt tighteners.</I> (i) Suspended counterbalanced tighteners and all parts thereof shall be of substantial construction and securely fastened; the bearings shall be securely capped. Means must be provided to prevent tightener from falling, in case the belt breaks.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where suspended counterweights are used and not guarded by location, they shall be so encased as to prevent accident.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Gears, sprockets, and chains</I>—(1) <I>Gears.</I> Gears shall be guarded in accordance with one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By a complete enclosure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By a standard guard as described in paragraph (o) of this section, at least 7 feet (2.128 m) high extending 6 inches (15.24 cm) above the mesh point of the gears; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By a band guard covering the face of gear and having flanges extended inward beyond the root of the teeth on the exposed side or sides. Where any portion of the train of gears guarded by a band guard is less than 6 feet (1.824 m) from the floor a disk guard or a complete enclosure to the height of 6 feet (1.824 m) shall be required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hand-operated gears.</I> Paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to hand-operated gears used only to adjust machine parts and which do not continue to move after hand power is removed. However, the guarding of these gears is highly recommended.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sprockets and chains.</I> All sprocket wheels and chains shall be enclosed unless they are more than 7 feet (2.128 m) above the floor or platform. Where the drive extends over other machine or working areas, protection against falling shall be provided. This subparagraph does not apply to manually operated sprockets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Openings for oiling.</I> When frequent oiling must be done, openings with hinged or sliding self-closing covers shall be provided. All points not readily accessible shall have oil feed tubes if lubricant is to be added while machinery is in motion.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Guarding friction drives.</I> The driving point of all friction drives when exposed to contact shall be guarded, all arm or spoke friction drives and all web friction drives with holes in the web shall be entirely enclosed, and all projecting belts on friction drives where exposed to contact shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Keys, setscrews, and other projections.</I> (1) All projecting keys, setscrews, and other projections in revolving parts shall be removed or made flush or guarded by metal cover. This subparagraph does not apply to keys or setscrews within gear or sprocket casings or other enclosures, nor to keys, setscrews, or oilcups in hubs of pulleys less than 20 inches (50.8 cm) in diameter where they are within the plane of the rim of the pulley.
</P>
<P>(2) It is recommended, however, that no projecting setscrews or oilcups be used in any revolving pulley or part of machinery.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Collars and couplings</I>—(1) <I>Collars.</I> All revolving collars, including split collars, shall be cylindrical, and screws or bolts used in collars shall not project beyond the largest periphery of the collar.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Couplings.</I> Shaft couplings shall be so constructed as to present no hazard from bolts, nuts, setscrews, or revolving surfaces. Bolts, nuts, and setscrews will, however, be permitted where they are covered with safety sleeves or where they are used parallel with the shafting and are countersunk or else do not extend beyond the flange of the coupling.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Bearings and facilities for oiling.</I> All drip cups and pans shall be securely fastened.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Guarding of clutches, cutoff couplings, and clutch pulleys</I>—(1) <I>Guards.</I> Clutches, cutoff couplings, or clutch pulleys having projecting parts, where such clutches are located 7 feet (2.128 m) or less above the floor or working platform, shall be enclosed by a stationary guard constructed in accordance with this section. A “U” type guard is permissible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engine rooms.</I> In engine rooms a guardrail, preferably with toeboard, may be used instead of the guard required by paragraph (k)(1) of this section, provided such a room is occupied only by engine room attendants.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Belt shifters, clutches, shippers, poles, perches, and fasteners</I>—(1) <I>Belt shifters.</I> (i) Tight and loose pulleys on all new installations made on or after August 31, 1971, shall be equipped with a permanent belt shifter provided with mechanical means to prevent belt from creeping from loose to tight pulley. It is recommended that old installations be changed to conform to this rule.
</P>
<P>(ii) Belt shifter and clutch handles shall be rounded and be located as far as possible from danger of accidental contact, but within easy reach of the operator. Where belt shifters are not directly located over a machine or bench, the handles shall be cut off 6 ft. 6 in. (1.976 m) above floor level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Belt shippers and shipper poles.</I> The use of belt poles as substitutes for mechanical shifters is not recommended.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Belt perches.</I> Where loose pulleys or idlers are not practicable, belt perches in form of brackets, rollers, etc., shall be used to keep idle belts away from the shafts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Belt fasteners.</I> Belts which of necessity must be shifted by hand and belts within 7 feet (2.128 m) of the floor or working platform which are not guarded in accordance with this section shall not be fastened with metal in any case, nor with any other fastening which by construction or wear will constitute an accident hazard.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Standard guards—general requirements</I>—(1) <I>Materials.</I> (i) Standard conditions shall be secured by the use of the following materials. Expanded metal, perforated or solid sheet metal, wire mesh on a frame of angle iron, or iron pipe securely fastened to floor or to frame of machine.
</P>
<P>(ii) All metal should be free from burrs and sharp edges.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Methods of manufacture.</I> (i) Expanded metal, sheet or perforated metal, and wire mesh shall be securely fastened to frame.
</P>
<P>(n) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Approved materials</I>—(1) <I>Minimum requirements.</I> The materials and dimensions specified in this paragraph shall apply to all guards, except horizontal overhead belts, rope, cable, or chain guards more than 7 feet (2.128 m) above floor, or platform.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) All guards shall be rigidly braced every 3 feet (0.912 m) or fractional part of their height to some fixed part of machinery or building structure. Where guard is exposed to contact with moving equipment additional strength may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wood guards.</I> (i) Wood guards may be used in the woodworking and chemical industries, in industries where the presence of fumes or where manufacturing conditions would cause the rapid deterioration of metal guards; also in construction work and in locations outdoors where extreme cold or extreme heat make metal guards and railings undesirable. In all other industries, wood guards shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Guards for horizontal overhead belts.</I> (i) Guards for horizontal overhead belts shall run the entire length of the belt and follow the line of the pulley to the ceiling or be carried to the nearest wall, thus enclosing the belt effectively. Where belts are so located as to make it impracticable to carry the guard to wall or ceiling, construction of guard shall be such as to enclose completely the top and bottom runs of belt and the face of pulleys.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Suitable reinforcement shall be provided for the ceiling rafters or overhead floor beams, where such is necessary, to sustain safely the weight and stress likely to be imposed by the guard. The interior surface of all guards, by which is meant the surface of the guard with which a belt will come in contact, shall be smooth and free from all projections of any character, except where construction demands it; protruding shallow roundhead rivets may be used. Overhead belt guards shall be at least one-quarter wider than belt which they protect, except that this clearance need not in any case exceed 6 inches (15.24 cm) on each side. Overhead rope drive and block and roller-chain-drive guards shall be not less than 6 inches (15.24 cm) wider than the drive on each side. In overhead silent chain-drive guards where the chain is held from lateral displacement on the sprockets, the side clearances required on drives of 20 inch (50.8 cm) centers or under shall be not less than 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch (0.635 cm) from the nearest moving chain part, and on drives of over 20 inch (50.8 cm) centers a minimum of 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (1.27 cm) from the nearest moving chain part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Guards for horizontal overhead rope and chain drives.</I> Overhead-rope and chain-drive guard construction shall conform to the rules for overhead-belt guard.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Guardrails and toeboards.</I> (i) Guardrail shall be 42 inches (106.68 cm) in height, with midrail between top rail and floor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Posts shall be not more than 8 feet (2.432 m) apart; they are to be permanent and substantial, smooth, and free from protruding nails, bolts, and splinters. If made of pipe, the post shall be 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inches (3.175 cm) inside diameter, or larger. If made of metal shapes or bars, their section shall be equal in strength to that of 1
<FR>1/2</FR> (3.81 cm) by 1
<FR>1/2</FR> (3.81 cm) by 
<FR>3/16</FR> inch angle iron. If made of wood, the posts shall be two by four (2 × 4) inches or larger. The upper rail shall be two by four (2 × 4) inches, or two one by four (1 × 4) strips, one at the top and one at the side of posts. The midrail may be one by four (1 × 4) inches or more. Where panels are fitted with expanded metal or wire mesh the middle rails may be omitted. Where guard is exposed to contact with moving equipment, additional strength may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(iii) Toeboards shall be 4 inches (10.16 cm) or more in height, of wood, metal, or of metal grill not exceeding 1 inch (2.54 cm) mesh.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Care of equipment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> All power-transmission equipment shall be inspected at intervals not exceeding 60 days and be kept in good working condition at all times.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shafting.</I> (i) Shafting shall be kept in alignment, free from rust and excess oil or grease.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where explosives, explosive dusts, flammable vapors or flammable liquids exist, the hazard of static sparks from shafting shall be carefully considered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bearings.</I> Bearings shall be kept in alignment and properly adjusted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hangers.</I> Hangers shall be inspected to make certain that all supporting bolts and screws are tight and that supports of hanger boxes are adjusted properly.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pulleys.</I> (i) Pulleys shall be kept in proper alignment to prevent belts from running off.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Care of belts.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection shall be made of belts, lacings, and fasteners and such equipment kept in good repair.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Lubrication.</I> The regular oilers shall wear tight-fitting clothing. Machinery shall be oiled when not in motion, wherever possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35176, June 30, 1993, as amended at 69 FR 31882, June 8, 2004]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Welding and Cutting</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 107, Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (Construction Safety Act) (40 U.S.C. 333); secs. 4, 6, 8, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), or 9-83 (48 FR 35736), as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.350" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.10.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.350   Gas welding and cutting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transporting, moving, and storing compressed gas cylinders.</I> (1) Valve protection caps shall be in place and secured.
</P>
<P>(2) When cylinders are hoisted, they shall be secured on a cradle, slingboard, or pallet. They shall not be hoisted or transported by means of magnets or choker slings.
</P>
<P>(3) Cylinders shall be moved by tilting and rolling them on their bottom edges. They shall not be intentionally dropped, struck, or permitted to strike each other violently.
</P>
<P>(4) When cylinders are transported by powered vehicles, they shall be secured in a vertical position.
</P>
<P>(5) Valve protection caps shall not be used for lifting cylinders from one vertical position to another. Bars shall not be used under valves or valve protection caps to pry cylinders loose when frozen. Warm, not boiling, water shall be used to thaw cylinders loose.
</P>
<P>(6) Unless cylinders are firmly secured on a special carrier intended for this purpose, regulators shall be removed and valve protection caps put in place before cylinders are moved.
</P>
<P>(7) A suitable cylinder truck, chain, or other steadying device shall be used to keep cylinders from being knocked over while in use.
</P>
<P>(8) When work is finished, when cylinders are empty, or when cylinders are moved at any time, the cylinder valve shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(9) Compressed gas cylinders shall be secured in an upright position at all times except, if necessary, for short periods of time while cylinders are actually being hoisted or carried.
</P>
<P>(10) Oxygen cylinders in storage shall be separated from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials (especially oil or grease), a minimum distance of 20 feet (6.1 m) or by a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet (1.5 m) high having a fire-resistance rating of at least one-half hour.
</P>
<P>(11) Inside of buildings, cylinders shall be stored in a well-protected, well-ventilated, dry location, at least 20 feet (6.1 m) from highly combustible materials such as oil or excelsior. Cylinders should be stored in definitely assigned places away from elevators, stairs, or gangways. Assigned storage places shall be located where cylinders will not be knocked over or damaged by passing or falling objects, or subject to tampering by unauthorized persons. Cylinders shall not be kept in unventilated enclosures such as lockers and cupboards.
</P>
<P>(12) The in-plant handling, storage, and utilization of all compressed gases in cylinders, portable tanks, rail tankcars, or motor vehicle cargo tanks shall be in accordance with Compressed Gas Association Pamphlet P-1-1965.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Placing cylinders.</I> (1) Cylinders shall be kept far enough away from the actual welding or cutting operation so that sparks, hot slag, or flame will not reach them. When this is impractical, fire resistant shields shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Cylinders shall be placed where they cannot become part of an electrical circuit. Electrodes shall not be struck against a cylinder to strike an arc.
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel gas cylinders shall be placed with valve end up whenever they are in use. They shall not be placed in a location where they would be subject to open flame, hot metal, or other sources of artificial heat.
</P>
<P>(4) Cylinders containing oxygen or acetylene or other fuel gas shall not be taken into confined spaces.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of cylinders.</I> (1) Cylinders, whether full or empty, shall not be used as rollers or supports.
</P>
<P>(2) No person other than the gas supplier shall attempt to mix gases in a cylinder. No one except the owner of the cylinder or person authorized by him, shall refill a cylinder. No one shall use a cylinder's contents for purposes other than those intended by the supplier. All cylinders used shall meet the Department of Transportation requirements published in 49 CFR part 178, subpart C, Specification for Cylinders.
</P>
<P>(3) No damaged or defective cylinder shall be used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of fuel gas.</I> The employer shall thoroughly instruct employees in the safe use of fuel gas, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Before a regulator to a cylinder valve is connected, the valve shall be opened slightly and closed immediately. (This action is generally termed “cracking” and is intended to clear the valve of dust or dirt that might otherwise enter the regulator.) The person cracking the valve shall stand to one side of the outlet, not in front of it. The valve of a fuel gas cylinder shall not be cracked where the gas would reach welding work, sparks, flame, or other possible sources of ignition.
</P>
<P>(2) The cylinder valve shall always be opened slowly to prevent damage to the regulator. For quick closing, valves on fuel gas cylinders shall not be opened more than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> turns. When a special wrench is required, it shall be left in position on the stem of the valve while the cylinder is in use so that the fuel gas flow can be shut off quickly in case of an emergency. In the case of manifolded or coupled cylinders, at least one such wrench shall always be available for immediate use. Nothing shall be placed on top of a fuel gas cylinder, when in use, which may damage the safety device or interfere with the quick closing of the valve.
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel gas shall not be used from cylinders through torches or other devices which are equipped with shutoff valves without reducing the pressure through a suitable regulator attached to the cylinder valve or manifold.
</P>
<P>(4) Before a regulator is removed from a cylinder valve, the cylinder valve shall always be closed and the gas released from the regulator.
</P>
<P>(5) If, when the valve on a fuel gas cylinder is opened, there is found to be a leak around the valve stem, the valve shall be closed and the gland nut tightened. If this action does not stop the leak, the use of the cylinder shall be discontinued, and it shall be properly tagged and removed from the work area. In the event that fuel gas should leak from the cylinder valve, rather than from the valve stem, and the gas cannot be shut off, the cylinder shall be properly tagged and removed from the work area. If a regulator attached to a cylinder valve will effectively stop a leak through the valve seat, the cylinder need not be removed from the work area.
</P>
<P>(6) If a leak should develop at a fuse plug or other safety device, the cylinder shall be removed from the work area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fuel gas and oxygen manifolds.</I> (1) Fuel gas and oxygen manifolds shall bear the name of the substance they contain in letters at least 1-inch high which shall be either painted on the manifold or on a sign permanently attached to it.
</P>
<P>(2) Fuel gas and oxygen manifolds shall be placed in safe, well ventilated, and accessible locations. They shall not be located within enclosed spaces.
</P>
<P>(3) Manifold hose connections, including both ends of the supply hose that lead to the manifold, shall be such that the hose cannot be interchanged between fuel gas and oxygen manifolds and supply header connections. Adapters shall not be used to permit the interchange of hose. Hose connections shall be kept free of grease and oil.
</P>
<P>(4) When not in use, manifold and header hose connections shall be capped.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing shall be placed on top of a manifold, when in use, which will damage the manifold or interfere with the quick closing of the valves.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hose.</I> (1) Fuel gas hose and oxygen hose shall be easily distinguishable from each other. The contrast may be made by different colors or by surface characteristics readily distinguishable by the sense of touch. Oxygen and fuel gas hoses shall not be interchangeable. A single hose having more than one gas passage shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(2) When parallel sections of oxygen and fuel gas hose are taped together, not more than 4 inches out of 12 inches shall be covered by tape.
</P>
<P>(3) All hose in use, carrying acetylene, oxygen, natural or manufactured fuel gas, or any gas or substance which may ignite or enter into combustion, or be in any way harmful to employees, shall be inspected at the beginning of each working shift. Defective hose shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(4) Hose which has been subject to flashback, or which shows evidence of severe wear or damage, shall be tested to twice the normal pressure to which it is subject, but in no case less than 300 p.s.i. Defective hose, or hose in doubtful condition, shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(5) Hose couplings shall be of the type that cannot be unlocked or disconnected by means of a straight pull without rotary motion.
</P>
<P>(6) Boxes used for the storage of gas hose shall be ventilated.
</P>
<P>(7) Hoses, cables, and other equipment shall be kept clear of passageways, ladders and stairs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Torches.</I> (1) Clogged torch tip openings shall be cleaned with suitable cleaning wires, drills, or other devices designed for such purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) Torches in use shall be inspected at the beginning of each working shift for leaking shutoff valves, hose couplings, and tip connections. Defective torches shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(3) Torches shall be lighted by friction lighters or other approved devices, and not by matches or from hot work.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Regulators and gauges.</I> Oxygen and fuel gas pressure regulators, including their related gauges, shall be in proper working order while in use.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Oil and grease hazards.</I> Oxygen cylinders and fittings shall be kept away from oil or grease. Cylinders, cylinder caps and valves, couplings, regulators, hose, and apparatus shall be kept free from oil or greasy substances and shall not be handled with oily hands or gloves. Oxygen shall not be directed at oily surfaces, greasy clothes, or within a fuel oil or other storage tank or vessel.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Additional rules.</I> For additional details not covered in this subpart, applicable technical portions of American National Standards Institute, Z49.1-1967, Safety in Welding and Cutting, shall apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 42328, Oct. 18, 1990; 58 FR 35179, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.351" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.10.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.351   Arc welding and cutting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Manual electrode holders.</I> (1) Only manual electrode holders which are specifically designed for arc welding and cutting, and are of a capacity capable of safely handling the maximum rated current required by the electrodes, shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Any current-carrying parts passing through the portion of the holder which the arc welder or cutter grips in his hand, and the outer surfaces of the jaws of the holder, shall be fully insulated against the maximum voltage encountered to ground.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Welding cables and connectors.</I> (1) All arc welding and cutting cables shall be of the completely insulated, flexible type, capable of handling the maximum current requirements of the work in progress, taking into account the duty cycle under which the arc welder or cutter is working.
</P>
<P>(2) Only cable free from repair or splices for a minimum distance of 10 feet from the cable end to which the electrode holder is connected shall be used, except that cables with standard insulated connectors or with splices whose insulating quality is equal to that of the cable are permitted.
</P>
<P>(3) When it becomes necessary to connect or splice lengths of cable one to another, substantial insulated connectors of a capacity at least equivalent to that of the cable shall be used. If connections are effected by means of cable lugs, they shall be securely fastened together to give good electrical contact, and the exposed metal parts of the lugs shall be completely insulated.
</P>
<P>(4) Cables in need of repair shall not be used. When a cable, other than the cable lead referred to in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, becomes worn to the extent of exposing bare conductors, the portion thus exposed shall be protected by means of rubber and friction tape or other equivalent insulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ground returns and machine grounding.</I> (1) A ground return cable shall have a safe current carrying capacity equal to or exceeding the specified maximum output capacity of the arc welding or cutting unit which it services. When a single ground return cable services more than one unit, its safe current-carrying capacity shall equal or exceed the total specified maximum output capacities of all the units which it services.
</P>
<P>(2) Pipelines containing gases or flammable liquids, or conduits containing electrical circuits, shall not be used as a ground return. For welding on natural gas pipelines, the technical portions of regulations issued by the Department of Transportation, Office of Pipeline Safety, 49 CFR part 192, Minimum Federal Safety Standards for Gas Pipelines, shall apply.
</P>
<P>(3) When a structure or pipeline is employed as a ground return circuit, it shall be determined that the required electrical contact exists at all joints. The generation of an arc, sparks, or heat at any point shall cause rejection of the structures as a ground circuit.
</P>
<P>(4) When a structure or pipeline is continuously employed as a ground return circuit, all joints shall be bonded, and periodic inspections shall be conducted to ensure that no condition of electrolysis or fire hazard exists by virtue of such use.
</P>
<P>(5) The frames of all arc welding and cutting machines shall be grounded either through a third wire in the cable containing the circuit conductor or through a separate wire which is grounded at the source of the current. Grounding circuits, other than by means of the structure, shall be checked to ensure that the circuit between the ground and the grounded power conductor has resistance low enough to permit sufficient current to flow to cause the fuse or circuit breaker to interrupt the current.
</P>
<P>(6) All ground connections shall be inspected to ensure that they are mechanically strong and electrically adequate for the required current.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operating instructions.</I> Employers shall instruct employees in the safe means of arc welding and cutting as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) When electrode holders are to be left unattended, the electrodes shall be removed and the holders shall be so placed or protected that they cannot make electrical contact with employees or conducting objects.
</P>
<P>(2) Hot electrode holders shall not be dipped in water; to do so may expose the arc welder or cutter to electric shock.
</P>
<P>(3) When the arc welder or cutter has occasion to leave his work or to stop work for any appreciable length of time, or when the arc welding or cutting machine is to be moved, the power supply switch to the equipment shall be opened.
</P>
<P>(4) Any faulty or defective equipment shall be reported to the supervisor.
</P>
<P>(5) See § 1926.406(c) for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Shielding.</I> Whenever practicable, all arc welding and cutting operations shall be shielded by noncombustible or flameproof screens which will protect employees and other persons working in the vicinity from the direct rays of the arc.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.352" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.10.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.352   Fire prevention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When practical, objects to be welded, cut, or heated shall be moved to a designated safe location or, if the objects to be welded, cut, or heated cannot be readily moved, all movable fire hazards in the vicinity shall be taken to a safe place, or otherwise protected.
</P>
<P>(b) If the object to be welded, cut, or heated cannot be moved and if all the fire hazards cannot be removed, positive means shall be taken to confine the heat, sparks, and slag, and to protect the immovable fire hazards from them.
</P>
<P>(c) No welding, cutting, or heating shall be done where the application of flammable paints, or the presence of other flammable compounds, or heavy dust concentrations creates a hazard.
</P>
<P>(d) Suitable fire extinguishing equipment shall be immediately available in the work area and shall be maintained in a state of readiness for instant use.
</P>
<P>(e) When the welding, cutting, or heating operation is such that normal fire prevention precautions are not sufficient, additional personnel shall be assigned to guard against fire while the actual welding, cutting, or heating operation is being performed, and for a sufficient period of time after completion of the work to ensure that no possibility of fire exists. Such personnel shall be instructed as to the specific anticipated fire hazards and how the firefighting equipment provided is to be used.
</P>
<P>(f) When welding, cutting, or heating is performed on walls, floors, and ceilings, since direct penetration of sparks or heat transfer may introduce a fire hazard to an adjacent area, the same precautions shall be taken on the opposite side as are taken on the side on which the welding is being performed.
</P>
<P>(g) For the elimination of possible fire in enclosed spaces as a result of gas escaping through leaking or improperly closed torch valves, the gas supply to the torch shall be positively shut off at some point outside the enclosed space whenever the torch is not to be used or whenever the torch is left unattended for a substantial period of time, such as during the lunch period. Overnight and at the change of shifts, the torch and hose shall be removed from the confined space. Open end fuel gas and oxygen hoses shall be immediately removed from enclosed spaces when they are disconnected from the torch or other gas-consuming device.
</P>
<P>(h) Except when the contents are being removed or transferred, drums, pails, and other containers which contain or have contained flammable liquids shall be kept closed. Empty containers shall be removed to a safe area apart from hot work operations or open flames.
</P>
<P>(i) Drums containers, or hollow structures which have contained toxic or flammable substances shall, before welding, cutting, or heating is undertaken on them, either be filled with water or thoroughly cleaned of such substances and ventilated and tested. For welding, cutting and heating on steel pipelines containing natural gas, the pertinent portions of regulations issued by the Department of Transportation, Office of Pipeline Safety, 49 CFR part 192, Minimum Federal Safety Standards for Gas Pipelines, shall apply.
</P>
<P>(j) Before heat is applied to a drum, container, or hollow structure, a vent or opening shall be provided for the release of any built-up pressure during the application of heat.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.353" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.10.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.353   Ventilation and protection in welding, cutting, and heating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mechanical ventilation.</I> For purposes of this section, mechanical ventilation shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Mechanical ventilation shall consist of either general mechanical ventilation systems or local exhaust systems.
</P>
<P>(2) General mechanical ventilation shall be of sufficient capacity and so arranged as to produce the number of air changes necessary to maintain welding fumes and smoke within safe limits, as defined in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Local exhaust ventilation shall consist of freely movable hoods intended to be placed by the welder or burner as close as practicable to the work. This system shall be of sufficient capacity and so arranged as to remove fumes and smoke at the source and keep the concentration of them in the breathing zone within safe limits as defined in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Contaminated air exhausted from a working space shall be discharged into the open air or otherwise clear of the source of intake air.
</P>
<P>(5) All air replacing that withdrawn shall be clean and respirable.
</P>
<P>(6) Oxygen shall not be used for ventilation purposes, comfort cooling, blowing dust from clothing, or for cleaning the work area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Welding, cutting, and heating in confined spaces.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and paragraph (c)(2) of this section, either general mechanical or local exhaust ventilation meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section shall be provided whenever welding, cutting, or heating is performed in a confined space.
</P>
<P>(2) When sufficient ventilation cannot be obtained without blocking the means of access, employees in the confined space shall be protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart E of this part, and an employee on the outside of such a confined space shall be assigned to maintain communication with those working within it and to aid them in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lifelines.</I> Where a welder must enter a confined space through a manhole or other small opening, means shall be provided for quickly removing him in case of emergency. When safety belts and lifelines are used for this purpose they shall be so attached to the welder's body that his body cannot be jammed in a small exit opening. An attendant with a pre-planned rescue procedure shall be stationed outside to observe the welder at all times and be capable of putting rescue operations into effect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Welding, cutting, or heating of metals of toxic significance.</I> (1) Welding, cutting, or heating in any enclosed spaces involving the metals specified in this subparagraph shall be performed with either general mechanical or local exhaust ventilation meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Zinc-bearing base or filler metals or metals coated with zinc-bearing materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Lead base metals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cadmium-bearing filler materials;
</P>
<P>(iv) Chromium-bearing metals or metals coated with chromium-bearing materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Welding, cutting, or heating in any enclosed spaces involving the metals specified in this subparagraph shall be performed with local exhaust ventilation in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, or employees shall be protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart E of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) Metals containing lead, other than as an impurity, or metals coated with lead-bearing materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cadmium-bearing or cadmium-coated base metals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Metals coated with mercury-bearing metals;
</P>
<P>(iv) Beryllium-containing base or filler metals. Because of its high toxicity, work involving beryllium shall be done with both local exhaust ventilation and air line respirators.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees performing such operations in the open air shall be protected by filter-type respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart E of this part, except that employees performing such operations on beryllium-containing base or filler metals shall be protected by air line respirators in accordance with the requirements of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Other employees exposed to the same atmosphere as the welders or burners shall be protected in the same manner as the welder or burner.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inert-gas metal-arc welding.</I> (1) Since the inert-gas metal-arc welding process involves the production of ultra-violet radiation of intensities of 5 to 30 times that produced during shielded metal-arc welding, the decomposition of chlorinated solvents by ultraviolet rays, and the liberation of toxic fumes and gases, employees shall not be permitted to engage in, or be exposed to the process until the following special precautions have been taken:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of chlorinated solvents shall be kept at least 200 feet, unless shielded, from the exposed arc, and surfaces prepared with chlorinated solvents shall be thoroughly dry before welding is permitted on such surfaces.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees in the area not protected from the arc by screening shall be protected by filter lenses meeting the requirements of subpart E of this part. When two or more welders are exposed to each other's arc, filter lens goggles of a suitable type, meeting the requirements of subpart E of this part, shall be worn under welding helmets. Hand shields to protect the welder against flashes and radiant energy shall be used when either the helmet is lifted or the shield is removed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Welders and other employees who are exposed to radiation shall be suitably protected so that the skin is covered completely to prevent burns and other damage by ultraviolet rays. Welding helmets and hand shields shall be free of leaks and openings, and free of highly reflective surfaces.
</P>
<P>(iv) When inert-gas metal-arc welding is being performed on stainless steel, the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section shall be met to protect against dangerous concentrations of nitrogen dioxide.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>General welding, cutting, and heating.</I> (1) Welding, cutting, and heating, not involving conditions or materials described in paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, may normally be done without mechanical ventilation or respiratory protective equipment, but where, because of unusual physical or atmospheric conditions, an unsafe accumulation of contaminants exists, suitable mechanical ventilation or respiratory protective equipment shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Employees performing any type of welding, cutting, or heating shall be protected by suitable eye protective equipment in accordance with the requirements of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 42328, Oct. 18, 1990; 58 FR 35179, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.354" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.10.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.354   Welding, cutting, and heating in way of preservative coatings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before welding, cutting, or heating is commenced on any surface covered by a preservative coating whose flammability is not known, a test shall be made by a competent person to determine its flammability. Preservative coatings shall be considered to be highly flammable when scrapings burn with extreme rapidity.
</P>
<P>(b) Precautions shall be taken to prevent ignition of highly flammable hardened preservative coatings. When coatings are determined to be highly flammable, they shall be stripped from the area to be heated to prevent ignition.
</P>
<P>(c) Protection against toxic preservative coatings: (1) In enclosed spaces, all surfaces covered with toxic preservatives shall be stripped of all toxic coatings for a distance of at least 4 inches from the area of heat application, or the employees shall be protected by air line respirators, meeting the requirements of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) In the open air, employees shall be protected by a respirator, in accordance with requirements of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The preservative coatings shall be removed a sufficient distance from the area to be heated to ensure that the temperature of the unstripped metal will not be appreciably raised. Artificial cooling of the metal surrounding the heating area may be used to limit the size of the area required to be cleaned.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Electrical</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; 40 U.S.C. 333; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033) or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="13" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.13" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.400" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.400   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart addresses electrical safety requirements that are necessary for the practical safeguarding of employees involved in construction work and is divided into four major divisions and applicable definitions as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Installation safety requirements.</I> Installation safety requirements are contained in §§ 1926.402 through 1926.408. Included in this category are electric equipment and installations used to provide electric power and light on jobsites.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safety-related work practices.</I> Safety-related work practices are contained in §§ 1926.416 and 1926.417. In addition to covering the hazards arising from the use of electricity at jobsites, these regulations also cover the hazards arising from the accidental contact, direct or indirect, by employees with all energized lines, above or below ground, passing through or near the jobsite.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safety-related maintenance and environmental considerations.</I> Safety-related maintenance and environmental considerations are contained in §§ 1926.431 and 1926.432.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safety requirements for special equipment.</I> Safety requirements for special equipment are contained in § 1926.441.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> Definitions applicable to this subpart are contained in § 1926.449.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.401" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.401   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="14" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Installation Safety Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.402" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.402   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered.</I> Sections 1926.402 through 1926.408 contain installation safety requirements for electrical equipment and installations used to provide electric power and light at the jobsite. These sections apply to installations, both temporary and permanent, used on the jobsite; but these sections do not apply to existing permanent installations that were in place before the construction activity commenced.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If the electrical installation is made in accordance with the National Electrical Code ANSI/NFPA 70-1984, exclusive of Formal Interpretations and Tentative Interim Amendments, it will be deemed to be in compliance with §§ 1926.403 through 1926.408, except for §§ 1926.404(b)(1) and 1926.405(a)(2)(ii) (E), (F), (G), and (J).</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Not covered.</I> Sections 1926.402 through 1926.408 do not cover installations used for the generation, transmission, and distribution of electric energy, including related communication, metering, control, and transformation installations. (However, these regulations do cover portable and vehicle-mounted generators used to provide power for equipment used at the jobsite.) See subpart V of this part for the construction of power distribution and transmission lines.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.403" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.403   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval.</I> All electrical conductors and equipment shall be approved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examination, installation, and use of equipment</I>—(1) <I>Examination.</I> The employer shall ensure that electrical equipment is free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to employees. Safety of equipment shall be determined on the basis of the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(i) Suitability for installation and use in conformity with the provisions of this subpart. Suitability of equipment for an identified purpose may be evidenced by listing, labeling, or certification for that identified purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical strength and durability, including, for parts designed to enclose and protect other equipment, the adequacy of the protection thus provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) Electrical insulation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Heating effects under conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(v) Arcing effects.
</P>
<P>(vi) Classification by type, size, voltage, current capacity, specific use.
</P>
<P>(vii) Other factors which contribute to the practical safeguarding of employees using or likely to come in contact with the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation and use.</I> Listed, labeled, or certified equipment shall be installed and used in accordance with instructions included in the listing, labeling, or certification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interrupting rating.</I> Equipment intended to break current shall have an interrupting rating at system voltage sufficient for the current that must be interrupted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mounting and cooling of equipment</I>—(1) <I>Mounting.</I> Electric equipment shall be firmly secured to the surface on which it is mounted. Wooden plugs driven into holes in masonry, concrete, plaster, or similar materials shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cooling.</I> Electrical equipment which depends upon the natural circulation of air and convection principles for cooling of exposed surfaces shall be installed so that room air flow over such surfaces is not prevented by walls or by adjacent installed equipment. For equipment designed for floor mounting, clearance between top surfaces and adjacent surfaces shall be provided to dissipate rising warm air. Electrical equipment provided with ventilating openings shall be installed so that walls or other obstructions do not prevent the free circulation of air through the equipment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Splices.</I> Conductors shall be spliced or joined with splicing devices designed for the use or by brazing, welding, or soldering with a fusible metal or alloy. Soldered splices shall first be so spliced or joined as to be mechanically and electrically secure without solder and then soldered. All splices and joints and the free ends of conductors shall be covered with an insulation equivalent to that of the conductors or with an insulating device designed for the purpose.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Arcing parts.</I> Parts of electric equipment which in ordinary operation produce arcs, sparks, flames, or molten metal shall be enclosed or separated and isolated from all combustible material.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Marking.</I> Electrical equipment shall not be used unless the manufacturer's name, trademark, or other descriptive marking by which the organization responsible for the product may be identified is placed on the equipment and unless other markings are provided giving voltage, current, wattage, or other ratings as necessary. The marking shall be of sufficient durability to withstand the environment involved.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Identification of disconnecting means and circuits.</I> Each disconnecting means required by this subpart for motors and appliances shall be legibly marked to indicate its purpose, unless located and arranged so the purpose is evident. Each service, feeder, and branch circuit, at its disconnecting means or overcurrent device, shall be legibly marked to indicate its purpose, unless located and arranged so the purpose is evident. These markings shall be of sufficient durability to withstand the environment involved.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>600 Volts, nominal, or less.</I> This paragraph applies to equipment operating at 600 volts, nominal, or less.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Working space about electric equipment.</I> Sufficient access and working space shall be provided and maintained about all electric equipment to permit ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Working clearances.</I> Except as required or permitted elsewhere in this subpart, the dimension of the working space in the direction of access to live parts operating at 600 volts or less and likely to require examination, adjustment, servicing, or maintenance while alive shall not be less than indicated in Table K-1. In addition to the dimensions shown in Table K-1, workspace shall not be less than 30 inches (762 mm) wide in front of the electric equipment. Distances shall be measured from the live parts if they are exposed, or from the enclosure front or opening if the live parts are enclosed. Walls constructed of concrete, brick, or tile are considered to be grounded. Working space is not required in back of assemblies such as dead-front switchboards or motor control centers where there are no renewable or adjustable parts such as fuses or switches on the back and where all connections are accessible from locations other than the back.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table K-1—Working Clearances
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nominal voltage to ground
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Minimum clear distance for conditions 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(a)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(b)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(c)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Feet 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Feet 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Feet 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0-150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">151-600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Conditions (a), (b), and (c) are as follows: (a) Exposed live parts on one side and no live or grounded parts on the other side of the working space, or exposed live parts on both sides effectively guarded by insulating material. Insulated wire or insulated busbars operating at not over 300 volts are not considered live parts. (b) Exposed live parts on one side and grounded parts on the other side. (c) Exposed live parts on both sides of the workspace [not guarded as provided in Condition (a)] with the operator between.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Note: For International System of Units (SI): one foot = 0.3048m.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Clear spaces.</I> Working space required by this subpart shall not be used for storage. When normally enclosed live parts are exposed for inspection or servicing, the working space, if in a passageway or general open space, shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Access and entrance to working space.</I> At least one entrance shall be provided to give access to the working space about electric equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Front working space.</I> Where there are live parts normally exposed on the front of switchboards or motor control centers, the working space in front of such equipment shall not be less than 3 feet (914 mm).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Headroom.</I> The minimum headroom of working spaces about service equipment, switchboards, panelboards, or motor control centers shall be 6 feet 3 inches (1.91 m).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guarding of live parts.</I> (i) Except as required or permitted elsewhere in this subpart, live parts of electric equipment operating at 50 volts or more shall be guarded against accidental contact by cabinets or other forms of enclosures, or by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(A) By location in a room, vault, or similar enclosure that is accessible only to qualified persons.
</P>
<P>(B) By partitions or screens so arranged that only qualified persons will have access to the space within reach of the live parts. Any openings in such partitions or screens shall be so sized and located that persons are not likely to come into accidental contact with the live parts or to bring conducting objects into contact with them.
</P>
<P>(C) By location on a balcony, gallery, or platform so elevated and arranged as to exclude unqualified persons.
</P>
<P>(D) By elevation of 8 feet (2.44 m) or more above the floor or other working surface and so installed as to exclude unqualified persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) In locations where electric equipment would be exposed to physical damage, enclosures or guards shall be so arranged and of such strength as to prevent such damage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Entrances to rooms and other guarded locations containing exposed live parts shall be marked with conspicuous warning signs forbidding unqualified persons to enter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Over 600 volts, nominal</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Conductors and equipment used on circuits exceeding 600 volts, nominal, shall comply with all applicable provisions of paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section and with the following provisions which supplement or modify those requirements. The provisions of paragraphs (j)(2), (j)(3), and (j)(4) of this section do not apply to equipment on the supply side of the service conductors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enclosure for electrical installations.</I> Electrical installations in a vault, room, closet or in an area surrounded by a wall, screen, or fence, access to which is controlled by lock and key or other equivalent means, are considered to be accessible to qualified persons only. A wall, screen, or fence less than 8 feet (2.44 m) in height is not considered adequate to prevent access unless it has other features that provide a degree of isolation equivalent to an 8-foot (2.44-m) fence. The entrances to all buildings, rooms or enclosures containing exposed live parts or exposed conductors operating at over 600 volts, nominal, shall be kept locked or shall be under the observation of a qualified person at all times.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Installations accessible to qualified persons only.</I> Electrical installations having exposed live parts shall be accessible to qualified persons only and shall comply with the applicable provisions of paragraph (j)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Installations accessible to unqualified persons.</I> Electrical installations that are open to unqualified persons shall be made with metal-enclosed equipment or shall be enclosed in a vault or in an area, access to which is controlled by a lock. Metal-enclosed switchgear, unit substations, transformers, pull boxes, connection boxes, and other similar associated equipment shall be marked with appropriate caution signs. If equipment is exposed to physical damage from vehicular traffic, guards shall be provided to prevent such damage. Ventilating or similar openings in metal-enclosed equipment shall be designed so that foreign objects inserted through these openings will be deflected from energized parts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Workspace about equipment.</I> Sufficient space shall be provided and maintained about electric equipment to permit ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment. Where energized parts are exposed, the minimum clear workspace shall not be less than 6 feet 6 inches (1.98 m) high (measured vertically from the floor or platform), or less than 3 feet (914 mm) wide (measured parallel to the equipment). The depth shall be as required in Table K-2. The workspace shall be adequate to permit at least a 90-degree opening of doors or hinged panels.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Working space.</I> The minimum clear working space in front of electric equipment such as switchboards, control panels, switches, circuit breakers, motor controllers, relays, and similar equipment shall not be less than specified in Table K-2 unless otherwise specified in this subpart. Distances shall be measured from the live parts if they are exposed, or from the enclosure front or opening if the live parts are enclosed. However, working space is not required in back of equipment such as deadfront switchboards or control assemblies where there are no renewable or adjustable parts (such as fuses or switches) on the back and where all connections are accessible from locations other than the back. Where rear access is required to work on de-energized parts on the back of enclosed equipment, a minimum working space of 30 inches (762 mm) horizontally shall be provided.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table K-2—Minimum Depth of Clear Working Space in Front of Electric Equipment
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nominal voltage to ground
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Conditions 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(a)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(b)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(c)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Feet 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Feet 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Feet 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601 to 2,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,501 to 9,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9,001 to 25,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25,001 to 75 kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above 75kV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup>Conditions (a), (b), and (c) are as follows: (a) Exposed live parts on one side and no live or grounded parts on the other side of the working space, or exposed live parts on both sides effectively guarded by insulating materials. Insulated wire or insulated busbars operating at not over 300 volts are not considered live parts. (b) Exposed live parts on one side and grounded parts on the other side. Walls constructed of concrete, brick, or tile are considered to be grounded surfaces. (c) Exposed live parts on both sides of the workspace [not guarded as provided in Condition (a)] with the operator between.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="04">Note:</E> For SI units: one foot = 0.3048 m.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Lighting outlets and points of control.</I> The lighting outlets shall be so arranged that persons changing lamps or making repairs on the lighting system will not be endangered by live parts or other equipment. The points of control shall be so located that persons are not likely to come in contact with any live part or moving part of the equipment while turning on the lights.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Elevation of unguarded live parts.</I> Unguarded live parts above working space shall be maintained at elevations not less than specified in Table K-3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table K-3—Elevation of Unguarded Energized Parts Above Working Space
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal voltage between phases
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum elevation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">601-7,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 feet 6 inches. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,501-35,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 35kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 feet + 0.37 inches per kV above 35kV.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="04">Note:</E> For SI units: one inch = 25.4 mm; one foot = 0.3048 m.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Entrance and access to workspace.</I> At least one entrance not less than 24 inches (610 mm) wide and 6 feet 6 inches (1.98 m) high shall be provided to give access to the working space about electric equipment. On switchboard and control panels exceeding 48 inches (1.22 m) in width, there shall be one entrance at each end of such board where practicable. Where bare energized parts at any voltage or insulated energized parts above 600 volts are located adjacent to such entrance, they shall be guarded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.404" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.404   Wiring design and protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use and identification of grounded and grounding conductors</I>—(1) <I>Identification of conductors.</I> A conductor used as a grounded conductor shall be identifiable and distinguishable from all other conductors. A conductor used as an equipment grounding conductor shall be identifiable and distinguishable from all other conductors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Polarity of connections.</I> No grounded conductor shall be attached to any terminal or lead so as to reverse designated polarity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of grounding terminals and devices.</I> A grounding terminal or grounding-type device on a receptacle, cord connector, or attachment plug shall not be used for purposes other than grounding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Branch circuits</I>—(1) <I>Ground-fault protection</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The employer shall use either ground fault circuit interrupters as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section or an assured equipment grounding conductor program as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section to protect employees on construction sites. These requirements are in addition to any other requirements for equipment grounding conductors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ground-fault circuit interrupters.</I> All 120-volt, single-phase, 15- and 20-ampere receptacle outlets on construction sites, which are not a part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure and which are in use by employees, shall have approved ground-fault circuit interrupters for personnel protection. Receptacles on a two-wire, single-phase portable or vehicle-mounted generator rated not more than 5kW, where the circuit conductors of the generator are insulated from the generator frame and all other grounded surfaces, need not be protected with ground-fault circuit interrupters.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Assured equipment grounding conductor program.</I> The employer shall establish and implement an assured equipment grounding conductor program on construction sites covering all cord sets, receptacles which are not a part of the building or structure, and equipment connected by cord and plug which are available for use or used by employees. This program shall comply with the following minimum requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) A written description of the program, including the specific procedures adopted by the employer, shall be available at the jobsite for inspection and copying by the Assistant Secretary and any affected employee.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall designate one or more competent persons (as defined in § 1926.32(f)) to implement the program.
</P>
<P>(C) Each cord set, attachment cap, plug and receptacle of cord sets, and any equipment connected by cord and plug, except cord sets and receptacles which are fixed and not exposed to damage, shall be visually inspected before each day's use for external defects, such as deformed or missing pins or insulation damage, and for indications of possible internal damage. Equipment found damaged or defective shall not be used until repaired.
</P>
<P>(D) The following tests shall be performed on all cord sets, receptacles which are not a part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure, and cord- and plug-connected equipment required to be grounded:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All equipment grounding conductors shall be tested for continuity and shall be electrically continuous.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Each receptacle and attachment cap or plug shall be tested for correct attachment of the equipment grounding conductor. The equipment grounding conductor shall be connected to its proper terminal.
</P>
<P>(E) All required tests shall be performed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Before first use;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Before equipment is returned to service following any repairs;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Before equipment is used after any incident which can be reasonably suspected to have caused damage (for example, when a cord set is run over); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) At intervals not to exceed 3 months, except that cord sets and receptacles which are fixed and not exposed to damage shall be tested at intervals not exceeding 6 months.
</P>
<P>(F) The employer shall not make available or permit the use by employees of any equipment which has not met the requirements of this paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(G) Tests performed as required in this paragraph shall be recorded. This test record shall identify each receptacle, cord set, and cord- and plug-connected equipment that passed the test and shall indicate the last date it was tested or the interval for which it was tested. This record shall be kept by means of logs, color coding, or other effective means and shall be maintained until replaced by a more current record. The record shall be made available on the jobsite for inspection by the Assistant Secretary and any affected employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outlet devices.</I> Outlet devices shall have an ampere rating not less than the load to be served and shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Single receptacles.</I> A single receptacle installed on an individual branch circuit shall have an ampere rating of not less than that of the branch circuit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Two or more receptacles.</I> Where connected to a branch circuit supplying two or more receptacles or outlets, receptacle ratings shall conform to the values listed in Table K-4.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Receptacles used for the connection of motors.</I> The rating of an attachment plug or receptacle used for cord- and plug-connection of a motor to a branch circuit shall not exceed 15 amperes at 125 volts or 10 amperes at 250 volts if individual overload protection is omitted.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table K-4—Receptacle Ratings for Various Size Circuits
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Circuit rating amperes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Receptacle rating amperes
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not over 15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 or 20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 or 50.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Outside conductors and lamps</I>—(1) <I>600 volts, nominal, or less.</I> Paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (c)(1)(iv) of this section apply to branch circuit, feeder, and service conductors rated 600 volts, nominal, or less and run outdoors as open conductors.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conductors on poles.</I> Conductors supported on poles shall provide a horizontal climbing space not less than the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Power conductors below communication conductors—30 inches (762 mm) .
</P>
<P>(B) Power conductors alone or above communication conductors: 300 volts or less—24 inches (610 mm); more than 300 volts—30 inches (762 mm).
</P>
<P>(C) Communication conductors below power conductors: with power conductors 300 volts or less—24 inches (610 mm); more than 300 volts—30 inches (762 mm).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clearance from ground.</I> Open conductors shall conform to the following minimum clearances:
</P>
<P>(A) 10 feet (3.05 m)—above finished grade, sidewalks, or from any platform or projection from which they might be reached.
</P>
<P>(B) 12 feet (3.66 m)—over areas subject to vehicular traffic other than truck traffic.
</P>
<P>(C) 15 feet (4.57 m)—over areas other than those specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(D) of this section that are subject to truck traffic.
</P>
<P>(D) 18 feet (5.49 m)—over public streets, alleys, roads, and driveways.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Clearance from building openings.</I> Conductors shall have a clearance of at least 3 feet (914 mm) from windows, doors, fire escapes, or similar locations. Conductors run above the top level of a window are considered to be out of reach from that window and, therefore, do not have to be 3 feet (914 mm) away.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Clearance over roofs.</I> Conductors above roof space accessible to employees on foot shall have a clearance from the highest point of the roof surface of not less than 8 feet (2.44 m) vertical clearance for insulated conductors, not less than 10 feet (3.05 m) vertical or diagonal clearance for covered conductors, and not less than 15 feet (4.57 m) for bare conductors, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) Where the roof space is also accessible to vehicular traffic, the vertical clearance shall not be less than 18 feet (5.49 m), or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the roof space is not normally accessible to employees on foot, fully insulated conductors shall have a vertical or diagonal clearance of not less than 3 feet (914 mm), or
</P>
<P>(C) Where the voltage between conductors is 300 volts or less and the roof has a slope of not less than 4 inches (102 mm) in 12 inches (305 mm), the clearance from roofs shall be at least 3 feet (914 mm), or
</P>
<P>(D) Where the voltage between conductors is 300 volts or less and the conductors do not pass over more than 4 feet (1.22 m) of the overhang portion of the roof and they are terminated at a through-the-roof raceway or support, the clearance from roofs shall be at least 18 inches (457 mm).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Location of outdoor lamps.</I> Lamps for outdoor lighting shall be located below all live conductors, transformers, or other electric equipment, unless such equipment is controlled by a disconnecting means that can be locked in the open position or unless adequate clearances or other safeguards are provided for relamping operations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Services</I>—(1) <I>Disconnecting means</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Means shall be provided to disconnect all conductors in a building or other structure from the service-entrance conductors. The disconnecting means shall plainly indicate whether it is in the open or closed position and shall be installed at a readily accessible location nearest the point of entrance of the service-entrance conductors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Simultaneous opening of poles.</I> Each service disconnecting means shall simultaneously disconnect all ungrounded conductors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Services over 600 volts, nominal.</I> The following additional requirements apply to services over 600 volts, nominal.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Guarding.</I> Service-entrance conductors installed as open wires shall be guarded to make them accessible only to qualified persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Warning signs.</I> Signs warning of high voltage shall be posted where unauthorized employees might come in contact with live parts.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Overcurrent protection</I>—(1) <I>600 volts, nominal, or less.</I> The following requirements apply to overcurrent protection of circuits rated 600 volts, nominal, or less.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protection of conductors and equipment.</I> Conductors and equipment shall be protected from overcurrent in accordance with their ability to safely conduct current. Conductors shall have sufficient ampacity to carry the load.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Grounded conductors.</I> Except for motor-running overload protection, overcurrent devices shall not interrupt the continuity of the grounded conductor unless all conductors of the circuit are opened simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Disconnection of fuses and thermal cutouts.</I> Except for devices provided for current-limiting on the supply side of the service disconnecting means, all cartridge fuses which are accessible to other than qualified persons and all fuses and thermal cutouts on circuits over 150 volts to ground shall be provided with disconnecting means. This disconnecting means shall be installed so that the fuse or thermal cutout can be disconnected from its supply without disrupting service to equipment and circuits unrelated to those protected by the overcurrent device.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Location in or on premises.</I> Overcurrent devices shall be readily accessible. Overcurrent devices shall not be located where they could create an employee safety hazard by being exposed to physical damage or located in the vicinity of easily ignitible material.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Arcing or suddenly moving parts.</I> Fuses and circuit breakers shall be so located or shielded that employees will not be burned or otherwise injured by their operation.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Circuit breakers</I>. (A) Circuit breakers shall clearly indicate whether they are in the open (off) or closed (on) position.
</P>
<P>(B) Where circuit breaker handles on switchboards are operated vertically rather than horizontally or rotationally, the up position of the handle shall be the closed (on) position.
</P>
<P>(C) If used as switches in 120-volt, fluorescent lighting circuits, circuit breakers shall be marked “SWD.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Over 600 volts, nominal.</I> Feeders and branch circuits over 600 volts, nominal, shall have short-circuit protection.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Grounding.</I> Paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(11) of this section contain grounding requirements for systems, circuits, and equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Systems to be grounded.</I> The following systems which supply premises wiring shall be grounded:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Three-wire DC systems.</I> All 3-wire DC systems shall have their neutral conductor grounded.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Two-wire DC systems.</I> Two-wire DC systems operating at over 50 volts through 300 volts between conductors shall be grounded unless they are rectifier-derived from an AC system complying with paragraphs (f)(1)(iii), (f)(1)(iv), and (f)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>AC circuits, less than 50 volts.</I> AC circuits of less than 50 volts shall be grounded if they are installed as overhead conductors outside of buildings or if they are supplied by transformers and the transformer primary supply system is ungrounded or exceeds 150 volts to ground.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>AC systems, 50 volts to 1000 volts.</I> AC systems of 50 volts to 1000 volts shall be grounded under any of the following conditions, unless exempted by paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) If the system can be so grounded that the maximum voltage to ground on the ungrounded conductors does not exceed 150 volts;
</P>
<P>(B) If the system is nominally rated 480Y/277 volt, 3-phase, 4-wire in which the neutral is used as a circuit conductor;
</P>
<P>(C) If the system is nominally rated 240/120 volt, 3-phase, 4-wire in which the midpoint of one phase is used as a circuit conductor; or
</P>
<P>(D) If a service conductor is uninsulated.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Exceptions.</I> AC systems of 50 volts to 1000 volts are not required to be grounded if the system is separately derived and is supplied by a transformer that has a primary voltage rating less than 1000 volts, provided all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The system is used exclusively for control circuits,
</P>
<P>(B) The conditions of maintenance and supervision assure that only qualified persons will service the installation,
</P>
<P>(C) Continuity of control power is required, and
</P>
<P>(D) Ground detectors are installed on the control system.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Separately derived systems.</I> Where paragraph (f)(1) of this section requires grounding of wiring systems whose power is derived from generator, transformer, or converter windings and has no direct electrical connection, including a solidly connected grounded circuit conductor, to supply conductors originating in another system, paragraph (f)(5) of this section shall also apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portable and vehicle-mounted generators</I>—(i) <I>Portable generators.</I> Under the following conditions, the frame of a portable generator need not be grounded and may serve as the grounding electrode for a system supplied by the generator:
</P>
<P>(A) The generator supplies only equipment mounted on the generator and/or cord- and plug-connected equipment through receptacles mounted on the generator, and
</P>
<P>(B) The noncurrent-carrying metal parts of equipment and the equipment grounding conductor terminals of the receptacles are bonded to the generator frame.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Vehicle-mounted generators.</I> Under the following conditions the frame of a vehicle may serve as the grounding electrode for a system supplied by a generator located on the vehicle:
</P>
<P>(A) The frame of the generator is bonded to the vehicle frame, and
</P>
<P>(B) The generator supplies only equipment located on the vehicle and/or cord- and plug-connected equipment through receptacles mounted on the vehicle or on the generator, and
</P>
<P>(C) The noncurrent-carrying metal parts of equipment and the equipment grounding conductor terminals of the receptacles are bonded to the generator frame, and
</P>
<P>(D) The system complies with all other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Neutral conductor bonding.</I> A neutral conductor shall be bonded to the generator frame if the generator is a component of a separately derived system. No other conductor need be bonded to the generator frame.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conductors to be grounded.</I> For AC premises wiring systems the identified conductor shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grounding connections</I>—(i) <I>Grounded system.</I> For a grounded system, a grounding electrode conductor shall be used to connect both the equipment grounding conductor and the grounded circuit conductor to the grounding electrode. Both the equipment grounding conductor and the grounding electrode conductor shall be connected to the grounded circuit conductor on the supply side of the service disconnecting means, or on the supply side of the system disconnecting means or overcurrent devices if the system is separately derived.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ungrounded systems.</I> For an ungrounded service-supplied system, the equipment grounding conductor shall be connected to the grounding electrode conductor at the service equipment. For an ungrounded separately derived system, the equipment grounding conductor shall be connected to the grounding electrode conductor at, or ahead of, the system disconnecting means or overcurrent devices.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Grounding path.</I> The path to ground from circuits, equipment, and enclosures shall be permanent and continuous.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Supports, enclosures, and equipment to be grounded</I>—(i) <I>Supports and enclosures for conductors.</I> Metal cable trays, metal raceways, and metal enclosures for conductors shall be grounded, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) Metal enclosures such as sleeves that are used to protect cable assemblies from physical damage need not be grounded; and
</P>
<P>(B) Metal enclosures for conductors added to existing installations of open wire, knob-and-tube wiring, and nonmetallic-sheathed cable need not be grounded if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Runs are less than 25 feet (7.62 m);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Enclosures are free from probable contact with ground, grounded metal, metal laths, or other conductive materials; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Enclosures are guarded against employee contact.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Service equipment enclosures.</I> Metal enclosures for service equipment shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fixed equipment.</I> Exposed noncurrent-carrying metal parts of fixed equipment which may become energized shall be grounded under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) If within 8 feet (2.44 m) vertically or 5 feet (1.52 m) horizontally of ground or grounded metal objects and subject to employee contact.
</P>
<P>(B) If located in a wet or damp location and subject to employee contact.
</P>
<P>(C) If in electrical contact with metal.
</P>
<P>(D) If in a hazardous (classified) location.
</P>
<P>(E) If supplied by a metal-clad, metal-sheathed, or grounded metal raceway wiring method.
</P>
<P>(F) If equipment operates with any terminal at over 150 volts to ground; however, the following need not be grounded:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Enclosures for switches or circuit breakers used for other than service equipment and accessible to qualified persons only;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Metal frames of electrically heated appliances which are permanently and effectively insulated from ground; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The cases of distribution apparatus such as transformers and capacitors mounted on wooden poles at a height exceeding 8 feet (2.44 m) above ground or grade level.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Equipment connected by cord and plug.</I> Under any of the conditions described in paragraphs (f)(7)(iv)(A) through (f)(7)(iv)(C) of this section, exposed noncurrent-carrying metal parts of cord- and plug-connected equipment which may become energized shall be grounded:
</P>
<P>(A) If in a hazardous (classified) location (see § 1926.407).
</P>
<P>(B) If operated at over 150 volts to ground, except for guarded motors and metal frames of electrically heated appliances if the appliance frames are permanently and effectively insulated from ground.
</P>
<P>(C) If the equipment is one of the types listed in paragraphs (f)(7)(iv)(C)(<I>1</I>) through (f)(7)(iv)(C)(<I>5</I>) of this section. However, even though the equipment may be one of these types, it need not be grounded if it is exempted by paragraph (f)(7)(iv)(C)(<I>6</I>).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Hand held motor-operated tools;
</P>
<P>(2) Cord- and plug-connected equipment used in damp or wet locations or by employees standing on the ground or on metal floors or working inside of metal tanks or boilers;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Portable and mobile X-ray and associated equipment;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Tools likely to be used in wet and/or conductive locations; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Portable hand lamps.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Tools likely to be used in wet and/or conductive locations need not be grounded if supplied through an isolating transformer with an ungrounded secondary of not over 50 volts. Listed or labeled portable tools and appliances protected by a system of double insulation, or its equivalent, need not be grounded. If such a system is employed, the equipment shall be distinctively marked to indicate that the tool or appliance utilizes a system of double insulation.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Nonelectrical equipment.</I> The metal parts of the following nonelectrical equipment shall be grounded: Frames and tracks of electrically operated cranes; frames of nonelectrically driven elevator cars to which electric conductors are attached; hand-operated metal shifting ropes or cables of electric elevators, and metal partitions, grill work, and similar metal enclosures around equipment of over IkV between conductors.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Methods of grounding equipment</I>—(i) <I>With circuit conductors.</I> Noncurrent-carrying metal parts of fixed equipment, if required to be grounded by this subpart, shall be grounded by an equipment grounding conductor which is contained within the same raceway, cable, or cord, or runs with or encloses the circuit conductors. For DC circuits only, the equipment grounding conductor may be run separately from the circuit conductors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Grounding conductor.</I> A conductor used for grounding fixed or movable equipment shall have capacity to conduct safely any fault current which may be imposed on it.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Equipment considered effectively grounded.</I> Electric equipment is considered to be effectively grounded if it is secured to, and in electrical contact with, a metal rack or structure that is provided for its support and the metal rack or structure is grounded by the method specified for the noncurrent-carrying metal parts of fixed equipment in paragraph (f)(8)(i) of this section. Metal car frames supported by metal hoisting cables attached to or running over metal sheaves or drums of grounded elevator machines are also considered to be effectively grounded.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Bonding.</I> If bonding conductors are used to assure electrical continuity, they shall have the capacity to conduct any fault current which may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Made electrodes.</I> If made electrodes are used, they shall be free from nonconductive coatings, such as paint or enamel; and, if practicable, they shall be embedded below permanent moisture level. A single electrode consisting of a rod, pipe or plate which has a resistance to ground greater than 25 ohms shall be augmented by one additional electrode installed no closer than 6 feet (1.83 m) to the first electrode.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Grounding of systems and circuits of 1000 volts and over (high voltage)</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> If high voltage systems are grounded, they shall comply with all applicable provisions of paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(10) of this section as supplemented and modified by this paragraph (f)(11).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Grounding of systems supplying portable or mobile equipment.</I> Systems supplying portable or mobile high voltage equipment, other than substations installed on a temporary basis, shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Portable and mobile high voltage equipment shall be supplied from a system having its neutral grounded through an impedance. If a delta-connected high voltage system is used to supply the equipment, a system neutral shall be derived.
</P>
<P>(B) Exposed noncurrent-carrying metal parts of portable and mobile equipment shall be connected by an equipment grounding conductor to the point at which the system neutral impedance is grounded.
</P>
<P>(C) Ground-fault detection and relaying shall be provided to automatically de-energize any high voltage system component which has developed a ground fault. The continuity of the equipment grounding conductor shall be continuously monitored so as to de-energize automatically the high voltage feeder to the portable equipment upon loss of continuity of the equipment grounding conductor.
</P>
<P>(D) The grounding electrode to which the portable or mobile equipment system neutral impedance is connected shall be isolated from and separated in the ground by at least 20 feet (6.1 m) from any other system or equipment grounding electrode, and there shall be no direct connection between the grounding electrodes, such as buried pipe, fence or like objects.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Grounding of equipment.</I> All noncurrent-carrying metal parts of portable equipment and fixed equipment including their associated fences, housings, enclosures, and supporting structures shall be grounded. However, equipment which is guarded by location and isolated from ground need not be grounded. Additionally, pole-mounted distribution apparatus at a height exceeding 8 feet (2.44 m) above ground or grade level need not be grounded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986, as amended at 54 FR 24334, June 7, 1989; 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.405" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.405   Wiring methods, components, and equipment for general use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Wiring methods.</I> The provisions of this paragraph do not apply to conductors which form an integral part of equipment such as motors, controllers, motor control centers and like equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General requirements</I>—(i) <I>Electrical continuity of metal raceways and enclosures.</I> Metal raceways, cable armor, and other metal enclosures for conductors shall be metallically joined together into a continuous electric conductor and shall be so connected to all boxes, fittings, and cabinets as to provide effective electrical continuity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Wiring in ducts.</I> No wiring systems of any type shall be installed in ducts used to transport dust, loose stock or flammable vapors. No wiring system of any type shall be installed in any duct used for vapor removal or in any shaft containing only such ducts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temporary wiring</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> The provisions of paragraph (a)(2) of this section apply to temporary electrical power and lighting wiring methods which may be of a class less than would be required for a permanent installation. Except as specifically modified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, all other requirements of this subpart for permanent wiring shall apply to temporary wiring installations. Temporary wiring shall be removed immediately upon completion of construction or the purpose for which the wiring was installed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General requirements for temporary wiring.</I> (A) Feeders shall originate in a distribution center. The conductors shall be run as multiconductor cord or cable assemblies or within raceways; or, where not subject to physical damage, they may be run as open conductors on insulators not more than 10 feet (3.05 m) apart.
</P>
<P>(B) Branch circuits shall originate in a power outlet or panelboard. Conductors shall be run as multiconductor cord or cable assemblies or open conductors, or shall be run in raceways. All conductors shall be protected by overcurrent devices at their ampacity. Runs of open conductors shall be located where the conductors will not be subject to physical damage, and the conductors shall be fastened at intervals not exceeding 10 feet (3.05 m). No branch-circuit conductors shall be laid on the floor. Each branch circuit that supplies receptacles or fixed equipment shall contain a separate equipment grounding conductor if the branch circuit is run as open conductors.
</P>
<P>(C) Receptacles shall be of the grounding type. Unless installed in a complete metallic raceway, each branch circuit shall contain a separate equipment grounding conductor, and all receptacles shall be electrically connected to the grounding conductor. Receptacles for uses other than temporary lighting shall not be installed on branch circuits which supply temporary lighting. Receptacles shall not be connected to the same ungrounded conductor of multiwire circuits which supply temporary lighting.
</P>
<P>(D) Disconnecting switches or plug connectors shall be installed to permit the disconnection of all ungrounded conductors of each temporary circuit.
</P>
<P>(E) All lamps for general illumination shall be protected from accidental contact or breakage. Metal-case sockets shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(F) Temporary lights shall not be suspended by their electric cords unless cords and lights are designed for this means of suspension.
</P>
<P>(G) Portable electric lighting used in wet and/or other conductive locations, as for example, drums, tanks, and vessels, shall be operated at 12 volts or less. However, 120-volt lights may be used if protected by a ground-fault circuit interrupter.
</P>
<P>(H) A box shall be used wherever a change is made to a raceway system or a cable system which is metal clad or metal sheathed.
</P>
<P>(I) Flexible cords and cables shall be protected from damage. Sharp corners and projections shall be avoided. Flexible cords and cables may pass through doorways or other pinch points, if protection is provided to avoid damage.
</P>
<P>(J) Extension cord sets used with portable electric tools and appliances shall be of three-wire type and shall be designed for hard or extra-hard usage. Flexible cords used with temporary and portable lights shall be designed for hard or extra-hard usage.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The National Electrical Code, ANSI/NFPA 70, in Article 400, Table 400-4, lists various types of flexible cords, some of which are noted as being designed for hard or extra-hard usage. Examples of these types of flexible cords include hard service cord (types S, ST, SO, STO) and junior hard service cord (types SJ, SJO, SJT, SJTO).</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) <I>Guarding.</I> For temporary wiring over 600 volts, nominal, fencing, barriers, or other effective means shall be provided to prevent access of other than authorized and qualified personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cabinets, boxes, and fittings</I>—(1) <I>Conductors entering boxes, cabinets, or fittings.</I> Conductors entering boxes, cabinets, or fittings shall be protected from abrasion, and openings through which conductors enter shall be effectively closed. Unused openings in cabinets, boxes, and fittings shall also be effectively closed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covers and canopies.</I> All pull boxes, junction boxes, and fittings shall be provided with covers. If metal covers are used, they shall be grounded. In energized installations each outlet box shall have a cover, faceplate, or fixture canopy. Covers of outlet boxes having holes through which flexible cord pendants pass shall be provided with bushings designed for the purpose or shall have smooth, well-rounded surfaces on which the cords may bear.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pull and junction boxes for systems over 600 volts, nominal.</I> In addition to other requirements in this section for pull and junction boxes, the following shall apply to these boxes for systems over 600 volts, nominal:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Complete enclosure.</I> Boxes shall provide a complete enclosure for the contained conductors or cables.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covers.</I> Boxes shall be closed by covers securely fastened in place. Underground box covers that weigh over 100 pounds (43.6 kg) meet this requirement. Covers for boxes shall be permanently marked “HIGH VOLTAGE.” The marking shall be on the outside of the box cover and shall be readily visible and legible.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Knife switches.</I> Single-throw knife switches shall be so connected that the blades are dead when the switch is in the open position. Single-throw knife switches shall be so placed that gravity will not tend to close them. Single-throw knife switches approved for use in the inverted position shall be provided with a locking device that will ensure that the blades remain in the open position when so set. Double-throw knife switches may be mounted so that the throw will be either vertical or horizontal. However, if the throw is vertical, a locking device shall be provided to ensure that the blades remain in the open position when so set.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Switchboards and panelboards.</I> Switchboards that have any exposed live parts shall be located in permanently dry locations and accessible only to qualified persons. Panelboards shall be mounted in cabinets, cutout boxes, or enclosures designed for the purpose and shall be dead front. However, panelboards other than the dead front externally-operable type are permitted where accessible only to qualified persons. Exposed blades of knife switches shall be dead when open.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enclosures for damp or wet locations</I>—(1) <I>Cabinets, fittings, and boxes.</I> Cabinets, cutout boxes, fittings, boxes, and panelboard enclosures in damp or wet locations shall be installed so as to prevent moisture or water from entering and accumulating within the enclosures. In wet locations the enclosures shall be weatherproof.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Switches and circuit breakers.</I> Switches, circuit breakers, and switchboards installed in wet locations shall be enclosed in weatherproof enclosures.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conductors for general wiring.</I> All conductors used for general wiring shall be insulated unless otherwise permitted in this subpart. The conductor insulation shall be of a type that is suitable for the voltage, operating temperature, and location of use. Insulated conductors shall be distinguishable by appropriate color or other means as being grounded conductors, ungrounded conductors, or equipment grounding conductors.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Flexible cords and cables</I>—(1) <I>Use of flexible cords and cables</I>—(i) <I>Permitted uses.</I> Flexible cords and cables shall be suitable for conditions of use and location. Flexible cords and cables shall be used only for:
</P>
<P>(A) Pendants;
</P>
<P>(B) Wiring of fixtures;
</P>
<P>(C) Connection of portable lamps or appliances;
</P>
<P>(D) Elevator cables;
</P>
<P>(E) Wiring of cranes and hoists;
</P>
<P>(F) Connection of stationary equipment to facilitate their frequent interchange;
</P>
<P>(G) Prevention of the transmission of noise or vibration; or
</P>
<P>(H) Appliances where the fastening means and mechanical connections are designed to permit removal for maintenance and repair.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Attachment plugs for cords.</I> If used as permitted in paragraphs (g)(1)(i)(C), (g)(1)(i)(F), or (g)(1)(i)(H) of this section, the flexible cord shall be equipped with an attachment plug and shall be energized from a receptacle outlet.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Prohibited uses.</I> Unless necessary for a use permitted in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, flexible cords and cables shall not be used:
</P>
<P>(A) As a substitute for the fixed wiring of a structure;
</P>
<P>(B) Where run through holes in walls, ceilings, or floors;
</P>
<P>(C) Where run through doorways, windows, or similar openings, except as permitted in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(I) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Where attached to building surfaces; or
</P>
<P>(E) Where concealed behind building walls, ceilings, or floors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification, splices, and terminations</I>—(i) <I>Identification.</I> A conductor of a flexible cord or cable that is used as a grounded conductor or an equipment grounding conductor shall be distinguishable from other conductors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Marking.</I> Type SJ, SJO, SJT, SJTO, S, SO, ST, and STO cords shall not be used unless durably marked on the surface with the type designation, size, and number of conductors.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Splices.</I> Flexible cords shall be used only in continuous lengths without splice or tap. Hard service flexible cords No. 12 or larger may be repaired if spliced so that the splice retains the insulation, outer sheath properties, and usage characteristics of the cord being spliced.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Strain relief.</I> Flexible cords shall be connected to devices and fittings so that strain relief is provided which will prevent pull from being directly transmitted to joints or terminal screws.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Cords passing through holes.</I> Flexible cords and cables shall be protected by bushings or fittings where passing through holes in covers, outlet boxes, or similar enclosures.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Portable cables over 600 volts, nominal.</I> Multiconductor portable cable for use in supplying power to portable or mobile equipment at over 600 volts, nominal, shall consist of No. 8 or larger conductors employing flexible stranding. Cables operated at over 2000 volts shall be shielded for the purpose of confining the voltage stresses to the insulation. Grounding conductors shall be provided. Connectors for these cables shall be of a locking type with provisions to prevent their opening or closing while energized. Strain relief shall be provided at connections and terminations. Portable cables shall not be operated with splices unless the splices are of the permanent molded, vulcanized, or other equivalent type. Termination enclosures shall be marked with a high voltage hazard warning, and terminations shall be accessible only to authorized and qualified personnel.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fixture wires</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Fixture wires shall be suitable for the voltage, temperature, and location of use. A fixture wire which is used as a grounded conductor shall be identified.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Uses permitted.</I> Fixture wires may be used:
</P>
<P>(i) For installation in lighting, fixtures and in similar equipment where enclosed or protected and not subject to bending or twisting in use; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For connecting lighting fixtures to the branch-circuit conductors supplying the fixtures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Uses not permitted.</I> Fixture wires shall not be used as branch-circuit conductors except as permitted for Class 1 power-limited circuits.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Equipment for general use</I>—(1) <I>Lighting fixtures, lampholders, lamps, and receptacles</I>—(i) <I>Live parts.</I> Fixtures, lampholders, lamps, rosettes, and receptacles shall have no live parts normally exposed to employee contact. However, rosettes and cleat-type lampholders and receptacles located at least 8 feet (2.44 m) above the floor may have exposed parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Support.</I> Fixtures, lampholders, rosettes, and receptacles shall be securely supported. A fixture that weighs more than 6 pounds (2.72 kg) or exceeds 16 inches (406 mm) in any dimension shall not be supported by the screw shell of a lampholder.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Portable lamps.</I> Portable lamps shall be wired with flexible cord and an attachment plug of the polarized or grounding type. If the portable lamp uses an Edison-based lampholder, the grounded conductor shall be identified and attached to the screw shell and the identified blade of the attachment plug. In addition, portable handlamps shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Metal shell, paperlined lampholders shall not be used;
</P>
<P>(B) Handlamps shall be equipped with a handle of molded composition or other insulating material;
</P>
<P>(C) Handlamps shall be equipped with a substantial guard attached to the lampholder or handle;
</P>
<P>(D) Metallic guards shall be grounded by the means of an equipment grounding conductor run within the power supply cord.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Lampholders.</I> Lampholders of the screw-shell type shall be installed for use as lampholders only. Lampholders installed in wet or damp locations shall be of the weatherproof type.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Fixtures.</I> Fixtures installed in wet or damp locations shall be identified for the purpose and shall be installed so that water cannot enter or accumulate in wireways, lampholders, or other electrical parts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Receptacles, cord connectors, and attachment plugs (caps)</I>—(i) <I>Configuration.</I> Receptacles, cord connectors, and attachment plugs shall be constructed so that no receptacle or cord connector will accept an attachment plug with a different voltage or current rating than that for which the device is intended. However, a 20-ampere T-slot receptacle or cord connector may accept a 15-ampere attachment plug of the same voltage rating. Receptacles connected to circuits having different voltages, frequencies, or types of current (ac or dc) on the same premises shall be of such design that the attachment plugs used on these circuits are not interchangeable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Damp and wet locations.</I> A receptacle installed in a wet or damp location shall be designed for the location.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appliances</I>—(i) <I>Live parts.</I> Appliances, other than those in which the current-carrying parts at high temperatures are necessarily exposed, shall have no live parts normally exposed to employee contact.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> A means shall be provided to disconnect each appliance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Rating.</I> Each appliance shall be marked with its rating in volts and amperes or volts and watts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Motors.</I> This paragraph applies to motors, motor circuits, and controllers.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In sight from.</I> If specified that one piece of equipment shall be “in sight from” another piece of equipment, one shall be visible and not more than 50 feet (15.2 m) from the other.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Disconnecting means</I> (A) A disconnecting means shall be located in sight from the controller location. The controller disconnecting means for motor branch circuits over 600 volts, nominal, may be out of sight of the controller, if the controller is marked with a warning label giving the location and identification of the disconnecting means which is to be locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(B) The disconnecting means shall disconnect the motor and the controller from all ungrounded supply conductors and shall be so designed that no pole can be operated independently.
</P>
<P>(C) If a motor and the driven machinery are not in sight from the controller location, the installation shall comply with one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The controller disconnecting means shall be capable of being locked in the open position.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A manually operable switch that will disconnect the motor from its source of supply shall be placed in sight from the motor location.
</P>
<P>(D) The disconnecting means shall plainly indicate whether it is in the open (off) or closed (on) position.
</P>
<P>(E) The disconnecting means shall be readily accessible. If more than one disconnect is provided for the same equipment, only one need be readily accessible.
</P>
<P>(F) An individual disconnecting means shall be provided for each motor, but a single disconnecting means may be used for a group of motors under any one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If a number of motors drive special parts of a single machine or piece of apparatus, such as a metal or woodworking machine, crane, or hoist;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a group of motors is under the protection of one set of branch-circuit protective devices; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If a group of motors is in a single room in sight from the location of the disconnecting means.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Motor overload, short-circuit, and ground-fault protection.</I> Motors, motor-control apparatus, and motor branch-circuit conductors shall be protected against overheating due to motor overloads or failure to start, and against short-circuits or ground faults. These provisions do not require overload protection that will stop a motor where a shutdown is likely to introduce additional or increased hazards, as in the case of fire pumps, or where continued operation of a motor is necessary for a safe shutdown of equipment or process and motor overload sensing devices are connected to a supervised alarm.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Protection of live parts—all voltages.</I> (A) Stationary motors having commutators, collectors, and brush rigging located inside of motor end brackets and not conductively connected to supply circuits operating at more than 150 volts to ground need not have such parts guarded. Exposed live parts of motors and controllers operating at 50 volts or more between terminals shall be guarded against accidental contact by any of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) By installation in a room or enclosure that is accessible only to qualified persons;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) By installation on a balcony, gallery, or platform, so elevated and arranged as to exclude unqualified persons; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) By elevation 8 feet (2.44 m) or more above the floor.
</P>
<P>(B) Where live parts of motors or controllers operating at over 150 volts to ground are guarded against accidental contact only by location, and where adjustment or other attendance may be necessary during the operation of the apparatus, insulating mats or platforms shall be provided so that the attendant cannot readily touch live parts unless standing on the mats or platforms.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transformers</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> The following paragraphs cover the installation of all transformers, except:
</P>
<P>(A) Current transformers;
</P>
<P>(B) Dry-type transformers installed as a component part of other apparatus;
</P>
<P>(C) Transformers which are an integral part of an X-ray, high frequency, or electrostatic-coating apparatus;
</P>
<P>(D) Transformers used with Class 2 and Class 3 circuits, sign and outline lighting, electric discharge lighting, and power-limited fire-protective signaling circuits.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Operating voltage.</I> The operating voltage of exposed live parts of transformer installations shall be indicated by warning signs or visible markings on the equipment or structure.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Transformers over 35 kV.</I> Dry-type, high fire point liquid-insulated, and askarel-insulated transformers installed indoors and rated over 35 kV shall be in a vault.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Oil-insulated transformers.</I> If they present a fire hazard to employees, oil-insulated transformers installed indoors shall be in a vault.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Fire protection.</I> Combustible material, combustible buildings and parts of buildings, fire escapes, and door and window openings shall be safeguarded from fires which may originate in oil-insulated transformers attached to or adjacent to a building or combustible material.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Transformer vaults.</I> Transformer vaults shall be constructed so as to contain fire and combustible liquids within the vault and to prevent unauthorized access. Locks and latches shall be so arranged that a vault door can be readily opened from the inside.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Pipes and ducts.</I> Any pipe or duct system foreign to the vault installation shall not enter or pass through a transformer vault.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Material storage.</I> Materials shall not be stored in transformer vaults.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Capacitors</I>—(i) <I>Drainage of stored charge.</I> All capacitors, except surge capacitors or capacitors included as a component part of other apparatus, shall be provided with an automatic means of draining the stored charge and maintaining the discharged state after the capacitor is disconnected from its source of supply.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Over 600 volts.</I> Capacitors rated over 600 volts, nominal, shall comply with the following additional requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Isolating or disconnecting switches (with no interrupting rating) shall be interlocked with the load interrupting device or shall be provided with prominently displayed caution signs to prevent switching load current.
</P>
<P>(B) For series capacitors the proper switching shall be assured by use of at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Mechanically sequenced isolating and bypass switches,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Interlocks, or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Switching procedure prominently displayed at the switching location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 85 FR 8736, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.406" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.406   Specific purpose equipment and installations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cranes and hoists.</I> This paragraph applies to the installation of electric equipment and wiring used in connection with cranes, monorail hoists, hoists, and all runways.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disconnecting means</I>—(i) <I>Runway conductor disconnecting means.</I> A readily accessible disconnecting means shall be provided between the runway contact conductors and the power supply.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Disconnecting means for cranes and monorail hoists.</I> A disconnecting means, capable of being locked in the open position, shall be provided in the leads from the runway contact conductors or other power supply on any crane or monorail hoist.
</P>
<P>(A) If this additional disconnecting means is not readily accessible from the crane or monorail hoist operating station, means shall be provided at the operating station to open the power circuit to all motors of the crane or monorail hoist.
</P>
<P>(B) The additional disconnect may be omitted if a monorail hoist or hand-propelled crane bridge installation meets all of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The unit is floor controlled;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The unit is within view of the power supply disconnecting means; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) No fixed work platform has been provided for servicing the unit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Control.</I> A limit switch or other device shall be provided to prevent the load block from passing the safe upper limit of travel of any hoisting mechanism.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Clearance.</I> The dimension of the working space in the direction of access to live parts which may require examination, adjustment, servicing, or maintenance while alive shall be a minimum of 2 feet 6 inches (762 mm). Where controls are enclosed in cabinets, the door(s) shall open at least 90 degrees or be removable, or the installation shall provide equivalent access.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Grounding.</I> All exposed metal parts of cranes, monorail hoists, hoists and accessories including pendant controls shall be metallically joined together into a continuous electrical conductor so that the entire crane or hoist will be grounded in accordance with § 1926.404(f). Moving parts, other than removable accessories or attachments, having metal-to-metal bearing surfaces shall be considered to be electrically connected to each other through the bearing surfaces for grounding purposes. The trolley frame and bridge frame shall be considered as electrically grounded through the bridge and trolley wheels and its respective tracks unless conditions such as paint or other insulating materials prevent reliable metal-to-metal contact. In this case a separate bonding conductor shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elevators, escalators, and moving walks</I>—(1) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> Elevators, escalators, and moving walks shall have a single means for disconnecting all ungrounded main power supply conductors for each unit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Control panels.</I> If control panels are not located in the same space as the drive machine, they shall be located in cabinets with doors or panels capable of being locked closed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electric welders—disconnecting means</I>—(1) <I>Motor-generator, AC transformer, and DC rectifier arc welders.</I> A disconnecting means shall be provided in the supply circuit for each motor-generator arc welder, and for each AC transformer and DC rectifier arc welder which is not equipped with a disconnect mounted as an integral part of the welder.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Resistance welders.</I> A switch or circuit breaker shall be provided by which each resistance welder and its control equipment can be isolated from the supply circuit. The ampere rating of this disconnecting means shall not be less than the supply conductor ampacity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>X-Ray equipment</I>—(1) <I>Disconnecting means</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A disconnecting means shall be provided in the supply circuit. The disconnecting means shall be operable from a location readily accessible from the X-ray control. For equipment connected to a 120-volt branch circuit of 30 amperes or less, a grounding-type attachment plug cap and receptacle of proper rating may serve as a disconnecting means.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>More than one piece of equipment.</I> If more than one piece of equipment is operated from the same high-voltage circuit, each piece or each group of equipment as a unit shall be provided with a high-voltage switch or equivalent disconnecting means. This disconnecting means shall be constructed, enclosed, or located so as to avoid contact by employees with its live parts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Control—Radiographic and fluoroscopic types.</I> Radiographic and fluoroscopic-type equipment shall be effectively enclosed or shall have interlocks that deenergize the equipment automatically to prevent ready access to live current-carrying parts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.407" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.407   Hazardous (classified) locations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth requirements for electric equipment and wiring in locations which are classified depending on the properties of the flammable vapors, liquids or gases, or combustible dusts or fibers which may be present therein and the likelihood that a flammable or combustible concentration or quantity is present. Each room, section or area shall be considered individually in determining its classification. These hazardous (classified) locations are assigned six designations as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Class I, Division 1
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Class I, Division 2
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Class II, Division 1
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Class II, Division 2
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Class III, Division l
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Class III, Division 2</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>For definitions of these locations see § 1926.449. All applicable requirements in this subpart apply to all hazardous (classified) locations, unless modified by provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electrical installations.</I> Equipment, wiring methods, and installations of equipment in hazardous (classified) locations shall be approved as intrinsically safe or approved for the hazardous (classified) location or safe for the hazardous (classified) location. Requirements for each of these options are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Intrinsically safe.</I> Equipment and associated wiring approved as intrinsically safe is permitted in any hazardous (classified) location included in its listing or labeling.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approved for the hazardous (classified) location</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Equipment shall be approved not only for the class of location but also for the ignitible or combustible properties of the specific gas, vapor, dust, or fiber that will be present.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>NFPA 70, the National Electrical Code, lists or defines hazardous gases, vapors, and dusts by “Groups” characterized by their ignitible or combustible properties.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) <I>Marking.</I> Equipment shall not be used unless it is marked to show the class, group, and operating temperature or temperature range, based on operation in a 40-degree C ambient, for which it is approved. The temperature marking shall not exceed the ignition temperature of the specific gas, vapor, or dust to be encountered. However, the following provisions modify this marking requirement for specific equipment:
</P>
<P>(A) Equipment of the non-heat-producing type (such as junction boxes, conduit, and fitting) and equipment of the heat-producing type having a maximum temperature of not more than 100 degrees C (212 degrees F) need not have a marked operating temperature or temperature range.
</P>
<P>(B) Fixed lighting fixtures marked for use only in Class I, Division 2 locations need not be marked to indicate the group.
</P>
<P>(C) Fixed general-purpose equipment in Class I locations, other than lighting fixtures, which is acceptable for use in Class I, Division 2 locations need not be marked with the class, group, division, or operating temperature.
</P>
<P>(D) Fixed dust-tight equipment, other than lighting fixtures, which is acceptable for use in Class II, Division 2 and Class III locations need not be marked with the class, group, division, or operating temperature.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe for the hazardous (classified) location.</I> Equipment which is safe for the location shall be of a type and design which the employer demonstrates will provide protection from the hazards arising from the combustibility and flammability of vapors, liquids, gases, dusts, or fibers.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The National Electrical Code, NFPA 70, contains guidelines for determining the type and design of equipment and installations which will meet this requirement. The guidelines of this document address electric wiring, equipment, and systems installed in hazardous (classified) locations and contain specific provisions for the following: wiring methods, wiring connections, conductor insulation, flexible cords, sealing and drainage, transformers, capacitors, switches, circuit breakers, fuses, motor controllers, receptacles, attachment plugs, meters, relays, instruments, resistors, generators, motors, lighting fixtures, storage battery charging equipment, electric cranes, electric hoists and similar equipment, utilization equipment, signaling systems, alarm systems, remote control systems, local loud speaker and communication systems, ventilation piping, live parts, lightning surge protection, and grounding. Compliance with these guidelines will constitute one means, but not the only means, of compliance with this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Conduits.</I> All conduits shall be threaded and shall be made wrench-tight. Where it is impractical to make a threaded joint tight, a bonding jumper shall be utilized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.408" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.408   Special systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Systems over 600 volts, nominal.</I> Paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section contain general requirements for all circuits and equipment operated at over 600 volts.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Wiring methods for fixed installations</I>—(i) <I>Above ground.</I> Above-ground conductors shall be installed in rigid metal conduit, in intermediate metal conduit, in cable trays, in cablebus, in other suitable raceways, or as open runs of metal-clad cable designed for the use and purpose. However, open runs of non-metallic-sheathed cable or of bare conductors or busbars may be installed in locations which are accessible only to qualified persons. Metallic shielding components, such as tapes, wires, or braids for conductors, shall be grounded. Open runs of insulated wires and cables having a bare lead sheath or a braided outer covering shall be supported in a manner designed to prevent physical damage to the braid or sheath.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Installations emerging from the ground.</I> Conductors emerging from the ground shall be enclosed in raceways. Raceways installed on poles shall be of rigid metal conduit, intermediate metal conduit, PVC schedule 80 or equivalent extending from the ground line up to a point 8 feet (2.44 m) above finished grade. Conductors entering a building shall be protected by an enclosure from the ground line to the point of entrance. Metallic enclosures shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interrupting and isolating devices</I>—(i) <I>Circuit breakers.</I> Circuit breakers located indoors shall consist of metal-enclosed or fire-resistant, cell-mounted units. In locations accessible only to qualified personnel, open mounting of circuit breakers is permitted. A means of indicating the open and closed position of circuit breakers shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fused cutouts.</I> Fused cutouts installed in buildings or transformer vaults shall be of a type identified for the purpose. They shall be readily accessible for fuse replacement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Equipment isolating means.</I> A means shall be provided to completely isolate equipment for inspection and repairs. Isolating means which are not designed to interrupt the load current of the circuit shall be either interlocked with a circuit interrupter or provided with a sign warning against opening them under load.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mobile and portable equipment</I>—(i) <I>Power cable connections to mobile machines.</I> A metallic enclosure shall be provided on the mobile machine for enclosing the terminals of the power cable. The enclosure shall include provisions for a solid connection for the ground wire(s) terminal to ground effectively the machine frame. The method of cable termination used shall prevent any strain or pull on the cable from stressing the electrical connections. The enclosure shall have provision for locking so only authorized qualified persons may open it and shall be marked with a sign warning of the presence of energized parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Guarding live parts.</I> All energized switching and control parts shall be enclosed in effectively grounded metal cabinets or enclosures. Circuit breakers and protective equipment shall have the operating means projecting through the metal cabinet or enclosure so these units can be reset without locked doors being opened. Enclosures and metal cabinets shall be locked so that only authorized qualified persons have access and shall be marked with a sign warning of the presence of energized parts. Collector ring assemblies on revolving-type machines (shovels, draglines, etc.) shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tunnel installations</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> The provisions of this paragraph apply to installation and use of high-voltage power distribution and utilization equipment which is associated with tunnels and which is portable and/or mobile, such as substations, trailers, cars, mobile shovels, draglines, hoists, drills, dredges, compressors, pumps, conveyors, and underground excavators.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conductors.</I> Conductors in tunnels shall be installed in one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Metal conduit or other metal raceway,
</P>
<P>(B) Type MC cable, or
</P>
<P>(C) Other suitable multiconductor cable. Conductors shall also be so located or guarded as to protect them from physical damage. Multiconductor portable cable may supply mobile equipment. An equipment grounding conductor shall be run with circuit conductors inside the metal raceway or inside the multiconductor cable jacket. The equipment grounding conductor may be insulated or bare.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Guarding live parts.</I> Bare terminals of transformers, switches, motor controllers, and other equipment shall be enclosed to prevent accidental contact with energized parts. Enclosures for use in tunnels shall be drip-proof, weatherproof, or submersible as required by the environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Disconnecting means.</I> A disconnecting means that simultaneously opens all ungrounded conductors shall be installed at each transformer or motor location.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Grounding and bonding.</I> All nonenergized metal parts of electric equipment and metal raceways and cable sheaths shall be grounded and bonded to all metal pipes and rails at the portal and at intervals not exceeding 1000 feet (305 m) throughout the tunnel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 remote control, signaling, and power-limited circuits</I>—(1) <I>Classification.</I> Class 1, Class 2, or Class 3 remote control, signaling, or power-limited circuits are characterized by their usage and electrical power limitation which differentiates them from light and power circuits. These circuits are classified in accordance with their respective voltage and power limitations as summarized in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Class 1 circuits.</I> (A) A Class 1 power-limited circuit is supplied from a source having a rated output of not more than 30 volts and 1000 volt-amperes.
</P>
<P>(B) A Class 1 remote control circuit or a Class 1 signaling circuit has a voltage which does not exceed 600 volts; however, the power output of the source need not be limited.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Class 2 and Class 3 circuits.</I> (A) Power for Class 2 and Class 3 circuits is limited either inherently (in which no overcurrent protection is required) or by a combination of a power source and overcurrent protection.
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum circuit voltage is 150 volts AC or DC for a Class 2 inherently limited power source, and 100 volts AC or DC for a Class 3 inherently limited power source.
</P>
<P>(C) The maximum circuit voltage is 30 volts AC and 60 volts DC for a Class 2 power source limited by overcurrent protection, and 150 volts AC or DC for a Class 3 power source limited by overcurrent protection.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Application.</I> The maximum circuit voltages in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(ii) of this section apply to sinusoidal AC or continuous DC power sources, and where wet contact occurrence is not likely.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Marking.</I> A Class 2 or Class 3 power supply unit shall not be used unless it is durably marked where plainly visible to indicate the class of supply and its electrical rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Communications systems</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> These provisions for communication systems apply to such systems as central-station-connected and non-central-station-connected telephone circuits, radio receiving and transmitting equipment, and outside wiring for fire and burglar alarm, and similar central station systems. These installations need not comply with the provisions of §§ 1926.403 through 1926.408(b), except § 1926.404(c)(1)(ii) and § 1926.407.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protective devices</I>—(i) <I>Circuits exposed to power conductors.</I> Communication circuits so located as to be exposed to accidental contact with light or power conductors operating at over 300 volts shall have each circuit so exposed provided with an approved protector.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Antenna lead-ins.</I> Each conductor of a lead-in from an outdoor antenna shall be provided with an antenna discharge unit or other means that will drain static charges from the antenna system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conductor location</I>—(i) <I>Outside of buildings</I>—(A) Receiving distribution lead-in or aerial-drop cables attached to buildings and lead-in conductors to radio transmitters shall be so installed as to avoid the possibility of accidental contact with electric light or power conductors.
</P>
<P>(B) The clearance between lead-in conductors and any lightning protection conductors shall not be less than 6 feet (1.83 m).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>On poles.</I> Where practicable, communication conductors on poles shall be located below the light or power conductors. Communications conductors shall not be attached to a crossarm that carries light or power conductors.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Inside of buildings.</I> Indoor antennas, lead-ins, and other communication conductors attached as open conductors to the inside of buildings shall be located at least 2 inches (50.8 mm) from conductors of any light or power or Class 1 circuits unless a special and equally protective method of conductor separation is employed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equipment location.</I> Outdoor metal structures supporting antennas, as well as self-supporting antennas such as vertical rods or dipole structures, shall be located as far away from overhead conductors of electric light and power circuits of over 150 volts to ground as necessary to avoid the possibility of the antenna or structure falling into or making accidental contact with such circuits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grounding</I>—(i) <I>Lead-in conductors.</I> If exposed to contact with electric light or power conductors, the metal sheath of aerial cables entering buildings shall be grounded or shall be interrupted close to the entrance to the building by an insulating joint or equivalent device. Where protective devices are used, they shall be grounded.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Antenna structures.</I> Masts and metal structures supporting antennas shall be permanently and effectively grounded without splice or connection in the grounding conductor.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Equipment enclosures.</I> Transmitters shall be enclosed in a metal frame or grill or separated from the operating space by a barrier, all metallic parts of which are effectively connected to ground. All external metal handles and controls accessible to the operating personnel shall be effectively grounded. Unpowered equipment and enclosures shall be considered grounded where connected to an attached coaxial cable with an effectively grounded metallic shield.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1926.409-1926.415" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.14.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1926.409-1926.415   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Safety-Related Work Practices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.416" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.15.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.416   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protection of employees.</I> (1) No employer shall permit an employee to work in such proximity to any part of an electric power circuit that the employee could contact the electric power circuit in the course of work, unless the employee is protected against electric shock by deenergizing the circuit and grounding it or by guarding it effectively by insulation or other means.
</P>
<P>(2) In work areas where the exact location of underground electric powerlines is unknown, employees using jack-hammers, bars, or other hand tools which may contact a line shall be provided with insulated protective gloves.
</P>
<P>(3) Before work is begun the employer shall ascertain by inquiry or direct observation, or by instruments, whether any part of an energized electric power circuit, exposed or concealed, is so located that the performance of the work may bring any person, tool, or machine into physical or electrical contact with the electric power circuit. The employer shall post and maintain proper warning signs where such a circuit exists. The employer shall advise employees of the location of such lines, the hazards involved, and the protective measures to be taken.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Passageways and open spaces</I>—-(1) Barriers or other means of guarding shall be provided to ensure that workspace for electrical equipment will not be used as a passageway during periods when energized parts of electrical equipment are exposed.
</P>
<P>(2) Working spaces, walkways, and similar locations shall be kept clear of cords so as not to create a hazard to employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Load ratings.</I> In existing installations, no changes in circuit protection shall be made to increase the load in excess of the load rating of the circuit wiring.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fuses.</I> When fuses are installed or removed with one or both terminals energized, special tools insulated for the voltage shall be used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cords and cables.</I> (1) Worn or frayed electric cords or cables shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Extension cords shall not be fastened with staples, hung from nails, or suspended by wire.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 42328, Oct. 18, 1990; 58 FR 35179, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9251, Mar. 7, 1996; 61 FR 41738, Aug. 12, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.417" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.15.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.417   Lockout and tagging of circuits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Controls.</I> Controls that are to be deactivated during the course of work on energized or deenergized equipment or circuits shall be tagged.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment and circuits.</I> Equipment or circuits that are deenergized shall be rendered inoperative and shall have tags attached at all points where such equipment or circuits can be energized.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tags.</I> Tags shall be placed to identify plainly the equipment or circuits being worked on.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 55 FR 42328, Oct. 18, 1990; 58 FR 35181, June 30, 1993; 61 FR 9251, Mar. 7, 1996; 61 FR 41739, Aug. 12, 1996]]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1926.418-1926.430" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.15.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1926.418-1926.430   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="16" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.16" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Safety-Related Maintenance and Environmental Considerations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.431" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.431   Maintenance of equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The employer shall ensure that all wiring components and utilization equipment in hazardous locations are maintained in a dust-tight, dust-ignition-proof, or explosion-proof condition, as appropriate. There shall be no loose or missing screws, gaskets, threaded connections, seals, or other impairments to a tight condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.432" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.16.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.432   Environmental deterioration of equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Deteriorating agents.</I> (1) Unless identified for use in the operating environment, no conductors or equipment shall be located:
</P>
<P>(i) In damp or wet locations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where exposed to gases, fumes, vapors, liquids, or other agents having a deteriorating effect on the conductors or equipment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Where exposed to excessive temperatures.
</P>
<P>(2) Control equipment, utilization equipment, and busways approved for use in dry locations only shall be protected against damage from the weather during building construction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protection against corrosion.</I> Metal raceways, cable armor, boxes, cable sheathing, cabinets, elbows, couplings, fittings, supports, and support hardware shall be of materials appropriate for the environment in which they are to be installed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1926.433-1926.440" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.16.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1926.433-1926.440   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Safety Requirements for Special Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.441" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.17.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.441   Batteries and battery charging.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Batteries of the unsealed type shall be located in enclosures with outside vents or in well ventilated rooms and shall be arranged so as to prevent the escape of fumes, gases, or electrolyte spray into other areas.
</P>
<P>(2) Ventilation shall be provided to ensure diffusion of the gases from the battery and to prevent the accumulation of an explosive mixture.
</P>
<P>(3) Racks and trays shall be substantial and shall be treated to make them resistant to the electrolyte.
</P>
<P>(4) Floors shall be of acid resistant construction unless protected from acid accumulations.
</P>
<P>(5) Face shields, aprons, and rubber gloves shall be provided for workers handling acids or batteries.
</P>
<P>(6) Facilities for quick drenching of the eyes and body shall be provided within 25 feet (7.62 m) of battery handling areas.
</P>
<P>(7) Facilities shall be provided for flushing and neutralizing spilled electrolyte and for fire protection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charging.</I> (1) Battery charging installations shall be located in areas designated for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) Charging apparatus shall be protected from damage by trucks.
</P>
<P>(3) When batteries are being charged, the vent caps shall be kept in place to avoid electrolyte spray. Vent caps shall be maintained in functioning condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1926.442-1926.448" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.17.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1926.442-1926.448   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.449" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.11.18.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.449   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions given in this section apply to the terms used in subpart K. The definitions given here for “approved” and “qualified person” apply, instead of the definitions given in § 1926.32, to the use of these terms in subpart K.
</P>
<P><I>Acceptable.</I> An installation or equipment is acceptable to the Assistant Secretary of Labor, and approved within the meaning of this subpart K:
</P>
<P>(a) If it is accepted, or certified, or listed, or labeled, or otherwise determined to be safe by a qualified testing laboratory capable of determining the suitability of materials and equipment for installation and use in accordance with this standard; or
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to an installation or equipment of a kind which no qualified testing laboratory accepts, certifies, lists, labels, or determines to be safe, if it is inspected or tested by another Federal agency, or by a State, municipal, or other local authority responsible for enforcing occupational safety provisions of the National Electrical Code, and found in compliance with those provisions; or
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to custom-made equipment or related installations which are designed, fabricated for, and intended for use by a particular customer, if it is determined to be safe for its intended use by its manufacturer on the basis of test data which the employer keeps and makes available for inspection to the Assistant Secretary and his authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Accepted.</I> An installation is “accepted” if it has been inspected and found to be safe by a qualified testing laboratory.
</P>
<P><I>Accessible.</I> (As applied to wiring methods.) Capable of being removed or exposed without damaging the building structure or finish, or not permanently closed in by the structure or finish of the building. (See <I>“concealed”</I> and <I>“exposed.”)</I>
</P>
<P><I>Accessible.</I> (As applied to equipment.) Admitting close approach; not guarded by locked doors, elevation, or other effective means. (See<I>“Readily accessible.”)</I>
</P>
<P><I>Ampacity.</I> The current in amperes a conductor can carry continuously under the conditions of use without exceeding its temperature rating.
</P>
<P><I>Appliances.</I> Utilization equipment, generally other than industrial, normally built in standardized sizes or types, which is installed or connecetcd as a unit to perform one or more functions.
</P>
<P><I>Approved.</I> Acceptable to the authority enforcing this subpart. The authority enforcing this subpart is the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health. The definition of “acceptable” indicates what is acceptable to the Assistant Secretary of Labor, and therefore approved within the meaning of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Askarel.</I> A generic term for a group of nonflammable synthetic chlorinated hydrocarbons used as electrical insulating media. Askarels of various compositional types are used. Under arcing conditions the gases produced, while consisting predominantly of noncombustible hydrogen chloride, can include varying amounts of combustible gases depending upon the askarel type.
</P>
<P><I>Attachment plug (Plug cap)(Cap).</I> A device which, by insertion in a receptacle, establishes connection between the conductors of the attached flexible cord and the conductors connected permanently to the receptacle.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic.</I> Self-acting, operating by its own mechanism when actuated by some impersonal influence, as for example, a change in current strength, pressure, temperature, or mechanical configuration.
</P>
<P><I>Bare conductor.</I> See <I>“Conductor.”</I>
</P>
<P><I>Bonding.</I> The permanent joining of metallic parts to form an electrically conductive path which will assure electrical continuity and the capacity to conduct safely any current likely to be imposed.
</P>
<P><I>Bonding jumper.</I> A reliable conductor to assure the required electrical conductivity between metal parts required to be electrically connected.
</P>
<P><I>Branch circuit.</I> The circuit conductors between the final overcurrent device protecting the circuit and the outlet(s).
</P>
<P><I>Building.</I> A structure which stands alone or which is cut off from adjoining structures by fire walls with all openings therein protected by approved fire doors.
</P>
<P><I>Cabinet.</I> An enclosure designed either for surface or flush mounting, and provided with a frame, mat, or trim in which a swinging door or doors are or may be hung.
</P>
<P><I>Certified.</I> Equipment is “certified” if it:
</P>
<P>(a) Has been tested and found by a qualified testing laboratory to meet applicable test standards or to be safe for use in a specified manner, and
</P>
<P>(b) Is of a kind whose production is periodically inspected by a qualified testing laboratory. Certified equipment must bear a label, tag, or other record of certification.
</P>
<P><I>Circuit breaker</I>—(a) (600 volts nominal, or less.) A device designed to open and close a circuit by nonautomatic means and to open the circuit automatically on a predetermined overcurrent without injury to itself when properly applied within its rating.
</P>
<P>(b) (Over 600 volts, nominal.) A switching device capable of making, carrying, and breaking currents under normal circuit conditions, and also making, carrying for a specified time, and breaking currents under specified abnormal circuit conditions, such as those of short circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Class I locations.</I> Class I locations are those in which flammable gases or vapors are or may be present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitible mixtures. Class I locations include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Class I, Division 1.</I> A Class I, Division 1 location is a location:
</P>
<P>(1) In which ignitible concentrations of flammable gases or vapors may exist under normal operating conditions; or
</P>
<P>(2) In which ignitible concentrations of such gases or vapors may exist frequently because of repair or maintenance operations or because of leakage; or
</P>
<P>(3) In which breakdown or faulty operation of equipment or processes might release ignitible concentrations of flammable gases or vapors, and might also cause simultaneous failure of electric equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This classification usually includes locations where volatile flammable liquids or liquefied flammable gases are transferred from one container to another; interiors of spray booths and areas in the vicinity of spraying and painting operations where volatile flammable solvents are used; locations containing open tanks or vats of volatile flammable liquids; drying rooms or compartments for the evaporation of flammable solvents; inadequately ventilated pump rooms for flammable gas or for volatile flammable liquids; and all other locations where ignitible concentrations of flammable vapors or gases are likely to occur in the course of normal operations.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Class I, Division 2.</I> A Class I, Division 2 location is a location:
</P>
<P>(1) In which volatile flammable liquids or flammable gases are handled, processed, or used, but in which the hazardous liquids, vapors, or gases will normally be confined within closed containers or closed systems from which they can escape only in case of accidental rupture or breakdown of such containers or systems, or in case of abnormal operation of equipment; or
</P>
<P>(2) In which ignitible concentrations of gases or vapors are normally prevented by positive mechanical ventilation, and which might become hazardous through failure or abnormal operations of the ventilating equipment; or
</P>
<P>(3) That is adjacent to a Class I, Division 1 location, and to which ignitible concentrations of gases or vapors might occasionally be communicated unless such communication is prevented by adequate positive-pressure ventilation from a source of clean air, and effective safeguards against ventilation failure are provided.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This classification usually includes locations where volatile flammable liquids or flammable gases or vapors are used, but which would become hazardous only in case of an accident or of some unusual operating condition. The quantity of flammable material that might escape in case of accident, the adequacy of ventilating equipment, the total area involved, and the record of the industry or business with respect to explosions or fires are all factors that merit consideration in determining the classification and extent of each location.
</P>
<P>Piping without valves, checks, meters, and similar devices would not ordinarily introduce a hazardous condition even though used for flammable liquids or gases. Locations used for the storage of flammable liquids or of liquefied or compressed gases in sealed containers would not normally be considered hazardous unless also subject to other hazardous conditions.
</P>
<P>Electrical conduits and their associated enclosures separated from process fluids by a single seal or barrier are classed as a Division 2 location if the outside of the conduit and enclosures is a nonhazardous location.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Class II locations.</I> Class II locations are those that are hazardous because of the presence of combustible dust. Class II locations include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Class II, Division 1.</I> A Class II, Division 1 location is a location:
</P>
<P>(1) In which combustible dust is or may be in suspension in the air under normal operating conditions, in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitible mixtures; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where mechanical failure or abnormal operation of machinery or equipment might cause such explosive or ignitible mixtures to be produced, and might also provide a source of ignition through simultaneous failure of electric equipment, operation of protection devices, or from other causes, or
</P>
<P>(3) In which combustible dusts of an electrically conductive nature may be present.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Combustible dusts which are electrically nonconductive include dusts produced in the handling and processing of grain and grain products, pulverized sugar and cocoa, dried egg and milk powders, pulverized spices, starch and pastes, potato and woodflour, oil meal from beans and seed, dried hay, and other organic materials which may produce combustible dusts when processed or handled. Dusts containing magnesium or aluminum are particularly hazardous and the use of extreme caution is necessary to avoid ignition and explosion.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Class II, Division 2.</I> A Class II, Division 2 location is a location in which:
</P>
<P>(1) Combustible dust will not normally be in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitible mixtures, and dust accumulations are normally insufficient to interfere with the normal operation of electrical equipment or other apparatus; or
</P>
<P>(2) Dust may be in suspension in the air as a result of infrequent malfunctioning of handling or processing equipment, and dust accumulations resulting therefrom may be ignitible by abnormal operation or failure of electrical equipment or other apparatus.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This classification includes locations where dangerous concentrations of suspended dust would not be likely but where dust accumulations might form on or in the vicinity of electric equipment. These areas may contain equipment from which appreciable quantities of dust would escape under abnormal operating conditions or be adjacent to a Class II Division 1 location, as described above, into which an explosive or ignitible concentration of dust may be put into suspension under abnormal operating conditions.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Class III locations.</I> Class III locations are those that are hazardous because of the presence of easily ignitible fibers or flyings but in which such fibers or flyings are not likely to be in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce ignitible mixtures. Class 111 locations include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Class III, Division 1.</I> A Class III, Division 1 location is a location in which easily ignitible fibers or materials producing combustible flyings are handled, manufactured, or used.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Easily ignitible fibers and flyings include rayon, cotton (including cotton linters and cotton waste), sisal or henequen, istle, jute, hemp, tow, cocoa fiber, oakum, baled waste kapok, Spanish moss, excelsior, sawdust, woodchips, and other material of similar nature.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Class III, Division 2.</I> A Class III, Division 2 location is a location in which easily ignitible fibers are stored or handled, except in process of manufacture.
</P>
<P><I>Collector ring.</I> A collector ring is an assembly of slip rings for transferring electrical energy from a stationary to a rotating member.
</P>
<P><I>Concealed.</I> Rendered inaccessible by the structure or finish of the building. Wires in concealed raceways are considered concealed, even though they may become accessible by withdrawing them. [See <I>“Accessible.</I> (As applied to wiring methods.)”]
</P>
<P><I>Conductor</I>—(a) <I>Bare.</I> A conductor having no covering or electrical insulation whatsoever.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered.</I> A conductor encased within material of composition or thickness that is not recognized as electrical insulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Insulated.</I> A conductor encased within material of composition and thickness that is recognized as electrical insulation.
</P>
<P><I>Controller.</I> A device or group of devices that serves to govern, in some predetermined manner, the electric power delivered to the apparatus to which it is connected.
</P>
<P><I>Covered conductor.</I> See <I>“Conductor.”</I>
</P>
<P><I>Cutout.</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) An assembly of a fuse support with either a fuseholder, fuse carrier, or disconnecting blade. The fuseholder or fuse carrier may include a conducting element (fuse link), or may act as the disconnecting blade by the inclusion of a nonfusible member.
</P>
<P><I>Cutout box.</I> An enclosure designed for surface mounting and having swinging doors or covers secured directly to and telescoping with the walls of the box proper. (See <I>“Cabinet.”)</I>
</P>
<P><I>Damp location.</I> See <I>“Location.”</I>
</P>
<P><I>Dead front.</I> Without live parts exposed to a person on the operating side of the equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Device.</I> A unit of an electrical system which is intended to carry but not utilize electric energy.
</P>
<P><I>Disconnecting means.</I> A device, or group of devices, or other means by which the conductors of a circuit can be disconnected from their source of supply.
</P>
<P><I>Disconnecting (or Isolating) switch.</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) A mechanical switching device used for isolating a circuit or equipment from a source of power.
</P>
<P><I>Dry location.</I> See <I>“Location.”</I>
</P>
<P><I>Enclosed.</I> Surrounded by a case, housing, fence or walls which will prevent persons from accidentally contacting energized parts.
</P>
<P><I>Enclosure.</I> The case or housing of apparatus, or the fence or walls surrounding an installation to prevent personnel from accidentally contacting energized parts, or to protect the equipment from physical damage.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment.</I> A general term including material, fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures, apparatus, and the like, used as a part of, or in connection with, an electrical installation.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment grounding conductor.</I> See <I>“Grounding conductor, equipment.”</I>
</P>
<P><I>Explosion-proof apparatus.</I> Apparatus enclosed in a case that is capable of withstanding an explosion of a specified gas or vapor which may occur within it and of preventing the ignition of a specified gas or vapor surrounding the enclosure by sparks, flashes, or explosion of the gas or vapor within, and which operates at such an external temperature that it will not ignite a surrounding flammable atmosphere.
</P>
<P><I>Exposed.</I> (As applied to live parts.) Capable of being inadvertently touched or approached nearer than a safe distance by a person. It is applied to parts not suitably guarded, isolated, or insulated. (See <I>“Accessible</I> and <I>“Concealed.”)</I>
</P>
<P><I>Exposed.</I> (As applied to wiring methods.) On or attached to the surface or behind panels designed to allow access. [See <I>“Accessible.</I> (As applied to wiring methods.)”]
</P>
<P><I>Exposed.</I> (For the purposes of § 1926.408(d), Communications systems.) Where the circuit is in such a position that in case of failure of supports or insulation, contact with another circuit may result.
</P>
<P><I>Externally operable.</I> Capable of being operated without exposing the operator to contact with live parts.
</P>
<P><I>Feeder.</I> All circuit conductors between the service equipment, or the generator switchboard of an isolated plant, and the final branch-circuit overcurrent device.
</P>
<P><I>Festoon lighting.</I> A string of outdoor lights suspended between two points more than 15 feet (4.57 m) apart.
</P>
<P><I>Fitting.</I> An accessory such as a locknut, bushing, or other part of a wiring system that is intended primarily to perform a mechanical rather than an electrical function.
</P>
<P><I>Fuse.</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) An overcurrent protective device with a circuit opening fusible part that is heated and severed by the passage of overcurrent through it. A fuse comprises all the parts that form a unit capable of performing the prescribed functions. It may or may not be the complete device necessary to connect it into an electrical circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Ground.</I> A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, between an electrical circuit or equipment and the earth, or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded.</I> Connected to earth or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded, effectively</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) Permanently connected to earth through a ground connection of sufficiently low impedance and having sufficient ampacity that ground fault current which may occur cannot build up to voltages dangerous to personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded conductor.</I> A system or circuit conductor that is intentionally grounded.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding conductor.</I> A conductor used to connect equipment or the grounded circuit of a wiring system to a grounding electrode or electrodes.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding conductor, equipment.</I> The conductor used to connect the noncurrent-carrying metal parts of equipment, raceways, and other enclosures to the system grounded conductor and/or the grounding electrode conductor at the service equipment or at the source of a separately derived system.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding electrode conductor.</I> The conductor used to connect the grounding electrode to the equipment grounding conductor and/or to the grounded conductor of the circuit at the service equipment or at the source of a separately derived system.
</P>
<P><I>Ground-fault circuit interrupter.</I> A device for the protection of personnel that functions to deenergize a circuit or portion thereof within an established period of time when a current to ground exceeds some predetermined value that is less than that required to operate the overcurrent protective device of the supply circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Guarded.</I> Covered, shielded, fenced, enclosed, or otherwise protected by means of suitable covers, casings, barriers, rails, screens, mats, or platforms to remove the likelihood of approach to a point of danger or contact by persons or objects.
</P>
<P><I>Hoistway.</I> Any shaftway, hatchway, well hole, or other vertical opening or space in which an elevator or dumbwaiter is designed to operate.
</P>
<P><I>Identified (conductors or terminals).</I> Identified, as used in reference to a conductor or its terminal, means that such conductor or terminal can be recognized as grounded.
</P>
<P><I>Identified (for the use).</I> Recognized as suitable for the specific purpose, function, use, environment, application, etc. where described as a requirement in this standard. Suitability of equipment for a specific purpose, environment, or application is determined by a qualified testing laboratory where such identification includes labeling or listing.
</P>
<P><I>Insulated conductor.</I> See “<I>Conductor.</I>”
</P>
<P><I>Interrupter switch.</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) A switch capable of making, carrying, and interrupting specified currents.
</P>
<P><I>Intrinsically safe equipment and associated wiring.</I> Equipment and associated wiring in which any spark or thermal effect, produced either normally or in specified fault conditions, is incapable, under certain prescribed test conditions, of causing ignition of a mixture of flammable or combustible material in air in its most easily ignitible concentration.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated.</I> Not readily accessible to persons unless special means for access are used.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated power system.</I> A system comprising an isolating transformer or its equivalent, a line isolation monitor, and its ungrounded circuit conductors.
</P>
<P><I>Labeled.</I> Equipment or materials to which has been attached a label, symbol or other identifying mark of a qualified testing laboratory which indicates compliance with appropriate standards or performance in a specified manner.
</P>
<P><I>Lighting outlet.</I> An outlet intended for the direct connection of a lampholder, a lighting fixture, or a pendant cord terminating in a lampholder.
</P>
<P><I>Listed.</I> Equipment or materials included in a list published by a qualified testing laboratory whose listing states either that the equipment or material meets appropriate standards or has been tested and found suitable for use in a specified manner.
</P>
<P><I>Location</I>—(a) <I>Damp location.</I> Partially protected locations under canopies, marquees, roofed open porches, and like locations, and interior locations subject to moderate degrees of moisture, such as some basements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dry location.</I> A location not normally subject to dampness or wetness. A location classified as dry may be temporarily subject to dampness or wetness, as in the case of a building under construction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Wet location.</I> Installations underground or in concrete slabs or masonry in direct contact with the earth, and locations subject to saturation with water or other liquids, such as locations exposed to weather and unprotected.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile X-ray.</I> X-ray equipment mounted on a permanent base with wheels and/or casters for moving while completely assembled.
</P>
<P><I>Motor control center.</I> An assembly of one or more enclosed sections having a common power bus and principally containing motor control units.
</P>
<P><I>Outlet.</I> A point on the wiring system at which current is taken to supply utilization equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Overcurrent.</I> Any current in excess of the rated current of equipment or the ampacity of a conductor. It may result from overload (see definition), short circuit, or ground fault. A current in excess of rating may be accommodated by certain equipment and conductors for a given set of conditions. Hence the rules for overcurrent protection are specific for particular situations.
</P>
<P><I>Overload.</I> Operation of equipment in excess of normal, full load rating, or of a conductor in excess of rated ampacity which, when it persists for a sufficient length of time, would cause damage or dangerous overheating. A fault, such as a short circuit or ground fault, is not an overload. (See<I>“Overcurrent.”</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Panelboard.</I> A single panel or group of panel units designed for assembly in the form of a single panel; including buses, automatic overcurrent devices, and with or without switches for the control of light, heat, or power circuits; designed to be placed in a cabinet or cutout box placed in or against a wall or partition and accessible only from the front. (See “<I>Switchboard.</I>”)
</P>
<P><I>Portable X-ray.</I> X-ray equipment designed to be hand-carried.
</P>
<P><I>Power fuse.</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) See <I>“Fuse.”</I>
</P>
<P><I>Power outlet.</I> An enclosed assembly which may include receptacles, circuit breakers, fuseholders, fused switches, buses and watt-hour meter mounting means; intended to serve as a means for distributing power required to operate mobile or temporarily installed equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Premises wiring system.</I> That interior and exterior wiring, including power, lighting, control, and signal circuit wiring together with all of its associated hardware, fittings, and wiring devices, both permanently and temporarily installed, which extends from the load end of the service drop, or load end of the service lateral conductors to the outlet(s). Such wiring does not include wiring internal to appliances, fixtures, motors, controllers, motor control centers, and similar equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person.</I> One familiar with the construction and operation of the equipment and the hazards involved.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified testing laboratory.</I> A properly equipped and staffed testing laboratory which has capabilities for and which provides the following services:
</P>
<P>(a) Experimental testing for safety of specified items of equipment and materials referred to in this standard to determine compliance with appropriate test standards or performance in a specified manner;
</P>
<P>(b) Inspecting the run of such items of equipment and materials at factories for product evaluation to assure compliance with the test standards;
</P>
<P>(c) Service-value determinations through field inspections to monitor the proper use of labels on products and with authority for recall of the label in the event a hazardous product is installed;
</P>
<P>(d) Employing a controlled procedure for identifying the listed and/or labeled equipment or materials tested; and
</P>
<P>(e) Rendering creditable reports or findings that are objective and without bias of the tests and test methods employed.
</P>
<P><I>Raceway.</I> A channel designed expressly for holding wires, cables, or busbars, with additional functions as permitted in this subpart. Raceways may be of metal or insulating material, and the term includes rigid metal conduit, rigid nonmetallic conduit, intermediate metal conduit, liquidtight flexible metal conduit, flexible metallic tubing, flexible metal conduit, electrical metallic tubing, underfloor raceways, cellular concrete floor raceways, cellular metal floor raceways, surface raceways, wireways, and busways.
</P>
<P><I>Readily accessible.</I> Capable of being reached quickly for operation, renewal, or inspections, without requiring those to whom ready access is requisite to climb over or remove obstacles or to resort to portable ladders, chairs, etc. (See <I>“Accessible.”</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Receptacle.</I> A receptacle is a contact device installed at the outlet for the connection of a single attachment plug. A single receptacle is a single contact device with no other contact device on the same yoke. A multiple receptacle is a single device containing two or more receptacles.
</P>
<P><I>Receptacle outlet.</I> An outlet where one or more receptacles are installed.
</P>
<P><I>Remote-control circuit.</I> Any electric circuit that controls any other circuit through a relay or an equivalent device.
</P>
<P><I>Sealable equipment.</I> Equipment enclosed in a case or cabinet that is provided with a means of sealing or locking so that live parts cannot be made accessible without opening the enclosure. The equipment may or may not be operable without opening the enclosure.
</P>
<P><I>Separately derived system.</I> A premises wiring system whose power is derived from generator, transformer, or converter windings and has no direct electrical connection, including a solidly connected grounded circuit conductor, to supply conductors originating in another system.
</P>
<P><I>Service.</I> The conductors and equipment for delivering energy from the electricity supply system to the wiring system of the premises served.
</P>
<P><I>Service conductors.</I> The supply conductors that extend from the street main or from transformers to the service equipment of the premises supplied.
</P>
<P><I>Service drop.</I> The overhead service conductors from the last pole or other aerial support to and including the splices, if any, connecting to the service-entrance conductors at the building or other structure.
</P>
<P><I>Service-entrance conductors, overhead system.</I> The service conductors between the terminals of the service equipment and a point usually outside the building, clear of building walls, where joined by tap or splice to the service drop.
</P>
<P><I>Service-entrance conductors, underground system.</I> The service conductors between the terminals of the service equipment and the point of connection to the service lateral. Where service equipment is located outside the building walls, there may be no service-entrance conductors, or they may be entirely outside the building.
</P>
<P><I>Service equipment.</I> The necessary equipment, usually consisting of a circuit breaker or switch and fuses, and their accessories, located near the point of entrance of supply conductors to a building or other structure, or an otherwise defined area, and intended to constitute the main control and means of cutoff of the supply.
</P>
<P><I>Service raceway.</I> The raceway that encloses the service-entrance conductors.
</P>
<P><I>Signaling circuit.</I> Any electric circuit that energizes signaling equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Switchboard.</I> A large single panel, frame, or assembly of panels which have switches, buses, instruments, overcurrent and other protective devices mounted on the face or back or both. Switchboards are generally accessible from the rear as well as from the front and are not intended to be installed in cabinets. (See <I>“Panelboard.”)</I>
</P>
<P><I>Switches</I>—(a) <I>General-use switch.</I> A switch intended for use in general distribution and branch circuits. It is rated in amperes, and it is capable of interrupting its rated current at its rated voltage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General-use snap switch.</I> A form of general-use switch so constructed that it can be installed in flush device boxes or on outlet box covers, or otherwise used in conjunction with wiring systems recognized by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Isolating switch.</I> A switch intended for isolating an electric circuit from the source of power. It has no interrupting rating, and it is intended to be operated only after the circuit has been opened by some other means.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motor-circuit switch.</I> A switch, rated in horsepower, capable of interrupting the maximum operating overload current of a motor of the same horsepower rating as the switch at the rated voltage.
</P>
<P><I>Switching devices.</I> (Over 600 volts, nominal.) Devices designed to close and/or open one or more electric circuits. Included in this category are circuit breakers, cutouts, disconnecting (or isolating) switches, disconnecting means, and interrupter switches.
</P>
<P><I>Transportable X-ray.</I> X-ray equipment installed in a vehicle or that may readily be disassembled for transport in a vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Utilization equipment.</I> Utilization equipment means equipment which utilizes electric energy for mechanical, chemical, heating, lighting, or similar useful purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Utilization system.</I> A utilization system is a system which provides electric power and light for employee workplaces, and includes the premises wiring system and utilization equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Ventilated.</I> Provided with a means to permit circulation of air sufficient to remove an excess of heat, fumes, or vapors.
</P>
<P><I>Volatile flammable liquid.</I> A flammable liquid having a flash point below 38 degrees C (100 degrees F) or whose temperature is above its flash point, or a Class II combustible liquid having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psia (276 kPa) at 38 °C (100 °F) whose temperature is above its flash point.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage.</I> (Of a circuit.) The greatest root-mean-square (effective) difference of potential between any two conductors of the circuit concerned.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage, nominal.</I> A nominal value assigned to a circuit or system for the purpose of conveniently designating its voltage class (as 120/240, 480Y/277, 600, etc.). The actual voltage at which a circuit operates can vary from the nominal within a range that permits satisfactory operation of equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage to ground.</I> For grounded circuits, the voltage between the given conductor and that point or conductor of the circuit that is grounded; for ungrounded circuits, the greatest voltage between the given conductor and any other conductor of the circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Watertight.</I> So constructed that moisture will not enter the enclosure.
</P>
<P><I>Weatherproof.</I> So constructed or protected that exposure to the weather will not interfere with successful operation. Rainproof, raintight, or watertight equipment can fulfill the requirements for weatherproof where varying weather conditions other than wetness, such as snow, ice, dust, or temperature extremes, are not a factor.
</P>
<P><I>Wet location.</I> See <I>“Location.”</I>




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Scaffolds</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 333; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order Nos. 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912); and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 46104, Aug. 30, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.450" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.450   Scope, application and definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This subpart applies to all scaffolds used in workplaces covered by this part. It does not apply to crane or derrick suspended personnel platforms. The criteria for aerial lifts are set out exclusively in § 1926.453.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Adjustable suspension scaffold</I> means a suspension scaffold equipped with a hoist(s) that can be operated by an employee(s) on the scaffold.
</P>
<P><I>Bearer (putlog)</I> means a horizontal transverse scaffold member (which may be supported by ledgers or runners) upon which the scaffold platform rests and which joins scaffold uprights, posts, poles, and similar members.
</P>
<P><I>Boatswains' chair</I> means a single-point adjustable suspension scaffold consisting of a seat or sling designed to support one employee in a sitting position.
</P>
<P><I>Body belt (safety belt)</I> means a strap with means both for securing it about the waist and for attaching it to a lanyard, lifeline, or deceleration device.
</P>
<P><I>Body harness</I> means a design of straps which may be secured about the employee in a manner to distribute the fall arrest forces over at least the thighs, pelvis, waist, chest and shoulders, with means for attaching it to other components of a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P><I>Brace</I> means a rigid connection that holds one scaffold member in a fixed position with respect to another member, or to a building or structure.
</P>
<P><I>Bricklayers' square scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold composed of framed squares which support a platform.
</P>
<P><I>Carpenters' bracket scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform supported by brackets attached to building or structural walls.
</P>
<P><I>Catenary scaffold</I> means a suspension scaffold consisting of a platform supported by two essentially horizontal and parallel ropes attached to structural members of a building or other structure. Additional support may be provided by vertical pickups.
</P>
<P><I>Chimney hoist</I> means a multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold used to provide access to work inside chimneys. (See “Multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold”.)
</P>
<P><I>Cleat</I> means a structural block used at the end of a platform to prevent the platform from slipping off its supports. Cleats are also used to provide footing on sloped surfaces such as crawling boards.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
</P>
<P><I>Continuous run scaffold (Run scaffold)</I> means a two- point or multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold constructed using a series of interconnected braced scaffold members or supporting structures erected to form a continuous scaffold.
</P>
<P><I>Coupler</I> means a device for locking together the tubes of a tube and coupler scaffold.
</P>
<P><I>Crawling board (chicken ladder)</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a plank with cleats spaced and secured to provide footing, for use on sloped surfaces such as roofs.
</P>
<P><I>Deceleration device</I> means any mechanism, such as a rope grab, rip-stitch lanyard, specially-woven lanyard, tearing or deforming lanyard, or automatic self-retracting lifeline lanyard, which dissipates a substantial amount of energy during a fall arrest or limits the energy imposed on an employee during fall arrest.
</P>
<P><I>Double pole (independent pole) scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform(s) resting on cross beams (bearers) supported by ledgers and a double row of uprights independent of support (except ties, guys, braces) from any structure.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent</I> means alternative designs, materials or methods to protect against a hazard which the employer can demonstrate will provide an equal or greater degree of safety for employees than the methods, materials or designs specified in the standard.
</P>
<P><I>Exposed power lines</I> means electrical power lines which are accessible to employees and which are not shielded from contact. Such lines do not include extension cords or power tool cords.
</P>
<P><I>Eye</I> or <I>Eye splice</I> means a loop with or without a thimble at the end of a wire rope.
</P>
<P><I>Fabricated decking and planking</I> means manufactured platforms made of wood (including laminated wood, and solid sawn wood planks), metal or other materials.
</P>
<P><I>Fabricated frame scaffold (tubular welded frame scaffold)</I> means a scaffold consisting of a platform(s) supported on fabricated end frames with integral posts, horizontal bearers, and intermediate members.
</P>
<P><I>Failure</I> means load refusal, breakage, or separation of component parts. Load refusal is the point where the ultimate strength is exceeded.
</P>
<P><I>Float (ship) scaffold</I> means a suspension scaffold consisting of a braced platform resting on two parallel bearers and hung from overhead supports by ropes of fixed length.
</P>
<P><I>Form scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform supported by brackets attached to formwork.
</P>
<P><I>Guardrail system</I> means a vertical barrier, consisting of, but not limited to, toprails, midrails, and posts, erected to prevent employees from falling off a scaffold platform or walkway to lower levels.
</P>
<P><I>Hoist</I> means a manual or power-operated mechanical device to raise or lower a suspended scaffold.
</P>
<P><I>Horse scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform supported by construction horses (saw horses). Horse scaffolds constructed of metal are sometimes known as trestle scaffolds.
</P>
<P><I>Independent pole scaffold</I> (see “Double pole scaffold”).
</P>
<P><I>Interior hung scaffold</I> means a suspension scaffold consisting of a platform suspended from the ceiling or roof structure by fixed length supports.
</P>
<P><I>Ladder jack scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform resting on brackets attached to ladders.
</P>
<P><I>Ladder stand</I> means a mobile, fixed-size, self-supporting ladder consisting of a wide flat tread ladder in the form of stairs.
</P>
<P><I>Landing</I> means a platform at the end of a flight of stairs.
</P>
<P><I>Large area scaffold</I> means a pole scaffold, tube and coupler scaffold, systems scaffold, or fabricated frame scaffold erected over substantially the entire work area. For example: a scaffold erected over the entire floor area of a room.
</P>
<P><I>Lean-to scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold which is kept erect by tilting it toward and resting it against a building or structure.
</P>
<P><I>Lifeline</I> means a component consisting of a flexible line that connects to an anchorage at one end to hang vertically (vertical lifeline), or that connects to anchorages at both ends to stretch horizontally (horizontal lifeline), and which serves as a means for connecting other components of a personal fall arrest system to the anchorage.
</P>
<P><I>Lower levels</I> means areas below the level where the employee is located and to which an employee can fall. Such areas include, but are not limited to, ground levels, floors, roofs, ramps, runways, excavations, pits, tanks, materials, water, and equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Masons' adjustable supported scaffold</I> (see “Self-contained adjustable scaffold”).
</P>
<P><I>Masons' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold</I> means a continuous run suspension scaffold designed and used for masonry operations.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum intended load</I> means the total load of all persons, equipment, tools, materials, transmitted loads, and other loads reasonably anticipated to be applied to a scaffold or scaffold component at any one time.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile scaffold</I> means a powered or unpowered, portable, caster or wheel-mounted supported scaffold.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-level suspended scaffold</I> means a two-point or multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold with a series of platforms at various levels resting on common stirrups.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold</I> means a suspension scaffold consisting of a platform(s) which is suspended by more than two ropes from overhead supports and equipped with means to raise and lower the platform to desired work levels. Such scaffolds include chimney hoists.
</P>
<P><I>Needle beam scaffold</I> means a platform suspended from needle beams.
</P>
<P><I>Open sides and ends</I> means the edges of a platform that are more than 14 inches (36 cm) away horizontally from a sturdy, continuous, vertical surface (such as a building wall) or a sturdy, continuous horizontal surface (such as a floor), or a point of access. Exception: For plastering and lathing operations the horizontal threshold distance is 18 inches (46 cm).
</P>
<P><I>Outrigger</I> means the structural member of a supported scaffold used to increase the base width of a scaffold in order to provide support for and increased stability of the scaffold.
</P>
<P><I>Outrigger beam (Thrustout)</I> means the structural member of a suspension scaffold or outrigger scaffold which provides support for the scaffold by extending the scaffold point of attachment to a point out and away from the structure or building.
</P>
<P><I>Outrigger scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform resting on outrigger beams (thrustouts) projecting beyond the wall or face of the building or structure, the inboard ends of which are secured inside the building or structure.
</P>
<P><I>Overhand bricklaying</I> means the process of laying bricks and masonry units such that the surface of the wall to be jointed is on the opposite side of the wall from the mason, requiring the mason to lean over the wall to complete the work. It includes mason tending and electrical installation incorporated into the brick wall during the overhand bricklaying process.
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system</I> means a system used to arrest an employee's fall. It consists of an anchorage, connectors, a body belt or body harness and may include a lanyard, deceleration device, lifeline, or combinations of these.
</P>
<P><I>Platform</I> means a work surface elevated above lower levels. Platforms can be constructed using individual wood planks, fabricated planks, fabricated decks, and fabricated platforms.
</P>
<P><I>Pole scaffold</I> (see definitions for “Single-pole scaffold” and “Double (independent) pole scaffold”).
</P>
<P><I>Power operated hoist</I> means a hoist which is powered by other than human energy.
</P>
<P><I>Pump jack scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform supported by vertical poles and movable support brackets.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified</I> means one who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated his/her ability to solve or resolve problems related to the subject matter, the work, or the project.
</P>
<P><I>Rated load</I> means the manufacturer's specified maximum load to be lifted by a hoist or to be applied to a scaffold or scaffold component.
</P>
<P><I>Repair bracket scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform supported by brackets which are secured in place around the circumference or perimeter of a chimney, stack, tank or other supporting structure by one or more wire ropes placed around the supporting structure.
</P>
<P><I>Roof bracket scaffold</I> means a rooftop supported scaffold consisting of a platform resting on angular-shaped supports.
</P>
<P><I>Runner (ledger or ribbon)</I> means the lengthwise horizontal spacing or bracing member which may support the bearers.
</P>
<P><I>Scaffold</I> means any temporary elevated platform (supported or suspended) and its supporting structure (including points of anchorage), used for supporting employees or materials or both.
</P>
<P><I>Self-contained adjustable scaffold</I> means a combination supported and suspension scaffold consisting of an adjustable platform(s) mounted on an independent supporting frame(s) not a part of the object being worked on, and which is equipped with a means to permit the raising and lowering of the platform(s). Such systems include rolling roof rigs, rolling outrigger systems, and some masons' adjustable supported scaffolds.
</P>
<P><I>Shore scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold which is placed against a building or structure and held in place with props.
</P>
<P><I>Single-point adjustable suspension scaffold</I> means a suspension scaffold consisting of a platform suspended by one rope from an overhead support and equipped with means to permit the movement of the platform to desired work levels.
</P>
<P><I>Single-pole scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform(s) resting on bearers, the outside ends of which are supported on runners secured to a single row of posts or uprights, and the inner ends of which are supported on or in a structure or building wall.
</P>
<P><I>Stair tower (Scaffold stairway/tower)</I> means a tower comprised of scaffold components and which contains internal stairway units and rest platforms. These towers are used to provide access to scaffold platforms and other elevated points such as floors and roofs.
</P>
<P><I>Stall load</I> means the load at which the prime-mover of a power-operated hoist stalls or the power to the prime-mover is automatically disconnected.
</P>
<P><I>Step, platform, and trestle ladder scaffold</I> means a platform resting directly on the rungs of step ladders or trestle ladders.
</P>
<P><I>Stilts</I> means a pair of poles or similar supports with raised footrests, used to permit walking above the ground or working surface.
</P>
<P><I>Stonesetters' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold</I> means a continuous run suspension scaffold designed and used for stonesetters' operations.
</P>
<P><I>Supported scaffold</I> means one or more platforms supported by outrigger beams, brackets, poles, legs, uprights, posts, frames, or similar rigid support.
</P>
<P><I>Suspension scaffold</I> means one or more platforms suspended by ropes or other non-rigid means from an overhead structure(s).
</P>
<P><I>System scaffold</I> means a scaffold consisting of posts with fixed connection points that accept runners, bearers, and diagonals that can be interconnected at predetermined levels.
</P>
<P><I>Tank builders' scaffold</I> means a supported scaffold consisting of a platform resting on brackets that are either directly attached to a cylindrical tank or attached to devices that are attached to such a tank.
</P>
<P><I>Top plate bracket scaffold</I> means a scaffold supported by brackets that hook over or are attached to the top of a wall. This type of scaffold is similar to carpenters' bracket scaffolds and form scaffolds and is used in residential construction for setting trusses.
</P>
<P><I>Tube and coupler scaffold</I> means a supported or suspended scaffold consisting of a platform(s) supported by tubing, erected with coupling devices connecting uprights, braces, bearers, and runners.
</P>
<P><I>Tubular welded frame scaffold</I> (see “Fabricated frame scaffold”).
</P>
<P><I>Two-point suspension scaffold (swing stage)</I> means a suspension scaffold consisting of a platform supported by hangers (stirrups) suspended by two ropes from overhead supports and equipped with means to permit the raising and lowering of the platform to desired work levels.
</P>
<P><I>Unstable objects</I> means items whose strength, configuration, or lack of stability may allow them to become dislocated and shift and therefore may not properly support the loads imposed on them. Unstable objects do not constitute a safe base support for scaffolds, platforms, or employees. Examples include, but are not limited to, barrels, boxes, loose brick, and concrete blocks.
</P>
<P><I>Vertical pickup</I> means a rope used to support the horizontal rope in catenary scaffolds.
</P>
<P><I>Walkway</I> means a portion of a scaffold platform used only for access and not as a work level.
</P>
<P><I>Window jack scaffold</I> means a platform resting on a bracket or jack which projects through a window opening.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 46104, Aug. 30, 1996, as amended at 75 FR 48133, Aug. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.451" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.451   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>This section does not apply to aerial lifts, the criteria for which are set out exclusively in § 1926.453.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Capacity.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5) and (g) of this section, each scaffold and scaffold component shall be capable of supporting, without failure, its own weight and at least 4 times the maximum intended load applied or transmitted to it.
</P>
<P>(2) Direct connections to roofs and floors, and counterweights used to balance adjustable suspension scaffolds, shall be capable of resisting at least 4 times the tipping moment imposed by the scaffold operating at the rated load of the hoist, or 1.5 (minimum) times the tipping moment imposed by the scaffold operating at the stall load of the hoist, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(3) Each suspension rope, including connecting hardware, used on non-adjustable suspension scaffolds shall be capable of supporting, without failure, at least 6 times the maximum intended load applied or transmitted to that rope.
</P>
<P>(4) Each suspension rope, including connecting hardware, used on adjustable suspension scaffolds shall be capable of supporting, without failure, at least 6 times the maximum intended load applied or transmitted to that rope with the scaffold operating at either the rated load of the hoist, or 2 (minimum) times the stall load of the hoist, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(5) The stall load of any scaffold hoist shall not exceed 3 times its rated load.
</P>
<P>(6) Scaffolds shall be designed by a qualified person and shall be constructed and loaded in accordance with that design. Non-mandatory appendix A to this subpart contains examples of criteria that will enable an employer to comply with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scaffold platform construction.</I> (1) Each platform on all working levels of scaffolds shall be fully planked or decked between the front uprights and the guardrail supports as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Each platform unit (e.g., scaffold plank, fabricated plank, fabricated deck, or fabricated platform) shall be installed so that the space between adjacent units and the space between the platform and the uprights is no more than 1 inch (2.5 cm) wide, except where the employer can demonstrate that a wider space is necessary (for example, to fit around uprights when side brackets are used to extend the width of the platform).
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer makes the demonstration provided for in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, the platform shall be planked or decked as fully as possible and the remaining open space between the platform and the uprights shall not exceed 9
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (24.1 cm).
</P>
<P>Exception to paragraph (b)(1): The requirement in paragraph (b)(1) to provide full planking or decking does not apply to platforms used solely as walkways or solely by employees performing scaffold erection or dismantling. In these situations, only the planking that the employer establishes is necessary to provide safe working conditions is required.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section, each scaffold platform and walkway shall be at least 18 inches (46 cm) wide.
</P>
<P>(i) Each ladder jack scaffold, top plate bracket scaffold, roof bracket scaffold, and pump jack scaffold shall be at least 12 inches (30 cm) wide. There is no minimum width requirement for boatswains' chairs.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Pursuant to an administrative stay effective November 29, 1996 and published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on November 25, 1996, the requirement in paragraph (b)(2)(i) that roof bracket scaffolds be at least 12 inches wide is stayed until November 25, 1997 or until rulemaking regarding the minimum width of roof bracket scaffolds has been completed, whichever is later.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Where scaffolds must be used in areas that the employer can demonstrate are so narrow that platforms and walkways cannot be at least 18 inches (46 cm) wide, such platforms and walkways shall be as wide as feasible, and employees on those platforms and walkways shall be protected from fall hazards by the use of guardrails and/or personal fall arrest systems.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section, the front edge of all platforms shall not be more than 14 inches (36 cm) from the face of the work, unless guardrail systems are erected along the front edge and/or personal fall arrest systems are used in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section to protect employees from falling.
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum distance from the face for outrigger scaffolds shall be 3 inches (8 cm);
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum distance from the face for plastering and lathing operations shall be 18 inches (46 cm).
</P>
<P>(4) Each end of a platform, unless cleated or otherwise restrained by hooks or equivalent means, shall extend over the centerline of its support at least 6 inches (15 cm).
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Each end of a platform 10 feet or less in length shall not extend over its support more than 12 inches (30 cm) unless the platform is designed and installed so that the cantilevered portion of the platform is able to support employees and/or materials without tipping, or has guardrails which block employee access to the cantilevered end.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each platform greater than 10 feet in length shall not extend over its support more than 18 inches (46 cm), unless it is designed and installed so that the cantilevered portion of the platform is able to support employees without tipping, or has guardrails which block employee access to the cantilevered end.
</P>
<P>(6) On scaffolds where scaffold planks are abutted to create a long platform, each abutted end shall rest on a separate support surface. This provision does not preclude the use of common support members, such as “T” sections, to support abutting planks, or hook on platforms designed to rest on common supports.
</P>
<P>(7) On scaffolds where platforms are overlapped to create a long platform, the overlap shall occur only over supports, and shall not be less than 12 inches (30 cm) unless the platforms are nailed together or otherwise restrained to prevent movement.
</P>
<P>(8) At all points of a scaffold where the platform changes direction, such as turning a corner, any platform that rests on a bearer at an angle other than a right angle shall be laid first, and platforms which rest at right angles over the same bearer shall be laid second, on top of the first platform.
</P>
<P>(9) Wood platforms shall not be covered with opaque finishes, except that platform edges may be covered or marked for identification. Platforms may be coated periodically with wood preservatives, fire-retardant finishes, and slip-resistant finishes; however, the coating may not obscure the top or bottom wood surfaces.
</P>
<P>(10) Scaffold components manufactured by different manufacturers shall not be intermixed unless the components fit together without force and the scaffold's structural integrity is maintained by the user. Scaffold components manufactured by different manufacturers shall not be modified in order to intermix them unless a competent person determines the resulting scaffold is structurally sound.
</P>
<P>(11) Scaffold components made of dissimilar metals shall not be used together unless a competent person has determined that galvanic action will not reduce the strength of any component to a level below that required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for supported scaffolds.</I> (1) Supported scaffolds with a height to base width (including outrigger supports, if used) ratio of more than four to one (4:1) shall be restrained from tipping by guying, tying, bracing, or equivalent means, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Guys, ties, and braces shall be installed at locations where horizontal members support both inner and outer legs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Guys, ties, and braces shall be installed according to the scaffold manufacturer's recommendations or at the closest horizontal member to the 4:1 height and be repeated vertically at locations of horizontal members every 20 feet (6.1 m) or less thereafter for scaffolds 3 feet (0.91 m) wide or less, and every 26 feet (7.9 m) or less thereafter for scaffolds greater than 3 feet (0.91 m) wide. The top guy, tie or brace of completed scaffolds shall be placed no further than the 4:1 height from the top. Such guys, ties and braces shall be installed at each end of the scaffold and at horizontal intervals not to exceed 30 feet (9.1 m) (measured from one end [not both] towards the other).
</P>
<P>(iii) Ties, guys, braces, or outriggers shall be used to prevent the tipping of supported scaffolds in all circumstances where an eccentric load, such as a cantilevered work platform, is applied or is transmitted to the scaffold.
</P>
<P>(2) Supported scaffold poles, legs, posts, frames, and uprights shall bear on base plates and mud sills or other adequate firm foundation.
</P>
<P>(i) Footings shall be level, sound, rigid, and capable of supporting the loaded scaffold without settling or displacement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unstable objects shall not be used to support scaffolds or platform units.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unstable objects shall not be used as working platforms.
</P>
<P>(iv) Front-end loaders and similar pieces of equipment shall not be used to support scaffold platforms unless they have been specifically designed by the manufacturer for such use.
</P>
<P>(v) Fork-lifts shall not be used to support scaffold platforms unless the entire platform is attached to the fork and the fork-lift is not moved horizontally while the platform is occupied.
</P>
<P>(3) Supported scaffold poles, legs, posts, frames, and uprights shall be plumb and braced to prevent swaying and displacement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Criteria for suspension scaffolds.</I> (1) All suspension scaffold support devices, such as outrigger beams, cornice hooks, parapet clamps, and similar devices, shall rest on surfaces capable of supporting at least 4 times the load imposed on them by the scaffold operating at the rated load of the hoist (or at least 1.5 times the load imposed on them by the scaffold at the stall capacity of the hoist, whichever is greater).
</P>
<P>(2) Suspension scaffold outrigger beams, when used, shall be made of structural metal or equivalent strength material, and shall be restrained to prevent movement.
</P>
<P>(3) The inboard ends of suspension scaffold outrigger beams shall be stabilized by bolts or other direct connections to the floor or roof deck, or they shall have their inboard ends stabilized by counterweights, except masons' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold outrigger beams shall not be stabilized by counterweights.
</P>
<P>(i) Before the scaffold is used, direct connections shall be evaluated by a competent person who shall confirm, based on the evaluation, that the supporting surfaces are capable of supporting the loads to be imposed. In addition, masons' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold connections shall be designed by an engineer experienced in such scaffold design.
</P>
<P>(ii) Counterweights shall be made of non-flowable material. Sand, gravel and similar materials that can be easily dislocated shall not be used as counterweights.
</P>
<P>(iii) Only those items specifically designed as counterweights shall be used to counterweight scaffold systems. Construction materials such as, but not limited to, masonry units and rolls of roofing felt, shall not be used as counterweights.
</P>
<P>(iv) Counterweights shall be secured by mechanical means to the outrigger beams to prevent accidental displacement.
</P>
<P>(v) Counterweights shall not be removed from an outrigger beam until the scaffold is disassembled.
</P>
<P>(vi) Outrigger beams which are not stabilized by bolts or other direct connections to the floor or roof deck shall be secured by tiebacks.
</P>
<P>(vii) Tiebacks shall be equivalent in strength to the suspension ropes.
</P>
<P>(viii) Outrigger beams shall be placed perpendicular to its bearing support (usually the face of the building or structure). However, where the employer can demonstrate that it is not possible to place an outrigger beam perpendicular to the face of the building or structure because of obstructions that cannot be moved, the outrigger beam may be placed at some other angle, provided opposing angle tiebacks are used.
</P>
<P>(ix) Tiebacks shall be secured to a structurally sound anchorage on the building or structure. Sound anchorages include structural members, but do not include standpipes, vents, other piping systems, or electrical conduit.
</P>
<P>(x) Tiebacks shall be installed perpendicular to the face of the building or structure, or opposing angle tiebacks shall be installed. Single tiebacks installed at an angle are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(4) Suspension scaffold outrigger beams shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Provided with stop bolts or shackles at both ends;
</P>
<P>(ii) Securely fastened together with the flanges turned out when channel iron beams are used in place of I-beams;
</P>
<P>(iii) Installed with all bearing supports perpendicular to the beam center line;
</P>
<P>(iv) Set and maintained with the web in a vertical position; and
</P>
<P>(v) When an outrigger beam is used, the shackle or clevis with which the rope is attached to the outrigger beam shall be placed directly over the center line of the stirrup.
</P>
<P>(5) Suspension scaffold support devices such as cornice hooks, roof hooks, roof irons, parapet clamps, or similar devices shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Made of steel, wrought iron, or materials of equivalent strength;
</P>
<P>(ii) Supported by bearing blocks; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Secured against movement by tiebacks installed at right angles to the face of the building or structure, or opposing angle tiebacks shall be installed and secured to a structurally sound point of anchorage on the building or structure. Sound points of anchorage include structural members, but do not include standpipes, vents, other piping systems, or electrical conduit.
</P>
<P>(iv) Tiebacks shall be equivalent in strength to the hoisting rope.
</P>
<P>(6) When winding drum hoists are used on a suspension scaffold, they shall contain not less than four wraps of the suspension rope at the lowest point of scaffold travel. When other types of hoists are used, the suspension ropes shall be long enough to allow the scaffold to be lowered to the level below without the rope end passing through the hoist, or the rope end shall be configured or provided with means to prevent the end from passing through the hoist.
</P>
<P>(7) The use of repaired wire rope as suspension rope is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(8) Wire suspension ropes shall not be joined together except through the use of eye splice thimbles connected with shackles or coverplates and bolts.
</P>
<P>(9) The load end of wire suspension ropes shall be equipped with proper size thimbles and secured by eyesplicing or equivalent means.
</P>
<P>(10) Ropes shall be inspected for defects by a competent person prior to each workshift and after every occurrence which could affect a rope's integrity. Ropes shall be replaced if any of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(i) Any physical damage which impairs the function and strength of the rope.
</P>
<P>(ii) Kinks that might impair the tracking or wrapping of rope around the drum(s) or sheave(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) Six randomly distributed broken wires in one rope lay or three broken wires in one strand in one rope lay.
</P>
<P>(iv) Abrasion, corrosion, scrubbing, flattening or peening causing loss of more than one-third of the original diameter of the outside wires.
</P>
<P>(v) Heat damage caused by a torch or any damage caused by contact with electrical wires.
</P>
<P>(vi) Evidence that the secondary brake has been activated during an overspeed condition and has engaged the suspension rope.
</P>
<P>(11) Swaged attachments or spliced eyes on wire suspension ropes shall not be used unless they are made by the wire rope manufacturer or a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(12) When wire rope clips are used on suspension scaffolds:
</P>
<P>(i) There shall be a minimum of 3 wire rope clips installed, with the clips a minimum of 6 rope diameters apart;
</P>
<P>(ii) Clips shall be installed according to the manufacturer's recommendations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Clips shall be retightened to the manufacturer's recommendations after the initial loading;
</P>
<P>(iv) Clips shall be inspected and retightened to the manufacturer's recommendations at the start of each workshift thereafter;
</P>
<P>(v) U-bolt clips shall not be used at the point of suspension for any scaffold hoist;
</P>
<P>(vi) When U-bolt clips are used, the U-bolt shall be placed over the dead end of the rope, and the saddle shall be placed over the live end of the rope.
</P>
<P>(13) Suspension scaffold power-operated hoists and manual hoists shall be tested by a qualified testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(14) Gasoline-powered equipment and hoists shall not be used on suspension scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(15) Gears and brakes of power-operated hoists used on suspension scaffolds shall be enclosed.
</P>
<P>(16) In addition to the normal operating brake, suspension scaffold power-operated hoists and manually operated hoists shall have a braking device or locking pawl which engages automatically when a hoist makes either of the following uncontrolled movements: an instantaneous change in momentum or an accelerated overspeed.
</P>
<P>(17) Manually operated hoists shall require a positive crank force to descend.
</P>
<P>(18) Two-point and multi-point suspension scaffolds shall be tied or otherwise secured to prevent them from swaying, as determined to be necessary based on an evaluation by a competent person. Window cleaners' anchors shall not be used for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(19) Devices whose sole function is to provide emergency escape and rescue shall not be used as working platforms. This provision does not preclude the use of systems which are designed to function both as suspension scaffolds and emergency systems.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access.</I> This paragraph applies to scaffold access for all employees. Access requirements for employees erecting or dismantling supported scaffolds are specifically addressed in paragraph (e)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) When scaffold platforms are more than 2 feet (0.6 m) above or below a point of access, portable ladders, hook-on ladders, attachable ladders, stair towers (scaffold stairways/towers), stairway-type ladders (such as ladder stands), ramps, walkways, integral prefabricated scaffold access, or direct access from another scaffold, structure, personnel hoist, or similar surface shall be used. Crossbraces shall not be used as a means of access.
</P>
<P>(2) Portable, hook-on, and attachable ladders (Additional requirements for the proper construction and use of portable ladders are contained in subpart X of this part—Stairways and Ladders):
</P>
<P>(i) Portable, hook-on, and attachable ladders shall be positioned so as not to tip the scaffold;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hook-on and attachable ladders shall be positioned so that their bottom rung is not more than 24 inches (61 cm) above the scaffold supporting level;
</P>
<P>(iii) When hook-on and attachable ladders are used on a supported scaffold more than 35 feet (10.7 m) high, they shall have rest platforms at 35-foot (10.7 m) maximum vertical intervals.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hook-on and attachable ladders shall be specifically designed for use with the type of scaffold used;
</P>
<P>(v) Hook-on and attachable ladders shall have a minimum rung length of 11
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (29 cm); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Hook-on and attachable ladders shall have uniformly spaced rungs with a maximum spacing between rungs of 16
<FR>3/4</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>(3) Stairway-type ladders shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be positioned such that their bottom step is not more than 24 inches (61 cm) above the scaffold supporting level;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be provided with rest platforms at 12 foot (3.7 m) maximum vertical intervals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Have a minimum step width of 16 inches (41 cm), except that mobile scaffold stairway-type ladders shall have a minimum step width of 11
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (30 cm); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Have slip-resistant treads on all steps and landings.
</P>
<P>(4) Stairtowers (scaffold stairway/towers) shall be positioned such that their bottom step is not more than 24 inches (61 cm.) above the scaffold supporting level.
</P>
<P>(i) A stairrail consisting of a toprail and a midrail shall be provided on each side of each scaffold stairway.
</P>
<P>(ii) The toprail of each stairrail system shall also be capable of serving as a handrail, unless a separate handrail is provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) Handrails, and toprails that serve as handrails, shall provide an adequate handhold for employees grasping them to avoid falling.
</P>
<P>(iv) Stairrail systems and handrails shall be surfaced to prevent injury to employees from punctures or lacerations, and to prevent snagging of clothing.
</P>
<P>(v) The ends of stairrail systems and handrails shall be constructed so that they do not constitute a projection hazard.
</P>
<P>(vi) Handrails, and toprails that are used as handrails, shall be at least 3 inches (7.6 cm) from other objects.
</P>
<P>(vii) Stairrails shall be not less than 28 inches (71 cm) nor more than 37 inches (94 cm) from the upper surface of the stairrail to the surface of the tread, in line with the face of the riser at the forward edge of the tread.
</P>
<P>(viii) A landing platform at least 18 inches (45.7 cm) wide by at least 18 inches (45.7 cm) long shall be provided at each level.
</P>
<P>(ix) Each scaffold stairway shall be at least 18 inches (45.7 cm) wide between stairrails.
</P>
<P>(x) Treads and landings shall have slip-resistant surfaces.
</P>
<P>(xi) Stairways shall be installed between 40 degrees and 60 degrees from the horizontal.
</P>
<P>(xii) Guardrails meeting the requirements of paragraph (g)(4) of this section shall be provided on the open sides and ends of each landing.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Riser height shall be uniform, within 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch, (0.6 cm) for each flight of stairs. Greater variations in riser height are allowed for the top and bottom steps of the entire system, not for each flight of stairs.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Tread depth shall be uniform, within 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch, for each flight of stairs.
</P>
<P>(5) Ramps and walkways. (i) Ramps and walkways 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels shall have guardrail systems which comply with subpart M of this part—Fall Protection;
</P>
<P>(ii) No ramp or walkway shall be inclined more than a slope of one (1) vertical to three (3) horizontal (20 degrees above the horizontal).
</P>
<P>(iii) If the slope of a ramp or a walkway is steeper than one (1) vertical in eight (8) horizontal, the ramp or walkway shall have cleats not more than fourteen (14) inches (35 cm) apart which are securely fastened to the planks to provide footing.
</P>
<P>(6) Integral prefabricated scaffold access frames shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be specifically designed and constructed for use as ladder rungs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a rung length of at least 8 inches (20 cm);
</P>
<P>(iii) Not be used as work platforms when rungs are less than 11
<FR>1/2</FR> inches in length, unless each affected employee uses fall protection, or a positioning device, which complies with § 1926.502;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be uniformly spaced within each frame section;
</P>
<P>(v) Be provided with rest platforms at 35-foot (10.7 m) maximum vertical intervals on all supported scaffolds more than 35 feet (10.7 m) high; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Have a maximum spacing between rungs of 16
<FR>3/4</FR> inches (43 cm). Non-uniform rung spacing caused by joining end frames together is allowed, provided the resulting spacing does not exceed 16
<FR>3/4</FR> inches (43 cm).
</P>
<P>(7) Steps and rungs of ladder and stairway type access shall line up vertically with each other between rest platforms.
</P>
<P>(8) Direct access to or from another surface shall be used only when the scaffold is not more than 14 inches (36 cm) horizontally and not more than 24 inches (61 cm) vertically from the other surface.
</P>
<P>(9) Effective September 2, 1997, access for employees erecting or dismantling supported scaffolds shall be in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall provide safe means of access for each employee erecting or dismantling a scaffold where the provision of safe access is feasible and does not create a greater hazard. The employer shall have a competent person determine whether it is feasible or would pose a greater hazard to provide, and have employees use a safe means of access. This determination shall be based on site conditions and the type of scaffold being erected or dismantled.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hook-on or attachable ladders shall be installed as soon as scaffold erection has progressed to a point that permits safe installation and use.
</P>
<P>(iii) When erecting or dismantling tubular welded frame scaffolds, (end) frames, with horizontal members that are parallel, level and are not more than 22 inches apart vertically may be used as climbing devices for access, provided they are erected in a manner that creates a usable ladder and provides good hand hold and foot space.
</P>
<P>(iv) Cross braces on tubular welded frame scaffolds shall not be used as a means of access or egress.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Use.</I> (1) Scaffolds and scaffold components shall not be loaded in excess of their maximum intended loads or rated capacities, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of shore or lean-to scaffolds is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) Scaffolds and scaffold components shall be inspected for visible defects by a competent person before each work shift, and after any occurrence which could affect a scaffold's structural integrity.
</P>
<P>(4) Any part of a scaffold damaged or weakened such that its strength is less than that required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be immediately repaired or replaced, braced to meet those provisions, or removed from service until repaired.
</P>
<P>(5) Scaffolds shall not be moved horizontally while employees are on them, unless they have been designed by a registered professional engineer specifically for such movement or, for mobile scaffolds, where the provisions of § 1926.452(w) are followed.
</P>
<P>(6) The clearance between scaffolds and power lines shall be as follows: Scaffolds shall not be erected, used, dismantled, altered, or moved such that they or any conductive material handled on them might come closer to exposed and energized power lines than as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Insulated lines
<br/>voltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum distance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Alternatives
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 300 volts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 feet (0.9 m)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300 volts to 50 kv</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet (3.1m)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 50 kv</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet (3.1 m) plus 0.4 inches (1.0 cm) for each 1 kv over 50 kv</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 times the length of the line insulator, but never less than 10 feet (3.1 m).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Uninsulated lines
<br/>voltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum distance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Alternatives
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 50 kv</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet (3.1 m)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 50 kv</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet (3.1 m) plus 0.4 inches (1.0 cm) for each 1 kv over 50 kv</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 times the length of the line insulator, but never less than 10 feet (3.1 m).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Exception to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(6):</HED>
<P>Scaffolds and materials may be closer to power lines than specified above where such clearance is necessary for performance of work, and only after the utility company, or electrical system operator, has been notified of the need to work closer and the utility company, or electrical system operator, has deenergized the lines, relocated the lines, or installed protective coverings to prevent accidental contact with the lines.</P></NOTE>
<P>(7) Scaffolds shall be erected, moved, dismantled, or altered only under the supervision and direction of a competent person qualified in scaffold erection, moving, dismantling or alteration. Such activities shall be performed only by experienced and trained employees selected for such work by the competent person.
</P>
<P>(8) Employees shall be prohibited from working on scaffolds covered with snow, ice, or other slippery material except as necessary for removal of such materials.
</P>
<P>(9) Where swinging loads are being hoisted onto or near scaffolds such that the loads might contact the scaffold, tag lines or equivalent measures to control the loads shall be used.
</P>
<P>(10) Suspension ropes supporting adjustable suspension scaffolds shall be of a diameter large enough to provide sufficient surface area for the functioning of brake and hoist mechanisms.
</P>
<P>(11) Suspension ropes shall be shielded from heat-producing processes. When acids or other corrosive substances are used on a scaffold, the ropes shall be shielded, treated to protect against the corrosive substances, or shall be of a material that will not be damaged by the substance being used.
</P>
<P>(12) Work on or from scaffolds is prohibited during storms or high winds unless a competent person has determined that it is safe for employees to be on the scaffold and those employees are protected by a personal fall arrest system or wind screens. Wind screens shall not be used unless the scaffold is secured against the anticipated wind forces imposed.
</P>
<P>(13) Debris shall not be allowed to accumulate on platforms.
</P>
<P>(14) Makeshift devices, such as but not limited to boxes and barrels, shall not be used on top of scaffold platforms to increase the working level height of employees.
</P>
<P>(15) Ladders shall not be used on scaffolds to increase the working level height of employees, except on large area scaffolds where employers have satisfied the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) When the ladder is placed against a structure which is not a part of the scaffold, the scaffold shall be secured against the sideways thrust exerted by the ladder;
</P>
<P>(ii) The platform units shall be secured to the scaffold to prevent their movement;
</P>
<P>(iii) The ladder legs shall be on the same platform or other means shall be provided to stabilize the ladder against unequal platform deflection, and
</P>
<P>(iv) The ladder legs shall be secured to prevent them from slipping or being pushed off the platform.
</P>
<P>(16) Platforms shall not deflect more than 
<FR>1/60</FR> of the span when loaded.
</P>
<P>(17) To reduce the possibility of welding current arcing through the suspension wire rope when performing welding from suspended scaffolds, the following precautions shall be taken, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An insulated thimble shall be used to attach each suspension wire rope to its hanging support (such as cornice hook or outrigger). Excess suspension wire rope and any additional independent lines from grounding shall be insulated;
</P>
<P>(ii) The suspension wire rope shall be covered with insulating material extending at least 4 feet (1.2 m) above the hoist. If there is a tail line below the hoist, it shall be insulated to prevent contact with the platform. The portion of the tail line that hangs free below the scaffold shall be guided or retained, or both, so that it does not become grounded;
</P>
<P>(iii) Each hoist shall be covered with insulated protective covers;
</P>
<P>(iv) In addition to a work lead attachment required by the welding process, a grounding conductor shall be connected from the scaffold to the structure. The size of this conductor shall be at least the size of the welding process work lead, and this conductor shall not be in series with the welding process or the work piece;
</P>
<P>(v) If the scaffold grounding lead is disconnected at any time, the welding machine shall be shut off; and
</P>
<P>(vi) An active welding rod or uninsulated welding lead shall not be allowed to contact the scaffold or its suspension system.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fall protection.</I> (1) Each employee on a scaffold more than 10 feet (3.1 m) above a lower level shall be protected from falling to that lower level. Paragraphs (g)(1) (i) through (vii) of this section establish the types of fall protection to be provided to the employees on each type of scaffold. Paragraph (g)(2) of this section addresses fall protection for scaffold erectors and dismantlers.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>The fall protection requirements for employees installing suspension scaffold support systems on floors, roofs, and other elevated surfaces are set forth in subpart M of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) Each employee on a boatswains' chair, catenary scaffold, float scaffold, needle beam scaffold, or ladder jack scaffold shall be protected by a personal fall arrest system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee on a single-point or two-point adjustable suspension scaffold shall be protected by both a personal fall arrest system and guardrail system;
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee on a crawling board (chicken ladder) shall be protected by a personal fall arrest system, a guardrail system (with minimum 200 pound toprail capacity), or by a three-fourth inch (1.9 cm) diameter grabline or equivalent handhold securely fastened beside each crawling board;
</P>
<P>(iv) Each employee on a self-contained adjustable scaffold shall be protected by a guardrail system (with minimum 200 pound toprail capacity) when the platform is supported by the frame structure, and by both a personal fall arrest system and a guardrail system (with minimum 200 pound toprail capacity) when the platform is supported by ropes;
</P>
<P>(v) Each employee on a walkway located within a scaffold shall be protected by a guardrail system (with minimum 200 pound toprail capacity) installed within 9
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (24.1 cm) of and along at least one side of the walkway.
</P>
<P>(vi) Each employee performing overhand bricklaying operations from a supported scaffold shall be protected from falling from all open sides and ends of the scaffold (except at the side next to the wall being laid) by the use of a personal fall arrest system or guardrail system (with minimum 200 pound toprail capacity).
</P>
<P>(vii) For all scaffolds not otherwise specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) through (g)(1)(vi) of this section, each employee shall be protected by the use of personal fall arrest systems or guardrail systems meeting the requirements of paragraph (g)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Effective September 2, 1997, the employer shall have a competent person determine the feasibility and safety of providing fall protection for employees erecting or dismantling supported scaffolds. Employers are required to provide fall protection for employees erecting or dismantling supported scaffolds where the installation and use of such protection is feasible and does not create a greater hazard.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to meeting the requirements of § 1926.502(d), personal fall arrest systems used on scaffolds shall be attached by lanyard to a vertical lifeline, horizontal lifeline, or scaffold structural member. Vertical lifelines shall not be used when overhead components, such as overhead protection or additional platform levels, are part of a single-point or two-point adjustable suspension scaffold.
</P>
<P>(i) When vertical lifelines are used, they shall be fastened to a fixed safe point of anchorage, shall be independent of the scaffold, and shall be protected from sharp edges and abrasion. Safe points of anchorage include structural members of buildings, but do not include standpipes, vents, other piping systems, electrical conduit, outrigger beams, or counterweights.
</P>
<P>(ii) When horizontal lifelines are used, they shall be secured to two or more structural members of the scaffold, or they may be looped around both suspension and independent suspension lines (on scaffolds so equipped) above the hoist and brake attached to the end of the scaffold. Horizontal lifelines shall not be attached only to the suspension ropes.
</P>
<P>(iii) When lanyards are connected to horizontal lifelines or structural members on a single-point or two-point adjustable suspension scaffold, the scaffold shall be equipped with additional independent support lines and automatic locking devices capable of stopping the fall of the scaffold in the event one or both of the suspension ropes fail. The independent support lines shall be equal in number and strength to the suspension ropes.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vertical lifelines, independent support lines, and suspension ropes shall not be attached to each other, nor shall they be attached to or use the same point of anchorage, nor shall they be attached to the same point on the scaffold or personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(4) Guardrail systems installed to meet the requirements of this section shall comply with the following provisions (guardrail systems built in accordance with appendix A to this subpart will be deemed to meet the requirements of paragraphs (g)(4) (vii), (viii), and (ix) of this section):
</P>
<P>(i) Guardrail systems shall be installed along all open sides and ends of platforms. Guardrail systems shall be installed before the scaffold is released for use by employees other than erection/dismantling crews.
</P>
<P>(ii) The top edge height of toprails or equivalent member on supported scaffolds manufactured or placed in service after January 1, 2000 shall be installed between 38 inches (0.97 m) and 45 inches (1.2 m) above the platform surface. The top edge height on supported scaffolds manufactured and placed in service before January 1, 2000, and on all suspended scaffolds where both a guardrail and a personal fall arrest system are required shall be between 36 inches (0.9 m) and 45 inches (1.2 m). When conditions warrant, the height of the top edge may exceed the 45-inch height, provided the guardrail system meets all other criteria of paragraph (g)(4).
</P>
<P>(iii) When midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, solid panels, or equivalent structural members are used, they shall be installed between the top edge of the guardrail system and the scaffold platform.
</P>
<P>(iv) When midrails are used, they shall be installed at a height approximately midway between the top edge of the guardrail system and the platform surface.
</P>
<P>(v) When screens and mesh are used, they shall extend from the top edge of the guardrail system to the scaffold platform, and along the entire opening between the supports.
</P>
<P>(vi) When intermediate members (such as balusters or additional rails) are used, they shall not be more than 19 inches (48 cm) apart.
</P>
<P>(vii) Each toprail or equivalent member of a guardrail system shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force applied in any downward or horizontal direction at any point along its top edge of at least 100 pounds (445 n) for guardrail systems installed on single-point adjustable suspension scaffolds or two-point adjustable suspension scaffolds, and at least 200 pounds (890 n) for guardrail systems installed on all other scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(viii) When the loads specified in paragraph (g)(4)(vii) of this section are applied in a downward direction, the top edge shall not drop below the height above the platform surface that is prescribed in paragraph (g)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, solid panels, and equivalent structural members of a guardrail system shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force applied in any downward or horizontal direction at any point along the midrail or other member of at least 75 pounds (333 n) for guardrail systems with a minimum 100 pound toprail capacity, and at least 150 pounds (666 n) for guardrail systems with a minimum 200 pound toprail capacity.
</P>
<P>(x) Suspension scaffold hoists and non-walk-through stirrups may be used as end guardrails, if the space between the hoist or stirrup and the side guardrail or structure does not allow passage of an employee to the end of the scaffold.
</P>
<P>(xi) Guardrails shall be surfaced to prevent injury to an employee from punctures or lacerations, and to prevent snagging of clothing.
</P>
<P>(xii) The ends of all rails shall not overhang the terminal posts except when such overhang does not constitute a projection hazard to employees.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Steel or plastic banding shall not be used as a toprail or midrail.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Manila or plastic (or other synthetic) rope being used for toprails or midrails shall be inspected by a competent person as frequently as necessary to ensure that it continues to meet the strength requirements of paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xv) Crossbracing is acceptable in place of a midrail when the crossing point of two braces is between 20 inches (0.5 m) and 30 inches (0.8 m) above the work platform or as a toprail when the crossing point of two braces is between 38 inches (0.97 m) and 48 inches (1.3 m) above the work platform. The end points at each upright shall be no more than 48 inches (1.3 m) apart.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Falling object protection.</I> (1) In addition to wearing hardhats each employee on a scaffold shall be provided with additional protection from falling hand tools, debris, and other small objects through the installation of toeboards, screens, or guardrail systems, or through the erection of debris nets, catch platforms, or canopy structures that contain or deflect the falling objects. When the falling objects are too large, heavy or massive to be contained or deflected by any of the above-listed measures, the employer shall place such potential falling objects away from the edge of the surface from which they could fall and shall secure those materials as necessary to prevent their falling.
</P>
<P>(2) Where there is a danger of tools, materials, or equipment falling from a scaffold and striking employees below, the following provisions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The area below the scaffold to which objects can fall shall be barricaded, and employees shall not be permitted to enter the hazard area; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A toeboard shall be erected along the edge of platforms more than 10 feet (3.1 m) above lower levels for a distance sufficient to protect employees below, except on float (ship) scaffolds where an edging of 
<FR>3/4</FR> × 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (2 × 4 cm) wood or equivalent may be used in lieu of toeboards;
</P>
<P>(iii) Where tools, materials, or equipment are piled to a height higher than the top edge of the toeboard, paneling or screening extending from the toeboard or platform to the top of the guardrail shall be erected for a distance sufficient to protect employees below; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A guardrail system shall be installed with openings small enough to prevent passage of potential falling objects; or
</P>
<P>(v) A canopy structure, debris net, or catch platform strong enough to withstand the impact forces of the potential falling objects shall be erected over the employees below.
</P>
<P>(3) Canopies, when used for falling object protection, shall comply with the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Canopies shall be installed between the falling object hazard and the employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) When canopies are used on suspension scaffolds for falling object protection, the scaffold shall be equipped with additional independent support lines equal in number to the number of points supported, and equivalent in strength to the strength of the suspension ropes.
</P>
<P>(iii) Independent support lines and suspension ropes shall not be attached to the same points of anchorage.
</P>
<P>(4) Where used, toeboards shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 50 pounds (222 n) applied in any downward or horizontal direction at any point along the toeboard (toeboards built in accordance with appendix A to this subpart will be deemed to meet this requirement); and
</P>
<P>(ii) At least three and one-half inches (9 cm) high from the top edge of the toeboard to the level of the walking/working surface. Toeboards shall be securely fastened in place at the outermost edge of the platform and have not more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch (0.7 cm) clearance above the walking/working surface. Toeboards shall be solid or with openings not over one inch (2.5 cm) in the greatest dimension.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 46107, Aug. 30, 1996, as corrected and amended at 61 FR 59831, 59832, Nov. 25, 1996]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 61 FR 59832, Nov. 25, 1996, § 1926.451(b)(2)(i) was amended and certain requirements stayed until Nov. 25, 1997, or until further rulemaking has been completed, whichever is later.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.452" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.452   Additional requirements applicable to specific types of scaffolds.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the applicable requirements of § 1926.451, the following requirements apply to the specific types of scaffolds indicated. Scaffolds not specifically addressed by § 1926.452, such as but not limited to systems scaffolds, must meet the requirements of § 1926.451.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Pole scaffolds.</I> (1) When platforms are being moved to the next level, the existing platform shall be left undisturbed until the new bearers have been set in place and braced, prior to receiving the new platforms.
</P>
<P>(2) Crossbracing shall be installed between the inner and outer sets of poles on double pole scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(3) Diagonal bracing in both directions shall be installed across the entire inside face of double-pole scaffolds used to support loads equivalent to a uniformly distributed load of 50 pounds (22.7 kg) or more per square foot (929 square cm).
</P>
<P>(4) Diagonal bracing in both directions shall be installed across the entire outside face of all double- and single-pole scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(5) Runners and bearers shall be installed on edge.
</P>
<P>(6) Bearers shall extend a minimum of 3 inches (7.6 cm) over the outside edges of runners.
</P>
<P>(7) Runners shall extend over a minimum of two poles, and shall be supported by bearing blocks securely attached to the poles.
</P>
<P>(8) Braces, bearers, and runners shall not be spliced between poles.
</P>
<P>(9) Where wooden poles are spliced, the ends shall be squared and the upper section shall rest squarely on the lower section. Wood splice plates shall be provided on at least two adjacent sides, and shall extend at least 2 feet (0.6 m) on either side of the splice, overlap the abutted ends equally, and have at least the same cross-sectional areas as the pole. Splice plates of other materials of equivalent strength may be used.
</P>
<P>(10) Pole scaffolds over 60 feet in height shall be designed by a registered professional engineer, and shall be constructed and loaded in accordance with that design. Non-mandatory appendix A to this subpart contains examples of criteria that will enable an employer to comply with design and loading requirements for pole scaffolds under 60 feet in height.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tube and coupler scaffolds.</I> (1) When platforms are being moved to the next level, the existing platform shall be left undisturbed until the new bearers have been set in place and braced prior to receiving the new platforms.
</P>
<P>(2) Transverse bracing forming an “X” across the width of the scaffold shall be installed at the scaffold ends and at least at every third set of posts horizontally (measured from only one end) and every fourth runner vertically. Bracing shall extend diagonally from the inner or outer posts or runners upward to the next outer or inner posts or runners. Building ties shall be installed at the bearer levels between the transverse bracing and shall conform to the requirements of § 1926.451(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) On straight run scaffolds, longitudinal bracing across the inner and outer rows of posts shall be installed diagonally in both directions, and shall extend from the base of the end posts upward to the top of the scaffold at approximately a 45 degree angle. On scaffolds whose length is greater than their height, such bracing shall be repeated beginning at least at every fifth post. On scaffolds whose length is less than their height, such bracing shall be installed from the base of the end posts upward to the opposite end posts, and then in alternating directions until reaching the top of the scaffold. Bracing shall be installed as close as possible to the intersection of the bearer and post or runner and post.
</P>
<P>(4) Where conditions preclude the attachment of bracing to posts, bracing shall be attached to the runners as close to the post as possible.
</P>
<P>(5) Bearers shall be installed transversely between posts, and when coupled to the posts, shall have the inboard coupler bear directly on the runner coupler. When the bearers are coupled to the runners, the couplers shall be as close to the posts as possible.
</P>
<P>(6) Bearers shall extend beyond the posts and runners, and shall provide full contact with the coupler.
</P>
<P>(7) Runners shall be installed along the length of the scaffold, located on both the inside and outside posts at level heights (when tube and coupler guardrails and midrails are used on outside posts, they may be used in lieu of outside runners).
</P>
<P>(8) Runners shall be interlocked on straight runs to form continuous lengths, and shall be coupled to each post. The bottom runners and bearers shall be located as close to the base as possible.
</P>
<P>(9) Couplers shall be of a structural metal, such as drop-forged steel, malleable iron, or structural grade aluminum. The use of gray cast iron is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(10) Tube and coupler scaffolds over 125 feet in height shall be designed by a registered professional engineer, and shall be constructed and loaded in accordance with such design. Non-mandatory appendix A to this subpart contains examples of criteria that will enable an employer to comply with design and loading requirements for tube and coupler scaffolds under 125 feet in height.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fabricated frame scaffolds</I> (tubular welded frame scaffolds). (1) When moving platforms to the next level, the existing platform shall be left undisturbed until the new end frames have been set in place and braced prior to receiving the new platforms.
</P>
<P>(2) Frames and panels shall be braced by cross, horizontal, or diagonal braces, or combination thereof, which secure vertical members together laterally. The cross braces shall be of such length as will automatically square and align vertical members so that the erected scaffold is always plumb, level, and square. All brace connections shall be secured.
</P>
<P>(3) Frames and panels shall be joined together vertically by coupling or stacking pins or equivalent means.
</P>
<P>(4) Where uplift can occur which would displace scaffold end frames or panels, the frames or panels shall be locked together vertically by pins or equivalent means.
</P>
<P>(5) Brackets used to support cantilevered loads shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be seated with side-brackets parallel to the frames and end-brackets at 90 degrees to the frames;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not be bent or twisted from these positions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be used only to support personnel, unless the scaffold has been designed for other loads by a qualified engineer and built to withstand the tipping forces caused by those other loads being placed on the bracket-supported section of the scaffold.
</P>
<P>(6) Scaffolds over 125 feet (38.0 m) in height above their base plates shall be designed by a registered professional engineer, and shall be constructed and loaded in accordance with such design.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plasterers', decorators', and large area scaffolds.</I> Scaffolds shall be constructed in accordance with paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bricklayers' square scaffolds (squares).</I> (1) Scaffolds made of wood shall be reinforced with gussets on both sides of each corner.
</P>
<P>(2) Diagonal braces shall be installed on all sides of each square.
</P>
<P>(3) Diagonal braces shall be installed between squares on the rear and front sides of the scaffold, and shall extend from the bottom of each square to the top of the next square.
</P>
<P>(4) Scaffolds shall not exceed three tiers in height, and shall be so constructed and arranged that one square rests directly above the other. The upper tiers shall stand on a continuous row of planks laid across the next lower tier, and shall be nailed down or otherwise secured to prevent displacement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Horse scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffolds shall not be constructed or arranged more than two tiers or 10 feet (3.0 m) in height, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(2) When horses are arranged in tiers, each horse shall be placed directly over the horse in the tier below.
</P>
<P>(3) When horses are arranged in tiers, the legs of each horse shall be nailed down or otherwise secured to prevent displacement.
</P>
<P>(4) When horses are arranged in tiers, each tier shall be crossbraced.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Form scaffolds and carpenters' bracket scaffolds.</I> (1) Each bracket, except those for wooden bracket-form scaffolds, shall be attached to the supporting formwork or structure by means of one or more of the following: nails; a metal stud attachment device; welding; hooking over a secured structural supporting member, with the form wales either bolted to the form or secured by snap ties or tie bolts extending through the form and securely anchored; or, for carpenters' bracket scaffolds only, by a bolt extending through to the opposite side of the structure's wall.
</P>
<P>(2) Wooden bracket-form scaffolds shall be an integral part of the form panel.
</P>
<P>(3) Folding type metal brackets, when extended for use, shall be either bolted or secured with a locking-type pin.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Roof bracket scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffold brackets shall be constructed to fit the pitch of the roof and shall provide a level support for the platform.
</P>
<P>(2) Brackets (including those provided with pointed metal projections) shall be anchored in place by nails unless it is impractical to use nails. When nails are not used, brackets shall be secured in place with first-grade manila rope of at least three-fourth inch (1.9 cm) diameter, or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outrigger scaffolds.</I> (1) The inboard end of outrigger beams, measured from the fulcrum point to the extreme point of anchorage, shall be not less than one and one-half times the outboard end in length.
</P>
<P>(2) Outrigger beams fabricated in the shape of an I-beam or channel shall be placed so that the web section is vertical.
</P>
<P>(3) The fulcrum point of outrigger beams shall rest on secure bearings at least 6 inches (15.2 cm) in each horizontal dimension.
</P>
<P>(4) Outrigger beams shall be secured in place against movement, and shall be securely braced at the fulcrum point against tipping.
</P>
<P>(5) The inboard ends of outrigger beams shall be securely anchored either by means of braced struts bearing against sills in contact with the overhead beams or ceiling, or by means of tension members secured to the floor joists underfoot, or by both.
</P>
<P>(6) The entire supporting structure shall be securely braced to prevent any horizontal movement.
</P>
<P>(7) To prevent their displacement, platform units shall be nailed, bolted, or otherwise secured to outriggers.
</P>
<P>(8) Scaffolds and scaffold components shall be designed by a registered professional engineer and shall be constructed and loaded in accordance with such design.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Pump jack scaffolds.</I> (1) Pump jack brackets, braces, and accessories shall be fabricated from metal plates and angles. Each pump jack bracket shall have two positive gripping mechanisms to prevent any failure or slippage.
</P>
<P>(2) Poles shall be secured to the structure by rigid triangular bracing or equivalent at the bottom, top, and other points as necessary. When the pump jack has to pass bracing already installed, an additional brace shall be installed approximately 4 feet (1.2 m) above the brace to be passed, and shall be left in place until the pump jack has been moved and the original brace reinstalled.
</P>
<P>(3) When guardrails are used for fall protection, a workbench may be used as the toprail only if it meets all the requirements in paragraphs (g)(4) (ii), (vii), (viii), and (xiii) of § 1926.451.
</P>
<P>(4) Work benches shall not be used as scaffold platforms.
</P>
<P>(5) When poles are made of wood, the pole lumber shall be straight-grained, free of shakes, large loose or dead knots, and other defects which might impair strength.
</P>
<P>(6) When wood poles are constructed of two continuous lengths, they shall be joined together with the seam parallel to the bracket.
</P>
<P>(7) When two by fours are spliced to make a pole, mending plates shall be installed at all splices to develop the full strength of the member.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Ladder jack scaffolds.</I> (1) Platforms shall not exceed a height of 20 feet (6.1 m).
</P>
<P>(2) All ladders used to support ladder jack scaffolds shall meet the requirements of subpart X of this part—Stairways and Ladders, except that job-made ladders shall not be used to support ladder jack scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(3) The ladder jack shall be so designed and constructed that it will bear on the side rails and ladder rungs or on the ladder rungs alone. If bearing on rungs only, the bearing area shall include a length of at least 10 inches (25.4 cm) on each rung.
</P>
<P>(4) Ladders used to support ladder jacks shall be placed, fastened, or equipped with devices to prevent slipping.
</P>
<P>(5) Scaffold platforms shall not be bridged one to another.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Window jack scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffolds shall be securely attached to the window opening.
</P>
<P>(2) Scaffolds shall be used only for the purpose of working at the window opening through which the jack is placed.
</P>
<P>(3) Window jacks shall not be used to support planks placed between one window jack and another, or for other elements of scaffolding.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Crawling boards (chicken ladders).</I> (1) Crawling boards shall extend from the roof peak to the eaves when used in connection with roof construction, repair, or maintenance.
</P>
<P>(2) Crawling boards shall be secured to the roof by ridge hooks or by means that meet equivalent criteria (e.g., strength and durability).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Step, platform, and trestle ladder scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffold platforms shall not be placed any higher than the second highest rung or step of the ladder supporting the platform.
</P>
<P>(2) All ladders used in conjunction with step, platform and trestle ladder scaffolds shall meet the pertinent requirements of subpart X of this part—Stairways and Ladders, except that job-made ladders shall not be used to support such scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(3) Ladders used to support step, platform, and trestle ladder scaffolds shall be placed, fastened, or equipped with devices to prevent slipping.
</P>
<P>(4) Scaffolds shall not be bridged one to another.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Single-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.</I> (1) When two single-point adjustable suspension scaffolds are combined to form a two-point adjustable suspension scaffold, the resulting two-point scaffold shall comply with the requirements for two-point adjustable suspension scaffolds in paragraph (p) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The supporting rope between the scaffold and the suspension device shall be kept vertical unless all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The rigging has been designed by a qualified person, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The scaffold is accessible to rescuers, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The supporting rope is protected to ensure that it will not chafe at any point where a change in direction occurs, and
</P>
<P>(iv) The scaffold is positioned so that swinging cannot bring the scaffold into contact with another surface.
</P>
<P>(3) Boatswains' chair tackle shall consist of correct size ball bearings or bushed blocks containing safety hooks and properly “eye-spliced” minimum five-eighth (
<FR>5/8</FR>) inch (1.6 cm) diameter first-grade manila rope, or other rope which will satisfy the criteria (e.g., strength and durability) of manila rope.
</P>
<P>(4) Boatswains' chair seat slings shall be reeved through four corner holes in the seat; shall cross each other on the underside of the seat; and shall be rigged so as to prevent slippage which could cause an out-of-level condition.
</P>
<P>(5) Boatswains' chair seat slings shall be a minimum of five-eight (
<FR>5/8</FR>) inch (1.6 cm) diameter fiber, synthetic, or other rope which will satisfy the criteria (e.g., strength, slip resistance, durability, etc.) of first grade manila rope.
</P>
<P>(6) When a heat-producing process such as gas or arc welding is being conducted, boatswains' chair seat slings shall be a minimum of three-eight (
<FR>3/8</FR>) inch (1.0 cm) wire rope.
</P>
<P>(7) Non-cross-laminated wood boatswains' chairs shall be reinforced on their underside by cleats securely fastened to prevent the board from splitting.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Two-point adjustable suspension scaffolds (swing stages).</I> The following requirements do not apply to two-point adjustable suspension scaffolds used as masons' or stonesetters' scaffolds. Such scaffolds are covered by paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Platforms shall not be more than 36 inches (0.9 m) wide unless designed by a qualified person to prevent unstable conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) The platform shall be securely fastened to hangers (stirrups) by U-bolts or by other means which satisfy the requirements of § 1926.451(a).
</P>
<P>(3) The blocks for fiber or synthetic ropes shall consist of at least one double and one single block. The sheaves of all blocks shall fit the size of the rope used.
</P>
<P>(4) Platforms shall be of the ladder-type, plank-type, beam-type, or light-metal type. Light metal-type platforms having a rated capacity of 750 pounds or less and platforms 40 feet (12.2 m) or less in length shall be tested and listed by a nationally recognized testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(5) Two-point scaffolds shall not be bridged or otherwise connected one to another during raising and lowering operations unless the bridge connections are articulated (attached), and the hoists properly sized.
</P>
<P>(6) Passage may be made from one platform to another only when the platforms are at the same height, are abutting, and walk-through stirrups specifically designed for this purpose are used.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds, stonesetters' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds, and masons' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.</I> (1) When two or more scaffolds are used they shall not be bridged one to another unless they are designed to be bridged, the bridge connections are articulated, and the hoists are properly sized.
</P>
<P>(2) If bridges are not used, passage may be made from one platform to another only when the platforms are at the same height and are abutting.
</P>
<P>(3) Scaffolds shall be suspended from metal outriggers, brackets, wire rope slings, hooks, or means that meet equivalent criteria (e.g., strength, durability).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Catenary scaffolds.</I> (1) No more than one platform shall be placed between consecutive vertical pickups, and no more than two platforms shall be used on a catenary scaffold.
</P>
<P>(2) Platforms supported by wire ropes shall have hook-shaped stops on each end of the platforms to prevent them from slipping off the wire ropes. These hooks shall be so placed that they will prevent the platform from falling if one of the horizontal wire ropes breaks.
</P>
<P>(3) Wire ropes shall not be tightened to the extent that the application of a scaffold load will overstress them.
</P>
<P>(4) Wire ropes shall be continuous and without splices between anchors.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Float (ship) scaffolds.</I> (1) The platform shall be supported by a minimum of two bearers, each of which shall project a minimum of 6 inches (15.2 cm) beyond the platform on both sides. Each bearer shall be securely fastened to the platform.
</P>
<P>(2) Rope connections shall be such that the platform cannot shift or slip.
</P>
<P>(3) When only two ropes are used with each float:
</P>
<P>(i) They shall be arranged so as to provide four ends which are securely fastened to overhead supports.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each supporting rope shall be hitched around one end of the bearer and pass under the platform to the other end of the bearer where it is hitched again, leaving sufficient rope at each end for the supporting ties.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Interior hung scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffolds shall be suspended only from the roof structure or other structural member such as ceiling beams.
</P>
<P>(2) Overhead supporting members (roof structure, ceiling beams, or other structural members) shall be inspected and checked for strength before the scaffold is erected.
</P>
<P>(3) Suspension ropes and cables shall be connected to the overhead supporting members by shackles, clips, thimbles, or other means that meet equivalent criteria (e.g., strength, durability).
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Needle beam scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffold support beams shall be installed on edge.
</P>
<P>(2) Ropes or hangers shall be used for supports, except that one end of a needle beam scaffold may be supported by a permanent structural member.
</P>
<P>(3) The ropes shall be securely attached to the needle beams.
</P>
<P>(4) The support connection shall be arranged so as to prevent the needle beam from rolling or becoming displaced.
</P>
<P>(5) Platform units shall be securely attached to the needle beams by bolts or equivalent means. Cleats and overhang are not considered to be adequate means of attachment.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Multi-level suspended scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffolds shall be equipped with additional independent support lines, equal in number to the number of points supported, and of equivalent strength to the suspension ropes, and rigged to support the scaffold in the event the suspension rope(s) fail.
</P>
<P>(2) Independent support lines and suspension ropes shall not be attached to the same points of anchorage.
</P>
<P>(3) Supports for platforms shall be attached directly to the support stirrup and not to any other platform.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Mobile scaffolds.</I> (1) Scaffolds shall be braced by cross, horizontal, or diagonal braces, or combination thereof, to prevent racking or collapse of the scaffold and to secure vertical members together laterally so as to automatically square and align the vertical members. Scaffolds shall be plumb, level, and squared. All brace connections shall be secured.
</P>
<P>(i) Scaffolds constructed of tube and coupler components shall also comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Scaffolds constructed of fabricated frame components shall also comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Scaffold casters and wheels shall be locked with positive wheel and/or wheel and swivel locks, or equivalent means, to prevent movement of the scaffold while the scaffold is used in a stationary manner.
</P>
<P>(3) Manual force used to move the scaffold shall be applied as close to the base as practicable, but not more than 5 feet (1.5 m) above the supporting surface.
</P>
<P>(4) Power systems used to propel mobile scaffolds shall be designed for such use. Forklifts, trucks, similar motor vehicles or add-on motors shall not be used to propel scaffolds unless the scaffold is designed for such propulsion systems.
</P>
<P>(5) Scaffolds shall be stabilized to prevent tipping during movement.
</P>
<P>(6) Employees shall not be allowed to ride on scaffolds unless the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(i) The surface on which the scaffold is being moved is within 3 degrees of level, and free of pits, holes, and obstructions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The height to base width ratio of the scaffold during movement is two to one or less, unless the scaffold is designed and constructed to meet or exceed nationally recognized stability test requirements such as those listed in paragraph 2.(w) of appendix A to this subpart;
</P>
<P>(iii) Outrigger frames, when used, are installed on both sides of the scaffold;
</P>
<P>(iv) When power systems are used, the propelling force is applied directly to the wheels, and does not produce a speed in excess of 1 foot per second (.3 mps); and
</P>
<P>(v) No employee is on any part of the scaffold which extends outward beyond the wheels, casters, or other supports.
</P>
<P>(7) Platforms shall not extend outward beyond the base supports of the scaffold unless outrigger frames or equivalent devices are used to ensure stability.
</P>
<P>(8) Where leveling of the scaffold is necessary, screw jacks or equivalent means shall be used.
</P>
<P>(9) Caster stems and wheel stems shall be pinned or otherwise secured in scaffold legs or adjustment screws.
</P>
<P>(10) Before a scaffold is moved, each employee on the scaffold shall be made aware of the move.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Repair bracket scaffolds.</I> (1) Brackets shall be secured in place by at least one wire rope at least 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (1.27 cm) in diameter.
</P>
<P>(2) Each bracket shall be attached to the securing wire rope (or ropes) by a positive locking device capable of preventing the unintentional detachment of the bracket from the rope, or by equivalent means.
</P>
<P>(3) Each bracket, at the contact point between the supporting structure and the bottom of the bracket, shall be provided with a shoe (heel block or foot) capable of preventing the lateral movement of the bracket.
</P>
<P>(4) Platforms shall be secured to the brackets in a manner that will prevent the separation of the platforms from the brackets and the movement of the platforms or the brackets on a completed scaffold.
</P>
<P>(5) When a wire rope is placed around the structure in order to provide a safe anchorage for personal fall arrest systems used by employees erecting or dismantling scaffolds, the wire rope shall meet the requirements of subpart M of this part, but shall be at least 
<FR>5/16</FR> inch (0.8 cm) in diameter.
</P>
<P>(6) Each wire rope used for securing brackets in place or as an anchorage for personal fall arrest systems shall be protected from damage due to contact with edges, corners, protrusions, or other discontinuities of the supporting structure or scaffold components.
</P>
<P>(7) Tensioning of each wire rope used for securing brackets in place or as an anchorage for personal fall arrest systems shall be by means of a turnbuckle at least 1 inch (2.54 cm) in diameter, or by equivalent means.
</P>
<P>(8) Each turnbuckle shall be connected to the other end of its rope by use of an eyesplice thimble of a size appropriate to the turnbuckle to which it is attached.
</P>
<P>(9) U-bolt wire rope clips shall not be used on any wire rope used to secure brackets or to serve as an anchor for personal fall arrest systems.
</P>
<P>(10) The employer shall ensure that materials shall not be dropped to the outside of the supporting structure.
</P>
<P>(11) Scaffold erection shall progress in only one direction around any structure.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Stilts.</I> Stilts, when used, shall be used in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee may wear stilts on a scaffold only if it is a large area scaffold.
</P>
<P>(2) When an employee is using stilts on a large area scaffold where a guardrail system is used to provide fall protection, the guardrail system shall be increased in height by an amount equal to the height of the stilts being used by the employee.
</P>
<P>(3) Surfaces on which stilts are used shall be flat and free of pits, holes and obstructions, such as debris, as well as other tripping and falling hazards.
</P>
<P>(4) Stilts shall be properly maintained. Any alteration of the original equipment shall be approved by the manufacturer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 46104, Aug. 30, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 8736, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.453" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.453   Aerial lifts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Unless otherwise provided in this section, aerial lifts acquired for use on or after January 22, 1973 shall be designed and constructed in conformance with the applicable requirements of the American National Standards for “Vehicle Mounted Elevating and Rotating Work Platforms,” ANSI A92.2-1969, including appendix. Aerial lifts acquired before January 22, 1973 which do not meet the requirements of ANSI A92.2-1969, may not be used after January 1, 1976, unless they shall have been modified so as to conform with the applicable design and construction requirements of ANSI A92.2-1969. Aerial lifts include the following types of vehicle-mounted aerial devices used to elevate personnel to job-sites above ground:
</P>
<P>(i) Extensible boom platforms;
</P>
<P>(ii) Aerial ladders;
</P>
<P>(iii) Articulating boom platforms;
</P>
<P>(iv) Vertical towers; and
</P>
<P>(v) A combination of any such devices. Aerial equipment may be made of metal, wood, fiberglass reinforced plastic (FRP), or other material; may be powered or manually operated; and are deemed to be aerial lifts whether or not they are capable of rotating about a substantially vertical axis.
</P>
<P>(2) Aerial lifts may be “field modified” for uses other than those intended by the manufacturer provided the modification has been certified in writing by the manufacturer or by any other equivalent entity, such as a nationally recognized testing laboratory, to be in conformity with all applicable provisions of ANSI A92.2-1969 and this section and to be at least as safe as the equipment was before modification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements</I>—(1) <I>Ladder trucks and tower trucks.</I> Aerial ladders shall be secured in the lower traveling position by the locking device on top of the truck cab, and the manually operated device at the base of the ladder before the truck is moved for highway travel.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extensible and articulating boom platforms.</I> (i) Lift controls shall be tested each day prior to use to determine that such controls are in safe working condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) Only authorized persons shall operate an aerial lift.
</P>
<P>(iii) Belting off to an adjacent pole, structure, or equipment while working from an aerial lift shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employees shall always stand firmly on the floor of the basket, and shall not sit or climb on the edge of the basket or use planks, ladders, or other devices for a work position.
</P>
<P>(v) A body belt shall be worn and a lanyard attached to the boom or basket when working from an aerial lift.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">v</E>):</HED>
<P>As of January 1, 1998, subpart M of this part (§ 1926.502(d)) provides that body belts are not acceptable as part of a personal fall arrest system. The use of a body belt in a tethering system or in a restraint system is acceptable and is regulated under § 1926.502(e).</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) Boom and basket load limits specified by the manufacturer shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(vii) The brakes shall be set and when outriggers are used, they shall be positioned on pads or a solid surface. Wheel chocks shall be installed before using an aerial lift on an incline, provided they can be safely installed.
</P>
<P>(viii) An aerial lift truck shall not be moved when the boom is elevated in a working position with men in the basket, except for equipment which is specifically designed for this type of operation in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) Articulating boom and extensible boom platforms, primarily designed as personnel carriers, shall have both platform (upper) and lower controls. Upper controls shall be in or beside the platform within easy reach of the operator. Lower controls shall provide for overriding the upper controls. Controls shall be plainly marked as to their function. Lower level controls shall not be operated unless permission has been obtained from the employee in the lift, except in case of emergency.
</P>
<P>(x) Climbers shall not be worn while performing work from an aerial lift.
</P>
<P>(xi) The insulated portion of an aerial lift shall not be altered in any manner that might reduce its insulating value.
</P>
<P>(xii) Before moving an aerial lift for travel, the boom(s) shall be inspected to see that it is properly cradled and outriggers are in stowed position except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electrical tests.</I> All electrical tests shall conform to the requirements of ANSI A92.2-1969 section 5. However equivalent d.c.; voltage tests may be used in lieu of the a.c. voltage specified in A92.2-1969; d.c. voltage tests which are approved by the equipment manufacturer or equivalent entity shall be considered an equivalent test for the purpose of this paragraph (b)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bursting safety factor.</I> The provisions of the American National Standards Institute standard ANSI A92.2-1969, section 4.9 Bursting Safety Factor shall apply to all critical hydraulic and pneumatic components. Critical components are those in which a failure would result in a free fall or free rotation of the boom. All noncritical components shall have a bursting safety factor of at least 2 to 1.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Welding standards.</I> All welding shall conform to the following standards as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Standard Qualification Procedure, AWS B3.0-41.
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommended Practices for Automotive Welding Design, AWS D8.4-61.
</P>
<P>(iii) Standard Qualification of Welding Procedures and Welders for Piping and Tubing, AWS D10.9-69.
</P>
<P>(iv) Specifications for Welding Highway and Railway Bridges, AWS D2.0-69.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1926.453:</HED>
<P>Non-mandatory appendix C to this subpart lists examples of national consensus standards that are considered to provide employee protection equivalent to that provided through the application of ANSI A92.2-1969, where appropriate. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the American National Standards Institute. Copies may be inspected at the Docket Office, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., room N2634, Washington, DC or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I></P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 46116, Aug. 30, 1996; 61 FR 59832, Nov. 25, 1996, as amended at 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.454" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.454   Training requirements.</HEAD>
<P>This section supplements and clarifies the requirements of § 1926.21(b)(2) as these relate to the hazards of work on scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(a) The employer shall have each employee who performs work while on a scaffold trained by a person qualified in the subject matter to recognize the hazards associated with the type of scaffold being used and to understand the procedures to control or minimize those hazards. The training shall include the following areas, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of any electrical hazards, fall hazards and falling object hazards in the work area;
</P>
<P>(2) The correct procedures for dealing with electrical hazards and for erecting, maintaining, and disassembling the fall protection systems and falling object protection systems being used;
</P>
<P>(3) The proper use of the scaffold, and the proper handling of materials on the scaffold;
</P>
<P>(4) The maximum intended load and the load-carrying capacities of the scaffolds used; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other pertinent requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer shall have each employee who is involved in erecting, disassembling, moving, operating, repairing, maintaining, or inspecting a scaffold trained by a competent person to recognize any hazards associated with the work in question. The training shall include the following topics, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of scaffold hazards;
</P>
<P>(2) The correct procedures for erecting, disassembling, moving, operating, repairing, inspecting, and maintaining the type of scaffold in question;
</P>
<P>(3) The design criteria, maximum intended load-carrying capacity and intended use of the scaffold;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other pertinent requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) When the employer has reason to believe that an employee lacks the skill or understanding needed for safe work involving the erection, use or dismantling of scaffolds, the employer shall retrain each such employee so that the requisite proficiency is regained. Retraining is required in at least the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) Where changes at the worksite present a hazard about which an employee has not been previously trained; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where changes in the types of scaffolds, fall protection, falling object protection, or other equipment present a hazard about which an employee has not been previously trained; or
</P>
<P>(3) Where inadequacies in an affected employee's work involving scaffolds indicate that the employee has not retained the requisite proficiency.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Non-Mandatory Appendices</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.20.6.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>(Non-mandatory) Appendix A to Subpart L of Part 1926—Scaffold Specifications
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix provides non-mandatory guidelines to assist employers in complying with the requirements of subpart L of this part. An employer may use these guidelines and tables as a starting point for designing scaffold systems. However, the guidelines do not provide all the information necessary to build a complete system, and the employer is still responsible for designing and assembling these components in such a way that the completed system will meet the requirements of § 1926.451(a). Scaffold components which are not selected and loaded in accordance with this Appendix, and components for which no specific guidelines or tables are given in this appendix (e.g., joints, ties, components for wood pole scaffolds more than 60 feet in height, components for heavy-duty horse scaffolds, components made with other materials, and components with other dimensions, etc.) must be designed and constructed in accordance with the capacity requirements of § 1926.451(a), and loaded in accordance with § 1926.451(d)(1).
</P>
<HD2>Index to appendix A for Subpart L
</HD2>
<P>1. General guidelines and tables.
</P>
<P>2. Specific guidelines and tables.
</P>
<P>(a) Pole scaffolds:
</P>
<P>Single-pole wood pole scaffolds.
</P>
<P>Independent wood pole scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(b) Tube and coupler scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(c) Fabricated frame scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(d) Plasterers', decorators' and large area scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(e) Bricklayers' square scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(f) Horse scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(g) Form scaffolds and carpenters' bracket scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(h) Roof bracket scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(i) Outrigger scaffolds (one level).
</P>
<P>(j) Pump jack scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(k) Ladder jack scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(l) Window jack scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(m) Crawling boards (chicken ladders).
</P>
<P>(n) Step, platform and trestle ladder scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(o) Single-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(p) Two-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(q)(1) Stonesetters' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(2) Masons' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(r) Catenary scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(s) Float (ship) scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(t) Interior hung scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(u) Needle beam scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(v) Multi-level suspension scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(w) Mobile scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(x) Repair bracket scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(y) Stilts.
</P>
<P>(z) Tank builders' scaffolds.
</P>
<HD1>1. General Guidelines and Tables
</HD1>
<P>(a) The following tables, and the tables in part 2—Specific guidelines and tables, assume that all load-carrying timber members (except planks) of the scaffold are a minimum of 1,500 lb-f/in
<SU>2</SU> (stress grade) construction grade lumber. All dimensions are nominal sizes as provided in the American Softwood Lumber Standards, dated January 1970, except that, where rough sizes are noted, only rough or undressed lumber of the size specified will satisfy minimum requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Solid sawn wood used as scaffold planks shall be selected for such use following the grading rules established by a recognized lumber grading association or by an independent lumber grading inspection agency. Such planks shall be identified by the grade stamp of such association or agency. The association or agency and the grading rules under which the wood is graded shall be certified by the Board of Review, American Lumber Standard Committee, as set forth in the American Softwood Lumber Standard of the U.S. Department of Commerce.
</P>
<P>(i) Allowable spans shall be determined in compliance with the National Design Specification for Wood Construction published by the National Forest Products Association; paragraph 5 of ANSI A10.8-1988 Scaffolding-Safety Requirements published by the American National Standards Institute; or for 2 × 10 inch (nominal) or 2 × 9 inch (rough) solid sawn wood planks, as shown in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum intended nominal load
<br/>(lb/ft
<sup>2</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum permissible span using full thickness undressed
<br/>lumber
<br/>(ft)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum permissible span using nominal thickness
<br/>lumber
<br/>(ft)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The maximum permissible span for 1
<FR>1/4</FR> × 9-inch or wider wood plank of full thickness with a maximum intended load of 50 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU> shall be 4 feet.
</P>
<P>(c) Fabricated planks and platforms may be used in lieu of solid sawn wood planks. Maximum spans for such units shall be as recommended by the manufacturer based on the maximum intended load being calculated as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated load
<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Intended load
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light-duty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• 25 pounds per square foot applied uniformly over the entire span area.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium-duty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• 50 pounds per square foot applied uniformly over the entire span area.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy-duty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• 75 pounds per square foot applied uniformly over the entire span area.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One-person</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• 250 pounds placed at the center of the span (total 250 pounds).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two-person</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• 250 pounds placed 18 inches to the left and right of the center of the span (total 500 pounds).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three-person</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• 250 pounds placed at the center of the span and 250 pounds placed 18 inches to the left and right of the center of the span (total 750 pounds).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Platform units used to make scaffold platforms intended for light-duty use shall be capable of supporting at least 25 pounds per square foot applied uniformly over the entire unit-span area, or a 250-pound point load placed on the unit at the center of the span, whichever load produces the greater shear force.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) Guardrails shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Toprails shall be equivalent in strength to 2 inch by 4 inch lumber; or
</P>
<P>1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch × 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch structural angle iron; or
</P>
<P>1 inch × .070 inch wall steel tubing; or 1.990 inch × .058 inch wall aluminum tubing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Midrails shall be equivalent in strength to 1 inch by 6 inch lumber; or
</P>
<P>1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch × 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch × 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch structural angle iron; or
</P>
<P>1 inch × .070 inch wall steel tubing; or
</P>
<P>1.990 inch × .058 inch wall aluminum tubing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Toeboards shall be equivalent in strength to 1 inch by 4 inch lumber; or
</P>
<P>1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch × 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch structural angle iron; or
</P>
<P>1 inch × .070 inch wall steel tubing; or
</P>
<P>1.990 inch × .058 inch wall aluminum tubing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Posts shall be equivalent in strength to 2 inch by 4 inch lumber; or
</P>
<P>1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch × 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch × 
<FR>1/8</FR> structural angle iron; or
</P>
<P>1 inch × .070 inch wall steel tubing; or
</P>
<P>1.990 inch × .058 inch wall aluminum tubing.
</P>
<P>(v) Distance between posts shall not exceed 8 feet.
</P>
<P>(e) Overhead protection shall consist of 2 inch nominal planking laid tight, or 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch plywood.
</P>
<P>(f) Screen installed between toeboards and midrails or toprails shall consist of No. 18 gauge U.S. Standard wire one inch mesh.
</P>
<HD1>2. Specific guidelines and tables.
</HD1>
<P>(a) Pole Scaffolds.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Single Pole Wood Pole Scaffolds
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Light duty up to 20 feet high
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Light duty up to 60 feet high
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Medium duty up to 60 feet high
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heavy duty up to 60 feet high
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum intended load (lbs/ft 
<sup>2</sup>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poles or uprights</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 6 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum pole spacing (longitudinal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 feet
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum pole spacing (transverse)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 feet
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Runners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> × 9 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bearers and maximum spacing of bearers:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. or 3 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. or 3 × 5 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">5 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6 in. or 3 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6 in. or 3 × 4 in. (rough)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. or 3 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. or 3 × 5 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">6 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. or 3 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. or 3 × 5 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. or 3 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Planking</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> × 9 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum vertical spacing of horizontal members</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 ft. 6 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bracing horizontal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6 in. or 1
<fr>1/4</fr> × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bracing diagonal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tie-ins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> All members except planking are used on edge. All wood bearers shall be reinforced with 
<fr>3/16</fr> × 2 inch steel strip, or the equivalent, secured to the lower edges for the entire length of the bearer.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Independent Wood Pole Scaffolds
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Light duty up to 20 feet high
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Light duty up to 60 feet high
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Medium duty up to 60 feet high
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heavy duty up to 60 feet high
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum intended load</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 lbs/ft
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 lbs/ft
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 lbs/ft
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75 lbs/ft
<sup>2</sup>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poles or uprights</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 4 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum pole spacing (longitudinal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum (transverse)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Runners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> × 9 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bearers and maximum spacing of bearers:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. (rough).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">6 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6 in. or 3 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. (rough) or 3 × 8 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. (rough).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6 in. or 3 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. (rough) or 3 × 8 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 6 in. or 3 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in. (rough) or 3 × 3 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Planking</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/4</fr> × 9 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum vertical spacing of horizontal members</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bracing horizontal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 6 in. or 1
<fr>1/4</fr> × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bracing diagonal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 4 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tie-ins</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 4 in.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> All members except planking are used on edge. All wood bearers shall be reinforced with 
<fr>3/16</fr> × 2 inch steel strip, or the equivalent, secured to the lower edges for the entire length of the bearer.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Tube and coupler scaffolds.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Minimum Size of Members
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Light duty
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Medium duty
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heavy duty
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum intended load</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 lbs/ft
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 lbs/ft
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75 lbs/ft
<sup>2</sup>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Posts, runners and braces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nominal 2 in. (1.90 inches) OD steel tube or pipe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nominal 2 in. (1.90 inches) OD steel tube or pipe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nominal 2 in. (1.90 inches) OD steel tube or pipe.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bearers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nominal 2 in. (1.90 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nominal 2 in. (1.90 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nominal 2
<fr>1/2</fr> in. (2.375 in.).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OD steel tube or pipe and a maximum post spacing of 4 ft. × 10 ft.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OD steel tube or pipe and a maximum post spacing of 4 ft. × 7 ft. or</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OD steel tube or pipe and a maximum post spacing of 6 ft. × 6 ft.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nominal 2
<fr>1/2</fr> in. (2.375 in.)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OD steel tube or pipe and a maximum post spacing of 6 ft. × 8 ft. *
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum runner spacing vertically</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 ft. 6 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 ft. 6 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 ft. 6 in.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Bearers shall be installed in the direction of the shorter dimension.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> Longitudinal diagonal bracing shall be installed at an angle of 45° (±5°).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Maximum Number of Planked Levels
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Maximum number of additional planked levels
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Maximum height of scaffold
<br/>(in feet)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Light duty
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Medium duty
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heavy duty
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Number of Working Levels:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Fabricated frame scaffolds.</I> Because of their prefabricated nature, no additional guidelines or tables for these scaffolds are being adopted in this Appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plasterers', decorators', and large area scaffolds.</I> The guidelines for pole scaffolds or tube and coupler scaffolds (Appendix A (a) and (b)) may be applied.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bricklayers' square scaffolds.</I>
</P>
<FP-1>Maximum intended load: 50 lb/ft.
<SU>2 </SU>*
<FTREF/>
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>* The squares shall be set not more than 8 feet apart for light duty scaffolds and not more than 5 feet apart for medium duty scaffolds.</P></FTNT>
<FP-1>Maximum width: 5 ft.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maximum height: 5 ft.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gussets: 1 × 6 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Braces: 1 × 8 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Legs: 2 × 6 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bearers (horizontal members): 2 × 6 in.
</FP-1>
<P>(f) Horse scaffolds.
</P>
<FP-1>Maximum intended load (light duty): 25 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU> **
<FTREF/>
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>** Horses shall be spaced not more than 8 feet apart for light duty loads, and not more than 5 feet apart for medium duty loads.</P></FTNT>
<FP-1>Maximum intended load (medium duty): 50 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU> **
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Horizontal members or bearers:
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>Light duty: 2 × 4 in.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Medium duty: 3 × 4 in.
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>Legs: 2 × 4 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Longitudinal brace between legs: 1 × 6 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gusset brace at top of legs: 1 × 8 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Half diagonal braces: 2 × 4 in.
</FP-1>
<P>(g) <I>Form scaffolds and carpenters' bracket scaffolds.</I> (1) Brackets shall consist of a triangular-shaped frame made of wood with a cross-section not less than 2 inches by 3 inches, or of 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch × 1
<FR>1/4</FR> inch × 
<FR>1/8</FR> inch structural angle iron.
</P>
<P>(2) Bolts used to attach brackets to structures shall not be less than 
<FR>5/8</FR> inches in diameter.
</P>
<P>(3) Maximum bracket spacing shall be 8 feet on centers.
</P>
<P>(4) No more than two employees shall occupy any given 8 feet of a bracket or form scaffold at any one time. Tools and materials shall not exceed 75 pounds in addition to the occupancy.
</P>
<P>(5) Wooden figure-four scaffolds:
</P>
<FP-1>Maximum intended load: 25 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uprights: 2 × 4 in. or 2 × 6 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bearers (two): 1 × 6 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Braces: 1 × 6 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maximum length of bearers (unsupported): 3 ft. 6 in.
</FP-1>
<P>(i) Outrigger bearers shall consist of two pieces of 1 × 6 inch lumber nailed on opposite sides of the vertical support.
</P>
<P>(ii) Bearers for wood figure-four brackets shall project not more than 3 feet 6 inches from the outside of the form support, and shall be braced and secured to prevent tipping or turning. The knee or angle brace shall intersect the bearer at least 3 feet from the form at an angle of approximately 45 degrees, and the lower end shall be nailed to a vertical support.
</P>
<P>(6) Metal bracket scaffolds:
</P>
<FP-1>Maximum intended load: 25 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uprights: 2 × 4 inch
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bearers: As designed.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Braces: As designed.
</FP-1>
<P>(7) Wood bracket scaffolds:
</P>
<FP-1>Maximum intended load: 25 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uprights: 2 × 4 in or 2 × 6 in
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bearers: 2 × 6 in
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maximum scaffold width: 3 ft 6 in
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Braces: 1 × 6 in
</FP-1>
<P>(h) <I>Roof bracket scaffolds.</I> No specific guidelines or tables are given.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outrigger scaffolds (single level).</I> No specific guidelines or tables are given.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Pump jack scaffolds.</I> Wood poles shall not exceed 30 feet in height. Maximum intended load—500 lbs between poles; applied at the center of the span. Not more than two employees shall be on a pump jack scaffold at one time between any two supports. When 2 × 4's are spliced together to make a 4 × 4 inch wood pole, they shall be spliced with “10 penny” common nails no more than 12 inches center to center, staggered uniformly from the opposite outside edges.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Ladder jack scaffolds.</I> Maximum intended load—25 lb/ft
<SU>2</SU>. However, not more than two employees shall occupy any platform at any one time. Maximum span between supports shall be 8 feet.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Window jack scaffolds.</I> Not more than one employee shall occupy a window jack scaffold at any one time.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Crawling boards (chicken ladders).</I> Crawling boards shall be not less than 10 inches wide and 1 inch thick, with cleats having a minimum 1 × 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inch cross-sectional area. The cleats shall be equal in length to the width of the board and spaced at equal intervals not to exceed 24 inches.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Step, platform, and trestle ladder scaffolds.</I> No additional guidelines or tables are given.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Single-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.</I> Maximum intended load—250 lbs. Wood seats for boatswains' chairs shall be not less than 1 inch thick if made of non-laminated wood, or 
<FR>5/8</FR> inches thick if made of marine quality plywood.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Two-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.</I> (1) In addition to direct connections to buildings (except window cleaners' anchors) acceptable ways to prevent scaffold sway include angulated roping and static lines. Angulated roping is a system of platform suspension in which the upper wire rope sheaves or suspension points are closer to the plane of the building face than the corresponding attachment points on the platform, thus causing the platform to press against the face of the building. Static lines are separate ropes secured at their top and bottom ends closer to the plane of the building face than the outermost edge of the platform. By drawing the static line taut, the platform is drawn against the face of the building.
</P>
<P>(2) On suspension scaffolds designed for a working load of 500 pounds, no more than two employees shall be permitted on the scaffold at one time. On suspension scaffolds with a working load of 750 pounds, no more than three employees shall be permitted on the scaffold at one time.
</P>
<P>(3) Ladder-type platforms. The side stringer shall be of clear straight-grained spruce. The rungs shall be of straight-grained oak, ash, or hickory, at least 1
<FR>1/8</FR> inches in diameter, with 
<FR>7/8</FR> inch tenons mortised into the side stringers at least 
<FR>7/8</FR> inch. The stringers shall be tied together with tie rods not less than 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch in diameter, passing through the stringers and riveted up tight against washers on both ends. The flooring strips shall be spaced not more than 
<FR>5/8</FR> inch apart, except at the side rails where the space may be 1 inch. Ladder-type platforms shall be constructed in accordance with the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Schedule for Ladder-Type Platforms
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Length of Platform</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14 &amp; 16 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 &amp; 20 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Side stringers, minimum cross section (finished sizes):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">At ends</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 3 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">At middle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 3
<fr>3/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 3
<fr>3/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 4 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reinforcing strip (minimum)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">A 
<fr>1/8</fr> × 
<fr>7/8</fr> inch steel reinforcing strip shall be attached to the side or underside, full length.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rungs</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">Rungs shall be 1
<fr>1/8</fr> inch minimum diameter with at least 
<fr>7/8</fr> inch in diameter tenons, and the maximum spacing shall be 12 inches to center.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tie rods:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Number (minimum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Diameter (minimum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> inch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> inch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> inch
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flooring, minimum finished size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr> in.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Schedule for Ladder-Type Platforms
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Length of Platform</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22 &amp; 24 ft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">28 &amp; 30 ft.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Side stringers, minimum cross section (finished sizes):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">At ends</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 3 in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 3
<fr>1/2</fr> in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">At middle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 4
<fr>1/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>3/4</fr> × 5 in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reinforcing strip (minimum)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">A 
<fr>1/8</fr> × 
<fr>7/8</fr>-inch steel reinforcing strip shall be attached to the side or underside, full length.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rungs</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Rungs shall be 1
<fr>1/8</fr> inch minimum diameter with at least 
<fr>7/8</fr> inch in diameter tenons, and the maximum spacing shall be 12 inches to center. Tie rods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Number (minimum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Diameter (minimum)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/4</fr> in.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flooring, minimum finished size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr> in</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr> × 2
<fr>3/4</fr> in.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Plank-Type Platforms. Plank-type platforms shall be composed of not less than nominal 2 × 8 inch unspliced planks, connected together on the underside with cleats at intervals not exceeding 4 feet, starting 6 inches from each end. A bar or other effective means shall be securely fastened to the platform at each end to prevent the platform from slipping off the hanger. The span between hangers for plank-type platforms shall not exceed 10 feet.
</P>
<P>(5) Beam-Type Platforms. Beam platforms shall have side stringers of lumber not less than 2 × 6 inches set on edge. The span between hangers shall not exceed 12 feet when beam platforms are used. The flooring shall be supported on 2 × 6 inch cross beams, laid flat and set into the upper edge of the stringers with a snug fit, at intervals of not more than 4 feet, securely nailed to the cross beams. Floor-boards shall not be spaced more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch apart.
</P>
<P>(q)(1) <I>Multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds and stonesetters' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.</I> No specific guidelines or tables are given for these scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Masons' multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.</I> Maximum intended load—50 lb/ft
<SU>2</SU>. Each outrigger beam shall be at least a standard 7 inch, 15.3 pound steel I-beam, at least 15 feet long. Such beams shall not project more than 6 feet 6 inches beyond the bearing point. Where the overhang exceeds 6 feet 6 inches, outrigger beams shall be composed of stronger beams or multiple beams.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Catenary scaffolds.</I> (1) Maximum intended load—500 lbs.
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than two employees shall be permitted on the scaffold at one time.
</P>
<P>(3) Maximum capacity of come-along shall be 2,000 lbs.
</P>
<P>(4) Vertical pickups shall be spaced not more than 50 feet apart.
</P>
<P>(5) Ropes shall be equivalent in strength to at least 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (1.3 cm) diameter improved plow steel wire rope.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Float (ship) scaffolds.</I> (1) Maximum intended load—750 lbs.
</P>
<P>(2) Platforms shall be made of 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch plywood, equivalent in rating to American Plywood Association Grade B-B, Group I, Exterior.
</P>
<P>(3) Bearers shall be made from 2 × 4 inch, or 1 × 10 inch rough lumber. They shall be free of knots and other flaws.
</P>
<P>(4) Ropes shall be equivalent in strength to at least 1 inch (2.5 cm) diameter first grade manila rope.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Interior hung scaffolds.</I>
</P>
<FP-1>Bearers (use on edge): 2 × 10 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maximum intended load: Maximum span
</FP-1>
<FP-1>25 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU>: 10 ft.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>50 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU>: 10 ft.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>75 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU>: 7 ft.
</FP-1>
<P>(u) <I>Needle beam scaffolds.</I>
</P>
<FP-1>Maximum intended load: 25 lb/ft.
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Beams: 4 × 6 in.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maximum platform span: 8 ft.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maximum beam span: 10 ft.
</FP-1>
<P>(1) Ropes shall be attached to the needle beams by a scaffold hitch or an eye splice. The loose end of the rope shall be tied by a bowline knot or by a round turn and a half hitch.
</P>
<P>(2) Ropes shall be equivalent in strength to at least 1 inch (2.5 cm) diameter first grade manila rope.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Multi-level suspension scaffolds.</I> No additional guidelines or tables are being given for these scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Mobile Scaffolds.</I> Stability test as described in the ANSI A92 series documents, as appropriate for the type of scaffold, can be used to establish stability for the purpose of § 1926.452(w)(6).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Repair bracket scaffolds.</I> No additional guidelines or tables are being given for these scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Stilts.</I> No specific guidelines or tables are given.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Tank builder's scaffold.</I> (1) The maximum distance between brackets to which scaffolding and guardrail supports are attached shall be no more than 10 feet 6 inches.
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than three employees shall occupy a 10 feet 6 inch span of scaffold planking at any time.
</P>
<P>(3) A taut wire or synthetic rope supported on the scaffold brackets shall be installed at the scaffold plank level between the innermost edge of the scaffold platform and the curved plate structure of the tank shell to serve as a safety line in lieu of an inner guardrail assembly where the space between the scaffold platform and the tank exceeds 12 inches (30.48 cm). In the event the open space on either side of the rope exceeds 12 inches (30.48 cm), a second wire or synthetic rope appropriately placed, or guardrails in accordance with § 1926.451(g)(4), shall be installed in order to reduce that open space to less than 12 inches (30.48 cm).
</P>
<P>(4) Scaffold planks of rough full-dimensioned 2-inch (5.1 cm) × 12-inch (30.5 cm) Douglas Fir or Southern Yellow Pine of Select Structural Grade shall be used. Douglas Fir planks shall have a fiber stress of at least 1900 lb/in
<SU>2</SU> (130,929 n/cm
<SU>2</SU>) and a modulus of elasticity of at least 1,900,000 lb/in
<SU>2</SU> (130,929,000 n/cm
<SU>2</SU>), while Yellow Pine planks shall have a fiber stress of at least 2500 lb/in
<SU>2</SU> (172,275 n/cm
<SU>2</SU>) and a modulus of elasticity of at least 2,000,000 lb/in
<SU>2</SU> (137,820,000 n/cm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P>(5) Guardrails shall be constructed of a taut wire or synthetic rope, and shall be supported by angle irons attached to brackets welded to the steel plates. These guardrails shall comply with § 1926.451(g)(4). Guardrail supports shall be located at no greater than 10 feet 6 inch intervals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979, as amended at 77 FR 46950, Aug. 7, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.20.6.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>(Non-mandatory) Appendix B to Subpart L of Part 1926—Criteria for Determining the Feasibility of Providing Safe Access and Fall Protection for Scaffold Erectors and Dismantlers [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.20.6.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>(Non-mandatory) Appendix C to Subpart L of Part 1926—List of National Consensus Standards
</HEAD>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.2-1990 <I>Vehicle-Mounted Elevating and Rotating Aerial Devices</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.3-1990 <I>Manually Propelled Elevating Aerial Platforms</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.5-1990 <I>Boom Supported Elevating Work Platforms</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.6-1990 <I>Self-Propelled Elevating Work Platforms</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.7-1990 <I>Airline Ground Support Vehicle-Mounted Vertical Lift Devices</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.8-1993 <I>Vehicle-Mounted Bridge Inspection and Maintenance Devices</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.9-1993 <I>Mast-Climbing Work Platforms</I>


</FP-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.20.6.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>(Non-mandatory) Appendix D to Subpart L of Part 1926—List of Training Topics for Scaffold Erectors and Dismantlers
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix D is provided to serve as a guide to assist employers when evaluating the training needs of employees erecting or dismantling supported scaffolds.
</P>
<P>The Agency believes that employees erecting or dismantling scaffolds should be trained in the following topics:
</P>
<FP-2>• <I>General Overview of Scaffolding</I>
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>• regulations and standards
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• erection/dismantling planning
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• PPE and proper procedures
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• fall protection
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• materials handling
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• access
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• working platforms
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• foundations
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• guys, ties and braces
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>• <I>Tubular Welded Frame Scaffolds</I>
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>• specific regulations and standards
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• components
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• parts inspection
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• erection/dismantling planning
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• guys, ties and braces
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• fall protection
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• general safety
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• access and platforms
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• erection/dismantling procedures
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• rolling scaffold assembly
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• putlogs
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>• <I>Tube and Clamp Scaffolds</I>
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>• specific regulations and standards
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• components
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• parts inspection
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• erection/dismantling planning
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• guys, ties and braces
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• fall protection
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• general safety
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• access and platforms
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• erection/dismantling procedures
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• buttresses, cantilevers, &amp; bridges
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>• <I>System Scaffolds</I>
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>• specific regulations and standards
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• components
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• parts inspection
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• erection/dismantling planning
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• guys, ties and braces
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• fall protection
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• general safety
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• access and platforms
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• erection/dismantling procedures
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>• buttresses, cantilevers, &amp; bridges
</FP1-2>
<P>Scaffold erectors and dismantlers should all receive the general overview, and, in addition, specific training for the type of supported scaffold being erected or dismantled.



</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.12.20.6.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>(Non-mandatory) Appendix E to Subpart L of Part 1926—Drawings and Illustrations
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix provides drawings of particular types of scaffolds and scaffold components, and graphic illustrations of bracing patterns and tie spacing patterns.
</P>
<P>This appendix is intended to provide visual guidance to assist the user in complying with the requirements of subpart L, part 1926.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30au96.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er30au96.001.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">HOISTS MUST BE ELECTRONICALLY ISOLATED FROM SCAFFOLD</E></BCAP>
<img src="/graphics/er18fe20.059.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18fe20.060.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er30au96.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er30au96.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er30au96.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er30au96.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er30au96.008.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 46122, Aug. 30, 1996; 61 FR 59832, Nov. 25, 1996; 85 FR 8736, Feb. 18, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Fall Protection</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR Part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 40730, Aug. 9, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.500" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.500   Scope, application, and definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This subpart sets forth requirements and criteria for fall protection in construction workplaces covered under 29 CFR part 1926. Exception: The provisions of this subpart do not apply when employees are making an inspection, investigation, or assessment of workplace conditions prior to the actual start of construction work or after all construction work has been completed.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 1926.501 sets forth those workplaces, conditions, operations, and circumstances for which fall protection shall be provided except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Requirements relating to fall protection for employees working on scaffolds are provided in subpart L of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requirements relating to fall protection for employees working on cranes and derricks are provided in subpart CC of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fall protection requirements for employees performing steel erection work (except for towers and tanks) are provided in subpart R of this part. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Requirements relating to fall protection for employees working on certain types of equipment used in tunneling operations are provided in subpart S of this part.
</P>
<P>(v) Requirements relating to fall protection for employees engaged in the erection of tanks and communication and broadcast towers are provided in § 1926.105. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Subpart V of this part provides requirements relating to fall protection for employees working from aerial lifts or on poles, towers, or similar structures while engaged in the construction of electric transmission or distribution lines or equipment.
</P>
<P>(vii) Requirements relating to fall protection for employees working on stairways and ladders are provided in subpart X of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 1926.502 sets forth the requirements for the installation, construction, and proper use of fall protection required by part 1926, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Performance requirements for guardrail systems used on scaffolds and performance requirements for falling object protection used on scaffolds are provided in subpart L of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance requirements for stairways, stairrail systems, and handrails are provided in subpart X of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional performance requirements for fall arrest and work-positioning equipment are provided in subpart V of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 1926.502 does not apply to the erection of tanks and communication and broadcast towers. (Note: Section 1926.104 sets the criteria for body belts, lanyards and lifelines used for fall protection during tank and communication and broadcast tower erection. Paragraphs (b),(c) and (f) of § 1926.107 provide definitions for the pertinent terms.) 
</P>
<P>(v) Criteria for steps, handholds, ladders, and grabrails/guardrails/railings required by subpart CC are provided in subpart CC. Sections 1926.502(a), (c) through (e), and (i) apply to activities covered under subpart CC unless otherwise stated in subpart CC. No other paragraphs of § 1926.502 apply to subpart CC.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 1926.503 sets forth requirements for training in the installation and use of fall protection systems, except in relation to steel erection activities and the use of equipment covered by subpart CC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Anchorage</I> means a secure point of attachment for lifelines, lanyards or deceleration devices.
</P>
<P><I>Body belt</I> (safety belt) means a strap with means both for securing it about the waist and for attaching it to a lanyard, lifeline, or deceleration device.
</P>
<P><I>Body harness</I> means straps which may be secured about the employee in a manner that will distribute the fall arrest forces over at least the thighs, pelvis, waist, chest and shoulders with means for attaching it to other components of a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P><I>Buckle</I> means any device for holding the body belt or body harness closed around the employee's body.
</P>
<P><I>Connector</I> means a device which is used to couple (connect) parts of the personal fall arrest system and positioning device systems together. It may be an independent component of the system, such as a carabiner, or it may be an integral component of part of the system (such as a buckle or dee-ring sewn into a body belt or body harness, or a snap-hook spliced or sewn to a lanyard or self-retracting lanyard).
</P>
<P><I>Controlled access zone</I> (CAZ) means an area in which certain work (e.g., overhand bricklaying) may take place without the use of guardrail systems, personal fall arrest systems, or safety net systems and access to the zone is controlled.
</P>
<P><I>Dangerous equipment</I> means equipment (such as pickling or galvanizing tanks, degreasing units, machinery, electrical equipment, and other units) which, as a result of form or function, may be hazardous to employees who fall onto or into such equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Deceleration device</I> means any mechanism, such as a rope grab, rip-stitch lanyard, specially-woven lanyard, tearing or deforming lanyards, automatic self-retracting lifelines/lanyards, etc., which serves to dissipate a substantial amount of energy during a fall arrest, or otherwise limit the energy imposed on an employee during fall arrest.
</P>
<P><I>Deceleration distance</I> means the additional vertical distance a falling employee travels, excluding lifeline elongation and free fall distance, before stopping, from the point at which the deceleration device begins to operate. It is measured as the distance between the location of an employee's body belt or body harness attachment point at the moment of activation (at the onset of fall arrest forces) of the deceleration device during a fall, and the location of that attachment point after the employee comes to a full stop.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent</I> means alternative designs, materials, or methods to protect against a hazard which the employer can demonstrate will provide an equal or greater degree of safety for employees than the methods, materials or designs specified in the standard.
</P>
<P><I>Failure</I> means load refusal, breakage, or separation of component parts. Load refusal is the point where the ultimate strength is exceeded.
</P>
<P><I>Free fall</I> means the act of falling before a personal fall arrest system begins to apply force to arrest the fall.
</P>
<P><I>Free fall distance</I> means the vertical displacement of the fall arrest attachment point on the employee's body belt or body harness between onset of the fall and just before the system begins to apply force to arrest the fall. This distance excludes deceleration distance, and lifeline/lanyard elongation, but includes any deceleration device slide distance or self-retracting lifeline/lanyard extension before they operate and fall arrest forces occur.
</P>
<P><I>Guardrail system</I> means a barrier erected to prevent employees from falling to lower levels.
</P>
<P><I>Hole</I> means a gap or void 2 inches (5.1 cm) or more in its least dimension, in a floor, roof, or other walking/working surface.
</P>
<P><I>Infeasible</I> means that it is impossible to perform the construction work using a conventional fall protection system (i.e., guardrail system, safety net system, or personal fall arrest system) or that it is technologically impossible to use any one of these systems to provide fall protection.
</P>
<P><I>Lanyard</I> means a flexible line of rope, wire rope, or strap which generally has a connector at each end for connecting the body belt or body harness to a deceleration device, lifeline, or anchorage.
</P>
<P><I>Leading edge</I> means the edge of a floor, roof, or formwork for a floor or other walking/working surface (such as the deck) which changes location as additional floor, roof, decking, or formwork sections are placed, formed, or constructed. A leading edge is considered to be an “unprotected side and edge” during periods when it is not actively and continuously under construction.
</P>
<P><I>Lifeline</I> means a component consisting of a flexible line for connection to an anchorage at one end to hang vertically (vertical lifeline), or for connection to anchorages at both ends to stretch horizontally (horizontal lifeline), and which serves as a means for connecting other components of a personal fall arrest system to the anchorage.
</P>
<P><I>Low-slope roof</I> means a roof having a slope less than or equal to 4 in 12 (vertical to horizontal).
</P>
<P><I>Lower levels</I> means those areas or surfaces to which an employee can fall. Such areas or surfaces include, but are not limited to, ground levels, floors, platforms, ramps, runways, excavations, pits, tanks, material, water, equipment, structures, or portions thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Mechanical equipment</I> means all motor or human propelled wheeled equipment used for roofing work, except wheelbarrows and mopcarts.
</P>
<P><I>Opening</I> means a gap or void 30 inches (76 cm) or more high and 18 inches (48 cm) or more wide, in a wall or partition, through which employees can fall to a lower level.
</P>
<P><I>Overhand bricklaying and related work</I> means the process of laying bricks and masonry units such that the surface of the wall to be jointed is on the opposite side of the wall from the mason, requiring the mason to lean over the wall to complete the work. Related work includes mason tending and electrical installation incorporated into the brick wall during the overhand bricklaying process.
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system</I> means a system used to arrest an employee in a fall from a working level. It consists of an anchorage, connectors, a body belt or body harness and may include a lanyard, deceleration device, lifeline, or suitable combinations of these. As of January 1, 1998, the use of a body belt for fall arrest is prohibited.
</P>
<P><I>Positioning device system</I> means a body belt or body harness system rigged to allow an employee to be supported on an elevated vertical surface, such as a wall, and work with both hands free while leaning.
</P>
<P><I>Rope grab</I> means a deceleration device which travels on a lifeline and automatically, by friction, engages the lifeline and locks so as to arrest the fall of an employee. A rope grab usually employs the principle of inertial locking, cam/level locking, or both.
</P>
<P><I>Roof</I> means the exterior surface on the top of a building. This does not include floors or formwork which, because a building has not been completed, temporarily become the top surface of a building.
</P>
<P><I>Roofing work</I> means the hoisting, storage, application, and removal of roofing materials and equipment, including related insulation, sheet metal, and vapor barrier work, but not including the construction of the roof deck.
</P>
<P><I>Safety-monitoring system</I> means a safety system in which a competent person is responsible for recognizing and warning employees of fall hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Self-retracting lifeline/lanyard</I> means a deceleration device containing a drum-wound line which can be slowly extracted from, or retracted onto, the drum under slight tension during normal employee movement, and which, after onset of a fall, automatically locks the drum and arrests the fall.
</P>
<P><I>Snaphook</I> means a connector comprised of a hook-shaped member with a normally closed keeper, or similar arrangement, which may be opened to permit the hook to receive an object and, when released, automatically closes to retain the object. Snaphooks are generally one of two types:
</P>
<P>(1) The locking type with a self-closing, self-locking keeper which remains closed and locked until unlocked and pressed open for connection or disconnection; or
</P>
<P>(2) The non-locking type with a self-closing keeper which remains closed until pressed open for connection or disconnection. As of January 1, 1998, the use of a non-locking snaphook as part of personal fall arrest systems and positioning device systems is prohibited.
</P>
<P><I>Steep roof</I> means a roof having a slope greater than 4 in 12 (vertical to horizontal).
</P>
<P><I>Toeboard</I> means a low protective barrier that will prevent the fall of materials and equipment to lower levels and provide protection from falls for personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Unprotected sides and edges</I> means any side or edge (except at entrances to points of access) of a walking/working surface, e.g., floor, roof, ramp, or runway where there is no wall or guardrail system at least 39 inches (1.0 m) high.
</P>
<P><I>Walking/working surface</I> means any surface, whether horizontal or vertical on which an employee walks or works, including, but not limited to, floors, roofs, ramps, bridges, runways, formwork and concrete reinforcing steel but not including ladders, vehicles, or trailers, on which employees must be located in order to perform their job duties.
</P>
<P><I>Warning line system</I> means a barrier erected on a roof to warn employees that they are approaching an unprotected roof side or edge, and which designates an area in which roofing work may take place without the use of guardrail, body belt, or safety net systems to protect employees in the area.
</P>
<P><I>Work area</I> means that portion of a walking/working surface where job duties are being performed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 40730, Aug. 9, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 39255, Aug. 2, 1995; 66 FR 5265, Jan. 18, 2001; 75 FR 48133, Aug. 9, 2010; 79 FR 20696, Apr. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.501" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.501   Duty to have fall protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) This section sets forth requirements for employers to provide fall protection systems. All fall protection required by this section shall conform to the criteria set forth in § 1926.502 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall determine if the walking/working surfaces on which its employees are to work have the strength and structural integrity to support employees safely. Employees shall be allowed to work on those surfaces only when the surfaces have the requisite strength and structural integrity.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Unprotected sides and edges.</I> Each employee on a walking/working surface (horizontal and vertical surface) with an unprotected side or edge which is 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above a lower level shall be protected from falling by the use of guardrail systems, safety net systems, or personal fall arrest systems.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Leading edges.</I> (i) Each employee who is constructing a leading edge 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels shall be protected from falling by guardrail systems, safety net systems, or personal fall arrest systems. Exception: When the employer can demonstrate that it is infeasible or creates a greater hazard to use these systems, the employer shall develop and implement a fall protection plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (k) of § 1926.502.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>There is a presumption that it is feasible and will not create a greater hazard to implement at least one of the above-listed fall protection systems. Accordingly, the employer has the burden of establishing that it is appropriate to implement a fall protection plan which complies with § 1926.502(k) for a particular workplace situation, in lieu of implementing any of those systems.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Each employee on a walking/working surface 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above a lower level where leading edges are under construction, but who is not engaged in the leading edge work, shall be protected from falling by a guardrail system, safety net system, or personal fall arrest system. If a guardrail system is chosen to provide the fall protection, and a controlled access zone has already been established for leading edge work, the control line may be used in lieu of a guardrail along the edge that parallels the leading edge.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hoist areas.</I> Each employee in a hoist area shall be protected from falling 6 feet (1.8 m) or more to lower levels by guardrail systems or personal fall arrest systems. If guardrail systems, [or chain, gate, or guardrail] or portions thereof, are removed to facilitate the hoisting operation (e.g., during landing of materials), and an employee must lean through the access opening or out over the edge of the access opening (to receive or guide equipment and materials, for example), that employee shall be protected from fall hazards by a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Holes.</I> (i) Each employee on walking/working surfaces shall be protected from falling through holes (including skylights) more than 6 feet (1.8 m) above lower levels, by personal fall arrest systems, covers, or guardrail systems erected around such holes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee on a walking/working surface shall be protected from tripping in or stepping into or through holes (including skylights) by covers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee on a walking/working surface shall be protected from objects falling through holes (including skylights) by covers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Formwork and reinforcing steel.</I> Each employee on the face of formwork or reinforcing steel shall be protected from falling 6 feet (1.8 m) or more to lower levels by personal fall arrest systems, safety net systems, or positioning device systems.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Ramps, runways, and other walkways.</I> Each employee on ramps, runways, and other walkways shall be protected from falling 6 feet (1.8 m) or more to lower levels by guardrail systems.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Excavations.</I> (i) Each employee at the edge of an excavation 6 feet (1.8 m) or more in depth shall be protected from falling by guardrail systems, fences, or barricades when the excavations are not readily seen because of plant growth or other visual barrier;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee at the edge of a well, pit, shaft, and similar excavation 6 feet (1.8 m) or more in depth shall be protected from falling by guardrail systems, fences, barricades, or covers.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Dangerous equipment.</I> (i) Each employee less than 6 feet (1.8 m) above dangerous equipment shall be protected from falling into or onto the dangerous equipment by guardrail systems or by equipment guards.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above dangerous equipment shall be protected from fall hazards by guardrail systems, personal fall arrest systems, or safety net systems.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Overhand bricklaying and related work.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each employee performing overhand bricklaying and related work 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels, shall be protected from falling by guardrail systems, safety net systems, personal fall arrest systems, or shall work in a controlled access zone.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee reaching more than 10 inches (25 cm) below the level of the walking/working surface on which they are working, shall be protected from falling by a guardrail system, safety net system, or personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Bricklaying operations performed on scaffolds are regulated by subpart L—Scaffolds of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(10) <I>Roofing work on Low-slope roofs.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each employee engaged in roofing activities on low-slope roofs, with unprotected sides and edges 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels shall be protected from falling by guardrail systems, safety net systems, personal fall arrest systems, or a combination of warning line system and guardrail system, warning line system and safety net system, or warning line system and personal fall arrest system, or warning line system and safety monitoring system. Or, on roofs 50-feet (15.25 m) or less in width (see appendix A to subpart M of this part), the use of a safety monitoring system alone [i.e. without the warning line system] is permitted.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Steep roofs.</I> Each employee on a steep roof with unprotected sides and edges 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels shall be protected from falling by guardrail systems with toeboards, safety net systems, or personal fall arrest systems.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Precast concrete erection.</I> Each employee engaged in the erection of precast concrete members (including, but not limited to the erection of wall panels, columns, beams, and floor and roof “tees”) and related operations such as grouting of precast concrete members, who is 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels shall be protected from falling by guardrail systems, safety net systems, or personal fall arrest systems, unless another provision in paragraph (b) of this section provides for an alternative fall protection measure. Exception: When the employer can demonstrate that it is infeasible or creates a greater hazard to use these systems, the employer shall develop and implement a fall protection plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (k) of § 1926.502.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>There is a presumption that it is feasible and will not create a greater hazard to implement at least one of the above-listed fall protection systems. Accordingly, the employer has the burden of establishing that it is appropriate to implement a fall protection plan which complies with § 1926.502(k) for a particular workplace situation, in lieu of implementing any of those systems.</P></NOTE>
<P>(13) <I>Residential construction.</I> Each employee engaged in residential construction activities 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels shall be protected by guardrail systems, safety net system, or personal fall arrest system unless another provision in paragraph (b) of this section provides for an alternative fall protection measure. Exception: When the employer can demonstrate that it is infeasible or creates a greater hazard to use these systems, the employer shall develop and implement a fall protection plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (k) of § 1926.502.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>There is a presumption that it is feasible and will not create a greater hazard to implement at least one of the above-listed fall protection systems. Accordingly, the employer has the burden of establishing that it is appropriate to implement a fall protection plan which complies with § 1926.502(k) for a particular workplace situation, in lieu of implementing any of those systems.</P></NOTE>
<P>(14) <I>Wall openings.</I> Each employee working on, at, above, or near wall openings (including those with chutes attached) where the outside bottom edge of the wall opening is 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels and the inside bottom edge of the wall opening is less than 39 inches (1.0 m) above the walking/working surface, shall be protected from falling by the use of a guardrail system, a safety net system, or a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Walking/working surfaces not otherwise addressed.</I> Except as provided in § 1926.500(a)(2) or in § 1926.501 (b)(1) through (b)(14), each employee on a walking/working surface 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels shall be protected from falling by a guardrail system, safety net system, or personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection from falling objects.</I> When an employee is exposed to falling objects, the employer shall have each employee wear a hard hat and shall implement one of the following measures:
</P>
<P>(1) Erect toeboards, screens, or guardrail systems to prevent objects from falling from higher levels; or,
</P>
<P>(2) Erect a canopy structure and keep potential fall objects far enough from the edge of the higher level so that those objects would not go over the edge if they were accidentally displaced; or,
</P>
<P>(3) Barricade the area to which objects could fall, prohibit employees from entering the barricaded area, and keep objects that may fall far enough away from the edge of a higher level so that those objects would not go over the edge if they were accidentally displaced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.502" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.502   Fall protection systems criteria and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Fall protection systems required by this part shall comply with the applicable provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Employers shall provide and install all fall protection systems required by this subpart for an employee, and shall comply with all other pertinent requirements of this subpart before that employee begins the work that necessitates the fall protection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guardrail systems.</I> Guardrail systems and their use shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Top edge height of top rails, or equivalent guardrail system members, shall be 42 inches (1.1 m) plus or minus 3 inches (8 cm) above the walking/working level. When conditions warrant, the height of the top edge may exceed the 45-inch height, provided the guardrail system meets all other criteria of this paragraph.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When employees are using stilts, the top edge height of the top rail, or equivalent member, shall be increased an amount equal to the height of the stilts.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, or equivalent intermediate structural members shall be installed between the top edge of the guardrail system and the walking/working surface when there is no wall or parapet wall at least 21 inches (53 cm) high.
</P>
<P>(i) Midrails, when used, shall be installed at a height midway between the top edge of the guardrail system and the walking/working level.
</P>
<P>(ii) Screens and mesh, when used, shall extend from the top rail to the walking/working level and along the entire opening between top rail supports.
</P>
<P>(iii) Intermediate members (such as balusters), when used between posts, shall be not more than 19 inches (48 cm) apart.
</P>
<P>(iv) Other structural members (such as additional midrails and architectural panels) shall be installed such that there are no openings in the guardrail system that are more than 19 inches (.5 m) wide.
</P>
<P>(3) Guardrail systems shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 200 pounds (890 N) applied within 2 inches (5.1 cm) of the top edge, in any outward or downward direction, at any point along the top edge.
</P>
<P>(4) When the 200 pound (890 N) test load specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section is applied in a downward direction, the top edge of the guardrail shall not deflect to a height less than 39 inches (1.0 m) above the walking/working level. Guardrail system components selected and constructed in accordance with the appendix B to subpart M of this part will be deemed to meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(5) Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, solid panels, and equivalent structural members shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 150 pounds (666 N) applied in any downward or outward direction at any point along the midrail or other member.
</P>
<P>(6) Guardrail systems shall be so surfaced as to prevent injury to an employee from punctures or lacerations, and to prevent snagging of clothing.
</P>
<P>(7) The ends of all top rails and midrails shall not overhang the terminal posts, except where such overhang does not constitute a projection hazard.
</P>
<P>(8) Steel banding and plastic banding shall not be used as top rails or midrails.
</P>
<P>(9) Top rails and midrails shall be at least one-quarter inch (0.6 cm) nominal diameter or thickness to prevent cuts and lacerations. If wire rope is used for top rails, it shall be flagged at not more than 6-foot (1.8 m) intervals with high-visibility material.
</P>
<P>(10) When guardrail systems are used at hoisting areas, a chain, gate or removable guardrail section shall be placed across the access opening between guardrail sections when hoisting operations are not taking place.
</P>
<P>(11) When guardrail systems are used at holes, they shall be erected on all unprotected sides or edges of the hole.
</P>
<P>(12) When guardrail systems are used around holes used for the passage of materials, the hole shall have not more than two sides provided with removable guardrail sections to allow the passage of materials. When the hole is not in use, it shall be closed over with a cover, or a guardrail system shall be provided along all unprotected sides or edges.
</P>
<P>(13) When guardrail systems are used around holes which are used as points of access (such as ladderways), they shall be provided with a gate, or be so offset that a person cannot walk directly into the hole.
</P>
<P>(14) Guardrail systems used on ramps and runways shall be erected along each unprotected side or edge.
</P>
<P>(15) Manila, plastic or synthetic rope being used for top rails or midrails shall be inspected as frequently as necessary to ensure that it continues to meet the strength requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safety net systems.</I> Safety net systems and their use shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Safety nets shall be installed as close as practicable under the walking/working surface on which employees are working, but in no case more than 30 feet (9.1 m) below such level. When nets are used on bridges, the potential fall area from the walking/working surface to the net shall be unobstructed.
</P>
<P>(2) Safety nets shall extend outward from the outermost projection of the work surface as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Vertical distance from working level to horizontal plane of net
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum required horizontal distance of outer edge of net from the edge of the working surface
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 5 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 5 feet up to 10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13 feet.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Safety nets shall be installed with sufficient clearance under them to prevent contact with the surface or structures below when subjected to an impact force equal to the drop test specified in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Safety nets and their installations shall be capable of absorbing an impact force equal to that produced by the drop test specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, safety nets and safety net installations shall be drop-tested at the jobsite after initial installation and before being used as a fall protection system, whenever relocated, after major repair, and at 6-month intervals if left in one place. The drop-test shall consist of a 400 pound (180 kg) bag of sand 30 ±2 inches (76 ±5 cm) in diameter dropped into the net from the highest walking/working surface at which employees are exposed to fall hazards, but not from less than 42 inches (1.1 m) above that level.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the employer can demonstrate that it is unreasonable to perform the drop-test required by paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, the employer (or a designated competent person) shall certify that the net and net installation is in compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4)(i) of this section by preparing a certification record prior to the net being used as a fall protection system. The certification record must include an identification of the net and net installation for which the certification record is being prepared; the date that it was determined that the identified net and net installation were in compliance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section and the signature of the person making the determination and certification. The most recent certification record for each net and net installation shall be available at the jobsite for inspection.
</P>
<P>(5) Defective nets shall not be used. Safety nets shall be inspected at least once a week for wear, damage, and other deterioration. Defective components shall be removed from service. Safety nets shall also be inspected after any occurrence which could affect the integrity of the safety net system.
</P>
<P>(6) Materials, scrap pieces, equipment, and tools which have fallen into the safety net shall be removed as soon as possible from the net and at least before the next work shift.
</P>
<P>(7) The maximum size of each safety net mesh opening shall not exceed 36 square inches (230 cm 
<SU>2</SU>) nor be longer than 6 inches (15 cm) on any side, and the opening, measured center-to-center of mesh ropes or webbing, shall not be longer than 6 inches (15 cm). All mesh crossings shall be secured to prevent enlargement of the mesh opening.
</P>
<P>(8) Each safety net (or section of it) shall have a border rope for webbing with a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN).
</P>
<P>(9) Connections between safety net panels shall be as strong as integral net components and shall be spaced not more than 6 inches (15 cm) apart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Personal fall arrest systems.</I> Personal fall arrest systems and their use shall comply with the provisions set forth below. Effective January 1, 1998, body belts are not acceptable as part of a personal fall arrest system. Note: The use of a body belt in a positioning device system is acceptable and is regulated under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Connectors shall be drop forged, pressed or formed steel, or made of equivalent materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Connectors shall have a corrosion-resistant finish, and all surfaces and edges shall be smooth to prevent damage to interfacing parts of the system.
</P>
<P>(3) Dee-rings and snaphooks shall have a minimum tensile strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN).
</P>
<P>(4) Dee-rings and snaphooks shall be proof-tested to a minimum tensile load of 3,600 pounds (16 kN) without cracking, breaking, or taking permanent deformation.
</P>
<P>(5) Snaphooks shall be sized to be compatible with the member to which they are connected to prevent unintentional disengagement of the snaphook by depression of the snaphook keeper by the connected member, or shall be a locking type snaphook designed and used to prevent disengagement of the snaphook by the contact of the snaphook keeper by the connected member. Effective January 1, 1998, only locking type snaphooks shall be used.
</P>
<P>(6) Unless the snaphook is a locking type and designed for the following connections, snaphooks shall not be engaged:
</P>
<P>(i) directly to webbing, rope or wire rope;
</P>
<P>(ii) to each other;
</P>
<P>(iii) to a Dee-ring to which another snaphook or other connector is attached;
</P>
<P>(iv) to a horizontal lifeline; or
</P>
<P>(v) to any object which is incompatibly shaped or dimensioned in relation to the snaphook such that unintentional disengagement could occur by the connected object being able to depress the snaphook keeper and release itself.
</P>
<P>(7) On suspended scaffolds or similar work platforms with horizontal lifelines which may become vertical lifelines, the devices used to connect to a horizontal lifeline shall be capable of locking in both directions on the lifeline.
</P>
<P>(8) Horizontal lifelines shall be designed, installed, and used, under the supervision of a qualified person, as part of a complete personal fall arrest system, which maintains a safety factor of at least two.
</P>
<P>(9) Lanyards and vertical lifelines shall have a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN).
</P>
<P>(10) (i) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(10)(ii) of this section, when vertical lifelines are used, each employee shall be attached to a separate lifeline.
</P>
<P>(ii) During the construction of elevator shafts, two employees may be attached to the same lifeline in the hoistway, provided both employees are working atop a false car that is equipped with guardrails; the strength of the lifeline is 10,000 pounds [5,000 pounds per employee attached] (44.4 kN); and all other criteria specified in this paragraph for lifelines have been met.
</P>
<P>(11) Lifelines shall be protected against being cut or abraded.
</P>
<P>(12) Self-retracting lifelines and lanyards which automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less shall be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 3,000 pounds (13.3 kN) applied to the device with the lifeline or lanyard in the fully extended position.
</P>
<P>(13) Self-retracting lifelines and lanyards which do not limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, ripstitch lanyards, and tearing and deforming lanyards shall be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN) applied to the device with the lifeline or lanyard in the fully extended position.
</P>
<P>(14) Ropes and straps (webbing) used in lanyards, lifelines, and strength components of body belts and body harnesses shall be made from synthetic fibers.
</P>
<P>(15) Anchorages used for attachment of personal fall arrest equipment shall be independent of any anchorage being used to support or suspend platforms and capable of supporting at least 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN) per employee attached, or shall be designed, installed, and used as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) as part of a complete personal fall arrest system which maintains a safety factor of at least two; and
</P>
<P>(ii) under the supervision of a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(16) Personal fall arrest systems, when stopping a fall, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) limit maximum arresting force on an employee to 900 pounds (4 kN) when used with a body belt;
</P>
<P>(ii) limit maximum arresting force on an employee to 1,800 pounds (8 kN) when used with a body harness;
</P>
<P>(iii) be rigged such that an employee can neither free fall more than 6 feet (1.8 m), nor contact any lower level;
</P>
<P>(iv) bring an employee to a complete stop and limit maximum deceleration distance an employee travels to 3.5 feet (1.07 m); and,
</P>
<P>(v) have sufficient strength to withstand twice the potential impact energy of an employee free falling a distance of 6 feet (1.8 m), or the free fall distance permitted by the system, whichever is less.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If the personal fall arrest system meets the criteria and protocols contained in appendix C to subpart M, and if the system is being used by an employee having a combined person and tool weight of less than 310 pounds (140 kg), the system will be considered to be in compliance with the provisions of paragraph (d)(16) of this section. If the system is used by an employee having a combined tool and body weight of 310 pounds (140 kg) or more, then the employer must appropriately modify the criteria and protocols of the appendix to provide proper protection for such heavier weights, or the system will not be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (d)(16) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(17) The attachment point of the body belt shall be located in the center of the wearer's back. The attachment point of the body harness shall be located in the center of the wearer's back near shoulder level, or above the wearer's head.
</P>
<P>(18) Body belts, harnesses, and components shall be used only for employee protection (as part of a personal fall arrest system or positioning device system) and not to hoist materials.
</P>
<P>(19) Personal fall arrest systems and components subjected to impact loading shall be immediately removed from service and shall not be used again for employee protection until inspected and determined by a competent person to be undamaged and suitable for reuse.
</P>
<P>(20) The employer shall provide for prompt rescue of employees in the event of a fall or shall assure that employees are able to rescue themselves.
</P>
<P>(21) Personal fall arrest systems shall be inspected prior to each use for wear, damage and other deterioration, and defective components shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(22) Body belts shall be at least one and five-eighths (1
<FR>5/8</FR>) inches (4.1 cm) wide.
</P>
<P>(23) Personal fall arrest systems shall not be attached to guardrail systems, nor shall they be attached to hoists except as specified in other subparts of this part.
</P>
<P>(24) When a personal fall arrest system is used at hoist areas, it shall be rigged to allow the movement of the employee only as far as the edge of the walking/working surface.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Positioning device systems.</I> Positioning device systems and their use shall conform to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Positioning devices shall be rigged such that an employee cannot free fall more than 2 feet (.6 m).
</P>
<P>(2) Positioning devices shall be secured to an anchorage capable of supporting at least twice the potential impact load of an employee's fall or 3,000 pounds (13.3 kN), whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(3) Connectors shall be drop forged, pressed or formed steel, or made of equivalent materials.
</P>
<P>(4) Connectors shall have a corrosion-resistant finish, and all surfaces and edges shall be smooth to prevent damage to interfacing parts of this system.
</P>
<P>(5) Connecting assemblies shall have a minimum tensile strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN)
</P>
<P>(6) Dee-rings and snaphooks shall be proof-tested to a minimum tensile load of 3,600 pounds (16 kN) without cracking, breaking, or taking permanent deformation.
</P>
<P>(7) Snaphooks shall be sized to be compatible with the member to which they are connected to prevent unintentional disengagement of the snaphook by depression of the snaphook keeper by the connected member, or shall be a locking type snaphook designed and used to prevent disengagement of the snaphook by the contact of the snaphook keeper by the connected member. As of January 1, 1998, only locking type snaphooks shall be used.
</P>
<P>(8) Unless the snaphook is a locking type and designed for the following connections, snaphooks shall not be engaged:
</P>
<P>(i) directly to webbing, rope or wire rope;
</P>
<P>(ii) to each other;
</P>
<P>(iii) to a Dee-ring to which another snaphook or other connector is attached;
</P>
<P>(iv) to a horizontal lifeline; or
</P>
<P>(v) to any object which is incompatibly shaped or dimensioned in relation to the snaphook such that unintentional disengagement could occur by the connected object being able to depress the snaphook keeper and release itself.
</P>
<P>(9) Positioning device systems shall be inspected prior to each use for wear, damage, and other deterioration, and defective components shall be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(10) Body belts, harnesses, and components shall be used only for employee protection (as part of a personal fall arrest system or positioning device system) and not to hoist materials.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Warning line systems.</I> Warning line systems [See § 1926.501(b)(10)] and their use shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) The warning line shall be erected around all sides of the roof work area.
</P>
<P>(i) When mechanical equipment is not being used, the warning line shall be erected not less than 6 feet (1.8 m) from the roof edge.
</P>
<P>(ii) When mechanical equipment is being used, the warning line shall be erected not less than 6 feet (1.8 m) from the roof edge which is parallel to the direction of mechanical equipment operation, and not less than 10 feet (3.1 m) from the roof edge which is perpendicular to the direction of mechanical equipment operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Points of access, materials handling areas, storage areas, and hoisting areas shall be connected to the work area by an access path formed by two warning lines.
</P>
<P>(iv) When the path to a point of access is not in use, a rope, wire, chain, or other barricade, equivalent in strength and height to the warning line, shall be placed across the path at the point where the path intersects the warning line erected around the work area, or the path shall be offset such that a person cannot walk directly into the work area.
</P>
<P>(2) Warning lines shall consist of ropes, wires, or chains, and supporting stanchions erected as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The rope, wire, or chain shall be flagged at not more than 6-foot (1.8 m) intervals with high-visibility material;
</P>
<P>(ii) The rope, wire, or chain shall be rigged and supported in such a way that its lowest point (including sag) is no less than 34 inches (.9 m) from the walking/working surface and its highest point is no more than 39 inches (1.0 m) from the walking/working surface;
</P>
<P>(iii) After being erected, with the rope, wire, or chain attached, stanchions shall be capable of resisting, without tipping over, a force of at least 16 pounds (71 N) applied horizontally against the stanchion, 30 inches (.8 m) above the walking/working surface, perpendicular to the warning line, and in the direction of the floor, roof, or platform edge;
</P>
<P>(iv) The rope, wire, or chain shall have a minimum tensile strength of 500 pounds (2.22 kN), and after being attached to the stanchions, shall be capable of supporting, without breaking, the loads applied to the stanchions as prescribed in paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) The line shall be attached at each stanchion in such a way that pulling on one section of the line between stanchions will not result in slack being taken up in adjacent sections before the stanchion tips over.
</P>
<P>(3) No employee shall be allowed in the area between a roof edge and a warning line unless the employee is performing roofing work in that area.
</P>
<P>(4) Mechanical equipment on roofs shall be used or stored only in areas where employees are protected by a warning line system, guardrail system, or personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Controlled access zones.</I> Controlled access zones [See §§ 1926.501(b)(9) and 1926.502(k)] and their use shall conform to the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) When used to control access to areas where leading edge and other operations are taking place the controlled access zone shall be defined by a control line or by any other means that restricts access.
</P>
<P>(i) When control lines are used, they shall be erected not less than 6 feet (1.8 m) nor more than 25 feet (7.7 m) from the unprotected or leading edge, except when erecting precast concrete members.
</P>
<P>(ii) When erecting precast concrete members, the control line shall be erected not less than 6 feet (1.8 m) nor more than 60 feet (18 m) or half the length of the member being erected, whichever is less, from the leading edge.
</P>
<P>(iii) The control line shall extend along the entire length of the unprotected or leading edge and shall be approximately parallel to the unprotected or leading edge.
</P>
<P>(iv) The control line shall be connected on each side to a guardrail system or wall.
</P>
<P>(2) When used to control access to areas where overhand bricklaying and related work are taking place:
</P>
<P>(i) The controlled access zone shall be defined by a control line erected not less than 10 feet (3.1 m) nor more than 15 feet (4.5 m) from the working edge.
</P>
<P>(ii) The control line shall extend for a distance sufficient for the controlled access zone to enclose all employees performing overhand bricklaying and related work at the working edge and shall be approximately parallel to the working edge.
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional control lines shall be erected at each end to enclose the controlled access zone.
</P>
<P>(iv) Only employees engaged in overhand bricklaying or related work shall be permitted in the controlled access zone.
</P>
<P>(3) Control lines shall consist of ropes, wires, tapes, or equivalent materials, and supporting stanchions as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Each line shall be flagged or otherwise clearly marked at not more than 6-foot (1.8 m) intervals with high-visibility material.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each line shall be rigged and supported in such a way that its lowest point (including sag) is not less than 39 inches (1 m) from the walking/working surface and its highest point is not more than 45 inches (1.3 m) [50 inches (1.3 m) when overhand bricklaying operations are being performed] from the walking/working surface.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each line shall have a minimum breaking strength of 200 pounds (.88 kN).
</P>
<P>(4) On floors and roofs where guardrail systems are not in place prior to the beginning of overhand bricklaying operations, controlled access zones shall be enlarged, as necessary, to enclose all points of access, material handling areas, and storage areas.
</P>
<P>(5) On floors and roofs where guardrail systems are in place, but need to be removed to allow overhand bricklaying work or leading edge work to take place, only that portion of the guardrail necessary to accomplish that day's work shall be removed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Safety monitoring systems.</I> Safety monitoring systems [See §§ 1926.501(b)(10) and 1926.502(k)] and their use shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall designate a competent person to monitor the safety of other employees and the employer shall ensure that the safety monitor complies with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The safety monitor shall be competent to recognize fall hazards;
</P>
<P>(ii) The safety monitor shall warn the employee when it appears that the employee is unaware of a fall hazard or is acting in an unsafe manner;
</P>
<P>(iii) The safety monitor shall be on the same walking/working surface and within visual sighting distance of the employee being monitored;
</P>
<P>(iv) The safety monitor shall be close enough to communicate orally with the employee; and
</P>
<P>(v) The safety monitor shall not have other responsibilities which could take the monitor's attention from the monitoring function.
</P>
<P>(2) Mechanical equipment shall not be used or stored in areas where safety monitoring systems are being used to monitor employees engaged in roofing operations on low-slope roofs.
</P>
<P>(3) No employee, other than an employee engaged in roofing work [on low-sloped roofs] or an employee covered by a fall protection plan, shall be allowed in an area where an employee is being protected by a safety monitoring system.
</P>
<P>(4) Each employee working in a controlled access zone shall be directed to comply promptly with fall hazard warnings from safety monitors.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Covers.</I> Covers for holes in floors, roofs, and other walking/working surfaces shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Covers located in roadways and vehicular aisles shall be capable of supporting, without failure, at least twice the maximum axle load of the largest vehicle expected to cross over the cover.
</P>
<P>(2) All other covers shall be capable of supporting, without failure, at least twice the weight of employees, equipment, and materials that may be imposed on the cover at any one time.
</P>
<P>(3) All covers shall be secured when installed so as to prevent accidental displacement by the wind, equipment, or employees.
</P>
<P>(4) All covers shall be color coded or they shall be marked with the word “HOLE” or “COVER” to provide warning of the hazard.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This provision does not apply to cast iron manhole covers or steel grates used on streets or roadways.</P></NOTE>
<P>(j) <I>Protection from falling objects.</I> Falling object protection shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Toeboards, when used as falling object protection, shall be erected along the edge of the overhead walking/working surface for a distance sufficient to protect employees below.
</P>
<P>(2) Toeboards shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 50 pounds (222 N) applied in any downward or outward direction at any point along the toeboard.
</P>
<P>(3) Toeboards shall be a minimum of 3
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (9 cm) in vertical height from their top edge to the level of the walking/working surface. They shall have not more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch (0.6 cm) clearance above the walking/working surface. They shall be solid or have openings not over 1 inch (2.5 cm) in greatest dimension.
</P>
<P>(4) Where tools, equipment, or materials are piled higher than the top edge of a toeboard, paneling or screening shall be erected from the walking/working surface or toeboard to the top of a guardrail system's top rail or midrail, for a distance sufficient to protect employees below.
</P>
<P>(5) Guardrail systems, when used as falling object protection, shall have all openings small enough to prevent passage of potential falling objects.
</P>
<P>(6) During the performance of overhand bricklaying and related work:
</P>
<P>(i) No materials or equipment except masonry and mortar shall be stored within 4 feet (1.2 m) of the working edge.
</P>
<P>(ii) Excess mortar, broken or scattered masonry units, and all other materials and debris shall be kept clear from the work area by removal at regular intervals.
</P>
<P>(7) During the performance of roofing work:
</P>
<P>(i) Materials and equipment shall not be stored within 6 feet (1.8 m) of a roof edge unless guardrails are erected at the edge.
</P>
<P>(ii) Materials which are piled, grouped, or stacked near a roof edge shall be stable and self-supporting.
</P>
<P>(8) Canopies, when used as falling object protection, shall be strong enough to prevent collapse and to prevent penetration by any objects which may fall onto the canopy.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Fall protection plan.</I> This option is available only to employees engaged in leading edge work, precast concrete erection work, or residential construction work (See § 1926.501(b)(2), (b)(12), and (b)(13)) who can demonstrate that it is infeasible or it creates a greater hazard to use conventional fall protection equipment. The fall protection plan must conform to the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) The fall protection plan shall be prepared by a qualified person and developed specifically for the site where the leading edge work, precast concrete work, or residential construction work is being performed and the plan must be maintained up to date.
</P>
<P>(2) Any changes to the fall protection plan shall be approved by a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the fall protection plan with all approved changes shall be maintained at the job site.
</P>
<P>(4) The implementation of the fall protection plan shall be under the supervision of a competent person.
</P>
<P>(5) The fall protection plan shall document the reasons why the use of conventional fall protection systems (guardrail systems, personal fall arrest systems, or safety nets systems) are infeasible or why their use would create a greater hazard.
</P>
<P>(6) The fall protection plan shall include a written discussion of other measures that will be taken to reduce or eliminate the fall hazard for workers who cannot be provided with protection from the conventional fall protection systems. For example, the employer shall discuss the extent to which scaffolds, ladders, or vehicle mounted work platforms can be used to provide a safer working surface and thereby reduce the hazard of falling.
</P>
<P>(7) The fall protection plan shall identify each location where conventional fall protection methods cannot be used. These locations shall then be classified as controlled access zones and the employer must comply with the criteria in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) Where no other alternative measure has been implemented, the employer shall implement a safety monitoring system in conformance with § 1926.502(h).
</P>
<P>(9) The fall protection plan must include a statement which provides the name or other method of identification for each employee who is designated to work in controlled access zones. No other employees may enter controlled access zones.
</P>
<P>(10) In the event an employee falls, or some other related, serious incident occurs, (e.g., a near miss) the employer shall investigate the circumstances of the fall or other incident to determine if the fall protection plan needs to be changed (e.g. new practices, procedures, or training) and shall implement those changes to prevent similar types of falls or incidents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.503" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.503   Training requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The following training provisions supplement and clarify the requirements of § 1926.21 regarding the hazards addressed in subpart M of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Training program.</I> (1) The employer shall provide a training program for each employee who might be exposed to fall hazards. The program shall enable each employee to recognize the hazards of falling and shall train each employee in the procedures to be followed in order to minimize these hazards.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall assure that each employee has been trained, as necessary, by a competent person qualified in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of fall hazards in the work area;
</P>
<P>(ii) The correct procedures for erecting, maintaining, disassembling, and inspecting the fall protection systems to be used;
</P>
<P>(iii) The use and operation of guardrail systems, personal fall arrest systems, safety net systems, warning line systems, safety monitoring systems, controlled access zones, and other protection to be used;
</P>
<P>(iv) The role of each employee in the safety monitoring system when this system is used;
</P>
<P>(v) The limitations on the use of mechanical equipment during the performance of roofing work on low-sloped roofs;
</P>
<P>(vi) The correct procedures for the handling and storage of equipment and materials and the erection of overhead protection; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The role of employees in fall protection plans;
</P>
<P>(viii) The standards contained in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification of training.</I> (1) The employer shall verify compliance with paragraph (a) of this section by preparing a written certification record. The written certification record shall contain the name or other identity of the employee trained, the date(s) of the training, and the signature of the person who conducted the training or the signature of the employer. If the employer relies on training conducted by another employer or completed prior to the effective date of this section, the certification record shall indicate the date the employer determined the prior training was adequate rather than the date of actual training.
</P>
<P>(2) The latest training certification shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retraining.</I> When the employer has reason to believe that any affected employee who has already been trained does not have the understanding and skill required by paragraph (a) of this section, the employer shall retrain each such employee. Circumstances where retraining is required include, but are not limited to, situations where:
</P>
<P>(1) Changes in the workplace render previous training obsolete; or
</P>
<P>(2) Changes in the types of fall protection systems or equipment to be used render previous training obsolete; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inadequacies in an affected employee's knowledge or use of fall protection systems or equipment indicate that the employee has not retained the requisite understanding or skill.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The following appendices to subpart M of this part serve as non-mandatory guidelines to assist employers in complying with the appropriate requirements of subpart M of this part.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.5.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart M of Part 1926—Determining Roof Widths


</HEAD>
<HD2>Non-Mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.501(b)(10)
</HD2>
<P>(1) This appendix serves as a guideline to assist employers complying with the requirements of § 1926.501(b)(10). Section 1926.501(b)(10) allows the use of a safety monitoring system alone as a means of providing fall protection during the performance of roofing operations on low-sloped roofs 50 feet (15.25 m) or less in width. Each example in the appendix shows a roof plan or plans and indicates where each roof or roof area is to be measured to determine its width. Section views or elevation views are shown where appropriate. Some examples show “correct” and “incorrect” subdivisions of irregularly shaped roofs divided into smaller, regularly shaped areas. In all examples, the dimension selected to be the width of an area is the lesser of the two primary dimensions of the area, as viewed from above. Example A shows that on a simple rectangular roof, width is the lesser of the two primary overall dimensions. This is also the case with roofs which are sloped toward or away from the roof center, as shown in Example B.
</P>
<P>(2) Many roofs are not simple rectangles. Such roofs may be broken down into subareas as shown in Example C. The process of dividing a roof area can produce many different configurations. Example C gives the general rule of using dividing lines of minimum length to minimize the size and number of the areas which are potentially less than 50 feet (15.25 m) wide. The intent is to minimize the number of roof areas where safety monitoring systems alone are sufficient protection.
</P>
<P>(3) Roofs which are comprised of several separate, non-contiguous roof areas, as in Example D, may be considered as a series of individual roofs. Some roofs have penthouses, additional floors, courtyard openings, or similar architectural features; Example E shows how the rule for dividing roofs into subareas is applied to such configurations. Irregular, non-rectangular roofs must be considered on an individual basis, as shown in Example F.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18fe20.061.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18fe20.062.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18fe20.063.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18fe20.064.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18fe20.065.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18fe20.066.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 8738, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.5.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart M of Part 1926—Guardrail Systems
</HEAD>
<HD2>Non-Mandatory Guidelines for Complying with § 1926.502(b)
</HD2>
<P>The standard requires guardrail systems and components to be designed and built to meet the requirements of § 1926.502 (b) (3), (4), and (5). This appendix serves as a non-mandatory guideline to assist employers in complying with these requirements. An employer may use these guidelines as a starting point for designing guardrail systems. However, the guidelines do not provide all the information necessary to build a complete system, and the employer is still responsible for designing and assembling these components in such a way that the completed system will meet the requirements of § 1926.502(b) (3), (4), and (5). Components for which no specific guidelines are given in this appendix (e.g., joints, base connections, components made with other materials, and components with other dimensions) must also be designed and constructed in such a way that the completed system meets the requirements of § 1926.502.
</P>
<P>(1) For wood railings: Wood components shall be minimum 1500 lb-ft/in
<SU>2</SU> fiber (stress grade) construction grade lumber; the posts shall be at least 2-inch by 4-inch (5 cm × 10 cm) lumber spaced not more than 8 feet (2.4 m) apart on centers; the top rail shall be at least 2-inch by 4-inch (5 cm × 10 cm) lumber, the intermediate rail shall be at least 1-inch by 6-inch (2.5 cm × 15 cm) lumber. All lumber dimensions are nominal sizes as provided by the American Softwood Lumber Standards, dated January 1970.
</P>
<P>(2) For pipe railings: posts, top rails, and intermediate railings shall be at least one and one-half inches nominal diameter (schedule 40 pipe) with posts spaced not more than 8 feet (2.4 m) apart on centers.
</P>
<P>(3) For structural steel railings: posts, top rails, and intermediate rails shall be at least 2-inch by 2-inch (5 cm × 10 cm) by 
<FR>3/8</FR>-inch (1.1 cm) angles, with posts spaced not more than 8 feet (2.4 m) apart on centers.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.5.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart M of Part 1926—Personal Fall Arrest Systems
</HEAD>
<HD2>Non-Mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.502(d)
</HD2>
<P>I. <I>Test methods for personal fall arrest systems and positioning device systems</I>—(a) <I>General.</I> This appendix serves as a non-mandatory guideline to assist employers comply with the requirements in § 1926.502(d). Paragraphs (b), (c), (d) and (e) of this appendix describe test procedures which may be used to determine compliance with the requirements in § 1926.502 (d)(16). As noted in appendix D of this subpart, the test methods listed here in appendix C can also be used to assist employers comply with the requirements in § 1926.502(e) (3) and (4) for positioning device systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General conditions for all tests in the appendix to § 1926.502(d).</I> (1) Lifelines, lanyards and deceleration devices should be attached to an anchorage and connected to the body-belt or body harness in the same manner as they would be when used to protect employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The anchorage should be rigid, and should not have a deflection greater than 0.04 inches (1 mm) when a force of 2,250 pounds (10 kN) is applied.
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency response of the load measuring instrumentation should be 500 Hz.
</P>
<P>(4) The test weight used in the strength and force tests should be a rigid, metal, cylindrical or torso-shaped object with a girth of 38 inches plus or minus 4 inches (96 cm plus or minus 10 cm).
</P>
<P>(5) The lanyard or lifeline used to create the free fall distance should be supplied with the system, or in its absence, the least elastic lanyard or lifeline available to be used with the system.
</P>
<P>(6) The test weight for each test should be hoisted to the required level and should be quickly released without having any appreciable motion imparted to it.
</P>
<P>(7) The system's performance should be evaluated taking into account the range of environmental conditions for which it is designed to be used.
</P>
<P>(8) Following the test, the system need not be capable of further operation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Strength test.</I> (1) During the testing of all systems, a test weight of 300 pounds plus or minus 5 pounds (135 kg plus or minus 2.5 kg) should be used. (See paragraph (b)(4) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(2) The test consists of dropping the test weight once. A new unused system should be used for each test.
</P>
<P>(3) For lanyard systems, the lanyard length should be 6 feet plus or minus 2 inches (1.83 m plus or minus 5 cm) as measured from the fixed anchorage to the attachment on the body belt or body harness.
</P>
<P>(4) For rope-grab-type deceleration systems, the length of the lifeline above the centerline of the grabbing mechanism to the lifeline's anchorage point should not exceed 2 feet (0.61 m).
</P>
<P>(5) For lanyard systems, for systems with deceleration devices which do not automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, and for systems with deceleration devices which have a connection distance in excess of 1 foot (0.3 m) (measured between the centerline of the lifeline and the attachment point to the body belt or harness), the test weight should be rigged to free fall a distance of 7.5 feet (2.3 m) from a point that is 1.5 feet (.46 m) above the anchorage point, to its hanging location (6 feet below the anchorage). The test weight should fall without interference, obstruction, or hitting the floor or ground during the test. In some cases a non-elastic wire lanyard of sufficient length may need to be added to the system (for test purposes) to create the necessary free fall distance.
</P>
<P>(6) For deceleration device systems with integral lifelines or lanyards which automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, the test weight should be rigged to free fall a distance of 4 feet (1.22 m).
</P>
<P>(7) Any weight which detaches from the belt or harness has failed the strength test.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Force test</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The test consists of dropping the respective test weight once as specified in paragraph (d)(2)(i) or (d)(3)(i) of this section. A new, unused system should be used for each test.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For lanyard systems.</I> (i) A test weight of 220 pounds plus or minus 3 pounds (100 kg plus or minus 1.6 kg) should be used. (See paragraph (b)(4) of this appendix).
</P>
<P>(ii) Lanyard length should be 6 feet plus or minus two inches (1.83 m plus or minus 5 cm) as measured from the fixed anchorage to the attachment on the body belt or body harness.
</P>
<P>(iii) The test weight should fall free from the anchorage level to its hanging location (a total of 6 feet (1.83 m) free fall distance) without interference, obstruction, or hitting the floor or ground during the test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For all other systems.</I> (i) A test weight of 220 pounds plus or minus 3 pounds (100 kg plus or minus 1.6 kg) should be used. (See paragraph (b)(4) of this appendix)
</P>
<P>(ii) The free fall distance to be used in the test should be the maximum fall distance physically permitted by the system during normal use conditions, up to a maximum free fall distance for the test weight of 6 feet (1.83 m), except as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For deceleration systems which have a connection link or lanyard, the test weight should free fall a distance equal to the connection distance (measured between the centerline of the lifeline and the attachment point to the body belt or harness).
</P>
<P>(B) For deceleration device systems with integral lifelines or lanyards which automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, the test weight should free fall a distance equal to that permitted by the system in normal use. (For example, to test a system with a self-retracting lifeline or lanyard, the test weight should be supported and the system allowed to retract the lifeline or lanyard as it would in normal use. The test weight would then be released and the force and deceleration distance measured).
</P>
<P>(4) A system fails the force test if the recorded maximum arresting force exceeds 1,260 pounds (5.6 kN) when using a body belt, and/or exceeds 2,520 pounds (11.2 kN) when using a body harness.
</P>
<P>(5) The maximum elongation and deceleration distance should be recorded during the force test.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Deceleration device tests</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The device should be evaluated or tested under the environmental conditions, (such as rain, ice, grease, dirt, type of lifeline, etc.), for which the device is designed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rope-grab-type deceleration devices.</I> (i) Devices should be moved on a lifeline 1,000 times over the same length of line a distance of not less than 1 foot (30.5 cm), and the mechanism should lock each time.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the device is permanently marked to indicate the type(s) of lifeline which must be used, several types (different diameters and different materials), of lifelines should be used to test the device.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other self-activating-type deceleration devices.</I> The locking mechanisms of other self-activating-type deceleration devices designed for more than one arrest should lock each of 1,000 times as they would in normal service.
</P>
<P>II. <I>Additional non-mandatory guidelines for personal fall arrest systems.</I> The following information constitutes additional guidelines for use in complying with requirements for a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Selection and use considerations.</I> (1) The kind of personal fall arrest system selected should match the particular work situation, and any possible free fall distance should be kept to a minimum. Consideration should be given to the particular work environment. For example, the presence of acids, dirt, moisture, oil, grease, etc., and their effect on the system, should be evaluated. Hot or cold environments may also have an adverse effect on the system. Wire rope should not be used where an electrical hazard is anticipated. As required by the standard, the employer must plan to have means available to promptly rescue an employee should a fall occur, since the suspended employee may not be able to reach a work level independently.
</P>
<P>(2) Where lanyards, connectors, and lifelines are subject to damage by work operations such as welding, chemical cleaning, and sandblasting, the component should be protected, or other securing systems should be used. The employer should fully evaluate the work conditions and environment (including seasonal weather changes) before selecting the appropriate personal fall protection system. Once in use, the system's effectiveness should be monitored. In some cases, a program for cleaning and maintenance of the system may be necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing considerations.</I> Before purchasing or putting into use a personal fall arrest system, an employer should obtain from the supplier information about the system based on its performance during testing so that the employer can know if the system meets this standard. Testing should be done using recognized test methods. This appendix contains test methods recognized for evaluating the performance of fall arrest systems. Not all systems may need to be individually tested; the performance of some systems may be based on data and calculations derived from testing of similar systems, provided that enough information is available to demonstrate similarity of function and design.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Component compatibility considerations.</I> Ideally, a personal fall arrest system is designed, tested, and supplied as a complete system. However, it is common practice for lanyards, connectors, lifelines, deceleration devices, body belts and body harnesses to be interchanged since some components wear out before others. The employer and employee should realize that not all components are interchangeable. For instance, a lanyard should not be connected between a body belt (or harness) and a deceleration device of the self-retracting type since this can result in additional free fall for which the system was not designed. Any substitution or change to a personal fall arrest system should be fully evaluated or tested by a competent person to determine that it meets the standard, before the modified system is put in use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee training considerations.</I> Thorough employee training in the selection and use of personal fall arrest systems is imperative. Employees must be trained in the safe use of the system. This should include the following: application limits; proper anchoring and tie-off techniques; estimation of free fall distance, including determination of deceleration distance, and total fall distance to prevent striking a lower level; methods of use; and inspection and storage of the system. Careless or improper use of the equipment can result in serious injury or death. Employers and employees should become familiar with the material in this Appendix, as well as manufacturer's recommendations, before a system is used. Of uppermost importance is the reduction in strength caused by certain tie-offs (such as using knots, tying around sharp edges, etc.) and maximum permitted free fall distance. Also, to be stressed are the importance of inspections prior to use, the limitations of the equipment, and unique conditions at the worksite which may be important in determining the type of system to use.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Instruction considerations.</I> Employers should obtain comprehensive instructions from the supplier as to the system's proper use and application, including, where applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) The force measured during the sample force test;
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum elongation measured for lanyards during the force test;
</P>
<P>(3) The deceleration distance measured for deceleration devices during the force test;
</P>
<P>(4) Caution statements on critical use limitations;
</P>
<P>(5) Application limits;
</P>
<P>(6) Proper hook-up, anchoring and tie-off techniques, including the proper dee-ring or other attachment point to use on the body belt and harness for fall arrest;
</P>
<P>(7) Proper climbing techniques;
</P>
<P>(8) Methods of inspection, use, cleaning, and storage; and
</P>
<P>(9) Specific lifelines which may be used. This information should be provided to employees during training.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rescue considerations.</I> As required by § 1926.502(d)(20), when personal fall arrest systems are used, the employer must assure that employees can be promptly rescued or can rescue themselves should a fall occur. The availability of rescue personnel, ladders or other rescue equipment should be evaluated. In some situations, equipment which allows employees to rescue themselves after the fall has been arrested may be desirable, such as devices which have descent capability.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Inspection considerations.</I> As required by § 1926.502(d)(21), personal fall arrest systems must be regularly inspected. Any component with any significant defect, such as cuts, tears, abrasions, mold, or undue stretching; alterations or additions which might affect its efficiency; damage due to deterioration; contact with fire, acids, or other corrosives; distorted hooks or faulty hook springs; tongues unfitted to the shoulder of buckles; loose or damaged mountings; non-functioning parts; or wearing or internal deterioration in the ropes must be withdrawn from service immediately, and should be tagged or marked as unusable, or destroyed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Tie-off considerations.</I> (1) One of the most important aspects of personal fall protection systems is fully planning the system <I>before</I> it is put into use. Probably the most overlooked component is planning for suitable anchorage points. Such planning should ideally be done before the structure or building is constructed so that anchorage points can be incorporated during construction for use later for window cleaning or other building maintenance. If properly planned, these anchorage points may be used <I>during</I> construction, as well as afterwards.
</P>
<P>(i) Properly planned anchorages should be used if they are available. In some cases, anchorages must be installed immediately prior to use. In such cases, a registered professional engineer with experience in designing fall protection systems, or another qualified person with appropriate education and experience should design an anchor point to be installed.
</P>
<P>(ii) In other cases, the Agency recognizes that there will be a need to devise an anchor point from existing structures. Examples of what might be appropriate anchor points are steel members or I-beams if an acceptable strap is available for the connection (do not use a lanyard with a snaphook clipped onto itself); large eye-bolts made of an appropriate grade steel; guardrails or railings if they have been designed for use as an anchor point; or masonry or wood members only if the attachment point is substantial and precautions have been taken to assure that bolts or other connectors will not pull through. A qualified person should be used to evaluate the suitable of these “make shift” anchorages with a focus on proper strength.
</P>
<P>(2) Employers and employees should at all times be aware that the strength of a personal fall arrest system is based on its being attached to an anchoring system which does not reduce the strength of the system (such as a properly dimensioned eye-bolt/snap-hook anchorage). Therefore, if a means of attachment is used that will reduce the strength of the system, that component should be replaced by a stronger one, but one that will also maintain the appropriate maximum arrest force characteristics.
</P>
<P>(3) Tie-off using a knot in a rope lanyard or lifeline (at any location) can reduce the lifeline or lanyard strength by 50 percent or more. Therefore, a stronger lanyard or lifeline should be used to compensate for the weakening effect of the knot, or the lanyard length should be reduced (or the tie-off location raised) to minimize free fall distance, or the lanyard or lifeline should be replaced by one which has an appropriately incorporated connector to eliminate the need for a knot.
</P>
<P>(4) Tie-off of a rope lanyard or lifeline around an “H” or “I” beam or similar support can reduce its strength as much as 70 percent due to the cutting action of the beam edges. Therefore, use should be made of a webbing lanyard or wire core lifeline around the beam; or the lanyard or lifeline should be protected from the edge; or free fall distance should be greatly minimized.
</P>
<P>(5) Tie-off where the line passes over or around rough or sharp surfaces reduces strength drastically. Such a tie-off should be avoided or an alternative tie-off rigging should be used. Such alternatives may include use of a snap-hook/dee ring connection, wire rope tie-off, an effective padding of the surfaces, or an abrasion-resistance strap around or over the problem surface.
</P>
<P>(6) Horizontal lifelines may, depending on their geometry and angle of sag, be subjected to greater loads than the impact load imposed by an attached component. When the angle of horizontal lifeline sag is less than 30 degrees, the impact force imparted to the lifeline by an attached lanyard is greatly amplified. For example, with a sag angle of 15 degrees, the force amplification is about 2:1 and at 5 degrees sag, it is about 6:1. Depending on the angle of sag, and the line's elasticity, the strength of the horizontal lifeline and the anchorages to which it is attached should be increased a number of times over that of the lanyard. Extreme care should be taken in considering a horizontal lifeline for multiple tie-offs. The reason for this is that in multiple tie-offs to a horizontal lifeline, if one employee falls, the movement of the falling employee and the horizontal lifeline during arrest of the fall may cause other employees to fall also. Horizontal lifeline and anchorage strength should be increased for each additional employee to be tied off. For these and other reasons, the design of systems using horizontal lifelines must only be done by qualified persons. Testing of installed lifelines and anchors prior to use is recommended.
</P>
<P>(7) The strength of an eye-bolt is rated along the axis of the bolt and its strength is greatly reduced if the force is applied at an angle to this axis (in the direction of shear). Also, care should be exercised in selecting the proper diameter of the eye to avoid accidental disengagement of snap-hooks not designed to be compatible for the connection.
</P>
<P>(8) Due to the significant reduction in the strength of the lifeline/lanyard (in some cases, as much as a 70 percent reduction), the sliding hitch knot (prusik) should not be used for lifeline/lanyard connections except in emergency situations where no other available system is practical. The “one-and-one” sliding hitch knot should never be used because it is unreliable in stopping a fall. The “two-and-two,” or “three-and-three” knot (preferable) may be used in emergency situations; however, care should be taken to limit free fall distance to a minimum because of reduced lifeline/lanyard strength.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Vertical lifeline considerations.</I> As required by the standard, each employee must have a separate lifeline [except employees engaged in constructing elevator shafts who are permitted to have two employees on one lifeline] when the lifeline is vertical. The reason for this is that in multiple tie-offs to a single lifeline, if one employee falls, the movement of the lifeline during the arrest of the fall may pull other employees' lanyards, causing them to fall as well.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Snap-hook considerations.</I> (1) Although not required by this standard for all connections until January 1, 1998, locking snaphooks designed for connection to suitable objects (of sufficient strength) are highly recommended in lieu of the nonlocking type. Locking snaphooks incorporate a positive locking mechanism in addition to the spring loaded keeper, which will not allow the keeper to open under moderate pressure without someone first releasing the mechanism. Such a feature, properly designed, effectively prevents roll-out from occurring.
</P>
<P>(2) As required by § 1926.502(d)(6), the following connections must be avoided (unless properly designed locking snaphooks are used) because they are conditions which can result in roll-out when a nonlocking snaphook is used:
</P>
<P>(i) Direct connection of a snaphook to a horizontal lifeline.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two (or more) snaphooks connected to one dee-ring.
</P>
<P>(iii) Two snaphooks connected to each other.
</P>
<P>(iv) A snaphook connected back on its integral lanyard.
</P>
<P>(v) A snaphook connected to a webbing loop or webbing lanyard.
</P>
<P>(vi) Improper dimensions of the dee-ring, rebar, or other connection point in relation to the snaphook dimensions which would allow the snaphook keeper to be depressed by a turning motion of the snaphook.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Free fall considerations.</I> The employer and employee should at all times be aware that a system's maximum arresting force is evaluated under normal use conditions established by the manufacturer, and in no case using a free fall distance in excess of 6 feet (1.8 m). A few extra feet of free fall can significantly increase the arresting force on the employee, possibly to the point of causing injury. Because of this, the free fall distance should be kept at a minimum, and, as required by the standard, in no case greater than 6 feet (1.8 m). To help assure this, the tie-off attachment point to the lifeline or anchor should be located at or above the connection point of the fall arrest equipment to belt or harness. (Since otherwise additional free fall distance is added to the length of the connecting means (i.e. lanyard)). Attaching to the working surface will often result in a free fall greater than 6 feet (1.8 m). For instance, if a 6 foot (1.8 m) lanyard is used, the total free fall distance will be the distance from the working level to the body belt (or harness) attachment point plus the 6 feet (1.8 m) of lanyard length. Another important consideration is that the arresting force which the fall system must withstand also goes up with greater distances of free fall, possibly exceeding the strength of the system.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Elongation and deceleration distance considerations.</I> Other factors involved in a proper tie-off are elongation and deceleration distance. During the arresting of a fall, a lanyard will experience a length of stretching or elongation, whereas activation of a deceleration device will result in a certain stopping distance. These distances should be available with the lanyard or device's instructions and must be added to the free fall distance to arrive at the total fall distance before an employee is fully stopped. The additional stopping distance may be very significant if the lanyard or deceleration device is attached near or at the end of a long lifeline, which may itself add considerable distance due to its own elongation. As required by the standard, sufficient distance to allow for all of these factors must also be maintained between the employee and obstructions below, to prevent an injury due to impact before the system fully arrests the fall. In addition, a minimum of 12 feet (3.7 m) of lifeline should be allowed below the securing point of a rope grab type deceleration device, and the end terminated to prevent the device from sliding off the lifeline. Alternatively, the lifeline should extend to the ground or the next working level below. These measures are suggested to prevent the worker from inadvertently moving past the end of the lifeline and having the rope grab become disengaged from the lifeline.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Obstruction considerations.</I> The location of the tie-off should also consider the hazard of obstructions in the potential fall path of the employee. Tie-offs which minimize the possibilities of exaggerated swinging should be considered. In addition, when a body belt is used, the employee's body will go through a horizontal position to a jack-knifed position during the arrest of all falls. Thus, obstructions which might interfere with this motion should be avoided or a severe injury could occur.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Other considerations.</I> Because of the design of some personal fall arrest systems, additional considerations may be required for proper tie-off. For example, heavy deceleration devices of the self-retracting type should be secured overhead in order to avoid the weight of the device having to be supported by the employee. Also, if self- retracting equipment is connected to a horizontal lifeline, the sag in the lifeline should be minimized to prevent the device from sliding down the lifeline to a position which creates a swing hazard during fall arrest. In all cases, manufacturer's instructions should be followed.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.5.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart M of Part 1926—Positioning Device Systems
</HEAD>
<HD2>Non-Mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.502(e)
</HD2>
<P>I. <I>Testing Methods For Positioning Device Systems.</I> This appendix serves as a non-mandatory guideline to assist employers comply with the requirements for positioning device systems in § 1926.502(e). Paragraphs (b), (c), (d) and (e) of appendix C of subpart M relating to § 1926.502(d)—Personal Fall Arrest Systems—set forth test procedures which may be used, along with the procedures listed below, to determine compliance with the requirements for positioning device systems in § 1926.502(e) (3) and (4) of subpart M.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Single strap positioning devices shall have one end attached to a fixed anchorage and the other end connected to a body belt or harness in the same manner as they would be used to protect employees. Double strap positioning devices, similar to window cleaner's belts, shall have one end of the strap attached to a fixed anchorage and the other end shall hang free. The body belt or harness shall be attached to the strap in the same manner as it would be used to protect employees. The two strap ends shall be adjusted to their maximum span.
</P>
<P>(2) The fixed anchorage shall be rigid, and shall not have a deflection greater than .04 inches (1 mm) when a force of 2,250 pounds (10 kN) is applied.
</P>
<P>(3) During the testing of all systems, a test weight of 250 pounds plus or minus 3 pounds (113 kg plus or minus 1.6 kg) shall be used. The weight shall be a rigid object with a girth of 38 inches plus or minus 4 inches (96 cm plus or minus 10 cm).
</P>
<P>(4) Each test shall consist of dropping the specified weight one time without failure of the system being tested. A new system shall be used for each test.
</P>
<P>(5) The test weight for each test shall be hoisted exactly 4 feet (1.2 m above its “at rest” position), and shall be dropped so as to permit a vertical free fall of 4 feet (1.2 m).
</P>
<P>(6) The test is failed whenever any breakage or slippage occurs which permits the weight to fall free of the system.
</P>
<P>(7) Following the test, the system need not be capable of further operation; however, all such incapacities shall be readily apparent.
</P>
<P>II. <I>Inspection Considerations.</I> As required in § 1926.502 (e)(5), positioning device systems must be regularly inspected. Any component with any significant defect, such as cuts, tears, abrasions, mold, or undue stretching; alterations or additions which might affect its efficiency; damage due to deterioration; contact with fire, acids, or other corrosives; distorted hooks or faulty hook springs; tongues unfitted to the shoulder of buckles; loose or damaged mountings; non-functioning parts; or wearing or internal deterioration in the ropes must be withdrawn from service immediately, and should be tagged or marked as unusable, or destroyed.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.13.20.5.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart M of Part 1926—Sample Fall Protection Plan
</HEAD>
<HD2>Non-Mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.502(k)
</HD2>
<P>Employers engaged in leading edge work, precast concrete construction work and residential construction work who can demonstrate that it is infeasible or creates a greater hazard to use conventional fall protection systems must develop and follow a fall protection plan. Below are sample fall protection plans developed for precast concrete construction and residential work that could be tailored to be site specific for other precast concrete or residential jobsite. This sample plan can be modified to be used for other work involving leading edge work. The sample plan outlines the elements that must be addressed in any fall protection plan. The reasons outlined in this sample fall protection plan are for illustrative purposes only and are not necessarily a valid, acceptable rationale (unless the conditions at the job site are the same as those covered by these sample plans) for not using conventional fall protection systems for a particular precast concrete or residential construction worksite. However, the sample plans provide guidance to employers on the type of information that is required to be discussed in fall protection plans.
</P>
<HD1>Sample Fall Protection Plans
</HD1>
<HD2>Fall Protection Plan For Precast/Prestress Concrete Structures
</HD2>
<P>This Fall Protection Plan is specific for the following project:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Location of Job
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Erecting Company
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date Plan Prepared or Modified
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Plan Prepared By
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Plan Approved By
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Plan Supervised By
</FP-DASH>
<P>The following Fall Protection Plan is a sample program prepared for the prevention of injuries associated with falls. A Fall Protection Plan must be developed and evaluated on a site by site basis. It is recommended that erectors discuss the written Fall Protection Plan with their OSHA Area Office prior to going on a jobsite.
</P>
<HD1>I. Statement of Company Policy
</HD1>
<P>(Company Name) is dedicated to the protection of its employees from on-the-job injuries. All employees of (Company Name) have the responsibility to work safely on the job. The purpose of this plan is: (a) To supplement our standard safety policy by providing safety standards specifically designed to cover fall protection on this job and; (b) to ensure that each employee is trained and made aware of the safety provisions which are to be implemented by this plan prior to the start of erection.
</P>
<P>This Fall Protection Plan addresses the use of other than conventional fall protection at a number of areas on the project, as well as identifying specific activities that require non-conventional means of fall protection. These areas include:
</P>
<P>a. Connecting activity (point of erection).
</P>
<P>b. Leading edge work.
</P>
<P>c. Unprotected sides or edge.
</P>
<P>d. Grouting.
</P>
<P>This plan is designed to enable employers and employees to recognize the fall hazards on this job and to establish the procedures that are to be followed in order to prevent falls to lower levels or through holes and openings in walking/working surfaces. Each employee will be trained in these procedures and strictly adhere to them except when doing so would expose the employee to a greater hazard. If, in the employee's opinion, this is the case, the employee is to notify the foreman of the concern and the concern addressed before proceeding.
</P>
<P>Safety policy and procedure on any one project cannot be administered, implemented, monitored and enforced by any one individual. The total objective of a safe, accident free work environment can only be accomplished by a dedicated, concerted effort by every individual involved with the project from management down to the last employee. Each employee must understand their value to the company; the costs of accidents, both monetary, physical, and emotional; the objective of the safety policy and procedures; the safety rules that apply to the safety policy and procedures; and what their individual role is in administering, implementing, monitoring, and compliance of their safety policy and procedures. This allows for a more personal approach to compliance through planning, training, understanding and cooperative effort, rather than by strict enforcement. If for any reason an unsafe act persists, strict enforcement will be implemented.
</P>
<P>It is the responsibility of (name of competent person) to implement this Fall Protection Plan. (Name of Competent Person) is responsible for continual observational safety checks of their work operations and to enforce the safety policy and procedures. The foreman also is responsible to correct any unsafe acts or conditions immediately. It is the responsibility of the employee to understand and adhere to the procedures of this plan and to follow the instructions of the foreman. It is also the responsibility of the employee to bring to management's attention any unsafe or hazardous conditions or acts that may cause injury to either themselves or any other employees. Any changes to this Fall Protection Plan must be approved by (name of Qualified Person).
</P>
<HD1>II. Fall Protection Systems To Be Used on This Project
</HD1>
<P>Where conventional fall protection is infeasible or creates a greater hazard at the leading edge and during initial connecting activity, we plan to do this work using a safety monitoring system and expose only a minimum number of employees for the time necessary to actually accomplish the job. The maximum number of workers to be monitored by one safety monitor is six (6). We are designating the following trained employees as designated erectors and they are permitted to enter the controlled access zones and work without the use of conventional fall protection.
</P>
<FP-1>Safety monitor:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Designated erector:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Designated erector:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Designated erector:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Designated erector:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Designated erector:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Designated erector:
</FP-1>
<P>The safety monitor shall be identified by wearing an orange hard hat. The designated erectors will be identified by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>1. They will wear a blue colored arm band, or
</P>
<P>2. They will wear a blue colored hard hat, or
</P>
<P>3. They will wear a blue colored vest.
</P>
<FP>Only individuals with the appropriate experience, skills, and training will be authorized as designated erectors. All employees that will be working as designated erectors under the safety monitoring system shall have been trained and instructed in the following areas:
</FP>
<P>1. Recognition of the fall hazards in the work area (at the leading edge and when making initial connections—point of erection).
</P>
<P>2. Avoidance of fall hazards using established work practices which have been made known to the employees.
</P>
<P>3. Recognition of unsafe practices or working conditions that could lead to a fall, such as windy conditions.
</P>
<P>4. The function, use, and operation of safety monitoring systems, guardrail systems, body belt/harness systems, control zones and other protection to be used.
</P>
<P>5. The correct procedure for erecting, maintaining, disassembling and inspecting the system(s) to be used.
</P>
<P>6. Knowledge of construction sequence or the erection plan.
</P>
<P>A conference will take place prior to starting work involving all members of the erection crew, crane crew and supervisors of any other concerned contractors. This conference will be conducted by the precast concrete erection supervisor in charge of the project. During the pre-work conference, erection procedures and sequences pertinent to this job will be thoroughly discussed and safety practices to be used throughout the project will be specified. Further, all personnel will be informed that the controlled access zones are off limits to all personnel other than those designated erectors specifically trained to work in that area.
</P>
<HD2>Safety Monitoring System
</HD2>
<P>A safety monitoring system means a fall protection system in which a competent person is responsible for recognizing and warning employees of fall hazards. The duties of the safety monitor are to:
</P>
<P>1. Warn by voice when approaching the open edge in an unsafe manner.
</P>
<P>2. Warn by voice if there is a dangerous situation developing which cannot be seen by another person involved with product placement, such as a member getting out of control.
</P>
<P>3. Make the designated erectors aware they are in a dangerous area.
</P>
<P>4. Be competent in recognizing fall hazards.
</P>
<P>5. Warn employees when they appear to be unaware of a fall hazard or are acting in an unsafe manner.
</P>
<P>6. Be on the same walking/working surface as the monitored employees and within visual sighting distance of the monitored employees.
</P>
<P>7. Be close enough to communicate orally with the employees.
</P>
<P>8. Not allow other responsibilities to encumber monitoring. If the safety monitor becomes too encumbered with other responsibilities, the monitor shall (1) stop the erection process; and (2) turn over other responsibilities to a designated erector; or (3) turn over the safety monitoring function to another designated, competent person. The safety monitoring system shall not be used when the wind is strong enough to cause loads with large surface areas to swing out of radius, or result in loss of control of the load, or when weather conditions cause the walking-working surfaces to become icy or slippery.
</P>
<HD2>Control Zone System
</HD2>
<P>A controlled access zone means an area designated and clearly marked, in which leading edge work may take place without the use of guardrail, safety net or personal fall arrest systems to protect the employees in the area. Control zone systems shall comply with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>1. When used to control access to areas where leading edge and other operations are taking place the controlled access zone shall be defined by a control line or by any other means that restricts access.
</P>
<P>When control lines are used, they shall be erected not less than 6 feet (l.8 m) nor more than 60 feet (18 m) or half the length of the member being erected, whichever is less, from the leading edge.
</P>
<P>2. The control line shall extend along the entire length of the unprotected or leading edge and shall be approximately parallel to the unprotected or leading edge.
</P>
<P>3. The control line shall be connected on each side to a guardrail system or wall.
</P>
<P>4. Control lines shall consist of ropes, wires, tapes, or equivalent materials, and supporting stanchions as follows:
</P>
<P>5. Each line shall be flagged or otherwise clearly marked at not more than 6-foot (1.8 m) intervals with high- visibility material.
</P>
<P>6. Each line shall be rigged and supported in such a way that its lowest point (including sag) is not less than 39 inches (1 m) from the walking/working surface and its highest point is not more than 45 inches (1.3 m) from the walking/working surface.
</P>
<P>7. Each line shall have a minimum breaking strength of 200 pounds (.88 kN).
</P>
<HD2>Holes
</HD2>
<P>All openings greater than 12 in. × 12 in. will have perimeter guarding or covering. All predetermined holes will have the plywood covers made in the precasters' yard and shipped with the member to the jobsite. Prior to cutting holes on the job, proper protection for the hole must be provided to protect the workers. Perimeter guarding or covers will not be removed without the approval of the erection foreman.
</P>
<P>Precast concrete column erection through the existing deck requires that many holes be provided through this deck. These are to be covered and protected. Except for the opening being currently used to erect a column, all opening protection is to be left undisturbed. The opening being uncovered to erect a column will become part of the point of erection and will be addressed as part of this Fall Protection Plan. This uncovering is to be done at the erection foreman's direction and will only occur immediately prior to “feeding” the column through the opening. Once the end of the column is through the slab opening, there will no longer exist a fall hazard at this location.
</P>
<HD1>III. Implementation of Fall Protection Plan
</HD1>
<P>The structure being erected is a multistory total precast concrete building consisting of columns, beams, wall panels and hollow core slabs and double tee floor and roof members.
</P>
<P>The following is a list of the products and erection situations on this job:
</P>
<HD2>Columns
</HD2>
<P>For columns 10 ft to 36 ft long, employees disconnecting crane hooks from columns will work from a ladder and wear a body belt/harness with lanyard and be tied off when both hands are needed to disconnect. For tying off, a vertical lifeline will be connected to the lifting eye at the top of the column, prior to lifting, to be used with a manually operated or mobile rope grab. For columns too high for the use of a ladder, 36 ft and higher, an added cable will be used to reduce the height of the disconnecting point so that a ladder can be used. This cable will be left in place until a point in erection that it can be removed safely. In some cases, columns will be unhooked from the crane by using an erection tube or shackle with a pull pin which is released from the ground after the column is stabilized.
</P>
<P>The column will be adequately connected and/or braced to safely support the weight of a ladder with an employee on it.
</P>
<HD2>Inverted Tee Beams
</HD2>
<P>Employees erecting inverted tee beams, at a height of 6 to 40 ft, will erect the beam, make initial connections, and final alignment from a ladder. If the employee needs to reach over the side of the beam to bar or make an adjustment to the alignment of the beam, they will mount the beam and be tied off to the lifting device in the beam after ensuring the load has been stabilized on its bearing. To disconnect the crane from the beam an employee will stand a ladder against the beam. Because the use of ladders is not practical at heights above 40 ft, beams will be initially placed with the use of tag lines and their final alignment made by a person on a manlift or similar employee positioning systems.
</P>
<HD2>Spandrel Beams
</HD2>
<P>Spandrel beams at the exterior of the building will be aligned as closely as possible with the use of tag lines with the final placement of the spandrel beam made from a ladder at the open end of the structure. A ladder will be used to make the initial connections and a ladder will be used to disconnect the crane. The other end of the beam will be placed by the designated erector from the double tee deck under the observation of the safety monitor.
</P>
<P>The beams will be adequately connected and/or braced to safely support the weight of a ladder with an employee on it.
</P>
<HD2>Floor and Roof Members
</HD2>
<P>During installation of the precast concrete floor and/or roof members, the work deck continuously increases in area as more and more units are being erected and positioned. Thus, the unprotected floor/roof perimeter is constantly modified with the leading edge changing location as each member is installed. The fall protection for workers at the leading edge shall be assured by properly constructed and maintained control zone lines not more than 60 ft away from the leading edge supplemented by a safety monitoring system to ensure the safety of all designated erectors working within the area defined by the control zone lines.
</P>
<P>The hollow core slabs erected on the masonry portion of the building will be erected and grouted using the safety monitoring system. Grout will be placed in the space between the end of the slab and face shell of the concrete masonry by dumping from a wheelbarrow. The grout in the keyways between the slabs will be dumped from a wheelbarrow and then spread with long handled tools, allowing the worker to stand erect facing toward the unprotected edge and back from any work deck edge.
</P>
<P>Whenever possible, the designated erectors will approach the incoming member at the leading edge only after it is below waist height so that the member itself provides protection against falls.
</P>
<P>Except for the situations described below, when the arriving floor or roof member is within 2 to 3 inches of its final position, the designated erectors can then proceed to their position of erection at each end of the member under the control of the safety monitor. Crane hooks will be unhooked from double tee members by designated erectors under the direction and supervision of the safety monitor.
</P>
<P>Designated erectors, while waiting for the next floor or roof member, will be constantly under the control of the safety monitor for fall protection and are directed to stay a minimum of six (6) ft from the edge. In the event a designated erector must move from one end of a member, which has just been placed at the leading edge, they must first move away from the leading edge a minimum of six (6) ft and then progress to the other end while maintaining the minimum distance of six (6) ft at all times.
</P>
<P>Erection of double tees, where conditions require bearing of one end into a closed pocket and the other end on a beam ledge, restricting the tee legs from going directly into the pockets, require special considerations. The tee legs that are to bear in the closed pocket must hang lower than those at the beam bearing. The double tee will be “two-lined” in order to elevate one end higher than the other to allow for the low end to be ducked into the closed pocket using the following procedure.
</P>
<P>The double tee will be rigged with a standard four-way spreader off of the main load line. An additional choker will be attached to the married point of the two-legged spreader at the end of the tee that is to be elevated. The double tee will be hoisted with the main load line and swung into a position as close as possible to the tee's final bearing elevation. When the tee is in this position and stabilized, the whip line load block will be lowered to just above the tee deck. At this time, two erectors will walk out on the suspended tee deck at midspan of the tee member and pull the load block to the end of the tee to be elevated and attach the additional choker to the load block. The possibility of entanglement with the crane lines and other obstacles during this two lining process while raising and lowering the crane block on that second line could be hazardous to an encumbered employee. Therefore, the designated erectors will not tie off during any part of this process. While the designated erectors are on the double tee, the safety monitoring system will be used. After attaching the choker, the two erectors then step back on the previously erected tee deck and signal the crane operator to hoist the load with the whip line to the elevation that will allow for enough clearance to let the low end tee legs slide into the pockets when the main load line is lowered. The erector, who is handling the lowered end of the tee at the closed pocket bearing, will step out on the suspended tee. An erection bar will then be placed between the end of the tee leg and the inside face of the pocketed spandrel member. The tee is barred away from the pocketed member to reduce the friction and lateral force against the pocketed member. As the tee is being lowered, the other erector remains on the tee which was previously erected to handle the other end. At this point the tee is slowly lowered by the crane to a point where the tee legs can freely slide into the pockets. The erector working the lowered end of the tee must keep pressure on the bar between the tee and the face of the pocketed spandrel member to very gradually let the tee legs slide into the pocket to its proper bearing dimension. The tee is then slowly lowered into its final erected position.
</P>
<P>The designated erector should be allowed onto the suspended double tee, otherwise there is no control over the horizontal movement of the double tee and this movement could knock the spandrel off of its bearing or the column out of plumb. The control necessary to prevent hitting the spandrel can only be done safely from the top of the double tee being erected.
</P>
<P>Loadbearing Wall Panels: The erection of the loadbearing wall panels on the elevated decks requires the use of a safety monitor and a controlled access zone that is a minimum of 25 ft and a maximum of 
<FR>1/2</FR> the length of the wall panels away from the unprotected edge, so that designated erectors can move freely and unencumbered when receiving the panels. Bracing, if required for stability, will be installed by ladder. After the braces are secured, the crane will be disconnected from the wall by using a ladder. The wall to wall connections will also be performed from a ladder.
</P>
<P>Non-Loadbearing Panels (Cladding): The locating of survey lines, panel layout and other installation prerequisites (prewelding, etc.) for non-loadbearing panels (cladding) will not commence until floor perimeter and floor openings have been protected. In some areas, it is necessary because of panel configuration to remove the perimeter protection as the cladding is being installed. Removal of perimeter protection will be performed on a bay to bay basis, just ahead of cladding erection to minimize temporarily unprotected floor edges. Those workers within 6 ft of the edge, receiving and positioning the cladding when the perimeter protection is removed shall be tied off.
</P>
<HD2>Detailing
</HD2>
<P>Employees exposed to falls of six (6) feet or more to lower levels, who are not actively engaged in leading edge work or connecting activity, such as welding, bolting, cutting, bracing, guying, patching, painting or other operations, and who are working less than six (6) ft from an unprotected edge will be tied off at all times or guardrails will be installed. Employees engaged in these activities but who are more than six (6) ft from an unprotected edge as defined by the control zone lines, do not require fall protection but a warning line or control lines must be erected to remind employees they are approaching an area where fall protection is required.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Conventional Fall Protection Considered for the Point of Erection or Leading Edge Erection Operations
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Personal Fall Arrest Systems
</HD2>
<P>In this particular erection sequence and procedure, personal fall arrest systems requiring body belt/harness systems, lifelines and lanyards will not reduce possible hazards to workers and will create offsetting hazards during their usage at the leading edge of precast/prestressed concrete construction.
</P>
<P>Leading edge erection and initial connections are conducted by employees who are specifically trained to do this type of work and are trained to recognize the fall hazards. The nature of such work normally exposes the employee to the fall hazard for a short period of time and installation of fall protection systems for a short duration is not feasible because it exposes the installers of the system to the same fall hazard, but for a longer period of time.
</P>
<P>1. It is necessary that the employee be able to move freely without encumbrance in order to guide the sections of precast concrete into their final position without having lifelines attached which will restrict the employee's ability to move about at the point of erection.
</P>
<P>2. A typical procedure requires 2 or more workers to maneuver around each other as a concrete member is positioned to fit into the structure. If they are each attached to a lifeline, part of their attention must be diverted from their main task of positioning a member weighing several tons to the task of avoiding entanglements of their lifelines or avoiding tripping over lanyards. Therefore, if these workers are attached to lanyards, more fall potential would result than from not using such a device.
</P>
<P>In this specific erection sequence and procedure, retractable lifelines do not solve the problem of two workers becoming tangled. In fact, such a tangle could prevent the lifeline from retracting as the worker moved, thus potentially exposing the worker to a fall greater than 6 ft. Also, a worker crossing over the lifeline of another worker can create a hazard because the movement of one person can unbalance the other. In the event of a fall by one person there is a likelihood that the other person will be caused to fall as well. In addition, if contamination such as grout (during hollow core grouting) enters the retractable housing it can cause excessive wear and damage to the device and could clog the retracting mechanism as the lanyard is dragged across the deck. Obstructing the cable orifice can defeat the device's shock absorbing function, produce cable slack and damage, and adversely affect cable extraction and retraction.
</P>
<P>3. Employees tied to a lifeline can be trapped and crushed by moving structural members if the employee becomes restrained by the lanyard or retractable lifeline and cannot get out of the path of the moving load.
</P>
<P>The sudden movement of a precast concrete member being raised by a crane can be caused by a number of factors. When this happens, a connector may immediately have to move a considerable distance to avoid injury. If a tied off body belt/harness is being used, the connector could be trapped. Therefore, there is a greater risk of injury if the connector is tied to the structure for this specific erection sequence and procedure.
</P>
<P>When necessary to move away from a retractable device, the worker cannot move at a rate greater than the device locking speed typically 3.5 to 4.5 ft/sec. When moving toward the device it is necessary to move at a rate which does not permit cable slack to build up. This slack may cause cable retraction acceleration and cause a worker to lose their balance by applying a higher than normal jerking force on the body when the cable suddenly becomes taut after building up momentum. This slack can also cause damage to the internal spring-loaded drum, uneven coiling of cable on the drum, and possible cable damage.
</P>
<P>The factors causing sudden movements for this location include:
</P>
<HD3>(a) Cranes
</HD3>
<P>(1) Operator error.
</P>
<P>(2) Site conditions (soft or unstable ground).
</P>
<P>(3) Mechanical failure.
</P>
<P>(4) Structural failure.
</P>
<P>(5) Rigging failure.
</P>
<P>(6) Crane signal/radio communication failure.
</P>
<HD3>(b) Weather Conditions
</HD3>
<P>(1) Wind (strong wind/sudden gusting)—particularly a problem with the large surface areas of precast concrete members.
</P>
<P>(2) Snow/rain (visibility).
</P>
<P>(3) Fog (visibility).
</P>
<P>(4) Cold—causing slowed reactions or mechanical problems.
</P>
<P>(c) Structure/Product Conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) Lifting Eye failure.
</P>
<P>(2) Bearing failure or slippage.
</P>
<P>(3) Structure shifting.
</P>
<P>(4) Bracing failure.
</P>
<P>(5) Product failure.
</P>
<P>(d) Human Error.
</P>
<P>(1) Incorrect tag line procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) Tag line hang-up.
</P>
<P>(3) Incorrect or misunderstood crane signals.
</P>
<P>(4) Misjudged elevation of member.
</P>
<P>(5) Misjudged speed of member.
</P>
<P>(6) Misjudged angle of member.
</P>
<P>4. Anchorages or special attachment points could be cast into the precast concrete members if sufficient preplanning and consideration of erectors' position is done before the members are cast. Any hole or other attachment must be approved by the engineer who designed the member. It is possible that some design restrictions will not allow a member to be weakened by an additional hole; however, it is anticipated that such situations would be the exception, not the rule. Attachment points, other than on the deck surface, will require removal and/or patching. In order to remove and/or patch these points, requires the employee to be exposed to an additional fall hazard at an unprotected perimeter. The fact that attachment points could be available anywhere on the structure does not eliminate the hazards of using these points for tying off as discussed above. A logical point for tying off on double tees would be using the lifting loops, except that they must be cut off to eliminate a tripping hazard at an appropriate time.
</P>
<P>5. Providing attachment at a point above the walking/working surface would also create fall exposures for employees installing their devices. Final positioning of a precast concrete member requires it to be moved in such a way that it must pass through the area that would be occupied by the lifeline and the lanyards attached to the point above. Resulting entanglements of lifelines and lanyards on a moving member could pull employees from the work surface. Also, the structure is being created and, in most cases, there is no structure above the members being placed.
</P>
<P>(a) Temporary structural supports, installed to provide attaching points for lifelines limit the space which is essential for orderly positioning, alignment and placement of the precast concrete members. To keep the lanyards a reasonable and manageable length, lifeline supports would necessarily need to be in proximity to the positioning process. A sudden shift of the precast concrete member being positioned because of wind pressure or crane movement could make it strike the temporary supporting structure, moving it suddenly and causing tied off employees to fall.
</P>
<P>(b) The time in manhours which would be expended in placing and maintaining temporary structural supports for lifeline attaching points could exceed the expended manhours involved in placing the precast concrete members. No protection could be provided for the employees erecting the temporary structural supports and these supports would have to be moved for each successive step in the construction process, thus greatly increasing the employee's exposure to the fall hazard.
</P>
<P>(c) The use of a cable strung horizontally between two columns to provide tie off lines for erecting or walking a beam for connecting work is not feasible and creates a greater hazard on this multi-story building for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) If a connector is to use such a line, it must be installed between the two columns. To perform this installation requires an erector to have more fall exposure time attaching the cable to the columns than would be spent to make the beam to column connection itself.
</P>
<P>(2) If such a line is to be installed so that an erector can walk along a beam, it must be overhead or below him. For example, if a connector must walk along a 24 in. wide beam, the presence of a line next to the connector at waist level, attached directly to the columns, would prevent the connector from centering their weight over the beam and balancing themselves. Installing the line above the connector might be possible on the first level of a two-story column; however, the column may extend only a few feet above the floor level at the second level or be flush with the floor level. Attaching the line to the side of the beam could be a solution; however, it would require the connector to attach the lanyard below foot level which would most likely extend a fall farther than 6 ft.
</P>
<P>(3) When lines are strung over every beam, it becomes more and more difficult for the crane operator to lower a precast concrete member into position without the member becoming fouled. Should the member become entangled, it could easily dislodge the line from a column. If a worker is tied to it at the time, a fall could be caused.
</P>
<P>6. The ANSI A10.14-1991 American National Standard for Construction and Demolition Operations—Requirements for Safety Belts, Harnesses, Lanyards and Lifelines for Construction and Demolition Use, states that the anchor point of a lanyard or deceleration device should, if possible, be located above the wearer's belt or harness attachment. ANSI A10.14 also states that a suitable anchorage point is one which is located as high as possible to prevent contact with an obstruction below should the worker fall. Most manufacturers also warn in the user's handbook that the safety block/retractable lifeline must be positioned above the D-ring (above the work space of the intended user) and OSHA recommends that fall arrest and restraint equipment be used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>Attachment of a retractable device to a horizontal cable near floor level or using the inserts in the floor or roof members may result in increased free fall due to the dorsal D-ring of the full-body harness riding higher than the attachment point of the snaphook to the cable or insert (e.g., 6 foot tall worker with a dorsal D-ring at 5 feet above the floor or surface, reduces the working length to only one foot, by placing the anchorage five feet away from the fall hazard). In addition, impact loads may exceed maximum fall arrest forces (MAF) because the fall arrest D-ring would be 4 to 5 feet higher than the safety block/retractable lifeline anchored to the walking-working surface; and the potential for swing hazards is increased.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers also require that workers not work at a level where the point of snaphook attachment to the body harness is above the device because this will increase the free fall distance and the deceleration distance and will cause higher forces on the body in the event of an accidental fall.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers recommend an anchorage for the retractable lifeline which is immovably fixed in space and is independent of the user's support systems. A moveable anchorage is one which can be moved around (such as equipment or wheeled vehicles) or which can deflect substantially under shock loading (such as a horizontal cable or very flexible beam). In the case of a very flexible anchorage, a shock load applied to the anchorage during fall arrest can cause oscillation of the flexible anchorage such that the retractable brake mechanism may undergo one or more cycles of locking/unlocking/locking (ratchet effect) until the anchorage deflection is dampened. Therefore, use of a moveable anchorage involves critical engineering and safety factors and should only be considered after fixed anchorage has been determined to be not feasible.
</P>
<P>Horizontal cables used as an anchorage present an additional hazard due to amplification of the horizontal component of maximum arrest force (of a fall) transmitted to the points where the horizontal cable is attached to the structure. This amplification is due to the angle of sag of a horizontal cable and is most severe for small angles of sag. For a cable sag angle of 2 degrees the horizontal force on the points of cable attachment can be amplified by a factor of 15.
</P>
<P>It is also necessary to install the retractable device vertically overhead to minimize swing falls. If an object is in the worker's swing path (or that of the cable) hazardous situations exist: (1) due to the swing, horizontal speed of the user may be high enough to cause injury when an obstacle in the swing fall path is struck by either the user or the cable; (2) the total vertical fall distance of the user may be much greater than if the user had fallen only vertically without a swing fall path.
</P>
<P>With retractable lines, overconfidence may cause the worker to engage in inappropriate behavior, such as approaching the perimeter of a floor or roof at a distance appreciably greater than the shortest distance between the anchorage point and the leading edge. Though the retractable lifeline may arrest a worker's fall before he or she has fallen a few feet, the lifeline may drag along the edge of the floor or beam and swing the worker like a pendulum until the line has moved to a position where the distance between the anchorage point and floor edge is the shortest distance between those two points. Accompanying this pendulum swing is a lowering of the worker, with the attendant danger that he or she may violently impact the floor or some obstruction below.
</P>
<P>The risk of a cable breaking is increased if a lifeline is dragged sideways across the rough surface or edge of a concrete member at the same moment that the lifeline is being subjected to a maximum impact loading during a fall. The typical 
<FR>3/16</FR> in. cable in a retractable lifeline has a breaking strength of from 3000 to 3700 lbs.
</P>
<P>7. The competent person, who can take into account the specialized operations being performed on this project, should determine when and where a designated erector cannot use a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<HD2>B. Safety Net Systems
</HD2>
<P>The nature of this particular precast concrete erection worksite precludes the safe use of safety nets where point of erection or leading edge work must take place.
</P>
<P>1. To install safety nets in the interior high bay of the single story portion of the building poses rigging attachment problems. Structural members do not exist to which supporting devices for nets can be attached in the area where protection is required. As the erection operation advances, the location of point of erection or leading edge work changes constantly as each member is attached to the structure. Due to this constant change it is not feasible to set net sections and build separate structures to support the nets.
</P>
<P>2. The nature of the erection process for the precast concrete members is such that an installed net would protect workers as they position and secure only one structural member. After each member is stabilized the net would have to be moved to a new location (this could mean a move of 8 to 10 ft or the possibility of a move to a different level or area of the structure) to protect workers placing the next piece in the construction sequence. The result would be the installation and dismantling of safety nets repeatedly throughout the normal work day. As the time necessary to install a net, test, and remove it is significantly greater than the time necessary to position and secure a precast concrete member, the exposure time for the worker installing the safety net would be far longer than for the workers whom the net is intended to protect. The time exposure repeats itself each time the nets and supporting hardware must be moved laterally or upward to provide protection at the point of erection or leading edge.
</P>
<P>3. Strict interpretation of § 1926.502(c) requires that operations shall not be undertaken until the net is in place and has been tested. With the point of erection constantly changing, the time necessary to install and test a safety net significantly exceeds the time necessary to position and secure the concrete member.
</P>
<P>4. Use of safety nets on exposed perimeter wall openings and opensided floors, causes attachment points to be left in architectural concrete which must be patched and filled with matching material after the net supporting hardware is removed. In order to patch these openings, additional numbers of employees must be suspended by swing stages, boatswain chairs or other devices, thereby increasing the amount of fall exposure time to employees.
</P>
<P>5. Installed safety nets pose an additional hazard at the perimeter of the erected structure where limited space is available in which members can be turned after being lifted from the ground by the crane. There would be a high probability that the member being lifted could become entangled in net hardware, cables, etc.
</P>
<P>6. The use of safety nets where structural wall panels are being erected would prevent movement of panels to point of installation. To be effective, nets would necessarily have to provide protection across the area where structural supporting wall panels would be set and plumbed before roof units could be placed.
</P>
<P>7. Use of a tower crane for the erection of the high rise portion of the structure poses a particular hazard in that the crane operator cannot see or judge the proximity of the load in relation to the structure or nets. If the signaler is looking through nets and supporting structural devices while giving instructions to the crane operator, it is not possible to judge precise relationships between the load and the structure itself or to nets and supporting structural devices. This could cause the load to become entangled in the net or hit the structure causing potential damage.
</P>
<HD2>C. Guardrail Systems
</HD2>
<P>On this particular worksite, guardrails, barricades, ropes, cables or other perimeter guarding devices or methods on the erection floor will pose problems to safe erection procedures. Typically, a floor or roof is erected by placing 4 to 10 ft wide structural members next to one another and welding or grouting them together. The perimeter of a floor and roof changes each time a new member is placed into position. It is unreasonable and virtually impossible to erect guardrails and toe boards at the ever changing leading edge of a floor or roof.
</P>
<P>1. To position a member safely it is necessary to remove all obstructions extending above the floor level near the point of erection. Such a procedure allows workers to swing a new member across the erected surface as necessary to position it properly without worrying about knocking material off of this surface.
</P>
<P>Hollow core slab erection on the masonry wall requires installation of the perimeter protection where the masonry wall has to be constructed. This means the guardrail is installed then subsequently removed to continue the masonry construction. The erector will be exposed to a fall hazard for a longer period of time while installing and removing perimeter protection than while erecting the slabs.
</P>
<P>In hollow core work, as in other precast concrete erection, others are not typically on the work deck until the precast concrete erection is complete. The deck is not complete until the leveling, aligning, and grouting of the joints is done. It is normal practice to keep others off the deck until at least the next day after the installation is complete to allow the grout to harden.
</P>
<P>2. There is no permanent boundary until all structural members have been placed in the floor or roof. At the leading edge, workers are operating at the temporary edge of the structure as they work to position the next member in the sequence. Compliance with the standard would require a guardrail and toe board be installed along this edge. However, the presence of such a device would prevent a new member from being swung over the erected surface low enough to allow workers to control it safely during the positioning process. Further, these employees would have to work through the guardrail to align the new member and connect it to the structure. The guardrail would not protect an employee who must lean through it to do the necessary work, rather it would hinder the employee to such a degree that a greater hazard is created than if the guardrail were absent.
</P>
<P>3. Guardrail requirements pose a hazard at the leading edge of installed floor or roof sections by creating the possibility of employees being caught between guardrails and suspended loads. The lack of a clear work area in which to guide the suspended load into position for placement and welding of members into the existing structure creates still further hazards.
</P>
<P>4. Where erection processes require precast concrete stairways or openings to be installed as an integral part of the overall erection process, it must also be recognized that guardrails or handrails must not project above the surface of the erection floor. Such guardrails should be terminated at the level of the erection floor to avoid placing hazardous obstacles in the path of a member being positioned.
</P>
<HD1>V. Other Fall Protection Measures Considered for This Job
</HD1>
<P>The following is a list and explanation of other fall protection measures available and an explanation of limitations for use on this particular jobsite. If during the course of erecting the building the employee sees an area that could be erected more safely by the use of these fall protection measures, the foreman should be notified.
</P>
<P>A. Scaffolds are not used because:
</P>
<P>1. The leading edge of the building is constantly changing and the scaffolding would have to be moved at very frequent intervals. Employees erecting and dismantling the scaffolding would be exposed to fall hazards for a greater length of time than they would by merely erecting the precast concrete member.
</P>
<P>2. A scaffold tower could interfere with the safe swinging of a load by the crane.
</P>
<P>3. Power lines, terrain and site do not allow for the safe use of scaffolding.
</P>
<P>B. Vehicle mounted platforms are not used because:
</P>
<P>1. A vehicle mounted platform will not reach areas on the deck that are erected over other levels.
</P>
<P>2. The leading edge of the building is usually over a lower level of the building and this lower level will not support the weight of a vehicle mounted platform.
</P>
<P>3. A vehicle mounted platform could interfere with the safe swinging of a load by the crane, either by the crane swinging the load over or into the equipment.
</P>
<P>4. Power lines and surrounding site work do not allow for the safe use of a vehicle mounted platform.
</P>
<P>C. Crane suspended personnel platforms are not used because:
</P>
<P>1. A second crane close enough to suspend any employee in the working and erecting area could interfere with the safe swinging of a load by the crane hoisting the product to be erected.
</P>
<P>2. Power lines and surrounding site work do not allow for the safe use of a second crane on the job.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Enforcement
</HD1>
<P>Constant awareness of and respect for fall hazards, and compliance with all safety rules are considered conditions of employment. The jobsite Superintendent, as well as individuals in the Safety and Personnel Department, reserve the right to issue disciplinary warnings to employees, up to and including termination, for failure to follow the guidelines of this program.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Accident Investigations
</HD1>
<P>All accidents that result in injury to workers, regardless of their nature, shall be investigated and reported. It is an integral part of any safety program that documentation take place as soon as possible so that the cause and means of prevention can be identified to prevent a reoccurrence.
</P>
<P>In the event that an employee falls or there is some other related, serious incident occurring, this plan shall be reviewed to determine if additional practices, procedures, or training need to be implemented to prevent similar types of falls or incidents from occurring.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Changes to Plan
</HD1>
<P>Any changes to the plan will be approved by (name of the qualified person). This plan shall be reviewed by a qualified person as the job progresses to determine if additional practices, procedures or training needs to be implemented by the competent person to improve or provide additional fall protection. Workers shall be notified and trained, if necessary, in the new procedures. A copy of this plan and all approved changes shall be maintained at the jobsite.
</P>
<HD2>Sample Fall Protection Plan for Residential Construction
</HD2>
<HD1>(Insert Company Name)
</HD1>
<P>This Fall Protection Plan Is Specific For The Following Project:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Location of Job
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date Plan Prepared or Modified
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Plan Prepared By
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Plan Approved By
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Plan Supervised By
</FP-DASH>
<P>The following Fall Protection Plan is a sample program prepared for the prevention of injuries associated with falls. A Fall Protection Plan must be developed and evaluated on a site by site basis. It is recommended that builders discuss the written Fall Protection Plan with their OSHA Area Office prior to going on a jobsite.
</P>
<HD1>I. Statement of Company Policy
</HD1>
<P>(Your company name here) is dedicated to the protection of its employees from on-the-job injuries. All employees of (Your company name here) have the responsibility to work safely on the job. The purpose of the plan is to supplement our existing safety and health program and to ensure that every employee who works for (Your company name here) recognizes workplace fall hazards and takes the appropriate measures to address those hazards.
</P>
<P>This Fall Protection Plan addresses the use of conventional fall protection at a number of areas on the project, as well as identifies specific activities that require non-conventional means of fall protection. During the construction of residential buildings under 48 feet in height, it is sometimes infeasible or it creates a greater hazard to use conventional fall protection systems at specific areas or for specific tasks. The areas or tasks may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>a. Setting and bracing of roof trusses and rafters;
</P>
<P>b. Installation of floor sheathing and joists;
</P>
<P>c. Roof sheathing operations; and
</P>
<P>d. Erecting exterior walls.
</P>
<P>In these cases, conventional fall protection systems may not be the safest choice for builders. This plan is designed to enable employers and employees to recognize the fall hazards associated with this job and to establish the safest procedures that are to be followed in order to prevent falls to lower levels or through holes and openings in walking/working surfaces.
</P>
<P>Each employee will be trained in these procedures and will strictly adhere to them except when doing so would expose the employee to a greater hazard. If, in the employee's opinion, this is the case, the employee is to notify the competent person of their concern and have the concern addressed before proceeding.
</P>
<P>It is the responsibility of (name of competent person) to implement this Fall Protection Plan. Continual observational safety checks of work operations and the enforcement of the safety policy and procedures shall be regularly enforced. The crew supervisor or foreman (insert name) is responsible for correcting any unsafe practices or conditions immediately.
</P>
<P>It is the responsibility of the employer to ensure that all employees understand and adhere to the procedures of this plan and to follow the instructions of the crew supervisor. It is also the responsibility of the employee to bring to management's attention any unsafe or hazardous conditions or practices that may cause injury to either themselves or any other employees. Any changes to the Fall Protection Plan must be approved by (name of qualified person).
</P>
<HD1>II. Fall Protection Systems To Be Used on This Job
</HD1>
<P>Installation of roof trusses/rafters, exterior wall erection, roof sheathing, floor sheathing and joist/truss activities will be conducted by employees who are specifically trained to do this type of work and are trained to recognize the fall hazards. The nature of such work normally exposes the employee to the fall hazard for a short period of time. This Plan details how (Your company name here) will minimize these hazards.
</P>
<HD2>Controlled Access Zones
</HD2>
<P>When using the Plan to implement the fall protection options available, workers must be protected through limited access to high hazard locations. Before any non-conventional fall protection systems are used as part of the work plan, a controlled access zone (CAZ) shall be clearly defined by the competent person as an area where a recognized hazard exists. The demarcation of the CAZ shall be communicated by the competent person in a recognized manner, either through signs, wires, tapes, ropes or chains.
</P>
<P>(Your company name here) shall take the following steps to ensure that the CAZ is clearly marked or controlled by the competent person:
</P>
<P>• All access to the CAZ must be restricted to authorized entrants;
</P>
<P>• All workers who are permitted in the CAZ shall be listed in the appropriate sections of the Plan (or be visibly identifiable by the competent person) prior to implementation;
</P>
<P>• The competent person shall ensure that all protective elements of the CAZ be implemented prior to the beginning of work.
</P>
<HD2>Installation Procedures for Roof Truss and Rafter Erection
</HD2>
<P>During the erection and bracing of roof trusses/rafters, conventional fall protection may present a greater hazard to workers. On this job, safety nets, guardrails and personal fall arrest systems will not provide adequate fall protection because the nets will cause the walls to collapse, while there are no suitable attachment or anchorage points for guardrails or personal fall arrest systems.
</P>
<P>On this job, requiring workers to use a ladder for the entire installation process will cause a greater hazard because the worker must stand on the ladder with his back or side to the front of the ladder. While erecting the truss or rafter the worker will need both hands to maneuver the truss and therefore cannot hold onto the ladder. In addition, ladders cannot be adequately protected from movement while trusses are being maneuvered into place. Many workers may experience additional fatigue because of the increase in overhead work with heavy materials, which can also lead to a greater hazard.
</P>
<P>Exterior scaffolds cannot be utilized on this job because the ground, after recent backfilling, cannot support the scaffolding. In most cases, the erection and dismantling of the scaffold would expose workers to a greater fall hazard than erection of the trusses/rafters.
</P>
<P>On all walls eight feet or less, workers will install interior scaffolds along the interior wall below the location where the trusses/rafters will be erected. “Sawhorse” scaffolds constructed of 46 inch sawhorses and 2 × 10 planks will often allow workers to be elevated high enough to allow for the erection of trusses and rafters without working on the top plate of the wall.
</P>
<P>In structures that have walls higher than eight feet and where the use of scaffolds and ladders would create a greater hazard, safe working procedures will be utilized when working on the top plate and will be monitored by the crew supervisor. During all stages of truss/rafter erection the stability of the trusses/rafters will be ensured at all times.
</P>
<P>(Your company name here) shall take the following steps to protect workers who are exposed to fall hazards while working from the top plate installing trusses/rafters:
</P>
<P>• Only the following trained workers will be allowed to work on the top plate during roof truss or rafter installation:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>• Workers shall have no other duties to perform during truss/rafter erection procedures;
</P>
<P>• All trusses/rafters will be adequately braced before any worker can use the truss/rafter as a support;
</P>
<P>• Workers will remain on the top plate using the previously stabilized truss/rafter as a support while other trusses/rafters are being erected;
</P>
<P>• Workers will leave the area of the secured trusses only when it is necessary to secure another truss/rafter;
</P>
<P>• The first two trusses/rafters will be set from ladders leaning on side walls at points where the walls can support the weight of the ladder; and
</P>
<P>• A worker will climb onto the interior top plate via a ladder to secure the peaks of the first two trusses/rafters being set.
</P>
<P>The workers responsible for detaching trusses from cranes and/or securing trusses at the peaks traditionally are positioned at the peak of the trusses/rafters. There are also situations where workers securing rafters to ridge beams will be positioned on top of the ridge beam.
</P>
<P>(Your company name here) shall take the following steps to protect workers who are exposed to fall hazards while securing trusses/rafters at the peak of the trusses/ridge beam:
</P>
<P>• Only the following trained workers will be allowed to work at the peak during roof truss or rafter installation:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>• Once truss or rafter installation begins, workers not involved in that activity shall not stand or walk below or adjacent to the roof opening or exterior walls in any area where they could be struck by falling objects;
</P>
<P>• Workers shall have no other duties than securing/bracing the trusses/ridge beam;
</P>
<P>• Workers positioned at the peaks or in the webs of trusses or on top of the ridge beam shall work from a stable position, either by sitting on a “ridge seat” or other equivalent surface that provides additional stability or by positioning themselves in previously stabilized trusses/rafters and leaning into and reaching through the trusses/rafters;
</P>
<P>• Workers shall not remain on or in the peak/ridge any longer than necessary to safely complete the task.
</P>
<HD2>Roof Sheathing Operations
</HD2>
<P>Workers typically install roof sheathing after all trusses/rafters and any permanent truss bracing is in place. Roof structures are unstable until some sheathing is installed, so workers installing roof sheathing cannot be protected from fall hazards by conventional fall protection systems until it is determined that the roofing system can be used as an anchorage point. At that point, employees shall be protected by a personal fall arrest system.
</P>
<P>Trusses/rafters are subject to collapse if a worker falls while attached to a single truss with a belt/harness. Nets could also cause collapse, and there is no place to attach guardrails.
</P>
<P>All workers will ensure that they have secure footing before they attempt to walk on the sheathing, including cleaning shoes/boots of mud or other slip hazards.
</P>
<P>To minimize the time workers must be exposed to a fall hazard, materials will be staged to allow for the quickest installation of sheathing.
</P>
<P>(Your company name here) shall take the following steps to protect workers who are exposed to fall hazards while installing roof sheathing:
</P>
<P>• Once roof sheathing installation begins, workers not involved in that activity shall not stand or walk below or adjacent to the roof opening or exterior walls in any area where they could be struck by falling objects;
</P>
<P>• The competent person shall determine the limits of this area, which shall be clearly communicated to workers prior to placement of the first piece of roof sheathing;
</P>
<P>• The competent person may order work on the roof to be suspended for brief periods as necessary to allow other workers to pass through such areas when this would not create a greater hazard;
</P>
<P>• Only qualified workers shall install roof sheathing;
</P>
<P>• The bottom row of roof sheathing may be installed by workers standing in truss webs;
</P>
<P>• After the bottom row of roof sheathing is installed, a slide guard extending the width of the roof shall be securely attached to the roof. Slide guards are to be constructed of no less than nominal 4” height capable of limiting the uncontrolled slide of workers. Workers should install the slide guard while standing in truss webs and leaning over the sheathing;
</P>
<P>• Additional rows of roof sheathing may be installed by workers positioned on previously installed rows of sheathing. A slide guard can be used to assist workers in retaining their footing during successive sheathing operations; and
</P>
<P>• Additional slide guards shall be securely attached to the roof at intervals not to exceed 13 feet as successive rows of sheathing are installed. For roofs with pitches in excess of 9-in-12, slide guards will be installed at four-foot intervals.
</P>
<P>• When wet weather (rain, snow, or sleet) are present, roof sheathing operations shall be suspended unless safe footing can be assured for those workers installing sheathing.
</P>
<P>• When strong winds (above 40 miles per hour) are present, roof sheathing operations are to be suspended unless wind breakers are erected.
</P>
<HD2>Installation of Floor Joists and Sheathing
</HD2>
<P>During the installation of floor sheathing/joists (leading edge construction), the following steps shall be taken to protect workers:
</P>
<P>• Only the following trained workers will be allowed to install floor joists or sheathing:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>• Materials for the operations shall be conveniently staged to allow for easy access to workers;
</P>
<P>• The first floor joists or trusses will be rolled into position and secured either from the ground, ladders or sawhorse scaffolds;
</P>
<P>• Each successive floor joist or truss will be rolled into place and secured from a platform created from a sheet of plywood laid over the previously secured floor joists or trusses;
</P>
<P>• Except for the first row of sheathing which will be installed from ladders or the ground, workers shall work from the established deck; and
</P>
<P>• Any workers not assisting in the leading edge construction while leading edges still exist (e.g. cutting the decking for the installers) shall not be permitted within six feet of the leading edge under construction.
</P>
<HD2>Erection of Exterior Walls
</HD2>
<P>During the construction and erection of exterior walls, employers shall take the following steps to protect workers:
</P>
<P>• Only the following trained workers will be allowed to erect exterior walls:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>• A painted line six feet from the perimeter will be clearly marked prior to any wall erection activities to warn of the approaching unprotected edge;
</P>
<P>• Materials for operations shall be conveniently staged to minimize fall hazards; and
</P>
<P>• Workers constructing exterior walls shall complete as much cutting of materials and other preparation as possible away from the edge of the deck.
</P>
<HD1>III. Enforcement
</HD1>
<P>Constant awareness of and respect for fall hazards, and compliance with all safety rules are considered conditions of employment. The crew supervisor or foreman, as well as individuals in the Safety and Personnel Department, reserve the right to issue disciplinary warnings to employees, up to and including termination, for failure to follow the guidelines of this program.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Accident Investigations
</HD1>
<P>All accidents that result in injury to workers, regardless of their nature, shall be investigated and reported. It is an integral part of any safety program that documentation take place as soon as possible so that the cause and means of prevention can be identified to prevent a reoccurrence.
</P>
<P>In the event that an employee falls or there is some other related, serious incident occurring, this plan shall be reviewed to determine if additional practices, procedures, or training need to be implemented to prevent similar types of falls or incidents from occurring.
</P>
<HD1>V. Changes to Plan
</HD1>
<P>Any changes to the plan will be approved by (name of the qualified person). This plan shall be reviewed by a qualified person as the job progresses to determine if additional practices, procedures or training needs to be implemented by the competent person to improve or provide additional fall protection. Workers shall be notified and trained, if necessary, in the new procedures. A copy of this plan and all approved changes shall be maintained at the jobsite.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 40730, Aug. 9, 1994]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Helicopters, Hoists, Elevators, and Conveyors</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order Nos. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (49 FR 35736), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR 1911.




</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.550" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.14.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.550   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.551" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.14.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.551   Helicopters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Helicopter regulations.</I> Helicopter cranes shall be expected to comply with any applicable regulations of the Federal Aviation Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Briefing.</I> Prior to each day's operation a briefing shall be conducted. This briefing shall set forth the plan of operation for the pilot and ground personnel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Slings and tag lines.</I> Load shall be properly slung. Tag lines shall be of a length that will not permit their being drawn up into rotors. Pressed sleeve, swedged eyes, or equivalent means shall be used for all freely suspended loads to prevent hand splices from spinning open or cable clamps from loosening.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cargo hooks.</I> All electrically operated cargo hooks shall have the electrical activating device so designed and installed as to prevent inadvertent operation. In addition, these cargo hooks shall be equipped with an emergency mechanical control for releasing the load. The hooks shall be tested prior to each day's operation to determine that the release functions properly, both electrically and mechanically.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> (1) Personal protective equipment for employees receiving the load shall consist of complete eye protection and hard hats secured by chinstraps.
</P>
<P>(2) Loose-fitting clothing likely to flap in the downwash, and thus be snagged on hoist line, shall not be worn.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Loose gear and objects.</I> Every practical precaution shall be taken to provide for the protection of the employees from flying objects in the rotor downwash. All loose gear within 100 feet of the place of lifting the load, depositing the load, and all other areas susceptible to rotor downwash shall be secured or removed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Housekeeping.</I> Good housekeeping shall be maintained in all helicopter loading and unloading areas.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Operator responsibility.</I> The helicopter operator shall be responsible for size, weight, and manner in which loads are connected to the helicopter. If, for any reason, the helicopter operator believes the lift cannot be made safely, the lift shall not be made.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hooking and unhooking loads.</I> When employees are required to perform work under hovering craft, a safe means of access shall be provided for employees to reach the hoist line hook and engage or disengage cargo slings. Employees shall not perform work under hovering craft except when necessary to hook or unhook loads.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Static charge.</I> Static charge on the suspended load shall be dissipated with a grounding device before ground personnel touch the suspended load, or protective rubber gloves shall be worn by all ground personnel touching the suspended load.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Weight limitation.</I> The weight of an external load shall not exceed the manufacturer's rating.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Ground lines.</I> Hoist wires or other gear, except for pulling lines or conductors that are allowed to “pay out” from a container or roll off a reel, shall not be attached to any fixed ground structure, or allowed to foul on any fixed structure.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Visibility.</I> When visibility is reduced by dust or other conditions, ground personnel shall exercise special caution to keep clear of main and stabilizing rotors. Precautions shall also be taken by the employer to eliminate as far as practical reduced visibility.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Signal systems.</I> Signal systems between aircrew and ground personnel shall be understood and checked in advance of hoisting the load. This applies to either radio or hand signal systems. Hand signals shall be as shown in Figure N-1.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.015.gif"/>
<P>(o) <I>Approach distance.</I> No unauthorized person shall be allowed to approach within 50 feet of the helicopter when the rotor blades are turning.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Approaching helicopter.</I> Whenever approaching or leaving a helicopter with blades rotating, all employees shall remain in full view of the pilot and keep in a crouched position. Employees shall avoid the area from the cockpit or cabin rearward unless authorized by the helicopter operator to work there.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Personnel.</I> Sufficient ground personnel shall be provided when required for safe helicopter loading and unloading operations.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Communications.</I> There shall be constant reliable communication between the pilot, and a designated employee of the ground crew who acts as a signalman during the period of loading and unloading. This signalman shall be distinctly recognizable from other ground personnel.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Fires.</I> Open fires shall not be permitted in an area that could result in such fires being spread by the rotor downwash.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.552" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.14.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.552   Material hoists, personnel hoists, and elevators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The employer shall comply with the manufacturer's specifications and limitations applicable to the operation of all hoists and elevators. Where manufacturer's specifications are not available, the limitations assigned to the equipment shall be based on the determinations of a professional engineer competent in the field.
</P>
<P>(2) Rated load capacities, recommended operating speeds, and special hazard warnings or instructions shall be posted on cars and platforms.
</P>
<P>(3) Wire rope shall be removed from service when any of the following conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(i) In hoisting ropes, six randomly distributed broken wires in one rope lay or three broken wires in one strand in one rope lay;
</P>
<P>(ii) Abrasion, scrubbing, flattening, or peening, causing loss of more than one-third of the original diameter of the outside wires;
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence of any heat damage resulting from a torch or any damage caused by contact with electrical wires;
</P>
<P>(iv) Reduction from nominal diameter of more than three sixty-fourths inch for diameters up to and including three-fourths inch; one-sixteenth inch for diameters seven-eights to 1
<FR>1/8</FR> inches; and three thirty-seconds inch for diameters 1
<FR>1/4</FR> to 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>(4) Hoisting ropes shall be installed in accordance with the wire rope manufacturers' recommendations.
</P>
<P>(5) The installation of live booms on hoists is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(6) The use of endless belt-type manlifts on construction shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Material hoists.</I> (1)(i) Operating rules shall be established and posted at the operator's station of the hoist. Such rules shall include signal system and allowable line speed for various loads. Rules and notices shall be posted on the car frame or crosshead in a conspicuous location, including the statement “No Riders Allowed.”
</P>
<P>(ii) No person shall be allowed to ride on material hoists except for the purposes of inspection and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(2) All entrances of the hoistways shall be protected by substantial gates or bars which shall guard the full width of the landing entrance. All hoistway entrance bars and gates shall be painted with diagonal contrasting colors, such as black and yellow stripes.
</P>
<P>(i) Bars shall be not less than 2- by 4-inch wooden bars or the equivalent, located 2 feet from the hoistway line. Bars shall be located not less than 36 inches nor more than 42 inches above the floor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Gates or bars protecting the entrances to hoistways shall be equipped with a latching device.
</P>
<P>(3) Overhead protective covering of 2-inch planking, 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch plywood, or other solid material of equivalent strength, shall be provided on the top of every material hoist cage or platform.
</P>
<P>(4) The operator's station of a hoisting machine shall be provided with overhead protection equivalent to tight planking not less than 2 inches thick. The support for the overhead protection shall be of equal strength.
</P>
<P>(5) Hoist towers may be used with or without an enclosure on all sides. However, whichever alternative is chosen, the following applicable conditions shall be met:
</P>
<P>(i) When a hoist tower is enclosed, it shall be enclosed on all sides for its entire height with a screen enclosure of 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch mesh, No. 18 U.S. gauge wire or equivalent, except for landing access.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a hoist tower is not enclosed, the hoist platform or car shall be totally enclosed (caged) on all sides for the full height between the floor and the overhead protective covering with 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch mesh of No. 14 U.S. gauge wire or equivalent. The hoist platform enclosure shall include the required gates for loading and unloading. A 6-foot high enclosure shall be provided on the unused sides of the hoist tower at ground level.
</P>
<P>(6) Car arresting devices shall be installed to function in case of rope failure.
</P>
<P>(7) All material hoist towers shall be designed by a licensed professional engineer.
</P>
<P>(8) All material hoists shall conform to the requirements of ANSI A10.5-1969, Safety Requirements for Material Hoists.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Personnel hoists.</I> (1) Hoist towers outside the structure shall be enclosed for the full height on the side or sides used for entrance and exit to the structure. At the lowest landing, the enclosure on the sides not used for exit or entrance to the structure shall be enclosed to a height of at least 10 feet. Other sides of the tower adjacent to floors or scaffold platforms shall be enclosed to a height of 10 feet above the level of such floors or scaffolds.
</P>
<P>(2) Towers inside of structures shall be enclosed on all four sides throughout the full height.
</P>
<P>(3) Towers shall be anchored to the structure at intervals not exceeding 25 feet. In addition to tie-ins, a series of guys shall be installed. Where tie-ins are not practical the tower shall be anchored by means of guys made of wire rope at least one-half inch in diameter, securely fastened to anchorage to ensure stability.
</P>
<P>(4) Hoistway doors or gates shall be not less than 6 feet 6 inches high and shall be provided with mechanical locks which cannot be operated from the landing side, and shall be accessible only to persons on the car.
</P>
<P>(5) Cars shall be permanently enclosed on all sides and the top, except sides used for entrance and exit which have car gates or doors.
</P>
<P>(6) A door or gate shall be provided at each entrance to the car which shall protect the full width and height of the car entrance opening.
</P>
<P>(7) Overhead protective covering of 2-inch planking, 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch plywood or other solid material or equivalent strength shall be provided on the top of every personnel hoist.
</P>
<P>(8) Doors or gates shall be provided with electric contacts which do not allow movement of the hoist when door or gate is open.
</P>
<P>(9) Safeties shall be capable of stopping and holding the car and rated load when traveling at governor tripping speed.
</P>
<P>(10) Cars shall be provided with a capacity and data plate secured in a conspicuous place on the car or crosshead.
</P>
<P>(11) Internal combustion engines shall not be permitted for direct drive.
</P>
<P>(12) Normal and final terminal stopping devices shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(13) An emergency stop switch shall be provided in the car and marked “Stop.”
</P>
<P>(14) Ropes: (i) The minimum number of hoisting ropes used shall be three for traction hoists and two for drum-type hoists.
</P>
<P>(ii) The minimum diameter of hoisting and counterweight wire ropes shall be 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch.
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety factors:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Minimum Factors of Safety for Suspension Wire Ropes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rope speed in feet per minute
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum factor of safety
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.70</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(15) Following assembly and erection of hoists, and before being put in service, an inspection and test of all functions and safety devices shall be made under the supervision of a competent person. A similar inspection and test is required following major alteration of an existing installation. All hoists shall be inspected and tested at not more than 3-month intervals. The employer shall prepare a certification record which includes the date the inspection and test of all functions and safety devices was performed; the signature of the person who performed the inspection and test; and a serial number, or other identifier, for the hoist that was inspected and tested. The most recent certification record shall be maintained on file.
</P>
<P>(16) All personnel hoists used by employees shall be constructed of materials and components which meet the specifications for materials, construction, safety devices, assembly, and structural integrity as stated in the American National Standard A10.4-1963, Safety Requirements for Workmen's Hoists. The requirements of this paragraph (c)(16) do not apply to cantilever type personnel hoists.
</P>
<P>(17)(i) Personnel hoists used in bridge tower construction shall be approved by a registered professional engineer and erected under the supervision of a qualified engineer competent in this field.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a hoist tower is not enclosed, the hoist platform or car shall be totally enclosed (caged) on all sides for the full height between the floor and the overhead protective covering with 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch mesh of No. 14 U.S. gauge wire or equivalent. The hoist platform enclosure shall include the required gates for loading and unloading.
</P>
<P>(iii) These hoists shall be inspected and maintained on a weekly basis. Whenever the hoisting equipment is exposed to winds exceeding 35 miles per hour it shall be inspected and put in operable condition before reuse.
</P>
<P>(iv) Wire rope shall be taken out of service when any of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(A) In running ropes, six randomly distributed broken wires in one lay or three broken wires in one strand in one lay;
</P>
<P>(B) Wear of one-third the original diameter of outside individual wires. Kinking, crushing, bird caging, or any other damage resulting in distortion of the rope structure;
</P>
<P>(C) Evidence of any heat damage from any cause;
</P>
<P>(D) Reductions from nominal diameter of more than three-sixty-fourths inch for diameters to and including three-fourths inch, one-sixteenth inch for diameters seven-eights inch to 1
<FR>1/8</FR> inches inclusive, three-thirty-seconds inch for diameters 1
<FR>1/4</FR> to 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches inclusive;
</P>
<P>(E) In standing ropes, more than two broken wires in one lay in sections beyond end connections or more than one broken wire at an end connection.
</P>
<P>(d) Permanent elevators under the care and custody of the employer and used by employees for work covered by this Act shall comply with the requirements of American National Standards Institute A17.1-1965 with addenda A17.1a-1967, A17.1b-1968, A17.1c-1969, A17.1d-1970, and inspected in accordance with A17.2-1960 with addenda A17.2a-1965, A17.2b-1967.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 36382, Sept. 28, 1987; 85 FR 8743, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.553" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.14.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.553   Base-mounted drum hoists.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Exposed moving parts such as gears, projecting screws, setscrews, chain, cables, chain sprockets, and reciprocating or rotating parts, which constitute a hazard, shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(2) All controls used during the normal operation cycle shall be located within easy reach of the operator's station.
</P>
<P>(3) Electric motor operated hoists shall be provided with:
</P>
<P>(i) A device to disconnect all motors from the line upon power failure and not permit any motor to be restarted until the controller handle is brought to the “off” position;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where applicable, an overspeed preventive device;
</P>
<P>(iii) A means whereby remotely operated hoists stop when any control is ineffective.
</P>
<P>(4) All base-mounted drum hoists in use shall meet the applicable requirements for design, construction, installation, testing, inspection, maintenance, and operations, as prescribed by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to base-mounted drum hoists used in conjunction with derricks. Base-mounted drum hoists used in conjunction with derricks must conform to § 1926.1436(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979, as amended at 75 FR 48134, Aug. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.554" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.14.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.554   Overhead hoists.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The safe working load of the overhead hoist, as determined by the manufacturer, shall be indicated on the hoist, and this safe working load shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(2) The supporting structure to which the hoist is attached shall have a safe working load equal to that of the hoist.
</P>
<P>(3) The support shall be arranged so as to provide for free movement of the hoist and shall not restrict the hoist from lining itself up with the load.
</P>
<P>(4) The hoist shall be installed only in locations that will permit the operator to stand clear of the load at all times.
</P>
<P>(5) Air hoists shall be connected to an air supply of sufficient capacity and pressure to safely operate the hoist. All air hoses supplying air shall be positively connected to prevent their becoming disconnected during use.
</P>
<P>(6) All overhead hoists in use shall meet the applicable requirements for construction, design, installation, testing, inspection, maintenance, and operation, as prescribed by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements.</I> [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.555" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.14.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.555   Conveyors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Means for stopping the motor or engine shall be provided at the operator's station. Conveyor systems shall be equipped with an audible warning signal to be sounded immediately before starting up the conveyor.
</P>
<P>(2) If the operator's station is at a remote point, similar provisions for stopping the motor or engine shall be provided at the motor or engine location.
</P>
<P>(3) Emergency stop switches shall be arranged so that the conveyor cannot be started again until the actuating stop switch has been reset to running or “on” position.
</P>
<P>(4) Screw conveyors shall be guarded to prevent employee contact with turning flights.
</P>
<P>(5) Where a conveyor passes over work areas, aisles, or thoroughfares, suitable guards shall be provided to protect employees required to work below the conveyors.
</P>
<P>(6) All crossovers, aisles, and passageways shall be conspicuously marked by suitable signs, as required by subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Conveyors shall be locked out or otherwise rendered inoperable, and tagged out with a “Do Not Operate” tag during repairs and when operation is hazardous to employees performing maintenance work.
</P>
<P>(8) All conveyors in use shall meet the applicable requirements for design, construction, inspection, testing, maintenance, and operation, as prescribed in the ANSI B20.1-1957, Safety Code for Conveyors, Cableways, and Related Equipment.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Motor Vehicles, Mechanized Equipment, and Marine Operations</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 107, Construction Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (Construction Safety Act) (40 U.S.C. 333); Secs. 4, 6, 8, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), or 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), as applicable. Section 1926.602 also issued under 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.600" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.15.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.600   Equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) All equipment left unattended at night, adjacent to a highway in normal use, or adjacent to construction areas where work is in progress, shall have appropriate lights or reflectors, or barricades equipped with appropriate lights or reflectors, to identify the location of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) A safety tire rack, cage, or equivalent protection shall be provided and used when inflating, mounting, or dismounting tires installed on split rims, or rims equipped with locking rings or similar devices.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Heavy machinery, equipment, or parts thereof, which are suspended or held aloft by use of slings, hoists, or jacks shall be substantially blocked or cribbed to prevent falling or shifting before employees are permitted to work under or between them. Bulldozer and scraper blades, end-loader buckets, dump bodies, and similar equipment, shall be either fully lowered or blocked when being repaired or when not in use. All controls shall be in a neutral position, with the motors stopped and brakes set, unless work being performed requires otherwise.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the equipment is parked, the parking brake shall be set. Equipment parked on inclines shall have the wheels chocked and the parking brake set.
</P>
<P>(4) The use, care and charging of all batteries shall conform to the requirements of subpart K of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) All cab glass shall be safety glass, or equivalent, that introduces no visible distortion affecting the safe operation of any machine covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) All equipment covered by this subpart shall comply with the following requirements when working or being moved in the vicinity of power lines or energized transmitters, except where electrical distribution and transmission lines have been deenergized and visibly grounded at point of work or where insulating barriers, not a part of or an attachment to the equipment or machinery, have been erected to prevent physical contact with the lines:
</P>
<P>(i) For lines rated 50 kV or below, minimum clearance between the lines and any part of the crane or load shall be 10 feet;
</P>
<P>(ii) For lines rated over 50 kV, minimum clearance between the lines and any part of the crane or load shall be 10 feet plus 0.4 inch for each 1 kV over 50 kV, or twice the length of the line insulator, but never less than 10 feet;
</P>
<P>(iii) In transit with no load and boom lowered, the equipment clearance shall be a minimum of 4 feet for voltages less than 50 kV, and 10 feet for voltages over 50 kV, up to and including 345 kV, and 16 feet for voltages up to and including 750 kV;
</P>
<P>(iv) A person shall be designated to observe clearance of the equipment and give timely warning for all operations where it is difficult for the operator to maintain the desired clearance by visual means;
</P>
<P>(v) Cage-type boom guards, insulating links, or proximity warning devices may be used on cranes, but the use of such devices shall not alter the requirements of any other regulation of this part even if such device is required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any overhead wire shall be considered to be an energized line unless and until the person owning such line or the electrical utility authorities indicate that it is not an energized line and it has been visibly grounded;
</P>
<P>(vii) Prior to work near transmitter towers where an electrical charge can be induced in the equipment or materials being handled, the transmitter shall be de-energized or tests shall be made to determine if electrical charge is induced on the crane. The following precautions shall be taken when necessary to dissipate induced voltages:
</P>
<P>(A) The equipment shall be provided with an electrical ground directly to the upper rotating structure supporting the boom; and
</P>
<P>(B) Ground jumper cables shall be attached to materials being handled by boom equipment when electrical charge is induced while working near energized transmitters. Crews shall be provided with nonconductive poles having large alligator clips or other similar protection to attach the ground cable to the load.
</P>
<P>(C) Combustible and flammable materials shall be removed from the immediate area prior to operations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Rolling railroad cars.</I> Derail and/or bumper blocks shall be provided on spur railroad tracks where a rolling car could contact other cars being worked, enter a building, work or traffic area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35183, June 30, 1993; 75 FR 48134, Aug. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.601" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.15.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.601   Motor vehicles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> Motor vehicles as covered by this part are those vehicles that operate within an off-highway jobsite, not open to public traffic. The requirements of this section do not apply to equipment for which rules are prescribed in § 1926.602.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) All vehicles shall have a service brake system, an emergency brake system, and a parking brake system. These systems may use common components, and shall be maintained in operable condition.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Whenever visibility conditions warrant additional light, all vehicles, or combinations of vehicles, in use shall be equipped with at least two headlights and two taillights in operable condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) All vehicles, or combination of vehicles, shall have brake lights in operable condition regardless of light conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) All vehicles shall be equipped with an adequate audible warning device at the operator's station and in an operable condition.
</P>
<P>(4) No employer shall use any motor vehicle equipment having an obstructed view to the rear unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The vehicle has a reverse signal alarm audible above the surrounding noise level or:
</P>
<P>(ii) The vehicle is backed up only when an observer signals that it is safe to do so.
</P>
<P>(5) All vehicles with cabs shall be equipped with windshields and powered wipers. Cracked and broken glass shall be replaced. Vehicles operating in areas or under conditions that cause fogging or frosting of the windshields shall be equipped with operable defogging or defrosting devices.
</P>
<P>(6) All haulage vehicles, whose pay load is loaded by means of cranes, power shovels, loaders, or similar equipment, shall have a cab shield and/or canopy adequate to protect the operator from shifting or falling materials.
</P>
<P>(7) Tools and material shall be secured to prevent movement when transported in the same compartment with employees.
</P>
<P>(8) Vehicles used to transport employees shall have seats firmly secured and adequate for the number of employees to be carried.
</P>
<P>(9) Seat belts and anchorages meeting the requirements of 49 CFR part 571 (Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards) shall be installed in all motor vehicles.
</P>
<P>(10) Trucks with dump bodies shall be equipped with positive means of support, permanently attached, and capable of being locked in position to prevent accidental lowering of the body while maintenance or inspection work is being done.
</P>
<P>(11) Operating levers controlling hoisting or dumping devices on haulage bodies shall be equipped with a latch or other device which will prevent accidental starting or tripping of the mechanism.
</P>
<P>(12) Trip handles for tailgates of dump trucks shall be so arranged that, in dumping, the operator will be in the clear.
</P>
<P>(13) (i) All rubber-tired motor vehicle equipment manufactured on or after May 1, 1972, shall be equipped with fenders. All rubber-tired motor vehicle equipment manufactured before May 1, 1972, shall be equipped with fenders not later than May 1, 1973.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mud flaps may be used in lieu of fenders whenever motor vehicle equipment is not designed for fenders.
</P>
<P>(14) All vehicles in use shall be checked at the beginning of each shift to assure that the following parts, equipment, and accessories are in safe operating condition and free of apparent damage that could cause failure while in use: service brakes, including trailer brake connections; parking system (hand brake); emergency stopping system (brakes); tires; horn; steering mechanism; coupling devices; seat belts; operating controls; and safety devices. All defects shall be corrected before the vehicle is placed in service. These requirements also apply to equipment such as lights, reflectors, windshield wipers, defrosters, fire extinguishers, etc., where such equipment is necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.602" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.15.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.602   Material handling equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Earthmoving equipment; General.</I> (1) These rules apply to the following types of earthmoving equipment: scrapers, loaders, crawler or wheel tractors, bulldozers, off-highway trucks, graders, agricultural and industrial tractors, and similar equipment. The promulgation of specific rules for compactors and rubber-tired “skid-steer” equipment is reserved pending consideration of standards currently being developed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Seat belts.</I> (i) Seat belts shall be provided on all equipment covered by this section and shall meet the requirements of the Society of Automotive Engineers, J386-1969, Seat Belts for Construction Equipment. Seat belts for agricultural and light industrial tractors shall meet the seat belt requirements of Society of Automotive Engineers J333a-1970, Operator Protection for Agricultural and Light Industrial Tractors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Seat belts need not be provided for equipment which is designed only for standup operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Seat belts need not be provided for equipment which does not have roll-over protective structure (ROPS) or adequate canopy protection.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access roadways and grades.</I> (i) No employer shall move or cause to be moved construction equipment or vehicles upon any access roadway or grade unless the access roadway or grade is constructed and maintained to accommodate safely the movement of the equipment and vehicles involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Every emergency access ramp and berm used by an employer shall be constructed to restrain and control runaway vehicles.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Brakes.</I> All earthmoving equipment mentioned in this § 1926.602(a) shall have a service braking system capable of stopping and holding the equipment fully loaded, as specified in Society of Automotive Engineers SAE-J237, Loader Dozer-1971, J236, Graders-1971, and J319b, Scrapers-1971. Brake systems for self-propelled rubber-tired off-highway equipment manufactured after January 1, 1972 shall meet the applicable minimum performance criteria set forth in the following Society of Automotive Engineers Recommended Practices:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Propelled Scrapers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SAE J319b-1971.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Propelled Graders</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SAE J236-1971.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trucks and Wagons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SAE J166-1971.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Front End Loaders and Dozers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SAE J237-1971.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Fenders.</I> Pneumatic-tired earth-moving haulage equipment (trucks, scrapers, tractors, and trailing units) whose maximum speed exceeds 15 miles per hour, shall be equipped with fenders on all wheels to meet the requirements of Society of Automotive Engineers SAE J321a-1970, Fenders for Pneumatic-Tired Earthmoving Haulage Equipment. An employer may, of course, at any time seek to show under § 1926.2, that the uncovered wheels present no hazard to personnel from flying materials.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rollover protective structures (ROPS).</I> See subpart W of this part for requirements for rollover protective structures and overhead protection.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Rollover protective structures for off-highway trucks.</I> The promulgation of standards for rollover protective structures for off-highway trucks is reserved pending further study and development.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Specific effective dates—brakes and fenders.</I> (i) Equipment mentioned in paragraph (a)(4) and (5) of this section, and manufactured after January 1, 1972, which is used by any employer after that date, shall comply with the applicable rules prescribed therein concerning brakes and fenders. Equipment mentioned in paragraphs (a) (4) and (5) of this section, and manufactured before January 1, 1972, which is used by any employer after that date, shall meet the applicable rules prescribed herein not later than June 30, 1973. It should be noted that, as permitted under § 1926.2, employers may request variations from the applicable brakes and fender standards required by this subpart. Employers wishing to seek variations from the applicable brakes and fenders rules may submit any requests for variations after the publication of this document in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Any statements intending to meet the requirements of § 1926.2(b)(4), should specify how the variation would protect the safety of the employees by providing for any compensating restrictions on the operation of equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a)(5) and (a)(8)(i) of this section, the requirement that fenders be installed on pneumatic-tired earthmoving haulage equipment, is suspended pending reconsideration of the requirement.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Audible alarms.</I> (i) All bidirectional machines, such as rollers, compacters, front-end loaders, bulldozers, and similar equipment, shall be equipped with a horn, distinguishable from the surrounding noise level, which shall be operated as needed when the machine is moving in either direction. The horn shall be maintained in an operative condition.
</P>
<P>(ii) No employer shall permit earthmoving or compacting equipment which has an obstructed view to the rear to be used in reverse gear unless the equipment has in operation a reverse signal alarm distinguishable from the surrounding noise level or an employee signals that it is safe to do so.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Scissor points.</I> Scissor points on all front-end loaders, which constitute a hazard to the operator during normal operation, shall be guarded.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Excavating and other equipment.</I> (1) Tractors covered in paragraph (a) of this section shall have seat belts as required for the operators when seated in the normal seating arrangement for tractor operation, even though back-hoes, breakers, or other similar attachments are used on these machines for excavating or other work.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this subpart and of subpart N of this part, the nomenclatures and descriptions for measurement of dimensions of machinery and attachments shall be as described in Society of Automotive Engineers 1970 Handbook, pages 1088 through 1103.
</P>
<P>(3) The safety requirements, ratios, or limitations applicable to machines or attachment usage covered in Power Crane and Shovel Associations Standards No. 1 and No. 2 of 1968, and No. 3 of 1969, shall be complied with, and shall apply to cranes, machines, and attachments under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Lifting and hauling equipment (other than equipment covered under subpart N of this part).</I> (1) Industrial trucks shall meet the requirements of § 1926.600 and the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Lift trucks, stackers, etc., shall have the rated capacity clearly posted on the vehicle so as to be clearly visible to the operator. When auxiliary removable counterweights are provided by the manufacturer, corresponding alternate rated capacities also shall be clearly shown on the vehicle. These ratings shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(ii) No modifications or additions which affect the capacity or safe operation of the equipment shall be made without the manufacturer's written approval. If such modifications or changes are made, the capacity, operation, and maintenance instruction plates, tags, or decals shall be changed accordingly. In no case shall the original safety factor of the equipment be reduced.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a load is lifted by two or more trucks working in unison, the proportion of the total load carried by any one truck shall not exceed its capacity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Steering or spinner knobs shall not be attached to the steering wheel unless the steering mechanism is of a type that prevents road reactions from causing the steering handwheel to spin. The steering knob shall be mounted within the periphery of the wheel.
</P>
<P>(v) All high lift rider industrial trucks shall be equipped with overhead guards which meet the configuration and structural requirements as defined in paragraph 421 of American National Standards Institute B56.1-1969, Safety Standards for Powered Industrial Trucks.
</P>
<P>(vi) All industrial trucks in use shall meet the applicable requirements of design, construction, stability, inspection, testing, maintenance, and operation, as defined in American National Standards Institute B56.1-1969, Safety Standards for Powered Industrial Trucks.
</P>
<P>(vii) Unauthorized personnel shall not be permitted to ride on powered industrial trucks. A safe place to ride shall be provided where riding of trucks is authorized.
</P>
<P>(viii) Whenever a truck is equipped with vertical only, or vertical and horizontal controls elevatable with the lifting carriage or forks for lifting personnel, the following additional precautions shall be taken for the protection of personnel being elevated.
</P>
<P>(A) Use of a safety platform firmly secured to the lifting carriage and/or forks.
</P>
<P>(B) Means shall be provided whereby personnel on the platform can shut off power to the truck.
</P>
<P>(C) Such protection from falling objects as indicated necessary by the operating conditions shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Powered industrial truck operator training.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this paragraph are identical to those set forth at § 1910.178(l) of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35183, June 30, 1993; 63 FR 66274, Dec. 1, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.603" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.15.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.603   Pile driving equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Boilers and piping systems which are a part of, or used with, pile driving equipment shall meet the applicable requirements of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, Power Boilers (section I).
</P>
<P>(2) All pressure vessels which are a part of, or used with, pile driving equipment shall meet the applicable requirements of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, Pressure Vessels (section VIII).
</P>
<P>(3) Overhead protection, which will not obscure the vision of the operator and which meets the requirements of subpart N of this part, shall be provided. Protection shall be the equivalent of 2-inch planking or other solid material of equivalent strength.
</P>
<P>(4) Stop blocks shall be provided for the leads to prevent the hammer from being raised against the head block.
</P>
<P>(5) A blocking device, capable of safely supporting the weight of the hammer, shall be provided for placement in the leads under the hammer at all times while employees are working under the hammer.
</P>
<P>(6) Guards shall be provided across the top of the head block to prevent the cable from jumping out of the sheaves.
</P>
<P>(7) When the leads must be inclined in the driving of batter piles, provisions shall be made to stabilize the leads.
</P>
<P>(8) Fixed leads shall be provided with ladder, and adequate rings, or similar attachment points, so that the loft worker may engage his safety belt lanyard to the leads. If the leads are provided with loft platforms(s), such platform(s) shall be protected by standard guardrails.
</P>
<P>(9) Steam hose leading to a steam hammer or jet pipe shall be securely attached to the hammer with an adequate length of at least 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch diameter chain or cable to prevent whipping in the event the joint at the hammer is broken. Air hammer hoses shall be provided with the same protection as required for steam lines.
</P>
<P>(10) Safety chains, or equivalent means, shall be provided for each hose connection to prevent the line from thrashing around in case the coupling becomes disconnected.
</P>
<P>(11) Steam line controls shall consist of two shutoff valves, one of which shall be a quick-acting lever type within easy reach of the hammer operator.
</P>
<P>(12) Guys, outriggers, thrustouts, or counterbalances shall be provided as necessary to maintain stability of pile driver rigs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pile driving from barges and floats.</I> Barges or floats supporting pile driving operations shall meet the applicable requirements of § 1926.605.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pile driving equipment.</I> (1) Engineers and winchmen shall accept signals only from the designated signalmen.
</P>
<P>(2) All employees shall be kept clear when piling is being hoisted into the leads.
</P>
<P>(3) When piles are being driven in an excavated pit, the walls of the pit shall be sloped to the angle of repose or sheet-piled and braced.
</P>
<P>(4) When steel tube piles are being “blown out”, employees shall be kept well beyond the range of falling materials.
</P>
<P>(5) When it is necessary to cut off the tops of driven piles, pile driving operations shall be suspended except where the cutting operations are located at least twice the length of the longest pile from the driver.
</P>
<P>(6) When driving jacked piles, all access pits shall be provided with ladders and bulkheaded curbs to prevent material from falling into the pit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.604" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.15.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.604   Site clearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Employees engaged in site clearing shall be protected from hazards of irritant and toxic plants and suitably instructed in the first aid treatment available.
</P>
<P>(2) All equipment used in site clearing operations shall be equipped with rollover guards meeting the requirements of this subpart. In addition, rider-operated equipment shall be equipped with an overhead and rear canopy guard meeting the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The overhead covering on this canopy structure shall be of not less than 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch steel plate or 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch woven wire mesh with openings no greater than 1 inch, or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(ii) The opening in the rear of the canopy structure shall be covered with not less than 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch woven wire mesh with openings no greater than 1 inch.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements.</I> [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.605" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.15.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.605   Marine operations and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Material handling operations.</I> (1) Operations fitting the definition of “material handling” shall be performed in conformance with applicable requirements of part 1918, “Safety and Health Regulations for Longshoring” of this chapter. The term “longshoring operations” means the loading, unloading, moving, or handling of construction materials, equipment and supplies, etc. into, in, on, or out of any vessel from a fixed structure or shore-to-vessel, vessel-to-shore or fixed structure or vessel-to-vessel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access to barges.</I> (1) Ramps for access of vehicles to or between barges shall be of adequate strength, provided with side boards, well maintained, and properly secured.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless employees can step safely to or from the wharf, float, barge, or river towboat, either a ramp, meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or a safe walkway, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) Jacob's ladders shall be of the double rung or flat tread type. They shall be well maintained and properly secured.
</P>
<P>(4) A Jacob's ladder shall either hang without slack from its lashings or be pulled up entirely.
</P>
<P>(5) When the upper end of the means of access rests on or is flush with the top of the bulwark, substantial steps properly secured and equipped with at least one substantial hand rail approximately 33 inches in height, shall be provided between the top of the bulwark and the deck.
</P>
<P>(6) Obstructions shall not be laid on or across the gangway.
</P>
<P>(7) The means of access shall be adequately illuminated for its full length.
</P>
<P>(8) Unless the structure makes it impossible, the means of access shall be so located that the load will not pass over employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Working surfaces of barges.</I> (1) Employees shall not be permitted to walk along the sides of covered lighters or barges with coamings more than 5 feet high, unless there is a 3-foot clear walkway, or a grab rail, or a taut handline is provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Decks and other working surfaces shall be maintained in a safe condition.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees shall not be permitted to pass fore and aft, over, or around deckloads, unless there is a safe passage.
</P>
<P>(4) Employees shall not be permitted to walk over deckloads from rail to coaming unless there is a safe passage. If it is necessary to stand at the outboard or inboard edge of the deckload where less than 24 inches of bulwark, rail, coaming, or other protection exists, all employees shall be provided with a suitable means of protection against falling from the deckload.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>First-aid and lifesaving equipment.</I> (1) Provisions for rendering first aid and medical assistance shall be in accordance with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that there is in the vicinity of each barge in use at least one U.S. Coast Guard-approved 30-inch lifering with not less than 90 feet of line attached, and at least one portable or permanent ladder which will reach the top of the apron to the surface of the water. If the above equipment is not available at the pier, the employer shall furnish it during the time that he is working the barge.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees walking or working on the unguarded decks of barges shall be protected with U.S. Coast Guard-approved work vests or buoyant vests.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial diving operations.</I> Commercial diving operations shall be subject to subpart T of part 1910, §§ 1910.401-1910.441, of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22801, June 24, 1974, as amended at 42 FR 37674, July 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.606" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.15.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.606   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Apron</I>—The area along the waterfront edge of the pier or wharf.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bulwark</I>—The side of a ship above the upper deck.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coaming</I>—The raised frame, as around a hatchway in the deck, to keep out water.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Jacob's ladder</I>—A marine ladder of rope or chain with wooden or metal rungs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rail,</I> for the purpose of § 1926.605, means a light structure serving as a guard at the outer edge of a ship's deck.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Excavations</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 333; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 45959, Oct. 31, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.650" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.650   Scope, application, and definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This subpart applies to all open excavations made in the earth's surface. Excavations are defined to include trenches.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions applicable to this subpart.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Accepted engineering practices</I> means those requirements which are compatible with standards of practice required by a registered professional engineer.
</P>
<P><I>Aluminum Hydraulic Shoring</I> means a pre-engineered shoring system comprised of aluminum hydraulic cylinders (crossbraces) used in conjunction with vertical rails (uprights) or horizontal rails (walers). Such system is designed, specifically to support the sidewalls of an excavation and prevent cave-ins.
</P>
<P><I>Bell-bottom pier hole</I> means a type of shaft or footing excavation, the bottom of which is made larger than the cross section above to form a belled shape.
</P>
<P><I>Benching</I> (Benching system) means a method of protecting employees from cave-ins by excavating the sides of an excavation to form one or a series of horizontal levels or steps, usually with vertical or near-vertical surfaces between levels.
</P>
<P><I>Cave-in</I> means the separation of a mass of soil or rock material from the side of an excavation, or the loss of soil from under a trench shield or support system, and its sudden movement into the excavation, either by falling or sliding, in sufficient quantity so that it could entrap, bury, or otherwise injure and immobilize a person.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings, or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
</P>
<P><I>Cross braces</I> mean the horizontal members of a shoring system installed perpendicular to the sides of the excavation, the ends of which bear against either uprights or wales.
</P>
<P><I>Excavation</I> means any man-made cut, cavity, trench, or depression in an earth surface, formed by earth removal.
</P>
<P><I>Faces</I> or <I>sides</I> means the vertical or inclined earth surfaces formed as a result of excavation work.
</P>
<P><I>Failure</I> means the breakage, displacement, or permanent deformation of a structural member or connection so as to reduce its structural integrity and its supportive capabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere which by reason of being explosive, flammable, poisonous, corrosive, oxidizing, irritating, oxygen deficient, toxic, or otherwise harmful, may cause death, illness, or injury.
</P>
<P><I>Kickout</I> means the accidental release or failure of a cross brace.
</P>
<P><I>Protective system</I> means a method of protecting employees from cave-ins, from material that could fall or roll from an excavation face or into an excavation, or from the collapse of adjacent structures. Protective systems include support systems, sloping and benching systems, shield systems, and other systems that provide the necessary protection.
</P>
<P><I>Ramp</I> means an inclined walking or working surface that is used to gain access to one point from another, and is constructed from earth or from structural materials such as steel or wood.
</P>
<P><I>Registered Professional Engineer</I> means a person who is registered as a professional engineer in the state where the work is to be performed. However, a professional engineer, registered in any state is deemed to be a “registered professional engineer” within the meaning of this standard when approving designs for “manufactured protective systems” or “tabulated data” to be used in interstate commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Sheeting</I> means the members of a shoring system that retain the earth in position and in turn are supported by other members of the shoring system.
</P>
<P><I>Shield</I> (Shield system) means a structure that is able to withstand the forces imposed on it by a cave-in and thereby protect employees within the structure. Shields can be permanent structures or can be designed to be portable and moved along as work progresses. Additionally, shields can be either premanufactured or job-built in accordance with § 1926.652 (c)(3) or (c)(4). Shields used in trenches are usually referred to as “trench boxes” or “trench shields.”
</P>
<P><I>Shoring</I> (Shoring system) means a structure such as a metal hydraulic, mechanical or timber shoring system that supports the sides of an excavation and which is designed to prevent cave-ins.
</P>
<P><I>Sides.</I> See “Faces.”
</P>
<P><I>Sloping</I> (Sloping system) means a method of protecting employees from cave-ins by excavating to form sides of an excavation that are inclined away from the excavation so as to prevent cave-ins. The angle of incline required to prevent a cave-in varies with differences in such factors as the soil type, environmental conditions of exposure, and application of surcharge loads.
</P>
<P><I>Stable rock</I> means natural solid mineral material that can be excavated with vertical sides and will remain intact while exposed. Unstable rock is considered to be stable when the rock material on the side or sides of the excavation is secured against caving-in or movement by rock bolts or by another protective system that has been designed by a registered professional engineer.
</P>
<P><I>Structural ramp</I> means a ramp built of steel or wood, usually used for vehicle access. Ramps made of soil or rock are not considered structural ramps.
</P>
<P><I>Support system</I> means a structure such as underpinning, bracing, or shoring, which provides support to an adjacent structure, underground installation, or the sides of an excavation.
</P>
<P><I>Tabulated data</I> means tables and charts approved by a registered professional engineer and used to design and construct a protective system.
</P>
<P><I>Trench</I> (Trench excavation) means a narrow excavation (in relation to its length) made below the surface of the ground. In general, the depth is greater than the width, but the width of a trench (measured at the bottom) is not greater than 15 feet (4.6 m). If forms or other structures are installed or constructed in an excavation so as to reduce the dimension measured from the forms or structure to the side of the excavation to 15 feet (4.6 m) or less (measured at the bottom of the excavation), the excavation is also considered to be a trench.
</P>
<P><I>Trench box.</I> See “Shield.”
</P>
<P><I>Trench shield.</I> See “Shield.”
</P>
<P><I>Uprights</I> means the vertical members of a trench shoring system placed in contact with the earth and usually positioned so that individual members do not contact each other. Uprights placed so that individual members are closely spaced, in contact with or interconnected to each other, are often called “sheeting.”
</P>
<P><I>Wales</I> means horizontal members of a shoring system placed parallel to the excavation face whose sides bear against the vertical members of the shoring system or earth.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.651" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.651   Specific excavation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Surface encumbrances.</I> All surface encumbrances that are located so as to create a hazard to employees shall be removed or supported, as necessary, to safeguard employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Underground installations.</I> (1) The estimated location of utility installations, such as sewer, telephone, fuel, electric, water lines, or any other underground installations that reasonably may be expected to be encountered during excavation work, shall be determined prior to opening an excavation.
</P>
<P>(2) Utility companies or owners shall be contacted within established or customary local response times, advised of the proposed work, and asked to establish the location of the utility underground installations prior to the start of actual excavation. When utility companies or owners cannot respond to a request to locate underground utility installations within 24 hours (unless a longer period is required by state or local law), or cannot establish the exact location of these installations, the employer may proceed, provided the employer does so with caution, and provided detection equipment or other acceptable means to locate utility installations are used.
</P>
<P>(3) When excavation operations approach the estimated location of underground installations, the exact location of the installations shall be determined by safe and acceptable means.
</P>
<P>(4) While the excavation is open, underground installations shall be protected, supported or removed as necessary to safeguard employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access and egress</I>—(1) <I>Structural ramps.</I> (i) Structural ramps that are used solely by employees as a means of access or egress from excavations shall be designed by a competent person. Structural ramps used for access or egress of equipment shall be designed by a competent person qualified in structural design, and shall be constructed in accordance with the design.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ramps and runways constructed of two or more structural members shall have the structural members connected together to prevent displacement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Structural members used for ramps and runways shall be of uniform thickness.
</P>
<P>(iv) Cleats or other appropriate means used to connect runway structural members shall be attached to the bottom of the runway or shall be attached in a manner to prevent tripping.
</P>
<P>(v) Structural ramps used in lieu of steps shall be provided with cleats or other surface treatments on the top surface to prevent slipping.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Means of egress from trench excavations.</I> A stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress shall be located in trench excavations that are 4 feet (1.22 m) or more in depth so as to require no more than 25 feet (7.62 m) of lateral travel for employees.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure to vehicular traffic.</I> Employees exposed to public vehicular traffic shall be provided with, and shall wear, warning vests or other suitable garments marked with or made of reflectorized or high-visibility material.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure to falling loads.</I> No employee shall be permitted underneath loads handled by lifting or digging equipment. Employees shall be required to stand away from any vehicle being loaded or unloaded to avoid being struck by any spillage or falling materials. Operators may remain in the cabs of vehicles being loaded or unloaded when the vehicles are equipped, in accordance with § 1926.601(b)(6), to provide adequate protection for the operator during loading and unloading operations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Warning system for mobile equipment.</I> When mobile equipment is operated adjacent to an excavation, or when such equipment is required to approach the edge of an excavation, and the operator does not have a clear and direct view of the edge of the excavation, a warning system shall be utilized such as barricades, hand or mechanical signals, or stop logs. If possible, the grade should be away from the excavation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hazardous atmospheres</I>—(1) <I>Testing and controls.</I> In addition to the requirements set forth in subparts D and E of this part (29 CFR 1926.50-1926.107) to prevent exposure to harmful levels of atmospheric contaminants and to assure acceptable atmospheric conditions, the following requirements shall apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Where oxygen deficiency (atmospheres containing less than 19.5 percent oxygen) or a hazardous atmosphere exists or could reasonably be expected to exist, such as in excavations in landfill areas or excavations in areas where hazardous substances are stored nearby, the atmospheres in the excavation shall be tested before employees enter excavations greater than 4 feet (1.22 m) in depth.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate precautions shall be taken to prevent employee exposure to atmospheres containing less than 19.5 percent oxygen and other hazardous atmospheres. These precautions include providing proper respiratory protection or ventilation in accordance with subparts D and E of this part respectively.
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate precaution shall be taken such as providing ventilation, to prevent employee exposure to an atmosphere containing a concentration of a flammable gas in excess of 20 percent of the lower flammable limit of the gas.
</P>
<P>(iv) When controls are used that are intended to reduce the level of atmospheric contaminants to acceptable levels, testing shall be conducted as often as necessary to ensure that the atmosphere remains safe.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency rescue equipment.</I> (i) Emergency rescue equipment, such as breathing apparatus, a safety harness and line, or a basket stretcher, shall be readily available where hazardous atmospheric conditions exist or may reasonably be expected to develop during work in an excavation. This equipment shall be attended when in use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees entering bell-bottom pier holes, or other similar deep and confined footing excavations, shall wear a harness with a life-line securely attached to it. The lifeline shall be separate from any line used to handle materials, and shall be individually attended at all times while the employee wearing the lifeline is in the excavation.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protection from hazards associated with water accumulation.</I> (1) Employees shall not work in excavations in which there is accumulated water, or in excavations in which water is accumulating, unless adequate precautions have been taken to protect employees against the hazards posed by water accumulation. The precautions necessary to protect employees adequately vary with each situation, but could include special support or shield systems to protect from cave-ins, water removal to control the level of accumulating water, or use of a safety harness and lifeline.
</P>
<P>(2) If water is controlled or prevented from accumulating by the use of water removal equipment, the water removal equipment and operations shall be monitored by a competent person to ensure proper operation.
</P>
<P>(3) If excavation work interrupts the natural drainage of surface water (such as streams), diversion ditches, dikes, or other suitable means shall be used to prevent surface water from entering the excavation and to provide adequate drainage of the area adjacent to the excavation. Excavations subject to runoff from heavy rains will require an inspection by a competent person and compliance with paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Stability of adjacent structures.</I> (1) Where the stability of adjoining buildings, walls, or other structures is endangered by excavation operations, support systems such as shoring, bracing, or underpinning shall be provided to ensure the stability of such structures for the protection of employees.
</P>
<P>(2) Excavation below the level of the base or footing of any foundation or retaining wall that could be reasonably expected to pose a hazard to employees shall not be permitted except when:
</P>
<P>(i) A support system, such as underpinning, is provided to ensure the safety of employees and the stability of the structure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The excavation is in stable rock; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A registered professional engineer has approved the determination that the structure is sufficently removed from the excavation so as to be unaffected by the excavation activity; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A registered professional engineer has approved the determination that such excavation work will not pose a hazard to employees.
</P>
<P>(3) Sidewalks, pavements, and appurtenant structure shall not be undermined unless a support system or another method of protection is provided to protect employees from the possible collapse of such structures.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protection of employees from loose rock or soil.</I> (1) Adequate protection shall be provided to protect employees from loose rock or soil that could pose a hazard by falling or rolling from an excavation face. Such protection shall consist of scaling to remove loose material; installation of protective barricades at intervals as necessary on the face to stop and contain falling material; or other means that provide equivalent protection.
</P>
<P>(2) Employees shall be protected from excavated or other materials or equipment that could pose a hazard by falling or rolling into excavations. Protection shall be provided by placing and keeping such materials or equipment at least 2 feet (.61 m) from the edge of excavations, or by the use of retaining devices that are sufficient to prevent materials or equipment from falling or rolling into excavations, or by a combination of both if necessary.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Inspections.</I> (1) Daily inspections of excavations, the adjacent areas, and protective systems shall be made by a competent person for evidence of a situation that could result in possible cave-ins, indications of failure of protective systems, hazardous atmospheres, or other hazardous conditions. An inspection shall be conducted by the competent person prior to the start of work and as needed throughout the shift. Inspections shall also be made after every rainstorm or other hazard increasing occurrence. These inspections are only required when employee exposure can be reasonably anticipated.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the competent person finds evidence of a situation that could result in a possible cave-in, indications of failure of protective systems, hazardous atmospheres, or other hazardous conditions, exposed employees shall be removed from the hazardous area until the necessary precautions have been taken to ensure their safety.
</P>
<P>(l) Walkways shall be provided where employees or equipment are required or permitted to cross over excavations. Guardrails which comply with § 1926.502(b) shall be provided where walkways are 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above lower levels.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 45959, Oct. 31, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 40730, Aug. 9, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.652" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.652   Requirements for protective systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protection of employees in excavations.</I> (1) Each employee in an excavation shall be protected from cave-ins by an adequate protective system designed in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section except when:
</P>
<P>(i) Excavations are made entirely in stable rock; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Excavations are less than 5 feet (1.52m) in depth and examination of the ground by a competent person provides no indication of a potential cave-in.
</P>
<P>(2) Protective systems shall have the capacity to resist without failure all loads that are intended or could reasonably be expected to be applied or transmitted to the system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Design of sloping and benching systems.</I> The slopes and configurations of sloping and benching systems shall be selected and constructed by the employer or his designee and shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1); or, in the alternative, paragraph (b)(2); or, in the alternative, paragraph (b)(3), or, in the alternative, paragraph (b)(4), as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Option (1)—Allowable configurations and slopes.</I> (i) Excavations shall be sloped at an angle not steeper than one and one-half horizontal to one vertical (34 degrees measured from the horizontal), unless the employer uses one of the other options listed below.
</P>
<P>(ii) Slopes specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, shall be excavated to form configurations that are in accordance with the slopes shown for Type C soil in appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Option (2)—Determination of slopes and configurations using Appendices A and B.</I> Maximum allowable slopes, and allowable configurations for sloping and benching systems, shall be determined in accordance with the conditions and requirements set forth in appendices A and B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Option (3)—Designs using other tabulated data.</I> (i) Designs of sloping or benching systems shall be selected from and be in accordance with tabulated data, such as tables and charts.
</P>
<P>(ii) The tabulated data shall be in written form and shall include all of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Identification of the parameters that affect the selection of a sloping or benching system drawn from such data;
</P>
<P>(B) Identification of the limits of use of the data, to include the magnitude and configuration of slopes determined to be safe;
</P>
<P>(C) Explanatory information as may be necessary to aid the user in making a correct selection of a protective system from the data.
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one copy of the tabulated data which identifies the registered professional engineer who approved the data, shall be maintained at the jobsite during construction of the protective system. After that time the data may be stored off the jobsite, but a copy of the data shall be made available to the Secretary upon request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Option (4)—Design by a registered professional engineer.</I> (i) Sloping and benching systems not utilizing Option (1) or Option (2) or Option (3) under paragraph (b) of this section shall be approved by a registered professional engineer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Designs shall be in written form and shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The magnitude of the slopes that were determined to be safe for the particular project;
</P>
<P>(B) The configurations that were determined to be safe for the particular project; and
</P>
<P>(C) The identity of the registered professional engineer approving the design.
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one copy of the design shall be maintained at the jobsite while the slope is being constructed. After that time the design need not be at the jobsite, but a copy shall be made available to the Secretary upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Design of support systems, shield systems, and other protective systems.</I> Designs of support systems shield systems, and other protective systems shall be selected and constructed by the employer or his designee and shall be in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(1); or, in the alternative, paragraph (c)(2); or, in the alternative, paragraph (c)(3); or, in the alternative, paragraph (c)(4) as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Option (1)—Designs using appendices A, C and D.</I> Designs for timber shoring in trenches shall be determined in accordance with the conditions and requirements set forth in appendices A and C to this subpart. Designs for aluminum hydraulic shoring shall be in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, but if manufacturer's tabulated data cannot be utilized, designs shall be in accordance with appendix D.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Option (2)—Designs Using Manufacturer's Tabulated Data.</I> (i) Design of support systems, shield systems, or other protective systems that are drawn from manufacturer's tabulated data shall be in accordance with all specifications, recommendations, and limitations issued or made by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Deviation from the specifications, recommendations, and limitations issued or made by the manufacturer shall only be allowed after the manufacturer issues specific written approval.
</P>
<P>(iii) Manufacturer's specifications, recommendations, and limitations, and manufacturer's approval to deviate from the specifications, recommendations, and limitations shall be in written form at the jobsite during construction of the protective system. After that time this data may be stored off the jobsite, but a copy shall be made available to the Secretary upon request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Option (3)—Designs using other tabulated data.</I> (i) Designs of support systems, shield systems, or other protective systems shall be selected from and be in accordance with tabulated data, such as tables and charts.
</P>
<P>(ii) The tabulated data shall be in written form and include all of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Identification of the parameters that affect the selection of a protective system drawn from such data;
</P>
<P>(B) Identification of the limits of use of the data;
</P>
<P>(C) Explanatory information as may be necessary to aid the user in making a correct selection of a protective system from the data.
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one copy of the tabulated data, which identifies the registered professional engineer who approved the data, shall be maintained at the jobsite during construction of the protective system. After that time the data may be stored off the jobsite, but a copy of the data shall be made available to the Secretary upon request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Option (4)—Design by a registered professional engineer.</I> (i) Support systems, shield systems, and other protective systems not utilizing Option 1, Option 2 or Option 3, above, shall be approved by a registered professional engineer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Designs shall be in written form and shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A plan indicating the sizes, types, and configurations of the materials to be used in the protective system; and
</P>
<P>(B) The identity of the registered professional engineer approving the design.
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one copy of the design shall be maintained at the jobsite during construction of the protective system. After that time, the design may be stored off the jobsite, but a copy of the design shall be made available to the Secretary upon request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Materials and equipment.</I> (1) Materials and equipment used for protective systems shall be free from damage or defects that might impair their proper function.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufactured materials and equipment used for protective systems shall be used and maintained in a manner that is consistent with the recommendations of the manufacturer, and in a manner that will prevent employee exposure to hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) When material or equipment that is used for protective systems is damaged, a competent person shall examine the material or equipment and evaluate its suitability for continued use. If the competent person cannot assure the material or equipment is able to support the intended loads or is otherwise suitable for safe use, then such material or equipment shall be removed from service, and shall be evaluated and approved by a registered professional engineer before being returned to service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Installation and removal of support</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Members of support systems shall be securely connected together to prevent sliding, falling, kickouts, or other predictable failure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Support systems shall be installed and removed in a manner that protects employees from cave-ins, structural collapses, or from being struck by members of the support system.
</P>
<P>(iii) Individual members of support systems shall not be subjected to loads exceeding those which those members were designed to withstand.
</P>
<P>(iv) Before temporary removal of individual members begins, additional precautions shall be taken to ensure the safety of employees, such as installing other structural members to carry the loads imposed on the support system.
</P>
<P>(v) Removal shall begin at, and progress from, the bottom of the excavation. Members shall be released slowly so as to note any indication of possible failure of the remaining members of the structure or possible cave-in of the sides of the excavation.
</P>
<P>(vi) Backfilling shall progress together with the removal of support systems from excavations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional requirements for support systems for trench excavations.</I> (i) Excavation of material to a level no greater than 2 feet (.61 m) below the bottom of the members of a support system shall be permitted, but only if the system is designed to resist the forces calculated for the full depth of the trench, and there are no indications while the trench is open of a possible loss of soil from behind or below the bottom of the support system.
</P>
<P>(ii) Installation of a support system shall be closely coordinated with the excavation of trenches.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Sloping and benching systems.</I> Employees shall not be permitted to work on the faces of sloped or benched excavations at levels above other employees except when employees at the lower levels are adequately protected from the hazard of falling, rolling, or sliding material or equipment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Shield systems</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Shield systems shall not be subjected to loads exceeding those which the system was designed to withstand.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shields shall be installed in a manner to restrict lateral or other hazardous movement of the shield in the event of the application of sudden lateral loads.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employees shall be protected from the hazard of cave-ins when entering or exiting the areas protected by shields.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employees shall not be allowed in shields when shields are being installed, removed, or moved vertically.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional requirement for shield systems used in trench excavations.</I> Excavations of earth material to a level not greater than 2 feet (.61 m) below the bottom of a shield shall be permitted, but only if the shield is designed to resist the forces calculated for the full depth of the trench, and there are no indications while the trench is open of a possible loss of soil from behind or below the bottom of the shield.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.4.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart P of Part 1926—Soil Classification
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This appendix describes a method of classifying soil and rock deposits based on site and environmental conditions, and on the structure and composition of the earth deposits. The appendix contains definitions, sets forth requirements, and describes acceptable visual and manual tests for use in classifying soils.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> This appendix applies when a sloping or benching system is designed in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 1926.652(b)(2) as a method of protection 

for employees from cave-ins. This appendix also applies when timber shoring for excavations is designed as a method of protection from cave-ins in accordance with appendix C to subpart P of part 1926, and when aluminum hydraulic shoring is designed in accordance with appendix D. This appendix also applies if other protective systems are designed and selected for use from data prepared in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 1926.652(c), and the use of the data is predicated on the use of the soil classification system set forth in this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions and examples given below are based on, in whole or in part, the following: American Society for Testing Materials (ASTM) Standards D653-85 and D2488; The Unified Soils Classification System, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) Textural Classification Scheme; and The National Bureau of Standards Report BSS-121.
</P>
<P><I>Cemented soil</I> means a soil in which the particles are held together by a chemical agent, such as calcium carbonate, such that a hand-size sample cannot be crushed into powder or individual soil particles by finger pressure.
</P>
<P><I>Cohesive soil</I> means clay (fine grained soil), or soil with a high clay content, which has cohesive strength. Cohesive soil does not crumble, can be excavated with vertical sideslopes, and is plastic when moist. Cohesive soil is hard to break up when dry, and exhibits significant cohesion when submerged. Cohesive soils include clayey silt, sandy clay, silty clay, clay and organic clay.
</P>
<P><I>Dry soil</I> means soil that does not exhibit visible signs of moisture content.
</P>
<P><I>Fissured</I> means a soil material that has a tendency to break along definite planes of fracture with little resistance, or a material that exhibits open cracks, such as tension cracks, in an exposed surface.
</P>
<P><I>Granular soil</I> means gravel, sand, or silt, (coarse grained soil) with little or no clay content. Granular soil has no cohesive strength. Some moist granular soils exhibit apparent cohesion. Granular soil cannot be molded when moist and crumbles easily when dry.
</P>
<P><I>Layered system</I> means two or more distinctly different soil or rock types arranged in layers. Micaceous seams or weakened planes in rock or shale are considered layered.
</P>
<P><I>Moist soil</I> means a condition in which a soil looks and feels damp. Moist cohesive soil can easily be shaped into a ball and rolled into small diameter threads before crumbling. Moist granular soil that contains some cohesive material will exhibit signs of cohesion between particles.
</P>
<P><I>Plastic</I> means a property of a soil which allows the soil to be deformed or molded without cracking, or appreciable volume change.
</P>
<P><I>Saturated soil</I> means a soil in which the voids are filled with water. Saturation does not require flow. Saturation, or near saturation, is necessary for the proper use of instruments such as a pocket penetrometer or sheer vane.
</P>
<P><I>Soil classification system</I> means, for the purpose of this subpart, a method of categorizing soil and rock deposits in a hierarchy of Stable Rock, Type A, Type B, and Type C, in decreasing order of stability. The categories are determined based on an analysis of the properties and performance characteristics of the deposits and the environmental conditions of exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Stable rock</I> means natural solid mineral matter that can be excavated with vertical sides and remain intact while exposed.
</P>
<P><I>Submerged soil</I> means soil which is underwater or is free seeping.
</P>
<P><I>Type A</I> means cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength of 1.5 ton per square foot (tsf) (144 kPa) or greater. Examples of cohesive soils are: clay, silty clay, sandy clay, clay loam and, in some cases, silty clay loam and sandy clay loam. Cemented soils such as caliche and hardpan are also considered Type A. However, no soil is Type A if:
</P>
<P>(i) The soil is fissured; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The soil is subject to vibration from heavy traffic, pile driving, or similar effects; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The soil has been previously disturbed; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The soil is part of a sloped, layered system where the layers dip into the excavation on a slope of four horizontal to one vertical (4H:1V) or greater; or
</P>
<P>(v) The material is subject to other factors that would require it to be classified as a less stable material.
</P>
<P><I>Type B</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Cohesive soil with an unconfined compressive strength greater than 0.5 tsf (48 kPa) but less than 1.5 tsf (144 kPa); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Granular cohesionless soils including: angular gravel (similar to crushed rock), silt, silt loam, sandy loam and, in some cases, silty clay loam and sandy clay loam.
</P>
<P>(iii) Previously disturbed soils except those which would otherwise be classified as Type C soil.
</P>
<P>(iv) Soil that meets the unconfined compressive strength or cementation requirements for Type A, but is fissured or subject to vibration; or
</P>
<P>(v) Dry rock that is not stable; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Material that is part of a sloped, layered system where the layers dip into the excavation on a slope less steep than four horizontal to one vertical (4H:1V), but only if the material would otherwise be classified as Type B.
</P>
<P><I>Type C</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Cohesive soil with an unconfined compressive strength of 0.5 tsf (48 kPa) or less; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Granular soils including gravel, sand, and loamy sand; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Submerged soil or soil from which water is freely seeping; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Submerged rock that is not stable; or
</P>
<P>(v) Material in a sloped, layered system where the layers dip into the excavation on a slope of four horizontal to one vertical (4H:1V) or steeper.
</P>
<P><I>Unconfined compressive strength</I> means the load per unit area at which a soil will fail in compression. It can be determined by laboratory testing, or estimated in the field using a pocket penetrometer, by thumb penetration tests, and other methods.
</P>
<P><I>Wet soil</I> means soil that contains significantly more moisture than moist soil, but in such a range of values that cohesive material will slump or begin to flow when vibrated. Granular material that would exhibit cohesive properties when moist will lose those cohesive properties when wet.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>Classification of soil and rock deposits.</I> Each soil and rock deposit shall be classified by a competent person as Stable Rock, Type A, Type B, or Type C in accordance with the definitions set forth in paragraph (b) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Basis of classification.</I> The classification of the deposits shall be made based on the results of at least one visual and at least one manual analysis. Such analyses shall be conducted by a competent person using tests described in paragraph (d) below, or in other recognized methods of soil classification and testing such as those adopted by the America Society for Testing Materials, or the U.S. Department of Agriculture textural classification system.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Visual and manual analyses.</I> The visual and manual analyses, such as those noted as being acceptable in paragraph (d) of this appendix, shall be designed and conducted to provide sufficient quantitative and qualitative information as may be necessary to identify properly the properties, factors, and conditions affecting the classification of the deposits.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Layered systems.</I> In a layered system, the system shall be classified in accordance with its weakest layer. However, each layer may be classified individually where a more stable layer lies under a less stable layer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reclassification.</I> If, after classifying a deposit, the properties, factors, or conditions affecting its classification change in any way, the changes shall be evaluated by a competent person. The deposit shall be reclassified as necessary to reflect the changed circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acceptable visual and manual tests</I>—(1) <I>Visual tests.</I> Visual analysis is conducted to determine qualitative information regarding the excavation site in general, the soil adjacent to the excavation, the soil forming the sides of the open excavation, and the soil taken as samples from excavated material.
</P>
<P>(i) Observe samples of soil that are excavated and soil in the sides of the excavation. Estimate the range of particle sizes and the relative amounts of the particle sizes. Soil that is primarily composed of fine-grained material is cohesive material. Soil composed primarily of coarse-grained sand or gravel is granular material.
</P>
<P>(ii) Observe soil as it is excavated. Soil that remains in clumps when excavated is cohesive. Soil that breaks up easily and does not stay in clumps is granular.
</P>
<P>(iii) Observe the side of the opened excavation and the surface area adjacent to the excavation. Crack-like openings such as tension cracks could indicate fissured material. If chunks of soil spall off a vertical side, the soil could be fissured. Small spalls are evidence of moving ground and are indications of potentially hazardous situations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Observe the area adjacent to the excavation and the excavation itself for evidence of existing utility and other underground structures, and to identify previously disturbed soil.
</P>
<P>(v) Observe the opened side of the excavation to identify layered systems. Examine layered systems to identify if the layers slope toward the excavation. Estimate the degree of slope of the layers.
</P>
<P>(vi) Observe the area adjacent to the excavation and the sides of the opened excavation for evidence of surface water, water seeping from the sides of the excavation, or the location of the level of the water table.
</P>
<P>(vii) Observe the area adjacent to the excavation and the area within the excavation for sources of vibration that may affect the stability of the excavation face.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Manual tests.</I> Manual analysis of soil samples is conducted to determine quantitative as well as qualitative properties of soil and to provide more information in order to classify soil properly.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plasticity.</I> Mold a moist or wet sample of soil into a ball and attempt to roll it into threads as thin as 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch in diameter. Cohesive material can be successfully rolled into threads without crumbling. For example, if at least a two inch (50 mm) length of 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch thread can be held on one end without tearing, the soil is cohesive.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dry strength.</I> If the soil is dry and crumbles on its own or with moderate pressure into individual grains or fine powder, it is granular (any combination of gravel, sand, or silt). If the soil is dry and falls into clumps which break up into smaller clumps, but the smaller clumps can only be broken up with difficulty, it may be clay in any combination with gravel, sand or silt. If the dry soil breaks into clumps which do not break up into small clumps and which can only be broken with difficulty, and there is no visual indication the soil is fissured, the soil may be considered unfissured.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Thumb penetration.</I> The thumb penetration test can be used to estimate the unconfined compressive strength of cohesive soils. (This test is based on the thumb penetration test described in American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) Standard designation D2488—“Standard Recommended Practice for Description of Soils (Visual—Manual Procedure).”) Type A soils with an unconfined compressive strength of 1.5 tsf can be readily indented by the thumb; however, they can be penetrated by the thumb only with very great effort. Type C soils with an unconfined compressive strength of 0.5 tsf can be easily penetrated several inches by the thumb, and can be molded by light finger pressure. This test should be conducted on an undisturbed soil sample, such as a large clump of spoil, as soon as practicable after excavation to keep to a minimum the effects of exposure to drying influences. If the excavation is later exposed to wetting influences (rain, flooding), the classification of the soil must be changed accordingly.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other strength tests.</I> Estimates of unconfined compressive strength of soils can also be obtained by use of a pocket penetrometer or by using a hand-operated shearvane.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Drying test.</I> The basic purpose of the drying test is to differentiate between cohesive material with fissures, unfissured cohesive material, and granular material. The procedure for the drying test involves drying a sample of soil that is approximately one inch thick (2.54 cm) and six inches (15.24 cm) in diameter until it is thoroughly dry:
</P>
<P>(A) If the sample develops cracks as it dries, significant fissures are indicated.
</P>
<P>(B) Samples that dry without cracking are to be broken by hand. If considerable force is necessary to break a sample, the soil has significant cohesive material content. The soil can be classified as an unfissured cohesive material and the unconfined compressive strength should be determined.
</P>
<P>(C) If a sample breaks easily by hand, it is either a fissured cohesive material or a granular material. To distinguish between the two, pulverize the dried clumps of the sample by hand or by stepping on them. If the clumps do not pulverize easily, the material is cohesive with fissures. If they pulverize easily into very small fragments, the material is granular.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 8743, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.4.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart P of Part 1926—Sloping and Benching
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This appendix contains specifications for sloping and benching when used as methods of protecting employees working in excavations from cave-ins. The requirements of this appendix apply when the design of sloping and benching protective systems is to be performed in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 1926.652(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Actual slope</I> means the slope to which an excavation face is excavated.
</P>
<P><I>Distress</I> means that the soil is in a condition where a cave-in is imminent or is likely to occur. Distress is evidenced by such phenomena as the development of fissures in the face of or adjacent to an open excavation; the subsidence of the edge of an excavation; the slumping of material from the face or the bulging or heaving of material from the bottom of an excavation; the spalling of material from the face of an excavation; and ravelling, i.e., small amounts of material such as pebbles or little clumps of material suddenly separating from the face of an excavation and trickling or rolling down into the excavation.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum allowable slope</I> means the steepest incline of an excavation face that is acceptable for the most favorable site conditions as protection against cave-ins, and is expressed as the ratio of horizontal distance to vertical rise (H:V).
</P>
<P><I>Short term exposure</I> means a period of time less than or equal to 24 hours that an excavation is open.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>Soil classification.</I> Soil and rock deposits shall be classified in accordance with appendix A to subpart P of part 1926.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum allowable slope.</I> The maximum allowable slope for a soil or rock deposit shall be determined from Table B-1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Actual slope.</I> (i) The actual slope shall not be steeper than the maximum allowable slope.
</P>
<P>(ii) The actual slope shall be less steep than the maximum allowable slope, when there are signs of distress. If that situation occurs, the slope shall be cut back to an actual slope which is at least 
<FR>1/2</FR> horizontal to one vertical (
<FR>1/2</FR>H:1V) less steep than the maximum allowable slope.
</P>
<P>(iii) When surcharge loads from stored material or equipment, operating equipment, or traffic are present, a competent person shall determine the degree to which the actual slope must be reduced below the maximum allowable slope, and shall assure that such reduction is achieved. Surcharge loads from adjacent structures shall be evaluated in accordance with § 1926.651(i).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Configurations.</I> Configurations of sloping and benching systems shall be in accordance with Figure B-1.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.016.gif"/>
<HD2>Figure B-1
</HD2>
<HD3>Slope Configurations
</HD3>
<P>(All slopes stated below are in the horizontal to vertical ratio)
</P>
<HD2>B-1.1 Excavations made in Type A soil.
</HD2>
<P>1. All simple slope excavation 20 feet or less in depth shall have a maximum allowable slope of 
<FR>3/4</FR>:1.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.017.gif"/>
<HD1>Simple Slope—General
</HD1>
<P>Exception: Simple slope excavations which are open 24 hours or less (short term) and which are 12 feet or less in depth shall have a maximum allowable slope of 
<FR>1/2</FR>:1.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.018.gif"/>
<HD1>Simple Slope—Short Term
</HD1>
<P>2. All benched excavations 20 feet or less in depth shall have a maximum allowable slope of 
<FR>3/4</FR> to 1 and maximum bench dimensions as follows:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.019.gif"/>
<HD1>Simple Bench

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.020.gif"/>
<HD1>Multiple Bench
</HD1>
<P>3. All excavations 8 feet or less in depth which have unsupported vertically sided lower portions shall have a maximum vertical side of 3
<FR>1/2</FR> feet.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.021.gif"/>
<HD1>Unsupported Vertically Sided Lower Portion—Maximum 8 Feet in Depth
</HD1>
<P>All excavations more than 8 feet but not more than 12 feet in depth which unsupported vertically sided lower portions shall have a maximum allowable slope of 1:1 and a maximum vertical side of 3
<FR>1/2</FR> feet.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.022.gif"/>
<HD1>Unsupported Vertically Sided Lower Portion—Maximum 12 Feet in Depth
</HD1>
<P>All excavations 20 feet or less in depth which have vertically sided lower portions that are supported or shielded shall have a maximum allowable slope of 
<FR>3/4</FR>:1. The support or shield system must extend at least 18 inches above the top of the vertical side.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.023.gif"/>
<HD1>Supported or Shielded Vertically Sided Lower Portion
</HD1>
<P>4. All other simple slope, compound slope, and vertically sided lower portion excavations shall be in accordance with the other options permitted under § 1926.652(b).
</P>
<HD2>B-1.2 Excavations Made in Type B Soil
</HD2>
<P>1. All simple slope excavations 20 feet or less in depth shall have a maximum allowable slope of 1:1.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.024.gif"/>
<HD1>Simple Slope
</HD1>
<P>2. All benched excavations 20 feet or less in depth shall have a maximum allowable slope of 1:1 and maximum bench dimensions as follows:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.025.gif"/>
<HD1>Single Bench

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.026.gif"/>
<HD1>Multiple Bench
</HD1>
<P>3. All excavations 20 feet or less in depth which have vertically sided lower portions shall be shielded or supported to a height at least 18 inches above the top of the vertical side. All such excavations shall have a maximum allowable slope of 1:1.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.027.gif"/>
<HD1>Vertically Sided Lower Portion
</HD1>
<P>4. All other sloped excavations shall be in accordance with the other options permitted in § 1926.652(b).
</P>
<HD2>B-1.3 Excavations Made in Type C Soil
</HD2>
<P>1. All simple slope excavations 20 feet or less in depth shall have a maximum allowable slope of 1
<FR>1/2</FR>:1.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.028.gif"/>
<HD1>Simple Slope
</HD1>
<P>2. All excavations 20 feet or less in depth which have vertically sided lower portions shall be shielded or supported to a height at least 18 inches above the top of the vertical side. All such excavations shall have a maximum allowable slope of 1
<FR>1/2</FR>:1.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.029.gif"/>
<HD1>Vertical Sided Lower Portion
</HD1>
<P>3. All other sloped excavations shall be in accordance with the other options permitted in § 1926.652(b).
</P>
<HD2>B-1.4 Excavations Made in Layered Soils
</HD2>
<P>1. All excavations 20 feet or less in depth made in layered soils shall have a maximum allowable slope for each layer as set forth below.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.030.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.031.gif"/>
<P>2. All other sloped excavations shall be in accordance with the other options permitted in § 1926.652(b).



</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.4.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart P of Part 1926—Timber Shoring for Trenches
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This appendix contains information that can be used timber shoring is provided as a method of protection from cave-ins in trenches that do not exceed 20 feet (6.1 m) in depth. This appendix must be used when design of timber shoring protective systems is to be performed in accordance with § 1926.652(c)(1). Other timber shoring configurations; other systems of support such as hydraulic and pneumatic systems; and other protective systems such as sloping, benching, shielding, and freezing systems must be designed in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 1926.652(b) and § 1926.652(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Soil Classification.</I> In order to use the data presented in this appendix, the soil type or types in which the excavation is made must first be determined using the soil classification method set forth in appendix A of subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presentation of Information.</I> Information is presented in several forms as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Information is presented in tabular form in Tables C-1.1, C-1.2, and C-1.3, and Tables C-2.1, C-2.2 and C-2.3 following paragraph (g) of the appendix. Each table presents the minimum sizes of timber members to use in a shoring system, and each table contains data only for the particular soil type in which the excavation or portion of the excavation is made. The data are arranged to allow the user the flexibility to select from among several acceptable configurations of members based on varying the horizontal spacing of the crossbraces. Stable rock is exempt from shoring requirements and therefore, no data are presented for this condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Information concerning the basis of the tabular data and the limitations of the data is presented in paragraph (d) of this appendix, and on the tables themselves.
</P>
<P>(3) Information explaining the use of the tabular data is presented in paragraph (e) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(4) Information illustrating the use of the tabular data is presented in paragraph (f) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(5) Miscellaneous notations regarding Tables C-1.1 through C-1.3 and Tables C-2.1 through C-2.3 are presented in paragraph (g) of this Appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Basis and limitations of the data</I>—(1) <I>Dimensions of timber members.</I> (i) The sizes of the timber members listed in Tables C-1.1 through C-1.3 are taken from the National Bureau of Standards (NBS) report, “Recommended Technical Provisions for Construction Practice in Shoring and Sloping of Trenches and Excavations.” In addition, where NBS did not recommend specific sizes of members, member sizes are based on an analysis of the sizes required for use by existing codes and on empirical practice.
</P>
<P>(ii) The required dimensions of the members listed in Tables C-1.1 through C-1.3 refer to actual dimensions and not nominal dimensions of the timber. Employers wanting to use nominal size shoring are directed to Tables C-2.1 through C-2.3, or have this choice under § 1926.652(c)(3), and are referred to The Corps of Engineers, The Bureau of Reclamation or data from other acceptable sources.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitation of application.</I> (i) It is not intended that the timber shoring specification apply to every situation that may be experienced in the field. These data were developed to apply to the situations that are most commonly experienced in current trenching practice. Shoring systems for use in situations that are not covered by the data in this appendix must be designed as specified in § 1926.652(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) When any of the following conditions are present, the members specified in the tables are not considered adequate. Either an alternate timber shoring system must be designed or another type of protective system designed in accordance with § 1926.652.
</P>
<P>(A) When loads imposed by structures or by stored material adjacent to the trench weigh in excess of the load imposed by a two-foot soil surcharge. The term “adjacent” as used here means the area within a horizontal distance from the edge of the trench equal to the depth of the trench.
</P>
<P>(B) When vertical loads imposed on cross braces exceed a 240-pound gravity load distributed on a one-foot section of the center of the crossbrace.
</P>
<P>(C) When surcharge loads are present from equipment weighing in excess of 20,000 pounds.
</P>
<P>(D) When only the lower portion of a trench is shored and the remaining portion of the trench is sloped or benched unless: The sloped portion is sloped at an angle less steep than three horizontal to one vertical; or the members are selected from the tables for use at a depth which is determined from the top of the overall trench, and not from the toe of the sloped portion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of Tables.</I> The members of the shoring system that are to be selected using this information are the cross braces, the uprights, and the wales, where wales are required. Minimum sizes of members are specified for use in different types of soil. There are six tables of information, two for each soil type. The soil type must first be determined in accordance with the soil classification system described in appendix A to subpart P of part 1926. Using the appropriate table, the selection of the size and spacing of the members is then made. The selection is based on the depth and width of the trench where the members are to be installed and, in most instances, the selection is also based on the horizontal spacing of the crossbraces. Instances where a choice of horizontal spacing of crossbracing is available, the horizontal spacing of the crossbraces must be chosen by the user before the size of any member can be determined. When the soil type, the width and depth of the trench, and the horizontal spacing of the crossbraces are known, the size and vertical spacing of the crossbraces, the size and vertical spacing of the wales, and the size and horizontal spacing of the uprights can be read from the appropriate table.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples to Illustrate the Use of Tables C-1.1 through C-1.3.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1.</I>
</P>
<P>A trench dug in Type A soil is 13 feet deep and five feet wide.
</P>
<P>From <I>Table C-1.1,</I> for acceptable arrangements of timber can be used.
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B1
</HD2>
<P>Space 4 × 4 crossbraces at six feet horizontally and four feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Wales are not required.
</P>
<P>Space 3 × 8 uprights at six feet horizontally. This arrangement is commonly called “skip shoring.”
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B2
</HD2>
<P>Space 4 × 6 crossbraces at eight feet horizontally and four feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 8 × 8 wales at four feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 2 × 6 uprights at four feet horizontally.
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B3
</HD2>
<P>Space 6 × 6 crossbraces at 10 feet horizontally and four feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 8 × 10 wales at four feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 2 × 6 uprights at five feet horizontally.
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B4
</HD2>
<P>Space 6 × 6 crossbraces at 12 feet horizontally and four feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 10 × 10 wales at four feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Spaces 3 × 8 uprights at six feet horizontally.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I>
</P>
<P>A trench dug in Type B soil in 13 feet deep and five feet wide. From Table C-1.2 three acceptable arrangements of members are listed.
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B1
</HD2>
<P>Space 6 × 6 crossbraces at six feet horizontally and five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 8 × 8 wales at five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 2 × 6 uprights at two feet horizontally.
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B2
</HD2>
<P>Space 6 × 8 crossbraces at eight feet horizontally and five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 10 × 10 wales at five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 2 × 6 uprights at two feet horizontally.
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B3
</HD2>
<P>Space 8 × 8 crossbraces at 10 feet horizontally and five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 10 × 12 wales at five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 2 × 6 uprights at two feet vertically.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I>
</P>
<P>A trench dug in Type C soil is 13 feet deep and five feet wide.
</P>
<P>From Table C-1.3 two acceptable arrangements of members can be used.
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B1
</HD2>
<P>Space 8 × 8 crossbraces at six feet horizontally and five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 10 × 12 wales at five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Position 2 × 6 uprights as closely together as possible.
</P>
<P>If water must be retained use special tongue and groove uprights to form tight sheeting.
</P>
<HD2>Arrangement #B2
</HD2>
<P>Space 8 × 10 crossbraces at eight feet horizontally and five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 12 × 12 wales at five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Position 2 × 6 uprights in a close sheeting configuration unless water pressure must be resisted. Tight sheeting must be used where water must be retained.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example 4.</I>
</P>
<P>A trench dug in Type C soil is 20 feet deep and 11 feet wide. The size and spacing of members for the section of trench that is over 15 feet in depth is determined using Table C-1.3. Only one arrangement of members is provided.
</P>
<P>Space 8 × 10 crossbraces at six feet horizontally and five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Space 12 × 12 wales at five feet vertically.
</P>
<P>Use 3 × 6 tight sheeting.
</P>
<P>Use of Tables C-2.1 through C-2.3 would follow the same procedures.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notes for all Tables.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Member sizes at spacings other than indicated are to be determined as specified in § 1926.652(c), “Design of Protective Systems.”
</P>
<P>2. When conditions are saturated or submerged use Tight Sheeting. Tight Sheeting refers to the use of specially-edged timber planks (e.g., tongue and groove) at least three inches thick, steel sheet piling, or similar construction that when driven or placed in position provide a tight wall to resist the lateral pressure of water and to prevent the loss of backfill material. Close Sheeting refers to the placement of planks side-by-side allowing as little space as possible between them.
</P>
<P>3. All spacing indicated is measured center to center.
</P>
<P>4. Wales to be installed with greater dimension horizontal.
</P>
<P>5. If the vertical distance from the center of the lowest crossbrace to the bottom of the trench exceeds two and one-half feet, uprights shall be firmly embedded or a mudsill shall be used. Where uprights are embedded, the vertical distance from the center of the lowest crossbrace to the bottom of the trench shall not exceed 36 inches. When mudsills are used, the vertical distance shall not exceed 42 inches. Mudsills are wales that are installed at the toe of the trench side.
</P>
<P>6. Trench jacks may be used in lieu of or in combination with timber crossbraces.
</P>
<P>7. Placement cf crossbraces. When the vertical spacing of crossbraces is four feet, place the top crossbrace no more than two feet below the top of the trench. When the vertical spacing of crossbraces is five feet, place the top crossbrace no more than 2.5 feet below the top of the trench.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.035.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.036.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.037.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.4.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart P of Part 1926—Aluminum Hydraulic Shoring for Trenches
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This appendix contains information that can be used when aluminum hydraulic shoring is provided as a method of protection against cave-ins in trenches that do not exceed 20 feet (6.1m) in depth. This appendix must be used when design of the aluminum hydraulic protective system cannot be performed in accordance with § 1926.652(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Soil Classification.</I> In order to use data presented in this appendix, the soi1 type or types in which the excavation is made must first be determined using the soil classification method set forth in appendix A of subpart P of part 1926.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presentation of Information.</I> Information is presented in several forms as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Information is presented in tabular form in Tables D-1.1, D-1.2, D-1.3 and E-1.4. Each table presents the maximum vertical and horizontal spacings that may be used with various aluminum member sizes and various hydraulic cylinder sizes. Each table contains data only for the particular soil type in which the excavation or portion of the excavation is made. Tables D-1.1 and D-1.2 are for vertical shores in Types A and B soil. Tables D-1.3 and D1.4 are for horizontal waler systems in Types B and C soil.
</P>
<P>(2) Information concerning the basis of the tabular data and the limitations of the data is presented in paragraph (d) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(3) Information explaining the use of the tabular data is presented in paragraph (e) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(4) Information illustrating the use of the tabular data is presented in paragraph (f) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(5) Miscellaneous notations (footnotes) regarding Table D-1.1 through D-1.4 are presented in paragraph (g) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(6) Figures, illustrating typical installations of hydraulic shoring, are included just prior to the Tables. The illustrations page is entitled “Aluminum Hydraulic Shoring; Typical Installations.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Basis and limitations of the data.</I> (1) Vertical shore rails and horizontal wales are those that meet the Section Modulus requirements in the D-1 Tables. Aluminum material is 6061-T6 or material of equivalent strength and properties.
</P>
<P>(2) Hydraulic cylinders specifications. (i) 2-inch cylinders shall be a minimum 2-inch inside diameter with a minimum safe working capacity of no less than 18,000 pounds axial compressive load at maximum extension. Maximum extension is to include full range of cylinder extensions as recommended by product manufaturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) 3-inch cylinders shall be a minimum 3-inch inside diameter with a safe working capacity of not less than 30,000 pounds axial compressive load at extensions as recommended by product manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(3) Limitation of application.
</P>
<P>(i) It is not intended that the aluminum hydraulic specification apply to every situation that may be experienced in the field. These data were developed to apply to the situations that are most commonly experienced in current trenching practice. Shoring systems for use in situations that are not covered by the data in this appendix must be otherwise designed as specified in § 1926.652(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) When any of the following conditions are present, the members specified in the Tables are not considered adequate. In this case, an alternative aluminum hydraulic shoring system or other type of protective system must be designed in accordance with § 1926.652.
</P>
<P>(A) When vertical loads imposed on cross braces exceed a 100 Pound gravity load distributed on a one foot section of the center of the hydraulic cylinder.
</P>
<P>(B) When surcharge loads are present from equipment weighing in excess of 20,000 pounds.
</P>
<P>(C) When only the lower portion or a trench is shored and the remaining portion of the trench is sloped or benched unless: The sloped portion is sloped at an angle less steep than three horizontal to one vertical; or the members are selected from the tables for use at a depth which is determined from the top of the overall trench, and not from the toe of the sloped portion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of Tables D-1.1, D-1.2, D-1.3 and D-1.4.</I> The members of the shoring system that are to be selected using this information are the hydraulic cylinders, and either the vertical shores or the horizontal wales. When a waler system is used the vertical timber sheeting to be used is also selected from these tables. The Tables D-1.1 and D-1.2 for vertical shores are used in Type A and B soils that do not require sheeting. Type B soils that may require sheeting, and Type C soils that always require sheeting are found in the horizontal wale Tables D-1.3 and D-1.4. The soil type must first be determined in accordance with the soil classification system described in appendix A to subpart P of part 1926. Using the appropriate table, the selection of the size and spacing of the members is made. The selection is based on the depth and width of the trench where the members are to be installed. In these tables the vertical spacing is held constant at four feet on center. The tables show the maximum horizontal spacing of cylinders allowed for each size of wale in the waler system tables, and in the vertical shore tables, the hydraulic cylinder horizontal spacing is the same as the vertical shore spacing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Example to Illustrate the Use of the Tables:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Example 1:
</P>
<P>A trench dug in Type A soil is 6 feet deep and 3 feet wide. From Table D-1.1: Find vertical shores and 2 inch diameter cylinders spaced 8 feet on center (o.c.) horizontally and 4 feet on center (o.c.) vertically. (See Figures 1 &amp; 3 for typical installations.)
</P>
<P>(2) Example 2:
</P>
<P>A trench is dug in Type B soil that does not require sheeting, 13 feet deep and 5 feet wide. From Table D-1.2: Find vertical shores and 2 inch diameter cylinders spaced 6.5 feet o.c. horizontally and 4 feet o.c. vertically. (See Figures 1 &amp; 3 for typical installations.)
</P>
<P>(3) A trench is dug in Type B soil that does not require sheeting, but does experience some minor raveling of the trench face. The trench is 16 feet deep and 9 feet wide. From Table D-1.2: Find vertical shores and 2 inch diameter cylinder (with special oversleeves as designated by footnote #B2) spaced 5.5 feet o.c. horizontally and 4 feet o.c. vertically, plywood (per footnote (g)(7) to the D-1 Table) should be used behind the shores. (See Figures 2 &amp; 3 for typical installations.)
</P>
<P>(4) Example 4: A trench is dug in previously disturbed Type B soil, with characteristics of a Type C soil, and will require sheeting. The trench is 18 feet deep and 12 feet wide. 8 foot horizontal spacing between cylinders is desired for working space. From Table D-1.3: Find horizontal wale with a section modulus of 14.0 spaced at 4 feet o.c. vertically and 3 inch diameter cylinder spaced at 9 feet maximum o.c. horizontally. 3 × 12 timber sheeting is required at close spacing vertically. (See Figure 4 for typical installation.)
</P>
<P>(5) Example 5: A trench is dug in Type C soil, 9 feet deep and 4 feet wide. Horizontal cylinder spacing in excess of 6 feet is desired for working space. From Table D-1.4: Find horizontal wale with a section modulus of 7.0 and 2 inch diameter cylinders spaced at 6.5 feet o.c. horizontally. Or, find horizontal wale with a 14.0 section modulus and 3 inch diameter cylinder spaced at 10 feet o.c. horizontally. Both wales are spaced 4 feet o.c. vertically. 3 × 12 timber sheeting is required at close spacing vertically. (See Figure 4 for typical installation.)
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Footnotes, and general notes, for Tables D-1.1, D-1.2, D-1.3, and D-1.4.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) For applications other than those listed in the tables, refer to § 1926.652(c)(2) for use of manufacturer's tabulated data. For trench depths in excess of 20 feet, refer to § 1926.652(c)(2) and § 1926.652(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) 2 inch diameter cylinders, at this width, shall have structural steel tube (3.5 × 3.5 × 0.1875) oversleeves, or structural oversleeves of manufacturer's specification, extending the full, collapsed length.
</P>
<P>(3) Hydraulic cylinders capacities. (i) 2 inch cylinders shall be a minimum 2-inch inside diameter with a safe working capacity of not less than 18,000 pounds axial compressive load at maximum extension. Maximum extension is to include full range of cylinder extensions as recommended by product manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) 3-inch cylinders shall be a minimum 3-inch inside diameter with a safe work capacity of not less than 30,000 pounds axial compressive load at maximum extension. Maximum extension is to include full range of cylinder extensions as recommended by product manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(4) All spacing indicated is measured center to center.
</P>
<P>(5) Vertical shoring rails shall have a minimum section modulus of 0.40 inch.
</P>
<P>(6) When vertical shores are used, there must be a minimum of three shores spaced equally, horizontally, in a group.
</P>
<P>(7) Plywood shall be 1.125 in. thick softwood or 0.75 inch. thick, 14 ply, arctic white birch (Finland form). Please note that plywood is not intended as a structural member, but only for prevention of local raveling (sloughing of the trench face) between shores.
</P>
<P>(8) See appendix C for timber specifications.
</P>
<P>(9) Wales are calculated for simple span conditions.
</P>
<P>(10) See appendix D, item (d), for basis and limitations of the data.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.038.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.039.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.040.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.041.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.042.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.4.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart P of Part 1926—Alternatives to Timber Shoring

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.043.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.044.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.16.20.4.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Subpart P of Part 1926—Selection of Protective Systems
</HEAD>
<P>The following figures are a graphic summary of the requirements contained in subpart P for excavations 20 feet or less in depth. Protective systems for use in excavations more than 20 feet in depth must be designed by a registered professional engineer in accordance with § 1926.652 (b) and (c).

</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.045.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.046.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.047.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Concrete and Masonry Construction</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 107, Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (Construction Safety Act) (40 U.S.C. 333); Secs. 4, 6 and 8 Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), or 1-90 (55 FR 9033), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 22643, June 16, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.700" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.700   Scope, application, and definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This subpart sets forth requirements to protect all construction employees from the hazards associated with concrete and masonry construction operations performed in workplaces covered under 29 CFR part 1926. In addition to the requirements in subpart Q, other relevant provisions in parts 1910 and 1926 apply to concrete and masonry construction operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions applicable to this subpart.</I> In addition to the definitions set forth in § 1926.32, the following definitions apply to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bull float</I> means a tool used to spread out and smooth concrete.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Formwork</I> means the total system of support for freshly placed or partially cured concrete, including the mold or sheeting (form) that is in contact with the concrete as well as all supporting members including shores, reshores, hardware, braces, and related hardware.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lift slab</I> means a method of concrete construction in which floor, and roof slabs are cast on or at ground level and, using jacks, lifted into position.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limited access zone</I> means an area alongside a masonry wall, which is under construction, and which is clearly demarcated to limit access by employees.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Precast concrete</I> means concrete members (such as walls, panels, slabs, columns, and beams) which have been formed, cast, and cured prior to final placement in a structure.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reshoring</I> means the construction operation in which shoring equipment (also called reshores or reshoring equipment) is placed, as the original forms and shores are removed, in order to support partially cured concrete and construction loads.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Shore</I> means a supporting member that resists a compressive force imposed by a load.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Vertical slip forms</I> means forms which are jacked vertically during the placement of concrete.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Jacking operation</I> means the task of lifting a slab (or group of slabs) vertically from one location to another (e.g., from the casting location to a temporary (parked) location, or from a temporary location to another temporary location, or to its final location in the structure), during the construction of a building/structure where the lift-slab process is being used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 22643, June 16, 1988, as amended at 55 FR 42328, Oct. 18, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.701" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.701   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Construction loads.</I> No construction loads shall be placed on a concrete structure or portion of a concrete structure unless the employer determines, based on information received from a person who is qualified in structural design, that the structure or portion of the structure is capable of supporting the loads.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reinforcing steel.</I> All protruding reinforcing steel, onto and into which employees could fall, shall be guarded to eliminate the hazard of impalement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Post-tensioning operations.</I> (1) No employee (except those essential to the post-tensioning operations) shall be permitted to be behind the jack during tensioning operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Signs and barriers shall be erected to limit employee access to the post-tensioning area during tensioning operations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Riding concrete buckets.</I> No employee shall be permitted to ride concrete buckets.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Working under loads.</I> (1) No employee shall be permitted to work under concrete buckets while buckets are being elevated or lowered into position.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent practical, elevated concrete buckets shall be routed so that no employee, or the fewest number of employees, are exposed to the hazards associated with falling concrete buckets.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Personal protective equipment.</I> No employee shall be permitted to apply a cement, sand, and water mixture through a pneumatic hose unless the employee is wearing protective head and face equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 22643, June 16, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 40730, Aug. 9, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.702" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.702   Requirements for equipment and tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bulk cement storage.</I> (1) Bulk storage bins, containers, and silos shall be equipped with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Conical or tapered bottoms; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical or pneumatic means of starting the flow of material.
</P>
<P>(2) No employee shall be permitted to enter storage facilities unless the ejection system has been shut down, locked out, and tagged to indicate that the ejection system is not to be operated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Concrete mixers.</I> Concrete mixers with one cubic yard (.8 m
<SU>3</SU>) or larger loading skips shall be equipped with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A mechanical device to clear the skip of materials; and
</P>
<P>(2) Guardrails installed on each side of the skip.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Power concrete trowels.</I> Powered and rotating type concrete troweling machines that are manually guided shall be equipped with a control switch that will automatically shut off the power whenever the hands of the operator are removed from the equipment handles.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Concrete buggies.</I> Concrete buggy handles shall not extend beyond the wheels on either side of the buggy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Concrete pumping systems.</I> (1) Concrete pumping systems using discharge pipes shall be provided with pipe supports designed for 100 percent overload.
</P>
<P>(2) Compressed air hoses used on concrete pumping system shall be provided with positive fail-safe joint connectors to prevent separation of sections when pressurized.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Concrete buckets.</I> (1) Concrete buckets equipped with hydraulic or pneumatic gates shall have positive safety latches or similar safety devices installed to prevent premature or accidental dumping.
</P>
<P>(2) Concrete buckets shall be designed to prevent concrete from hanging up on top and the sides.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Tremies.</I> Sections of tremies and similar concrete conveyances shall be secured with wire rope (or equivalent materials) in addition to the regular couplings or connections.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Bull floats.</I> Bull float handles, used where they might contact energized electrical conductors, shall be constructed of nonconductive material or insulated with a nonconductive sheath whose electrical and mechanical characteristics provide the equivalent protection of a handle constructed of nonconductive material.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Masonry saws.</I> (1) Masonry saws shall be guarded with a semicircular enclosure over the blade.
</P>
<P>(2) A method for retaining blade fragments shall be incorporated in the design of the semicircular enclosure.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Lockout/Tagout Procedures.</I> (1) No employee shall be permitted to perform maintenance or repair activity on equipment (such as compressors, mixers, screens or pumps used for concrete and masonry construction activities) where the inadvertent operation of the equipment could occur and cause injury, unless all potentially hazardous energy sources have been locked out and tagged.
</P>
<P>(2) Tags shall read <I>Do Not Start</I> or similar language to indicate that the equipment is not to be operated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.703" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.703   Requirements for cast-in-place concrete.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for formwork.</I> (1) Formwork shall be designed, fabricated, erected, supported, braced and maintained so that it will be capable of supporting without failure all vertical and lateral loads that may reasonably be anticipated to be applied to the formwork. Formwork which is designed, fabricated, erected, supported, braced and maintained in conformance with the appendix to this section will be deemed to meet the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) Drawings or plans, including all revisions, for the jack layout, formwork (including shoring equipment), working decks, and scaffolds, shall be available at the jobsite.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Shoring and reshoring.</I> (1) All shoring equipment (including equipment used in reshoring operations) shall be inspected prior to erection to determine that the equipment meets the requirements specified in the formwork drawings.
</P>
<P>(2) Shoring equipment found to be damaged such that its strength is reduced to less than that required by § 1926.703(a)(1) shall not be used for shoring.
</P>
<P>(3) Erected shoring equipment shall be inspected immediately prior to, during, and immediately after concrete placement.
</P>
<P>(4) Shoring equipment that is found to be damaged or weakened after erection, such that its strength is reduced to less than that required by § 1926.703(a)(1), shall be immediately reinforced.
</P>
<P>(5) The sills for shoring shall be sound, rigid, and capable of carrying the maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(6) All base plates, shore heads, extension devices, and adjustment screws shall be in firm contact, and secured when necessary, with the foundation and the form.
</P>
<P>(7) Eccentric loads on shore heads and similar members shall be prohibited unless these members have been designed for such loading.
</P>
<P>(8) Whenever single post shores are used one on top of another (tiered), the employer shall comply with the following specific requirements in addition to the general requirements for formwork:
</P>
<P>(i) The design of the shoring shall be prepared by a qualified designer and the erected shoring shall be inspected by an engineer qualified in structural design.
</P>
<P>(ii) The single post shores shall be vertically aligned.
</P>
<P>(iii) The single post shores shall be spliced to prevent misalignment.
</P>
<P>(iv) The single post shores shall be adequately braced in two mutually perpendicular directions at the splice level. Each tier shall also be diagonally braced in the same two directions.
</P>
<P>(9) Adjustment of single post shores to raise formwork shall not be made after the placement of concrete.
</P>
<P>(10) Reshoring shall be erected, as the original forms and shores are removed, whenever the concrete is required to support loads in excess of its capacity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vertical slip forms.</I> (1) The steel rods or pipes on which jacks climb or by which the forms are lifted shall be—
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically designed for that purpose; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequately braced where not encased in concrete.
</P>
<P>(2) Forms shall be designed to prevent excessive distortion of the structure during the jacking operation.
</P>
<P>(3) All vertical slip forms shall be provided with scaffolds or work platforms where employees are required to work or pass.
</P>
<P>(4) Jacks and vertical supports shall be positioned in such a manner that the loads do not exceed the rated capacity of the jacks.
</P>
<P>(5) The jacks or other lifting devices shall be provided with mechanical dogs or other automatic holding devices to support the slip forms whenever failure of the power supply or lifting mechanism occurs.
</P>
<P>(6) The form structure shall be maintained within all design tolerances specified for plumbness during the jacking operation.
</P>
<P>(7) The predetermined safe rate of lift shall not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reinforcing steel.</I> (1) Reinforcing steel for walls, piers, columns, and similar vertical structures shall be adequately supported to prevent overturning and to prevent collapse.
</P>
<P>(2) Employers shall take measures to prevent unrolled wire mesh from recoiling. Such measures may include, but are not limited to, securing each end of the roll or turning over the roll.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Removal of formwork.</I> (1) Forms and shores (except those used for slabs on grade and slip forms) shall not be removed until the employer determines that the concrete has gained sufficient strength to support its weight and superimposed loads. Such determination shall be based on compliance with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The plans and specifications stipulate conditions for removal of forms and shores, and such conditions have been followed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The concrete has been properly tested with an appropriate ASTM standard test method designed to indicate the concrete compressive strength, and the test results indicate that the concrete has gained sufficient strength to support its weight and superimposed loads.
</P>
<P>(2) Reshoring shall not be removed until the concrete being supported has attained adequate strength to support its weight and all loads in place upon it.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix to § 1926.703(<E T="01">a</E>)(1)
</HD1>
<HD1>General Requirements for Formwork
</HD1>
<HD2>(This appendix is non-mandatory.)
</HD2>
<P>This appendix serves as a non-mandatory guideline to assist employers in complying with the formwork requirements in § 1926.703(a)(1). Formwork which has been designed, fabricated, erected, braced, supported and maintained in accordance with Sections 6 and 7 of the American National Standard for Construction and Demolition Operations—Concrete and Masonry Work, ANSI A10.9-1983, shall be deemed to be in compliance with the provision of § 1926.703(a)(1).</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 22643, June 16, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.704" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.704   Requirements for precast concrete.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Precast concrete wall units, structural framing, and tilt-up wall panels shall be adequately supported to prevent overturning and to prevent collapse until permanent connections are completed.
</P>
<P>(b) Lifting inserts which are embedded or otherwise attached to tilt-up precast concrete members shall be capable of supporting at least two times the maximum intended load applied or transmitted to them.
</P>
<P>(c) Lifting inserts which are embedded or otherwise attached to precast concrete members, other than the tilt-up members, shall be capable of supporting at least four times the maximum intended load applied or transmitted to them.
</P>
<P>(d) Lifting hardware shall be capable of supporting at least five times the maximum intended load applied or transmitted to the lifting hardware.
</P>
<P>(e) No employee shall be permitted under precast concrete members being lifted or tilted into position except those employees required for the erection of those members.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 22643, June 16, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 41088, Oct. 5, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.705" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.705   Requirements for lift-slab construction operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lift-slab operations shall be designed and planned by a registered professional engineer who has experience in lift-slab construction. Such plans and designs shall be implemented by the employer and shall include detailed instructions and sketches indicating the prescribed method of erection. These plans and designs shall also include provisions for ensuring lateral stability of the building/structure during construction.
</P>
<P>(b) Jacks/lifting units shall be marked to indicate their rated capacity as established by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(c) Jacks/lifting units shall not be loaded beyond their rated capacity as established by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(d) Jacking equipment shall be capable of supporting at least two and one-half times the load being lifted during jacking operations and the equipment shall not be overloaded. For the purpose of this provision, jacking equipment includes any load bearing component which is used to carry out the lifting operation(s). Such equipment includes, but is not limited, to the following: threaded rods, lifting attachments, lifting nuts, hook-up collars, T-caps, shearheads, columns, and footings.
</P>
<P>(e) Jacks/lifting units shall be designed and installed so that they will neither lift nor continue to lift when they are loaded in excess of their rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(f) Jacks/lifting units shall have a safety device installed which will cause the jacks/lifting units to support the load in any position in the event any jack/lifting unit malfunctions or loses its lifting ability.
</P>
<P>(g) Jacking operations shall be synchronized in such a manner to ensure even and uniform lifting of the slab. During lifting, all points at which the slab is supported shall be kept within 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch of that needed to maintain the slab in a level position.
</P>
<P>(h) If leveling is automatically controlled, a device shall be installed that will stop the operation when the 
<FR>1/2</FR>inch tolerance set forth in paragraph (g) of this section is exceeded or where there is a malfunction in the jacking (lifting) system.
</P>
<P>(i) If leveling is maintained by manual controls, such controls shall be located in a central location and attended by a competent person while lifting is in progress. In addition to meeting the definition in § 1926.32(f), the competent person must be experienced in the lifting operation and with the lifting equipment being used.
</P>
<P>(j) The maximum number of manually controlled jacks/lifting units on one slab shall be limited to a number that will permit the operator to maintain the slab level within specified tolerances of paragraph (g) of this section, but in no case shall that number exceed 14.
</P>
<P>(k)(1) No employee, except those essential to the jacking operation, shall be permitted in the building/structure while any jacking operation is taking place unless the building/structure has been reinforced sufficiently to ensure its integrity during erection. The phrase “reinforced sufficiently to ensure its integrity” used in this paragraph means that a registered professional engineer, independent of the engineer who designed and planned the lifting operation, has determined from the plans that if there is a loss of support at any jack location, that loss will be confined to that location and the structure as a whole will remain stable.
</P>
<P>(2) Under no circumstances, shall any employee who is not essential to the jacking operation be permitted immediately beneath a slab while it is being lifted.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of paragraph (k) of this section, a jacking operation begins when a slab or group of slabs is lifted and ends when such slabs are secured (with either temporary connections or permanent connections).
</P>
<P>(4) Employers who comply with appendix A to § 1926.705 shall be considered to be in compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (k)(1) through (k)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) When making temporary connections to support slabs, wedges shall be secured by tack welding, or an equivalent method of securing the wedges to prevent them from falling out of position. Lifting rods may not be released until the wedges at that column have been secured.
</P>
<P>(m) All welding on temporary and permanent connections shall be performed by a certified welder, familiar with the welding requirements specified in the plans and specifications for the lift-slab operation.
</P>
<P>(n) Load transfer from jacks/lifting units to building columns shall not be executed until the welds on the column shear plates (weld blocks) are cooled to air temperature.
</P>
<P>(o) Jacks/lifting units shall be positively secured to building columns so that they do not become dislodged or dislocated.
</P>
<P>(p) Equipment shall be designed and installed so that the lifting rods cannot slip out of position or the employer shall institute other measures, such as the use of locking or blocking devices, which will provide positive connection between the lifting rods and attachments and will prevent components from disengaging during lifting operations.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix to § 1926.705—Lift-Slab Operations
</HD1>
<HD2>(This appendix is non-mandatory.)
</HD2>
<P>In paragraph 1926.705(k), OSHA requires employees to be removed from the building/structure during jacking operations unless an independent registered professional engineer, other than the engineer who designed and planned the lifting operation, has determined that the building/structure has been sufficiently reinforced to insure the integrity of the building/structure. One method to comply with this provision is for the employer to ensure that continuous bottom steel is provided in every slab and in both directions through every wall or column head area. (Column head area means the distance between lines that are one and one half times the thickness of the slab or drop panel. These lines are located outside opposite faces of the outer edges of the shearhead sections—See Figure 1). The amount of bottom steel shall be established by assuming loss of support at a given lifting jack and then determining the steel necessary to carry, by catenary action over the span between surrounding supports, the slab service dead load <I>plus</I> any service dead and live loads likely to be acting on the slab during jacking. In addition, the surrounding supports must be capable of resisting any additional load transferred to them as a result of the loss of support at the lifting jack considered.</P></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.048.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 42328, Oct. 18, 1990]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.706" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.706   Requirements for masonry construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A limited access zone shall be established whenever a masonry wall is being constructed. The limited access zone shall conform to the following.
</P>
<P>(1) The limited access zone shall be established prior to the start of construction of the wall.
</P>
<P>(2) The limited access zone shall be equal to the height of the wall to be constructed plus four feet, and shall run the entire length of the wall.
</P>
<P>(3) The limited access zone shall be established on the side of the wall which will be unscaffolded.
</P>
<P>(4) The limited access zone shall be restricted to entry by employees actively engaged in constructing the wall. No other employees shall be permitted to enter the zone.
</P>
<P>(5) The limited access zone shall remain in place until the wall is adequately supported to prevent overturning and to prevent collapse unless the height of wall is over eight feet, in which case, the limited access zone shall remain in place until the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(b) All masonry walls over eight feet in height shall be adequately braced to prevent overturning and to prevent collapse unless the wall is adequately supported so that it will not overturn or collapse. The bracing shall remain in place until permanent supporting elements of the structure are in place.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.17.20.8.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart Q of Part 1926—References to subpart Q of Part 1926
</HEAD>
<HD2>(This appendix is non-mandatory.)
</HD2>
<P>The following non-mandatory references provide information which can be helpful in understanding and complying with the requirements contained in subpart Q.
</P>
<P>• Accident Prevention Manual for Industrial Operations; Eighth Edition; National Safety Council.
</P>
<P>• Building Code Requirements for Reinforced Concrete (ACI 318-83).
</P>
<P>• Formwork for Concrete (ACI SP-4).
</P>
<P>• Recommended Practice for Concrete Formwork (ACI 347-78).
</P>
<P>• Safety Requirements for Concrete and Masonry Work (ANSI A10.9-1983).
</P>
<P>• Standard Test Method for Compressive Strength of Cylindrical Concrete Specimens (ASTM C39-86).
</P>
<P>• Standard Test Method for Making and Curing Concrete Test Specimens in the Field (ASTM C31-85).
</P>
<P>• Standard Test Method for Penetration Resistance of Hardened Concrete (ASTM C803-82).
</P>
<P>• Standard Test Method for Compressive Strength of Concrete Cylinders Cast In-Place in Cylindrical Molds (ASTM C873-85).
</P>
<P>• Standard Method for Developing Early Age Compressive Test Values and Projecting Later Age Strengths (ASTM C918-80).
</P>
<P>• Recommended Practice for Inspection and Testing Agencies for Concrete, Steel and Bituminous Materials as Used in Construction (ASTM E329-77).
</P>
<P>• Method of Making and Curing Concrete Test Specimens in the Laboratory (ASTM C192-88).
</P>
<P>• Methods of Obtaining and Testing Drilled Cores and Sawed Beams of Concrete (ASTM C42-87).
</P>
<P>• Methods of Securing, Preparing and Testing Specimens from Hardened Lightweight Insulating Concrete for Compressive Strength (ASTM C513-86).
</P>
<P>• Test Method for Comprehensive Strength of Lightweight Insulating Concrete (ASTM C495-86).
</P>
<P>• Method of Making, Accelerating Curing, and Testing of Concrete Compression Test Specimens (ASTM C684-81).
</P>
<P>• Test Method for Compressive Strength of Concrete Using Portions of Beams Broken in Flexure (ASTM C116-68 (1980)).




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Steel Erection</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order Nos. 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 5265, Jan. 18, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.750" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.750   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth requirements to protect employees from the hazards associated with steel erection activities involved in the construction, alteration, and/or repair of single and multi-story buildings, bridges, and other structures where steel erection occurs. The requirements of this subpart apply to employers engaged in steel erection unless otherwise specified. This subpart does not cover electrical transmission towers, communication and broadcast towers, or tanks. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>Examples of structures where steel erection may occur include but are not limited to the following: Single and multi-story buildings; systems-engineered metal buildings; lift slab/tilt-up structures; energy exploration structures; energy production, transfer and storage structures and facilities; auditoriums; malls; amphitheaters; stadiums; power plants; mills; chemical process structures; bridges; trestles; overpasses; underpasses; viaducts; aqueducts; aerospace facilities and structures; radar and communication structures; light towers; signage; billboards; scoreboards; conveyor systems; conveyor supports and related framing; stairways; stair towers; fire escapes; draft curtains; fire containment structures; monorails; aerialways; catwalks; curtain walls; window walls; store fronts; elevator fronts; entrances; skylights; metal roofs; industrial structures; hi-bay structures; rail, marine and other transportation structures; sound barriers; water process and water containment structures; air and cable supported structures; space frames; geodesic domes; canopies; racks and rack support structures and frames; platforms; walkways; balconies; atriums; penthouses; car dumpers; stackers/reclaimers; cranes and craneways; bins; hoppers; ovens; furnaces; stacks; amusement park structures and rides; and artistic and monumental structures.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b)(1) Steel erection activities include hoisting, laying out, placing, connecting, welding, burning, guying, bracing, bolting, plumbing and rigging structural steel, steel joists and metal buildings; installing metal decking, curtain walls, window walls, siding systems, miscellaneous metals, ornamental iron and similar materials; and moving point-to-point while performing these activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) The following activities are covered by this subpart when they occur during and are a part of steel erection activities: rigging, hoisting, laying out, placing, connecting, guying, bracing, dismantling, burning, welding, bolting, grinding, sealing, caulking, and all related activities for construction, alteration and/or repair of materials and assemblies such as structural steel; ferrous metals and alloys; non-ferrous metals and alloys; glass; plastics and synthetic composite materials; structural metal framing and related bracing and assemblies; anchoring devices; structural cabling; cable stays; permanent and temporary bents and towers; falsework for temporary supports of permanent steel members; stone and other non-precast concrete architectural materials mounted on steel frames; safety systems for steel erection; steel and metal joists; metal decking and raceway systems and accessories; metal roofing and accessories; metal siding; bridge flooring; cold formed steel framing; elevator beams; grillage; shelf racks; multi-purpose supports; crane rails and accessories; miscellaneous, architectural and ornamental metals and metal work; ladders; railings; handrails; fences and gates; gratings; trench covers; floor plates; castings; sheet metal fabrications; metal panels and panel wall systems; louvers; column covers; enclosures and pockets; stairs; perforated metals; ornamental iron work, expansion control including bridge expansion joint assemblies; slide bearings; hydraulic structures; fascias; soffit panels; penthouse enclosures; skylights; joint fillers; gaskets; sealants and seals; doors; windows; hardware; detention/security equipment and doors, windows and hardware; conveying systems; building specialties; building equipment; machinery and plant equipment, furnishings and special construction. 
</P>
<P>(c) The duties of controlling contractors under this subpart include, but are not limited to, the duties specified in §§ 1926.752 (a) and (c), 1926.755(b)(2), 1926.759(b), and 1926.760(e). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.751" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.751   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Anchored bridging</I> means that the steel joist bridging is connected to a bridging terminus point. 
</P>
<P><I>Bolted diagonal bridging</I> means diagonal bridging that is bolted to a steel joist or joists. 
</P>
<P><I>Bridging clip</I> means a device that is attached to the steel joist to allow the bolting of the bridging to the steel joist. 
</P>
<P><I>Bridging terminus point</I> means a wall, a beam, tandem joists (with all bridging installed and a horizontal truss in the plane of the top chord) or other element at an end or intermediate point(s) of a line of bridging that provides an anchor point for the steel joist bridging. 
</P>
<P><I>Choker</I> means a wire rope or synthetic fiber rigging assembly that is used to attach a load to a hoisting device. 
</P>
<P><I>Cold forming</I> means the process of using press brakes, rolls, or other methods to shape steel into desired cross sections at room temperature. 
</P>
<P><I>Column</I> means a load-carrying vertical member that is part of the primary skeletal framing system. Columns do not include posts. 
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> (also defined in § 1926.32) means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them. 
</P>
<P><I>Connector</I> means an employee who, working with hoisting equipment, is placing and connecting structural members and/or components. 
</P>
<P><I>Constructibility</I> means the ability to erect structural steel members in accordance with subpart R without having to alter the over-all structural design. 
</P>
<P><I>Construction load (for joist erection)</I> means any load other than the weight of the employee(s), the joists and the bridging bundle. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlled Decking Zone</I> (CDZ) means an area in which certain work (for example, initial installation and placement of metal decking) may take place without the use of guardrail systems, personal fall arrest systems, fall restraint systems, or safety net systems and where access to the zone is controlled. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlled load lowering</I> means lowering a load by means of a mechanical hoist drum device that allows a hoisted load to be lowered with maximum control using the gear train or hydraulic components of the hoist mechanism. Controlled load lowering requires the use of the hoist drive motor, rather than the load hoist brake, to lower the load. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlling contractor</I> means a prime contractor, general contractor, construction manager or any other legal entity which has the overall responsibility for the construction of the project—its planning, quality and completion. 
</P>
<P><I>Critical lift</I> means a lift that (1) exceeds 75 percent of the rated capacity of the crane or derrick, or (2) requires the use of more than one crane or derrick. 
</P>
<P><I>Decking hole</I> means a gap or void more than 2 inches (5.1 cm) in its least dimension and less than 12 inches (30.5 cm) in its greatest dimension in a floor, roof or other walking/working surface. Pre-engineered holes in cellular decking (for wires, cables, etc.) are not included in this definition. 
</P>
<P><I>Derrick floor</I> means an elevated floor of a building or structure that has been designated to receive hoisted pieces of steel prior to final placement. 
</P>
<P><I>Double connection</I> means an attachment method where the connection point is intended for two pieces of steel which share common bolts on either side of a central piece. 
</P>
<P><I>Double connection seat</I> means a structural attachment that, during the installation of a double connection, supports the first member while the second member is connected. 
</P>
<P><I>Erection bridging</I> means the bolted diagonal bridging that is required to be installed prior to releasing the hoisting cables from the steel joists. 
</P>
<P><I>Fall restraint system</I> means a fall protection system that prevents the user from falling any distance. The system is comprised of either a body belt or body harness, along with an anchorage, connectors and other necessary equipment. The other components typically include a lanyard, and may also include a lifeline and other devices. 
</P>
<P><I>Final interior perimeter</I> means the perimeter of a large permanent open space within a building such as an atrium or courtyard. This does not include openings for stairways, elevator shafts, etc. 
</P>
<P><I>Girt (in systems-engineered metal buildings)</I> means a “Z” or “C” shaped member formed from sheet steel spanning between primary framing and supporting wall material. 
</P>
<P><I>Headache ball</I> means a weighted hook that is used to attach loads to the hoist load line of the crane. 
</P>
<P><I>Hoisting equipment</I> means commercially manufactured lifting equipment designed to lift and position a load of known weight to a location at some known elevation and horizontal distance from the equipment's center of rotation. “Hoisting equipment” includes but is not limited to cranes, derricks, tower cranes, barge-mounted derricks or cranes, gin poles and gantry hoist systems. A “come-a-long” (a mechanical device, usually consisting of a chain or cable attached at each end, that is used to facilitate movement of materials through leverage) is not considered “hoisting equipment.” 
</P>
<P><I>Leading edge</I> means the unprotected side and edge of a floor, roof, or formwork for a floor or other walking/working surface (such as deck) which changes location as additional floor, roof, decking or formwork sections are placed, formed or constructed. 
</P>
<P><I>Metal decking</I> means a commercially manufactured, structural grade, cold rolled metal panel formed into a series of parallel ribs; for this subpart, this includes metal floor and roof decks, standing seam metal roofs, other metal roof systems and other products such as bar gratings, checker plate, expanded metal panels, and similar products. After installation and proper fastening, these decking materials serve a combination of functions including, but not limited to: a structural element designed in combination with the structure to resist, distribute and transfer loads, stiffen the structure and provide a diaphragm action; a walking/working surface; a form for concrete slabs; a support for roofing systems; and a finished floor or roof. 
</P>
<P><I>Multiple lift rigging</I> means a rigging assembly manufactured by wire rope rigging suppliers that facilitates the attachment of up to five independent loads to the hoist rigging of a crane. 
</P>
<P><I>Opening</I> means a gap or void 12 inches (30.5 cm) or more in its least dimension in a floor, roof or other walking/working surface. For the purposes of this subpart, skylights and smoke domes that do not meet the strength requirements of § 1926.754(e)(3) shall be regarded as openings. 
</P>
<P><I>Permanent floor</I> means a structurally completed floor at any level or elevation (including slab on grade). 
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system</I> means a system used to arrest an employee in a fall from a working level. A personal fall arrest system consists of an anchorage, connectors, a body harness and may include a lanyard, deceleration device, lifeline, or suitable combination of these. The use of a body belt for fall arrest is prohibited. 
</P>
<P><I>Positioning device system</I> means a body belt or body harness rigged to allow an employee to be supported on an elevated, vertical surface, such as a wall or column and work with both hands free while leaning. 
</P>
<P><I>Post</I> means a structural member with a longitudinal axis that is essentially vertical, that: (1) weighs 300 pounds or less and is axially loaded (a load presses down on the top end), or (2) is not axially loaded, but is laterally restrained by the above member. Posts typically support stair landings, wall framing, mezzanines and other substructures. 
</P>
<P><I>Project structural engineer of record</I> means the registered, licensed professional responsible for the design of structural steel framing and whose seal appears on the structural contract documents. 
</P>
<P><I>Purlin (in systems-engineered metal buildings)</I> means a “Z” or “C” shaped member formed from sheet steel spanning between primary framing and supporting roof material. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person</I> (also defined in § 1926.32) means one who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated the ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project. 
</P>
<P><I>Safety deck attachment</I> means an initial attachment that is used to secure an initially placed sheet of decking to keep proper alignment and bearing with structural support members. 
</P>
<P><I>Shear connector</I> means headed steel studs, steel bars, steel lugs, and similar devices which are attached to a structural member for the purpose of achieving composite action with concrete. 
</P>
<P><I>Steel erection</I> means the construction, alteration or repair of steel buildings, bridges and other structures, including the installation of metal decking and all planking used during the process of erection. 
</P>
<P><I>Steel joist</I> means an open web, secondary load-carrying member of 144 feet (43.9 m) or less, designed by the manufacturer, used for the support of floors and roofs. This does not include structural steel trusses or cold-formed joists. 
</P>
<P><I>Steel joist girder</I> means an open web, primary load-carrying member, designed by the manufacturer, used for the support of floors and roofs. This does not include structural steel trusses. 
</P>
<P><I>Steel truss</I> means an open web member designed of structural steel components by the project structural engineer of record. For the purposes of this subpart, a steel truss is considered equivalent to a solid web structural member. 
</P>
<P><I>Structural steel</I> means a steel member, or a member made of a substitute material (such as, but not limited to, fiberglass, aluminum or composite members). These members include, but are not limited to, steel joists, joist girders, purlins, columns, beams, trusses, splices, seats, metal decking, girts, and all bridging, and cold formed metal framing which is integrated with the structural steel framing of a building. 
</P>
<P><I>Systems-engineered metal building</I> means a metal, field-assembled building system consisting of framing, roof and wall coverings. Typically, many of these components are cold-formed shapes. These individual parts are fabricated in one or more manufacturing facilities and shipped to the job site for assembly into the final structure. The engineering design of the system is normally the responsibility of the systems-engineered metal building manufacturer. 
</P>
<P><I>Tank</I> means a container for holding gases, liquids or solids. 
</P>
<P><I>Unprotected sides and edges</I> means any side or edge (except at entrances to points of access) of a walking/working surface, for example a, floor, roof, ramp or runway, where there is no wall or guardrail system at least 39 inches (1.0 m) high. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.752" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.752   Site layout, site-specific erection plan and construction sequence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval to begin steel erection.</I> Before authorizing the commencement of steel erection, the controlling contractor shall ensure that the steel erector is provided with the following written notifications: 
</P>
<P>(1) The concrete in the footings, piers and walls and the mortar in the masonry piers and walls has attained, on the basis of an appropriate ASTM standard test method of field-cured samples, either 75 percent of the intended minimum compressive design strength or sufficient strength to support the loads imposed during steel erection.
</P>
<P>(2) Any repairs, replacements and modifications to the anchor bolts were conducted in accordance with § 1926.755(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commencement of steel erection.</I> A steel erection contractor shall not erect steel unless it has received written notification that the concrete in the footings, piers and walls or the mortar in the masonry piers and walls has attained, on the basis of an appropriate ASTM standard test method of field-cured samples, either 75 percent of the intended minimum compressive design strength or sufficient strength to support the loads imposed during steel erection. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Site layout.</I> The controlling contractor shall ensure that the following is provided and maintained: 
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate access roads into and through the site for the safe delivery and movement of derricks, cranes, trucks, other necessary equipment, and the material to be erected and means and methods for pedestrian and vehicular control. Exception: this requirement does not apply to roads outside of the construction site. 
</P>
<P>(2) A firm, properly graded, drained area, readily accessible to the work with adequate space for the safe storage of materials and the safe operation of the erector's equipment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pre-planning of overhead hoisting operations.</I> All hoisting operations in steel erection shall be pre-planned to ensure that the requirements of § 1926.753(d) are met. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Site-specific erection plan.</I> Where employers elect, due to conditions specific to the site, to develop alternate means and methods that provide employee protection in accordance with § 1926.753(c)(5), § 1926.757(a)(4) or § 1926.757(e)(4), a site-specific erection plan shall be developed by a qualified person and be available at the work site. Guidelines for establishing a site-specific erection plan are contained in appendix A to this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.753" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.753   Hoisting and rigging.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All the provisions of subpart CC apply to hoisting and rigging with the exception of § 1926.1431(a).
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section apply regarding the hazards associated with hoisting and rigging. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General.</I> (1) Pre-shift visual inspection of cranes. 
</P>
<P>(i) Cranes being used in steel erection activities shall be visually inspected prior to each shift by a competent person; the inspection shall include observation for deficiencies during operation. At a minimum this inspection shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) All control mechanisms for maladjustments; 
</P>
<P>(B) Control and drive mechanism for excessive wear of components and contamination by lubricants, water or other foreign matter; 
</P>
<P>(C) Safety devices, including but not limited to boom angle indicators, boom stops, boom kick out devices, anti-two block devices, and load moment indicators where required; 
</P>
<P>(D) Air, hydraulic, and other pressurized lines for deterioration or leakage, particularly those which flex in normal operation; 
</P>
<P>(E) Hooks and latches for deformation, chemical damage, cracks, or wear; 
</P>
<P>(F) Wire rope reeving for compliance with hoisting equipment manufacturer's specifications; 
</P>
<P>(G) Electrical apparatus for malfunctioning, signs of excessive deterioration, dirt, or moisture accumulation; 
</P>
<P>(H) Hydraulic system for proper fluid level; 
</P>
<P>(I) Tires for proper inflation and condition; 
</P>
<P>(J) Ground conditions around the hoisting equipment for proper support, including ground settling under and around outriggers, ground water accumulation, or similar conditions; 
</P>
<P>(K) The hoisting equipment for level position; and 
</P>
<P>(L) The hoisting equipment for level position after each move and setup. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If any deficiency is identified, an immediate determination shall be made by the competent person as to whether the deficiency constitutes a hazard. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the deficiency is determined to constitute a hazard, the hoisting equipment shall be removed from service until the deficiency has been corrected. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The operator shall be responsible for those operations under the operator's direct control. Whenever there is any doubt as to safety, the operator shall have the authority to stop and refuse to handle loads until safety has been assured. 
</P>
<P>(2) A qualified rigger (a rigger who is also a qualified person) shall inspect the rigging prior to each shift in accordance with § 1926.251. 
</P>
<P>(3) The headache ball, hook or load shall not be used to transport personnel except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) Cranes or derricks may be used to hoist employees on a personnel platform when work under this subpart is being conducted, provided that all provisions of § 1926.1431 (except for § 1926.1431(a)) are met. 
</P>
<P>(5) Safety latches on hooks shall not be deactivated or made inoperable except: 
</P>
<P>(i) When a qualified rigger has determined that the hoisting and placing of purlins and single joists can be performed more safely by doing so; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) When equivalent protection is provided in a site-specific erection plan. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Working under loads.</I> (1) Routes for suspended loads shall be pre-planned to ensure that no employee is required to work directly below a suspended load except for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Employees engaged in the initial connection of the steel; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees necessary for the hooking or unhooking of the load. 
</P>
<P>(2) When working under suspended loads, the following criteria shall be met: 
</P>
<P>(i) Materials being hoisted shall be rigged to prevent unintentional displacement; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hooks with self-closing safety latches or their equivalent shall be used to prevent components from slipping out of the hook; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) All loads shall be rigged by a qualified rigger 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Multiple lift rigging procedure.</I> (1) A multiple lift shall only be performed if the following criteria are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) A multiple lift rigging assembly is used; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A maximum of five members are hoisted per lift; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Only beams and similar structural members are lifted; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) All employees engaged in the multiple lift have been trained in these procedures in accordance with § 1926.761(c)(1). 
</P>
<P>(v) No crane is permitted to be used for a multiple lift where such use is contrary to the manufacturer's specifications and limitations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Components of the multiple lift rigging assembly shall be specifically designed and assembled with a maximum capacity for total assembly and for each individual attachment point. This capacity, certified by the manufacturer or a qualified rigger, shall be based on the manufacturer's specifications with a 5 to 1 safety factor for all components. 
</P>
<P>(3) The total load shall not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(i) The rated capacity of the hoisting equipment specified in the hoisting equipment load charts; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The rigging capacity specified in the rigging rating chart. 
</P>
<P>(4) The multiple lift rigging assembly shall be rigged with members: 
</P>
<P>(i) Attached at their center of gravity and maintained reasonably level; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Rigged from top down; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Rigged at least 7 feet (2.1 m) apart. 
</P>
<P>(5) The members on the multiple lift rigging assembly shall be set from the bottom up. 
</P>
<P>(6) Controlled load lowering shall be used whenever the load is over the connectors. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5265, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 75 FR 48134, Aug. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.754" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.754   Structural steel assembly.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Structural stability shall be maintained at all times during the erection process. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) regulations incorporate by reference a number of standards, policies, and standard specifications published by the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials (AASHTO) and other organizations. (<I>See</I> 23 CFR 625.4). Many of these incorporated provisions may be relevant to maintaining structural stability during the erection process. For instance, as of May 17, 2010, in many cases FHWA requires a Registered Engineer to prepare and seal working drawings for falsework used in highway bridge construction. (<I>See</I> AASHTO Specifications for Highway Bridges, Div. II, § 3.2.1, 15th edition, 1992, which FHWA incorporates by reference in 23 CFR 625.4). FHWA also encourages compliance with AASHTO Specifications that the FHWA regulations do not currently incorporate by reference. (<I>See</I> <I>http://www.fhwa.dot.gov/bridge/lrfd/index.htm.</I>)</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) The following additional requirements shall apply for multi-story structures: 
</P>
<P>(1) The permanent floors shall be installed as the erection of structural members progresses, and there shall be not more than eight stories between the erection floor and the upper-most permanent floor, except where the structural integrity is maintained as a result of the design. 
</P>
<P>(2) At no time shall there be more than four floors or 48 feet (14.6 m), whichever is less, of unfinished bolting or welding above the foundation or uppermost permanently secured floor, except where the structural integrity is maintained as a result of the design. 
</P>
<P>(3) A fully planked or decked floor or nets shall be maintained within two stories or 30 feet (9.1 m), whichever is less, directly under any erection work being performed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Walking/working surfaces—shear connectors and other similar devices</I>—(1) <I>Tripping hazards.</I> Shear connectors (such as headed steel studs, steel bars or steel lugs), reinforcing bars, deformed anchors or threaded studs shall not be attached to the top flanges of beams, joists or beam attachments so that they project vertically from or horizontally across the top flange of the member until after the metal decking, or other walking/working surface, has been installed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation of shear connectors on composite floors, roofs and bridge decks.</I> When shear connectors are used in construction of composite floors, roofs and bridge decks, employees shall lay out and install the shear connectors after the metal decking has been installed, using the metal decking as a working platform. Shear connectors shall not be installed from within a controlled decking zone (CDZ), as specified in § 1926.760(c)(7).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plumbing-up.</I> (1) When deemed necessary by a competent person, plumbing-up equipment shall be installed in conjunction with the steel erection process to ensure the stability of the structure. 
</P>
<P>(2) When used, plumbing-up equipment shall be in place and properly installed before the structure is loaded with construction material such as loads of joists, bundles of decking or bundles of bridging. 
</P>
<P>(3) Plumbing-up equipment shall be removed only with the approval of a competent person. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Metal decking</I>—(1) <I>Hoisting, landing and placing of metal decking bundles.</I> (i) Bundle packaging and strapping shall not be used for hoisting unless specifically designed for that purpose. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If loose items such as dunnage, flashing, or other materials are placed on the top of metal decking bundles to be hoisted, such items shall be secured to the bundles. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Bundles of metal decking on joists shall be landed in accordance with § 1926.757(e)(4). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Metal decking bundles shall be landed on framing members so that enough support is provided to allow the bundles to be unbanded without dislodging the bundles from the supports. 
</P>
<P>(v) At the end of the shift or when environmental or jobsite conditions require, metal decking shall be secured against displacement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Roof and floor holes and openings.</I> Metal decking at roof and floor holes and openings shall be installed as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Framed metal deck openings shall have structural members turned down to allow continuous deck installation except where not allowed by structural design constraints or constructibility. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Roof and floor holes and openings shall be decked over. Where large size, configuration or other structural design does not allow openings to be decked over (such as elevator shafts, stair wells, etc.) employees shall be protected in accordance with § 1926.760(a)(1). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Metal decking holes and openings shall not be cut until immediately prior to being permanently filled with the equipment or structure needed or intended to fulfill its specific use and which meets the strength requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section, or shall be immediately covered. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covering roof and floor openings.</I> (i) Covers for roof and floor openings shall be capable of supporting, without failure, twice the weight of the employees, equipment and materials that may be imposed on the cover at any one time. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All covers shall be secured when installed to prevent accidental displacement by the wind, equipment or employees. 
</P>
<P>(iii) All covers shall be painted with high-visibility paint or shall be marked with the word “HOLE” or “COVER” to provide warning of the hazard. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Smoke dome or skylight fixtures that have been installed, are not considered covers for the purpose of this section unless they meet the strength requirements of paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decking gaps around columns.</I> Wire mesh, exterior plywood, or equivalent, shall be installed around columns where planks or metal decking do not fit tightly. The materials used must be of sufficient strength to provide fall protection for personnel and prevent objects from falling through. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Installation of metal decking.</I> (i) Except as provided in § 1926.760(c), metal decking shall be laid tightly and immediately secured upon placement to prevent accidental movement or displacement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) During initial placement, metal decking panels shall be placed to ensure full support by structural members. 
</P>
<P>(6) Derrick floors. (i) A derrick floor shall be fully decked and/or planked and the steel member connections completed to support the intended floor loading. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Temporary loads placed on a derrick floor shall be distributed over the underlying support members so as to prevent local overloading of the deck material. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5265, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 2885, Jan. 18, 2006; 71 FR 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 75 FR 27429, May 17, 2010; 85 FR 8745, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.755" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.755   Column anchorage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for erection stability.</I> (1) All columns shall be anchored by a minimum of 4 anchor rods (anchor bolts). 
</P>
<P>(2) Each column anchor rod (anchor bolt) assembly, including the column-to-base plate weld and the column foundation, shall be designed to resist a minimum eccentric gravity load of 300 pounds (136.2 kg) located 18 inches (.46m) from the extreme outer face of the column in each direction at the top of the column shaft. 
</P>
<P>(3) Columns shall be set on level finished floors, pre-grouted leveling plates, leveling nuts, or shim packs which are adequate to transfer the construction loads. 
</P>
<P>(4) All columns shall be evaluated by a competent person to determine whether guying or bracing is needed; if guying or bracing is needed, it shall be installed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repair, replacement or field modification of anchor rods (anchor bolts).</I> (1) Anchor rods (anchor bolts) shall not be repaired, replaced or field-modified without the approval of the project structural engineer of record. 
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the erection of a column, the controlling contractor shall provide written notification to the steel erector if there has been any repair, replacement or modification of the anchor rods (anchor bolts) of that column. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.756" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.756   Beams and columns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) During the final placing of solid web structural members, the load shall not be released from the hoisting line until the members are secured with at least two bolts per connection, of the same size and strength as shown in the erection drawings, drawn up wrench-tight or the equivalent as specified by the project structural engineer of record, except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) A competent person shall determine if more than two bolts are necessary to ensure the stability of cantilevered members; if additional bolts are needed, they shall be installed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diagonal bracing.</I> Solid web structural members used as diagonal bracing shall be secured by at least one bolt per connection drawn up wrench-tight or the equivalent as specified by the project structural engineer of record. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Double connections at columns and/or at beam webs over a column.</I> When two structural members on opposite sides of a column web, or a beam web over a column, are connected sharing common connection holes, at least one bolt with its wrench-tight nut shall remain connected to the first member unless a shop-attached or field-attached seat or equivalent connection device is supplied with the member to secure the first member and prevent the column from being displaced (See appendix H to this subpart for examples of equivalent connection devices). 
</P>
<P>(2) If a seat or equivalent device is used, the seat (or device) shall be designed to support the load during the double connection process. It shall be adequately bolted or welded to both a supporting member and the first member before the nuts on the shared bolts are removed to make the double connection. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Column splices.</I> Each column splice shall be designed to resist a minimum eccentric gravity load of 300 pounds (136.2 kg) located 18 inches (.46 m) from the extreme outer face of the column in each direction at the top of the column shaft. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Perimeter columns.</I> Perimeter columns shall not be erected unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The perimeter columns extend a minimum of 48 inches (1.2 m) above the finished floor to permit installation of perimeter safety cables prior to erection of the next tier, except where constructibility does not allow (see appendix F to this subpart); 
</P>
<P>(2) The perimeter columns have holes or other devices in or attached to perimeter columns at 42-45 inches (107-114 cm) above the finished floor and the midpoint between the finished floor and the top cable to permit installation of perimeter safety cables required by § 1926.760(a)(2), except where constructibility does not allow. (See appendix F to this subpart). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.757" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.757   Open web steel joists.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, where steel joists are used and columns are not framed in at least two directions with solid web structural steel members, a steel joist shall be field-bolted at the column to provide lateral stability to the column during erection. For the installation of this joist: 
</P>
<P>(i) A vertical stabilizer plate shall be provided on each column for steel joists. The plate shall be a minimum of 6 inch by 6 inch (152 mm by 152 mm) and shall extend at least 3 inches (76 mm) below the bottom chord of the joist with a 
<FR>13/16</FR> inch (21 mm) hole to provide an attachment point for guying or plumbing cables. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bottom chords of steel joists at columns shall be stabilized to prevent rotation during erection. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Hoisting cables shall not be released until the seat at each end of the steel joist is field-bolted, and each end of the bottom chord is restrained by the column stabilizer plate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where constructibility does not allow a steel joist to be installed at the column: 
</P>
<P>(i) an alternate means of stabilizing joists shall be installed on both sides near the column and shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) provide stability equivalent to paragraph (a)(1) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(B) be designed by a qualified person; 
</P>
<P>(C) be shop installed; and 
</P>
<P>(D) be included in the erection drawings. 
</P>
<P>(ii) hoisting cables shall not be released until the seat at each end of the steel joist is field-bolted and the joist is stabilized. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where steel joists at or near columns span 60 feet (18.3 m) or less, the joist shall be designed with sufficient strength to allow one employee to release the hoisting cable without the need for erection bridging. 
</P>
<P>(4) Where steel joists at or near columns span more than 60 feet (18.3 m), the joists shall be set in tandem with all bridging installed unless an alternative method of erection, which provides equivalent stability to the steel joist, is designed by a qualified person and is included in the site-specific erection plan. 
</P>
<P>(5) A steel joist or steel joist girder shall not be placed on any support structure unless such structure is stabilized. 
</P>
<P>(6) When steel joist(s) are landed on a structure, they shall be secured to prevent unintentional displacement prior to installation. 
</P>
<P>(7) No modification that affects the strength of a steel joist or steel joist girder shall be made without the approval of the project structural engineer of record. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Field-bolted joists.</I> (i) Except for steel joists that have been pre-assembled into panels, connections of individual steel joists to steel structures in bays of 40 feet (12.2 m) or more shall be fabricated to allow for field bolting during erection. 
</P>
<P>(ii) These connections shall be field-bolted unless constructibility does not allow. 
</P>
<P>(9) Steel joists and steel joist girders shall not be used as anchorage points for a fall arrest system unless written approval to do so is obtained from a qualified person. 
</P>
<P>(10) A bridging terminus point shall be established before bridging is installed. (See appendix C to this subpart.) 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Attachment of steel joists and steel joist girders.</I> (1) Each end of “K” series steel joists shall be attached to the support structure with a minimum of two 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch (3 mm) fillet welds 1 inch (25 mm) long or with two 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch (13 mm) bolts, or the equivalent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each end of “LH” and “DLH” series steel joists and steel joist girders shall be attached to the support structure with a minimum of two 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch (6 mm) fillet welds 2 inches (51 mm) long, or with two 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch (19 mm) bolts, or the equivalent. 
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, each steel joist shall be attached to the support structure, at least at one end on both sides of the seat, immediately upon placement in the final erection position and before additional joists are placed. 
</P>
<P>(4) Panels that have been pre-assembled from steel joists with bridging shall be attached to the structure at each corner before the hoisting cables are released. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Erection of steel joists.</I> (1) Both sides of the seat of one end of each steel joist that requires bridging under Tables A and B shall be attached to the support structure before hoisting cables are released. 
</P>
<P>(2) For joists over 60 feet, both ends of the joist shall be attached as specified in paragraph (b) of this section and the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section met before the hoisting cables are released. 
</P>
<P>(3) On steel joists that do not require erection bridging under Tables A and B, only one employee shall be allowed on the joist until all bridging is installed and anchored. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A—Erection Bridging for Short Span Joists 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Joist 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Span 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8L1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10K1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12K1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">23-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12K3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12K5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14K1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">27-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14K3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14K4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14K6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16K2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">29-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16K3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16K4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">32-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16K5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">32-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16K6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16K9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18K3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18K4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">32-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18K5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18K6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18K9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18K10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20K3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">32-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20K4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">34-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20K5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">34-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20K6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20K9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20K10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22K4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">34-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22K5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22K6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22K9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22K10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22K11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24K4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24K5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">38-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24K6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">43-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24K8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">43-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24K9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">44-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24K10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24K12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26K5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">38-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26K6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">43-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26K8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">44-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26K9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26K10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">49-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26K12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28K6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">43-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28K8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">44-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28K9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28K10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">49-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28K12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">53-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">44-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30K8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30K9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30K10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30K11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">52-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30K12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">54-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10KCS1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12KCS1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14KCS1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16KCS4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16KCS5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18KCS4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18KCS5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20KCS4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20KCS5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22KCS4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22KCS5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">44-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24KCS4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24KCS5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">44-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26KCS4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26KCS5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28KCS2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28KCS3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28KCS4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">53-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28KCS5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">53-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30KC53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30KCS4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">54-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30KCS5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">54-0 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">NM = diagonal bolted bridging not mandatory.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B—Erection Bridging for Long Span Joists 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Joist 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Span 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18LH02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18LH03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18LH04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18LH05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18LH06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18LH07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18LH08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18LH09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">38-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20LH10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24LH11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28LH13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">47-0 through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">47-0 through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55-0 through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32LH15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">47-0 through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">47-0 through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">57-0 through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36LH15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NM through 60-0. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">NM = diagonal bolted bridging not mandatory.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Employees shall not be allowed on steel joists where the span of the steel joist is equal to or greater than the span shown in Tables A and B except in accordance with § 1926.757(d). 
</P>
<P>(5) When permanent bridging terminus points cannot be used during erection, additional temporary bridging terminus points are required to provide stability. (See appendix C of this subpart.) 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Erection bridging.</I> (1) Where the span of the steel joist is equal to or greater than the span shown in Tables A and B, the following shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(i) A row of bolted diagonal erection bridging shall be installed near the midspan of the steel joist; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hoisting cables shall not be released until this bolted diagonal erection bridging is installed and anchored; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) No more than one employee shall be allowed on these spans until all other bridging is installed and anchored.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the span of the steel joist is over 60 feet (18.3 m) through 100 feet (30.5 m), the following shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(i) All rows of bridging shall be bolted diagonal bridging; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Two rows of bolted diagonal erection bridging shall be installed near the third points of the steel joist; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Hoisting cables shall not be released until this bolted diagonal erection bridging is installed and anchored; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) No more than two employees shall be allowed on these spans until all other bridging is installed and anchored. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where the span of the steel joist is over 100 feet (30.5 m) through 144 feet (43.9 m), the following shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(i) All rows of bridging shall be bolted diagonal bridging; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hoisting cables shall not be released until all bridging is installed and anchored; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) No more than two employees shall be allowed on these spans until all bridging is installed and anchored. 
</P>
<P>(4) For steel members spanning over 144 feet (43.9 m), the erection methods used shall be in accordance with § 1926.756. 
</P>
<P>(5) Where any steel joist specified in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d)(1), (d)(2), and (d)(3) of this section is a bottom chord bearing joist, a row of bolted diagonal bridging shall be provided near the support(s). This bridging shall be installed and anchored before the hoisting cable(s) is released. 
</P>
<P>(6) When bolted diagonal erection bridging is required by this section, the following shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(i) The bridging shall be indicated on the erection drawing; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The erection drawing shall be the exclusive indicator of the proper placement of this bridging; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Shop-installed bridging clips, or functional equivalents, shall be used where the bridging bolts to the steel joists; 
</P>
<P>(iv) When two pieces of bridging are attached to the steel joist by a common bolt, the nut that secures the first piece of bridging shall not be removed from the bolt for the attachment of the second; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Bridging attachments shall not protrude above the top chord of the steel joist. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Landing and placing loads.</I> (1) During the construction period, the employer placing a load on steel joists shall ensure that the load is distributed so as not to exceed the carrying capacity of any steel joist.
</P>
<P>(2) Except for paragraph (e)(4) of this section, no construction loads are allowed on the steel joists until all bridging is installed and anchored and all joist-bearing ends are attached. 
</P>
<P>(3) The weight of a bundle of joist bridging shall not exceed a total of 1,000 pounds (454 kg). A bundle of joist bridging shall be placed on a minimum of three steel joists that are secured at one end. The edge of the bridging bundle shall be positioned within 1 foot (.30 m) of the secured end. 
</P>
<P>(4) No bundle of decking may be placed on steel joists until all bridging has been installed and anchored and all joist bearing ends attached, unless all of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer has first determined from a qualified person and documented in a site-specific erection plan that the structure or portion of the structure is capable of supporting the load; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bundle of decking is placed on a minimum of three steel joists; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The joists supporting the bundle of decking are attached at both ends; 
</P>
<P>(iv) At least one row of bridging is installed and anchored; 
</P>
<P>(v) The total weight of the bundle of decking does not exceed 4,000 pounds (1816 kg); and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Placement of the bundle of decking shall be in accordance with paragraph (e)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) The edge of the construction load shall be placed within 1 foot (.30 m) of the bearing surface of the joist end. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5265, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 85 FR 8745, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.758" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.758   Systems-engineered metal buildings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All of the requirements of this subpart apply to the erection of systems-engineered metal buildings except §§ 1926.755 (column anchorage) and 1926.757 (open web steel joists). 
</P>
<P>(b) Each structural column shall be anchored by a minimum of four anchor rods (anchor bolts). 
</P>
<P>(c) Rigid frames shall have 50 percent of their bolts or the number of bolts specified by the manufacturer (whichever is greater) installed and tightened on both sides of the web adjacent to each flange before the hoisting equipment is released. 
</P>
<P>(d) Construction loads shall not be placed on any structural steel framework unless such framework is safely bolted, welded or otherwise adequately secured. 
</P>
<P>(e) In girt and eave strut-to-frame connections, when girts or eave struts share common connection holes, at least one bolt with its wrench-tight nut shall remain connected to the first member unless a manufacturer-supplied, field-attached seat or similar connection device is present to secure the first member so that the girt or eave strut is always secured against displacement. 
</P>
<P>(f) Both ends of all steel joists or cold-formed joists shall be fully bolted and/or welded to the support structure before: 
</P>
<P>(1) Releasing the hoisting cables; 
</P>
<P>(2) Allowing an employee on the joists; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Allowing any construction loads on the joists. 
</P>
<P>(g) Purlins and girts shall not be used as an anchorage point for a fall arrest system unless written approval is obtained from a qualified person. 
</P>
<P>(h) Purlins may only be used as a walking/working surface when installing safety systems, after all permanent bridging has been installed and fall protection is provided. 
</P>
<P>(i) Construction loads may be placed only within a zone that is within 8 feet (2.5 m) of the center-line of the primary support member. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.759" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.759   Falling object protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securing loose items aloft.</I> All materials, equipment, and tools, which are not in use while aloft, shall be secured against accidental displacement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protection from falling objects other than materials being hoisted.</I> The controlling contractor shall bar other construction processes below steel erection unless overhead protection for the employees below is provided. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.760" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.760   Fall protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, each employee engaged in a steel erection activity who is on a walking/working surface with an unprotected side or edge more than 15 feet (4.6 m) above a lower level shall be protected from fall hazards by guardrail systems, safety net systems, personal fall arrest systems, positioning device systems or fall restraint systems.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Perimeter safety cables.</I> On multi-story structures, perimeter safety cables shall be installed at the final interior and exterior perimeters of the floors as soon as the metal decking has been installed.
</P>
<P>(3) Connectors and employees working in controlled decking zones shall be protected from fall hazards as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, respectively. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Connectors.</I> Each connector shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be protected in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section from fall hazards of more than two stories or 30 feet (9.1 m) above a lower level, whichever is less; 
</P>
<P>(2) Have completed connector training in accordance with § 1926.761; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Be provided, at heights over 15 and up to 30 feet above a lower level, with a personal fall arrest system, positioning device system or fall restraint system and wear the equipment necessary to be able to be tied off; or be provided with other means of protection from fall hazards in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Controlled Decking Zone (CDZ).</I> A controlled decking zone may be established in that area of the structure over 15 and up to 30 feet above a lower level where metal decking is initially being installed and forms the leading edge of a work area. In each CDZ, the following shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Each employee working at the leading edge in a CDZ shall be protected from fall hazards of more than two stories or 30 feet (9.1 m), whichever is less. 
</P>
<P>(2) Access to a CDZ shall be limited to only those employees engaged in leading edge work. 
</P>
<P>(3) The boundaries of a CDZ shall be designated and clearly marked. The CDZ shall not be more than 90 feet (27.4 m) wide and 90 (27.4 m) feet deep from any leading edge. The CDZ shall be marked by the use of control lines or the equivalent. Examples of acceptable procedures for demarcating CDZ's can be found in appendix D to this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(4) Each employee working in a CDZ shall have completed CDZ training in accordance with § 1926.761. 
</P>
<P>(5) Unsecured decking in a CDZ shall not exceed 3,000 square feet (914.4 m
<SU>2</SU>). 
</P>
<P>(6) Safety deck attachments shall be performed in the CDZ from the leading edge back to the control line and shall have at least two attachments for each metal decking panel. 
</P>
<P>(7) Final deck attachments and installation of shear connectors shall not be performed in the CDZ. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Criteria for fall protection equipment.</I> (1) Guardrail systems, safety net systems, personal fall arrest systems, positioning device systems and their components shall conform to the criteria in § 1926.502 (see appendix G to this subpart). 
</P>
<P>(2) Fall arrest system components shall be used in fall restraint systems and shall conform to the criteria in § 1926.502 (see appendix G). Either body belts or body harnesses shall be used in fall restraint systems. 
</P>
<P>(3) Perimeter safety cables shall meet the criteria for guardrail systems in § 1926.502 (see appendix G). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Custody of fall protection.</I> Fall protection provided by the steel erector shall remain in the area where steel erection activity has been completed, to be used by other trades, only if the controlling contractor or its authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) Has directed the steel erector to leave the fall protection in place; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has inspected and accepted control and responsibility of the fall protection prior to authorizing persons other than steel erectors to work in the area. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.761" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.761   Training.</HEAD>
<P>The following provisions supplement the requirements of § 1926.21 regarding the hazards addressed in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Training personnel.</I> Training required by this section shall be provided by a qualified person(s). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fall hazard training.</I> The employer shall train each employee exposed to a fall hazard in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program. The program shall include training and instruction in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(1) The recognition and identification of fall hazards in the work area;
</P>
<P>(2) The use and operation of guardrail systems (including perimeter safety cable systems), personal fall arrest systems, positioning device systems, fall restraint systems, safety net systems, and other protection to be used;
</P>
<P>(3) The correct procedures for erecting, maintaining, disassembling, and inspecting the fall protection systems to be used;
</P>
<P>(4) The procedures to be followed to prevent falls to lower levels and through or into holes and openings in walking/working surfaces and walls; and
</P>
<P>(5) The fall protection requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special training programs.</I> In addition to the training required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the employer shall provide special training to employees engaged in the following activities. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Multiple lift rigging procedure.</I> The employer shall ensure that each employee who performs multiple lift rigging has been provided training in the following areas: 
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the hazards associated with multiple lifts; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The proper procedures and equipment to perform multiple lifts required by § 1926.753(e). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Connector procedures.</I> The employer shall ensure that each connector has been provided training in the following areas: 
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the hazards associated with connecting; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The establishment, access, proper connecting techniques and work practices required by § 1926.756(c) and § 1926.760(b). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Controlled Decking Zone Procedures.</I> Where CDZs are being used, the employer shall assure that each employee has been provided training in the following areas: 
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the hazards associated with work within a controlled decking zone; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The establishment, access, proper installation techniques and work practices required by § 1926.760(c) and § 1926.754(e). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 5265, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 73 FR 75589, Dec. 12, 2008; 85 FR 8745, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.13.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart R of Part 1926—Guidelines for Establishing the Components of a Site-specific Erection Plan: Non-mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.752(<E T="01">e</E>) 
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This appendix serves as a guideline to assist employers who elect to develop a site-specific erection plan in accordance with § 1926.752(e) with alternate means and methods to provide employee protection in accordance with § 1926.752(e), § 1926.753(c)(5), § 1926.757(a)(4) and § 1926.757(e)(4). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Development of a site-specific erection plan.</I> Pre-construction conference(s) and site inspection(s) are held between the erector and the controlling contractor, and others such as the project engineer and fabricator before the start of steel erection. The purpose of such conference(s) is to develop and review the site-specific erection plan that will meet the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Components of a site-specific erection plan.</I> In developing a site-specific erection plan, a steel erector considers the following elements: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sequence of erection activity, developed in coordination with the controlling contractor, that includes the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Material deliveries: 
</P>
<P>(ii) Material staging and storage; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Coordination with other trades and construction activities.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the crane and derrick selection and placement procedures, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Site preparation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Path for overhead loads; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Critical lifts, including rigging supplies and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of steel erection activities and procedures, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Stability considerations requiring temporary bracing and guying; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Erection bridging terminus point; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Anchor rod (anchor bolt) notifications regarding repair, replacement and modifications; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Columns and beams (including joists and purlins); 
</P>
<P>(v) Connections; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Decking; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Ornamental and miscellaneous iron. 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the fall protection procedures that will be used to comply with § 1926.760. 
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the procedures that will be used to comply with § 1926.759. 
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the special procedures required for hazardous non-routine tasks. 
</P>
<P>(7) A certification for each employee who has received training for performing steel erection operations as required by § 1926.761. 
</P>
<P>(8) A list of the qualified and competent persons. 
</P>
<P>(9) A description of the procedures that will be utilized in the event of rescue or emergency response. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other plan information.</I> The plan: 
</P>
<P>(1) Includes the identification of the site and project; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Is signed and dated by the qualified person(s) responsible for its preparation and modification. 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.13.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart R of Part 1926 [Reserved] 



</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.13.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart R of Part 1926—Illustrations of Bridging Terminus Points: Non-mandatory Guidelines for Complying With §§ 1926.757(<E T="01">a</E>)(10) and § 1926.757(<E T="01">c</E>)(5)

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er18ja01.021.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18ja01.022.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18ja01.023.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.13.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart R of Part 1926—Illustration of the Use of Control Lines To Demarcate Controlled Decking Zones (CDZs): Non-mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.760(<E T="01">c</E>)(3)
</HEAD>
<P>(1) When used to control access to areas where leading edge and initial securement of metal deck and other operations connected with leading edge work are taking place, the controlled decking zone (CDZ) is defined by a control line or by any other means that restricts access. 
</P>
<P>(i) A control line for a CDZ is erected not less than 6 feet (1.8 m) nor more than 90 feet (27.4 m) from the leading edge. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Control lines extend along the entire length of the unprotected or leading edge and are approximately parallel to the unprotected or leading edge. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Control lines are connected on each side to a guardrail system, wall, stanchion or other suitable anchorage. 
</P>
<P>(2) Control lines consist of ropes, wires, tapes, or equivalent materials, and supporting stanchions as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Each line is rigged and supported in such a way that its lowest point (including sag) is not less than 39 inches (1.0 m) from the walking/working surface and its highest point is not more than 45 inches (1.3 m) from the walking/working surface. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each line has a minimum breaking strength of 200 pounds (90.8 kg). 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.13.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart R of Part 1926—Training: Non-mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.761
</HEAD>
<P>The training requirements of § 1926.761 will be deemed to have been met if employees have completed a training course on steel erection, including instruction in the provisions of this standard, that has been approved by the U.S. Department of Labor Bureau of Apprenticeship. 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.13.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Subpart R of Part 1926—Perimeter Columns: Non-Mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.756(<E T="01">e</E>) To Protect the Unprotected Side or Edge of a Walking/Working Surface
</HEAD>
<P>In multi-story structures, when holes in the column web are used for perimeter safety cables, the column splice must be placed sufficiently high so as not to interfere with any attachments to the column necessary for the column splice. Column splices are recommended to be placed at every other or fourth levels as design allows. Column splices at third levels are detrimental to the erection process and should be avoided if possible. 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.13.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Subpart R of Part 1926—§ 1926.502 (<E T="01">b</E>)-(<E T="01">e</E>) Fall Protection Systems Criteria and Practices 
</HEAD>
<P>(b) “Guardrail systems.” Guardrail systems and their use shall comply with the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Top edge height of top rails, or equivalent guardrail system members, shall be 42 inches (1.1 m) plus or minus 3 inches (8 cm) above the walking/working level. When conditions warrant, the height of the top edge may exceed the 45-inch height, provided the guardrail system meets all other criteria of this paragraph (§ 1926.502(b)).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When employees are using stilts, the top edge height of the top rail, or equivalent member, shall be increased an amount equal to the height of the stilts.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, or equivalent intermediate structural members shall be installed between the top edge of the guardrail system and the walking/working surface when there is no wall or parapet wall at least 21 inches (53 cm) high. 
</P>
<P>(i) Midrails, when used, shall be installed at a height midway between the top edge of the guardrail system and the walking/working level. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Screens and mesh, when used, shall extend from the top rail to the walking/working level and along the entire opening between top rail supports. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Intermediate members (such as balusters), when used between posts, shall be not more than 19 inches (48 cm) apart. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Other structural members (such as additional midrails and architectural panels) shall be installed such that there are no openings in the guardrail system that are more than 19 inches (.5 m) wide. 
</P>
<P>(3) Guardrail systems shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 200 pounds (890 N) applied within 2 inches (5.1 cm) of the top edge, in any outward or downward direction, at any point along the top edge. 
</P>
<P>(4) When the 200 pound (890 N) test load specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section (§ 1926.502) is applied in a downward direction, the top edge of the guardrail shall not deflect to a height less than 39 inches (1.0 m) above the walking/working level. Guardrail system components selected and constructed in accordance with the appendix B to subpart M of this part will be deemed to meet this requirement. 
</P>
<P>(5) Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, solid panels, and equivalent structural members shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 150 pounds (666 N) applied in any downward or outward direction at any point along the midrail or other member. 
</P>
<P>(6) Guardrail systems shall be so surfaced as to prevent injury to an employee from punctures or lacerations, and to prevent snagging of clothing. 
</P>
<P>(7) The ends of all top rails and midrails shall not overhang the terminal posts, except where such overhang does not constitute a projection hazard. 
</P>
<P>(8) Steel banding and plastic banding shall not be used as top rails or midrails. 
</P>
<P>(9) Top rails and midrails shall be at least one-quarter inch (0.6 cm) nominal diameter or thickness to prevent cuts and lacerations. If wire rope is used for top rails, it shall be flagged at not more than 6-foot intervals with high-visibility material. 
</P>
<P>(10) When guardrail systems are used at hoisting areas, a chain, gate or removable guardrail section shall be placed across the access opening between guardrail sections when hoisting operations are not taking place. 
</P>
<P>(11) When guardrail systems are used at holes, they shall be erected on all unprotected sides or edges of the hole. 
</P>
<P>(12) When guardrail systems are used around holes used for the passage of materials, the hole shall have not more than two sides provided with removable guardrail sections to allow the passage of materials. When the hole is not in use, it shall be closed over with a cover, or a guardrail system shall be provided along all unprotected sides or edges. 
</P>
<P>(13) When guardrail systems are used around holes which are used as points of access (such as ladderways), they shall be provided with a gate, or be so offset that a person cannot walk directly into the hole. 
</P>
<P>(14) Guardrail systems used on ramps and runways shall be erected along each unprotected side or edge. 
</P>
<P>(15) Manila, plastic or synthetic rope being used for top rails or midrails shall be inspected as frequently as necessary to ensure that it continues to meet the strength requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section (§ 1926.502). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safety net systems.</I> Safety net systems and their use shall comply with the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Safety nets shall be installed as close as practicable under the walking/working surface on which employees are working, but in no case more than 30 feet (9.1 m) below such level. When nets are used on bridges, the potential fall area from the walking/working surface to the net shall be unobstructed. 
</P>
<P>(2) Safety nets shall extend outward from the outermost projection of the work surface as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Vertical distance from working level to horizontal plane of net 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum required horizontal distance of outer edge of net from the edge of the working surface 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 5 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 feet 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 5 feet up to 10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 feet 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 10 feet</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13 feet</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Safety nets shall be installed with sufficient clearance under them to prevent contact with the surface or structures below when subjected to an impact force equal to the drop test specified in paragraph (4) of this section [§ 1926.502]. 
</P>
<P>(4) Safety nets and their installations shall be capable of absorbing an impact force equal to that produced by the drop test specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section [§ 1926.502]. 
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section (§ 1926.502), safety nets and safety net installations shall be drop-tested at the jobsite after initial installation and before being used as a fall protection system, whenever relocated, after major repair, and at 6-month intervals if left in one place. The drop-test shall consist of a 400 pound (180 kg) bag of sand 30 + or −2 inches (76 + or −5 cm) in diameter dropped into the net from the highest walking/working surface at which employees are exposed to fall hazards, but not from less than 42 inches (1.1 m) above that level. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When the employer can demonstrate that it is unreasonable to perform the drop-test required by paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section (§ 1926.502), the employer (or a designated competent person) shall certify that the net and net installation is in compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4)(i) of this section (§ 1926.502) by preparing a certification record prior to the net being used as a fall protection system. The certification record must include an identification of the net and net installation for which the certification record is being prepared; the date that it was determined that the identified net and net installation were in compliance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section (§ 1926.502) and the signature of the person making the determination and certification. The most recent certification record for each net and net installation shall be available at the jobsite for inspection. 
</P>
<P>(5) Defective nets shall not be used. Safety nets shall be inspected at least once a week for wear, damage, and other deterioration. Defective components shall be removed from service. Safety nets shall also be inspected after any occurrence which could affect the integrity of the safety net system. 
</P>
<P>(6) Materials, scrap pieces, equipment, and tools which have fallen into the safety net shall be removed as soon as possible from the net and at least before the next work shift. 
</P>
<P>(7) The maximum size of each safety net mesh opening shall not exceed 36 square inches (230 cm) nor be longer than 6 inches (15 cm) on any side, and the opening, measured center-to-center of mesh ropes or webbing, shall not be longer than 6 inches (15 cm). All mesh crossings shall be secured to prevent enlargement of the mesh opening. 
</P>
<P>(8) Each safety net (or section of it) shall have a border rope for webbing with a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN). 
</P>
<P>(9) Connections between safety net panels shall be as strong as integral net components and shall be spaced not more than 6 inches (15 cm) apart. 
</P>
<P>(d) “Personal fall arrest systems.” Personal fall arrest systems and their use shall comply with the provisions set forth below. Effective January 1, 1998, body belts are not acceptable as part of a personal fall arrest system. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The use of a body belt in a positioning device system is acceptable and is regulated under paragraph (e) of this section (§ 1926.502).</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) Connectors shall be drop forged, pressed or formed steel, or made of equivalent materials. 
</P>
<P>(2) Connectors shall have a corrosion-resistant finish, and all surfaces and edges shall be smooth to prevent damage to interfacing parts of the system. 
</P>
<P>(3) Dee-rings and snaphooks shall have a minimum tensile strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN). 
</P>
<P>(4) Dee-rings and snaphooks shall be proof-tested to a minimum tensile load of 3,600 pounds (16 kN) without cracking, breaking, or taking permanent deformation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Snaphooks shall be sized to be compatible with the member to which they are connected to prevent unintentional disengagement of the snaphook by depression of the snaphook keeper by the connected member, or shall be a locking type snaphook designed and used to prevent disengagement of the snaphook by the contact of the snaphook keeper by the connected member. Effective January 1, 1998, only locking type snaphooks shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(6) Unless the snaphook is a locking type and designed for the following connections, snaphooks shall not be engaged: 
</P>
<P>(i) directly to webbing, rope or wire rope; 
</P>
<P>(ii) to each other; 
</P>
<P>(iii) to a dee-ring to which another snaphook or other connector is attached; 
</P>
<P>(iv) to a horizontal lifeline; or 
</P>
<P>(v) to any object which is incompatibly shaped or dimensioned in relation to the snaphook such that unintentional disengagement could occur by the connected object being able to depress the snaphook keeper and release itself. 
</P>
<P>(7) On suspended scaffolds or similar work platforms with horizontal lifelines which may become vertical lifelines, the devices used to connect to a horizontal lifeline shall be capable of locking in both directions on the lifeline. 
</P>
<P>(8) Horizontal lifelines shall be designed, installed, and used, under the supervision of a qualified person, as part of a complete personal fall arrest system, which maintains a safety factor of at least two. 
</P>
<P>(9) Lanyards and vertical lifelines shall have a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN). 
</P>
<P>(10)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(10)(ii) of this section [§ 1926.502], when vertical lifelines are used, each employee shall be attached to a separate lifeline. 
</P>
<P>(ii) During the construction of elevator shafts, two employees may be attached to the same lifeline in the hoistway, provided both employees are working atop a false car that is equipped with guardrails; the strength of the lifeline is 10,000 pounds [5,000 pounds per employee attached] (44.4 kN); and all other criteria specified in this paragraph for lifelines have been met. 
</P>
<P>(11) Lifelines shall be protected against being cut or abraded. 
</P>
<P>(12) Self-retracting lifelines and lanyards which automatically limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less shall be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 3,000 pounds (13.3 kN) applied to the device with the lifeline or lanyard in the fully extended position. 
</P>
<P>(13) Self-retracting lifelines and lanyards which do not limit free fall distance to 2 feet (0.61 m) or less, ripstitch lanyards, and tearing and deforming lanyards shall be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN) applied to the device with the lifeline or lanyard in the fully extended position. 
</P>
<P>(14) Ropes and straps (webbing) used in lanyards, lifelines, and strength components of body belts and body harnesses shall be made from synthetic fibers. 
</P>
<P>(15) Anchorages used for attachment of personal fall arrest equipment shall be independent of any anchorage being used to support or suspend platforms and capable of supporting at least 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN) per employee attached, or shall be designed, installed, and used as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) as part of a complete personal fall arrest system which maintains a safety factor of at least two; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) under the supervision of a qualified person. 
</P>
<P>(16) Personal fall arrest systems, when stopping a fall, shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) limit maximum arresting force on an employee to 900 pounds (4 kN) when used with a body belt; 
</P>
<P>(ii) limit maximum arresting force on an employee to 1,800 pounds (8 kN) when used with a body harness; 
</P>
<P>(iii) be rigged such that an employee can neither free fall more than 6 feet (1.8 m), nor contact any lower level; 
</P>
<P>(iv) bring an employee to a complete stop and limit maximum deceleration distance an employee travels to 3.5 feet (1.07 m); and, 
</P>
<P>(v) have sufficient strength to withstand twice the potential impact energy of an employee free falling a distance of 6 feet (1.8 m), or the free fall distance permitted by the system, whichever is less.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If the personal fall arrest system meets the criteria and protocols contained in appendix C to subpart M, and if the system is being used by an employee having a combined person and tool weight of less than 310 pounds (140 kg), the system will be considered to be in compliance with the provisions of paragraph (d)(16) of this section [§ 1926.502]. If the system is used by an employee having a combined tool and body weight of 310 pounds (140 kg) or more, then the employer must appropriately modify the criteria and protocols of the appendix to provide proper protection for such heavier weights, or the system will not be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (d)(16) of this section (§ 1926.502).</P></NOTE>
<P>(17) The attachment point of the body belt shall be located in the center of the wearer's back. The attachment point of the body harness shall be located in the center of the wearer's back near shoulder level, or above the wearer's head. 
</P>
<P>(18) Body belts, harnesses, and components shall be used only for employee protection (as part of a personal fall arrest system or positioning device system) and not to hoist materials. 
</P>
<P>(19) Personal fall arrest systems and components subjected to impact loading shall be immediately removed from service and shall not be used again for employee protection until inspected and determined by a competent person to be undamaged and suitable for reuse. 
</P>
<P>(20) The employer shall provide for prompt rescue of employees in the event of a fall or shall assure that employees are able to rescue themselves. 
</P>
<P>(21) Personal fall arrest systems shall be inspected prior to each use for wear, damage and other deterioration, and defective components shall be removed from service. 
</P>
<P>(22) Body belts shall be at least one and five-eighths (1
<FR>5/8</FR>) inches (4.1 cm) wide. 
</P>
<P>(23) Personal fall arrest systems shall not be attached to guardrail systems, nor shall they be attached to hoists except as specified in other subparts of this Part. 
</P>
<P>(24) When a personal fall arrest system is used at hoist areas, it shall be rigged to allow the movement of the employee only as far as the edge of the walking/working surface. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Positioning device systems.</I> Positioning device systems and their use shall conform to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Positioning devices shall be rigged such that an employee cannot free fall more than 2 feet (.9 m). 
</P>
<P>(2) Positioning devices shall be secured to an anchorage capable of supporting at least twice the potential impact load of an employee's fall or 3,000 pounds (13.3 kN), whichever is greater. 
</P>
<P>(3) Connectors shall be drop forged, pressed or formed steel, or made of equivalent materials. 
</P>
<P>(4) Connectors shall have a corrosion-resistant finish, and all surfaces and edges shall be smooth to prevent damage to interfacing parts of this system. 
</P>
<P>(5) Connecting assemblies shall have a minimum tensile strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN) 
</P>
<P>(6) Dee-rings and snaphooks shall be proof-tested to a minimum tensile load of 3,600 pounds (16 kN) without cracking, breaking, or taking permanent deformation. 
</P>
<P>(7) Snaphooks shall be sized to be compatible with the member to which they are connected to prevent unintentional disengagement of the snaphook by depression of the snaphook keeper by the connected member, or shall be a locking type snaphook designed and used to prevent disengagement of the snaphook by the contact of the snaphook keeper by the connected member. As of January 1, 1998, only locking type snaphooks shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(8) Unless the snaphook is a locking type and designed for the following connections, snaphooks shall not be engaged: 
</P>
<P>(i) directly to webbing, rope or wire rope; 
</P>
<P>(ii) to each other; 
</P>
<P>(iii) to a dee-ring to which another snaphook or other connector is attached; 
</P>
<P>(iv) to a horizontal lifeline; or to depress the snaphook keeper and release itself. 
</P>
<P>(v) to any object which is incompatibly shaped or dimensioned in relation to the snaphook such that unintentional disengagement could occur by the connected object being able to depress the snaphook keeper and release itself. 
</P>
<P>(9) Positioning device systems shall be inspected prior to each use for wear, damage, and other deterioration, and defective components shall be removed from service. 
</P>
<P>(10) Body belts, harnesses, and components shall be used only for employee protection (as part of a personal fall arrest system or positioning device system) and not to hoist materials. 



</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.18.20.13.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Subpart R of Part 1926—Double Connections: Illustration of a Clipped End Connection and a Staggered Connection: Non-Mandatory Guidelines for Complying With § 1926.756(<E T="01">c</E>)(1)

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er18ja01.024.gif"/>
<P>Clipped end connections are connection material on the end of a structural member which has a notch at the bottom and/or top to allow the bolt(s) of the first member placed on the opposite side of the central member to remain in place. The notch(es) fits around the nut or bolt head of the opposing member to allow the second member to be bolted up without removing the bolt(s) holding the first member. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18ja01.025.gif"/>
<P>Staggered connections are connection material on a structural member in which all of the bolt holes in the common member web are not shared by the two incoming members in the final connection. The extra hole in the column web allows the erector to maintain at least a one bolt connection at all times while making the double connection.




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.19" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams and Compressed Air</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; and Secretary of Labor's Orders 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.800" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.19.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.800   Underground construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This section applies to the construction of underground tunnels, shafts, chambers, and passageways. This section also applies to cut-and-cover excavations which are both physically connected to ongoing underground construction operations within the scope of this section, and covered in such a manner as to create conditions characteristic of underground construction.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Excavation and trenching operations covered by subpart P of this part, such as foundation operations for above-ground structures that are not physically connected to underground construction operations, and surface excavation; nor
</P>
<P>(ii) Underground electrical transmission and distribution lines, as addressed in subpart V of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access and egress.</I> (1) The employer shall provide and maintain safe means of access and egress to all work stations.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall provide access and egress in such a manner that employees are protected from being struck by excavators, haulage machines, trains and other mobile equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall control access to all openings to prevent unauthorized entry underground. Unused chutes, manways, or other openings shall be tightly covered, bulkheaded, or fenced off, and shall be posted with warning signs indicating “Keep Out” or similar language. Completed or unused sections of the underground facility shall be barricaded.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Check-in/check-out.</I> The employer shall maintain a check-in/check-out procedure that will ensure that above-ground personnel can determine an accurate count of the number of persons underground in the event of an emergency. However, this procedure is not required when the construction of underground facilities designed for human occupancy has been sufficiently completed so that the permanent environmental controls are effective, and when the remaining construction activity will not cause any environmental hazard or structural failure within the facilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safety instruction.</I> All employees shall be instructed in the recognition and avoidance of hazards associated with underground construction activities including, where appropriate, the following subjects:
</P>
<P>(1) Air monitoring;
</P>
<P>(2) Ventilation;
</P>
<P>(3) Illumination;
</P>
<P>(4) Communications;
</P>
<P>(5) Flood control;
</P>
<P>(6) Mechanical equipment;
</P>
<P>(7) Personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(8) Explosives;
</P>
<P>(9) Fire prevention and protection; and
</P>
<P>(10) Emergency procedures, including evacuation plans and check-in/check-out systems.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification.</I> (1) Oncoming shifts shall be informed of any hazardous occurrences or conditions that have affected or might affect employee safety, including liberation of gas, equipment failures, earth or rock slides, cave-ins, floodings, fires or explosions.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall establish and maintain direct communications for coordination of activities with other employers whose operations at the jobsite affect or may affect the safety of employees underground.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Communications.</I> (1) When natural unassisted voice communication is ineffective, a power-assisted means of voice communication shall be used to provide communication between the work face, the bottom of the shaft, and the surface.
</P>
<P>(2) Two effective means of communication, at least one of which shall be voice communication, shall be provided in all shafts which are being developed or used either for personnel access or for hoisting. Additional requirements for hoist operator communication are contained in paragraph (t)(3)(xiv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Powered communication systems shall operate on an independent power supply, and shall be installed so that the use of or disruption of any one phone or signal location will not disrupt the operation of the system from any other location.
</P>
<P>(4) Communication systems shall be tested upon initial entry of each shift to the underground, and as often as necessary at later times, to ensure that they are in working order.
</P>
<P>(5) Any employee working alone underground in a hazardous location, who is both out of the range of natural unassisted voice communication and not under observation by other persons, shall be provided with an effective means of obtaining assistance in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Emergency provisions</I>—(1) <I>Hoisting capability.</I> When a shaft is used as a means of egress, the employer shall make advance arrangements for power-assisted hoisting capability to be readily available in an emergency, unless the regular hoisting means can continue to function in the event of an electrical power failure at the jobsite. Such hoisting means shall be designed so that the load hoist drum is powered in both directions of rotation and so that the brake is automatically applied upon power release or failure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Self-rescuers.</I> The employer must provide self-rescuers approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health under 42 CFR part 84. The respirators must be immediately available to all employees at work stations in underground areas where employees might be trapped by smoke or gas. The selection, issuance, use, and care of respirators must be in accordance with 29 CFR 1926.103.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Designated person.</I> At least one designated person shall be on duty above ground whenever any employee is working underground. This designated person shall be responsible for securing immediate aid and keeping an accurate count of employees underground in case of emergency. The designated person must not be so busy with other responsibilities that the counting function is encumbered.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Emergency lighting.</I> Each employee underground shall have an acceptable portable hand lamp or cap lamp in his or her work area for emergency use, unless natural light or an emergency lighting system provides adequate illumination for escape.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rescue teams.</I> (i) On jobsites where 25 or more employees work underground at one time, the employer shall provide (or make arrangements in advance with locally available rescue services to provide) at least two 5-person rescue teams, one on the jobsite or within one-half hour travel time from the entry point, and the other within 2 hours travel time.
</P>
<P>(ii) On jobsites where less than 25 employees work underground at one time, the employer shall provide (or make arrangements in advance with locally available rescue services to provide) at least one 5-person rescue team to be either on the jobsite or within one-half hour travel time from the entry point.
</P>
<P>(iii) Rescue team members shall be qualified in rescue procedures, the use and limitations of breathing apparatus, and the use of firefighting equipment. Qualifications shall be reviewed not less than annually.
</P>
<P>(iv) On jobsites where flammable or noxious gases are encountered or anticipated in hazardous quantities, rescue team members shall practice donning and using self-contained breathing apparatus monthly.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall ensure that rescue teams are familiar with conditions at the jobsite.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hazardous classifications</I>—(1) <I>Potentially gassy operations.</I> Underground construction operations shall be classified as potentially gassy if either:
</P>
<P>(i) Air monitoring discloses 10 percent or more of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases measured at 12 inches (304.8 mm) ±0.25 inch (6.35 mm) from the roof, face, floor or walls in any underground work area for more than a 24-hour period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The history of the geographical area or geological formation indicates that 10 percent or more of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases is likely to be encountered in such underground operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Gassy operations.</I> Underground construction operations shall be classified as gassy if:
</P>
<P>(i) Air monitoring discloses 10 percent or more of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases measured at 12 inches (304.8 mm) ±0.25 inch (6.35 mm) from the roof, face, floor or walls in any underground work area for three consecutive days; or
</P>
<P>(ii) There has been an ignition of methane or of other flammable gases emanating from the strata that indicates the presence of such gases; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The underground construction operation is both connected to an underground work area which is currently classified as gassy and is also subject to a continuous course of air containing the flammable gas concentration.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Declassification to potentially gassy operations.</I> Underground construction gassy operations may be declassified to Potentially Gassy when air monitoring results remain under 10 percent of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases for three consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Gassy operations-additional requirements.</I> (1) Only acceptable equipment, maintained in suitable condition, shall be used in gassy operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Mobile diesel-powered equipment used in gassy operations shall be either approved in accordance with the requirements of 30 CFR part 36 (formerly Schedule 31) by MSHA, or shall be demonstrated by the employer to be fully equivalent to such MSHA-approved equipment, and shall be operated in accordance with that part.
</P>
<P>(3) Each entrance to a gassy operation shall be prominently posted with signs notifying all entrants of the gassy classification.
</P>
<P>(4) Smoking shall be prohibited in all gassy operations and the employer shall be responsible for collecting all personal sources of ignition, such as matches and lighters, from all persons entering a gassy operation.
</P>
<P>(5) A fire watch as described in § 1926.352(e) shall be maintained when hot work is performed.
</P>
<P>(6) Once an operation has met the criteria in paragraph (h)(2) warranting classification as gassy, all operations in the affected area, except the following, shall be discontinued until the operation either is in compliance with all of the gassy operation requirements or has been declassified in accordance with paragraph (h)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Operations related to the control of the gas concentration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Installation of new equipment, or conversion of existing equipment, to comply with this paragraph (i); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Installation of above-ground controls for reversing the air flow.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Air quality and monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Air quality limits and control requirements for construction are found in § 1926.55, except as modified by this section.
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The employer shall assign a competent person who shall perform all air monitoring required by this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Where this paragraph requires monitoring of airborne contaminants “as often as necessary,” the competent person shall make a reasonable determination as to which substances to monitor and how frequently to monitor, considering at least the following factors:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Location of jobsite: Proximity to fuel tanks, sewers, gas lines, old landfills, coal deposits, and swamps;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Geology: Geological studies of the jobsite, particularly involving the soil type and its permeability;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) History: Presence of air contaminants in nearby jobsites, changes in levels of substances monitored on the prior shift; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Work practices and jobsite conditions: The use of diesel engines, use of explosives, use of fuel gas, volume and flow of ventilation, visible atmospheric conditions, decompression of the atmosphere, welding, cutting and hot work, and employees' physical reactions to working underground.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The atmosphere in all underground work areas shall be tested as often as necessary to assure that the atmosphere at normal atmospheric pressure contains at least 19.5 percent oxygen and no more than 22 percent oxygen.
</P>
<P>(B) Tests for oxygen content shall be made before tests for air contaminants.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) The atmosphere in all underground work areas shall be tested quantitatively for carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, hydrogen sulfide, and other toxic gases, dusts, vapors, mists, and fumes as often as necessary to ensure that the permissible exposure limits prescribed in § 1926.55 are not exceeded.
</P>
<P>(B) The atmosphere in all underground work areas shall be tested quantitatively for methane and other flammable gases as often as necessary to determine:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether action is to be taken under paragraphs (j)(1)(vii), (viii), and (ix), of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Whether an operation is to be classified potentially gassy or gassy under paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) If diesel-engine or gasoline-engine driven ventilating fans or compressors are used, an initial test shall be made of the inlet air of the fan or compressor, with the engines operating, to ensure that the air supply is not contaminated by engine exhaust.
</P>
<P>(D) Testing shall be performed as often as necessary to ensure that the ventilation requirements of paragraph (k) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(iv) When rapid excavation machines are used, a continuous flammable gas monitor shall be operated at the face with the sensor(s) placed as high and close to the front of the machine's cutter head as practicable.
</P>
<P>(v)(A) Whenever air monitoring indicates the presence of 5 ppm or more of hydrogen sulfide, a test shall be conducted in the affected underground work area(s), at least at the beginning and midpoint of each shift, until the concentration of hydrogen sulfide has been less than 5 ppm for 3 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(B) Whenever hydrogen sulfide is detected in an amount exceeding 10 ppm, a continuous sampling and indicating hydrogen sulfide monitor shall be used to monitor the affected work area.
</P>
<P>(C) Employees shall be informed when a concentration of 10 ppm hydrogen sulfide is exceeded.
</P>
<P>(D) The continuous sampling and indicating hydrogen sulfide monitor shall be designed, installed, and maintained to provide a visual and aural alarm when the hydrogen sulfide concentration reaches 20 ppm to signal that additional measures, such as respirator use, increased ventilation, or evacuation, might be necessary to maintain hydrogen sulfide exposure below the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(vi) When the competent person determines, on the basis of air monitoring results or other information, that air contaminants may be present in sufficient quantity to be dangerous to life, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Prominently post a notice at all entrances to the underground jobsite to inform all entrants of the hazardous condition; and
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that the necessary precautions are taken.
</P>
<P>(vii) Whenever five percent or more of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases is detected in any underground work area(s) or in the air return, steps shall be taken to increase ventilation air volume or otherwise control the gas concentration, unless the employer is operating in accordance with the potentially gassy or gassy operation requirements. Such additional ventilation controls may be discontinued when gas concentrations are reduced below five percent of the lower explosive limit, but shall be reinstituted whenever the five percent level is exceeded.
</P>
<P>(viii) Whenever 10 percent or more of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases is detected in the vicinity of welding, cutting, or other hot work, such work shall be suspended until the concentration of such flammable gas is reduced to less than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit.
</P>
<P>(ix) Whenever 20 percent or more of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases is detected in any underground work area(s) or in the air return:
</P>
<P>(A) All employees, except those necessary to eliminate the hazard, shall be immediately withdrawn to a safe location above ground; and
</P>
<P>(B) Electrical power, except for acceptable pumping and ventilation equipment, shall be cut off to the area endangered by the flammable gas until the concentration of such gas is reduced to less than 20 percent of the lower explosive limit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional monitoring for potentially gassy and gassy operations.</I> Operations which meet the criteria for potentially gassy and gassy operations set forth in paragraph (h) of this section shall be subject to the additional monitoring requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) A test for oxygen content shall be conducted in the affected underground work areas and work areas immediately adjacent to such areas at least at the beginning and midpoint of each shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) When using rapid excavation machines, continuous automatic flammable gas monitoring equipment shall be used to monitor the air at the heading, on the rib, and in the return air duct. The continuous monitor shall signal the heading, and shut down electric power in the affected underground work area, except for acceptable pumping and ventilation equipment, when 20 percent or more of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases is encountered.
</P>
<P>(iii) A manual flammable gas monitor shall be used as needed, but at least at the beginning and midpoint of each shift, to ensure that the limits prescribed in paragraphs (h) and (j) are not exceeded. In addition, a manual electrical shut down control shall be provided near the heading.
</P>
<P>(iv) Local gas tests shall be made prior to and continuously during any welding, cutting, or other hot work.
</P>
<P>(v) In underground operations driven by drill-and-blast methods, the air in the affected area shall be tested for flammable gas prior to re-entry after blasting, and continuously when employees are working underground.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> A record of all air quality tests shall be maintained above ground at the worksite and be made available to the Secretary of Labor upon request. The record shall include the location, date, time, substance and amount monitored. Records of exposures to toxic substances shall be retained in accordance with § 1910.33 of this chapter. All other air quality test records shall be retained until completion of the project.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Ventilation.</I> (1)(i) Fresh air shall be supplied to all underground work areas in sufficient quantities to prevent dangerous or harmful accumulation of dusts, fumes, mists, vapors or gases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mechanical ventilation shall be provided in all underground work areas except when the employer can demonstrate that natural ventilation provides the necessary air quality through sufficient air volume and air flow.
</P>
<P>(2) A minimum of 200 cubic feet (5.7 m
<SU>3</SU>) of fresh air per minute shall be supplied for each employee underground.
</P>
<P>(3) The linear velocity of air flow in the tunnel bore, in shafts, and in all other underground work areas shall be at least 30 feet (9.15 m) per minute where blasting or rock drilling is conducted, or where other conditions likely to produce dust, fumes, mists, vapors, or gases in harmful or explosive quantities are present.
</P>
<P>(4) The direction of mechanical air flow shall be reversible.
</P>
<P>(5) Following blasting, ventilation systems shall exhaust smoke and fumes to the outside atmosphere before work is resumed in affected areas.
</P>
<P>(6) Ventilation doors shall be designed and installed so that they remain closed when in use, regardless of the direction of the air flow.
</P>
<P>(7) When ventilation has been reduced to the extent that hazardous levels of methane or flammable gas may have accumulated, a competent person shall test all affected areas after ventilation has been restored and shall determine whether the atmosphere is within flammable limits before any power, other than for acceptable equipment, is restored or work is resumed.
</P>
<P>(8) Whenever the ventilation system has been shut down with all employees out of the underground area, only competent persons authorized to test for air contaminants shall be allowed underground until the ventilation has been restored and all affected areas have been tested for air contaminants and declared safe.
</P>
<P>(9) When drilling rock or concrete, appropriate dust control measures shall be taken to maintain dust levels within limits set in § 1926.55. Such measures may include, but are not limited to, wet drilling, the use of vacuum collectors, and water mix spray systems.
</P>
<P>(10)(i) Internal combustion engines, except diesel-powered engines on mobile equipment, are prohibited underground.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mobile diesel-powered equipment used underground in atmospheres other than gassy operations:
</P>
<P>(A) Shall comply with MSHA provisions in 30 CFR 57.5067; or
</P>
<P>(B) If purchased on or before July 15, 2019, may alternatively comply with MSHA provisions under 30 CFR part 32 (revised as of July 1, 1996) (formerly Schedule 24), or be demonstrated by the employer to be fully equivalent to such MSHA-approved equipment, and be operated in accordance with that part.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (k)(10), when an applicable MSHA provision uses the term “mine,” use the phrase “underground construction site.” (Each brake horsepower of a diesel engine requires at least 100 cubic feet (2.832 m
<SU>3</SU>) of air per minute for suitable operation in addition to the air requirements for personnel. Some engines may require a greater amount of air to ensure that the allowable levels of carbon monoxide, nitric oxide, and nitrogen dioxide are not exceeded.)
</P>
<P>(11) Potentially gassy or gassy operations shall have ventilation systems installed which shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be constructed of fire-resistant materials; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Have acceptable electrical systems, including fan motors.
</P>
<P>(12) Gassy operations shall be provided with controls located above ground for reversing the air flow of ventilation systems.
</P>
<P>(13) In potentially gassy or gassy operations, wherever mine-type ventilation systems using an offset main fan installed on the surface are used, they shall be equipped with explosion-doors or a weak-wall having an area at least equivalent to the cross-sectional area of the airway.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Illumination.</I> (1) Illumination requirements applicable to underground construction operations are found in <I>Table D-3</I> of § 1926.56 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Only acceptable portable lighting equipment shall be used within 50 feet (15.24 m) of any underground heading during explosives handling.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Fire prevention and control.</I> Fire prevention and protection requirements applicable to underground construction operations are found in subpart F of this part, except as modified by the following additional standards.
</P>
<P>(1) Open flames and fires are prohibited in all underground construction operations except as permitted for welding, cutting and other hot work operations in paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Smoking may be allowed only in areas free of fire and explosion hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) Readily visible signs prohibiting smoking and open flames shall be posted in areas having fire or explosion hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer may store underground no more than a 24-hour supply of diesel fuel for the underground equipment used at the worksite.
</P>
<P>(4) The piping of diesel fuel from the surface to an underground location is permitted only if:
</P>
<P>(i) Diesel fuel is contained at the surface in a tank whose maximum capacity is no more than the amount of fuel required to supply for a 24-hour period the equipment serviced by the underground fueling station; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The surface tank is connected to the underground fueling station by an acceptable pipe or hose system that is controlled at the surface by a valve, and at the shaft bottom by a hose nozzle; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The pipe is empty at all times except when transferring diesel fuel from the surface tank to a piece of equipment in use underground; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Hoisting operations in the shaft are suspended during refueling operations if the supply piping in the shaft is not protected from damage.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Gasoline shall not be carried, stored, or used underground.
</P>
<P>(ii) Acetylene, liquefied petroleum gas, and Methylacetylene Propadiene Stabilized gas may be used underground only for welding, cutting and other hot work, and only in accordance with subpart J of this part, and paragraphs (j), (k), (m), and (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Oil, grease, and diesel fuel stored underground shall be kept in tightly sealed containers in fire-resistant areas at least 300 feet (91.44 m) from underground explosive magazines, and at least 100 feet (30.48 m) from shaft stations and steeply inclined passageways. Storage areas shall be positioned or diked so that the contents of ruptured or overturned containers will not flow from the storage area.
</P>
<P>(7) Flammable or combustible materials shall not be stored above ground within 100 feet (30.48 m) of any access opening to any underground operation. Where this is not feasible because of space limitations at the jobsite, such materials may be located within the 100-foot limit, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) They are located as far as practicable from the opening; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Either a fire-resistant barrier of not less than one-hour rating is placed between the stored material and the opening, or additional precautions are taken which will protect the materials from ignition sources.
</P>
<P>(8) Fire-resistant hydraulic fluids shall be used in hydraulically-actuated underground machinery and equipment unless such equipment is protected by a fire suppression system or by multi-purpose fire extinguisher(s) rated at of sufficient capacity for the type and size of hydraulic equipment involved, but rated at least 4A:40B:C.
</P>
<P>(9)(i) Electrical installations in underground areas where oil, grease, or diesel fuel are stored shall be used only for lighting fixtures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lighting fixtures in storage areas, or within 25 feet (7.62 m) of underground areas where oil, grease, or diesel fuel are stored, shall be approved for Class I, Division 2 locations, in accordance with subpart K of this part.
</P>
<P>(10) Leaks and spills of flammable or combustible fluids shall be cleaned up immediately.
</P>
<P>(11) A fire extinguisher of at least 4A:40B:C rating or other equivalent extinguishing means shall be provided at the head pulley and at the tail pulley of underground belt conveyors.
</P>
<P>(12) Any structure located underground or within 100 feet (30.48 m) of an opening to the underground shall be constructed of material having a fire-resistance rating of at least one hour.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Welding, cutting, and other hot work.</I> In addition to the requirements of subpart J of this part, the following requirements shall apply to underground welding, cutting, and other hot work.
</P>
<P>(1) No more than the amount of fuel gas and oxygen cylinders necessary to perform welding, cutting, or other hot work during the next 24-hour period shall be permitted underground.
</P>
<P>(2) Noncombustible barriers shall be installed below welding, cutting, or other hot work being done in or over a shaft or raise.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Ground support</I>—(1) <I>Portal areas.</I> Portal openings and access areas shall be guarded by shoring, fencing, head walls, shotcreting or other equivalent protection to ensure safe access of employees and equipment. Adjacent areas shall be scaled or otherwise secured to prevent loose soil, rock, or fractured materials from endangering the portal and access area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsidence areas.</I> The employer shall ensure ground stability in hazardous subsidence areas by shoring, by filling in, or by erecting barricades and posting warning signs to prevent entry.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Underground areas.</I> (i)(A) A competent person shall inspect the roof, face, and walls of the work area at the start of each shift and as often as necessary to determine ground stability.
</P>
<P>(B) Competent persons conducting such inspections shall be protected from loose ground by location, ground support or equivalent means.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ground conditions along haulageways and travelways shall be inspected as frequently as necessary to ensure safe passage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Loose ground that might be hazardous to employees shall be taken down, scaled or supported.
</P>
<P>(iv) (A) Torque wrenches shall be used wherever bolts that depend on torsionally applied force are used for ground support.
</P>
<P>(B) A competent person shall determine whether rock bolts meet the necessary torque, and shall determine the testing frequency in light of the bolt system, ground conditions and the distance from vibration sources.
</P>
<P>(v) Suitable protection shall be provided for employees exposed to the hazard of loose ground while installing ground support systems.
</P>
<P>(vi) Support sets shall be installed so that the bottoms have sufficient anchorage to prevent ground pressures from dislodging the support base of the sets. Lateral bracing (collar bracing, tie rods, or spreaders) shall be provided between immediately adjacent sets to ensure added stability.
</P>
<P>(vii) Damaged or dislodged ground supports that create a hazardous condition shall be promptly repaired or replaced. When replacing supports, the new supports shall be installed before the damaged supports are removed.
</P>
<P>(viii) A shield or other type of support shall be used to maintain a safe travelway for employees working in dead-end areas ahead of any support replacement operation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Shafts.</I> (i) Shafts and wells over 5 feet (1.53 m) in depth that employees must enter shall be supported by a steel casing, concrete pipe, timber, solid rock or other suitable material.
</P>
<P>(ii) (A) The full depth of the shaft shall be supported by casing or bracing except where the shaft penetrates into solid rock having characteristics that will not change as a result of exposure. Where the shaft passes through earth into solid rock, or through solid rock into earth, and where there is potential for shear, the casing or bracing shall extend at least 5 feet (1.53 m) into the solid rock. When the shaft terminates in solid rock, the casing or bracing shall extend to the end of the shaft or 5 feet (1.53 m) into the solid rock, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(B) The casing or bracing shall extend 42 inches (1.07 m) plus or minus 3 inches (8 cm) above ground level, except that the minimum casing height may be reduced to 12 inches (0.3 m), provided that a standard railing is installed; that the ground adjacent to the top of the shaft is sloped away from the shaft collar to prevent entry of liquids; and that effective barriers are used to prevent mobile equipment operating near the shaft from jumping over the 12 inch (0.3 m) barrier.
</P>
<P>(iii) After blasting operations in shafts, a competent person shall determine if the walls, ladders, timbers, blocking, or wedges have loosened. If so, necessary repairs shall be made before employees other than those assigned to make the repairs are allowed in or below the affected areas.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Blasting.</I> This paragraph applies in addition to the requirements for blasting and explosives operations, including handling of misfires, which are found in subpart U of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Blasting wires shall be kept clear of electrical lines, pipes, rails, and other conductive material, excluding earth, to prevent explosives initiation or employee exposure to electric current.
</P>
<P>(2) Following blasting, an employee shall not enter a work area until the air quality meets the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Drilling.</I> (1) A competent person shall inspect all drilling and associated equipment prior to each use. Equipment defects affecting safety shall be corrected before the equipment is used.
</P>
<P>(2) The drilling area shall be inspected for hazards before the drilling operation is started.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees shall not be allowed on a drill mast while the drill bit is in operation or the drill machine is being moved.
</P>
<P>(4) When a drill machine is being moved from one drilling area to another, drill steel, tools, and other equipment shall be secured and the mast shall be placed in a safe position.
</P>
<P>(5) Receptacles or racks shall be provided for storing drill steel located on jumbos.
</P>
<P>(6) Employees working below jumbo decks shall be warned whenever drilling is about to begin.
</P>
<P>(7) Drills on columns shall be anchored firmly before starting drilling, and shall be retightened as necessary thereafter.
</P>
<P>(8) (i) The employer shall provide mechanical means on the top deck of a jumbo for lifing unwieldy or heavy material.
</P>
<P>(ii) When jumbo decks are over 10 feet (3.05 m) in height, the employer shall install stairs wide enough for two persons.
</P>
<P>(iii) Jumbo decks more than 10 feet (3.05 m) in height shall be equipped with guardrails on all open sides, excluding access openings of platforms, unless an adjacent surface provides equivalent fall protection.
</P>
<P>(iv) (A) Only employees assisting the operator shall be allowed to ride on jumbos, unless the jumbo meets the requirements of paragraph (r)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Jumbos shall be chocked to prevent movement while employees are working on them.
</P>
<P>(v) (A) Walking and working surfaces of jumbos shall be maintained to prevent the hazards of slipping, tripping and falling.
</P>
<P>(B) Jumbo decks and stair treads shall be designed to be slip-resistent and secured to prevent accidental displacement.
</P>
<P>(9) Scaling bars shall be available at scaling operations and shall be maintained in good condition at all times. Blunted or severely worn bars shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(10)(i) Blasting holes shall not be drilled through blasted rock (muck) or water.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees in a shaft shall be protected either by location or by suitable barrier(s) if powered mechanical loading equipment is used to remove muck containing unfired explosives.
</P>
<P>(11) A caution sign reading “Buried Line,” or similar wording shall be posted where air lines are buried or otherwise hidden by water or debris.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Haulage.</I> (1)(i) A competent person shall inspect haulage equipment before each shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment defects affecting safety and health shall be corrected before the equipment is used.
</P>
<P>(2) Powered mobile haulage equipment shall have suitable means of stopping.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Power mobile haulage equipment, including trains, shall have audible warning devices to warn employees to stay clear. The operator shall sound the warning device before moving the equipment and whenever necessary during travel.
</P>
<P>(ii) The operator shall assure that lights which are visible to employees at both ends of any mobile equipment, including a train, are turned on whenever the equipment is operating.
</P>
<P>(4) In those cabs where glazing is used, the glass shall be safety glass, or its equivalent, and shall be maintained and cleaned so that vision is not obstructed.
</P>
<P>(5) Anti-roll back devices or brakes shall be installed on inclined conveyor drive units to prevent conveyors from inadvertently running in reverse.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) (A) Employees shall not be permitted to ride a power-driven chain, belt, or bucket conveyor unless the conveyor is specifically designed for the transportation of persons.
</P>
<P>(B) Endless belt-type manlifts are prohibited in underground construction.
</P>
<P>(C) General requirements also applicable to underground construction for use of conveyors in construction are found in § 1926.555 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) No employee shall ride haulage equipment unless it is equipped with seating for each passenger and protects passengers from being struck, crushed, or caught between other equipment or surfaces. Members of train crews may ride on a locomotive if it is equipped with handholds and nonslip steps or footboards. Requirements applicable to Underground Construction for motor vehicle transportation of employees are found in § 1926.601 of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Powered mobile haulage equipment, including trains, shall not be left unattended unless the master switch or motor is turned off; operating controls are in neutral or park position; and the brakes are set, or equivalent precautions are taken to prevent rolling.
</P>
<P>(8) Whenever rails serve as a return for a trolley circuit, both rails shall be bonded at every joint and crossbonded every 200 feet (60.96 m).
</P>
<P>(9) When dumping cars by hand, the car dumps shall have tiedown chains, bumper blocks, or other locking or holding devices to prevent the cars from overturning.
</P>
<P>(10) Rocker-bottom or bottom-dump cars shall be equipped with positive locking devices to prevent unintended dumping.
</P>
<P>(11) Equipment to be hauled shall be loaded and secured to prevent sliding or dislodgement.
</P>
<P>(12)(i) Mobile equipment, including rail-mounted equipment, shall be stopped for manual connecting or service work.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees shall not reach between moving cars during coupling operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Couplings shall not be aligned, shifted or cleaned on moving cars or locomotives.
</P>
<P>(13)(i) Safety chains or other connections shall be used in addition to couplers to connect man cars or powder cars whenever the locomotive is uphill of the cars.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the grade exceeds one percent and there is a potential for runaway cars, safety chains or other connections shall be used in addition to couplers to connect haulage cars or, as an alternative, the locomotive must be downhill of the train.
</P>
<P>(iii) Such safety chains or other connections shall be capable of maintaining connection between cars in the event of either coupler disconnect, failure or breakage.
</P>
<P>(14) Parked rail equipment shall be chocked, blocked, or have brakes set to prevent inadvertent movement.
</P>
<P>(15) Berms, bumper blocks, safety hooks, or equivalent means shall be provided to prevent overtravel and overturning of haulage equipment at dumping locations.
</P>
<P>(16) Bumper blocks or equivalent stopping devices shall be provided at all track dead ends.
</P>
<P>(17)(i) Only small handtools, lunch pails or similar small items may be transported with employees in man-cars, or on top of a locomotive.
</P>
<P>(ii) When small hand tools or other small items are carried on top of a locomotive, the top shall be designed or modified to retain them while traveling.
</P>
<P>(18)(i) Where switching facilities are available, occupied personnel-cars shall be pulled, not pushed. If personnel-cars must be pushed and visibility of the track ahead is hampered, then a qualified person shall be stationed in the lead car to give signals to the locomotive operator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Crew trips shall consist of personnel-loads only.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Electrical safety.</I> This paragraph applies in addition to the general requirements for electrical safety which are found in subpart K of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Electric power lines shall be insulated or located away from water lines, telephone lines, air lines, or other conductive materials so that a damaged circuit will not energize the other systems.
</P>
<P>(2) Lighting circuits shall be located so that movement of personnel or equipment will not damage the circuits or disrupt service.
</P>
<P>(3) Oil-filled transformers shall not be used underground unless they are located in a fire-resistant enclosure suitably vented to the outside and surrounded by a dike to retain the contents of the transformers in the event of rupture.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Hoisting unique to underground construction.</I> Except as modified by this paragraph (t), employers must: Comply with the requirements of subpart CC of this part, except that the limitation in § 1926.1431(a) does not apply to the routine access of employees to an underground worksite via a shaft; ensure that material hoists comply with § 1926.552(a) and (b) of this part; and ensure that personnel hoists comply with the personnel-hoists requirements of § 1926.552(a) and (c) of this part and the elevator requirements of § 1926.552(a) and (d) of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General requirements for cranes and hoists.</I> (i) Materials, tools, and supplies being raised or lowered, whether within a cage or otherwise, shall be secured or stacked in a manner to prevent the load from shifting, snagging or falling into the shaft.
</P>
<P>(ii) A warning light suitably located to warn employees at the shaft bottom and subsurface shaft entrances shall flash whenever a load is above the shaft bottom or subsurface entrances, or the load is being moved in the shaft. This paragraph does not apply to fully enclosed hoistways.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever a hoistway is not fully enclosed and employees are at the shaft bottom, conveyances or equipment shall be stopped at least 15 feet (4.57 m) above the bottom of the shaft and held there until the signalman at the bottom of the shaft directs the operator to continue lowering the load, except that the load may be lowered without stopping if the load or conveyance is within full view of a bottom signalman who is in constant voice communication with the operator.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) Before maintenance, repairs, or other work is commenced in the shaft served by a cage, skip, or bucket, the operator and other employees in the area shall be informed and given suitable instructions.
</P>
<P>(B) A sign warning that work is being done in the shaft shall be installed at the shaft collar, at the operator's station, and at each underground landing.
</P>
<P>(v) Any connection between the hoisting rope and the cage or skip shall be compatible with the type of wire rope used for hoisting.
</P>
<P>(vi) Spin-type connections, where used, shall be maintained in a clean condition and protected from foreign matter that could affect their operation.
</P>
<P>(vii) Cage, skip, and load connections to the hoist rope shall be made so that the force of the hoist pull, vibration, misalignment, release of lift force, or impact will not disengage the connection. Moused or latched openthroat hooks do not meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(viii) When using wire rope wedge sockets, means shall be provided to prevent wedge escapement and to ensure that the wedge is properly seated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional requirements for cranes.</I> Cranes shall be equipped with a limit switch to prevent overtravel at the boom tip. Limit switches are to be used only to limit travel of loads when operational controls malfunction and shall not be used as a substitute for other operational controls.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional requirements for hoists.</I> (i) Hoists shall be designed so that the load hoist drum is powered in both directions of rotation, and so that brakes are automatically applied upon power release or failure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Control levers shall be of the “deadman type” which return automatically to their center (neutral) position upon release.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a hoist is used for both personnel hoisting and material hoisting, load and speed ratings for personnel and for materials shall be assigned to the equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) Material hoisting may be performed at speeds higher than the rated speed for personnel hoisting if the hoist and components have been designed for such higher speeds and if shaft conditions permit.
</P>
<P>(v) Employees shall not ride on top of any cage, skip or bucket except when necessary to perform inspection or maintenance of the hoisting system, in which case they shall be protected by a body belt/harness system to prevent falling.
</P>
<P>(vi) Personnel and materials (other than small tools and supplies secured in a manner that will not create a hazard to employees) shall not be hoisted together in the same conveyance. However, if the operator is protected from the shifting of materials, then the operator may ride with materials in cages or skips which are designed to be controlled by an operator within the cage or skip.
</P>
<P>(vii) Line speed shall not exceed the design limitations of the systems.
</P>
<P>(viii) Hoists shall be equipped with landing level indicators at the operator's station. Marking the hoist rope does not satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<P>(ix) Whenever glazing is used in the hoist house, it shall be safety glass, or its equivalent, and be free of distortions and obstructions.
</P>
<P>(x) A fire extinguisher that is rated at least 2A:10B:C (multi-purpose, dry chemical) shall be mounted in each hoist house.
</P>
<P>(xi) Hoist controls shall be arranged so that the operator can perform all operating cycle functions and reach the emergency power cutoff without having to reach beyond the operator's normal operating position.
</P>
<P>(xii) Hoists shall be equipped with limit switches to prevent overtravel at the top and bottom of the hoistway.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Limit switches are to be used only to limit travel of loads when operational controls malfunction and shall not be used as a substitute for other operational controls.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Hoist operators shall be provided with a closed-circuit voice communication system to each landing station, with speaker microphones so located that the operator can communicate with individual landing stations during hoist use.
</P>
<P>(xv) When sinking shafts 75 feet (22.86 m) or less in depth, cages, skips, and buckets that may swing, bump, or snag against shaft sides or other structural protrusions shall be guided by fenders, rails, ropes, or a combination of those means.
</P>
<P>(xvi) When sinking shafts more than 75 feet (22.86 m) in depth, all cages, skips, and buckets shall be rope or rail guided to within a rail length from the sinking operation.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Cages, skips, and buckets in all completed shafts, or in all shafts being used as completed shafts, shall be rope or rail-guided for the full length of their travel.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Wire rope used in load lines of material hoists shall be capable of supporting, without failure, at least five times the maximum intended load or the factor recommended by the rope manufacturer, whichever is greater. Refer to § 1926.552(c)(14)(iii) of this part for design factors for wire rope used in personnel hoists. The design factor shall be calculated by dividing the breaking strength of wire rope, as reported in the manufacturer's rating tables, by the total static load, including the weight of the wire rope in the shaft when fully extended.
</P>
<P>(xix) A competent person shall visually check all hoisting machinery, equipment, anchorages, and hoisting rope at the beginning of each shift and during hoist use, as necessary.
</P>
<P>(xx) Each safety device shall be checked by a competent person at least weekly during hoist use to ensure suitable operation and safe condition.
</P>
<P>(xxi) In order to ensure suitable operation and safe condition of all functions and safety devices, each hoist assembly shall be inspected and load-tested to 100 percent of its rated capacity: at the time of installation; after any repairs or alterations affecting its structural integrity; after the operation of any safety device; and annually when in use. The employer shall prepare a certification record which includes the date each inspection and load-test was performed; the signature of the person who performed the inspection and test; and a serial number or other identifier for the hoist that was inspected and tested. The most recent certification record shall be maintained on file until completion of the project.
</P>
<P>(xxii) Before hoisting personnel or material, the operator shall perform a test run of any cage or skip whenever it has been out of service for one complete shift, and whenever the assembly or components have been repaired or adjusted.
</P>
<P>(xxiii) Unsafe conditions shall be corrected before using the equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional requirements for personnel hoists.</I> (i) Hoist drum systems shall be equipped with at least two means of stopping the load, each of which shall be capable of stopping and holding 150 percent of the hoist's rated line pull. A broken-rope safety, safety catch, or arrestment device is not a permissible means of stopping under this paragraph (t).
</P>
<P>(ii) The operator shall remain within sight and sound of the signals at the operator's station.
</P>
<P>(iii) All sides of personnel cages shall be enclosed by one-half inch (12.70 mm) wire mesh (not less than No. 14 gauge or equivalent) to a height of not less than 6 feet (1.83 m). However, when the cage or skip is being used as a work platform, its sides may be reduced in height to 42 inches (1.07 m) when the conveyance is not in motion.
</P>
<P>(iv) All personnel cages shall be provided with a positive locking door that does not open outward.
</P>
<P>(v) All personnel cages shall be provided with a protective canopy. The canopy shall be made of steel plate, at least 3/16-inch (4.763 mm) in thickness, or material of equivalent strength and impact resistance. The canopy shall be sloped to the outside, and so designed that a section may be readily pushed upward to afford emergency egress. The canopy shall cover the top in such a manner as to protect those inside from objects falling in the shaft.
</P>
<P>(vi) Personnel platforms operating on guide rails or guide ropes shall be equipped with broken-rope safety devices, safety catches or arrestment devices that will stop and hold 150 percent of the weight of the personnel platform and its maximum rated load.
</P>
<P>(vii) During sinking operations in shafts where guides and safeties are not yet used, the travel speed of the personnel platform shall not exceed 200 feet (60.96 m) per minute. Governor controls set for 200 feet (60.96 m) per minute shall be installed in the control system and shall be used during personnel hoisting.
</P>
<P>(viii) The personnel platform may travel over the controlled length of the hoistway at rated speeds up to 600 feet (182.88 m) per minute during sinking operations in shafts where guides and safeties are used.
</P>
<P>(ix) The personnel platform may travel at rated speeds greater than 600 feet (182.88 m) per minute in completed shafts.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Definitions.</I> “Accept”—Any device, equipment, or appliance that is either approved by MSHA and maintained in permissible condition, or is listed or labeled for the class and location under subpart K of this part.
</P>
<P>“Rapid Excavation Machine”—Tunnel boring machines, shields, roadheaders, or any other similar excavation machine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 23850, June 2, 1989; 58 FR 35311, June 30, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 63 FR 1297, Jan. 8, 1998; 71 FR 16674, Apr. 3, 2006; 75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010; 77 FR 49728, Aug. 17, 2012; 78 FR 23841, Apr. 24, 2013; 84 FR 21577, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.801" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.19.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.801   Caissons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Wherever, in caisson work in which compressed air is used, and the working chamber is less than 11 feet in length, and when such caissons are at any time suspended or hung while work is in progress so that the bottom of the excavation is more than 9 feet below the deck of the working chamber, a shield shall be erected therein for the protection of the employees.
</P>
<P>(b) Shafts shall be subjected to a hydrostatic or air-pressure test, at which pressure they shall be tight. The shaft shall be stamped on the outside shell about 12 inches from each flange to show the pressure to which they have been subjected.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever a shaft is used, it shall be provided, where space permits, with a safe, proper, and suitable staircase for its entire length, including landing platforms, not more than 20 feet apart. Where this is impracticable, suitable ladders shall be installed with landing platforms located about 20 feet apart to break the climb.
</P>
<P>(d) All caissons having a diameter or side greater than 10 feet shall be provided with a man lock and shaft for the exclusive use of employees.
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to the gauge in the locks, an accurate gauge shall be maintained on the outer and inner side of each bulkhead. These gauges shall be accessible at all times and kept in accurate working order.
</P>
<P>(f) In caisson operations where employees are exposed to compressed air working environments, the requirements contained in § 1926.803 shall be complied with.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.802" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.19.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.802   Cofferdams.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If overtopping of the cofferdam by high waters is possible, means shall be provided for controlled flooding of the work area.
</P>
<P>(b) Warning signals for evacuation of employees in case of emergency shall be developed and posted.
</P>
<P>(c) Cofferdam walkways, bridges, or ramps with at least two means of rapid exit shall be provided with guardrails as specified in subpart M of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Cofferdams located close to navigable shipping channels shall be protected from vessels in transit, where possible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.803" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.19.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.803   Compressed air.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions.</I> (1) There shall be present, at all times, at least one competent person designated by and representing the employer, who shall be familiar with this subpart in all respects, and responsible for full compliance with these and other applicable subparts.
</P>
<P>(2) Every employee shall be instructed in the rules and regulations which concern his safety or the safety of others.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical attendance, examination, and regulations.</I> (1) There shall be retained one or more licensed physicians familiar with and experienced in the physical requirements and the medical aspects of compressed air work and the treatment of decompression illness. He shall be available at all times while work is in progress in order to provide medical supervision of employees employed in compressed air work. He shall himself be physically qualified and be willing to enter a pressurized environment.
</P>
<P>(2) No employee shall be permitted to enter a compressed air environment until he has been examined by the physician and reported by him to be physically qualified to engage in such work.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event an employee is absent from work for 10 days, or is absent due to sickness or injury, he shall not resume work until he is reexamined by the physician, and his physical condition reported, as provided in this paragraph, to be such as to permit him to work in compressed air.
</P>
<P>(4) After an employee has been employed continuously in compressed air for a period designated by the physician, but not to exceed 1 year, he shall be reexamined by the physician to determine if he is still physically qualified to engage in compressed air work.
</P>
<P>(5) Such physician shall at all times keep a complete and full record of examinations made by him. The physician shall also keep an accurate record of any decompression illness or other illness or injury incapacitating any employee for work, and of all loss of life that occurs in the operation of a tunnel, caisson, or other compartment in which compressed air is used.
</P>
<P>(6) Records shall be available for the inspection of the Secretary or his representatives, and a copy thereof shall be forwarded to OSHA within 48 hours following the occurrence of the accident, death, injury, or decompression illness. It shall state as fully as possible the cause of said death or decompression illness, and the place where the injured or sick employee was taken, and such other relative information as may be required by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(7) A fully equipped first aid station shall be provided at each tunnel project regardless of the number of persons employed. An ambulance or transportation suitable for a litter case shall be at each project.
</P>
<P>(8) Where tunnels are being excavated from portals more than 5 road miles apart, a first aid station and transportation facilities shall be provided at each portal.
</P>
<P>(9) A medical lock shall be established and maintained in immediate working order whenever air pressure in the working chamber is increased above the normal atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(10) The medical lock shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Have at least 6 feet of clear headroom at the center, and be subdivided into not less than two compartments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be readily accessible to employees working under compressed air;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be kept ready for immediate use for at least 5 hours subsequent to the emergence of any employee from the working chamber;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be properly heated, lighted and ventilated;
</P>
<P>(v) Be maintained in a sanitary condition;
</P>
<P>(vi) Have a nonshatterable port through which the occupant(s) may be kept under constant observation;
</P>
<P>(vii) Be designed for a working pressure of 75 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(viii) Be equipped with internal controls which may be overridden by external controls;
</P>
<P>(ix) Be provided with air pressure gauges to show the air pressure within each compartment to observers inside and outside the medical lock.
</P>
<P>(x) Be equipped with a manual type sprinkler system that can be activated inside the lock or by the outside lock tender.
</P>
<P>(xi) Be provided with oxygen lines and fittings leading into external tanks. The lines shall be fitted with check valves to prevent reverse flow. The oxygen system inside the chamber shall be of a closed circuit design and be so designed as to automatically shut off the oxygen supply whenever the fire system is activated.
</P>
<P>(xii) Be in constant charge of an attendant under the direct control of the retained physician. The attendant shall be trained in the use of the lock and suitably instructed regarding steps to be taken in the treatment of employee exhibiting symptoms compatible with a diagnosis of decompression illness;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Be adjacent to an adequate emergency medical facility;
</P>
<P>(xiv) The medical facility shall be equipped with demand-type oxygen inhalation equipment approved by the U.S. Bureau of Mines;
</P>
<P>(xv) Be capable of being maintained at a temperature, in use, not to exceed 90 °F. nor be less than 70 °F.; and
</P>
<P>(xvi) Be provided with sources of air, free of oil and carbon monoxide, for normal and emergency use, which are capable of raising the air pressure in the lock from 0 to 75 p.s.i.g. in 5 minutes.
</P>
<P>(11) Identification badges shall be furnished to all employees, indicating that the wearer is a compressed air worker. A permanent record shall be kept of all identification badges issued. The badge shall give the employee's name, address of the medical lock, the telephone number of the licensed physician for the compressed air project, and contain instructions that in case of emergency of unknown or doubtful cause or illness, the wearer shall be rushed to the medical lock. The badge shall be worn at all times—off the job, as well as on the job.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Telephone and signal communication.</I> (1) Effective and reliable means of communication, such as bells, whistles, or telephones, shall be maintained, at all times between all the following locations:
</P>
<P>(i) The working chamber face;
</P>
<P>(ii) The working chamber side of the man lock near the door;
</P>
<P>(iii) The interior of the man lock;
</P>
<P>(iv) Lock attendant's station;
</P>
<P>(v) The compressor plant;
</P>
<P>(vi) The first-aid station;
</P>
<P>(vii) The emergency lock (if one is required); and
</P>
<P>(viii) The special decompression chamber (if one is required).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signs and records.</I> (1) The time of decompression shall be posted in each man lock as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Time of Decompression for This Lock
</HD1>
<FP>__ pounds to __ pounds in __ minutes.
</FP>
<FP>__ pounds to __ pounds in __ minutes.
</FP>
<P>(Signed by) ______ (Superintendent)
</P>
<FP>This form shall be posted in the Man Lock at all times.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) Any code of signals used shall be conspicuously posted near workplace entrances and such other locations as may be necessary to bring them to the attention of all employees concerned.
</P>
<P>(3) For each 8-hour shift, a record of employees employed under air pressure shall be kept by an employee who shall remain outside the lock near the entrance. This record shall show the period each employee spends in the air chamber and the time taken from decompression. A copy shall be submitted to the appointed physician after each shift.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compression.</I> (1) Every employee going under air pressure for the first time shall be instructed on how to avoid excessive discomfort.
</P>
<P>(2) During the compression of employees, the pressure shall not be increased to more than 3 p.s.i.g. within the first minute. The pressure shall be held at 3 p.s.i.g. and again at 7 p.s.i.g. sufficiently long to determine if any employees are experiencing discomfort.
</P>
<P>(3) After the first minute the pressure shall be raised uniformly and at a rate not to exceed 10 p.s.i. per minute.
</P>
<P>(4) If any employee complains of discomfort, the pressure shall be held to determine if the symptoms are relieved. If, after 5 minutes the discomfort does not disappear, the lock attendant shall gradually reduce the pressure until the employee signals that the discomfort has ceased. If he does not indicate that the discomfort has disappeared, the lock attendant shall reduce the pressure to atmospheric and the employee shall be released from the lock.
</P>
<P>(5) No employee shall be subjected to pressure exceeding 50 pounds per square inch except in emergency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decompression.</I> (1) Decompression to normal condition shall be in accordance with the Decompression Tables in appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event it is necessary for an employee to be in compressed air more than once in a 24-hour period, the appointed physician shall be responsible for the establishment of methods and procedures of decompression applicable to repetitive exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) If decanting is necessary, the appointed physician shall establish procedures before any employee is permitted to be decompressed by decanting methods. The period of time that the employees spend at atmospheric pressure between the decompression following the shift and recompression shall not exceed 5 minutes.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Man locks and special decompression chambers</I>—(1) <I>Man locks.</I> (i) Except in emergency, no employees employed in compressed air shall be permitted to pass from the working chamber to atmospheric pressure until after decompression, in accordance with the procedures in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) The lock attendant in charge of a man lock shall be under the direct supervision of the appointed physician. He shall be stationed at the lock controls on the free air side during the period of compression and decompression and shall remain at the lock control station whenever there are men in the working chamber or in the man lock.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except where air pressure in the working chamber is below 12 p.s.i.g., each man lock shall be equipped with automatic controls which, through taped programs, cams, or similar apparatus, shall automatically regulate decompressions. It shall also be equipped with manual controls to permit the lock attendant to override the automatic mechanism in the event of an emergency, as provided in paragraph (g)(1)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) A manual control, which can be used in the event of an emergency, shall be placed inside the man lock.
</P>
<P>(v) A clock, thermometer, and continuous recording pressure gauge with a 4-hour graph shall be installed outside of each man lock and shall be changed prior to each shift's decompression. The chart shall be of sufficient size to register a legible record of variations in pressure within the man lock and shall be visible to the lock attendant. A copy of each graph shall be submitted to the appointed physician after each shift. In addition, a pressure gauge, clock, and thermometer shall also be installed in each man lock. Additional fittings shall be provided so that test gauges may be attached whenever necessary.
</P>
<P>(vi) Except where air pressure is below 12 p.s.i.g. and there is no danger of rapid flooding, all caissons having a working area greater than 150 square feet, and each bulkhead in tunnels of 14 feet or more in diameter, or equivalent area, shall have at least two locks in perfect working condition, one of which shall be used exclusively as a man lock, the other, as a materials lock.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where only a combination man-and-materials lock is required, this single lock shall be of sufficient capacity to hold the employees constituting two successive shifts.
</P>
<P>(viii) Emergency locks shall be large enough to hold an entire heading shift and a limit maintained of 12 p.s.i.g. There shall be a chamber available for oxygen decompression therapy to 28 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(ix) The man lock shall be large enough so that those using it are not compelled to be in a cramped position, and shall not have less than 5 feet clear head room at the center and a minimum of 30 cubic feet of air space per occupant.
</P>
<P>(x) Locks on caissons shall be so located that the bottom door shall be not less than 3 feet above the water level surrounding the caisson on the outside. (The water level, where it is affected by tides, is construed to mean high tide.)
</P>
<P>(xi) In addition to the pressure gauge in the locks, an accurate pressure gauge shall be maintained on the outer and inner side of each bulkhead. These gauges shall be accessible at all times and shall be kept in accurate working order.
</P>
<P>(xii) Man locks shall have an observation port at least 4 inches in diameter located in such a position that all occupants of the man lock may be observed from the working chamber and from the free air side of the lock.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Adequate ventilation in the lock shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Man locks shall be maintained at a minimum temperature of 70 °F.
</P>
<P>(xv) When locks are not in use and employees are in the working chamber, lock doors shall be kept open to the working chamber, where practicable.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Provision shall be made to allow for rescue parties to enter the tunnel if the working force is disabled.
</P>
<P>(xvii) A special decompression chamber of sufficient size to accommodate the entire force of employees being decompressed at the end of a shift shall be provided whenever the regularly established working period requires a total time of decompression exceeding 75 minutes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special decompression chamber.</I> (i) The headroom in the special decompression chamber shall be not less than a minimum 7 feet and the cubical content shall provide at least 50 cubic feet of airspace for each employee. For each occupant, there shall be provided 4 square feet of free walking area and 3 square feet of seating space, exclusive of area required for lavatory and toilet facilities. The rated capacity shall be based on the stated minimum space per employee and shall be posted at the chamber entrance. The posted capacity shall not be exceeded, except in case of emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each special decompression chamber shall be equipped with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) A clock or clocks suitably placed so that the attendant and the chamber occupants can readily ascertain the time;
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Pressure gauges which will indicate to the attendants and to the chamber occupants the pressure in the chamber;
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Valves to enable the attendant to control the supply and discharge of compressed air into and from the chamber;
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Valves and pipes, in connection with the air supply and exhaust, arranged so that the chamber pressure can be controlled from within and without;
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) Effective means of oral intercommunication between the attendant, occupants of the chamber, and the air compressor plant; and
</P>
<P>(<I>f</I>) An observation port at the entrance to permit observation of the chamber occupants.
</P>
<P>(iii) Seating facilities in special decompression chambers shall be so arranged as to permit a normal sitting posture without cramping. Seating space, not less than 18 inches by 24 inches wide, shall be provided per occupant.
</P>
<P>(iv) Adequate toilet and washing facilities, in a screened or enclosed recess, shall be provided. Toilet bowls shall have a built-in protector on the rim so that an air space is created when the seat lid is closed.
</P>
<P>(v) Fresh and pure drinking water shall be available. This may be accomplished by either piping water into the special decompression chamber and providing drinking fountains, or by providing individual canteens, or by some other sanitary means. Community drinking vessels are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(vi) No refuse or discarded material of any kind shall be permitted to accumulate, and the chamber shall be kept clean.
</P>
<P>(vii) Unless the special decompression chamber is serving as the man lock to atmospheric pressure, the special decompression chamber shall be situated, where practicable, adjacent to the man lock on the atmospheric pressure side of the bulkhead. A passageway shall be provided, connecting the special chamber with the man lock, to permit employees in the process of decompression to move from the man lock to the special chamber without a reduction in the ambient pressure from that designated for the next stage of decompression. The passageway shall be so arranged as to not interfere with the normal operation of the man lock, nor with the release of the occupants of the special chamber to atmospheric pressure upon the completion of the decompression procedure.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Compressor plant and air supply.</I> (1) At all times there shall be a thoroughly experienced, competent, and reliable person on duty at the air control valves as a gauge tender who shall regulate the pressure in the working areas. During tunneling operations, one gauge tender may regulate the pressure in not more than two headings: <I>Provided,</I> That the gauge and controls are all in one location. In caisson work, there shall be a gauge tender for each caisson.
</P>
<P>(2) The low air compressor plant shall be of sufficient capacity to not only permit the work to be done safely, but shall also provide a margin to meet emergencies and repairs.
</P>
<P>(3) Low air compressor units shall have at least two independent and separate sources of power supply and each shall be capable of operating the entire low air plant and its accessory systems.
</P>
<P>(4) The capacity, arrangement, and number of compressors shall be sufficient to maintain the necessary pressure without overloading the equipment and to assure maintenance of such pressure in the working chamber during periods of breakdown, repair, or emergency.
</P>
<P>(5) Switching from one independent source of power supply to the other shall be done periodically to ensure the workability of the apparatus in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(6) Duplicate low-pressure air feedlines and regulating valves shall be provided between the source of air supply and a point beyond the locks with one of the lines extending to within 100 feet of the working face.
</P>
<P>(7) All high- and low-pressure air supply lines shall be equipped with check valves.
</P>
<P>(8) Low-pressure air shall be regulated automatically. In addition, manually operated valves shall be provided for emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(9) The air intakes for all air compressors shall be located at a place where fumes, exhaust, gases, and other air contaminants will be at a minimum.
</P>
<P>(10) Gauges indicating the pressure in the working chamber shall be installed in the compressor building, the lock attendant's station, and at the employer's field office.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Ventilation and air quality.</I> (1) Exhaust valves and exhaust pipes shall be provided and operated so that the working chamber shall be well ventilated, and there shall be no pockets of dead air. Outlets may be required at intermediate points along the main low-pressure air supply line to the heading to eliminate such pockets of dead air. Ventilating air shall be not less than 30 cubic feet per minute.
</P>
<P>(2) The air in the workplace shall be analyzed by the employer not less than once each shift, and records of such tests shall be kept on file at the place where the work is in progress. The test results shall be within the threshold limit values specified in subpart D of this part, for hazardous gases, and within 10 percent of the lower explosive limit of flammable gases. If these limits are not met, immediate action to correct the situation shall be taken by the employer.
</P>
<P>(3) The temperature of all working chambers which are subjected to air pressure shall, by means of after-coolers or other suitable devices, be maintained at a temperature not to exceed 85 °F.
</P>
<P>(4) Forced ventilation shall be provided during decompression. During the entire decompression period, forced ventilation through chemical or mechanical air purifying devices that will ensure a source of fresh air shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever heat-producing machines (moles, shields) are used in compressed air tunnel operations, a positive means of removing the heat build-up at the heading shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Electricity.</I> (1) All lighting in compressed-air chambers shall be by electricity exclusively, and two independent electric-lighting systems with independent sources of supply shall be used. The emergency source shall be arranged to become automatically operative in the event of failure of the regularly used source.
</P>
<P>(2) The minimum intensity of light on any walkway, ladder, stairway, or working level shall be not less than 10 foot-candles, and in all workplaces the lighting shall at all times be such as to enable employees to see clearly.
</P>
<P>(3) All electrical equipment and wiring for light and power circuits shall comply with the requirements of subpart K of this part for use in damp, hazardous, high temperature, and compressed air environments.
</P>
<P>(4) External parts of lighting fixtures and all other electrical equipment, when within 8 feet of the floor, shall be constructed of noncombustible, nonabsorptive, insulating materials, except that metal may be used if it is effectively grounded.
</P>
<P>(5) Portable lamps shall be equipped with noncombustible, nonabsorptive, insulating sockets, approved handles, basket guards, and approved cords.
</P>
<P>(6) The use of worn or defective portable and pendant conductors is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Sanitation.</I> (1) Sanitary, heated, lighted, and ventilated dressing rooms and drying rooms shall be provided for all employees engaged in compressed air work. Such rooms shall contain suitable benches and lockers. Bathing accommodations (showers at the ratio of one to 10 employees per shift), equipped with running hot and cold water, and suitable and adequate toilet accommodations, shall be provided. One toilet for each 15 employees, or fractional part thereof, shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) When the toilet bowl is shut by a cover, there should be an air space so that the bowl or bucket does not implode when pressure is increased.
</P>
<P>(3) All parts of caissons and other working compartments shall be kept in a sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Fire prevention and protection.</I> (1) Firefighting equipment shall be available at all times and shall be maintained in working condition.
</P>
<P>(2) While welding or flame-cutting is being done in compressed air, a firewatch with a fire hose or approved extinguisher shall stand by until such operation is completed.
</P>
<P>(3) Shafts and caissons containing flammable material of any kind, either above or below ground, shall be provided with a waterline and a fire hose connected thereto, so arranged that all points of the shaft or caisson are within reach of the hose stream.
</P>
<P>(4) Fire hose shall be at least 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches in nominal diameter; the water pressure shall at all times be adequate for efficient operation of the type of nozzle used; and the water supply shall be such as to ensure an uninterrupted flow. Fire hose, when not in use, shall be located or guarded to prevent injury thereto.
</P>
<P>(5) The power house, compressor house, and all buildings housing ventilating equipment, shall be provided with at least one hose connection in the water line, with a fire hose connected thereto. A fire hose shall be maintained within reach of structures of wood over or near shafts.
</P>
<P>(6) Tunnels shall be provided with a 2-inch minimum diameter water line extending into the working chamber and to within 100 feet of the working face. Such line shall have hose outlets with 100 feet of fire hose attached and maintained as follows: One at the working face; one immediately inside of the bulkhead of the working chamber; and one immediately outside such bulkhead. In addition, hose outlets shall be provided at 200-foot intervals throughout the length of the tunnel, and 100 feet of fire hose shall be attached to the outlet nearest to any location where flammable material is being kept or stored or where any flame is being used.
</P>
<P>(7) In addition to fire hose protection required by this subpart, on every floor of every building not under compressed air, but used in connection with the compressed air work, there shall be provided at least one approved fire extinguisher of the proper type for the hazard involved. At least two approved fire extinguishers shall be provided in the working chamber as follows: One at the working face and one immediately inside the bulkhead (pressure side). Extinguishers in the working chamber shall use water as the primary extinguishing agent and shall not use any extinguishing agent which could be harmful to the employees in the working chamber. The fire extinguisher shall be protected from damage.
</P>
<P>(8) Highly combustible materials shall not be used or stored in the working chamber. Wood, paper, and similar combustible material shall not be used in the working chamber in quantities which could cause a fire hazard. The compressor building shall be constructed of non-combustible material.
</P>
<P>(9) Man locks shall be equipped with a manual type fire extinguisher system that can be activated inside the man lock and also by the outside lock attendant. In addition, a fire hose and portable fire extinguisher shall be provided inside and outside the man lock. The portable fire extinguisher shall be the dry chemical type.
</P>
<P>(10) Equipment, fixtures, and furniture in man locks and special decompression chambers shall be constructed of noncombustible materials. Bedding, etc., shall be chemically treated so as to be fire resistant.
</P>
<P>(11) Head frames shall be constructed of structural steel or open frame-work fireproofed timber. Head houses and other temporary surface buildings or structures within 100 feet of the shaft, caisson, or tunnel opening shall be built of fire-resistant materials.
</P>
<P>(12) No oil, gasoline, or other combustible material shall be stored within 100 feet of any shaft, caisson, or tunnel opening, except that oils may be stored in suitable tanks in isolated fireproof buildings, provided such buildings are not less than 50 feet from any shaft, caisson, or tunnel opening, or any building directly connected thereto.
</P>
<P>(13) Positive means shall be taken to prevent leaking flammable liquids from flowing into the areas specifically mentioned in the preceding paragraph.
</P>
<P>(14) All explosives used in connection with compressed air work shall be selected, stored, transported, and used as specified in subpart U of this part.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Bulkheads and safety screens.</I> (1) Intermediate bulkheads with locks, or intermediate safety screens or both, are required where there is the danger of rapid flooding.
</P>
<P>(2) In tunnels 16 feet or more in diameter, hanging walkways shall be provided from the face to the man lock as high in the tunnel as practicable, with at least 6 feet of head room. Walkways shall be constructed of noncombustible material. Standard railings shall be securely installed throughout the length of all walkways on open sides in accordance with subpart M of this part. Where walkways are ramped under safety screens, the walkway surface shall be skidproofed by cleats or by equivalent means.
</P>
<P>(3) Bulkheads used to contain compressed air shall be tested, where practicable, to prove their ability to resist the highest air pressure which may be expected to be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 14696, 14706, Apr. 6, 1982; 51 FR 25318, July 11, 1986; 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.804" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.19.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.804   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bulkhead</I>—An airtight structure separating the working chamber from free air or from another chamber under a lesser pressure than the working pressure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Caisson</I>—A wood, steel, concrete or reinforced concrete, air- and water-tight chamber in which it is possible for men to work under air pressure greater than atmospheric pressure to excavate material below water level.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decanting</I>—A method used for decompressing under emergency circumstances. In this procedure, the employees are brought to atmospheric pressure with a very high gas tension in the tissues and then immediately recompressed in a second and separate chamber or lock.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emergency locks</I>—A lock designed to hold and permit the quick passage of an entire shift of employees.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>High air</I>—Air pressure used to supply power to pneumatic tools and devices.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Low air</I>—Air supplied to pressurize working chambers and locks.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Man lock</I>—A chamber through which men pass from one air pressure environment into another.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Materials lock</I>—A chamber through which materials and equipment pass from one air pressure environment into another.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Medical lock</I>—A special chamber in which employees are treated for decompression illness. It may also be used in preemployment physical examinations to determine the adaptability of the prospective employee to changes in pressure.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Normal condition</I>—One during which exposure to compressed air is limited to a single continuous working period followed by a single decompression in any given 24-hour period; the total time of exposure to compressed air during the single continuous working period is not interrupted by exposure to normal atmospheric pressure, and a second exposure to compressed air does not occur until at least 12 consecutive hours of exposure to normal atmospheric pressure has elapsed since the employee has been under pressure.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Pressure</I>—A force acting on a unit area. Usually shown as pounds per square inch. (p.s.i.)
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Absolute pressure</I> (p.s.i.a.)—The sum of the atmospheric pressure and gauge pressure (p.s.i.g.).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Atmospheric pressure</I>—The pressure of air at sea level, usually 14.7 p.s.i.a. (1 atmosphere), or 0 p.s.i.g.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Gauge pressure</I> (p.s.i.g.)—Pressure measured by a gauge and indicating the pressure exceeding atmospheric.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Safety screen</I>—An air- and water-tight diaphragm placed across the upper part of a compressed air tunnel between the face and bulkhead, in order to prevent flooding the crown of the tunnel between the safety screen and the bulkhead, thus providing a safe means of refuge and exit from a flooding or flooded tunnel.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Special decompression chamber</I>—A chamber to provide greater comfort of employees when the total decompression time exceeds 75 minutes.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Working chamber</I>—The space or compartment under air pressure in which the work is being done.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.19.20.6.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart S of Part 1926—Decompression Tables
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Explanation.</I> The decompression tables are computed for working chamber pressures from 0 to 14 pounds, and from 14 to 50 pounds per square inch gauge inclusive by 2-pound increments and for exposure times for each pressure extending from one-half to over 8 hours inclusive. Decompressions will be conducted by two or more stages with a maximum of four stages, the latter for a working chamber pressure of 40 pounds per square inch gauge or over.
</P>
<P>Stage 1 consists of a reduction in ambient pressure ranging from 10 to a maximum of 16 pounds per square inch, but in no instance will the pressure be reduced below 4 pounds at the end of stage 1. This reduction in pressure in stage 1 will always take place at a rate not greater than 5 pounds per minute.
</P>
<P>Further reduction in pressure will take place during stage 2 and subsequent stages as required at a slower rate, but in no event at a rate greater than 1 pound per minute.
</P>
<P>Decompression Table No. 1 indicates in the body of the table the total decompression time in minutes for various combinations of working chamber pressure and exposure time.
</P>
<P>Decompression Table No. 2 indicates for the same various combinations of working chamber pressure and exposure time the following:
</P>
<P>a. The number of stages required;
</P>
<P>b. The reduction in pressure and the terminal pressure for each required stage;
</P>
<P>c. The time in minutes through which the reduction in pressure is accomplished for each required stage;
</P>
<P>d. The pressure reduction rate in minutes per pound for each required stage;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Important Note:</HED>
<P>The Pressure Reduction in Each Stage is Accomplished at a Uniform Rate. Do Not Interpolate Between Values Shown on the Tables. Use the Next Higher Value of Working Chamber Pressure or Exposure Time Should the Actual Working Chamber Pressure or the Actual Exposure Time, Respectively, Fall Between Those for Which Calculated Values Are Shown in the Body of the Tables.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examples
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minutes
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Example No. 1: 4 hours working period at 20 pounds gauge.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decompression Table No. 1: 20 pounds for 4 hours, total decompression time</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decompression Table No. 2:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stage 1: Reduce pressure from 20 pounds to 4 pounds at the uniform rate of 5 pounds per minute.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Elapsed time stage 1: 16/5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stage 2 (final stage): Reduce pressure at a uniform rate from 4 pounds to 0-pound gage over a period of 40 minutes.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rate—0.10 pound per minute or 10 minutes per pound.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stage 2 (final) elapsed time</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total time</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Example No. 2: 5-hour working period at 24 pounds gage.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decompression Table No. 1: 24 pounds for 5 hours, total decompression time</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decompression Table No. 2:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stage 1: Reduce pressure from 24 pounds to 8 pounds at the uniform rate of 5 pounds per minute.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Elapsed time stage 1: 16/5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stage 2: Reduce pressure at a uniform rate from 8 pounds to 4 pounds over a period of 4 minutes. Rate, 1 pound per minute elapsed time, stage 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Transfer men to special decompression chamber maintaining the 4-pound pressure during the transfer operation.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Stage 3 (final stage): In the special decompression chamber, reduce the pressure at a uniform rate from 4 pounds to 0-pound gage over a period of 110 minutes. Rate, 0.037 pound per minute or 27.5 minutes per pound. Stage 3 (final) elapsed time</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total time</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Decompression Table No. 1—Total Decompression Time
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Work pressure p.s.i.g.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="11" scope="col">Working period hours
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
<fr>1/2</fr>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">7
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Over 8
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 to 12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">163
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">183
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">188</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">204
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">163</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">226
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">218</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">248
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">273
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">263</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">278
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">183</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">248</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">258</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">278</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">263</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">268</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">293
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">264</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">293
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">214</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">274</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">318
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">229</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">299</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">309</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">319</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">319</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">209</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">249</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">279</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">309</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Decompression Table No. 2
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Do not interpolate, use next higher value for conditions not computed]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Working chamber pressure p.s.i.g.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Working period hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Decompression data
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Stage No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Pressure reduc. p.s.i.g.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Time in stage minutes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Pressure reduc. rate Min/pound
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Total time decompress minutes
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">From
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">To
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">137
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">163
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">143
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">183
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">143
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">188
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">204
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">163
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">193
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">203
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">213
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">226
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">218
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">233
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">248
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">233
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">243
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">253
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">273
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">203
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">238
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">253
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">263
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">278
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">143
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">183
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">213
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">233
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">248
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">268
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">189
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">263
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">268
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">293
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">154
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">199
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">234
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">264
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">293
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">139
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">171
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">244
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">274
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">289
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">299
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Over 8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">318
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">189
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">229
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">209
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">309
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">209
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">249
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">279
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Decompression Table No. 2—Continued
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Do not interpolate, use next higher value for conditions not computed]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Working chamber pressure p.s.i.g.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Working period hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Decompression data
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Stage No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Pressure reduc. p.s.i.g.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Time in stage minutes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Pressure reduc. rate Min/pound
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Total time decompress minutes
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">From
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">To
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">309
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">329</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35311, June 30, 1993]





</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="T" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart T—Demolition</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; and Secretary of Labor's Orders 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.850" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.850   Preparatory operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to permitting employees to start demolition operations, an engineering survey shall be made, by a competent person, of the structure to determine the condition of the framing, floors, and walls, and possibility of unplanned collapse of any portion of the structure. Any adjacent structure where employees may be exposed shall also be similarly checked. The employer shall have in writing evidence that such a survey has been performed.
</P>
<P>(b) When employees are required to work within a structure to be demolished which has been damaged by fire, flood, explosion, or other cause, the walls or floor shall be shored or braced.
</P>
<P>(c) All electric, gas, water, steam, sewer, and other service lines shall be shut off, capped, or otherwise controlled, outside the building line before demolition work is started. In each case, any utility company which is involved shall be notified in advance.
</P>
<P>(d) If it is necessary to maintain any power, water or other utilities during demolition, such lines shall be temporarily relocated, as necessary, and protected.
</P>
<P>(e) It shall also be determined if any type of hazardous chemicals, gases, explosives, flammable materials, or similarly dangerous substances have been used in any pipes, tanks, or other equipment on the property. When the presence of any such substances is apparent or suspected, testing and purging shall be performed and the hazard eliminated before demolition is started.
</P>
<P>(f) Where a hazard exists from fragmentation of glass, such hazards shall be removed.
</P>
<P>(g) Where a hazard exists to employees falling through wall openings, the opening shall be protected to a height of approximately 42 inches.
</P>
<P>(h) When debris is dropped through holes in the floor without the use of chutes, the area onto which the material is dropped shall be completely enclosed with barricades not less than 42 inches high and not less than 6 feet back from the projected edge of the opening above. Signs, warning of the hazard of falling materials, shall be posted at each level. Removal shall not be permitted in this lower area until debris handling ceases above.
</P>
<P>(i) All floor openings, not used as material drops, shall be covered over with material substantial enough to support the weight of any load which may be imposed. Such material shall be properly secured to prevent its accidental movement.
</P>
<P>(j) Except for the cutting of holes in floors for chutes, holes through which to drop materials, preparation of storage space, and similar necessary preparatory work, the demolition of exterior walls and floor construction shall begin at the top of the structure and proceed downward. Each story of exterior wall and floor construction shall be removed and dropped into the storage space before commencing the removal of exterior walls and floors in the story next below.
</P>
<P>(k) Employee entrances to multi-story structures being demolished shall be completely protected by sidewalk sheds or canopies, or both, providing protection from the face of the building for a minimum of 8 feet. All such canopies shall be at least 2 feet wider than the building entrances or openings (1 foot wider on each side thereof), and shall be capable of sustaining a load of 150 pounds per square foot.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.851" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.851   Stairs, passageways, and ladders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only those stairways, passageways, and ladders, designated as means of access to the structure of a building, shall be used. Other access ways shall be entirely closed at all times.
</P>
<P>(b) All stairs, passageways, ladders and incidental equipment thereto, which are covered by this section, shall be periodically inspected and maintained in a clean safe condition.
</P>
<P>(c) In a multistory building, when a stairwell is being used, it shall be properly illuminated by either natural or artificial means, and completely and substantially covered over at a point not less than two floors below the floor on which work is being performed, and access to the floor where the work is in progress shall be through a properly lighted, protected, and separate passageway.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.852" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.852   Chutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No material shall be dropped to any point lying outside the exterior walls of the structure unless the area is effectively protected.
</P>
<P>(b) All materials chutes, or sections thereof, at an angle of more than 45° from the horizontal, shall be entirely enclosed, except for openings equipped with closures at or about floor level for the insertion of materials. The openings shall not exceed 48 inches in height measured along the wall of the chute. At all stories below the top floor, such openings shall be kept closed when not in use.
</P>
<P>(c) A substantial gate shall be installed in each chute at or near the discharge end. A competent employee shall be assigned to control the operation of the gate, and the backing and loading of trucks.
</P>
<P>(d) When operations are not in progress, the area surrounding the discharge end of a chute shall be securely closed off.
</P>
<P>(e) Any chute opening, into which workmen dump debris, shall be protected by a substantial guardrail approximately 42 inches above the floor or other surface on which the men stand to dump the material. Any space between the chute and the edge of openings in the floors through which it passes shall be solidly covered over.
</P>
<P>(f) Where the material is dumped from mechanical equipment or wheelbarrows, a securely attached toeboard or bumper, not less than 4 inches thick and 6 inches high, shall be provided at each chute opening.
</P>
<P>(g) Chutes shall be designed and constructed of such strength as to eliminate failure due to impact of materials or debris loaded therein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.853" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.853   Removal of materials through floor openings.</HEAD>
<P>Any openings cut in a floor for the disposal of materials shall be no larger in size than 25 percent of the aggregate of the total floor area, unless the lateral supports of the removed flooring remain in place. Floors weakened or otherwise made unsafe by demolition operations shall be shored to carry safely the intended imposed load from demolition operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.854" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.854   Removal of walls, masonry sections, and chimneys.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Masonry walls, or other sections of masonry, shall not be permitted to fall upon the floors of the building in such masses as to exceed the safe carrying capacities of the floors.
</P>
<P>(b) No wall section, which is more than one story in height, shall be permitted to stand alone without lateral bracing, unless such wall was originally designed and constructed to stand without such lateral support, and is in a condition safe enough to be self-supporting. All walls shall be left in a stable condition at the end of each shift.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees shall not be permitted to work on the top of a wall when weather conditions constitute a hazard.
</P>
<P>(d) Structural or load-supporting members on any floor shall not be cut or removed until all stories above such a floor have been demolished and removed. This provision shall not prohibit the cutting of floor beams for the disposal of materials or for the installation of equipment, provided that the requirements of §§ 1926.853 and 1926.855 are met.
</P>
<P>(e) Floor openings within 10 feet of any wall being demolished shall be planked solid, except when employees are kept out of the area below.
</P>
<P>(f) In buildings of “skeleton-steel” construction, the steel framing may be left in place during the demolition of masonry. Where this is done, all steel beams, girders, and similar structural supports shall be cleared of all loose material as the masonry demolition progresses downward.
</P>
<P>(g) Walkways or ladders shall be provided to enable employees to safely reach or leave any scaffold or wall.
</P>
<P>(h) Walls, which serve as retaining walls to support earth or adjoining structures, shall not be demolished until such earth has been properly braced or adjoining structures have been properly underpinned.
</P>
<P>(i) Walls, which are to serve as retaining walls against which debris will be piled, shall not be so used unless capable of safely supporting the imposed load.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.855" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.855   Manual removal of floors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Openings cut in a floor shall extend the full span of the arch between supports.
</P>
<P>(b) Before demolishing any floor arch, debris and other material shall be removed from such arch and other adjacent floor area. Planks not less than 2 inches by 10 inches in cross section, full size undressed, shall be provided for, and shall be used by employees to stand on while breaking down floor arches between beams. Such planks shall be so located as to provide a safe support for the workmen should the arch between the beams collapse. The open space between planks shall not exceed 16 inches.
</P>
<P>(c) Safe walkways, not less than 18 inches wide, formed of planks not less than 2 inches thick if wood, or of equivalent strength if metal, shall be provided and used by workmen when necessary to enable them to reach any point without walking upon exposed beams.
</P>
<P>(d) Stringers of ample strength shall be installed to support the flooring planks, and the ends of such stringers shall be supported by floor beams or girders, and not by floor arches alone.
</P>
<P>(e) Planks shall be laid together over solid bearings with the ends overlapping at least 1 foot.
</P>
<P>(f) When floor arches are being removed, employees shall not be allowed in the area directly underneath, and such an area shall be barricaded to prevent access to it.
</P>
<P>(g) Demolition of floor arches shall not be started until they, and the surrounding floor area for a distance of 20 feet, have been cleared of debris and any other unnecessary materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.856" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.856   Removal of walls, floors, and material with equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Mechanical equipment shall not be used on floors or working surfaces unless such floors or surfaces are of sufficient strength to support the imposed load.
</P>
<P>(b) Floor openings shall have curbs or stop-logs to prevent equipment from running over the edge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cranes, derricks, and other mechanical equipment.</I> Employers must meet the requirements specified in subparts N, O, and CC of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979 , 75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010; 77 FR 49730, Aug. 17, 2012; 78 FR 23843, Apr. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.857" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.857   Storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The storage of waste material and debris on any floor shall not exceed the allowable floor loads.
</P>
<P>(b) In buildings having wooden floor construction, the flooring boards may be removed from not more than one floor above grade to provide storage space for debris, provided falling material is not permitted to endanger the stability of the structure.
</P>
<P>(c) When wood floor beams serve to brace interior walls or free-standing exterior walls, such beams shall be left in place until other equivalent support can be installed to replace them.
</P>
<P>(d) Floor arches, to an elevation of not more than 25 feet above grade, may be removed to provide storage area for debris: <I>Provided,</I> That such removal does not endanger the stability of the structure.
</P>
<P>(e) Storage space into which material is dumped shall be blocked off, except for openings necessary for the removal of material. Such openings shall be kept closed at all times when material is not being removed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.858" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.858   Removal of steel construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When floor arches have been removed, planking in accordance with § 1926.855(b) shall be provided for the workers engaged in razing the steel framing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cranes, derricks, and other hoisting equipment.</I> Employers must meet the requirements specified in subparts N and CC of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Steel construction shall be dismantled column length by column length, and tier by tier (columns may be in two-story lengths).
</P>
<P>(d) Any structural member being dismembered shall not be overstressed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979 , 75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010; 77 FR 49730, Aug. 17, 2012; 78 FR 23843, Apr. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.859" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.859   Mechanical demolition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No workers shall be permitted in any area, which can be adversely affected by demolition operations, when balling or clamming is being performed. Only those workers necessary for the performance of the operations shall be permitted in this area at any other time.
</P>
<P>(b) The weight of the demolition ball shall not exceed 50 percent of the crane's rated load, based on the length of the boom and the maximum angle of operation at which the demolition ball will be used, or it shall not exceed 25 percent of the nominal breaking strength of the line by which it is suspended, whichever results in a lesser value.
</P>
<P>(c) The crane boom and loadline shall be as short as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) The ball shall be attached to the loadline with a swivel-type connection to prevent twisting of the loadline, and shall be attached by positive means in such manner that the weight cannot become accidentally disconnected.
</P>
<P>(e) When pulling over walls or portions thereof, all steel members affected shall have been previously cut free.
</P>
<P>(f) All roof cornices or other such ornamental stonework shall be removed prior to pulling walls over.
</P>
<P>(g) During demolition, continuing inspections by a competent person shall be made as the work progresses to detect hazards resulting from weakened or deteriorated floors, or walls, or loosened material. No employee shall be permitted to work where such hazards exist until they are corrected by shoring, bracing, or other effective means.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.860" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.20.20.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.860   Selective demolition by explosives.</HEAD>
<P>Selective demolition by explosives shall be conducted in accordance with the applicable sections of subpart U of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="U" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart U—Blasting and the Use of Explosives</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 107, Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (40 U.S.C. 333); secs. 4, 6, 8, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), or 6-96 (62 FR 111), as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.900" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.900   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer shall permit only authorized and qualified persons to handle and use explosives.
</P>
<P>(b) Smoking, firearms, matches, open flame lamps, and other fires, flame or heat producing devices and sparks shall be prohibited in or near explosive magazines or while explosives are being handled, transported or used.
</P>
<P>(c) No person shall be allowed to handle or use explosives while under the influence of intoxicating liquors, narcotics, or other dangerous drugs.
</P>
<P>(d) All explosives shall be accounted for at all times. Explosives not being used shall be kept in a locked magazine, unavailable to persons not authorized to handle them. The employer shall maintain an inventory and use record of all explosives. Appropriate authorities shall be notified of any loss, theft, or unauthorized entry into a magazine.
</P>
<P>(e) No explosives or blasting agents shall be abandoned.
</P>
<P>(f) No fire shall be fought where the fire is in imminent danger of contact with explosives. All employees shall be removed to a safe area and the fire area guarded against intruders.
</P>
<P>(g) Original containers, or Class II magazines, shall be used for taking detonators and other explosives from storage magazines to the blasting area.
</P>
<P>(h) When blasting is done in congested areas or in proximity to a structure, railway, or highway, or any other installation that may be damaged, the blaster shall take special precautions in the loading, delaying, initiation, and confinement of each blast with mats or other methods so as to control the throw of fragments, and thus prevent bodily injury to employees.
</P>
<P>(i) Employees authorized to prepare explosive charges or conduct blasting operations shall use every reasonable precaution including, but not limited to, visual and audible warning signals, flags, or barricades, to ensure employee safety.
</P>
<P>(j) Insofar as possible, blasting operations above ground shall be conducted between sunup and sundown.
</P>
<P>(k) Due precautions shall be taken to prevent accidental discharge of electric blasting caps from current induced by radar, radio transmitters, lightning, adjacent powerlines, dust storms, or other sources of extraneous electricity. These precautions shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Detonators shall be short-circuited in holes which have been primed and shunted until wired into the blasting circuit.
</P>
<P>(2) The suspension of all blasting operations and removal of persons from the blasting area during the approach and progress of an electric storm;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The prominent display of adequate signs, warning against the use of mobile radio transmitters, on all roads within 1,000 feet of blasting operations. Whenever adherence to the 1,000-foot distance would create an operational handicap, a competent person shall be consulted to evaluate the particular situation, and alternative provisions may be made which are adequately designed to prevent any premature firing of electric blasting caps. A description of any such alternatives shall be reduced to writing and shall be certified as meeting the purposes of this subdivision by the competent person consulted. The description shall be maintained at the construction site during the duration of the work, and shall be available for inspection by representatives of the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specimens of signs which would meet the requirements of paragraph (k)(3) of this section are the following:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec30oc91.049.gif"/>
<P>(4) Ensuring that mobile radio transmitters which are less than 100 feet away from electric blasting caps, in other than original containers, shall be deenergized and effectively locked;
</P>
<P>(5) Compliance with the recommendations of The Institute of the Makers of Explosives with regard to blasting in the vicinity of radio transmitters as stipulated in Radio Frequency Energy—A Potential Hazard in the Use of Electric Blasting Caps, IME Publication No. 20, March 1971.
</P>
<P>(l) Empty boxes and paper and fiber packing materials, which have previously contained high explosives, shall not be used again for any purpose, but shall be destroyed by burning at an approved location.
</P>
<P>(m) Explosives, blasting agents, and blasting supplies that are obviously deteriorated or damaged shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(n) Delivery and issue of explosives shall only be made by and to authorized persons and into authorized magazines or approved temporary storage or handling areas.
</P>
<P>(o) Blasting operations in the proximity of overhead power lines, communication lines, utility services, or other services and structures shall not be carried on until the operators and/or owners have been notified and measures for safe control have been taken.
</P>
<P>(p) The use of black powder shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(q) All loading and firing shall be directed and supervised by competent persons thoroughly experienced in this field.
</P>
<P>(r) All blasts shall be fired electrically with an electric blasting machine or properly designed electric power source, except as provided in § 1926.906 (a) and (r).
</P>
<P>(s) Buildings used for the mixing of blasting agents shall conform to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Buildings shall be of noncombustible construction or sheet metal on wood studs.
</P>
<P>(2) Floors in a mixing plant shall be of concrete or of other nonabsorbent materials.
</P>
<P>(3) All fuel oil storage facilities shall be separated from the mixing plant and located in such a manner that in case of tank rupture, the oil will drain away from the mixing plant building.
</P>
<P>(4) The building shall be well ventilated.
</P>
<P>(5) Heating units which do not depend on combustion processes, when properly designed and located, may be used in the building. All direct sources of heat shall be provided exclusively from units located outside the mixing building.
</P>
<P>(6) All internal-combustion engines used for electric power generation shall be located outside the mixing plant building, or shall be properly ventilated and isolated by a firewall. The exhaust systems on all such engines shall be located so any spark emission cannot be a hazard to any materials in or adjacent to the plant.
</P>
<P>(t) Buildings used for the mixing of water gels shall conform to the requirements of this subdivision.
</P>
<P>(1) Buildings shall be of noncombustible construction or sheet metal on wood studs.
</P>
<P>(2) Floors in a mixing plant shall be of concrete or of other nonabsorbent materials.
</P>
<P>(3) Where fuel oil is used all fuel oil storage facilities shall be separated from the mixing plant and located in such a manner that in case of tank rupture, the oil will drain away from the mixing plant building.
</P>
<P>(4) The building shall be well ventilated.
</P>
<P>(5) Heating units that do not depend on combustion processes, when properly designed and located, may be used in the building. All direct sources of heat shall be provided exclusively from units located outside of the mixing building.
</P>
<P>(6) All internal-combustion engines used for electric power generation shall be located outside the mixing plant building, or shall be properly ventilated and isolated by a firewall. The exhaust systems on all such engines shall be located so any spark emission cannot be a hazard to any materials in or adjacent to the plant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35183, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.901" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.901   Blaster qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A blaster shall be able to understand and give written and oral orders.
</P>
<P>(b) A blaster shall be in good physical condition and not be addicted to narcotics, intoxicants, or similar types of drugs.
</P>
<P>(c) A blaster shall be qualified, by reason of training, knowledge, or experience, in the field of transporting, storing, handling, and use of explosives, and have a working knowledge of State and local laws and regulations which pertain to explosives.
</P>
<P>(d) Blasters shall be required to furnish satisfactory evidence of competency in handling explosives and performing in a safe manner the type of blasting that will be required.
</P>
<P>(e) The blaster shall be knowledgeable and competent in the use of each type of blasting method used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.902" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.902   Surface transportation of explosives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Transportation of explosives shall meet the provisions of Department of Transportation regulations contained in 46 CFR parts 146-149, Water Carriers; 49 CFR parts 171-179, Highways and Railways; 49 CFR part 195, Pipelines; and 49 CFR parts 390-397, Motor Carriers.
</P>
<P>(b) Motor vehicles or conveyances transporting explosives shall only be driven by, and be in the charge of, a licensed driver who is physically fit. He shall be familiar with the local, State, and Federal regulation governing the transportation of explosives.
</P>
<P>(c) No person shall smoke, or carry matches or any other flame-producing device, nor shall firearms or loaded cartridges be carried while in or near a motor vehicle or conveyance transporting explosives.
</P>
<P>(d) Explosives, blasting agents, and blasting supplies shall not be transported with other materials or cargoes. Blasting caps (including electric) shall not be transported in the same vehicle with other explosives.
</P>
<P>(e) Vehicles used for transporting explosives shall be strong enough to carry the load without difficulty, and shall be in good mechanical condition.
</P>
<P>(f) When explosives are transported by a vehicle with an open body, a Class II magazine or original manufacturer's container shall be securely mounted on the bed to contain the cargo.
</P>
<P>(g) All vehicles used for the transportation of explosives shall have tight floors and any exposed spark-producing metal on the inside of the body shall be covered with wood, or other nonsparking material, to prevent contact with containers of explosives.
</P>
<P>(h) Every motor vehicle or conveyance used for transporting explosives shall be marked or placarded on both sides, the front, and the rear with the word “Explosives” in red letters, not less than 4 inches in height, on white background. In addition to such marking or placarding, the motor vehicle or conveyance may display, in such a manner that it will be readily visible from all directions, a red flag 18 inches by 30 inches, with the word “Explosives” painted, stamped, or sewed thereon, in white letters, at least 6 inches in height.
</P>
<P>(i) Each vehicle used for transportation of explosives shall be equipped with a fully charged fire extinguisher, in good condition. An Underwriters Laboratory-approved extinguisher of not less than 10-ABC rating will meet the minimum requirement. The driver shall be trained in the use of the extinguisher on his vehicle.
</P>
<P>(j) Motor vehicles or conveyances carrying explosives, blasting agents, or blasting supplies, shall not be taken inside a garage or shop for repairs or servicing.
</P>
<P>(k) No motor vehicle transporting explosives shall be left unattended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35311, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.903" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.903   Underground transportation of explosives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All explosives or blasting agents in transit underground shall be taken to the place of use or storage without delay.
</P>
<P>(b) The quantity of explosives or blasting agents taken to an underground loading area shall not exceed the amount estimated to be necessary for the blast.
</P>
<P>(c) Explosives in transit shall not be left unattended.
</P>
<P>(d) The hoist operator shall be notified before explosives or blasting agents are transported in a shaft conveyance.
</P>
<P>(e) Trucks used for the transportation of explosives underground shall have the electrical system checked weekly to detect any failures which may constitute an electrical hazard. A certification record which includes the date of the inspection; the signature of the person who performed the inspection; and a serial number, or other identifier, of the truck inspected shall be prepared and the most recent certification record shall be maintained on file.
</P>
<P>(f) The installation of auxiliary lights on truck beds, which are powered by the truck's electrical system, shall be prohibited.
</P>
<P>(g) Explosives and blasting agents shall be hoisted, lowered, or conveyed in a powder car. No other materials, supplies, or equipment shall be transported in the same conveyance at the same time.
</P>
<P>(h) No one, except the operator, his helper, and the powderman, shall be permitted to ride on a conveyance transporting explosives and blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(i) No person shall ride in any shaft conveyance transporting explosives and blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(j) No explosives or blasting agents shall be transported on any locomotive. At least two car lengths shall separate the locomotive from the powder car.
</P>
<P>(k) No explosives or blasting agents shall be transported on a man haul trip.
</P>
<P>(l) The car or conveyance containing explosives or blasting agents shall be pulled, not pushed, whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(m) The powder car or conveyance especially built for the purpose of transporting explosives or blasting agents shall bear a reflectorized sign on each side with the word “Explosives” in letters, not less than 4 inches in height; upon a background of sharply contrasting color.
</P>
<P>(n) Compartments for transporting detonators and explosives in the same car or conveyance shall be physically separated by a distance of 24 inches or by a solid partition at least 6 inches thick.
</P>
<P>(o) Detonators and other explosives shall not be transported at the same time in any shaft conveyance.
</P>
<P>(p) Explosives, blasting agents, or blasting supplies shall not be transported with other materials.
</P>
<P>(q) Explosives or blasting agents, not in original containers, shall be placed in a suitable container when transported manually.
</P>
<P>(r) Detonators, primers, and other explosives shall be carried in separate containers when transported manually.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 36382, Sept. 28, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.904" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.904   Storage of explosives and blasting agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Explosives and related materials shall be stored in approved facilities required under the applicable provisions of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms regulations contained in 27 CFR part 55, Commerce in Explosives.
</P>
<P>(b) Blasting caps, electric blasting caps, detonating primers, and primed cartridges shall not be stored in the same magazine with other explosives or blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(c) Smoking and open flames shall not be permitted within 50 feet of explosives and detonator storage magazine.
</P>
<P>(d) No explosives or blasting agents shall be permanently stored in any underground operation until the operation has been developed to the point where at least two modes of exit have been provided.
</P>
<P>(e) Permanent underground storage magazines shall be at least 300 feet from any shaft, adit, or active underground working area.
</P>
<P>(f) Permanent underground magazines containing detonators shall not be located closer than 50 feet to any magazine containing other explosives or blasting agents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35311, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.905" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.905   Loading of explosives or blasting agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Procedures that permit safe and efficient loading shall be established before loading is started.
</P>
<P>(b) All drill holes shall be sufficiently large to admit freely the insertion of the cartridges of explosives.
</P>
<P>(c) Tamping shall be done only with wood rods or plastic tamping poles without exposed metal parts, but nonsparking metal connectors may be used for jointed poles. Violent tamping shall be avoided. The primer shall never be tamped.
</P>
<P>(d) No holes shall be loaded except those to be fired in the next round of blasting. After loading, all remaining explosives and detonators shall be immediately returned to an authorized magazine.
</P>
<P>(e) Drilling shall not be started until all remaining butts of old holes are examined for unexploded charges, and if any are found, they shall be refired before work proceeds.
</P>
<P>(f) No person shall be allowed to deepen drill holes which have contained explosives or blasting agents.
</P>
<P>(g) No explosives or blasting agents shall be left unattended at the blast site.
</P>
<P>(h) Machines and all tools not used for loading explosives into bore holes shall be removed from the immediate location of holes before explosives are delivered. Equipment shall not be operated within 50 feet of loaded holes.
</P>
<P>(i) No activity of any nature other than that which is required for loading holes with explosives shall be permitted in a blast area.
</P>
<P>(j) Powerlines and portable electric cables for equipment being used shall be kept a safe distance from explosives or blasting agents being loaded into drill holes. Cables in the proximity of the blast area shall be deenergized and locked out by the blaster.
</P>
<P>(k) Holes shall be checked prior to loading to determine depth and conditions. Where a hole has been loaded with explosives but the explosives have failed to detonate, there shall be no drilling within 50 feet of the hole.
</P>
<P>(l) When loading a long line of holes with more than one loading crew, the crews shall be separated by practical distance consistent with efficient operation and supervision of crews.
</P>
<P>(m) No explosive shall be loaded or used underground in the presence of combustible gases or combustible dusts.
</P>
<P>(n) No explosives other than those in Fume Class 1, as set forth by the Institute of Makers of Explosives, shall be used; however, explosives complying with the requirements of Fume Class 2 and Fume Class 3 may be used if adequate ventilation has been provided.
</P>
<P>(o) All blast holes in open work shall be stemmed to the collar or to a point which will confine the charge.
</P>
<P>(p) Warning signs, indicating a blast area, shall be maintained at all approaches to the blast area. The warning sign lettering shall not be less than 4 inches in height on a contrasting background.
</P>
<P>(q) A bore hole shall never be sprung when it is adjacent to or near a hole that is loaded. Flashlight batteries shall not be used for springing holes.
</P>
<P>(r) Drill holes which have been sprung or chambered, and which are not water-filled, shall be allowed to cool before explosives are loaded.
</P>
<P>(s) No loaded holes shall be left unattended or unprotected.
</P>
<P>(t) The blaster shall keep an accurate, up-to-date record of explosives, blasting agents, and blasting supplies used in a blast and shall keep an accurate running inventory of all explosives and blasting agents stored on the operation.
</P>
<P>(u) When loading blasting agents pneumatically over electric blasting caps, semiconductive delivery hose shall be used and the equipment shall be bonded and grounded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35184, June 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.906" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.906   Initiation of explosive charges—electric blasting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Electric blasting caps shall not be used where sources of extraneous electricity make the use of electric blasting caps dangerous. Blasting cap leg wires shall be kept short-circuited (shunted) until they are connected into the circuit for firing.
</P>
<P>(b) Before adopting any system of electrical firing, the blaster shall conduct a thorough survey for extraneous currents, and all dangerous currents shall be eliminated before any holes are loaded.
</P>
<P>(c) In any single blast using electric blasting caps, all caps shall be of the same style or function, and of the same manufacture.
</P>
<P>(d) Electric blasting shall be carried out by using blasting circuits or power circuits in accordance with the electric blasting cap manufacturer's recommendations, or an approved contractor or his designated representative.
</P>
<P>(e) When firing a circuit of electric blasting caps, care must be exercised to ensure that an adequate quantity of delivered current is available, in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(f) Connecting wires and lead wires shall be insulated single solid wires of sufficient current-carrying capacity.
</P>
<P>(g) Bus wires shall be solid single wires of sufficient current-carrying capacity.
</P>
<P>(h) When firing electrically, the insulation on all firing lines shall be adequate and in good condition.
</P>
<P>(i) A power circuit used for firing electric blasting caps shall not be grounded.
</P>
<P>(j) In underground operations when firing from a power circuit, a safety switch shall be placed in the permanent firing line at intervals. This switch shall be made so it can be locked only in the “Off” position and shall be provided with a short-circuiting arrangement of the firing lines to the cap circuit.
</P>
<P>(k) In underground operations there shall be a “lightning” gap of at least 5 feet in the firing system ahead of the main firing switch; that is, between this switch and the source of power. This gap shall be bridged by a flexible jumper cord just before firing the blast.
</P>
<P>(l) When firing from a power circuit, the firing switch shall be locked in the open or “Off” position at all times, except when firing. It shall be so designed that the firing lines to the cap circuit are automatically short-circuited when the switch is in the “Off” position. Keys to this switch shall be entrusted only to the blaster.
</P>
<P>(m) Blasting machines shall be in good condition and the efficiency of the machine shall be tested periodically to make certain that it can deliver power at its rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(n) When firing with blasting machines, the connections shall be made as recommended by the manufacturer of the electric blasting caps used.
</P>
<P>(o) The number of electric blasting caps connected to a blasting machine shall not be in excess of its rated capacity. Furthermore, in primary blasting, a series circuit shall contain no more caps than the limits recommended by the manufacturer of the electric blasting caps in use.
</P>
<P>(p) The blaster shall be in charge of the blasting machines, and no other person shall connect the leading wires to the machine.
</P>
<P>(q) Blasters, when testing circuits to charged holes, shall use only blasting galvanometers or other instruments that are specifically designed for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(r) Whenever the possibility exists that a leading line or blasting wire might be thrown over a live powerline by the force of an explosion, care shall be taken to see that the total length of wires are kept too short to hit the lines, or that the wires are securely anchored to the ground. If neither of these requirements can be satisfied, a nonelectric system shall be used.
</P>
<P>(s) In electrical firing, only the man making leading wire connections shall fire the shot. All connections shall be made from the bore hole back to the source of firing current, and the leading wires shall remain shorted and not be connected to the blasting machine or other source of current until the charge is to be fired.
</P>
<P>(t) After firing an electric blast from a blasting machine, the leading wires shall be immediately disconnected from the machine and short-circuited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 63 FR 33469, June 18, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.907" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.907   Use of safety fuse.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Safety fuse shall only be used where sources of extraneous electricity make the use of electric blasting caps dangerous. The use of a fuse that has been hammered or injured in any way shall be forbidden.
</P>
<P>(b) The hanging of a fuse on nails or other projections which will cause a sharp bend to be formed in the fuse is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(c) Before capping safety fuse, a short length shall be cut from the end of the supply reel so as to assure a fresh cut end in each blasting cap.
</P>
<P>(d) Only a cap crimper of approved design shall be used for attaching blasting caps to safety fuse. Crimpers shall be kept in good repair and accessible for use.
</P>
<P>(e) No unused cap or short capped fuse shall be placed in any hole to be blasted; such unused detonators shall be removed from the working place and destroyed.
</P>
<P>(f) No fuse shall be capped, or primers made up, in any magazine or near any possible source of ignition.
</P>
<P>(g) No one shall be permitted to carry detonators or primers of any kind on his person.
</P>
<P>(h) The minimum length of safety fuse to be used in blasting shall be as required by State law, but shall not be less than 30 inches.
</P>
<P>(i) At least two men shall be present when multiple cap and fuse blasting is done by hand lighting methods.
</P>
<P>(j) Not more than 12 fuses shall be lighted by each blaster when hand lighting devices are used. However, when two or more safety fuses in a group are lighted as one by means of igniter cord, or other similar fuse-lighting devices, they may be considered as one fuse.
</P>
<P>(k) The so-called “drop fuse” method of dropping or pushing a primer or any explosive with a lighted fuse attached is forbidden.
</P>
<P>(l) Cap and fuse shall not be used for firing mudcap charges unless charges are separated sufficiently to prevent one charge from dislodging other shots in the blast.
</P>
<P>(m) When blasting with safety fuses, consideration shall be given to the length and burning rate of the fuse. Sufficient time, with a margin of safety, shall always be provided for the blaster to reach a place of safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.908" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.908   Use of detonating cord.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Care shall be taken to select a detonating cord consistent with the type and physical condition of the bore hole and stemming and the type of explosives used.
</P>
<P>(b) Detonating cord shall be handled and used with the same respect and care given other explosives.
</P>
<P>(c) The line of detonating cord extending out of a bore hole or from a charge shall be cut from the supply spool before loading the remainder of the bore hole or placing additional charges.
</P>
<P>(d) Detonating cord shall be handled and used with care to avoid damaging or severing the cord during and after loading and hooking-up.
</P>
<P>(e) Detonating cord connections shall be competent and positive in accordance with approved and recommended methods. Knot-type or other cord-to-cord connections shall be made only with detonating cord in which the explosive core is dry.
</P>
<P>(f) All detonating cord trunklines and branchlines shall be free of loops, sharp kinks, or angles that direct the cord back toward the oncoming line of detonation.
</P>
<P>(g) All detonating cord connections shall be inspected before firing the blast.
</P>
<P>(h) When detonating cord millisecond-delay connectors or short-interval-delay electric blasting caps are used with detonating cord, the practice shall conform strictly to the manufacturer's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(i) When connecting a blasting cap or an electric blasting cap to detonating cord, the cap shall be taped or otherwise attached securely along the side or the end of the detonating cord, with the end of the cap containing the explosive charge pointed in the direction in which the detonation is to proceed.
</P>
<P>(j) Detonators for firing the trunkline shall not be brought to the loading area nor attached to the detonating cord until everything else is in readiness for the blast.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.909" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.909   Firing the blast.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A code of blasting signals equivalent to Table U-1, shall be posted on one or more conspicuous places at the operation, and all employees shall be required to familiarize themselves with the code and conform to it. Danger signs shall be placed at suitable locations.
</P>
<P>(b) Before a blast is fired, a loud warning signal shall be given by the blaster in charge, who has made certain that all surplus explosives are in a safe place and all employees, vehicles, and equipment are at a safe distance, or under sufficient cover.
</P>
<P>(c) Flagmen shall be safely stationed on highways which pass through the danger zone so as to stop traffic during blasting operations.
</P>
<P>(d) It shall be the duty of the blaster to fix the time of blasting.
</P>
<P>(e) Before firing an underground blast, warning shall be given, and all possible entries into the blasting area, and any entrances to any working place where a drift, raise, or other opening is about to hole through, shall be carefully guarded. The blaster shall make sure that all employees are out of the blast area before firing a blast.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Table U-1
</HD1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Warning Signal</E>—A 1-minute series of long blasts 5 minutes prior to blast signal.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">Blast Signal</E>—A series of short blasts 1 minute prior to the shot.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="04">All Clear Signal</E>—A prolonged blast following the inspection of blast area.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.910" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.910   Inspection after blasting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately after the blast has been fired, the firing line shall be disconnected from the blasting machine, or where power switches are used, they shall be locked open or in the off position.
</P>
<P>(b) Sufficient time shall be allowed, not less than 15 minutes in tunnels, for the smoke and fumes to leave the blasted area before returning to the shot. An inspection of the area and the surrounding rubble shall be made by the blaster to determine if all charges have been exploded before employees are allowed to return to the operation, and in tunnels, after the muck pile has been wetted down.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.911" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.911   Misfires.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a misfire is found, the blaster shall provide proper safeguards for excluding all employees from the danger zone.
</P>
<P>(b) No other work shall be done except that necessary to remove the hazard of the misfire and only those employees necessary to do the work shall remain in the danger zone.
</P>
<P>(c) No attempt shall be made to extract explosives from any charged or misfired hole; a new primer shall be put in and the hole reblasted. If refiring of the misfired hole presents a hazard, the explosives may be removed by washing out with water or, where the misfire is under water, blown out with air.
</P>
<P>(d) If there are any misfires while using cap and fuse, all employees shall remain away from the charge for at least 1 hour. Misfires shall be handled under the direction of the person in charge of the blasting. All wires shall be carefully traced and a search made for unexploded charges.
</P>
<P>(e) No drilling, digging, or picking shall be permitted until all missed holes have been detonated or the authorized representative has approved that work can proceed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.912" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.912   Underwater blasting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A blaster shall conduct all blasting operations, and no shot shall be fired without his approval.
</P>
<P>(b) Loading tubes and casings of dissimilar metals shall not be used because of possible electric transient currents from galvanic action of the metals and water.
</P>
<P>(c) Only water-resistant blasting caps and detonating cords shall be used for all marine blasting. Loading shall be done through a nonsparking metal loading tube when tube is necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) No blast shall be fired while any vessel under way is closer than 1,500 feet to the blasting area. Those on board vessels or craft moored or anchored within 1,500 feet shall be notified before a blast is fired.
</P>
<P>(e) No blast shall be fired while any swimming or diving operations are in progress in the vicinity of the blasting area. If such operations are in progress, signals and arrangements shall be agreed upon to assure that no blast shall be fired while any person is in the water.
</P>
<P>(f) Blasting flags shall be displayed.
</P>
<P>(g) The storage and handling of explosives aboard vessels used in underwater blasting operations shall be according to provisions outlined herein on handling and storing explosives.
</P>
<P>(h) When more than one charge is placed under water, a float device shall be attached to an element of each charge in such manner that it will be released by the firing. Misfires shall be handled in accordance with the requirements of § 1926.911.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.913" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.913   Blasting in excavation work under compressed air.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Detonators and explosives shall not be stored or kept in tunnels, shafts, or caissons. Detonators and explosives for each round shall be taken directly from the magazines to the blasting zone and immediately loaded. Detonators and explosives left over after loading a round shall be removed from the working chamber before the connecting wires are connected up.
</P>
<P>(b) When detonators or explosives are brought into an air lock, no employee except the powderman, blaster, lock tender and the employees necessary for carrying, shall be permitted to enter the air lock. No other material, supplies, or equipment shall be locked through with the explosives.
</P>
<P>(c) Detonators and explosives shall be taken separately into pressure working chambers.
</P>
<P>(d) The blaster or powderman shall be responsible for the receipt, unloading, storage, and on-site transportation of explosives and detonators.
</P>
<P>(e) All metal pipes, rails, air locks, and steel tunnel lining shall be electrically bonded together and grounded at or near the portal or shaft, and such pipes and rails shall be cross-bonded together at not less than 1,000-foot intervals throughout the length of the tunnel. In addition, each low air supply pipe shall be grounded at its delivery end.
</P>
<P>(f) The explosives suitable for use in wet holes shall be water-resistant and shall be Fume Class 1.
</P>
<P>(g) When tunnel excavation in rock face is approaching mixed face, and when tunnel excavation is in mixed face, blasting shall be performed with light charges and with light burden on each hole. Advance drilling shall be performed as tunnel excavation in rock face approaches mixed face, to determine the general nature and extent of rock cover and the remaining distance ahead to soft ground as excavation advances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.914" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.21.20.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.914   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>American Table of Distances</I> (also known as Quantity Distance Tables) means American Table of Distances for Storage of Explosives as revised and approved by the Institute of the Makers of Explosives, June 5, 1964.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approved storage facility</I>—A facility for the storage of explosive materials conforming to the requirements of this part and covered by a license or permit issued under authority of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms. (See 27 CFR part 55)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Blast area</I>—The area in which explosives loading and blasting operations are being conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Blaster</I>—The person or persons authorized to use explosives for blasting purposes and meeting the qualifications contained in § 1926.901.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Blasting agent</I>—A blasting agent is any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used for blasting, but not classified an explosive and in which none of the ingredients is classified as an explosive provided the furnished (mixed) product cannot be detonated with a No. 8 test blasting cap when confined. A common blasting agent presently in use is a mixture of ammonium nitrate (NH<E T="52">4</E> NO<E T="52">3</E>) and carbonaceous combustibles, such as fuel oil or coal, and may either be procured, premixed and packaged from explosives companies or mixed in the field.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Blasting cap</I>—A metallic tube closed at one end, containing a charge of one or more detonating compounds, and designed for and capable of detonation from the sparks or flame from a safety fuse inserted and crimped into the open end.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Block holing</I>—The breaking of boulders by firing a charge of explosives that has been loaded in a drill hole.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Conveyance</I>—Any unit for transporting explosives or blasting agents, including but not limited to trucks, trailers, rail cars, barges, and vessels.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Detonating cord</I>—A flexible cord containing a center core of high explosives which when detonated, will have sufficient strength to detonate other cap-sensitive explosives with which it is in contact.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Detonator</I>—Blasting caps, electric blasting caps, delay electric blasting caps, and nonelectric delay blasting caps.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Electric blasting cap</I>—A blasting cap designed for and capable of detonation by means of an electric current.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Electric blasting circuitry</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) Bus wire. An expendable wire, used in parallel or series, in parallel circuits, to which are connected the leg wires of electric blasting caps.
</P>
<P>(2) Connecting wire. An insulated expendable wire used between electric blasting caps and the leading wires or between the bus wire and the leading wires.
</P>
<P>(3) Leading wire. An insulated wire used between the electric power source and the electric blasting cap circuit.
</P>
<P>(4) Permanent blasting wire. A permanently mounted insulated wire used between the electric power source and the electric blasting cap circuit.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Electric delay blasting caps</I>—Caps designed to detonate at a predetermined period of time after energy is applied to the ignition system.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Explosives.</I> (1) Any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion; that is, with substantially instantaneous release of gas and heat, unless such compound, mixture or device is otherwise specifically classified by the U.S. Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(2) All material which is classified as Class A, Class B, and Class C Explosives by the U.S. Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(3) Classification of explosives by the U.S. Department of Transportation is as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Class A Explosives.</I> Possessing detonating hazard, such as dynamite, nitroglycerin, picric acid, lead azide, fulminate of mercury, black powder, blasting caps, and detonating primers.
</P>
<P><I>Class B Explosives.</I> Possessing flammable hazard, such as propellant explosives, including some smokeless propellants.
</P>
<P><I>Class C Explosives.</I> Include certain types of manufactured articles which contain Class A or Class B explosives, or both, as components, but in restricted quantities.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(o) <I>Fuse lighters</I>—Special devices for the purpose of igniting safety fuse.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Magazine</I>—Any building or structure, other than an explosives manufacturing building, used for the storage of explosives.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Misfire</I>—An explosive charge which failed to detonate.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Mud-capping</I> (sometimes known as bulldozing, adobe blasting, or dobying). The blasting of boulders by placing a quantity of explosives against a rock, boulder, or other object without confining the explosives in a drill hole.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Nonelectric delay blasting cap</I>—A blasting cap with an integral delay element in conjunction with and capable of being detonated by a detonation impulse or signal from miniaturized detonating cord.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Primary blasting</I>—The blasting operation by which the original rock formation is dislodged from its natural location.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Primer</I>—A cartridge or container of explosives into which a detonator or detonating cord is inserted or attached.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Safety fuse</I>—A flexible cord containing an internal burning medium by which fire is conveyed at a continuous and uniform rate for the purpose of firing blasting caps.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Secondary blasting</I>—The reduction of oversize material by the use of explosives to the dimension required for handling, including mudcapping and blockholing.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Stemming</I>—A suitable inert incombustible material or device used to confine or separate explosives in a drill hole, or to cover explosives in mud-capping.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Springing</I>—The creation of a pocket in the bottom of a drill hole by the use of a moderate quantity of explosives in order that larger quantities or explosives may be inserted therein.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Water gels, or slurry explosives</I>—A wide variety of materials used for blasting. They all contain substantial proportions of water and high proportions of ammonium nitrate, some of which is in solution in the water. Two broad classes of water gels are: (1) Those which are sensitized by a material classed as an explosive, such as TNT or smokeless powder, and (2) those which contain no ingredient classified as an explosive; these are sensitized with metals such as aluminum or with other fuels. Water gels may be premixed at an explosives plant or mixed at the site immediately before delivery into the bore hole.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Semiconductive hose.</I> Semiconductive hose—a hose with an electrical resistance high enough to limit flow of stray electric currents to safe levels, yet not so high as to prevent drainage of static electric charges to ground; hose of not more than 2 megohms resistance over its entire length and of not less than 5,000 ohms per foot meets the requirement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 58 FR 35184, 35311, June 30, 1993]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="V" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart V—Electric Power Transmission and Distribution</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 20696, Apr. 11, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912); and 29 CFR Part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.950" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.950   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> (i) This subpart, except for paragraph (a)(3) of this section, covers the construction of electric power transmission and distribution lines and equipment. As used in this subpart, the term “construction” includes the erection of new electric transmission and distribution lines and equipment, and the alteration, conversion, and improvement of existing electric transmission and distribution lines and equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>An employer that complies with § 1910.269 of this chapter will be considered in compliance with requirements in this subpart that do not reference other subparts of this part. Compliance with § 1910.269 of this chapter will not excuse an employer from compliance obligations under other subparts of this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, this subpart does not apply to electrical safety-related work practices for unqualified employees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other part 1926 standards.</I> This subpart applies in addition to all other applicable standards contained in this part 1926. Employers covered under this subpart are not exempt from complying with other applicable provisions in part 1926 by the operation of § 1910.5(c) of this chapter. Specific references in this subpart to other sections of part 1926 are provided for emphasis only.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicable part 1910 requirements.</I> (i) Line-clearance tree trimming performed for the purpose of clearing space around electric power generation, transmission, or distribution lines or equipment and on behalf of an organization that operates, or that controls the operating procedures for, those lines or equipment shall comply with § 1910.269 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Work involving electric power generation installations shall comply with § 1910.269 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training</I>—(1) <I>All employees.</I> (i) Each employee shall be trained in, and familiar with, the safety-related work practices, safety procedures, and other safety requirements in this subpart that pertain to his or her job assignments.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employee shall also be trained in and familiar with any other safety practices, including applicable emergency procedures (such as pole-top and manhole rescue), that are not specifically addressed by this subpart but that are related to his or her work and are necessary for his or her safety.
</P>
<P>(iii) The degree of training shall be determined by the risk to the employee for the hazard involved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualified employees.</I> Each qualified employee shall also be trained and competent in:
</P>
<P>(i) The skills and techniques necessary to distinguish exposed live parts from other parts of electric equipment,
</P>
<P>(ii) The skills and techniques necessary to determine the nominal voltage of exposed live parts,
</P>
<P>(iii) The minimum approach distances specified in this subpart corresponding to the voltages to which the qualified employee will be exposed and the skills and techniques necessary to maintain those distances,
</P>
<P>(iv) The proper use of the special precautionary techniques, personal protective equipment, insulating and shielding materials, and insulated tools for working on or near exposed energized parts of electric equipment, and
</P>
<P>(v) The recognition of electrical hazards to which the employee may be exposed and the skills and techniques necessary to control or avoid these hazards.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, a person must have the training required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section to be considered a qualified person.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Supervision and annual inspection.</I> The employer shall determine, through regular supervision and through inspections conducted on at least an annual basis, that each employee is complying with the safety-related work practices required by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional training.</I> An employee shall receive additional training (or retraining) under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) If the supervision or annual inspections required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section indicate that the employee is not complying with the safety-related work practices required by this subpart, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If new technology, new types of equipment, or changes in procedures necessitate the use of safety-related work practices that are different from those which the employee would normally use, or
</P>
<P>(iii) If he or she must employ safety-related work practices that are not normally used during his or her regular job duties.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(4)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration considers tasks that are performed less often than once per year to necessitate retraining before the performance of the work practices involved.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Type of training.</I> The training required by paragraph (b) of this section shall be of the classroom or on-the-job type.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Training goals.</I> The training shall establish employee proficiency in the work practices required by this subpart and shall introduce the procedures necessary for compliance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Demonstration of proficiency.</I> The employer shall ensure that each employee has demonstrated proficiency in the work practices involved before that employee is considered as having completed the training required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(7):</HED>
<P>Though they are not required by this paragraph, employment records that indicate that an employee has successfully completed the required training are one way of keeping track of when an employee has demonstrated proficiency.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(7):</HED>
<P>For an employee with previous training, an employer may determine that that employee has demonstrated the proficiency required by this paragraph using the following process: (1) Confirm that the employee has the training required by paragraph (b) of this section, (2) use an examination or interview to make an initial determination that the employee understands the relevant safety-related work practices before he or she performs any work covered by this subpart, and (3) supervise the employee closely until that employee has demonstrated proficiency as required by this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Information transfer</I>—(1) <I>Host employer responsibilities.</I> Before work begins, the host employer shall inform contract employers of:
</P>
<P>(i) The characteristics of the host employer's installation that are related to the safety of the work to be performed and are listed in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(5) of this section;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>This paragraph requires the host employer to obtain information listed in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(5) of this section if it does not have this information in existing records.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Conditions that are related to the safety of the work to be performed, that are listed in paragraphs (d)(6) through (d)(8) of this section, and that are known to the host employer;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>For the purposes of this paragraph, the host employer need only provide information to contract employers that the host employer can obtain from its existing records through the exercise of reasonable diligence. This paragraph does not require the host employer to make inspections of worksite conditions to obtain this information.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) Information about the design and operation of the host employer's installation that the contract employer needs to make the assessments required by this subpart; and
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>This paragraph requires the host employer to obtain information about the design and operation of its installation that contract employers need to make required assessments if it does not have this information in existing records.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) Any other information about the design and operation of the host employer's installation that is known by the host employer, that the contract employer requests, and that is related to the protection of the contract employer's employees.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>For the purposes of this paragraph, the host employer need only provide information to contract employers that the host employer can obtain from its existing records through the exercise of reasonable diligence. This paragraph does not require the host employer to make inspections of worksite conditions to obtain this information.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Contract employer responsibilities.</I> (i) The contract employer shall ensure that each of its employees is instructed in the hazardous conditions relevant to the employee's work that the contract employer is aware of as a result of information communicated to the contract employer by the host employer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before work begins, the contract employer shall advise the host employer of any unique hazardous conditions presented by the contract employer's work.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contract employer shall advise the host employer of any unanticipated hazardous conditions found during the contract employer's work that the host employer did not mention under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The contract employer shall provide this information to the host employer within 2 working days after discovering the hazardous condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint host- and contract-employer responsibilities.</I> The contract employer and the host employer shall coordinate their work rules and procedures so that each employee of the contract employer and the host employer is protected as required by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Existing characteristics and conditions.</I> Existing characteristics and conditions of electric lines and equipment that are related to the safety of the work to be performed shall be determined before work on or near the lines or equipment is started. Such characteristics and conditions include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The nominal voltages of lines and equipment,
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum switching-transient voltages,
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of hazardous induced voltages,
</P>
<P>(4) The presence of protective grounds and equipment grounding conductors,
</P>
<P>(5) The locations of circuits and equipment, including electric supply lines, communication lines, and fire-protective signaling circuits,
</P>
<P>(6) The condition of protective grounds and equipment grounding conductors,
</P>
<P>(7) The condition of poles, and
</P>
<P>(8) Environmental conditions relating to safety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 80 FR 60040, Oct. 5, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.951" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.951   Medical services and first aid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The employer shall provide medical services and first aid as required in § 1926.50.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>First-aid training.</I> In addition to the requirements of § 1926.50, when employees are performing work on, or associated with, exposed lines or equipment energized at 50 volts or more, persons with first-aid training shall be available as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Field work.</I> For field work involving two or more employees at a work location, at least two trained persons shall be available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fixed work locations.</I> For fixed work locations such as substations, the number of trained persons available shall be sufficient to ensure that each employee exposed to electric shock can be reached within 4 minutes by a trained person. However, where the existing number of employees is insufficient to meet this requirement (at a remote substation, for example), each employee at the work location shall be a trained employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.952" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.952   Job briefing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Before each job</I>—(1) <I>Information provided by the employer.</I> In assigning an employee or a group of employees to perform a job, the employer shall provide the employee in charge of the job with all available information that relates to the determination of existing characteristics and conditions required by § 1926.950(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Briefing by the employee in charge.</I> The employer shall ensure that the employee in charge conducts a job briefing that meets paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section with the employees involved before they start each job.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subjects to be covered.</I> The briefing shall cover at least the following subjects: Hazards associated with the job, work procedures involved, special precautions, energy-source controls, and personal protective equipment requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Number of briefings</I>—(1) <I>At least one before each day or shift.</I> If the work or operations to be performed during the work day or shift are repetitive and similar, at least one job briefing shall be conducted before the start of the first job of each day or shift.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional briefings.</I> Additional job briefings shall be held if significant changes, which might affect the safety of the employees, occur during the course of the work.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extent of briefing</I>—(1) <I>Short discussion.</I> A brief discussion is satisfactory if the work involved is routine and if the employees, by virtue of training and experience, can reasonably be expected to recognize and avoid the hazards involved in the job.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Detailed discussion.</I> A more extensive discussion shall be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) If the work is complicated or particularly hazardous, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee cannot be expected to recognize and avoid the hazards involved in the job.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED>
<P>The briefing must address all the subjects listed in paragraph (b) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Working alone.</I> An employee working alone need not conduct a job briefing. However, the employer shall ensure that the tasks to be performed are planned as if a briefing were required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.953" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.953   Enclosed spaces.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section covers enclosed spaces that may be entered by employees. It does not apply to vented vaults if the employer makes a determination that the ventilation system is operating to protect employees before they enter the space. This section applies to routine entry into enclosed spaces. If, after the employer takes the precautions given in this section and in § 1926.965, the hazards remaining in the enclosed space endanger the life of an entrant or could interfere with an entrant's escape from the space, then entry into the enclosed space must meet the permit space entry requirements of subpart AA of this part. For routine entries where the hazards remaining in the enclosed space do not endanger the life of an entrant or interfere with an entrant's escape from the space, this section applies in lieu of the permit-space entry requirements contained in §§ 1926.1204 through 926.1211.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe work practices.</I> The employer shall ensure the use of safe work practices for entry into, and work in, enclosed spaces and for rescue of employees from such spaces.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training.</I> Each employee who enters an enclosed space or who serves as an attendant shall be trained in the hazards of enclosed-space entry, in enclosed-space entry procedures, and in enclosed-space rescue procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rescue equipment.</I> Employers shall provide equipment to ensure the prompt and safe rescue of employees from the enclosed space.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Evaluating potential hazards.</I> Before any entrance cover to an enclosed space is removed, the employer shall determine whether it is safe to do so by checking for the presence of any atmospheric pressure or temperature differences and by evaluating whether there might be a hazardous atmosphere in the space. Any conditions making it unsafe to remove the cover shall be eliminated before the cover is removed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>):</HED>
<P>The determination called for in this paragraph may consist of a check of the conditions that might foreseeably be in the enclosed space. For example, the cover could be checked to see if it is hot and, if it is fastened in place, could be loosened gradually to release any residual pressure. An evaluation also needs to be made of whether conditions at the site could cause a hazardous atmosphere, such as an oxygen-deficient or flammable atmosphere, to develop within the space.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>Removing covers.</I> When covers are removed from enclosed spaces, the opening shall be promptly guarded by a railing, temporary cover, or other barrier designed to prevent an accidental fall through the opening and to protect employees working in the space from objects entering the space.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hazardous atmosphere.</I> Employees may not enter any enclosed space while it contains a hazardous atmosphere, unless the entry conforms to the confined spaces in construction standard in subpart AA of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Attendants.</I> While work is being performed in the enclosed space, an attendant with first-aid training shall be immediately available outside the enclosed space to provide assistance if a hazard exists because of traffic patterns in the area of the opening used for entry. The attendant is not precluded from performing other duties outside the enclosed space if these duties do not distract the attendant from: Monitoring employees within the space or ensuring that it is safe for employees to enter and exit the space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>):</HED>
<P>See § 1926.965 for additional requirements on attendants for work in manholes and vaults.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) <I>Calibration of test instruments.</I> Test instruments used to monitor atmospheres in enclosed spaces shall be kept in calibration and shall have a minimum accuracy of ±10 percent.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Testing for oxygen deficiency.</I> Before an employee enters an enclosed space, the atmosphere in the enclosed space shall be tested for oxygen deficiency with a direct-reading meter or similar instrument, capable of collection and immediate analysis of data samples without the need for off-site evaluation. If continuous forced-air ventilation is provided, testing is not required provided that the procedures used ensure that employees are not exposed to the hazards posed by oxygen deficiency.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Testing for flammable gases and vapors.</I> Before an employee enters an enclosed space, the internal atmosphere shall be tested for flammable gases and vapors with a direct-reading meter or similar instrument capable of collection and immediate analysis of data samples without the need for off-site evaluation. This test shall be performed after the oxygen testing and ventilation required by paragraph (j) of this section demonstrate that there is sufficient oxygen to ensure the accuracy of the test for flammability.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Ventilation, and monitoring for flammable gases or vapors.</I> If flammable gases or vapors are detected or if an oxygen deficiency is found, forced-air ventilation shall be used to maintain oxygen at a safe level and to prevent a hazardous concentration of flammable gases and vapors from accumulating. A continuous monitoring program to ensure that no increase in flammable gas or vapor concentration above safe levels occurs may be followed in lieu of ventilation if flammable gases or vapors are initially detected at safe levels.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">l</E>):</HED>
<P>See the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” for guidance in determining whether a specific concentration of a substance is hazardous.</P></NOTE>
<P>(m) <I>Specific ventilation requirements.</I> If continuous forced-air ventilation is used, it shall begin before entry is made and shall be maintained long enough for the employer to be able to demonstrate that a safe atmosphere exists before employees are allowed to enter the work area. The forced-air ventilation shall be so directed as to ventilate the immediate area where employees are present within the enclosed space and shall continue until all employees leave the enclosed space.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Air supply.</I> The air supply for the continuous forced-air ventilation shall be from a clean source and may not increase the hazards in the enclosed space.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Open flames.</I> If open flames are used in enclosed spaces, a test for flammable gases and vapors shall be made immediately before the open flame device is used and at least once per hour while the device is used in the space. Testing shall be conducted more frequently if conditions present in the enclosed space indicate that once per hour is insufficient to detect hazardous accumulations of flammable gases or vapors.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">o</E>):</HED>
<P>See the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” for guidance in determining whether a specific concentration of a substance is hazardous.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1926.953:</HED>
<P>Entries into enclosed spaces conducted in accordance with the permit space entry requirements of subpart AA of this part are considered as complying with this section.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 80 FR 25518, May 4, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.954" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.954   Personal protective equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Personal protective equipment shall meet the requirements of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>Paragraph (d) of § 1926.95 sets employer payment obligations for the personal protective equipment required by this subpart, including, but not limited to, the fall protection equipment required by paragraph (b) of this section, the electrical protective equipment required by § 1926.960(c), and the flame-resistant and arc-rated clothing and other protective equipment required by § 1926.960(g).</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Fall protection</I>—(1) <I>Personal fall arrest systems.</I> (i) Personal fall arrest systems shall meet the requirements of subpart M of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal fall arrest equipment used by employees who are exposed to hazards from flames or electric arcs, as determined by the employer under § 1926.960(g)(1), shall be capable of passing a drop test equivalent to that required by paragraph (b)(2)(xii) of this section after exposure to an electric arc with a heat energy of 40±5 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Work-positioning equipment.</I> Body belts and positioning straps for work-positioning equipment shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Hardware for body belts and positioning straps shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Hardware shall be made of drop-forged steel, pressed steel, formed steel, or equivalent material.
</P>
<P>(B) Hardware shall have a corrosion-resistant finish.
</P>
<P>(C) Hardware surfaces shall be smooth and free of sharp edges.
</P>
<P>(ii) Buckles shall be capable of withstanding an 8.9-kilonewton (2,000-pound-force) tension test with a maximum permanent deformation no greater than 0.4 millimeters (0.0156 inches).
</P>
<P>(iii) D rings shall be capable of withstanding a 22-kilonewton (5,000-pound-force) tensile test without cracking or breaking.
</P>
<P>(iv) Snaphooks shall be capable of withstanding a 22-kilonewton (5,000-pound-force) tension test without failure.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>Distortion of the snaphook sufficient to release the keeper is considered to be tensile failure of a snaphook.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) Top grain leather or leather substitute may be used in the manufacture of body belts and positioning straps; however, leather and leather substitutes may not be used alone as a load-bearing component of the assembly.
</P>
<P>(vi) Plied fabric used in positioning straps and in load-bearing parts of body belts shall be constructed in such a way that no raw edges are exposed and the plies do not separate.
</P>
<P>(vii) Positioning straps shall be capable of withstanding the following tests:
</P>
<P>(A) A dielectric test of 819.7 volts, AC, per centimeter (25,000 volts per foot) for 3 minutes without visible deterioration;
</P>
<P>(B) A leakage test of 98.4 volts, AC, per centimeter (3,000 volts per foot) with a leakage current of no more than 1 mA;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraphs (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">vii</E>)(A) and (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">vii</E>)(B):</HED>
<P>Positioning straps that pass direct-current tests at equivalent voltages are considered as meeting this requirement.</P></NOTE>
<P>(C) Tension tests of 20 kilonewtons (4,500 pounds-force) for sections free of buckle holes and of 15 kilonewtons (3,500 pounds-force) for sections with buckle holes;
</P>
<P>(D) A buckle-tear test with a load of 4.4 kilonewtons (1,000 pounds-force); and
</P>
<P>(E) A flammability test in accordance with Table V-1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table V-1—Flammability Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test method
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria for passing the test
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vertically suspend a 500-mm (19.7-inch) length of strapping supporting a 100-kg (220.5-lb) weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any flames on the positioning strap shall self extinguish.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Use a butane or propane burner with a 76-mm (3-inch) flame</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The positioning strap shall continue to support the 100-kg (220.5-lb) mass.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct the flame to an edge of the strapping at a distance of 25 mm (1 inch).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remove the flame after 5 seconds.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wait for any flames on the positioning strap to stop burning.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(viii) The cushion part of the body belt shall contain no exposed rivets on the inside and shall be at least 76 millimeters (3 inches) in width.
</P>
<P>(ix) Tool loops shall be situated on the body of a body belt so that the 100 millimeters (4 inches) of the body belt that is in the center of the back, measuring from D ring to D ring, is free of tool loops and any other attachments.
</P>
<P>(x) Copper, steel, or equivalent liners shall be used around the bars of D rings to prevent wear between these members and the leather or fabric enclosing them.
</P>
<P>(xi) Snaphooks shall be of the locking type meeting the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The locking mechanism shall first be released, or a destructive force shall be placed on the keeper, before the keeper will open.
</P>
<P>(B) A force in the range of 6.7 N (1.5 lbf) to 17.8 N (4 lbf) shall be required to release the locking mechanism.
</P>
<P>(C) With the locking mechanism released and with a force applied on the keeper against the face of the nose, the keeper may not begin to open with a force of 11.2 N (2.5 lbf) or less and shall begin to open with a maximum force of 17.8 N (4 lbf).
</P>
<P>(xii) Body belts and positioning straps shall be capable of withstanding a drop test as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The test mass shall be rigidly constructed of steel or equivalent material with a mass of 100 kg (220.5 lbm). For work-positioning equipment used by employees weighing more than 140 kg (310 lbm) fully equipped, the test mass shall be increased proportionately (that is, the test mass must equal the mass of the equipped worker divided by 1.4).
</P>
<P>(B) For body belts, the body belt shall be fitted snugly around the test mass and shall be attached to the test-structure anchorage point by means of a wire rope.
</P>
<P>(C) For positioning straps, the strap shall be adjusted to its shortest length possible to accommodate the test and connected to the test-structure anchorage point at one end and to the test mass on the other end.
</P>
<P>(D) The test mass shall be dropped an unobstructed distance of 1 meter (39.4 inches) from a supporting structure that will sustain minimal deflection during the test.
</P>
<P>(E) Body belts shall successfully arrest the fall of the test mass and shall be capable of supporting the mass after the test.
</P>
<P>(F) Positioning straps shall successfully arrest the fall of the test mass without breaking, and the arrest force may not exceed 17.8 kilonewtons (4,000 pounds-force). Additionally, snaphooks on positioning straps may not distort to such an extent that the keeper would release.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>When used by employees weighing no more than 140 kg (310 lbm) fully equipped, body belts and positioning straps that conform to American Society of Testing and Materials <I>Standard Specifications for Personal Climbing Equipment,</I> ASTM F887-12
<SU>e1</SU>, are deemed to be in compliance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Care and use of personal fall protection equipment.</I> (i) Work-positioning equipment shall be inspected before use each day to determine that the equipment is in safe working condition. Work-positioning equipment that is not in safe working condition may not be used.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix F to this subpart contains guidelines for inspecting work-positioning equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) Personal fall arrest systems shall be used in accordance with § 1926.502(d).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>Fall protection equipment rigged to arrest falls is considered a fall arrest system and must meet the applicable requirements for the design and use of those systems. Fall protection equipment rigged for work positioning is considered work-positioning equipment and must meet the applicable requirements for the design and use of that equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that employees use fall protection systems as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Each employee working from an aerial lift shall use a fall restraint system or a personal fall arrest system. Paragraph (b)(2)(v) of § 1926.453 does not apply.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(C) of this section, each employee in elevated locations more than 1.2 meters (4 feet) above the ground on poles, towers, or similar structures shall use a personal fall arrest system, work-positioning equipment, or fall restraint system, as appropriate, if the employer has not provided other fall protection meeting subpart M of this part.
</P>
<P>(C) Until March 31, 2015, a qualified employee climbing or changing location on poles, towers, or similar structures need not use fall protection equipment, unless conditions, such as, but not limited to, ice, high winds, the design of the structure (for example, no provision for holding on with hands), or the presence of contaminants on the structure, could cause the employee to lose his or her grip or footing. On and after April 1, 2015, each qualified employee climbing or changing location on poles, towers, or similar structures must use fall protection equipment unless the employer can demonstrate that climbing or changing location with fall protection is infeasible or creates a greater hazard than climbing or changing location without it.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraphs (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(B) and (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(C):</HED>
<P>These paragraphs apply to structures that support overhead electric power transmission and distribution lines and equipment. They do not apply to portions of buildings, such as loading docks, or to electric equipment, such as transformers and capacitors. Subpart M of this part contains the duty to provide fall protection associated with walking and working surfaces.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraphs (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(B) and (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(C):</HED>
<P>Until the employer ensures that employees are proficient in climbing and the use of fall protection under § 1926.950(b)(7), the employees are not considered “qualified employees” for the purposes of paragraphs (b)(3)(iii)(B) and (b)(3)(iii)(C) of this section. These paragraphs require unqualified employees (including trainees) to use fall protection any time they are more than 1.2 meters (4 feet) above the ground.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) On and after April 1, 2015, work-positioning systems shall be rigged so that an employee can free fall no more than 0.6 meters (2 feet).
</P>
<P>(v) Anchorages for work-positioning equipment shall be capable of supporting at least twice the potential impact load of an employee's fall, or 13.3 kilonewtons (3,000 pounds-force), whichever is greater.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">v</E>):</HED>
<P>Wood-pole fall-restriction devices meeting American Society of Testing and Materials <I>Standard Specifications for Personal Climbing Equipment,</I> ASTM F887-12
<SU>e1</SU>, are deemed to meet the anchorage-strength requirement when they are used in accordance with manufacturers' instructions.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) Unless the snaphook is a locking type and designed specifically for the following connections, snaphooks on work-positioning equipment may not be engaged:
</P>
<P>(A) Directly to webbing, rope, or wire rope;
</P>
<P>(B) To each other;
</P>
<P>(C) To a D ring to which another snaphook or other connector is attached;
</P>
<P>(D) To a horizontal lifeline; or
</P>
<P>(E) To any object that is incompatibly shaped or dimensioned in relation to the snaphook such that accidental disengagement could occur should the connected object sufficiently depress the snaphook keeper to allow release of the object.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.955" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.955   Portable ladders and platforms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Requirements for portable ladders contained in subpart X of this part apply in addition to the requirements of this section, except as specifically noted in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special ladders and platforms.</I> Portable ladders used on structures or conductors in conjunction with overhead line work need not meet § 1926.1053(b)(5)(i) and (b)(12). Portable ladders and platforms used on structures or conductors in conjunction with overhead line work shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Design load.</I> In the configurations in which they are used, portable platforms shall be capable of supporting without failure at least 2.5 times the maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum load.</I> Portable ladders and platforms may not be loaded in excess of the working loads for which they are designed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Securing in place.</I> Portable ladders and platforms shall be secured to prevent them from becoming dislodged.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Intended use.</I> Portable ladders and platforms may be used only in applications for which they are designed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conductive ladders.</I> Portable metal ladders and other portable conductive ladders may not be used near exposed energized lines or equipment. However, in specialized high-voltage work, conductive ladders shall be used when the employer demonstrates that nonconductive ladders would present a greater hazard to employees than conductive ladders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.956" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.956   Hand and portable power equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Paragraph (b) of this section applies to electric equipment connected by cord and plug. Paragraph (c) of this section applies to portable and vehicle-mounted generators used to supply cord- and plug-connected equipment. Paragraph (d) of this section applies to hydraulic and pneumatic tools.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cord- and plug-connected equipment.</I> Cord- and plug-connected equipment not covered by subpart K of this part shall comply with one of the following instead of § 1926.302(a)(1):
</P>
<P>(1) The equipment shall be equipped with a cord containing an equipment grounding conductor connected to the equipment frame and to a means for grounding the other end of the conductor (however, this option may not be used where the introduction of the ground into the work environment increases the hazard to an employee); or
</P>
<P>(2) The equipment shall be of the double-insulated type conforming to subpart K of this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) The equipment shall be connected to the power supply through an isolating transformer with an ungrounded secondary of not more than 50 volts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Portable and vehicle-mounted generators.</I> Portable and vehicle-mounted generators used to supply cord- and plug-connected equipment covered by paragraph (b) of this section shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Equipment to be supplied.</I> The generator may only supply equipment located on the generator or the vehicle and cord- and plug-connected equipment through receptacles mounted on the generator or the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Equipment grounding.</I> The non-current-carrying metal parts of equipment and the equipment grounding conductor terminals of the receptacles shall be bonded to the generator frame.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bonding the frame.</I> For vehicle-mounted generators, the frame of the generator shall be bonded to the vehicle frame.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bonding the neutral conductor.</I> Any neutral conductor shall be bonded to the generator frame.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hydraulic and pneumatic tools</I>—(1) <I>Hydraulic fluid in insulating tools.</I> Paragraph (d)(1) of § 1926.302 does not apply to hydraulic fluid used in insulating sections of hydraulic tools.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operating pressure.</I> Safe operating pressures for hydraulic and pneumatic tools, hoses, valves, pipes, filters, and fittings may not be exceeded.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>If any hazardous defects are present, no operating pressure is safe, and the hydraulic or pneumatic equipment involved may not be used. In the absence of defects, the maximum rated operating pressure is the maximum safe pressure.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Work near energized parts.</I> A hydraulic or pneumatic tool used where it may contact exposed energized parts shall be designed and maintained for such use.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection against vacuum formation.</I> The hydraulic system supplying a hydraulic tool used where it may contact exposed live parts shall provide protection against loss of insulating value, for the voltage involved, due to the formation of a partial vacuum in the hydraulic line.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>Use of hydraulic lines that do not have check valves and that have a separation of more than 10.7 meters (35 feet) between the oil reservoir and the upper end of the hydraulic system promotes the formation of a partial vacuum.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Protection against the accumulation of moisture.</I> A pneumatic tool used on energized electric lines or equipment, or used where it may contact exposed live parts, shall provide protection against the accumulation of moisture in the air supply.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Breaking connections.</I> Pressure shall be released before connections are broken, unless quick-acting, self-closing connectors are used.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Leaks.</I> Employers must ensure that employees do not use any part of their bodies to locate, or attempt to stop, a hydraulic leak.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hoses.</I> Hoses may not be kinked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.957" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.957   Live-line tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Design of tools.</I> Live-line tool rods, tubes, and poles shall be designed and constructed to withstand the following minimum tests:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fiberglass-reinforced plastic.</I> If the tool is made of fiberglass-reinforced plastic (FRP), it shall withstand 328,100 volts per meter (100,000 volts per foot) of length for 5 minutes, or
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>Live-line tools using rod and tube that meet ASTM F711-02 (2007), <I>Standard Specification for Fiberglass-Reinforced Plastic (FRP) Rod and Tube Used in Live Line Tools,</I> are deemed to comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Wood.</I> If the tool is made of wood, it shall withstand 246,100 volts per meter (75,000 volts per foot) of length for 3 minutes, or
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equivalent tests.</I> The tool shall withstand other tests that the employer can demonstrate are equivalent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Condition of tools</I>—(1) <I>Daily inspection.</I> Each live-line tool shall be wiped clean and visually inspected for defects before use each day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Defects.</I> If any defect or contamination that could adversely affect the insulating qualities or mechanical integrity of the live-line tool is present after wiping, the tool shall be removed from service and examined and tested according to paragraph (b)(3) of this section before being returned to service.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Biennial inspection and testing.</I> Live-line tools used for primary employee protection shall be removed from service every 2 years, and whenever required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, for examination, cleaning, repair, and testing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Each tool shall be thoroughly examined for defects.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a defect or contamination that could adversely affect the insulating qualities or mechanical integrity of the live-line tool is found, the tool shall be repaired and refinished or shall be permanently removed from service. If no such defect or contamination is found, the tool shall be cleaned and waxed.
</P>
<P>(iii) The tool shall be tested in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3)(iv) and (b)(3)(v) of this section under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) After the tool has been repaired or refinished; and
</P>
<P>(B) After the examination if repair or refinishing is not performed, unless the tool is made of FRP rod or foam-filled FRP tube and the employer can demonstrate that the tool has no defects that could cause it to fail during use.
</P>
<P>(iv) The test method used shall be designed to verify the tool's integrity along its entire working length and, if the tool is made of fiberglass-reinforced plastic, its integrity under wet conditions.
</P>
<P>(v) The voltage applied during the tests shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) 246,100 volts per meter (75,000 volts per foot) of length for 1 minute if the tool is made of fiberglass, or
</P>
<P>(B) 164,000 volts per meter (50,000 volts per foot) of length for 1 minute if the tool is made of wood, or
</P>
<P>(C) Other tests that the employer can demonstrate are equivalent.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>Guidelines for the examination, cleaning, repairing, and in-service testing of live-line tools are specified in the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers' <I>IEEE Guide for Maintenance Methods on Energized Power Lines,</I> IEEE Std 516-2009.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.958" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.958   Materials handling and storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Materials handling and storage shall comply with applicable material-handling and material-storage requirements in this part, including those in subparts N and CC of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Materials storage near energized lines or equipment</I>—(1) <I>Unrestricted areas.</I> In areas to which access is not restricted to qualified persons only, materials or equipment may not be stored closer to energized lines or exposed energized parts of equipment than the following distances, plus a distance that provides for the maximum sag and side swing of all conductors and for the height and movement of material-handling equipment:
</P>
<P>(i) For lines and equipment energized at 50 kilovolts or less, the distance is 3.05 meters (10 feet).
</P>
<P>(ii) For lines and equipment energized at more than 50 kilovolts, the distance is 3.05 meters (10 feet) plus 0.10 meter (4 inches) for every 10 kilovolts over 50 kilovolts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restricted areas.</I> In areas restricted to qualified employees, materials may not be stored within the working space about energized lines or equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Paragraph (b) of § 1926.966 specifies the size of the working space.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.959" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.959   Mechanical equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Other applicable requirements.</I> Mechanical equipment shall be operated in accordance with applicable requirements in this part, including subparts N, O, and CC of this part, except that § 1926.600(a)(6) does not apply to operations performed by qualified employees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inspection before use.</I> The critical safety components of mechanical elevating and rotating equipment shall receive a thorough visual inspection before use on each shift.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Critical safety components of mechanical elevating and rotating equipment are components for which failure would result in free fall or free rotation of the boom.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Operator.</I> The operator of an electric line truck may not leave his or her position at the controls while a load is suspended, unless the employer can demonstrate that no employee (including the operator) is endangered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Outriggers</I>—(1) <I>Extend outriggers.</I> Mobile equipment, if provided with outriggers, shall be operated with the outriggers extended and firmly set, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clear view.</I> Outriggers may not be extended or retracted outside of the clear view of the operator unless all employees are outside the range of possible equipment motion.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Operation without outriggers.</I> If the work area or the terrain precludes the use of outriggers, the equipment may be operated only within its maximum load ratings specified by the equipment manufacturer for the particular configuration of the equipment without outriggers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applied loads.</I> Mechanical equipment used to lift or move lines or other material shall be used within its maximum load rating and other design limitations for the conditions under which the mechanical equipment is being used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operations near energized lines or equipment</I>—(1) <I>Minimum approach distance.</I> Mechanical equipment shall be operated so that the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under § 1926.960(c)(1)(i), are maintained from exposed energized lines and equipment. However, the insulated portion of an aerial lift operated by a qualified employee in the lift is exempt from this requirement if the applicable minimum approach distance is maintained between the uninsulated portions of the aerial lift and exposed objects having a different electrical potential.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observer.</I> A designated employee other than the equipment operator shall observe the approach distance to exposed lines and equipment and provide timely warnings before the minimum approach distance required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section is reached, unless the employer can demonstrate that the operator can accurately determine that the minimum approach distance is being maintained.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extra precautions.</I> If, during operation of the mechanical equipment, that equipment could become energized, the operation also shall comply with at least one of paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (d)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The energized lines or equipment exposed to contact shall be covered with insulating protective material that will withstand the type of contact that could be made during the operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The mechanical equipment shall be insulated for the voltage involved. The mechanical equipment shall be positioned so that its uninsulated portions cannot approach the energized lines or equipment any closer than the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under § 1926.960(c)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employee shall be protected from hazards that could arise from mechanical equipment contact with energized lines or equipment. The measures used shall ensure that employees will not be exposed to hazardous differences in electric potential. Unless the employer can demonstrate that the methods in use protect each employee from the hazards that could arise if the mechanical equipment contacts the energized line or equipment, the measures used shall include all of the following techniques:
</P>
<P>(A) Using the best available ground to minimize the time the lines or electric equipment remain energized,
</P>
<P>(B) Bonding mechanical equipment together to minimize potential differences,
</P>
<P>(C) Providing ground mats to extend areas of equipotential, and
</P>
<P>(D) Employing insulating protective equipment or barricades to guard against any remaining hazardous electrical potential differences.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix C to this subpart contains information on hazardous step and touch potentials and on methods of protecting employees from hazards resulting from such potentials.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.960" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.960   Working on or near exposed energized parts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to work on exposed live parts, or near enough to them to expose the employee to any hazard they present.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Qualified employees only.</I> (i) Only qualified employees may work on or with exposed energized lines or parts of equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Only qualified employees may work in areas containing unguarded, uninsulated energized lines or parts of equipment operating at 50 volts or more.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Treat as energized.</I> Electric lines and equipment shall be considered and treated as energized unless they have been deenergized in accordance with § 1926.961.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>At least two employees.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, at least two employees shall be present while any employees perform the following types of work:
</P>
<P>(A) Installation, removal, or repair of lines energized at more than 600 volts,
</P>
<P>(B) Installation, removal, or repair of deenergized lines if an employee is exposed to contact with other parts energized at more than 600 volts,
</P>
<P>(C) Installation, removal, or repair of equipment, such as transformers, capacitors, and regulators, if an employee is exposed to contact with parts energized at more than 600 volts,
</P>
<P>(D) Work involving the use of mechanical equipment, other than insulated aerial lifts, near parts energized at more than 600 volts, and
</P>
<P>(E) Other work that exposes an employee to electrical hazards greater than, or equal to, the electrical hazards posed by operations listed specifically in paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(A) through (b)(3)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to the following operations:
</P>
<P>(A) Routine circuit switching, when the employer can demonstrate that conditions at the site allow safe performance of this work,
</P>
<P>(B) Work performed with live-line tools when the position of the employee is such that he or she is neither within reach of, nor otherwise exposed to contact with, energized parts, and
</P>
<P>(C) Emergency repairs to the extent necessary to safeguard the general public.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Live work</I>—(1) <I>Minimum approach distances.</I> (i) The employer shall establish minimum approach distances no less than the distances computed by Table V-2 for ac systems or Table V-7 for dc systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than April 1, 2015, for voltages over 72.5 kilovolts, the employer shall determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis or assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table V-8. When the employer uses portable protective gaps to control the maximum transient overvoltage, the value of the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, must provide for five standard deviations between the statistical sparkover voltage of the gap and the statistical withstand voltage corresponding to the electrical component of the minimum approach distance. The employer shall make any engineering analysis conducted to determine maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage available upon request to employees and to the Assistant Secretary or designee for examination and copying.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>See appendix B to this subpart for information on how to calculate the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, when the employer uses portable protective gaps to reduce maximum transient overvoltages.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that no employee approaches or takes any conductive object closer to exposed energized parts than the employer's established minimum approach distance, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee is insulated from the energized part (rubber insulating gloves or rubber insulating gloves and sleeves worn in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section constitutes insulation of the employee from the energized part upon which the employee is working provided that the employee has control of the part in a manner sufficient to prevent exposure to uninsulated portions of the employee's body), or
</P>
<P>(B) The energized part is insulated from the employee and from any other conductive object at a different potential, or
</P>
<P>(C) The employee is insulated from any other exposed conductive object in accordance with the requirements for live-line barehand work in § 1926.964(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Type of insulation.</I> (i) When an employee uses rubber insulating gloves as insulation from energized parts (under paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) of this section), the employer shall ensure that the employee also uses rubber insulating sleeves. However, an employee need not use rubber insulating sleeves if:
</P>
<P>(A) Exposed energized parts on which the employee is not working are insulated from the employee; and
</P>
<P>(B) When installing insulation for purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section, the employee installs the insulation from a position that does not expose his or her upper arm to contact with other energized parts.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an employee uses rubber insulating gloves or rubber insulating gloves and sleeves as insulation from energized parts (under paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) of this section), the employer shall ensure that the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Puts on the rubber insulating gloves and sleeves in a position where he or she cannot reach into the minimum approach distance, established by the employer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Does not remove the rubber insulating gloves and sleeves until he or she is in a position where he or she cannot reach into the minimum approach distance, established by the employer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Working position</I>—(1) <I>Working from below.</I> The employer shall ensure that each employee, to the extent that other safety-related conditions at the worksite permit, works in a position from which a slip or shock will not bring the employee's body into contact with exposed, uninsulated parts energized at a potential different from the employee's.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for working without electrical protective equipment.</I> When an employee performs work near exposed parts energized at more than 600 volts, but not more than 72.5 kilovolts, and is not wearing rubber insulating gloves, being protected by insulating equipment covering the energized parts, performing work using live-line tools, or performing live-line barehand work under § 1926.964(c), the employee shall work from a position where he or she cannot reach into the minimum approach distance, established by the employer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Making connections.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees make connections as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Connecting.</I> In connecting deenergized equipment or lines to an energized circuit by means of a conducting wire or device, an employee shall first attach the wire to the deenergized part;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disconnecting.</I> When disconnecting equipment or lines from an energized circuit by means of a conducting wire or device, an employee shall remove the source end first; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loose conductors.</I> When lines or equipment are connected to or disconnected from energized circuits, an employee shall keep loose conductors away from exposed energized parts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conductive articles.</I> When an employee performs work within reaching distance of exposed energized parts of equipment, the employer shall ensure that the employee removes or renders nonconductive all exposed conductive articles, such as keychains or watch chains, rings, or wrist watches or bands, unless such articles do not increase the hazards associated with contact with the energized parts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Protection from flames and electric arcs</I>—(1) <I>Hazard assessment.</I> The employer shall assess the workplace to identify employees exposed to hazards from flames or from electric arcs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Estimate of available heat energy.</I> For each employee exposed to hazards from electric arcs, the employer shall make a reasonable estimate of the incident heat energy to which the employee would be exposed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Appendix E to this subpart provides guidance on estimating available heat energy. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will deem employers following the guidance in appendix E to this subpart to be in compliance with paragraph (g)(2) of this section. An employer may choose a method of calculating incident heat energy not included in appendix E to this subpart if the chosen method reasonably predicts the incident energy to which the employee would be exposed.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>This paragraph does not require the employer to estimate the incident heat energy exposure for every job task performed by each employee. The employer may make broad estimates that cover multiple system areas provided the employer uses reasonable assumptions about the energy-exposure distribution throughout the system and provided the estimates represent the maximum employee exposure for those areas. For example, the employer could estimate the heat energy just outside a substation feeding a radial distribution system and use that estimate for all jobs performed on that radial system.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibited clothing.</I> The employer shall ensure that each employee who is exposed to hazards from flames or electric arcs does not wear clothing that could melt onto his or her skin or that could ignite and continue to burn when exposed to flames or the heat energy estimated under paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>This paragraph prohibits clothing made from acetate, nylon, polyester, rayon and polypropylene, either alone or in blends, unless the employer demonstrates that the fabric has been treated to withstand the conditions that may be encountered by the employee or that the employee wears the clothing in such a manner as to eliminate the hazard involved.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Flame-resistant clothing.</I> The employer shall ensure that the outer layer of clothing worn by an employee, except for clothing not required to be arc rated under paragraphs (g)(5)(i) through (g)(5)(v) of this section, is flame resistant under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee is exposed to contact with energized circuit parts operating at more than 600 volts,
</P>
<P>(ii) An electric arc could ignite flammable material in the work area that, in turn, could ignite the employee's clothing,
</P>
<P>(iii) Molten metal or electric arcs from faulted conductors in the work area could ignite the employee's clothing, or
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(4)(<E T="01">iii</E>):</HED>
<P>This paragraph does not apply to conductors that are capable of carrying, without failure, the maximum available fault current for the time the circuit protective devices take to interrupt the fault.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) The incident heat energy estimated under paragraph (g)(2) of this section exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Arc rating.</I> The employer shall ensure that each employee exposed to hazards from electric arcs wears protective clothing and other protective equipment with an arc rating greater than or equal to the heat energy estimated under paragraph (g)(2) of this section whenever that estimate exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>. This protective equipment shall cover the employee's entire body, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's hands when the employee is wearing rubber insulating gloves with protectors or, if the estimated incident energy is no more than 14 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>, heavy-duty leather work gloves with a weight of at least 407 gm/m
<SU>2</SU> (12 oz/yd
<SU>2</SU>),
</P>
<P>(ii) Arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's feet when the employee is wearing heavy-duty work shoes or boots,
</P>
<P>(iii) Arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's head when the employee is wearing head protection meeting § 1926.100(b)(2) if the estimated incident energy is less than 9 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> for exposures involving single-phase arcs in open air or 5 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> for other exposures,
</P>
<P>(iv) The protection for the employee's head may consist of head protection meeting § 1926.100(b)(2) and a faceshield with a minimum arc rating of 8 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> if the estimated incident-energy exposure is less than 13 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> for exposures involving single-phase arcs in open air or 9 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> for other exposures, and
</P>
<P>(v) For exposures involving single-phase arcs in open air, the arc rating for the employee's head and face protection may be 4 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> less than the estimated incident energy.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>):</HED>
<P>See appendix E to this subpart for further information on the selection of appropriate protection.</P></NOTE>
<P>(6) <I>Dates.</I> (i) The obligation in paragraph (g)(2) of this section for the employer to make reasonable estimates of incident energy commences January 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(ii) The obligation in paragraph (g)(4)(iv) of this section for the employer to ensure that the outer layer of clothing worn by an employee is flame-resistant when the estimated incident heat energy exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> commences April 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(iii) The obligation in paragraph (g)(5) of this section for the employer to ensure that each employee exposed to hazards from electric arcs wears the required arc-rated protective equipment commences April 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fuse handling.</I> When an employee must install or remove fuses with one or both terminals energized at more than 300 volts, or with exposed parts energized at more than 50 volts, the employer shall ensure that the employee uses tools or gloves rated for the voltage. When an employee installs or removes expulsion-type fuses with one or both terminals energized at more than 300 volts, the employer shall ensure that the employee wears eye protection meeting the requirements of subpart E of this part, uses a tool rated for the voltage, and is clear of the exhaust path of the fuse barrel.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Covered (noninsulated) conductors.</I> The requirements of this section that pertain to the hazards of exposed live parts also apply when an employee performs work in proximity to covered (noninsulated) wires.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Non-current-carrying metal parts.</I> Non-current-carrying metal parts of equipment or devices, such as transformer cases and circuit-breaker housings, shall be treated as energized at the highest voltage to which these parts are exposed, unless the employer inspects the installation and determines that these parts are grounded before employees begin performing the work.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Opening and closing circuits under load.</I> (1) The employer shall ensure that devices used by employees to open circuits under load conditions are designed to interrupt the current involved.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall ensure that devices used by employees to close circuits under load conditions are designed to safely carry the current involved.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.035.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table V-3—Electrical Component of the Minimum Approach Distance (D; in Meters) at 5.1 to 72.5 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nominal voltage (kV) phase-to-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Phase-to-ground
<br/>exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Phase-to-phase
<br/>exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D (m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D (m)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.1 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table V-4—Altitude Correction Factor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Altitude above sea level (m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">A</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 to 900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">901 to 1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,201 to 1,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,501 to 1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,801 to 2,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,101 to 2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,401 to 2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,701 to 3,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,001 to 3,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3,601 to 4,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,201 to 4,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4,801 to 5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,401 to 6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.44</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table V-5—Alternative Minimum Approach Distances for Voltages of 72.5 kV and Less 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Nominal voltage (kV) phase-to-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Distance
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.050 0.300 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Avoid contact</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Avoid contact
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.301 to 0.750 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.751 to 5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.1 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.94
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in this table provided the worksite is at an elevation of 900 meters (3,000 feet) or less. If employees will be working at elevations greater than 900 meters (3,000 feet) above mean sea level, the employer shall determine minimum approach distances by multiplying the distances in this table by the correction factor in Table V-4 corresponding to the altitude of the work.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For single-phase systems, use voltage-to-ground.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table V-6—Alternative Minimum Approach Distances for Voltages of More Than 72.5 kV 
<sup>1 2 3</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range phase to phase (kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 121.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">121.1 to 145.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145.1 to 169.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">169.1 to 242.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">242.1 to 362.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">362.1 to 420.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420.1 to 550.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550.1 to 800.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.34
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in this table provided the worksite is at an elevation of 900 meters (3,000 feet) or less. If employees will be working at elevations greater than 900 meters (3,000 feet) above mean sea level, the employer shall determine minimum approach distances by multiplying the distances in this table by the correction factor in Table V-4 corresponding to the altitude of the work.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Employers may use the phase-to-phase minimum approach distances in this table provided that no insulated tool spans the gap and no large conductive object is in the gap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The clear live-line tool distance shall equal or exceed the values for the indicated voltage ranges.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table V-7—DC Live-Line Minimum Approach Distance (in Meters) With Overvoltage Factor 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Maximum anticipated per-unit
<br/>transient overvoltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">distance (m)
<br/>maximum line-to-ground voltage (kV)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">250
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">400
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">500
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">600
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">750
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.79
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The distances specified in this table are for air, bare-hand, and live-line tool conditions. If employees will be working at elevations greater than 900 meters (3,000 feet) above mean sea level, the employer shall determine minimum approach distances by multiplying the distances in this table by the correction factor in Table V-4 corresponding to the altitude of the work.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table V-8—Assumed Maximum Per-Unit Transient Overvoltage
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Voltage range
<br/>(kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of current
<br/>(ac or dc)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assumed maximum
<br/>per-unit transient
<br/>overvoltage
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 420.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ac</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420.1 to 550.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ac</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550.1 to 800.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ac</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250 to 750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">dc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 20696, Apr. 11, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 56962, Sept. 24, 2014; 80 FR 60040, Oct. 5, 2015]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.961" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.961   Deenergizing lines and equipment for employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to the deenergizing of transmission and distribution lines and equipment for the purpose of protecting employees. Conductors and parts of electric equipment that have been deenergized under procedures other than those required by this section shall be treated as energized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>System operator.</I> If a system operator is in charge of the lines or equipment and their means of disconnection, the employer shall designate one employee in the crew to be in charge of the clearance and shall comply with all of the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section in the order specified.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No system operator.</I> If no system operator is in charge of the lines or equipment and their means of disconnection, the employer shall designate one employee in the crew to be in charge of the clearance and to perform the functions that the system operator would otherwise perform under this section. All of the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section apply, in the order specified, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Single crews working with the means of disconnection under the control of the employee in charge of the clearance.</I> If only one crew will be working on the lines or equipment and if the means of disconnection is accessible and visible to, and under the sole control of, the employee in charge of the clearance, paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(3), and (c)(5) of this section do not apply. Additionally, the employer does not need to use the tags required by the remaining provisions of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple crews.</I> If two or more crews will be working on the same lines or equipment, then:
</P>
<P>(i) The crews shall coordinate their activities under this section with a single employee in charge of the clearance for all of the crews and follow the requirements of this section as if all of the employees formed a single crew, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Each crew shall independently comply with this section and, if there is no system operator in charge of the lines or equipment, shall have separate tags and coordinate deenergizing and reenergizing the lines and equipment with the other crews.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disconnecting means accessible to general public.</I> The employer shall render any disconnecting means that are accessible to individuals outside the employer's control (for example, the general public) inoperable while the disconnecting means are open for the purpose of protecting employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deenergizing lines and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Request to deenergize.</I> The employee that the employer designates pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section as being in charge of the clearance shall make a request of the system operator to deenergize the particular section of line or equipment. The designated employee becomes the employee in charge (as this term is used in paragraph (c) of this section) and is responsible for the clearance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Open disconnecting means.</I> The employer shall ensure that all switches, disconnectors, jumpers, taps, and other means through which known sources of electric energy may be supplied to the particular lines and equipment to be deenergized are open. The employer shall render such means inoperable, unless its design does not so permit, and then ensure that such means are tagged to indicate that employees are at work.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Automatically and remotely controlled switches.</I> The employer shall ensure that automatically and remotely controlled switches that could cause the opened disconnecting means to close are also tagged at the points of control. The employer shall render the automatic or remote control feature inoperable, unless its design does not so permit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Network protectors.</I> The employer need not use the tags mentioned in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section on a network protector for work on the primary feeder for the network protector's associated network transformer when the employer can demonstrate all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Every network protector is maintained so that it will immediately trip open if closed when a primary conductor is deenergized;
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees cannot manually place any network protector in a closed position without the use of tools, and any manual override position is blocked, locked, or otherwise disabled; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer has procedures for manually overriding any network protector that incorporate provisions for determining, before anyone places a network protector in a closed position, that: The line connected to the network protector is not deenergized for the protection of any employee working on the line; and (if the line connected to the network protector is not deenergized for the protection of any employee working on the line) the primary conductors for the network protector are energized.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tags.</I> Tags shall prohibit operation of the disconnecting means and shall indicate that employees are at work.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Test for energized condition.</I> After the applicable requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this section have been followed and the system operator gives a clearance to the employee in charge, the employer shall ensure that the lines and equipment are deenergized by testing the lines and equipment to be worked with a device designed to detect voltage.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Install grounds.</I> The employer shall ensure the installation of protective grounds as required by § 1926.962.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Consider lines and equipment deenergized.</I> After the applicable requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(7) of this section have been followed, the lines and equipment involved may be considered deenergized.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Transferring clearances.</I> To transfer the clearance, the employee in charge (or the employee's supervisor if the employee in charge must leave the worksite due to illness or other emergency) shall inform the system operator and employees in the crew; and the new employee in charge shall be responsible for the clearance.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Releasing clearances.</I> To release a clearance, the employee in charge shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify each employee under that clearance of the pending release of the clearance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that all employees under that clearance are clear of the lines and equipment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that all protective grounds protecting employees under that clearance have been removed; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Report this information to the system operator and then release the clearance.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Person releasing clearance.</I> Only the employee in charge who requested the clearance may release the clearance, unless the employer transfers responsibility under paragraph (c)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Removal of tags.</I> No one may remove tags without the release of the associated clearance as specified under paragraphs (c)(10) and (c)(11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Reenergizing lines and equipment.</I> The employer shall ensure that no one initiates action to reenergize the lines or equipment at a point of disconnection until all protective grounds have been removed, all crews working on the lines or equipment release their clearances, all employees are clear of the lines and equipment, and all protective tags are removed from that point of disconnection.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.962" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.962   Grounding for the protection of employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to grounding of transmission and distribution lines and equipment for the purpose of protecting employees. Paragraph (d) of this section also applies to protective grounding of other equipment as required elsewhere in this Subpart.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>This section covers grounding of transmission and distribution lines and equipment when this subpart requires protective grounding and whenever the employer chooses to ground such lines and equipment for the protection of employees.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> For any employee to work transmission and distribution lines or equipment as deenergized, the employer shall ensure that the lines or equipment are deenergized under the provisions of § 1926.961 and shall ensure proper grounding of the lines or equipment as specified in paragraphs (c) through (h) of this section. However, if the employer can demonstrate that installation of a ground is impracticable or that the conditions resulting from the installation of a ground would present greater hazards to employees than working without grounds, the lines and equipment may be treated as deenergized provided that the employer establishes that all of the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Deenergized.</I> The employer ensures that the lines and equipment are deenergized under the provisions of § 1926.961.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No possibility of contact.</I> There is no possibility of contact with another energized source.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No induced voltage.</I> The hazard of induced voltage is not present.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipotential zone.</I> Temporary protective grounds shall be placed at such locations and arranged in such a manner that the employer can demonstrate will prevent each employee from being exposed to hazardous differences in electric potential.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix C to this subpart contains guidelines for establishing the equipotential zone required by this paragraph. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will deem grounding practices meeting these guidelines as complying with paragraph (c) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) <I>Protective grounding equipment</I>—(1) <I>Ampacity.</I> (i) Protective grounding equipment shall be capable of conducting the maximum fault current that could flow at the point of grounding for the time necessary to clear the fault.
</P>
<P>(ii) Protective grounding equipment shall have an ampacity greater than or equal to that of No. 2 AWG copper.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Impedance.</I> Protective grounds shall have an impedance low enough so that they do not delay the operation of protective devices in case of accidental energizing of the lines or equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED>
<P>American Society for Testing and Materials <I>Standard Specifications for Temporary Protective Grounds to Be Used on De-Energized Electric Power Lines and Equipment,</I> ASTM F855-09, contains guidelines for protective grounding equipment. The Institute of Electrical Engineers <I>Guide for Protective Grounding of Power Lines,</I> IEEE Std 1048-2003, contains guidelines for selecting and installing protective grounding equipment.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Testing.</I> The employer shall ensure that, unless a previously installed ground is present, employees test lines and equipment and verify the absence of nominal voltage before employees install any ground on those lines or that equipment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Connecting and removing grounds</I>—(1) <I>Order of connection.</I> The employer shall ensure that, when an employee attaches a ground to a line or to equipment, the employee attaches the ground-end connection first and then attaches the other end by means of a live-line tool. For lines or equipment operating at 600 volts or less, the employer may permit the employee to use insulating equipment other than a live-line tool if the employer ensures that the line or equipment is not energized at the time the ground is connected or if the employer can demonstrate that each employee is protected from hazards that may develop if the line or equipment is energized.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of removal.</I> The employer shall ensure that, when an employee removes a ground, the employee removes the grounding device from the line or equipment using a live-line tool before he or she removes the ground-end connection. For lines or equipment operating at 600 volts or less, the employer may permit the employee to use insulating equipment other than a live-line tool if the employer ensures that the line or equipment is not energized at the time the ground is disconnected or if the employer can demonstrate that each employee is protected from hazards that may develop if the line or equipment is energized.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional precautions.</I> The employer shall ensure that, when an employee performs work on a cable at a location remote from the cable terminal, the cable is not grounded at the cable terminal if there is a possibility of hazardous transfer of potential should a fault occur.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Removal of grounds for test.</I> The employer may permit employees to remove grounds temporarily during tests. During the test procedure, the employer shall ensure that each employee uses insulating equipment, shall isolate each employee from any hazards involved, and shall implement any additional measures necessary to protect each exposed employee in case the previously grounded lines and equipment become energized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.963" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.963   Testing and test facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section provides for safe work practices for high-voltage and high-power testing performed in laboratories, shops, and substations, and in the field and on electric transmission and distribution lines and equipment. It applies only to testing involving interim measurements using high voltage, high power, or combinations of high voltage and high power, and not to testing involving continuous measurements as in routine metering, relaying, and normal line work.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>OSHA considers routine inspection and maintenance measurements made by qualified employees to be routine line work not included in the scope of this section, provided that the hazards related to the use of intrinsic high-voltage or high-power sources require only the normal precautions associated with routine work specified in the other paragraphs of this subpart. Two typical examples of such excluded test work procedures are “phasing-out” testing and testing for a “no-voltage” condition.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Safe work practices.</I> The employer shall establish and enforce work practices for the protection of each worker from the hazards of high-voltage or high-power testing at all test areas, temporary and permanent. Such work practices shall include, as a minimum, test area safeguarding, grounding, the safe use of measuring and control circuits, and a means providing for periodic safety checks of field test areas.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training.</I> The employer shall ensure that each employee, upon initial assignment to the test area, receives training in safe work practices, with retraining provided as required by § 1926.950(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safeguarding of test areas</I>—(1) <I>Safeguarding.</I> The employer shall provide safeguarding within test areas to control access to test equipment or to apparatus under test that could become energized as part of the testing by either direct or inductive coupling and to prevent accidental employee contact with energized parts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permanent test areas.</I> The employer shall guard permanent test areas with walls, fences, or other barriers designed to keep employees out of the test areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Temporary test areas.</I> In field testing, or at a temporary test site not guarded by permanent fences and gates, the employer shall ensure the use of one of the following means to prevent employees without authorization from entering:
</P>
<P>(i) Distinctively colored safety tape supported approximately waist high with safety signs attached to it,
</P>
<P>(ii) A barrier or barricade that limits access to the test area to a degree equivalent, physically and visually, to the barricade specified in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(iii) One or more test observers stationed so that they can monitor the entire area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Removal of safeguards.</I> The employer shall ensure the removal of the safeguards required by paragraph (c)(3) of this section when employees no longer need the protection afforded by the safeguards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grounding practices</I>—(1) <I>Establish and implement practices.</I> The employer shall establish and implement safe grounding practices for the test facility.
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall maintain at ground potential all conductive parts accessible to the test operator while the equipment is operating at high voltage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever ungrounded terminals of test equipment or apparatus under test may be present, they shall be treated as energized until tests demonstrate that they are deenergized.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installation of grounds.</I> The employer shall ensure either that visible grounds are applied automatically, or that employees using properly insulated tools manually apply visible grounds, to the high-voltage circuits after they are deenergized and before any employee performs work on the circuit or on the item or apparatus under test. Common ground connections shall be solidly connected to the test equipment and the apparatus under test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Isolated ground return.</I> In high-power testing, the employer shall provide an isolated ground-return conductor system designed to prevent the intentional passage of current, with its attendant voltage rise, from occurring in the ground grid or in the earth. However, the employer need not provide an isolated ground-return conductor if the employer can demonstrate that both of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer cannot provide an isolated ground-return conductor due to the distance of the test site from the electric energy source, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer protects employees from any hazardous step and touch potentials that may develop during the test.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>See appendix C to this subpart for information on measures that employers can take to protect employees from hazardous step and touch potentials.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) <I>Equipment grounding conductors.</I> For tests in which using the equipment grounding conductor in the equipment power cord to ground the test equipment would result in greater hazards to test personnel or prevent the taking of satisfactory measurements, the employer may use a ground clearly indicated in the test set-up if the employer can demonstrate that this ground affords protection for employees equivalent to the protection afforded by an equipment grounding conductor in the power supply cord.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grounding after tests.</I> The employer shall ensure that, when any employee enters the test area after equipment is deenergized, a ground is placed on the high-voltage terminal and any other exposed terminals.
</P>
<P>(i) Before any employee applies a direct ground, the employer shall discharge high capacitance equipment or apparatus through a resistor rated for the available energy.
</P>
<P>(ii) A direct ground shall be applied to the exposed terminals after the stored energy drops to a level at which it is safe to do so.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Grounding test vehicles.</I> If the employer uses a test trailer or test vehicle in field testing, its chassis shall be grounded. The employer shall protect each employee against hazardous touch potentials with respect to the vehicle, instrument panels, and other conductive parts accessible to employees with bonding, insulation, or isolation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control and measuring circuits</I>—(1) <I>Control wiring.</I> The employer may not run control wiring, meter connections, test leads, or cables from a test area unless contained in a grounded metallic sheath and terminated in a grounded metallic enclosure or unless the employer takes other precautions that it can demonstrate will provide employees with equivalent safety.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Instruments.</I> The employer shall isolate meters and other instruments with accessible terminals or parts from test personnel to protect against hazards that could arise should such terminals and parts become energized during testing. If the employer provides this isolation by locating test equipment in metal compartments with viewing windows, the employer shall provide interlocks to interrupt the power supply when someone opens the compartment cover.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Routing temporary wiring.</I> The employer shall protect temporary wiring and its connections against damage, accidental interruptions, and other hazards. To the maximum extent possible, the employer shall keep signal, control, ground, and power cables separate from each other.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Test observer.</I> If any employee will be present in the test area during testing, a test observer shall be present. The test observer shall be capable of implementing the immediate deenergizing of test circuits for safety purposes.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safety check</I>—(1) <I>Before each test.</I> Safety practices governing employee work at temporary or field test areas shall provide, at the beginning of each series of tests, for a routine safety check of such test areas.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions to be checked.</I> The test operator in charge shall conduct these routine safety checks before each series of tests and shall verify at least the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Barriers and safeguards are in workable condition and placed properly to isolate hazardous areas;
</P>
<P>(ii) System test status signals, if used, are in operable condition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Clearly marked test-power disconnects are readily available in an emergency;
</P>
<P>(iv) Ground connections are clearly identifiable;
</P>
<P>(v) Personal protective equipment is provided and used as required by subpart E of this part and by this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Proper separation between signal, ground, and power cables.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.964" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.964   Overhead lines and live-line barehand work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> This section provides additional requirements for work performed on or near overhead lines and equipment and for live-line barehand work.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Checking structure before climbing.</I> Before allowing employees to subject elevated structures, such as poles or towers, to such stresses as climbing or the installation or removal of equipment may impose, the employer shall ascertain that the structures are capable of sustaining the additional or unbalanced stresses. If the pole or other structure cannot withstand the expected loads, the employer shall brace or otherwise support the pole or structure so as to prevent failure.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Appendix D to this subpart contains test methods that employers can use in ascertaining whether a wood pole is capable of sustaining the forces imposed by an employee climbing the pole. This paragraph also requires the employer to ascertain that the pole can sustain all other forces imposed by the work employees will perform.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Setting and moving poles.</I> (i) When a pole is set, moved, or removed near an exposed energized overhead conductor, the pole may not contact the conductor.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a pole is set, moved, or removed near an exposed energized overhead conductor, the employer shall ensure that each employee wears electrical protective equipment or uses insulated devices when handling the pole and that no employee contacts the pole with uninsulated parts of his or her body.
</P>
<P>(iii) To protect employees from falling into holes used for placing poles, the employer shall physically guard the holes, or ensure that employees attend the holes, whenever anyone is working nearby.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Installing and removing overhead lines.</I> The following provisions apply to the installation and removal of overhead conductors or cable (overhead lines).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Tension stringing method.</I> When lines that employees are installing or removing can contact energized parts, the employer shall use the tension-stringing method, barriers, or other equivalent measures to minimize the possibility that conductors and cables the employees are installing or removing will contact energized power lines or equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conductors, cables, and pulling and tensioning equipment.</I> For conductors, cables, and pulling and tensioning equipment, the employer shall provide the protective measures required by § 1926.959(d)(3) when employees are installing or removing a conductor or cable close enough to energized conductors that any of the following failures could energize the pulling or tensioning equipment or the conductor or cable being installed or removed:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure of the pulling or tensioning equipment,
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure of the conductor or cable being pulled, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Failure of the previously installed lines or equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disable automatic-reclosing feature.</I> If the conductors that employees are installing or removing cross over energized conductors in excess of 600 volts and if the design of the circuit-interrupting devices protecting the lines so permits, the employer shall render inoperable the automatic-reclosing feature of these devices.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Induced voltage.</I> (i) Before employees install lines parallel to existing energized lines, the employer shall make a determination of the approximate voltage to be induced in the new lines, or work shall proceed on the assumption that the induced voltage is hazardous.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the employer can demonstrate that the lines that employees are installing are not subject to the induction of a hazardous voltage or unless the lines are treated as energized, temporary protective grounds shall be placed at such locations and arranged in such a manner that the employer can demonstrate will prevent exposure of each employee to hazardous differences in electric potential.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(4)(<E T="01">ii</E>):</HED>
<P>Appendix C to this subpart contains guidelines for protecting employees from hazardous differences in electric potential as required by this paragraph.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>If the employer takes no precautions to protect employees from hazards associated with involuntary reactions from electric shock, a hazard exists if the induced voltage is sufficient to pass a current of 1 milliampere through a 500-ohm resistor. If the employer protects employees from injury due to involuntary reactions from electric shock, a hazard exists if the resultant current would be more than 6 milliamperes.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) <I>Safe operating condition.</I> Reel-handling equipment, including pulling and tensioning devices, shall be in safe operating condition and shall be leveled and aligned.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Load ratings.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not exceed load ratings of stringing lines, pulling lines, conductor grips, load-bearing hardware and accessories, rigging, and hoists.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Defective pulling lines.</I> The employer shall repair or replace defective pulling lines and accessories.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Conductor grips.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not use conductor grips on wire rope unless the manufacturer specifically designed the grip for this application.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Communications.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees maintain reliable communications, through two-way radios or other equivalent means, between the reel tender and the pulling-rig operator.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Operation of pulling rig.</I> Employees may operate the pulling rig only when it is safe to do so.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(10):</HED>
<P>Examples of unsafe conditions include: employees in locations prohibited by paragraph (b)(11) of this section, conductor and pulling line hang-ups, and slipping of the conductor grip.</P></NOTE>
<P>(11) <I>Working under overhead operations.</I> While a power-driven device is pulling the conductor or pulling line and the conductor or pulling line is in motion, the employer shall ensure that employees are not directly under overhead operations or on the crossarm, except as necessary for the employees to guide the stringing sock or board over or through the stringing sheave.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Live-line barehand work.</I> In addition to other applicable provisions contained in this subpart, the following requirements apply to live-line barehand work:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Training.</I> Before an employee uses or supervises the use of the live-line barehand technique on energized circuits, the employer shall ensure that the employee completes training conforming to § 1926.950(b) in the technique and in the safety requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Existing conditions.</I> Before any employee uses the live-line barehand technique on energized high-voltage conductors or parts, the employer shall ascertain the following information in addition to information about other existing conditions required by § 1926.950(d):
</P>
<P>(i) The nominal voltage rating of the circuit on which employees will perform the work,
</P>
<P>(ii) The clearances to ground of lines and other energized parts on which employees will perform the work, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The voltage limitations of equipment employees will use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insulated tools and equipment.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that the insulated equipment, insulated tools, and aerial devices and platforms used by employees are designed, tested, and made for live-line barehand work.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees keep tools and equipment clean and dry while they are in use.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disable automatic-reclosing feature.</I> The employer shall render inoperable the automatic-reclosing feature of circuit-interrupting devices protecting the lines if the design of the devices permits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Adverse weather conditions.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not perform work when adverse weather conditions would make the work hazardous even after the employer implements the work practices required by this subpart. Additionally, employees may not perform work when winds reduce the phase-to-phase or phase-to-ground clearances at the work location below the minimum approach distances specified in paragraph (c)(13) of this section, unless insulating guards cover the grounded objects and other lines and equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(5):</HED>
<P>Thunderstorms in the vicinity, high winds, snow storms, and ice storms are examples of adverse weather conditions that make live-line barehand work too hazardous to perform safely even after the employer implements the work practices required by this subpart.</P></NOTE>
<P>(6) <I>Bucket liners and electrostatic shielding.</I> The employer shall provide and ensure that employees use a conductive bucket liner or other conductive device for bonding the insulated aerial device to the energized line or equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) The employee shall be connected to the bucket liner or other conductive device by the use of conductive shoes, leg clips, or other means.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where differences in potentials at the worksite pose a hazard to employees, the employer shall provide electrostatic shielding designed for the voltage being worked.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bonding the employee to the energized part.</I> The employer shall ensure that, before the employee contacts the energized part, the employee bonds the conductive bucket liner or other conductive device to the energized conductor by means of a positive connection. This connection shall remain attached to the energized conductor until the employee completes the work on the energized circuit.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Aerial-lift controls.</I> Aerial lifts used for live-line barehand work shall have dual controls (lower and upper) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The upper controls shall be within easy reach of the employee in the bucket. On a two-bucket-type lift, access to the controls shall be within easy reach of both buckets.
</P>
<P>(ii) The lower set of controls shall be near the base of the boom and shall be designed so that they can override operation of the equipment at any time.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Operation of lower controls.</I> Lower (ground-level) lift controls may not be operated with an employee in the lift except in case of emergency.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Check controls.</I> The employer shall ensure that, before employees elevate an aerial lift into the work position, the employees check all controls (ground level and bucket) to determine that they are in proper working condition.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Body of aerial lift truck.</I> The employer shall ensure that, before employees elevate the boom of an aerial lift, the employees ground the body of the truck or barricade the body of the truck and treat it as energized.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Boom-current test.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees perform a boom-current test before starting work each day, each time during the day when they encounter a higher voltage, and when changed conditions indicate a need for an additional test.
</P>
<P>(i) This test shall consist of placing the bucket in contact with an energized source equal to the voltage to be encountered for a minimum of 3 minutes.
</P>
<P>(ii) The leakage current may not exceed 1 microampere per kilovolt of nominal phase-to-ground voltage.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall immediately suspend work from the aerial lift when there is any indication of a malfunction in the equipment.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Minimum approach distance.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees maintain the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under § 1926.960(c)(1)(i), from all grounded objects and from lines and equipment at a potential different from that to which the live-line barehand equipment is bonded, unless insulating guards cover such grounded objects and other lines and equipment.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Approaching, leaving, and bonding to energized part.</I> The employer shall ensure that, while an employee is approaching, leaving, or bonding to an energized circuit, the employee maintains the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under § 1926.960(c)(1)(i), between the employee and any grounded parts, including the lower boom and portions of the truck and between the employee and conductive objects energized at different potentials.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Positioning bucket near energized bushing or insulator string.</I> While the bucket is alongside an energized bushing or insulator string, the employer shall ensure that employees maintain the phase-to-ground minimum approach distances, established by the employer under § 1926.960(c)(1)(i), between all parts of the bucket and the grounded end of the bushing or insulator string or any other grounded surface.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Handlines.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not use handlines between the bucket and the boom or between the bucket and the ground. However, employees may use nonconductive-type handlines from conductor to ground if not supported from the bucket. The employer shall ensure that no one uses ropes used for live-line barehand work for other purposes.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Passing objects to employee.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not pass uninsulated equipment or material between a pole or structure and an aerial lift while an employee working from the bucket is bonded to an energized part.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Nonconductive measuring device.</I> A nonconductive measuring device shall be readily accessible to employees performing live-line barehand work to assist them in maintaining the required minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Towers and structures.</I> The following requirements apply to work performed on towers or other structures that support overhead lines.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Working beneath towers and structures.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is under a tower or structure while work is in progress, except when the employer can demonstrate that such a working position is necessary to assist employees working above.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tag lines.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees use tag lines or other similar devices to maintain control of tower sections being raised or positioned, unless the employer can demonstrate that the use of such devices would create a greater hazard to employees.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disconnecting load lines.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not detach the loadline from a member or section until they safely secure the load.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Adverse weather conditions.</I> The employer shall ensure that, except during emergency restoration procedures, employees discontinue work when adverse weather conditions would make the work hazardous in spite of the work practices required by this subpart.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>Thunderstorms in the vicinity, high winds, snow storms, and ice storms are examples of adverse weather conditions that make this work too hazardous to perform even after the employer implements the work practices required by this subpart.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.965" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.965   Underground electrical installations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section provides additional requirements for work on underground electrical installations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees use a ladder or other climbing device to enter and exit a manhole or subsurface vault exceeding 1.22 meters (4 feet) in depth. No employee may climb into or out of a manhole or vault by stepping on cables or hangers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Lowering equipment into manholes</I>—(1) <I>Hoisting equipment.</I> Equipment used to lower materials and tools into manholes or vaults shall be capable of supporting the weight to be lowered and shall be checked for defects before use.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clear the area of employees.</I> Before anyone lowers tools or material into the opening for a manhole or vault, each employee working in the manhole or vault shall be clear of the area directly under the opening.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Attendants for manholes and vaults</I>—(1) <I>When required.</I> While work is being performed in a manhole or vault containing energized electric equipment, an employee with first-aid training shall be available on the surface in the immediate vicinity of the manhole or vault entrance to render emergency assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Brief entries allowed.</I> Occasionally, the employee on the surface may briefly enter a manhole or vault to provide nonemergency assistance.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Paragraph (h) of 1926.953 may also require an attendant and does not permit this attendant to enter the manhole or vault.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>Paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of § 1926.960 requires employees entering manholes or vaults containing unguarded, uninsulated energized lines or parts of electric equipment operating at 50 volts or more to be qualified.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Entry without attendant.</I> For the purpose of inspection, housekeeping, taking readings, or similar work, an employee working alone may enter, for brief periods of time, a manhole or vault where energized cables or equipment are in service if the employer can demonstrate that the employee will be protected from all electrical hazards.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Communications.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees maintain reliable communications, through two-way radios or other equivalent means, among all employees involved in the job.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Duct rods.</I> The employer shall ensure that, if employees use duct rods, the employees install the duct rods in the direction presenting the least hazard to employees. The employer shall station an employee at the far end of the duct line being rodded to ensure that the employees maintain the required minimum approach distances.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Multiple cables.</I> When multiple cables are present in a work area, the employer shall identify the cable to be worked by electrical means, unless its identity is obvious by reason of distinctive appearance or location or by other readily apparent means of identification. The employer shall protect cables other than the one being worked from damage.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Moving cables.</I> Except when paragraph (h)(2) of this section permits employees to perform work that could cause a fault in an energized cable in a manhole or vault, the employer shall ensure that employees inspect energized cables to be moved for abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protection against faults</I>—(1) <I>Cables with abnormalities.</I> Where a cable in a manhole or vault has one or more abnormalities that could lead to a fault or be an indication of an impending fault, the employer shall deenergize the cable with the abnormality before any employee may work in the manhole or vault, except when service-load conditions and a lack of feasible alternatives require that the cable remain energized. In that case, employees may enter the manhole or vault provided the employer protects them from the possible effects of a failure using shields or other devices that are capable of containing the adverse effects of a fault. The employer shall treat the following abnormalities as indications of impending faults unless the employer can demonstrate that the conditions could not lead to a fault: Oil or compound leaking from cable or joints, broken cable sheaths or joint sleeves, hot localized surface temperatures of cables or joints, or joints swollen beyond normal tolerance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Work-related faults.</I> If the work employees will perform in a manhole or vault could cause a fault in a cable, the employer shall deenergize that cable before any employee works in the manhole or vault, except when service-load conditions and a lack of feasible alternatives require that the cable remain energized. In that case, employees may enter the manhole or vault provided the employer protects them from the possible effects of a failure using shields or other devices that are capable of containing the adverse effects of a fault.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Sheath continuity.</I> When employees perform work on buried cable or on cable in a manhole or vault, the employer shall maintain metallic-sheath continuity, or the cable sheath shall be treated as energized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.966" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.966   Substations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section provides additional requirements for substations and for work performed in them.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access and working space.</I> The employer shall provide and maintain sufficient access and working space about electric equipment to permit ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment by employees.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED>
<P>American National Standard <I>National Electrical Safety Code,</I> ANSI/IEEE C2-2012 contains guidelines for the dimensions of access and working space about electric equipment in substations. Installations meeting the ANSI provisions comply with paragraph (b) of this section. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will determine whether an installation that does not conform to this ANSI standard complies with paragraph (b) of this section based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the installation conforms to the edition of ANSI C2 that was in effect when the installation was made;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the configuration of the installation enables employees to maintain the minimum approach distances, established by the employer under § 1926.960(c)(1)(i), while the employees are working on exposed, energized parts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the precautions taken when employees perform work on the installation provide protection equivalent to the protection provided by access and working space meeting ANSI/IEEE C2-2012.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Draw-out-type circuit breakers.</I> The employer shall ensure that, when employees remove or insert draw-out-type circuit breakers, the breaker is in the open position. The employer shall also render the control circuit inoperable if the design of the equipment permits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substation fences.</I> Conductive fences around substations shall be grounded. When a substation fence is expanded or a section is removed, fence sections shall be isolated, grounded, or bonded as necessary to protect employees from hazardous differences in electric potential.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED>
<P>IEEE Std 80-2000, <I>IEEE Guide for Safety in AC Substation Grounding,</I> contains guidelines for protection against hazardous differences in electric potential.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Guarding of rooms and other spaces containing electric supply equipment</I>—(1) <I>When to guard rooms and other spaces.</I> Rooms and other spaces in which electric supply lines or equipment are installed shall meet the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2) through (e)(5) of this section under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) If exposed live parts operating at 50 to 150 volts to ground are within 2.4 meters (8 feet) of the ground or other working surface inside the room or other space,
</P>
<P>(ii) If live parts operating at 151 to 600 volts to ground and located within 2.4 meters (8 feet) of the ground or other working surface inside the room or other space are guarded only by location, as permitted under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(iii) If live parts operating at more than 600 volts to ground are within the room or other space, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The live parts are enclosed within grounded, metal-enclosed equipment whose only openings are designed so that foreign objects inserted in these openings will be deflected from energized parts, or
</P>
<P>(B) The live parts are installed at a height, above ground and any other working surface, that provides protection at the voltage on the live parts corresponding to the protection provided by a 2.4-meter (8-foot) height at 50 volts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prevent access by unqualified persons.</I> Fences, screens, partitions, or walls shall enclose the rooms and other spaces so as to minimize the possibility that unqualified persons will enter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restricted entry.</I> Unqualified persons may not enter the rooms or other spaces while the electric supply lines or equipment are energized.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Warning signs.</I> The employer shall display signs at entrances to the rooms and other spaces warning unqualified persons to keep out.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Entrances to rooms and other.</I> The employer shall keep each entrance to a room or other space locked, unless the entrance is under the observation of a person who is attending the room or other space for the purpose of preventing unqualified employees from entering.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Guarding of energized parts</I>—(1) <I>Type of guarding.</I> The employer shall provide guards around all live parts operating at more than 150 volts to ground without an insulating covering unless the location of the live parts gives sufficient clearance (horizontal, vertical, or both) to minimize the possibility of accidental employee contact.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>American National Standard <I>National Electrical Safety Code,</I> ANSI/IEEE C2-2002 contains guidelines for the dimensions of clearance distances about electric equipment in substations. Installations meeting the ANSI provisions comply with paragraph (f)(1) of this section. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will determine whether an installation that does not conform to this ANSI standard complies with paragraph (f)(1) of this section based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the installation conforms to the edition of ANSI C2 that was in effect when the installation was made;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether each employee is isolated from energized parts at the point of closest approach; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the precautions taken when employees perform work on the installation provide protection equivalent to the protection provided by horizontal and vertical clearances meeting ANSI/IEEE C2-2002.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Maintaining guards during operation.</I> Except for fuse replacement and other necessary access by qualified persons, the employer shall maintain guarding of energized parts within a compartment during operation and maintenance functions to prevent accidental contact with energized parts and to prevent dropped tools or other equipment from contacting energized parts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Temporary removal of guards.</I> Before guards are removed from energized equipment, the employer shall install barriers around the work area to prevent employees who are not working on the equipment, but who are in the area, from contacting the exposed live parts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Substation entry</I>—(1) <I>Report upon entering.</I> Upon entering an attended substation, each employee, other than employees regularly working in the station, shall report his or her presence to the employee in charge of substation activities to receive information on special system conditions affecting employee safety.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Job briefing.</I> The job briefing required by § 1926.952 shall cover information on special system conditions affecting employee safety, including the location of energized equipment in or adjacent to the work area and the limits of any deenergized work area.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.967" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.967   Special conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capacitors.</I> The following additional requirements apply to work on capacitors and on lines connected to capacitors.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>See §§ 1926.961 and 1926.962 for requirements pertaining to the deenergizing and grounding of capacitor installations.</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) <I>Disconnect from energized source.</I> Before employees work on capacitors, the employer shall disconnect the capacitors from energized sources and short circuit the capacitors. The employer shall ensure that the employee short circuiting the capacitors waits at least 5 minutes from the time of disconnection before applying the short circuit,
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short circuiting units.</I> Before employees handle the units, the employer shall short circuit each unit in series-parallel capacitor banks between all terminals and the capacitor case or its rack. If the cases of capacitors are on ungrounded substation racks, the employer shall bond the racks to ground.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Short circuiting connected lines.</I> The employer shall short circuit any line connected to capacitors before the line is treated as deenergized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Current transformer secondaries.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not open the secondary of a current transformer while the transformer is energized. If the employer cannot deenergize the primary of the current transformer before employees perform work on an instrument, a relay, or other section of a current transformer secondary circuit, the employer shall bridge the circuit so that the current transformer secondary does not experience an open-circuit condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Series streetlighting</I>—(1) <I>Applicable requirements.</I> If the open-circuit voltage exceeds 600 volts, the employer shall ensure that employees work on series streetlighting circuits in accordance with § 1926.964 or § 1926.965, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opening a series loop.</I> Before any employee opens a series loop, the employer shall deenergize the streetlighting transformer and isolate it from the source of supply or shall bridge the loop to avoid an open-circuit condition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Illumination.</I> The employer shall provide sufficient illumination to enable the employee to perform the work safely.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED>
<P>See § 1926.56, which requires specific levels of illumination.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) <I>Protection against drowning</I>—(1) <I>Personal flotation devices.</I> Whenever an employee may be pulled or pushed, or might fall, into water where the danger of drowning exists, the employer shall provide the employee with, and shall ensure that the employee uses, a personal flotation device meeting § 1926.106.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maintaining flotation devices in safe condition.</I> The employer shall maintain each personal flotation device in safe condition and shall inspect each personal flotation device frequently enough to ensure that it does not have rot, mildew, water saturation, or any other condition that could render the device unsuitable for use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Crossing bodies of water.</I> An employee may cross streams or other bodies of water only if a safe means of passage, such as a bridge, is available.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Excavations.</I> Excavation operations shall comply with subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Employee protection in public work areas</I>—(1) <I>Traffic control devices.</I> Traffic-control signs and traffic-control devices used for the protection of employees shall meet § 1926.200(g)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Controlling traffic.</I> Before employees begin work in the vicinity of vehicular or pedestrian traffic that may endanger them, the employer shall place warning signs or flags and other traffic-control devices in conspicuous locations to alert and channel approaching traffic.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Barricades.</I> The employer shall use barricades where additional employee protection is necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Excavated areas.</I> The employer shall protect excavated areas with barricades.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Warning lights.</I> The employer shall display warning lights prominently at night.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Backfeed.</I> When there is a possibility of voltage backfeed from sources of cogeneration or from the secondary system (for example, backfeed from more than one energized phase feeding a common load), the requirements of § 1926.960 apply if employees will work the lines or equipment as energized, and the requirements of §§ 1926.961 and 1926.962 apply if employees will work the lines or equipment as deenergized.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Lasers.</I> The employer shall install, adjust, and operate laser equipment in accordance with § 1926.54.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hydraulic fluids.</I> Hydraulic fluids used for the insulated sections of equipment shall provide insulation for the voltage involved.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Communication facilities</I>—(1) <I>Microwave transmission.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that no employee looks into an open waveguide or antenna connected to an energized microwave source.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the electromagnetic-radiation level within an accessible area associated with microwave communications systems exceeds the radiation-protection guide specified by § 1910.97(a)(2) of this chapter, the employer shall post the area with warning signs containing the warning symbol described in § 1910.97(a)(3) of this chapter. The lower half of the warning symbol shall include the following statements, or ones that the employer can demonstrate are equivalent: “Radiation in this area may exceed hazard limitations and special precautions are required. Obtain specific instruction before entering.”
</P>
<P>(iii) When an employee works in an area where the electromagnetic radiation could exceed the radiation-protection guide, the employer shall institute measures that ensure that the employee's exposure is not greater than that permitted by that guide. Such measures may include administrative and engineering controls and personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Power-line carrier.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees perform power-line carrier work, including work on equipment used for coupling carrier current to power line conductors, in accordance with the requirements of this subpart pertaining to work on energized lines.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.968" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.968   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Attendant.</I> An employee assigned to remain immediately outside the entrance to an enclosed or other space to render assistance as needed to employees inside the space.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic circuit recloser.</I> A self-controlled device for automatically interrupting and reclosing an alternating-current circuit, with a predetermined sequence of opening and reclosing followed by resetting, hold closed, or lockout.
</P>
<P><I>Barricade.</I> A physical obstruction such as tapes, cones, or A-frame type wood or metal structures that provides a warning about, and limits access to, a hazardous area.
</P>
<P><I>Barrier.</I> A physical obstruction that prevents contact with energized lines or equipment or prevents unauthorized access to a work area.
</P>
<P><I>Bond.</I> The electrical interconnection of conductive parts designed to maintain a common electric potential.
</P>
<P><I>Bus.</I> A conductor or a group of conductors that serve as a common connection for two or more circuits.
</P>
<P><I>Bushing.</I> An insulating structure that includes a through conductor or that provides a passageway for such a conductor, and that, when mounted on a barrier, insulates the conductor from the barrier for the purpose of conducting current from one side of the barrier to the other.
</P>
<P><I>Cable.</I> A conductor with insulation, or a stranded conductor with or without insulation and other coverings (single-conductor cable), or a combination of conductors insulated from one another (multiple-conductor cable).
</P>
<P><I>Cable sheath.</I> A conductive protective covering applied to cables.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “cable sheath”:</HED>
<P>A cable sheath may consist of multiple layers one or more of which is conductive.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Circuit.</I> A conductor or system of conductors through which an electric current is intended to flow.
</P>
<P><I>Clearance (between objects).</I> The clear distance between two objects measured surface to surface.
</P>
<P><I>Clearance (for work).</I> Authorization to perform specified work or permission to enter a restricted area.
</P>
<P><I>Communication lines.</I> (See <I>Lines;</I> (1) <I>Communication lines.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Conductor.</I> A material, usually in the form of a wire, cable, or bus bar, used for carrying an electric current.
</P>
<P><I>Contract employer.</I> An employer, other than a host employer, that performs work covered by subpart V of this part under contract.
</P>
<P><I>Covered conductor.</I> A conductor covered with a dielectric having no rated insulating strength or having a rated insulating strength less than the voltage of the circuit in which the conductor is used.
</P>
<P><I>Current-carrying part.</I> A conducting part intended to be connected in an electric circuit to a source of voltage. Non-current-carrying parts are those not intended to be so connected.
</P>
<P><I>Deenergized.</I> Free from any electrical connection to a source of potential difference and from electric charge; not having a potential that is different from the potential of the earth.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “deenergized”:</HED>
<P>The term applies only to current-carrying parts, which are sometimes energized (alive).</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Designated employee (designated person).</I> An employee (or person) who is assigned by the employer to perform specific duties under the terms of this subpart and who has sufficient knowledge of the construction and operation of the equipment, and the hazards involved, to perform his or her duties safely.
</P>
<P><I>Electric line truck.</I> A truck used to transport personnel, tools, and material for electric supply line work.
</P>
<P><I>Electric supply equipment.</I> Equipment that produces, modifies, regulates, controls, or safeguards a supply of electric energy.
</P>
<P><I>Electric supply lines.</I> (See “Lines; (2) Electric supply lines.”)
</P>
<P><I>Electric utility.</I> An organization responsible for the installation, operation, or maintenance of an electric supply system.
</P>
<P><I>Enclosed space.</I> A working space, such as a manhole, vault, tunnel, or shaft, that has a limited means of egress or entry, that is designed for periodic employee entry under normal operating conditions, and that, under normal conditions, does not contain a hazardous atmosphere, but may contain a hazardous atmosphere under abnormal conditions.


</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Enclosed space”.</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration does not consider spaces that are enclosed but not designed for employee entry under normal operating conditions to be enclosed spaces for the purposes of this subpart. Similarly, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration does not consider spaces that are enclosed and that are expected to contain a hazardous atmosphere to be enclosed spaces for the purposes of this subpart. Such spaces meet the definition of permit spaces in subpart AA of this part, and entry into them must conform to that standard.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Energized (alive, live).</I> Electrically connected to a source of potential difference, or electrically charged so as to have a potential significantly different from that of earth in the vicinity.
</P>
<P><I>Energy source.</I> Any electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic, chemical, nuclear, thermal, or other energy source that could cause injury to employees.
</P>
<P><I>Entry (as used in § 1926.953).</I> The action by which a person passes through an opening into an enclosed space. Entry includes ensuing work activities in that space and is considered to have occurred as soon as any part of the entrant's body breaks the plane of an opening into the space.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment (electric).</I> A general term including material, fittings, devices, appliances, fixtures, apparatus, and the like used as part of or in connection with an electrical installation.
</P>
<P><I>Exposed, Exposed to contact (as applied to energized parts).</I> Not isolated or guarded.
</P>
<P><I>Fall restraint system.</I> A fall protection system that prevents the user from falling any distance.
</P>
<P><I>First-aid training.</I> Training in the initial care, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which includes chest compressions, rescue breathing, and, as appropriate, other heart and lung resuscitation techniques), performed by a person who is not a medical practitioner, of a sick or injured person until definitive medical treatment can be administered.
</P>
<P><I>Ground.</I> A conducting connection, whether planned or unplanned, between an electric circuit or equipment and the earth, or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Grounded.</I> Connected to earth or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Guarded.</I> Covered, fenced, enclosed, or otherwise protected, by means of suitable covers or casings, barrier rails or screens, mats, or platforms, designed to minimize the possibility, under normal conditions, of dangerous approach or inadvertent contact by persons or objects.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “guarded”:</HED>
<P>Wires that are insulated, but not otherwise protected, are not guarded.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Hazardous atmosphere.</I> An atmosphere that may expose employees to the risk of death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue (that is, escape unaided from an enclosed space), injury, or acute illness from one or more of the following causes:
</P>
<P>(1) Flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of 10 percent of its lower flammable limit (LFL);
</P>
<P>(2) Airborne combustible dust at a concentration that meets or exceeds its LFL;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” (2):</HED>
<P>This concentration may be approximated as a condition in which the dust obscures vision at a distance of 1.52 meters (5 feet) or less.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) Atmospheric oxygen concentration below 19.5 percent or above 23.5 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) Atmospheric concentration of any substance for which a dose or a permissible exposure limit is published in Subpart D, <I>Occupational Health and Environmental Controls,</I> or in Subpart Z, <I>Toxic and Hazardous Substances,</I> of this part and which could result in employee exposure in excess of its dose or permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “hazardous atmosphere” (4):</HED>
<P>An atmospheric concentration of any substance that is not capable of causing death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue, injury, or acute illness due to its health effects is not covered by this provision.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Any other atmospheric condition that is immediately dangerous to life or health.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the Definition of “Hazardous Atmosphere” (5):</HED>
<P>For air contaminants for which the Occupational Safety and Health Administration has not determined a dose or permissible exposure limit, other sources of information, such as Safety Data Sheets (SDS) that comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1910.1200, published information, and internal documents can provide guidance in establishing acceptable atmospheric conditions.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>High-power tests.</I> Tests in which the employer uses fault currents, load currents, magnetizing currents, and line-dropping currents to test equipment, either at the equipment's rated voltage or at lower voltages.
</P>
<P><I>High-voltage tests.</I> Tests in which the employer uses voltages of approximately 1,000 volts as a practical minimum and in which the voltage source has sufficient energy to cause injury.
</P>
<P><I>High wind.</I> A wind of such velocity that one or more of the following hazards would be present:
</P>
<P>(1) The wind could blow an employee from an elevated location,
</P>
<P>(2) The wind could cause an employee or equipment handling material to lose control of the material, or
</P>
<P>(3) The wind would expose an employee to other hazards not controlled by the standard involved.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “high wind”:</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration normally considers winds exceeding 64.4 kilometers per hour (40 miles per hour), or 48.3 kilometers per hour (30 miles per hour) if the work involves material handling, as meeting this criteria, unless the employer takes precautions to protect employees from the hazardous effects of the wind.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Host employer.</I> An employer that operates, or that controls the operating procedures for, an electric power generation, transmission, or distribution installation on which a contract employer is performing work covered by subpart V of this part.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “host employer”:</HED>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will treat the electric utility or the owner of the installation as the host employer if it operates or controls operating procedures for the installation. If the electric utility or installation owner neither operates nor controls operating procedures for the installation, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration will treat the employer that the utility or owner has contracted with to operate or control the operating procedures for the installation as the host employer. In no case will there be more than one host employer.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH).</I> Any condition that poses an immediate or delayed threat to life or that would cause irreversible adverse health effects or that would interfere with an individual's ability to escape unaided from a permit space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “immediately dangerous to life or health”:</HED>
<P>Some materials—hydrogen fluoride gas and cadmium vapor, for example—may produce immediate transient effects that, even if severe, may pass without medical attention, but are followed by sudden, possibly fatal collapse 12-72 hours after exposure. The victim “feels normal” from recovery from transient effects until collapse. Such materials in hazardous quantities are considered to be “immediately” dangerous to life or health.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Insulated.</I> Separated from other conducting surfaces by a dielectric (including air space) offering a high resistance to the passage of current.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “insulated”:</HED>
<P>When any object is said to be insulated, it is understood to be insulated for the conditions to which it normally is subjected. Otherwise, it is, for the purpose of this subpart, uninsulated.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Insulation (cable).</I> Material relied upon to insulate the conductor from other conductors or conducting parts or from ground.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated.</I> Not readily accessible to persons unless special means for access are used.
</P>
<P><I>Line-clearance tree trimming.</I> The pruning, trimming, repairing, maintaining, removing, or clearing of trees, or the cutting of brush, that is within the following distance of electric supply lines and equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) For voltages to ground of 50 kilovolts or less—3.05 meters (10 feet);
</P>
<P>(2) For voltages to ground of more than 50 kilovolts—3.05 meters (10 feet) plus 0.10 meters (4 inches) for every 10 kilovolts over 50 kilovolts.
</P>
<P><I>Lines</I>—(1) <I>Communication lines.</I> The conductors and their supporting or containing structures which are used for public or private signal or communication service, and which operate at potentials not exceeding 400 volts to ground or 750 volts between any two points of the circuit, and the transmitted power of which does not exceed 150 watts. If the lines are operating at less than 150 volts, no limit is placed on the transmitted power of the system. Under certain conditions, communication cables may include communication circuits exceeding these limitations where such circuits are also used to supply power solely to communication equipment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “communication lines”:</HED>
<P>Telephone, telegraph, railroad signal, data, clock, fire, police alarm, cable television, and other systems conforming to this definition are included. Lines used for signaling purposes, but not included under this definition, are considered as electric supply lines of the same voltage.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Electric supply lines.</I> Conductors used to transmit electric energy and their necessary supporting or containing structures. Signal lines of more than 400 volts are always supply lines within this subpart, and those of less than 400 volts are considered as supply lines, if so run and operated throughout.
</P>
<P><I>Manhole.</I> A subsurface enclosure that personnel may enter and that is used for installing, operating, and maintaining submersible equipment or cable.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum approach distance.</I> The closest distance an employee may approach an energized or a grounded object.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “minimum approach distance”:</HED>
<P>Paragraph (c)(1)(i) of § 1926.960 requires employers to establish minimum approach distances.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system.</I> A system used to arrest an employee in a fall from a working level.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified employee (qualified person).</I> An employee (person) knowledgeable in the construction and operation of the electric power generation, transmission, and distribution equipment involved, along with the associated hazards.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to the definition of “qualified employee (qualified person)”:</HED>
<P>An employee must have the training required by § 1926.950(b)(2) to be a qualified employee.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to the definition of “qualified employee (qualified person)”:</HED>
<P>Except under § 1926.954(b)(3)(iii), an employee who is undergoing on-the-job training and who has demonstrated, in the course of such training, an ability to perform duties safely at his or her level of training and who is under the direct supervision of a qualified person is a qualified person for the performance of those duties.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Statistical sparkover voltage.</I> A transient overvoltage level that produces a 97.72-percent probability of sparkover (that is, two standard deviations above the voltage at which there is a 50-percent probability of sparkover).
</P>
<P><I>Statistical withstand voltage.</I> A transient overvoltage level that produces a 0.14-percent probability of sparkover (that is, three standard deviations below the voltage at which there is a 50-percent probability of sparkover).
</P>
<P><I>Switch.</I> A device for opening and closing or for changing the connection of a circuit. In this subpart, a switch is manually operable, unless otherwise stated.
</P>
<P><I>System operator.</I> A qualified person designated to operate the system or its parts.
</P>
<P><I>Vault.</I> An enclosure, above or below ground, that personnel may enter and that is used for installing, operating, or maintaining equipment or cable.
</P>
<P><I>Vented vault.</I> A vault that has provision for air changes using exhaust-flue stacks and low-level air intakes operating on pressure and temperature differentials that provide for airflow that precludes a hazardous atmosphere from developing.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage.</I> The effective (root mean square, or rms) potential difference between any two conductors or between a conductor and ground. This subpart expresses voltages in nominal values, unless otherwise indicated. The nominal voltage of a system or circuit is the value assigned to a system or circuit of a given voltage class for the purpose of convenient designation. The operating voltage of the system may vary above or below this value.
</P>
<P><I>Work-positioning equipment.</I> A body belt or body harness system rigged to allow an employee to be supported on an elevated vertical surface, such as a utility pole or tower leg, and work with both hands free while leaning.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 20696, Apr. 11, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 56962, Sept. 24, 2014; 80 FR 25518, May 4, 2015; 85 FR 8745, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.20.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart V of Part 1926 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.20.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart V of Part 1926—Working on Exposed Energized Parts
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Electric utilities design electric power generation, transmission, and distribution installations to meet National Electrical Safety Code (NESC), ANSI C2, requirements. Electric utilities also design transmission and distribution lines to limit line outages as required by system reliability criteria 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and to withstand the maximum overvoltages impressed on the system. Conditions such as switching surges, faults, and lightning can cause overvoltages. Electric utilities generally select insulator design and lengths and the clearances to structural parts so as to prevent outages from contaminated line insulation and during storms. Line insulator lengths and structural clearances have, over the years, come closer to the minimum approach distances used by workers. As minimum approach distances and structural clearances converge, it is increasingly important that system designers and system operating and maintenance personnel understand the concepts underlying minimum approach distances.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Federal, State, and local regulatory bodies and electric utilities set reliability requirements that limit the number and duration of system outages.</P></FTNT>
<P>The information in this appendix will assist employers in complying with the minimum approach-distance requirements contained in §§ 1926.960(c)(1) and 1926.964(c). Employers must use the technical criteria and methodology presented in this appendix in establishing minimum approach distances in accordance with § 1926.960(c)(1)(i) and Table V-2 and Table V-7. This appendix provides essential background information and technical criteria for the calculation of the required minimum approach distances for live-line work on electric power generation, transmission, and distribution installations.
</P>
<P>Unless an employer is using the maximum transient overvoltages specified in Table V-8 for voltages over 72.5 kilovolts, the employer must use persons knowledgeable in the techniques discussed in this appendix, and competent in the field of electric transmission and distribution system design, to determine the maximum transient overvoltage.
</P>
<HD1>II. General
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions from § 1926.968 relate to work on or near electric power generation, transmission, and distribution lines and equipment and the electrical hazards they present.
</P>
<P><I>Exposed.</I> . . . Not isolated or guarded.
</P>
<P><I>Guarded.</I> Covered, fenced, enclosed, or otherwise protected, by means of suitable covers or casings, barrier rails or screens, mats, or platforms, designed to minimize the possibility, under normal conditions, of dangerous approach or inadvertent contact by persons or objects.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “guarded”:</HED>
<P>Wires that are insulated, but not otherwise protected, are not guarded.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Insulated.</I> Separated from other conducting surfaces by a dielectric (including air space) offering a high resistance to the passage of current.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “insulated”:</HED>
<P>When any object is said to be insulated, it is understood to be insulated for the conditions to which it normally is subjected. Otherwise, it is, for the purpose of this subpart, uninsulated.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Isolated.</I> Not readily accessible to persons unless special means for access are used.
</P>
<P><I>Statistical sparkover voltage.</I> A transient overvoltage level that produces a 97.72-percent probability of sparkover (that is, two standard deviations above the voltage at which there is a 50-percent probability of sparkover).
</P>
<P><I>Statistical withstand voltage.</I> A transient overvoltage level that produces a 0.14-percent probability of sparkover (that is, three standard deviations below the voltage at which there is a 50-percent probability of sparkover).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Installations energized at 50 to 300 volts.</I> The hazards posed by installations energized at 50 to 300 volts are the same as those found in many other workplaces. That is not to say that there is no hazard, but the complexity of electrical protection required does not compare to that required for high-voltage systems. The employee must avoid contact with the exposed parts, and the protective equipment used (such as rubber insulating gloves) must provide insulation for the voltages involved.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Exposed energized parts over 300 volts AC.</I> Paragraph (c)(1)(i) of § 1926.960 requires the employer to establish minimum approach distances no less than the distances computed by Table V-2 for ac systems so that employees can work safely without risk of sparkover.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Sparkover is a disruptive electric discharge in which an electric arc forms and electric current passes through air.</P></FTNT>
<P>Unless the employee is using electrical protective equipment, air is the insulating medium between the employee and energized parts. The distance between the employee and an energized part must be sufficient for the air to withstand the maximum transient overvoltage that can reach the worksite under the working conditions and practices the employee is using. This distance is the minimum air insulation distance, and it is equal to the electrical component of the minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P>Normal system design may provide or include a means (such as lightning arrestors) to control maximum anticipated transient overvoltages, or the employer may use temporary devices (portable protective gaps) or measures (such as preventing automatic circuit breaker reclosing) to achieve the same result. Paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of § 1926.960 requires the employer to determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis or assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table V-8, which specifies the following maximums for ac systems:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 420.0 kilovolts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 per unit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420.1 to 550.0 kilovolts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 per unit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550.1 to 800.0 kilovolts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 per unit.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>See paragraph IV.A.2, later in this appendix, for additional discussion of maximum transient overvoltages.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Types of exposures.</I> Employees working on or near energized electric power generation, transmission, and distribution systems face two kinds of exposures: Phase-to-ground and phase-to-phase. The exposure is phase-to-ground: (1) With respect to an energized part, when the employee is at ground potential or (2) with respect to ground, when an employee is at the potential of the energized part during live-line barehand work. The exposure is phase-to-phase, with respect to an energized part, when an employee is at the potential of another energized part (at a different potential) during live-line barehand work.
</P>
<HD1>III. Determination of Minimum Approach Distances for AC Voltages Greater Than 300 Volts
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Voltages of 301 to 5,000 volts.</I> Test data generally forms the basis of minimum air insulation distances. The lowest voltage for which sufficient test data exists is 5,000 volts, and these data indicate that the minimum air insulation distance at that voltage is 20 millimeters (1 inch). Because the minimum air insulation distance increases with increasing voltage, and, conversely, decreases with decreasing voltage, an assumed minimum air insulation distance of 20 millimeters will protect against sparkover at voltages of 301 to 5,000 volts. Thus, 20 millimeters is the electrical component of the minimum approach distance for these voltages.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Voltages of 5.1 to 72.5 kilovolts.</I> For voltages from 5.1 to 72.5 kilovolts, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration bases the methodology for calculating the electrical component of the minimum approach distance on Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) Standard 4-1995, <I>Standard Techniques for High-Voltage Testing.</I> Table 1 lists the critical sparkover distances from that standard as listed in IEEE Std 516-2009, <I>IEEE Guide for Maintenance Methods on Energized Power Lines.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Sparkover Distance for Rod-to-Rod Gap
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">60 Hz rod-to-rod sparkover
<br/>(kV peak)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gap spacing from IEEE Std 4-1995
<br/>(cm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">104</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">112</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">143</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">192</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">218</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">243</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">270</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">322</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Source: IEEE Std 516-2009.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>To use this table to determine the electrical component of the minimum approach distance, the employer must determine the peak phase-to-ground transient overvoltage and select a gap from the table that corresponds to that voltage as a withstand voltage rather than a critical sparkover voltage. To calculate the electrical component of the minimum approach distance for voltages between 5 and 72.5 kilovolts, use the following procedure:
</P>
<P>1. Divide the phase-to-phase voltage by the square root of 3 to convert it to a phase-to-ground voltage.
</P>
<P>2. Multiply the phase-to-ground voltage by the square root of 2 to convert the rms value of the voltage to the peak phase-to-ground voltage.
</P>
<P>3. Multiply the peak phase-to-ground voltage by the maximum per-unit transient overvoltage, which, for this voltage range, is 3.0, as discussed later in this appendix. This is the maximum phase-to-ground transient overvoltage, which corresponds to the withstand voltage for the relevant exposure.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The withstand voltage is the voltage at which sparkover is not likely to occur across a specified distance. It is the voltage taken at the 3σ point below the sparkover voltage, assuming that the sparkover curve follows a normal distribution.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. Divide the maximum phase-to-ground transient overvoltage by 0.85 to determine the corresponding critical sparkover voltage. (The critical sparkover voltage is 3 standard deviations (or 15 percent) greater than the withstand voltage.)
</P>
<P>5. Determine the electrical component of the minimum approach distance from Table 1 through interpolation.
</P>
<P>Table 2 illustrates how to derive the electrical component of the minimum approach distance for voltages from 5.1 to 72.5 kilovolts, before the application of any altitude correction factor, as explained later.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Calculating the Electrical Component of MAD—751 V to 72.5 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Step
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum system phase-to-phase voltage (kV)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">15
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">36
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">46
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">72.5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Divide by √3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Multiply by √2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Multiply by 3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">177.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Divide by 0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">132.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">208.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Interpolate from Table 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 + (7.2/10) 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14 + (8.7/9)*2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 + (12.6/23)*5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35 + (16.9/26)*5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical component of MAD (cm)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38.25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>C. <I>Voltages of 72.6 to 800 kilovolts.</I> For voltages of 72.6 kilovolts to 800 kilovolts, this subpart bases the electrical component of minimum approach distances, before the application of any altitude correction factor, on the following formula:
</P>
<HD1>Equation 1—For voltages of 72.6 kV to 800 kV
</HD1>
<FP-2><I>D</I> = 0.3048(<I>C</I> + <I>a</I>)<I>V</I><E T="54">L-G</E><I>T</I>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>D</I> = Electrical component of the minimum approach distance in air in meters;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I> = a correction factor associated with the variation of gap sparkover with voltage;
</FP-2>
<P><I>a</I> = A factor relating to the saturation of air at system voltages of 345 kilovolts or higher; 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Test data demonstrates that the saturation factor is greater than 0 at peak voltages of about 630 kilovolts. Systems operating at 345 kilovolts (or maximum system voltages of 362 kilovolts) can have peak maximum transient overvoltages exceeding 630 kilovolts. Table V-2 sets equations for calculating <I>a</I> based on peak voltage.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>V</I><E T="54">L-G</E> = Maximum system line-to-ground rms voltage in kilovolts—it should be the “actual” maximum, or the normal highest voltage for the range (for example, 10 percent above the nominal voltage); and
</P>
<FP-2><I>T</I> = Maximum transient overvoltage factor in per unit.
</FP-2>
<P>In Equation 1, <I>C</I> is 0.01: (1) For phase-to-ground exposures that the employer can demonstrate consist only of air across the approach distance (gap) and (2) for phase-to-phase exposures if the employer can demonstrate that no insulated tool spans the gap and that no large conductive object is in the gap. Otherwise, <I>C</I> is 0.011.
</P>
<P>In Equation 1, the term <I>a</I> varies depending on whether the employee's exposure is phase-to-ground or phase-to-phase and on whether objects are in the gap. The employer must use the equations in Table 3 to calculate <I>a.</I> Sparkover test data with insulation spanning the gap form the basis for the equations for phase-to-ground exposures, and sparkover test data with only air in the gap form the basis for the equations for phase-to-phase exposures. The phase-to-ground equations result in slightly higher values of <I>a,</I> and, consequently, produce larger minimum approach distances, than the phase-to-phase equations for the same value of V<E T="52">Peak</E>.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.036.gif"/>
<P>In Equation 1, <I>T</I> is the maximum transient overvoltage factor in per unit. As noted earlier, § 1926.960(c)(1)(ii) requires the employer to determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis or assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table V-8. For phase-to-ground exposures, the employer uses this value, called <I>T</I><E T="54">L-G</E>, as <I>T</I> in Equation 1. IEEE Std 516-2009 provides the following formula to calculate the phase-to-phase maximum transient overvoltage, <I>T</I><E T="54">L-L</E>, from <I>T</I><E T="54">L-G</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>T</I><E T="54">L-L</E> = 1.35<I>T</I><E T="54">L-G</E> + 0.45.
</FP-2>
<FP>For phase-to-phase exposures, the employer uses this value as <I>T</I> in Equation 1.
</FP>
<P>D. <I>Provisions for inadvertent movement.</I> The minimum approach distance must include an “adder” to compensate for the inadvertent movement of the worker relative to an energized part or the movement of the part relative to the worker. This “adder” must account for this possible inadvertent movement and provide the worker with a comfortable and safe zone in which to work. Employers must add the distance for inadvertent movement (called the “ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance”) to the electrical component to determine the total safe minimum approach distances used in live-line work.
</P>
<P>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration based the ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance on response time-distance analysis. This technique uses an estimate of the total response time to a hazardous incident and converts that time to the distance traveled. For example, the driver of a car takes a given amount of time to respond to a “stimulus” and stop the vehicle. The elapsed time involved results in the car's traveling some distance before coming to a complete stop. This distance depends on the speed of the car at the time the stimulus appears and the reaction time of the driver.
</P>
<P>In the case of live-line work, the employee must first perceive that he or she is approaching the danger zone. Then, the worker responds to the danger and must decelerate and stop all motion toward the energized part. During the time it takes to stop, the employee will travel some distance. This is the distance the employer must add to the electrical component of the minimum approach distance to obtain the total safe minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P>At voltages from 751 volts to 72.5 kilovolts,
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> the electrical component of the minimum approach distance is smaller than the ergonomic component. At 72.5 kilovolts, the electrical component is only a little more than 0.3 meters (1 foot). An ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance must provide for all the worker's unanticipated movements. At these voltages, workers generally use rubber insulating gloves; however, these gloves protect only a worker's hands and arms. Therefore, the energized object must be at a safe approach distance to protect the worker's face. In this case, 0.61 meters (2 feet) is a sufficient and practical ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> For voltages of 50 to 300 volts, Table V-2 specifies a minimum approach distance of “avoid contact.” The minimum approach distance for this voltage range contains neither an electrical component nor an ergonomic component.</P></FTNT>
<P>For voltages between 72.6 and 800 kilovolts, employees must use different work practices during energized line work. Generally, employees use live-line tools (hot sticks) to perform work on energized equipment. These tools, by design, keep the energized part at a constant distance from the employee and, thus, maintain the appropriate minimum approach distance automatically.
</P>
<P>The location of the worker and the type of work methods the worker is using also influence the length of the ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance. In this higher voltage range, the employees use work methods that more tightly control their movements than when the workers perform work using rubber insulating gloves. The worker, therefore, is farther from the energized line or equipment and must be more precise in his or her movements just to perform the work. For these reasons, this subpart adopts an ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance of 0.31 m (1 foot) for voltages between 72.6 and 800 kilovolts.
</P>
<P>Table 4 summarizes the ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance for various voltage ranges.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Ergonomic Component of Minimum Approach Distance
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range (kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Distance
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.301 to 0.750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.751 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note</E>: The employer must add this distance to the electrical component of the minimum approach distance to obtain the full minimum approach distance.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The ergonomic component of the minimum approach distance accounts for errors in maintaining the minimum approach distance (which might occur, for example, if an employee misjudges the length of a conductive object he or she is holding), and for errors in judging the minimum approach distance. The ergonomic component also accounts for inadvertent movements by the employee, such as slipping. In contrast, the working position selected to properly maintain the minimum approach distance must account for all of an employee's reasonably likely movements and still permit the employee to adhere to the applicable minimum approach distance. (See Figure 1.) Reasonably likely movements include an employee's adjustments to tools, equipment, and working positions and all movements needed to perform the work. For example, the employee should be able to perform all of the following actions without straying into the minimum approach distance:
</P>
<P>• Adjust his or her hardhat,
</P>
<P>• maneuver a tool onto an energized part with a reasonable amount of overreaching or underreaching,
</P>
<P>• reach for and handle tools, material, and equipment passed to him or her, and
</P>
<P>• adjust tools, and replace components on them, when necessary during the work procedure.
</P>
<P>The training of qualified employees required under § 1926.950, and the job planning and briefing required under § 1926.952, must address selection of a proper working position.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.037.gif"/>
<P>E. <I>Miscellaneous correction factors.</I> Changes in the air medium that forms the insulation influences the strength of an air gap. A brief discussion of each factor follows.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Dielectric strength of air.</I> The dielectric strength of air in a uniform electric field at standard atmospheric conditions is approximately 3 kilovolts per millimeter.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> The pressure, temperature, and humidity of the air, the shape, dimensions, and separation of the electrodes, and the characteristics of the applied voltage (wave shape) affect the disruptive gradient.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> For the purposes of estimating arc length, Subpart V generally assumes a more conservative dielectric strength of 10 kilovolts per 25.4 millimeters, consistent with assumptions made in consensus standards such as the National Electrical Safety Code (IEEE C2-2012). The more conservative value accounts for variables such as electrode shape, wave shape, and a certain amount of overvoltage.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. <I>Atmospheric effect.</I> The empirically determined electrical strength of a given gap is normally applicable at standard atmospheric conditions (20 °C, 101.3 kilopascals, 11 grams/cubic centimeter humidity). An increase in the density (humidity) of the air inhibits sparkover for a given air gap. The combination of temperature and air pressure that results in the lowest gap sparkover voltage is high temperature and low pressure. This combination of conditions is not likely to occur. Low air pressure, generally associated with high humidity, causes increased electrical strength. An average air pressure generally correlates with low humidity. Hot and dry working conditions normally result in reduced electrical strength. The equations for minimum approach distances in Table V-2 assume standard atmospheric conditions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Altitude.</I> The reduced air pressure at high altitudes causes a reduction in the electrical strength of an air gap. An employer must increase the minimum approach distance by about 3 percent per 300 meters (1,000 feet) of increased altitude for altitudes above 900 meters (3,000 feet). Table V-4 specifies the altitude correction factor that the employer must use in calculating minimum approach distances.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Determining Minimum Approach Distances
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Factors Affecting Voltage Stress at the Worksite
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>System voltage (nominal).</I> The nominal system voltage range determines the voltage for purposes of calculating minimum approach distances. The employer selects the range in which the nominal system voltage falls, as given in the relevant table, and uses the highest value within that range in per-unit calculations.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transient overvoltages.</I> Operation of switches or circuit breakers, a fault on a line or circuit or on an adjacent circuit, and similar activities may generate transient overvoltages on an electrical system. Each overvoltage has an associated transient voltage wave shape. The wave shape arriving at the site and its magnitude vary considerably.
</P>
<P>In developing requirements for minimum approach distances, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration considered the most common wave shapes and the magnitude of transient overvoltages found on electric power generation, transmission, and distribution systems. The equations in Table V-2 for minimum approach distances use per-unit maximum transient overvoltages, which are relative to the nominal maximum voltage of the system. For example, a maximum transient overvoltage value of 3.0 per unit indicates that the highest transient overvoltage is 3.0 times the nominal maximum system voltage.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Typical magnitude of overvoltages.</I> Table 5 lists the magnitude of typical transient overvoltages.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Magnitude of Typical Transient Overvoltages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cause
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Magnitude
<br/>(per unit)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energized 200-mile line without closing resistors</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energized 200-mile line with one-step closing resistor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energized 200-mile line with multistep resistor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reclosing with trapped charge one-step resistor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Opening surge with single restrike</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fault initiation unfaulted phase</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fault initiation adjacent circuit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fault clearing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 to 1.9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4. <I>Standard deviation—air-gap withstand.</I> For each air gap length under the same atmospheric conditions, there is a statistical variation in the breakdown voltage. The probability of breakdown against voltage has a normal (Gaussian) distribution. The standard deviation of this distribution varies with the wave shape, gap geometry, and atmospheric conditions. The withstand voltage of the air gap is three standard deviations (3σ) below the critical sparkover voltage. (The critical sparkover voltage is the crest value of the impulse wave that, under specified conditions, causes sparkover 50 percent of the time. An impulse wave of three standard deviations below this value, that is, the withstand voltage, has a probability of sparkover of approximately 1 in 1,000.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Broken Insulators.</I> Tests show reductions in the insulation strength of insulator strings with broken skirts. Broken units may lose up to 70 percent of their withstand capacity. Because an employer cannot determine the insulating capability of a broken unit without testing it, the employer must consider damaged units in an insulator to have no insulating value. Additionally, the presence of a live-line tool alongside an insulator string with broken units may further reduce the overall insulating strength. The number of good units that must be present in a string for it to be “insulated” as defined by § 1926.968 depends on the maximum overvoltage possible at the worksite.
</P>
<HD2>B. Minimum Approach Distances Based on Known, Maximum-Anticipated Per-Unit Transient Overvoltages
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Determining the minimum approach distance for AC systems.</I> Under § 1926.960(c)(1)(ii), the employer must determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis or must assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table V-8. When the employer conducts an engineering analysis of the system and determines that the maximum transient overvoltage is lower than specified by Table V-8, the employer must ensure that any conditions assumed in the analysis, for example, that employees block reclosing on a circuit or install portable protective gaps, are present during energized work. To ensure that these conditions are present, the employer may need to institute new live-work procedures reflecting the conditions and limitations set by the engineering analysis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of reduced approach distance values.</I> An employer may take the following steps to reduce minimum approach distances when the maximum transient overvoltage on the system (that is, the maximum transient overvoltage without additional steps to control overvoltages) produces unacceptably large minimum approach distances:
</P>
<P><I>Step 1.</I> Determine the maximum voltage (with respect to a given nominal voltage range) for the energized part.
</P>
<P><I>Step 2.</I> Determine the technique to use to control the maximum transient overvoltage. (See paragraphs IV.C and IV.D of this appendix.) Determine the maximum transient overvoltage that can exist at the worksite with that form of control in place and with a confidence level of 3σ . This voltage is the withstand voltage for the purpose of calculating the appropriate minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P><I>Step 3.</I> Direct employees to implement procedures to ensure that the control technique is in effect during the course of the work.
</P>
<P><I>Step 4.</I> Using the new value of transient overvoltage in per unit, calculate the required minimum approach distance from Table V-2.
</P>
<HD2>C. Methods of Controlling Possible Transient Overvoltage Stress Found on a System
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Introduction.</I> There are several means of controlling overvoltages that occur on transmission systems. For example, the employer can modify the operation of circuit breakers or other switching devices to reduce switching transient overvoltages. Alternatively, the employer can hold the overvoltage to an acceptable level by installing surge arresters or portable protective gaps on the system. In addition, the employer can change the transmission system to minimize the effect of switching operations. Section 4.8 of IEEE Std 516-2009 describes various ways of controlling, and thereby reducing, maximum transient overvoltages.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Operation of circuit breakers.</I>
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> The maximum transient overvoltage that can reach the worksite is often the result of switching on the line on which employees are working. Disabling automatic reclosing during energized line work, so that the line will not be reenergized after being opened for any reason, limits the maximum switching surge overvoltage to the larger of the opening surge or the greatest possible fault-generated surge, provided that the devices (for example, insertion resistors) are operable and will function to limit the transient overvoltage and that circuit breaker restrikes do not occur. The employer must ensure the proper functioning of insertion resistors and other overvoltage-limiting devices when the employer's engineering analysis assumes their proper operation to limit the overvoltage level. If the employer cannot disable the reclosing feature (because of system operating conditions), other methods of controlling the switching surge level may be necessary.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The detailed design of a circuit interrupter, such as the design of the contacts, resistor insertion, and breaker timing control, are beyond the scope of this appendix. The design of the system generally accounts for these features. This appendix only discusses features that can limit the maximum switching transient overvoltage on a system.</P></FTNT>
<P>Transient surges on an adjacent line, particularly for double circuit construction, may cause a significant overvoltage on the line on which employees are working. The employer's engineering analysis must account for coupling to adjacent lines.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Surge arresters.</I> The use of modern surge arresters allows a reduction in the basic impulse-insulation levels of much transmission system equipment. The primary function of early arresters was to protect the system insulation from the effects of lightning. Modern arresters not only dissipate lightning-caused transients, but may also control many other system transients caused by switching or faults.
</P>
<P>The employer may use properly designed arresters to control transient overvoltages along a transmission line and thereby reduce the requisite length of the insulator string and possibly the maximum transient overvoltage on the line.
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Surge arrester application is beyond the scope of this appendix. However, if the employer installs the arrester near the work site, the application would be similar to the protective gaps discussed in paragraph IV.D of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. <I>Switching Restrictions.</I> Another form of overvoltage control involves establishing switching restrictions, whereby the employer prohibits the operation of circuit breakers until certain system conditions are present. The employer restricts switching by using a tagging system, similar to that used for a permit, except that the common term used for this activity is a “hold-off” or “restriction.” These terms indicate that the restriction does not prevent operation, but only modifies the operation during the live-work activity.
</P>
<HD2>D. <I>Minimum Approach Distance Based on Control of Maximum Transient Overvoltage at the Worksite</I>
</HD2>
<P>When the employer institutes control of maximum transient overvoltage at the worksite by installing portable protective gaps, the employer may calculate the minimum approach distance as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Step 1.</I> Select the appropriate withstand voltage for the protective gap based on system requirements and an acceptable probability of gap sparkover.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The employer should check the withstand voltage to ensure that it results in a probability of gap flashover that is acceptable from a system outage perspective. (In other words, a gap sparkover will produce a system outage. The employer should determine whether such an outage will impact overall system performance to an acceptable degree.) In general, the withstand voltage should be at least 1.25 times the maximum crest operating voltage.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Step 2.</I> Determine a gap distance that provides a withstand voltage 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> greater than or equal to the one selected in the first step.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> The manufacturer of the gap provides, based on test data, the critical sparkover voltage for each gap spacing (for example, a critical sparkover voltage of 665 kilovolts for a gap spacing of 1.2 meters). The withstand voltage for the gap is equal to 85 percent of its critical sparkover voltage.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Switch steps 1 and 2 if the length of the protective gap is known.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Step 3.</I> Use 110 percent of the gap's critical sparkover voltage to determine the phase-to-ground peak voltage at gap sparkover (<I>V</I><E T="54">PPG Peak</E>).
</P>
<P><I>Step 4.</I> Determine the maximum transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, at the worksite from the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.038.gif"/>
<P><I>Step 5.</I> Use this value of <I>T</I> 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> in the equation in Table V-2 to obtain the minimum approach distance. If the worksite is no more than 900 meters (3,000 feet) above sea level, the employer may use this value of <I>T</I> to determine the minimum approach distance from Table 7 through Table 14.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> IEEE Std 516-2009 states that most employers add 0.2 to the calculated value of <I>T</I> as an additional safety factor.</P></FTNT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>All rounding must be to the next higher value (that is, always round up).</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Sample protective gap calculations.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Problem:</I> Employees are to perform work on a 500-kilovolt transmission line at sea level that is subject to transient overvoltages of 2.4 p.u. The maximum operating voltage of the line is 550 kilovolts. Determine the length of the protective gap that will provide the minimum practical safe approach distance. Also, determine what that minimum approach distance is.
</P>
<P><I>Step 1.</I> Calculate the smallest practical maximum transient overvoltage (1.25 times the crest phase-to-ground voltage): 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> To eliminate sparkovers due to minor system disturbances, the employer should use a withstand voltage no lower than 1.25 p.u. Note that this is a practical, or operational, consideration only. It may be feasible for the employer to use lower values of withstand voltage.</P></FTNT>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.039.gif"/>
<FP>This value equals the withstand voltage of the protective gap.
</FP>
<P><I>Step 2.</I> Using test data for a particular protective gap, select a gap that has a critical sparkover voltage greater than or equal to:
</P>
<FP-2>561<I>kV</I> ÷ 0.85 = 660<I>kV</I>
</FP-2>
<FP>For example, if a protective gap with a 1.22-m (4.0-foot) spacing tested to a critical sparkover voltage of 665 kilovolts (crest), select this gap spacing.
</FP>
<P><I>Step 3.</I> The phase-to-ground peak voltage at gap sparkover (<I>V</I><E T="54">PPG Peak</E>) is 110 percent of the value from the previous step:
</P>
<FP-2>665<I>kV</I> × 1.10 = 732<I>kV</I>
</FP-2>
<FP>This value corresponds to the withstand voltage of the electrical component of the minimum approach distance.
</FP>
<P><I>Step 4.</I> Use this voltage to determine the worksite value of <I>T:</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.040.gif"/>
<P><I>Step 5.</I> Use this value of <I>T</I> in the equation in Table V-2 to obtain the minimum approach distance, or look up the minimum approach distance in Table 7 through Table 14:
</P>
<FP-2><I>MAD</I> = 2.29m(7.6ft)
</FP-2>
<HD2>E. Location of Protective Gaps
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Adjacent structures.</I> The employer may install the protective gap on a structure adjacent to the worksite, as this practice does not significantly reduce the protection afforded by the gap.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Terminal stations.</I> Gaps installed at terminal stations of lines or circuits provide a level of protection; however, that level of protection may not extend throughout the length of the line to the worksite. The use of substation terminal gaps raises the possibility that separate surges could enter the line at opposite ends, each with low enough magnitude to pass the terminal gaps without sparkover. When voltage surges occur simultaneously at each end of a line and travel toward each other, the total voltage on the line at the point where they meet is the arithmetic sum of the two surges. A gap installed within 0.8 km (0.5 mile) of the worksite will protect against such intersecting waves. Engineering studies of a particular line or system may indicate that employers can adequately protect employees by installing gaps at even more distant locations. In any event, unless using the default values for <I>T</I> from Table V-8, the employer must determine <I>T</I> at the worksite.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Worksite.</I> If the employer installs protective gaps at the worksite, the gap setting establishes the worksite impulse insulation strength. Lightning strikes as far as 6 miles from the worksite can cause a voltage surge greater than the gap withstand voltage, and a gap sparkover can occur. In addition, the gap can sparkover from overvoltages on the line that exceed the withstand voltage of the gap. Consequently, the employer must protect employees from hazards resulting from any sparkover that could occur.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Disabling automatic reclosing.</I> There are two reasons to disable the automatic-reclosing feature of circuit-interrupting devices while employees are performing live-line work:
</P>
<P>• To prevent reenergization of a circuit faulted during the work, which could create a hazard or result in more serious injuries or damage than the injuries or damage produced by the original fault;
</P>
<P>• To prevent any transient overvoltage caused by the switching surge that would result if the circuit were reenergized.
</P>
<P>However, due to system stability considerations, it may not always be feasible to disable the automatic-reclosing feature.
</P>
<HD1>V. Minimum Approach-Distance Tables
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Legacy tables.</I> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in Table 6 until March 31, 2015.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6—Minimum Approach Distances Until March 31, 2015
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range
<br/>phase to phase (kV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 35.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">138 to 145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">161 to 169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230 to 242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">345 to 362 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500 to 552 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700 to 765 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* The minimum approach distance may be the shortest distance between the energized part and the grounded surface.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>B. <I>Alternative minimum approach distances.</I> Employers may use the minimum approach distances in Table 7 through Table 14 provided that the employer follows the notes to those tables.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—AC Minimum Approach Distances—72.6 to 121.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8—AC Minimum Approach Distances—121.1 to 145.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground rxposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase rxposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9—AC Minimum Approach Distances—145.1 to 169.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10—AC Minimum Approach Distances—169.1 to 242.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11—AC Minimum Approach Distances—242.1 to 362.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12—AC Minimum Approach Distances—362.1 to 420.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13—AC Minimum Approach Distances—420.1 to 550.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14—AC Minimum Approach Distances—550.1 to 800.0 kV
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">T (p.u.)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-ground exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Phase-to-phase exposure
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ft
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.3
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes to Table 7 through Table 14:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1. The employer must determine the maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, through an engineering analysis, as required by § 1926.960(c)(1)(ii), or assume a maximum anticipated per-unit transient overvoltage, phase-to-ground, in accordance with Table V-8.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">2. For phase-to-phase exposures, the employer must demonstrate that no insulated tool spans the gap and that no large conductive object is in the gap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3. The worksite must be at an elevation of 900 meters (3,000 feet) or less above sea level.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 20696, Apr. 11, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 56962, Sept. 24, 2014]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.20.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart V of Part 1926—Protection From Hazardous Differences in Electric Potential
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Current passing through an impedance impresses voltage across that impedance. Even conductors have some, albeit low, value of impedance. Therefore, if a “grounded” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> object, such as a crane or deenergized and grounded power line, results in a ground fault on a power line, voltage is impressed on that grounded object. The voltage impressed on the grounded object depends largely on the voltage on the line, on the impedance of the faulted conductor, and on the impedance to “true,” or “absolute,” ground represented by the object. If the impedance of the object causing the fault is relatively large, the voltage impressed on the object is essentially the phase-to-ground system voltage. However, even faults to grounded power lines or to well grounded transmission towers or substation structures (which have relatively low values of impedance to ground) can result in hazardous voltages.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> In all cases, the degree of the hazard depends on the magnitude of the current through the employee and the time of exposure. This appendix discusses methods of protecting workers against the possibility that grounded objects, such as cranes and other mechanical equipment, will contact energized power lines and that deenergized and grounded power lines will become accidentally energized.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This appendix generally uses the term “grounded” only with respect to grounding that the employer intentionally installs, for example, the grounding an employer installs on a deenergized conductor. However, in this case, the term “grounded” means connected to earth, regardless of whether or not that connection is intentional.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Thus, grounding systems for transmission towers and substation structures should be designed to minimize the step and touch potentials involved.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Voltage-Gradient Distribution
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Voltage-gradient distribution curve.</I> Absolute, or true, ground serves as a reference and always has a voltage of 0 volts above ground potential. Because there is an impedance between a grounding electrode and absolute ground, there will be a voltage difference between the grounding electrode and absolute ground under ground-fault conditions. Voltage dissipates from the grounding electrode (or from the grounding point) and creates a ground potential gradient. The voltage decreases rapidly with increasing distance from the grounding electrode. A voltage drop associated with this dissipation of voltage is a ground potential. Figure 1 is a typical voltage-gradient distribution curve (assuming a uniform soil texture).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.041.gif"/>
<P>B. <I>Step and touch potentials.</I> Figure 1 also shows that workers are at risk from step and touch potentials. Step potential is the voltage between the feet of a person standing near an energized grounded object (the electrode). In Figure 1, the step potential is equal to the difference in voltage between two points at different distances from the electrode (where the points represent the location of each foot in relation to the electrode). A person could be at risk of injury during a fault simply by standing near the object.
</P>
<P>Touch potential is the voltage between the energized grounded object (again, the electrode) and the feet of a person in contact with the object. In Figure 1, the touch potential is equal to the difference in voltage between the electrode (which is at a distance of 0 meters) and a point some distance away from the electrode (where the point represents the location of the feet of the person in contact with the object). The touch potential could be nearly the full voltage across the grounded object if that object is grounded at a point remote from the place where the person is in contact with it. For example, a crane grounded to the system neutral and that contacts an energized line would expose any person in contact with the crane or its uninsulated load line to a touch potential nearly equal to the full fault voltage.
</P>
<P>Figure 2 illustrates step and touch potentials.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.042.gif"/>
<HD1>III. Protecting Workers From Hazardous Differences in Electrical Potential
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to section III of this appendix:
</P>
<P><I>Bond.</I> The electrical interconnection of conductive parts designed to maintain a common electric potential.
</P>
<P><I>Bonding cable (bonding jumper).</I> A cable connected to two conductive parts to bond the parts together.
</P>
<P><I>Cluster bar.</I> A terminal temporarily attached to a structure that provides a means for the attachment and bonding of grounding and bonding cables to the structure.
</P>
<P><I>Ground.</I> A conducting connection between an electric circuit or equipment and the earth, or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding cable (grounding jumper).</I> A cable connected between a deenergized part and ground. Note that grounding cables carry fault current and bonding cables generally do not. A cable that bonds two conductive parts but carries substantial fault current (for example, a jumper connected between one phase and a grounded phase) is a grounding cable.
</P>
<P><I>Ground mat (grounding grid).</I> A temporarily or permanently installed metallic mat or grating that establishes an equipotential surface and provides connection points for attaching grounds.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Analyzing the hazard.</I> The employer can use an engineering analysis of the power system under fault conditions to determine whether hazardous step and touch voltages will develop. The analysis should determine the voltage on all conductive objects in the work area and the amount of time the voltage will be present. Based on the this analysis, the employer can select appropriate measures and protective equipment, including the measures and protective equipment outlined in Section III of this appendix, to protect each employee from hazardous differences in electric potential. For example, from the analysis, the employer will know the voltage remaining on conductive objects after employees install bonding and grounding equipment and will be able to select insulating equipment with an appropriate rating, as described in paragraph III.C.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Protecting workers on the ground.</I> The employer may use several methods, including equipotential zones, insulating equipment, and restricted work areas, to protect employees on the ground from hazardous differences in electrical potential.
</P>
<P>1. An equipotential zone will protect workers within it from hazardous step and touch potentials. (See Figure 3.) Equipotential zones will not, however, protect employees located either wholly or partially outside the protected area. The employer can establish an equipotential zone for workers on the ground, with respect to a grounded object, through the use of a metal mat connected to the grounded object. The employer can use a grounding grid to equalize the voltage within the grid or bond conductive objects in the immediate work area to minimize the potential between the objects and between each object and ground. (Bonding an object outside the work area can increase the touch potential to that object, however.) Section III.D of this appendix discusses equipotential zones for employees working on deenergized and grounded power lines.
</P>
<P>2. Insulating equipment, such as rubber gloves, can protect employees handling grounded equipment and conductors from hazardous touch potentials. The insulating equipment must be rated for the highest voltage that can be impressed on the grounded objects under fault conditions (rather than for the full system voltage).
</P>
<P>3. Restricting employees from areas where hazardous step or touch potentials could arise can protect employees not directly involved in performing the operation. The employer must ensure that employees on the ground in the vicinity of transmission structures are at a distance where step voltages would be insufficient to cause injury. Employees must not handle grounded conductors or equipment likely to become energized to hazardous voltages unless the employees are within an equipotential zone or protected by insulating equipment.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.043.gif"/>
<P>D. <I>Protecting employees working on deenergized and grounded power lines.</I> This Section III.D of Appendix C establishes guidelines to help employers comply with requirements in § 1926.962 for using protective grounding to protect employees working on deenergized power lines. Section 1926.962 applies to grounding of transmission and distribution lines and equipment for the purpose of protecting workers. Paragraph (c) of § 1926.962 requires temporary protective grounds to be placed at such locations and arranged in such a manner that the employer can demonstrate will prevent exposure of each employee to hazardous differences in electric potential.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Sections III.D.1 and III.D.2 of this appendix provide guidelines that employers can use in making the demonstration required by § 1926.962(c). Section III.D.1 of this appendix provides guidelines on how the employer can determine whether particular grounding practices expose employees to hazardous differences in electric potential. Section III.D.2 of this appendix describes grounding methods that the employer can use in lieu of an engineering analysis to make the demonstration required by § 1926.962(c). The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider employers that comply with the criteria in this appendix as meeting § 1926.962(c).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The protective grounding required by § 1926.962 limits to safe values the potential differences between accessible objects in each employee's work environment. Ideally, a protective grounding system would create a true equipotential zone in which every point is at the same electric potential. In practice, current passing through the grounding and bonding elements creates potential differences. If these potential differences are hazardous, the employer may not treat the zone as an equipotential zone.</P></FTNT>
<P>Finally, Section III.D.3 of this appendix discusses other safety considerations that will help the employer comply with other requirements in § 1926.962. Following these guidelines will protect workers from hazards that can occur when a deenergized and grounded line becomes energized.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determining safe body current limits.</I> This Section III.D.1 of Appendix C provides guidelines on how an employer can determine whether any differences in electric potential to which workers could be exposed are hazardous as part of the demonstration required by § 1926.962(c).
</P>
<P>Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) Standard 1048-2003, <I>IEEE Guide for Protective Grounding of Power Lines,</I> provides the following equation for determining the threshold of ventricular fibrillation when the duration of the electric shock is limited:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.044.gif"/>
<FP>where <I>I</I> is the current through the worker's body, and <I>t</I> is the duration of the current in seconds. This equation represents the ventricular fibrillation threshold for 95.5 percent of the adult population with a mass of 50 kilograms (110 pounds) or more. The equation is valid for current durations between 0.0083 to 3.0 seconds.
</FP>
<P>To use this equation to set safe voltage limits in an equipotential zone around the worker, the employer will need to assume a value for the resistance of the worker's body. IEEE Std 1048-2003 states that “total body resistance is usually taken as 1000 Ω for determining . . . body current limits.” However, employers should be aware that the impedance of a worker's body can be substantially less than that value. For instance, IEEE Std 1048-2003 reports a minimum hand-to-hand resistance of 610 ohms and an internal body resistance of 500 ohms. The internal resistance of the body better represents the minimum resistance of a worker's body when the skin resistance drops near zero, which occurs, for example, when there are breaks in the worker's skin, for instance, from cuts or from blisters formed as a result of the current from an electric shock, or when the worker is wet at the points of contact.
</P>
<P>Employers may use the IEEE Std 1048-2003 equation to determine safe body current limits only if the employer protects workers from hazards associated with involuntary muscle reactions from electric shock (for example, the hazard to a worker from falling as a result of an electric shock). Moreover, the equation applies only when the duration of the electric shock is limited. If the precautions the employer takes, including those required by applicable standards, do not adequately protect employees from hazards associated with involuntary reactions from electric shock, a hazard exists if the induced voltage is sufficient to pass a current of 1 milliampere through a 500-ohm resistor. (The 500-ohm resistor represents the resistance of an employee. The 1-milliampere current is the threshold of perception.) Finally, if the employer protects employees from injury due to involuntary reactions from electric shock, but the duration of the electric shock is unlimited (that is, when the fault current at the work location will be insufficient to trip the devices protecting the circuit), a hazard exists if the resultant current would be more than 6 milliamperes (the recognized let-go threshold for workers 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Electric current passing through the body has varying effects depending on the amount of the current. At the let-go threshold, the current overrides a person's control over his or her muscles. At that level, an employee grasping an object will not be able to let go of the object. The let-go threshold varies from person to person; however, the recognized value for workers is 6 milliamperes.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. <I>Acceptable methods of grounding for employers that do not perform an engineering determination.</I> The grounding methods presented in this section of this appendix ensure that differences in electric potential are as low as possible and, therefore, meet § 1926.962(c) without an engineering determination of the potential differences. These methods follow two principles: (i) The grounding method must ensure that the circuit opens in the fastest available clearing time, and (ii) the grounding method must ensure that the potential differences between conductive objects in the employee's work area are as low as possible.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) of § 1926.962 does not require grounding methods to meet the criteria embodied in these principles. Instead, the paragraph requires that protective grounds be “placed at such locations and arranged in such a manner that the employer can demonstrate will prevent exposure of each employee to hazardous differences in electric potential.” However, when the employer's grounding practices do not follow these two principles, the employer will need to perform an engineering analysis to make the demonstration required by § 1926.962(c).
</P>
<P>i. <I>Ensuring that the circuit opens in the fastest available clearing time.</I> Generally, the higher the fault current, the shorter the clearing times for the same type of fault. Therefore, to ensure the fastest available clearing time, the grounding method must maximize the fault current with a low impedance connection to ground. The employer accomplishes this objective by grounding the circuit conductors to the best ground available at the worksite. Thus, the employer must ground to a grounded system neutral conductor, if one is present. A grounded system neutral has a direct connection to the system ground at the source, resulting in an extremely low impedance to ground. In a substation, the employer may instead ground to the substation grid, which also has an extremely low impedance to the system ground and, typically, is connected to a grounded system neutral when one is present. Remote system grounds, such as pole and tower grounds, have a higher impedance to the system ground than grounded system neutrals and substation grounding grids; however, the employer may use a remote ground when lower impedance grounds are not available. In the absence of a grounded system neutral, substation grid, and remote ground, the employer may use a temporary driven ground at the worksite.
</P>
<P>In addition, if employees are working on a three-phase system, the grounding method must short circuit all three phases. Short circuiting all phases will ensure faster clearing and lower the current through the grounding cable connecting the deenergized line to ground, thereby lowering the voltage across that cable. The short circuit need not be at the worksite; however, the employer must treat any conductor that is not grounded at the worksite as energized because the ungrounded conductors will be energized at fault voltage during a fault.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Ensuring that the potential differences between conductive objects in the employee's work area are as low as possible.</I> To achieve as low a voltage as possible across any two conductive objects in the work area, the employer must bond all conductive objects in the work area. This section of this appendix discusses how to create a zone that minimizes differences in electric potential between conductive objects in the work area.
</P>
<P>The employer must use bonding cables to bond conductive objects, except for metallic objects bonded through metal-to-metal contact. The employer must ensure that metal-to-metal contacts are tight and free of contamination, such as oxidation, that can increase the impedance across the connection. For example, a bolted connection between metal lattice tower members is acceptable if the connection is tight and free of corrosion and other contamination. Figure 4 shows how to create an equipotential zone for metal lattice towers.
</P>
<P>Wood poles are conductive objects. The poles can absorb moisture and conduct electricity, particularly at distribution and transmission voltages. Consequently, the employer must either: (1) Provide a conductive platform, bonded to a grounding cable, on which the worker stands or (2) use cluster bars to bond wood poles to the grounding cable. The employer must ensure that employees install the cluster bar below, and close to, the worker's feet. The inner portion of the wood pole is more conductive than the outer shell, so it is important that the cluster bar be in conductive contact with a metal spike or nail that penetrates the wood to a depth greater than or equal to the depth the worker's climbing gaffs will penetrate the wood. For example, the employer could mount the cluster bar on a bare pole ground wire fastened to the pole with nails or staples that penetrate to the required depth. Alternatively, the employer may temporarily nail a conductive strap to the pole and connect the strap to the cluster bar. Figure 5 shows how to create an equipotential zone for wood poles.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.045.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap14.046.gif"/>
<P>For underground systems, employers commonly install grounds at the points of disconnection of the underground cables. These grounding points are typically remote from the manhole or underground vault where employees will be working on the cable. Workers in contact with a cable grounded at a remote location can experience hazardous potential differences if the cable becomes energized or if a fault occurs on a different, but nearby, energized cable. The fault current causes potential gradients in the earth, and a potential difference will exist between the earth where the worker is standing and the earth where the cable is grounded. Consequently, to create an equipotential zone for the worker, the employer must provide a means of connecting the deenergized cable to ground at the worksite by having the worker stand on a conductive mat bonded to the deenergized cable. If the cable is cut, the employer must install a bond across the opening in the cable or install one bond on each side of the opening to ensure that the separate cable ends are at the same potential. The employer must protect the worker from any hazardous differences in potential any time there is no bond between the mat and the cable (for example, before the worker installs the bonds).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other safety-related considerations.</I> To ensure that the grounding system is safe and effective, the employer should also consider the following factors: 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> This appendix only discusses factors that relate to ensuring an equipotential zone for employees. The employer must consider other factors in selecting a grounding system that is capable of conducting the maximum fault current that could flow at the point of grounding for the time necessary to clear the fault, as required by § 1926.962(d)(1)(i). IEEE Std 1048-2003 contains guidelines for selecting and installing grounding equipment that will meet § 1926.962(d)(1)(i).</P></FTNT>
<P>i. <I>Maintenance of grounding equipment.</I> It is essential that the employer properly maintain grounding equipment. Corrosion in the connections between grounding cables and clamps and on the clamp surface can increase the resistance of the cable, thereby increasing potential differences. In addition, the surface to which a clamp attaches, such as a conductor or tower member, must be clean and free of corrosion and oxidation to ensure a low-resistance connection. Cables must be free of damage that could reduce their current-carrying capacity so that they can carry the full fault current without failure. Each clamp must have a tight connection to the cable to ensure a low resistance and to ensure that the clamp does not separate from the cable during a fault.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Grounding cable length and movement.</I> The electromagnetic forces on grounding cables during a fault increase with increasing cable length. These forces can cause the cable to move violently during a fault and can be high enough to damage the cable or clamps and cause the cable to fail. In addition, flying cables can injure workers. Consequently, cable lengths should be as short as possible, and grounding cables that might carry high fault current should be in positions where the cables will not injure workers during a fault.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.20.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart V of Part 1926—Methods of Inspecting and Testing Wood Poles
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>When employees are to perform work on a wood pole, it is important to determine the condition of the pole before employees climb it. The weight of the employee, the weight of equipment to be installed, and other working stresses (such as the removal or retensioning of conductors) can lead to the failure of a defective pole or a pole that is not designed to handle the additional stresses.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> For these reasons, it is essential that, before an employee climbs a wood pole, the employer ascertain that the pole is capable of sustaining the stresses of the work. The determination that the pole is capable of sustaining these stresses includes an inspection of the condition of the pole.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A properly guyed pole in good condition should, at a minimum, be able to handle the weight of an employee climbing it.</P></FTNT>
<P>If the employer finds the pole to be unsafe to climb or to work from, the employer must secure the pole so that it does not fail while an employee is on it. The employer can secure the pole by a line truck boom, by ropes or guys, or by lashing a new pole alongside it. If a new one is lashed alongside the defective pole, employees should work from the new one.
</P>
<HD1>II. Inspecting Wood Poles
</HD1>
<P>A qualified employee should inspect wood poles for the following conditions:
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The presence of any of these conditions is an indication that the pole may not be safe to climb or to work from. The employee performing the inspection must be qualified to make a determination as to whether it is safe to perform the work without taking additional precautions.</P></FTNT>
<P>A. <I>General condition.</I> Buckling at the ground line or an unusual angle with respect to the ground may indicate that the pole has rotted or is broken.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Cracks.</I> Horizontal cracks perpendicular to the grain of the wood may weaken the pole. Vertical cracks, although not normally considered to be a sign of a defective pole, can pose a hazard to the climber, and the employee should keep his or her gaffs away from them while climbing.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Holes.</I> Hollow spots and woodpecker holes can reduce the strength of a wood pole.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Shell rot and decay.</I> Rotting and decay are cutout hazards and possible indications of the age and internal condition of the pole.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Knots.</I> One large knot or several smaller ones at the same height on the pole may be evidence of a weak point on the pole.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Depth of setting.</I> Evidence of the existence of a former ground line substantially above the existing ground level may be an indication that the pole is no longer buried to a sufficient depth.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Soil conditions.</I> Soft, wet, or loose soil around the base of the pole may indicate that the pole will not support any change in stress.
</P>
<P>H. <I>Burn marks.</I> Burning from transformer failures or conductor faults could damage the pole so that it cannot withstand changes in mechanical stress.
</P>
<HD1>III. Testing Wood Poles
</HD1>
<P>The following tests, which are from § 1910.268(n)(3) of this chapter, are acceptable methods of testing wood poles:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Hammer test.</I> Rap the pole sharply with a hammer weighing about 1.4 kg (3 pounds), starting near the ground line and continuing upwards circumferentially around the pole to a height of approximately 1.8 meters (6 feet). The hammer will produce a clear sound and rebound sharply when striking sound wood. Decay pockets will be indicated by a dull sound or a less pronounced hammer rebound. Also, prod the pole as near the ground line as possible using a pole prod or a screwdriver with a blade at least 127 millimeters (5 inches) long. If substantial decay is present, the pole is unsafe.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Rocking test.</I> Apply a horizontal force to the pole and attempt to rock it back and forth in a direction perpendicular to the line. Exercise caution to avoid causing power lines to swing together. Apply the force to the pole either by pushing it with a pike pole or pulling the pole with a rope. If the pole cracks during the test, it is unsafe.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.20.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart V of Part 1926—Protection From Flames and Electric Arcs
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Paragraph (g) of § 1926.960 addresses protecting employees from flames and electric arcs. This paragraph requires employers to: (1) Assess the workplace for flame and electric-arc hazards (paragraph (g)(1)); (2) estimate the available heat energy from electric arcs to which employees would be exposed (paragraph (g)(2)); (3) ensure that employees wear clothing that will not melt, or ignite and continue to burn, when exposed to flames or the estimated heat energy (paragraph (g)(3)); and (4) ensure that employees wear flame-resistant clothing 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and protective clothing and other protective equipment that has an arc rating greater than or equal to the available heat energy under certain conditions (paragraphs (g)(4) and (g)(5)). This appendix contains information to help employers estimate available heat energy as required by § 1926.960(g)(2), select protective clothing and other protective equipment with an arc rating suitable for the available heat energy as required by § 1926.960(g)(5), and ensure that employees do not wear flammable clothing that could lead to burn injury as addressed by §§ 1926.960(g)(3) and (g)(4).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Flame-resistant clothing includes clothing that is inherently flame resistant and clothing chemically treated with a flame retardant. (See ASTM F1506-10a, <I>Standard Performance Specification for Flame Resistant Textile Materials for Wearing Apparel for Use by Electrical Workers Exposed to Momentary Electric Arc and Related Thermal Hazards,</I> and ASTM F1891-12 <I>Standard Specification for Arc and Flame Resistant Rainwear.</I>)</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Assessing the Workplace for Flame and Electric-Arc Hazards
</HD1>
<P>Paragraph (g)(1) of § 1926.960 requires the employer to assess the workplace to identify employees exposed to hazards from flames or from electric arcs. This provision ensures that the employer evaluates employee exposure to flames and electric arcs so that employees who face such exposures receive the required protection. The employer must conduct an assessment for each employee who performs work on or near exposed, energized parts of electric circuits.
</P>
<HD2>A. Assessment Guidelines
</HD2>
<P><I>Sources electric arcs.</I> Consider possible sources of electric arcs, including:
</P>
<P>• Energized circuit parts not guarded or insulated,
</P>
<P>• Switching devices that produce electric arcs in normal operation,
</P>
<P>• Sliding parts that could fault during operation (for example, rack-mounted circuit breakers), and
</P>
<P>• Energized electric equipment that could fail (for example, electric equipment with damaged insulation or with evidence of arcing or overheating).
</P>
<P><I>Exposure to flames.</I> Identify employees exposed to hazards from flames. Factors to consider include:
</P>
<P>• The proximity of employees to open flames, and
</P>
<P>• For flammable material in the work area, whether there is a reasonable likelihood that an electric arc or an open flame can ignite the material.
</P>
<P><I>Probability that an electric arc will occur.</I> Identify employees exposed to electric-arc hazards. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider an employee exposed to electric-arc hazards if there is a reasonable likelihood that an electric arc will occur in the employee's work area, in other words, if the probability of such an event is higher than it is for the normal operation of enclosed equipment. Factors to consider include:
</P>
<P>• For energized circuit parts not guarded or insulated, whether conductive objects can come too close to or fall onto the energized parts,
</P>
<P>• For exposed, energized circuit parts, whether the employee is closer to the part than the minimum approach distance established by the employer (as permitted by § 1926.960(c)(1)(iii)).
</P>
<P>• Whether the operation of electric equipment with sliding parts that could fault during operation is part of the normal operation of the equipment or occurs during servicing or maintenance, and
</P>
<P>• For energized electric equipment, whether there is evidence of impending failure, such as evidence of arcing or overheating.
</P>
<HD2>B. Examples
</HD2>
<P>Table 1 provides task-based examples of exposure assessments.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Example Assessments for Various Tasks
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Task</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Is employee exposed to flame or electric-arc hazard?
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Normal operation of enclosed equipment, such as closing or opening a switch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The employer properly installs and maintains enclosed equipment, and there is no evidence of impending failure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There is evidence of arcing or overheating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Parts of the equipment are loose or sticking, or the equipment otherwise exhibits signs of lack of maintenance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Servicing electric equipment, such as racking in a circuit breaker or replacing a switch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inspection of electric equipment with exposed energized parts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The employee is not holding conductive objects and remains outside the minimum approach distance established by the employer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The employee is holding a conductive object, such as a flashlight, that could fall or otherwise contact energized parts (irrespective of whether the employee maintains the minimum approach distance)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The employee is closer than the minimum approach distance established by the employer (for example, when wearing rubber insulating gloves or rubber insulating gloves and sleeves)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Using open flames, for example, in wiping cable splice sleeves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>III. Protection Against Burn Injury
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Estimating Available Heat Energy
</HD2>
<P><I>Calculation methods.</I> Paragraph (g)(2) of § 1926.960 provides that, for each employee exposed to an electric-arc hazard, the employer must make a reasonable estimate of the heat energy to which the employee would be exposed if an arc occurs. Table 2 lists various methods of calculating values of available heat energy from an electric circuit. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration does not endorse any of these specific methods. Each method requires the input of various parameters, such as fault current, the expected length of the electric arc, the distance from the arc to the employee, and the clearing time for the fault (that is, the time the circuit protective devices take to open the circuit and clear the fault). The employer can precisely determine some of these parameters, such as the fault current and the clearing time, for a given system. The employer will need to estimate other parameters, such as the length of the arc and the distance between the arc and the employee, because such parameters vary widely.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Methods of Calculating Incident Heat Energy From an Electric Arc
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. <E T="03">Standard for Electrical Safety Requirements for Employee Workplaces,</E> NFPA 70E-2012, Annex D, “Sample Calculation of Flash Protection Boundary.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Doughty, T.E., Neal, T.E., and Floyd II, H.L., “Predicting Incident Energy to Better Manage the Electric Arc Hazard on 600 V Power Distribution Systems,” <E T="03">Record of Conference Papers IEEE IAS 45th Annual Petroleum and Chemical Industry Conference,</E> September 28—30, 1998.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. <E T="03">Guide for Performing Arc-Flash Hazard Calculations,</E> IEEE Std 1584-2002, 1584a--2004 (Amendment 1 to IEEE Std 1584-2002), and 1584b-2011 (Amendment 2: Changes to Clause 4 of IEEE Std 1584-2002). *
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. ARCPRO, a commercially available software program developed by Kinectrics, Toronto, ON, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">* This appendix refers to IEEE Std 1584-2002 with both amendments as IEEE Std 1584b-2011.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The amount of heat energy calculated by any of the methods is approximatelyinversely proportional to the square of the distance between the employee and the arc. In other words, if the employee is very close to the arc, the heat energy is very high; but if the employee is just a few more centimeters away, the heat energy drops substantially. Thus, estimating the distance from the arc to the employee is key to protecting employees.
</P>
<P>The employer must select a method of estimating incident heat energy that provides a reasonable estimate of incident heat energy for the exposure involved. Table 3 shows which methods provide reasonable estimates for various exposures.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Selecting a Reasonable Incident-Energy Calculation Method 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Incident-energy calculation method
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">600 V and Less 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">601 V to 15 kV 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">More than 15 kV
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1Φ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φa
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1Φ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φa
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1Φ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φa
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3Φb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NFPA 70E-2012 Annex D (Lee equation)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-C</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-C</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-C</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Doughty, Neal, and Floyd</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-C</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IEEE Std 1584b-2011</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ARCPRO</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Key:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">1Φ: Single-phase arc in open air
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3Φa: Three-phase arc in open air
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">3Φb: Three-phase arc in an enclosure (box)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Y: Acceptable; produces a reasonable estimate of incident heat energy from this type of electric arc
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">N: Not acceptable; does not produce a reasonable estimate of incident heat energy from this type of electric arc
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Y-C: Acceptable; produces a reasonable, but conservative, estimate of incident heat energy from this type of electric arc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
<sup>1</sup> Although the Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider these methods reasonable for enforcement purposes when employers use the methods in accordance with this table, employers should be aware that the listed methods do not necessarily result in estimates that will provide full protection from internal faults in transformers and similar equipment or from arcs in underground manholes or vaults.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> At these voltages, the presumption is that the arc is three-phase unless the employer can demonstrate that only one phase is present or that the spacing of the phases is sufficient to prevent a multiphase arc from occurring.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Although the Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider this method acceptable for purposes of assessing whether incident energy exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>, the results at voltages of more than 15 kilovolts are extremely conservative and unrealistic.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup>The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will deem the results of this method reasonable when the employer adjusts them using the conversion factors for three-phase arcs in open air or in an enclosure, as indicated in the program's instructions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Selecting a reasonable distance from the employee to the arc.</I> In estimating available heat energy, the employer must make some reasonable assumptions about how far the employee will be from the electric arc. Table 4 lists reasonable distances from the employee to the electric arc. The distances in Table 4 are consistent with national consensus standards, such as the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers' <I>National Electrical Safety Code,</I> ANSI/IEEE C2-2012, and <I>IEEE Guide for Performing Arc-Flash Hazard Calculations,</I> IEEE Std 1584b-2011. The employer is free to use other reasonable distances, but must consider equipment enclosure size and the working distance to the employee in selecting a distance from the employee to the arc. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will consider a distance reasonable when the employer bases it on equipment size and working distance.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Selecting a Reasonable Distance from the Employee to the Electric Arc
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Single-phase arc mm
<br/>(inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Three-phase arc mm
<br/>(inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">455 (18)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low voltage MCCs and panelboards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">455 (18)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low-voltage switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">610 (24)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-kV switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">910 (36)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15-kV switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">910 (36)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single conductors in air (up to 46 kilovolts), work with rubber insulating gloves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">380 (15)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single conductors in air, work with live-line tools and live-line barehand work</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MAD−(2 × <E T="03">kV</E> × 2.54)
<br/>(MAD−(2 × <E T="03">kV</E>/10)) <E T="51">†</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">NA
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* NA = not applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">†</E> The terms in this equation are:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">MAD</E> = The applicable minimum approach distance, and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">kV</E> = The system voltage in kilovolts.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Selecting a reasonable arc gap.</I> For a single-phase arc in air, the electric arc will almost always occur when an energized conductor approaches too close to ground. Thus, an employer can determine the arc gap, or arc length, for these exposures by the dielectric strength of air and the voltage on the line. The dielectric strength of air is approximately 10 kilovolts for every 25.4 millimeters (1 inch). For example, at 50 kilovolts, the arc gap would be 50 ÷ 10 × 25.4 (or 50 × 2.54), which equals 127 millimeters (5 inches).
</P>
<P>For three-phase arcs in open air and in enclosures, the arc gap will generally be dependent on the spacing between parts energized at different electrical potentials. Documents such as IEEE Std 1584b-2011 provide information on these distances. Employers may select a reasonable arc gap from Table 5, or they may select any other reasonable arc gap based on sparkover distance or on the spacing between (1) live parts at different potentials or (2) live parts and grounded parts (for example, bus or conductor spacings in equipment). In any event, the employer must use an estimate that reasonably resembles the actual exposures faced by the employee.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Selecting a Reasonable Arc Gap
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class of equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Single-phase arc mm
<br/>(inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Three-phase arc mm 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13 (0.5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low voltage MCCs and panelboards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25 (1.0)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low-voltage switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32 (1.25)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-kV switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104 (4.0)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15-kV switchgear</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">152 (6.0)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single conductors in air, 15 kV and less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">51 (2.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Phase conductor spacings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single conductor in air, more than 15 kV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Voltage in kV × 2.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Voltage in kV × 0.1), but no less than 51 mm (2 inches)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Phase conductor spacings.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Source: IEEE Std 1584b-2011.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> NA = not applicable.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Making estimates over multiple system areas.</I> The employer need not estimate the heat-energy exposure for every job task performed by each employee. Paragraph (g)(2) of § 1926.960 permits the employer to make broad estimates that cover multiple system areas provided that: (1) The employer uses reasonable assumptions about the energy-exposure distribution throughout the system, and (2) the estimates represent the maximum exposure for those areas. For example, the employer can use the maximum fault current and clearing time to cover several system areas at once.
</P>
<P><I>Incident heat energy for single-phase-to-ground exposures.</I> Table 6 and Table 7 provide incident heat energy levels for open-air, phase-to-ground electric-arc exposures typical for overhead systems.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Table 6 presents estimates of available energy for employees using rubber insulating gloves to perform work on overhead systems operating at 4 to 46 kilovolts. The table assumes that the employee will be 380 millimeters (15 inches) from the electric arc, which is a reasonable estimate for rubber insulating glove work. Table 6 also assumes that the arc length equals the sparkover distance for the maximum transient overvoltage of each voltage range.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> To use the table, an employer would use the voltage, maximum fault current, and maximum clearing time for a system area and, using the appropriate voltage range and fault-current and clearing-time values corresponding to the next higher values listed in the table, select the appropriate heat energy (4, 5, 8, or 12 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>) from the table. For example, an employer might have a 12,470-volt power line supplying a system area. The power line can supply a maximum fault current of 8 kiloamperes with a maximum clearing time of 10 cycles. For rubber glove work, this system falls in the 4.0-to-15.0-kilovolt range; the next-higher fault current is 10 kA (the second row in that voltage range); and the clearing time is under 18 cycles (the first column to the right of the fault current column). Thus, the available heat energy for this part of the system will be 4 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> or less (from the column heading), and the employer could select protection with a 5-cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> rating to meet § 1926.960(g)(5). Alternatively, an employer could select a base incident-energy value and ensure that the clearing times for each voltage range and fault current listed in the table do not exceed the corresponding clearing time specified in the table. For example, an employer that provides employees with arc-flash protective equipment rated at 8 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> can use the table to determine if any system area exceeds 8 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> by checking the clearing time for the highest fault current for each voltage range and ensuring that the clearing times do not exceed the values specified in the 8-cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> column in the table.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The Occupational Safety and Health Administration used metric values to calculate the clearing times in Table 6 and Table 7. An employer may use English units to calculate clearing times instead even though the results will differ slightly.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The Occupational Safety and Health Administration based this assumption, which is more conservative than the arc length specified in Table 5, on Table 410-2 of the 2012 NESC.</P></FTNT>
<P>Table 7 presents similar estimates for employees using live-line tools to perform work on overhead systems operating at voltages of 4 to 800 kilovolts. The table assumes that the arc length will be equal to the sparkover distance 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> and that the employee will be a distance from the arc equal to the minimum approach distance minus twice the sparkover distance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The dielectric strength of air is about 10 kilovolts for every 25.4 millimeters (1 inch). Thus, the employer can estimate the arc length in millimeters to be the phase-to-ground voltage in kilovolts multiplied by 2.54 (or voltage (in kilovolts) × 2.54).</P></FTNT>
<P>The employer will need to use other methods for estimating available heat energy in situations not addressed by Table 6 or Table 7. The calculation methods listed in Table 2 and the guidance provided in Table 3 will help employers do this. For example, employers can use IEEE Std 1584b-2011 to estimate the available heat energy (and to select appropriate protective equipment) for many specific conditions, including lower-voltage, phase-to-phase arc, and enclosed arc exposures.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6—Incident Heat Energy for Various Fault Currents, Clearing Times, and Voltages of 4.0 to 46.0 kV: Rubber Insulating Glove Exposures Involving Phase-to-Ground Arcs in Open Air Only * <E T="51">† ‡</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range (kV) **
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Fault current (kA)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum clearing time (cycles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">12 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.0 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* This table is for open-air, phase-to-ground electric-arc exposures. It is not for phase-to-phase arcs or enclosed arcs (arc in a box).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">†</E> The table assumes that the employee will be 380 mm (15 in.) from the electric arc. The table also assumes the arc length to be the sparkover distance for the maximum transient overvoltage of each voltage range (see Appendix B to this subpart), as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">4.0 to 15.0 kV 51 mm (2 in.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">15.1 to 25.0 kV 102 mm (4 in.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">25.1 to 36.0 kV 152 mm (6 in.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">36.1 to 46.0 kV 229 mm (9 in.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">‡</E> The Occupational Safety and Health Administration calculated the values in this table using the ARCPRO method listed in Table 2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** The voltage range is the phase-to-phase system voltage.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—Incident Heat Energy for Various Fault Currents, Clearing Times, and Voltages: Live-Line Tool Exposures Involving Phase-to-Ground Arcs in Open Air Only * <E T="51">† ‡ #</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Voltage range
<br/>(kV) **
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Fault current
<br/>(kA)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Maximum clearing time (cycles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">12 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.0 to 15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">394</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.1 to 25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">394</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.1 to 36.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">159
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36.1 to 46.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">386
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">154
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46.1 to 72.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.6 to 121.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">121.1 to 145.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">145.1 to 169.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">169.1 to 242.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">242.1 to 362.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">362.1 to 420.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">420.1 to 550.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550.1 to 800.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* This table is for open-air, phase-to-ground electric-arc exposures. It is not for phase-to-phase arcs or enclosed arcs (arc in a box).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">†</E> The table assumes the arc length to be the sparkover distance for the maximum phase-to-ground voltage of each voltage range (see Appendix B to this subpart). The table also assumes that the employee will be the minimum approach distance minus twice the arc length from the electric arc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">‡</E> The Occupational Safety and Health Administration calculated the values in this table using the ARCPRO method listed in Table 2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">#</E> For voltages of more than 72.6 kV, employers may use this table only when the minimum approach distance established under § 1926.960(c)(1) is greater than or equal to the following values:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">72.6 to 121.0 kV 1.02 m
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">121.1 to 145.0 kV 1.16 m
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">145.1 to 169.0 kV 1.30 m
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">169.1 to 242.0 kV 1.72 m
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">242.1 to 362.0 kV 2.76 m
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">362.1 to 420.0 kV 2.50 m
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">420.1 to 550.0 kV 3.62 m
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">550.1 to 800.0 kV 4.83 m
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** The voltage range is the phase-to-phase system voltage.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>B. Selecting Protective Clothing and Other Protective Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Paragraph (g)(5) of § 1926.960 requires employers, in certain situations, to select protective clothing and other protective equipment with an arc rating that is greater than or equal to the incident heat energy estimated under § 1926.960(g)(2). Based on laboratory testing required by ASTM F1506-10a, the expectation is that protective clothing with an arc rating equal to the estimated incident heat energy will be capable of preventing second-degree burn injury to an employee exposed to that incident heat energy from an electric arc. Note that actual electric-arc exposures may be more or less severe than the estimated value because of factors such as arc movement, arc length, arcing from reclosing of the system, secondary fires or explosions, and weather conditions. Additionally, for arc rating based on the fabric's arc thermal performance value 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> (ATPV), a worker exposed to incident energy at the arc rating has a 50-percent chance of just barely receiving a second-degree burn. Therefore, it is possible (although not likely) that an employee will sustain a second-degree (or worse) burn wearing clothing conforming to § 1926.960(g)(5) under certain circumstances. However, reasonable employer estimates and maintaining appropriate minimum approach distances for employees should limit burns to relatively small burns that just barely extend beyond the epidermis (that is, just barely a second-degree burn). Consequently, protective clothing and other protective equipment meeting § 1926.960(g)(5) will provide an appropriate degree of protection for an employee exposed to electric-arc hazards.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> ASTM F1506-10a defines “arc thermal performance value” as “the incident energy on a material or a multilayer system of materials that results in a 50% probability that sufficient heat transfer through the tested specimen is predicted to cause the onset of a second-degree skin burn injury based on the Stoll [footnote] curve, cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>.” The footnote to this definition reads: “Derived from: Stoll, A.M., and Chianta, M.A., `Method and Rating System for Evaluations of Thermal Protection,' Aerospace Medicine, Vol 40, 1969, pp. 1232-1238 and Stoll A.M., and Chianta, M.A., `Heat Transfer through Fabrics as Related to Thermal Injury,' Transactions—New York Academy of Sciences, Vol 33(7), Nov. 1971, pp. 649-670.”</P></FTNT>
<P>Paragraph (g)(5) of § 1926.960 does not require arc-rated protection for exposures of 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> or less. Untreated cotton clothing will reduce a 2-cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> exposure below the 1.2- to 1.5-cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> level necessary to cause burn injury, and this material should not ignite at such low heat energy levels. Although § 1926.960(g)(5) does not require clothing to have an arc rating when exposures are 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> or less, § 1926.960(g)(4) requires the outer layer of clothing to be flame resistant under certain conditions, even when the estimated incident heat energy is less than 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>, as discussed later in this appendix. Additionally, it is especially important to ensure that employees do not wear undergarments made from fabrics listed in the note to § 1926.960(g)(3) even when the outer layer is flame resistant or arc rated. These fabrics can melt or ignite easily when an electric arc occurs. Logos and name tags made from non-flame-resistant material can adversely affect the arc rating or the flame-resistant characteristics of arc-rated or flame-resistant clothing. Such logos and name tags may violate § 1926.960(g)(3), (g)(4), or (g)(5).
</P>
<P>Paragraph (g)(5) of § 1926.960 requires that arc-rated protection cover the employee's entire body, with limited exceptions for the employee's hands, feet, face, and head. Paragraph (g)(5)(i) of § 1926.960 provides that arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's hands under the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">For any estimated incident heat energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When the employee is wearing rubber insulating gloves with protectors
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">If the estimated incident heat energy does not exceed 14 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When the employee is wearing heavy-duty leather work gloves with a weight of at least 407 gm/m
<sup>2</sup> (12 oz/yd
<sup>2</sup>)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Paragraph (g)(5)(ii) of § 1926.960 provides that arc-rated protection is not necessary for the employee's feet when the employee is wearing heavy-duty work shoes or boots. Finally, § 1926.960(g)(5)(iii), (g)(5)(iv), and (g)(5)(v) require arc-rated head and face protection as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Exposure
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Minimum head and face protection
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">None *
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arc-rated faceshield with a minimum rating of 8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup> *
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Arc-rated hood or faceshield with
<br/>balaclava
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-phase, open air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2-8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9-12 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13 cal/
<sup>2</sup> or higher.<E T="51">†</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three-phase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2-4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5-8 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup> or higher.<E T="51">‡</E>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* These ranges assume that employees are wearing hardhats meeting the specifications in § 1910.135 or § 1926.100(b)(2), as applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">†</E> The arc rating must be a minimum of 4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup> less than the estimated incident energy. Note that § 1926.960(g)(5)(v) permits this type of head and face protection, with a minimum arc rating of 4 cal/cm
<sup>2</sup> less than the estimated incident energy, at any incident energy level.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="51">‡</E> Note that § 1926.960(g)(5) permits this type of head and face protection at any incident energy level.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>IV. Protection Against Ignition
</HD1>
<P>Paragraph (g)(3) of § 1926.960 prohibits clothing that could melt onto an employee's skin or that could ignite and continue to burn when exposed to flames or to the available heat energy estimated by the employer under § 1926.960(g)(2). Meltable fabrics, such as acetate, nylon, polyester, and polypropylene, even in blends, must be avoided. When these fibers melt, they can adhere to the skin, thereby transferring heat rapidly, exacerbating burns, and complicating treatment. These outcomes can result even if the meltable fabric is not directly next to the skin. The remainder of this section focuses on the prevention of ignition.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (g)(5) of § 1926.960 generally requires protective clothing and other protective equipment with an arc rating greater than or equal to the employer's estimate of available heat energy. As explained earlier in this appendix, untreated cotton is usually acceptable for exposures of 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU> or less.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> If the exposure is greater than that, the employee generally must wear flame-resistant clothing with a suitable arc rating in accordance with § 1926.960(g)(4) and (g)(5). However, even if an employee is wearing a layer of flame-resistant clothing, there are circumstances under which flammable layers of clothing would be uncovered, and an electric arc could ignite them. For example, clothing ignition is possible if the employee is wearing flammable clothing under the flame-resistant clothing and the underlayer is uncovered because of an opening in the flame-resistant clothing. Thus, for purposes of § 1926.960(g)(3), it is important for the employer to consider the possibility of clothing ignition even when an employee is wearing flame-resistant clothing with a suitable arc rating.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See § 1926.960(g)(4)(i), (g)(4)(ii), and (g)(4)(iii) for conditions under which employees must wear flame-resistant clothing as the outer layer of clothing even when the incident heat energy does not exceed 2 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>.</P></FTNT>
<P>Under § 1926.960(g)(3), employees may not wear flammable clothing in conjunction with flame-resistant clothing if the flammable clothing poses an ignition hazard.
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Although outer flame-resistant layers may not have openings that expose flammable inner layers, when an outer flame-resistant layer would be unable to resist breakopen,
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> the next (inner) layer must be flame-resistant if it could ignite.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Paragraph (g)(3) of § 1926.960 prohibits clothing that could ignite and continue to burn when exposed to the heat energy estimated under paragraph (g)(2) of that section.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Breakopen occurs when a hole, tear, or crack develops in the exposed fabric such that the fabric no longer effectively blocks incident heat energy.</P></FTNT>
<P>Non-flame-resistant clothing can ignite even when the heat energy from an electric arc is insufficient to ignite the clothing. For example, nearby flames can ignite an employee's clothing; and, even in the absence of flames, electric arcs pose ignition hazards beyond the hazard of ignition from incident energy under certain conditions. In addition to requiring flame-resistant clothing when the estimated incident energy exceeds 2.0 cal/cm
<SU>2</SU>, § 1926.960(g)(4) requires flame-resistant clothing when: The employee is exposed to contact with energized circuit parts operating at more than 600 volts (§ 1926.960(g)(4)(i)), an electric arc could ignite flammable material in the work area that, in turn, could ignite the employee's clothing (§ 1926.960(g)(4)(ii)), and molten metal or electric arcs from faulted conductors in the work area could ignite the employee's clothing (§ 1926.960(g)(4)(iii)). For example, grounding conductors can become a source of heat energy if they cannot carry fault current without failure. The employer must consider these possible sources of electric arcs 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> in determining whether the employee's clothing could ignite under § 1926.960(g)(4)(iii).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Static wires and pole grounds are examples of grounding conductors that might not be capable of carrying fault current without failure. Grounds that can carry the maximum available fault current are not a concern, and employers need not consider such grounds a possible electric arc source.</P></FTNT>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.20.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Subpart V of Part 1926—Work-Positioning Equipment Inspection Guidelines
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Body Belts
</HD1>
<P>Inspect body belts to ensure that:
</P>
<P>A. The hardware has no cracks, nicks, distortion, or corrosion;
</P>
<P>B. No loose or worn rivets are present;
</P>
<P>C. The waist strap has no loose grommets;
</P>
<P>D. The fastening straps are not 100-percent leather; and
</P>
<P>E. No worn materials that could affect the safety of the user are present.
</P>
<HD1>II. Positioning Straps
</HD1>
<P>Inspect positioning straps to ensure that:
</P>
<P>A. The warning center of the strap material is not exposed;
</P>
<P>B. No cuts, burns, extra holes, or fraying of strap material is present;
</P>
<P>C. Rivets are properly secured;
</P>
<P>D. Straps are not 100-percent leather; and
</P>
<P>E. Snaphooks do not have cracks, burns, or corrosion.
</P>
<HD1>III. Climbers
</HD1>
<P>Inspect pole and tree climbers to ensure that:
</P>
<P>A. Gaffs are at least as long as the manufacturer's recommended minimums (generally 32 and 51 millimeters (1.25 and 2.0 inches) for pole and tree climbers, respectively, measured on the underside of the gaff);
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Gauges are available to assist in determining whether gaffs are long enough and shaped to easily penetrate poles or trees.</P></NOTE>
<P>B. Gaffs and leg irons are not fractured or cracked;
</P>
<P>C. Stirrups and leg irons are free of excessive wear;
</P>
<P>D. Gaffs are not loose;
</P>
<P>E. Gaffs are free of deformation that could adversely affect use;
</P>
<P>F. Gaffs are properly sharpened; and
</P>
<P>G. There are no broken straps or buckles.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.22.20.20.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Subpart V of Part 1926—Reference Documents
</HEAD>
<P>The references contained in this appendix provide information that can be helpful in understanding and complying with the requirements contained in Subpart V of this part. The national consensus standards referenced in this appendix contain detailed specifications that employers may follow in complying with the more performance-based requirements of Subpart V of this part. Except as specifically noted in Subpart V of this part, however, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration will not necessarily deem compliance with the national consensus standards to be compliance with the provisions of Subpart V of this part.
</P>
<FP-2>ANSI/SIA A92.2-2009, <I>American National Standard for Vehicle-Mounted Elevating and Rotating Aerial Devices.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI Z133-2012, <I>American National Standard Safety Requirements for Arboricultural Operations—Pruning, Trimming, Repairing, Maintaining, and Removing Trees, and Cutting Brush.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ANSI/IEEE Std 935-1989, <I>IEEE Guide on Terminology for Tools and Equipment to Be Used in Live Line Working.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASME B20.1-2012, <I>Safety Standard for Conveyors and Related Equipment.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D120-09, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Gloves.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D149-09 (2013), <I>Standard Test Method for Dielectric Breakdown Voltage and Dielectric Strength of Solid Electrical Insulating Materials at Commercial Power Frequencies.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D178-01 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Matting.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D1048-12, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Blankets.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D1049-98 (2010), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Covers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D1050-05 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Line Hose.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM D1051-08, <I>Standard Specification for Rubber Insulating Sleeves.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F478-09, <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Line Hose and Covers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F479-06 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Blankets.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F496-08, <I>Standard Specification for In-Service Care of Insulating Gloves and Sleeves.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F711-02 (2007), <I>Standard Specification for Fiberglass-Reinforced Plastic (FRP) Rod and Tube Used in Live Line Tools.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F712-06 (2011), <I>Standard Test Methods and Specifications for Electrically Insulating Plastic Guard Equipment for Protection of Workers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F819-10, <I>Standard Terminology Relating to Electrical Protective Equipment for Workers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F855-09, <I>Standard Specifications for Temporary Protective Grounds to Be Used on De-energized Electric Power Lines and Equipment.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F887-12
<SU>e1</SU>, <I>Standard Specifications for Personal Climbing Equipment.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F914/F914M-10, <I>Standard Test Method for Acoustic Emission for Aerial Personnel Devices Without Supplemental Load Handling Attachments.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1116-03 (2008), <I>Standard Test Method for Determining Dielectric Strength of Dielectric Footwear.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1117-03 (2008), <I>Standard Specification for Dielectric Footwear.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1236-96 (2012), <I>Standard Guide for Visual Inspection of Electrical Protective Rubber Products.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1430/F1430M-10, <I>Standard Test Method for Acoustic Emission Testing of Insulated and Non-Insulated Aerial Personnel Devices with Supplemental Load Handling Attachments.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1505-10, <I>Standard Specification for Insulated and Insulating Hand Tools.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1506-10a, <I>Standard Performance Specification for Flame Resistant and Arc Rated Textile Materials for Wearing Apparel for Use by Electrical Workers Exposed to Momentary Electric Arc and Related Thermal Hazards.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1564-13, <I>Standard Specification for Structure-Mounted Insulating Work Platforms for Electrical Workers.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1701-12, <I>Standard Specification for Unused Polypropylene Rope with Special Electrical Properties.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1742-03 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for PVC Insulating Sheeting.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1796-09, <I>Standard Specification for High Voltage Detectors—Part 1 Capacitive Type to be Used for Voltages Exceeding 600 Volts AC.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1797-09 <E T="8063">ε</E> 
<SU>1</SU>, <I>Standard Test Method for Acoustic Emission Testing of Insulated and Non-Insulated Digger Derricks.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1825-03 (2007), <I>Standard Specification for Clampstick Type Live Line Tools.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1826-00 (2011), <I>Standard Specification for Live Line and Measuring Telescoping Tools.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1891-12, <I>Standard Specification for Arc and Flame Resistant Rainwear.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1958/F1958M-12, <I>Standard Test Method for Determining the Ignitability of Non-flame-Resistant Materials for Clothing by Electric Arc Exposure Method Using Mannequins.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ASTM F1959/F1959M-12, <I>Standard Test Method for Determining the Arc Rating of Materials for Clothing.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Stds 4-1995, 4a-2001 (Amendment to <I>IEEE Standard Techniques for High-Voltage Testing</I>), <I>IEEE Standard Techniques for High-Voltage Testing.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 62-1995, <I>IEEE Guide for Diagnostic Field Testing of Electric Power Apparatus—Part 1: Oil Filled Power Transformers, Regulators, and Reactors.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 80-2000, <I>Guide for Safety in AC Substation Grounding.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 100-2000, <I>The Authoritative Dictionary of IEEE Standards Terms Seventh Edition.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 516-2009, <I>IEEE Guide for Maintenance Methods on Energized Power Lines.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 524-2003, <I>IEEE Guide to the Installation of Overhead Transmission Line Conductors.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 957-2005, <I>IEEE Guide for Cleaning Insulators.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 1048-2003, <I>IEEE Guide for Protective Grounding of Power Lines.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 1067-2005, <I>IEEE Guide for In-Service Use, Care, Maintenance, and Testing of Conductive Clothing for Use on Voltages up to 765 kV AC and ±750 kV DC.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Std 1307-2004, <I>IEEE Standard for Fall Protection for Utility Work.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE Stds 1584-2002, 1584a-2004 (Amendment 1 to IEEE Std 1584-2002), and 1584b-2011 (Amendment 2: Changes to Clause 4 of IEEE Std 1584-2002), <I>IEEE Guide for Performing Arc-Flash Hazard Calculations.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IEEE C2-2012, <I>National Electrical Safety Code.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>NFPA 70E-2012, <I>Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace.</I>


</FP-2>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="W" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.23" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart W—Rollover Protective Structures; Overhead Protection</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1000" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.23.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1000   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> This subpart applies to the following types of material handling equipment: All rubber-tired, self-propelled scrapers, rubber-tired front-end loaders, rubber-tired dozers, wheel-type agricultural and industrial tractors, crawler tractors, crawler-type loaders, and motor graders, with or without attachments, that are used in construction work. This subpart also applies to compactors and rubber-tired skid-steer equipment, with or without attachments, manufactured after July 15, 2019, that are used in construction work. This subpart does not apply to sideboom pipelaying tractors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment manufactured before</I> July 15, 2019. Material handling equipment described in paragraph (a) of this section (excluding compactors and rubber-tired skid-steer equipment) manufactured before July 15, 2019, shall be equipped with rollover protective structures that meet the minimum performance standards prescribed in § 1926.1001(b), as applicable. Agricultural and industrial tractors used in construction shall be equipped with rollover protective structures that meet the minimum performance standards prescribed in § 1926.1002(b), as applicable. When overhead protection is provided on agricultural and industrial tractors, the overhead protection shall meet the minimum performance standards prescribed in § 1926.1003(b), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment manufactured on or after</I> July 15, 2019. Material handling machinery described in paragraph (a) of this section manufactured on or after July 15, 2019, shall be equipped with rollover protective structures that meet the minimum performance standards prescribed in § 1926.1001(c). Agricultural and industrial tractors used in construction shall be equipped with rollover protective structures that meet the minimum performance standards prescribed in § 1926.1002(c). When overhead protection is provided on agricultural and industrial tractors, the overhead protection shall meet the minimum performance standards prescribed in § 1926.1003(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Remounting.</I> ROPS removed for any reason, shall be remounted with equal quality, or better, bolts or welding as required for the original mounting.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Labeling.</I> Each ROPS shall have the following information permanently affixed to the structure:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturer or fabricator's name and address;
</P>
<P>(2) ROPS model number, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) Machine make, model, or series number that the structure is designed to fit.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Machines meeting certain existing governmental requirements.</I> Any machine in use, equipped with rollover protective structures, shall be deemed in compliance with this section if it meets the rollover protective structure requirements of the State of California, the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, or the Bureau of Reclamation of the U.S. Department of the Interior in effect on April 5, 1972. The requirements in effect are:
</P>
<P>(1) State of California: Construction Safety Orders, issued by the Department of Industrial Relations pursuant to Division 5, Labor Code, § 6312, State of California.
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. Army Corps of Engineers: General Safety Requirements, EM-385-1-1 (March 1967).
</P>
<P>(3) Bureau of Reclamation, U.S. Department of the Interior: Safety and Health Regulations for Construction. Part II (September 1971).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 8577, Feb. 9, 1979; 44 FR 20940, Apr. 6, 1979, as amended at 84 FR 21577, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1001" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.23.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1001   Minimum performance criteria for rollover protective structures for designated scrapers, loaders, dozers, graders, crawler tractors, compactors, and rubber-tired skid steer equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section prescribes minimum performance criteria for roll-over protective structures (ROPS) for rubber-tired self-propelled scrapers; rubber-tired front end loaders and rubber-tired dozers; crawler tractors and crawler-type loaders, motor graders, compactors, and rubber-tired skid steer equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment manufactured before</I> July 15, 2019. For equipment listed in paragraph (a) of this section (excluding compactors and rubber-tired skid steer equipment) manufactured before July 15, 2019, the protective frames shall conform to the following Society of Automotive Engineers Recommended Practices as applicable: SAE J320a, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Rubber-Tired, Self-Propelled Scrapers; SAE J394, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Rubber-Tired Front End Loaders and Rubber-Tired Dozers; SAE J395, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Crawler Tractors and Crawler-Type Loaders; SAE J396, Minimum Performance Criteria for Roll-Over Protective Structure for Motor Graders; and SAE J397, Critical Zone Characteristics and Dimensions for Operators of Construction and Industrial Machinery, as applicable (each incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6), or comply with the consensus standard (ISO 3471:2008) listed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment manufactured on or after</I> July 15, 2019. For equipment listed in paragraph (a) of this section manufactured on or after July 15, 2019, the protective frames shall meet the test and performance requirements of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standard ISO 3471:2008 Earth-Moving Machinery—Roll-over protective structures—Laboratory tests and performance requirements (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 21578, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1002" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.23.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1002   Protective frames (roll-over protective structures, known as ROPS) for wheel-type agricultural and industrial tractors used in construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section sets forth requirements for frames used to protect operators of wheel-type agricultural and industrial tractors used in construction work that will minimize the possibility of operator injury resulting from accidental upsets during normal operation. See paragraph (e) of this section for definitions of agricultural and industrial tractors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment manufactured before</I> July 15, 2019. For equipment manufactured before July 15, 2019, the protective frames shall meet the test and performance requirements of the Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J334a, Protective Frame Test Procedures and Performance Requirements and J168, Protective enclosures-test procedures and performance requirements, as applicable (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6), or comply with the consensus standard (ISO 5700:2013) listed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment manufactured on or after</I> July 15, 2019. For equipment manufactured on or after July 15, 2019, the protective frames shall meet the test and performance requirements of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standard ISO 5700:2013, Tractors for agriculture and forestry—Roll-over protective structures—static test method and acceptance conditions or ISO 3471:2008 Earth-Moving Machinery—Roll-over protective structures—Laboratory tests and performance requirements (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Overhead protection requirements.</I> For overhead protection requirements, see § 1926.1003.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions applicable to this section.</I> (1) “Agricultural tractor” means a wheel-type vehicle of more than 20 engine horsepower, used in construction work, that is designed to furnish the power to pull, propel, or drive implements. (SAE standard J333a-1970 (“Operator protection for wheel-type agricultural and industrial tractors”) defines “agricultural tractor” as a “wheel-type vehicle of more than 20 engine horsepower designed to furnish the power to pull, carry, propel, or drive implements that are designed for agricultural usage.” Since this part 1926 applies only to construction work, the SAE definition of “agricultural tractor” is adopted for purposes of this subpart.)
</P>
<P>(2) “Industrial tractor” means that class of wheel-type tractors of more than 20 engine horsepower (other than rubber-tired loaders and dozers described in 29 CFR 1926.1001), used in operations such as landscaping, construction services, loading, digging, grounds keeping, and highway maintenance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 76985, Dec. 29, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 41129, July 20, 2006; 84 FR 21578, May 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1003" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.23.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1003   Overhead protection for operators of agricultural and industrial tractors used in construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section sets forth requirements for overhead protection used to protect operators of wheel-type agricultural and industrial tractors used in construction work that will minimize the possibility of operator injury resulting from overhead objects such as flying or falling objection, and from the cover itself in the event of accidental upset.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equipment manufactured before</I> July 15, 2019. When overhead protection is provided on wheel-type agricultural and industrial tractors manufactured before July 15, 2019, the overhead protection shall be designed and installed according to the requirements contained in the test and performance requirements of Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J167, Protective Frame with Overhead Protection-Test Procedures and Performance Requirements, which pertains to overhead protection requirements (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6) or comply with the consensus standard (ISO 27850:2013) listed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment manufactured on or after</I> July 15, 2019. When overhead protection is provided on wheel-type agricultural and industrial tractors manufactured on or after July 15, 2019, the overhead protection shall be designed and installed according to the requirements contained in the test and performance requirements of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standard ISO 27850:2013, Tractors for agriculture and forestry—Falling object protective structures—Test procedures and performance requirements, which pertains to overhead protection requirements (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Site clearing.</I> In the case of machines to which § 1926.604 (relating to site clearing) also applies, the overhead protection may be either the type of protection provided in § 1926.604, or the type of protection provided by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 21578, May 14, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="X" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.24" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart X—Stairways and Ladders</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 5-2007 (72 FR 31159), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR Part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 47687, Nov. 14, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1050" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.24.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1050   Scope, application, and definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This subpart applies to all stairways and ladders used in construction, alteration, repair (including painting and decorating), and demolition workplaces covered under 29 CFR part 1926, and also sets forth, in specified circumstances, when ladders and stairways are required to be provided. Additional requirements for ladders used on or with scaffolds are contained in subpart L—Scaffolds. This subpart does not apply to integral components of equipment covered by subpart CC. Subpart CC exclusively sets forth the circumstances when ladders and stairways must be provided on equipment covered by subpart CC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Cleat</I> means a ladder crosspiece of rectangular cross section placed on edge upon which a person may step while ascending or descending a ladder.
</P>
<P><I>Double-cleat ladder</I> means a ladder similar in construction to a single-cleat ladder, but with a center rail to allow simultaneous two-way traffic for employees ascending or descending.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent</I> means alternative designs, materials, or methods that the employer can demonstrate will provide an equal or greater degree of safety for employees than the method or item specified in the standard.
</P>
<P><I>Extension trestle ladder</I> means a self-supporting portable ladder, adjustable in length, consisting of a trestle ladder base and a vertically adjustable extension section, with a suitable means for locking the ladders together.
</P>
<P><I>Failure</I> means load refusal, breakage, or separation of component parts. Load refusal is the point where the structural members lose their ability to carry the loads.
</P>
<P><I>Fixed ladder</I> means a ladder that cannot be readily moved or carried because it is an integral part of a building or structure. A <I>side-step fixed ladder</I> is a fixed ladder that requires a person getting off at the top to step to the side of the ladder side rails to reach the landing. A <I>through fixed ladder</I> is a fixed ladder that requires a person getting off at the top to step between the side rails of the ladder to reach the landing.
</P>
<P><I>Handrail</I> means a rail used to provide employees with a handhold for support.
</P>
<P><I>Individual-rung/step ladders</I> means ladders without a side rail or center rail support. Such ladders are made by mounting individual steps or rungs directly to the side or wall of the structure.
</P>
<P><I>Job-made ladder</I> means a ladder that is fabricated by employees, typically at the construction site, and is not commercially manufactured. This definition does not apply to any individual-rung/step ladders.
</P>
<P><I>Ladder stand.</I> A mobile fixed size self-supporting ladder consisting of a wide flat tread ladder in the form of stairs. The assenbly may include handrails.
</P>
<P><I>Lower levels</I> means those areas to which an employee can fall from a stairway or ladder. Such areas include ground levels, floors, roofs, ramps, runways, excavations, pits, tanks, material, water, equipment, and similar surfaces. It does not include the surface from which the employee falls.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum intended load</I> means the total load of all employees, equipment, tools, materials, transmitted loads, and other loads anticipated to be applied to a ladder component at any one time.
</P>
<P><I>Nosing</I> means that portion of a tread projecting beyond the face of the riser immediately below.
</P>
<P><I>Point of access</I> means all areas used by employees for work-related passage from one area or level to another. Such open areas include doorways, 1passageways, stairway openings, studded walls, and various other permanent or temporary openings used for such travel.
</P>
<P><I>Portable ladder</I> means a ladder that can be readily moved or carried.
</P>
<P><I>Riser height</I> means the vertical distance from the top of a tread to the top of the next higher tread or platform/landing or the distance from the top of a platform/landing to the top of the next higher tread or platform/landing.
</P>
<P><I>Side-step fixed ladder.</I> See “Fixed ladder.”
</P>
<P><I>Single-cleat ladder</I> means a ladder consisting of a pair of side rails, connected together by cleats, rungs, or steps.
</P>
<P><I>Single-rail ladder</I> means a portable ladder with rungs, cleats, or steps mounted on a single rail instead of the normal two rails used on most other ladders.
</P>
<P><I>Spiral stairway</I> means a series of steps attached to a vertical pole and progressing upward in a winding fashion within a cylindrical space.
</P>
<P><I>Stairrail system</I> means a vertical barrier erected along the unprotected sides and edges of a stariway to prevent employees from falling to lower levels. The top surface of a stairrail system may also be a “handrail.”
</P>
<P><I>Step stool (ladder type)</I> means a self-supporting, foldable, portable ladder, nonadjustable in length, 32 inches or less in overall size, with flat steps and without a pail shelf, designed to be climbed on the ladder top cap as well as all steps. The side rails may continue above the top cap.
</P>
<P><I>Through fixed ladder.</I> See “Fixed ladder.”
</P>
<P><I>Tread depth</I> means the horizontal distance from front to back of a tread (excluding nosing, if any).
</P>
<P><I>Unprotected sides and edges</I> means any side or edge (except at entrances to points of access) of a stairway where there is no stairrail system or wall 36 inches (.9 m) or more in height, and any side or edge (except at entrances to points of access) of a stairway landing, or ladder platform where there is no wall or guardrail system 39 inches (1 m) or more in height.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 47687, Nov. 14, 1990; 56 FR 2585, Jan. 23, 1991, as amended at 58 FR 35184, June 30, 1993; 75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1051" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.24.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1051   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A stairway or ladder shall be provided at all personnel points of access where there is a break in elevation of 19 inches (48 cm) or more, and no ramp, runway, sloped embankment, or personnel hoist is provided.
</P>
<P>(1) Employees shall not use any spiral stairways that will not be a permanent part of the structure on which construction work is being performed.
</P>
<P>(2) A double-cleated ladder or two or more separate ladders shall be provided when ladders are the only mean of access or exit from a working area for 25 or more employees, or when a ladder is to serve simultaneous two-way traffic.
</P>
<P>(3) When a building or structure has only one point of access between levels, that point of access shall be kept clear to permit free passage of employees. When work must be performed or equipment must be used such that free passage at that point of access is restricted, a second point of access shall be provided and used.
</P>
<P>(4) When a building or structure has two or more points of access between levels, at least one point of access shall be kept clear to permit free passage of employees.
</P>
<P>(b) Employers shall provide and install all stairway and ladder fall protection systems required by this subpart and shall comply with all other pertinent requirements of this subpart before employees begin the work that necessitates the installation and use of stairways, ladders, and their respective fall protection systems.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1052" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.24.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1052   Stairways.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The following requirements apply to all stairways as indicated:
</P>
<P>(1) Stairways that will not be a permanent part of the structure on which construction work is being performed shall have landings of not less than 30 inches (76 cm) in the direction of travel and extend at least 22 inches (56 cm) in width at every 12 feet (3.7 m) or less of vertical rise.
</P>
<P>(2) Stairs shall be installed between 30° and 50° from horizontal.
</P>
<P>(3) Riser height and tread depth shall be uniform within each flight of stairs, including any foundation structure used as one or more treads of the stairs. Variations in riser height or tread depth shall not be over 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch (0.6 cm) in any stairway system.
</P>
<P>(4) Where doors or gates open directly on a stairway, a platform shall be provided, and the swing of the door shall not reduce the effective width of the platform to less than 20 inches (51 cm).
</P>
<P>(5) Metal pan landings and metal pan treads, when used, shall be secured in place before filling with concrete or other material.
</P>
<P>(6) All parts of stairways shall be free of hazardous projections, such as protruding nails.
</P>
<P>(7) Slippery conditions on stairways shall be eliminated before the stairways are used to reach other levels.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Temporary service.</I> The following requirements apply to all stairways as indicated:
</P>
<P>(1) Except during stairway construction, foot traffic is prohibited on stairways with pan stairs where the treads and/or landings are to be filled in with concrete or other material at a later date, unless the stairs are temporarily fitted with wood or other solid material at least to the top edge of each pan. Such temporary treads and landings shall be replaced when worn below the level of the top edge of the pan.
</P>
<P>(2) Except during stairway construction, foot traffic is prohibited on skeleton metal stairs where permanent treads and/or landings are to be installed at a later date, unless the stairs are fitted with secured temporary treads and landings long enough to cover the entire tread and/or landing area.
</P>
<P>(3) Treads for temporary service shall be made of wood or other solid material, and shall be installed the full width and depth of the stair.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stairrails and handrails.</I> The following requirements apply to all stairways as indicated:
</P>
<P>(1) Stairways having four or more risers or rising more than 30 inches (76 cm), whichever is less, shall be equipped with:
</P>
<P>(i) At least one handrail; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One stairrail system along each unprotected side or edge.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When the top edge of a stairrail system also serves as a handrail, paragraph (c)(7) of this section applies.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Winding and spiral stairways shall be equipped with a handrail offset sufficiently to prevent walking on those portions of the stairways where the tread width is less than 6 inches (15 cm).
</P>
<P>(3) The height of stairrails shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Stairrails installed after March 15, 1991, shall be not less than 36 inches (91.5 cm) from the upper surface of the stairrail system to the surface of the tread, in line with the face of the riser at the forward edge of the tread.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stairrails installed before March 15, 1991, shall be not less than 30 inches (76 cm) nor more than 34 inches (86 cm) from the upper surface of the stairrail system to the surface of the tread, in line with the face of the riser at the forward edge of the tread.
</P>
<P>(4) Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, or equivalent intermediate structural members, shall be provided between the top rail of the stairrail system and the stairway steps.
</P>
<P>(i) Midrails, when used, shall be located at a height midway between the top edge of the stairrail system and the stairway steps.
</P>
<P>(ii) Screens or mesh, when used, shall extend from the top rail to the stairway step, and along the entire opening between top rail supports.
</P>
<P>(iii) When intermediate vertical members, such as balusters, are used between posts, they shall be not more than 19 inches (48 cm) apart.
</P>
<P>(iv) Other structural members, when used, shall be installed such that there are no openings in the stairrail system that are more than 19 inches (48 cm) wide.
</P>
<P>(5) Handrails and the top rails of stairrail systems shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 200 pounds (890 n) applied within 2 inches (5 cm) of the top edge, in any downward or outward direction, at any point along the top edge.
</P>
<P>(6) The height of handrails shall be not more than 37 inches (94 cm) nor less than 30 inches (76 cm) from the upper surface of the handrail to the surface of the tread, in line with the face of the riser at the forward edge of the tread.
</P>
<P>(7) When the top edge of a stairrail system also serves as a handrail, the height of the top edge shall be not more than 37 inches (94 cm) nor less than 36 inches (91.5 cm) from the upper surface of the stairrail system to the surface of the tread, in line with the face of the riser at the forward edge of the tread.
</P>
<P>(8) Stairrail systems and handrails shall be so surfaced as to prevent injury to employees from punctures or lacerations, and to prevent snagging of clothing.
</P>
<P>(9) Handrails shall provide an adequate handhold for employees grasping them to avoid falling.
</P>
<P>(10) The ends of stairrail systems and handrails shall be constructed so as not to constitute a projection hazard.
</P>
<P>(11) Handrails that will not be a permanent part of the structure being built shall have a minimum clearance of 3 inches (8 cm) between the handrail and walls, stairrail systems, and other objects.
</P>
<P>(12) Unprotected sides and edges of stairway landings shall be provided with guardrail systems. Guardrail system criteria are contained in subpart M of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 47687, Nov. 14, 1990; 56 FR 2585, Jan. 23, 1991; 56 FR 5061, Feb. 7, 1991; 56 FR 41794, Aug. 23, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1053" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.24.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1053   Ladders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The following requirements apply to all ladders as indicated, including job-made ladders.
</P>
<P>(1) Ladders shall be capable of supporting the following loads without failure:
</P>
<P>(i) Each self-supporting portable ladder: At least four times the maximum intended load, except that each extra-heavy-duty type 1A metal or plastic ladder shall sustain at least 3.3 times the maximum intended load. The ability of a ladder to sustain the loads indicated in this paragraph shall be determined by applying or transmitting the requisite load to the ladder in a downward vertical direction. Ladders built and tested in conformance with the applicable provisions of appendix A of this subpart will be deemed to meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each portable ladder that is not self-supporting: At least four times the maximum intended load, except that each extra-heavy-duty type 1A metal or plastic ladders shall sustain at least 3.3 times the maximum intended load. The ability of a ladder to sustain the loads indicated in this paragraph shall be determined by applying or transmitting the requisite load to the ladder in a downward vertical direction when the ladder is placed at an angle of 75
<FR>1/2</FR> degrees from the horizontal. Ladders built and tested in conformance with the applicable provisions of appendix A will be deemed to meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each fixed ladder: At least two loads of 250 pounds (114 kg) each, concentrated between any two consecutive attachments (the number and position of additional concentrated loads of 250 pounds (114 kg) each, determined from anticipated usage of the ladder, shall also be included), plus anticipated loads caused by ice buildup, winds, rigging, and impact loads resulting from the use of ladder safety devices. Each step or rung shall be capable of supporting a single concentrated load of at least 250 pounds (114 kg) applied in the middle of the step or rung. Ladders built in conformance with the applicable provisions of appendix A will be deemed to meet this requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) Ladder rungs, cleats, and steps shall be parallel, level, and uniformly spaced when the ladder is in position for use.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Rungs, cleats, and steps of portable ladders (except as provided below) and fixed ladders (including individual-rung/step ladders) shall be spaced not less than 10 inches (25 cm) apart, nor more than 14 inches (36 cm) apart, as measured between center lines of the rungs, cleats, and steps.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rungs, cleats, and steps of step stools shall be not less than 8 inches (20 cm) apart, nor more than 12 inches (31 cm) apart, as measured between center lines of the rungs, cleats, and steps.
</P>
<P>(iii) Rungs, cleats, and steps of the base section of extension trestle ladders shall not be less than 8 inches (20 cm) nor more than 18 inches (46 cm) apart, as measured between center lines of the rungs, cleats, and steps. The rung spacing on the extension section of the extension trestle ladder shall be not less than 6 inches (15 cm) nor more than 12 inches (31 cm), as measured between center lines of the rungs, cleats, and steps.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The minimum clear distance between the sides of individual-rung/step ladders and the minimum clear distance between the side rails of other fixed ladders shall be 16 inches (41 cm).
</P>
<P>(ii) The minimum clear distance between side rails for all portable ladders shall be 11
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (29 cm).
</P>
<P>(5) The rungs of individual-rung/step ladders shall be shaped such that employees' feet cannot slide off the end of the rungs.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) The rungs and steps of fixed metal ladders manufactured after March 15, 1991, shall be corrugated, knurled, dimpled, coated with skid-resistant material, or otherwise treated to minimize slipping.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rungs and steps of portable metal ladders shall be corrugated, knurled, dimpled, coated with skid-resistant material, or otherwise treated to minimize slipping.
</P>
<P>(7) Ladders shall not be tied or fastened together to provide longer sections unless they are specifically designed for such use.
</P>
<P>(8) A metal spreader or locking device shall be provided on each stepladder to hold the front and back sections in an open position when the ladder is being used.
</P>
<P>(9) When splicing is required to obtain a given length of side rail, the resulting side rail must be at least equivalent in strength to a one-piece side rail made of the same material.
</P>
<P>(10) Except when portable ladders are used to gain access to fixed ladders (such as those on utility towers, billboards, and other structures where the bottom of the fixed ladder is elevated to limit access), when two or more separate ladders are used to reach an elevated work area, the ladders shall be offset with a platform or landing between the ladders. (The requirements to have guardrail systems with toeboards for falling object and overhead protection on platforms and landings are set forth in subpart M of this part.)
</P>
<P>(11) Ladder components shall be surfaced so as to prevent injury to an employee from punctures or lacerations, and to prevent snagging of clothing.
</P>
<P>(12) Wood ladders shall not be coated with any opaque covering, except for identification or warning labels which may be placed on one face only of a side rail.
</P>
<P>(13) The minimum perpendicular clearance between fixed ladder rungs, cleats, and steps, and any obstruction behind the ladder shall be 7 inches (18 cm), except in the case of an elevator pit ladder, for which a minimum perpendicular clearance of 4
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (11 cm) is required.
</P>
<P>(14) The minimum perpendicular clearance between the center line of fixed ladder rungs, cleats, and steps, and any obstruction on the climbing side of the ladder shall be 30 inches (76 cm), except as provided in paragraph (a)(15) of this section.
</P>
<P>(15) When unavoidable obstructions are encountered, the minimum perpendicular clearance between the centerline of fixed ladder rungs, cleats, and steps, and the obstruction on the climbing side of the ladder may be reduced to 24 inches (61 cm), provided that a deflection device is installed to guide employees around the obstruction.
</P>
<P>(16) Through fixed ladders at their point of access/egress shall have a step-across distance of not less than 7 inches (18 cm) nor more than 12 inches (30 cm) as measured from the centerline of the steps or rungs to the nearest edge of the landing area. If the normal step-across distance exceeds 12 inches (30 cm), a landing platform shall be provided to reduce the distance to the specified limit.
</P>
<P>(17) Fixed ladders without cages or wells shall have a clear width to the nearest permanent object of at least 15 inches (38 cm) on each side of the centerline of the ladder.
</P>
<P>(18) Fixed ladders shall be provided with cages, wells, ladder safety devices, or self-retracting lifelines where the length of climb is less than 24 feet (7.3 m) but the top of the ladder is at a distance greater than 24 feet (7.3 m) above lower levels.
</P>
<P>(19) Where the total length of a climb equals or exceeds 24 feet (7.3 m), fixed ladders shall be equipped with one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Ladder safety devices; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Self-retracting lifelines, and rest platforms at intervals not to exceed 150 feet (45.7 m); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A cage or well, and multiple ladder sections, each ladder section not to exceed 50 feet (15.2 m) in length. Ladder sections shall be offset from adjacent sections, and landing platforms shall be provided at maximum intervals of 50 feet (15.2 m).
</P>
<P>(20) Cages for fixed ladders shall conform to all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Horizontal bands shall be fastened to the side rails of rail ladders, or directly to the structure, building, or equipment for individual-rung ladders;
</P>
<P>(ii) Vertical bars shall be on the inside of the horizontal bands and shall be fastened to them;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cages shall extend not less than 27 inches (68 cm), or more than 30 inches (76 cm) from the centerline of the step or rung (excluding the flare at the bottom of the cage), and shall not be less than 27 inches (68 cm) in width;
</P>
<P>(iv) The inside of the cage shall be clear of projections;
</P>
<P>(v) Horizontal bands shall be spaced not more than 4 feet (1.2 m) on center vertically;
</P>
<P>(vi) Vertical bars shall be spaced at intervals not more than 9
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (24 cm) on center horizontally;
</P>
<P>(vii) The bottom of the cage shall be at a level not less than 7 feet (2.1 m) nor more than 8 feet (2.4 m) above the point of access to the bottom of the ladder. The bottom of the cage shall be flared not less than 4 inches (10 cm) all around within the distance between the bottom horizontal band and the next higher band;
</P>
<P>(viii) The top of the cage shall be a minimum of 42 inches (1.1 m) above the top of the platform, or the point of access at the top of the ladder, with provision for access to the platform or other point of access.
</P>
<P>(21) Wells for fixed ladders shall conform to all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) They shall completely encircle the ladder;
</P>
<P>(ii) They shall be free of projections;
</P>
<P>(iii) Their inside face on the climbing side of the ladder shall extend not less than 27 inches (68 cm) nor more than 30 inches (76 cm) from the centerline of the step or rung;
</P>
<P>(iv) The inside clear width shall be at least 30 inches (76 cm);
</P>
<P>(v) The bottom of the wall on the access side shall start at a level not less than 7 feet (2.1 m) nor more than 8 feet (2.4 m) above the point of access to the bottom of the ladder.
</P>
<P>(22) Ladder safety devices, and related support systems, for fixed ladders shall conform to all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) They shall be capable of withstanding without failure a drop test consisting of an 18-inch (41 cm) drop of a 500-pound (226 kg) weight;
</P>
<P>(ii) They shall permit the employee using the device to ascend or descend without continually having to hold, push or pull any part of the device, leaving both hands free for climbing;
</P>
<P>(iii) They shall be activated within 2 feet (.61 m) after a fall occurs, and limit the descending velocity of an employee to 7 feet/sec. (2.1 m/sec.) or less;
</P>
<P>(iv) The connection between the carrier or lifeline and the point of attachment to the body belt or harness shall not exceed 9 inches (23 cm) in length.
</P>
<P>(23) The mounting of ladder safety devices for fixed ladders shall conform to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Mountings for rigid carriers shall be attached at each end of the carrier, with intermediate mountings, as necessary, spaced along the entire length of the carrier, to provide the strength necessary to stop employees' falls.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mountings for flexible carriers shall be attached at each end of the carrier. When the system is exposed to wind, cable guides for flexible carriers shall be installed at a minimum spacing of 25 feet (7.6 m) and maximum spacing of 40 feet (12.2 m) along the entire length of the carrier, to prevent wind damage to the system.
</P>
<P>(iii) The design and installation of mountings and cable guides shall not reduce the design strength of the ladder.
</P>
<P>(24) The side rails of through or side-step fixed ladders shall extend 42 inches (1.1 m) above the top of the access level or landing platform served by the ladder. For a parapet ladder, the access level shall be the roof if the parapet is cut to permit passage through the parapet; if the parapet is continuous, the access level shall be the top of the parapet.
</P>
<P>(25) For through-fixed-ladder extensions, the steps or rungs shall be omitted from the extension and the extension of the side rails shall be flared to provide not less than 24 inches (61 cm) nor more than 30 inches (76 cm) clearance between side rails. Where ladder safety devices are provided, the maximum clearance between side rails of the extensions shall not exceed 36 inches (91 cm).
</P>
<P>(26) For side-step fixed ladders, the side rails and the steps or rungs shall be continuous in the extension.
</P>
<P>(27) Individual-rung/step ladders, except those used where their access openings are covered with manhole covers or hatches, shall extend at least 42 inches (1.1 m) above an access level or landing platform either by the continuation of the rung spacings as horizontal grab bars or by providing vertical grab bars that shall have the same lateral spacing as the vertical legs of the rungs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use.</I> The following requirements apply to the use of all ladders, including job-made ladders, except as otherwise indicated:
</P>
<P>(1) When portable ladders are used for access to an upper landing surface, the ladder side rails shall extend at least 3 feet (.9 m) above the upper landing surface to which the ladder is used to gain access; or, when such an extension is not possible because of the ladder's length, then the ladder shall be secured at its top to a rigid support that will not deflect, and a grasping device, such as a grabrail, shall be provided to assist employees in mounting and dismounting the ladder. In no case shall the extension be such that ladder deflection under a load would, by itself, cause the ladder to slip off its support.
</P>
<P>(2) Ladders shall be maintained free of oil, grease, and other slipping hazards.
</P>
<P>(3) Ladders shall not be loaded beyond the maximum intended load for which they were built, nor beyond their manufacturer's rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(4) Ladders shall be used only for the purpose for which they were designed.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Non-self-supporting ladders shall be used at an angle such that the horizontal distance from the top support to the foot of the ladder is approximately one-quarter of the working length of the ladder (the distance along the ladder between the foot and the top support).
</P>
<P>(ii) Wood job-made ladders with spliced side rails shall be used at an angle such that the horizontal distance is one-eighth the working length of the ladder.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fixed ladders shall be used at a pitch no greater than 90 degrees from the horizontal, as measured to the back side of the ladder.
</P>
<P>(6) Ladders shall be used only on stable and level surfaces unless secured to prevent accidental displacement.
</P>
<P>(7) Ladders shall not be used on slippery surfaces unless secured or provided with slip-resistant feet to prevent accidental displacement. Slip-resistant feet shall not be used as a substitute for care in placing, lashing, or holding a ladder that is used upon slippery surfaces including, but not limited to, flat metal or concrete surfaces that are constructed so they cannot be prevented from becoming slippery.
</P>
<P>(8) Ladders placed in any location where they can be displaced by workplace activities or traffic, such as in passageways, doorways, or driveways, shall be secured to prevent accidental displacement, or a barricade shall be used to keep the activities or traffic away from the ladder.
</P>
<P>(9) The area around the top and bottom of ladders shall be kept clear.
</P>
<P>(10) The top of a non-self-supporting ladder shall be placed with the two rails supported equally unless it is equipped with a single support attachment.
</P>
<P>(11) Ladders shall not be moved, shifted, or extended while occupied.
</P>
<P>(12) Ladders shall have nonconductive siderails if they are used where the employee or the ladder could contact exposed energized electrical equipment, except as provided in § 1926.955(b) and (c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(13) The top or top step of a stepladder shall not be used as a step.
</P>
<P>(14) Cross-bracing on the rear section of stepladders shall not be used for climbing unless the ladders are designed and provided with steps for climbing on both front and rear sections.
</P>
<P>(15) Ladders shall be inspected by a competent person for visible defects on a periodic basis and after any occurrence that could affect their safe use.
</P>
<P>(16) Portable ladders with structural defects, such as, but not limited to, broken or missing rungs, cleats, or steps, broken or split rails, corroded components, or other faulty or defective components, shall either be immediately marked in a manner that readily identifies them as defective, or be tagged with “Do Not Use” or similar language, and shall be withdrawn from service until repaired.
</P>
<P>(17) Fixed ladders with structural defects, such as, but not limited to, broken or missing rungs, cleats, or steps, broken or split rails, or corroded components, shall be withdrawn from service until repaired. The requirement to withdraw a defective ladder from service is satisfied if the ladder is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately tagged with “Do Not Use” or similar language,
</P>
<P>(ii) Marked in a manner that readily identifies it as defective;
</P>
<P>(iii) Or blocked (such as with a plywood attachment that spans several rungs).
</P>
<P>(18) Ladder repairs shall restore the ladder to a condition meeting its original design criteria, before the ladder is returned to use.
</P>
<P>(19) Single-rail ladders shall not be used.
</P>
<P>(20) When ascending or descending a ladder, the user shall face the ladder.
</P>
<P>(21) Each employee shall use at least one hand to grasp the ladder when progressing up and/or down the ladder.
</P>
<P>(22) An employee shall not carry any object or load that could cause the employee to lose balance and fall.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 47687, Nov. 14, 1990; 56 FR 2585, Jan. 23, 1991, as amended at 56 FR 41794, Aug. 23, 1991; 79 FR 20743, Apr. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1926.1054-1926.1059" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.24.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1926.1054-1926.1059   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1060" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.24.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1060   Training requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The following training provisions clarify the requirements of § 1926.21(b)(2), regarding the hazards addressed in subpart X.
</P>
<P>(a) The employer shall provide a training program for each employee using ladders and stairways, as necessary. The program shall enable each employee to recognize hazards related to ladders and stairways, and shall train each employee in the procedures to be followed to minimize these hazards.
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall ensure that each employee has been trained by a competent person in the following areas, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of fall hazards in the work area;
</P>
<P>(ii) The correct procedures for erecting, maintaining, and disassembling the fall protection systems to be used;
</P>
<P>(iii) The proper construction, use, placement, and care in handling of all stairways and ladders;
</P>
<P>(iv) The maximum intended load-carrying capacities of ladders used; and
</P>
<P>(v) The standards contained in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Retraining shall be provided for each employee as necessary so that the employee maintains the understanding and knowledge acquired through compliance with this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.24.20.7.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart X of Part 1926—Ladders
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix serves as a non-mandatory guideline to assist employers in complying with the ladder loading and strength requirements of § 1926.1053(a)(1). A ladder designed and built in accordance with the applicable national consensus standards, as set forth below, will be considered to meet the requirements of § 1926.1053(a)(1):
</P>
<P>• Manufactured portable wood ladders: American National Standards Institute (ANSI) A14.1-1982—American National Standard for Ladders-Portable Wood-Safety Requirements.
</P>
<P>• Manufactured portable metal ladders: ANSI A14.2-1982—American National Standard for Ladders—Portable Metal-Safety Requirements.
</P>
<P>• Manufactured fixed ladders: ANSI A14.3-1984—American National Standard for Ladders-Fixed-Safety Requirements.
</P>
<P>• Job-made ladders: ANSI A14.4-1979—Safety Requirements for Job-Made Ladders.
</P>
<P>• Plastic ladders: ANSI A14.5-1982—American National Standard for Ladders-Portable Reinforced Plastic-Safety Requirements.




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Y" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Y—Diving</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Sec. 107, Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (the Construction Safety Standards Act) (40 U.S.C. 333); Sec. 41, Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. 941); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017) or 5-2002 (67 FR 65008) as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 35184, June 30, 1993, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="20" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1071" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1071   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.401 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1072" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1072   Definitions.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The provisions applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.402 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Personnel Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1076" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1076   Qualifications of dive team.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.410 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Operations Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1080" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1080   Safe practices manual.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.420 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1081" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1081   Pre-dive procedures.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.421 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1082" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1082   Procedures during dive.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.422 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1083" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1083   Post-dive procedures.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.423 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Specific Operations Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1084" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1084   SCUBA diving.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.424 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1085" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1085   Surface-supplied air diving.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.425 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1086" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1086   Mixed-gas diving.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.426 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1087" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1087   Liveboating.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.427 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Equipment Procedures and Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1090" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.24.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1090   Equipment.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.430 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1091" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1091   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.440 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.26.14.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart Y of Part 1926—Examples of Conditions Which May Restrict or Limit Exposure to Hyperbaric Conditions
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix A are identical to those set forth at appendix A to Subpart T of part 1910 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31432, June 20, 1996]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.25.26.14.36" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart Y of Part 1926—Guidelines for Scientific Diving
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix B are identical to those set forth at appendix B to subpart T of part 1910 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Z" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Z—Toxic and Hazardous Substances</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3704; 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 5-2007 (72 FR 31160), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912) as applicable; and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE><P>Section 1926.1102 not issued under 29 U.S.C. 655 or 29 CFR part 1911; also issued under 5 U.S.C. 553.




</P></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1100   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1101   Asbestos.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section regulates asbestos exposure in all work as defined in 29 CFR 1910.12(b), including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Demolition or salvage of structures where asbestos is present;
</P>
<P>(2) Removal or encapsulation of materials containing asbestos;
</P>
<P>(3) Construction, alteration, repair, maintenance, or renovation of structures, substrates, or portions thereof, that contain asbestos;
</P>
<P>(4) Installation of products containing asbestos;
</P>
<P>(5) Asbestos spill/emergency cleanup; and
</P>
<P>(6) Transportation, disposal, storage, containment of and housekeeping activities involving asbestos or products containing asbestos, on the site or location at which construction activities are performed.
</P>
<P>(7) Coverage under this standard shall be based on the nature of the work operation involving asbestos exposure.
</P>
<P>(8) This section does not apply to asbestos-containing asphalt roof coatings, cements and mastics.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Aggressive method</I> means removal or disturbance of building material by sanding, abrading, grinding or other method that breaks, crumbles, or disintegrates intact ACM.
</P>
<P><I>Amended water</I> means water to which surfactant (wetting agent) has been added to increase the ability of the liquid to penetrate ACM.
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos</I> includes chrysotile, amosite, crocidolite, tremolite asbestos, anthophyllite asbestos, actinolite asbestos, and any of these minerals that has been chemically treated and/or altered. For purposes of this standard, “asbestos” includes PACM, as defined below.
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos-containing material (ACM),</I> means any material containing more than one percent asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person authorized by the employer and required by work duties to be present in regulated areas.
</P>
<P><I>Building/facility owner</I> is the legal entity, including a lessee, which exercises control over management and record keeping functions relating to a building and/or facility in which activities covered by this standard take place.
</P>
<P><I>Certified Industrial Hygienist</I> (CIH) means one certified in the practice of industrial hygiene by the American Board of Industrial Hygiene.
</P>
<P><I>Class I asbestos work</I> means activities involving the removal of TSI and surfacing ACM and PACM.
</P>
<P><I>Class II asbestos work</I> means activities involving the removal of ACM which is not thermal system insulation or surfacing material. This includes, but is not limited to, the removal of asbestos-containing wallboard, floor tile and sheeting, roofing and siding shingles, and construction mastics.
</P>
<P><I>Class III asbestos work</I> means repair and maintenance operations, where “ACM”, including TSI and surfacing ACM and PACM, is likely to be disturbed.
</P>
<P><I>Class IV asbestos work</I> means maintenance and custodial activities during which employees contact but do not disturb ACM or PACM and activities to clean up dust, waste and debris resulting from Class I, II, and III activities.
</P>
<P><I>Clean room</I> means an uncontaminated room having facilities for the storage of employees' street clothing and uncontaminated materials and equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Closely resemble</I> means that the major workplace conditions which have contributed to the levels of historic asbestos exposure, are no more protective than conditions of the current workplace.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means, in addition to the definition in 29 CFR 1926.32 (f), one who is capable of identifying existing asbestos hazards in the workplace and selecting the appropriate control strategy for asbestos exposure, who has the authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them, as specified in 29 CFR 1926.32(f): in addition, for Class I and Class II work who is specially trained in a training course which meets the criteria of EPA's Model Accreditation Plan (40 CFR part 763) for supervisor, or its equivalent and, for Class III and Class IV work, who is trained in a manner consistent with EPA requirements for training of local education agency maintenance and custodial staff as set forth at 40 CFR 763.92 (a)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Critical barrier</I> means one or more layers of plastic sealed over all openings into a work area or any other similarly placed physical barrier sufficient to prevent airborne asbestos in a work area from migrating to an adjacent area.
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination area</I> means an enclosed area adjacent and connected to the regulated area and consisting of an equipment room, shower area, and clean room, which is used for the decontamination of workers, materials, and equipment that are contaminated with asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Demolition</I> means the wrecking or taking out of any load-supporting structural member and any related razing, removing, or stripping of asbestos products.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Disturbance</I> means activities that disrupt the matrix of ACM or PACM, crumble or pulverize ACM or PACM, or generate visible debris from ACM or PACM. In no event shall the amount of ACM or PACM so disturbed exceed that which can be contained in one glove bag or waste bag which shall not exceed 60 inches in length and width.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means that exposure to airborne asbestos that would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment room</I> (<I>change room</I>) means a contaminated room located within the decontamination area that is supplied with impermeable bags or containers for the disposal of contaminated protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Fiber</I> means a particulate form of asbestos, 5 micrometers or longer, with a length-to-diameter ratio of at least 3 to 1.
</P>
<P><I>Glovebag</I> means not more than a 60 × 60 inch impervious plastic bag-like enclosure affixed around an asbestos-containing material, with glove-like appendages through which material and tools may be handled.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter</I> means a filter capable of trapping and retaining at least 99.97 percent of all mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Homogeneous area</I> means an area of surfacing material or thermal system insulation that is uniform in color and texture.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial hygienist</I> means a professional qualified by education, training, and experience to anticipate, recognize, evaluate and develop controls for occupational health hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Intact</I> means that the ACM has not crumbled, been pulverized, or otherwise deteriorated so that the asbestos is no longer likely to be bound with its matrix.
</P>
<P><I>Modification</I> for purposes of paragraph (g)(6)(ii), means a changed or altered procedure, material or component of a control system, which replaces a procedure, material or component of a required system. Omitting a procedure or component, or reducing or diminishing the stringency or strength of a material or component of the control system is not a “modification” for purposes of paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Negative Initial Exposure Assessment</I> means a demonstration by the employer, which complies with the criteria in paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, that employee exposure during an operation is expected to be consistently below the PELs.
</P>
<P><I>PACM</I> means “presumed asbestos containing material”.
</P>
<P><I>Presumed Asbestos Containing Material</I> means thermal system insulation and surfacing material found in buildings constructed no later than 1980. The designation of a material as “PACM” may be rebutted pursuant to paragraph (k)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Project Designer</I> means a person who has successfully completed the training requirements for an abatement project designer established by 40 U.S.C. 763.90(g).
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means: an area established by the employer to demarcate areas where Class I, II, and III asbestos work is conducted, and any adjoining area where debris and waste from such asbestos work accumulate; and a work area within which airborne concentrations of asbestos, exceed or there is a reasonable possibility they may exceed the permissible exposure limit. Requirements for regulated areas are set out in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Removal</I> means all operations where ACM and/or PACM is taken out or stripped from structures or substrates, and includes demolition operations.
</P>
<P><I>Renovation</I> means the modifying of any existing structure, or portion thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Repair</I> means overhauling, rebuilding, reconstructing, or reconditioning of structures or substrates, including encapsulation or other repair of ACM or PACM attached to structures or substrates.
</P>
<P><I>Surfacing material</I> means material that is sprayed, troweled-on or otherwise applied to surfaces (such as acoustical plaster on ceilings and fireproofing materials on structural members, or other materials on surfaces for acoustical, fireproofing, and other purposes).
</P>
<P><I>Surfacing ACM</I> means surfacing material which contains more than 1% asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Thermal system insulation (TSI)</I> means ACM applied to pipes, fittings, boilers, breeching, tanks, ducts or other structural components to prevent heat loss or gain.
</P>
<P><I>Thermal system insulation ACM</I> is thermal system insulation which contains more than 1% asbestos.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits (PELS)</I>—(1) <I>Time-weighted average limit (TWA).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of asbestos in excess of 0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air as an eight (8) hour time-weighted average (TWA), as determined by the method prescribed in appendix A to this section, or by an equivalent method.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excursion limit.</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of asbestos in excess of 1.0 fiber per cubic centimeter of air (1 f/cc) as averaged over a sampling period of thirty (30) minutes, as determined by the method prescribed in appendix A to this section, or by an equivalent method.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multi-employer worksites.</I> (1) On multi-employer worksites, an employer performing work requiring the establishment of a regulated area shall inform other employers on the site of the nature of the employer's work with asbestos and/or PACM, of the existence of and requirements pertaining to regulated areas, and the measures taken to ensure that employees of such other employers are not exposed to asbestos.
</P>
<P>(2) Asbestos hazards at a multi-employer work site shall be abated by the contractor who created or controls the source of asbestos contamination. For example, if there is a significant breach of an enclosure containing Class I work, the employer responsible for erecting the enclosure shall repair the breach immediately.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, all employers of employees exposed to asbestos hazards shall comply with applicable protective provisions to protect their employees. For example, if employees working immediately adjacent to a Class I asbestos job are exposed to asbestos due to the inadequate containment of such job, their employer shall either remove the employees from the area until the enclosure breach is repaired; or perform an initial exposure assessment pursuant to (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) All employers of employees working adjacent to regulated areas established by another employer on a multi-employer work-site, shall take steps on a daily basis to ascertain the integrity of the enclosure and/or the effectiveness of the control method relied on by the primary asbestos contractor to assure that asbestos fibers do not migrate to such adjacent areas.
</P>
<P>(5) All general contractors on a construction project which includes work covered by this standard shall be deemed to exercise general supervisory authority over the work covered by this standard, even though the general contractor is not qualified to serve as the asbestos “competent person” as defined by paragraph (b) of this section. As supervisor of the entire project, the general contractor shall ascertain whether the asbestos contractor is in compliance with this standard, and shall require such contractor to come into compliance with this standard when necessary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) All Class I, II and III asbestos work shall be conducted within regulated areas. All other operations covered by this standard shall be conducted within a regulated area where airborne concentrations of asbestos exceed, or there is a reasonable possibility they may exceed a PEL. Regulated areas shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (2), (3),(4) and (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> The regulated area shall be demarcated in any manner that minimizes the number of persons within the area and protects persons outside the area from exposure to airborne asbestos. Where critical barriers or negative pressure enclosures are used, they may demarcate the regulated area. Signs shall be provided and displayed pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (k)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons and to persons authorized by the Act or regulations issued pursuant thereto.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Respirators.</I> All persons entering a regulated area where employees are required pursuant to paragraph (h)(1) of this section to wear respirators shall be supplied with a respirator selected in accordance with paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in the regulated area.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Competent Persons.</I> The employer shall ensure that all asbestos work performed within regulated areas is supervised by a competent person, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. The duties of the competent person are set out in paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exposure assessments and monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General monitoring criteria.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or work operation where exposure monitoring is required under this section shall perform monitoring to determine accurately the airborne concentrations of asbestos to which employees may be exposed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of the 8-hour TWA and 30-minute short-term exposures of each employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Representative 8-hour TWA employee exposure shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing full-shift exposure for employees in each work area. Representative 30-minute short-term employee exposures shall be determined on the basis of one or more samples representing 30 minute exposures associated with operations that are most likely to produce exposures above the excursion limit for employees in each work area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial Exposure Assessment.</I> (i) Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this standard shall ensure that a “competent person” conducts an exposure assessment immediately before or at the initiation of the operation to ascertain expected exposures during that operation or workplace. The assessment must be completed in time to comply with requirements which are triggered by exposure data or the lack of a “negative exposure assessment,” and to provide information necessary to assure that all control systems planned are appropriate for that operation and will work properly.
</P>
<P>(ii) Basis of Initial Exposure Assessment: Unless a negative exposure assessment has been made pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, the initial exposure assessment shall, if feasible, be based on monitoring conducted pursuant to paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section. The assessment shall take into consideration both the monitoring results and all observations, information or calculations which indicate employee exposure to asbestos, including any previous monitoring conducted in the workplace, or of the operations of the employer which indicate the levels of airborne asbestos likely to be encountered on the job. For Class I asbestos work, until the employer conducts exposure monitoring and documents that employees on that job will not be exposed in excess of the PELs, or otherwise makes a negative exposure assessment pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, the employer shall presume that employees are exposed in excess of the TWA and excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(iii) Negative Exposure Assessment: For any one specific asbestos job which will be performed by employees who have been trained in compliance with the standard, the employer may demonstrate that employee exposures will be below the PELs by data which conform to the following criteria;
</P>
<P>(A) Objective data demonstrating that the product or material containing asbestos minerals or the activity involving such product or material cannot release airborne fibers in concentrations exceeding the TWA and excursion limit under those work conditions having the greatest potential for releasing asbestos; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the employer has monitored prior asbestos jobs for the PEL and the excursion limit within 12 months of the current or projected job, the monitoring and analysis were performed in compliance with the asbestos standard in effect; and the data were obtained during work operations conducted under workplace conditions “closely resembling” the processes, type of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions used and prevailing in the employer's current operations, the operations were conducted by employees whose training and experience are no more extensive than that of employees performing the current job, and these data show that under the conditions prevailing and which will prevail in the current workplace there is a high degree of certainty that employee exposures will not exceed the TWA and excursion limit; or
</P>
<P>(C) The results of initial exposure monitoring of the current job made from breathing zone air samples that are representative of the 8-hour TWA and 30-minute short-term exposures of each employee covering operations which are most likely during the performance of the entire asbestos job to result in exposures over the PELs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic monitoring</I>—(i) <I>Class I and II operations.</I> The employer shall conduct daily monitoring that is representative of the exposure of each employee who is assigned to work within a regulated area who is performing Class I or II work, unless the employer pursuant to (f)(2)(iii) of this section, has made a negative exposure assessment for the entire operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) All operations under the standard other than Class I and II operations. The employer shall conduct periodic monitoring of all work where exposures are expected to exceed a PEL, at intervals sufficient to document the validity of the exposure prediction.
</P>
<P>(iii) Exception: When all employees required to be monitored daily are equipped with supplied-air respirators operated in the pressure demand mode, or other positive pressure mode, the employer may dispense with the daily monitoring required by this paragraph. However, employees performing Class I work using a control method which is not listed in paragraph (g)(4)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section or using a modification of a listed control method, shall continue to be monitored daily even if they are equipped with supplied-air respirators.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of monitoring.</I> (i) If the periodic monitoring required by paragraph (f)(3) of this section reveals that employee exposures, as indicated by statistically reliable measurements, are below the permissible exposure limit and excursion limit the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional monitoring. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (f) (2) and (3), and (f)(4) of this section, the employer shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraph (f)(3) of this section whenever there has been a change in process, control equipment, personnel or work practices that may result in new or additional exposures above the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit or when the employer has any reason to suspect that a change may result in new or additional exposures above the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit. Such additional monitoring is required regardless of whether a “negative exposure assessment” was previously produced for a specific job.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> The employer must, as soon as possible but no later than 5 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall provide affected employees and their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to asbestos conducted in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to asbestos requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the observer shall be provided with and be required to use such clothing and equipment and shall comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of compliance.</I> (1) Engineering controls and work practices for all operations covered by this section. The employer shall use the following engineering controls and work practices in all operations covered by this section, regardless of the levels of exposure:
</P>
<P>(i) Vacuum cleaners equipped with HEPA filters to collect all debris and dust containing ACM and PACM, except as provided in paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section in the case of roofing material.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wet methods, or wetting agents, to control employee exposures during asbestos handling, mixing, removal, cutting, application, and cleanup, except where employers demonstrate that the use of wet methods is infeasible due to for example, the creation of electrical hazards, equipment malfunction, and, in roofing, except as provided in paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Prompt clean-up and disposal of wastes and debris contaminated with asbestos in leak-tight containers except in roofing operations, where the procedures specified in paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the employer shall use the following control methods to achieve compliance with the TWA permissible exposure limit and excursion limit prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(i) Local exhaust ventilation equipped with HEPA filter dust collection systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enclosure or isolation of processes producing asbestos dust;
</P>
<P>(iii) Ventilation of the regulated area to move contaminated air away from the breathing zone of employees and toward a filtration or collection device equipped with a HEPA filter;
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of other work practices and engineering controls that the Assistant Secretary can show to be feasible.
</P>
<P>(v) Wherever the feasible engineering and work practice controls described above are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels attainable by these controls and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibitions.</I> The following work practices and engineering controls shall not be used for work related to asbestos or for work which disturbs ACM or PACM, regardless of measured levels of asbestos exposure or the results of initial exposure assessments:
</P>
<P>(i) High-speed abrasive disc saws that are not equipped with point of cut ventilator or enclosures with HEPA filtered exhaust air.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compressed air used to remove asbestos, or materials containing asbestos, unless the compressed air is used in conjunction with an enclosed ventilation system designed to capture the dust cloud created by the compressed air.
</P>
<P>(iii) Dry sweeping, shoveling or other dry clean-up of dust and debris containing ACM and PACM.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employee rotation as a means of reducing employee exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Class I Requirements.</I> In addition to the provisions of paragraphs (g) (1) and (2) of this section, the following engineering controls and work practices and procedures shall be used.
</P>
<P>(i) All Class I work, including the installation and operation of the control system shall be supervised by a competent person as defined in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) For all Class I jobs involving the removal of more than 25 linear or 10 square feet of thermal system insulation or surfacing material; for all other Class I jobs, where the employer cannot produce a negative exposure assessment pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, or where employees are working in areas adjacent to the regulated area, while the Class I work is being performed, the employer shall use one of the following methods to ensure that airborne asbestos does not migrate from the regulated area:
</P>
<P>(A) Critical barriers shall be placed over all the openings to the regulated area, except where activities are performed outdoors; or
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall use another barrier or isolation method which prevents the migration of airborne asbestos from the regulated area, as verified by perimeter area surveillance during each work shift at each boundary of the regulated area, showing no visible asbestos dust; and perimeter area monitoring showing that clearance levels contained in 40 CFR part 763, subpt. E, of the EPA Asbestos in Schools Rule are met, or that perimeter area levels, measured by Phase Contrast Microscopy (PCM) are no more than background levels representing the same area before the asbestos work began. The results of such monitoring shall be made known to the employer no later than 24 hours from the end of the work shift represented by such monitoring. Exception: For work completed outdoors where employees are not working in areas adjacent to the regulated areas, this paragraph (g)(4)(ii) is satisfied when the specific control methods in paragraph (g)(5) of this section are used.
</P>
<P>(iii) For all Class I jobs, HVAC systems shall be isolated in the regulated area by sealing with a double layer of 6 mil plastic or the equivalent;
</P>
<P>(iv) For all Class I jobs, impermeable dropcloths shall be placed on surfaces beneath all removal activity;
</P>
<P>(v) For all Class I jobs, all objects within the regulated area shall be covered with impermeable dropcloths or plastic sheeting which is secured by duct tape or an equivalent.
</P>
<P>(vi) For all Class I jobs where the employer cannot produce a negative exposure assessment, or where exposure monitoring shows that a PEL is exceeded, the employer shall ventilate the regulated area to move contaminated air away from the breathing zone of employees toward a HEPA filtration or collection device.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Specific control methods for Class I work.</I> In addition, Class I asbestos work shall be performed using one or more of the following control methods pursuant to the limitations stated below:
</P>
<P>(i) Negative Pressure Enclosure (NPE) systems: NPE systems may be used where the configuration of the work area does not make the erection of the enclosure infeasible, with the following specifications and work practices.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The negative pressure enclosure (NPE) may be of any configuration,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least 4 air changes per hour shall be maintained in the NPE,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A minimum of −0.02 column inches of water pressure differential, relative to outside pressure, shall be maintained within the NPE as evidenced by manometric measurements,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The NPE shall be kept under negative pressure throughout the period of its use, and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Air movement shall be directed away from employees performing asbestos work within the enclosure, and toward a HEPA filtration or a collection device.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work Practices:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Before beginning work within the enclosure and at the beginning of each shift, the NPE shall be inspected for breaches and smoke-tested for leaks, and any leaks sealed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Electrical circuits in the enclosure shall be deactivated, unless equipped with ground-fault circuit interrupters.
</P>
<P>(ii) Glove bag systems may be used to remove PACM and/or ACM from straight runs of piping and elbows and other connections with the following specifications and work practices:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Glovebags shall be made of 6 mil thick plastic and shall be seamless at the bottom.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Glovebags used on elbows and other connections must be designed for that purpose and used without modifications.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work Practices:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Each glovebag shall be installed so that it completely covers the circumference of pipe or other structure where the work is to be done.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Glovebags shall be smoke-tested for leaks and any leaks sealed prior to use.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Glovebags may be used only once and may not be moved.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Glovebags shall not be used on surfaces whose temperature exceeds 150 °F.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Prior to disposal, glovebags shall be collapsed by removing air within them using a HEPA vacuum.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Before beginning the operation, loose and friable material adjacent to the glovebag/box operation shall be wrapped and sealed in two layers of six mil plastic or otherwise rendered intact,
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Where system uses attached waste bag, such bag shall be connected to collection bag using hose or other material which shall withstand pressure of ACM waste and water without losing its integrity:
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Sliding valve or other device shall separate waste bag from hose to ensure no exposure when waste bag is disconnected:
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) At least two persons shall perform Class I glovebag removal operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Negative Pressure Glove Bag Systems.</I> Negative pressure glove bag systems may be used to remove ACM or PACM from piping.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications:</I> In addition to specifications for glove bag systems above, negative pressure glove bag systems shall attach HEPA vacuum systems or other devices to bag to prevent collapse during removal.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work Practices:</I> (<I>1</I>) The employer shall comply with the work practices for glove bag systems in paragraph (g)(5)(ii)(B)(<I>4</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The HEPA vacuum cleaner or other device used to prevent collapse of bag during removal shall run continually during the operation until it is completed at which time the bag shall be collapsed prior to removal of the bag from the pipe.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where a separate waste bag is used along with a collection bag and discarded after one use, the collection bag may be reused if rinsed clean with amended water before reuse.
</P>
<P>(iv) Negative Pressure Glove Box Systems: Negative pressure glove boxes may be used to remove ACM or PACM from pipe runs with the following specifications and work practices.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Glove boxes shall be constructed with rigid sides and made from metal or other material which can withstand the weight of the ACM and PACM and water used during removal:
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A negative pressure generator shall be used to create negative pressure in the system:
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An air filtration unit shall be attached to the box:
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The box shall be fitted with gloved apertures:
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) An aperture at the base of the box shall serve as a bagging outlet for waste ACM and water:
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A back-up generator shall be present on site:
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Waste bags shall consist of 6 mil thick plastic double-bagged before they are filled or plastic thicker than 6 mil.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work practices:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) At least two persons shall perform the removal:
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The box shall be smoke-tested for leaks and any leaks sealed prior to each use.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Loose or damaged ACM adjacent to the box shall be wrapped and sealed in two layers of 6 mil plastic prior to the job, or otherwise made intact prior to the job.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A HEPA filtration system shall be used to maintain pressure barrier in box.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Water Spray Process System.</I> A water spray process system may be used for removal of ACM and PACM from cold line piping if, employees carrying out such process have completed a 40-hour separate training course in its use, in addition to training required for employees performing Class I work. The system shall meet the following specifications and shall be performed by employees using the following work practices.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Piping shall be surrounded on 3 sides by rigid framing,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A 360 degree water spray, delivered through nozzles supplied by a high pressure separate water line, shall be formed around the piping.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The spray shall collide to form a fine aerosol which provides a liquid barrier between workers and the ACM and PACM.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work Practices:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The system shall be run for at least 10 minutes before removal begins.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All removal shall take place within the water barrier.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The system shall be operated by at least three persons, one of whom shall not perform removal, but shall check equipment, and ensure proper operation of the system.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) After removal, the ACM and PACM shall be bagged while still inside the water barrier.
</P>
<P>(vi) A small walk-in enclosure which accommodates no more than two persons (mini-enclosure) may be used if the disturbance or removal can be completely contained by the enclosure with the following specifications and work practices.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specifications:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The fabricated or job-made enclosure shall be constructed of 6 mil plastic or equivalent:
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The enclosure shall be placed under negative pressure by means of a HEPA filtered vacuum or similar ventilation unit:
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Work practices:</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Before use, the mini-enclosure shall be inspected for leaks and smoke-tested to detect breaches, and any breaches sealed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Before reuse, the interior shall be completely washed with amended water and HEPA-vacuumed.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) During use, air movement shall be directed away from the employee's breathing zone within the mini-enclosure.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Alternative control methods for Class I work.</I> Class I work may be performed using a control method which is not referenced in paragraph (g)(5) of this section, or which modifies a control method referenced in paragraph (g)(5)of this section, if the following provisions are complied with:
</P>
<P>(i) The control method shall enclose, contain or isolate the processes or source of airborne asbestos dust, or otherwise capture or redirect such dust before it enters the breathing zone of employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) A certified industrial hygienist or licensed professional engineer who is also qualified as a project designer as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, shall evaluate the work area, the projected work practices and the engineering controls and shall certify in writing that the planned control method is adequate to reduce direct and indirect employee exposure to below the PELs under worst-case conditions of use, and that the planned control method will prevent asbestos contamination outside the regulated area, as measured by clearance sampling which meets the requirements of EPA's Asbestos in Schools rule issued under AHERA, or perimeter monitoring which meets the criteria in paragraph (g)(4)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) Where the TSI or surfacing material to be removed is 25 linear or 10 square feet or less , the evaluation required in paragraph (g)(6) of this section may be performed by a “competent person”, and may omit consideration of perimeter or clearance monitoring otherwise required.
</P>
<P>(B) The evaluation of employee exposure required in paragraph (g)(6) of this section, shall include and be based on sampling and analytical data representing employee exposure during the use of such method under worst-case conditions and by employees whose training and experience are equivalent to employees who are to perform the current job.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Work practices and engineering controls for Class II work.</I> (i) All Class II work shall be supervised by a competent person as defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For all indoor Class II jobs, where the employer has not produced a negative exposure assessment pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, or where during the job, changed conditions indicate there may be exposure above the PEL or where the employer does not remove the ACM in a substantially intact state, the employer shall use one of the following methods to ensure that airborne asbestos does not migrate from the regulated area;
</P>
<P>(A) Critical barriers shall be placed over all openings to the regulated area; or,
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall use another barrier or isolation method which prevents the migration of airborne asbestos from the regulated area, as verified by perimeter area monitoring or clearance monitoring which meets the criteria set out in paragraph (g)(4)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Impermeable dropcloths shall be placed on surfaces beneath all removal activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) All Class II asbestos work shall be performed using the work practices and requirements set out above in paragraph (g)(1) (i) through (g)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Additional Controls for Class II work.</I> Class II asbestos work shall also be performed by complying with the work practices and controls designated for each type of asbestos work to be performed, set out in this paragraph. Where more than one control method may be used for a type of asbestos work, the employer may choose one or a combination of designated control methods. Class II work also may be performed using a method allowed for Class I work, except that glove bags and glove boxes are allowed if they fully enclose the Class II material to be removed.
</P>
<P>(i) For removing vinyl and asphalt flooring materials which contain ACM or for which in buildings constructed no later than 1980, the employer has not verified the absence of ACM pursuant to paragraph (g)(8)(i)(I) of this section. The employer shall ensure that employees comply with the following work practices and that employees are trained in these practices pursuant to paragraph (k)(9):
</P>
<P>(A) Flooring or its backing shall not be sanded.
</P>
<P>(B) Vacuums equipped with HEPA filter, disposable dust bag, and metal floor tool (no brush) shall be used to clean floors.
</P>
<P>(C) Resilient sheeting shall be removed by cutting with wetting of the snip point and wetting during delamination. Rip-up of resilient sheet floor material is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(D) All scraping of residual adhesive and/or backing shall be performed using wet methods.
</P>
<P>(E) Dry sweeping is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(F) Mechanical chipping is prohibited unless performed in a negative pressure enclosure which meets the requirements of paragraph (g)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(G) Tiles shall be removed intact, unless the employer demonstrates that intact removal is not possible.
</P>
<P>(H) When tiles are heated and can be removed intact, wetting may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(I) Resilient flooring material including associated mastic and backing shall be assumed to be asbestos-containing unless an industrial hygienist determines that it is asbestos-free using recognized analytical techniques.
</P>
<P>(ii) For removing roofing material which contains ACM the employer shall ensure that the following work practices are followed:
</P>
<P>(A) Roofing material shall be removed in an intact state to the extent feasible.
</P>
<P>(B) Wet methods shall be used to remove roofing materials that are not intact, or that will be rendered not intact during removal, unless such wet methods are not feasible or will create safety hazards.
</P>
<P>(C) Cutting machines shall be continuously misted during use, unless a competent person determines that misting substantially decreases worker safety.
</P>
<P>(D) When removing built-up roofs with asbestos-containing roofing felts and an aggregate surface using a power roof cutter, all dust resulting from the cutting operation shall be collected by a HEPA dust collector, or shall be HEPA vacuumed by vacuuming along the cut line. When removing built-up roofs with asbestos-containing roofing felts and a smooth surface using a power roof cutter, the dust resulting from the cutting operation shall be collected either by a HEPA dust collector or HEPA vacuuming along the cut line, or by gently sweeping and then carefully and completely wiping up the still-wet dust and debris left along the cut line. The dust and debris shall be immediately bagged or placed in covered containers.
</P>
<P>(E) Asbestos-containing material that has been removed from a roof shall not be dropped or thrown to the ground. Unless the material is carried or passed to the ground by hand, it shall be lowered to the ground via covered, dust-tight chute, crane or hoist:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any ACM that is not intact shall be lowered to the ground as soon as is practicable, but in any event no later than the end of the work shift. While the material remains on the roof it shall either be kept wet, placed in an impermeable waste bag, or wrapped in plastic sheeting.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Intact ACM shall be lowered to the ground as soon as is practicable, but in any event no later than the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(F) Upon being lowered, unwrapped material shall be transferred to a closed receptacle in such manner so as to preclude the dispersion of dust.
</P>
<P>(G) Roof level heating and ventilation air intake sources shall be isolated or the ventilation system shall be shut down.
</P>
<P>(H) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, removal or repair of sections of intact roofing less than 25 square feet in area does not require use of wet methods or HEPA vacuuming as long as manual methods which do not render the material non-intact are used to remove the material and no visible dust is created by the removal method used. In determining whether a job involves less than 25 square feet, the employer shall include all removal and repair work performed on the same roof on the same day.
</P>
<P>(iii) When removing cementitious asbestos-containing siding and shingles or transite panels containing ACM on building exteriors (other than roofs, where paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section applies) the employer shall ensure that the following work practices are followed:
</P>
<P>(A) Cutting, abrading or breaking siding, shingles, or transite panels, shall be prohibited unless the employer can demonstrate that methods less likely to result in asbestos fiber release cannot be used.
</P>
<P>(B) Each panel or shingle shall be sprayed with amended water prior to removal.
</P>
<P>(C) Unwrapped or unbagged panels or shingles shall be immediately lowered to the ground via covered dust-tight chute, crane or hoist, or placed in an impervious waste bag or wrapped in plastic sheeting and lowered to the ground no later than the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(D) Nails shall be cut with flat, sharp instruments.
</P>
<P>(iv) When removing gaskets containing ACM, the employer shall ensure that the following work practices are followed:
</P>
<P>(A) If a gasket is visibly deteriorated and unlikely to be removed intact, removal shall be undertaken within a glovebag as described in paragraph (g)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(C) The gasket shall be immediately placed in a disposal container.
</P>
<P>(D) Any scraping to remove residue must be performed wet.
</P>
<P>(v) When performing any other Class II removal of asbestos containing material for which specific controls have not been listed in paragraph (g)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section, the employer shall ensure that the following work practices are complied with.
</P>
<P>(A) The material shall be thoroughly wetted with amended water prior to and during its removal.
</P>
<P>(B) The material shall be removed in an intact state unless the employer demonstrates that intact removal is not possible.
</P>
<P>(C) Cutting, abrading or breaking the material shall be prohibited unless the employer can demonstrate that methods less likely to result in asbestos fiber release are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(D) Asbestos-containing material removed, shall be immediately bagged or wrapped, or kept wetted until transferred to a closed receptacle, no later than the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Alternative Work Practices and Controls.</I> Instead of the work practices and controls listed in paragraph (g)(8) (i) through (v) of this section, the employer may use different or modified engineering and work practice controls if the following provisions are complied with.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall demonstrate by data representing employee exposure during the use of such method under conditions which closely resemble the conditions under which the method is to be used, that employee exposure will not exceed the PELs under any anticipated circumstances.
</P>
<P>(B) A competent person shall evaluate the work area, the projected work practices and the engineering controls, and shall certify in writing, that the different or modified controls are adequate to reduce direct and indirect employee exposure to below the PELs under all expected conditions of use and that the method meets the requirements of this standard. The evaluation shall include and be based on data representing employee exposure during the use of such method under conditions which closely resemble the conditions under which the method is to be used for the current job, and by employees whose training and experience are equivalent to employees who are to perform the current job.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Work Practices and Engineering Controls for Class III asbestos work.</I> Class III asbestos work shall be conducted using engineering and work practice controls which minimize the exposure to employees performing the asbestos work and to bystander employees.
</P>
<P>(i) The work shall be performed using wet methods.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent feasible, the work shall be performed using local exhaust ventilation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the disturbance involves drilling, cutting, abrading, sanding, chipping, breaking, or sawing of thermal system insulation or surfacing material, the employer shall use impermeable dropcloths, and shall isolate the operation using mini-enclosures or glove bag systems pursuant to paragraph (g)(5) of this section or another isolation method.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where the employer does not produce a “negative exposure assessment” for a job, or where monitoring results show the PEL has been exceeded, the employer shall contain the area using impermeable dropcloths and plastic barriers or their equivalent, or shall isolate the operation using a control system listed in and in compliance with paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Employees performing Class III jobs, which involve the disturbance of thermal system insulation or surfacing material, or where the employer does not produce a “negative exposure assessment” or where monitoring results show a PEL has been exceeded, shall wear respirators which are selected, used and fitted pursuant to provisions of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Class IV asbestos work.</I> Class IV asbestos jobs shall be conducted by employees trained pursuant to the asbestos awareness training program set out in paragraph (k)(9) of this section. In addition, all Class IV jobs shall be conducted in conformity with the requirements set out in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, mandating wet methods, HEPA vacuums, and prompt clean up of debris containing ACM or PACM.
</P>
<P>(i) Employees cleaning up debris and waste in a regulated area where respirators are required shall wear respirators which are selected, used and fitted pursuant to provisions of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers of employees who clean up waste and debris in, and employers in control of, areas where friable thermal system insulation or surfacing material is accessible, shall assume that such waste and debris contain asbestos.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Alternative methods of compliance for installation, removal, repair, and maintenance of certain roofing and pipeline coating materials.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an employer who complies with all provisions of this paragraph (g)(11) when installing, removing, repairing, or maintaining intact pipeline asphaltic wrap, or roof flashings which contain asbestos fibers encapsulated or coated by bituminous or resinous compounds shall be deemed to be in compliance with this section. If an employer does not comply with all provisions of this paragraph (g)(11) or if during the course of the job the material does not remain intact, the provisions of paragraph (g)(8) of this section apply instead of this paragraph (g)(11).
</P>
<P>(i) Before work begins and as needed during the job, a competent person who is capable of identifying asbestos hazards in the workplace and selecting the appropriate control strategy for asbestos exposure, and who has the authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate such hazards, shall conduct an inspection of the worksite and determine that the roofing material is intact and will likely remain intact.
</P>
<P>(ii) All employees performing work covered by this paragraph (g)(11) shall be trained in a training program that meets the requirements of paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The material shall not be sanded, abraded, or ground. Manual methods which do not render the material non-intact shall be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) Material that has been removed from a roof shall not be dropped or thrown to the ground. Unless the material is carried or passed to the ground by hand, it shall be lowered to the ground via covered, dust-tight chute, crane or hoist. All such material shall be removed from the roof as soon as is practicable, but in any event no later than the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(v) Where roofing products which have been labeled as containing asbestos pursuant to paragraph (k)(8) of this section are installed on non-residential roofs during operations covered by this paragraph (g)(11), the employer shall notify the building owner of the presence and location of such materials no later than the end of the job.
</P>
<P>(vi) All removal or disturbance of pipeline asphaltic wrap shall be performed using wet methods.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Class I asbestos work.
</P>
<P>(ii) Class II asbestos work when ACM is not removed in a substantially intact state.
</P>
<P>(iii) Class II and III asbestos work that is not performed using wet methods, except for removal of ACM from sloped roofs when a negative-exposure assessment has been conducted and ACM is removed in an intact state.
</P>
<P>(iv) Class II and III asbestos work for which a negative-exposure assessment has not been conducted.
</P>
<P>(v) Class III asbestos work when TSI or surfacing ACM or PACM is being disturbed.
</P>
<P>(vi) Class IV asbestos work performed within regulated areas where employees who are performing other work are required to use respirators.
</P>
<P>(vii) Work operations covered by this section for which employees are exposed above the TWA or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(viii) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134 (b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) No employee shall be assigned to asbestos work that requires respirator use if, based on their most recent medical examination, the examining physician determines that the employee will be unable to function normally while using a respirator, or that the safety or health of the employee or other employees will be impaired by the employee's respirator use. Such employees must be assigned to another job or given the opportunity to transfer to a different position that they can perform. If such a transfer position is available, it must be with the same employer, in the same geographical area, and with the same seniority, status, rate of pay, and other job benefits the employee had just prior to such transfer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134; however, employers must not select or use filtering facepiece respirators for use against asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers must provide an employee with tight-fitting, powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) instead of a negative pressure respirator selected according to paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) of this standard when the employee chooses to use a PAPR and it provides adequate protection to the employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employers must provide employees with an air-purifying half mask respirator, other than a filtering facepiece respirator, whenever the employees perform:
</P>
<P>(A) Class II or Class III asbestos work for which no negative exposure assessment is available.
</P>
<P>(B) Class III asbestos work involving disturbance of TSI or surfacing ACM or PACM.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employers must provide employees with:
</P>
<P>(A) A tight-fitting powered air-purifying respirator or a full facepiece, supplied-air respirator operated in the pressure-demand mode and equipped with either HEPA egress cartridges or an auxiliary positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) whenever the employees are in a regulated area performing Class I asbestos work for which a negative exposure assessment is not available and the exposure assessment indicates that the exposure level will be at or below 1 f/cc as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P>(B) A full facepiece supplied-air respirator operated in the pressure-demand mode and equipped with an auxiliary positive-pressure SCBA whenever the employees are in a regulated area performing Class I asbestos work for which a negative exposure assessment is not available and the exposure assessment indicates that the exposure level will be above 1 f/cc as an 8-hour TWA. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protective clothing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall provide or require the use of protective clothing, such as coveralls or similar whole-body clothing, head coverings, gloves, and foot coverings for any employee exposed to airborne concentrations of asbestos that exceed the TWA and/or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, or for which a required negative exposure assessment is not produced, or for any employee performing Class I operations which involve the removal of over 25 linear or 10 square feet of TSI or surfacing ACM and PACM.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Laundering.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that laundering of contaminated clothing is done so as to prevent the release of airborne asbestos in excess of the TWA or excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any employer who gives contaminated clothing to another person for laundering shall inform such person of the requirement in paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section to effectively prevent the release of airborne asbestos in excess of the TWA and excursion limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contaminated clothing.</I> Contaminated clothing shall be transported in sealed impermeable bags, or other closed, impermeable containers, and be labeled in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Inspection of protective clothing.</I> (i) The competent person shall examine worksuits worn by employees at least once per workshift for rips or tears that may occur during performance of work.
</P>
<P>(ii) When rips or tears are detected while an employee is working, rips and tears shall be immediately mended, or the worksuit shall be immediately replaced.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices for employees.</I> (1) Requirements for employees performing Class I asbestos jobs involving over 25 linear or 10 square feet of TSI or surfacing ACM and PACM.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Decontamination areas.</I> The employer shall establish a decontamination area that is adjacent and connected to the regulated area for the decontamination of such employees. The decontamination area shall consist of an equipment room, shower area, and clean room in series. The employer shall ensure that employees enter and exit the regulated area through the decontamination area.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Equipment room.</I> The equipment room shall be supplied with impermeable, labeled bags and containers for the containment and disposal of contaminated protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Shower area.</I> Shower facilities shall be provided which comply with 29 CFR 1910.141(d)(3), unless the employer can demonstrate that they are not feasible. The showers shall be adjacent both to the equipment room and the clean room, unless the employer can demonstrate that this location is not feasible. Where the employer can demonstrate that it is not feasible to locate the shower between the equipment room and the clean room, or where the work is performed outdoors, the employers shall ensure that employees:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Remove asbestos contamination from their worksuits in the equipment room using a HEPA vacuum before proceeding to a shower that is not adjacent to the work area; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Remove their contaminated worksuits in the equipment room, then don clean worksuits, and proceed to a shower that is not adjacent to the work area.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Clean change room.</I> The clean room shall be equipped with a locker or appropriate storage container for each employee's use. When the employer can demonstrate that it is not feasible to provide a clean change area adjacent to the work area or where the work is performed outdoors, the employer may permit employees engaged in Class I asbestos jobs to clean their protective clothing with a portable HEPA-equipped vacuum before such employees leave the regulated area. Following showering, such employees however must then change into street clothing in clean change areas provided by the employer which otherwise meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Decontamination area entry procedures.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees:
</P>
<P>(A) Enter the decontamination area through the clean room;
</P>
<P>(B) Remove and deposit street clothing within a locker provided for their use; and
</P>
<P>(C) Put on protective clothing and respiratory protection before leaving the clean room.
</P>
<P>(D) Before entering the regulated area, the employer shall ensure that employees pass through the equipment room.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Decontamination area exit procedures.</I> The employer shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(A) Before leaving the regulated area, employees shall remove all gross contamination and debris from their protective clothing.
</P>
<P>(B) Employees shall remove their protective clothing in the equipment room and deposit the clothing in labeled impermeable bags or containers.
</P>
<P>(C) Employees shall not remove their respirators in the equipment room.
</P>
<P>(D) Employees shall shower prior to entering the clean room.
</P>
<P>(E) After showering, employees shall enter the clean room before changing into street clothes.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Lunch Areas.</I> Whenever food or beverages are consumed at the worksite where employees are performing Class I asbestos work, the employer shall provide lunch areas in which the airborne concentrations of asbestos are below the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit.
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements for Class I work involving less than 25 linear or 10 square feet of TSI or surfacing ACM and PACM, and for Class II and Class III asbestos work operations where exposures exceed a PEL or where there is no negative exposure assessment produced before the operation.
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall establish an equipment room or area that is adjacent to the regulated area for the decontamination of employees and their equipment which is contaminated with asbestos which shall consist of an area covered by an impermeable drop cloth on the floor or horizontal working surface.
</P>
<P>(ii) The area must be of sufficient size as to accommodate cleaning of equipment and removing personal protective equipment without spreading contamination beyond the area (as determined by visible accumulations).
</P>
<P>(iii) Work clothing must be cleaned with a HEPA vacuum before it is removed.
</P>
<P>(iv) All equipment and surfaces of containers filled with ACM must be cleaned prior to removing them from the equipment room or area.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall ensure that employees enter and exit the regulated area through the equipment room or area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for Class IV work.</I> Employers shall ensure that employees performing Class IV work within a regulated area comply with the hygiene practice required of employees performing work which has a higher classification within that regulated area. Otherwise employers of employees cleaning up debris and material which is TSI or surfacing ACM or identified as PACM shall provide decontamination facilities for such employees which are required by paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Smoking in work areas.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not smoke in work areas where they are occupationally exposed to asbestos because of activities in that work area.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.</I> (i) This section applies to the communication of information concerning asbestos hazards in construction activities to facilitate compliance with this standard. Most asbestos-related construction activities involve previously installed building materials. Building owners often are the only and/or best sources of information concerning them. Therefore, they, along with employers of potentially exposed employees, are assigned specific information conveying and retention duties under this section. Installed Asbestos Containing Building Material. Employers and building owners shall identify TSI and sprayed or troweled on surfacing materials in buildings as asbestos-containing, unless they determine in compliance with paragraph (k)(5) of this section that the material is not asbestos-containing. Asphalt and vinyl flooring material installed no later than 1980 must also be considered as asbestos containing unless the employer, pursuant to paragraph (g)(8)(i)(I) of this section determines that it is not asbestos-containing. If the employer/building owner has actual knowledge, or should have known through the exercise of due diligence, that other materials are asbestos-containing, they too must be treated as such. When communicating information to employees pursuant to this standard, owners and employers shall identify “PACM” as ACM. Additional requirements relating to communication of asbestos work on multi-employer worksites are set out in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall include asbestos in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of asbestos and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of HCS and paragraphs (k)(9) and (10) of this section. The employer shall provide information on at least the following hazards: Cancer and lung effects.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duties of building and facility owners.</I> (i) Before work subject to this standard is begun, building and facility owners shall determine the presence, location, and quantity of ACM and/or PACM at the work site pursuant to paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Building and/or facility owners shall notify the following persons of the presence, location and quantity of ACM or PACM, at the work sites in their buildings and facilities. Notification either shall be in writing, or shall consist of a personal communication between the owner and the person to whom notification must be given or their authorized representatives:
</P>
<P>(A) Prospective employers applying or bidding for work whose employees reasonably can be expected to work in or adjacent to areas containing such material;
</P>
<P>(B) Employees of the owner who will work in or adjacent to areas containing such material:
</P>
<P>(C) On multi-employer worksites, all employers of employees who will be performing work within or adjacent to areas containing such materials;
</P>
<P>(D) Tenants who will occupy areas containing such material.
</P>
<P>(3) Duties of employers whose employees perform work subject to this standard in or adjacent to areas containing ACM and PACM. Building/facility owners whose employees perform such work shall comply with these provisions to the extent applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) Before work in areas containing ACM and PACM is begun; employers shall identify the presence, location, and quantity of ACM, and/or PACM therein pursuant to paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before work under this standard is performed employers of employees who will perform such work shall inform the following persons of the location and quantity of ACM and/or PACM present in the area and the precautions to be taken to insure that airborne asbestos is confined to the area.
</P>
<P>(A) Owners of the building/facility;
</P>
<P>(B) Employees who will perform such work and employers of employees who work and/or will be working in adjacent areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 10 days of the completion of such work, the employer whose employees have performed work subject to this standard, shall inform the building/facility owner and employers of employees who will be working in the area of the current location and quantity of PACM and/or ACM remaining in the area and final monitoring results, if any.
</P>
<P>(4) In addition to the above requirements, all employers who discover ACM and/or PACM on a worksite shall convey information concerning the presence, location and quantity of such newly discovered ACM and/or PACM to the owner and to other employers of employees working at the work site, within 24 hours of the discovery.
</P>
<P>(5) Criteria to rebut the designation of installed material as PACM. (i) At any time, an employer and/or building owner may demonstrate, for purposes of this standard, that PACM does not contain asbestos. Building owners and/or employers are not required to communicate information about the presence of building material for which such a demonstration pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (k)(5)(ii) of this section has been made. However, in all such cases, the information, data and analysis supporting the determination that PACM does not contain asbestos, shall be retained pursuant to paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An employer or owner may demonstrate that PACM does not contain more than 1% asbestos by the following: (A) Having a completed inspection conducted pursuant to the requirements of AHERA (40 CFR part 763, subpart E) which demonstrates that the material is not ACM; or
</P>
<P>(B) Performing tests of the material containing PACM which demonstrate that no ACM is present in the material. Such tests shall include analysis of bulk samples collected in the manner described in 40 CFR 763.86. The tests, evaluation and sample collection shall be conducted by an accredited inspector or by a CIH. Analysis of samples shall be performed by persons or laboratories with proficiency demonstrated by current successful participation in a nationally recognized testing program such as the National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP) or the National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) or the Round Robin for bulk samples administered by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) or an equivalent nationally-recognized round robin testing program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer and/or building owner may demonstrate that flooring material including associated mastic and backing does not contain asbestos, by a determination of an industrial hygienist based upon recognized analytical techniques showing that the material is not ACM.
</P>
<P>(6) At the entrance to mechanical rooms/areas in which employees reasonably can be expected to enter and which contain ACM and/or PACM, the building owner shall post signs which identify the material which is present, its location, and appropriate work practices which, if followed, will ensure that ACM and/or PACM will not be disturbed. The employer shall ensure, to the extent feasible, that employees who come in contact with these signs can comprehend them. Means to ensure employee comprehension may include the use of foreign languages, pictographs, graphics, and awareness training.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Signs.</I> (i) Warning signs that demarcate the regulated area shall be provided and displayed at each location where a regulated area is required to be established by paragraph (e) of this section. Signs shall be posted at such a distance from such a location that an employee may read the signs and take necessary protective steps before entering the area marked by the signs.
</P>
<P>(ii) (A) The warning signs required by paragraph (k)(7) of this section shall bear the following information.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASBESTOS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) In addition, where the use of respirators and protective clothing is required in the regulated area under this section, the warning signs shall include the following:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING IN THIS AREA</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (k)(7)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ASBESTOS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(D) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (k)(7)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>RESPIRATORS AND PROTECTIVE CLOTHING ARE REQUIRED IN THIS AREA</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that employees working in and contiguous to regulated areas comprehend the warning signs required to be posted by paragraph (k)(7)(i) of this section. Means to ensure employee comprehension may include the use of foreign languages, pictographs and graphics.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Labels.</I> (i) Labels shall be affixed to all products containing asbestos and to all containers containing such products, including waste containers. Where feasible, installed asbestos products shall contain a visible label.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that such labels comply with paragraphs (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that labels of bags or containers of protective clothing and equipment, scrap, waste, and debris containing asbestos fibers bear the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS ASBESTOS FIBERS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT BREATHE DUST
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) (A) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on raw materials, mixtures or labels of bags or containers of protective clothing and equipment, scrap, waste, and debris containing asbestos fibers in lieu of the labeling requirements in paragraphs (k)(8)(ii) and (k)(8)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS ASBESTOS FIBERS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Labels shall also contain a warning statement against breathing asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) The provisions for labels required by paragraphs (k)(8)(i) through (k)(8)(iii) of this section do not apply where:
</P>
<P>(A) Asbestos fibers have been modified by a bonding agent, coating, binder, or other material, provided that the manufacturer can demonstrate that, during any reasonably foreseeable use, handling, storage, disposal, processing, or transportation, no airborne concentrations of asbestos fibers in excess of the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit will be released, or
</P>
<P>(B) Asbestos is present in a product in concentrations less than 1.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(vii) When a building owner or employer identifies previously installed PACM and/or ACM, labels or signs shall be affixed or posted so that employees will be notified of what materials contain PACM and/or ACM. The employer shall attach such labels in areas where they will clearly be noticed by employees who are likely to be exposed, such as at the entrance to mechanical room/areas. Signs required by paragraph (k)(6) of this section may be posted in lieu of labels so long as they contain information required for labelling. The employer shall ensure, to the extent feasible, that employees who come in contact with these signs or labels can comprehend them. Means to ensure employee comprehension may include the use of foreign languages, pictographs, graphics, and awareness training.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Employee Information and Training.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee who is likely to be exposed in excess of a PEL, and each employee who performs Class I through IV asbestos operations, in accordance with the requirements of this section. Such training shall be conducted at no cost to the employee. The employer shall institute a training program and ensure employee participation in the program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Training for Class I operations and for Class II operations that require the use of critical barriers (or equivalent isolation methods) and/or negative pressure enclosures under this section shall be the equivalent in curriculum, training method and length to the EPA Model Accreditation Plan (MAP) asbestos abatement workers training (40 CFR part 763, subpart E, appendix C).
</P>
<P>(iv) Training for other Class II work.
</P>
<P>(A) For work with asbestos containing roofing materials, flooring materials, siding materials, ceiling tiles, or transite panels, training shall include at a minimum all the elements included in paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section and in addition, the specific work practices and engineering controls set forth in paragraph (g) of this section which specifically relate to that category. Such course shall include “hands-on” training and shall take at least 8 hours.
</P>
<P>(B) An employee who works with more than one of the categories of material specified in paragraph (k)(9)(iv)(A) of this section shall receive training in the work practices applicable to each category of material that the employee removes and each removal method that the employee uses.
</P>
<P>(C) For Class II operations not involving the categories of material specified in paragraph (k)(9)(iv)(A) of this section, training shall be provided which shall include at a minimum all the elements included in paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section and in addition, the specific work practices and engineering controls set forth in paragraph (g) of this section which specifically relate to the category of material being removed, and shall include “hands-on” training in the work practices applicable to each category of material that the employee removes and each removal method that the employee uses.
</P>
<P>(v) Training for Class III employees shall be consistent with EPA requirements for training of local education agency maintenance and custodial staff as set forth at 40 CFR 763.92(a)(2). Such a course shall also include “hands-on” training and shall take at least 16 hours. Exception: For Class III operations for which the competent person determines that the EPA curriculum does not adequately cover the training needed to perform that activity, training shall include as a minimum all the elements included in paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section and in addition, the specific work practices and engineering controls set forth in paragraph (g) of this section which specifically relate to that activity, and shall include “hands-on” training in the work practices applicable to each category of material that the employee disturbs.
</P>
<P>(vi) Training for employees performing Class IV operations shall be consistent with EPA requirements for training of local education agency maintenance and custodial staff as set forth at 40 CFR 763.92(a)(1). Such a course shall include available information concerning the locations of thermal system insulation and surfacing ACM/PACM, and asbestos-containing flooring material, or flooring material where the absence of asbestos has not yet been certified; and instruction in recognition of damage, deterioration, and delamination of asbestos containing building materials. Such course shall take at least 2 hours.
</P>
<P>(vii) Training for employees who are likely to be exposed in excess of the PEL and who are not otherwise required to be trained under paragraph (k)(9)(iii) through (vi) of this section, shall meet the requirements of paragraph (k)(9)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) The training program shall be conducted in a manner that the employee is able to understand. In addition to the content required by provisions in paragraphs (k)(9)(iii) through (vi) of this section, the employer shall ensure that each such employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Methods of recognizing asbestos, including the requirement in paragraph (k)(1) of this section to presume that certain building materials contain asbestos;
</P>
<P>(B) The health effects associated with asbestos exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) The relationship between smoking and asbestos in producing lung cancer;
</P>
<P>(D) The nature of operations that could result in exposure to asbestos, the importance of necessary protective controls to minimize exposure including, as applicable, engineering controls, work practices, respirators, housekeeping procedures, hygiene facilities, protective clothing, decontamination procedures, emergency procedures, and waste disposal procedures, and any necessary instruction in the use of these controls and procedures; where Class III and IV work will be or is performed, the contents of EPA 20T-2003, “Managing Asbestos In-Place” July 1990 or its equivalent in content;
</P>
<P>(E) The purpose, proper use, fitting instructions, and limitations of respirators as required by 29 CFR 1910.134;
</P>
<P>(F) The appropriate work practices for performing the asbestos job;
</P>
<P>(G) Medical surveillance program requirements;
</P>
<P>(H) The content of this standard including appendices;
</P>
<P>(I) The names, addresses and phone numbers of public health organizations which provide information, materials and/or conduct programs concerning smoking cessation. The employer may distribute the list of such organizations contained in appendix J to this section, to comply with this requirement; and
</P>
<P>(J) The requirements for posting signs and affixing labels and the meaning of the required legends for such signs and labels.
</P>
<P>(10) Access to training materials. (i) The employer shall make readily available to affected employees without cost, written materials relating to the employee training program, including a copy of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, upon request, all information and training materials relating to the employee information and training program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall inform all employees concerning the availability of self-help smoking cessation program material. Upon employee request, the employer shall distribute such material, consisting of NIH Publication No, 89-1647, or equivalent self-help material, which is approved or published by a public health organization listed in appendix J to this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>Vacuuming.</I> Where vacuuming methods are selected, HEPA filtered vacuuming equipment must be used. The equipment shall be used and emptied in a manner that minimizes the reentry of asbestos into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waste disposal.</I> Asbestos waste, scrap, debris, bags, containers, equipment, and contaminated clothing consigned for disposal shall be collected and disposed of in sealed, labeled, impermeable bags or other closed, labeled, impermeable containers except in roofing operations, where the procedures specified in paragraph (g)(8)(ii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Care of asbestos-containing flooring material.</I> (i) All vinyl and asphalt flooring material shall be maintained in accordance with this paragraph unless the building/facility owner demonstrates, pursuant to paragraph (g)(8)(i)(I) of this section that the flooring does not contain asbestos.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sanding of flooring material is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(iii) Stripping of finishes shall be conducted using low abrasion pads at speeds lower than 300 rpm and wet methods.
</P>
<P>(iv) Burnishing or dry buffing may be performed only on flooring which has sufficient finish so that the pad cannot contact the flooring material.
</P>
<P>(4) Waste and debris and accompanying dust in an area containing accessible thermal system insulation or surfacing ACM/PACM or visibly deteriorated ACM:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall not be dusted or swept dry, or vacuumed without using a HEPA filter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall be promptly cleaned up and disposed of in leak tight containers.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Medical surveillance—</I> (1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Employees covered.</I> (A) The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who for a combined total of 30 or more days per year are engaged in Class I, II and III work or are exposed at or above a permissible exposure limit. For purposes of this paragraph, any day in which a worker engages in Class II or Class III operations or a combination thereof on intact material for one hour or less (taking into account the entire time spent on the removal operation, including cleanup) and, while doing so, adheres fully to the work practices specified in this standard, shall not be counted.
</P>
<P>(B) For employees otherwise required by this standard to wear a negative pressure respirator, employers shall ensure employees are physically able to perform the work and use the equipment. This determination shall be made under the supervision of a physician.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examination.</I> (A) The employer shall ensure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and are provided at no cost to the employee and at a reasonable time and place.
</P>
<P>(B) Persons other than such licensed physicians who administer the pulmonary function testing required by this section shall complete a training course in spirometry sponsored by an appropriate academic or professional institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical examinations and consultations</I>—(i) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer shall make available medical examinations and consultations to each employee covered under paragraph (m)(1)(i) of this section on the following schedules:
</P>
<P>(A) Prior to assignment of the employee to an area where negative-pressure respirators are worn;
</P>
<P>(B) When the employee is assigned to an area where exposure to asbestos may be at or above the permissible exposure limit for 30 or more days per year, or engage in Class I, II, or III work for a combined total of 30 or more days per year, a medical examination must be given within 10 working days following the thirtieth day of exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) And at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(D) If the examining physician determines that any of the examinations should be provided more frequently than specified, the employer shall provide such examinations to affected employees at the frequencies specified by the physician.
</P>
<P>(E) Exception: No medical examination is required of any employee if adequate records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with this paragraph within the past 1-year period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content.</I> Medical examinations made available pursuant to paragraphs (m)(2)(i)(A) through (m)(2)(i)(C) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A medical and work history with special emphasis directed to the pulmonary, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal systems.
</P>
<P>(B) On initial examination, the standardized questionnaire contained in part 1 of appendix D to this section, and, on annual examination, the abbreviated standardized questionnaire contained in part 2 of appendix D to this section.
</P>
<P>(C) A physical examination directed to the pulmonary and gastrointestinal systems, including a 14- by 17-inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray to be administered at the discretion of the physician, and pulmonary function tests of forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>). Classification of all chest X-rays shall be conducted in accordance with appendix E to this section.
</P>
<P>(D) Any other examinations or tests deemed necessary by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and Appendices D, E, and I to this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's representative exposure level or anticipated exposure level;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective and respiratory equipment used or to be used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee that is not otherwise available to the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician. This written opinion shall contain the results of the medical examination and shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions that would place the employee at an increased risk of material health impairment from exposure to asbestos;
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations on the employee or on the use of personal protective equipment such as respirators; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions that may result from asbestos exposure.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the increased risk of lung cancer attributable to the combined effect of smoking and asbestos exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion given to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the physician's written opinion to the affected employee within 30 days from its receipt.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Objective data relied on pursuant to paragraph (f) to this section.</I> (i) Where the employer has relied on objective data that demonstrates that products made from or containing asbestos or the activity involving such products or material are not capable of releasing fibers of asbestos in concentrations at or above the permissible exposure limit and/or excursion limit under the expected conditions of processing, use, or handling to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f), the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of objective data reasonably relied upon in support of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The product qualifying for exemption;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol, results of testing, and/or analysis of the material for the release of asbestos;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the operation exempted and how the data support the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the duration of the employer's reliance upon such objective data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure measurements.</I> (i) The employer shall keep an accurate record of all measurements taken to monitor employee exposure to asbestos as prescribed in paragraph (f) of this section. NOTE: The employer may utilize the services of competent organizations such as industry trade associations and employee associations to maintain the records required by this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to asbestos that is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of protective devices worn, if any; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and exposure of the employees whose exposures are represented.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least thirty (30) years, in accordance with § 1910.1020 of this chapter
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance by paragraph (m) of this section, in accordance with § 1910.1020 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the employee's medical examination results, including the medical history, questionnaire responses, results of any tests, and physician's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(C) Physician's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(D) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to asbestos; and
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that this record is maintained for the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, in accordance with § 1910.1020 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training records.</I> The employer shall maintain all employee training records for one (1) year beyond the last date of employment by that employer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Data to Rebut PACM.</I> Where the building owner and employer have relied on data to demonstrate that PACM is not asbestos-containing, such data shall be maintained for as long as they are relied upon to rebut the presumption.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Records of required notifications.</I> Where the building owner has communicated and received information concerning the identification, location and quantity of ACM and PACM, written records of such notifications and their content shall be maintained by the building owner for the duration of ownership and shall be transferred to successive owners of such buildings/facilities.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer, upon written request, shall make all records required to be maintained by this section available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must comply with the requirements concerning availability of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer must comply with the requirements concerning transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.1020(h).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Competent person</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> On all construction worksites covered by this standard, the employer shall designate a competent person, having the qualifications and authorities for ensuring worker safety and health required by subpart C, General Safety and Health Provisions for Construction (29 CFR 1926.20 through 1926.32).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required inspections by the competent person.</I> Section 1926.20(b)(2) which requires health and safety prevention programs to provide for frequent and regular inspections of the job sites, materials, and equipment to be made by competent persons, is incorporated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional inspections.</I> In addition, the competent person shall make frequent and regular inspections of the job sites, in order to perform the duties set out below in paragraph (o)(3)(i) of this section. For Class I jobs, on-site inspections shall be made at least once during each work shift, and at any time at employee request. For Class II, III, and IV jobs, on-site inspections shall be made at intervals sufficient to assess whether conditions have changed, and at any reasonable time at employee request.
</P>
<P>(i) On all worksites where employees are engaged in Class I or II asbestos work, the competent person designated in accordance with paragraph (e)(6) of this section shall perform or supervise the following duties, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) Set up the regulated area, enclosure, or other containment;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure (by on-site inspection) the integrity of the enclosure or containment;
</P>
<P>(C) Set up procedures to control entry to and exit from the enclosure and/or area;
</P>
<P>(D) Supervise all employee exposure monitoring required by this section and ensure that it is conducted as required by paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Ensure that employees working within the enclosure and/or using glove bags wear respirators and protective clothing as required by paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Ensure through on-site supervision, that employees set up, use, and remove engineering controls, use work practices and personal protective equipment in compliance with all requirements;
</P>
<P>(G) Ensure that employees use the hygiene facilities and observe the decontamination procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this section;
</P>
<P>(H) Ensure that through on-site inspection, engineering controls are functioning properly and employees are using proper work practices; and,
</P>
<P>(I) Ensure that notification requirement in paragraph (k) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training for the competent person.</I> (i) For Class I and II asbestos work the competent person shall be trained in all aspects of asbestos removal and handling, including: abatement, installation, removal and handling; the contents of this standard; the identification of asbestos; removal procedures, where appropriate; and other practices for reducing the hazard. Such training shall be obtained in a comprehensive course for supervisors that meets the criteria of EPA's Model Accreditation Plan (40 CFR part 763, subpart E, appendix C), such as a course conducted by an EPA-approved or state-approved training provider, certified by EPA or a state, or a course equivalent in stringency, content, and length.
</P>
<P>(ii) For Class III and IV asbestos work, the competent person shall be trained in aspects of asbestos handling appropriate for the nature of the work, to include procedures for setting up glove bags and mini-enclosures, practices for reducing asbestos exposures, use of wet methods, the contents of this standard, and the identification of asbestos. Such training shall include successful completion of a course that is consistent with EPA requirements for training of local education agency maintenance and custodial staff as set forth at 40 CFR 763.92(a)(2), or its equivalent in stringency, content and length. Competent persons for Class III and IV work, may also be trained pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (o)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Appendices.</I> (1) Appendices A, D, and E to this section are incorporated as part of this section and the contents of these appendices are mandatory. 
</P>
<P>(2) Appendices B, F, H, I, J, and K to this section are informational and are not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1926.1101—OSHA Reference Method—Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>This mandatory appendix specifies the procedure for analyzing air samples for asbestos and specifies quality control procedures that must be implemented by laboratories performing the analysis. The sampling and analytical methods described below represent the elements of the available monitoring methods (such as appendix B of this regulation, the most current version of the OSHA method ID-160, or the most current version of the NIOSH Method 7400). All employers who are required to conduct air monitoring under paragraph (f) of the standard are required to utilize analytical laboratories that use this procedure, or an equivalent method, for collecting and analyzing samples.
</P>
<HD2>Sampling and Analytical Procedure
</HD2>
<P>1. The sampling medium for air samples shall be mixed cellulose ester filter membranes. These shall be designated by the manufacturer as suitable for asbestos counting. See below for rejection of blanks.
</P>
<P>2. The preferred collection device shall be the 25-mm diameter cassette with an open-faced 50-mm electrically conductive extension cowl. The 37-mm cassette may be used if necessary but only if written justification for the need to use the 37-mm filter cassette accompanies the sample results in the employee's exposure monitoring record. Do not reuse or reload cassettes for asbestos sample collection.
</P>
<P>3. An air flow rate between 0.5 liter/min and 2.5 liters/min shall be selected for the 25/mm cassette. If the 37-mm cassette is used, an air flow rate between 1 liter/min and 2.5 liters/min shall be selected.
</P>
<P>4. Where possible, a sufficient air volume for each air sample shall be collected to yield between 100 and 1,300 fibers per square millimeter on the membrane filter. If a filter darkens in appearance or if loose dust is seen on the filter, a second sample shall be started.
</P>
<P>5. Ship the samples in a rigid container with sufficient packing material to prevent dislodging the collected fibers. Packing material that has a high electrostatic charge on its surface (e.g., expanded polystyrene) cannot be used because such material can cause loss of fibers to the sides of the cassette.
</P>
<P>6. Calibrate each personal sampling pump before and after use with a representative filter cassette installed between the pump and the calibration devices.
</P>
<P>7. Personal samples shall be taken in the “breathing zone” of the employee (i.e., attached to or near the collar or lapel near the worker's face).
</P>
<P>8. Fiber counts shall be made by positive phase contrast using a microscope with an 8 to 10× eyepiece and a 40 to 45× objective for a total magnification of approximately 400× and a numerical aperture of 0.65 to 0.75. The microscope shall also be fitted with a green or blue filter.
</P>
<P>9. The microscope shall be fitted with a Walton-Beckett eyepiece graticule calibrated for a field diameter of 100 micrometers (±2 micrometers).
</P>
<P>10. The phase-shift detection limit of the microscope shall be about 3 degrees measured using the HSE phase shift test slide as outlined below.
</P>
<P>a. Place the test slide on the microscope stage and center it under the phase objective.
</P>
<P>b. Bring the blocks of grooved lines into focus.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The slide consists of seven sets of grooved lines (ca. 20 grooves to each block) in descending order of visibility from sets 1 to 7, seven being the least visible. The requirements for asbestos counting are that the microscope optics must resolve the grooved lines in set 3 completely, although they may appear somewhat faint, and that the grooved lines in sets 6 and 7 must be invisible. Sets 4 and 5 must be at least partially visible but may vary slightly in visibility between microscopes. A microscope that fails to meet these requirements has either too low or too high a resolution to be used for asbestos counting.</P></NOTE>
<P>c. If the image deteriorates, clean and adjust the microscope optics. If the problem persists, cosult the microscope manufacturer.
</P>
<P>11. Each set of samples taken will include 10% field blanks or a minimum of 2 field blanks. These blanks must come from the same lot as the filters used for sample collection. The field blank results shall be averaged and subtracted from the analytical results before reporting. A set consists of any sample or group of samples for which an evaluation for this standard must be made. Any samples represented by a field blank having a fiber count in excess of the detection limit of the method being used shall be rejected.
</P>
<P>12. The samples shall be mounted by the acetone/triacetin method or a method with an equivalent index of refraction and similar clarity.
</P>
<P>13. Observe the following counting rules.
</P>
<P>a. Count only fibers equal to or longer than 5 micrometers. Measure the length of curved fibers along the curve.
</P>
<P>b. In the absence of other information, count all particles as asbestos, that have a length-to-width ratio (aspect ratio) of 3:1 or greater.
</P>
<P>c. Fibers lying entirely within the boundary of the Walton-Beckett graticule field shall receive a count of 1. Fibers crossing the boundary once, having one end within the circle, shall receive the count of one half (
<FR>1/2</FR>). Do not count any fiber that crosses the graticule boundary more than once. Reject and do not count any other fibers even though they may be visible outside the graticule area.
</P>
<P>d. Count bundles of fibers as one fiber unless individual fibers can be identified by observing both ends of an individual fiber.
</P>
<P>e. Count enough graticule fields to yield 100 fibers. Count a minimum of 20 fields; stop counting at 100 fields regardless of fiber count.
</P>
<P>14. Blind recounts shall be conducted at the rate of 10 percent.
</P>
<HD2>Quality Control Procedures
</HD2>
<P>1. Intralaboratory program. Each laboratory and/or each company with more than one microscopist counting slides shall establish a statistically designed quality assurance program involving blind recounts and comparisons between microscopists to monitor the variability of counting by each microscopist and between microscopists. In a company with more than one laboratory, the program shall include all laboratories, and shall also evaluate the laboratory-to-laboratory variability.
</P>
<P>2a. Interlaboratory program. Each laboratory analyzing asbestos samples for compliance determination shall implement an interlaboratory quality assurance program that, as a minimum, includes participation of at least two other independent laboratories. Each laboratory shall participate in round robin testing at least once every 6 months with at least all the other laboratories in its interlaboratory quality assurance group. Each laboratory shall submit slides typical of its own workload for use in this program. The round robin shall be designed and results analyzed using appropriate statistical methodology.
</P>
<P>b. All laboratories should also participate in a national sample testing scheme such as the Proficiency Analytical Testing Program (PAT), or the Asbestos Registry sponsored by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA).
</P>
<P>3. All individuals performing asbestos analysis must have taken the NIOSH course for sampling and evaluating airborne asbestos dust or an equivalent course.
</P>
<P>4. When the use of different microscopes contributes to differences between counters and laboratories, the effect of the different microscope shall be evaluated and the microscope shall be replaced, as necessary.
</P>
<P>5. Current results of these quality assurance programs shall be posted in each laboratory to keep the microscopists informed.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1926.1101—Sampling and Analysis (Non-Mandatory)

</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matrix Air:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">OSHA Permissible Exposure Limits:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Time Weighted Average</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 fiber/cc
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Excursion Level (30 minutes)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 fiber/cc
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Collection Procedure:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">A known volume of air is drawn through a 25-mm diameter cassette containing a mixed-cellulose ester filter. The cassette must be equipped with an electrically conductive 50-mm extension cowl. The sampling time and rate are chosen to give a fiber density of between 100 to 1,300 fibers/mm2 on the filter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recommended Sampling Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 to 5.0 liters/minute (L/min)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recommended Air Volumes:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 L
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Maximum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400 L</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Analytical Procedure:
</P>
<P>A portion of the sample filter is cleared and prepared for asbestos fiber counting by Phase Contrast Microscopy (PCM) at 400X.
</P>
<P>Commercial manufacturers and products mentioned in this method are for descriptive use only and do not constitute endorsements by USDOL-OSHA. Similar products from other sources can be substituted.
</P>
<HD2>1. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>This method describes the collection of airborne asbestos fibers using calibrated sampling pumps with mixed-cellulose ester (MCE) filters and analysis by phase contrast microscopy (PCM). Some terms used are unique to this method and are defined below: <I>Asbestos:</I> A term for naturally occurring fibrous minerals. Asbestos includes chrysotile, crocidolite, amosite (cummingtonite-grunerite asbestos), tremolite asbestos, actinolite asbestos, anthophyllite asbestos, and any of these minerals that have been chemically treated and/or altered. The precise chemical formulation of each species will vary with the location from which it was mined. Nominal compositions are listed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Mg<E T="52">3</E> Si<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Na<E T="52">2</E> Fe<E T="52">3</E>
<sup>2 + </sup> Fe<E T="52">2</E>
<sup>3 + </sup> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amosite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite-actinolite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca<E T="52">2</E>(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">5</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Asbestos Fiber:</I> A fiber of asbestos which meets the criteria specified below for a fiber.
</P>
<P><I>Aspect Ratio:</I> The ratio of the length of a fiber to it's diameter (e.g. 3:1, 5:1 aspect ratios).
</P>
<P><I>Cleavage Fragments:</I> Mineral particles formed by comminution of minerals, especially those characterized by parallel sides and a moderate aspect ratio (usually less than 20:1).
</P>
<P><I>Detection Limit:</I> The number of fibers necessary to be 95% certain that the result is greater than zero.
</P>
<P><I>Differential Counting:</I> The term applied to the practice of excluding certain kinds of fibers from the fiber count because they do not appear to be asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Fiber:</I> A particle that is 5 µm or longer, with a length-to-width ratio of 3 to 1 or longer.
</P>
<P><I>Field:</I> The area within the graticule circle that is superimposed on the microscope image.
</P>
<P><I>Set:</I> The samples which are taken, submitted to the laboratory, analyzed, and for which, interim or final result reports are generated.
</P>
<P><I>Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite:</I> The non-asbestos form of these minerals which meet the definition of a fiber. It includes any of these minerals that have been chemically treated and/or altered.
</P>
<P><I>Walton-Beckett Graticule:</I> An eyepiece graticule specifically designed for asbestos fiber counting. It consists of a circle with a projected diameter of 100 ±2 µm (area of about 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU>) with a crosshair having tic-marks at 3-µm intervals in one direction and 5-µm in the orthogonal direction. There are marks around the periphery of the circle to demonstrate the proper sizes and shapes of fibers. This design is reproduced in Figure 1. The disk is placed in one of the microscope eyepieces so that the design is superimposed on the field of view.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. History
</HD3>
<P>Early surveys to determine asbestos exposures were conducted using impinger counts of total dust with the counts expressed as million particles per cubic foot. The British Asbestos Research Council recommended filter membrane counting in 1969. In July 1969, the Bureau of Occupational Safety and Health published a filter membrane method for counting asbestos fibers in the United States. This method was refined by NIOSH and published as P &amp; CAM 239. On May 29, 1971, OSHA specified filter membrane sampling with phase contrast counting for evaluation of asbestos exposures at work sites in the United States. The use of this technique was again required by OSHA in 1986. Phase contrast microscopy has continued to be the method of choice for the measurement of occupational exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. Principle
</HD3>
<P>Air is drawn through a MCE filter to capture airborne asbestos fibers. A wedge shaped portion of the filter is removed, placed on a glass microscope slide and made transparent. A measured area (field) is viewed by PCM. All the fibers meeting defined criteria for asbestos are counted and considered a measure of the airborne asbestos concentration.
</P>
<HD3>1.3. Advantages and Disadvantages
</HD3>
<P>There are four main advantages of PCM over other methods:
</P>
<P>(1) The technique is specific for fibers. Phase contrast is a fiber counting technique which excludes non-fibrous particles from the analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) The technique is inexpensive and does not require specialized knowledge to carry out the analysis for total fiber counts.
</P>
<P>(3) The analysis is quick and can be performed on-site for rapid determination of air concentrations of asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>(4) The technique has continuity with historical epidemiological studies so that estimates of expected disease can be inferred from long-term determinations of asbestos exposures.
</P>
<P>The main disadvantage of PCM is that it does not positively identify asbestos fibers. Other fibers which are not asbestos may be included in the count unless differential counting is performed. This requires a great deal of experience to adequately differentiate asbestos from non-asbestos fibers. Positive identification of asbestos must be performed by polarized light or electron microscopy techniques. A further disadvantage of PCM is that the smallest visible fibers are about 0.2 µm in diameter while the finest asbestos fibers may be as small as 0.02 µm in diameter. For some exposures, substantially more fibers may be present than are actually counted.
</P>
<HD3>1.4. Workplace Exposure
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is used by the construction industry in such products as shingles, floor tiles, asbestos cement, roofing felts, insulation and acoustical products. Non-construction uses include brakes, clutch facings, paper, paints, plastics, and fabrics. One of the most significant exposures in the workplace is the removal and encapsulation of asbestos in schools, public buildings, and homes. Many workers have the potential to be exposed to asbestos during these operations.
</P>
<P>About 95% of the asbestos in commercial use in the United States is chrysotile. Crocidolite and amosite make up most of the remainder. Anthophyllite and tremolite or actinolite are likely to be encountered as contaminants in various industrial products.
</P>
<HD3>1.5. Physical Properties
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos fiber possesses a high tensile strength along its axis, is chemically inert, non-combustible, and heat resistant. It has a high electrical resistance and good sound absorbing properties. It can be weaved into cables, fabrics or other textiles, and also matted into asbestos papers, felts, or mats.
</P>
<HD2>2. Range and Detection Limit
</HD2>
<P>2.1. The ideal counting range on the filter is 100 to 1,300 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. With a Walton-Beckett graticule this range is equivalent to 0.8 to 10 fibers/field. Using NIOSH counting statistics, a count of 0.8 fibers/field would give an approximate coefficient of variation (CV) of 0.13.
</P>
<P>2.2. The detection limit for this method is 4.0 fibers per 100 fields or 5.5 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. This was determined using an equation to estimate the maximum CV possible at a specific concentration (95% confidence) and a Lower Control Limit of zero. The CV value was then used to determine a corresponding concentration from historical CV vs fiber relationships. As an example:
</P>
<FP-2>Lower Control Limit (95% Confidence) = AC—1.645(CV)(AC)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>AC = Estimate of the airborne fiber concentration (fibers/cc) Setting the Lower Control Limit = 0 and solving for CV:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0 = AC—1.645(CV)(AC)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CV = 0.61
</FP-2>
<P>This value was compared with CV vs. count curves. The count at which CV = 0.61 for Leidel-Busch counting statistics or for an OSHA Salt Lake Technical Center (OSHA-SLTC) CV curve (see appendix A for further information) was 4.4 fibers or 3.9 fibers per 100 fields, respectively. Although a lower detection limit of 4 fibers per 100 fields is supported by the OSHA-SLTC data, both data sets support the 4.5 fibers per 100 fields value.
</P>
<HD2>3. Method Performance—Precision and Accuracy
</HD2>
<P>Precision is dependent upon the total number of fibers counted and the uniformity of the fiber distribution on the filter. A general rule is to count at least 20 and not more than 100 fields. The count is discontinued when 100 fibers are counted, provided that 20 fields have already been counted. Counting more than 100 fibers results in only a small gain in precision. As the total count drops below 10 fibers, an accelerated loss of precision is noted.
</P>
<P>At this time, there is no known method to determine the absolute accuracy of the asbestos analysis. Results of samples prepared through the Proficiency Analytical Testing (PAT) Program and analyzed by the OSHA-SLTC showed no significant bias when compared to PAT reference values. The PAT samples were analyzed from 1987 to 1989 (N = 36) and the concentration range was from 120 to 1,300 fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<HD2>4. Interferences
</HD2>
<P>Fibrous substances, if present, may interfere with asbestos analysis.
</P>
<P>Some common fibers are:
</P>
<FP-1>fiberglass
</FP-1>
<FP-1>anhydrite
</FP-1>
<FP-1>plant fibers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>perlite veins
</FP-1>
<FP-1>gypsum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>some synthetic fibers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>membrane structures
</FP-1>
<FP-1>sponge spicules
</FP-1>
<FP-1>diatoms
</FP-1>
<FP-1>microorganisms
</FP-1>
<FP-1>wollastonite
</FP-1>
<P>The use of electron microscopy or optical tests such as polarized light, and dispersion staining may be used to differentiate these materials from asbestos when necessary.
</P>
<HD2>5. Sampling
</HD2>
<HD3>5.1. Equipment
</HD3>
<P><I>5.1.1.</I> Sample assembly (The assembly is shown in Figure 3). Conductive filter holder consisting of a 25-mm diameter, 3-piece cassette having a 50-mm long electrically conductive extension cowl. Backup pad, 25-mm, cellulose. Membrane filter, mixed-cellulose ester (MCE), 25-mm, plain, white, 0.4 to 1.2-µm pore size.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notes:</HED>
<P>(a) DO NOT RE-USE CASSETTES.
</P>
<P>(b) Fully conductive cassettes are required to reduce fiber loss to the sides of the cassette due to electrostatic attraction.
</P>
<P>(c) Purchase filters which have been selected by the manufacturer for asbestos counting or analyze representative filters for fiber background before use. Discard the filter lot if more than 4 fibers/100 fields are found.
</P>
<P>(d) To decrease the possibility of contamination, the sampling system (filter-backup pad-cassette) for asbestos is usually preassembled by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(e) Other cassettes, such as the Bell-mouth, may be used within the limits of their validation.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>5.1.2.</I> Gel bands for sealing cassettes.
</P>
<P><I>5.1.3.</I> Sampling pump.
</P>
<P>Each pump must be a battery operated, self-contained unit small enough to be placed on the monitored employee and not interfere with the work being performed. The pump must be capable of sampling at the collection rate for the required sampling time.
</P>
<P><I>5.1.4.</I> Flexible tubing, 6-mm bore.
</P>
<P><I>5.1.5.</I> Pump calibration.
</P>
<P>Stopwatch and bubble tube/burette or electronic meter.
</P>
<P>5.2. Sampling Procedure
</P>
<P><I>5.2.1.</I> Seal the point where the base and cowl of each cassette meet with a gel band or tape.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.2.</I> Charge the pumps completely before beginning.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.3.</I> Connect each pump to a calibration cassette with an appropriate length of 6-mm bore plastic tubing. Do not use luer connectors—the type of cassette specified above has built-in adapters.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.4.</I> Select an appropriate flow rate for the situation being monitored. The sampling flow rate must be between 0.5 and 5.0 L/min for personal sampling and is commonly set between 1 and 2 L/min. Always choose a flow rate that will not produce overloaded filters.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.5.</I> Calibrate each sampling pump before and after sampling with a calibration cassette in-line (Note: This calibration cassette should be from the same lot of cassettes used for sampling). Use a primary standard (e.g. bubble burette) to calibrate each pump. If possible, calibrate at the sampling site.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If sampling site calibration is not possible, environmental influences may affect the flow rate. The extent is dependent on the type of pump used. Consult with the pump manufacturer to determine dependence on environmental influences. If the pump is affected by temperature and pressure changes, correct the flow rate using the formula shown in the section “Sampling Pump Flow Rate Corrections” at the end of this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>5.2.6.</I> Connect each pump to the base of each sampling cassette with flexible tubing. Remove the end cap of each cassette and take each air sample open face. Assure that each sample cassette is held open side down in the employee's breathing zone during sampling. The distance from the nose/mouth of the employee to the cassette should be about 10 cm. Secure the cassette on the collar or lapel of the employee using spring clips or other similar devices.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.7.</I> A suggested minimum air volume when sampling to determine TWA compliance is 25 L. For Excursion Limit (30 min sampling time) evaluations, a minimum air volume of 48 L is recommended.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.8.</I> The most significant problem when sampling for asbestos is overloading the filter with non-asbestos dust. Suggested maximum air sample volumes for specific environments are:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Environment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Air Vol. (L)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos removal operations (visible dust)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asbestos removal operations (little dust)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">240.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office environments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400 to 2,400.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>CAUTION:</I> Do not overload the filter with dust. High levels of non-fibrous dust particles may obscure fibers on the filter and lower the count or make counting impossible. If more than about 25 to 30% of the field area is obscured with dust, the result may be biased low. Smaller air volumes may be necessary when there is excessive non-asbestos dust in the air.
</P>
<P>While sampling, observe the filter with a small flashlight. If there is a visible layer of dust on the filter, stop sampling, remove and seal the cassette, and replace with a new sampling assembly. The total dust loading should not exceed 1 mg.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.9.</I> Blank samples are used to determine if any contamination has occurred during sample handling. Prepare two blanks for the first 1 to 20 samples. For sets containing greater than 20 samples, prepare blanks as 10% of the samples. Handle blank samples in the same manner as air samples with one exception: Do not draw any air through the blank samples. Open the blank cassette in the place where the sample cassettes are mounted on the employee. Hold it open for about 30 seconds. Close and seal the cassette appropriately. Store blanks for shipment with the sample cassettes.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.10.</I> Immediately after sampling, close and seal each cassette with the base and plastic plugs. Do not touch or puncture the filter membrane as this will invalidate the analysis.
</P>
<P><I>5.2.11</I> Attach and secure a sample seal around each sample cassette in such a way as to assure that the end cap and base plugs cannot be removed without destroying the seal. Tape the ends of the seal together since the seal is not long enough to be wrapped end-to-end. Also wrap tape around the cassette at each joint to keep the seal secure.
</P>
<P><I>5.3.1.</I> Send the samples to the laboratory with paperwork requesting asbestos analysis. List any known fibrous interferences present during sampling on the paperwork. Also, note the workplace operation(s) sampled.
</P>
<P><I>5.3.2.</I> Secure and handle the samples in such that they will not rattle during shipment nor be exposed to static electricity. Do not ship samples in expanded polystyrene peanuts, vermiculite, paper shreds, or excelsior. Tape sample cassettes to sheet bubbles and place in a container that will cushion the samples in such a manner that they will not rattle.
</P>
<P><I>5.3.3.</I> To avoid the possibility of sample contamination, always ship bulk samples in separate mailing containers.
</P>
<HD2>6. Analysis
</HD2>
<HD3>6.1. Safety Precautions
</HD3>
<P><I>6.1.1.</I> Acetone is extremely flammable and precautions must be taken not to ignite it. Avoid using large containers or quantities of acetone. Transfer the solvent in a ventilated laboratory hood. Do not use acetone near any open flame. For generation of acetone vapor, use a spark free heat source.
</P>
<P><I>6.1.2.</I> Any asbestos spills should be cleaned up immediately to prevent dispersal of fibers. Prudence should be exercised to avoid contamination of laboratory facilities or exposure of personnel to asbestos. Asbestos spills should be cleaned up with wet methods and/or a High Efficiency Particulate-Air (HEPA) filtered vacuum.
</P>
<P><I>CAUTION:</I> Do not use a vacuum without a HEPA filter—It will disperse fine asbestos fibers in the air.
</P>
<HD3>6.2. Equipment
</HD3>
<P><I>6.2.1.</I> Phase contrast microscope with binocular or trinocular head.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.2.</I> Widefield or Huygenian 10X eyepieces (NOTE: The eyepiece containing the graticule must be a focusing eyepiece. Use a 40X phase objective with a numerical aperture of 0.65 to 0.75).
</P>
<P><I>6.2.3.</I> Kohler illumination (if possible) with green or blue filter.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.4.</I> Walton-Beckett Graticule, type G-22 with 100 ±2 µm projected diameter.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.5.</I> Mechanical stage. A rotating mechanical stage is convenient for use with polarized light.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.6.</I> Phase telescope.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.7.</I> Stage micrometer with 0.01-mm subdivisions.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.8.</I> Phase-shift test slide, mark II (Available from PTR optics Ltd., and also McCrone).
</P>
<P><I>6.2.9.</I> Precleaned glass slides, 25 mm × 75 mm. One end can be frosted for convenience in writing sample numbers, etc., or paste-on labels can be used.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.10.</I> Cover glass #1
<FR>1/2</FR>.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.11.</I> Scalpel (#10, curved blade).
</P>
<P><I>6.2.12.</I> Fine tipped forceps.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.13.</I> Aluminum block for clearing filter (see appendix D and Figure 4).
</P>
<P><I>6.2.14.</I> Automatic adjustable pipette, 100- to 500-µL.
</P>
<P><I>6.2.15.</I> Micropipette, 5 µL.
</P>
<HD3>6.3. Reagents
</HD3>
<P><I>6.3.1.</I> Acetone (HPLC grade).
</P>
<P><I>6.3.2.</I> Triacetin (glycerol triacetate).
</P>
<P><I>6.3.3.</I> Lacquer or nail polish.
</P>
<HD3>6.4. Standard Preparation
</HD3>
<P>A way to prepare standard asbestos samples of known concentration has not been developed. It is possible to prepare replicate samples of nearly equal concentration. This has been performed through the PAT program. These asbestos samples are distributed by the AIHA to participating laboratories.
</P>
<P>Since only about one-fourth of a 25-mm sample membrane is required for an asbestos count, any PAT sample can serve as a “standard” for replicate counting.
</P>
<HD3>6.5. Sample Mounting
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>See Safety Precautions in Section 6.1. before proceeding. The objective is to produce samples with a smooth (non-grainy) background in a medium with a refractive index of approximately 1.46. The technique below collapses the filter for easier focusing and produces permanent mounts which are useful for quality control and interlaboratory comparison.</P></NOTE>
<P>An aluminum block or similar device is required for sample preparation.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.1.</I> Heat the aluminum block to about 70 °C. The hot block should not be used on any surface that can be damaged by either the heat or from exposure to acetone.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.2.</I> Ensure that the glass slides and cover glasses are free of dust and fibers.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.3.</I> Remove the top plug to prevent a vacuum when the cassette is opened. Clean the outside of the cassette if necessary. Cut the seal and/or tape on the cassette with a razor blade. Very carefully separate the base from the extension cowl, leaving the filter and backup pad in the base.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.4.</I> With a rocking motion cut a triangular wedge from the filter using the scalpel. This wedge should be one-sixth to one-fourth of the filter. Grasp the filter wedge with the forceps on the perimeter of the filter which was clamped between the cassette pieces. DO NOT TOUCH the filter with your finger. Place the filter on the glass slide sample side up. Static electricity will usually keep the filter on the slide until it is cleared.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.5.</I> Place the tip of the micropipette containing about 200 µL acetone into the aluminum block. Insert the glass slide into the receiving slot in the aluminum block. Inject the acetone into the block with slow, steady pressure on the plunger while holding the pipette firmly in place. Wait 3 to 5 seconds for the filter to clear, then remove the pipette and slide from the aluminum block.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.6.</I> Immediately (less than 30 seconds) place 2.5 to 3.5 µL of triacetin on the filter (NOTE: Waiting longer than 30 seconds will result in increased index of refraction and decreased contrast between the fibers and the preparation. This may also lead to separation of the cover slip from the slide).
</P>
<P><I>6.5.7.</I> Lower a cover slip gently onto the filter at a slight angle to reduce the possibility of forming air bubbles. If more than 30 seconds have elapsed between acetone exposure and triacetin application, glue the edges of the cover slip to the slide with lacquer or nail polish.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.8.</I> If clearing is slow, warm the slide for 15 min on a hot plate having a surface temperature of about 50 °C to hasten clearing. The top of the hot block can be used if the slide is not heated too long.
</P>
<P><I>6.5.9.</I> Counting may proceed immediately after clearing and mounting are completed.
</P>
<HD3>6.6. Sample Analysis
</HD3>
<P>Completely align the microscope according to the manufacturer's instructions. Then, align the microscope using the following general alignment routine at the beginning of every counting session and more often if necessary.
</P>
<P>6.6.1. Alignment
</P>
<P>(1) Clean all optical surfaces. Even a small amount of dirt can significantly degrade the image.
</P>
<P>(2) Rough focus the objective on a sample.
</P>
<P>(3) Close down the field iris so that it is visible in the field of view. Focus the image of the iris with the condenser focus. Center the image of the iris in the field of view.
</P>
<P>(4) Install the phase telescope and focus on the phase rings. Critically center the rings. Misalignment of the rings results in astigmatism which will degrade the image.
</P>
<P>(5) Place the phase-shift test slide on the microscope stage and focus on the lines. The analyst must see line set 3 and should see at least parts of 4 and 5 but, not see line set 6 or 6. A microscope/microscopist combination which does not pass this test may not be used.
</P>
<P>6.6.2. Counting Fibers
</P>
<P>(1) Place the prepared sample slide on the mechanical stage of the microscope. Position the center of the wedge under the objective lens and focus upon the sample.
</P>
<P>(2) Start counting from one end of the wedge and progress along a radial line to the other end (count in either direction from perimeter to wedge tip). Select fields randomly, without looking into the eyepieces, by slightly advancing the slide in one direction with the mechanical stage control.
</P>
<P>(3) Continually scan over a range of focal planes (generally the upper 10 to 15 µm of the filter surface) with the fine focus control during each field count. Spend at least 5 to 15 seconds per field.
</P>
<P>(4) Most samples will contain asbestos fibers with fiber diameters less than 1 µm. Look carefully for faint fiber images. The small diameter fibers will be very hard to see. However, they are an important contribution to the total count.
</P>
<P>(5) Count only fibers equal to or longer than 5 µm. Measure the length of curved fibers along the curve.
</P>
<P>(6) Count fibers which have a length to width ratio of 3:1 or greater.
</P>
<P>(7) Count all the fibers in at least 20 fields. Continue counting until either 100 fibers are counted or 100 fields have been viewed; whichever occurs first. Count all the fibers in the final field.
</P>
<P>(8) Fibers lying entirely within the boundary of the Walton-Beckett graticule field shall receive a count of 1. Fibers crossing the boundary once, having one end within the circle shall receive a count of 
<FR>1/2</FR>. Do not count any fiber that crosses the graticule boundary more than once. Reject and do not count any other fibers even though they may be visible outside the graticule area. If a fiber touches the circle, it is considered to cross the line.
</P>
<P>(9) Count bundles of fibers as one fiber unless individual fibers can be clearly identified and each individual fiber is clearly not connected to another counted fiber. See Figure 1 for counting conventions.
</P>
<P>(10) Record the number of fibers in each field in a consistent way such that filter non-uniformity can be assessed.
</P>
<P>(11) Regularly check phase ring alignment.
</P>
<P>(12) When an agglomerate (mass of material) covers more than 25% of the field of view, reject the field and select another. Do not include it in the number of fields counted.
</P>
<P>(13) Perform a “blind recount” of 1 in every 10 filter wedges (slides). Re-label the slides using a person other than the original counter.
</P>
<HD3>6.7. Fiber Identification
</HD3>
<P>As previously mentioned in Section 1.3., PCM does not provide positive confirmation of asbestos fibers. Alternate differential counting techniques should be used if discrimination is desirable. Differential counting may include primary discrimination based on morphology, polarized light analysis of fibers, or modification of PCM data by Scanning Electron or Transmission Electron Microscopy.
</P>
<P>A great deal of experience is required to routinely and correctly perform differential counting. It is discouraged unless it is legally necessary. Then, only if a fiber is obviously not asbestos should it be excluded from the count. Further discussion of this technique can be found in reference 8.10.
</P>
<P>If there is a question whether a fiber is asbestos or not, follow the rule:
</P>
<P>“WHEN IN DOUBT, COUNT.”
</P>
<HD3>6.8. Analytical Recommendations—Quality Control System
</HD3>
<P><I>6.8.1.</I> All individuals performing asbestos analysis must have taken the NIOSH course for sampling and evaluating airborne asbestos or an equivalent course.
</P>
<P><I>6.8.2.</I> Each laboratory engaged in asbestos counting shall set up a slide trading arrangement with at least two other laboratories in order to compare performance and eliminate inbreeding of error. The slide exchange occurs at least semiannually. The round robin results shall be posted where all analysts can view individual analyst's results.
</P>
<P><I>6.8.3.</I> Each laboratory engaged in asbestos counting shall participate in the Proficiency Analytical Testing Program, the Asbestos Analyst Registry or equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>6.8.4.</I> Each analyst shall select and count prepared slides from a “slide bank”. These are quality assurance counts. The slide bank shall be prepared using uniformly distributed samples taken from the workload. Fiber densities should cover the entire range routinely analyzed by the laboratory. These slides are counted blind by all counters to establish an original standard deviation. This historical distribution is compared with the quality assurance counts. A counter must have 95% of all quality control samples counted within three standard deviations of the historical mean. This count is then integrated into a new historical mean and standard deviation for the slide.
</P>
<P>The analyses done by the counters to establish the slide bank may be used for an interim quality control program if the data are treated in a proper statistical fashion.
</P>
<HD2>7. Calculations
</HD2>
<P>7.1. Calculate the estimated airborne asbestos fiber concentration on the filter sample using the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.033.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>AC = Airborne fiber concentration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FB = Total number of fibers greater than 5 µm counted
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL = Total number of fields counted on the filter
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BFB = Total number of fibers greater than 5 µm counted in the blank
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BFL = Total number of fields counted on the blank
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ECA = Effective collecting area of filter (385 mm
<SU>2</SU> nominal for a 25-mm filter.)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FR = Pump flow rate (L/min)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MFA = Microscope count field area (mm
<SU>2</SU>). This is 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU> for a Walton-Beckett Graticule.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = Sample collection time (min)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1,000 = Conversion of L to cc
</FP-2>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The collection area of a filter is seldom equal to 385 mm
<SU>2</SU>. It is appropriate for laboratories to routinely monitor the exact diameter using an inside micrometer. The collection area is calculated according to the formula:
</P>
<FP>Area = <E T="51">†</E>(d/2)
<SU>2</SU></FP></NOTE>
<HD3>7.2. Short-Cut Calculation
</HD3>
<P>Since a given analyst always has the same interpupillary distance, the number of fields per filter for a particular analyst will remain constant for a given size filter. The field size for that analyst is constant (i.e. the analyst is using an assigned microscope and is not changing the reticle).
</P>
<P>For example, if the exposed area of the filter is always 385 mm
<SU>2</SU> and the size of the field is always 0.00785 mm
<SU>2</SU> the number of fields per filter will always be 49,000. In addition it is necessary to convert liters of air to cc. These three constants can then be combined such that ECA/(1,000 × MFA) = 49. The previous equation simplifies to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.034.gif"/>
<HD3>7.3. Recount Calculations
</HD3>
<P>As mentioned in step 13 of Section 6.6.2., a “blind recount” of 10% of the slides is performed. In all cases, differences will be observed between the first and second counts of the same filter wedge. Most of these differences will be due to chance alone, that is, due to the random variability (precision) of the count method. Statistical recount criteria enables one to decide whether observed differences can be explained due to chance alone or are probably due to systematic differences between analysts, microscopes, or other biasing factors.
</P>
<P>The following recount criterion is for a pair of counts that estimate AC in fibers/cc. The criterion is given at the type-I error level. That is, there is 5% maximum risk that we will reject a pair of counts for the reason that one might be biased, when the large observed difference is really due to chance.
</P>
<P>Reject a pair of counts if:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn95.002.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>AC<E T="52">1</E> = lower estimated airborne fiber concentration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AC<E T="52">2</E> = higher estimated airborne fiber concentration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AC<E T="52">avg</E> = average of the two concentration estimates
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CV<E T="52">FB</E> = CV for the average of the two concentration estimates
</FP-2>
<P>If a pair of counts are rejected by this criterion then, recount the rest of the filters in the submitted set. Apply the test and reject any other pairs failing the test. Rejection shall include a memo to the industrial hygienist stating that the sample failed a statistical test for homogeneity and the true air concentration may be significantly different than the reported value.
</P>
<HD3>7.4. Reporting Results
</HD3>
<P>Report results to the industrial hygienist as fibers/cc. Use two significant figures. If multiple analyses are performed on a sample, an average of the results is to be reported unless any of the results can be rejected for cause.
</P>
<HD2>8. References
</HD2>
<P>8.1. Dreesen, W.C., et al., <I>U.S. Public Health Service: A Study of Asbestosis in the Asbestos Textile Industry</I> (Public Health Bulletin No. 241), U.S. Treasury Dept., Washington, DC, 1938.
</P>
<P>8.2. <I>Asbestos Research Council: The Measurement of Airborne Asbestos Dust by the Membrane Filter Method</I> (Technical Note), Asbestos Research Council, Rockdale, Lancashire, Great Britain, 1969.
</P>
<P>8.3. Bayer, S.G., Zumwalde, R.D., Brown, T.A., <I>Equipment and Procedure for Mounting Millipore Filters and Counting Asbestos Fibers by Phase Contrast Microscopy,</I> Bureau of Occupational Health, U.S. Dept. of Health, Education and Welfare, Cincinnati, OH, 1969.
</P>
<P>8.4. <I>NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods,</I> 2nd ed., Vol. 1 (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. 77-157-A). National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Cincinnati, OH, 1977. pp. 239-1—239-21.
</P>
<P>8.5. <I>Asbestos,</I> Code of Federal Regulations 29 CFR 1910.1001. 1971.
</P>
<P>8.6. <I>Occupational Exposure to Asbestos, Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite. Final Rule,</I> <E T="04">Federal Register</E> 51:119 (20 June 1986). pp. 22612-22790.
</P>
<P>8.7. <I>Asbestos, Tremolite, Anthophyllite, and Actinolite,</I> Code of Federal Regulations 1910.1001. 1988. pp. 711-752.
</P>
<P>8.8. <I>Criteria for a Recommended Standard—Occupational Exposure to Asbestos</I> (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. HSM 72-10267), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, NIOSH, Cincinnati, OH, 1972. pp. III-1—III-24.
</P>
<P>8.9. Leidel, N.A., Bayer, S.G., Zumwalde, R.D., Busch, K.A., <I>USPHS/NIOSH Membrane Filter Method for Evaluating Airborne Asbestos Fibers</I> (DHEW/NIOSH Pub. No. 79-127). National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, Cincinnati, OH, 1979.
</P>
<P>8.10. Dixon, W.C., <I>Applications of Optical Microscopy in Analysis of Asbestos and Quartz,</I> Analytical Techniques in Occupational Health Chemistry, edited by D.D. Dollberg and A.W. Verstuyft. Wash. DC: American Chemical Society, (ACS Symposium Series 120) 1980. pp. 13-41.
</P>
<HD2>Quality Control
</HD2>
<P>The OSHA asbestos regulations require each laboratory to establish a quality control program. The following is presented as an example of how the OSHA-SLTC constructed its internal CV curve as part of meeting this requirement. Data is from 395 samples collected during OSHA compliance inspections and analyzed from October 1980 through April 1986.
</P>
<P>Each sample was counted by 2 to 5 different counters independently of one another. The standard deviation and the CV statistic was calculated for each sample. This data was then plotted on a graph of CV vs. fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>. A least squares regression was performed using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>CV = antilog<E T="52">10</E>[A(log<E T="52">10</E>(x))
<SU>2</SU> + B(log<E T="52">10</E>(x)) + C]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>x = the number of fibers/mm
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<P>Application of least squares gave:
</P>
<FP-2>A = 0.182205
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = 0.973343
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = 0.327499
</FP-2>
<P>Using these values, the equation becomes:
</P>
<FP-2>CV = antilog<E T="52">10</E>[0.182205(log<E T="52">10</E>(x))
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<FP-2> −0.973343(log<E T="52">10</E>(x)) + 0.327499]
</FP-2>
<HD3>Sampling Pump Flow Rate Corrections
</HD3>
<P>This correction is used if a difference greater than 5% in ambient temperature and/or pressure is noted between calibration and sampling sites and the pump does not compensate for the differences.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.036.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">act</E> = actual flow rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">cal</E> = calibrated flow rate (if a rotameter was used, the rotameter value)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">cal</E> = uncorrected air pressure at calibration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">act</E> = uncorrected air pressure at sampling site
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">act</E> = temperature at sampling site (K)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">cal</E> = temperature at calibration (K)
</FP-2>
<HD2>Walton-Beckett Graticule
</HD2>
<P>When ordering the Graticule for asbestos counting, specify the exact disc diameter needed to fit the ocular of the microscope and the diameter (mm) of the circular counting area. Instructions for measuring the dimensions necessary are listed:
</P>
<P>(1) Insert any available graticule into the focusing eyepiece and focus so that the graticule lines are sharp and clear.
</P>
<P>(2) Align the microscope.
</P>
<P>(3) Place a stage micrometer on the microscope object stage and focus the microscope on the graduated lines.
</P>
<P>(4) Measure the magnified grid length, PL (µm), using the stage micrometer.
</P>
<P>(5) Remove the graticule from the microscope and measure its actual grid length, AL (mm). This can be accomplished by using a mechanical stage fitted with verniers, or a jeweler's loupe with a direct reading scale.
</P>
<P>(6) Let D = 100 µm. Calculate the circle diameter, d<E T="52">c</E> (mm), for the Walton-Beckett graticule and specify the diameter when making a purchase:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.037.gif"/>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>If PL = 108 µm, AL = 2.93 mm and D = 100 µm, then,
</PSPACE>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.038.gif"/></EXAMPLE>
<P>(7) Each eyepiece-objective-reticle combination on the microscope must be calibrated. Should any of the three be changed (by zoom adjustment, disassembly, replacement, etc.), the combination must be recalibrated. Calibration may change if interpupillary distance is changed.
</P>
<P>Measure the field diameter, D (acceptable range: 100 ±2 µm) with a stage micrometer upon receipt of the graticule from the manufacturer. Determine the field area (mm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<FP-2>Field Area = <E T="51">†</E>(D/2) 
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>If D = 100 µm = 0.1 mm, then
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Field Area = <E T="51">†</E>(0.1 mm/2) 
<SU>2</SU> = 0.00785 mm 
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<P>The Graticule is available from: Graticules Ltd., Morley Road, Tonbridge TN9 IRN, Kent, England (Telephone 011-44-732-359061). Also available from PTR Optics Ltd., 145 Newton Street, Waltham, MA 02154 [telephone (617) 891-6000] or McCrone Accessories and Components, 2506 S. Michigan Ave., Chicago, IL 60616 [phone (312)-842-7100]. The graticule is custom made for each microscope.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.025.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Counts for the Fibers in the Figure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Structure No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Count
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Explanation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 to 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single fibers all contained within the Circle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber crosses circle once.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber too short.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Two crossing fibers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber outside graticule.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fiber crosses graticule twice.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Although split, fiber only crosses once.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1926.1101 [Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.112.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.113.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.114.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.115.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.116.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.117.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.118.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.119.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.120.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.121.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.122.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.123.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.124.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.125.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.126.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.127.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14my19.128.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1926.1101—Classification of Chest X-Rays—Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>(a) Chest X-rays shall be classified in accordance with the Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011) (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6), and recorded on a classification form following the format of the CDC/NIOSH (M) 2.8 form. As a minimum, the content within the bold lines of this form (items 1 through 4) shall be included. This form is not to be submitted to NIOSH.
</P>
<P>(b) All X-rays shall be classified only by a B-Reader, a board eligible/certified radiologist, or an experienced physician with known expertise in pneumoconioses.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever classifying chest X-ray film, the physician shall have immediately available for reference a complete set of the ILO standard format radiographs provided for use with the Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011).
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever classifying digitally-acquired chest X-rays, the physician shall have immediately available for reference a complete set of ILO standard digital chest radiographic images provided for use with the Guidelines for the Use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses (revised edition 2011). Classification of digitally-acquired chest X-rays shall be based on the viewing of images displayed as electronic copies and shall not be based on the viewing of hard copy printed transparencies of images.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1926.1101—Work Practices and Engineering Controls for Class I Asbestos Operations (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<P>This is a non-mandatory appendix to the asbestos standards for construction and for shipyards. It describes criteria and procedures for erecting and using negative pressure enclosures for Class I Asbestos Work, when NPEs are used as an allowable control method to comply with paragraph (g)(5)(i) of this section. Many small and variable details are involved in the erection of a negative pressure enclosure. OSHA and most participants in the rulemaking agreed that only the major, more performance oriented criteria should be made mandatory. These criteria are set out in paragraph (g) of this section. In addition, this appendix includes these mandatory specifications and procedures in its guidelines in order to make this appendix coherent and helpful. The mandatory nature of the criteria which appear in the regulatory text is not changed because they are included in this “non-mandatory” appendix. Similarly, the additional criteria and procedures included as guidelines in the appendix, do not become mandatory because mandatory criteria are also included in these comprehensive guidelines.
</P>
<P>In addition, none of the criteria, both mandatory and recommended, are meant to specify or imply the need for use of patented or licensed methods or equipment. Recommended specifications included in this attachment should not discourage the use of creative alternatives which can be shown to reliably achieve the objectives of negative-pressure enclosures.
</P>
<P>Requirements included in this appendix, cover general provisions to be followed in all asbestos jobs, provisions which must be followed for all Class I asbestos jobs, and provisions governing the construction and testing of negative pressure enclosures. The first category includes the requirement for use of wet methods, HEPA vacuums, and immediate bagging of waste; Class I work must conform to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>• oversight by competent person
</P>
<P>• use of critical barriers over all openings to work area
</P>
<P>• isolation of HVAC systems
</P>
<P>• use of impermeable dropcloths and coverage of all objects within regulated areas
</P>
<P>In addition, more specific requirements for NPEs include:
</P>
<P>• maintenance of −0.02 inches water gauge within enclosure
</P>
<P>• manometric measurements
</P>
<P>• air movement away from employees performing removal work
</P>
<P>• smoke testing or equivalent for detection of leaks and air direction
</P>
<P>• deactivation of electrical circuits, if not provided with ground-fault circuit interrupters.
</P>
<HD2>Planning the Project
</HD2>
<P>The standard requires that an exposure assessment be conducted before the asbestos job is begun [§ 1926.1101 (f)(1)]. Information needed for that assessment, includes data relating to prior similar jobs, as applied to the specific variables of the current job. The information needed to conduct the assessment will be useful in planning the project, and in complying with any reporting requirements under this standard, when significant changes are being made to a control system listed in the standard, [see also those of USEPA (40 CFR 61, subpart M). Thus, although the standard does not explicitly require the preparation of a written asbestos removal plan, the usual constituents of such a plan, i.e., a description of the enclosure, the equipment, and the procedures to be used throughout the project, must be determined before the enclosure can be erected. The following information should be included in the planning of the system:
</P>
<FP-1>A physical description of the work area;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>A description of the approximate amount of material to be removed;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>A schedule for turning off and sealing existing ventilation systems;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Personnel hygiene procedures;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>A description of personal protective equipment and clothing to be worn by employees;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>A description of the local exhaust ventilation systems to be used and how they are to be tested;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>A description of work practices to be observed by employees;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>An air monitoring plan;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>A description of the method to be used to transport waste material; and
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The location of the dump site.
</FP-1>
<HD2>Materials and Equipment Necessary for Asbestos Removal
</HD2>
<P>Although individual asbestos removal projects vary in terms of the equipment required to accomplish the removal of the materials, some equipment and materials are common to most asbestos removal operations.
</P>
<P>Plastic sheeting used to protect horizontal surfaces, seal HVAC openings or to seal vertical openings and ceilings should have a minimum thickness of 6 mils. Tape or other adhesive used to attach plastic sheeting should be of sufficient adhesive strength to support the weight of the material plus all stresses encountered during the entire duration of the project without becoming detached from the surface.
</P>
<P>Other equipment and materials which should be available at the beginning of each project are:
</P>
<FP-1>—HEPA Filtered Vacuum is essential for cleaning the work area after the asbestos has been removed. It should have a long hose capable of reaching out-of-the-way places, such as areas above ceiling tiles, behind pipes, etc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Portable air ventilation systems installed to provide the negative air pressure and air removal from the enclosure must be equipped with a HEPA filter. The number and capacity of units required to ventilate an enclosure depend on the size of the area to be ventilated. The filters for these systems should be designed in such a manner that they can be replaced when the air flow volume is reduced by the build-up of dust in the filtration material. Pressure monitoring devices with alarms and strip chart recorders attached to each system to indicate the pressure differential and the loss due to dust buildup on the filter are recommended.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Water sprayers should be used to keep the asbestos material as saturated as possible during removal; the sprayers will provide a fine mist that minimizes the impact of the spray on the material.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Water used to saturate the asbestos containing material can be amended by adding at least 15 milliliters (
<FR>1/4</FR> ounce) of wetting agent in 1 liter (1 pint) of water. An example of a wetting agent is a 50/50 mixture of polyoxyethylene ether and polyoxyethylene polyglycol ester.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Backup power supplies are recommended, especially for ventilation systems.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Shower and bath water should be with mixed hot and cold water faucets. Water that has been used to clean personnel or equipment should either be filtered or be collected and discarded as asbestos waste. Soap and shampoo should be provided to aid in removing dust from the workers' skin and hair.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—See paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section for appropriate respiratory protection and protective clothing.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—See paragraph (k) of this section for required signs and labels.
</FP-1>
<HD2>Preparing the Work Area
</HD2>
<P>Disabling HVAC Systems: The power to the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning systems that service the restricted area must be deactivated and locked off. All ducts, grills, access ports, windows and vents must be sealed off with two layers of plastic to prevent entrainment of contaminated air.
</P>
<P>Operating HVAC Systems in the Restricted Area: If components of a HVAC system located in the restricted area are connected to a system that will service another zone during the project, the portion of the duct in the restricted area must be sealed and pressurized. Necessary precautions include caulking the duct joints, covering all cracks and openings with two layers of sheeting, and pressurizing the duct throughout the duration of the project by restricting the return air flow. The power to the fan supplying the positive pressure should be locked “on” to prevent pressure loss.
</P>
<P>Sealing Elevators: If an elevator shaft is located in the restricted area, it should be either shut down or isolated by sealing with two layers of plastic sheeting. The sheeting should provide enough slack to accommodate the pressure changes in the shaft without breaking the air-tight seal.
</P>
<P>Removing Mobile Objects: All movable objects should be cleaned and removed from the work area before an enclosure is constructed unless moving the objects creates a hazard. Mobile objects will be assumed to be contaminated and should be either cleaned with amended water and a HEPA vacuum and then removed from the area or wrapped and then disposed of as hazardous waste.
</P>
<P>Cleaning and Sealing Surfaces: After cleaning with water and a HEPA vacuum, surfaces of stationary objects should be covered with two layers of plastic sheeting. The sheeting should be secured with duct tape or an equivalent method to provide a tight seal around the object.
</P>
<P>Bagging Waste: In addition to the requirement for immediate bagging of waste for disposal, it is further recommended that the waste material be double-bagged and sealed in plastic bags designed for asbestos disposal. The bags should be stored in a waste storage area that can be controlled by the workers conducting the removal. Filters removed from air handling units and rubbish removed from the area are to be bagged and handled as hazardous waste.
</P>
<HD2>Constructing the Enclosure
</HD2>
<P>The enclosure should be constructed to provide an air-tight seal around ducts and openings into existing ventilation systems and around penetrations for electrical conduits, telephone wires, water lines, drain pipes, etc. Enclosures should be both airtight and watertight except for those openings designed to provide entry and/or air flow control.
</P>
<P>Size: An enclosure should be the minimum volume to encompass all of the working surfaces yet allow unencumbered movement by the worker(s), provide unrestricted air flow past the worker(s), and ensure walking surfaces can be kept free of tripping hazards.
</P>
<P>Shape: The enclosure may be any shape that optimizes the flow of ventilation air past the worker(s).
</P>
<P>Structural Integrity: The walls, ceilings and floors must be supported in such a manner that portions of the enclosure will not fall down during normal use.
</P>
<P>Openings: It is not necessary that the structure be airtight; openings may be designed to direct air flow. Such openings should be located at a distance from active removal operations. They should be designed to draw air into the enclosure under all anticipated circumstances. In the event that negative pressure is lost, they should be fitted with either HEPA filters to trap dust or automatic trap doors that prevent dust from escaping the enclosure. Openings for exits should be controlled by an airlock or a vestibule.
</P>
<P>Barrier Supports: Frames should be constructed to support all unsupported spans of sheeting.
</P>
<P>Sheeting: Walls, barriers, ceilings, and floors should be lined with two layers of plastic sheeting having a thickness of at least 6 mil.
</P>
<P>Seams: Seams in the sheeting material should be minimized to reduce the possibilities of accidental rips and tears in the adhesive or connections. All seams in the sheeting should overlap, be staggered and not be located at corners or wall-to-floor joints. Areas Within an Enclosure: Each enclosure consists of a work area, a decontamination area, and waste storage area. The work area where the asbestos removal operations occur should be separated from both the waste storage area and the contamination control area by physical curtains, doors, and/or airflow patterns that force any airborne contamination back into the work area.
</P>
<P>See paragraph (j) of this section for requirements for hygiene facilities.
</P>
<P>During egress from the work area, each worker should step into the equipment room, clean tools and equipment, and remove gross contamination from clothing by wet cleaning and HEPA vacuuming. Before entering the shower area, foot coverings, head coverings, hand coverings, and coveralls are removed and placed in impervious bags for disposal or cleaning. Airline connections from airline respirators with HEPA disconnects and power cables from powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs) will be disconnected just prior to entering the shower room.
</P>
<HD2>Establishing Negative Pressure Within the Enclosure
</HD2>
<P>Negative Pressure: Air is to be drawn into the enclosure under all anticipated conditions and exhausted through a HEPA filter for 24 hours a day during the entire duration of the project.
</P>
<P>Air Flow Tests: Air flow patterns will be checked before removal operations begin, at least once per operating shift and any time there is a question regarding the integrity of the enclosure. The primary test for air flow is to trace air currents with smoke tubes or other visual methods. Flow checks are made at each opening and at each doorway to demonstrate that air is being drawn into the enclosure and at each worker's position to show that air is being drawn away from the breathing zone.
</P>
<P>Monitoring Pressure Within the Enclosure: After the initial air flow patterns have been checked, the static pressure must be monitored within the enclosure. Monitoring may be made using manometers, pressure gauges, or combinations of these devices. It is recommended that they be attached to alarms and strip chart recorders at points identified by the design engineer.
</P>
<P>Corrective Actions: If the manometers or pressure gauges demonstrate a reduction in pressure differential below the required level, work should cease and the reason for the change investigated and appropriate changes made. The air flow patterns should be retested before work begins again.
</P>
<P>Pressure Differential: The design parameters for static pressure differentials between the inside and outside of enclosures typically range from 0.02 to 0.10 inches of water gauge, depending on conditions. All zones inside the enclosure must have less pressure than the ambient pressure outside of the enclosure (−0.02 inches water gauge differential). Design specifications for the differential vary according to the size, configuration, and shape of the enclosure as well as ambient and mechanical air pressure conditions around the enclosure.
</P>
<P>Air Flow Patterns: The flow of air past each worker shall be enhanced by positioning the intakes and exhaust ports to remove contaminated air from the worker's breathing zone, by positioning HEPA vacuum cleaners to draw air from the worker's breathing zone, by forcing relatively uncontaminated air past the worker toward an exhaust port, or by using a combination of methods to reduce the worker's exposure.
</P>
<P>Air Handling Unit Exhaust: The exhaust plume from air handling units should be located away from adjacent personnel and intakes for HVAC systems.
</P>
<P>Air Flow Volume: The air flow volume (cubic meters per minute) exhausted (removed) from the workplace must exceed the amount of makeup air supplied to the enclosure. The rate of air exhausted from the enclosure should be designed to maintain a negative pressure in the enclosure and air movement past each worker. The volume of air flow removed from the enclosure should replace the volume of the container at every 5 to 15 minutes. Air flow volume will need to be relatively high for large enclosures, enclosures with awkward shapes, enclosures with multiple openings, and operations employing several workers in the enclosure.
</P>
<P>Air Flow Velocity: At each opening, the air flow velocity must visibly “drag” air into the enclosure. The velocity of air flow within the enclosure must be adequate to remove airborne contamination from each worker's breathing zone without disturbing the asbestos-containing material on surfaces.
</P>
<P>Airlocks: Airlocks are mechanisms on doors and curtains that control the air flow patterns in the doorways. If air flow occurs, the patterns through doorways must be such that the air flows toward the inside of the enclosure. Sometimes vestibules, double doors, or double curtains are used to prevent air movement through the doorways. To use a vestibule, a worker enters a chamber by opening the door or curtain and then closing the entry before opening the exit door or curtain.
</P>
<P>Airlocks should be located between the equipment room and shower room, between the shower room and the clean room, and between the waste storage area and the outside of the enclosure. The air flow between adjacent rooms must be checked using smoke tubes or other visual tests to ensure the flow patterns draw air toward the work area without producing eddies.
</P>
<HD2>Monitoring for Airborne Concentrations
</HD2>
<P>In addition to the breathing zone samples taken as outlined in paragraph (f) of this section, samples of air should be taken to demonstrate the integrity of the enclosure, the cleanliness of the clean room and shower area, and the effectiveness of the HEPA filter. If the clean room is shown to be contaminated, the room must be relocated to an uncontaminated area.
</P>
<P>Samples taken near the exhaust of portable ventilation systems must be done with care.
</P>
<HD2>General Work Practices
</HD2>
<P>Preventing dust dispersion is the primary means of controlling the spread of asbestos within the enclosure. Whenever practical, the point of removal should be isolated, enclosed, covered, or shielded from the workers in the area. Waste asbestos containing materials must be bagged during or immediately after removal; the material must remain saturated until the waste container is sealed.
</P>
<P>Waste material with sharp points or corners must be placed in hard air-tight containers rather than bags.
</P>
<P>Whenever possible, large components should be sealed in plastic sheeting and removed intact.
</P>
<P>Bags or containers of waste will be moved to the waste holding area, washed, and wrapped in a bag with the appropriate labels.
</P>
<HD2>Cleaning the Work Area
</HD2>
<P>Surfaces within the work area should be kept free of visible dust and debris to the extent feasible. Whenever visible dust appears on surfaces, the surfaces within the enclosure must be cleaned by wiping with a wet sponge, brush, or cloth and then vacuumed with a HEPA vacuum.
</P>
<P>All surfaces within the enclosure should be cleaned before the exhaust ventilation system is deactivated and the enclosure is disassembled. An approved encapsulant may be sprayed onto areas after the visible dust has been removed.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix G to § 1926.1101 [Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix H to § 1926.1101—Substance Technical Information for Asbestos. Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Substance Identification
</HD2>
<P>A. Substance: “Asbestos” is the name of a class of magnesium-silicate minerals that occur in fibrous form. Minerals that are included in this group are chrysotile, crocidolite, amosite, anthophyllite asbestos, tremolite asbestos, and actinolite asbestos.
</P>
<P>B. Asbestos is and was used in the manufacture of heat-resistant clothing, automotive brake and clutch linings, and a variety of building materials including floor tiles, roofing felts, ceiling tiles, asbestos-cement pipe and sheet, and fire-resistant drywall. Asbestos is also present in pipe and boiler insulation materials and in sprayed-on materials located on beams, in crawlspaces, and between walls.
</P>
<P>C. The potential for an asbestos-containing product to release breathable fibers depends largely on its degree of friability. Friable means that the material can be crumbled with hand pressure and is therefore likely to emit fibers. The fibrous fluffy sprayed-on materials used for fireproofing, insulation, or sound proofing are considered to be friable, and they readily release airborne fibers if disturbed. Materials such as vinyl-asbestos floor tile or roofing felt are considered non-friable if intact and generally do not emit airborne fibers unless subjected to sanding, sawing and other aggressive operations. Asbestos-cement pipe or sheet can emit airborne fibers if the materials are cut or sawed, or if they are broken.
</P>
<P>D. Permissible exposure: Exposure to airborne asbestos fibers may not exceed 0.1 fibers per cubic centimeter of air (0.1 f/cc) averaged over the 8-hour workday, and 1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air (1.0 f/cc) averaged over a 30 minute work period.
</P>
<HD2>II. Health Hazard Data
</HD2>
<P>A. Asbestos can cause disabling respiratory disease and various types of cancers if the fibers are inhaled. Inhaling or ingesting fibers from contaminated clothing or skin can also result in these diseases. The symptoms of these diseases generally do not appear for 20 or more years after initial exposure.
</P>
<P>B. Exposure to asbestos has been shown to cause lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of the stomach and colon. Mesothelioma is a rare cancer of the thin membrane lining of the chest and abdomen. Symptoms of mesothelioma include shortness of breath, pain in the walls of the chest, and/or abdominal pain.
</P>
<HD2>III. Respirators and Protective Clothing
</HD2>
<P>A. Respirators: You are required to wear a respirator when performing tasks that result in asbestos exposure that exceeds the permissible exposure limit (PEL) of 0.1 f/cc and when performing certain designated operations. Air-purifying respirators equipped with a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter can be used where airborne asbestos fiber concentrations do not exceed 1.0 f/cc; otherwise, more protective respirators such as air-supplied, positive-pressure, full facepiece respirators must be used. Disposable respirators or dust masks are not permitted to be used for asbestos work. For effective protection, respirators must fit your face and head snugly. Your employer is required to conduct a fit test when you are first assigned a respirator and every 6 months thereafter. Respirators should not be loosened or removed in work situations where their use is required.
</P>
<P>B. Protective Clothing: You are required to wear protective clothing in work areas where asbestos fiber concentrations exceed the permissible exposure limit (PEL) of 0.1 f/cc.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Disposal Procedures and Clean-up
</HD2>
<P>A. Wastes that are generated by processes where asbestos is present include:
</P>
<P>1. Empty asbestos shipping containers.
</P>
<P>2. Process wastes such as cuttings, trimmings, or reject materials.
</P>
<P>3. Housekeeping waste from wet-sweeping or HEPA-vacuuming.
</P>
<P>4. Asbestos fireproofing or insulating material that is removed from buildings.
</P>
<P>5. Asbestos-containing building products removed during building renovation or demolition.
</P>
<P>6. Contaminated disposable protective clothing.
</P>
<P>B. Empty shipping bags can be flattened under exhaust hoods and packed into airtight containers for disposal. Empty shipping drums are difficult to clean and should be sealed.
</P>
<P>C. Vacuum bags or disposable paper filters should not be cleaned, but should be sprayed with a fine water mist and placed into a labeled waste container.
</P>
<P>D. Process waste and housekeeping waste should be wetted with water or a mixture of water and surfactant prior to packaging in disposable containers.
</P>
<P>E. Asbestos-containing material that is removed from buildings must be disposed of in leak-tight 6-mil plastic bags, plastic-lined cardboard containers, or plastic-lined metal containers. These wastes, which are removed while wet, should be sealed in containers before they dry out to minimize the release of asbestos fibers during handling.
</P>
<HD2>V. Access to Information
</HD2>
<P>A. Each year, your employer is required to inform you of the information contained in this standard and appendices for asbestos. In addition, your employer must instruct you in the proper work practices for handling asbestos-containing materials, and the correct use of protective equipment.
</P>
<P>B. Your employer is required to determine whether you are being exposed to asbestos. Your employer must treat exposure to thermal system insulation and sprayed-on and troweled-on surfacing material as asbestos exposure, unless results of laboratory analysis show that the material does not contain asbestos. You or your representative has the right to observe employee measurements and to record the results obtained. Your employer is required to inform you of your exposure, and, if you are exposed above the permissible exposure limit, he or she is required to inform you of the actions that are being taken to reduce your exposure to within the permissible limit.
</P>
<P>C. Your employer is required to keep records of your exposures and medical examinations. These exposure records must be kept for at least thirty (30) years. Medical records must be kept for the period of your employment plus thirty (30) years.
</P>
<P>D. Your employer is required to release your exposure and medical records to your physician or designated representative upon your written request.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix I to § 1926.1101—Medical Surveillance Guidelines for Asbestos, Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Route of Entry
</HD2>
<P>Inhalation, ingestion.
</P>
<HD2>II. Toxicology
</HD2>
<P>Clinical evidence of the adverse effects associated with exposure to asbestos is present in the form of several well-conducted epidemiological studies of occupationally exposed workers, family contacts of workers, and persons living near asbestos mines. These studies have shown a definite association between exposure to asbestos and an increased incidence of lung cancer, pleural and peritoneal mesothelioma, gastrointestinal cancer, and asbestosis. The latter is a disabling fibrotic lung disease that is caused only by exposure to asbestos. Exposure to asbestos has also been associated with an increased incidence of esophageal, kidney, laryngeal, pharyngeal, and buccal cavity cancers. As with other known chronic occupational diseases, disease associated with asbestos generally appears about 20 years following the first occurrence of exposure: There are no known acute effects associated with exposure to asbestos.
</P>
<P>Epidemiological studies indicate that the risk of lung cancer among exposed workers who smoke cigarettes is greatly increased over the risk of lung cancer among non-exposed smokers or exposed nonsmokers. These studies suggest that cessation of smoking will reduce the risk of lung cancer for a person exposed to asbestos but will not reduce it to the same level of risk as that existing for an exposed worker who has never smoked.
</P>
<HD2>III. Signs and Symptoms of Exposure-Related Disease
</HD2>
<P>The signs and symptoms of lung cancer or gastrointestinal cancer induced by exposure to asbestos are not unique, except that a chest X-ray of an exposed patient with lung cancer may show pleural plaques, pleural calcification, or pleural fibrosis, and may also show asbestosis (<I>i.e.,</I> small irregular parenchymal opacities). Symptoms characteristic of mesothelioma include shortness of breath, pain in the chest or abdominal pain. Mesothelioma has a much longer average latency period compared with lung cancer (40 years versus 15-20 years), and mesothelioma is therefore more likely to be found among workers who were first exposed to asbestos at an early age. Mesothelioma is a fatal disease.
</P>
<P>Asbestosis is pulmonary fibrosis caused by the accumulation of asbestos fibers in the lungs. Symptoms include shortness of breath, coughing, fatigue, and vague feelings of sickness. When the fibrosis worsens, shortness of breath occurs even at rest. The diagnosis of asbestosis is most commonly based on a history of exposure to asbestos, the presence of characteristic radiologic abnormalities, end-inspiratory crackles (rales), and other clinical features of fibrosing lung disease. Pleural plaques and thickening may be observed on chest X-rays. Asbestosis is often a progressive disease even in the absence of continued exposure, although this appears to be a highly individualized characteristic. In severe cases, death may be caused by respiratory or cardiac failure.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Surveillance and Preventive Considerations
</HD2>
<P>As noted above, exposure to asbestos has been linked to an increased risk of lung cancer, mesothelioma, gastrointestinal cancer, and asbestosis among occupationally exposed workers. Adequate screening tests to determine an employee's potential for developing serious chronic diseases, such as a cancer, from exposure to asbestos do not presently exist. However, some tests, particularly chest X-rays and pulmonary function tests, may indicate that an employee has been overexposed to asbestos increasing his or her risk of developing exposure related chronic diseases. It is important for the physician to become familiar with the operating conditions in which occupational exposure to asbestos is likely to occur. This is particularly important in evaluating medical and work histories and in conducting physical examinations. When an active employee has been identified as having been overexposed to asbestos measures taken by the employer to eliminate or mitigate further exposure should also lower the risk of serious long-term consequences.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or will be exposed to asbestos at or above the permissible exposure limit (0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter of air). All examinations and procedures must be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, at a reasonable time and place, and at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>Although broad latitude is given to the physician in prescribing specific tests to be included in the medical surveillance program, OSHA requires inclusion of the following elements in the routine examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Medical and work histories with special emphasis directed to symptoms of the respiratory system, cardiovascular system, and digestive tract.
</P>
<P>(ii) Completion of the respiratory disease questionnaire contained in appendix D.
</P>
<P>(iii) A physical examination including a chest X-ray and pulmonary function test that includes measurement of the employee's forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>).
</P>
<P>(iv) Any laboratory or other test that the examining physician deems by sound medical practice to be necessary.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to make the prescribed tests available at least annually to those employees covered; more often than specified if recommended by the examining physician; and upon termination of employment.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to provide the physician with the following information: A copy of this standard and appendices; a description of the employee's duties as they relate to asbestos exposure; the employee's representative level of exposure to asbestos; a description of any personal protective and respiratory equipment used; and information from previous medical examinations of the affected employee that is not otherwise available to the physician. Making this information available to the physician will aid in the evaluation of the employee's health in relation to assigned duties and fitness to wear personal protective equipment, if required.
</P>
<P>The employer is required to obtain a written opinion from the examining physician containing the results of the medical examination; the physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical conditions that would place the employee at an increased risk of exposure-related disease; any recommended limitations on the employee or on the use of personal protective equipment; and a statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and of any medical conditions related to asbestos exposure that require further explanation or treatment. This written opinion must not reveal specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to exposure to asbestos, and a copy of the opinion must be provided to the affected employee.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix J to § 1926.1101—Smoking Cessation Program Information for Asbestos—Non-Mandatory
</HD1>
<P>The following organizations provide smoking cessation information.
</P>
<P>1. The National Cancer Institute operates a toll-free Cancer Information Service (CIS) with trained personnel to help you. Call 1-800-4-CANCER * to reach the CIS office serving your area, or write: Office of Cancer Communications, National Cancer Institute, National Institutes of Health, Building 31 Room 10A24, Bethesda, Maryland 20892.
</P>
<FP-1>2. American Cancer Society, 3340 Peachtree Road, N.E., Atlanta, Georgia 30026, (404) 320-3333
</FP-1>
<P>The American Cancer Society (ACS) is a voluntary organization composed of 58 divisions and 3,100 local units. Through “The Great American Smokeout” in November, the annual Cancer Crusade in April, and numerous educational materials, ACS helps people learn about the health hazards of smoking and become successful ex-smokers.
</P>
<FP-1>3. American Heart Association, 7320 Greenville Avenue, Dallas, Texas 75231, (214) 750-5300
</FP-1>
<P>The American Heart Association (AHA) is a voluntary organization with 130,000 members (physicians, scientists, and laypersons) in 55 state and regional groups. AHA produces a variety of publications and audiovisual materials about the effects of smoking on the heart. AHA also has developed a guidebook for incorporating a weight-control component into smoking cessation programs.
</P>
<FP-1>4. American Lung Association, 1740 Broadway, New York, New York 10019, (212) 245-8000
</FP-1>
<P>A voluntary organization of 7,500 members (physicians, nurses, and laypersons), the American Lung Association (ALA) conducts numerous public information programs about the health effects of smoking. ALA has 59 state and 85 local units. The organization actively supports legislation and information campaigns for non-smokers' rights and provides help for smokers who want to quit, for example, through “Freedom From Smoking,” a self-help smoking cessation program.
</P>
<FP-1>5. Office on Smoking and Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 5600 Fishers Lane, Park Building, Room 110, Rockville, Maryland 20857
</FP-1>
<P>The Office on Smoking and Health (OSH) is the Department of Health and Human Services' lead agency in smoking control. OSH has sponsored distribution of publications on smoking-related topics, such as free flyers on relapse after initial quitting, helping a friend or family member quit smoking, the health hazards of smoking, and the effects of parental smoking on teenagers.
</P>
<P>* In Hawaii, on Oahu call 524-1234 (call collect from neighboring islands),
</P>
<P>Spanish-speaking staff members are available during daytime hours to callers from the following areas: California, Florida, Georgia, Illinois, New Jersey (area code 201), New York, and Texas. Consult your local telephone directory for listings of local chapters.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix K to § 1926.1101—Polarized Light Microscopy of Asbestos (Non-Mandatory)
</HD1>
<FP-2>Method number:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>ID-191
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Matrix: Bulk
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Collection Procedure:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Collect approximately 1 to 2 grams of each type of material and place into separate 20 mL scintillation vials.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Analytical Procedure:
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A portion of each separate phase is analyzed by gross examination, phase-polar examination, and central stop dispersion microscopy.
</FP1-2>
<P>Commercial manufacturers and products mentioned in this method are for descriptive use only and do not constitute endorsements by USDOL-OSHA. Similar products from other sources may be substituted.
</P>
<HD2>1. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>This method describes the collection and analysis of asbestos bulk materials by light microscopy techniques including phase- polar illumination and central-stop dispersion microscopy. Some terms unique to asbestos analysis are defined below:
</P>
<P><I>Amphibole:</I> A family of minerals whose crystals are formed by long, thin units which have two thin ribbons of double chain silicate with a brucite ribbon in between. The shape of each unit is similar to an “I beam”. Minerals important in asbestos analysis include cummingtonite-grunerite, crocidolite, tremolite-actinolite and anthophyllite.
</P>
<P><I>Asbestos:</I> A term for naturally occurring fibrous minerals. Asbestos includes chrysotile, cummingtonite-grunerite asbestos (amosite), anthophyllite asbestos, tremolite asbestos, crocidolite, actinolite asbestos and any of these minerals which have been chemically treated or altered. The precise chemical formulation of each species varies with the location from which it was mined. Nominal compositions are listed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Mg<E T="52">3</E> Si<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite (Riebeckite asbestos)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Na<E T="52">2</E> Fe<E T="52">3</E>2 + Fe<E T="52">2</E>3 + Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cummingtonite-Grunerite asbestos (Amosite)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite-Actinolite asbestos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca<E T="52">2</E>(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">5</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite asbestos</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(Mg,Fe)<E T="52">7</E> Si<E T="52">8</E> O<E T="52">22</E>(OH)<E T="52">2</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Asbestos Fiber:</I> A fiber of asbestos meeting the criteria for a fiber. (See section 3.5. of this Appendix)
</P>
<P><I>Aspect Ratio:</I> The ratio of the length of a fiber to its diameter usually defined as “length : width”, e.g. 3:1.
</P>
<P><I>Brucite:</I> A sheet mineral with the composition Mg(OH)<E T="52">2.</E>
</P>
<P><I>Central Stop Dispersion Staining (microscope):</I> This is a dark field microscope technique that images particles using only light refracted by the particle, excluding light that travels through the particle unrefracted. This is usually accomplished with a McCrone objective or other arrangement which places a circular stop with apparent aperture equal to the objective aperture in the back focal plane of the microscope.
</P>
<P><I>Cleavage Fragments:</I> Mineral particles formed by the comminution of minerals, especially those characterized by relatively parallel sides and moderate aspect ratio.
</P>
<P><I>Differential Counting:</I> The term applied to the practice of excluding certain kinds of fibers from a phase contrast asbestos count because they are not asbestos.
</P>
<P><I>Fiber:</I> A particle longer than or equal to 5 µm with a length to width ratio greater than or equal to 3:1. This may include cleavage fragments. (see section 3.5 of this appendix).
</P>
<P><I>Phase Contrast:</I> Contrast obtained in the microscope by causing light scattered by small particles to destructively interfere with unscattered light, thereby enhancing the visibility of very small particles and particles with very low intrinsic contrast.
</P>
<P><I>Phase Contrast Microscope:</I> A microscope configured with a phase mask pair to create phase contrast. The technique which uses this is called Phase Contrast Microscopy (PCM).
</P>
<P><I>Phase-Polar Analysis:</I> This is the use of polarized light in a phase contrast microscope. It is used to see the same size fibers that are visible in air filter analysis. Although fibers finer than 1 µm are visible, analysis of these is inferred from analysis of larger bundles that are usually present.
</P>
<P><I>Phase-Polar Microscope:</I> The phase-polar microscope is a phase contrast microscope which has an analyzer, a polarizer, a first order red plate and a rotating phase condenser all in place so that the polarized light image is enhanced by phase contrast.
</P>
<P><I>Sealing Encapsulant:</I> This is a product which can be applied, preferably by spraying, onto an asbestos surface which will seal the surface so that fibers cannot be released.
</P>
<P><I>Serpentine:</I> A mineral family consisting of minerals with the general composition Mg<E T="52">3</E>(Si<E T="52">2</E> O<E T="52">5</E>(OH)<E T="52">4</E> having the magnesium in brucite layer over a silicate layer. Minerals important in asbestos analysis included in this family are chrysotile, lizardite, antigorite.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. History
</HD3>
<P>Light microscopy has been used for well over 100 years for the determination of mineral species. This analysis is carried out using specialized polarizing microscopes as well as bright field microscopes. The identification of minerals is an on-going process with many new minerals described each year. The first recorded use of asbestos was in Finland about 2500 B.C. where the material was used in the mud wattle for the wooden huts the people lived in as well as strengthening for pottery. Adverse health aspects of the mineral were noted nearly 2000 years ago when Pliny the Younger wrote about the poor health of slaves in the asbestos mines. Although known to be injurious for centuries, the first modern references to its toxicity were by the British Labor Inspectorate when it banned asbestos dust from the workplace in 1898. Asbestosis cases were described in the literature after the turn of the century. Cancer was first suspected in the mid 1930's and a causal link to mesothelioma was made in 1965. Because of the public concern for worker and public safety with the use of this material, several different types of analysis were applied to the determination of asbestos content. Light microscopy requires a great deal of experience and craft. Attempts were made to apply less subjective methods to the analysis. X-ray diffraction was partially successful in determining the mineral types but was unable to separate out the fibrous portions from the non-fibrous portions. Also, the minimum detection limit for asbestos analysis by X-ray diffraction (XRD) is about 1%. Differential Thermal Analysis (DTA) was no more successful. These provide useful corroborating information when the presence of asbestos has been shown by microscopy; however, neither can determine the difference between fibrous and non-fibrous minerals when both habits are present. The same is true of Infrared Absorption (IR).
</P>
<P>When electron microscopy was applied to asbestos analysis, hundreds of fibers were discovered present too small to be visible in any light microscope. There are two different types of electron microscope used for asbestos analysis: Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) and Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). Scanning Electron Microscopy is useful in identifying minerals. The SEM can provide two of the three pieces of information required to identify fibers by electron microscopy: morphology and chemistry. The third is structure as determined by Selected Area Electron Diffraction—SAED which is performed in the TEM. Although the resolution of the SEM is sufficient for very fine fibers to be seen, accuracy of chemical analysis that can be performed on the fibers varies with fiber diameter in fibers of less than 0.2 µm diameter. The TEM is a powerful tool to identify fibers too small to be resolved by light microscopy and should be used in conjunction with this method when necessary. The TEM can provide all three pieces of information required for fiber identification. Most fibers thicker than 1 µm can adequately be defined in the light microscope. The light microscope remains as the best instrument for the determination of mineral type. This is because the minerals under investigation were first described analytically with the light microscope. It is inexpensive and gives positive identification for most samples analyzed. Further, when optical techniques are inadequate, there is ample indication that alternative techniques should be used for complete identification of the sample.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. Principle
</HD3>
<P>Minerals consist of atoms that may be arranged in random order or in a regular arrangement. Amorphous materials have atoms in random order while crystalline materials have long range order. Many materials are transparent to light, at least for small particles or for thin sections. The properties of these materials can be investigated by the effect that the material has on light passing through it. The six asbestos minerals are all crystalline with particular properties that have been identified and cataloged. These six minerals are anisotropic. They have a regular array of atoms, but the arrangement is not the same in all directions. Each major direction of the crystal presents a different regularity. Light photons travelling in each of these main directions will encounter different electrical neighborhoods, affecting the path and time of travel. The techniques outlined in this method use the fact that light traveling through fibers or crystals in different directions will behave differently, but predictably. The behavior of the light as it travels through a crystal can be measured and compared with known or determined values to identify the mineral species. Usually, Polarized Light Microscopy (PLM) is performed with strain-free objectives on a bright-field microscope platform. This would limit the resolution of the microscope to about 0.4 µm. Because OSHA requires the counting and identification of fibers visible in phase contrast, the phase contrast platform is used to visualize the fibers with the polarizing elements added into the light path. Polarized light methods cannot identify fibers finer than about 1 µm in diameter even though they are visible. The finest fibers are usually identified by inference from the presence of larger, identifiable fiber bundles. When fibers are present, but not identifiable by light microscopy, use either SEM or TEM to determine the fiber identity.
</P>
<HD3>1.3. Advantages and Disadvantages
</HD3>
<P>The advantages of light microcopy are:
</P>
<P>(a) Basic identification of the materials was first performed by light microscopy and gross analysis. This provides a large base of published information against which to check analysis and analytical technique.
</P>
<P>(b) The analysis is specific to fibers. The minerals present can exist in asbestiform, fibrous, prismatic, or massive varieties all at the same time. Therefore, bulk methods of analysis such as X-ray diffraction, IR analysis, DTA, etc. are inappropriate where the material is not known to be fibrous.
</P>
<P>(c) The analysis is quick, requires little preparation time, and can be performed on-site if a suitably equipped microscope is available.
</P>
<P>The disadvantages are:
</P>
<P>(a) Even using phase-polar illumination, not all the fibers present may be seen. This is a problem for very low asbestos concentrations where agglomerations or large bundles of fibers may not be present to allow identification by inference.
</P>
<P>(b) The method requires a great degree of sophistication on the part of the microscopist. An analyst is only as useful as his mental catalog of images. Therefore, a microscopist's accuracy is enhanced by experience. The mineralogical training of the analyst is very important. It is the basis on which subjective decisions are made.
</P>
<P>(c) The method uses only a tiny amount of material for analysis. This may lead to sampling bias and false results (high or low). This is especially true if the sample is severely inhomogeneous.
</P>
<P>(d) Fibers may be bound in a matrix and not distinguishable as fibers so identification cannot be made.
</P>
<HD3>1.4. Method Performance
</HD3>
<P><I>1.4.1.</I> This method can be used for determination of asbestos content from 0 to 100% asbestos. The detection limit has not been adequately determined, although for selected samples, the limit is very low, depending on the number of particles examined. For mostly homogeneous, finely divided samples, with no difficult fibrous interferences, the detection limit is below 1%. For inhomogeneous samples (most samples), the detection limit remains undefined. NIST has conducted proficiency testing of laboratories on a national scale. Although each round is reported statistically with an average, control limits, etc., the results indicate a difficulty in establishing precision especially in the low concentration range. It is suspected that there is significant bias in the low range especially near 1%. EPA tried to remedy this by requiring a mandatory point counting scheme for samples less than 10%. The point counting procedure is tedious, and may introduce significant biases of its own. It has not been incorporated into this method.
</P>
<P><I>1.4.2.</I> The precision and accuracy of the quantitation tests performed in this method are unknown. Concentrations are easier to determine in commercial products where asbestos was deliberately added because the amount is usually more than a few percent. An analyst's results can be “calibrated” against the known amounts added by the manufacturer. For geological samples, the degree of homogeneity affects the precision.
</P>
<P><I>1.4.3.</I> The performance of the method is analyst dependent. The analyst must choose carefully and not necessarily randomly the portions for analysis to assure that detection of asbestos occurs when it is present. For this reason, the analyst must have adequate training in sample preparation, and experience in the location and identification of asbestos in samples. This is usually accomplished through substantial on-the-job training as well as formal education in mineralogy and microscopy.
</P>
<HD3>1.5. Interferences
</HD3>
<P>Any material which is long, thin, and small enough to be viewed under the microscope can be considered an interference for asbestos. There are literally hundreds of interferences in workplaces. The techniques described in this method are normally sufficient to eliminate the interferences. An analyst's success in eliminating the interferences depends on proper training.
</P>
<P>Asbestos minerals belong to two mineral families: the serpentines and the amphiboles. In the serpentine family, the only common fibrous mineral is chrysotile. Occasionally, the mineral antigorite occurs in a fibril habit with morphology similar to the amphiboles. The amphibole minerals consist of a score of different minerals of which only five are regulated by federal standard: amosite, crocidolite, anthophyllite asbestos, tremolite asbestos and actinolite asbestos. These are the only amphibole minerals that have been commercially exploited for their fibrous properties; however, the rest can and do occur occasionally in asbestiform habit.
</P>
<P>In addition to the related mineral interferences, other minerals common in building material may present a problem for some microscopists: gypsum, anhydrite, brucite, quartz fibers, talc fibers or ribbons, wollastonite, perlite, attapulgite, etc. Other fibrous materials commonly present in workplaces are: fiberglass, mineral wool, ceramic wool, refractory ceramic fibers, kevlar, nomex, synthetic fibers, graphite or carbon fibers, cellulose (paper or wood) fibers, metal fibers, etc.
</P>
<P>Matrix embedding material can sometimes be a negative interference. The analyst may not be able to easily extract the fibers from the matrix in order to use the method. Where possible, remove the matrix before the analysis, taking careful note of the loss of weight. Some common matrix materials are: vinyl, rubber, tar, paint, plant fiber, cement, and epoxy. A further negative interference is that the asbestos fibers themselves may be either too small to be seen in Phase contrast Microscopy (PCM) or of a very low fibrous quality, having the appearance of plant fibers. The analyst's ability to deal with these materials increases with experience.
</P>
<HD3>1.6. Uses and Occupational Exposure
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is ubiquitous in the environment. More than 40% of the land area of the United States is composed of minerals which may contain asbestos. Fortunately, the actual formation of great amounts of asbestos is relatively rare. Nonetheless, there are locations in which environmental exposure can be severe such as in the Serpentine Hills of California.
</P>
<P>There are thousands of uses for asbestos in industry and the home. Asbestos abatement workers are the most current segment of the population to have occupational exposure to great amounts of asbestos. If the material is undisturbed, there is no exposure. Exposure occurs when the asbestos-containing material is abraded or otherwise disturbed during maintenance operations or some other activity. Approximately 95% of the asbestos in place in the United States is chrysotile.
</P>
<P>Amosite and crocidolite make up nearly all the difference. Tremolite and anthophyllite make up a very small percentage. Tremolite is found in extremely small amounts in certain chrysotile deposits. Actinolite exposure is probably greatest from environmental sources, but has been identified in vermiculite containing, sprayed-on insulating materials which may have been certified as asbestos-free.
</P>
<HD3>1.7. Physical and Chemical Properties
</HD3>
<P>The nominal chemical compositions for the asbestos minerals were given in Section 1. Compared to cleavage fragments of the same minerals, asbestiform fibers possess a high tensile strength along the fiber axis. They are chemically inert, non-combustible, and heat resistant. Except for chrysotile, they are insoluble in Hydrochloric acid (HCl). Chrysotile is slightly soluble in HCl. Asbestos has high electrical resistance and good sound absorbing characteristics. It can be woven into cables, fabrics or other textiles, or matted into papers, felts, and mats.
</P>
<HD3>1.8. Toxicology (This section is for Information Only and Should Not Be Taken as OSHA Policy)
</HD3>
<P>Possible physiologic results of respiratory exposure to asbestos are mesothelioma of the pleura or peritoneum, interstitial fibrosis, asbestosis, pneumoconiosis, or respiratory cancer. The possible consequences of asbestos exposure are detailed in the NIOSH Criteria Document or in the OSHA Asbestos Standards 29 CFR 1910.1001 and 29 CFR 1926.1101 and 29 CFR 1915.1001.
</P>
<HD2>2. Sampling Procedure
</HD2>
<HD3>2.1. Equipment for sampling
</HD3>
<P>(a) Tube or cork borer sampling device
</P>
<P>(b) Knife
</P>
<P>(c) 20 mL scintillation vial or similar vial
</P>
<P>(d) Sealing encapsulant
</P>
<HD3>2.2. Safety Precautions
</HD3>
<P>Asbestos is a known carcinogen. Take care when sampling. While in an asbestos-containing atmosphere, a properly selected and fit-tested respirator should be worn. Take samples in a manner to cause the least amount of dust. Follow these general guidelines:
</P>
<P>(a) Do not make unnecessary dust.
</P>
<P>(b) Take only a small amount (1 to 2 g).
</P>
<P>(c) Tightly close the sample container.
</P>
<P>(d) Use encapsulant to seal the spot where the sample was taken, if necessary.
</P>
<HD3>2.3. Sampling Procedure
</HD3>
<P>Samples of any suspect material should be taken from an inconspicuous place. Where the material is to remain, seal the sampling wound with an encapsulant to eliminate the potential for exposure from the sample site. Microscopy requires only a few milligrams of material. The amount that will fill a 20 mL scintillation vial is more than adequate. Be sure to collect samples from all layers and phases of material. If possible, make separate samples of each different phase of the material. This will aid in determining the actual hazard. <I>DO NOT USE ENVELOPES, PLASTIC OR PAPER BAGS OF ANY KIND TO COLLECT SAMPLES.</I> The use of plastic bags presents a contamination hazard to laboratory personnel and to other samples. When these containers are opened, a bellows effect blows fibers out of the container onto everything, including the person opening the container.
</P>
<P>If a cork-borer type sampler is available, push the tube through the material all the way, so that all layers of material are sampled. Some samplers are intended to be disposable. These should be capped and sent to the laboratory. If a non-disposable cork borer is used, empty the contents into a scintillation vial and send to the laboratory. Vigorously and completely clean the cork borer between samples.
</P>
<HD3>2.4 Shipment
</HD3>
<P>Samples packed in glass vials must not touch or they might break in shipment.
</P>
<P>(a) Seal the samples with a sample seal over the end to guard against tampering and to identify the sample.
</P>
<P>(b) Package the bulk samples in separate packages from the air samples. They may cross-contaminate each other and will invalidate the results of the air samples.
</P>
<P>(c) Include identifying paperwork <I>with</I> the samples, but not in contact with the suspected asbestos.
</P>
<P>(d) To maintain sample accountability, ship the samples by certified mail, overnight express, or hand carry them to the laboratory.
</P>
<HD2>3. Analysis
</HD2>
<P>The analysis of asbestos samples can be divided into two major parts: sample preparation and microscopy. Because of the different asbestos uses that may be encountered by the analyst, each sample may need different preparation steps. The choices are outlined below. There are several different tests that are performed to identify the asbestos species and determine the percentage. They will be explained below.
</P>
<HD3>3.1. Safety
</HD3>
<P>(a) Do not create unnecessary dust. Handle the samples in HEPA-filter equipped hoods. If samples are received in bags, envelopes or other inappropriate container, open them only in a hood having a face velocity at or greater than 100 fpm. Transfer a small amount to a scintillation vial and only handle the smaller amount.
</P>
<P>(b) Open samples in a hood, never in the open lab area.
</P>
<P>(c) Index of refraction oils can be toxic. Take care not to get this material on the skin. Wash immediately with soap and water if this happens.
</P>
<P>(d) Samples that have been heated in the muffle furnace or the drying oven may be hot. Handle them with tongs until they are cool enough to handle.
</P>
<P>(e) Some of the solvents used, such as THF (tetrahydrofuran), are toxic and should only be handled in an appropriate fume hood and according to instructions given in the Safety Data Sheet (SDS).
</P>
<HD3>3.2. Equipment
</HD3>
<P>(a) Phase contrast microscope with 10x, 16x and 40x objectives, 10x wide-field eyepieces, G-22 Walton-Beckett graticule, Whipple disk, polarizer, analyzer and first order red or gypsum plate, 100 Watt illuminator, rotating position condenser with oversize phase rings, central stop dispersion objective, Kohler illumination and a rotating mechanical stage.
</P>
<P>(b) Stereo microscope with reflected light illumination, transmitted light illumination, polarizer, analyzer and first order red or gypsum plate, and rotating stage.
</P>
<P>(c) Negative pressure hood for the stereo microscope
</P>
<P>(d) Muffle furnace capable of 600 °C
</P>
<P>(e) Drying oven capable of 50-150 °C
</P>
<P>(f) Aluminum specimen pans
</P>
<P>(g) Tongs for handling samples in the furnace
</P>
<P>(h) High dispersion index of refraction oils (Special for dispersion staining.)
</P>
<FP-1>n = 1.550
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.585
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.590
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.605
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.620
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.670
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.680
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n = 1.690
</FP-1>
<P>(i) A set of index of refraction oils from about n = 1.350 to n = 2.000 in n = 0.005 increments. (Standard for Becke line analysis.)
</P>
<P>(j) Glass slides with painted or frosted ends 1 × 3 inches 1mm (thick, precleaned.
</P>
<P>(k) Cover Slips 22 × 22 mm, #1
<FR>1/2</FR>
</P>
<P>(l) Paper clips or dissection needles
</P>
<P>(m) Hand grinder
</P>
<P>(n) Scalpel with both #10 and #11 blades
</P>
<P>(o) 0.1 molar HCl
</P>
<P>(p) Decalcifying solution (Baxter Scientific Products) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic Acid,
</P>
<LDRWK>
<FL-2>Tetrasodium </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>0.7 g/l
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Sodium Potassium Tartrate </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>8.0 mg/liter
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Hydrochloric Acid </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>99.2 g/liter
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2>Sodium Tartrate </FL-2>
<LDRFIG>0.14 g/liter</LDRFIG></LDRWK>
<P>(q) Tetrahydrofuran (THF)
</P>
<P>(r) Hotplate capable of 60 °C
</P>
<P>(s) Balance
</P>
<P>(t) Hacksaw blade
</P>
<P>(u) Ruby mortar and pestle
</P>
<HD3>3.3. Sample Pre-Preparation
</HD3>
<P>Sample preparation begins with pre-preparation which may include chemical reduction of the matrix, heating the sample to dryness or heating in the muffle furnace. The end result is a sample which has been reduced to a powder that is sufficiently fine to fit under the cover slip. Analyze different phases of samples separately, e.g., tile and the tile mastic should be analyzed separately as the mastic may contain asbestos while the tile may not.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Wet Samples</I>
</P>
<P>Samples with a high water content will not give the proper dispersion colors and must be dried prior to sample mounting. Remove the lid of the scintillation vial, place the bottle in the drying oven and heat at 100 °C to dryness (usually about 2 h). Samples which are not submitted to the lab in glass must be removed and placed in glass vials or aluminum weighing pans before placing them in the drying oven.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Samples With Organic Interference—Muffle Furnace</I>
</P>
<P>These may include samples with tar as a matrix, vinyl asbestos tile, or any other organic that can be reduced by heating. Remove the sample from the vial and weigh in a balance to determine the weight of the submitted portion. Place the sample in a muffle furnace at 500 °C for 1 to 2 h or until all obvious organic material has been removed. Retrieve, cool and weigh again to determine the weight loss on ignition. This is necessary to determine the asbestos content of the submitted sample, because the analyst will be looking at a reduced sample.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Heating above 600 °C will cause the sample to undergo a structural change which, given sufficient time, will convert the chrysotile to forsterite. Heating even at lower temperatures for 1 to 2 h may have a measurable effect on the optical properties of the minerals. If the analyst is unsure of what to expect, a sample of standard asbestos should be heated to the same temperature for the same length of time so that it can be examined for the proper interpretation.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Samples With Organic Interference—THF</I>
</P>
<P>Vinyl asbestos tile is the most common material treated with this solvent, although, substances containing tar will sometimes yield to this treatment. Select a portion of the material and then grind it up if possible. Weigh the sample and place it in a test tube. Add sufficient THF to dissolve the organic matrix. This is usually about 4 to 5 mL. <I>Remember, THF is highly flammable.</I> Filter the remaining material through a tared silver membrane, dry and weigh to determine how much is left after the solvent extraction. Further process the sample to remove carbonate or mount directly.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Samples With Carbonate Interference</I>
</P>
<P>Carbonate material is often found on fibers and sometimes must be removed in order to perform dispersion microscopy. Weigh out a portion of the material and place it in a test tube. Add a sufficient amount of 0.1 M HCl or decalcifying solution in the tube to react all the carbonate as evidenced by gas formation; i.e., when the gas bubbles stop, add a little more solution. If no more gas forms, the reaction is complete. Filter the material out through a tared silver membrane, dry and weigh to determine the weight lost.
</P>
<HD3>3.4. Sample Preparation
</HD3>
<P>Samples must be prepared so that accurate determination can be made of the asbestos type and amount present. The following steps are carried out in the low-flow hood (a low-flow hood has less than 50 fpm flow):
</P>
<P>(1) If the sample has large lumps, is hard, or cannot be made to lie under a cover slip, the grain size must be reduced. Place a small amount between two slides and grind the material between them or grind a small amount in a clean mortar and pestle. The choice of whether to use an alumina, ruby, or diamond mortar depends on the hardness of the material. Impact damage can alter the asbestos mineral if too much mechanical shock occurs. (Freezer mills can completely destroy the observable crystallinity of asbestos and should not be used). For some samples, a portion of material can be shaved off with a scalpel, ground off with a hand grinder or hack saw blade.
</P>
<P>The preparation tools should either be disposable or cleaned thoroughly. Use vigorous scrubbing to loosen the fibers during the washing. Rinse the implements with copious amounts of water and air-dry in a dust-free environment.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sample is powder or has been reduced as in (1) above, it is ready to mount. Place a glass slide on a piece of optical tissue and write the identification on the painted or frosted end. Place two drops of index of refraction medium n = 1.550 on the slide. (The medium n = 1.550 is chosen because it is the matching index for chrysotile. Dip the end of a clean paper-clip or dissecting needle into the droplet of refraction medium <I>on the slide</I> to moisten it. Then dip the probe into the powder sample. Transfer what sticks on the probe to the slide. The material on the end of the probe should have a diameter of about 3 mm for a good mount. If the material is very fine, less sample may be appropriate. For non-powder samples such as fiber mats, forceps should be used to transfer a small amount of material to the slide. Stir the material in the medium on the slide, spreading it out and making the preparation as uniform as possible. Place a cover-slip on the preparation by gently lowering onto the slide and allowing it to fall “trapdoor” fashion on the preparation to push out any bubbles. Press gently on the cover slip to even out the distribution of particulate on the slide. If there is insufficient mounting oil on the slide, one or two drops may be placed near the edge of the coverslip on the slide. Capillary action will draw the necessary amount of liquid into the preparation. Remove excess oil with the point of a laboratory wiper.
</P>
<P>Treat at least two different areas of each phase in this fashion. Choose representative areas of the sample. It may be useful to select particular areas or fibers for analysis. This is useful to identify asbestos in severely inhomogeneous samples.
</P>
<P>When it is determined that amphiboles may be present, repeat the above process using the appropriate high-dispersion oils until an identification is made or all six asbestos minerals have been ruled out. Note that percent determination must be done in the index medium 1.550 because amphiboles tend to disappear in their matching mediums.
</P>
<HD3>3.5. Analytical procedure
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This method presumes some knowledge of mineralogy and optical petrography.</P></NOTE>
<P>The analysis consists of three parts: The determination of whether there is asbestos present, what type is present and the determination of how much is present. The general flow of the analysis is:
</P>
<P>(1) Gross examination.
</P>
<P>(2) Examination under polarized light on the stereo microscope.
</P>
<P>(3) Examination by phase-polar illumination on the compound phase microscope.
</P>
<P>(4) Determination of species by dispersion stain. Examination by Becke line analysis may also be used; however, this is usually more cumbersome for asbestos determination.
</P>
<P>(5) Difficult samples may need to be analyzed by SEM or TEM, or the results from those techniques combined with light microscopy for a definitive identification.
</P>
<P>Identification of a particle as asbestos requires that it be asbestiform. Description of particles should follow the suggestion of Campbell. (Figure 1)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10au94.026.gif"/>
<P>For the purpose of regulation, the mineral must be one of the six minerals covered and must be in the asbestos growth habit. Large specimen samples of asbestos generally have the gross appearance of wood. Fibers are easily parted from it. Asbestos fibers are very long compared with their widths. The fibers have a very high tensile strength as demonstrated by bending without breaking. Asbestos fibers exist in bundles that are easily parted, show longitudinal fine structure and may be tufted at the ends showing “bundle of sticks” morphology. In the microscope some of these properties may not be observable. Amphiboles do not always show striations along their length even when they are asbestos. Neither will they always show tufting. They generally do not show a curved nature except for very long fibers. Asbestos and asbestiform minerals are usually characterized in groups by extremely high aspect ratios (greater than 100:1). While aspect ratio analysis is useful for characterizing populations of fibers, it cannot be used to identify individual fibers of intermediate to short aspect ratio. Observation of many fibers is often necessary to determine whether a sample consists of “cleavage fragments” or of asbestos fibers.
</P>
<P>Most cleavage fragments of the asbestos minerals are easily distinguishable from true asbestos fibers. This is because true cleavage fragments usually have larger diameters than 1 µm. Internal structure of particles larger than this usually shows them to have no internal fibrillar structure. In addition, cleavage fragments of the monoclinic amphiboles show inclined extinction under crossed polars with no compensator. Asbestos fibers usually show extinction at zero degrees or ambiguous extinction if any at all. Morphologically, the larger cleavage fragments are obvious by their blunt or stepped ends showing prismatic habit. Also, they tend to be acicular rather than filiform.
</P>
<P>Where the particles are less than 1 µm in diameter and have an aspect ratio greater than or equal to 3:1, it is recommended that the sample be analyzed by SEM or TEM if there is any question whether the fibers are cleavage fragments or asbestiform particles.
</P>
<P>Care must be taken when analyzing by electron microscopy because the interferences are different from those in light microscopy and may structurally be very similar to asbestos. The classic interference is between anthophyllite and biopyribole or intermediate fiber. Use the same morphological clues for electron microscopy as are used for light microscopy, e.g. fibril splitting, internal longitudinal striation, fraying, curvature, etc.
</P>
<P>(1) Gross examination:
</P>
<P>Examine the sample, preferably in the glass vial. Determine the presence of any obvious fibrous component. Estimate a percentage based on previous experience and current observation. Determine whether any pre-preparation is necessary. Determine the number of phases present. This step may be carried out or augmented by observation at 6 to 40 × under a stereo microscope.
</P>
<P>(2) After performing any necessary pre-preparation, prepare slides of each phase as described above. Two preparations of the same phase in the same index medium can be made side-by-side on the same glass for convenience. Examine with the polarizing stereo microscope. Estimate the percentage of asbestos based on the amount of birefringent fiber present.
</P>
<P>(3) Examine the slides on the phase-polar microscopes at magnifications of 160 and 400 × . Note the morphology of the fibers. Long, thin, very straight fibers with little curvature are indicative of fibers from the amphibole family. Curved, wavy fibers are usually indicative of chrysotile. Estimate the percentage of asbestos on the phase-polar microscope under conditions of crossed polars and a gypsum plate. Fibers smaller than 1.0 µm in thickness must be identified by inference to the presence of larger, identifiable fibers and morphology. If no larger fibers are visible, electron microscopy should be performed. At this point, only a tentative identification can be made. Full identification must be made with dispersion microscopy. Details of the tests are included in the appendices.
</P>
<P>(4) Once fibers have been determined to be present, they must be identified. Adjust the microscope for dispersion mode and observe the fibers. The microscope has a rotating stage, one polarizing element, and a system for generating dark-field dispersion microscopy (see Section 4.6. of this appendix). Align a fiber with its length parallel to the polarizer and note the color of the Becke lines. Rotate the stage to bring the fiber length perpendicular to the polarizer and note the color. Repeat this process for every fiber or fiber bundle examined. The colors must be consistent with the colors generated by standard asbestos reference materials for a positive identification. In n = 1.550, amphiboles will generally show a yellow to straw-yellow color indicating that the fiber indices of refraction are higher than the liquid. If long, thin fibers are noted and the colors are yellow, prepare further slides as above in the suggested matching liquids listed below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of asbestos
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Index of refraction
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chrysotile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.550.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amosite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.670 or 1.680.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crocidolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.690.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthophyllite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.605 and 1.620.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tremolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.605 and 1.620.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinolite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">n = 1.620.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Where more than one liquid is suggested, the first is preferred; however, in some cases this liquid will not give good dispersion color. Take care to avoid interferences in the other liquid; e.g., wollastonite in n = 1.620 will give the same colors as tremolite. In n = 1.605 wollastonite will appear yellow in all directions. Wollastonite may be determined under crossed polars as it will change from blue to yellow as it is rotated along its fiber axis by tapping on the cover slip. Asbestos minerals will not change in this way.
</P>
<P>Determination of the angle of extinction may, when present, aid in the determination of anthophyllite from tremolite. True asbestos fibers usually have 0° extinction or ambiguous extinction, while cleavage fragments have more definite extinction.
</P>
<P>Continue analysis until both preparations have been examined and all present species of asbestos are identified. If there are no fibers present, or there is less than 0.1% present, end the analysis with the minimum number of slides (2).
</P>
<P>(5) Some fibers have a coating on them which makes dispersion microscopy very difficult or impossible. Becke line analysis or electron microscopy may be performed in those cases. Determine the percentage by light microscopy. TEM analysis tends to overestimate the actual percentage present.
</P>
<P>(6) Percentage determination is an estimate of occluded area, tempered by gross observation. Gross observation information is used to make sure that the high magnification microscopy does not greatly over- or under- estimate the amount of fiber present. This part of the analysis requires a great deal of experience. Satisfactory models for asbestos content analysis have not yet been developed, although some models based on metallurgical grain-size determination have found some utility. Estimation is more easily handled in situations where the grain sizes visible at about 160 × are about the same and the sample is relatively homogeneous.
</P>
<P>View all of the area under the cover slip to make the percentage determination. View the fields while moving the stage, paying attention to the clumps of material. These are not usually the best areas to perform dispersion microscopy because of the interference from other materials. But, they are the areas most likely to represent the accurate percentage in the sample. Small amounts of asbestos require slower scanning and more frequent analysis of individual fields.
</P>
<P>Report the area occluded by asbestos as the concentration. This estimate does not generally take into consideration the difference in density of the different species present in the sample. For most samples this is adequate. Simulation studies with similar materials must be carried out to apply microvisual estimation for that purpose and is beyond the scope of this procedure.
</P>
<P>(7) Where successive concentrations have been made by chemical or physical means, the amount reported is the percentage of the material in the “as submitted” or original state. The percentage determined by microscopy is multiplied by the fractions remaining after pre-preparation steps to give the percentage in the original sample. For example:
</P>
<FP-1>Step 1. 60% remains after heating at 550 °C for 1 h.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Step 2. 30% of the residue of step 1 remains after dissolution of carbonate in 0.1 m HCl.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Step 3. Microvisual estimation determines that 5% of the sample is chrysotile asbestos.
</FP-1>
<P>The reported result is:
</P>
<FP-1>R = (Microvisual result in percent) × (Fraction remaining after step 2) × (Fraction remaining of original sample after step 1)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R = (5) × (.30) × (.60) = 0.9%
</FP-1>
<P>(8) Report the percent and type of asbestos present. For samples where asbestos was identified, but is less than 1.0%, report “Asbestos present, less than 1.0%.” There must have been at least two observed fibers or fiber bundles in the two preparations to be reported as present. For samples where asbestos was not seen, report as “None Detected.”
</P>
<HD2>Auxiliary Information
</HD2>
<P>Because of the subjective nature of asbestos analysis, certain concepts and procedures need to be discussed in more depth. This information will help the analyst understand why some of the procedures are carried out the way they are.
</P>
<HD3>4.1. Light
</HD3>
<P>Light is electromagnetic energy. It travels from its source in packets called quanta. It is instructive to consider light as a plane wave. The light has a direction of travel. Perpendicular to this and mutually perpendicular to each other, are two vector components. One is the magnetic vector and the other is the electric vector. We shall only be concerned with the electric vector. In this description, the interaction of the vector and the mineral will describe all the observable phenomena. From a light source such a microscope illuminator, light travels in all different direction from the filament.
</P>
<P>In any given direction away from the filament, the electric vector is perpendicular to the direction of travel of a light ray. While perpendicular, its orientation is random about the travel axis. If the electric vectors from all the light rays were lined up by passing the light through a filter that would only let light rays with electric vectors oriented in one direction pass, the light would then be <I>POLARIZED.</I>
</P>
<P>Polarized light interacts with matter in the direction of the electric vector. This is the polarization direction. Using this property it is possible to use polarized light to probe different materials and identify them by how they interact with light.
</P>
<P>The speed of light in a vacuum is a constant at about 2.99 × 10
<SU>8</SU> m/s. When light travels in different materials such as air, water, minerals or oil, it does not travel at this speed. It travels slower. This slowing is a function of both the material through which the light is traveling and the wavelength or frequency of the light. In general, the more dense the material, the slower the light travels. Also, generally, the higher the frequency, the slower the light will travel. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to that in a material is called the index of refraction (n). It is usually measured at 589 nm (the sodium D line). If white light (light containing all the visible wavelengths) travels through a material, rays of longer wavelengths will travel faster than those of shorter wavelengths, this separation is called dispersion. Dispersion is used as an identifier of materials as described in Section 4.6.
</P>
<HD3>4.2. Material Properties
</HD3>
<P>Materials are either amorphous or crystalline. The difference between these two descriptions depends on the positions of the atoms in them. The atoms in amorphous materials are randomly arranged with no long range order. An example of an amorphous material is glass. The atoms in crystalline materials, on the other hand, are in regular arrays and have long range order. Most of the atoms can be found in highly predictable locations. Examples of crystalline material are salt, gold, and the asbestos minerals.
</P>
<P>It is beyond the scope of this method to describe the different types of crystalline materials that can be found, or the full description of the classes into which they can fall. However, some general crystallography is provided below to give a foundation to the procedures described.
</P>
<P>With the exception of anthophyllite, all the asbestos minerals belong to the monoclinic crystal type. The unit cell is the basic repeating unit of the crystal and for monoclinic crystals can be described as having three unequal sides, two 90° angles and one angle not equal to 90°. The orthorhombic group, of which anthophyllite is a member has three unequal sides and three 90° angles. The unequal sides are a consequence of the complexity of fitting the different atoms into the unit cell. Although the atoms are in a regular array, that array is not symmetrical in all directions. There is long range order in the three major directions of the crystal. However, the order is different in each of the three directions. This has the effect that the index of refraction is different in each of the three directions. Using polarized light, we can investigate the index of refraction in each of the directions and identify the mineral or material under investigation. The indices α, β, and γ are used to identify the lowest, middle, and highest index of refraction respectively. The x direction, associated with α is called the fast axis. Conversely, the z direction is associated with γ and is the slow direction. Crocidolite has α along the fiber length making it “length-fast”. The remainder of the asbestos minerals have the γ axis along the fiber length. They are called “length-slow”. This orientation to fiber length is used to aid in the identification of asbestos.
</P>
<HD3>4.3. Polarized Light Technique
</HD3>
<P>Polarized light microscopy as described in this section uses the phase-polar microscope described in Section 3.2. A phase contrast microscope is fitted with two polarizing elements, one below and one above the sample. The polarizers have their polarization directions at right angles to each other. Depending on the tests performed, there may be a compensator between these two polarizing elements. A compensator is a piece of mineral with known properties that “compensates” for some deficiency in the optical train. Light emerging from a polarizing element has its electric vector pointing in the polarization direction of the element. The light will not be subsequently transmitted through a second element set at a right angle to the first element. Unless the light is altered as it passes from one element to the other, there is no transmission of light.
</P>
<HD3>4.4. Angle of Extinction
</HD3>
<P>Crystals which have different crystal regularity in two or three main directions are said to be anisotropic. They have a different index of refraction in each of the main directions. When such a crystal is inserted between the crossed polars, the field of view is no longer dark but shows the crystal in color. The color depends on the properties of the crystal. The light acts as if it travels through the crystal along the optical axes. If a crystal optical axis were lined up along one of the polarizing directions (either the polarizer or the analyzer) the light would appear to travel only in that direction, and it would blink out or go dark. The difference in degrees between the fiber direction and the angle at which it blinks out is called the angle of extinction. When this angle can be measured, it is useful in identifying the mineral. The procedure for measuring the angle of extinction is to first identify the polarization direction in the microscope. A commercial alignment slide can be used to establish the polarization directions or use anthophyllite or another suitable mineral. This mineral has a zero degree angle of extinction and will go dark to extinction as it aligns with the polarization directions. When a fiber of anthophyllite has gone to extinction, align the eyepiece reticle or graticule with the fiber so that there is a visual cue as to the direction of polarization in the field of view. Tape or otherwise secure the eyepiece in this position so it will not shift.
</P>
<P>After the polarization direction has been identified in the field of view, move the particle of interest to the center of the field of view and align it with the polarization direction. For fibers, align the fiber along this direction. Note the angular reading of the rotating stage. Looking at the particle, rotate the stage until the fiber goes dark or “blinks out”. Again note the reading of the stage. The difference in the first reading and the second is an angle of extinction.
</P>
<P>The angle measured may vary as the orientation of the fiber changes about its long axis. Tables of mineralogical data usually report the maximum angle of extinction. Asbestos forming minerals, when they exhibit an angle of extinction, usually do show an angle of extinction close to the reported maximum, or as appropriate depending on the substitution chemistry.
</P>
<HD3>4.5. Crossed Polars with Compensator
</HD3>
<P>When the optical axes of a crystal are not lined up along one of the polarizing directions (either the polarizer or the analyzer) part of the light travels along one axis and part travels along the other visible axis. This is characteristic of birefringent materials.
</P>
<P>The color depends on the difference of the two visible indices of refraction and the thickness of the crystal. The maximum difference available is the difference between the α and the γ axes. This maximum difference is usually tabulated as the birefringence of the crystal.
</P>
<P>For this test, align the fiber at 45° to the polarization directions in order to maximize the contribution to each of the optical axes. The colors seen are called retardation colors. They arise from the recombination of light which has traveled through the two separate directions of the crystal. One of the rays is retarded behind the other since the light in that direction travels slower. On recombination, some of the colors which make up white light are enhanced by constructive interference and some are suppressed by destructive interference. The result is a color dependent on the difference between the indices and the thickness of the crystal. The proper colors, thicknesses, and retardations are shown on a Michel-Levy chart. The three items, retardation, thickness and birefringence are related by the following relationship:
</P>
<FP-2>R = t(n<E T="8064">γ</E>−n<E T="8064">α</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R = retardation, t = crystal thickness in µm, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="8064">α,γ</E> = indices of refraction.
</FP-2>
<P>Examination of the equation for asbestos minerals reveals that the visible colors for almost all common asbestos minerals and fiber sizes are shades of gray and black. The eye is relatively poor at discriminating different shades of gray. It is very good at discriminating different colors. In order to compensate for the low retardation, a compensator is added to the light train between the polarization elements. The compensator used for this test is a gypsum plate of known thickness and birefringence. Such a compensator when oriented at 45° to the polarizer direction, provides a retardation of 530 nm of the 530 nm wavelength color. This enhances the red color and gives the background a characteristic red to red-magenta color. If this “full-wave” compensator is in place when the asbestos preparation is inserted into the light train, the colors seen on the fibers are quite different. Gypsum, like asbestos has a fast axis and a slow axis. When a fiber is aligned with its fast axis in the same direction as the fast axis of the gypsum plate, the ray vibrating in the slow direction is retarded by both the asbestos and the gypsum. This results in a higher retardation than would be present for either of the two minerals. The color seen is a second order blue. When the fiber is rotated 90° using the rotating stage, the slow direction of the fiber is now aligned with the fast direction of the gypsum and the fast direction of the fiber is aligned with the slow direction of the gypsum. Thus, one ray vibrates faster in the fast direction of the gypsum, and slower in the slow direction of the fiber; the other ray will vibrate slower in the slow direction of the gypsum and faster in the fast direction of the fiber. In this case, the effect is subtractive and the color seen is a first order yellow. As long as the fiber thickness does not add appreciably to the color, the same basic colors will be seen for all asbestos types except crocidolite. In crocidolite the colors will be weaker, may be in the opposite directions, and will be altered by the blue absorption color natural to crocidolite. Hundreds of other materials will give the same colors as asbestos, and therefore, this test is not definitive for asbestos. The test is useful in discriminating against fiberglass or other amorphous fibers such as some synthetic fibers. Certain synthetic fibers will show retardation colors different than asbestos; however, there are some forms of polyethylene and aramid which will show morphology and retardation colors similar to asbestos minerals. This test must be supplemented with a positive identification test when birefringent fibers are present which can not be excluded by morphology. This test is relatively ineffective for use on fibers less than 1 µm in diameter. For positive confirmation TEM or SEM should be used if no larger bundles or fibers are visible.
</P>
<HD3>4.6. Dispersion Staining
</HD3>
<P>Dispersion microscopy or dispersion staining is the method of choice for the identification of asbestos in bulk materials. Becke line analysis is used by some laboratories and yields the same results as does dispersion staining for asbestos and can be used in lieu of dispersion staining. Dispersion staining is performed on the same platform as the phase-polar analysis with the analyzer and compensator removed. One polarizing element remains to define the direction of the light so that the different indices of refraction of the fibers may be separately determined. Dispersion microscopy is a dark-field technique when used for asbestos. Particles are imaged with scattered light. Light which is unscattered is blocked from reaching the eye either by the back field image mask in a McCrone objective or a back field image mask in the phase condenser. The most convenient method is to use the rotating phase condenser to move an oversized phase ring into place. The ideal size for this ring is for the central disk to be just larger than the objective entry aperture as viewed in the back focal plane. The larger the disk, the less scattered light reaches the eye. This will have the effect of diminishing the intensity of dispersion color and will shift the actual color seen. The colors seen vary even on microscopes from the same manufacturer. This is due to the different bands of wavelength exclusion by different mask sizes. The mask may either reside in the condenser or in the objective back focal plane. It is imperative that the analyst determine by experimentation with asbestos standards what the appropriate colors should be for each asbestos type. The colors depend also on the temperature of the preparation and the exact chemistry of the asbestos. Therefore, some slight differences from the standards should be allowed. This is not a serious problem for commercial asbestos uses. This technique is used for identification of the indices of refraction for fibers by recognition of color. There is no direct numerical readout of the index of refraction. Correlation of color to actual index of refraction is possible by referral to published conversion tables. This is not necessary for the analysis of asbestos. Recognition of appropriate colors along with the proper morphology are deemed sufficient to identify the commercial asbestos minerals. Other techniques including SEM, TEM, and XRD may be required to provide additional information in order to identify other types of asbestos.
</P>
<P>Make a preparation in the suspected matching high dispersion oil, e.g., n = 1.550 for chrysotile. Perform the preliminary tests to determine whether the fibers are birefringent or not. Take note of the morphological character. Wavy fibers are indicative of chrysotile while long, straight, thin, frayed fibers are indicative of amphibole asbestos. This can aid in the selection of the appropriate matching oil. The microscope is set up and the polarization direction is noted as in Section 4.4. Align a fiber with the polarization direction. Note the color. This is the color parallel to the polarizer. Then rotate the fiber rotating the stage 90° so that the polarization direction is across the fiber. This is the perpendicular position. Again note the color. Both colors must be consistent with standard asbestos minerals in the correct direction for a positive identification of asbestos. If only one of the colors is correct while the other is not, the identification is not positive. If the colors in both directions are bluish-white, the analyst has chosen a matching index oil which is higher than the correct matching oil, e.g. the analyst has used n = 1.620 where chrysotile is present. The next lower oil (Section 3.5.) should be used to prepare another specimen. If the color in both directions is yellow-white to straw-yellow-white, this indicates that the index of the oil is lower than the index of the fiber, e.g. the preparation is in n = 1.550 while anthophyllite is present. Select the next higher oil (Section 3.5.) and prepare another slide. Continue in this fashion until a positive identification of all asbestos species present has been made or all possible asbestos species have been ruled out by negative results in this test. Certain plant fibers can have similar dispersion colors as asbestos. Take care to note and evaluate the morphology of the fibers or remove the plant fibers in pre-preparation. Coating material on the fibers such as carbonate or vinyl may destroy the dispersion color. Usually, there will be some outcropping of fiber which will show the colors sufficient for identification. When this is not the case, treat the sample as described in Section 3.3. and then perform dispersion staining. Some samples will yield to Becke line analysis if they are coated or electron microscopy can be used for identification.
</P>
<HD2>5. References
</HD2>
<FP-1>5.1. Crane, D.T., <I>Asbestos in Air,</I> OSHA method ID160, Revised November 1992.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.2. Ford, W.E., <I>Dana's Textbook of Mineralogy;</I> Fourth Ed.; John Wiley and Son, New York, 1950, p. vii.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.3. Selikoff, I.J., Lee, D.H.K., <I>Asbestos and Disease,</I> Academic Press, New York, 1978, pp. 3,20.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.4. <I>Women Inspectors of Factories.</I> Annual Report for 1898, H.M. Statistical Office, London, p. 170 (1898).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.5. Selikoff,.I.J., Lee, D.H.K., <I>Asbestos and Disease,</I> Academic Press, New York, 1978, pp. 26,30.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.6. Campbell, W.J., et al, <I>Selected Silicate Minerals and Their Asbestiform Varieties,</I> United States Department of the Interior, Bureau of Mines, Information Circular 8751, 1977.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.7. <I>Asbestos,</I> Code of Federal Regulations, 29 CFR 1910.1001 and 29 CFR 1926.58.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.8. <I>National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants; Asbestos NESHAP Revision,</I> <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> Vol. 55, No. 224, 20 November 1990, p. 48410.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.9. Ross, M. <I>The Asbestos Minerals: Definitions, Description, Modes of Formation, Physical and Chemical Properties and Health Risk to the Mining Community,</I> Nation Bureau of Standards Special Publication, Washington, DC, 1977.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.10. Lilis, R., Fibrous Zeolites and Endemic Mesothelioma in Cappadocia, Turkey, <I>J. Occ Medicine,</I> 1981, 23,(8),548-550.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.11. <I>Occupational Exposure to Asbestos—1972,</I> U.S. Department of Health Education and Welfare, Public Health Service, Center for Disease Control, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, HSM-72-10267.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.12. Campbell,W.J., et al, Relationship of Mineral Habit to Size <I>Characteristics for Tremolite Fragments and Fibers,</I> United States Department of the Interior, Bureau of Mines, Information Circular 8367, 1979.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.13. Mefford, D., DCM Laboratory, Denver, private communication, July 1987.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.14. Deer, W.A., Howie, R.A., Zussman, J., <I>Rock Forming Minerals,</I> Longman, Thetford, UK, 1974.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.15. Kerr, P.F., <I>Optical Mineralogy;</I> Third Ed. McGraw-Hill, New York, 1959.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.16. Veblen, D.R. (Ed.), <I>Amphiboles and Other Hydrous Pyriboles—Mineralogy, Reviews in Mineralogy,</I> Vol 9A, Michigan, 1982, pp 1-102.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.17. Dixon, W.C., <I>Applications of Optical Microscopy in the Analysis of Asbestos</I> and Quartz, ACS Symposium Series, No. 120, Analytical Techniques in Occupational Health Chemistry, 1979.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.18. Polarized Light Microscopy, McCrone Research Institute, Chicago, 1976.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.19. Asbestos Identification, McCrone Research Institute, G &amp; G printers, Chicago, 1987.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.20. McCrone, W.C., Calculation of Refractive Indices from Dispersion Staining Data, The Microscope, No 37, Chicago, 1989.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.21. Levadie, B. (Ed.), <I>Asbestos and Other Health Related Silicates,</I> ASTM Technical Publication 834, ASTM, Philadelphia 1982.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.22. Steel, E. and Wylie, A., Riordan, P.H. (Ed.), Mineralogical Characteristics of Asbestos, <I>Geology of Asbestos Deposits,</I> pp. 93-101, SME-AIME, 1981.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5.23. Zussman, J., The Mineralogy of Asbestos, <I>Asbestos: Properties, Applications and Hazards,</I> pp. 45-67 Wiley, 1979.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22756, June 20, 1986]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 1926.1101, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1102   Coal tar pitch volatiles; interpretation of term.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1002 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1103   13 carcinogens (4-Nitrobiphenyl, etc.).</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1104   alpha-Naphthylamine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1105   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1106   Methyl chloromethyl ether.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1107   3,3′-Dichlorobenzidiene (and its salts).</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1108   bis-Chloromethyl ether.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1109   beta-Naphthylamine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1110   Benzidine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1111   4-Aminodiphenyl.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1112   Ethyleneimine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1113   beta-Propiolactone.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1114   2-Acetylaminofluorene.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1115   4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1116" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1116   N-Nitrosodimethylamine.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1003 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1117" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1117   Vinyl chloride.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1017 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1118" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1118   Inorganic arsenic.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1018 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31433, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1124" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1124   Beryllium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> (1) This standard applies to occupational exposure to beryllium in all forms, compounds, and mixtures in construction, except those articles and materials exempted by paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) This standard does not apply to articles, as defined in the Hazard Communication standard (HCS) (29 CFR 1910.1200(c)), that contain beryllium and that the employer does not process.
</P>
<P>(3) This standard does not apply to materials containing less than 0.1% beryllium by weight where the employer has objective data demonstrating that employee exposure to beryllium will remain below the action level as an 8-hour TWA under any foreseeable conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this standard:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne beryllium of 0.1 micrograms per cubic meter of air (µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Airborne exposure</I> and <I>airborne exposure to beryllium</I> mean the exposure to airborne beryllium that would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, United States Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test (BeLPT)</I> means the measurement of blood lymphocyte proliferation in a laboratory test when lymphocytes are challenged with a soluble beryllium salt.


</P>
<P><I>Beryllium sensitization</I> means a response in the immune system of a specific individual who has been exposed to beryllium. There are no associated physical or clinical symptoms and no illness or disability with beryllium sensitization alone, but the response that occurs through beryllium sensitization can enable the immune system to recognize and react to beryllium. While not every beryllium-sensitized person will develop chronic beryllium disease (CBD), beryllium sensitization is essential for development of CBD.






</P>
<P><I>CBD diagnostic center</I> means a medical diagnostic center that has a pulmonologist or pulmonary specialist on staff and on-site facilities to perform a clinical evaluation for the presence of chronic beryllium disease (CBD). The CBD diagnostic center must have the capacity to perform pulmonary function testing (as outlined by the American Thoracic Society criteria), bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), and transbronchial biopsy. The CBD diagnostic center must also have the capacity to transfer BAL samples to a laboratory for appropriate diagnostic testing within 24 hours. The pulmonologist or pulmonary specialist must be able to interpret the biopsy pathology and the BAL diagnostic test results.


</P>
<P><I>Chronic beryllium disease (CBD)</I> means a chronic granulomatous lung disease caused by inhalation of airborne beryllium by an individual who is beryllium-sensitized.




</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means an individual who is capable of identifying existing and foreseeable beryllium hazards in the workplace and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate or minimize them. The competent person must have the knowledge, ability, and authority necessary to fulfill the responsibilities set forth in paragraph (e) of this standard.


</P>
<P><I>Confirmed positive</I> means the person tested has had two abnormal BeLPT test results, an abnormal and a borderline test result, or three borderline test results from tests conducted within a 3-year period. It also means the result of a more reliable and accurate test indicating a person has been identified as having beryllium sensitization.




</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means information, such as air monitoring data from industry-wide surveys or calculations based on the composition of a substance, demonstrating airborne exposure to beryllium associated with a particular product or material or a specific process, task, or activity. The data must reflect workplace conditions closely resembling or with a higher airborne exposure potential than the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional (PLHCP)</I> means an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.,</I> license, registration, or certification) allows the individual to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the health care services required by paragraph (k) of this standard.
</P>
<P><I>This standard</I> means this beryllium standard, 29 CFR 1926.1124.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs)</I>—(1) <I>Time-weighted average (TWA) PEL.</I> The employer must ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of beryllium in excess of 0.2 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> calculated as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short-term exposure limit (STEL).</I> The employer must ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of beryllium in excess of 2.0 µg/m
<SU>3</SU> as determined over a sampling period of 15 minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure assessment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer must assess the airborne exposure of each employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be exposed to airborne beryllium in accordance with either the performance option in paragraph (d)(2) or the scheduled monitoring option in paragraph (d)(3) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Performance option.</I> The employer must assess the 8-hour TWA exposure and the 15-minute short-term exposure for each employee on the basis of any combination of air monitoring data and objective data sufficient to accurately characterize airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scheduled monitoring option.</I> (i) The employer must perform initial monitoring to assess the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of one or more personal breathing zone air samples that reflect the airborne exposure of employees on each shift, for each job classification, and in each work area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must perform initial monitoring to assess the short-term exposure from 15-minute personal breathing zone air samples measured in operations that are likely to produce airborne exposure above the STEL for each work shift, for each job classification, and in each work area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where several employees perform the same tasks on the same shift and in the same work area, the employer may sample a representative fraction of these employees in order to meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(3). In representative sampling, the employer must sample the employee(s) expected to have the highest airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iv) If initial monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is below the action level and at or below the STEL, the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose airborne exposure is represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(v) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is at or above the action level but at or below the TWA PEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vi) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is above the TWA PEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within three months of the most recent 8-hour TWA exposure monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where the most recent (non-initial) exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is below the action level, the employer must repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring until two consecutive measurements, taken 7 or more days apart, are below the action level, at which time the employer may discontinue 8-hour TWA exposure monitoring for those employees whose exposure is represented by such monitoring, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(viii) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that airborne exposure is above the STEL, the employer must repeat such monitoring within three months of the most recent short-term exposure monitoring until two consecutive measurements, taken 7 or more days apart, are below the STEL, at which time the employer may discontinue short-term exposure monitoring for those employees whose exposure is represented by such monitoring, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reassessment of exposure.</I> The employer must reassess airborne exposure whenever a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel, or work practices may reasonably be expected to result in new or additional airborne exposure at or above the action level or STEL, or when the employer has any reason to believe that new or additional airborne exposure at or above the action level or STEL has occurred.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Methods of sample analysis.</I> The employer must ensure that all air monitoring samples used to satisfy the monitoring requirements of paragraph (d) of this standard are evaluated by a laboratory that can measure beryllium to an accuracy of plus or minus 25 percent within a statistical confidence level of 95 percent for airborne concentrations at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee notification of assessment results.</I> (i) Within 15 working days after completing an exposure assessment in accordance with paragraph (d) of this standard, the employer must notify each employee whose airborne exposure is represented by the assessment of the results of that assessment individually in writing or post the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to each of these employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever an exposure assessment indicates that airborne exposure is above the TWA PEL or STEL, the employer must describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce airborne exposure to or below the exposure limit(s) exceeded where feasible corrective action exists but had not been implemented when the monitoring was conducted.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) The employer must provide an opportunity to observe any exposure monitoring required by this standard to each employee whose airborne exposure is measured or represented by the monitoring and each employee's representative(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of personal protective clothing or equipment (which may include respirators) is required, the employer must provide each observer with appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment at no cost to the observer.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that each observer follows all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Competent person.</I> Wherever employees are, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium at levels above the TWA PEL or STEL, the employer must designate a competent person to
</P>
<P>(1) Make frequent and regular inspections of job sites, materials, and equipment;
</P>
<P>(2) Implement the written exposure control plan under paragraph (f) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that all employees use respiratory protection in accordance with paragraph (g) of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that all employees use personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraph (h) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Written exposure control plan.</I> (i) The employer must establish, implement, and maintain a written exposure control plan, which must contain:


</P>
<P>(A) A list of operations and job titles reasonably expected to involve exposure to beryllium;




</P>
<P>(B) A list of engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection required by paragraph (f)(2) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(C) A list of personal protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (h) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(D) Procedures used to restrict access to work areas when airborne exposures are, or can reasonably be expected to be, above the TWA PEL or STEL, to minimize the number of employees exposed to airborne beryllium and their level of exposure, including exposures generated by other employers or sole proprietors;


</P>
<P>(E) Procedures used to ensure the integrity of each containment used to minimize exposures to employees outside the containment; and


</P>
<P>(F) Procedures for removing, cleaning, and maintaining personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraph (h) of this standard.






</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must review and evaluate the effectiveness of each written exposure control plan at least annually and update it, as necessary, when:
</P>
<P>(A) Any change in production processes, materials, equipment, personnel, work practices, or control methods results, or can reasonably be expected to result, in new or additional airborne exposure to beryllium;


</P>
<P>(B) The employer is notified that an employee is eligible for medical removal in accordance with paragraph (l)(1) of this standard, referred for evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center, or shows signs or symptoms associated with exposure to beryllium; or




</P>
<P>(C) The employer has any reason to believe that new or additional airborne exposure is occurring or will occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must make a copy of the written exposure control plan accessible to each employee who is, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium in accordance with OSHA's Access to Employee Exposure and Medical Records (Records Access) standard (29 CFR 1910.1020(e)).


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> The employer must use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee airborne exposure to beryllium to or below the TWA PEL and STEL, unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever the employer demonstrates that it is not feasible to reduce airborne exposure to or below the PELs with engineering and work practice controls, the employer must implement and maintain engineering and work practice controls to reduce airborne exposure to the lowest levels feasible and supplement these controls by using respiratory protection in accordance with paragraph (g) of this standard.




</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibition of rotation.</I> The employer must not rotate employees to different jobs to achieve compliance with the PELs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer must provide respiratory protection at no cost to the employee and ensure that each employee uses respiratory protection:
</P>
<P>(i) During periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls where airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(ii) During operations, including maintenance and repair activities and non-routine tasks, when engineering and work practice controls are not feasible and airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL;


</P>
<P>(iii) During operations for which an employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work practice controls when such controls are not sufficient to reduce airborne exposure to or below the TWA PEL or STEL; and






</P>
<P>(iv) When an employee who is eligible for medical removal under paragraph (l)(1) chooses to remain in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level, as permitted by paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> Where this standard requires an employer to provide respiratory protection, the selection and use of such respiratory protection must be in accordance with the Respiratory Protection standard (29 CFR 1910.134).
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must provide at no cost to the employee a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) instead of a negative pressure respirator when:
</P>
<P>(i) Respiratory protection is required by this standard;
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee entitled to such respiratory protection requests a PAPR; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The PAPR provides adequate protection to the employee in accordance with paragraph (g)(2) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Personal protective clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where airborne exposure exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the TWA PEL or STEL, the employer must provide at no cost, and ensure that each employee uses, appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with the written exposure control plan required under paragraph (f)(1) of this standard and OSHA's Personal Protective and Life Saving Equipment standards for construction (subpart E of this part).




</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal of personal protective clothing and equipment.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that each employee removes all personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard at the end of the work shift or at the completion of all tasks involving beryllium, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard is not removed in a manner that disperses beryllium into the air, and is removed as specified in the written exposure control plan required by paragraph (f)(1) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that no employee with reasonably expected exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL removes personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard from the workplace unless it has been cleaned in accordance with paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this standard.






</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that all reusable personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard is cleaned, laundered, repaired, and replaced as needed to maintain its effectiveness.


</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that beryllium is not removed from personal protective clothing and equipment required by this standard by blowing, shaking, or any other means that disperses beryllium into the air.








</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved] 






</P>
<P>(j) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) When cleaning up dust resulting from operations that cause, or can reasonably be expected to cause, airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL, the employer must ensure the use of methods that minimize the likelihood and level of airborne exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must not allow dry sweeping or brushing for cleaning up dust resulting from operations that cause, or can reasonably be expected to cause, airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL unless methods that minimize the likelihood and level of airborne exposure are not safe or effective.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must not allow the use of compressed air for cleaning where the use of compressed air causes, or can reasonably be expected to cause, airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL.
</P>
<P>(4) Where employees use dry sweeping, brushing, or compressed air to clean, the employer must provide, and ensure that each employee uses, respiratory protection and personal protective clothing and equipment in accordance with paragraphs (g) and (h) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(5) The employer must ensure that cleaning equipment is handled and maintained in a manner that minimizes the likelihood and level of airborne exposure and the re-entrainment of airborne beryllium in the workplace.




</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer must make medical surveillance required by this paragraph available at no cost to the employee, and at a reasonable time and place, to each employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Who is or is reasonably expected to be exposed at or above the action level for more than 30 days per year;


</P>
<P>(B) Who shows signs or symptoms of CBD or other beryllium-related health effects; or




</P>
<P>(C) Whose most recent written medical opinion required by paragraph (k)(6) or (k)(7) recommends periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this standard are performed by, or under the direction of, a licensed physician.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer must provide a medical examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days after determining that:
</P>
<P>(A) An employee meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(A), unless the employee has received a medical examination, provided in accordance with this standard, within the last two years; or


</P>
<P>(B) An employee meets the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(B) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least every two years thereafter for each employee who continues to meet the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i)(A), (B), or (C) of this standard.




</P>
<P>(iii) At the termination of employment for each employee who meets any of the criteria of paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this standard at the time the employee's employment terminates, unless an examination has been provided in accordance with this standard during the six months prior to the date of termination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of examination.</I> (i) The employer must ensure that the PLHCP conducting the examination advises the employee of the risks and benefits of participating in the medical surveillance program and the employee's right to opt out of any or all parts of the medical examination.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that the employee is offered a medical examination that includes:


</P>
<P>(A) A medical and work history, with emphasis on past and present exposure to beryllium, smoking history, and any history of respiratory system dysfunction;




</P>
<P>(B) A physical examination with emphasis on the respiratory system;
</P>
<P>(C) A physical examination for skin rashes;
</P>
<P>(D) Pulmonary function tests, performed in accordance with the guidelines established by the American Thoracic Society including forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>);
</P>
<P>(E) A standardized BeLPT or equivalent test, upon the first examination and at least every two years thereafter, unless the employee is confirmed positive. If the results of the BeLPT are other than normal, a follow-up BeLPT must be offered within 30 days, unless the employee has been confirmed positive. Samples must be analyzed in a laboratory certified under the College of American Pathologists/Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) guidelines to perform the BeLPT.
</P>
<P>(F) A low dose computed tomography (LDCT) scan, when recommended by the PLHCP after considering the employee's history of exposure to beryllium along with other risk factors, such as smoking history, family medical history, sex, age, and presence of existing lung disease; and
</P>
<P>(G) Any other test deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the PLHCP.</I> The employer must ensure that the examining PLHCP (and the agreed-upon CBD diagnostic center, if an evaluation is required under paragraph (k)(7) of this standard) has a copy of this standard and must provide the following information, if known:


</P>
<P>(i) A description of the employee's former and current duties that relate to the employee's exposure to beryllium;




</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's former and current levels of airborne exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators, used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used that personal protective clothing and equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee, currently within the control of the employer, after obtaining written consent from the employee.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Licensed physician's written medical report for the employee.</I> The employer must ensure that the employee receives a written medical report from the licensed physician within 45 days of the examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard) and that the PLHCP explains the results of the examination to the employee. The written medical report must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including the licensed physician's opinion as to whether the employee has:
</P>
<P>(A) Any detected medical condition, such as CBD or beryllium sensitization (<I>i.e.,</I> the employee is confirmed positive, as defined in paragraph (b) of this standard), that may place the employee at increased risk from further airborne exposure, and
</P>
<P>(B) Any medical conditions related to airborne exposure that require further evaluation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommendations on:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee's use of respirators, protective clothing, or equipment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Limitations on the employee's airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD or if the licensed physician otherwise deems it appropriate, the written report must also contain a referral for an evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD the written report must also contain a recommendation for continued periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(v) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD the written report must also contain a recommendation for medical removal from airborne exposure to beryllium, as described in paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Licensed physician's written medical opinion for the employer.</I> (i) The employer must obtain a written medical opinion from the licensed physician within 45 days of the medical examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard). The written medical opinion must contain only the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the examination;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the examination has met the requirements of this standard;
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators, protective clothing, or equipment; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the PLHCP has explained the results of the medical examination to the employee, including any tests conducted, any medical conditions related to airborne exposure that require further evaluation or treatment, and any special provisions for use of personal protective clothing or equipment;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain any recommended limitations on the employee's airborne exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD or if the licensed physician otherwise deems it appropriate, and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a referral for an evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a recommendation for continued periodic medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(v) If the employee is confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD and the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain a recommendation for medical removal from airborne exposure to beryllium, as described in paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer must ensure that each employee receives a copy of the written medical opinion described in paragraph (k)(6) of this standard within 45 days of any medical examination (including any follow-up BeLPT required under paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(E) of this standard) performed for that employee.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>CBD diagnostic center.</I> (i) The employer must provide an evaluation at no cost to the employee at a CBD diagnostic center that is mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee. The evaluation at the CBD diagnostic center must be scheduled within 30 days, and must occur within a reasonable time, of:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer's receipt of a physician's written medical opinion to the employer that recommends referral to a CBD diagnostic center; or
</P>
<P>(B) The employee presenting to the employer a physician's written medical report indicating that the employee has been confirmed positive or diagnosed with CBD, or recommending referral to a CBD diagnostic center.






</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that, as part of the evaluation, the employee is offered any tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician at the CBD diagnostic center, such as pulmonary function testing (as outlined by the American Thoracic Society criteria), bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), and transbronchial biopsy. If any of the tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician are not available at the CBD diagnostic center, they may be performed at another location that is mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee.










</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that the employee receives a written medical report from the CBD diagnostic center that contains all the information required in paragraphs (k)(5)(i), (ii), (iv), and (v) of this standard and that the PLHCP explains the results of the examination to the employee within 30 days of the examination.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer must obtain a written medical opinion from the CBD diagnostic center within 30 days of the medical examination. The written medical opinion must contain only the information in paragraph (k)(6)(i) of this standard, as applicable, unless the employee provides written authorization to release additional information. If the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion must also contain the information from paragraphs (k)(6)(ii), (iv), and (v), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer must ensure that each employee receives a copy of the written medical opinion from the CBD diagnostic center described in paragraph (k)(7) of this standard within 30 days of any medical examination performed for that employee.
</P>
<P>(vi) After an employee has received the initial clinical evaluation at a CBD diagnostic center described in paragraph (k)(7)(i) of this standard, the employee may choose to have any subsequent medical examinations for which the employee is eligible under paragraph (k) of this standard performed at a CBD diagnostic center mutually agreed upon by the employer and the employee, and the employer must provide such examinations at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Medical removal.</I> (1) An employee is eligible for medical removal, if the employee works in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level and either:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee provides the employer with:
</P>
<P>(A) A written medical report indicating a confirmed positive finding or CBD diagnosis; or
</P>
<P>(B) A written medical report recommending removal from airborne exposure to beryllium in accordance with paragraph (k)(5)(v) or (k)(7)(ii) of this standard; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer receives a written medical opinion recommending removal from airborne exposure to beryllium in accordance with paragraph (k)(6)(v) or (k)(7)(iii) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) If an employee is eligible for medical removal, the employer must provide the employee with the employee's choice of:
</P>
<P>(i) Removal as described in paragraph (l)(3) of this standard; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Remaining in a job with airborne exposure at or above the action level, provided that the employer provides, and ensures that the employee uses, respiratory protection that complies with paragraph (g) of this standard whenever airborne exposures are at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(3) If the employee chooses removal:
</P>
<P>(i) If a comparable job is available where airborne exposures to beryllium are below the action level, and the employee is qualified for that job or can be trained within one month, the employer must remove the employee to that job. The employer must maintain for six months from the time of removal the employee's base earnings, seniority, and other rights and benefits that existed at the time of removal.
</P>
<P>(ii) If comparable work is not available, the employer must maintain the employee's base earnings, seniority, and other rights and benefits that existed at the time of removal for six months or until such time that comparable work described in paragraph (l)(3)(i) becomes available, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed employee shall be reduced to the extent that the employee receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal from a publicly or employer-funded compensation program, or receives income from another employer made possible by virtue of the employee's removal.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Communication of hazards</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, and employers must comply with all requirements of the HCS (29 CFR 1910.1200) for beryllium.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employers must include beryllium in the hazard communication program established to comply with the HCS. Employers must ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of beryllium and to safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the requirements of the HCS (29 CFR 1910.1200) and paragraph (m)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) For each employee who has, or can reasonably be expected to have, airborne exposure to beryllium:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer must provide information and training in accordance with the HCS (29 CFR 1910.1200(h));
</P>
<P>(B) The employer must provide initial training to each employee by the time of initial assignment; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employer must repeat the training required under this standard annually for each employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that each employee who is, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium can demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the following:


</P>
<P>(A) The health hazards associated with exposure to beryllium, including the signs and symptoms of CBD;










</P>
<P>(B) The written exposure control plan, with emphasis on the specific nature of operations that could result in airborne exposure, especially airborne exposure above the TWA PEL or STEL;
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose, proper selection, fitting, proper use, and limitations of personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators;


</P>
<P>(D) Measures employees can take to protect themselves from exposure to beryllium;




</P>
<P>(E) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (k) of this standard including risks and benefits of each test to be offered;
</P>
<P>(F) The purpose and a description of the medical removal protection provided under paragraph (l) of this standard;
</P>
<P>(G) The contents of the standard; and
</P>
<P>(H) The employee's right of access to records under the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(iii) When a workplace change (such as modification of equipment, tasks, or procedures) results in new or increased airborne exposure that exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, either the TWA PEL or the STEL, the employer must provide additional training to those employees affected by the change in airborne exposure.


</P>
<P>(iv) The employer must make a copy of this standard and its appendices readily available at no cost to each employee and designated employee representative(s).




</P>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Air monitoring data.</I> (i) The employer must make and maintain a record of all exposure measurements taken to assess airborne exposure as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record must include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The task that is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) The sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) The number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) The type of personal protective clothing and equipment, including respirators, worn by monitored employees at the time of monitoring; and


</P>
<P>(F) The name and job classification of each employee represented by the monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.




</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) Where an employer uses objective data to satisfy the exposure assessment requirements under paragraph (d)(2) of this standard, the employer must make and maintain a record of the objective data relied upon.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record must include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The data relied upon;
</P>
<P>(B) The beryllium-containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(C) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the process, task, or activity on which the objective data were based; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the process, task, activity, material, or airborne exposure on which the objective data were based.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that objective data are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer must make and maintain a record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (k) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record must include the following information about each employee:


</P>
<P>(A) Name and job classification;




</P>
<P>(B) A copy of all licensed physicians' written medical opinions for each employee; and
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the PLHCP as required by paragraph (k)(4) of this standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer must ensure that medical records are maintained and made available in accordance with the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training.</I> (i) At the completion of any training required by this standard, the employer must prepare a record that indicates the name and job classification of each employee trained, the date the training was completed, and the topic of the training.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record must be maintained for three years after the completion of training.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Access to records.</I> Upon request, the employer must make all records maintained as a requirement of this standard available for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, each employee, and each employee's designated representative(s) in accordance the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfer of records.</I> The employer must comply with the requirements involving transfer of records set forth in the Records Access standard (29 CFR 1910.1020).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This standard shall become effective March 10, 2017.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance dates.</I> (i) All obligations contained in paragraph (c) of this standard commence and become enforceable on March 12, 2018; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All other obligations of this standard commence and become enforceable on September 30, 2020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 2751, Jan. 9, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 51400, Sept. 30, 2019; 85 FR 53997, Aug. 31, 2020; 86 FR 11120, Feb. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1126" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1126   Chromium (VI).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This standard applies to occupational exposures to chromium (VI) in all forms and compounds in construction, except:
</P>
<P>(2) Exposures that occur in the application of pesticides regulated by the Environmental Protection Agency or another Federal government agency (<I>e.g.</I>, the treatment of wood with preservatives);
</P>
<P>(3) Exposures to portland cement; or
</P>
<P>(4) Where the employer has objective data demonstrating that a material containing chromium or a specific process, operation, or activity involving chromium cannot release dusts, fumes, or mists of chromium (VI) in concentrations at or above 0.5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU> as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) under any expected conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne chromium (VI) of 2.5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (2.5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU>) calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Chromium (VI) [hexavalent chromium or Cr(VI)]</I> means chromium with a valence of positive six, in any form and in any compound.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence that results, or is likely to result, in an uncontrolled release of chromium (VI). If an incidental release of chromium (VI) can be controlled at the time of release by employees in the immediate release area, or by maintenance personnel, it is not an emergency.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means the exposure to airborne chromium (VI) that would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air [HEPA] filter</I> means a filter that is at least 99.97 percent efficient in removing mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter or larger.
</P>
<P><I>Historical monitoring data</I> means data from chromium (VI) monitoring conducted prior to May 30, 2006, obtained during work operations conducted under workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means information such as air monitoring data from industry-wide surveys or calculations based on the composition or chemical and physical properties of a substance demonstrating the employee exposure to chromium (VI) associated with a particular product or material or a specific process, operation, or activity. The data must reflect workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional [PLHCP]</I> is an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.</I>, license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the particular health care services required by paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this § 1926.1126 chromium (VI) standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limit (PEL).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of chromium (VI) in excess of 5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (5 µgm/m
<SU>3</SU>), calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure determination</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Each employer who has a workplace or work operation covered by this section shall determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee exposed to chromium (VI). This determination shall be made in accordance with either paragraph (d)(2) or paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scheduled monitoring option.</I> (i) The employer shall perform initial monitoring to determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of a sufficient number of personal breathing zone air samples to accurately characterize full shift exposure on each shift, for each job classification, in each work area. Where an employer does representative sampling instead of sampling all employees in order to meet this requirement, the employer shall sample the employee(s) expected to have the highest chromium (VI) exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) If initial monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iii) If monitoring reveals employee exposures to be at or above the action level, the employer shall perform periodic monitoring at least every six months.
</P>
<P>(iv) If monitoring reveals employee exposures to be above the PEL, the employer shall perform periodic monitoring at least every three months.
</P>
<P>(v) If periodic monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, and the result is confirmed by the result of another monitoring taken at least seven days later, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(vi) The employer shall perform additional monitoring when there has been any change in the production process, raw materials, equipment, personnel, work practices, or control methods that may result in new or additional exposures to chromium (VI), or when the employer has any reason to believe that new or additional exposures have occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Performance-oriented option.</I> The employer shall determine the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of any combination of air monitoring data, historical monitoring data, or objective data sufficient to accurately characterize employee exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee notification of determination results.</I> (i) Within 5 work days after making an exposure determination in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) or paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the employer shall individually notify each affected employee in writing of the results of that determination or post the results in an appropriate location accessible to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the exposure determination indicates that employee exposure is above the PEL, the employer shall describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> Where air monitoring is performed to comply with the requirements of this section, the employer shall use a method of monitoring and analysis that can measure chromium (VI) to within an accuracy of plus or minus 25 percent (±25%) and can produce accurate measurements to within a statistical confidence level of 95 percent for airborne concentrations at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (i) Where air monitoring is performed to comply with the requirements of this section, the employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with clothing and equipment and shall assure that the observer uses such clothing and equipment and complies with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> (i) Except as permitted in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, the employer shall use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to chromium (VI) to or below the PEL unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever feasible engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL, the employer shall use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest levels achievable, and shall supplement them by the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the employer can demonstrate that a process or task does not result in any employee exposure to chromium (VI) above the PEL for 30 or more days per year (12 consecutive months), the requirement to implement engineering and work practice controls to achieve the PEL does not apply to that process or task.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibition of rotation.</I> The employer shall not rotate employees to different jobs to achieve compliance with the PEL.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Where respiratory protection is required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respiratory protection is required during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls;
</P>
<P>(ii) Work operations, such as maintenance and repair activities, for which engineering and work practice controls are not feasible;
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations for which an employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work practice controls and such controls are not sufficient to reduce exposures to or below the PEL;
</P>
<P>(iv) Work operations where employees are exposed above the PEL for fewer than 30 days per year, and the employer has elected not to implement engineering and work practice controls to achieve the PEL; or
</P>
<P>(v) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> Where respirator use is required by this section, the employer shall institute a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134, which covers each employee required to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where a hazard is present or is likely to be present from skin or eye contact with chromium (VI), the employer shall provide appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment at no cost to employees, and shall ensure that employees use such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that employees remove all protective clothing and equipment contaminated with chromium (VI) at the end of the work shift or at the completion of their tasks involving chromium (VI) exposure, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that no employee removes chromium (VI)-contaminated protective clothing or equipment from the workplace, except for those employees whose job it is to launder, clean, maintain, or dispose of such clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) When contaminated protective clothing or equipment is removed for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal, the employer shall ensure that it is stored and transported in sealed, impermeable bags or other closed, impermeable containers.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that bags or containers of contaminated protective clothing or equipment that are removed from change rooms for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal shall be labeled in accordance with the requirements of the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1910.1200.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall clean, launder, repair and replace all protective clothing and equipment required by this section as needed to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of chromium (VI) from protective clothing and equipment by blowing, shaking, or any other means that disperses chromium (VI) into the air or onto an employee's body.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment contaminated with chromium (VI) of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to chromium (VI) and that the clothing and equipment should be laundered or cleaned in a manner that minimizes skin or eye contact with chromium (VI) and effectively prevents the release of airborne chromium (VI) in excess of the PEL.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hygiene areas and practices</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Where protective clothing and equipment is required, the employer shall provide change rooms in conformance with 29 CFR 1926.51 Where skin contact with chromium (VI) occurs, the employer shall provide washing facilities in conformance with 29 CFR 1926.51. Eating and drinking areas provided by the employer shall also be in conformance with § 1926.51.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall assure that change rooms are equipped with separate storage facilities for protective clothing and equipment and for street clothes, and that these facilities prevent cross-contamination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Washing facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall provide readily accessible washing facilities capable of removing chromium (VI) from the skin, and shall ensure that affected employees use these facilities when necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees who have skin contact with chromium (VI) wash their hands and faces at the end of the work shift and prior to eating, drinking, smoking, chewing tobacco or gum, applying cosmetics, or using the toilet.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eating and drinking areas.</I> (i) Whenever the employer allows employees to consume food or beverages at a worksite where chromium (VI) is present, the employer shall ensure that eating and drinking areas and surfaces are maintained as free as practicable of chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that employees do not enter eating and drinking areas with protective work clothing or equipment unless surface chromium (VI) has been removed from the clothing and equipment by methods that do not disperse chromium (VI) into the air or onto an employee's body.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall ensure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in areas where skin or eye contact with chromium (VI) occurs; or carry the products associated with these activities, or store such products in these areas.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make medical surveillance available at no cost to the employee, and at a reasonable time and place, for all employees:
</P>
<P>(A) Who are or may be occupationally exposed to chromium (VI) at or above the action level for 30 or more days a year;
</P>
<P>(B) Experiencing signs or symptoms of the adverse health effects associated with chromium (VI) exposure; or
</P>
<P>(C) Exposed in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this section are performed by or under the supervision of a PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The employer shall provide a medical examination:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days after initial assignment, unless the employee has received a chromium (VI) related medical examination that meets the requirements of this paragraph within the last twelve months;
</P>
<P>(ii) Annually;
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 30 days after a PLHCP's written medical opinion recommends an additional examination;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whenever an employee shows signs or symptoms of the adverse health effects associated with chromium (VI) exposure;
</P>
<P>(v) Within 30 days after exposure during an emergency which results in an uncontrolled release of chromium (VI); or
</P>
<P>(vi) At the termination of employment, unless the last examination that satisfied the requirements of paragraph (i) of this section was less than six months prior to the date of termination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of examination.</I> A medical examination consists of:
</P>
<P>(i) A medical and work history, with emphasis on: past, present, and anticipated future exposure to chromium (VI); any history of respiratory system dysfunction; any history of asthma, dermatitis, skin ulceration, or nasal septum perforation; and smoking status and history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical examination of the skin and respiratory tract; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any additional tests deemed appropriate by the examining PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the PLHCP.</I> The employer shall ensure that the examining PLHCP has a copy of this standard, and shall provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the affected employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used that equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the affected employee, currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>PLHCP's written medical opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written medical opinion from the PLHCP, within 30 days for each medical examination performed on each employee, which contains:
</P>
<P>(A) The PLHCP's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from further exposure to chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(B) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to chromium (VI) or upon the use of personal protective equipment such as respirators;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the PLHCP has explained to the employee the results of the medical examination, including any medical conditions related to chromium (VI) exposure that require further evaluation or treatment, and any special provisions for use of protective clothing or equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The PLHCP shall not reveal to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to chromium (VI).
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the PLHCP's written medical opinion to the examined employee within two weeks after receiving it.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Communication of chromium (VI) hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.</I> The employer shall include chromium (VI) in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of chromium and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of § 1910.1200 and paragraph (j)(2) of this section. The employer shall provide information on at least the following hazards: Cancer; eye irritation; and skin sensitization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that each employee can demonstrate knowledge of at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The contents of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make a copy of this section readily available without cost to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Air monitoring data.</I> (i) The employer shall maintain an accurate record of all air monitoring conducted to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The operation involving exposure to chromium (VI) that is being monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and the results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Type of personal protective equipment, such as respirators worn; and
</P>
<P>(F) Name and job classification of all employees represented by the monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historical monitoring data.</I> (i) Where the employer has relied on historical monitoring data to determine exposure to chromium (VI), the employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of the historical monitoring data relied upon.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include information that reflects the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The data were collected using methods that meet the accuracy requirements of paragraph (d)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The processes and work practices that were in use when the historical monitoring data were obtained are essentially the same as those to be used during the job for which exposure is being determined;
</P>
<P>(C) The characteristics of the chromium (VI) containing material being handled when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which exposure is being determined;
</P>
<P>(D) Environmental conditions prevailing when the historical monitoring data were obtained are the same as those on the job for which exposure is being determined; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the operations, materials, processing, or employee exposures covered by the exception.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that historical exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) The employer shall maintain an accurate record of all objective data relied upon to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The chromium containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol and results of testing, or analysis of the material for the release of chromium (VI);
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the process, operation, or activity and how the data support the determination; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the process, operation, activity, material, or employee exposures.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that objective data are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include the following information about the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the PLHCP's written opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the PLHCP as required by paragraph (i)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that medical records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Dates.</I> (1) For employers with 20 or more employees, all obligations of this section, except engineering controls required by paragraph (e) of this section, commence November 27, 2006.
</P>
<P>(2) For employers with 19 or fewer employees, all obligations of this section, except engineering controls required by paragraph (e) of this section, commence May 30, 2007.
</P>
<P>(3) For all employers, engineering controls required by paragraph (e) of this section shall be implemented no later than May 31, 2010.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 10382, Feb. 28, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 75589, Dec. 12, 2008; 75 FR 12686, Mar. 17, 2010; 77 FR 17895, Mar. 26, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1127" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1127   Cadmium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This standard applies to all occupational exposures to cadmium and cadmium compounds, in all forms, in all construction work where an employee may potentially be exposed to cadmium. Construction work is defined as work involving construction, alteration and/or repair, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Wrecking, demolition or salvage of structures where cadmium or materials containing cadmium are present;
</P>
<P>(2) Use of cadmium containing-paints and cutting, brazing, burning, grinding or welding on surfaces that were painted with cadmium-containing paints;
</P>
<P>(3) Construction, alteration, repair, maintenance, or renovation of structures, substrates, or portions thereof, that contain cadmium, or materials containing cadmium;
</P>
<P>(4) Cadmium welding; cutting and welding cadmium-plated steel; brazing or welding with cadmium alloys;
</P>
<P>(5) Installation of products containing cadmium;
</P>
<P>(6) Electrical grounding with cadmium welding, or electrical work using cadmium-coated conduit;
</P>
<P>(7) Maintaining or retrofitting cadmium-coated equipment;
</P>
<P>(8) Cadmium contamination/emergency cleanup; and
</P>
<P>(9) Transportation, disposal, storage, or containment of cadmium or materials containing cadmium on the site or location at which construction activities are performed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> (AL) is defined as an airborne concentration of cadmium of 2.5 micrograms per cubic meter of air (2.5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA).
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person authorized by the employer and required by work duties to be present in regulated areas or any person authorized by the OSH Act or regulations issued under it to be in regulated areas.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person,</I> in accordance with 29 CFR 1926.32(f), means a person designated by the employer to act on the employer's behalf who is capable of identifying existing and potential cadmium hazards in the workplace and the proper methods to control them in order to protect workers, and has the authority necessary to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate or control such hazards. The duties of a competent person include at least the following: Determining prior to the performance of work whether cadmium is present in the workplace; establishing, where necessary, regulated areas and assuring that access to and from those areas is limited to authorized employees; assuring the adequacy of any employee exposure monitoring required by this standard; assuring that all employees exposed to air cadmium levels above the PEL wear appropriate personal protective equipment and are trained in the use of appropriate methods of exposure control; assuring that proper hygiene facilities are provided and that workers are trained to use those facilities; and assuring that the engineering controls required by this standard are implemented, maintained in proper operating condition, and functioning properly.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> and similar language referring to the air cadmium level to which an employee is exposed means the exposure to airborne cadmium that would occur if the employee were not using respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Final medical determination</I> is the written medical opinion of the employee's health status by the examining physician under paragraphs (l)(3)-(12) of this section or, if multiple physician review under paragraph (l)(13) of this section or the alternative physician determination under paragraph (l)(14) of this section is invoked, it is the final, written medical finding, recommendation or determination that emerges from that process.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency Particulate Air [HEPA] filter</I> means a filter capable of trapping and retaining at least 99.97 percent of mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area demarcated by the employer where an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of cadmium exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed the permissible exposure limit (PEL).
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this cadmium standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL).</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of cadmium in excess of five micrograms per cubic meter of air (5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>), calculated as an eight-hour time-weighted average exposure (TWA).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure Monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Prior to the performance of any construction work where employees may be potentially exposed to cadmium, the employer shall establish the applicability of this standard by determining whether cadmium is present in the workplace and whether there is the possibility that employee exposures will be at or above the action level. The employer shall designate a competent person who shall make this determination. Investigation and material testing techniques shall be used, as appropriate, in the determination. Investigation shall include a review of relevant plans, past reports, Safety Data Sheets (SDS), and other available records, and consultations with the property owner and discussions with appropriate individuals and agencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where cadmium has been determined to be present in the workplace, and it has been determined that there is a possibility the employee's exposure will be at or above the action level, the competent person shall identify employees potentially exposed to cadmium at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determinations of employee exposure shall be made from breathing-zone air samples that reflect the monitored employee's regular, daily 8-hour TWA exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>(iv) Eight-hour TWA exposures shall be determined for each employee on the basis of one or more personal breathing-zone air samples reflecting full shift exposure on each shift, for each job classification, in each work area. Where several employees perform the same job tasks, in the same job classification, on the same shift, in the same work area, and the length, duration, and level of cadmium exposures are similar, an employer may sample a representative fraction of the employees instead of all employees in order to meet this requirement. In representative sampling, the employer shall sample the employee(s) expected to have the highest cadmium exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific.</I> (i) Initial monitoring. Except as provided for in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, where a determination conducted under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section shows the possibility of employee exposure to cadmium at or above the action level, the employer shall conduct exposure monitoring as soon as practicable that is representative of the exposure for each employee in the workplace who is or may be exposed to cadmium at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, if the employee periodically performs tasks that may expose the employee to a higher concentration of airborne cadmium, the employee shall be monitored while performing those tasks.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the employer has objective data, as defined in paragraph (n)(2) of this section, demonstrating that employee exposure to cadmium will not exceed airborne concentrations at or above the action level under the expected conditions of processing, use, or handling, the employer may rely upon such data instead of implementing initial monitoring.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where a determination conducted under paragraphs (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section is made that a potentially exposed employee is not exposed to airborne concentrations of cadmium at or above the action level, the employer shall make a written record of such determination. The record shall include at least the monitoring data developed under paragraphs (d)(2)(i)-(iii) of this section, where applicable, and shall also include the date of determination, and the name of each employee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Monitoring frequency (periodic monitoring).</I> (i) If the initial monitoring or periodic monitoring reveals employee exposures to be at or above the action level, the employer shall monitor at a frequency and pattern needed to assure that the monitoring results reflect with reasonable accuracy the employee's typical exposure levels, given the variability in the tasks performed, work practices, and environmental conditions on the job site, and to assure the adequacy of respiratory selection and the effectiveness of engineering and work practice controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the initial monitoring or the periodic monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level and that result is confirmed by the results of another monitoring taken at least seven days later, the employer may discontinue the monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> The employer also shall institute the exposure monitoring required under paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (d)(3) of this section whenever there has been a change in the raw materials, equipment, personnel, work practices, or finished products that may result in additional employees being exposed to cadmium at or above the action level or in employees already exposed to cadmium at or above the action level being exposed above the PEL, or whenever the employer or competent person has any reason to suspect that any other change might result in such further exposure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification of monitoring results.</I> (i) The employer must, as soon as possible but no later than 5 working days after the receipt of the results of any monitoring performed under this section, notify each affected employee of these results either individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wherever monitoring results indicate that employee exposure exceeds the PEL, the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that the PEL has been exceeded and a description of the corrective action being taken by the employer to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> The employer shall use a method of monitoring and analysis that has an accuracy of not less than plus or minus 25 percent (±25%), with a confidence level of 95 percent, for airborne concentrations of cadmium at or above the action level and the permissible exposure limit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Regulated areas</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> The employer shall establish a regulated area wherever an employee's exposure to airborne concentrations of cadmium is, or can reasonably be expected to be in excess of the permissible exposure limit (PEL).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demarcation.</I> Regulated areas shall be demarcated from the rest of the workplace in any manner that adequately establishes and alerts employees of the boundaries of the regulated area, including employees who are or may be incidentally in the regulated areas, and that protects persons outside the area from exposure to airborne concentrations of cadmium in excess of the PEL.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access.</I> Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision of respirators.</I> Each person entering a regulated area shall be supplied with and required to use a respirator, selected in accordance with paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> The employer shall assure that employees do not eat, drink, smoke, chew tobacco or gum, or apply cosmetics in regulated areas, or carry the products associated with any of these activities into regulated areas or store such products in those areas.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Compliance hierarchy.</I> (i) Except as specified in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, the employer shall implement engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to cadmium at or below the PEL, except to the extent that the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement to implement engineering controls to achieve the PEL does not apply where the employer demonstrates the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The employee is only intermittently exposed; and
</P>
<P>(B) The employee is not exposed above the PEL on 30 or more days per year (12 consecutive months).
</P>
<P>(iii) Wherever engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL, the employer nonetheless shall implement such controls to reduce exposures to the lowest levels achievable. The employer shall supplement such controls with respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section and the PEL.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall not use employee rotation as a method of compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific operations</I>—(i) <I>Abrasive blasting.</I> Abrasive blasting on cadmium or cadmium-containing materials shall be conducted in a manner that will provide adequate protection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Heating cadmium and cadmium-containing materials.</I> Welding, cutting, and other forms of heating of cadmium or cadmium-containing materials shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.353 and 29 CFR 1926.354, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibitions.</I> (i) High speed abrasive disc saws and similar abrasive power equipment shall not be used for work on cadmium or cadmium-containing materials unless they are equipped with appropriate engineering controls to minimize emissions, if the exposure levels are above the PEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) Materials containing cadmium shall not be applied by spray methods, if exposures are above the PEL, unless employees are protected with supplied-air respirators with full facepiece, hood, helmet, suit, operated in positive pressure mode and measures are instituted to limit overspray and prevent contamination of adjacent areas.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mechanical ventilation.</I> (i) When ventilation is used to control exposure, measurements that demonstrate the effectiveness of the system in controlling exposure, such as capture velocity, duct velocity, or static pressure shall be made as necessary to maintain its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) Measurements of the system's effectiveness in controlling exposure shall be made as necessary within five working days of any change in production, process, or control that might result in a significant increase in employee exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>(iii) Recirculation of air. If air from exhaust ventilation is recirculated into the workplace, the system shall have a high efficiency filter and be monitored to assure effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures shall be developed and implemented to minimize employee exposure to cadmium when maintenance of ventilation systems and changing of filters is being conducted.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Where employee exposure to cadmium exceeds the PEL and the employer is required under paragraph (f)(1) of this section to implement controls to comply with the PEL, prior to the commencement of the job the employer shall establish and implement a written compliance program to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL. To the extent that engineering and work practice controls cannot reduce exposures to or below the PEL, the employer shall include in the written compliance program the use of appropriate respiratory protection to achieve compliance with the PEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) Written compliance programs shall be reviewed and updated as often and as promptly as necessary to reflect significant changes in the employer's compliance status or significant changes in the lowest air cadmium level that is technologically feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) A competent person shall review the comprehensive compliance program initially and after each change.
</P>
<P>(iv) Written compliance programs shall be provided upon request for examination and copying to the Assistant Secretary, the Director, affected employees, and designated employee representatives.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Respirator protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees who use respirators required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph. Respirators must be used during:
</P>
<P>(i) Periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work-practice controls when employee exposures exceed the PEL.
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintenance and repair activities, and brief or intermittent work operations, for which employee exposures exceed the PEL and engineering and work-practice controls are not feasible or are not required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Work operations in the regulated areas specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Work operations for which the employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work-practice controls, and such controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposures to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(v) Work operations for which an employee, who is exposed to cadmium at or above the action level, requests a respirator.
</P>
<P>(vi) Work operations for which engineering controls are not required by paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section to reduce employee exposures that exceed the PEL.
</P>
<P>(vii) Emergencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer must implement a respiratory protection program in accordance with § 1910.134 (b) through (d) (except (d)(1)(iii)), and (f) through (m), which covers each employee required by this section to use a respirator.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employee exhibits breathing difficulty during fit testing or respirator use, the employer must provide the employee with a medical examination in accordance with paragraph (l)(6)(ii) of this section to determine if the employee can use a respirator while performing the required duties.
</P>
<P>(iii) No employee must use a respirator when, based on their most recent medical examination, the examining physician determines that the employee will be unable to continue to function normally while using a respirator. If the physician determines the employee must be limited in, or removed from, their current job because of the employee's inability to use a respirator, the job limitation or removal must be conducted in accordance with paragraphs (l) (11) and (12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Employers must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select, and provide to employees, the appropriate respirators specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide employees with full facepiece respirators when they experience eye irritation.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide HEPA filters for powered and non-powered air-purifying respirators. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must provide a powered air-purifying respirator instead of a negative-pressure respirator when an employee entitled to a respirator chooses to use this type of respirator and such a respirator will provide adequate protection to the employee.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Emergency situations.</I> The employer shall develop and implement a written plan for dealing with emergency situations involving substantial releases of airborne cadmium. The plan shall include provisions for the use of appropriate respirators and personal protective equipment. In addition, employees not essential to correcting the emergency situation shall be restricted from the area and normal operations halted in that area until the emergency is abated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protective work clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> If an employee is exposed to airborne cadmium above the PEL or where skin or eye irritation is associated with cadmium exposure at any level, the employer shall provide at no cost to the employee, and assure that the employee uses, appropriate protective work clothing and equipment that prevents contamination of the employee and the employee's garments. Protective work clothing and equipment includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Coveralls or similar full-body work clothing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gloves, head coverings, and boots or foot coverings; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Face shields, vented goggles, or other appropriate protective equipment that complies with 29 CFR 1910.133.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal and storage.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees remove all protective clothing and equipment contaminated with cadmium at the completion of the work shift and do so only in change rooms provided in accordance with paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that no employee takes cadmium-contaminated protective clothing or equipment from the workplace, except for employees authorized to do so for purposes of laundering, cleaning, maintaining, or disposing of cadmium-contaminated protective clothing and equipment at an appropriate location or facility away from the workplace.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that contaminated protective clothing and equipment, when removed for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal, is placed and stored in sealed, impermeable bags or other closed, impermeable containers that are designed to prevent dispersion of cadmium dust.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall ensure that containers of contaminated protective clothing and equipment that are to be taken out of the change rooms or the workplace for laundering, cleaning, maintenance or disposal shall bear labels in accordance with paragraph (m)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleaning, replacement, and disposal.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the protective clothing and equipment required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section in a clean and dry condition as often as necessary to maintain its effectiveness, but in any event at least weekly. The employer is responsible for cleaning and laundering the protective clothing and equipment required by this paragraph to maintain its effectiveness and is also responsible for disposing of such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer also is responsible for repairing or replacing required protective clothing and equipment as needed to maintain its effectiveness. When rips or tears are detected while an employee is working they shall be immediately mended, or the worksuit shall be immediately replaced.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall prohibit the removal of cadmium from protective clothing and equipment by blowing, shaking, or any other means that disperses cadmium into the air.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall assure that any laundering of contaminated clothing or cleaning of contaminated equipment in the workplace is done in a manner that prevents the release of airborne cadmium in excess of the permissible exposure limit prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall inform any person who launders or cleans protective clothing or equipment contaminated with cadmium of the potentially harmful effects of exposure to cadmium, and that the clothing and equipment should be laundered or cleaned in a manner to effectively prevent the release of airborne cadmium in excess of the PEL.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hygiene areas and practices</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For employees whose airborne exposure to cadmium is above the PEL, the employer shall provide clean change rooms, handwashing facilities, showers, and lunchroom facilities that comply with 29 CFR 1926.51.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall assure that change rooms are equipped with separate storage facilities for street clothes and for protective clothing and equipment, which are designed to prevent dispersion of cadmium and contamination of the employee's street clothes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Showers and handwashing facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that employees whose airborne exposure to cadmium is above the PEL shower during the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that employees who are exposed to cadmium above the PEL wash their hands and faces prior to eating, drinking, smoking, chewing tobacco or gum, or applying cosmetics.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lunchroom facilities.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that the lunchroom facilities are readily accessible to employees, that tables for eating are maintained free of cadmium, and that no employee in a lunchroom facility is exposed at any time to cadmium at or above a concentration of 2.5 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that employees do not enter lunchroom facilities with protective work clothing or equipment unless surface cadmium has been removed from the clothing and equipment by HEPA vacuuming or some other method that removes cadmium dust without dispersing it.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) All surfaces shall be maintained as free as practicable of accumulations of cadmium.
</P>
<P>(2) All spills and sudden releases of material containing cadmium shall be cleaned up as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(3) Surfaces contaminated with cadmium shall, wherever possible, be cleaned by vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of cadmium becoming airborne.
</P>
<P>(4) HEPA-filtered vacuuming equipment or equally effective filtration methods shall be used for vacuuming. The equipment shall be used and emptied in a manner that minimizes the reentry of cadmium into the workplace.
</P>
<P>(5) Shoveling, dry or wet sweeping, and brushing may be used only where vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of cadmium becoming airborne have been tried and found not to be effective.
</P>
<P>(6) Compressed air shall not be used to remove cadmium from any surface unless the compressed air is used in conjunction with a ventilation system designed to capture the dust cloud created by the compressed air.
</P>
<P>(7) Waste, scrap, debris, bags, and containers, personal protective equipment and clothing contaminated with cadmium and consigned for disposal shall be collected and disposed of in sealed impermeable bags or other closed, impermeable containers. These bags and containers shall be labeled in accordance with paragraph (m)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Medical Surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>Scope</I>—(A) <I>Currently exposed</I>—The employer shall institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who are or may be exposed at or above the action level and all employees who perform the following tasks, operations or jobs: Electrical grounding with cadmium welding; cutting, brazing, burning, grinding or welding on surfaces that were painted with cadmium-containing paints; electrical work using cadmium-coated conduit; use of cadmium containing paints; cutting and welding cadmium-plated steel; brazing or welding with cadmium alloys; fusing of reinforced steel by cadmium welding; maintaining or retrofitting cadmium-coated equipment; and, wrecking and demolition where cadmium is present. A medical surveillance program will not be required if the employer demonstrates that the employee:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is not currently exposed by the employer to airborne concentrations of cadmium at or above the action level on 30 or more days per year (twelve consecutive months); and,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is not currently exposed by the employer in those tasks on 30 or more days per year (twelve consecutive months).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Previously exposed.</I> The employer shall also institute a medical surveillance program for all employees who might previously have been exposed to cadmium by the employer prior to the effective date of this standard in tasks specified under paragraph (l)(1)(i)(A) of this section, unless the employer demonstrates that the employee did not in the years prior to the effective date of this section work in those tasks for the employer with exposure to cadmium for an aggregated total of more than 12 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) To determine an employee's fitness for using a respirator, the employer shall provide the limited medical examination specified in paragraph (l)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this section are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, who has read and is familiar with the health effects section of appendix A to this section, the regulatory text of this section, the protocol for sample handling and lab selection in appendix F to this section, and the questionnaire of appendix D to this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall provide the medical surveillance required by this section, including multiple physician review under paragraph (l)(13) of this section without cost to employees, and at a time and place that is reasonable and convenient to employees.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall assure that the collecting and handling of biological samples of cadmium in urine (CdU), cadmium in blood (CdB), and beta-2 microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M) taken from employees under this section is done in a manner that assures their reliability and that analysis of biological samples of cadmium in urine (CdU), cadmium in blood (CdB), and beta-2 microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M) taken from employees under this section is performed in laboratories with demonstrated proficiency to perform the particular analysis. (See appendix F to this section.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial Examination.</I> (i) For employees covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, the employer shall provide an initial medical examination. The examination shall be provided to those employees within 30 days after initial assignment to a job with exposure to cadmium or no later than 90 days after the effective date of this section, whichever date is later.
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial medical examination shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed medical and work history, with emphasis on: Past, present, and anticipated future exposure to cadmium; any history of renal, cardiovascular, respiratory, hematopoietic, reproductive, and/or musculo-skeletal system dysfunction; current usage of medication with potential nephrotoxic side-effects; and smoking history and current status; and
</P>
<P>(B) Biological monitoring that includes the following tests:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cadmium in urine (CdU), standardized to grams of creatinine (g/Cr);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Beta-2 microglobulin in urine (β<E T="52">2</E>-M), standardized to grams of creatinine (g/Cr), with pH specified, as described in appendix F to this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Cadmium in blood (CdB), standardized to liters of whole blood (lwb).
</P>
<P>(iii) Recent Examination: An initial examination is not required to be provided if adequate records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section within the past 12 months. In that case, such records shall be maintained as part of the employee's medical record and the prior exam shall be treated as if it were an initial examination for the purposes of paragraphs (l)(3) and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Actions triggered by initial biological monitoring.</I> (i) If the results of the biological monitoring tests in the initial examination show the employee's CdU level to be at or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level to be at or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level to be at or below 5 µg/lwb, then:
</P>
<P>(A) For employees who are subject to medical surveillance under paragraphs (l)(1)(i)(A) of this section because of current or anticipated exposure to cadmium, the employer shall provide the minimum level of periodic medical surveillance in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (l)(4)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) For employees who are subject to medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i)(B) of this section because of prior but not current exposure, the employer shall provide biological monitoring for CdU, B<E T="52">2</E>-M, and CdB one year after the initial biological monitoring and then the employer shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For all employees who are subject to medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, if the results of the initial biological monitoring tests show the level of CdU to exceed 3 µg/g Cr, the level of β<E T="52">2</E>-M to be in excess of 300 µg/g Cr, or the level of CdB to be in excess of 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Within two weeks after receipt of biological monitoring results, reassess the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reassess the employee's work practices and personal hygiene;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Reevaluate the employee's respirator use, if any, and the respirator program;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Review the hygiene facilities;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Reevaluate the maintenance and effectiveness of the relevant engineering controls;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Assess the employee's smoking history and status;
</P>
<P>(B) Within 30 days after the exposure reassessment, specified in paragraph (l)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, take reasonable steps to correct any deficiencies found in the reassessment that may be responsible for the employee's excess exposure to cadmium; and,
</P>
<P>(C) Within 90 days after receipt of biological monitoring results, provide a full medical examination to the employee in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section. After completing the medical examination, the examining physician shall determine in a written medical opinion whether to medically remove the employee. If the physician determines that medical removal is not necessary, then until the employee's CdU level falls to or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level falls to or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level falls to or below 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Provide biological monitoring in accordance with paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section on a semiannual basis; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide annual medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For all employees who are subject to medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, if the results of the initial biological monitoring tests show the level of CdU to be in excess of 15 µg/g Cr, or the level of CdB to be in excess of 15 µg/lwb, or the level of β<E T="52">2</E>-M to be in excess of 1,500 µg/g Cr, the employer shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (l)(3)(ii)(A)-(B) of this section. Within 90 days after receipt of biological monitoring results, the employer shall provide a full medical examination to the employee in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section. After completing the medical examination, the examining physician shall determine in a written medical opinion whether to medically remove the employee. However, if the initial biological monitoring results and the biological monitoring results obtained during the medical examination both show that: CdU exceeds 15 µg/g Cr; or CdB exceeds 15 µg/lwb; or β<E T="52">2</E>-M exceeds 1500 µg/g Cr, and in addition CdU exceeds 3 µg/g Cr or CdB exceeds 5 µg/liter of whole blood, then the physician shall medically remove the employee from exposure to cadmium at or above the action level. If the second set of biological monitoring results obtained during the medical examination does not show that a mandatory removal trigger level has been exceeded, then the employee is not required to be removed by the mandatory provisions of this paragraph. If the employee is not required to be removed by the mandatory provisions of this paragraph or by the physician's determination, then until the employee's CdU level falls to or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level falls to or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level falls to or below 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Periodically reassess the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide biological monitoring in accordance with paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section on a quarterly basis; and
</P>
<P>(C) Provide semiannual medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For all employees to whom medical surveillance is provided, beginning on January 1, 1999, and in lieu of paragraph (l)(3)(iii) of this section, whenever the results of initial biological monitoring tests show the employee's CdU level to be in excess of 7 µg/g Cr, or β<E T="52">2</E>-M level to be in excess of 750 µg/g Cr, or CdB level to be in excess of 10 µg/lwb, the employer shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (l)(3)(ii)(A)-(B) of this section. Within 90 days after receipt of biological monitoring results, the employer shall provide a full medical examination to the employee in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section. After completing the medical examination, the examining physician shall determine in a written medical opinion whether to medically remove the employee. However, if the initial biological monitoring results and the biological monitoring results obtained during the medical examination both show that: CdU exceeds 7 µg/g Cr; or CdB exceeds 10 µg/lwb; or β<E T="52">2</E>-M exceeds 750 µg/g Cr, and in addition CdU exceeds 3 µg/g Cr or CdB exceeds 5 µg/liter of whole blood, then the physician shall medically remove the employee from exposure to cadmium at or above the action level. If the second set of biological monitoring results obtained during the medical examination does not show that a mandatory removal trigger level has been exceeded, then the employee is not required to be removed by the mandatory provisions of this paragraph. If the employee is not required to be removed by the mandatory provisions of this paragraph or by the physician's determination, then until the employee's CdU level falls to or below 3 µg/g Cr, β<E T="52">2</E>-M level falls to or below 300 µg/g Cr and CdB level falls to or below 5 µg/lwb, the employer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Periodically reassess the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide biological monitoring in accordance with paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section on a quarterly basis; and
</P>
<P>(C) Provide semiannual medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periodic medical surveillance.</I> (i) For each employee who is covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i)(A) of this section because of current or anticipated exposure to cadmium, the employer shall provide at least the minimum level of periodic medical surveillance, which consists of periodic medical examinations and periodic biological monitoring. A periodic medical examination shall be provided within one year after the initial examination required by paragraph (l)(2) of this section and thereafter at least biennially. Biological sampling shall be provided at least annually either as part of a periodic medical examination or separately as periodic biological monitoring.
</P>
<P>(ii) The periodic medical examination shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed medical and work history, or update thereof, with emphasis on: Past, present and anticipated future exposure to cadmium; smoking history and current status; reproductive history; current use of medications with potential nephrotoxic side-effects; any history of renal, cardiovascular, respiratory, hematopoietic, and/or musculo-skeletal system dysfunction; and as part of the medical and work history, for employees who wear respirators, questions 3-11 and 25-32 in appendix D to this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A complete physical examination with emphasis on: blood pressure, the respiratory system, and the urinary system;
</P>
<P>(C) A 14 inch by 17 inch or other reasonably-sized standard film or digital posterior-anterior chest X-ray (after the initial X-ray, the frequency of chest X-rays is to be determined by the examining physician);
</P>
<P>(D) Pulmonary function tests, including forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV1);
</P>
<P>(E) Biological monitoring, as required in paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Blood analysis, in addition to the analysis required under paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, including blood urea nitrogen, complete blood count, and serum creatinine;
</P>
<P>(G) Urinalysis, in addition to the analysis required under paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, including the determination of albumin, glucose, and total and low molecular weight proteins;
</P>
<P>(H) For males over 40 years old, prostate palpation, or other at least as effective diagnostic test(s), and;
</P>
<P>(I) Any additional tests or procedures deemed appropriate by the examining physician.
</P>
<P>(iii) Periodic biological monitoring shall be provided in accordance with paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the results of periodic biological monitoring or the results of biological monitoring performed as part of the periodic medical examination show the level of the employee's CdU, β<E T="52">2</E>-M, or CdB to be in excess of the levels specified in paragraphs (l)(3)(ii) or (iii) of this section; or beginning on January 1, 1999, in excess of the levels specified in paragraphs (l)(3)(ii) or (iv), the employer shall take the appropriate actions specified in paragraphs (l)(3)(ii)-(iv) of this section, respectively.
</P>
<P>(v) For previously exposed employees under paragraph (l)(1)(i)(B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) If the employee's levels of CdU did not exceed 3 µg/g Cr, CdB did not exceed 5 µg/lwb, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M did not exceed 300 µg/g Cr in the initial biological monitoring tests, and if the results of the followup biological monitoring required by paragraph (l)(3)(i)(B) of this section one year after the initial examination confirm the previous results, the employer may discontinue all periodic medical surveillance for that employee.
</P>
<P>(B) If the initial biological monitoring results for CdU, CdB, or β<E T="52">2</E>-M were in excess of the levels specified in paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section, but subsequent biological monitoring results required by paragraph (l)(3)(ii)-(iv) of this section show that the employee's CdU levels no longer exceed 3 µg/g Cr, CdB levels no longer exceed 5 µg/lwb, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M levels no longer exceed 300 µg/g Cr, the employer shall provide biological monitoring for CdU, CdB, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M one year after these most recent biological monitoring results. If the results of the followup biological monitoring specified in this paragraph, confirm the previous results, the employer may discontinue all periodic medical surveillance for that employee.
</P>
<P>(C) However, if the results of the follow-up tests specified in paragraph (l)(4)(v)(A) or (B) of this section indicate that the level of the employee's CdU, β<E T="52">2</E>-M, or CdB exceeds these same levels, the employer is required to provide annual medical examinations in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section until the results of biological monitoring are consistently below these levels or the examining physician determines in a written medical opinion that further medical surveillance is not required to protect the employee's health.
</P>
<P>(vi) A routine, biennial medical examination is not required to be provided in accordance with paragraphs (l)(3)(i) and (l)(4) of this section if adequate medical records show that the employee has been examined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section within the past 12 months. In that case, such records shall be maintained by the employer as part of the employee's medical record, and the next routine, periodic medical examination shall be made available to the employee within two years of the previous examination.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Actions triggered by medical examinations.</I> (i) If the results of a medical examination carried out in accordance with this section indicate any laboratory or clinical finding consistent with cadmium toxicity that does not require employer action under paragraphs (l)(2), (3) or (4) of this section, the employer shall take the following steps and continue to take them until the physician determines that they are no longer necessary.
</P>
<P>(A) Periodically reassess: The employee's work practices and personal hygiene; the employee's respirator use, if any; the employee's smoking history and status; the respiratory protection program; the hygiene facilities; the maintenance and effectiveness of the relevant engineering controls; and take all reasonable steps to correct the deficiencies found in the reassessment that may be responsible for the employee's excess exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide semi-annual medical reexaminations to evaluate the abnormal clinical sign(s) of cadmium toxicity until the results are normal or the employee is medically removed; and
</P>
<P>(C) Where the results of tests for total proteins in urine are abnormal, provide a more detailed medical evaluation of the toxic effects of cadmium on the employee's renal system.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Examination for respirator use.</I> (i) To determine an employee's fitness for respirator use, the employer shall provide a medical examination that includes the elements specified in paragraph (l)(6)(i)(A)-(D) of this section. This examination shall be provided prior to the employee's being assigned to a job that requires the use of a respirator or no later than 90 days after this section goes into effect, whichever date is later, to any employee without a medical examination within the preceding 12 months that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed medical and work history, or update thereof, with emphasis on: past exposure to cadmium; smoking history and current status; any history of renal, cardiovascular, respiratory, hematopoietic, and/or musculo-skeletal system dysfunction; a description of the job for which the respirator is required; and questions 3-11 and 25-32 in appendix D;
</P>
<P>(B) A blood pressure test;
</P>
<P>(C) Biological monitoring of the employee's levels of CdU, CdB and β<E T="52">2</E>-M in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, unless such results already have been obtained within the twelve months; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any other test or precedure that the examining physician deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) After reviewing all the information obtained from the medical examination required in paragraph (l)(6)(i) of this section, the physician shall determine whether the employee is fit to wear a respirator.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever an employee has exhibited difficulty in breathing during a respirator fit test or during use of a respirator, the employer, as soon as possible, shall provide the employee with a periodic medical examination in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section to determine the employee's fitness to wear a respirator.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where the results of the examination required under paragraphs (l)(6)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section are abnormal, medical limitation or prohibition of respirator use shall be considered. If the employee is allowed to wear a respirator, the employee's ability to continue to do so shall be periodically evaluated by a physician.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Emergency Examinations.</I> (i) In addition to the medical surveillance required in paragraphs (l)(2)-(6) of this section, the employer shall provide a medical examination as soon as possible to any employee who may have been acutely exposed to cadmium because of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The examination shall include the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii), of this section, with emphasis on the respiratory system, other organ systems considered appropriate by the examining physician, and symptoms of acute overexposure, as identified in paragraphs II(B)(1)-(2) and IV of appendix A of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Termination of employment examination.</I> (i) At termination of employment, the employer shall provide a medical examination in accordance with paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section, including a chest X-ray where necessary, to any employee to whom at any prior time the employer was required to provide medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i) or (l)(7) of this section. However, if the last examination satisfied the requirements of paragraph (l)(4)(ii) of this section and was less than six months prior to the date of termination, no further examination is required unless otherwise specified in paragraph (l)(3) or (l)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, if the employer has discontinued all periodic medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(4)(v) of this section, no termination of employment medical examination is required.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and appendices;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to cadmium;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's former, current, and anticipated future levels of occupational exposure to cadmium;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any personal protective equipment, including respirators, used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used that equipment; and
</P>
<P>(v) Relevant results of previous biological monitoring and medical examinations.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Physician's written medical opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall promptly obtain a written, medical opinion from the examining physician for each medical examination performed on each employee. This written opinion shall contain:
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's diagnosis for the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from further exposure to cadmium, including any indications of potential cadmium toxicity;
</P>
<P>(C) The results of any biological or other testing or related evaluations that directly assess the employee's absorption of cadmium;
</P>
<P>(D) Any recommended removal from, or limitation on the activities or duties of the employee or on the employee's use of personal protective equipment, such as respirators;
</P>
<P>(E) A statement that the physician has clearly and carefully explained to the employee the results of the medical examination, including all biological monitoring results and any medical conditions related to cadmium exposure that require further evaluation or treatment, and any limitation on the employee's diet or use of medications.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall promptly obtain a copy of the results of any biological monitoring provided by an employer to an employee independently of a medical examination under paragraphs (l)(2) and (l)(4) of this section, and, in lieu of a written medical opinion, an explanation sheet explaining those results.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal orally or in the written medical opinion given to the employer specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Medical Removal Protection (MRP)</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> (A) The employer shall temporarily remove an employee from work where there is excess exposure to cadmium on each occasion that medical removal is required under paragraphs (l)(3), (l)(4), or (l)(6) of this section and on each occasion that a physician determines in a written medical opinion that the employee should be removed from such exposure. The physician's determination may be based on biological monitoring results, inability to wear a respirator, evidence of illness, other signs or symptoms of cadmium-related dysfunction or disease, or any other reason deemed medically sufficient by the physician.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall medically remove an employee in accordance with paragraph (l)(11) of this section regardless of whether at the time of removal a job is available into which the removed employee may be transferred.
</P>
<P>(C) Whenever an employee is medically removed under paragraph (l)(11) of this section, the employer shall transfer the removed employee to a job where the exposure to cadmium is within the permissible levels specified in that paragraph as soon as one becomes available.
</P>
<P>(D) For any employee who is medically removed under the provisions of paragraph (l)(11)(i) of this section, the employer shall provide follow-up medical examinations semi-annually until, in a written medical opinion, the examining physician determines that either the employee may be returned to his/her former job status or the employee must be permanently removed from excess cadmium exposure.
</P>
<P>(E) The employer may not return an employee who has been medically removed for any reason to his/her former job status until a physician determines in a written medical opinion that continued medical removal is no longer necessary to protect the employee's health.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where an employee is found unfit to wear a respirator under paragraph (l)(6)(ii) of this section, the employer shall remove the employee from work where exposure to cadmium is above the PEL.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where removal is based upon any reason other than the employee's inability to wear a respirator, the employer shall remove the employee from work where exposure to cadmium is at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(iv) Except as specified in paragraph (l)(11)(v) of this section, no employee who was removed because his/her level of CdU, CdB and/or β<E T="52">2</E>-M exceeded the trigger levels in paragraph (l)(3) or (l)(4) of this section may be returned to work with exposure to cadmium at or above the action level until the employee's levels of CdU fall to or below 3 µg/g Cr, CdB fall to or below 5 µg/lwb, and β<E T="52">2</E>-M fall to or below 300 µg/g Cr.
</P>
<P>(v) However, when in the examining physician's opinion continued exposure to cadmium will not pose an increased risk to the employee's health and there are special circumstances that make continued medical removal an inappropriate remedy, the physician shall fully discuss these matters with the employee, and then in a written determination may return a worker to his/her former job status despite what would otherwise be unacceptably high biological monitoring results. Thereafter and until such time as the employee's biological monitoring results have decreased to levels where he/she could have been returned to his/her former job status, the returned employee shall continue medical surveillance as if he/she were still on medical removal. Until such time, the employee is no longer subject to mandatory medical removal. Subsequent questions regarding the employee's medical removal shall be decided solely by a final medical determination.
</P>
<P>(vi) Where an employer, although not required by this section to do so, removes an employee from exposure to cadmium or otherwise places limitations on an employee due to the effects of cadmium exposure on the employee's medical condition, the employer shall provide the same medical removal protection benefits to that employee under paragraph (l)(12) of this section as would have been provided had the removal been required under paragraph (l)(11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Medical removal protection benefits.</I> (i) The employer shall provide medical removal protection benefits to an employee for up to a maximum of 18 months each time, and while the employee is temporarily medically removed under paragraph (l)(11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, the requirement that the employer provide medical removal protection benefits means that the employer shall maintain the total normal earnings, seniority, and all other employee rights and benefits of the removed employee, including the employee's right to his/her former job status, as if the employee had not been removed from the employee's job or otherwise medically limited.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where, after 18 months on medical removal because of elevated biological monitoring results, the employee's monitoring results have not declined to a low enough level to permit the employee to be returned to his/her former job status:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall make available to the employee a medical examination pursuant to this section in order to obtain a final medical determination as to whether the employee may be returned to his/her former job status or must be permanently removed from excess cadmium exposure; and
</P>
<P>(B) The employer shall assure that the final medical determination indicates whether the employee may be returned to his/her former job status and what steps, if any, should be taken to protect the employee's health;
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer may condition the provision of medical removal protection benefits upon the employee's participation in medical surveillance provided in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Multiple physician review.</I> (i) If the employer selects the initial physician to conduct any medical examination or consultation provided to an employee under this section, the employee may designate a second physician to:
</P>
<P>(A) Review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the initial physician; and
</P>
<P>(B) Conduct such examinations, consultations, and laboratory tests as the second physician deems necessary to facilitate this review.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall promptly notify an employee of the right to seek a second medical opinion after each occasion that an initial physician provided by the employer conducts a medical examination or consultation pursuant to this section. The employer may condition its participation in, and payment for, multiple physician review upon the employee doing the following within fifteen (15) days after receipt of this notice, or receipt of the initial physician's written opinion, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(A) Informing the employer that he or she intends to seek a medical opinion; and
</P>
<P>(B) Initiating steps to make an appointment with a second physician.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the second physician differ from those of the initial physician, then the employer and the employee shall assure that efforts are made for the two physicians to resolve any disagreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the two physicians have been unable to quickly resolve their disagreement, then the employer and the employee, through their respective physicians, shall designate a third physician to:
</P>
<P>(A) Review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the other two physicians; and
</P>
<P>(B) Conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests, and discussions with the other two physicians as the third physician deems necessary to resolve the disagreement among them.
</P>
<P>(v) The employer shall act consistently with the findings, determinations, and recommendations of the third physician, unless the employer and the employee reach an agreement that is consistent with the recommendations of at least one of the other two physicians.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Alternate physician determination.</I> The employer and an employee or designated employee representative may agree upon the use of any alternate form of physician determination in lieu of the multiple physician review provided by paragraph (l)(13) of this section, so long as the alternative is expeditious and at least as protective of the employee.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Information the employer must provide the employee.</I> (i) The employer shall provide a copy of the physician's written medical opinion to the examined employee within five working days after receipt thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide the employee with a copy of the employee's biological monitoring results and an explanation sheet explaining the results within five working days after receipt thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 30 days after a request by an employee, the employer shall provide the employee with the information the employer is required to provide the examining physician under paragraph (l)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Reporting.</I> In addition to other medical events that are required to be reported on the OSHA Form No. 200, the employer shall report any abnormal condition or disorder caused by occupational exposure to cadmium associated with employment as specified in Chapter (V)(E) of the <I>Reporting Guidelines for Occupational Injuries and Illnesses.</I>
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Communication of cadmium hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.</I> The employer shall include cadmium in the program established to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (§ 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of cadmium and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of HCS and paragraph (m)(4) of this section. The employer shall provide information on at least the following hazards: Cancer; lung effects; kidney effects; and acute toxicity effects.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Warning signs.</I> (i) Warning signs shall be provided and displayed in regulated areas. In addition, warning signs shall be posted at all approaches to regulated areas so that an employee may read the signs and take necessary protective steps before entering the area.
</P>
<P>(ii) Warning signs required by paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this section shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CADMIUM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS AND KIDNEYS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>WEAR RESPIRATORY PROTECTION IN THIS AREA
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that signs required by this paragraph (m)(2) are illuminated, cleaned, and maintained as necessary so that the legend is readily visible.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior to June 1, 2016, employers may use the following legend in lieu of that specified in paragraph (m)(2)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CADMIUM 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAN CAUSE LUNG AND KIDNEY DISEASE 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RESPIRATORS REQUIRED IN THIS AREA</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Warning labels.</I> (i) Shipping and storage containers containing cadmium or cadmium compounds shall bear appropriate warning labels, as specified in paragraph (m)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The warning labels for containers of cadmium-contaminated protective clothing, equipment, waste, scrap, or debris shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS CADMIUM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MAY CAUSE CANCER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAUSES DAMAGE TO LUNGS AND KIDNEYS
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Where feasible, installed cadmium products shall have a visible label or other indication that cadmium is present.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior to June 1, 2015, employers may include the following information on shipping and storage containers containing cadmium, cadmium compounds, or cadmium-contaminated clothing, equipment, waste, scrap, or debris in lieu of the labeling requirements specified in paragraphs (m)(3)(i) and (m)(3)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAINS CADMIUM 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AVOID CREATING DUST 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CAN CAUSE LUNG AND KIDNEY DISEASE</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall train each employee who is potentially exposed to cadmium in accordance with the requirements of this section. The employer shall institute a training program, ensure employee participation in the program, and maintain a record of the contents of the training program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment to a job involving potential exposure to cadmium and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall make the training program understandable to the employee and shall assure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The health hazards associated with cadmium exposure, with special attention to the information incorporated in appendix A to this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity, location, manner of use, release, and storage of cadmium in the workplace and the specific nature of operations that could result in exposure to cadmium, especially exposures above the PEL;
</P>
<P>(C) The engineering controls and work practices associated with the employee's job assignment;
</P>
<P>(D) The measures employees can take to protect themselves from exposure to cadmium, including modification of such habits as smoking and personal hygiene, and specific procedures the employer has implemented to protect employees from exposure to cadmium such as appropriate work practices, emergency procedures, and the provision of personal protective equipment;
</P>
<P>(E) The purpose, proper selection, fitting, proper use, and limitations of respirators and protective clothing;
</P>
<P>(F) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (l) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) The contents of this section and its appendices, and,
</P>
<P>(H) The employee's rights of access to records under § 1926.33(g) (1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(iv) Additional access to information and training program and materials.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer shall make a copy of this section and its appendices readily available to all affected employees and shall provide a copy without cost if requested.
</P>
<P>(B) Upon request, the employer shall provide to the Assistant Secretary or the Director all materials relating to the employee information and the training program.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Multi-employer workplace.</I> In a multi-employer workplace, an employer who produces, uses, or stores cadmium in a manner that may expose employees of other employers to cadmium shall notify those employers of the potential hazard in accordance with paragraph (e) of the hazard communication standard for construction, 29 CFR 1926.59.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and keep an accurate record of all air monitoring for cadmium in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The monitoring date, shift, duration, air volume, and results in terms of an 8-hour TWA of each sample taken, and if cadmium is not detected, the detection level;
</P>
<P>(B) The name and job classification of all employees monitored and of all other employees whose exposures the monitoring result is intended to represent, including, where applicable, a description of how it was determined that the employee's monitoring result could be taken to represent other employee's exposures;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used and evidence of their accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) The type of respiratory protective device, if any, worn by the monitored employee and by any other employee whose exposure the monitoring result is intended to represent;
</P>
<P>(E) A notation of any other conditions that might have affected the monitoring results.
</P>
<P>(F) Any exposure monitoring or objective data that were used and the levels.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for at least thirty (30) years, in accordance with § 1910.1020 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall also provide a copy of the results of an employee's air monitoring prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section to an industry trade association and to the employee's union, if any, or, if either of such associations or unions do not exist, to another comparable organization that is competent to maintain such records and is reasonably accessible to employers and employees in the industry.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data for exemption from requirement for initial monitoring.</I> (i) For purposes of this section, objective data are information demonstrating that a particular product or material containing cadmium or a specific process, operation, or activity involving cadmium cannot release dust or fumes in concentrations at or above the action level even under the worst-case release conditions. Objective data can be obtained from an industry-wide study or from laboratory product test results from manufacturers of cadmium-containing products or materials. The data the employer uses from an industry-wide survey must be obtained under workplace conditions closely resembling the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall maintain the record for at least 30 years of the objective data relied upon.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include at least the following information about the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and description of duties;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the physician's written opinions and of the explanation sheets for biological monitoring results;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the medical history, and the results of any physical examination and all test results that are required to be provided by this section, including biological tests, X-rays, pulmonary function tests, etc., or that have been obtained to further evaluate any condition that might be related to cadmium exposure;
</P>
<P>(D) The employee's medical symptoms that might be related to exposure to cadmium; and
</P>
<P>(E) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraph (l)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that this record is maintained for the duration of employment plus thirty (30) years, in accordance with § 1910.1020 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) At the employee's request, the employer shall promptly provide a copy of the employee's medical record, or update as appropriate, to a medical doctor or a union specified by the employee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Availability.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided for in this section, access to all records required to be maintained by paragraphs (n)(1) through (3) of this section shall be in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 15 days after a request, the employer shall make an employee's medical records required to be kept by paragraph (n)(3) of this section available for examination and copying to the subject employee, to designated representatives, to anyone having the specific written consent of the subject employee, and after the employee's death or incapacitation, to the employee's family members.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to cadmium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with that clothing and equipment and shall assure that the observer uses such clothing and equipment and complies with all other applicable safety and health procedures.
</P>
<P>(p) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Appendices.</I> Except where portions of appendices A, B, D, E, and F to this section are expressly incorporated in requirements of this section, these appendices are purely informational and are not intended to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligations. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1926.1127—Substance Safety Data Sheet
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix A are identical to those set forth in appendix A to § 1910.1027 of this chapter.</P></NOTE></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1926.1127—Substance Technical Guidelines for Cadmium
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix B are identical to those set forth in appendix B to § 1910.1027 of this chapter.</P></NOTE></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix C to § 1926.1127 [Reserved]</HD1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix D to § 1926.1127—Occupational Health History Interview With Reference to Cadmium Exposure
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix D are identical to those set forth in appendix D to § 1910.1027 of this chapter.</P></NOTE></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix E to § 1926.1127—Cadmium in Workplace Atmospheres
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix E are identical to those set forth in appendix E to § 1910.1027 of this chapter.</P></NOTE></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix F to § 1926.1127—Nonmandatory Protocol for Biological Monitoring
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this appendix F are identical to those set forth in appendix F to § 1910.1027 of this chapter.</P></NOTE></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 42452, Sept. 14, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 49272, Oct. 30, 1992; 58 FR 21787, Apr. 23, 1993. Redesignated and amended at 59 FR 215, Jan. 3, 1994; 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 61 FR 31433, 31434, June 20, 1996; 63 FR 1298, Jan. 8, 1998; 70 FR 1144, Jan. 5, 2005; 71 FR 16675, Apr. 3, 2006; 71 FR 50192, Aug. 24, 2006; 73 FR 75589, Dec. 12, 2008; 76 FR 33612, June 8, 2011; 77 FR 17895, Mar. 26, 2012; 84 FR 21597, May 14, 2019; 85 FR 8746, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1128" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1128   Benzene.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1028 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31434, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1129" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1144" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1144   1,2-dibromo-3-chloropropane.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1044 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31434, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1145" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1145   Acrylonitrile.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1045 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31434, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1147" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1147   Ethylene oxide.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1047 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31434, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1148" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1148   Formaldehyde.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction work under this section are identical to those set forth at § 1910.1048 of this chapter.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31434, June 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1152" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1152   Methylene chloride.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The requirements applicable to construction employment under this section are identical to those set forth at 29 CFR 1910.1052.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 1619, Jan. 10, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1153" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.26.26.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1153   Respirable crystalline silica.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application.</I> This section applies to all occupational exposures to respirable crystalline silica in construction work, except where employee exposure will remain below 25 micrograms per cubic meter of air (25 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>) as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) under any foreseeable conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means a concentration of airborne respirable crystalline silica of 25 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, calculated as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means an individual who is capable of identifying existing and foreseeable respirable crystalline silica hazards in the workplace and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate or minimize them. The competent person must have the knowledge and ability necessary to fulfill the responsibilities set forth in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Employee exposure</I> means the exposure to airborne respirable crystalline silica that would occur if the employee were not using a respirator.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air [HEPA] filter</I> means a filter that is at least 99.97 percent efficient in removing mono-dispersed particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter.
</P>
<P><I>Objective data</I> means information, such as air monitoring data from industry-wide surveys or calculations based on the composition of a substance, demonstrating employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica associated with a particular product or material or a specific process, task, or activity. The data must reflect workplace conditions closely resembling or with a higher exposure potential than the processes, types of material, control methods, work practices, and environmental conditions in the employer's current operations.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or other licensed health care professional [PLHCP]</I> means an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.</I>, license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the particular health care services required by paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Respirable crystalline silica</I> means quartz, cristobalite, and/or tridymite contained in airborne particles that are determined to be respirable by a sampling device designed to meet the characteristics for respirable-particle-size-selective samplers specified in the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 7708:1995: Air Quality—Particle Size Fraction Definitions for Health-Related Sampling.
</P>
<P><I>Specialist</I> means an American Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or an American Board Certified Specialist in Occupational Medicine.
</P>
<P><I>This section</I> means this respirable crystalline silica standard, 29 CFR 1926.1153.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specified exposure control methods.</I> (1) For each employee engaged in a task identified on Table 1, the employer shall fully and properly implement the engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection specified for the task on Table 1, unless the employer assesses and limits the exposure of the employee to respirable crystalline silica in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Specified Exposure Control Methods When Working With Materials Containing Crystalline Silica
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Equipment/task
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Engineering and work practice control methods
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Required respiratory protection and minimum assigned protection factor (APF)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≤4 hours/shift
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;4 hours/shift
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Stationary masonry saws</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use saw equipped with integrated water delivery system that continuously feeds water to the blade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Handheld power saws (any blade diameter)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use saw equipped with integrated water delivery system that continuously feeds water to the blade
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used indoors or in an enclosed area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Handheld power saws for cutting fiber-cement board (with blade diameter of 8 inches or less)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For tasks performed outdoors only:
<br/>Use saw equipped with commercially available dust collection system
<br/>Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<br/>None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<br/>None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dust collector must provide the air flow recommended by the tool manufacturer, or greater, and have a filter with 99% or greater efficiency
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Walk-behind saws</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use saw equipped with integrated water delivery system that continuously feeds water to the blade
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used indoors or in an enclosed area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Drivable saws</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For tasks performed outdoors only:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use saw equipped with integrated water delivery system that continuously feeds water to the blade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) Rig-mounted core saws or drills</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use tool equipped with integrated water delivery system that supplies water to cutting surface</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) Handheld and stand-mounted drills (including impact and rotary hammer drills)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use drill equipped with commercially available shroud or cowling with dust collection system</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dust collector must provide the air flow recommended by the tool manufacturer, or greater, and have a filter with 99% or greater efficiency and a filter-cleaning mechanism
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use a HEPA-filtered vacuum when cleaning holes
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(viii) Dowel drilling rigs for concrete</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For tasks performed outdoors only:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use shroud around drill bit with a dust collection system. Dust collector must have a filter with 99% or greater efficiency and a filter-cleaning mechanism</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use a HEPA-filtered vacuum when cleaning holes
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ix) Vehicle-mounted drilling rigs for rock and concrete</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use dust collection system with close capture hood or shroud around drill bit with a low-flow water spray to wet the dust at the discharge point from the dust collector</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OR
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate from within an enclosed cab and use water for dust suppression on drill bit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(x) Jackhammers and handheld powered chipping tools</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use tool with water delivery system that supplies a continuous stream or spray of water at the point of impact:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used indoors or in an enclosed area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OR
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use tool equipped with commercially available shroud and dust collection system
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dust collector must provide the air flow recommended by the tool manufacturer, or greater, and have a filter with 99% or greater efficiency and a filter-cleaning mechanism:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used indoors or in an enclosed area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xi) Handheld grinders for mortar removal (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, tuckpointing)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use grinder equipped with commercially available shroud and dust collection system</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 25.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dust collector must provide 25 cubic feet per minute (cfm) or greater of airflow per inch of wheel diameter and have a filter with 99% or greater efficiency and a cyclonic pre-separator or filter-cleaning mechanism
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xii) Handheld grinders for uses other than mortar removal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For tasks performed outdoors only:
<br/>Use grinder equipped with integrated water delivery system that continuously feeds water to the grinding surface</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OR
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use grinder equipped with commercially available shroud and dust collection system
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dust collector must provide 25 cubic feet per minute (cfm) or greater of airflow per inch of wheel diameter and have a filter with 99% or greater efficiency and a cyclonic pre-separator or filter-cleaning mechanism:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used outdoors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—When used indoors or in an enclosed area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">APF 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiii) Walk-behind milling machines and floor grinders</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use machine equipped with integrated water delivery system that continuously feeds water to the cutting surface</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OR
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use machine equipped with dust collection system recommended by the manufacturer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain tool in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dust collector must provide the air flow recommended by the manufacturer, or greater, and have a filter with 99% or greater efficiency and a filter-cleaning mechanism
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When used indoors or in an enclosed area, use a HEPA-filtered vacuum to remove loose dust in between passes
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xiv) Small drivable milling machines (less than half-lane)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use a machine equipped with supplemental water sprays designed to suppress dust. Water must be combined with a surfactant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain machine to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xv) Large drivable milling machines (half-lane and larger)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For cuts of any depth on asphalt only:
<br/>Use machine equipped with exhaust ventilation on drum enclosure and supplemental water sprays designed to suppress dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain machine to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For cuts of four inches in depth or less on any substrate:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use machine equipped with exhaust ventilation on drum enclosure and supplemental water sprays designed to suppress dust</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain machine to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OR
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use a machine equipped with supplemental water spray designed to suppress dust. Water must be combined with a surfactant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain machine to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvi) Crushing machines</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use equipment designed to deliver water spray or mist for dust suppression at crusher and other points where dust is generated (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, hoppers, conveyers, sieves/sizing or vibrating components, and discharge points)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate and maintain machine in accordance with manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use a ventilated booth that provides fresh, climate-controlled air to the operator, or a remote control station
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xvii) Heavy equipment and utility vehicles used to abrade or fracture silica-containing materials (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, hoe-ramming, rock ripping) or used during demolition activities involving silica-containing materials</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operate equipment from within an enclosed cab
<br/>When employees outside of the cab are engaged in the task, apply water and/or dust suppressants as necessary to minimize dust emissions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None
<br/>None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
<br/>None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(xviii) Heavy equipment and utility vehicles for tasks such as grading and excavating but not including: Demolishing, abrading, or fracturing silica-containing materials</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Apply water and/or dust suppressants as necessary to minimize dust emissions
<br/>OR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When the equipment operator is the only employee engaged in the task, operate equipment from within an enclosed cab</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) When implementing the control measures specified in Table 1, each employer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) For tasks performed indoors or in enclosed areas, provide a means of exhaust as needed to minimize the accumulation of visible airborne dust;
</P>
<P>(ii) For tasks performed using wet methods, apply water at flow rates sufficient to minimize release of visible dust;
</P>
<P>(iii) For measures implemented that include an enclosed cab or booth, ensure that the enclosed cab or booth:
</P>
<P>(A) Is maintained as free as practicable from settled dust;
</P>
<P>(B) Has door seals and closing mechanisms that work properly;
</P>
<P>(C) Has gaskets and seals that are in good condition and working properly;
</P>
<P>(D) Is under positive pressure maintained through continuous delivery of fresh air;
</P>
<P>(E) Has intake air that is filtered through a filter that is 95% efficient in the 0.3-10.0 µm range (<I>e.g.</I>, MERV-16 or better); and
</P>
<P>(F) Has heating and cooling capabilities.
</P>
<P>(3) Where an employee performs more than one task on Table 1 during the course of a shift, and the total duration of all tasks combined is more than four hours, the required respiratory protection for each task is the respiratory protection specified for more than four hours per shift. If the total duration of all tasks on Table 1 combined is less than four hours, the required respiratory protection for each task is the respiratory protection specified for less than four hours per shift.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative exposure control methods.</I> For tasks not listed in Table 1, or where the employer does not fully and properly implement the engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection described in Table 1:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Permissible exposure limit (PEL).</I> The employer shall ensure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of respirable crystalline silica in excess of 50 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, calculated as an 8-hour TWA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure assessment</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The employer shall assess the exposure of each employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be exposed to respirable crystalline silica at or above the action level in accordance with either the performance option in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) or the scheduled monitoring option in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Performance option.</I> The employer shall assess the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of any combination of air monitoring data or objective data sufficient to accurately characterize employee exposures to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Scheduled monitoring option.</I> (A) The employer shall perform initial monitoring to assess the 8-hour TWA exposure for each employee on the basis of one or more personal breathing zone air samples that reflect the exposures of employees on each shift, for each job classification, in each work area. Where several employees perform the same tasks on the same shift and in the same work area, the employer may sample a representative fraction of these employees in order to meet this requirement. In representative sampling, the employer shall sample the employee(s) who are expected to have the highest exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(B) If initial monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring.
</P>
<P>(C) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that employee exposures are at or above the action level but at or below the PEL, the employer shall repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring.
</P>
<P>(D) Where the most recent exposure monitoring indicates that employee exposures are above the PEL, the employer shall repeat such monitoring within three months of the most recent monitoring.
</P>
<P>(E) Where the most recent (non-initial) exposure monitoring indicates that employee exposures are below the action level, the employer shall repeat such monitoring within six months of the most recent monitoring until two consecutive measurements, taken seven or more days apart, are below the action level, at which time the employer may discontinue monitoring for those employees whose exposures are represented by such monitoring, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Reassessment of exposures.</I> The employer shall reassess exposures whenever a change in the production, process, control equipment, personnel, or work practices may reasonably be expected to result in new or additional exposures at or above the action level, or when the employer has any reason to believe that new or additional exposures at or above the action level have occurred.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Methods of sample analysis.</I> The employer shall ensure that all samples taken to satisfy the monitoring requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section are evaluated by a laboratory that analyzes air samples for respirable crystalline silica in accordance with the procedures in appendix A to this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Employee notification of assessment results.</I> (A) Within five working days after completing an exposure assessment in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the employer shall individually notify each affected employee in writing of the results of that assessment or post the results in an appropriate location accessible to all affected employees.
</P>
<P>(B) Whenever an exposure assessment indicates that employee exposure is above the PEL, the employer shall describe in the written notification the corrective action being taken to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (A) Where air monitoring is performed to comply with the requirements of this section, the employer shall provide affected employees or their designated representatives an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(B) When observation of monitoring requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required for any workplace hazard, the employer shall provide the observer with protective clothing and equipment at no cost and shall ensure that the observer uses such clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(i) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> The employer shall use engineering and work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica to or below the PEL, unless the employer can demonstrate that such controls are not feasible. Wherever such feasible engineering and work practice controls are not sufficient to reduce employee exposure to or below the PEL, the employer shall nonetheless use them to reduce employee exposure to the lowest feasible level and shall supplement them with the use of respiratory protection that complies with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Abrasive blasting.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, the employer shall comply with other OSHA standards, when applicable, such as 29 CFR 1926.57 (Ventilation), where abrasive blasting is conducted using crystalline silica-containing blasting agents, or where abrasive blasting is conducted on substrates that contain crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Where respiratory protection is required by this section, the employer must provide each employee an appropriate respirator that complies with the requirements of this paragraph and 29 CFR 1910.134. Respiratory protection is required:
</P>
<P>(i) Where specified by Table 1 of paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For tasks not listed in Table 1, or where the employer does not fully and properly implement the engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection described in Table 1:
</P>
<P>(A) Where exposures exceed the PEL during periods necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls;
</P>
<P>(B) Where exposures exceed the PEL during tasks, such as certain maintenance and repair tasks, for which engineering and work practice controls are not feasible; and
</P>
<P>(C) During tasks for which an employer has implemented all feasible engineering and work practice controls and such controls are not sufficient to reduce exposures to or below the PEL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respiratory protection program.</I> Where respirator use is required by this section, the employer shall institute a respiratory protection program in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.134.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Specified exposure control methods.</I> For the tasks listed in Table 1 in paragraph (c) of this section, if the employer fully and properly implements the engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection described in Table 1, the employer shall be considered to be in compliance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section and the requirements for selection of respirators in 29 CFR 1910.134(d)(1)(iii) and (d)(3) with regard to exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Housekeeping.</I> (1) The employer shall not allow dry sweeping or dry brushing where such activity could contribute to employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica unless wet sweeping, HEPA-filtered vacuuming or other methods that minimize the likelihood of exposure are not feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall not allow compressed air to be used to clean clothing or surfaces where such activity could contribute to employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The compressed air is used in conjunction with a ventilation system that effectively captures the dust cloud created by the compressed air; or
</P>
<P>(ii) No alternative method is feasible.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Written exposure control plan.</I> (1) The employer shall establish and implement a written exposure control plan that contains at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the tasks in the workplace that involve exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection used to limit employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica for each task;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the housekeeping measures used to limit employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the procedures used to restrict access to work areas, when necessary, to minimize the number of employees exposed to respirable crystalline silica and their level of exposure, including exposures generated by other employers or sole proprietors.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall review and evaluate the effectiveness of the written exposure control plan at least annually and update it as necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall make the written exposure control plan readily available for examination and copying, upon request, to each employee covered by this section, their designated representatives, the Assistant Secretary and the Director.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall designate a competent person to make frequent and regular inspections of job sites, materials, and equipment to implement the written exposure control plan.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall make medical surveillance available at no cost to the employee, and at a reasonable time and place, for each employee who will be required under this section to use a respirator for 30 or more days per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that all medical examinations and procedures required by this section are performed by a PLHCP as defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examination.</I> The employer shall make available an initial (baseline) medical examination within 30 days after initial assignment, unless the employee has received a medical examination that meets the requirements of this section within the last three years. The examination shall consist of:
</P>
<P>(i) A medical and work history, with emphasis on: Past, present, and anticipated exposure to respirable crystalline silica, dust, and other agents affecting the respiratory system; any history of respiratory system dysfunction, including signs and symptoms of respiratory disease (<I>e.g.</I>, shortness of breath, cough, wheezing); history of tuberculosis; and smoking status and history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical examination with special emphasis on the respiratory system;
</P>
<P>(iii) A chest X-ray (a single posteroanterior radiographic projection or radiograph of the chest at full inspiration recorded on either film (no less than 14 x 17 inches and no more than 16 x 17 inches) or digital radiography systems), interpreted and classified according to the International Labour Office (ILO) International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses by a NIOSH-certified B Reader;
</P>
<P>(iv) A pulmonary function test to include forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>) and FEV<E T="52">1</E>/FVC ratio, administered by a spirometry technician with a current certificate from a NIOSH-approved spirometry course;
</P>
<P>(v) Testing for latent tuberculosis infection; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other tests deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> The employer shall make available medical examinations that include the procedures described in paragraph (h)(2) of this section (except paragraph (h)(2)(v)) at least every three years, or more frequently if recommended by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information provided to the PLHCP.</I> The employer shall ensure that the examining PLHCP has a copy of this standard, and shall provide the PLHCP with the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used or will use that equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee and currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>PLHCP's written medical report for the employee.</I> The employer shall ensure that the PLHCP explains to the employee the results of the medical examination and provides each employee with a written medical report within 30 days of each medical examination performed. The written report shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including any medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and any medical conditions that require further evaluation or treatment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the employee should be examined by a specialist (pursuant to paragraph (h)(7) of this section) if the chest X-ray provided in accordance with this section is classified as 1/0 or higher by the B Reader, or if referral to a specialist is otherwise deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>PLHCP's written medical opinion for the employer.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written medical opinion from the PLHCP within 30 days of the medical examination. The written opinion shall contain only the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the examination;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the examination has met the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee provides written authorization, the written opinion shall also contain either or both of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the employee should be examined by a specialist (pursuant to paragraph (h)(7) of this section) if the chest X-ray provided in accordance with this section is classified as 1/0 or higher by the B Reader, or if referral to a specialist is otherwise deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that each employee receives a copy of the written medical opinion described in paragraph (h)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section within 30 days of each medical examination performed.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Additional examinations.</I> (i) If the PLHCP's written medical opinion indicates that an employee should be examined by a specialist, the employer shall make available a medical examination by a specialist within 30 days after receiving the PLHCP's written opinion.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall ensure that the examining specialist is provided with all of the information that the employer is obligated to provide to the PLHCP in accordance with paragraph (h)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that the specialist explains to the employee the results of the medical examination and provides each employee with a written medical report within 30 days of the examination. The written report shall meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(5) (except paragraph (h)(5)(iv)) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the specialist within 30 days of the medical examination. The written opinion shall meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(6) (except paragraph (h)(6)(i)(B) and (ii)(B)) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Communication of respirable crystalline silica hazards to employees</I>—(1) <I>Hazard communication.</I> The employer shall include respirable crystalline silica in the program established to comply with the hazard communication standard (HCS) (29 CFR 1910.1200). The employer shall ensure that each employee has access to labels on containers of crystalline silica and safety data sheets, and is trained in accordance with the provisions of HCS and paragraph (i)(2) of this section. The employer shall ensure that at least the following hazards are addressed: Cancer, lung effects, immune system effects, and kidney effects.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee information and training.</I> (i) The employer shall ensure that each employee covered by this section can demonstrate knowledge and understanding of at least the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The health hazards associated with exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(B) Specific tasks in the workplace that could result in exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>(C) Specific measures the employer has implemented to protect employees from exposure to respirable crystalline silica, including engineering controls, work practices, and respirators to be used;
</P>
<P>(D) The contents of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) The identity of the competent person designated by the employer in accordance with paragraph (g)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(F) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall make a copy of this section readily available without cost to each employee covered by this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Air monitoring data.</I> (i) The employer shall make and maintain an accurate record of all exposure measurements taken to assess employee exposure to respirable crystalline silica, as prescribed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of measurement for each sample taken;
</P>
<P>(B) The task monitored;
</P>
<P>(C) Sampling and analytical methods used;
</P>
<P>(D) Number, duration, and results of samples taken;
</P>
<P>(E) Identity of the laboratory that performed the analysis;
</P>
<P>(F) Type of personal protective equipment, such as respirators, worn by the employees monitored; and
</P>
<P>(G) Name and job classification of all employees represented by the monitoring, indicating which employees were actually monitored.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that exposure records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objective data.</I> (i) The employer shall make and maintain an accurate record of all objective data relied upon to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The crystalline silica-containing material in question;
</P>
<P>(B) The source of the objective data;
</P>
<P>(C) The testing protocol and results of testing;
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the process, task, or activity on which the objective data were based; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other data relevant to the process, task, activity, material, or exposures on which the objective data were based.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that objective data are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall make and maintain an accurate record for each employee covered by medical surveillance under paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The record shall include the following information about the employee:
</P>
<P>(A) Name;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the PLHCPs' and specialists' written medical opinions; and
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the PLHCPs and specialists.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall ensure that medical records are maintained and made available in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Dates.</I> (1) This section shall become effective June 23, 2016.
</P>
<P>(2) All obligations of this section, except requirements for methods of sample analysis in paragraph (d)(2)(v), shall commence June 23, 2017.
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements for methods of sample analysis in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section commence June 23, 2018.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 1926.1153—Methods of Sample Analysis
</HD1>
<P>This This appendix specifies the procedures for analyzing air samples for respirable crystalline silica, as well as the quality control procedures that employers must ensure that laboratories use when performing an analysis required under 29 CFR 1926.1153 (d)(2)(v). Employers must ensure that such a laboratory:
</P>
<P>1. Evaluates all samples using the procedures specified in one of the following analytical methods: OSHA ID-142; NMAM 7500; NMAM 7602; NMAM 7603; MSHA P-2; or MSHA P-7;
</P>
<P>2. Is accredited to ANS/ISO/IEC Standard 17025:2005 with respect to crystalline silica analyses by a body that is compliant with ISO/IEC Standard 17011:2004 for implementation of quality assessment programs;
</P>
<P>3. Uses the most current National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) or NIST traceable standards for instrument calibration or instrument calibration verification;
</P>
<P>4. Implements an internal quality control (QC) program that evaluates analytical uncertainty and provides employers with estimates of sampling and analytical error;
</P>
<P>5. Characterizes the sample material by identifying polymorphs of respirable crystalline silica present, identifies the presence of any interfering compounds that might affect the analysis, and makes any corrections necessary in order to obtain accurate sample analysis; and
</P>
<P>6. Analyzes quantitatively for crystalline silica only after confirming that the sample matrix is free of uncorrectable analytical interferences, corrects for analytical interferences, and uses a method that meets the following performance specifications:
</P>
<P><I>6.1</I> Each day that samples are analyzed, performs instrument calibration checks with standards that bracket the sample concentrations;
</P>
<P><I>6.2</I> Uses five or more calibration standard levels to prepare calibration curves and ensures that standards are distributed through the calibration range in a manner that accurately reflects the underlying calibration curve; and
</P>
<P><I>6.3</I> Optimizes methods and instruments to obtain a quantitative limit of detection that represents a value no higher than 25 percent of the PEL based on sample air volume.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 1926.1153—Medical Surveillance Guidelines
</HD1>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>The purpose of this Appendix is to provide medical information and recommendations to aid physicians and other licensed health care professionals (PLHCPs) regarding compliance with the medical surveillance provisions of the respirable crystalline silica standard (29 CFR 1926.1153). Appendix B is for informational and guidance purposes only and none of the statements in Appendix B should be construed as imposing a mandatory requirement on employers that is not otherwise imposed by the standard.
</P>
<P>Medical screening and surveillance allow for early identification of exposure-related health effects in individual employee and groups of employees, so that actions can be taken to both avoid further exposure and prevent or address adverse health outcomes. Silica-related diseases can be fatal, encompass a variety of target organs, and may have public health consequences when considering the increased risk of a latent tuberculosis (TB) infection becoming active. Thus, medical surveillance of silica-exposed employees requires that PLHCPs have a thorough knowledge of silica-related health effects.
</P>
<P>This Appendix is divided into seven sections. Section 1 reviews silica-related diseases, medical responses, and public health responses. Section 2 outlines the components of the medical surveillance program for employees exposed to silica. Section 3 describes the roles and responsibilities of the PLHCP implementing the program and of other medical specialists and public health professionals. Section 4 provides a discussion of considerations, including confidentiality. Section 5 provides a list of additional resources and Section 6 lists references. Section 7 provides sample forms for the written medical report for the employee, the written medical opinion for the employer and the written authorization.
</P>
<HD1>1. Recognition of Silica-Related Diseases
</HD1>
<P><I>1.1. Overview.</I> The term “silica” refers specifically to the compound silicon dioxide (SiO<E T="52">2</E>). Silica is a major component of sand, rock, and mineral ores. Exposure to fine (respirable size) particles of crystalline forms of silica is associated with adverse health effects, such as silicosis, lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and activation of latent TB infections. Exposure to respirable crystalline silica can occur in industry settings such as foundries, abrasive blasting operations, paint manufacturing, glass and concrete product manufacturing, brick making, china and pottery manufacturing, manufacturing of plumbing fixtures, and many construction activities including highway repair, masonry, concrete work, rock drilling, and tuck-pointing. New uses of silica continue to emerge. These include countertop manufacturing, finishing, and installation (Kramer <I>et al.</I> 2012; OSHA 2015) and hydraulic fracturing in the oil and gas industry (OSHA 2012).
</P>
<P>Silicosis is an irreversible, often disabling, and sometimes fatal fibrotic lung disease. Progression of silicosis can occur despite removal from further exposure. Diagnosis of silicosis requires a history of exposure to silica and radiologic findings characteristic of silica exposure. Three different presentations of silicosis (chronic, accelerated, and acute) have been defined. Accelerated and acute silicosis are much less common than chronic silicosis. However, it is critical to recognize all cases of accelerated and acute silicosis because these are life-threatening illnesses and because they are caused by substantial overexposures to respirable crystalline silica. Although any case of silicosis indicates a breakdown in prevention, a case of acute or accelerated silicosis implies current high exposure and a very marked breakdown in prevention.
</P>
<P>In addition to silicosis, employees exposed to respirable crystalline silica, especially those with accelerated or acute silicosis, are at increased risks of contracting active TB and other infections (ATS 1997; Rees and Murray 2007). Exposure to respirable crystalline silica also increases an employee's risk of developing lung cancer, and the higher the cumulative exposure, the higher the risk (Steenland <I>et al.</I> 2001; Steenland and Ward 2014). Symptoms for these diseases and other respirable crystalline silica-related diseases are discussed below.
</P>
<P><I>1.2. Chronic Silicosis.</I> Chronic silicosis is the most common presentation of silicosis and usually occurs after at least 10 years of exposure to respirable crystalline silica. The clinical presentation of chronic silicosis is:
</P>
<P>1.2.1. Symptoms—shortness of breath and cough, although employees may not notice any symptoms early in the disease. Constitutional symptoms, such as fever, loss of appetite and fatigue, may indicate other diseases associated with silica exposure, such as TB infection or lung cancer. Employees with these symptoms should immediately receive further evaluation and treatment.
</P>
<P>1.2.2. Physical Examination—may be normal or disclose dry rales or rhonchi on lung auscultation.
</P>
<P>1.2.3. Spirometry—may be normal or may show only a mild restrictive or obstructive pattern.
</P>
<P>1.2.4. Chest X-ray—classic findings are small, rounded opacities in the upper lung fields bilaterally. However, small irregular opacities and opacities in other lung areas can also occur. Rarely, “eggshell calcifications” in the hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes are seen.
</P>
<P>1.2.5. Clinical Course—chronic silicosis in most cases is a slowly progressive disease. Under the respirable crystalline silica standard, the PLHCP is to recommend that employees with a 1/0 category X-ray be referred to an American Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine. The PLHCP and/or Specialist should counsel employees regarding work practices and personal habits that could affect employees' respiratory health.
</P>
<P><I>1.3. Accelerated Silicosis.</I> Accelerated silicosis generally occurs within 5-10 years of exposure and results from high levels of exposure to respirable crystalline silica. The clinical presentation of accelerated silicosis is:
</P>
<P>1.3.1. Symptoms—shortness of breath, cough, and sometimes sputum production. Employees with exposure to respirable crystalline silica, and especially those with accelerated silicosis, are at high risk for activation of TB infections, atypical mycobacterial infections, and fungal superinfections. Constitutional symptoms, such as fever, weight loss, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), and fatigue may herald one of these infections or the onset of lung cancer.
</P>
<P>1.3.2. Physical Examination—rales, rhonchi, or other abnormal lung findings in relation to illnesses present. Clubbing of the digits, signs of heart failure, and cor pulmonale may be present in severe lung disease.
</P>
<P>1.3.3. Spirometry—restrictive or mixed restrictive/obstructive pattern.
</P>
<P>1.3.4. Chest X-ray—small rounded and/or irregular opacities bilaterally. Large opacities and lung abscesses may indicate infections, lung cancer, or progression to complicated silicosis, also termed progressive massive fibrosis.
</P>
<P>1.3.5. Clinical Course—accelerated silicosis has a rapid, severe course. Under the respirable crystalline silica standard, the PLHCP can recommend referral to a Board Certified Specialist in either Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine, as deemed appropriate, and referral to a Specialist is recommended whenever the diagnosis of accelerated silicosis is being considered.
</P>
<P><I>1.4. Acute Silicosis.</I> Acute silicosis is a rare disease caused by inhalation of extremely high levels of respirable crystalline silica particles. The pathology is similar to alveolar proteinosis with lipoproteinaceous material accumulating in the alveoli. Acute silicosis develops rapidly, often, within a few months to less than 2 years of exposure, and is almost always fatal. The clinical presentation of acute silicosis is as follows:
</P>
<P>1.4.1. Symptoms—sudden, progressive, and severe shortness of breath. Constitutional symptoms are frequently present and include fever, weight loss, fatigue, productive cough, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), and pleuritic chest pain.
</P>
<P>1.4.2. Physical Examination—dyspnea at rest, cyanosis, decreased breath sounds, inspiratory rales, clubbing of the digits, and fever.
</P>
<P>1.4.3. Spirometry—restrictive or mixed restrictive/obstructive pattern.
</P>
<P>1.4.4. Chest X-ray—diffuse haziness of the lungs bilaterally early in the disease. As the disease progresses, the “ground glass” appearance of interstitial fibrosis will appear.
</P>
<P>1.4.5. Clinical Course—employees with acute silicosis are at especially high risk of TB activation, nontuberculous mycobacterial infections, and fungal superinfections. Acute silicosis is immediately life-threatening. The employee should be urgently referred to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine for evaluation and treatment. Although any case of silicosis indicates a breakdown in prevention, a case of acute or accelerated silicosis implies a profoundly high level of silica exposure and may mean that other employees are currently exposed to dangerous levels of silica.
</P>
<P><I>1.5. COPD.</I> COPD, including chronic bronchitis and emphysema, has been documented in silica-exposed employees, including those who do not develop silicosis. Periodic spirometry tests are performed to evaluate each employee for progressive changes consistent with the development of COPD. In addition to evaluating spirometry results of individual employees over time, PLHCPs may want to be aware of general trends in spirometry results for groups of employees from the same workplace to identify possible problems that might exist at that workplace. (<I>See</I> Section 2 of this Appendix on Medical Surveillance for further discussion.) Heart disease may develop secondary to lung diseases such as COPD. A recent study by Liu <I>et al.</I> 2014 noted a significant exposure-response trend between cumulative silica exposure and heart disease deaths, primarily due to pulmonary heart disease, such as cor pulmonale.
</P>
<P><I>1.6. Renal and Immune System.</I> Silica exposure has been associated with several types of kidney disease, including glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome, and end stage renal disease requiring dialysis. Silica exposure has also been associated with other autoimmune conditions, including progressive systemic sclerosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis. Studies note an association between employees with silicosis and serologic markers for autoimmune diseases, including antinuclear antibodies, rheumatoid factor, and immune complexes (Jalloul and Banks 2007; Shtraichman <I>et al.</I> 2015).
</P>
<P><I>1.7. TB and Other Infections.</I> Silica-exposed employees with latent TB are 3 to 30 times more likely to develop active pulmonary TB infection (ATS 1997; Rees and Murray 2007). Although respirable crystalline silica exposure does not cause TB infection, individuals with latent TB infection are at increased risk for activation of disease if they have higher levels of respirable crystalline silica exposure, greater profusion of radiographic abnormalities, or a diagnosis of silicosis. Demographic characteristics, such as immigration from some countries, are associated with increased rates of latent TB infection. PLHCPs can review the latest Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) information on TB incidence rates and high risk populations online (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix). Additionally, silica-exposed employees are at increased risk for contracting nontuberculous mycobacterial infections, including <I>Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare</I> and <I>Mycobacterium kansaii.</I>
</P>
<P><I>1.8. Lung Cancer.</I> The National Toxicology Program has listed respirable crystalline silica as a known human carcinogen since 2000 (NTP 2014). The International Agency for Research on Cancer (2012) has also classified silica as Group 1 (carcinogenic to humans). Several studies have indicated that the risk of lung cancer from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and smoking is greater than additive (Brown 2009; Liu <I>et al.</I> 2013). Employees should be counseled on smoking cessation.
</P>
<HD1>2. Medical Surveillance
</HD1>
<P>PLHCPs who manage silica medical surveillance programs should have a thorough understanding of the many silica-related diseases and health effects outlined in Section 1 of this Appendix. At each clinical encounter, the PLHCP should consider silica-related health outcomes, with particular vigilance for acute and accelerated silicosis. In this Section, the required components of medical surveillance under the respirable crystalline silica standard are reviewed, along with additional guidance and recommendations for PLHCPs performing medical surveillance examinations for silica-exposed employees.
</P>
<P><I>2.1. History.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: A medical and work history, with emphasis on: Past, present, and anticipated exposure to respirable crystalline silica, dust, and other agents affecting the respiratory system; any history of respiratory system dysfunction, including signs and symptoms of respiratory disease (<I>e.g.</I>, shortness of breath, cough, wheezing); history of TB; and smoking status and history.
</P>
<P>2.1.2. Further, the employer must provide the PLHCP with the following information:
</P>
<P>2.1.2.1. A description of the employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>2.1.2.2. The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>2.1.2.3. A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used or will use that equipment; and
</P>
<P>2.1.2.4. Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee and currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>2.1.3. Additional guidance and recommendations: A history is particularly important both in the initial evaluation and in periodic examinations. Information on past and current medical conditions (particularly a history of kidney disease, cardiac disease, connective tissue disease, and other immune diseases), medications, hospitalizations and surgeries may uncover health risks, such as immune suppression, that could put an employee at increased health risk from exposure to silica. This information is important when counseling the employee on risks and safe work practices related to silica exposure.
</P>
<P>2.2.<I> Physical Examination.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: A physical examination, with special emphasis on the respiratory system. The physical examination must be performed at the initial examination and every three years thereafter.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. Additional guidance and recommendations: Elements of the physical examination that can assist the PHLCP include: An examination of the cardiac system, an extremity examination (for clubbing, cyanosis, edema, or joint abnormalities), and an examination of other pertinent organ systems identified during the history.
</P>
<P><I>2.3. TB Testing.</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: Baseline testing for TB on initial examination.
</P>
<P>2.3.2. Additional guidance and recommendations:
</P>
<P>2.3.2.1. Current CDC guidelines (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix) should be followed for the application and interpretation of Tuberculin skin tests (TST). The interpretation and documentation of TST reactions should be performed within 48 to 72 hours of administration by trained PLHCPs.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.2. PLHCPs may use alternative TB tests, such as interferon-γ release assays (IGRAs), if sensitivity and specificity are comparable to TST (Mazurek <I>et al.</I> 2010; Slater <I>et al.</I> 2013). PLHCPs can consult the current CDC guidelines for acceptable tests for latent TB infection.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.3. The silica standard allows the PLHCP to order additional tests or test at a greater frequency than required by the standard, if deemed appropriate. Therefore, PLHCPs might perform periodic (<I>e.g.</I>, annual) TB testing as appropriate, based on employees' risk factors. For example, according to the American Thoracic Society (ATS), the diagnosis of silicosis or exposure to silica for 25 years or more are indications for annual TB testing (ATS 1997). PLHCPs should consult the current CDC guidance on risk factors for TB (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix).
</P>
<P>2.3.2.4. Employees with positive TB tests and those with indeterminate test results should be referred to the appropriate agency or specialist, depending on the test results and clinical picture. Agencies, such as local public health departments, or specialists, such as a pulmonary or infectious disease specialist, may be the appropriate referral. Active TB is a nationally notifiable disease. PLHCPs should be aware of the reporting requirements for their region. All States have TB Control Offices that can be contacted for further information. (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix for links to CDC's TB resources and State TB Control Offices.)
</P>
<P>2.3.2.5. The following public health principles are key to TB control in the U.S. (ATS-CDC-IDSA 2005):
</P>
<P><I>(1)</I> Prompt detection and reporting of persons who have contracted active TB;
</P>
<P><I>(2)</I> Prevention of TB spread to close contacts of active TB cases;
</P>
<P><I>(3)</I> Prevention of active TB in people with latent TB through targeted testing and treatment; and
</P>
<P><I>(4)</I> Identification of settings at high risk for TB transmission so that appropriate infection-control measures can be implemented.
</P>
<P><I>2.4. Pulmonary Function Testing.</I>
</P>
<P>2.4.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: Pulmonary function testing must be performed on the initial examination and every three years thereafter. The required pulmonary function test is spirometry and must include forced vital capacity (FVC), forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<E T="52">1</E>), and FEV<E T="52">1</E>/FVC ratio. Testing must be administered by a spirometry technician with a current certificate from a National Institute for Occupational Health and Safety (NIOSH)-approved spirometry course.
</P>
<P>2.4.2. Additional guidance and recommendations: Spirometry provides information about individual respiratory status and can be used to track an employee's respiratory status over time or as a surveillance tool to follow individual and group respiratory function. For quality results, the ATS and the American College of Occupational and Environmental Medicine (ACOEM) recommend use of the third National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES III) values, and ATS publishes recommendations for spirometry equipment (Miller <I>et al.</I> 2005; Townsend 2011; Redlich <I>et al.</I> 2014). OSHA's publication, <I>Spirometry Testing in Occupational Health Programs: Best Practices for Healthcare Professionals</I>, provides helpful guidance (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix). Abnormal spirometry results may warrant further clinical evaluation and possible recommendations for limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P><I>2.5. Chest X-ray.</I>
</P>
<P>2.5.1. The respirable crystalline silica standard requires the following: A single posteroanterior (PA) radiographic projection or radiograph of the chest at full inspiration recorded on either film (no less than 14 x 17 inches and no more than 16 x 17 inches) or digital radiography systems. A chest X-ray must be performed on the initial examination and every three years thereafter. The chest X-ray must be interpreted and classified according to the International Labour Office (ILO) International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses by a NIOSH-certified B Reader.
</P>
<P>Chest radiography is necessary to diagnose silicosis, monitor the progression of silicosis, and identify associated conditions such as TB. If the B reading indicates small opacities in a profusion of 1/0 or higher, the employee is to receive a recommendation for referral to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine.
</P>
<P>2.5.2. Additional guidance and recommendations: Medical imaging has largely transitioned from conventional film-based radiography to digital radiography systems. The ILO Guidelines for the Classification of Pneumoconioses has historically provided film-based chest radiography as a referent standard for comparison to individual exams. However, in 2011, the ILO revised the guidelines to include a digital set of referent standards that were derived from the prior film-based standards. To assist in assuring that digitally-acquired radiographs are at least as safe and effective as film radiographs, NIOSH has prepared guidelines, based upon accepted contemporary professional recommendations (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix). Current research from Laney <I>et al.</I> 2011 and Halldin <I>et al.</I> 2014 validate the use of the ILO digital referent images. Both studies conclude that the results of pneumoconiosis classification using digital references are comparable to film-based ILO classifications. Current ILO guidance on radiography for pneumoconioses and B-reading should be reviewed by the PLHCP periodically, as needed, on the ILO or NIOSH Web sites (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix).
</P>
<P><I>2.6. Other Testing.</I> Under the respirable crystalline silica standards, the PLHCP has the option of ordering additional testing he or she deems appropriate. Additional tests can be ordered on a case-by-case basis depending on individual signs or symptoms and clinical judgment. For example, if an employee reports a history of abnormal kidney function tests, the PLHCP may want to order a baseline renal function tests (<I>e.g.</I>, serum creatinine and urinalysis). As indicated above, the PLHCP may order annual TB testing for silica-exposed employees who are at high risk of developing active TB infections. Additional tests that PLHCPs may order based on findings of medical examinations include, but is not limited to, chest computerized tomography (CT) scan for lung cancer or COPD, testing for immunologic diseases, and cardiac testing for pulmonary-related heart disease, such as cor pulmonale.
</P>
<HD1>3. Roles and Responsibilities
</HD1>
<P><I>3.1. PLHCP.</I> The PLHCP designation refers to “an individual whose legally permitted scope of practice (<I>i.e.</I>, license, registration, or certification) allows him or her to independently provide or be delegated the responsibility to provide some or all of the particular health care services required” by the respirable crystalline silica standard. The legally permitted scope of practice for the PLHCP is determined by each State. PLHCPs who perform clinical services for a silica medical surveillance program should have a thorough knowledge of respirable crystalline silica-related diseases and symptoms. Suspected cases of silicosis, advanced COPD, or other respiratory conditions causing impairment should be promptly referred to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine.
</P>
<P>Once the medical surveillance examination is completed, the employer must ensure that the PLHCP explains to the employee the results of the medical examination and provides the employee with a written medical report within 30 days of the examination. The written medical report must contain a statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including any medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and any medical conditions that require further evaluation or treatment. In addition, the PLHCP's written medical report must include any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators, any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica, and a statement that the employee should be examined by a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational medicine if the chest X-ray is classified as 1/0 or higher by the B Reader, or if referral to a Specialist is otherwise deemed appropriate by the PLHCP.
</P>
<P>The PLHCP should discuss all findings and test results and any recommendations regarding the employee's health, worksite safety and health practices, and medical referrals for further evaluation, if indicated. In addition, it is suggested that the PLHCP offer to provide the employee with a complete copy of their examination and test results, as some employees may want this information for their own records or to provide to their personal physician or a future PLHCP. Employees are entitled to access their medical records.
</P>
<P>Under the respirable crystalline silica standard, the employer must ensure that the PLHCP provides the employer with a written medical opinion within 30 days of the employee examination, and that the employee also gets a copy of the written medical opinion for the employer within 30 days. The PLHCP may choose to directly provide the employee a copy of the written medical opinion. This can be particularly helpful to employees, such as construction employees, who may change employers frequently. The written medical opinion can be used by the employee as proof of up-to-date medical surveillance. The following lists the elements of the written medical report for the employee and written medical opinion for the employer. (Sample forms for the written medical report for the employee, the written medical opinion for the employer, and the written authorization are provided in Section 7 of this Appendix.)
</P>
<P>3.1.1. The written medical report for the employee must include the following information:
</P>
<P>3.1.1.1. A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including any medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and any medical conditions that require further evaluation or treatment;
</P>
<P>3.1.1.2. Any recommended limitations upon the employee's use of a respirator;
</P>
<P>3.1.1.3. Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica; and
</P>
<P>3.1.1.4. A statement that the employee should be examined by a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine, where the standard requires or where the PLHCP has determined such a referral is necessary. The standard requires referral to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine for a chest X-ray B reading indicating small opacities in a profusion of 1/0 or higher, or if the PHLCP determines that referral to a Specialist is necessary for other silica-related findings.
</P>
<P>3.1.2. The PLHCP's written medical opinion for the employer must include only the following information:
</P>
<P>3.1.2.1. The date of the examination;
</P>
<P>3.1.2.2. A statement that the examination has met the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>3.1.2.3. Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.4. If the employee provides the PLHCP with written authorization, the written opinion for the employer shall also contain either or both of the following:
</P>
<P><I>(1)</I> Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica; and
</P>
<P><I>(2)</I> A statement that the employee should be examined by a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine if the chest X-ray provided in accordance with this section is classified as 1/0 or higher by the B Reader, or if referral to a Specialist is otherwise deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.5. In addition to the above referral for abnormal chest X-ray, the PLHCP may refer an employee to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine for other findings of concern during the medical surveillance examination if these findings are potentially related to silica exposure.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.6. Although the respirable crystalline silica standard requires the employer to ensure that the PLHCP explains the results of the medical examination to the employee, the standard does not mandate how this should be done. The written medical opinion for the employer could contain a statement that the PLHCP has explained the results of the medical examination to the employee.
</P>
<P><I>3.2. Medical Specialists.</I> The silica standard requires that all employees with chest X-ray B readings of 1/0 or higher be referred to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine. If the employee has given written authorization for the employer to be informed, then the employer shall make available a medical examination by a Specialist within 30 days after receiving the PLHCP's written medical opinion.
</P>
<P>3.2.1. The employer must provide the following information to the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine:
</P>
<P>3.2.1.1. A description of the employee's former, current, and anticipated duties as they relate to the employee's occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>3.2.1.2. The employee's former, current, and anticipated levels of occupational exposure to respirable crystalline silica;
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3. A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used by the employee, including when and for how long the employee has used or will use that equipment; and
</P>
<P>3.2.1.4. Information from records of employment-related medical examinations previously provided to the employee and currently within the control of the employer.
</P>
<P>3.2.2. The PLHCP should make certain that, with written authorization from the employee, the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine has any other pertinent medical and occupational information necessary for the specialist's evaluation of the employee's condition.
</P>
<P>3.2.3. Once the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine has evaluated the employee, the employer must ensure that the Specialist explains to the employee the results of the medical examination and provides the employee with a written medical report within 30 days of the examination. The employer must also ensure that the Specialist provides the employer with a written medical opinion within 30 days of the employee examination. (Sample forms for the written medical report for the employee, the written medical opinion for the employer and the written authorization are provided in Section 7 of this Appendix.)
</P>
<P>3.2.4. The Specialist's written medical report for the employee must include the following information:
</P>
<P>3.2.4.1. A statement indicating the results of the medical examination, including any medical condition(s) that would place the employee at increased risk of material impairment to health from exposure to respirable crystalline silica and any medical conditions that require further evaluation or treatment;
</P>
<P>3.2.4.2. Any recommended limitations upon the employee's use of a respirator; and
</P>
<P>3.2.4.3. Any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>3.2.5. The Specialist's written medical opinion for the employer must include the following information:
</P>
<P>3.2.5.1. The date of the examination; and
</P>
<P>3.2.5.2. Any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators.
</P>
<P>3.2.5.3. If the employee provides the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine with written authorization, the written medical opinion for the employer shall also contain any recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>3.2.5.4. Although the respirable crystalline silica standard requires the employer to ensure that the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine explains the results of the medical examination to the employee, the standard does not mandate how this should be done. The written medical opinion for the employer could contain a statement that the Specialist has explained the results of the medical examination to the employee.
</P>
<P>3.2.6. After evaluating the employee, the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine should provide feedback to the PLHCP as appropriate, depending on the reason for the referral. OSHA believes that because the PLHCP has the primary relationship with the employer and employee, the Specialist may want to communicate his or her findings to the PLHCP and have the PLHCP simply update the original medical report for the employee and medical opinion for the employer. This is permitted under the standard, so long as all requirements and time deadlines are met.
</P>
<P><I>3.3. Public Health Professionals.</I> PLHCPs might refer employees or consult with public health professionals as a result of silica medical surveillance. For instance, if individual cases of active TB are identified, public health professionals from state or local health departments may assist in diagnosis and treatment of individual cases and may evaluate other potentially affected persons, including coworkers. Because silica-exposed employees are at increased risk of progression from latent to active TB, treatment of latent infection is recommended. The diagnosis of active TB, acute or accelerated silicosis, or other silica-related diseases and infections should serve as sentinel events suggesting high levels of exposure to silica and may require consultation with the appropriate public health agencies to investigate potentially similarly exposed coworkers to assess for disease clusters. These agencies include local or state health departments or OSHA. In addition, NIOSH can provide assistance upon request through their Health Hazard Evaluation program. (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix)
</P>
<HD1>4. Confidentiality and Other Considerations
</HD1>
<P>The information that is provided from the PLHCP to the employee and employer under the medical surveillance section of OSHA's respirable crystalline silica standard differs from that of medical surveillance requirements in previous OSHA standards. The standard requires two separate written communications, a written medical report for the employee and a written medical opinion for the employer. The confidentiality requirements for the written medical opinion are more stringent than in past standards. For example, the information the PLHCP can (and must) include in his or her written medical opinion for the employer is limited to: The date of the examination, a statement that the examination has met the requirements of this section, and any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators. If the employee provides written authorization for the disclosure of any limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica, then the PLHCP can (and must) include that information in the written medical opinion for the employer as well. Likewise, with the employee's written authorization, the PLHCP can (and must) disclose the PLHCP's referral recommendation (if any) as part of the written medical opinion for the employer. However, the opinion to the employer must not include information regarding recommended limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica or any referral recommendations without the employee's written authorization.
</P>
<P>The standard also places limitations on the information that the Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine can provide to the employer without the employee's written authorization. The Specialist's written medical opinion for the employer, like the PLHCP's opinion, is limited to (and must contain): The date of the examination and any recommended limitations on the employee's use of respirators. If the employee provides written authorization, the written medical opinion can (and must) also contain any limitations on the employee's exposure to respirable crystalline silica.
</P>
<P>The PLHCP should discuss the implication of signing or not signing the authorization with the employee (in a manner and language that he or she understands) so that the employee can make an informed decision regarding the written authorization and its consequences. The discussion should include the risk of ongoing silica exposure, personal risk factors, risk of disease progression, and possible health and economic consequences. For instance, written authorization is required for a PLHCP to advise an employer that an employee should be referred to a Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine for evaluation of an abnormal chest X-ray (B-reading 1/0 or greater). If an employee does not sign an authorization, then the employer will not know and cannot facilitate the referral to a Specialist and is not required to pay for the Specialist's examination. In the rare case where an employee is diagnosed with acute or accelerated silicosis, co-workers are likely to be at significant risk of developing those diseases as a result of inadequate controls in the workplace. In this case, the PLHCP and/or Specialist should explain this concern to the affected employee and make a determined effort to obtain written authorization from the employee so that the PLHCP and/or Specialist can contact the employer.
</P>
<P>Finally, without written authorization from the employee, the PLHCP and/or Board Certified Specialist in Pulmonary Disease or Occupational Medicine cannot provide feedback to an employer regarding control of workplace silica exposure, at least in relation to an individual employee. However, the regulation does not prohibit a PLHCP and/or Specialist from providing an employer with general recommendations regarding exposure controls and prevention programs in relation to silica exposure and silica-related illnesses, based on the information that the PLHCP receives from the employer such as employees' duties and exposure levels. Recommendations may include increased frequency of medical surveillance examinations, additional medical surveillance components, engineering and work practice controls, exposure monitoring and personal protective equipment. For instance, more frequent medical surveillance examinations may be a recommendation to employers for employees who do abrasive blasting with silica because of the high exposures associated with that operation.
</P>
<P>ACOEM's Code of Ethics and discussion is a good resource to guide PLHCPs regarding the issues discussed in this section (<I>See</I> Section 5 of this Appendix).
</P>
<HD1>5. Resources
</HD1>
<P>5.1. American College of Occupational and Environmental Medicine (ACOEM):
</P>
<FP-2>ACOEM Code of Ethics. Accessed at:<I>http://www.acoem.org/codeofconduct.aspx</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Raymond, L.W. and Wintermeyer, S. (2006) ACOEM evidenced-based statement on medical surveillance of silica-exposed workers: Medical surveillance of workers exposed to crystalline silica. <I>J Occup Environ Med</I>, 48, 95-101.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2. Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
</P>
<FP-2>Tuberculosis Web page: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/tb/default.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>State TB Control Offices Web page: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/tb/links/tboffices.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Tuberculosis Laws and Policies Web page: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/tb/programs/laws/default.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CDC. (2013). Latent Tuberculosis Infection: A Guide for Primary Health Care Providers. Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/tb/publications/ltbi/pdf/targetedltbi.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.3. International Labour Organization
</P>
<FP-2>International Labour Office (ILO). (2011) Guidelines for the use of the ILO International Classification of Radiographs of Pneumoconioses, Revised edition 2011. Occupational Safety and Health Series No. 22: <I>http://www.ilo.org/safework/info/publications/WCMS_168260/lang-en/index.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.4. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
</P>
<FP-2>NIOSH B Reader Program Web page. (Information on interpretation of X-rays for silicosis and a list of certified B-readers). Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/topics/chestradiography/breader-info.html</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>NIOSH Guideline (2011). Application of Digital Radiography for the Detection and Classification of Pneumoconiosis. NIOSH publication number 2011-198. Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/2011-198/</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>NIOSH Hazard Review (2002), Health Effects of Occupational Exposure to Respirable Crystalline Silica. NIOSH publication number 2002-129: Accessed at <I>http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/2002-129/</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>NIOSH Health Hazard Evaluations Programs. (Information on the NIOSH Health Hazard Evaluation (HHE) program, how to request an HHE and how to look up an HHE report). Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/hhe/</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.5. National Industrial Sand Association:
</P>
<FP-2>Occupational Health Program for Exposure to Crystalline Silica in the Industrial Sand Industry. National Industrial Sand Association, 2nd ed. 2010. Can be ordered at: <I>http://www.sand.org/silica-occupational-health-program</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.6. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
</P>
<FP-2>Contacting OSHA: <I>http://www.osha.gov/html/Feed_Back.html</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA's Clinicians Web page. (OSHA resources, regulations and links to help clinicians navigate OSHA's Web site and aid clinicians in caring for workers.) Accessed at: <I>http://www.osha.gov/dts/oom/clinicians/index.html</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA's Safety and Health Topics Web page on Silica. Accessed at: <I>http://www.osha.gov/dsg/topics/silicacrystalline/index.html</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA (2013). Spirometry Testing in Occupational Health Programs: Best Practices for Healthcare Professionals. (OSHA 3637-03 2013). Accessed at: <I>http://www.osha.gov/Publications/OSHA3637.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA/NIOSH (2011). Spirometry: OSHA/NIOSH Spirometry InfoSheet (OSHA 3415-1-11). (Provides guidance to employers). Accessed at <I>http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3415.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OSHA/NIOSH (2011) Spirometry: OSHA/NIOSH Spirometry Worker Info. (OSHA 3418-3-11). Accessed at <I>http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3418.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<P>5.7. Other
</P>
<FP-2>Steenland, K. and Ward E. (2014). Silica: A lung carcinogen. <I>CA Cancer J Clin</I>, 64, 63-69. (This article reviews not only silica and lung cancer but also all the known silica-related health effects. Further, the authors provide guidance to clinicians on medical surveillance of silica-exposed workers and worker counselling on safety practices to minimize silica exposure.)
</FP-2>
<HD1>6. References
</HD1>
<FP-2>American Thoracic Society (ATS). Medical Section of the American Lung Association (1997). Adverse effects of crystalline silica exposure. <I>Am J Respir Crit Care Med</I>, 155, 761-765.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>American Thoracic Society (ATS), Centers for Disease Control (CDC), Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) (2005). Controlling Tuberculosis in the United States. <I>Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)</I>, 54(RR12), 1-81. Accessed at: <I>http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/rr5412a1.htm</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Brown, T. (2009). Silica exposure, smoking, silicosis and lung cancer—complex interactions. <I>Occupational Medicine</I>, 59, 89-95.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Halldin, C.N., Petsonk, E.L., and Laney, A.S. (2014). Validation of the International Labour Office digitized standard images for recognition and classification of radiographs of pneumoconiosis. <I>Acad Radiol</I>, 21, 305-311.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>International Agency for Research on Cancer. (2012). Monographs on the evaluation of carcinogenic risks to humans: Arsenic, Metals, Fibers, and Dusts Silica Dust, Crystalline, in the Form of Quartz or Cristobalite. A Review of Human Carcinogens. Volume 100 C. Geneva, Switzerland: World Health Organization.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Jalloul, A.S. and Banks D.E. (2007). Chapter 23. The health effects of silica exposure. In: Rom, W.N. and Markowitz, S.B. (Eds). Environmental and Occupational Medicine, 4th edition. Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, Philadelphia, 365-387.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Kramer, M.R., Blanc, P.D., Fireman, E., Amital, A., Guber, A., Rahman, N.A., and Shitrit, D. (2012). Artifical stone silicosis: Disease resurgence among artificial stone workers. <I>Chest</I>, 142, 419-424.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Laney, A.S., Petsonk, E.L., and Attfield, M.D. (2011). Intramodality and intermodality comparisons of storage phosphor computed radiography and conventional film-screen radiography in the recognition of small pneumonconiotic opacities. <I>Chest</I>, 140, 1574-1580.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Liu, Y., Steenland, K., Rong, Y., Hnizdo, E., Huang, X., Zhang, H., Shi, T., Sun, Y., Wu, T., and Chen, W. (2013). Exposure-response analysis and risk assessment for lung cancer in relationship to silica exposure: A 44-year cohort study of 34,018 workers. <I>Am J Epi</I>, 178, 1424-1433.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Liu, Y., Rong, Y., Steenland, K., Christiani, D.C., Huang, X., Wu, T., and Chen, W. (2014). Long-term exposure to crystalline silica and risk of heart disease mortality. <I>Epidemiology</I>, 25, 689-696.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Mazurek, G.H., Jereb, J., Vernon, A., LoBue, P., Goldberg, S., Castro, K. (2010). Updated guidelines for using interferon gamma release assays to detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection—United States. <I>Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)</I>, 59(RR05), 1-25.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Miller, M.R., Hankinson, J., Brusasco, V., Burgos, F., Casaburi, R., Coates, A., Crapo, R., Enright, P., van der Grinten, C.P., Gustafsson, P., Jensen, R., Johnson, D.C., MacIntyre, N., McKay, R., Navajas, D., Pedersen, O.F., Pellegrino, R., Viegi, G., and Wanger, J. (2005). American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society (ATS/ERS) Task Force: Standardisation of Spirometry. <I>Eur Respir J</I>, 26, 319-338.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>National Toxicology Program (NTP) (2014). Report on Carcinogens, Thirteenth Edition. Silica, Crystalline (respirable Size). Research Triangle Park, NC: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service. <I>http://ntp.niehs.nih.gov/ntp/roc/content/profiles/silica.pdf</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Occupational Safety and Health Administration/National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (OSHA/NIOSH) (2012). Hazard Alert. Worker exposure to silica during hydraulic fracturing.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Occupational Safety and Health Administration/National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (OSHA/NIOSH) (2015). Hazard alert. Worker exposure to silica during countertop manufacturing, finishing, and installation. (OSHA-HA-3768-2015).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Redlich, C.A., Tarlo, S.M., Hankinson, J.L., Townsend, M.C, Eschenbacher, W.L., Von Essen, S.G., Sigsgaard, T., Weissman, D.N. (2014). Official American Thoracic Society technical standards: Spirometry in the occupational setting. <I>Am J Respir Crit Care Med</I>; 189, 984-994.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Rees, D. and Murray, J. (2007). Silica, silicosis and tuberculosis. <I>Int J Tuberc Lung Dis</I>, 11(5), 474-484.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Shtraichman, O., Blanc, P.D., Ollech, J.E., Fridel, L., Fuks, L., Fireman, E., and Kramer, M.R. (2015). Outbreak of autoimmune disease in silicosis linked to artificial stone. <I>Occup Med</I>, 65, 444-450.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Slater, M.L., Welland, G., Pai, M., Parsonnet, J., and Banaei, N. (2013). Challenges with QuantiFERON-TB gold assay for large-scale, routine screening of U.S. healthcare workers. <I>Am J Respir Crit Care Med,</I> 188,1005-1010.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Steenland, K., Mannetje, A., Boffetta, P., Stayner, L., Attfield, M., Chen, J., Dosemeci, M., DeKlerk, N., Hnizdo, E., Koskela, R., and Checkoway, H. (2001). International Agency for Research on Cancer. Pooled exposure-response analyses and risk assessment for lung cancer in 10 cohorts of silica-exposed workers: An IARC multicentre study. <I>Cancer Causes Control,</I> 12(9): 773-84.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Steenland, K. and Ward E. (2014). Silica: A lung carcinogen. <I>CA Cancer J Clin,</I> 64, 63-69.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Townsend, M.C. ACOEM Guidance Statement. (2011). Spirometry in the occupational health setting—2011 Update. <I>J Occup Environ Med,</I> 53, 569-584.
</FP-2>
<HD1>7. Sample Forms
</HD1>
<P>Three sample forms are provided. The first is a sample written medical report for the employee. The second is a sample written medical opinion for the employer. And the third is a sample written authorization form that employees sign to clarify what information the employee is authorizing to be released to the employer.</P></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er25mr16.175.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er25mr16.176.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er25mr16.177.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 16876, Mar. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="AA" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart AA—Confined Spaces in Construction</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912); and 29 CFR part 1911.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 25518, May 4, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1200" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1200   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1201" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1201   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This standard sets forth requirements for practices and procedures to protect employees engaged in construction activities at a worksite with one or more confined spaces, subject to the exceptions in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>).</HED>
<P>Examples of locations where confined spaces may occur include, but are not limited to, the following: Bins; boilers; pits (such as elevator, escalator, pump, valve or other equipment); manholes (such as sewer, storm drain, electrical, communication, or other utility); tanks (such as fuel, chemical, water, or other liquid, solid or gas); incinerators; scrubbers; concrete pier columns; sewers; transformer vaults; heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning (HVAC) ducts; storm drains; water mains; precast concrete and other pre-formed manhole units; drilled shafts; enclosed beams; vessels; digesters; lift stations; cesspools; silos; air receivers; sludge gates; air preheaters; step up transformers; turbines; chillers; bag houses; and/or mixers/reactors.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> This standard does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Construction work regulated by subpart P of this part (Excavations).
</P>
<P>(2) Construction work regulated by subpart S of this part (Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams and Compressed Air).
</P>
<P>(3) Construction work regulated by subpart Y of this part (Diving).
</P>
<P>(c) Where this standard applies and there is a provision that addresses a confined space hazard in another applicable OSHA standard, the employer must comply with both that requirement and the applicable provisions of this standard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1202" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined for the purposes of this subpart only:
</P>
<P><I>Acceptable entry conditions</I> means the conditions that must exist in a permit space, before an employee may enter that space, to ensure that employees can safely enter into, and safely work within, the space.
</P>
<P><I>Attendant</I> means an individual stationed outside one or more permit spaces who assesses the status of authorized entrants and who must perform the duties specified in § 1926.1209.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized entrant</I> means an employee who is authorized by the entry supervisor to enter a permit space.
</P>
<P><I>Barrier</I> means a physical obstruction that blocks or limits access.
</P>
<P><I>Blanking</I> or <I>blinding</I> means the absolute closure of a pipe, line, or duct by the fastening of a solid plate (such as a spectacle blind or a skillet blind) that completely covers the bore and that is capable of withstanding the maximum pressure of the pipe, line, or duct with no leakage beyond the plate.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has the authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
</P>
<P><I>Confined space</I> means a space that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is large enough and so configured that an employee can bodily enter it;
</P>
<P>(2) Has limited or restricted means for entry and exit; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is not designed for continuous employee occupancy.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means the action taken to reduce the level of any hazard inside a confined space using engineering methods (for example, by ventilation), and then using these methods to maintain the reduced hazard level. Control also refers to the engineering methods used for this purpose. Personal protective equipment is not a control.
</P>
<P><I>Controlling Contractor</I> is the employer that has overall responsibility for construction at the worksite.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Controlling Contractor”.</HED>
<P>If the controlling contractor owns or manages the property, then it is both a controlling employer and a host employer.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Double block and bleed</I> means the closure of a line, duct, or pipe by closing and locking or tagging two in-line valves and by opening and locking or tagging a drain or vent valve in the line between the two closed valves.
</P>
<P><I>Early-warning system</I> means the method used to alert authorized entrants and attendants that an engulfment hazard may be developing. Examples of early-warning systems include, but are not limited to: Alarms activated by remote sensors; and lookouts with equipment for immediately communicating with the authorized entrants and attendants.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence (including any failure of power, hazard control or monitoring equipment) or event, internal or external, to the permit space that could endanger entrants.
</P>
<P><I>Engulfment</I> means the surrounding and effective capture of a person by a liquid or finely divided (flowable) solid substance that can be aspirated to cause death by filling or plugging the respiratory system or that can exert enough force on the body to cause death by strangulation, constriction, crushing, or suffocation.
</P>
<P><I>Entry</I> means the action by which any part of a person passes through an opening into a permit-required confined space. Entry includes ensuing work activities in that space and is considered to have occurred as soon as any part of the entrant's body breaks the plane of an opening into the space, whether or not such action is intentional or any work activities are actually performed in the space.
</P>
<P><I>Entry Employer</I> means any employer who decides that an employee it directs will enter a permit space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Entry Employer”.</HED>
<P>An employer cannot avoid the duties of the standard merely by refusing to decide whether its employees will enter a permit space, and OSHA will consider the failure to so decide to be an implicit decision to allow employees to enter those spaces if they are working in the proximity of the space.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Entry permit</I> (permit) means the written or printed document that is provided by the employer who designated the space a permit space to allow and control entry into a permit space and that contains the information specified in § 1926.1206.
</P>
<P><I>Entry rescue</I> occurs when a rescue service enters a permit space to rescue one or more employees.
</P>
<P><I>Entry supervisor</I> means the qualified person (such as the employer, foreman, or crew chief) responsible for determining if acceptable entry conditions are present at a permit space where entry is planned, for authorizing entry and overseeing entry operations, and for terminating entry as required by this standard.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Entry supervisor”</HED>
<P>An entry supervisor also may serve as an attendant or as an authorized entrant, as long as that person is trained and equipped as required by this standard for each role he or she fills. Also, the duties of entry supervisor may be passed from one individual to another during the course of an entry operation.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Hazard</I> means a physical hazard or hazardous atmosphere. See definitions below.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere that may expose employees to the risk of death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue (that is, escape unaided from a permit space), injury, or acute illness from one or more of the following causes:
</P>
<P>(1) Flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of 10 percent of its lower flammable limit (LFL);
</P>
<P>(2) Airborne combustible dust at a concentration that meets or exceeds its LFL;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (2) of the definition of “Hazardous atmosphere”.</HED>
<P>This concentration may be approximated as a condition in which the combustible dust obscures vision at a distance of 5 feet (1.52 meters) or less.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) Atmospheric oxygen concentration below 19.5 percent or above 23.5 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) Atmospheric concentration of any substance for which a dose or a permissible exposure limit is published in subpart D of this part (Occupational Health and Environmental Control), or in subpart Z of this part (Toxic and Hazardous Substances), and which could result in employee exposure in excess of its dose or permissible exposure limit;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (4) of the definition of “Hazardous atmosphere”.</HED>
<P>An atmospheric concentration of any substance that is not capable of causing death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue, injury, or acute illness due to its health effects is not covered by this definition.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Any other atmospheric condition that is immediately dangerous to life or health.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (5) of the definition of “Hazardous atmosphere”.</HED>
<P>For air contaminants for which OSHA has not determined a dose or permissible exposure limit, other sources of information, such as Safety Data Sheets that comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, § 1926.59, published information, and internal documents can provide guidance in establishing acceptable atmospheric conditions.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Host employer</I> means the employer that owns or manages the property where the construction work is taking place.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Host employer”.</HED>
<P>If the owner of the property on which the construction activity occurs has contracted with an entity for the general management of that property, and has transferred to that entity the information specified in § 1926.1203(h)(1), OSHA will treat the contracted management entity as the host employer for as long as that entity manages the property. Otherwise, OSHA will treat the owner of the property as the host employer. In no case will there be more than one host employer.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Hot work</I> means operations capable of providing a source of ignition (for example, riveting, welding, cutting, burning, and heating).
</P>
<P><I>Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)</I> means any condition that would interfere with an individual's ability to escape unaided from a permit space and that poses a threat to life or that would cause irreversible adverse health effects.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Immediately dangerous to life or health”.</HED>
<P>Some materials—hydrogen fluoride gas and cadmium vapor, for example—may produce immediate transient effects that, even if severe, may pass without medical attention, but are followed by sudden, possibly fatal collapse 12-72 hours after exposure. The victim “feels normal” after recovery from transient effects until collapse. Such materials in hazardous quantities are considered to be “immediately” dangerous to life or health.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Inerting</I> means displacing the atmosphere in a permit space by a noncombustible gas (such as nitrogen) to such an extent that the resulting atmosphere is noncombustible.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Intering”.</HED>
<P>This procedure produces an IDLH oxygen-deficient atmosphere.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Isolate or isolation</I> means the process by which employees in a confined space are completely protected against the release of energy and material into the space, and contact with a physical hazard, by such means as: Blanking or blinding; misaligning or removing sections of lines, pipes, or ducts; a double block and bleed system; lockout or tagout of all sources of energy; blocking or disconnecting all mechanical linkages; or placement of barriers to eliminate the potential for employee contact with a physical hazard.
</P>
<P><I>Limited or restricted means for entry or exit</I> means a condition that has a potential to impede an employee's movement into or out of a confined space. Such conditions include, but are not limited to, trip hazards, poor illumination, slippery floors, inclining surfaces and ladders.
</P>
<P><I>Line breaking</I> means the intentional opening of a pipe, line, or duct that is or has been carrying flammable, corrosive, or toxic material, an inert gas, or any fluid at a volume, pressure, or temperature capable of causing injury.
</P>
<P><I>Lockout</I> means the placement of a lockout device on an energy isolating device, in accordance with an established procedure, ensuring that the energy isolating device and the equipment being controlled cannot be operated until the lockout device is removed.
</P>
<P><I>Lower flammable limit or lower explosive limit</I> means the minimum concentration of a substance in air needed for an ignition source to cause a flame or explosion.
</P>
<P><I>Monitor</I> or <I>monitoring</I> means the process used to identify and evaluate the hazards after an authorized entrant enters the space. This is a process of checking for changes that is performed in a periodic or continuous manner after the completion of the initial testing or evaluation of that space.
</P>
<P><I>Non-entry rescue</I> occurs when a rescue service, usually the attendant, retrieves employees in a permit space without entering the permit space.
</P>
<P><I>Non-permit confined space</I> means a confined space that meets the definition of a confined space but does not meet the requirements for a permit-required confined space, as defined in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen deficient atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere containing less than 19.5 percent oxygen by volume.
</P>
<P><I>Oxygen enriched atmosphere</I> means an atmosphere containing more than 23.5 percent oxygen by volume.
</P>
<P><I>Permit-required confined space</I> (permit space) means a confined space that has one or more of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) Contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant;
</P>
<P>(3) Has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor which slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross-section; or
</P>
<P>(4) Contains any other recognized serious safety or health hazard.
</P>
<P><I>Permit-required confined space program</I> (permit space program) means the employer's overall program for controlling, and, where appropriate, for protecting employees from, permit space hazards and for regulating employee entry into permit spaces.
</P>
<P><I>Physical hazard</I> means an existing or potential hazard that can cause death or serious physical damage. Examples include, but are not limited to: Explosives (as defined by paragraph (n) of § 1926.914, definition of “explosive”); mechanical, electrical, hydraulic and pneumatic energy; radiation; temperature extremes; engulfment; noise; and inwardly converging surfaces. Physical hazard also includes chemicals that can cause death or serious physical damage through skin or eye contact (rather than through inhalation).
</P>
<P><I>Prohibited condition</I> means any condition in a permit space that is not allowed by the permit during the period when entry is authorized. A hazardous atmosphere is a prohibited condition unless the employer can demonstrate that personal protective equipment (PPE) will provide effective protection for each employee in the permit space and provides the appropriate PPE to each employee.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person</I> means one who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated his ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.
</P>
<P><I>Representative permit space</I> means a mock-up of a confined space that has entrance openings that are similar to, and is of similar size, configuration, and accessibility to, the permit space that authorized entrants enter.
</P>
<P><I>Rescue</I> means retrieving, and providing medical assistance to, one or more employees who are in a permit space.
</P>
<P><I>Rescue service</I> means the personnel designated to rescue employees from permit spaces.
</P>
<P><I>Retrieval system</I> means the equipment (including a retrieval line, chest or full body harness, wristlets or anklets, if appropriate, and a lifting device or anchor) used for non-entry rescue of persons from permit spaces.
</P>
<P><I>Serious physical damage</I> means an impairment or illness in which a body part is made functionally useless or is substantially reduced in efficiency. Such impairment or illness may be permanent or temporary and includes, but is not limited to, loss of consciousness, disorientation, or other immediate and substantial reduction in mental efficiency. Injuries involving such impairment would usually require treatment by a physician or other licensed health-care professional.
</P>
<P><I>Tagout</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Placement of a tagout device on a circuit or equipment that has been deenergized, in accordance with an established procedure, to indicate that the circuit or equipment being controlled may not be operated until the tagout device is removed; and
</P>
<P>(2) The employer ensures that:
</P>
<P>(i) Tagout provides equivalent protection to lockout; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That lockout is infeasible and the employer has relieved, disconnected, restrained and otherwise rendered safe stored (residual) energy.
</P>
<P><I>Test or testing</I> means the process by which the hazards that may confront entrants of a permit space are identified and evaluated. Testing includes specifying the tests that are to be performed in the permit space.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to the definition of “Test or testing”.</HED>
<P>Testing enables employers both to devise and implement adequate control measures for the protection of authorized entrants and to determine if acceptable entry conditions are present immediately prior to, and during, entry.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Ventilate</I> or <I>ventilation</I> means controlling a hazardous atmosphere using continuous forced-air mechanical systems that meet the requirements of § 1926.57 (Ventilation).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1203" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1203   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before it begins work at a worksite, each employer must ensure that a competent person identifies all confined spaces in which one or more of the employees it directs may work, and identifies each space that is a permit space, through consideration and evaluation of the elements of that space, including testing as necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) If the workplace contains one or more permit spaces, the employer who identifies, or who receives notice of, a permit space must:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform exposed employees by posting danger signs or by any other equally effective means, of the existence and location of, and the danger posed by, each permit space; and
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1).</HED>
<P>A sign reading “DANGER—PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE, DO NOT ENTER” or using other similar language would satisfy the requirement for a sign.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Inform, in a timely manner and in a manner other than posting, its employees' authorized representatives and the controlling contractor of the existence and location of, and the danger posed by, each permit space.
</P>
<P>(c) Each employer who identifies, or receives notice of, a permit space and has not authorized employees it directs to work in that space must take effective measures to prevent those employees from entering that permit space, in addition to complying with all other applicable requirements of this standard.
</P>
<P>(d) If any employer decides that employees it directs will enter a permit space, that employer must have a written permit space program that complies with § 1926.1204 implemented at the construction site. The written program must be made available prior to and during entry operations for inspection by employees and their authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(e) An employer may use the alternate procedures specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section for entering a permit space only under the conditions set forth in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) An employer whose employees enter a permit space need not comply with §§ 1926.1204 through 1206 and §§ 1926.1208 through 1211, provided that all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer can demonstrate that all physical hazards in the space are eliminated or isolated through engineering controls so that the only hazard posed by the permit space is an actual or potential hazardous atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer can demonstrate that continuous forced air ventilation alone is sufficient to maintain that permit space safe for entry, and that, in the event the ventilation system stops working, entrants can exit the space safely;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer develops monitoring and inspection data that supports the demonstrations required by paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) If an initial entry of the permit space is necessary to obtain the data required by paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, the entry is performed in compliance with §§ 1926.1204 through 1926.1211;
</P>
<P>(v) The determinations and supporting data required by paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section are documented by the employer and are made available to each employee who enters the permit space under the terms of paragraph (e) of this section or to that employee's authorized representative; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Entry into the permit space under the terms of paragraph (e)(1) of this section is performed in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(1).</HED>
<P>See paragraph (g) of this section for reclassification of a permit space after all hazards within the space have been eliminated.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The following requirements apply to entry into permit spaces that meet the conditions set forth in paragraph (e)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Any conditions making it unsafe to remove an entrance cover must be eliminated before the cover is removed.
</P>
<P>(ii) When entrance covers are removed, the opening must be immediately guarded by a railing, temporary cover, or other temporary barrier that will prevent an accidental fall through the opening and that will protect each employee working in the space from foreign objects entering the space.
</P>
<P>(iii) Before an employee enters the space, the internal atmosphere must be tested, with a calibrated direct-reading instrument, for oxygen content, for flammable gases and vapors, and for potential toxic air contaminants, in that order. Any employee who enters the space, or that employee's authorized representative, must be provided an opportunity to observe the pre-entry testing required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iv) No hazardous atmosphere is permitted within the space whenever any employee is inside the space.
</P>
<P>(v) Continuous forced air ventilation must be used, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) An employee must not enter the space until the forced air ventilation has eliminated any hazardous atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(B) The forced air ventilation must be so directed as to ventilate the immediate areas where an employee is or will be present within the space and must continue until all employees have left the space;
</P>
<P>(C) The air supply for the forced air ventilation must be from a clean source and must not increase the hazards in the space.
</P>
<P>(vi) The atmosphere within the space must be continuously monitored unless the entry employer can demonstrate that equipment for continuous monitoring is not commercially available or periodic monitoring is sufficient. If continuous monitoring is used, the employer must ensure that the monitoring equipment has an alarm that will notify all entrants if a specified atmospheric threshold is achieved, or that an employee will check the monitor with sufficient frequency to ensure that entrants have adequate time to escape. If continuous monitoring is not used, periodic monitoring is required. All monitoring must ensure that the continuous forced air ventilation is preventing the accumulation of a hazardous atmosphere. Any employee who enters the space, or that employee's authorized representative, must be provided with an opportunity to observe the testing required by this paragraph (e)(2)(vi).
</P>
<P>(vii) If a hazard is detected during entry:
</P>
<P>(A) Each employee must leave the space immediately;
</P>
<P>(B) The space must be evaluated to determine how the hazard developed; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employer must implement measures to protect employees from the hazard before any subsequent entry takes place.
</P>
<P>(viii) The employer must ensure a safe method of entering and exiting the space. If a hoisting system is used, it must be designed and manufactured for personnel hoisting; however, a job-made hoisting system is permissible if it is approved for personnel hoisting by a registered professional engineer, in writing, prior to use.
</P>
<P>(ix) The employer must verify that the space is safe for entry and that the pre-entry measures required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section have been taken, through a written certification that contains the date, the location of the space, and the signature of the person providing the certification. The certification must be made before entry and must be made available to each employee entering the space or to that employee's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(f) When there are changes in the use or configuration of a non-permit confined space that might increase the hazards to entrants, or some indication that the initial evaluation of the space may not have been adequate, each entry employer must have a competent person reevaluate that space and, if necessary, reclassify it as a permit-required confined space.
</P>
<P>(g) A space classified by an employer as a permit-required confined space may only be reclassified as a non-permit confined space when a competent person determines that all of the applicable requirements in paragraphs (g)(1) through (4) of this section have been met:
</P>
<P>(1) If the permit space poses no actual or potential atmospheric hazards and if all hazards within the space are eliminated or isolated without entry into the space (unless the employer can demonstrate that doing so without entry is infeasible), the permit space may be reclassified as a non-permit confined space for as long as the non-atmospheric hazards remain eliminated or isolated;
</P>
<P>(2) The entry employer must eliminate or isolate the hazards without entering the space, unless it can demonstrate that this is infeasible. If it is necessary to enter the permit space to eliminate or isolate hazards, such entry must be performed under §§ 1926.1204 through 1926.1211. If testing and inspection during that entry demonstrate that the hazards within the permit space have been eliminated or isolated, the permit space may be reclassified as a non-permit confined space for as long as the hazards remain eliminated or isolated;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2).</HED>
<P>Control of atmospheric hazards through forced air ventilation does not constitute elimination or isolation of the hazards. Paragraph (e) of this section covers permit space entry where the employer can demonstrate that forced air ventilation alone will control all hazards in the space.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) The entry employer must document the basis for determining that all hazards in a permit space have been eliminated or isolated, through a certification that contains the date, the location of the space, and the signature of the person making the determination. The certification must be made available to each employee entering the space or to that employee's authorized representative; and
</P>
<P>(4) If hazards arise within a permit space that has been reclassified as a non-permit space under paragraph (g) of this section, each employee in the space must exit the space. The entry employer must then reevaluate the space and reclassify it as a permit space as appropriate in accordance with all other applicable provisions of this standard.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Permit space entry communication and coordination.</I> (1) Before entry operations begin, the host employer must provide the following information, if it has it, to the controlling contractor:
</P>
<P>(i) The location of each known permit space;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hazards or potential hazards in each space or the reason it is a permit space; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any precautions that the host employer or any previous controlling contractor or entry employer implemented for the protection of employees in the permit space.
</P>
<P>(2) Before entry operations begin, the controlling contractor must:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain the host employer's information about the permit space hazards and previous entry operations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the following information to each entity entering a permit space and any other entity at the worksite whose activities could foreseeably result in a hazard in the permit space:
</P>
<P>(A) The information received from the host employer;
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional information the controlling contractor has about the subjects listed in paragraph (h)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The precautions that the host employer, controlling contractor, or other entry employers implemented for the protection of employees in the permit spaces.
</P>
<P>(3) Before entry operations begin, each entry employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain all of the controlling contractor's information regarding permit space hazards and entry operations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the controlling contractor of the permit space program that the entry employer will follow, including any hazards likely to be confronted or created in each permit space.
</P>
<P>(4) The controlling contractor and entry employer(s) must coordinate entry operations when:
</P>
<P>(i) More than one entity performs permit space entry at the same time; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit space entry is performed at the same time that any activities that could foreseeably result in a hazard in the permit space are performed.
</P>
<P>(5) After entry operations:
</P>
<P>(i) The controlling contractor must debrief each entity that entered a permit space regarding the permit space program followed and any hazards confronted or created in the permit space(s) during entry operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The entry employer must inform the controlling contractor in a timely manner of the permit space program followed and of any hazards confronted or created in the permit space(s) during entry operations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The controlling contractor must apprise the host employer of the information exchanged with the entry entities pursuant to this subparagraph.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>).</HED>
<P>Unless a host employer or controlling contractor has or will have employees in a confined space, it is not required to enter any confined space to collect the information specified in this paragraph (h).</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) If there is no controlling contractor present at the worksite, the requirements for, and role of, controlling contactors in this section must be fulfilled by the host employer or other employer who arranges to have employees of another employer perform work that involves permit space entry.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1204" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1204   Permit-required confined space program.</HEAD>
<P>Each entry employer must:
</P>
<P>(a) Implement the measures necessary to prevent unauthorized entry;
</P>
<P>(b) Identify and evaluate the hazards of permit spaces before employees enter them;
</P>
<P>(c) Develop and implement the means, procedures, and practices necessary for safe permit space entry operations, including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifying acceptable entry conditions;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing each authorized entrant or that employee's authorized representative with the opportunity to observe any monitoring or testing of permit spaces;
</P>
<P>(3) Isolating the permit space and physical hazard(s) within the space;
</P>
<P>(4) Purging, inerting, flushing, or ventilating the permit space as necessary to eliminate or control atmospheric hazards;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(4).</HED>
<P>When an employer is unable to reduce the atmosphere below 10 percent LFL, the employer may only enter if the employer inerts the space so as to render the entire atmosphere in the space non-combustible, and the employees use PPE to address any other atmospheric hazards (such as oxygen deficiency), and the employer eliminates or isolates all physical hazards in the space.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Determining that, in the event the ventilation system stops working, the monitoring procedures will detect an increase in atmospheric hazard levels in sufficient time for the entrants to safely exit the permit space;
</P>
<P>(6) Providing pedestrian, vehicle, or other barriers as necessary to protect entrants from external hazards;
</P>
<P>(7) Verifying that conditions in the permit space are acceptable for entry throughout the duration of an authorized entry, and ensuring that employees are not allowed to enter into, or remain in, a permit space with a hazardous atmosphere unless the employer can demonstrate that personal protective equipment (PPE) will provide effective protection for each employee in the permit space and provides the appropriate PPE to each employee; and
</P>
<P>(8) Eliminating any conditions (for example, high pressure) that could make it unsafe to remove an entrance cover.
</P>
<P>(d) Provide the following equipment (specified in paragraphs (d)(1) through (9) of this section) at no cost to each employee, maintain that equipment properly, and ensure that each employee uses that equipment properly:
</P>
<P>(1) Testing and monitoring equipment needed to comply with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Ventilating equipment needed to obtain acceptable entry conditions;
</P>
<P>(3) Communications equipment necessary for compliance with §§ 1926.1208(c) and 1926.1209(e), including any necessary electronic communication equipment for attendants assessing entrants' status in multiple spaces;
</P>
<P>(4) Personal protective equipment insofar as feasible engineering and work-practice controls do not adequately protect employees;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(4).</HED>
<P>The requirements of subpart E of this part and other PPE requirements continue to apply to the use of PPE in a permit space. For example, if employees use respirators, then the respirator requirements in § 1926.103 (Respiratory protection) must be met.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) Lighting equipment that meets the minimum illumination requirements in § 1926.56, that is approved for the ignitable or combustible properties of the specific gas, vapor, dust, or fiber that will be present, and that is sufficient to enable employees to see well enough to work safely and to exit the space quickly in an emergency;
</P>
<P>(6) Barriers and shields as required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) Equipment, such as ladders, needed for safe ingress and egress by authorized entrants;
</P>
<P>(8) Rescue and emergency equipment needed to comply with paragraph (i) of this section, except to the extent that the equipment is provided by rescue services; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any other equipment necessary for safe entry into, safe exit from, and rescue from, permit spaces.
</P>
<P>(e) Evaluate permit space conditions in accordance with the following paragraphs (e)(1) through (6) of this section when entry operations are conducted:
</P>
<P>(1) Test conditions in the permit space to determine if acceptable entry conditions exist before changes to the space's natural ventilation are made, and before entry is authorized to begin, except that, if an employer demonstrates that isolation of the space is infeasible because the space is large or is part of a continuous system (such as a sewer), the employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Perform pre-entry testing to the extent feasible before entry is authorized; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) If entry is authorized, continuously monitor entry conditions in the areas where authorized entrants are working, except that employers may use periodic monitoring in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section for monitoring an atmospheric hazard if they can demonstrate that equipment for continuously monitoring that hazard is not commercially available;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide an early-warning system that continuously monitors for non-isolated engulfment hazards. The system must alert authorized entrants and attendants in sufficient time for the authorized entrants to safely exit the space.
</P>
<P>(2) Continuously monitor atmospheric hazards unless the employer can demonstrate that the equipment for continuously monitoring a hazard is not commercially available or that periodic monitoring is of sufficient frequency to ensure that the atmospheric hazard is being controlled at safe levels. If continuous monitoring is not used, periodic monitoring is required with sufficient frequency to ensure that acceptable entry conditions are being maintained during the course of entry operations;
</P>
<P>(3) When testing for atmospheric hazards, test first for oxygen, then for combustible gases and vapors, and then for toxic gases and vapors;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide each authorized entrant or that employee's authorized representative an opportunity to observe the pre-entry and any subsequent testing or monitoring of permit spaces;
</P>
<P>(5) Reevaluate the permit space in the presence of any authorized entrant or that employee's authorized representative who requests that the employer conduct such reevaluation because there is some indication that the evaluation of that space may not have been adequate; and
</P>
<P>(6) Immediately provide each authorized entrant or that employee's authorized representative with the results of any testing conducted in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Provide at least one attendant outside the permit space into which entry is authorized for the duration of entry operations:
</P>
<P>(1) Attendants may be assigned to more than one permit space provided the duties described in § 1926.1209 can be effectively performed for each permit space.
</P>
<P>(2) Attendants may be stationed at any location outside the permit space as long as the duties described in § 1926.1209 can be effectively performed for each permit space to which the attendant is assigned.
</P>
<P>(g) If multiple spaces are to be assigned to a single attendant, include in the permit program the means and procedures to enable the attendant to respond to an emergency affecting one or more of those permit spaces without distraction from the attendant's responsibilities under § 1926.1209;
</P>
<P>(h) Designate each person who is to have an active role (as, for example, authorized entrants, attendants, entry supervisors, or persons who test or monitor the atmosphere in a permit space) in entry operations, identify the duties of each such employee, and provide each such employee with the training required by § 1926.1207;
</P>
<P>(i) Develop and implement procedures for summoning rescue and emergency services (including procedures for summoning emergency assistance in the event of a failed non-entry rescue), for rescuing entrants from permit spaces, for providing necessary emergency services to rescued employees, and for preventing unauthorized personnel from attempting a rescue;
</P>
<P>(j) Develop and implement a system for the preparation, issuance, use, and cancellation of entry permits as required by this standard, including the safe termination of entry operations under both planned and emergency conditions;
</P>
<P>(k) Develop and implement procedures to coordinate entry operations, in consultation with the controlling contractor, when employees of more than one employer are working simultaneously in a permit space or elsewhere on the worksite where their activities could, either alone or in conjunction with the activities within a permit space, foreseeably result in a hazard within the confined space, so that employees of one employer do not endanger the employees of any other employer;
</P>
<P>(l) Develop and implement procedures (such as closing off a permit space and canceling the permit) necessary for concluding the entry after entry operations have been completed;
</P>
<P>(m) Review entry operations when the measures taken under the permit space program may not protect employees and revise the program to correct deficiencies found to exist before subsequent entries are authorized; and
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">m</E>).</HED>
<P>Examples of circumstances requiring the review of the permit space program include, but are not limited to: Any unauthorized entry of a permit space, the detection of a permit space hazard not covered by the permit, the detection of a condition prohibited by the permit, the occurrence of an injury or near-miss during entry, a change in the use or configuration of a permit space, and employee complaints about the effectiveness of the program.</P></NOTE>
<P>(n) Review the permit space program, using the canceled permits retained under § 1926.1205(f), within 1 year after each entry and revise the program as necessary to ensure that employees participating in entry operations are protected from permit space hazards.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>).</HED>
<P>Employers may perform a single annual review covering all entries performed during a 12-month period. If no entry is performed during a 12-month period, no review is necessary.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1205" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1205   Permitting process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before entry is authorized, each entry employer must document the completion of measures required by § 1926.1204(c) by preparing an entry permit.
</P>
<P>(b) Before entry begins, the entry supervisor identified on the permit must sign the entry permit to authorize entry.
</P>
<P>(c) The completed permit must be made available at the time of entry to all authorized entrants or their authorized representatives, by posting it at the entry portal or by any other equally effective means, so that the entrants can confirm that pre-entry preparations have been completed.
</P>
<P>(d) The duration of the permit may not exceed the time required to complete the assigned task or job identified on the permit in accordance with § 1926.1206(b).
</P>
<P>(e) The entry supervisor must terminate entry and take the following action when any of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Cancel the entry permit when the entry operations covered by the entry permit have been completed; or
</P>
<P>(2) Suspend or cancel the entry permit and fully reassess the space before allowing reentry when a condition that is not allowed under the entry permit arises in or near the permit space and that condition is temporary in nature and does not change the configuration of the space or create any new hazards within it; and
</P>
<P>(3) Cancel the entry permit when a condition that is not allowed under the entry permit arises in or near the permit space and that condition is not covered by paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) The entry employer must retain each canceled entry permit for at least 1 year to facilitate the review of the permit-required confined space program required by § 1926.1204(n). Any problems encountered during an entry operation must be noted on the pertinent permit so that appropriate revisions to the permit space program can be made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1206" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1206   Entry permit.</HEAD>
<P>The entry permit that documents compliance with this section and authorizes entry to a permit space must identify:
</P>
<P>(a) The permit space to be entered;
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of the entry;
</P>
<P>(c) The date and the authorized duration of the entry permit;
</P>
<P>(d) The authorized entrants within the permit space, by name or by such other means (for example, through the use of rosters or tracking systems) as will enable the attendant to determine quickly and accurately, for the duration of the permit, which authorized entrants are inside the permit space;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>).</HED>
<P>This requirement may be met by inserting a reference on the entry permit as to the means used, such as a roster or tracking system, to keep track of the authorized entrants within the permit space.</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) Means of detecting an increase in atmospheric hazard levels in the event the ventilation system stops working;
</P>
<P>(f) Each person, by name, currently serving as an attendant;
</P>
<P>(g) The individual, by name, currently serving as entry supervisor, and the signature or initials of each entry supervisor who authorizes entry;
</P>
<P>(h) The hazards of the permit space to be entered;
</P>
<P>(i) The measures used to isolate the permit space and to eliminate or control permit space hazards before entry;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>).</HED>
<P>Those measures can include, but are not limited to, the lockout or tagging of equipment and procedures for purging, inerting, ventilating, and flushing permit spaces.</P></NOTE>
<P>(j) The acceptable entry conditions;
</P>
<P>(k) The results of tests and monitoring performed under § 1926.1204(e), accompanied by the names or initials of the testers and by an indication of when the tests were performed;
</P>
<P>(l) The rescue and emergency services that can be summoned and the means (such as the equipment to use and the numbers to call) for summoning those services;
</P>
<P>(m) The communication procedures used by authorized entrants and attendants to maintain contact during the entry;
</P>
<P>(n) Equipment, such as personal protective equipment, testing equipment, communications equipment, alarm systems, and rescue equipment, to be provided for compliance with this standard;
</P>
<P>(o) Any other information necessary, given the circumstances of the particular confined space, to ensure employee safety; and
</P>
<P>(p) Any additional permits, such as for hot work, that have been issued to authorize work in the permit space.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1207" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1207   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer must provide training to each employee whose work is regulated by this standard, at no cost to the employee, and ensure that the employee possesses the understanding, knowledge, and skills necessary for the safe performance of the duties assigned under this standard. This training must result in an understanding of the hazards in the permit space and the methods used to isolate, control or in other ways protect employees from these hazards, and for those employees not authorized to perform entry rescues, in the dangers of attempting such rescues.
</P>
<P>(b) Training required by this section must be provided to each affected employee:
</P>
<P>(1) In both a language and vocabulary that the employee can understand;
</P>
<P>(2) Before the employee is first assigned duties under this standard;
</P>
<P>(3) Before there is a change in assigned duties;
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever there is a change in permit space entry operations that presents a hazard about which an employee has not previously been trained; and
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever there is any evidence of a deviation from the permit space entry procedures required by § 1926.1204(c) or there are inadequacies in the employee's knowledge or use of these procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) The training must establish employee proficiency in the duties required by this standard and must introduce new or revised procedures, as necessary, for compliance with this standard.
</P>
<P>(d) The employer must maintain training records to show that the training required by paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section has been accomplished. The training records must contain each employee's name, the name of the trainers, and the dates of training. The documentation must be available for inspection by employees and their authorized representatives, for the period of time the employee is employed by that employer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1208" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1208   Duties of authorized entrants.</HEAD>
<P>The entry employer must ensure that all authorized entrants:
</P>
<P>(a) Are familiar with and understand the hazards that may be faced during entry, including information on the mode, signs or symptoms, and consequences of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(b) Properly use equipment as required by § 1926.1204(d);
</P>
<P>(c) Communicate with the attendant as necessary to enable the attendant to assess entrant status and to enable the attendant to alert entrants of the need to evacuate the space as required by § 1926.1209(f);
</P>
<P>(d) Alert the attendant whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) There is any warning sign or symptom of exposure to a dangerous situation; or
</P>
<P>(2) The entrant detects a prohibited condition; and
</P>
<P>(e) Exit from the permit space as quickly as possible whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) An order to evacuate is given by the attendant or the entry supervisor;
</P>
<P>(2) There is any warning sign or symptom of exposure to a dangerous situation;
</P>
<P>(3) The entrant detects a prohibited condition; or
</P>
<P>(4) An evacuation alarm is activated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1209" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1209   Duties of attendants.</HEAD>
<P>The entry employer must ensure that each attendant:
</P>
<P>(a) Is familiar with and understands the hazards that may be faced during entry, including information on the mode, signs or symptoms, and consequences of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(b) Is aware of possible behavioral effects of hazard exposure in authorized entrants;
</P>
<P>(c) Continuously maintains an accurate count of authorized entrants in the permit space and ensures that the means used to identify authorized entrants under § 1926.1206(d) accurately identifies who is in the permit space;
</P>
<P>(d) Remains outside the permit space during entry operations until relieved by another attendant;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>).</HED>
<P>Once an attendant has been relieved by another attendant, the relieved attendant may enter a permit space to attempt a rescue when the employer's permit space program allows attendant entry for rescue and the attendant has been trained and equipped for rescue operations as required by § 1926.1211(a).</P></NOTE>
<P>(e) Communicates with authorized entrants as necessary to assess entrant status and to alert entrants of the need to evacuate the space under § 1926.1208(e);
</P>
<P>(f) Assesses activities and conditions inside and outside the space to determine if it is safe for entrants to remain in the space and orders the authorized entrants to evacuate the permit space immediately under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) If there is a prohibited condition;
</P>
<P>(2) If the behavioral effects of hazard exposure are apparent in an authorized entrant;
</P>
<P>(3) If there is a situation outside the space that could endanger the authorized entrants; or
</P>
<P>(4) If the attendant cannot effectively and safely perform all the duties required under this section;
</P>
<P>(g) Summons rescue and other emergency services as soon as the attendant determines that authorized entrants may need assistance to escape from permit space hazards;
</P>
<P>(h) Takes the following actions when unauthorized persons approach or enter a permit space while entry is underway:
</P>
<P>(1) Warns the unauthorized persons that they must stay away from the permit space;
</P>
<P>(2) Advises the unauthorized persons that they must exit immediately if they have entered the permit space; and
</P>
<P>(3) Informs the authorized entrants and the entry supervisor if unauthorized persons have entered the permit space;
</P>
<P>(i) Performs non-entry rescues as specified by the employer's rescue procedure; and
</P>
<P>(j) Performs no duties that might interfere with the attendant's primary duty to assess and protect the authorized entrants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1210" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1210   Duties of entry supervisors.</HEAD>
<P>The entry employer must ensure that each entry supervisor:
</P>
<P>(a) Is familiar with and understands the hazards that may be faced during entry, including information on the mode, signs or symptoms, and consequences of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(b) Verifies, by checking that the appropriate entries have been made on the permit, that all tests specified by the permit have been conducted and that all procedures and equipment specified by the permit are in place before endorsing the permit and allowing entry to begin;
</P>
<P>(c) Terminates the entry and cancels or suspends the permit as required by § 1926.1205(e);
</P>
<P>(d) Verifies that rescue services are available and that the means for summoning them are operable, and that the employer will be notified as soon as the services become unavailable;
</P>
<P>(e) Removes unauthorized individuals who enter or who attempt to enter the permit space during entry operations; and
</P>
<P>(f) Determines, whenever responsibility for a permit space entry operation is transferred, and at intervals dictated by the hazards and operations performed within the space, that entry operations remain consistent with terms of the entry permit and that acceptable entry conditions are maintained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1211" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1211   Rescue and emergency services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employer who designates rescue and emergency services, pursuant to § 1926.1204(i), must:
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate a prospective rescuer's ability to respond to a rescue summons in a timely manner, considering the hazard(s) identified;
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1).</HED>
<P>What will be considered timely will vary according to the specific hazards involved in each entry. For example, § 1926.103 (Respiratory protection) requires that employers provide a standby person or persons capable of immediate action to rescue employee(s) wearing respiratory protection while in work areas defined as IDLH atmospheres.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Evaluate a prospective rescue service's ability, in terms of proficiency with rescue-related tasks and equipment, to function appropriately while rescuing entrants from the particular permit space or types of permit spaces identified;
</P>
<P>(3) Select a rescue team or service from those evaluated that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has the capability to reach the victim(s) within a time frame that is appropriate for the permit space hazard(s) identified;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is equipped for, and proficient in, performing the needed rescue services;
</P>
<P>(iii) Agrees to notify the employer immediately in the event that the rescue service becomes unavailable;
</P>
<P>(4) Inform each rescue team or service of the hazards they may confront when called on to perform rescue at the site; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide the rescue team or service selected with access to all permit spaces from which rescue may be necessary so that the rescue team or service can develop appropriate rescue plans and practice rescue operations.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer whose employees have been designated to provide permit space rescue and/or emergency services must take the following measures and provide all equipment and training at no cost to those employees:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide each affected employee with the personal protective equipment (PPE) needed to conduct permit space rescues safely and train each affected employee so the employee is proficient in the use of that PPE;
</P>
<P>(2) Train each affected employee to perform assigned rescue duties. The employer must ensure that such employees successfully complete the training required and establish proficiency as authorized entrants, as provided by §§ 1926.1207 and 1926.1208;
</P>
<P>(3) Train each affected employee in basic first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The employer must ensure that at least one member of the rescue team or service holding a current certification in basic first aid and CPR is available; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that affected employees practice making permit space rescues before attempting an actual rescue, and at least once every 12 months, by means of simulated rescue operations in which they remove dummies, manikins, or actual persons from the actual permit spaces or from representative permit spaces, except practice rescue is not required where the affected employees properly performed a rescue operation during the last 12 months in the same permit space the authorized entrant will enter, or in a similar permit space. Representative permit spaces must, with respect to opening size, configuration, and accessibility, simulate the types of permit spaces from which rescue is to be performed.
</P>
<P>(c) Non-entry rescue is required unless the retrieval equipment would increase the overall risk of entry or would not contribute to the rescue of the entrant. The employer must designate an entry rescue service whenever non-entry rescue is not selected. Whenever non-entry rescue is selected, the entry employer must ensure that retrieval systems or methods are used whenever an authorized entrant enters a permit space, and must confirm, prior to entry, that emergency assistance would be available in the event that non-entry rescue fails. Retrieval systems must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Each authorized entrant must use a chest or full body harness, with a retrieval line attached at the center of the entrant's back near shoulder level, above the entrant's head, or at another point which the employer can establish presents a profile small enough for the successful removal of the entrant. Wristlets or anklets may be used in lieu of the chest or full body harness if the employer can demonstrate that the use of a chest or full body harness is infeasible or creates a greater hazard and that the use of wristlets or anklets is the safest and most effective alternative.
</P>
<P>(2) The other end of the retrieval line must be attached to a mechanical device or fixed point outside the permit space in such a manner that rescue can begin as soon as the rescuer becomes aware that rescue is necessary. A mechanical device must be available to retrieve personnel from vertical type permit spaces more than 5 feet (1.52 meters) deep.
</P>
<P>(3) Equipment that is unsuitable for retrieval must not be used, including, but not limited to, retrieval lines that have a reasonable probability of becoming entangled with the retrieval lines used by other authorized entrants, or retrieval lines that will not work due to the internal configuration of the permit space.
</P>
<P>(d) If an injured entrant is exposed to a substance for which a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) or other similar written information is required to be kept at the worksite, that SDS or written information must be made available to the medical facility treating the exposed entrant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1212" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1212   Employee participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employers must consult with affected employees and their authorized representatives on the development and implementation of all aspects of the permit space program required by § 1926.1203.
</P>
<P>(b) Employers must make available to each affected employee and his/her authorized representatives all information required to be developed by this standard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1213" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.27.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1213   Provision of documents to Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>For each document required to be retained in this standard, the retaining employer must make the document available on request to the Secretary of Labor or the Secretary's designee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="BB" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.28" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart BB [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="CC" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart CC—Cranes and Derricks in Construction</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.;</I> 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 5-2007 (72 FR 31159) or 1-2012 (77 FR 3912), as applicable; and 29 CFR Part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1400" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1400   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This standard applies to power-operated equipment, when used in construction, that can hoist, lower and horizontally move a suspended load. Such equipment includes, but is not limited to: Articulating cranes (such as knuckle-boom cranes); crawler cranes; floating cranes; cranes on barges; locomotive cranes; mobile cranes (such as wheel-mounted, rough-terrain, all-terrain, commercial truck-mounted, and boom truck cranes); multi-purpose machines when configured to hoist and lower (by means of a winch or hook) and horizontally move a suspended load; industrial cranes (such as carry-deck cranes); dedicated pile drivers; service/mechanic trucks with a hoisting device; a crane on a monorail; tower cranes (such as a fixed jib, <I>i.e.,</I> “hammerhead boom”), luffing boom and self-erecting); pedestal cranes; portal cranes; overhead and gantry cranes; straddle cranes; sideboom cranes; derricks; and variations of such equipment. However, items listed in paragraph (c) of this section are excluded from the scope of this standard.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Attachments.</I> This standard applies to equipment included in paragraph (a) of this section when used with attachments. Such attachments, whether crane-attached or suspended include, but are not limited to: Hooks, magnets, grapples, clamshell buckets, orange peel buckets, concrete buckets, drag lines, personnel platforms, augers or drills and pile driving equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusions.</I> This subpart does not cover:
</P>
<P>(1) Machinery included in paragraph (a) of this section while it has been converted or adapted for a non-hoisting/lifting use. Such conversions/adaptations include, but are not limited to, power shovels, excavators and concrete pumps.
</P>
<P>(2) Power shovels, excavators, wheel loaders, backhoes, loader backhoes, track loaders. This machinery is also excluded when used with chains, slings or other rigging to lift suspended loads.
</P>
<P>(3) Automotive wreckers and tow trucks when used to clear wrecks and haul vehicles.
</P>
<P>(4) Digger derricks when used for augering holes for poles carrying electric or telecommunication lines, placing and removing the poles, and for handling associated materials for installation on, or removal from, the poles, or when used for any other work subject to subpart V of this part. To be eligible for this exclusion, digger-derrick use in work subject to subpart V of this part must comply with all of the provisions of that subpart, and digger-derrick use in construction work for telecommunication service (as defined at § 1910.268(s)(40)) must comply with all of the provisions of § 1910.268.
</P>
<P>(5) Machinery originally designed as vehicle-mounted aerial devices (for lifting personnel) and self-propelled elevating work platforms.
</P>
<P>(6) Telescopic/hydraulic gantry systems.
</P>
<P>(7) Stacker cranes.
</P>
<P>(8) Powered industrial trucks (forklifts), except when configured to hoist and lower (by means of a winch or hook) and horizontally move a suspended load.
</P>
<P>(9) Mechanic's truck with a hoisting device when used in activities related to equipment maintenance and repair.
</P>
<P>(10) Machinery that hoists by using a come-a-long or chainfall.
</P>
<P>(11) Dedicated drilling rigs.
</P>
<P>(12) Gin poles when used for the erection of communication towers.
</P>
<P>(13) Tree trimming and tree removal work.
</P>
<P>(14) Anchor handling or dredge-related operations with a vessel or barge using an affixed A-frame.
</P>
<P>(15) Roustabouts.
</P>
<P>(16) Helicopter cranes.
</P>
<P>(17) Material delivery. (i) Articulating/knuckle-boom truck cranes that deliver material to a construction site when used to transfer materials from the truck crane to the ground, without arranging the materials in a particular sequence for hoisting.
</P>
<P>(ii) Articulating/knuckle-boom truck cranes that deliver material to a construction site when the crane is used to transfer building supply sheet goods or building supply packaged materials from the truck crane onto a structure, using a fork/cradle at the end of the boom, but only when the truck crane is equipped with a properly functioning automatic overload prevention device. Such sheet goods or packaged materials include, but are not limited to: Sheets of sheet rock, sheets of plywood, bags of cement, sheets or packages of roofing shingles, and rolls of roofing felt.
</P>
<P>(iii) This exclusion does not apply when:
</P>
<P>(A) The articulating/knuckle-boom crane is used to hold, support or stabilize the material to facilitate a construction activity, such as holding material in place while it is attached to the structure;
</P>
<P>(B) The material being handled by the articulating/knuckle-boom crane is a prefabricated component. Such prefabricated components include, but are not limited to: Precast concrete members or panels, roof trusses (wooden, cold-formed metal, steel, or other material), prefabricated building sections such as, but not limited to: Floor panels, wall panels, roof panels, roof structures, or similar items;
</P>
<P>(C) The material being handled by the crane is a structural steel member (for example, steel joists, beams, columns, steel decking (bundled or unbundled) or a component of a systems-engineered metal building (as defined in 29 CFR 1926 subpart R).
</P>
<P>(D) The activity is not specifically excluded under § 1400(c)(17)(i) and (ii).


</P>
<P>(18) <I>Flash-butt welding trucks.</I> Flash-butt welding trucks or other roadway maintenance machines not equipped with any hoisting device other than that used to suspend and move a welding device or workhead assembly. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(18), the terms <I>flash-butt welding truck</I> and <I>roadway maintenance machine</I> refer to railroad equipment that meets the definition of “roadway maintenance machine” in 49 CFR 214.7 and is used only for railroad track work.






</P>
<P>(d) All sections of this subpart CC apply to the equipment covered by this standard unless specified otherwise.
</P>
<P>(e) The duties of controlling entities under this subpart include, but are not limited to, the duties specified in §§ 1926.1402(c), 1926.1402(e) and 1926.1424(b).
</P>
<P>(f) Where provisions of this standard direct an operator, crewmember, or other employee to take certain actions, the employer must establish, effectively communicate to the relevant persons, and enforce, work rules to ensure compliance with such provisions.
</P>
<P>(g) For work covered by subpart V of this part, compliance with § 1926.959 is deemed compliance with §§ 1926.1407 through 1926.1411.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 1926.1402 does not apply to cranes designed for use on railroad tracks, when used on railroad tracks that are part of the general railroad system of transportation that is regulated pursuant to the Federal Railroad Administration under 49 CFR part 213, and that comply with applicable Federal Railroad Administration requirements. <I>See</I> § 1926.1402(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 32116, May 29, 2013; 79 FR 20743, Apr. 11, 2014; 85 FR 57122, Sept. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1401" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1401   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>A/D director (Assembly/Disassembly director)</I> means an individual who meets this subpart's requirements for an A/D director, irrespective of the person's formal job title or whether the person is non-management or management personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Articulating crane</I> means a crane whose boom consists of a series of folding, pin connected structural members, typically manipulated to extend or retract by power from hydraulic cylinders.
</P>
<P><I>Assembly/Disassembly</I> means the assembly and/or disassembly of equipment covered under this standard. With regard to tower cranes, “erecting and climbing” replaces the term “assembly,” and “dismantling” replaces the term “disassembly.” Regardless of whether the crane is initially erected to its full height or is climbed in stages, the process of increasing the height of the crane is an erection process.
</P>
<P><I>Assist crane</I> means a crane used to assist in assembling or disassembling a crane.
</P>
<P><I>Attachments</I> means any device that expands the range of tasks that can be done by the equipment. Examples include, but are not limited to: An auger, drill, magnet, pile-driver, and boom-attached personnel platform.
</P>
<P><I>Audible signal</I> means a signal made by a distinct sound or series of sounds. Examples include, but are not limited to, sounds made by a bell, horn, or whistle.
</P>
<P><I>Blocking</I> (also referred to as “cribbing”) is wood or other material used to support equipment or a component and distribute loads to the ground. It is typically used to support lattice boom sections during assembly/disassembly and under outrigger and stabilizer floats.
</P>
<P><I>Boatswain's chair</I> means a single-point adjustable suspension scaffold consisting of a seat or sling (which may be incorporated into a full body harness) designed to support one employee in a sitting position.
</P>
<P><I>Bogie</I> means “travel bogie,” which is defined below.
</P>
<P><I>Boom (equipment other than tower crane)</I> means an inclined spar, strut, or other long structural member which supports the upper hoisting tackle on a crane or derrick. Typically, the length and vertical angle of the boom can be varied to achieve increased height or height and reach when lifting loads. Booms can usually be grouped into general categories of hydraulically extendible, cantilevered type, latticed section, cable supported type or articulating type.
</P>
<P><I>Boom (tower cranes):</I> On tower cranes, if the “boom” (<I>i.e.,</I> principal horizontal structure) is fixed, it is referred to as a jib; if it is moveable up and down, it is referred to as a boom.
</P>
<P><I>Boom angle indicator</I> means a device which measures the angle of the boom relative to horizontal.
</P>
<P><I>Boom hoist limiting device</I> includes boom hoist disengaging device, boom hoist shut-off, boom hoist disconnect, boom hoist hydraulic relief, boom hoist kick-outs, automatic boom stop device, or derricking limiter. This type of device disengages boom hoist power when the boom reaches a predetermined operating angle. It also sets brakes or closes valves to prevent the boom from lowering after power is disengaged.
</P>
<P><I>Boom length indicator</I> indicates the length of the permanent part of the boom (such as ruled markings on the boom) or, as in some computerized systems, the length of the boom with extensions/attachments.
</P>
<P><I>Boom stop</I> includes boom stops, (belly straps with struts/standoff), telescoping boom stops, attachment boom stops, and backstops. These devices restrict the boom from moving above a certain maximum angle and toppling over backward.
</P>
<P><I>Boom suspension system</I> means a system of pendants, running ropes, sheaves, and other hardware which supports the boom tip and controls the boom angle.
</P>
<P><I>Builder</I> means the builder/constructor of equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Center of gravity:</I> The center of gravity of any object is the point in the object around which its weight is evenly distributed. If you could put a support under that point, you could balance the object on the support.
</P>
<P><I>Certified welder</I> means a welder who meets nationally recognized certification requirements applicable to the task being performed.
</P>
<P><I>Climbing</I> means the process in which a tower crane is raised to a new working height, either by adding additional tower sections to the top of the crane (top climbing), or by a system in which the entire crane is raised inside the structure (inside climbing).
</P>
<P><I>Come-a-long</I> means a mechanical device typically consisting of a chain or cable attached at each end that is used to facilitate movement of materials through leverage.
</P>
<P><I>Competent person</I> means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled load lowering</I> means lowering a load by means of a mechanical hoist drum device that allows a hoisted load to be lowered with maximum control using the gear train or hydraulic components of the hoist mechanism. Controlled load lowering requires the use of the hoist drive motor, rather than the load hoist brake, to lower the load.
</P>
<P><I>Controlling entity</I> means an employer that is a prime contractor, general contractor, construction manager or any other legal entity which has the overall responsibility for the construction of the project—its planning, quality and completion.
</P>
<P><I>Counterweight</I> means a weight used to supplement the weight of equipment in providing stability for lifting loads by counterbalancing those loads.
</P>
<P><I>Crane/derrick</I> includes all equipment covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Crawler crane</I> means equipment that has a type of base mounting which incorporates a continuous belt of sprocket driven track.
</P>
<P><I>Crossover points</I> means locations on a wire rope which is spooled on a drum where one layer of rope climbs up on and crosses over the previous layer. This takes place at each flange of the drum as the rope is spooled onto the drum, reaches the flange, and begins to wrap back in the opposite direction.
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated channel</I> means a line of communication assigned by the employer who controls the communication system to only one signal person and crane/derrick or to a coordinated group of cranes/derricks/signal person(s).
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated pile-driver</I> is a machine that is designed to function exclusively as a pile-driver. These machines typically have the ability to both hoist the material that will be pile-driven and to pile-drive that material.
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated spotter (power lines):</I> To be considered a dedicated spotter, the requirements of § 1926.1428 (Signal person qualifications) must be met and his/her sole responsibility is to watch the separation between the power line and the equipment, load line and load (including rigging and lifting accessories), and ensure through communication with the operator that the applicable minimum approach distance is not breached.
</P>
<P><I>Directly under the load</I> means a part or all of an employee is directly beneath the load.
</P>
<P><I>Dismantling</I> includes partial dismantling (such as dismantling to shorten a boom or substitute a different component).
</P>
<P><I>Drum rotation indicator</I> means a device on a crane or hoist which indicates in which direction and at what relative speed a particular hoist drum is turning.
</P>
<P><I>Electrical contact</I> occurs when a person, object, or equipment makes contact or comes in close proximity with an energized conductor or equipment that allows the passage of current.
</P>
<P><I>Employer-made equipment</I> means floating cranes/derricks designed and built by an employer for the employer's own use.
</P>
<P><I>Encroachment</I> is where any part of the crane, load line or load (including rigging and lifting accessories) breaches a minimum clearance distance that this subpart requires to be maintained from a power line.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment</I> means equipment covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment criteria</I> means instructions, recommendations, limitations and specifications.
</P>
<P><I>Fall protection equipment</I> means guardrail systems, safety net systems, personal fall arrest systems, positioning device systems or fall restraint systems.
</P>
<P><I>Fall restraint system</I> means a fall protection system that prevents the user from falling any distance. The system is comprised of either a body belt or body harness, along with an anchorage, connectors and other necessary equipment. The other components typically include a lanyard, and may also include a lifeline and other devices.
</P>
<P><I>Fall zone</I> means the area (including but not limited to the area directly beneath the load) in which it is reasonably foreseeable that partially or completely suspended materials could fall in the event of an accident.
</P>
<P><I>Flange points</I> are points of contact between rope and drum flange where the rope changes layers.
</P>
<P><I>Floating cranes/derricks</I> means equipment designed by the manufacturer (or employer) for marine use by permanent attachment to a barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation.
</P>
<P><I>For example</I> means “one example, although there are others.”
</P>
<P><I>Free fall (of the load line)</I> means that only the brake is used to regulate the descent of the load line (the drive mechanism is not used to drive the load down faster or retard its lowering).
</P>
<P><I>Free surface effect</I> is the uncontrolled transverse movement of liquids in compartments which reduce a vessel's transverse stability.
</P>
<P><I>Hoist</I> means a mechanical device for lifting and lowering loads by winding a line onto or off a drum.
</P>
<P><I>Hoisting</I> is the act of raising, lowering or otherwise moving a load in the air with equipment covered by this standard. As used in this standard, “hoisting” can be done by means other than wire rope/hoist drum equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Include/including</I> means “including, but not limited to.”
</P>
<P><I>Insulating link/device</I> means an insulating device listed, labeled, or accepted by a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.7.
</P>
<P><I>Jib stop</I> (also referred to as a jib backstop), is the same type of device as a boom stop but is for a fixed or luffing jib.
</P>
<P><I>Land crane/derrick</I> is equipment not originally designed by the manufacturer for marine use by permanent attachment to barges, pontoons, vessels, or other means of floatation.
</P>
<P><I>List</I> means the angle of inclination about the longitudinal axis of a barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of floatation.
</P>
<P><I>Load</I> refers to the object(s) being hoisted and/or the weight of the object(s); both uses refer to the object(s) and the load-attaching equipment, such as, the load block, ropes, slings, shackles, and any other ancillary attachment.
</P>
<P><I>Load moment (or rated capacity) indicator</I> means a system which aids the equipment operator by sensing (directly or indirectly) the overturning moment on the equipment, <I>i.e.,</I> load multiplied by radius. It compares this lifting condition to the equipment's rated capacity, and indicates to the operator the percentage of capacity at which the equipment is working. Lights, bells, or buzzers may be incorporated as a warning of an approaching overload condition.
</P>
<P><I>Load moment (or rated capacity) limiter</I> means a system which aids the equipment operator by sensing (directly or indirectly) the overturning moment on the equipment, <I>i.e.,</I> load multiplied by radius. It compares this lifting condition to the equipment's rated capacity, and when the rated capacity is reached, it shuts off power to those equipment functions which can increase the severity of loading on the equipment, <I>e.g.,</I> hoisting, telescoping out, or luffing out. Typically, those functions which decrease the severity of loading on the equipment remain operational, <I>e.g.,</I> lowering, telescoping in, or luffing in.
</P>
<P><I>Locomotive crane</I> means a crane mounted on a base or car equipped for travel on a railroad track.
</P>
<P><I>Luffing jib limiting device</I> is similar to a boom hoist limiting device, except that it limits the movement of the luffing jib.
</P>
<P><I>Marine hoisted personnel transfer device</I> means a device, such as a “transfer net,” that is designed to protect the employees being hoisted during a marine transfer and to facilitate rapid entry into and exit from the device. Such devices do not include boatswain's chairs when hoisted by equipment covered by this standard.
</P>
<P><I>Marine worksite</I> means a construction worksite located in, on or above the water.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile crane</I> means a lifting device incorporating a cable suspended latticed boom or hydraulic telescopic boom designed to be moved between operating locations by transport over the road.
</P>
<P><I>Moving point-to-point</I> means the times during which an employee is in the process of going to or from a work station.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-purpose machine</I> means a machine that is designed to be configured in various ways, at least one of which allows it to hoist (by means of a winch or hook) and horizontally move a suspended load. For example, a machine that can rotate and can be configured with removable forks/tongs (for use as a forklift) or with a winch pack, jib (with a hook at the end) or jib used in conjunction with a winch. When configured with the forks/tongs, it is not covered by this subpart. When configured with a winch pack, jib (with a hook at the end) or jib used in conjunction with a winch, it is covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Nationally recognized accrediting agency</I> is an organization that, due to its independence and expertise, is widely recognized as competent to accredit testing organizations. Examples of such accrediting agencies include, but are not limited to, the National Commission for Certifying Agencies and the American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P><I>Nonconductive</I> means that, because of the nature and condition of the materials used, and the conditions of use (including environmental conditions and condition of the material), the object in question has the property of not becoming energized (that is, it has high dielectric properties offering a high resistance to the passage of current under the conditions of use).
</P>
<P><I>Operational aids</I> are devices that assist the operator in the safe operation of the crane by providing information or automatically taking control of a crane function. These include, but are not limited to, the devices listed in § 1926.1416 (“listed operational aids”).
</P>
<P><I>Operational controls</I> means levers, switches, pedals and other devices for controlling equipment operation.
</P>
<P><I>Operator</I> means a person who is operating the equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Overhead and gantry cranes</I> includes overhead/bridge cranes, semigantry, cantilever gantry, wall cranes, storage bridge cranes, launching gantry cranes, and similar equipment, irrespective of whether it travels on tracks, wheels, or other means.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph</I> refers to a paragraph in the same section of this subpart that the word “paragraph” is used, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P><I>Pendants</I> includes both wire and bar types. Wire type: A fixed length of wire rope with mechanical fittings at both ends for pinning segments of wire rope together. Bar type: Instead of wire rope, a bar is used. Pendants are typically used in a latticed boom crane system to easily change the length of the boom suspension system without completely changing the rope on the drum when the boom length is increased or decreased.
</P>
<P><I>Personal fall arrest system</I> means a system used to arrest an employee in a fall from a working level. It consists of an anchorage, connectors, a body harness and may include a lanyard, deceleration device, lifeline, or suitable combination of these.
</P>
<P><I>Portal crane</I> is a type of crane consisting of a rotating upperstructure, hoist machinery, and boom mounted on top of a structural gantry which may be fixed in one location or have travel capability. The gantry legs or columns usually have portal openings in between to allow passage of traffic beneath the gantry.
</P>
<P><I>Power lines</I> means electric transmission and distribution lines.
</P>
<P><I>Procedures</I> include, but are not limited to: Instructions, diagrams, recommendations, warnings, specifications, protocols and limitations.
</P>
<P><I>Proximity alarm</I> is a device that provides a warning of proximity to a power line and that has been listed, labeled, or accepted by a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.7.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified evaluator (not a third party)</I> means a person employed by the signal person's employer who has demonstrated that he/she is competent in accurately assessing whether individuals meet the Qualification Requirements in this subpart for a signal person.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified evaluator (third party)</I> means an entity that, due to its independence and expertise, has demonstrated that it is competent in accurately assessing whether individuals meet the Qualification Requirements in this subpart for a signal person.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified person</I> means a person who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training and experience, successfully demonstrated the ability to solve/resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified rigger</I> is a rigger who meets the criteria for a qualified person.
</P>
<P><I>Range control limit device</I> is a device that can be set by an equipment operator to limit movement of the boom or jib tip to a plane or multiple planes.
</P>
<P><I>Range control warning device</I> is a device that can be set by an equipment operator to warn that the boom or jib tip is at a plane or multiple planes.
</P>
<P><I>Rated capacity</I> means the maximum working load permitted by the manufacturer under specified working conditions. Such working conditions typically include a specific combination of factors such as equipment configuration, radii, boom length, and other parameters of use.
</P>
<P><I>Rated capacity indicator: See</I> load moment indicator.
</P>
<P><I>Rated capacity limiter: See</I> load moment limiter.
</P>
<P><I>Repetitive pickup points</I> refer to, when operating on a short cycle operation, the rope being used on a single layer and being spooled repetitively over a short portion of the drum.
</P>
<P><I>Running wire rope</I> means a wire rope that moves over sheaves or drums.
</P>
<P><I>Runway</I> means a firm, level surface designed, prepared and designated as a path of travel for the weight and configuration of the crane being used to lift and travel with the crane suspended platform. An existing surface may be used as long as it meets these criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Section</I> means a section of this subpart, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P><I>Sideboom crane</I> means a track-type or wheel-type tractor having a boom mounted on the side of the tractor, used for lifting, lowering or transporting a load suspended on the load hook. The boom or hook can be lifted or lowered in a vertical direction only.
</P>
<P><I>Special hazard warnings</I> means warnings of site-specific hazards (for example, proximity of power lines).
</P>
<P><I>Stability (flotation device)</I> means the tendency of a barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation to return to an upright position after having been inclined by an external force.
</P>
<P><I>Standard Method</I> means the protocol in appendix A of this subpart for hand signals.
</P>
<P><I>Such as</I> means “such as, but not limited to.”
</P>
<P><I>Superstructure: See</I> Upperworks.
</P>
<P><I>Tagline</I> means a rope (usually fiber) attached to a lifted load for purposes of controlling load spinning and pendular motions or used to stabilize a bucket or magnet during material handling operations.
</P>
<P><I>Tender</I> means an individual responsible for monitoring and communicating with a diver.
</P>
<P><I>Tilt up or tilt down operation</I> means raising/lowering a load from the horizontal to vertical or vertical to horizontal.
</P>
<P><I>Tower crane</I> is a type of lifting structure which utilizes a vertical mast or tower to support a working boom (jib) in an elevated position. Loads are suspended from the working boom. While the working boom may be of the fixed type (horizontal or angled) or have luffing capability, it can always rotate to swing loads, either by rotating on the top of the tower (top slewing) or by the rotation of the tower (bottom slewing). The tower base may be fixed in one location or ballasted and moveable between locations. Mobile cranes that are configured with luffing jib and/or tower attachments are not considered tower cranes under this section.
</P>
<P><I>Travel bogie (tower cranes)</I> is an assembly of two or more axles arranged to permit vertical wheel displacement and equalize the loading on the wheels.
</P>
<P><I>Trim</I> means angle of inclination about the transverse axis of a barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of floatation.
</P>
<P><I>Two blocking</I> means a condition in which a component that is uppermost on the hoist line such as the load block, hook block, overhaul ball, or similar component, comes in contact with the boom tip, fixed upper block or similar component. This binds the system and continued application of power can cause failure of the hoist rope or other component.
</P>
<P><I>Unavailable procedures</I> means procedures that are no longer available from the manufacturer, or have never been available, from the manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Upperstructure: See</I> Upperworks.
</P>
<P><I>Upperworks</I> means the revolving frame of equipment on which the operating machinery (and many cases the engine) are mounted along with the operator's cab. The counterweight is typically supported on the rear of the upperstructure and the boom or other front end attachment is mounted on the front.
</P>
<P><I>Up to</I> means “up to and including.”
</P>
<P><I>Wire rope</I> means a flexible rope constructed by laying steel wires into various patterns of multi-wired strands around a core system to produce a helically wound rope.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1402" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1402   Ground conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) “Ground conditions” means the ability of the ground to support the equipment (including slope, compaction, and firmness).
</P>
<P>(2) “Supporting materials” means blocking, mats, cribbing, marsh buggies (in marshes/wetlands), or similar supporting materials or devices.
</P>
<P>(b) The equipment must not be assembled or used unless ground conditions are firm, drained, and graded to a sufficient extent so that, in conjunction (if necessary) with the use of supporting materials, the equipment manufacturer's specifications for adequate support and degree of level of the equipment are met. The requirement for the ground to be drained does not apply to marshes/wetlands.
</P>
<P>(c) The controlling entity must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that ground preparations necessary to meet the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section are provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the user of the equipment and the operator of the location of hazards beneath the equipment set-up area (such as voids, tanks, utilities) if those hazards are identified in documents (such as site drawings, as-built drawings, and soil analyses) that are in the possession of the controlling entity (whether at the site or off-site) or the hazards are otherwise known to that controlling entity.
</P>
<P>(d) If there is no controlling entity for the project, the requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section must be met by the employer that has authority at the site to make or arrange for ground preparations needed to meet paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) If the A/D director or the operator determines that ground conditions do not meet the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, that person's employer must have a discussion with the controlling entity regarding the ground preparations that are needed so that, with the use of suitable supporting materials/devices (if necessary), the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section can be met.
</P>
<P>(f) This section does not apply to cranes designed for use on railroad tracks when used on railroad tracks that are part of the general railroad system of transportation that is regulated pursuant to the Federal Railroad Administration under 49 CFR part 213 and that comply with applicable Federal Railroad Administration requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1403" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1403   Assembly/Disassembly—selection of manufacturer or employer procedures.</HEAD>
<P>When assembling or disassembling equipment (or attachments), the employer must comply with all applicable manufacturer prohibitions and must comply with either:
</P>
<P>(a) Manufacturer procedures applicable to assembly and disassembly, or
</P>
<P>(b) Employer procedures for assembly and disassembly. Employer procedures may be used only where the employer can demonstrate that the procedures used meet the requirements in § 1926.1406.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The employer must follow manufacturer procedures when an employer uses synthetic slings during assembly or disassembly rigging. (<I>See</I> § 1926.1404(r).)</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1404" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1404   Assembly/Disassembly—general requirements (applies to all assembly and disassembly operations).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supervision—competent-qualified person.</I> (1) Assembly/disassembly must be directed by a person who meets the criteria for both a competent person and a qualified person, or by a competent person who is assisted by one or more qualified persons (“A/D director”).
</P>
<P>(2) Where the assembly/disassembly is being performed by only one person, that person must meet the criteria for both a competent person and a qualified person. For purposes of this standard, that person is considered the A/D director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Knowledge of procedures.</I> The A/D director must understand the applicable assembly/disassembly procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of procedures.</I> The A/D director must review the applicable assembly/disassembly procedures immediately prior to the commencement of assembly/disassembly unless the A/D director understands the procedures and has applied them to the same type and configuration of equipment (including accessories, if any).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Crew instructions.</I> (1) Before commencing assembly/disassembly operations, the A/D director must ensure that the crew members understand all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Their tasks.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hazards associated with their tasks.
</P>
<P>(iii) The hazardous positions/locations that they need to avoid.
</P>
<P>(2) During assembly/disassembly operations, before a crew member takes on a different task, or when adding new personnel during the operations, the requirements in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(iii) of this section must be met.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protecting assembly/disassembly crew members out of operator view.</I> (1) Before a crew member goes to a location that is out of view of the operator and is either in, on, or under the equipment, or near the equipment (or load) where the crew member could be injured by movement of the equipment (or load), the crew member must inform the operator that he/she is going to that location.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the operator knows that a crew member went to a location covered by paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the operator must not move any part of the equipment (or load) until the operator is informed in accordance with a pre-arranged system of communication that the crew member is in a safe position.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Working under the boom, jib or other components.</I> (1) When pins (or similar devices) are being removed, employees must not be under the boom, jib, or other components, except where the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> Where the employer demonstrates that site constraints require one or more employees to be under the boom, jib, or other components when pins (or similar devices) are being removed, the A/D director must implement procedures that minimize the risk of unintended dangerous movement and minimize the duration and extent of exposure under the boom. (<I>See</I> Non-mandatory appendix B of this subpart for an example.)
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Capacity limits.</I> During all phases of assembly/disassembly, rated capacity limits for loads imposed on the equipment, equipment components (including rigging), lifting lugs and equipment accessories, must not be exceeded for the equipment being assembled/disassembled.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Addressing specific hazards.</I> The A/D director supervising the assembly/disassembly operation must address the hazards associated with the operation, which include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Site and ground bearing conditions.</I> Site and ground conditions must be adequate for safe assembly/disassembly operations and to support the equipment during assembly/disassembly (<I>see</I> § 1926.1402 for ground condition requirements).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Blocking material.</I> The size, amount, condition and method of stacking the blocking must be sufficient to sustain the loads and maintain stability.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Proper location of blocking.</I> When used to support lattice booms or components, blocking must be appropriately placed to:
</P>
<P>(i) Protect the structural integrity of the equipment, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevent dangerous movement and collapse.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Verifying assist crane loads.</I> When using an assist crane, the loads that will be imposed on the assist crane at each phase of assembly/disassembly must be verified in accordance with § 1926.1417(o)(3) before assembly/disassembly begins.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Boom and jib pick points.</I> The point(s) of attachment of rigging to a boom (or boom sections or jib or jib sections) must be suitable for preventing structural damage and facilitating safe handling of these components.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Center of gravity.</I> (i) The center of gravity of the load must be identified if that is necessary for the method used for maintaining stability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where there is insufficient information to accurately identify the center of gravity, measures designed to prevent unintended dangerous movement resulting from an inaccurate identification of the center of gravity must be used. (<I>See</I> Non-mandatory appendix B of this subpart for an example.)
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Stability upon pin removal.</I> The boom sections, boom suspension systems (such as gantry A-frames and jib struts), and components must be rigged or supported to maintain stability upon the removal of the pins.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Snagging.</I> Suspension ropes and pendants must not be allowed to catch on the boom or jib connection pins or cotter pins (including keepers and locking pins).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Struck by counterweights.</I> The potential for unintended movement from inadequately supported counterweights and from hoisting counterweights.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Boom hoist brake failure.</I> Each time reliance is to be placed on the boom hoist brake to prevent boom movement during assembly/disassembly, the brake must be tested prior to such reliance to determine if it is sufficient to prevent boom movement. If it is not sufficient, a boom hoist pawl, other locking device/back-up braking device, or another method of preventing dangerous movement of the boom (such as blocking or using an assist crane) from a boom hoist brake failure must be used.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Loss of backward stability.</I> Backward stability before swinging the upperworks, travel, and when attaching or removing equipment components.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Wind speed and weather.</I> The effect of wind speed and weather on the equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Cantilevered boom sections.</I> Manufacturer limitations on the maximum amount of boom supported only by cantilevering must not be exceeded. Where these are unavailable, a registered professional engineer familiar with the type of equipment involved must determine in writing this limitation, which must not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Weight of components.</I> The weight of each of the components must be readily available.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Components and configuration.</I> (1) The selection of components, and configuration of the equipment, that affect the capacity or safe operation of the equipment must be in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturer instructions, prohibitions, limitations, and specifications. Where these are unavailable, a registered professional engineer familiar with the type of equipment involved must approve, in writing, the selection and configuration of components; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Approved modifications that meet the requirements of § 1926.1434 (Equipment modifications).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-assembly inspection.</I> Upon completion of assembly, the equipment must be inspected to ensure compliance with paragraph (m)(1) of this section (<I>see</I> § 1926.1412(c) for post-assembly inspection requirements).
</P>
<P>(n) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Shipping pins.</I> Reusable shipping pins, straps, links, and similar equipment must be removed. Once they are removed they must either be stowed or otherwise stored so that they do not present a falling object hazard.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Pile driving.</I> Equipment used for pile driving must not have a jib attached during pile driving operations.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Outriggers and stabilizers.</I> When the load to be handled and the operating radius require the use of outriggers or stabilizers, or at any time when outriggers or stabilizers are used, all of the following requirements must be met (except as otherwise indicated):
</P>
<P>(1) The outriggers or stabilizers must be either fully extended or, if manufacturer procedures permit, deployed as specified in the load chart.
</P>
<P>(2) The outriggers must be set to remove the equipment weight from the wheels, except for locomotive cranes (<I>see</I> paragraph (q)(6) of this section for use of outriggers on locomotive cranes). This provision does not apply to stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(3) When outrigger floats are used, they must be attached to the outriggers. When stabilizer floats are used, they must be attached to the stabilizers.
</P>
<P>(4) Each outrigger or stabilizer must be visible to the operator or to a signal person during extension and setting.
</P>
<P>(5) Outrigger and stabilizer blocking must:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the requirements in paragraphs (h)(2) and (h)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be placed only under the outrigger or stabilizer float/pad of the jack or, where the outrigger or stabilizer is designed without a jack, under the outer bearing surface of the extended outrigger or stabilizer beam.
</P>
<P>(6) For locomotive cranes, when using outriggers or stabilizers to handle loads, the manufacturer's procedures must be followed. When lifting loads without using outriggers or stabilizers, the manufacturer's procedures must be met regarding truck wedges or screws.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Rigging.</I> In addition to following the requirements in 29 CFR 1926.251 and other requirements in this and other standards applicable to rigging, when rigging is used for assembly/disassembly, the employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The rigging work is done by a qualified rigger.
</P>
<P>(2) Synthetic slings are protected from: Abrasive, sharp or acute edges, and configurations that could cause a reduction of the sling's rated capacity, such as distortion or localized compression.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Requirements for the protection of wire rope slings are contained in 29 CFR 1926.251(c)(9).</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) When synthetic slings are used, the synthetic sling manufacturer's instructions, limitations, specifications and recommendations must be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1405" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1405   Disassembly—additional requirements for dismantling of booms and jibs (applies to both the use of manufacturer procedures and employer procedures).</HEAD>
<P><I>Dismantling (including dismantling for changing the length of) booms and jibs.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) None of the pins in the pendants are to be removed (partly or completely) when the pendants are in tension.
</P>
<P>(b) None of the pins (top or bottom) on boom sections located between the pendant attachment points and the crane/derrick body are to be removed (partly or completely) when the pendants are in tension.
</P>
<P>(c) None of the pins (top or bottom) on boom sections located between the uppermost boom section and the crane/derrick body are to be removed (partly or completely) when the boom is being supported by the uppermost boom section resting on the ground (or other support).
</P>
<P>(d) None of the top pins on boom sections located on the cantilevered portion of the boom being removed (the portion being removed ahead of the pendant attachment points) are to be removed (partly or completely) until the cantilevered section to be removed is fully supported.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1406" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1406   Assembly/Disassembly—employer procedures—general requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When using employer procedures instead of manufacturer procedures for assembly/disassembly, the employer must ensure that the procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) Prevent unintended dangerous movement, and prevent collapse, of any part of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide adequate support and stability of all parts of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Position employees involved in the assembly/disassembly operation so that their exposure to unintended movement or collapse of part or all of the equipment is minimized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualified person.</I> Employer procedures must be developed by a qualified person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1407" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1407   Power line safety (up to 350 kV)—assembly and disassembly.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before assembling or disassembling equipment, the employer must determine if any part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories) could get, in the direction or area of assembly/disassembly, closer than 20 feet to a power line during the assembly/disassembly process. If so, the employer must meet the requirements in Option (1), Option (2), or Option (3) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Option (1)—Deenergize and ground.</I> Confirm from the utility owner/operator that the power line has been deenergized and visibly grounded at the worksite.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Option (2)</I>—<I>20 foot clearance.</I> Ensure that no part of the equipment, load line or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), gets closer than 20 feet to the power line by implementing the measures specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Option (3)</I>—<I>Table A clearance.</I> (i) Determine the line's voltage and the minimum clearance distance permitted under Table A (<I>see</I> § 1926.1408).
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine if any part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), could get closer than the minimum clearance distance to the power line permitted under Table A (<I>see</I> § 1926.1408). If so, then the employer must follow the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section to ensure that no part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), gets closer to the line than the minimum clearance distance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preventing encroachment/electrocution.</I> Where encroachment precautions are required under Option (2), or Option (3) of this section, all of the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct a planning meeting with the Assembly/Disassembly director (A/D director), operator, assembly/disassembly crew and the other workers who will be in the assembly/disassembly area to review the location of the power line(s) and the steps that will be implemented to prevent encroachment/electrocution.
</P>
<P>(2) If tag lines are used, they must be nonconductive.
</P>
<P>(3) At least one of the following additional measures must be in place. The measure selected from this list must be effective in preventing encroachment.
</P>
<P>The additional measures are:
</P>
<P>(i) Use a dedicated spotter who is in continuous contact with the equipment operator. The dedicated spotter must:
</P>
<P>(A) Be equipped with a visual aid to assist in identifying the minimum clearance distance. Examples of a visual aid include, but are not limited to: A clearly visible line painted on the ground; a clearly visible line of stanchions; a set of clearly visible line-of-sight landmarks (such as a fence post behind the dedicated spotter and a building corner ahead of the dedicated spotter).
</P>
<P>(B) Be positioned to effectively gauge the clearance distance.
</P>
<P>(C) Where necessary, use equipment that enables the dedicated spotter to communicate directly with the operator.
</P>
<P>(D) Give timely information to the operator so that the required clearance distance can be maintained.
</P>
<P>(ii) A proximity alarm set to give the operator sufficient warning to prevent encroachment.
</P>
<P>(iii) A device that automatically warns the operator when to stop movement, such as a range control warning device. Such a device must be set to give the operator sufficient warning to prevent encroachment.
</P>
<P>(iv) A device that automatically limits range of movement, set to prevent encroachment.
</P>
<P>(v) An elevated warning line, barricade, or line of signs, in view of the operator, equipped with flags or similar high-visibility markings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assembly/disassembly below power lines prohibited.</I> No part of a crane/derrick, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), whether partially or fully assembled, is allowed below a power line unless the employer has confirmed that the utility owner/operator has deenergized and (at the worksite) visibly grounded the power line.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assembly/disassembly inside Table A clearance prohibited.</I> No part of a crane/derrick, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), whether partially or fully assembled, is allowed closer than the minimum approach distance under Table A (<I>see</I> § 1926.1408) to a power line unless the employer has confirmed that the utility owner/operator has deenergized and (at the worksite) visibly grounded the power line.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Voltage information.</I> Where Option (3) of this section is used, the utility owner/operator of the power lines must provide the requested voltage information within two working days of the employer's request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Power lines presumed energized.</I> The employer must assume that all power lines are energized unless the utility owner/operator confirms that the power line has been and continues to be deenergized and visibly grounded at the worksite.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Posting of electrocution warnings.</I> There must be at least one electrocution hazard warning conspicuously posted in the cab so that it is in view of the operator and (except for overhead gantry and tower cranes) at least two on the outside of the equipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1408" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1408   Power line safety (up to 350 kV)—equipment operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hazard assessments and precautions inside the work zone.</I> Before beginning equipment operations, the employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identify the work zone by either:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Demarcating boundaries (such as with flags, or a device such as a range limit device or range control warning device) and prohibiting the operator from operating the equipment past those boundaries, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defining the work zone as the area 360 degrees around the equipment, up to the equipment's maximum working radius.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine if any part of the equipment, load line or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), if operated up to the equipment's maximum working radius in the work zone, could get closer than 20 feet to a power line. If so, the employer must meet the requirements in Option (1), Option (2), or Option (3) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Option (1)—Deenergize and ground.</I> Confirm from the utility owner/operator that the power line has been deenergized and visibly grounded at the worksite.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Option (2)</I>—<I>20 foot clearance.</I> Ensure that no part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), gets closer than 20 feet to the power line by implementing the measures specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Option (3)</I>—<I>Table A clearance.</I> (A) Determine the line's voltage and the minimum approach distance permitted under Table A (<I>see</I> § 1926.1408).
</P>
<P>(B) Determine if any part of the equipment, load line or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), while operating up to the equipment's maximum working radius in the work zone, could get closer than the minimum approach distance of the power line permitted under Table A (<I>see</I> § 1926.1408). If so, then the employer must follow the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section to ensure that no part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), gets closer to the line than the minimum approach distance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preventing encroachment/electrocution.</I> Where encroachment precautions are required under Option (2) or Option (3) of this section, all of the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct a planning meeting with the operator and the other workers who will be in the area of the equipment or load to review the location of the power line(s), and the steps that will be implemented to prevent encroachment/electrocution.
</P>
<P>(2) If tag lines are used, they must be non-conductive.
</P>
<P>(3) Erect and maintain an elevated warning line, barricade, or line of signs, in view of the operator, equipped with flags or similar high-visibility markings, at 20 feet from the power line (if using Option (2) of this section) or at the minimum approach distance under Table A (<I>see</I> § 1926.1408) (if using Option (3) of this section). If the operator is unable to see the elevated warning line, a dedicated spotter must be used as described in § 1926.1408(b)(4)(ii) in addition to implementing one of the measures described in §§ 1926.1408(b)(4)(i), (iii), (iv) and (v).
</P>
<P>(4) Implement at least one of the following measures:
</P>
<P>(i) A proximity alarm set to give the operator sufficient warning to prevent encroachment.
</P>
<P>(ii) A dedicated spotter who is in continuous contact with the operator. Where this measure is selected, the dedicated spotter must:
</P>
<P>(A) Be equipped with a visual aid to assist in identifying the minimum clearance distance. Examples of a visual aid include, but are not limited to: A clearly visible line painted on the ground; a clearly visible line of stanchions; a set of clearly visible line-of-sight landmarks (such as a fence post behind the dedicated spotter and a building corner ahead of the dedicated spotter).
</P>
<P>(B) Be positioned to effectively gauge the clearance distance.
</P>
<P>(C) Where necessary, use equipment that enables the dedicated spotter to communicate directly with the operator.
</P>
<P>(D) Give timely information to the operator so that the required clearance distance can be maintained.
</P>
<P>(iii) A device that automatically warns the operator when to stop movement, such as a range control warning device. Such a device must be set to give the operator sufficient warning to prevent encroachment.
</P>
<P>(iv) A device that automatically limits range of movement, set to prevent encroachment.
</P>
<P>(v) An insulating link/device, as defined in § 1926.1401, installed at a point between the end of the load line (or below) and the load.
</P>
<P>(5) The requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section do not apply to work covered by subpart V of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voltage information.</I> Where Option (3) of this section is used, the utility owner/operator of the power lines must provide the requested voltage information within two working days of the employer's request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operations below power lines.</I> (1) No part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories) is allowed below a power line unless the employer has confirmed that the utility owner/operator has deenergized and (at the worksite) visibly grounded the power line, except where one of the exceptions in paragraph (d)(2) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (d)(1) of this section is inapplicable where the employer demonstrates that one of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) The work is covered by subpart V of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) For equipment with non-extensible booms: The uppermost part of the equipment, with the boom at true vertical, would be more than 20 feet below the plane of the power line or more than the Table A of this section minimum clearance distance below the plane of the power line.
</P>
<P>(iii) For equipment with articulating or extensible booms: The uppermost part of the equipment, with the boom in the fully extended position, at true vertical, would be more than 20 feet below the plane of the power line or more than the Table A of this section minimum clearance distance below the plane of the power line.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer demonstrates that compliance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section is infeasible and meets the requirements of § 1926.1410.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Power lines presumed energized.</I> The employer must assume that all power lines are energized unless the utility owner/operator confirms that the power line has been and continues to be deenergized and visibly grounded at the worksite.
</P>
<P>(f) When working near transmitter/communication towers where the equipment is close enough for an electrical charge to be induced in the equipment or materials being handled, the transmitter must be deenergized or the following precautions must be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) The equipment must be provided with an electrical ground.
</P>
<P>(2) If tag lines are used, they must be non-conductive.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Training.</I> (1) The employer must train each operator and crew member assigned to work with the equipment on all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The procedures to be followed in the event of electrical contact with a power line. Such training must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Information regarding the danger of electrocution from the operator simultaneously touching the equipment and the ground.
</P>
<P>(B) The importance to the operator's safety of remaining inside the cab except where there is an imminent danger of fire, explosion, or other emergency that necessitates leaving the cab.
</P>
<P>(C) The safest means of evacuating from equipment that may be energized.
</P>
<P>(D) The danger of the potentially energized zone around the equipment (step potential).
</P>
<P>(E) The need for crew in the area to avoid approaching or touching the equipment and the load.
</P>
<P>(F) Safe clearance distance from power lines.
</P>
<P>(ii) Power lines are presumed to be energized unless the utility owner/operator confirms that the power line has been and continues to be deenergized and visibly grounded at the worksite.
</P>
<P>(iii) Power lines are presumed to be uninsulated unless the utility owner/operator or a registered engineer who is a qualified person with respect to electrical power transmission and distribution confirms that a line is insulated.
</P>
<P>(iv) The limitations of an insulating link/device, proximity alarm, and range control (and similar) device, if used.
</P>
<P>(v) The procedures to be followed to properly ground equipment and the limitations of grounding.
</P>
<P>(2) Employees working as dedicated spotters must be trained to enable them to effectively perform their task, including training on the applicable requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Training under this section must be administered in accordance with § 1926.1430(g).
</P>
<P>(h) Devices originally designed by the manufacturer for use as: A safety device (<I>see</I> § 1926.1415), operational aid, or a means to prevent power line contact or electrocution, when used to comply with this section, must meet the manufacturer's procedures for use and conditions of use.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A—Minimum Clearance Distances
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Voltage
<br/>(nominal, kV, alternating current)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum clearance distance
<br/>(feet)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">up to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over 50 to 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over 200 to 350</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over 350 to 500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over 500 to 750</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over 750 to 1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over 1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(as established by the utility owner/operator or registered professional engineer who is a qualified person with respect to electrical power transmission and distribution).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The value that follows “to” is up to and includes that value. For example, over 50 to 200 means up to and including 200kV.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1409" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1409   Power line safety (over 350 kV).</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of §§ 1926.1407 and 1926.1408 apply to power lines over 350 kV except:
</P>
<P>(a) For power lines at or below 1000 kV, wherever the distance “20 feet” is specified, the distance “50 feet” must be substituted; and
</P>
<P>(b) For power lines over 1000 kV, the minimum clearance distance must be established by the utility owner/operator or registered professional engineer who is a qualified person with respect to electrical power transmission and distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1410" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1410   Power line safety (all voltages)—equipment operations closer than the Table A zone.</HEAD>
<P>Equipment operations in which any part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories) is closer than the minimum approach distance under Table A of § 1926.1408 to an energized power line is prohibited, except where the employer demonstrates that all of the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The employer determines that it is infeasible to do the work without breaching the minimum approach distance under Table A of § 1926.1408.
</P>
<P>(b) The employer determines that, after consultation with the utility owner/operator, it is infeasible to deenergize and ground the power line or relocate the power line.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum clearance distance.</I> (1) The power line owner/operator or registered professional engineer who is a qualified person with respect to electrical power transmission and distribution determines the minimum clearance distance that must be maintained to prevent electrical contact in light of the on-site conditions. The factors that must be considered in making this determination include, but are not limited to: Conditions affecting atmospheric conductivity; time necessary to bring the equipment, load line, and load (including rigging and lifting accessories) to a complete stop; wind conditions; degree of sway in the power line; lighting conditions, and other conditions affecting the ability to prevent electrical contact.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (c)(1) of this section does not apply to work covered by subpart V of this part; instead, for such work, the minimum approach distances established by the employer under § 1926.960(c)(1)(i) apply.
</P>
<P>(d) A planning meeting with the employer and utility owner/operator (or registered professional engineer who is a qualified person with respect to electrical power transmission and distribution) is held to determine the procedures that will be followed to prevent electrical contact and electrocution. At a minimum these procedures must include:
</P>
<P>(1) If the power line is equipped with a device that automatically reenergizes the circuit in the event of a power line contact, before the work begins, the automatic reclosing feature of the circuit interrupting device must be made inoperative if the design of the device permits.
</P>
<P>(2) A dedicated spotter who is in continuous contact with the operator. The dedicated spotter must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be equipped with a visual aid to assist in identifying the minimum clearance distance. Examples of a visual aid include, but are not limited to: A line painted on the ground; a clearly visible line of stanchions; a set of clearly visible line-of-sight landmarks (such as a fence post behind the dedicated spotter and a building corner ahead of the dedicated spotter).
</P>
<P>(ii) Be positioned to effectively gauge the clearance distance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where necessary, use equipment that enables the dedicated spotter to communicate directly with the operator.
</P>
<P>(iv) Give timely information to the operator so that the required clearance distance can be maintained.
</P>
<P>(3) An elevated warning line, or barricade (not attached to the crane), in view of the operator (either directly or through video equipment), equipped with flags or similar high-visibility markings, to prevent electrical contact. However, this provision does not apply to work covered by subpart V of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Insulating link/device.</I> (i) An insulating link/device installed at a point between the end of the load line (or below) and the load.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section does not apply to work covered by subpart V of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) Until November 8, 2011, the following procedure may be substituted for the requirement in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section: All employees, excluding equipment operators located on the equipment, who may come in contact with the equipment, the load line, or the load must be insulated or guarded from the equipment, the load line, and the load. Insulating gloves rated for the voltage involved are adequate insulation for the purposes of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(v) Until November 8, 2013, the following procedure may be substituted for the requirement in (d)(4)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer must use a link/device manufactured on or before November 8, 2011, that meets the definition of an insulating link/device, except that it has not been approved by a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory, and that is maintained and used in accordance with manufacturer requirements and recommendations, and is installed at a point between the end of the load line (or below) and the load; and
</P>
<P>(B) All employees, excluding equipment operators located on the equipment, who may come in contact with the equipment, the load line, or the load must be insulated or guarded from the equipment, the load line, and the load through an additional means other than the device described in paragraph (d)(4)(v)(A) of this section. Insulating gloves rated for the voltage involved are adequate additional means of protection for the purposes of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(5) Nonconductive rigging if the rigging may be within the Table A of § 1926.1408 distance during the operation.
</P>
<P>(6) If the equipment is equipped with a device that automatically limits range of movement, it must be used and set to prevent any part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories) from breaching the minimum approach distance established under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) If a tag line is used, it must be of the nonconductive type.
</P>
<P>(8) Barricades forming a perimeter at least 10 feet away from the equipment to prevent unauthorized personnel from entering the work area. In areas where obstacles prevent the barricade from being at least 10 feet away, the barricade must be as far from the equipment as feasible.
</P>
<P>(9) Workers other than the operator must be prohibited from touching the load line above the insulating link/device and crane. Operators remotely operating the equipment from the ground must use either wireless controls that isolate the operator from the equipment or insulating mats that insulate the operator from the ground.
</P>
<P>(10) Only personnel essential to the operation are permitted to be in the area of the crane and load.
</P>
<P>(11) The equipment must be properly grounded.
</P>
<P>(12) Insulating line hose or cover-up must be installed by the utility owner/operator except where such devices are unavailable for the line voltages involved.
</P>
<P>(e) The procedures developed to comply with paragraph (d) of this section are documented and immediately available on-site.
</P>
<P>(f) The equipment user and utility owner/operator (or registered professional engineer) meet with the equipment operator and the other workers who will be in the area of the equipment or load to review the procedures that will be implemented to prevent breaching the minimum approach distance established in paragraph (c) of this section and prevent electrocution.
</P>
<P>(g) The procedures developed to comply with paragraph (d) of this section are implemented.
</P>
<P>(h) The utility owner/operator (or registered professional engineer) and all employers of employees involved in the work must identify one person who will direct the implementation of the procedures. The person identified in accordance with this paragraph must direct the implementation of the procedures and must have the authority to stop work at any time to ensure safety.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) If a problem occurs implementing the procedures being used to comply with paragraph (d) of this section, or indicating that those procedures are inadequate to prevent electrocution, the employer must safely stop operations and either develop new procedures to comply with paragraph (d) of this section or have the utility owner/operator deenergize and visibly ground or relocate the power line before resuming work.
</P>
<P>(k) Devices originally designed by the manufacturer for use as a safety device (<I>see</I> § 1926.1415), operational aid, or a means to prevent power line contact or electrocution, when used to comply with this section, must comply with the manufacturer's procedures for use and conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) The employer must train each operator and crew member assigned to work with the equipment in accordance with § 1926.1408(g).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 20743, Apr. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1411" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1411   Power line safety—while traveling under or near power lines with no load.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section establishes procedures and criteria that must be met for equipment traveling under or near a power line on a construction site with no load. Equipment traveling on a construction site with a load is governed by § 1926.1408, § 1926.1409 or § 1926.1410, whichever is appropriate, and § 1926.1417(u).
</P>
<P>(b) The employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The boom/mast and boom/mast support system are lowered sufficiently to meet the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) The clearances specified in Table T of this section are maintained.
</P>
<P>(3) The effects of speed and terrain on equipment movement (including movement of the boom/mast) are considered so that those effects do not cause the minimum clearance distances specified in Table T of this section to be breached.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Dedicated spotter.</I> If any part of the equipment while traveling will get closer than 20 feet to the power line, the employer must ensure that a dedicated spotter who is in continuous contact with the driver/operator is used. The dedicated spotter must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be positioned to effectively gauge the clearance distance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where necessary, use equipment that enables the dedicated spotter to communicate directly with the operator.
</P>
<P>(iii) Give timely information to the operator so that the required clearance distance can be maintained.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional precautions for traveling in poor visibility.</I> When traveling at night, or in conditions of poor visibility, in addition to the measures specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section, the employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The power lines are illuminated or another means of identifying the location of the lines is used.
</P>
<P>(ii) A safe path of travel is identified and used.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table T—Minimum Clearance Distances While Traveling With No Load
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Voltage
<br/>(nominal, kV, alternating current)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">While traveling—minimum clearance distance
<br/>(feet)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">up to 0.75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over .75 to 50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over 50 to 345</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">over 345 to 750</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 750 to 1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(as established by the utility owner/operator or registered professional engineer who is a qualified person with respect to electrical power transmission and distribution).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1412" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1412   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Modified equipment.</I> (1) Equipment that has had modifications or additions which affect the safe operation of the equipment (such as modifications or additions involving a safety device or operational aid, critical part of a control system, power plant, braking system, load-sustaining structural components, load hook, or in-use operating mechanism) or capacity must be inspected by a qualified person after such modifications/additions have been completed, prior to initial use. The inspection must meet all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The inspection must assure that the modifications or additions have been done in accordance with the approval obtained pursuant to § 1926.1434 (Equipment modifications).
</P>
<P>(ii) The inspection must include functional testing of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Equipment must not be used until an inspection under this paragraph demonstrates that the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repaired/adjusted equipment.</I> (1) Equipment that has had a repair or adjustment that relates to safe operation (such as: A repair or adjustment to a safety device or operator aid, or to a critical part of a control system, power plant, braking system, load-sustaining structural components, load hook, or in-use operating mechanism), must be inspected by a qualified person after such a repair or adjustment has been completed, prior to initial use. The inspection must meet all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The qualified person must determine if the repair/adjustment meets manufacturer equipment criteria (where applicable and available).
</P>
<P>(ii) Where manufacturer equipment criteria are unavailable or inapplicable, the qualified person must:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine if a registered professional engineer (RPE) is needed to develop criteria for the repair/adjustment. If an RPE is not needed, the employer must ensure that the criteria are developed by the qualified person. If an RPE is needed, the employer must ensure that they are developed by an RPE.
</P>
<P>(B) Determine if the repair/adjustment meets the criteria developed in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The inspection must include functional testing of the repaired/adjusted parts and other components that may be affected by the repair/adjustment.
</P>
<P>(4) Equipment must not be used until an inspection under this paragraph demonstrates that the repair/adjustment meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section (or, where applicable, paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Post-assembly.</I> (1) Upon completion of assembly, the equipment must be inspected by a qualified person to assure that it is configured in accordance with manufacturer equipment criteria.
</P>
<P>(2) Where manufacturer equipment criteria are unavailable, a qualified person must:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine if a registered professional engineer (RPE) familiar with the type of equipment involved is needed to develop criteria for the equipment configuration. If an RPE is not needed, the employer must ensure that the criteria are developed by the qualified person. If an RPE is needed, the employer must ensure that they are developed by an RPE.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine if the equipment meets the criteria developed in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Equipment must not be used until an inspection under this paragraph demonstrates that the equipment is configured in accordance with the applicable criteria.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Each shift.</I> (1) A competent person must begin a visual inspection prior to each shift the equipment will be used, which must be completed before or during that shift. The inspection must consist of observation for apparent deficiencies. Taking apart equipment components and booming down is not required as part of this inspection unless the results of the visual inspection or trial operation indicate that further investigation necessitating taking apart equipment components or booming down is needed. Determinations made in conducting the inspection must be reassessed in light of observations made during operation. At a minimum the inspection must include all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Control mechanisms for maladjustments interfering with proper operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Control and drive mechanisms for apparent excessive wear of components and contamination by lubricants, water or other foreign matter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Air, hydraulic, and other pressurized lines for deterioration or leakage, particularly those which flex in normal operation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hydraulic system for proper fluid level.
</P>
<P>(v) Hooks and latches for deformation, cracks, excessive wear, or damage such as from chemicals or heat.
</P>
<P>(vi) Wire rope reeving for compliance with the manufacturer's specifications.
</P>
<P>(vii) Wire rope, in accordance with § 1926.1413(a).
</P>
<P>(viii) Electrical apparatus for malfunctioning, signs of apparent excessive deterioration, dirt or moisture accumulation.
</P>
<P>(ix) Tires (when in use) for proper inflation and condition.
</P>
<P>(x) Ground conditions around the equipment for proper support, including ground settling under and around outriggers/stabilizers and supporting foundations, ground water accumulation, or similar conditions. This paragraph does not apply to the inspection of ground conditions for railroad tracks and their underlying support when the railroad tracks are part of the general railroad system of transportation that is regulated pursuant to the Federal Railroad Administration under 49 CFR part 213.
</P>
<P>(xi) The equipment for level position within the tolerances specified by the equipment manufacturer's recommendations, both before each shift and after each move and setup.
</P>
<P>(xii) Operator cab windows for significant cracks, breaks, or other deficiencies that would hamper the operator's view.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Rails, rail stops, rail clamps and supporting surfaces when the equipment has rail traveling. This paragraph does not apply to the inspection of rails, rail stops, rail clamps and supporting surfaces when the railroad tracks are part of the general railroad system of transportation that is regulated pursuant to the Federal Railroad Administration under 49 CFR part 213.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Safety devices and operational aids for proper operation.
</P>
<P>(2) If any deficiency in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (xiii) of this section (or in additional inspection items required to be checked for specific types of equipment in accordance with other sections of this standard) is identified, an immediate determination must be made by the competent person as to whether the deficiency constitutes a safety hazard. If the deficiency is determined to constitute a safety hazard, the equipment must be taken out of service until it has been corrected. <I>See</I> § 1926.1417.
</P>
<P>(3) If any deficiency in paragraph (d)(1)(xiv) of this section (safety devices/operational aids) is identified, the action specified in §§ 1926.1415 and 1926.1416 must be taken prior to using the equipment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Monthly.</I> (1) Each month the equipment is in service it must be inspected in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section (each shift).
</P>
<P>(2) Equipment must not be used until an inspection under this paragraph demonstrates that no corrective action under paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section is required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Documentation.</I> (i) The following information must be documented and maintained by the employer that conducts the inspection:
</P>
<P>(A) The items checked and the results of the inspection.
</P>
<P>(B) The name and signature of the person who conducted the inspection and the date.
</P>
<P>(ii) This document must be retained for a minimum of three months.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Annual/comprehensive.</I> (1) At least every 12 months the equipment must be inspected by a qualified person in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section (each shift) except that the corrective action set forth in paragraphs (f)(4), (f)(5), and (f)(6) of this section must apply in place of the corrective action required by paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, at least every 12 months, the equipment must be inspected by a qualified person. Disassembly is required, as necessary, to complete the inspection. The equipment must be inspected for all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Equipment structure (including the boom and, if equipped, the jib):
</P>
<P>(A) Structural members: Deformed, cracked, or significantly corroded.
</P>
<P>(B) Bolts, rivets and other fasteners: loose, failed or significantly corroded.
</P>
<P>(C) Welds for cracks.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sheaves and drums for cracks or significant wear.
</P>
<P>(iii) Parts such as pins, bearings, shafts, gears, rollers and locking devices for distortion, cracks or significant wear.
</P>
<P>(iv) Brake and clutch system parts, linings, pawls and ratchets for excessive wear.
</P>
<P>(v) Safety devices and operational aids for proper operation (including significant inaccuracies).
</P>
<P>(vi) Gasoline, diesel, electric, or other power plants for safety-related problems (such as leaking exhaust and emergency shut-down feature) and conditions, and proper operation.
</P>
<P>(vii) Chains and chain drive sprockets for excessive wear of sprockets and excessive chain stretch.
</P>
<P>(viii) Travel steering, brakes, and locking devices, for proper operation.
</P>
<P>(ix) Tires for damage or excessive wear.
</P>
<P>(x) Hydraulic, pneumatic and other pressurized hoses, fittings and tubing, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Flexible hose or its junction with the fittings for indications of leaks.
</P>
<P>(B) Threaded or clamped joints for leaks.
</P>
<P>(C) Outer covering of the hose for blistering, abnormal deformation or other signs of failure/impending failure.
</P>
<P>(D) Outer surface of a hose, rigid tube, or fitting for indications of excessive abrasion or scrubbing.
</P>
<P>(xi) Hydraulic and pneumatic pumps and motors, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Performance indicators: Unusual noises or vibration, low operating speed, excessive heating of the fluid, low pressure.
</P>
<P>(B) Loose bolts or fasteners.
</P>
<P>(C) Shaft seals and joints between pump sections for leaks.
</P>
<P>(xii) Hydraulic and pneumatic valves, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Spools: Sticking, improper return to neutral, and leaks.
</P>
<P>(B) Leaks.
</P>
<P>(C) Valve housing cracks.
</P>
<P>(D) Relief valves: Failure to reach correct pressure (if there is a manufacturer procedure for checking pressure, it must be followed).
</P>
<P>(xiii) Hydraulic and pneumatic cylinders, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Drifting caused by fluid leaking across the piston.
</P>
<P>(B) Rod seals and welded joints for leaks.
</P>
<P>(C) Cylinder rods for scores, nicks, or dents.
</P>
<P>(D) Case (barrel) for significant dents.
</P>
<P>(E) Rod eyes and connecting joints: Loose or deformed.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Outrigger or stabilizer pads/floats for excessive wear or cracks.
</P>
<P>(xv) Slider pads for excessive wear or cracks.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Electrical components and wiring for cracked or split insulation and loose or corroded terminations.
</P>
<P>(xvii) Warning labels and decals originally supplied with the equipment by the manufacturer or otherwise required under this standard: Missing or unreadable.
</P>
<P>(xviii) Originally equipped operator seat (or equivalent): Missing.
</P>
<P>(xix) Operator seat: Unserviceable.
</P>
<P>(xx) Originally equipped steps, ladders, handrails, guards: Missing.
</P>
<P>(xxi) Steps, ladders, handrails, guards: In unusable/unsafe condition.
</P>
<P>(3) This inspection must include functional testing to determine that the equipment as configured in the inspection is functioning properly.
</P>
<P>(4) If any deficiency is identified, an immediate determination must be made by the qualified person as to whether the deficiency constitutes a safety hazard or, though not yet a safety hazard, needs to be monitored in the monthly inspections.
</P>
<P>(5) If the qualified person determines that a deficiency is a safety hazard, the equipment must be taken out of service until it has been corrected, except when temporary alternative measures are implemented as specified in § 1926.1416(d) or § 1926.1435(e). <I>See</I> § 1926.1417.
</P>
<P>(6) If the qualified person determines that, though not presently a safety hazard, the deficiency needs to be monitored, the employer must ensure that the deficiency is checked in the monthly inspections.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Documentation of annual/comprehensive inspection.</I> The following information must be documented, maintained, and retained for a minimum of 12 months, by the employer that conducts the inspection:
</P>
<P>(i) The items checked and the results of the inspection.
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and signature of the person who conducted the inspection and the date.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Severe service.</I> Where the severity of use/conditions is such that there is a reasonable probability of damage or excessive wear (such as loading that may have exceeded rated capacity, shock loading that may have exceeded rated capacity, prolonged exposure to a corrosive atmosphere), the employer must stop using the equipment and a qualified person must:
</P>
<P>(1) Inspect the equipment for structural damage to determine if the equipment can continue to be used safely.
</P>
<P>(2) In light of the use/conditions determine whether any items/conditions listed in paragraph (f) of this section need to be inspected; if so, the qualified person must inspect those items/conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) If a deficiency is found, the employer must follow the requirements in paragraphs (f)(4) through (6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Equipment not in regular use.</I> Equipment that has been idle for 3 months or more must be inspected by a qualified person in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e) (Monthly) of this section before initial use.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) Any part of a manufacturer's procedures regarding inspections that relate to safe operation (such as to a safety device or operational aid, critical part of a control system, power plant, braking system, load-sustaining structural components, load hook, or in-use operating mechanism) that is more comprehensive or has a more frequent schedule of inspection than the requirements of this section must be followed.
</P>
<P>(k) All documents produced under this section must be available, during the applicable document retention period, to all persons who conduct inspections under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1413" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1413   Wire rope—inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Shift inspection.</I> (1) A competent person must begin a visual inspection prior to each shift the equipment is used, which must be completed before or during that shift. The inspection must consist of observation of wire ropes (running and standing) that are likely to be in use during the shift for apparent deficiencies, including those listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Untwisting (opening) of wire rope or booming down is not required as part of this inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Apparent deficiencies</I>—(i) <I>Category I.</I> Apparent deficiencies in this category include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Significant distortion of the wire rope structure such as kinking, crushing, unstranding, birdcaging, signs of core failure or steel core protrusion between the outer strands.
</P>
<P>(B) Significant corrosion.
</P>
<P>(C) Electric arc damage (from a source other than power lines) or heat damage.
</P>
<P>(D) Improperly applied end connections.
</P>
<P>(E) Significantly corroded, cracked, bent, or worn end connections (such as from severe service).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Category II.</I> Apparent deficiencies in this category are:
</P>
<P>(A) Visible broken wires, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In running wire ropes: Six randomly distributed broken wires in one rope lay or three broken wires in one strand in one rope lay, where a rope lay is the length along the rope in which one strand makes a complete revolution around the rope.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In rotation resistant ropes: Two randomly distributed broken wires in six rope diameters or four randomly distributed broken wires in 30 rope diameters.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In pendants or standing wire ropes: More than two broken wires in one rope lay located in rope beyond end connections and/or more than one broken wire in a rope lay located at an end connection.
</P>
<P>(B) A diameter reduction of more than 5% from nominal diameter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Category III.</I> Apparent deficiencies in this category include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) In rotation resistant wire rope, core protrusion or other distortion indicating core failure.
</P>
<P>(B) Prior electrical contact with a power line.
</P>
<P>(C) A broken strand.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Critical review items.</I> The competent person must give particular attention to all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Rotation resistant wire rope in use.
</P>
<P>(ii) Wire rope being used for boom hoists and luffing hoists, particularly at reverse bends.
</P>
<P>(iii) Wire rope at flange points, crossover points and repetitive pickup points on drums.
</P>
<P>(iv) Wire rope at or near terminal ends.
</P>
<P>(v) Wire rope in contact with saddles, equalizer sheaves or other sheaves where rope travel is limited.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Removal from service.</I> (i) If a deficiency in Category I (<I>see</I> paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section) is identified, an immediate determination must be made by the competent person as to whether the deficiency constitutes a safety hazard. If the deficiency is determined to constitute a safety hazard, operations involving use of the wire rope in question must be prohibited until:
</P>
<P>(A) The wire rope is replaced (<I>see</I> § 1926.1417), or
</P>
<P>(B) If the deficiency is localized, the problem is corrected by severing the wire rope in two; the undamaged portion may continue to be used. Joining lengths of wire rope by splicing is prohibited. If a rope is shortened under this paragraph, the employer must ensure that the drum will still have two wraps of wire when the load and/or boom is in its lowest position.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a deficiency in Category II (<I>see</I> paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section) is identified, operations involving use of the wire rope in question must be prohibited until:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer complies with the wire rope manufacturer's established criterion for removal from service or a different criterion that the wire rope manufacturer has approved in writing for that specific wire rope (<I>see</I> § 1926.1417),
</P>
<P>(B) The wire rope is replaced (<I>see</I> § 1926.1417), or
</P>
<P>(C) If the deficiency is localized, the problem is corrected by severing the wire rope in two; the undamaged portion may continue to be used. Joining lengths of wire rope by splicing is prohibited. If a rope is shortened under this paragraph, the employer must ensure that the drum will still have two wraps of wire when the load and/or boom is in its lowest position.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a deficiency in Category III is identified, operations involving use of the wire rope in question must be prohibited until:
</P>
<P>(A) The wire rope is replaced (<I>see</I> § 1926.1417), or
</P>
<P>(B) If the deficiency (other than power line contact) is localized, the problem is corrected by severing the wire rope in two; the undamaged portion may continue to be used. Joining lengths of wire rope by splicing is prohibited. Repair of wire rope that contacted an energized power line is also prohibited. If a rope is shortened under this paragraph, the employer must ensure that the drum will still have two wraps of wire when the load and/or boom is in its lowest position.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where a wire rope is required to be removed from service under this section, either the equipment (as a whole) or the hoist with that wire rope must be tagged-out, in accordance with § 1926.1417(f)(1), until the wire rope is repaired or replaced.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Monthly inspection.</I> (1) Each month an inspection must be conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) (shift inspection) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The inspection must include any deficiencies that the qualified person who conducts the annual inspection determines under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section must be monitored.
</P>
<P>(3) Wire ropes on equipment must not be used until an inspection under this paragraph demonstrates that no corrective action under paragraph (a)(4) of this section is required.
</P>
<P>(4) The inspection must be documented according to § 1926.1412(e)(3) (monthly inspection documentation).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual/comprehensive.</I> (1) At least every 12 months, wire ropes in use on equipment must be inspected by a qualified person in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section (shift inspection).
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, at least every 12 months, the wire ropes in use on equipment must be inspected by a qualified person, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The inspection must be for deficiencies of the types listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The inspection must be complete and thorough, covering the surface of the entire length of the wire ropes, with particular attention given to all of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Critical review items listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Those sections that are normally hidden during shift and monthly inspections.
</P>
<P>(C) Wire rope subject to reverse bends.
</P>
<P>(D) Wire rope passing over sheaves.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exception:</I> In the event an inspection under paragraph (c)(2) of this section is not feasible due to existing set-up and configuration of the equipment (such as where an assist crane is needed) or due to site conditions (such as a dense urban setting), such inspections must be conducted as soon as it becomes feasible, but no longer than an additional 6 months for running ropes and, for standing ropes, at the time of disassembly.
</P>
<P>(3) If a deficiency is identified, an immediate determination must be made by the qualified person as to whether the deficiency constitutes a safety hazard.
</P>
<P>(i) If the deficiency is determined to constitute a safety hazard, operations involving use of the wire rope in question must be prohibited until:
</P>
<P>(A) The wire rope is replaced (<I>see</I> § 1926.1417), or
</P>
<P>(B) If the deficiency is localized, the problem is corrected by severing the wire rope in two; the undamaged portion may continue to be used. Joining lengths of wire rope by splicing is prohibited. If a rope is shortened under this paragraph, the employer must ensure that the drum will still have two wraps of wire when the load and/or boom is in its lowest position.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the qualified person determines that, though not presently a safety hazard, the deficiency needs to be monitored, the employer must ensure that the deficiency is checked in the monthly inspections.
</P>
<P>(4) The inspection must be documented according to § 1926.1412(f)(7) (annual/comprehensive inspection documentation).
</P>
<P>(d) Rope lubricants that are of the type that hinder inspection must not be used.
</P>
<P>(e) All documents produced under this section must be available, during the applicable document retention period, to all persons who conduct inspections under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1414" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1414   Wire rope—selection and installation criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Original equipment wire rope and replacement wire rope must be selected and installed in accordance with the requirements of this section. Selection of replacement wire rope must be in accordance with the recommendations of the wire rope manufacturer, the equipment manufacturer, or a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Wire rope design criteria:</I> Wire rope (other than rotation resistant rope) must comply with either Option (1) or Option (2) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Option (1).</I> Wire rope must comply with section 5-1.7.1 of ASME B30.5-2004 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) except that section's paragraph (c) must not apply.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Option (2).</I> Wire rope must be designed to have, in relation to the equipment's rated capacity, a sufficient minimum breaking force and design factor so that compliance with the applicable inspection provisions in § 1926.1413 will be an effective means of preventing sudden rope failure.
</P>
<P>(c) Wire rope must be compatible with the safe functioning of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Boom hoist reeving.</I> (1) Fiber core ropes must not be used for boom hoist reeving, except for derricks.
</P>
<P>(2) Rotation resistant ropes must be used for boom hoist reeving only where the requirements of paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rotation resistant ropes</I>—(1) <I>Definitions</I>—(i) <I>Type I rotation resistant wire rope (“Type I”).</I> Type I rotation resistant rope is stranded rope constructed to have little or no tendency to rotate or, if guided, transmits little or no torque. It has at least 15 outer strands and comprises an assembly of at least three layers of strands laid helically over a center in two operations. The direction of lay of the outer strands is opposite to that of the underlying layer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Type II rotation resistant wire rope (“Type II”).</I> Type II rotation resistant rope is stranded rope constructed to have significant resistance to rotation. It has at least 10 outer strands and comprises an assembly of two or more layers of strands laid helically over a center in two or three operations. The direction of lay of the outer strands is opposite to that of the underlying layer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Type III rotation resistant wire rope (“Type III”).</I> Type III rotation resistant rope is stranded rope constructed to have limited resistance to rotation. It has no more than nine outer strands, and comprises an assembly of two layers of strands laid helically over a center in two operations. The direction of lay of the outer strands is opposite to that of the underlying layer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> (i) Types II and III with an operating design factor of less than 5 must not be used for duty cycle or repetitive lifts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rotation resistant ropes (including Types I, II and III) must have an operating design factor of no less than 3.5.
</P>
<P>(iii) Type I must have an operating design factor of no less than 5, except where the wire rope manufacturer and the equipment manufacturer approves the design factor, in writing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Types II and III must have an operating design factor of no less than 5, except where the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(3) When Types II and III with an operating design factor of less than 5 are used (for non-duty cycle, non-repetitive lifts), the following requirements must be met for each lifting operation:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualified person must inspect the rope in accordance with § 1926.1413(a). The rope must be used only if the qualified person determines that there are no deficiencies constituting a hazard. In making this determination, more than one broken wire in any one rope lay must be considered a hazard.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operations must be conducted in such a manner and at such speeds as to minimize dynamic effects.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each lift made under § 1926.1414(e)(3) must be recorded in the monthly and annual inspection documents. Such prior uses must be considered by the qualified person in determining whether to use the rope again.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional requirements for rotation resistant ropes for boom hoist reeving.</I> (i) Rotation resistant ropes must not be used for boom hoist reeving, except where the requirements of paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rotation resistant ropes may be used as boom hoist reeving when load hoists are used as boom hoists for attachments such as luffing attachments or boom and mast attachment systems. Under these conditions, all of the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(A) The drum must provide a first layer rope pitch diameter of not less than 18 times the nominal diameter of the rope used.
</P>
<P>(B) The requirements in § 1926.1426(a) (irrespective of the date of manufacture of the equipment), and § 1926.1426(b).
</P>
<P>(C) The requirements in ASME B30.5-2004 sections 5-1.3.2(a), (a)(2) through (a)(4), (b) and (d) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) except that the minimum pitch diameter for sheaves used in multiple rope reeving is 18 times the nominal diameter of the rope used (instead of the value of 16 specified in section 5-1.3.2(d)).
</P>
<P>(D) All sheaves used in the boom hoist reeving system must have a rope pitch diameter of not less than 18 times the nominal diameter of the rope used.
</P>
<P>(E) The operating design factor for the boom hoist reeving system must be not less than five.
</P>
<P>(F) The operating design factor for these ropes must be the total minimum breaking force of all parts of rope in the system divided by the load imposed on the rope system when supporting the static weights of the structure and the load within the equipment's rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(G) When provided, a power-controlled lowering system must be capable of handling rated capacities and speeds as specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(f) Wire rope clips used in conjunction with wedge sockets must be attached to the unloaded dead end of the rope only, except that the use of devices specifically designed for dead-ending rope in a wedge socket is permitted.
</P>
<P>(g) Socketing must be done in the manner specified by the manufacturer of the wire rope or fitting.
</P>
<P>(h) Prior to cutting a wire rope, seizings must be placed on each side of the point to be cut. The length and number of seizings must be in accordance with the wire rope manufacturer's instructions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1415" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1415   Safety devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Safety devices.</I> The following safety devices are required on all equipment covered by this subpart, unless otherwise specified:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Crane level indicator.</I> (i) The equipment must have a crane level indicator that is either built into the equipment or is available on the equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a built-in crane level indicator is not working properly, it must be tagged-out or removed. If a removable crane level indicator is not working properly, it must be removed.
</P>
<P>(iii) This requirement does not apply to portal cranes, derricks, floating cranes/derricks and land cranes/derricks on barges, pontoons, vessels or other means of flotation.
</P>
<P>(2) Boom stops, except for derricks and hydraulic booms.
</P>
<P>(3) Jib stops (if a jib is attached), except for derricks.
</P>
<P>(4) Equipment with foot pedal brakes must have locks.
</P>
<P>(5) Hydraulic outrigger jacks and hydraulic stabilizer jacks must have an integral holding device/check valve.
</P>
<P>(6) Equipment on rails must have rail clamps and rail stops, except for portal cranes.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Horn.</I> (i) The equipment must have a horn that is either built into the equipment or is on the equipment and immediately available to the operator.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a built-in horn is not working properly, it must be tagged-out or removed. If a removable horn is not working properly, it must be removed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proper operation required.</I> Operations must not begin unless all of the devices listed in this section are in proper working order. If a device stops working properly during operations, the operator must safely stop operations. If any of the devices listed in this section are not in proper working order, the equipment must be taken out of service and operations must not resume until the device is again working properly. <I>See</I> § 1926.1417 (Operation). Alternative measures are not permitted to be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1416" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1416   Operational aids.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The devices listed in this section (“listed operational aids”) are required on all equipment covered by this subpart, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements in paragraphs (e)(1), (e)(2), and (e)(3) of this section do not apply to articulating cranes.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements in paragraphs (d)(3), (e)(1), and (e)(4) of this section apply only to those digger derricks manufactured after November 8, 2011.
</P>
<P>(b) Operations must not begin unless the listed operational aids are in proper working order, except where an operational aid is being repaired the employer uses the specified temporary alternative measures. The time periods permitted for repairing defective operational aids are specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. More protective alternative measures specified by the crane/derrick manufacturer, if any, must be followed.
</P>
<P>(c) If a listed operational aid stops working properly during operations, the operator must safely stop operations until the temporary alternative measures are implemented or the device is again working properly. If a replacement part is no longer available, the use of a substitute device that performs the same type of function is permitted and is not considered a modification under § 1926.1434.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Category I operational aids and alternative measures.</I> Operational aids listed in this paragraph that are not working properly must be repaired no later than 7 calendar days after the deficiency occurs. <I>Exception:</I> If the employer documents that it has ordered the necessary parts within 7 calendar days of the occurrence of the deficiency, the repair must be completed within 7 calendar days of receipt of the parts. <I>See</I> § 1926.1417(j) for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Boom hoist limiting device.</I> (i) For equipment manufactured after December 16, 1969, a boom hoist limiting device is required. <I>Temporary alternative measures (use at least one).</I> One or more of the following methods must be used:
</P>
<P>(A) Use a boom angle indicator.
</P>
<P>(B) Clearly mark the boom hoist cable (so that it can easily be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist to keep the boom within the minimum allowable radius. In addition, install mirrors or remote video cameras and displays if necessary for the operator to see the mark.
</P>
<P>(C) Clearly mark the boom hoist cable (so that it can easily be seen by a spotter) at a point that will give the spotter sufficient time to signal the operator and have the operator stop the hoist to keep the boom within the minimum allowable radius.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the equipment was manufactured on or before December 16, 1969, and is not equipped with a boom hoist limiting device, at least one of the measures in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A) through (C) of this section must be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Luffing jib limiting device.</I> Equipment with a luffing jib must have a luffing jib limiting device. Temporary alternative measures are the same as in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, except to limit the movement of the luffing jib rather than the boom hoist.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Anti two-blocking device.</I> (i) Telescopic boom cranes manufactured after February 28, 1992, must be equipped with a device which automatically prevents damage from contact between the load block, overhaul ball, or similar component, and the boom tip (or fixed upper block or similar component). The device(s) must prevent such damage at all points where two-blocking could occur.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Clearly mark the cable (so that it can easily be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist to prevent two-blocking, and use a spotter when extending the boom.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lattice boom cranes.</I> (A) Lattice boom cranes manufactured after Feb 28, 1992, must be equipped with a device that either automatically prevents damage and load failure from contact between the load block, overhaul ball, or similar component, and the boom tip (or fixed upper block or similar component), or warns the operator in time for the operator to prevent two-blocking. The device must prevent such damage/failure or provide adequate warning for all points where two-blocking could occur.
</P>
<P>(B) Lattice boom cranes and derricks manufactured after November 8, 2011 must be equipped with a device which automatically prevents damage and load failure from contact between the load block, overhaul ball, or similar component, and the boom tip (or fixed upper block or similar component). The device(s) must prevent such damage/failure at all points where two-blocking could occur.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Exception.</I> The requirements in paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section do not apply to such lattice boom equipment when used for dragline, clamshell (grapple), magnet, drop ball, container handling, concrete bucket, marine operations that do not involve hoisting personnel, and pile driving work.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Temporary alternative measures.</I> Clearly mark the cable (so that it can easily be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist to prevent two-blocking, or use a spotter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Articulating cranes manufactured after December 31, 1999, that are equipped with a load hoist must be equipped with a device that automatically prevents damage from contact between the load block, overhaul ball, or similar component, and the boom tip (or fixed upper block or similar component). The device must prevent such damage at all points where two-blocking could occur. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> When two-blocking could only occur with movement of the load hoist, clearly mark the cable (so that it can easily be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist to prevent two-blocking, or use a spotter. When two-blocking could occur without movement of the load hoist, clearly mark the cable (so that it can easily be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist to prevent two-blocking, and use a spotter when extending the boom.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Category II operational aids and alternative measures.</I> Operational aids listed in this paragraph that are not working properly must be repaired no later than 30 calendar days after the deficiency occurs. <I>Exception:</I> If the employer documents that it has ordered the necessary parts within 7 calendar days of the occurrence of the deficiency, and the part is not received in time to complete the repair in 30 calendar days, the repair must be completed within 7 calendar days of receipt of the parts. <I>See</I> § 1926.1417(j) for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Boom angle or radius indicator.</I> The equipment must have a boom angle or radius indicator readable from the operator's station. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Radii or boom angle must be determined by measuring the radii or boom angle with a measuring device.
</P>
<P>(2) Jib angle indicator if the equipment has a luffing jib. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Radii or jib angle must be determined by ascertaining the main boom angle and then measuring the radii or jib angle with a measuring device.
</P>
<P>(3) Boom length indicator if the equipment has a telescopic boom, except where the rated capacity is independent of the boom length. <I>Temporary alternative measures.</I> One or more of the following methods must be used:
</P>
<P>(i) Mark the boom with measured marks to calculate boom length,
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculate boom length from boom angle and radius measurements,
</P>
<P>(iii) Measure the boom with a measuring device.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Load weighing and similar devices.</I> (i) Equipment (other than derricks and articulating cranes) manufactured after March 29, 2003 with a rated capacity over 6,000 pounds must have at least one of the following: load weighing device, load moment (or rated capacity) indicator, or load moment (or rated capacity) limiter. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> The weight of the load must be determined from a source recognized by the industry (such as the load's manufacturer) or by a calculation method recognized by the industry (such as calculating a steel beam from measured dimensions and a known per foot weight). This information must be provided to the operator prior to the lift.
</P>
<P>(ii) Articulating cranes manufactured after November 8, 2011 must have at least one of the following: automatic overload prevention device, load weighing device, load moment (or rated capacity) indicator, or load moment (rated capacity) limiter. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> The weight of the load must be determined from a source recognized by the industry (such as the load's manufacturer) or by a calculation method recognized by the industry (such as calculating a steel beam from measured dimensions and a known per foot weight). This information must be provided to the operator prior to the lift.
</P>
<P>(5) The following devices are required on equipment manufactured after November 8, 2011:
</P>
<P>(i) Outrigger/stabilizer position (horizontal beam extension) sensor/monitor if the equipment has outriggers or stabilizers. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> The operator must verify that the position of the outriggers or stabilizers is correct (in accordance with manufacturer procedures) before beginning operations requiring outrigger or stabilizer deployment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hoist drum rotation indicator if the equipment has a hoist drum not visible from the operator's station. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Mark the drum to indicate the rotation of the drum. In addition, install mirrors or remote video cameras and displays if necessary for the operator to see the mark.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1417" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1417   Operation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer must comply with all manufacturer procedures applicable to the operational functions of equipment, including its use with attachments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unavailable operation procedures.</I> (1) Where the manufacturer procedures are unavailable, the employer must develop and ensure compliance with all procedures necessary for the safe operation of the equipment and attachments.
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for the operational controls must be developed by a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures related to the capacity of the equipment must be developed and signed by a registered professional engineer familiar with the equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accessibility of procedures.</I> (1) The procedures applicable to the operation of the equipment, including rated capacities (load charts), recommended operating speeds, special hazard warnings, instructions, and operator's manual, must be readily available in the cab at all times for use by the operator.
</P>
<P>(2) Where rated capacities are available in the cab only in electronic form: In the event of a failure which makes the rated capacities inaccessible, the operator must immediately cease operations or follow safe shut-down procedures until the rated capacities (in electronic or other form) are available.
</P>
<P>(d) The operator must not engage in any practice or activity that diverts his/her attention while actually engaged in operating the equipment, such as the use of cellular phones (other than when used for signal communications).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Leaving the equipment unattended.</I> (1) The operator must not leave the controls while the load is suspended, except where all of the following are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The operator remains adjacent to the equipment and is not engaged in any other duties.
</P>
<P>(ii) The load is to be held suspended for a period of time exceeding normal lifting operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) The competent person determines that it is safe to do so and implements measures necessary to restrain the boom hoist and telescoping, load, swing, and outrigger or stabilizer functions.
</P>
<P>(iv) Barricades or caution lines, and notices, are erected to prevent all employees from entering the fall zone. No employees, including those listed in §§ 1926.1425(b)(1) through (3), § 1926.1425(d) or § 1926.1425(e), are permitted in the fall zone.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions in § 1926.1417(e)(1) do not apply to working gear (such as slings, spreader bars, ladders, and welding machines) where the weight of the working gear is negligible relative to the lifting capacity of the equipment as positioned, and the working gear is suspended over an area other than an entrance or exit.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Tag-out</I>—(1) <I>Tagging out of service equipment/functions.</I> Where the employer has taken the equipment out of service, a tag must be placed in the cab stating that the equipment is out of service and is not to be used. Where the employer has taken a function(s) out of service, a tag must be placed in a conspicuous position stating that the function is out of service and is not to be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response to “do not operate”/tag-out signs.</I> (i) If there is a warning (tag-out or maintenance/do not operate) sign on the equipment or starting control, the operator must not activate the switch or start the equipment until the sign has been removed by a person authorized to remove it, or until the operator has verified that:
</P>
<P>(A) No one is servicing, working on, or otherwise in a dangerous position on the machine.
</P>
<P>(B) The equipment has been repaired and is working properly.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a warning (tag-out or maintenance/do not operate) sign on any other switch or control, the operator must not activate that switch or control until the sign has been removed by a person authorized to remove it, or until the operator has verified that the requirements in paragraphs (f)(2)(i)(A) and (B) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(g) Before starting the engine, the operator must verify that all controls are in the proper starting position and that all personnel are in the clear.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Storm warning.</I> When a local storm warning has been issued, the competent person must determine whether it is necessary to implement manufacturer recommendations for securing the equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) If equipment adjustments or repairs are necessary:
</P>
<P>(1) The operator must, in writing, promptly inform the person designated by the employer to receive such information and, where there are successive shifts, to the next operator; and
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must notify all affected employees, at the beginning of each shift, of the necessary adjustments or repairs and all alternative measures.
</P>
<P>(k) Safety devices and operational aids must not be used as a substitute for the exercise of professional judgment by the operator.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) If the competent person determines that there is a slack rope condition requiring re-spooling of the rope, it must be verified (before starting to lift) that the rope is seated on the drum and in the sheaves as the slack is removed.
</P>
<P>(n) The competent person must adjust the equipment and/or operations to address the effect of wind, ice, and snow on equipment stability and rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Compliance with rated capacity.</I> (1) The equipment must not be operated in excess of its rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) The operator must not be required to operate the equipment in a manner that would violate paragraph (o)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Load weight.</I> The operator must verify that the load is within the rated capacity of the equipment by at least one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) The weight of the load must be determined from a source recognized by the industry (such as the load's manufacturer), or by a calculation method recognized by the industry (such as calculating a steel beam from measured dimensions and a known per foot weight), or by other equally reliable means. In addition, when requested by the operator, this information must be provided to the operator prior to the lift; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The operator must begin hoisting the load to determine, using a load weighing device, load moment indicator, rated capacity indicator, or rated capacity limiter, if it exceeds 75 percent of the maximum rated capacity at the longest radius that will be used during the lift operation. If it does, the operator must not proceed with the lift until he/she verifies the weight of the load in accordance with paragraph (o)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(p) The boom or other parts of the equipment must not contact any obstruction.
</P>
<P>(q) The equipment must not be used to drag or pull loads sideways.
</P>
<P>(r) On wheel-mounted equipment, no loads must be lifted over the front area, except as permitted by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(s) The operator must test the brakes each time a load that is 90% or more of the maximum line pull is handled by lifting the load a few inches and applying the brakes. In duty cycle and repetitive lifts where each lift is 90% or more of the maximum line pull, this requirement applies to the first lift but not to successive lifts.
</P>
<P>(t) Neither the load nor the boom must be lowered below the point where less than two full wraps of rope remain on their respective drums.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Traveling with a load.</I> (1) Traveling with a load is prohibited if the practice is prohibited by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) Where traveling with a load, the employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) A competent person supervises the operation, determines if it is necessary to reduce rated capacity, and makes determinations regarding load position, boom location, ground support, travel route, overhead obstructions, and speed of movement necessary to ensure safety.
</P>
<P>(ii) The determinations of the competent person required in paragraph (u)(2)(i) of this section are implemented.
</P>
<P>(iii) For equipment with tires, tire pressure specified by the manufacturer is maintained.
</P>
<P>(v) Rotational speed of the equipment must be such that the load does not swing out beyond the radius at which it can be controlled.
</P>
<P>(w) A tag or restraint line must be used if necessary to prevent rotation of the load that would be hazardous.
</P>
<P>(x) The brakes must be adjusted in accordance with manufacturer procedures to prevent unintended movement.
</P>
<P>(y) The operator must obey a stop (or emergency stop) signal, irrespective of who gives it.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Swinging locomotive cranes.</I> A locomotive crane must not be swung into a position where railway cars on an adjacent track could strike it, until it is determined that cars are not being moved on the adjacent track and that proper flag protection has been established.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Counterweight/ballast.</I> (1) The following applies to equipment other than tower cranes:
</P>
<P>(i) Equipment must not be operated without the counterweight or ballast in place as specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum counterweight or ballast specified by the manufacturer for the equipment must not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(2) Counterweight/ballast requirements for tower cranes are specified in § 1926.1435(b)(8).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1418" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1418   Authority to stop operation.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever there is a concern as to safety, the operator must have the authority to stop and refuse to handle loads until a qualified person has determined that safety has been assured.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1419" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1419   Signals—general requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A signal person must be provided in each of the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) The point of operation, meaning the load travel or the area near or at load placement, is not in full view of the operator.
</P>
<P>(2) When the equipment is traveling, the view in the direction of travel is obstructed.
</P>
<P>(3) Due to site specific safety concerns, either the operator or the person handling the load determines that it is necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of signals.</I> Signals to operators must be by hand, voice, audible, or new signals.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hand signals.</I> (1) When using hand signals, the Standard Method must be used (<I>see</I> appendix A of this subpart). <I>Exception:</I> Where use of the Standard Method for hand signals is infeasible, or where an operation or use of an attachment is not covered in the Standard Method, non-standard hand signals may be used in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-standard hand signals.</I> When using non-standard hand signals, the signal person, operator, and lift director (where there is one) must contact each other prior to the operation and agree on the non-standard hand signals that will be used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>New signals.</I> Signals other than hand, voice, or audible signals may be used where the employer demonstrates that:
</P>
<P>(1) The new signals provide at least equally effective communication as voice, audible, or Standard Method hand signals, or
</P>
<P>(2) The new signals comply with a national consensus standard that provides at least equally effective communication as voice, audible, or Standard Method hand signals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Suitability.</I> The signals used (hand, voice, audible, or new), and means of transmitting the signals to the operator (such as direct line of sight, video, radio, <I>etc.</I>), must be appropriate for the site conditions.
</P>
<P>(f) During operations requiring signals, the ability to transmit signals between the operator and signal person must be maintained. If that ability is interrupted at any time, the operator must safely stop operations requiring signals until it is reestablished and a proper signal is given and understood.
</P>
<P>(g) If the operator becomes aware of a safety problem and needs to communicate with the signal person, the operator must safely stop operations. Operations must not resume until the operator and signal person agree that the problem has been resolved.
</P>
<P>(h) Only one person may give signals to a crane/derrick at a time, except in circumstances covered by paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) Anyone who becomes aware of a safety problem must alert the operator or signal person by giving the stop or emergency stop signal. (<E T="04">Note:</E> § 1926.1417(y) requires the operator to obey a stop or emergency stop signal).
</P>
<P>(k) All directions given to the operator by the signal person must be given from the operator's direction perspective.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Communication with multiple cranes/derricks.</I> Where a signal person(s) is in communication with more than one crane/derrick, a system must be used for identifying the crane/derrick each signal is for, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) for each signal, prior to giving the function/direction, the signal person must identify the crane/derrick the signal is for, or
</P>
<P>(2) must use an equally effective method of identifying which crane/derrick the signal is for.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1420" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1420   Signals—radio, telephone or other electronic transmission of signals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The device(s) used to transmit signals must be tested on site before beginning operations to ensure that the signal transmission is effective, clear, and reliable.
</P>
<P>(b) Signal transmission must be through a dedicated channel, except:
</P>
<P>(1) Multiple cranes/derricks and one or more signal persons may share a dedicated channel for the purpose of coordinating operations.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a crane is being operated on or adjacent to railroad tracks, and the actions of the crane operator need to be coordinated with the movement of other equipment or trains on the same or adjacent tracks.
</P>
<P>(c) The operator's reception of signals must be by a hands-free system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1421" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1421   Signals—voice signals—additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to beginning operations, the operator, signal person and lift director (if there is one), must contact each other and agree on the voice signals that will be used. Once the voice signals are agreed upon, these workers need not meet again to discuss voice signals unless another worker is added or substituted, there is confusion about the voice signals, or a voice signal is to be changed.
</P>
<P>(b) Each voice signal must contain the following three elements, given in the following order: function (such as hoist, boom, <I>etc.</I>), direction; distance and/or speed; function, stop command.
</P>
<P>(c) The operator, signal person and lift director (if there is one), must be able to effectively communicate in the language used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1422" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1422   Signals—hand signal chart.</HEAD>
<P>Hand signal charts must be either posted on the equipment or conspicuously posted in the vicinity of the hoisting operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1423" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1423   Fall protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> (1) Paragraphs (b), (c)(3), (e) and (f) of this section apply to all equipment covered by this subpart except tower cranes.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (d), (g), (j) and (k) of this section apply to all equipment covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraphs (c)(4) and (h) of this section apply only to tower cranes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Boom walkways.</I> (1) Equipment manufactured after November 8, 2011 with lattice booms must be equipped with walkways on the boom(s) if the vertical profile of the boom (from cord centerline to cord centerline) is 6 or more feet.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Boom walkway criteria.</I> (i) The walkways must be at least 12 inches wide.
</P>
<P>(ii) Guardrails, railings and other permanent fall protection attachments along walkways are:
</P>
<P>(A) Not required.
</P>
<P>(B) Prohibited on booms supported by pendant ropes or bars if the guardrails/railings/attachments could be snagged by the ropes or bars.
</P>
<P>(C) Prohibited if of the removable type (designed to be installed and removed each time the boom is assembled/disassembled).
</P>
<P>(D) Where not prohibited, guardrails or railings may be of any height up to, but not more than, 45 inches.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Steps, handholds, ladders, grabrails, guardrails and railings.</I> (1) Section 1926.502(b) does not apply to equipment covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must maintain in good condition originally-equipped steps, handholds, ladders and guardrails/railings/grabrails.
</P>
<P>(3) Equipment manufactured after November 8, 2011 must be equipped so as to provide safe access and egress between the ground and the operator work station(s), including the forward and rear positions, by the provision of devices such as steps, handholds, ladders, and guardrails/railings/grabrails. These devices must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Steps, handholds, ladders and guardrails/railings/grabrails must meet the criteria of SAE J185 (May 2003) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) or ISO 11660-2:1994(E) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) except where infeasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Walking/stepping surfaces, except for crawler treads, must have slip-resistant features/properties (such as diamond plate metal, strategically placed grip tape, expanded metal, or slip-resistant paint).
</P>
<P>(4) Tower cranes manufactured after November 8, 2011 must be equipped so as to provide safe access and egress between the ground and the cab, machinery platforms, and tower (mast), by the provision of devices such as steps, handholds, ladders, and guardrails/railings/grabrails. These devices must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Steps, handholds, ladders, and guardrails/railings/grabrails must meet the criteria of ISO 11660-1:2008(E) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) and ISO 11660-3:2008(E) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) or SAE J185 (May 2003) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) except where infeasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) Walking/stepping surfaces must have slip-resistant features/properties (such as diamond plate metal, strategically placed grip tape, expanded metal, or slip-resistant paint).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Personal fall arrest and fall restraint systems.</I> Personal fall arrest system components must be used in personal fall arrest and fall restraint systems and must conform to the criteria in § 1926.502(d) except that § 1926.502(d)(15) does not apply to components used in personal fall arrest and fall restraint systems. Either body belts or body harnesses must be used in personal fall arrest and fall restraint systems.
</P>
<P>(e) For non-assembly/disassembly work, the employer must provide and ensure the use of fall protection equipment for employees who are on a walking/working surface with an unprotected side or edge more than 6 feet above a lower level as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) When moving point-to-point:
</P>
<P>(i) On non-lattice booms (whether horizontal or not horizontal).
</P>
<P>(ii) On lattice booms that are not horizontal.
</P>
<P>(iii) On horizontal lattice booms where the fall distance is 15 feet or more.
</P>
<P>(2) While at a work station on any part of the equipment (including the boom, of any type), except when the employee is at or near draw-works (when the equipment is running), in the cab, or on the deck.
</P>
<P>(f) For assembly/disassembly work, the employer must provide and ensure the use of fall protection equipment for employees who are on a walking/working surface with an unprotected side or edge more than 15 feet above a lower level, except when the employee is at or near draw-works (when the equipment is running), in the cab, or on the deck.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Anchorage criteria.</I> (1) Sections 1926.502(d)(15) and 1926.502(e)(2) apply to equipment covered by this subpart only to the extent delineated in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Anchorages for personal fall arrest and positioning device systems.</I> (i) Personal fall arrest systems must be anchored to any apparently substantial part of the equipment unless a competent person, from a visual inspection, without an engineering analysis, would conclude that the criteria in § 1926.502(d)(15) would not be met.
</P>
<P>(ii) Positioning device systems must be anchored to any apparently substantial part of the equipment unless a competent person, from a visual inspection, without an engineering analysis, would conclude that the criteria in § 1926.502(e)(2) would not be met.
</P>
<P>(iii) Attachable anchor devices (portable anchor devices that are attached to the equipment) must meet the anchorage criteria in § 1926.502(d)(15) for personal fall arrest systems and § 1926.502(e)(2) for positioning device systems.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Anchorages for fall restraint systems.</I> Fall restraint systems must be anchored to any part of the equipment that is capable of withstanding twice the maximum load that an employee may impose on it during reasonably anticipated conditions of use.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Tower cranes.</I> (1) For work other than erecting, climbing, and dismantling, the employer must provide and ensure the use of fall protection equipment for employees who are on a walking/working surface with an unprotected side or edge more than 6 feet above a lower level, except when the employee is at or near draw-works (when the equipment is running), in the cab, or on the deck.
</P>
<P>(2) For erecting, climbing, and dismantling work, the employer must provide and ensure the use of fall protection equipment for employees who are on a walking/working surface with an unprotected side or edge more than 15 feet above a lower level.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Anchoring to the load line.</I> A personal fall arrest system is permitted to be anchored to the crane/derrick's hook (or other part of the load line) where all of the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) A qualified person has determined that the set-up and rated capacity of the crane/derrick (including the hook, load line and rigging) meets or exceeds the requirements in § 1926.502(d)(15).
</P>
<P>(2) The equipment operator must be at the work site and informed that the equipment is being used for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(3) No load is suspended from the load line when the personal fall arrest system is anchored to the crane/derrick's hook (or other part of the load line).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Training.</I> The employer must train each employee who may be exposed to fall hazards while on, or hoisted by, equipment covered by this subpart on all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) the requirements in this subpart that address fall protection.
</P>
<P>(2) the applicable requirements in §§ 1926.500 and 1926.502.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1424" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1424   Work area control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Swing radius hazards.</I> (1) The requirements in paragraph (a)(2) of this section apply where there are accessible areas in which the equipment's rotating superstructure (whether permanently or temporarily mounted) poses a reasonably foreseeable risk of:
</P>
<P>(i) Striking and injuring an employee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Pinching/crushing an employee against another part of the equipment or another object.
</P>
<P>(2) To prevent employees from entering these hazard areas, the employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Train each employee assigned to work on or near the equipment (“authorized personnel”) in how to recognize struck-by and pinch/crush hazard areas posed by the rotating superstructure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Erect and maintain control lines, warning lines, railings or similar barriers to mark the boundaries of the hazard areas. <I>Exception:</I> When the employer can demonstrate that it is neither feasible to erect such barriers on the ground nor on the equipment, the hazard areas must be clearly marked by a combination of warning signs (such as “Danger—Swing/Crush Zone”) and high visibility markings on the equipment that identify the hazard areas. In addition, the employer must train each employee to understand what these markings signify.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Protecting employees in the hazard area.</I> (i) Before an employee goes to a location in the hazard area that is out of view of the operator, the employee (or someone instructed by the employee) must ensure that the operator is informed that he/she is going to that location.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the operator knows that an employee went to a location covered by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the operator must not rotate the superstructure until the operator is informed in accordance with a pre-arranged system of communication that the employee is in a safe position.
</P>
<P>(b) Where any part of a crane/derrick is within the working radius of another crane/derrick, the controlling entity must institute a system to coordinate operations. If there is no controlling entity, the employer (if there is only one employer operating the multiple pieces of equipment), or employers, must institute such a system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1425" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1425   Keeping clear of the load.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where available, hoisting routes that minimize the exposure of employees to hoisted loads must be used, to the extent consistent with public safety.
</P>
<P>(b) While the operator is not moving a suspended load, no employee must be within the fall zone, except for employees:
</P>
<P>(1) Engaged in hooking, unhooking or guiding a load;
</P>
<P>(2) Engaged in the initial attachment of the load to a component or structure; or
</P>
<P>(3) Operating a concrete hopper or concrete bucket.
</P>
<P>(c) When employees are engaged in hooking, unhooking, or guiding the load, or in the initial connection of a load to a component or structure and are within the fall zone, all of the following criteria must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The materials being hoisted must be rigged to prevent unintentional displacement.
</P>
<P>(2) Hooks with self-closing latches or their equivalent must be used. <I>Exception:</I> “J” hooks are permitted to be used for setting wooden trusses.
</P>
<P>(3) The materials must be rigged by a qualified rigger.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Receiving a load.</I> Only employees needed to receive a load are permitted to be within the fall zone when a load is being landed.
</P>
<P>(e) During a tilt-up or tilt-down operation:
</P>
<P>(1) No employee must be directly under the load.
</P>
<P>(2) Only employees essential to the operation are permitted in the fall zone (but not directly under the load). An employee is essential to the operation if the employee is conducting one of the following operations and the employer can demonstrate it is infeasible for the employee to perform that operation from outside the fall zone: (1) Physically guide the load; (2) closely monitor and give instructions regarding the load's movement; or (3) either detach it from or initially attach it to another component or structure (such as, but not limited to, making an initial connection or installing bracing).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Boom free fall is prohibited when an employee is in the fall zone of the boom or load, and load line free fall is prohibited when an employee is directly under the load; <I>see</I> § 1926.1426.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1426" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1426   Free fall and controlled load lowering.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Boom free fall prohibitions.</I> (1) The use of equipment in which the boom is designed to free fall (live boom) is prohibited in each of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) An employee is in the fall zone of the boom or load.
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee is being hoisted.
</P>
<P>(iii) The load or boom is directly over a power line, or over any part of the area extending the Table A of § 1926.1408 clearance distance to each side of the power line; or any part of the area extending the Table A clearance distance to each side of the power line is within the radius of vertical travel of the boom or the load.
</P>
<P>(iv) The load is over a shaft, except where there are no employees in the shaft.
</P>
<P>(v) The load is over a cofferdam, except where there are no employees in the fall zone of the boom or the load.
</P>
<P>(vi) Lifting operations are taking place in a refinery or tank farm.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of equipment in which the boom is designed to free fall (live boom) is permitted only where none of the circumstances listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are present and:
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment was manufactured prior to October 31, 1984; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment is a floating crane/derrick or a land crane/derrick on a vessel/flotation device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preventing boom free fall.</I> Where the use of equipment with a boom that is designed to free fall (live boom) is prohibited, the boom hoist must have a secondary mechanism or device designed to prevent the boom from falling in the event the primary system used to hold or regulate the boom hoist fails, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Friction drums must have:
</P>
<P>(i) A friction clutch and, in addition, a braking device, to allow for controlled boom lowering.
</P>
<P>(ii) A secondary braking or locking device, which is manually or automatically engaged, to back-up the primary brake while the boom is held (such as a secondary friction brake or a ratchet and pawl device).
</P>
<P>(2) Hydraulic drums must have an integrally mounted holding device or internal static brake to prevent boom hoist movement in the event of hydraulic failure.
</P>
<P>(3) Neither clutches nor hydraulic motors must be considered brake or locking devices for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) Hydraulic boom cylinders must have an integrally mounted holding device.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preventing uncontrolled retraction.</I> Hydraulic telescoping booms must have an integrally mounted holding device to prevent the boom from retracting in the event of hydraulic failure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Load line free fall.</I> In each of the following circumstances, controlled load lowering is required and free fall of the load line hoist is prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee is directly under the load.
</P>
<P>(2) An employee is being hoisted.
</P>
<P>(3) The load is directly over a power line, or over any part of the area extending the Table A of § 1926.1408 clearance distance to each side of the power line; or any part of the area extending the Table A of § 1926.1408 clearance distance to each side of the power line is within the radius of vertical travel of the load.
</P>
<P>(4) The load is over a shaft.
</P>
<P>(5) The load is over a cofferdam, except where there are no employees in the fall zone of the load.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1427" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1427   Operator training, certification, and evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for operators.</I> The employer must ensure that each operator is trained, certified/licensed, and evaluated in accordance with this section before operating any equipment covered under subpart CC, except for the equipment listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Operation during training.</I> An employee who has not been certified/licensed and evaluated to operate assigned equipment in accordance with this section may only operate the equipment as an operator-in-training under supervision in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Operators of derricks (see § 1926.1436), sideboom cranes (see § 1926.1440), or equipment with a maximum manufacturer-rated hoisting/lifting capacity of 2,000 pounds or less (see § 1926.1441) are not required to comply with § 1926.1427. Note: The training requirements in those other sections continue to apply (for the training requirement for operators of sideboom cranes, follow section 1926.1430(c)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualification by the U.S. military.</I> (i) For purposes of this section, an operator who is an employee of the U.S. military meets the requirements of this section if he/she has a current operator qualification issued by the U.S. military for operation of the equipment. An employee of the U.S. military is a Federal employee of the Department of Defense or Armed Forces and does not include employees of private contractors.
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualification under this paragraph is:
</P>
<P>(A) Not portable: Such a qualification meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section only where the operator is employed by (and operating the equipment for) the employer that issued the qualification.
</P>
<P>(B) Valid for the period of time stipulated by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operator training.</I> The employer must provide each operator-in-training with sufficient training, through a combination of formal and practical instruction, to ensure that the operator-in-training develops the skills, knowledge, and ability to recognize and avert risk necessary to operate the equipment safely for assigned work.
</P>
<P>(1) The employer must provide instruction on the knowledge and skills listed in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section to the operator-in-training.
</P>
<P>(2) The operator-in-training must be continuously monitored on site by a trainer while operating equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer may only assign tasks within the operator-in-training's ability. However, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section, the operator-in-training shall not operate the equipment in any of the following circumstances unless certified in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) If any part of the equipment, load line, or load (including rigging and lifting accessories), if operated up to the equipment's maximum working radius in the work zone (see § 1926.1408(a)(1)), could get within 20 feet of a power line that is up to 350 kV, or within 50 feet of a power line that is over 350 kV.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the equipment is used to hoist personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) In multiple-equipment lifts.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the equipment is used over a shaft, cofferdam, or in a tank farm.
</P>
<P>(v) In multiple-lift rigging operations, except where the operator's trainer determines that the operator-in-training's skills are sufficient for this high-skill work.
</P>
<P>(4) The employer must ensure that an operator-in-training is monitored as follows when operating equipment covered by this subpart:
</P>
<P>(i) While operating the equipment, the operator-in-training must be continuously monitored by an individual (“operator's trainer”) who meets all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The operator's trainer is an employee or agent of the operator-in-training's employer.
</P>
<P>(B) The operator's trainer has the knowledge, training, and experience necessary to direct the operator-in-training on the equipment in use.
</P>
<P>(ii) While monitoring the operator-in-training, the operator's trainer performs no tasks that detract from the trainer's ability to monitor the operator-in-training.
</P>
<P>(iii) For equipment other than tower cranes: The operator's trainer and the operator-in-training must be in direct line of sight of each other. In addition, they must communicate verbally or by hand signals. For tower cranes: The operator's trainer and the operator-in-training must be in direct communication with each other.
</P>
<P>(iv) The operator-in-training must be monitored by the operator's trainer at all times, except for short breaks where all of the following are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The break lasts no longer than 15 minutes and there is no more than one break per hour.
</P>
<P>(B) Immediately prior to the break the operator's trainer informs the operator-in-training of the specific tasks that the operator-in-training is to perform and limitations to which he/she must adhere during the operator trainer's break.
</P>
<P>(C) The specific tasks that the operator-in-training will perform during the operator trainer's break are within the operator-in-training's abilities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Retraining.</I> The employer must provide retraining in relevant topics for each operator when, based on the performance of the operator or an evaluation of the operator's knowledge, there is an indication that retraining is necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operator certification and licensing.</I> The employer must ensure that each operator is certified or licensed to operate the equipment as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Licensing.</I> When a state or local government issues operator licenses for equipment covered under subpart CC, the equipment operator must be licensed by that government entity for operation of equipment within that entity's jurisdiction if that government licensing program meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirements for obtaining the license include an assessment, by written and practical tests, of the operator applicant regarding, at a minimum, the knowledge and skills listed in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The testing meets industry-recognized criteria for written testing materials, practical examinations, test administration, grading, facilities/equipment, and personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) The government authority that oversees the licensing department/office has determined that the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(iv) The licensing department/office has testing procedures for re-licensing designed to ensure that the operator continues to meet the technical knowledge and skills requirements in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) For the purposes of compliance with this section, a license is valid for the period of time stipulated by the licensing department/office, but no longer than 5 years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certification.</I> When an operator is not required to be licensed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the operator must be certified in accordance with paragraph (d) or (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No cost to employees.</I> Whenever operator certification/licensure is required under this section, the employer must provide the certification/licensure at no cost to employees.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision of testing and training.</I> A testing entity is permitted to provide training as well as testing services as long as the criteria of the applicable governmental or accrediting agency (in the option selected) for an organization providing both services are met.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification by an accredited crane operator testing organization.</I> (1) For a certification to satisfy the requirements of this section, the crane operator testing organization providing the certification must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency based on that agency's determination that industry-recognized criteria for written testing materials, practical examinations, test administration, grading, facilities/equipment, and personnel have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) Administer written and practical tests that:
</P>
<P>(A) Assess the operator applicant regarding, at a minimum, the knowledge and skills listed in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Provide certification based on equipment type, or type and capacity.
</P>
<P>(iii) Have procedures for operators to re-apply and be re-tested in the event an operator applicant fails a test or is decertified.
</P>
<P>(iv) Have testing procedures for re-certification designed to ensure that the operator continues to meet the technical knowledge and skills requirements in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Have its accreditation reviewed by the nationally recognized accrediting agency at least every 3 years.
</P>
<P>(2) If no accredited testing agency offers certification examinations for a particular type of equipment, an operator will be deemed to have complied with the certification requirements of this section for that equipment if the operator has been certified for the type that is most similar to that equipment and for which a certification examination is available. The operator's certificate must state the type of equipment for which the operator is certified.
</P>
<P>(3) A certification issued under this option is portable among employers who are required to have operators certified under this option.
</P>
<P>(4) A certification issued under this paragraph is valid for 5 years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Audited employer program.</I> The employer's certification of its employee must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Testing.</I> The written and practical tests must be either:
</P>
<P>(i) Developed by an accredited crane operator testing organization (see paragraph (d) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Approved by an auditor in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The auditor is certified to evaluate such tests by an accredited crane operator testing organization (see paragraph (d) of this section).
</P>
<P>(B) The auditor is not an employee of the employer.
</P>
<P>(C) The approval must be based on the auditor's determination that the written and practical tests meet nationally recognized test development criteria and are valid and reliable in assessing the operator applicants regarding, at a minimum, the knowledge and skills listed in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) The audit must be conducted in accordance with nationally recognized auditing standards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Administration of tests.</I> (i) The written and practical tests must be administered under circumstances approved by the auditor as meeting nationally recognized test administration standards.
</P>
<P>(ii) The auditor must be certified to evaluate the administration of the written and practical tests by an accredited crane operator testing organization (see paragraph (d) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iii) The auditor must not be an employee of the employer.
</P>
<P>(iv) The audit must be conducted in accordance with nationally recognized auditing standards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing of audit.</I> The employer program must be audited within 3 months of the beginning of the program and at least every 3 years thereafter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requalification.</I> The employer program must have testing procedures for re-qualification designed to ensure that the operator continues to meet the technical knowledge and skills requirements in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section. The re-qualification procedures must be audited in accordance with paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Deficiencies.</I> If the auditor determines that there is a significant deficiency (“deficiency”) in the program, the employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) No operator is qualified until the auditor confirms that the deficiency has been corrected.
</P>
<P>(ii) The program is audited again within 180 days of the confirmation that the deficiency was corrected.
</P>
<P>(iii) The auditor files a documented report of the deficiency to the appropriate Regional Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration within 15 days of the auditor's determination that there is a deficiency.
</P>
<P>(iv) Records of the audits of the employer's program are maintained by the auditor for 3 years and are made available by the auditor to the Secretary of Labor or the Secretary's designated representative upon request.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Audited-program certificates.</I> A certification under this paragraph is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not portable: Such a certification meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section only where the operator is employed by (and operating the equipment for) the employer that issued the certification.
</P>
<P>(ii) Valid for 5 years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Evaluation.</I> (1) Through an evaluation, the employer must ensure that each operator is qualified by a demonstration of:
</P>
<P>(i) The skills and knowledge, as well as the ability to recognize and avert risk, necessary to operate the equipment safely, including those specific to the safety devices, operational aids, software, and the size and configuration of the equipment. Size and configuration includes, but is not limited to, lifting capacity, boom length, attachments, luffing jib, and counterweight set-up.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ability to perform the hoisting activities required for assigned work, including, if applicable, blind lifts, personnel hoisting, and multi-crane lifts.
</P>
<P>(2) For operators employed prior to December 10, 2018, the employer may rely on its previous assessments of the operator in lieu of conducting a new evaluation of that operator's existing knowledge and skills.
</P>
<P>(3) The definition of “qualified” in § 1926.32 does not apply to paragraph (f)(1) of this section: Possession of a certificate or degree cannot, by itself, cause a person to be qualified for purposes of paragraph (f)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) The evaluation required under paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be conducted by an individual who has the knowledge, training, and experience necessary to assess equipment operators.
</P>
<P>(5) The evaluator must be an employee or agent of the employer. Employers that assign evaluations to an agent retain the duty to ensure that the requirements in paragraph (f) are satisfied. Once the evaluation is completed successfully, the employer may allow the operator to operate other equipment that the employer can demonstrate does not require substantially different skills, knowledge, or ability to recognize and avert risk to operate.
</P>
<P>(6) The employer must document the completion of the evaluation. This document must provide: The operator's name; the evaluator's name and signature; the date; and the make, model, and configuration of equipment used in the evaluation. The employer must make the document available at the worksite while the operator is employed by the employer. For operators assessed per paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the documentation must reflect the date of the employer's determination of the operator's abilities and the make, model and configuration of equipment on which the operator has previously demonstrated competency.
</P>
<P>(7) When an employer is required to provide an operator with retraining under paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the employer must re-evaluate the operator with respect to the subject of the retraining.
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Language and literacy requirements.</I> (1) Tests under this section may be administered verbally, with answers given verbally, where the operator candidate:
</P>
<P>(i) Passes a written demonstration of literacy relevant to the work.
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrates the ability to use the type of written manufacturer procedures applicable to the class/type of equipment for which the candidate is seeking certification.
</P>
<P>(2) Tests under this section may be administered in any language the operator candidate understands, and the operator's certification documentation must note the language in which the test was given. The operator is only permitted to operate equipment that is furnished with materials required by this subpart, such as operations manuals and load charts, that are written in the language of the certification.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Certification criteria.</I> Certifications must be based on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A determination through a written test that:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual knows the information necessary for safe operation of the specific type of equipment the individual will operate, including all of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The controls and operational/performance characteristics.
</P>
<P>(B) Use of, and the ability to calculate (manually or with a calculator), load/capacity information on a variety of configurations of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) Procedures for preventing and responding to power line contact.
</P>
<P>(D) Technical knowledge of the subject matter criteria listed in appendix C of this subpart applicable to the specific type of equipment the individual will operate. Use of the appendix C criteria meets the requirements of this provision.
</P>
<P>(E) Technical knowledge applicable to the suitability of the supporting ground and surface to handle expected loads, site hazards, and site access.
</P>
<P>(F) This subpart, including applicable incorporated materials.
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual is able to read and locate relevant information in the equipment manual and other materials containing information referred to in paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A determination through a practical test that the individual has the skills necessary for safe operation of the equipment, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Ability to recognize, from visual and auditory observation, the items listed in § 1926.1412(d) (shift inspection).
</P>
<P>(ii) Operational and maneuvering skills.
</P>
<P>(iii) Application of load chart information.
</P>
<P>(iv) Application of safe shut-down and securing procedures.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Effective dates.</I> (1) Apart from the evaluation and documentation requirements in paragraphs (a) and (f), this section is effective on December 10, 2018.
</P>
<P>(2) The evaluation and documentation requirements in paragraphs (a) and (f) are effective on February 7, 2019.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 56244, Nov. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1428" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1428   Signal person qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer of the signal person must ensure that each signal person meets the Qualification Requirements (paragraph (c) of this section) prior to giving any signals. This requirement must be met by using either Option (1) or Option (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Option (1)—Third party qualified evaluator.</I> The signal person has documentation from a third party qualified evaluator (<I>see</I> Qualified Evaluator (third party), § 1926.1401 for definition) showing that the signal person meets the Qualification Requirements (<I>see</I> paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Option (2)—Employer's qualified evaluator.</I> The employer's qualified (<I>see</I> Qualified Evaluator (not a third party), § 1926.1401 for definition) evaluator assesses the individual and determines that the individual meets the Qualification Requirements (<I>see</I> paragraph (c) of this section) and provides documentation of that determination. An assessment by an employer's qualified evaluator under this option is not portable—other employers are not permitted to use it to meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must make the documentation for whichever option is used available at the site while the signal person is employed by the employer. The documentation must specify each type of signaling (<I>e.g.</I> hand signals, radio signals, <I>etc.</I>) for which the signal person meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) If subsequent actions by the signal person indicate that the individual does not meet the Qualification Requirements (<I>see</I> paragraph (c) of this section), the employer must not allow the individual to continue working as a signal person until re-training is provided and a re-assessment is made in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section that confirms that the individual meets the Qualification Requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualification Requirements.</I> Each signal person must:
</P>
<P>(1) Know and understand the type of signals used. If hand signals are used, the signal person must know and understand the Standard Method for hand signals.
</P>
<P>(2) Be competent in the application of the type of signals used.
</P>
<P>(3) Have a basic understanding of equipment operation and limitations, including the crane dynamics involved in swinging and stopping loads and boom deflection from hoisting loads.
</P>
<P>(4) Know and understand the relevant requirements of §§ 1926.1419 through 1926.1422 and 1926.1428.
</P>
<P>(5) Demonstrate that he/she meets the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section through an oral or written test, and through a practical test.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1429" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1429   Qualifications of maintenance &amp; repair employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Maintenance, inspection and repair personnel are permitted to operate the equipment only where all of the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The operation is limited to those functions necessary to perform maintenance, inspect the equipment, or verify its performance.
</P>
<P>(2) The personnel either:
</P>
<P>(i) Operate the equipment under the direct supervision of an operator who meets the requirements of § 1926.1427 (Operator qualification and certification); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are familiar with the operation, limitations, characteristics and hazards associated with the type of equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) Maintenance and repair personnel must meet the definition of a qualified person with respect to the equipment and maintenance/repair tasks performed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1430" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1430   Training.</HEAD>
<P>The employer must provide training as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Overhead powerlines.</I> The employer must train each employee specified in § 1926.1408(g) and § 1926.1410(m) in the topics listed in § 1926.1408(g).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signal persons.</I> The employer must train each employee who will be assigned to work as a signal persons who does not meet the requirements of § 1926.1428(c) in the areas addressed in that paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operators.</I> (1) The employer must train each operator in accordance with § 1926.1427(a) and (b), on the safe operation of the equipment the operator will be using.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must train each operator covered under the exception of § 1926.1427(a)(2) on the safe operation of the equipment the operator will be using.
</P>
<P>(3) The employer must train each operator of the equipment covered by this subpart in the following practices:
</P>
<P>(i) On friction equipment, whenever moving a boom off a support, first raise the boom a short distance (sufficient to take the load of the boom) to determine if the boom hoist brake needs to be adjusted. On other types of equipment with a boom, the same practice is applicable, except that typically there is no means of adjusting the brake; if the brake does not hold, a repair is necessary. <I>See</I> § 1926.1417(f) and (j) for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where available, the manufacturer's emergency procedures for halting unintended equipment movement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Competent persons and qualified persons.</I> The employer must train each competent person and each qualified person regarding the requirements of this subpart applicable to their respective roles.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Crush/pinch points.</I> The employer must train each employee who works with the equipment to keep clear of holes, and crush/pinch points and the hazards addressed in § 1926.1424 (Work area control).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Tag-out.</I> The employer must train each operator and each additional employee authorized to start/energize equipment or operate equipment controls (such as maintenance and repair employees), in the tag-out and start-up procedures in §§ 1926.1417(f) and (g).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Training administration.</I> (1) The employer must evaluate each employee required to be trained under this subpart to confirm that the employee understands the information provided in the training.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must provide refresher training in relevant topics for each employee when, based on the conduct of the employee or an evaluation of the employee's knowledge, there is an indication that retraining is necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever training is required under subpart CC, the employer must provide the training at no cost to the employee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010, as amended at 83 FR 56247, Nov. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1431" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1431   Hoisting personnel.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this section are supplemental to the other requirements in this subpart and apply when one or more employees are hoisted.
</P>
<P>(a) The use of equipment to hoist employees is prohibited except where the employer demonstrates that the erection, use, and dismantling of conventional means of reaching the work area, such as a personnel hoist, ladder, stairway, aerial lift, elevating work platform, or scaffold, would be more hazardous, or is not possible because of the project's structural design or worksite conditions. This paragraph does not apply to work covered by subpart R (Steel Erection) of this part and also does not apply to routine personnel access to an underground worksite via shaft as covered by § 1926.800 (Underground Construction) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of personnel platform.</I> (1) When using equipment to hoist employees, the employees must be in a personnel platform that meets the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions:</I> A personnel platform is not required for hoisting employees:
</P>
<P>(i) Into and out of drill shafts that are up to and including 8 feet in diameter (<I>see</I> paragraph (o) of this section for requirements for hoisting these employees).
</P>
<P>(ii) In pile driving operations (<I>see</I> paragraph (p) of this section for requirements for hoisting these employees).
</P>
<P>(iii) Solely for transfer to or from a marine worksite in a marine-hoisted personnel transfer device (<I>see</I> paragraph (r) of this section for requirements for hoisting these employees).
</P>
<P>(iv) In storage-tank (steel or concrete), shaft and chimney operations (<I>see</I> paragraph (s) of this section for requirements for hoisting these employees).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment set-up.</I> (1) The equipment must be uniformly level, within one percent of level grade, and located on footing that a qualified person has determined to be sufficiently firm and stable.
</P>
<P>(2) Equipment with outriggers or stabilizers must have them all extended and locked. The amount of extension must be the same for all outriggers and stabilizers and in accordance with manufacturer procedures and load charts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Equipment criteria</I>—(1) <I>Capacity: Use of suspended personnel platforms.</I> The total load (with the platform loaded, including the hook, load line and rigging) must not exceed 50 percent of the rated capacity for the radius and configuration of the equipment, except during proof testing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capacity: Use of boom-attached personnel platforms.</I> The total weight of the loaded personnel platform must not exceed 50 percent of the rated capacity for the radius and configuration of the equipment (except during proof testing).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capacity: Hoisting personnel without a personnel platform.</I> When hoisting personnel without a personnel platform pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the total load (including the hook, load line, rigging and any other equipment that imposes a load) must not exceed 50 percent of the rated capacity for the radius and configuration of the equipment, except during proof testing.
</P>
<P>(4) When the occupied personnel platform is in a stationary working position, the load and boom hoist brakes, swing brakes, and operator actuated secondary braking and locking features (such as pawls or dogs) or automatic secondary brakes must be engaged.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Devices.</I> (i) Equipment (except for derricks and articulating cranes) with a variable angle boom must be equipped with all of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A boom angle indicator, readily visible to the operator, and
</P>
<P>(B) A boom hoist limiting device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Articulating cranes must be equipped with a properly functioning automatic overload protection device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment with a luffing jib must be equipped with:
</P>
<P>(A) A jib angle indicator, readily visible to the operator, and.
</P>
<P>(B) A jib hoist limiting device.
</P>
<P>(iv) Equipment with telescoping booms must be equipped with a device to indicate the boom's extended length clearly to the operator, or must have measuring marks on the boom.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Anti two-block.</I> A device which automatically prevents damage and load failure from contact between the load block, overhaul ball, or similar component, and the boom tip (or fixed upper block or similar component) must be used. The device(s) must prevent such damage/failure at all points where two-blocking could occur. <I>Exception:</I> This device is not required when hoisting personnel in pile driving operations. Instead, paragraph (p)(2) of this section specifies how to prevent two-blocking during such operations.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Controlled load lowering.</I> The load line hoist drum must have a system, other than the load line hoist brake, which regulates the lowering rate of speed of the hoist mechanism. This system or device must be used when hoisting personnel.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Free fall of the load line hoist is prohibited (<I>see</I> § 1926.1426(d); the use of equipment in which the boom hoist mechanism can free fall is also prohibited (<I>see</I> § 1926.1426(a)(1).</P></NOTE>
<P>(vii) <I>Proper operation required.</I> Personnel hoisting operations must not begin unless the devices listed in this section are in proper working order. If a device stops working properly during such operations, the operator must safely stop operations. Personnel hoisting operations must not resume until the device is again working properly. Alternative measures are not permitted. (<I>See</I> § 1926.1417 for tag-out and related requirements.)
</P>
<P>(6) Direct attachment of a personnel platform to a luffing jib is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Personnel platform criteria.</I> (1) A qualified person familiar with structural design must design the personnel platform and attachment/suspension system used for hoisting personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) The system used to connect the personnel platform to the equipment must allow the platform to remain within 10 degrees of level, regardless of boom angle.
</P>
<P>(3) The suspension system must be designed to minimize tipping of the platform due to movement of employees occupying the platform.
</P>
<P>(4) The personnel platform itself (excluding the guardrail system and personal fall arrest system anchorages), must be capable of supporting, without failure, its own weight and at least five times the maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(5) All welding of the personnel platform and its components must be performed by a certified welder familiar with the weld grades, types and material specified in the platform design.
</P>
<P>(6) The personnel platform must be equipped with a guardrail system which meets the requirements of subpart M of this part, and must be enclosed at least from the toeboard to mid-rail with either solid construction material or expanded metal having openings no greater than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch (1.27 cm). Points to which personal fall arrest systems are attached must meet the anchorage requirements in subpart M of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) A grab rail must be installed inside the entire perimeter of the personnel platform except for access gates/doors.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Access gates/doors.</I> If installed, access gates/doors of all types (including swinging, sliding, folding, or other types) must:
</P>
<P>(i) Not swing outward. If due to the size of the personnel platform, such as a 1-person platform, it is infeasible for the door to swing inward and allow safe entry for the platform occupant, then the access gate/door may swing outward.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be equipped with a device that prevents accidental opening.
</P>
<P>(9) Headroom must be sufficient to allow employees to stand upright in the platform.
</P>
<P>(10) In addition to the use of hard hats, employees must be protected by overhead protection on the personnel platform when employees are exposed to falling objects. The platform overhead protection must not obscure the view of the operator or platform occupants (such as wire mesh that has up to 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch openings), unless full protection is necessary.
</P>
<P>(11) All edges exposed to employee contact must be smooth enough to prevent injury.
</P>
<P>(12) The weight of the platform and its rated capacity must be conspicuously posted on the platform with a plate or other permanent marking.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Personnel platform loading.</I> (1) The personnel platform must not be loaded in excess of its rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use.</I> (i) Personnel platforms must be used only for employees, their tools, and the materials necessary to do their work. Platforms must not be used to hoist materials or tools when not hoisting personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception:</I> Materials and tools to be used during the lift, if secured and distributed in accordance with paragraph (f)(3) of this section may be in the platform for trial lifts.
</P>
<P>(3) Materials and tools must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Secured to prevent displacement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Evenly distributed within the confines of the platform while it is suspended.
</P>
<P>(4) The number of employees occupying the personnel platform must not exceed the maximum number the platform was designed to hold or the number required to perform the work, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Attachment and rigging</I>—(1) <I>Hooks and other detachable devices.</I> (i) Hooks used in the connection between the hoist line and the personnel platform (including hooks on overhaul ball assemblies, lower load blocks, bridle legs, or other attachment assemblies or components) must be:
</P>
<P>(A) Of a type that can be closed and locked, eliminating the throat opening.
</P>
<P>(B) Closed and locked when attached.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shackles used in place of hooks must be of the alloy anchor type, with either:
</P>
<P>(A) A bolt, nut and retaining pin, in place; or
</P>
<P>(B) Of the screw type, with the screw pin secured from accidental removal.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where other detachable devices are used, they must be of the type that can be closed and locked to the same extent as the devices addressed in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. Such devices must be closed and locked when attached.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rope bridle.</I> When a rope bridle is used to suspend the personnel platform, each bridle leg must be connected to a master link or shackle (<I>see</I> paragraph (g)(1) of this section) in a manner that ensures that the load is evenly divided among the bridle legs.
</P>
<P>(3) Rigging hardware (including wire rope, shackles, rings, master links, and other rigging hardware) and hooks must be capable of supporting, without failure, at least five times the maximum intended load applied or transmitted to that component. Where rotation resistant rope is used, the slings must be capable of supporting without failure at least ten times the maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(4) Eyes in wire rope slings must be fabricated with thimbles.
</P>
<P>(5) Bridles and associated rigging for suspending the personnel platform must be used only for the platform and the necessary employees, their tools and materials necessary to do their work. The bridles and associated rigging must not have been used for any purpose other than hoisting personnel.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Trial lift and inspection.</I> (1) A trial lift with the unoccupied personnel platform loaded at least to the anticipated liftweight must be made from ground level, or any other location where employees will enter the platform, to each location at which the platform is to be hoisted and positioned. Where there is more than one location to be reached from a single set-up position, either individual trial lifts for each location, or a single trial lift, in which the platform is moved sequentially to each location, must be performed; the method selected must be the same as the method that will be used to hoist the personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) The trial lift must be performed immediately prior to each shift in which personnel will be hoisted. In addition, the trial lift must be repeated prior to hoisting employees in each of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment is moved and set up in a new location or returned to a previously used location.
</P>
<P>(ii) The lift route is changed, unless the competent person determines that the new route presents no new factors affecting safety.
</P>
<P>(3) The competent person must determine that:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety devices and operational aids required by this section are activated and functioning properly. Other safety devices and operational aids must meet the requirements of §§ 1926.1415 and 1926.1416.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nothing interferes with the equipment or the personnel platform in the course of the trial lift.
</P>
<P>(iii) The lift will not exceed 50 percent of the equipment's rated capacity at any time during the lift.
</P>
<P>(iv) The load radius to be used during the lift has been accurately determined.
</P>
<P>(4) Immediately after the trial lift, the competent person must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct a visual inspection of the equipment, base support or ground, and personnel platform, to determine whether the trial lift has exposed any defect or problem or produced any adverse effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) Confirm that, upon the completion of the trial lift process, the test weight has been removed.
</P>
<P>(5) Immediately prior to each lift:
</P>
<P>(i) The platform must be hoisted a few inches with the personnel and materials/tools on board and inspected by a competent person to ensure that it is secure and properly balanced.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following conditions must be determined by a competent person to exist before the lift of personnel proceeds:
</P>
<P>(A) Hoist ropes must be free of deficiencies in accordance with § 1926.1413(a).
</P>
<P>(B) Multiple part lines must not be twisted around each other.
</P>
<P>(C) The primary attachment must be centered over the platform.
</P>
<P>(D) If the load rope is slack, the hoisting system must be inspected to ensure that all ropes are properly seated on drums and in sheaves.
</P>
<P>(6) Any condition found during the trial lift and subsequent inspection(s) that fails to meet a requirement of this standard or otherwise creates a safety hazard must be corrected before hoisting personnel. (<I>See</I> § 1926.1417 for tag-out and related requirements.)
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Proof testing.</I> (1) At each jobsite, prior to hoisting employees on the personnel platform, and after any repair or modification, the platform and rigging must be proof tested to 125 percent of the platform's rated capacity. The proof test may be done concurrently with the trial lift.
</P>
<P>(2) The platform must be lowered by controlled load lowering, braked, and held in a suspended position for a minimum of five minutes with the test load evenly distributed on the platform.
</P>
<P>(3) After proof testing, a competent person must inspect the platform and rigging to determine if the test has been passed. If any deficiencies are found that pose a safety hazard, the platform and rigging must not be used to hoist personnel unless the deficiencies are corrected, the test is repeated, and a competent person determines that the test has been passed. (<I>See</I> § 1926.1417 for tag-out and related requirements.)
</P>
<P>(4) Personnel hoisting must not be conducted until the competent person determines that the platform and rigging have successfully passed the proof test.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Work practices.</I> (1) Hoisting of the personnel platform must be performed in a slow, controlled, cautious manner, with no sudden movements of the equipment or the platform.
</P>
<P>(2) Platform occupants must:
</P>
<P>(i) Keep all parts of the body inside the platform during raising, lowering, and horizontal movement. This provision does not apply to an occupant of the platform when necessary to position the platform or while performing the duties of a signal person.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not stand, sit on, or work from the top or intermediate rail or toeboard, or use any other means/device to raise their working height.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not pull the platform out of plumb in relation to the hoisting equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Before employees exit or enter a hoisted personnel platform that is not landed, the platform must be secured to the structure where the work is to be performed, unless the employer can demonstrate that securing to the structure would create a greater hazard.
</P>
<P>(4) If the platform is tied to the structure, the operator must not move the platform until the operator receives confirmation that it is freely suspended.
</P>
<P>(5) Tag lines must be used when necessary to control the platform.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Platforms without controls.</I> Where the platform is not equipped with controls, the equipment operator must remain at the equipment controls, on site, and in view of the equipment, at all times while the platform is occupied.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Platforms with controls.</I> Where the platform is equipped with controls, all of the following must be met at all times while the platform is occupied:
</P>
<P>(i) The occupant using the controls in the platform must be a qualified person with respect to their use, including the safe limitations of the equipment and hazards associated with its operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment operator must be at a set of equipment controls that include boom and swing functions of the equipment, and must be on site and in view of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The platform operating manual must be in the platform or on the equipment.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Environmental conditions</I>—(i) <I>Wind.</I> When wind speed (sustained or gusts) exceeds 20 mph at the personnel platform, a qualified person must determine if, in light of the wind conditions, it is not safe to lift personnel. If it is not, the lifting operation must not begin (or, if already in progress, must be terminated).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other weather and environmental conditions.</I> A qualified person must determine if, in light of indications of dangerous weather conditions, or other impending or existing danger, it is not safe to lift personnel. If it is not, the lifting operation must not begin (or, if already in progress, must be terminated).
</P>
<P>(9) Employees being hoisted must remain in direct communication with the signal person (where used), or the operator.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Fall protection.</I> (i) Except over water, employees occupying the personnel platform must be provided and use a personal fall arrest system. The system must be attached to a structural member within the personnel platform. When working over or near water, the requirements of § 1926.106 apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) The fall arrest system, including the attachment point (anchorage) used to comply with paragraph (i) of this section, must meet the requirements in § 1926.502.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Other load lines.</I> (i) No lifts must be made on any other of the equipment's load lines while personnel are being hoisted, except in pile driving operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Factory-produced boom-mounted personnel platforms that incorporate a winch as original equipment.</I> Loads are permitted to be hoisted by such a winch while employees occupy the personnel platform only where the load on the winch line does not exceed 500 pounds and does not exceed the rated capacity of the winch and platform.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Traveling—equipment other than derricks.</I> (i) Hoisting of employees while the equipment is traveling is prohibited, except for:
</P>
<P>(A) Equipment that travels on fixed rails; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the employer demonstrates that there is no less hazardous way to perform the work.
</P>
<P>(C) This exception does not apply to rubber-tired equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where employees are hoisted while the equipment is traveling, all of the following criteria must be met:
</P>
<P>(A) Equipment travel must be restricted to a fixed track or runway.
</P>
<P>(B) Where a runway is used, it must be a firm, level surface designed, prepared and designated as a path of travel for the weight and configuration of the equipment being used to lift and travel with the personnel platform. An existing surface may be used as long as it meets these criteria.
</P>
<P>(C) Equipment travel must be limited to boom length.
</P>
<P>(D) The boom must be parallel to the direction of travel, except where it is safer to do otherwise.
</P>
<P>(E) A complete trial run must be performed to test the route of travel before employees are allowed to occupy the platform. This trial run can be performed at the same time as the trial lift required by paragraph (h) of this section which tests the lift route.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Traveling—derricks.</I> Derricks are prohibited from traveling while personnel are hoisted.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Pre-lift meeting.</I> A pre-lift meeting must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Held to review the applicable requirements of this section and the procedures that will be followed.
</P>
<P>(2) Attended by the equipment operator, signal person (if used for the lift), employees to be hoisted, and the person responsible for the task to be performed.
</P>
<P>(3) Held prior to the trial lift at each new work location, and must be repeated for any employees newly assigned to the operation.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Hoisting personnel near power lines.</I> Hoisting personnel within 20 feet of a power line that is up to 350 kV, and hoisting personnel within 50 feet of a power line that is over 350 kV, is prohibited, except for work covered by subpart V of this part (Power Transmission and Distribution).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Hoisting personnel in drill shafts.</I> When hoisting employees into and out of drill shafts that are up to and including 8 feet in diameter, all of the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee must be in either a personnel platform or on a boatswain's chair.
</P>
<P>(2) If using a personnel platform, paragraphs (a) through (n) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) If using a boatswain's chair:
</P>
<P>(i) The following paragraphs of this section apply: (a), (c), (d)(1), (d)(3), (d)(4), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (f)(1), (f)(2)(i), (f)(3)(i), (g), (h), (k)(1), (k)(6), (k)(8), (k)(9), (k)(11)(i), (m), (n). Where the terms “personnel platform” or “platform” are used in these paragraphs, substitute them with “boatswain's chair.”
</P>
<P>(ii) A signal person must be stationed at the shaft opening.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee must be hoisted in a slow, controlled descent and ascent.
</P>
<P>(iv) The employee must use personal fall protection equipment, including a full body harness, attached independent of the crane/derrick.
</P>
<P>(v) The fall protection equipment must meet the applicable requirements in § 1926.502.
</P>
<P>(vi) The boatswain's chair itself (excluding the personal fall arrest system anchorages), must be capable of supporting, without failure, its own weight and at least five times the maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(vii) No more than one person must be hoisted at a time.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Hoisting personnel for pile driving operations.</I> When hoisting an employee in pile driving operations, the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee must be in a personnel platform or boatswain's chair.
</P>
<P>(2) For lattice boom cranes: Clearly mark the cable (so that it can easily be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist to prevent two-blocking, or use a spotter who is in direct communication with the operator to inform the operator when this point is reached. For telescopic boom cranes: Clearly mark the cable (so that it can be easily seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist to prevent two-blocking, and use a spotter who is in direct communication with the operator to inform the operator when this point is reached.
</P>
<P>(3) If using a personnel platform, paragraphs (b) through (n) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(4) If using a boatswain's chair:
</P>
<P>(i) The following paragraphs of this section apply: (a), (c), (d)(1), (d)(3), (d)(4), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (f)(1), (f)(2)(i), (f)(3)(i), (g), (h), (j), (k)(1), (k)(6), (k)(8), (k)(9), (k)(11)(i), (m), and (n). Where the terms “personnel platform” or “platform” are used in these paragraphs, substitute them with “boatswains chair.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee must be hoisted in a slow, controlled descent and ascent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee must use personal fall protection equipment, including a full body harness, independently attached to the lower load block or overhaul ball.
</P>
<P>(iv) The fall protection equipment must meet the applicable requirements in § 1926.502.
</P>
<P>(v) The boatswain's chair itself (excluding the personal fall arrest system anchorages), must be capable of supporting, without failure, its own weight and at least five times the maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(vi) No more than one person must be hoisted at a time.
</P>
<P>(q) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Hoisting personnel for marine transfer.</I> When hoisting employees solely for transfer to or from a marine worksite, the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee must be in either a personnel platform or a marine-hoisted personnel transfer device.
</P>
<P>(2) If using a personnel platform, paragraphs (a) through (n) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) If using a marine-hoisted personnel transfer device:
</P>
<P>(i) The following paragraphs of this section apply: (a), (c)(2), (d)(1), (d)(3), (d)(4), (e)(1) through (5), (e)(12), (f)(1), (g), (h), (j), (k)(1), (k)(8), (k)(9), (k)(10)(ii), (k)(11)(i), (k)(12), (m), and (n). Where the terms “personnel platform” or “platform” are used in these paragraphs, substitute them with “marine-hoisted personnel transfer device.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The transfer device must be used only for transferring workers.
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of workers occupying the transfer device must not exceed the maximum number it was designed to hold.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each employee must wear a U.S. Coast Guard personal flotation device approved for industrial use.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Hoisting personnel for storage-tank (steel or concrete), shaft and chimney operations.</I> When hoisting an employee in storage tank (steel or concrete), shaft and chimney operations, the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee must be in a personnel platform except when the employer can demonstrate that use of a personnel platform is infeasible; in such a case, a boatswain's chair must be used.
</P>
<P>(2) If using a personnel platform, paragraphs (a) through (n) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) If using a boatswain's chair:
</P>
<P>(i) The following paragraphs of this section apply: (a), (c), (d)(1), (d)(3), (d)(4), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (f)(1), (f)(2)(i), (f)(3)(i), (g), (h), (k)(1), (k)(6), (k)(8), (k)(9), (k)(11)(i), (m), (n). Where the terms “personnel platform” or “platform” are used in these paragraphs, substitute them with “boatswains chair.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee must be hoisted in a slow, controlled descent and ascent.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee must use personal fall protection equipment, including a full body harness, attached independent of the crane/derrick. When there is no adequate structure for attachment of personal fall arrest equipment as required in § 1926.502(d)(15), the attachment must be to the lower load block or overhaul ball.
</P>
<P>(iv) The fall protection equipment must meet the applicable requirements in § 1926.502.
</P>
<P>(v) The boatswain's chair itself (excluding the personal fall arrest system anchorages), must be capable of supporting, without failure, its own weight and at least five times the maximum intended load.
</P>
<P>(vi) No more than one person must be hoisted at a time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 8746, Feb. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1432" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1432   Multiple-crane/derrick lifts—supplemental requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Plan development.</I> Before beginning a crane/derrick operation in which more than one crane/derrick will be supporting the load, the operation must be planned. The planning must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The plan must be developed by a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan must be designed to ensure that the requirements of this subpart are met.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the qualified person determines that engineering expertise is needed for the planning, the employer must ensure that it is provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan implementation.</I> (1) The multiple-crane/derrick lift must be directed by a person who meets the criteria for both a competent person and a qualified person, or by a competent person who is assisted by one or more qualified persons (lift director).
</P>
<P>(2) The lift director must review the plan in a meeting with all workers who will be involved with the operation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1433" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1433   Design, construction and testing.</HEAD>
<P>The following requirements apply to equipment that has a manufacturer-rated hoisting/lifting capacity of more than 2,000 pounds.
</P>
<P>(a) Crawler, truck and locomotive cranes manufactured prior to November 8, 2010 must meet the applicable requirements for design, construction, and testing as prescribed in ANSI B30.5-1968 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6), PCSA Std. No. 2 (1968) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6), the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, or the applicable DIN standards that were in effect at the time of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(b) Mobile (including crawler and truck) and locomotive cranes manufactured on or after November 8, 2010 must meet the following portions of ASME B30.5-2004 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) In section 5-1.1.1 (“Load Ratings—Where Stability Governs Lifting Performance”), paragraphs (a)-(d) (including subparagraphs).
</P>
<P>(2) In section 5-1.1.2 (“Load Ratings—Where Structural Competence Governs Lifting Performance”), paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(3) Section 5-1.2 (“Stability (Backward and Forward)”).
</P>
<P>(4) In section 5-1.3.1 (“Boom Hoist Mechanism”), paragraphs (a), (b)(1) and (b)(2), except that when using rotation resistant rope, § 1926.1414(c)(4)(ii)(A) applies.
</P>
<P>(5) In section 5-1.3.2 (“Load Hoist Mechanism”), paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(4) (including subparagraphs), (b) (including subparagraphs), (c) (first sentence only) and (d).
</P>
<P>(6) Section 5-1.3.3 (“Telescoping Boom”).
</P>
<P>(7) Section 5-1.4 (“Swing Mechanism”).
</P>
<P>(8) In section 5-1.5 (“Crane Travel”), all provisions except 5-1.5.3(d).
</P>
<P>(9) In section 5-1.6 (“Controls”), all provisions except 5-1.6.1 (c).
</P>
<P>(10) Section 5-1.7.4 (“Sheaves”).
</P>
<P>(11) Section 5-1.7.5 (“Sheave sizes”).
</P>
<P>(12) In section 5-1.9.1 (“Booms”), paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(13) Section 5-1.9.3 (“Outriggers”).
</P>
<P>(14) Section 5-1.9.4 (“Locomotive Crane Equipment”).
</P>
<P>(15) Section 5-1.9.7 (“Clutch and Brake Protection”).
</P>
<P>(16) In section 5-1.9.11 (“Miscellaneous equipment”), paragraphs (a), (c), (e), and (f).
</P>
<P>(c) Prototype testing: mobile (including crawler and truck) and locomotive cranes manufactured on or after November 8, 2010 must meet the prototype testing requirements in Test Option A or Test Option B of this section. Tower cranes manufactured on or after November 8, 2010 must meet the prototype testing requirements in BS EN 14439:2006 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prototype testing of crawler, locomotive and truck cranes manufactured prior to November 8, 2010 must conform to paragraph (a) of this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) <I>Test Option A.</I> (i) The following applies to equipment with cantilevered booms (such as hydraulic boom cranes): All the tests listed in SAE J1063 (Nov. 1993) Table 1 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) must be performed to load all critical structural elements to their respective limits. All the strength margins listed in SAE J1063 (Nov. 1993) Table 2 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) must be met.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following applies to equipment with pendant supported lattice booms: All the tests listed in SAE J987 (Jun. 2003) Table 1 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) must be performed to load all critical structural elements to their respective limits. All the strength margins listed in SAE J987 (Jun. 2003) Table 2 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) must be met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test Option B.</I> The testing and verification requirements of BS EN 13000:2004 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) must be met. In applying BS EN 13000:2004, the following additional requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(i) The following applies to equipment with cantilevered booms (such as hydraulic boom cranes): The analysis methodology (computer modeling) must demonstrate that all load cases listed in SAE J1063 (Nov. 1993) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) meet the strength margins listed in SAE J1063 (Nov. 1993) Table 2.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following applies to equipment with pendant supported lattice booms: The analysis methodology (computer modeling) must demonstrate that all load cases listed in SAE J987 (Jun. 2003) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) meet the strength margins listed in SAE J987 (Jun. 2003) Table 2.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Analysis verification.</I> The physical testing requirements under SAE J1063 (Nov. 1993) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) and SAE J987 (Jun. 2003) (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) must be met unless the reliability of the analysis methodology (computer modeling) has been demonstrated by a documented history of verification through strain gauge measuring or strain gauge measuring in combination with other physical testing.
</P>
<P>(d) All equipment covered by this subpart must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rated capacity and related information.</I> The information available in the cab (<I>see</I> § 1926.1417(c)) regarding “rated capacity” and related information must include, at a minimum, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A complete range of the manufacturer's equipment rated capacities, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) At all manufacturer approved operating radii, boom angles, work areas, boom lengths and configurations, jib lengths and angles (or offset).
</P>
<P>(B) Alternate ratings for use and nonuse of option equipment which affects rated capacities, such as outriggers, stabilizers, and extra counterweights.
</P>
<P>(ii) A work area chart for which capacities are listed in the load chart. (<E T="04">Note:</E> An example of this type of chart is in ASME B30.5-2004, section 5-1.1.3, Figure 11).
</P>
<P>(iii) The work area figure and load chart must clearly indicate the areas where no load is to be handled.
</P>
<P>(iv) Recommended reeving for the hoist lines must be shown.
</P>
<P>(v) Recommended parts of hoist reeving, size, and type of wire rope for various equipment loads.
</P>
<P>(vi) Recommended boom hoist reeving diagram, where applicable; size, type and length of wire rope.
</P>
<P>(vii) Tire pressure (where applicable).
</P>
<P>(viii) Caution or warnings relative to limitations on equipment and operating procedures, including an indication of the least stable direction.
</P>
<P>(ix) Position of the gantry and requirements for intermediate boom suspension (where applicable).
</P>
<P>(x) Instructions for boom erection and conditions under which the boom, or boom and jib combinations, may be raised or lowered.
</P>
<P>(xi) Whether the hoist holding mechanism is automatically or manually controlled, whether free fall is available, or any combination of these.
</P>
<P>(xii) The maximum telescopic travel length of each boom telescopic section.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Whether sections are telescoped manually or with power.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The sequence and procedure for extending and retracting the telescopic boom section.
</P>
<P>(xv) Maximum loads permitted during the boom extending operation, and any limiting conditions or cautions.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Hydraulic relief valve settings specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(2) Load hooks (including latched and unlatched types), ball assemblies and load blocks must be of sufficient weight to overhaul the line from the highest hook position for boom or boom and jib lengths and the number of parts of the line in use.
</P>
<P>(3) Hook and ball assemblies and load blocks must be marked with their rated capacity and weight.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Latching hooks.</I> (i) Hooks must be equipped with latches, except where the requirements of paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hooks without latches, or with latches removed or disabled, must not be used unless:
</P>
<P>(A) A qualified person has determined that it is safer to hoist and place the load without latches (or with the latches removed/tied-back).
</P>
<P>(B) Routes for the loads are pre-planned to ensure that no employee is required to work in the fall zone except for employees necessary for the hooking or unhooking of the load.
</P>
<P>(iii) The latch must close the throat opening and be designed to retain slings or other lifting devices/accessories in the hook when the rigging apparatus is slack.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Posted warnings.</I> Posted warnings required by this subpart as well as those originally supplied with the equipment by the manufacturer must be maintained in legible condition.
</P>
<P>(6) An accessible fire extinguisher must be on the equipment.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Cabs.</I> Equipment with cabs must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Cabs must be designed with a form of adjustable ventilation and method for clearing the windshield for maintaining visibility and air circulation. Examples of means for adjustable ventilation include air conditioner or window that can be opened (for ventilation and air circulation); examples of means for maintaining visibility include heater (for preventing windshield icing), defroster, fan, windshield wiper.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cab doors (swinging, sliding) must be designed to prevent inadvertent opening or closing while traveling or operating the machine. Swinging doors adjacent to the operator must open outward. Sliding operator doors must open rearward.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Windows.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) The cab must have windows in front and on both sides of the operator. Forward vertical visibility must be sufficient to give the operator a view of the boom point at all times.
</P>
<P>(B) Windows may have sections designed to be opened or readily removed. Windows with sections designed to be opened must be designed so that they can be secured to prevent inadvertent closure.
</P>
<P>(C) Windows must be of safety glass or material with similar optical and safety properties, that introduce no visible distortion or otherwise obscure visibility that interferes with the safe operation of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(iv) A clear passageway must be provided from the operator's station to an exit door on the operator's side.
</P>
<P>(v) Areas of the cab roof that serve as a workstation for rigging, maintenance or other equipment-related tasks must be capable of supporting 250 pounds without permanent distortion.
</P>
<P>(8) Belts, gears, shafts, pulleys, sprockets, spindles, drums, fly wheels, chains, and other parts or components that reciprocate, rotate or otherwise move must be guarded where contact by employees (except for maintenance and repair employees) is possible in the performance of normal duties.
</P>
<P>(9) All exhaust pipes, turbochargers, and charge air coolers must be insulated or guarded where contact by employees (except for maintenance and repair employees) is possible in the performance of normal duties.
</P>
<P>(10) Hydraulic and pneumatic lines must be protected from damage to the extent feasible.
</P>
<P>(11) The equipment must be designed so that exhaust fumes are not discharged in the cab and are discharged in a direction away from the operator.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Friction mechanisms.</I> Where friction mechanisms (such as brakes and clutches) are used to control the boom hoist or load line hoist, they must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Of a size and thermal capacity sufficient to control all rated loads with the minimum recommended reeving.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustable to permit compensation for lining wear to maintain proper operation.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Hydraulic load hoists.</I> Hydraulic drums must have an integrally mounted holding device or internal static brake to prevent load hoist movement in the event of hydraulic failure.
</P>
<P>(e) The employer's obligations under paragraphs (a) through (c) and (d)(7) through (13) of this section are met where the equipment has not changed (except in accordance with § 1926.1434 (Equipment modifications)) and it can refer to documentation from the manufacturer showing that the equipment has been designed, constructed and tested in accordance with those paragraphs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1434" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1434   Equipment modifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Modifications or additions which affect the capacity or safe operation of the equipment are prohibited except where the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), or (a)(5) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Manufacturer review and approval.</I> (i) The manufacturer approves the modifications/additions in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The load charts, procedures, instruction manuals and instruction plates/tags/decals are modified as necessary to accord with the modification/addition.
</P>
<P>(iii) The original safety factor of the equipment is not reduced.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Manufacturer refusal to review request.</I> The manufacturer is provided a detailed description of the proposed modification/addition, is asked to approve the modification/addition, but it declines to review the technical merits of the proposal or fails, within 30 days, to acknowledge the request or initiate the review, and all of the following are met:
</P>
<P>(i) A registered professional engineer who is a qualified person with respect to the equipment involved:
</P>
<P>(A) Approves the modification/addition and specifies the equipment configurations to which that approval applies, and
</P>
<P>(B) Modifies load charts, procedures, instruction manuals and instruction plates/tags/decals as necessary to accord with the modification/addition.
</P>
<P>(ii) The original safety factor of the equipment is not reduced.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unavailable manufacturer.</I> The manufacturer is unavailable and the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Manufacturer does not complete the review within 120 days of the request.</I> The manufacturer is provided a detailed description of the proposed modification/addition, is asked to approve the modification/addition, agrees to review the technical merits of the proposal, but fails to complete the review of the proposal within 120 days of the date it was provided the detailed description of the proposed modification/addition, and the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Multiple manufacturers of equipment designed for use on marine work sites.</I> The equipment is designed for marine work sites, contains major structural components from more than one manufacturer, and the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(b) Modifications or additions which affect the capacity or safe operation of the equipment are prohibited where the manufacturer, after a review of the technical safety merits of the proposed modification/addition, rejects the proposal and explains the reasons for the rejection in a written response. If the manufacturer rejects the proposal but does not explain the reasons for the rejection in writing, the employer may treat this as a manufacturer refusal to review the request under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to modifications made or approved by the U.S. military.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1435" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1435   Tower cranes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section contains supplemental requirements for tower cranes; all sections of this subpart apply to tower cranes unless specified otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Erecting, climbing and dismantling.</I> (1) Section 1926.1403 (Assembly/Disassembly—selection of manufacturer or employer procedures), § 1926.1404 (Assembly/Disassembly—general requirements (applies to all assembly and disassembly operations)), § 1926.1405 (Disassembly—additional requirements for dismantling of booms and jibs (applies to both the use of manufacturer procedures and employer procedures)), and § 1926.1406 (Assembly/Disassembly—employer procedures—general requirements), apply to tower cranes (except as otherwise specified), except that the term “assembly/disassembly” is replaced by “erecting, climbing and dismantling,” and the term “disassembly” is replaced by “dismantling.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dangerous areas (self-erecting tower cranes).</I> In addition to the requirements in § 1926.1404(e), for self-erecting tower cranes, the following applies: Employees must not be in or under the tower, jib, or rotating portion of the crane during erecting, climbing and dismantling operations until the crane is secured in a locked position and the competent person in charge indicates it is safe to enter this area, unless the manufacturer's instructions direct otherwise and only the necessary personnel are permitted in this area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foundations and structural supports.</I> Tower crane foundations and structural supports (including both the portions of the structure used for support and the means of attachment) must be designed by the manufacturer or a registered professional engineer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Addressing specific hazards.</I> The requirements in § 1926.1404(h)(1) through (9) apply. In addition, the A/D director must address the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Foundations and structural supports.</I> The A/D director must determine that tower crane foundations and structural supports are installed in accordance with their design.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Loss of backward stability.</I> Backward stability before swinging self erecting cranes or cranes on traveling or static undercarriages.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Wind speed.</I> Wind must not exceed the speed recommended by the manufacturer or, where manufacturer does not specify this information, the speed determined by a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Plumb tolerance.</I> Towers must be erected plumb to the manufacturer's tolerance and verified by a qualified person. Where the manufacturer does not specify plumb tolerance, the crane tower must be plumb to a tolerance of at least 1:500 (approximately 1 inch in 40 feet).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Multiple tower crane jobsites.</I> On jobsites where more than one fixed jib (hammerhead) tower crane is installed, the cranes must be located such that no crane can come in contact with the structure of another crane. Cranes are permitted to pass over one another.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Climbing procedures.</I> Prior to, and during, all climbing procedures (including inside climbing and top climbing), the employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with all manufacturer prohibitions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a registered professional engineer verify that the host structure is strong enough to sustain the forces imposed through the braces, brace anchorages and supporting floors.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Counterweight/ballast.</I> (i) Equipment must not be erected, dismantled or operated without the amount and position of counterweight and/or ballast in place as specified by the manufacturer or a registered professional engineer familiar with the equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum counterweight and/or ballast specified by the manufacturer or registered professional engineer familiar with the equipment must not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Signs.</I> The size and location of signs installed on tower cranes must be in accordance with manufacturer specifications. Where these are unavailable, a registered professional engineer familiar with the type of equipment involved must approve in writing the size and location of any signs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safety devices.</I> (1) Section 1926.1415 does not apply to tower cranes.
</P>
<P>(2) The following safety devices are required on all tower cranes unless otherwise specified:
</P>
<P>(i) Boom stops on luffing boom type tower cranes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Jib stops on luffing boom type tower cranes if equipped with a jib attachment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Travel rail end stops at both ends of travel rail.
</P>
<P>(iv) Travel rail clamps on all travel bogies.
</P>
<P>(v) Integrally mounted check valves on all load supporting hydraulic cylinders.
</P>
<P>(vi) Hydraulic system pressure limiting device.
</P>
<P>(vii) The following brakes, which must automatically set in the event of pressure loss or power failure, are required:
</P>
<P>(A) A hoist brake on all hoists.
</P>
<P>(B) Swing brake.
</P>
<P>(C) Trolley brake.
</P>
<P>(D) Rail travel brake.
</P>
<P>(viii) Deadman control or forced neutral return control (hand) levers.
</P>
<P>(ix) Emergency stop switch at the operator's station.
</P>
<P>(x) Trolley end stops must be provided at both ends of travel of the trolley.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Proper operation required.</I> Operations must not begin unless the devices listed in this section are in proper working order. If a device stops working properly during operations, the operator must safely stop operations. The equipment must be taken out of service, and operations must not resume until the device is again working properly. <I>See</I> § 1926.1417(f). Alternative measures are not permitted to be used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Operational aids.</I> (1) Section 1926.1416 does not apply to tower cranes.
</P>
<P>(2) The devices listed in this section (“operational aids”) are required on all tower cranes covered by this subpart, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<P>(3) Operations must not begin unless the operational aids are in proper working order, except where the employer meets the specified temporary alternative measures. More protective alternative measures specified by the tower crane manufacturer, if any, must be followed. <I>See</I> § 1926.1417(j) for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) If an operational aid stops working properly during operations, the operator must safely stop operations until the temporary alternative measures are implemented or the device is again working properly. If a replacement part is no longer available, the use of a substitute device that performs the same type of function is permitted and is not considered a modification under § 1926.1434.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Category I operational aids and alternative measures.</I> Operational aids listed in this paragraph that are not working properly must be repaired no later than 7 calendar days after the deficiency occurs. <I>Exception:</I> If the employer documents that it has ordered the necessary parts within 7 calendar days of the occurrence of the deficiency, the repair must be completed within 7 calendar days of receipt of the parts.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Trolley travel limiting device.</I> The travel of the trolley must be restricted at both ends of the jib by a trolley travel limiting device to prevent the trolley from running into the trolley end stops. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Option A.</I> The trolley rope must be marked (so it can be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the trolley prior to the end stops.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Option B.</I> A spotter who is in direct communication with the operator must be used when operations are conducted within 10 feet of the outer or inner trolley end stops.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Boom hoist limiting device.</I> The range of the boom must be limited at the minimum and maximum radius. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Clearly mark the cable (so it can be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the boom hoist within the minimum and maximum boom radius, or use a spotter who is in direct communication with the operator to inform the operator when this point is reached.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Anti two-blocking device.</I> The tower crane must be equipped with a device which automatically prevents damage from contact between the load block, overhaul ball, or similar component, and the boom tip (or fixed upper block or similar component). The device(s) must prevent such damage at all points where two-blocking could occur. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Clearly mark the cable (so it can be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist to prevent two-blocking, or use a spotter who is in direct communication with the operator to inform the operator when this point is reached.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Hoist drum lower limiting device.</I> Tower cranes manufactured after November 8, 2011 must be equipped with a device that prevents the last 2 wraps of hoist cable from being spooled off the drum. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Mark the cable (so it can be seen by the operator) at a point that will give the operator sufficient time to stop the hoist prior to last 2 wraps of hoist cable being spooled off the drum, or use a spotter who is in direct communication with the operator to inform the operator when this point is reached
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Load moment limiting device.</I> The tower crane must have a device that prevents moment overloading. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> A radius indicating device must be used (if the tower crane is not equipped with a radius indicating device, the radius must be measured to ensure the load is within the rated capacity of the crane). In addition, the weight of the load must be determined from a source recognized by the industry (such as the load's manufacturer), or by a calculation method recognized by the industry (such as calculating a steel beam from measured dimensions and a known per foot weight), or by other equally reliable means. This information must be provided to the operator prior to the lift.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Hoist line pull limiting device.</I> The capacity of the hoist must be limited to prevent overloading, including each individual gear ratio if equipped with a multiple speed hoist transmission. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> The operator must ensure that the weight of the load does not exceed the capacity of the hoist (including for each individual gear ratio if equipped with a multiple speed hoist transmission).
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Rail travel limiting device.</I> The travel distance in each direction must be limited to prevent the travel bogies from running into the end stops or buffers. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> A spotter who is in direct communication with the operator must be used when operations are conducted within 10 feet of either end of the travel rail end stops; the spotter must inform the operator of the distance of the travel bogies from the end stops or buffers.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Boom hoist drum positive locking device and control.</I> The boom hoist drum must be equipped with a control that will enable the operator to positively lock the boom hoist drum from the cab. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> The device must be manually set when required if an electric, hydraulic or automatic control is not functioning.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Category II operational aids and alternative measures.</I> Operational aids listed in this paragraph that are not working properly must be repaired no later than 30 calendar days after the deficiency occurs. <I>Exception:</I> If the employer documents that it has ordered the necessary parts within 7 calendar days of the occurrence of the deficiency, and the part is not received in time to complete the repair in 30 calendar days, the repair must be completed within 7 calendar days of receipt of the parts.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Boom angle or hook radius indicator.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Luffing boom tower cranes must have a boom angle indicator readable from the operator's station.
</P>
<P>(B) Hammerhead tower cranes manufactured after November 8, 2011 must have a hook radius indicator readable from the operator's station.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Hook radii or boom angle must be determined by measuring the hook radii or boom angle with a measuring device.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Trolley travel deceleration device.</I> The trolley speed must be automatically reduced prior to the trolley reaching the end limit in both directions. <I>Temporary alternative measure:</I> The employer must post a notice in the cab of the crane notifying the operator that the trolley travel deceleration device is malfunctioning and instructing the operator to take special care to reduce the trolley speed when approaching the trolley end limits.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Boom hoist deceleration device.</I> The boom speed must be automatically reduced prior to the boom reaching the minimum or maximum radius limit. <I>Temporary alternative measure:</I> The employer must post a notice in the cab of the crane notifying the operator that the boom hoist deceleration device is malfunctioning and instructing the operator to take special care to reduce the boom speed when approaching the minimum or maximum radius limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Load hoist deceleration device.</I> The load speed must be automatically reduced prior to the hoist reaching the upper limit. <I>Temporary alternative measure:</I> The employer must post a notice in the cab of the crane notifying the operator that the load hoist deceleration device is malfunctioning and instructing the operator to take special care to reduce the load speed when approaching the upper limits.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Wind speed indicator.</I> A device must be provided to display the wind speed and must be mounted above the upper rotating structure on tower cranes. On self erecting cranes, it must be mounted at or above the jib level. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> Use of wind speed information from a properly functioning indicating device on another tower crane on the same site, or a qualified person estimates the wind speed.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Load indicating device.</I> Cranes manufactured after November 8, 2011 must have a device that displays the magnitude of the load on the hook. Displays that are part of load moment limiting devices that display the load on the hook meet this requirement. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> The weight of the load must be determined from a source recognized by the industry (such as the load's manufacturer), or by a calculation method recognized by the industry (such as calculating a steel beam from measured dimensions and a known per foot weight), or by other equally reliable means. This information must be provided to the operator prior to the lift.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inspections.</I> (1) Section 1926.1412 (Inspections) applies to tower cranes, except that the term “assembly” is replaced by “erection.” Section 1926.1413 (Wire rope—inspection) applies to tower cranes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pre-erection inspection.</I> Before each crane component is erected, it must be inspected by a qualified person for damage or excessive wear.
</P>
<P>(i) The qualified person must pay particular attention to components that will be difficult to inspect thoroughly during shift inspections.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the qualified person determines that a component is damaged or worn to the extent that it would create a safety hazard if used on the crane, that component must not be erected on the crane unless it is repaired and, upon reinspection by the qualified person, found to no longer create a safety hazard.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the qualified person determines that, though not presently a safety hazard, the component needs to be monitored, the employer must ensure that the component is checked in the monthly inspections. Any such determination must be documented, and the documentation must be available to any individual who conducts a monthly inspection.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Post-erection inspection.</I> In addition to the requirements in § 1926.1412(c), the following requirements must be met:
</P>
<P>(i) A load test using certified weights, or scaled weights using a certified scale with a current certificate of calibration, must be conducted after each erection.
</P>
<P>(ii) The load test must be conducted in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions when available. Where these instructions are unavailable, the test must be conducted in accordance with written load test procedures developed by a registered professional engineer familiar with the type of equipment involved.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Monthly.</I> The following additional items must be included:
</P>
<P>(i) Tower (mast) bolts and other structural bolts (for loose or dislodged condition) from the base of the tower crane up or, if the crane is tied to or braced by the structure, those above the upper-most brace support.
</P>
<P>(ii) The upper-most tie-in, braces, floor supports and floor wedges where the tower crane is supported by the structure, for loose or dislodged components.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Annual.</I> In addition to the items that must be inspected under § 1926.1412(f), all turntable and tower bolts must be inspected for proper condition and torque.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1436" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1436   Derricks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section contains supplemental requirements for derricks, whether temporarily or permanently mounted; all sections of this subpart apply to derricks unless specified otherwise. A derrick is powered equipment consisting of a mast or equivalent member that is held at or near the end by guys or braces, with or without a boom, and its hoisting mechanism. The mast/equivalent member and/or the load is moved by the hoisting mechanism (typically base-mounted) and operating ropes. Derricks include: A-frame, basket, breast, Chicago boom, gin pole (except gin poles used for erection of communication towers), guy, shearleg, stiffleg, and variations of such equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operation—procedures.</I> (1) Section 1926.1417 (Operation) applies except for § 1926.1417(c) (Accessibility of procedures).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Load chart contents.</I> Load charts must contain at least the following information:
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<P>(i) Rated capacity at corresponding ranges of boom angle or operating radii.
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific lengths of components to which the rated capacities apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) Required parts for hoist reeving.
</P>
<P>(iv) Size and construction of rope must be included on the load chart or in the operating manual.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Load chart location</I>—(i) <I>Permanent installations.</I> For permanently installed derricks with fixed lengths of boom, guy, and mast, a load chart must be posted where it is visible to personnel responsible for the operation of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Non-permanent installations.</I> For derricks that are not permanently installed, the load chart must be readily available at the job site to personnel responsible for the operation of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) Derricks must be constructed to meet all stresses imposed on members and components when installed and operated in accordance with the manufacturer's/builder's procedures and within its rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Welding of load sustaining members must conform to recommended practices in ANSI/AWS D14.3-94 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) or AWS D1.1/D1.1M:2002 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guy derricks.</I> (i) The minimum number of guys must be 6, with equal spacing, except where a qualified person or derrick manufacturer approves variations from these requirements and revises the rated capacity to compensate for such variations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Guy derricks must not be used unless the employer has the following guy information from the manufacturer or a qualified person, when not available from the manufacturer:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of guys.
</P>
<P>(B) The spacing around the mast.
</P>
<P>(C) The size, grade, and construction of rope to be used for each guy.
</P>
<P>(iii) For guy derricks manufactured after December 18, 1970, in addition to the information required in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the employer must have the following guy information from the manufacturer or a qualified person, when not available from the manufacturer:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of initial sag or tension.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of tension in guy line rope at anchor.
</P>
<P>(iv) The mast base must permit the mast to rotate freely with allowance for slight tilting of the mast caused by guy slack.
</P>
<P>(v) The mast cap must:
</P>
<P>(A) Permit the mast to rotate freely.
</P>
<P>(B) Withstand tilting and cramping caused by the guy loads.
</P>
<P>(C) Be secured to the mast to prevent disengagement during erection.
</P>
<P>(D) Be provided with means for attaching guy ropes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stiffleg derricks.</I> (i) The mast must be supported in the vertical position by at least two stifflegs; one end of each must be connected to the top of the mast and the other end securely anchored.
</P>
<P>(ii) The stifflegs must be capable of withstanding the loads imposed at any point of operation within the load chart range.
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<P>(iii) The mast base must:
</P>
<P>(A) Permit the mast to rotate freely (when necessary).
</P>
<P>(B) Permit deflection of the mast without binding.
</P>
<P>(iv) The mast must be prevented from lifting out of its socket when the mast is in tension.
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<P>(v) The stiffleg connecting member at the top of the mast must:
</P>
<P>(A) Permit the mast to rotate freely (when necessary).
</P>
<P>(B) Withstand the loads imposed by the action of the stifflegs.
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<P>(C) Be secured so as to oppose separating forces.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Gin pole derricks.</I> (i) Guy lines must be sized and spaced so as to make the gin pole stable in both boomed and vertical positions. <I>Exception:</I> Where the size and/or spacing of guy lines do not result in the gin pole being stable in both boomed and vertical positions, the employer must ensure that the derrick is not used in an unstable position.
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<P>(ii) The base of the gin pole must permit movement of the pole (when necessary).
</P>
<P>(iii) The gin pole must be anchored at the base against horizontal forces (when such forces are present).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Chicago boom derricks.</I> The fittings for stepping the boom and for attaching the topping lift must be arranged to:
</P>
<P>(i) Permit the derrick to swing at all permitted operating radii and mounting heights between fittings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Accommodate attachment to the upright member of the host structure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Withstand the forces applied when configured and operated in accordance with the manufacturer's/builder's procedures and within its rated capacity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prevent the boom or topping lift from lifting out under tensile forces.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Anchoring and guying.</I> (1) Load anchoring data developed by the manufacturer or a qualified person must be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guy derricks.</I> (i) The mast base must be anchored.
</P>
<P>(ii) The guys must be secured to the ground or other firm anchorage.
</P>
<P>(iii) The anchorage and guying must be designed to withstand maximum horizontal and vertical forces encountered when operating within rated capacity with the particular guy slope and spacing specified for the application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stiffleg derricks.</I> (i) The mast base and stifflegs must be anchored.
</P>
<P>(ii) The mast base and stifflegs must be designed to withstand maximum horizontal and vertical forces encountered when operating within rated capacity with the particular stiffleg spacing and slope specified for the application.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Swingers and hoists.</I> (1) The boom, swinger mechanisms and hoists must be suitable for the derrick work intended and must be anchored to prevent displacement from the imposed loads.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hoists.</I> (i) Base mounted drum hoists must meet the requirements in the following sections of ASME B30.7-2001 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6):
</P>
<P>(A) Sections 7-1.1 (“Load ratings and markings”).
</P>
<P>(B) Section 7-1.2 (“Construction”), except: 7-1.2.13 (“Operator's cab”); 7-1.2.15 (“Fire extinguishers”).
</P>
<P>(C) Section 7-1.3 (“Installation”).
</P>
<P>(D) Applicable terms in section 7-0.2 (“Definitions”).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Load tests for new hoists.</I> The employer must ensure that new hoists are load tested to a minimum of 110% of rated capacity, but not more than 125% of rated capacity, unless otherwise recommended by the manufacturer. This requirement is met where the manufacturer has conducted this testing.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Repaired or modified hoists.</I> Hoists that have had repairs, modifications or additions affecting their capacity or safe operation must be evaluated by a qualified person to determine if a load test is necessary. If it is, load testing must be conducted in accordance with paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Load test procedure.</I> Load tests required by paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) or (e)(2)(iii) of this section must be conducted as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The test load must be hoisted a vertical distance to assure that the load is supported by the hoist and held by the hoist brake(s).
</P>
<P>(B) The test load must be lowered, stopped and held with the brake(s).
</P>
<P>(C) The hoist must not be used unless a competent person determines that the test has been passed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Operational aids.</I> (1) Section 1926.1416 (Operational aids) applies, except for § 1926.1416(d)(1) (Boom hoist limiting device), § 1926.1416(e)(1) (Boom angle or radius indicator), and § 1926.1416(e)(4) (Load weighing and similar devices).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Boom angle aid.</I> A boom angle indicator is not required but if the derrick is not equipped with a functioning one, the employer must ensure that either:
</P>
<P>(i) The boom hoist cable must be marked with caution and stop marks. The stop marks must correspond to maximum and minimum allowable boom angles. The caution and stop marks must be in view of the operator, or a spotter who is in direct communication with the operator; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An electronic or other device that signals the operator in time to prevent the boom from moving past its maximum and minimum angles, or automatically prevents such movement, is used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Load weight/capacity devices.</I> (i) Derricks manufactured more than one year after November 8, 2010 with a maximum rated capacity over 6,000 pounds must have at least one of the following: load weighing device, load moment indicator, rated capacity indicator, or rated capacity limiter. <I>Temporary alternative measures:</I> The weight of the load must be determined from a source recognized by the industry (such as the load's manufacturer), or by a calculation method recognized by the industry (such as calculating a steel beam from measured dimensions and a known per foot weight), or by other equally reliable means. This information must be provided to the operator prior to the lift. <I>See</I> § 1926.1417(j) for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) A load weight/capacity device that is not working properly must be repaired no later than 30 days after the deficiency occurs. <I>Exception:</I> If the employer documents that it has ordered the necessary parts within 7 days of the occurrence of the deficiency, and the part is not received in time to complete the repair in 30 days, the repair must be completed within 7 days of receipt of the parts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Post-assembly approval and testing—new or reinstalled derricks</I>—(1) <I>Anchorages.</I> (i) Anchorages, including the structure to which the derrick is attached (if applicable), must be approved by a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(ii) If using a rock or hairpin anchorage, the qualified person must determine if any special testing of the anchorage is needed. If so, it must be tested accordingly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Functional test.</I> Prior to initial use, new or reinstalled derricks must be tested by a competent person with no hook load to verify proper operation. This test must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Lifting and lowering the hook(s) through the full range of hook travel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Raising and lowering the boom through the full range of boom travel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Swinging in each direction through the full range of swing.
</P>
<P>(iv) Actuating the anti two-block and boom hoist limit devices (if provided).
</P>
<P>(v) Actuating locking, limiting and indicating devices (if provided).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Load test.</I> Prior to initial use, new or reinstalled derricks must be load tested by a competent person. The test load must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Test loads must be at least 100% and no more than 110% of the rated capacity, unless otherwise recommended by the manufacturer or qualified person, but in no event must the test load be less than the maximum anticipated load.
</P>
<P>(ii) The test must consist of:
</P>
<P>(A) Hoisting the test load a few inches and holding to verify that the load is supported by the derrick and held by the hoist brake(s).
</P>
<P>(B) Swinging the derrick, if applicable, the full range of its swing, at the maximum allowable working radius for the test load.
</P>
<P>(C) Booming the derrick up and down within the allowable working radius for the test load.
</P>
<P>(D) Lowering, stopping and holding the load with the brake(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) The derrick must not be used unless the competent person determines that the test has been passed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Documentation.</I> Tests conducted under this paragraph must be documented. The document must contain the date, test results and the name of the tester. The document must be retained until the derrick is re-tested or dismantled, whichever occurs first. All such documents must be available, during the applicable document retention period, to all persons who conduct inspections in accordance with § 1926.1412.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Load testing repaired or modified derricks.</I> Derricks that have had repairs, modifications or additions affecting the derrick's capacity or safe operation must be evaluated by a qualified person to determine if a load test is necessary. If it is, load testing must be conducted and documented in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Power failure procedures.</I> If power fails during operations, the derrick operator must safely stop operations. This must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Setting all brakes or locking devices.
</P>
<P>(2) Moving all clutch and other power controls to the off position.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Use of winch heads.</I> (1) Ropes must not be handled on a winch head without the knowledge of the operator.
</P>
<P>(2) While a winch head is being used, the operator must be within reach of the power unit control lever.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Securing the boom.</I> (1) When the boom is being held in a fixed position, dogs, pawls, or other positive holding mechanisms on the boom hoist must be engaged.
</P>
<P>(2) When taken out of service for 30 days or more, the boom must be secured by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) Laid down.
</P>
<P>(ii) Secured to a stationary member, as nearly under the head as possible, by attachment of a sling to the load block.
</P>
<P>(iii) For guy derricks, lifted to a vertical position and secured to the mast.
</P>
<P>(iv) For stiffleg derricks, secured against the stiffleg.
</P>
<P>(n) The process of jumping the derrick must be supervised by the A/D director.
</P>
<P>(o) Derrick operations must be supervised by a competent person.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Inspections.</I> In addition to the requirements in § 1926.1412, the following additional items must be included in the inspections:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Daily:</I> Guys for proper tension.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual.</I> (i) Gudgeon pin for cracks, wear, and distortion.
</P>
<P>(ii) Foundation supports for continued ability to sustain the imposed loads.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Qualification and training.</I> The employer must train each operator of a derrick on the safe operation of equipment the individual will operate. Section 1926.1427 of this subpart (Operator qualification and certification) does not apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1437" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1437   Floating cranes/derricks and land cranes/derricks on barges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section contains supplemental requirements for floating cranes/derricks and land cranes/derricks on barges, pontoons, vessels or other means of flotation (<I>i.e.,</I> vessel/flotation device). The sections of this subpart apply to floating cranes/derricks and land cranes/derricks on barges, pontoons, vessels or other means of flotation, unless specified otherwise. The requirements of this section do not apply when using jacked barges when the jacks are deployed to the river, lake, or sea bed and the barge is fully supported by the jacks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> The requirements in paragraphs (c) through (k) of this section apply to both floating cranes/derricks and land cranes/derricks on barges, pontoons, vessels or other means of flotation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Work area control.</I> (1) The requirements of § 1926.1424 (Work area control) apply, except for § 1926.1424(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Erect and maintain control lines, warning lines, railings or similar barriers to mark the boundaries of the hazard areas; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Clearly mark the hazard areas by a combination of warning signs (such as, “Danger—Swing/Crush Zone”) and high visibility markings on the equipment that identify the hazard areas. In addition, the employer must train each employee to understand what these markings signify.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Keeping clear of the load.</I> Section 1926.1425 does not apply.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional safety devices.</I> In addition to the safety devices listed in § 1926.1415, the following safety devices are required:
</P>
<P>(1) Barge, pontoon, vessel or other means of flotation list and trim device. The safety device must be located in the cab or, when there is no cab, at the operator's station.
</P>
<P>(2) Positive equipment house lock.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Wind speed and direction indicator.</I> A competent person must determine if wind is a factor that needs to be considered; if wind needs to be considered, a wind speed and direction indicator must be used.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Operational aids.</I> (1) An anti two-block device is required only when hoisting personnel or hoisting over an occupied cofferdam or shaft.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 1926.1416(e)(4) (Load weighing and similar devices) does not apply to dragline, clamshell (grapple), magnet, drop ball, container handling, concrete bucket, and pile driving work performed under this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Accessibility of procedures applicable to equipment operation.</I> If the crane/derrick has a cab, the requirements of § 1926.1417(c) apply. If the crane/derrick does not have a cab, the employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Rated capacities (load charts) are posted at the operator's station. If the operator's station is moveable (such as with pendant-controlled equipment), the load charts are posted on the equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures applicable to the operation of the equipment (other than load charts), recommended operating speeds, special hazard warnings, instructions and operators manual, must be readily available on board the vessel/flotation device.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Inspections.</I> In addition to meeting the requirements of § 1926.1412 for inspecting the crane/derrick, the employer must inspect the barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation used to support a floating crane/derrick or land crane/derrick, and ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Shift.</I> For each shift inspection, the means used to secure/attach the equipment to the vessel/flotation device is in proper condition, including wear, corrosion, loose or missing fasteners, defective welds, and (when applicable) insufficient tension.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Monthly.</I> For each monthly inspection:
</P>
<P>(i) The means used to secure/attach the equipment to the vessel/flotation device is in proper condition, including inspection for wear, corrosion, and, when applicable, insufficient tension.
</P>
<P>(ii) The vessel/flotation device is not taking on water.
</P>
<P>(iii) The deckload is properly secured.
</P>
<P>(iv) The vessel/flotation device is watertight based on the condition of the chain lockers, storage, fuel compartments, and hatches.
</P>
<P>(v) The firefighting and lifesaving equipment is in place and functional.
</P>
<P>(3) The shift and monthly inspections are conducted by a competent person, and:
</P>
<P>(i) If any deficiency is identified, an immediate determination is made by a qualified person whether the deficiency constitutes a hazard.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the deficiency is determined to constitute a hazard, the vessel/flotation device is removed from service until the deficiency has been corrected.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Annual: external vessel/flotation device inspection.</I> For each annual inspection:
</P>
<P>(i) The external portion of the barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation used is inspected annually by a qualified person who has expertise with respect to vessels/flotation devices and that the inspection includes the following items:
</P>
<P>(A) The items identified in paragraphs (h)(1) (<I>Shift</I>) and (h)(2) (<I>Monthly</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Cleats, bitts, chocks, fenders, capstans, ladders, and stanchions, for significant corrosion, wear, deterioration, or deformation that could impair the function of these items.
</P>
<P>(C) External evidence of leaks and structural damage; evidence of leaks and damage below the waterline may be determined through internal inspection of the vessel/flotation device.
</P>
<P>(D) Four-corner draft readings.
</P>
<P>(E) Firefighting equipment for serviceability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rescue skiffs, lifelines, work vests, life preservers and ring buoys are inspected for proper condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) If any deficiency is identified, an immediate determination is made by the qualified person whether the deficiency constitutes a hazard or, though not yet a hazard, needs to be monitored in the monthly inspections.
</P>
<P>(A) If the qualified person determines that the deficiency constitutes a hazard, the vessel/flotation device is removed from service until it has been corrected. <I>See</I> requirements in § 1926.1417(f).
</P>
<P>(B) If the qualified person determines that, though not presently a hazard, the deficiency needs to be monitored, the deficiency is checked in the monthly inspections.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Four-year: internal vessel/flotation device inspection.</I> For each four-year inspection:
</P>
<P>(i) A marine engineer, marine architect, licensed surveyor, or other qualified person who has expertise with respect to vessels/flotation devices surveys the internal portion of the barge, pontoons, vessel, or other means of flotation.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the surveyor identifies a deficiency, an immediate determination is made by the surveyor as to whether the deficiency constitutes a hazard or, though not yet a hazard, needs to be monitored in the monthly or annual inspections, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(A) If the surveyor determines that the deficiency constitutes a hazard, the vessel/flotation device is removed from service until it has been corrected.
</P>
<P>(B) If the surveyor determines that, though not presently a hazard, the deficiency needs to be monitored, the deficiency is checked in the monthly or annual inspections, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Documentation.</I> The monthly and annual inspections required in paragraphs (h)(2) and (h)(4) of this section are documented in accordance with §§ 1926.1412 (e)(3) and 1926.1412(f)(7), respectively, and that the four-year inspection required in paragraph (h)(5) of this section is documented in accordance with § 1926.1412(f)(7), except that the documentation for that inspection must be retained for a minimum of 4 years. All such documents must be made available, during the applicable document retention period, to all persons who conduct inspections in accordance with § 1926.1412.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Working with a diver.</I> The employer must meet the following additional requirements when working with a diver in the water:
</P>
<P>(1) If a crane/derrick is used to get a diver into and out of the water, it must not be used for any other purpose until the diver is back on board. When used for more than one diver, it must not be used for any other purpose until all divers are back on board.
</P>
<P>(2) The operator must remain at the controls of the crane/derrick at all times.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the requirements in §§ 1926.1419 through 1926.1422 (Signals), either:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear line of sight must be maintained between the operator and tender; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The signals between the operator and tender must be transmitted electronically.
</P>
<P>(4) The means used to secure the crane/derrick to the vessel/flotation device (<I>see</I> paragraph (n)(5) of this section) must not allow any amount of shifting in any direction.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Manufacturer's specifications and limitations.</I> (1) The employer must ensure that the barge, pontoons, vessel, or other means of flotation must be capable of withstanding imposed environmental, operational and in-transit loads when used in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications and limitations.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure that the manufacturer's specifications and limitations with respect to environmental, operational, and in-transit loads for a barge, pontoon, vessel, or other means of flotation are not exceeded or violated.
</P>
<P>(3) When the manufacturer's specifications and limitations are unavailable, the employer must ensure that the specifications and limitations established by a qualified person with respect to environmental, operational and in-transit loads for the barge, pontoons, vessel, or other means of flotation are not exceeded or violated.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Floating cranes/derricks.</I> For equipment designed by the manufacturer (or employer) for marine use by permanent attachment to barges, pontoons, vessels or other means of flotation:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Load charts.</I> (i) The employer must not exceed the manufacturer load charts applicable to operations on water. When using these charts, the employer must comply with all parameters and limitations (such as dynamic and environmental parameters) applicable to the use of the charts.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer must ensure that load charts take into consideration a minimum wind speed of 40 miles per hour.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer must ensure that the requirements for maximum allowable list and maximum allowable trim as specified in Table M1 of this section are met.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table M1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum allowable list
<br/>(degrees)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum allowable trim
<br/>(degrees)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Equipment designed for marine use by permanent attachment (other than derricks):</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25 tons or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 25 tons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Derricks designed for marine use by permanent attachment:</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any rated capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The employer must ensure that the equipment is stable under the conditions specified in Tables M2 and M3 of this section. (<E T="04">Note</E>: Freeboard is the vertical distance between the water line and the main deck of the vessel.)
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table M2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operated at
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wind speed
<br/>(mph)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum freeboard
<br/>(ft)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rated capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rated capacity plus 25%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High boom, no load</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table M3
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operated at
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wind speed
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">For backward stability of the boom:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High boom, no load, full back list (least stable condition)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 mph.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) If the equipment is employer-made, it must not be used unless the employer has documents demonstrating that the load charts and applicable parameters for use meet the requirements of paragraphs (m)(1) through (3) of this section. Such documents must be signed by a registered professional engineer who is a qualified person with respect to the design of this type of equipment (including the means of flotation).
</P>
<P>(5) The employer must ensure that the barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation used:
</P>
<P>(i) Are structurally sufficient to withstand the static and dynamic loads of the crane/derrick when operating at the crane/derrick's maximum rated capacity with all planned and actual deck loads and ballasted compartments.
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a subdivided hull with one or more longitudinal watertight bulkheads for reducing the free-surface effect.
</P>
<P>(iii) Have access to void compartments to allow for inspection and pumping.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Land cranes/derricks.</I> For land cranes/derricks used on barges, pontoons, vessels or other means of flotation, the employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The rated capacity of the equipment (including but not limited to modification of load charts) applicable for use on land is reduced to:
</P>
<P>(i) Account for increased loading from list, trim, wave action, and wind.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be applicable to a specified location(s) on the specific barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation that will be used, under the environmental conditions expected and encountered.
</P>
<P>(iii) The conditions required in paragraphs (n)(3) and (n)(4) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(2) The rated capacity modification required in paragraph (n)(1) of this section is performed by the equipment manufacturer, or a qualified person who has expertise with respect to both land crane/derrick capacity and the stability of vessels/flotation devices.
</P>
<P>(3) For list and trim.
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum allowable list and the maximum allowable trim for the barge, pontoon, vessel or other means of flotation must not exceed the amount necessary to ensure that the conditions in paragraph (n)(4) of this section are met. In addition, the maximum allowable list and the maximum allowable trim does not exceed the least of the following: 5 degrees, the amount specified by the crane/derrick manufacturer, or, when, an amount is not so specified, the amount specified by the qualified person.
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum allowable list and the maximum allowable trim for the land crane/derrick does not exceed the amount specified by the crane/derrick manufacturer, or, when, an amount is not so specified, the amount specified by the qualified person.
</P>
<P>(4) For the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) All deck surfaces of the barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation used are above water.
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire bottom area of the barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation used is submerged.
</P>
<P>(5) Physical attachment, corralling, rails system and centerline cable system meet the requirements in Option (1), Option (2), Option (3), or Option (4) of this section, and that whichever option is used also meets the requirements of paragraph (n)(5)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Option (1)—Physical attachment.</I> The crane/derrick is physically attached to the barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation. Methods of physical attachment include crossed-cable systems attached to the crane/derrick and vessel/flotation device, bolting or welding the crane/derrick to the vessel/flotation device, strapping the crane/derrick to the vessel/flotation device with chains, or other methods of physical attachment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Option (2)—Corralling.</I> The crane/derrick is prevented from shifting by installing barricade restraints (<I>i.e.,</I> a corralling system). Employers must ensure that corralling systems do not allow the equipment to shift by any amount of shifting in any direction.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Option (3)—Rails.</I> The crane/derrick must be prevented from shifting by being mounted on a rail system. Employers must ensure that rail clamps and rail stops are used unless the system is designed to prevent movement during operation by other means.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Option (4)—Centerline cable system.</I> The crane/derrick is prevented from shifting by being mounted to a wire rope system. The employer must ensure that the wire rope system meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The wire rope and attachments are of sufficient size and strength to support the side load of crane/derrick.
</P>
<P>(B) The wire rope is attached physically to the vessel/flotation device.
</P>
<P>(C) The wire rope is attached to the crane/derrick by appropriate attachment methods (such as shackles or sheaves) on the undercarriage, and that the method used will allow the crew to secure the crane/derrick from movement during operation and to move the crane/derrick longitudinally along the vessel/flotation device for repositioning.
</P>
<P>(D) Means are installed to prevent the crane/derrick from passing the forward or aft end of the wire rope attachments.
</P>
<P>(E) The crane/derrick is secured from movement during operation.
</P>
<P>(v) The systems/means used to comply with Option (1), Option (2), Option (3), or Option (4) of this section are designed by a marine engineer, registered professional engineer familiar with floating crane/derrick design, or qualified person familiar with floating crane/derrick design.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exception.</I> For mobile auxiliary cranes used on the deck of a floating crane/derrick, the requirement specified by paragraph (n)(5) of this section to use Option (1), Option (2), Option (3), or Option (4) does not apply when the employer demonstrates implementation of a plan and procedures that meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) A marine engineer or registered professional engineer familiar with floating crane/derrick design develops and signs a written plan for the use of the mobile auxiliary crane.
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan is designed so that the applicable requirements of this section are met despite the position, travel, operation, and lack of physical attachment (or corralling, use of rails or cable system) of the mobile auxiliary crane.
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan specifies the areas of the deck where the mobile auxiliary crane is permitted to be positioned, travel, and operate, and the parameters and limitations of such movements and operation.
</P>
<P>(iv) The deck is marked to identify the permitted areas for positioning, travel, and operation.
</P>
<P>(v) The plan specifies the dynamic and environmental conditions that must be present for use of the plan.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the dynamic and environmental conditions in paragraph (n)(6)(v) of this section are exceeded, the mobile auxiliary crane is attached physically or corralled in accordance with Option (1), Option (2) or Option (4) of paragraph (n)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) The barge, pontoons, vessel or other means of flotation used:
</P>
<P>(i) Are structurally sufficient to withstand the static and dynamic loads of the crane/derrick when operating at the crane/derrick's maximum rated capacity with all anticipated deck loads and ballasted compartments.
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a subdivided hull with one or more longitudinal watertight bulkheads for reducing the free surface effect.
</P>
<P>(iii) Have access to void compartments to allow for inspection and pumping.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1438" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1438   Overhead &amp; gantry cranes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permanently installed overhead and gantry cranes.</I> The requirements of § 1910.179, except for § 1910.179(b)(1), and not the requirements of this subpart CC, apply to the following equipment when used in construction and permanently installed in a facility: overhead and gantry cranes, including semigantry, cantilever gantry, wall cranes, storage bridge cranes, and others having the same fundamental characteristics.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Overhead and gantry cranes that are not permanently installed in a facility.</I> (1) This paragraph applies to the following equipment when used in construction and not permanently installed in a facility: Overhead and gantry cranes, overhead/bridge cranes, semigantry, cantilever gantry, wall cranes, storage bridge cranes, launching gantry cranes, and similar equipment having the same fundamental characteristics, irrespective of whether it travels on tracks, wheels, or other means.
</P>
<P>(2) The following requirements apply to equipment identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 1926.1400 through 1926.1414; §§ 1926.1417 through 1926.1425; § 1926.1426(d), §§ 1926.1427 through 1926.1434; §§ 1926.1437, 1926.1439, and 1926.1441.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following portions of § 1910.179:
</P>
<P>(A) Paragraphs (b)(5),(6),(7); (e)(1),(3),(5),(6); (f)(1),(4); (g); (h)(1),(3); (k); and (n) of § 1910.179.
</P>
<P>(B) The definitions in § 1910.179(a) except for “hoist” and “load.” For those words, the definitions in § 1926.1401 apply.
</P>
<P>(C) Section 1910.179(b)(2), but only where the equipment identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section (§ 1926.1438) was manufactured before September 19, 2001.
</P>
<P>(iii) For equipment manufactured on or after September 19, 2001, the following sections of ASME B30.2-2005 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6) apply: 2-1.3.1; 2-1.3.2; 2-1.4.1; 2-1.6; 2-1.7.2; 2-1.8.2; 2-1.9.1; 2-1.9.2; 2-1.11; 2-1.12.2; 2-1.13.7; 2-1.14.2; 2-1.14.3; 2-1.14.5; 2-1.15.; 2-2.2.2; 2-3.2.1.1. In addition, 2-3.5 applies, except in 2-3.5.1(b), “29 CFR 1910.147” is substituted for “ANSI Z244.1.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1439" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1439   Dedicated pile drivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of subpart CC apply to dedicated pile drivers, except as specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 1926.1416(d)(3) (Anti two-blocking device) does not apply.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 1926.1416(e)(4) (Load weighing and similar devices) applies only to dedicated pile drivers manufactured after November 8, 2011.
</P>
<P>(d) In § 1926.1433, only §§ 1926.1433(d) and (e) apply to dedicated pile drivers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1440" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1440   Sideboom cranes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this standard apply, except § 1926.1402 (Ground conditions), § 1926.1415 (Safety devices), § 1926.1416 (Operational aids), and § 1926.1427 (Operator qualification and certification).
</P>
<P>(b) Section 1926.1426 (Free fall and controlled load lowering) applies, except § 1926.1426(a)(2)(i). Sideboom cranes in which the boom is designed to free fall (live boom) are permitted only if manufactured prior to November 8, 2010.
</P>
<P>(c) Sideboom cranes mounted on wheel or crawler tractors must meet all of the following requirements of ASME B30.14-2004 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 1926.6):
</P>
<P>(1) Section 14-1.1 (“Load Ratings”).
</P>
<P>(2) Section 14-1.3 (“Side Boom Tractor Travel”).
</P>
<P>(3) Section 14-1.5 (“Ropes and Reeving Accessories”).
</P>
<P>(4) Section 14-1.7.1 (“Booms”).
</P>
<P>(5) Section 14-1.7.2 (“General Requirements—Exhaust Gases”).
</P>
<P>(6) Section 14-1.7.3 (“General Requirements—Stabilizers (Wheel-Type Side Boom Tractors)”).
</P>
<P>(7) Section 14-1.7.4 (“General Requirements—Welded Construction”).
</P>
<P>(8) Section 14-1.7.6 (“General Requirements—Clutch and Brake Protection”).
</P>
<P>(9) Section 14-2.2.2 (“Testing—Rated Load Test”), except that it applies only to equipment that has been altered or modified.
</P>
<P>(10) In section 14-3.1.2 (“Operator Qualifications”), paragraph (a), except the phrase “When required by law.”
</P>
<P>(11) In section 14-3.1.3 (“Operating Practices”), paragraphs (e), (f)(1)-(f)(4), (f)(6), (f)(7), (h), and (i).
</P>
<P>(12) In section 14-3.2.3 (“Moving the Load”), paragraphs (j), (l), and (m).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1441" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1441   Equipment with a rated hoisting/lifting capacity of 2,000 pounds or less.</HEAD>
<P>The following paragraphs of this section specify requirements for employers using equipment with a maximum rated hoisting/lifting capacity of 2,000 pounds or less.
</P>
<P>(a) The employer using this equipment must comply with the following provisions of this subpart: § 1926.1400 (Scope); § 1926.1401 (Definitions); § 1926.1402 (Ground conditions); § 1926.1403 (Assembly/disassembly—selection of manufacturer or employer procedures); § 1926.1406 (Assembly/disassembly—employer procedures); §§ 1926.1407 through 1926.1411 (Power line safety); § 1926.1412(c) (<I>Post-assembly</I>); §§ 1926.1413 through 1926.1414 (Wire rope); § 1926.1418 (Authority to stop operation); §§ 1926.1419 through 1926.1422 (Signals); § 1926.1423 (Fall protection); § 1926.1425 (Keeping clear of the load) (except for § 1926.1425(c)(3) (qualified rigger)); § 1926.1426 (Free fall and controlled load lowering); § 1926.1432 (Multiple crane/derrick lifts—supplemental requirements); § 1926.1434 (Equipment modifications); § 1926.1435 (Tower cranes); § 1926.1436 (Derricks); § 1926.1437 (Floating cranes/derricks and land cranes/derricks on barges); § 1926.1438 (Overhead &amp; gantry cranes).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assembly/disassembly.</I> (1) In addition to compliance with §§ 1926.1403 (Assembly/disassembly—selection of manufacturer or employer procedures) and 1926.1406 (Assembly/disassembly—employer procedures), the employer must also comply with § 1926.1441(b)(2)-(3).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Components and configuration.</I> The employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The selection of components, and the configuration of the equipment, that affect the capacity or safe operation of the equipment complies with either the:
</P>
<P>(A) Manufacturer instructions, recommendations, limitations, and specifications. When these documents and information are unavailable, a registered professional engineer familiar with the type of equipment involved must approve, in writing, the selection and configuration of components; or
</P>
<P>(B) Approved modifications that meet the requirements of § 1926.1434 (Equipment modifications).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Post-assembly inspection.</I> Upon completion of assembly, the equipment is inspected to ensure that it is in compliance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section (<I>see</I> § 1926.1412(c) for post-assembly inspection requirements).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Manufacturer prohibitions.</I> The employer must comply with applicable manufacturer prohibitions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operation—procedures.</I> (1) The employer must comply with all manufacturer procedures applicable to the operational functions of the equipment, including its use with attachments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unavailable operation procedures.</I> The employer must:
</P>
<P>(i) When the manufacturer's procedures are unavailable, develop, and ensure compliance with, all procedures necessary for the safe operation of the equipment and attachments.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that procedures for the operational controls are developed by a qualified person.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that procedures related to the capacity of the equipment are developed and signed by a registered professional engineer familiar with the equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Accessibility.</I> The employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The load chart is available to the operator at the control station;
</P>
<P>(ii) Procedures applicable to the operation of the equipment, recommended operating speeds, special hazard warnings, instructions, and operator's manual are readily available for use by the operator.
</P>
<P>(iii) When rated capacities are available at the control station only in electronic form and a failure occurs that makes the rated capacities inaccessible, the operator immediately ceases operations or follows safe shut-down procedures until the rated capacities (in electronic or other form) are available.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safety devices and operational aids.</I> (1) The employer must ensure that safety devices and operational aids that are part of the original equipment are maintained in accordance with manufacturer procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Anti two-blocking.</I> The employer must ensure that equipment covered by this section manufactured more than one year after November 8, 2010 have either an anti two-block device that meets the requirements of § 1926.1416(d)(3), or is designed so that, in the event of a two-block situation, no damage or load failure will occur (for example, by using a power unit that stalls in response to a two-block situation).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Operator qualifications.</I> The employer must train each operator, prior to operating the equipment, on the safe operation of the type of equipment the operator will be using.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Signal person qualifications.</I> The employer must train each signal person in the proper use of signals applicable to the use of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Inspections.</I> The employer must ensure that equipment is inspected in accordance with manufacturer procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hoisting personnel.</I> The employer must ensure that equipment covered by this section is not used to hoist personnel.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Design.</I> The employer must ensure that the equipment is designed by a qualified engineer.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1442" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1442   Railroad roadway maintenance machines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Employers using equipment covered by this subpart that meets the definition of “roadway maintenance machine,” as defined in 49 CFR 214.7, must comply with the requirements in this subpart, except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) through (7) of this section when subject to the authority of the Federal Railroad Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Operator certification, training, and evaluation.</I> The requirements in §§ 1926.1427 (Operator qualification and certification) and 1926.1430 (Training) do not apply. The qualification and training requirements contained in §§ 1926.1436(q) (Qualification and training for derricks), 1926.1440(a) (Sideboom cranes), and 1926.1441(a) (Equipment with a rated hoisting/lifting capacity of 2,000 pounds or less) do not apply.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rail clamps, rail stops, and work-area controls.</I> (i) The requirement for rail clamps in § 1926.1415(a)(6) does not apply;
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement for rail stops in § 1926.1415(a)(6) does not apply; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The work-area controls specified by § 1926.1424(a)(2) do not apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Out-of-level work.</I> The restrictions on out-of-level work, and the requirements for crane-level indicators and inspections of those indicators (including the requirements in §§ 1926.1402(b), 1926.1412(d)(1)(xi), and 1926.1415(a)(1)), do not apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Dragging a load sideways.</I> The prohibition in § 1926.1417(q) on dragging a load sideways does not apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Boom-hoist limiting device.</I> The requirement in § 1926.1416(d)(1) for a boom-hoist limiting device does not apply to roadway maintenance machines when the cranes use hydraulic cylinders to raise the booms.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Manufacturer guidance for modifications covered by § 1926.1434.</I> The requirements to follow the manufacturer's guidance set forth in § 1926.1434 do not apply if the employer is subject to the requirements of 49 CFR part 214.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Other manufacturer guidance.</I> The requirements to follow the manufacturer's guidance, instructions, procedures, prohibitions, limitations, or specifications, set forth in § 1926.1404(j), (m), or (q); § 1926.1415(a)(6); § 1926.1417(a), (r), (u), or (aa); § 1926.1433(d)(1)(i); or § 1926.1441 do not apply if the employer is subject to the requirements of 49 CFR part 214.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 57122, Sept. 15, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1926.1443" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1926.1443   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>Should a court of competent jurisdiction hold any provision(s) of subpart CC to be invalid, such action shall not affect any other provision of the subpart.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010. Redesignated at 85 FR 57122, Sept. 15, 2020]







</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.45.37" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart CC of Part 1926—Standard Hand Signals

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er09au10.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er09au10.004.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.45.38" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart CC of Part 1926—Assembly/Disassembly: Sample Procedures for Minimizing the Risk of Unintended Dangerous Boom Movement
</HEAD>
<P>1. Section 1926.1404(f)(1) provides that when pins (or similar devices) are being removed, employees must not be under the boom, jib, or other components, except where the requirements of § 1926.1404(f)(2) are met. The exception in § 1926.1404(f)(2) applies when the employer demonstrates that site constraints require one or more employees to be under the boom, jib, or other components when pins (or similar devices) are being removed. In such a situation, the A/D director must implement procedures that minimize the risk of unintended dangerous movement and minimize the duration and extent of exposure under the boom.
</P>
<P>The following scenario is an example of how the exception applies: A boom cannot be disassembled on the ground because of aboveground piping (as might be found, for example, in an oil refinery) that precludes lowering the boom to the ground. The boom must therefore be disassembled in the air, and the employees who remove the pins must perform that work from an aerial lift whose base is positioned on one side (the near side) of the boom. To gain access to the pins on the far side, the aerial lift basket must move under the boom, since, due to lack of room, the aerial lift cannot be repositioned on the far side. Due to lack of room, the aerial lift cannot be repositioned on the far side, so the aerial basket must move under the boom to gain access to the pins on the far side.
</P>
<P>To minimize the risk of unintended dangerous movement while the pins are removed, the A/D director uses an assist crane that is rigged to support the boom section that is being detached, using particular care to ensure that the section end that is near the employee(s) removing the pins is well supported. The duration and extent of exposure is minimized by removing the far side pins first, moving the aerial lift basket as soon as possible to the near side so that the employees are no longer under the boom, and then removing the near side pins.
</P>
<P>2. Section 1926.1404(h)(6)(i) provides that, during assembly/disassembly, the center of gravity of the load must be identified if that is necessary for the method used for maintaining stability. Section 1926.1404(h)(6)(ii) states that, where there is insufficient information to accurately identify the center of gravity, measures designed to prevent unintended dangerous movement resulting from an inaccurate identification of the center of gravity must be used.
</P>
<P>An example of the application of § 1926.1404(h)(6)(ii) is as follows: The boom is assembled by lowering boom sections sequentially into place using an assist crane. The A/D director's plan is to keep the boom sections stable while they are lowered into place by attaching the assist crane hoist line above the center of gravity of each section. However, in assembling the non-symmetrical top section of the boom, the A/D director is not able to determine where to attach the assist crane hoist line so that it is above the center of gravity. In this situation, before raising the section, all personnel are kept clear of the section and the section is first raised a few inches to determine whether it tips when raised (if it did tip, it would indicate it is not rigged over the center of gravity). If this occurs, the hoist line is repositioned and the procedure repeated (with employees kept clear of the section while it is raised) until the A/D director determines that it is rigged over the center of gravity and can be moved into place without dangerous movement.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.29.26.45.39" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart CC of Part 1926—Operator Certification: Written Examination: Technical Knowledge Criteria
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains information for employers, accredited testing organizations, auditors and government entities developing criteria for a written examination to test an individual's technical knowledge relating to the operation of cranes.
</P>
<P>(a) General technical information.
</P>
<P>(1) The functions and limitations of the crane and attachments.
</P>
<P>(2) Wire rope:
</P>
<P>(i) Background information necessary to understand the inspection and removal from service criteria in § 1926.1413 and § 1926.1414.
</P>
<P>(ii) Capacity and when multi-part rope is needed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Relationship between line pull and safe working load.
</P>
<P>(iv) How to determine the manufacturer's recommended rope for the crane.
</P>
<P>(3) Rigging devices and their use, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Slings.
</P>
<P>(ii) Spreaders.
</P>
<P>(iii) Lifting beams.
</P>
<P>(iv) Wire rope fittings, such as clips, shackles and wedge sockets.
</P>
<P>(v) Saddles (softeners).
</P>
<P>(vi) Clamps (beams).
</P>
<P>(4) The technical limitations of protective measures against electrical hazards:
</P>
<P>(i) Grounding.
</P>
<P>(ii) Proximity warning devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Insulated links.
</P>
<P>(iv) Boom cages.
</P>
<P>(v) Proximity to electric power lines, radii, and microwave structures.
</P>
<P>(5) The effects of load share and load transfer in multi-crane lifts.
</P>
<P>(6) Basic crane terms.
</P>
<P>(7) The basics of machine power flow systems.
</P>
<P>(i) Mechanical.
</P>
<P>(ii) Electrical.
</P>
<P>(iii) Pneumatic.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hydraulic.
</P>
<P>(v) Combination.
</P>
<P>(8) The significance of the instruments and gauge readings.
</P>
<P>(9) The effects of thermal expansion and contraction in hydraulic cylinders.
</P>
<P>(10) Background information necessary to understand the requirements of pre-operation and inspection.
</P>
<P>(11) How to use the safety devices and operational aids required under § 1926.1415 and § 1926.1416.
</P>
<P>(12) The difference between duty-cycle and lifting operations.
</P>
<P>(13) How to calculate net capacity for every possible configuration of the equipment using the manufacturer's load chart.
</P>
<P>(14) How to use manufacturer-approved attachments and their effect on the equipment.
</P>
<P>(15) How to obtain dimensions, weight, and center of gravity of the load.
</P>
<P>(16) The effects of dynamic loading from:
</P>
<P>(i) Wind.
</P>
<P>(ii) Stopping and starting.
</P>
<P>(iii) Impact loading.
</P>
<P>(iv) Moving with the load.
</P>
<P>(17) The effect of side loading.
</P>
<P>(18) The principles of backward stability.
</P>
<P>(b) Site information.
</P>
<P>(1) How to identify the suitability of the supporting ground/surface to support the expected loads of the operation. Elements include:
</P>
<P>(i) Weaknesses below the surface (such as voids, tanks, loose fill).
</P>
<P>(ii) Weaknesses on the surface (such as retaining walls, slopes, excavations, depressions).
</P>
<P>(2) Proper use of mats, blocking/cribbing, outriggers, stabilizers, or crawlers.
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of site hazards such as power lines, piping, and traffic.
</P>
<P>(4) How to review operation plans with supervisors and other workers (such as the signal person), including how to determine working height, boom length, load radius, and travel clearance.
</P>
<P>(5) How to determine if there is adequate room for extension of crawlers or outriggers/stabilizers and counterweights.
</P>
<P>(c) Operations.
</P>
<P>(1) How to pick, carry, swing and place the load smoothly and safely on rubber tires and on outriggers/stabilizers or crawlers (where applicable).
</P>
<P>(2) How to communicate at the site with supervisors, the crew and the signal person.
</P>
<P>(3) Proper procedures and methods of reeving wire ropes and methods of reeving multiple-part lines and selecting the proper load block and/or ball.
</P>
<P>(4) How to react to changes in conditions that affect the safe operation of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(5) How to shut down and secure the equipment properly when leaving it unattended.
</P>
<P>(6) Know how to apply the manufacturer's specifications for operating in various weather conditions, and understand how environmental conditions affect the safe operation of the equipment.
</P>
<P>(7) How to properly level the equipment.
</P>
<P>(8) How to verify the weight of the load and rigging prior to initiating the lift.
</P>
<P>(9) How to determine where the load is to be picked up and placed and how to verify the radii.
</P>
<P>(10) Know basic rigging procedures.
</P>
<P>(11) How to carry out the shift inspection required in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(12) Know that the following operations require specific procedures and skill levels:
</P>
<P>(i) Multi-crane lifts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hoisting personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Clamshell/dragline operations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pile driving and extracting.
</P>
<P>(v) Concrete operations, including poured-in-place and tilt-up.
</P>
<P>(vi) Demolition operations.
</P>
<P>(vii) Operations on water.
</P>
<P>(viii) Magnet operations.
</P>
<P>(ix) Multi-drum operations.
</P>
<P>(13) Know the proper procedures for operating safely under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Traveling with suspended loads.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approaching a two-block condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Operating near power lines.
</P>
<P>(iv) Hoisting personnel.
</P>
<P>(v) Using other than full outrigger/crawler or stabilizer extensions.
</P>
<P>(vi) Lifting loads from beneath the surface of the water.
</P>
<P>(vii) Using various approved counterweight configurations.
</P>
<P>(viii) Handling loads out of the operator's vision (“operating in the blind”).
</P>
<P>(ix) Using electronic communication systems for signal communication.
</P>
<P>(14) Know the proper procedures for load control and the use of hand-held tag lines.
</P>
<P>(15) Know the emergency response procedure for:
</P>
<P>(i) Fires.
</P>
<P>(ii) Power line contact.
</P>
<P>(iii) Loss of stability.
</P>
<P>(iv) Control malfunction.
</P>
<P>(v) Two-blocking.
</P>
<P>(vi) Overload.
</P>
<P>(vii) Carrier or travel malfunction.
</P>
<P>(16) Know how to properly use outriggers and stabilizers in accordance with manufacturer specifications.
</P>
<P>(d) Use of load charts.
</P>
<P>(1) Know the terminology necessary to use load charts.
</P>
<P>(2) Know how to ensure that the load chart is the appropriate chart for the equipment in its particular configuration and application.
</P>
<P>(3) Know how to use load charts. This includes knowing:
</P>
<P>(i) The operational limitations of load charts and footnotes.
</P>
<P>(ii) How to relate the chart to the configuration of the crane, crawlers, or outriggers/stabilizers extended or retracted, jib erected or offset, and various counterweight configurations.
</P>
<P>(iii) The difference between structural capacity and capacity limited by stability.
</P>
<P>(iv) What is included in capacity ratings.
</P>
<P>(v) The range diagram and its relationship to the load chart.
</P>
<P>(vi) The work area chart and its relationship to the load chart.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where to find and how to use the “parts-of-line” information.
</P>
<P>(4) Know how to use the load chart together with the load indicators and/or load moment devices.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.30" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.1.31.26.1.40" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1926—Designations for General Industry Standards Incorporated Into Body of Construction Standards
</HEAD>
<HD3>New Designations for General Industry Standards Incorporated Into Body of Construction Standards
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">1926 Designations for Applicable 1910 Standards
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">New § no. and/or para.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Source § no. and/or para.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.20 (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.5 (a)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (c)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (d)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.32(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.12(b)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.34 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.36(b)(4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.37 (q)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (k)(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.38(a)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.50(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.151(c)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.51(a)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.141(a)(2)(v)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (d)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (h)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (f) (2)-(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d) (1)-(3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (g)(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (a)(5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (e)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.53 (c)-(r)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.96
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.57 (f)-(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.119
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.66 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.107 (a)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Do.] (b) (1)-(10)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (c)-(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c)-(d)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (e)-(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (h)-(j)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.136
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.97 (a)-(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.156(e)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (f)-(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] Subpt. L App. E
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.98</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.156(f)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.102(a) (6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.133(a) (2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.103 (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.134 (a)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (b)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (f)-(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)-(g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.150(c)(1) (xi)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.157 (g)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (xii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (g)(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (xiii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c)(4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (xiv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (e)(3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.152 (b)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.107(e)(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.106(j)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (b)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (j)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (k) (1)-(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (g)(4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (k)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (a)(22)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.153(a) (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.110(a)(4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (m) (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)(7)(vii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)(7)(viii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (n)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (b)(5)(iii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (o) </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)(10)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.156</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.160
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.162
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.164
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.165
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.200(c)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.145(d)(4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.250(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.176(c)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (d) (1)-(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.30(a) (1), (2), (4) and (5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.251(a)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.184(a)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (a)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (b)(6)(i)-(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (e)(3)(i)-(ii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (c)(6)-(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c) (2)-(3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (c)(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c)(5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (c)(9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c)(7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (c)(10)-(12)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (c)(10)-(12)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (c)(13)-(15)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.](f) (2)-(4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (d)(3)-(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (h) (2)-(5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (e)(3)-(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (i) (2)-(4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (e)(6)-(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (i) (6)-(7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (e)(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (i)(9)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.300(b) (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.212(a)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (a)(3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (a)(5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (b)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.215(b)(9)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (8) and (9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (b) (3) and (4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.302(b)(10)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.244(b)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.303(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.215(a) (2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.304 (g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.213(h)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.305(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.244(a)(2) (iii)-(viii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.306</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.169
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.307</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.219
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.350(a) (10)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.253(b) (4)(iii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (2)(ii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (12)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.101(b)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.353(b)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.252(b)(4)(iv)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.416 (a)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.333(c)(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> [Do.] (f) (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c)(10)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.334(a)(1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (a)(2)(iii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (a)(5)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (5)-(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (b) (1)-(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (7)-(9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (c) (1)-(3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (10)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (d)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.417(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.333(b)(2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.451(a) (22)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.28(a) (15)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (23)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (18)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (24)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (20)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.453 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.29(a)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (c)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.600(a)(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.176(f)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.602(c)(1) (vii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.178(m) (3)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">   [Do.] (viii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> [Do.] (12)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.900 (s)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.109 (g)(2)(ii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  [Do.] (t)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (h)(3)(ii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.905(u)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (e)(3)(iii)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.914(aa)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  [Do.] (a)(12)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1050(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.21(g)(9)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1071</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.401
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1072</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.402
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1076</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.410
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1080</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.420
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1081</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.421
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1082</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.422
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1083</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.423
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1084</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.424
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1085</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.425
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1086</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.426
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1087</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.427
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1090</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.430
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1091</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.440
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1092</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.441
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1004
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1006
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1108</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1008
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1009
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1114</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1014
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1116</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1016
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1017
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1118</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1128</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1028
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1029
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1044
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1045
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1047
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1926.1148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1910.1048</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35305, June 30, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 9255, Mar. 7, 1996; 75 FR 48135, Aug. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1927" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1927 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1928" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1928—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH STANDARDS FOR AGRICULTURE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 4, 6, and 8 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754), 8-76 (41 FR 25059), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), 1-90 (55 FR 9033), 6-96 (62 FR 111), 3-2000 (65 FR 50017), 5-2002 (67 FR 65008), 4-2010 (75 FR 55355), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393), as applicable; and 29 CFR 1911.
</PSPACE><P>Section 1928.21 also issued under 49 U.S.C. 1801-1819 and 5 U.S.C. 553.


</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 18257, Apr. 25, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1928.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1928.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains occupational safety and health standards applicable to agricultural operations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Applicability of Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1928.21" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1928.21   Applicable standards in 29 CFR part 1910.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following standards in part 1910 of this chapter shall apply to agricultural operations: 
</P>
<P>(1) Temporary labor camps—§ 1910.142; 
</P>
<P>(2) Storage and handling of anhydrous ammonia—§ 1910.111 (a) and (b); 
</P>
<P>(3) Logging operations—§ 1910.266; 
</P>
<P>(4) Slow-moving vehicles—§ 1910.145;
</P>
<P>(5) Hazard communication—§ 1910.1200;
</P>
<P>(6) Cadmium—§ 1910.1027. 
</P>
<P>(7) Retention of DOT markings, placards and labels—§ 1910.1201. 
</P>
<P>(8) COVID-19—§ 1910.501, but only with respect to—
</P>
<P>(i) Agricultural establishments where eleven (11) or more employees are engaged on any given day in hand-labor operations in the field; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Agricultural establishments that maintain a temporary labor camp, regardless of how many employees are engaged on any given day in hand-labor operations in the field.
</P>
<P>(b) Except to the extent specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the standards contained in subparts B through T and subpart Z of part 1910 of this title do not apply to agricultural operations. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Section 1928.21 contains a collection of information which has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under OMB control number 1218-0072) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 18257, Apr. 25, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 38569, July 29, 1977; 52 FR 31886, Aug. 24, 1987; 59 FR 36700, July 19, 1994; 59 FR 51748, Oct. 12, 1994; 61 FR 5510, Feb. 13, 1996; 61 FR 9255, Mar. 7, 1996; 86 FR 61555, Nov. 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Roll-Over Protective Structures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1928.51" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1928.51   Roll-over protective structures (ROPS) for tractors used in agricultural operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural tractor</I> means a two-or four-wheel drive type vehicle, or track vehicle, of more than 20 engine horsepower, designed to furnish the power to pull, carry, propel, or drive implements that are designed for agriculture. All self-propelled implements are excluded. 
</P>
<P><I>Low profile tractor</I> means a wheeled tractor possessing the following characteristics: 
</P>
<P>(1) The front wheel spacing is equal to the rear wheel spacing, as measured from the centerline of each right wheel to the centerline of the corresponding left wheel. 
</P>
<P>(2) The clearance from the bottom of the tractor chassis to the ground does not exceed 18 inches. 
</P>
<P>(3) The highest point of the hood does not exceed 60 inches, and 
</P>
<P>(4) The tractor is designed so that the operator straddles the transmission when seated. 
</P>
<P><I>Tractor weight</I> includes the protective frame or enclosure, all fuels, and other components required for normal use of the tractor. Ballast shall be added as necessary to achieve a minimum total weight of 110 lb. (50.0 kg.) per maximum power take-off horsepower at the rated engine speed or the maximum gross vehicle weight specified by the manufacturer, whichever is the greatest. Front end weight shall be at least 25 percent of the tractor test weight. In case power take-off horsepower is not available, 95 percent of net engine flywheel horsepower shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> Agricultural tractors manufactured after October 25, 1976, shall meet the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Roll-over protective structures (ROPS).</I> ROPS shall be provided by the employer for each tractor operated by an employee. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, a ROPS used on wheel-type tractors shall meet the test and performance requirements of 29 CFR 1928.52, 1928.53, or 1926.1002 as appropriate. A ROPS used on track-type tractors shall meet the test and performance requirements of 29 CFR 1926.1001.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Seatbelts.</I> (i) Where ROPS are required by this section, the employer shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) Provide each tractor with a seatbelt which meets the requirements of this paragraph; 
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that each employee uses such seatbelt while the tractor is moving; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that each employee tightens the seatbelt sufficiently to confine the employee to the protected area provided by the ROPS. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each seatbelt shall meet the requirements set forth in Society of Automotive Engineers Standard SAE J4C, 1965 Motor Vehicle Seat Belt Assemblies, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> except as noted hereafter: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Copies may be obtained from the Society of Automotive Engineers, 400 Commonwealth Drive, Warrendale, PA 15096.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) Where a suspended seat is used, the seatbelt shall be fastened to the movable portion of the seat to accommodate a ride motion of the operator. 
</P>
<P>(B) The seatbelt anchorage shall be capable of withstanding a static tensile load of 1,000 pounds (453.6 kg) at 45 degrees to the horizontal equally divided between the anchorages. The seat mounting shall be capable of withstanding this load plus a load equal to four times the weight of all applicable seat components applied at 45 degrees to the horizontal in a forward and upward direction. In addition, the seat mounting shall be capable of withstanding a 500 pound (226.8 kg) belt load plus two times the weight of all applicable seat components both applied at 45 degrees to the horizontal in and upward and rearward direction. Floor and seat deformation is acceptable provided there is not structural failure or release of the seat adjusted mechanism or other locking device. 
</P>
<P>(C) The seatbelt webbing material shall have a resistance to acids, alkalies, mildew, aging, moisture, and sunlight equal to or better than that of untreated polyester fiber. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Protection from spillage.</I> Batteries, fuel tanks, oil reservoirs, and coolant systems shall be constructed and located or sealed to assure that spillage will not occur which may come in contact with the operator in the event of an upset. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection from sharp surfaces.</I> All sharp edges and corners at the operator's station shall be designed to minimize operator injury in the event of an upset. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exempted uses.</I> Paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section do not apply to the following uses: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Low profile</I> tractors while they are used in orchards, vineyards or hop yards where the vertical clearance requirements would substantially interfere with normal operations, and while their use is incidental to the work performed therein. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Low profile</I> tractors while used inside a farm building or greenhouse in which the vertical clearance is insufficient to allow a ROPS equipped tractor to operate, and while their use is incidental to the work performed therein. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Tractors while used with mounted equipment which is incompatible with ROPS (e.g. cornpickers, cotton strippers, vegetable pickers and fruit harvesters). 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Remounting.</I> Where ROPS are removed for any reason, they shall be remounted so as to meet the requirements of this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> Each ROPS shall have a label, permanently affixed to the structure, which states: 
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturer's or fabricator's name and address; 
</P>
<P>(2) ROPS model number, if any; 
</P>
<P>(3) Tractor makes, models, or series numbers that the structure is designed to fit; and 
</P>
<P>(4) That the ROPS model was tested in accordance with the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operating instructions.</I> Every employee who operates an agricultural tractor shall be informed of the operating practices contained in appendix A of this part and of any other practices dictated by the work environment. Such information shall be provided at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 18257, Apr. 25, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 9255, Mar. 7, 1996; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 70 FR 77003, Dec. 29, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1928.52" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.3.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1928.52   Protective frames for wheel-type agricultural tractors—test procedures and performance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to establish the test and performance requirements for a protective frame designed for wheel-type agricultural tractors to minimize the frequency and severity of operator injury resulting from accidental upsets. General requirements for the protection of operators are specified in 29 CFR 1928.51.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of tests.</I> All protective frames for wheel-type agricultural tractors shall be of a model that has been tested as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Laboratory test.</I> A laboratory energy-absorption test, either static or dynamic, under repeatable and controlled loading, to permit analysis of the protective frame for compliance with the performance requirements of this standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Field-upset test.</I> A field-upset test under controlled conditions, both to the side and rear, to verify the effectiveness of the protective system under actual dynamic conditions. Such testing may be omitted when:
</P>
<P>(i) The analysis of the protective-frame static-energy absorption test results indicates that both <I>FER</I><E T="52">is</E> and <I>FER</I><E T="52">ir</E> (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section) exceed 1.15; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The analysis of the protective-frame dynamic-energy absorption test results indicates that the frame can withstand an impact of 15 percent greater than the impact it is required to withstand for the tractor weight as shown in Figure C-7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Descriptions</I>—(1) <I>Protective frame.</I> A protective frame is a structure comprised of uprights mounted to the tractor, extending above the operator's seat. A typical two-post frame is shown in Figure C-1.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Overhead weather shield.</I> When an overhead weather shield is available for attachment to the protective frame, it may be in place during tests provided it does not contribute to the strength of the protective frame.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Overhead falling object protection.</I> When an overhead falling-object protection device is available for attachment to the protective frame, it may be in place during tests provided it does not contribute to the strength of the protective frame.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Test procedures</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The tractor weight used shall be that of the heaviest tractor model on which the protective frame is to be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each test required under this section shall be performed on a new protective frame. Mounting connections of the same design shall be used during each such test.
</P>
<P>(iii) Instantaneous deflection shall be measured and recorded for each segment of the test; see paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section for permissible deflections.
</P>
<P>(iv) The seat-reference point (“<I>SRP</I>”) in Figure C-3 is that point where the vertical line that is tangent to the most forward point at the longitudinal seat centerline of the seat back, and the horizontal line that is tangent to the highest point of the seat cushion, intersect in the longitudinal seat section. The seat-reference point shall be determined with the seat unloaded and adjusted to the highest and most rearward position provided for seated operation of the tractor.
</P>
<P>(v) When the centerline of the seat is off the longitudinal center, the frame loading shall be on the side with the least space between the centerline of seat and the protective frame.
</P>
<P>(vi) Low-temperature characteristics of the protective frame or its material shall be demonstrated as specified in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) Rear input energy tests (static, dynamic, or field-upset) need not be performed on frames mounted to tractors having four driven wheels and more than one-half their unballasted weight on the front wheels.
</P>
<P>(viii) Accuracy table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measurements
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Accuracy
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Deflection of the frame, in. (mm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±5 percent of the deflection measured.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vertical weight, lb (kg)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±5 percent of the weight measured.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Force applied to the frame, pounds force (newtons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±5 percent of the force measured.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimensions of the critical zone, in. (mm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.5 in. (12.5 mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Static test procedure.</I> (i) The following test conditions shall be met:
</P>
<P>(A) The laboratory mounting base shall be the tractor chassis for which the protective frame is designed, or its equivalent;
</P>
<P>(B) The protective frame shall be instrumented with the necessary equipment to obtain the required load-deflection data at the locations and directions specified in Figures C-2 and C-3; and
</P>
<P>(C) When the protective frame is of a one- or two-upright design, mounting connections shall be instrumented with the necessary equipment to record the required force to be used in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(E) and (J) of this section. Instrumentation shall be placed on mounting connections before installation load is applied.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2><I>W</I> = Tractor weight (see 29 CFR 1928.51(a)) in lb (<I>W′</I> in kg); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">is</E> = Energy input to be absorbed during side loading in ft-lb (<I>E′</I><E T="54">is</E> in J [joules]); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">is</E> = 723 + 0.4 <I>W</I> (<I>E′</I><E T="54">is</E> = 100 + 0.12 <I>W′</I>); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">ir</E> = Energy input to be absorbed during rear loading in ft-lb (<I>E′</I><E T="54">ir</E> in J); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">ir</E> = 0.47 <I>W</I> (<I>E′</I><E T="54">ir</E> = 0.14 <I>W′</I>); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L</I> = Static load, lbf [pounds force], (N) [newtons]; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>D</I> = Deflection under <I>L</I>, in. (mm); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L-D</I> = Static load-deflection diagram; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L</I><E T="54">max</E> = Maximum observed static load; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Load Limit</I> = Point on a continuous <I>L-D</I> curve where the observed static load is 0.8 <I>L</I><E T="54">max</E> on the down slope of the curve (see Figure C-5); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">u</E> = Strain energy absorbed by the frame in ft-lb (J); area under the <I>L-D</I> curve; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FER</I> = Factor of energy ratio; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FER</I><E T="54">is</E> = <I>E</I><E T="54">u</E><I>E</I><E T="54">is</E>; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FER</I><E T="54">ir</E> = <I>E</I><E T="54">u</E><I>E</I><E T="54">ir</E>; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">b</E> = Maximum observed force in mounting connection under a static load, <I>L</I> lbf (N); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">u</E> = Ultimate force capacity of a mounting connection, lbf (N); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FSB</I> = Design margin for a mounting connection; and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FSB</I> = <I>P</I><E T="54">u</E><I>/P</I><E T="54">b</E></FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The test procedures shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Apply the rear load according to Figure C-3, and record <I>L</I> and <I>D</I> simultaneously. Rear-load application shall be distributed uniformly on the frame over an area perpendicular to the direction of load application, no greater than 160 sq. in. (1,032 sq. cm) in size, with the largest dimension no greater than 27 in. (686 mm). The load shall be applied to the upper extremity of the frame at the point that is midway between the center of the frame and the inside of the frame upright. When no structural cross member exists at the rear of the frame, a substitute test beam that does not add strength to the frame may be used to complete this test procedure. The test shall be stopped when:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The strain energy absorbed by the frame is equal to or greater than the required input energy E<E T="54">ir</E>; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Deflection of the frame exceeds the allowable deflection (see paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Frame load limit occurs before the allowable deflection is reached in rear load (see Figure C-5).
</P>
<P>(B) Using data obtained under paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, construct the <I>L-D</I> diagram shown in Figure C-5;
</P>
<P>(C) Calculate <I>E</I><E T="52">ir</E>;
</P>
<P>(D) Calculate <I>FER</I><E T="52">ir</E>;
</P>
<P>(E) Calculate <I>FSB</I> as required by paragraph (d)(2)(i)(C) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Apply the side-load tests on the same frame, and record <I>L</I> and <I>D</I> simultaneously. Side-load application shall be at the upper extremity of the frame at a 90° angle to the centerline of the vehicle. The side load shall be applied to the longitudinal side farthest from the point of rear-load application. Apply side load <I>L</I> as shown in Figure C-2. The test shall be stopped when:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The strain energy absorbed by the frame is equal to or greater than the required input energy <I>E</I><E T="52">is</E>; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Deflection of the frame exceeds the allowable deflection (see paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Frame load limit occurs before the allowable deflection is reached in side load (see Figure C-5).
</P>
<P>(G) Using data obtained in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(F) of this section, construct the <I>L-D</I> diagram as shown in Figure C-5;
</P>
<P>(H) Calculate <I>E</I><E T="52">is</E>;
</P>
<P>(I) Calculate <I>FER</I><E T="52">is</E>; and
</P>
<P>(J) Calculate <I>FSB</I> as required by paragraph (d)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dynamic test procedure.</I> (i) The following test conditions shall be met:
</P>
<P>(A) The protective frame and tractor shall be tested at the weight defined by 29 CFR 1928.51(a);
</P>
<P>(B) The dynamic loading shall be accomplished by using a 4,410-lb (2,000-kg) weight acting as a pendulum. The impact face of the weight shall be 27 ±1 in. by 27 ±1 in. (686 ±25 mm by 686 ±25 mm), and shall be constructed so that its center of gravity is within 1.0 in. (25.4 mm) of its geometric center. The weight shall be suspended from a pivot point 18 to 22 ft (5.5 to 6.7 m) above the point of impact on the frame, and shall be conveniently and safely adjustable for height (see Figure C-6);
</P>
<P>(C) For each phase of testing, the tractor shall be restrained from moving when the dynamic load is applied. The restraining members shall have strength no less than, and elasticity no greater than, that of 0.50-in. (12.7-mm) steel cable. Points of attachment for the restraining members shall be located an appropriate distance behind the rear axle and in front of the front axle to provide a 15° to 30° angle between a restraining cable and the horizontal. For impact from the rear, the restraining cables shall be located in the plane in which the center of gravity of the pendulum will swing, or alternatively, two sets of symmetrically located cables may be used at lateral locations on the tractor. For impact from the side, restraining cables shall be used as shown in Figures C-8 and C-9;
</P>
<P>(D) The front and rear wheel-tread settings, when adjustable, shall be at the position nearest to halfway between the minimum and maximum settings obtainable on the vehicle. When only two settings are obtainable, the minimum setting shall be used. The tires shall have no liquid ballast, and shall be inflated to the maximum operating pressure recommended by the manufacturer. With the specified tire inflation, the restraining cable shall be tightened to provide tire deflection of 6 to 8 percent of the nominal tire-section width. After the vehicle is restrained properly, a wooden beam no less than 6-in. × 6-in. (150-mm × 150-mm) in cross section shall be driven tightly against the appropriate wheels and clamped. For the test to the side, an additional wooden beam shall be placed as a prop against the wheel nearest to the operator's station, and shall be secured to the base so that it is held tightly against the wheel rim during impact. The length of this beam shall be chosen so that it is at an angle of 25° to 40° to the horizontal when it is positioned against the wheel rim. It shall have a length 20 to 25 times its depth, and a width two to three times its depth (see Figures C-8 and C-9);
</P>
<P>(E) Means shall be provided for indicating the maximum instantaneous deflection along the line of impact. A simple friction device is illustrated in Figure C-4;
</P>
<P>(F) No repairs or adjustments shall be made during the test; and
</P>
<P>(G) When any cables, props, or blocking shift or break during the test, the test shall be repeated.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>H</I> = Vertical height of the center of gravity of a 4,410-lb (2,000-kg) weight in in. (<I>H′</I> in mm). The weight shall be pulled back so that the height of its center of gravity above the point of impact is: <I>H</I> = 4.92 + 0.00190 <I>W</I> (<I>H′</I> = 125 ±0.170 <I>W′</I>) (see Figure C-7).
</P>
<P>(iii) The test procedures shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The frame shall be evaluated by imposing dynamic loading from the rear, followed by a load to the side on the same frame. The pendulum swinging from the height determined by paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section shall be used to impose the dynamic load. The position of the pendulum shall be so selected that the initial point of impact on the frame is in line with the arc of travel of the center of gravity of the pendulum. When a quick-release mechanism is used, it shall not influence the attitude of the block;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Impact at rear.</I> The tractor shall be restrained properly according to paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(C) and (d)(3)(i)(D) of this section. The tractor shall be positioned with respect to the pivot point of the pendulum so that the pendulum is 20° from the vertical prior to impact as shown in Figure C-8. The impact shall be applied to the upper extremity of the frame at the point that is midway between the centerline of the frame and the inside of the frame upright. When no structural cross member exists at the rear of the frame, a substitute test beam that does not add to the strength of the frame may be used to complete the test procedure; and
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Impact at side.</I> The blocking and restraining shall conform to paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(C) and (d)(3)(i)(D) of this section. The center point of impact shall be at the upper extremity of the frame at a point most likely to hit the ground first, and at a 90° to the centerline of the vehicle (see Figure C-9). The side impact shall be applied to the longitudinal side farthest from the point of rear impact.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Field-upset test procedure.</I> (i) The following test conditions shall be met:
</P>
<P>(A) The tractor shall be tested at the weight defined in 29 CFR 1928.51(a);
</P>
<P>(B) The following provisions address soil bank test conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) The test shall be conducted on a dry, firm soil bank. The soil in the impact area shall have an average cone index in the 0-in. to 6-in. (0-mm to 152-mm) layer of not less than 150. Cone index shall be determined according to American Society of Agricultural Engineers (“ASAE”) recommendation ASAE R313.1-1971 (“Soil cone penetrometer”), as reconfirmed in 1975, which is incorporated by reference. The incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The path of vehicle travel shall be 12° ±2° to the top edge of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) ASAE recommendation R313.1-1971, as reconfirmed in 1975, appears in the 1977 Agricultural Engineers Yearbook, or it may be examined at: Any OSHA Regional Office; the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-2625, Washington, DC 20210 (telephone: (202) 693-2350 (TTY number: (877) 889-5627)); or the National Archives and Records Administration (“NARA”). (For information on the availability of this material at NARA, telephone (202) 741-6030 or access the NARA Web site at <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) Copies may be purchased from the American Society of Agricultural Engineers, 2950 Niles Road, St. Joseph, MI 49085.
</P>
<P>(C) An 18-in. (457-mm) high ramp (see Figure C-10) shall be used to assist in upsetting the vehicle to the side; and
</P>
<P>(D) The front and rear wheel-tread settings, when adjustable, shall be at the position nearest to halfway between the minimum and maximum settings obtainable on the vehicle. When only two settings are obtainable, the minimum setting shall be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Field upsets shall be induced to the rear and side as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Rear upset shall be induced by engine power, with the tractor operating in gear to obtain 3 to 5 mph (4.8 to 8.0 kph) at maximum governed engine rpm by driving forward directly up a minimum slope of 60° ±5° as shown in Figure C-11, or by an alternative equivalent means. The engine clutch may be used to aid in inducing the upset; and
</P>
<P>(B) To induce side upset, the tractor shall be driven under its own power along the specified path of travel at a minimum speed of 10 mph (16 kph), or at maximum vehicle speed when under 10 mph (16 kph), and over the ramp as described in paragraph (d)(4)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance requirements</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The frame, overhead weather shield, fenders, or other parts in the operator area may be deformed in these tests, but shall not shatter or leave sharp edges exposed to the operator, or encroach on the dimensions shown in Figures C-2 and C-3, and specified as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2><I>d</I> = 2 in. (51 mm) inside of the frame upright to the vertical centerline of the seat; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>e</I> = 30 in. (762 mm) at the longitudinal centerline; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>f</I> = Not greater than 4 in. (102 mm) to the rear edge of the crossbar, measured forward of the seat-reference point (“<I>SRP</I>”); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>g = 24 in. (610 mm) minimum; and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>m</I> = Not greater than 12 in. (305 mm), measured from the seat-reference point to the forward edge of the crossbar.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The protective structure and connecting fasteners must pass the static or dynamic tests described in paragraphs (d)(2), (d)(3), or (d)(4) of this section at a metal temperature of 0 °F (−18 °C) or below, or exhibit Charpy V-notch impact strengths as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>10-mm × 10-mm (0.394-in. × 0.394-in.) specimen: 8.0 ft-lb (10.8 J) at −20 °F (−30 °C); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10-mm × 7.5-mm (0.394-in. × 0.296-in.) specimen: 7.0 ft-lb (9.5 J) at −20 °F (−30 °C); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10-mm × 5-mm (0.394-in. × 0.197-in.) specimen: 5.5 ft-lb (7.5 J) at −20 °F (−30 °C); or 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10-mm × 2.5-mm (0.394-in. × 0.098-in.) specimen: 4.0 ft-lb (5.5 J) at −20 °F (−30 °C).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP>Specimens shall be longitudinal and taken from flat stock, tubular, or structural sections before forming or welding for use in the frame. Specimens from tubular or structural sections shall be taken from the middle of the side of greatest dimension, not to include welds.
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Static test-performance requirements.</I> In addition to meeting the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section for both side and rear loads, <I>FER</I><E T="54">is</E> and <I>FER</I><E T="54">ir</E>, shall be greater than 1.0, and when the ROPS contains one or two upright frames only, <I>FSB</I> shall be greater than 1.3.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dynamic test-performance requirements.</I> The structural requirements shall be met when the dimensions in paragraph (e)(1) of this section are used in both side and rear loads.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Field-upset test performance requirements.</I> The requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall be met for both side and rear upsets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 77004, Dec. 29, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1928.53" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.3.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1928.53   Protective enclosures for wheel-type agricultural tractors—test procedures and performance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to establish the test and performance requirements for a protective enclosure designed for wheel-type agricultural tractors to minimize the frequency and severity of operator injury resulting from accidental upset. General requirements for the protection of operators are specified in 29 CFR 1928.51.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of tests.</I> All protective enclosures for wheel-type agricultural tractors shall be of a model that has been tested as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Laboratory test.</I> A laboratory energy-absorption test, either static or dynamic, under repeatable and controlled loading, to permit analysis of the protective enclosure for compliance with the performance requirements of this standard; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Field-upset test.</I> A field-upset test under controlled conditions, both to the side and rear, to verify the effectiveness of the protective system under actual dynamic conditions. This test may be omitted when:
</P>
<P>(i) The analysis of the protective-frame static-energy absorption test results indicates that both <I>FER</I><E T="54">is</E> and <I>FER</I><E T="54">ir</E> (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section) exceed 1.15; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The analysis of the protective-frame dynamic-energy absorption test results indicates that the frame can withstand an impact 15 percent greater than the impact it is required to withstand for the tractor weight as shown in Figure C-7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Description.</I> A protective enclosure is a structure comprising a frame and/or enclosure mounted to the tractor. A typical enclosure is shown in Figure C-12.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Test procedures</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The tractor weight used shall be that of the heaviest tractor model on which the protective enclosure is to be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each test required under this section shall be performed on a protective enclosure with new structural members. Mounting connections of the same design shall be used during each test.
</P>
<P>(iii) Instantaneous deflection shall be measured and recorded for each segment of the test; see paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section for permissible deflections.
</P>
<P>(iv) The seat-reference point (“<I>SRP</I>”) in Figure C-14 is that point where the vertical line that is tangent to the most forward point at the longitudinal seat centerline of the seat back, and the horizontal line that is tangent to the highest point of the seat cushion, intersect in the longitudinal seat section. The seat-reference point shall be determined with the seat unloaded and adjusted to the highest and most rearward position provided for seated operations of the tractor.
</P>
<P>(v) When the centerline of the seat is off the longitudinal center, the protective-enclosure loading shall be on the side with least space between the centerline of the seat and the protective enclosure.
</P>
<P>(vi) Low-temperature characteristics of the protective enclosure or its material shall be demonstrated as specified in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) Rear input energy tests (static, dynamic, or field-upset) need not be performed on enclosures mounted to tractors having four driven wheels and more than one-half their unballasted weight on the front wheels.
</P>
<P>(viii) Accuracy table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measurements
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Accuracy
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Deflection of the enclosure, in. (mm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±5 percent of the deflection measured.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vertical weight, pounds (kg)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±5 percent of the weight measured.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Force applied to the enclosure, pounds force (newtons)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±5 percent of the force measured.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dimensions of the critical zone, in. (mm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.5 in. (12.5 mm).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ix) When movable or normally removable portions of the enclosure add to structural strength, they shall be placed in configurations that contribute least to structural strength during the test.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Static test procedure.</I> (i) The following test conditions shall be met:
</P>
<P>(A) The laboratory mounting base shall be the tractor chassis for which the protective enclosure is designed, or its equivalent; and
</P>
<P>(B) The protective enclosure shall be instrumented with the necessary equipment to obtain the required load-deflection data at the locations and directions specified in Figures C-13 and C-14.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2><I>W</I> = Tractor weight (see 29 CFR 1928.51(a)) in lb (<I>W</I>″ in kg);
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">is</E> = Energy input to be absorbed during side loading in ft-lb (<I>E</I>″<E T="54">is</E> in J [joules]);
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">is</E> = 723 + 0.4 <I>W</I> (<I>E</I>″<E T="54">is</E> = 100 + 0.12 <I>W</I>″);
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">ir</E> = Energy input to be absorbed during rear loading in ft-lb (<I>E</I>″<E T="54">ir</E> in J); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">ir</E> = 0.47 <I>W</I> (<I>E</I>″<E T="54">ir</E> = 0.14 <I>W</I>″);
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L</I> = Static load, lbf [pounds force], (N) [newtons]; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>D</I> = Deflection under <I>L</I>, in. (mm); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L-D</I> = Static load-deflection diagram; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L</I><E T="54">max</E> = Maximum observed static load; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Load Limit</I> = Point on a continuous <I>L-D</I> curve where the observed static load is 0.8 <I>L</I><E T="54">max</E> on the down slope of the curve (see Figure C-5); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">u</E> = Strain energy absorbed by the protective enclosure in ft-lbs (J); area under the <I>L-D</I> curve; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FER</I> = Factor of energy ratio; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FER</I><E T="54">is</E> = <I>E</I><E T="54">u</E>/<I>E</I><E T="54">is</E>; and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FER</I><E T="54">ir</E> = <I>E</I><E T="54">u</E>/<I>E</I><E T="54">ir.</E></FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The test procedures shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) When the protective-frame structures are not an integral part of the enclosure, the direction and point of load application for both side and rear shall be the same as specified in 29 CFR 1928.52(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(B) When the protective-frame structures are an integral part of the enclosure, apply the rear load according to Figure C-14, and record <I>L</I> and <I>D</I> simultaneously. Rear-load application shall be distributed uniformly on the frame structure over an area perpendicular to the load application, no greater than 160 sq. in. (1,032 sq. cm) in size, with the largest dimension no greater than 27 in. (686 mm). The load shall be applied to the upper extremity of the structure at the point that is midway between the centerline of the protective enclosure and the inside of the protective structure. When no structural cross member exists at the rear of the enclosure, a substitute test beam that does not add strength to the structure may be used to complete this test procedure. The test shall be stopped when:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The strain energy absorbed by the structure is equal to or greater than the required input energy <I>E</I><E T="54">ir</E>; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Deflection of the structure exceeds the allowable deflection (see paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The structure load limit occurs before the allowable deflection is reached in rear load (see Figure C-5);
</P>
<P>(C) Using data obtained in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, construct the <I>L-D</I> diagram for rear loads as shown in Figure C-5;
</P>
<P>(D) Calculate <I>E</I><E T="54">ir</E>;
</P>
<P>(E) Calculate <I>FER</I><E T="54">ir</E>;
</P>
<P>(F) When the protective-frame structures are an integral part of the enclosure, apply the side load according to Figure C-13, and record <I>L</I> and <I>D</I> simultaneously. Static side-load application shall be distributed uniformly on the frame over an area perpendicular to the direction of load application, and no greater than 160 sq. in. (1,032 sq. cm) in size, with the largest dimension no greater than 27 in. (686 mm). Side-load application shall be at a 90° angle to the centerline of the vehicle. The center of the side-load application shall be located between point <I>k</I>, 24 in. (610 mm) forward of the seat-reference point, and point <I>l</I>, 12 in. (305 mm) rearward of the seat-reference point, to best use the structural strength (see Figure C-13). This side load shall be applied to the longitudinal side farthest from the point of rear-load application. The test shall be stopped when:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The strain energy absorbed by the structure is equal to or greater than the required input energy <I>E</I><E T="54">is</E>; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Deflection of the structure exceeds the allowable deflection (see paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The structure load limit occurs before the allowable deflection is reached in side load (see Figure C-5);
</P>
<P>(G) Using data obtained in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(F) of this section, construct the <I>L-D</I> diagram for the side load as shown in Figure C-5;
</P>
<P>(H) Calculate <I>FER</I><E T="54">is</E>; and
</P>
<P>(I) Calculate <I>FER</I><E T="54">ir.</E>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dynamic test procedure.</I> (i) The following test conditions shall be met:
</P>
<P>(A) The protective enclosure and tractor shall be tested at the weight defined by 29 CFR 1928.51(a);
</P>
<P>(B) The dynamic loading shall be accomplished by using a 4,410-lb (2,000-kg) weight acting as a pendulum. The impact face of the weight shall be 27 ±1 in. by 27 ±1 in. (686 ±25 mm by 686 ±25 mm), and shall be constructed so that its center of gravity is within 1.0 in. (25.4 mm) of its geometric center. The weight shall be suspended from a pivot point 18 to 22 ft (5.5 to 6.7 m) above the point of impact on the enclosure, and shall be conveniently and safely adjustable for height (see Figure C-6);
</P>
<P>(C) For each phase of testing, the tractor shall be restrained from moving when the dynamic load is applied. The restraining members shall have strength no less than, and elasticity no greater than, that of 0.50-in. (12.7-mm) steel cable. Points of attachment for the restraining members shall be located an appropriate distance behind the rear axle and in front of the front axle to provide a 15° to 30° angle between the restraining cable and the horizontal. For impact from the rear, the restraining cables shall be located in the plane in which the center of gravity of the pendulum will swing, or alternatively, two sets of symmetrically located cables may be used at lateral locations on the tractor. For the impact from the side, restraining cables shall be used as shown in Figures C-15 and C-16;
</P>
<P>(D) The front and rear wheel-tread settings, when adjustable, shall be at the position nearest to halfway between the minimum and maximum settings obtainable on the vehicle. When only two settings are obtainable, the minimum setting shall be used. The tires shall have no liquid ballast, and shall be inflated to the maximum operating pressure recommended by the manufacturer. With specified tire inflation, the restraining cable shall be tightened to provide tire deflection of 6 to 8 percent of nominal tire section width. After the vehicle is retrained properly, a wooden beam no smaller than 6-in. × 6-in. (150-mm × 150-mm) cross-section shall be driven tightly against the appropriate wheels and clamped. For the test to the side, an additional wooden beam shall be placed as a prop against the wheel nearest the operator's station, and shall be secured to the base so that it is held tightly against the wheel rim during impact. The length of this beam shall be chosen so that it is at an angle of 25° to 40° to the horizontal when it is positioned against the wheel rim. It shall have a length 20 to 25 times its depth, and a width two to three times its depth (see Figures C-15 and C-16);
</P>
<P>(E) Means shall be provided for indicating the maximum instantaneous deflection along the line of impact. A simple friction device is illustrated in Figure C-4;
</P>
<P>(F) No repair or adjustments shall be made during the test; and
</P>
<P>(G) When any cables, props, or blocking shift or break during the test, the test shall be repeated.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>H</I> = Vertical height of the center of gravity of a 4,410-lb (2,000-kg) weight in in. (<I>H</I>′ in mm). The weight shall be pulled back so that the height of its center of gravity above the point of impact is: <I>H</I> = 4.92 + 0.00190 <I>W</I> (<I>H</I>′ = 125 + 0.107 <I>W′</I>) (see Figure C-7).
</P>
<P>(iii) The test procedures shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The enclosure structure shall be evaluated by imposing dynamic loading from the rear, followed by a load to the side on the same enclosure structure. The pendulum swinging from the height determined by paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section shall be used to impose the dynamic load. The position of the pendulum shall be so selected that the initial point of impact on the protective structure is in line with the arc of travel of the center of gravity of the pendulum. When a quick-release mechanism is used, it shall not influence the attitude of the block;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Impact at rear.</I> The tractor shall be restrained properly according to paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(C) and (d)(3)(i)(D) of this section. The tractor shall be positioned with respect to the pivot point of the pendulum so that the pendulum is 20° from the vertical prior to impact as shown in Figure C-15. The impact shall be applied to the upper extremity of the enclosure structure at the point that is midway between the centerline of the enclosure structure and the inside of the protective structure. When no structural cross member exists at the rear of the enclosure structure, a substitute test beam that does not add to the strength of the structure may be used to complete the test procedure; and
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Impact at side.</I> The blocking and restraining shall conform to paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(C) and (d)(3)(i)(D) of this section. The center point of impact shall be at the upper extremity of the enclosure at a 90° angle to the centerline of the vehicle, and located between a point <I>k,</I> 24 in. (610 mm) forward of the seat-reference point, and a point <I>l,</I> 12 in. (305 mm) rearward of the seat-reference point, to best use the structural strength (see Figure C-13). The side impact shall be applied to the longitudinal side farthest from the point of rear impact.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Field-upset test procedure.</I> (i) The following test conditions shall be met:
</P>
<P>(A) The tractor shall be tested at the weight defined in 29 CFR 1928.51(a);
</P>
<P>(B) The following provisions address soil bank test conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) The test shall be conducted on a dry, firm soil bank. The soil in the impact area shall have an average cone index in the 0-in. to 6-in. (0-mm to 152-mm) layer of not less than 150. Cone index shall be determined according to American Society of Agricultural Engineers (“ASAE”) recommendation ASAE R313.1-1971 (“Soil cone penetrometer”), as reconfirmed in 1975, which is incorporated by reference. The incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The path of vehicle travel shall be 12° ±2° to the top edge of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) ASAE recommendation R313.1-1971, as reconfirmed in 1975, appears in the 1977 Agricultural Engineers Yearbook, or it may be examined at: Any OSHA Regional Office; the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-2625, Washington, DC 20210 (telephone: (202) 693-2350 (TTY number: (877) 889-5627)); or the National Archives and Records Administration (“NARA”). (For information on the availability of this material at NARA, telephone (202) 741-6030 or access the NARA Web site at <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) Copies may be purchased from the American Society of Agricultural Engineers 2950 Niles Road, St. Joseph, MI 49085.
</P>
<P>(C) An 18-in. (457 mm) high ramp (see Figure C-10) shall be used to assist in upsetting the vehicle to the side; and
</P>
<P>(D) The front and rear wheel-tread settings, when adjustable, shall be at the position nearest to halfway between the minimum and maximum settings obtainable on the vehicle. When only two settings are obtainable, the minimum setting shall be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) Field upsets shall be induced to the rear and side.
</P>
<P>(A) Rear upset shall be induced by engine power, with the tractor operating in gear to obtain 3 to 5 mph (4.8 to 8.0 kph) at maximum governed engine rpm by driving forward directly up a minimum slope of 60° ±5° as shown in Figure C-11, or by an alternate equivalent means. The engine clutch may be used to aid in inducing the upset; and
</P>
<P>(B) To induce side upset, the tractor shall be driven under its own power along the specified path of travel at a minimum speed of 10 mph (16 kph), or at maximum vehicle speed when under 10 mph (16 kph), and over the ramp as described in paragraph (d)(4)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance requirements</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The protective enclosure structural members or other parts in the operator area may be deformed in these tests, but shall not shatter or leave sharp edges exposed to the operator. They shall not encroach on a transverse plane passing through points <I>d</I> and <I>f</I> within the projected area defined by dimensions <I>d, e,</I> and <I>g,</I> or on the dimensions shown in Figures C-13 and C-14, as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2><I>d</I> = 2 in. (51 mm) inside of the protective structure to the vertical centerline of the seat; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>e</I> = 30 in. (762 mm) at the longitudinal centerline; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>f</I> = Not greater than 4 in. (102 mm) measured forward of the seat-reference point (“<I>SRP</I>”) at the longitudinal centerline as shown in Figure C-14; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>g</I> = 24 in. (610 mm) minimum; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>h</I> = 17.5 in. (445 mm) minimum; and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>j</I> = 2.0 in. (51 mm) measured from the outer periphery of the steering wheel.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The protective structure and connecting fasteners must pass the static or dynamic tests described in paragraphs (d)(2), (d)(3), or (d)(4) of this section at a metal temperature of 0 °F (−8 °C) or below, or exhibit Charpy V-notch impact strengths as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>10-mm × 10-mm (0.394-in. × 0.394-in.) specimen: 8.0 ft-lb (10.8 J) at −20 °F (−30 °C); 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10-mm × 7.5-mm (0.394-in. × 0.296-in.) specimen: 7.0 ft-lb (9.5 J) at −20 °F (−30 °C);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10-mm × 5-mm (0.394-in. × 0.197-in.) specimen: 5.5 ft-lb (7.5 J) at −20 °F (−30 °C); or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10-mm × 2.5-mm (0.394-in. × 0.098-in.) specimen: 4.0 ft-lb (5.5 J) at −20 °F (−30 °C).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>Specimens shall be longitudinal and taken from flat stock, tubular, or structural sections before forming or welding for use in the protective enclosure. Specimens from tubular or structural sections shall be taken from the middle of the side of greatest dimension, not to include welds.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following provisions address glazing requirements.
</P>
<P>(A) Glazing shall conform to the requirements contained in Society of Automotive Engineers (“SAE”) standard J674-1963 (“Safety glazing materials”), which is incorporated by reference. The incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
</P>
<P>(B) SAE standard J674-1963 appears in the 1965 SAE Handbook, or it may be examined at: any OSHA Regional Office; the OSHA Docket Office, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-2625, Washington, DC 20210 (telephone: (202) 693-2350 (TTY number: (877) 889-5627)); or the National Archives and Records Administration (“NARA”). (For information on the availability of this material at NARA, telephone (202) 741-6030 or access the NARA Web site at <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>) Copies may be purchased from the Society of Automotive Engineers, 400 Commonwealth Drive, Warrendale, Pennsylvania 15096-0001.
</P>
<P>(iv) Two or more operator exits shall be provided and positioned to avoid the possibility of both being blocked by the same accident.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Static test-performance requirements.</I> In addition to meeting the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section for both side and rear loads, <I>FER</I><E T="54">is</E> and <I>FER</I> <E T="54">ir</E> shall be greater than 1.0.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dynamic test-performance requirements.</I> The structural requirements shall be met when the dimensions in paragraph (e)(1) of this section are used in both side and rear loads.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Field-upset test performance requirements.</I> The requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall be met for both side and rear upsets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 77004, Dec. 29, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 41145, July 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.3.26.4.41" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart C of Part 1928—Employee Operating Instructions
</HEAD>
<FP-2>1. Securely fasten your seat belt if the tractor has a ROPS. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2. Where possible, avoid operating the tractor near ditches, embankments, and holes. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3. Reduce speed when turning, crossing slopes, and on rough, slick, or muddy surfaces. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4. Stay off slopes too steep for safe operation. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5. Watch where you are going, especially at row ends, on roads, and around trees. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>6. Do not permit others to ride. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>7. Operate the tractor smoothly—no jerky turns, starts, or stops. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8. Hitch only to the drawbar and hitch points recommended by tractor manufacturers. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>9. When tractor is stopped, set brakes securely and use park lock if available.


</FP-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.3.26.4.42" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart C of Part 1928—Figures C-1 through C-16
</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.025.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.026.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.027.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.028.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.029.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.030.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.031.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.035.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.036.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.037.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.038.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20jy06.039.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 41146, July 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Safety for Agricultural Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1928.57" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.4.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1928.57   Guarding of farm field equipment, farmstead equipment, and cotton gins.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to provide for the protection of employees from the hazards associated with moving machinery parts of farm field equipment, farmstead equipment, and cotton gins used in any agricultural operation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section contains general requirements which apply to all covered equipment. In addition, paragraph (b) of this section applies to farm field equipment, paragraph (c) of this section applies to farmstead equipment, and paragraph (d) of this section applies to cotton gins. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to all farm field equipment, farmstead equipment, and cotton gins, except that paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(4)(ii)(A), and (c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4)(ii)(A) do not apply to equipment manufactured before October 25, 1976. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effective date.</I> This section takes effect on October 25, 1976, except that paragraph (d) of this section is effective on June 30, 1977. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definitions—Cotton gins</I> are systems of machines which condition seed cotton, separate lint from seed, convey materials, and package lint cotton. 
</P>
<P><I>Farm field equipment</I> means tractors or implements, including self-propelled implements, or any combination thereof used in agricultural operations. 
</P>
<P><I>Farmstead equipment</I> means agricultural equipment normally used in a stationary manner. This includes, but is not limited to, materials handling equipment and accessories for such equipment whether or not the equipment is an integral part of a building. 
</P>
<P><I>Ground driven components</I> are components which are powered by the turning motion of a wheel as the equipment travels over the ground. 
</P>
<P>A <I>guard</I> or <I>shield</I> is a barrier designed to protect against employee contact with a hazard created by a moving machinery part.
</P>
<P><I>Power take-off shafts</I> are the shafts and knuckles between the tractor, or other power source, and the first gear set, pulley, sprocket, or other components on power take-off shaft driven equipment. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Operating instructions.</I> At the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter, the employer shall instruct every employee in the safe operation and servicing of all covered equipment with which he is or will be involved, including at least the following safe operating practices: 
</P>
<P>(i) Keep all guards in place when the machine is in operation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit no riders on farm field equipment other than persons required for instruction or assistance in machine operation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Stop engine, disconnect the power source, and wait for all machine movement to stop before servicing, adjusting, cleaning, or unclogging the equipment, except where the machine must be running to be properly serviced or maintained, in which case the employer shall instruct employees as to all steps and procedures which are necessary to safely service or maintain the equipment; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Make sure everyone is clear of machinery before starting the engine, engaging power, or operating the machine; 
</P>
<P>(v) Lock out electrical power before performing maintenance or service on farmstead equipment. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Methods of guarding.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, each employer shall protect employees from coming into contact with hazards created by moving machinery parts as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Through the installation and use of a guard or shield or guarding by location; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever a guard or shield or guarding by location is infeasible, by using a guardrail or fence. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Strength and design of guards.</I> (i) Where guards are used to provide the protection required by this section, they shall be designed and located to protect against inadvertent contact with the hazard being guarded. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless otherwise specified, each guard and its supports shall be capable of withstanding the force that a 250 pound individual, leaning on or falling against the guard, would exert upon that guard. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Guards shall be free from burrs, sharp edges, and sharp corners, and shall be securely fastened to the equipment or building. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Guarding by location.</I> A component is guarded by location during operation, maintenance, or servicing when, because of its location, no employee can inadvertently come in contact with the hazard during such operation, maintenance, or servicing. Where the employer can show that any exposure to hazards results from employee conduct which constitutes an isolated and unforeseeable event, the component shall also be considered guarded by location.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Guarding by railings.</I> Guardrails or fences shall be capable of protecting against employees inadvertently entering the hazardous area. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Servicing and maintenance.</I> Whenever a moving machinery part presents a hazard during servicing or maintenance, the engine shall be stopped, the power source disconnected, and all machine movement stopped before servicing or maintenance is performed, except where the employer can establish that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment must be running to be properly serviced or maintained; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment cannot be serviced or maintained while a guard or guards otherwise required by this standard are in place; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The servicing or maintenance can be safely performed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Farm field equipment</I>—(1) <I>Power take-off guarding.</I> (i) All power take-off shafts, including rear, mid- or side-mounted shafts, shall be guarded either by a master shield, as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, or by other protective guarding. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All tractors shall be equipped with an agricultural tractor master shield on the rear power take-off except where removal of the tractor master shield is permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. The master shield shall have sufficient strength to prevent permanent deformation of the shield when a 250 pound operator mounts or dismounts the tractor using the shield as a step. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Power take-off driven equipment shall be guarded to protect against employee contact with positively driven rotating members of the power drive system. Where power take-off driven equipment is of a design requiring removal of the tractor master shield, the equipment shall also include protection from that portion of the tractor power take-off shaft which protrudes from the tractor. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Signs shall be placed at prominent locations on tractors and power take-off driven equipment specifying that power drive system safety shields must be kept in place. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other power transmission components.</I> (i) The mesh or nip-points of all power driven gears, belts, chains, sheaves, pulleys, sprockets, and idlers shall be guarded. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All revolving shafts, including projections such as bolts, keys, or set screws, shall be guarded, except smooth shaft ends protruding less than one-half the outside diameter of the shaft and its locking means. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ground driven components shall be guarded in accordance with paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section if any employee may be exposed to them while the drives are in motion. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Functional components.</I> Functional components, such as snapping or husking rolls, straw spreaders and choppers, cutterbars, flail rotors, rotary beaters, mixing augers, feed rolls, conveying augers, rotary tillers, and similar units, which must be exposed for proper function, shall be guarded to the fullest extent which will not substantially interfere with normal functioning of the component. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Access to moving parts.</I> (i) Guards, shields, and access doors shall be in place when the equipment is in operation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where removal of a guard or access door will expose an employee to any component which continues to rotate after the power is disengaged, the employer shall provide, in the immediate area, the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) A readily visible or audible warning of rotation; and 
</P>
<P>(B) A safety sign warning the employee to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Look and listen for evidence of rotation; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Not remove the guard or access door until all components have stopped. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Farmstead equipment</I>—(1) <I>Power take-off guarding.</I> (i) All power take-off shafts, including rear, mid-, or side-mounted shafts, shall be guarded either by a master shield as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section or other protective guarding. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Power take-off driven equipment shall be guarded to protect against employee contact with positively driven rotating members of the power drive system. Where power take-off driven equipment is of a design requiring removal of the tractor master shield, the equipment shall also include protection from that portion of the tractor power take-off shaft which protrudes from the tractor. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Signs shall be placed at prominent locations on power take-off driven equipment specifying that power drive system safety shields must be kept in place. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other power transmission components.</I> (i) The mesh or nip-points of all power driven gears, belts, chains, sheaves, pulleys, sprockets, and idlers shall be guarded. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All revolving shafts, including projections such as bolts, keys, or set screws, shall be guarded, with the exception of: 
</P>
<P>(A) Smooth shafts and shaft ends (without any projecting bolts, keys, or set screws), revolving at less than 10 rpm, on feed handling equipment used on the top surface of materials in bulk storage facilities; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Smooth shaft ends protruding less than one-half the outside diameter of the shaft and its locking means. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Functional components.</I> (i) Functional components, such as choppers, rotary beaters, mixing augers, feed rolls, conveying augers, grain spreaders, stirring augers, sweep augers, and feed augers, which must be exposed for proper function, shall be guarded to the fullest extent which will not substantially interfere with the normal functioning of the component. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Sweep arm material gathering mechanisms used on the top surface of materials within silo structures shall be guarded. The lower or leading edge of the guard shall be located no more than 12 inches above the material surface and no less than 6 inches in front of the leading edge of the rotating member of the gathering mechanism. The guard shall be parallel to, and extend the fullest practical length of, the material gathering mechanism. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Exposed auger flighting on portable grain augers shall be guarded with either grating type guards or solid baffle style covers as follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) The largest dimensions or openings in grating type guards through which materials are required to flow shall be 4
<FR>3/4</FR> inches. The area of each opening shall be no larger than 10 square inches. The opening shall be located no closer to the rotating flighting than 2
<FR>1/2</FR> inches. 
</P>
<P>(B) Slotted openings in solid baffle style covers shall be no wider than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches, or closer than 3
<FR>1/2</FR> inches to the exposed flighting. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Access to moving parts.</I> (i) Guards, shields, and access doors shall be in place when the equipment is in operation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where removal of a guard or access door will expose an employee to any component which continues to rotate after the power is disengaged, the employer shall provide, in the immediate area, the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) A readily visible or audible warning of rotation; and 
</P>
<P>(B) A safety sign warning the employee to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Look and listen for evidence of rotation; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Not remove the guard or access door until all components have stopped. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electrical disconnect means.</I> (i) Application of electrical power from a location not under the immediate and exclusive control of the employee or employees maintaining or servicing equipment shall be prevented by: 
</P>
<P>(A) Providing an exclusive, positive locking means on the main switch which can be operated only by the employee or employees performing the maintenance or servicing; or 
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of material handling equipment located in a bulk storage structure, by physically locating on the equipment an electrical or mechanical means to disconnect the power. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All circuit protection devices, including those which are an integral part of a motor, shall be of the manual reset type, except where: 
</P>
<P>(A) The employer can establish that because of the nature of the operation, distances involved, and the amount of time normally spent by employees in the area of the affected equipment, use of the manual reset device would be infeasible; 
</P>
<P>(B) There is an electrical disconnect switch available to the employee within 15 feet of the equipment upon which maintenance or service is being performed; and 
</P>
<P>(C) A sign is prominently posted near each hazardous component which warns the employee that, unless the electrical disconnect switch is utilized, the motor could automatically reset while the employee is working on the hazardous component. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cotton ginning equipment</I>—(1) <I>Power transmission components.</I> (i) The main drive and miscellaneous drives of gin stands shall be completely enclosed, guarded by location, or guarded by railings (consistent with the requirements of paragraph (a)(7) of this section). Drives between gin stands shall be guarded so as to prevent access to the area between machines. 
</P>
<P>(ii) When guarded by railings, any hazardous component within 15 horizontal inches of the rail shall be completely enclosed. Railing height shall be approximately 42 inches off the floor, platform, or other working surface, with a midrail between the toprail and the working surface. Panels made of materials conforming to the requirements in Table D-1, or equivalent, may be substituted for midrails. Guardrails shall be strong enough to withstand at least 200 pounds force on the toprail. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Belts guarded by railings shall be inspected for defects at least daily. The machinery shall not be operated until all defective belts are replaced. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D-1—Examples of Minimum Requirements for Guard Panel Materials
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Material
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Clearance from moving part at all points (in inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Largest mesh or opening allowable (in inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum gage (U.S. standard) or thickness
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Woven wire</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 to 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Expanded metal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 4
<br/>4 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
<br/>2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
<br/>13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perforated metal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 4
<br/>4 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>1/2</fr>
<br/>2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
<br/>14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sheet metal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plastic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Tensile strength of 10,000 lb/in 
<sup>2</sup></P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) Pulleys of V-belt drives shall be completely enclosed or guarded by location whether or not railings are present. The open end of the pulley guard shall be not less than 4 inches from the periphery of the pulleys. 
</P>
<P>(v) Chains and sprockets shall be completely enclosed, except that they may be guarded by location if the bearings are packed or if accessible extension lubrication fittings are used. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Where complete enclosure of a component is likely to cause a fire hazard due to excessive deposits of lint, only the face section of nip-point and pulley guards is required. The guard shall extend at least 6 inches beyond the rim of the pulley on the in-running and off-running sides of the belt, and at least 2 inches from the rim and face of the pulley in all other directions. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Projecting shaft ends not guarded by location shall present a smooth edge and end, shall be guarded by non-rotating caps or safety sleeves, and may not protrude more than one-half the outside diameter of the shaft. 
</P>
<P>(viii) In power plants and power development rooms where access is limited to authorized personnel, guard railings may be used in place of guards or guarding by location. Authorized employees having access to power plants and power development rooms shall be instructed in the safe operation and maintenance of the equipment in accordance with paragraph (a)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Functional components.</I> (i) Gin stands shall be provided with a permanently installed guard designed to preclude contact with the gin saws while in motion. The saw blades in the roll box shall be considered guarded by location if they do not extend through the ginning ribs into the roll box when the breast is in the out position. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Moving saws on lint cleaners which have doors giving access to the saws shall be guarded by fixed barrier guards or their equivalent which prevent direct finger or hand contact with the saws while the saws are in motion. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An interlock shall be installed on all balers so that the upper gates cannot be opened while the tramper is operating. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Top panels of burr extractors shall be hinged and equipped with a sturdy positive latch. 
</P>
<P>(v) All accessible screw conveyors shall be guarded by substantial covers or gratings, or with an inverted horizontally slotted guard of the trough type, which will prevent employees from coming into contact with the screw conveyor. Such guards may consist of horizontal bars spaced so as to allow material to be fed into the conveyor, and supported by arches which are not more than 8 feet apart. Screw conveyors under gin stands shall be considered guarded by location. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Warning device.</I> A warning device shall be installed in all gins to provide an audible signal which will indicate to employees that any or all of the machines comprising the gin are about to be started. The signal shall be of sufficient volume to be heard by employees, and shall be sounded each time before starting the gin. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 10195, Mar. 9, 1976; 41 FR 11022, Mar. 16, 1976; 41 FR 22268, June 2, 1976, as amended at 41 FR 46598, Oct. 22, 1976]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts E-H [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—General Environmental Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1928.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.6.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1928.110   Field sanitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section shall apply to any agricultural establishment where eleven (11) or more employees are engaged on any given day in hand-labor operations in the field. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions. Agricultural employer</I> means any person, corporation, association, or other legal entity that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Owns or operates an agricultural establishment; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contracts with the owner or operator of an agricultural establishment in advance of production for the purchase of a crop and exercises substantial control over production; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Recruits and supervises employees or is responsible for the management and condition of an agricultural establishment. 
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural establishment</I> is a business operation that uses paid employees in the production of food, fiber, or other materials such as seed, seedlings, plants, or parts of plants. 
</P>
<P><I>Hand-labor operations</I> means agricultural activities or agricultural operations performed by hand or with hand tools. Except for purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, <I>hand-labor operations</I> also include other activities or operations performed in conjunction with hand labor in the field. Some examples of <I>hand-labor operations</I> are the hand-cultivation, hand-weeding, hand-planting and hand-harvesting of vegetables, nuts, fruits, seedlings or other crops, including mushrooms, and the hand packing of produce into containers, whether done on the ground, on a moving machine or in a temporary packing shed located in the field. <I>Hand-labor</I> does not include such activities as logging operations, the care or feeding of livestock, or hand-labor operations in permanent structures (e.g., canning facilities or packing houses). 
</P>
<P><I>Handwashing facility</I> means a facility providing either a basin, container, or outlet with an adequate supply of potable water, soap and single-use towels. 
</P>
<P><I>Potable water</I> means water that meets the standards for drinking purposes of the State or local authority having jurisdiction, or water that meets the quality standards prescribed by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's National Primary Drinking Water Regulations (40 CFR part 141).
</P>
<P><I>Toilet facility</I> means a fixed or portable facility designed for the purpose of adequate collection and containment of the products of both defecation and urination which is supplied with toilet paper adequate to employee needs. Toilet facility includes biological, chemical, flush and combustion toilets and sanitary privies. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> Agricultural employers shall provide the following for employees engaged in hand-labor operations in the field, without cost to the employee: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Potable drinking water.</I> (i) Potable water shall be provided and placed in locations readily accessible to all employees. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The water shall be suitably cool and in sufficient amounts, taking into account the air temperature, humidity and the nature of the work performed, to meet the needs of all employees. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The water shall be dispensed in single-use drinking cups or by fountains. The use of common drinking cups or dippers is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Toilet and handwashing facilities.</I> (i) One toilet facility and one handwashing facility shall be provided for each twenty (20) employees or fraction thereof, except as stated in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Toilet facilities shall be adequately ventilated, appropriately screened, have self-closing doors that can be closed and latched from the inside and shall be constructed to insure privacy.
</P>
<P>(iii) Toilet and handwashing facilities shall be accessibly located and in close proximity to each other. The facilities shall be located within a one-quarter-mile walk of each hand laborer's place of work in the field.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where due to terrain it is not feasible to locate facilities as required above, the facilities shall be located at the point of closest vehicular access.
</P>
<P>(v) Toilet and handwashing facilities are not required for employees who perform field work for a period of three (3) hours or less (including transportation time to and from the field) during the day.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Maintenance.</I> Potable drinking water and toilet and handwashing facilities shall be maintained in accordance with appropriate public health sanitation practices, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Drinking water containers shall be constructed of materials that maintain water quality, shall be refilled daily or more often as necessary, shall be kept covered and shall be regularly cleaned.
</P>
<P>(ii) Toilet facilities shall be operational and maintained in clean and sanitary condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Handwashing facilities shall be refilled with potable water as necessary to ensure an adequate supply and shall be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Disposal of wastes from facilities shall not cause unsanitary conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reasonable use.</I> The employer shall notify each employee of the location of the sanitation facilities and water and shall allow each employee reasonable opportunities during the workday to use them. The employer also shall inform each employee of the importance of each of the following good hygiene practices to minimize exposure to the hazards in the field of heat, communicable diseases, retention of urine and agrichemical residues:
</P>
<P>(i) Use the water and facilities provided for drinking, handwashing and elimination;
</P>
<P>(ii) Drink water frequently and especially on hot days;
</P>
<P>(iii) Urinate as frequently as necessary;
</P>
<P>(iv) Wash hands both before and after using the toilet; and
</P>
<P>(v) Wash hands before eating and smoking.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This standard shall take effect on May 30, 1987.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Startup dates.</I> Employers must comply with the requirements of paragraphs:
</P>
<P>(i) Paragraph (c)(1), to provide potable drinking water, by May 30, 1987;
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (c)(2), to provide handwashing and toilet facilities, by July 30, 1987;
</P>
<P>(iii) Paragraph (c)(3), to provide maintenance for toilet and handwashing facilities, by July 30, 1987; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Paragraph (c)(4), to assure reasonable use, by July 30, 1987.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 16095, May 1, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 33612, June 8, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts J-L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Occupational Health</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1928.1027" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.3.8.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1928.1027   Cadmium.</HEAD>
<P>See § 1910.1027, <I>Cadmium.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 9255, Mar. 7, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1949" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1949—OFFICE OF TRAINING AND EDUCATION, OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ADMINISTRATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 8, 26, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 657, 670); 31 U.S.C. 9701; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 9-83 (48 FR 35736).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 32066, Aug. 10, 1984, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—OSHA Training Institute</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1949.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.4.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1949.1   Policy regarding tuition fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OSHA Training Institute shall charge tuition fees for all private sector students attending Institute courses.
</P>
<P>(b) The following private sector students shall be exempt from the payment of tuition fees.
</P>
<P>(1) Associate members of Field Federal Safety and Health Councils.
</P>
<P>(2) Students who are representatives of foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(3) Students attending courses which are required by OSHA for the student to maintain an existing designation of OSHA certified outreach trainer.
</P>
<P>(c) Additional exemptions may be made by the Director of the OSHA Training Institute on a case by case basis if it is determined that the students exempted are employed by a nonprofit organization and the granting of an exemption from tuition would be in the best interest of the occupational safety and health program. Individuals or organizations wishing to be considered for this exemption shall make application to the Director of the OSHA Training Institute in writing stating the reasons for an exemption from payment of tuition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 28076, June 19, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1949.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.4.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1949.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Any term not defined herein shall have the same meaning as given it in the Act. As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Private sector students</I> means those students attending the Institute who are not employees of Federal, State, or local governments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1949.3" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.4.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1949.3   Schedule of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Tuition fees will be computed on the basis of the cost to the Government for the Institute conduct of the course, as determined by the Director of the Institute.
</P>
<P>(b) Total tuition charges for each course will be set forth in the course announcement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1949.4" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.4.1.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1949.4   Procedure for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications for Institute courses shall be submitted to the Institute Registrar's office in accordance with instructions issued by the Institute.
</P>
<P>(b) Private sector personnel shall, upon notification of their acceptance by the Institute, submit a check payable to “U.S. Department of Labor” in the amount indicated by the course announcement prior to the commencement of the course.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1949.5" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.4.1.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1949.5   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may withdraw an application and receive full reimbursement of the fee provided that written notification to the Institute Registrar is mailed no later than 14 days before the commencement of the course for which registration has been submitted. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1952" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1952—APPROVED STATE PLANS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF STATE STANDARDS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 18, 84 Stat. 1608 (29 U.S.C. 667); 29 CFR part 1902; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012), or 8-2020 (85 FR 58393, Sept. 18, 2020), as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—List of Approved State Plans for Private-Sector and State and Local Government Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.1   South Carolina.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The South Carolina State plan received initial approval on December 6, 1972.
</P>
<P>(b) The South Carolina State plan received final approval on December 18, 1987.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance officer staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984, South Carolina, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the staffing levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 17 safety and 12 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on January 17, 1986.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/south_carolina.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.2   Oregon.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Oregon State plan received initial approval on December 28, 1972.
</P>
<P>(b) The Oregon State plan received final approval on May 12, 2005.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (“benchmarks”) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required for each State operating an approved State plan. In October 1992, Oregon completed, in conjunction with OSHA, a reassessment of the health staffing level initially established in 1980 and proposed a revised health benchmark of 28 health compliance officers. Oregon elected to retain the safety benchmark level established in the 1980 Report to the Court of the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia in 1980 of 47 safety compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on August 11, 1994.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/oregon.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.3" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.3   Utah.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Utah State plan received initial approval on January 10, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) The Utah State plan received final approval on July 16, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984, Utah, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 10 safety and 9 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comments and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements effective July 16, 1985.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/utah.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.4" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.4   Washington.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Washington State plan received initial approval on January 26, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) OSHA entered into an operational status agreement with Washington.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/washington.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.5" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.5   North Carolina.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The North Carolina State plan received initial approval on February 1, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) The North Carolina State plan received final approval on December 18, 1996.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (“benchmarks”) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984, North Carolina, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised benchmarks of 50 safety and 27 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on January 17, 1986.
</P>
<P>In June 1990, North Carolina reconsidered the information utilized in the initial revision of its 1980 benchmarks and determined that changes in local conditions and improved inspection data warranted further revision of its benchmarks to 64 safety inspectors and 50 industrial hygienists. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on June 4, 1996.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/north_carolina.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.6" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.6   Iowa.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Iowa State plan received initial approval on July 20, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) The Iowa State plan received final approval on July 2, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984, Iowa, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 16 safety and 13 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements effective July 2, 1985.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/iowa.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.7" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.7   California.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The California State plan received initial approval on May 1, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) OSHA entered into an operational status agreement with California.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/california.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.8" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.8   Minnesota.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Minnesota State plan received initial approval on June 8, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) The Minnesota State plan received final approval on July 30, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984 Minnesota, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 31 safety and 12 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on July 30, 1985.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/minnesota.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.9" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.9   Maryland.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Maryland State plan received initial approval on July 5, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) The Maryland State plan received final approval on July 18, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984 Maryland, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 36 safety and 18 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on July 18, 1985.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/maryland.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.10" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.10   Tennessee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Tennessee State plan received initial approval on July 5, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) The Tennessee State plan received final approval on July 22, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984 Tennessee, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 22 safety and 14 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on July 22, 1985.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/tennessee.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.11" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.11   Kentucky.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Kentucky State plan received initial approval on July 31, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) The Kentucky State plan received final approval on June 13, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984 Kentucky, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 23 safety and 14 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on June 13, 1985.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/kentucky.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.12" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.12   Alaska.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Alaska State plan received initial approval on August 10, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) The Alaska State plan received final approval on September 28, 1984.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. Alaska's compliance staffing benchmarks are 4 safety and 5 health compliance officers.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/alaska.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.13" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.13   Michigan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Michigan State plan received initial approval on October 3, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) OSHA entered into an operational status agreement with Michigan.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (“benchmarks”) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required for each State operating an approved State plan. In 1992, Michigan completed, in conjunction with OSHA, a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised benchmarks of 56 safety and 45 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on April 20, 1995.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>https://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/michigan.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.14" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.14   Vermont.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Vermont State plan received initial approval on October 16, 1973.
</P>
<P>(b) OSHA entered into an operational status agreement with Vermont.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/vermont.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.15" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.15   Nevada.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nevada State plan received initial approval on January 4, 1974.
</P>
<P>(b) The Nevada State plan received final approval on April 18, 2000.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In July 1986 Nevada, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 11 safety and 5 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on September 2, 1987.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/nevada.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.16" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.16   Hawaii.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Hawaii State plan received initial approval on January 4, 1974.
</P>
<P>(b) The Hawaii State plan received final approval on May 4, 1984.
</P>
<P>(c) On September 21, 2012 OSHA modified the State Plan's approval status from final approval to initial approval, and reinstated concurrent federal enforcement authority pending the necessary corrective action by the State Plan in order to once again meet the criteria for a final approval determination. OSHA and Hawaii entered into an operational status agreement to provide a workable division of enforcement responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/hawaii.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.17" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.17   Indiana.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Indiana State plan received initial approval on March 6, 1974.
</P>
<P>(b) The Indiana State plan received final approval on September 26, 1986.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984 Indiana, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 47 safety and 23 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on January 17, 1986.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/indiana.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.18" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.18   Wyoming.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Wyoming State plan received initial approval on May 3, 1974.
</P>
<P>(b) The Wyoming State plan received final approval on June 27, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984 Wyoming, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 6 safety and 2 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on June 27, 1985.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/wyoming.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.19" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.19   Arizona.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Arizona State plan received initial approval on November 5, 1974.
</P>
<P>(b) The Arizona State plan received final approval on June 20, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984, Arizona in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 9 safety and 6 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on June 20, 1985.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/arizona.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.20" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.20   New Mexico.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The New Mexico State plan received initial approval on December 10, 1975.
</P>
<P>(b) OSHA entered into an operational status agreement with New Mexico.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (“benchmarks”) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required for each State operating an approved State plan. In May 1992, New Mexico completed, in conjunction with OSHA, a reassessment of the staffing levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised benchmarks of 7 safety and 3 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on August 11, 1994.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/new_mexico.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.21" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.21   Virginia.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Virginia State plan received initial approval on September 28, 1976.
</P>
<P>(b) The Virginia State plan received final approval on November 30, 1988.
</P>
<P>(c) Under the terms of the 1978 Court Order in <I>AFL-CIO</I> v. <I>Marshall,</I> compliance staffing levels (benchmarks) necessary for a “fully effective” enforcement program were required to be established for each State operating an approved State plan. In September 1984 Virginia, in conjunction with OSHA, completed a reassessment of the levels initially established in 1980 and proposed revised compliance staffing benchmarks of 38 safety and 21 health compliance officers. After opportunity for public comment and service on the AFL-CIO, the Assistant Secretary approved these revised staffing requirements on January 17, 1986.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/virginia.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.22" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.1.26.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.22   Puerto Rico.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Puerto Rico State plan received initial approval on August 30, 1977.
</P>
<P>(b) OSHA entered into an operational status agreement with Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan covers all private-sector employers and employees, with several notable exceptions, as well as State and local government employers and employees, within the State. For current information on these exceptions and for additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/puerto_rico.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—List of Approved State Plans for State and Local Government Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.23" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.23   Connecticut.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Connecticut State plan for State and local government employees received initial approval from the Assistant Secretary on November 3, 1978.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with 29 CFR 1956.10(g), a State is required to have a sufficient number of adequately trained and competent personnel to discharge its responsibilities under the plan. The Connecticut Public Employee Only State plan provides for three (3) safety compliance officers and one (1) health compliance officer as set forth in the Connecticut Fiscal Year 1986 grant. This staffing level meets the “fully effective” benchmarks established for Connecticut for both safety and health.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan only covers State and local government employers and employees within the State. For additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/connecticut.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.24" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.24   New York.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The New York State plan for State and local government employees received initial approval from the Assistant Secretary on June 1, 1984.
</P>
<P>(b) The plan, as revised on April 28, 2006, provides assurances of a fully trained, adequate staff, including 29 safety and 21 health compliance officers for enforcement inspections and 11 safety and 9 health consultants to perform consultation services in the public sector. The State has also given satisfactory assurances of continued adequate funding to support the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan only covers State and local government employers and employees within the State. For additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/new_york.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.25" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.25   New Jersey.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The New Jersey State plan for State and local government employees received initial approval from the Assistant Secretary on January 11, 2001.
</P>
<P>(b) The plan further provides assurances of a fully trained, adequate staff, including 20 safety and 7 health compliance officers for enforcement inspections, and 4 safety and 3 health consultants to perform consultation services in the public sector, and 2 safety and 3 health training and education staff. The State has assured that it will continue to provide a sufficient number of adequately trained and qualified personnel necessary for the enforcement of standards as required by 29 CFR 1956.10. The State has also given satisfactory assurance of adequate funding to support the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan only covers State and local government employers and employees within the State. For additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/new_jersey.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.26" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.2.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.26   The Virgin Islands.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Virgin Islands State plan for Public Employees Only was approved on July 23, 2003.
</P>
<P>(b) The plan only covers State and local government employers and employees within the State. For additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/virgin_islands.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.27" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.2.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.27   Illinois.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Illinois State plan for state and local government employees received initial approval from the Assistant Secretary on September 1, 2009.
</P>
<P>(b) The Plan further provides assurances of a fully trained, adequate staff within three years of plan approval, including 11 safety and 3 health compliance officers for enforcement inspections, and 3 safety and 2 health consultants to perform consultation services in the public sector. The state has assured that it will continue to provide a sufficient number of adequately trained and qualified personnel necessary for the enforcement of standards as required by 29 CFR 1956.10. The state has also given satisfactory assurance of adequate funding to support the Plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan only covers State and local government employers and employees within the state. For additional details about the plan, please visit <I>http://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/illinois.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.28" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.2.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.28   Maine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Maine State Plan for State and local government employees received initial approval from the Assistant Secretary on August 5, 2015.
</P>
<P>(b) The Plan further provides assurances of a fully trained, adequate staff within three years of plan approval, including 2 safety and 1 health compliance officers for enforcement inspections, and 3 safety and 1 health consultants to perform consultation services in the public sector. The State has assured that it will continue to provide a sufficient number of adequately trained and qualified personnel necessary for the enforcement of standards as required by 29 CFR 1956.10. The State has also given satisfactory assurance of adequate funding to support the Plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan only covers State and local government employers and employees within the State. For additional details about the plan, please visit <I>https://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/maine.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 6178, Feb. 5, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1952.29" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.5.2.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1952.29   Massachusetts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Massachusetts State Plan for State and local Government employees received initial approval from the Assistant Secretary on August 18, 2022.
</P>
<P>(b) The Plan further provides assurances of a fully trained, adequate staff within three years of plan approval, including 8 safety and 3 health compliance officers for enforcement inspections, and 2 safety and 1 health consultants to perform consultation services in the public sector. The State has assured that it will continue to provide a sufficient number of adequately trained and qualified personnel necessary for the enforcement of standards as required by 29 CFR 1956.10. The State has also given satisfactory assurance of adequate funding to support the Plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan only covers State and local government employers and employees within the State. For additional details about the plan, please visit <I>https://www.osha.gov/dcsp/osp/stateprogs/massachusetts.html.</I>




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 50775, Aug. 18, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1953" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1953—CHANGES TO STATE PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 18, 84 Stat. 1608 (29 U.S.C. 667); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 60125, Sept. 25, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1953.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.6.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1953.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements the provisions of section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (“OSH Act” or the “Act”) which provides for State plans for the development and enforcement of State occupational safety and health standards. These plans must meet the criteria in section 18(c) of the Act, and part 1902 of this chapter (for plans covering both private sector and State and local government employers) or part 1956 of this chapter (for plans covering only State and local government employers), either at the time of submission or—where the plan is developmental—within the three year period immediately following commencement of the plan's operation. Approval of a State plan is based on a finding that the State has, or will have, a program, pursuant to appropriate State law, for the adoption and enforcement of State standards that is “at least as effective” as the Federal program.
</P>
<P>(b) When submitting plans, the States provide assurances that they will continue to meet the requirements in section 18(c) of the Act and part 1902 or part 1956 of this chapter for a program that is “at least as effective” as the Federal. Such assurances are a fundamental basis for approval of plans. (<I>See</I> §§ 1902.3 and 1956.2 of this chapter.) From time to time after initial plan approval, States will need to make changes to their plans. This part establishes procedures for submission and review of State plan supplements documenting those changes that are necessary to fulfill the State's assurances, the requirements of the Act, and part 1902 or part 1956 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Changes to a plan may be initiated in several ways. In the case of a developmental plan, changes are required to document establishment of those necessary structural program components that were not in place at the time of plan approval. These commitments are included in a developmental schedule approved as part of the initial plan. These “developmental changes” must be completed within the three year period immediately following the commencement of operations under the plan. Another circumstance requiring subsequent changes to a State plan would be the need to keep pace with changes to the Federal program, or “Federal Program Changes.” A third situation would be when changes are required as a result of the continuing evaluation of the State program. Such changes are called “evaluation changes.” Finally, changes to a State program's safety and health requirements or procedures initiated by the State without a Federal parallel could have an impact on the effectiveness of the State program. Such changes are called “State-initiated changes.” While requirements for submission of a plan supplement to OSHA differ depending on the type of change, all supplements are processed in accordance with the procedures in § 1953.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1953.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.6.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1953.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>OSHA</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, or any representative authorized to perform any of the functions discussed in this part, as set out in implementing Instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State</I> means an authorized representative of the agency designated to administer a State plan under § 1902.3(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plan change</I> means any modification made by a State to its approved occupational safety and health State plan which has an impact on the plan's effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plan supplement</I> means all documents necessary to accomplish, implement, describe and evaluate the effectiveness of a change to a State plan which differs from the parallel Federal legislation, regulation, policy or procedure. (This would include a copy of the complete legislation, regulation, policy or procedure adopted; an identification of each of the differences; and an explanation of how each provision is at least as effective as the comparable Federal provision.)
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Identical plan change</I> means one in which the State adopts the same program provisions and documentation as the Federal program with the only differences being those modifications necessary to reflect a State's unique structure (e.g., organizational responsibility within a State and corresponding titles or internal State numbering system). <I>Different plan change</I> means one in which the State adopts program provisions and documentation that are not identical as defined in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Developmental change</I> is a change made to a State plan which documents the completion of a program component which was not fully developed at the time of initial plan approval.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Federal program change</I> is a change made to a State plan when OSHA determines that an alteration in the Federal program could render a State program less effective than OSHA's if it is not similarly modified.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Evaluation change</I> is a change made to a State plan when evaluations of a State program show that some substantive aspect of a State plan has an adverse impact on the implementation of the State's program and needs revision.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>State-initiated change</I> is a change made to a State plan which is undertaken at a State's option and is not necessitated by Federal requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1953.3" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.6.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1953.3   General policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effectiveness of State plan changes under State law.</I> Federal OSHA approval of a State plan under section 18(b) of the OSH Act in effect removes the barrier of Federal preemption, and permits the State to adopt and enforce State standards and other requirements regarding occupational safety or health issues regulated by OSHA. A State with an approved plan may modify or supplement the requirements contained in its plan, and may implement such requirements under State law, without prior approval of the plan change by Federal OSHA. Changes to approved State plans are subject to subsequent OSHA review. If OSHA finds reason to reject a State plan change, and this determination is upheld after an adjudicatory proceeding, the plan change would then be excluded from the State's Federally-approved plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required State plan notifications and supplements.</I> Whenever a State makes a change to its legislation, regulations, standards, or major changes to policies or procedures, which affect the operation of the State plan, the State shall provide written notification to OSHA. When the change differs from a corresponding Federal program component, the State shall submit a formal, written plan supplement. When the State adopts a provision which is identical to a corresponding Federal provision, written notification, but no formal plan supplement, is required. However, the State is expected to maintain the necessary underlying State document (e.g., legislation or standard) and to make it available for review upon request. All plan change supplements or required documentation must be submitted within 60 days of adoption of the change. Submission of all notifications and supplements may be in electronic format.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plan supplement availability.</I> The underlying documentation for identical plan changes shall be maintained by the State. Annually, States shall submit updated copies of the principal documents comprising the plan, or appropriate page changes, to the extent that these documents have been revised. To the extent possible, plan documents will be maintained and submitted by the State in electronic format and also made available in such manner.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advisory opinions.</I> Upon State request, OSHA may issue an advisory opinion on the approvability of a proposed change which differs from the Federal program prior to promulgation or adoption by the State and submission as a formal supplement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative procedures.</I> Upon reasonable notice to interested persons, the Assistant Secretary may prescribe additional or alternative procedures in order to expedite the review process or for any other good cause which may be consistent with the applicable laws. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 60125, Sept. 25, 2002, as amended at 80 FR 49908, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1953.4" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.6.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1953.4   Submission of plan supplements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Developmental changes.</I> (1) Sections 1902.2(b) and 1956.2(b) of this chapter require that each State with a developmental plan must set forth in its plan, as developmental steps, those changes which must be made to its initially-approved plan for its program to be at least as effective as the Federal program and a timetable for making these changes. The State must notify OSHA of a developmental change when it completes a developmental step or fails to meet any developmental step. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the completion of a developmental step is the adoption of a program component which is identical to the Federal program component, the State need only submit documentation, such as the cover page of an implementing directive or a notice of promulgation, that it has adopted the program component, within 60 days of adoption of the change, but must make the underlying documentation available for Federal and public review upon request. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the completion of a developmental step involves the adoption of policies or procedures which differ from the Federal program, the State must submit one copy of the required plan supplement within 60 days of adoption of the change. 
</P>
<P>(4) When a developmental step is missed, the State must submit a supplement which documents the impact on the program of the failure to complete the developmental step, an explanation of why the step was not completed on time and a revised timetable with a new completion date (generally not to exceed 90 days) and any other actions necessary to ensure completion. Where the State has an operational status agreement with OSHA under § 1954.3 of this Chapter, the State must provide an assurance that the missed step will not affect the effectiveness of State enforcement in any issues for which the State program has been deemed to be operational. 
</P>
<P>(5) If the State fails to submit the required documentation or supplement, as provided in § 1953.4(a)(2), (3) or (4), when the developmental step is scheduled for completion, OSHA shall notify the State that documentation or a supplement is required and set a timetable for submission of any required documentation or supplement, generally not to exceed 60 days. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal Program changes.</I> (1) When a significant change in the Federal program would have an adverse impact on the “at least as effective” status of the State program if a parallel State program modification were not made, State adoption of a change in response to the Federal program change shall be required. A Federal program change that would not result in any diminution of the effectiveness of a State plan compared to Federal OSHA generally would not require adoption by the State. 
</P>
<P>(2) Examples of significant changes to the Federal program that would normally require a State response would include a change in the Act, promulgation or revision of OSHA standards or regulations, or changes in policy or procedure of national importance. A Federal program change that only establishes procedures necessary to implement a new or established policy, standard or regulation does not require a State response, although the State would be expected to establish policies and procedures which are “at least as effective,” which must be available for review on request. 
</P>
<P>(3) When there is a change in the Federal program which requires State action, OSHA shall advise the States. This notification shall also contain a date by which States must adopt a corresponding change or submit a statement why a program change is not necessary. This date will generally be six months from the date of notification, except where the Assistant Secretary determines that the nature or scope of the change requires a different time frame, for example, a change requiring legislative action where a State has a biennial legislature or a policy of major national implications requiring a shorter implementing time frame. State notification of intent may be required prior to adoption. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the State change is different from the Federal program change, the State shall submit one copy of the required supplement within 60 days of State adoption. The supplement shall contain a copy of the relevant legislation, regulation, policy or procedure and documentation on how the change maintains the “at least as effective as” status of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(5) If the State adopts a change identical to the Federal program change, the State is not required to submit a supplement. However, the State shall provide documentation that it has adopted the change, such as the cover page of an implementing directive or a notice of promulgation, within 60 days of State adoption. 
</P>
<P>(6) The State may demonstrate why a program change is not necessary because the State program is already the same as or at least as effective as the Federal program change. Such submissions will require review and approval as set forth in § 1953.6. 
</P>
<P>(7) Where there is a change in the Federal program which does not require State action but is of sufficient national interest to warrant indication of State intent, the State may be required to provide such notification within a specified time frame. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evaluation changes.</I> (1) Special and periodic evaluations of a State program by OSHA in cooperation with the State may show that some portion of a State plan has an adverse impact on the effectiveness of the State program and accordingly requires modification to the State's underlying legislation, regulations, policy or procedures as an evaluation change. For example, OSHA could find that additional legislative or regulatory authority may be necessary to effectively pursue the State's right of entry into workplaces, or to assure various employer rights. 
</P>
<P>(2) OSHA shall advise the State of any evaluation findings that require a change to the State plan and the reasons supporting this decision. This notification shall also contain a date by which the State must accomplish this change and submit either the change supplement or a timetable for its accomplishment and interim steps to assure continued program effectiveness, documentation of adoption of a program component identical to the Federal program component, or, as explained in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, a statement demonstrating why a program change is not necessary. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the State adopts a program component which differs from a corresponding Federal program component, the State shall submit one copy of a required supplement within 60 days of adoption of the change. The supplement shall contain a copy of the relevant legislation, regulation, policy or procedure and documentation on how the change maintains the “at least as effective as” status of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the State adopts a program component identical to a Federal program component, submission of a supplement is not required. However, the State shall provide documentation that it has adopted the change, such as the cover page of an implementing directive or a notice of promulgation, within 60 days of adoption of the change and shall retain all other documentation within the State available for review upon request. 
</P>
<P>(5) The State may demonstrate why a program change is not necessary because the State program is meeting the requirements for an “at least as effective” program. Such submission will require review and approval as set forth in § 1953.6. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State-initiated changes.</I> (1) A State-initiated change is any change to the State plan which is undertaken at a State's option and is not necessitated by Federal requirements. State-initiated changes may include legislative, regulatory, administrative, policy or procedural changes which impact on the effectiveness of the State program. 
</P>
<P>(2) A State-initiated change supplement is required whenever the State takes an action not otherwise covered by this part that would impact on the effectiveness of the State program. The State shall notify OSHA as soon as it becomes aware of any change which could affect the State's ability to meet the approval criteria in parts 1902 and 1956 of this chapter, e.g., changes to the State's legislation, and submit a supplement within 60 days. Other State initiated supplements must be submitted within 60 days after the change occurred. The State supplement shall contain a copy of the relevant legislation, regulation, policy or procedure and documentation on how the change maintains the “at least as effective as” status of the plan. If the State fails to notify OSHA of the change or fails to submit the required supplement within the specified time period, OSHA shall notify the State that a supplement is required and set a time period for submission of the supplement, generally not to exceed 30 days. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1953.5" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.6.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1953.5   Special provisions for standards changes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permanent standards.</I> (1) Where a Federal program change is a new permanent standard, or a more stringent amendment to an existing permanent standard, the State shall promulgate a State standard adopting such new Federal standard, or more stringent amendment to an existing Federal standard, or an at least as effective equivalent thereof, within six months of the date of promulgation of the new Federal standard or more stringent amendment. The State may demonstrate that a standard change is not necessary because the State standard is already the same as or at least as effective as the Federal standard change. In order to avoid delays in worker protection, the effective date of the State standard and any of its delayed provisions must be the date of State promulgation or the Federal effective date whichever is later. The Assistant Secretary may permit a longer time period if the State makes a timely demonstration that good cause exists for extending the time limitation. State permanent standards adopted in response to a new or revised Federal standard shall be submitted as a State plan supplement within 60 days of State promulgation in accordance with § 1953.4(b), Federal Program changes. 
</P>
<P>(2) Because a State may include standards and standards provisions in addition to Federal standards within an issue covered by an approved plan, it would generally be unnecessary for a State to revoke a standard when the comparable Federal standard is revoked or made less stringent. If the State does not adopt the Federal action, it need only provide notification of its intent to retain the existing State standard to OSHA within 6 months of the Federal promulgation date. If the State adopts a change to its standard parallel to the Federal action, it shall submit the appropriate documentation as provided in §§ 1953.4(b)(3) or (4)—Federal program changes. However, in the case of standards applicable to products used or distributed in interstate commerce where section 18(c)(2) of the Act imposes certain restrictions on State plan authority, the modification, revision, or revocation of the Federal standard may necessitate the modification, revision, or revocation of the comparable State standard unless the State standard is required by compelling local conditions and does not unduly burden interstate commerce. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where a State on its own initiative adopts a permanent State standard for which there is no Federal parallel, the State shall submit it within 60 days of State promulgation in accordance with § 1953.4(d)—State-initiated changes, 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency temporary standards.</I> (1) Immediately upon publication of an emergency temporary standard in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> OSHA shall advise the States of the standard and that a Federal program change supplement shall be required. This notification must also provide that the State has 30 days after the date of promulgation of the Federal standard to adopt a State emergency temporary standard if the State plan covers that issue. The State may demonstrate that promulgation of an emergency temporary standard is not necessary because the State standard is already the same as or at least as effective as the Federal standard change. The State standard must remain in effect for the duration of the Federal emergency temporary standard which may not exceed six (6) months. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 15 days after receipt of the notice of a Federal emergency temporary standard, the State shall advise OSHA of the action it will take. State standards shall be submitted in accordance with the applicable procedures in § 1953.4(b)—Federal Program Changes, except that the required documentation or plan supplement must be submitted within 5 days of State promulgation. 
</P>
<P>(3) If for any reason, a State on its own initiative adopts a State emergency temporary standard, it shall be submitted as a plan supplement in accordance with § 1953.4(c), but within 10 days of promulgation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1953.6" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.6.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1953.6   Review and approval of plan supplements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OSHA shall review a supplement to determine whether it is at least as effective as the Federal program and meets the criteria in the Act and implementing regulations and the assurances in the State plan. If the review reveals any defect in the supplement, or if more information is needed, OSHA shall offer assistance to the State and shall provide the State an opportunity to clarify or correct the change. 
</P>
<P>(b) If upon review, OSHA determines that the differences from a corresponding Federal component are purely editorial and do not change the substance of the policy or requirements on employers, it shall deem the change identical. This includes “plain language” rewrites of new Federal standards or previously approved State standards which do not change the meaning or requirements of the standard. OSHA will inform the State of this determination. No further review or <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication is required. 
</P>
<P>(c) Federal OSHA may seek public comment during its review of plan supplements. Generally, OSHA will seek public comment if a State program component differs significantly from the comparable Federal program component and OSHA needs additional information on its compliance with the criteria in section 18(c) of the Act, including whether it is at least as effective as the Federal program and in the case of a standard applicable to products used or distributed in interstate commerce, whether it is required by compelling local conditions or unduly burdens interstate commerce under section 18(c)(2) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the plan change meets the approval criteria, OSHA shall approve it and shall thereafter publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice announcing the approval. OSHA reserves the right to reconsider its decision should subsequent information be brought to its attention. 
</P>
<P>(e) If a State fails to submit a required supplement or if examination discloses cause for rejecting a submitted supplement, OSHA shall provide the State a reasonable time, generally not to exceed 30 days, to submit a revised supplement or to show cause why a proceeding should not be commenced either for rejection of the supplement or for failure to adopt the change in accordance with the procedures in § 1902.17 or Part 1955 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1954" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1954—PROCEDURES FOR THE EVALUATION AND MONITORING OF APPROVED STATE PLANS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 18, 84 Stat. 1608 (29 U.S.C. 667); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 1838, Jan. 15, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1954.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1954.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 18(f) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (hereinafter referred to as the Act) provides that “the Secretary shall, on the basis of reports submitted by the State agency and his own inspections make a continuing evaluation of the manner in which each State having a plan approved * * * is carrying out such plan.” 
</P>
<P>(b) This part 1954 applies to the provisions of section 18(f) of the Act relating to the evaluation of approved plans for the development and enforcement of State occupational safety and health standards. The provisions of this part 1954 set forth the policies and procedures by which the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health (hereinafter referred to as the Assistant Secretary) under a delegation of authority from the Secretary of Labor (Secretary's Order 12-71, 36 FR 8754, May 12, 1971) will continually monitor and evaluate the operation and administration of approved State plans. 
</P>
<P>(c) Following approval of a State plan under section 18(c) of the Act, workplaces in the State are subject to a period of concurrent Federal and State authority. The period of concurrent enforcement authority must last for at least three years. Before ending Federal enforcement authority, the Assistant Secretary is required to make a determination as to whether the State plan, in actual operation, is meeting the criteria in section 18(c) of the Act including the requirements in part 1902 of this chapter and the assurances in the approval plan itself. After an affirmative determination has been made, the provisions of sections 5(a)(2), 8 (except for the purpose of carrying out section 18(f) of the Act), 9, 10, 13, and 17 of the Act shall not apply with respect to any occupational safety or health issues covered under the plan. The Assistant Secretary may, however, retain jurisdiction under the above provisions in any proceeding commenced under section 9 or 10 of the Act before the date of the determination under section 18(e) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) During this period of concurrent Federal and State authority, the operation and administration of the plan will be continually evaluated under section 18(f) of the Act. This evaluation will continue even after an affirmative determination has been made under section 18(e) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1954.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1954.2   Monitoring system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To carry out the responsibilities for continuing evaluation of State plans under section 18(f) of the Act, the Assistant Secretary has established a State Program Performance Monitoring System. Evaluation under this monitoring system encompasses both the period before and after a determination has been made under section 18(e) of the Act. The monitoring system is a three phased system designed to assure not only that developmental steps are completed and that the operational plan is, in fact, at least as effective as the Federal program with respect to standards and enforcement, but also to provide a method for continuing review of the implementation of the plan and any modifications thereto to assure compliance with the provisions of the plan during the time the State participates in the cooperative Federal-State program. 
</P>
<P>(b) Phase I of the system begins with the initial approval of a State plan and continues until the determination required by section 18(e) of the Act is made. During Phase I, the Assistant Secretary will secure monitoring data to make the following key decisions: 
</P>
<P>(1) What should be the level of Federal enforcement; 
</P>
<P>(2) Should plan approval be continued; and 
</P>
<P>(3) What level of technical assistance is needed by the State to enable it to have an effective program. 
</P>
<P>(c) Phase II of the system relates to the determination required by section 18(e) of the Act. The Assistant Secretary must decide, after no less than three years following approval of the plan, whether or not to relinquish Federal authority to the State for issues covered by the occupational safety and health program in the State plan. Phase II will be a comprehensive evaluation of the total State program, drawing upon all information collected during Phase I. 
</P>
<P>(d) Phase III of the system begins after an affirmative determination has been made under section 18(e) of the Act. The continuing evaluation responsibility will be exercised under Phase III, and will provide data concerning the total operations of a State program to enable the Assistant Secretary to determine whether or not the plan approval should be continued or withdrawn. 
</P>
<P>(e) The State program performance monitoring system provides for, but is not limited to, the following major data inputs: 
</P>
<P>(1) Quarterly and annual reports of State program activity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Visits to State agencies; 
</P>
<P>(3) On-the-job evaluation of State compliance officers; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Investigation of complaints about State program administration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1954.3" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1954.3   Exercise of Federal discretionary authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When a State plan is approved under section 18(c) of the Act, Federal authority for enforcement of standards continues in accordance with section 18(e) of the Act. That section prescribes a period of concurrent Federal-State enforcement authority which must last for at least three years, after which time the Assistant Secretary shall make a determination whether, based on actual operations, the State plan meets all the criteria set forth in section 18(c) of the Act and the implementing regulations in 29 CFR part 1902 and subpart A of 29 CFR part 1952. During this period of concurrent authority, the Assistant Secretary may, but shall not be required to, exercise his authority under sections 5(a)(2), 8, 9, 10, 13 and 17 of the Act with respect to standards promulgated under section 6 of the Act where the State has comparable standards. Accordingly, section 18(e) authorizes, but does not require, the Assistant Secretary to exercise his discretionary enforcement authority over all the issues covered by a State plan for the entire 18(e) period. 
</P>
<P>(2) Existing regulations at 29 CFR part 1902 set forth factors to be considered in determining how Federal enforcement authority should be exercised. These factors include:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the plan is developmental or complete;
</P>
<P>(ii) Results of evaluations conducted by the Assistant Secretary;
</P>
<P>(iii) The State's schedule for meeting Federal standards; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other relevant matters.
</P>
<FP>(29 CFR 1902.1(c)(2) and 1902.20(b)(1)(iii). 
</FP>
<P>(3) Other relevant matters requiring consideration in the decision as to the level of Federal enforcement include:
</P>
<P>(i) Coordinated utilization of Federal and State resources to provide effective worker protection throughout the Nation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessity for clarifying the rights and responsibilities of employers and employees with respect to Federal and State authority;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increasing responsibility for administration and enforcement by States under an approved plan for evaluation of their effectiveness; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The need to react promptly to any failure of the States in providing effective enforcement of standards. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidelines for determining the appropriate level of Federal enforcement.</I> In light of the requirements of 29 CFR part 1902 as well as the factors mentioned in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the following guidelines for the extent of the exercise of discretionary Federal authority have been determined to be reasonable and appropriate. When a State plan meets all of these guidelines it will be considered operational, and the State will conduct all enforcement activity including inspections in response to employee complaints, in all issues where the State is operational. Federal enforcement activity will be reduced accordingly and the emphasis will be placed on monitoring State activity in accordance with the provisions of this part. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enabling legislation.</I> A State with an approved plan must have enacted enabling legislation substantially in conformance with the requirements of section 18(c) and 29 CFR part 1902 in order to be considered operational. This legislation must have been reviewed and approved under 29 CFR part 1902. States without such legislation, or where State legislation as enacted requires substantial amendments to meet the requirements of 29 CFR part 1902, will not be considered operational. 
</P>
<P>(2) Approved State standards. The State must have standards promulgated under State law which are identical to Federal standards; or have been found to be at least as effective as the comparable Federal standards; or have been reviewed by OSHA and found to provide overall protection equal to comparable Federal standards. Review of the effectiveness of State standards and their enforcement will be a continuing function of the evaluation process. Where State standards in an issue have not been promulgated by the State or have been promulgated and found not to provide overall protection equal to comparable Federal standards, the State will not be considered operational as to those issues. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Personnel.</I> The State must have a sufficient number of qualified personnel who are enforcing the standards in accordance with the State's enabling legislation. Where a State lacks the qualified personnel to enforce in a particular issue; e.g., Occupational Health, the State will not be considered operational as to that issue even though it has enabling legislation and standards. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Review of enforcement actions.</I> Provisions for review of State citations and penalties, including the appointment of the reviewing authority and the promulgation of implementing regulations, must be in effect. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Evaluation reports.</I> One of the factors to consider in determining the level of Federal enforcement is the result of evaluations conducted under the monitoring system described in this part. While completion of an initial comprehensive evaluation of State operations is not generally a prerequisite for a determination that a State is operational under paragraph (b) of this section, such evaluations will be used in determining the Federal enforcement responsibility in certain circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where evaluations have been completed prior to the time a determination as to the operational status of a State plan is made, the results of those evaluations will be included in the determination. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where the results of one or more evaluations conducted during the operation of a State plan and prior to an 18(e) determination reveal that actual operations as to one or more aspects of the plan fail in a substantial manner to be at least as effective as the Federal program, and the State does not adequately resolve the deficiencies in accordance with subpart C of part 1953, the appropriate level of Federal enforcement activity shall be reinstated. An example of such deficiency would be a finding that State standards and their enforcement in an issue are not at least as effective as comparable Federal standards and their enforcement. Federal enforcement activity may also be reinstated where the Assistant Secretary determines that such action is necessary to assure occupational safety and health protection to employees. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Recognition of State procedures.</I> In order to resolve potential conflicting responsibilities of employers and employees, Federal authority will be exercised in a manner designed to recognize the implementation of State procedures in accordance with approved plans in areas such as variances, informing employees of their rights and obligations, and recordkeeping and reporting requirements. 
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to pertinent findings of effectiveness under this part, Federal enforcement proceedings will not be initiated where an employer is in compliance with a State standard which has been found to be at least as effective as the comparable Federal standard, or with any temporary or permanent variance granted to such employer with regard to the employment or place of employment from such State standard, or any order or interim order in connection therewith, or any modification or extension thereof: <I>Provided</I> such variance action was taken under the terms and procedures required under § 1902.4(b)(2)(iv) of this chapter, and the employer has certified that he has not filed for such variance on the same set of facts with the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to pertinent findings of effectiveness under this part, and approval under part 1953 of this chapter, Federal enforcement proceedings will not be initiated where an employer has posted the approved State poster in accordance with the applicable provisions of an approved State plan and § 1902.9 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Subject to pertinent findings of effectiveness under this part, and approval under part 1953 of this chapter, Federal enforcement proceedings will not be initiated where an employer is in compliance with the recordkeeping and reporting requirements of an approved State plan as provided in § 1902.7 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Discrimination complaints.</I> State plan provisions on employee discrimination do not divest the Secretary of Labor of any authority under section 11(c) of the Act. The Federal authority to investigate discrimination complaints exists even after an affirmative 18(e) determination. (See South Carolina decision 37 FR 25932, December 6, 1972). Employee complaints alleging discrimination under section 11(c) of the Act will be subject to Federal jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Procedural agreements.</I> A determination as to the operational status of a State plan shall be accompanied by an agreement with the State setting forth the Federal-State responsibilities as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Scope of the State's operational status including the issues excluded from the plan, the issues where State enforcement will not be operational at the time of the agreement and the dates for commencement of operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Procedures for referral, investigation and enforcement of employee requests for inspections;
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures for reporting fatalities and catastrophes by the agency which has received the report to the responsible enforcing authority both where the State has and has not adopted the requirement that employers report as provided in 29 CFR 1904.8;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specifications as to when and by what means the operational guidelines of this section were met; and
</P>
<P>(v) Provision for resumption of Federal enforcement activity for failure to substantially comply with this agreement, or as a result of evaluation or other relevant factors. 
</P>
<P>(2) Upon approval of these agreements, the Assistant Secretary shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> notice of the operational status of each approved State plan. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where subsequent changes in the level of Federal enforcement are made, similar <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices shall be published. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 22126, June 20, 1974, as amended at 39 FR 29182, Aug. 14, 1974; 39 FR 39036, Nov. 5, 1974; 40 FR 25450, June 16, 1975; 67 FR 60129, Sept. 25, 2002; 80 FR 49908, Aug. 18, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—State Monitoring Reports and Visits to State Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1954.10" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1954.10   Reports from the States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to any other reports required by the Assistant Secretary under sections 18(c)(8) and 18(f) of the Act and § 1902.3(1) of this chapter, the State shall submit quarterly and annual reports as part of the evaluation and monitoring of State programs. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Such quarterly and annual reports forms may be obtained from the Office of the Assistant Regional Director in whose Region the State is located.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Each State with an approved State plan shall submit to the appropriate Regional Office an annual occupational safety and health report in the form and detail provided for in the report and the instructions contained therein. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each State with an approved State plan shall submit to the appropriate Regional Office a quarterly occupational safety and health compliance and standards activity report in the form and detail provided for in the report and the instructions contained therein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1954.11" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1954.11   Visits to State agencies.</HEAD>
<P>As a part of the continuing monitoring and evaluation process, the Assistant Secretary or his representative shall conduct visits to the designated agency or agencies of State with approved plans at least every 6 months. An opportunity may also be provided for discussion and comments on the effectiveness of the State plan from other interested persons. These visits will be scheduled as needed. Periodic audits will be conducted to assess the progress of the overall State program in meeting the goal of becoming at least as effective as the Federal program. These audits will include case file review and follow-up inspections of workplaces. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Complaints About State Program Administration (CASPA)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1954.20" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1954.20   Complaints about State program administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person or representative of such person or groups of persons may submit a complaint concerning the operation or administration of any aspect of a State plan. The complaint may be submitted orally or in writing to the Assistant Regional Director for Occupational Safety and Health (hereinafter referred to as the Assistant Regional Director) or his representative in the Region where the State is located. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any such complaint should describe the grounds for the complaint and specify the aspect or aspects of the administration or operation of the plan which is believed to be inadequate. A pattern of delays in processing cases, of inadequate workplace inspections, or the granting of variances without regard to the specifications in the State plans, are examples. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If upon receipt of the complaint, the Assistant Regional Director determines that there are reasonable grounds to believe that an investigation should be made, he shall cause such investigation, including any workplace inspection, to be made as soon as practicable. 
</P>
<P>(2) In determining whether an investigation shall be conducted and in determining the timing of such investigation, the Assistant Regional Director shall consider such factors as: 
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which the complaint affects any substantial number of persons; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of complaints received on the same or similar issues and whether the complaints relate to safety and health conditions at a particular establishment; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the complainant has exhausted applicable State remedies; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The extent to which the subject matter of the complaint is pertinent to the effectuation of Federal policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1954.21" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.3.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1954.21   Processing and investigating a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint about State program administration, the Assistant Regional Director will acknowledge its receipt and may forward a copy of the complaint to the designee under the State plan and to such other person as may be necessary to complete the investigation. The complainant's name and the names of other complainants mentioned therein will be deleted from the complaint and the names shall not appear in any record published, released or made available. 
</P>
<P>(b) In conducting the investigation, the Assistant Regional Director may obtain such supporting information as is appropriate to the complaint. Sources for this additional information may include “spot-check” follow-up inspections of workplaces, review of the relevant State files, and discussion with members of the public, employers, employees and the State. 
</P>
<P>(c) On the basis of the information obtained through the investigation, the Assistant Regional Director shall advise the complainant of the investigation findings and in general terms, any corrective action that may result. A copy of such notification shall be sent to the State and it shall be considered part of the evaluation of the State plan. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Assistant Regional Director determines that there are no reasonable grounds for an investigation to be made with respect to a complaint under this Subpart, he shall notify the complaining party in writing of such determination. Upon request of the complainant, or the State, the Assistant Regional Director, at his discretion, may hold an informal conference. After considering all written and oral views presented the Assistant Regional Director shall affirm, modify, or reverse his original determination and furnish the complainant with written notification of his decision and the reasons therefore. Where appropriate the State may also receive such notification. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1954.22" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.7.3.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1954.22   Notice provided by State.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In order to assure that employees, employers, and members of the public are informed of the procedures for complaints about State program administration, each State with an approved State plan shall adopt not later than July 1, 1974, a procedure not inconsistent with these regulations or the Act, for notifying employees, employers and the public of their right to complain to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration about State program administration. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such notification may be by posting of notices in the workplace as part of the requirement in § 1902.4(c)(2)(iv) of this chapter and other appropriate sources of information calculated to reach the public. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1955" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1955—PROCEDURES FOR WITHDRAWAL OF APPROVAL OF STATE PLANS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED> Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 8 and 18, 84 Stat. 1608 (29 U.S.C. 657, 667); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 23467, May 30, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains rules of practice and procedure for formal administrative proceedings on the withdrawal of initial or final approval of State plans in accordance with section 18(f) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 667). 
</P>
<P>(b) These rules shall be construed to secure a prompt and just conclusion of the proceedings subject thereto. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part unless the context clearly requires otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970; 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health; 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commencement of a case</I> under section 18(f) of the Act means, for the purpose of determining State jurisdiction following a final decision withdrawing approval of a plan, the issuance of a citation. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Developmental step</I> includes, but is not limited to, those items listed in the published developmental schedule, or any revisions thereto, for each plan. A developmental step also includes those items in the plan as approved under section 18(c) of the Act, as well as those items in the approval decision which are subject to evaluations (see e.g., approval of Michigan plan), which were deemed necessary to make the State program at least as effective as the Federal program within the 3 year developmental period. (See part 1953 of this chapter.)
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Final approval</I> means approval of the State plan, or any modification thereof under section 18(e) of the Act and subpart D of 29 CFR part 1902. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Initial approval</I> means approval of a State plan, or any modification thereof under section 18(c) of the Act and subpart C of 29 CFR part 1902; 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Party</I> includes the State agency or agencies designated to administer and enforce the State plan that is the subject of withdrawal proceedings, the Department of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration (hereinafter called OSHA), represented by the Office of the Solicitor and any person participating in the proceedings pursuant to § 1955.17; 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, an organized group of individuals, or an agency, authority, or instrumentality of the United States or of a State; 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Secretary</I> means Secretary of Labor; 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Separable portion of a plan</I> for purposes of withdrawal of approval generally means an issue as defined in 29 CFR 1902.2(c), <I>i.e.</I>, “an industrial, occupational or hazard grouping which is at least as comprehensive as a corresponding grouping contained in (i) one or more sections in subpart B or R of part 1910 of this chapter, or (ii) one or more of the remaining subparts of part 1910”: <I>Provided,</I> That wherever the Assistant Secretary has determined that other industrial, occupational or hazard groupings are administratively practicable, such groupings shall be considered separable portions of a plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23467, May 30, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 60129, Sept. 25, 2002; 80 FR 49908, Aug. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.3" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.1.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.3   General policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following circumstances shall be cause for initiation of proceedings under this part for withdrawal of approval of a State plan, or any portion thereof. 
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever the Assistant Secretary determines that under § 1902.2(b) of this chapter a State has not substantially completed the developmental steps of its plan at the end of three years from the date of commencement of operations, a withdrawal proceeding shall be instituted. Examples of a lack of substantial completion of developmental steps include but are not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A failure to develop the necessary regulations and administrative guidelines for an “at least as effective” enforcement program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure to promulgate all or a majority of the occupational safety and health standards in an issue covered by the plan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Failure to enact the required enabling legislation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the Assistant Secretary determines that there is no longer a reasonable expectation that a State plan will meet the criteria of § 1902.3 of this chapter involving the completion of developmental steps within the three year period immediately following commencement of operations, a withdrawal proceeding shall be instituted. Examples of a lack of reasonable expectation include but are not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A failure to enact enabling legislation in the first two years following commencement of operations where the remaining developmental steps are dependent on the passage of enabling legislation and cannot be completed within one year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repeal or substantial amendment of the enabling legislation by the State legislature so that the State program fails to meet the criteria in § 1902.3 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Inability to complete the developmental steps within the indicated three year period. 
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever the Assistant Secretary determines that in the operation or administration of a State plan, or as a result of any modifications to a plan, there is a failure to comply substantially with any provision of the plan, including assurances contained in the plan, a withdrawal proceeding shall be instituted in a State which has received final approval under section 18(e) of the Act, and may be instituted in a State which has received initial approval under section 18(c) of the Act. Examples of a lack of substantial compliance include but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Where a State over a period of time consistently fails to provide effective enforcement of standards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the rights of employees are circumscribed in such a manner as to diminish the effectiveness of the program;
</P>
<P>(iii) Where a State, without good cause, fails to continue to maintain its program in accordance with the appropriate changes in the Federal program;
</P>
<P>(iv) Where a State fails to comply with the required assurances on a sufficient number of qualified personnel and/or adequate resources for administration and enforcement of the program; or
</P>
<P>(v) Where, on the basis of actual operations, the Assistant Secretary determines that the criteria in section 18(c) of the Act are not being met, that the period of concurrent authority under section 18(e) of the Act should not be extended, and that final approval under section 18(e) of the Act should not be given. 
</P>
<P>(b) A State may, at any time both before or after a determination under section 18(e) of the Act, voluntarily withdraw its plan, or any portion thereof, by notifying the Assistant Secretary in writing setting forth the reasons for such withdrawal. Such notification shall be accompanied by a letter terminating the application for related grants authorized under section 23(g) of the Act in accordance with 29 CFR 1951.25(d). Upon receipt of the State notice the Assistant Secretary shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of withdrawal of approval of the State plan or portion thereof (see Montana notice 39 FR 2361, June 27, 1974). 
</P>
<P>(c) Approval of a portion of a plan may be withdrawn under any of the paragraphs in this section when it is determined that that portion is reasonably separable from the remainder of the plan in a manner consistent with the provisions in § 1902.2(c) of this chapter defining the scope of a State plan. As an example, such a partial withdrawal of approval would be considered appropriate where a State fails to adopt, without good cause shown, Federal standards within a separable issue, such as occupational health. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23467, May 30, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 60129, Sept. 25, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.4" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.1.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.4   Effect of withdrawal of approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After receipt of notice of withdrawal of approval of a State plan, such plan, or any part thereof, shall cease to be in effect and the provisions of the Federal Act shall apply within that State. But the State, in accordance with section 18(f) of the Act, may retain jurisdiction in any case commenced before receipt of the notice of withdrawal of approval of the plan, in order to enforce standards under the plan, whenever the issues involved in the case or cases pending do not relate to the reasons for withdrawal of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice of withdrawal of approval shall operate constructively as notice of termination of all related grants authorized under section 23(g) of the Act in accordance with 29 CFR 1951.25(c). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.5" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.1.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.5   Petitions for withdrawal of approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time following the initial approval of a State plan under section 18(c) of the Act, any interested person may petition the Assistant Secretary in writing to initiate proceedings for withdrawal of approval of the plan under section 18(f) of the Act and this part. The petition shall contain a statement of the grounds for initiating a withdrawal proceeding, including facts to support the petition. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Assistant Secretary may request the petitioner for additional facts and may take such other actions as are considered appropriate such as: 
</P>
<P>(i) Publishing the petition for public comment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Holding informal discussion on the issues raised by the petition with the State and other persons affected; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Holding an informal hearing in accordance with § 1902.13 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any such petition shall be considered and acted upon within a reasonable time. Prompt notice shall be given of the denial in whole or in part of any petition and the notice shall be accompanied by a brief statement of the grounds for the denial. A denial of a petition does not preclude future action on those issues or any other issues raised regarding a State plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Notice of Formal Proceeding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.10" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.10   Publication of notice of formal proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary, prior to any notice of a formal proceeding under this subpart, shall by letter, provide the State with an opportunity to show cause within 45 days why a proceeding should not be instituted for withdrawal of approval of a plan or any portion thereof. When a State fails to show cause why a formal proceeding for withdrawal of approval should not be instituted, the State shall be deemed to have waived its right to a formal proceeding under paragraph (b) of this section and the Assistant Secretary shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of withdrawal of approval of the State plan. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Whenever the Assistant Secretary, on the basis of a petition under § 1955.5 or on his own initiative, determines that approval of a State plan or any portion thereof should be withdrawn, and the State has not waived its right under § 1955.3(b) or paragraph (a) of this section to a formal proceeding, he shall publish a notice of proposed withdrawal in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as set out in § 1955.11 and cause such notice, in the form of a complaint, to be served on the State in accordance with § 1955.15. 
</P>
<P>(2) Not later than 5 days following the publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the State agency shall publish, or cause to be published, within the State reasonable notice containing a summary of the information in the Federal notice, as well as the location or locations where a copy of the full notice is available for inspection and public copying. 
</P>
<P>(3) Two copies of such notice shall be served on the Assistant Secretary in accordance with § 1955.15. 
</P>
<P>(c) Not less than 30 days following publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the State shall submit a statement of those items in the notice which are being contested and a brief statement of the facts relied upon, including whether the use of witnesses is intended. This statement shall be served on the Assistant Secretary in accordance with § 1955.15. When a State fails to respond to the notice of proposed withdrawal under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the State shall be deemed to have waived its right to a formal proceeding and the Assistant Secretary shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of withdrawal of approval. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.11" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.11   Contents of notice of formal proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice of a formal proceeding published under § 1955.10 shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement on the nature of the proceeding and addresses for filing all papers; 
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority under which the proceeding is to be held; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the issues and the grounds for the Assistant Secretary's proposed withdrawal of approval; 
</P>
<P>(4) A specified period, generally not less than 30 days after publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> for the State to submit a response to the statement of issues in the notice; 
</P>
<P>(5) A provision for designation of an administrative law judge under 5 U.S.C. 3105 to preside over the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the notice of the proceeding stating the basis for the Assistant Secretary's determination that approval of the plan, or any portion thereof, should be withdrawn shall be referred to the administrative law judge. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.12" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.12   Administrative law judge; powers and duties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative law judge appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105 and designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge to preside over a proceeding shall have all powers necessary and appropriate to conduct a fair, full, and impartial proceeding, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations; 
</P>
<P>(2) To rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence; 
</P>
<P>(3) To provide for discovery, including the issuance of subpoenas authorized by section 8(b) of the Act and 5 U.S.C. 555(d) and 556(c)(2), and to determine the scope and time limits of the discovery; 
</P>
<P>(4) To regulate the course of the proceeding and the conduct of the parties and their counsel; 
</P>
<P>(5) To consider and rule upon procedural requests, e.g. motions for extension of time; 
</P>
<P>(6) To hold preliminary conferences for the settlement or simplification of issues; 
</P>
<P>(7) To take official notice of material facts not appearing in the evidence in the record in accordance with § 1955.40(c); 
</P>
<P>(8) To render an initial decision; 
</P>
<P>(9) To examine and cross-examine witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(10) To take any other appropriate action authorized by the Act, the implementing regulations, or the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 554-557 (hereinafter called the APA). 
</P>
<P>(b) On any procedural question not otherwise regulated by this part, the Act, or the APA, the administrative law judge shall be guided to the extent practicable by the pertinent provisions of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.13" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.13   Disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an administrative law judge deems himself disqualified to preside over a particular proceeding, he shall withdraw by notice on the record directed to the Chief Administrative Law Judge. Any party who deems an administrative law judge, for any reason, to be disqualified to preside, or to continue to preside, over a particular proceeding may file a motion to disqualify and remove the administrative law judge, provided the motion is filed prior to the time the administrative law judge files his decision. Such motion must be supported by affidavits setting forth the alleged ground for disqualification. The Chief Administrative Law Judge shall rule upon the motion. 
</P>
<P>(b) Contumacious conduct at any proceeding before the administrative law judge shall be ground for summary exclusion from the proceeding. If a witness or party refuses to answer a question after being so directed, or refuses to obey an order to provide or permit discovery, the administrative law judge may make such orders with regard to the refusal as are just and proper, including the striking of all testimony previously given by such witness on related matters. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.14" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.14   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except to the extent required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters, the administrative law judge shall not consult any interested person or party or their representative on any fact in issue or on the merits of any matter before him except upon notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Written or oral communications from interested persons outside the Department of Labor involving any substantive or procedural issues in a proceeding directed to the administrative law judge, the Secretary of Labor, the Assistant Secretary, the Associate Assistant Secretary for Regional Programs, the Solicitor of Labor, or the Associate Solicitor for Occupational Safety and Health, or their staffs shall be deemed <I>ex parte</I> communications and are not to be considered part of any record or the basis for any official decision, unless the communication is made by motion to the administrative law judge and served upon all the parties. 
</P>
<P>(2) To facilitate implementation of this requirement, the above-mentioned offices shall keep a log of such communications which shall be made available to the public and which may, by motion, be entered into the record. 
</P>
<P>(c) No employee or agent of the Department of Labor engaged in the investigation or presentation of the withdrawal proceeding governed by this part shall participate or advise in the initial or final decision, except as a witness or counsel in the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.15" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.15   Manner of service and filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery of, or by mailing a copy of the document by certified mail, to the last known address of the party or his representative. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and date of service. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to serving a copy of any documents upon the parties, the original and two copies of each document shall be filed with the administrative law judge. With respect to exhibits and transcripts, only originals or certified copies need be filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.16" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.16   Time.</HEAD>
<P>Computation of any period of time under these rules shall begin with the first business day following that on which the act, event or development initiating such period of time shall have occurred. When the last day of the period so computed is a Saturday, Sunday, or national holiday, or other day on which the Department of Labor is closed, the period shall run until the end of the next following business day. When such period of time is 7 days or less, each of the Saturdays, Sundays, and such holidays shall be excluded from the computation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.17" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.17   Determination of parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The designated State agency or agencies and the Department of Labor, OSHA, shall be the initial parties to the proceedings. Other interested persons may, at the discretion of the administrative law judge, be granted the right to participate as parties if he determines that the final decision could substantially affect them or the class they represent or that they may contribute materially to the disposition of the proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any person wishing to participate in any proceeding as a party under paragraph (a) of this section shall submit a petition to the administrative law judge within 30 days after the notice of such proceeding has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The petition shall also be served upon the other parties. Such petition shall concisely state: 
</P>
<P>(i) Petitioner's interest in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ii) How his participation as a party will contribute materially to the disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) Who will appear for petitioner;
</P>
<P>(iv) The issue or issues as set out in the notice published under § 1955.10 of this part on which petitioner wishes to participate; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(2) The administrative law judge shall, within 5 days of receipt of the petition, ascertain what objections, if any, there are to the petition. He shall then determine whether the petitioner is qualified in his judgment to be a party in the proceedings and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. The administrative law judge shall give each petitioner written notice of the decision on his petition promptly. If the petition is denied, the notice shall briefly state the grounds for denial. Persons whose petition for party participation is denied may appeal the decision to the Secretary within 5 days of receipt of the notice of denial. The Secretary will make the final decision to grant or deny the petition no later than 20 days following receipt of the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where the petitions to participate as parties are made by individuals or groups with common interests, the administrative law judge may require all such petitioners to designate a single representative, or he may recognize one or more of such petitioners to represent all such petitioners. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.18" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.2.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.18   Provision for written comments.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who is not a party may submit a written statement of position with 4 copies to either the Assistant Secretary or the State at any time during the proceeding which statement shall be made available to all parties and may be introduced into evidence by a party. Mere statements of approval or opposition to the plan without any documentary support shall not be considered as falling within this provision. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Consent Findings and Summary Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.20" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.20   Consent findings and orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) At any time during the proceeding a reasonable opportunity may be afforded to permit negotiation by the parties of an agreement containing consent findings and a rule or order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such opportunity and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the administrative law judge, after consideration of the requirements of section 18 of the Act, the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of an agreement which will result in a just disposition of the issues. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any agreement containing consent findings and a rule or order disposing of a proceeding shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(i) That the rule or order shall have the same force and effect as if made after a full hearing;
</P>
<P>(ii) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the administrative law judge and the Secretary; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the findings and of the rule or order made in accordance with the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(i) Submit the proposed agreement to the administrative law judge for his consideration; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the administrative law judge that agreement cannot be reached. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the event an agreement containing consent findings and a rule or order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the administrative law judge may accept such agreement by issuing his decision based upon the agreed findings. Such decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.21" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.3.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.21   Motion for a summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Any party may move, with or without supporting affidavits, for a summary decision on all or any part of the proceeding. Any other party may, within 10 days after service of the motion, serve opposing affidavits or file a cross motion for summary decision. The administrative law judge may, in his discretion, set the matter for argument and call for submission of briefs. The filing of any documents under this section shall be with the administrative law judge and copies of any such document shall be served on all the parties. 
</P>
<P>(2) The administrative law judge may grant such motion if the pleadings, affidavits, material obtained by discovery or otherwise obtained, or matters officially noticed, show that there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and that a party is entitled to summary decision. Affidavits shall set forth such facts as would be admissible in evidence in the hearing and shall show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated therein. When a motion for summary decision is made and supported as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the party opposing the motion may not rest upon the mere allegations or denials of his pleading; his response must set forth specific facts showing that there is a genuine issue of fact for the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(3) Should it appear from the affidavits of a party opposing the motion that he cannot, for reasons stated, present by affidavit facts essential to justify his opposition, the administrative law judge may refuse the application for summary decision or may order a continuance to permit affidavits to be obtained, or depositions to be taken, or discovery to be had, or may make such other order as is just. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The denial of all or any part of a motion or cross motion for summary decision by the administrative law judge shall not be subject to interlocutory appeal to the Secretary unless the administrative law judge certifies in writing:
</P>
<P>(i) That the ruling involves an important question of law or policy as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That an immediate appeal from the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(2) The allowance of such an interlocutory appeal shall not stay the proceeding before the administrative law judge unless the Secretary so orders. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.22" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.3.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.22   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Where no genuine issue of material fact is found to have been raised, the administrative law judge shall issue an initial decision to become final 30 days after service thereof upon each party unless, within those 30 days, any party has filed written exceptions to the decision with the Secretary. Requests for extension of time to file exceptions may be granted if the requests are received by the Secretary no later than 25 days after service of the decision. 
</P>
<P>(2) If any timely exceptions are filed, the Secretary may set a time for filing any response to the exceptions with supporting reasons. All exceptions and responses thereto shall be served on all the parties. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Secretary, after consideration of the decision, the exceptions, and any supporting briefs filed therewith and any responses to the exceptions with supporting reasons, shall issue a final decision. 
</P>
<P>(2) An initial decision and a final decision under this section shall include a statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law and the reasons and bases therefor on all issues presented;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reference to any material fact based on official notice; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The terms and conditions of the rule or order made.
</P>
<FP>The final decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and served on all the parties. 
</FP>
<P>(c) Where a genuine material question of fact is raised, the administrative law judge shall, and in any other case may, set the case for an evidentiary hearing. A notice of such hearing shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least 30 days prior to the hearing date. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Preliminary Conference and Discovery</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.30" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.4.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.30   Submission of documentary evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where there has been no consent finding or summary decision under subpart C of this part and a formal hearing is necessary, the administrative law judge shall set a date by which all documentary evidence, which is to be offered during the hearing, shall be submitted to the administrative law judge and served on the other parties. Such submission date shall be sufficiently in advance of the hearing as to permit study and preparation for cross-examination and rebuttal evidence. Documentary evidence not submitted in advance may be received into evidence upon a clear showing that the offering party had good cause for failure to produce the evidence sooner. 
</P>
<P>(b) The authenticity of all documents submitted in advance shall be deemed admitted unless written objections are filed prior to the hearing, except that a party will be permitted to challenge such authenticity at a later date upon clear showing of good cause for failure to have filed such written objections. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.31" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.4.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.31   Preliminary conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon his own motion, or the motion of a party, the administrative law judge may direct the parties to meet with him for a conference or conferences to consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amendments to documents for purposes of clarification, simplification, or limitation;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations of fact, and of the authenticity, of the contents of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitations on the number of parties and of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Scope of participation of petitioners under § 1955.17 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(6) Establishment of dates for discovery; and
</P>
<P>(7) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the disposition of the proceedings, and to assure a just conclusion thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) The administrative law judge shall enter an order which recites the action taken at the conference, the amendments allowed to any documents which have been filed, and the agreements made between the parties as to any of the matters considered. Such order shall limit the issues for hearing to those not disposed of by admissions or agreements, and control the subsequent course of the hearing, unless modified at the hearing to prevent manifest injustice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.32" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.4.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.32   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) At any time after the commencement of a proceeding under this part, but generally before the preliminary conference, if any, a party may request of any other party admissions that relate to statements or opinions of fact, or of the application of law to fact, including the genuineness of any document described in the request. Copies of documents shall be served with the request unless they have been or are otherwise furnished or made available for inspection or copying. The matter shall be deemed admitted unless within 30 days after service of the request, or within such shorter or longer time as the administrative law judge may prescribe, the party to whom the request is directed serves upon the party requesting the admission a specific written response. 
</P>
<P>(2) If objection is made, the reasons therefor shall be stated. The answer shall specifically deny the matter or set forth in detail the reasons why the answering party cannot truthfully admit or deny the matter. A denial shall fairly meet the substance of the requested admission and when good faith requires that a party qualify his answer or deny only a part of the matter on which an admission is requested, he shall specify so much of it as is true and qualify or deny the remainder. An answering party may not give lack of information or knowledge as the reason for failure to admit or deny unless he states that he has made reasonable inquiry and that the information known or readily obtainable by him is insufficient to enable him to admit or deny. 
</P>
<P>(3) The party who has requested the admission may move to determine the sufficiency of the answers or objections. Unless the administrative law judge determines that an objection is justified, he may order either that the matter is admitted or that an amended answer be served. The administrative law judge may, in lieu of these orders, determine that final disposition of the requests be made at a preliminary conference, or at a designated time prior to the hearing. Any matter admitted under this section is conclusively established unless the administrative law judge on motion permits withdrawal or amendment of the admission. Copies of all requests and responses shall be served on all parties and filed with the administrative law judge. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The testimony of any witness may be taken by deposition. Depositions may be taken orally or upon written interrogatories before any person designated by the administrative law judge or having power to administer oaths. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any party desiring to take the deposition of a witness may make application in writing to the administrative law judge setting forth:
</P>
<P>(i) The time when, the place where, and the name and post office address of the person before whom the deposition is to be taken;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and address of each witness; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The subject matter concerning which each witness is expected to testify. 
</P>
<P>(3) Such notice as the administrative law judge may order shall be given by the party taking the deposition to every other party. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each witness testifying upon deposition shall be sworn, and the parties not calling him shall have the right to cross-examine him. The questions propounded and the answers thereto, together with all objections made, shall be reduced to writing and shall be read to or by the witness unless such examination and reading are waived by the witness and the parties. Any changes in form or substance which the witness desires to make shall be entered upon the deposition by the officer with a statement of the reasons given by the witness for making them. The deposition shall then be signed by the witness and certified by the officer before whom the deposition was taken. Thereafter, the officer shall seal the deposition, with copies thereof, in an envelope and mail the same by registered or certified mail to the administrative law judge. 
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to such objections to the questions and answers as were noted at the time of taking the deposition, and to the provisions in § 1955.40(b)(1), any part or all of a deposition may be offered into evidence by the party taking it as against any party who was present, represented at the taking of the deposition, or who had due notice thereof. 
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever appropriate to a just disposition of any issue in the proceeding the administrative law judge may allow discovery by any other appropriate procedure, such as by interrogatories upon a party or request for production of documents by a party. 
</P>
<P>(e) Upon motion by a party or by the person from whom discovery is sought, and for good cause shown, the administrative law judge may make any order which justice requires to limit or condition discovery in order to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.33" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.4.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.33   Sanctions for failure to comply with orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a party or an official or agent of a party fails, without good cause, to comply with an order including, but not limited to, an order for the taking of a deposition, written interrogatories, the production of documents, or an order to comply with a subpoena, the administrative law judge or the Secretary or both, for the purpose of permitting resolution of relevant issues and disposition of the proceeding without unnecessary delay despite such failure, may take such action as is just, including but not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Infer that the admission, testimony, documents, or other evidence would have been adverse to the party; 
</P>
<P>(2) Rule that for the purposes of the proceeding, the matter or matters concerning which the order or subpoena was issued be taken as established adversely to the party; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rule that the party may not introduce into evidence or otherwise rely, in support of any claim or defense, upon testimony by such party, officer or agent, or the documents or other evidence; 
</P>
<P>(4) Rule that the party may not be heard to object to introduction and use of secondary evidence to show what the withheld admission, testimony, documents, or other evidence would have shown; 
</P>
<P>(5) Rule that a pleading, or part of a pleading, on a motion or other submission by the party, concerning which the order or subpoena was issued, be stricken or that decision on the pleading be rendered against the party, or both. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any such action may be taken by written or oral order issued in the course of the proceeding or by inclusion in the initial decision of the administrative law judge or an order or opinion of the Secretary. The parties may seek, and the administrative law judge may grant, such of the foregoing means of relief or other appropriate relief as may be sufficient to compensate for the lack of withheld testimony, documents, or other evidence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.34" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.4.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.34   Fees of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>Witnesses, including witnesses for depositions, shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the courts of the United States. Fees shall be paid by the party at whose instance the witness appears, and the person taking a deposition shall be paid by the party at whose instance the deposition is taken. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Hearing and Decision</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.40" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.40   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Except as may be ordered otherwise by the administrative law judge, the Department of Labor shall proceed first at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Department of Labor shall have the burden of proof to sustain the contentions alleged in the notice of proposed withdrawal, published under § 1955.10(b)(1) but the proponent of any factual proposition shall be required to sustain the burden of proof with respect thereto. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A party shall be entitled to present his case or defense by oral or documentary evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts. Any oral or documentary evidence may be received, but the administrative law judge shall exclude evidence which is irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious. 
</P>
<P>(2) The testimony of a witness shall be upon oath or affirmation administered by the administrative law judge. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a party objects to the admission or rejection of any evidence, or to the limitation of the scope of any examination or cross-examination, or to the failure to limit such scope, he shall state briefly the grounds for such objection. Rulings on all objections shall appear in the record. Only objections made before the administrative law judge may be relied upon subsequently in the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(4) Formal exception to an adverse ruling is not required. 
</P>
<P>(c) Official notice may be taken of any material fact not appearing in evidence in the record, which is among the traditional matters of judicial notice, or concerning which the Department of Labor by reason of its functions is presumed to be expert: Provided, that the parties shall be given adequate notice, at the hearing or by reference in the administrative law judge's and the Secretary's decision of the matters so noticed and shall be given adequate opportunity to show the contrary. 
</P>
<P>(d) When an objection to a question propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining party may make a specific offer of proof of what the party expects to prove by the answer of the witness orally or in writing. Written offers of proof, adequately marked for identification, shall be retained in the record so as to be available for consideration by any reviewing authority. 
</P>
<P>(e) Hearings shall be stenographically reported. Copies of the transcript may be obtained by the parties and the public upon payment of the actual cost of duplication to the Department of Labor in accordance with 29 CFR 70.62(c). 
</P>
<P>(f) Corrections of the official transcript may be made only when they involve errors affecting substance and then only in the manner herein provided. Corrections may be ordered by the administrative law judge or agreed to in a written stipulation by all parties or their representatives. Where the parties are in disagreement, the administrative law judge shall determine the corrections to be made and so order. Corrections may be interlineated in the official transcript so as not to obliterate the original text. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.41" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.41   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after receipt of notice that the transcript of the testimony has been filed with the administrative law judge, or such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and rules or orders, together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and brief shall be served on all other parties and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and rules or orders, the administrative law judge shall make and serve upon each party his initial decision which shall become final upon the 30th day after service thereof unless exceptions are filed thereto. 
</P>
<P>(2) The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based solely upon substantial evidence on the record as a whole and shall state all facts officially noticed and relied upon. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the findings of fact and conclusions of law, with reasons and bases therefor upon each material issue of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reference to any material fact based on official notice; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The appropriate rule, order, relief, or denial thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.42" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.42   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service of the decision of the administrative law judge, any party may file with the Secretary written exceptions thereto with supporting reasons. Such exceptions shall refer to the specific findings of fact, conclusions of law, or terms of the rule or order excepted to; and shall suggest corrected findings of fact, conclusions of law, or terms of the rule or order referencing the specific pages of the transcript relevant to the suggestions. Requests for extension of time to file exceptions may be granted if the requests are received by the Secretary no later than 25 days after service of the decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) If any timely exceptions are filed, the Secretary may set a time for filing any response to the exceptions with supporting reasons. All exceptions and responses thereto shall be served on all the parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.43" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.43   Transmission of the record.</HEAD>
<P>If exceptions are filed, the Secretary shall request the administrative law judge to transmit the record of the proceeding to the Secretary for review. The record shall include the State plan; a copy of the Assistant Secretary's notice of proposed withdrawal; the State's statement of items in contention; the notice of the hearing if any; any motions and requests filed in written form and rulings thereon; the transcript of the testimony taken at the hearing, together with any documents or papers filed in connection with the preliminary conference and the hearing itself; such proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, rules or orders, and supporting reasons as may have been filed; the administrative law judge's decision; and such exceptions, responses, and briefs in support thereof as may have been filed in the proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.44" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.44   Final decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After review of any exceptions, together with the record references and authorities cited in support thereof, the Secretary shall issue a final decision ruling upon each exception and objection filed. The final decision may affirm, modify, or set aside in whole or in part the findings, conclusions, and the rule or order contained in the decision of the administrative law judge. The final decision shall also include reference to any material fact based on official notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary's final decision shall be served upon all the parties and shall become final upon the 30th day after service thereof unless the Secretary grants a stay pending judicial review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.45" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.45   Effect of appeal of administrative law judge's decision.</HEAD>
<P>An administrative law judge's decision shall be stayed pending a decision on appeal to the Secretary. If there are no exceptions filed to the decisions of the administrative law judge, the administrative law judge's decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as a final decision and served upon the parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.46" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.46   Finality for purposes of judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Only a final decision by the Secretary under § 1955.44 shall be deemed final agency action for purposes of judicial review. A decision of an administrative law judge which becomes final for lack of appeal is not deemed final agency action for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 704. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1955.47" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.8.5.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1955.47   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The State may obtain judicial review of a decision by the Secretary in accordance with section 18(g) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1956" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1956—STATE PLANS FOR THE DEVELOPMENT AND ENFORCEMENT OF STATE STANDARDS APPLICABLE TO STATE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES IN STATES WITHOUT APPROVED PRIVATE EMPLOYEE PLANS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 18 (29 U.S.C. 667), 29 CFR parts 1902 and 1955, and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012).








</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 12429, Mar. 4, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth procedures and requirements for approval, continued evaluation, and operation of State plans submitted under section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 667) (hereinafter called the Act) for the development and enforcement of State standards applicable to State and local government employees in States without approved private employee plans. Although section 2(b) of the Act sets forth the policy of assuring every working man and woman safe and healthful working conditions, State and local government agencies are excluded from the definition of “employer” in section 3(5). Only under section 18 of the Act are such public employees ensured protection under the provisions of an approved State plan. Where no such plan is in effect with regard to private employees, State and local government employees have not heretofore been assured any protections under the Act. Section 18(b), however, permits States to submit plans with respect to any occupational safety and health issue with respect to which a Federal standard has been promulgated under section 6 of the Act. Under § 1902.2(c) of this chapter, an issue is defined as “any * * * industrial, occupational, or hazard grouping that is found to be administratively practicable and * * * not in conflict with the purposes of the Act.” Since Federal standards are in effect with regard to hazards found in public employment, a State plan covering this occupational category meets the definition of section 18 and the regulations. It is the purpose of this part to assure the availability of the protections of the Act to public employees, where no State plan covering private employees is in effect, by adapting the requirements and procedures applicable to State plans covering private employees to the situation where State coverage under section 18(b) is proposed for public employees only. 
</P>
<P>(b) In adopting these requirements and procedures, consideration should be given to differences between public and private employment. For instance, a system of monetary penalties applicable to violations of public employers may not in all cases be necessarily the most appropriate method of achieving compliance. Further, the impact of the lack of Federal enforcement authority application to public employers requires certain adjustments of private employer plan procedures in adapting them to plans covering only public employees in a State. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.2   General policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> The Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health (hereinafter referred to as the Assistant Secretary) will approve a State plan which provides an occupational safety and health program for the protection of State and local government employees (hereinafter State and local government employees are referred to as public employees) that in his judgment meets or will meet the criteria set forth in § 1956.10. Included among these criteria is the requirement that the State plan for public employees (hereinafter such a plan will be referred to as the plan) provides for the development and enforcement of standards relating to hazards in employment covered by the plan which are or will be at least as effective in providing safe and healthful employment and places of employment for public employees as standards promulgated and enforced under section 6 of the Act. In determining whether a plan satisfies the requirement of effectiveness, the Assistant Secretary will measure the plan against the indices of effectiveness, set forth in § 1956.11. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Developmental plan.</I> (1) A State plan for an occupational safety and health program for public employees may be approved although, upon submission, it does ot fully meet the criteria set forth in § 1956.10, if it includes satisfactory assurances by the State that it will take the necessary steps to bring the program into conformity with these criteria within the 3-year period immediately following the commencement of the plan's operation. In such a case, the plan shall include the specific actions the State proposes to take, and a time schedule for their accomplishment which is not to exceed 3 years, at the end of which the plan will meet the criteria in § 1956.10. A developmental plan shall include the dates within which intermediate and final action will be accomplished. Although administrative actions, such as stages for application of standards and enforcement, related staffing, development of regulations may be developmental, to be considered for approval, a State plan for public employees must contain at time of plan approval basic State legislative and/or executive authority under which these actions will be taken. If necessary program changes require further implementing executive action by the Governor or supplementary legislative action by the State, a copy of the appropriate order, or the bill or a draft of legislation that will be or has been proposed for enactment shall be submitted, accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the Governor's support of the legislation or order and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of legal opinion that the proposed legislation or executive action will meet the requirements of the Act and this part in a manner consistent with the State's constitution and laws.
</P>
<P>(2) On the basis of the State's submission, the Assistant Secretary will approve the plan if he finds that there is a reasonable expectation that the plan for public employees will meet the criteria in § 1956.10 within the indicated 3 year period. In such a case, the Assistant Secretary shall not make a determination that a State is fully applying the criteria in § 1956.10 until the State has completed all the developmental steps specified in the plan which are designed to make it at least as effective as the Federal program for the private sector, and the Assistant Secretary has had at least 1 year to evaluate the plan on the basis of actual operations following the completion of all developmental steps. If at the end of 3 years from the date of commencement of the plan's operation, the State is found by the Assistant Secretary, after affording the State notice and an opportunity for a hearing, not to have substantially completed the developmental steps of the plan, he shall withdraw the approval of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where a State plan approved under part 1902 of this chapter is discontinued, except for its public employee component, or becomes approved after approval of a plan under this part, the developmental period applicable to the public employee component of the earlier plan will be controlling with regard to any such public employee coverage. For good cause, a State may demonstrate that an additional period of time is required to make adjustments on account of the transfer from one type of plan to another. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope of a State plan for public employees.</I> (1) A State plan for public employees must provide for the coverage of both State and local government employees to the full extent permitted by the State laws and constitution. The qualification “to the extent permitted by its law” means only that where a State may not constitutionally regulate occupational safety and health conditions in certain political subdivisions, the plan may exclude such political subdivision employees from coverage. 
</P>
<P>(2) The State shall not exclude any occupational, industrial, or hazard grouping from coverage under its plan unless the Assistant Secretary finds that the State has shown there is no necessity for such coverage. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Criteria</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.10" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.10   Specific criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A State plan for public employees must meet the specific criteria set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of State agency.</I> (1) The plan shall designate a State agency or agencies which will be responsible for administering the plan throughout the State. 
</P>
<P>(2) The plan shall also describe the authority and responsibilities vested in such agency or agencies. The plan shall contain assurances that any other responsibilities of the designated agency shall not detract significantly from the resources and priorities assigned to the administration of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(3) A State agency or agencies must be designated with overall responsibility for administering the plan throughout the State. Subject to this overall responsibility, enforcement of standards may be delegated to an appropriate agency having occupational safety and health responsibilities or expertise throughout the State. Included in this overall responsibility are the requirements that the designated agency have, or assure the provision of necessary qualified personnel, legal authority necessary for the enforcement of the standards and make reports as required by the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards.</I> The State plan for public employees shall include, or provide for the development or adoption of, standards which are or will be at least as effective as those promulgated under section 6 of the Act. The plan shall also contain assurances that the State will continue to develop or adopt such standards. Indices of the effectiveness of standards and procedures for the development or adoption of standards against which the Assistant Secretary will measure the plan in determining whether it is approvable are set forth in § 1956.11(b). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement.</I> (1) The State plan for public employees shall provide a program for the enforcement of the State standards which is, or will be, at least as effective in assuring safe and healthful employment and places of employment as the standards promulgated by section 6 of the Act; and provide assurances that the State's enforcement program for public employees will continue to be at least as effective in this regard as the Federal program in the private sector. Indices of the effectiveness of a State's enforcement plan against which the Assistant Secretary will measure the plan in determining whether it is approvable are set forth in § 1956.11(c). 
</P>
<P>(2) The plan shall require State and local government agencies to comply with all applicable State occupational safety and health standards included in the plan and all applicable rules issued thereunder, and employees to comply with all standards, rules, and orders applicable to their conduct. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Right of entry and inspection.</I> The plan shall contain adequate assurances that inspectors will have a right to enter covered workplaces which is at least as effective as that provided in section 8 of the Act for the purpose of inspection or monitoring. Where such entry is refused, the State agency or agencies shall have the authority through appropriate legal process to compel such entry. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibition against advance notice.</I> The State plan shall contain a prohibition against advance notice of inspections. Any exceptions must be expressly authorized by the head of the designated agency or agencies or his representative and such exceptions may be no broader than those authorized under the Act and the rules published in part 1903 of this chapter relating to advance notice. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Personnel.</I> The plan shall provide assurances that the designated agency or agencies and all government agencies to which authority has been delegated, have, or will have, a sufficient number of adequately trained and qualified personnel necessary for the enforcement of standards. For this purpose, qualified personnel means persons employed on a merit basis, including all persons engaged in the development of standards and the administration of the plan. Subject to the results of evaluations, conformity with the Standards for a Merit System of Personnel Administration, 45 CFR part 70, issued by the Secretary of Labor, including any amendments thereto, and any standards prescribed by the U.S. Civil Service Commission, pursuant to section 208 of the Intergovernmental Personnel Act of 1970, modifying or superseding such standards, and guidelines on “at least as effective as” staffing derived from the Federal private employee program will be deemed to meet this requirement. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Resources.</I> The plan shall contain satisfactory assurances through the use of budget, organizational description, and any other appropriate means, that the State will devote adequate funds to the administration and enforcement of the public employee program. The Assistant Secretary will make the periodic evaluations of the adequacy of the resources the State has devoted to the plan.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employer records and reports.</I> The plan shall provide assurances that public employers covered by the plan will maintain records and make reports on occupational injuries and illnesses in a manner similar to that required of private employers under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>State agency reports to the Assistant Secretary.</I> The plan shall provide assurances that the designated agency or agencies shall make such reasonable reports to the Assistant Secretary in such form and containing such information as he may from time to time require. The agency or agencies shall establish specific goals consistent with the goals of the Act, including measures of performance, output, and results which will determine the efficiency and effectiveness of the State program for public employees, and shall make periodic reports to the Assistant Secretary on the extent to which the State, in implementation of its plan, has attained these goals. Reports will also include data and information on the implementation of the specific inspection and voluntary compliance activities included within the plan. Further, these reports shall contain such statistical information pertaining to work-related deaths, injuries and illnesses in employments and places of employment covered by the plan as the Assistant Secretary may from time to time require. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.11" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.11   Indices of effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In order to satisfy the requirements of effectiveness under § 1956.10 (c)(1) and (d)(1), the State plan for public employees shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Establish the same standards, procedures, criteria, and rules as have been established by the Assistant Secretary under the act; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Establish alternative standards, procedures, criteria, and rules which will be measured against each of the indices of effectiveness in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section to determine whether the alternatives are at least as effective as the Federal program for private employees, where applicable, with respect to the subject of each index. For each index the State must demonstrate by the presentation of factual or other appropriate information that its plan for public employees will, to the extent practicable, be at least as effective as the Federal program for private employees. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards.</I> (1) The indices for measurement of a State plan for public employees with regard to standards follow in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The Assistant Secretary will determine whether the State plan for public employees satisfies the requirements of effectiveness with regard to each index as provided in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary will determine whether the State plan for public employees: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provides for State standards which are or will be at least as effective as the standards promulgated under section 6 of the Act. In the case of any State standards dealing with toxic materials or harmful physical agents, they should adequately assure, to the extent feasible, that no employee will suffer material impairment of health or functional capacity, even if such employee has regular exposure to the hazard dealt with by such standard for the period of his working life, by such means as, in the development and promulgation of standards, obtaining the best available evidence through research, demonstration, experiments, and experience under this and any other safety and health laws. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides an adequate method to assure that its standards will continue to be at least as effective as Federal standards, including Federal standards which become effective subsequent to any approval of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides a procedure for the development and promulgation of standards which allows for the consideration of pertinent factual information and affords interested persons, including employees, employers and the public, an opportunity to participate in such processes, by such means as establishing procedures for consideration of expert technical knowledge, and providing interested persons, including employers, employees, recognized standards-producing organizations, and the public, an opportunity to submit information requesting the development or promulgation of new standards or the modification or revocation of existing standards and to participate in any hearings. This index may also be satisfied by such means as the adoption of Federal standards, in which case the procedures at the Federal level before adoption of a standard under section 6 may be considered to meet the conditions of this index. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides authority for the granting of variances from State standards upon application of a public employer or employers which correspond to variances authorized under the Act, and for consideration of the views of interested parties, by such means as giving affected employees notice of each application and an opportunity to request and participate in hearings or other appropriate proceedings relating to applications for variances. 
</P>
<P>(v) Provides for prompt and effective standards setting actions for the protection of employees against new and unforeseen hazards, by such means as the authority to promulgate emergency temporary standards. Such authority is particularly appropriate for those situations where public employees are exposed to unique hazards for which existing standards do not provide adequate protection. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Provides that State standards contain appropriate provision for the furnishing to employees of information regarding hazards in the workplace, including information about suitable precautions, relevant symptoms, and emergency treatment in case of exposure; by such means as labelling, posting, and, where appropriate, results of medical examinations, being furnished only to appropriate State officials and, if the employee so requests, to his physician. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Provides that State standards where appropriate, contain specific provision for the protection of employees from exposure to hazards, by such means as containing appropriate provision for the use of suitable protective equipment and for control or technological procedures with respect to such hazards, including monitoring or measuring such exposure. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement.</I> (1) The indices for measurement of a State plan for public employees with regard to enforcement follow in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The Assistant Secretary will determine whether the plan satisfies the requirements of effectiveness with regard to each index as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary will determine whether the State plan for public employees:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides for inspection of covered workplaces in the State by the designated agency or agencies or any other agency which is duly delegated authority, including inspections in response to complaints where there are reasonable grounds to believe a hazard exists, in order to assure, so far as possible, safe and healthful working conditions for covered employees by such means as providing for inspections under conditions such as those provided in section 8 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides an opportunity for employees and their representative, before, during, and after inspections, to bring possible violations to the attention of the State or local agency with enforcement responsibility in order to aid inspections, by such means as affording a representative of the employer, and a representative authorized by employees, an opportunity to accompany the inspector during the physical inspection of the workplace, or where there is no authorized representative, provide for consultation by the inspector with a reasonable number of employees.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for notification of employees, or their representatives, when the State decides not to take compliance action as a result of violations alleged by such employees or their representative, and further provides for informal review of such decisions, by such means as written notification of decisions not to take compliance action and the reasons therefor, and procedures for informal review of such decisions and written statements of the disposition of such review.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides that public employees be informed of their protections and obligations under the Act, including the provisions of applicable standards, by such means as the posting of notices or other appropriate sources of information.
</P>
<P>(v) Provides necessary and appropriate protection to an employee against discharge or discrimination in terms and conditions of employment because he has filed a complaint, testified, or otherwise acted to exercise rights under the State program for public employees for himself or others, by such means as providing for appropriate sanctions against the State or local agency for such actions, and by providing for the withholding, upon request, of the names of complainants from the employer.
</P>
<P>(vi) Provides that public employees have access to information on their exposure to toxic materials or harmful physical agents and receive prompt information when they have been or are being exposed to such materials or agents in concentrations or at levels in excess of those prescribed by the applicable safety and health standards, by such means as the observation by employees of the monitoring or measuring of such materials or agents, employee access to the records of such monitoring or measuring, prompt notification by a public employer to any employee who has been or is being exposed to such agents or materials in excess of the applicable standards, and information to such employee of corrective action being taken.
</P>
<P>(vii) Provides procedures for the prompt restraint or elimination of any conditions or practices in covered places of employment which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the imminence of such danger can be eliminated through the enforcement procedures otherwise provided for in the plan, by such means as immediately informing employees and employers of such hazards, taking steps to obtain immediate abatement of the hazard by the employer, and, where appropriate, authority to initiate necessary legal proceedings to require such abatement.
</P>
<P>(viii) Provides that the designated agency (or agencies) and any agency to which it has duly delegated authority, will have the necessary legal authority for the enforcement of standards by such means as provisions for appropriate compulsory process to obtain necessary evidence or testimony in connection with inspection and enforcement proceedings.
</P>
<P>(ix) Provides for prompt notice to public employers and employees when an alleged violation of standards has occurred, including the proposed abatement requirements, by such means as the issuance of a written citation to the public employer and posting of the citation at or near the site of the violation; further provides for advising the public employer of any proposed sanctions, wherever appropriate, by such means as a notice to the employer by certified mail within a reasonable time of any proposed sanctions.
</P>
<P>(x) Provides effective sanctions against public employers who violate State standards and orders, or applicable public agency standards, such as those prescribed in the Act. In lieu of monetary penalties a complex of enforcement tools and rights, such as various forms of equitable remedies available to the designee including administrative orders; availability of employee rights such as right to contest citations, and provisions for strengthened employee participation in enforcement may be demonstrated to be as effective as monetary penalties in achieving complianace in public employment. In evaluating the effectiveness of an alternate system for compelling compliance, elements of the enforcement educational program such as a system of agency self inspection procedures, and in-house training programs, and employee complaint procedures may be taken into consideration.
</P>
<P>(xi) Provides for an employer to have the right of review of violations alleged by the State or any agency to which it has duly delegated authority, abatement periods and proposed penalties, where appropriate, for employees or their representatives to challenge the reasonableness of the period of time fixed in the citation for the abatement of the hazard, and for employees or their representatives to have an opportunity to participate in review, proceedings, by such means as providing for admininistrative review, with an opportunity for a full hearing on the issues.
</P>
<P>(xii) Provides that the State will undertake programs to encourage voluntary compliance by public employers and employees by such means as conducting training and consultation with such employers and employees, and encouraging agency self-inspection programs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional indices.</I> Upon his own motion, or after consideration of data, views, and arguments received in any proceedings held under subpart C of this part, the Assistant Secretary may prescribe additional indices for any State plan for public employees which shall be in furtherance of the purpose of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Approval, Change, Evaluation and Withdrawal of Approval Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.20" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.20   Procedures for submission, approval and rejection.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures contained in subpart C of part 1902 of this chapter shall be applicable to submission, approval, and rejection of State plans submitted under this part, except that the information required in § 1902.20(b)(1)(iii) would not be included in decisions of approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.21" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.3.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.21   Procedures for submitting changes.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures contained in part 1953 of this chapter shall be applicable to submission and consideration of developmental, Federal program, evaluation, and State-initiated change supplements to plans approved under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.22" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.3.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.22   Procedures for evaluation and monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures contained in part 1954 of this chapter shall be applicable to evaluation and monitoring of State plans approved under this part, except that the decision to relinquish Federal enforcement authority under section 18(e) of the Act is not relevant to Phase II and III monitoring under § 1954.2 and the guidelines of exercise of Federal discretionary enforcement authority provided in § 1954.3 are not applicable to plans approved under this part. The factors listed in § 1902.37(b) of this chapter, except those specified in § 1902.37(b)(11) and (12), which would be adapted to the State compliance program, provide the basis for monitoring.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.23" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.3.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.23   Procedures for certification of completion of development and determination on application of criteria.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures contained in §§ 1902.33 and 1902.34 of this chapter shall be applicable to certification of completion of developmental steps under plans approved in accordance with this part. Such certification shall initiate intensive monitoring of actual operations of the developed plan, which shall continue for at least a year after certification, at which time a determination shall be made under the procedures and criteria of §§ 1902.38, 1902.39, 1902.40 and 1902.41, that on the basis of actual operations, the criteria set forth in §§ 1956.10 and 1956.11 of this part are being applied under the plan. The factors listed in § 1902.37(b) of this chapter, except those specified in § 1902.37(b)(11) and (12) which would be adapted to the State's compliance program provide the basis for making the determination of operational effectiveness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1956.24" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.3.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1956.24   Procedures for withdrawal of approval.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures and standards contained in part 1955 of this chapter shall be applicable to the withdrawal of approval of plans approved under this part 1956, except that (because these plans, as do public employee programs aproved and financed in connection with a State plan covering private employees, must cover all employees of State and local agencies in a State whenever a State is constitutionally able to do so, at least developmentally), no industrial or occupational issues may be considered a separable portion of a plan under § 1955.2(a)(10); and, as Federal standards and enforcement do not apply to State and local government employers, withdrawal of approval of a plan approved under this part 1956 could not bring about application of the provisions of the Federal Act to such employers as set out in § 1955.4 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—General Provisions and Conditions [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1960" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1960—BASIC PROGRAM ELEMENTS FOR FEDERAL EMPLOYEE OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PROGRAMS AND RELATED MATTERS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 19 and 24 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (84 Stat. 1609, 1614; 29 U.S.C. 668, 673), 5 U.S.C. 553, Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-90 (55 FR 9033), and Executive Order 12196.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.1.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 19 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (the Act) contains special provisions to assure safe and healthful working conditions for Federal employees. Under that section, it is the responsibility of the head of each Federal agency to establish and maintain an effective and comprehensive occupational safety and health program which is consistent with the standards promulgated under section 6 of the Act. The Secretary of Labor (the Secretary), under section 19, is to report to the President certain evaluations and recommendations with respect to the programs of the various agencies, and the duties which section 24 of the Act imposes on the Secretary of Labor necessarily extend to the collection, compilation and analysis of occupational safety and health statistics from the Federal Government. The role of the General Services Administration in this area stems from its duties as the Government's principal landlord and from its specific safety and health responsibilities under 41 CFR part 101, subchapter D, Federal Property Management Regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) Executive Order 12196, Occupational Safety and Health Programs for Federal Employees, issued February 26, 1980, prescribes additional responsibilities for the heads of agencies, the Secretary, and the General Services Administrator. Among other duties, the Secretary is required to issue basic program elements in accordance with which the heads of agencies shall operate their safety and health programs. The purpose of this part is to issue these basic program elements. Although agency heads are required to operate a program in accordance with the basic program elements, those elements contain numerous provisions which, by their terms, permit agency heads the flexibility necessary to implement their programs in a manner consistent with their respective missions, sizes, and organizations. Moreover, an agency head, after consultation with agency employees or their representatives and with appropriate safety and health committees may request the Secretary to consider approval of alternate program elements; the Secretary, after consultation with the Federal Advisory Council on Occupational Safety and Health, may approve such alternate program elements. 
</P>
<P>(c) Under Executive Order 12196, the Secretary is required to perform various services for the agencies, including consultation, training, recordkeeping, inspections, and evaluations. Agencies are encouraged to seek such assistance from the Secretary as well as advice on how to comply with the basic program elements and operate effective occupational safety and health programs. Upon the request of an Agency, the Office of Federal Agency Safety and Health Programs will review proposed agency plans for the implementation of program elements. 
</P>
<P>(d) Section 19 of the Act and the Executive Order require specific opportunities for employee participation in the operation of agency safety and health programs. The manner of fulfilling these requirements is set forth in part in these program elements. These requirements are separate from but consistent with the Federal Service Labor Management Relations Statute (5 U.S.C. 71) and regulations dealing with labor-management relations within the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(e) Executive Order 12196 and these basic program elements apply to all agencies of the Executive Branch. They apply to all Federal employees. They apply to all working conditions of Federal employees except those involving uniquely military equipment, systems, and operations. 
</P>
<P>(f) No provision of the Executive Order or this part shall be construed in any manner to relieve any private employer, including Federal contractors, or their employees of any rights or responsibilities under the provisions of the Act, including compliance activities conducted by the Department of Labor or other appropriate authority.
</P>
<P>(g) Federal employees who work in establishments of private employers are covered by their agencies' occupational safety and health programs. Although an agency may not have the authority to require abatement of hazardous conditions in a private sector workplace, the agency head must assure safe and healthful working conditions for his/her employees. This shall be accomplished by administrative controls, personal protective equipment, or withdrawal of Federal employees from the private sector facility to the extent necessary to assure that the employees are protected. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 60 FR 34852, July 5, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.1.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>Act</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (84 Stat. 1590 <I>et seq.,</I> 29 U.S.C. 651 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>agency</I> for the purposes of this part means an Executive Department, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 101, or any employing unit of authority of the Executive Branch of the Government. For the purposes of this part to the extent it implements section 19 of the Act, the term <I>agency</I> does not include the United States Postal Service. By agreement between the Secretary of Labor and the head of an agency of the Legislative or Judicial Branches of the Government, these regulations may be applicable to such agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>agency liaison</I> means an agency person appointed with full authority and reponsibility to represent the occupant agency management with the official in charge of a facility or installation such as a GSA Building Manager. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>building manager</I> means the person who manages one or several buildings under the authority of a Federal agency. For example, a building manager may be the GSA person who manages building(s) for GSA. 
</P>
<P>(e) As used in Executive Order 12196, the term <I>consultation with representatives of the employees thereof</I> shall include such consultation, conference, or negotiation with representatives of agency employees as is consistent with the Federal Service Labor Management Relations Statute (5 U.S.C. 71), or collective bargaining or other labor-management arrangements. As used in this part, the term <I>representative of employees</I> shall be interpreted with due regard for any obligation imposed by the aforementioned statute and any other labor-management arrangement that may cover the employees involved. 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>Designated Agency Safety and Health Official</I> means the individual who is responsible for the management of the safety and health program within an agency, and is so designated or appointed by the head of the agency pursuant to § 1960.6 and the provisions of Executive Order 12196. 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>employee</I> as used in this part means any person, other than members of the Armed Forces, employed or otherwise suffered, permitted, or required to work by an <I>agency</I> as the latter term is defined in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>establishment</I> means a single physical location where business is conducted or where services or operations are performed. Where distinctly separate activities are performed at a single physical location, each activity shall be treated as a separate <I>establishment.</I> Typically, an <I>establishment</I> as used in this part refers to a field activity, regional office, area office, installation, or facility. 
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>uniquely military equipment, systems, and operations</I> excludes from the scope of the order the design of Department of Defense equipment and systems that are unique to the national defense mission, such as military aircraft, ships, submarines, missiles, and missile sites, early warning systems, military space systems, artillery, tanks, and tactical vehicles; and excludes operations that are uniquely military such as field maneuvers, naval operations, military flight operations, associated research test and development activities, and actions required under emergency conditions. The term includes within the scope of the Order Department of Defense workplaces and operations comparable to those of industry in the private sector such as: Vessel, aircraft, and vehicle repair, overhaul, and modification (except for equipment trials); construction; supply services; civil engineering or public works; medical services; and office work. 
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>incidence rates</I> means the number of injuries and illnesses, or lost workdays, per 100 full-time workers. Rates are calculated as 
</P>
<FP-1>N × 200,000 ÷ EH
</FP-1>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>N = number of injuries and illnesses, or number of lost workdays.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EH = total hours worked by all employees during a month, a quarter, or fiscal year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>200,000 = base for 100 full-time equivalent workers (working 40 hours per week, 50 weeks per year).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(k) The term <I>inspection</I> means a comprehensive survey of all or part of a workplace in order to detect safety and health hazards. Inspections are normally performed during the regular work hours of the agency, except as special circumstances may require. Inspections do not include routine, day-to-day visits by agency occupational safety and health personnel, or routine workplace surveillance of occupational health conditions.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Injury or illness.</I> An injury or illness is an abnormal condition or disorder. Injuries include cases such as, but not limited to, a cut, fracture, sprain, or amputation. Illness includes both acute and chronic illnesses, such as, but not limited to, a skin disease, respiratory disorder, or poisoning.
</P>
<P>(m) The term <I>representative of management</I> means a supervisor or management official as defined in the applicable labor-management relations program covering the affected employees.
</P>
<P>(n)-(p) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(q) The term <I>Safety and Health Inspector</I> means a safety and/or occupational health specialist or other person authorized pursuant to Executive Order 12196, section 1-201(g), to carry out inspections for the purpose of subpart D of this part, a person having equipment and competence to recognize safety and/or health hazards in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(r) The term <I>Safety and Health Official</I> means an individual who manages the occupational safety and/or occupational health program at organizational levels below the Designated Agency Safety and Health Official.
</P>
<P>(s) The term <I>Safety and Health Specialist</I> means a person or persons meeting the Office of Personnel Management standards for such occupations, which include but are not limited to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Safety and Occupational Health Manager/Specialist GS-018
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Safety Engineer GS-803
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fire Prevention Engineer GS-804
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Industrial Hygienist GS-690
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fire Protection and Prevention Specialist/Marshal GS-081
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Health Physicist GS-1306
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Occupational Medicine Physician GS-602
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Occupational Health Nurse GS-610
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Safety Technician GS-019
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Physical Science Technician GS-1311
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Environmental Health Technician GS-699
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Air Safety Investigation Officer GS-1815
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aviation Safety Specialist GS-1825
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chemist GS-1320
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Health Technician GS-645
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Highway Safety Manager GS-2125</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>or equally qualified military, agency, or nongovernment personnel. The agency head shall be responsible for determination and certification of equally qualified personnel.
</FP>
<P>(t) The term <I>workplace</I> means a physical location where the agency's work or operations are performed.
</P>
<P>(u) The term <I>imminent danger</I> means any conditions or practices in any workplace which are such that a danger exists which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the imminence of such danger can be eliminated through normal procedures.
</P>
<P>(v) The word <I>serious</I> as used in <I>serious hazard, serious violation</I> or <I>serious condition</I> means a hazard, violation or condition such that there is a substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could result.
</P>
<P>(w) The term <I>certified safety and health committee</I> means an agency safety and health committee that meets the provisions of section 1-3 of Executive Order 12196 and of this part, as listed and attested to by the head of each agency in writing to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(x) The term <I>reprisal</I> as used in this part means any act of restraint, interference, coercion or discrimination against an employee for exercising his or her rights under Executive Order 12196 and this part, or for participating in the agency's safety and health program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 3078, Jan. 25, 1984; 50 FR 40269, Oct. 2, 1985; 51 FR 28378, Aug. 7, 1986; 69 FR 68804, Nov. 26, 2004; 78 FR 47190, Aug. 5, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.6" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.2.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.6   Designation of agency safety and health officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall designate an official with sufficient authority and responsibility to represent effectively the interest and support of the agency head in the management and administration of the agency occupational safety and health program. This Designated Agency Safety and Health Official should be of the rank of Assistant Secretary, or of equivalent rank, or equivalent degree of responsibility, and shall have sufficient headquarters staff with the necessary training and experience. The headquarters staff should report directly to, or have appropriate access to, the Designated Agency Safety and Health Official, in order to carry out the responsibilities under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Designated Agency Safety and Health Official shall assist the agency head in establishing: 
</P>
<P>(1) An agency occupational safety and health policy and program to carry out the provisions of section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, and this part; 
</P>
<P>(2) An organization, including provision for the designation of safety and health officials at appropriate levels, with adequate budgets and staffs to implement the occupational safety and health program at all operational levels; 
</P>
<P>(3) A set of procedures that ensures effective implementation of the agency policy and program as required by section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, and the program elements of this part, considering the mission, size, and organization of the agency; 
</P>
<P>(4) Goals and objectives for reducing and eliminating occupational accidents, injuries, and illnesses; 
</P>
<P>(5) Plans and procedures for evaluating the agency's occupational safety and health program effectiveness at all operational levels; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Priorities with respect to the factors which cause occupational accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the agency's workplaces so that appropriate corrective actions can be taken. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency head shall assure that safety and health officials are designated at each appropriate level with sufficient authority and responsibility to plan for and assure funds for necessary safety and health staff, equipment, materials, and training required to ensure implementation of an effective occupational safety and health program. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.7" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.2.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.7   Financial management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall ensure that the agency budget submission includes appropriate financial and other resources to effectively implement and administer the agency's occupational safety and health program. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Designated Agency Safety and Health Official, management officials in charge of each establishment, safety and health officials at all appropriate levels, and other management officials shall be responsible for planning, requesting resources, implementing, and evaluating the occupational safety and health program budget in accordance with all relevant Office of Management and Budget regulations and documents.
</P>
<P>(c) Appropriate resources for an agency's occupational safety and health program shall include, but not be limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sufficient personnel to implement and administer the program at all levels, including necessary administrative costs such as training, travel, and personal protective equipment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Abatement of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions related to agency operations or facilities; 
</P>
<P>(3) Safety and health sampling, testing, and diagnostic and analytical tools and equipment, including laboratory analyses; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any necessary contracts to identify, analyze, or evaluate unsafe or unhealthful working conditions and operations; 
</P>
<P>(5) Program promotional costs such as publications, posters, or films; 
</P>
<P>(6) Technical information, documents, books, standards, codes, periodicals, and publications; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Medical surveillance programs for employees. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 78 FR 47190, Aug. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.8" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.2.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.8   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall furnish to each employee employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm. 
</P>
<P>(b) The head of each agency shall comply with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration standards applicable to the agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) The head of each agency shall develop, implement, and evaluate an occupational safety and health program in accordance with the requirements of section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, and the basic program elements prescribed in this part, or approved alternate program elements. 
</P>
<P>(d) The head of each agency shall acquire, maintain, and require the use of approved personal protective equipment, approved safety equipment, and other devices necessary to protect employees. 
</P>
<P>(e) In order to provide essential specialized expertise, agency heads shall authorize safety and health personnel to utilize such expertise from whatever source available, including but not limited to other agencies, professional groups, consultants, universities, labor organizations, and safety and health committees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.9" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.2.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.9   Supervisory responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Employees who exercise supervisory functions shall, to the extent of their authority, furnish employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm. They shall also comply with the occupational safety and health standards applicable to their agency and with all rules, regulations, and orders issued by the head of the agency with respect to the agency occupational safety and health program. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.10" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.2.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.10   Employee responsibilities and rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each employee shall comply with the standards, rules, regulations, and orders issued by his/her agency in accordance with section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, and this part which are applicable to his/her own actions and conduct. 
</P>
<P>(b) Employees shall use safety equipment, personal protective equipment, and other devices and procedures provided or directed by the agency and necessary for their protection. 
</P>
<P>(c) Employees shall have the right to report unsafe and unhealthful working conditions to appropriate officials. 
</P>
<P>(d) Employees shall be authorized official time to participate in the activities provided for in section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, this part, and the agency occupational safety and health program. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.11" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.2.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.11   Evaluation of occupational safety and health performance.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency head shall ensure that any performance evaluation of any management official in charge of an establishment, any supervisory employee, or other appropriate management official, measures that employee's performance in meeting requirements of the agency occupational safety and health program, consistent with the employee's assigned responsibilities and authority, and taking into consideration any applicable regulations of the Office of Personnel Management or other appropriate authority. The recognition of superior performance in discharging safety and health responsibilities by an individual or group should be encouraged and noted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.12" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.2.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.12   Dissemination of occupational safety and health program information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Copies of the Act, Executive Order 12196, program elements published in this part, details of the agency's occupational safety and health program, and applicable safety and health standards shall be made available upon request to employees or employee representatives for review. 
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the agency's written occupational safety and health program applicable to the establishment shall be made available to each supervisor, each occupational safety and health committee member, and to employee representatives. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each agency shall post conspicuously in each establishment, and keep posted, a poster informing employees of the provisions of the Act, Executive Order 12196, and the agency occupational safety and health program under this part. The Department of Labor will furnish the core text of a poster to agencies. Each agency shall add the following items: 
</P>
<P>(1) Details of the agency's procedures for responding to reports by employees of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions, and to allegations of discrimination or reprisal due to participation in safety and/or health activities;
</P>
<P>(2) The location where employees may obtain information about the agency's occupational safety and health program, including the full text of agency occupational safety and health standards, and
</P>
<P>(3) Relevant information about any agency safety and health committees.
</P>
<FP>Such posters and additions shall not be altered, defaced, or covered by other material. 
</FP>
<P>(d) A copy of the agency's poster shall be provided to the Secretary. If the agency needs assistance and advice on the content and development of the poster, such shall be requested of the Secretary prior to printing and distribution. 
</P>
<P>(e) Agency heads shall promote employee awareness of occupational safety and health matters through their ordinary information channels, such as newsletters, bulletins and handbooks. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.16" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.3.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.16   Compliance with OSHA standards.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency head shall comply with all occupational safety and health standards issued under section 6 of the Act, or with alternate standards issued pursuant to this subpart. In complying with section 6 standards, an agency may, upon prior notification to the Secretary, prescribe and enforce more stringent permissible exposure levels or threshold limit values and may require more frequent monitoring of exposures without recourse to the approval procedures for alternate standards described in § 1960.17. In addition, after consultation with employees and safety and health committees and prior notification to the Secretary, an agency may utilize the latest edition of a reference standard if it is more stringent than the section 6 standard. After notification, the Secretary may require the use of the approval procedures for alternate standards for any of the situations described in this paragraph. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.17" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.3.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.17   Alternate standards.</HEAD>
<P>An agency head may apply an alternate standard where deemed necessary, and shall, after consultation with employees or their representatives, including appropriate occupational safety and health committees, notify the Secretary and request approval of such alternate standards. 
</P>
<P>(a) Any request by the head of the agency for an alternate standard shall be transmitted to the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any such request for an alternate standard shall not be approved by the Secretary unless it provides equivalent or greater protection for affected employees. Any such request shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of why the agency cannot comply with the OSHA standard or wants to adopt an alternate standard; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the alternate standard; 
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of how the alternate standard provides equivalent or greater protection for the affected employees; 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of interim protective measures afforded employees until a decision is rendered by the Secretary of Labor; and 
</P>
<P>(5) A summary of written comments, if any, from interested employees, employee representatives, and occupational safety and health committees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.18" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.3.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.18   Supplementary standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to complying with emergency temporary standards issued under section 6 of the Act, an agency head shall adopt such emergency temporary and permanent supplementary standards as necessary and appropriate for application to working conditions of agency employees for which there exists no appropriate OSHA standards. In order to avoid any possible duplication of effort, the agency head should notify the Secretary of the subject matter of such standard when the development of the standard begins. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency head shall send a copy of the final draft of the permanent supplementary standard to the Secretary prior to official adoption by the agency, along with any written comments on the standard from interested employees, employee representatives, and occupational safety and health committees. If the Secretary finds the permanent supplementary standard to be adopted inconsistent with OSHA standards, or inconsistent with OSHA enforcement practices under section 5(a)(1) of the Act, the Secretary shall have 15 working days in which to notify the head of the agency of this finding. In such a case, the supplementary standard shall not be adopted, but the agency will be afforded an opportunity to resubmit a revised standard that is designed to provide adequate protection and is consistent with OSHA standards. Upon request of the agency head, the Secretary shall offer to the agency technical assistance in the development of the supplemental standard. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.19" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.3.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.19   Other Federal agency standards affecting occupational safety and health.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where employees of different agencies engage in joint operations, and/or primarily report to work or carry out operations in the same establishment, the standards adopted under § 1960.17 or § 1960.18 of the host agency shall govern. 
</P>
<P>(b) There are situations in which the head of an agency is required to comply with standards affecting occupational safety and health issued by a Federal agency other than OSHA. For example, standards issued by the Federal Aviation Administration, the Department of Energy, or the General Services Administration may be applicable to certain Federal workplaces. Nothing in this subpart affects the duty of any agency head to comply with such standards. In addition, agency heads should comply with other standards issued by Federal agencies which deal with hazardous working conditions, but for which OSHA has no standards. 
</P>
<P>(c) Although it is not anticipated that standards of other Federal agencies will conflict with OSHA standards, should such conflict occur, the head of the agency shall inform the other Federal agency and the Secretary so that joint efforts to resolve the issues may be undertaken. However, until conflicts are resolved, agencies shall comply with the more protective of the conflicting standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Inspection and Abatement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.25" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.4.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.25   Qualifications of safety and health inspectors and agency inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Executive Order 12196 requires that each agency utilize as inspectors “personnel with equipment and competence to recognize hazards.” Inspections shall be conducted by inspectors qualified to recognize and evaluate hazards of the working environment and to suggest general abatement procedures. Safety and health specialists as defined in § 1960.2(s), with experience and/or up-to-date training in occupational safety and health hazard recognition and evaluation are considered as meeting the qualifications of safety and health inspectors. For those working environments where there are less complex hazards, such safety and health specializations as cited above may not be required, but inspectors in such environments shall have sufficient documented training and/or experience in the safety and health hazards of the workplace involved to recognize and evaluate those particular hazards and to suggest general abatement procedures. All inspection personnel must be provided the equipment necessary to conduct a thorough inspection of the workplace involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each agency which has workplaces containing information classified in the interest of national security shall provide access to safety and health inspectors who have obtained the appropriate security clearance. 
</P>
<P>(c) All areas and operations of each workplace, including office operations, shall be inspected at least annually. More frequent inspections shall be conducted in all workplaces where there is an increased risk of accident, injury, or illness due to the nature of the work performed. Sufficient unannounced inspections and unannounced follow-up inspections should be conducted by the agency to ensure the identification and abatement of hazardous conditions. 
</P>
<P>(d) When situations arise involving multiple agencies' responsibilities for conditions affecting employee safety and health, coordination of inspection functions is encouraged. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.26" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.4.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.26   Conduct of inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation.</I> (1) Prior to commencement of the inspection, the Safety and Health Inspector shall be provided all available relevant information which pertains to the occupational safety and health of the workplace to be inspected, including safety and health hazard reports, injury and illness records, previous inspection reports, and reports of unsafe and unhealthful working conditions. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Safety and Health Inspector shall determine in advance, where possible, the actual work procedures and conditions to be inspected, in order to have the proper equipment available to conduct an effective inspection. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection.</I> (1) For the purpose of assuring safe and healthful working conditions for employees of agencies, the head of the agency shall authorize safety and/or health inspectors: To enter without delay, and at reasonable times, any building, installation, facility, construction site, or other area, workplace, or environment where work is performed by employees of the agency; to inspect and investigate during regular working hours and at other reasonable times, and within reasonable limits and in a reasonable manner, any such place of employment and all pertinent conditions, structures, machines, apparatus, devices, equipment, and materials therein, and to question privately any agency employee, and/or any agency supervisory employee, and/or any official in charge of an establishment. 
</P>
<P>(2) If there are no authorized representatives of employees, the inspector shall consult with a reasonable number of employees during the walkaround. 
</P>
<P>(3) When, in the opinion of the inspector, it is necessary to conduct personal monitoring (sampling) of employee's work environments, the inspector may request employees to wear reasonable and necessary personal monitoring devices, e.g., noise dosimeters and air sampling pumps, for periods determined by the inspector to be necessary for complete and effective sampling of the environment. 
</P>
<P>(4) Upon request of the inspector, the employer shall encourage employees to wear the personal environmental monitoring devices during an inspection. 
</P>
<P>(5) Whenever and as soon as it is concluded on the basis of an inspection that a danger exists which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately, the inspector shall inform the affected employees and official in charge of the workplace of the danger. The official in charge of the workplace, or a person empowered to act for that official, shall undertake immediate abatement and the withdrawal of employees who are not necessary for abatement of the dangerous conditions. In the event the official in charge of the workplace needs assistance to undertake full abatement, that official shall promptly contact the Designated Agency Safety and Health Official and other responsible agency officials, who shall assist the abatement effort. Safety and health committees shall be informed of all relevant actions and representatives of the employees shall be so informed. 
</P>
<P>(6) At the conclusion of an inspection, the Safety and Health Inspector shall confer with the official in charge of the workplace or that official's representative, and with an appropriate representative of the employees of the establishment, and informally advise them of any apparent unsafe or unhealthful working conditions disclosed by the inspection. During any such conference, the official in charge of the workplace and the employee representative shall be afforded an opportunity to bring to the attention of the Safety and Health Inspector any pertinent information regarding conditions in the workplace. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written reports and notices of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions.</I> (1) The inspector shall, in writing, describe with particularity the procedures followed in the inspection and the findings which form the basis for the issuance of any Notice of Unsafe or Unhealthful Working Conditions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each agency shall establish a procedure for the prompt issuance of a Notice of Unsafe or Unhealthful Working Conditions. Such notices shall be issued not later than 15 days after completion of the inspection for safety violations or not later than 30 days for health violations. If there are compelling reasons why such notice cannot be issued within the 15 days or 30 days indicated, the persons described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section shall be informed of the reasons for the delay. Such procedure shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Notices shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature and degree of seriousness of the unsafe or unhealthful working condition, including a reference to the standard or other requirement involved;
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice shall fix a reasonable time for the abatement of the unsafe or unhealthful working condition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the notice shall be sent to the official in charge of the workplace, the employee representative who participated in the closing conference, and/or the safety and health committee of the workplace, if any. 
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of any notice of an unsafe or unhealthful working condition, the official in charge of a workplace shall immediately post such notice, or copy thereof, unedited, except for reason of national security, at or near each place an unsafe or unhealthful working condition referred to in the notice exists or existed. In addition, a notice shall be posted if any special procedures are in effect. Where, because of the nature of the workplace operations, it is not practicable to post the notice at or near each such place, such notice shall be posted, unedited, except for reason of national security, in a prominent place where it will be readily observable by all affected employees. For example, where workplace activities are physically dispersed, the notice may be posted at the location to which employees report each day. Where employees do not primarily work at or report to a single location, the notice may be posted at the location from which the employees operate to carry out their activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) Each notice of an unsafe or unhealthful working condition, or a copy thereof, shall remain posted until the unsafe or unhealthful working condition has been abated or for 3 working days whichever is later. A copy of the notice will be filed and maintained for a period of five years after abatement at the establishment and made available to the Secretary upon request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980; 45 FR 77003, Nov. 21, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.27" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.4.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.27   Representatives of officials in charge and representatives of employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Safety and health inspectors shall be in charge of inspections and may interview any employee in private if the inspector deems it necessary. A representative of the official in charge of a workplace and a representative of employees shall be given an opportunity to accompany Safety and Health Inspectors during the physical inspection of any workplace, both to aid the inspection and to provide such representatives with more detailed knowledge of any existing or potential unsafe or unhealthful working conditions. The representative of employees shall be selected by the employees. Additional representatives of the official in charge and additional representatives of employees may accompany the Safety and Health Inspectors if it is determined by the inspector that such additional representatives will further aid the inspection. Different representatives of the employer and employees may be allowed to accompany the Inspector during each different phase of an inspection. 
</P>
<P>(b) Safety and health inspectors shall be authorized to deny the right of accompaniment under this section to any person whose participation interferes with a fair and orderly inspection. 
</P>
<P>(c) With regard to facilities classified in the interest of national security, only persons authorized to have access to such facilities shall be allowed to accompany a Safety and Health Inspector in such areas. 
</P>
<P>(d) Safety and health inspectors shall consult with employees concerning matters of occupational safety and health to the extent deemed necessary for the conduct of an effective and thorough inspection. During the course of an inspection, any employee shall be afforded an opportunity to bring to the attention of the Safety and Health Inspector any unsafe or unhealthful working condition which the employee has reason to believe exists in the workplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.28" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.4.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.28   Employee reports of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of employee reports is to inform agencies of the existence of, or potential for, unsafe or unhealthful working conditions. A report under this part is not a grievance. 
</P>
<P>(b) This section provides guidance in establishing a channel of communication between agency employees and those with responsibilities for safety and health matters, e.g., their supervisor, the agency safety and health officials, safety and health committees, safety and health inspectors, the head of the agency, or the Secretary. These channels of communication are intended to assure prompt analysis and response to reports of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12196. Since many safety and health problems can be eliminated as soon as they are identified, the existence of a formal channel of communication shall not preclude immediate corrective action by an employee's supervisor in response to oral reports of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions where such action is possible. Nor should an employee be required to await the outcome of such an oral report before filing a written report pursuant to the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any employee or representative of employees, who believes that an unsafe or unhealthful working condition exists in any workplace where such employee is employed, shall have the right and is encouraged to make a report of the unsafe or unhealthful working condition to an appropriate agency safety and health official and request an inspection of such workplace for this purpose. The report shall be reduced to writing either by the individual submitting the report or, in the case of an oral notification, by the above official or other person designated to receive the reports in the workplace. Any such report shall set forth the grounds for the report and shall contain the name of the employee or representative of employees. Upon the request of the individual making such report, no person shall disclose the name of the individual making the report or the names of individual employees referred to in the report, to anyone other than authorized representatives of the Secretary. In the case of imminent danger situations, employees shall make reports by the most expeditious means available. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reports received by the agency.</I> (1) Each report of an existing or potential unsafe or unhealthful working condition should be recorded on a log maintained at the establishment. If an agency finds it inappropriate to maintain a log of written reports at the establishment level, it may avail itself of procedures set forth in § 1960.71. A copy of each report received shall be sent to the appropriate establishment safety and health committee. 
</P>
<P>(2) A sequentially numbered case file, coded for identification, should be assigned for purposes of maintaining an accurate record of the report and the response thereto. As a minimum, each establishment's log should contain the following information: date, time, code/reference/file number, location of condition, brief description of the condition, classification (imminent danger, serious or other), and date and nature of action taken. 
</P>
<P>(3) Executive Order 12196 requires that agency inspections be conducted within 24 hours for employee reports of imminent danger conditions, within three working days for potentially serious conditions, and within 20 working days for other than serious safety and health conditions. However, an inspection may not be necessary if, through normal management action and with prompt notification to employees and safety and health committees, the hazardous condition(s) identified can be abated immediately. 
</P>
<P>(4) An employee submitting a report of unsafe or unhealthful conditions shall be notified in writing within 15 days if the official receiving the report determines there are not reasonable grounds to believe such a hazard exists and does not plan to make an inspection based on such report. A copy of each such notification shall be provided by the agency to the appropriate certified safety and health committee, where established under Executive Order 12196. An agency's inspection or investigation report, if any, shall be made available to the employee making the report within 15 days after completion of the inspection, for safety violations or within 30 days for health violations, unless there are compelling reasons, and shall be made available to the Secretary or the Secretary's authorized representative on request. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reports received by the Secretary of Labor.</I> (1) Agency safety and health programs must have provisions for responding to employees' reports of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions and the Secretary encourages employees to use agency procedures as the most expeditious means of achieving abatement of hazardous conditions. It is recognized, however, that employee reports may be received directly by the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(2) When such reports are received directly from an employee or employee representative, the Secretary shall, where a certified safety and health committee exists, forward the report to the agency for handling in accordance with procedures outlined in § 1960.28(d). A copy of the response to the originator shall be sent to the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where there is no certified safety and health committee, or when requested by half the members of a committee, the Secretary may initiate an inspection or other appropriate action. When the Secretary determines that an inspection is warranted, the Secretary shall observe the same response times as required of the agencies under the Executive Order and § 1960.28(d)(3). When the Secretary determines not to make an inspection, the report shall be forwarded to the agency for handling in accordance with procedures outlined in § 1960.28(d). A copy of the response to the originator shall be sent to the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.29" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.4.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.29   Accident investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) While all accidents should be investigated, including accidents involving property damage only, the extent of such investigation shall be reflective of the seriousness of the accident. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any case, each accident which results in a fatality or the hospitalization of three or more employees shall be investigated to determine the causal factors involved. Except to the extent necessary to protect employees and the public, evidence at the scene of an accident shall be left untouched until inspectors have an opportunity to examine it.
</P>
<P>(c) Any information or evidence uncovered during accident investigations which would be of benefit in developing a new OSHA standard or in modifying or revoking an existing standard should be promptly transmitted to the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(d) The investigative report of the accident shall include appropriate documentation on date, time, location, description of operations, description of accident, photographs, interviews of employees and witnesses, measurements, and other pertinent information. A copy of the investigative report required by this section shall be forwarded to the official in charge of the workplace, the appropriate safety and health committee, and the exclusive employee representative, if any. The investigative report shall be made available to the Secretary or his authorized representative on request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 69 FR 68804, Nov. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.30" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.4.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.30   Abatement of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall ensure the prompt abatement of unsafe and unhealthful conditions. Where a Notice of an Unsafe or Unhealthful Working Condition has been issued, abatement shall be within the time set forth in the notice, or in accordance with the established abatement plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures for correcting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions shall include a follow-up, to the extent necessary, to determine whether the correction was made. If, upon the follow-up, it appears that the correction was not made, or was not carried out in accordance with an abatement plan prepared pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the official in charge of the establishment and the appropriate safety and health committee shall be notified of the failure to abate. 
</P>
<P>(c) The official in charge of the establishment shall promptly prepare an abatement plan with the appropriate participation of the establishment's Safety and Health Official or a designee, if in the judgment of the establishment official the abatement of an unsafe or unhealthful working condition will not be possible within 30 calendar days. Such plan shall contain an explanation of the circumstances of the delay in abatement, a proposed timetable for the abatement, and a summary of steps being taken in the interim to protect employees from being injured as a result of the unsafe or unhealthful working condition. A copy of the plan shall be sent to the safety and health committee, and, if no committee exists, to the representative of the employees. Any changes in an abatement plan will require the preparation of a new plan in accordance with the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) When a hazard cannot be abated within the authority and resources of the official in charge of the establishment, that official shall request assistance from appropriate higher authority. The local safety and health official, any established committee and/or employee representatives, and all personnel subject to the hazard shall be advised of this action and of interim protective measures in effect, and shall be kept informed of subsequent progress on the abatement plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) When a hazard cannot be abated without assistance of the General Services Administration or other Federal lessor agency, the occupant agency shall act with the lessor agency to secure abatement. Procedures for coordination with the General Services Administration are contained in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) The procedures OSHA will use to verify Federal agency abatement are included in the private sector guidelines at 29 CFR 1903.19.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980, as amended at 78 FR 47190, Aug. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.31" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.4.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.31   Inspections by OSHA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary or the Secretary's representatives are authorized to conduct, when the Secretary deems necessary, announced or unannounced inspections in the following situations: 
</P>
<P>(1) Where an agency has not established occupational safety and health committees or where committees no longer operate in conformance to the requirements of subpart F of this part; 
</P>
<P>(2) In response to a request from half the membership of record of any certified safety and health committee; and 
</P>
<P>(3) In response to an employee's report of an imminent danger situation, where there is a certified committee, but where the Secretary determines that neither the agency nor the committee has responded to the employee. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary's inspectors or evaluators are authorized: to enter without delay, and at reasonable times, any building, installation, facility, construction site, or other area, workplace, or environment where work is performed by employees of the agency; to inspect and investigate during regular working hours and at other reasonable times, and within reasonable limits and in a reasonable manner, any such place of employment, and all pertinent conditions, structures, machines, apparatus, devices, equipment, and materials therein, and to question privately any employee, any supervisory employee, and/or any official in charge of an establishment. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary may also make scheduled inspections as an integral part of OSHA's evaluation of an agency's safety and health program in accordance with subpart J of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) OSHA inspections shall follow the general format set forth for agency inspections in other applicable parts of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—General Services Administration and Other Federal Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.34" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.5.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.34   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Within six months of the effective date of this part, the Secretary of Labor and the Administrator of the General Services Administration (GSA) shall initiate a study of conflicts that may exist in their standards concerning Federal buildings, leased space, products purchased or supplied, and other requirements affecting Federal employee safety and health. Both agencies shall establish and publish a joint procedure for resolving conflicting standards. All other Federal agencies that have authority for purchasing equipment, supplies, and materials, and for controlling Government space, as well as the leasing of space, shall also be subject to the requirements of this subpart, including publication of a procedure for resolving conflicting standards. 
</P>
<P>(a) In order to assist agencies in carrying out their duties under section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, and this part, the Administrator or the Administrator's designee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Upon an agency's request, furnish for any owned or leased space offered to a Federal agency for occupancy:
</P>
<P>(i) A report of a recent pre-occupancy inspection to identify serious hazards or serious violations of OSHA standards or approved alternate standards, and
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan for abatement of the hazards and violations discovered; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide space which:
</P>
<P>(i) Meets any special safety and health requirements submitted by the requesting agency, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not contain either serious hazards or serious violations of OSHA standards or approved alternate standards which cannot be abated; 
</P>
<P>(3) Repair, renovate, or alter, upon an agency's request, owned or leased space in a planned and controlled manner to reduce or eliminate, whenever possible, any hazardous exposure to the occupant agency's employees; 
</P>
<P>(4) Accompany, upon request, the Secretary or the Secretary's designee on any inspection or investigation of a facility subject to the authority of the General Services Administration. Requests made for this purpose shall, whenever possible, be made at the GSA regional level in order to facilitate prompt assistance; 
</P>
<P>(5) Investigate, upon an official agency request, reports of unsafe or unhealthful conditions within the scope of GSA's responsibility. Such investigation, when requiring an on-site inspection, shall be completed within 24 hours for imminent danger situations, within three working days for potentially serious conditions, and within 20 working days for other safety and health risk conditions; 
</P>
<P>(6) Abate unsafe or unhealthful conditions disclosed by reports, investigation or inspection within 30 calendar days or submit to the occupant agency's designated liaison official an abatement plan. Such abatement plan shall give priority to the allocation of resources to bring about prompt abatement of the conditions. (GSA shall publish procedures for abatement of hazards in the Federal Property Management Regulations—41 CFR part 101); 
</P>
<P>(7) Establish an occupancy permit program which will regulate the types of activities and occupancies in facilities in order to avoid incompatible groupings, e.g., chemical or biological laboratories in office space. GSA shall seek to consolidate Federal laboratory operations in facilities designed for such purposes; 
</P>
<P>(8) Ensure, insofar as possible, that agency safety and health problems still outstanding are resolved, or otherwise answered by acceptable alternatives prior to renegotiation of leases; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Ensure that GSA or other Federal lessor agencies' building managers maintain a log of reports of unsafe or unhealthful conditions submitted by tenants to include: date of receipt of report, action taken, and final resolution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Product safety.</I> Agencies such as GSA, DOD, and others which procure and provide supplies, equipment, devices, and material for their own use or use by other agencies, except for the design of uniquely military products as set forth in § 1960.2(i), shall establish and maintain a product safety program which: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ensures that items procured will allow user agencies to use such products safely for their designed purpose and will facilitate user compliance with all applicable standards. 
</P>
<P>(2) Requires that products meet the applicable safety and health requirements of Federal law and regulations issued thereunder; 
</P>
<P>(3) Ensures that hazardous material will be labelled in accordance with current law or regulation to alert users, shippers, occupational safety and health, and emergency action personnel, and others, to basic information concerning flammability, toxicity, compatibility, first aid procedures, and normal as well as emergency handling and disposal procedures; 
</P>
<P>(4) Ensures availability of appropriate safety rescue and personal protective equipment to supply user agencies. The writing of Federal procurement specifications will be coordinated by GSA with OSHA/NIOSH as needed to assure purchase of approved products; 
</P>
<P>(5) Ensures that products recalled by the manufacturer, either voluntarily or by order from a regulatory authority, are removed from inventory. Each recall notice or order shall be forwarded to all agencies which have ordered such product from or through the procuring/supplying Federal agency, e.g., GSA, DOD, etc.; 
</P>
<P>(6) Includes preparation of FEDSTD 313, Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS), involving all interested agencies in review to keep the standard current. MSDS provided by agencies or contractors shall meet the requirements of FEDSTD 313 and be furnished to DOD for filing and distribution. 
</P>
<P>(c) In order to assist agencies in carrying out their duties under section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, and this part, the DOD operates and maintains an automated system to receive, file, reproduce, and make available MSDS data to other Federal agencies through the Government Printing Office or the National Technical Information Services. 
</P>
<P>(d) All Federal agencies shall use MSDS either provided by DOD, or acquired directly from suppliers, when purchasing hazardous materials (as defined in FEDSTD 313) for local use. These data will be used to develop detailed procedures to advise employees in the workplace of the hazards involved with the materials and to protect them therefrom. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Safety and health services.</I> GSA will operate and maintain for user agencies the following services: 
</P>
<P>(1) Listings in the “Federal Supply Schedule” of safety and health services and equipment which are approved for use by agencies when needed. Examples of such services are: Workplace inspections, training, industrial hygiene surveys, asbestos bulk sampling, and mobile health testing; examples of such equipment are: personal protective equipment and apparel, safety devices, and environmental monitoring equipment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Rules for assistance in the preparation of agency “Occupant Emergency Plans” (formerly called “Facility Self-Protection Plans”), to be published by GSA at 41 CFR part 101; 
</P>
<P>(3) An effective maintenance program in the Interagency Motorpool System which will ensure the safety and health of Federal employees utilizing the vehicles. Critical items to be included are: Exhaust systems, brakes, tires, lights, steering, and passenger restraint or other crash protection systems; and 
</P>
<P>(4) A rapid response system whereby agencies can alert GSA to unsafe or unhealthful items purchased or contracted for by GSA, which in turn will evaluate the reports, initiate corrective action, as appropriate, and advise use agencies of interim protective measures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.35" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.5.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.35   National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) shall, upon request by the Secretary, assist in:
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluations of Federal agency safety and health programs;
</P>
<P>(2) Investigations of possible safety and health hazards and
</P>
<P>(3) Inspections resulting from employee or committee reports of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Director of NIOSH shall provide a Hazard Evaluation (HE) program for Federal agencies. This program shall be designed to respond to requests for assistance in determining whether or not safety or health hazards are present in a Federal workplace. Requests for such Hazard Evaluations may be submitted to the Director by: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Labor; 
</P>
<P>(2) The Head of a Federal agency; 
</P>
<P>(3) An agency safety and health committee if half the committee requests such service; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Employees who are not covered by a certified safety and health committee. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Director of NIOSH may assist agencies by providing hazard alerts, technical services, training materials and conducting training programs upon request by an agency and with reimbursement. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Occupational Safety and Health Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.36" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.6.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.36   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The occupational safety and health committees described in this subpart are organized and maintained basically to monitor and assist an agency's safety and health program. These committees assist agencies to maintain an open channel of communication between employees and management concerning safety and health matters in agency workplaces. The committees provide a method by which employees can utilize their knowledge of workplace operations to assist agency management to improve policies, conditions, and practices. 
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies may elect to establish safety and health committees meeting the minimum requirements contained in this subpart. Where such committees are not established or fail to meet the minimum requirements established by the Secretary, the Secretary is authorized by section 1-401(i) of Executive Order 12196 to conduct unannounced inspections of agency workplaces when the Secretary determines them necessary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.37" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.6.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.37   Committee organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For agencies which elect to utilize the committee concept, safety and health committees shall be formed at both the national level and, for agencies with field or regional offices, at appropriate levels within the agency. To realize exemption from unannounced OSHA inspections, an agency must form a committee at the national level and at any establishment or grouping of establishments that is to be exempt, keeping the Secretary advised of the locations and activities where such committees are functioning. 
</P>
<P>(1) The principal function of the national level committee shall be to consult and provide policy advice on, and monitor the performance of, the agency-wide safety and health program. 
</P>
<P>(2) Committees at other appropriate levels shall be established at agency establishments or groupings of establishments consistent with the mission, size and organization of the agency and its collective bargaining configuration. The agency shall form committees at the lowest practicable local level. The principal function of the establishment (or local) committees is to monitor and assist in the execution of the agency's safety and health policies and program at the workplaces within their jurisdiction. Any dispute over the meaning of the term “appropriate levels” shall be resolved by the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(b) Committees shall have equal representation of management and nonmanagement employees, who shall be members of record. 
</P>
<P>(1) Management members of both national level and establishment level committees shall be appointed in writing by the person empowered to make such appointments. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nonmanagement members of establishment level committees shall represent all employees of the establishment and shall be determined according to the following rules: 
</P>
<P>(i) Where employees are represented under collective bargaining arrangements, members shall be appointed from among those recommended by the exclusive bargaining representative; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where employees are not represented under collective bargaining arrangements, members shall be determined through procedures devised by the agency which provide for effective representation of all employees; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where some employees of an establishment are covered under collective bargaining arrangements and others are not, members shall be representative of both groups. 
</P>
<P>(3) Nonmanagement members of national level committees shall be determined according to the following rules: 
</P>
<P>(i) Where employees are represented by organizations having exclusive recognition on an agency basis or by organizations having national consultation rights, some members shall be determined in accordance with the terms of collective bargaining agreements and some members shall be selected from those organizations having consultation rights, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where employees are not represented by organizations meeting the criteria of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, members shall be determined through procedures devised by the agency which provide for effective representation of all employees. 
</P>
<P>(c) Committee members should serve overlapping terms. Such terms should be of at least two years duration, except when the committee is initially organized. 
</P>
<P>(d) The committee chairperson shall be nominated from among the committee's members and shall be elected by the committee members. Management and nonmanagement members should alternate in this position. Maximum service time as chairperson should be two consecutive years. 
</P>
<P>(e) Committees shall establish a regular schedule of meetings and special meetings shall be held as necessary; establishment level committees shall meet at least quarterly and national committees shall meet at least annually. 
</P>
<P>(f) Adequate advance notice of committee meetings shall be furnished to employees and each meeting shall be conducted pursuant to a prepared agenda. 
</P>
<P>(g) Written minutes of each committee meeting shall be maintained and distributed to each committee member, and upon request, shall be made available to employees and to the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.38" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.6.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.38   Committee formation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon forming such committees, heads of agencies shall submit information to the Secretary concerning the existence, location, and coverage, in terms of establishments and population, of such committees, certifying to the Secretary that such committees meet the requirements of this subpart. The information submitted should include the name and telephone numbers of the chairperson of each committee, and should be updated annually as part of the annual report required by § 1960.74 to reflect any changes that may have occurred. 
</P>
<P>(b) If, upon evaluation, the Secretary determines that the operations of a committee do not meet the requirements of this subpart, the Secretary shall notify the agency and identify the deficiencies to be remedied. If the agency does not satisfy the Secretary within 90 days that the committee meets the requirements of this subpart, the committee shall not be deemed a committee under Executive Order 12196 and this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980; 45 FR 77003, Nov. 21, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 3080, Jan. 24, 1984] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.39" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.6.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.39   Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies shall make available to committees all agency information relevant and necessary to their duties, except where prohibited by law. Examples of such information include, but are not limited to: The agency's safety and health policies and program; human and financial resources available to implement the program; accident, injury, and illness data; epidemiological data; employee exposure monitoring data; Material Safety Data Sheets; inspection reports; reprisal investigation reports; abatement plans; NIOSH hazard evaluation reports; and internal and external evaluation reports. 
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies shall provide all committee members appropriate training as required by subpart H of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.40" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.6.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.40   Establishment committee duties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The safety and health committee is an integral part of the safety and health program, and helps ensure effective implementation of the program at the establishment level. 
</P>
<P>(b) An establishment committee formed under this subpart shall, except where prohibited by law: 
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor and assist the safety and health program at establishments under its jurisdiction and make recommendations to the official in charge on the operation of the program; 
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor findings and reports of workplace inspections to confirm that appropriate corrective measures are implemented; 
</P>
<P>(3) When requested by the agency Safety and Health Official, or when the committee deems it necessary for effective monitoring of agency establishment inspection procedures, participate in inspections of the establishment; 
</P>
<P>(4) Review internal and external evaluation reports and make recommendations concerning the establishment safety and health program; 
</P>
<P>(5) Review, and recommend changes, as appropriate, to procedures for handling safety and health suggestions and recommendations from employees; 
</P>
<P>(6) When requested by the Designated Agency Safety and Health Official, or when the committee deems it necessary, comment on standards proposed pursuant to the provisions of subpart C of this part; 
</P>
<P>(7) Monitor and recommend changes, as required, in the level of resources allocated and spent on the establishment safety and health program; 
</P>
<P>(8) Review agency responses to reports of hazardous conditions, safety and health program deficiencies, and allegations of reprisal; 
</P>
<P>(9) Report their dissatisfaction to the Secretary if half a committee determines there are deficiencies in the establishment's safety and health program or is not satisfied with the agency's reports of reprisal investigations; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Request the Secretary to conduct an evaluation or inspection if half the members of record are not satisfied with an agency's response to a report of hazardous working conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.41" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.6.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.41   National committee duties.</HEAD>
<P>National committees established under this subpart shall, except where prohibited by law: 
</P>
<P>(a) Monitor performance of the agency safety and health program and make policy recommendations to the head of the agency on the operation of the program; 
</P>
<P>(b) Monitor and assist in the development and operation of the agency's establishment committees. As the committee deems appropriate, monitor and review: Reports of inspections; internal and external evaluation reports; agency safety and health training programs; proposed agency standards; agency plans for abating hazards; and responses to reports of hazardous conditions; safety and health program deficiencies; and allegations of reprisal; 
</P>
<P>(c) Monitor and recommend changes in the resources allocated to the entire agency safety and health program; 
</P>
<P>(d) Report their dissatisfaction to the Secretary if half a committee determines there are deficiencies in the agency's safety and health program or is not satisfied with the agency's reports of reprisal investigations; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Request the Secretary to conduct an evaluation or inspection if half the members of record are not satisfied with an agency's response to a report of hazardous working conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Allegations of Reprisal</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.46" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.7.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.46   Agency responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall establish procedures to assure that no employee is subject to restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination or reprisal for filing a report of an unsafe or unhealthful working condition, or other participation in agency occupational safety and health program activities, or because of the exercise by such employee on behalf of himself or herself or others of any right afforded by section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, or this part. These rights include, among other, the right of an employee to decline to perform his or her assigned task because of a reasonable belief that, under the circumstances the task poses an imminent risk of death or serious bodily harm coupled with a reasonable belief that there is insufficient time to seek effective redress through normal hazard reporting and abatement procedures established in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Based on the Secretary's evaluation of agencies' procedures for protecting employees from reprisal, the Secretary shall report to the President by September 30, 1982 his findings and recommendations for improvements in procedures for the investigation and resolution of allegations of reprisal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.47" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.7.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.47   Results of investigations.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency shall keep occupational safety and health committees advised of agency activity regarding allegations of reprisal and any agency determinations thereof. Agency officials shall provide copies of reprisal investigation findings, if any, to the Secretary and to the appropriate safety and health committee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Training</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.54" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.8.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.54   Training of top management officials.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency shall provide top management officials with orientation and other learning experiences which will enable them to manage the occupational safety and health programs of their agencies. Such orientation should include coverage of section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, the requirements of this part, and the agency safety and health program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.55" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.8.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.55   Training of supervisors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall provide occupational safety and health training for supervisory employees that includes: supervisory responsibility for providing and maintaining safe and healthful working conditions for employees, the agency occupational safety and health program, section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, this part, occupational safety and health standards applicable to the assigned workplaces, agency procedures for reporting hazards, agency procedures for reporting and investigating allegations of reprisal, and agency procedures for the abatement of hazards, as well as other appropriate rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) This supervisory training should include introductory and specialized courses and materials which will enable supervisors to recognize and eliminate, or reduce, occupational safety and health hazards in their working units. Such training shall also include the development of requisite skills in managing the agency's safety and health program within the work unit, including the training and motivation of subordinates toward assuring safe and healthful work practices. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.56" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.8.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.56   Training of safety and health specialists.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall provide occupational safety and health training for safety and health specialists through courses, laboratory experiences, field study, and other formal learning experiences to prepare them to perform the necessary technical monitoring, consulting, testing, inspecting, designing, and other tasks related to program development and implementation, as well as hazard recognition, evaluation and control, equipment and facility design, standards, analysis of accident, injury, and illness data, and other related tasks. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each agency shall implement career development programs for their occupational safety and health specialists to enable the staff to meet present and future program needs of the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.57" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.8.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.57   Training of safety and health inspectors.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency shall provide training for safety and health inspectors with respect to appropriate standards, and the use of appropriate equipment and testing procedures necessary to identify and evaluate hazards and suggest general abatement procedures during or following their assigned inspections, as well as preparation of reports and other documentation to support the inspection findings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.58" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.8.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.58   Training of collateral duty safety and health personnel and committee members.</HEAD>
<P>Within six months after October 1, 1980, or on appointment of an employee to a collateral duty position or to a committee, each agency shall provide training for collateral duty safety and health personnel and all members of certified occupational safety and health committees commensurate with the scope of their assigned responsibilities. Such training shall include: The agency occupational safety and health program; section 19 of the Act; Executive Order 12196; this part; agency procedures for the reporting, evaluation and abatement of hazards; agency procedures for reporting and investigating allegations of reprisal, the recognition of hazardous conditions and environments; identification and use of occupational safety and health standards, and other appropriate rules and regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.59" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.8.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.59   Training of employees and employee representatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall provide appropriate safety and health training for employees including specialized job safety and health training appropriate to the work performed by the employee, for example: Clerical; printing; welding; crane operation; chemical analysis, and computer operations. Such training also shall inform employees of the agency occupational safety and health program, with emphasis on their rights and responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(b) Occupational safety and health training for employees of the agency who are representatives of employee groups, such as labor organizations which are recognized by the agency, shall include both introductory and specialized courses and materials that will enable such groups to function appropriately in ensuring safe and healthful working conditions and practices in the workplace and enable them to effectively assist in conducting workplace safety and health inspections. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to alter training provisions provided by law, Executive Order, or collective bargaining arrangements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.60" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.8.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.60   Training assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agency heads may seek training assistance from the Secretary of Labor, the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health and other appropriate sources. 
</P>
<P>(b) After the effective date of Executive Order 12196, the Secretary shall, upon request and with reimbursement, conduct orientation for Designated Agency Safety and Health Officials and/or their designees which will enable them to manage the occupational safety and health programs of their agencies. Such orientation shall include coverage of section 19 of the Act, Executive Order 12196, and the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon request and with reimbursement, the Department of Labor shall provide each agency with training materials to assist in fulfilling the training needs of this subpart, including resident and field training courses designed to meet selected training needs of agency safety and health specialists, safety and health inspectors, and collateral duty safety and health personnel. These materials and courses in no way reduce each agency's responsibility to provide whatever specialized training is required by the unique characteristics of its work. 
</P>
<P>(d) In cooperation with OPM, the Secretary will develop guidelines and/or provide materials for the safety and health training programs for high-level managers, supervisors, members of committees, and employee representatives. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Recordkeeping and Reporting Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 68804, Nov. 26, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1960.66" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.66   Purpose, scope and general provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this subpart is to establish uniform requirements for collecting and compiling by agencies of occupational safety and health data, for proper evaluation and necessary corrective action, and to assist the Secretary in meeting the requirement to develop and maintain an effective program of collection, compilation, and analysis of occupational safety and health statistics.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as modified by this subpart, Federal agency injury and illness recording and reporting requirements shall comply with the requirements under 29 CFR part 1904, subparts C, D, E, and G, except that the definition of “establishment” found in 29 CFR 1960.2(h) will remain applicable to Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Each agency shall utilize the information collected through its management information system to identify unsafe and unhealthful working conditions, and to establish program priorities.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this subpart are not intended to discourage agencies from utilizing recordkeeping and reporting forms which contain a more detailed breakdown of information than the recordkeeping and reporting forms provided by the Department of Labor. Because of the unique nature of the national recordkeeping program, Federal agencies must have recording and reporting requirements that are the same as 29 CFR part 1904 for determining which injuries and illnesses will be entered into the records and how they are entered. All other injury and illness recording and reporting requirements used by any Federal agency may be more stringent than, or supplemental to, the requirements of 29 CFR part 1904, but must not interfere with the agency's ability to provide the injury and illness information required by 29 CFR part 1904.
</P>
<P>(e) Information concerning occupational injuries and illnesses or accidents which, pursuant to statute or Executive Order, must be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy shall be recorded on separate forms. Such records shall not be submitted to the Department of Labor but may be used by the appropriate Federal agency in evaluating the agency's program to reduce occupational injuries, illnesses and accidents.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1960.66:</HED>
<P>The recording or reporting of a work-related injury, illness or fatality does not constitute an admission that the Federal agency, or other individual was at fault or otherwise responsible for purposes of liability. Such recording or reporting does not constitute an admission of the existence of an employer/employee relationship between the individual recording the injury and the injured individual. The recording or reporting of any such injury, illness or fatality does not mean that an OSHA rule has been violated or that the individual in question is eligible for workers' compensation or any other benefits. The requirements of this part do not diminish or modify in any way a Federal agency's responsibilities to report or record injuries and illnesses as required by the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs under the Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FECA), 5 U.S.C. 8101 <I>et seq.</I></P></NOTE>
<P>(f) Retention and access of employee exposure and medical records shall be in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68804, Nov. 26, 2004, as amended at 78 FR 47190, Aug. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.67" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.67   Federal agency certification of the injury and illness annual summary (OSHA 300-A or equivalent).</HEAD>
<P>As required by 29 CFR 1904.32, a company executive must certify that he or she has examined the OSHA 300 Log and that he or she believes, based on his or her knowledge of the process by which the information was recorded, that the annual summary is correct and complete. For Federal establishments, the person who performs the certification shall be one of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The senior establishment management official,
</P>
<P>(b) The head of the Agency for which the senior establishment management official works, or
</P>
<P>(c) Any management official who is in the direct chain of command between the senior establishment management official and the head of the Agency.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1960.67:</HED>
<P>The requirement for certification of Federal agency injury and illness records in this section is necessary because the private sector position titles contained in 29 CFR part 1904 do not fit the Federal agency position titles for agency executives. The Federal officials listed in this section are intended to be the equivalent of the private sector officials who are required to certify records under § 1904.32(b)(4).</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.68" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.68   Prohibition against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>Section 1904.36 of this chapter refers to Section 11(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act. For Federal agencies, the words “Section 11(c)” shall be read as “Executive Order 12196 Section 1-201(f).”
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1960.68:</HED>
<P>Section 11(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act only applies to private sector employers and the U.S. Postal Service. The corresponding prohibitions against discrimination applicable to Federal employers are contained in Section 1-201(f) of Executive Order 12196, 45 FR 12769, 3 CFR, 1980 Comp. p. 145.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.69" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.69   Retention and updating of old forms.</HEAD>
<P>Federal agencies must retain copies of the recordkeeping records utilized under the system in effect prior to January 1, 2005 for five years following the year to which they relate and continue to provide access to the data as though these forms were the OSHA Form 300 Log and Form 301 Incident Report. Agencies are not required to update the old forms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.70" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.70   Reporting of serious accidents.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies must provide the Office of Federal Agency Programs with a summary report of each fatal and catastrophic accident investigation. The summaries shall address the date/time of accident, agency/establishment named and location, and consequences, description of operation and the accident, causal factors, applicable standards and their effectiveness, and agency corrective/preventive actions.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 1960.70:</HED>
<P>The requirements of this section are in addition to the requirements for reporting fatalities and multiple hospitalization incidents to OSHA under 29 CFR 1904.39.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.71" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.71   Agency annual reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act and E.O. 12196 require all Federal agency heads to submit to the Secretary an annual report on their agency's occupational safety and health program, containing such information as the Secretary prescribes.
</P>
<P>(1) Each agency must submit to the Secretary by May 1 of each year a report describing the agency's occupational safety and health program of the previous calendar year and objectives for the current fiscal year. The report shall include a summary of the agency's self-evaluation finding as required by § 1960.78(b).
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary must provide the agencies with the guidelines and format for the reports at the time they are requested.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency reports will be used in preparing the Secretary's report to the President.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will submit to the President by January 1 of each year a summary report of the status of the occupational safety and health of Federal employees based on agency reports, evaluations of individual agency progress and problems in correcting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions, and recommendations for improving their performance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68804, Nov. 26, 2004, as amended at 78 FR 47190, Aug. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.72" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.72   Reporting Federal Agency Injury and Illness Information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency must submit to the Secretary by May 1 of each year all information included on the agency's previous calendar year's occupational injury and illness recordkeeping forms. The information submitted must include all data entered on the OSHA Form 300, Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (or equivalent); OSHA Form 301, Injury and Illness Incident Report (or equivalent); and OSHA Form 300A, Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (or equivalent).
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary must provide each agency by January 15 of each year with the format and guidelines for electronically submitting the agency's occupational injury and illness recordkeeping information.
</P>
<P>(c) Each agency must submit to the Secretary by May 1, 2014, a list of all establishments. The list must include information about the department/agency affiliation, NAICS code, a street address, city, state and zip code. Federal agencies are also responsible for updating their list of establishments by May 1 of each year when they submit the annual report to the Secretary required by § 1960.71(a)(1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 47190, Aug. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.73" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.73   Federal agency injury and illness recordkeeping forms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When filling out the OSHA Form 300 or equivalent, each agency must enter the employee's OPM job series number and job title in Column (c).
</P>
<P>(b) When recording the injuries and illnesses of uncompensated volunteers, each agency must enter a “V” before the OPM job series number in Column (c) of the OSH Form 300 log or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(c) Each agency must calculate the total number of hours worked by uncompensated volunteers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 47191, Aug. 5, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.74" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.9.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.74   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Evaluation of Federal Occupational Safety and Health Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.78" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.10.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.78   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this subpart is to establish a comprehensive program for the evaluation of Federal employee occupational safety and health programs. This subpart includes the responsibilities of agency heads in conducting self-evaluations of the effectiveness of their occupational safety and health programs, and the responsibilities of the Secretary in evaluating the extent to which each agency head has developed and implemented agency programs in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12196 and this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Agency heads shall develop and implement a program for evaluating the effectiveness of their agency's occupational safety and health program. An annual summary report shall be submitted to the Secretary covering self-evaluations conducted during the previous year. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary shall conduct a comprehensive evaluation of each Federal agency's occupational safety and health program. Evaluations shall be conducted on a regular schedule to determine the performance levels of each agency's program. The Secretary shall submit to the President each year: A summary report of the status of the occupational safety and health of Federal employees; Department of Labor evaluations, together with agency responses, of individual agency progress and problems in correcting unsafe and unhealthful working conditions, and recommendations for improving agency's performance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.79" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.10.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.79   Self-evaluations of occupational safety and health programs.</HEAD>
<P>Agency heads shall develop and implement a program of self-evaluations to determine the effectiveness of their occupational safety and health programs. The self-evaluations are to include qualitative assessments of the extent to which their agency safety and health programs are: 
</P>
<P>(a) Developed in accordance with the requirements set forth in Executive Order 12196 and this part and, 
</P>
<P>(b) Implemented effectively in all agency field activities.
</P>
<FP>Agencies needing assistance in developing a self-evaluation program should contact the Secretary. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.80" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.10.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.80   Secretary's evaluations of agency occupational safety and health programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with section 1-401(h), the Secretary shall develop a comprehensive program for evaluating an agency's occupational safety and health program. To accomplish this, the Secretary shall conduct: 
</P>
<P>(1) A complete and extensive evaluation of all elements of an agency's occupational safety and health program on a regular basis; 
</P>
<P>(2) Special studies of limited areas of an agency's occupational safety and health program as deemed necessary by the Secretary; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Field reviews and scheduled inspections of agency workplaces as deemed necessary by the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall develop and distribute to Federal agencies detailed information on the Department of Labor's evaluation program. The information shall include, but is not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The major program elements included in a complete and extensive evaluation of an agency's occupational safety and health program; 
</P>
<P>(2) The methods and factors used to determine the effectiveness of each element of an agency's program; 
</P>
<P>(3) The factors used to define “large” or “more hazardous” Federal agencies, establishments, or operations; 
</P>
<P>(4) The procedures for conducting evaluations including field visits and scheduled inspections; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The reporting format for agency heads in submitting annual summaries of their self-evaluation programs. 
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to the initiation of an agency evaluation, the Department of Labor will review the annual agency self-evaluation summary report. The Secretary will then develop a program evaluation plan before the initiation of an agency evaluation. A copy of the plan shall be furnished to the agency to be evaluated at the time of the notification of the evaluation. 
</P>
<P>(d) To facilitate the evaluation process and to insure full understanding of the procedures to be followed and the support required from the agency, the Secretary, or the Secretary's representative, shall conduct an opening conference with the agency head or designee. At the opening conference, the Secretary's authority and evaluation plan will be explained. 
</P>
<P>(e) The agency evaluation should be completed within 90 calendar days of the date of the opening conference. 
</P>
<P>(f) A report of the evaluation shall be submitted to the agency head by the Secretary within 90 calendar days from the date of the closing conference. 
</P>
<P>(g) Agency heads shall respond to the evaluation report within 60 calendar days of receipt of the report. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69798, Oct. 21, 1980; 45 FR 77003, Nov. 21, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Field Federal Safety and Health Councils</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.84" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.11.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.84   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Executive Order 12196 provides that the Secretary shall “facilitate the exchange of ideas and information throughout the Government about occupational safety and health.” 
</P>
<P>(b) Consistent with this objective, the Secretary will continue to sponsor and/or provide guidance for those Field Federal Safety and Health Councils now established and in operation, and establish new field councils as necessary. The field councils will consist primarily of qualified representatives of local area Federal field activities whose duties pertain to occupational safety and health, and also of representatives of recognized local labor organizations, or other civilian employee organizations, at local area Federal field activities. For the purpose of this subpart the definition of field activity will be provided by each agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.85" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.11.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.85   Role of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary shall maintain liaison with agency heads to ensure that they encourage their field activities to participate actively in field council programs. To ensure maximum participation, the field councils' annual reports to the Secretary shall provide descriptions of the degree of management and employee participation by the defined Federal field activities. The Secretary shall annually furnish each agency head with a report consolidating the information received as to the participation of the agency's several field installations in field council activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall provide leadership and guidance and make available necessary equipment, supplies, and staff services to the Field Federal Safety and Health Councils to assist them in carrying out their responsibilities. The Secretary shall also provide consultative and technical services to field councils. These services shall involve aid in any phase of developing and planning programs; and in sponsoring, conducting or supporting safety and health training courses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.86" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.11.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.86   Establishing councils.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Those field councils established and in operation prior to the effective date of this subpart will continue to function without interruption provided they are operating in accordance with the provision of their charter and this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary may establish a council in any area where ten or more Federal establishments totaling 300 or more employees are located within an area having a radius of 50 miles, and there is substantial agreement among the agencies that such a council would be useful. In any such area where there is no council already established, a field representative of the Secretary may, upon his own initiative or at the request of any establishment within the area, contact representatives of all establishments within the area and encourage the organization of a field council. 
</P>
<P>(c) After a new council has been organized, officers elected, and articles of organization drafted and accepted by the council membership, a formal request for recognition as a field council shall be sent to the Secretary. Upon approval of the Articles of Organization, a charter will be issued. 
</P>
<P>(d) At the first general meeting of the council, committees should be appointed and the cooperation of all participants should be solicited to aid the functioning of committees and the successful accomplishment of the council's objectives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.87" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.11.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.87   Objectives.</HEAD>
<P>The basic objective of field councils is to facilitate the exchange of ideas and information to assist agencies to reduce the incidence, severity and cost of occupational accidents, injuries, and illnesses. Field councils shall act on behalf of the Secretary or his designees on occupational safety and health activities in carrying out within their respective geographic areas the following functions: 
</P>
<P>(a) To act as a clearinghouse on information and data on occupational accidents, injuries, and illnesses and their prevention. 
</P>
<P>(b) To plan, organize and conduct field council meetings or programs which will give technical advice and information on occupational safety and health to representatives of participating agencies and employee organizations. 
</P>
<P>(c) To promote improvement of safety and health programs and organizations in each Federal agency represented or participating in council activities. 
</P>
<P>(d) To promote coordination, cooperation, and sharing of resources and expertise to aid agencies with inadequate or limited resources. These objectives can be accomplished in a variety of ways. For example, field councils could organize and conduct training programs for employee representatives, collateral duty and professional safety and health personnel, coordinate or promote programs for inspections, or, on request, conduct inspections and evaluations of the agencies' safety and health programs. 
</P>
<P>(e) To provide Federal Executive Boards, Federal Executive Associations, labor union organizations and other employee representatives with information on the administrative and technical aspects of safety and health programs. 
</P>
<P>(f) To evaluate the safety and health problems peculiar to local conditions and facilitate solutions to these problems through council activities. 
</P>
<P>(g) To develop a cooperative relationship with local community leaders by informing them of the existing functions and objectives of the council and by calling on them for support and participation in council meetings and activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.88" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.11.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.88   Membership and participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each field council shall consist of the designated representatives of local Federal activities appointed by their respective activity heads, after consultation with appropriate employee representatives and appropriate certified safety and health committees. 
</P>
<P>(b) Federal agency heads should encourage each field activity having responsibility for the safety and health of agency employees to participate in the programs of these councils. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each activity head shall appoint an equal number of officially designated representatives (with designated alternates), from management and from nonmanagement employees, consistent with applicable collective bargaining arrangements. 
</P>
<P>(d) Representatives shall be selected from individuals in the following categories: 
</P>
<P>(1) Federal occupational safety and health professionals. 
</P>
<P>(2) Related Federal professionals, or collateral duty personnel. This includes persons employed in professions or occupations related to or concerned with safety and health of employees. 
</P>
<P>(3) Line management officials. 
</P>
<P>(4) Representatives of recognized Federal labor or other employee organizations. 
</P>
<P>(i) Where certified occupational safety and health committees exist, nonmanagement members of the committees shall be given the opportunity to select one individual for official appointment to field councils by the activity head. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where employees are represented by collective bargaining arrangements, but no committee exists, nonmanagement members of field councils shall be selected from among those recommended by the exclusive bargaining representatives for official appointment to field councils by the activity head. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where some employees in an activity are represented by collective bargaining arrangements and others are not, the agency head should solicit nominations for the agency's designated nonmanagement representative and alternate both from lawful labor organization(s) with collective bargaining status and from employees not represented through collective bargaining and should select from the nominees for official appointment as designated employee representatives on the field council. 
</P>
<P>(e) Representatives from non-Federal organizations. Associate membership may be granted to any non-Federally employed person who demonstrated interest in occupational safety and health. An associate member has no voting rights and may not hold any office. 
</P>
<P>(f) No maximum limitation shall be imposed by a council on itself, in regard to the numbers of personnel in any of the above categories that may attend meetings and/or participate in field council activities. An agency is free to have any number of individuals, in addition to the officially designated representatives participate in council activities. 
</P>
<P>(g) Only officially designated agency representatives or their alternates shall have voting privileges. All representatives and participants shall serve without additional compensation.
</P>
<P>(h) Travel funds shall be made available equally to management and nonmanagement employee representatives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.89" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.11.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.89   Organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Field council officers shall include, as a minimum, a chairperson, vice chairperson, and secretary. Officers shall be elected for a one or two-year term on a calendar year basis by a majority vote of the designated representatives. Election of officers shall be held at least 60 days before the beginning of a calendar year. The election may be conducted at a regularly scheduled meeting or by letter ballot.
</P>
<P>(b) Each council shall notify the appropriate OSHA Regional Office and the Office of Federal Agency Safety and Health Programs of the name, agency address, and telephone number of each newly elected official.
</P>
<P>(c) Each council shall have an Executive Committee consisting of all elected officers, chairpersons of appointed committees and the immediate past chairperson of the field council.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the Executive Committee, each council shall have either a membership committee, a program committee and a finance committee, or a council official designated responsibility in these areas. Additional committees may be appointed by the chairperson for specific purposes as warranted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1960.90" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.10.11.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1960.90   Operating procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Executive Committee of each council shall meet at least 45 days before the beginning of each calendar year to approve an annual program for the council designed to accomplish the objectives and functions stated in § 1960.87. In addition, the Executive Committee shall meet periodically to ensure that the meetings and other activities of the council are being conducted as outlined in the council schedule.
</P>
<P>(b) The council program shall include at least four meetings or activities per year dealing with occupational safety and health issues.
</P>
<P>(c) Each field council shall submit to the Secretary or his designee by March 15 of each year a report describing the activities and programs of the previous calendar year and plans for the current year. In addition, the report shall address the participation and attendance of designated representatives of the council. The Office of Federal Agency Safety and Health Programs, OSHA, shall furnish guidelines to field councils concerning the preparation of this report.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon determination that a council is not operating in accordance with its charter and the provisions of this subpart, and after consultation with appropriate OSHA regional officials, the Secretary shall revoke the council's charter. Upon revocation of a charter, the council shall surrender all its government property to the appropriate OSHA regional official. Any continuing or future organization in the same geographical area shall not use the title Field Federal Safety and Health Council, or any derivation thereof, unless formally rechartered by the Secretary. Notification of revocation of a council's charter shall be sent to the chairperson, where identifiable, and to the appropriate OSHA Regional Office. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1975" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1975—COVERAGE OF EMPLOYERS UNDER THE WILLIAMS-STEIGER OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ACT OF 1970
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 2, 3, 4, 8, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651, 652, 653, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 12-71 (36 FR 8754).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>37 FR 929, Jan. 21, 1972, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1975.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.11.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1975.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Among other things, the Williams-Steiger Act poses certain duties on employers. This part has the limited purpose and scope of clarifying which persons are considered to be employers either as a matter of interpretation of the intent and terms of the Act or as a matter of policy appropriate to administering and enforcing the Act. In short, the purpose and scope of this part is to indicate which persons are covered by the Act as employers and, as such, subject to the requirements of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is not the purpose of this part to indicate the legal effect of the Act, once coverage is determined. Section 4(b)(1) of the Act provides that the statute shall be inapplicable to working conditions to the extent they are subject to another Federal agency's exercise of different statutory authority affecting the occupational safety and health aspects of those conditions. Therefore, a person may be considered an employer covered by the Act, and yet standards issued under the Act respecting certain working conditions would not be applicable to the extent those conditions were subject to another agency's authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1975.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.11.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1975.2   Basis of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The power of Congress to regulate employment conditions under the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, is derived mainly from the Commerce Clause of the Constitution. (section 2(b), Pub. L. 91-596; U.S. Constitution, Art. I, Sec. 8, Cl. 3; “United States v. Darby,” 312 U.S. 100.) The reach of the Commerce Clause extends beyond Federal regulation of the channels and instrumentalities of interstate commerce so as to empower Congress to regulate conditions or activities which affect commerce even though the activity or condition may itself not be commerce and may be purely intrastate in character. (“Gibbons v. Ogden,” 9 Wheat. 1, 195; “United States v. Darby,” supra; “Wickard v. Filburn,” 317 U.S. 111, 117; and “Perez v. United States,” 91 S. Ct. 1357 (1971).) And it is not necessary to prove that any particular intrastate activity affects commerce, if the activity is included in a class of activities which Congress intended to regulate because the class affects commerce. (“Heart of Atlanta Motel, Inc. v. United States,” 379 U.S. 241; “Katzenbach v. McClung,” 379 U.S. 294; and “Perez v. United States,” supra.) Generally speaking, the class of activities which Congress may regulate under the commerce power may be as broad and as inclusive as Congress intends, since the commerce power is plenary and has no restrictions placed on it except specific constitutional prohibitions and those restrictions Congress, itself, places on it. (“United States v. Wrightwood Dairy Co.,” 315 U.S. 110; and “United States v. Darby,” supra.) Since there are no specific constitutional prohibitions involved, the issue is reduced to the question: How inclusive did Congress intend the class of activities to be under the Williams-Steiger Act? 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1975.3" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.11.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1975.3   Extent of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 2(b) of the Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety and Health Act (Public Law 91-596) sets forth the purpose and policy of Congress in enacting this legislation. In pertinent part, that section reads as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Congress declares it to be its purpose and policy, through the exercise of its powers to regulate commerce among the several States and with foreign nations and to provide for the general welfare, to assure so far as possible every working man and woman in the Nation safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve our human resources * * *</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Congressman William Steiger described the scope of the Act's coverage in the following words during a discussion of the legislation on the floor of the House of Representatives: 
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The coverage of this bill is as broad, generally speaking, as the authority vested in the Federal Government by the commerce clause of the Constitution (Cong. Rec., vol. 116, p. H-11899, Dec. 17, 1970)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The legislative history, as a whole, clearly shows that every amendment or other proposal which would have resulted in any employee's being left outside the protections afforded by the Act was rejected. The reason for excluding no employee, either by exemption or limitation on coverage, lies in the most fundamental of social purposes of this legislation which is to protect the lives and health of human beings in the context of their employment. 
</FP>
<P>(b) The Williams-Steiger Act includes special provisions (sections 19 and 18(c)(6)) for the protection of Federal and State employees to whom the Act's other provisions are made inapplicable under section 3(5), which excludes from the definition of the term “employer” both the United States and any State or political subdivision of a State. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of section 4(b)(1) of the Act, which makes the Act inapplicable to working conditions to the extent they are protected under laws administered by other Federal agencies, Congress did not intend to grant any general exemptions under the Act; its sole purpose was to avoid duplication of effort by Federal agencies in establishing a national policy of occupational safety and health protection. 
</P>
<P>(d) Interpretation of the provisions and terms of the Williams-Steiger Act must of necessity be consistent with the express intent of Congress to exercise its commerce power to the extent that, “so far as possible, every working man and woman in the Nation” would be protected as provided for in the Act. The words “so far as possible” refer to the practical extent to which governmental regulation and expended resources are capable of achieving safe and healthful working conditions; the words are not ones of limitation on coverage. The controlling definition for the purpose of coverage under the Act is that of “employer” contained in section 3(5). This term is defined as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(5) The term “employer” means any person engaged in a business affecting commerce who has employees, but does not include the United States or any State or political subdivision of a State.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In carrying out the broad coverage mandate of Congress, we interpret the term “business” in the above definition as including any commercial or noncommercial activity affecting commerce and involving the employment of one or more employees; the term “commerce” is defined in the Act itself, in section 3(3). Since the legislative history and the words of the statute, itself, indicate that Congress intended the full exercise of its commerce power in order to reduce employment-related hazards which, as a whole impose a substantial burden on commerce, it follows that all employments where such hazards exist or could exist (that is, those involving the employment of one or more employees) were intended to be regulated as a class of activities which affects commerce. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1975.4" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.11.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1975.4   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any employer employing one or more employees would be an “employer engaged in a business affecting commerce who has employees” and, therefore, he is covered by the Act as such. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clarification as to certain employers</I>—(1) <I>The professions, such as physicians, attorneys, etc.</I> Where a member of a profession, such as an attorney or physician, employs one or more employees such member comes within the definition of an employer as defined in the Act and interpreted thereunder and, therefore, such member is covered as an employer under the Act and required to comply with its provisions and with the regulations issued thereunder to the extent applicable. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agricultural employers.</I> Any person engaged in an agricultural activity employing one or more employees comes within the definition of an employer under the Act, and therefore, is covered by its provisions. However, members of the immediate family of the farm employer are not regarded as employees for the purposes of this definition. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Indians.</I> The Williams-Steiger Act contains no special provisions with respect to different treatment in the case of Indians. It is well settled that under statutes of general application, such as the Williams-Steiger Act, Indians are treated as any other person, unless Congress expressly provided for special treatment. “FPC v. Tuscarora Indian Nation,” 362 U.S. 99, 115-118 (1960); “Navajo Tribe v. N.L.R.B.,” 288 F.2d 162, 164-165 (D.C. Cir. 1961), cert. den. 366 U.S. 928 (1961). Therefore, provided they otherwise come within the definition of the term “employer” as interpreted in this part, Indians and Indian tribes, whether on or off reservations, and non-Indians on reservations, will be treated as employers subject to the requirements of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonprofit and charitable organizations.</I> The basic purpose of the Williams-Steiger Act is to improve working environments in the sense that they impair, or could impair, the lives and health of employees. Therefore, certain economic tests such as whether the employer's business is operated for the purpose of making a profit or has other economic ends, may not properly be used as tests for coverage of an employer's activity under the Williams-Steiger Act. To permit such economic tests to serve as criteria for excluding certain employers, such as nonprofit and charitable organizations which employ one or more employees, would result in thousands of employees being left outside the protections of the Williams-Steiger Act in disregard of the clear mandate of Congress to assure “every working man and woman in the Nation safe and healthful working conditions * * *”. Therefore, any charitable or non-profit organization which employs one or more employees is covered under the Williams-Steiger Act and is required to comply with its provisions and the regulations issued thereunder. (Some examples of covered charitable or non-profit organizations would be disaster relief organizations, philanthropic organizations, trade associations, private educational institutions, labor organizations, and private hospitals.) 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage of churches and special policy as to certain church activities</I>—(1) <I>Churches.</I> Churches or religious organizations, like charitable and nonprofit organizations, are considered employers under the Act where they employ one or more persons in secular activities. As a matter of enforcement policy, the performance of, or participation in, religious services (as distinguished from secular or proprietary activities whether for charitable or religion-related purposes) will be regarded as not constituting employment under the Act. Any person, while performing religious services or participating in them in any degree is not regarded as an employer or employee under the Act, notwithstanding the fact that such person may be regarded as an employer or employee for other purposes—for example, giving or receiving remuneration in connection with the performance of religious services. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> Some examples of coverage of religious organizations as employers would be: A private hospital owned or operated by a religious organization; a private school or orphanage owned or operated by a religious organization; commercial establishments of religious organizations engaged in producing or selling products such as alcoholic beverages, bakery goods, religious goods, etc.; and administrative, executive, and other office personnel employed by religious organizations. Some examples of noncoverage in the case of religious organizations would be: Clergymen while performing or participating in religious services; and other participants in religious services; namely, choir masters, organists, other musicians, choir members, ushers, and the like. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1975.5" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.11.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1975.5   States and political subdivisions thereof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The definition of the term “employer” in section 3(5) of the Act excludes the United States and States and political subdivisions of a State: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(5) The term “employer” means a person engaged in a business affecting commerce who has employees, but does not include the United States or any State or political subdivision of a State.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The term “State” is defined as follows in section 3(7) of the Act: 
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(7) The term “State” includes a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Since States, as defined in section 3(7) of the Act, and political subdivisions thereof are not regarded as employers under section 3(5) of the Act, they would not be covered as employers under the Act, except to the extent that section 18(c)(6), and the pertinent regulations thereunder, require as a condition of approval by the Secretary of Labor of a State plan that such plan: 
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(6) Contain[s] satisfactory assurances that such State will, to the extent permitted by its law, establish and maintain an effective and comprehensive occupational safety and health program applicable to all employees of public agencies of the State and its political subdivisions, which program is as effective as the standards contained in an approved plan.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Tests.</I> Any entity which has been (1) created directly by the State, so as to constitute a department or administrative arm of the government, or (2) administered by individuals who are controlled by public officials and responsible to such officials or to the general electorate, shall be deemed to be a “State or political subdivision thereof” under section 3(5) of the Act and, therefore, not within the definition of employer, and, consequently, not subject to the Act as an employer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factors for meeting the tests.</I> Various factors will be taken into consideration in determining whether an entity meets the test discussed above. Some examples of these factors are: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Are the individuals who administer the entity appointed by a public official or elected by the general electorate? 
</P>
<P>What are the terms and conditions of the appointment? 
</P>
<P>Who may dismiss such individuals and under what procedures? 
</P>
<P>What is the financial source of the salary of these individuals? 
</P>
<P>Does the entity earn a profit? Are such profits treated as revenue? 
</P>
<P>How are the entity's functions financed? What are the powers of the entity and are they usually characteristic of a government rather than a private instrumentality like the power of eminent domain? 
</P>
<P>How is the entity regarded under State and local law as well as under other Federal laws? 
</P>
<P>Is the entity exempted from State and local tax laws? 
</P>
<P>Are the entity's bonds, if any, tax-exempt? As to the entity's employees, are they regarded like employees of other State and political subdivisions? 
</P>
<P>What is the financial source of the employee-payroll? 
</P>
<P>How do employee fringe benefits, rights, obligations, and restrictions of the entity's employees compare to those of the employees of other State and local departments and agencies?</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In evaluating these factors, due regard will be given to whether any occupational safety and health program exists to protect the entity's employees. 
</FP>
<P>(d) <I>Weight of the factors.</I> The above list of factors is not exhaustive and no factor, isolated from the particular facts of a case, is assigned any particular weight for the purpose of a determination by the Secretary of Labor as to whether a given entity is a “State or political subdivision of a State” and, as such, not subject to the Act as an “employer”. Each case must be viewed on its merits; and whether a single factor will be decisive, or whether the factors must be viewed in their relationship to each other as part of a sum total, also depends on the merits of each case. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples.</I> (1) The following types of entities would normally be regarded as not being employers under section 3(5) of the Act: the State Department of Labor and Industry; the State Highway and Motor Vehicle Department; State, county, and municipal law enforcement agencies as well as penal institutions; State, county, and municipal judicial bodies; State University Boards of Trustees; State, county, and municipal public school boards and commissions; and public libraries. 
</P>
<P>(2) Depending on the facts in the particular situation, the following types of entities would probably be excluded as employers under section 3(5) of the Act: harbor districts, irrigation districts, port authorities, bi-State authorities over bridges, highways, rivers, harbors, etc.; municipal transit entities; and State, county, and local hospitals and related institutions. 
</P>
<P>(3) The following examples are of entities which would normally not be regarded as a “State or political subdivision of a State”, but unusual factors to the contrary in a particular case may indicate otherwise: Public utility companies, merely regulated by State or local bodies; businesses, such as alcoholic beverage distributors, licensed under State or local law; other business entities which under agreement perform certain functions for the State, such as gasoline stations conducting automobile inspections for State and county governments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1975.6" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.11.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1975.6   Policy as to domestic household employment activities in private residences.</HEAD>
<P>As a matter of policy, individuals who, in their own residences, privately employ persons for the purpose of performing for the benefit of such individuals what are commonly regarded as ordinary domestic household tasks, such as house cleaning, cooking, and caring for children, shall not be subject to the requirements of the Act with respect to such employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1977" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1977—DISCRIMINATION AGAINST EMPLOYEES EXERCISING RIGHTS UNDER THE WILLIAMS-STEIGER OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ACT OF 1970 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 657, 660; 5 U.S.C. 553; and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 08-2020 (85 FR 58393), 9-83 (48 FR 35736), or 12-71 (36 FR 8754), as applicable.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 2681, Jan. 29, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="26" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.1" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.1   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651, <I>et seq.</I>), hereinafter referred to as the Act, is a Federal statute of general application designed to regulate employment conditions relating to occupational safety and health and to achieve safer and healthier workplaces throughout the Nation. By terms of the Act, every person engaged in a business affecting commerce who has employees is required to furnish each of his employees employment and a place of employment free from recognized hazards that are causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm, and, further, to comply with occupational safety and health standards promulgated under the Act. See part 1975 of this chapter concerning coverage of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Act provides, among other things, for the adoption of occupational safety and health standards, research and development activities, inspections and investigations of workplaces, and recordkeeping requirements. Enforcement procedures initiated by the Department of Labor, review proceedings before an independent quasi-judicial agency (the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission), and express judicial review are provided by the Act. In addition, States which desire to assume responsibility for development and enforcement of standards which are at least as effective as the Federal standards published in this chapter may submit plans for such development and enforcement of the Secretary of Labor. 
</P>
<P>(c) Employees and representatives of employees are afforded a wide range of substantive and procedural rights under the Act. Moreover, effective implementation of the Act and achievement of its goals depend in large part upon the active but orderly participation of employees, individually and through their representatives, at every level of safety and health activity. 
</P>
<P>(d) This part deals essentially with the rights of employees afforded under section 11(c) of the Act. Section 11(c) of the Act prohibits reprisals, in any form, against employees who exercise rights under the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.2" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.2   Purpose of this part.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to make available in one place interpretations of the various provisions of section 11(c) of the Act which will guide the Secretary of Labor in the performance of his duties thereunder unless and until otherwise directed by authoritative decisions of the courts, or concluding, upon reexamination of an interpretation, that it is incorrect. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.3" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.3   General requirements of section 11(c) of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Section 11(c) provides in general that no person shall discharge or in any manner discriminate against any employee because the employee has:
</P>
<P>(a) Filed any complaint under or related to the Act;
</P>
<P>(b) Instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to the Act;
</P>
<P>(c) Testified or is about to testify in any proceeding under the Act or related to the Act; or
</P>
<P>(d) Exercised on his own behalf or on behalf of others any right afforded by the Act.
</P>
<FP>Any employee who believes that he has been discriminated against in violation of section 11(c) of the Act may, within 30 days after such violation occurs, lodge a complaint with the Secretary of Labor alleging such violation. The Secretary shall then cause appropriate investigation to be made. If, as a result of such investigation, the Secretary determines that the provisions of section 11(c) have been violated civil action may be instituted in any appropriate United States district court, to restrain violations of section 11(c)(1) and to obtain other appropriate relief, including rehiring or reinstatement of the employee to his former position with back pay. Section 11(c) further provides for notification of complainants by the Secretary of determinations made pursuant to their complaints. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.4" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.4   Persons prohibited from discriminating.</HEAD>
<P>Section 11(c) specifically states that “no person shall discharge or in any manner discriminate against any employee” because the employee has exercised rights under the Act. Section 3(4) of the Act defines “person” as “one or more individuals, partnerships, associations, corporations, business trusts, legal representatives, or any group of persons.” Consequently, the prohibitions of section 11(c) are not limited to actions taken by employers against their own employees. A person may be chargeable with discriminatory action against an employee of another person. Section 11(c) would extend to such entities as organizations representing employees for collective bargaining purposes, employment agencies, or any other person in a position to discriminate against an employee. See, <I>Meek</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 136 F. 2d 679 (6th Cir., 1943); <I>Bowe</I> v. <I>Judson C. Burns,</I> 137 F. 2d 37 (3rd Cir., 1943). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.5" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.5   Persons protected by section 11(c).</HEAD>
<P>(a) All employees are afforded the full protection of section 11(c). For purposes of the Act, an employee is defined as “an employee of an employer who is employed in a business of his employer which affects commerce.” The Act does not define the term “employ.” However, the broad remedial nature of this legislation demonstrates a clear congressional intent that the existence of an employment relationship, for purposes of section 11(c), is to be based upon economic realities rather than upon common law doctrines and concepts. See, <I>U.S.</I> v. <I>Silk,</I> 331 U.S. 704 (1947); <I>Rutherford Food Corporation</I> v. <I>McComb,</I> 331 U.S. 722 (1947). 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of section 11(c), even an applicant for employment could be considered an employee. See, <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Lamar Creamery,</I> 246 F. 2d 8 (5th Cir., 1957). Further, because section 11(c) speaks in terms of any employee, it is also clear that the employee need not be an employee of the discriminator. The principal consideration would be whether the person alleging discrimination was an “employee” at the time of engaging in protected activity. 
</P>
<P>(c) In view of the definitions of “employer” and “employee” contained in the Act, employees of a State or political subdivision thereof would not ordinarily be within the contemplated coverage of section 11(c). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.6" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.6   Unprotected activities distinguished.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The proscriptions of section 11(c) apply when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in activities protected by the Act does not automatically render him immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons, or from adverse action dictated by non-prohibited considerations. See, <I>NLRB</I> v. <I>Dixie Motor Coach Corp.,</I> 128 F. 2d 201 (5th Cir., 1942). 
</P>
<P>(b) At the same time, to establish a violation of section 11(c), the employee's engagement in protected activity need not be the sole or primary consideration behind discharge or other adverse action. If the discharge or other adverse action would not have taken place “but for” engagement in protected activity, section 11(c) has been violated. See <I>Bostock</I> v. <I>Clay County, Ga.,</I> 140 S Ct. 1731, 1739 (2020); <I>Univ. of Tex. Sw. Med. Ctr.</I> v. <I>Nassar,</I> 570 U.S. 338 (2013). Ultimately, the issue as to whether a discharge or other adverse action was because of protected activity will have to be determined on the basis of the facts in the particular case.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 2681, Jan. 29, 1973, as amended at 86 FR 49476, Sept. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="27" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.27" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Specific Protections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.9" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.9   Complaints under or related to the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discharge of, or discrimination against, an employee because the employee has filed “any complaint * * * under or related to this Act * * *” is prohibited by section 11(c). An example of a complaint made “under” the Act would be an employee request for inspection pursuant to section 8(f). However, this would not be the only type of complaint protected by section 11(c). The range of complaints “related to” the Act is commensurate with the broad remedial purposes of this legislation and the sweeping scope of its application, which entails the full extent of the commerce power. (See Cong. Rec., vol. 116 p. P. 42206 Dec. 17, 1970). 
</P>
<P>(b) Complaints registered with other Federal agencies which have the authority to regulate or investigate occupational safety and health conditions are complaints “related to” this Act. Likewise, complaints made to State or local agencies regarding occupational safety and health conditions would be “related to” the Act. Such complaints, however, must relate to conditions at the workplace, as distinguished from complaints touching only upon general public safety and health. 
</P>
<P>(c) Further, the salutary principles of the Act would be seriously undermined if employees were discouraged from lodging complaints about occupational safety and health matters with their employers. (Section 2(1), (2), and (3)). Such complaints to employers, if made in good faith, therefore would be related to the Act, and an employee would be protected against discharge or discrimination caused by a complaint to the employer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.10" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.10   Proceedings under or related to the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discharge of, or discrimination against, any employee because the employee has “instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under or related to this Act” is also prohibited by section 11(c). Examples of proceedings which could arise specifically under the Act would be inspections of worksites under section 8 of the Act, employee contest of abatement date under section 10(c) of the Act, employee initiation of proceedings for promulgation of an occupational safety and health standard under section 6(b) of the Act and part 1911 of this chapter, employee application for modification of revocation of a variance under section 6(d) of the Act and part 1905 of this chapter, employee judicial challenge to a standard under section 6(f) of the Act and employee appeal of an Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission order under section 11(a) of the Act. In determining whether a “proceeding” is “related to” the Act, the considerations discussed in § 1977.9 would also be applicable. 
</P>
<P>(b) An employee need not himself directly institute the proceedings. It is sufficient if he sets into motion activities of others which result in proceedings under or related to the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.11" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.11   Testimony.</HEAD>
<P>Discharge of, or discrimination against, any employee because the employee “has testified or is about to testify” in proceedings under or related to the Act is also prohibited by section 11(c). This protection would of course not be limited to testimony in proceedings instituted or caused to be instituted by the employee, but would extend to any statements given in the course of judicial, quasi-judicial, and administrative proceedings, including inspections, investigations, and administrative rule making or adjudicative functions. If the employee is giving or is about to give testimony in any proceeding under or related to the Act, he would be protected against discrimination resulting from such testimony. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.12" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.12   Exercise of any right afforded by the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to protecting employees who file complaints, institute proceedings, or testify in proceedings under or related to the Act, section 11(c) also protects employees from discrimination occurring because of the exercise “of any right afforded by this Act.” Certain rights are explicitly provided in the Act; for example, there is a right to participate as a party in enforcement proceedings (section 10). Certain other rights exist by necessary implication. For example, employees may request information from the Occupational Safety and Health Administration; such requests would constitute the exercise of a right afforded by the Act. Likewise, employees interviewed by agents of the Secretary in the course of inspections or investigations could not subsequently be discriminated against because of their cooperation. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) On the other hand, review of the Act and examination of the legislative history discloses that, as a general matter, there is no right afforded by the Act which would entitle employees to walk off the job because of potential unsafe conditions at the workplace. Hazardous conditions which may be violative of the Act will ordinarily be corrected by the employer, once brought to his attention. If corrections are not accomplished, or if there is dispute about the existence of a hazard, the employee will normally have opportunity to request inspection of the workplace pursuant to section 8(f) of the Act, or to seek the assistance of other public agencies which have responsibility in the field of safety and health. Under such circumstances, therefore, an employer would not ordinarily be in violation of section 11(c) by taking action to discipline an employee for refusing to perform normal job activities because of alleged safety or health hazards. 
</P>
<P>(2) However, occasions might arise when an employee is confronted with a choice between not performing assigned tasks or subjecting himself to serious injury or death arising from a hazardous condition at the workplace. If the employee, with no reasonable alternative, refuses in good faith to expose himself to the dangerous condition, he would be protected against subsequent discrimination. The condition causing the employee's apprehension of death or injury must be of such a nature that a reasonable person, under the circumstances then confronting the employee, would conclude that there is a real danger of death or serious injury and that there is insufficient time, due to the urgency of the situation, to eliminate the danger through resort to regular statutory enforcement channels. In addition, in such circumstances, the employee, where possible, must also have sought from his employer, and been unable to obtain, a correction of the dangerous condition. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 2681, Jan. 29, 1973, as amended at 38 FR 4577, Feb. 16, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="28" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.28" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.15" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.28.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.15   Filing of complaint for discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> A complaint of section 11(c) discrimination may be filed by the employee himself, or by a representative authorized to do so on his behalf. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> Complaint should be filed with the Area Director (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> (1) Section 11(c)(2) provides that an employee who believes that he has been discriminated against in violation of section 11(c)(1) “may, within 30 days after such violation occurs,” file a complaint with the Secretary of Labor. 
</P>
<P>(2) A major purpose of the 30-day period in this provision is to allow the Secretary to decline to entertain complaints which have become stale. Accordingly, complaints not filed within 30 days of an alleged violation will ordinarily be presumed to be untimely. 
</P>
<P>(3) However, there may be circumstances which would justify tolling of the 30-day period on recognized equitable principles or because of strongly extenuating circumstances, e.g., where the employer has concealed, or misled the employee regarding the grounds for discharge or other adverse action; or where the discrimination is in the nature of a continuing violation. The pendency of grievance-arbitration proceedings or filing with another agency, among others, are circumstances which do not justify tolling the 30-day period. In the absence of circumstances justifying a tolling of the 30-day period, untimely complaints will not be processed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 2681, Jan. 29, 1973, as amended at 50 FR 32846, Aug. 15, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.16" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.28.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.16   Notification of Secretary of Labor's determination.</HEAD>
<P>Section 11(c)(3) provides that the Secretary is to notify a complainant within 90 days of the complaint of his determination whether prohibited discrimination has occurred. This 90-day provision is considered directory in nature. While every effort will be made to notify complainants of the Secretary's determination within 90 days, there may be instances when it is not possible to meet the directory period set forth in section 11(c)(3). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.17" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.28.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.17   Withdrawal of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>Enforcement of the provisions of section 11(c) is not only a matter of protecting rights of individual employees, but also of public interest. Attempts by an employee to withdraw a previously filed complaint will not necessarily result in termination of the Secretary's investigation. The Secretary's jurisdiction cannot be foreclosed as a matter of law by unilateral action of the employee. However, a voluntary and uncoerced request from a complainant to withdraw his complaint will be given careful consideration and substantial weight as a matter of policy and sound enforcement procedure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.18" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.28.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.18   Arbitration or other agency proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An employee who files a complaint under section 11(c) of the Act may also pursue remedies under grievance arbitration proceedings in collective bargaining agreements. In addition, the complainant may concurrently resort to other agencies for relief, such as the National Labor Relations Board. The Secretary's jurisdiction to entertain section 11(c) complaints, to investigate, and to determine whether discrimination has occurred, is independent of the jurisdiction of other agencies or bodies. The Secretary may file action in U.S. district court regardless of the pendency of other proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(2) However, the Secretary also recognizes the national policy favoring voluntary resolution of disputes under procedures in collective bargaining agreements. See, e.g., <I>Boy's Markets, Inc.</I> v. <I>Retail Clerks,</I> 398 U.S. 235 (1970); <I>Republic Steel Corp.</I> v. <I>Maddox,</I> 379 U.S. 650 (1965); <I>Carey</I> v. <I>Westinghouse Electric Co.,</I> 375 U.S. 261 (1964); Collier Insulated Wire, 192 NLRB No. 150 (1971). By the same token, due deference should be paid to the jurisdiction of other forums established to resolve disputes which may also be related to section 11(c) complaints. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where a complainant is in fact pursuing remedies other than those provided by section 11(c), postponement of the Secretary's determination and deferral to the results of such proceedings may be in order. See, <I>Burlington Truck Lines, Inc.,</I> v. <I>U.S.,</I> 371 U.S. 156 (1962). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Postponement of determination.</I> Postponement of determination would be justified where the rights asserted in other proceedings are substantially the same as rights under section 11(c) and those proceedings are not likely to violate the rights guaranteed by section 11(c). The factual issues in such proceedings must be substantially the same as those raised by section 11(c) complaint, and the forum hearing the matter must have the power to determine the ultimate issue of discrimination. See <I>Rios</I> v. <I>Reynolds Metals Co.,</I> F.2d (5th Cir., 1972), 41 U.S.L.W. 1049 (Oct. 10, 1972); <I>Newman</I> v. <I>Avco Corp.,</I> 451 F.2d 743 (6th Cir., 1971). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deferral to outcome of other proceedings.</I> A determination to defer to the outcome of other proceedings initiated by a complainant must necessarily be made on a case-to-case basis, after careful scrutiny of all available information. Before deferring to the results of other proceedings, it must be clear that those proceedings dealt adequately with all factual issues, that the proceedings were fair, regular, and free of procedural infirmities, and that the outcome of the proceedings was not repugnant to the purpose and policy of the Act. In this regard, if such other actions initiated by a complainant are dismissed without adjudicatory hearing thereof, such dismissal will not ordinarily be regarded as determinative of the section 11(c) complaint. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="29" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.29" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Some Specific Subjects</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.22" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.29.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.22   Employee refusal to comply with safety rules.</HEAD>
<P>Employees who refuse to comply with occupational safety and health standards or valid safety rules implemented by the employer in furtherance of the Act are not exercising any rights afforded by the Act. Disciplinary measures taken by employers solely in response to employee refusal to comply with appropriate safety rules and regulations, will not ordinarily be regarded as discriminatory action prohibited by section 11(c). This situation should be distinguished from refusals to work, as discussed in § 1977.12. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1977.23" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.12.0.29.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1977.23   State plans.</HEAD>
<P>A State which is implementing its own occupational safety and health enforcement program pursuant to section 18 of the Act and parts 1902 and 1952 of this chapter must have provisions as effective as those of section 11(c) to protect employees from discharge or discrimination. Such provisions do not divest either the Secretary of Labor or Federal district courts of jurisdiction over employee complaints of discrimination. However, the Secretary of Labor may refer complaints of employees adequately protected by State Plans' provisions to the appropriate state agency. The basic principles outlined in § 1977.18, supra will be observed as to deferrals to findings of state agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1978" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1978—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE EMPLOYEE PROTECTION PROVISION OF THE SURFACE TRANSPORTATION ASSISTANCE ACT OF 1982 (STAA), AS AMENDED
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>49 U.S.C. 31101 and 31105; Secretary's Order 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 44134, July 27, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth, the procedures for, and interpretations of, the employee protection (whistleblower) provision of the Surface Transportation Assistance Act of 1982 (STAA), 49 U.S.C. 31105, as amended, which protects employees from retaliation because the employee has engaged in, or is perceived to have engaged in, protected activity pertaining to commercial motor vehicle safety, health, or security matters.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under STAA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those rules codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. This part also sets forth interpretations of STAA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Surface Transportation Assistance Act of 1982 (STAA), as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commercial motor carrier</I> means any person engaged in a business affecting commerce between States or between a State and a place outside thereof who owns or leases a commercial motor vehicle in connection with that business, or assigns employees to operate such a vehicle.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial motor vehicle</I> means a vehicle as defined by 49 U.S.C. 31101(1).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Complainant</I> means the employee who filed a STAA complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Complaint,</I> for purposes of § 1978.102(b)(1) and (e)(1), includes both written and oral complaints to employers, government agencies, and others.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Employee</I> means a driver of a commercial motor vehicle (including an independent contractor when personally operating a commercial motor vehicle), a mechanic, a freight handler, or an individual not an employer, who:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly affects commercial motor vehicle safety or security in the course of employment by a commercial motor carrier; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not an employee of the United States Government, a State, or a political subdivision of a State acting in the course of employment.
</P>
<P>(3) The term includes an individual formerly performing the work described above or an applicant for such work.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employer</I> means a person engaged in a business affecting commerce that owns or leases a commercial motor vehicle in connection with that business, or assigns an employee to operate the vehicle in commerce, but does not include the Government, a State, or a political subdivision of a State.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> means one or more individuals, partnerships, associations, corporations, business trusts, legal representatives, or any other organized group of individuals.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Respondent</I> means the person alleged to have violated 49 U.S.C. 31105.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or persons to whom authority under the Act has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P>(o) Any future statutory amendments that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person may discharge or otherwise retaliate against any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section. In addition, no person may discharge or otherwise retaliate against any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because a person acting pursuant to the employee's request engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(b) It is a violation for any person to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, discipline, harass, suspend, demote, or in any other manner retaliate against any employee because the employee or a person acting pursuant to the employee's request has:
</P>
<P>(1) Filed orally or in writing a complaint with an employer, government agency, or others or begun a proceeding related to a violation of a commercial motor vehicle safety or security regulation, standard, or order; or
</P>
<P>(2) Testified or will testify at any proceeding related to a violation of a commercial motor vehicle safety or security regulation, standard, or order.
</P>
<P>(c) It is a violation for any person to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, discipline, harass, suspend, demote, or in any other manner retaliate against any employee because the employee:
</P>
<P>(1) Refuses to operate a vehicle because:
</P>
<P>(i) The operation violates a regulation, standard, or order of the United States related to commercial motor vehicle safety, health, or security; or
</P>
<P>(ii) He or she has a reasonable apprehension of serious injury to himself or herself or the public because of the vehicle's hazardous safety or security condition;
</P>
<P>(2) Accurately reports hours on duty pursuant to Chapter 315 of Title 49 of the United States Code; or
</P>
<P>(3) Cooperates with a safety or security investigation by the Secretary of Transportation, the Secretary of Homeland Security, or the National Transportation Safety Board; or
</P>
<P>(4) Furnishes information to the Secretary of Transportation, the Secretary of Homeland Security, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any Federal, State, or local regulatory or law enforcement agency as to the facts relating to any accident or incident resulting in injury or death to an individual or damage to property occurring in connection with commercial motor vehicle transportation.
</P>
<P>(d) No person may discharge or otherwise retaliate against any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the person perceives that the employee has engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) It is a violation for any person to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge, discipline, harass, suspend, demote, or in any other manner retaliate against any employee because the employer perceives that:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee has filed orally or in writing or is about to file orally or in writing a complaint with an employer, government agency, or others or has begun or is about to begin a proceeding related to a violation of a commercial motor vehicle safety or security regulation, standard or order;
</P>
<P>(2) The employee is about to cooperate with a safety or security investigation by the Secretary of Transportation, the Secretary of Homeland Security, or the National Transportation Safety Board; or
</P>
<P>(3) The employee has furnished or is about to furnish information to the Secretary of Transportation, the Secretary of Homeland Security, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any Federal, State, or local regulatory or law enforcement agency as to the facts relating to any accident or incident resulting in injury or death to an individual or damage to property occurring in connection with commercial motor vehicle transportation.
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of this section, an employee's apprehension of serious injury is reasonable only if a reasonable individual in the circumstances then confronting the employee would conclude that the hazardous safety or security condition establishes a real danger of accident, injury or serious impairment to health. To qualify for protection, the employee must have sought from the employer, and been unable to obtain, correction of the hazardous safety or security condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.103   Filing of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> An employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against by an employer in violation of STAA may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file a complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any other language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of STAA occurs, any employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of STAA may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relationship to section 11(c) complaints.</I> A complaint filed under STAA alleging facts that would also constitute a violation of section 11(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, 29 U.S.C. 660(c), will be deemed to be a complaint under both STAA and section 11(c). Similarly, a complaint filed under section 11(c) that alleges facts that would also constitute a violation of STAA will be deemed to be a complaint filed under both STAA and section 11(c). Normal procedures and timeliness requirements under the respective statutes and regulations will be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, the Assistant Secretary will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint by providing the respondent with a copy of the complaint, redacted in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a and other applicable confidentiality laws. The Assistant Secretary will also notify the respondent of the respondent's rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section. The Assistant Secretary will provide a copy of the unredacted complaint to the complainant (or complainant's legal counsel, if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to the Assistant Secretary a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with the Assistant Secretary to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) Throughout the investigation, the agency will provide to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel, if complainant is represented by counsel) a copy of all of respondent's submissions to the agency that are responsive to the complainant's whistleblower complaint. Before providing such materials to the complainant, the agency will redact them, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The agency will also provide the complainant with an opportunity to respond to such submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity, either actual activity or activity about to be undertaken;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected, actually or constructively, that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel, if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, an investigation of the complaint will not be conducted or will be discontinued if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, the Assistant Secretary will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1978.105, if the Assistant Secretary has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated the Act and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, the Assistant Secretary will again contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel, if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials to the complainant, the agency will redact them, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigators, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of the Assistant Secretary's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon thereafter as the Assistant Secretary and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of STAA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief. Such order will require, where appropriate: affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, with the same compensation, terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages (backpay with interest and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including any litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees which the complainant has incurred). Interest on backpay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The preliminary order may also require the respondent to pay punitive damages up to $250,000.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or the order and to request a hearing. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and the preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and request for a hearing have been timely filed as provided at § 1978.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 44134, July 27, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 1788, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and request for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, must file any objections and a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1978.105(c). The objections and request for a hearing must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings and/or the preliminary order. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record and the OSHA official who issued the findings.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 44134, July 27, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 1788, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. Administrative law judges have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 44134, July 27, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 1788, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding. In any case in which the respondent objects to the findings or the preliminary order the Assistant Secretary ordinarily will be the prosecuting party. In any other cases, at the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or participate as amicus curiae at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary assumes the role of prosecuting party in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, he or she may, upon written notice to the ALJ or the Administrative Review Board, as the case may be, and the other parties, withdraw as the prosecuting party in the exercise of prosecutorial discretion. If the Assistant Secretary withdraws, the complainant will become the prosecuting party and the ALJ or the Administrative Review Board, as the case may be, will issue appropriate orders to regulate the course of future proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of documents in all cases shall be sent to the parties or, if they are represented by counsel, to the latter. In cases in which the Assistant Secretary is a party, copies of documents shall be sent to the Regional Solicitor's Office representing the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at its discretion. At the request of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to that agency, whether or not that agency is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.109   Decisions and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant or the Assistant Secretary has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither the Assistant Secretary's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1978.104(e) nor the Assistant Secretary's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order that will require, where appropriate: affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position with the same compensation, terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; payment of compensatory damages (backpay with interest and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including any litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees which the complainant may have incurred); and payment of punitive damages up to $250,000. Interest on backpay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. For ALJ decisions issued on or after the effective date of the interim final rule, August 31, 2010, all other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board (ARB), U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ decision issued on or after the effective date of the interim final rule, August 31, 2010, will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the decision for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.110   Decisions and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary or any other party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ must file a written petition for review with the ARB. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review and all briefs must be served on the Assistant Secretary and, in cases in which the Assistant Secretary is a party, on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the date of the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision also will be served on the Assistant Secretary, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, U.S, Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing relief to the complainant. The order, which will be subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order), will require, where appropriate, affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position with the same compensation, terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; payment of compensatory damages (back pay with interest and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including any litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees the complainant may have incurred); and payment of punitive damages up to $250,000. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily.
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. Such order will be subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(f) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section apply to all cases in which the decision of the ALJ was issued on or after August 31, 2010.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 44134, July 27, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 30620, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1788, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.111   Withdrawal of STAA complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying the Assistant Secretary, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary will notify the parties (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1978.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If a case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a STAA complaint and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if the Assistant Secretary, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. The Assistant Secretary's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates the Assistant Secretary's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ or by the ARB, if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 31105(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the person resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 44134, July 27, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 30620, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement issued under STAA, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints under STAA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If there is no final order of the Secretary, 210 days have passed since the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy. The action shall, at the request of either party to such action, be tried by the court with a jury.
</P>
<P>(b) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1978.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.13.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1978.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of these rules, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders as justice or the administration of STAA requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1979" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1979—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF DISCRIMINATION COMPLAINTS UNDER SECTION 519 OF THE WENDELL H. FORD AVIATION INVESTMENT AND REFORM ACT FOR THE 21ST CENTURY 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>49 U.S.C. 42121; Secretary's Order 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 14107, Mar. 21, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements procedures under section 519 of the Wendell H. Ford Aviation Investment and Reform Act for the 21st Century, 49 U.S.C. 42121 (“AIR21”), which provides for employee protection from discrimination by air carriers or contractors or subcontractors of air carriers because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to a violation or alleged violation of any order, regulation, or standard of the Federal Aviation Administration or any other provision of Federal law relating to air carrier safety. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures pursuant to AIR21 for the expeditious handling of discrimination complaints made by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those rules codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures for submission of complaints under AIR21, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges, post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Act</I> or <I>AIR21</I> means section 519 of the Wendell H. Ford Aviation Investment and Reform Act for the 21st Century, Public Law 106-181, April 5, 2000, 49 U.S.C. 42121. 
</P>
<P><I>Air carrier</I> means a citizen of the United States undertaking by any means, directly or indirectly, to provide air transportation. 
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Complainant</I> means the employee who filed a complaint under the Act or on whose behalf a complaint was filed. 
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means a company that performs safety-sensitive functions by contract for an air carrier. 
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an individual presently or formerly working for an air carrier or contractor or subcontractor of an air carrier, an individual applying to work for an air carrier or contractor or subcontractor of an air carrier, or an individual whose employment could be affected by an air carrier or contractor or subcontractor of an air carrier. 
</P>
<P><I>Named person</I> means the person alleged to have violated the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means one or more individuals, partnerships, associations, corporations, business trusts, legal representatives, or any group of persons. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or persons to whom authority under the Act has been delegated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No air carrier or contractor or subcontractor of an air carrier may discharge any employee or otherwise discriminate against any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee, or any person acting pursuant to the employee's request, engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is a violation of the Act for any air carrier or contractor or subcontractor of an air carrier to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge or in any other manner discriminate against any employee because the employee has: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provided, caused to be provided, or is about to provide (with any knowledge of the employer) or cause to be provided to the air carrier or contractor or subcontractor of an air carrier or the Federal Government, information relating to any violation or alleged violation of any order, regulation, or standard of the Federal Aviation Administration or any other provision of Federal law relating to air carrier safety under subtitle VII of title 49 of the United States Code or under any other law of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) Filed, caused to be filed, or is about to file (with any knowledge of the employer) or cause to be filed a proceeding relating to any violation or alleged violation of any order, regulation, or standard of the Federal Aviation Administration or any other provision of Federal law relating to air carrier safety under subtitle VII of title 49 of the United States Code, or under any other law of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(3) Testified or is about to testify in such a proceeding; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Assisted or participated or is about to assist or participate in such a proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part shall have no application to any employee of an air carrier, contractor, or subcontractor who, acting without direction from an air carrier, contractor, or subcontractor (or such person's agent) deliberately causes a violation of any requirement relating to air carrier safety under Subtitle VII Aviation Programs of Title 49 of the United States Code or any other law of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.103   Filing of discrimination complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> An employee who believes that he or she has been discriminated against by an air carrier or contractor or subcontractor of an air carrier in violation of the Act may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required, except that a complaint must be in writing and should include a full statement of the acts and omissions, with pertinent dates, which are believed to constitute the violations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA Area Director responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 90 days after an alleged violation of the Act occurs (<I>i.e.,</I> when the discriminatory decision has been both made and communicated to the complainant), an employee who believes that he or she has been discriminated against in violation of the Act may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such discrimination. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or e-mail communication will be considered to be the date of filing; if the complaint is filed in person, by hand-delivery, or other means, the complaint is filed upon receipt. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relationship to section 11(c) complaints.</I> A complaint filed under AIR21 that alleges facts which would constitute a violation of section 11(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, 29 U.S.C. 660(c), shall be deemed to be a complaint filed under both AIR21 and section 11(c). Similarly, a complaint filed under section 11(c) that alleges facts that would constitute a violation of AIR21 shall be deemed to be a complaint filed under both AIR21 and section 11(c). Normal procedures and timeliness requirements for investigations under the respective laws and regulations will be followed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, the Assistant Secretary will notify the named person of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint (redacted to protect the identity of any confidential informants). The Assistant Secretary will also notify the named person of his or her rights under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and paragraph (e) of § 1979.110. A copy of the notice to the named person will also be provided to the Federal Aviation Administration. 
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint of alleged violation will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected behavior or conduct was a contributing factor in the unfavorable personnel action alleged in the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(1) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity or conduct; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The named person knew or suspected, actually or constructively, that the employee engaged in the protected activity; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an unfavorable personnel action; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the unfavorable action. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the named person knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the unfavorable personnel action. Normally the burden is satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse personnel action took place shortly after the protected activity, giving rise to the inference that it was a factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant will be so advised and the investigation will not commence. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, an investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the named person, pursuant to the procedures provided in this paragraph, demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same unfavorable personnel action in the absence of the complainant's protected behavior or conduct. Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint, the named person may submit to the Assistant Secretary a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating his or her position. Within the same 20 days the named person may request a meeting with the Assistant Secretary to present his or her position. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the named person fails to demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same unfavorable personnel action in the absence of the behavior protected by the Act, the Assistant Secretary will conduct an investigation. Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with 29 CFR part 70. 
</P>
<P>(e) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1979.105, if the Assistant Secretary has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the named person has violated the Act and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, the Assistant Secretary will again contact the named person to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The named person shall be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigators to present statements from witnesses in support of his or her position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The named person shall present this evidence within ten business days of the Assistant Secretary's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon afterwards as the Assistant Secretary and the named person can agree, if the interests of justice so require. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the named person has discriminated against the complainant in violation of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, he or she will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will include, where appropriate, a requirement that the named person abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages. Where the named person establishes that the complainant is a security risk (whether or not the information is obtained after the complainant's discharge), a preliminary order of reinstatement would not be appropriate. At the complainant's request the order shall also assess against the named person the complainant's costs and expenses (including attorney's and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred in connection with the filing of the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding. 
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record. The letter accompanying the findings and order will inform the parties of their right to file objections and to request a hearing, and of the right of the named person to request attorney's fees from the administrative law judge, regardless of whether the named person has filed objections, if the named person alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The letter also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and the preliminary order shall be effective 30 days after receipt by the named person pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, unless an objection and a request for a hearing has been filed as provided at § 1979.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement shall be effective immediately upon receipt of the findings and preliminary order. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 14107, Mar. 21, 2003, as amended at 86 FR 1788, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and request for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and preliminary order, or a named person alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney's fees, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1979.105(b). The objection or request for attorney's fees and request for a hearing must be in writing and state whether the objection is to the findings, the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney's fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order shall be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement shall be effective immediately upon the named person's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. 
</P>
<P>(2) If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings or preliminary order, as the case may be, shall become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 14107, Mar. 21, 2003, as amended at 86 FR 1788, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A, of 29 CFR part 18. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to a judge who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted as hearings de novo, on the record. Administrative law judges shall have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the named person object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted. 
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence shall not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence shall be applied. The administrative law judge may exclude evidence which is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 14107, Mar. 21, 2003, as amended at 86 FR 1788, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the named person shall be parties in every proceeding. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceedings. This right to participate shall include, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an administrative law judge, including a decision based on a settlement agreement between complainant and the named person, to dismiss a complaint or to issue an order encompassing the terms of the settlement. 
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of pleadings in all cases, whether or not the Assistant Secretary is participating in the proceeding, must be sent to the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. 
</P>
<P>(b) The FAA may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceedings, at the FAA's discretion. At the request of the FAA, copies of all pleadings in a case must be sent to the FAA, whether or not the FAA is participating in the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the administrative law judge will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (b) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may only be made if the complainant has demonstrated that protected behavior or conduct was a contributing factor in the unfavorable personnel action alleged in the complaint. Relief may not be ordered if the named person demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same unfavorable personnel action in the absence of any protected behavior. Neither the Assistant Secretary's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1979.104(b) nor the Assistant Secretary's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the administrative law judge, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the administrative law judge shall hear the case on the merits. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the administrative law judge concludes that the party charged has violated the law, the order shall direct the party charged to take appropriate affirmative action to abate the violation, including, where appropriate, reinstatement of the complainant to that person's former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions, and privileges of that employment, and compensatory damages. At the request of the complainant, the administrative law judge shall assess against the named person all costs and expenses (including attorney's and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. If, upon the request of the named person, the administrative law judge determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the judge may award to the named person a reasonable attorney's fee, not exceeding $1,000. 
</P>
<P>(c) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding. Any administrative law judge's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary shall be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the named person, and may not be stayed. All other portions of the judge's order shall be effective ten business days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the administrative law judge, or a named person alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney's fees, must file a written petition for review with the Administrative Review Board (“the Board”). The decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall become the final order of the Secretary unless, pursuant to this section, a petition for review is timely filed with the Board. The petition for review must specifically identify the findings, conclusions, or orders to which exception is taken. Any exception not specifically urged ordinarily shall be deemed to have been waived by the parties. To be effective, a petition must be filed within ten business days of the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the Board. Copies of the petition for review and all briefs must be served on the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the administrative law judge shall become the final order of the Secretary unless the Board, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the administrative law judge shall be inoperative unless and until the Board issues an order adopting the decision, except that a preliminary order of reinstatement shall be effective while review is conducted by the Board. The Board will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The Board will review the factual determinations of the administrative law judge under the substantial evidence standard. 
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Board shall be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which shall be deemed to be the conclusion of all proceedings before the Administrative Law Judge—<I>i.e.,</I> 10 business days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the Administrative Law Judge in the interim. The decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the party charged has violated the law, the ARB shall order the party charged to take appropriate affirmative action to abate the violation, including, where appropriate, reinstatement of the complainant to that person's former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions, and privileges of that employment, and compensatory damages. At the request of the complainant, the Board shall assess against the named person all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. The ARB's order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the party charged has not violated the law, the ARB shall issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the named person, the Board determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the Board may award to the named person reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 14107, Mar. 21, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 30620, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1789, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.111   Withdrawal of complaints, objections, and findings; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the findings or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint under the Act by filing a written withdrawal with the Assistant Secretary. The Assistant Secretary will then determine whether the withdrawal will be approved. The Assistant Secretary will notify the named person of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement shall be approved in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw his or her findings or a preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1979.106, provided that no objection has yet been filed, and substitute new findings or preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period. 
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the findings or order become final, a party may withdraw his or her objections to the findings or order by filing a written withdrawal with the administrative law judge or, if the case is on review, with the Board. The judge or the Board, as the case may be, will determine whether the withdrawal will be approved. If the objections are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement shall be approved in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if the Assistant Secretary, the complainant and the named person agree to a settlement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the administrative law judge if the case is before the judge, or by the Board if a timely petition for review has been filed with the Board. A copy of the settlement shall be filed with the administrative law judge or the Board, as the case may be. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by the Assistant Secretary, the administrative law judge, or the Board, shall constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced pursuant to § 1979.113. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation. A final order of the Secretary is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the administrative law judge, will be transmitted by the Board to the appropriate court pursuant to the rules of the court. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 14107, Mar. 21, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 30621, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order or the terms of a settlement agreement, the Secretary or a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1979.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.14.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1979.114   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of this part, or for good cause shown, the administrative law judge or the Board on review may, upon application, after three days notice to all parties and interveners, waive any rule or issue any orders that justice or the administration of the Act requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1980" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1980—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER SECTION 806 OF THE SARBANES-OXLEY ACT OF 2002, AS AMENDED


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>18 U.S.C. 1514A, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-203 (July 21, 2010); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 01-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 11880, Mar. 5, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements procedures under section 806 of the Corporate and Criminal Fraud Accountability Act of 2002, Title VIII of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (Sarbanes-Oxley or Act), enacted into law July 30, 2002, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, enacted into law July 21, 2010. Sarbanes-Oxley provides for employee protection from retaliation by companies, their subsidiaries and affiliates, officers, employees, contractors, subcontractors, and agents because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to a violation or alleged violation of 18 U.S.C. 1341, 1343, 1344, or 1348, or any rule or regulation of the Securities and Exchange Commission, or any provision of Federal law relating to fraud against shareholders. Sarbanes-Oxley also provides for employee protection from retaliation by nationally recognized statistical rating organizations, their officers, employees, contractors, subcontractors or agents because the employee has engaged in protected activity.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures pursuant to Sarbanes-Oxley for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints made by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf and sets forth the Secretary's interpretations of the Act on certain statutory issues. These rules, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures for submission of complaints under Sarbanes-Oxley, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges, post-hearing administrative review, withdrawals, and settlements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means section 806 of the Corporate and Criminal Fraud Accountability Act of 2002, Title VIII of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Pub. L. 107-204, July 30, 2002, codified at 18 U.S.C. 1514A, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-203, July 21, 2010.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means any company with a class of securities registered under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>) or any company required to file reports under section 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>(d)) including any subsidiary or affiliate whose financial information is included in the consolidated financial statements of such company.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Complainant</I> means the employee who filed a complaint under the Act or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Covered person</I> means any company, including any subsidiary or affiliate whose financial information is included in the consolidated financial statements of such company, or any nationally recognized statistical rating organization, or any officer, employee, contractor, subcontractor, or agent of such company or nationally recognized statistical rating organization.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Employee</I> means an individual presently or formerly working for a covered person, an individual applying to work for a covered person, or an individual whose employment could be affected by a covered person.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Nationally recognized statistical rating organization</I> means a credit rating agency under 15 U.S.C. 78c(61) that:
</P>
<P>(1) Issues credit ratings certified by qualified institutional buyers, in accordance with 15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-7(a)(1)(B)(ix), with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial institutions, brokers, or dealers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Insurance companies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Corporate issuers;
</P>
<P>(iv) Issuers of asset-backed securities (as that term is defined in section 1101(c) of part 229 of title 17, Code of Federal Regulations, as in effect on September 29, 2006);
</P>
<P>(v) Issuers of government securities, municipal securities, or securities issued by a foreign government; or
</P>
<P>(vi) A combination of one or more categories of obligors described in any of paragraphs (h)(1)(i) through (v) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is registered under 15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-7.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Person</I> means one or more individuals, partnerships, associations, companies, corporations, business trusts, legal representatives or any group of persons.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Respondent</I> means the person named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated the Act.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or persons to whom authority under the Act has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(m) Any future statutory amendments that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No covered person may discharge, demote, suspend, threaten, harass or in any other manner retaliate against, including, but not limited to, intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting or disciplining, any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee, or any person acting pursuant to the employee's request, has engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee is protected against retaliation (as described in paragraph (a) of this section) by a covered person for any lawful act done by the employee:
</P>
<P>(1) To provide information, cause information to be provided, or otherwise assist in an investigation regarding any conduct which the employee reasonably believes constitutes a violation of 18 U.S.C. 1341, 1343, 1344, or 1348, any rule or regulation of the Securities and Exchange Commission, or any provision of Federal law relating to fraud against shareholders, when the information or assistance is provided to or the investigation is conducted by—
</P>
<P>(i) A Federal regulatory or law enforcement agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any Member of Congress or any committee of Congress; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A person with supervisory authority over the employee (or such other person working for the employer who has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate misconduct); or
</P>
<P>(2) To file, cause to be filed, testify, participate in, or otherwise assist in a proceeding filed or about to be filed (with any knowledge of the employer) relating to an alleged violation of 18 U.S.C. 1341, 1343, 1344, or 1348, any rule or regulation of the Securities and Exchange Commission, or any provision of Federal law relating to fraud against shareholders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.103   Filing of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> An employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against by a covered person in violation of the Act may file, or have filed on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of the Act occurs or after the date on which the employee became aware of the alleged violation of the Act, any employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of the Act may file, or have filed on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint equitably tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with the another agency instead of OSHA within 180 days after becoming aware of the alleged violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, <I>et seq.,</I> and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1980.110(e). OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or complainant's legal counsel, if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that a protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse personnel action took place within a temporal proximity after the protected activity, or at the first opportunity available to respondent, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel, if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1980.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated the Act and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel, if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials to the complainant, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigator, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent will present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon afterwards as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary shall issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of the Act.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will include all relief necessary to make the employee whole, including reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had but for the retaliation; back pay with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings, and where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings, and where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the administrative law judge (ALJ) regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings, and where appropriate, the preliminary order, also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1980.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 11880, Mar. 5, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 1789, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and request for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under the Act, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1980.105(b). The objections and/or request for a hearing must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings and/or the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 11880, Mar. 5, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 1789, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo, on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 11880, Mar. 5, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 1789, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) The Securities and Exchange Commission, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at the Commission's discretion. At the request of the Securities and Exchange Commission, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the Commission, whether or not the Commission is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1980.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the order will provide all relief necessary to make the employee whole, including, reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had but for the retaliation; back pay with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the judge may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board (ARB). The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB, and the ARB accepts the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review must be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay the order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB shall be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the date of the decision of the ALJ unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing all relief necessary to make the complainant whole, including reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had but for the retaliation; back pay with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 11880, Mar. 5, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 30621, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1789, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1980.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings and/or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1980.113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 11880, Mar. 5, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 30622, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under the Act, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under the Act, a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.114   District court jurisdiction over retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Secretary has not issued a final decision within 180 days of the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy. A party to an action brought under this paragraph shall be entitled to trial by jury.
</P>
<P>(b) A proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section shall be governed by the same legal burdens of proof specified in § 1980.109. An employee prevailing in any action under paragraph (a) of this section shall be entitled to all relief necessary to make the employee whole, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had, but for the retaliation;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of back pay, with interest;
</P>
<P>(3) Compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees.
</P>
<P>(c) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1980.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.15.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1980.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of this part, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue any orders that justice or the administration of the Act requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1981" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1981—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF DISCRIMINATION COMPLAINTS UNDER SECTION 6 OF THE PIPELINE SAFETY IMPROVEMENT ACT OF 2002
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>49 U.S.C. 60129; Secretary's Order 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 17591, Apr. 5, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements procedures under section 6 of the Pipeline Safety Improvement Act of 2002, 49 U.S.C. 60129 (“the Pipeline Safety Act”), which provides for employee protection from discrimination by a person owning or operating a pipeline facility or a contractor or subcontractor of such person because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to a violation or alleged violation of any order, regulation, or standard under chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other provision of Federal law relating to pipeline safety. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures pursuant to the Pipeline Safety Act for the expeditious handling of discrimination complaints made by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those rules codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures for submission of complaints under the Pipeline Safety Act, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges, post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>“Act” or “Pipeline Safety Act” means section 6 of the Pipeline Safety Improvement Act of 2002, Public Law No. 107-355, December 17, 2002, 49 U.S.C. 60129. 
</P>
<P>“Assistant Secretary” means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under the Act. 
</P>
<P>“Complainant” means the employee who filed a complaint under the Act or on whose behalf a complaint was filed. 
</P>
<P>“Employee” means an individual presently or formerly working for a person owning or operating a pipeline facility or a contractor or subcontractor of such a person, an individual applying to work for a person owning or operating a pipeline facility or a contractor or subcontractor of such a person, or an individual whose employment could be affected by a person owning or operating a pipeline facility or a contractor or subcontractor of such a person. 
</P>
<P>“Employer” means a person owning or operating a pipeline facility or a contractor or subcontractor of such a person. 
</P>
<P>“Gas pipeline facility” includes a pipeline, a right of way, a facility, a building, or equipment used in transporting gas or treating gas during its transportation. 
</P>
<P>“Hazardous liquid pipeline facility” includes a pipeline, a right of way, a facility, a building, or equipment used or intended to be used in transporting hazardous liquid. 
</P>
<P>“Named person” means the person alleged to have violated the Act. 
</P>
<P>“OSHA” means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P>“Person” means a corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, joint stock company, an individual, a State, a municipality, and a trustee, receiver, assignee, or personal representative of a person. 
</P>
<P>“Pipeline facility” means a gas pipeline facility and a hazardous liquid pipeline facility. 
</P>
<P>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Labor or persons to whom authority under the Act has been delegated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employer may discharge any employee or otherwise discriminate against any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee, or any person acting pursuant to the employee's request, engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is a violation of the Act for any employer to intimidate, threaten, restrain, coerce, blacklist, discharge or in any other manner discriminate against any employee because the employee has: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provided, caused to be provided, or is about to provide or cause to be provided to the employer or the Federal Government, information relating to any violation or alleged violation of any order, regulation, or standard under chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law relating to pipeline safety; 
</P>
<P>(2) Refused to engage in any practice made unlawful by chapter 601, in subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law relating to pipeline safety, if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer; 
</P>
<P>(3) Provided, caused to be provided, or is about to provide or cause to be provided, testimony before Congress or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law relating to pipeline safety, or testimony in any proceeding under chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law relating to pipeline safety, or a proceeding for the administration or enforcement of any requirement imposed under chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law relating to pipeline safety;
</P>
<P>(4) Commenced, caused to be commenced, or is about to commence or cause to be commenced a proceeding under chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law relating to pipeline safety, or a proceeding for the administration or enforcement of any requirement imposed under chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law relating to pipeline safety; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Assisted or participated or is about to assist or participate in any manner in such a proceeding or in any other action to carry out the purposes of chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law relating to pipeline safety. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part shall have no application to any employee of an employer who, acting without direction from the employer (or such employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement relating to pipeline safety under chapter 601, subtitle VIII of title 49 of the United States Code or any other Federal law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.103   Filing of discrimination complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Who may file. An employee who believes that he or she has been discriminated against by an employer in violation of the Act may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nature of filing. No particular form of complaint is required, except that a complaint must be in writing and should include a full statement of the acts and omissions, with pertinent dates, which are believed to constitute the violations. 
</P>
<P>(c) Place of filing. The complaint should be filed with the OSHA Area Director responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) Time for filing. Within 180 days after an alleged violation of the Act occurs (<I>i.e.,</I> when the discriminatory decision has been both made and communicated to the complainant), an employee who believes that he or she has been discriminated against in violation of the Act may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such discrimination. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or e-mail communication will be considered to be the date of filing; if the complaint is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the complaint is filed upon receipt. 
</P>
<P>(e) Relationship to section 11(c) complaints. A complaint filed under the Pipeline Safety Act that alleges facts which would constitute a violation of section 11(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, 29 U.S.C. 660(c), will be deemed to be a complaint filed under both the Pipeline Safety Act and section 11(c). Similarly, a complaint filed under section 11(c) that alleges facts that would constitute a violation of the Pipeline Safety Act will be deemed to be a complaint filed under both the Pipeline Safety Act and section 11(c). Normal procedures and timeliness requirements for investigations under the respective laws and regulations will be followed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, the Assistant Secretary will notify the named person of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint (redacted to protect the identity of any confidential informants). The Assistant Secretary will also notify the named person of his or her rights under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and paragraph (e) of § 1981.110. A copy of the notice to the named person will also be provided to the Department of Transportation. 
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint of alleged violation shall be dismissed unless the complainant has made a <I>prima facie</I> showing that protected behavior or conduct was a contributing factor in the unfavorable personnel action alleged in the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(1) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a <I>prima facie</I> showing as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity or conduct; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The named person knew or suspected, actually or constructively, that the employee engaged in the protected activity; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an unfavorable personnel action; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the unfavorable action. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the named person knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the unfavorable personnel action. Normally the burden is satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse personnel action took place shortly after the protected activity, giving rise to the inference that it was a factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant will be so advised and the investigation will not commence. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a <I>prima facie</I> showing, as required by this section, an investigation of the complaint shall not be conducted if the named person, pursuant to the procedures provided in this paragraph, demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same unfavorable personnel action in the absence of the complainant's protected behavior or conduct. Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint, the named person may submit to the Assistant Secretary a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating his or her position. Within the same 20 days, the named person may request a meeting with the Assistant Secretary to present his or her position. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the named person fails to demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same unfavorable personnel action in the absence of the behavior protected by the Act, the Assistant Secretary will conduct an investigation. Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations. 
</P>
<P>(e) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1981.105, if the Assistant Secretary has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the named person has violated the Act and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, the Assistant Secretary will again contact the named person to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The named person will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigators to present statements from witnesses in support of his or her position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The named person will present this evidence within 10 business days of the Assistant Secretary's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon afterwards as the Assistant Secretary and the named person can agree, if the interests of justice so require. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary shall issue, within 60 days of filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the named person has discriminated against the complainant in violation of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, he or she shall accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order shall include, where appropriate, a requirement that the named person abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages. Where the named person establishes that the complainant is a security risk (whether or not the information is obtained after the complainant's discharge), a preliminary order of reinstatement would not be appropriate. At the complainant's request the order shall also assess against the named person the complainant's costs and expenses (including attorney's and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred in connection with the filing of the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding. 
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record. The letter accompanying the findings and order will inform the parties of their right to file objections and to request a hearing, and of the right of the named person to request attorney's fees from the administrative law judge, regardless of whether the named person has filed objections, if the named person alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The letter also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and the preliminary order will be effective 60 days after receipt by the named person pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, unless an objection and a request for a hearing has been filed as provided at § 1981.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon receipt of the findings and preliminary order. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 17591, Apr. 5, 2004, as amended at 86 FR 1790, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and request for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and preliminary order, or a named person alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney's fees, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 60 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1981.105(b). The objection or request for attorney's fees and request for a hearing must be in writing and state whether the objection is to the findings, the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney's fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which shall not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the named person's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The named person may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order. 
</P>
<P>(2) If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings or preliminary order, as the case may be, shall become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 17591, Apr. 5, 2004, as amended at 86 FR 1790, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A, part 18 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to a judge who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo, on the record. Administrative law judges have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the named person object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted. 
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The administrative law judge may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 17591, Apr. 5, 2004, as amended at 86 FR 1790, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the named person will be parties in every proceeding. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as <I>amicus curiae</I> at any time at any stage of the proceedings. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an administrative law judge, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the named person. 
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of pleadings in all cases, whether or not the Assistant Secretary is participating in the proceeding, must be sent to the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of Transportation may participate as <I>amicus curiae</I> at any time in the proceedings, at the Secretary of Transportation's discretion. At the request of the Secretary of Transportation, copies of all pleadings in a case must be sent to the Secretary of Transportation, whether or not the Secretary of Transportation is participating in the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the administrative law judge will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (b) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may only be made if the complainant has demonstrated that protected behavior or conduct was a contributing factor in the unfavorable personnel action alleged in the complaint. Relief may not be ordered if the named person demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same unfavorable personnel action in the absence of any protected behavior. Neither the Assistant Secretary's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1981.104(b) nor the Assistant Secretary's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the administrative law judge, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the administrative law judge will hear the case on the merits. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the administrative law judge concludes that the party charged has violated the law, the order shall direct the party charged to take appropriate affirmative action to abate the violation, including, where appropriate, reinstatement of the complainant to that person's former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions, and privileges of that employment, and compensatory damages. At the request of the complainant, the administrative law judge shall assess against the named person all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. If, upon the request of the named person, the administrative law judge determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the judge may award to the named person a reasonable attorney's fee, not exceeding $1,000. 
</P>
<P>(c) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding. Any administrative law judge's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the named person, and will not be stayed by the filing of a timely petition for review with the Administrative Review Board. All other portions of the judge's order will be effective 10 business days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the Administrative Law Judge, or a named person alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney's fees, must file a written petition for review with the Administrative Review Board (“the Board”). The decision of the Administrative Law Judge will become the final order of the Secretary unless, pursuant to this section, a petition for review is timely filed with the Board. The petition for review must specifically identify the findings, conclusions, or orders to which exception is taken. Any exception not specifically urged ordinarily will be deemed to have been waived by the parties. To be effective, a petition must be filed within 10 business days of the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or email communication will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the Board. Copies of the petition for review and all briefs must be served on the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the administrative law judge will become the final order of the Secretary unless the Board, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the administrative law judge will be inoperative unless and until the Board issues an order adopting the decision, except that a preliminary order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the Board, unless the Board grants a motion to stay the order. The Board will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The Board will review the factual determinations of the administrative law judge under the substantial evidence standard. 
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Board shall be issued within 90 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be the conclusion of all proceedings before the Administrative Law Judge—<I>i.e.,</I> 10 business days after the date of the decision of the Administrative Law Judge unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the Administrative Law Judge in the interim. The decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the party charged has violated the law, the ARB shall order the party charged to take appropriate affirmative action to abate the violation, including, where appropriate, reinstatement of the complainant to that person's former position, together with the compensation (including back pay), terms, conditions, and privileges of that employment, and compensatory damages. At the request of the complainant, the Board shall assess against the named person all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the party charged has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the named person, the Board determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the Board may award to the named person reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 17591, Apr. 5, 2004, as amended at 85 FR 30622, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1790, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.111   Withdrawal of complaints, objections, and findings; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the findings or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint under the Act by filing a written withdrawal with the Assistant Secretary. The Assistant Secretary will then determine whether to approve the withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary will notify the named person of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement will be approved in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw his or her findings or a preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 60-day objection period described in § 1981.106, provided that no objection has yet been filed, and substitute new findings or preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 60-day objection period. 
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the findings or order become final, a party may withdraw his or her objections to the findings or order by filing a written withdrawal with the administrative law judge or, if the case is on review, with the Board. The judge or the Board, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal. If the objections are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement will be approved in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Investigative settlements. At any time after the filing of a complaint, and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if the Assistant Secretary, the complainant and the named person agree to a settlement. 
</P>
<P>(2) Adjudicatory settlements. At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the administrative law judge if the case is before the judge, or by the Board if a timely petition for review has been filed with the Board. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the administrative law judge or the Board, as the case may be. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by the Assistant Secretary, the administrative law judge, or the Board will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced pursuant to § 1981.113. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation. A final order of the Secretary is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the administrative law judge, will be transmitted by the Board to the appropriate court pursuant to the rules of the court. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 17591, Apr. 5, 2004, as amended at 85 FR 30622, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order or the terms of a settlement agreement, the Secretary or a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1981.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.16.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1981.114   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of this part, or for good cause shown, the administrative law judge or the Board on review may, upon application, after three days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue any orders that justice or the administration of the Act requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1982" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1982—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE NATIONAL TRANSIT SYSTEMS SECURITY ACT AND THE FEDERAL RAILROAD SAFETY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>6 U.S.C. 1142 and 49 U.S.C. 20109; Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 69132, Nov. 9, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements procedures of the National Transit Systems Security Act (NTSSA), 6 U.S.C. 1142, and the Federal Railroad Safety Act (FRSA), 49 U.S.C. 20109, as amended. NTSSA provides for employee protection from retaliation because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to public transportation safety or security (or, in circumstances covered by the statute, the employee is perceived to have engaged or to be about to engage in protected activity). FRSA provides for employee protection from retaliation because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to railroad safety or security (or, in circumstances covered by the statute, the employee is perceived to have engaged or to be about to engage in protected activity), has requested medical or first aid treatment, or has followed orders or a treatment plan of a treating physician. It also protects an employee against delay, denial or interference with first aid or medical treatment for a workplace injury.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under NTSSA and FRSA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf, and sets forth the Secretary's interpretations of NTSSA and FRSA on certain statutory issues. These rules, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures under NTSSA or FRSA for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges, post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under NTSSA or FRSA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complainant</I> means the employee who filed a NTSSA or FRSA complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee</I> means an individual presently or formerly working for, an individual applying to work for, or an individual whose employment could be affected by a public transportation agency or a railroad carrier, or a contractor or subcontractor of a public transportation agency or a railroad carrier.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FRSA</I> means Section 1521 of the Implementing Recommendations of the 9/11 Commission Act of 2007, Public Law 110-053, August 3, 2007, as further amended by Public Law 110-432, October, 16, 2008, codified at 49 U.S.C. 20109.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>NTSSA</I> means Section 1413 of the Implementing Recommendations of the 9/11 Commission Act of 2007, Public Law 110-053, August 3, 2007, codified at 6 U.S.C. 1142.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public transportation</I> means regular, continuing shared-ride surface transportation services that are open to the general public or open to a segment of the general public defined by age, disability, or low income; and does not include: Intercity passenger rail transportation provided by the entity described in chapter 243 (or a successor to such entity); intercity bus service; charter bus service; school bus service; sightseeing service; courtesy shuttle service for patrons of one or more specific establishments; or intra-terminal or intra-facility shuttle services.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Public transportation agency</I> means a publicly owned operator of public transportation eligible to receive federal assistance under 49 U.S.C. chapter 53.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Railroad</I> means any form of nonhighway ground transportation that runs on rails or electromagnetic guideways, including commuter or other short-haul railroad passenger service in a metropolitan or suburban area and commuter railroad service that was operated by the Consolidated Rail Corporation on January 1, 1979; and high speed ground transportation systems that connect metropolitan areas, without regard to whether those systems use new technologies not associated with traditional railroads; but does not include rapid transit operations in an urban area that are not connected to the general railroad system of transportation.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Railroad carrier</I> means a person providing railroad transportation, except that, upon petition by a group of commonly controlled railroad carriers that the Secretary of Transportation determines is operating within the United States as a single, integrated rail system, the Secretary of Transportation may by order treat the group of railroad carriers as a single railroad carrier for purposes of one or more provisions of part A, subtitle V of title 49 and implementing regulations and order, subject to any appropriate conditions that the Secretary of Transportation may impose.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Respondent</I> means the person alleged to have violated NTSSA or FRSA.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or person to whom authority under NTSSA or FRSA has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(n) Any future statutory amendments that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>National Transit Systems Security Act.</I> (1) A public transportation agency, contractor, or subcontractor of such agency, or officer or employee of such agency, shall not discharge, demote, suspend, reprimand, or in any other way retaliate against, including but not limited to intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting, or disciplining, an employee if such retaliation is due, in whole or in part, to the employee's lawful, good faith act done, or perceived by the employer to have been done or about to be done—
</P>
<P>(i) To provide information, directly cause information to be provided, or otherwise directly assist in any investigation regarding any conduct which the employee reasonably believes constitutes a violation of any Federal law, rule, or regulation relating to public transportation safety or security, or fraud, waste, or abuse of Federal grants or other public funds intended to be used for public transportation safety or security, if the information or assistance is provided to or an investigation stemming from the provided information is conducted by—
</P>
<P>(A) A Federal, State or local regulatory or law enforcement agency (including an office of the Inspector General under the Inspector General Act of 1978 (5 U.S.C. App.; Pub. L. 95-452));
</P>
<P>(B) Any Member of Congress, any Committee of Congress, or the Government Accountability Office; or
</P>
<P>(C) A person with supervisory authority over the employee or such other person who has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(ii) To refuse to violate or assist in the violation of any Federal law, rule, or regulation relating to public transportation safety or security;
</P>
<P>(iii) To file a complaint or directly cause to be brought a proceeding related to the enforcement of this section or to testify in that proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iv) To cooperate with a safety or security investigation by the Secretary of Transportation, the Secretary of Homeland Security, or the National Transportation Safety Board; or
</P>
<P>(v) To furnish information to the Secretary of Transportation, the Secretary of Homeland Security, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any Federal, State, or local regulatory or law enforcement agency as to the facts relating to any accident or incident resulting in injury or death to an individual or damage to property occurring in connection with public transportation.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A public transportation agency, contractor, or subcontractor of such agency, or officer or employee of such agency, shall not discharge, demote, suspend, reprimand, or in any other way retaliate against, including but not limited to intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting, or disciplining, an employee for—
</P>
<P>(A) Reporting a hazardous safety or security condition;
</P>
<P>(B) Refusing to work when confronted by a hazardous safety or security condition related to the performance of the employee's duties, if the conditions described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section exist; or
</P>
<P>(C) Refusing to authorize the use of any safety- or security-related equipment, track, or structures, if the employee is responsible for the inspection or repair of the equipment, track, or structures, when the employee believes that the equipment, track, or structures are in a hazardous safety or security condition, if the conditions described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section exist.
</P>
<P>(ii) A refusal is protected under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) and (C) of this section if—
</P>
<P>(A) The refusal is made in good faith and no reasonable alternative to the refusal is available to the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A reasonable individual in the circumstances then confronting the employee would conclude that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The hazardous condition presents an imminent danger of death or serious injury; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The urgency of the situation does not allow sufficient time to eliminate the danger without such refusal; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employee, where possible, has notified the public transportation agency of the existence of the hazardous condition and the intention not to perform further work, or not to authorize the use of the hazardous equipment, track, or structures, unless the condition is corrected immediately or the equipment, track, or structures are repaired properly or replaced.
</P>
<P>(iii) In this paragraph (a)(2), only paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) shall apply to security personnel, including transit police, employed or utilized by a public transportation agency to protect riders, equipment, assets, or facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I> Federal Railroad Safety Act.</I> (1) A railroad carrier engaged in interstate or foreign commerce, a contractor or a subcontractor of such a railroad carrier, or an officer or employee of such a railroad carrier, may not discharge, demote, suspend, reprimand, or in any other way retaliate against, including but not limited to intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting, or disciplining, an employee if such retaliation is due, in whole or in part, to the employee's lawful, good faith act done, or perceived by the employer to have been done or about to be done—
</P>
<P>(i) To provide information, directly cause information to be provided, or otherwise directly assist in any investigation regarding any conduct which the employee reasonably believes constitutes a violation of any Federal law, rule, or regulation relating to railroad safety or security, or gross fraud, waste, or abuse of Federal grants or other public funds intended to be used for railroad safety or security, if the information or assistance is provided to or an investigation stemming from the provided information is conducted by—
</P>
<P>(A) A Federal, State, or local regulatory or law enforcement agency (including an office of the Inspector General under the Inspector General Act of 1978 (5 U.S.C. App.; Public Law 95-452));
</P>
<P>(B) Any Member of Congress, any committee of Congress, or the Government Accountability Office; or
</P>
<P>(C) A person with supervisory authority over the employee or such other person who has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(ii) To refuse to violate or assist in the violation of any Federal law, rule, or regulation relating to railroad safety or security;
</P>
<P>(iii) To file a complaint, or directly cause to be brought a proceeding related to the enforcement of 49 U.S.C. part A of subtitle V or, as applicable to railroad safety or security, 49 U.S.C. chapter 51 or 57, or to testify in that proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iv) To notify, or attempt to notify, the railroad carrier or the Secretary of Transportation of a work-related personal injury or work-related illness of an employee;
</P>
<P>(v) To cooperate with a safety or security investigation by the Secretary of Transportation, the Secretary of Homeland Security, or the National Transportation Safety Board;
</P>
<P>(vi) To furnish information to the Secretary of Transportation, the Secretary of Homeland Security, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any Federal, State, or local regulatory or law enforcement agency as to the facts relating to any accident or incident resulting in injury or death to an individual or damage to property occurring in connection with railroad transportation; or
</P>
<P>(vii) To accurately report hours on duty pursuant to 49 U.S.C. chapter 211.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A railroad carrier engaged in interstate or foreign commerce, or an officer or employee of such a railroad carrier, shall not discharge, demote, suspend, reprimand, or in any other way retaliate against, including but not limited to intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting, or disciplining, an employee for—
</P>
<P>(A) Reporting, in good faith, a hazardous safety or security condition;
</P>
<P>(B) Refusing to work when confronted by a hazardous safety or security condition related to the performance of the employee's duties, if the conditions described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section exist; or
</P>
<P>(C) Refusing to authorize the use of any safety-related equipment, track, or structures, if the employee is responsible for the inspection or repair of the equipment, track, or structures, when the employee believes that the equipment, track, or structures are in a hazardous safety or security condition, if the conditions described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section exist.
</P>
<P>(ii) A refusal is protected under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) and (C) of this section if—
</P>
<P>(A) The refusal is made in good faith and no reasonable alternative to the refusal is available to the employee;
</P>
<P>(B) A reasonable individual in the circumstances then confronting the employee would conclude that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The hazardous condition presents an imminent danger of death or serious injury; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The urgency of the situation does not allow sufficient time to eliminate the danger without such refusal; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employee, where possible, has notified the railroad carrier of the existence of the hazardous condition and the intention not to perform further work, or not to authorize the use of the hazardous equipment, track, or structures, unless the condition is corrected immediately or the equipment, track, or structures are repaired properly or replaced.
</P>
<P>(iii) In this paragraph (b)(2), only paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) shall apply to security personnel employed by a railroad carrier to protect individuals and property transported by railroad.
</P>
<P>(3) A railroad carrier or person covered under this section may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny, delay, or interfere with the medical or first aid treatment of an employee who is injured during the course of employment. If transportation to a hospital is requested by an employee injured during the course of employment, the railroad shall promptly arrange to have the injured employee transported to the nearest hospital where the employee can receive safe and appropriate medical care.
</P>
<P>(ii) Discipline, or threaten discipline to, an employee for requesting medical or first aid treatment, or for following orders or a treatment plan of a treating physician, except that—
</P>
<P>(A) A railroad carrier's refusal to permit an employee to return to work following medical treatment shall not be considered a violation of FRSA if the refusal is pursuant to Federal Railroad Administration medical standards for fitness of duty or, if there are no pertinent Federal Railroad Administration standards, a carrier's medical standards for fitness for duty.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of this paragraph, the term “discipline” means to bring charges against a person in a disciplinary proceeding, suspend, terminate, place on probation, or make note of reprimand on an employee's record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.103   Filing of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> An employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of NTSSA or FRSA may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office<E T="03"/> responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for Filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of NTSSA or FRSA occurs, any employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of NTSSA or FRSA may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint equitably tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with another agency instead of OSHA within 180 days after becoming aware of the alleged violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1982.110(e). OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel), and to the Federal Railroad Administration, the Federal Transit Administration, or the Transportation Security Administration as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity (or, in circumstances covered by NTSSA and FRSA, was perceived to have engaged or to be about to engage in protected activity);
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity (or, in circumstances covered by NTSSA and FRSA, perceived the employee to have engaged or to be about to engage in protected activity);
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity (or perception thereof) was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity (or, in circumstances covered by NTSSA and FRSA, perceived the employee to have engaged or to be about to engage in protected activity), and that the protected activity (or perception thereof) was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity, or at the first opportunity available to the respondent, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1982.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated NTSSA or FRSA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigators, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon afterwards as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of NTSSA or FRSA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will include, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had, but for the retaliation; any back pay with interest; and payment of compensatory damages, including compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit documentation to the Social Security Administration or the Railroad Retirement Board, as appropriate, allocating any back pay award to the appropriate months or calendar quarters. The preliminary order may also require the respondent to pay punitive damages up to $250,000.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent under NTSSA to request award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the administrative law judge (ALJ) regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for a hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1982.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and of the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 69132, Nov. 9, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 1790, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under NTSSA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1982.105. The objections, request for a hearing, and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings and/or the preliminary order, the findings or preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 69132, Nov. 9, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 1790, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. Administrative Law Judges have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 69132, Nov. 9, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 1791, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Homeland Security or the Department of Transportation, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at those agencies' discretion. At the request of the interested federal agency, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the federal agency, whether or not the agency is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1982.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order that will include, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had, but for the retaliation; any back pay with interest; and payment of compensatory damages, including compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit documentation to the Social Security Administration or the Railroad Retirement Board, as appropriate, allocating any back pay award to the appropriate months or calendar quarters. The order may also require the respondent to pay punitive damages up to $250,000.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint filed under NTSSA was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board (ARB), U.S. Department of Labor. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint under NTSSA was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review must be served on the Assistant Secretary, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the date of the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is denied or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision also will be served on the Assistant Secretary, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing relief to the complainant. The order will include, where appropriate, affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had but for the retaliation; any back pay with interest; and payment of compensatory damages, including compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit documentation to the Social Security Administration or the Railroad Retirement Board, as appropriate, allocating any back pay award to the appropriate months or calendar quarters. The order may also require the respondent to pay punitive damages up to $250,000. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint under NTSSA was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 69132, Nov. 9, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 30622, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1791, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1982.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw its objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw its petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1982.113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 69132, Nov. 9, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 30623, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under NTSSA, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under NTSSA, a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever a person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under FRSA, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If there is no final order of the Secretary, 210 days have passed since the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy. At the request of either party, the action shall be tried by the court with a jury.
</P>
<P>(b) A proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section shall be governed by the same legal burdens of proof specified in § 1982.109. An employee prevailing in a proceeding under paragraph (a) shall be entitled to all relief necessary to make the employee whole, including, where appropriate: Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had, but for the retaliation; any back pay with interest; and payment of compensatory damages, including compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. The court may also order punitive damages in an amount not to exceed $250,000.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 7 days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending upon where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. In all cases, a copy of the complaint must also be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1982.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.17.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1982.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of these rules, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three-days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of NTSSA or FRSA requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1983" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1983—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER SECTION 219 OF THE CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY IMPROVEMENT ACT OF 2008


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 2087; Secretary's Order 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 40503, July 10, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements procedures of the employee protection provisions of the Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act (CPSIA), 15 U.S.C. 2087. CPSIA provides for employee protection from retaliation because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to consumer product safety.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under CPSIA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures under CPSIA for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under CPSIA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commission</I> means the Consumer Product Safety Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Complainant</I> means the employee who filed a CPSIA complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Consumer product</I> means any article, or component part thereof, produced or distributed:
</P>
<P>(i) For sale to a consumer for use in or around a permanent or temporary household or residence, a school, in recreation, or otherwise; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For the personal use, consumption or enjoyment of a consumer in or around a permanent or temporary household or residence, a school, in recreation, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term “consumer product” includes any mechanical device which carries or conveys passengers along, around, or over a fixed or restricted route or course or within a defined area for the purpose of giving its passengers amusement, which is customarily controlled or directed by an individual who is employed for that purpose and who is not a consumer with respect to such device, and which is not permanently fixed to a site, but does not include such a device that is permanently fixed to a site.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>consumer product</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any article which is not customarily produced or distributed for sale to, or use or consumption by, or enjoyment of, a consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tobacco and tobacco products;
</P>
<P>(iii) Motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment (as defined by 49 U.S.C. 30102(a)(6) and (7));
</P>
<P>(iv) Pesticides (as defined by the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. 136 <I>et seq.</I>));
</P>
<P>(v) Any article or any component of any such article which, if sold by the manufacturer, producer, or importer, would be subject to the tax imposed by 26 U.S.C. 4181;
</P>
<P>(vi) Aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances (as defined in 49 U.S.C. 40102(a));
</P>
<P>(vii) Boats which could be subjected to safety regulation under 46 U.S.C. chapter 43; vessels, and appurtenances to vessels (other than such boats), which could be subjected to safety regulation under title 52 of the Revised Statutes or other marine safety statutes administered by the department in which the Coast Guard is operating; and equipment (including associated equipment, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 2101(1)), to the extent that a risk of injury associated with the use of such equipment on boats or vessels could be eliminated or reduced by actions taken under any statute referred to in this definitional section;
</P>
<P>(viii) Drugs, devices, or cosmetics (as such terms are defined in 21 U.S.C. 321(g), (h), and (i)); or
</P>
<P>(ix) Food (the term “food” means all “food,” as defined in 21 U.S.C. 321(f), including poultry and poultry products (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 453(e) and (f)), meat, meat food products (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 601(j)), and eggs and egg products (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 1033)).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>CPSIA</I> means Section 219 of the Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act of 2008, Public Law 110-314, 122 Stat. 3016 (Aug. 14, 2008) (codified at 15 U.S.C. 2087).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Distributor</I> means a person to whom a consumer product is delivered or sold for purposes of distribution in commerce, except that such term does not include a manufacturer or retailer of such product.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Employee</I> means an individual presently or formerly working for, an individual applying to work for, or an individual whose employment could be affected by a manufacturer, private labeler, distributor, or retailer.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Manufacturer</I> means any person who manufactures or imports a consumer product. A product is manufactured if it is manufactured, produced, or assembled.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Private labeler</I> means an owner of a brand or trademark on the label of a consumer product which bears a private label. A consumer product bears a private label if:
</P>
<P>(1) The product (or its container) is labeled with the brand or trademark of a person other than a manufacturer of the product,
</P>
<P>(2) The person with whose brand or trademark the product (or container) is labeled has authorized or caused the product to be so labeled, and
</P>
<P>(3) The brand or trademark of a manufacturer of such product does not appear on such label.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Retailer</I> means a person to whom a consumer product is delivered or sold for purposes of sale or distribution by such person to a consumer.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Respondent</I> means the employer named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated CPSIA.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or person to whom authority under CPSIA has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(o) Any future statutory amendments that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No manufacturer, private labeler, distributor, or retailer may discharge or otherwise retaliate against, including, but not limited to, intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting or disciplining, any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee, whether at the employee's initiative or in the ordinary course of the employee's duties (or any person acting pursuant to a request of the employee), engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee is protected against retaliation (as described in paragraph (a) of this section) by a manufacturer, private labeler, distributor, or retailer because the employee (or any person acting pursuant to a request of the employee):
</P>
<P>(1) Provided, caused to be provided, or is about to provide or cause to be provided to the employer, the Federal Government, or the attorney general of a State information relating to any violation of, or any act or omission the employee reasonably believes to be a violation of any provision of the Consumer Product Safety Act, as amended by CPSIA, or any other Act enforced by the Commission, or any order, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under any such Acts;
</P>
<P>(2) Testified or is about to testify in a proceeding concerning such violation;
</P>
<P>(3) Assisted or participated or is about to assist or participate in such a proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(4) Objected to, or refused to participate in, any activity, policy, practice, or assigned task that the employee (or other such person) reasonably believed to be in violation of any provision of the Consumer Product Safety Act, as amended by CPSIA, or any other Act enforced by the Commission, or any order, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under any such Acts.
</P>
<P>(c) This part shall have no application with respect to an employee of a manufacturer, private labeler, distributor, or retailer who, acting without direction from such manufacturer, private labeler, distributor, or retailer (or such person's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement relating to any violation or alleged violation of any order, regulation, or consumer product safety standard under the Consumer Product Safety Act, as amended by CPSIA, or any other law enforced by the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> An employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against by a manufacturer, private labeler, distributor, or retailer in violation of CPSIA may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of CPSIA occurs, any employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of CPSIA may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, the Assistant Secretary will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The Assistant Secretary will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1983.110(e). The Assistant Secretary will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel), and to the Consumer Product Safety Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent and the complainant each may submit to the Assistant Secretary a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent and the complainant each may request a meeting with the Assistant Secretary to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) Throughout the investigation, the agency will provide to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) a copy of all of respondent's submissions to the agency that are responsive to the complainant's whistleblower complaint. Before providing such materials to the complainant, the agency will redact them, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The agency will also provide the complainant with an opportunity to respond to such submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, an investigation of the complaint will not be conducted or will be discontinued if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, the Assistant Secretary will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1983.105, if the Assistant Secretary has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated CPSIA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, the Assistant Secretary will again contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials to the complainant, the agency will redact them, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigators, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of the Assistant Secretary's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon thereafter as the Assistant Secretary and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of CPSIA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will require, where appropriate: affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney's and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney's fees not exceeding $1,000 from the ALJ, regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1983.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 40503, July 10, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 1791, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney's fees under CPSIA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1983.105. The objections, request for a hearing, and/or request for attorney's fees must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney's fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 40503, July 10, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 1791, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 40503, July 10, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 1791, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of documents must be sent to the Assistant Secretary and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of the Assistant Secretary, or where the Assistant Secretary is participating in the proceeding, or where service on the Assistant Secretary and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) The Consumer Product Safety Commission, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at the Commission's discretion. At the request of the Commission, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the Commission, whether or not it is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither the Assistant Secretary's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1983.104(e) nor the Assistant Secretary's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order that will require, where appropriate: affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney's and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney's fee, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board (ARB), U.S. Department of Labor. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney's fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review must be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the date of the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing relief to the complainant. The order will require, where appropriate, affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney's fee, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 40503, July 10, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 30623, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1791, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying the Assistant Secretary, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary will notify the parties (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1983.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if the Assistant Secretary, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. The Assistant Secretary's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates the Assistant Secretary's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1983.113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 40503, July 10, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 30623, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under CPSIA, the Secretary or a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. The Secretary also may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the District of Columbia. In civil actions under this section, the district court will have jurisdiction to grant all appropriate relief, including, but not limited to, injunctive relief and compensatory damages, including:
</P>
<P>(a) Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had, but for the discharge or retaliation;
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of back pay, with interest; and
</P>
<P>(c) Compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the discharge or retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney's fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy, either:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 90 days after receiving a written determination under § 1983.105(a) provided that there has been no final decision of the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(2) If there has been no final decision of the Secretary within 210 days of the filing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(3) At the request of either party, the action shall be tried by the court with a jury.
</P>
<P>(b) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1983.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.18.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1983.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of these rules, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of CPSIA requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1984" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1984—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER SECTION 1558 OF THE AFFORDABLE CARE ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 218C; Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 70620, Oct. 13, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements procedures under section 1558 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, Public Law 111-148, 124 Stat. 119, which was signed into law on March 23, 2010 and was amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010, Public Law 111-152, 124 Stat. 1029, signed into law on March 30, 2010. The terms “Affordable Care Act” or “the Act” are used in this part to refer to the final, amended version of the law. Section 1558 of the Act amended the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I> (FLSA) by adding new section 18C. 29 U.S.C. 218C. Section 18C of the FLSA provides protection for an employee from retaliation because the employee has received a credit under section 36B of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 36B, or a cost-sharing reduction (referred to as a “subsidy” in section 18C) under the Affordable Care Act, or because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to title I of the Affordable Care Act or any amendment made by title I of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under section 18C of the FLSA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf and sets forth the Secretary's interpretations of section 18C on certain statutory issues. These rules, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures under section 18C of the FLSA for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Advance payments of the premium tax credit</I> or “<I>APTC”</I> means advance payments of the premium tax credit as defined in 45 CFR 155.20.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affordable Care Act</I> or “<I>the Act”</I> means the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, Public Law 111-148, 124 Stat. 119 (Mar. 23, 2010), as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under section 18C of the FLSA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Complainant</I> means the employee who filed an FLSA section 18C complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employee</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual employed by an employer. In the case of an individual employed by a public agency, the term employee means any individual employed by the Government of the United States: As a civilian in the military departments (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102), in any executive agency (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105), in any unit of the judicial branch of the Government which has positions in the competitive service, in a nonappropriated fund instrumentality under the jurisdiction of the Armed Forces, in the Library of Congress, or in the Government Printing Office. The term employee also means any individual employed by the United States Postal Service or the Postal Regulatory Commission; and any individual employed by a State, political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency, other than an individual who is not subject to the civil service laws of the State, political subdivision, or agency which employs him; and who holds a public elective office of that State, political subdivision, or agency, is selected by the holder of such an office to be a member of his personal staff, is appointed by such an officeholder to serve on a policymaking level, is an immediate adviser to such an officeholder with respect to the constitutional or legal powers of his office, or is an employee in the legislative branch or legislative body of that State, political subdivision, or agency and is not employed by the legislative library of such State, political subdivision, or agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>employee</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual who volunteers to perform services for a public agency which is a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency, if the individual receives no compensation or is paid expenses, reasonable benefits, or a nominal fee to perform the services for which the individual volunteered—and such services are not the same type of services which the individual is employed to perform for such public agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any employee of a public agency which is a State, political subdivision of a State, or an interstate governmental agency that volunteers to perform services for any other State, political subdivision, or interstate governmental agency, including a State, political subdivision or agency with which the employing State, political subdivision, or agency has a mutual aid agreement; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any individual who volunteers their services solely for humanitarian purposes to private non-profit food banks and who receive groceries from the food banks.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>employee</I> includes former employees and applicants for employment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Employer</I> includes any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee and includes a public agency, but does not include any labor organization (other than when acting as an employer) or anyone acting in the capacity of officer or agent of such labor organization.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exchange</I> means an Exchange as defined in 45 CFR 155.20.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, or any organized group of persons.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Respondent</I> means the employer named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated section 18C of the FLSA.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or person to whom authority under section 18C of the FLSA has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(m) Any future statutory amendments that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.
</P>
<P>(n) Any future regulatory revisions that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employer may discharge or otherwise retaliate against, including, but not limited to, intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting or disciplining, any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee (or an individual acting at the request of the employee), has engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee is protected against retaliation because the employee (or an individual acting at the request of the employee) has:
</P>
<P>(1) Received a credit under section 36B of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 36B, or a cost-sharing reduction under the Affordable Care Act, or been determined by an Exchange to be eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit (APTC) or for a cost-sharing reduction;
</P>
<P>(2) Provided, caused to be provided, or is about to provide or cause to be provided to the employer, the Federal Government, or the attorney general of a State information relating to any violation of, or any act or omission the employee reasonably believes to be a violation of, any provision of title I of the Affordable Care Act (or an amendment made by title I of the Affordable Care Act);
</P>
<P>(3) Testified or is about to testify in a proceeding concerning such violation;
</P>
<P>(4) Assisted or participated, or is about to assist or participate, in such a proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(5) Objected to, or refused to participate in, any activity, policy, practice, or assigned task that the employee (or other such person) reasonably believed to be in violation of any provision of title I of the Affordable Care Act (or amendment), or any order, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under title I of the Affordable Care Act (or amendment).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> An employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of section 18C of the FLSA may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of section 18C of the FLSA occurs, any employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of that section may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint equitably tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with another agency instead of OSHA within 180 days after becoming aware of the alleged violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, <I>et seq.,</I> and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1984.110(e). OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the appropriate office of the federal agency charged with the administration of the general provisions of the Affordable Care Act under which the complaint is filed: Either the Internal Revenue Service of the United States Department of the Treasury (IRS), the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), or the Employee Benefits Security Administration of the United States Department of Labor (EBSA).
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent and the complainant each may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent and the complainant each may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that a protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity, or at the first opportunity available to respondent, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel, if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1984.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated section 18C of the FLSA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials to the complainant, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigator, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon afterwards as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of section 18C of the FLSA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will require, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate period.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the administrative law judge (ALJ), regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings, and where appropriate, the preliminary order, also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1984.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 70620, Oct. 13, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1791, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under section 18C of the FLSA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1984.105(b). The objections, request for a hearing, and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings and/or the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 70620, Oct. 13, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1792, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 70620, Oct. 13, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1792, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) The IRS, HHS, and EBSA, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at those agencies' discretion. At the request of the interested federal agency, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the federal agency, whether or not the agency is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the administrative law judge (ALJ) will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1984.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order that will require, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate period.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board (ARB), U.S. Department of Labor. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the Administrative Review Board (ARB). The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review must be served on the Assistant Secretary, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the date of the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary, and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing relief to the complainant. The order will require, where appropriate, affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to the complainant's former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate period. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 70620, Oct. 13, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30624, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1792, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying the Assistant Secretary, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary will notify the parties (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1984.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1984.113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 70620, Oct. 13, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30624, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under section 18C of the FLSA, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred or in the United States district court for the District of Columbia. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under section 18C of the FLSA, a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy, either:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 90 days after receiving a written determination under § 1984.105(a) provided that there has been no final decision of the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(2) If there has been no final decision of the Secretary within 210 days of the filing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(3) At the request of either party, the action shall be tried by the court with a jury.
</P>
<P>(b) A proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section shall be governed by the same legal burdens of proof specified in § 1984.109. The court shall have jurisdiction to grant all relief necessary to make the employee whole, including injunctive relief and compensatory damages, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had, but for the discharge or retaliation;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of back pay, with interest; and
</P>
<P>(3) Compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the discharge or retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees.
</P>
<P>(c) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. In all cases, a copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1984.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.19.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1984.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of this part, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three-days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of section 18C of the FLSA requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1985" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1985—PROCEDURES FOR HANDLING RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE EMPLOYEE PROTECTION PROVISION OF THE CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION ACT OF 2010
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5567; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 14383, Mar. 17, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This Part sets forth procedures for, and interpretations of, the employee protection provision of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, Section 1057 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (CFPA or the Act), Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1955 (July 21, 2010) (codified at 12 U.S.C. 5567). CFPA provides for employee protection from retaliation because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under CFPA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures under CFPA for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. In addition, these rules provide the Secretary's interpretations on certain statutory issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any person that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under CFPA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bureau</I> means the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>CFPA</I> means Section 1057 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1955 (July 21, 2010) (codified at 12 U.S.C. 5567).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Complainant</I> means the person who filed a CFPA complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual or an agent, trustee, or representative acting on behalf of an individual.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Consumer financial product or service</I> means any financial product or service that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Described in one or more categories in 12 U.S.C. 5481(15) and is offered or provided for use by consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; or
</P>
<P>(2) Described in clause (i), (iii), (ix), or (x) of 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A), and is delivered, offered, or provided in connection with a consumer financial product or service referred to in subparagraph (1).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Covered employee</I> means any individual performing tasks related to the offering or provision of a consumer financial product or service. The term “covered employee” includes an individual presently or formerly working for, an individual applying to work for, or an individual whose employment could be affected by a covered person or service provider where such individual was performing tasks related to the offering or provision of a consumer financial product or service at the time that the individual engaged in protected activity under CFPA.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Covered person</I> means —
</P>
<P>(1) Any person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service, or
</P>
<P>(2) Any affiliate of such a person if such affiliate acts as a service provider to such person, or
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Federal consumer financial law</I> means any law described in 12 U.S.C. 5481(14).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Respondent</I> means the person named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated the Act.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or person to whom authority under CFPA has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Service provider</I> means any person that provides a material service to a covered person in connection with the offering or provision by such covered person of a consumer financial product or service, including a person that—
</P>
<P>(1) Participates in designing, operating, or maintaining the consumer financial product or service; or
</P>
<P>(2) Processes transactions relating to the consumer financial product or service (other than unknowingly or incidentally transmitting or processing financial data in a manner that such data is undifferentiated from other types of data of the same form as the person transmits or processes);
</P>
<P>(3) The term “service provider” does not include a person solely by virtue of such person offering or providing to a covered person:
</P>
<P>(i) A support service of a type provided to businesses generally or a similar ministerial service; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Time or space for an advertisement for a consumer financial product or service through print, newspaper, or electronic media.
</P>
<P>(4) A person that is a service provider shall be deemed to be a covered person to the extent that such person engages in the offering or provision of its own consumer financial product or service.
</P>
<P>(q) Any future statutory amendments that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No covered person or service provider may terminate or in any other way retaliate against, or cause to be terminated or retaliated against, including, but not limited to, intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting or disciplining, any covered employee or any authorized representative of covered employees because such employee or representative, whether at the employee's initiative or in the ordinary course of the employee's duties (or any person acting pursuant to a request of the employee), engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section. (b) A covered employee or authorized representative is protected against retaliation (as described in paragraph (a) of this section) by a covered person or service provider because he or she:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided, caused to be provided, or is about to provide or cause to be provided to the employer, the Bureau, or any other State, local, or Federal, government authority or law enforcement agency, information relating to any violation of, or any act or omission that the employee reasonably believes to be a violation of, any provision of Title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1955 (July 21, 2010), or any other provision of law that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Bureau, or any rule, order, standard, or prohibition prescribed by the Bureau;
</P>
<P>(2) Testified or will testify in any proceeding resulting from the administration or enforcement of any provision of Title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1955 (July 21, 2010), or any other provision of law that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Bureau, or any rule, order, standard, or prohibition prescribed by the Bureau;
</P>
<P>(3) Filed, instituted, or caused to be filed or instituted any proceeding under any Federal consumer financial law; or
</P>
<P>(4) Objected to, or refused to participate in, any activity, policy, practice, or assigned task that the employee (or other such person) reasonably believed to be in violation of any law, rule, order, standard, or prohibition subject to the jurisdiction of, or enforceable by, the Bureau.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> A person who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise retaliated against by any person in violation of CFPA may file, or have filed by any person on his or her behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the complainant resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of CFPA occurs, any person who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of the Act may file, or have filed by any person on his or her behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint equitably tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with an agency other than OSHA within 180 days after an alleged adverse action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and paragraph (e) of § 1985.110. OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent and the complainant each may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent and the complainant each may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse action took place within a temporal proximity of the protected activity, or at the first opportunity available to the respondent, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1985.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated CFPA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigators, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon thereafter as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of CFPA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will require, where appropriate: affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the ALJ, regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1985.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 14383, Mar. 17, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1792, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under CFPA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1985.105. The objections, request for a hearing, and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 14383, Mar. 17, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1792, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 14383, Mar. 17, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1793, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) The Bureau, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at the Bureau's discretion. At the request of the Bureau, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the Bureau, whether or not it is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1985.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order that will require, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board (ARB), U.S. Department of Labor. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review must be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing relief to the complainant. The order will require, where appropriate, affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 14383, Mar. 17, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30624, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1793, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1985.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, but before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1985.113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 14383, Mar. 17, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30625, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under CFPA, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred or in the United States district court for the District of Columbia. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under CFPA, the person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy, either:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 90 days after receiving a written determination under § 1985.105(a) provided that there has been no final decision of the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(2) If there has been no final decision of the Secretary within 210 days of the filing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) At the request of either party, the action shall be tried by the court with a jury.
</P>
<P>(c) A proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section shall be governed by the same legal burdens of proof specified in § 1985.109. The court shall have jurisdiction to grant all relief necessary to make the employee whole, including injunctive relief and compensatory damages, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had, but for the discharge or discrimination;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of back pay, with interest;
</P>
<P>(3) Compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the discharge or discrimination; and
</P>
<P>(4) Litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees.
</P>
<P>(d) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. In all cases, a copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1985.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.20.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1985.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of these rules, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three days' notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of CFPA requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1986" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1986—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE EMPLOYEE PROTECTION PROVISION OF THE SEAMAN'S PROTECTION ACT (SPA), AS AMENDED
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>46 U.S.C. 2114; 49 U.S.C. 31105; Secretary's Order 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 63409, Sept. 15, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the procedures for, and interpretations of, the Seaman's Protection Act (SPA), 46 U.S.C. 2114, as amended, which protects a seaman from retaliation because the seaman has engaged in protected activity pertaining to compliance with maritime safety laws and accompanying regulations. SPA incorporates the procedures, requirements, and rights described in the whistleblower provision of the Surface Transportation Assistance Act (STAA), 49 U.S.C. 31105.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures pursuant to the statutory provisions set forth above for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by seamen or persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those rules codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, withdrawals and settlements, and judicial review and enforcement. In addition, the rules in this part provide the Secretary's interpretations on certain statutory issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Seaman's Protection Act (SPA), 46 U.S.C. 2114, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Citizen of the United States</I> means an individual who is a national of the United States as defined in section 101(a)(22) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101 (a)(22)); a corporation incorporated under the laws of the United States or a State; a corporation, partnership, association, or other business entity if the controlling interest is owned by citizens of the United States or whose principal place of business or base of operations is in a State; or a governmental entity of the Federal Government of the United States, of a State, or of a political subdivision of a State. The controlling interest in a corporation is owned by citizens of the United States if a majority of the stockholders are citizens of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Complainant</I> means the seaman who filed a SPA whistleblower complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cooperated</I> means any assistance or participation with an investigation, at any stage of the investigation, and regardless of the outcome of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maritime safety law or regulation</I> includes any statute or regulation regarding health or safety that applies to any person or equipment on a vessel.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notify</I> or <I>notified</I> includes any oral or written communications.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Person</I> means one or more individuals or other entities, including but not limited to corporations, companies, associations, firms, partnerships, societies, and joint stock companies.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Report</I> or <I>reported</I> means any oral or written communications.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Respondent</I> means the person alleged to have violated 46 U.S.C. 2114.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Seaman</I> means any individual engaged or employed in any capacity on board a U.S.-flag vessel or any other vessel owned by a citizen of the United States, except members of the Armed Forces. The term includes an individual formerly performing the work described above or an applicant for such work.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or persons to whom authority under the Act has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Vessel</I> means every description of watercraft or other artificial contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on water.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Vessel owner</I> includes all of the agents of the owner, including the vessel's master.
</P>
<P>(r) Any future amendments to SPA that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may not retaliate against any seaman because the seaman:
</P>
<P>(1) In good faith reported or was about to report to the Coast Guard or other appropriate Federal agency or department that the seaman believed that a violation of a maritime safety law or regulation prescribed under that law or regulation has occurred;
</P>
<P>(2) Refused to perform duties ordered by the seaman's employer because the seaman had a reasonable apprehension or expectation that performing such duties would result in serious injury to the seaman, other seamen, or the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Testified in a proceeding brought to enforce a maritime safety law or regulation prescribed under that law;
</P>
<P>(4) Notified, or attempted to notify, the vessel owner or the Secretary of the department in which the Coast Guard was operating of a work-related personal injury or work-related illness of a seaman;
</P>
<P>(5) Cooperated with a safety investigation by the Secretary of the department in which the Coast Guard was operating or the National Transportation Safety Board;
</P>
<P>(6) Furnished information to the Secretary of the department in which the Coast Guard was operating, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any other public official as to the facts relating to any marine casualty resulting in injury or death to an individual or damage to property occurring in connection with vessel transportation; or
</P>
<P>(7) Accurately reported hours of duty under part A of subtitle II of title 46 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(b) Retaliation means any discrimination against a seaman including, but not limited to, discharging, demoting, suspending, harassing, intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting, or disciplining a seaman.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the circumstances causing a seaman's apprehension of serious injury must be of such a nature that a reasonable person, under similar circumstances, would conclude that there was a real danger of an injury or serious impairment of health resulting from the performance of duties as ordered by the seaman's employer. To qualify for protection based on activity described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the seaman must have sought from the employer, and been unable to obtain, correction of the unsafe condition. Any seaman who requested such a correction shall be protected against retaliation because of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.103   Filing of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> A seaman who believes that he or she has been retaliated against by a person in violation of SPA may file, or have filed by any person on the seaman's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If a seaman is unable to file a complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any other language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the seaman resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Not later than 180 days after an alleged violation occurs, a seaman who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of SPA may file, or have filed by any person on his or her behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relationship to section 11(c) complaints.</I> A complaint filed under SPA alleging facts that would also constitute a violation of section 11(c) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, 29 U.S.C. 660(c), will be deemed to be a complaint under both SPA and section 11(c). Similarly, a complaint filed under section 11(c) that alleges facts that would also constitute a violation of SPA will be deemed to be a complaint filed under both SPA and section 11(c). Normal procedures and timeliness requirements under the respective statutes and regulations will be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, the Assistant Secretary will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint by providing the respondent with a copy of the complaint, redacted in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The Assistant Secretary will also notify the respondent of the respondent's rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section. The Assistant Secretary will provide a copy of the unredacted complaint to the complainant (or complainant's legal counsel, if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the U.S. Coast Guard.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to the Assistant Secretary a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with the Assistant Secretary to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) Throughout the investigation, the Agency will provide to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) a copy of all of respondent's submissions to the Agency that are responsive to the complainant's whistleblower complaint. Before providing such materials to the complainant, the Agency will redact them, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The Agency will also provide the complainant with an opportunity to respond to such submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The seaman engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the seaman engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The seaman suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the seaman engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, an investigation of the complaint will not be conducted or will be discontinued if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, the Assistant Secretary will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1986.105, if the Assistant Secretary has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated the Act and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, the Assistant Secretary will again contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel, if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials to the complainant, the Agency will redact them, if necessary, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigators, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of the Assistant Secretary's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon thereafter as the Assistant Secretary and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent retaliated against the complainant in violation of SPA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief. Such order will require, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, with the same compensation, terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; payment of compensatory damages (back pay with interest and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including any litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees which the complainant has incurred). Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The preliminary order may also require the respondent to pay punitive damages of up to $250,000.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or the order and to request a hearing. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and the preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and request for a hearing have been timely filed as provided at § 1986.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 63409, Sept. 15, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1793, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and request for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, must file any objections and a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1986.105(c). The objections and request for a hearing must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings and/or the preliminary order. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, and the OSHA official who issued the findings.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only on the basis of exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 63409, Sept. 15, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1793, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated, and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 63409, Sept. 15, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1793, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding. In any case in which the respondent objects to the findings or the preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary ordinarily will be the prosecuting party. In any other cases, at the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or participate as amicus curiae at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary assumes the role of prosecuting party in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, he or she may, upon written notice to the ALJ or the Administrative Review Board (ARB), as the case may be, and the other parties, withdraw as the prosecuting party in the exercise of prosecutorial discretion. If the Assistant Secretary withdraws, the complainant will become the prosecuting party and the ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will issue appropriate orders to regulate the course of future proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of documents in all cases shall be sent to all parties, or if they are represented by counsel, to the latter. In cases in which the Assistant Secretary is a party, copies of the documents shall be sent to the Regional Solicitor's Office representing the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) The U.S. Coast Guard, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at its discretion. At the request of the U.S. Coast Guard, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to that agency, whether or not that agency is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.109   Decisions and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant or the Assistant Secretary has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither the Assistant Secretary's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1986.104(e) nor the Assistant Secretary's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order that will require, where appropriate: affirmative action to abate the violation, reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, with the same compensation, terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; payment of compensatory damages (back pay with interest and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including any litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees which the complainant may have incurred); and payment of punitive damages up to $250,000. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the ARB, U.S. Department of Labor. The ALJ decision will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the decision for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary or any other party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ must file a written petition for review with the ARB. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review and all briefs must be served on the Assistant Secretary and, in cases in which the Assistant Secretary is a party, on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the date of the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision also will be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing relief to the complainant. The order will require, where appropriate, affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, with the same compensation, terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; payment of compensatory damages (back pay with interest and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including any litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees the complainant may have incurred); and payment of punitive damages up to $250,000. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 63409, Sept. 15, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30625, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1793, Jan. 11, 2021; 86 FR 8687, Feb. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.111   Withdrawal of SPA complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying the Assistant Secretary, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. The Assistant Secretary will notify the parties (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or a preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1986.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If a case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a SPA complaint and before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if the Assistant Secretary, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. The Assistant Secretary's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates the Assistant Secretary's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ or by the ARB, if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in a United States district court pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 31105(e), as incorporated by 46 U.S.C. 2114(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the court of appeals of the United States for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB, or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 63409, Sept. 15, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30625, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement issued under SPA, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints under SPA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If there is no final order of the Secretary, 210 days have passed since the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for <I>de novo</I> review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy. The action shall, at the request of either party to such action, be tried by the court with a jury.
</P>
<P>(b) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with the Assistant Secretary, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1986.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.21.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1986.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of the rules in this part, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders as justice or the administration of SPA requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1987" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1987—PROCEDURES FOR HANDLING RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER SECTION 402 OF THE FDA FOOD SAFETY MODERNIZATION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>21 U.S.C. 399d; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 22539, Apr. 18, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the procedures for, and interpretations of, section 402 of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA), Public Law 111-353, 124 Stat. 3885, which was signed into law on January 4, 2011. Section 402 of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act amended the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C), 21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.,</I> by adding new section 1012. <I>See</I> 21 U.S.C. 399d. Section 1012 of the FD&amp;C provides protection for an employee from retaliation because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to a violation or alleged violation of the FD&amp;C, or any order, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the FD&amp;C.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under section 1012 of the FD&amp;C for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. The rules in this part, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures under section 1012 of the FD&amp;C for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges, post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. In addition, the rules in this part provide the Secretary's interpretations on certain statutory issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under FSMA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complainant</I> means the employee who filed a complaint under FSMA or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Covered entity</I> means an entity engaged in the manufacture, processing, packing, transporting, distribution, reception, holding, or importation of food.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employee</I> means an individual presently or formerly working for a covered entity, an individual applying to work for a covered entity, or an individual whose employment could be affected by a covered entity.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FD&amp;C</I> means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.,</I> which is chapter 9 of title 21.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FDA</I> means the Food and Drug Administration of the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Food</I> means articles used for food or drink for man or other animals, chewing gum, and articles used for components of any such article.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FSMA</I> means section 402 of the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act, Public Law 111-353, 124 Stat. 3885 (Jan. 4, 2011) (codified at 21 U.S.C. 399d).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, and association.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Respondent</I> means the employer named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated the FSMA.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or person to whom authority under the FSMA has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(n) Any future statutory amendments that affect the definition of a term or terms listed in this section will apply in lieu of the definition stated herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No covered entity may discharge or otherwise retaliate against, including, but not limited to, intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting or disciplining, any employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee, whether at the employee's initiative or in the ordinary course of the employee's duties (or any person acting pursuant to a request of the employee), has engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee is protected against retaliation because the employee (or any person acting pursuant to a request of the employee) has:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided, caused to be provided, or is about to provide or cause to be provided to the employer, the Federal Government, or the attorney general of a State information relating to any violation of, or any act or omission the employee reasonably believes to be a violation of any provision of the FD&amp;C or any order, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the FD&amp;C;
</P>
<P>(2) Testified or is about to testify in a proceeding concerning such violation;
</P>
<P>(3) Assisted or participated or is about to assist or participate in such a proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(4) Objected to, or refused to participate in, any activity, policy, practice, or assigned task that the employee (or other such person) reasonably believed to be in violation of any provision of the FD&amp;C, or any order, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under the FD&amp;C.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> An employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of FSMA may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the employee resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of FSMA occurs, any employee who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of that section may file, or have filed by any person on the employee's behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint to be tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with an agency other than OSHA within 180 days after an alleged adverse action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1987.110(e). OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the FDA.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent and the complainant each may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent and the complainant each may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing (<I>i.e.,</I> a non-frivolous allegation) that a protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse action took place within a temporal proximity of the protected activity, or at the first opportunity available to the respondent, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1987.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated FSMA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigators, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon thereafter as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of FSMA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will require, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the administrative law judge (ALJ), regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1987.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22539, Apr. 18, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1793, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under FSMA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1987.105. The objections, request for a hearing, and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22539, Apr. 18, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1794, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22539, Apr. 18, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1794, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by the rules in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The FDA, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at the FDA's discretion. At the request of the FDA, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the FDA, whether or not the FDA is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1987.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order that will require, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board (ARB), U.S. Department of Labor. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review must be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the date of the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is denied or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing relief to the complainant. The order will require, where appropriate, affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22539, Apr. 18, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30625, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1794, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1987.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, but before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1987.113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22539, Apr. 18, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30626, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under FSMA, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred or in the United States district court for the District of Columbia. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under FSMA, a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy, either:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 90 days after receiving a written determination under § 1987.105(a) provided that there has been no final decision of the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(2) If there has been no final decision of the Secretary within 210 days of the filing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) At the request of either party, the action shall be tried by the court with a jury.
</P>
<P>(c) A proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section shall be governed by the same legal burdens of proof specified in § 1987.109. The court shall have jurisdiction to grant all relief necessary to make the employee whole, including injunctive relief and compensatory damages, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the employee would have had, but for the discharge or discrimination;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of back pay, with interest;
</P>
<P>(3) Compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the discharge or discrimination; and
</P>
<P>(4) Litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees.
</P>
<P>(d) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. In all cases, a copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1987.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.22.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1987.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of the rules in this part, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three days notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of FSMA requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1988" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1988—PROCEDURES FOR HANDLING RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER SECTION 31307 OF THE MOVING AHEAD FOR PROGRESS IN THE 21ST CENTURY ACT (MAP-21)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>49 U.S.C. 30171; Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (Jan. 18, 2012), 77 FR 3912 (Jan. 25, 2012); Secretary's Order No. 01-2020, 85 FR 13186 (March 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 13984, Mar. 16, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth procedures for, and interpretations of, section 31307 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21), Public Law 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 765 (July 6, 2012) (codified at 49 U.S.C. 30171). MAP-21 provides for employee protection from retaliation because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to the manufacture or sale of motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under MAP-21 for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures under MAP-21 for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. In addition, these rules provide the Secretary's interpretations on certain statutory issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom he or she delegates authority under MAP-21.
</P>
<P><I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P><I>Complainant</I> means the person who filed a MAP-21 complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer</I> or <I>Dealership</I> means a person selling and distributing new motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment primarily to purchasers that in good faith purchase the vehicles or equipment other than for resale.
</P>
<P><I>Defect</I> includes any defect in performance, construction, a component, or material of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an individual presently or formerly working for, an individual applying to work for, or an individual whose employment could be affected by a motor vehicle manufacturer, dealer, part supplier, or dealership.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means a person:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing or assembling motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment; or
</P>
<P>(2) Importing motor vehicles or motor vehicles equipment for resale.
</P>
<P><I>MAP-21</I> means Section 31307 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act of 2012, Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 765 (July 6, 2012) (codified at 49 U.S.C. 30171).
</P>
<P><I>Motor vehicle</I> means a vehicle driven or drawn by mechanical power and manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways, but does not include a 

vehicle operated only on a rail line.
</P>
<P><I>Motor vehicle equipment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any system, part, or component of a motor vehicle as originally manufactured;
</P>
<P>(2) Any similar part or component manufactured or sold for replacement or improvement of a system, part, or component, or as an accessory or addition to a motor vehicle; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any device or an article or apparel, including a motorcycle helmet and excluding medicine or eyeglasses prescribed by a licensed practitioner, that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a system, part or component of a motor vehicle; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is manufactured, sold, delivered, or offered to be sold for use on public streets, roads, and highways with the apparent purpose of safeguarding users of motor vehicles against risk of accident, injury, or death.
</P>
<P><I>NHTSA</I> means the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration of the United States Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P><I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means the person named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated MAP-21.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No motor vehicle manufacturer, part supplier, or dealership may discharge or otherwise retaliate against, including, but not limited to, intimidating, threatening, restraining, coercing, blacklisting or disciplining, an employee with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because the employee, or any person acting pursuant to the employee's request, has engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee is protected against retaliation (as described in paragraph (a) of this section) by a motor vehicle manufacturer, part supplier, or dealership because he or she:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided, caused to be provided, or is about to provide (with any knowledge of the employer) or cause to be provided to the employer or the Secretary of Transportation, information relating to any motor vehicle defect, noncompliance, or any violation or alleged violation of any notification or reporting requirement of Chapter 301 of Title 49 of the United States Code;
</P>
<P>(2) Filed, or caused to be filed, or is about to file (with any knowledge of the employer) or cause to be filed a proceeding relating to any motor vehicle defect, noncompliance, or any violation or alleged violation of any notification or reporting requirement of Chapter 301 of Title 49 of the United States Code;
</P>
<P>(3) Testified or is about to testify in such a proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Assisted or participated or is about to assist or participate in such a proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(5) Objected to, or refused to participate in, any activity that the employee reasonably believed to be in violation of any provision of Chapter 301 of Title 49 of the United States Code, or any order, rule, regulation, standard, or ban under such provision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> A person who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise retaliated against by any person in violation of MAP-21 may file, or have filed by any person on his or her behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the complainant resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following Internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of MAP-21 occurs, any person who believes that he or she has been retaliated against in violation of the MAP-21 may file, or have filed by any person on his or her behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic communication transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint to be tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with an agency other than OSHA within 180 days after an alleged adverse action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and paragraph (e) of § 1988.110. OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the NHTSA.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that a protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complaint shows that the adverse action took place within a temporal proximity of the protected activity, or at the first opportunity available to the respondent, giving rise to the inference that it was a contributing factor in the adverse action. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1988.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated MAP-21 and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigator, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon thereafter as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of MAP-21.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will require, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the ALJ, regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1988.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 13984, Mar. 16, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1794, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under MAP-21, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1988.105. The objections, request for a hearing, and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 13984, Mar. 16, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1794, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 13984, Mar. 16, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 1794, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) The NHTSA, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at NHTSA's discretion. At the request of NHTSA, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to NHTSA, whether or not it is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.109   Decision and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1988.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order that will require, where appropriate: Affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 14 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review Board (ARB), U.S. Department of Labor. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.110   Decision and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 14 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic communication transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. Copies of the petition for review must be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If no timely petition for review is filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If no timely petition for review is filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 14 days after the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 14 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing relief to the complainant. The order will require, where appropriate, affirmative action to abate the violation; reinstatement of the complainant to his or her former position, together with the compensation (including back pay and interest), terms, conditions, and privileges of the complainant's employment; and payment of compensatory damages, including, at the request of the complainant, the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses (including attorney and expert witness fees) reasonably incurred. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate calendar quarters. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has not violated the law, the ARB will issue an order denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 (or any successor to that order).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 13984, Mar. 16, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30626, May 20, 2020; 86 FR 1794, Jan. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw his or her complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of his or her withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (and each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw his or her complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1988.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, but before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1988.113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon his or her discretionary review) for which judicial review is available, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of a case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 13984, Mar. 16, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 30627, May 20, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under MAP-21, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement, or a final order, including one approving a settlement agreement, issued under MAP-21, a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Secretary has not issued a final decision with 210 days of the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy. At the request of either party, the action shall be tried by the court with a jury.
</P>
<P>(b) A proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section shall be governed by the same legal burdens of proof specified in § 1988.109.
</P>
<P>(c) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1988.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.23.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1988.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of these rules, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, after three-days' notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of MAP-21 requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1989" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1989—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE TAXPAYER FIRST ACT (TFA)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>26 U.S.C. 7623(d); Secretary of Labor's Order 08-2020 (May 15, 2020), 85 FR 58393 (September 18, 2020); Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2020 (Feb. 21, 2020), 85 FR 13024-01 (Mar. 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 12583, Mar. 7, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.1.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth procedures for, and interpretations of, section 1405(b) of the Taxpayer First Act (TFA), Public Law 116-25, 133 Stat. 981 (July 1, 2019) (codified at 26 U.S.C. 7623(d)). TFA provides for employee protection from retaliation because the employee has engaged in protected activity pertaining to underpayment of tax or any conduct which the employee reasonably believes constitutes a violation of the internal revenue laws or any provision of Federal law relating to tax fraud.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under TFA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by employees, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures under TFA for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. In addition, these rules provide the Secretary's interpretations on certain statutory issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.1.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom the Assistant Secretary delegates authority under TFA.
</P>
<P><I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P><I>Complainant</I> means the person who filed a TFA complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an individual presently or formerly working for, an individual applying to work for, or an individual whose employment could be affected by, another person.
</P>
<P><I>IRS</I> means the Internal Revenue Service of the United States Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, or estate.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means the person named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated TFA.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>TFA</I> means section 1405(b) of the Taxpayer First Act (TFA), Public Law 116-25, 133 Stat. 981 (July 1, 2019) (codified at 26 U.S.C. 7623(d)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.1.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employer or any officer, employee, contractor, subcontractor, or agent of such employer may discharge, demote, suspend, threaten, harass, or in any other manner retaliate against, including, but not limited to, intimidating, restraining, coercing, blacklisting, or disciplining, an employee in the terms and conditions of employment in reprisal for the employee having engaged in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee is protected against retaliation (as described in paragraph (a) of this section) by an employer or any officer, employee, contractor, subcontractor, or agent of such employer in reprisal for any lawful act done by the employee:
</P>
<P>(1) To provide information, cause information to be provided, or otherwise assist in an investigation regarding underpayment of tax or any conduct which the employee reasonably believes constitutes a violation of the internal revenue laws or any provision of Federal law relating to tax fraud, when the information or assistance is provided to the Internal Revenue Service, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Treasury Inspector General for Tax Administration, the Comptroller General of the United States, the Department of Justice, the United States Congress, a person with supervisory authority over the employee, or any other person working for the employer who has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate misconduct; or
</P>
<P>(2) To testify, participate in, or otherwise assist in any administrative or judicial action taken by the Internal Revenue Service relating to an alleged underpayment of tax or any violation of the internal revenue laws or any provision of Federal law relating to tax fraud.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.1.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> A person who believes that they have been discharged or otherwise retaliated against by any person in violation of TFA may file, or have filed by any person on their behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the complainant resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I> Complaints may also be filed online at <I>https://www.osha.gov/whistleblower/WBComplaint.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of TFA occurs, any person who believes that they have been retaliated against in violation of TFA may file, or have filed by any person on their behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic filing or transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint to be tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with an agency other than OSHA within 180 days after an alleged adverse action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.1.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent and the complainant's employer (if different) of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1989.110(e). OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the IRS.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA generally will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that a protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the employee engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy its burden set forth in the prior paragraph, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1989.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated TFA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigator, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon thereafter as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.1.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of TFA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will include all relief necessary to make the complainant whole including, where appropriate: Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; the sum of 200 percent of the amount of back pay and 100 percent of all lost benefits, with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621(a)(2) and will be compounded daily. Where appropriate, the preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by physical or electronic means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the ALJ, regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order, also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges if electronic filing is available. The findings also may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards with documents in the administrative litigation as required under this Part. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1989.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.2.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under TFA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1989.105. The objections and request for hearing and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and must state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, or both, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving then with copies of the objections.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.2.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at subpart A of part 18 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.2.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent, and the right to seek discretionary review of a decision of the Administrative Review Board (ARB) from the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by these rules. Except as otherwise provided in rules of practice and/or procedure before the OALJ or the ARB, OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving them with documents under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The IRS, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at the IRS's discretion. At the request of the IRS, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the IRS, whether or not it is participating in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.2.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.109   Decisions and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1989.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order providing all relief necessary to make the complainant whole, including, where appropriate: Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; the sum of 200 percent of the amount of back pay and 100 percent of all lost benefits, with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621(a)(2) and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of decisions on them under this section. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 30 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the Administrative Review ARB (ARB), U.S. Department of Labor. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.2.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.110   Decisions and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB, which has been delegated the authority to act for the Secretary and issue decisions under this part subject to the Secretary's discretionary review. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. All petitions and documents submitted to the ARB must be filed in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. The petition for review must also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of petitions for review on them under this section.






</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If a timely petition for review is not filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If a timely petition for review is not filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 30 days after the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 30 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of ARB decisions on them under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing all relief necessary to make the complainant whole. The order will require, where appropriate: Reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; the sum of 200 percent of the amount of back pay and 100 percent of all lost benefits, with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621(a)(2) and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary (as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary (as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 12583, Mar. 7, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 15273, Mar. 13, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.3.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw the complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of the withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw the complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1989.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, but before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. If the Secretary has accepted the case for discretionary review, or directed that the case be referred for discretionary review, the settlement must be approved by the Secretary. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, the ARB or the Secretary will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1989.113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.3.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order for which judicial review is available (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon discretionary review), any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of the case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.3.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order issued under TFA, including one approving a settlement agreement, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order issued under TFA, including one approving a settlement agreement, a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.3.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Secretary has not issued a final decision within 180 days of the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy. Either party shall be entitled to a trial by jury.
</P>
<P>(b) A proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section shall be governed by the same legal burdens of proof specified in § 1989.109.
</P>
<P>(c) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1989.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.24.3.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1989.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of these rules, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, and after three days' notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of TFA requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1990" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1990—IDENTIFICATION, CLASSIFICATION, AND REGULATION OF POTENTIAL OCCUPATIONAL CARCINOGENS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4, 6, 8, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 653, 655, 657); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-76 (41 FR 25059); and 29 CFR part 1911.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="30" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.30" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.30.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes criteria and procedures for the identification, classification, and regulation of potential occupational carcinogens found in each workplace in the United States regulated by the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (the Act). The procedures contained in this part supplement the procedural regulations in other parts of this chapter. In the event of a conflict, the procedures contained in this part shall govern the identification, classification, and regulation of potential occupational carcinogens. This part may be referred to as “The OSHA Cancer Policy.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.30.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.102   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The Act provides, among other things, that 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>the Secretary, in promulgating standards dealing with toxic materials or harmful physical agents under this section, shall set the standard which most adequately assures, to the extent feasible, on the basis of the best available evidence, that no employee will suffer material impairment of health or functional capacity even if such employee has regular exposure to the hazard dealt with by such standard for the period of his or her working life. Development of standards under this section shall be based upon research, demonstrations, experiments, and such other information as may be appropriate. In addition to the attainment of the highest degree of health and safety protection for the employee, other considerations shall be the latest available scientific data in the field, the feasibility of the standards, and experience gained under this and other health and safety laws. Whenever practicable, the standard promulgated shall be expressed in terms of objective criteria and of the performance desired (section 6(b)(5)).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>It is the purpose of the regulations of this part to carry out the intent of the Act with respect to the identification, classification, and regulation of potential occupational carcinogens. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.30.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Terms used in this part shall have the meanings set forth in the Act. In addition, as used in this part, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-596, 84 Stat. 1590 <I>et seq.,</I> 29 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.).</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Administrator of EPA</I> means the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Chairperson of CPSC</I> means the Chairman of the United States Consumer Product Safety Commission, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Commissioner of FDA</I> means the Commissioner of the Food and Drug Administration, United States Department of Health and Human Services, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Director of NCI</I> means the Director of the National Cancer Institute, United States Department of Health and Human Services, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Director of NIEHS</I> means the Director of the National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences, United States Department of Health and Human Services, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Director of NIOSH</I> means the Director of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, United States Department of Health and Human Services, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Mutagenesis</I> means the induction of heritable changes in the genetic material of either somatic or germinal cells. 
</P>
<P><I>Positive results in short-term tests</I> means positive results in assays for two or more of the following types of effect:
</P>
<P>(1) The induction of DNA damage and/or repair;
</P>
<P>(2) Mutagenesis in bacteria, yeast, <I>Neurospora</I> or <I>Drosophila melanogaster;</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) Mutagenesis in mammalian somatic cells;
</P>
<P>(4) Mutagenesis in mammalian germinal cells; or
</P>
<P>(5) Neoplastic transformation of mammalian cells in culture.
</P>
<P><I>Potential occupational carcinogen</I> means any substance, or combination or mixture of substances, which causes an increased incidence of benign and/or malignant neoplasms, or a substantial decrease in the latency period between exposure and onset of neoplasms in humans or in one or more experimental mammalian species as the result of any oral, respiratory or dermal exposure, or any other exposure which results in the induction of tumors at a site other than the site of administration. This definition also includes any substance which is metabolized into one or more potential occupational carcinogens by mammals. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary of HHS</I> means the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or designee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.30.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.104   Scientific review panel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time, the Secretary may request the Director of NCI, the Director of NIEHS and/or the Director of NIOSH to convene a scientific review panel (“the panel”) to provide recommendations to the Secretary in the identification, classification, or regulation of any potential occupational carcinogen. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Membership.</I> The panel will consist of individuals chosen by the respective Director(s). The panel will consist of individuals who are appropriately qualified in the disciplines relevant to the issues to be considered, and who are employed by the United States. The panel does not constitute an advisory committee within the meaning of section 6(b) or 7(b) of the Act, or the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Report.</I> The Secretary shall request that the panel submit a report of its evaluation within ninety (90) days after the appointment of the members of the panel. The Secretary shall place a copy of the report in the record of any relevant rulemaking undertaken pursuant to this part and allow an appropriate time for public review and comment. If a panel is not established or fails to file a timely report, or if the Secretary determines that it is necessary to proceed without waiting for the panel's report, the Secretary may proceed in making any determination without such report.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other aid and assistance.</I> Nothing herein precludes the Secretary from obtaining advice or other aid from any person or organization including NCI, NIEHS, and NIOSH.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.30.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.105   Advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may appoint an Advisory Committee, pursuant to sections 6(b) and 7 of the Act, and 29 CFR part 1912, concerning any potential occupational carcinogen. The Secretary shall require the Advisory Committee to submit its recommendations to assist the Secretary in standard setting no later than ninety (90) days from the date of the Advisory Committee's appointment, unless extended by the Secretary for exceptional circumstances. If an Advisory Committee fails to file a timely report, the Secretary may proceed in standard setting activities without such a report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.30.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.106   Amendments to this policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initiation of review of this policy</I>—(1) <I>Secretary's request.</I> No later than every three (3) years from the effective date of this part, or from the last general review, the Secretary shall request the Director of NCI, the Director of NIEHS and/or the Director of NIOSH, to review this part and render their opinions on whether significant scientific or technical advances made since the effective date of this part warrant any amendment to this part. The request shall ask that the answer be provided to the Secretary within one hundred twenty (120) days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Recommendations by the institutes.</I> At any time, the Director of NCI, the Director of NIEHS and/or the Director of NIOSH may submit recommendations to the Secretary for amendments to this part whenever any of them believes that scientific or technical advances justify such amendments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Petitions from the public.</I> (i) Any interested person may petition the Secretary concerning amendments to this part based upon substantial new issues or substantial new evidence.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this part, substantial new evidence is evidence which differs significantly from that presented in establishing this part, including amendments.
</P>
<P>(iii) For the purposes of this part, substantial new issues are issues which differ significantly from those upon which the Secretary has reached a conclusion in the rulemaking establishing this part (including the conclusions reached in the preamble). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Each petition to amend this part shall contain at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and address of petitioner;
</P>
<P>(B) The provisions which the petitioner believes are inappropriate;
</P>
<P>(C) All data, views and arguments relied upon by the petitioner; and 
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed statement and analysis as to why the petitioner believes that the data, views and arguments presented by petitioner: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Constitute substantial new issues or substantial new evidence; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Are so significant as to warrant amendment of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to recommendations and petitions</I>—(1) <I>By the institutes.</I> Whenever any Director recommends an amendment to this part, the Secretary shall, within one hundred twenty (120) days after receipt of the recommendation, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a notice which:
</P>
<P>(i) States the reasons why the Secretary has determined not to commence a rulemaking proceeding to amend this part, in whole or in part, at that time; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Commences a rulemaking proceeding to consider amending this part accordingly; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Appoints an Advisory Committee as provided for by § 1990.105 of this part and sections 6(b) and 7 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By the public.</I> Within ninety (90) days, or as soon thereafter as possible, after receipt of a petition pursuant to § 1990.106(a)(3), the Secretary shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Refer the petition to the Director of NCI, the Director of NIEHS and/or the Director of NIOSH, in which case the provisions of § 1990.106 (a)(1) and (b)(1) are applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Appoint an advisory committee;
</P>
<P>(iii) Deny the petition, briefly giving the reasons therefor; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Commence a rulemaking proceeding to consider amending this part accordingly. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>On the Secretary's motion.</I> At any time, the Secretary may, on his own motion, commence a rulemaking proceeding to amend this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980; 45 FR 43405, June 27, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="31" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.31" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>The OSHA Cancer Policy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.31.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.111   General statement of regulatory policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the criteria and procedures under which substances will be regulated by OSHA as potential occupational carcinogens. Although the conclusive identification of “carcinogens” is a complex matter “on the frontiers of science,” (<I>IUD</I> v. <I>Hodgson</I> 499 F. 2d 467, 474 (D.C. Cir. 1974)), responsible health regulatory policy requires that criteria should be specified for the identification of substances which should be regulated as posing potential cancer risks to workers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The criteria established by this part are based on an extensive review of scientific data and opinions. The part provides for amending these criteria in light of new scientific developments. Decisions as to whether any particular substance meets the criteria or not will be consistent with the policies and procedures established by this part and will be based upon scientific evaluation of the evidence on that substance. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part applies to individual substances, groups of substances, or combinations or mixtures of substances which may be found in workplaces in the United States. In individual rulemaking proceedings under this part, the identity and range of substances and mixtures to be covered by the standard will be specified and the appropriateness of applying the available evidence to the range of substances and mixtures proposed for regulation will be subject to scientific and policy review. 
</P>
<P>(d) Potential occupational carcinogens will be identified and classified on the basis of human epidemiological studies and/or experimental carcinogenesis bioassays in mammals. Positive results in short term tests will also be used as concordant evidence. 
</P>
<P>(e) Potential occupational carcinogens will be classified and regulated in accordance with the policy. The scientific evidence as to whether individual substances meet these criteria will be considered in individual rulemakings. The issues which may be considered in these rulemakings will be limited as specified herein. 
</P>
<P>(f) This policy provides for the classification of potential occupational carcinogens into two categories depending on the nature and extent of the available scientific evidence. The two categories of potential occupational carcinogens may be regulated differently. 
</P>
<P>(g) The policy establishes a procedure for setting priorities and making them public. 
</P>
<P>(h) Worker exposure to Category I Potential Carcinogens will be reduced primarily through the use of engineering and work practice controls.
</P>
<P>(i) Worker exposure to Category II Potential Carcinogens will be reduced as appropriate and consistent with the statutory requirements on a case-by-case basis in the rulemaking proceedings on individual substances. Any permissible exposure level so established shall be met primarily through engineering and work practice controls. 
</P>
<P>(j) The assessment of cancer risk to workers resulting from exposure to a potential occupational carcinogen will be made on the basis of available data. Because of the uncertainties and serious consequences to workers if the estimated risk is understated, cautious and prudent assumptions will be utilized to perform risk assessments.
</P>
<P>(k) Where the Secretary determines that one or more suitable substitutes exist for certain uses of Category I Potential Carcinogens that are less hazardous to humans, a no occupational exposure level shall be set for those uses, to be achieved solely through the use of engineering and work practice controls to encourage substitution. In determining whether a substitute is suitable, the Secretary will consider the technological and economic feasibility of the introduction of the substitute, including its relative effectiveness and other relevant factors, such as regulatory requirements and the time needed for an orderly transition to the substitute. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 5881, Jan. 21, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.31.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.112   Classification of potential carcinogens.</HEAD>
<P>The following criteria for identification, classification and regulation of potential occupational carcinogens will be applied, unless the Secretary considers evidence under the provisions of §§ 1990.143, 1990.144 and 1990.145 and determines that such evidence warrants an exception to these criteria. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Category I Potential Carcinogens.</I> A substance shall be identified, classified, and regulated as a Category I Potential Carcinogen if, upon scientific evaluation, the Secretary determines that the substance meets the definition of a potential occupational carcinogen in (1) humans, or (2) in a single mammalian species in a long-term bioassay where the results are in concordance with some other scientifically evaluated evidence of a potential carcinogenic hazard, or (3) in a single mammalian species in an adequately conducted long-term bioassay, in appropriate circumstances where the Secretary determines the requirement for concordance is not necessary. Evidence of concordance is any of the following: positive results from independent testing in the same or other species, positive results in short-term tests, or induction of tumors at injection or implantation sites. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Category II Potential Carcinogens.</I> A substance shall be identified, classified, and regulated as a Category II Potential Carcinogen if, upon scientific evaluation, the Secretary determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The substance meets the criteria set forth in § 1990.112(a), but the evidence is found by the Secretary to be only “suggestive”; or
</P>
<P>(2) The substance meets the criteria set forth in § 1990.112(a) in a single mammalian species without evidence of concordance. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="32" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.32" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Priority Setting</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.121" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.32.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.121   Candidate list of potential occupational carcinogens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents.</I> The Secretary shall prepare a list of substances (the “Candidate List”) which are reported to be present in any American workplace and which, on the basis of a brief scientific review of available data, may be considered candidates for further scientific review and possible regulation as Category I Potential Carcinogens or Category II Potential Carcinogens. For the purposes of this paragraph, “available data” means:
</P>
<P>(1) The data submitted by any person;
</P>
<P>(2) Any data referred to by the Secretary of HHS or by the Director of NIOSH, either in the latest list entitled “Suspected Carcinogens” or any other communication; 
</P>
<P>(3) Literature referred to in U.S. Public Health Service, Publication No. 149;
</P>
<P>(4) Data summarized and reviewed in Monographs of the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) of the World Health Organization;
</P>
<P>(5) The Toxic Substances Control Act Inventory of Chemical Substances, published by the Administrator of EPA;
</P>
<P>(6) The Secretary of HHS's Annual Report to the President and the Congress as required by the Community Mental Health Centers Extension Act of 1978, section 404(a)(9), 42 U.S.C. 285.
</P>
<P>(7) Any other relevant data of which the Secretary has actual knowledge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tentative classification.</I> The Secretary may tentatively designate substances on the Candidate List as candidates for classification as Category I Potential Carcinogens or as Category II Potential Carcinogens, or may list substances without a tentative designation, based on the brief scientific review of available data for the purpose of initiating a more extensive scientific review.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No legal rights established.</I> The inclusion or exclusion of any substance from the Candidate List shall not be subject to judicial review nor be the basis of any legal action, nor shall the exclusion of any substance from the list prevent the regulation of that substance as a potential occupational carcinogen. The inclusion of a substance on the Candidate List and its possible tentative designation as a Category I Potential Carcinogen or a Category II Potential Carcinogen therein do not reflect a final scientific determination that the substance is, in fact, a Category I Potential Carcinogen or a Category II Potential Carcinogen. It is a policy determination based on the brief scientific review that the Secretary should conduct a thorough review of all relevant scientific data concerning the substance. 
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 48 FR 243, Jan. 4, 1983, in § 1990.121, paragraphs (a) and (b) were stayed in order to evaluate the impact of publishing the Candidate Lists and Priority List and to reconsider the criteria used in establishing the lists (see also 47 FR 187, Jan. 5, 1982).</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.122" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.32.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.122   Response to petitions.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Secretary receives any information submitted in writing by any interested person concerning the inclusion or omission of any substance from the Candidate List, the Secretary shall briefly review the information and any other available data, as defined in § 1990.121(a). The results of the Secretary's review shall be transmitted to the petitioner, together with a short statement of the Secretary's reasons therefor, and made public upon request. 
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 48 FR 243, Jan. 4, 1983, § 1990.122 was stayed in order to evaluate the impact of publishing the Candidate List and Priority Lists and to reconsider the criteria used in establishing the lists (see also 47 FR 187, Jan. 5, 1982).</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.131" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.32.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.131   Priority lists for regulating potential occupational carcinogens.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall establish two priority lists for regulating potential occupational carcinogens. One list should include approximately ten (10) candidates for rulemaking as Category I Potential Carcinogens; the other approximately ten (10) candidates for rulemaking as Category II Potential Carcinogens. The order of placement of substances on these lists will not reflect the Secretary's determination of the exact order in which these substances should be regulated in rulemaking proceedings but rather a policy determination that the Secretary plans to address some or all of these substances prior to proceeding with a thorough scientific review of data concerning other substances on the Candidate List. The inclusion or exclusion of any substance on these lists shall not be subject to judicial review or be the basis for any legal action. The Secretary may regulate a potential occupational carcinogen which has not been placed on these lists. The inclusion of a substance on either of these lists does not reflect a final scientific determination that the substance is, in fact, a Category I Potential Carcinogen or a Category II Potential Carcinogen. 
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 48 FR 243, Jan. 4, 1983, § 1990.131 was stayed in order to evaluate the impact of publishing the Candidate List and Priority Lists and to reconsider the criteria used in establishing the lists (see also 47 FR 187, Jan. 5, 1982).</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.132" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.32.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.132   Factors to be considered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The setting of priorities is a complex matter which requires subjective and policy judgments. It is not appropriate to establish a rigid formula or to assign predetermined weight to each factor. The identification of some of the elements is to guide the OSHA staff and inform the public on the development of priorities. It is not intended to create any legal rights with respect to the setting of priorities. 
</P>
<P>(b) Some factors which may be taken into account in setting priorities for regulating potential occupational carcinogens, when such data are available, are: 
</P>
<P>(1) The estimated number of workers exposed; 
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated levels of human exposure; 
</P>
<P>(3) The levels of exposure to the substance which have been reported to cause an increased incidence of neoplasms in exposed humans, animals or both; 
</P>
<P>(4) The extent to which regulatory action could reduce not only risks of contracting cancer but also other occupational and environmental health hazards; 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the molecular structure of the substance is similar to the molecular structure of another substance which meets the definition of a potential occupational carcinogen; 
</P>
<P>(6) Whether there are substitutes that pose a lower risk of cancer or other serious human health problems, or available evidence otherwise suggests that the social and economic costs of regulation would be small; and 
</P>
<P>(7) OSHA will also consider its responsibilities for dealing with other health and safety hazards and will consider the actions being taken or planned by other governmental agencies in dealing with the same or similar health and safety hazards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.133" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.32.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.133   Publication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary shall publish the Candidate List in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least annually.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall publish the Priority Lists in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least every six months and may seek public comment thereon.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary may periodically publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice requesting information concerning the classification and establishment of priorities for substances on the Candidate List together with a brief statement describing the type of information being sought.
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 48 FR 243, Jan. 4, 1983, § 1990.133 was stayed in order to evaluate the impact of publishing the Candidate List and Priority Lists and to reconsider the criteria used in establishing the lists (see also 47 FR 187, Jan. 5, 1982).</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="33" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.33" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Regulation of Potential Occupational Carcinogens</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.141" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.33.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.141   Advance notice of proposed rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within thirty (30) days after OSHA initiates a study concerning the economic and/or technological feasibility of specific standards that might be applied in the regulation of a potential occupational carcinogen, the Secretary will normally publish, in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a notice which includes at least the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the substance(s),
</P>
<P>(2) The scope of the study, including where possible,
</P>
<P>(i) Affected industries,
</P>
<P>(ii) Levels of exposure being studied,
</P>
<P>(iii) The anticipated completion date of the study; 
</P>
<P>(3) A brief summary of the available data on health effects;
</P>
<P>(4) An estimate of when the Secretary anticipates the issuance of a proposal;
</P>
<P>(5) An invitation to interested parties to provide relevant information;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that persons wishing to provide OSHA with their own study should complete it within 30 days after the anticipated proposal date; and
</P>
<P>(7) A statement of the procedural requirements that must be met before substantial new issues or substantial new evidence will be considered in the proceeding pursuant to § 1990.145.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Secretary determines to discontinue a feasibility study, the Secretary should publish, within 30 days, a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> so indicating. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.142" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.33.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.142   Initiation of a rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Secretary decides to regulate a potential occupational carcinogen, the Secretary shall initiate a rulemaking proceeding in accordance with one of the following procedures, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of proposed rulemakings (section 6(b) of the Act)</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Secretary may issue a notice of proposed rulemaking in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> pursuant to section 6(b) of the Act and part 1911 of this chapter. The notice shall provide for no more than a sixty (60) day comment period, and may provide for a hearing, which shall be scheduled for no later than one hundred (100) days after publication of the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking. The commencement of the hearing may be postponed once, for no more than thirty (30) days, for good cause shown. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provisions of the proposed standard for Category I Potential Carcinogens.</I> Whenever the Secretary issues a notice of proposed rulemaking to regulate a substance as a Category I Potential Carcinogen: 
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed standard shall contain at least provisions for scope and application, definitions, notification of use, a permissible exposure limit, monitoring, regulated areas, methods of compliance including the development of a compliance plan, respiratory protection, protective clothing and equipment, housekeeping, waste disposal, hygiene facilities, medical surveillance, employee information and training, signs and labels, recordkeeping, and employee observation of monitoring as set forth in § 1990.151, unless the Secretary explains why any or all such provisions are not appropriate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The model standard set forth in § 1990.151 shall be used as a guideline, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The permissible exposure limit shall be achieved primarily through engineering and work practice controls except that if a suitable substitute is available for one or more uses no occupational exposure shall be permitted for those uses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provisions of the proposed standard for Category II Potential Carcinogens.</I> Whenever the Secretary issues a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking to regulate a substance as a Category II Potential Carcinogen: 
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed standard shall contain at least provisions for scope and application, definitions, notification of use, monitoring, respiratory protection, protective clothing and equipment, housekeeping, waste disposal, medical surveillance, employee information and training, recordkeeping and employee observation of monitoring as set forth in § 1990.151, unless the Secretary explains why any or all such provisions are not appropriate; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The model standard set forth in § 1990.151 shall be used as a guideline; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Worker exposure to Category II Potential Carcinogens will be reduced as appropriate and consistent with the statutory requirements on a case-by-case basis in the individual rulemaking proceedings. Any permissible exposure level so established shall be met primarily through engineering and work practice controls. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency temporary standards (section 6(c) of the Act)</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Secretary may issue an Emergency Temporary Standard (ETS) for a Category I Potential Carcinogen in accordance with section 6(c) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provisions of the ETS.</I> (i) The ETS shall contain at least provisions for scope and application, definitions, notification of use, a permissible exposure limit, monitoring, methods of compliance including the development of a compliance plan, respiratory protection, protective clothing and equipment, housekeeping, waste disposal, medical surveillance, employee information and training, signs and labels, recordkeeping and employee observation of monitoring, unless the Secretary explains why any or all such provisions are not appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The model standard set forth in § 1990.152 shall be used as a guideline. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The permissible exposure limit shall be achieved through any practicable combination of engineering controls, work practice controls and respiratory protection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 5881, Jan. 21, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.143" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.33.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.143   General provisions for the use of human and animal data.</HEAD>
<P>Human and animal data which are scientifically evaluated to be positive evidence for carcinogenicity including the following policies shall be uniformly relied upon for the identification of potential occupational carcinogens. Arguments challenging the following provisions or their application to specific substances will be considered in individual rulemaking proceedings only if the evidence presented in support of the arguments meets the criteria for consideration specified in § 1990.144 or § 1990.145. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Positive human studies.</I> Positive results obtained in one or more human epidemiologic studies will be used to establish the qualitative inference of carcinogenic hazards to workers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Positive animal studies.</I> Positive results obtained in one or more experimental studies conducted in one or more mammalian species will be used to establish the qualitative inference of carcinogenic hazard to workers. Arguments that positive results obtained in mammalian species should not be relied upon will be considered only if evidence is presented which meets the criteria for consideration specified in § 1990.144(c) or 1990.144(f). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-positive human studies.</I> Positive results in human or mammalian studies generally will be used for the qualitative identification of potential occupational carcinogens, even where non-positive results from human studies exist. Such non-positive results will be considered by the Secretary only if the studies or results meet the criteria set forth in § 1990.144(a). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-positive animal studies.</I> Positive results in one or more mammalian studies will be used for the qualitative identification of potential occupational carcinogens, even where non-positive studies exist in other mammalian species. Where non-positive and positive results exist in studies in the same species, the non-positive results will be evaluated. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Spontaneous tumors.</I> Positive results in human or mammalian studies for the induction or acceleration of induction of tumors of a type which occurs “spontaneously” in unexposed individuals will be used for the qualitative identification of potential occupational carcinogens. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Routes of exposure.</I> (1) Positive results in studies in which mammals are exposed via the oral, respiratory or dermal routes will be used for the qualitative identification of potential occupational carcinogens, whether tumors are induced at the site of application or distant sites. 
</P>
<P>(2) Positive results in studies in which mammals are exposed via any route of exposure and in which tumors are induced at sites distant from the site of administration will be used for the qualitative identification of potential occupational carcinogens. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Positive results in mammalian studies in which tumors are induced only at the site of administration, in which a substance or mixture of substances is administered by routes other than oral, respiratory or dermal, will be used as “concordant” evidence that a substance is a potential occupational carcinogen. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Arguments that such studies should not be relied upon will be considered only if evidence which meets the criteria set forth in § 1990.144(b) is provided. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of high doses in animal testing.</I> Positive results for carcinogenicity obtained in mammals exposed to high doses of a substance will be used to establish the qualitative inference of carcinogenic hazard to workers. Arguments that such studies should not be relied upon will be considered only if evidence which meets the criteria set forth in § 1990.144(d) is provided. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>“Threshold” or “No-effect” Levels.</I> No determination will be made that a “threshold” or “no-effect” level of exposure can be established for a human population exposed to carcinogens in general, or to any specific substance. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Benign tumors.</I> Results based on the induction of benign or malignant tumors, or both, will be used to establish a qualitative inference of carcinogenic hazard to workers. Arguments that substances that induce benign tumors do not present a carcinogenic risk to workers will be considered only if evidence that meets the criteria set forth in § 1990.144(e) is provided. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Statistical evaluation.</I> Statistical evaluation will be used in the determination of whether results in human, animal or short-term studies provide positive evidence for carcinogenicity, but will not be the exclusive means for such evaluation. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Carcinogenicity of metabolites.</I> A substance which is metabolized by mammals to yield one or more potential occupational carcinogens will itself be identified and classified as a potential occupational carcinogen, whether or not there is direct evidence that it induces tumors in humans or experimental animals. Evidence for such metabolism will normally be derived from <I>in vivo</I> studies in mammals. In appropriate circumstances, evidence may be derived from <I>in vitro</I> studies of mammalian tissues or fractions thereof. Arguments that evidence from <I>in vivo</I> metabolic studies in mammals is not relevant to the inference of carcinogenic hazard to humans will be considered only if such evidence meets the criteria set forth in § 1990.144(c). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980; 45 FR 43405, June 27, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.144" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.33.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.144   Criteria for consideration of arguments on certain issues.</HEAD>
<P>Arguments on the following issues will be considered by the Secretary in identifying or classifying any substance pursuant to this part, if evidence for the specific substance subject to the rulemaking conforms to the following criteria. Such arguments and evidence will be evaluated based upon scientific and policy judgments.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Non-positive results obtained in human epidemiologic studies.</I> Non-positive results obtained in human epidemiologic studies regarding the substance subject to the rulemaking or to a similar or closely related substance will be considered by the Secretary only if they meet the following criteria:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Criteria.</I> (i) The epidemiologic study involved at least 20 years' exposure of a group of subjects to the substance and at least 30 years' observation of the subjects after initial exposure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Documented reasons are provided for predicting the site(s) at which the substance would induce cancer if it were carcinogenic in humans; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The group of exposed subjects was large enough for an increase in cancer incidence of 50% above that in unexposed controls to have been detected at any of the predicted sites.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Arguments that non-positive results obtained in human epidemiologic studies should be used to establish numerical upper limits on potential risks to humans exposed to specific levels of a substance will be considered only if criteria (i) and (ii) are met and, in addition:
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Specific data on the level of exposure of the group of workers are provided, based either on direct measurements made periodically throughout the period of exposure, or upon other data which provide reliable evidence of the magnitude of exposure.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Tumors induced at site of administration.</I> Arguments that tumors at the site of administration should not be considered will be considered only if: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(i) The route of administration is not oral, respiratory or dermal; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Evidence is provided which establishes that induction of local tumors is related to the physical configuration or formulation of the material administered (e.g., crystalline form or dimensions of a solid material, or matrix of an impregnated implant) and that tumors are not induced when the same material is administered in a different configuration or formula.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Metabolic differences.</I> Arguments that differences in metabolic profiles can be used to demonstrate that a chemical found positive in an experimental study in a mammalian species would pose no potential carcinogenic risk to exposed workers will be considered by the Secretary only if the evidence presented for the specific substance subject to the rulemaking meets the following criteria:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Criteria.</I> (i) A complete metabolic profile, including identities of trace metabolites, is presented for the experimental animal species;
</P>
<P>(ii) A complete metabolic profile, including identities of trace metabolites, is available for a human population group representative of those who are occupationally exposed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Documented evidence is provided for ascribing the carcinogenic activity of the substance in the test animal species to metabolite(s) produced only in that species and not in humans; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Documented evidence is provided to show that other metabolites produced also in humans have been adequately tested and have not been shown to be carcinogenic.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) <I>Use of high doses in animal testing.</I> Arguments that positive results obtained in carcinogenesis bioassays with experimental animals subjected to high doses of a substance are not relevant to potential carcinogenic risks to exposed workers will be considered by the Secretary only if the evidence for the specific substance subject to the rulemaking meets the following criteria:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Criteria.</I> (i) Documented evidence is presented to show that the substance in question is metabolized by the experimental animal species exposed at the dose levels used in the bioassay(s) to metabolic products which include one or more that are not produced in the same species at lower doses. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Documented evidence is presented to show that the metabolite(s) produced only at high doses in the experimental animal species are the ultimate carcinogen(s) and that the metabolites produced at low doses are not also carcinogenic; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Documented evidence is presented to show that the metabolite(s) produced only at high doses in the experimental animal species are not produced in humans exposed to low doses.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Benign tumors.</I> The Secretary will consider evidence that the substance subject to the rulemaking proceeding is capable only of inducing benign tumors in humans or experimental animals provided that the evidence for the specific substance meets the following criteria:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Criteria.</I> (i) Data are available from at least two well-conducted bioassays in each of two species of mammals (or from equivalent evidence in more than two species); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each of the bioassays to be considered has been conducted for the full lifetime of the experimental animals; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The relevant tissue slides are made available to OSHA or its designee and the diagnoses of the tumors as benign are made by at least one qualified pathologist who has personally examined each of the slides and who provides specific diagnostic criteria and descriptions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) All of the induced tumors must be shown to belong to a type which is known not to progress to malignancy or to be at a benign stage when observed. In the latter case, data must be presented to show that multiple sections of the affected organ(s) were adequately examined to search for invasion of the tumor cells into adjacent tissue, and that multiple sections of other organs were adequately examined to search for tumor metastases.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Indirect mechanisms.</I> The Secretary will consider evidence that positive results obtained in a carcinogenesis bioassay with experimental animals are not relevant to a determination of a carcinogenic risk to exposed workers, if the evidence demonstrates that the mechanism by which the observed tumor incidence is effected is indirect and would not occur if humans were exposed. As examples, evidence will be considered that a substance causes a carcinogenic effect by augmenting caloric intake or that the carcinogenic effect from exposure to a substance is demonstrated to be the result of the presence of a carcinogenic virus and it is demonstrated that, in either case, the effect would not take place in the absence of the particular carcinogenic virus or the augmented caloric intake.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 5881, Jan. 21, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.145" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.33.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.145   Consideration of substantial new issues or substantial new evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Substantial new issues.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Secretary will consider in a rulemaking proceeding on a specific substance any substantial new issues upon which the Secretary did not reach a conclusion in the rulemaking proceeding(s) underlying this part including conclusions presented in the preamble. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substantial new evidence.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Secretary will consider in a rulemaking proceeding on a specific substance any arguments, data or views which he determines are based upon substantial new evidence which may warrant the amendment of one or more provisions of this part. For the purposes of this part, “substantial new evidence” is evidence directly relevant to any provision of this part and is based upon data, views or arguments which differ significantly from those presented in establishing this part, including amendments thereto. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petitions for consideration of substantial new evidence</I>—(1) <I>Petition.</I> Any interested person may file a written petition with the Secretary to consider “substantial new evidence” or one or more “substantial new issues” which contains the information specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The Secretary shall treat such a petition as a request to amend this part, as well as a petition to consider “substantial new evidence”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents.</I> Each petition for consideration of “substantial new evidence” or one or more “substantial new issues” shall contain at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(ii) All of the data, views and arguments that the petitioner would like the Secretary to consider;
</P>
<P>(iii) The provision or provisions that petitioner believes are inappropriate or should be added to this part in light of the new data, views, and arguments; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement which demonstrates that the data, views, and arguments relied upon by petitioners are directly relevant to the substance or class of substances that is the subject of a rulemaking or an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed statement and analysis as to why the petitioner believes that the data, views, and arguments presented by the petitioner: 
</P>
<P>(A) Differ significantly from those presented in the proceeding(s) which establish this part;
</P>
<P>(B) Are so substantial as to warrant amendment of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Constitute a new issue or new evidence within the meaning of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deadline for petitions.</I> (i) Petitions which comply with paragraph (c) of this section, shall be filed in accordance with the schedule set forth in the Advanced Notice of Proposed Rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(ii) In extraordinary cases the Secretary may consider evidence submitted after the deadline if the petitioner establishes that the evidence relied upon was not available and could not have reasonably been available in whole or substantial part by the deadline and that it is being submitted at the earliest possible time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Secretary's response.</I> (1) The Secretary shall respond to petitions under this paragraph in accordance with § 1990.106.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the Secretary determines that the “substantial new issue” or the “substantial new evidence” submitted under this paragraph is sufficient to initiate a proceeding to amend this part, the Secretary shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Issue a notice to consider amendment to this part and not proceed on the rulemaking concerning the individual substance until completion of the amendment proceeding; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Issue a notice to consider amendment to this part and consolidate it with the proceeding on the individual substance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.146" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.33.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.146   Issues to be considered in the rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 1990.145, after issuance of the advance notice of rulemaking, the proceedings for individual substances under this part shall be limited to consideration of the following issues:
</P>
<P>(a) Whether the substance, group of substances or combination of substances subject to the proposed rulemaking is appropriately considered in a single proceeding;
</P>
<P>(b) Whether the substance or group of substances subject to the rulemaking meets the definition of a potential occupational carcinogen set forth in § 1990.103, including whether the scientific studies are reliable;
</P>
<P>(c) Whether the available data can appropriately be applied to the substance, group of substances or combination of substances covered by the rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(d) Whether information, data, and views that are submitted in accordance with § 1990.144 are sufficient to warrant an exception to this part; 
</P>
<P>(e) Whether the data, views and arguments that are submitted in accordance with § 1990.145 are sufficient to warrant amendment of this part; 
</P>
<P>(f) Whether the potential occupational carcinogen meets the criteria for a Category I Potential Carcinogen or a Category II Potential Carcinogen.
</P>
<P>(g) The environmental impact arising from regulation of the substance;
</P>
<P>(h) Any issues required by statute or executive order;
</P>
<P>(i) The determination of the level to control exposures to Category I Potential Carcinogens primarily through the use of engineering and work practice controls including technological and economic considerations. 
</P>
<P>(j) The determination of the appropriate employee exposure level, consistent with the Act's requirements, for Category II Potential Carcinogens; 
</P>
<P>(k) Whether suitable substitutes are available for one or more uses of Category I Potential Carcinogens and; if so, the no occupational exposure level to be achieved solely with engineering and work practice controls and other issues relevant to substitution; and 
</P>
<P>(l) Whether the provisions of the proposal and of §§ 1990.151 and 1990.152 (model standards) are appropriate, except as limited by § 1990.142 and whether additional regulatory provisions may be appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 5881, Jan. 21, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.147" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.33.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.147   Final action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within one hundred twenty (120) days from the last day of any hearing or ninety (90) days from the close of any post hearing comment period, whichever occurs first, the Secretary shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register:</E> 
</P>
<P>(1) A final standard based upon the record in the proceeding; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that no final standard will be issued, and the reasons therefor, or 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the Secretary intends to issue a final rule, but that he is unable to do so at the present time, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) The reasons therefor; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date by which the standard will be published, which may not exceed one hundred twenty (120) days thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary may issue no more than one such notice, unless the Secretary determines that (A) new evidence which was unavailable during the rulemaking proceeding has just become available; (B) the evidence is so important that a final rule could not reasonably be issued without this evidence, and; (C) the record is reopened for receipt of comments and/or a hearing on this evidence. This paragraph does not require the Secretary to consider any evidence which is submitted after the dates established for the submission of evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) The failure of the Secretary to comply with the required timeframes shall not be a basis to set aside any standard or to require the issuance of a new proposal on any individual substance. 
</P>
<P>(c) The final standard shall state whether the substance or group of substances subject to the rulemaking is classified as a Category I Potential Carcinogen or as a Category II Potential Carcinogen. If the classification differs from that in the notice of proposed rulemaking, the Secretary shall explain the reasons for the change in classification in the preamble to the final standard. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the substance is classified as a Category I Potential Carcinogen, the final standard shall conform to the provisions of § 1990.142(a)(2)(iii). If the final standard contains other provisions that substantially differ from the proposed provisions, the Secretary shall explain the reasons for the changes in the preamble to the final standard. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the substance is classified as a Category II potential carcinogen, the final standard shall conform to the provisions of § 1990.142(a)(3)(iii). If the final standard contains other provisions that substantially differ from the proposed provisions, the Secretary shall explain the reasons for the changes in the preamble to the final standard. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the substance is classified as a Category II potential carcinogen, the Secretary shall notify the applicable federal and state agencies, including the Administrator of EPA, the Director of NCI, the Director of NIEHS, the Director of NIOSH, the Commissioner of FDA and the Chairperson of CPSC of such determination and request that the applicable agencies engage in, or stimulate, further research pursuant to their legislative authority, to develop new and additional scientific data. 
</P>
<P>(g) If, after a rulemaking, the Secretary determines that the substance under consideration should not be classified as a Category I potential carcinogen or a Category II potential carcinogen, the Secretary shall publish a notice of this determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> together with the reasons therefor. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="34" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.34" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Model Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.151" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.34.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.151   Model standard pursuant to section 6(b) of the Act.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Occupational Exposure to ________ 
</HD3>
<HD3>Permanent Standard (insert section number of standard)</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This section applies to all occupational exposures to ___ or to (specify those uses or classes of uses of ___ [Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 0000] which are covered by the standard, including, where appropriate, the type of exposure to be regulated by the standard) except as provided in paragraph (a)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section does not apply to (insert those uses or classes of uses of ___ which are exempted from compliance with the standard, including, where appropriate,
</P>
<P>(i) Workplaces where exposure to ___ results from solid or liquid mixtures containing a specified percentage of ___ or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) Workplaces where another Federal agency is exercising statutory authority to prescribe or enforce standards or regulations affecting occupational exposure to ___ or
</P>
<P>(iii) Workplaces which are appropriately addressed in a separate standard).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P>___ means (definition of the substance, group of substances, <I>or combination of substances, to be regulated</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means an airborne concentration of ___ of (insert appropriate level of exposure).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where appropriate, consider an action level as a limitation on requirements for periodic monitoring (para. (e)(3)), medical surveillance (para. (n)), training (para. (o)), labels (para. (p)(3)), and other provisions.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter regulated areas or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees for the purpose of exercising the opportunity to observe monitoring procedures under paragraph (r) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health, and Health Services, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means in any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment which may result in a massive release of _____ which is (insert appropriate quantitative or qualitative level of release which constitutes an emergency).
</P>
<P><I>OSHA Area Office</I> means the Area Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration having jurisdiction over the geographic area where the affected workplace is located. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits provisions</I>—(1) <I>Inhalation</I>—(i) <I>Time weighted average limit (TWA).</I> Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, the employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of ___in excess of: (insert appropriate exposure limit or when it is determined by the Secretary that there are available suitable substitutes for uses or classes of uses that are less hazardous to humans, the proposal shall permit no occupational exposure) as an eight (8)-hour-time-weighted average. 
</P>
<FP>(Where the Secretary finds that suitable substitutes for ___may exist, the determination of the ___level shall include consideration of the availability, practicability, relative degree of hazard, and economic consequences of the substitutes.)
</FP>
<P>(ii) <I>Ceiling limit (if appropriate).</I> Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, the employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of ___in excess of: (insert exposure limit) as averaged over any: (insert appropriate time period) during the working day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dermal and eye exposure.</I> (As appropriate.) (i) Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, the employer shall (If eye exposure to ___does not create a risk of cancer, insert exposure level or criteria which will prevent other adverse health effects of eye exposure to ___if any. If eye exposure creates a risk of cancer, insert exposure level or criteria which represents the level of eye exposure to ___).
</P>
<P>(ii) Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, the employer shall (If skin exposure to ___does not create a risk of cancer, insert exposure level or criteria which will prevent other adverse health effects of skin exposure to ___if any. If skin exposure creates a risk of cancer, insert exposure level or criteria which represents the level of skin exposure to ____).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of use and emergencies</I>—(1) <I>Use.</I> Within (insert appropriate time period and additional information requirements if appropriate), of the effective date of this standard or within thirty days of the introduction of ___ into the workplace, every employer who has a place of employment in which ___ is present shall report the address and location of each place of employment to the OSHA Area Office and an estimate of the number of employees exposed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergencies.</I> Emergencies, and the facts obtainable at that time, shall be reported within (insert appropriate number) hours of, or during the first federal working day after, the time the employer becomes aware of the emergency to the OSHA Area Office, whichever is longer. Upon request of the OSHA Area Office, the employer shall submit additional information in writing relevant to the nature and extent of employee exposures and measures taken to prevent future emergencies of a similar nature. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of airborne exposure levels shall be made from air samples that are representative of each employee's exposure to ___ over an eight (8) hour period. (Modify the time period as appropriate to be practical in the relevant industries yet reasonably representative of full shift exposures.) Monitoring of exposure levels required under this paragraph shall be made as follows: [insert method or alternative methods to be used to meet the requirements of this paragraph]. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purpose of this section, employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> Each employer who has one or more workplaces where (specify the types of workplaces subject to the monitoring requirement) shall, within (insert appropriate period) of the effective date of this section (insert requirements for initial monitoring, as appropriate).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency.</I> (Insert, if appropriate, provisions prescribing the minimum frequency at which monitoring must be repeated, the conditions under which such frequency must be increased or may be reduced, and conditions under which such routine monitoring may be discontinued (for example, where the action level is not exceeded). Where appropriate, specify different frequency requirements for certain types of workplaces where, for example, exposure levels are subject to greater or less variability.) 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> (Insert, if appropriate, provisions for monitoring, in addition to the requirements (if any) of paragraph (e)(3). This may include a production, process, control or personnel change which might result in new or additional exposure to _______,
</P>
<FP>or whenever the employer has any other reason to suspect a change which might result in new or additional exposures to ____________.) 
</FP>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) Within (insert appropriate period) after the receipt of monitoring results, the employer shall notify each employee in writing of the results which represent that employee's exposure. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the results indicate that the representative employee exposure exceeds the permissible exposure limits, the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that the permissible exposure limits were exceeded and a description of the corrective action being taken to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limits. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> (Insert requirements for accuracy of methods of measurement or detection used to comply with the paragraph). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Regulated areas.</I> (1) Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, the employer shall, where practicable, establish regulated areas where ______ concentrations are in excess of the permissible exposure limits. 
</P>
<P>(2) Regulated areas shall be demarcated and segregated from the rest of the workplace, in any manner that minimizes the number of persons who will be exposed to ______. 
</P>
<P>(3) Access to regulated areas shall be limited to authorized persons or to persons otherwise authorized by the Act or regulations issued pursuant thereto. 
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall assure that in the regulated area, food or beverages are not present or consumed, smoking products are not present or used, and cosmetics are not applied (except that these activities may be conducted in the lunchroom, change rooms and showers required under paragraphs (m)(1) through (m)(3) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Engineering and work practice controls.</I> (i) The employer shall institute engineering or work practice controls to reduce and maintain employee exposures to ______ to or below the permissible exposure limits, except to the extent that the employer establishes that such controls are not feasible. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Engineering and work practice controls shall be implemented to reduce exposures even if they will not be sufficient to reduce exposures to or below the permissible exposure limits. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance program.</I> (i) Within (insert appropriate period) of the effective date of this section, the employer shall establish and implement a written program to reduce exposures to or below the permissible exposure limits by means of engineering and work practice controls, as required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Written plans for these compliance programs shall include at least the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each operation or process resulting in employee exposure to ______ 
</P>
<P>(B) Engineering plans and other studies contemplated or used to determine the controls for each process; 
</P>
<P>(C) A report of the technology considered or to be considered in meeting the permissible exposure limits; 
</P>
<P>(D) A detailed schedule for the implementation of engineering or work practice controls; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Other relevant information reasonably requested by OSHA. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Written plans for such a program shall be submitted, upon request, to the Assistant Secretary and the Director, and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Assistant Secretary, the Director, or any affected employee or designated representative. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The plans required by this paragraph shall be revised and updated periodically to reflect the current status of the program. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall assure that respirators are used where required pursuant to this section to reduce employee exposures to or below the permissible exposure limits and in emergencies. Compliance with the permissible exposure limits may not be achieved by the use of respirators except: 
</P>
<P>(i) During the time period necessary to install or implement feasible engineering and work practice controls; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In work operations in which the employer establishes that engineering and work practice controls are not feasible; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) In work situations where feasible engineering and work practice controls are not yet sufficient to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limits; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) In emergencies. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Where respiratory protection is required under this section, the employer shall select and provide at no cost to the employee, the appropriate type of respirator from Table 1 below and shall assure that the employee wears the respirator provided. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Table 1—Respiratory Protection
</HD1>
<HD1>for ______
</HD1>
<P>(The table will contain a listing of the appropriate type of respirator for various conditions of exposure to ______).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall select respirators from those approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health under the provisions of 30 CFR part 11. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer shall institute a respiratory protection program in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.134 (b), (d), (e), and (f). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees who wear respirators shall be allowed to wash their face and respirator facepiece to prevent potential skin irritation associated with respirator use. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that the respirator issued to each employee is properly fitted (as appropriate, indicate the requirement for a qualitative or quantitative respirator fit testing program). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency situations</I>—(1) <I>Written plans.</I> (i) A written plan for emergency situations shall be developed for each workplace where ______ is present. Appropriate portions of the plan shall be implemented in the event of an emergency. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan shall specifically provide that employees engaged in correcting emergency conditions shall be equipped with respirators as required in paragraph (h) of this section and other necessary personal protective equipment as required in paragraph (j) until the emergency is abated. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alerting employees</I>—(i) <I>Alarms.</I> Where there is the possibility of employee exposure to ______ due to the occurrence of an emergency, a general alarm shall be installed and maintained to promptly alert employees of such occurrences. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Evacuation.</I> Employees not engaged in correcting the emergency shall be restricted from the area and shall not be permitted to return until the emergency is abated. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protective clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where employees are exposed to eye or skin contact with ______ (insert criteria which trigger this requirement as appropriate), the employer shall, within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section provide at no cost to such employees, and assure that such employees wear, appropriate protective clothing or other equipment in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.132 and 1910.133 to protect the area of the body which may come in contact with ______. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall clean, launder, maintain, or replace protective clothing and equipment required to maintain their effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall, within appropriate time period of the effective date of this section, implement a housekeeping program to minimize accumulation of ______.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific provisions.</I> The program shall include (insert appropriate elements). 
</P>
<P>(i) Periodic scheduling of routine housekeeping. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision for periodic cleaning of dust collection systems. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provision for maintaining clean surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provision for assigning personnel to housekeeping procedures; and the 
</P>
<P>(v) Provision for informing employees about housekeeping program. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Waste disposal</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall assure that no waste material containing ______ is dispersed into the workplace, to the extent practicable. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall label, or otherwise inform employees who may contact waste material containing ______, the contents of such waste material. 
</P>
<P>(3) (Insert specific disposal methods, as appropriate.) 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Hygiene facilities and practices.</I> Where employees are exposed to airborne concentrations of ______ in excess of the permissible exposure limits specified in paragraph (c)(1), or where employees are required to wear protective clothing or equipment pursuant to paragraph (j) of this section, or where otherwise found to be appropriate, the following facilities shall be provided by the employer for the use of those employees and the employer shall assure that the employees use the facilities provided. 
</P>
<P>[Specify appropriate hygiene facilities and practices such as]: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Change rooms.</I> The employer shall provide clean change rooms in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.141(e). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Showers.</I> (i) The employer shall provide shower facilities in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.141(d)(3). 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that employees exposed to ______ shower at the end of the work shift. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lunchrooms</I> (if appropriate or other suitable requirements depending on the circumstances). Whenever food or beverages are consumed in the workplace, the employer shall provide lunchroom facilities which have a temperature controlled, positive pressure, filtered air supply, and which are readily accessible to employees exposed to ______. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall institute a program of medical surveillance for (specify the types of employees subject to the medical surveillance requirement, for example, by specifying the level, duration, and frequency of exposure to ______ which make medical surveillance appropriate for individual employees). The employer shall provide each such employee with an opportunity for medical examinations and tests in accordance with this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and shall be provided without cost to the employee. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examinations.</I> Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section or thereafter at the time of initial assignment, the employer shall provide each employee specified in paragraph (n)(1) of this section an opportunity for a medical examination, including at least the following elements: 
</P>
<P>(i) A work history and a medical history which shall include: (insert specific areas to be covered pertinent to the health hazards posed by ______________). 
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical examination which shall include: (insert specific tests, procedures, etc., pertinent to the health hazards posed by ______________.) Where appropriate, provide that the examining physician shall conduct such additional examinations and tests as are needed according to his professional judgment).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where appropriate, require or permit different medical protocols, or different frequencies of medical examinations, for separate sub-populations of employees covered under paragraph (n)(1).</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (i) The employer shall provide the examinations specified below in this subparagraph at least (insert appropriate time) for all employees specified in paragraph (n)(3)(i) of this section: (insert appropriate medical protocol for periodic examinations). 
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employee has not had the examinations prescribed in paragraph (n)(3)(i) of this section within (insert appropriate time period) prior to termination of employment, the employer shall make such examination available to the employee upon such termination. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional examinations.</I> If the employee for any reason develops signs or symptoms commonly associated with exposure to ______, the employer shall provide appropriate examination and emergency medical treatment. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician: 
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this standard and its appendices; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's actual or representative exposure level; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The employee's anticipated or estimated exposure level (for preplacement examinations or in cases of exposure due to an emergency); 
</P>
<P>(v) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The names and addresses of physicians who, under the sponsorship of the employer, provided previous medical examinations of the affected employee, if such records are not otherwise available to the examining physician. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician which shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) The physician's certification that he has received the information from the employer required under the paragraph (n)(5) and has performed all medical examinations and tests which are in his opinion appropriate under this standard; 
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition which would place the employee at an increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from exposure to ______ 
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to ______ or upon the use of protective clothing and equipment such as respirators; and 
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions which require further examination or treatment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to ______ 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the written opinion to the affected employee. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Employee information and training</I>—(1) <I>Training program.</I> (i) Within (insert appropriate time period) from the effective date of this section, the employer shall institute a training program for all employees who (specify the employees subject to the training requirement), and shall assure their participation in the training program. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The training program shall be provided at the time of initial assignment, or upon institution of the training program, and at least (insert appropriate time period) thereafter, and the employer shall assure that each employee is informed of the following:
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Specify, as appropriate, some or all of the following information, or any other appropriate information. Where appropriate, require training programs with different contents, or different frequencies, for separate subpopulations of the employees specified in paragraph (o)(1).</P></NOTE>
<P>(A) The information contained in the Appendices; 
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity, location, manner of use, release or storage of ______ and the specific nature of operations which could result in exposure to ______, as well as any necessary protective steps; 
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose, proper use, and limitations of respirators; 
</P>
<P>(D) The purpose and a description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (n) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(E) The emergency procedures developed, as required by paragraph (i) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(F) The engineering and work practice controls, their function and the employee's relationship thereto; and 
</P>
<P>(G) A review of this standard. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make a copy of this standard and its appendices readily available to all affected employees. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Signs and labels</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer may use labels or signs required by other statutes, regulations, or ordinances in addition to, or in combination with, signs and labels required by this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that no statement appears on or near any sign or label, required by this paragraph, which contradicts or detracts from the meaning of the required sign or label. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post signs to clearly indicate all workplaces. (Specify as appropriate the description of the area to be signposted such as “where employees are exposed to ____________,” or “where exposures exceed the action level,” or “where exposures exceed the PEL,” or “which are regulated areas”). The signs shall bear the following legend: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>DANGER 
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(insert appropriate trade or common names) 
</FP>
<HD1>CANCER HAZARD 
</HD1>
<HD1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</HD1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that signs required by this paragraph are illuminated and cleaned as necessary so that the legend is readily visible. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where airborne concentrations of ______ exceed the permissible exposure limits, the signs shall bear the additional legend: “Respirator Required” or “Respirator May Be Required” as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labels.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that precautionary labels are affixed to all containers of ______ and of products containing ______ (specify if appropriate suitable modifications), and that the labels remain affixed when the ______ or products containing ______ are sold, distributed or otherwise leave the employer's workplace. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that the precautionary labels required by this paragraph are readily visible and legible. The labels shall bear the following legend: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>DANGER 
</HD3>
<HD3>CONTAINS ______
</HD3>
<HD3>CANCER HAZARD</HD3></EXTRACT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Utilize the clause “POTENTIAL CANCER HAZARD” if it is appropriate to include a signs and labels provision for a Category II potential carcinogen.</P></NOTE>
<P>(q) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all monitoring required by paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) The dates, number, duration, and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the sampling procedure used to determine representative employees exposure; 
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used; 
</P>
<P>(C) Type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Name, social security number and job classification of the employees monitored and of all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for (insert appropriate period) or for the duration of employment plus (insert appropriate period) whichever is longer. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of each employee subject to medical surveillance as required by paragraph (n) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the physicians' written opinions or a written explanation of the absence of any such opinion or employee refusal to take the medical examination: 
</P>
<P>(B) Any employees medical complaints related to exposure
</P>
<FP>to ______ 
</FP>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraphs (n)(5)(ii) through (v) of this section unless it is systematically retained elsewhere by the employer for the period of time specified in paragraph (q)(2)(ii); and 
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the employee's work history. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that this record be maintained for (insert appropriate period) or for the duration of employment plus (insert appropriate period) whichever is longer. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that all records required to be maintained by this section be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee exposure measurement records and employee medical records required by this section shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20(a) through (e) and (g) through (i). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer of records.</I> (i) Whenever the employer ceases to do business, the successor employer shall receive and retain all records required to be maintained by this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the employer ceases to do business and there is no successor employer to receive and retain the records for the prescribed period, these records shall be transmitted to the Director. 
</P>
<P>(iii) At the expiration of the retention period for the records required to be maintained pursuant to this section, the employer shall transmit these records to the Director. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer shall also comply with any additional requirements involving transfer of records set forth in 29 CFR 1910.20(h). 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Include other recordkeeping requirements if appropriate.</P></NOTE>
<P>(r) <I>Observation of monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Employee observation.</I> The employer shall provide affected employees, or their designated representatives, an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to ______ conducted pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> (i) Whenever observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to ______ requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with personal protective clothing or equipment required to be worn by employees working in the area, assure the use of such clothing and equipment, and require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Without interfering with the monitoring, observers shall be entitled to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Receive an explanation of the measurement procedures; 
</P>
<P>(B) Observe all steps related to the measurement of airborne concentrations of ______ performed at the place of exposure; and
</P>
<P>(C) Record the results obtained, and receive results supplied by the laboratory. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Effective date.</I> This section shall become effective (insert effective date). 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices is not intended, by itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligation. (In normal circumstances three appendices will be included in each standard, an “Appendix A—Substance Safety Data Sheet,” an “Appendix B—Substance Technical Guidelines,” and an “Appendix C—Medical Surveillance Guidelines.” Insert additional appendices or delete any of the suggested appendices as appropriate.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980; 45 FR 43405, 43406, June 27, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 5881, Jan. 21, 1981] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1990.152" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.25.0.34.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1990.152   Model emergency temporary standard pursuant to section 6(c) of the Act.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Occupational Exposure to ______
</HD3>
<HD3>Emergency Temporary Standard (insert section number of standard)</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and application</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This section applies to all occupational exposures to ______, or to (specify the uses of classes of uses of ______ [Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 00000], which are covered by the standard, including, where appropriate, the type of exposure to be regulated by the standard) except as provided in paragraph (a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exemption.</I> This section does not apply to (insert those uses or classes of uses of ______ which are exempted from compliance with the standard, including, where appropriate, 
</P>
<P>(i) Workplaces where exposure to ______ results from solid or liquid mixtures containing a specified percentage of ______ or less; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Workplaces where another Federal agency is exercising statutory authority to prescribe or enforce standards or regulations affecting occupational exposure to ______ or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Workplaces which are appropriately addressed in a separate standard. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P>______ means (definition of the substance, group of substances, or combination of substances, to be regulated). 
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means an airborne concentration of ______ of (insert appropriate level of exposure). 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where appropriate, consider an action level as a limitation on requirements for periodic monitoring (para. (e)(3)), medical surveillance (para. (n)), training (para, (o)), and other provisions.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Labor, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person specifically authorized by the employer whose duties require the person to enter a regulated area or any person entering such an area as a designated representative of employees exercising the opportunity to observe monitoring procedures under paragraph (r) of this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, U.S. Department of Health, Education and Welfare, or designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment which may result in a release of ______ which is (insert appropriate quantitative or qualitative level of release which constitutes an emergency). 
</P>
<P><I>OSHA Area Office</I> means the Area Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration having jurisdiction over the geographic area where the affected workplace is located. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible exposure limits</I>—(1) <I>Inhalation</I>—(i) <I>Time-weighted average limit (TWA).</I> Within (insert appropriate time) from the effective date of this emergency temporary standard, the employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of ______in excess of: (insert appropriate exposure limit representing a level that can be complied with immediately) as an eight (8)-hour-time-weighted average. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ceiling limit (if appropriate).</I> The employer shall assure that no employee is exposed to an airborne concentration of ______in excess of: (insert appropriate exposure limit representing a level that can be complied with immediately) as averaged over any: (insert appropriate time period) during the working day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dermal and eye exposure.</I> (As appropriate.) (i) Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, the employer shall (If eye exposure to ______does not create a risk of cancer, insert exposure level or criteria which will prevent other adverse effects of eye exposure to ______, if any. If eye exposure creates a risk of cancer, insert exposure level or criteria which represent the level of eye exposure to ______.) 
</P>
<P>(ii) Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, the employer shall (If skin exposure to ______does not create a risk of cancer, insert exposure level or criteria which will prevent other adverse health affects of skin exposure to ______if any. If skin exposure creates a risk of cancer, insert exposure level or criteria which represents the level of skin exposure to ______).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of use.</I> Within (insert appropriate time and omit specific categories of information if appropriate) of the effective date of this section, or within fifteen (15) days following the introduction of ______ into the workplace, every employer shall report the following information to the nearest OSHA Area Office for each such workplace: 
</P>
<P>(1) The address and location of each workplace in which ______ is present; 
</P>
<P>(2) A brief description of each process or operation which may result in employee exposure to ______; 
</P>
<P>(3) The number of employees engaged in each process or operation who may be exposed ______ and an estimate of the frequency and degree of exposure that occurs; and 
</P>
<P>(4) A brief description of the employer's safety and health program as it relates to limitation of employee exposure to ______; 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure monitoring</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Determinations of airborne exposure levels shall be made from air samples that are representative of each employee's exposure to ______ over an eight (8) hour period. (Modify the time period as appropriate to be practical in the relevant industries yet reasonably representative of full shift exposures). Monitoring of exposure levels required under this paragraph shall be made as follows: [insert method or alternative methods to be used to meet the requirements of this paragraph]. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this section, employee exposure is that exposure which would occur if the employee were not using a respirator. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> Each employer who has one or more workplaces where (specify the types of workplaces subject to the monitoring requirement), shall within (insert appropriate period) of the effective date of this section (insert requirements for initial monitoring, as appropriate). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency.</I> (Insert, if appropriate, provisions prescribing the minimum frequency at which monitoring must be repeated, the conditions under which such frequency must be increased, or may be reduced, and conditions under which such routine monitoring may be discontinued (for example where the action level is not exceeded). Where appropriate, specify different frequency requirements for certain types of workplaces where, for example, exposure levels are subject to greater or less variability.) 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional monitoring.</I> (Insert, if appropriate, provisions for monitoring, in addition to the requirements (if any) of paragraph (e)(3). This may include a production, process, control or personnel change which might result in new or additional exposure to ______ or whenever the employer has any other reason to suspect a change which might result in new or additional exposures to ______.) 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employee notification.</I> (i) Within (insert appropriate period) after the receipt of monitoring results, the employer shall notify each employee in writing of the results which represent that employee's exposure. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the results indicate that the representative employee exposure exceeds the permissible exposure limits, the employer shall include in the written notice a statement that permissible exposure limits were exceeded and a description of the corrective action being taken to reduce exposure to or below the permissible exposure limits. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Accuracy of measurement.</I> (Insert requirements for accuracy of methods of measurement or detection used to comply with the paragraph.) 
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Employee exposures to ______ shall be controlled to or below the permissible exposure limits by any practicable combination of engineering controls, work practices and personal protective devices and equipment, during the effective period of this emergency temporary standard. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where engineering controls or work practices can reduce employee exposures to ______ it is recommended that they be implemented where practicable, even where they do not themselves reduce exposures to, or below the permissible exposure limits. Work practices which can be implemented by the employer to help reduce employee exposures to ______ include limiting access to work areas to authorized personnel, prohibiting smoking and consumption of food and beverages in work areas, and establishing good maintance and housekeeping practices, including the prompt clean-up of spills and repair of leaks.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) <I>Engineering and work practice control plan.</I> (i) Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this emergency temporary standard, the employer shall develop a written plan describing proposed means to reduce employee exposures to the lowest feasible level by means of engineering and work practice controls (which will be eventually required by a permanent standard for occupational exposure to ______, as provided for by § 1990.151(g) of this subpart). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Written plans required by this paragraph shall be submitted, upon request, to the Assistant Secretary and the Director and shall be available at the worksite for examination and copying by the Assistant Secretary, the Director, and any affected employee or designated representative. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Respiratory protection</I>—(1) <I>Required use.</I> The employer shall assure that respirators are used where required pursuant to this section to reduce employee exposures to within the permissible exposure limits and in emergencies. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Respirator selection.</I> (i) Where respiratory protection is required under this section, the employer shall select and provide at no cost to the employee, the appropriate respirator from Table 1 below and shall assure that the employee wears the respirator provided.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Table 1—Respiratory Protection for ______
</HD1>
<P>(The table will contain a listing of the appropriate type of respirator for various conditions of exposure 
</P>
<FP>to ______.)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall select respirators from those approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health under the provisions of 30 CFR part 11. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Respirator program.</I> (i) The employer shall institute a respirator protection program in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.134 (b), (d), (e) and (f). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees who wear respirators shall be allowed to wash their face and respirator face piece to prevent potential skin irritation associated with respirator use. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that the respirator issued to each employee is properly fitted (as appropriate, indicate the requirement for a qualitative or quantitative respirator fit testing program.) 
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Protective clothing and equipment</I>—(1) <I>Provision and use.</I> Where employees are exposed to eye or skin contact with ______ (insert criteria which trigger this requirement as appropriate), the employer shall within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this standard provide, at no cost to the employees, and assure that employees wear, appropriate protective clothing or other equipment in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.132 and 1910.133 to protect the area of the body which may come in contact with ______. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cleaning and replacement.</I> (i) The employer shall clean, launder, maintain, or replace protective clothing and equipment required by this paragraph, as needed to maintain their effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Housekeeping</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall, within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, implement a housekeeping program to minimize accumulations of ______. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific provisions.</I> The program shall include (insert appropriate elements): 
</P>
<P>(i) Periodic scheduling of routine housekeeping procedures; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision for periodic cleaning of dust collection systems; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provision for maintaining clean surfaces; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provision for assigning personnel to housekeeping procedures; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Provision for informing employees about housekeeping program. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Waste disposal</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The employer shall assure that no waste material containing ______ is dispersed into the workplace, to the extent practicable. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall label, or otherwise inform employees who may contact waste material containing ______ of the contents of such waste material. 
</P>
<P>(3) (Insert specific disposal methods, as appropriate.) 
</P>
<P>(m) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Medical surveillance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer shall institute a program of medical surveillance for (specify the types of employees subject to the medical surveillance requirement, for example, by specifying the level, duration, and frequency of exposure to ________ which make medical surveillance appropriate for individual employees). The employer shall provide each such employee with an opportunity for medical examinations and tests in accordance with this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that all medical examinations and procedures are performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, and shall be provided without cost to the employee. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial examinations.</I> Within (insert appropriate time period) of the effective date of this section, or thereafter at the time of initial assignment, the employer shall provide each employee specified in paragraph (n)(1) of this section an opportunity for a medical examination, including at least the following elements: 
</P>
<P>(i) A work history and a medical history which shall include (insert specific areas to be covered pertinent to the health hazards posed by ________). 
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical examination which shall include: (insert specific tests, procedures, etc., pertinent to the health hazards posed by ________. Where appropriate, provide that the examining physician shall conduct such additional examinations and tests as are needed according to his professional judgement). 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where appropriate, require or permit different medical protocols, or different frequencies of medical examinations, for separate sub-populations of employees covered under paragraph (n)(1).</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic examinations.</I> (If appropriate insert appropriate medical protocol and time.) 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional examinations.</I> If the employee for any reason develops signs or symptoms commonly associated with exposure to ______, the employer shall provide an appropriate examination and emergency medical treatment. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Information provided to the physician.</I> The employer shall provide the following information to the examining physician: 
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this emergency temporary standard and its appendices; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the affected employee's duties as they relate to the employee's exposure; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employee's actual or representative exposure level; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The employee's anticipated or estimated exposure level (for preplacement examinations or in cases of exposures due to an emergency); 
</P>
<P>(v) A description of any personal protective equipment used or to be used; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The names and addresses of physicians who, under the sponsorship of the employer, provided previous medical examinations of the affected employee, if such records are not otherwise available to the examining physician. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Physician's written opinion.</I> (i) The employer shall obtain a written opinion from the examining physician which shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) The results of the medical tests performed; 
</P>
<P>(B) The physician's opinion as to whether the employee has any detected medical condition which would place the employee at an increased risk of material impairment of the employee's health from exposure to ______; 
</P>
<P>(C) Any recommended limitations upon the employee's exposure to ______ or upon the use of protective clothing and equipment such as respirators; and 
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the employee has been informed by the physician of the results of the medical examination and any medical conditions which require further examination or treatment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall instruct the physician not to reveal in the written opinion specific findings or diagnoses unrelated to occupational exposure to ______; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall provide a copy of the written opinion to the affected employee. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Employee information and training</I>—(1) <I>Training program.</I> (i) Within (insert appropriate time period) from the effective date of this standard, the employer shall institute a training program for all employees who (specify the employees subject to the training requirement), and shall assure their participation in the training program. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that each employee is informed of the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) The information contained in the Appendices; 
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity, location, manner of use, release, or storage of ______ and the specific nature of operations which could result in exposure to ______, as well as any necessary protective steps; 
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose, proper use, and limitations of respirators; 
</P>
<P>(D) The purpose and description of the medical surveillance program required by paragraph (n) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(E) A review of this standard. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Access to training materials.</I> (i) The employer shall make a copy of this standard and its appendices readily available to all affected employees. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Signs and labels</I> (include a signs or a signs and labels provision if it is appropriate for the duration of the ETS)—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The employer may use labels or signs required by other statutes, regulations, or ordinances in addition to, or in combination with, signs and labels required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that no statement appears on or near any sign or label, required by this paragraph, which contradicts or detracts from the meaning of the required sign or label.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signs.</I> (i) The employer shall post signs to clearly indicate all workplaces (specify as appropriate the description of the area to be signposted such as “where employees are exposed to ________,” or “where exposures exceed the PEL,” or “which are regulated areas”). The signs shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>DANGER
</HD3>
<HD3> ______
</HD3>
<FP>(insert appropriate trade or common names)
</FP>
<HD1>CANCER HAZARD
</HD1>
<HD1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</HD1></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that signs required by this paragraph are illuminated and cleaned as necessary so that the legend is readily visible.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where airborne concentrations of ____________ exceed the permissible exposure limits, the signs shall bear the additional legend: (“Respirator Required” or “Respirator may be Required” as appropriate).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Labels.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that precautionary labels are affixed to all containers of ____________ and of products containing ______________ (specify if appropriate suitable modifications), and that the labels remain affixed when __________ or products containing ____________ are sold, distributed or otherwise leave the employer's workplace.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer shall assure that the precautionary labels required by this paragraph are readily visible and legible. The labels shall bear the following legend:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>DANGER
</HD3>
<HD3>CONTAINS ______________
</HD3>
<HD3>CANCER HAZARD</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(q) <I>Recordkeeping</I>—(1) <I>Exposure monitoring.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all monitoring required by paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) The dates, number, duration, and results of each of the samples taken, including a description of the sampling procedures used to determine representative employee exposure; 
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the sampling and analytical methods used; 
</P>
<P>(C) Type of respiratory protective devices worn, if any; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Name, social security number, and job classification of the employee monitored and of all other employees whose exposure the measurement is intended to represent. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall maintain this record for the effective period of this emergency temporary standard, and for any additional period required by the permanent standard. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Medical surveillance.</I> (i) The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee subject to medical surveillance as required by paragraph (n) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) This record shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the physicians' written opinions or a written explanation of the absence of any such opinion or employee refusal to take the medical examination; 
</P>
<P>(B) Any employee medical complaints related to exposure to ______; 
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the information provided to the physician as required by paragraphs (n)(5)(ii)-(iv) of this section unless it is systematically retained elsewhere by the employer for the period of time specified in paragraph (q)(2)(iii); and, 
</P>
<P>(D) A copy of the employee's work history. (<I>1</I>) The employer shall assure that employee exposure measurement records, as required by this section, be made available upon request to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer shall assure that this record be maintained for the effective period of this emergency temporary standard, and for any additional period required by the permanent standard. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability.</I> (i) The employer shall assure that all records required to be maintained by this section be made available upon request, to the Assistant Secretary and the Director for examination and copying.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee exposure measurement records and employee medical records required by this section shall be provided upon request to employees, designated representatives, and the Assistant Secretary in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.20 (a) through (e) and (g) through (i). 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Observation of monitoring.</I> (1) Employee observation. The employer shall provide affected employees, or their designated representatives, an opportunity to observe any monitoring of employee exposure to ______ conducted pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Observation procedures.</I> (i) Whenever observation of the monitoring of employee exposure to ______ requires entry into an area where the use of protective clothing or equipment is required, the employer shall provide the observer with personal protective clothing or equipment required to be worn by employees working in the area, assure the use of such clothing and equipment, and require the observer to comply with all other applicable safety and health procedures. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Without interfering with the monitoring, observers shall be entitled to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Receive an explanation of measurement procedures; 
</P>
<P>(B) Observe all steps related to the measurement of airborne concentrations of ______ performed at the place of exposure; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Record the results obtained and receive results supplied by the laboratory. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Effective date.</I> This section shall become effective (insert effective date). 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Appendices.</I> The information contained in the appendices is not intended, itself, to create any additional obligations not otherwise imposed or to detract from any existing obligation. (In normal circumstances three appendices will be included in each standard, an “Appendix A—Substance Safety Data Sheet,” an “Appendix B—Substance Technical Guidelines,” and an “Appendix C—Medical Surveillance Guidelines.” Insert additional appendices or delete any of the suggested appendices as appropriate.) 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 5282, Jan. 22, 1980; 45 FR 43406, 43407, June 27, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 5882, Jan. 21, 1981] 






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1991" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1991—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE CRIMINAL ANTITRUST ANTI-RETALIATION ACT (CAARA)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 7a-3; Secretary of Labor's Order 08-2020 (May 15, 2020), 85 FR 58393 (September 18, 2020); Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2020 (Feb. 21, 2020), 85 FR 13186-01 (Mar. 6, 2020).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 8763, Feb. 10, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.1.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth procedures for, and interpretations of section 2 of the Criminal Antitrust Anti-Retaliation Act (CAARA), Public Law 116-257, 134 Stat. 1147 (December 23, 2020) (codified at 15 U.S.C. 7a-3). CAARA provides for protection from retaliation because the covered individual has engaged in protected activity pertaining to any violation of, or any act or omission which the covered individual reasonably believes constitutes a violation of, section 1 or 3 of the Sherman Act; or any violation of, or any act or omission the covered individual reasonably believes to be a violation of, another criminal law committed in conjunction with a potential violation of section 1 or 3 of the Sherman Act or in conjunction with an investigation by the Department of Justice of a potential violation of section 1 or 3 of the Sherman Act.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under CAARA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by covered individuals, or by persons acting on their behalf. These rules, together with those codified at 29 CFR part 18, set forth the procedures under CAARA for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. In addition, these rules provide the Secretary's interpretations of certain statutory provisions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.1.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom the Assistant Secretary delegates authority under CAARA.
</P>
<P><I>Antitrust laws</I> means section 1 or 3 of the Sherman Act (15 U.S.C. 1 or 3).
</P>
<P><I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P><I>CAARA</I> means the Criminal Antitrust Anti-Retaliation Act, Public Law 116-257, 134 Stat. 1147 (December 23, 2020) (codified at 15 U.S.C. 7a-3).
</P>
<P><I>Complainant</I> means the covered individual who filed a CAARA complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P><I>Covered individual</I> means an employee, contractor, subcontractor, or agent of an employer and includes an individual presently or formerly working for, an individual applying to work for, or an individual whose employment could be affected by, another person.
</P>
<P><I>DOJ</I> means the Antitrust Division of the United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means a person, or any officer, employee, contractor, subcontractor, or agent of such person.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Government</I> means a Federal regulatory or law enforcement agency; or any Member of Congress or committee of Congress.
</P>
<P><I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 12(a) and includes individuals as well as corporations and associations existing under or authorized by the laws of either the United States, the laws of any of the Territories, the laws of any State, or the laws of any foreign country.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means the person named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated CAARA.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.1.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employer may discharge, demote, suspend, threaten, harass, or in any other manner retaliate against, including, but not limited to, intimidating, restraining, coercing, blacklisting, or disciplining, a covered individual in the terms and conditions of employment of the covered individual because of any lawful act done by the covered individual to engage in any of the activities specified in paragraph (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered individual is protected against retaliation (as described in paragraph (a) of this section) for any lawful act done by the covered individual:
</P>
<P>(1) To provide information, or cause information to be provided to the Federal Government or a person with supervisory authority over the individual, or any other person working for the employer who has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate misconduct, regarding:
</P>
<P>(i) Any violation of, or any act or omission the covered individual reasonably believes to be a violation of, the antitrust laws; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any violation of, or any act or omission the covered individual reasonably believes to be a violation of, another criminal law committed in conjunction with a potential violation of the antitrust laws or in conjunction with an investigation by the Department of Justice of a potential violation of the antitrust laws; or
</P>
<P>(2) To cause to be filed, testify in, participate in, or otherwise assist a Federal Government investigation or a Federal Government proceeding filed or about to be filed (with any knowledge of the employer) relating to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any violation of, or any act or omission the covered individual reasonably believes to be a violation of, the antitrust laws; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any violation of, or any act or omission the covered individual reasonably believes to be a violation of, another criminal law committed in conjunction with a potential violation or in conjunction with an investigation by the Department of Justice of a potential violation of the antitrust laws.
</P>
<P>(3) The term violation with respect to the antitrust laws shall not be construed to include a civil violation of any law that is not also a criminal violation.
</P>
<P>(4) Paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section shall not apply to any covered individual if the covered individual:
</P>
<P>(i) Planned and initiated a violation or attempted violation of the antitrust laws;
</P>
<P>(ii) Planned and initiated a violation or attempted violation of another criminal law in conjunction with a violation or attempted violation of the antitrust laws; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Planned and initiated an obstruction or attempted obstruction of an investigation by the Department of Justice of a violation of the antitrust laws.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.1.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> A covered individual who believes that they have been discharged or otherwise retaliated against by any employer in violation of CAARA may file, or have filed by any person on their behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the complainant resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following internet address: <I>http://www.osha.gov.</I> Complaints may also be filed online at <I>https://www.osha.gov/whistleblower/WBComplaint.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 180 days after an alleged violation of CAARA occurs, any person who believes that they have been retaliated against in violation of CAARA may file, or have filed by any person on their behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic filing or transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint to be tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with an agency other than OSHA within 180 days after an alleged adverse action.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.1.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OSHA will notify the respondent(s) and the complainant's employer (if different) of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1991.110(e). OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) and to the DOJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA generally will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with 29 CFR part 70.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a <I>prima facie</I> showing that a protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the individual engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the individual engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy its burden set forth in the prior paragraph, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1991.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated CAARA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph. Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigator, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph, or as soon thereafter as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.1.35.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of CAARA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will include all relief necessary to make the complainant whole including, where appropriate: reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; back pay with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621(a)(2) and will be compounded daily. Where appropriate, the preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by physical or electronic means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the ALJ, regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order, also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges if electronic filing is available. The findings also may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards with documents in the administrative litigation as required under this part. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1991.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.2.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under CAARA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1991.105. The objections and request for hearing and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and must state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, or both, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving them with copies of the objections.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.2.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at 29 CFR part 18, subpart A.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.2.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent, and the right to seek discretionary review of a decision of the Administrative Review Board (ARB) from the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by these rules. Except as otherwise provided in rules of practice and/or procedure before the OALJ or the ARB, OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving them with documents under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The DOJ, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at the DOJ's discretion. At the request of the DOJ, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the DOJ, whether or not it is participating in the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.2.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.109   Decisions and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in the prior paragraph, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1991.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order providing all relief necessary to make the complainant whole, including, where appropriate: reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; back pay with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621(a)(2) and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of decisions on them under this section. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 30 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the ARB. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.2.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.110   Decisions and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB, which has been delegated the authority to act for the Secretary and issue decisions under this part subject to the Secretary's discretionary review. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. All petitions and documents submitted to the ARB must be filed in accordance with 29 CFR part 26. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. The petition for review also must be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of petitions for review on them under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard. If a timely petition for review is not filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If a timely petition for review is not filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 30 days after the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 30 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of ARB decisions on them under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing all relief necessary to make the complainant whole. The order will require, where appropriate: reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; back pay with interest; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of the retaliation, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees. Interest on back pay will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621(a)(2) and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary (as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary (as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.3.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw the complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of the withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw the complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1991.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, but before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. If the Secretary has accepted the case for discretionary review, or directed that the case be referred for discretionary review, the settlement must be approved by the Secretary. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, the ARB or the Secretary will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1991.113.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.3.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order for which judicial review is available (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon discretionary review), any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of the case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.3.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order issued by the Secretary under CAARA, including one approving a settlement agreement, the Secretary or the person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.3.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Secretary has not issued a final decision within 180 days of the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy.
</P>
<P>(b) A proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section shall be governed by the same legal burdens of proof specified in § 1991.109.
</P>
<P>(c) Within seven days after filing a complaint in federal court, a complainant must file with OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1991.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.26.3.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1991.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of these rules, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, and after three days' notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of CAARA requires.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1992" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1992—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ACT (AMLA)


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5), (g), and (j); Secretary of Labor's Order 08-2020, 85 FR 58393; Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2020, 85 FR 13024-01.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 3030, Jan. 14, 2025, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.100" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.1.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth procedures for, and interpretations of the anti-retaliation protections of the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 contained in section 6314 of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021, Public Law 116-283, 134 Stat. 3388 (January 1, 2021), as amended, codified at 31 U.S.C. 5323 (g)(1)-(3)and (g)(6) and referred to herein as AMLA. AMLA provides for protection from retaliation because a whistleblower has engaged in protected activity by providing information relating to a violation of 31 U.S.C. chapter 53, subchapter II (relating to records and reports on monetary instruments transactions, 31 U.S.C. 5311-5336); chapter 35 or section 4305 or 4312 of title 50; the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act (21 U.S.C. 1901 <I>et seq.</I>), or conspiracies to violate the aforementioned provisions; or initiating, testifying in, or assisting in any investigation or judicial or administrative action of the Department of the Treasury or the Department of Justice based upon or related to such information; or providing information relating to any conduct that the whistleblower reasonably believes constitutes a violation of any law, rule, or regulation subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Treasury, or a violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of title 18 (or any rule or regulation under any such provision).
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes procedures under AMLA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by whistleblowers, or by persons acting on their behalf. This part, together with 29 CFR parts 18 and 26, set forth the procedures under AMLA for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. In addition, this part provide the Secretary's interpretations of certain statutory provisions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.101" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.1.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>AMLA</I> means the provisions relating to anti-retaliation of the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 contained in Sec. 6314 of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021, Public Law 116-283, 134 Stat. 3388 (January 1, 2021), as amended, codified at 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)-(3) and (6).
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom the Assistant Secretary delegates authority under AMLA.
</P>
<P><I>Business days</I> means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P><I>Complainant</I> means the whistleblower who filed an AMLA complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
</P>
<P><I>FinCEN</I> means the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network, a bureau of the United States Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>OSHA</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means the person named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated AMLA.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or the person or persons to whom the Secretary delegates authority under certain anti-retaliation provisions of AMLA, 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)-(3).
</P>
<P><I>Whistleblower</I> means any individual, or two or more individuals acting jointly, who take any of the actions described in § 1992.102(b). A whistleblower includes an individual presently or formerly working for an employer, an individual applying to work for an employer, or an individual whose employment could be affected by an employer.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.102" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.1.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.102   Obligations and prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employer may directly or indirectly discharge, demote, suspend, threaten, blacklist, harass, or in any other manner discriminate against a whistleblower in the terms and conditions of employment or post-employment because of any lawful act done by the whistleblower to engage in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1), (2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A whistleblower is protected against retaliation (as described in paragraph (a) of this section) by an employer for any lawful act done by the whistleblower:
</P>
<P>(1) In providing information relating to a violation of 31 U.S.C. chapter 53, subchapter II (Records and Reports on Monetary Instruments Transactions, 31 U.S.C. 5311-5336); chapter 35 or section 4305 or 4312 of title 50; or the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act, 21 U.S.C. 1901 <I>et seq.,</I> or a conspiracy to violate the aforementioned provisions to:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer of the whistleblower, including as part of the job duties of the whistleblower. The employer includes a person with supervisory authority over the whistleblower or such other person working for the employer who has authority to investigate, discover, or terminate misconduct;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary of the Treasury or the Attorney General;
</P>
<P>(iii) A Federal regulatory or law enforcement agency; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any Member of Congress or any committee of Congress;
</P>
<P>(2) In initiating, testifying in, or assisting in any investigation or judicial or administrative action of the Department of the Treasury or the Department of Justice based upon or related to the information described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) In providing information regarding any conduct that the whistleblower reasonably believes constitutes a violation of any law, rule, or regulation subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Treasury, or a violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of title 18 (or any rule or regulation under any such provision) to:
</P>
<P>(i) A person with supervisory authority over the whistleblower at the employer of the whistleblower; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Another individual working for the employer who the whistleblower reasonably believes has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate the misconduct; or take any other action to address the misconduct.
</P>
<P>(c) This section shall not apply with respect to any employer that is subject to section 33 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831j) or section 213 or 214 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1790b, 1790c).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.103" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.1.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.103   Filing of retaliation complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> Any individual who believes that they have been discharged or otherwise retaliated against, or is otherwise aggrieved by an employer in violation of AMLA may file, or have filed by any person on their behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of filing.</I> No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place of filing.</I> The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the complainant resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following internet address: <I>https://www.osha.gov.</I> Complaints may also be filed online using OSHA's online complaint form, currently available at <I>https://www.osha.gov/whistleblower/WBComplaint.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing.</I> Within 90 days after an alleged violation of AMLA occurs, an individual who believes that they have been retaliated against in violation of AMLA must file, or have filed by any person on their behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic filing or transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled or equitably modified for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint to be tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with an agency other than OSHA within 90 days after an alleged adverse action.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.104" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.1.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.104   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent and the complainant's employer (if different) of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1992.110(e). OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) and to FinCEN.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.
</P>
<P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA generally will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual engaged in a protected activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the individual engaged in the protected activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual suffered an adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, <I>i.e.,</I> to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the individual engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.
</P>
<P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy its burden set forth in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1992.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated AMLA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph (f). Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigator, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph (f), or as soon thereafter as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.105" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.1.35.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.105   Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of AMLA.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will include, where appropriate: reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; two times the amount of back pay otherwise owed to the individual with interest; compensatory damages, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees; and any other appropriate remedy for the retaliation, as applicable. Interest on any back pay award will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. Where appropriate, the preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by physical or electronic means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the ALJ, regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order, also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. The findings also may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards with documents in the administrative litigation as required under this part. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
</P>
<P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1992.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Litigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.106" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.2.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.106   Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under AMLA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1992.105. The objections and request for hearing and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and must state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, or both, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving them with copies of the objections.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.107" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.2.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.107   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at 29 CFR part 18, subpart A.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.108" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.2.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.108   Role of Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent, and the right to seek discretionary review of a decision of the Administrative Review Board (ARB) from the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by this part. Except as otherwise provided in rules of practice and/or procedure before the OALJ or the ARB, OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving them with documents under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of the Treasury, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at its discretion. At the request of The Department of the Treasury, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the Department of the Treasury, whether or not it is participating in the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.109" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.2.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.109   Decisions and orders of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1992.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order providing reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; two times the amount of back pay otherwise owed to the individual with interest; compensatory damages, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees; and any other appropriate remedy for the retaliation, as applicable. Interest on any back pay award will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000.
</P>
<P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of decisions on them under this section. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 30 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the ARB. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.110" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.2.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.110   Decisions and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB, which has been delegated the authority to act for the Secretary and issue decisions under this part subject to the Secretary's discretionary review. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. All petitions and documents submitted to the ARB must be filed in accordance with part 26 of this title. The date of the postmark, or electronic transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. The petition for review also must be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of petitions for review on them under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard, and will review legal conclusions de novo. If a timely petition for review is not filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If a timely petition for review is not filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 30 days after the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 30 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of ARB decisions on them under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; two times the amount of back pay otherwise owed to the individual with interest; compensatory damages, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees; and any other appropriate remedy for the retaliation, as applicable. Interest on any back pay award will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary (as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).
</P>
<P>(e) If the ARB determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary (as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.111" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.3.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.111   Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw the complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of the withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw the complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1992.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Investigative settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of a complaint, but before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjudicatory settlements.</I> At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. If the Secretary has accepted the case for discretionary review, or directed that the case be referred for discretionary review, the settlement must be filed with the ARB for approval by the Secretary. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, the ARB or the Secretary will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1992.113.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.112" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.3.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.112   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order for which judicial review is available (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon discretionary review), any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of the case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.113" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.3.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.113   Judicial enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order issued under AMLA, including one approving a settlement agreement, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order issued under AMLA, including one approving a settlement agreement, a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.114" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.3.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.114   District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Secretary has not issued a final decision within 180 days of the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy. Either party shall be entitled to a trial by jury.
</P>
<P>(b) Within seven days after filing a complaint in Federal court, a complainant must file with OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1992.115" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.27.3.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1992.115   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of this part, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, and after three days' notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of AMLA requires.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1993-1999" NODE="29:8.1.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1993-1999 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>June 30, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="9" NODE="29:9" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 29—Labor--Volume 9</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<SUBTI>
<HED>SUBTITLE B—<E T="04">Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)</E>
</HED></SUBTI>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xx</E>—Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2200 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xxv</E>—Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department of Labor 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2509
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xxvii</E>—Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2700
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xl</E>—Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation
</SUBJECT>
<PG>4000


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>
<DIV2 N="Subtitle B" NODE="29:9.1" TYPE="SUBTITLE">
<HEAD>Subtitle B—Regulations Relating to Labor (Continued)








</HEAD>

<DIV3 N="XX" NODE="29:9.1.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XX—OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH REVIEW COMMISSION</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2000-2199" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2000-2199 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2200" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2200—RULES OF PROCEDURE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 661(g), unless otherwise noted.</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Section 2200.96 is also issued under 28 U.S.C. 2112(a).</P></EXTRACT>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.1" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 651-678.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commission, person,</I> <I>employer,</I> and <I>employee</I> have the meanings set forth in section 3 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 652.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or the Secretary's duly authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Executive Secretary</I> means the Executive Secretary of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Affected employee</I> means an employee of a cited employer who is exposed to or has access to the hazard arising out of the allegedly violative circumstances, conditions, practices, or operations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judge</I> means an Administrative Law Judge appointed pursuant to section 12(e) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 661(e), as amended by Public Law 95-251, 92 Stat. 183, 184 (1978).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Authorized employee representative</I> means a labor organization that has a collective bargaining relationship with the cited employer and that represents affected employees who are members of the collective bargaining unit.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Representative</I> means any person, including an authorized employee representative, authorized by a party or intervenor to represent it in a proceeding.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Citation</I> means a written communication issued by the Secretary to an employer pursuant to section 9(a) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 658(a).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Notification of proposed penalty</I> means a written communication issued by the Secretary to an employer pursuant to section 10(a) or (b) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 659(a) or (b).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Day</I> means a calendar day.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Working day</I> means all days except Saturdays, Sundays, or Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Proceeding</I> means any proceeding before the Commission or before a Judge.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Pleadings</I> are complaints and answers filed under § 2200.34, statements of reasons and employers' responses filed under § 2200.38, and petitions for modification of abatement and objecting parties' responses filed under § 2200.37. A motion is not a pleading within the meaning of these rules.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 45654, Aug. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.2" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.2   Scope of rules; applicability of Federal Rules of Civil Procedure; construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> These rules shall govern all proceedings before the Commission and its Judges.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability of Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.</I> In the absence of a specific provision, procedure shall be in accordance with the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction.</I> These rules shall be construed to secure an expeditious, just, and inexpensive determination of every case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.3" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.3   Use of number.</HEAD>
<P>Words importing the singular number may extend and be applied to the plural and vice versa.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 8948, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.4" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.4   Computing time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Computation.</I> The following rules apply in computing any time period specified in these rules or by any order that does not specify a method of computing time.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Period stated in days or longer unit.</I> When the period is stated in days or a longer unit of time:
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude the day of the event that triggers the period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Count every day, including intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the last day of the period, but if the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period continues to run until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Period stated in working days.</I> When the period is stated in working days, count every day except intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Operating status of receiving Commission office.</I> Unless the Commission or the Judge orders otherwise, if the receiving Commission office is closed on the last day for filing due to inclement weather or other circumstance, then the time for filing is extended to the first day the office is open that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>“Last day” defined.</I> Unless a different time is set by a rule or order, the last day ends:
</P>
<P>(i) For documents filed electronically in the Commission's E-File System, at 11:59 p.m. in the time zone of the receiving Commission office; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For filing by other means, when the receiving Commission office is scheduled to close.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>“Next day” defined.</I> The “next day” is determined by continuing to count forward when the period is measured after an event and backward when measured before an event.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>“Federal holiday” defined.</I> “Federal holiday” means:
</P>
<P>(i) The day set aside by statute for observing New Year's Day, Martin Luther King Jr.'s Birthday, Washington's Birthday, Memorial Day, Juneteenth National Independence Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Columbus Day, Veterans' Day, Thanksgiving Day, or Christmas Day; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) Any day declared a holiday by the President or Congress.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Computation examples.</I> (i) If a judge orders that a document is due in 40 days, count every calendar day starting the day after that order (day 1) until reaching day 40 (due date). If the receiving Commission office is closed on day 40 (such as on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday), the document would be due the next day the office is open. In other words, if day 40 falls on a Saturday, and the following Monday is a Federal holiday, the document would be due on Tuesday, the day after the holiday.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a judge orders that a document is due 14 days before a hearing, count backwards starting the day before the hearing (day 1) until reaching day 14. If the receiving Commission office is closed on day 14 (such as on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday), the document would be due on the last day the office is open before the Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. In other words, if day 14 falls on a Sunday, and the Friday before is a Federal holiday, the document would be due on Thursday, the day before the holiday.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional time after service by U.S. Mail.</I> When a party may or must act within a specified time after service and service is made by U.S. Mail under § 2200.7, 3 days are added after the period would otherwise expire under § 2200.4(a). <I>Provided, however,</I> that this provision does not apply to computing the time for filing a petition for discretionary review under § 2200.91(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 8948, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.5" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.5   Extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission or the Judge on their own initiative or, upon motion of a party, for good cause shown, may enlarge or shorten any time prescribed by these rules or prescribed by an order. All such motions shall be in writing and shall conform with § 2200.40, but, in exigent circumstances in a case pending before a Judge, an oral request may be made and shall be followed by a written motion filed with the Judge within such time as the Judge prescribes. A request for an extension of time should be received in advance of the date on which the pleading or document is due to be filed. However, in exigent circumstances, an extension of time may be granted even though the request was filed after the designated time for filing has expired. In such circumstances, the party requesting the extension must show, in writing, the reasons for the party's failure to make the request before the time prescribed for the filing had expired. The motion may be acted upon before the time for response has expired.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.6" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.6   Record address.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every pleading or document filed by any party or intervenor shall contain the name, current address, telephone number, and email address of the party or intervenor's representative or, if there is no representative, the party or intervenor's own name, current address, telephone number, and email address. Any change in such information shall be communicated promptly in writing to the Judge, or the Executive Secretary if no Judge has been assigned, and to all other parties and intervenors. A party or intervenor who fails to furnish such information shall be deemed to have waived its right to notice and service under these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) Representatives, parties, and intervenors who file case documents electronically in the Commission's E-File System pursuant to § 2200.8(c) are responsible for both maintaining a valid email address associated with the registered account and regularly monitoring that email address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 8948, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.7" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.7   Service, notice, and posting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When service is required.</I> At the time of filing pleadings or other documents, the filer shall serve a copy on every other party or intervenor. Every document relating to discovery required to be served on a party shall be served on all parties and intervenors. Every order required by its terms to be served shall be served on all parties and intervenors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service on represented parties or intervenors.</I> Service upon a party or intervenor who has appeared through a representative shall be made only upon such representative unless the Judge orders service on the party or intervenor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>How accomplished.</I> Unless otherwise ordered, service may be accomplished by the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commission's E-File System.</I> For electronically-filed documents, service shall be deemed accomplished by the simultaneous service of the document by email on all other parties and intervenors in the case, together with proof of service pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>U.S. Mail.</I> Service shall be deemed accomplished upon depositing the item in the U.S. Mail with first-class or higher class (such as priority mail) postage pre-paid addressed to the recipient's record address provided pursuant to § 2200.6.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commercial or other personal delivery.</I> Service shall be deemed accomplished upon delivery to the recipient's record address provided pursuant to § 2200.6.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Facsimile transmission.</I> Service by facsimile transmission shall be deemed accomplished upon delivery to the receiving facsimile machine. The party serving a document by facsimile is responsible for the successful transmission and legibility of documents intended to be served.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Non-E-Filed Documents.</I> Documents required to be served upon other counsel or parties but that are not filed with the Commission in the Commission's E-File System (such as discovery documents served pursuant to § 2200.52(j)) may be served by any means agreed to by all parties in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Proof of service.</I> Service shall be documented by a written certificate of service setting forth the date and manner of service. The certificate of service shall be filed with the pleading or document.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Proof of posting.</I> Where service is accomplished by posting, proof of such posting shall be filed not later than the first working day following the posting.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Service on represented employees.</I> Service and notice to employees represented by an authorized employee representative shall be deemed accomplished by serving the representative in a manner prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Service on unrepresented employees.</I> In the event there are affected employees who are not represented by an authorized employee representative, the employer shall post, immediately upon receipt, the docketing notice for the notice of contest or petition for modification of the abatement period. The posting shall be at or near where the citation is required to be posted pursuant to section 9(b) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 658(b), and 29 CFR 1903.16. The employer shall post:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the notice of contest or petition for modification of the abatement period;
</P>
<P>(2) A notice informing the affected employees of their right to party status; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice informing the affected employees of the availability of all pleadings for inspection and copying at reasonable times.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) A notice in the following form shall be deemed to comply with this paragraph:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>(Name of employer)
</FP>
<P>Your employer has been cited by the Secretary of Labor for violation of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970. The citation has been contested and will be the subject of a hearing before the OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH REVIEW COMMISSION. Affected employees are entitled to participate in this hearing as parties under terms and conditions established by the OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH REVIEW COMMISSION in its Rules of Procedure. Notice of intent to participate must be filed no later than 14 days before the hearing. Any notice of intent to participate should be sent to: Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission, Office of the Executive Secretary, One Lafayette Centre, 1120 20th Street, NW, Suite 980, Washington, DC 20036-3457. All pleadings relevant to this matter may be inspected at: (Place reasonably convenient to employees, preferably at or near workplace.)</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Where appropriate, the second sentence of the above notice will be deleted and the following sentence will be substituted:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The reasonableness of the period prescribed by the Secretary of Labor for abatement of the violation has been contested and will be the subject of a hearing before the OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH REVIEW COMMISSION.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) <I>Special service requirements; authorized employee representatives.</I> The authorized employee representative, if any, shall be served by the employer with the notice set forth in paragraph (g) of this section and with a copy of the notice of contest or petition for modification of the abatement period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice of hearing to unrepresented employees.</I> Immediately upon receipt, a copy of the notice of the hearing to be held before the Judge shall be served by the employer on affected employees who are not represented by an authorized employee representative by posting a copy of the notice of such hearing at or near the place where the citation is required to be posted pursuant to section 9(b) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 658(b), and 29 CFR 1903.16.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Notice of hearing to represented employees.</I> Immediately upon receipt of the notice of the hearing to be held before the Judge, the employer shall serve a copy of the notice on the authorized employee representative of affected employees in the manner prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section. The employer need not serve the notice of hearing, as stated above, if on or before the date the hearing notice is received, the authorized employee representative has entered an appearance in conformance with §§ 2200.22 and 2200.23.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Employee contest; service on other employees.</I> (1) Where a notice of contest with respect to the reasonableness of the abatement period is filed under § 2200.38 by an affected employee who is not represented by an authorized employee representative and there are other affected employees who are represented by an authorized employee representative, the unrepresented affected employee shall serve the following documents on the authorized employee representative:
</P>
<P>(i) The notice of contest with respect to the reasonableness of the abatement period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the Secretary's statement of reasons, filed in conformance with § 2200.38(a).
</P>
<P>(2) Service on the authorized employee representative shall be in the manner prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section. The unrepresented affected employee shall file proof of such service.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Employee contest; service on employer.</I> Where a notice of contest with respect to the reasonableness of the abatement period is filed by an affected employee or an authorized employee representative, a copy of the notice of contest and response filed in support of the notice of contest shall be provided to the employer for posting in the manner prescribed in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Employee contest; service on other authorized employee representatives.</I> An authorized employee representative who files a notice of contest with respect to the reasonableness of the abatement period shall be responsible for serving any other authorized employee representative whose members are affected employees in the manner prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Duration of posting.</I> Where posting is required by this section, such posting shall be maintained until the commencement of the hearing or until earlier disposition.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Service of show cause orders</I>—(1) <I>Service on parties and intervenors using Commission's E-File System.</I> Service of show cause orders shall be deemed completed by service through the Commission's E-File System on a representative who has entered an appearance for a party or intervenor under § 2200.23 or on a self-represented party or intervenor who has not been exempted from using the Commission's E-File System. <I>See also</I> § 2200.101(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service on self-represented parties or intervenors exempted from using the Commission's E-File System.</I> In addition to the service methods permitted by § 2200.7(c), the Commission or the Judge shall serve a show cause order on a self-represented party or intervenor who has been exempted from using the Commission's E-File System by certified mail or by any other method (including commercial delivery service) that provides confirmation of delivery to the addressee's record address provided under § 2200.6.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, as amended at 84 FR 53052, Oct. 4, 2019; 85 FR 65220, Oct. 15, 2020; 87 FR 8948, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.8" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.8   Filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What to file</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> All documents required to be served on a party or intervenor shall be filed either before service or within a reasonable time after service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discovery documents.</I> Discovery documents generated pursuant to §§ 2200.52 through 2200.56 shall not be filed with the Commission or the Judge. Filing and retention of such discovery documents shall comply with § 2200.52(i) and (j).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Prior to assignment of a case to a Judge, all documents shall be filed electronically in the Commission's E-File System or with the Executive Secretary at One Lafayette Centre, 1120 20th Street NW, Suite 980, Washington, DC 20036-3457. After the assignment of the case to a Judge, all documents shall be filed electronically in the Commission's E-File System or with the Judge at the address given in the notice of assignment. After the docketing of the Judge's report, all documents shall be filed with the Executive Secretary, except as provided in § 2200.90(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic filing with the Commission</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory e-filing.</I> All parties and intervenors must file documents electronically in the Commission's E-File System by following the instructions on the Commission's website (<I>www.oshrc.gov</I>), unless a self-represented party or intervenor is able to claim that complying with this paragraph will place an undue burden upon that party or intervenor under paragraph (c)(2) of this section or the documents are exempt from e-filing under paragraph (c)(5) of this section. Documents may not be filed with the Commission or the Judge via email, unless allowed under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Undue burden.</I> Self-represented parties or intervenors may submit a written statement to the Judge requesting an exemption from the mandatory e-filing requirement on the grounds that it would place an undue burden on them to comply with the requirement. If the Judge grants an exemption, exempted self-represented parties or intervenors must file documents by postage-prepaid first class or higher class U.S. Mail, commercial delivery service, personal delivery, or facsimile transmission as described in paragraph (d) of this section. Documents may not be filed with the Commission or the Judge via email, unless allowed under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If technical difficulties prevent the successful submission of electronically filed documents, the e-filer should refer to the instructions for electronic filing on the Commission's website (<I>www.oshrc.gov</I>). 
</P>
<P>(4) Documents filed electronically in the Commission's E-File System may contain an electronic signature of the filer which will have the same legal effect, validity, and enforceability as if signed manually. The term “electronic signature” means an electronic symbol or process attached to or logically associated with a contact or other record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the document.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Confidential and privileged documents.</I> The following documents must not be filed electronically in the Commission's E-File System:
</P>
<P>(i) Documents that may not be released to the public because the information is covered by a protective order or has been placed “under seal” pursuant to § 2200.52(d) and (e).
</P>
<P>(ii) Documents submitted for <I>in camera</I> inspection by the Commission or the Judge, including material for which a privilege is claimed. Claims regarding privileged information must comply with § 2200.52(d).
</P>
<P>(iii) Confidential settlement documents filed with the Judge pursuant to settlement procedures pursuant to § 2200.120.
</P>
<P>(iv) Applications for subpoenas made <I>ex parte</I> pursuant to § 2200.65.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sensitive information.</I> Unless the Commission or the Judge orders otherwise, all sensitive information in documents filed electronically in the Commission's E-File System must be redacted pursuant to paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Date of filing.</I> The date of filing for documents filed electronically is the day that the complete document is successfully submitted in the Commission's E-File System pursuant to § 2200.4(a)(4)(i). Electronic filing shall be completed by following the instructions on the Commission's website (<I>www.oshrc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Timeliness.</I> Representatives and self-represented parties and intervenors bear the sole responsibility for ensuring that a filing is timely made.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Certificate of service.</I> Proof of service shall accompany each document filed in the Commission's E-File System. The certificate of service shall certify simultaneous service of the document by email on all other parties and intervenors in the case. It is the responsibility of the filing party to retain records showing the date of transmission, including receipts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Documents that are not filed in the Commission's E-File System; alternative filing methods</I>—(1) <I>How to file.</I> Documents may be filed by postage-prepaid first class or higher class U.S. Mail, commercial delivery service, personal delivery, or facsimile transmission. Only documents exempt from e-filing under paragraph (c)(5) of this section may be filed by email.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise ordered or stated in this part, only the original of a document shall be filed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Filing date.</I> (i) Except for the documents listed in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, if filing is by U.S. first class mail (or higher class mail, such as priority mail), then filing is deemed completed upon depositing the material in the U.S. Mail. If filing is by any other means (<I>e.g.,</I> personal delivery, commercial delivery service, or facsimile transmission) then filing is deemed completed upon receipt by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(ii) Filing is completed upon receipt by the Commission for petitions for interlocutory review (§ 2200.73), petitions for discretionary review (§ 2200.91), and EAJA applications (§ 2204.301).
</P>
<P>(iii) Representatives and self-represented parties and intervenors bear the sole responsibility for ensuring that a filing is timely made.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Certificate of service.</I> A certificate of service shall accompany each document filed. The certificate shall set forth the dates and manner of filing and service.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sensitive information.</I> Unless the Commission or the Judge orders otherwise, in any filing with the Commission, information that is sensitive but not privileged (<I>e.g.,</I> Social Security numbers, driver's license numbers, passport numbers, taxpayer-identification numbers, birthdates, mother's maiden names, names of minors, an individual's physical personal address, financial account numbers) shall be redacted. Parties shall exercise caution when filing medical records, medical treatment records, medical diagnosis records, employment history, and individual financial information, and shall redact or exclude materials unnecessary to the case.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Privileged information.</I> Claims regarding privileged information shall comply with § 2200.52(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 45654, Aug. 30, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 65220, Oct. 15, 2020; 87 FR 8948, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.9" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.9   Consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>Cases may be consolidated on the motion of any party conforming to § 2200.40, on the Judge's own motion, or on the Commission's own motion, where there exist common parties, common questions of law or fact or in such other circumstances as justice or the administration of the Act require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.10" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.10   Severance.</HEAD>
<P>Upon its own motion, or upon motion of any party or intervenor conforming to § 2200.40, where a showing of good cause has been made by the party or intervenor, the Commission or the Judge may order any proceeding severed with respect to some or all claims or parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.11" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.11   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.12" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.12   References to cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Citing decisions by Commission and Judges</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Parties citing decisions by the Commission should include in the citation the name of the employer, the OSHRC docket number, the year of the decision, and a citation to a print or electronic reference source. Citations to Commission and ALJ decisions published on the Commission's website (<I>www.oshrc.gov</I>) are also accepted. For example,
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Print:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Hackensack Steel Corp.,</I> 20 BNA OSHC 1387, 1388 (No. 97-0755, 2003).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Hackensack Steel Corp.,</I> 2002-2004 CCH OSHD ¶ 32,690, p. 51,558 (No. 97-0755, 2003).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Electronic:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Hackensack Steel Corp.,</I> No. 97-0755, 2003 WL 22232017, at *4 (OSHRC Sept. 25, 2003).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Hackensack Steel Corp.,</I> No. 97-0755, 2003 LEXIS 450392, at *2 (OSHRC Sept. 25, 2003).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Commission website (www.oshrc.gov):</I>
</P>
<P>(A) PDF versions of cases should be cited as follows and identify the relevant page number: <I>Jacobs Field Servs. N. Am.,</I> No. 10-2659, at 5 (OSHRC 2015).
</P>
<P>(B) HTML versions of cases should be cited as follows and identify the relevant paragraph number: <I>Jacobs Field Servs. N. Am.,</I> No. 10-2659, at ¶ 9 (OSHRC 2015).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Parenthetical statements.</I> When citing the decision of a Judge, the digest of an opinion, or the opinion of a single Commissioner, a parenthetical statement identifying that the decision is non-precedential (<I>e.g.</I> “ALJ”) must be included. For example, <I>Rust Engineering Co.,</I> 1984 CCH OSHD ¶ 27,023 (No.79-2090, 1984) (view of Chairman ______), <I>vacating direction for review of</I> 1980 CCH OSHD ¶ 24,269 (1980) (ALJ) (digest).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>References to court decisions.</I> (1) Citation to court decisions should be to the official reporter whenever possible. For example:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>W.G. Yates &amp; Sons Constr. Co.</I> v. <I>OSHRC,</I> 459 F.3d 604, 608-09 (5th Cir. 2006).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Martin</I> v. <I>OSHRC (CF &amp; I Steel Corp.),</I> 499 U.S. 144, 150-51 (1991).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Name of employer to be indicated.</I> When a court decision is cited in which the first-listed party on each side is either the Secretary of Labor (or the name of a particular Secretary of Labor), the Commission, or a labor union, the citation should include in parenthesis the name of the employer in the Commission proceeding. For example, <I>Donovan</I> v. <I>Allied Industrial Workers (Archer Daniels Midland Co.),</I> 760 F.2d 783 (7th Cir. 1985); <I>Donovan</I> v. <I>OSHRC (Mobil Oil Corp.),</I> 713 F. 2d 918 (2d Cir. 1983).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Parties and Representatives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.20" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.20   Party status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Affected employees.</I> (1) Affected employees and authorized employee representatives may elect party status concerning any matter in which the Act confers a right to participate. The election shall be accomplished by filing a written notice of election at least 14 days before the hearing. A notice of election filed less than 14 days prior to the hearing is ineffective unless good cause is shown for not timely filing the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) A notice of election shall be served on all other parties in accordance with § 2200.7.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employees no longer employed by cited employer.</I> An employee of a cited employer who was exposed to or had access to the hazard arising out of the allegedly violative circumstances, conditions, practices, or operations and who is no longer employed by the cited employer is permitted to participate as a party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee contest.</I> (1) Where a notice of contest is filed by an employee or by an authorized employee representative with respect to the reasonableness of the period for abatement of a violation, the employer charged with the responsibility of abating the violation may elect party status by a notice filed at least 14 days before the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) A notice of election shall be served on all other parties in accordance with § 2200.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.21" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.21   Intervention; appearance by non-parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When allowed.</I> A petition for leave to intervene may be filed at any time prior to 14 days before commencement of the hearing. A petition filed less than 14 days prior to the commencement of the hearing will be denied unless good cause is shown for not timely filing the petition. A petition shall be served on all parties in accordance with § 2200.7.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements of petition.</I> (1) The petition shall set forth the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding and show that the participation of the petitioner will assist in the determination of the issues in question and that the intervention will not unduly delay the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If the petitioner is an employee who is not employed by the cited employer but who performed work at the cited worksite, the petition, in addition to the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall set forth material facts sufficient to demonstrate that the petitioner was exposed to or has access to the hazard arising out of the allegedly violative circumstances, conditions, practices, or operations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ruling on petition.</I> (1) For petitions filed by an employee, as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Commission or the Judge shall grant the petition for intervention.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other petitions, the Commission or the Judge may grant a petition for intervention that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) An order granting a petition shall specify the extent and terms of an intervenor's participation in the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.22" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.22   Representation of parties and intervenors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Representation.</I> Any party or intervenor may appear in person, through an attorney, or through any non-attorney representative. A representative must file an appearance in accordance with § 2200.23. In the absence of an appearance by a representative, a party or intervenor will be deemed to appear for itself. A corporation or unincorporated association may be represented by an authorized officer or agent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affected employees in collective bargaining unit.</I> Where an authorized employee representative (see § 2200.1(g)) elects to participate as a party, affected employees who are members of the collective bargaining unit may not separately elect party status. If the authorized employee representative does not elect party status, affected employees who are members of the collective bargaining unit may elect party status in the same manner as affected employees who are not members of the collective bargaining unit. See paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affected employees not in collective bargaining unit.</I> Affected employees who are not members of a collective bargaining unit may elect party status under § 2200.20(a). If more than one employee so elects, the Judge shall provide for them to be treated as one party.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Control of proceeding.</I> A representative of a party or intervenor shall be deemed to control all matters respecting the interest of such party or intervenor in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.23" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.23   Appearances and withdrawals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Entry of appearance</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A representative of a party or intervenor shall enter an appearance by signing the first document filed on behalf of the party or intervenor in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section or subsequently by filing an entry of appearance in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appearance in first document or pleading.</I> If the first document filed on behalf of a party or intervenor is signed by a representative, the representative shall be recognized as representing that party. No separate entry of appearance by the representative is necessary, provided the document contains the information required by § 2200.6.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsequent appearance.</I> Where a representative has not previously appeared on behalf of a party or intervenor, the representative shall file an entry of appearance with the Executive Secretary, or Judge if the case has been assigned. The entry of appearance shall be signed by the representative and contain the information required by § 2200.6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Withdrawal of counsel.</I> Any counsel or representatives of record desiring to withdraw their appearance, or any parties desiring to withdraw the appearance of their counsel or representatives of record, must file a motion conforming with § 2200.40 with the Commission or the Judge requesting leave to withdraw, showing that prior notice of the motion has been given by the counsel or representative or party to the client or counsel or representative, as the case may be, and providing current contact information for the client, including street address, email address, and phone number. The motion of counsel to withdraw may, in the discretion of the Commission or the Judge, be denied where it is necessary to avoid undue delay or prejudice to the rights of a party or intervenor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.24" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.24   Brief of an amicus curiae.</HEAD>
<P>The brief of an amicus curiae may be filed only by leave of the Commission or the Judge. The brief may be conditionally filed with the motion for leave conforming to § 2200.40. A motion for leave shall identify the interest of the applicant and shall state the reasons why a brief of an amicus curiae is desirable. Any amicus curiae shall file its brief within the time allowed the party whose position the amicus will support unless the Commission or the Judge, for good cause shown, grants leave for later filing. In that event, the Commission or the Judge may specify within what period an opposing party may answer. The brief of an amicus curiae shall conform to § 2200.74 or § 2200.93.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Pleadings and Motions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.30" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.30   General rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Format.</I> Pleadings and other documents (other than exhibits) shall be typewritten, double spaced, with typeface of text being no smaller than 12-point and typeface of footnotes being no smaller than 11-point, on letter size opaque paper (8
<FR>1/2</FR> inches by 11 inches). All margins shall be 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches. Pleadings and other documents shall be fastened without the use of staples at the upper left corner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clarity.</I> Each allegation or response of a pleading or motion shall be simple, concise, and direct.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Separation of claims.</I> Each allegation or response shall be made in separate numbered paragraphs. Each paragraph shall be limited as far as practicable to a statement of a single set of circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adoption by reference.</I> Statements in a pleading may be adopted by reference in a different part of the same pleading or in another pleading or in any motion. A copy of any written instrument which is an exhibit to a pleading is a part of the pleading for all purposes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative pleading.</I> A party may set forth two or more statements of a claim or defense alternatively or hypothetically. When two or more statements are made in the alternative and one of them would be sufficient if made independently, the pleading is not made insufficient by the insufficiency of one or more of the alternative statements. A party may state as many separate claims or defenses as it has regardless of consistency. All statements shall be made subject to the signature requirements of § 2200.32.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Form of pleadings, motions, and other documents.</I> Any pleading, motion, or other document shall contain a caption complying with § 2200.31 and a signature complying with § 2200.32. The form and content of motions shall conform with § 2200.40.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Burden of persuasion.</I> The rules of pleading established by this subpart are not determinative in deciding which party bears the burden of persuasion on an issue. By pleading a matter affirmatively, a party does not waive its right to argue that the burden of persuasion on the matter is on another party.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcement of pleading rules.</I> The Commission or the Judge may refuse for filing any pleading or motion that does not comply with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 45654, Aug. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.31" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.31   Caption; titles of cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of contest cases.</I> Cases initiated by a notice of contest shall be titled:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Secretary of Labor,
</FP-1>
<FP>Complainant,
</FP>
<FP>v.
</FP>
<FP-1>(Name of Employer),
</FP-1>
<FP>Respondent.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Petitions for modification of abatement period.</I> Cases initiated by a petition for modification of the abatement period shall be titled:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>(Name of employer),
</FP-1>
<FP>Petitioner,
</FP>
<FP>v.
</FP>
<FP-1>Secretary of Labor,
</FP-1>
<FP>Respondent.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Location of title.</I> The titles listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall appear at the left upper portion of the initial page of any pleading or document (other than exhibits) filed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Docket number.</I> The initial page of any pleading or document (other than exhibits) shall show, at the upper right of the page, opposite the title, the docket number, if known, assigned by the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.32" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.32   Signing of pleadings and motions.</HEAD>
<P>Pleadings and motions shall be signed by the filing party or by the party's representative. The signature of a representative constitutes a representation by the representative that the representative is authorized to represent the party or parties on whose behalf the pleading is filed. The signature of a representative or party also constitutes a certificate by the representative or party that the representative or party has read the pleading, motion, or other document, that to the best of the representative's or party's knowledge, information, and belief, formed after reasonable inquiry, it is well grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and that it is not included for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation. If a pleading, motion, or other document is signed in violation of this rule, such signing party or its representative shall be subject to the sanctions set forth in § 2200.101 or § 2200.104. A signature by a party representative constitutes a representation by the representative that the representative understands that the rules and orders of the Commission and its Judges apply equally to attorney and non-attorney representatives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 8949, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.33" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.33   Notices of contest.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 working days after receipt of any of the following notices, the Secretary shall notify the Commission of the receipt in writing and shall promptly furnish to the Executive Secretary of the Commission the original of any documents or records filed by the contesting party and copies of all other documents or records relevant to the contest:
</P>
<P>(a) Notification that the employer intends to contest a citation or proposed penalty under section 10(a) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 659(a); or
</P>
<P>(b) Notification that the employer wishes to contest a notice of a failure to abate or a proposed penalty under section 10(b) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 659(b); or
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of contest filed by an employee or representative of employees with respect to the reasonableness of the abatement period under section 10(c) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 659(c).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED> Note 1 to § 2200.33:</HED>
<P>Failure to meet the 15-working day deadline to file a notice of contest results in the citation or notification of failure to abate becoming a final order of the Commission. Under extraordinary circumstances, the cited employer, an affected employee, or an authorized employee representative may seek relief from the final order pursuant to Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 60, by promptly filing a request for such relief with the Commission's Executive Secretary, One Lafayette Centre, 1120 20th Street NW, Suite 980, Washington, DC 20036-3457. <I>See Brancifort Builders, Inc.,</I> 9 BNA OSHC 2113, 2116-17 (1981).</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.34" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.34   Employer contests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Complaint.</I> (1) The Secretary shall file a complaint with the Commission no later than 21 days after receipt of the notice of contest.
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint shall set forth all alleged violations and proposed penalties which are contested, stating with particularity:
</P>
<P>(i) The basis for jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(ii) The time, location, place, and circumstances of each such alleged violation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The considerations upon which the period for abatement and the proposed penalty of each such alleged violation are based.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the Secretary seeks in the complaint to amend the citation or proposed penalty, the Secretary shall set forth the reasons for amendment and shall state with particularity the change sought.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Answer.</I> (1) Within 21 days after service of the complaint, the party against whom the complaint was issued shall file an answer with the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) The answer shall contain a short and plain statement denying those allegations in the complaint which the party intends to contest. Any allegation not denied shall be deemed admitted.
</P>
<P>(3) The answer shall include all affirmative defenses being asserted. Such affirmative defenses include, but are not limited to, “infeasibility,” “unpreventable employee misconduct,” and “greater hazard.”
</P>
<P>(4) The failure to raise an affirmative defense in the answer may result in the party being prohibited from raising the defense at a later stage in the proceeding, unless the Judge finds that the party has asserted the defense as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motions filed in lieu of an answer.</I> A motion filed in lieu of an answer pursuant to this subpart shall be filed no later than 21 days after service of the complaint. The form and content of the motion shall comply with § 2200.40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.35" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.35   Disclosure of corporate parents, subsidiaries, and affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> All answers, petitions for modification of abatement period, or other initial pleadings filed under these rules by a corporation shall be accompanied by a separate declaration listing all parents, subsidiaries, and affiliates of that corporation or stating that the corporation has no parents, subsidiaries, or affiliates, whichever is applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to disclose.</I> The Commission or the Judge in its discretion may refuse to accept for filing an answer or other initial pleading that lacks the disclosure declaration required by this paragraph. A party that fails to file an adequate declaration may be held in default after being given an opportunity to show cause why it should not be held in default. All show cause orders issued by the Commission or the Judge shall be served in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(o).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Continuing duty to disclose.</I> A party subject to the disclosure requirement of this paragraph has a continuing duty to notify the Commission or the Judge of any change in the information on the disclosure declaration until the Commission issues a final order disposing of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.36" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.36   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.37" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.37   Petitions for modification of the abatement period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for modifying abatement date.</I> An employer may file a petition for modification of abatement date when such employer has made a good faith effort to comply with the abatement requirements of a citation, but such abatement has not been completed because of factors beyond the employer's reasonable control.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of petition.</I> A petition for modification of abatement date shall be in writing and shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All steps taken by the employer, and the dates of such action, in an effort to achieve compliance during the prescribed abatement period.
</P>
<P>(2) The specific additional abatement time necessary in order to achieve compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) The reasons such additional time is necessary, including the unavailability of professional or technical personnel or of materials and equipment, or because necessary construction or alteration of facilities cannot be completed by the original abatement date.
</P>
<P>(4) All available interim steps being taken to safeguard the employees against the cited hazard during the abatement period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When and where filed; posting requirement; responses to petition.</I> A petition for modification of abatement date shall be filed with the Area Director of the United States Department of Labor who issued the citation no later than the close of the next working day following the date on which abatement was originally required. A later-filed petition shall be accompanied by the employer's statement of exceptional circumstances explaining the delay.
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of such petition shall be posted in a conspicuous place where all affected employees will have notice of the petition or near each location where the violation occurred. The petition shall remain posted for a period of 10 working days.
</P>
<P>(2) Affected employees or the representatives may file an objection in writing to such petition with the aforesaid Area Director. Failure to file such objection within 10 working days of the date of posting of such petition shall constitute a waiver of any further right to object to said petition.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary or the Secretary's duly authorized agent shall have the authority to approve any uncontested petition for modification of abatement date filed pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Such uncontested petitions shall become final orders pursuant to sections 10(a) and (c) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 659(a) and (c).
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary or the Secretary's authorized representative shall not exercise the Secretary's approval power until the expiration of 15 working days from the date the petition was posted pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section by the employer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contested petitions.</I> Where any petition is objected to by the Secretary or affected employees, such petition shall be processed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary shall forward the petition, citation, and any objections to the Commission within 10 working days after the expiration of the 15 working day period set out in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission shall docket and process such petitions as expedited proceedings as provided for in § 2200.103 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) An employer petitioning for a modification of the abatement period shall have the burden of proving in accordance with the requirements of section 10(c) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 659(c), that such employer has made a good faith effort to comply with the abatement requirements of the citation and that abatement has not been completed because of factors beyond the employer's reasonable control.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the petitioner is a corporation, it shall file a separate declaration listing all parents, subsidiaries, and affiliates of that corporation or stating that the corporation has no parents, subsidiaries, or affiliates, whichever is applicable, within 10 working days after service of the Commission docketing notice of the petition for modification of the abatement date. Service of the filed declaration on the other parties and intervenors shall be accomplished in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(c). The requirements set forth in § 2200.35(b) through (c) shall apply.
</P>
<P>(5) Each objecting party shall file a response setting forth the reasons for opposing the abatement date requested in the petition, within 10 working days after service of the Commission docketing notice of the petition for modification of the abatement date. Service of the response on the other parties and intervenors shall be accomplished in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 53053, Oct. 4, 2019; as amended at 87 FR 8949, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.38" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.38   Employee contests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary's statement of reasons.</I> Where an affected employee or authorized employee representative files a notice of contest with respect to the abatement period, the Secretary shall, within 14 days from receipt of the notice of contest, file a clear and concise statement of the reasons the abatement period prescribed by the Secretary is not unreasonable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to Secretary's statement.</I> Not later than 14 days after service of the Secretary's statement, referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the contesting affected employee or authorized employee representative shall file a response. Service of the filed statement on the other parties and intervenors shall be accomplished in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expedited proceedings.</I> All contests under this section shall be handled as expedited proceedings as provided for in § 2200.103.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.39" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.39   Statement of position.</HEAD>
<P>At any time prior to the commencement of the hearing before the Judge, any person entitled to appear as a party, or any person who has been granted leave to intervene, may file a statement of position with respect to any or all issues to be heard. The Judge may order the filing of a statement of position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.40" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.40   Motions and requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to make.</I> An application or request for an order must be made by written motion. A motion shall not be included in another pleading or document, such as a brief or petition for discretionary review, but shall be made in a separate document. In exigent circumstances in cases pending before a Judge, an oral motion may be made during an off-the-record telephone conference if the motion is subsequently reduced to writing and filed within such time as the judge prescribes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of motions.</I> All motions shall contain a caption complying with § 2200.31 and a signature complying with § 2200.32. Requests for orders that are presented in any other form, such as by a business letter or by an email, shall not be considered or granted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of motions.</I> A motion shall contain a clear and plain statement of the relief sought and state with particularity the grounds for seeking the order. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of the motion or a response.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duty to confer.</I> Prior to filing a motion, the moving party shall confer or make reasonable efforts to confer with all other parties and shall state in the motion the efforts undertaken to confer. The motion shall also state if any other party opposes or does not oppose the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Proposed order for procedural motions.</I> All procedural motions shall be accompanied by a proposed order that would grant the relief requested in the motion. A procedural motion may be ruled upon prior to the expiration of the time for response.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Oral motions.</I> Oral motions may be made during a hearing and shall be included in the transcript, if a transcript is being made.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>When to make.</I> (1) A motion filed in lieu of an answer pursuant to § 2200.34(c) shall be filed no later than 21 days after service of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) Motions shall be made as soon as the grounds for the motion are known. A party is not required to raise by motion any matter that the party has previously included in any pleading as defined in § 2200.1(n), unless the party seeks a ruling on the previously pleaded matter prior to the hearing on the merits.
</P>
<P>(3) A motion to postpone a hearing shall comply with § 2200.62.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Responses.</I> Any party or intervenor upon whom a motion has been served shall file a response within 14 days from service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A party adversely affected by a ruling on any motion may file a motion for reconsideration within 7 days of service of the ruling.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Summary judgment motions.</I> The provisions of Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 56 apply to motions for summary judgment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.41" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.41   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Prehearing Procedures and Discovery</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.50" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.51" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.51   Prehearing conferences and orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> (1) The Judge may, upon the Judge's discretion, consult with the attorneys, non-attorney party representatives, and any self-represented parties, by a scheduling conference, telephone, mail, or other suitable means, and within 30 days after the filing of the answer, enter a scheduling order that limits the time:
</P>
<P>(i) To join other parties and to amend the pleadings;
</P>
<P>(ii) To file and hear motions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) To complete discovery.
</P>
<P>(2) The scheduling order also may include:
</P>
<P>(i) The date or dates for conferences before hearing, a final prehearing conference, and hearing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other matters appropriate to the circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conference.</I> In addition to the prehearing procedures set forth in Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 16, the Judge may, upon the Judge's own initiative or on the motion of a party, direct the parties to confer among themselves to consider settlement, stipulation of facts, or any other matter that may expedite the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance.</I> Parties must fully prepare for a useful discussion of all procedural and substantive issues involved in prehearing conferences and shall participate in such conferences in good faith. Parties failing to do so may be subject to sanctions under §§ 2200.101 and 2200.104.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.52" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.52   General provisions governing discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Methods and limitations.</I> In conformity with these rules, any party may, without leave of the Commission or the Judge, obtain discovery by one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) Production of documents or things or permission to enter upon land or other property for inspection and other purposes to the extent provided in § 2200.53;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests for admission to the extent provided in § 2200.54; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Interrogatories to the extent provided in § 2200.55.
</P>
<P>(iv) Discovery is not available under these rules through depositions except to the extent provided in § 2200.56.
</P>
<P>(v) In the absence of a specific provision, discovery procedures shall be in accordance with the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, except that the provisions of Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 26(a) do not apply to Commission proceedings. This exception does not preclude any prehearing disclosures (including disclosure of expert testimony and written reports) directed in a scheduling order entered under § 2200.51.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time for discovery.</I> A party may initiate all forms of discovery in conformity with these Rules at any time after the filing of the first responsive pleading or motion that delays the filing of an answer, such as a motion to dismiss. Discovery shall be initiated early enough to permit completion of discovery no later than 14 days prior to the date set for hearing, unless the Judge orders otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service of discovery documents.</I> Every document relating to discovery required to be served on a party shall be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations about discovery procedures.</I> Unless the Commission or the Judge orders otherwise, the parties may stipulate that:
</P>
<P>(i) A deposition may be taken before any person, at any time or place, on any notice, and in the manner specified—in which event it may be used in the same way as any other deposition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other procedures governing or limiting discovery may be modified—but a stipulation extending the time for any form of discovery must be approved by the Commission or the Judge if it would interfere with the time set forth for completing discovery, for hearing a motion, or for hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of discovery.</I> The information or response sought through discovery may concern any matter that is not privileged and that is relevant to the subject matter involved in the pending case and proportional to the needs of the case, considering the importance of the issues at stake, the parties' relative access to relevant information, the parties' resources, the importance of the discovery in resolving the issues, and whether the burden or expense of the proposed discovery outweighs its likely benefit. Information within this scope of discovery need not be admissible in evidence to be discoverable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> The frequency or extent of the discovery methods provided by these rules may be limited by the Commission or the Judge if it is determined that:
</P>
<P>(1) The discovery sought is unreasonably cumulative or duplicative, or it is obtainable from some other source that is more convenient, less burdensome, or less expensive;
</P>
<P>(2) The party seeking discovery has had ample opportunity to obtain the information sought by discovery in the action; or
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed discovery is outside the scope permitted by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Privilege</I>—(1) <I>Claims of privilege.</I> The initial claim of privilege shall specify the privilege claimed and the general nature of the material for which the privilege is claimed. In response to an order from the Commission or the Judge, or in response to a motion to compel, the claim shall: Identify the information that would be disclosed; set forth the privilege that is claimed; and allege the facts showing that the information is privileged. The claim shall be supported by affidavits, depositions, or testimony and shall specify the relief sought. The claim may be accompanied by a motion for a protective order or by a motion that the allegedly privileged information be received and the claim ruled upon in camera, that is, with the record and hearing room closed to the public, or ex parte, that is, without the participation of parties and their representatives. The Judge may enter an order and impose terms and conditions on the Judge's examination of the claim as justice may require, including an order designed to ensure that the allegedly privileged information not be disclosed until after the examination is completed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Upholding or rejecting claims of privilege.</I> If the Judge upholds the claim of privilege, the Judge may order and impose terms and conditions as justice may require, including a protective order. If the Judge overrules the claim, the person claiming the privilege may obtain as of right an order sealing from the public those portions of the record containing the allegedly privileged information pending interlocutory or final review of the ruling, or final disposition of the case, by the Commission. Interlocutory review of such an order shall be given priority consideration by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Resolving claims of privilege outside of discovery proceedings.</I> A Judge may utilize the procedures set forth in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section outside of discovery proceedings, including during the hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protective orders.</I> In connection with any discovery procedures and where a showing of good cause has been made, the Commission or the Judge may make any order including, but not limited to, one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) That the discovery not be had;
</P>
<P>(2) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place;
</P>
<P>(3) That the discovery may be had only by a method of discovery other than that selected by the party seeking discovery;
</P>
<P>(4) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of the discovery be limited to certain matters;
</P>
<P>(5) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the Commission or the Judge;
</P>
<P>(6) That a deposition after being sealed be opened only by order of the Commission or the Judge;
</P>
<P>(7) That a trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way;
</P>
<P>(8) That the parties simultaneously file specified documents or information enclosed in sealed envelopes to be opened as directed by the Commission or the Judge.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to cooperate; motions to compel; sanctions</I>—(1) <I>Motions to compel discovery.</I> A party may file a motion conforming to § 2200.40 for an order compelling discovery when another party refuses or obstructs discovery. In considering a motion to compel, the Judge shall treat an evasive or incomplete answer as a failure to answer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sanctions.</I> If a party fails to comply with an order compelling discovery, the Judge may enter an order to redress the failure. Such order may issue upon the initiative of a Judge, after affording an opportunity to show cause why the order should not be entered, or upon the motion of a party conforming to § 2200.40. The order may include any sanction stated in Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 37, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An order that designated facts shall be taken to be established for purposes of the case in accordance with the claim of the party obtaining that order;
</P>
<P>(ii) An order refusing to permit the disobedient party to support or to oppose designated claims or defenses or prohibiting it from introducing designated matters in evidence;
</P>
<P>(iii) An order striking pleadings or parts of pleadings or staying further proceedings until the order is obeyed; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An order dismissing the action or proceeding or any part of the action or proceeding or rendering a judgment by default against the disobedient party.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Unreasonable delays.</I> None of the discovery procedures set forth in these rules shall be used in a manner or at a time which shall delay or impede the progress of the case toward hearing status or the hearing of the case on the date for which it is scheduled, unless, in the interests of justice, the Judge shall order otherwise. Unreasonable delays in utilizing discovery procedures may result in termination of the party's right to conduct discovery.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Show cause orders.</I> All show cause orders issued by the Commission or the Judge under paragraph (f) of this section shall be served in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(o).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Supplementation of responses.</I> A party that has responded to a request for discovery with a response that was complete when made is under no duty to supplement the response to include information subsequently acquired, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A party is under a duty to promptly supplement the response with respect to any question directly addressed to:
</P>
<P>(i) The identity and location of persons having knowledge of discoverable matters; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of each person expected to be called as an expert witness at the hearing, the subject matter on which the person is expected to testify, and the substance of the person's testimony.
</P>
<P>(2) A party is under a duty to promptly amend a prior response if the party obtains information upon the basis of which:
</P>
<P>(i) The party knows that the response was incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The party knows that the response though correct when made is no longer true and the circumstances are such that a failure to amend the response is in substance a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(3) A duty to supplement responses may be imposed by order of the court, agreement of the parties, or at any time prior to the hearing through new requests for supplementation of prior responses.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Filing of discovery.</I> Requests for production or inspection under § 2200.53, requests for admission under § 2200.54 and responses to requests for admission, interrogatories under § 2200.55 and the answers to interrogatories, and depositions under § 2200.56 shall be served upon other counsel or parties, but shall not be filed with the Commission or the Judge. The party responsible for service of the discovery material shall retain the original and become the custodian.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Relief from discovery requests.</I> If relief is sought under § 2200.101 or § 2200.52(e), (f), or (g) concerning any interrogatories, requests for production or inspection, requests for admissions, answers to interrogatories, or responses to requests for admissions, copies of the portions of the interrogatories, requests, answers, or responses in dispute shall be filed with the Commission or the Judge contemporaneously with any motion filed under § 2200.101 or § 2200.52(e), (f), or (g).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Use at hearing.</I> If interrogatories, requests, answers, responses, or depositions are to be used at the hearing or are necessary to a prehearing motion which might result in a final order on any claim, the portions to be used shall be filed with the Commission or the Judge at the outset of the hearing or at the filing of the motion insofar as their use can be reasonably anticipated. Section 2200.56(f) prescribes additional procedures pertaining to the use of depositions at a hearing.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Use on review or appeal.</I> When documentation of discovery not previously in the record is needed for review or appeal purposes, upon an application and order of the Commission or the Judge, the necessary discovery documents shall be filed with the Executive Secretary of the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.53" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.53   Production of documents and things.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> At any time after the filing of the first responsive pleading or motion that delays the filing of an answer, such as a motion to dismiss, any party may serve on any other party a request to:
</P>
<P>(1) Produce and permit the party making the request, or a person acting on the party's behalf, to inspect and copy any designated documents, or to inspect and copy, test, or sample any tangible things which are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served;
</P>
<P>(2) Permit entry upon designated land or other property in the possession or control of the party upon whom the request is served for the purpose of inspection and measuring, surveying, photographing, testing, or sampling the property or any designated object or operation on the property.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> The request shall set forth the items to be inspected, either by individual item or by category, and describe each item and category with reasonable particularity. It shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner of making the inspection and performing related acts. The party upon whom the request is served shall serve a written response within 30 days after service of the request, unless the requesting party allows a longer time. The Commission or the Judge may allow a shorter time or a longer time, should the requesting party deny an extension. The response shall state, with respect to each item or category, that inspection and related activities will be permitted as requested, unless the request is objected to in whole or in part, in which event the reasons for objection shall be stated. If objection is made to part of an item or category, that part shall be specified. To obtain a ruling on an objection by the responding party, the requesting party shall file a motion conforming to § 2200.40 with the Judge and shall annex its request to the motion, together with the response and objections, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.54" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.54   Request for admissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and procedure</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> Any time after the filing of the first responsive pleading or motion that delays the filing of an answer, such as a motion to dismiss, a party may serve on any other party a written request to admit, for purposes of the pending action only, the truth of any matters within the scope of § 2200.52(b) relating to:
</P>
<P>(i) Facts, the application of law to fact, or opinions about either; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The genuineness of any described documents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form; copy of a document.</I> Each matter must be separately stated. The number of requested admissions shall not exceed 25, including subparts, except upon the agreement of the parties or by order of the Commission or the Judge. A request to admit the genuineness of a document must be accompanied by a copy of the document unless it is, or has been, otherwise furnished or made available for inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time to respond; effect of not responding.</I> A matter is admitted unless, within 30 days after being served, the party to whom the request is directed serves on the requesting party a written answer or objection addressed to the matter and signed by the party or its representative. A shorter or longer time for responding may be provided by written stipulation of the parties or by order of the Commission or the Judge.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Answer.</I> If a matter is not admitted, the answer must specifically deny it or state in detail why the answering party cannot truthfully admit or deny it. A denial must fairly respond to the substance of the matter; and when good faith requires that a party qualify an answer or deny only a part of a matter, the answer must specify the part admitted and qualify or deny the rest. The answering party may assert lack of knowledge or information as a reason for failing to admit or deny only if the party states that it has made reasonable inquiry and that the information it knows or can readily obtain is insufficient to enable it to admit or deny.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Objections.</I> The grounds for objecting to a request must be stated. A party must not object solely on the ground that the request presents a genuine issue for hearing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Motion regarding the sufficiency of an answer or objection.</I> The requesting party may move to determine the sufficiency of an answer or objection. Unless an objection is sustained, the Commission or the Judge must order that an answer be served. On finding that an answer does not comply with this rule, the Commission or the Judge may order either that the matter is admitted or that an amended answer be served. The Commission or the Judge may defer the final decision until a prehearing conference or a specified time before hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of admission; withdrawal or modification.</I> A matter admitted under paragraph (a) of this section is conclusively established unless the Commission or the Judge on motion permits the admission to be withdrawn or amended. The Commission or the Judge may permit withdrawal or modification if it would promote the presentation of the merits of the case and if the Commission or the Judge is not persuaded that it would prejudice the requesting party in maintaining or defending the case on the merits. An admission under paragraph (a) of this section is not an admission for any other purpose and cannot be used against the party in any other proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.55" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.55   Interrogatories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the filing of the first responsive pleading or motion that delays the filing of an answer, such as a motion to dismiss, any party may serve interrogatories upon any other party. The number of interrogatories shall not exceed 25 questions, including subparts, except upon the agreement of the parties or by order of the Commission or the Judge. The party seeking to serve more than 25 questions, including subparts, shall have the burden of persuasion to establish that the complexity of the case or the number of citation items necessitates a greater number of interrogatories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Answers.</I> All answers shall be made in good faith and as completely as the answering party's information will permit. The answering party is required to make reasonable inquiry and ascertain readily obtainable information. An answering party may not give lack of information or knowledge as an answer or as a reason for failure to answer, unless the answering party states that it has made reasonable inquiry and that information known or readily obtainable by it is insufficient to enable it to answer the substance of the interrogatory.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Each interrogatory shall be answered separately and fully under oath or affirmation. If the interrogatory is objected to, the objection shall be stated in lieu of the answer. The answers are to be signed by the person making them and the objections shall be signed by the party or its counsel. The party on whom the interrogatories have been served shall serve a copy of its answers or objections upon the propounding party within 30 days after the service of the interrogatories. The Judge may allow a shorter or longer time. The burden shall be on the party submitting the interrogatories to file a motion conforming to § 2200.40 for an order with respect to any objection or other failure to answer an interrogatory.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.56" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.56   Depositions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Depositions of parties, intervenors, or witnesses shall be allowed only by agreement of all the parties or on order of the Commission or the Judge following the filing of a motion of a party stating good and just reasons. All depositions shall be before an officer authorized to administer oaths and affirmations at the place of examination. The deposition shall be taken in accordance with the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, particularly Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 30.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to file.</I> A motion to take depositions may be filed after the filing of the first responsive pleading or motion that delays the filing of an answer, such as a motion to dismiss.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of taking.</I> Any depositions allowed by the Commission or the Judge may be taken after 14 days' written notice to the other party or parties. The 14-day notice requirement may be waived by the parties pursuant to § 2200.52(a)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Method of recording and expenses.</I> The party that notices the deposition must state in the notice the method for recording the testimony. Unless the Commission or the Judge orders otherwise, testimony may be recorded by audio, audiovisual, or stenographic means. Witnesses whose depositions are taken and the person recording the deposition shall each be paid the same fees that are paid for like services in the federal courts. Any party may arrange to transcribe a deposition. The party noticing the deposition shall pay the recording costs, any witness fees, and mileage expense. Deposition subpoenas shall comply with § 2200.65.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of depositions.</I> Depositions taken under this rule may be used for discovery, to contradict or impeach the testimony of a deponent as a witness, or for any other purpose permitted by the Federal Rules of Evidence and the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, particularly Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 32. An audio or audiovisual deposition offered into evidence in whole or in part must be accompanied by a transcription of the deposition. All transcription costs must be borne by the party offering the deposition into evidence.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Excerpts from depositions to be offered at hearing.</I> Except when used for purposes of impeachment, at least 7 days prior to the hearing, the parties or counsel shall furnish to the Judge and all opposing parties or counsel the transcribed excerpts from depositions (by page and line number) which they expect to introduce at the hearing. Four working days later, the adverse party or counsel for the adverse party shall furnish to the Judge and all opposing parties or counsel additional transcribed excerpts from the depositions (by page and line number) which they expect to be read pursuant to Federal Rules of Civil Procedure 32(a)(4), as well as any objections (by page and line number) to opposing party's or counsel's depositions. With reasonable notice to the Judge and all parties or counsel, other excerpts may be read.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.57" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.57   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.60" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.60   Notice of hearing; location.</HEAD>
<P>Except by agreement of the parties, or in an expedited proceeding under § 2200.103, when a hearing is first set, the Judge shall give the parties and intervenors notice of the time, place, and nature of the hearing at least 30 days in advance of the hearing. If a hearing is being rescheduled, or if exigent circumstances are present, at least 10 days' notice shall be given. The Judge will designate a place and time of hearing that involves as little inconvenience and expense to the parties as is practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.61" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.61   Submission without hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A case may be fully stipulated by the parties and submitted to the Commission or the Judge for a decision at any time. The stipulation of facts shall be in writing and signed by the parties or their representatives. The submission of a case under this rule does not alter the burden of proof, the requirements otherwise applicable with respect to adducing proof, or the effect of failure of proof.
</P>
<P>(b) Motions for summary judgment are governed by § 2200.40(j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.62" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.62   Postponement of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motion to postpone.</I> A hearing may be postponed by the Judge on the Judge's own initiative or for good cause shown upon the motion of a party. A motion for postponement shall state the position of the other parties, either by a joint motion or by a representation of the moving party. The filing of a motion for postponement does not automatically postpone a hearing. The form and content of such motions shall comply with § 2200.40.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for postponement.</I> A motion for postponement grounded on conflicting engagements of counsel or employment of new counsel shall be promptly filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When motion must be received.</I> A motion to postpone a hearing must be received at least 10 days prior to the hearing. A motion for postponement received less than 10 days prior to the hearing will generally be denied unless good cause is shown for late filing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Postponement in excess of 60 days.</I> No postponement in excess of 60 days shall be granted without the concurrence of the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The original of any motion seeking a postponement in excess of 60 days shall be filed with the Judge and a copy sent to the Chief Administrative Law Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.63" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.63   Stay of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motion for stay.</I> Stays are not favored. A party seeking a stay of a case assigned to a Judge shall file a motion for stay conforming to § 2200.40 with the Judge and send a copy to the Chief Administrative Law Judge. A motion for a stay shall state the position of the other parties, either by a joint motion or by the representation of the moving party. The motion shall set forth the reasons a stay is sought and the length of the stay requested.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ruling on motion to stay.</I> The Judge, with the concurrence of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, may grant any motion for stay for the period requested or for such period as is deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Periodic reports required.</I> The parties in a stayed proceeding shall be required to submit periodic reports on such terms and conditions as the Judge may direct. The length of time between the reports shall be no longer than 90 days unless the Judge otherwise orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.64" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.64   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Attendance at hearing.</I> The failure of a party to appear in person or by a duly authorized representative at the hearing constitutes a waiver of the right to a hearing. A failure of the Secretary to appear constitutes abandonment of the case. A failure of the Respondent to appear is deemed an admission of the facts alleged and consent to the relief sought in the Complaint (or, in Simplified Proceedings, the citation and notification of proposed penalty). The Judge may default the non-appearing party without further proceeding or notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for reinstatement.</I> Requests for reinstatement must be made, in the absence of extraordinary circumstances, within 7 days after the scheduled hearing date. See § 2200.90(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rescheduling hearing.</I> The Commission or the Judge, upon a showing of good cause, may excuse such failure to appear. In such event, the hearing will be rescheduled as expeditiously as possible from the issuance of the Judge's order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 53053, Oct. 4, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.65" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.65   Issuance of subpoenas; petitions to revoke or modify subpoenas; payment of witness fees and mileage; right to inspect or copy data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of subpoenas.</I> On behalf of the Commission or any Commission member, the Judge shall, on the application of any party, issue to the applying party subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and/or the production of any evidence, including, but not limited to, relevant books, records, correspondence, or documents, in the witness' possession or under the witness' control, at a deposition or at a hearing before the Commission or the Judge. The party to whom the subpoena is issued shall be responsible for its service. Applications for subpoenas, if filed prior to the assignment of the case to a Judge, shall be filed with the Executive Secretary at One Lafayette Centre, 1120 20th Street NW, Suite 980, Washington, DC 20036-3457. After the case has been assigned to a Judge, applications shall be filed with the Judge. Applications for subpoena(s) may be made ex parte. The subpoena shall show on its face the name and address of the party at whose request the subpoena was issued.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service of subpoenas.</I> A subpoena may be served by any person who is not a party and is not less than 18 years of age. Service of a subpoena upon the person it names may be made by service on the person named, by certified mail return receipt requested, or by leaving a copy at the person's principal place of business or at the person's residence with a person of suitable age and discretion who resides there. A subpoena may be served at any place in the United States or any Territory or possession of the United States. A subpoena may command a person to attend and produce documents or tangible things, from any place in the United States or any Territory or possession of the United States, at any designated place of hearing or deposition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Revocation or modification of subpoenas.</I> Any person served with a subpoena, whether requiring attendance and testimony (ad testificandum) or for the production of evidence (duces tecum), shall, within 5 days after the date of service of the subpoena, move in writing to revoke or modify the subpoena if the person does not intend to comply. All motions to revoke or modify shall be served on the party at whose request the subpoena was issued. The Commission or the Judge shall revoke or modify the subpoena if in its opinion the evidence whose production is required does not relate to any matter under investigation or in question in the proceedings or the subpoena does not describe with sufficient particularity the evidence to be produced, or if for any other reason sufficient in law the subpoena is otherwise invalid. The Commission or the Judge shall make a simple statement of procedural or other grounds for the ruling on the motion to revoke, modify, or affirm. The motion to revoke or modify, any answer filed, and any ruling on the motion shall become part of the record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rights of persons compelled to submit data or other information in documents.</I> Persons compelled to submit data or other information at a public proceeding are entitled to retain documents they submitted that contain the data or information, or to procure a copy of such documents upon their payment of lawfully prescribed costs. If such persons submit the data or other information by testimony, they are entitled to a copy of the transcript of their testimony upon their payment of the lawfully prescribed costs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Witness fees and mileage.</I> Witnesses summoned to appear for a deposition or to appear before the Commission or the Judge shall be paid the same witness fees and mileage expense that are paid witnesses in the federal courts. Witness fees and mileage expense shall be paid by the party at whose instance the witness appears.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to comply with subpoena.</I> Upon the failure of any person to comply with the subpoena issued upon the request of a party, the Commission by its counsel shall recommend to the U.S. Department of Justice that proceedings be initiated in the appropriate district court for the enforcement of the subpoena, if in the Commission's judgment the enforcement of the subpoena would be consistent with law and with policies of the Act. In such instances, neither the Commission nor its counsel shall be deemed to have assumed responsibility for the effective prosecution of the subpoena before the court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.66" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.66   Transcript of testimony.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearings.</I> Hearings shall be transcribed verbatim. A copy of the transcript of testimony taken at the hearing, duly certified by the reporter, shall be filed with the Judge before whom the matter was heard.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment for transcript.</I> The Commission shall bear all expenses for court reporters' fees and for copies of the hearing transcript received by it. Each party is responsible for securing and paying for its copy of the transcript.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Correction of errors.</I> Error in the transcript of the hearing may be corrected by the Judge on the Judge's own motion, on joint motion by the parties, or on motion by any party. The motion shall conform to § 2200.40 and shall state the error in the transcript and the correction to be made. The official transcript shall reflect the corrections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.67" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.67   Duties and powers of Judges.</HEAD>
<P>It shall be the duty of the Judge to conduct a fair and impartial hearing, to assure that the facts are fully elicited, to adjudicate all issues and avoid delay. The Judge shall have authority with respect to cases assigned to the Judge, between the time the Judge is designated and the time the Judge issues a decision, subject to the rules and regulations of the Commission, to:
</P>
<P>(a) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(b) Issue authorized subpoenas and rule on petitions to modify, revoke, or affirm, in accordance with § 2200.65;
</P>
<P>(c) Rule on claims of privilege and claims that information is protected and issue protective orders, in accordance with § 2200.52(d) and (e).
</P>
<P>(d) Rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(e) Take or cause depositions to be taken whenever the needs of justice would be served;
</P>
<P>(f) Regulate the course of the hearing and, if appropriate or necessary, exclude persons or counsel from the hearing for contemptuous conduct and strike all related testimony of witnesses refusing to answer any proper questions;
</P>
<P>(g) Hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(h) Dispose of procedural requests or similar matters, including motions referred to the Judge by the Commission and motions to amend pleadings; also to dismiss complaints, or portions of complaints, and to order hearings reopened or, upon motion, consolidated prior to issuance of a decision;
</P>
<P>(i) Make decisions that conform to 5 U.S.C. 557 of the Administrative Procedure Act;
</P>
<P>(j) Call and examine witnesses and to introduce into the record documentary or other evidence;
</P>
<P>(k) Approve or appoint an interpreter;
</P>
<P>(l) Request the parties to state their respective positions concerning any issue in the case or theory in support of their position;
</P>
<P>(m) Adjourn the hearing as the needs of justice and good administration require;
</P>
<P>(n) Take any other action necessary under the foregoing and authorized by the published rules and regulations of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 45654, Aug. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.68" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.68   Recusal of the Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discretionary recusal.</I> A Judge may recuse themself from a proceeding whenever the Judge deems it appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory recusal.</I> A Judge shall recuse themself under circumstances that would require disqualification of a Federal judge under Canon 3(C) of the Code of Conduct for United States Judges, except that the required recusal may be set aside under the conditions specified by Canon 3(D).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for recusal.</I> Any party may request that the Judge, at any time following the Judge's designation and before the filing of a decision, be recused under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section or both by filing with the Judge, promptly upon the discovery of the alleged facts, an affidavit setting forth in detail the matters alleged to constitute grounds for recusal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ruling on request.</I> If the Judge finds that a request for recusal has been filed with due diligence and that the material filed in support of the request establishes that recusal either is appropriate under paragraph (a) of this section or is required under paragraph (b) of this section, the Judge shall recuse themself from the proceeding. If the Judge denies a request for recusal, the Judge shall issue a ruling on the record, stating the grounds for denying the request, and shall proceed with the hearing, or, if the hearing has closed, proceed with the issuance of a decision under the provisions of § 2200.90.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 8949, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.69" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.69   Examination of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>Witnesses shall be examined orally under oath or affirmation. Opposing parties have the right to cross-examine any witness whose testimony is introduced by an adverse party. All parties shall have the right to cross-examine any witness called by the Judge pursuant to § 2200.67(j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.70" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.70   Exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marking exhibits.</I> All exhibits offered in evidence by a party shall be marked for identification before or during the hearing. Exhibits shall be marked with the case docket number, with a designation identifying the party or intervenor offering the exhibit, and numbered consecutively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Removal or substitution of exhibits in evidence.</I> Unless the Judge finds it impractical, a copy of each exhibit shall be given to the other parties and intervenors. A party may remove an exhibit from the official record during the hearing or at the conclusion of the hearing only upon permission of the Judge. The Judge, in the Judge's discretion, may permit the substitution of a duplicate for any original document offered into evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasons for denial of admitting exhibit.</I> A Judge may, in the Judge's discretion, deny the admission of any exhibit because of its excessive size, weight, or other characteristic that prohibits its convenient transportation and storage. A party may offer into evidence photographs, models, or other representations of any such exhibit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rejected exhibits.</I> All exhibits offered but denied admission into evidence, except exhibits referred to in paragraph (c) of this section, shall be placed in a separate file designated for rejected exhibits.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Return of physical exhibits.</I> A party may on motion request the return of a physical exhibit within 30 days after expiration of the time for filing a petition for review of a Commission final order in a United States Court of Appeals under section 11 of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 660, or within 30 days after completion of any proceedings initiated in a Court of Appeals. The motion shall be addressed to the Executive Secretary and provide supporting reasons. The exhibit shall be returned if the Executive Secretary determines that it is no longer necessary for use in any Commission proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for custody of physical exhibit.</I> Any person may on motion to the Executive Secretary request custody of a physical exhibit for use in any court or tribunal. The motion shall state the reasons for the request and the duration of custody requested. If the exhibit has been admitted in a pending Commission case, the motion shall be served on all parties to the proceeding. Any person granted custody of an exhibit shall inform the Executive Secretary of the status every 6 months (<I>e.g.,</I> 6 months after January 15 would be July 15) of the person's continuing need for the exhibit and return the exhibit after completion of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disposal of physical exhibit.</I> Any physical exhibit may be disposed of by the Commission's Executive Secretary subject to the requirements of the National Archives and Records Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 8949, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.71" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.71   Rules of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Rules of Evidence are applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.72" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.72   Objections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of objection.</I> Any objection with respect to the conduct of the hearing, including any objection to the introduction of evidence or a ruling by the Judge, may be stated orally or in writing, accompanied by a short statement of the grounds for the objection, and shall be included in the record. No such objection shall be deemed waived by further participation in the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Offer of proof.</I> Whenever evidence is excluded from the record, the party offering such evidence may make an offer of proof, which shall be included in the record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Once the Judge rules definitively on the record—either before or at the hearing—a party need not renew an objection or offer of proof to preserve a claim of error for appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.73" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.73   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Interlocutory review of a Judge's ruling is discretionary with the Commission. A petition for interlocutory review may be granted only where the petition asserts and the Commission finds:
</P>
<P>(1) That the review involves an important question of law or policy that controls the outcome of the case, and that immediate review of the ruling will materially expedite the final disposition of the proceedings or subsequent review by the Commission may provide an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(2) That the ruling will result in a disclosure, before the Commission may review the Judge's report, of information that is alleged to be privileged.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petition for interlocutory review.</I> Within 7 days following the service of a Judge's ruling from which review is sought, a party may file a petition for interlocutory review with the Commission. Responses to the petition, if any, shall be filed within 7 days following service of the petition. Service of the filed petition on the other parties and intervenors shall be accomplished in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(c). A copy of the petition and responses shall be filed with the Judge. The petition is denied unless granted within 30 days of the date of receipt by the Commission's Executive Secretary. A corporate party that files a petition for interlocutory review or a response to such a petition under this section shall file with the Commission a copy of its declaration of corporate parents, subsidiaries, and affiliates previously filed with the Judge under the requirements of § 2200.35 or § 2200.37(d)(4). In its discretion the Commission may refuse to accept for filing a petition or response that fails to comply with this disclosure requirement. A corporate party filing the declaration required by this paragraph shall have a continuing duty to advise the Executive Secretary of any changes to its declaration until the petition is deemed denied or a decision is issued on the merits.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial without prejudice.</I> The Commission's decision not to grant a petition for interlocutory review shall not preclude a party from raising an objection to the Judge's interlocutory ruling in a petition for discretionary review.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Stay</I>—(1) <I>Trade secret matters.</I> The filing of a petition for interlocutory review of a Judge's ruling concerning an alleged trade secret shall stay the effect of the ruling until the petition is deemed denied or ruled upon.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other cases.</I> In all other cases, the filing or granting of a petition for interlocutory review shall not stay a proceeding or the effect of a ruling unless otherwise ordered.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Judge's comments.</I> The Judge may be requested to provide the Commission with written views on whether the petition is meritorious. When the written comments are filed with the Commission, the Judge shall serve the comments on all parties in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Briefs.</I> Notice shall be given to the parties if the Commission decides to request briefs on the issues raised by an interlocutory review. See § 2200.93—Briefs before the Commission.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>When filing effective.</I> A petition for interlocutory review is deemed to be filed only when received by the Commission, as specified in § 2200.8(d)(3)(ii).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 53053, Oct. 4, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.74" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.74   Filing of briefs and proposed findings with the Judge; oral argument at the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A party is entitled to a reasonable period at the close of the hearing for oral argument, which shall be included in the transcript of the hearing. Any party shall be entitled, upon request made before the close of hearing, to file a brief, proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, or both, with the Judge. In lieu of briefs, the Judge may permit or direct the parties to file memoranda or statements of authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time.</I> Briefs shall be filed simultaneously on a date established by the Judge. A motion for extension of time for filing any brief shall be made at least 3 working days prior to the due date and shall recite that the moving party has conferred with the other parties on the motion. Reply briefs shall not be allowed except by order of the Judge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Untimely briefs.</I> Untimely briefs will not be accepted unless accompanied by a motion setting forth good cause for the delay. The form and content of motions shall comply with § 2200.40.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Posthearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.90" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.90   Decisions and reports of Judges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judge's decision</I>—(1) <I>Contents of Judge's decision.</I> The Judge shall prepare a decision that conforms to 5 U.S.C. 557 of the Administrative Procedure Act and constitutes the final disposition of the proceedings. The decision shall be in writing and shall include findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the reasons or bases for them, on all the material issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record. The decision shall include an order affirming, modifying, or vacating each contested citation item and each proposed penalty or directing other appropriate relief. A decision finally disposing of a petition for modification of the abatement period shall contain an order affirming or modifying the abatement period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service of the Judge's decision.</I> The Judge shall serve a copy of the decision on each party in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Judge's report</I>—(1) <I>Contents of Judge's report.</I> The Judge's report shall consist of the entire record, including the Judge's decision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing of Judge's report.</I> On the eleventh day after service of the decision on the parties, the Judge shall file the report with the Executive Secretary for docketing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Docketing of Judge's report by Executive Secretary.</I> Promptly upon filing of the Judge's report, the Executive Secretary shall docket the report and notify all parties of the docketing date. The date of docketing of the Judge's report is the date that the Judge's report is made for purposes of section 12(j) of the Act, 29 U.S.C. 661(j).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Correction of errors in Judge's report.</I> (i) Until the Judge's report has been directed for review or, in the absence of a direction for review, until the decision has become a final order as described in paragraph (f) of this section, the Judge may correct clerical errors arising through oversight or inadvertence in decisions, orders, or other parts of the record under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 60(a). If a Judge's report has been directed for review, the decision may be corrected during the pendency of review with leave of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(ii) After a Judge's decision has become a final order as described in paragraph (f) of this section, the Commission or the Judge may correct a clerical mistake or a mistake arising from oversight or omission under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 60(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relief from default.</I> Until the Judge's report has been docketed by the Executive Secretary, the Judge may relieve a party of default or grant reinstatement under § 2200.101(b), § 2200.52(f)(2), or § 2200.64(b).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing documents after the docketing date.</I> Except for documents filed under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, which shall be filed with the Judge, on or after the date of docketing of the Judge's report all documents shall be filed with the Executive Secretary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement.</I> Settlement documents shall be filed in the manner prescribed in § 2200.100(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judge's decision final unless review directed.</I> If no Commissioner directs review of a report on or before the thirtieth day following the date of docketing of the Judge's report, the decision of the Judge shall become a final order of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 53053, Oct. 4, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.91" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.91   Discretionary review; petitions for discretionary review; statements in opposition to petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review discretionary.</I> Review by the Commission is not a right. A Commissioner may, as a matter of discretion, direct review on the Commissioner's own motion or on the petition of a party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petitions for discretionary review.</I> A party adversely affected or aggrieved by the decision of the Judge may seek review by the Commission by filing a petition for discretionary review with the Executive Secretary at any time following the service of the Judge's decision on the parties but no later than 20 days after the date of docketing of the Judge's report. Service of the filed petition on the other parties and intervenors shall be accomplished in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(c). The earlier a petition is filed, the more consideration it can be given. A petition for discretionary review may be conditional, and it may state that review is sought only if a Commissioner were to direct review on the petition of an opposing party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cross-petitions for discretionary review.</I> Where a petition for discretionary review has been filed by one party, any other party adversely affected or aggrieved by the decision of the Judge may seek review by the Commission by filing a cross-petition for discretionary review. The cross-petition may be conditional. See paragraph (b) of this section. A cross-petition shall be filed directly with the Executive Secretary within 27 days after the date of docketing of the Judge's report. The earlier a cross-petition is filed, the more consideration it can be given.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents of the petition.</I> No particular form is required for a petition for discretionary review. A petition should state why review should be directed, including: Whether the Judge's decision raises an important question of law, policy, or discretion; whether review by the Commission will resolve a question about which the Commission's Judges have rendered differing opinions; whether the Judge's decision is contrary to law or Commission precedent; whether a finding of material fact is not supported by a preponderance of the evidence; whether a prejudicial error of procedure or an abuse of discretion was committed. A petition should concisely state the portions of the decision for which review is sought and should refer to the citations and citation items (for example, citation 3, item 4a) for which review is sought. A petition shall not incorporate by reference a brief or legal memorandum. Brevity and the inclusion of precise references to the record and legal authorities will facilitate prompt review of the petition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When filing effective.</I> A petition for discretionary review is filed when received by the Commission, as specified in § 2200.8(d)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prerequisite to judicial review; effect of filing.</I> A petition for review under this section is, under 5 U.S.C. 704, a prerequisite to the seeking of judicial review of the final agency action. The effect of filing a petition for review is to stay the decision of the Judge.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Statements in opposition to petition.</I> Statements in opposition to petitions for discretionary review may be filed in the manner specified in this section for the filing of petitions for discretionary review. Statements in opposition shall concisely state why the Judge's decision should not be reviewed with respect to each portion of the petition to which it is addressed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 53053, Oct. 4, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.92" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.92   Review by the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Jurisdiction of the Commission; issues on review.</I> Unless the Commission orders otherwise, a direction for review establishes jurisdiction in the Commission to review the entire case. The issues to be decided on review are within the discretion of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review on a Commissioner's motion; issues on review.</I> At any time within 30 days after the docketing date of the Judge's report, a Commissioner may, on the Commissioner's own motion, direct that a Judge's decision be reviewed. Factors that may be considered in deciding whether to direct review absent a petition include, but are not limited to, whether the case raises novel questions of law or policy or involves a conflict between Administrative Law Judges' decisions. When a Commissioner directs review on the Commissioner's own motion, the issues ordinarily will be those specified in the direction for review or any later order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issues not raised before Judge.</I> The Commission will ordinarily not review issues that the Judge did not have the opportunity to pass upon. In exercising discretion to review issues that the Judge did not have the opportunity to pass upon, the Commission may consider such factors as whether there was good cause for not raising the issue before the Judge, the degree to which the issue is factual, the degree to which proceedings will be disrupted or delayed by raising the issue on review, whether the ability of an adverse party to press a claim or defense would be impaired, and whether considering the new issue would avoid injustice or ensure that judgment will be rendered in accordance with the law and facts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.93" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.93   Briefs before the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests for briefs.</I> The Commission ordinarily will request the parties to file briefs on issues before the Commission. After briefs are requested, a party may, instead of filing a brief, file a letter setting forth its arguments or a letter stating that it will rely on its petition for discretionary review or previous brief. A party not intending to file a brief shall notify the Commission in writing within the applicable time for filing briefs and shall serve a copy on all other parties. The provisions of this section apply to the filing of briefs and letters filed in lieu of briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing briefs.</I> Unless the briefing notice states otherwise:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Time for filing briefs.</I> The party required to file the first brief shall do so within 40 days after the date of the briefing notice. All other parties shall file their briefs within 30 days after the first brief is served. Any reply brief permitted by these rules or by order shall be filed within 15 days after the second brief is served.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sequence of filing.</I> (i) If one petition for discretionary or interlocutory review has been filed, the petitioning party shall file the first brief.
</P>
<P>(ii) If more than one petition has been filed, the party whose petition was filed first shall file the first brief.
</P>
<P>(iii) If no petition has been filed, the parties shall file simultaneous briefs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reply briefs.</I> The party that filed the first brief may file a reply brief, or, if briefs are to be filed simultaneously, both parties may file a reply brief. Additional briefs are otherwise not allowed except by leave of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motion for extension of time for filing brief.</I> An extension of time to file a brief will ordinarily not be granted except for good cause shown. A motion for extension of time to file a brief shall be filed at the Commission no later than 5 days prior to the expiration of the time limit prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, shall comply with § 2200.40, and shall include the following information: when the brief is due, the number and duration of extensions of time that have been granted to each party, the length of extension being requested, the specific reason for the extension being requested, and an assurance that the brief will be filed within the time extension requested.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consequences of failure to timely file brief.</I> The Commission may decline to accept a brief that is not timely filed. If a petitioning party fails to respond to a briefing notice or expresses no interest in review, the Commission may vacate the direction for review, or it may decide the case without that party's brief. If the non-petitioning party fails to respond to a briefing notice or expresses no interest in review, the Commission may decide the case without that party's brief. If a case was directed for review upon a Commissioner's own motion, and any party fails to respond to the briefing notice, the Commission may either vacate the direction for review or decide the case without briefs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Length of brief.</I> Except by permission of the Commission, a main brief, including briefs and legal memoranda it incorporates by reference, shall contain no more than 35 pages of text. A reply brief, including briefs and legal memoranda it incorporates by reference, shall contain no more than 20 pages of text.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Format.</I> Briefs shall be typewritten, double spaced, with typeface of text being no smaller than 12-point and typeface of footnotes being no smaller than 11-point, on letter size opaque paper (8
<FR>1/2</FR> inches by 11 inches). All margins shall be 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Table of contents.</I> A brief in excess of 15 pages shall include a table of contents.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Failure to meet requirements.</I> The Commission may return briefs that do not meet the requirements of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Brief of an amicus curiae.</I> The Commission may allow a brief of an amicus curiae pursuant to the criteria and time period set forth in § 2200.24. Any brief of an amicus curiae must meet the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section. No reply brief of an amicus curiae will be received.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 53053, Oct. 4, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.94" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.94   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.95" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.95   Oral argument before the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When ordered.</I> Upon motion of any party or upon its own motion, the Commission may order oral argument. Parties requesting oral argument must demonstrate why oral argument would facilitate resolution of the issues before the Commission. Normally, motions for oral argument shall not be considered until after all briefs have been filed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of argument.</I> The Executive Secretary shall advise all parties whether oral argument is to be heard. Within a reasonable time before the oral argument is scheduled, the Executive Secretary shall inform the parties of the time and place therefor, the issues to be heard, and the time allotted to the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Postponement.</I> (1) Except under extraordinary circumstances, a request for postponement must be filed at least 10 days before oral argument is scheduled.
</P>
<P>(2) The Executive Secretary shall notify the parties of a postponement in a manner best calculated to avoid unnecessary travel or inconvenience to the parties. The Executive Secretary shall inform all parties of the new time and place for the oral argument.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Order and content of argument.</I> (1) Counsel shall be afforded such time for oral argument as the Commission may provide by order. Requests for enlargement of time may be made by motion filed reasonably in advance of the date fixed for the argument.
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioning party shall argue first. If the case is before the Commission on cross-petitions, the Commission will inform the parties in advance of the order of appearance.
</P>
<P>(3) Counsel may reserve a portion of the time allowed for rebuttal but in opening argument shall present the case fairly and completely and shall not reserve points of substance for presentation during rebuttal.
</P>
<P>(4) Oral argument should undertake to emphasize and clarify the written arguments appearing in the briefs. The Commission will look with disfavor on any oral argument that is read from a previously filed document.
</P>
<P>(5) At any time, the Commission may terminate a party's argument or interrupt the party's presentation for questioning by the Commissioners.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to appear.</I> Should either party fail to appear for oral argument, the party present may be allowed to proceed with its argument.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consolidated cases.</I> Where two or more consolidated cases are scheduled for oral argument, the consolidated cases shall be considered as one case for the purpose of allotting time to the parties unless the Commission otherwise directs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Multiple counsel.</I> Where more than one counsel argues for a party to the case or for multiple parties on the same side in the case, it is counsels' responsibility to agree upon a fair division of the total time allotted. In the event of a failure to agree, the Commission will allocate the time. The Commission may, in its discretion, limit the number of counsel heard for each party or side in the argument. No later than 5 days prior to the date of scheduled argument, the Commission must be notified of the names of the counsel who will argue.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exhibits/visual aids.</I> (1) The parties may use exhibits introduced into evidence at the hearing. If a party wishes to use a visual aid not part of the record, written notice of the proposed use shall be given to opposing counsel 15 days prior to the argument. Objections, if any, shall be in writing, served on all adverse parties, and filed not fewer than 7 days before the argument.
</P>
<P>(2) No visual aid shall introduce or rely upon facts or evidence not already part of the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If visual aids or exhibits other than documents are to be used at the argument, counsel shall arrange with the Executive Secretary to have them placed in the hearing room on the date of the argument before the Commission convenes.
</P>
<P>(4) Parties using visual aids not introduced into evidence shall have them removed from the hearing room unless the Commission directs otherwise. If such visual aids are not reclaimed by the party within a reasonable time after notice is given by the Executive Secretary, such visual aids shall be disposed of at the discretion of the Executive Secretary.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Recording oral argument.</I> (1) Unless the Commission directs otherwise, oral arguments shall be electronically recorded and made part of the record. Any other sound recording in the hearing room is prohibited. Oral arguments shall also be transcribed verbatim. A copy of the transcript of the oral argument taken by a qualified court reporter, shall be filed with the Commission. The Commission shall bear all expenses for court reporters' fees and for copies of the hearing transcript received by it.
</P>
<P>(2) Persons desiring to listen to the recordings shall make appropriate arrangements with the Executive Secretary. Any party desiring a written copy of the transcript is responsible for securing and paying for its copy.
</P>
<P>(3) Error in the transcript of the oral argument may be corrected by the Commission on its own motion, on joint motion by the parties, or on motion by any party. The motion shall state the error in the transcript and the correction to be made. The official transcript shall reflect the corrections.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Failure to file brief.</I> A party that fails to file a brief shall not be heard at the time of oral argument except by permission of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Participation in oral argument by amicus curiae.</I> (1) An amicus curiae will not be permitted to participate in the oral argument without leave of the Commission upon proper motion. Participation generally will be limited to a portion of the time allotted to the party in whose interest the amicus curiae seeks to participate. In extraordinary circumstances, the amicus curiae may be allotted its own time for oral argument.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion by amicus curiae seeking leave to participate in oral argument shall be filed no later than 14 days prior to the date oral argument is scheduled.
</P>
<P>(3) The motion of an amicus curiae for leave to participate at oral argument shall identify the interest of the applicant and shall state the reason(s) why its participation at oral argument is desirable.
</P>
<P>(4) Motions in opposition to the motion of an amicus curiae for leave to participate in the oral argument must be filed within 10 days of the date of the motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.96" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.96   Commission receipt of copies of petitions for judicial review of Commission orders when petitions for review are filed in two or more courts of appeals with respect to the same order.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission officer and office designated to receive, pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 2112(a)(1), copies of petitions for review of Commission orders, from the persons instituting the review proceedings in a court of appeals, are the Executive Secretary and the Office of the Executive Secretary at the Commission's Office, One Lafayette Centre, 1120 20th Street NW, Suite 980, Washington, DC 20036-3457. The petition shall state that it is being submitted to the Commission pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 2112 by the persons or person who filed the petition in the court of appeals and shall be stamped by the court with the date of filing. (28 U.S.C. 2112(a) contains certain applicable requirements.)


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.100" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.100   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> Settlement is permitted and encouraged by the Commission at any stage of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>Notification of Settlement.</I> If the parties have agreed to a partial or full settlement, they shall so notify the Judge in a written joint submission (titled “Notification of Settlement” or “Notification of Partial Settlement,” as appropriate), in which the parties shall:
</P>
<P>(i) List the contested items that have been settled and, if only a partial settlement agreement has been reached, also list the contested items that remain to be decided;
</P>
<P>(ii) If posting of the settlement agreement is required by § 2200.7(g), certify that the parties' settlement agreement has been posted in the manner prescribed by that rule and certify the date of posting;
</P>
<P>(iii) If party status has been elected under § 2200.20, certify that the party has been afforded an opportunity to provide input on all matters pertaining to the settlement before the agreement is finalized; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the settlement agreement includes the withdrawal of a notice of contest, citation, notification of proposed penalty, or petition for modification of abatement period, state whether such withdrawal is with prejudice.
</P>
<P>(2) The parties shall not incorporate the settlement agreement in, or append it to, the joint submission required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or substitute the settlement agreement for the required joint submission.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Issuance of order terminating proceeding.</I> If the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section have been met with respect to all contested citation items and no affected employees who have elected party status have raised an objection to the reasonableness of any abatement period, the Judge shall issue an Order acknowledging that the parties have resolved all contested citation items and agreed to terminate the proceeding before the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing; service and notice.</I> A Notification of Settlement submitted after a Judge's report has been issued shall be filed with the Executive Secretary. Proof of service shall be filed with the Notification of Settlement, showing service upon all parties and authorized employee representatives in the manner prescribed by § 2200.7(c) and (d) and the posting of notice to non-party affected employees in the manner prescribed by § 2200.7(g). The parties shall also file a draft order terminating the proceedings for adoption by the Judge or, if the Judge's report has been issued, by the Commission. If the time has not expired under these rules for electing party status, an order acknowledging the termination of the proceedings before the Commission because of the settlement shall not be issued until at least 14 days after service or posting to consider any affected employee's or authorized employee representative's objection to the reasonableness of any abatement time. The affected employee or authorized employee representative shall file any such objection within this time. If such objection is filed, the Commission or the Judge shall provide an opportunity for the affected employees or authorized employee representative to be heard and present evidence on the objection, which shall be limited to the reasonableness of the abatement period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 65220, Oct. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.101" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.101   Failure to obey rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sanctions.</I> When any party has failed to plead or otherwise proceed as provided by these rules or as required by the Commission or the Judge, the party may be declared to be in default either on the initiative of the Commission or the Judge, after having been afforded an opportunity to show cause why the party should not be declared to be in default, or on the motion of a party. Subsequently, the Commission or the Judge, in their discretion, may enter a decision against the defaulting party or strike any pleading or document not filed in accordance with these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to set aside sanctions.</I> For reasons deemed sufficient by the Commission or the Judge and upon motion conforming to § 2200.40 expeditiously made, the Commission or the Judge may set aside a sanction imposed under paragraph (a) of this section. See § 2200.90(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discovery sanctions and failure to appear.</I> This section does not apply to sanctions for failure to comply with orders compelling discovery, which are governed by § 2200.52(f), or to a default for failure to appear, which is governed by § 2200.64(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Show cause orders.</I> All show cause orders issued by the Commission or the Judge under paragraph (a) of this section shall be served in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(o).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.102" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.102   Withdrawal.</HEAD>
<P>A party may withdraw its notice of contest, citation, notification of proposed penalty, or petition for modification of abatement period at any stage of a proceeding. The notice of withdrawal shall be served in accordance with § 2200.7(c) upon all parties and authorized employee representatives that are eligible to elect, but have not elected, party status. It shall also be posted in the manner prescribed in § 2200.7(g) for the benefit of any affected employees not represented by an authorized employee representative who are eligible to elect, but have not elected, party status. Proof of service shall accompany the notice of withdrawal in accordance with § 2200.7(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.103" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.103   Expedited proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When ordered.</I> Upon application of any party or intervenor or upon its own motion, the Commission may order an expedited proceeding. When an expedited proceeding is ordered by the Commission, the Executive Secretary shall notify all parties and intervenors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automatic expedition.</I> Cases initiated by employee contests and petitions for modification of abatement period shall be expedited. See §§ 2200.37(d)(2) and 2200.38(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of ordering expedited proceeding.</I> When an expedited proceeding is required by these rules or ordered by the Commission, it shall take precedence on the docket of the Judge to whom it is assigned, or on the Commission's review docket, as applicable, over all other classes of cases, and shall be set for hearing or for the submission of briefs at the earliest practicable date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time sequence set by Judge.</I> The assigned Judge shall make rulings with respect to time for filing of pleadings and with respect to all other matters, without reference to times set forth in these rules, and shall do all other things appropriate to complete the proceeding in the minimum time consistent with fairness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.104" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.104   Standards of conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> All representatives appearing before the Commission and its Judges shall comply with the letter and spirit of the Model Rules of Professional Conduct of the American Bar Association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Misbehavior before a Judge</I>—(1) <I>Exclusion from a proceeding.</I> A Judge may exclude from participation in a proceeding any person, including a party or its representative, who engages in disruptive behavior, refuses to comply with orders or rules of procedure, continuously uses dilatory tactics, refuses to adhere to standards of orderly or ethical conduct, or fails to act in good faith. The cause for the exclusion shall be stated in writing or may be stated in the record if the exclusion occurs during the course of the hearing. Where the person removed is a party's attorney or other representative, the Judge shall suspend the proceeding for a reasonable time for the purpose of enabling the party to obtain another attorney or other representative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appeal rights if excluded.</I> Any attorney or other representative excluded from a proceeding by a Judge may, within 7 days of the exclusion, appeal to the Commission for reinstatement. No proceeding shall be delayed or suspended pending disposition of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disciplinary action by the Commission.</I> If an attorney or other representative practicing before the Commission engages in unethical or unprofessional conduct or fails to comply with any rule or order of the Commission or its Judges, the Commission may, after reasonable notice and an opportunity to show cause to the contrary, and after hearing, if requested, take any appropriate disciplinary action, including suspension or disbarment from practice before the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Show cause orders.</I> All show cause orders issued by the Commission under paragraph (c) of this section shall be served in a manner prescribed in § 2200.7(o).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.105" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.105   Ex parte communication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as permitted by § 2200.120 or as otherwise authorized by law, there shall be no ex parte communication with respect to the merits of any case not concluded, between any Commissioner, Judge, employee, or agent of the Commission who is employed in the decisional process and any of the parties or intervenors, representatives, or other interested persons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disciplinary action.</I> In the event an ex parte communication occurs, the Commission or the Judge may make such orders or take such actions as fairness requires. The exclusion of a person by a Judge from a proceeding shall be governed by § 2200.104(b). Any disciplinary action by the Commission, including suspension or disbarment, shall be governed by § 2200.104(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Placement on public record.</I> All ex parte communications in violation of this section shall be placed on the public record of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.106" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.106   Amendment to rules.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may at any time upon its own motion or initiative, or upon written suggestion of any interested person setting forth reasonable grounds therefor, amend or revoke any of the rules contained in this Part. The Commission invites suggestions from interested parties to amend or revoke rules of procedure. Such suggestions should be sent by email to <I>rules.suggestions@oshrc.gov</I> or addressed to the Executive Secretary of the Commission at One Lafayette Centre, 1120 20th Street NW, Suite 980, Washington, DC 20036-3457.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.107" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.107   Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of these rules and for good cause shown, the Commission or the Judge may, upon application by any party or intervenor or on their own motion, after 3 working days' notice to all parties and intervenors, waive any rule or make such orders as justice or the administration of the Act requires.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.108" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.108   Official Seal of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission.</HEAD>
<P>The seal of the Commission shall consist of: A gold eagle outspread, head facing dexter, a shield with 13 vertical stripes superimposed on its breast, holding an olive branch in its claws, the whole superimposed over a plain solid white Greek cross with a green background, encircled by a white band edged in black and inscribed “Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission” in black letters.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Settlement Part</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.120" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.120   Settlement procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Voluntary settlement</I>—(1) <I>Applicability and duration.</I> (i) Voluntary settlement applies only to notices of contests by employers and to applications for fees under the Equal Access to Justice Act and 29 CFR part 2204.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon motion of any party conforming to § 2200.40 after the docketing of the notice of contest, or with the consent of the parties at any time in the proceedings, the Chief Administrative Law Judge may assign a case to a Settlement Judge for proceedings under this section. In the event either the Secretary or the employer objects to the use of a Settlement Judge procedure, such procedure shall not be imposed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Length of voluntary settlement procedures.</I> Voluntary settlement procedures shall be for a period not to exceed 75 days, unless extended with the concurrence of the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory settlement</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Mandatory settlement applies only to notices of contest by employers in which the aggregate amount of the penalties sought by the Secretary is $205,000 or greater. Periodically, the aggregate amount of penalties for case referral to Mandatory Settlement Proceedings may be adjusted proportionately upon consideration of the penalty increases required by the Inflation Adjustment Act of 2015. The adjusted aggregate penalty amount for case referral to Mandatory Settlement will be posted on the Commission's website (<I>www.oshrc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assignment of case and appointment of Settlement Judge.</I> Notwithstanding any other provisions of these rules, upon the docketing of the notice of contest, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall assign to the Settlement Part any case which satisfies the criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The Chief Administrative Law Judge shall appoint a Settlement Judge, who shall be a Judge other than the one assigned to hear and decide the case, except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mandatory settlement proceedings.</I> (i) The Settlement Judge may consult all attorneys, non-attorney representatives, and self-represented parties by any suitable means to schedule the Settlement Conference and to facilitate preparation for the conference.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Settlement Judge may issue a preconference scheduling order addressing procedural matters, including but not limited to, formal pleadings, settlement status conference calls, ex parte caucus calls, and allowing, limiting, or suspending discovery during the settlement proceedings.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Settlement Conference shall be conducted as soon as practicable, taking into consideration the case size, the complexity of the issues, and the time needed to complete preconference preparation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Mandatory settlement procedures under this section shall be for a period not to exceed 120 days, unless extended with the concurrence of the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(v) If at the conclusion of the settlement proceedings the case has not been settled, the Settlement Judge shall promptly inform the Chief Administrative Law Judge in accordance with § 2200.120(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Powers and duties of Settlement Judges.</I> (1) The Settlement Judge shall confer with the parties regarding the whole or partial settlement of the case and seek resolution of as many issues as is feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) The Settlement Judge may require the parties to provide statements of the issues in controversy and the factual predicate for each party's position on each issue and may enter other orders as appropriate to facilitate the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) The Settlement Judge may allow or suspend discovery during the settlement proceedings.
</P>
<P>(4) The Settlement Judge has the discretion to engage in ex parte communications throughout the course of settlement proceedings. The Settlement Judge may suggest privately to each attorney or other representative of a party what concessions the client should consider and assess privately with each attorney or other representative the reasonableness of the party's case or settlement position.
</P>
<P>(5) The Settlement Judge may, with the consent of the parties, conduct such other settlement proceedings as may aid in the settlement of the case.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Settlement conference</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Settlement Judge shall convene and preside over conferences between the parties. The Settlement Judge shall designate the time, place, and nature of the conference.</P>
<P>(2) <I>Participation in conference.</I> The Settlement Judge may require that any attorney or other representative who is expected to try the case for each party be present. The Settlement Judge may also require that the party's representative be accompanied by an official of the party having full settlement authority on behalf of the party. The parties and their representatives or attorneys are expected to be completely candid with the Settlement Judge so that the Settlement Judge may properly guide settlement discussions. The failure to be present at a settlement conference or otherwise to comply with the orders of the Settlement Judge or the refusal to cooperate fully within the spirit of this rule may result in default or the imposition of sanctions under § 2200.101.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Confidentiality of settlement proceedings.</I> (i) All statements made and all information presented during the course of settlement proceedings under this section shall be regarded as confidential and shall not be divulged outside of these proceedings except with the consent of the parties. The Settlement Judge shall issue appropriate orders to protect the confidentiality of settlement proceedings.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Settlement Judge shall not divulge any statements or information presented during private negotiations with a party or the party's representative during settlement proceedings except with the consent of that party.
</P>
<P>(iii) The following shall not be admissible in any subsequent hearing, except by stipulation of the parties:
</P>
<P>(A) Evidence of statements or conduct in settlement proceedings under this section within the scope of Federal Rule of Evidence 408,
</P>
<P>(B) Notes or other material prepared by or maintained by the Settlement Judge in connection with settlement proceedings, and
</P>
<P>(C) Communications between the Settlement Judge and the Chief Administrative Law Judge in connection with settlement proceedings including the report of the Settlement Judge under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Documents and factual information disclosed in the settlement proceeding may not be used in litigation unless obtained through appropriate discovery or subpoena.
</P>
<P>(v) With respect to the Settlement Judge's participation in settlement proceedings, the Settlement Judge shall not discuss the merits of the case with any other person, nor appear as a witness in any hearing of the case.
</P>
<P>(vi) The requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section apply unless disclosure is required by any applicable law or public policy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Record of settlement proceedings.</I> No material of any form required to be held confidential under paragraph (d)(3) of this section shall be considered part of the official case record required to be maintained under 29 U.S.C. 661(g), nor shall any such material be open to public inspection as required by section 661(g), unless the parties otherwise stipulate. With the exception of an order approving the terms of any partial settlement agreed to between the parties as set forth in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the Settlement Judge shall not file or cause to be filed in the official case record any material in the Settlement Judge's possession relating to these settlement proceedings, including but not limited to communications with the Chief Administrative Law Judge and the Settlement Judge's report under paragraph (f) of this section, unless the parties otherwise stipulate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Report of Settlement Judge.</I> (1) The Settlement Judge shall promptly notify the Chief Administrative Law Judge in writing of the status of the case at the conclusion of the settlement period or such time that the Settlement Judge determines further negotiations would be fruitless. If the Settlement Judge has made such a determination and a settlement agreement is not achieved within 75 days of the case being assigned to voluntary settlement proceedings or within 120 days of being assigned for mandatory settlement proceedings, the Settlement Judge shall then advise the Chief Administrative Law Judge in writing. The Chief Administrative Law Judge may then in the Chief Administrative Law Judge's discretion allow an additional period of time, for further proceedings under this section. If at the expiration of the period allotted under this paragraph the Settlement Judge has not approved a full settlement, the Settlement Judge shall furnish to the Chief Administrative Law Judge copies of any written stipulations and orders embodying the terms of any partial settlement the parties have reached.
</P>
<P>(2) At the termination of the settlement period without a full settlement, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall promptly assign the case to an Administrative Law Judge other than the Settlement Judge or Chief Administrative Law Judge for appropriate action on the remaining issues. If all the parties, the Settlement Judge, and the Chief Administrative Law Judge agree, the Settlement Judge may be retained as the Hearing Judge.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Non-reviewability.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of § 2200.73 regarding interlocutory review, any decision concerning the assignment of any Judge and any decision by the Settlement Judge to terminate settlement proceedings under this section is not subject to review, appeal, or rehearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 8949, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts I-L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Simplified Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.200" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.200   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of the Simplified Proceedings subpart is to provide simplified procedures for resolving contests under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, so that parties before the Commission may reduce the time and expense of litigation while being assured due process and a hearing that meets the requirements of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 554. These procedural rules will be applied to accomplish this purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) Procedures under this subpart are simplified in a number of ways. The major differences between these procedures and those provided in subparts A through G of the Commission's rules of procedure are as follows.
</P>
<P>(1) Complaints and answers are not required.
</P>
<P>(2) Pleadings generally are not required. Early discussions among the parties and the Judge are required to narrow and define the disputes between the parties.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary is required to provide the employer with certain informational documents early in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) Discovery is not permitted except as ordered by the Judge.
</P>
<P>(5) Interlocutory appeals are not permitted.
</P>
<P>(6) Hearings are less formal. The admission of evidence is not controlled by the Federal Rules of Evidence except as provided for in § 2200.209(c). The Judge may allow the parties to argue their case orally at the conclusion of the hearing, and may allow or require post-hearing briefs or statements of position. The judge may render a decision from the bench.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.201" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.201   Application.</HEAD>
<P>The rules in this subpart will govern proceedings before a Judge in a case chosen for Simplified Proceedings under § 2200.203.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.202" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.202   Eligibility for Simplified Proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Those cases selected for Simplified Proceedings will be those that do not involve complex issues of law or fact. Cases appropriate for Simplified Proceedings will generally include those with one or more of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) Relatively few citation items,
</P>
<P>(2) An aggregate proposed penalty of not more than $20,000,
</P>
<P>(3) No allegation of willfulness or a repeat violation,
</P>
<P>(4) Not involving a fatality,
</P>
<P>(5) A hearing that is expected to take less than 2 days, or
</P>
<P>(6) A small employer whether self-represented or represented by counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) Those cases with an aggregate proposed penalty of more than $20,000, but not more than $30,000, if otherwise appropriate, may be selected for Simplified Proceedings at the discretion of the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 45655, Aug. 30, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.203" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.203   Commencing Simplified Proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Selection.</I> Upon receipt of a Notice of Contest, the Chief Administrative Law Judge may, at the Chief Administrative Law Judge's discretion, assign an appropriate case for Simplified Proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Party request.</I> Within 21 days of the notice of docketing, any party may request that the case be assigned for Simplified Proceedings. The request must be in writing. For example, “I request Simplified Proceedings” will suffice. The request must be sent to the Executive Secretary. Copies must be sent to each of the other parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Judge's ruling on request.</I> The Chief Administrative Law Judge or the Judge assigned to the case may grant a party's request and assign a case for Simplified Proceedings at the Judge's discretion. Such request shall be acted upon within 14 days of its receipt by the Judge.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for filing complaint or answer under § 2200.34.</I> If a party has requested Simplified Proceedings or the Judge has assigned the case for Simplified Proceedings, the times for filing a complaint or answer will not run. If a request for Simplified Proceedings is denied, the period for filing a complaint or answer will begin to run upon issuance of the notice denying Simplified Proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.204" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.204   Discontinuance of Simplified Proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure.</I> If it becomes apparent at any time that a case is not appropriate for Simplified Proceedings, the Judge assigned to the case may, upon motion by any party or upon the Judge's own motion, discontinue Simplified Proceedings and order the case to continue under conventional rules. Before discontinuing Simplified Proceedings, the Judge will consult with the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Party motion.</I> At any time during the proceedings any party may request that Simplified Proceedings be discontinued and that the matter continue under conventional procedures. A motion to discontinue must conform to § 2200.40 and explain why the case is inappropriate for Simplified Proceedings. Responses to such motions shall be filed within the time specified by § 2200.40. Joint motions to return a case to conventional proceedings shall be granted by the Judge and do not require a showing of good cause, except that the Judge may deny such a motion that is filed less than 30 days before a scheduled hearing date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ruling.</I> If Simplified Proceedings are discontinued, the Judge may issue such orders as are necessary for an orderly continuation under conventional rules.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.205" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.205   Filing of pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Complaint and answer.</I> Once a case is designated for Simplified Proceedings, the complaint and answer requirements are suspended. If the Secretary has filed a complaint under § 2200.34(a), a response to a petition under § 2200.37(d)(5), or a response to an employee contest under § 2200.38(a), and if Simplified Proceedings has been ordered, no response to these documents will be required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motions.</I> Limited, if any, motion practice is contemplated in Simplified Proceedings, but all motion practice shall conform with § 2200.40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.206" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.206   Disclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure to employer.</I> (1) Within 21 days after a case is designated for Simplified Proceedings, the Secretary shall provide the employer, free of charge, copies of the narrative (Form OSHA 1-A) and the worksheet (Form OSHA 1-B) or their equivalents.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 days after a case is designated for Simplified Proceedings, the Secretary shall provide the employer with reproductions of any photographs or videotapes that the Secretary anticipates using at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 30 days after a case is designated for Simplified Proceedings, the Secretary shall provide to the employer any exculpatory evidence in the Secretary's possession.
</P>
<P>(4) The Judge shall act expeditiously on any claim by the employer that the Secretary improperly withheld or redacted any portion of the documents, photographs, or videotapes on the grounds of confidentiality or privilege.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure to the Secretary.</I> When the employer raises an affirmative defense pursuant to § 2200.207(b), the Judge shall order the employer to disclose to the Secretary such documents relevant to the affirmative defense as the Judge deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.207" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.207   Pre-hearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When held.</I> As early as practicable after the employer has received the documents set forth in § 2200.206(a)(1), the Judge may conduct a pre-hearing conference, which the Judge may hold in person or by telephone or electronic means.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> At the pre-hearing conference, the parties may discuss the following: Settlement of the case; the narrowing of issues; an agreed statement of issues and facts; all defenses; witnesses and exhibits; motions; and any other pertinent matter. Except under extraordinary circumstances, any affirmative defenses not raised at the pre-hearing conference may not be raised later. At the conclusion of the conference, the Judge will issue an order that may set forth any agreements reached by the parties and that may specify the issues to be addressed by the parties at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.208" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.208   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>Discovery, including requests for admissions, will only be allowed under the conditions and time limits set by the Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.209" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.209   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures.</I> As soon as practicable after the conclusion of the pre-hearing conference, the Judge will hold a hearing on any issue that remains in dispute. The hearing will be in accordance with subpart E of these rules, except for § 2200.73 which will not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agreements.</I> At the beginning of the hearing, the Judge will enter into the record all agreements reached by the parties as well as defenses raised during the pre-hearing conference. The parties and the Judge then will attempt to resolve or narrow the remaining issues. The Judge will enter into the record any further agreements reached by the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evidence.</I> Except as to matters that are protected by evidentiary privilege, the admission of evidence is not controlled by the Federal Rules of Evidence, but the Judge may accept a written stipulation of the parties that the Federal Rules of Evidence shall apply in whole or, as specified, in part. The Judge will receive oral, physical, or documentary evidence that is not irrelevant, unduly repetitious, or unreliable. Testimony will be given under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reporter.</I> A reporter will be present at the hearing. An official verbatim transcript of the hearing will be prepared and filed with the Judge. Parties may purchase copies of the transcript from the reporter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oral and written argument.</I> Each party may present an oral argument at the close of the hearing. The Judge may allow or require post-hearing briefs or statements of position upon the request of either party or on the Judge's own motion. The form of any post-hearing briefs shall conform to § 2200.74 unless the Judge specifies otherwise.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judge's decision</I>—(1) <I>Bench decision.</I> The Judge may render a decision from the bench. In rendering a decision from the bench, the Judge shall state the issues in the case and make clear both the Judge's findings of fact and conclusions of law on the record. The Judge shall reduce the bench decision in the matter to writing and serve it on the parties as soon as practicable, but no later than 45 days after the hearing. If additional time is needed, approval of the Chief Administrative Law Judge is required. The decision shall be prepared in accordance with § 2200.90(a). The written decision shall include, as an appendix, the bench decision as set forth in the transcript.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written decision.</I> If the Judge does not render a decision from the bench, the Judge will issue a written decision within 60 days of the close of the record. The record will ordinarily be deemed closed upon the latter of the filing of the hearing transcript, or the completion of any permitted post-hearing briefing. The decision will be in accordance with § 2200.90(a). If additional time is needed, approval of the Chief Administrative Law Judge is required.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Filing of Judge's decision with the Executive Secretary.</I> When the Judge issues a written decision, service, filing, and docketing of the Judge's written decision shall be in accordance with § 2200.90.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.210" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.210   Review of Judge's decision.</HEAD>
<P>Any party may petition for Commission review of the Judge's decision as provided in § 2200.91. After the issuance of the Judge's written decision, the parties may pursue the case following the rules in Subpart F of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2200.211" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.2.10.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2200.211   Applicability of subparts A through G.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of subpart D (§§ 2200.50-2200.57) and §§ 2200.34, 2200.37(d), 2200.38, 2200.71, and 2200.73 will not apply to Simplified Proceedings. All other rules contained in subparts A through G of the Commission's rules of procedure will apply when consistent with the rules in this subpart governing Simplified Proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 14558, Apr. 10, 2019; 84 FR 53053, Oct. 4, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2201" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2201—REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 661(g); 5 U.S.C. 552.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 56350, Sept. 27, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2201.1" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes procedures to obtain information and records of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC or Commission) under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552. It applies only to records or information of the Commission or in the Commission's custody. This part does not affect discovery in adversary proceedings before the Commission. Discovery is governed by the Commission's Rules of Procedure in 29 CFR part 2200, subpart D.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.2" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.2   Description of agency.</HEAD>
<P>OSHRC adjudicates contested enforcement actions under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 651-678. The Commission decides cases after the parties are given an opportunity for a hearing. All hearings are open to the public and are conducted at a place convenient to the parties by an Administrative Law Judge. Any Commissioner may direct that a decision of a Judge be reviewed by the full Commission. The President designates one of the Commissioners as Chairman, who is responsible on behalf of the Commission for the administrative operations of the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.3" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.3   Delegation of authority and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chairman delegates to the Chief FOIA Officer the authority to act upon all requests for agency records. The Chief FOIA Officer shall, subject to the authority of the Chairman:
</P>
<P>(1) Have agency-wide responsibility for efficient and appropriate compliance with this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor implementation of the FOIA throughout the agency and keep the Chairman and the Attorney General appropriately informed of the agency's performance in implementing this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Recommend to the Chairman such adjustments to agency practices, policies, personnel, and funding as may be necessary to improve implementation of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Review and report to the Attorney General, through the Chairman, at such times and in such formats as the Attorney General may direct, on the agency's performance in implementing this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) Facilitate public understanding of the purposes of the statutory exemptions of this section by including concise descriptions of the exemptions in both the agency's FOIA Reference Guide, and the agency's annual report on this section, and by providing an overview, where appropriate, of certain general categories of agency records to which those exemptions apply.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chief FOIA Officer shall designate the FOIA Disclosure Officer(s), who shall be responsible for processing FOIA requests.
</P>
<P>(c) The Chief FOIA Officer shall designate the FOIA Public Liaison(s), who shall serve as the official(s) to whom a FOIA requester can raise concerns about the service the FOIA requester has received following an initial response. FOIA Public Liaisons shall be responsible for assisting in reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.
</P>
<P>(d) OSHRC establishes a FOIA Requester Service Center that shall be staffed by the FOIA Disclosure Officer(s) and FOIA Public Liaison(s). The address of the FOIA Requester Service Center is 1120 20th Street NW., 9th Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457. The telephone number, fax number and additional contact information for the FOIA Requester Service Center is located on the agency's Web site at: <I>http://www.oshrc.gov/foia/index.html.</I> The FOIA Requester Service Center is available to provide information about the status of a request to the requester using the assigned tracking number (as described in § 2201.6(h)), including:
</P>
<P>(1) The date on which the agency originally received the request; and
</P>
<P>(2) An estimated date on which the agency will complete action on the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56350, Sept. 27, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 41371, July 16, 2010; 81 FR 95037, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.4" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.4   General policy and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-exempt records available to public.</I> Except for records and information exempted from disclosure by 5 U.S.C. 552(b) or published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1), all records of the Commission or in its custody are available to any person who requests them in accordance with § 2201.5. Records include any information that would be a record subject to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552 when maintained by the Commission in any format, including electronic format. In response to FOIA requests, the Commission will search for records manually or by automated means, except when an automated search would significantly interfere with the operation of the Commission's automated information system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record availability at the OSHRC e-FOIA Reading Room.</I> The records of Commission activities are publicly available for inspection and copying, and may be accessed electronically on the Commission's Web site at <I>http://www.oshrc.gov/foia/foia_reading_room.html.</I> These records include:
</P>
<P>(1) Final decisions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, remand orders, as well as Administrative Law Judge decisions pending OSHRC review, briefing notices, and other significant orders;
</P>
<P>(2) OSHRC Rules of Procedure and Guides to those procedures;
</P>
<P>(3) Agency policy statements and interpretations adopted by OSHRC and not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> if any;
</P>
<P>(4) Administrative staff manuals that affect a member of the public, if any;
</P>
<P>(5) Copies of records that have been released to a person under the FOIA that, because of the subject matter, the Commission determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records, or that have been requested three or more times, as well as records the Commission determines absent a FOIA request could be of significant public interest; and
</P>
<P>(6) A general index of records referred to under paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record availability onsite at OSHRC National Office.</I> Any member of the public may, upon request, access OSHRC's e-FOIA Reading Room via a computer terminal at the OSHRC National Office, located at 1120 20th St. NW., 9th Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457. Such a request must be made in writing to the FOIA Requester Service Center, and indicate a preferred date and time for the requested access. OSHRC reserves the right to arrange a different date and time with the requester, if necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Commercial use request</I> means a request from or on behalf of a person who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers his or her commercial, trade, or profit interests, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall determine, whenever reasonably possible, the use to which a requester will put the requested records. When it appears that the requester will put the records to a commercial use, either because of the nature of the request itself or because the FOIA Disclosure Officer has reasonable cause to doubt a requester's stated use, the FOIA Disclosure Officer shall provide the requester a reasonable opportunity to submit further clarification.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> means those expenses that the Commission actually incurs in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records to respond to a FOIA request. Direct costs include, for example, the salary of the employee performing the work (the basic rate of pay for the employee, plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating duplication machinery. Not included in direct costs are overhead expenses such as the costs of space and heating or lighting of the facility in which the records are kept.
</P>
<P><I>Duplication</I> means the making of a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Copies can take the form of paper, microform, audiovisual materials, or electronic records (for example, magnetic tape or disk), among others. The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall honor a requester's specified preference of form or format of disclosure if the record is readily reproducible with reasonable efforts in the requested form or format.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education, that operates a program of scholarly research. To be in this category, a requester must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use but are sought to further scholarly research.
</P>
<P><I>Exceptional circumstances</I> does not include a delay that results from a predictable agency workload of requests under this section, unless the agency demonstrates reasonable progress in reducing its backlog of pending requests.
</P>
<P><I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as that term is defined in this paragraph, and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. To be in this category, a requester must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use but are sought to further scientific research.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any information that would be an OSHRC record subject to the requirements of the FOIA when maintained by OSHRC in any format, including an electronic format, and any such OSHRC record that is maintained for OSHRC by an entity under Government contract, for the purposes of records management.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media, or news media requester</I> is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. For purposes of this definition, the term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only in those instances where they can qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase or subscription by, or free distribution to, the general public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media shall be considered to be news-media entities. For “freelance” journalists to be regarded as working for a news organization, they must demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that organization. A publication contract would be the clearest proof, but OSHRC shall also look to the past publication record of a requester in making this determination. To be in this category, a requester must not be seeking the requested records for a commercial use. However, a request for records supporting the news-dissemination function of the requester shall not be considered to be for a commercial use.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I> means the examination of a record located in response to a request in order to determine whether any portion of it is exempt from disclosure. It also includes processing any record for disclosure—for example, doing all that is necessary to redact it and prepare it for disclosure. Review costs are recoverable even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> means the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request. It includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and also includes reasonable efforts to locate and retrieve information from records maintained in electronic form or format. The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall ensure that searches are done in the most efficient and least expensive manner reasonably possible. For example, the FOIA Disclosure Officer shall not search line-by-line where duplicating an entire document would be quicker and less expensive.
</P>
<P><I>Working day</I> means a regular Federal working day. It does not include Saturdays, Sundays, or Federal legal public holidays.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56350, Sept. 27, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 41371, July 16, 2010; 81 FR 95037, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.5" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.5   Procedure for requesting records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> All requests for information must be made in writing to the FOIA Disclosure Officer and may be: Mailed or delivered; faxed; or emailed. Requests may also be made using the Commission's online FOIA request form (which is a downloadable PDF file found at <I>http://www.oshrc.gov/foia/foia_request_form.html</I>) and the completed form can be submitted by mail, fax, or email. Contact information for the FOIA Disclosure Officer is described in § 2201.3(d). For mailed or delivered requests, the words “Freedom of Information Act Request” must be printed on the face of the request's envelope or covering as well as the request itself.
</P>
<P>(b) A requester who is making a request for records about himself or herself must comply with verification of identity requirements as required by 29 CFR 2400.4 in OSHRC's Privacy Act regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a request for records pertains to another individual, a requester may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or a declaration made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 by that individual authorizing disclosure of the records to the requester, or by submitting proof that the individual is deceased (<I>e.g.,</I> a copy of a death certificate or an obituary).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Description of records sought.</I> A request must describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable the Commission to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent possible, the request should include specific information to identify the requested records, such as the docket number(s) or case name(s). Before submitting a request, the requester may contact the FOIA Disclosure Officer, as described in § 2201.3(d), to discuss the records being sought and receive assistance in describing them. If a determination is made after receiving a request that it does not reasonably describe the records sought, the FOIA Disclosure Officer will contact the requester to explain what additional information is needed or why the request is otherwise insufficient. A requester attempting to reformulate or modify such a request is encouraged to discuss the request with the FOIA Disclosure Officer. If a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, the agency's response may be delayed.
</P>
<P>(e) Requests may specify the preferred form or format (including electronic formats) of the response. The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall honor a requester's specified preference of form or format of disclosure if the record is readily reproducible with reasonable efforts in the requested form or format. When a requester does not specify the preferred form or format of the response, the FOIA Disclosure Officer shall respond in the form or format in which the record is most accessible to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) The requester must provide contact information, such as a phone number, email address, and/or mailing address, to facilitate the agency's communication with the requester.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Date of receipt.</I> A request that complies with paragraph (a) of this section is deemed received on the actual date it is received by the Commission. A request that does not comply with paragraph (a) of this section is deemed received when it is actually received by the FOIA Disclosure Officer. For requests that are expected to result in fees exceeding $250, the request shall not be deemed to have been received until the requester is advised of the anticipated costs and the Commission has received full payment or satisfactory assurance of full payment as provided under § 2201.8(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95037, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 72565, Nov. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.6" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.6   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responses within 20 working days.</I> The FOIA Disclosure Officer will either grant or deny a request for records within 20 working days after receiving the request. The 20-day period shall not be tolled by the agency except in the following cases. In these cases, the agency's receipt of the requester's response to the agency's request for information or clarification ends the tolling period.
</P>
<P>(1) The agency may toll the 20-day period once while awaiting information that it has reasonably requested from the requester under this section. The agency may make more than one request to the requester for information not related to issues regarding fee assessment, but can only toll the 20-day period once; and
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may toll the 20-day period as many times as are necessary to clarify any issues regarding fee assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extensions of response time in unusual circumstances.</I> In unusual circumstances, the Commission may extend the time limit prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section by not more than 10 working days. The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall notify the requester in writing of the extension, the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected. “Unusual circumstances” exists, but only to the extent reasonably necessary to the proper processing of the particular request, when there is a need to:
</P>
<P>(1) Search for and collect the requested records from one of OSHRC's regional offices or off-site storage facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records that are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(3) Consult, with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional extension.</I> The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall notify the requester in writing when it appears that a request cannot be completed within the allowable time (20 working days plus a 10-working-day extension). In such instances, the requester will be provided an opportunity to limit the scope of the request so that it may be processed in the time limit, or to agree to a reasonable alternative time frame for processing. The FOIA Disclosure Officer or FOIA Public Liaison shall be available to assist the requester for this purpose and shall notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the National Archives and Records Administration's Office of Government Information Services (OGIS).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Two-track processing.</I> To ensure the most equitable treatment possible for all requesters, the Commission will process requests on a first-in, first-out basis using a two-track processing system based upon the estimated time it will take to process the request.
</P>
<P>(1) The first track is for requests of simple to moderate complexity that are expected to be completed within 20 working days.
</P>
<P>(2) The second track is for requests involving “unusual circumstances” that are expected to take between 21 to 30 working days to complete and those that, because of their unusual volume or other complexity, are expected to take more than 30 working days to complete.
</P>
<P>(3) A requester should assume, unless otherwise notified by the Commission, that its request is in the first track of processing. The Commission will notify a requester when its request is placed in the second track for processing and that notification will include the estimated time for completion. Should subsequent information substantially change the estimated time to process a request, the requester will be notified in writing. In the case of a request expected to take more than 30 working days for action, a requester may modify the request to allow it to be processed faster or to reduce the cost of processing. Partial responses may be sent to a requester as documents are obtained by the FOIA Disclosure Officer from the supplying offices.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) The Commission may place a person's request at the front of the queue for the appropriate track for that request upon receipt of a written request that clearly demonstrates a compelling need for expedited processing. Requesters must provide detailed explanations to support their expedited requests. For purposes of determining expedited processing, the term <I>compelling need</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) That a failure to obtain requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of any individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That a request is made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, and that person establishes that there is an urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity.
</P>
<P>(2) A person requesting expedited processing must include a statement certifying the compelling need given to be true and correct to the best of his or her knowledge and belief. The certification requirement may be waived by the Commission as a matter of agency discretion.
</P>
<P>(3) The FOIA Disclosure Officer will make the initial determination whether to grant or deny a request for expedited processing and will notify a requester within 10 calendar days after receiving the request whether processing will be expedited.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of denial.</I> When the FOIA Disclosure Officer denies a request for records, either in whole or in part, a request for expedited processing, and/or a request for fee waivers (see § 2201.9), the written notice of the denial shall state the reason for denial, give a reasonable estimate of the volume of matter denied (unless doing so would harm an interest protected by the exemption(s) under which the request was denied), set forth the name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial of the request, notify the requester of the right to appeal the determination as specified in § 2201.10, and notify the requester of the assistance available from the FOIA Public Liaison and the dispute resolution services offered by OGIS. A refusal by the FOIA Disclosure Officer to process the request because the requester has not made advance payment or given a satisfactory assurance of full payment required under § 2201.8(f) may be treated as a denial of the request and appealed under § 2201.10.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Deletions.</I> The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall provide to the requester in writing a justification for deletions within records. The amount of information deleted from records shall be indicated on the released portion of the record, unless including that indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption under which the deletion is made. If technically feasible, the place in the record where the deletion is made, and the exemption under which the deletion is made, shall be marked.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Tracking numbers.</I> The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall assign an individualized tracking number to each request received for processing and provide the requester with the tracking number.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Determining responsive records.</I> In determining which records are responsive to a request, OSHRC ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date it begins its search for them. If any other date is used, OSHRC shall inform the requester of that date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56350, Sept. 27, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 41372, July 16, 2010; 81 FR 95038, Dec. 27, 2016; 85 FR 72565, Nov. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.7" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.7   Confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Confidential commercial information</I> means commercial or financial information obtained by OSHRC from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides confidential commercial information, either directly or indirectly to OSHRC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> A submitter of confidential commercial information must use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings, at the time of submission, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When notice to submitters is required.</I> OSHRC shall promptly provide written notice to the submitter of confidential commercial information whenever records containing such information are requested under the FOIA if OSHRC determines that it may be required to disclose the records, provided the submitter has complied with paragraph (b) of this section or OSHRC has a reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4, but has not yet determined whether the information is protected from disclosure. The notice must either describe the commercial information requested or include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to submitter notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements of this section do not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) OSHRC determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA, and therefore will not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute other than the FOIA or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous. In such case, OSHRC shall give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information within a reasonable number of days prior to a specified disclosure date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> OSHRC shall specify a reasonable time period within which the submitter must provide a response to the notice referenced above. If a submitter has any objections to disclosure, it should provide a detailed written statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption of the FOIA. In order to rely on Exemption 4 as basis for nondisclosure, the submitter must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is confidential. A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. OSHRC is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this subpart may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis of objections.</I> OSHRC shall consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose the requested information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of decision.</I> OSHRC shall provide the submitter with written notice once a decision is made as to whether or not to disclose information over the submitter's objection. When a decision is made to disclose information over the submitter's objection, this notice shall include a statement of the reasons why each of the submitter's disclosure objections was not sustained, a description of the information to be disclosed or copies of the records as the agency intends to release them, and a specified disclosure date (which must be a reasonable time after the notice).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> OSHRC shall promptly notify the submitter when a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of confidential commercial information.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requester notification.</I> OSHRC shall notify the requester whenever it provides the submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure; whenever it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95038, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.8" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.8   Fees for copying, searching, and review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees required unless waived.</I> The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall charge fees in accordance with the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget and in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. See appendix A to this part. If the fees for a request are less than the threshold amount as provided in OSHRC's fee schedule, no fees shall be charged. The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall, however, waive the fees in the circumstances stated in § 2201.9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of fees.</I> Fees for copying, searching and reviewing will be based on the direct costs of these services, including the average hourly salary (base plus DC locality payment), plus 16 percent for benefits, of the following three categories of employees involved in responding to FOIA requests: Clerical—based on an average of all employees at GS-9 and below; professional—based on an average of all employees at GS-10 through GS-14; and managerial—based on an average of all employees at GS-15 and above. OSHRC will calculate a schedule of fees based on these direct costs. The schedule of fees under this section appears in appendix A to this part. A copy of the schedule of fees may also be obtained at no charge from the FOIA Disclosure Officer. See § 2201.3(d).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Copying fee.</I> The fee per copy of each page shall be calculated in accordance with the per-page amount established in OSHRC's fee schedule. See appendix A to this part. For other forms of duplication, direct costs of producing the copy, including operator time, shall be calculated and assessed. Copying fees shall not be charged for the first 100 pages of copies unless the copies are requested for a commercial use. No copying fee shall be charged for educational, scientific, or news media requests if the agency fails to comply with any time limit in § 2201.6, provided that no unusual or exceptional circumstances (as those terms are defined in §§ 2201.6(b) and 2201.4(d), respectively) apply to the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Search fee.</I> Search fees shall be calculated in accordance with the amounts established in OSHRC's fee schedule. See appendix A to this part. Commercial requesters shall be charged for all search time, except as described below. Search fees shall be charged even if the responsive documents are not located or if they are located but withheld on the basis of an exemption. However, search fees shall be limited or not charged as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Easily identifiable decisions.</I> Search fees shall not be charged for searching for decisions that the requester identifies by name and date, or by docket number, or that are otherwise easily identifiable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Educational, scientific or news media requests.</I> No fee shall be charged if the request is not for a commercial use and is by an educational or scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research, or by a representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other non-commercial requests.</I> No fee shall be charged for the first two hours of searching if the request is not for a commercial use and is not by an educational or scientific institution, or a representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Requests for records about self.</I> No fee shall be charged to search for records filed in the Commission's systems of records if the requester is the subject of the requested records. See the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a(f)(5) (fees to be charged only for copying).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Failure to comply with time limits.</I> No search fee shall be charged if the Commission fails to comply with any time limit in § 2201.6, provided that no unusual or exceptional circumstances (as those terms are defined in §§ 2201.6(b) and2201.4(d), respectively) apply to the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> (i) If the Commission has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined in § 2201.6(b), apply and has provided timely written notice to the requester, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days and the Commission shall assess fees as usual.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Commission has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined in § 2201.6(b), apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Commission may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in § 2201.8(b)(2)(ii), may charge duplication fees, if the Commission provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with § 2201.6(b) and the Commission discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with the FOIA. If this exception is satisfied, the Commission may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request even if such processing extends beyond an additional 10 days.
</P>
<P>(4) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined in § 2201.4(d), a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Review fee.</I> A review fee shall be charged only for commercial requests. Review fees shall be calculated in accordance with the amounts established in OSHRC's schedule of fees. See appendix A to this part. A review fee shall be charged for the initial examination of documents located in response to a request to determine if it may be withheld from disclosure, and for the excision of withholdable portions. However, a review fee shall not be charged for review by the Chairman under § 2201.10 (Appeal of denials).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Invoices.</I> The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall provide the requester with an invoice containing an itemization of assessed fees.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aggregation of requests.</I> When the FOIA Disclosure Officer reasonably believes that a requester, or a group of requesters acting in concert, is attempting to break a request into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, the FOIA Disclosure Officer may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fees likely to exceed $25.</I> If the total fee charges are likely to exceed $25, the FOIA Disclosure Officer shall notify the requester of the estimated amount of the charges, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees up to the estimated amount. The notification shall offer the requester an opportunity to confer with the FOIA Disclosure Officer to reformulate the request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost. In cases in which a requester has been notified that actual or estimated fees amount to more than $25, the time period for responding to the request shall be tolled in accordance with § 2201.6(a)(2) and further work shall not be done on it until the requester agrees to pay the actual or estimated total fee. Any such agreement shall be memorialized in writing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Advance payments.</I> Advance payment of fees will generally not be required. If, however, charges are likely to exceed $250, the FOIA Disclosure Officer shall notify the requester of the likely cost and: if the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA charges, obtain satisfactory assurance of full payment; or if the requester has no history of payment, require an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charge. If the requester has previously failed to pay a fee within 30 days of the date of billing, the FOIA Disclosure Officer shall require the requester to pay the full amount owed plus any interest owed as provided in paragraph (h) of this section or demonstrate that he or she has, in fact, paid the fee, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated charges before the FOIA Disclosure Officer begins to process the new request or a pending request from that requester.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fees for services not required by the Freedom of Information Act.</I> The Commission has discretion regarding its response to requests for services not required by the FOIA. For example, the FOIA does not require agencies to certify or authenticate responsive documents, nor does it require responsive documents to be sent by express mail. If these services are requested, the FOIA Disclosure Officer shall assess the direct costs of such services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Interest on unpaid bills.</I> The Commission's Office of the Executive Director shall begin assessing interest charges on unpaid bills starting on the thirty-first day after the date the bill was sent. Interest will accrue from the date of billing until the Commission receives full payment. Interest will be at the rate described in 31 U.S.C. 3717.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Debt collection procedures.</I> If bills are unpaid 60 days after the mailing of a written notice to the requester, the Commission's Office of the Executive Director may resort to the debt collection procedures set out in the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56350, Sept. 27, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 41372, July 16, 2010. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 95038, 95039, Dec. 27, 2016; 85 FR 72565, Nov. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.9" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.9   Waiver of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall waive part or all of the fees assessed under § 2201.8(b) if two conditions are satisfied: Disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government; and disclosure is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Where the FOIA Disclosure Officer has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which a requester will put the records sought, or where that use is not clear from the request itself, the FOIA Disclosure Officer may seek clarification from the requester before assigning the request to a specific category for fee assessment purposes. The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall afford the requester the opportunity to show that the requester comes within these two conditions. The following factors may be considered in determining whether the two conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the subject of the requested records concerns the operations or activities of the government;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of government operations or activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the requester has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure; and, if so, whether the magnitude of the identified commercial interest of the requester is sufficiently large, in comparison with the public interest in disclosure, that disclosure is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Partial waiver of fees.</I> If the two conditions stated in paragraph (a) of this section are met, the FOIA Disclosure Officer will ordinarily waive all fees. In exceptional cases, however, only a partial waiver may be granted if the request for records would impose an exceptional burden or require an exceptional expenditure of Commission resources, and the request for a waiver minimally satisfies the “public interest” requirement in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56350, Sept. 27, 2006. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 95038, 95039, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.10" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.10   Appeal of denials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for making an appeal.</I> A denial of a request for records, either in whole or in part, a request for expedited processing, or a request for fee waivers, may be appealed in writing to the Chairman of the Commission. To be considered timely, the appeal must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted, within 90 calendar days of the date of the agency's written notice of denial. The appeal should clearly identify the agency determination that is being appealed and the assigned FOIA tracking number. To facilitate handling, the requester should mark both the appeal and its envelope, or state in the subject line of an electronic transmission, “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudication of appeals.</I> The Chairman shall act on the appeal under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(A)(ii) within 20 working days after the receipt of the appeal. An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation. On receipt of any appeal involving classified information, the Chairman shall take appropriate action to ensure compliance with applicable classification rules.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on appeals.</I> The Chairman shall provide the decision on an appeal in writing. If the Chairman wholly or partially upholds the denial of the request, the decision shall contain a statement that identifies the reasons for the affirmance, including any FOIA exemptions applied. The decision must include notification that the requester may obtain judicial review of the decision under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B)-(G). The decision shall also inform the requester of the dispute resolution services offered by OGIS as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. If the Chairman's decision is remanded or modified on appeal to the court, the requester will be notified by the agency of that determination in writing. The Commission shall then further process the request in accordance with the appeal determination and shall respond directly to the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Engaging in dispute services provided by OGIS.</I> Dispute resolution is a voluntary process. If the Commission agrees to participate in the dispute resolution services provided by OGIS, it will actively engage as a partner in the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When appeal is required.</I> Before seeking review by a court of the Commission's adverse determination, a requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95039, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.11" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.11   Maintenance of statistics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall maintain records of:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of determinations made by the agency not to comply with the requests for records made to the agency and the reasons for those determinations;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of appeals made by persons, the results of those appeals, and the reason for the action upon each appeal that results in a denial of information;
</P>
<P>(3) A complete list of all statutes that the agency used to authorize the withholding of information under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3), which exempts information that is specifically exempted from disclosure by other statutes and the number of occasions on which each statute was relied upon;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of whether a court has upheld the decision of the agency to withhold information under each of those statutes cited, and a concise description of the scope of any information upheld;
</P>
<P>(5) The number of requests for records pending before the agency as of September 30 of the preceding year, and the median and average number of days that these requests had been pending before the agency as of that date;
</P>
<P>(6) The number of requests for records received by the agency and the number of requests the agency processed;
</P>
<P>(7) The median number of days taken by the agency to process different types of requests, based on the date on which the requests were received by the agency;
</P>
<P>(8) The average number of days for the agency to respond to a request beginning on the date on which the request was received by the agency, the median number of days for the agency to respond to such requests, and the range in number of days for the agency to respond to such requests;
</P>
<P>(9) Based on the number of business days that have elapsed since each request was originally received by the agency—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of requests for records to which the agency has responded with a determination within a period up to and including 20 days, and in 20-day increments up to and including 200 days;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of requests for records to which the agency has responded with a determination within a period greater than 200 days and less than 301 days;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of requests for records to which the agency has responded with a determination within a period greater than 300 days and less than 401 days; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of requests for records to which the agency has responded with a determination within a period greater than 400 days;
</P>
<P>(10) The average number of days for the agency to provide the granted information beginning on the date on which the request was originally filed, the median number of days for the agency to provide the granted information, and the range in number of days for the agency to provide the granted information;
</P>
<P>(11) The median and average number of days for the agency to respond to administrative appeals based on the date on which the appeals originally were received by the agency, the highest number of business days taken by the agency to respond to an administrative appeal, and the lowest number of business days taken by the agency to respond to an administrative appeal;
</P>
<P>(12) Data on the 10 active requests with the earliest filing dates pending at the agency, including the amount of time that has elapsed since each request was originally received by the agency;
</P>
<P>(13) Data on the 10 active administrative appeals with the earliest filing dates pending before the agency as of September 30 of the preceding year, including the number of business days that have elapsed since the requests were originally received by the agency;
</P>
<P>(14) The number of expedited review requests that are granted and denied, the average and median number of days for adjudicating expedited review requests, and the number adjudicated within the required 10 days;
</P>
<P>(15) The number of fee waiver requests that are granted and denied, and the average and median number of days for adjudicating fee waiver determinations;
</P>
<P>(16) The total amount of fees collected by the agency for processing requests;
</P>
<P>(17) The number of full-time staff of the agency devoted to the processing of requests for records under this section; and
</P>
<P>(18) The total amount expended by the agency for processing these requests.
</P>
<P>(b) The FOIA Disclosure Officer shall annually, on or before February 1 of each year, prepare and submit to the Attorney General an annual report covering each of the categories of records to be maintained in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, for the previous fiscal year. A copy of the report will be available for public inspection and copying at the OSHRC FOIA Reading Room, and a copy will be accessible on OSHRC's Web site at <I>http://www.oshrc.gov.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 56350, Sept. 27, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 41373, July 16, 2010. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 95038, 95040, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2201.12" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2201.12   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>OSHRC shall preserve all correspondence pertaining to FOIA requests, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized pursuant to title 44 of the United States Code or the applicable General Records Schedule of the National Archives and Records Administration. OSHRC shall not dispose of or destroy records while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal or lawsuit under the FOIA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95040, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.3.0.1.13.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 2201—Schedule of Fees 
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of fee 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount of fee 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Threshold Amount (Amount below which fees will not be assessed)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Search and Review Hourly Fees:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Clerical (GS-9 and below)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Professional (GS-10 through GS 14)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Managerial (GS-15 and above)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">76 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Duplication cost per page</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Computer printout copying fee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Searches of computerized records</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Actual cost to the Commission, but shall not exceed $300 per hour, including machine time and the cost of the operator and clerical personnel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Certification Fee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$35 per authenticating affidavit or declaration. (Note: Search and review charges may be assessed in accordance with the rates listed above.)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2202" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2202 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2203" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2203—REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING THE GOVERNMENT IN THE SUNSHINE ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 661(g); 5 U.S.C. 552b(d)(4); 5 U.S.C. 552b(g).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 51679, Dec. 19, 1985, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2203.1" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2203.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all meetings of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission. Its purpose is to implement the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b. The rules in this part are intended to open to public observation, to the extent practicable, the meetings of the Commission, while preserving the Commission's ability to fulfill its adjudicatory responsibilities and protecting the rights of individuals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2203.2" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2203.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Expedited closing procedure</I> means the simplified procedures described at 5 U.S.C. 552b(d)(4) for announcing and closing certain agency meetings.
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of the Commission, or any other person designated by the General Counsel to carry out his responsibilities under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Meeting</I> means the deliberations of at least two Commissioners, where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of “official Commission business.” A conference telephone call among the Commissioners is a <I>meeting</I> if it otherwise qualifies as a <I>meeting</I> under this paragraph. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(a) The deliberations required or permitted under §§ 2203.4(d) and 2203.5, e.g., a discussion of whether to open or close a meeting under this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Business that is conducted by circulating written materials sequentially among the Commissioners for their consideration on an individual basis;
</P>
<P>(c) A gathering at which the Chairman of the Commission seeks the advice of the other Commissioners on the carrying out of a function that has been vested in the Chairman, by statute or otherwise; or
</P>
<P>(d) Informal discussions of the Commissioners that clarify issues and expose varying views but do not effectively predetermine official actions.
</P>
<P><I>Official Commission business</I> means matters that are the responsibility of the Commission acting as a collegial body, including the adjudication of litigated cases. The term does not include matters that are the responsibility of the Commission's Chairman. See, e.g., 29 U.S.C. 661(e).
</P>
<P><I>Regularly-scheduled meetings</I> means meetings of the Commission that are held at 10:30 a.m. on Thursday of each week, except on legal holidays. The term includes regularly-scheduled meetings that have been rescheduled for another time or day.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 51679, Dec. 19, 1985, as amended at 73 FR 56492, Sept. 29, 2008; 74 FR 63988, Dec. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2203.3" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2203.3   Public attendance at Commission meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> Commissioners will not jointly conduct or dispose of official Commission business in a meeting unless it is conducted in accordance with this part. Because the Commission was created for the purpose of adjudicating litigated cases, it can be expected that most of its meetings will be closed to the public. However, meetings that do not involve Commission adjudication or discussion of issues in cases before it will be open to the extent practicable. The public will not be allowed to participate in discussions during open meetings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for closing meetings.</I> Except where the Commission finds that the public interest requires otherwise, all or part of a meeting may be closed to the public, and information about a meeting may be withheld from the public, where the Commission determines that the meeting, or part of the meeting, or information about the meeting, is likely to:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose matters that are:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy and
</P>
<P>(ii) In fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order;
</P>
<P>(2) Relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than section 552 of title 5), provided that such statute
</P>
<P>(i) Requires that the matter be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that are privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person;
</P>
<P>(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(7) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would:
</P>
<P>(i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings,
</P>
<P>(ii) Deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication,
</P>
<P>(iii) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy,
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source,
</P>
<P>(v) Disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or
</P>
<P>(vi) Endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel;
</P>
<P>(8) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions;
</P>
<P>(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would:
</P>
<P>(i) Be likely to (A) lead to significant financial speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities, or (B) significantly endanger the stability of any financial institution, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed Commission action, except where the Commission has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Commission is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final agency action on such proposal; or
</P>
<P>(10) Specifically concern the Commission's issuance of a subpoena or the Commission's participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, discussion or disposition by the Commission of a particular case of formal Commission adjudication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regularly-scheduled meetings.</I> The Commission will hold regularly-scheduled meetings for the purpose of considering matters that may properly be closed to the public under paragraph (b)(4), (8), (9)(i) or (10) of this section, or any combination thereof. Primarily, these meetings will be held for the purpose of considering or disposing of particular cases of formal Commission adjudication. The Commission therefore expects to close all regularly-scheduled meetings. The procedures established in § 2203.4 apply to the public announcement and closing of regularly-scheduled meetings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other Commission meetings.</I> All other meetings of the Commission will be open to public observation unless the Commission determines that all or part of a meeting is likely to disclose information of the kind set forth in any subparagraph of paragraph (b) of this section. The procedures established in § 2203.5 apply to the public announcement of Commission meetings that are not regularly scheduled and to the total or partial closing of these meetings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 51679, Dec. 19, 1985, as amended at 62 FR 35963, July 3, 1997; 74 FR 63988, Dec. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2203.4" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2203.4   Procedures applicable to regularly-scheduled meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory authority to adopt expedited closing procedure.</I> The Government in the Sunshine Act provides, at 5 U.S.C. 552b(d)(4), that qualified agencies may establish by regulation expedited procedures for announcing and closing certain meetings. Specifically, “[a]ny agency, a majority of whose meetings may properly be closed to the public pursuant to paragraph (4), (8), (9)(A), or (10) of subsection (c) [of the statute], or any combination thereof, may provide by regulation for the closing of such meetings or portions thereof [through the expedited closing procedure].” See § 2203.3(b)(4), (8), (9)(i) and (10), which are equivalent to the referenced paragraphs of the statute. The Commission had determined, for the reasons stated in paragraph (b) of this section, that it is qualified to adopt implementing regulations under 5 U.S.C. 552b(d)(4). It hereby announces that it will follow the expedited closing procedure authorized under that statutory provision in conducting its regularly-scheduled meetings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commission qualification to adopt expedited closing procedure.</I> The Commission has determined that a majority of its meetings may be closed to the public under 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(10). See § 2203.3(b)(10). The Commission is an adjudicatory agency that has no regulatory functions. It was established to resolve disputes arising out of enforcement actions brought by the Secretary of Labor under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 651-678. <I>See</I> 29 U.S.C. 659(c). The Commission's experience under the Government in the Sunshine Act has been that almost all of its meetings have been closed, in whole or in part, under 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(10) because they involved only formal agency adjudication of specific cases. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Announcements.</I> Regularly-scheduled meetings of the Commission will be held at 10:30 a.m. every Thursday, except for legal holidays, in the Hearing Room (Suite 965) of the Commission's national office at One Lafayette Centre, 1120-20th Street NW., Washington, DC 20036-3457. If a regularly-scheduled meeting is scheduled, public announcement of the time, date and place of the meeting will be made at the earliest practicable time by posting a notice in a prominent place at the Commission's national office. If a regularly-scheduled meeting is cancelled, a notice of cancellation will be posted in the same manner. Information about the subject of each regularly-scheduled meeting will be made available in the Office of the General Counsel, telephone number (202) 606-5410, at the earliest practicable time. However, no information that may be withheld under § 2203.3(b) will be made available, and individual items may be added to or deleted from the agenda at any time. Inquiries from the public regarding any regularly-scheduled meeting will be directed to the Office of the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voting.</I> At the beginning of each regularly-scheduled meeting, the Commission will vote on whether to close the meeting. No proxy vote will be permitted and the vote of each Commissioner will be recorded. This record of each Commissioner's vote will be made available to the public at the Commission's national office immediately after the meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 51679, Dec. 19, 1985, as amended at 58 FR 26066, Apr. 30, 1993; 73 FR 56492, Sept. 29, 2008] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2203.5" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2203.5   Procedures applicable to other meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Announcements</I>—(1) <I>Meetings announced.</I> Public announcement will be made of every meeting that is not a regularly-scheduled meeting. This announcement will state the time, place, and subject of the meeting, whether it is to be open or closed, and the name and phone number of the person designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting. The announcement will be made at least one week before the meeting unless at least two Commissioners determine by a recorded vote that Commission business requires that such meeting be called at an earlier date. In that case, the Commission will make its public announcement at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes announced.</I> The time or place of a meeting may be changed following the public announcement required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, but only if public announcement of the change is made at the earliest practicable time. The subject of a meeting, or the determination by the Commission to open or close all or part of a meeting, may also be changed following the public announcement required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section; however, these changes may be made only if:
</P>
<P>(i) At least two Commissioners determine by recorded vote that Commission business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible and
</P>
<P>(ii) Public announcement of the change and the vote of each Commissioner on the change is made at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form of announcements.</I> The announcements required under paragraph (a) of this section will be made by posting a notice in a prominent place at the Commission's national office. In addition, immediately following each announcement required by paragraph (a) of this section, notice of the same matters described in the posted notice will also be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voting</I>—(1) <I>Requirement that vote be taken.</I> Action to close all or part of a meeting that is not regularly scheduled or to withhold information about a meeting that is not regularly scheduled, under any paragraph of § 2203.3(b), will be taken only when at least two Commissioners vote to take the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Separate votes required.</I> A separate vote of the Commissioners will be taken with respect to each Commission meeting or each part of a meeting that is proposed to be closed under paragraph (b) of this section or with respect to any information that is proposed to be withheld under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Single vote on a series of meetings.</I> A single vote may be taken with respect to closing all or part of a series of meetings under paragraph (b) of this section, or with respect to any information concerning a series of meetings, so long as each meeting in the series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than 30 days after the initial meeting in the series.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public requests to close meetings.</I> Any person whose interest may be directly affected by a portion of an open meeting may request that the Commission close that portion to the public for any of the reasons referred to in paragraph (b)(5), (6) or (7) of § 2203.3. Upon the motion of any Commissioner, the Commission will vote by recorded vote whether to grant the request.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Proxy votes; recording of votes.</I> No proxy vote will be permitted for any vote required under paragraph (b) of this section. The vote of each participating Commissioner will be recorded.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Public announcement of votes.</I> Within one day after any vote taken under paragraph (b) of this section, the vote of each Commissioner on the question will be made publicly available at the Commission's national office. If any part of a meeting is to be closed under paragraph (b) of this section, a full written explanation of the Commission's action, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation, will be made publicly available at the Commission's national office within one day after the vote to close.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2203.6" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2203.6   Certification by the General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>For every meeting closed under any provision of these rules, the General Counsel will be asked to certify before the meeting that in his opinion the meeting may properly be closed to the public, and to state which exemptions he has relied upon. A copy of this certification, together with a statement (from the Commissioner presiding over the meeting) setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, shall be retained by the Commission as part of the transcript, recording or minutes of the meeting described in § 2203.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2203.7" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2203.7   Transcripts, recordings and minutes of closed meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Record of meeting.</I> The Commission will make a complete transcript or electronic recording adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting, or portion of a meeting, closed to the public. However, if all or part of a meeting is closed under paragraph (b)(8), (9)(i) or (10) of § 2203.3, the Commission shall maintain either such a transcript or recording, or a set of minutes. Such minutes will fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and will provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons for the actions. The minutes will also include a description of each of the views expressed on any item and a record of any roll call vote (reflecting the vote of each Commissioner on the question). In addition, the minutes will identify all documents considered in connection with any action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public access to records.</I> The Commission will make promptly available to the public, at its national office, the transcript, electronic recording, or minutes of the discussion of any item on the agenda, or of any testimony of any witness received at the meeting, except for such item or items of such discussion or testimony as the Commission determines to contain information which may be withheld under § 2203.3(b). Copies of the transcript, the minutes, or a transcription of the recording disclosing the identity of each speaker, with the deletions noted in the preceding sentence, will be furnished to any person at the actual cost of duplication or transcription. Requests to inspect or to have copies made of any transcript, electronic recording or set of minutes of any meeting, or any item(s) on the agenda of any meeting, should be made in writing to the General Counsel at the Office of the General Counsel, Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission, Room 941, One Lafayette Centre, 1120-20th Street NW., Washington, DC 20036-3457. The request should identify the time, date, and place of the meeting and briefly describe the items sought. The Commission will maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes, or a complete electronic recording of each closed meeting, or closed portion of a meeting, for a period of at least two years after the meeting, or until one year after the conclusion of any Commission proceeding with respect to which all or part of the meeting was held, whichever occurs later. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 51679, Dec. 19, 1985, as amended at 58 FR 26066, Apr. 30, 1993; 73 FR 56492, Sept. 29, 2008] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2204" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2204—IMPLEMENTATION OF THE EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT IN PROCEEDINGS BEFORE THE OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH REVIEW COMMISSION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 504.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 26659, May 17, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.101" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.101   Scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>The Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504 (called “EAJA” in this part), provides for the award of attorney or agent fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings (called “adversary adjudications”) before the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission. An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over the Secretary of Labor, unless the Secretary's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. Alternatively, an eligible party, even if not a prevailing party, may receive an award under 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4) when it successfully defends against an excessive demand made by the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.201" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.201   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Adversary adjudication</I> means an adjudication under 5 U.S.C. 554 and 29 U.S.C. 659(c) in which the position of the Secretary is represented by counsel or otherwise, subject to certain exclusions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(C).
</P>
<P><I>Agent</I> means any person other than an attorney who represents a party in a proceeding before the Commission pursuant to § 2200.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Demand</I> means the express demand of the Secretary which led to the adversary adjudication, but does not include a recitation by the Secretary of the maximum statutory penalty:
</P>
<P>(1) In the administrative complaint; or
</P>
<P>(2) Elsewhere when accompanied by an express demand for a lesser amount.
</P>
<P><I>Excessive demand</I> means a demand by the Secretary, in an adversary adjudication arising from the Secretary's action to enforce a party's compliance with a statutory requirement that is substantially in excess of the decision of the judge or Commission and is unreasonable when compared with such decision, under the facts and circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P><I>Final disposition</I> means the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of the adversary adjudication or any other complete resolution of the adversary adjudication, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, become final and unappealable, both within the agency and to the courts.
</P>
<P><I>Judge</I> means the Administrative Law Judge appointed under 29 U.S.C. 661(j) who presided over the adversary adjudication or presides over an EAJA proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means a party, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3), who is:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual whose net worth did not exceed $2,000,000 at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any owner of an unincorporated business, or any partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or organization, the net worth of which did not exceed $7,000,000 at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated, and which had not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; except that an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of such Code, or a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, may be a party regardless of the net worth of such organization or cooperative association. For purposes of 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), “party” also includes a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.
</P>
<P><I>Position of the Secretary</I> means, in addition to the position taken by the Secretary in the adversary adjudication, the action or failure to act by the Secretary upon which the adversary adjudication is based, except that fees and other expenses may not be awarded to a party for any portion of the adversary adjudication in which the party has unreasonably protracted the proceedings.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—EAJA Application</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.301" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.301   Application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party seeking an award under EAJA shall file an application with the judge that conducted the adversarial adjudication within 30 days after the final disposition of the adversary adjudication.
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall identify the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought. The application shall show that the applicant has prevailed and identify the position of the Secretary that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified; or, if the applicant has not prevailed, shall show that the Secretary's demand was substantially in excess of the decision of the judge or Commission and was unreasonable when compared with that decision under the facts and circumstances of that case. The application shall also identify the Secretary's position(s) in the proceeding that the applicant alleges was (were) not substantially justified or the Secretary's demand that is alleged to be excessive and unreasonable. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application shall also state the number of employees of the applicant and briefly describe the type and purpose of its organization or business.
</P>
<P>(c) The application shall also show that the applicant meets the definition of “party” in § 2204.201, including adequate documentation of its net worth, as set forth in § 2204.302.
</P>
<P>(d) The application shall state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought, subject to the requirements and limitations as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(A), with adequate documentation as set forth in § 2204.303.
</P>
<P>(e) The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer, attorney, or agent of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.302" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.302   Net worth exhibit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant except a qualified tax-exempt organization, cooperative association, or, in the case of an application for an award related to an allegedly excessive demand by the Secretary, a small entity as that term is defined by 5 U.S.C. 601(6), shall provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant as required by § 2204.301(c) when the proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies as a party as defined in § 2204.201. The judge or Commission may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.
</P>
<P>(b) Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit and believes there are legal grounds for withholding it from disclosure may request that the documents be filed under seal or otherwise be treated as confidential, pursuant to §§ 2200.8 and 2200.52 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 26659, May 17, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 31166, June 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.303" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.303   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall be accompanied by adequate documentation of the fees and other expenses incurred after the initiation of the adversary adjudication, including, but not limited to, the reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, or project. An application seeking an increase in fees to account for inflation pursuant to § 2200.406 of this chapter shall also include adequate documentation of the change in the consumer price index for the attorney or agent's locality. With respect to a claim for fees and expenses involving an excessive demand by the Secretary, the application shall be accompanied by adequate documentation of such fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication for which an award is sought attributable to the portion of the demand alleged to be excessive and unreasonable. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The judge or Commission may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any fees or expenses claimed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures for Considering Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.401" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.401   Filing and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Any application for an award, or any accompanying documentation related to an application shall be filed and served on all parties to the proceeding in accordance with §§ 2200.7 and 2200.8 of this chapter, except as provided in § 2204.302(b) for confidential financial information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.402" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.402   Answer to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, the Secretary shall file an answer to the application. Unless the Secretary requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of this section, failure to file an answer within the 30-day period may be treated as a consent to the award requested.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Secretary and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the judge upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the Secretary's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the Secretary shall include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 2204.405.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.403" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.403   Reply.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 2204.405.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.404" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.404   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and the Secretary may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying adversary adjudication, or after the adversary adjudication has been concluded, in accordance with the Commission's standard settlement procedures as set forth in § 2200.120 of this chapter. If a prevailing party and the Secretary agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement. If a proposed settlement of an underlying proceeding provides that each side shall bear its own expenses and the settlement is accepted, no application may be filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.405" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.405   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or the Secretary, or on his or her own initiative, the judge presiding over an EAJA proceeding may, if necessary for a full and fair decision on the application, order the filing of additional written submissions; hold oral argument; or allow for discovery or hold an evidentiary hearing, but only as to issues other than whether the agency's position was substantially justified (such as those involving the applicant's eligibility or substantiation of fees and expenses). Any written submissions shall be made, oral argument held, discovery conducted, and evidentiary hearing held as promptly as possible so as not to delay a decision on the application for fees. Whether or not the position of the Secretary was substantially justified shall be determined on the basis of the administrative record, as a whole, which is made in the adversary adjudication for which fees and other expenses are sought.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.406" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.406   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>The preparation and issuance of decision on the fee application shall be in accordance with § 2200.90 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For an application involving a prevailing party.</I> The decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision shall also include, if applicable, findings on whether the Secretary's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For an application involving an allegedly excessive agency demand.</I> The decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and an explanation of the reasons why the agency's demand was or was not determined to be substantially in excess of the underlying decision in the matter and whether the Secretary's demand was or was not unreasonable. That determination shall be based upon all the facts and circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Awards.</I> The judge presiding over an EAJA proceeding or the Commission on review may reduce the amount to be awarded, or deny any award, to the extent that the party during the course of the proceedings engaged in conduct which unduly and unreasonably protracted the final resolution of the matter in controversy.
</P>
<P>(1) Awards shall be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) An award for the fee of an attorney or agent under this paragraph (c) shall not exceed the hourly rate specified in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(A), except to account for inflation since the last update of the statute's maximum award upon the request of the applicant as documented in the application pursuant to § 2204.303. An award to compensate an expert witness shall not exceed the highest rate at which the Secretary pays expert witnesses. However, an award may include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(3) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the following shall be considered:
</P>
<P>(i) If the attorney, agent, or witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;
</P>
<P>(ii) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily perform services;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(iv) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(v) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<P>(4) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of the party may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.407" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.407   Commission review.</HEAD>
<P>Either the applicant or the Secretary may seek review of the judge's decision on the fee application, and the Commission may grant such a petition for review or direct review of the decision on the Commission's own initiative. Review by the Commission shall be in accordance with §§ 2200.91 and 2200.92 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.408" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.408   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Judicial review of final decisions on awards may be sought as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.409" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.409   Stay of decision concerning award.</HEAD>
<P>Any proceedings on an application for fees under this part shall be automatically stayed until the adversary adjudication has become a final disposition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.410" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.410   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>After reasonable notice to the parties, the judge or the Commission may waive, for good cause shown, any provision contained in this part as long as the waiver is consistent with the terms and purpose of the EAJA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2204.411" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.6.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2204.411   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit to the officer designated by the Secretary a copy of the Commission's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a certification that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2205" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2205—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF DISABILITY IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH REVIEW COMMISSION AND IN ACCESSIBILITY OF COMMISSION ELECTRONIC AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794; 29 U.S.C. 794d.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 39285, July 6, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2205.101" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part effectuates section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service. This part also effectuates section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, with respect to the accessibility of electronic and information technology developed, procured, maintained, or used by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.102" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency and to its development, procurement, maintenance, and use of electronic and information technology.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.103" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504 or section 508. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic and Information technology</I> includes information technology and any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the creation, conversion, or duplication of data or information. The term electronic and information technology includes, but is not limited to, telecommunications products (such as telephones), information kiosks and transaction machines, World Wide Web sites, multimedia, and office equipment such as copiers and fax machines. The term does not include any equipment that contains embedded information technology that is used as an integral part of the product, but the principal function of which is not the acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information. For example, HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) equipment such as thermostats or temperature control devices, and medical equipment where information technology is integral to its operation are not information technology.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Historic preservation programs</I> means programs conducted by the agency that have preservation of historic properties as a primary purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Historic properties</I> means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with a disability</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in subparagraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Information technology</I> means any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the automatic acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information. The term information technology includes computers, ancillary equipment, software, firmware and similar procedures, services (including support services), and related resources.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with a disability</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualified individual with a disability</I> is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1630.2(m), which is made applicable to this part by § 2205.140.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617); the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955); and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.
</P>
<P><I>Section 508</I> means section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-112, Title V, section 508, as added by Pub. L. 99-506, Title VI, section 603(a), Oct. 21, 1986, 100 Stat. 1830, and amended Pub. L. 100-630, Title II, section 206(f), Nov. 7, 1988, 102 Stat. 3312; Pub. L. 102-569, Title V, section 509(a), Oct. 29, 1992, 106 Stat. 4430; Pub. L. 105-220, Title IV, section 408(b), Aug. 7, 1998, 112 Stat. 1203.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial impairment</I> means a significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2205.104-2205.110" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2205.104-2205.110   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.111" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the Chairman finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 or the access to technology provided under section 508 and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2205.112-2205.129" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2205.112-2205.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.130" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified individual with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with a disability with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with disabilities or to any class of individuals with disabilities than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with a disability in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with disabilities from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of individuals without disabilities from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to individuals with disabilities or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with disabilities from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with disabilities is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2205.131-2205.134" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2205.131-2205.134   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.135" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.135   Electronic and information technology requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with section 508 and the standards published by the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board at 36 CFR part 1194, the agency shall ensure, absent an undue burden, that the electronic and information technology developed, procured, maintained, or used by the agency allows:
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals with disabilities who are agency employees or applicants to have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of information and data by agency employees who are individuals without disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals with disabilities who are members of the public seeking information or services from the agency to have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of information and data by such members of the public who are not individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(b) When development, procurement, maintenance, or use of electronic and information technology that meets the standards at 36 CFR part 1194 would impose an undue burden, the agency shall provide individuals with disabilities covered by this section with the information and data involved by an alternative means of access that allows the individuals to use the information and data.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2205.136-2205.139" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2205.136-2205.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.140" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2205.141-2205.148" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2205.141-2205.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.149" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.149   Program accessibility: discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 2205.150, no qualified individual with a disability shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.150" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.150   Program accessibility: existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This paragraph (a) does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require the agency to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or
</P>
<P>(3) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with this paragraph (a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Chairman or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historic preservation programs.</I> In meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section in historic preservation programs, the agency shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to individuals with disabilities. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of paragraph (a)(2) or (3) of this section, alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—
</P>
<P>(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigning persons to guide individuals with disabilities into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Adopting other innovative methods.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.151" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.151   Program accessibility: new construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 102-76.60 to 102-76.95, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2205.152-2205.159" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2205.152-2205.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.160" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with a disability an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, TDD's or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with this section would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Chairman or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2205.161-2205.169" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2205.161-2205.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2205.170" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2205.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by the agency in violation of section 504. Paragraphs (c) through (j) of this section also apply to all complaints alleging a violation of the agency's responsibility to procure electronic and information technology under section 508, whether filed by members of the public or agency employees or applicants.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Any person who believes that he or she has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part or that the agency's procurement of electronic and information technology has violated section 508, or an authorized representative of such person, may file a complaint with the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(2) The Executive Director shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints shall be sent to Executive Director, Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission, One Lafayette Centre, 1120-20th Street NW., 9th Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457. Complaints shall be filed with the Executive Director within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. A complaint shall be deemed filed on the date it is postmarked, or, in the absence of a postmark, on the date it is received by the agency. The agency may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The agency shall accept a complete complaint that is filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and over which it has jurisdiction. The Executive Director shall notify the complainant and the respondent of receipt and acceptance of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) If the agency receives a complaint that is not complete, the Executive Director shall notify the complainant, within 30 days of receipt of the incomplete complaint, that additional information is needed. If the complainant fails to complete the complaint within 30 days of receipt of this notice, the Executive Director shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice and shall so inform the complainant.
</P>
<P>(3) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(e) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(f) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(g) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed with the Chairman by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by paragraph (f) of this section. The agency may extend this time for good cause. Appeals shall be sent to the Chairman, Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission, One Lafayette Centre, 1120-20th Street, NW., 9th Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457. An appeal shall be deemed filed on the date it is postmarked, or, in the absence of a postmark, on the date it is received by the agency. It should be clearly marked “Appeal of Section 504 decision” or “Appeal of Section 508 decision” and should contain specific objections explaining why the complainant believes the initial decision was factually or legally wrong. Attached to the appeal letter should be a copy of the initial decision being appealed.
</P>
<P>(h) Timely appeals shall be accepted and decided by the Chairman. The Chairman shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the Chairman determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(i) The time limits cited in paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(j) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies or may contract with non-Federal entities to conduct such investigations, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2205.171-2205.999" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.7.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2205.171-2205.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2400" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2400—REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING THE PRIVACY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a(f); 5 U.S.C. 553.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 65222, Oct. 15, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2400.1" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides procedures to implement the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. It is applicable only to records that are maintained by the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC or the Commission), which includes all systems of records operated by an entity on behalf of OSHRC, pursuant to a contract, to accomplish an agency function. For purposes of this part, such contractors do not include any consumer reporting agency to which a record is disclosed under 31 U.S.C. 3711(e). This part does not affect discovery in adversary proceedings before the Commission. Discovery is governed by the Commission's Rules of Procedures in 29 CFR part 2200, subpart D.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.2" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.2   Description of agency.</HEAD>
<P>OSHRC adjudicates contested enforcement actions under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. 651-678. The Commission decides cases after the parties are given an opportunity for a hearing. All hearings are open to the public and are conducted at a place convenient to the parties by an Administrative Law Judge. Any Commissioner may direct that a decision of a Judge be reviewed by the full Commission. The President designates one of the Commissioners as Chairman, who is responsible on behalf of the Commission for the administrative operations of the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.3" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.3   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Chairman shall designate an OSHRC employee as the Privacy Officer and shall delegate to the Privacy Officer the authority to ensure agency-wide compliance with this part. As necessary, the Privacy Officer shall coordinate this delegated responsibility with the Senior Agency Official for Privacy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.4" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.4   Procedures for requesting notification of and access to personal records.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this section is to provide procedures by which an individual may request notification about whether a system of records contains a record about that individual (“a personal record”), or may gain access to such a record included in a system of records.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of requests</I>—(1) <I>Manner.</I> An individual seeking information regarding the content of a system of records or access to a personal record in a system of records should submit a written request either in person or by mail to the Privacy Officer, OSHRC, One Lafayette Centre, 1120 20th Street NW, Ninth Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457. A request may also be submitted to the FOIA Disclosure Officer in accordance with the procedures set forth at 29 CFR 2201.5(a). Such a request, however, must be identified as a “Privacy Act Request.” The FOIA Disclosure Officer will forward any request identified in this manner to the Privacy Officer for processing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification requests.</I> A request for notification about whether a system of records contains a personal record must specify which system of records, as described in the agency's system-of-records notices published in <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> is the subject of the request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Access requests.</I> A request for access to a personal record shall describe the nature of the record sought, the approximate dates covered by the record, and the system of records in which the record is thought to be included as described in the agency's system-of-records notices published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The request should also indicate whether the requester wishes to review the record in person or obtain a copy by mail. If the information supplied is insufficient to locate or identify the record, the requester shall be notified promptly and, if necessary, informed of the additional information required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Period for response.</I> After receiving a request, the Privacy Officer shall respond to it no later than 10 working days from the request's receipt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of identity.</I> The following standards for verifying an individual's identity are applicable to any individual who requests a personal record under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual seeking access to a record in person shall, if possible, present a government-issued identification that includes a photo, such as a passport or a driver's license.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual seeking access to a record by mail shall, if possible, provide a signature, address, date of birth, place of birth, and a photocopy of a government-issued identification that includes a photo, such as a passport or a driver's license.
</P>
<P>(3) An individual seeking access to a record either by mail or in person who cannot provide the necessary documentation of identification specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section may provide a declaration in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1746, swearing or affirming to his or her identity and to the fact that he or she understands the penalties for false statements pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification of guardianship.</I> The parent or guardian of a minor or an individual judicially determined to be incompetent and seeking to act on behalf of such minor or incompetent shall, in addition to establishing his or her own identity, establish the identity of the minor or other individual he or she represents as required in paragraph (c) of this section and establish his or her own parentage or guardianship of the subject of the record by furnishing either a copy of a birth certificate showing parentage or a court order establishing the guardianship.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Accompanying persons.</I> An individual seeking to review a personal record in person may be accompanied by another individual of his or her own choosing. Both the individual seeking access and the accompanying individual shall be required to sign a form provided by OSHRC indicating that OSHRC is authorized to discuss the contents of the subject record in the presence of both individuals.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>When compliance is possible.</I> (1) The Privacy Officer shall inform the requester of the determination to grant the request and shall make the personal record available to the individual in the manner requested, that is, either by forwarding a copy of the information to the requester or by making it available for review, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) It is impracticable to provide the requester with a copy, in which case the requester shall be notified of this and informed of the procedures set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Privacy Officer has reason to believe that the cost of a copy is considerably more expensive than anticipated by the requester, in which case the Privacy Officer shall notify the requester of the estimated cost, and ascertain whether the requester still wishes to be provided with a copy of the information.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a personal record is to be reviewed by the requester in person, the Privacy Officer shall inform the requester in writing of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the record shall become available for review, the location at which it may be reviewed, and the hours for inspection;
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirements for verifying identity as set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d);
</P>
<P>(iii) The requester's right to be accompanied by another individual to review the record as set forth in paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The requester's right to have another individual review the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester seeks to inspect the personal record without receiving a copy, the requester shall not leave OSHRC premises with the record and shall sign a statement identifying the specific record or category of records that has been reviewed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>When compliance is not possible.</I> The denial of a written request to review a personal record shall be sent to the requester in writing and signed by the Privacy Officer. This response shall be provided when the requested record does not exist, does not contain personal information relating to the requester, or is exempt. The response shall include a statement regarding the determining factors of denial, and the requester's rights to administrative appeal and, thereafter, judicial review in a district court of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.5" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.5   Special procedures for requesting medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon an individual's request for access to any medical record about the requester, including any psychological record, the Privacy Officer shall make a preliminary determination on whether access to such record(s) could have an adverse effect upon the requester. If the Privacy Officer determines that access could have an adverse effect on the requester, OSHRC shall notify the requester in writing and advise that the record(s) at issue can be made available only to a physician of the requester's designation.
</P>
<P>(b) OSHRC shall forward such record(s) to the physician designated by the requester once the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The requester has informed OSHRC of the designated physician's identity;
</P>
<P>(2) OSHRC has verified the identity of the physician; and
</P>
<P>(3) The physician has agreed to review the record(s) with the requester to both explain the meaning of the record(s) and offer counseling designed to temper any adverse reaction.
</P>
<P>(c) If, within 60 calendar days of OSHRC's written request for a designation, the requester has failed to respond or designate a physician, or the physician fails to agree to the release conditions, then OSHRC shall hold the records(s) in abeyance and advise the requester that this action may be construed as a technical denial. OSHRC shall also advise the requester of his or her rights to administrative appeal and, thereafter, judicial review in a district court of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.6" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.6   Procedures for amending personal records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of requests for amendment.</I> Upon review of an individual's personal record, that individual may submit a request to amend such record. This request shall be submitted in writing to the Privacy Officer, in accordance with § 2400.4(a)(1)'s procedures, and shall include a statement of the amendment requested and the reasons for such amendment, e.g., relevance, accuracy, timeliness or completeness of the record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action to be taken by the Privacy Officer.</I> Upon receiving an amendment request, the Privacy Officer shall promptly:
</P>
<P>(1) Acknowledge in writing within 10 working days the receipt of the request;
</P>
<P>(2) Make such inquiry as is necessary to determine whether the amendment is appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(3) Resolve the request by either:
</P>
<P>(i) Correcting or eliminating any information that is found to be incomplete, inaccurate, irrelevant to a statutory purpose of OSHRC, or untimely and notifying the requester in writing when this action is complete; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Notifying the requester in writing of a determination not to amend the personal record, including the reasons for the denial, and advising the requester of his or her right to appeal in accordance with § 2400.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.7" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.7   Procedures for appealing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of appeal.</I> (1) If a request to provide notification of a personal record, or to access or amend a personal record, is denied either in whole or in part, or if no determination is made within the period prescribed by this part, then the requester may appeal in writing to the Chairman by mailing an appeal letter to the following address: Privacy Appeal, OSHRC, One Lafayette Centre, 1120 20th Street NW, Ninth Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457.
</P>
<P>(2) To be considered timely, the requester must submit the appeal letter within 30 calendar days of the date of denial, or within 90 calendar days of his or her request if the appeal is from a failure of the Privacy Officer to make a determination. The appeal letter should include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Reasonable identification of the system to which notification was sought, the personal record to which access was sought, or the amendment that was requested.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the OSHRC action or failure to act being appealed and the relief sought.
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the request, the notification of denial, and any other related correspondence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final decisions.</I> The Chairman must make a final decision no later than 30 working days from the date of the request, but the Chairman may extend this time period for good cause. The requester, however, must be notified of the extension within the initial 30 working-day period, and the extension may not exceed 90 calendar days from the date of the request. Any personal record found on appeal to be incomplete, inaccurate, irrelevant, or untimely, shall within 30 working days of the date of such findings be appropriately amended.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision requirements.</I> The decision of the Chairman constitutes the final decision of OSHRC on the right of the requester to be notified of, or to access or amend, a personal record. The decision on the appeal shall be in writing and, in the event of a denial, shall set forth the reasons for such denial and state the individual's right to obtain judicial review in a district court of the United States. An indexed file of the agency's decisions on appeal shall be maintained by the Privacy Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.8" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.8   Procedures for statements of disagreement and notification of amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of statement of disagreement.</I> If a final decision concerning an amendment request does not satisfy the requester, then the requester may provide a statement of disagreement that is of reasonable length and sets forth a position regarding the disputed information. This statement of disagreement shall be accepted by OSHRC and included in the relevant personal record. If deemed appropriate, OSHRC may also include a concise statement in the record of its reasons for not making a requested amendment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of amendment and statement of disagreement.</I> (1) OSHRC shall inform any person or other agency about an amendment to a personal record, or notation made to the record under paragraph (a) of this section, if that record has been disclosed to the person or agency, the amendment or notation was made pursuant to this part, and an accounting of the disclosure was made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c).
</P>
<P>(2) When a personal record is disclosed to a person or other agency after a notation under paragraph (a) of this section is made to the record, OSHRC shall clearly note any portion of the record that is disputed and provide a copy of any notation included in the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2400.9" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.8.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2400.9   Schedule of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> The purpose of this section is to establish fair and equitable fees to permit reproduction of personal records for concerned individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reproduction.</I> (1) For the fees associated with reproduction of personal records, refer to appendix A to part 2201, Schedule of Fees.
</P>
<P>(2) OSHRC shall not normally furnish more than one copy of any record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> No fee shall be charged to any individual for the process of retrieving, reviewing, or amending personal records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2401-2499" NODE="29:9.1.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2401-2499 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XXV" NODE="29:9.1.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XXV—EMPLOYEE BENEFITS SECURITY ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—GENERAL 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2500-2508" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2500-2508 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2509" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2509—INTERPRETIVE BULLETINS RELATING TO THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT OF 1974
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1135. Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2003, 68 FR 5374 (Feb. 3, 2003). Section 2509.75-5 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1002. Sec. 2509.95-1 also issued under sec. 625, Pub. L. 109-280, 120 Stat. 780.






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 2509.75-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.75-3   Interpretive bulletin relating to investments by employee benefit plans in securities of registered investment companies.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>On March 12, 1975, the Department of Labor issued an interpretive bulletin, ERISA IB 75-3, with regard to its interpretation of section 3(21)(B) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. That section provides that an investment by an employee benefit plan in securities issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 shall not by itself cause the investment company, its investment adviser or principal underwriter to be deemed to be a fiduciary or party in interest “except insofar as such investment company or its investment adviser or principal underwriter acts in connection with an employee benefit plan covering employees of the investment company, the investment adviser, or its principal underwriter.” 
</P>
<P>The Department of Labor interprets this section as an elaboration of the principle set forth in section 401(b)(1) of the Act and ERISA IB 75-2 (issued February 6, 1975) that the assets of an investment company shall not be deemed to be assets of a plan solely by reason of an investment by such plan in the shares of such investment company. Consistent with this principle, the Department of Labor interprets this section to mean that a person who is connected with an investment company, such as the investment company itself, its investment adviser or its principal underwriter, is not to be deemed to be a fiduciary of or party in interest with respect to a plan solely because the plan has invested in the investment company's shares. 
</P>
<P>This principle applies, for example, to a plan covering employees of an investment adviser to an investment company where the plan invests in the securities of the investment company. In such a case the investment company or its principal underwriter is not to be deemed to be a fiduciary of or party in interest with respect to the plan solely because of such investment. 
</P>
<P>On the other hand, the exception clause in section 3(21) emphasizes that if an investment company, its investment adviser or its principal underwriter is a fiduciary or party in interest for a reason other than the investment in the securities of the investment company, such a person remains a party in interest or fiduciary. Thus, in the preceding example, since an employer is a party in interest, the investment adviser remains a party in interest with respect to a plan covering its employees. 
</P>
<P>The Department of Labor emphasized that an investment adviser, principal underwriter or investment company which is a fiduciary by virtue of section 3(21)(A) of the Act is subject to the fiduciary responsibility provisions of part 4 of title I of the Act, including those relating to fiduciary duties under section 404.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 31599, July 28, 1975. Redesignated at 41 FR 1906, Jan. 13, 1976] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.75-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.75-4   Interpretive bulletin relating to indemnification of fiduciaries.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>On June 4, 1975, the Department of Labor issued an interpretive bulletin, ERISA IB 75-4, announcing the Department's interpretation of section 410(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, insofar as that section relates to indemnification of fiduciaries. Section 410(a) states, in relevant part, that “any provision in an agreement or instrument which purports to relieve a fiduciary from responsibility or liability for any responsibility, obligation, or duty under this part shall be void as against public policy.” 
</P>
<P>The Department of Labor interprets this section to permit indemnification agreements which do not relieve a fiduciary of responsibility or liability under part 4 of title I. Indemnification provisions which leave the fiduciary fully responsible and liable, but merely permit another party to satisfy any liability incurred by the fiduciary in the same manner as insurance purchased under section 410(b)(3), are therefore not void under section 410(a). 
</P>
<P>Examples of such indemnification provisions are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Indemnification of a plan fiduciary by (a) an employer, any of whose employees are covered by the plan, or an affiliate (as defined in section 407(d)(7) of the Act) of such employer, or (b) an employee organization, any of whose members are covered by the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Indemnification by a plan fiduciary of the fiduciary's employees who actually perform the fiduciary services. 
</P>
<P>The Department of Labor interprets section 410(a) as rendering void any arrangement for indemnification of a fiduciary of an employee benefit plan by the plan. Such an arrangement would have the same result as an exculpatory clause, in that it would, in effect, relieve the fiduciary of responsibility and liability to the plan by abrogating the plan's right to recovery from the fiduciary for breaches of fiduciary obligations. 
</P>
<P>While indemnification arrangements do not contravene the provisions of section 410(a), parties entering into an indemnification agreement should consider whether the agreement complies with the other provisions of part 4 of title I of the Act and with other applicable laws.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 31599, July 28, 1975. Redesignated at 41 FR 1906, Jan. 13, 1976] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.75-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.75-5   Questions and answers relating to fiduciary responsibility.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>On June 25, 1975, the Department of Labor issued an interpretive bulletin, ERISA IB 75-5, containing questions and answers relating to certain aspects of the recently enacted Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the “Act”). 
</P>
<P>Pending the issuance of regulations or other guidelines, persons may rely on the answers to these questions in order to resolve the issues that are specifically considered. No inferences should be drawn regarding issues not raised which may be suggested by a particular question and answer or as to why certain questions, and not others, are included. Furthermore, in applying the questions and answers, the effect of subsequent legislation, regulations, court decisions, and interpretative bulletins must be considered. To the extent that plans utilize or rely on these answers and the requirements of regulations subsequently adopted vary from the answers relied on, such plans may have to be amended. 
</P>
<P>An index of the questions and answers, relating them to the appropriate sections of the Act, is also provided.
</P>
<HD1>Index
</HD1>
<HD1>key to question prefixes
</HD1>
<P>D—Refers to Definitions. 
</P>
<P>FR—Refers to Fiduciary Responsibility.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Section No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Question No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3(21)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D-1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3(38)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-6, FR-7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">402(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-1, FR-2, FR-3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">402(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-4, FR-5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">402(c)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-6, FR-7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">404(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">405(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">405(b)(1)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">406(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">409(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">412(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-8, FR-9.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>D-1 Q: Is an attorney, accountant, actuary or consultant who renders legal, accounting, actuarial or consulting services to an employee benefit plan (other than an investment adviser to the plan) a fiduciary to the plan solely by virtue of the rendering of such services, absent a showing that such consultant (a) exercises discretionary authority or discretionary control respecting the management of the plan, (b) exercises authority or control respecting management or disposition of the plan's assets, (c) renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, with respect to the assets of the plan, or has any authority or responsibility to do so, or (d) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of the plan? 
</P>
<P>A: No. However, while attorneys, accountants, actuaries and consultants performing their usual professional functions will ordinarily not be considered fiduciaries, if the factual situation in a particular case falls within one of the categories described in clauses (a) through (d) of this question, such persons would be considered to be fiduciaries within the meaning of section 3(21) of the Act. The Internal Revenue Service notes that such persons would also be considered to be fiduciaries within the meaning of section 4975(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. 
</P>
<P>FR-1 Q: If an instrument establishing an employee benefit plan provides that the plan committee shall control and manage the operation and administration of the plan and specifies who shall constitute the plan committee (either by position or by naming individuals to the committee), does such provision adequately satisfy the requirement in section 402(a) that a “named fiduciary” be provided for in a plan instrument? 
</P>
<P>A: Yes. While the better practice would be to state explicitly that the plan committee is the “named fiduciary” for purposes of the Act, clear identification of one or more persons, by name or title, combined with a statement that such person or persons have authority to control and manage the operation and administration of the plan, satisfies the “named fiduciary” requirement of section 402(a). The purpose of this requirement is to enable employees and other interested persons to ascertain who is responsible for operating the plan. The instrument in the above example, which provides that “the plan committee shall control and manage the operation and administration of the plan”, and specifies, by name or position, who shall constitute the committee, fulfills this requirement. 
</P>
<P>FR-2 Q: In a union negotiated employee benefit plan, the instrument establishing the plan provides that a joint board on which employees and employers are equally represented shall control and manage the operation and administration of the plan. Does this provision adequately satisfy the requirement in section 402(a) that a “named fiduciary” be provided for in a plan instrument? 
</P>
<P>A: Yes, for the reasons stated in response to question FR-1. The joint board is clearly identified as the entity which has authority to control and manage the operation and administration of the plan, and the persons designated to be members of such joint board would be named fiduciaries under section 402(a). 
</P>
<P>FR-3 Q: May an employee benefit plan covering employees of a corporation designate the corporation as the “named fiduciary” for purposes of section 402(a)(1) of the Act? 
</P>
<P>A: Yes, it may. Section 402(a)(2) of the Act states that a “named fiduciary” is a fiduciary either named in the plan instrument or designated according to a procedure set forth in the plan instrument. A fiduciary is a “person” falling within the definition of fiduciary set forth in section 3(21)(A) of the Act. A “person” may be a corporation under the definition of person contained in section 3(9) of the Act. While such designation satisfies the requirement of enabling employees and other interested persons to ascertain the person or persons responsible for operating the plan, a plan instrument which designates a corporation as “named fiduciary” should provide for designation by the corporation of specified individuals or other persons to carry out specified fiduciary responsibilities under the plan, in accordance with section 405(c)(1)(B) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>FR-4 Q: A defined benefit pension plan's procedure for establishing and carrying out a funding policy provides that the plan's trustees shall, at a meeting duly called for the purpose, establish a funding policy and method which satisfies the requirements of part 3 of title I of the Act, and shall meet annually at a stated time of the year to review such funding policy and method. It further provides that all actions taken with respect to such funding policy and method and the reasons therefor shall be recorded in the minutes of the trustees' meetings. Does this procedure comply with section 402(b)(1) of the Act? 
</P>
<P>A: Yes. The above procedure specifies who is to establish the funding policy and method for the plan, and provides for a written record of the actions taken with respect to such funding policy and method, including the reasons for such actions. The purpose of the funding policy requirement set forth in section 402(b)(1) is to enable plan participants and beneficiaries to ascertain that the plan has a funding policy that meets the requirements of part 3 of title I of the Act. The procedure set forth above meets that requirement. 
</P>
<P>FR-5 Q: Must a welfare plan in which the benefits are paid out of the general assets of the employer have a procedure for establishing and carrying out a funding policy set forth in the plan instrument? 
</P>
<P>A: No. Section 402(b)(1) requires that the plan provide for such a procedure “consistent with the objectives of the plan” and requirements of title I of the Act. In situations in which a plan is unfunded and title I of the Act does not require the plan to be funded, there is no need to provide for such a procedure. If the welfare plan were funded, a procedure consistent with the objectives of the plan would have to be established. 
</P>
<P>FR-6 Q: May an investment adviser which is neither a bank nor an insurance company, and which is neither registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 nor registered as an investment adviser in the State where it maintains its principal office and place of business, be appointed an investment manager under section 402(c)(3) of the Act?
</P>
<P>A: No. The only persons who may be appointed an investment manager under section 402(c)(3) of the Act are persons who meet the requirements of section 3(38) of the Act—namely, banks (as defined in the Investment Advisers Act of 1940), insurance companies qualified under the laws of more than one state to manage, acquire and dispose of plan assets, persons registered as investment advisers under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, or persons not registered under the Investment Advisers Act by reason of paragraph 1 of section 203A(a) of that Act who are registered as investment advisers in the State where they maintain their principal office and place of business in accordance with ERISA section 3(38) and who have met the filing requirements of 29 CFR 2510.3-38.
</P>
<P>FR-7 Q: May an investment adviser that has a registration application pending for federal registration under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, or pending with the appropriate state regulatory body under State investment adviser registration laws if relying on the provisions of 29 CFR 2510.3-38 to qualify as a state-registered investment manager, function as an investment manager under the Act prior to the effective date of their federal or state registration?
</P>
<P>A: No, for the reasons stated in the answer to FR-6 above.
</P>
<P>FR-8 Q: Under the temporary bonding regulation set forth in 29 CFR 2550.412-1, must a person who renders investment advice to a plan for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, but who does not exercise or have the right to exercise discretionary authority with respect to the assets of the plan, be bonded solely by reason of the provision of such investment advice? 
</P>
<P>A: No. A person who renders investment advice, but who does not exercise or have the right to exercise discretionary authority with respect to plan assets, is not required to be bonded solely by reason of the provision of such investment advice. Such a person is not considered to be “handling” funds within the meaning of the temporary bonding regulation set forth in 29 CFR 2550.412-1, which incorporates by reference 29 CFR 464.7. For purposes of the temporary bonding regulation, only those fiduciaries who handle funds must be bonded. If, in addition to the rendering of investment advice, such person performs any additional function which constitutes the handling of plan funds under 29 CFR 464.7, the person would have to be bonded. 
</P>
<P>FR-9 Q: May an employee benefit plan purchase a bond covering plan officials? 
</P>
<P>A: Yes. The bonding requirement, which applies, with certain exceptions, to every plan official under section 412(a) of the Act, is for the protection of the plan and does not benefit any plan official or relieve any plan official of any obligation to the plan. The purchase of such bond by a plan will not, therefore, be considered to be in contravention of sections 406(a) or (b) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>FR-10 Q: An employee benefit plan is considering the construction of a building to house the administration of the plan. One trustee has proposed that the building be constructed on a cost plus basis by a particular contractor without competitive bidding. When the trustee was questioned by another trustee as to the basis of choice of the contractor, the impact of the building on the plan's administrative costs, whether a cost plus contract would yield a better price to the plan than a fixed price basis, and why a negotiated contract would be better than letting the contract for competitive bidding, no satisfactory answers were provided. Several of the trustees have argued that letting such a contract would be a violation of their general fiduciary responsibilities. Despite their arguments, a majority of the trustees appear to be ready to vote to construct the building as proposed. What should the minority trustees do to protect themselves from liability under section 409(a) of the Act and section 405(b)(1)(A) of the Act? 
</P>
<P>A: Here, where a majority of trustees appear ready to take action which would clearly be contrary to the prudence requirement of section 404(a)(1)(B) of the Act, it is incumbent on the minority trustees to take all reasonable and legal steps to prevent the action. Such steps might include preparations to obtain an injunction from a Federal District court under section 502(a)(3) of the Act, to notify the Labor Department, or to publicize the vote if the decision is to proceed as proposed. If, having taken all reasonable and legal steps to prevent the imprudent action, the minority trustees have not succeeded, they will not incur liability for the action of the majority. Mere resignation, however, without taking steps to prevent the imprudent action, will not suffice to avoid liability for the minority trustees once they have knowledge that the imprudent action is under consideration. 
</P>
<P>More generally, trustees should take great care to document adequately all meetings where actions are taken with respect to management and control of fplan assets. Written minutes of all actions taken should be kept describing the action taken, and stating how each trustee voted on each matter. If, as in the case above, trustees object to a proposed action on the grounds of possible violation of the fiduciary responsibility provisions of the Act, the trustees so objecting should insist that their objections and the responses to such objections be included in the record of the meeting. It should be noted that, where a trustee believes that a cotrustee has already committed a breach, resignation by the trustee as a protest against such breach will not generally be considered sufficient to discharge the trustee's positive duty under section 405(a)(3) to make reasonable efforts under the circumstances to remedy the breach.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 31599, July 28, 1975. Redesignated at 41 FR 1906, Jan. 13, 1976; 69 FR 52125, Aug. 24, 2004]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.75-8" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.75-8   Questions and answers relating to fiduciary responsibility under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The Department of Labor today issued questions and answers relating to certain aspects of fiduciary responsibility under the Act, thereby supplementing ERISA IB 75-5 (29 CFR 2555.75-5) which was issued on June 24, 1975, and published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on July 28, 1975 (40 FR 31598). 
</P>
<P>Pending the issuance of regulations or other guidelines, persons may rely on the answers to these questions in order to resolve the issues that are specifically considered. No inferences should be drawn regarding issues not raised which may be suggested by a particular question and answer or as to why certain questions, and not others, are included. Furthermore, in applying the questions and answers, the effect of subsequent legislation, regulations, court decisions, and interpretive bulletins must be considered. To the extent that plans utilize or rely on these answers and the requirements of regulations subsequently adopted vary from the answers relied on, such plans may have to be amended. 
</P>
<P>An index of the questions and answers, relating them to the appropriate sections of the Act, is also provided. 
</P>
<HD1>Index
</HD1>
<P>Key to question prefixes: D—refers to definitions; FR—refers to fiduciary responsibility.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Section No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Question No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3(21)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D-2, D-3, D-4, D-5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3(38)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">402(c)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">402(c)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">402(c)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">403(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">404(a)(1)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-11, FR-17.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">405(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-13, FR-14, FR-16.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">405(c)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FR-12, FR-15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">405(c)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D-4, FR-13, FR-14, FR-16.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">412</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D-2.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Questions D-2, D-3, D-4, and D-5 relate to not only section 3(21)(A) of title I of the Act, but also section 4975(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (section 2003 of the Act). The Internal Revenue Service has indicated its concurrence with the answers to these questions.</P></NOTE>
<P>D-2 Q: Are persons who have no power to make any decisions as to plan policy, interpretations, practices or procedures, but who perform the following administrative functions for an employee benefit plan, within a framework of policies, interpretations, rules, practices and procedures made by other persons, fiduciaries with respect to the plan: 
</P>
<P>(1) Application of rules determining eligibility for participation or benefits; 
</P>
<P>(2) Calculation of services and compensation credits for benefits; 
</P>
<P>(3) Preparation of employee communications material; 
</P>
<P>(4) Maintenance of participants' service and employment records; 
</P>
<P>(5) Preparation of reports required by government agencies; 
</P>
<P>(6) Calculation of benefits; 
</P>
<P>(7) Orientation of new participants and advising participants of their rights and options under the plan; 
</P>
<P>(8) Collection of contributions and application of contributions as provided in the plan; 
</P>
<P>(9) Preparation of reports concerning participants' benefits; 
</P>
<P>(10) Processing of claims; and 
</P>
<P>(11) Making recommendations to others for decisions with respect to plan administration? 
</P>
<P>A: No. Only persons who perform one or more of the functions described in section 3(21)(A) of the Act with respect to an employee benefit plan are fiduciaries. Therefore, a person who performs purely ministerial functions such as the types described above for an employee benefit plan within a framework of policies, interpretations, rules, practices and procedures made by other persons is not a fiduciary because such person does not have discretionary authority or discretionary control respecting management of the plan, does not exercise any authority or control respecting management or disposition of the assets of the plan, and does not render investment advice with respect to any money or other property of the plan and has no authority or responsibility to do so. 
</P>
<P>However, although such a person may not be a plan fiduciary, he may be subject to the bonding requirements contained in section 412 of the Act if he handles funds or other property of the plan within the meaning of applicable regulations. 
</P>
<P>The Internal Revenue Service notes that such persons would not be considered plan fiduciaries within the meaning of section 4975(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. 
</P>
<P>D-3 Q: Does a person automatically become a fiduciary with respect to a plan by reason of holding certain positions in the administration of such plan? 
</P>
<P>A: Some offices or positions of an employee benefit plan by their very nature require persons who hold them to perform one or more of the functions described in section 3(21)(A) of the Act. For example, a plan administrator or a trustee of a plan must, be the very nature of his position, have “discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration” of the plan within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(iii) of the Act. Persons who hold such positions will therefore be fiduciaries. 
</P>
<P>Other offices and positions should be examined to determine whether they involve the performance of any of the functions described in section 3(21)(A) of the Act. For example, a plan might designate as a “benefit supervisor” a plan employee whose sole function is to calculate the amount of benefits to which each plan participant is entitled in accordance with a mathematical formula contained in the written instrument pursuant to which the plan is maintained. The benefit supervisor, after calculating the benefits, would then inform the plan administrator of the results of his calculations, and the plan administrator would authorize the payment of benefits to a particular plan participant. The benefit supervisor does not perform any of the functions described in section 3(21)(A) of the Act and is not, therefore, a plan fiduciary. However, the plan might designate as a “benefit supervisor” a plan employee who has the final authority to authorize or disallow benefit payments in cases where a dispute exists as to the interpretation of plan provisions relating to eligibility for benefits. Under these circumstances, the benefit supervisor would be a fiduciary within the meaning of section 3(21)(A) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>The Internal Revenue Service notes that it would reach the same answer to this question under section 4975(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. 
</P>
<P>D-4 Q: In the case of a plan established and maintained by an employer, are members of the board of directors of the employer fiduciaries with respect to the plan? 
</P>
<P>A: Members of the board of directors of an employer which maintains an employee benefit plan will be fiduciaries only to the extent that they have responsibility for the functions described in section 3(21)(A) of the Act. For example, the board of directors may be responsible for the selection and retention of plan fiduciaries. In such a case, members of the board of directors exercise “discretionary authority or discretionary control respecting management of such plan” and are, therefore, fiduciaries with respect to the plan. However, their responsibility, and, consequently, their liability, is limited to the selection and retention of fiduciaries (apart from co-fiduciary liability arising under circumstances described in section 405(a) of the Act). In addition, if the directors are made named fiduciaries of the plan, their liability may be limited pursuant to a procedure provided for in the plan instrument for the allocation of fiduciary responsibilities among named fiduciaries or for the designation of persons other than named fiduciaries to carry out fiduciary responsibilities, as provided in section 405(c)(2). 
</P>
<P>The Internal Revenue Service notes that it would reach the same answer to this question under section 4975(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. 
</P>
<P>D-5 Q: Is an officer or employee of an employer or employee organization which sponsors an employee benefit plan a fiduciary with respect to the plan solely by reason of holding such office or employment if he or she performs none of the functions described in section 3(21)(A) of the Act? 
</P>
<P>A: No, for the reasons stated in response to question D-2. 
</P>
<P>The Internal Revenue Service notes that it would reach the same answer to this question under section 4975(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. 
</P>
<P>FR-11 Q: In discharging fiduciary responsibilities, may a fiduciary with respect to a plan rely on information, data, statistics or analyses provided by other persons who perform purely ministerial functions for such plan, such as those persons described in D-2 above? 
</P>
<P>A: A plan fiduciary may rely on information, data, statistics or analyses furnished by persons performing ministerial functions for the plan, provided that he has exercised prudence in the selection and retention of such persons. The plan fiduciary will be deemed to have acted prudently in such selection and retention if, in the exercise of ordinary care in such situation, he has no reason to doubt the competence, integrity or responsibility of such persons. 
</P>
<P>FR-12 Q: How many fiduciaries must an employee benefit plan have? 
</P>
<P>A: There is no required number of fiduciaries that a plan must have. Each plan must, of course, have at least one named fiduciary who serves as plan administrator and, if plan assets are held in trust, the plan must have at least one trustee. If these requirements are met, there is no limit on the number of fiduciaries a plan may have. A plan may have as few or as many fiduciaries as are necessary for its operation and administration. Under section 402(c)(1) of the Act, if the plan so provides, any person or group of persons may serve in more than one fiduciary capacity, including serving both as trustee and administrator. Conversely, fiduciary responsibilities not involving management and control of plan assets may, under section 405(c)(1) of the Act, be allocated among named fiduciaries and named fiduciaries may designate persons other than named fiduciaries to carry out such fiduciary responsibilities, if the plan instrument expressly provides procedures for such allocation or designation. 
</P>
<P>FR-13 Q: If the named fiduciaries of an employee benefit plan allocate their fiduciary responsibilities among themselves in accordance with a procedure set forth in the plan for the allocation of responsibilities for operation and administration of the plan, to what extent will a named fiduciary be relieved of liability for acts and omissions of other named fiduciaries in carrying out fiduciary responsibilities allocated to them? 
</P>
<P>A: If named fiduciaries of a plan allocate responsibilities in accordance with a procedure for such allocation set forth in the plan, a named fiduciary will not be liable for acts and omissions of other named fiduciaries in carrying out fiduciary responsibilities which have been allocated to them, except as provided in section 405(a) of the Act, relating to the general rules of co-fiduciary responsibility, and section 405(c)(2)(A) of the Act, relating in relevant part to standards for establishment and implementation of allocation procedures. 
</P>
<P>However, if the instrument under which the plan is maintained does not provide for a procedure for the allocation of fiduciary responsibilities among named fiduciaries, any allocation which the named fiduciaries may make among themselves will be ineffective to relieve a named fiduciary from responsibility or liability for the performance of fiduciary responsibilities allocated to other named fiduciaries. 
</P>
<P>FR-14 Q: If the named fiduciaries of an employee benefit plan designate a person who is not a named fiduciary to carry out fiduciary responsibilities, to what extent will the named fiduciaries be relieved of liability for the acts and omissions of such person in the performance of his duties? 
</P>
<P>A: If the instrument under which the plan is maintained provides for a procedure under which a named fiduciary may designate persons who are not named fiduciaries to carry out fiduciary responsibilities, named fiduciaries of the plan will not be liable for acts and omissions of a person who is not a named fiduciary in carrying out the fiduciary responsibilities which such person has been designated to carry out, except as provided in section 405(a) of the Act, relating to the general rules of co-fiduciary liability, and section 405(c)(2)(A) of the Act, relating in relevant part to the designation of persons to carry out fiduciary responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>However, if the instrument under which the plan is maintained does not provide for a procedure for the designation of persons who are not named fiduciaries to carry out fiduciary responsibilities, then any such designation which the named fiduciaries may make will not relieve the named fiduciaries from responsibility or liability for the acts and omissions of the persons so designated. 
</P>
<P>FR-15 Q: May a named fiduciary delegate responsibility for management and control of plan assets to anyone other than a person who is an investment manager as defined in section 3(38) of the Act so as to be relieved of liability for the acts and omissions of the person to whom such responsibility is delegated? 
</P>
<P>A: No. Section 405(c)(1) does not allow named fiduciaries to delegate to others authority or discretion to manage or control plan assets. However, under the terms of sections 403(a)(2) and 402(c)(3) of the Act, such authority and discretion may be delegated to persons who are investment managers as defined in section 3(38) of the Act. Further, under section 402(c)(2) of the Act, if the plan so provides, a named fiduciary may employ other persons to render advice to the named fiduciary to assist the named fiduciary in carrying out his investment responsibilities under the plan. 
</P>
<P>FR-16 Q: Is a fiduciary who is not a named fiduciary with respect to an employee benefit plan personally liable for all phases of the management and administration of the plan? 
</P>
<P>A: A fiduciary with respect to the plan who is not a named fiduciary is a fiduciary only to the extent that he or she performs one or more of the functions described in section 3(21)(A) of the Act. The personal liability of a fiduciary who is not a named fiduciary is generally limited to the fiduciary functions, which he or she performs with respect to the plan. With respect to the extent of liability of a named fiduciary of a plan where duties are properly allocated among named fiduciaries or where named fiduciaries properly designate other persons to carry out certain fiduciary duties, see question FR-13 and FR-14. 
</P>
<P>In addition, any fiduciary may become liable for breaches of fiduciary responsibility committed by another fiduciary of the same plan under circumstances giving rise to co-fiduciary liability, as provided in section 405(a) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>FR-17 Q: What are the ongoing responsibilities of a fiduciary who has appointed trustees or other fiduciaries with respect to these appointments? 
</P>
<P>A: At reasonable intervals the performance of trustees and other fiduciaries should be reviewed by the appointing fiduciary in such manner as may be reasonably expected to ensure that their performance has been in compliance with the terms of the plan and statutory standards, and satisfies the needs of the plan. No single procedure will be appropriate in all cases; the procedure adopted may vary in accordance with the nature of the plan and other facts and circumstances relevant to the choice of the procedure.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 47491, Oct. 9, 1975. Redesignated at 41 FR 1906, Jan. 13, 1976] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.78-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.78-1   Interpretive bulletin relating to payments by certain employee welfare benefit plans.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The Department of Labor today announced its interpretation of certain provisions of part 4 of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), as those sections apply to a payment by multiple employer vacation plans of a sum of money to which a participant of beneficiary of the plan is entitled to a party other than the participant or beneficiary. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Multiple employer vacation plans generally consist of trust funds to which employers are obligated to make contributions pursuant to collective bargaining agreements. Benefits are generally paid at specified intervals (usually annually or semi-annually) and such benefits are neither contingent upon the occurrence of a specified event nor restricted to use for a specified purpose when paid to the participant.</P></FTNT>
<P>Section 402(b)(4) of ERISA requires every employee benefit plan to specify the basis on which payments are made to and from the plan. 
</P>
<P>Section 403(c)(1) of ERISA generally requires the assets of an employee benefit plan to be held for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits to participants in the plan and their beneficiaries 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the plan. Similarly, section 404(a)(1)(A) requires a plan fiduciary to discharge his duties with respect to a plan solely in the interest of the participants and beneficiaries of the plan and for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits to participants and their beneficiaries and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the plan. Section 404(a)(1)(D) further requires the fiduciary to act in accordance with the documents and instruments governing the plan insofar as such documents and instruments are consistent with the provisions of title I of ERISA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Section 403 (c) and (d) provide certain exceptions to this requirement, not here relevant.</P></FTNT>
<P>In addition, section 406(a) of ERISA specifically prohibits a fiduciary with respect to a plan from causing the plan to engage in a transaction if he knows or should know that such transaction constitutes, <I>inter alia,</I> a direct or indirect: furnishing of goods, services or facilities between the plan and a party in interest (section 406(a)(1)(C)); or transfer to, or use by or for the benefit of, a party in interest of any assets of the plan (section 406(a)(1)(D)). Section 406(b)(2) of ERISA prohibits a plan fiduciary from acting in any transaction involving the plan on behalf of a party, or representing a party, whose interests are adverse to the interests of the plan or of its participants or beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>In this regard, however, Prohibited Transaction Exemptions 76-1, Part C, (41 FR 12740, March 26, 1976) and 77-10 (42 FR 33918, July 1, 1977) exempt from the prohibitions of section 406(a) and 406(b)(2), respectively, the provision of administrative services by a multiple employer plan if specified conditions are met. These conditions are: (a) the plan receives reasonable compensation for the provision of the services (for purposes of the exemption, “reasonable compensation” need not include a profit which would ordinarily have been received in an arm's length transaction, but must be sufficient to reimburse the plan for its costs); (b) the arrangement allows any multiple employer plan which is a party to the transaction to terminate the relationship on a reasonably short notice under the circumstances; and (c) the plan complies with certain recordkeeping requirements. It should be noted that plans not subject to Prohibited Transaction Exemptions 76-1 and 77-10—i.e., plans that are not multiple employer plans—cannot rely upon these exemptions. 
</P>
<P>A payment by a vacation plan of all or any portion of benefits to which a plan participant or beneficiary is entitled to a party other than the participant or beneficiary will comply with the above-mentioned sections of ERISA if the arrangement pursuant to which payments are made does not constitute a prohibited transaction under ERISA and: 
</P>
<P>(1) The plan documents expressly state that benefits payable under the plan to a participant or beneficiary may, at the direction of the participant or beneficiary, be paid to a third party rather than to the participant or beneficiary; 
</P>
<P>(2) The participant or beneficiary directs in writing that the plan trustee(s) shall pay a named third party all or a specified portion of the sum of money which would otherwise be paid under the plan to him or her; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A payment is made to a third party only when or after the money would otherwise be payable to the plan participant or beneficiary. 
</P>
<FP>In the case of a multiple employer plan (as defined in Prohibited Transaction Exemption 76-1, Part C, Section III), if the arrangement to make payments to a third party is a prohibited transaction under ERISA, the arrangement will comply with the above-mentioned sections of ERISA if the conditions of Prohibited Transaction Exemptions 76-1, Part C, and 77-10 and the above three paragraphs are met. In this regard, it is the view of the Department that the mere payment of money to which a participant or beneficiary is entitled, at the direction of the participant or beneficiary, to a third party who is a party in interest would not constitute a transfer of plan assets prohibited under section 406(a)(1)(D). It is also the view of the Department that if a trustee or other fudiciary of a plan, in addition to his duties with respect to the plan, serves in a decisionmaking capacity with another party, the mere fact that the fiduciary effects payments to such party of money to which a participant is entitled at the direction of the participant and in accordance with specific provisions of governing plan documents and instruments, does not amount to a prohibited transaction under section 406(b)(2). 
</FP>
<P>It should be noted that the interpretation set forth herein deals solely with the application of the provisions of title I of ERISA to the arrangements described herein. It does not deal with the application of any other statute to such arrangements. Specifically, no opinion is expressed herein as to the application of section 302 of the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947 or the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (particularly the provisions of section 501(c)(9) of the Code).</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 58565, Dec. 15, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.94-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.94-3   Interpretive bulletin relating to in-kind contributions to employee benefit plans.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This bulletin sets forth the views of the Department of Labor (the Department) concerning in-kind contributions (<I>i.e.,</I> contributions of property other than cash) in satisfaction of an obligation to contribute to an employee benefit plan to which part 4 of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) or a plan to which section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code (the Code) applies. (For purposes of this document the term “plan” shall refer to either or both types of such entities as appropriate). Section 406(a)(1)(A) of ERISA provides that a fiduciary with respect to a plan shall not cause the plan to engage in a transaction if the fiduciary knows or should know that the transaction constitutes a direct or indirect sale or exchange of any property between a plan and a “party in interest” as defined in section 3(14) of ERISA. The Code imposes a two-tier excise tax under section 4975(c)(1)(A) an any direct or indirect sale or exchange of any property between a plan and a “disqualified person” as defined in section 4975(e)(2) of the Code. An employer or employee organization that maintains a plan is included within the definitions of “party in interest” and “disqualified person.” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Under Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978 (43 FR 47713, October 17, 1978), the authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to issue rulings under the prohibited transactions provisions of section 4975 of the Code has been transferred, with certain exceptions not here relevant, to the Secretary of Labor. Except with respect to the types of plans covered, the prohibited transaction provisions of section 406 of ERISA generally parallel the prohibited transaction of provisions of section 4975 of the Code.</P></FTNT>
<P>In <I>Commissioner of Internal Revenue</I> v. <I>Keystone Consolidated Industries, Inc.,</I> ____ U.S. ____, 113 S. Ct. 2006 (1993), the Supreme Court held that an employer's contribution of unencumbered real property to a tax-qualified defined benefit pension plan was a sale or exchange prohibited under section 4975 of the Code where the stated fair market value of the property was credited against the employer's obligation to the defined benefit pension plan. The parties stipulated that the property was contributed to the plan free of encumbrances and the stated fair market value of the property was not challenged. 113 S. Ct. at 2009. In reaching its holding the Court construed section 4975(f)(3) of the Code (and therefore section 406(c) of ERISA), regarding transfers of encumbered property, not as a limitation but rather as extending the reach of section 4975(c)(1)(A) of the Code (and thus section 406(a)(1)(A) of ERISA) to include contributions of encumbered property that do not satisfy funding obligations. <I>Id.</I> at 2013. Accordingly, the Court concluded that the contribution of unencumbered property was prohibited under section 4975(c)(1)(A) of the Code (and thus section 406(a)(1)(A) of ERISA) as “at least both an indirect type of sale and a form of exchange, since the property is exchanged for diminution of the employer's funding obligation.” 113 S. Ct. at 2012.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Defined benefit plans.</I> Consistent with the reasoning of the Supreme Court in <I>Keystone,</I> because an employer's or plan sponsor's in-kind contribution to a defined benefit pension plan is credited to the plan's funding standard account it would constitute a transfer to reduce an obligation of the sponsor or employer to the plan. Therefore, in the absence of an applicable exemption, such a contribution would be prohibited under section 406(a)(1)(A) of ERISA and section 4975(c)(1)(A) of the Code. Such an in-kind contribution would constitute a prohibited transaction even if the value of the contribution is in excess of the sponsor's or employer's funding obligation for the plan year in which the contribution is made and thus is not used to reduce the plan's accumulated funding deficiency for that plan year because the contribution would result in a credit against funding obligations which might arise in the future. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Defined contribution and welfare plans.</I> In the context of defined contribution pension plans and welfare plans, it is the view of the Department that an in-kind contribution to a plan that reduces an obligation of a plan sponsor or employer to make a contribution measured in terms of cash amounts would constitute a prohibited transaction under section 406(a)(1)(A) of ERISA (and section 4975(c)(1)(A) of the Code) unless a statutory or administrative exemption under section 408 of ERISA (or sections 4975(c)(2) or (d) of the Code) applies. For example, if a profit sharing plan required the employer to make annual contributions “in cash or in kind” equal to a given percentage of the employer's net profits for the year, an in-kind contribution used to reduce this obligation would constitute a prohibited transaction in the absence of an exemption because the amount of the contribution obligation is measured in terms of cash amounts (a percentage of profits) even though the terms of the plan purport to permit in-kind contributions.
</P>
<P>Conversely, a transfer of unencumbered property to a welfare benefit plan that does not relieve the sponsor or employer of any present or future obligation to make a contribution that is measured in terms of cash amounts would not constitute a prohibited transaction under section 406(a)(1)(A) of ERISA or section 4975(c)(1)(A) of the Code. The same principles apply to defined contribution plans that are not subject to the minimum funding requirements of section 302 of ERISA or section 412 of the Code. For example, where a profit sharing or stock bonus plan, by its terms, is funded solely at the discretion of the sponsoring employer, and the employer is not otherwise obligated to make a contribution measured in terms of cash amounts, a contribution of unencumbered real property would not be a prohibited sale or exchange between the plan and the employer. If, however, the same employer had made an enforceable promise to make a contribution measured in terms of cash amounts to the plan, a subsequent contribution of unencumbered real property made to offset such an obligation would be a prohibited sale or exchange.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fiduciary standards.</I> Independent of the application of the prohibited transaction provisions, fiduciaries of plans covered by part 4 of title I of ERISA must determine that acceptance of an in-kind contribution is consistent with ERISA's general standards of fiduciary conduct. It is the view of the Department that acceptance of an in-kind contribution is a fiduciary act subject to section 404 of ERISA. In this regard, sections 406(a)(1)(A) and (B) of ERISA require that fiduciaries discharge their duties to a plan solely in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries, for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits and defraying reasonable administrative expenses, and with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims. In addition, section 406(a)(1)(C) requires generally that fiduciaries diversify plan assets so as to minimize the risk of large losses. Accordingly, the fiduciaries of a plan must act “prudently,” “solely in the interest” of the plan's participants and beneficiaries and with a view to the need to diversify plan assets when deciding whether to accept in-kind contributions. If accepting an in-kind contribution is not “prudent,” not “solely in the interest” of the participants and beneficiaries of the plan, or would result in an improper lack of diversification of plan assets, the responsible fiduciaries of the plan would be liable for any losses resulting from such a breach of fiduciary responsibility, even if a contribution in kind does not constitute a prohibited transaction under section 406 of ERISA. In this regard, a fiduciary should consider any liabilities appurtenant to the in-kind contribution to which the plan would be exposed as a result of acceptance of the contribution.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 66736, Dec. 28, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.95-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.95-1   Interpretive bulletin relating to the fiduciary standards under ERISA when selecting an annuity provider for a defined benefit pension plan.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This Interpretive Bulletin provides guidance concerning certain fiduciary standards under part 4 of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1104-1114, applicable to the selection of an annuity provider for the purpose of benefit distributions from a defined benefit pension plan (hereafter “pension plan”) when the pension plan intends to transfer liability for benefits to an annuity provider. For guidance applicable to the selection of an annuity provider for benefit distributions from an individual account plan see 29 CFR 2550.404a-4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> Generally, when a pension plan purchases an annuity from an insurer as a distribution of benefits, it is intended that the plan's liability for such benefits is transferred to the annuity provider. The Department's regulation defining the term “participant covered under the plan” for certain purposes under title I of ERISA recognizes that such a transfer occurs when the annuity is issued by an insurance company licensed to do business in a State. 29 CFR 2510.3-3(d)(2)(ii). Although the regulation does not define the term “participant” or “beneficiary” for purposes of standing to bring an action under ERISA § 502(a), 29 U.S.C. 1132(a), it makes clear that the purpose of a benefit distribution annuity is to transfer the plan's liability with respect to the individual's benefits to the annuity provider.
</P>
<P>Pursuant to ERISA section 404(a)(1), 29 U.S.C. 1104(a)(1), fiduciaries must discharge their duties with respect to the plan solely in the interest of the participants and beneficiaries. Section 404(a)(1)(A), 29 U.S.C. 1104(a)(1)(A), states that the fiduciary must act for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits to the participants and beneficiaries and defraying reasonable plan administration expenses. In addition, section 404(a)(1)(B), 29 U.S.C. 1104(a)(1)(B), requires a fiduciary to act with the care, skill, prudence and diligence under the prevailing circumstances that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters would use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Selection of annuity providers.</I> The selection of an annuity provider for purposes of a pension benefit distribution, whether upon separation or retirement of a participant or upon the termination of a plan, is a fiduciary decision governed by the provisions of part 4 of title I of ERISA. In discharging their obligations under section 404(a)(1), 29 U.S.C. 1104(a)(1), to act solely in the interest of participants and beneficiaries and for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits to the participants and beneficiaries as well as defraying reasonable expenses of administering the plan, fiduciaries choosing an annuity provider for the purpose of making a benefit distribution must take steps calculated to obtain the safest annuity available, unless under the circumstances it would be in the interests of participants and beneficiaries to do otherwise. In addition, the fiduciary obligation of prudence, described at section 404(a)(1)(B), 29 U.S.C. 1104(a)(1)(B), requires, at a minimum, that plan fiduciaries conduct an objective, thorough and analytical search for the purpose of identifying and selecting providers from which to purchase annuities. In conducting such a search, a fiduciary must evaluate a number of factors relating to a potential annuity provider's claims paying ability and creditworthiness. Reliance solely on ratings provided by insurance rating services would not be sufficient to meet this requirement. In this regard, the types of factors a fiduciary should consider would include, among other things:
</P>
<P>(1) The quality and diversification of the annuity provider's investment portfolio;
</P>
<P>(2) The size of the insurer relative to the proposed contract;
</P>
<P>(3) The level of the insurer's capital and surplus;
</P>
<P>(4) The lines of business of the annuity provider and other indications of an insurer's exposure to liability;
</P>
<P>(5) The structure of the annuity contract and guarantees supporting the annuities, such as the use of separate accounts;
</P>
<P>(6) The availability of additional protection through state guaranty associations and the extent of their guarantees. Unless they possess the necessary expertise to evaluate such factors, fiduciaries would need to obtain the advice of a qualified, independent expert. A fiduciary may conclude, after conducting an appropriate search, that more than one annuity provider is able to offer the safest annuity available.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Costs and other considerations.</I> The Department recognizes that there are situations where it may be in the interest of the participants and beneficiaries to purchase other than the safest available annuity. Such situations may occur where the safest available annuity is only marginally safer, but disproportionately more expensive than competing annuities, and the participants and beneficiaries are likely to bear a significant portion of that increased cost. For example, where the participants in a terminating pension plan are likely to receive, in the form of increased benefits, a substantial share of the cost savings that would result from choosing a competing annuity, it may be in the interest of the participants to choose the competing annuity. It may also be in the interest of the participants and beneficiaries to choose a competing annuity of the annuity provider offering the safest available annuity is unable to demonstrate the ability to administer the payment of benefits to the participants and beneficiaries. The Department notes, however, that increased cost or other considerations could never justify putting the benefits of annuitized participants and beneficiaries at risk by purchasing an unsafe annuity.
</P>
<P>In contrast to the above, a fiduciary's decision to purchase more risky, lower-priced annuities in order to ensure or maximize a reversion of excess assets that will be paid solely to the employer-sponsor in connection with the termination of an over-funded pension plan would violate the fiduciary's duties under ERISA to act solely in the interest of the plan participants and beneficiaries. In such circumstances, the interests of those participants and beneficiaries who will receive annuities lies in receiving the safest annuity available and other participants and beneficiaries have no countervailing interests. The fiduciary in such circumstances must make diligent efforts to assure that the safest available annuity is purchased.
</P>
<P>Similarly, a fiduciary may not purchase a riskier annuity solely because there are insufficient assets in a defined benefit plan to purchase a safer annuity. The fiduciary may have to condition the purchase of annuities on additional employer contributions sufficient to purchase the safest available annuity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conflicts of interest.</I> Special care should be taken in reversion situations where fiduciaries selecting the annuity provider have an interest in the sponsoring employer which might affect their judgment and therefore create the potential for a violation of ERISA § 406(b)(1). As a practical matter, many fiduciaries have this conflict of interest and therefore will need to obtain and follow independent expert advice calculated to identify those insurers with the highest claims-paying ability willing to write the business.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 12329, Mar. 6, 1995, as amended at 72 FR 52006, Sept. 12, 2007; 73 FR 58447, Oct. 7, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.96-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.96-1   Interpretive bulletin relating to participant investment education.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This interpretive bulletin sets forth the Department of Labor's interpretation of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA), and 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c) as applied to the provision of investment-related educational information to participants and beneficiaries in participant-directed individual account pension plans (<I>i.e.,</I> pension plans that permit participants and beneficiaries to direct the investment of assets in their individual accounts, including plans that meet the requirements of the Department's regulations at 29 CFR 2550.404c-1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> Fiduciaries of an employee benefit plan are charged with carrying out their duties prudently and solely in the interest of participants and beneficiaries of the plan, and are subject to personal liability to, among other things, make good any losses to the plan resulting from a breach of their fiduciary duties. ERISA sections 403, 404 and 409, 29 U.S.C. 1103, 1104, and 1109. Section 404(c) of ERISA provides a limited exception to these rules for a pension plan that permits a participant or beneficiary to exercise control over the assets in his or her individual account. The Department of Labor's regulation, at 29 CFR 2550.404c-1, describes the kinds of plans to which section 404(c) applies, the circumstances under which a participant or beneficiary will be considered to have exercised independent control over the assets in his or her account, and the consequences of a participant's or beneficiary's exercise of such control. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> With both an increase in the number of participant-directed individual account plans and the number of investment options available to participants and beneficiaries under such plans, there has been an increasing recognition of the importance of providing participants and beneficiaries whose investment decisions will directly affect their income at retirement, with information designed to assist them in making investment and retirement-related decisions appropriate to their particular situations. Concerns have been raised, however, that the provision of such information may in some situations be viewed as rendering “investment advice for a fee or other compensation,” within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii), thereby giving rise to fiduciary status and potential liability under ERISA for investment decisions of plan participants and beneficiaries. In response to these concerns, the Department of Labor is clarifying herein the applicability of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c) to the provision of investment-related educational information to participants and beneficiaries in participant directed individual account plans. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> In providing this clarification, the Department does not address the “fee or other compensation, direct or indirect,” which is a necessary element of fiduciary status under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii). 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The section 404(c) regulation conditions relief from fiduciary liability on, among other things, the participant or beneficiary being provided or having the opportunity to obtain sufficient investment information regarding the investment alternatives available under the plan in order to make informed investment decisions. Compliance with this condition, however, does not require that participants and beneficiaries be offered or provided either investment advice or investment education, <I>e.g.</I> regarding general investment principles and strategies, to assist them in making investment decisions. 29 CFR 2550.404c-1(c)(4).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Issues relating to the circumstances under which information provided to participants and beneficiaries may affect a participant's or beneficiary's ability to exercise independent control over the assets in his or her account for purposes of relief from fiduciary liability under ERISA section 404(c) are beyond the scope of this interpretive bulletin. Accordingly, no inferences should be drawn regarding such issues. See 29 CFR 2550.404c-1(c)(2). It is the view of the Department, however, that the provision of investment-related information and material to participants and beneficiaries in accordance with paragraph (d) of this interpretive bulletin will not, in and of itself, affect the availability of relief under section 404(c).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The Department has expressed the view that, for purposes of section 3(21)(A)(ii), such fees or other compensation need not come from the plan and should be deemed to include all fees or other compensation incident to the transaction in which the investment advise has been or will be rendered. See A.O. 83-60A (Nov. 21, 1983); <I>Reich</I> v. <I>McManus</I>, 883 F. Supp. 1144 (N.D. Ill. 1995).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Investment advice.</I> Under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii), a person is considered a fiduciary with respect to an employee benefit plan to the extent that person “renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan, or has any authority to do so . . . .” The Department issued a regulation, at 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c), describing the circumstances under which a person will be considered to be rendering “investment advice” within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii). Because section 3(21)(A)(ii) applies to advice with respect to “any moneys or other property” of a plan and 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c) is intended to clarify the application of that section, it is the view of the Department of Labor that the criteria set forth in the regulation apply to determine whether a person renders “investment advice” to a pension plan participant or beneficiary who is permitted to direct the investment of assets in his or her individual account. Applying 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c) in the context of providing investment-related information to participants and beneficiaries of participant-directed individual account pension plans, a person will be considered to be rendering “investment advice,” within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii), to a participant or beneficiary only if:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The person renders advice to the participant or beneficiary as to the value of securities or other property, or makes recommendations as to the advisability of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities or other property (2510.3-21(c)(1)(i); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The person, either directly or indirectly,
</P>
<P>(A) Has discretionary authority or control with respect to purchasing or selling securities or other property for the participant or beneficiary (2510.3-21(c)(1)(ii)(A)), or 
</P>
<P>(B) Renders the advice on a regular basis to the participant or beneficiary, pursuant to a mutual agreement, arrangement or understanding (written or otherwise) with the participant or beneficiary that the advice will serve as a primary basis for the participant's or beneficiary's investment decisions with respect to plan assets and that such person will render individualized advice based on the particular needs of the participant or beneficiary (2510.3-21(c)(1)(ii)(B)). 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Whether the provision of particular investment-related information or materials to a participant or beneficiary constitutes the rendering of “investment advice,” within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)(1), generally can be determined only by reference to the facts and circumstances of the particular case with respect to the individual plan participant or beneficiary. To facilitate such determinations, however, the Department of Labor has identified, in paragraph (d), below, examples of investment-related information and materials which if provided to plan participants and beneficiaries would not, in the view of the Department, result in the rendering of “investment advice” under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> This IB does not address the application of 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c) to communications with fiduciaries of participant-directed individual account pension plan plans.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Investment education.</I> For purposes of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c), the Department of Labor has determined that the furnishing of the following categories of information and materials to a participant or beneficiary in a participant-directed individual account pension plan will not constitute the rendering of “investment advice,” irrespective of who provides the information (<I>e.g.,</I> plan sponsor, fiduciary or service provider), the frequency with which the information is shared, the form in which the information and materials are provided (<I>e.g.,</I> on an individual or group basis, in writing or orally, or via video or computer software), or whether an identified category of information and materials is furnished alone or in combination with other identified categories of information and materials.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Plan information.</I> (i) Information and materials that inform a participant or beneficiary about the benefits of plan participation, the benefits of increasing plan contributions, the impact of preretirement withdrawals on retirement income, the terms of the plan, or the operation of the plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Information such as that described in 29 CFR 2550.404c-1(b)(2)(i) on investment alternatives under the plan (<I>e.g.,</I> descriptions of investment objectives and philosophies, risk and return characteristics, historical return information, or related prospectuses). 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> The information and materials described above relate to the plan and plan participation, without reference to the appropriateness of any individual investment option for a particular participant or beneficiary under the plan. The information, therefore, does not contain either “advice” or “recommendations” within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)(1)(i). Accordingly, the furnishing of such information would not constitute the rendering of “investment advice” for purposes of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Descriptions of investment alternatives under the plan may include information relating to the generic asset class (<I>e,g.,</I> equities, bonds, or cash) of the investment alternatives. 29 CFR 2550.404c-1(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1)(ii</I>).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>General financial and investment information.</I> Information and materials that inform a participant or beneficiary about: (i) General financial and investment concepts, such as risk and return, diversification, dollar cost averaging, compounded return, and tax deferred investment; (ii) historic differences in rates of return between different asset classes (<I>e.g.,</I> equities, bonds, or cash) based on standard market indices; (iii) effects of inflation; (iv) estimating future retirement income needs; (v) determining investment time horizons; and (vi) assessing risk tolerance. The information and materials described above are general financial and investment information that have no direct relationship to investment alternatives available to participants and beneficiaries under a plan or to individual participants or beneficiaries. The furnishing of such information, therefore, would not constitute rendering “advice” or making “recommendations” to a participant or beneficiary within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)(1)(i). Accordingly, the furnishing of such information would not constitute the rendering of “investment advice” for purposes of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Asset allocation models.</I> Information and materials (<I>e.g.,</I> pie charts, graphs, or case studies) that provide a participant or beneficiary with models, available to all plan participants and beneficiaries, of asset allocation portfolios of hypothetical individuals with different time horizons and risk profiles, where: (i) Such models are based on generally accepted investments theories that take into account the historic returns of different asset classes (<I>e.g.,</I> equities, bonds, or cash) over define periods of time; (ii) all material facts and assumptions on which such models are based (<I>e.g.,</I> retirement ages, life expectancies, income levels, financial resources, replacement income ratios, inflation rates, and rates of return) accompany the models; (iii) to the extent that an asset allocation model identifies any specific investment alternative available under the plan, the model is accompanied by a statement indicating that other investment alternatives having similar risk and return characteristics may be available under the plan and identifying where information on those investment alternatives may be obtained; and (iv) the asset allocation models are accompanied by a statement indicating that, in applying particular asset allocation models to their individual situations, participants or beneficiaries should consider their other assets, income, and investments (<I>e.g.,</I> equity in a home, IRA investments, savings accounts, and interests in other qualified and non-qualified plans) in addition to their interests in the plan. Because the information and materials described above would enable a participant or beneficiary to assess the relevance of an asset allocation model to his or her individual situation, the furnishing of such information would not constitute a “recommendation” within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)(1)(i) and, accordingly, would not constitute “investment advice” for purposes of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA. This result would not, in the view of the Department, be affected by the fact that a plan offers only one investment alternative in a particular asset class identified in an asset allocation model.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Interactive investment materials.</I> Questionnaires, worksheets, software, and similar materials which provide a participant or beneficiary the means to estimate future retirement income needs and assess the impact of different asset allocations on retirement income, where: (i) Such materials are based on generally accepted investment theories that take into account the historic returns of different asset classes (<I>e.g.,</I> equities, bonds, or cash) over defined periods of time; (ii) there is an objective correlation between the asset allocations generated by the materials and the information and data supplied by the participant or beneficiary; (iii) all material facts and assumptions (<I>e.g.,</I> retirement ages, life expectancies, income levels, financial resources, replacement income ratios, inflation rates, and rates of return) which may affect a participant's or beneficiary's assessment of the different asset allocations accompany the materials or are specified by the participant or beneficiary; (iv) to the extent that an asset allocation generated by the materials identifies any specific investment alternative available under the plan, the asset allocation is accompanied by a statement indicating that other investment alternatives having similar risk and return characteristics may be available under the plan and identifying where information on those investment alternatives may be obtained; and (v) the materials either take into account or are accompanied by a statement indicating that, in applying particular asset allocations to their individual situations, participants or beneficiaries should consider their other assets, income, and investments (<I>e.g.,</I> equity in a home, IRA investments, savings accounts, and interests in other qualified and non-qualified plans) in addition to their interests in the plan. The information provided through the use of the above-described materials enables participants and beneficiaries independently to design and assess multiple asset allocation models, but otherwise these materials do not differ from asset allocation models based on hypothetical assumptions. Such information would not constitute a “recommendation” within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)(1)(i) and, accordingly, would not constitute “investment advice” for purposes of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA. The Department notes that the information and materials described in subparagraphs (1)-(4) above merely represent examples of the type of information and materials which may be furnished to participants and beneficiaries without such information and materials constituting “investment advice.” In this regard, the Department recognizes that there may be many other examples of information, materials, and educational services which, if furnished to participants and beneficiaries, would not constitute “investment advice.” Accordingly, no inferences should be drawn from subparagraphs (1)-(4), above, with respect to whether the furnishing of any information, materials or educational services not described therein may constitute “investment advice.” Determinations as to whether the provision of any information, materials or educational services not described herein constitutes the rendering of “investment advice” must be made by reference to the criteria set forth in 29 CFR 2510. 3-21(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Selection and monitoring of educators and advisors.</I> As with any designation of a service provider to a plan, the designation of a person(s) to provide investment educational services or investment advice to plan participants and beneficiaries is an exercise of discretionary authority or control with respect to management of the plan; therefore, persons making the designation must act prudently and solely in the interest of the plan participants and beneficiaries, both in making the designation(s) and in continuing such designation(s). See ERISA sections 3(21)(A)(i) and 404(a), 29 U.S.C. 1002 (21)(A)(i) and 1104(a). In addition, the designation of an investment advisor to serve as a fiduciary may give rise to co-fiduciary liability if the person making and continuing such designation in doing so fails to act prudently and solely in the interest of plan participants and beneficiaries; or knowingly participates in, conceals or fails to make reasonable efforts to correct a known breach by the investment advisor. See ERISA section 405(a), 29 U.S.C. 1105(a). The Department notes, however, that, in the context of an ERISA section 404(c) plan, neither the designation of a person to provide education nor the designation of a fiduciary to provide investment advice to participants and beneficiaries would, in itself, give rise to fiduciary liability for loss, or with respect to any breach of part 4 of title I of ERISA, that is the direct and necessary result of a participant's or beneficiary's exercise of independent control. 29 CFR 2550.404c-1(d). The Department also notes that a plan sponsor or fiduciary would have no fiduciary responsibility or liability with respect to the actions of a third party selected by a participant or beneficiary to provide education or investment advice where the plan sponsor or fiduciary neither selects nor endorses the educator or advisor, nor otherwise makes arrangements with the educator or advisor to provide such services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 40590, July 7, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.99-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.99-1   Interpretive Bulletin Relating to Payroll Deduction IRAs.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This interpretive bulletin sets forth the Department of Labor's (the Department's) interpretation of section 3(2)(A) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended, (ERISA) and 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d), as applied to payroll deduction programs established by employers 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> for the purpose of enabling employees to make voluntary contributions to individual retirement accounts or individual retirement annuities (IRAs) described in section 408(a) or (b) or section 408A of the Internal Revenue Code (the Code).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The views expressed in this Interpretive Bulletin with respect to payroll deduction programs of employers are also generally applicable to dues checkoff programs of employee organizations.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> It has been the Department's long-held view that an employer who simply provides employees with the opportunity for making contributions to an IRA through payroll deductions does not thereby establish a “pension plan” within the meaning of section 3 (2) (A) of ERISA. In this regard, 29 CFR 2510.3-2 (d) sets forth a safe harbor under which IRAs will not be considered to be pension plans when the conditions of the regulation are satisfied. Thus, an employer may, with few constraints, provide to its employees an opportunity for saving for retirement, under terms and conditions similar to those of certain other optional payroll deduction programs, such as for automatic savings deposits or purchases of United States savings bonds, without thereby creating a pension plan under Title I of ERISA. The guidance provided herein is intended to clarify the application of the IRA safe harbor set forth at 29 CFR 2510.3-2 (d) and, thereby, facilitate the establishment of payroll deduction IRAs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee communications.</I> (1) It is the Department's view that, so long as an employer maintains neutrality with respect to an IRA sponsor in its communications with its employees, the employer will not be considered to “endorse” an IRA payroll deduction program for purposes of 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d). 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> An employer may encourage its employees to save for retirement by providing general information on the IRA payroll deduction program and other educational materials that explain the advisability of retirement savings, including the advantages of contributing to an IRA, without thereby converting the program under which the employees' wages are withheld for contribution into the IRAs into an ERISA covered plan. However, the employer must make clear that its involvement in the program is limited to collecting the deducted amounts and remitting them promptly to the IRA sponsor and that it does not provide any additional benefit or promise any particular investment return on the employee's savings.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The Department has specifically stated, in its Advisory Opinions, that an employer may demonstrate its neutrality with respect to an IRA sponsor in a variety of ways, including (but not limited to) by ensuring that any materials distributed to employees in connection with an IRA payroll deduction program clearly and prominently state, in language reasonably calculated to be understood by the average employee, that the IRA payroll deduction program is completely voluntary; that the employer does not endorse or recommend either the sponsor or the funding media; that other IRA funding media are available to employees outside the payroll deduction program; that an IRA may not be appropriate for all individuals; and that the tax consequences of contributing to an IRA through the payroll deduction program are generally the same as the consequences of contributing to an IRA outside the program. The employer would not be considered neutral, in the Department's view, to the extent that the materials distributed to employees identified the funding medium as having as one of its purposes investing in securities of the employer or its affiliates or the funding medium in fact has any significant investments in such securities. If the IRA program were a result of an agreement between the employer and an employee organization, the Department would view informational materials that identified the funding medium as having as one of its purposes investing in an investment vehicle that is designed to benefit an employee organization by providing more jobs for its members, loans to its members, or similar direct benefits (or the funding medium's actual investments in any such investment vehicles) as indicating the employee organization's involvement in the program in excess of the limitations of 29 CFR 2510.3-2 (d).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The employer may also do the following without converting a payroll deduction IRA program into an ERISA plan: An employer may answer employees' specific inquiries about the mechanics of the IRA payroll deduction program and may refer other inquiries to the appropriate IRA sponsor. An employer may provide to employees informational materials written by the IRA sponsor describing the sponsor's IRA programs or addressing topics of general interest regarding investments and retirement savings, provided that the material does not itself suggest that the employer is other than neutral with respect to the IRA sponsor and its products; the employer may request that the IRA sponsor prepare such informational materials and it may review such materials for appropriateness and completeness. The fact that the employer's name or logo is displayed in the informational materials in connection with describing the payroll deduction program would not in and of itself, in the Department's view, suggest that the employer has “endorsed” the IRA sponsor or its products, provided that the specific context and surrounding facts and circumstances make clear to the employees that the employer's involvement is limited to facilitating employee contributions through payroll deductions. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For example, if the employer whose logo appeared on the promotional materials provided a statement along the lines of in the first sentence of footnote 5, the employer would not be considered to have endorsed the IRA product.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Employer Limitations on the number of IRA sponsors offered under the program.</I> The Department recognizes that the cost of permitting employees to make IRA contributions through payroll deductions may be significantly affected by the number of IRA sponsors to which the employer must remit contributions. It is the view of the Department that an employer may limit the number of IRA sponsors to which employees may make payroll deduction contributions without exceeding the limitations of 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d), provided that any limitations on, or costs or assessments associated with an employee's ability to transfer or roll over IRA contributions to another IRA sponsor is fully disclosed in advance of the employee's decision to participate in the program. The employer may select one IRA sponsor as the designated recipient for payroll deduction contributions, or it may establish criteria by which to select IRA sponsors, e.g., standards relating to the sponsor's provision of investment education, forms, availability to answer employees' questions, etc., and may periodically review its selectees to determine whether to continue to designate them. However, an employer may be considered to be involved in the program beyond the limitations set forth in 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d) if the employer negotiates with an IRA sponsor and thereby obtains special terms and conditions for its employees that are not generally available to similar purchasers of the IRA. The employer's involvement in the IRA program would also be in excess of the limitations of the regulation if the employer exercises any influence over the investments made or permitted by the IRA sponsor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administrative fees.</I> The employer may pay any fee the IRA sponsor imposes on employers for services the sponsor provides in connection with the establishment and maintenance of the payroll deduction process itself, without exceeding the limitations of 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d). Further, the employer may assume the internal costs (such as for overhead, bookkeeping, etc) of implementing and maintaining the payroll deduction program without reimbursement from either employees or the IRA sponsor without exceeding the limits of the regulation. However, if an employer pays, in connection with operating an IRA payroll deduction program, any administrative, investment management, or other fee that the IRA sponsor would require employees to pay for establishing or maintaining the IRA, the employer would, in the view of the Department, fall outside the safe harbor and, as a result, may be considered to have established a “pension plan” for its employees.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reasonable Compensation for Services.</I> 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d) provides that an employer may not receive any consideration in connection with operating an IRA payroll deduction program, but may be paid “reasonable compensation for services actually rendered in connection with payroll deductions or dues checkoffs.” Employers have asked whether “reasonable compensation” under section 2510.3-2(d) includes payments from an IRA sponsor to an employer for the employer's cost of operating the IRA payroll deduction program. It is the Department's view that the IRA sponsor may make such payments, to the extent that they constitute compensation for the actual costs of the program to the employer. However, “reasonable compensation” does not include any profit to the employer. <I>See</I> 29 CFR 2510.3-1(j), relating to group or group-type insurance programs. For example, if an IRA sponsor offers to pay an employer an amount equal to a percentage of the assets contributed by employees to IRAs through payroll deduction, such an arrangement might exceed “reasonable compensation” for the services actually rendered by the employer in connection with the IRA payroll deduction program. An employer will also be considered to have received consideration that is not “reasonable compensation” if the IRA sponsor agrees to make or to permit particular investments of IRA contributions in consideration for the employer's agreement to make a payroll deduction program available to its employees, or if the IRA sponsor agrees to extend credit to or for the benefit of the employer in return for the employer's making payroll deduction available to the employees.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional rules when employer is IRA sponsor or affiliate of IRA sponsor.</I> Under certain circumstances, an employer that offers IRAs in the normal course of its business to the general public or that is an affiliate 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> of an IRA sponsor may provide its employees with the opportunity to make contributions to IRAs sponsored by the employer or the affiliate through a payroll deduction program, without exceeding the limitations of § 2510.3-2(d). If the IRA products offered to the employees for investment of the payroll deduction contributions are identical to IRA products the sponsor offers the general public in the ordinary course of its business, and any management fees, sales commissions, and the like charged by the IRA sponsor to employees participating in the payroll deduction program are the same as those charged by the sponsor to employees of non-affiliated employers that establish an IRA payroll deduction program, the Department has generally taken the position that this alone will not cause the employer to be sufficiently involved in the IRA program as an employer or to have received consideration of the type prohibited under § 2510.2(d)(iv) to warrant the program being considered outside the safe harbor of the regulation. 
<SU>5</SU> Under such circumstances, the employer, in offering payroll deduction contribution opportunities to its employees, would appear to be acting generally as an IRA sponsor, rather than as the employer of the individuals who make the contributions. 
<SU>6</SU></P></EXTRACT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> For purposes of this interpretive bulletin, the definition of “affiliate” in ERISA section 407(d)(7) applies.
</P>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> While the funding medium offered by an employer that is an IRA sponsor or an affiliate of an IRA sponsor might be considered an employer security when offered to its own employees, the fact that informational materials provided to employees identify the funding medium as having as one of its purposes investing in securities of the employer would not, in the Department's view, involve the employer beyond the limits of 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d). Neither would the fact that the funding medium may actually be so invested. However, the Department would consider that an employer may have exceeded the limitation of 2510.3-2(d) if the informational materials the employer provides to employees suggest that the employer, in providing the IRA payroll deduction program for purposes of investing in employer securities, is acting as an employer in relation to persons who participate in the program, rather than as an IRA sponsor acting in the course of its ordinary business of making IRA products available to the public.
</P>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> However, if an employer that is an IRA sponsor waives enrollment and management fees for its employees' IRAs, and it normally charges those fees to members of the public who purchase IRAs, the employer would be considered to be so involved in the program as to be outside the safe harbor of the regulation.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 33001, June 18, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.2015-02" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.2015-02   Interpretive bulletin relating to state savings programs that sponsor or facilitate plans covered by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This document sets forth the views of the Department of Labor (Department) concerning the application of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) to certain state laws designed to expand the retirement savings options available to private sector workers through ERISA-covered retirement plans. Concern over adverse social and economic consequences of inadequate retirement savings levels has prompted several states to adopt or consider legislation to address this problem.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> An impediment to state adoption of such measures is uncertainty about the effect of ERISA's broad preemption of state laws that “relate to” private sector employee benefit plans. In the Department's view, ERISA preemption principles leave room for states to sponsor or facilitate ERISA-based retirement savings options for private sector employees, provided employers participate voluntarily and ERISA's requirements, liability provisions, and remedies fully apply to the state programs.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For information on the problem of inadequate retirement savings, <I>see</I> the May 2015 Report of the United States Government Accountability Office (GAO), RETIREMENT SECURITY—Most Households Approaching Retirement Have Low Savings (GAO Report-15-419) (available at <I>www.gao.gov/assets/680/670153.pdf</I>). <I>Also see</I> GAO's September 2015 Report-15-566, RETIREMENT SECURITY—Federal Action Could Help State Efforts to Expand Private Sector Coverage (available at <I>www.gao.gov/assets/680/672419.pdf</I>).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> There are advantages to utilizing an ERISA plan approach. Employers as well as employees can make contributions to ERISA plans, contribution limits are higher than for other state approaches that involve individual retirement plans (IRAs) that are not intended to be ERISA-covered plans,
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and ERISA plan accounts have stronger protection from creditors. Tax credits may also allow small employers to offset part of the costs of starting certain types of retirement plans.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Utilizing ERISA plans also provides a well-established uniform regulatory structure with important consumer protections, including fiduciary obligations, automatic enrollment rules, recordkeeping and disclosure requirements, legal accountability provisions, and spousal protections.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Some states are developing programs to encourage employees to establish tax-favored IRAs funded by payroll deductions rather than encouraging employers to adopt ERISA plans. Oregon, Illinois, and California, for example, have adopted laws along these lines. Oregon 2015 Session Laws, Ch. 557 (H.B. 2960) (June 2015); Illinois Secure Choice Savings Program Act, 2014 Ill. Legis. Serv. P.A. 98-1150 (S.B. 2758) (West); California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Act, 2012 Cal. Legis. Serv. Ch. 734 (S.B. 1234) (West). These IRA-based initiatives generally require specified employers to deduct amounts from their employees' paychecks, unless the employee affirmatively elects not to participate, in order that those amounts may be remitted to state-administered IRAs for the employees. The Department is addressing these state “payroll deduction IRA” initiatives separately through a proposed regulation that describes safe-harbor conditions for employers to avoid creation of ERISA-covered plans when they comply with state laws that require payroll deduction IRA programs. This Interpretive Bulletin does not address those laws.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For more information, <I>see Choosing a Retirement Solution for Your Small Business,</I> a joint project of the U.S. Department of Labor's Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) and the Internal Revenue Service. Available at <I>www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/p3998.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>The Department is not aware of judicial decisions or other ERISA guidance directly addressing the application of ERISA to state programs that facilitate or sponsor ERISA plans, and, therefore, believes that the states, employers, other plan sponsors, workers, and other stakeholders would benefit from guidance setting forth the general views of the Department on the application of ERISA to these state initiatives. The application of ERISA in an individual case would present novel preemption questions and, if decided by a court, would turn on the particular features of the state-sponsored program at issue, but, as discussed below, the Department believes that neither ERISA section 514 specifically, nor federal preemption generally, are insurmountable obstacles to all state programs that promote retirement saving among private sector workers through the use of ERISA-covered plans.
</P>
<HD1>Marketplace Approach
</HD1>
<P>One state approach is reflected in the 2015 Washington State Small Business Retirement Savings Marketplace Act.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> This law requires the state to contract with a private sector entity to establish a program that connects eligible employers with qualifying savings plans available in the private sector market. Only products that the state determines are suited to small employers, provide good quality, and charge low fees would be included in the state's “marketplace.” Washington State employers would be free to use the marketplace or not and would not be required to establish any savings plans for their employees. Washington would merely set standards for arrangements marketed through the marketplace. The marketplace arrangement would not itself be an ERISA-covered plan, and the arrangements available to employers through the marketplace could include ERISA-covered plans and other non-ERISA savings arrangements. The state would not itself establish or sponsor any savings arrangement. Rather, the employer using the state marketplace would establish the savings arrangement, whether it is an ERISA-covered employee pension benefit plan or a non-ERISA savings program. ERISA's reporting and disclosure requirements, protective standards and remedies would apply to the ERISA plans established by employers using the marketplace. On the other hand, if the plan or arrangement is of a type that would otherwise be exempt from ERISA (such as a payroll deduction IRA arrangement that satisfies the conditions of the existing safe harbor at 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d)), the state's involvement as organizer or facilitator of the marketplace would not by itself cause that arrangement to be covered by ERISA. Similarly, if, as in Washington State, a marketplace includes a type of plan that is subject to special rules under ERISA, such as the SIMPLE-IRA under section 101(h) of ERISA, the state's involvement as organizer or facilitator of the marketplace would not by itself affect the application of the special rules.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> 2015 Wash. Sess. Laws chap. 296 (SB 5826) (available at <I>http://app.leg.wa.gov/billinfo/summary.aspx?bill=5826&amp;year=2015</I>).</P></FTNT>
<HD1>Prototype Plan Approach
</HD1>
<P>Another potential approach is a state sponsored “prototype plan.” At least one state, Massachusetts, has enacted a law to allow nonprofit organizations with fewer than 20 employees to adopt a contributory retirement plan developed and administered by the state.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> Banks, insurance companies and other regulated financial institutions commonly market prototype plans to employers as simple means for them to establish and administer employee pension benefit plans.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> The financial institutions develop standard form 401(k) or other tax-favored retirement plans (such as SIMPLE-IRA plans) and secure IRS approval. Typically, employers may choose features such as contribution rates to meet their specific needs. Each employer that adopts the prototype sponsors an ERISA plan for its employees. The individual employers would assume the same fiduciary obligations associated with sponsorship of any ERISA-covered plans. For example, the prototype plan documents often specify that the employer is the plan's “named fiduciary” and “plan administrator” responsible for complying with ERISA, but they may allow the employer to delegate these responsibilities to others. The plan documents for a state-administered prototype plan could designate the state or a state designee to perform these functions. Thus, the state or a designated third-party could assume responsibility for most administrative and asset management functions of an employer's prototype plan. The state could also designate low-cost investment options and a third-party administrative service provider for its prototype plans.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> The retirement plan will be overseen by the Massachusetts State Treasurer's Office. Mass. Gen. Laws ch.29, § 64E (2012). In June 2014, the Massachusetts Treasurer's Office announced that the IRS had issued a favorable ruling on the proposal, but noted that additional approval from the IRS is still needed (<I>see www.massnonprofitnet.org/blog/nonprofitretirement/</I>). <I>See also</I> GAO's Report 2015 Report-15-566, RETIREMENT SECURITY—Federal Action Could Help State Efforts to Expand Private Sector Coverage, which included the following statement at footnote 93 regarding the Massachusetts program: “The Massachusetts official told us that each participating employer would be considered to have created its own plan, characterizing the state's effort as development of a volume submitter 401(k) plan, which is a type of employee benefit plan that is typically pre-approved by the Internal Revenue Service.” (GAO report is available at <I>www.gao.gov/assets/680/672419.pdf</I>).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>See</I> IRS Online Publication, <I>Types of Pre-Approved Retirement Plans</I> at <I>www.irs.gov/Retirement-Plans/Types-of-Pre-Approved-Retirement-Plans.</I></P></FTNT>
<HD1>Multiple Employer Plan (MEP) Approach
</HD1>
<P>A third approach, (referenced, for example, in the “Report of the Governor's Task Force to Ensure Retirement Security for All Marylanders”),
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> involves a state establishing and obtaining IRS tax qualification for a “multiple employer” 401(k)-type plan, defined benefit plan, or other tax-favored retirement savings program. The Department anticipates that such an approach would generally involve permitting employers that meet specified eligibility criteria to join the state multiple employer plan. The plan documents would provide that the plan is subject to Title I of ERISA and is intended to comply with Internal Revenue Code tax qualification requirements. The plan would have a separate trust holding contributions made by the participating employers, the employer's employees, or both. The state, or a designated governmental agency or instrumentality, would be the plan sponsor under ERISA section 3(16)(B) and the named fiduciary and plan administrator responsible (either directly or through one or more contract agents, which could be private-sector providers) for administering the plan, selecting service providers, communicating with employees, paying benefits, and providing other plan services. A state could take advantage of economies of scale to lower administrative and other costs.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Governor's Task Force to Ensure Retirement Security for All Marylanders, <I>1,000,000 of Our Neighbors at Risk: Improving Retirement Security for Marylanders</I> (February 2015) (available at <I>www.dllr.state.md.us/retsecurity/</I>).</P></FTNT>
<P>As a state-sponsored multiple employer plan (“state MEP”), this type of arrangement could also reduce overall administrative costs for participating employers in large part because the Department would consider this arrangement as a single ERISA plan. Consequently, only a single Form 5500 Annual Return/Report would be filed for the whole arrangement. In order to participate in the plan, employers simply would be required to execute a participation agreement. Under a state MEP, each employer that chose to participate would not be considered to have established its own ERISA plan, and the state could design its defined contribution MEP so that the participating employers could have limited fiduciary responsibilities (the duty to prudently select the arrangement and to monitor its operation would continue to apply). The continuing involvement by participating employers in the ongoing operation and administration of a 401(k)-type individual account MEP, however, generally could be limited to enrolling employees in the state plan and forwarding voluntary employee and employer contributions to the plan. When an employer joins a carefully structured MEP, the employer is not the “sponsor” of the plan under ERISA, and also would not act as a plan administrator or named fiduciary. Those fiduciary roles, and attendant fiduciary responsibilities, would be assigned to other parties responsible for administration and management of the state MEP.
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> Adoption of a defined benefit plan structure would involve additional funding and other employer obligations.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> A state developing a state sponsored MEP could submit an advisory opinion request to the Department under ERISA Procedure 76-1 to confirm that the MEP at least in form has assigned those fiduciary functions to persons other than the participating employers. ERISA Procedure 76-1 is available at <I>www.dol.gov/ebsa/regs/aos/ao_requests.html.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> State laws authorizing defined benefit plans for private sector employers (as prototypes or as multiple employer plans) might create plans covered by Title IV of ERISA and subject to the jurisdiction of the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC). Subject to some exceptions, the PBGC protects the retirement incomes of workers in private-sector defined benefit pension plans. A defined benefit plan provides a specified monthly benefit at retirement, often based on a combination of salary and years of service. PBGC was created by ERISA to encourage the continuation and maintenance of private-sector defined benefit pension plans, provide timely and uninterrupted payment of pension benefits, and keep pension insurance premiums at a minimum. More information is available on the PBGC's Web site at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>For a person (other than an employee organization) to sponsor an employee benefit plan under Title I of ERISA, such person must either act directly as the employer of the covered employees or “indirectly in the interest of an employer” in relation to a plan.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> ERISA sections 3(2), 3(5). A person will be considered to act “indirectly in the interest of an employer, in relation to a plan,” if such person is tied to the contributing employers or their employees by genuine economic or representational interests unrelated to the provision of benefits.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> In the Department's view, a state has a unique representational interest in the health and welfare of its citizens that connects it to the in-state employers that choose to participate in the state MEP and their employees, such that the state should be considered to act indirectly in the interest of the participating employers.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> Having this unique nexus distinguishes the state MEP from other business enterprises that underwrite benefits or provide administrative services to several unrelated employers.
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Different rules may apply under the Internal Revenue Code for purposes of determining the plan sponsor of a tax-qualified retirement plan.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> Advisory Opinion 2012-04A. <I>See also MDPhysicians &amp; Associates, Inc.</I> v. <I>State Bd. Ins.,</I> 957 F.2d 178,185 (5th Cir.), <I>cert. denied,</I> 506 U.S. 861 (1992) (“the entity that maintains the plan and the individuals that benefit from the plan [must be] tied by a common economic or representation interest, unrelated to the provision of benefits.” (quoting <I>Wisconsin Educ. Assoc. Ins. Trust</I> v. <I>Iowa State Bd.,</I> 804 F.2d 1059, 1063 (8th Cir. 1986)).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> The Department has also recognized other circumstances when a person sponsoring a plan is acting as an “employer” indirectly rather than as an entity that underwrites benefits or provides administrative services. <I>See</I> Advisory Opinion 89-06A (Department would consider a member of a controlled group which establishes a benefit plan for its employees and/or the employees of other members of the controlled group to be an employer within the meaning of section 3(5) of ERISA); Advisory Opinion 95-29A (employee leasing company may act either directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in establishing and maintaining employee benefit plan).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>See</I> Advisory Opinion 2012-04A (holding that a group of employers can collectively act as the “employer” in sponsoring a multiple employer plan only if the employers group was formed for purposes other than the provision of benefits, the employers have a basic level of commonality (such as the participating employers all being in the same industry), and the employers participating in the plan in fact act as the “employer” by controlling the plan).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>ERISA Preemption.</I> The Department is aware that a concern for states adopting an ERISA plan approach is whether or not those state laws will be held preempted. ERISA preemption analysis begins with the “presumption that Congress does not intend to supplant state law.” <I>New York State Conference of Blue Cross &amp; Blue Shield Plans</I> v. <I>Travelers Ins. Co.,</I> 514 U.S. 645, 654 (1995). The question turns on Congress's intent “to avoid a multiplicity of regulation in order to permit nationally uniform administration of employee benefit plans.” <I>Id.</I> at 654, 657. <I>See also Fort Halifax Packing Co.</I> v. <I>Coyne,</I> 482 U.S. 1, 11 (1987) (goal of ERISA preemption is to “ensure . . . that the administrative practices of a benefit plan will be governed by only a single set of regulations.”).
</P>
<P>Section 514 of ERISA provides that Title I “shall supersede any and all State laws insofar as they . . . relate to any employee benefit plan” covered by the statute. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that “[a] law `relates to' an employee benefit plan, in the normal sense of the phrase, if it has a connection with or reference to such a plan.” <I>Shaw</I> v. <I>Delta Air Lines, Inc.,</I> 463 U.S. 85, 96-97 (1983) (footnote omitted); <I>see, e.g., Travelers,</I> 514 U.S. at 656. A law has a “reference to” ERISA plans if the law “acts immediately and exclusively upon ERISA plans” or “the existence of ERISA plans is essential to the law's operation.” <I>California Div. of Labor Standards Enforcement</I> v. <I>Dillingham Constr., N.A.,</I> 519 U.S. 316, 325-326 (1997). In determining whether a state law has a “connection with ERISA plans,” the U.S. Supreme Court “look[s] both to `the objectives of the ERISA statute as a guide to the scope of the state laws that Congress understood would survive,' as well as to the nature of the effect of the state law on ERISA plans,” to “determine whether [the] state law has the forbidden connection” with ERISA plans. <I>Egelhoff</I> v. <I>Egelhoff,</I> 532 U.S. 141, 147 (2001) (quoting <I>Dillingham,</I> 519 U.S. at 325). In various decisions, the Court has concluded that ERISA preempts state laws that: (1) Mandate employee benefit structures or their administration; (2) provide alternative enforcement mechanisms; or (3) bind employers or plan fiduciaries to particular choices or preclude uniform administrative practice, thereby functioning as a regulation of an ERISA plan itself.
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> <I>Travelers,</I> 514 U.S. at 658 (1995); <I>Ingersoll-Rand Co.</I> v. <I>McClendon,</I> 498 U.S. 133, 142 (1990); <I>Egelhoff</I> v. <I>Egelhoff,</I> 532 U.S. 141, 148 (2001); <I>Fort Halifax Packing Co.</I> v. <I>Coyne,</I> 482 U.S. 1, 14 (1987).</P></FTNT>
<P>In the Department's view, state laws of the sort outlined above interact with ERISA in such a way that section 514 preemption principles and purposes would not appear to come into play in the way they have in past preemption cases. Although the approaches described above involve ERISA plans, they do not appear to undermine ERISA's exclusive regulation of ERISA-covered plans. The approaches do not mandate employee benefit structures or their administration, provide alternative regulatory or enforcement mechanisms, bind employers or plan fiduciaries to particular choices, or preclude uniform administrative practice in any way that would regulate ERISA plans.
</P>
<P>Moreover, the approaches appear to contemplate a state acting as a participant in a market rather than as a regulator. The U.S. Supreme Court has found that, when a state or municipality acts as a participant in the market and does so in a narrow and focused manner consistent with the behavior of other market participants, such action does not constitute state regulation. <I>Compare Building and Construction Trades Council</I> v. <I>Associated Builders and Contractors of Massachusetts/Rhode Island, Inc.,</I> 507 U.S. 218 (1993); <I>Wisconsin Department of Industry, Labor and Human Relations</I> v. <I>Gould,</I> 475 U.S. 282 (1986); <I>see also American Trucking Associations, Inc.</I> v. <I>City of Los Angeles,</I> 133 S. Ct. 2096, 2102 (2013) (Section 14501(c)(1) of the Federal Aviation Administration Authorization Act, which preempts a state “law, regulation, or other provision having the force and effect of law related to a price, route, or service of any motor carrier,” 49 U.S.C. 14501(c)(1), “draws a rough line between a government's exercise of regulatory authority and its own contract-based participation in a market”); <I>Associated General Contractors of America</I> v. <I>Metropolitan Water District of Southern California,</I> 159 F.3d 1178, 1182-84 (9th Cir. 1998) (recognizing a similar distinction between state regulation and state market participation). By merely offering employers particular ERISA-covered plan options 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> (or non-ERISA plan options), these approaches (whether used separately or together as part of a multi-faceted state initiative) do not dictate how an employer's plan is designed or operated or make offering a plan more costly for employers or employees. Nor do they make it impossible for employers operating across state lines to offer uniform benefits to their employees.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> Rather than impair federal regulation of employee benefit plans, the state laws would leave the plans wholly subject to ERISA's regulatory requirements and protections.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> In the Department's view, a state law that required employers to participate in a state prototype plan or state sponsored multiple employer plan unless they affirmatively opted out would effectively compel the employer to decide whether to sponsor an ERISA plan in a way that would be preempted by ERISA.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> The Court in <I>Travelers</I> approved a New York statute that gave employers a strong incentive to provide health care benefits through Blue Cross and Blue Shield as opposed to other providers. The Court noted that the law did not “mandate” employee benefit plans or their administration, or produce such acute economic effects, either directly or indirectly, by intent or otherwise “as to force an ERISA plan to adopt a certain scheme of substantive coverage or effectively restrict its choice of insurers.” <I>Travelers,</I> 514 U.S. at 668. <I>See also De Buono</I> v. <I>NYSA-ILA Medical and Clinical Services Fund,</I> 520 U.S. 806, 816 (1997).</P></FTNT>
<P>Of course, a state must implement these approaches without establishing standards inconsistent with ERISA or providing its own regulatory or judicial remedies for conduct governed exclusively by ERISA. ERISA's system of rules and remedies would apply to these arrangements. A contractor retained by a state using the marketplace approach would be subject to the same ERISA standards and remedies that apply to any company offering the same services to employers. Similarly, a prototype plan or multiple employer plan program that a state offers to employers would have to comply with the same ERISA requirements and would have to be subject to the same remedies as any private party offering such products and services.
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> State laws relating to sovereign immunity for state governments and their employees would have to be evaluated carefully to ensure they do not conflict with ERISA's remedial provisions.</P></FTNT>
<P>Even if the state laws enacted to establish programs of the sort described above “reference” employee benefit plans in a literal sense, they should not be seen as laws that “relate to” ERISA plans in the sense ERISA section 514(a) uses that statutory term because they are completely voluntary from the employer's perspective, the state program would be entirely subject to ERISA, and state law would not impose any outside regulatory requirements beyond ERISA. They do not require employers to establish ERISA-covered plans, forbid any type of plan or restrict employers' choices with respect to benefit structures or their administration. These laws would merely offer a program that employers could accept or reject. <I>See Dillingham,</I> 519 U.S. at 325-28.
</P>
<P>In addition, none of the state approaches described above resemble the state laws that the Court held preempted in its pre-<I>Travelers</I> “reference to” cases. Those laws targeted ERISA plans as a class with affirmative requirements or special exemptions. <I>See, e.g., District of Columbia</I> v. <I>Greater Wash. Bd. of Trade,</I> 506 U.S. 125, 128, 129-133 (1992) (workers' compensation law that required employee benefits “set by reference to [ERISA] plans”) (citation omitted); <I>Ingersoll-Rand Co.</I> v. <I>McClendon,</I> 498 U.S. 133, 135-136, 140 (1990) (common law claim for wrongful discharge to prevent attainment of ERISA benefits); <I>Mackey</I> v. <I>Lanier Collection Agency &amp; Serv., Inc.,</I> 486 U.S. 825, 828 &amp; n.2, 829-830 (1988) (exemption from garnishment statute for ERISA plans). In the case of the state actions outlined above, any restriction on private economic activity arises, not from state regulatory actions, but from the application of ERISA requirements to the plans, service providers, and investment products, that the state, as any other private sector participant in the market, selects in deciding what it is willing to offer.
</P>
<P>Finally, it is worth noting that even if the state laws implementing these approaches “relate to” ERISA plans in some sense of that term, it is only because they create or authorize arrangements that are fully governed by ERISA's requirements. By embracing ERISA in this way, the state would not on that basis be running afoul of section 514(a) because ERISA fully applies to the arrangement and there is nothing in the state law for ERISA to “supersede.” In this regard, section 514(a) of ERISA, in relevant part, provides that Title I of ERISA “shall supersede any and all state laws insofar as they may now or hereafter relate to any employee benefit plan . . . .” To the extent that the state makes plan design decisions in fashioning its prototype plan or state sponsored plan, or otherwise adopts rules necessary to run the plan, those actions would be the same as any other prototype plan provider or employer sponsor of any ERISA-covered plan, and the arrangement would be fully and equally subject to ERISA.
</P>
<P>This conclusion is supported by the Department's position regarding state governmental participation in ERISA plans in another context. Pursuant to section 4(b)(1) of ERISA, the provisions of Title I of ERISA do not apply to a plan that a state government establishes for its own employees, which ERISA section 3(32) defines as a “governmental plan.” The Department has long held the view, however, that if a plan covering governmental employees fails to qualify as a governmental plan, it would still be subject to Title I of ERISA.
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> In these circumstances, the failure to qualify as a governmental plan does not prohibit a governmental employer from providing benefits through, and making contributions to, an ERISA-covered employee benefit plan.
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, the effect of ERISA is not to prohibit the state from offering benefits, but rather to make those benefits subject to ERISA. Here too, ERISA does not supersede state law to the extent it merely creates an arrangement that is fully governed by ERISA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> Advisory Opinion 2004-04A.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> <I>See</I> Information Letter to Michael T. Scaraggi and James M. Steinberg from John J. Canary (April 12, 2004).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 71937, Nov. 18, 2015]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2509.2022-01" NODE="29:9.1.2.1.2.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2509.2022-01   Interpretive bulletin relating to guidance on independence of accountant retained by employee benefit plan.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides guidance for determining when a qualified public accountant is independent for purposes of auditing and rendering an opinion on the financial information required to be included in the annual report (Form 5500 Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan) filed with the Department of Labor (Department).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and 29 CFR 2520.103-1(b)(5) of the Department's implementing regulations require that the accountant retained by an employee benefit plan be “independent” for purposes of examining plan financial information and rendering an opinion on the financial statements and schedules required to be contained in the annual report. Under section 103(a)(3)(A) of ERISA the Department will not recognize any person as an independent qualified public accountant who is in fact not independent with respect to the employee benefit plan upon which that accountant renders an opinion in the annual report filed with the Department. In determining whether an accountant or accounting firm is not independent, the Department will give appropriate consideration to all relevant circumstances, including evidence bearing on all relationships between the accountant or accounting firm and that of the plan sponsor or any affiliate thereof, and will not confine itself to the relationships existing in connection with the filing of annual reports with the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples are intended to illustrate how the Department would apply paragraph (a) of this section in certain common financial and business relationships. The Department in enforcing the Form 5500 annual reporting requirements will not consider an accountant to be independent with respect to a plan if:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) During the period of professional engagement to examine the financial statements being reported, at the date of the opinion, or during the period covered by the financial statements, the accountant, the accountant's firm or a member thereof had, or was committed to acquire, any direct financial interest or any material indirect financial interest in such plan, or the plan sponsor as that term is defined in section 3(16)(B) of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(ii) An accountant will not be deemed to have failed the independence requirement under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section as a result of any holding of publicly traded securities of the plan sponsor during the period covered by the financial statements if:
</P>
<P>(A) The accountant did not audit the client's financial statements for the immediately preceding fiscal year; and
</P>
<P>(B) The accountant, the accounting firm, a partner, shareholder employee, or professional employee of the accounting firm, and their immediate family disposed of any holding of publicly traded securities of the plan sponsor before the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Signing an initial engagement letter or other agreement to provide audit, review, or attest services to the audit client; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Commencing any audit, review, or attest procedures (including planning the audit of the client's financial statements); and
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, publicly traded securities are securities listed on a registered stock exchange in which quotations are published on a daily basis, securities regularly traded in a national or regional over-the-counter market for which published quotations are available, or securities traded on a foreign national securities exchange that is officially recognized, sanctioned, or supervised by a governmental authority and where the security is deemed by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) as having a ready market under applicable SEC rules;
</P>
<P>(2) During the period of professional engagement to examine the financial statements being reported, at the date of the opinion, or during the period covered by the financial statements, the accountant, the accountant's firm, or a member thereof was connected as a promoter, underwriter, investment advisor, voting trustee, director, officer, or employee of the plan or plan sponsor, except that a firm will not be deemed not independent in regard to a particular plan if a former officer or employee of such plan or plan sponsor is employed by the firm and such individual has completely disassociated himself from the plan or plan sponsor and does not participate in auditing financial statements of the plan covering any period of his or her employment by the plan or plan sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(3) An accountant or a member of an accounting firm maintains financial records for the employee benefit plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of certain other services to the plan or plan sponsors.</I> (1) Subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, an accountant will not fail to be recognized as independent solely on the basis that at or during the period of the accountant's professional engagement with the employee benefit plan:
</P>
<P>(i) The accountant or the accountant's firm is retained or engaged on a professional basis by the plan sponsor, as that term is defined in section 3(16)(B) of ERISA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An actuary associated with the accountant or accounting firm renders actuarial services to the plan or plan sponsor.
</P>
<P>(2) However, to retain recognition of independence, the prohibitions against recognition of independence in paragraph (b)(1), (2), or (3) of this section must not be violated. Further, the rendering of multiple services to a plan by a firm may give rise to circumstances indicating a lack of independence with respect to the employee benefit plan (<I>e.g.,</I> result in the accountant or firm providing services that are subject to audit procedures as part of the plan's audit), and, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, in determining whether an accountant or accounting firm is not, in fact, independent with respect to a particular plan, the Department will give appropriate consideration to all relevant circumstances, including evidence bearing on all relationships between the accountant or accounting firm and that of the plan sponsor or any affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(3) Rendering multiple services to a plan by a firm also may involve prohibited transactions under ERISA and requirements to comply with conditions in prohibited transaction exemptions such as prohibited transaction exemption in ERISA section 408(b)(2) for ERISA section 406(a)(1)(C) service provider transactions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Member</I> means all partners or shareholder employees in the firm and all professional employees participating in the audit or located in an office of the firm participating in a significant portion of the audit; the firm's employee benefit plans; or an entity whose operating, financial, or accounting policies can be controlled by any of the individuals or entities described in this paragraph (d)(1) or by two or more such individuals or entities acting together.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Office</I> means a reasonably distinct subgroup within a firm, whether constituted by formal organization or informal practice, in which personnel who make up the subgroup generally serve the same group of clients or work on the same categories of matters regardless of the physical location of the individuals who comprise such subgroup. Substance should govern the office classification, and the expected regular personnel interactions and assigned reporting channels of an individual may well be more important than an individual's physical location.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Period of professional engagement</I> means the period beginning when an accountant either signs an initial engagement letter or other agreement to perform the audit or begins to perform any audit, review or attest procedures (including planning the audit of the plan's financial statements), whichever is earlier, and ending with the formal notification, either by the member or client, of the termination of the professional relationship or the issuance of the audit report for which the accountant was engaged, whichever is later. In the case of an auditor that performs a plan's audit for two or more years, in evaluating independence, the Department would not view the period of professional engagement as ending with the issuance of each year's audit report and recommencing with the beginning of the following year's audit engagement.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54372, Sept. 6, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—DEFINITIONS AND COVERAGE UNDER THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT OF 1974 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2510" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2510—DEFINITION OF TERMS USED IN SUBCHAPTERS C, D, E, F, G, AND L OF THIS CHAPTER
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1002(1)-(8), 1002(13)-(16), 1002(20), 1002(21), 1002(34), 1002(37), 1002(38), 1002(40)-(44), 1031, and 1135; Div. O, Title I, Sec. 101, Pub. L. 116-94, 133 Stat. 2534 (Dec. 20, 2019); Div. T, Title I, Sec. 105, Pub. L. 117-328, 136 Stat. 4459 (Dec. 29, 2022); Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012); Secs. 2510.3-21, 2510.3-101 and 2510.3-102 also issued under Sec. 102 of Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 752 (2018) (E.O. 12108, 44 FR 1065 (Jan. 3, 1979)), and 29 U.S.C. 1135 note. Section 2510.3-38 also issued under Sec. 1(b) Pub. L. 105-72, 111 Stat. 1457 (Nov. 10, 1997).






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-1   Employee welfare benefit plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The purpose of this section is to clarify the definition of the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” for purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter by identifying certain practices which do not constitute employee welfare benefit plans for those purposes. In addition, the practices listed in this section do not constitute employee pension benefit plans within the meaning of section 3(2) of the Act, and, therefore, do not constitute employee benefit plans within the meaning of section 3(3). Since under section 4(a) of the Act, only employee benefit plans within the meaning of section 3(3) are subject to title I of the Act, the practices listed in this section are not subject to title I. 
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” are defined in section 3(1) of the Act to include plans providing “(i) medical, surgical, or hospital care or benefits, or benefits in the event of sickness, accident, disability, death or unemployment, or vacation benefits, apprenticeship or other training programs, or day care centers, scholarship funds, or prepaid legal services, or (ii) any benefit described in section 302(c) of the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947 (other than pensions on retirement or death, and insurance to provide such pensions).” Under this definition, only plans which provide benefits described in section 3(1)(A) of the Act or in section 302(c) of the Labor-Management Relations Act, 1947 (hereinafter “the LMRA”) (other than pensions on retirement or death) constitute welfare plans. For example, a system of payroll deductions by an employer for deposit in savings accounts owned by its employees is not an employee welfare benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Act because it does not provide benefits described in section 3(1)(A) of the Act or section 302(c) of the LMRA. (In addition, if each employee has the right to withdraw the balance in his or her account at any time, such a payroll savings plan does not meet the requirements for a pension plan set forth in section 3(2) of the Act and, therefore, is not an employee benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(3) of the Act). 
</P>
<P>(3) Section 302(c) of the LMRA lists exceptions to the restrictions contained in subsections (a) and (b) of that section on payments and loans made by an employer to individuals and groups representing employees of the employer. Of these exceptions, only those contained in paragraphs (5), (6), (7) and (8) describe benefits provided through employee benefit plans. Moreover, only paragraph (6) describes benefits not described in section 3(1)(A) of the Act. The benefits described in section 302(c)(6) of the LMRA but not in section 3(1)(A) of the Act are “* * * holiday, severance or similar benefits”. Thus, the effect of section 3(1)(B) of the Act is to include within the definition of “welfare plan” those plans which provide holiday and severance benefits, and benefits which are similar (for example, benefits which are in substance severance benefits, although not so characterized). 
</P>
<P>(4) Some of the practices listed in this section as excluded from the definition of “welfare plan” or mentioned as examples of general categories of excluded practices are inserted in response to questions received by the Department of Labor and, in the Department's judgment, do not represent borderline cases under the definition in section 3(1) of the Act. Therefore, this section should not be read as implicitly indicating the Department's views on the possible scope of section 3(1). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payroll practices.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include—
</P>
<P>(1) Payment by an employer of compensation on account of work performed by an employee, including compensation at a rate in excess of the normal rate of compensation on account of performance of duties under other than ordinary circumstances, such as—
</P>
<P>(i) Overtime pay, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shift premiums, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Holiday premiums, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Weekend premiums; 
</P>
<P>(2) Payment of an employee's normal compensation, out of the employer's general assets, on account of periods of time during which the employee is physically or mentally unable to perform his or her duties, or is otherwise absent for medical reasons (such as pregnancy, a physical examination or psychiatric treatment); and 
</P>
<P>(3) Payment of compensation, out of the employer's general assets, on account of periods of time during which the employee, although physically and mentally able to perform his or her duties and not absent for medical reasons (such as pregnancy, a physical examination or psychiatric treatment) performs no duties; for example—
</P>
<P>(i) Payment of compensation while an employee is on vacation or absent on a holiday, including payment of premiums to induce employees to take vacations at a time favorable to the employer for business reasons, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Payment of compensation to an employee who is absent while on active military duty, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Payment of compensation while an employee is absent for the purpose of serving as a juror or testifying in official proceedings, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Payment of compensation on account of periods of time during which an employee performs little or no productive work while engaged in training (whether or not subsidized in whole or in part by Federal, State or local government funds), and 
</P>
<P>(v) Payment of compensation to an employee who is relieved of duties while on sabbatical leave or while pursuing further education. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>On-premises facilities.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include—
</P>
<P>(1) The maintenance on the premises of an employer or of an employee organization of recreation, dining or other facilities (other than day care centers) for use by employees or members; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The maintenance on the premises of an employer of facilities for the treatment of minor injuries or illness or rendering first aid in case of accidents occurring during working hours. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Holiday gifts.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include the distribution of gifts such as turkeys or hams by an employer to employees at Christmas and other holiday seasons. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sales to employees.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include the sale by an employer to employees of an employer, whether or not at prevailing market prices, of articles or commodities of the kind which the employer offers for sale in the regular course of business. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hiring halls.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include the maintenance by one or more employers, employee organizations, or both, of a hiring hall facility. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Remembrance funds.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include a program under which contributions are made to provide remembrances such as flowers, an obituary notice in a newspaper or a small gift on occasions such as the sickness, hospitalization, death or termination of employment of employees, or members of an employee organization, or members of their families. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Strike funds.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include a fund maintained by an employee organization to provide payments to its members during strikes and for related purposes. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Industry advancement programs.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include a program maintained by an employer or group or association of employers, which has no employee participants and does not provide benefits to employees or their dependents, regardless of whether the program serves as a conduit through which funds or other assets are channelled to employee benefit plans covered under title I of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Certain group or group-type insurance programs.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include a group or group-type insurance program offered by an insurer to employees or members of an employee organization, under which 
</P>
<P>(1) No contributions are made by an employer or employee organization; 
</P>
<P>(2) Participation the program is completely voluntary for employees or members; 
</P>
<P>(3) The sole functions of the employer or employee organization with respect to the program are, without endorsing the program, to permit the insurer to publicize the program to employees or members, to collect premiums through payroll deductions or dues checkoffs and to remit them to the insurer; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The employer or employee organization receives no consideration in the form of cash or otherwise in connection with the program, other than reasonable compensation, excluding any profit, for administrative services actually rendered in connection with payroll deductions or dues checkoffs. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Unfunded scholarship programs.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employe welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include a scholarship program, including a tuition and education expense refund program, under which payments are made solely from the general assets of an employer or employee organization. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Safe harbor for health reimbursement arrangements (HRAs) and certain other arrangements that reimburse individual health insurance coverage.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “welfare plan” shall not include individual health insurance coverage the premiums of which are reimbursed by a health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) (or other account-based group health plan), including an HRA or other account-based group health plan integrated with individual health insurance coverage (as described in § 2590.702-2 of this chapter), an HRA that covers fewer than two current employees (as described in § 2590.732(b) of this chapter) and that reimburses premiums for individual health insurance coverage, a qualified small employer health reimbursement arrangement (QSEHRA), as defined in section 9831(d)(2) of the Code, or an arrangement under which an employer allows employees to pay the portion of the premium for individual health insurance coverage that is not covered by an HRA or other account-based group health plan with which the coverage is integrated by using a salary reduction arrangement in a cafeteria plan under section 125 of the Code (supplemental salary reduction arrangement), if all the conditions of this paragraph (l) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(1) The purchase of any individual health insurance coverage is completely voluntary for participants and beneficiaries. The fact that a plan sponsor requires such coverage to be purchased as a condition for participation in an HRA or supplemental salary reduction arrangement does not make the purchase involuntary.
</P>
<P>(2) The employer, employee organization, or other plan sponsor does not select or endorse any particular issuer or insurance coverage. In contrast, providing general contact information regarding availability of health insurance in a state (such as providing information regarding <I>www.HealthCare.gov</I> or contact information for a state insurance commissioner's office) or providing general health insurance educational information (such as the uniform glossary of health coverage and medical terms available at: <I>https://www.dol.gov/sites/default/files/ebsa/laws-and-regulations/laws/affordable-care-act/for-employers-and-advisers/sbc-uniform-glossary-of-coverage-and-medical-terms-final.pdf</I>) is permitted.
</P>
<P>(3) Reimbursement for non-group health insurance premiums is limited solely to individual health insurance coverage (as defined in § 2590.701-2 of this chapter) that does not consist solely of excepted benefits (as defined in § 2590.732(c) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(4) The employer, employee organization, or other plan sponsor receives no consideration in the form of cash or otherwise in connection with the employee's selection or renewal of any individual health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(5) Each plan participant is notified annually that the individual health insurance coverage is not subject to title I of ERISA. For an HRA that is integrated with individual health insurance coverage, the notice must satisfy the notice requirement set forth in § 2590.702-2(c)(6) of this chapter. A QSEHRA or an HRA not subject to the notice requirement set forth in § 2590.702-2(c)(6) of this chapter may use the following language to satisfy this condition: “The individual health insurance coverage that is paid for by this plan, if any, is not subject to the rules and consumer protections of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act. You should contact your state insurance department for more information regarding your rights and responsibilities if you purchase individual health insurance coverage.” A supplemental salary reduction arrangement is not required to provide this notice as the notice will be provided by the HRA that such an arrangement supplements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 34530, Aug. 15, 1975, as amended at 84 FR 29000, June 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-2   Employee pension benefit plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section clarifies the limits of the defined terms “employee pension benefit plan” and “pension plan” for purposes of Title I of the Act and this chapter by identifying certain specific plans, funds and programs which do not constitute employee pension benefit plans for those purposes. To the extent that these plans, funds and programs constitute employee welfare benefit plans within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Act and § 2510.3-1, they will be covered under Title I; however, they will not be subject to parts 2 and 3 of Title I of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance pay plans.</I> (1) For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, an arrangement shall not be deemed to constitute an employee pension benefit plan or pension plan solely by reason of the payment of severance benefits on account of the termination of an employee's service, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Such payments are not contingent, directly or indirectly, upon the employee's retiring; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total amount of such payments does not exceed the equivalent of twice the employee's annual compensation during the year immediately preceding the termination of his service; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) All such payments to any employee are completed, 
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of an employee whose service is terminated in connection with a limited program of terminations, within the later of 24 months after the termination of the employee's service, or 24 months after the employee reaches normal retirement age; and 
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of all other employees, within 24 months after the termination of the employee's service. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (b), 
</P>
<P>(i) “Annual compensation” means the total of all compensation, including wages, salary, and any other benefit of monetary value, whether paid in the form of cash or otherwise, which was paid as consideration for the employee's service during the year, or which would have been so paid at the employee's usual rate of compensation if the employee had worked a full year. 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Limited program of terminations” means a program of terminations: 
</P>
<P>(A) Which, when begun, was scheduled to be completed upon a date certain or upon the occurrence of one or more specified events; 
</P>
<P>(B) Under which the number, percentage or class or classes of employees whose services are to be terminated is specified in advance; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Which is described in a written document which is available to the Secretary upon request, and which contains information sufficient to demonstrate that the conditions set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section have been met. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bonus program.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee pension benefit plan” and “pension plan” shall not include payments made by an employer to some or all of its employees as bonuses for work performed, unless such payments are systematically deferred to the termination of covered employment or beyond, or so as to provide retirement income to employees. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individual Retirement Accounts.</I> (1) For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the terms “employee pension benefit plan” and “pension plan” shall not include an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code, an individual retirement annuity described in section 408(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (hereinafter “the Code”) and an individual retirement bond described in section 409 of the Code, provided that—
</P>
<P>(i) No contributions are made by the employer or employee association; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Participation is completely voluntary for employees or members; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The sole involvement of the employer or employee organization is without endorsement to permit the sponsor to publicize the program to employees or members, to collect contributions through payroll deductions or dues checkoffs and to remit them to the sponsor; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The employer or employee organization receives no consideration in the form of cash or otherwise, other than reasonable compensation for services actually rendered in connection with payroll deductions or dues checkoffs. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Gratuitous payments to pre-Act retirees.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter the terms “employee pension benefit plan” and “pension plan” shall not include voluntary, gratuitous payments by an employer to former employees who separated from the service of the employer if: 
</P>
<P>(1) Payments are made out of the general assets of the employer, 
</P>
<P>(2) Former employees separated from the service of the employer prior to September 2, 1974, 
</P>
<P>(3) Payments made to such employees commenced prior to September 2, 1974, and 
</P>
<P>(4) Each former employee receiving such payments is notified annually that the payments are gratuitous and do not constitute a pension plan. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Tax sheltered annuities.</I> For the purpose of title I of the Act and this chapter, a program for the purchase of an annuity contract or the establishment of a custodial account described in section 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (the Code), pursuant to salary reduction agreements or agreements to forego an increase in salary, which meets the requirements of 26 CFR 1.403(b)-1(b)(3) shall not be “established or maintained by an employer” as that phrase is used in the definition of the terms “employee pension benefit plan” and “pension plan” if 
</P>
<P>(1) Participation is completely voluntary for employees; 
</P>
<P>(2) All rights under the annuity contract or custodial account are enforceable solely by the employee, by a beneficiary of such employee, or by any authorized representative of such employee or beneficiary; 
</P>
<P>(3) The sole involvement of the employer, other than pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section, is limited to any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Permitting annuity contractors (which term shall include any agent or broker who offers annuity contracts or who makes available custodial accounts within the meaning of section 403(b)(7) of the Code) to publicize their products to employees, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Requesting information concerning proposed funding media, products or annuity contractors;
</P>
<P>(iii) Summarizing or otherwise compiling the information provided with respect to the proposed funding media or products which are made available, or the annuity contractors whose services are provided, in order to facilitate review and analysis by the employees;
</P>
<P>(iv) Collecting annuity or custodial account considerations as required by salary reduction agreements or by agreements to forego salary increases, remitting such considerations to annuity contractors and maintaining records of such considerations;
</P>
<P>(v) Holding in the employer's name one or more group annuity contracts covering its employees;
</P>
<P>(vi) Before February 7, 1978, to have limited the funding media or products available to employees, or the annuity contractors who could approach employees, to those which, in the judgment of the employer, afforded employees appropriate investment opportunities; or
</P>
<P>(vii) After February 6, 1978, limiting the funding media or products available to employees, or the annuity contractors who may approach employees, to a number and selection which is designed to afford employees a reasonable choice in light of all relevant circumstances. Relevant circumstances may include, but would not necessarily be limited to, the following types of factors:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of employees affected,
</P>
<P>(B) The number of contractors who have indicated interest in approaching employees,
</P>
<P>(C) The variety of available products,
</P>
<P>(D) The terms of the available arrangements,
</P>
<P>(E) The administrative burdens and costs to the employer, and
</P>
<P>(F) The possible interference with employee performance resulting from direct solicitation by contractors; and
</P>
<P>(4) The employer receives no direct or indirect consideration or compensation in cash or otherwise other than reasonable compensation to cover expenses properly and actually incurred by such employer in the performance of the employer's duties pursuant to the salary reduction agreements or agreements to forego salary increases described in this paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Supplemental payment plans</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Generally, an arrangement by which a payment is made by an employer to supplement retirement income is a pension plan. Supplemental payments made on or after September 26, 1980, shall be treated as being made under a welfare plan rather than a pension plan for purposes of title I of the Act if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Payment is made for the purpose of supplementing the pension benefits of a participant or his or her beneficiary out of:
</P>
<P>(A) The general assets of the employer, or
</P>
<P>(B) A separate trust fund established and maintained solely for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount payable under the supplemental payment plan to a participant or his or her beneficiary with respect to a month does not exceed the payee's supplemental payment factor (“SPF,” as defined in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section) for that month, provided however that unpaid monthly amounts may be cumulated and paid in subsequent months to the participant or his or her beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(iii) The payment is not made before the last day of the month with respect to which it is computed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe harbor for arrangements concerning pre-1977 retirees.</I> (i) Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1) of this section, effective January 1, 1975 an arrangement by which a payment is made by an employer to supplement the retirement income of a former employee who separated from the service of the employer prior to January 1, 1977 shall be deemed not to have been made under an employee benefit plan if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer is not obligated to make the payment or similar payments for more than twelve months at a time.
</P>
<P>(B) The payment is made out of the general assets of the employer.
</P>
<P>(C) The former employee is notified in writing at least once each year in which a payment is made that the payments are not part of an employee benefit plan subject to the protections of the Act.
</P>
<P>(D) The former employee is notified in writing at least once each year in which a payment is made of the extent of the employer's obligation, if any, to continue the payments.
</P>
<P>(ii) A person who receives a payment on account of his or her relationship to a former employee who retired prior to January 1, 1977 is considered to be a former employee for purposes of this paragraph (g)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions and special rules.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g)—
</P>
<P>(i) The term “supplemental payment factor” (SPF) is, for any particular month, the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The individual's pension benefit amount (as defined in paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section), and
</P>
<P>(B) The cost of living increase (as defined in paragraph (g)(3)(v) of this section) for that month.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The term “pension benefit amount” (PBA) means, with regard to a retiree, the amount of pension benefits payable, in the form of the annuity chosen by the retiree, for the first full month that he or she is in pay status under a pension plan (as defined in paragraph (g)(3)(iii) of this section) sponsored by his or her employer or under a multiemployer plan in which his or her employer participates. If the retiree has received a lump-sum distribution from the plan, the PBA for the retiree shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the plan provides an annuity option at the time of the distribution, the PBA shall be computed as if the distribution had been applied on that date to the purchase from the plan of a level straight annuity for the life of the participant if the participant was unmarried at the time of the distribution or a joint and survivor annuity if the participant was married at the time of distribution.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the plan does not provide an annuity option at the time of the distribution, the PBA shall be computed as if the distribution had been applied on that date to the purchase from an insurance company qualified to do business in a State of a commercially available level straight annuity for the life of the participant if the participant was then single, or a joint and survivor annuity if the participant was then married, based upon the assumption that the participant and beneficiary are standard mortality risks.
</P>
<P>(B) If the retiree has received from the plan a series of distributions which do not constitute a lump-sum distribution or an annuity, the PBA for the retiree shall be determined with respect to each distribution according to paragraph (g)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, or in accordance with a reasonably equivalent method.
</P>
<P>(C) The term PBA, with regard to the beneficiary of a plan participant, means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The amount of pension benefits, payable in the form of a survivor annuity to the beneficiary, for the first full month that he or she begins to receive the survivor annuity, reduced by:
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any increases which have been incorporated as part of the survivor annuity under the plan since the participant entered pay status or, if the participant died before the commencement of pension benefits, since the participant's date of death.
</P>
<P>(D) Where a plan participant has commenced to receive his or her pension benefits in the form of a straight-life annuity, or another form of an annuity that does not continue after the participant's death in the form of a survivor annuity, no beneficiary of the participant will have a PBA.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term “pension plan” means, for purposes of this paragraph (g), a pension plan as defined in section 3(2) of the Act, but not including a plan described in section 4(b), 201(2), or 301(a)(3) of the Act. The term also does not include an arrangement meeting all the conditions of paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this section or of an arrangement described in § 2510.3-2(e). In the case of a controlled group of corporations within the meaning of section 407(d)(5) of the Act, all pension plans sponsored by members of the group shall be considered to be one pension plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The term “employer” means, for purposes of paragraph (g) of this section, the former employer making the supplemental payment. In the case of a contolled group of corporations within the meaning of section 407(d)(7) of the Act, all members of the controlled group shall be considered to be one employer for purposes of this paragraph (g).
</P>
<P>(v) The term “cost of living increase” (CLI) means, as to any month, a percentage equal to the following fraction:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.039.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where a = the CPIU for the month for which a payment is being computed, and b= the CPIU for the first full month the retiree was in pay status. Where the CLI is calculated for the beneficiary of a plan participant, “b” continues to be equal to the CPIU for the first full month the retiree was in pay status. If, however, the participant dies before the commencement of pension benefits, “b” is equal to the CPIU for the first full month the survivor is in pay status.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(vi) The term “CPIU” means the U.S. City Average All Items Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers, published by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics. Data concerning the CPIU for a particular period can be obtained from the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics, Division of Consumer Prices and Price Indexes, Washington, DC 20212.
</P>
<P>(vii) Where an employer does not pay to a retiree the full amount of the supplemental payments which would be permitted under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, any unpaid amounts may be cumulated and paid in subsequent months to either the retiree or the beneficiary of the retiree. The beneficiary need not be the recipient of a survivor annuity in order to be paid these cumulated supplemental payments.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate how this paragraph (g) works. As referred to in these examples, the CPIU's for July through November of 1980 are as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>July 1980: 247.8
</FP>
<FP>August 1980: 249.4
</FP>
<FP>September 1980: 251.7
</FP>
<FP>October 1980: 253.9
</FP>
<FP>November 1980: 256.2</FP></EXTRACT>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (1)(a).</HED><PSPACE>E is an employer. R received monthly benefits of $600 under a straight-life annuity under E's defined benefit pension plan after R retired from E and entered pay status on July 1, 1980. The amount that E may pay to R as supplemental payments under a welfare rather than pension plan with respect to the months of July through September of 1980 is computed as follows:
</PSPACE>
<FP>SPF for July 1980:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.040.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>SPF for August 1980:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.041.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>SPF for September 1980:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="39" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.042.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>No supplemental payment may be made to R as a welfare plan payment with respect to July 1980, the month of retirement. The $3.87 that may be paid with respect to August 1980 may be paid at any time after August 31, 1980. The $9.44 that may be paid with respect to September 1980 may be paid at any time after September 30, 1980.</FP></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (1)(b).</HED><PSPACE>S is the beneficiary of R. Because R received pension benefits under a straight-life annuity, S will receive no survivor annuity from E after R's death. S thus will have no PBA after R's death and will not be eligible to receive any supplemental payments from E based on S's PBA. To the extent, however, that R did not receive supplemental payments from E to the maximum limit allowable under paragraph (g)(1), any amounts not paid to R may be cumulated and paid to S after R's death.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (2)(a).</HED><PSPACE>E is an employer. Q received monthly benefits of $500 in the form of a joint and survivor annuity under E's defined benefit pension plan since retirement from E on July 1, 1980. The amount that E may pay to Q as welfare rather than pension plan payments with respect to the months of July through September of 1980 is computed as follows:
</PSPACE>
<FP>SPF for July 1980:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.043.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>SPF for August 1980:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.044.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>SPF for September 1980:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="39" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.045.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>No supplemental payment may be made as a welfare plan payment with respect to July 1980, the month of retirement. The $3.23 that may be paid with respect to August 1980 may be paid at any time after August 31, 1980. The $7.87 that may be paid with respect to September 1980 may be paid at any time after September 30, 1980.</FP></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (2)(b).</HED><PSPACE>Q dies on October 15, 1980 without having received any supplemental payments from E. T is the beneficiary of Q. E pays T a survivor's annuity of $300 beginning in November of 1980. The amount payable to T as a survivor annuity under the plan has not been increased since Q began to receive pension benefits. Thus, T's PBA is $300. The amount that E may pay to T as welfare rather than pension plan payments with respect to the months of July through November 1980 is computed as follows:
</PSPACE>
<FP>SPF for July 1980 = $0.00
</FP>
<FP>SPF for August 1980 = $3.23
</FP>
<FP>SPF for September 1980 = $7.87
</FP>
<FP>SPF for October 1980:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.046.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>(Note that T's “b” is equal to Q's “b”.)
</FP>
<FP>SPF for November 1980:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="24" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.047.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Total that may be paid to T
</FP>
<FP>The maximum E may pay T with respect to the months of July through November 1980 as welfare rather than pension plan payments is the sum of those months' SPFs, which is $33.58.</FP></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (3).</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as in Example (1)(a), except that R elected to receive a lump-sum distribution rather than a straight-life annuity. If R is unmarried on July 1, 1980, R's PBA is $600 for the remainder of R's life. If R is married to S on July 1, 1980, the PBAs of R and S are based on the annuity that would have been paid under an election to receive a joint and survivor annuity. See paragraph (g)(3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 34530, Aug. 15, 1975, as amended at 44 FR 11763, Mar. 2, 1979; 44 FR 23527, Apr. 20, 1979; 47 FR 50240, Nov. 5, 1982; 47 FR 56847, Dec. 21, 1982; 81 FR 59476, Aug. 30, 2016; 81 FR 92653, Dec. 20, 2016; 82 FR 29237, June 28, 2017] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 82 FR 29236, June 28, 2017, as required by the Congressional Review Act and Public Law 115-35 and Public Law 115-24, the Employee Benefits Security Administration removed all amendments to § 2510.3-2 published at 81 FR 59464, Aug. 30, 2016 and at 81 FR 92639, Dec. 20, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-3   Employee benefit plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section clarifies the definition in section 3(3) of the term “employee benefit plan” for purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter. It states a general principle which can be applied to a large class of plans to determine whether they constitute employee benefit plans within the meaning of section 3(3) of the Act. Under section 4(a) of the Act, only employee benefit plans within the meaning of section 3(3) are subject to title I. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plans without employees.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, the term “employee benefit plan” shall not include any plan, fund or program, other than an apprenticeship or other training program, under which no employees are participants covered under the plan, as defined in paragraph (d) of this section. For example, a so-called “Keogh” or “H.R. 10” plan under which only partners or only a sole proprietor are participants covered under the plan will not be covered under title I. However, a Keogh plan under which one or more common law employees, in addition to the self-employed individuals, are participants covered under the plan, will be covered under title I. Similarly, partnership buyout agreements described in section 736 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 will not be subject to title I. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees.</I> For purposes of this section and except as provided in § 2510.3-55(d):
</P>
<P>(1) An individual and his or her spouse shall not be deemed to be employees with respect to a trade or business, whether incorporated or unincorporated, which is wholly owned by the individual or by the individual and his or her spouse, and 
</P>
<P>(2) A partner in a partnership and his or her spouse shall not be deemed to be employees with respect to the partnership. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Participant covered under the plan.</I> (1)(i) An individual becomes a participant covered under an employee welfare benefit plan on the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(A) The date designated by the plan as the date on which the individual begins participation in the plan; 
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the individual becomes eligible under the plan for a benefit subject only to occurrence of the contingency for which the benefit is provided; or 
</P>
<P>(C) The date on which the individual makes a contribution to the plan, whether voluntary or mandatory. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual becomes a participant covered under an employee pension plan—
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a plan which provides for employee contributions or defines participation to include employees who have not yet retired, on the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The date on which the individual makes a contribution, whether voluntary or mandatory, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date designated by the plan as the date on which the individual has satisfied the plan's age and service requirements for participation, and 
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a plan which does not provide for employee contributions and does not define participation to include employees who have not yet retired, the date on which the individual completes the first year of employment which may be taken into account in determining—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the individual is entitled to benefits under the plan, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The amount of benefits to which the individual is entitled, 
</P>
<FP>whichever results in earlier participation. 
</FP>
<P>(2)(i) An individual is not a participant covered under an employee welfare plan on the earliest date on which the individual—
</P>
<P>(A) Is ineligible to receive any benefit under the plan even if the contingency for which such benefit is provided should occur, and 
</P>
<P>(B) Is not designated by the plan as a participant. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual is not a participant covered under an employee pension plan or a beneficiary receiving benefits under an employee pension plan if—
</P>
<P>(A) The entire benefit rights of the individual—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Are fully guaranteed by an insurance company, insurance service or insurance organization licensed to do business in a State, and are legally enforceable by the sole choice of the individual against the insurance company, insurance service or insurance organization; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A contract, policy or certificate describing the benefits to which the individual is entitled under the plan has been issued to the individual; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The individual has received from the plan a lump-sum distribution or a series of distributions of cash or other property which represents the balance of his or her credit under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) In the case of an employee pension benefit plan, an individual who, under the terms of the plan, has incurred a one-year break in service after having become a participant covered under the plan, and who has acquired no vested right to a benefit before such break in service is not a participant covered under the plan until the individual has completed a year of service after returning to employment covered by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, in the case of an employee pension benefit plan which is subject to section 203 of the Act the term “year of service” shall have the same meaning as in section 203(b)(2)(A) of the Act and any regulations issued under the Act and the term “one-year break in service” shall have the same meaning as in section 203(b)(3)(A) of the Act and any regulations issued under the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 34530, Aug. 15, 1975, as amended at 83 FR 28961, June 21, 2018; 84 FR 37543, July 31, 2019; 89 FR 34127, Apr. 30, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-5   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-16" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-16   Definition of “plan administrator.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The term “plan administrator” or “administrator” means the person specifically so designated by the terms of the instrument under which the plan is operated. If an administrator is not so designated, the plan administrator is the plan sponsor, as defined in section 3(16)(B) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a self-insured group health plan established or maintained by an eligible organization, as defined in § 2590.715-2713A(a) of this chapter, if the eligible organization provides a copy of the self-certification of its objection to administering or funding any contraceptive benefits in accordance with § 2590.715-2713A(b)(1)(ii) of this chapter to a third party administrator, the self-certification shall be an instrument under which the plan is operated, shall be treated as a designation of the third party administrator as the plan administrator under section 3(16) of ERISA for any contraceptive services required to be covered under § 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv) of this chapter to which the eligible organization objects on religious grounds, and shall supersede any earlier designation. If, instead, the eligible organization notifies the Secretary of Health and Human Services of its objection to administering or funding any contraceptive benefits in accordance with § 2590.715-2713A(b)(1)(ii) of this chapter, the Department of Labor, working with the Department of Health and Human Services, shall separately provide notification to each third party administrator that such third party administrator shall be the plan administrator under section 3(16) of ERISA for any contraceptive services required to be covered under § 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv) of this chapter to which the eligible organization objects on religious grounds, with respect to benefits for contraceptive services that the third party administrator would otherwise manage. Such notification from the Department of Labor shall be an instrument under which the plan is operated and shall supersede any earlier designation.
</P>
<P>(c) A third party administrator that becomes a plan administrator pursuant to this section shall be responsible for—
</P>
<P>(1) Complying with section 2713 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300gg-13) (as incorporated into section 715 of ERISA) and § 2590.715-2713 of this chapter with respect to coverage of contraceptive services. To the extent the plan contracts with different third party administrators for different classifications of benefits (such as prescription drug benefits versus inpatient and outpatient benefits), each third party administrator is responsible for providing contraceptive coverage that complies with section 2713 of the Public Health Service Act (as incorporated into section 715 of ERISA) and § 2590.715-2713 of this chapter with respect to the classification or classifications of benefits subject to its contract.
</P>
<P>(2) Establishing and operating a procedure for determining such claims for contraceptive services in accordance with § 2560.503-1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Complying with disclosure and other requirements applicable to group health plans under Title I of ERISA with respect to such benefits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 39894, July 2, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 51099, Aug. 27, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-21" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-21   Definition of “Fiduciary.”</HEAD>
<P>(a)-(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment advice.</I> (1) A person shall be deemed to be rendering “investment advice” to an employee benefit plan, within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) and this paragraph, only if:
</P>
<P>(i) Such person renders advice to the plan as to the value of securities or other property, or makes recommendation as to the advisability of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities or other property; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such person either directly or indirectly (<I>e.g.,</I> through or together with any affiliate)—
</P>
<P>(A) Has discretionary authority or control, whether or not pursuant to agreement, arrangement or understanding, with respect to purchasing or selling securities or other property for the plan; or
</P>
<P>(B) Renders any advice described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section on a regular basis to the plan pursuant to a mutual agreement, arrangement or understanding, written or otherwise, between such person and the plan or a fiduciary with respect to the plan, that such services will serve as a primary basis for investment decisions with respect to plan assets, and that such person will render individualized investment advice to the plan based on the particular needs of the plan regarding such matters as, among other things, investment policies or strategy, overall portfolio composition, or diversification of plan investments.
</P>
<P>(2) A person who is a fiduciary with respect to a plan by reason of rendering investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan, or having any authority or responsibility to do so, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary regarding any assets of the plan with respect to which such person does not have any discretionary authority, discretionary control or discretionary responsibility, does not exercise any authority or control, does not render investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, and does not have any authority or responsibility to render such investment advice, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed to:
</P>
<P>(i) Exempt such person from the provisions of section 405(a) of the Act concerning liability for fiduciary breaches by other fiduciaries with respect to any assets of the plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclude such person from the definition of the term “party in interest” (as set forth in section 3(14)(B) of the Act) with respect to any assets of the plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Execution of securities transactions.</I> (1) A person who is a broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, a reporting dealer who makes primary markets in securities of the United States Government or of an agency of the United States Government and reports daily to the Federal Reserve Bank of New York its positions with respect to such securities and borrowings thereon, or a bank supervised by the United States or a State, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary, within the meaning of section 3(21)(A) of the Act, with respect to an employee benefit plan solely because such person executes transactions for the purchase or sale of securities on behalf of such plan in the ordinary course of its business as a broker, dealer, or bank, pursuant to instructions of a fiduciary with respect to such plan, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Neither the fiduciary nor any affiliate of such fiduciary is such broker, dealer, or bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The instructions specify:
</P>
<P>(A) The security to be purchased or sold;
</P>
<P>(B) A price range within which such security is to be purchased or sold, or, if such security is issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1, <I>et seq.</I>), a price which is determined in accordance with Rule 22c-1 under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (17 CFR 270.22c-1);
</P>
<P>(C) A time span during which such security may be purchased or sold (not to exceed five business days); and
</P>
<P>(D) The minimum or maximum quantity of such security which may be purchased or sold within such price range, or, in the case of a security issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the minimum or maximum quantity of such security which may be purchased or sold, or the value of such security in dollar amount which may be purchased or sold, at the price referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A person who is a broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank which is a fiduciary with respect to an employee benefit plan solely by reason of the possession or exercise of discretionary authority or discretionary control in the management of the plan or the management or disposition of plan assets in connection with the execution of a transaction or transactions for the purchase or sale of securities on behalf of such plan which fails to comply with the provisions of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary regarding any assets of the plan with respect to which such broker-dealer, reporting dealer or bank does not have any discretionary authority, discretionary control or discretionary responsibility, does not exercise any authority or control, does not render investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, and does not have any authority or responsibility to render such investment advice, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed to:
</P>
<P>(i) Exempt such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank from the provisions of section 405(a) of the Act concerning liability for fiduciary breaches by other fiduciaries with respect to any assets of the plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclude such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank from the definition, of the term “party in interest” (as set forth in section 3(14)(B) of the Act) with respect to any assets of the plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Affiliate and control.</I> (1) For purposes of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, an “affiliate” of a person shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such person;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any officer, director, partner, employee or relative (as defined in section 3(15) of the Act) of such person; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any corporation or partnership of which such person is an officer, director or partner.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph, the term “control” means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 13509, Mar. 20, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-37" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-37   Multiemployer plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 3(37) of the Act contains in paragraphs (a)(i)-(iv) a number of criteria which an employee benefit plan must meet in order to be a multiemployer plan under the Act. Section 3(37) also provides that the Secretary may prescribe by regulation other requirements in addition to those contained in paragraphs (a)(i)-(iv). The purpose of this regulation is to establish such requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plans in existence before the effective date.</I> (1) A plan in existence before September 2, 1974, will be considered a multiemployer plan if it satisfies the requirements of section 3(37)(A)(i)-(iv) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a plan is considered to be in existence if: 
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The plan was reduced to writing and adopted by the participating employers and the employee organization (including, in the case of a corporate employer, formal approval by an employer's board of directors or shareholders, if required), even though no amounts had been contributed under the plan, and 
</P>
<P>(B) The plan has not been terminated; or 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) There was a legally enforceable agreement to establish such a plan signed by the employers and the employee organization, and 
</P>
<P>(B) The contributions to be made to the plan were set forth in the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If a plan was in existence within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section, any other plan with which such existing plan is merged or consolidated shall also be considered to be in existence. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plans not in existence before the effective date.</I> In addition to the provisions of section 3(37)(A)(i)-(iv) of the Act, a multiemployer plan established on or after September 2, 1974, must meet the requirement that it was established for a substantial business purpose. A substantial business purpose includes the interest of a labor organization in securing an employee benefit plan for its members. The following factors are relevant in determining whether a substantial business purpose existed for the establishment of a plan; any single factor may be sufficient to constitute a substantial business purpose: 
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which the plan is maintained by a substantial number of unaffiliated contributing employers and covers a substantial portion of the trade, craft or industry in terms of employees or a substantial number of the employees in the trade, craft or industry in a locality or geographic area; 
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which the plan provides benefits more closely related to years of service within the trade, craft or industry rather than with an employer, reflecting the fact that an employee's relationship with an employer maintaining the plan is generally short-term although service in the trade, craft or industry is generally long-term; 
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which collective bargaining takes place on matters other than employee benefit plans between the employee organization and the employers maintaining the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The extent to which the administrative burden and expense of providing benefits through single employer plans would be greater than through a multiemployer plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52008, Nov. 7, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-38" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-38   Filing requirements for State registered investment advisers to be investment managers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 3(38) of the Act sets forth the criteria for a fiduciary to be an investment manager for purposes of section 405 of the Act. Subparagraph (B)(ii) of section 3(38) of the Act provides that, in the case of a fiduciary who is not registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 by reason of paragraph (1) of section 203A(a) of such Act, the fiduciary must be registered as an investment adviser under the laws of the State in which it maintains its principal office and place of business, and, at the time the fiduciary files registration forms with such State to maintain the fiduciary's registration under the laws of such State, also files a copy of such forms with the Secretary of Labor. The purpose of this section is to set forth the exclusive means for investment advisers to satisfy the filing obligation with the Secretary described in subparagraph (B)(ii) of section 3(38) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing requirement.</I> To satisfy the filing requirement with the Secretary in section 3(38)(B)(ii) of the Act, a fiduciary must be registered as an investment adviser with the State in which it maintains its principal office and place of business and file through the Investment Adviser Registration Depository (IARD), in accordance with applicable IARD requirements, the information required to be registered and maintain the fiduciary's registration as an investment adviser in such State. Submitting to the Secretary investment adviser registration forms filed with a State does not constitute compliance with the filing requirement in section 3(38)(B)(ii) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “Investment Adviser Registration Depository” or “IARD” means the centralized electronic depository described in 17 CFR 275.203-1.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cross reference.</I> Information for investment advisers on how to file through the IARD is available on the Securities and Exchange Commission website at <I>www.sec.gov/iard.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 52125, Aug. 24, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-40" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-40   Plans Established or Maintained Under or Pursuant to Collective Bargaining Agreements Under Section 3(40)(A) of ERISA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> Section 3(40)(A) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) provides that the term “multiple employer welfare arrangement” (MEWA) does not include an employee welfare benefit plan that is established or maintained under or pursuant to one or more agreements that the Secretary of Labor (the Secretary) finds to be collective bargaining agreements. This section sets forth criteria that represent a finding by the Secretary whether an arrangement is an employee welfare benefit plan established or maintained under or pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements. A plan is established or maintained under or pursuant to collective bargaining if it meets the criteria in this section. However, even if an entity meets the criteria in this section, it will not be an employee welfare benefit plan established or maintained under or pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement if it comes within the exclusions in the section. Nothing in or pursuant to this section shall constitute a finding for any purpose other than the exception for plans established or maintained under or pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements under section 3(40) of ERISA. In a particular case where there is an attempt to assert state jurisdiction or the application of state law with respect to a plan or other arrangement that allegedly is covered under Title I of ERISA, the Secretary has set forth a procedure for obtaining individualized findings at 29 CFR part 2570, subpart H. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General criteria.</I> The Secretary finds, for purposes of section 3(40) of ERISA, that an employee welfare benefit plan is “established or maintained under or pursuant to one or more agreements which the Secretary finds to be collective bargaining agreements” for any plan year in which the plan meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section, and is not excluded under paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The entity is an employee welfare benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(1) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(2) At least 85% of the participants in the plan are: 
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals employed under one or more agreements meeting the criteria of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, under which contributions are made to the plan, or pursuant to which coverage under the plan is provided; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Retirees who either participated in the plan at least five of the last 10 years preceding their retirement, or 
</P>
<P>(A) Are receiving benefits as participants under a multiemployer pension benefit plan that is maintained under the same agreements referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and 
</P>
<P>(B) Have at least five years of service or the equivalent under that multiemployer pension benefit plan; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Participants on extended coverage under the plan pursuant to the requirements of a statute or court or administrative agency decision, including but not limited to the continuation coverage requirements of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, sections 601-609, 29 U.S.C. 1169, the Family and Medical Leave Act, 29 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.,</I> the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994, 38 U.S.C. 4301 <I>et seq.,</I> or the National Labor Relations Act, 29 U.S.C. 158(a)(5); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Participants who were active participants and whose coverage is otherwise extended under the terms of the plan, including but not limited to extension by reason of self-payment, hour bank, long or short-term disability, furlough, or temporary unemployment, provided that the charge to the individual for such extended coverage is no more than the applicable premium under section 604 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(v) Participants whose coverage under the plan is maintained pursuant to a reciprocal agreement with one or more other employee welfare benefit plans that are established or maintained under or pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements and that are multiemployer plans;
</P>
<P>(vi) Individuals employed by:
</P>
<P>(A) An employee organization that sponsors, jointly sponsors, or is represented on the association, committee, joint board of trustees, or other similar group of representatives of the parties who sponsor the plan;
</P>
<P>(B) The plan or associated trust fund;
</P>
<P>(C) Other employee benefit plans or trust funds to which contributions are made pursuant to the same agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(D) An employer association that is the authorized employer representative that actually engaged in the collective bargaining that led to the agreement that references the plan as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) Individuals who were employed under an agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, provided that they are employed by one or more employers that are parties to an agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) and are covered under the plan on terms that are generally no more favorable than those that apply to similarly situated individuals described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(viii) Individuals (other than individuals described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section) who are employed by employers that are bound by the terms of an agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and that employ personnel covered by such agreement, and who are covered under the plan on terms that are generally no more favorable than those that apply to such covered personnel. For this purpose, such individuals in excess of 10% of the total population of participants in the plan are disregarded;
</P>
<P>(ix) Individuals who are, or were for a period of at least three years, employed under one or more agreements between or among one or more “carriers” (including “carriers by air”) and one or more “representatives” of employees for collective bargaining purposes and as defined by the Railway Labor Act, 45 U.S.C. 151 <I>et seq.,</I> providing for such individuals' current or subsequent participation in the plan, or providing for contributions to be made to the plan by such carriers; or
</P>
<P>(x) Individuals who are licensed marine pilots operating in United States ports as a state-regulated enterprise and are covered under an employee welfare benefit plan that meets the definition of a qualified merchant marine plan, as defined in section 415(b)(2)(F) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C.).
</P>
<P>(3) The plan is incorporated or referenced in a written agreement between one or more employers and one or more employee organizations, which agreement, itself or together with other agreements among the same parties:
</P>
<P>(i) Is the product of a <I>bona fide</I> collective bargaining relationship between the employers and the employee organization(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Identifies employers and employee organization(s) that are parties to and bound by the agreement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identifies the personnel, job classifications, and/or work jurisdiction covered by the agreement;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides for terms and conditions of employment in addition to coverage under, or contributions to, the plan; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is not unilaterally terminable or automatically terminated solely for non-payment of benefits under, or contributions to, the plan.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the following factors, among others, are to be considered in determining the existence of a bona fide collective bargaining relationship. In any proceeding initiated under 29 CFR part 2570 subpart H, the existence of a bona fide collective bargaining relationship under paragraph (b)(3)(i) shall be presumed where at least four of the factors set out in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) through (viii) of this section are established. In such a proceeding, the Secretary may also consider whether other objective or subjective indicia of actual collective bargaining and representation are present as set out in paragraph (b)(4)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section provides for contributions to a labor-management trust fund structured according to section 302(c)(5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of the Taft-Hartley Act, 29 U.S.C. 186(c)(5), (6), (7), (8) or (9), or to a plan lawfully negotiated under the Railway Labor Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section requires contributions by substantially all of the participating employers to a multiemployer pension plan that is structured in accordance with section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C.) and is either structured in accordance with section 302(c)(5) of the Taft-Hartley Act, 29 U.S.C. 186(c)(5), or is lawfully negotiated under the Railway Labor Act, and substantially all of the active participants covered by the employee welfare benefit plan are also eligible to become participants in that pension plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The predominant employee organization that is a party to the agreement referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section has maintained a series of agreements incorporating or referencing the plan since before January 1, 1983;
</P>
<P>(iv) The predominant employee organization that is a party to the agreement referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section has been a national or international union, or a federation of national and international unions, or has been affiliated with such a union or federation, since before January 1, 1983;
</P>
<P>(v) A court, government agency, or other third-party adjudicatory tribunal has determined, in a contested or adversary proceeding, or in a government-supervised election, that the predominant employee organization that is a party to the agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section is the lawfully recognized or designated collective bargaining representative with respect to one or more bargaining units of personnel covered by such agreement;
</P>
<P>(vi) Employers who are parties to the agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section pay at least 75% of the premiums or contributions required for the coverage of active participants under the plan or, in the case of a retiree-only plan, the employers pay at least 75% of the premiums or contributions required for the coverage of the retirees. For this purpose, coverage under the plan for dental or vision care, coverage for excepted benefits under 29 CFR 2590.732(b), and amounts paid by participants and beneficiaries as co-payments or deductibles in accordance with the terms of the plan are disregarded;
</P>
<P>(vii) The predominant employee organization that is a party to the agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section provides, sponsors, or jointly sponsors a hiring hall(s) and/or a state-certified apprenticeship program(s) that provides services that are available to substantially all active participants covered by the plan;
</P>
<P>(viii) The agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section has been determined to be a <I>bona fide</I> collective bargaining agreement for purposes of establishing the prevailing practices with respect to wages and supplements in a locality, pursuant to a prevailing wage statute of any state or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(ix) There are other objective or subjective indicia of actual collective bargaining and representation, such as that arm's-length negotiations occurred between the parties to the agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; that the predominant employee organization that is party to such agreement actively represents employees covered by such agreement with respect to grievances, disputes, or other matters involving employment terms and conditions other than coverage under, or contributions to, the employee welfare benefit plan; that there is a geographic, occupational, trade, organizing, or other rationale for the employers and bargaining units covered by such agreement; that there is a connection between such agreement and the participation, if any, of self-employed individuals in the employee welfare benefit plan established or maintained under or pursuant to such agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusions.</I> An employee welfare benefit plan shall not be deemed to be “established or maintained under or pursuant to one or more agreements which the Secretary finds to be collective bargaining agreements” for any plan year in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The plan is self-funded or partially self-funded and is marketed to employers or sole proprietors
</P>
<P>(i) By one or more insurance producers as defined in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) By an individual who is disqualified from, or ineligible for, or has failed to obtain, a license to serve as an insurance producer to the extent that the individual engages in an activity for which such license is required; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By individuals (other than individuals described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section) who are paid on a commission-type basis to market the plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) For the purposes of this paragraph (c)(1):
</P>
<P>(A) “Marketing” does not include administering the plan, consulting with plan sponsors, counseling on benefit design or coverage, or explaining the terms of coverage available under the plan to employees or union members;
</P>
<P>(B) “Marketing” does include the marketing of union membership that carries with it plan participation by virtue of such membership, except for membership in unions representing insurance producers themselves;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement under which the plan is established or maintained is a scheme, plan, stratagem, or artifice of evasion, a principal intent of which is to evade compliance with state law and regulations applicable to insurance; or
</P>
<P>(3) There is fraud, forgery, or willful misrepresentation as to the factors relied on to demonstrate that the plan satisfies the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Active participant</I> means a participant who is not retired and who is not on extended coverage under paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) or (b)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agreement</I> means the contract embodying the terms and conditions mutually agreed upon between or among the parties to such agreement. Where the singular is used in this section, the plural is automatically included.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Individual employed</I> means any natural person who furnishes services to another person or entity in the capacity of an employee under common law, without regard to any specialized definitions or interpretations of the terms “employee,” “employer,” or “employed” under federal or state statutes other than ERISA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Insurance producer</I> means an agent, broker, consultant, or producer who is an individual, entity, or sole proprietor that is licensed under the laws of the state to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Predominant employee organization</I> means, where more than one employee organization is a party to an agreement, either the organization representing the plurality of individuals employed under such agreement, or organizations that in combination represent the majority of such individuals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples.</I> The operation of the provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Plan A has 500 participants, in the following 4 categories of participants under paragraph (b)(2) of this section:
</PSPACE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Categories of
<br/>participants 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total
<br/>number 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nexus group 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-nexus 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Individuals working under CBAs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">335 (67%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">335 (67%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0    
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Retirees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 (10%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 (10%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0    
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. “Special Class”—Non-CBA, non-CBA-alumni</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 (20%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 (10%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 (10%) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Non-nexus participants</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 (3%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0    </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 (3%) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500 (100%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">435 (87%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65 (13%)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV><PSPACE>In determining whether at least 85% of Plan A's participant population is made up of individuals with the required nexus to the collective bargaining agreement as required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Plan may count as part of the nexus group only 50 (10% of the total plan population) of the 100 individuals described in paragraph (b)(2)(viii) of this section. That is because the number of individuals meeting the category of individuals in paragraph (b)(2)(viii) exceeds 10% of the total participant population by 50 individuals. The paragraph specifies that of those individuals who would otherwise be deemed to be nexus individuals because they are the type of individuals described in paragraph (b)(2)(viii), the number in excess of 10% of the total plan population may not be counted in the nexus group. Here, 50 of the 100 individuals employed by signatory employers, but not covered by the collective bargaining agreement, are counted as nexus individuals and 50 are not counted as nexus individuals. Nonetheless, the Plan satisfies the 85% criterion under paragraph (b)(2) because a total of 435 (335 individuals covered by the collective bargaining agreement, plus 50 retirees, plus 50 individuals employed by signatory employers), or 87%, of the 500 participants in Plan A are individuals who may be counted as nexus participants under paragraph (b)(2). Beneficiaries (e.g., spouses, dependent children, etc.) are not counted to determine whether the 85% test has been met.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) International Union MG and its Local Unions have represented people working primarily in a particular industry for over 60 years. Since 1950, most of their collective bargaining agreements have called for those workers to be covered by the National MG Health and Welfare Plan. During that time, the number of union-represented workers in the industry, and the number of active participants in the National MG Health and Welfare Plan, first grew and then declined. New Locals were formed and later were shut down. Despite these fluctuations, the National MG Health and Welfare Plan meets the factors described in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii) and (iv) of this section, as the plan has been in existence pursuant to collective bargaining agreements to which the International Union and its affiliates have been parties since before January 1, 1983.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) Assume the same facts, except that on January 1, 1999, International Union MG merged with International Union RE to form International Union MRGE. MRGE and its Locals now represent the active participants in the National MG Health and Welfare Plan and in the National RE Health and Welfare Plan, which, for 45 years, had been maintained under collective bargaining agreements negotiated by International Union RE and its Locals. Since International Union MRGE is the continuation of, and successor to, the MG and RE unions, the two plans continue to meet the factors in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii) and (iv) of this section. This also would be true if the two plans were merged.
</P><P>(iii) Assume the same facts as in paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this Example. In addition to maintaining the health and welfare plans described in those paragraphs, International Union MG also maintained the National MG Pension Plan and International Union RE maintained the National RE Pension Plan. When the unions merged and the health and welfare plans were merged, National MG Pension Plan and National RE Pension Plan were merged to form National MRGE Pension Plan. When the unions merged, the employees and retirees covered under the pre-merger plans continued to be covered under the post-merger plans pursuant to the collective bargaining agreements and also were given credit in the post-merger plans for their years of service and coverage in the pre-merger plans. Retirees who originally were covered under the pre-merger plans and continue to be covered under the post-merger plans based on their past service and coverage would be considered to be “retirees” for purposes of 2550.3-40(b)(2)(ii). Likewise, bargaining unit alumni who were covered under the pre-merger plans and continued to be covered under the post-merger plans based on their past service and coverage and their continued employment with employers that are parties to an agreement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section would be considered to be bargaining unit alumni for purposes of 2550.3-40(b)(2)(vii).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as in paragraph (ii) of Example 2 with respect to International Union MG. However, in 1997, one of its Locals and the employers with which it negotiates agree to set up a new multiemployer health and welfare plan that only covers the individuals represented by that Local Union. That plan would not meet the factor in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section, as it has not been incorporated or referenced in collective bargaining agreements since before January 1, 1983.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) Pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement between various employers and Local 2000, the employers contribute $2 per hour to the Fund for every hour that a covered employee works under the agreement. The covered employees are automatically entitled to health and disability coverage from the Fund for every calendar quarter the employees have 300 hours of additional covered service in the preceding quarter. The employees do not need to make any additional contributions for their own coverage, but must pay $250 per month if they want health coverage for their dependent spouse and children. Because the employer payments cover 100% of the required contributions for the employees' own coverage, the Local 2000 Employers Health and Welfare Fund meets the “75% employer payment” factor under paragraph (b)(4)(vi) of this section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) Assume, however, that the negotiated employer contribution rate was $1 per hour, and the employees could only obtain health coverage for themselves if they also elected to contribute $1 per hour, paid on a pre-tax basis through salary reduction. The Fund would not meet the 75% employer payment factor, even though the employees' contributions are treated as employer contributions for tax purposes. Under ERISA, and therefore under this section, elective salary reduction contributions are treated as employee contributions. The outcome would be the same if a uniform employee contribution rate applied to all employees, whether they had individual or family coverage, so that the $1 per hour employee contribution qualified an employee for his or her own coverage and, if he or she had dependents, dependent coverage as well.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>Arthur is a licensed insurance broker, one of whose clients is Multiemployer Fund M, a partially self-funded plan. Arthur takes bids from insurance companies on behalf of Fund M for the insured portion of its coverage, helps the trustees to evaluate the bids, and places the Fund's health insurance coverage with the carrier that is selected. Arthur also assists the trustees of Fund M in preparing material to explain the plan and its benefits to the participants, as well as in monitoring the insurance company's performance under the contract. At the Trustees' request, Arthur meets with a group of employers with which the union is negotiating for their employees' coverage under Fund M, and he explains the cost structure and benefits that Fund M provides. Arthur is not engaged in marketing within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, so the fact that he provides these administrative services and sells insurance to the Fund itself does not affect the plan's status as a plan established or maintained under or pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement. This is the case whether or how he is compensated.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as Example 5, except that Arthur has a group of clients who are unrelated to the employers bound by the collective bargaining agreement, whose employees would not be “nexus group” members, and whose insurance carrier has withdrawn from the market in their locality. He persuades the client group to retain him to find them other coverage. The client group has no relationship with the labor union that represents the participants in Fund M. However, Arthur offers them coverage under Fund M and persuades the Fund's Trustees to allow the client group to join Fund M in order to broaden Fund M's contribution base. Arthur's activities in obtaining coverage for the unrelated group under Fund M constitutes marketing through an insurance producer; Fund M is a MEWA under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>Union A represents thousands of construction workers in a three-state geographic region. For many years, Union A has maintained a standard written collective bargaining agreement with several hundred large and small building contractors, covering wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment for all work performed in Union A's geographic territory. The terms of those agreements are negotiated every three years between Union A and a multiemployer Association, which signs on behalf of those employers who have delegated their bargaining authority to the Association. Hundreds of other employers—including both local and traveling contractors—have chosen to become bound to the terms of Union A's standard area agreement for various periods of time and in various ways, such as by signing short-form binders or “me too” agreements, executing a single job or project labor agreement, or entering into a subcontracting arrangement with a signatory employer. All of these employ individuals represented by Union A and contribute to Plan A, a self-insured multiemployer health and welfare plan established and maintained under Union A's standard area agreement. During the past year, the trustees of Plan A have brought lawsuits against several signatory employers seeking contributions allegedly owed, but not paid to the trust. In defending that litigation, a number of employers have sworn that they never intended to operate as union contractors, that their employees want nothing to do with Union A, that Union A procured their assent to the collective bargaining agreement solely by threats and fraudulent misrepresentations, and that Union A has failed to file certain reports required by the Labor Management Reporting and Disclosure Act. In at least one instance, a petition for a decertification election has been filed with the National Labor Relations Board. In this example, Plan A meets the criteria for a regulatory finding under this section that it is a multiemployer plan established and maintained under or pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements, assuming that its participant population satisfies the 85% test of paragraph (b)(2) of this section and that none of the disqualifying factors in paragraph (c) of this section is present. Plan A's status for the purpose of this section is not affected by the fact that some of the employers who deal with Union A have challenged Union A's conduct, or have disputed under labor statutes and legal doctrines other than ERISA section 3(40) the validity and enforceability of their putative contract with Union A, regardless of the outcome of those disputes.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as Example 7. Plan A's benefits consultant recently entered into an arrangement with the Medical Consortium, a newly formed organization of health care providers, which allows the Plan to offer a broader range of health services to Plan A's participants while achieving cost savings to the Plan and to participants. Union A, Plan A, and Plan A's consultant each have added a page to their Web sites publicizing the new arrangement with the Medical Consortium. Concurrently, Medical Consortium's Web site prominently publicizes its recent affiliation with Plan A and the innovative services it makes available to the Plan's participants. Union A has mailed out informational packets to its members describing the benefit enhancements and encouraging election of family coverage. Union A has also begun distributing similar material to workers on hundreds of non-union construction job sites within its geographic territory. In this example, Plan A remains a plan established and maintained under or pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements under section 3(40) of ERISA. Neither Plan A's relationship with a new organization of health care providers, nor the use of various media to publicize Plan A's attractive benefits throughout the area served by Union A, alters Plan A's status for purpose of this section.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 9.</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as in Example 7. Union A undertakes an area-wide organizing campaign among the employees of all the health care providers who belong to the Medical Consortium. When soliciting individual employees to sign up as union members, Union A distributes Plan A's information materials and promises to bargain for the same coverage. At the same time, when appealing to the employers in the Medical Consortium for voluntary recognition, Union A promises to publicize the Consortium's status as a group of unionized health care service providers. Union A eventually succeeds in obtaining recognition based on its majority status among the employees working for Medical Consortium employers. The Consortium, acting on behalf of its employer members, negotiates a collective bargaining agreement with Union A that provides terms and conditions of employment, including coverage under Plan A. In this example, Plan A still meets the criteria for a regulatory finding that it is collectively bargained under section 3(40) of ERISA. Union A's recruitment and representation of a new occupational category of workers unrelated to the construction trade, its promotion of attractive health benefits to achieve organizing success, and the Plan's resultant growth, do not take Plan A outside the regulatory finding.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 10.</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as in Example 7. The Medical Consortium, a newly formed organization, approaches Plan A with a proposal to make money for Plan A and Union A by enrolling a large group of employers, their employees, and self-employed individuals affiliated with the Medical Consortium. The Medical Consortium obtains employers' signatures on a generic document bearing Union A's name, labeled “collective bargaining agreement,” which provides for health coverage under Plan A and compliance with wage and hour statutes, as well as other employment laws. Employees of signatory employers sign enrollment documents for Plan A and are issued membership cards in Union A; their membership dues are regularly checked off along with their monthly payments for health coverage. Self-employed individuals similarly receive union membership cards and make monthly payments, which are divided between Plan A and the Union. Aside from health coverage matters, these new participants have little or no contact with Union A. The new participants enrolled through the Consortium amount to 18% of the population of Plan A during the current Plan Year. In this example, Plan A now fails to meet the criteria in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, because more than 15% of its participants are individuals who are not employed under agreements that are the product of a <I>bona fide</I> collective bargaining relationship and who do not fall within any of the other nexus categories set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Moreover, even if the number of additional participants enrolled through the Medical Consortium, together with any other participants who did not fall within any of the nexus categories, did not exceed 15% of the total participant population under the plan, the circumstances in this example would trigger the disqualification of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, because Plan A now is being maintained under a substantial number of agreements that are a “scheme, plan, stratagem or artifice of evasion” intended primarily to evade compliance with state laws and regulations pertaining to insurance. In either case, the consequence of adding the participants through the Medical Consortium is that Plan A is now a MEWA for purposes of section 3(40) of ERISA and is not exempt from state regulation by virtue of ERISA.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Cross-reference.</I> <I>See</I> 29 CFR part 2570, subpart H for procedural rules relating to proceedings seeking an Administrative Law Judge finding by the Secretary under section 3(40) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of proceeding seeking Administrative Law Judge Section 3(40) Finding.</I> (1) An Administrative Law Judge finding issued pursuant to the procedures in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart H will constitute a finding whether the entity in that proceeding is an employee welfare benefit plan established or maintained under or pursuant to an agreement that the Secretary finds to be a collective bargaining agreement for purposes of section 3(40) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section or in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart H is intended to provide the basis for a stay or delay of a state administrative or court proceeding or enforcement of a subpoena.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 17480, Apr. 9, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-44" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-44   Registration requirement to serve as a pooled plan provider to pooled employer plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 3(44) of the Act sets forth the criteria that a person must meet to be a pooled plan provider for pooled employer plans under section 3(43) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Registration requirement.</I> Subparagraph (A)(ii) of section 3(44) requires the person to register as a pooled plan provider with the Department and provide such other information as the Department may require, before beginning operations as a pooled plan provider. For this purpose, “beginning operations as a pooled plan provider” means the initiation of operations of the first plan that the person operates as a pooled employer plan, as described in paragraph (b)(6) of this section. To meet the requirements to register with the Department under section 3(44) of the Act, a person intending to act as a pooled plan provider must:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 30 days before beginning operations as a pooled plan provider, file with the Department the following information on a complete and accurate Form PR (Pooled Plan Provider Registration) in accordance with the form's instructions.
</P>
<P>(i) The legal business name and any trade name (doing business as) of such person.
</P>
<P>(ii) The business mailing address and phone number of such person.
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer identification number (EIN) assigned to such person by the Internal Revenue Service.
</P>
<P>(iv) The address of any public website or websites of the pooled plan provider or any affiliates to be used to market any such person as a pooled plan provider to the public or to provide public information on the pooled employer plans operated by the pooled plan provider.
</P>
<P>(v) Name, address, contact telephone number, and email address for the responsible compliance official of the pooled plan provider. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(v), the term “responsible compliance official” means the person or persons, identified by name, title, or office, responsible for addressing questions regarding the pooled plan provider's status under, or compliance with, applicable provisions of the Act and the Internal Revenue Code as pertaining to a pooled employer plan.
</P>
<P>(vi) The agent for service of legal process for the pooled plan provider, and the address at which process may be served on such agent.
</P>
<P>(vii) The approximate date when pooled plan operations are expected to commence.
</P>
<P>(viii) An identification of the administrative, investment, and fiduciary services that will be offered or provided in connection with the pooled employer plans by the pooled plan provider or an affiliate. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(viii), the term “affiliate” includes all persons who are treated as a single employer with the person intending to be a pooled plan provider under section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) of the Internal Revenue Code who will provide services to pooled employer plans sponsored by the pooled plan provider and any officer, director, partner, employee, or relative (as defined in section 3(15) of the Act) of such person; and any corporation or partnership of which such person is an officer, director, or partner.
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement disclosing any ongoing Federal or State criminal proceedings, or any Federal or State criminal conviction, related to the provision of services to, operation of, or investments of, any employee benefit plan, against the pooled plan provider, or any officer, director, or employee of the pooled plan provider, provided that any criminal conviction may be omitted if the conviction, or related term of imprisonment served, is outside ten years of the date of registration.
</P>
<P>(x) A statement disclosing any ongoing civil or administrative proceedings in any court or administrative tribunal by the Federal or State government or other regulatory authority against the pooled plan provider, or any officer, director, or employee of the pooled plan provider, involving a claim of fraud or dishonesty with respect to any employee benefit plan, or involving the mismanagement of plan assets.
</P>
<P>(2) No later than the initiation of operations of a plan as a pooled employer plan, as described in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, file with the Department a supplemental report using the Form PR containing the name and plan number that the pooled employer plan will use for annual reporting purposes, and the name, address, and EIN for the trustee for the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) File with the Department a supplemental report using the Form PR within the later of 30 days after the calendar quarter in which the following reportable events occurred or 45 days after a following reportable event occurred:
</P>
<P>(i) Any change in the information reported pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section unless otherwise disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any significant change in corporate or business structure of the pooled plan provider, <I>e.g.,</I> merger, acquisition, or initiation of bankruptcy, receivership, or other insolvency proceeding for the pooled plan provider or an affiliate that provides services to a pooled employer plan, or ceasing all operations as a pooled plan provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) Receipt of written notice of the initiation of any administrative proceeding or civil enforcement action in any court or administrative tribunal by any Federal or State governmental agency or other regulatory authority against the pooled plan provider, or any officer, director, or employee of the pooled plan provider involving a claim of fraud or dishonesty with respect to any employee benefit plan, or involving the mismanagement of plan assets.
</P>
<P>(iv) Receipt of written notice of a finding involving a claim of fraud or dishonesty with respect to any employee benefit plan, or involving the mismanagement of plan assets in any matter described in paragraph (b)(1)(x) or (b)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Receipt of written notice of the filing of any Federal or State criminal charges related to the provision of services to, operation of, or investments of any pooled employer plan or other employee benefit plan against the pooled plan provider or any officer, director, or employee of the pooled plan provider.
</P>
<P>(4) Only one registration must be filed for each person intending to act as a pooled plan provider, regardless of the number of pooled employer plans it operates. A pooled plan provider must file updates for each pooled employer plan described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, any change of previously reported information, and any change in circumstances listed in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, but may file a single statement to report multiple changes, as long as the timing requirements are met with respect to each reportable change.
</P>
<P>(5) If a pooled plan provider has terminated and ceased operating all pooled employer plans, the pooled plan provider must file a final supplemental filing in accordance with instructions for the Form PR. For purposes of this section, a pooled employer plan is treated as having terminated and ceased operating when a resolution has been adopted terminating the plan, all assets under the plan (including insurance/annuity contracts) have been distributed to the participants and beneficiaries or legally transferred to the control of another plan, and a final Form 5500 has been filed for the plan.
</P>
<P>(6) For purposes of this section, a person is treated as initiating operations of a plan as a pooled employer plan when the first employer executes or adopts a participation, subscription, or similar agreement for the plan specifying that it is a pooled employer plan, or, if earlier, when the trustee of the plan first holds any asset in trust.
</P>
<P>(7) Registrations required under this section shall be filed with the Secretary electronically on the Form PR in accordance with the Form PR instructions published by the Department.
</P>
<P>(8) For purposes of this section, the term “administrative proceeding” or “administrative proceedings” means a judicial-type proceeding of public record before an administrative law judge or similar decision-maker.
</P>
<P>(9) For purposes of this section, the term “other regulatory authority” means Federal or State authorities and self-regulatory organizations authorized by law, but does not include any foreign regulatory authorities.
</P>
<P>(10) For purposes of paragraphs (b)(1)(ix) and (x) and (b)(3)(iii) and (v) of this section, employees of the pooled plan provider include employees of the pooled employer plan, but only if they handle assets of the plan, within the meaning of section 412 of the Act, or if they are responsible for operations or investments of the pooled employer plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transition rule.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a person intending to act as a pooled plan provider may file the Form PR on or before beginning operations as a pooled plan provider (dispensing with the 30-day advance filing requirement) if the filing is made before February 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acquittals and removal of information.</I> A pooled plan provider may file an update to remove any matter previously reported under paragraph (b)(1)(ix) or (b)(3)(v) of this section for which the defendant has received an acquittal. For this purpose, the term “acquittal” means a finding by a judge or jury that a defendant is not guilty or any other dismissal or judgment which the government may not appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72955, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-55" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-55   Definition of employer—Association Retirement Plans and other multiple employer pension benefit plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The purpose of this section is to clarify which persons may act as an “employer” within the meaning of section 3(5) of the Act in sponsoring a multiple employer defined contribution pension plan (hereinafter “MEP”). The Act defines the term “employee pension benefit plan” in section 3(2), in relevant part, as any plan, fund, or program established or maintained by an employer, employee organization, or by both an employer and an employee organization, to the extent by its express terms or as a result of surrounding circumstances such plan, fund, or program provides retirement income to employees or results in a deferral of income by employees for periods extending to the termination of covered employment or beyond. For purposes of being able to establish and maintain an employee pension benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(2), an “employer” under section 3(5) of the Act includes any person acting directly as an employer, or any person acting indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee benefit plan. A group or association of employers is specifically identified in section 3(5) of the Act as a person able to act directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer, including for purposes of establishing or maintaining an employee benefit plan. A bona fide group or association of employers (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) and a bona fide professional employer organization (as described in paragraph (c) of this section) shall be deemed to be able to act in the interest of an employer within the meaning of section 3(5) of the Act by satisfying the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Bona fide group or association of employers.</I> For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, a bona fide group or association of employers capable of establishing a MEP shall include a group or association of employers that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The primary purpose of the group or association may be to offer and provide MEP coverage to its employer members and their employees; however, the group or association also must have at least one substantial business purpose unrelated to offering and providing MEP coverage or other employee benefits to its employer members and their employees. For purposes of satisfying the standard of this paragraph (b)(1)(i), as a safe harbor, a substantial business purpose is considered to exist if the group or association would be a viable entity in the absence of sponsoring an employee benefit plan. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(i), a business purpose includes promoting common business interests of its members or the common economic interests in a given trade or employer community and is not required to be a for-profit activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each employer member of the group or association participating in the plan is a person acting directly as an employer of at least one employee who is a participant covered under the plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The group or association has a formal organizational structure with a governing body and has by-laws or other similar indications of formality;
</P>
<P>(iv) The functions and activities of the group or association are controlled by its employer members, and the group's or association's employer members that participate in the plan control the plan. Control must be present both in form and in substance;
</P>
<P>(v) The employer members have a commonality of interest as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) The group or association does not make plan participation through the association available other than to employees and former employees of employer members, and their beneficiaries; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The group or association is not a bank or trust company, insurance issuer, broker-dealer, or other similar financial services firm (including a pension recordkeeper or third-party administrator), or owned or controlled by such an entity or any subsidiary or affiliate of such an entity, other than to the extent such an entity, subsidiary or affiliate participates in the group or association in its capacity as an employer member of the group or association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Commonality of interest.</I> (i) Employer members of a group or association will be treated as having a commonality of interest if either:
</P>
<P>(A) The employers are in the same trade, industry, line of business or profession; or
</P>
<P>(B) Each employer has a principal place of business in the same region that does not exceed the boundaries of a single State or a metropolitan area (even if the metropolitan area includes more than one State).
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a group or association that is sponsoring a MEP under this section and that is itself an employer member of the group or association, the group or association will be deemed for purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section to be in the same trade, industry, line of business, or profession, as applicable, as the other employer members of the group or association.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Bona fide professional employer organization.</I> A professional employer organization (PEO) is a human-resource company that contractually assumes certain employer responsibilities of its client employers. For purposes of title I of the Act and this chapter, a bona fide PEO is capable of establishing a MEP. A bona fide PEO is an organization that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The PEO performs substantial employment functions on behalf of its client employers that adopt the MEP, and maintains adequate records relating to such functions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The PEO has substantial control over the functions and activities of the MEP, as the plan sponsor (within the meaning of section 3(16)(B) of the Act), the plan administrator (within the meaning of section 3(16)(A) of the Act), and a named fiduciary (within the meaning of section 402 of the Act), and continues to have employee-benefit-plan obligations to MEP participants after the client employer no longer contracts with the organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) The PEO ensures that each client employer that adopts the MEP acts directly as an employer of at least one employee who is a participant covered under the MEP; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The PEO ensures that participation in the MEP is available only to employees and former employees of the PEO and client employers, employees and former employees of former client employers who became participants during the contract period between the PEO and former client employers, and their beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe harbor criteria for substantial employment functions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, whether a PEO performs substantial employment functions on behalf of its client employers is determined on the basis of the facts and circumstances of the particular situation. As a safe harbor, a PEO shall be considered to perform substantial employment functions on behalf of its client-employers that adopt the MEP if it meets the following criteria with respect to each client-employer employee that participates in the MEP—
</P>
<P>(i) The PEO assumes responsibility for and pays wages to employees of its client-employers that adopt the MEP, without regard to the receipt or adequacy of payment from those client employers;
</P>
<P>(ii) The PEO assumes responsibility for and reports, withholds, and pays any applicable federal employment taxes for its client employers that adopt the MEP, without regard to the receipt or adequacy of payment from those client employers;
</P>
<P>(iii) The PEO plays a definite and contractually specified role in recruiting, hiring, and firing workers of its client-employers that adopt the MEP, in addition to the client-employer's responsibility for recruiting, hiring, and firing workers. A PEO is considered to satisfy this standard if it recruits, hires, and fires, assumes responsibility for recruiting, hiring, and firing, or retains the right to recruit, hire, and fire workers of its client-employers that adopt the MEP, in addition to the client-employer's responsibility for recruiting, hiring, and firing workers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The PEO assumes responsibility for and has substantial control over the functions and activities of any employee benefits which the service contract may require the PEO to provide, without regard to the receipt or adequacy of payment from those client employers for such benefits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dual treatment of working owners as employers and employees.</I> (1) A working owner of a trade or business without common law employees may qualify as both an employer and as an employee of the trade or business for purposes of the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, including the requirement in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section that each employer member of the group or association adopting the MEP must be a person acting directly as an employer of one or more employees who are participants covered under the MEP, and the requirement in paragraph (b)(1)(vi) of this section that the group or association does not make participation through the group or association available other than to certain employees and former employees and their beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “working owner” as used in this paragraph (d) means any person who a responsible plan fiduciary reasonably determines is an individual:
</P>
<P>(i) Who has an ownership right of any nature in a trade or business, whether incorporated or unincorporated, including a partner or other self-employed individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) Who is earning wages or self-employment income from the trade or business for providing personal services to the trade or business; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Who either:
</P>
<P>(A) Works on average at least 20 hours per week or at least 80 hours per month providing personal services to the working owner's trade or business, or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a MEP described in paragraph (b) of this section, if applicable, has wages or self-employment income from such trade or business that at least equals the working owner's cost of coverage for participation by the working owner and any covered beneficiaries in any group health plan sponsored by the group or association in which the individual is participating or is eligible to participate.
</P>
<P>(3) The determination under this paragraph (d) must be made when the working owner first becomes eligible for participation in the defined contribution MEP and continued eligibility must be periodically confirmed pursuant to reasonable monitoring procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Severability.</I> (1) If any provision of this section is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of complete invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> (i) If any portion of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section (containing the substantial business purpose requirement) is found to be void in a manner contemplated by paragraph (e)(1) of this section, then the whole of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall be construed as follows: “The group or association must be a viable entity in the absence of offering and providing MEP coverage or other employee benefits to its employer members and their employees.”
</P>
<P>(ii) If any portion of paragraph (d) of this section (containing the “working owner” provision) is found to be void in a manner contemplated by paragraph (e)(1) of this section, such a decision does not impact the ability of a bona fide group or association to meet the “commonality of interest” requirement in paragraph (b)(2) of this section by being located in the same geographic locale.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 37543, July 31, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-101" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-101   Definition of “plan assets”—plan investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) This section describes what constitute assets of a plan with respect to a plan's investment in another entity for purposes of subtitle A, and parts 1 and 4 of subtitle B, of title I of the Act and section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code. Paragraph (a)(2) of this section contains a general rule relating to plan investments. Paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section define certain terms that are used in the application of the general rule. Paragraph (g) of this section describes how the rules in this section are to be applied when a plan owns property jointly with others or where it acquires an equity interest whose value relates solely to identified assets of an issuer. Paragraph (h) of this section contains special rules relating to particular kinds of plan investments. Paragraph (i) describes the assets that a plan acquires when it purchases certain guaranteed mortgage certificates. Paragraph (j) of this section contains examples illustrating the operation of this section. The effective date of this section is set forth in paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Generally, when a plan invests in another entity, the plan's assets include its investment, but do not, solely by reason of such investment, include any of the underlying assets of the entity. However, in the case of a plan's investment in an equity interest of an entity that is neither a publicly-offered security nor a security issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 its assets include both the equity interest and an undivided interest in each of the underlying assets of the entity, unless it is established that— 
</P>
<P>(i) The entity is an operating company, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Equity participation in the entity by benefit plan investors is not significant. 
</P>
<FP>Therefore, any person who exercises authority or control respecting the management or disposition of such underlying assets, and any person who provides investment advice with respect to such assets for a fee (direct or indirect), is a fiduciary of the investing plan. 
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Equity interests and publicly-offered securities.</I> (1) The term <I>equity interest</I> means any interest in an entity other than an instrument that is treated as indebtedness under applicable local law and which has no substantial equity features. A profits interest in a partnership, an undivided ownership interest in property and a beneficial interest in a trust are equity interests. 
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>publicly-offered security</I> is a security that is freely transferable, part of a class of securities that is widely held and either—
</P>
<P>(i) Part of a class of securities registered under section 12(b) or 12(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Sold to the plan as part of an offering of securities to the public pursuant to an effective registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933 and the class of securities of which such security is a part is registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 within 120 days (or such later time as may be allowed by the Securities and Exchange Commission) after the end of the fiscal year of the issuer during which the offering of such securities to the public occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a class of securities is “widely-held” only if it is a class of securities that is owned by 100 or more investors independent of the issuer and of one another. A class of securities will not fail to be widely-held solely because subsequent to the initial offering the number of independent investors falls below 100 as a result of events beyond the control of the issuer.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, whether a security is “freely transferable” is a factual question to be determined on the basis of all relevant facts and circumstances. If a security is part of an offering in which the minimum investment is $10,000 or less, however, the following factors ordinarily will not, alone or in combination, affect a finding that such securities are freely transferable:
</P>
<P>(i) Any requirement that not less than a minimum number of shares or units of such security be transferred or assigned by any investor, provided that such requirement does not prevent transfer of all of the then remaining shares or units held by an investor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any prohibition against transfer or assignment of such security or rights in respect thereof to an ineligible or unsuitable investor;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any restriction on, or prohibition against, any transfer or assignment which would either result in a termination or reclassification of the entity for Federal or state tax purposes or which would violate any state or Federal statute, regulation, court order, judicial decree, or rule of law;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any requirement that reasonable transfer or administrative fees be paid in connection with a transfer or assignment;
</P>
<P>(v) Any requirement that advance notice of a transfer or assignment be given to the entity and any requirement regarding execution of documentation evidencing such transfer or assignment (including documentation setting forth representations from either or both of the transferor or transferee as to compliance with any restriction or requirement described in this paragraph (b)(4) of this section or requiring compliance with the entity's governing instruments);
</P>
<P>(vi) Any restriction on substitution of an assignee as a limited partner of a partnership, including a general partner consent requirement, provided that the economic benefits of ownership of the assignor may be transferred or assigned without regard to such restriction or consent (other than compliance with any other restriction described in this paragraph (b)(4)) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any administrative procedure which establishes an effective date, or an event, such as the completion of the offering, prior to which a transfer or assignment will not be effective; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Any limitation or restriction on transfer or assignment which is not created or imposed by the issuer or any person acting for or on behalf of such issuer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operating company.</I> (1) An “operating company” is an entity that is primarily engaged, directly or through a majority owned subsidiary or subsidiaries, in the production or sale of a product or service other than the investment of capital. The term “operating company” includes an entity which is not described in the preceding sentence, but which is a “venture capital operating company” described in paragraph (d) or a “real estate operating company” described in paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Venture capital operating company.</I> (1) An entity is a “venture capital operating company” for the period beginning on an initial valuation date described in paragraph (d)(5)(i) and ending on the last day of the first “annual valuation period” described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) (in the case of an entity that is not a venture capital operating company immediately before the determination) or for the 12 month period following the expiration of an “annual valuation period” described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) (in the case of an entity that is a venture capital operating company immediately before the determination) if—
</P>
<P>(i) On such initial valuation date, or at any time within such annual valuation period, at least 50 percent of its assets (other than short-term investments pending long-term commitment or distribution to investors), valued at cost, are invested in venture capital investments described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) or derivative investments described in paragraph (d)(4); and
</P>
<P>(ii) During such 12 month period (or during the period beginning on the initial valuation date and ending on the last day of the first annual valuation period), the entity, in the ordinary course of its business, actually exercises management rights of the kind described in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) with respect to one or more of the operating companies in which it invests.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A venture capital operating company described in paragraph (d)(1) shall continue to be treated as a venture capital operating company during the “distribution period” described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii). An entity shall not be treated as a venture capital operating company at any time after the end of the distribution period.
</P>
<P>(ii) The “distribution period” referred to in paragraph (d)(2)(i) begins on a date established by a venture capital operating company that occurs after the first date on which the venture capital operating company has distributed to investors the proceeds of at least 50 percent of the highest amount of its investments (other than short-term investments made pending long-term commitment or distribution to investors) outstanding at any time from the date it commenced business (determined on the basis of the cost of such investments) and ends on the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(A) The date on which the company makes a “new portfolio investment”, or
</P>
<P>(B) The expiration of 10 years from the beginning of the distribution period.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A), a “new portfolio investment” is an investment other than—
</P>
<P>(A) An investment in an entity in which the venture capital operating company had an outstanding venture capital investment at the beginning of the distribution period which has continued to be outstanding at all times during the distribution period, or
</P>
<P>(B) A short-term investment pending long-term commitment or distribution to investors.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) For purposes of this paragraph (d) a “venture capital investment” is an investment in an operating company (other than a venture capital operating company) as to which the investor has or obtains management rights.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “management rights” means contractual rights directly between the investor and an operating company to substantially participate in, or substantially influence the conduct of, the management of the operating company.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) An investment is a “derivative investment” for purposes of this paragraph (d) if it is—
</P>
<P>(A) A venture capital investment as to which the investor's management rights have ceased in connection with a public offering of securities of the operating company to which the investment relates, or
</P>
<P>(B) An investment that is acquired by a venture capital operating company in the ordinary course of its business in exchange for an existing venture capital investment in connection with:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A public offering of securities of the operating company to which the existing venture capital investment relates, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A merger or reorganization of the operating company to which the existing venture capital investment relates, provided that such merger or reorganization is made for independent business reasons unrelated to extinguishing management rights.
</P>
<P>(ii) An investment ceases to be a derivative investment on the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) 10 years from the date of the acquisition of the original venture capital investment to which the derivative investment relates, or 
</P>
<P>(B) 30 months from the date on which the investment becomes a derivative investment.
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of this paragraph (d) and paragraph (e)—
</P>
<P>(i) An “initial valuation date” is the later of—
</P>
<P>(A) Any date designated by the company within the 12 month period ending with the effective date of this section, or
</P>
<P>(B) The first date on which an entity makes an investment that is not a short-term investment of funds pending long-term commitment.
</P>
<P>(ii) An “annual valuation period” is a preestablished annual period, not exceeding 90 days in duration, which begins no later than the anniversary of an entity's initial valuation date. An annual valuation period, once established may not be changed except for good cause unrelated to a determination under this paragraph (d) or paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Real estate operating company.</I> An entity is a “real estate operating company” for the period beginning on an initial valuation date described in paragraph (d)(5)(i) and ending on the last day of the first “annual valuation period” described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) (in the case of an entity that is not a real estate operating company immediately before the determination) or for the 12 month period following the expiration of an annual valuation period described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) (in the case of an entity that is a real estate operating company immediately before the determination) if:
</P>
<P>(1) On such initial valuation date, or on any date within such annual valuation period, at least 50 percent of its assets, valued at cost (other than short-term investments pending long-term commitment or distribution to investors), are invested in real estate which is managed or developed and with respect to which such entity has the right to substantially participate directly in the management or development activities; and
</P>
<P>(2) During such 12 month period (or during the period beginning on the initial valuation date and ending on the last day of the first annual valuation period) such entity in the ordinary course of its business is engaged directly in real estate management or development activities.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Participation by benefit plan investors.</I> (1) Equity participation in an entity by benefit plan investors is “significant” on any date if, immediately after the most recent acquisition of any equity interest in the entity, 25 percent or more of the value of any class of equity interests in the entity is held by benefit plan investors (as defined in paragraph (f)(2)). For purposes of determinations pursuant to this paragraph (f), the value of any equity interests held by a person (other than a benefit plan investor) who has discretionary authority or control with respect to the assets of the entity or any person who provides investment advice for a fee (direct or indirect) with respect to such assets, or any affiliate of such a person, shall be disregarded.
</P>
<P>(2) A “benefit plan investor” is any of the following—
</P>
<P>(i) Any employee benefit plan (as defined in section 3(3) of the Act), whether or not it is subject to the provisions of title I of the Act,
</P>
<P>(ii) Any plan described in section 4975(e)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code,
</P>
<P>(iii) Any entity whose underlying assets include plan assets by reason of a plan's investment in the entity.
</P>
<P>(3) An “affiliate” of a person includes any person, directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the person. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(3), “control”, with respect to a person other than an individual, means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of such person.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Joint ownership.</I> For purposes of this section, where a plan jointly owns property with others, or where the value of a plan's equity interest in an entity relates solely to identified property of the entity, such property shall be treated as the sole property of a separate entity.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Specific rules relating to plan investments.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) Except where the entity is an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, when a plan acquires or holds an interest in any of the following entities its assets include its investment and an undivided interest in each of the underlying assets of the entity:
</P>
<P>(i) A group trust which is exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code pursuant to the principles of Rev. Rul. 81-100, 1981-1 C.B. 326,
</P>
<P>(ii) A common or collective trust fund of a bank,
</P>
<P>(iii) A separate account of an insurance company, other than a separate account that is maintained solely in connection with fixed contractual obligations of the insurance company under which the amounts payable, or credited, to the plan and to any participant or beneficiary of the plan (including an annuitant) are not affected in any manner by the investment performance of the separate account.
</P>
<P>(2) When a plan acquires or holds an interest in any entity (other than an insurance company licensed to do business in a State) which is established or maintained for the purpose of offering or providing any benefit described in section 3(1) or section 3(2) of the Act to participants or beneficiaries of the investing plan, its assets will include its investment and an undivided interest in the underlying assets of that entity.
</P>
<P>(3) When a plan or a related group of plans owns all of the outstanding equity interests (other than director's qualifying shares) in an entity, its assets include those equity interests and all of the underlying assets of the entity. This paragraph (h)(3) does not apply, however, where all of the outstanding equity interests in an entity are qualifying employer securities described in section 407(d)(5) of the Act, owned by one or more eligible individual account plan(s) (as defined in section 407(d)(3) of the Act) maintained by the same employer, provided that substantially all of the participants in the plan(s) are, or have been, employed by the issuer of such securities or by members of a group of affiliated corporations (as determined under section 407(d)(7) of the Act) of which the issuer is a member.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (h)(3), a “related group” of employee benefit plans consists of every group of two or more employee benefit plans— 
</P>
<P>(i) Each of which receives 10 percent or more of its aggregate contributions from the same employer or from members of the same controlled group of corporations (as determined under section 1563(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, without regard to section 1563(a)(4) thereof); or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each of which is either maintained by, or maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement negotiated by, the same employee organization or affiliated employee organizations. For purposes of this paragraph, an “affiliate” of an employee organization means any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such organization, and includes any organization chartered by the same parent body, or governed by the same constitution and bylaws, or having the relation of parent and subordinate.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Governmental mortgage pools.</I> (1) Where a plan acquires a guaranteed governmental mortgage pool certificate, as defined in paragraph (i)(2), the plan's assets include the certificate and all of its rights with respect to such certificate under applicable law, but do not, solely by reason of the plan's holding of such certificate, include any of the mortgages underlying such certificate.
</P>
<P>(2) A “guaranteed governmental mortgage pool certificate” is a certificate backed by, or evidencing an interest in, specified mortgages or participation interests therein and with respect to which interest and principal payable pursuant to the certificate is guaranteed by the United States or an agency or instrumentality thereof. The term “guaranteed governmental mortgage pool certificate” includes a mortgage pool certificate with respect to which interest and principal payable pursuant to the certificate is guaranteed by:
</P>
<P>(i) The Government National Mortgage Association;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Federal National Mortgage Association.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Examples.</I> The principles of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(1) A plan, P, acquires debentures issued by a corporation, T, pursuant to a private offering. T is engaged primarily in investing and reinvesting in precious metals on behalf of its shareholders, all of which are benefit plan investors. By its terms, the debenture is convertible to common stock of T at P's option. At the time of P's acquisition of the debentures, the conversion feature is incidental to T's obligation to pay interest and principal. Although T is not an operating company, P's assets do not include an interest in the underlying assets of T because P has not acquired an <I>equity</I> interest in T. However, if P exercises its option to convert the debentures to common stock, it will have acquired an equity interest in T at that time and (assuming that the common stock is not a publicly-offered security and that there has been no change in the composition of the other equity investors in T) P's assets would then include an undivided interest in the underlying assets of T.
</P>
<P>(2) A plan, P, acquires a limited partnership interest in a limited partnership, U, which is established and maintained by A, a general partner in U. U has only one class of limited partnership interests. U is engaged in the business of investing and reinvesting in securities. Limited partnership interests in U are offered privately pursuant to an exemption from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933. P acquires 15 percent of the value of all the outstanding limited partnership interests in U, and, at the time of P's investment, a governmental plan owns 15 percent of the value of those interests. U is not an operating company because it is engaged primarily in the investment of capital. In addition, equity participation by benefit plan investors is significant because immediately after P's investment such investors hold more than 25 percent of the limited partnership interests in U. Accordingly, P's assets include an undivided interest in the underlying assets of U, and A is a fiduciary of P with respect to such assets by reason of its discretionary authority and control over U's assets. Although the governmental plan's investment is taken into account for purposes of determining whether equity participation by benefit plan investors is significant, nothing in this section imposes fiduciary obligations on A with respect to that plan.
</P>
<P>(3) Assume the same facts as in paragraph (j)(2), except that P acquires only 5 percent of the value of all the outstanding limited partnership interests in U, and that benefit plan investors in the aggregate hold only 10 percent of the value of the limited partnership interests in U. Under these facts, there is no significant equity participation by benefit plan investors in U, and, accordingly, P's assets include its limited partnership interest in U, but do not include any of the underlying assets of U. Thus, A would not be a fiduciary of P by reason of P's investment.
</P>
<P>(4) Assume the same facts as in paragraph (j)(3) and that the aggregate value of the outstanding limited partnership interests in U is $10,000 (and that the value of the interests held by benefit plan investors is thus $1000). Also assume that an affiliate of A owns limited partnership interests in U having a value of $6500. The value of the limited partnership interests held by A's affiliate are disregarded for purposes of determining whether there is significant equity participation in U by benefit plan investors. Thus, the percentage of the aggregate value of the limited partnership interests held by benefit plan investors in U for purposes of such a determination is approximately 28.6% ($1000/$3500). Therefore there is significant benefit plan investment in T.
</P>
<P>(5) A plan, P, invests in a limited partnership, V, pursuant to a private offering. There is significant equity participation by benefit plan investors in V. V acquires equity positions in the companies in which it invests, and, in connection with these investments, V negotiates terms that give it the right to participate in or influence the management of those companies. Some of these investments are in publicly-offered securities and some are in securities acquired in private offerings. During its most recent valuation period, more than 50 percent of V's assets, valued at cost, consisted of investments with respect to which V obtained management rights of the kind described above. V's managers routinely consult informally with, and advise, the management of only one portfolio company with respect to which it has management rights, although it devotes substantial resources to its consultations with that company. With respect to the other portfolio companies, V relies on the managers of other entities to consult with and advise the companies' management. V is a venture capital operating company and therefore P has acquired its limited partnership investment, but has not acquired an interest in any of the underlying assets of V. Thus, none of the managers of V would be fiduciaries with respect to P solely by reason of its investment. In this situation, the mere fact that V does not participate in or influence the management of all its portfolio companies does not affect its characterization as a venture capital operating company.
</P>
<P>(6) Assume the same facts as in paragraph (j)(5) and the following additional facts: V invests in debt securities as well as equity securities of its portfolio companies. In some cases V makes debt investments in companies in which it also has an equity investment; in other cases V only invests in debt instruments of the portfolio company. V's debt investments are acquired pursuant to private offerings and V negotiates covenants that give it the right to substantially participate in or to substantially influence the conduct of the management of the companies issuing the obligations. These covenants give V more significant rights with respect to the portfolio companies' management than the covenants ordinarily found in debt instruments of established, creditworthy companies that are purchased privately by institutional investors. V routinely consults with and advises the management of its portfolio companies. The mere fact that V's investments in portfolio companies are debt, rather than equity, will not cause V to fail to be a venture capital operating company, provided it actually obtains the right to substantially participate in or influence the conduct of the management of its portfolio companies and provided that in the ordinary course of its business it actually exercises those rights.
</P>
<P>(7) A plan, P, invests (pursuant to a private offering) in a limited partnership, W, that is engaged primarily in investing and reinvesting assets in equity positions in real property. The properties acquired by W are subject to long-term leases under which substantially all management and maintenance activities with respect to the property are the responsibility of the lessee. W is not engaged in the management or development of real estate merely because it assumes the risks of ownership of income-producing real property, and W is not a real estate operating company. If there is significant equity participation in W by benefit plan investors, P will be considered to have acquired an undivided interest in each of the underlying assets of W.
</P>
<P>(8) Assume the same facts as in paragraph (j)(7) except that W owns several shopping centers in which individual stores are leased for relatively short periods to various merchants (rather than owning properties subject to long-term leases under which substantially all management and maintenance activities are the responsibility of the lessee). W retains independent contractors to manage the shopping center properties. These independent contractors negotiate individual leases, maintain the common areas and conduct maintenance activities with respect to the properties. W has the responsibility to supervise and the authority to terminate the independent contractors. During its most recent valuation period more than 50 percent of W's assets, valued at cost, are invested in such properties. W is a real estate operating company. The fact that W does not have its own employees who engage in day-to-day management and development activities is only one factor in determining whether it is actively managing or developing real estate. Thus, P's assets include its interest in W, but do not include any of the underlying assets of W.
</P>
<P>(9) A plan, P, acquires a limited partnership interest in X pursuant to a private offering. There is significant equity participation in X by benefit plan investors. X is engaged in the business of making “convertible loans” which are structured as follows: X lends a specified percentage of the cost of acquiring real property to a borrower who provides the remaining capital needed to make the acquisition. This loan is secured by a mortgage on the property. Under the terms of the loan, X is entitled to receive a fixed rate of interest payable out of the initial cash flow from the property and is also entitled to that portion of any additional cash flow which is equal to the percentage of the acquisition cost that is financed by its loan. Simultaneously with the making of the loan, the borrower also gives X an option to purchase an interest in the property for the original principal amount of the loan at the expiration of its initial term. X's percentage interest in the property, if it exercises this option, would be equal to the percentage of the acquisition cost of the property which is financed by its loan. The parties to the transaction contemplate that the option ordinarily will be exercised at the expiration of the loan term if the property has appreciated in value. X and the borrower also agree that, if the option is exercised, they will form a limited partnership to hold the property. X negotiates loan terms which give it rights to substantially influence, or to substantially participate in, the management of the property which is acquired with the proceeds of the loan. These loan terms give X significantly greater rights to participate in the management of the property than it would obtain under a conventional mortgage loan. In addition, under the terms of the loan, X and the borrower ratably share any capital expenditures relating to the property. During its most recent valuation period, more than 50 percent of the value of X's assets valued at cost consisted of real estate investments of the kind described above. X, in the ordinary course of its business, routinely exercises its management rights and frequently consults with and advises the borrower and the property manager. Under these facts, X is a real estate operating company. Thus, P's assets include its interest in X, but do not include any of the underlying assets of X. 
</P>
<P>(10) In a private transaction, a plan, P, acquires a 30 percent participation in a debt instrument that is held by a bank. Since the value of the participation certificate relates solely to the debt instrument, that debt instrument is, under paragraph (g), treated as the sole asset of a separate entity. Equity participation in that entity by benefit plan investors is significant since the value of the plan's participation exceeds 25 percent of the value of the instrument. In addition, the hypothetical entity is not an operating company because it is primarily engaged in the investment of capital (<I>i.e.,</I> holding the debt instrument). Thus, P's assets include the participation and an undivided interest in the debt instrument, and the bank is a fiduciary of P to the extent it has discretionary authority or control over the debt instrument. 
</P>
<P>(11) In a private transaction, a plan, P, acquires 30% of the value of a class of equity securities issued by an operating company, Y. These securities provide that dividends shall be paid solely out of earnings attributable to certain tracts of undeveloped land that are held by Y for investment. Under paragraph (g), the property is treated as the sole asset of a separate entity. Thus, even though Y is an operating company, the hypothetical entity whose sole assets are the undeveloped tracts of land is not an operating company. Accordingly, P is considered to have acquired an undivided interest in the tracts of land held by Y. Thus, Y would be a fiduciary of P to the extent it exercises discretionary authority or control over such property. 
</P>
<P>(12) A medical benefit plan, P, acquires a beneficial interest in a trust, Z, that is not an insurance company licensed to do business in a State. Under this arrangement, Z will provide the benefits to the participants and beneficiaries of P that are promised under the terms of the plan. Under paragraph (h)(2), P's assets include its beneficial interest in Z and an undivided interest in each of its underlying assets. Thus, persons with discretionary authority or control over the assets of Z would be fiduciaries of P.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(k) <I>Effective date and transitional rules.</I> (1) In general, this section is effective for purposes of identifying the assets of a plan on or after March 13, 1987. Except as a defense, this section shall not apply to investments in an entity in existence on March 13, 1987, if no plan subject to title I of the Act or plan described in section 4975(e)(1) of the Code (other than a plan described in section 4975(g)(2) or (3)) acquires an interest in the entity from an issuer or underwriter at any time on or after March 13, 1987 except pursuant to a contract binding on the plan in effect on March 13, 1987 with an issuer or underwriter to acquire an interest in the entity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (k)(1), this section shall not, except as a defense, apply to a real estate entity described in section 11018(a) of Pub. L. 99-272. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41280, Nov. 13, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 47226, Dec. 31, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2510.3-102" NODE="29:9.1.2.2.3.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2510.3-102   Definition of “plan assets”—participant contributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>General rule.</I> For purposes of subtitle A and parts 1 and 4 of subtitle B of title I of ERISA and section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code only (but without any implication for and may not be relied upon to bar criminal prosecutions under 18 U.S.C. 664), the assets of the plan include amounts (other than union dues) that a participant or beneficiary pays to an employer, or amounts that a participant has withheld from his wages by an employer, for contribution or repayment of a participant loan to the plan, as of the earliest date on which such contributions or repayments can reasonably be segregated from the employer's general assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe harbor.</I> (i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, in the case of a plan with fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year, any amount deposited with such plan not later than the 7th business day following the day on which such amount is received by the employer (in the case of amounts that a participant or beneficiary pays to an employer), or the 7th business day following the day on which such amount would otherwise have been payable to the participant in cash (in the case of amounts withheld by an employer from a participant's wages), shall be deemed to be contributed or repaid to such plan on the earliest date on which such contributions or participant loan repayments can reasonably be segregated from the employer's general assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) This paragraph (a)(2) sets forth an optional alternative method of compliance with the rule set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. This paragraph (a)(2) does not establish the exclusive means by which participant contribution or participant loan repayment amounts shall be considered to be contributed or repaid to a plan by the earliest date on which such contributions or repayments can reasonably be segregated from the employer's general assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum time period for pension benefit plans.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, with respect to an employee pension benefit plan as defined in section 3(2) of ERISA, in no event shall the date determined pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section occur later than the 15th business day of the month following the month in which the participant contribution or participant loan repayment amounts are received by the employer (in the case of amounts that a participant or beneficiary pays to an employer) or the 15th business day of the month following the month in which such amounts would otherwise have been payable to the participant in cash (in the case of amounts withheld by an employer from a participant's wages).
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a SIMPLE plan that involves SIMPLE IRAs (<I>i.e.,</I> Simple Retirement Accounts, as described in section 408(p) of the Internal Revenue Code), in no event shall the date determined pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section occur later than the 30th calendar day following the month in which the participant contribution amounts would otherwise have been payable to the participant in cash.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maximum time period for welfare benefit plans.</I> With respect to an employee welfare benefit plan as defined in section 3(1) of ERISA, in no event shall the date determined pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section occur later than 90 days from the date on which the participant contribution amounts are received by the employer (in the case of amounts that a participant or beneficiary pays to an employer) or the date on which such amounts would otherwise have been payable to the participant in cash (in the case of amounts withheld by an employer from a participant's wages).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extension of maximum time period for pension plans.</I> (1) With respect to participant contributions received or withheld by the employer in a single month, the maximum time period provided under paragraph (b) of this section shall be extended for an additional 10 business days for an employer who—
</P>
<P>(i) Provides a true and accurate written notice, distributed in a manner reasonably designed to reach all the plan participants within 5 business days after the end of such extension period, stating—
</P>
<P>(A) That the employer elected to take such extension for that month; 
</P>
<P>(B) That the affected contributions have been transmitted to the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(C) With particularity, the reasons why the employer cannot reasonably segregate the participant contributions within the time period described in paragraph (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to such extension period, obtains a performance bond or irrevocable letter of credit in favor of the plan and in an amount of not less than the total amount of participant contributions received or withheld by the employer in the previous month; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 5 business days after the end of such extension period, provides a copy of the notice required under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section to the Secretary, along with a certification that such notice was provided to the participants and that the bond or letter of credit required under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section was obtained. 
</P>
<P>(2) The performance bond or irrevocable letter of credit required in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section shall be guaranteed by a bank or similar institution that is supervised by the Federal government or a State government and shall remain in effect for 3 months after the month in which the extension expires. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An employer may not elect an extension under this paragraph (d) more than twice in any plan year unless the employer pays to the plan an amount representing interest on the participant contributions that were subject to all the extensions within such plan year. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount representing interest in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section shall be the greater of—
</P>
<P>(A) The amount that otherwise would have been earned on the participant contributions from the date on which such contributions were paid to, or withheld by, the employer until such money is transmitted to the plan had such contributions been invested during such period in the investment alternative available under plan which had the highest rate of return; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Interest at a rate equal to the underpayment rate defined in section 6621(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code from the date on which such contributions were paid to, or withheld by, the employer until such money is fully restored to the plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, the term <I>business day</I> means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday or any day designated as a holiday by the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples.</I> The requirements of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<P>(1) Employer A sponsors a 401(k) plan. There are 30 participants in the 401(k) plan. A has one payroll period for its employees and uses an outside payroll processing service to pay employee wages and process deductions. A has established a system under which the payroll processing service provides payroll deduction information to A within 1 business day after the issuance of paychecks. A checks this information for accuracy within 5 business days and then forwards the withheld employee contributions to the plan. The amount of the total withheld employee contributions is deposited with the trust that is maintained under the plan on the 7th business day following the date on which the employees are paid. Under the safe harbor in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, when the participant contributions are deposited with the plan on the 7th business day following a pay date, the participant contributions are deemed to be contributed to the plan on the earliest date on which such contributions can reasonably be segregated from A's general assets.
</P>
<P>(2) Employer B is a large national corporation which sponsors a 401(k) plan with 600 participants. B has several payroll centers and uses an outside payroll processing service to pay employee wages and process deductions. Each payroll center has a different pay period. Each center maintains separate accounts on its books for purposes of accounting for that center's payroll deductions and provides the outside payroll processor the data necessary to prepare employee paychecks and process deductions. The payroll processing service issues the employees' paychecks and deducts all payroll taxes and elective employee deductions. The payroll processing service forwards the employee payroll deduction data to B on the date of issuance of paychecks. B checks this data for accuracy and transmits this data along with the employee 401(k) deferral funds to the plan's investment firm within 3 business days. The plan's investment firm deposits the employee 401(k) deferral funds into the plan on the day received from B. The assets of B's 401(k) plan would include the participant contributions no later than 3 business days after the issuance of paychecks.
</P>
<P>(3) Employer C sponsors a self-insured contributory group health plan with 90 participants. Several former employees have elected, pursuant to the provisions of ERISA section 602, 29 U.S.C. 1162, to pay C for continuation of their coverage under the plan. These checks arrive at various times during the month and are deposited in the employer's general account at bank Z. Under paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, the assets of the plan include the former employees' payments as soon after the checks have cleared the bank as C could reasonably be expected to segregate the payments from its general assets, but in no event later than 90 days after the date on which the former employees' participant contributions are received by C. If, however, C deposits the former employees' payments with the plan no later than the 7th business day following the day on which they are received by C, the former employees' participant contributions will be deemed to be contributed to the plan on the earliest date on which such contributions can reasonably be segregated from C's general assets.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective February 3, 1997. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability date for collectively-bargained plans.</I> (1) Paragraph (b) of this section applies to collectively bargained plans no sooner than the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) February 3, 1997; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The first day of the plan year that begins after the expiration of the last to expire of any applicable bargaining agreement in effect on August 7, 1996. 
</P>
<P>(2) Until paragraph (b) of this section applies to a collectively bargained plan, paragraph (c) of this section shall apply to such plan as if such plan were an employee welfare benefit plan. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Optional postponement of applicability.</I> (1) The application of paragraph (b) of this section shall be postponed for up to an additional 90 days beyond the effective date described in paragraph (g) of this section for an employer who, prior to February 3, 1997— 
</P>
<P>(i) Provides a true and accurate written notice, distributed in a manner designed to reach all the plan participants before the end of February 3, 1997, stating—
</P>
<P>(A) That the employer elected to postpone such applicability; 
</P>
<P>(B) The date that the postponement will expire; and 
</P>
<P>(C) With particularity the reasons why the employer cannot reasonably segregate the participant contributions within the time period described in paragraph (b) of this section, by February 3, 1997; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtains a performance bond or irrevocable letter of credit in favor of the plan and in an amount of not less than the total amount of participant contributions received or withheld by the employer in the previous 3 months; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides a copy of the notice required under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section to the Secretary, along with a certification that such notice was provided to the participants and that the bond or letter of credit required under paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section was obtained; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) For each month during which such postponement is in effect, provides a true and accurate written notice to the plan participants indicating the date on which the participant contributions received or withheld by the employer during such month were transmitted to the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) The notice required in paragraph (i)(1)(iv) of this section shall be distributed in a manner reasonably designed to reach all the plan participants within 10 days after transmission of the affected participant contributions. 
</P>
<P>(3) The bond or letter of credit required under paragraph (i)(1)(ii) shall be guaranteed by a bank or similar institution that is supervised by the Federal government or a State government and shall remain in effect for 3 months after the month in which the postponement expires. 
</P>
<P>(4) During the period of any postponement of applicability with respect to a plan under this paragraph (i), paragraph (c) of this section shall apply to such plan as if such plan were an employee welfare benefit plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 41233, Aug. 7, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 62936, Nov. 25, 1997; 75 FR 2076, Jan. 14, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—REPORTING AND DISCLOSURE UNDER THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT OF 1974 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2520" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2520—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR REPORTING AND DISCLOSURE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1021-1025, 1027, 1029-31, 1059, 1134 and 1135; and Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012). Sec. 2520.101-2 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1132, 1181-1183, 1181 note, 1185, 1185a-b, 1191, and 1191a-c. Sec. 2520.101-5 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1021(f). Sec. 2520.101-6 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1021(k). Sec. 2520.103-13 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1023. Secs. 2520.102-3, 2520.104b-1, 2520.104b-3, and 2520.104b-31 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1003, 1181-1183, 1181 note, 1185, 1185a-b, 1191, and 1191a-c. Secs. 2520.104b-1 and 2520.107 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 401 note, 111 Stat. 788.






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Reporting and Disclosure Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.101-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.101-1   Duty of reporting and disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures for implementing the plan administrator's duty of reporting to the Secretary of Labor and disclosing information to participants and beneficiaries are located in subparts D, E and F of this part.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0016) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 16962, Apr. 23, 1976, as amended at 46 FR 62845, Dec. 29, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.101-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.101-2   Filing by multiple employer welfare arrangements and certain other related entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis and scope.</I> Section 101(g) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), as amended by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, requires the Secretary of Labor (the Secretary) to establish, by regulation, a requirement that multiple employer welfare arrangements (MEWAs) providing benefits that consist of medical care (as described in paragraph (b)(6) of this section), which are not group health plans, to register with the Secretary prior to operating in a State. Section 101(g) also permits the Secretary to require, by regulation, such MEWAs to report, not more frequently than annually, in such form and manner as the Secretary may require, for the purpose of determining the extent to which the requirements of part 7 of subtitle B of title I of ERISA (part 7) are being carried out in connection with such benefits. Section 734 of ERISA provides that the Secretary may promulgate such regulations as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the provisions of part 7. This section sets out requirements for reporting by MEWAs that provide benefits that consist of medical care and by certain entities that claim not to be a MEWA solely due to the exception in section 3(40)(A)(i) of ERISA (referred to in this section as Entities Claiming Exception or ECEs). The reporting requirements apply regardless of whether the MEWA or ECE is a group health plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Administrator</I> means—(i) The person specifically so designated by the terms of the instrument under which the MEWA or ECE is operated;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the MEWA or ECE is a group health plan and the administrator is not so designated, the plan sponsor (as defined in section 3(16)(B) of ERISA); or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a MEWA or ECE for which an administrator is not designated and a plan sponsor cannot be identified, jointly and severally, the person or persons actually responsible (whether or not so designated under the terms of the instrument under which the MEWA or ECE is operated) for the control, disposition, or management of the cash or property received by or contributed to the MEWA or ECE, irrespective of whether such control, disposition, or management is exercised directly by such person or persons or indirectly through an agent, custodian, or trustee designated by such person or persons.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Entity Claiming Exception (ECE)</I> means an entity that claims it is not a MEWA on the basis that the entity is established or maintained pursuant to one or more agreements that the Secretary finds to be collective bargaining agreements within the meaning of section 3(40)(A)(i) of ERISA and § 2510.3-40.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Excepted benefits</I> means <I>excepted benefits</I> within the meaning of section 733(c) of ERISA and § 2590.701-2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Group health plan</I> means a <I>group health plan</I> within the meaning of section 733(a) of ERISA and § 2590.701-2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Health insurance issuer</I> means a <I>health insurance issuer</I> within the meaning of section 733(b)(2) of ERISA and § 2590.701-2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Medical care</I> means <I>medical care</I> within the meaning of section 733(a)(2) of ERISA and § 2590.701-2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Multiple employer welfare arrangement (MEWA)</I> means a <I>multiple employer welfare arrangement</I> within the meaning of section 3(40) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Operating</I> means any activity including but not limited to marketing, soliciting, providing, or offering to provide benefits consisting of <I>medical care.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Origination</I> means, with regard to an ECE, the occurrence of any of the following events (an ECE is considered to have been <I>originated</I> only when an event described below occurs)—
</P>
<P>(i) The ECE begins operating with regard to the employees of two or more employers (including one or more self-employed individuals);
</P>
<P>(ii) The ECE begins operating following a merger with another ECE (unless all of the ECEs that participate in the merger previously were last originated at least three years prior to the merger); or
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of employees receiving coverage for medical care under the ECE is at least 50 percent greater than the number of such employees on the last day of the previous calendar year (unless the increase is due to a merger with another ECE under which all ECEs that participate in the merger were last originated at least three years prior to the merger).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Reporting or to report</I> means to file the Form M-1 as required pursuant to sections 101(g) of ERISA; § 2520.101-2; or the instructions to the Form M-1.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Special filing event</I> means, with regard to an ECE—
</P>
<P>(i) The ECE begins knowingly operating in any additional State or States that were not indicated on a previous report filed pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (f)(2)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The ECE experiences a material change as defined in the Form M-1 instructions.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>State</I> means <I>State</I> within the meaning of § 2590.701-2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Persons required to report</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the following persons are required to report under this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The administrator of a MEWA regardless of whether the entity is a group health plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The administrator of an ECE during the three-year period following an event described in paragraph (b)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) Nothing in this paragraph (c) shall be construed to require reporting under this section by the administrator of a MEWA or ECE described under this paragraph (c)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(A) A MEWA or ECE licensed or authorized to operate as a health insurance issuer in every State in which it offers or provides coverage for medical care to employees;
</P>
<P>(B) A MEWA or ECE that provides coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits, which are not subject to ERISA part 7. If the MEWA or ECE provides coverage that consists of both excepted benefits and other benefits for medical care that are not excepted benefits, the administrator of the MEWA or ECE is required to report under this section;
</P>
<P>(C) A MEWA or ECE that is a group health plan not subject to ERISA, including a governmental plan, church plan, or a plan maintained solely for the purpose of complying with workmen's compensation laws, within the meaning of sections 4(b)(1), 4(b)(2), or 4(b)(3) of ERISA, respectively; or
</P>
<P>(D) A MEWA or ECE that provides coverage only through group health plans that are not covered by ERISA, including governmental plans, church plans, or plans maintained solely for the purpose of complying with workmen's compensation laws within the meaning of sections 4(b)(1), 4(b)(2), or 4(b)(3) of ERISA, respectively (or other arrangements not covered by ERISA, such as health insurance coverage offered to individuals other than in connection with a group health plan, known as individual market coverage).
</P>
<P>(ii) Nothing in this paragraph (c) shall be construed to require reporting under this section by the administrator of an entity that would not constitute a MEWA or ECE <I>but for</I> the following circumstances under this paragraph (c)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) The entity provides coverage to the employees of two or more trades or businesses that share a common control interest of at least 25 percent at any time during the plan year, applying principles similar to the principles of section 414(c) of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(B) The entity provides coverage to the employees of two or more employers due to a change in control of businesses (such as a merger or acquisition) that occurs for a purpose other than avoiding Form M-1 filing and is temporary in nature. For purposes of this paragraph, “temporary” means the MEWA or ECE does not extend beyond the end of the plan year following the plan year in which the change in control occurs; or
</P>
<P>(C) The entity provides coverage to persons (excluding spouses and dependents) who are not employees or former employees of the plan sponsor, such as non-employee members of the board of directors or independent contractors, and the number of such persons who are not employees or former employees does not exceed one percent of the total number of employees or former employees covered under the arrangement, determined as of the last day of the year to be reported or, determined as of the 60th day following the date the MEWA or ECE began operating in a manner such that a filing is required pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(i), (2), or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> MEWA <I>A</I> begins operating by offering coverage to the employees of two or more employers on August 1, 2013. MEWA <I>A</I> is licensed or authorized to operate as a health insurance issuer in every State in which it offers coverage for medical care to employees.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the administrator of MEWA <I>A</I> is not required to report via Form M-1. MEWA <I>A</I> meets the exception to the filing requirement in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section because it is licensed or authorized to operate as a health insurance issuer in every State in which it offers coverage for medical care to employees.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Company <I>B</I> maintains a group health plan that provides benefits for medical care for its employees (and their dependents). Company <I>B</I> establishes a joint venture in which it has a 25 percent stock ownership interest, determined by applying the principles similar to the principles under section 414(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, and transfers some of its employees to the joint venture. Company <I>B</I> continues to cover these transferred employees under its group health plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the administrator is not required to file the Form M-1 because Company <I>B's</I> group health plan meets the exception to the filing requirement in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section. This is because Company <I>B's</I> group health plan would not constitute a MEWA but for the fact that it provides coverage to two or more trades or businesses that share a common control interest of at least 25 percent.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Company <I>C</I> maintains a group health plan that provides benefits for medical care for its employees. The plan year of Company <I>C's</I> group health plan is the fiscal year for Company <I>C,</I> which is October 1st—September 30th. Therefore, October 1, 2012—September 30, 2013 is the 2013 plan year. Company <I>C</I> decides to sell a portion of its business, Division <I>Z,</I> to Company <I>D.</I> Company <I>C</I> signs an agreement with Company <I>D</I> under which Division <I>Z</I> will be transferred to Company <I>D,</I> effective September 30, 2013. The change in control of Division <I>Z</I> therefore occurs on September 30, 2013. Under the terms of the agreement, Company <I>C</I> agrees to continue covering all of the employees that formerly worked for Division <I>Z</I> under its group health plan until Company <I>D</I> has established a new group health plan to cover these employees. Under the terms of the agreement, it is anticipated that Company <I>C</I> will not be required to cover the employees of Division <I>Z</I> under its group health plan beyond the end of the 2014 plan year, which is the plan year following the plan year in which the change in control of Division <I>Z</I> occurred.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the administrator of Company <I>C's</I> group health plan is not required to report via the Form M-1 on March 1, 2014 for fiscal year 2013 because it is subject to the exception to the filing requirement in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section for an entity that would not constitute a MEWA but for the fact that it is created by a change in control of businesses that occurs for a purpose other than to avoid filing the Form M-1 and is temporary in nature. Under the exception, “temporary” means the MEWA does not extend beyond the end of the plan year following the plan year in which the change in control occurs. The administrator is not required to file the 2013 Form M-1 annual report because it is anticipated that Company <I>C</I> will not be required to cover the employees of Division <I>Z</I> under its group health plan beyond the end of the 2014 plan year, which is the plan year following the plan year in which the change in control of businesses occurred.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Company <I>E</I> maintains a group health plan that provides benefits for medical care for its employees (and their dependents) as well as certain independent contractors who are self-employed individuals. The plan is therefore a MEWA. The administrator of Company <I>E's</I> group health plan uses calendar year data to report for purposes of the Form M-1. The administrator of Company <I>E's</I> group health plan determines that the number of independent contractors covered under the group health plan as of the last day of calendar year 2013 is less than one percent of the total number of employees and former employees covered under the plan determined as of the last day of calendar year 2013.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the administrator of Company <I>E's</I> group health plan is not required to report via the Form M-1 for calendar year 2013 (a filing that is otherwise due by March 1, 2014) because it is subject to the exception to the filing requirement provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C) of this section for entities that cover a very small number of persons who are not employees or former employees of the plan sponsor.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(d) <I>Information to be reported.</I> (1) Any reporting required by this section shall consist of a completed copy of the Form M-1 Report for Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements (MEWAs) and Certain Entities Claiming Exception (ECEs) (Form M-1) and any additional statements required pursuant to the instructions for the Form M-1.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rejected filings.</I> The Secretary may reject any filing under this section if the Secretary determines that the filing is incomplete, in accordance with § 2560.502c-5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Secretary rejects a filing under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, and if a revised filing satisfactory to the Secretary is not submitted within 45 days after the notice of rejection, the Secretary may bring a civil action for such relief as may be appropriate (including penalties under section 502(c)(5) of ERISA and § 2560.502c-5 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Origination, registration, and other non-annual reporting requirements and timing</I>—(1) <I>General rule for ECEs.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, and subject to the limitations established by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, when an ECE experiences an event described in paragraphs (b)(9) or (b)(11) of this section, the administrator of the ECE shall file Form M-1 by the 30th day following the date of the event.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> Paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section does not apply to ECEs that experience an origination as described in paragraph (b)(9)(i) of this section. Such entities are required, subject to the limitations established by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, to file the Form M-1 30 days prior to the date of the event.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General rule for MEWAs</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, the administrator of the MEWA is required to register with the Secretary by filing the Form M-1 30 days prior to operating in any State.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> Paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section does not apply to MEWAs that, prior to the effective date of this section, were already in operation in a State (or States). Such entities are required to submit an annual filing pursuant to annual reporting rules described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section for that State (or those States).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule requiring MEWAs to make additional filings.</I> Subsequent to registering with the Secretary pursuant to paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, the administrator of a MEWA shall file the Form M-1:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days of knowingly operating in any additional State or States that were not indicated on a previous report filed pursuant to paragraph (e)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days of the MEWA operating with regard to the employees of an additional employer (or employers, including one or more self-employed individuals) after a merger with another MEWA;
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 30 days of the date the number of employees receiving coverage for medical care under the MEWA is at least 50 percent greater than the number of such employees on the last day of the previous calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Within 30 days of experiencing a material change as defined in the Form M-1 instructions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Anti-abuse rule.</I> If a MEWA or ECE neither offers nor provides benefits consisting of medical care within a State during the calendar year immediately following the year in which a filing is made by the ECE pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section (due to an event described in paragraph (b)(9)(i) or (b)(11)(i) of this section) or a filing is made by the MEWA pursuant to paragraph (e)(2) or (3) of this section, with respect to operating in such State, such filing will be considered to have lapsed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Multiple filings not required in certain circumstances.</I> If multiple filings are required under this paragraph (e), a single filing will satisfy this section so long as the filing is timely for each required filing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Extensions.</I> (i) An extension may be granted for filing a report required by paragraph (e)(1), (2), or (3) of this section if the administrator complies with the extension procedure prescribed in the instructions to the Form M-1.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the filing deadline set forth in this paragraph (e) is a Saturday, Sunday, or federal holiday, the form must be filed no later than the next business day.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Annual reporting requirements and timing</I>—(1) <I>Period for which reporting is required.</I> A completed copy of the Form M-1 is required to be filed for each calendar year during all or part of which the MEWA is operating and for each of the three calendar years following an origination during all or part of which the ECE is operating.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing deadline</I>—(i) <I>General March 1 filing due date for annual filings.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, a completed copy of the Form M-1 is required to be filed on or before each March 1 that follows a period for which reporting is required (as described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> Paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section does not apply to ECEs and MEWAs if, between October 1 and December 31, the entity is required to make a filing pursuant to paragraph (e)(1), (2), or (3) of this section and makes that filing timely.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extensions.</I> (i) An extension may be granted for filing a report required by paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section if the administrator complies with the extension procedure prescribed in the instructions to the Form M-1.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the filing deadline set forth in this paragraph (f) is a Saturday, Sunday, or federal holiday, the form must be filed no later than the next business day.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> MEWA <I>A</I> began offering coverage for medical care to the employees of two or more employers on July 1, 2003 (and continues to offer such coverage). MEWA <I>A</I> has satisfied all filing requirements to date.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the administrator of MEWA <I>A</I> must continue to file a timely completed Form M-1 annual report each year, but the administrator is not required to register with the Secretary because MEWA <I>A</I> meets the exception to the registration requirement in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section and has not experienced any event described in paragraph (e)(3) that would require registering with the Secretary.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On August 25, 2013, MEWA <I>B</I> is operating in State <I>P</I> and has made all appropriate filings related to those operations. On December 22, 2013 one of the employers that participates in MEWA <I>B</I> is awarded a new contract in State <I>Q.</I> The employer adds an office in State <I>Q</I> and the employees there are eligible to access its group health plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the administrator of MEWA <I>B</I> must report the addition of State <I>Q</I> by filing the Form M-1 within 30 days of knowing that it is operating in State <I>Q.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> As of July 1, 2013, MEWA <I>C</I> is preparing to operate in States <I>Y</I> and <I>Z.</I> MEWA <I>C</I> is not licensed or authorized to operate as a health insurance issuer in any State and does not meet any of the other exceptions set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the administrator of MEWA <I>C</I> is required to register with the Secretary by filing a completed Form M-1 30 days prior to operating in States <I>Y</I> or <I>Z.</I> The administrator of MEWA <I>C</I> must also report by filing the Form M-1 annually by every March 1 thereafter.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> As of July 28, 2013, MEWA <I>D</I> is operating in States <I>V</I> and <I>W.</I> MEWA <I>D</I> has satisfied the requirements of (e)(2) and, if applicable, (e)(3) with respect to those States. MEWA <I>D</I> is not licensed or authorized to operate as a health insurance issuer in any State and does not meet any of the other exceptions set forth in (c)(2) of this section. On August 5, 2013 MEWA <I>D</I> knowingly begins operating in State <I>X.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the administrator of MEWA <I>D</I> is required to make an additional registration filing with the Secretary by September 4, 2013 (within 30 days of knowingly operating in State <I>X</I>). Additionally, the administrator of MEWA <I>D</I> must continue to file the Form M-1 annually by every March 1 thereafter.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> ECE <I>A</I> began offering coverage for medical care to the employees of two or more employers on January 1, 2007 and ECE <I>A</I> has not been involved in any mergers or experienced any other origination as described in paragraph (b)(9) of this section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> ECE <I>A</I> was originated on January 1, 2007 and has not been originated since then. Therefore, the administrator of ECE <I>A</I> is not required to file a 2012 Form M-1 because the last time the ECE <I>A</I> was originated was January 1, 2007 which is more than three years prior. Further, the ECE has satisfied its reporting requirements by making three timely annual filings after its origination.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> ECE <I>B</I> wants to begin offering coverage for medical care to the employees of two or more employers on July 1, 2013.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the administrator of ECE <I>B</I> must file a completed Form M-1 on or before June 1, 2013 (which is 30 days prior to the origination date). In addition, the administrator of ECE <I>B</I> must file an updated copy of the Form M-1 by March 1, 2014 because the last date ECE <I>B</I> was originated was July 1, 2013 (which is less than three years prior to the March 1, 2014 due date). Furthermore, the administrator of ECE <I>B</I> must file the Form M-1 by March 1, 2015 and again by March 1, 2016 (because July 1, 2013 is less than three years prior to March 1, 2015 and March 1, 2016, respectively). However, if ECE <I>B</I> is not involved in any mergers and does not experience any other origination as described in paragraph (b)(9) of this section, there would not be a new origination date and no Form M-1 is required to be filed after March 1, 2016.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> ECE <I>D,</I> which currently operates in State <I>A</I> and is still within the three-year window following its origination and the timely filing related thereto, is making preparations to operate in State <I>B</I> beginning on November 1, 2013.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> by operating in State <I>B,</I> ECE <I>D</I> experiences a special event within the three-year window following its origination and must make a filing by December 2, 2013.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 7.</I> ECE <I>D</I> satisfied its special filing requirement but is unsure about its annual filing requirements.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> ECE <I>D</I> is exempt from the next annual filing due March 1, 2014 pursuant to the filing deadline exception under (f)(2)(ii) of this section. However, ECE <I>D</I> must continue making annual filings for the remainder of the three years following its origination.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 9.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> MEWA <I>E</I> begins distributing marketing materials on August 31, 2013.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> because MEWA <I>E</I> began operating on August 31, 2013, the administrator of MEWA <I>E</I> must register with the Secretary by filing a completed Form M-1 on or before August 1, 2013 (30 days prior to operating in any State). In addition, the administrator of MEWA <I>E</I> must file the Form M-1 annually by every March 1 thereafter.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 10.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 9,</I> but MEWA <I>E</I> registers on or before August 1, 2013 by filing a Form M-1 indicating it will begin operating in every State. However, in the calendar year immediately following the filing, MEWA <I>E</I> only offered or provided benefits consisting of medical care to participants in State <I>Z.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 10, the registration for all States (other than State Z) have lapsed under (e)(4) because MEWA <I>E</I> only offered or provided benefits consisting of medical care to participants in State <I>Z</I> in the calendar year immediately following the filing. If subsequently, MEWA <I>E</I> begins offering or providing benefits consisting of medical care to participants in any additional State (or States), it must make a new registration filing pursuant to (e)(3) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(g) <I>Electronic filing.</I> A completed Form M-1 is filed with the Secretary by submitting it electronically as prescribed in the instructions to the Form M-1.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Penalties</I>—(1) <I>Civil penalties and procedures.</I> For information on civil penalties under section 502(c)(5) of ERISA for persons who fail to file the information required under this section, see § 2560.502c-5 of this chapter. For information relating to administrative hearings and appeals in connection with the assessment of civil penalties under section 502(c)(5) of ERISA, see §§ 2570.90 through 2570.101 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Criminal penalties and procedures.</I> For information on criminal penalties under section 519 of ERISA for persons who knowingly make false statements or false representation of fact with regards to the information required under this section, see section 501(b) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cease and desist and summary seizure orders.</I> For information on the Secretary's authority to issue a cease and desist or summary seizure order under section 521 of ERISA, see § 2560.521.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13792, Mar. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.101-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.101-3   Notice of blackout periods under individual account plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In accordance with section 101(i) of the Act, the administrator of an individual account plan, within the meaning of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, shall provide notice of any blackout period, within the meaning of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, to all participants and beneficiaries whose rights under the plan will be temporarily suspended, limited, or restricted by the blackout period (the “affected participants and beneficiaries”) and to issuers of employer securities subject to such blackout period in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to participants and beneficiaries</I>—(1) <I>Content.</I> The notice required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and shall include—
</P>
<P>(i) The reasons for the blackout period; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the rights otherwise available to participants and beneficiaries under the plan that will be temporarily suspended, limited or restricted by the blackout period (e.g., right to direct or diversify assets in individual accounts, right to obtain loans from the plan, right to obtain distributions from the plan), including identification of any investments subject to the blackout period; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The length of the blackout period by reference to: 
</P>
<P>(A) The expected beginning date and ending date of the blackout period; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The calendar week during which the blackout period is expected to begin and end, provided that during such weeks information as to whether the blackout period has begun or ended is readily available, without charge, to affected participants and beneficiaries, such as via a toll-free number or access to a specific web site, and the notice describes how to access the information; 
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of investments affected, a statement that the participant or beneficiary should evaluate the appropriateness of their current investment decisions in light of their inability to direct or diversify assets in their accounts during the blackout period (a notice that includes the advisory statement contained in paragraph 4. of the model notice in paragraph (e)(2) of this section will satisfy this requirement); 
</P>
<P>(v) In any case in which the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section is not furnished at least 30 days in advance of the last date on which affected participants and beneficiaries could exercise affected rights immediately before the commencement of the blackout period, except for a notice furnished pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that Federal law generally requires that notice be furnished to affected participants and beneficiaries at least 30 days in advance of the last date on which participants and beneficiaries could exercise the affected rights immediately before the commencement of a blackout period (a notice that includes the statement contained in paragraph 5. of the model notice in paragraph (e)(2) of this section will satisfy this requirement), and 
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation of the reasons why at least 30 days advance notice could not be furnished; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The name, address and telephone number of the plan administrator or other contact responsible for answering questions about the blackout period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> (i) The notice described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be furnished to all affected participants and beneficiaries at least 30 days, but not more than 60 days, in advance of the last date on which such participants and beneficiaries could exercise the affected rights immediately before the commencement of any blackout period. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement to give at least 30 days advance notice contained in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section shall not apply in any case in which—
</P>
<P>(A) A deferral of the blackout period in order to comply with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section would result in a violation of the requirements of section 404(a)(1)(A) or (B) of the Act, and a fiduciary of the plan reasonably so determines in writing; 
</P>
<P>(B) The inability to provide the advance notice of a blackout period is due to events that were unforeseeable or circumstances beyond the reasonable control of the plan administrator, and a fiduciary of the plan reasonably so determines in writing; or 
</P>
<P>(C) The blackout period applies only to one or more participants or beneficiaries solely in connection with their becoming, or ceasing to be, participants or beneficiaries of the plan as a result of a merger, acquisition, divestiture, or similar transaction involving the plan or plan sponsor. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In any case in which paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section applies, the administrator shall furnish the notice described in paragraph (a) of this section to all affected participants and beneficiaries as soon as reasonably possible under the circumstances, unless such notice in advance of the termination of the blackout period is impracticable. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Determinations under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section must be dated and signed by the fiduciary. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form and manner of furnishing notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be in writing and furnished to affected participants and beneficiaries in any manner consistent with the requirements of § 2520.104b-1 of this chapter, including § 2520.104b-1(c) or § 2520.104b-31 of this chapter relating to the use of electronic media.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Changes in length of blackout period.</I> If, following the furnishing of a notice pursuant to this section, there is a change in the length of the blackout period (specified in such notice pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section), the administrator shall furnish all affected participants and beneficiaries an updated notice explaining the reasons for the change and identifying all material changes in the information contained in the prior notice. Such notice shall be furnished to all affected participants and beneficiaries as soon as reasonably possible, unless such notice in advance of the termination of the blackout period is impracticable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to issuer of employer securities.</I> (1) The notice required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be furnished to the issuer of any employer securities held by the plan and subject to the blackout period. Such notice shall contain the information described in paragraph (b)(1)(i), (ii), (iii) and (vi) of this section and shall be furnished in accordance with the time frames prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. In the event of a change in the length of the blackout period specified in such notice, the plan administrator shall furnish an updated notice to the issuer in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, notice to the agent for service of legal process for the issuer shall constitute notice to the issuer, unless the issuer has provided the plan administrator with the name of another person for service of notice, in which case the plan administrator shall furnish notice to such person. Such notice shall be in writing, except that the notice may be in electronic or other form to the extent the person to whom notice must be furnished consents to receive the notice in such form. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the issuer designates the plan administrator as the person for service of notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the issuer shall be deemed to have been furnished notice on the same date as notice is furnished to affected participants and beneficiaries pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Blackout period</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The term “blackout period” means, in connection with an individual account plan, any period for which any ability of participants or beneficiaries under the plan, which is otherwise available under the terms of such plan, to direct or diversify assets credited to their accounts, to obtain loans from the plan, or to obtain distributions from the plan is temporarily suspended, limited, or restricted, if such suspension, limitation, or restriction is for any period of more than three consecutive business days. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exclusions.</I> The term “blackout period” does not include a suspension, limitation, or restriction—
</P>
<P>(A) Which occurs by reason of the application of the securities laws (as defined in section 3(a)(47) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934); 
</P>
<P>(B) Which is a regularly scheduled suspension, limitation, or restriction under the plan (or change thereto), provided that such suspension, limitation or restriction (or change) has been disclosed to affected plan participants and beneficiaries through the summary plan description, a summary of material modifications, materials describing specific investment alternatives under the plan and limits thereon or any changes thereto, participation or enrollment forms, or any other documents and instruments pursuant to which the plan is established or operated that have been furnished to such participants and beneficiaries; 
</P>
<P>(C) Which occurs by reason of a qualified domestic relations order or by reason of a pending determination (by the plan administrator, by a court of competent jurisdiction or otherwise) whether a domestic relations order filed (or reasonably anticipated to be filed) with the plan is a qualified order within the meaning of section 206(d)(3)(B)(i) of the Act; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Which occurs by reason of an act or a failure to act on the part of an individual participant or by reason of an action or claim by a party unrelated to the plan involving the account of an individual participant. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Individual account plan.</I> The term “individual account plan” shall have the meaning provided such term in section 3(34) of the Act, except that such term shall not include a “one-participant retirement plan” within the meaning of paragraph (d)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>One-participant retirement plan.</I> The term “one-participant retirement plan” means a one-participant retirement plan as defined in section 101(i)(8)(B) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuer.</I> The term “issuer” means an issuer as defined in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c), the securities of which are registered under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or that is required to file reports under section 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or files or has filed a registration statement that has not yet become effective under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>), and that it has not withdrawn. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Calendar week.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(B), the term “calendar week” means a seven day period beginning on Sunday and ending on Saturday. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model notice</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The model notice set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section is intended to assist plan administrators in discharging their notice obligations under this section. Use of the model notice is not mandatory. However, a notice that uses the statements provided in paragraphs 4. and 5.(A) of the model notice will be deemed to satisfy the notice content requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) and (b)(1)(v)(A), respectively, of this section. With regard to all other information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, compliance with the notice content requirements will depend on the facts and circumstances pertaining to the particular blackout period and plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form and content of model notice.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Important Notice Concerning Your Rights 
</HD3>
<HD3>Under The [Enter Name of Individual Account Plan] 
</HD3>
<FP1-2>[Enter date of notice]
</FP1-2>
<P>1. This notice is to inform you that the [enter name of plan] will be [enter reasons for blackout period, as appropriate: changing investment options, changing recordkeepers, etc.]. 
</P>
<P>2. As a result of these changes, you temporarily will be unable to [enter as appropriate: direct or diversify investments in your individual accounts (if only specific investments are subject to the blackout, those investments should be specifically identified), obtain a loan from the plan, or obtain a distribution from the plan]. This period, during which you will be unable to exercise these rights otherwise available under the plan, is called a “blackout period.” Whether or not you are planning retirement in the near future, we encourage you to carefully consider how this blackout period may affect your retirement planning, as well as your overall financial plan. 
</P>
<P>3. The blackout period for the plan [enter the following as appropriate: is expected to begin on [enter date] and end [enter date]/is expected to begin during the week of [enter date] and end during the week of [enter date]. During these weeks, you can determine whether the blackout period has started or ended by [enter instructions for use toll-free number or accessing web site].
</P>
<P>4. [<I>In the case of investments affected by the blackout period, add the following:</I> During blackout period you will be unable to direct or diversify the assets held in your plan account. For this reason, it is very important that you review and consider the appropriateness of your current investments in light of your inability to direct or diversify those investments during the blackout period. For your long-term retirement security, you should give careful consideration to the importance of a well-balanced and diversified investment portfolio, taking into account all your assets, income and investments.] [If the plan permits investments in individual securities, add the following: You should be aware that there is a risk to holding substantial portions of your assets in the securities of any one company, as individual securities tend to have wider price swings, up and down, in short periods of time, than investments in diversified funds. Stocks that have wide price swings might have a large loss during the blackout period, and you would not be able to direct the sale of such stocks from your account during the blackout period.] 
</P>
<P>5. [<I>If timely notice cannot be provided (see paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section) enter:</I> (A) Federal law generally requires that you be furnished notice of a blackout period at least 30 days in advance of the last date on which you could exercise your affected rights immediately before the commencement of any blackout period in order to provide you with sufficient time to consider the effect of the blackout period on your retirement and financial plans. (B) [Enter explanation of reasons for inability to furnish 30 days advance notice.]]
</P>
<P>6. If you have any questions concerning this notice, you should contact [enter name, address and telephone number of the plan administrator or other contact responsible for answering questions about the blackout period].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Effective date.</I> This section shall be effective and shall apply to any blackout period commencing on or after January 26, 2003. For the period January 26, 2003 to February 25, 2003, plan administrators shall furnish notice as soon as reasonably possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 3727, Jan. 24, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 31922, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.101-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.101-4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.101-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.101-5   Annual funding notice for defined benefit pension plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, pursuant to section 101(f) of the Act, the administrator of a defined benefit plan to which title IV of the Act applies shall furnish annually to each person specified in paragraph (f) of this section a funding notice that conforms to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A plan administrator shall not be required to furnish a funding notice—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a multiemployer plan, for a plan year if the due date for such notice is on or after the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date the plan complies with the insolvency notice requirements of section 4245(e) or 4281(d)(3) of the Act and regulations thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date the plan has distributed assets in satisfaction of all nonforfeitable benefits under the plan pursuant to section 4041A of the Act and the regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a single-employer plan, for a plan year if the due date for the funding notice is on or after the date:
</P>
<P>(A) The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation is appointed as trustee of the plan pursuant to section 4042 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(B) The plan has distributed assets in satisfaction of all benefit liabilities in a distress termination pursuant to section 4041(c)(3)(B)(i) of the Act or of all guaranteed benefits in a distress termination pursuant to section 4041(c)(3)(B)(ii) of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(C) The plan administrator filed a standard termination notice with the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation pursuant to 29 CFR 4041.25, provided that the proposed termination date is on or before the due date of the funding notice and a final distribution of assets in satisfaction of all benefit liabilities proceeds in accordance with section 4041(b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a merger or consolidation of two or more plans—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan administrator of a non-successor plan shall not be required to furnish a funding notice for the plan year in which the merger or consolidation occurred; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The funding notice of the successor plan, for the plan year in which the merger or consolidation occurred, must, in addition to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, contain a general explanation, including the effective date, of the merger or consolidation and an identification of each plan (e.g., name and plan number) involved in the merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of notice.</I> A funding notice shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identifying information.</I> The name of the plan, the name, address, and phone number of the plan administrator and the plan's principal administrative officer (if different than the plan administrator), each plan sponsor's name and employer identification number, and the plan number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Funding percentage</I>—(i) <I>Single-employer plans.</I> For single-employer plans, a statement as to whether the plan's funding target attainment percentage (as defined in section 303(d)(2) of the Act) for the notice year, and for each of the two preceding plan years, is at least 100 percent (and, if not, the actual percentages).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Multiemployer plans.</I> For multiemployer plans, a statement as to whether the plan's funded percentage (as defined in section 305(i) of the Act) for the notice year, and for each of the two preceding plan years, is at least 100 percent (and, if not, the actual percentages).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assets and liabilities</I>—(i) <I>Single-employer plans.</I> For single-employer plans—
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the total assets (separately stating the prefunding balance and the funding standard carryover balance) and liabilities of the plan, determined in the same manner as under section 303 of the Act, as of the valuation date of the notice year and for each of the two preceding plan years, as reported in the annual report filed under section 104 of the Act for each such preceding plan year, and
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the value of the plan's assets and liabilities determined as of the last day of the notice year. For purposes of this statement, the value of the plan's assets is the fair market value of plan assets. Plan liabilities are equal to the present value of benefits accrued through the last day of the notice year determined in the same manner as liabilities are calculated under section 303 of the Act (including actuarial assumptions and methods), but using the interest rate under section 4006(a)(3)(E)(iv) of the Act in effect for the last month of the notice year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Multiemployer plans.</I> For multiemployer plans—
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the value of the plan's assets (determined in the same manner as under section 304(c)(2) of the Act) and liabilities (determined in the same manner as under section 305(i)(8) of the Act, using reasonable actuarial assumptions as required under section 304(c)(3) of the Act) as of the valuation date of the notice year and each of the two preceding plan years, and
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the fair market value of plan assets as of the last day of the notice year, and as of the last day of each of the two preceding plan years as reported in the annual report filed under section 104(a) of the Act for each such preceding plan year.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Contributions receivable.</I> For purposes of determining the fair market value of plan assets as of the last day of the notice year under paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(B) and (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, the plan administrator may, but is not required to, include contributions made after the notice year and before the notice is furnished to recipients, but only to the extent such contributions are treated for funding purposes as having been made on account of the notice year under section 303(g)(4) of the Act, in the case of a single-employer plan, or under section 304(c)(8) of the Act, in the case of a multiemployer plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Demographic information.</I> A statement of the number of participants and beneficiaries who, as of the valuation date of the notice year, are: Retired or separated from service and receiving benefits; retired or separated from service and entitled to future benefits (but currently not receiving benefits); or active participants under the plan. The statement shall indicate the number of participants and beneficiaries in each category and the sum of all such participants and beneficiaries. The terms “active” and “retired or separated” shall have the same meaning given to those terms in instructions to the annual report filed under section 104(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Funding policy.</I> A statement setting forth—
</P>
<P>(i) The funding policy of the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The asset allocation of investments under the plan (expressed as percentages of total assets) as of the end of the notice year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A general description of any investment policy of the plan as it relates to the funding policy in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section and the asset allocation of investments under paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Endangered, critical, or critical and declining status.</I> In the case of a multiemployer plan, a statement whether the plan was in endangered, critical, or critical and declining status under section 305 of the Act for the notice year and, if so—
</P>
<P>(i) A statement describing how a person may obtain a copy of the plan's funding improvement plan or rehabilitation plan, as appropriate, adopted under section 305 of the Act and the actuarial and financial data that demonstrate any action taken by the plan toward fiscal improvement;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the plan's funding improvement plan or rehabilitation plan, including any update or modification of such funding improvement or rehabilitation plan adopted under section 305 of the Act during the notice year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a multiemployer plan in critical and declining status:
</P>
<P>(A) The projected date of insolvency;
</P>
<P>(B) A clear statement that such insolvency may result in benefit reductions; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement describing whether the plan sponsor has taken legally permitted actions to prevent insolvency.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Events having a material effect on liabilities or assets.</I> Subject to paragraph (g) of this section, in the case of any plan amendment, scheduled benefit increase or reduction, or other known event taking effect in the current plan year and having a material effect on plan liabilities or assets for the year, an explanation of the amendment, scheduled benefit increase or reduction, or event, and a projection to the end of such plan year of the effect of the amendment, scheduled benefit increase or reduction, or event on plan liabilities.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Rules on termination or insolvency</I>—(i) <I>Single-employer plans.</I> In the case of a single-employer plan, a summary of the rules governing termination of single-employer plans under subtitle C of title IV of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Multiemployer plans.</I> In the case of a multiemployer plan, a summary of the rules governing insolvency, including the limitations on benefit payments.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>PBGC guarantees.</I> A general description of the benefits under the plan which are eligible to be guaranteed by the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, along with an explanation of the limitations on the guarantee and the circumstances under which such limitations apply.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Annual report information.</I> A statement that a person entitled to notice under paragraph (f) of this section may obtain a copy of the annual report of the plan filed under section 104(a) of the Act upon request, through the Internet Web site of the Department of Labor, or through any Intranet Web site maintained by the applicable plan sponsor (or plan administrator on behalf of the plan sponsor).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Information disclosed to PBGC.</I> In the case of a single-employer plan, if applicable, a statement that the contributing sponsor of the plan or a member of the contributing sponsor's controlled group was required to provide information under section 4010 of the Act for the information year ending in the notice year (see 29 CFR 4010.5).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Additional information.</I> Any additional information that the plan administrator elects to include, provided that such information is necessary or helpful to understanding the mandatory information in the notice, or is otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Style and format of notice.</I> Funding notices shall be written in a manner that is consistent with the style and format requirements of § 2520.102-2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When to furnish notice.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a funding notice shall be provided not later than 120 days after the end of the notice year.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a small plan, a funding notice shall be provided not later than the earlier of the date on which the annual report is filed under section 104(a) of the Act or the latest date the annual report must be filed under that section (including extensions). For this purpose, a single-employer plan is a small plan if it meets the exception in section 303(g)(2)(B) of the Act, and a multiemployer plan is a small plan if it had 100 or fewer participants on each day during the plan year preceding the notice year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Manner of furnishing notice.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) A funding notice must be furnished to the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation in a manner consistent with the requirements of part 4000 of title IV of the Act. The date that the notice is furnished to the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation is determined consistent with that part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Persons entitled to notice.</I> Persons entitled to a funding notice under this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) Each participant covered under the plan on the last day of the notice year;
</P>
<P>(2) Each beneficiary receiving benefits under the plan on the last day of the notice year;
</P>
<P>(3) Each alternate payee under the plan on the last day of the notice year;
</P>
<P>(4) Each labor organization representing participants under the plan on the last day of the notice year;
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a multiemployer plan, each employer that, as of the last day of the notice year, is a party to the collective bargaining agreement(s) pursuant to which the plan is maintained or who otherwise may be subject to withdrawal liability pursuant to section 4203 of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(6) The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Special rules and definitions for material effect disclosures.</I> (1) The term “current plan year” means the plan year after the notice year. Thus, for example, if the notice year is January 1, 2017 through December 31, 2017, then the current plan year would be January 1, 2018 through December 31, 2018.
</P>
<P>(2) An event described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section is recognized as “taking effect” in the current plan year if the effect of the event is taken into account for the first time for funding under section 430 or 431 of the Internal Revenue Code, as applicable, in such year.
</P>
<P>(3) An event described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section has a “material effect” if it results, or is projected to result, in an increase or decrease of five percent or more in the value of assets or liabilities from the valuation date of the notice year. For this measurement, calculate assets and liabilities in the same manner as under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) An event described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section has a “material effect” if, in the judgment of the plan's enrolled actuary, the effect of the event is considered material for purposes of the plan's funding status under section 430 or 431, as applicable, of the Internal Revenue Code, without regard to paragraph (g)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) An event described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section is “known” only if it is known by the plan administrator prior to 120 days before the due date of the notice. Thus, if an event otherwise described in paragraph (b)(7) first becomes known to a plan administrator 120 days or less before the due date of a notice, the plan administrator is not required to explain, or project the effect of, the event in that notice.
</P>
<P>(6) The term “other known event” includes, but is not limited to, an extension of coverage under the existing terms of the plan to a new group of employees; a plan merger, consolidation, or spinoff pursuant to regulations under section 414(l) of the Internal Revenue Code; or, a shutdown of any facility, plant, store, or such other similar corporate event that creates immediate eligibility for benefits that would not otherwise be immediately payable for participants separating from service. The term does not include market fluctuations.
</P>
<P>(7) With respect to events described in paragraph (g)(4) of this section, the plan administrator may, instead of projecting the effect on plan liabilities to the end of the current plan year, include an explanation why the event is considered material by the enrolled actuary.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Example.</I> The following example illustrates the special rules and definitions of paragraph (g) of this section:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>Plan Y is a single-employer calendar year plan. Company X, the sponsor of Plan Y, adopts an amendment on June 1, 2017, offering a subsidized early retirement benefit to participants age 50 or older who retire on or after September 1, 2017 and before March 1, 2018. The amendment increases the liabilities of Plan Y by an amount greater than 5% of the value of Plan Y's liabilities on January 1, 2017. Company X does not make an election under Code section 412(d)(2) to accelerate recognition of the event for funding. The amendment is taken into account for the first time under section 430 of the Code as of the January 1, 2018 valuation date. Therefore, the amendment is recognized as taking effect under the final rule in 2018. Since the amendment adopted on June 1, 2017, is known more than 120 days prior to the April 30, 2018 due date of the 2017 funding notice, the amendment must be disclosed in the 2017 funding notice under paragraph (b)(7) of the final regulations as a material effect event taking effect in 2018 (<I>i.e.,</I> the current plan year).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(h) <I>Model notices.</I> (1) The appendices to this section contain a model notice for single-employer plans and a model notice for multiemployer plans. These models are intended to assist plan administrators in discharging their notice obligations under this section. Use of a model notice is not mandatory. However, subject to paragraph (h)(2) of this section, use of a model notice will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(11) and paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent a plan administrator elects to include in a model notice information described in paragraph (b)(12) of this section, such additional information must be consistent with the style and format requirements in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice year.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “notice year” means the plan year to which the notice relates. For example, for a calendar year plan that must furnish its 2010 funding notice no later than the 120th day of 2011, the “notice year” is the 2010 plan year.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Alternative method of compliance for furnishing notice to PBGC for certain single-employer plans.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the plan administrator of a single-employer plan is not required to furnish a notice to the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation annually if, based on the data described in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section for the notice year, plan liabilities do not exceed total plan assets by more than $50 million, provided that the plan administrator furnishes the latest available funding notice to the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation within 30 days of a written request.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Alternative method of compliance for multiemployer plans terminated by mass withdrawal.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, for plan years beginning after the date specified in section 4041A(b)(2) of the Act, an alternative method of compliance is available in the case of a multiemployer plan that terminates as a result of the withdrawal of every employer from the plan or the cessation of the obligation of all employers to contribute under the plan, as described in section 4041A(a)(2) of the Act. Under this alternative method, the plan administrator shall furnish annually to each person described in paragraph (f)(1) through (3) of this section a notice that complies with paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (k)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the fair market value of the plan's assets as of the last day of the notice year, and as of the last day of each of the two preceding plan years as reported in the annual report filed under section 104(a) of the Act for each such preceding plan year;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the amount of benefit payments made during the notice year and each of the two preceding plan years;
</P>
<P>(iii) If a notice has not already been furnished pursuant to 29 CFR 4281.32, a statement that benefits may be reduced pursuant to section 4281(c) of the Act and a summary of the rules governing such reductions;
</P>
<P>(iv) A summary of the rules governing insolvency, including the limitations on benefit payments, pursuant to paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The information described in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(9), and (b)(10) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any additional information that the plan administrator elects to include, subject to the requirements of paragraph (b)(12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Alternative method of compliance for Internal Revenue Code section 412(e)(3) plans.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an alternative method of compliance is available in the case of an insurance contract plan described in section 412(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986. Under this alternative method, the plan administrator shall furnish annually to each person described in paragraph (f) of this section a notice that complies with paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (l)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice includes:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation that the plan is funded exclusively by an insurance contract or contracts, that such contract or contracts provide for the benefit payments to participants and beneficiaries, that such benefit payments are guaranteed by a licensed insurance company or companies, and the name of the insurance company or companies;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement whether, as of the last day of the notice year, there were any delinquent premiums and, if so, the amount and date of the delinquency and the effect on the plan and on participants and beneficiaries in the event of a policy lapse;
</P>
<P>(iii) The information described in paragraph (b)(1), (b)(9), and (b)(10) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any additional information that the plan administrator elects to include, provided that such information meets the standard in paragraph (b)(12) of this section.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>CSEC plans.</I> [Reserved]

</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 2520.101-5—Single-Employer Plan Model Annual Funding Notice</HD1></EXTRACT>
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<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 2520.101-5—Multiemployer Plan Model Annual Funding Notice</HD1></EXTRACT>
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<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 5645, Feb. 2, 2015]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.101-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.101-6   Multiemployer pension plan information made available on request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of compliance with the requirements of section 101(k) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), 29 U.S.C. 1001, <I>et seq.,</I> the administrator of a multiemployer pension plan shall, in accordance with the requirements of this section, furnish copies of reports and applications described in paragraph (c) of this section to plan participants, beneficiaries, employee representatives and contributing employers, described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obligation to furnish.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the administrator of a multiemployer pension plan shall, not later than 30 days after receipt of a written request for a report(s) or application(s) described in paragraph (c) of this section from a plan participant, beneficiary, employee representative or contributing employer described in paragraph (e) of this section, furnish the requested document or documents to the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan administrator shall furnish reports and applications pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section in a manner consistent with the requirements of 29 CFR 2520.104b-1, including paragraph (c) of that section relating to the use of electronic media.
</P>
<P>(3) The plan administrator may impose a reasonable charge to cover the costs of furnishing documents pursuant to this section, but in no event may such charge exceed—
</P>
<P>(i) The lesser of: (A) The actual cost to the plan for the least expensive means of acceptable reproduction of the document(s) or (B) 25 cents per page; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The cost of mailing or delivery of the document.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents to be furnished.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, and subject to paragraph (d) of this section, a plan participant, beneficiary, employee representative or contributing employer described in paragraph (e) of this section, shall be entitled to request and receive a copy of any:
</P>
<P>(1) Periodic actuarial report. For this purpose the term “periodic actuarial report” means any—
</P>
<P>(i) Actuarial report prepared by an actuary of the plan and received by the plan at regularly scheduled, recurring intervals; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Study, test (including a sensitivity test), document, analysis or other information (whether or not called a “report”) received by the plan from an actuary of the plan that depicts alternative funding scenarios based on a range of alternative actuarial assumptions, whether or not such information is received by the plan at regularly scheduled, recurring intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) Quarterly, semi-annual, or annual financial report prepared for the plan by any plan investment manager or advisor (without regard to whether such advisor is a fiduciary within the meaning of section 3(21) of the Act) or other fiduciary; and
</P>
<P>(3) Application filed with the Secretary of the Treasury requesting an extension under section 304 of the Act or section 431(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and the determination of such Secretary pursuant to such application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations and exceptions.</I> For purposes of this section, reports and applications (and related determinations) required to be disclosed under this section shall not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any report or application that was furnished to the requester within the 12-month period immediately preceding the date on which the request is received by the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Any report or application that, as of the date on which the request is received by the plan, has been in the plan's possession for 6 years or more;
</P>
<P>(3) Any report described in paragraph (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section that, as of the date on which the request is received by the plan, has not been in the plan's possession for at least 30 days; except that, if the plan administrator elects not to furnish any such document, the administrator shall furnish a notice, not later than 30 days after the date on which request is received by the plan, informing the requester of the existence of the document and the earliest date on which the document can be furnished by the plan.
</P>
<P>(4) Any information or data which served as the basis for any report or application described in paragraph (c) of this section, although nothing herein shall limit any other right that a person may have to review or obtain such information under the Act; or
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Any information within a report or application that the plan administrator reasonably determines to be either:
</P>
<P>(A) individually identifiable information with respect to any plan participant, beneficiary, employee, fiduciary, or contributing employer, except that such limitation shall not apply to an investment manager, adviser, or other person (other than an employee of the plan) preparing a financial report described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) proprietary information regarding the plan, any contributing employer, or entity providing services to the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(5)(i)(B) of this section, the term “proprietary information” means trade secrets and other non-public information (e.g., processes, procedures, formulas, methodologies, techniques, strategies) that, if disclosed by the plan, may cause, or increase a reasonable risk of, financial harm to the plan, a contributing employer, or entity providing services to the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan administrator may treat information relating to a contributing employer or entity providing services to the plan as other than proprietary if the contributing employer or service provider has not identified such information as proprietary.
</P>
<P>(iv) A plan administrator shall inform the requester if the plan administrator withholds any information described in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section from a report or application requested under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Persons entitled to request documents.</I> For purposes of this section, a plan participant, beneficiary, employee representative or contributing employer entitled to request and receive reports and applications includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any participant within the meaning of section 3(7) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Any beneficiary receiving benefits under the plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Any labor organization representing participants under the plan;
</P>
<P>(4) Any employer that is a party to the collective bargaining agreement(s) pursuant to which the plan is maintained or who otherwise may be subject to withdrawal liability pursuant to section 4203 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 9341, Mar. 2, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Contents of Plan Descriptions and Summary Plan Descriptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.102-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.102-1   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.102-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.102-2   Style and format of summary plan description.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of presentation.</I> The summary plan description shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and shall be sufficiently comprehensive to apprise the plan's participants and beneficiaries of their rights and obligations under the plan. In fulfilling these requirements, the plan administrator shall exercise considered judgment and discretion by taking into account such factors as the level of comprehension and education of typical participants in the plan and the complexity of the terms of the plan. Consideration of these factors will usually require the limitation or elimination of technical jargon and of long, complex sentences, the use of clarifying examples and illustrations, the use of clear cross references and a table of contents. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General format.</I> The format of the summary plan description must not have the effect to misleading, misinforming or failing to inform participants and beneficiaries. Any description of exception, limitations, reductions, and other restrictions of plan benefits shall not be minimized, rendered obscure or otherwise made to appear unimportant. Such exceptions, limitations, reductions, or restrictions of plan benefits shall be described or summarized in a manner not less prominent than the style, captions, printing type, and prominence used to describe or summarize plan benefits. The advantages and disadvantages of the plan shall be presented without either exaggerating the benefits or minimizing the limitations. The description or summary of restrictive plan provisions need not be disclosed in the summary plan description in close conjunction with the description or summary of benefits, provided that adjacent to the benefit description the page on which the restrictions are described is noted. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign languages.</I> In the case of either— 
</P>
<P>(1) A plan that covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of a plan year, and in which 25 percent or more of all plan participants are literate only in the same non-English language, or 
</P>
<P>(2) A plan which covers 100 or more participants at the beginning of the plan year, and in which the lesser of (i) 500 or more participants, or (ii) 10% or more of all plan participants are literate only in the same non-English language, so that a summary plan description in English would fail to inform these participants adequately of their rights and obligations under the plan, the plan administrator for such plan shall provide these participants with an English-language summary plan description which prominently displays a notice, in the non-English language common to these participants, offering them assistance. The assistance provided need not involve written materials, but shall be given in the non-English language common to these participants and shall be calculated to provide them with a reasonable opportunity to become informed as to their rights and obligations under the plan. The notice offering assistance contained in the summary plan description shall clearly set forth in the non-English language common to such participants offering them assistance. The assistance provided need not involve written materials, but shall be given in the non-English language common to these participants and shall be calculated to provide them with a reasonable opportunity to become informed as to their rights and obligations under the plan. The notice offering assistance contained in the summary plan description shall clearly set forth in the non-English language common to such participants the procedures they must follow in order to obtain such assistance.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>Employer A maintains a pension plan which covers 1000 participants. At the beginning of a plan year five hundred of Employer A's covered employees are literate only in Spanish, 101 are literate only in Vietnamese, and the remaining 399 are literate in English. Each of the 1000 employees receives a summary plan description in English, containing an assistance notice in both Spanish and Vietnamese stating the following:
</PSPACE><P>“This booklet contains a summary in English of your plan rights and benefits under Employer A Pension Plan. If you have difficulty understanding any part of this booklet, contact Mr. John Doe, the plan administrator, at his office in Room 123, 456 Main St., Anywhere City, State 20001. Office hours are from 8:30 A.M. to 5:00 P.M. Monday through Friday. You may also call the plan administrator's office at (202) 555-2345 for assistance.”</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37180, July 19, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.102-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.102-3   Contents of summary plan description.</HEAD>
<P>Section 102 of the Act specifies information that must be included in the summary plan description. The summary plan description must accurately reflect the contents of the plans as of the date not earlier than 120 days prior to the date such summary plan description is disclosed. The following information shall be included in the summary plan description of both employee welfare benefit plans and employee pension benefit plans, except as stated otherwise in paragraphs (j) through (n):
</P>
<P>(a) The name of the plan, and, if different, the name by which the plan is commonly known by its participants and beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(b) The name and address of—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a single employer plan, the employer whose employees are covered by the plan,
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a plan maintained by an employee organization for its members, the employee organization that maintains the plan,
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a collectively-bargained plan established or maintained by one or more employers and one or more employee organizations, the association, committee, joint board of trustees, parent or most significantly employer of a group of employers all of which contribute to the same plan, or other similar representative of the parties who established or maintain the plan, as well as 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that a complete list of the employers and employee organizations sponsoring the plan may be obtained by participants and beneficiaries upon written request to the plan administrator, and is available for examination by participants and beneficiaries, as required by §§ 2520.104b-1 and 2520.104b-30; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that participants and beneficiaries may receive from the plan administrator, upon written request, information as to whether a particular employer or employee organization is a sponsor of the plan and, if the employer or employee organization is a plan sponsor, the sponsor's address.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a plan established or maintained by two or more employers, the association, committee, joint board of trustees, parent or most significant employer of a group of employers all of which contribute to the same plan, or other similar representative of the parties who established or maintain the plan, as well as
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that a complete list of the employers sponsoring the plan may be obtained by participants and beneficiaries upon written request to the plan administrator, and is available for examination by participants and beneficiaries, as required by §§ 2520.104b-1 and 2520.104b-30, or,
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that participants and beneficiaries may receive from the plan administrator, upon written request, information as to whether a particular employer is a sponsor of the plan and, if the employer is a plan sponsor, the sponsor's address.
</P>
<P>(c) The employer identification number (EIN) assigned by the Internal Revenue Service to the plan sponsor and the plan number assigned by the plan sponsor. (For further detailed explanation, see the instructions to the plan description Form EBS-1 and “Identification Numbers Under ERISA” (Publ. 1004), published jointly by DOL, IRS, and PBGC);
</P>
<P>(d) The type of pension or welfare plan, e.g. pension plans—defined benefit, defined contribution, 401(k), cash balance, money purchase, profit sharing, ERISA section 404(c) plan, etc., and for welfare plans—group health plans, disability, pre-paid legal services, etc.
</P>
<P>(e) The type of administration of the plan, e.g., contract administration, insurer administration, etc.; 
</P>
<P>(f) The name, business address and business telephone number of the plan administrator as that term is defined by section 3(16) of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(g) The name of the person designated as agent for service of legal process, and the address at which process may be served on such person, and in addition, a statement that service of legal process may be made upon a plan trustee or the plan administrator; 
</P>
<P>(h) The name, title and address of the principal place of business of each trustee of the plan; 
</P>
<P>(i) If a plan is maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements, a statement that the plan is so maintained, and that a copy of any such agreement may be obtained by participants and beneficiaries upon written request to the plan administrator, and is available for examination by participants and beneficiaries, as required by §§ 2520.104b-1 and 2520.104b-30. For the purpose of this paragraph, a plan is maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement if such agreement controls any duties, rights or benefits under the plan, even though such agreement has been superseded in part for other purposes; 
</P>
<P>(j) The plan's requirements respecting eligibility for participation and for benefits. The summary plan description shall describe the plan's provisions relating to eligibility to participate in the plan and the information identified in paragraphs (j)(1), (2) and (3) of this section, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(1) For employee pension benefit plans, it shall also include a statement describing the plan's normal retirement age, as that term is defined in section 3(24) of the Act, and a statement describing any other conditions which must be met before a participant will be eligible to receive benefits. Such plan benefits shall be described or summarized. In addition, the summary plan description shall include a description of the procedures governing qualified domestic relations order (QDRO) determinations or a statement indicating that participants and beneficiaries can obtain, without charge, a copy of such procedures from the plan administrator. 
</P>
<P>(2) For employee welfare benefit plans, it shall also include a statement of the conditions pertaining to eligibility to receive benefits, and a description or summary of the benefits. In the case of a welfare plan providing extensive schedules of benefits (a group health plan, for example), only a general description of such benefits is required if reference is made to detailed schedules of benefits which are available without cost to any participant or beneficiary who so requests. In addition, the summary plan description shall include a description of the procedures governing qualified medical child support order (QMCSO) determinations or a statement indicating that participants and beneficiaries can obtain, without charge, a copy of such procedures from the plan administrator. 
</P>
<P>(3) For employee welfare benefit plans that are group health plans, as defined in section 733(a)(1) of the Act, the summary plan description shall include a description of: any cost-sharing provisions, including premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and copayment amounts for which the participant or beneficiary will be responsible; any annual or lifetime caps or other limits on benefits under the plan; the extent to which preventive services are covered under the plan; whether, and under what circumstances, existing and new drugs are covered under the plan; whether, and under what circumstances, coverage is provided for medical tests, devices and procedures; provisions governing the use of network providers, the composition of the provider network, and whether, and under what circumstances, coverage is provided for out-of-network services; any conditions or limits on the selection of primary care providers or providers of speciality medical care; any conditions or limits applicable to obtaining emergency medical care; and any provisions requiring preauthorizations or utilization review as a condition to obtaining a benefit or service under the plan. In the case of plans with provider networks, the listing of providers may be furnished as a separate document that accompanies the plan's SPD, provided that the summary plan description contains a general description of the provider network and provided further that the SPD contains a statement that provider lists are furnished automatically, without charge, as a separate document.
</P>
<P>(k) In the case of an employee pension benefit plan, a statement describing any joint and survivor benefits provided under the plan, including any requirement that an election be made as a condition to select or reject the joint and survivor annuity; 
</P>
<P>(l) For both pension and welfare benefit plans, a statement clearly identifying circumstances which may result in disqualification, ineligibility, or denial, loss, forfeiture, suspension, offset, reduction, or recovery (e.g., by exercise of subrogation or reimbursement rights) of any benefits that a participant or beneficiary might otherwise reasonably expect the plan to provide on the basis of the description of benefits required by paragraphs (j) and (k) of this section. In addition to other required information, plans must include a summary of any plan provisions governing the authority of the plan sponsors or others to terminate the plan or amend or eliminate benefits under the plan and the circumstances, if any, under which the plan may be terminated or benefits may be amended or eliminated; a summary of any plan provisions governing the benefits, rights and obligations of participants and beneficiaries under the plan on termination of the plan or amendment or elimination of benefits under the plan, including, in the case of an employee pension benefit plan, a summary of any provisions relating to the accrual and the vesting of pension benefits under the plan upon termination; and a summary of any plan provisions governing the allocation and disposition of assets of the plan upon termination. Plans also shall include a summary of any provisions that may result in the imposition of a fee or charge on a participant or beneficiary, or on an individual account thereof, the payment of which is a condition to the receipt of benefits under the plan. The foregoing summaries shall be disclosed in accordance with the requirements under 29 CFR 2520.102-2(b).
</P>
<P>(m) For an employee pension benefit plan the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the benefits of the plan are not insured under title IV of the Act, a statement of this fact, and reason for the lack of insurance; and 
</P>
<P>(2) If the benefits of the plan are insured under title IV of the Act, a statement of this fact, a summary of the pension benefit guaranty provisions of title IV, and a statement indicating that further information on the provisions of title IV can be obtained from the plan administrator or the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation. The address of the PBGC shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(3) A summary plan description for a single-employer plan will be deemed to comply with paragraph (m)(2) of this section if it includes the following statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Your pension benefits under this plan are insured by the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC), a federal insurance agency. If the plan terminates (ends) without enough money to pay all benefits, the PBGC will step in to pay pension benefits. Most people receive all of the pension benefits they would have received under their plan, but some people may lose certain benefits. 
</P>
<P>The PBGC guarantee generally covers: (1) Normal and early retirement benefits; (2) disability benefits if you become disabled before the plan terminates; and (3) certain benefits for your survivors. 
</P>
<P>The PBGC guarantee generally does not cover: (1) Benefits greater than the maximum guaranteed amount set by law for the year in which the plan terminates; (2) some or all of benefit increases and new benefits based on plan provisions that have been in place for fewer than 5 years at the time the plan terminates; (3) benefits that are not vested because you have not worked long enough for the company; (4) benefits for which you have not met all of the requirements at the time the plan terminates; (5) certain early retirement payments (such as supplemental benefits that stop when you become eligible for Social Security) that result in an early retirement monthly benefit greater than your monthly benefit at the plan's normal retirement age; and (6) non-pension benefits, such as health insurance, life insurance, certain death benefits, vacation pay, and severance pay. 
</P>
<P>Even if certain of your benefits are not guaranteed, you still may receive some of those benefits from the PBGC depending on how much money your plan has and on how much the PBGC collects from employers. 
</P>
<P>For more information about the PBGC and the benefits it guarantees, ask your plan administrator or contact the PBGC's Technical Assistance Division, 1200 K Street N.W., Suite 930, Washington, D.C. 20005-4026 or call 202-326-4000 (not a toll-free number). TTY/TDD users may call the federal relay service toll-free at 1-800-877-8339 and ask to be connected to 202-326-4000. Additional information about the PBGC's pension insurance program is available through the PBGC's website on the Internet at <I>http://www.pbgc.gov.</I></P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) A summary plan description for a multiemployer plan will be deemed to comply with paragraph (m)(2) of this section if it includes the following statement: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Your pension benefits under this multiemployer plan are insured by the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC), a federal insurance agency. A multiemployer plan is a collectively bargained pension arrangement involving two or more unrelated employers, usually in a common industry. 
</P>
<P>Under the multiemployer plan program, the PBGC provides financial assistance through loans to plans that are insolvent. A multiemployer plan is considered insolvent if the plan is unable to pay benefits (at least equal to the PBGC's guaranteed benefit limit) when due. 
</P>
<P>The maximum benefit that the PBGC guarantees is set by law. Under the multiemployer program, the PBGC guarantee equals a participant's years of service multiplied by (1) 100% of the first $5 of the monthly benefit accrual rate and (2) 75% of the next $15. The PBGC's maximum guarantee limit is $16.25 per month times a participant's years of service. For example, the maximum annual guarantee for a retiree with 30 years of service would be $5,850. 
</P>
<P>The PBGC guarantee generally covers: (1) Normal and early retirement benefits; (2) disability benefits if you become disabled before the plan becomes insolvent; and (3) certain benefits for your survivors. 
</P>
<P>The PBGC guarantee generally does not cover: (1) Benefits greater than the maximum guaranteed amount set by law; (2) benefit increases and new benefits based on plan provisions that have been in place for fewer than 5 years at the earlier of: (i) The date the plan terminates or (ii) the time the plan becomes insolvent; (3) benefits that are not vested because you have not worked long enough; (4) benefits for which you have not met all of the requirements at the time the plan becomes insolvent; and (5) non-pension benefits, such as health insurance, life insurance, certain death benefits, vacation pay, and severance pay. 
</P>
<P>For more information about the PBGC and the benefits it guarantees, ask your plan administrator or contact the PBGC's Technical Assistance Division, 1200 K Street, N.W., Suite 930, Washington, D.C. 20005-4026 or call 202-326-4000 (not a toll-free number). TTY/TDD users may call the federal relay service toll-free at 1-800-877-8339 and ask to be connected to 202-326-4000. Additional information about the PBGC's pension insurance program is available through the PBGC's website on the Internet at <I>http://www.pbgc.gov.</I></P></EXTRACT>
<P>(n) In the case of an employee pension benefit plan, a description and explanation of the plan provisions for determining years of service for eligibility to participate, vesting, and breaks in service, and years of participation for benefit accrual. The description shall state the service required to accrue full benefits and the manner in which accrual of benefits is prorated for employees failing to complete full service for a year.
</P>
<P>(o) In the case of a group health plan, within the meaning of section 607(1) of the Act, subject to the continuation coverage provisions of Part 6 of Title I of ERISA, a description of the rights and obligations of participants and beneficiaries with respect to continuation coverage, including, among other things, information concerning qualifying events and qualified beneficiaries, premiums, notice and election requirements and procedures, and duration of coverage.
</P>
<P>(p) The sources of contributions to the plan—for example, employer, employee organization, employees—and the method by which the amount of contribution is calculated. Defined benefit pension plans may state without further explanation that the contribution is actuarially determined.
</P>
<P>(q) The identity of any funding medium used for the accumulation of assets through which benefits are provided. The summary plan description shall identify any insurance company, trust fund, or any other institution, organization, or entity which maintains a fund on behalf of the plan or through which the plan is funded or benefits are provided. If a health insurance issuer, within the meaning of section 733(b)(2) of the Act, is responsible, in whole or in part, for the financing or administration of a group health plan, the summary plan description shall indicate the name and address of the issuer, whether and to what extent benefits under the plan are guaranteed under a contract or policy of insurance issued by the issuer, and the nature of any administrative services (e.g., payment of claims) provided by the issuer.
</P>
<P>(r) The date of the end of the year for purposes of maintaining the plan's fiscal records;
</P>
<P>(s) The procedures governing claims for benefits (including procedures for obtaining preauthorizations, approvals, or utilization review decisions in the case of group health plan services or benefits, and procedures for filing claim forms, providing notifications of benefit determinations, and reviewing denied claims in the case of any plan), applicable time limits, and remedies available under the plan for the redress of claims which are denied in whole or in part (including procedures required under section 503 of Title I of the Act). The plan's claims procedures may be furnished as a separate document that accompanies the plan's SPD, provided that the document satisfies the style and format requirements of 29 CFR 2520.102-2 and, provided further that the SPD contains a statement that the plan's claims procedures are furnished automatically, without charge, as a separate document.
</P>
<P>(t)(1) The statement of ERISA rights described in section 104(c) of the Act, containing the items of information applicable to the plan included in the model statement of paragraph (t)(2) of this section. Items which are not applicable to the plan are not required to be included. The statement may contain explanatory and descriptive provisions in addition to those prescribed in paragraph (t)(2) of this section. However, the style and format of the statement shall not have the effect of misleading, misinforming or failing to inform participants and beneficiaries of a plan. All such information shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant, taking into account factors such as the level of comprehension and education of typical participants in the plan and the complexity of the items required under this subparagraph to be included in the statement. Inaccurate, incomprehensible or misleading explanatory material will fail to meet the requirements of this section. The statement of ERISA rights (the model statement or a statement prepared by the plan), must appear as one consolidated statement. If a plan finds it desirable to make additional mention of certain rights elsewhere in the summary plan description, it may do so. The summary plan description may state that the statement of ERISA rights is required by Federal law and regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) A summary plan description will be deemed to comply with the requirements of paragraph (t)(1) of this section if it includes the following statement; items of information which are not applicable to a particular plan should be deleted: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>As a participant in (name of plan) you are entitled to certain rights and protections under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA). ERISA provides that all plan participants shall be entitled to: 
</P>
<HD1>Receive Information About Your Plan and Benefits 
</HD1>
<P>Examine, without charge, at the plan administrator's office and at other specified locations, such as worksites and union halls, all documents governing the plan, including insurance contracts and collective bargaining agreements, and a copy of the latest annual report (Form 5500 Series) filed by the plan with the U.S. Department of Labor and available at the Public Disclosure Room of the Pension and Welfare Benefit Administration. 
</P>
<P>Obtain, upon written request to the plan administrator, copies of documents governing the operation of the plan, including insurance contracts and collective bargaining agreements, and copies of the latest annual report (Form 5500 Series) and updated summary plan description. The administrator may make a reasonable charge for the copies. 
</P>
<P>Receive a summary of the plan's annual financial report. The plan administrator is required by law to furnish each participant with a copy of this summary annual report. 
</P>
<P>Obtain a statement telling you whether you have a right to receive a pension at normal retirement age (age * * *) and if so, what your benefits would be at normal retirement age if you stop working under the plan now. If you do not have a right to a pension, the statement will tell you how many more years you have to work to get a right to a pension. This statement must be requested in writing and is not required to be given more than once every twelve (12) months. The plan must provide the statement free of charge. 
</P>
<HD1>Continue Group Health Plan Coverage 
</HD1>
<P>Continue health care coverage for yourself, spouse or dependents if there is a loss of coverage under the plan as a result of a qualifying event. You or your dependents may have to pay for such coverage. Review this summary plan description and the documents governing the plan on the rules governing your COBRA continuation coverage rights. 
</P>
<P>Reduction or elimination of exclusionary periods of coverage for preexisting conditions under your group health plan, if you have creditable coverage from another plan. You should be provided a certificate of creditable coverage, free of charge, from your group health plan or health insurance issuer when you lose coverage under the plan, when you become entitled to elect COBRA continuation coverage, when your COBRA continuation coverage ceases, if you request it before losing coverage, or if you request it up to 24 months after losing coverage. Without evidence of creditable coverage, you may be subject to a preexisting condition exclusion for 12 months (18 months for late enrollees) after your enrollment date in your coverage. 
</P>
<HD1>Prudent Actions by Plan Fiduciaries 
</HD1>
<P>In addition to creating rights for plan participants ERISA imposes duties upon the people who are responsible for the operation of the employee benefit plan. The people who operate your plan, called “fiduciaries” of the plan, have a duty to do so prudently and in the interest of you and other plan participants and beneficiaries. No one, including your employer, your union, or any other person, may fire you or otherwise discriminate against you in any way to prevent you from obtaining a (pension, welfare) benefit or exercising your rights under ERISA. 
</P>
<HD1>Enforce Your Rights 
</HD1>
<P>If your claim for a (pension, welfare) benefit is denied or ignored, in whole or in part, you have a right to know why this was done, to obtain copies of documents relating to the decision without charge, and to appeal any denial, all within certain time schedules. 
</P>
<P>Under ERISA, there are steps you can take to enforce the above rights. For instance, if you request a copy of plan documents or the latest annual report from the plan and do not receive them within 30 days, you may file suit in a Federal court. In such a case, the court may require the plan administrator to provide the materials and pay you up to $110 a day until you receive the materials, unless the materials were not sent because of reasons beyond the control of the administrator. If you have a claim for benefits which is denied or ignored, in whole or in part, you may file suit in a state or Federal court. In addition, if you disagree with the plan's decision or lack thereof concerning the qualified status of a domestic relations order or a medical child support order, you may file suit in Federal court. If it should happen that plan fiduciaries misuse the plan's money, or if you are discriminated against for asserting your rights, you may seek assistance from the U.S. Department of Labor, or you may file suit in a Federal court. The court will decide who should pay court costs and legal fees. If you are successful the court may order the person you have sued to pay these costs and fees. If you lose, the court may order you to pay these costs and fees, for example, if it finds your claim is frivolous. 
</P>
<HD1>Assistance with Your Questions 
</HD1>
<P>If you have any questions about your plan, you should contact the plan administrator. If you have any questions about this statement or about your rights under ERISA, or if you need assistance in obtaining documents from the plan administrator, you should contact the nearest office of the Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, listed in your telephone directory or the Division of Technical Assistance and Inquiries, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue N.W., Washington, D.C. 20210. You may also obtain certain publications about your rights and responsibilities under ERISA by calling the publications hotline of the Employee Benefits Security Administration.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(u)(1) For a group health plan, as defined in section 733(a)(1) of the Act, that provides maternity or newborn infant coverage, a statement describing any requirements under federal or state law applicable to the plan, and any health insurance coverage offered under the plan, relating to hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth for the mother or newborn child. If federal law applies in some areas in which the plan operates and state law applies in other areas, the statement should describe the different areas and the federal or state law requirements applicable in each. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a group health plan subject to section 711 of the Act, the summary plan description will be deemed to have complied with paragraph (u)(1) of this section relating to the required description of federal law requirements if it includes the following statement in the summary plan description: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Group health plans and health insurance issuers generally may not, under Federal law, restrict benefits for any hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth for the mother or newborn child to less than 48 hours following a vaginal delivery, or less than 96 hours following a cesarean section. However, Federal law generally does not prohibit the mother's or newborn's attending provider, after consulting with the mother, from discharging the mother or her newborn earlier than 48 hours (or 96 hours as applicable). In any case, plans and issuers may not, under Federal law, require that a provider obtain authorization from the plan or the insurance issuer for prescribing a length of stay not in excess of 48 hours (or 96 hours).</P></EXTRACT>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0039) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37180, July 19, 1977, as amended at 62 FR 16984, Apr. 8, 1997; 62 FR 31695, June 10, 1997; 62 FR 36205, July 7, 1997; 63 FR 48375, Sept. 9, 1998; 65 FR 70241, Nov. 21, 2000; 66 FR 34994, July 2, 2001; 66 FR 36368, July 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.102-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.102-4   Option for different summary plan descriptions.</HEAD>
<P>In some cases an employee benefit plan may provide different benefits for various classes of participants and beneficiaries. For example, a plan amendment altering benefits may apply to only those participants who are employees of an employer when the amendment is adopted and to employees who later become participants, but not to participants who no longer are employees when the amendment is adopted. (See § 2520.104b-4). Similarly, a plan may provide for different benefits for participants employed at different plants of the employer, or for different classes of participants in the same plant. In such cases the plan administrator may fulfill the requirement to furnish a summary plan description to participants covered under the plan and beneficiaries receiving benefits under the plan by furnishing to each member of each class of participants and beneficiaries a copy of a summary plan description appropriate to that class. Each summary plan description so prepared shall follow the style and format prescribed in § 2520.102-2, and shall contain all information which is required to be contained in the summary plan description under § 2520.102-3. It may omit information which is not applicable to the class of participants or beneficiaries to which it is furnished. It should also clearly identify on the first page of the text the class of participants and beneficiaries for which it has been prepared and the plan's coverage of other classes. If the classes which the employee benefit plan covers are too numerous to be listed adequately on the first page of the text of the summary plan description, they may be listed elsewhere in the text so long as the first page of the text contains a reference to the page or pages in the text which contain this information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 775, Jan. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Annual Report Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 10140, Mar. 10, 1978, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-1   Contents of the annual report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in §§ 2520.104-43, 2520.104-51, 2520.104a-6, and 2520.104a-9, the administrator of a plan required to file an annual report in accordance with section 104(a)(1) of the Act shall include with the annual report the information prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or in the simplified report, limited exemption or alternative method of compliance described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.




</P>
<P>(1) The annual report shall contain the information prescribed in section 103 of the Act.


</P>
<P>(2) Under the authority of subsections 104(a)(2), 104(a)(3), and 110 of the Act, section 1103(b) of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, and section 202 of the SECURE Act, a simplified report, limited exemption, or alternative method of compliance is prescribed for employee welfare and pension benefit plans, as applicable. A plan filing a simplified report or electing the limited exemption, or an alternative method of compliance shall file an annual report containing the information prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as applicable, and shall furnish a summary annual report as prescribed in § 2520.104b-10.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the annual report for plans with 100 or more participants electing the limited exemption or alternative method of compliance.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section and in §§ 2520.103-2, 2520.103-14, and 2520.104-44, the annual report of an employee benefit plan covering 100 or more participants at the beginning of the plan year which elects the limited exemption or alternative method of compliance described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall include:


</P>
<P>(1) A Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” and any statements or schedules required to be attached to the form, completed in accordance with the instructions for the form, including Schedule A (Insurance Information), Schedule C (Service Provider Information), Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information), Schedule G (Financial Transaction Schedules), Schedule H (Financial Information), Schedule MEP (Multiple-Employer Plan), Schedule MB (Multiemployer Defined Benefit Plan and Certain Money Purchase Plan Actuarial Information), Schedule SB (Single-Employer Defined Benefit Plan Actuarial Information), Schedule R (Retirement Plan Information), and other financial schedules described in § 2520.103-10. See the instructions for this form.




</P>
<P>(2) Separate financial statements (in addition to the information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section), if such financial statements are prepared in order for the independent qualified public accountant to form the opinion required by section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Act and § 2520.103-1(b)(5). These statements shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of assets and liabilities at current value presented in comparative form for the beginning and end of the year. The statement of plan assets and liabilities shall include the assets and liabilities required to be reported on the Form 5500; however, the assets and liabilities may be aggregated into categories in a manner other than that used on Form 5500.
</P>
<P>(ii) Separate or combined statements of plan income and expenses and of changes in net assets which include the categories of income, expense, and changes in assets required to be reported on the Form 5500; however the income, expense, and changes in net assets may be aggregated into categories in a manner other than that used on Form 5500.
</P>
<P>(3) Notes to the financial statements described in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section which contain a description of the accounting principles and practices reflected in the financial statements and, if applicable, variances from generally accepted accounting principles; a description of the plan, including any significant changes in the plan made during the period and the impact of such changes on benefits; the funding policy (including policy with respect to prior service cost) and any changes in such policy from the prior year, a description of material lease commitments, other commitments, and contingent liabilities; a description of agreements and transactions with persons known to be parties in interest; a general description of priorities upon termination of the plan; information concerning whether or not a tax ruling or determination letter has been obtained; an explanation of the differences, if any, between the information contained in the separate financial statements and the assets, liabilities, income, expenses and changes in the net assets as required to be reported on the Form 5500, and any other matters necessary to fully and fairly present the financial condition of the plan.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a plan, some or all of the assets of which are held in a pooled separate account maintained by an insurance company, or a common or collective trust maintained by a bank or similar institution, a copy of the annual statement of assets and liabilities of such account or trust for the fiscal year of the account or trust which ends with or within the plan year for which the annual report is made as required to be furnished to the administrator by such account or trust under § 2520.103-5(c). Although the statement of assets and liabilities referred to in § 2520.103-5(c) shall be considered part of the plan's annual report, such statement of assets and liabilities need not be filed with the plan's annual report. See §§ 2520.103-3 and 2520.103-4 for reporting requirements for plans some or all of the assets of which are held in a pooled separate account maintained by an insurance company, or a common or collective trust maintained by a bank or similar institution. 
</P>
<P>(5) A report of an independent qualified public accountant.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Technical requirements.</I> The accountant's report—
</P>
<P>(A) Shall be dated;
</P>
<P>(B) Shall be signed manually;
</P>
<P>(C) Shall indicate the city and state where issued; and
</P>
<P>(D) Shall identify without detailed enumeration the financial statements and schedules covered by the report.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Representations as to the audit.</I> The accountant's report—
</P>
<P>(A) Shall state whether the audit was made in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards; and
</P>
<P>(B) Shall designate any auditing procedures deemed necessary by the accountant under the circumstances of the particular case which have been omitted, and the reasons for their omission. Authority for the omission of certain procedures which independent accountants might ordinarily employ in the course of an audit made for the purpose of expressing the opinions required by paragraph (b)(5)(iii) of this section is contained in §§ 2520.103-8 and 2520.103-12. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Opinion to be expressed.</I> The accountant's report shall state clearly:
</P>
<P>(A) The opinion of the accountant in respect of the financial statements and schedules covered by the report and the accounting principles and practices reflected therein; and
</P>
<P>(B) The opinion of the accountant as to the consistency of the application of the accounting principles with the application of such principles in the preceding year or as to any changes in such principles which have a material effect on the financial statements. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exceptions.</I> Any matters to which the accountant takes exception shall be clearly identified, the exception thereto specifically and clearly stated, and, to the extent practicable, the effect of the matters to which the accountant takes exception on the related financial statements given. The matters to which the accountant takes exception shall be further identified as (A) those that are the result of DOL regulations, and (B) all others.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of the annual report for plans with fewer than 100 participants.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2), (d), (e), and (f) of this section, and in §§ 2520.104-43, 2520.104-44, 2520.104-51, 2520.104a-6, and 2520.104a-9, the annual report of an employee benefit plan that covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year shall include a Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” and any statements or schedules required to be attached to the form, completed in accordance with the instructions for the form, including Schedule A (Insurance Information), Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information), Schedule I (Financial Information—Small Plan), Schedule MEP (Multiple-Employer Plan), Schedule MB (Multiemployer Defined Benefit Plan and Certain Money Purchase Plan Actuarial Information), Schedule SB (Single-Employer Defined Benefit Plan Actuarial Information) and Schedule R (Retirement Plan Information). See the instructions for this form.


</P>
<P>(2)(i) The annual report of an employee pension benefit plan or employee welfare benefit plan and that covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year and that meets the conditions in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section with respect to a plan year may, as an alternative to the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, meet its annual reporting requirements by filing the Form 5500-SF “Short Form Annual Return/Report of Small Employee Benefit Plan” and any statements or schedules required to be attached to the form, Schedule MEP (Multiple-Employer Pension Plan), Schedule MB (Multiemployer Defined Benefit Plan and Certain Money Purchase Plan Actuarial Information) and Schedule SB (Single-Employer Defined Benefit Plan Actuarial Information), completed in accordance with the instructions for the form. See the instructions for this form.




</P>
<P>(ii) A plan meets the conditions in this paragraph (c)(2)(ii) with respect to the year if the plan:
</P>
<P>(A) Does not hold any employer securities at any time during the year;
</P>
<P>(B) Satisfies the audit waiver conditions in §§ 2520.104-46(b)(1)(i)(A)(1), (b)(1)(i)(B) and (b)(1)(i)(C);
</P>
<P>(C) Had at all times during the plan year 100 percent of the plan's assets held for investment purposes invested in assets that have a readily determinable fair market value. For purposes of this section, the following shall be treated as assets that have a readily determinable fair market value: Shares issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940; investment and annuity contracts issued by any insurance company, qualified to do business under the laws of a State, that provides valuation information at least annually to the plan administrator; bank investment contracts issued by a bank or similar financial institution, as defined in § 2550.408b-4(c) of this chapter, that provides valuation information at least annually to the plan administrator; securities (except employer securities) traded on a public exchange; government securities issued by the United States or by a State; cash or cash equivalents held by a bank or similar financial institution, as defined in § 2550.408b-4(c) of this chapter, by an insurance company, qualified to do business under the law of a State, by an organization registered as a broker-dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or by any other organization authorized to act as a trustee for individual retirement accounts under section 408 of the Internal Revenue Code; and any loan meeting the requirements of section 408(b)(1) of the Act and the regulations issued thereunder; 


</P>
<P>(D) Is not a multiemployer plan;
</P>
<P>(E) Is not a plan subject to the Form M-1 requirements under § 2520.101-2;
</P>
<P>(F) Is not a multiple-employer pension plan that is a pooled employer plan described in section 3(43) of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(G) Is not a DCG reporting arrangement described in § 2520.104-51.






</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule.</I> If a plan has between 80 and 120 participants (inclusive) as of the beginning of the plan year, the plan administrator may elect to file the same category of annual report (<I>i.e.</I>, the annual report for plans with 100 or more participants under paragraph (b) of this section or the annual report for plans with fewer than 100 participants under paragraph (c) of this section) that was filed for the previous plan year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Plans which participate in a master trust.</I> The plan administrator of a plan which participates in a master trust shall file an annual report on Form 5500 in accordance with the instructions for the form relating to master trusts and master trust investment accounts. For purposes of annual reporting, a master trust is a trust for which a regulated financial institution serves as trustee or custodian (regardless of whether such institution exercises discretionary authority or control respecting the management of assets held in the trust) and in which assets of more than one plan sponsored by a single employer or by a group of employers under common control are held. For purpose of this paragraph, a regulated financial institution is a bank, trust company, or similar financial institution regulated, supervised, and subject to periodic examination by a State or Federal agency. Common control is determined on the basis of all relevant facts and circumstances (whether or not such employers are incorporated).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plans subject to the Form M-1 filing requirements under § 2520.101-2.</I> The annual report of an employee welfare benefit plan that is subject to the Form M-1 requirements under § 2520.101-2 (Filing by Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements and Certain Other Related Entities) during the plan year shall also include any statements or information required by the instructions to the Form 5500 relating to compliance with the Form M-1 filing requirements under § 2520.101-2.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Electronic filing.</I> See § 2520.104a-2 and the instructions for the Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” for electronic filing requirements. The plan administrator must maintain an original copy, with all required signatures, as part of the plan's records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10140, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 51446, Aug. 1, 1980; 46 FR 61079, Dec. 15, 1981; 51 FR 41288, Nov. 13, 1986; 54 FR 8627, Mar. 1, 1989; 65 FR 21080, Apr. 19, 2000; 71 FR 41368, July 21, 2006; 72 FR 64727, Nov. 16, 2007; 78 FR 13796, Mar. 1, 2013; 88 FR 11810, Feb. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-2   Contents of the annual report for a group insurance arrangement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A trust or other entity described in § 2520.104-43(b) that files an annual report for purposes of § 2520.104-43 shall include in such report the items set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> (1) A Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” and any statements or schedules required to be attached to the form, completed in accordance with the instructions for the form, including Schedule A (Insurance Information), Schedule C (Service Provider Information), Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information), Schedule G (Financial Transaction Schedules), Schedule H (Financial Information), and the other financial schedules described in § 2520.103-10. See the instructions for this form.
</P>
<P>(2) Separate financial statements (in addition to the information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section), if such financial statements are prepared in order for the independent qualified public accountant to form the opinion required by section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Act and § 2520.103-2(b)(5). These financial statements shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of all trust assets and liabilities at current value presented in comparative form for the beginning and end of the year. The statement of trust assets and liabilities shall include the assets and liabilities required to be reported on the Form 5500; however, the assets and liabilities may be aggregated into categories in a manner other than that used on Form 5500.
</P>
<P>(ii) Separate or combined statements of all trust income and expenses and changes in net assets which includes the categories of income, expense, and changes in assets required to be reported on the Form 5500; however, the income, expense, and changes in assets may be aggregated into categories in a manner other than that used on Form 5500.
</P>
<P>(3) Notes to the financial statements described in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section which contain a description of the accounting principles and practices reflected in the financial statements and, if applicable, variances from generally accepted accounting principles; a description of the group insurance arrangement including any significant changes in the group insurance arrangement made during the period and the impact of such changes on benefits; a description of material lease commitments, other commitments, and contingent liabilities; a description of agreements and transactions with persons known to be parties in interest; a general description of priorities upon termination of the plan; an explanation of the differences, if any, between the information contained in the separate financial statements and the assets, liabilities, income, expenses and changes in net assets as required to be reported on the Form 5500; and any other matters necessary to fully and fairly present the financial condition of the plan.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a group insurance arrangement some or all of the assets of which are held in a pooled separate account maintained by an insurance carrier, or in a common or collective trust maintained by a bank, trust company or similar institution, a copy of the annual statement of assets and liabilities of such account or trust for the fiscal year of the account or trust which ends with or within the plan year for which the annual report is made as required to be furnished by such account or trust under § 2520.103-5(c). Although the statement of assets and liabilities referred to in § 2520.103-5(c) shall be considered part of the group insurance arrangement's annual report, such statement of assets and liabilities need not be filed with its annual report. See §§ 2520.103-3 and 2520.103-4 for reporting requirements for plans some or all of the assets of which are held in a pooled separate account maintained by an insurance company, or a common or collective trust maintained by a bank or similar institution, and see § 2520.104-43(b)(2) for when the terms “group insurance arrangement” or “trust or other entity” shall be, respectively, used in place of the terms “plan” and “plan administrator.” 
</P>
<P>(5) A report of an independent qualified public accountant.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Technical requirements.</I> The accountant's report—
</P>
<P>(A) Shall be dated;
</P>
<P>(B) Shall be signed manually;
</P>
<P>(C) Shall indicate the city and State where issued; and
</P>
<P>(D) Shall identify without detailed enumeration the financial statements and schedules covered by the report.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Representations as to the audit.</I> The accountant's report—
</P>
<P>(A) Shall state whether the audit was made in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards; and
</P>
<P>(B) Shall designate any auditing procedures deemed necessary by the accountant under the circumstances of the particular case, which have been omitted, and the reasons for their omission. Authority for the omission of certain procedures which independent accountants might ordinarily employ in the course of an audit made for the purpose of expressing the opinions required by paragraph (b)(5)(iii) of this section is contained in § 2520.103-8.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Opinion to be expressed.</I> The accountant's report shall state clearly:
</P>
<P>(A) The opinion of the accountant in respect of the financial statements and schedules covered by the report and the accounting principles and practices reflected therein; and
</P>
<P>(B) The opinion of the accountant as to the consistency of the application of the accounting principles with the application of such priniciples in the preceding year, or as to any changes in such principles which have a material effect on the financial statements.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exceptions.</I> Any matters to which the accountant takes exception shall be clearly identified, the exception thereto specifically and clearly stated, and, to the extent practicable, the effect of the matters to which the accountant takes exception on the related financial statements given. The matters to which the accountant takes exception shall be further identified as to (A) those that are the result of DOL regulations and (B) all others.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic filing.</I> See § 2520.104a-2 and the instructions for the Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” for electronic filing requirements. The trust or other entity described in § 2520.104-43(b) filing under this section must maintain an original copy, with all required signatures, as part of its records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10140, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 54 FR 8627, Mar. 1, 1989; 65 FR 21080, Apr. 19, 2000; 71 FR 41368, July 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-3   Exemption from certain annual reporting requirements for assets held in a common or collective trust.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of sections 103(b)(3)(G), 103(b)(4), 104(a)(2)(B), 104(a)(3), 110 and 505 of the Act, a plan whose assets are held in whole or in part in a common or collective trust maintained by a bank, trust company, or similar institution which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section shall include as part of the annual report required to be filed under § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6 the information described in paragraph (c) of this section. Such plan is not required to include in its annual report information concerning the individual transactions of the common or collective trust. This exemption has no application to assets not held in such trusts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This provision applies only to a plan some or all of the assets of which are held in a common or collective trust maintained by a bank, trust company, or similar institution regulated and supervised and subject to periodic examination by a State or Federal agency. For purposes of this section,
</P>
<P>(1) A common or collective trust is a trust which consists of the assets of two or more participating entities and is maintained for the collective investment and reinvestment of assets contributed thereto, and
</P>
<P>(2) Plans maintained by a single employer or by the members of a controlled group of corporations, as defined in section 1563(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, shall be deemed to be a single participating entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) A plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and which invests in a common or collective trust that files a Form 5500 report in accordance with § 2520.103-9, shall include in its annual report: information required by the instructions to Schedule H (Financial Information) or Schedule I (Financial Information—Small Plan) about the current value of and net investment gain or loss relating to the units of participation in the common or collective trust held by the plan; identifying information about the common or collective trust including its name, employer identification number, and any other information required by the instructions to the Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information); and such other information as is required in the separate statements and schedules of the annual report about the value of the plan's units of participation in the common or collective trust and transactions involving the acquisition and disposition by the plan of units of participation in the common or collective trust. 
</P>
<P>(2) A plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and which invests in a common or collective trust that does not file a Form 5500 report in accordance with § 2520.103-9, shall include in its annual report: information required by the instructions to Schedule H (Financial Information) or Schedule I (Financial Information—Small Plan) about the current value of the plan's allocable portion of the underlying assets and liabilities of the common or collective trust and the net investment gain or loss relating to the units of participation in the common or collective trust held by the plan; identifying information about the common or collective trust including its name, employer identification number, and any other information required by the instructions to the Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information); and such other information as is required in the separate statements and schedules of the annual report about the value of the plan's units of participation in the common or collective trust and transactions involving the acquisition and disposition by the plan of units of participation in the common or collective trust.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10140, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 65 FR 21081, Apr. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-4   Exemption from certain annual reporting requirements for assets held in an insurance company pooled separate account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of sections 103(b)(3)(G), 103(b)(4), 104(a)(2)(B), 104(a)(3), 110 and 505 of the Act, a plan whose assets are held in whole or in part in a pooled separate account of an insurance carrier which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section shall include as part of the annual report required to be filed under § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6 the information described in paragraph (c) of this section. Such plan is not required to include in its annual report information concerning the individual transactions of the pooled separate account. This exemption has no application to assets not held in such a pooled separate account. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This provision applies only to a plan some or all of the assets of which are held in a pooled separate account of an insurance carrier regulated and supervised and subject to periodic examination by a State agency. For purposes of this section, (1) a pooled separate account is an account which consists of the assets of two or more participating entities and is maintained for the collective investment and reinvestment of assets contributed thereto, and (2) plans maintained by a single employer or by members of a controlled group of corporations, as defined in section 1563(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, shall be deemed to be a single participating entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) A plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and which invests in a pooled separate account that files a Form 5500 report in accordance with § 2520.103-9, shall include in its annual report: information required by the instructions to Schedule H (Financial Information) or Schedule I (Financial Information—Small Plan) about the current value of, and net investment gain or loss relating to, the units of participation in the pooled separate account held by the plan; identifying information about the pooled separate account including its name, employer identification number, and any other information required by the instructions to the Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information); and such other information as is required in the separate statements and schedules of the annual report about the value of the plan's units of participation in the pooled separate accounts and transactions involving the acquisition and disposition by the plan of units of participation in the pooled separate account. 
</P>
<P>(2) A plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and which invests in a pooled separate account that does not file a Form 5500 report in accordance with § 2520.103-9, shall include in its annual report: information required by the instructions to Schedule H (Financial Information) or Schedule I (Financial Information—Small Plan) about the current value of the plan's allocable portion of the underlying assets and liabilities of the pooled separate account and the net investment gain or loss relating to the units of participation in the pooled separate account held by the plan; identifying information about the pooled separate account including its name, employer identification number, and any other information required by the instructions to the Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information); and such other information as is required in the separate statements and schedules of the annual report about the value of the plan's units of participation in the pooled separate account and transactions involving the acquisition and disposition by the plan of units of participation in the pooled separate account. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10140, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 65 FR 21081, Apr. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-5   Transmittal and certification of information to plan administrator for annual reporting purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In accordance with section 103(a)(2) of the Act, an insurance carrier or other organization which provides benefits under the plan or holds plan assets, a bank or similar institution which holds plan assets, or a plan sponsor shall transmit and certify such information as needed by the administrator to file the annual report under section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5, § 2520.104a-6, or § 2520.104a-9:






</P>
<P>(1) Within 9 months after the close of the plan year which begins in 1975 or September 30, 1976, whichever is later, and
</P>
<P>(2) Within 120 days after the close of any plan year which begins after December 31, 1975.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This requirement applies with respect to—
</P>
<P>(1) An insurance carrier or other organization which:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides from its general asset account funds for the payment of benefits under a plan, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Holds assets of a plan in a separate account;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank, trust company, or similar institution which holds assets of a plan in a common or collective trust, separate trust, or custodial account; and
</P>
<P>(3) A plan sponsor as defined in section 3(16)(B) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> The information required to be provided to the administrator shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an insurance carrier or other organization which:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides funds from its general asset account for the payment of benefits under a plan, upon request of the plan administrator, such information as is contained within the ordinary business records of the insurance carrier or other organization and is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6;
</P>
<P>(ii) Holds assets of a plan in a pooled separate account and files a Form 5500 report pursuant to § 2520.103-9 for the participating plan's plan year—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the annual statement of assets and liabilities of the separate account for the fiscal year of such account ending with or within the plan year for which the participating plan's annual report is made, 
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the value of the plan's units of participation in the separate account, 
</P>
<P>(C) The Employer Identification Number (EIN) of the separate account, entity number required for purposes of completing the Form 5500 and any other identifying number assigned by the insurance carrier to the separate account, 
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that a filing pursuant to § 2520.103-9(c) will be made for the separate account (for its fiscal year ending with or within the participating plan's plan year) on or before the filing due date for such account in accordance with the Form 5500 instructions, and 
</P>
<P>(E) Upon request of the plan administrator, any other information that can be obtained from the ordinary business records of the insurance carrier and that is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Holds assets of a plan in a pooled separate account and does not file a Form 5500 report pursuant to § 2520.103-9 for the participating plan's plan year—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the annual statement of assets and liabilities of the separate account for the fiscal year of such account that ends with or within the plan year for which the participating plan's annual report is made, 
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the value of the plan's units of participation in the separate account, 
</P>
<P>(C) The EIN of the separate account and any other identifying number assigned by the insurance carrier to the separate account, 
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that a filing pursuant to § 2520.103-9(c) will not be made for the separate account for its fiscal year ending with or within the participating plan's plan year, and 
</P>
<P>(E) Upon request of the plan administrator, any other information that can be obtained from the ordinary business records of the insurance carrier and that is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Holds assets of a plan in a separate account which is not exempted from certain reporting requirements under § 2520.103-4, a listing of all transactions of the separate account and, upon request of the plan administrator, such information as is contained within the ordinary business records of the insurance carrier and is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a bank, trust company, or similar institution holding assets of a plan—
</P>
<P>(i) In a common or collective trust that files a Form 5500 report pursuant to § 2520.103-9 for the participating plan's plan year—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the annual statement of assets and liabilities of the common or collective trust for the fiscal year of such trust ending with or within the plan year for which the participating plan's annual report is made, 
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the value of the plan's units of participation in the common or collective trust, 
</P>
<P>(C) The EIN of the common or collective trust, entity number assigned for purposes of completing the Form 5500 and any other identifying number assigned by the bank, trust company, or similar institution, 
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that a filing pursuant to § 2520.103-9(c) will be made for the common or collective trust (for its fiscal year ending with or within the participating plan's plan year) on or before the filing due date for such trust in accordance with the Form 5500 instructions, and 
</P>
<P>(E) Upon request of the plan administrator, any other information that can be obtained from the ordinary business records of the bank, trust company or similar institution and that is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In a common or collective trust that does not file a Form 5500 report pursuant to § 2520.103-9 for the participating plan's plan year—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the annual statement of assets and liabilities of the common or collective trust for the fiscal year of such account that ends with or within the plan year for which the participating plan's annual report is made,
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the value of the plan's units of participation in the common or collective trust, 
</P>
<P>(C) The EIN of the common or collective trust and any other identifying number assigned by the bank, trust company or similar institution, 
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that a filing pursuant to § 2520.103-9(c) will not be made for the common or collective trust for its fiscal year ending with or within the participating plan's plan year, and 
</P>
<P>(E) Upon request of the plan administrator, any other information that can be obtained from the ordinary business records of the bank, trust company or similar institution and that is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In a trust which is not exempted from certain reporting requirements under § 2520.103-3, a listing of all transactions of the separate trust and, upon request of the plan administrator, such information as is contained within the ordinary business records of the bank, trust company, or similar institution and is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5.
</P>
<P>(iv) In a custodial account, upon request of the plan administrator, such information as is contained within the ordinary business records of the bank, trust company, or similar institution and is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a plan sponsor, a listing of all transactions directly or indirectly involving plan assets engaged in by the plan sponsor and such information as is needed by the plan administrator to comply with the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5 or § 2520.104a-6. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification.</I> (1) An insurance carrier or other organization, a bank, trust company, or similar institution, or plan sponsor, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall certify to the accuracy and completeness of the information described in paragraph (c) of this section by a written declaration which is signed by a person authorized to represent the insurance carrier, bank, or plan sponsor. Such certification will serve as a written assurance of the truth of the facts stated therein.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example of Certification.</I> The XYZ Bank (Insurance Carrier) hereby certifies that the foregoing statement furnished pursuant to 29 CFR 2520.103-5(c) is complete and accurate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10140, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 65 FR 21082, Apr. 19, 2000; 88 FR 11811, Feb. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-6   Definition of reportable transaction for Annual Return/Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For purposes of preparing the schedule of reportable transactions described in § 2520.103-10(b)(6), and subject to the exceptions provided in §§ 2520.103-3, 2520.103-4 and 2520.103-12, with respect to individual transactions by a common or collective trust, pooled separate account, or a 103-12 investment entity, a reportable transaction includes any transaction or series of transactions described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1)(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d)(1)(vi) of this section (relating to assets acquired or disposed of during the plan year), “current value” shall mean the current value, as defined in section 3(26) of the Act, of plan assets as of the beginning of the plan year, or the end of the previous plan year. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d)(1)(vi) of this section (relating to assets acquired or disposed of during the plan year), with respect to schedules of reportable transactions for the initial plan year of a plan, “current value” shall mean the current value, as defined in section 3(26) of the Act, of plan assets at the end of a plan's initial plan year.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A “transaction with respect to securities” is any purchase, sale, or exchange of securities. A transaction with respect to securities for purposes of this section occurs on either the trade date or settlement date of a purchase, sale, or exchange of securities; either the trade date or settlement date must be used consistently during the plan year for the purposes of this section. For the purposes of this section, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, “securities” includes a unit of participation in a common or collective trust or a pooled separate account.
</P>
<P>(ii) Solely for purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, the term “securities”, as it applies to any transaction involving a bank or insurance company regulated by a Federal or State agency, an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, or a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, shall not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Debt obligations of the United States or any United States agency with a maturity of not more than one year;
</P>
<P>(B) Debt obligations of the United States or any United States agency with a maturity of more than one year if purchased or sold under a repurchase agreement having a term of less than 91 days;
</P>
<P>(C) Interests issued by a company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940;
</P>
<P>(D) Bank certificates of deposit with a maturity of not more than one year;
</P>
<P>(E) Commercial paper with a maturity of not more than nine months if it is ranked in the highest rating category for commercial paper by at least two nationally recognized statistical rating services and is issued by a company required to file reports under section 13 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(F) Participations in a bank common or collective trust;
</P>
<P>(G) Participations in an insurance company pooled separate account;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as provided by paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a transaction is “with or in conjunction with a person” for purposes of this section if that person benefits from, executes, facilitates, participates, promotes, or solicits a transaction or part of a transaction involving plan assets. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Solely for the purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, a transaction shall not be considered “with or in conjunction with a person” if:
</P>
<P>(A) That person is a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction involves the purchase or sale of securities listed on a national securities exchange registered under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or quoted on NASDAQ; and
</P>
<P>(C) The broker-dealer does not purchase or sell securities involved in the transaction for its own account or the account of an affiliated person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, this provision applies to—
</P>
<P>(i) A transaction within the plan year, with respect to any plan asset, involving an amount in excess of 3 percent of the current value of plan assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any series of transactions (other than transactions with respect to securities) within the plan year with or in conjunction with the same person which, when aggregated, regardless of the category of asset and the gain or loss on any transaction, involves an amount in excess of 3 percent of the current value of plan assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any transaction within the plan year involving securities of the same issue if within the plan year any series of transactions with respect to such securities, when aggregated, involves an amount in excess of 3 percent of the current value of plan assets; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any transaction within the plan year with respect to securities with or in conjunction with a person if any prior or subsequent single transaction within the plan year with such person with respect to securities exceeds 3 percent of the current value of plan assets.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining whether any 3 percent transactions occur, the “current value” of an asset acquired or disposed of during the plan year is the current value, as defined in section 3(26) of the Act, at the time of acquisition or disposition of such asset.
</P>
<P>(3) Plans whose assets are held in whole or in part in a common or collective trust or a pooled separate account, as provided in §§ 2520.103-3 and 2520.103-4, and which satisfy the requirements of those sections, are not required to prepare schedules of reportable transactions with respect to the individual transactions of the common or collective trust or pooled separate account.
</P>
<P>(4) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 1988, 5 percent shall be substituted for 3 percent in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section for purposes of determining whether a transaction or series of transactions constitutes a reportable transaction under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents.</I> (1) The schedule of transactions shall include the following information as to each transaction or series of transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of each party, except that in the case of a transaction or series of transactions involving a purchase or sale of a security on the market, the schedule need not include the person from whom it was purchased or to whom it was sold. A purchase or sale on the market is a purchase or sale of a security through a registered broker-dealer acting as a broker under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(ii) A brief description of each asset;
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or selling price in the case of a purchase or sale, the rental in the case of a lease, and the amount of principal, interest rate, payment schedule (e.g., fully amortized, partly amortized with balloon) and maturity date in the case of a loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Expenses incurred, including, but not limited to, any fees or commissions;
</P>
<P>(v) The cost of any asset;
</P>
<P>(vi) The current value of any asset acquired or disposed of at the time of acquisition or disposition; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The net gain or loss. 
</P>
<P>(2) The schedule of transactions with respect to a series of transactions described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) may include the following information for each issue in lieu of the information prescribed in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (vii):
</P>
<P>(i) The total number of purchases of such securities made by the plan within the plan year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The total number of sales of such securities made by the plan within the plan year;
</P>
<P>(iii) The total dollar value of such purchases;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total dollar value of such sales;
</P>
<P>(v) The net gain or loss as a result of these transactions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples.</I> These examples are effective for reporting for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 1988.
</P>
<P>(1) At the beginning of the plan year, XYZ plan has 10 percent of the current value of its plan assets invested in ABC common stock. Halfway through the plan year, XYZ purchases ABC common stock in a single transaction in an amount equal to 6 percent of the current value of plan assets. At about this time, XYZ plan also purchases a commercial development property in an amount equal to 8 percent of the current value of plan assets. Under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, the 6 percent stock transaction is a reportable transaction for the plan year because it exceeds 5 percent of the current value of plan assets. The 8 percent land transaction is also reportable under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section because it exceeds 5 percent of the current value of plan assets.
</P>
<P>(2) During the plan year, AAA plan purchases a commercial lot from ZZZ corporation at a cost equal to 2 percent of the current value of the plan assets. Two months later, AAA plan loans ZZZ corporation an amount of money equal to 3.5 percent of the current value of plan assets. Under the provisions of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the plan has engaged in a reportable series of transactions with or in conjunction with the same person, ZZZ corporation, which when aggregated involves 5.5 percent of plan assets.
</P>
<P>(3) During the plan year NMN plan sells to OPO corporation a commercial property that represents 3.5 percent of the current value of plan assets. OPO simultaneously executes a note and mortgage on the purchased property to NMN which represents 3 percent of the current value of plan assets. Under the provisions of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, NMN has engaged in a reportable series of transactions with or in conjunction with the same person, OPO corporation, consisting of a simultaneous sale of property and a loan, which, when aggregated, involves 6.5 percent of the current value of plan assets.
</P>
<P>(4) At the beginning of the plan year, ABC plan has 10 percent of the current value of plan assets invested equally in a combination of XYZ Corporation common stock and XYZ preferred stock. One month into the plan year, ABC sells some of its XYZ common stock in an amount equal to 2 percent of the current value of plan assets.
</P>
<P>(i) Six weeks later the plan sells XYZ preferred stock in an amount equal to 4 percent of the current value of plan assets. A reportable series of transactions has not occurred because only transactions involving securities of the same issue are to be aggregated under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two weeks later when the ABC plan purchases XYZ common stock in an amount equal to 3.5 percent of the current value of plan assets, a reportable series of transactions under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section has occurred. The sale of XYZ common stock worth 2 percent of plan assets and the purchase of XYZ common stock worth 3.5 percent of plan assets aggregate to exceed 5 percent of the total value of plan assets.
</P>
<P>(5) At the beginning of the plan year, Plan X purchases through broker-dealer Y common stock of Able Industries in an amount equal to 6 percent of plan assets. The common stock of Able Industries is not listed on any national securities exchange or quoted on NASDAQ. This purchase is a reportable transaction under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. Three months later, Plan X purchases short term debt obligations of Charley Company through broker-dealer Y in the amount of 0.2 percent of plan assets. This purchase is also a reportable transaction under the provisions of paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) At the beginning of the plan year, Plan X purchases from Bank B certificates of deposit having a 180 day maturity in an amount equal to 6 percent of plan assets. Bank B is a national bank regulated by the Comptroller of the Currency. This purchase is a reportable transaction under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. Three months later, Plan X purchases through Bank B 91-day Treasury bills in the amount of 0.2 percent of plan assets. This purchase is not a reportable transaction under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section because the purchase of the Treasury bills as well as the purchase of the certificates of deposit are not considered to involve a security under the definition of “securities” in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) At the beginning of the plan year, Plan X purchases through broker-dealer Y common stock of Able Industries, a New York Stock Exchange listed security, in an amount equal to 6 percent of plan assets. This purchase is a reportable transaction under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. Three months later, Plan X purchases through broker-dealer Y, acting as agent, common stock of Baker Corporation, also a New York Stock Exchange listed security, in an amount equal to 0.2 percent of plan assets. This latter purchase is not a reportable transaction under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section because it is not a transaction “with or in conjunction with a person” pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special rule for certain participant-directed transactions.</I> Participant or beneficiary directed transactions under an individual account plan shall not be taken into account under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for purposes of preparing the schedule of reportable transactions described in this section. For purposes of this section only, a transaction will be considered directed by a participant or beneficiary if it has been authorized by such participant or beneficiary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10140, Mar. 10, 1978; 43 FR 14009, Apr. 4, 1978, as amended at 54 FR 8628, Mar. 1, 1989; 61 FR 33849, July 1, 1996; 65 FR 21082, Apr. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-8" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-8   Limitation on scope of accountant's examination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of section 103(a)(3)(C) of the Act, the examination and report of an independent qualified public accountant need not extend to any statement or information prepared and certified by a bank or similar institution or insurance carrier. A plan, trust or other entity which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is not required to have covered by the accountant's examination or report any of the information described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to any plan, trust or other entity some or all of the assets of which are held by a bank or similar institution or insurance carrier which is regulated and supervised and subject to periodic examination by a State or Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Excluded information.</I> Any statements or information certified to by a bank or similar institution or insurance carrier described in paragraph (b) of this section, provided that the statements or information regarding assets so held are prepared and certified to by the bank or insurance carrier in accordance with § 2520.103-5. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-9" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-9   Direct filing for bank or insurance carrier trusts and accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of sections 103(b)(4), 104(a)(3), 110 and 505 of the Act, an employee benefit plan, some or all of the assets of which are held in a common or collective trust or a pooled separate account described in section 103(b)(3)(G) of the Act and §§ 2520.103-3 and 2520.103-4, is relieved from including in its annual report information about the current value of the plan's allocable portion of assets and liabilities of the common or collective trust or pooled separate account and information concerning the individual transactions of the common or collective trust or pooled separate account, provided that the plan meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and, provided further, that the bank or insurance carrier which holds the plan's assets meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> A plan whose assets are held in a common or collective trust or a pooled separate account described in section 103(b)(3)(G) of the Act and §§ 2520.103-3 and 2520.103-4, provided the plan administrator, on or before the end of the plan year, provides the bank or insurance carrier which maintains the common or collective trust or pooled separate account with the plan number, and name and Employer Identification Number of the plan sponsor as will be reported on the plan's annual report. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Separate filing by common or collective trusts and pooled separate accounts.</I> The bank or insurance carrier which maintains the common or collective trust or pooled separate account in which assets of the plan are held shall file, in accordance with the instructions for the form, a completed Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” and any statements or schedules required to be attached to the form for the common or collective trust or pooled separate account, including Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information) and Schedule H (Financial Information). See the instructions for this form. The information reported shall be for the fiscal year of such trust or account ending with or within the plan year for which the annual report of the plan is made. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronic filing.</I> See § 2520.104a-2 and the instructions for the Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” for electronic filing requirements. The bank or insurance company which maintains the common or collective trust or pooled separate account must maintain an original copy, with all required signatures, as part of its records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 21082, Apr. 19, 2000, as amended at 71 FR 41368, July 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-10" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-10   Annual report financial schedules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The administrator of a plan filing an annual report pursuant to § 2520.103-1(a)(2), the report for a group insurance arrangement pursuant to § 2520.103-2, or the report for a defined contribution group (DCG) reporting arrangement pursuant to § 2520.103-14, shall, as provided in the instructions to the Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan,” include as part of the report the separate financial schedules described in paragraph (b) of this section.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Schedules</I>—(1) <I>Assets held for investment.</I> (i) A schedule of all assets held for investment purposes at the end of the plan year (see § 2520.103-11) with assets aggregated and identified by: 
</P>
<P>(A) Identity of issue, borrower, lessor or similar party to the transaction (including a notation as to whether such party is known to be a party in interest); 
</P>
<P>(B) Description of investment including maturity date, rate of interest, collateral, par, or maturity value; 
</P>
<P>(C) Cost; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Current value, and, in the case of a loan, the payment schedule. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in the Form 5500 and the instructions thereto, in the case of assets or investment interests of two or more plans maintained in one trust, all entries on the schedule of assets held for investment purposes that relate to the trust shall be completed by including the plan's allocable portion of the trust. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assets acquired and disposed within the plan year.</I> (i) A schedule of all assets acquired and disposed of within the plan year (see § 2520.103-11) with assets aggregated and identified by: 
</P>
<P>(A) Identity of issue, borrower, issuer or similar party; 
</P>
<P>(B) Descriptions of investment including maturity date, rate of interest, collateral, par, or maturity value; 
</P>
<P>(C) Cost of acquisitions; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Proceeds of dispositions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in the Form 5500 and the instructions thereto, in the case of assets or investment interests of two or more plans maintained in one trust, all entries on the schedule of assets held for investment purposes that relate to the trust shall be completed by including the plan's allocable portion of the trust. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Party in interest transactions.</I> A schedule of each transaction involving a person known to be a party in interest except do not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A transaction to which a statutory exemption under part 4 of title I applies; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A transaction to which an administrative exemption under section 408(a) of the Act applies; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction to which the exemptions of section 4975(c) or 4975(d) of the Internal Revenue Code (Title 26 of the United States Code) applies. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Obligations in default.</I> A schedule of all loans or fixed income obligations which were in default as of the end of the plan year or were classified during the year as uncollectible. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Leases in default.</I> A schedule of all leases which were in default or were classified during the year as uncollectible. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reportable transactions.</I> A schedule of all reportable transactions as defined in § 2520.103-6. 


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presentation of investment assets in commingled trusts and direct filing entities (DFEs).</I> (1) Except as provided in the Form 5500 and the instructions thereto or for filings by direct filing entities (including DCG reporting arrangements), in the case of assets or investment interests of two or more plans maintained in one trust, entries on the schedule of assets held for investment purposes at the end of the plan year and the schedule of assets acquired and disposed of during the plan year shall be completed by including the plan's allocable portion of the trust.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of direct filing entities (including DCG reporting arrangements) required to file a schedule of assets held for investment purposes at the end of the plan year and the schedule of assets acquired and disposed of during the plan year, the entries on the schedules shall be completed by including the assets held by the DFE or held in the DCG reporting arrangement's trust or trusts for the individual plans that report in the DCG, and shall include the number of plans with an allocable interest in each listed investment.






</P>
<P>(d) <I>Format requirements for certain schedules.</I> See the instructions to the Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” as to the format requirement for the schedules referred to in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2) or (b)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 21083, Apr. 19, 2000, as amended at 88 FR 11811, Feb. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-11" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-11   Assets held for investment purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For purposes of preparing the schedule of assets held for investment purposes described in § 2520.103-10(b)(1) and (2), assets held for investment purposes include those assets described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) Assets held for investment purposes shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any investment asset held by the plan on the last day of the plan year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any investment asset which was purchased at any time during the plan year and was sold at any time before the last day of the plan year, except as provided by paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Assets held for investment purposes shall not include any investment which was not held by the plan on the last day of the plan year for which the annual report is filed if that investment falls within any of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(i) Debt obligations of the United States or any agency of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Interests issued by a company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940;
</P>
<P>(iii) Bank certificates of deposit with a maturity of not more than one year;
</P>
<P>(iv) commercial paper with a maturity of not more than nine months if it is ranked in the highest rating category by at least two nationally recognized statistical rating services and is issued by a company required to file reports with the Securities and Exchange Commission under section 13 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(v) Participations in a bank common or collective trust;
</P>
<P>(vi) Participations in an insurance company pooled separate account;
</P>
<P>(vii) Securities purchased from a person registered as a broker-dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and listed on a national securities exchange registered under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or quoted on NASDAQ;
</P>
<P>(3) Assets held for investment purposes shall not include any investment which was not held by the plan on the last day of the plan year for which the annual report is filed if that investment is reported on the annual report of that same plan in any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The schedule of each transaction involving a person known to be a party in interest required by section 103(b)(3)(D) of the Act and § 2520.103-10(b)(3);
</P>
<P>(ii) The schedule of loans or fixed income obligations in default required by section 103(b)(3)(E) of the Act and § 2520.103-10(b)(4);
</P>
<P>(iii) The schedule of leases in default or classified as uncollectible required by section 103(b)(3)(F) of the Act and § 2520.103-10(b)(5); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The schedule of reportable transactions required by section 103(b)(3)(H) of the Act and § 2520.103-10(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples.</I> (1) On February 1, 1977, plan N purchases an interest in registered investment company F (fund F). Fund F is not a party in interest with respect to plan N. On November 1, 1977, plan N sells this interest in fund F and purchases 1,000 shares of stock S, which the plan holds for the rest of the plan year. Plan N must include in its schedule of assets held for investment purposes the 1,000 shares of stock S under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, but need not include the interest in fund F because of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) On February 1, 1977, plan N purchases a parcel of real estate from Mr. M, who is not a party in interest with respect to plan N. On November 1, 1977, plan N sells the parcel of real estate for cash to Mr. X, who is not a party in interest with respect to plan N. Plan N uses the cash from this transaction to purchase a 1-year certificate of deposit in bank B, which it holds until maturity in 1978. Plan N must include in its schedule of assets held for investment purposes the 1-year certificate of deposit in bank B under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, and must also include the parcel of real estate under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for certain participant-directed transactions.</I> Cost information may be omitted from the schedule of assets held for investment purposes for assets described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(ii) of this section only with respect to participant or beneficiary directed transactions under an individual account plan. For purposes of this section only, a transaction will be considered directed by a participant or beneficiary if it has been authorized by such participant or beneficiary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10140, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 65 FR 21083, Apr. 19, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-12" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-12   Limited exemption and alternative method of compliance for annual reporting of investments in certain entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section prescribes an exemption from and alternative method of compliance with the annual reporting requirements of part 1 of title I of ERISA for employee benefit plans whose assets are invested in certain entities described in paragraph (c). A plan utilizing this method of reporting shall include as part of its annual report the current value of its investment or units of participation in the entity in the manner prescribed by the Return/Report Form and the instructions thereto. The plan is not required to include in its annual report any information regarding the underlying assets or individual transactions of the entity, provided the information described in paragraph (b) regarding the entity is reported directly to the Department on behalf of the plan administrator on or before the filing due date for the entity in accordance with the instructions to the Form 5500 Annual Return/Report. The information described in paragraph (b), however, shall be considered as part of the annual report for purposes of the requirements of section 104(a)(1) of the Act and §§ 2520.104a-5 and 2520.104a-6. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following information must be filed regarding the entity described in paragraph (c) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” and any statements or schedules required to be attached to the form for such entity, completed in accordance with the instructions for the form, including Schedule A (Insurance Information), Schedule C (Service Provider Information), Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information), Schedule G (Financial Transaction Schedules), Schedule H (Financial Information), and the schedules described in § 2520.103-10(b)(1) and (b)(2). See the instructions for this form. The information reported shall be for the fiscal year of such entity ending with or within the plan year for which the annual report of the plan is made. 
</P>
<P>(2) A report of an independent qualified public accountant regarding the financial statements and schedules described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section which meets the requirements of § 2520.103-1(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(c) This method of reporting is available to any employee benefit plan which has invested in an entity the assets of which are deemed to include plan assets under § 2510.3-101, provided the entity holds the assets of two or more plans which are not members of a “related group” of employee benefit plans as that term is defined in paragraph (e) of this section. The method of reporting is not available for investments in an insurance company pooled separate account or a common or collective trust maintained by a bank, trust company, or similar institution. 
</P>
<P>(d) The examination and report of an independent qualified public accountant required by § 2520.103-1 for a plan utilizing the method of reporting described in this section need not extend to any information concerning an entity which is reported directly to the Department under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) A “related group” of employee benefit plans consists of every group of two or more employee benefit plans— 
</P>
<P>(1) Each of which receives 10 percent or more of its aggregate contributions from the same employer or from members of the same controlled group of corporations (as determined under section 1563(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, without regard to section 1563(a)(4) thereof); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Each of which is either maintained by, or maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement negotiated by, the same employee organization or affiliated employee organizations. For purposes of this paragraph, an “affiliate” of an employee organization means any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such organization, and includes any organization chartered by the same parent body, or governed by the same constitution and bylaws, or having the relation of parent and subordinate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Electronic filing.</I> See § 2520.104a-2 and the instructions for the Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” for electronic filing requirements. The entity described in paragraph (c) of this section must maintain an original copy, with all required signatures, as part of its records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41287, Nov. 13, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 21083, Apr. 19, 2000; 71 FR 41368, July 21, 2006] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-13" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-13   Special terminal report for abandoned plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The terminal report required to be filed by the qualified termination administrator pursuant to § 2578.1(d)(2)(viii) of this chapter shall be in the form published by the Department in the Abandoned Plans section of the Employee Benefits Security Administration's website and shall contain the information set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. Such report shall be filed in accordance with the method of filing set forth in paragraph (c) of this section and at the time set forth in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The terminal report described in paragraph (a) of this section shall contain the following information in accordance with the instructions to the terminal report published by the Department in the Abandoned Plans section of the Employee Benefits Security Administration's website:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification information concerning the plan, the qualified termination administrator, and, if applicable, the bankruptcy trustee.
</P>
<P>(2) The total assets of the plan as of the date the plan was deemed terminated under § 2578.1(c) of this chapter, prior to any reduction for termination expenses and distributions to participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(3) The total termination expenses paid by the plan and an identification of each service provider and amount received, itemized by expense.
</P>
<P>(4) The total distributions made pursuant to § 2578.1(d)(2)(vii) of this chapter and a statement regarding whether any such distributions were transfers under § 2578.1(d)(2)(vii)(B) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) The identification, fair market value and method of valuation of any assets with respect to which there is no readily ascertainable fair market value.
</P>
<P>(6) The total number of distributions.
</P>
<P>(7) The number of distributions to missing participants included in the total number of distributions reported in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that the information being provided in the report is true and complete based on the knowledge of the person electing to be the qualified termination administrator, and that the information is being provided by the qualified termination administrator under penalty of perjury.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of filing.</I> The terminal report described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be filed in accordance with instructions pertaining to terminal reports of qualified termination administrators published by the Department in the Abandoned Plans section of the Employee Benefits Security Administration's website.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When to file.</I> The qualified termination administrator shall file the terminal report described in paragraph (a) of this section within two months after the end of the month in which the qualified termination administrator satisfies the requirements in § 2578.1(d)(2)(i) through § 2578.1(d)(2)(vii), and § 2578.1(j)(7) as applicable, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitation.</I> (1) Except as provided in this section, no report shall be required to be filed by the qualified termination administrator under part 1 of title I of ERISA for a plan being terminated pursuant to § 2578.1 of this chapter or by a bankruptcy trustee described in § 2578.1(j)(3) of this chapter or an eligible designee described in § 2578.1(j)(4) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Filing of a report under this section by the qualified termination administrator shall not relieve any person from any obligation under part 1 of title I of ERISA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43657, May 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.103-14" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.103-14   Contents of the annual report for defined contribution group (DCG) reporting arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A defined contribution group reporting arrangement as described in § 2520.104-51(c) (“DCG reporting arrangement” or “DCG”) that files a consolidated annual report pursuant to § 2520.104-51 shall include in such report the items set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the annual report for DCG reporting arrangement.</I> (1) A Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” and any statements or schedules required to be attached to the form, completed in accordance with the instructions for the form, including Schedule A (Insurance Information), Schedule C (Service Provider Information), Schedule D (DFE/Participating Plan Information), Schedule DCG (Individual Plan Information), Schedule G (Financial Transaction Schedules), Schedule H (Financial Information), and other applicable financial schedules referred to in § 2520.103-10, completed in accordance with the instructions for the form.
</P>
<P>(2) Where some or all of the assets of plans participating in the DCG are held in a pooled separate account maintained by an insurance carrier, or in a common or collective trust maintained by a bank, trust company or similar institution, a copy of the annual statement of assets and liabilities of such account or trust for the fiscal year of the account or trust which ends with or within the plan year for which the DCG's annual report is made is required to be furnished by such account or trust under § 2520.103-5(c). Although the statement of assets and liabilities referred to in § 2520.103-5(c) shall be considered part of the DCG's consolidated annual report, such statement of assets and liabilities need not be filed with the DCG's annual report. See §§ 2520.103-3 and 2520.103-4 for reporting requirements for plans some or all of the assets of which are held in a pooled separate account maintained by an insurance company, or a common or collective trust maintained by a bank or similar institution; and see § 2520.104-51(b)(2) for when the term “DCG reporting arrangement” or “DCG” shall be used in place of the term “plan.”
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except for employee pension benefit plans that cover fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year that meet the conditions for being eligible for a waiver of the audit and accountant opinion requirements in section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Act pursuant to § 2520.104-46, the Schedule DCG for each participating plan shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A report of an independent qualified public accountant for the participating plan that meets the requirements in § 2520.103-1(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(B) Separate financial statements meeting the requirements of § 2520.103-1(b)(2) if such financial statements and schedules are prepared in order for the independent qualified public accountant to form the opinion required by section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Act and this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(C) Notes to the financial statements described in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(3)(i)(B) of this section, which contain the information set forth in § 2520.103-1(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, an employee pension benefit plan described in § 2520.103-1(d) will be treated as a plan that covers fewer than 100 participants as of the beginning of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic filing requirement.</I> See § 2520.104a-2 and the instructions for the Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” for electronic filing requirements. The common plan administrator for each plan whose reporting obligations are satisfied by a DCG filing under this section must maintain an original copy of the DCG filing, with all required signatures, as part of each plan's records. A single copy of the DCG consolidated Form 5500 filing, that includes all schedules and attachments maintained by the common plan administrator on behalf of all the plans will satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 11811, Feb. 24, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 31610, May 18, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Provisions Applicable to Both Reporting and Disclosure Requirements</HEAD>

</DIV6>

<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in subpart D were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0016)


</APPRO>

<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-1   General.</HEAD>
<P>The administrator of an employee benefit plan covered by part 1 of title I of the Act must file reports and additional information with the Secretary of Labor, and disclose reports, statements, and documents to plan participants and to beneficiaries receiving benefits from the plan. The regulations contained in this subpart are applicable to both the reporting and disclosure requirements of part 1 of title I of the Act. Regulations concerning only a plan administrator's duty of reporting to the Secretary of Labor are set forth in subpart E of this part, and those applicable only to the duty of disclosure to participants and beneficiaries are set forth in subpart F of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 16962, Apr. 23, 1976] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2520.104-2—2520.104-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2520.104-2--2520.104-3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-4   Alternative method of compliance for certain successor pension plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of section 110 of the Act, this section sets forth an alternative method of compliance for certain successor pension plans in which some participants and beneficiaries not only have their rights set out in the plan, but also retain eligibility for certain benefits under the terms of a former plan which has been merged into the successor. This section is applicable only to plan mergers which occur after the issuance by the successor plan of the initial summary plan description under the Act. Under the alternative method, the plan administrator of the successor plan is not required to describe relevant provisions of merged plans in summary plan descriptions of the successor plan furnished after the merger to that class of participants and beneficiaries still affected by the terms of the merged plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and application.</I> This alternative method of compliance is available only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The plan administrator of the successor plan furnishes to the participants covered under the predecessor plan and beneficiaries receiving pension benefits under the merged plan within 90 days after the effective date of the merger:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the most recent summary plan description of the successor plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of any summaries of material modifications to the successor plan not incorporated in the most recent summary plan description; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A separate statement containing a brief description of the merger, a description of the provisions of, and benefits provided by, the merged and successor plans which are applicable to the participants and beneficiaries of the merged plan; and a notice that copies of the merged and successor plan documents, as well as the plan merger documents (including the portions of any corporate merger documents which describe or control the plan merger), are available for inspection and that copies may be obtained upon written request for a duplication charge (pursuant to § 2520.104b-30); and
</P>
<P>(2) After the merger, the plan administrator, in all subsequent summary plan descriptions furnished pursuant to § 2520.104b-2(a)—
</P>
<P>(i) Clearly and conspicuously identifies the class of participants and beneficiaries affected by the provisions of the merged plan, and
</P>
<P>(ii) States that the documents described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are available for inspection and that copies may be obtained upon written request for a duplication charge (pursuant to § 2520.104b-30).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37182, July 19, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 776, Jan. 7, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2520.104-5—2520.104-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2520.104-5--2520.104-6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-20" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-20   Limited exemption for certain small welfare plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Act, the administrator of any employee welfare benefit plan which covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year and which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is exempted from certain reporting and disclosure provisions of the Act. Specifically, the administrator of such plan is not required to file with the Secretary an annual or terminal report. In addition, the administrator of a plan exempted under this section—
</P>
<P>(1) Is not required to furnish participants covered under the plan and beneficiaries receiving benefits under the plan with statements of the plan's assets and liabilities and receipts and disbursements and a summary of the annual report required by section 104(b)(3) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not required to furnish upon written request of any participant or beneficiary a copy of the annual report and any terminal report, as required by section 104(b)(4) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not required to make copies of the annual report available for examination by any participant or beneficiary in the principal office of the administrator and such other places as may be necessary, as required by section 104(b)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This exemption applies only to welfare benefit plans—
</P>
<P>(1) Which have fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) For which benefits are paid as needed solely from the general assets of the employer or employee organization maintaining the plan, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The benefits of which are provided exclusively through insurance contracts or policies issued by an insurance company or similar organization which is qualified to do business in any State or through a qualified health maintenance organization as defined in section 1310(d) of the Public Health Service Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 300e-9(d), the premiums for which are paid directly by the employer or employee organization from its general assets or partly from its general assets and partly from contributions by its employees or members, <I>Provided,</I> That contributions by participants are forwarded by the employer or employee organization within three months of receipt, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Both; 
</P>
<P>(3) For which, in the case of an insured plan—
</P>
<P>(i) Refunds, to which contributing participants are entitled, are returned to them within three months of receipt by the employer or employee organization, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contributing participants are informed upon entry into the plan of the provisions of the plan concerning the allocation of refunds; and
</P>
<P>(4) Which are not subject to the Form M-1 requirements under § 2520.101-2 (Filing by Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements and Certain Other Related Entities).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> This exemption does not exempt the administrator of an employee benefit plan from any other requirement of title I of the Act, including the provisions which require that plan administrators furnish copies of the summary plan description to participants and beneficiaries (section 104(b)(1)) and furnish certain documents to the Secretary of Labor upon request (section 104(a)(6)), and which authorize the Secretary of Labor to collect information and data from employee benefit plans for research and analysis (section 513).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> (1) A welfare plan has 75 participants at the beginning of the plan year and 105 participants at the end of the plan year. Plan benefits are fully insured and premiums are paid directly to the insurance company by the employer pursuant to an insurance contract purchased with premium payments derived half from the general assets of the employer and half from employee contributions (which the employer forwards within three months of receipt). Refunds to the plan are paid to participating employees within three months of receipt as provided in the plan and as described to each participant upon entering the plan. The plan appoints the employer as its plan administrator. The employer, as plan administrator, provides summary plan descriptions to participants and beneficiaries. He also makes copies of certain plan documents available at the plan's principal office and such other places as necessary to give participants reasonable access to them. The exemption provided by § 2520.104-20 applies even though the plan has more than 100 participants by the end of the plan year, because it had fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year and otherwise satisfied the conditions of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) A welfare plan is established and maintained in the same way as the plan described in example (1), except that a trade association which sponsors the plan is the holder of the insurance contract. Since the plan still sends the premium payments directly to the insurance company, the exemption applies, as in example (1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10148, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 5884, Jan. 21, 1981; 67 FR 776, Jan. 7, 2002; 78 FR 13796, Mar. 1, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-21" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-21   Limited exemption for certain group insurance arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Act, the administrator of any employee welfare benefit plan which covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year and which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is exempted from certain reporting and disclosure provisions of the Act. Specifically, the administrator of such plan is not required to file with the Secretary a terminal report or furnish upon written request of any participant or beneficiary a copy of any terminal report as required by section 104(b)(4) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This exemption applies only to welfare plans, each of which has fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year and which are part of a group insurance arrangement if such arrangement:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides benefits to the employees of two or more unaffiliated employers, but not in connection with a multiemployer plan as defined in section 3(37) of the Act and any regulations prescribed under the Act concerning section 3(37); 
</P>
<P>(2) Fully insures one or more welfare plans of each participating employer through insurance contracts purchased solely by the employers or purchased partly by the employers and partly by their participating employees, with all benefit payments made by the insurance company: <I>Provided,</I> That— 
</P>
<P>(i) Contributions by participating employees are forwarded by the employers within three months of receipt,
</P>
<P>(ii) Refunds, to which contributing participants are entitled, are returned to them within three months of receipt, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Contributing participants are informed upon entry into the plan of the provisions of the plan concerning the allocation of refunds; and
</P>
<P>(3) Uses a trust (or other entity such as a trade association) as the holder of the insurance contracts and uses a trust as the conduit for payment of premiums to the insurance company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> This exemption does not exempt the administrator of an employee benefit plan from any other requirement of title I of the Act, including the provisions which require that plan administrators furnish copies of the summary plan description to participants and beneficiaries (section 104(b)(1)), file an annual report with the Secretary of Labor (section 104(a)(1)) and furnish certain documents to the Secretary of Labor upon request (section 104(a)(6)), and authorize the Secretary of Labor to collect information and data from employee benefit plans for research and analysis (section 513).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> (1) A welfare plan has 25 participants at the beginning of the plan year. It is part of a group insurance arrangement of a trade association which provides benefits to employees of two or more unaffiliated employers, but not in connection with a multiemployer plan as defined in the Act. Plan benefits are fully insured pursuant to insurance contracts purchased with premium payments derived half from employee contributions (which the employer forwards within three months of receipt) and half from the general assets of each participating employer. Refunds to the plan are paid to participating employees within three months of receipt as provided in the plan and as described to each participant upon entering the plan. The trade association holds the insurance contracts. A trust acts as a conduit for payments, receiving premium payments from participating employers and paying the insurance company. The plan appoints the trade association as its plan administrator. The association, as plan administrator, provides summary plan descriptions to participants and beneficiaries, enlisting the help of participating employers in carrying out this distribution. The plan administrator also makes copies of certain plan documents available to the plan's principal office and such other places as necessary to give participants reasonable access to them. The plan administrator files with the Secretary an annual report covering activities of the plan, as required by the Act and such regulations as the Secretary may issue. The exemption provided by this section applies because the conditions of paragraph (b) have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(2) Assume the same facts as paragraph (d)(1) of this section except that the premium payments for the insurance company are paid from the trust to an independent insurance brokerage firm acting as the agent of the insurance company. The trade association is the holder of the insurance contract. The plan appoints an officer of the participating employer as the plan administrator. The officer, as plan administrator, performs the same reporting and disclosure functions as the administrator in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, enlisting the help of the association in providing summary plan descriptions and necessary information. The exemption provided by this section applies.
</P>
<P>(3) The facts are the same as paragraph (d)(1) of this section except the welfare plan has 125 participants at the beginning of the plan year. The exemption provided by this section does not apply because the plan had 100 or more participants at the beginning of the plan year. See, however, § 2520.104-43.
</P>
<P>(4) The facts are the same as paragraph (d)(2) of this section except the welfare plan has 125 participants. The exemption provided by this section does not apply because the plan had 100 or more participants at the beginning of the plan year. See, however, § 2520.104-43.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the arrangement may continue to use an entity (such as a trade association) as the conduit for the payment of insurance premiums to the insurance company for reporting years of the arrangement beginning before January 1, 2001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10149, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 65 FR 21084, Apr. 19, 2000; 67 FR 776, Jan. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-22" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-22   Exemption from reporting and disclosure requirements for apprenticeship and training plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee welfare benefit plan that provides exclusively apprenticeship training benefits or other training benefits or that provides exclusively apprenticeship and training benefits shall not be required to meet any requirement of part 1 of the Act, provided that the administrator of such plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Has filed with the Secretary the notice described in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Takes steps reasonably designed to ensure that the information required to be contained in such notice is disclosed to employees of employers contributing to the plan who may be eligible to enroll in any course of study sponsored or established by the plan; and
</P>
<P>(3) Makes such notice available to such employees upon request.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall contain accurate information concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The Employer Identification Number (EIN) of the plan sponsor;
</P>
<P>(3) The name of the plan administrator;
</P>
<P>(4) The name and location of an office or person from whom an interested individual can obtain:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of any existing or anticipated future course of study sponsored or established by the plan, including any prerequisites for enrolling in such course; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the procedure by which to enroll in such course. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall be filed with the Secretary electronically in accordance with the instructions published by the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 15529, Mar. 11, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 27933, Apr. 25, 1980; 54 FR 8629, Mar. 1, 1989; 68 FR 16400, Apr. 3, 2003; 84 FR 27955, June 17, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-23" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-23   Alternative method of compliance for pension plans for certain selected employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) This section contains an alternative method of compliance with the reporting and disclosure requirements of part 1 of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 for unfunded or insured pension plans maintained by an employer for a select group of management or highly compensated employees, pursuant to the authority of the Secretary of Labor under section 110 of the Act (88 Stat. 851). 
</P>
<P>(2) Under section 110 of the Act, the Secretary is authorized to prescribe an alternative method for satisfying any requirement of part 1 of title I of the Act with respect to any pension plans, or class of pension plans, subject to such requirement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing obligation.</I> Under the authority of section 110 of the Act, an alternative form of compliance with the reporting and disclosure requirements of part 1 of the Act is provided for certain pension plans for a select group of management or highly compensated employees. The administrator of a pension plan described in paragraph (d) shall be deemed to satisfy the reporting and disclosure provisions of part 1 of title I of the Act by—
</P>
<P>(1) Filing a statement with the Secretary of Labor that includes the name and address of the employer, the employer identification number (EIN) assigned by the Internal Revenue Service, a declaration that the employer maintains a plan or plans primarily for the purpose of providing deferred compensation for a select group of management or highly compensated employees, and a statement of the number of such plans and the number of employees in each, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Providing plan documents, if any, to the Secretary upon request as required by section 104(a)(6) of the Act. Only one statement need be filed for each employer maintaining one or more of the plans described in paragraph (d) of this section. For plans in existence on May 4, 1975, the statement shall be filed on or before August 31, 1975. For a plan to which part 1 of title I of the Act becomes applicable after May 4, 1975, the statement shall be filed within 120 days after the plan becomes subject to part 1. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic filing of statement.</I> Statements referred to in paragraph (b) of this section shall be filed with the Secretary electronically in accordance with the instructions published by the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application.</I> The alternative form of compliance described in paragraph (b) of this section is available only to employee pension benefit plans—
</P>
<P>(1) Which are maintained by an employer primarily for the purpose of providing deferred compensation for a select group of management or highly compensated employees, and 
</P>
<P>(2) For which benefits (i) are paid as needed solely from the general assets of the employer, (ii) are provided exclusively through insurance contracts or policies, the premiums for which are paid directly by the employer from its general assets, issued by an insurance company or similar organization which is qualified to do business in any State, or (iii) both. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 34533, Aug. 15, 1975, as amended at 54 FR 8629, Mar. 1, 1989; 67 FR 776, Jan. 7, 2002; 68 FR 16400, Apr. 3, 2003; 84 FR 27955, June 17, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-24" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-24   Exemption for welfare plans for certain selected employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) This section, under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, exempts unfunded or insured welfare plans maintained by an employer for the purpose of providing benefits for a select group of management or highly compensated employees from the reporting and disclosure provisions of part 1 of title I of the Act, except for the requirement to provide plan documents to the Secretary of Labor upon request under section 104(a)(1) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) Under section 104(a)(3) of the Act, the Secretary is authorized to exempt by regulation any welfare benefit plan from all or part of the reporting and disclosure requirements of title I of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Act, each employee welfare benefit plan described in paragraph (c) of this section is exempted from the reporting and disclosure provisions of part 1 of title I of the Act, except for providing plan documents to the Secretary of Labor upon request as required by section 104(a)(6). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application.</I> This exemption is available only to employee welfare benefit plans: 
</P>
<P>(1) Which are maintained by an employer primarily for the purpose of providing benefits for a select group of management or highly compensated employees, and 
</P>
<P>(2) For which benefits (i) are paid as needed solely from the general assets of the employer, (ii) are provided exclusively through insurance contracts or policies, the premiums for which are paid directly by the employer from its general assets, issued by an insurance company or similar organization which is qualified to do business in any State, or (iii) both. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 34533, Aug. 15, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 776, Jan. 7, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-25" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-25   Exemption from reporting and disclosure for day care centers.</HEAD>
<P>Under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Act, day care centers are exempted from the reporting and disclosure provisions of part 1 of title I of the Act, except for providing plan documents to the Secretary upon request as required under section 104(a)(6) of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 34533, Aug. 15, 1975, as amended at 67 FR 776, Jan. 7, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-26" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-26   Limited exemption for certain unfunded dues financed welfare plans maintained by employee organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Act, a welfare benefit plan that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is exempted from the provisions of the Act that require filing with the Secretary an annual report and furnishing a summary annual report to participants and beneficiaries. Such plans may use a simplified method of reporting and disclosure to comply with the requirement to furnish a summary plan description to participants and beneficiaries, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In lieu of filing an annual report with the Secretary or distributing a summary annual report, a filing is made of Report Form LM-2 or LM-3, pursuant to the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (LMRDA) and regulations thereunder, and
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of a summary plan description, the employee organization constitution or by-laws may be furnished in accordance with § 2520.104b-2 to participants and beneficiaries together with any supplement to such document necessary to meet the requirements of §§ 2520.102-2 and 2520.102-3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This exemption is available only to welfare benefit plans maintained by an employee organization, as that term is defined in section 3(4) of the Act, paid for out of the employee organization's general assets, which are derived wholly or partly from membership dues, and which cover employee organization members and their beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> This exemption does not exempt the administrator from any other requirement of part 1 of title I of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37184, July 19, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 776, Jan. 7, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-27" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-27   Alternative method of compliance for certain unfunded dues financed pension plans maintained by employee organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Under the authority of section 110 of the Act, a pension benefit plan that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is exempted from the provisions of the Act that require filing with the Secretary an annual report and furnishing a summary annual report to participants and beneficiaries receiving benefits. Such plans may use a simplified method of reporting and disclosure to comply with the requirement to furnish a summary plan description to participants and beneficiaries receiving benefits, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In lieu of filing an annual report with the Secretary or distributing a summary annual report, a filing is made of Report Form LM-2 or LM-3, pursuant to the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (LMRDA) and regulations thereunder, and
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of a summary plan description, the employee organization constitution or bylaws may be furnished in accordance with § 2520.104b-2 to participants and beneficiaries together with any supplement to such document necessary to meet the requirements of §§ 2520.102-2 and 2520.102-3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This exemption is available only to pension benefit plans maintained by an employee organization, as that term is defined in section 3(4) of the Act, paid for out of the employee organization's general assets, which are derived wholly or partly from membership dues, and which cover employee organization members and their beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> This exemption does not exempt the administrator from any other requirement of part 1 of title I of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37184, July 19, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 777, Jan. 7, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-28" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-28   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-41" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-41   Simplified annual reporting requirements for plans with fewer than 100 participants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Under the authority of section 104(a)(2)(A), the Secretary of Labor may prescribe simplified annual reporting for employee pension benefit plans with fewer than 100 participants. 
</P>
<P>(2) Under the authority of section 104(a)(3), the Secretary of Labor may provide a limited exemption for any employee welfare benefit plan with respect to certain annual reporting requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> The administrator of an employee pension or welfare benefit plan which covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year and the administrator of an employee pension or welfare benefit plan described in § 2520.103-1(d) may file the simplified annual report described in paragraph (c) of this section in lieu of the annual report described in § 2520.103-1(b). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> The administrator of an employee pension or welfare benefit plan described in paragraph (b) of this section shall file, in the manner described in § 2520.104a-5, a completed Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” including, if applicable, the information described in § 2520.103-1(f) or, to the extent eligible, a completed Form 5500-SF “Short Form Annual Return/Report of Small Employee Benefit Plan,” and any required schedules or statements prescribed by the instructions to the applicable form, and, unless waived by § 2520.104-44 or § 2520.104-46, a report of an independent qualified public accountant meeting the requirements of § 2520.103-1(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10150, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 51446, Aug. 1, 1980; 54 FR 8629, Mar. 1, 1989; 65 FR 21084, Apr. 19, 2000; 65 FR 62973, Oct. 19, 2000; 78 FR 13796, Mar. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-42" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-42   Waiver of certain actuarial information in the annual report.</HEAD>
<P>Under the authority of section 104(a)(2)(A) of ERISA, the requirement of section 103(d)(6) of ERISA that the annual report include as part of the actuarial statement (Schedule B) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> the present value of all of the plan's liabilities for nonforfeitable pension benefits allocated by termination priority categories, as set forth in section 4044 of title IV of ERISA, and the actuarial assumptions used in these computations, is waived.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Schedule B was filed as part of the original document.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 5446, Jan. 26, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-43" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-43   Exemption from annual reporting requirement for certain group insurance arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Act, the administrator of an employee welfare benefit plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is not required to file an annual report with the Secretary of Labor as required by section 104(a)(1) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> (1) This exemption applies only to a welfare plan for a plan year in which (i) such plan meets the requirements of § 2520.104-21, except the requirement that the plan cover fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year, and
</P>
<P>(ii) An annual report containing the items set forth in § 2520.103-2 has been filed with the Secretary of Labor in accordance with § 2520.104a-6 by the trust or other entity which is the holder of the group insurance contracts by which plan benefits are provided.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the terms “group insurance arrangement” or “trust or other entity” shall be used in place of the terms “plan” and “plan administrator,” as applicable, in §§ 2520.103-3, 2520.103-4, 2520.103-6, 2520.103-8, 2520.103-9 and 2520.103-10.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation.</I> This provision does not exempt the administrator of an employee benefit plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) from furnishing a copy of a summary annual report to participants and beneficiaries of the plan, as required by section 104(b)(3) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10150, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 65 FR 21084, Apr. 19, 2000; 67 FR 777, Jan. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-44" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-44   Limited exemption and alternative method of compliance for annual reporting by unfunded plans and by certain insured plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Act, the Secretary of Labor may exempt an employee welfare benefit plan from any or all of the reporting and disclosure requirements of title I. An employee welfare benefit plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not required to comply with the annual reporting requirements described in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Under the authority of section 110 of the Act, an alternative method of compliance is prescribed for certain employee pension benefit plans subject to part 1, title I of the Act. An employee pension benefit plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section is not required to comply with the annual reporting requirements described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> This section applies only to: 
</P>
<P>(1) An employee welfare benefit plan under the terms of which benefits are to be paid—
</P>
<P>(i) Solely from the general assets of the employer or employee organization maintaining the plan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The benefits of which are provided exclusively through insurance contracts or policies issued by an insurance company or similar organization which is qualified to do business in any State or through a qualified health maintenance organization as defined in section 1310(d) of the Public Health Service Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 300e-9(d), the premiums for which are paid directly by the employer or employee organization from its general assets or partly from its general assets and partly from contributions by its employees or members, provided that any plan assets held by such an insurance company are held solely in the general account of such company or organization, contributions by participants are forwarded by the employer or employee organization within three months of receipt and, in the case of a plan that provides for the return of refunds to contributing participants, such refunds are returned to them within three months of receipt by the employer or employee organization, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Partly in the manner specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section and partly in the manner specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) A pension benefit plan the benefits of which are provided exclusively through allocated insurance contracts or policies which are issued by, and pursuant to the specific terms of such contracts or policies benefit payments are fully guaranteed by an insurance company or similar organization which is qualified to do business in any State, and the premiums for which are paid directly by the employer or employee organization from its general assets or partly from its general assets and partly from contributions by its employees or members: <I>Provided,</I> That contributions by participants are forwarded by the employer or employee organization to the insurance company or organization within three months of receipt and, in the case of a plan that provides for the return of refunds to contributing participants, such refunds are returned to them within three months of receipt by the employer or employee organization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> An employee benefit plan described in paragraph (b) of this section is exempt from complying with the following annual reporting requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) Completing certain items of the annual report relating to financial information and transactions entered into by the plan as described in the instructions to the Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” and accompanying schedules;
</P>
<P>(2) Engaging an independent qualified public accountant pursuant to section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Act and § 2520.103-1(b) to conduct an examination of the financial statements and schedules of the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Including in the annual report a report of an independent qualified public accountant concerning the financial statements and schedules required to be a part of the annual report pursuant to section 103(b) of the Act and § 2520.103-1(b). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitation.</I> This section does not exempt any plan from filing an annual report form with the Secretary in accordance with section 104(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104a-5. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Example.</I> A welfare plan which is funded entirely with insurance contracts and which meets all the requirements of exemption under § 2520.104-20 except that it covers 100 or more participants at the beginning of the plan year is not exempt from the annual reporting requirements under § 2520.104-20, but is exempt from certain reporting requirements under § 2520.104-44. Under the latter section, such a welfare plan should file Form 5500, including Schedule A “Insurance Information.” However, the plan is not required to engage an independent qualified public accountant and need not complete certain items on form 5500. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10150, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 51446, Aug. 1, 1980; 46 FR 5884, Jan. 21, 1981; 65 FR 21085, Apr. 19, 2000; 67 FR 777, Jan. 7, 2002; 72 FR 64728, Nov. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-45" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-45   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-46" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-46   Waiver of examination and report of an independent qualified public accountant for employee benefit plans with fewer than 100 participants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Under the authority of section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Act, the Secretary may waive the requirements of section 103(a)(3)(A) in the case of a plan for which simplified annual reporting has been prescribed in accordance with section 104(a)(2) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) Under the authority of section 104(a)(3) of the Act the Secretary may exempt any employee welfare benefit plan from certain annual reporting requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> (1)(i) The administrator of an employee pension benefit plan for which simplified annual reporting has been prescribed in accordance with section 104(a)(2)(A) of the Act and § 2520.104-41 is not required to comply with the annual reporting requirements described in paragraph (c) of this section, provided that with respect to each plan year for which the waiver is claimed— 
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) At least 95 percent of the assets of the plan constitute qualifying plan assets within the meaning of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any person who handles assets of the plan that do not constitute qualifying plan assets is bonded in accordance with the requirements of section 412 of the Act and the regulations issued thereunder, except that the amount of the bond shall not be less than the value of such assets; 
</P>
<P>(B) The summary annual report (described in § 2520.104b-10) or, in the case of plans subject to section 101(f) of the Act, the annual funding notice (described in § 2520.101-5), includes, in addition to any other required information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Except for qualifying plan assets described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A), (B) and (F) of this section, the name of each regulated financial institution holding (or issuing) qualifying plan assets and the amount of such assets reported by the institution as of the end of the plan year; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name of the surety company issuing the bond, if the plan has more than 5% of its assets in non-qualifying plan assets; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A notice indicating that participants and beneficiaries may, upon request and without charge, examine, or receive copies of, evidence of the required bond and statements received from the regulated financial institutions describing the qualifying plan assets; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A notice stating that participants and beneficiaries should contact the Regional Office of the U.S. Department of Labor's Employee Benefits Security Administration if they are unable to examine or obtain copies of the regulated financial institution statements or evidence of the required bond, if applicable; and 
</P>
<P>(C) in response to a request from any participant or beneficiary, the administrator, without charge to the participant or beneficiary, makes available for examination, or upon request furnishes copies of, each regulated financial institution statement and evidence of any bond required by paragraph (b)(1)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>). 
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1), the term “qualifying plan assets” means: 
</P>
<P>(A) Qualifying employer securities, as defined in section 407(d)(5) of the Act and the regulations issued thereunder; 
</P>
<P>(B) Any loan meeting the requirements of section 408(b)(1) of the Act and the regulations issued thereunder; 
</P>
<P>(C) Any assets held by any of the following institutions: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bank or similar financial institution as defined in § 2550.408b-4(c); 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An insurance company qualified to do business under the laws of a state; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An organization registered as a broker-dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Any other organization authorized to act as a trustee for individual retirement accounts under section 408 of the Internal Revenue Code. 
</P>
<P>(D) Shares issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940; 
</P>
<P>(E) Investment and annuity contracts issued by any insurance company qualified to do business under the laws of a state; and, 
</P>
<P>(F) In the case of an individual account plan, any assets in the individual account of a participant or beneficiary over which the participant or beneficiary has the opportunity to exercise control and with respect to which the participant or beneficiary is furnished, at least annually, a statement from a regulated financial institution referred to in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(C), (D) or (E) of this section describing the assets held (or issued) by such institution and the amount of such assets. 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), the determination of the percentage of all plan assets consisting of qualifying plan assets with respect to a given plan year shall be made in the same manner as the amount of the bond is determined pursuant to §§ 2580.412-11, 2580.412-14, and 2580.412-15. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Examples.</I> Plan A, which reports on a calendar year basis, has total assets of $600,000 as of the end of the 1999 plan year. Plan A's assets, as of the end of year, include: investments in various bank, insurance company and mutual fund products of $520,000; investments in qualifying employer securities of $40,000; participant loans, meeting the requirements of ERISA section 408(b)(1), totaling $20,000; and a $20,000 investment in a real estate limited partnership. Because the only asset of the plan that does not constitute a “qualifying plan asset” is the $20,000 real estate investment and that investment represents less than 5% of the plan's total assets, no bond would be required under the proposal as a condition for the waiver for the 2000 plan year. By contrast, Plan B also has total assets of $600,000 as of the end of the 1999 plan year, of which $558,000 constitutes “qualifying plan assets” and $42,000 constitutes non-qualifying plan assets. Because 7%—more than 5%—of Plan B's assets do not constitute “qualifying plan assets,” Plan B, as a condition to electing the waiver for the 2000 plan year, must ensure that it has a fidelity bond in an amount equal to at least $42,000 covering persons handling non-qualifying plan assets. Inasmuch as compliance with section 412 requires the amount of bonds to be not less than 10% of the amount of all the plan's funds or other property handled, the bond acquired for section 412 purposes may be adequate to cover the non-qualifying plan assets without an increase (<I>i.e.</I>, if the amount of the bond determined to be needed for the relevant persons for section 412 purposes is at least $42,000). As demonstrated by the foregoing example, where a plan has more than 5% of its assets in non-qualifying plan assets, the bond required by the proposal is for the total amount of the non-qualifying plan assets, not just the amount in excess of 5%.
</P>
<P>(2) The administrator of an employee welfare benefit plan that covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year is not required to comply with annual reporting requirements described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver.</I> The administrator of a plan described in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section is not required to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Engage an independent qualified public accountant to conduct an examination of the financial statements of the plan; 
</P>
<P>(2) Include within the annual report the financial statements and schedules prescribed in section 103(b) of the Act and §§ 2520.103-1, 2520.103-2, and 2520.103-10; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Include within the annual report a report of an independent qualified public accountant as prescribed in section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Act and § 2520.103-1.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> (1) The waiver described in this section does not affect the obligation of a plan described in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section to file a Form 5500 “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan,” including any required schedules or statements prescribed by the instructions to the form. See § 2520.104-41. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, an employee pension benefit plan for which simplified annual reporting has been prescribed includes an employee pension benefit plan which elects to file a Form 5500 as a small plan pursuant to § 2520.103-1(d) with respect to the plan year for which the waiver is claimed. See § 2520.104-41. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, an employee welfare benefit plan that covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of the plan year includes an employee welfare benefit plan which elects to file a Form 5500 as a small plan pursuant to § 2520.103-1(d) with respect to the plan year for which the waiver is claimed. See § 2520.104-41. 
</P>
<P>(4) A plan that elects to file a Form 5500 as a large plan pursuant to § 2520.103-1(d) may not claim a waiver under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Model notice.</I> The appendix to this section contains model language for inclusion in the summary annual report to assist plan administrators in complying with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i)(B) of this section to avail themselves of the waiver of examination and report of the independent qualified public accountant for employee benefit plans with fewer than 100 participants. Use of the model language is not mandatory. In order to use the model language in the plan's summary annual report, administrators must, in addition to any other information required to be in the summary annual report, select among alternative language and add relevant information where appropriate in the model language. Items of information that are not applicable to a particular plan may be deleted. Use of the model language, appropriately modified and supplemented, will be deemed to satisfy the notice content requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix to § 2520.104-46—Model Summary Annual Report Notice (Plan Administrators Will Need to Modify the Model to Omit Information That Is Not Applicable to the Plan) 
</HD1>
<P>The U.S. Department of Labor's regulations require that an independent qualified public accountant audit the plan's financial statements unless certain conditions are met for the audit requirement to be waived. This plan met the audit waiver conditions for the plan year beginning (insert year) and therefore has not had an audit performed. Instead, the following information is provided to assist you in verifying that the assets reported on the (Form 5500 or Form 5500-SF—select as applicable) were actually held by the plan.
</P>
<P>At the end of the (insert year) plan year, the plan had (include separate entries for each regulated financial institution holding or issuing qualifying plan assets):
</P>
<P>[Set forth amounts and names of institutions as applicable where indicated], [(insert $ amount) in assets held by (insert name of bank)], [(insert $ amount) in securities held by (insert name of registered broker-dealer)], [(insert $ amount) in shares issued by (insert name of registered investment company)], [(insert $ amount) in investment or annuity contract issued by (insert name of insurance company)].
</P>
<P>The plan receives year-end statements from these regulated financial institutions that confirm the above information. [Insert as applicable—The remainder of the plan's assets were (1) qualifying employer securities, (2) loans to participants, (3) held in individual participant accounts with investments directed by participants and beneficiaries and with account statements from regulated financial institutions furnished to the participant or beneficiary at least annually, or (4) other assets covered by a fidelity bond at least equal to the value of the assets and issued by an approved surety company.]
</P>
<P>Plan participants and beneficiaries have a right, on request and free of charge, to get copies of the financial institution year-end statements and evidence of the fidelity bond. If you want to examine or get copies of the financial institution year-end statements or evidence of the fidelity bond, please contact [insert mailing address and any other available way to request copies such as e-mail and phone number].
</P>
<P>If you are unable to obtain or examine copies of the regulated financial institution statements or evidence of the fidelity bond, you may contact the regional office of the U.S. Department of Labor's Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) for assistance by calling toll-free 1.866.444.EBSA (3272). A listing of EBSA regional offices can be found at <I>http://www.dol.gov/ebsa.</I>
</P>
<P>General information regarding the audit waiver conditions applicable to the plan can be found on the U.S. Department of Labor Web site at <I>http://www.dol.gov/ebsa</I> under the heading “Frequently Asked Questions.”</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10151, Mar. 10, 1978, as amended at 43 FR 14010, Apr. 4, 1978; 45 FR 51447, Aug. 1, 1980; 54 FR 8629, Mar. 1, 1989; 65 FR 21085, Apr. 19, 2000; 65 FR 62973, Oct. 19, 2000; 72 FR 64728, Nov. 16, 2007; 80 FR 5663, Feb. 2, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-47" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-47   Limited exemption and alternative method of compliance for filing of insurance company financial reports.</HEAD>
<P>An administrator of an employee benefit plan to which section 103(e)(2) of the Act applies shall be deemed in compliance with the requirement to include with its annual report a copy of the financial report of the insurance company, insurance service or similar organization, provided that the administrator files a copy of such report within 45 days of receipt of a written request for such report by the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14034, Mar. 4, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-48" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-48   Alternative method of compliance for model simplified employee pensions—IRS Form 5305-SEP.</HEAD>
<P>Under the authority of section 110 of the Act the provisions of this section are prescribed as an alternative method of compliance with the reporting and disclosure requirements set forth in part 1 of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 in the case of a simplified employee pension (SEP) described in section 408(k) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 as amended (the Code) that is created by use without modification of Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Form <I>5305-SEP.</I> 
</P>
<P>(a) At the time an employee becomes eligible to participate in the SEP (whether at the creation of the SEP or thereafter), the administrator of the SEP (generally the employer establishing and maintaining the SEP) shall furnish the employee with a copy of the completed and unmodified IRS Form <I>5305-SEP</I> used to create the SEP, including (1) the completed Contribution Agreement, (2) the General Information and Guidelines, and (3) the Questions and Answers. 
</P>
<P>(b) Following the end of each calendar year the administrator of the SEP shall notify each participant in the SEP in writing of any employer contributions made under the Contribution Agreement to the participant's individual retirement account or individual retirement annuity (IRA) for that year. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the employer establishing and maintaining the SEP selects, recommends, or in any other way influences employees to choose a particular IRA or type of IRA into which contributions under the SEP will be made, and if that IRA is subject to restrictions on a participant's ability to withdraw funds (other than restrictions imposed by the Code that apply to all IRAs), the administrator of the SEP shall give to each employee, in writing, within 90 days of the adoption of this regulation or at the time such employee becomes eligible to participate in the SEP, whichever is later, a clear explanation of those restrictions and a statement to the effect that other IRAs, into which rollovers or employee contributions may be made, may not be subject to such restrictions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 24869, Apr. 11, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-49" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-49   Alternative method of compliance for certain simplified employee pensions.</HEAD>
<P>Under the authority of section 110 of the Act, the provisions of this section are prescribed as an alternative method of compliance with the reporting and disclosure requirements set forth in part 1 of title I of the Act for a simplified employee pension (SEP) described in section 408(k) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 as amended, except for:
</P>
<FP>A SEP that is created by proper use of Internal Revenue Service Form <I>5305-SEP,</I> or; a SEP in connection with which the employer who establishes or maintains the SEP selects, recommends or influences its employees to choose the IRAs into which employer contributions will be made and those IRAs are subject to provisions that prohibit withdrawal of funds by participants for any period of time.
</FP>
<P>(a) At the time an employee becomes eligible to participate in the SEP (whether at the creation of the SEP or thereafter) or up to 90 days after the effective date of this regulation, whichever is later, the administrator of the SEP (generally the employer establishing or maintaining the SEP) shall furnish the employee in writing with:
</P>
<P>(1) Specific information concerning the SEP, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirements for employee participation in the SEP,
</P>
<P>(ii) The formula to be used to allocate employer contributions made under the SEP to each participant's individual retirement account or annuity (IRA),
</P>
<P>(iii) The name or title of the individual who is designated by the employer to provide additional information to participants concerning the SEP, and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the employer who establishes or maintains the SEP selects, recommends or substantially influences its employees to choose the IRAs into which employer contributions under the SEP will be made, a clear explanation of the terms of those IRAs, such as the rate(s) of return and any restrictions on a participant's ability to roll over or withdraw funds from the IRAs, including restrictions that allow rollovers or withdrawals but reduce earnings of the IRAs or impose other penalties. 
</P>
<P>(2) General information concerning SEPs and IRAs, including a clear explanation of:
</P>
<P>(i) What a SEP is and how it operates,
</P>
<P>(ii) The statutory provisions prohibiting discrimination in favor of highly compensated employees,
</P>
<P>(iii) A participant's right to receive contributions under a SEP-and the allowable sources of contributions to a SEP-related IRA (SEP-IRA),
</P>
<P>(iv) The statutory limits on contributions to SEP-IRAs,
</P>
<P>(v) The consequences of excess contributions to a SEP-IRA and how to avoid excess contributions,
</P>
<P>(vi) A participant's rights with respect to contributions made under a SEP to his or her IRA(s), 
</P>
<P>(vii) How a participant must treat contributions to a SEP-IRA for tax purposes,
</P>
<P>(viii) The statutory provisions concerning withdrawal of funds from a SEP-IRA and the consequences of a premature withdrawal, and
</P>
<P>(ix) A participant's ability to roll over or transfer funds from a SEP-IRA to another IRA, SEP-IRA, or retirement bond, and how such a rollover or transfer may be effected without causing adverse tax consequences.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement to the effect that:
</P>
<P>(i) IRAs other than the IRA(s) into which employer contributions will be made under the SEP may provide different rates of return and may have different terms concerning, among other things, transfers and withdrawals of funds from the IRA(s),
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event a participant is entitled to make a contribution or rollover to an IRA, such contribution or rollover can be made to an IRA other than the one into which employer contributions under the SEP are to be made, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Depending on the terms of the IRA into which employer contributions are made, a participant may be able to make rollovers or transfers of funds from that IRA to another IRA.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the disclosure required by the Internal Revenue Service to be made to individuals for whose benefit an IRA is established by the financial institution or other person who sponsors the IRA(s) into which contributions will be made under the SEP.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that, in addition to the information provided to an employee at the time he or she becomes eligible to participate in a SEP, the administrator of the SEP must furnish each participant:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 30 days of the effective date of any amendment to the terms of the SEP, a copy of the amendment and a clear written explanation of its effects, and
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) January 31 of the year following the year for which a contribution is made,
</P>
<P>(B) 30 days after a contribution is made, or
</P>
<P>(C) 30 days after the effective date of this regulation
</P>
<FP>written notification of any employer contributions made under the SEP to that participant's IRA(s).
</FP>
<P>(6) In the case of a SEP that provides for integration with Social Security
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that Social Security taxes paid by the employer on account of a participant will be considered as an employer contribution under the SEP to a participant's SEP-IRA for purposes of determining the amount contributed to the SEP-IRA(s) of a participant by the employer pursuant to the allocation formula,
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the effect that integration with Social Security would have on employer contributions under a SEP, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The integration formula, which may constitute part of the allocation formula required by paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (ii), (iii) and (a)(6)(i) of this regulation may be met by furnishing the SEP agreement to participants, provided that the SEP agreement is written in a manner reasonably calculated to be understood by the average plan participant.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this regulation may be met through disclosure materials furnished by the financial institution in which the participant's IRA is maintained, provided the materials contain the information specified in such paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) No later than the later of:
</P>
<P>(1) January 31 of the year following the year for which a contribution is made,
</P>
<P>(2) 30 days after a contribution is made, or
</P>
<P>(3) 30 days after the effective date of this regulation
</P>
<FP>the administrator of the SEP shall notify a participant in the SEP in writing of any employer contributions made under the SEP to the participant's IRA(s).
</FP>
<P>(d) Within 30 days of the effective date of any amendment to the terms of the SEP, the administrator shall furnish each participant a copy of the amendment and a clear explanation in writing of its effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 1264, Jan. 6, 1981] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-50" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-50   Short plan years, deferral of accountant's examination and report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of “short plan year.”</I> For purposes of this section, a short plan year is a plan year, as defined in section 3(39) of the Act, of seven or fewer months' duration, which occurs in the event that:
</P>
<P>(1) A plan is established or commences operations;
</P>
<P>(2) A plan is merged or consolidated with another plan or plans;
</P>
<P>(3) A plan is terminated; or
</P>
<P>(4) The annual date on which the plan year begins is changed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deferral of accountant's report.</I> A plan administrator is not required to include the report of an independent qualified public accountant in the annual report for the first of two consecutive plan years, one of which is a short plan year, provided that the following conditions are satisfied: 
</P>
<P>(1) The annual report for the first of the two consecutive plan years shall include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Financial statements and accompanying schedules prepared in conformity with the requirements of section 103(b) of the Act and regulations promulgated thereunder; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation why one of the two plan years is of seven or fewer months' duration; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the annual report for the immediately following plan year will include a report of an independent qualified public accountant with respect to the financial statements and accompanying schedules for both of the two plan years. 
</P>
<P>(2) The annual report for the second of the two consecutive plan years shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial statements and accompanying schedules prepared in conformity with section 103(b) of the Act and regulations promulgated thereunder with respect to both plan years;
</P>
<P>(ii) A report of an independent qualified public accountant with respect to the financial statements and accompanying schedules for both plan years; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement identifying any material differences between the unaudited financial information relating to, and contained in the annual report for, the first of the two consecutive plan years and the audited financial information relating to that plan year contained in the annual report for the immediately following plan year. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accountant's examination and report.</I> The examination by the accountant which serves as the basis for the portion of his report relating to the first of the two consecutive plan years may be conducted at the same time as the examination which serves as the basis for the portion of his report relating to the immediately following plan year. The report of the accountant shall be prepared in conformity with section 103(a)(3)(A) of the Act and regulations thereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 1265, Jan. 6, 1981] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104-51" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104-51   Alternative method of compliance for defined contribution group (DCG) reporting arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of section 110 of the Act and section 202 of the SECURE Act, the administrator of an employee pension benefit plan which meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is not required to file a separate annual report with the Secretary of Labor as required by section 104(a)(1) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> (1) This alternative method of compliance applies only to an individual account or defined contribution pension plan for a plan year in which:
</P>
<P>(i) Such plan participates in a defined contribution group (DCG) reporting arrangement described in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A consolidated annual report containing the items set forth in § 2520.103-14 has been filed with the Secretary of Labor in accordance with § 2520.104a-9 by the common plan administrator (as described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section) for all of the plans participating in the DCG reporting arrangement (as described in paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the terms “DCG reporting arrangement,” “DCG” or “common plan administrator” shall be used in place of the terms “plan” and “plan administrator,” in §§ 2520.103-3, 2520.103-4, 2520.103-6, 2520.103-9, 2520.103-10 and elsewhere in subpart C of this part and this subpart, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Defined contribution group (DCG) reporting arrangement.</I> An arrangement is a “DCG reporting arrangement” or “DCG” for purposes of this section only if all plans relying on the DCG consolidated annual report described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) Are individual account plans or defined contribution plans as defined in section 3(34) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Have—
</P>
<P>(i) The same trustee meeting the requirements set forth in section 403(a) of the Act (“common trustee”);
</P>
<P>(ii) The same one or more named fiduciaries designated in accordance with the requirements set forth in section 402(a) of the Act (“common named fiduciaries”), except that nothing in this paragraph (c)(2)(ii) precludes an individual employer from acting as an additional named fiduciary with respect to the individual plan it sponsors, provided that the other named fiduciaries are the same and common to all plans;
</P>
<P>(iii) A designated plan administrator as defined in section 3(16)(A) of the Act that is the same plan administrator and common to all plans (“common plan administrator”); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Plan years beginning on the same date (“common plan year”);
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Provide the same investments or investment options to participants and beneficiaries in all the plans (“common investments or common investment options”);
</P>
<P>(ii) A single dedicated brokerage window provided by the same designated registered broker-dealer common to all plans that restricts participant and beneficiary investments solely to assets with a readily determinable fair market value as described in § 2520.103-1(c)(2)(ii)(C) will be treated as a common investment option for purposes of this paragraph (c)(3);
</P>
<P>(4) Do not hold any employer securities at any time during the plan year, except that nothing in this paragraph (c)(4) prohibits investments in any employer's publicly traded securities within the otherwise “same investment option” described in paragraph (c)(3);
</P>
<P>(5) Are either audited by an independent qualified public accountant (IQPA) or satisfy the audit waiver conditions in § 2520.104-46;
</P>
<P>(6) Are not a multiemployer plan; and
</P>
<P>(7) Are not a multiple-employer pension plan (including a pooled employer plan described in section 3(43) of the Act and a multiple-employer defined contribution pension plan described in § 2510.3-55 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> The alternative method of compliance set out in this section does not relieve the administrator of a pension plan participating in a DCG reporting arrangement described in paragraph (c) of this section from any other requirements of Title I of the Act, including the provisions which require that plan administrators furnish copies of the summary plan description to participants and beneficiaries (section 104(b)(1)), furnish certain documents to the Secretary of Labor upon request (section 104(a)(6)), authorize the Secretary of Labor to collect information and data from employee benefit plans for research and analysis (section 513), and furnish a copy of a summary annual report to participants and beneficiaries of the plan, as required by section 104(b)(3) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 11812, Feb. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Reporting Requirements</HEAD>

</DIV6>

<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in subpart E were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0016)


</APPRO>

<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104a-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104a-1   Filing with the Secretary of Labor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General reporting requirements.</I> Part 1 of title I of the Act requires that the administrator of an employee benefit plan subject to the provisions of part 1 file with the Secretary of Labor certain reports and additional documents. Each report filed shall accurately and comprehensively detail the information required. Where a form is prescribed, the reports shall be filed on that form. The Secretary may reject any incomplete filing. Reports and documents shall be filed as specified in this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption for certain welfare plans.</I> See §§ 2520.104-20, 2520.104-21, 2520.104-22, 2520.104-24, and 2520.104-25. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative method of compliance for pension plans for certain selected employees.</I> See § 2520.104-23.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37185, July 19, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104a-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104a-2   Electronic filing of annual reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any annual report (including any accompanying statements or schedules) filed with the Secretary under part 1 of title I of the Act for any plan year (reporting year, in the case of common or collective trusts, pooled separate accounts, and similar non-plan entities) beginning on or after January 1, 2009, shall be filed electronically in accordance with the instructions applicable to such report, and such other guidance as the Secretary may provide.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in paragraph (a) of this section is intended to alter or affect the duties of any person to retain records or to disclose information to participants, beneficiaries, or the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 41368, July 21, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 64729, Nov. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2520.104a-3—2520.104a-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2520.104a-3--2520.104a-4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104a-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104a-5   Annual reporting filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing obligation.</I> Except as provided in §§ 2520.104a-6 and 2520.104a-9, the administrator of an employee benefit plan required to file an annual report pursuant to section 104(a)(1) of the Act shall file an annual report containing the items prescribed in § 2520.103-1 within:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(2) Seven months after the close of any plan year which begins after December 31, 1975, unless extended. See “When to file” instructions of the appropriate Annual Return/Report Form. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> The annual report described in § 2520.103-1 shall be filed in accordance with and at the address provided in the instructions to the Annual Return/Report Form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10152, Mar. 10, 1978; 43 FR 14010, Apr. 4, 1978; 67 FR 777, Jan. 7, 2002; 88 FR 11812, Feb. 24, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104a-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104a-6   Annual reporting for plans which are part of a group insurance arrangement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A trust or other entity described in § 2520.104-43(b) that files an annual report in accordance with the terms of subsections (b) and (c) shall be deemed to have filed such report in accordance with § 2520.104a-6 for purposes of § 2520.104-43. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Date of filing.</I> The annual report shall be filed within: 
</P>
<P>(1) Eleven and one-half months after the close of the fiscal year of the trust or other entity described in § 2520.104-43 which begins in 1975 or December 15, 1977, whichever is later; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Seven months after the close of the fiscal year of the trust or other entity which begins after December 31, 1975, unless extended. See “When to file” instructions of the appropriate Annual Return/Report Form. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> The annual report prescribed in § 2520.103-2 shall be filed in accordance with and at the address provided in the instructions to the Annual Return/Report Form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 10152, Mar. 10, 1978; 43 FR 14010, Apr. 4, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104a-7" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104a-7   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104a-8" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104a-8   Requirement to furnish documents to the Secretary of Labor on request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Under section 104(a)(6) of the Act, the administrator of an employee benefit plan subject to the provisions of part 1 of title I of the Act is required to furnish to the Secretary, upon request, any documents relating to the employee benefit plan. For purposes of section 104(a)(6) of the Act, the administrator of an employee benefit plan shall furnish to the Secretary, upon service of a written request, a copy of:
</P>
<P>(i) The latest updated summary plan description (including any summaries of material modifications to the plan or changes in the information required to be included in the summary plan description); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other document described in section 104(b)(4) of the Act with respect to which a participant or beneficiary has requested, in writing, a copy from the plan administrator and which the administrator has failed or refused to furnish to the participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple requests for document(s).</I> Multiple requests under this section for the same or similar document or documents shall be considered separate requests for purposes of § 2560.502c-6(a).
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a participant or beneficiary will include any individual who is:
</P>
<P>(1) A participant or beneficiary within the meaning of ERISA sections 3(7) and 3(8), respectively;
</P>
<P>(2) An alternate payee under a qualified domestic relations order (see ERISA section 206(d)(3)(K)) or prospective alternate payee (spouses, former spouses, children or other dependents);
</P>
<P>(3) A qualified beneficiary under COBRA (see ERISA section 607(3)) or prospective qualified beneficiary (spouse or dependent child);
</P>
<P>(4) An alternate recipient under a qualified medical child support order (see ERISA section 609(a)(2)(C)) or a prospective alternate recipient; or
</P>
<P>(5) A representative of any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service of request.</I> Requests under this section shall be served in accordance with § 2560.502c-6(i).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Furnishing documents.</I> A document shall be deemed to be furnished to the Secretary on the date the document is received by the Department of Labor at the address specified in the request; or, if a document is delivered by certified mail, the date on which the document is mailed to the Department of Labor at the address specified in the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 784, Jan. 7, 2002]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104a-9" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104a-9   Annual reporting for defined contribution group (DCG) reporting arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A defined contribution group (DCG) reporting arrangement described in § 2520.104-51(c) that files a consolidated annual report for all the plans participating in the DCG reporting arrangement in accordance with the terms of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section shall be deemed to have filed such a report in accordance with § 2520.104a-9 for purposes of § 2520.104-51.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Date of filing.</I> The consolidated annual report shall be filed within seven months after the close of the common plan year of all the plans participating in the DCG reporting arrangement, unless extended. See “When to file” instructions of the Form 5500 Annual Return/Report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> The consolidated annual report prescribed in § 2520.103-14 shall be filed electronically in accordance with the instructions to the Annual Return/Report Form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 11812, Feb. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Disclosure Requirements</HEAD>

</DIV6>

<APPRO TYPE="N">(The information collection requirements contained in subpart F were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0016)


</APPRO>

<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104b-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104b-1   Disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General disclosure requirements.</I> The administrator of an employee benefit plan covered by Title I of the Act must disclose certain material, including reports, statements, notices, and other documents, to participants, beneficiaries and other specified individuals. Disclosure under Title I of the Act generally takes three forms. First, the plan administrator must, by direct operation of law, furnish certain material to all participants covered under the plan and beneficiaries receiving benefits under the plan (other than beneficiaries under a welfare plan) at stated times or if certain events occur. Second, the plan administrator must furnish certain material to individual participants and beneficiaries upon their request. Third, the plan administrator must make certain material available to participants and beneficiaries for inspection at reasonable times and places. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fulfilling the disclosure obligation.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, where certain material, including reports, statements, notices and other documents, is required under Title I of the Act, or regulations issued thereunder, to be furnished either by direct operation of law or on individual request, the plan administrator shall use measures reasonably calculated to ensure actual receipt of the material by plan participants, beneficiaries and other specified individuals. Material which is required to be furnished to all participants covered under the plan and beneficiaries receiving benefits under the plan (other than beneficiaries under a welfare plan) must be sent by a method or methods of delivery likely to result in full distribution. For example, in-hand delivery to an employee at his or her worksite is acceptable. However, in no case is it acceptable merely to place copies of the material in a location frequented by participants. It is also acceptable to furnish such material as a special insert in a periodical distributed to employees such as a union newspaper or a company publication if the distribution list for the periodical is comprehensive and up-to-date and a prominent notice on the front page of the periodical advises readers that the issue contains an insert with important information about rights under the plan and the Act which should be read and retained for future reference. If some participants and beneficiaries are not on the mailing list, a periodical must be used in conjunction with other methods of distribution such that the methods taken together are reasonably calculated to ensure actual receipt. Material distributed through the mail may be sent by first, second, or third-class mail. However, distribution by second or third-class mail is acceptable only if return and forwarding postage is guaranteed and address correction is requested. Any material sent by second or third-class mail which is returned with an address correction shall be sent again by first-class mail or personally delivered to the participant at his or her worksite. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 104(b)(4) of the Act, materials furnished upon written request shall be mailed to an address provided by the requesting participant or beneficiary or personally delivered to the participant or beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of section 104(b)(2) of the Act, where certain documents are required to be made available for examination by participants and beneficiaries in the principal office of the plan administrator and in such other places as may be necessary to make available all pertinent information to all participants and beneficiaries, disclosure shall be made pursuant to the provisions of this paragraph. Such documents must be current, readily accessible, and clearly identified, and copies must be available in sufficient number to accommodate the expected volume of inquiries. Plan administrators shall make copies of the latest annual report, and the bargaining agreement, trust agreement, contract, or other instruments under which the plan is established or operated available at all times in their principal offices. They are not required to maintain these plan documents at all times at each employer establishment or union hall or office as described in paragraphs (b)(3)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section, but the documents must be made available at any such location within ten calendar days following the day on which a request for disclosure at that location is made. Plan administrators shall make plan documents available at the appropriate employer establishment or union meeting hall or office within the required ten day period when a request is made directly to the plan administrator or through a procedure establishing reasonable rules governing the making of requests for examination of plan documents. If a plan administrator prescribes such a procedure and communicates it to plan participants and beneficiaries, a plan administrator will not be required to comply with a request made in a manner which does not conform to the established procedure. In order to comply with the requirements of this section, a procedure for making requests to examine plan documents must permit requests to be made in a reasonably convenient manner both directly to the plan administrator and at each employer establishment, or union meeting hall or office where documents must be made available in accordance with this paragraph. If no such reasonable procedure is established, a good faith effort by a participant or beneficiary to request examination of plan documents will be deemed a request to the plan administrator for purposes of this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a plan not maintained according to a collective bargaining agreement, including a plan maintained by a single employer with more than one establishment, a multiple employer plan, and a plan maintained by a controlled group of corporations (within the meaning of section 1563(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (the Code)), determined without regard to section 1563(a)(4) and (e)(3)(C) of the Code), documents shall be made available for examination in the principal office of the employer and at each employer establishment in which at least 50 participants covered under a plan are customarily working. “Establishment” means a single physical location where business is conducted or where services or industrial operations are performed. Where employees are engaged in activities which are physically dispersed, such as agriculture, construction, transportation and communications, the “establishment” shall be the place to which employees report each day. When employees do not usually work at, or report to, a single establishment—for example, traveling salesmen, technicians, and engineers—the establishment shall be the location from which the employees customarily carry out their activities—for example the field office of an engineering firm servicing at least 50 participants covered under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a plan maintained solely by an employee organization, the plan administrator shall take measures to ensure that documents are available for examination at the meeting hall or office of each union local in which there are at least 50 participants covered under the plan. Such measures shall include distributing copies of the documents to each union local in which there are at least 50 participants covered under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a plan maintained according to a collective bargaining agreement, including a collectively bargained single employer plan with more than one establishment, a collectively bargained multiple employer plan, and a multiemployer plan which meets the definition of section 3(37) of the Act, § 2510.3-37 of this chapter, and section 414(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 and 26 CFR 1.414(f) (40 FR 43034), documents shall be made available for examination in the principal office of the employee organization and at each employer establishment in which at least 50 participants covered under the plan are customarily working. In employment situations where employees do not usually work at, or report to, a single establishment, the plan administrator shall take measures to ensure that plan documents are available for examination at the meeting hall or office of each union local in which there are at least 50 participants covered under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure through electronic media.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided by applicable law, rule or regulation, including the alternative methods for disclosure through electronic media in paragraph (f) of this section, the administrator of an employee benefit plan furnishing documents through electronic media is deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section with respect to an individual described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The administrator takes appropriate and necessary measures reasonably calculated to ensure that the system for furnishing documents—
</P>
<P>(A) Results in actual receipt of transmitted information (e.g., using return-receipt or notice of undelivered electronic mail features, conducting periodic reviews or surveys to confirm receipt of the transmitted information); and 
</P>
<P>(B) Protects the confidentiality of personal information relating to the individual's accounts and benefits (e.g., incorporating into the system measures designed to preclude unauthorized receipt of or access to such information by individuals other than the individual for whom the information is intended); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The electronically delivered documents are prepared and furnished in a manner that is consistent with the style, format and content requirements applicable to the particular document; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Notice is provided to each participant, beneficiary or other individual, in electronic or non-electronic form, at the time a document is furnished electronically, that apprises the individual of the significance of the document when it is not otherwise reasonably evident as transmitted (e.g., the attached document describes changes in the benefits provided by your plan) and of the right to request and obtain a paper version of such document; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon request, the participant, beneficiary or other individual is furnished a paper version of the electronically furnished documents. 
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (c)(1) shall only apply with respect to the following individuals: 
</P>
<P>(i) A participant who—
</P>
<P>(A) Has the ability to effectively access documents furnished in electronic form at any location where the participant is reasonably expected to perform his or her duties as an employee; and 
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to whom access to the employer's or plan sponsor's electronic information system is an integral part of those duties; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A participant, beneficiary or any other person entitled to documents under Title I of the Act or regulations issued thereunder (including, but not limited to, an “alternate payee” within the meaning of section 206(d)(3) of the Act and a “qualified beneficiary” within the meaning of section 607(3) of the Act) who—
</P>
<P>(A) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, has affirmatively consented, in electronic or non-electronic form, to receiving documents through electronic media and has not withdrawn such consent;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of documents to be furnished through the Internet or other electronic communication network, has affirmatively consented or confirmed consent electronically, in a manner that reasonably demonstrates the individual's ability to access information in the electronic form that will be used to provide the information that is the subject of the consent, and has provided an address for the receipt of electronically furnished documents; 
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to consenting, is provided, in electronic or non-electronic form, a clear and conspicuous statement indicating: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The types of documents to which the consent would apply; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That consent can be withdrawn at any time without charge; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The procedures for withdrawing consent and for updating the participant's, beneficiary's or other individual's address for receipt of electronically furnished documents or other information; 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The right to request and obtain a paper version of an electronically furnished document, including whether the paper version will be provided free of charge; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Any hardware and software requirements for accessing and retaining the documents; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Following consent, if a change in hardware or software requirements needed to access or retain electronic documents creates a material risk that the individual will be unable to access or retain electronically furnished documents: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is provided with a statement of the revised hardware or software requirements for access to and retention of electronically furnished documents; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is given the right to withdraw consent without charge and without the imposition of any condition or consequence that was not disclosed at the time of the initial consent; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Again consents, in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) or paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, as applicable, to the receipt of documents through electronic media. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Participant and beneficiary status for purposes of section 101(a) and 104(b)(1) of the Act and subpart F of this part.</I> See §§ 2510.3-3(d)(1), 2510.3-3(d)(2) and 2520.3-3(d)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations.</I> This section does not apply to disclosures required under provisions of part 2 and part 3 of the Act over which the Secretary of the Treasury has interpretative and regulatory authority pursuant to Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Alternative disclosure through electronic media.</I> As an alternative to electronic media disclosure obligations in paragraph (c) of this section, the administrator of an employee benefit plan is deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, provided that the administrator complies with the obligations in 29 CFR 2520.104b-31.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0039)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37186, July 19, 1977, as amended at 62 FR 16985, Apr. 8, 1997; 62 FR 36205, July 7, 1997; 67 FR 777, Jan. 7, 2002; 67 FR 17275, Apr. 9, 2002; 85 FR 31922, May 27, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104b-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104b-2   Summary plan description.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obligation to furnish.</I> Under the authority of sections 104(b)(1) and 104(c) of the Act, the plan administrator of an employee benefit plan subject to the provisions of part 1 of title I shall furnish a copy of the summary plan description and a statement of ERISA rights as provided in § 2520.102-3(t), to each participant covered under the plan (as defined in § 2510.3-3(d)), and each beneficiary receiving benefits under a pension plan on or before the later of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The date which is 90 days after the employee becomes a participant, or (in the case of a beneficiary receiving benefits under a pension plan) within 90 days after he or she first receives benefits, except as provided in § 2520.104b-4(a), or, 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 120 days after the plan becomes subject to part 1 of title I. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A plan becomes subject to part 1 of title I on the first day on which an employee is credited with an hour of service under § 2530.200b-2 or § 2530.200b-3. Where a plan is made prospectively effective to take effect after a certain date or after a condition is satisfied, the day upon which the plan becomes subject to part 1 of title I is the day after such date or condition is satisfied. Where a plan is adopted with a retroactive effective date, the 120 day period begins on the day after the plan is adopted. Where a plan is made retroactively effective dependent on a condition, the day on which the plan becomes subject to part 1 of title I is the day after the day on which the condition is satisfied. Where a plan is made retroactively effective subject to a contingency which may or may not occur in the future, the day on which the plan becomes subject to part 1, title I is the day after the day on which the contingency occurs. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples:</I> Company A is negotiating the purchase of Company B. On September 1, 1978, as part of the negotiations, Company A adopts a pension plan covering the employees of Company B, contingent on the successful conclusion of its negotiations to purchase Company B. The plan provides that it shall take effect on the first day of the calendar year in which the purchase is concluded. On February 1, 1979, the negotiations conclude with Company A's purchase of Company B. The plan therefore becomes effective on February 1, 1979, retroactive to January 1, 1979. The summary plan description must be filed and disclosed no later than 120 days after February 1, 1979. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Periods for furnishing updated summary plan description.</I> (1) For purposes of the requirement to furnish the updated summary plan description to each participant and each beneficiary receiving benefits under the plan (other than beneficiaries receiving benefits under a welfare plan) required by section 104(b)(1) of the Act, the administrator of an employee benefit plan shall furnish such updated summary plan description no later than 210 days following the end of the plan year which occurs five years after the last date a change in the information required to be disclosed by section 102 or 29 CFR 2520.102-3 would have been reflected in the most recently distributed summary plan description (or updated summary plan description) as described in section 102 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a plan to which no amendments have been made between the end of the time period covered by the last distributed summary plan description (or updated summary plan description), described in section 102 of the Act, and the next occurring applicable date described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, for purposes of the requirement to furnish the updated summary plan description to each participant, and to each beneficiary receiving benefits under the plan (other than beneficiaries receiving benefits under a welfare plan), required by section 104(b)(1) of the Act, the administrator of an employee benefit plan shall furnish such updated summary plan description no later than 210 days following the end of the plan year which occurs ten years after the last date a change in the information required to be disclosed by section 102 or 29 CFR 2520.102-3 would have been reflected in the most recently distributed summary plan description (or updated summary plan description), as described in section 102 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c)-(f) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Terminated plans.</I> (1) If, on or before the date by which a plan is required to furnish a summary plan description or updated summary plan description to participants and pension plan beneficiaries under this section, the plan has terminated within the meaning of paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the administrator of such plan is not required to furnish to participants covered under the plan or to beneficiaries receiving benefits under the plan a summary plan description.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a plan shall be considered terminated if: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an employee pension benefit plan, all distributions to participants and beneficiaries have been completed; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an employee welfare benefit plan, no claims can be incurred which will result in a liability of the plan to pay benefits. A claim is incurred upon the occurrence of the event or condition from which the claim arises (whether or not discovered). 
</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Style and format of the summary plan description.</I> See § 2520.102-2. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Contents of the summary plan description.</I> See § 2520.102-3. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Option for different summary plan descriptions.</I> See § 2520.102-4; § 2520.104-26; and § 2520.104-27. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Employee benefit plan—participant covered under a plan.</I> See § 2510.3-3(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37187, July 19, 1977, as amended at 45 FR 14032, Mar. 4, 1980; 48 FR 1714, Jan. 14, 1983; 61 FR 33849, 33850, July 1, 1996; 67 FR 777, Jan. 7, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104b-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104b-3   Summary of material modifications to the plan and changes in the information required to be included in the summary plan description.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrator of an employee benefit plan subject to the provisions of part 1 of title I of the Act shall, in accordance with § 2520.104b-1(b), furnish a summary description of any material modification to the plan and any change in the information required by section 102(b) of the Act and § 2520.102-3 of these regulations to be included in the summary plan description to each participant covered under the plan and each beneficiary receiving benefits under the plan. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the plan administrator shall furnish this summary, written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant, not later than 210 days after the close of the plan year in which the modification or change was adopted. This disclosure date is not affected by retroactive application to a prior plan year of an amendment which makes a material modification to the plan; a modification does not occur before it is adopted. For example, a calendar year plan adopts a modification in April, 1978. The modification, by its terms, applies retroactively to the 1977 plan year. A summary description of the material modification is furnished on or before July 29, 1979. A plan which adopts an amendment which makes a material modification to the plan which takes effect on a date in the future must disclose a summary of that modification within 210 days after the close of the plan year in which the modification or change is adopted. Under the authority of sections 104(a)(3) and 110 of the Act, a summary description of a material modification or change is not required to be disclosed if it is rescinded or otherwise does not take effect. For example, a calendar year plan adopts a modification in June, 1978. The modification, by its terms, becomes effective beginning in plan year 1979. Before the beginning of plan year 1979, the prospective modification is withdrawn. No summary of the material modification is required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(b) The summary of material modifications to the plan or changes in information required to be included in the summary plan description need not be furnished separately if the changes or modifications are described in a timely summary plan description. For example, a calendar year plan adopts a material modification on June 3, 1976. The modification is incorporated in a summary plan description furnished on July 15, 1977. No separate summary of the material modification is furnished. The plan adopts another material modification September 15, 1977. A separate summary of the modification is furnished on or before July 29, 1978. 
</P>
<P>(c) The copy of the summary plan description furnished in accordance with §§ 2520.104b-2(a)(1)(i) and 2520.104b-4 shall be acompanied by all summaries of material modifications or changes in information required to be included in the summary plan description which have not been incorporated into that summary plan description. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for group health plans</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the administrator of a group health plan, as defined in section 733(a)(1) of the Act, shall furnish to each participant covered under the plan a summary, written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant, of any modification to the plan or change in the information required to be included in the summary plan description, within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section, that is a material reduction in covered services or benefits not later than 60 days after the date of adoption of the modification or change. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>90-day alternative rule.</I> The administrator of a group health plan shall not be required to furnish a summary of any material reduction in covered services or benefits within the 60-day period described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to any participant covered under the plan who would reasonably be expected to be furnished such summary in connection with a system of communication maintained by the plan sponsor or administrator, with respect to which plan participants are provided information concerning their plan, including modifications and changes thereto, at regular intervals of not more than 90 days and such communication otherwise meets the disclosure requirements of 29 CFR 2520.104b-1. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>“Material reduction”.</I> (i) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a “material reduction in covered services or benefits” means any modification to the plan or change in the information required to be included in the summary plan description that, independently or in conjunction with other contemporaneous modifications or changes, would be considered by the average plan participant to be an important reduction in covered services or benefits under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A “reduction in covered services or benefits” generally would include any plan modification or change that: eliminates benefits payable under the plan; reduces benefits payable under the plan, including a reduction that occurs as a result of a change in formulas, methodologies or schedules that serve as the basis for making benefit determinations; increases premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, or other amounts to be paid by a participant or beneficiary; reduces the service area covered by a health maintenance organization; establishes new conditions or requirements (e.g., preauthorization requirements) to obtaining services or benefits under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> Paragraph (d) of this section is applicable as of the first day of the first plan year beginning after June 30, 1997.
</P>
<P>(f)-(g) [Reserved]
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0039)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 37188, July 19, 1977, as amended at 62 FR 16985, Apr. 8, 1997; 62 FR 36205, July 7, 1997; 65 FR 70243, Nov. 21, 2000; 66 FR 34994, July 2, 2001; 67 FR 777, Jan. 7, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104b-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104b-4   Alternative methods of compliance for furnishing the summary plan description and summaries of material modifications of a pension plan to a retired participant, a separated participant with vested benefits, and a beneficiary receiving benefits.</HEAD>
<P>Under the authority of section 110 of the Act, in the case of an employee pension benefit plan—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Summary plan descriptions.</I> A plan administrator will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of section 104(b)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104b-2(a) to furnish a copy of the initial summary plan description to a retired participant, a beneficiary receiving benefits, or a separated participant with vested benefits (“vested separated participant”) if, no earlier than the date stated in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a retired participant or a beneficiary receiving benefits, a document is furnished which—
</P>
<P>(i) Meets the requirements of §§ 2520.102-2 and 2520.102-3 except paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(4), (j), (k), (l), (n), (o) and (p); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains a statement that the benefit payment presently being received by the retired participant or beneficiary receiving benefits will continue in the same amount and for the period provided in the mode of settlement selected at retirement, and will not be changed except as described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains a statement describing any plan provision under which the present benefit payment may be reduced, changed, terminated, forfeited or suspended; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a vested separated participant, a document is furnished which—
</P>
<P>(i) Meets the requirements of §§ 2520.102-2 and 2520.102-3 except paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(4), (j), (l), (n), (o), (p) and (r); 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) If at or after separation, a separated vested participant was furnished a statement of the dollar amount of the vested benefit or the method of computation of the benefit, includes a statement that the dollar amount of the vested benefit was previously furnished and that a copy of the previously furnished statement of the dollar amount of such vested benefit or method of computation of the benefit may be obtained from the plan upon request; 
</P>
<P>(B) If the vested separated participant was not furnished a statement of the dollar amount of the vested benefit or the method of computation of the benefit, the plan furnishes either a statement of the dollar amount of the vested benefit, or a statement of the formula used to determine the dollar amount of the vested benefit; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes a statement of the form in which the benefits will be paid and duration of the payment period or a description of the optional modes of payment available under the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Includes a statement describing any plan provision under which a benefit may be reduced, changed, terminated, forfeited or suspended; or 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Such retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary receiving benefits was furnished with a copy of a document which—
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfies the requirements of section 102(a)(1) of the Act and § 2520.102-2 (relating to the style and format of the summary plan description) and § 2520.102-3 (relating to the content of the summary plan description); 
</P>
<P>(B) Describes the rights and obligations under the plan of such retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary receiving benefits as of the date stated in subparagraph (4); 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a person who retired, became a beneficiary, or separated with vested benefits before November 16, 1977, a document will be deemed to comply with the requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section if the document omitted only information described in one or more of the provisions of § 2520.102-3 listed below, provided that a supplement containing such information, which meets the requirements of § 2520.102-2, is furnished to the retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary receiving benefits by November 16, 1977. 
</P>
<P>(A) Employer identification number (EIN), as required by § 2520.102-3(c); 
</P>
<P>(B) Type of administration, as required by § 2520.102-3(e); 
</P>
<P>(C) Name of agent for service of legal process, as required by § 2520.102-3(g); 
</P>
<P>(D) Names and addresses of trustees, as required by § 2520.102-3(h); 
</P>
<P>(E) Statement regarding plan termination insurance as required by § 2520.102-3(m); 
</P>
<P>(F) Date of the end of the fiscal year, as required by § 2520.102-3(r); or 
</P>
<P>(G) Statement of ERISA rights, as required by § 2520.102-3(t). 
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph the dates are: For a vested separated participant, the date of separation; for a beneficiary, the date on which payment of benefits commences; and for a retired participant, the date of retirement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Updated summary plan descriptions.</I> A copy of an updated summary plan description need not be furnished as prescribed in section 104(b)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104b-2(b) to a retired participant, vested separated participant, or a beneficiary receiving benefits if—
</P>
<P>(1)(i) On or after the date stated in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary is furnished with a copy of the most recent summary plan description and a copy of any summaries of material modifications not incorporated in such summary plan description; 
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section the dates are: for a retired participant, the date of retirement; for a vested separated participant, the date of separation; and for a beneficiary, the date on which payment of benefits commences; 
</P>
<P>(2) No latter than the date on which an updated summary plan description is furnished to participants and beneficiaries as prescribed by section 104(b)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104b-2(b), a retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary receiving benefits is furnished a notice containing the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the benefit rights of such retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary receiving benefits are set forth in the earlier summary plan description and any subsequently furnished summaries of material modifications (<I>see</I> paragraph (c)), and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that such retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary receiving benefits may obtain a copy of the earlier summary plan description and summaries of material modifications described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, and the updated summary plan description, without charge, upon request, from the plan administrator; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The plan administrator furnishes a copy of the documents described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section to such retired participant, vested separated participant or beneficiary, without charge, upon request. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Summary of material modifications or changes.</I> A summary description of a material modification to the plan or a change in the information required to be included in the summary plan description need not be furnished to a retired participant, a vested separated participant or a beneficiary receiving benefits under the plan, within the time prescribed in section 104(b)(1) of the Act and § 2520.104b-3 for furnishing summary descriptions of such modifications and changes, if the material modification or change in no way affects such retired participant's, vested separated participant's, or beneficiary's rights under the plan. For example, a change in trustees is information which such a person may need to know in order to make inquiries about his or her rights expeditiously, and hence must be furnished. On the other hand, a modification in benefits under the plan to which such retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary had not at any time been entitled (and would not in the future be entitled) would not affect his or her rights and hence need not be furnished. If such retired participant, vested separated participant, or beneficiary requests a copy of a summary description of a material modification or a change which was not furnished, the plan administrator shall furnish the copy, without charge. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14032, Mar. 4, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 33850, July 1, 1996] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104b-10" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104b-10   Summary Annual Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obligation to furnish.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (g) of this section, the administrator of any employee benefit plan shall furnish annually to each participant of such plan and to each beneficiary receiving benefits under such plan (other than beneficiaries under a welfare plan) a summary annual report conforming to the requirements of this section. Such furnishing of the summary annual report shall take place in accordance with the requirements of § 2520.104b-1 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to furnish.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), the summary annual report required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be furnished within nine months after the close of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a welfare plan described in § 2520.104-43 of this part, such furnishing shall take place within 9 months after the close of the fiscal year of the trust or other entity which files the annual report under § 2520.104a-6 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) When an extension of time in which to file an annual report has been granted by the Internal Revenue Service, such furnishing shall take place within 2 months after the close of the period for which the extension was granted. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents, style and format.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d), the summary annual report furnished to participants and beneficiaries of an employee pension benefit plan pursuant to this section shall consist of a completed copy of the form prescribed in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, and the summary annual report furnished to participants and beneficiaries of an employee welfare benefit plan pursuant to this section shall consist of a completed copy of the form prescribed in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. The information used to complete the form shall be based upon information contained in the most recent annual report of the plan which is required to be filed in accordance with section 104(a)(1) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(1) Any portion of the forms set forth in this paragraph (d) which is not applicable to the plan to which the summary annual report relates, or which would require information which is not required to be reported on the annual report of that plan, may be omitted. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the plan administrator determines that additional explanation of any information furnished pursuant to this paragraph (d) is necessary to fairly summarize the annual report, such explanation shall be set forth following the completed form required by this paragraph (d) and shall be headed, “Additional Explanation.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form for Summary Annual Report Relating to Pension Plans.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Summary Annual Report for (Name of Plan)
</HD1>
<FP>This is a summary of the annual report [insert as applicable either Form 5500 Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan or Form 5500-SF Annual Return/Report of Small Employee Benefit Plan] of [insert name of plan and EIN/PN] for [insert period covered by this report]. The [insert as applicable either Form 5500 or Form 5500-SF] annual report has been filed with the Employee Benefits Security Administration, as required under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA). Your plan is a [insert a brief description of the plan based on the plan characteristic codes listed for the plan on the Form 5500, including whether it is a defined contribution or defined benefit plan, and whether the plan is a pooled employer plan, another type of multiple-employer plan or a single-employer plan].
</FP>
<FP>[If the plan is participating in a DCG reporting arrangement]:
</FP>
<FP>Your plan participates in an annual reporting arrangement that files a consolidated Form 5500 Annual Report for all the separate plans in the arrangement. This summary includes aggregate information on all the participating plans from the consolidated Form 5500. The consolidated Form 5500 also includes a separate schedule (Schedule DCG) that provides specific plan level information for each individual plan, as well as an accountant's report regarding your individual plan, unless the plan is eligible for a small plan audit waiver under Department of Labor regulations. As noted below regarding your rights to additional information, you have a right to receive a copy of the Schedule DCG relating to your plan on request from the plan administrator.






</FP>
<HD2>Basic Financial Statement 
</HD2>
<FP>Benefits under the plan are provided by (indicate funding arrangements). Plan expenses were ($  ). These expenses included ($  ) in administrative expenses and ($  ) in benefits paid to participants and beneficiaries, and ($  ) in other expenses. A total of (  ) persons were participants in or beneficiaries of the plan at the end of the plan year, although not all of these persons had yet earned the right to receive benefits.
</FP>
<FP>[If the plan is funded other than solely by allocated insurance contracts:]
</FP>
<P>The value of plan assets, after subtracting liabilities of the plan, was ($  ) as of (the end of the plan year), compared to ($  ) as of (the beginning of the plan year). During the plan year the plan experienced an (increase) (decrease) in its net assets of ($  ) This (increase) (decrease) includes unrealized appreciation or depreciation in the value of plan assets; that is, the difference between the value of the plan's assets at the end of the year and the value of the assets at the beginning of the year or the cost of assets acquired during the year. The plan had total income of ($  ), including employer contributions of ($  ), employee contributions of ($  ), (gains) (losses) of ($  ), from the sale of assets, and earnings from investments of ($  ).
</P>
<FP>[If any funds are used to purchase allocated insurance contracts:] 
</FP>
<FP-1>  The plan has (a) contract(s) with (name of insurance carrier(s)) which allocate(s) funds toward (state whether individual policies, group deferred annuities or other). The total premiums paid for the plan year ending (date) were ($  ). 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Minimum Funding Standards 
</HD2>
<FP>[If the plan is a defined benefit plan:] 
</FP>
<FP-1>  An actuary's statement shows that (enough money was contributed to the plan to keep it funded in accordance with the minimum funding standards of ERISA) (not enough money was contributed to the plan to keep it funded in accordance with the minimum funding standards of ERISA. The amount of the deficit was $  ). 
</FP-1>
<FP>[If the plan is a defined contribution plan covered by funding requirements:] 
</FP>
<FP-1>  (Enough money was contributed to the plan to keep it funded in accordance with the minimum funding standards of ERISA) (Not enough money was contributed to the plan to keep it funded in accordance with the minimum funding standards of ERISA. The amount of the deficit was $  ).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD2>Your Rights to Additional Information 
</HD2>
<FP>You have the right to receive a copy of the full annual report, or any part thereof, on request. The items listed below are included in that report: [<I>Note</I>—list only those items which are actually included in the latest annual report] 
</FP>
<P>1. an accountant's report;
</P>
<P>2. financial information and information on payments to service providers; 
</P>
<P>3. assets held for investment;
</P>
<P>4. fiduciary information, including non-exempt transactions between the plan and parties-in-interest (that is, persons who have certain relationships with the plan); 
</P>
<P>5. loans or other obligations in default or classified as uncollectible; 
</P>
<P>6. leases in default or classified as uncollectible; 
</P>
<P>7. transactions in excess of 5 percent of the plan assets; 
</P>
<P>8. insurance information including sales commissions paid by insurance carriers; 
</P>
<P>9. information regarding any common or collective trusts, pooled separate accounts, master trusts or 103-12 investment entities in which the plan participates, and 
</P>
<P>10. actuarial information regarding the funding of the plan. 
</P>
<P>11. a Schedule DCG for plans participating in a consolidated group Form 5500 filing that includes your plan sponsor's name, EIN, plan administrator's name, EIN and telephone number, total number of participants in your plan, and basic financial information about the plan.)
</P>
<P>12. a Schedule MEP, including name and EIN of the employers participating in the MEP, each participating employer's percentage of the total contributions (employer and employee) made by all employers participating in the MEP and, for defined contribution pension plans only, the aggregate account balance for each of the employers participating in the MEP.)
</P>
<FP>To obtain a copy of the full annual report, or any part thereof, write or call the office of (name), who is (state title: e.g., the plan administrator), (business address and telephone number). The charge to cover copying costs will be ($  ) for the full annual report, or 
</FP>
<FP>($  ) per page for any part thereof.</FP></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>You also have the right to receive from the plan administrator, on request and at no charge, a statement of the assets and liabilities of the plan and accompanying notes, or a statement of income and expenses of the plan and accompanying notes, or both. If you request a copy of the full annual report from the plan administrator, these two statements and accompanying notes will be included as part of that report. The charge to cover copying costs given above does not include a charge for the copying of these portions of the report because these portions are furnished without charge. 
</P>
<P>You also have the legally protected right to examine the annual report at the main office of the plan (  address  ), (at any other location where the report is available for examination), and at the U.S. Department of Labor in Washington, DC, or to obtain a copy from the U.S. Department of Labor upon payment of copying costs. Requests to the Department should be addressed to: Public Disclosure Room, Room N-1513, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210. The annual report is also available online at the Department of Labor website <I>www.efast.dol.gov.</I>
</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Form for Summary Annual Report Relating to Welfare Plans.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Summary Annual Report for (name of plan) 
</HD1>
<FP>This is a summary of the annual report of the (name of plan, EIN and type of welfare plan) for (period covered by this report). The annual report has been filed with the Employee Benefits Security Administration, as required under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA). 
</FP>
<FP>[If any benefits under the plan are provided on an uninsured basis:] 
</FP>
<FP>(Name of sponsor) has committed itself to pay (all, certain) (state type of) claims incurred under the terms of the plan.
</FP>
<FP>[If any of the funds are used to purchase insurance contracts:] 
</FP>
<HD2>Insurance Information 
</HD2>
<P>The plan has (a) contract(s) with (name of insurance carrier(s)) to pay (all, certain) (state type of) claims incurred under the terms of the plan. The total premiums paid for the plan year ending (date) were ($__________). 
</P>
<FP>[If applicable add:]
</FP>
<P>Because (it is a) (they are) so called “experience-rated” contract(s), the premium costs are affected by, among other things, the number and size of claims. Of the total insurance premiums paid for the plan year ending (date), the premiums paid under such “experience-rated” contract(s) were ($  ) and the total of all benefit claims paid under the(se) experience-rated contract(s) during the plan year was ($  ).
</P>
<FP>[If any funds of the plan are held in trust or in a separately maintained fund:] 
</FP>
<HD2>Basic financial statement 
</HD2>
<P>The value of plan assets, after subtracting liabilities of the plan, was ($  ) as of (the end of plan year), compared to ($  ) as of (the beginning of the plan year). During the plan year the plan experienced an (increase) (decrease) in its net assets of 
</P>
<FP>($  ). This (increase) (decrease) includes unrealized appreciation and depreciation in the value of plan assets; that is, the difference between the value of the plan's assets at the end of the year and the value of the assets at the beginning of the year or the cost of assets acquired during the year. During the plan year, the plan had total income of ($  ) including employer contributions of ($  ), employee contributions of ($  ), realized (gains) (losses) of ($  ) from the sale of assets, and earnings from investments of ($  ). Plan expenses were ($  ). These expenses included ($  ) in administrative expenses, ($  ) in benefits paid to participants and beneficiaries, and ($  ) in other expenses.</FP></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD2>Your Rights to Additional Information 
</HD2>
<FP>You have the right to receive a copy of the full annual report, or any part thereof, on request. The items listed below are included in that report: [Note—list only those items which are actually included in the latest annual report]. 
</FP>
<P>1. an accountant's report; 
</P>
<P>2. financial information and information on payments to service providers; 
</P>
<P>3. assets held for investment; 
</P>
<P>4. fiduciary information, including non-exempt transactions between the plan and parties-in-interest (that is, persons who have certain relationships with the plan); 
</P>
<P>5. loans or other obligations in default or classified as uncollectible; 
</P>
<P>6. leases in default or classified as uncollectible; 
</P>
<P>7. transactions in excess of 5 percent of the plan assets; 
</P>
<P>8. insurance information including sales commissions paid by insurance carriers; and 
</P>
<P>9. information regarding any common or collective trusts, pooled separate accounts, master trusts or 103-12 investment entities in which the plan participates.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>To obtain a copy of the full annual report, or any part thereof, write or call the office of (name), who is (state title: e.g., the plan administrator), (business address and telephone number). The charge to cover copying costs will be ($  ) for the full annual report, or ($  ) per page for any part thereof.</FP></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<P> 
</P>
<P>You also have the right to receive from the plan administrator, on request and at no charge, a statement of the assets and liabilities of the plan and accompanying notes, or a statement of income and expenses of the plan and accompanying notes, or both. If you request a copy of the full annual report from the plan administrator, these two statements and accompanying notes will be included as part of that report. The charge to cover copying costs given above does not include a charge for the copying of these portions of the report because these portions are furnished without charge. 
</P>
<P>You also have the legally protected right to examine the annual report at the main office of the plan (address), (at any other location where the report is available for examination), and at the U.S. Department of Labor in Washington, D.C. or to obtain a copy from the U.S. Department of Labor upon payment of copying costs. Requests to the Department should be addressed to: Public Disclosure Room, Room N-1513, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20210.</P></EXTRACT>
<P> 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign languages.</I> In the case of either—
</P>
<P>(1) A plan which covers fewer than 100 participants at the beginning of a plan year in which 25 percent or more of all plan participants are literate only in the same non-English language; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A plan which covers 100 or more participants in which 500 or more participants or 10 percent or more of all plan participants, whichever is less, are literate only in the same non-English language—
</P>
<FP>The plan administrator for such plan shall provide these participants with an English-language summary annual report which prominently displays a notice, in the non-English language common to these participants, offering them assistance. The assistance provided need not involve written materials, but shall be given in the non-English language common to these participants. The notice offering assistance shall clearly set forth any procedures participants must follow to obtain such assistance.
</FP>
<P>(f) <I>Furnishing of additional documents to participants and beneficiaries.</I> A plan administrator shall promptly comply with any request by a participant or beneficiary for additional documents made in accordance with the procedures or rights described in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a summary annual report is not required to be furnished with respect to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A totally unfunded welfare plan described in 29 CFR 2520.104-44(b)(1)(i);
</P>
<P>(2) A welfare plan which meets the requirements of 29 CFR 2520.104-20(b); 
</P>
<P>(3) An apprenticeship or other training plan which meets the requirements of 29 CFR 2520.104-22; 
</P>
<P>(4) A pension plan for selected employees which meets the requirements of 29 CFR 2520.104-23; 
</P>
<P>(5) A welfare plan for selected employees which meets the requirements of 29 CFR 2520.104-24; 
</P>
<P>(6) A day care center referred to in 29 CFR 2520.104-25; 
</P>
<P>(7) A dues financed welfare plan which meets the requirements of 29 CFR 2520.104-26;
</P>
<P>(8) A dues financed pension plan which meets the requirements of 29 CFR 2520.104-27; and
</P>
<P>(9) A plan to which title IV of the Act applies.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 2520.104<E T="01">b</E>-10—The Summary Annual Report (SAR) Under ERISA: A Cross-Reference to the Annual Report
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SAR item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form 5500 large plan
<br/>filer line items
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form 5500 small plan
<br/>filer line items
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form 5500-SF filer line items
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A. Pension Plan:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1. Funding arrangement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Form 5500-9a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2. Total plan expenses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2j</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2j</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8h.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3. Administrative expenses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2i(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4. Benefits paid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2e(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8d.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">5. Other expenses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H—Subtract the sum of 2e(4) &amp; 2i(5) from 2j</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2i</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8g.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">6. Total participants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Form 5500-6f</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 5b.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">7. Value of plan assets (net):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">a. End of plan year</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-1l [Col. (b)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-1c [Col. (b)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 7c [Col. (b)].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">b. Beginning of plan year</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-1l [Col. (a)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-1c [Col. (a)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 7c [Col. (a)].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8. Change in net assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H—Subtract 1l [Col. (a)] from 1l [Col. (b)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I—Subtract 1c [Col. (a) from Col. (b)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 7c—Subtract Col. (a) from Col. (b).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">9. Total income</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8c.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">a. Employer contributions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2a(1)(A) &amp; 2a(2) if applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2a(1) &amp; 2b if applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8a(1) if applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">b. Employee contributions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2a(1)(B) &amp; 2a(2) if applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2a(2) &amp; 2b if applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8a(2) &amp; 8a(3) if applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">c. Participating employer's percentage of the total contributions (employer and employee) made by all employers participating in a MEP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. MEP Line 2c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. MEP Line 2c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">d. Aggregate account balance of the employer participating in a defined contribution MEP (determined as the sum of the account balances of the employees of such employer (including the beneficiaries of such employees)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. MEP Line 2d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. MEP Line 2d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">e. Gains (losses) from sale of assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2b(4)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">f. Earnings from investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H—Subtract the sum of 2a(3), 2b(4)(C) and 2c from 2d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8b.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">11. Total insurance premiums</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total of all Schs. A-6b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total of all Schs. A-6b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">12. Unpaid minimum required contribution (S-E plans) or Funding deficiency (ME plans):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">a. S-E Defined benefit plans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. SB-39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">b. ME Defined benefit plans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. MB-10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">c. Defined contribution plans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. R-6c, if more than zero</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 12d.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">13. Individual plan information for plans participating in a DCG reporting arrangement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Schedule DCG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B. Welfare Plan:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1. Name of insurance carrier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Schs. A-1(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2. Total (experience rated and non-experienced rated) insurance premiums</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Schs. A—Sum of 9a(1) and 10a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3. Experience rated premiums</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Schs. A-9a(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4. Experience rated claims</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Schs. A-9b(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">5. Value of plan assets (net):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">a. End of plan year</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-1l [Col. (b)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-1c [Col. (b)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 7c [Col. (b)].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">b. Beginning of plan year</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-1l [Col. (a)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-1c [Col. (a)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 7c [Col. (a)].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">6. Change in net assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H—Subtract 1l [Col. (a)] from 1l [Col. (b)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I—Subtract 1c [Col. (a)] from 1c [Col. (b)]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 7c—Subtract [Col. (a)] from 7c [Col. (b)].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">7. Total income</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8c.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">a. Employer contributions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2a(1)(A) &amp; 2a(2) if applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2a(1) &amp; 2b if applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8a(1) if applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">b. Employee contributions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2a(1)(B) &amp; 2a(2) if applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2a(2) &amp; 2b if applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8a(2) if applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">c. Gains (losses) from sale of assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2b(4)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">d. Earnings from investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H—Subtract the sum of 2a(3), 2b(4)(C) and 2c from 2d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2c</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8b.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8. Total plan expenses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2j</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2j</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8h.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">9. Administrative expenses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2i(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8f.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">10. Benefits paid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H-2e(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2e</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8d.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">11. Other expenses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. H—Subtract the sum of 2e(4) &amp; 2i(5) from 2j</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sch. I-2i</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Line 8g.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 19403, Apr. 3, 1979, as amended at 44 FR 31640, June 1, 1979; 47 FR 31873, July 23, 1982; 54 FR 8629, Mar. 1, 1989; 65 FR 21085, Apr. 19, 2000; 65 FR 35568, June 5, 2000; 68 FR 16400, Apr. 3, 2003; 72 FR 64729, Nov. 16, 2007; 80 FR 5663, Feb. 2, 2015; 88 FR 11812, Feb. 24, 2023]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104b-30" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104b-30   Charges for documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> The plan administrator of an employee benefit plan may impose a reasonable charge to cover the cost of furnishing to participants and beneficiaries upon their written request as required under section 104(b)(4) of the Act, copies of the following information, statements or documents: The latest updated summary plan description, and the latest annual report, any terminal report, the bargaining agreement, trust agreement, contract, or other instruments under which the plan is established or operated. Except where explicitly permitted under the Act, no charge may be assessed for furnishing information, statements or documents as required by other provisions of the Act, which include, in part 1 of title I, sections 104(b)(1), (2), (3) and (c) and 105(a) and (c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reasonableness.</I> The charge assessed by the plan administrator to cover the costs of furnishing documents is reasonable if it is equal to the actual cost per page to the plan for the least expensive means of acceptable reproduction, but in no event may such charge exceed 25 cents per page. For example, if a plan printed a large number of pamphlets at $1.00 per 50-page pamphlet, the actual cost of reproduction for the entire pamphlet ($1.00) would be equal to 2 cents per page. If only one page of such a pamphlet were requested, the actual cost of providing that page from the printed copy would be $1.00, since the copy would no longer be complete. In such a case, the least expensive means of acceptable reproduction would be individually reproducing the page requested at a charge of no more than 25 cents. On the other hand, if six pages of the same plan document were requested and each page cost 20 cents to be reproduced, the actual cost of providing those pages would be $1.20. In such a case, if a printed copy is available, the least expensive means of acceptable reproduction would be to use pages from the printed copy at a charge of no more than $1.00. No other charge for furnishing documents, such as handling or postage charges, will be deemed reasonable. The plan administrator shall provide information to a plan participant or beneficiary, upon request, about the charge that would be made to provide a copy of material described in this paragraph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 16964, Apr. 23, 1976, as amended at 41 FR 37575, Sept. 7, 1976; 75 FR 9342, Mar. 2, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.104b-31" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.104b-31   Alternative method for disclosure through electronic media—Notice-and-access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Alternative method for disclosure through electronic media—Notice-and-access.</I> As an alternative to § 2520.104b-1(c), the administrator of an employee benefit plan satisfies the general furnishing obligation in § 2520.104b-1(b)(1) with respect to covered individuals and covered documents, provided that the administrator complies with the notice, access, and other requirements of paragraphs (b) through (k) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered individual.</I> For purposes of this section, a “covered individual” is a participant, beneficiary, or other individual entitled to covered documents and who—when he or she begins participating in the plan, as a condition of employment, or otherwise—provides the employer, plan sponsor, or administrator (or an appropriate designee of any of the foregoing) with an electronic address, such as an electronic mail (“email”) address or internet-connected mobile-computing-device (<I>e.g.,</I> “smartphone”) number, at which the covered individual may receive a written notice of internet availability, described in paragraph (d) of this section, or an email described in paragraph (k) of this section. Alternatively, if an electronic address is assigned by an employer to an employee for employment-related purposes that include but are not limited to the delivery of covered documents, the employee is treated as if he or she provided the electronic address.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered documents.</I> For purposes of this section, a “covered document” is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pension benefit plans.</I> In the case of an employee pension benefit plan, as defined in section 3(2) of the Act, any document or information that the administrator is required to furnish to participants and beneficiaries pursuant to Title I of the Act, except for any document or information that must be furnished only upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of internet availability</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The administrator must furnish to each covered individual a notice of internet availability for each covered document in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of notice of internet availability.</I> A notice of internet availability must be furnished at the time the covered document is made available on the website described in paragraph (e) of this section. However, if an administrator furnishes a combined notice of internet availability for more than one covered document, as permitted under paragraph (i) of this section, the requirements of this paragraph (d)(2) are treated as satisfied if the combined notice of internet availability is furnished each plan year, and, if the combined notice of internet availability was furnished in the prior plan year, no more than 14 months following the date the prior plan year's notice was furnished.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content of notice of internet availability.</I> (i) A notice of internet availability furnished pursuant to this section must contain the information set forth in paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(A) through (H) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A prominent statement—for example as a title, legend, or subject line—that reads: “Disclosure About Your Retirement Plan.”
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that reads: “Important information about your retirement plan is now available. Please review this information.”
</P>
<P>(C) An identification of the covered document by name (for example, a statement that reads: “your Quarterly Benefit Statement is now available”) and a brief description of the covered document if identification only by name would not reasonably convey the nature of the covered document.
</P>
<P>(D) The internet website address, or a hyperlink to such address, where the covered document is available. The website address or hyperlink must be sufficiently specific to provide ready access to the covered document and will satisfy this standard if it leads the covered individual either directly to the covered document or to a login page that provides, or immediately after a covered individual logs on provides, a prominent link to the covered document.
</P>
<P>(E) A statement of the right to request and obtain a paper version of the covered document, free of charge, and an explanation of how to exercise this right.
</P>
<P>(F) A statement of the right, free of charge, to opt out of electronic delivery and receive only paper versions of covered documents, and an explanation of how to exercise this right.
</P>
<P>(G) A cautionary statement that the covered document is not required to be available on the website for more than one year or, if later, after it is superseded by a subsequent version of the covered document.
</P>
<P>(H) A telephone number to contact the administrator or other designated representative of the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) A notice of internet availability furnished pursuant to this section may contain a statement as to whether action by the covered individual is invited or required in response to the covered document and how to take such action, or that no action is required, provided that such statement is not inaccurate or misleading.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form and manner of furnishing notice of internet availability.</I> A notice of internet availability must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be furnished electronically to the address referred to in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain only the content specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, except that the administrator may include pictures, logos, or similar design elements, so long as the design is not inaccurate or misleading and the required content is clear;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be furnished separately from any other documents or disclosures furnished to covered individuals, except as permitted under paragraph (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standards for internet website.</I> (1) The administrator must ensure the existence of an internet website at which a covered individual is able to access covered documents.
</P>
<P>(2) The administrator must take measures reasonably calculated to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered document is available on the website no later than the date on which the covered document must be furnished under the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered document remains available on the website at least until the date that is one year after the date the covered document is made available on the website pursuant to paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section or, if later, the date it is superseded by a subsequent version of the covered document;
</P>
<P>(iii) The covered document is presented on the website in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant;
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered document is presented on the website in a widely-available format or formats that are suitable to be both read online and printed clearly on paper;
</P>
<P>(v) The covered document can be searched electronically by numbers, letters, or words; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The covered document is presented on the website in a widely-available format or formats that allow the covered document to be permanently retained in an electronic format that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrator must take measures reasonably calculated to ensure that the website protects the confidentiality of personal information relating to any covered individual.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this section, the term <I>website</I> means an internet website, or other internet or electronic-based information repository, such as a mobile application, to which covered individuals have been provided reasonable access.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Right to copies of paper documents or to opt out of electronic delivery.</I> (1) Upon request from a covered individual, the administrator must promptly furnish to such individual, free of charge, a paper copy of a covered document. Only one paper copy of any covered document must be provided free of charge under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Covered individuals must have the right, free of charge, to globally opt out of electronic delivery and receive only paper versions of covered documents. Upon request from a covered individual, the administrator must promptly comply with such an election.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrator must establish and maintain reasonable procedures governing requests or elections under paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section. The procedures are not reasonable if they contain any provision, or are administered in a way, that unduly inhibits or hampers the initiation or processing of a request or election.
</P>
<P>(4) The system for furnishing a notice of internet availability must be designed to alert the administrator of a covered individual's invalid or inoperable electronic address. If the administrator is alerted that a covered individual's electronic address has become invalid or inoperable, such as if a notice of internet availability sent to that address is returned as undeliverable, the administrator must promptly take reasonable steps to cure the problem (for example, by furnishing a notice of internet availability to a valid and operable secondary electronic address that had been provided by the covered individual, if available, or obtaining a new valid and operable electronic address for the covered individual) or treat the covered individual as if he or she made an election under paragraph (f)(2) of this section. If the covered individual is treated as if he or she made an election under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the administrator must furnish to the covered individual, as soon as is reasonably practicable, a paper version of the covered document identified in the undelivered notice of internet availability.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Initial notification of default electronic delivery and right to opt out.</I> The administrator must furnish to each individual, prior to the administrator's reliance on this section with respect to such individual, a notification on paper that covered documents will be furnished electronically to an electronic address; identification of the electronic address that will be used for the individual; any instructions necessary to access the covered documents; a cautionary statement that the covered document is not required to be available on the website for more than one year or, if later, after it is superseded by a subsequent version of the covered document; a statement of the right to request and obtain a paper version of a covered document, free of charge, and an explanation of how to exercise this right; and a statement of the right, free of charge, to opt out of electronic delivery and receive only paper versions of covered documents, and an explanation of how to exercise this right. A notification furnished pursuant to this paragraph (g) must be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Special rule for severance from employment.</I> At the time a covered individual who is an employee, and for whom an electronic address assigned by an employer pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section is used to furnish covered documents, severs from employment with the employer, the administrator must take measures reasonably calculated to ensure the continued accuracy and availability of such electronic address or to obtain a new electronic address that enables receipt of covered documents following the individual's severance from employment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Special rule for annual combined notices of internet availability.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements in paragraphs (d)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section, an administrator may furnish one notice of internet availability that incorporates or combines the content required by paragraph (d)(3) of this section with respect to one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary plan description, as required pursuant to section 104(a) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Any covered document or information that must be furnished annually, rather than upon the occurrence of a particular event, and does not require action by a covered individual by a particular deadline;
</P>
<P>(3) Any other covered document if authorized in writing by the Secretary of Labor, by regulation or otherwise, in compliance with section 110 of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any applicable notice required by the Internal Revenue Code if authorized in writing by the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Reasonable procedures for compliance.</I> The conditions of this section are satisfied, notwithstanding the fact that the covered documents described in paragraph (b) of this section are temporarily unavailable for a reasonable period of time in the manner required by this section due to technical maintenance or unforeseeable events or circumstances beyond the control of the administrator, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The administrator has reasonable procedures in place to ensure that the covered documents are available in the manner required by this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The administrator takes prompt action to ensure that the covered documents become available in the manner required by this section as soon as practicable following the earlier of the time at which the administrator knows or reasonably should know that the covered documents are temporarily unavailable in the manner required by this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Alternative method for disclosure through email systems.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an administrator satisfies the general furnishing obligation in § 2520.104b-1(b)(1) by using an email address to furnish a covered document to a covered individual, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered document is sent to a covered individual's email address, referred to in paragraph (b) of this section, no later than the date on which the covered document must be furnished under the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of furnishing a notice of internet availability pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, the administrator sends an email pursuant to this paragraph (k) that:
</P>
<P>(i) Includes the covered document in the body of the email or as an attachment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes a subject line that reads: “Disclosure About Your Retirement Plan”;
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes the information described in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(C) of this section if the covered document is an attachment (identification or brief description of the covered document), paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(E) (statement of right to paper copy of covered document), (d)(3)(i)(F) (statement of right to opt out of electronic delivery), and (d)(3)(i)(H) (a telephone number) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Complies with paragraph (d)(4)(iv) of this section (relating to readability).
</P>
<P>(3) The covered document is:
</P>
<P>(i) Written in a manner reasonably calculated to be understood by the average plan participant;
</P>
<P>(ii) Presented in a widely-available format or formats that are suitable to be read online, printed clearly on paper, and permanently retained in an electronic format that satisfies the preceding requirements in this sentence; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Searchable electronically by numbers, letters, or words.
</P>
<P>(4) The administrator:
</P>
<P>(i) Takes measures reasonably calculated to protect the confidentiality of personal information relating to the covered individual; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Complies with paragraphs (f) (relating to copies of paper documents or the right to opt out); (g) (relating to the initial notification of default electronic delivery), except for the cautionary statement; and (h) (relating to severance from employment) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Dates; severability.</I> (1) This section is applicable July 27, 2020.
</P>
<P>(2) If any provision of this section is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 31922, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2520.105-1—2520.105-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2520.105-1--2520.105-2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.105-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.105-3   Lifetime income disclosure for individual account plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content requirements.</I> At least annually, the administrator of an individual account plan must furnish a benefit statement pursuant to section 105(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (Act) that is written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and that contains the information required by this section, based on the latest information available to the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total benefits accrued; lifetime income disclosure.</I> A benefit statement described in paragraph (a) of this section must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The beginning and ending dates of the statement period;
</P>
<P>(2) The value of the account balance as of the last day of the statement period, excluding the value of any deferred income annuity described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section expressed as an equivalent lifetime income stream payable in equal monthly payments for the life of the participant (single life annuity), determined in accordance with paragraph (c) or (e)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) The amount specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section expressed as an equivalent lifetime income stream payable in equal monthly payments for the joint lives of the participant and spouse (qualified joint and survivor annuity), determined in accordance with paragraph (c) or (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assumptions for converting an account balance into lifetime income streams.</I> The account balance specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be converted to the lifetime income streams described in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section using the following assumptions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commencement date and age.</I> (i) The first payment is made on the last day of the statement period (the commencement date); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The participant is age 67 on the commencement date, unless the participant is older than age 67, in which case the participant's actual age must be used for the conversions under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Marital status.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section (relating to qualified joint and survivor annuity illustrations):
</P>
<P>(i) The participant has a spouse that is the same age as the participant; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The survivor annuity percentage is equal to 100% of the monthly payment that is payable during the joint lives of the participant and spouse.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interest rate and mortality.</I> (i) A rate of interest equal to the 10-year constant maturity Treasury securities yield rate for the first business day of the last month of the period to which the benefit statement relates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Mortality as reflected in the applicable mortality table under section 417(e)(3)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code in effect for the calendar year which contains the last day of the statement period.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Plan loans.</I> The account balance includes the outstanding balance of any participant loan, unless the participant is in default of repayment on such loan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Explanation of lifetime income streams.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a benefit statement described in paragraph (a) of this section must include:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) An explanation of the commencement date and age assumptions in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement assume that payments begin [<I>insert the last day of the statement period</I>] and that you are [<I>insert 67 or current age if older</I>] on this date. Monthly payments beginning at a younger age would be lower than shown since payments would be made over more years. Monthly payments beginning at an older age would be higher than shown since they would be made over fewer years.”
</P>
<P>(2)(i) An explanation of a single life annuity.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “A single life annuity is an arrangement that pays you a fixed amount of money each month for the rest of your life. Following your death, no further payments would be made to your spouse or heirs.”
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An explanation of a qualified joint and 100% survivor annuity, the availability of other survivor percentage annuities, and the impact of choosing a lower survivor percentage.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “A qualified joint and 100% survivor annuity is an arrangement that pays you and your spouse a fixed monthly payment for the rest of your joint lives. In addition, after your death, this type of annuity would continue to provide the same fixed monthly payment to your surviving spouse for their life. An annuity with a lower survivor percentage may be available, and reducing the survivor percentage (below 100%) would increase monthly payments during your lifetime, but would decrease what your surviving spouse would receive after your death.”
</P>
<P>(4)(i) An explanation of the marital status assumptions in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments for a qualified joint and 100% survivor annuity in this statement assume that you are married with a spouse who is the same age as you (even if you do not currently have a spouse, or if you have a spouse who is a different age). If your spouse is younger, monthly payments would be lower than shown since they would be expected to be paid over more years. If your spouse is older, monthly payments would be higher than shown since they would be expected to be paid over fewer years.”
</P>
<P>(5)(i) An explanation of the interest rate assumptions in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement are based on an interest rate of [<I>insert rate</I>], which is the 10-year constant maturity U.S. Treasury securities yield rate as of [<I>insert date</I>], as required by federal regulations. This rate fluctuates based on market conditions. The lower the interest rate, the smaller your monthly payment will be, and the higher the interest rate, the larger your monthly payment will be.”
</P>
<P>(6)(i) An explanation of the mortality assumptions in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement are based on how long you and a spouse who is assumed to be your age are expected to live. For this purpose, federal regulations require that your life expectancy be estimated using gender neutral mortality assumptions established by the Internal Revenue Service.”
</P>
<P>(7)(i) An explanation that the monthly payment amounts required under paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section are illustrations only.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement are for illustrative purposes only; they are not a guarantee.”
</P>
<P>(8)(i) An explanation that the actual monthly payments that may be purchased with the amount specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section will depend on numerous factors and may vary substantially from the illustrations under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement are based on prevailing market conditions and other assumptions required under federal regulations. If you decide to purchase an annuity, the actual payments you receive will depend on a number of factors and may vary substantially from the estimated monthly payments in this statement. For example, your actual age at retirement, your actual account balance (reflecting future investment gains and losses, contributions, distributions, and fees), and the market conditions at the time of purchase will affect your actual payment amounts. The estimated monthly payments in this statement are the same whether you are male or female. This is required for annuities payable from an employer's plan. However, the same amount paid for an annuity available outside of an employer's plan may provide a larger monthly payment for males than for females since females are expected to live longer.”
</P>
<P>(9)(i) An explanation that the monthly payment amounts required under paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section are fixed amounts that would not increase for inflation.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(9)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “Unlike Social Security payments, the estimated monthly payments in this statement do not increase each year with a cost-of-living adjustment. Therefore, as prices increase over time, the fixed monthly payments will buy fewer goods and services.”
</P>
<P>(10)(i) An explanation that the monthly payment amounts required under paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section are based on total benefits accrued, regardless of whether such benefits are nonforfeitable.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payment amounts in this statement assume that your account balance is 100% vested.”
</P>
<P>(11)(i) An explanation that the account balance includes the outstanding balance of any participant loan, unless the participant is in default of repayment on such loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(11)(i) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “If you have taken a loan from the plan and are not in default on the loan, the estimated monthly payments in this statement assume that the loan has been fully repaid.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special rules for in-plan annuities</I>—(1) <I>Plans that offer distribution annuities.</I> (i) If the plan offers single life and qualified joint and survivor annuities as distribution options pursuant to a contract with an issuer licensed under applicable state insurance law, the plan administrator may, but is not required to, use the contract terms to calculate the monthly payment amounts in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section instead of the assumptions in paragraph (c) of this section, except for the assumptions in paragraphs (c)(1) (relating to assumed commencement date and age) and (c)(2)(i) (relating to assumed marital status and age of spouse) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Plan administrators that elect to use the contract terms, as permitted in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, must, in lieu of the explanations required in paragraph (d) of this section, provide the explanations set forth in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section. To obtain the limitation on liability provided in paragraph (f) of this section, such plan administrators also must use either the model language for each such explanation in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section or the Model Benefit Statement Supplement set forth in Appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iii) The benefit statement must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) An explanation of the commencement date and age assumptions in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement assume that payments begin [<I>insert the last day of statement period</I>] and that you are [<I>insert 67 or current age if older</I>] on this date. Monthly payments beginning at a younger age would be lower than shown since payments would be made over more years. Monthly payments beginning at an older age would be higher than shown since they would be made over fewer years.”
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) An explanation of a single life annuity.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “A single life annuity is an arrangement that pays you a specified amount of money each month for the rest of your life. Following your death, no further payments would be made to your spouse or heirs.”
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) An explanation of a qualified joint and survivor annuity and the survivor annuity percentage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “A qualified joint and survivor annuity is an arrangement that pays you and your spouse a specified monthly payment for the rest of your joint lives. When one spouse dies, the monthly payments continue to the surviving spouse for their life. If you die first, your spouse will receive [<I>insert X %</I>] of the monthly payment payable during your life. If your spouse dies first, you will receive [<I>insert Y %</I>] of the monthly payment.”
</P>
<P>(D)(<I>1</I>) An explanation of the marital status assumptions in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments for a qualified joint and survivor annuity in this statement assume that you are married with a spouse who is the same age as you (even if you do not currently have a spouse, or if you have a spouse who is a different age). If your spouse is younger, monthly payments would be lower than shown since they would be expected to be paid over more years. If your spouse is older, monthly payments would be higher than shown since they would be expected to be paid over fewer years.”
</P>
<P>(E)(<I>1</I>) An explanation of the contract's interest rate assumptions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(E)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement are based on an interest rate offered by [<I>insert name of insurer</I>] under a contract with the plan. This rate may fluctuate. The lower the interest rate, the smaller your monthly payments will be, and the higher the interest rate, the larger your monthly payments will be.”
</P>
<P>(F)(<I>1</I>) An explanation of the contract's mortality assumptions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement are based on how long you and a spouse who is assumed to be your age are expected to live. Life expectancy is estimated by using mortality assumptions adopted by [<I>enter name of insurance company</I>].”
</P>
<P>(G)(<I>1</I>) An explanation that the monthly payment amounts required under paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section are illustrations only.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(G)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement are for illustrative purposes only; they are not a guarantee.”
</P>
<P>(H)(<I>1</I>) An explanation that the actual monthly payments that may be purchased with the amount specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section will depend on numerous factors and may vary substantially from the illustrations under this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(H)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payments in this statement are based on prevailing market conditions and other assumptions. If you decide to purchase an annuity, the actual payments you receive will depend on a number of factors and may vary substantially from the estimated monthly payments in this statement. For example, your actual age at retirement, your actual account balance (reflecting future investment gains and losses, contributions, distributions, and fees), and the market conditions at the time of purchase will affect your actual payment amounts. The estimated monthly payments in this statement are the same whether you are male or female. This is required for annuities payable from an employer's plan. However, the same amount paid for an annuity available outside of an employer's plan may provide a larger monthly payment for males than for females since females are expected to live longer.”
</P>
<P>(I)(<I>1</I>) An explanation as to whether the monthly payment amounts required under paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section are fixed or may change over time, and how adjustments, if any, are determined.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(H)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language, as applicable: “Unlike Social Security payments, the estimated monthly payment amounts in this statement do not increase each year with a cost-of-living adjustment. Therefore, as prices increase over time, the fixed monthly payments will buy fewer goods and services.”; OR “The amounts shown in this statement will increase over time based on [<I>insert general explanation of how any adjustment is determined, e.g., to reflect inflation, a cost-of-living adjustment, etc.</I>]”
</P>
<P>(J)(<I>1</I>) An explanation that the monthly payment amounts required under paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section are based on total benefits accrued, regardless of whether such benefits are nonforfeitable.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(J)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “The estimated monthly payment amounts in this statement assume that your account balance is 100% vested.”
</P>
<P>(K)(<I>1</I>) An explanation that the account balance includes the outstanding balance of any participant loan, unless the participant is in default of repayment on such loan.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(K)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the plan administrator may use the following model language: “If you have taken a loan from the plan and are not in default on the loan, the estimated monthly payments in this statement assume that the loan is fully repaid.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Participants that purchased deferred annuities.</I> (i) If any portion of a participant's accrued benefit currently includes a deferred lifetime income stream purchased by the participant in the form of a single life annuity or a qualified joint and survivor annuity pursuant to a contract with an issuer licensed under applicable state insurance law, such as a deferred income annuity contract or a qualifying longevity annuity contract, the amounts payable under this contract with respect to this portion shall be disclosed on the participant's benefit statement in accordance with paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, instead of in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to the portion of a participant's accrued benefit described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, the following information must be disclosed about such lifetime income payments:
</P>
<P>(A) The date payments are scheduled to commence and the age of the participant on such date;
</P>
<P>(B) The frequency and the amount of such payments payable as of the commencement date in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, as determined under the terms of the contract, expressed in current dollars;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of any survivor benefit, period certain commitment, or similar feature; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement whether such payments are fixed, adjust with inflation during retirement, or adjust in some other way, and a general explanation of how any such adjustment is determined.
</P>
<P>(iii) The portion of the participant's accrued benefit that was not used to purchase a deferred lifetime income stream described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, however, must be converted to the lifetime income stream equivalents in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d), or paragraph (e)(1), of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitation on liability.</I> No plan fiduciary, plan sponsor, or other person shall have any liability under Title I of the Act solely by reason of providing the lifetime income stream equivalents described in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) Such equivalents are derived in accordance with the assumptions in paragraph (c) or (e)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The benefit statement includes language substantially similar in all material respects to:
</P>
<P>(i) Either the model language in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) through (d)(11)(ii) of this section or the Model Benefit Statement Supplement set forth in appendix A to this subpart; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) If applicable, either the model language in paragraphs (e)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) through (e)(1)(iii)(K)(<I>2</I>) of this section or the Model Benefit Statement Supplement set forth in appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional lifetime income illustrations.</I> Nothing in this section precludes a plan administrator from including lifetime income stream illustrations on the benefit statement in addition to the illustrations described in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, as long as such additional illustrations are clearly explained, presented in a manner that is designed to avoid confusing or misleading participants, and based on reasonable assumptions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Participant.</I> The term <I>participant</I> includes an individual beneficiary who has his or her own individual account under the plan, such as an alternate payee for example.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dates.</I> This section shall be effective on the date that is one year after the date of publication of the interim final rule, and shall be applicable to pension benefit statements furnished after such date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 59154, Sept. 18, 2020]

 
</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.10.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart F of Part 2520—Model Benefit Statement Supplement
</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er18se20.295.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18se20.296.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 59157, Sept. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.10.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart F of Part 2520—Model Benefit Statement Supplement—Plans That Offer Distribution Annuities
</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er18se20.297.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18se20.298.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 59157, Sept. 18, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Recordkeeping Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2520.107-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.3.4.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2520.107-1   Use of electronic media for maintenance and retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> Sections 107 and 209 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA), contain certain requirements relating to the maintenance of records for reporting and disclosure purposes and for determining the pension benefits to which participants and beneficiaries are or may become entitled. This section provides standards applicable to both pension and welfare plans concerning the use of electronic media for the maintenance and retention of records required to be kept under sections 107 and 209 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> The record maintenance and retention requirements of sections 107 and 209 of ERISA are satisfied when using electronic media if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The electronic recordkeeping system has reasonable controls to ensure the integrity, accuracy, authenticity and reliability of the records kept in electronic form; 
</P>
<P>(2) The electronic records are maintained in reasonable order and in a safe and accessible place, and in such manner as they may be readily inspected or examined (for example, the recordkeeping system should be capable of indexing, retaining, preserving, retrieving and reproducing the electronic records); 
</P>
<P>(3) The electronic records are readily convertible into legible and readable paper copy as may be needed to satisfy reporting and disclosure requirements or any other obligation under Title I of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(4) The electronic recordkeeping system is not subject, in whole or in part, to any agreement or restriction that would, directly or indirectly, compromise or limit a person's ability to comply with any reporting and disclosure requirement or any other obligation under Title I of ERISA; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Adequate records management practices are established and implemented (for example, following procedures for labeling of electronically maintained or retained records, providing a secure storage environment, creating back-up electronic copies and selecting an off-site storage location, observing a quality assurance program evidenced by regular evaluations of the electronic recordkeeping system including periodic checks of electronically maintained or retained records, and retaining paper copies of records that cannot be clearly, accurately or completely transferred to an electronic recordkeeping system). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Legibility and readability.</I> All electronic records must exhibit a high degree of legibility and readability when displayed on a video display terminal or other method of electronic transmission and when reproduced in paper form. The term “legibility” means the observer must be able to identify all letters and numerals positively and quickly to the exclusion of all other letters or numerals. The term “readability” means that the observer must be able to recognize a group of letters or numerals as words or complete numbers. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposal of original paper records.</I> Original paper records may be disposed of any time after they are transferred to an electronic recordkeeping system that complies with the requirements of this section, except such original records may not be discarded if the electronic record would not constitute a duplicate or substitute record under the terms of the plan and applicable federal or state law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 17275, Apr. 9, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR EMPLOYEE PENSION BENEFIT PLANS UNDER THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT OF 1974 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2530" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2530—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR EMPLOYEE PENSION BENEFIT PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 201, 202, 203, 204, 210, 505, 1011, 1012, 1014, and 1015, Pub. L. 93-406, 88 Stat. 852-862, 866-867, 894, 898-913, 924-929 (29 U.S.C. 1051-4, 1060, 1135, 26 U.S.C. 410, 411, 413, 414); Secretary of Labor's Order No. 13-76. Section 2530.206 also issued under sec. 1001, Pub. L. 109-280, 120 Stat. 780.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 56462, Dec. 28, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Scope and General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200a" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200a   Scope.</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200a-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200a-1   Relationship of the Act and the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 2 of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”) contains minimum standards that a plan which is an employee pension benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(2) of the Act and which is covered under part 2 must satisfy. (For a general explanation of the coverage of part 2, see § 2530.201-1.) Substantially identical requirements are imposed by subchapter D of chapter 1 of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (hereinafter referred to as “the Code”) for plans seeking qualification for certain tax benefits under the Code. In general, the Code provisions apply to “qualified” pension, profit-sharing, and stock bonus plans described in section 401(a) of the Code, annuity plans described in section 403(a) of the Code and bond purchase plans described in section 405(a) of the Code. The standards contained in title I of the Act apply generally to both “nonqualified' and “qualified” employee pension benefit plans. The standards contained in the Act, and the related Code provisions, are “minimum” standards. In general, more liberal plan provisions (in terms of the benefit to be derived by the employee) are not prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(b) For a definition of the term “employee pension benefit plan”, see section 3(2) of the Act and § 2510.3-2. 
</P>
<P>(c) For a statement of the coverage of part 2 of the Act, see sections 4 and 201 of the Act and §§ 2510.3-2, 2510.3-3, 2530.201-1 and 2530.201-2. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200a-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200a-2   Treasury regulations for purposes of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury or his delegate under sections 410 and 411 of the Code (relating to minimum standards for participation and vesting) shall apply for purposes of sections 202 through 204 of the Act. Thus, except for those provisions (such as the definition of an hour of service or a year of service) for which authority to prescribe regulations is specifically delegated to the Secretary of Labor, regulations prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury shall also be used to implement the related provisions contained in the Act. Those regulations specify the credit that must be given to an employee for years of service and years of participation completed by the employee. The allocation of regulatory jurisdiction between the Secretary of Treasury or his delegate and the Secretary of Labor is governed by titles I through III of the Act. <I>See</I> section 3002 of the Act (88 Stat. 996). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200a-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200a-3   Labor regulations for purposes of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Labor is specifically authorized to prescribe certain regulations (generally relating to hour of service, year of service, break in service, year of participation and special rules for seasonal and maritime industries) applicable to both title I of the Act and sections 410 and 411 of the Code. These regulations are contained in this subpart (A) and subpart B of this part (2530) and must be integrated with regulations prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury or his delegate under sections 410 of the Code (relating to minimum participation standards), 411(a) of the Code (relating to minimum vesting standards) and 411(b) of the Code (relating to benefit accrual requirements). The allocation of regulatory jurisdiction between the Secretary of Labor and the Secretary of the Treasury or his delegate is governed by titles I through III of the Act. <I>See</I> section 3002 of the Act (88 Stat. 996).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200b-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200b-1   Computation periods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under sections 202, 203 and 204 of the Act and sections 410 and 411 of the Code, an employee's statutory entitlements with regard to participation, vesting and benefit accrual are generally determined by reference to years of service and years of participation completed by the employee and one-year breaks in service incurred by the employee. The units used for determining an employee's credit towards statutory participation, vesting and benefit accrual entitlements are in turn defined in terms of the number of hours of service credited to the employee during a specified period—in general, a twelve-consecutive-month period—referred to herein as a “computation period”. A plan must designate eligibility computation periods pursuant to § 2530.202-2 and vesting computation periods pursuant to § 2530.203-2, and, under certain circumstances, a defined benefit plan must designate accrual computation periods pursuant to § 2530.204-2. An employee who is credited with 1000 hours of service during an eligibility computation period must generally be credited with a year of service for purposes of section 202 of the Act and section 410 of the Code (relating to minimum participation standards). An employee who is credited with 1000 hours of service during a vesting computation period must generally be credited with a year of service for purposes of section 203 of the Act and 411(a) of the Code (relating to minimum vesting standards). An employee who completes 1000 hours of service during an accrual computation period must, under certain circumstances, be credited with at least a partial year of participation for purposes of section 204 of the Act and section 411(b) of the Code (relating to benefit accrual requirements). With respect to benefit accrual, however, the plan may not be required to credit an employee with a full year of participation and, therefore, full accrual for such year of participation unless the employee is credited with the number of hours of service or other permissible units of credit prescribed under the plan for crediting of a full year of participation (<I>see</I> § 2530.204-2 (c) and (d)). It should be noted that under some of the equivalencies which a plan may use under § 2530.200b-3 to determine the number of units of service to be credited to an employee in a computation period, an employee must be credited with a year of service of partial year of participation if the employee is credited with a number of units of service which is less than 1000 in a computation period. <I>See also</I> § 2530.200b-9, relating to elapsed time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules generally applicable to computation periods.</I> In general, employment at the beginning or the end of an applicable computation period or on any particular date during the computation period is not determinative of whether the employee is credited with a year of service or a partial year of participation, or incurs a break in service, for the computation period. Rather, these determinations generally must be made solely with reference to the number of hours (or other units of service) which are credited to the employee during the applicable computation period. For example, an employee who is credited with 1000 hours of service during any portion of a vesting computation period must be credited with a year of service for that computation period regardless of whether the employee is employed by the employer on the first or the last day of the computation period. It should be noted, however, that in certain circumstances, a plan may provide that certain consequences follow from an employee's failure to be employed on a particular date. For example, under section 202(a)(4) of the Act and section 410(a)(4) of the Code, a plan may provide that an individual otherwise entitled to commence participation in the plan on a specified date does not commence participation on that date if he or she was separated from the service before that date. Similary, under section 204(b)(1) of the Act and section 411(b)(1) of the Code, a plan which is not a defined benefit plan is not subject to section 204 (b)(1) and (b)(3) of the Act and section 411 (b)(1) and (b)(3) of the Code. Such a plan, therefore, may provide that an individual who has been a participant in the plan, but who has separated from service before the date on which the employer's contributions to the plan or forfeitures are allocated among participant's accounts or before the last day of the vesting computation period, does not share in the allocation of such contributions or forfeitures even though the individual is credited with 1000 or more hours of service for the applicable vesting computation period. Under certain circumstances, however, such a plan provision may result in discrimination prohibited under section 401(a)(4) of the Code. <I>See</I> Revenue Ruling 76-250, I.R.B. 1976-27.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200b-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200b-2   Hour of service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An hour of service which must, as a minimum, be counted for the purposes of determining a year of service, a year of participation for benefit accrual, a break in service and employment commencement date (or reemployment commencement date) under sections 202, 203 and 204 of the Act and sections 410 and 411 of the Code, is an hour of service as defined in paragraphs (a)(1), (2) and (3) of this section. The employer may round up hours at the end of a computation period or more frequently.
</P>
<P>(1) An hour of service is each hour for which an employee is paid, or entitled to payment, for the performance of duties for the employer during the applicable computation period.
</P>
<P>(2) An hour of service is each hour for which an employee is paid, or entitled to payment, by the employer on account of a period of time during which no duties are performed (irrespective of whether the employment relationship has terminated) due to vacation, holiday, illness, incapacity (including disability), layoff, jury duty, military duty or leave of absence. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence,
</P>
<P>(i) No more than 501 hours of service are required to be credited under this paragraph (a)(2) to an employee on account of any single continuous period during which the employee performs no duties (whether or not such period occurs in a single computation period);
</P>
<P>(ii) An hour for which an employee is directly or indirectly paid, or entitled to payment, on account of a period during which no duties are performed is not required to be credited to the employee if such payment is made or due under a plan maintained solely for the purpose of complying with applicable workmen's compensation, or unemployment compensation or disability insurance laws; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Hours of service are not required to be credited for a payment which solely reimburses an employee for medical or medically related expenses incurred by the employee.
</P>
<FP>For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), a payment shall be deemed to be made by or due from an employer regardless of whether such payment is made by or due from the employer directly, or indirectly through, among others, a trust fund, or insurer, to which the employer contributes or pays premiums and regardless of whether contributions made or due to the trust fund, insurer or other entity are for the benefit of particular employees or are on behalf of a group of employees in the aggregate.
</FP>
<P>(3) An hour of service is each hour for which back pay, irrespective of mitigation of damages, is either awarded or agreed to by the employer. The same hours of service shall not be credited both under paragraph (a)(1) or paragraph (a)(2), as the case may be, and under this paragraph (a)(3). Thus, for example, an employee who receives a back pay award following a determination that he or she was paid at an unlawful rate for hours of service previously credited will not be entitled to additional credit for the same hours of service. Crediting of hours of service for back pay awarded or agreed to with respect to periods described in paragraph (a)(2) shall be subject to the limitations set forth in that paragraph. For example, no more than 501 hours of service are required to be credited for payments of back pay, to the extent that such back pay is agreed to or awarded for a period of time during which an employee did not or would not have performed duties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rule for determining hours of service for reasons other than the performance of duties.</I> In the case of a payment which is made or due on account of a period during which an employee performs no duties, and which results in the crediting of hours of service under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or in the case of an award or agreement for back pay, to the extent that such award or agreement is made with respect to a period described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the number of hours of service to be credited shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Payments calculated on the basis of units of time.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, in case of a payment made or due which is calculated on the basis of units of time, such as hours, days, weeks or months, the number of hours of service to be credited shall be the number of regularly scheduled working hours included in the units of time on the basis of which the payment is calculated. For purposes of the preceding sentence, in the case of an employee without a regular work schedule, a plan may provide for the calculation of the number of hours to be credited on the basis of a 40-hour workweek or an 8-hour workday, or may provide for such calculation on any reasonable basis which reflects the average hours worked by the employee, or by other employees in the same job classification, over a representative period of time, provided that the basis so used is consistently applied with respect to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined. Thus, for example, a plan may not use a 40-hour workweek as a basis for calculating the number of hours of service to be credited for periods of paid absences for one employee while using an average based on hours worked over a representative period of time as a basis for such calculation for another, similarly situated employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the rules in paragraph (b)(1) of this section without regard to paragraphs (b)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>(A) Employee A was paid for 6 hours of sick leave at his normal hourly rate. The payment was therefore calculated on the basis of units of time (hours). A must, therefore, be credited with 6 hours of service for the 6 hours of sick leave.
</P>
<P>(B) Employee B was paid his normal weekly salary for 2 weeks of vacation. The payment was therefore calculated on the basis of units of time (weeks). B is scheduled to work 37
<FR>1/2</FR> hours per week (although from time to time working overtime). B must, therefore, be credited with 75 hours of service for the vacation (37
<FR>1/2</FR> hours per week multiplied by 2 weeks).
</P>
<P>(C) Employee C spent 3 weeks on a paid vacation. C's salary is established at an annual rate but is paid on a bi-weekly basis. The amount of salary payments attributable to be paid vacation was calculated on the basis of units of time (weeks). C has no regular work schedule but works at least 50 hours per week. The plan provides for the calculation of hours of service to be credited to employees in C's situation for periods of paid absences on the basis of a 40-hour workweek. C must, therefore, be credited with 120 hours of service for the vacation (3 weeks multiplied by 40 hours per week).
</P>
<P>(D) Employee D spent 2 weeks on vacation, for which he was paid $150. Although D has no regular work schedule, the $150 payment was established on the assumption that an employee in D's position works an average of 30 hours per week at a rate of $2.25 per hour. The payment of $150 was therefore calculated on the basis of units of time (weeks). The plan provides for the calculation of hours of service to be credited to employees in D's situation for periods of paid absences on the basis of the average number of hours worked by an employee over a period of 6 months. D's employer's records show that D worked an average of 28 hours per week for a 6-month period. D must, therefore, be credited with 56 hours of service for the vacation (28 hours per week multiplied by 2 weeks).
</P>
<P>(E) Employee E is regularly scheduled to work a 40-hour week. During a computation period E is incapacitated as a result of injury for a period of 11 weeks. Under the sick leave policy of E's employer E is paid his normal weekly salary for the first 8 weeks of his incapacity. After 8 weeks the employer ceases to pay E's normal salary but, under a disability insurance program maintained by the employer, E receives payments equal to 65% of his normal weekly salary for the remaining 3 weeks during which E is incapacitated. For the period during which he is incapacitated, therefore, E receives credit for 440 hours of service (11 weeks multiplied by 40 hours per week) regardless of the fact that payments to E for the last 3 wseeks of the period during which hs was incapacitated were made in amounts less than E's normal compensation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments not calculated on the basis of units of time.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, in the case of a payment made or due, which is not calculated on the basis of units of time, the number of hours of service to be credited shall be equal to the amount of the payment divided by the employee's most recent hourly ratre of compensation (as determined under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section) before the period during which no duties are performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section an employee's hourly rate of compensation shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of an employee whose compensation is determined on the basis of an hourly rate, such hourly rate shall be the employee's most recent hourly rate of compensation.
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of an employee whose compensation is determined on the basis of a fixed rate for specified periods of time (other than hours) such as days, weeks or months, the employee's hourly rate of compensation shall be the employee's most recent rate of compensation for a specified period of time (other than an hour), divided by the number of hours regularly scheduled for the performance of duties during such period of time. For purposes of the preceding sentence, in the case of an employee without a regular work schedule, the plan may provide for the calculation of the employee's hourly rate of compensation on the basis of a 40-hour workweek, an 8-hour workday, or may provide for such calculation on any reasonable basis which reflects the average hours worked by the employee over a representative period of time, provided that the basis so used is consistently applied with respect to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of an employee whose compensation is not determined on the basis of a fixed rate for specified periods of time, the employee's hourly rate of compensation shall be the lowest hourly rate of compensation paid to employees in the same job classification as that of the employee or, if no employees in the same job classification have an hourly rate, the minimum wage as established from time to time under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the rules in paragraph (b)(2) of this section without regard to paragraphs (b)(1) and (3).
</P>
<P>(A) As a result of an injury, an employee is incapacitated for 5 weeks. A lump sum payment of $500 is made to the employee with respect to the injury under a disability insurance plan maintained by the employee's employer. At the time of the injury, the employee's rate of pay was $3.00 per hour. The employee must, therefore, be credited with 167 hours of service ($500 divided by $3.00 per hour).
</P>
<P>(B) Same facts as in Example (A), above, except that at the time of the injury, the employee's rate of pay was $160 per week and the employee has a regular work schedule of 40 hours per week. The employee's hourly rate of compensation is, therefore, $4.00 per hour ($160 per week divided by 40 hours per week) and the employee must be credited with 125 hours of service for the period of absence ($500 divided by $4.00 per hour).
</P>
<P>(C) An employee is paid at an hourly rate of $3.00 per hour and works a regular schedule of 40 hours per week. The employee is disabled for 26 weeks during a computation period. For the first 12 weeks of disability, the employee is paid his normal weekly earnings of $120 per week by the employer. Thereupon, a lump-sum disability payment of $1000 is made to the employee under a disability insurance plan maintained by the employer. Under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the employee is credited with 501 hours of service for the period of disability (lesser of 501 hours—the maximum number of hours required to be credited for a period of absence—or the sum of 12 weeks multiplied by 40 hours per week plus $1000 divided by $3.00 per hour).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rule against double credit.</I> (i) Nothwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, an employee is not required to be credited on account of a period during which no duties are performed with a number of hours of service which is greater than the number of hours regularly scheduled for the performance of duties during such period. For purposes of applying the preceding sentence in the case of an employee without a regular work schedule, a plan may provide for the calculation of the number of hours of service to be credited to the employee for a period during which no duties are performed on the basis of a 40-hour workweek or an 8-hour workday, or may provide for such calculation on any reasonable basis which reflects the average hours worked by the employee, or by other employees in the same job classification, over a representative period of time, provided that the basis so used is consistently applied with respect to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> (A) Employee A has a regular 40-hour workweek. Each year Employee A is entitled to pay for a two-week vacation, in addition to receiving normal wages for all hours worked, regardless of whether A actually takes a vacation and regardless of the duration of his vacation. The vacation payments are, therefore, calculated on the basis of units of time (weeks). In computation period I, A takes no vacation but receives vacation pay. A is entitled to no credit for hours of service for the vacation payment made in computation period I because the payment was not made on account of a period during which no duties were performed. In computation period II, A takes a vacation of one week in duration, although receiving pay for a two-week vacation. A is entitled to be credited with 40 hours of service for his one-week vacation in computation period II even though paid for two weeks of vacation. In computation period III, A takes a vacation for a period lasting more than 2 weeks. A is entitled to be credited with 80 hours of service for his vacation in computation period III (40 hours per week multiplied by 2 weeks) even though the vacation lasted more than 2 weeks.
</P>
<P>(B) Employee B has no regular work schedule. As a result of an injury, B is incapacitated for 1 day. A lump-sum payment of $500 is made to A with respect to the injury under an insurance program maintained by the employer. A pension plan maintained by the employer provides for the calculation of the number of hours of service to be credited to an employee without a regular work schedule on the basis of an 8-hour day. A is therefore required to be credited with no more than 8 hours for the day during which he was incapacitated, even though A's rate of pay immediately before the injury was $3.00 per hour.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Crediting of hours of service to computation periods.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, hours of service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be credited to the computation period in which the duties are performed.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, hours of service described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be credited as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Hours of service credited to an employee on account of a payment which is calculated on the basis of units of time, such as hours, days, weeks or months, shall be credited to the computation period or computation periods in which the period during which no duties are performed occurs, beginning with the first unit of time to which the payment relates.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hours of service credited to an employee by reason of a payment which is not calculated on the basis of units of time shall be credited to the computation period in which the period during which no duties are performed occurs, or if the period during which no duties are performed extends beyond one computation period, such hours of service shall be allocated between not more than the first two computation periods on any reasonable basis which is consistently applied with respect to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, hours of service described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall be credited to the computation period or periods to which the award or agreement for back pay pertains, rather than to the computation period in which the award, agreement or payment is made.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of hours of service to be credited to an employee in connection with a period of no more than 31 days which extends beyond one computation period, all such hours of service may be credited to the first computation period or the second computation period. Crediting of hours of service under this paragraph must be done consistently with respect to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples are intended to illustrate paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) An employer maintaining a plan pays employees on a bi-weekly basis. The plan designates the calendar year as the vesting computation period. The employer adopts the practice of crediting hours of service for the performance of duties during a bi-weekly payroll period to the vesting computation period in which the payroll period ends. Thus, when a payroll period ends on January 7, 1978, all hours of service to be credited to employees for the performance of duties during that payroll period are credited to the vesting computation period beginning on January 1, 1978. This practice is consistent with paragraph (c)(4) of this section, even though some hours of service credited to the computation period beginning on January 1, 1978, are attributable to duties performed during the previous vesting computation period.
</P>
<P>(ii) An employer maintains a sick leave policy under which an employee is entitled to a certain number of hours of sick leave each year, on account of which the employee is paid his or her normal rate of compensation. An employee with a work schedule of 8 hours per day, 5 days per week, is sick from December 26, 1977 through January 4, 1978. Under the employer's sick leave policy, the employee is entitled to compensation for the entire period. A plan maintained by the employer establishes a calendar-year vesting computation period. The period from December 26, 1977 through December 31, 1977 includes 5 working days; the period from January 1, 1978 through January 4, 1978 includes 3 working days. Unless the plan adopts the alternative method for crediting service under paragraph (c)(4) of this section (illustrated in Example (iii), below) for the period of paid sick leave, the plan, pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, must credit the employee with 40 hours of service in the 1977 vesting computation period (5 days multiplied by 8 hours per day) and 24 hours of service in the 1978 vesting computation period (3 days multiplied by 8 hours per day).
</P>
<P>(iii) Same facts as in Example (ii), above, except that the plan adopts the practice of crediting hours of service for sick leave and other periods of compensated absences to the vesting computation period in which the employer's bi-weekly payroll period ends. The employee returns to work on January 5, 1978 and works for 2 days. For the 2-week payroll period ending on January 8, 1978, the employee may be credited with 80 hours of service in the 1978 vesting computation period (64 hours of service for the paid sick leave and 16 hours of service for the 2 days during which duties were performed).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other Federal law.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to alter, amend, modify, invalidate, impair or supersede any law of the United States or any rule or regulation issued under any such law. Thus, for example, nothing in this section shall be construed as denying an employee credit for an “hour of service” if credit is required by separate Federal law. Furthermore, the nature and extent of such credit shall be determined under such law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional examples.</I> (1) During a computation period, an employee was paid for working 38
<FR>1/4</FR> hours a week for 45 weeks. During the remaining 7 weeks of the computation period the employee was not employed by this employer. The employee completed 1,721
<FR>1/4</FR> hours of service (45 weeks worked multiplied by 38
<FR>1/4</FR> hours per week). The employer may also round up hours at the end of the computation period or more frequently. Thus, this employee could be credited with 1,722 hours of service (or, if the employer rounded up at the end of each week, 39 hours of service per week, resulting in credit for 1,755 hours of service).
</P>
<P>(2) During a computation period, an employee was paid for a workweek of 40 hours per week for 40 weeks and, including overtime, for working 50 hours per week for 8 weeks. The employee completed 2,000 hours of service (40 weeks multiplied by 40 hours per week, plus 8 weeks worked multiplied by 50 hours per week).
</P>
<P>(3) During a computation period an employee was paid for working 2 regularly scheduled 40-hour weeks and then became disabled. The employee was disabled through the remainder of the computation period and the following computation period. Throughout the period of disability, payments were made to the employee as follows: For the first month of the period of disability, the employer continued to pay the employee the employee's normal compensation at the same rate as before the disability occurred; thereupon, under the employer's disability insurance policy, payments were made to the employee in amounts equal to 80 percent of the employee's compensation before the disability. For the first computation period the employee is credited with 80 hours of service for the performance of duties (2 weeks multiplied by 40 hours per week) and 501 hours hours of service for the period of disability (the lesser of 501 hours of service or 50 weeks multiplied by 40 hours per week), or a total of 581 hours of service; for the second computation period the employee is credited with no hours of service because, under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the maximum of 501 hours of service has been credited for the period of disability in the first computation period.
</P>
<P>(4) An employee has a regularly scheduled 5-day, 40-hour week. During a computation period the employee works for the first week, spends the second week on a paid vacation, returns to work for an hour and is then disabled for the remainder of the computation period. Payments under a disability plan maintained by the employer are made to the employee on account of the period of disability. The employee is credited with 582 hours of service for the computation period (40 hours for the period of paid vacation; 41 hours for the performance of duties; 501 hours for the period of disability).
</P>
<P>(5) Same facts as in Example (4), above, except that the employee's period of disability begins before the employee returns from vacation to the performance of duties. The employee is credited with only 541 hours of service, because the paid vacation and the disability together constitute a single, continuous period during which no duties were performed and, therefore, under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, no more than 501 hours of service are required to be credited for such period.
</P>
<P>(6) During a computation period, an employee worked 40 hours a week for the first 2 weeks. The employee then began serving on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States, which service occupied the remaining 50 weeks of the computation period. The employee would be credited with 80 hours (2 weeks worked multiplied by 40 hours) plus such credit as may be prescribed by separate Federal laws relating to military service. The nature and extent of the credit that the employee receives upon his return and the purpose for which such credit is given, e.g., the percentage of his or her accrued benefits derived from employer contributions which are nonforfeitable (or vested), will depend upon the interpretation of the Federal law governing veterans' reemployment rights.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan document.</I> A plan which credits service on the basis of hours of service must state in the plan document the definition of hours of service set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, but is not required to state the rules set forth in paragraph (b) and (c) of this section if they are incorporated by reference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200b-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200b-3   Determination of service to be credited to employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> For the purpose of determining the hours of service which must be credited to an employee for a computation period, a plan shall determine hours of service from records of hours worked and hours for which payment is made or due or shall use an equivalency permitted under paragraph (d), (e) or (f) of this section to determine hours of service. Any records may be used to determine hours of service to be credited to employees under a plan, even though such records are maintained for other purposes, provided that they accurately reflect the actual number of hours of service with which an employee is required to be credited under § 2530.200b-2(a). Payroll records, for example, may provide sufficiently accurate data to serve as a basis for determining hours of service. If, however, existing records do not accurately reflect the actual number of hours of service with which an employee is entitled to be credited, a plan must either develop and maintain adequate records or use one of the permitted equivalencies. A plan may in any case credit hours of service under any method which results in the crediting of no less than the actual number of hours of service required to be credited under § 2530.200b-2(a) to each employee in a computation period, even though such method may result in the crediting of hours of service in excess of the number of hours required to be credited under § 2530.200b-2. A plan is not required to prescribe in its documents which records are to be used to determine hours of service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of pre-effective date hours of service.</I> To the extent that a plan is required to determine hours of service completed before the effective date of part 2 of title I of the Act (see section 211 of the Act), the plan may use whatever records may be reasonably accessible to it and may make whatever calculations are necessary to determine the approximate number of hours of service completed before such effective date. For example, if a plan or an employer maintaining the plan has, or has access to, only the records of compensation of employees for the period before the effective date, it may derive the pre-effective date hours of service by using the hourly rate for the period or the hours customarily worked. If accessible records are insufficient to make an approximation of the number of pre-effective date hours of service for a particular employee or group of employees, the plan may make a reasonable estimate of the hours of service completed by such employee or employees during the particular period. For example, if records are available with respect to some employees, the plan may estimate the hours of other employees in the same job classification based on these records. A plan may use any of the equivalencies permitted under this section, or the elapsed time method of crediting service permitted under this section, or the elapsed time method of crediting service permitted under § 2530.200b-9, to determine hours of service completed before the effective date of part 2 of title I of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of equivalencies for determining service to be credited to employees.</I> (1) The equivalencies permitted under paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this section are methods of determining service to be credited to employees during computation periods which are alternatives to the general rule for determining hours of service set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. The equivalencies are designed to enable a plan to determine the amount of service to be credited to an employee in a computation period on the basis of records which do not accurately reflect the actual number of hours of service required to be credited to the employee under § 2530.200b-2(a). However, the equivalencies may be used even if such records are maintained. Any equivalency used by a plan must be set forth in the document under which the plan is maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) A plan may use different methods of crediting service, including equivalencies permitted under paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this section and the method of crediting service under the general rule set forth in § 2530.200b-2(a), for different classifications of employees covered under the plan or for different purposes, provided that such classifications are reasonable and are consistently applied. Thus, for example, a plan may provide that part-time employees are credited under the general method of crediting service set forth in § 2530.200b-2 and full-time employees are credited under a permissible equivalency. A classification, however, will not be deemed to be reasonable or consistently applied if such classification is designed with an intent to preclude an employee or employees from attaining statutory entitlement with respect to eligibility to participate, vesting or benefit accrual. For example, a classification applied so that any employee credited with less than 1,000 hours of service during a given 12-consecutive-month period would be considered part-time and subject to the general method of crediting service rather than an equivalency would not be reasonable.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, the use of a permissible equivalency for some, but not all, purposes or the use of a permissible equivalency for some, but not all, employees may, under certain circumstances, result in discrimination prohibited under section 401a of the Code, even though it is permitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Equivalencies based on working time</I>—(1) <I>Hours worked.</I> A plan may determine service to be credited to an employee on the basis of hours worked, as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, if 870 hours worked are treated as equivalent to 1,000 hours of service and 435 hours worked are treated as equivalent to 500 hours of service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regular time hours.</I> A plan may determine service to be credited to an employee on the basis of regular time hours, as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, if 750 regular time hours are treated as equivalent to 1,000 hours of service and 375 regular time hours are treated as equivalent to 500 hours of service.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The term “hours worked” shall mean hours of service described in § 2530.200b-2(a)(1), and hours for which back pay, irrespective of mitigation of damages, is awarded or agreed to by an employer, to the extent that such award or agreement is intended to compensate an employee for periods during which the employee would have been engaged in the performance of duties for the employer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “regular time hours” shall mean hours worked, except hours for which a premium rate is paid because such hours are in excess of the maximum workweek applicable to an employee under section 7(a) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended, or because such hours are in excess of a bona fide standard workweek or workday.
</P>
<P>(4) A plan determining service to be credited to an employee on the basis of hours worked or regular time hours shall credit hours worked or regular time hours, as the case may be, to computation periods in accordance with the rules for crediting hours of service to computation periods set forth in § 2530.200b-2(c).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples.</I> (i) A defined benefit plan uses the equivalency based on hours worked permitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The plan uses the same 12-consecutive-month period for the vesting and accrual computation periods. The plan credits a participant with each hour for which the participant is paid, or entitled to payment, for the performance of duties for the employer during a computation period (as well as each hour for which back pay is awarded or agreed to). During a vesting/accrual computation period Participant A is credited with 870 hours worked. A is credited with a year of service for purposes of vesting for the computation period and with at least a partial year of participation for purposes of accrual, as if A had been credited with 1000 hours of service during the computation period. During the same computation period Participant B is credited with 436 hours of service. B is not credited with a year of service for purposes of vesting or a partial year or paritcipation for purposes of accrual for the computation period, but does not incur a one-year break in service for the computation period, as if B had been credited with 501 hours of service during the computation period.
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan uses the equivalency based on regular time hours permitted under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. During a computation period a participant works 370 regular time hours and 20 overtime hours. The participant incurs a one-year break in service for the computation period because he has not been credited with 375 regular time hours in the computation period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equivalencies based on periods of employment.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(4) and (6) of this section, a plan may determine the number of hours of service to be credited to employees in a computation period on the following bases:
</P>
<P>(i) On the basis of days of employment, if an employee is credited with 10 hours of service for each day for which the employee would be required to be credited with at least one hour of service under § 2530.200b-2;
</P>
<P>(ii) On the basis of weeks of employment, if an employee is credited with 45 hours of service for each week for which the employee would be required to be credited with at least one hour of service under § 2530.200b-2;
</P>
<P>(iii) On the basis of semi-monthly payroll periods, if an employee is credited with 95 hours of service for each semi-monthly payroll period for which the employee would be required to be credited with at least one hour of service under § 2530.200b-2; or
</P>
<P>(iv) On the basis of months of employment, if an employee is credited with 190 hours of service for each month for which the employee would be required to be credited with at least one hour of service under § 2530.200 b-2.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(4) and (6) of this section, a plan may determine the number of hours of service to be credited to employees in a computation period on the basis of shifts if an employee is credited with the number of hours included in a shift for each shift for which the employee would be required to be credited with at least one hour of service under § 2530.200b-2. if a plan uses the equivalency based on shifts permitted under this paragraph, the times of the beginning and end of each shift used as a basis for the determination of service shall be set forth in a document referred to in the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(i) A plan uses the equivalency based on weeks of employment permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section. An employee works for one hour on the first workday of a week and then takes leave without pay for the entire remainder of the week. The plan must credit the employee with 45 hours of service for the week.
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan uses the equivalency based on weeks of employment permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section. An employee spends a week on vacation with pay. The plan must credit the employee with 45 hours of service for the week.
</P>
<P>(iii) A plan uses the equivalency based on weeks of employment permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section. An employee spends two days of a week on vacation with pay and the remainder of the week on leave without pay. The plan must credit the employee with 45 hours of service for the week.
</P>
<P>(iv) A plan uses the equivalency based on weeks of employment permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section. An employee spends the entire week on leave without pay. The plan is not required to credit the employee with any hours of service for the week because no payment was made to the employee for the week of leave and, therefore, under § 2530.200b-2 no hours of service would be credited to the employee for the week of leave.
</P>
<P>(v) The workday of an employer maintaining a plan is scheduled in shifts. Ordinarily, each shift is 6 hours in duration. At certain times, however, the employer schedules 8-hour shifts in order to meet increased demand. Such shifts are described in a collective bargaining agreement referred to in the plan documents. The plan must credit an employee with 6 hours of service for each 6-hour shift for which the employee would be credited with one hour of service under § 2530.200b-2, and with 8 hours of service for each such 8-hour shift.
</P>
<P>(vi) An employer's workday is divided into three 8-hour shifts, each employee generally working 5 shifts per week. A plan maintained by the employer uses the equivalency based on shifts permitted under paragraph (e)(2) of this section. An employee is on vacation with pay for 2 weeks, during which, in the ordinary course of his work schedule, he would have worked 10 shifts. The employee must be credited with 80 hours of service for the vacation (10 shifts multiplied by 8 hours per shift).
</P>
<P>(vii) An employer's workday is divided into three 8-hour shifts, each employee generally working 1 shift per workday. A plan maintained by the employer uses the equivalency based on shifts permitted under paragraph (e)(2) of this section. On a certain day, an employee works his normal 8-hour shift and an hour during the following shift. In addition to 8 hours service for the first shift, the employee must be credited with 8 hours of service for the following shift, since he would be entitled to be credited with at least one hour of service for the second shift under § 2530.200b-2.
</P>
<P>(viii) A plan uses the equivalency based on days permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section. During a computation period an employee spends 2 weeks on vacation with pay. In the ordinary course of the employee's regular work schedule, the employee would be engaged in the performance of duties for 10 days during the 2-week vacation period. Under § 2530.200b-2, the employee would be credited with at least one hour of service for each of the 10 days during the 2-week vacation for which the employee would ordinarily be engaged in the performance of duties. Under paragraph (e)(4) of this section, the employee is credited with 100 hours of service for the 2-week vacation (10 days multiplied by 10 hours of service per day).
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph, in the case of a payment described in § 2530.200b-2(b)(2) (relating to payments not calculated on the basis of units of time), a plan using an equivalency based on units of time permitted under this paragraph shall credit the employee with the number of hours of service determined under paragraph (2) of § 2530.200b-2(b), and, to the extent applicable, paragraph (e)(3), containing the rule against double crediting, of § 2530.200b-2(b). For example, if an employee with a regular work schedule of 40 hours per week paid at a rate of $3.00 per hour is incapacitated for a period of 4 weeks and receives a lump sum payment of $500 for his incapacity, the employee must be credited with 160 hours of service for the period of incapacity, regardless of whether the plan uses an equivalency permitted under this paragraph (<I>see</I> example at § 2530.200b-2(b)(2)(iii)(A). If, however, the employee is incapacitated for only 3 weeks, under § 2530.200b-2(b)(3) the emmployee is not required to be credited with more than 120 hours of service (lesser of 167 hours of service determined under the preceding sentence or 3 weeks multiplied by 40 hours per week).
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of this paragraph, in the case of a payment to an employee calculated on the basis of units of time which are greater than the periods of employment used by a plan as a basis for determining service to be credited to the employee under this paragraph, the plan shall credit the employee with the number of periods of employment which, in the course of the employee's regular work schedule, would be included in the unit or units of time on the basis of which the payment is calculated. For example, a plan uses the equivalency based on days permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section. During a computation period an employee spends 2 weeks on vacation with pay. In the ordinary course of the employee's regular work schedule, the employee would be engaged in the performance of duties for 10 days during the 2-week vacation period. Under § 2530.200b-2, the emplopyee would be credited with at least one hour of service for each of the 10 days during the 2-week vacation for which the employee would ordinarily be engaged in the performance of duties. Under this paragraph the employee is credited with 100 hours of service for the 2-week vacation (10 days multiplied by 10 hours of service per day). If, however, the employee, although paid for a 2-week vacation, spends only one week on vacation, under § 2530.200b-2(b)(3) the employee is not required to be credited with more than 50 hours of service (5 days multiplied by 10 hours per day).
</P>
<P>(6) For purposes of this paragraph, in the case of periods of time used as a basis for determining service to be credited to an employee which extend into two computation periods, the plan may credit all hours of service (or other units of service) credited for such a period to the first computation period or the second computation period, or may allocate such hours of service (or other units of service) between the two computation periods on a pro rata basis. Crediting of service under this paragraph must be done consistently with respect to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(7) A plan may combine an equivalency based on working time permitted under paragraph (d) of this section (<I>i.e.</I>, hours worked or regular time hours) with an equivalency based on periods of employment permitted under this paragraph if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The plan credits an employee with the number of hours worked or regular time hours, as the case may be, equal to the number of hours of service which would be credited to the employee under paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, for each period of employment for which the employee would be credited with one hour worked or one regular time hour; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan treats hours worked and regular time hours in the manner prescribed under paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Example.</I> The following example illustrates the application of paragraph (e)(7) of this section. A plan uses the equivalency based on weeks of employment permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section in conjunction with the equivalency based on hours worked permitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, as provided in paragraph (e)(7) of this section. During a vesting computation period an employee is paid for the performance of duties for at least 1 hour in each of the first 20 weeks of the computation period and spends the next 2 weeks on a paid vacation. The employee thereupon terminates employment performing no further duties for the employer, and receiving no further compensation in the computation period. The employee is therefore credited with 900 hours worked for the vesting computation period (20 weeks multiplied by 45 hours per week), receiving no credit for the two weeks of paid vacation. The employee is credited with a year of service for the vesting computation period because he has been credited with more than 870 hours for the computation period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equivalencies based on earnings.</I> (1) In the case of an employee whose compensation is determined on the basis of an hourly rate, a plan may determine the number of hours to be credited the employee in a computation period on the basis of earnings, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee is credited with the number of hours equal to the total of the employee's earnings from time to time during the computation period divided by the employee's hourly rate as in effect at such times during the computation period, or equal to the employee's total earnings for the performance of duties during the computation period divided by the employee's lowest hourly rate of compensation during the computation period, or by the lowest hourly rate of compensation payable to an employee in the same, or a similar job classification, reasonably defined; and
</P>
<P>(ii) 870 hours credited under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section are treated as equivalent to 1,000 hours of service, and 435 hours credited under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section are treated as equivalent to 500 hours of service.
</P>
<FP>For purposes of this paragraph (f)(1), a plan may divide earnings at premium rates for overtime by the employee's hourly rate for overtime, rather than the regular time hourly rate.
</FP>
<P>(2) In the case of an employee whose compensation is determined on a basis other than an hourly rate, a plan may determine the number of hours to be credited to the employee in a computation period on the basis of earnings if:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee is credited with the number of hours equal to the employee's total earnings for the performance of duties during the computation period divided by the employee's lowest hourly rate of compensation during the computation period, determined under paragraph (f)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) 750 hours credited under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section are treated as equivalent to 1,000 hours of service, and 375 hours credited under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section are treated as equivalent to 500 hours of service.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, an employee's hourly rate of compensation shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an employee whose compensation is determined on the basis of a fixed rate for a specified period of time (other than an hour) such as a day, week or month, the employee's hourly rate of compensation shall be the employee's lowest rate of compensation during a computation period for such specified period of time divided by the number of hours regularly scheduled for the performance of duties during such period of time. For purposes of the preceding sentence, in the case of an employee without a regular work schedule, the plan may provide for the calculation of the employee's hourly rate of compensation on the basis of a 40-hour workweek or an 8-hour workday, or may provide for such calculation on any reasonable basis which reflects the average hours worked by the employee over a representative period of time, provided that the basis so used is consistently applied to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an employee whose compensation is not determined on the basis of a fixed rate for a specified period of time, the employee's hourly rate of compensation shall be the lowest hourly rate of compensation payable to employees in the same job classification as the employee, or, if no employees in the same job classification have an hourly rate, the minimum wage as established from time to time under section 6(a)(1) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> (i) In a particular job classification employees' wages range from $3.00 per hour to $4.00 per hour. To determine the number of hours to be credited to an employee in that job classification who is compensated at a rate of $4.00 per hour, a plan may divide the employee's total earnings during the computation period for the performance of duties either by $3.00 per hour (the lowest hourly rate of compensation in the job classification) or by $4.00 per hour (the employee's own hourly rate of compensation).
</P>
<P>(ii) An hourly employee's total earnings for the performance of duties during a vesting computation period amount to $4,350. During that calendar year, the employee's lowest hourly rate of compensation was $5.00 per hour. The plan may determine the number of hours to be credited to the employee for that vesting computation period by dividing $4,350 by $5.00 per hour. The employee is credited with 870 hours for the vesting computation period and is, therefore, credited with a year of service for purposes of vesting.
</P>
<P>(iii) During the first 3 months of a vesting computation period an hourly employee is paid at a rate of $3.00 per hour and earns $675 for the performance of duties; during the next 6 months, the employee is paid at a rate of $3.50 per hour and earns $1,575 for the performance of duties; during the final 3 months the employee is paid at a rate of $3.60 per hour and earns $810 for the performance of duties. The plan may determine the number of hours to be credited to the employee in the computation period under the equivalency set forth in paragraph (f)(1) of this section either (A) by dividing the employee's earnings for each period during which the employee was paid at a separate rate ($675 divided by $3.00 per hour equals 225 hours; $1,575 divided by $3.50 per hour equals 450 hours; $810 divided by $3.60 per hour equals 225 hours) and adding the hours so obtained (900 hours), or (B) by dividing the employee's total compensation for the vesting computation period by the employee's lowest hourly rate during the computation period ($3,020 divided by $3.00 per hour equals 1,009
<FR>2/3</FR> hours). The plan may also divide the employee's total compensation during the computation period by the lowest hourly rate payable to an employee in the same, or a similar, job classification.
</P>
<P>(iv) During a plan's computation period an hourly employee's total earnings for the performance of duties consist of $7,500 at a basic rate of $5.00 per hour and $750 at an overtime rate of $7.50 per hour for hours worked in excess of 40 in a week. If the plan uses the equivalency permitted under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the plan may adjust for the overtime rate in calculating the number of hours to be credited to the employee. Thus, the plan may calculate the number of hours to be credited to the employee by adding the employee's earnings at the basic rate divided by the basic rate and the employee's earnings at the overtime rate divided by the overtime rate ($7,500 divided by $5.00 per hour, plus $750 divided by $7.50 per hour, or 1,500 hours plus 100 hours), resulting in credit for 1,600 hours for the computation period.
</P>
<P>(v) During a plan's vesting computation period an employee's lowest weekly rate of compensation is $400 per week. The employee has a regular work schedule of 40 hours per week. The employee's lowest hourly rate during the vesting computation period is, therefore, $10 per hour ($400 per week divided by 40 hours per week). During the vesting computation period, the employee receives a total of $7,500 for the performance of duties. The plan determines the number of regular time hours to be credited to the employee for the computation period by dividing $7,500 by $10 per hour. The employee is credited with 750 hours for the computation period and is, therefore, credited with a year of service for purposes of vesting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200b-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200b-4   One-year break in service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Computation period.</I> (1) Under sections 202(b) and 203(b)(3) of the Act and sections 410(a)(5) and 411(a)(6) of the Code, a plan may provide that an employee incurs a one-year break in service for a computation period or periods if the employee fails to complete more than 500 hours of service or, in the case of any maritime industry, 62 days of service in such period or periods.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 202(b) of the Act and section 410(a)(5) of the Code, relating to one-year breaks in service for eligibility to participate, in determining whether an employee incurs a one-year break in service, a plan shall use the eligibility computation period designated under § 2530.202-2(b) for measuring years of service after the intital eligibility computation period.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of section 203(b)(3) of the Act and section 411(a)(6) of the Code, relating to breaks in service for purposes of vesting, in determining whether an employee incurs a one-year break in service, a plan shall use the vesting computation period designated under § 2530.203-2(a).
</P>
<P>(4) For rules regarding service which is not required to be taken into account for purposes of benefit accrual, see § 2530.204-1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service following a break in service.</I> (1) For purposes of section 202(b)(3) of the Act and section 410(a)(5)(C) of the Code (relating to completion of a year of service for eligibility to participate after a one-year break in service), the following rules shall be applied in measuring completion of a year of service upon an employee's return after a one-year break in service:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a plan which, after the initial eligibility computation period, measures years of service for purposes of eligibility to participate on the basis of eligibility computation periods beginning on anniversaries of an employee's employment commencement date, as permitted under § 2530.202-2(b)(1), the plan shall use the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on an employee's reemployment commencement date (as defined in paragraphs (b)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section) and, where necessary, subsequent 12-consecutive-month periods beginning on anniversaries of the reemployment of commencement date.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a plan which, after the initial eligibility computation period, measures years of service for eligibility to participate on the basis of plan years beginning with the plan year which includes the first anniversary of the initial eligibility computation period, as permitted under § 2530.202-2(b)(2), the plan shall use the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on an employee's reemployment commencement date (as defined in paragraphs (b)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section and, where necessary, plan years beginning with the plan year which includes the first anniversary of the employee's reemployment commencement date.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, an employee's reemployment commencement date shall be the first day on which the employee is entitled to be credited with an hour of service described in § 2530.200b-2(a)(1) after the first eligibility computation period in which the employee incurs a one-year break in service following an eligibility computation period in which the employee is credited with more than 500 hours of service.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of an employee who is credited with no hours of service in an eligibility computation period beginning after the employee's reemployment commencement date established under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, the employee shall be treated as having a new reemployment commencement date as of the first day on which the employee is entitled to be credited with an hour of service described in § 2530.200b-2(a)(1) after such eligibility computation period.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 203(b)(3)(B) of the Act and section 411(a)(6)(B) of the Code (relating to the completion of a year of service for vesting following a one-year break in service), in measuring completion of a year of service upon an employee's return after a one-year break in service, a plan shall use the vesting computation period designated under § 2530.203-2. In the case of a plan which designates a separate vesting computation period for each employee (rather than one vesting computation period for all employees), when an employee who has incurred a one-year break in service later completes an initial hour of service, the plan may change the employee's vesting computation period to a 12-consecutive-month period beginning on the day on which such initial hour of service is completed, provided that the plan follows the rules for changing the vesting computation period set forth in § 2530.203-2(c)(1). Specifically, such a plan must ensure that as a result of the change of the vesting computation period of an employee who has incurred a one-year break in service to the 12-month period beginning on the first day on which the employee later completes an initial hour of service, the employee's vested percentage of the accrued benefit derived from employer contributions will not be less on any date after the change than such nonforfeitable percentage would be in the absence of the change. As under § 2530.203-2(c)(1), the plan will be deemed to satisfy the requirement of that paragraph if, in the case of an employee who has incurred a one-year break in service, the vesting computation period beginning on the day on which the employee completes an hour of service after the one-year break in service begins before the end of the last vesting computation period established before the change of vesting computation periods and, if the employee is credited with 1000 hours of service in both such vesting computation periods, the employee is credited with 2 years of service for purposes of vesting. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of section 203(b)(3)(B) of the Act and section 411(a)(6)(B) of the Code (relating to the completion of a year of service for vesting following a one-year break in service), in measuring completion of a year of service upon an employee's return after a one-year break in service, a plan shall use the vesting computation period designated under § 2530.203-2. In the case of a plan which designates a separate vesting computation period for each employee (rather than one vesting computation period for all employees), when an employee who has incurred a one-year break in service later completes an initial hour of service, the plan may change the employee's vesting computation period to a 12-consecutive-month period beginning on the day on which such initial hour of service is completed, provided that the plan follows the rules for changing the vesting computation period set forth in § 2530.203-2(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> (i) Employer X maintains a pension plan. The plan uses a calendar year vesting computation period and plan year. As conditions for participation, the plan requires that an employee of X complete one year of service and attain age 25, and, in accordance with § 2530.202-2(b)(2), provides that after the initial eligibility computation period, plan years will be used as eligibility computation periods, beginning with the plan year which includes the first anniversary of an employee's employment commencement date. Thus, under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the plan must use plan years in measuring one-year breaks in service for eligibility to participate. The plan provides that an employee acquires a nonforfeitable right to 100 percent of the accrued benefit derived from employer contributions upon completion of 10 years of service. Under the plan, for purposes of vesting, years of service completed before an employee attains age 22 are not taken into account. The plan also provides that if an employee has incurred a one-year break in service, in computing the employee's period of service for eligibility to participate, years of service before such break will not be taken into account until the employee has completed a year of service with X after the employee's return. The plan further provides that in the case of an employee who has no vested right to an accrued benefit derived from employer contributions, years of service for purposes of eligibility to participate or vesting before a one-year break in service for eligibility or vesting (as the case may be) shall not be required to be taken into account if the number of consecutive one-year breaks in service equals or exceeds the aggregate number of such years of service before such consecutive one-year breaks in service.
</P>
<P>(A) Employee A commences employment with X on January 1, 1976 at age 30 and completes a year of service for eligibility to participate and vesting in both the 1976 and 1977 computation periods. A becomes a participant in the plan on January 1, 1977. A terminates employment with X on November 3, 1977, after completing 1,000 hours of service; completes no hours of service in 1978, incurring a one-year break in service; and is reemployed by X on June 1, 1979. A completes 800 hours of service during the remainder of 1979 and 600 hours of service from January 1, 1980 through May 31, 1980. Under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, A's reemployment commencement date is June 1, 1979. By June 1, 1980, A has completed a year of service during the eligibility computation period following his return, and receives credit for his pre-break service to the extent required under section 202 of the Act and section 410 of the Code and the regulations thereunder. The plan is not, however, required to credit A with a year of service for vesting during 1979 because he failed to complete 1,000 hours of service during that vesting computation period. If A completes 400 or more hours of service from June 1, 1980 to December 31, 1980, then A will be credited with one year of service for vesting purposes for the 1980 vesting computation period.
</P>
<P>(B) Employee B was born on February 22, 1955 and commenced employment with Employer X on July 1, 1975. B is credited with a year of service for eligibility to participate in the plan for the eligibility computation period beginning on his employment commencement date (July 1, 1975) and a year of service for eligibility and vesting for the 1976 and 1977 plan years. As of the end of the 1977 plan year, B is credited with 3 years of service for purposes of eligibility to participate, but only one year of service for purposes of vesting. Not having attained age 25, however, B is not admitted to participation in the plan upon completion of his first year of service with X. In the 1978 plan year, B fails to be credited with 500 hours of service, thereby incurring a one-year break in service. As a result of B's one-year break in service in the 1978 plan year, the year of service for vesting which was earlier credited to B for the 1977 plan year is disregarded because the one-year break in service equals the one year of service credited to B before the one-year break in service. After the end of the 1978 plan year, B does not perform an hour of service with X until February 3, 1979. February 3, 1979, therefore, is B's reemployment commencement date under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. B fails to be credited with 1,000 hours of service in the first eligibility computation period beginning on February 3, 1979, and also for the vesting computation period beginning January 1, 1979. Because, in accordance with § 2530.202-2(b)(2), the plan provides that after the initial eligibility computation period, plan years will be used as eligibility computation periods, under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section the plan must provide that, in measuring completion of a year of service for eligibility to participate after a one-year break in service, plan years beginning with the plan year which includes an employee's reemployment commencement date will be used. B is credited with 1,000 hours of service for the plan year beginning on January 1, 1980 and is therefore credited with a year of service for the 1980 plan year. Under section 202(b)(3) of the Act and section 410(a)(5)(C) of the Code, as a consequence of B's completion of a year of service in the 1980 plan year, B's service before his one-year break in service in the 1978 plan year must be taken into account for eligibility purposes. As conditions of participation, the plan requires that an employee attain age 25 and complete one year of service. Upon his completion of a year of service for the 1980 plan year, B is deemed to have met the plan's participation requirements as of February 22, 1980, his twenty-fifth birthday, because the year of service completed by B in B's eligibility computation period beginning on January 1, 1976 is taken into account for eligibility purposes. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employer Y maintains a defined benefit pension plan. The plan provides that an employee acquires a nonforfeitable right to 100 percent of the employee's accrued benefit derived from employer contributions upon completion of 10 years of service. As conditions for participation, the plan requires that an employee of Y complete one year of service and provides that if an employee has incurred a one-year break in service, in computing the employee's period of service for eligibility to participate, years of service before such break will not be taken into account until the employee has completed a year of service with Y after the employee's return. In accordance with § 2530.202-2(b)(1), the plan provides that after the initial eligibility computation period, eligibility computation periods beginning on anniversaries of an employee's employment commencement date will be used. Thus, under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the plan must use computation periods beginning on anniversaries of the employee's employment commencement date in measuring one-year breaks in service. Employee C's employment commencement date with Y is February 1, 1975, C is credited with a year of service for eligibility to participate in the eligibility computation period beginning on C's employment commencement date and meets the plan's eligibility requirements as of February 1, 1976. In accordance with the provisions of the plan, C commences participation in the plan as of July 1, 1976. C is thereafter credited with a year of service for eligibility to participate in each of the eligibility computation periods beginning on anniversaries of C's employment commencement date (February 1) in 1976, 1977, 1978 and 1979. Thus, as of February 1, 1980, C is credited with 5 years of service for eligibility to participate. In the eligibility computation period beginning on February 1, 1980, C fails to be credited with more than 500 hours of service and therefore incurs a one-year break in service. In the eligibility computation period beginning on February 1, 1981, C is not credited with an hour of service for the performance of duties until March 1, 1981. Under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, March 1, 1981 is C's reemployment commencement date. C terminates employment with Y on May 1, 1981 and fails to be credited with 1000 hours of service in the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on March 1, 1981, or with more than 500 hours of service in the eligibility computation period beginning on February 1, 1981, thereby incurring a second one-year break in service for eligibility to participate. C is credited with no hours of service in the eligibility computation period beginning on February 1, 1982, thereby incurring a third one-year break in service for eligibility to participate, and is likewise credited with no hours of service in the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on March 1, 1982, the anniversary of B's reemployment commencement date. Under paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, C must therefore be treated as having a new reemployment commencement date as of the first day following the close of the eligibility computation period beginning on February 1, 1982. On January 1, 1984 (before the end of the eligibility computation period beginning February 1, 1983) C is rehired by Y and is credited with an hour of service for the performance of duties. C is therefore treated as having a new reemployment commencement date January 1, 1984. C fails to be credited with more than 500 hours of service in the eligibility computation period beginning on February 1, 1983, thereby incurring a fourth one-year break in service, and fails to be credited with 1000 hours of service in the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on March 1, 1983, the anniversary of C's original reemployment commencement date. However, in the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on January 1, 1984, C is credited with 1000 hours of service, thus meeting the plan's requirement that an employee who has incurred a one-year break in service for eligibility to participate must complete a year of service upon the employee's return in order for years of service before the one-year break in service to be taken into account for purposes of eligibility. Because C's years of service completed before C's first one-year break in service must be taken into account under section 202(b) of the Act and section 410(b)(5) of the Code for purposes of eligibility to participate, under § 2530.204-2(a)(2) the period beginning on July 1, 1976 (the earliest date on which C was a participant) and extending until January 31, 1980 (the last day before C's first one-year break in service) must be taken into account for purposes of benefit accrual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prior service for eligibility to participate.</I> For rules relating to computing service preceding a break in service for the purpose of eligibility to participate in the plan, see § 2530.202-2(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prior service for vesting.</I> For rules relating to computing service preceding a break in service for the purpose of credit toward vesting, see § 2530.203-2(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200b-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200b-5   Seasonal industries. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200b-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200b-6   Maritime industry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Sections 202(a)(3)(D), 203(b)(2)(D) and 204(b)(3)(E) of the Act and sections 410(a)(3)(D) and 411(a)(5)(D) and (b)(3)(E) of the Code contain special provisions applicable to the maritime industry. In general, those provisions permit statutory standards otherwise expressed in terms of 1,000 hours of service to be applied to employees in the maritime industry as if such standards were expressed in terms of 125 days of service. A plan covering employees in the maritime industry may nevertheless credit service to such employees on the basis of hours of service, as prescribed in § 2530.200b-2, including the use of any equivalency permitted under § 2530.200b-3, or may credit service to such employees on the basis of elapsed time, as permitted under § 2530.200b-9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of sections 202, 203, and 204 of the Act and sections 410 and 411 of the Code, the maritime industry is that industry in which employees perform duties on board commercial, exploratory, service or other vessels moving on the high seas, inland waterways, Great Lakes, coastal zones, harbors and noncontiguous areas, or on offshore ports, platforms or other similar sites.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Computation periods.</I> For employees in the maritime industry, computation periods shall be established as for employees in any other industry.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Year of service.</I> To the extent that a plan covers employees engaged in the maritime industry, and credits service for such employees on the basis of days of service, such employees who are credited with 125 days of service in the applicable computation period must be credited with a year of service. In the case of a plan covering both employees engaged in the maritime industry and employees not engaged in the maritime industry, service of employees not engaged in the maritime industry shall not be determined on the basis of days of service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Year of participation for benefit accrual.</I> A plan covering employees engaged in the maritime industry may determine such an employee's period of service for purposes of benefit accrual on any basis permitted under §§ 2530.204-2 and 2530.204-3. For purposes of § 2530.204-2(c) (relating to partial years of participation), in the case of an employee engaged in the maritime industry who is credited by the plan on the basis of days of service and whose service is not less than 125 days of service during an accrual computation period, the calculation of such employee's period of service for purposes of benefit accrual shall be treated as not made on a reasonable and consistent basis if service during such computation period is not taken into account. Thus, the employee must be credited with at least a partial year of participation (but not necessarily a full year of participation) for that accrual computation period, in accordance with § 2530.204-2(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employment commencement date.</I> For purposes of § 2530.200b-4 (relating to breaks in service) and § 2530.202-2 (relating to eligibility computation periods):
</P>
<P>(1) The employment commencement date of an employee engaged in the maritime industry who is credited by the plan on the basis of days of service shall be the first day for which the employee is entitled to be credited with a day of service described in § 2530.200b-7(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the reemployment commencement date of an employee engaged in the maritime industry shall be the first day for which the employee is entitled to be credited with a day of service described in § 2530.200b-7(a)(1) after the first eligibility computation period in which the employee incurs a 1-year break in service following an eligibility computation period in which the employee is credited with more than 62 days of service.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an employee engaged in the maritime industry who is credited with no hours of service in an eligibility computation period beginning after the employee's reemployment commencement date established under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the employee shall be treated as having a new reemployment commencement date as of the first day for which the employee is entitled to be credited with day of service described in § 2530.200b-7(a)(1) after such eligibility computation period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200b-7" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200b-7   Day of service for employees in the maritime industry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A day of service in the maritime industry which must, as a minimum, be counted for the purposes of determining a year of service, a year of participation for benefit accrual, a break in service and an employment commencement date (or reemployment commencement date) under sections 202, 203 and 204 of the Act and sections 410 and 411 of the Code by a plan that credits service by days of service rather than hours of service (as prescribed in § 2530.200b-2, or under equivalencies permitted under § 2530.200b-3) or elapsed time (as permitted under § 2530.200b-9), is a day of service as defined in paragraphs (a)(1), (2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) A day of service is each day for which an employee is paid or entitled to payment for the performance of duties for the employer during the applicable computation period.
</P>
<P>(2) A day of service is each day for which an employee is paid, or entitled to payment, by the employer on account of a period of time during which no duties are performed (irrespective of whether the employment relationship has terminated) due to vacation, holiday, illness, incapacity (including disability), layoff, jury duty, military duty or leave of absence. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence:
</P>
<P>(i) No more than 63 days of service are required to be credited under this paragraph (a)(2) to an employee on account of any single continuous period during which the employee performs no duties (whether or not such period occurs in a single computation period);
</P>
<P>(ii) A day for which an employee is directly or indirectly paid, or entitled to payment, on account of a period during which no duties are performed is not required to be credited to the employee if such payment is made or due under a plan maintained solely for the purpose of complying with applicable workmen's compensation (including maintenance and care), or unemployment compensation or disability insurance laws; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Days of service are not required to be credited for a payment which solely reimburses an employee for medical or medically related expenses incurred by the employee.
</P>
<FP>For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), a payment shall be deemed to be made by or due from an employer regardless of whether such payment is made by or due from the employer directly, or indirectly through, among others, a trust, fund, or insurer, to which the employer contributes or pays premiums, and regardless of whether contributions made or due to the trust, fund, insurer or other entity are for the benefit of particular employees or are made on behalf of a group of employees in the aggregate.
</FP>
<P>(3) A day of service is each day for which back pay, irrespective of mitigation of damages, has been either awarded or agreed to by the employer. Days of service shall not be credited both under paragraph (a)(1) or paragraph (a)(2), as the case may be, and under this subparagraph. Thus, for example, an employee who receives a back pay award following a determination that he or she was paid at an unlawful rate for days of service previously credited will not be entitled to additional credit for the same days of service. Crediting of days of service for back pay awarded or agreed to with respect to periods described in paragraph (a)(2) shall be subject to the limitations set forth in that paragraph. For example, no more than 63 days of service are required to be credited for payments of back pay, to the extent that such back pay is agreed to or awarded for a period of time during which an employee did not or would not have performed duties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rule for determining days of service for reasons other than the performance of duties.</I> In the case of a payment which is made or due on account of a period during which an employee performs no duties, and which results in the crediting of days of service under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or, in the case of an award or agreement for back pay, to the extent that such award or agreement is made with respect to a period described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the number of days of service to be credited shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Payments calculated on the basis of units of time.</I> In the case of a payment made or due which is calculated on the basis of units of time, such as days, weeks or months, the number of days of service to be credited shall be the number of regularly scheduled working days included in the units of time on the basis of which the payment is calculated. For purposes of the preceding sentence, in the case of an employee without a regular work schedule, a plan may provide for the calculation of the number of days of service to be credited on the basis of a 5-day workweek, or may provide for such calculation on any reasonable basis which reflects the average days worked by the employee, or by other employees in the same job classification, over a representative period of time, provided that the basis so used is consistently applied with respect to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments not calculated on the basis of units of time.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, in the case of a payment made or due, which is not calculated on the basis of units of time, the number of days of service to be credited shall be equal to the amount of the payment divided by the employee's most recent daily rate of compensation before the period during which no duties are performed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rule against double credit.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, an employee is not required to be credited on account of a period during which no duties are performed with a number of days of service which is greater than the number of days regularly scheduled for the performance of duties during such period. For purposes of the preceding sentence, in the case of an employee without a regular work schedule, a plan may provide for the calculation of the number of days of service to be credited to the employee for a period during which no duties are performed on the basis of a 5-day workweek, or may provide for such calculation on any reasonable basis which reflects the average hours worked by the employee, or by other employees in the same job classification, over a representative period of time, provided that the basis so used is consistently applied with respect to all employees in the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Crediting of days of service to computation periods.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, days of service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be credited to the computation period in which the duties are performed.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, days of service described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be credited as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Days of service credited to an employee on account of a payment which is calculated on the basis of units of time, such as days, weeks or months, shall be credited to the computation period or computation periods in which the period during which no duties are performed occurs, beginning with the first unit of time to which the payment relates.
</P>
<P>(ii) Days of service credited to an employee by reason of a payment which is not calculated on the basis of units of time shall be credited to the computation period in which the period during which no duties are performed occurs, or if the period during which no duties are performed extends beyond one computation period, such hours of service shall be allocated between not more than the first two computation periods on any reasonable basis which is consistently applied with respect to all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, days of service described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall be credited to the computation period or periods to which the award or agreement for back pay pertains, rather than to the computation period in which the award, agreement or payment is made.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of days of service to be credited to an employee in connection with a period of no more than 31 days which extends beyond one computation period, all such days of service may be credited to the first computation period or the second computation period. Crediting of days of service under this paragraph must be done consistently with respect to all employees with the same job classifications, reasonably defined.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other federal law.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to alter, amend, modify, invalidate, impair or supersede any law of the United States or any rule or regulation issued under any such law. Thus, for example, nothing in this section shall be construed as denying an employee credit for a day of service if credit is required by separate federal law. Furthermore, the nature and extent of such credit shall be determined under such law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nondaily employees.</I> For maritime employees whose compensation is not determined on the basis of certain amounts for each day worked during a given period, service shall be credited on the basis of hours of service as determined in accordance with § 2530.200b-2(a) (including use of any equivalency permitted under § 2530.200b-3) or on the basis of elapsed time, as permitted under § 2530.200b-9.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan document.</I> A plan which credits service on the basis of days of service must state in the plan document the definition of days of service set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, but is not required to state the rules set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) if they are incorporated by reference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.200b-8" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.200b-8   Determination of days of service to be credited to maritime employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> For the purpose of determining the days of service which must be credited to an employee for a computation period, a plan shall determine days of service from records of days worked and days for which payment is made or due. Any records may be used to determine days of service to be credited to employees under a plan, even though such records are maintained for other purposes, provided that they accurately reflect the actual number of days of service with which an employee is required to be credited under § 2530.200b-7(a). Payroll records, for example, may provide sufficiently accurate data to serve as a basis for determining days of service. If, however, existing records do not accurately reflect the actual number of days of service with which an employee is entitled to be credited, a plan must develop and maintain adequate records. A plan may in any case credit days of service under any method which results in the crediting of no less than the actual number of days of service required to be credited under § 2530.200b-7(a) to each employee in a computation period, even though such method may result in the crediting of days of service in excess of the number of days required to be credited under § 2530.200b-7(a). A plan is not required to prescribe in its documents which records are to be used to determine days of service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of pre-effective date days of service.</I> To the extent that a plan is required to determine days of service completed before the effective date of part 2 of title I of the Act (<I>see</I> section 211 of the Act), the plan may use whatever records may be reasonably accessible to it and may make whatever calculations are necessary to determine the approximate number of hours of service completed before such effective date. For example, if a plan or an employer maintaining the plan has, or has access to, only the records of compensation of employees for the period before the effective date, it may derive the pre-effective date days of service by using the daily rate for the period or the days customarily worked. If accessible records are insufficient to make an approximation of the number of pre-effective date days of service for a particular employee or group of employees, the plan may make a reasonable estimate of the days of service completed by such employee or employees during the particular period. For example, if records are available with respect to some employees, the plan may estimate the days of service of other employees in the same job classification based on these records. A plan may use the elapsed time method prescribed under § 2530.200b-9 to determine days of service completed before the effective date of part 2 of title I of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.201-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.201-1   Coverage; general.</HEAD>
<P>Coverage of the provisions of part 2 of title I of the Act is determined under a multiple step process. First, the plan must be an employee benefit plan as defined under section 3(3) of the Act and § 2510.3-3. (See also the definitions of employee welfare benefit plan, section 3(1) of the Act and § 2510.3-1 and employe pension benefit plan, section 3(2) of the Act and § 2510.3-2). Second, the employee benefit plan must be subject to title I of the Act. Coverage for title I is specified in section 4 of the Act. Third, section 201 of the Act specifies the employee benefit plans subject to title I which are not subject to the minimum standards of part 2 of title I of the Act. Section 2530.201-2 specifies the employee benefit plans subject to title I of the Act which are exempted from coverage under part 2 of title I of the Act and this part (2530). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.201-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.201-2   Plans covered by part 2530.</HEAD>
<P>This part (2530) shall apply to any employee benefit plan described in section 4(a) of the Act (and not exempted under section 4(b)) other than—
</P>
<P>(a) An employee welfare benefit plan as defined in section 3(1) of the Act and § 2510.3-1; 
</P>
<P>(b) A plan which is unfunded and is maintained by an employer primarily for the purpose of providing deferred compensation for a select group of management or highly compensated employees; 
</P>
<P>(c) A plan established and maintained by a society, order, or association described in section 501(c)(8) or (9) of the Code, if no part of the contributions to or under such plan are made by employers of participants in such plan; 
</P>
<P>(d) A trust described in section 501(c)(18) of the Code; 
</P>
<P>(e) A plan which is established and maintained by a labor organization described in section 501(c)(5) of the Code and which does not at any time after the date of enactment of the Act provide for employer contributions; 
</P>
<P>(f) Any agreement providing payments to a retired partner or a deceased partner's successor in interest, as described in section 736 of the Code; 
</P>
<P>(g) An individual retirement account or annuity described in section 408 of the Code, or a retirement bond described in section 409 of the Code; 
</P>
<P>(h) An excess benefit plan as described in section 3(36) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Participation, Vesting and Benefit Accrual</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.202-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.202-1   Eligibility to participate; general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 202 of the Act and section 410 of the Code contain minimum participation standards relating to certain employee pension benefit plans. In general, an employee pension benefit plan may not require, as a condition of participation in the plan, that an employee complete a period of service with the employer or employers maintaining the plan in excess of limits established by section 202 of the Act and section 410 of the Code and the regulations issued thereunder. Service for this purpose is measured in units of years of service. Section 2530.202-2 sets forth rules relating to the computation periods which a plan must use to determine whether an employee has completed a year of service for purposes of eligibility to participate (“eligibility computation periods”). 
</P>
<P>(b) For rules relating to “service with the employer or employers maintaining the plan”, see § 2530.210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.202-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.202-2   Eligibility computation period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial eligibility computation period.</I> For purposes of section 202(a)(1)(A)(ii) of the Act and section 410(a)(1)(A)(ii) of the Code, the initial eligibility computation period the plan must use is the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on the employment commencement date. An employee's employment commencement date is the first day for which the employee is entitled to be credited with an hour of service described in § 2530.200b-2(a)(1) for an employer maintaining the plan. (For establishment of a reemployment commencement date following a break in service, see § 2530.200b-4(b)(1)(iii) and (iv).)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility computation periods after the initial eligibility computation period.</I> In measuring years of service for purposes of eligibility to participate after the initial eligibility computation period, a plan may adopt either of the following alternatives:
</P>
<P>(1) A plan may designate 12-consecutive-month periods beginning on the first anniversary of an employee's employment commencement date and succeeding anniversaries thereof as the eligibility computation period after the initial eligibility computation period; or
</P>
<P>(2) A plan may designate plan years beginning with the plan year which includes the first anniversary of an employee's employment commencement date as the eligibility computation period after the initial eligibility computation period (without regard to whether the employee is entitled to be credited with 1,000 hours of service during such period), provided that an employee who is credited with 1,000 hours of service in both the initial eligibility computation period and the plan year which includes the first anniversary of the employee's employment commencement date is credited with two years of service for purposes of eligibility to participate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service prior to a break in service.</I> For purposes of applying section 202(b)(4) of the Act and section 410(a)(5)(D) of the Code (relating to years of service completed prior to a break in service for purposes of eligibility to participate), the computation periods used by a plan in determining years of service before such break shall be the eligibility computation periods established in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plans with 3-year 100 percent vesting.</I> A plan which, under 202(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Act and section 410a(1)(B)(i) of the Code, requires more than one year of service for eligibility to participate in the plan shall use an initial eligibility computation period established under paragraph (a) of this section and eligibility computation periods designated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. Thus, for the eligibility computation period after the initial eligibility computation period, such a plan may designate either eligibility computation periods beginning on anniversaries of an employee's employment commencement date or plan years beginning with the plan year which includes the anniversary of the first day of the initial eligibility computation period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative eligibility computation period.</I> The following rule is designed primarily for a plan using a rec-ordkeeping system which does not permit the plan to identify an employee's employment commencement date (or, in the case of an employee who has incurred a one-year break in service, the employee's reemployment commencement date), but which does permit the plan to identify a period of no more than 31 days during which the employee's employment commencement date (or reemployment commencement date) occurred.
</P>
<P>(1) A plan may use an initial eligibility computation period (or initial computation period for measuring completion of a year of service upon an employee's return after a one-year break in service) beginning on the first day of a period of no more than 31 days during which an employee's employment commencement date (or reemployment commencement date) occurs and ending on the anniversary of the last day of such period.
</P>
<P>(2) If a plan uses an initial eligibility computation period (or initial computation period for measuring completion of a year of service upon an employee's return after a one-year break in service) permitted under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the plan shall use the following computation periods after the initial computation period:
</P>
<P>(i) If the plan does not use plan years for computation periods after the initial computation period, the plan shall use computation periods beginning on anniversaries of the first day of the initial computation period and ending on anniversaries of the last day of the initial computation period, and including a period of at least 12 consecutive months.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the plan uses plan years for computation periods after the initial computation period, the plan shall use plan years beginning with the plan year which includes the anniversary of the first day of the initial computation period.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining an employee's commencement of participation under section 202(a)(4) of the Act and section 410(a)(4) of the Code, regardless of whether an eligibility computation period permitted under this paragraph includes a period longer than 12 consecutive months, an employee who completes 1,000 hours of service in such eligibility computation period shall be treated as having satisfied the plan's service requirement for eligibility to participate as of the last day of the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on the first day of such eligibility computation period. In the case of a plan described in section 202(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Act and section 410(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Code, the requirement of the preceding sentence shall apply only with respect to the last year of service required under the plan for eligibility to participate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example.</I> A plan maintained by Employer X obtains records from X which indicate the number of hours worked by an employee during a monthly payroll period. The records do not, however, break down the number of hours worked by an employee by days. Thus, after a new employee has begun employment with X it is impossible for the plan to ascertain the employee's employment commencement date from the records furnished by X (although it is possible for the plan to determine the month during which an employee's employment commencement date occurred). For administrative convenience, in conjunction with the equivalency based on hours worked permitted under § 2530.200b-3(d)(1), and with the method of crediting hours of service to computation periods set forth in § 2530.200b-2(c)(4), the plan uses the alternative initial eligibility computation period permitted under this paragraph. The plan provides that an employee's initial eligibility computation period shall be the period beginning on the first day of the first monthly payroll period for which the employee is entitled to credit for the performance of duties and ending on the last day of the monthly payroll period which includes the anniversary of the last day of the initial monthly payroll period. This condition ensures that the initial eligibility computation period will include the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on the employee's employment commencement date and ending on the day before the anniversary of the employee's employment commencement date. If, however, an employee completes the plans requirement of one year of service for eligibility to participate (<I>i.e.</I>, completion of 870 hours worked in an eligibility computation period) in the initial eligibility computation period, the plan provides that the employee is deemed to have satisfied the plan's service requirements for eligibility to participate as of the day before the anniversary of the first day of the initial eligibility computation period. This provision ensures that no employee who has in fact completed 1000 hours of service in the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on the employee's employment commencement date will be admitted to participation later than the date specified under section 202(a)(4) of the Act and section 410(a)(4) of the Code. For example, in the case of an employee who begins employment in January 1977, the employee's initial eligibility computation period begins on January 1, 1977 and ends on January 31, 1978. If the employee completes 879 hours worked in the initial eligibility computation period, the employee is treated as having met the plan's service requirements for eligibility to participate as of December 31, 1977. If the plan provides for semi-annual entry dates of January 1 and July 1, and the employee has met any eligibility requirements of the plan other than the minimum service requirement as of December 31, 1977, the plan must provide that the employee commences participation as of January 1, 1978.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.203-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.203-1   Vesting; general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 203 of the Act and section 411(a) of the Code contain minimum vesting standards relating to certain employee pension benefit plans. In general, a pension plan subject to section 203 of the Act of section 411(a) of the Code must meet certain requirements relating to an employee's nonforfeitable (“vested”) right to his or her normal retirement benefit. One of these requirements specifies that an employee's accrued benefit derived from employer contributions must be vested in accordance with certain schedules. The schedules (or alternative minimum vesting standards) are generally based on the employee's number of years of service with the employer or employers maintaining the plan. Section 2530.203-2 sets forth rules relating to the computation periods used to determine whether an employee has completed a year of service for vesting purposes (“vesting computation periods”).
</P>
<P>(b) For rules relating to service with the employer or employers maintaining the plan, <I>see</I> § 2530.210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.203-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.203-2   Vesting computation period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of vesting computation periods.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a plan may designate any 12-consecutive-month period as the vesting computation period. The period so designated must apply equally to all participants. This requirement may be satisfied even though the actual 12-consecutive-month periods are not the same for all employees (e.g., if the designated vesting computation period is the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on an employee's employment commencement date and anniversaries of that date). The plan is prohibited, however, from using any period that would result in artificial postponement of vesting credit, such as a period meassured by anniversaries of the date four months following the employment commencement date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plans with 3-year 100 percent vesting.</I> For rules regarding when a participant has a nonforfeitable right to his accrued benefit, see section 202(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Act and section 410(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Code and regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amendments to change the vesting computation period.</I> (1) A plan may be amended to change the vesting computation period to a different 12-consecutive-month period provided that as a result of such change no employee's vested percentage of the accrued benefit derived from employer contributions is less on any date after such change than such vested percentage would be in the absence of such change. A plan amendment changing the vesting computation period shall be deemed to comply with the requirements of this subparagraph if the first vesting computation period established under such amendment begins before the last day of the preceding vesting computation period and an employee who is credited with 1,000 hours of service in both the vesting computation period under the plan before the amendment and the first vesting computation period under the plan as amended is credited with 2 years of service for those vesting computation periods. For example, a plan which has been using a calendar year vesting computation period is amended to provide for a July 1-June 30 vesting computation period starting in 1977. Employees who complete more than 1,000 hours of service in both of the 12-month periods extending from January 1, 1977 to December 31, 1977 and from July 1, 1977 to June 30, 1978 are advanced two years on the plan's vesting schedule. The plan is deemed to meet the requirements of this subparagraph.
</P>
<P>(2) For additional requirements pertaining to changes in the vesting schedule, see section 203(c)(1) of the Act and section 411(a)(10) of the Code and the regulations issued thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service preceding a break in service.</I> For purposes of applying section 203(b)(3)(D) of the Act and section 411(a)(6)(D) of the Code, (relating to counting years of service before a break in service for vesting purposes), the computation periods used by the plan in computing years of service before such break must be the vesting computation periods. (For application of the break in service rules, see section 203(b)(3)(D) and section 411(a)(6)(D) of the Code and regulations issued thereunder.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.203-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.203-3   Suspension of pension benefits upon employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 203(a)(3)(B) of the Act provides that the right to the employer-derived portion of an accrued pension benefit shall not be treated as forfeitable solely because an employee pension benefit plan provides that the payment of benefits is suspended during certain periods of reemployment which occur subsequent to the commencement of payment of such benefits. This section sets forth the circumstances and conditions under which such benefit payments may be suspended. A plan may provide for the suspension of pension benefits which commence prior to the attainment of normal retirement age, or for the suspension of that portion of pension benefits which exceeds the normal retirement benefit, or both, for any reemployment and without regard to the provisions of section 203(a)(3)(B) and this regulation to the extent (but only to the extent) that suspension of such benefits does not affect a retiree's entitlement to normal retirement benefits payable after attainment of normal retirement age, or the actuarial equivalent thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension rules</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A plan may provide for the permanent withholding of an amount which does not exceed the suspendible amount of an employee's accrued benefit for each calendar month, or for each four or five week payroll period ending in a calendar month, during which an employee is employed in “section 203(a)(3)(B) service” as described in § 2530.203-3(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Resumption of payments.</I> If benefit payments have been suspended pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, payments shall resume no later than the first day of the third calendar month after the calendar month in which the employee ceases to be employed in section 203(a)(3)(B) service: <I>Provided,</I> That the employee has complied with any reasonable procedure adopted by the plan for notifying the plan that he has ceased such employment. The initial payment upon resumption shall include the payment scheduled to occur in the calendar month when payments resume and any amounts withheld during the period between the cessation of employment and the resumption of payments, less any amounts which are subject to offset.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Offset rules.</I> A plan which provides for the permanent withholding of benefits may deduct from benefit payments to be made by the plan payments previously made by the plan during those calendar months or pay periods in which the employee was employed in section 203(a)(3)(B) service, <I>Provided,</I> That such deduction or offset does not exceed in any one month 25 percent of that month's total benefit payment which would have been due but for the offset (excluding the initial payment described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, which may be subject to offset without limitation).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notification.</I> No payment shall be withheld by a plan pursuant to this section unless the plan notifies the employee by personal delivery or first class mail during the first calendar month or payroll period in which the plan withholds payments that his benefits are suspended. Such notification shall contain a description of the specific reasons why benefit payments are being suspended, a general description of the plan provisions relating to the suspension of payments, a copy of such provisions, and a statement to the effect that applicable Department of Labor regulations may be found in § 2530.203-3 of the Code of Federal Regulations. In addition, the suspension notification shall inform the employee of the plan's procedure for affording a review of the suspension of benefits. Requests for such reviews may be considered in accordance with the claims procedure adopted by the plan pursuant to section 503 of the Act and applicable regulations. In the case of a plan which requires the filing of a benefit resumption notice as a condition precedent to the resumption of benefits, the suspension notification shall also describe the procedure for filing such notice and include the forms (if any) which must be filed. Furthermore, if a plan intends to offset any suspendible amounts actually paid during the periods of employment in section 203(a)(3)(B) service, the notification shall identify specifically the periods of employment, the suspendible amounts which are subject to offset, and the manner in which the plan intends to offset such suspendible amounts. Where the plan's summary plan description (SPD) contains information which is substantially the same as information required by this paragraph (b)(4), the suspension notification may refer the employee to relevant pages of the SPD for information as to a particular item, provided the employee is informed how to obtain a copy of the SPD, or relevant pages thereof, and provided requests for referenced information are honored within a reasonable period of time, not to exceed 30 days.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Verification.</I> A plan may provide that an employee must notify the plan of any employment. A plan may request from an employee access to reasonable information for the purpose of verifying such employment. Furthermore, a plan may provide that an employee must, at such time and with such frequency as may be reasonable, as a condition to receiving future benefit payments, either certify that he is unemployed or provide factual information sufficient to establish that any employment does not constitute section 203(a)(3)(B) service if specifically requested by the plan administrator. Once an employee has furnished the required certification or information, the plan must forward, at the next regularly scheduled time for payment of benefits, all payments which had been withheld pursuant to this paragraph (b)(5) except to the extent that payments may be withheld and offset pursuant to other provisions of this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Status determination.</I> If a plan provides for benefits suspension, the plan shall adopt a procedure, and so inform employees, whereunder an employee may request, and the plan administrator in a reasonable amount of time will render, a determination of whether specific contemplated employment will be section 203(a)(3)(B) service for purposes of plan provisions concerning suspension of benefits. Requests for status determinations may be considered in accordance with the claims procedure adopted by the plan pursuant to section 503 of the Act and applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Presumptions.</I> (i) A plan which has adopted verification requirements described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, and which complies with the notice requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section may provide that whenever the plan fiduciaries become aware that a retiree is employed in section 203(a)(3)(B) service and the retiree has not complied with the plan's reporting requirements with regard to that employment, the plan fiduciaries may, unless it is unreasonable under the circumstances to do so, act on the basis of a rebuttable presumption that the retiree had worked a period exceeding the plan's minimum number of hours for that month. In addition, a plan covering persons employed in the building trades which has adopted verification requirements described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section and which complies with the notice requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section may provide that whenever the plan fiduciaries become aware that a retiree is employed in section 203(a)(3)(B) service at a construction site and the retiree has not complied with the plan's reporting requirements with regard to that employment, then the plan fiduciaries may, unless it is unreasonable under the circumstances to do so, act on the basis of a rebuttable presumption that the retiree engaged in such employment for the same employer in work at that site for so long before the work in question as that same employer performed that work at that construction site.
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan which provides for a presumption described in paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section may employ such presumption only if the following requirements are met. The plan must describe its employment verification requirements and the nature and effect of such presumption in the plan's summary plan description and in any communication to plan participants which relates to such verification requirements (for example, employment reporting reminders or forms), and retirees must be furnished such disclosure, whether through receipt of the above communications or by special distribution, at least once every 12 months.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Section 202(a)(3)(B) service</I>—(1) <I>Plans other than multiemployer plans.</I> In the case of a plan other than a multi-employer plan, as defined in section 3(37) of the Act, the employment of an employee, subsequent to the time the payment of benefits commenced or would have commenced if the employee had not remained in or returned to employment, results in section 203(a)(3)(B) service during a calendar month, or during a four or five week payroll period ending in a calendar month, if the employee, in such month or payroll period, 
</P>
<P>(i) Completes 40 or more hours of service (as defined in 29 CFR 2530.200b-2(a)(1) and (2)) for an employer which maintains the plan, including employers described in § 2530.210 (d) and (e), as of the time that the payment of benefits commenced or would have commenced if the employee had not remained in or returned to employment; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Receives from such employer payment for any such hours of service performed on each of 8 or more days (or separate work shifts) in such month or payroll period, <I>Provided,</I> That the plan has not for any purpose determined or used the actual number of hours of service which would be required to be credited to the employee under § 2530.200b-(2)(a). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiemployer plans.</I> In the case of a multiemployer plan, as defined in section 3(37) of the Act, the employment of an employee subsequent to the time the payment of benefits commenced or would have commenced if the employee had not remained in or returned to employment results in section 203(a)(3)(B) service during a calendar month, or during a four or five week payroll period ending in a calendar month, if the employee, in such month or payroll period:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>—Completes 40 or more hours of service (as defined in § 2530.200b-2(a)(1) and (2)) or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Receives payment for any such hours of service performed on each of 8 or more days (or separate work shifts) in such month or payroll period, <I>Provided,</I> That the plan has not for any purpose determined or used the actual number of hours of service which would be required to be credited to the employee under § 2530.200(b)-(2)(a); in
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—An industry in which employees covered by the plan were employed and accrued benefits under the plan as a result of such employment at the time that the payment of benefits commenced or would have commenced if the employee had not remained in or returned to employment, and 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—A trade or craft in which the employee was employed at any time under the plan, and
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—The geographic area covered by the plan at the time that the payment of benefits commenced or would have commenced if the employee had not remained in or returned to employment.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(i) <I>Industry.</I> The term “industry” means the business activities of the types engaged in by any employers maintaining the plan.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>One of the employers contributing to a multiemployer plan engages in heavy construction, another in textile manufacturing, and another in communications. Employee E began his career as an employee of an employer engaged in heavy construction. Later E was employed by an employer in communications. With both employers, E accrued benefits under the plan. If E retires and then becomes reemployed in the same trade or craft and in the same geographic area, employment by E in either heavy construction, communications or textile manufacturing, whether or not with an employer who contributes to the plan or in a self-employed capacity, may be considered by the plan to be employment in the same industry, assuming that employees covered by the plan were accruing benefits as a result of employment in these industries at the time E commenced receiving benefits. This is true even though E did not previously accrue benefits as a result of employment with an employer engaged in textile manufacturing because other employees covered by the plan were employed in that industry and were accruing benefits under the plan as a result of such employment at the time when benefit payments to E commenced or would have commenced if E had not returned to employment.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(ii) <I>Trade or craft.</I> A trade or craft is (A) a skill or skills, learned during a significant period of training or practice, which is applicable in occupations in some industry, (B) a skill or skills relating to selling, retailing, managerial, clerical or professional occupations, or (C) supervisory activities relating to a skill or skills described in (A) or (B) of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii), the determination whether a particular job classification, job description or industrial occupation constitutes or is included in a trade or craft shall be based upon the facts and circumstances of each case. Factors which may be examined include whether there is a customary and substantial period of practical, on-the-job training or a period of related supplementary instruction. Notwithstanding any other factor, the registration of an apprenticeship program with the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training of the Employment Training Administration of the U.S. Department of Labor is sufficient for the conclusion that a skill or skills which is the subject of the apprenticeship program constitutes a trade or craft.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>Participation in a multiemployer plan is limited solely to electricians. Electrician E retired and then became reemployed as a foreman of electricians. Because a “trade or craft” includes related supervisory activities, E remains within his trade or craft for purposes of this section.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(iii) <I>Geographic area covered by the plan.</I> (A) With the exception of a plan covering employees in a maritime industry, the “geographic area covered by the plan” consists of any state or any province of Canada in which contributions were made or were required to be made by or on behalf of an employer and the remainder of any Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA) which falls in part within such state, determined as of the time that the payment of benefits commenced or would have commenced if the employee had not returned to employment.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>A multiemployer plan covers plumbers in Pennsylvania. All contributing employers have always been located within Pennsylvania. Accordingly, the “geographic area covered by the plan” consists of Pennsylvania and any SMSAs which fall in part within Pennsylvania. Thus, for example, in the case of the Philadelphia SMSA, Burlington, Camden and Gloucester Counties in New Jersey are within the “geographic area covered by the plan”.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(B) [Reserved—for definition of the geographic area covered by a plan that covers employees in a maritime industry.]
</P>
<FP>For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iii), contributions shall not include amounts contributed: After December 31, 1978 by or on hehalf of an employer where no contributions were made by or on behalf of that employer before that date, if the primary purpose of such contribution is to allow for the suspension of plan benefits in a geographic area not otherwise covered by the plan; or with respect to isolated projects performed in states where plan participants were not otherwise employed.
</FP>
<P>(3) <I>Employment in a maritime industry.</I> For plans covering employees employed in a maritime industry, as defined in § 2530.200b-6, the standard of “five or more days of service, as defined in § 2530.200b-7(a)(1)” shall be used in lieu of the standard “40 or more hours of service”, for purposes of determining whether an employee is employed in section 203(a)(3)(B) service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspendable amount</I>—(1) <I>Life annuity.</I> In the case of benefits payable periodically on a monthly basis for as long as a life (or lives) continues, such as a straight life annuity or a qualified joint and survivor annuity, a plan may provide that an amount not greater than the portion of a monthly benefit payment derived from employer contributions may be withheld permanently for a calendar month, or for a four or five week payroll period ending in a calendar month, in which the employee is employed in section 203(a)(3)(B) service. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other benefit forms.</I> In the case of benefits payable in a form other than the form described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a plan may provide for the permanent withholding of an amount of the employer-derived portion of benefit payments for a calendar month, or for a four or five week payroll period ending in a calendar month, in which the employee is employed in section 203(a)(3)(B) service, not exceeding the lesser of— 
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of benefits which would have been payable to the employee if he had been receiving monthly benefits under the plan since actual retirement based on a single life annuity commencing at actual retirement age; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The actual amount paid or scheduled to be paid to the employee for such month. Payments which are scheduled to be paid less frequently than monthly may be converted to monthly payments for purposes of this paragraph (d)(2)(ii).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0048) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8903, Jan. 27, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 59245, Dec. 4, 1981; 46 FR 60572, Dec. 11, 1981; 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.204-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.204-1   Year of participation for benefit accrual.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 204(b)(1) of the Act and section 411(b)(1) of the Code contain certain requirements relating to benefit accrual under a defined benefit pension plan. Some of these requirements are based on the number of years of participation included in an employee's period of service. Paragraph (b) of this section relates to service which must be taken into account in determining an employee's period of service for purposes of benefit accrual. Section 2530.204-2 sets forth rules relating to the computation periods to be used in measuring years of participation for benefit accrual (“accrual computation periods”).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service which may be disregarded for purposes of benefit accrual.</I> (1) In calculating an employee's period of service for purposes of benefit accrual under a defined benefit pension plan, section 204(b)(3) of the Act and section 411(b)(3) of the Code permit the following service to be disregarded: service before an employee first becomes a participant in the plan; service which is not required to be taken into account under section 202(b) of the Act and section 410(b)(5) of the Code (relating to one-year breaks in service for purposes of eligibility to participate); and service which is not required to be taken into account under section 204(b)(3)(C) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(C) of the Code (relating to 12-consecutive-month periods during which an employee's service is less than 1,000 hours). In addition, in calculating an employee's period of service for purposes of benefit accrual, a defined benefit plan shall not be required to take into account service before the conclusion of a series of consecutive 1-year breaks in service occurs which permits a plan to disregard prior service under section 203(b)(3)(D) of the Act and section 411(a)(6)(D) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> The following example illustrates paragraph (b)(1) of this section. A plan has a calendar year vesting and accrual computation period and, under § 2530.202-2 (a) and (b)(1), uses eligibility computation periods beginning on an employee's employment commencement date and anniversaries thereof. The plan provides that an employee who has at least 10 years of service has a vested right to 100 percent of his accrued benefit derived from employer contributions. The plan provides that an employee who is credited with at least 1,000 hours of service in a calendar year accrual computation period is credited with at least partial year of participation for purposes of benefit accrual. An employee whose birthday is October 16, 1956, begins employment with an employer maintaining the plan on January 1, 1977. Under § 2530.202-2(a)(1), January 1, 1977 is the employee's employment commencement date and the calendar year 1977 is the employee's initial eligibility computation period. The employee completes at least 1,000 hours of service in each of the calendar years from 1977 through 1981. On January 1, 1982 the employee is admitted to participation in the plan, having met the plan's age requirement (25 years) and service requirement (one year of service) for eligibility to participate. In 1982, the employee is credited with the number of hours of service required for a full year of participation (<I>i.e.</I>, more than 1,000 hours of service). Under § 2530.202-2(c), for purposes of applying section 202(b)(4) of the Act and section 410(a)(5)(D) of the Code (relating to years of service completed before a break in service for purposes of eligibility to participate), eligibility computation periods beginning on the employee's employment commencement date and anniversaries thereof are used under the plan to measure service prior to a break in service (in addition, under § 2530.200b-4(a)(2), the same eligibility computation periods are used in measuring one-year breaks in service for purposes of eligibility to participate). Thus, as of January 1, 1983, the employee is credited with six years of service for purposes of eligibility to participate and is credited with one year of participation. In accordance with section 203(b)(1)(A) of the Act and section 411(a)(4)(A) of the Code, the plan provides that years of service completed before age 22 are disregarded for purposes of vesting. As of January 1, 1983, therefore, the employee is credited with four years of service for purposes of vesting. In 1983 the employee terminates employment with the employer, incurring one-year breaks in service in each of the calendar years from 1983 through 1986. As of December 31, 1986, the employee's consecutive one-year breaks in service equal the employee's four years of service for vesting before such breaks. Under section 203(b)(3)(D) of the Act and section 410(a)(5)(D) of the Code and the terms of the plan, the four years of service for vesting completed by the employee before his four consecutive one-year breaks in service are not taken into account for purposes of vesting. Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, therefore, in calculating the employee's period of service for purposes of benefit accrual, the plan may disregard the year of participation completed by the employee before his four consecutive one-year breaks in service for vesting, because the four consecutive one-year breaks in service equal the four years of service credited to the employee for vesting. The employee is re-employed by the employer on January 1, 1987 completing an hour of service on that date. Under § 2530.200b-4(b)(1), therefore, January 1, 1987 is the employee's reemployment commencement date. In 1987, the employee completes the number of hours of service required for a full year of participation (<I>i.e.</I>, more than 1,000 hours of service). For 1987, therefore, the employee is credited with a year of service for purposes of eligibility to participate and vesting, and with a year of participation. As of December 31, 1987, the employee is credited with one year of service for purposes of vesting, since service before the employee's four consecutive one-year breaks in service—including the year of service completed in 1982—is not taken into account. Because under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the year of participation credited to the employee for 1982 is not required to be taken into account for purposes of benefit accrual, the employee is credited with one year of participation as of December 31, 1987.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.204-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.204-2   Accrual computation period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of accrual computation periods.</I> A plan may designate any 12-consecutive-month period as the accrual computation period except that the period so designated must apply equally to all participants. This requirement may be satisfied even though the actual time periods are not the same for all participants. For example, the accrual computation period may be designated as the vesting computation period, the plan year, or the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on either of two semi-annual dates designated for entry to participation under a plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Participation prior to effective date.</I> For purposes of applying the accrual rules of section 204(b)(1)(D) of the Act and section 411(b)(1)(D) of the Code (relating to accrual requirements for defined benefit plans for periods prior to the effective date of those sections), all service from the date of participation in the plan as determined in accordance with applicable plan provisions, shall be taken into account in determining an employee's period of service. When the plan documents do not provide a definite means for determining the date of commencement of participation, the date of commencement of employment covered under the plan during the period that the employer maintained the plan shall be presumed to be the date of commencement of participation in the plan. The plan may rebut this presumption by demonstrating from circumstances surrounding the operation of the plan, such as the date of commencement of mandatory employee contributions, that participation actually began on a later date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partial year of participation.</I> (1) Under section 204(b)(3)(C) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(C) of the Code, in calculating an employee's period of service for purposes of benefit accrual, a plan is not required to take into account a 12-consecutive-month period during which the employee's service is less than 1,000 hours of service. In measuring an employee's service for purposes of section 204(b)(3)(C) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(C) of the Code, a plan shall use the accrual computation period designated under paragraph (a) of this section. Under section 204(b)(3)(B) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(B) of the Code, in the case of an employee whose service is not less than 1,000 hours of service during an accrual computation period, the calculation of such employee's period of service will not be treated as made on a reasonable and consistent basis unless service during such computation period is taken into account. To the extent that the employee's service during the accrual computation period is less than the service required under the plan for a full year of participation, the employee must be credited with a partial year of participation equivalent to no less than a ratable portion of a full year of participation.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating the portion of a full year of participation to be credited to an employee whose service during a computation period is not less than 1,000 hours of service but is less than service required for a full year of participation in the plan, the plan may credit the employee with a greater portion of a full year of participation than a ratable portion, or may credit an employee with a full year of participation even though the employee's service is less than the service required for a full year of participation, provided that such crediting is reasonable and is consistent for all employees within the same job classifications, reasonably established.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an employee who commences participation in a plan (or recommences participation in the plan upon the employee's return after one or more 1-year breaks in service) on a date other than the first day of an applicable accrual computation period, all hours of service required to be credited to the employee during the entire accrual computation period, including hours of service credited to the employee for the portion of the computation period before the date on which the employee commences (or recommences) participation, shall be taken into account in determining whether the employee has 1,000 or more hours of service for purposes of section 204(b)(3)(C) of the Act and section 411(b)3)(C) of the Code. If such employee's service is not less than 1,000 hours in such accrual computation period, the employee must be credited with a partial year of participation which is equivalent to no less than a ratable portion of a full year of participation for service credited to the employee for the portion of the computation period after the date of commencement (or recommencement) of participation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of reasonable and consistent methods for crediting partial years of participation:
</P>
<P>(i) A plan requires 2,000 hours of service for a full year of participation. An employee who is credited during a computation period with no less than 1,000 hours of service but less than 2,000 hours of service is credited with a partial year of participation equal to a portion of a full year of participation determined by dividing the number of hours of service credited to the employee by 2,000.
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan requires 2,000 hours of service for a full year of participation. The plan credits service in an accrual computation period in accordance with the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hours of service credited
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of full year of participation credited
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1001 to 1200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1201 to 1400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1401 to 1600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1601 to 1800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1801 and above</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Under this method of crediting partial years of participation, each employee who is credited with not less than 1,000 hours of service is credited with at least a ratable portion of a full year of participation.
</FP>
<P>(iii) A plan provides that each employee who is credited with at least 1,000 hours of service in an accrual computation period must receive credit for at least a partial year of participation for that computation period. For full accrual, however, the plan requires that an employee must be credited with a specified number of hours worked; employees who meet the 1,000 hours of service requirement but who are not credited with the specified number of hours worked required for a full year of participation are credited with a partial year of participation on a prorata basis. For example, if the plan requires 1,500 hours worked for full accrual, an employee with 1,500 hours worked would be credited with full accrual, but an employee with 1,000 hours worked and 500 other hours of service would be credited with 
<FR>2/3</FR> of full accrual. The plan's method of crediting service for accrual purposes is consistent with the requirements of this paragraph. It should be noted, however, that use of hours worked as a basis for prorating benefit accrual may result in discrimination prohibited under section 401(a)(4) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(iv) Employee A is employed on June 1, 1980 in service covered by a plan with a calendar year accrual computation period, and which requires 1,800 hours of service for a full accrual. Employee A completes 500 hours from June 1, 1980 to December 31, 1980, and completes 100 hours per month in each month during 1981. A is admitted to participation on July 1, 1981. A is credited with 1,200 hours of service for the accrual computation period beginning January 1, 1981. Under the rules set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, A is required to be credited with not less than one-third of a full accrual (600 hours divided by 1,800 hours).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited double proration.</I> (1) In the case of a defined benefit plan that (i) defines benefits on a basis which has the effect of prorating benefits to reflect less than full-time employment or less than maximum compensation and (ii) does not adjust less-than-full-time service to reflect the equivalent of full-time hours or compensation (as the case may be), the plan may not further prorate benefit accrual under section 204(b)(3)(B) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(B) of the Code by crediting less than full years of participation, as would otherwise be permitted under paragraph (c) of this section. These plans must credit, except when service may be disregarded under section 204(b)(3)(C) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(C) of the Code (relating to less than 1,000 hours of service), less-than-full-time employees with a full year of participation for the purpose of accrual of benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> (i) A plan's defined benefit formula provides that the annual retirement benefit shall be 2 percent of the average compensation in all years of participation multiplied by the number of years of participation. Employee A is a full-time employee who has completed 2,000 hours during each of 20 accrual computation periods. A's average hourly rate was $5 an hour. Thus, A's average compensation for each year during participation in the plan is $10,000 ($5 per hour multiplied by 2,000 hours). If the plan states that a full year of participation is 2,000 hours, then A's annual retirement benefits, if he retired at that time, would be $4,000 ($10,000 per year of compensation × .02 × 20 years of participation). Employee B, however, is a part-time employee who completes 1,000 hours of service during each of 20 accrual computation periods. Like A, B's average hourly rate is $5 per hour. B's average compensation for his total years of participation is $5,000 ($5 per hour multiplied by 1,000 hours). Thus, the plan's benefit formula, by basing benefits on an employee's average compensation in all years of participation, in effect prorates benefits to reflect the fact that during B's participation in the plan, he has earned less than the maximum compensation that a full-time employee paid at the same rate could earn during the same period of participation in the plan. Under the rule of subparagraph (1), therefore, the plan is not permitted to prorate B's years of participation to reflect B's less than full-time employment throughout his participation in the plan. Therefore, B's annual retirement benefit would be $2,000 ($5,000 average compensation × .02 × 20 years of participation). (If double proration were permitted, then B's total years of participation would be only 10 since he would be credited with only one-half of a year of participation during each of the accrual computation periods (1,000/2,000). Thus, B's annual retirement benefit would be $1,000—i.e., $5,000 average compensation × .02 × 10 years of participation.)
</P>
<P>(ii) If the plan adjusts the average compensation during plan participation to reflect full compensation, then the plan may prorate years of participation. Thus, the average full annual compensation for B would be $10,000 rather than the $5,000 actually paid. Employee B's annual retirement benefit would then be $2,000 ($10,000 average full compensation × .02 × 10 years of participation).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amendments to change accrual computation periods.</I> (1) A plan may be amended to change the accrual computation period to a different 12-consecutive-month period, provided that the period between the end of the last accrual computation period under the plan as in effect before such amendment and the beginning of the first accrual computation period under the plan as amended is treated as a partial accrual computation period in accordance with the rules set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a partial accrual computation period, the following rules shall apply:
</P>
<P>(i) A plan having a minimum service requirement expressed in hours of service (or other units of service) for benefit accrual in a full accrual computation period (as permitted under section 204(b)(3)(B) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(B) of the Code) may apply a minimum service requirement for benefit accrual in a partial accrual computation period which is equal to the plan's minimum service requirement for benefit accrual in a full accrual computation period, multiplied by the ratio of the length of the partial accrual computation period to a full year.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a participant who meets a plan's minimum service requirement for benefit accrual in a partial accrual computation period (as permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section), the plan shall credit the participant with at least a partial year of participation for purposes of benefit accrual. Credit for a partial accrual computation period shall be determined in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> Effective October 1, 1977, a plan is amended to change the accrual computation period from the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on January 1 to the 12-consecutive-month period beginning on October 1. The period from January 1, 1977 to September 30, 1977 must be treated as a partial accrual computation period. The plan has a requirement that a participant must be credited with 1,000 hours of service in an accrual computation period in order to be credited with a year of participation for purposes of benefit accrual. For the partial accrual computation period the plan may require a participant to be credited with 750 hours of service in the partial accrual computation period in order to receive credit for purposes of benefit accrual (1,000 hours of service multiplied by the ratio of 9 months to 12 months). To the extent permitted under paragraph (d) of this section, the plan may prorate accrual credit on whatever basis the plan uses to prorate accrual credit for employees whose service is 1,000 hours of service or more but less than service required for full accrual in a full accrual computation period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.204-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.204-3   Alternative computation methods for benefit accrual.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under section 204(b)(3)(A) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(A) of the Code, a defined benefit pension plan may determine an employee's service for purposes of benefit accrual on the basis of accrual computation periods, as specified in § 2530.204-2, or on any other basis which is reasonable and consistent and which takes into account all covered service during the employee's participation in the plan which is included in a period of service required to be taken into account under section 202(b) of the Act and section 410(a)(5) of the Code. If, however, a plan determines an employee's service for purposes of benefit accrual on a basis other than computation periods, it must be possible to prove that, despite the fact that benefit accrual under the plan is not based on computation periods, the plan's provisions meet at least one of the three benefit accrual rules of section 204(b)(1) of the Act and section 411(b)(1) of the Code under all circumstances. Further, a plan which does not provide for benefit accrual on the basis of computation periods may not disregard service under section 204(b)(3)(C) of the Act and section 411(b)(3)(C) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of methods of determining an employee's period of service for purposes of benefit accrual under which an employee's period of service is not determined on the basis of computation periods but which may be used by a plan provided that the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Career compensation.</I> A defined benefit formula based on a percentage of compensation earned in a participant's career or during participation, with no variance depending on hours completed in given periods.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credited hours.</I> A defined benefit formula pursuant to which an employee is credited with a specified amount of accrual for each hour of service (or hour worked or regular time hour) completed by the employee during his or her career.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Elapsed time.</I> See § 2530.200b-9(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.204-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.204-4   Deferral of benefit accrual.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of section 204(b)(1)(E) of the Act and section 411(b)(1)(E) of the Code (which permit deferral of benefit accrual until an employee has 2 continuous years of service), an employee shall be credited with a year of service for each computation period in which he or she completes 1,000 hours of service. The computation period shall be the eligibility computation period designated in accordance with § 2530.202-2. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Form and Payment of Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.205" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.205   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.206" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.206   Time and order of issuance of domestic relations orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section implements section 1001 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006 by clarifying certain timing issues with respect to domestic relations orders and qualified domestic relations orders under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I> The examples herein illustrate the application of this section in certain circumstances. This section also applies in circumstances not described in the examples.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subsequent domestic relations orders.</I> (1) Subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a domestic relations order shall not fail to be treated as a qualified domestic relations order solely because the order is issued after, or revises, another domestic relations order or qualified domestic relations order.
</P>
<P>(2) The rule described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (1).</HED><PSPACE><I>Subsequent domestic relations order between the same parties.</I> Participant and Spouse divorce, and the administrator of Participant's 401(k) plan receives a domestic relations order. The administrator determines that the order is a QDRO. The QDRO allocates a portion of Participant's benefits to Spouse as the alternate payee. Subsequently, before benefit payments have commenced, Participant and Spouse seek and receive a second domestic relations order. The second order reduces the portion of Participant's benefits that Spouse was to receive under the QDRO. The second order does not fail to be treated as a QDRO solely because the second order is issued after, and reduces the prior assignment contained in, the first order. The result would be the same if the order were instead to increase the prior assignment contained in the first order.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (2).</HED><PSPACE><I>Subsequent domestic relations order between different parties.</I> Participant and Spouse 1 divorce and the administrator of Participant's 401(k) plan receives a domestic relations order. The administrator determines that the order is a QDRO. The QDRO allocates a portion of Participant's benefits to Spouse 1 as the alternate payee. Participant marries Spouse 2, and then they divorce. Participant's 401(k) plan administrator subsequently receives a domestic relations order pertaining to Spouse 2. The order assigns to Spouse 2 a portion of Participant's 401(k) benefits not already allocated to Spouse 1. The second order does not fail to be a QDRO solely because the second order is issued after the plan administrator has determined that an earlier order pertaining to Spouse 1 is a QDRO.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> (1) Subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a domestic relations order shall not fail to be treated as a qualified domestic relations order solely because of the time at which it is issued.
</P>
<P>(2) The rule described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (1).</HED><PSPACE><I>Orders issued after death.</I> Participant and Spouse divorce, and the administrator of Participant's plan receives a domestic relations order, but the administrator finds the order deficient and determines that it is not a QDRO. Shortly thereafter, Participant dies while actively employed. A second domestic relations order correcting the defects in the first order is subsequently submitted to the plan. The second order does not fail to be treated as a QDRO solely because it is issued after the death of the Participant. The result would be the same even if no order had been issued before the Participant's death, in other words, the order issued after death were the only order.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (2).</HED><PSPACE><I>Orders issued after divorce.</I> Participant and Spouse divorce. As a result, Spouse no longer meets the definition of “surviving spouse” under the terms of the plan. Subsequently, the plan administrator receives a domestic relations order requiring that Spouse be treated as the Participant's surviving spouse for purposes of receiving a death benefit payable under the terms of the plan only to a participant's surviving spouse. The order does not fail to be treated as a QDRO solely because, at the time it is issued, Spouse no longer meets the definition of a “surviving spouse” under the terms of the plan.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (3).</HED><PSPACE><I>Orders issued after annuity starting date.</I> Participant retires and begins receipt of benefits in the form of a straight life annuity, equal to $1,000 per month, and with respect to which Spouse has consented to the waiver of the surviving spousal rights provided under the plan and section 205 of ERISA. Subsequent to the commencement of benefits (in other words, subsequent to the annuity starting date as defined in section 205(h)(2) of ERISA and as further explained in 26 CFR 1.401(a)-20, Q&amp;A-10(b)), Participant and Spouse divorce and present the plan with a domestic relations order requiring 50 percent ($500) of Participant's future monthly annuity payments under the plan to be paid instead to Spouse, as an alternate payee (so that monthly payments of $500 are to be made to Spouse during Participant's lifetime). Pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the order does not fail to be a QDRO solely because it is issued after the annuity starting date. If the order instead had required payments to Spouse for the lifetime of Spouse, this would constitute a reannuitization with a new annuity starting date, rather than merely allocating to Spouse a part of the determined annuity payments due to Participant, so that the order, while not failing to be a QDRO because of the timing of the order, would fail to meet the requirements of section 206(d)(3)(D)(i) of ERISA (unless the plan otherwise permits such a change after the participant's annuity starting date). See 29 CFR 2530.206(d)(2), Example (4).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements and protections.</I> (1) Any domestic relations order described in this section shall be a qualified domestic relations order only if the order satisfies the same requirements and protections that apply under section 206(d)(3) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(2) The rule described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section is illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (1).</HED><PSPACE><I>Type or form of benefit.</I> Participant and Spouse divorce, and their divorce decree provides that the parties will prepare a domestic relations order assigning 50 percent of Participant's benefits under a 401(k) plan to Spouse to be paid in monthly installments over a 10-year period. Shortly thereafter, Participant dies while actively employed. A domestic relations order consistent with the divorce decree is subsequently submitted to the 401(k) plan; however, the plan does not provide for 10-year installment payments of the type described in the order. Pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the order does not fail to be treated as a QDRO solely because it is issued after the death of Participant, but the order would fail to be a QDRO under section 206(d)(3)(D)(i) and paragraph (d)(1) of this section because the order requires the plan to provide a type or form of benefit, or any option, not otherwise provided under the plan.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (2).</HED><PSPACE><I>Segregation of payable benefits.</I> Participant and Spouse divorce, and the administrator of Participant's plan receives a domestic relations order under which Spouse would begin to receive benefits immediately if the order is determined to be a QDRO. The plan administrator separately accounts for the amounts covered by the domestic relations order as is required under section 206(d)(3)(H)(v) of ERISA. The plan administrator finds the order deficient and determines that it is not a QDRO. Subsequently, after the expiration of the segregation period pertaining to that order, the plan administrator receives a second domestic relations order relating to the same parties under which Spouse would begin to receive benefits immediately if the second order is determined to be a QDRO. Notwithstanding the expiration of the first segregation period, the amounts covered by the second order must be separately accounted for by the plan administrator for an 18-month period, in accordance with section 206(d)(3)(H) of ERISA and paragraph (d)(1) of this section.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (3).</HED><PSPACE><I>Previously assigned benefits.</I> Participant and Spouse 1 divorce, and the administrator of Participant's 401(k) plan receives a domestic relations order. The administrator determines that the order is a QDRO. The QDRO assigns a portion of Participant's benefits to Spouse 1 as the alternate payee. Participant marries Spouse 2, and then they divorce. Participant's 401(k) plan administrator subsequently receives a domestic relations order pertaining to Spouse 2. The order assigns to Spouse 2 a portion of Participant's 401(k) benefits already assigned to Spouse 1. The second order does not fail to be treated as a QDRO solely because the second order is issued after the plan administrator has determined that an earlier order pertaining to Spouse 1 is a QDRO. The second order, however, would fail to be a QDRO under section 206(d)(3)(D)(iii) and paragraph (d)(1) of this section because it assigns to Spouse 2 all or a portion of Participant's benefits that are already assigned to Spouse 1 by the prior QDRO.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (4).</HED><PSPACE><I>Type or form of benefit.</I> Participant retires and commences benefit payments in the form of a straight life annuity based on the life of Participant, with respect to which Spouse consents to the waiver of the surviving spousal rights provided under the plan and section 205 of ERISA. Participant and Spouse divorce after the annuity starting date and present the plan with a domestic relations order that eliminates the straight life annuity based on Participant's life and provides for Spouse, as alternate payee, to receive all future benefits in the form of a straight life annuity based on the life of Spouse. The plan does not allow reannuitization with a new annuity starting date, as defined in section 205(h)(2) of ERISA (and as further explained in 26 CFR 1.401(a)-20, Q&amp;A-10(b)). Pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the order does not fail to be a QDRO solely because it is issued after the annuity starting date, but the order would fail to be a QDRO under section 206(d)(3)(D)(i) and paragraph (d)(1) of this section because the order requires the plan to provide a type or form of benefit, or any option, not otherwise provided under the plan. However, the order would not fail to be a QDRO under section 206(d)(3)(D)(i) and paragraph (d)(1) of this section if instead it were to require all of Participant's future payments under the plan to be paid instead to Spouse, as an alternate payee (so that payments that would otherwise be paid to the Participant during the Participant's lifetime are instead to be made to the Spouse during the Participant's lifetime).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 32850, June 10, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Plan Administration as Related to Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2530.207-2530.209" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2530.207-2530.209   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2530.210" NODE="29:9.1.2.4.5.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2530.210   Employer or employers maintaining the plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General statutory provisions</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility to participate and vesting.</I> Except as otherwise provided in section 202(b) or 203(b)(1) of the Act and sections 410(a)(5), 411(a)(5) and 411(a)(6) of the Code, all years of service with the employer or employers maintaining the plan shall be taken into account for purposes of section 202 of the Act and section 410 of the Code (relating to minimum eligibility standards) and section 203 of the Act and section 411(a) of the Code (relating to minimum vesting standards).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accrual of benefits.</I> Except as otherwise provided in section 202(b) of the Act and section 410(a)(5) of the Code, all years of participation under the plan must be taken into account for purposes of section 204 of the Act and section 411(b) of the Code (relating to benefit accrual). Section 204(b) of the Act and section 411(b) of the Code require only that periods of actual participation in the plan (e.g., covered service) be taken into account for purposes of benefit accrual.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General rules concerning service to be credited under this section.</I> Section 210 of the Act and sections 413(c), 414(b), and 414(c) of the Code provide rules applicable to sections 202, 203, and 204 of the Act and sections 410, 411(a), and 411(b) of the Code for purposes of determining who is an “employer or employers maintaining the plan” and, accordingly, what service is required to be taken into account in the case of a plan maintained by more than one employer. Paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section set forth the rules for determining service required to be taken into account in the case of a plan or plans maintained by multiple employers, controlled groups of corporations and trades or businesses under common control. Note throughout that every mention of multiple employer plans includes multiemployer plans. See § 2530.210(c)(3). Paragraph (f) of this section sets forth special break in service rules for such plans. Paragraph (g) of this section applies the break in service rules of sections 202(b)(4) and 203(b)(3)(D) of the Act and sections 410(a)(5)(D) and 411(a)(6)(D) of the Code (rule of parity) to such plans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple employer plans</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility to participate and vesting.</I> A multiple employer plan shall be treated as if all maintaining employers constitute a single employer so long as an employee is employed in either covered service or contiguous noncovered service. Accordingly, except as referred to in paragraph (a)(1) and provided in paragraph (f) of this section, in determining an employee's service for eligibility to participate and vesting purposes, all covered service with an employer or employers maintaining the plan and all contiguous noncovered service with an employer or employers maintaining the plan shall be taken into account. Thus, for example, if an employee in service covered under a multiple employer plan leaves covered service with one employer maintaining the plan and is employed immediately thereafter in covered service with another employer maintaining the plan, the plan is required to credit all hours of service with both employers for purposes of participation and vesting. If an employee moves from contiguous noncovered to covered service, or from covered service to contiguous noncovered service, with the same employer, the plan is required to credit all hours of service with such employer for purposes of eligibility to participate and vesting.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit accrual.</I> A multiple employer plan shall be treated as if all maintaining employers constitute a single employer so long as an employee is employed in covered service. Accordingly, except as referred to in paragraph (a)(2) and provided in paragraph (f) of this section, in determining a participant's service for benefit accrual purposes, all covered service with an employer or employers maintaining the plan shall be taken into account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions.</I> (i) For purposes of this section, the term “multiple employer plan” shall mean a multiemployer plan as defined in section 3(37) of the Act and section 414(f) of the Code or a multiple employer plan within the meaning of sections 413 (b) and (c) of the Code and the regulations issued thereunder. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, a plan maintained solely by members of the same controlled group of corporations within the meaning of paragraph (d) of this section or by trades or businesses which are under the common control of one person or group of persons within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section shall not be deemed to be a multiple employer plan for purposes of this section, and such plan is required to apply the rules under this section which are applicable to controlled groups of corporations or commonly controlled trades or businesses respectively.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, the term “covered service” shall mean service with an employer or employers maintaining the plan within a job classification or class of employees covered under the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this section the term “noncovered service” shall mean service with an employer or employers maintaining the plan which is not covered service.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) <I>General.</I> For purposes of this section noncovered service shall be deemed “contiguous” if (<I>1</I>) the noncovered service precedes or follows covered service and (<I>2</I>) no quit, discharge, or retirement occurs between such covered service and noncovered service.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Exception.</I> Notwithstanding the preceding paragraph, in the case of a controlled group of corporations within the meaning of paragraph (d) of this section or trades or businesses which are under the common control of one person or group of persons within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section, any transfer of an employee from one member of the controlled group to another member or from one trade or business under common control to another trade or business under the common control of the same person or group of persons shall result in the period of noncovered service which immediately precedes or follows such transfer being deemed “noncontiguous” for purposes of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<TCAP><E T="15">Diagram No. 1. (Multiple Employer Plan.)</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.033.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Assume for purposes of diagram No. 1 that X and Y are both employers who are required to contribute to a multiple employer plan and that neither employer maintains any other plan. Covered service is represented by the shaded segments of the diagram. After completing 1 year of noncovered service, employee A immediately enters covered service with X and completes 4 years of covered service. For purposes of eligibility to participate and vesting, the plan is required to credit employee A with 5 years of service with employer X because his period of service with X includes a period of covered service and a period of contiguous noncovered service. On the other hand, employee B, immediately after completing 2 years of noncovered service with X, enters covered service with Y. Because B quit employment with X, his period of noncovered service with X is not contiguous and, therefore, is not required to be taken into account. In the case of employee C, the plan is required to take into account all service with employers X and Y because employee C is employed in covered service with both employers.
</P>
<TCAP><E T="15">Diagram No. 2. (Multiple Employer.)</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.034.gif"/>
<P>The multiple employer plan rules with respect to noncovered service are illustrated in diagram No. 2. Assume that X and Y are both employers who are required to contribute to a multiple employer plan and that neither employer maintains any other plan. Covered service is represented by the shaded segments of the diagram. Employee E completed 3 years of service with employer X in covered service and then immediately entered noncovered service with X. Because E's noncovered service is contiguous, the plan is required to take into account all service with X for purposes of eligibility to participate and vesting under the multiple employer plan. Employee F does not continue to receive credit; F quit the employment of Y and entered noncovered service with X.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) <I>Controlled groups of corporations.</I> (1) With respect to a plan maintained by one or more members of a controlled group of corporations (within the meaning of section 1563(a) of the Code, determined without regard to sections 1563(a)(4) and (e)(3)(C), all employees of such corporations shall be treated as employed by a single employer.
</P>
<P>(2) Accordingly, except as referred to in paragraph (a)(1) and provided in paragraph (f) of this section, in determining an employee's service for eligibility to participate and vesting purposes, all service with any employer which is a member of the controlled group of corporations shall be taken into account. Except as referred to in paragraph (a)(2) and provided in paragraph (f) of this section, in determining a participant's service for benefit accrual purposes, all service during periods of participation covered under the plan with any employer which is a member of the controlled group of corporations shall be taken into account.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commonly controlled trades or businesses.</I> With respect to a plan maintained only by one or more trades or businesses (whether or not incorporated) which are under common control within the meaning of section 414(c) of the Code and the regulations issued thereunder, all employees of such trades or businesses shall be treated as employed by a single employer. Accordingly, except as referred to in paragraph (a)(1) and provided in paragraph (f) of this section, in determining an employee's service for eligibility to participate and vesting purposes, all service with any employer which is under common control shall be taken into account. Except as referred to in paragraph (a)(2) and provided in paragraph (f) of this section, in determining a participant's service for benefit accrual purposes, all service during periods of participation covered under the plan with any employer which is under common control shall be taken into account.
</P>
<TCAP><E T="15">Diagram No. 3. (Controlled group or commonly controlled trade or business.)</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.035.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Assume for purposes of diagram No. 3 that X and Y are either members of the same controlled group of corporations or trades or businesses which are under the same common control. The dotted segments of the diagram represent plan coverage under plans separately maintained by X and Y. Neither employer maintains any other plans. Because A1, B1, C1, and D1 have their service with X and Y treated as if X and Y were a single employer, the plans are required to take into account all service with X and Y for eligibility to participate and vesting purposes.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Special break in service rules.</I> (1) In addition to service which may be disregarded under the statutory provisions referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, a multiple employer plan may disregard noncontiguous non- covered service.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a plan maintained solely by one or more members of a controlled group of corporations or one or more trades or businesses which are under common control, if one of the maintaining employers is also a participating employer in a multiple employer plan which includes other employers which are not members of the controlled group or commonly controlled trades or businesses, service with such other employer maintaining the multiple employer plan may be disregarded by the controlled group or commonly controlled plan.
</P>
<TCAP><E T="15">Diagram No. 4. (Break in Service Rules.)</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.036.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Diagram No. 4 illustrates the break in service rules of paragraph (f) of this section. Assume for purposes of diagram No. 4 that employer Z is controlled by employer X but employer Y's only relation to X and Z is that X, Y, and Z are required to contribute to a multiple employer plan. The multiple employer plan, represented by the shaded segments of the diagram, provides for 100 percent vesting after 10 years. X, Y, and Z maintain no other plans.
</P>
<P>Employee G completed 5 years of covered service with employer Y, and then moved to noncovered service with employer Z. G's noncovered service is noncontiguous (see employee F in diagram No. 2 above), and such service may be disregarded for purposes of the multiple employer plan under the rule in paragraph (f)(1).
</P>
<P>Employee H completed 2 years of covered service with employer Y and then entered covered service with employer X for 1 year. The multiple employer plan is required to credit H with 3 years of service. H then entered noncovered service with employer Z. H's noncovered service is noncontiguous (see employee F in diagram No. 2 above), and such service may be disregarded for purposes of the multiple employer plan under the rule in paragraph (f)(1).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) <I>Rule of parity.</I> For purposes of sections 202(b)(4) and 203(b)(3)(D) of the Act and sections 410(a)(5)(D) and 411(a)(6)(D) of the Code, in the case of an employee who is a nonvested participant in employer-derived accrued benefits at the time he incurs a 1-year break in service, years of service completed by such employee before such break are not required to be taken into account if at such time he incurs consecutive 1-year breaks in service which equal or exceed the aggregate number of years of service before such breaks. This is so even though the period of noncontiguous noncovered service with an employer or employers maintaining the plan may subsequently be deemed contiguous as the result of the employee entering covered service with the same employer maintaining the plan and, consequently, such plan may be required to credit such service.
</P>
<TCAP><E T="15">Diagram No. 5. (Rule of parity)</E>
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.037.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Assume for purposes of diagram No. 5 that X and Y are both employers who are required to contribute to a multiple employer plan which contains a provision applying the rule of parity. Covered service is represented by the shaded segments of the diagram. The plan has 100% vesting after 10 years. X and Y maintain no other plan.
</P>
<P>The multiple employer plan credited employee I with 4 years of service with X when he quit employment with X and entered noncovered service with Y. As a result of 4 years of noncontiguous noncovered service with Y, employee I incurred 4 consecutive 1-year breaks in service, so that the multiple employer plan may disregard his prior service (<I>i.e.</I>, the 4 years of service with X).
</P>
<P>When employee I entered covered service with Y (as a “new employee”), his 4 years of noncontiguous service with Y became contiguous for purposes of the multiple employer plan. Consequently, after 1 year of covered service with Y, the plan is required to credit employee I with 5 years of service.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) <I>Example.</I> Under section 203(b)(1)(C) of the Act and section 411(a)(4)(C) of the Code, service with an employer prior to such employer's adoption of the plan need not be taken into account. The following example demonstrates that this rule applies even if an employee is employed in contiguous noncovered service. The example is applicable to any plan subject to the rules of this section. However, for purposes of clarity, the example assumes that X and Y are required to contribute to a multiple employer plan.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Assume that employee D completed 3 years of covered service with employer Y as of the date X adopts the plan. Immediately after X's adoption of the plan D left covered service with Y and D entered covered service with X. His prior covered service with Y is required to be counted, and D remains a participant.
</P>
<P>On the other hand, if D had entered service with X any time prior to X's adoption of the plan and subsequently was covered by the plan when X adopted it, his prior service with Y must also be counted, unless such service may be disregarded under the break in service rules because the period of service with X before X's adoption of the plan was equal to or greater than his prior service with Y. For example, if X adopted the plan three years after D began employment with X, and consequently after D had incurred 3 consecutive 1-year breaks in service, his prior service with Y could be disregarded.
</P>
<TCAP>(i) Comprehensive diagram. (No. 6)
</TCAP>
<img src="/graphics/ec21oc91.038.gif"/>
<P>Assume for purposes of diagram No. 6 that employer Z is controlled by employer X within the meaning of paragraph (d) but employer Y's only relation to X and Z is that X, Y and Z are required to contribute to a multiple employer plan. The shaded segments represent coverage under the multiple employer plan which contains a provision applying the rule of parity. The dotted segment represents a separate plan maintained by Z. Both plans have 100% vesting after 10 years.
</P>
<P>Employee J completed 3 years of service with employer X in covered service with the multiple employer plan. J then entered non- covered service with Y and remained with Y for 1 year, and thereby incurred a 1-year break in service under the multiple employer plan. J then entered covered service with employer Y, thereby causing the noncovered service with Y to become contiguous. Covered service with X and contiguous noncovered and covered service with Y must be taken into account for purposes of the multiple employer plan; accordingly, that plan is required to credit J with a total of 5 years of service.
</P>
<P>J then left service with Y and entered noncovered service (with respect to the multiple employer plan) with Z. J remained in noncovered service with Z (with respect to the multiple employer plan) for 5 years and thereby incurred 5 consecutive 1-year break in service for purposes of the multiple employer plan. Consequently, the prior service with X and Y may be disregarded for purposes of the multiple employer plan.
</P>
<P>J then entered covered service under the multiple employer plan with Z and completed 1 year of service. Because the 5 years of noncovered service with Z is contiguous with the 1 year of covered service, the multiple employer plan is now required to credit J with 6 years of service for purposes of eligibility to participate and vesting.
</P>
<P>For purposes of Z's controlled group plan (<I>i.e.</I>, dotted segment), employee J is entitled to receive credit for 9 years of service. The 3 years of service with X, a member of the controlled group, may not be disregarded under the rule of parity because J incurred only 2 consecutive 1-year breaks in service while employed with Y. When J entered service with Z covered under Z's controlled group plan, the 3 years of service with X were still required to be credited by the controlled group plan. In addition, J must receive credit for the 5 years of service with Z covered under the controlled group plan. Finally, when J moved to service with Z covered under the multiple employer plan the controlled group plan was required to credit J with an additional year of service.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="E [RESERVED]   " NODE="29:9.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="F" NODE="29:9.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER F—FIDUCIARY RESPONSIBILITY UNDER THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT OF 1974 


</HEAD>
<P> 
</P>

<DIV5 N="2550" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2550—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR FIDUCIARY RESPONSIBILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1135, sec. 102, Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. at 727 (2012) and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012). Section 2550.401c-1 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1101. Sections 2550.404a-2 and 2550.404a-3 also issued under sec. 657, Pub. L. 107-16, 115 Stat. 38. Sections 2550.404a-5, 2550.404c-1 and 2550.404c-5 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1104. Sec. 2550.408b-1 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1108(b)(1). Sec. 2550.408b-19 also issued under sec. 611, Pub. L. 109-280, 120 Stat. 780, 972. Sec. 2550.412-1 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1112.






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 2550.401c-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.401c-1   Definition of “plan assets”—insurance company general accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) This section describes, in the case where an insurer issues one or more policies to or for the benefit of an employee benefit plan (and such policies are supported by assets of an insurance company's general account), which assets held by the insurer (other than plan assets held in its separate accounts) constitute plan assets for purposes of Subtitle A, and Parts 1 and 4 of Subtitle B, of Title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act) and section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code (the Code), and provides guidance with respect to the application of Title I of the Act and section 4975 of the Code to the general account assets of insurers.
</P>
<P>(2) Generally, when a plan has acquired a Transition Policy (as defined in paragraph (h)(6) of this section), the plan's assets include the Transition Policy, but do not include any of the underlying assets of the insurer's general account if the insurer satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section or, if the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) were not satisfied, the insurer cures the non-compliance through satisfaction of the requirements in paragraph (i)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a plan's assets will not include any of the underlying assets of the insurer's general account if the insurer fails to satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section solely because of the takeover of the insurer's operations from management as a result of the granting of a petition filed in delinquency proceedings in the State court where the insurer is domiciled.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval by fiduciary independent of the issuer</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An independent plan fiduciary who has the authority to manage and control the assets of the plan must expressly authorize the acquisition or purchase of the Transition Policy. For purposes of this paragraph, a fiduciary is not independent if the fiduciary is an affiliate of the insurer issuing the policy.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the authorization by an independent plan fiduciary is not required if:
</P>
<P>(i) The insurer is the employer maintaining the plan, or a party in interest which is wholly owned by the employer maintaining the plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirements of section 408(b)(5) of the Act are met. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Department notes that, because section 401(c)(1)(D) of the Act and the definition of Transition Policy preclude the issuance of any additional Transition Policies after December 31, 1998, the requirement for independent fiduciary authorization of the acquisition or purchase of the Transition Policy in paragraph (b) no longer has any application.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Duty of disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An insurer shall furnish the information described in paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section to a plan fiduciary acting on behalf of a plan to which a Transition Policy has been issued. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section describes the style and format of such disclosure. Paragraph (c)(3) of this section describes the content of the initial disclosure. Paragraph (c)(4) of this section describes the information that must be disclosed by the insurer at least once per year for as long as the Transition Policy remains outstanding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Style and format.</I> The disclosure required by this paragraph should be clear and concise and written in a manner calculated to be understood by a plan fiduciary, without relinquishing any of the substantive detail required by paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section. The information does not have to be organized in any particular order but should be presented in a manner which makes it easy to understand the operation of the Transition Policy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial disclosure.</I> The insurer must provide to the plan, either as part of an amended policy, or as a separate written document, the disclosure information set forth in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (iv) of this section. The disclosure must include all of the following information which is applicable to the Transition Policy:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the method by which any income and any expense of the insurer's general account are allocated to the policy during the term of the policy and upon its termination, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the method used by the insurer to determine the fees, charges, expenses or other amounts that are, or may be, assessed against the policyholder or deducted by the insurer from any accumulation fund under the policy, including the extent and frequency with which such fees, charges, expenses or other amounts may be modified by the insurance company;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the method by which the insurer determines the return to be credited to any accumulation fund under the policy, including a description of the method used to allocate income and expenses to lines of business, business segments, and policies within such lines of business and business segments, and a description of how any withdrawals, transfers, or payments will affect the amount of the return credited;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the rights which the policyholder or plan participants have to withdraw or transfer all or a portion of any accumulation fund under the policy, or to apply the amount of a withdrawal to the purchase of guaranteed benefits or to the payment of benefits, and the terms on which such withdrawals or other applications of funds may be made, including a description of any charges, fees, credits, market value adjustments, or any other charges or adjustments, both positive and negative;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement of the method used to calculate any charges, fees, credits or market value adjustments described in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(C) of this section, and, upon the request of a plan fiduciary, the insurer must provide within 30 days of the request:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The formula actually used to calculate the market value adjustment, if any, to be applied to the unallocated amount in the accumulation fund upon distribution of a lump sum payment to the policyholder, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The actual calculation, as of a specified date that is no earlier than the last contract anniversary preceding the date of the request, of the applicable market value adjustment, including a description of the specific variables used in the calculation, the value of each of the variables, and a general description of how the value of each of those variables was determined.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the formula is based on interest rate guarantees applicable to new contracts of the same class or classes, and the duration of the assets underlying the accumulation fund, the contract must describe the process by which those components are ascertained or obtained. If the formula is based on an interest rate implicit in an index of publicly traded obligations, the identity of the index, the manner in which it is used, and identification of the source or publication where any data used in the formula can be found, must be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement describing the expense, income and benefit guarantees under the policy, including a description of the length of such guarantees, and of the insurer's right, if any, to modify or eliminate such guarantees;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the rights of the parties to make or discontinue contributions under the policy, and of any restrictions (such as timing, minimum or maximum amounts, and penalties and grace periods for late payments) on the making of contributions under the policy, and the consequences of the discontinuance of contributions under the policy; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of how any policyholder or participant-initiated withdrawals are to be made: first-in, first-out (FIFO) basis, last-in, first-out (LIFO) basis, pro rata or another basis.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Annual disclosure.</I> At least annually and not later than 90 days following the period to which it relates, an insurer shall provide the following information to each plan to which a Transition Policy has been issued:
</P>
<P>(i) The balance of any accumulation fund on the first day and last day of the period covered by the annual report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any deposits made to the accumulation fund during such annual period;
</P>
<P>(iii) An itemized statement of all income attributed to the policy or added to the accumulation fund during the period, and a description of the method used by the insurer to determine the precise amount of income;
</P>
<P>(iv) The actual rate of return credited to the accumulation fund under the policy during such period, stating whether the rate of return was calculated before or after deduction of expenses charged to the accumulation fund;
</P>
<P>(v) Any other additions to the accumulation fund during such period;
</P>
<P>(vi) An itemized statement of all fees, charges, expenses or other amounts assessed against the policy or deducted from the accumulation fund during the reporting year, and a description of the method used by the insurer to determine the precise amount of the fees, charges and other expenses;
</P>
<P>(vii) An itemized statement of all benefits paid, including annuity purchases, to participants and beneficiaries from the accumulation fund;
</P>
<P>(viii) The dates on which the additions or subtractions were credited to, or deducted from, the accumulation fund during such period;
</P>
<P>(ix) A description, if applicable, of all transactions with affiliates which exceed 1 percent of group annuity reserves of the general account for the prior reporting year;
</P>
<P>(x) A statement describing any expense, income and benefit guarantees under the policy, including a description of the length of such guarantees, and of the insurer's right, if any, to modify or eliminate such guarantees. However, the information on guarantees does not have to be provided annually if it was previously disclosed in the insurance policy and has not been modified since that time;
</P>
<P>(xi) A good faith estimate of the amount that would be payable in a lump sum at the end of such period pursuant to the request of a policyholder for payment or transfer of amounts in the accumulation fund under the policy after the insurer deducts any applicable charges and makes any appropriate market value adjustments, upward or downward, under the terms of the policy. However, upon the request of a plan fiduciary, the insurer must provide within 30 days of the request the information contained in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) as of a specified date that is no earlier than the last contract anniversary preceding the date of the request; and
</P>
<P>(xii) An explanation that the insurer will make available promptly upon request of a plan, copies of the following publicly available financial data or other publicly available reports relating to the financial condition of the insurer:
</P>
<P>(A) National Association of Insurance Commissioners Statutory Annual Statement, with Exhibits, General Interrogatories, and Schedule D, Part 1A, Sections 1 and 2 and Schedule S—Part 3E;
</P>
<P>(B) Rating agency reports on the financial strength and claims-paying ability of the insurer;
</P>
<P>(C) Risk adjusted capital ratio, with a brief description of its derivation and significance, referring to the risk characteristics of both the assets and the liabilities of the insurer;
</P>
<P>(D) Actuarial opinion of the insurer's Appointed Actuary certifying the adequacy of the insurer's reserves as required by New York State Insurance Department Regulation 126 and comparable regulations of other States; and
</P>
<P>(E) The insurer's most recent SEC Form 10K and Form 10Q (stock companies only).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative separate account arrangements</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An insurer must provide the plan fiduciary with the following additional information at the same time as the initial disclosure required under paragraph (c)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement explaining the extent to which alternative contract arrangements supported by assets of separate accounts of insurers are available to plans;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement as to whether there is a right under the policy to transfer funds to a separate account and the terms governing any such right; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement explaining the extent to which general account contracts and separate account contracts of the insurer may pose differing risks to the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) An insurer will be deemed to comply with the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section if the disclosure provided to the plan includes the following statement: 
</P>
<P>a. Contractual arrangements supported by assets of separate accounts may pose differing risks to plans from contractual arrangements supported by assets of general accounts. Under a general account contract, the plan's contributions or premiums are placed in the insurer's general account and commingled with the insurer's corporate funds and assets (excluding separate accounts and special deposit funds). The insurance company combines in its general account premiums received from all of its lines of business. These premiums are pooled and invested by the insurer. General account assets in the aggregate support the insurer's obligations under all of its insurance contracts, including (but not limited to) its individual and group life, health, disability, and annuity contracts. Experience rated general account policies may share in the experience of the general account through interest credits, dividends, or rate adjustments, but assets in the general account are not segregated for the exclusive benefit of any particular policy or obligation. General account assets are also available to the insurer for the conduct of its routine business activities, such as the payment of salaries, rent, other ordinary business expenses and dividends.
</P>
<P>b. An insurance company separate account is a segregated fund which is not commingled with the insurer's general assets. Depending on the particular terms of the separate account contract, income, expenses, gains and losses associated with the assets allocated to a separate account may be credited to or charged against the separate account without regard to other income, expenses, gains, or losses of the insurance company, and the investment results passed through directly to the policyholders. While most, if not all, general account investments are maintained at book value, separate account investments are normally maintained at market value, which can fluctuate according to market conditions. In large measure, the risks associated with a separate account contract depend on the particular assets in the separate account.
</P>
<P>c. The plan's legal rights vary under general and separate account contracts. In general, an insurer is subject to ERISA's fiduciary responsibility provisions with respect to the assets of a separate account (other than a separate account registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940) to the extent that the investment performance of such assets is passed directly through to the plan policyholders. ERISA requires insurers, in administering separate account assets, to act solely in the interest of the plan's participants and beneficiaries; prohibits self-dealing and conflicts of interest; and requires insurers to adhere to a prudent standard of care. In contrast, ERISA generally imposes less stringent standards in the administration of general account contracts which were issued on or before December 31, 1998.
</P>
<P>d. On the other hand, State insurance regulation is typically more restrictive with respect to general accounts than separate accounts. However, State insurance regulation may not provide the same level of protection to plan policyholders as ERISA regulation. In addition, insurance company general account policies often include various guarantees under which the insurer assumes risks relating to the funding and distribution of benefits. Insurers do not usually provide any guarantees with respect to the investment returns on assets held in separate accounts. Of course, the extent of any guarantees from any general account or separate account contract will depend upon the specific policy terms.
</P>
<P>e. Finally, separate accounts and general accounts pose differing risks in the event of the insurer's insolvency. In the event of insolvency, funds in the general account are available to meet the claims of the insurer's general creditors, after payment of amounts due under certain priority claims, including amounts owed to its policyholders. Funds held in a separate account as reserves for its policy obligations, however, may be protected from the claims of creditors other than the policyholders participating in the separate account. Whether separate account funds will be granted this protection will depend upon the terms of the applicable policies and the provisions of any applicable laws in effect at the time of insolvency. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Termination procedures.</I> Within 90 days of written notice by a policyholder to an insurer, the insurer must permit the policyholder to exercise the right to terminate or discontinue the policy and to elect to receive without penalty either:
</P>
<P>(1) A lump sum payment representing all unallocated amounts in the accumulation fund. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(1), the term penalty does not include a market value adjustment (as defined in paragraph (h)(7)of this section) or the recovery of costs actually incurred which would have been recovered by the insurer but for the termination or discontinuance of the policy, including any unliquidated acquisition expenses, to the extent not previously recovered by the insurer; or
</P>
<P>(2) A book value payment of all unallocated amounts in the accumulation fund under the policy in approximately equal annual installments, over a period of no longer than 10 years, together with interest computed at an annual rate which is no less than the annual rate which was credited to the accumulation fund under the policy as of the date of the contract termination or discontinuance, minus 1 percentage point. Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section, the insurer may defer, for a period not to exceed 180 days, amounts required to be paid to a policyholder under this paragraph for any period of time during which regular banking activities are suspended by State or federal authorities, a national securities exchange is closed for trading (except for normal holiday closings), or the Securities and Exchange Commission has determined that a state of emergency exists which may make such determination and payment impractical.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insurer-initiated amendments.</I> In the event the insurer makes an insurer-initiated amendment (as defined in paragraph (h)(8) of this section), the insurer must provide written notice to the plan at least 60 days prior to the effective date of the insurer-initiated amendment. The notice must contain a complete description of the amendment and must inform the plan of its right to terminate or discontinue the policy and withdraw all unallocated funds without penalty by sending a written request within such 60 day period to the name and address contained in the notice. The plan must be offered the election to receive either a lump sum or an installment payment as described in paragraph (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section. An insurer-initiated amendment shall not apply to a contract if the plan fiduciary exercises its right to terminate or discontinue the contract within such 60 day period and to receive a lump sum or installment payment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prudence.</I> An insurer shall manage those assets of the insurer which are assets of such insurer's general account (irrespective of whether any such assets are plan assets) with the care, skill, prudence and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent man acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims, taking into account all obligations supported by such enterprise. This prudence standard applies to the conduct of all insurers with respect to policies issued to plans on or before December 31, 1998, and differs from the prudence standard set forth in section 404(a)(1)(B) of the Act. Under the prudence standard provided in this paragraph, prudence must be determined by reference to all of the obligations supported by the general account, not just the obligations owed to plan policyholders. The more stringent standard of prudence set forth in section 404(a)(1)(B) of the Act continues to apply to any obligations which insurers may have as fiduciaries which do not arise from the management of general account assets, as well as to insurers' management of plan assets maintained in separate accounts. The terms of this section do not modify or reduce the fiduciary obligations applicable to insurers in connection with policies issued after December 31, 1998, which are supported by general account assets, including the standard of prudence under section 404(a)(1)(B) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An <I>affiliate</I> of an insurer means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any person, directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the insurer,
</P>
<P>(ii) Any officer of, director of, 5 percent or more partner in, or highly compensated employee (earning 5 percent or more of the yearly wages of the insurer) of, such insurer or of any person described in paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section including in the case of an insurer, an insurance agent or broker thereof (whether or not such person is a common law employee) if such agent or broker is an employee described in this paragraph or if the gross income received by such agent or broker from such insurer exceeds 5 percent of such agent's gross income from all sources for the year, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any corporation, partnership, or unincorporated enterprise of which a person described in paragraph (h)(1)(ii) of this section is an officer, director, or a 5 percent or more partner.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>control</I> means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>guaranteed benefit policy</I> means a policy described in section 401(b)(2)(B) of the Act and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>insurer</I> means an insurer as described in section 401(b)(2)(A) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>accumulation fund</I> means the aggregate net considerations (<I>i.e.,</I> gross considerations less all deductions from such considerations) credited to the Transition Policy plus all additional amounts, including interest and dividends, credited to such Transition Policy less partial withdrawals, benefit payments and less all charges and fees imposed against this accumulated amount under the Transition Policy other than surrender charges and market value adjustments.
</P>
<P>(6) The term <I>Transition Policy</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A policy or contract of insurance (other than a guaranteed benefit policy) that is issued by an insurer to, or on behalf of, an employee benefit plan on or before December 31, 1998, and which is supported by the assets of the insurer's general account.
</P>
<P>(ii) A policy will not fail to be a Transition Policy merely because the policy is amended or modified:
</P>
<P>(A) To comply with the requirements of section 401(c) of the Act and this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Pursuant to a merger, acquisition, demutualization, conversion, or reorganization authorized by applicable State law, provided that the premiums, policy guarantees, and the other terms and conditions of the policy remain the same, except that a membership interest in a mutual insurance company may be eliminated from the policy in exchange for separate consideration (e.g., shares of stock or policy credits).
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of this section, the term <I>market value adjustment</I> means an adjustment to the book value of the accumulation fund to accurately reflect the effect on the value of the accumulation fund of its liquidation in the prevailing market for fixed income obligations, taking into account the future cash flows that were anticipated under the policy. An adjustment is a <I>market value adjustment</I> within the meaning of this definition only if the insurer has determined the amount of the adjustment pursuant to a method which was previously disclosed to the policyholder in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) of this section, and the method permits both upward and downward adjustments to the book value of the accumulation fund.
</P>
<P>(8) The term <I>insurer-initiated amendment</I> is defined in paragraphs (h)(8)(i), (ii) and (iii) of this section as:
</P>
<P>(i) An amendment to a Transition Policy made by an insurer pursuant to a unilateral right to amend the policy terms that would have a material adverse effect on the policyholder; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any of the following unilateral changes in the insurer's conduct or practices with respect to the policyholder or the accumulation fund under the policy that result in a material reduction of existing or future benefits under the policy, a material reduction in the value of the policy or a material increase in the cost of financing the plan or plan benefits:
</P>
<P>(A) A change in the methodology for assessing fees, expenses, or other charges against the accumulation fund or the policyholder;
</P>
<P>(B) A change in the methodology used for allocating income between lines of business, or product classes within a line of business;
</P>
<P>(C) A change in the methodology used for determining the rate of return to be credited to the accumulation fund under the policy;
</P>
<P>(D) A change in the methodology used for determining the amount of any fees, charges, expenses, or market value adjustments applicable to the accumulation fund under the policy in connection with the termination of the contract or withdrawal from the accumulation fund;
</P>
<P>(E) A change in the dividend class to which the policy or contract is assigned;
</P>
<P>(F) A change in the policyholder's rights in connection with the termination of the policy, withdrawal of funds or the purchase of annuities for plan participants; and
</P>
<P>(G) A change in the annuity purchase rates guaranteed under the terms of the contract or policy, unless the new rates are more favorable for the policyholder.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this definition, an insurer-initiated amendment is material if a prudent fiduciary could reasonably conclude that the amendment should be considered in determining how or whether to exercise any rights with respect to the policy, including termination rights.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of this definition, the following amendments or changes are not insurer-initiated amendments:
</P>
<P>(A) Any amendment or change which is made with the affirmative consent of the policyholder;
</P>
<P>(B) Any amendment or change which is made in order to comply with the requirements of section 401(c) of the Act and this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any amendment or change which is made pursuant to a merger, acquisition, demutualization, conversion, or reorganization authorized by applicable State law, provided that the premiums, policy guarantees, and the other terms and conditions of the policy remain the same, except that a membership interest in a mutual insurance company may be eliminated from the policy in exchange for separate consideration (e.g., shares of stock or policy credits).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limitation on liability.</I> (1) No person shall be subject to liability under Parts 1 and 4 of Title I of the Act or section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for conduct which occurred prior to the applicability dates of the regulation on the basis of a claim that the assets of an insurer (other than plan assets held in a separate account) constitute plan assets. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph (i)(1), this section shall not:
</P>
<P>(i) Apply to an action brought by the Secretary of Labor pursuant to paragraphs (2) or (5) of section 502(a) of ERISA for a breach of fiduciary responsibility which would also constitute a violation of Federal or State criminal law;
</P>
<P>(ii) Preclude the application of any Federal criminal law; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Apply to any civil action commenced before November 7, 1995.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section relieves any person from any State law regulating insurance which imposes additional obligations or duties upon insurers to the extent not inconsistent with the provisions of this section. Therefore, nothing in this section should be construed to preclude a State from requiring insurers to make additional disclosures to policyholders, including plans. Nor does this section prohibit a State from imposing additional substantive requirements with respect to the management of general accounts or from otherwise regulating the relationship between the policyholder and the insurer to the extent not inconsistent with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section precludes any claim against an insurer or other person for violations of the Act which do not require a finding that the underlying assets of a general account constitute plan assets, regardless of whether the violation relates to a Transition Policy.
</P>
<P>(4) If the requirements in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section are not met with respect to a plan that has purchased or acquired a Transition Policy, and the insurer has not cured the non-compliance through satisfaction of the requirements in paragraph (i)(5) of this section, the plan's assets include an undivided interest in the underlying assets of the insurer's general account for that period of time for which the requirements are not met. However, an insurer's failure to comply with the requirements of this section with respect to any particular Transition Policy will not result in the underlying assets of the general account constituting plan assets with respect to other Transition Policies if the insurer is otherwise in compliance with the requirements contained in this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(2) and (i)(4) of this section, a plan's assets will not include an undivided interest in the underlying assets of the insurer's general account if the insurer made reasonable and good faith attempts at compliance with each of the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section, and meets each of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The insurer has in place written procedures that are reasonably designed to assure compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section, including procedures reasonably designed to detect any instances of non-compliance.
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than 60 days following the earlier of the insurer's detection of an instance of non-compliance or the receipt of written notice of non-compliance from the plan, the insurer complies with the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section. If the insurer has failed to pay a plan the amounts required under paragraphs (e) or (f) of this section within 90 days of receiving written notice of termination or discontinuance of the policy, the insurer must make all corrections and adjustments necessary to restore to the plan the full amounts that the plan would have received but for the insurer's non-compliance within the applicable 60 day period; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The insurer makes the plan whole for any losses resulting from the non-compliance as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the insurer has failed to comply with the disclosure or notice requirements set forth in paragraphs (c), (d) and (f) of this section, then the insurer must make the plan whole for any losses resulting from its non-compliance within the earlier of 60 days of detection by the insurer or sixty days following the receipt of written notice from the plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the insurer has failed to pay a plan any amounts required under paragraphs (e) or (f) of this section within 90 days of receiving written notice of termination or discontinuance of the policy, the insurer must pay to the plan interest on any amounts restored pursuant to paragraph (i)(5)(ii) of this section at the “underpayment rate” as set forth in 26 U.S.C. sections 6621 and 6622. Such interest must be paid within the earlier of 60 days of detection by the insurer or sixty days following receipt of written notice of non-compliance from the plan.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (j)(2) through (4) of this section, this section is applicable on July 5, 2001.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (c) relating to initial disclosures and paragraph (d) relating to separate account disclosures are applicable on July 5, 2000.
</P>
<P>(3) The first annual disclosure required under paragraph (c)(4) of this section shall be provided to each plan not later than 18 months following January 5, 2000.
</P>
<P>(4) Paragraph (f), relating to insurer-initiated amendments, is applicable on January 5, 2000.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective January 5, 2000.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 639, Jan. 5, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.403a-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.403a-1   Establishment of trust.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in § 403b-1, all assets of an employee benefit plan shall be held in trust by one or more trustees pursuant to a written trust instrument.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific applications.</I> (1) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section will not fail to be satisfied merely because securities of a plan are held in the name of a nominee or in street name, provided such securities are held on behalf of the plan by:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank or trust company that is subject to supervision by the United States or a State, or a nominee of such bank or trust company;
</P>
<P>(ii) A broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or a nominee of such broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A “clearing agency,” as defined in section 3(a)(23) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or its nominee.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a corporation described in section 501(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code holds property on behalf of a plan, the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied with respect to such property if all the stock of such corporation is held in trust on behalf of the plan by one or more trustees.
</P>
<P>(3) If the assets of an entity in which a plan invests include plan assets by reason of the plan's investment in the entity, the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied with respect to such investment if the indicia of ownership of the plan's interest in the entity are held in trust on behalf of the plan by one or more trustees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements concerning trustees.</I> The trustee or trustees referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b) shall be either named in the trust instrument or in the plan instrument described in section 402(a) of the Act, or appointed by a person who is a named fiduciary (within the meaning of section 402(a)(2) of the Act). Upon acceptance of being named or appointed, the trustee or trustees shall have exclusive authority and discretion to manage and control the assets of the plan, except to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(1) The plan instrument or the trust instrument expressly provides that the trustee or trustees are subject to the direction of a named fiduciary who is not a trustee, in which case the trustees shall be subject to the proper directions of such fiduciary which are made in accordance with the terms of the plan and which are not contrary to the provisions of title I of the Act of chapter XXV of this title, or
</P>
<P>(2) Authority to manage, acquire or dispose of assets of the plan is delegated to one or more investment managers (within the meaning of section 3(38) of the Act) pursuant to section 402(c)(3) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 21247, May 18, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.403b-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.403b-1   Exemptions from trust requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory exemptions.</I> The requirements of section 403(a) of the Act and section 403a-1 shall not apply—
</P>
<P>(1) To any assets of a plan which consist of insurance contracts or policies issued by an insurance company qualified to do business in a State;
</P>
<P>(2) To any assets of such an insurance company or any assets of a plan which are held by such an insurance company;
</P>
<P>(3) To a plan—
</P>
<P>(i) Some or all of the participants of which are employees described in section 401(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Which consists of one or more individual retirement accounts described in section 408 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. To the extent that such plan's assets are held in one or more custodial accounts which qualify under section 401(f) or 408(h) of such Code, whichever is applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) To a contract established and maintained under section 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 to the extent that the assets of the contract are held in one or more custodial accounts pursuant to section 403(b)(7) of such Code.
</P>
<P>(5) To any plan, fund or program under which an employer, all of whose stock is directly or indirectly owned by employees, former employees or their beneficiaries, proposes through an unfunded arrangement to compensate retired employees for benefits which were forfeited by such employees under a pension plan maintained by a former employer prior to the date such pension plan became subject to the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 21247, May 18, 1982]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.404a-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.404a-1   Investment duties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Sections 404(a)(1)(A) and 404(a)(1)(B) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA or the Act) provide, in part, that a fiduciary shall discharge that person's duties with respect to the plan solely in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries; for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits to participants and their beneficiaries and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the plan; and with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investment prudence duties.</I> (1) With regard to the consideration of an investment or investment course of action taken by a fiduciary of an employee benefit plan pursuant to the fiduciary's investment duties, the requirements of section 404(a)(1)(B) of the Act set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied if the fiduciary:
</P>
<P>(i) Has given appropriate consideration to those facts and circumstances that, given the scope of such fiduciary's investment duties, the fiduciary knows or should know are relevant to the particular investment or investment course of action involved, including the role the investment or investment course of action plays in that portion of the plan's investment portfolio or menu with respect to which the fiduciary has investment duties; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has acted accordingly.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, “appropriate consideration” shall include, but is not necessarily limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) A determination by the fiduciary that the particular investment or investment course of action is reasonably designed, as part of the portfolio (or, where applicable, that portion of the plan portfolio with respect to which the fiduciary has investment duties) or menu, to further the purposes of the plan, taking into consideration the risk of loss and the opportunity for gain (or other return) associated with the investment or investment course of action compared to the opportunity for gain (or other return) associated with reasonably available alternatives with similar risks; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of employee benefit plans other than participant-directed individual account plans, consideration of the following factors as they relate to such portion of the portfolio:
</P>
<P>(A) The composition of the portfolio with regard to diversification;
</P>
<P>(B) The liquidity and current return of the portfolio relative to the anticipated cash flow requirements of the plan; and
</P>
<P>(C) The projected return of the portfolio relative to the funding objectives of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) An investment manager appointed, pursuant to the provisions of section 402(c)(3) of the Act, to manage all or part of the assets of a plan, may, for purposes of compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, rely on, and act upon the basis of, information pertaining to the plan provided by or at the direction of the appointing fiduciary, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Such information is provided for the stated purpose of assisting the manager in the performance of the manager's investment duties; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The manager does not know and has no reason to know that the information is incorrect.
</P>
<P>(4) A fiduciary's determination with respect to an investment or investment course of action must be based on factors that the fiduciary reasonably determines are relevant to a risk and return analysis, using appropriate investment horizons consistent with the plan's investment objectives and taking into account the funding policy of the plan established pursuant to section 402(b)(1) of ERISA. Risk and return factors may include the economic effects of climate change and other environmental, social, or governance factors on the particular investment or investment course of action. Whether any particular consideration is a risk-return factor depends on the individual facts and circumstances. The weight given to any factor by a fiduciary should appropriately reflect a reasonable assessment of its impact on risk-return.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment loyalty duties.</I> (1) A fiduciary may not subordinate the interests of the participants and beneficiaries in their retirement income or financial benefits under the plan to other objectives, and may not sacrifice investment return or take on additional investment risk to promote benefits or goals unrelated to interests of the participants and beneficiaries in their retirement income or financial benefits under the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) If a fiduciary prudently concludes that competing investments, or competing investment courses of action, equally serve the financial interests of the plan over the appropriate time horizon, the fiduciary is not prohibited from selecting the investment, or investment course of action, based on collateral benefits other than investment returns. A fiduciary may not, however, accept expected reduced returns or greater risks to secure such additional benefits.
</P>
<P>(3) The plan fiduciary of a participant-directed individual account plan does not violate the duty of loyalty under paragraph (c)(1) of this section solely because the fiduciary takes into account participants' preferences in a manner consistent with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Proxy voting and exercise of shareholder rights.</I> (1) The fiduciary duty to manage plan assets that are shares of stock includes the management of shareholder rights appurtenant to those shares, such as the right to vote proxies.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) When deciding whether to exercise shareholder rights and when exercising such rights, including the voting of proxies, fiduciaries must carry out their duties prudently and solely in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries and for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits to participants and beneficiaries and defraying the reasonable expenses of administering the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) When deciding whether to exercise shareholder rights and when exercising shareholder rights, plan fiduciaries must:
</P>
<P>(A) Act solely in accordance with the economic interest of the plan and its participants and beneficiaries, in a manner consistent with paragraph (b)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Consider any costs involved;
</P>
<P>(C) Not subordinate the interests of the participants and beneficiaries in their retirement income or financial benefits under the plan to any other objective;
</P>
<P>(D) Evaluate relevant facts that form the basis for any particular proxy vote or other exercise of shareholder rights; and
</P>
<P>(E) Exercise prudence and diligence in the selection and monitoring of persons, if any, selected to exercise shareholder rights or otherwise advise on or assist with exercises of shareholder rights, such as providing research and analysis, recommendations regarding proxy votes, administrative services with voting proxies, and recordkeeping and reporting services.
</P>
<P>(iii) A fiduciary may not adopt a practice of following the recommendations of a proxy advisory firm or other service provider without a determination that such firm or service provider's proxy voting guidelines are consistent with the fiduciary's obligations described in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) In deciding whether to vote a proxy pursuant to paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, fiduciaries may adopt proxy voting policies providing that the authority to vote a proxy shall be exercised pursuant to specific parameters prudently designed to serve the plan's interests in providing benefits to participants and their beneficiaries and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Plan fiduciaries shall periodically review proxy voting policies adopted pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) No proxy voting policies adopted pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section shall preclude submitting a proxy vote when the fiduciary prudently determines that the matter being voted upon is expected to have a significant effect on the value of the investment or the investment performance of the plan's portfolio (or investment performance of assets under management in the case of an investment manager) after taking into account the costs involved, or refraining from voting when the fiduciary prudently determines that the matter being voted upon is not expected to have such an effect after taking into account the costs involved.
</P>
<P>(4)(i)(A) The responsibility for exercising shareholder rights lies exclusively with the plan trustee except to the extent that either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The trustee is subject to the directions of a named fiduciary pursuant to ERISA section 403(a)(1); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The power to manage, acquire, or dispose of the relevant assets has been delegated by a named fiduciary to one or more investment managers pursuant to ERISA section 403(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(B) Where the authority to manage plan assets has been delegated to an investment manager pursuant to ERISA section 403(a)(2), the investment manager has exclusive authority to vote proxies or exercise other shareholder rights appurtenant to such plan assets in accordance with this section, except to the extent the plan, trust document, or investment management agreement expressly provides that the responsible named fiduciary has reserved to itself (or to another named fiduciary so authorized by the plan document) the right to direct a plan trustee regarding the exercise or management of some or all of such shareholder rights.
</P>
<P>(ii) An investment manager of a pooled investment vehicle that holds assets of more than one employee benefit plan may be subject to an investment policy statement that conflicts with the policy of another plan. Compliance with ERISA section 404(a)(1)(D) requires the investment manager to reconcile, insofar as possible, the conflicting policies (assuming compliance with each policy would be consistent with ERISA section 404(a)(1)(D)). In the case of proxy voting, to the extent permitted by applicable law, the investment manager must vote (or abstain from voting) the relevant proxies to reflect such policies in proportion to each plan's economic interest in the pooled investment vehicle. Such an investment manager may, however, develop an investment policy statement consistent with Title I of ERISA and this section, and require participating plans to accept the investment manager's investment policy statement, including any proxy voting policy, before they are allowed to invest. In such cases, a fiduciary must assess whether the investment manager's investment policy statement and proxy voting policy are consistent with Title I of ERISA and this section before deciding to retain the investment manager.
</P>
<P>(5) This section does not apply to voting, tender, and similar rights with respect to shares of stock that are passed through pursuant to the terms of an individual account plan to participants and beneficiaries with accounts holding such shares.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>investment duties</I> means any duties imposed upon, or assumed or undertaken by, a person in connection with the investment of plan assets which make or will make such person a fiduciary of an employee benefit plan or which are performed by such person as a fiduciary of an employee benefit plan as defined in section 3(21)(A)(i) or (ii) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>investment course of action</I> means any series or program of investments or actions related to a fiduciary's performance of the fiduciary's investment duties, and includes the selection of an investment fund as a plan investment, or in the case of an individual account plan, a designated investment alternative under the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>plan</I> means an employee benefit plan to which Title I of the Act applies.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>designated investment alternative</I> means any investment alternative designated by the plan into which participants and beneficiaries may direct the investment of assets held in, or contributed to, their individual accounts. The term “designated investment alternative” shall not include “brokerage windows,” “self directed brokerage accounts,” or similar plan arrangements that enable participants and beneficiaries to select investments beyond those designated by the plan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Severability.</I> If any provision of this section is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> (1) Except for paragraphs (d)(2)(iii) and (d)(4)(ii) of this section, this section shall apply in its entirety to all investments made and investment courses of action taken after January 30, 2023.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraphs (d)(2)(iii) and (d)(4)(ii) of this section apply on December 1, 2023.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 73884, Dec. 1, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.404a-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.404a-2   Safe harbor for automatic rollovers to individual retirement plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Pursuant to section 657(c) of the Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001, Public Law 107-16, June 7, 2001, 115 Stat. 38, this section provides a safe harbor under which a fiduciary of an employee pension benefit plan subject to Title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), 29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.,</I> will be deemed to have satisfied his or her fiduciary duties under section 404(a) of the Act in connection with an automatic rollover of a mandatory distribution described in section 401(a)(31)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the Code). This section also provides a safe harbor for certain other mandatory distributions not described in section 401(a)(31)(B) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(2) The standards set forth in this section apply solely for purposes of determining whether a fiduciary meets the requirements of this safe harbor. Such standards are not intended to be the exclusive means by which a fiduciary might satisfy his or her responsibilities under the Act with respect to rollovers of mandatory distributions described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A fiduciary that meets the conditions of paragraph (c) or paragraph (d) of this section is deemed to have satisfied his or her duties under section 404(a) of the Act with respect to both the selection of an individual retirement plan provider and the investment of funds in connection with the rollover of mandatory distributions described in those paragraphs to an individual retirement plan, within the meaning of section 7701(a)(37) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions.</I> With respect to an automatic rollover of a mandatory distribution described in section 401(a)(31)(B) of the Code, a fiduciary shall qualify for the safe harbor described in paragraph (b) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) The present value of the nonforfeitable accrued benefit, as determined under section 411(a)(11) of the Code, does not exceed the maximum amount under section 401(a)(31)(B) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(2) The mandatory distribution is to an individual retirement plan within the meaning of section 7701(a)(37) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(3) In connection with the distribution of rolled-over funds to an individual retirement plan, the fiduciary enters into a written agreement with an individual retirement plan provider that provides:
</P>
<P>(i) The rolled-over funds shall be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return, whether or not such return is guaranteed, consistent with liquidity;
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the investment product selected for the rolled-over funds shall seek to maintain, over the term of the investment, the dollar value that is equal to the amount invested in the product by the individual retirement plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The investment product selected for the rolled-over funds shall be offered by a state or federally regulated financial institution, which shall be: A bank or savings association, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a credit union, the member accounts of which are insured within the meaning of section 101(7) of the Federal Credit Union Act; an insurance company, the products of which are protected by State guaranty associations; or an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940;
</P>
<P>(iv) All fees and expenses attendant to an individual retirement plan, including investments of such plan, (e.g., establishment charges, maintenance fees, investment expenses, termination costs and surrender charges) shall not exceed the fees and expenses charged by the individual retirement plan provider for comparable individual retirement plans established for reasons other than the receipt of a rollover distribution subject to the provisions of section 401(a)(31)(B) of the Code; and
</P>
<P>(v) The participant on whose behalf the fiduciary makes an automatic rollover shall have the right to enforce the terms of the contractual agreement establishing the individual retirement plan, with regard to his or her rolled-over funds, against the individual retirement plan provider.
</P>
<P>(4) Participants have been furnished a summary plan description, or a summary of material modifications, that describes the plan's automatic rollover provisions effectuating the requirements of section 401(a)(31)(B) of the Code, including an explanation that the mandatory distribution will be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return and liquidity, a statement indicating how fees and expenses attendant to the individual retirement plan will be allocated (<I>i.e.,</I> the extent to which expenses will be borne by the account holder alone or shared with the distributing plan or plan sponsor), and the name, address and phone number of a plan contact (to the extent not otherwise provided in the summary plan description or summary of material modifications) for further information concerning the plan's automatic rollover provisions, the individual retirement plan provider and the fees and expenses attendant to the individual retirement plan; and
</P>
<P>(5) Both the fiduciary's selection of an individual retirement plan and the investment of funds would not result in a prohibited transaction under section 406 of the Act, unless such actions are exempted from the prohibited transaction provisions by a prohibited transaction exemption issued pursuant to section 408(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mandatory distributions of $1,000 or less.</I> A fiduciary shall qualify for the protection afforded by the safe harbor described in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a mandatory distribution of one thousand dollars ($1,000) or less described in section 411(a)(11) of the Code, provided there is no affirmative distribution election by the participant and the fiduciary makes a rollover distribution of such amount into an individual retirement plan on behalf of such participant in accordance with the conditions described in paragraph (c) of this section, without regard to the fact that such rollover is not described in section 401(a)(31)(B) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date.</I> This section shall be effective and shall apply to any rollover of a mandatory distribution made on or after March 28, 2005.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 58028, Sept. 28, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.404a-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.404a-3   Safe harbor for distributions from terminated individual account plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) This section provides a safe harbor under which a fiduciary (including a qualified termination administrator, within the meaning of § 2578.1(g) or (j)(3) of this chapter) of a terminated individual account plan, as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, will be deemed to have satisfied its duties under section 404(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), 29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.,</I> in connection with a distribution described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section shall apply to an individual account plan only if—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an individual account plan that is an abandoned plan within the meaning of § 2578.1 of this chapter, such plan was intended to be maintained as a tax-qualified retirement plan in accordance with the requirements of section 401(a) or 403(a), or as a tax deferred annuity plan in accordance with section 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (Code); or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of any other individual account plan, such plan is maintained in accordance with the requirements of section 401(a), 403(a), or 403(b) of the Code at the time of the distribution.
</P>
<P>(3) The standards set forth in this section apply solely for purposes of determining whether a fiduciary meets the requirements of this safe harbor. Such standards are not intended to be the exclusive means by which a fiduciary might satisfy their responsibilities under the Act with respect to making distributions described in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distributions.</I> This section shall apply to a distribution from a terminated individual account plan if, in connection with such distribution:
</P>
<P>(1) The participant or beneficiary, on whose behalf the distribution will be made, was furnished notice in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section or, in the case of an abandoned plan, § 2578.1(d)(2)(vi) of this chapter, and
</P>
<P>(2) The participant or beneficiary failed to elect a form of distribution within 30 days of the furnishing of the notice described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A fiduciary that meets the conditions of paragraph (d) of this section shall, with respect to a distribution described in paragraph (b) of this section, be deemed to have satisfied its duties under section 404(a) of the Act with respect to the distribution of benefits, selection of a transferee entity described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) through (v) of this section, and the investment of funds in connection with the distribution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions.</I> A fiduciary shall qualify for the safe harbor described in paragraph (c) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) The distribution described in paragraph (b) of this section is made to any of the following transferee entities—
</P>
<P>(i) To an individual retirement plan within the meaning of section 7701(a)(37) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a distribution on behalf of a designated beneficiary (as defined by section 401(a)(9)(E) of the Code) who is not the surviving spouse of the deceased participant, to an inherited individual retirement plan (within the meaning of section 402(c)(11) of the Code) established to receive the distribution on behalf of the nonspouse beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a distribution by a qualified termination administrator (other than a bankruptcy trustee described in § 2578.1(j)(3) of this chapter or an eligible designee described in § 2578.1(j)(4)(ii) of this chapter) with respect to which the amount to be distributed is $1,000 or less and that amount is less than the minimum amount required to be invested in an individual retirement plan product offered by the qualified termination administrator to the public at the time of the distribution, to:
</P>
<P>(A) An interest-bearing federally insured bank or savings association account in the name of the participant or beneficiary,
</P>
<P>(B) The unclaimed property fund of the State in which the participant's or beneficiary's last known address is located, or
</P>
<P>(C) An individual retirement plan (described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section) offered by a financial institution other than the qualified termination administrator to the public at the time of the distribution; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a distribution by a bankruptcy trustee as described in § 2578.1(j)(3) of this chapter or an eligible designee as described in § 2578.1(j)(4)(ii) of this chapter with respect to which the amount to be distributed is $1,000 or less and such bankruptcy trustee or eligible designee, after reasonable and good faith efforts, is unable to locate an individual retirement plan provider who will accept the distribution, to either distribution option described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Notwithstanding paragraphs (d)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section—
</P>
<P>(A) The qualified termination administrator may disregard the $1,000 threshold therein if the qualified termination administrator reasonably and in good faith finds that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The participant is deceased;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The designated beneficiary or beneficiaries are deceased or unable to be identified based on records located and updated pursuant to § 2578.1(d)(2)(i) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The estate of the participant is not the designated beneficiary; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The qualified termination administrator has no actual knowledge of any claims by any person to all or part of the deceased participant's account.
</P>
<P>(B) If the estate of the participant is the designated beneficiary, the qualified termination administrator may disregard the $1,000 threshold therein if the qualified termination administrator reasonably and in good faith finds that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An estate does not exist or cannot be found;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The qualified termination administrator has no actual knowledge of any claims by any person to all or part of the deceased participant's account; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The qualified termination administrator is unable to establish an individual retirement plan for the benefit of the estate of the participant.
</P>
<P>(C) A summary of the pertinent findings made in paragraph (d)(1)(v)(A) or (B) of this section must be included in the notice described in § 2578.1(d)(2)(ix)(G) (the Final Notice) of this chapter, including the basis for the findings (including the name and last known address of the beneficiary, if known) and an attestation that the qualified termination administrator has the full name and last known address of the deceased participant.
</P>
<P>(2) Except with respect to distributions to State unclaimed property funds (described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section), the fiduciary enters into a written agreement with the transferee entity which provides:
</P>
<P>(i) The distributed funds shall be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return, whether or not such return is guaranteed, consistent with liquidity (except that distributions under paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(A) of this section to a bank or savings account are not required to be invested in such a product);
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, the investment product shall—
</P>
<P>(A) Seek to maintain, over the term of the investment, the dollar value that is equal to the amount invested in the product by the individual retirement plan (described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section), and
</P>
<P>(B) Be offered by a State or federally regulated financial institution, which shall be: a bank or savings association, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a credit union, the member accounts of which are insured within the meaning of section 101(7) of the Federal Credit Union Act; an insurance company, the products of which are protected by State guaranty associations; or an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940;
</P>
<P>(iii) All fees and expenses attendant to the transferee plan (described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section) or account (described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(A) of this section), including investments of such plan, (<I>e.g.,</I> establishment charges, maintenance fees, investment expenses, termination costs and surrender charges), shall not exceed the fees and expenses charged by the provider of the plan or account for comparable plans or accounts established for reasons other than the receipt of a distribution under this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The participant or beneficiary on whose behalf the fiduciary makes a distribution shall have the right to enforce the terms of the contractual agreement establishing the plan (described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section) or account (described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(A) of this section), with regard to their transferred account balance, against the plan or account provider.
</P>
<P>(3) Both the fiduciary's selection of a transferee plan (described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section) or account (described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(A) of this section) and the investment of funds would not result in a prohibited transaction under section 406 of the Act, or if so prohibited such actions are exempted from the prohibited transaction provisions by a prohibited transaction exemption issued pursuant to section 408(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice to participants and beneficiaries</I>—(1) <I>Content.</I> Each participant or beneficiary of the plan shall be furnished a notice written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the account balance, the date on which the amount was calculated, and, if relevant, an indication that the amount to be distributed may be more or less than the amount stated in the notice, depending on investment gains or losses and the administrative cost of terminating the plan and distributing benefits;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the distribution options available under the plan and a request that the participant or beneficiary elect a form of distribution and inform the plan administrator (or other fiduciary) identified in paragraph (e)(1)(vii) of this section of that election;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement explaining that, if a participant or beneficiary fails to make an election within 30 days from receipt of the notice, the plan will distribute the account balance of the participant or beneficiary to an individual retirement plan (<I>i.e.,</I> individual retirement account or annuity described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section) and the account balance will be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return and liquidity;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement explaining what fees, if any, will be paid from the participant or beneficiary's individual retirement plan (described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section), if such information is known at the time of the furnishing of this notice;
</P>
<P>(vi) The name, address and phone number of the individual retirement plan (described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section) provider, if such information is known at the time of the furnishing of this notice; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The name, address, and telephone number of the plan administrator (or other fiduciary) from whom a participant or beneficiary may obtain additional information concerning the termination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Manner of furnishing notice.</I> (i) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, a notice shall be furnished to each participant or beneficiary in accordance with the requirements of § 2520.104b-1(b)(1) of this chapter to the last known address of the participant or beneficiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a notice that is returned to the plan as undeliverable, the plan fiduciary shall, consistent with its duties under section 404(a)(1) of the Act, take steps to locate the participant or beneficiary and provide notice prior to making the distribution. If, after such steps, the fiduciary is unsuccessful in locating and furnishing notice to a participant or beneficiary, the participant or beneficiary shall be deemed to have been furnished the notice and to have failed to make an election within 30 days for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Model notice.</I> The appendix to this part contains a model notice that may be used to discharge the notification requirements under this section for plans other than abandoned plans. Use of the model notice is not mandatory. However, use of an appropriately completed model notice will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section. For a model notice for abandoned plans, see Appendix D to part 2578.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43657, May 17, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.404a-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.404a-4   Selection of annuity providers—safe harbor for individual account plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section establishes a safe harbor for satisfying the fiduciary duties under section 404(a)(1)(B) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1104-1114, in selecting an annuity provider and contract for benefit distributions from an individual account plan. For guidance concerning the selection of an annuity provider for defined benefit plans see 29 CFR 2509.95-1.
</P>
<P>(2) This section sets forth an optional means for satisfying the fiduciary responsibilities under section 404(a)(1)(B) of ERISA with respect to the selection of an annuity provider or contract for benefit distributions. This section does not establish minimum requirements or the exclusive means for satisfying these responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe harbor.</I> The selection of an annuity provider for benefit distributions from an individual account plan satisfies the requirements of section 404(a)(1)(B) of ERISA if the fiduciary:
</P>
<P>(1) Engages in an objective, thorough and analytical search for the purpose of identifying and selecting providers from which to purchase annuities;
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriately considers information sufficient to assess the ability of the annuity provider to make all future payments under the annuity contract;
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriately considers the cost (including fees and commissions) of the annuity contract in relation to the benefits and administrative services to be provided under such contract;
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriately concludes that, at the time of the selection, the annuity provider is financially able to make all future payments under the annuity contract and the cost of the annuity contract is reasonable in relation to the benefits and services to be provided under the contract; and
</P>
<P>(5) If necessary, consults with an appropriate expert or experts for purposes of compliance with the provisions of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time of selection.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, the “time of selection” may be either:
</P>
<P>(1) The time that the annuity provider and contract are selected for distribution of benefits to a specific participant or beneficiary; or
</P>
<P>(2) The time that the annuity provider is selected to provide annuity contracts at future dates to participants or beneficiaries, provided that the selecting fiduciary periodically reviews the continuing appropriateness of the conclusion described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, taking into account the factors described in paragraphs (b)(2), (3) and (5) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2), a fiduciary is not required to review the appropriateness of this conclusion with respect to any annuity contract purchased for any specific participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 58449, Oct. 7, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.404a-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.404a-5   Fiduciary requirements for disclosure in participant-directed individual account plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The investment of plan assets is a fiduciary act governed by the fiduciary standards of section 404(a)(1)(A) and (B) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I> (all section references herein are references to ERISA unless otherwise indicated). Pursuant to section 404(a)(1)(A) and (B), fiduciaries must discharge their duties with respect to the plan prudently and solely in the interest of participants and beneficiaries. When the documents and instruments governing an individual account plan, described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, provide for the allocation of investment responsibilities to participants or beneficiaries, the plan administrator, as defined in section 3(16), must take steps to ensure, consistent with section 404(a)(1)(A) and (B), that such participants and beneficiaries, on a regular and periodic basis, are made aware of their rights and responsibilities with respect to the investment of assets held in, or contributed to, their accounts and are provided sufficient information regarding the plan, including fees and expenses, and regarding designated investment alternatives, including fees and expenses attendant thereto, to make informed decisions with regard to the management of their individual accounts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Satisfaction of duty to disclose</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The plan administrator of a covered individual account plan must comply with the disclosure requirements set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section with respect to each participant or beneficiary that, pursuant to the terms of the plan, has the right to direct the investment of assets held in, or contributed to, his or her individual account. Compliance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section will satisfy the duty to make the regular and periodic disclosures described in paragraph (a) of this section, provided that the information contained in such disclosures is complete and accurate. A plan administrator will not be liable for the completeness and accuracy of information used to satisfy these disclosure requirements when the plan administrator reasonably and in good faith relies on information received from or provided by a plan service provider or the issuer of a designated investment alternative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered individual account plan.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a “covered individual account plan” is any participant-directed individual account plan as defined in section 3(34) of ERISA, except that such term shall not include plans involving individual retirement accounts or individual retirement annuities described in sections 408(k) (“simplified employee pension”) or 408(p) (“simple retirement account”) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure of plan-related information.</I> A plan administrator (or person designated by the plan administrator to act on its behalf) shall provide to each participant or beneficiary the plan-related information described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, based on the latest information available to the plan.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> (i) On or before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments and at least annually thereafter:
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation of the circumstances under which participants and beneficiaries may give investment instructions;
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation of any specified limitations on such instructions under the terms of the plan, including any restrictions on transfer to or from a designated investment alternative;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of or reference to plan provisions relating to the exercise of voting, tender and similar rights appurtenant to an investment in a designated investment alternative as well as any restrictions on such rights;
</P>
<P>(D) An identification of any designated investment alternatives offered under the plan;
</P>
<P>(E) An identification of any designated investment managers; and
</P>
<P>(F) A description of any “brokerage windows,” “self-directed brokerage accounts,” or similar plan arrangements that enable participants and beneficiaries to select investments beyond those designated by the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a change to the information described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) through (F) of this section, each participant and beneficiary must be furnished a description of such change at least 30 days, but not more than 90 days, in advance of the effective date of such change, unless the inability to provide such advance notice is due to events that were unforeseeable or circumstances beyond the control of the plan administrator, in which case notice of such change must be furnished as soon as reasonably practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Administrative expenses.</I> (i)(A) On or before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments and at least annually thereafter, an explanation of any fees and expenses for general plan administrative services (e.g., legal, accounting, recordkeeping), which may be charged against the individual accounts of participants and beneficiaries and are not reflected in the total annual operating expenses of any designated investment alternative, as well as the basis on which such charges will be allocated (e.g., pro rata, per capita) to, or affect the balance of, each individual account.
</P>
<P>(B) If there is a change to the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section, each participant and beneficiary must be furnished a description of such change at least 30 days, but not more than 90 days, in advance of the effective date of such change, unless the inability to provide such advance notice is due to events that were unforeseeable or circumstances beyond the control of the plan administrator, in which case notice of such change must be furnished as soon as reasonably practicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least quarterly, a statement that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) The dollar amount of the fees and expenses described in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section that are actually charged (whether by liquidating shares or deducting dollars) during the preceding quarter to the participant's or beneficiary's account for such services;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the services to which the charges relate (e.g., plan administration, including recordkeeping, legal, accounting services); and
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, an explanation that, in addition to the fees and expenses disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, some of the plan's administrative expenses for the preceding quarter were paid from the total annual operating expenses of one or more of the plan's designated investment alternatives (e.g., through revenue sharing arrangements, Rule 12b-1 fees, sub-transfer agent fees).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Individual expenses.</I> (i)(A) On or before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments and at least annually thereafter, an explanation of any fees and expenses that may be charged against the individual account of a participant or beneficiary on an individual, rather than on a plan-wide, basis (e.g., fees attendant to processing plan loans or qualified domestic relations orders, fees for investment advice, fees for brokerage windows, commissions, front- or back-end loads or sales charges, redemption fees, transfer fees and similar expenses, and optional rider charges in annuity contracts) and which are not reflected in the total annual operating expenses of any designated investment alternative.
</P>
<P>(B) If there is a change to the information described in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section, each participant and beneficiary must be furnished a description of such change at least 30 days, but not more than 90 days, in advance of the effective date of such change, unless the inability to provide such advance notice is due to events that were unforeseeable or circumstances beyond the control of the plan administrator, in which case notice of such change must be furnished as soon as reasonably practicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least quarterly, a statement that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) The dollar amount of the fees and expenses described in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section that are actually charged (whether by liquidating shares or deducting dollars) during the preceding quarter to the participant's or beneficiary's account for individual services; and
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the services to which the charges relate (e.g., loan processing fee).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosures on or before first investment.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (c)(2)(i)(A), (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section to furnish information on or before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments may be satisfied by furnishing to the participant or beneficiary the most recent annual disclosure furnished to participants and beneficiaries pursuant those paragraphs and any updates to the information furnished to participants and beneficiaries pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1)(ii), (c)(2)(i)(B) and (c)(3)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure of investment-related information.</I> The plan administrator (or person designated by the plan administrator to act on its behalf), based on the latest information available to the plan, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Information to be provided automatically.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, furnish to each participant or beneficiary on or before the date on which he or she can first direct his or her investments and at least annually thereafter, the following information with respect to each designated investment alternative offered under the plan—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Identifying information.</I> Such information shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of each designated investment alternative; and
</P>
<P>(B) The type or category of the investment (e.g., money market fund, balanced fund (stocks and bonds), large-cap stock fund, employer stock fund, employer securities).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Performance data.</I> (A) For designated investment alternatives with respect to which the return is not fixed, the average annual total return of the investment for 1-, 5-, and 10-calendar year periods (or for the life of the alternative, if shorter) ending on the date of the most recently completed calendar year; as well as a statement indicating that an investment's past performance is not necessarily an indication of how the investment will perform in the future; and
</P>
<P>(B) For designated investment alternatives with respect to which the return is fixed or stated for the term of the investment, both the fixed or stated annual rate of return and the term of the investment. If, with respect to such a designated investment alternative, the issuer reserves the right to adjust the fixed or stated rate of return prospectively during the term of the contract or agreement, the current rate of return, the minimum rate guaranteed under the contract, if any, and a statement advising participants and beneficiaries that the issuer may adjust the rate of return prospectively and how to obtain (e.g., telephone or Web site) the most recent rate of return required under this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Benchmarks.</I> For designated investment alternatives with respect to which the return is not fixed, the name and returns of an appropriate broad-based securities market index over the 1-, 5-, and 10-calendar year periods (or for the life of the alternative, if shorter) comparable to the performance data periods provided under paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, and which is not administered by an affiliate of the investment issuer, its investment adviser, or a principal underwriter, unless the index is widely recognized and used.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Fee and expense information.</I> (A) For designated investment alternatives with respect to which the return is not fixed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The amount and a description of each shareholder-type fee (fees charged directly against a participant's or beneficiary's investment, such as commissions, sales loads, sales charges, deferred sales charges, redemption fees, surrender charges, exchange fees, account fees, and purchase fees, which are not included in the total annual operating expenses of any designated investment alternative) and a description of any restriction or limitation that may be applicable to a purchase, transfer, or withdrawal of the investment in whole or in part (such as round trip, equity wash, or other restrictions);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The total annual operating expenses of the investment expressed as a percentage (<I>i.e.,</I> expense ratio), calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The total annual operating expenses of the investment for a one-year period expressed as a dollar amount for a $1,000 investment (assuming no returns and based on the percentage described in paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A statement indicating that fees and expenses are only one of several factors that participants and beneficiaries should consider when making investment decisions; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A statement that the cumulative effect of fees and expenses can substantially reduce the growth of a participant's or beneficiary's retirement account and that participants and beneficiaries can visit the Employee Benefit Security Administration's Web site for an example demonstrating the long-term effect of fees and expenses.
</P>
<P>(B) For designated investment alternatives with respect to which the return is fixed for the term of the investment, the amount and a description of any shareholder-type fees and a description of any restriction or limitation that may be applicable to a purchase, transfer or withdrawal of the investment in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Internet Web site address.</I> An Internet Web site address that is sufficiently specific to provide participants and beneficiaries access to the following information regarding the designated investment alternative:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the alternative's issuer;
</P>
<P>(B) The alternative's objectives or goals in a manner consistent with Securities and Exchange Commission Form N-1A or N-3, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(C) The alternative's principal strategies (including a general description of the types of assets held by the investment) and principal risks in a manner consistent with Securities and Exchange Commission Form N-1A or N-3, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(D) The alternative's portfolio turnover rate in a manner consistent with Securities and Exchange Commission Form N-1A or N-3, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(E) The alternative's performance data described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section updated on at least a quarterly basis, or more frequently if required by other applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(F) The alternative's fee and expense information described in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Glossary.</I> A general glossary of terms to assist participants and beneficiaries in understanding the designated investment alternatives, or an Internet Web site address that is sufficiently specific to provide access to such a glossary along with a general explanation of the purpose of the address.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Annuity options.</I> If a designated investment alternative is part of a contract, fund or product that permits participants or beneficiaries to allocate contributions toward the future purchase of a stream of retirement income payments guaranteed by an insurance company, the information set forth in paragraph (i)(2)(i) through (i)(2)(vii) of this section with respect to the annuity option, to the extent such information is not otherwise included in investment-related fees and expenses described in paragraph (d)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Disclosures on or before first investment.</I> The requirement in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to provide information to a participant or beneficiary on or before the date on which the participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments may be satisfied by furnishing to the participant or beneficiary the most recent annual disclosure furnished to participants and beneficiaries pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Comparative format.</I> (i) Furnish the information described in paragraph (d)(1) and, if applicable, paragraph (i) of this section in a chart or similar format that is designed to facilitate a comparison of such information for each designated investment alternative available under the plan and prominently displays the date, and that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement indicating the name, address, and telephone number of the plan administrator (or a person or persons designated by the plan administrator to act on its behalf) to contact for the provision of the information required by paragraph (d)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that additional investment-related information (including more current performance information) is available at the listed Internet Web site addresses (<I>see</I> paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement explaining how to request and obtain, free of charge, paper copies of the information required to be made available on a Web site pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(v), paragraph (i)(2)(vi), relating to annuity options, or paragraph (i)(3), relating to fixed-return investments, of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nothing in this section shall preclude a plan administrator from including additional information that the plan administrator determines appropriate for such comparisons, provided such information is not inaccurate or misleading.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information to be provided subsequent to investment.</I> Furnish to each investing participant or beneficiary, subsequent to an investment in a designated investment alternative, any materials provided to the plan relating to the exercise of voting, tender and similar rights appurtenant to the investment, to the extent that such rights are passed through to such participant or beneficiary under the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information to be provided upon request.</I> Furnish to each participant or beneficiary, either at the times specified in paragraph (d)(1), or upon request, the following information relating to designated investment alternatives—
</P>
<P>(i) Copies of prospectuses (or, alternatively, any short-form or summary prospectus, the form of which has been approved by the Securities and Exchange Commission) for the disclosure of information to investors by entities registered under either the Securities Act of 1933 or the Investment Company Act of 1940, or similar documents relating to designated investment alternatives that are provided by entities that are not registered under either of these Acts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Copies of any financial statements or reports, such as statements of additional information and shareholder reports, and of any other similar materials relating to the plan's designated investment alternatives, to the extent such materials are provided to the plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the value of a share or unit of each designated investment alternative as well as the date of the valuation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of the assets comprising the portfolio of each designated investment alternative which constitute plan assets within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-101 and the value of each such asset (or the proportion of the investment which it comprises).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form of disclosure.</I> (1) The information required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (c)(2)(i)(A), and (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section may be provided as part of the plan's summary plan description furnished pursuant to ERISA section 102 or as part of a pension benefit statement furnished pursuant to ERISA section 105(a)(1)(A)(i), if such summary plan description or pension benefit statement is furnished at a frequency that comports with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The information required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (c)(3)(ii) of this section may be included as part of a pension benefit statement furnished pursuant to ERISA section 105(a)(1)(A)(i).
</P>
<P>(3) A plan administrator that uses and accurately completes the model in the Appendix, taking into account each designated investment alternative offered under the plan, will be deemed to have satisfied the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as otherwise explicitly required herein, fees and expenses may be expressed in terms of a monetary amount, formula, percentage of assets, or per capita charge.
</P>
<P>(5) The information required to be prepared by the plan administrator for disclosure under this section shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Selection and monitoring.</I> Nothing herein is intended to relieve a fiduciary from its duty to prudently select and monitor providers of services to the plan or designated investment alternatives offered under the plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Manner of furnishing.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the term—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>At least annually thereafter</I> means at least once in any 14-month period, without regard to whether the plan operates on a calendar year or fiscal year basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>At least quarterly</I> means at least once in any 3-month period, without regard to whether the plan operates on a calendar or fiscal year basis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Average annual total return</I> means the average annual compounded rate of return that would equate an initial investment in a designated investment alternative to the ending redeemable value of that investment calculated with the before tax methods of computation prescribed in Securities and Exchange Commission Form N-1A, N-3, or N-4, as appropriate, except that such method of computation may exclude any front-end, deferred or other sales loads that are waived for the participants and beneficiaries of the covered individual account plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Designated investment alternative</I> means any investment alternative designated by the plan into which participants and beneficiaries may direct the investment of assets held in, or contributed to, their individual accounts. The term “designated investment alternative” shall not include “brokerage windows,” “self-directed brokerage accounts,” or similar plan arrangements that enable participants and beneficiaries to select investments beyond those designated by the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total annual operating expenses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a designated investment alternative that is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the annual operating expenses and other asset-based charges before waivers and reimbursements (e.g., investment management fees, distribution fees, service fees, administrative expenses, separate account expenses, mortality and expense risk fees) that reduce the alternative's rate of return, expressed as a percentage, calculated in accordance with the required Securities and Exchange Commission form, e.g., Form N-1A (open-end management investment companies) or Form N-3 or N-4 (separate accounts offering variable annuity contracts); or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a designated investment alternative that is not registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the sum of the fees and expenses described in paragraphs (h)(5)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section before waivers and reimbursements, for the alternative's most recently completed fiscal year, expressed as a percentage of the alternative's average net asset value for that year—
</P>
<P>(A) Management fees as described in the Securities and Exchange Commission Form N-1A that reduce the alternative's rate of return,
</P>
<P>(B) Distribution and/or servicing fees as described in the Securities and Exchange Commission Form N-1A that reduce the alternative's rate of return, and
</P>
<P>(C) Any other fees or expenses not included in paragraphs (h)(5)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section that reduce the alternative's rate of return (e.g., externally negotiated fees, custodial expenses, legal expenses, accounting expenses, transfer agent expenses, recordkeeping fees, administrative fees, separate account expenses, mortality and expense risk fees), excluding brokerage costs described in Item 21 of Securities and Exchange Commission Form N-1A.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Special rules.</I> The rules set forth in this paragraph apply solely for purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Qualifying employer securities.</I> In the case of designated investment alternatives designed to invest in, or primarily in, qualifying employer securities, within the meaning of section 407 of ERISA, the following rules shall apply—
</P>
<P>(i) In lieu of the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(v)(C) of this section (relating to principal strategies and principal risks), provide an explanation of the importance of a well-balanced and diversified investment portfolio.
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(v)(D) of this section (relating to portfolio turnover rate) do not apply to such designated investment alternatives.
</P>
<P>(iii) The requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(v)(F) of this section (relating to fee and expense information) do not apply to such designated investment alternatives, unless the designated investment alternative is a fund with respect to which participants or beneficiaries acquire units of participation, rather than actual shares, in exchange for their investment.
</P>
<P>(iv) The requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section (relating to total annual operating expenses expressed as a percentage) do not apply to such designated investment alternatives, unless the designated investment alternative is a fund with respect to which participants or beneficiaries acquire units of participation, rather than actual shares, in exchange for their investment.
</P>
<P>(v) The requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section (relating to total annual operating expenses expressed as a dollar amount per $1,000 invested) do not apply to such designated investment alternatives, unless the designated investment alternative is a fund with respect to which participants or beneficiaries acquire units of participation, rather than actual shares, in exchange for their investment.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) With respect to the requirement in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section (relating to performance data for 1-, 5-, and 10-year periods), the definition of “average annual total return” as defined in paragraph (i)(1)(vi)(B) of this section shall apply to such designated investment alternatives in lieu of the definition in paragraph (h)(3) of this section if the qualifying employer securities are publicly traded on a national exchange or generally recognized market and the designated investment alternative is not a fund with respect to which participants or beneficiaries acquire units of participation, rather than actual shares, in exchange for their investment.
</P>
<P>(B) The term “average annual total return” means the change in value of an investment in one share of stock on an annualized basis over a specified period, calculated by taking the sum of the dividends paid during the measurement period, assuming reinvestment, plus the difference between the stock price (consistent with ERISA section 3(18)) at the end and at the beginning of the measurement period, and dividing by the stock price at the beginning of the measurement period; reinvestment of dividends is assumed to be in stock at market prices at approximately the same time actual dividends are paid.
</P>
<P>(C) The definition of “average annual total return” in paragraph (i)(1)(vi)(B) of this section shall apply to such designated investment alternatives consisting of employer securities that are not publicly traded on a national exchange or generally recognized market, unless the designated investment alternative is a fund with respect to which participants or beneficiaries acquire units of participation, rather than actual shares, in exchange for their investment. Changes in value shall be calculated using principles similar to those set forth in paragraph (i)(1)(vi)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annuity options.</I> In the case of a designated investment alternative that is a contract, fund or product that permits participants or beneficiaries to allocate contributions toward the current purchase of a stream of retirement income payments guaranteed by an insurance company, the plan administrator shall, in lieu of the information required by paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(v), provide each participant or beneficiary the following information with respect to each such option:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the contract, fund or product;
</P>
<P>(ii) The option's objectives or goals (e.g., to provide a stream of fixed retirement income payments for life);
</P>
<P>(iii) The benefits and factors that determine the price (e.g., age, interest rates, form of distribution) of the guaranteed income payments;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any limitations on the ability of a participant or beneficiary to withdraw or transfer amounts allocated to the option (e.g., lock-ups) and any fees or charges applicable to such withdrawals or transfers;
</P>
<P>(v) Any fees that will reduce the value of amounts allocated by participants or beneficiaries to the option, such as surrender charges, market value adjustments, and administrative fees;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that guarantees of an insurance company are subject to its long-term financial strength and claims-paying ability; and
</P>
<P>(vii) An Internet Web site address that is sufficiently specific to provide participants and beneficiaries access to the following information—
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the option's issuer and of the contract, fund or product;
</P>
<P>(B) Description of the option's objectives or goals;
</P>
<P>(C) Description of the option's distribution alternatives/guaranteed income payments (e.g., payments for life, payments for a specified term, joint and survivor payments, optional rider payments), including any limitations on the right of a participant or beneficiary to receive such payments;
</P>
<P>(D) Description of costs and/or factors taken into account in determining the price of benefits under an option's distribution alternatives/guaranteed income payments (e.g., age, interest rates, other annuitization assumptions);
</P>
<P>(E) Description of any limitations on the right of a participant or beneficiary to withdraw or transfer amounts allocated to the option and any fees or charges applicable to a withdrawal or transfer; and
</P>
<P>(F) Description of any fees that will reduce the value of amounts allocated by participants or beneficiaries to the option (e.g., surrender charges, market value adjustments, administrative fees).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fixed-return investments.</I> In the case of a designated investment alternative with respect to which the return is fixed for the term of the investment, the plan administrator shall, in lieu of complying with the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section, provide an Internet Web site address that is sufficiently specific to provide participants and beneficiaries access to the following information—
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the alternative's issuer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The alternatives objectives or goals (e.g., to provide stability of principal and guarantee a minimum rate of return);
</P>
<P>(iii) The alternative's performance data described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section updated on at least a quarterly basis, or more frequently if required by other applicable law;
</P>
<P>(iv) The alternative's fee and expense information described in paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Target date or similar funds.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This section shall be effective on December 20, 2010.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section shall apply to covered individual account plans for plan years beginning on or after November 1, 2011.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transitional rules.</I> (i)(A) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this section, the initial disclosures required on or before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments must be furnished no later than the later of 60 days after such applicability date or 60 days after the effective date of 29 CFR 2550.408b-2(c).
</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the initial disclosures required under paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (c)(3)(ii) of this section must be furnished no later than 45 days after the end of the quarter in which the disclosure referred to in paragraph (j)(3)(i)(A) of this section was required to be furnished to participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(ii) For plan years beginning before October 1, 2021, if a plan administrator reasonably and in good faith determines that it does not have the information on expenses attributable to the plan that is necessary to calculate, in accordance with paragraph (h)(3) of this section, the 5-year and 10-year average annual total returns for a designated investment alternative that is not registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the plan administrator may use a reasonable estimate of such expenses or the plan administrator may use the most recently reported total annual operating expenses of the designated investment alternative as a substitute for such expenses. When a plan administrator uses a reasonable estimate or the most recently reported total annual operating expenses as a substitute for actual expenses pursuant to this paragraph, the administrator shall inform participants of the basis on which the returns were determined. Nothing in this section requires disclosure of returns for periods before the inception of a designated investment alternative.
</P>
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<img src="/graphics/er20oc10.003.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64937, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 42542, July 19, 2011; 80 FR 14304, Mar. 19, 2015]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.404b-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.404b-1   Maintenance of the indicia of ownership of plan assets outside the jurisdiction of the district courts of the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No fiduciary may maintain the indicia of ownership of any assets of a plan outside the jurisdiction of the district courts of the United States, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Such assets are:
</P>
<P>(i) Securities issued by a person, as defined in section 3(9) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (Act) (other than an individual), which is not organized under the laws of the United States or a State and does not have its principal place of business within the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Securities issued by a government other than the government of the United States or of a State, or any political subdivision, agency or instrumentality of such a government;
</P>
<P>(iii) Securities issued by a person, as defined in section 3(9) of the Act (other than an individual), the principal trading market for which securities is outside the jurisdiction of the district courts of the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Currency issued by a government other than the government of the United States if such currency is maintained outside the jurisdiction of the district courts of the United States solely as an incident to the purchase, sale or maintenance of securities described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Such assets are under the management and control of a fiduciary which is a corporation or partnership organized under the laws of the United States or a State, which fiduciary has its principal place of business within the United States and which is—
</P>
<P>(A) A bank as defined in section 202 (a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 that has, as of the last day of its most recent fiscal year, equity capital in excess of $1,000,000; 
</P>
<P>(B) An insurance company which is qualified under the laws of more than one State to manage, acquire, or dispose of any asset of a plan, which company has, as of the last day of its most recent fiscal year, net worth in excess of $1,000,000 and which is subject to supervision and examination by the State authority having supervision over insurance companies; or 
</P>
<P>(C) An investment adviser registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 that has, as of the last day of its most recent fiscal year, total client assets under its management and control in excess $50,000,000 and either 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Shareholders' or partners' equity in excess of $750,000 or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All of its obligations and liabilities assumed or guaranteed by a person described in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A), (B), or (C)(<I>1</I>) or (a)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Such indicia of ownership are either 
</P>
<P>(A) In the physical possession of, or, as a result of normal business operations, are in transit to the physical possession of, a person which is organized under the laws of the United States or a State, which person has its principal place of business in the United States and which is—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bank as defined in section 202(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 that has, as of the last day of its most recent fiscal year, equity capital in excess of $1,000,000; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that has, as of the last day of its most recent fiscal year, net worth in excess of $750,000; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that has all of its obligations and liabilities assumed or guaranteed by a person described in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A), (B), or (C)(<I>1</I>) or (a)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Maintained by a broker or dealer, described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (<I>3</I>) of this section, in the custody of an entity designated by the Securities and Exchange Commission as a “satisfactory control location” with respect to such broker or dealer pursuant to Rule 15c3-3 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such entity holds the indicia of ownership as agent for the broker or dealer, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such broker or dealer is liable to the plan to the same extent it would be if it retained the physical possession of the indicia of ownership pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Maintained by a bank described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), in the custody of an entity that is a foreign securities depository, foreign clearing agency which acts as a securities depository, or foreign bank, which entity is supervised or regulated by a government agency or regulatory authority in the foreign jurisdiction having authority over such depositories, clearing agencies or banks, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The foreign entity holds the indicia of ownership as agent for the bank;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bank is liable to the plan to the same extent it would be if it retained the physical possession of the indicia of ownership within the United States;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The indicia of ownership are not subject to any right, charge, security interest, lien or claim of any kind in favor of the foreign entity except for their safe custody or administration;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Beneficial ownership of the assets represented by the indicia of ownership is freely transferable without the payment of money or value other than for safe custody or administration; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Upon request by the plan fiduciary who is responsible for the selection and retention of the bank, the bank identifies to such fiduciary the name, address and principal place of business of the foreign entity which acts as custodian for the plan pursuant to this paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(C), and the name and address of the governmental agency or other regulatory authority that supervises or regulates that foreign entity.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding any requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, a fiduciary with respect to a plan may maintain in Canada the indicia of ownership of plan assets which are attributable to a contribution made on behalf of a plan participant who is a citizen or resident of Canada, if such indicia of ownership must remain in Canada in order for the plan to qualify for and maintain tax exempt status under the laws of Canada or to comply with other applicable laws of Canada or any Province of Canada. 
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this regulation:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>management and control</I> means the power to direct the acquisition or disposition through purchase, sale, pledging, or other means; and
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>depository</I> means any company, or agency or instrumentality of government, that acts as a custodian of securities in connection with a system for the central handling of securities whereby all securities of a particular class or series of any issuer deposited within the system are treated as fungible and may be transferred, loaned, or pledged by bookkeeping entry without physical delivery of securities certificates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 54124, Oct. 4, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 1267, Jan. 6, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.404c-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.404c-1   ERISA section 404(c) plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Section 404(c) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act) provides that if a pension plan that provides for individual accounts permits a participant or beneficiary to exercise control over assets in his account and that participant or beneficiary in fact exercises control over assets in his account, then the participant or beneficiary shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary by reason of his exercise of control and no person who is otherwise a fiduciary shall be liable for any loss, or by reason of any breach, which results from such exercise of control. This section describes the kinds of plans that are “ERISA section 404(c) plans,” the circumstances in which a participant or beneficiary is considered to have exercised independent control over the assets in his account as contemplated by section 404(c), and the consequences of a participant's or beneficiary's exercise of control.
</P>
<P>(2) The standards set forth in this section are applicable solely for the purpose of determining whether a plan is an ERISA section 404(c) plan and whether a particular transaction engaged in by a participant or beneficiary of such plan is afforded relief by section 404(c). Such standards, therefore, are not intended to be applied in determining whether, or to what extent, a plan which does not meet the requirements for an ERISA section 404(c) plan or a fiduciary with respect to such a plan satisfies the fiduciary responsibility or other provisions of title I of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ERISA section 404(c) plans</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An “ERISA section 404(c) Plan” is an individual account plan described in section 3(34) of the Act that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides an opportunity for a participant or beneficiary to exercise control over assets in his individual account (see paragraph (b)(2) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a participant or beneficiary an opportunity to choose, from a broad range of investment alternatives, the manner in which some or all of the assets in his account are invested (see paragraph (b)(3) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opportunity to exercise control.</I> (i) A plan provides a participant or beneficiary an opportunity to exercise control over assets in his account only if:
</P>
<P>(A) Under the terms of the plan, the participant or beneficiary has a reasonable opportunity to give investment instructions (in writing or otherwise, with opportunity to obtain written confirmation of such instructions) to an identified plan fiduciary who is obligated to comply with such instructions except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) and (d)(2)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The participant or beneficiary is provided or has the opportunity to obtain sufficient information to make informed investment decisions with regard to investment alternatives available under the plan, and incidents of ownership appurtenant to such investments. For purposes of this paragraph, a participant or beneficiary will be considered to have sufficient information if the participant or beneficiary is provided by an identified plan fiduciary (or a person or persons designated by the plan fiduciary to act on his behalf):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An explanation that the plan is intended to constitute a plan described in section 404(c) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act, and 29 CFR 2550.404c-1, and that the fiduciaries of the plan may be relieved of liability for any losses which are the direct and necessary result of investment instructions given by such participant or beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The information required pursuant to 29 CFR 2550.404a-5; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In the case of plans which offer an investment alternative which is designed to permit a participant or beneficiary to directly or indirectly acquire or sell any employer security (employer security alternative), a description of the procedures established to provide for the confidentiality of information relating to the purchase, holding and sale of employer securities, and the exercise of voting, tender and similar rights, by participants and beneficiaries, and the name, address and phone number of the plan fiduciary responsible for monitoring compliance with the procedures (<I>see</I> paragraphs (d)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>4</I>)(<I>vii</I>), (<I>viii</I>) and (<I>ix</I>) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan does not fail to provide an opportunity for a participant or beneficiary to exercise control over his individual account merely because it—
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Imposes charges for reasonable expenses.</I> A plan may charge participants' and beneficiaries' accounts for the reasonable expenses of carrying out investment instructions, provided that procedures are established under the plan to periodically inform such participants and beneficiaries of actual expenses incurred with respect to their respective individual accounts;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Permits a fiduciary to decline to implement investment instructions by participants and beneficiaries.</I> A fiduciary may decline to implement participant and beneficiary instructions which are described at paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, as well as instructions specified in the plan, including instructions—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Which would result in a prohibited transaction described in ERISA section 406 or section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code, and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which would generate income that would be taxable to the plan;
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Imposes reasonable restrictions on frequency of investment instructions.</I> A plan may impose reasonable restrictions on the frequency with which participants and beneficiaries may give investment instructions. In no event, however, is such a restriction reasonable unless, with respect to each investment alternative made available by the plan, it permits participants and beneficiaries to give investment instructions with a frequency which is appropriate in light of the market volatility to which the investment alternative may reasonably be expected to be subject, provided that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) At least three of the investment alternatives made available pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) of this section, which constitute a broad range of investment alternatives, Permit participants and beneficiaries to give investment instructions no less frequently than once within any three month period; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) At least one of the investment alternatives meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section permits participants and beneficiaries to give investment instructions with regard to transfers into the investment alternative as frequently as participants and beneficiaries are permitted to give investment instructions with respect to any investment alternative made available by the plan which permits participants and beneficiaries to give investment instructions more frequently than once within any three month period; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) With respect to each investment alternative which permits participants and beneficiaries to give investment instructions more frequently than once within any three month period, participants and beneficiaries are permitted to direct their investments from such alternative into an income producing, low risk, liquid fund, subfund, or account as frequently as they are permitted to give investment instructions with respect to each such alternative and, with respect to such fund, subfund or account, participants and beneficiaries are permitted to direct investments from the fund, subfund or account to an investment alternative meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) as frequently as they are permitted to give investment instructions with respect to that investment alternative; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) With respect to transfers from an investment alternative which is designed to permit a participant or beneficiary to directly or indirectly acquire or sell any employer security (employer security alternative) either:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) All of the investment alternatives meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section must permit participants and beneficiaries to give investment instructions with regard to transfers into each of the investment alternatives as frequently as participants and beneficiaries are permitted to give investment instructions with respect to the employer security alternative; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Participants and beneficiaries are permitted to direct their investments from each employer security alternative into an income producing, low risk, liquid fund, subfund, or account as frequently as they are permitted to give investment instructions with respect to such employer security alternative and, with respect to such fund, subfund, or account, participants and beneficiaries are permitted to direct investments from the fund, subfund or account to each investment alternative meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) as frequently as they are permitted to give investment instructions with respect to each such investment alternative.
</P>
<P>(iii) Paragraph (c) of this section describes the circumstances under which a participant or beneficiary will be considered to have exercised independent control with respect to a particular transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Broad range of investment alternatives.</I> (i) A plan offers a broad range of investment alternatives only if the available investment alternatives are sufficient to provide the participant or beneficiary with a reasonable opportunity to:
</P>
<P>(A) Materially affect the potential return on amounts in his individual account with respect to which he is permitted to exercise control and the degree of risk to which such amounts are subject;
</P>
<P>(B) Choose from at least three investment alternatives:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Each of which is diversified;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Each of which has materially different risk and return characteristics;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Which in the aggregate enable the participant or beneficiary by choosing among them to achieve a portfolio with aggregate risk and return characteristics at any point within the range normally appropriate for the participant or beneficiary; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Each of which when combined with investments in the other alternatives tends to minimize through diversification the overall risk of a participant's or beneficiary's portfolio;
</P>
<P>(C) Diversify the investment of that portion of his individual account with respect to which he is permitted to exercise control so as to minimize the risk of large losses, taking into account the nature of the plan and the size of participants' or beneficiaries' accounts. In determining whether a plan provides the participant or beneficiary with a reasonable opportunity to diversify his investments, the nature of the investment alternatives offered by the plan and the size of the portion of the individual's account over which he is permitted to exercise control must be considered. Where such portion of the account of any participant or beneficiary is so limited in size that the opportunity to invest in look-through investment vehicles is the only prudent means to assure an opportunity to achieve appropriate diversification, a plan may satisfy the requirements of this paragraph only by offering look-through investment vehicles.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Diversification and look-through investment vehicles.</I> Where look-through investment vehicles are available as investment alternatives to participants and beneficiaries, the underlying investments of the look-through investment vehicles shall be considered in determining whether the plan satisfies the requirements of subparagraphs (b)(3)(i)(B) and (b)(3)(i)(C).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exercise of control</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) Sections 404(c)(1) and 404(c)(2) of the Act and paragraphs (a) and (d) of this section apply only with respect to a transaction where a participant or beneficiary has exercised independent control in fact with respect to the investment of assets in his individual account under an ERISA section 404(c) plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of sections 404(c)(1) and 404(c)(2) of the Act and paragraphs (a) and (d) of this section, a participant or beneficiary will be deemed to have exercised control with respect to voting, tender or similar rights appurtenant to the participant's or beneficiary's ownership interest in an investment alternative, provided that the participant's or beneficiary's investment in the investment alternative was itself the result of an exercise of control; the participant or beneficiary was provided a reasonable opportunity to give instruction with respect to such incidents of ownership, including the provision of the information described in 29 CFR 2550.404a-5(d)(3); and the participant or beneficiary has not failed to exercise control by reason of the circumstances described in paragraph (c)(2) with respect to such incidents of ownership.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Independent control.</I> Whether a participant or beneficiary has exercised independent control in fact with respect to a transaction depends on the facts and circumstances of the particular case. However, a participant's or beneficiary's exercise of control is not independent in fact if:
</P>
<P>(i) The participant or beneficiary is subjected to improper influence by a plan fiduciary or the plan sponsor with respect to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan fiduciary has concealed material non-public facts regarding the investment from the participant or beneficiary, unless the disclosure of such information by the plan fiduciary to the participant or beneficiary would violate any provision of federal law or any provision of state law which is not preempted by the Act; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The participant or beneficiary is legally incompetent and the responsible plan fiduciary accepts the instructions of the participant or beneficiary knowing him to be legally incompetent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transactions involving a fiduciary.</I> In the case of a sale, exchange or leasing of property (other than a transaction described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(E) of this section) between an ERISA section 404(c) plan and a plan fiduciary or an affiliate of such a fiduciary, or a loan to a plan fiduciary or an affiliate of such a fiduciary, the participant or beneficiary will not be deemed to have exercised independent control unless the transaction is fair and reasonable to him. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), a transaction will be deemed to be fair and reasonable to a participant or beneficiary if he pays no more than, or receives no less than, adequate consideration (as defined in section 3(18) of the Act) in connection with the transaction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>No obligation to advise.</I> A fiduciary has no obligation under part 4 of title I of the Act to provide investment advice to a participant or beneficiary under an ERISA section 404(c) plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of independent exercise of control</I>—(1) <I>Participant or beneficiary not a fiduciary.</I> If a participant or beneficiary of an ERISA section 404(c) plan exercises independent control over assets in his individual account in the manner described in paragraph (c), then such participant or beneficiary is not a fiduciary of the plan by reason of such exercise of control.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitation on liability of plan fiduciaries.</I> (i) If a participant or beneficiary of an ERISA section 404(c) plan exercises independent control over assets in his individual account in the manner described in paragraph (c), then no other person who is a fiduciary with respect to such plan shall be liable for any loss, or with respect to any breach of part 4 of title I of the Act, that is the direct and necessary result of that participant's or beneficiary's exercise of control.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (d)(2)(i) does not apply with respect to any instruction, which if implemented—
</P>
<P>(A) Would not be in accordance with the documents and instruments governing the plan insofar as such documents and instruments are consistent with the provisions of title I of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(B) Would cause a fiduciary to maintain the indicia of ownership of any assets of the plan outside the jurisdiction of the district courts of the United States other than as permitted by section 404(b) of the Act and 29 CFR 2550.404b-1;
</P>
<P>(C) Would jeopardize the plan's tax qualified status under the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(D) Could result in a loss in excess of a participant's or beneficiary's account balance; or
</P>
<P>(E) Would result in a direct or indirect:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Sale, exchange, or lease of property between a plan sponsor or any affiliate of the sponsor and the plan except for the acquisition or disposition of any interest in a fund, subfund or portfolio managed by a plan sponsor or an affiliate of the sponsor, or the purchase or sale of any qualifying employer security (as defined in section 407(d)(5) of the Act) which meets the conditions of section 408(e) of ERISA and section (d)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>4</I>) below;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Loan to a plan sponsor or any affiliate of the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Acquisition or sale of any employer real property (as defined in section 407(d)(2) of the Act); or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Acquisition or sale of any employer security except to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Such securities are qualifying employer securities (as defined in section 407(d)(5) of the Act);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Such securities are stock or an equity interest in a publicly traded partnership (as defined in section 7704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986), but only if such partnership is an existing partnership as defined in section 10211(c)(2)(A) of the Revenue Act of 1987 (Public Law 100-203);
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Such securities are publicly traded on a national exchange or other generally recognized market;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Such securities are traded with sufficient frequency and in sufficient volume to assure that participant and beneficiary directions to buy or sell the security may be acted upon promptly and efficiently;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Information provided to shareholders of such securities is provided to participants and beneficiaries with accounts holding such securities;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Voting, tender and similar rights with respect to such securities are passed through to participants and beneficiaries with accounts holding such securities;
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Information relating to the purchase, holding, and sale of securities, and the exercise of voting, tender and similar rights with respect to such securities by participants and beneficiaries, is maintained in accordance with procedures which are designed to safeguard the confidentiality of such information, except to the extent necessary to comply with Federal laws or state laws not preempted by the Act;
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) The plan designates a fiduciary who is responsible for ensuring that: The procedures required under subparagraph (d)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>4</I>)(<I>vii</I>) are sufficient to safeguard the confidentiality of the information described in that subparagraph, such procedures are being followed, and the independent fiduciary required by subparagraph (d)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>4</I>)(<I>ix</I>) is appointed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) An independent fiduciary is appointed to carry out activities relating to any situations which the fiduciary designated by the plan for purposes of subparagraph (d)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>4</I>)(<I>viii</I>) determines involve a potential for undue employer influence upon participants and beneficiaries with regard to the direct or indirect exercise of shareholder rights. For purposes of this subparagraph, a fiduciary is not independent if the fiduciary is affiliated with any sponsor of the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual investment decisions of an investment manager who is designated directly by a participant or beneficiary or who manages a look-through investment vehicle in which a participant or beneficiary has invested are not direct and necessary results of the designation of the investment manager or of investment in the look-through investment vehicle. However, this paragraph (d)(2)(iii) shall not be construed to result in liability under section 405 of ERISA with respect to a fiduciary (other than the investment manager) who would otherwise be relieved of liability by reason of section 404(c)(2) of the Act and paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Paragraph (d)(2)(i) does not serve to relieve a fiduciary from its duty to prudently select and monitor any service provider or designated investment alternative offered under the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibited transactions.</I> The relief provided by section 404(c) of the Act and this section applies only to the provisions of part 4 of title I of the Act. Therefore, nothing in this section relieves a disqualified person from the taxes imposed by sections 4975 (a) and (b) of the Internal Revenue Code with respect to the transactions prohibited by section 4975(c)(1) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Look-through investment vehicle</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment company described in section 3(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, or a series investment company described in section 18(f) of the 1940 Act or any of the segregated portfolios of such company;
</P>
<P>(ii) A common or collective trust fund or a pooled investment fund maintained by a bank or similar institution, a deposit in a bank or similar institution, or a fixed rate investment contract of a bank or similar institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) A pooled separate account or a fixed rate investment contract of an insurance company qualified to do business in a State; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any entity whose assets include plan assets by reason of a plan's investment in the entity;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adequate consideration</I> has the meaning given it in section 3(18) of the Act and in any regulations under this title;
</P>
<P>(3) An <I>affiliate</I> of a person includes the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the person;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any officer, director, partner, employee, an employee of an affiliated employer, relative (as defined in section 3(15) of ERISA), brother, sister, or spouse of a brother or sister, of the person; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any corporation or partnership of which the person is an officer director or partner.
</P>
<FP>For purposes of this paragraph (e)(3), the term “control” means, with respect to a person other than an individual, the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of such person.
</FP>
<P>(4) A <I>designated investment alternative</I> is a specific investment identified by a plan fiduciary as an available investment alternative under the plan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples.</I> The provisions of this section are illustrated by the following examples. Examples (5) through (11) assume that the participant has exercised independent control with respect to his individual account under an ERISA section 404(c) plan described in paragraph (b) and has not directed a transaction described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii).
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(1) Plan A is an individual account plan described in section 3(34) of the Act. The plan states that a plan participant or beneficiary may direct the plan administrator to invest any portion of his individual account in a particular diversified equity fund managed by an entity which is not affiliated with the plan sponsor, or any other asset administratively feasible for the plan to hold. However, the plan provides that the plan administrator will not implement certain listed instructions for which plan fiduciaries would not be relieved of liability under section 404(c) (<I>see</I> paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section). Plan participants and beneficiaries are permitted to give investment instructions during the first week of each month with respect to the equity fund and at any time with respect to other investments. The plan administrator of Plan A provides each participant and beneficiary with the information described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section, including the information that must be provided on or before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments and at least annually thereafter pursuant to 29 CFR 2550.404a-5, and provides updated information in the event of any change in the information provided. Subsequent to any investment by a participant or beneficiary, the plan administrator forwards to the investing participant or beneficiary any materials provided to the plan relating to the exercise of voting, tender or similar rights attendant to ownership of an interest in such investment (<I>see</I> paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) of this section and 29 CFR 2550.404a-5(d)(3)). Upon request, the plan administrator provides each participant or beneficiary with copies of any prospectuses (or similar documents relating to designated investment alternatives that are provided by entities that are not registered under the Securities Act of 1933 or the Investment Company Act of 1940), financial statements and reports, and any other materials relating to the designated investment alternatives available under the plan in accordance with 29 CFR 2550.404a-5(d)(4)(i) through (iv). Also upon request, the plan administrator provides each participant and beneficiary with other information required by 29 CFR 2550.404a-5(d)(4) with respect to the equity fund, which is a designated investment alternative, including a statement of the value of a share or unit of the participant's or beneficiary's interest in the equity fund and the date of the valuation. Plan A meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section regarding the provision of investment information.
</P>
<P>(2) Plan C is an individual account plan described in section 3(34) of the Act under which participants and beneficiaries may choose among three investment alternatives which otherwise meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. The plan permits investment instruction with respect to each investment alternative only on the first 10 days of each calendar quarter, <I>i.e.</I>, January 1-10, April 1-10, July 1-10 and October 1-10. Plan C satisfies the condition of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) that instruction be permitted not less frequently than once within any three month period, since there is not any three month period during which control could not be exercised.
</P>
<P>(3) Assume the same facts as in paragraph (f)(2), except that investment instruction may only be given on January 1, April 4, July 1 and October 1. Plan C is not an ERISA section 404(c) plan because it does not satisfy the condition of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) that instruction be permitted not less frequently than once within any three month period. Under these facts, there is a three month period, e.g., January 2 through April 1, during which control could not be exercised by participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(4) Plan D is an individual account plan described in section 3(34) of the Act under which participants and beneficiaries may choose among three diversified investment alternatives which constitute a broad range of investment alternatives. The plan also permits investment instruction with respect to an employer securities alternative but provides that a participant or beneficiary can invest no more than 25% of his account balance in this alternative. This restriction does not affect the availability of relief under section 404(c) inasmuch as it does not relate to the three diversified investment alternatives and, therefore, does not cause the plan to fail to provide an opportunity to choose from a broad range of investment alternatives.
</P>
<P>(5) A participant, P, independently exercises control over assets in his individual account plan by directing a plan fiduciary, F, to invest 100% of his account balance in a single stock. P is not a fiduciary with respect to the plan by reason of his exercise of control and F will not be liable for any losses that necessarily result form P's investment instruction.
</P>
<P>(6) Assume the same facts as in paragraph (f)(5), except that P directs F to purchase the stock from B, who is a party in interest with respect to the plan. Neither P nor F has engaged in a transaction prohibited under section 406 of the Act: P because he is not a fiduciary with respect to the plan by reason of his exercise of control and F because he is not liable for any breach of part 4 of title I that is the direct and necessary consequence of P's exercise of control. However, a prohibited transaction under section 4975(c) of the Internal Revenue Code may have occurred, and, in the absence of an exemption, tax liability may be imposed pursuant to sections 495 (a) and (b) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(7) Assume the same facts as in paragraph (f)(5), except that P does not specify that the stock be purchased from B, and F chooses to purchase the stock from B. In the absence of an exemption, F has engaged in a prohibited transaction described in 406(a) of ERISA because the decision to purchase the stock from B is not a direct or necessary result of P's exercise of control.
</P>
<P>(8) Pursuant to the terms of the plan, plan fiduciary F designates three reputable investment managers whom participants may appoint to manage assets in their individual accounts. Participant P selects M, one of the designated managers, to manage the assets in his account. M prudently manages P's account for 6 months after which he incurs losses in managing the account through his imprudence. M has engaged in a breach of fiduciary duty because M's imprudent management of P's account is not a direct or necessary result of P's exercise of control (the choice of M as manager). F has no fiduciary liability for M's imprudence because he has no affirmative duty to advise P (see paragraph (c)(4)) and because F is relieved of co-fiduciary liability by reason of section 404(c)(2) (see paragraph (d)(2)(iii)). F does have a duty to monitor M's performance to determine the suitability of continuing M as an investment manager, however, and M's imprudence would be a factor which F must consider in periodically reevaluating its decision to designate M.
</P>
<P>(9) Participant P instructs plan fiduciary F to appoint G as his investment manager pursuant to the terms of the plan which provide P total discretion in choosing an investment manager. Through G's imprudence, G incurs losses in managing P's account. G has engaged in a breach of fiduciary duty because G's imprudent management of P's account is not a direct or necessary result of P's exercise of control (the choice of G as manager). Plan fiduciary F has no fiduciary liability for G's imprudence because F has no obligation to advise P (see paragraph (c)(4)) and because F is relieved of co-fiduciary liability for G's actions by reason of section 404(c)(2) (see paragraph (d)(2)(iii)). In addition, F also has no duty to determine the suitability of G as an investment manager because the plan does not designate G as an investment manager.
</P>
<P>(10) Participant P directs a plan fiduciary, F, a bank, to invest all of the assets in his individual account in a collective trust fund managed by F that is designed to be invested solely in a diversified portfolio of common stocks. Due to economic conditions, the value of the common stocks in the bank collective trust fund declines while the value of publicly-offered fixed income obligations remains relatively stable. F is not liable for any losses incurred by P solely because his individual account was not diversified to include fixed income obligations. Such losses are the direct result of P's exercise of control; moreover, under paragraph (c)(4) of this section F has no obligation to advise P regarding his investment decisions.
</P>
<P>(11) Assume the same facts as in paragraph (f)(10) except that F, in managing the collective trust fund, invests the assets of the fund solely in a few highly speculative stocks. F is liable for losses resulting from its imprudent investment in the speculative stocks and for its failure to diversify the assets of the account. This conduct involves a separate breach of F's fiduciary duty that is not a direct or necessary result of P's exercise of control (see paragraph (d)(2)(iii)).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) <I>Effective date</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2), this section is effective with respect to transactions occurring on or after the first day of the second plan year beginning on or after October 13, 1992.
</P>
<P>(2) This section is effective with respect to transactions occurring under a plan maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements between employee representatives and one or more employers ratified before October 13, 1992 after the later of the date determined under paragraph (g)(1) or the date on which the last collective bargaining agreement terminates. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(2), any extension or renegotiation of a collective bargaining agreement which is ratified on or after October 13, 1992 is to be disregarded in determining the date on which the agreement terminates.
</P>
<P>(3) Transactions occurring before the date determined under subparagraph (g)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable, are governed by section 404(c) of the Act without regard to the regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 46932, Oct. 13, 1992, as amended at 75 FR 64946, Oct. 20, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.404c-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.404c-5   Fiduciary relief for investments in qualified default investment alternatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) This section implements the fiduciary relief provided under section 404(c)(5) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA or the Act), 29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.,</I> under which a participant or beneficiary in an individual account plan will be treated as exercising control over the assets in his or her account for purposes of ERISA section 404(c)(1) with respect to the amount of contributions and earnings that, in the absence of an investment election by the participant, are invested by the plan in accordance with this regulation. If a participant or beneficiary is treated as exercising control over the assets in his or her account in accordance with ERISA section 404(c)(1) no person who is otherwise a fiduciary shall be liable under part 4 of title I of ERISA for any loss or by reason of any breach which results from such participant's or beneficiary's exercise of control. Except as specifically provided in paragraph (c)(6) of this section, a plan need not meet the requirements for an ERISA section 404(c) plan under 29 CFR 2550.404c-1 in order for a plan fiduciary to obtain the relief under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The standards set forth in this section apply solely for purposes of determining whether a fiduciary meets the requirements of this regulation. Such standards are not intended to be the exclusive means by which a fiduciary might satisfy his or her responsibilities under the Act with respect to the investment of assets in the individual account of a participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fiduciary relief.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, a fiduciary of an individual account plan that permits participants or beneficiaries to direct the investment of assets in their accounts and that meets the conditions of paragraph (c) of this section shall not be liable for any loss, or by reason of any breach under part 4 of title I of ERISA, that is the direct and necessary result of (i) investing all or part of a participant's or beneficiary's account in any qualified default investment alternative within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section, or (ii) investment decisions made by the entity described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section in connection with the management of a qualified default investment alternative.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section shall relieve a fiduciary from his or her duties under part 4 of title I of ERISA to prudently select and monitor any qualified default investment alternative under the plan or from any liability that results from a failure to satisfy these duties, including liability for any resulting losses.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section shall relieve any fiduciary described in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section from its fiduciary duties under part 4 of title I of ERISA or from any liability that results from a failure to satisfy these duties, including liability for any resulting losses.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this section shall provide relief from the prohibited transaction provisions of section 406 of ERISA, or from any liability that results from a violation of those provisions, including liability for any resulting losses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions.</I> With respect to the investment of assets in the individual account of a participant or beneficiary, a fiduciary shall qualify for the relief described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) Assets are invested in a qualified default investment alternative within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The participant or beneficiary on whose behalf the investment is made had the opportunity to direct the investment of the assets in his or her account but did not direct the investment of the assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The participant or beneficiary on whose behalf an investment in a qualified default investment alternative may be made is furnished a notice that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) At least 30 days in advance of the date of plan eligibility, or at least 30 days in advance of the date of any first investment in a qualified default investment alternative on behalf of a participant or beneficiary described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) On or before the date of plan eligibility provided the participant has the opportunity to make a permissible withdrawal (as determined under section 414(w) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (Code)); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within a reasonable period of time of at least 30 days in advance of each subsequent plan year;
</P>
<P>(4) A fiduciary provides to a participant or beneficiary the material set forth in 29 CFR 2550.404c-1(b)(2)(i)(B)(1)(viii) and (ix) and 29 CFR 404c-1(b)(2)(i)(B)(2) relating to a participant's or beneficiary's investment in a qualified default investment alternative;
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Any participant or beneficiary on whose behalf assets are invested in a qualified default investment alternative may transfer, in whole or in part, such assets to any other investment alternative available under the plan with a frequency consistent with that afforded to a participant or beneficiary who elected to invest in the qualified default investment alternative, but not less frequently than once within any three month period;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(B) of this section, any transfer described in paragraph (c)(5)(i), or any permissible withdrawal as determined under section 414(w)(2) of the Code, by a participant or beneficiary of assets invested in a qualified default investment alternative, in whole or in part, resulting from the participant's or beneficiary's election to make such a transfer or withdrawal during the 90-day period beginning on the date of the participant's first elective contribution as determined under section 414(w)(2)(B) of the Code, or other first investment in a qualified default investment alternative on behalf of a participant or beneficiary described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, shall not be subject to any restrictions, fees or expenses (including surrender charges, liquidation or exchange fees, redemption fees and similar expenses charged in connection with the liquidation of, or transfer from, the investment);
</P>
<P>(B) Paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(A) of this section shall not apply to fees and expenses that are charged on an ongoing basis for the operation of the investment itself (such as investment management fees, distribution and/or service fees, “12b-1” fees, or legal, accounting, transfer agent and similar administrative expenses), and are not imposed, or do not vary, based on a participant's or beneficiary's decision to withdraw, sell or transfer assets out of the qualified default investment alternative; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Following the end of the 90-day period described in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(A) of this section, any transfer or permissible withdrawal described in this paragraph (c)(5) of this section shall not be subject to any restrictions, fees or expenses not otherwise applicable to a participant or beneficiary who elected to invest in that qualified default investment alternative; and
</P>
<P>(6) The plan offers a “broad range of investment alternatives” within the meaning of 29 CFR 2550.404c-1(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (c)(3) of this section shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the circumstances under which assets in the individual account of a participant or beneficiary may be invested on behalf of the participant or beneficiary in a qualified default investment alternative; and, if applicable, an explanation of the circumstances under which elective contributions will be made on behalf of a participant, the percentage of such contributions, and the right of the participant to elect not to have such contributions made on the participant's behalf (or to elect to have such contributions made at a different percentage);
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of the right of participants and beneficiaries to direct the investment of assets in their individual accounts;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the qualified default investment alternative, including a description of the investment objectives, risk and return characteristics (if applicable), and fees and expenses attendant to the investment alternative;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the right of the participants and beneficiaries on whose behalf assets are invested in a qualified default investment alternative to direct the investment of those assets to any other investment alternative under the plan, including a description of any applicable restrictions, fees or expenses in connection with such transfer; and
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation of where the participants and beneficiaries can obtain investment information concerning the other investment alternatives available under the plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Qualified default investment alternative.</I> For purposes of this section, a qualified default investment alternative means an investment alternative available to participants and beneficiaries that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Does not hold or permit the acquisition of employer securities, except as provided in paragraph (ii).
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section shall not apply to: (A) Employer securities held or acquired by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 or a similar pooled investment vehicle regulated and subject to periodic examination by a State or Federal agency and with respect to which investment in such securities is made in accordance with the stated investment objectives of the investment vehicle and independent of the plan sponsor or an affiliate thereof; or (B) with respect to a qualified default investment alternative described in paragraph (e)(4)(iii) of this section, employer securities acquired as a matching contribution from the employer/plan sponsor, or employer securities acquired prior to management by the investment management service to the extent the investment management service has discretionary authority over the disposition of such employer securities;
</P>
<P>(2) Satisfies the requirements of paragraph (c)(5) of this section regarding the ability of a participant or beneficiary to transfer, in whole or in part, his or her investment from the qualified default investment alternative to any other investment alternative available under the plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Is:
</P>
<P>(i) Managed by: 
</P>
<P>(A) An investment manager, within the meaning of section 3(38) of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(B) A trustee of the plan that meets the requirements of section 3(38)(A), (B) and (C) of the Act; or 
</P>
<P>(C) The plan sponsor, or a committee comprised primarily of employees of the plan sponsor, which is a named fiduciary within the meaning of section 402(a)(2) of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An investment product or fund described in paragraph (e)(4)(iv) or (v) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Constitutes one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund product or model portfolio that applies generally accepted investment theories, is diversified so as to minimize the risk of large losses and that is designed to provide varying degrees of long-term appreciation and capital preservation through a mix of equity and fixed income exposures based on the participant's age, target retirement date (such as normal retirement age under the plan) or life expectancy. Such products and portfolios change their asset allocations and associated risk levels over time with the objective of becoming more conservative (<I>i.e.</I>, decreasing risk of losses) with increasing age. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(4)(i), asset allocation decisions for such products and portfolios are not required to take into account risk tolerances, investments or other preferences of an individual participant. An example of such a fund or portfolio may be a “life-cycle” or “targeted-retirement-date” fund or account.
</P>
<P>(ii) An investment fund product or model portfolio that applies generally accepted investment theories, is diversified so as to minimize the risk of large losses and that is designed to provide long-term appreciation and capital preservation through a mix of equity and fixed income exposures consistent with a target level of risk appropriate for participants of the plan as a whole. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(4)(ii), asset allocation decisions for such products and portfolios are not required to take into account the age, risk tolerances, investments or other preferences of an individual participant. An example of such a fund or portfolio may be a “balanced” fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) An investment management service with respect to which a fiduciary, within the meaning of paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, applying generally accepted investment theories, allocates the assets of a participant's individual account to achieve varying degrees of long-term appreciation and capital preservation through a mix of equity and fixed income exposures, offered through investment alternatives available under the plan, based on the participant's age, target retirement date (such as normal retirement age under the plan) or life expectancy. Such portfolios are diversified so as to minimize the risk of large losses and change their asset allocations and associated risk levels for an individual account over time with the objective of becoming more conservative (<I>i.e.</I>, decreasing risk of losses) with increasing age. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(4)(iii), asset allocation decisions are not required to take into account risk tolerances, investments or other preferences of an individual participant. An example of such a service may be a “managed account.”
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) Subject to paragraph (e)(4)(iv)(B) of this section, an investment product or fund designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return, whether or not such return is guaranteed, consistent with liquidity. Such investment product shall for purposes of this paragraph (e)(4)(iv):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Seek to maintain, over the term of the investment, the dollar value that is equal to the amount invested in the product; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Be offered by a State or federally regulated financial institution.
</P>
<P>(B) An investment product described in this paragraph (e)(4)(iv) shall constitute a qualified default investment alternative for purposes of paragraph (e) of this section for not more than 120 days after the date of the participant's first elective contribution (as determined under section 414(w)(2)(B) of the Code).
</P>
<P>(v)(A) Subject to paragraph (e)(4)(v)(B) of this section, an investment product or fund designed to preserve principal; provide a rate of return generally consistent with that earned on intermediate investment grade bonds; and provide liquidity for withdrawals by participants and beneficiaries, including transfers to other investment alternatives. Such investment product or fund shall, for purposes of this paragraph (e)(4)(v), meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) There are no fees or surrender charges imposed in connection with withdrawals initiated by a participant or beneficiary; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such investment product or fund invests primarily in investment products that are backed by State or federally regulated financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(B) An investment product or fund described in this paragraph (e)(4)(v) shall constitute a qualified default investment alternative for purposes of paragraph (e) of this section solely for purposes of assets invested in such product or fund before December 24, 2007.
</P>
<P>(vi) An investment fund product or model portfolio that otherwise meets the requirements of this section shall not fail to constitute a product or portfolio for purposes of paragraph (e)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section solely because the product or portfolio is offered through variable annuity or similar contracts or through common or collective trust funds or pooled investment funds and without regard to whether such contracts or funds provide annuity purchase rights, investment guarantees, death benefit guarantees or other features ancillary to the investment fund product or model portfolio.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Preemption of State laws.</I> (1) Section 514(e)(1) of the Act provides that title I of the Act supersedes any State law that would directly or indirectly prohibit or restrict the inclusion in any plan of an automatic contribution arrangement. For purposes of section 514(e) of the Act and this paragraph (f), an automatic contribution arrangement is an arrangement (or the provisions of a plan) under which:
</P>
<P>(i) A participant may elect to have the plan sponsor make payments as contributions under the plan on his or her behalf or receive such payments directly in cash;
</P>
<P>(ii) A participant is treated as having elected to have the plan sponsor make such contributions in an amount equal to a uniform percentage of compensation provided under the plan until the participant specifically elects not to have such contributions made (or specifically elects to have such contributions made at a different percentage); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Contributions are invested in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A State law that would directly or indirectly prohibit or restrict the inclusion in any pension plan of an automatic contribution arrangement is superseded as to any pension plan, regardless of whether such plan includes an automatic contribution arrangement as defined in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrator of an automatic contribution arrangement within the meaning of paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall be considered to have satisfied the notice requirements of section 514(e)(3) of the Act if notices are furnished in accordance with paragraphs (c)(3) and (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this paragraph (f) precludes a pension plan from including an automatic contribution arrangement that does not meet the conditions of paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 60478, Oct. 24, 2007; 73 FR 23350, Apr. 30, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.407a-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.407a-1   General rule for the acquisition and holding of employer securities and employer real property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Section 407(a)(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) states that except as otherwise provided in section 407 and section 414 of the Act, a plan may not acquire or hold any employer security which is not a qualifying employer security or any employer real property which is not qualifying employer real property. Section 406(a)(1)(E) prohibits a fiduciary from knowingly causing a plan to engage in a transaction which constitutes a direct or indirect acquisition, on behalf of a plan, of any employer security or employer real property in violation of section 407(a), and section 406(a)(2) prohibits a fiduciary who has authority or discretion to control or manage assets of a plan to permit the plan to hold any employer security or employer real property if he knows or should know that holding such security or real property violates section 407(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements applicable to all plans.</I> A plan may hold or acquire only employer securities which are qualifying employer securities and employer real property which is qualifying employer real property. A plan may not hold employer securities and employer real property which are not qualifying employer securities and qualifying employer real property, except to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(1) The employer security is held by a plan which has made an election under section 407(c)(3) of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) The employer security is a loan or other extension of credit which satisfies the requirements of section 414(c)(1) of the Act or the employer real property is leased to the employer pursuant to a lease which satisfies the requirements of section 414(c)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 47201, Sept. 20, 1977; 42 FR 59842, Nov. 22, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.407a-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.407a-2   Limitation with respect to the acquisition of qualifying employer securities and qualifying employer real property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Section 407(a)(2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) provides that a plan may not acquire any qualifying employer security or qualifying employer real property, if immediately after such acquisition the aggregate fair market value of qualifying employer securities and qualifying employer real property held by the plan exceeds 10 percent of the fair market value of the assets of the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acquisition.</I> For pusposes of section 407(a) of the Act, an acquisition by a plan of qualifying employer securities or qualifying employer real property shall include, but not be limited to, an acquisition by purchase, by the exchange of plan assets, by the exercise of warrants or rights, by the conversion of a security (except any acquisition pursuant to a conversion exempt under section 408(b)(7) of the Act), by default of a loan where the qualifying employer security or qualifying employer real property was security for the loan, or by the contribution of such securities or real property to the plan. However, an acquisition of a security shall not be deemed to have occured if a plan acquires the security as a result of a stock dividend or stock split.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fair market value—Indebtedness incurred in connection with the acquisition of a plan asset.</I> In determining whether a plan is in compliance with the limitation on the acquisition of qualifying employer securities and qualifying employer real property in section 407(a)(2), the limitation on the holding of qualifying employer securities and qualifying employer real property in section 407(a)(3) and § 2550.407a-3 thereunder, and the requirement regarding the disposition of employer securities and employer real property in section 407(a)(4) and § 2550.407a-4 thereunder, the fair market value of total plan assets shall be the fair market value of such assets less the unpaid amount of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any indebtedness incurred by the plan in acquiring such assets;
</P>
<P>(2) Any indebtedness incurred before the acquisition of such assets if such indebtedness would not have been incurred but for such acquisition; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any indebtedness incurred after the acquisition of such assets if such indebtedness would not have been incurred but for such acquisition and the incurrence of such indebtedness was reasonably foreseeable at the time of such acquisition. However, the fair market value of qualifying employer securities and qualifying employer real property shall be the fair market value of such assets without any reduction for the unpaid amount of any indebtedness incurred by the plan in connection with the acquisition of such employer securities and employer real property.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> (1) Plan assets have a fair market value of $100,000. The plan has no liabilities other than liabilities for vested benefits of participants and does not own any employer securities or employer real property. The plan proposes to acquire qualifying employer securities with a fair market value of $10,000 by paying $1,000 in cash and borrowing $9,000. The fair market value of plan assets would be $100,000 ($100,000 of plan assets less $1,000 cash payment plus $10,000 of employer securities less $9,000 indebtedness), the fair market value of the qualifying employer securities would be $10,000, which is 10 percent of the fair market value of plan assets. Accordingly, the acquisition would not contravene section 407(a).
</P>
<P>(2) Plan assets have a fair market value of $100,000. The plan has liabilities of $20,000 which were incurred in connection with the acquisition of those assets, and does not own any employer securities or employer real property. The plan proposes to pay cash for qualifying employer securities with a fair market value of $10,000. The fair market value of plan assets would be $80,000 ($100,000 of plan assets less $10,000 cash payment plus $10,000 of employer securities less $20,000 indebtedness), the fair market value of the qualifying employer securities would be $10,000, which is 12.5 percent of the fair market value of plan assets. Accordingly, the acquisition would contravene section 407(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 47201, Sept. 20, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.407d-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.407d-5   Definition of the term “qualifying employer security”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this section and section 407(d)(5) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act), the term “qualifying employer security” means an employer security which is:
</P>
<P>(1) Stock; or
</P>
<P>(2) A marketable obligation, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section and section 407(e) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section and section 407(d)(5) of the Act, the term “marketable obligation” means a bond, debenture, note, or certificate, or other evidence of indebtedness (hereinafter in this paragraph referred to as “obligation”) if:
</P>
<P>(1) Such obligation is acquired—
</P>
<P>(i) On the market, either—
</P>
<P>(A) At the price of the obligation prevailing on a national securities exchange which is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission, or
</P>
<P>(B) If the obligation is not traded on such a national securities exchange, at a price not less favorable to the plan than the offering price for the obligation as established by current bid and asked prices quoted by persons independent of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(ii) From an underwriter, at a price—
</P>
<P>(A) Not in excess of the public offering price for the obligation as set forth in a prospectus or offering circular filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission, and
</P>
<P>(B) At which a substantial portion of the same issue is acquired by persons independent of the issuer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Directly from the issuer at a price not less favorable to the plan than the price paid currently for a substantial portion of the same issue by persons independent of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediately following acquisition of such obligation,
</P>
<P>(i) Not more than 25 percent of the aggregate amount of obligations issued in such issue and outstanding at the time of acquisition is held by the plan, and
</P>
<P>(ii) At least 50 percent of the aggregate amount referred to in paragraph (A) is held by persons independent of the issuer; and
</P>
<P>(3) Immediately following acquisition of the obligation, not more than 25 percent of the assets of the plan is invested in obligations of the employer or an affiliate of the employer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 44388, Sept. 2, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.407d-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.407d-6   Definition of the term “employee stock ownership plan”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Type of plan.</I> To be an “ESOP” (employee stock ownership plan), a plan described in section 407(d)(6)(A) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) must meet the requirements of this section. See section 407(d)(6)(B).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Designation as ESOP.</I> To be an ESOP, a plan must be formally designated as such in the plan document.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retroactive amendment.</I> A plan meets the requirements of this section as of the date that it is designated as an ESOP if it is amended retroactively to meet, and in fact does meet, such requirements at any of the following times:
</P>
<P>(i) 12 months after the date on which the plan is designated as an ESOP;
</P>
<P>(ii) 90 days after a determination letter is issued with respect to the qualification of the plan as an ESOP under this section, but only if the determination is requested by the date in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A later date approved by the Internal Revenue Service district director.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Addition to other plan.</I> An ESOP may form a portion of a plan the balance of which includes a qualified pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan which is not an ESOP. A reference to an ESOP includes an ESOP that forms a portion of another plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Conversion of existing plan to an ESOP.</I> If an existing pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan is converted into an ESOP, the requirements of section 404 of the Act, relating to fiduciary duties, and section 401(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (the Code), relating to requirements for plans established for the exclusive benefit of employees, apply to such conversion. A conversion may constitute a termination of an existing plan. For definition of a termination, see the regulations under section 411(d)(3) of the Code and section 4041(f) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Certain arrangements barred</I>—(i) <I>Buy-sell agreements.</I> An arrangement involving an ESOP that creates a put option must not provide for the issuance of put options other than as provided under § 2550.408b-3 (j), (k) and (l). Also, an ESOP must not otherwise obligate itself to acquire securities from a particular security holder at an indefinite time determined upon the happening of an event such as the death of the holder.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan designed to invest primarily in qualifying employer securities.</I> A plan constitutes an ESOP only if the plan specifically states that it is designed to invest primarily in qualifying employer securities. Thus, a stock bonus plan or a money purchase pension plan constituting an ESOP may invest part of its assets in other than qualifying employer securities. Such plan will be treated the same as other stock bonus plans or money purchase pension plans qualified under section 401(a) of the Code with respect to those investments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regulations of the Secretary of the Treasury.</I> A plan constitutes an ESOP for a plan year only if it meets such other requirements as the Secretary of the Treasury may prescribe by regulation under section 4975(e)(7) of the Code. (See 26 CFR 54.4975-11).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 44388, Sept. 2, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408b-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408b-1   General statutory exemption for loans to plan participants and beneficiaries who are parties in interest with respect to the plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>In general.</I> Section 408(b)(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act or ERISA) exempts from the prohibitions of section 406(a), 406(b)(1) and 406(b)(2) loans by a plan to parties in interest who are participants or beneficiaries of the plan, provided that such loans: 
</P>
<P>(i) Are available to all such participants and beneficiaries on a reasonably equivalent basis; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Are not made available to highly compensated employees, officers or shareholders in an amount greater than the amount made available to other employees; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Are made in accordance with specific provisions regarding such loans set forth in the plan; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Bear a reasonable rate of interest; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Are adequately secured.
</P>
<FP>The Internal Revenue Code (the Code) contains parallel provisions to section 408(b)(1) of the Act. Effective, December 31, 1978, section 102 of Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978 (43 FR 47713, October 17, 1978) transferred the authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to promulgate regulations of the type published herein to the Secretary of Labor. Therefore, all references herein to section 408(b)(1) of the Act should be read to include reference to the parallel provisions of section 4975(d)(1) of the Code.
</FP>
<FP>Section 1114(b)(15)(B) of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 amended section 408(b)(1)(B) of ERISA by deleting the phrase “highly compensated employees, officers or shareholders” and substituting the phrase “highly compensated employees (within the meaning of section 414(q) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986).” Thus, for plans with participant loan programs which are subject to the amended section 408(b)(1)(B), the requirements of this regulation should be read to conform with the amendment. 
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> Section 408(b)(1) of the Act does not contain an exemption from acts described in section 406(b)(3) of the Act (prohibiting fiduciaries from receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving plan assets). If a loan from a plan to a participant who is a party in interest with respect to that plan involves an act described in section 406(b)(3), such an act constitutes a separate transaction which is not exempt under section 408(b)(1) of the Act. The provisions of section 408(b)(1) are further limited by section 408(d) of the Act (relating to transactions with owner-employees and related persons). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans.</I> (i) Section 408(b)(1) of the Act provides relief from the prohibitions of section 406(a), 406(b)(1) and 406(b)(2) for the making of a participant loan. The term “participant loan” refers to a loan which is arranged and approved by the fiduciary administering the loan program primarily in the interest of the participant and which otherwise satisfies the criteria set forth in section 408(b)(1) of the Act. The existence of a participant loan or participant loan program will be determined upon consideration of all relevant facts and circumstances. Thus, for example, the mere presence of a loan document appearing to satisfy the requirements of section 408(b)(1) will not be dispositive of whether a participant loan exists where the subsequent administration of the loan indicates that the parties to the loan agreement did not intend the loan to be repaid. Moreover, a loan program containing a precondition designed to benefit a party in interest (other than the participant) is not afforded relief by section 408(b)(1) or this regulation. In this regard, section 408(b)(1) recognizes that a program of participant loans, like other plan investments, must be prudently established and administered for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits to participants and beneficiaries of the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purpose of this regulation, the term “loan” will include any renewal or modification of an existing loan agreement, provided that, at the time of each such renewal or modification, the requirements of section 408(b)(1) and this regulation are met. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of § 2550.408b-1(a).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1:</HED><PSPACE>T, a trustee of plan P, has exclusive discretion over the management and disposition of plan assets. As a result, T is a fiduciary with respect to P under section 3(21)(A) of the Act and a party in interest with respect to P pursuant to section 3(14)(A) of the Act. T is also a participant in P. Among T's duties as fiduciary is the administration of a participant loan program which meets the requirements of section 408(b)(1) of the Act. Pursuant to strict objective criteria stated under the program, T, who participates in all loan decisions, receives a loan on the same terms as other participants. Although the exercise of T's discretion on behalf of himself may constitute an act of self-dealing described in section 406(b)(1), section 408(b)(1) provides an exemption from section 406(b)(1). As a result, the loan from P to T would be exempt under section 408(b)(1), provided the conditions of that section are otherwise satisfied.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2:</HED><PSPACE>P is a plan covering all the employees of E, the employer who established and maintained P. F is a fiduciary with respect to P and an officer of E. The plan documents governing P give F the authority to establish a participant loan program in accordance with section 408(b)(1) of the Act. Pursuant to an arrangement with E, F establishes such a program but limits the use of loan funds to investments in a limited partnership which is established and maintained by E as general partner. Under these facts, the loan program and any loans made pursuant to this program are outside the scope of relief provided by section 408(b)(1) because the loan program is designed to operate for the benefit of E. Under the circumstances described, the diversion of plan assets for E's benefit would also violate sections 403(c)(1) and 404(a) of the Act.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3:</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as in Example 2, above, except that F does not limit the use of loan funds. However, E pressures his employees to borrow funds under P's participant loan program and then reloan the loan proceeds to E. F, unaware of E's activities, arranges and approves the loans. If the loans meet all the conditions of section 408(b)(1), such loans will be exempt under that section. However, E's activities would cause the entire transaction to be viewed as an indirect transfer of plan assets between P and E, who is a party in interest with respect to P, but not the participant borrowing from P. By coercing the employees to engage in loan transactions for its benefit, E has engaged in separate transactions that are not exempt under section 408(b)(1). Accordingly, E would be liable for the payment of excise taxes under section 4975 of the Code.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4:</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as in Example 2, above, except that, in return for structuring and administering the loan program as indicated, E agrees to pay F an amount equal to 10 percent of the funds loaned under the program. Such a payment would result in a separate transaction not covered by section 408(b)(1). This transaction would be prohibited under section 406(b)(3) since F would be receiving consideration from a party in connection with a transaction involving plan assets.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5:</HED><PSPACE>F is a fiduciary with respect to plan P. D is a party in interest with respect to plan P. Section 406(a)(1)(B) of the Act would prohibit F from causing P to lend money to D. However, F enters into an agreement with Z, a plan participant, whereby F will cause P to make a participant loan to Z with the express understanding that Z will subsequently lend the loan proceeds to D. An examination of Z's credit standing indicates that he is not creditworthy and would not, under normal circumstances, receive a loan under the conditions established by the participant loan program. F's decision to approve the participant loan to Z on the basis of Z's prior agreement to lend the money to D violates the exclusive purpose requirements of sections 403(c) and 404(a). In effect, the entire transaction is viewed as an indirect transfer of plan assets between P and D, and not a loan to a participant exempt under section 408(b)(1). Z's lack of credit standing would also cause the transaction to fail under section 408(b)(1)(A) of the Act.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6:</HED><PSPACE>F is a fiduciary with respect to Plan P. Z is a plan participant. Z and D are both parties in interest with respect to P. F approves a participant loan to Z in accordance with the conditions established under the participant loan program. Upon receipt of the loan, Z intends to lend the money to D. If F has approved this loan solely upon consideration of those factors which would be considered in a normal commercial setting by an entity in the business of making comparable loans, Z's subsequent use of the loan proceeds will not affect the determination of whether loans under P's program satisfy the conditions of section 408(b)(1).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7:</HED><PSPACE>A is the trustee of a small individual account plan. D, the president of the plan sponsor, is also a participant in the plan. Pursuant to a participant loan program meeting the requirements of section 408(b)(1), D applies for a loan to be secured by a parcel of real property. D does not intend to repay the loan; rather, upon eventual default, he will permit the property to be foreclosed upon and transferred to the plan in discharge of his legal obligation to repay the loan. A, aware of D's intention, approves the loan. D fails to make two consecutive quarterly payments of principal and interest under the note evidencing the loan thereby placing the loan in default. The plan then acquires the real property upon foreclosure. Such facts and circumstances indicate that the payment of money from the plan to D was not a participant loan eligible for the relief afforded by section 408(b)(1). In effect, this transaction is a prohibited sale or exchange of property between a plan and a party in interest from the time D receives the money.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8:</HED><PSPACE>Plan P establishes a participant loan program. All loans are subject to the condition that the borrowed funds must be used to finance home purchases. Interest rates on the loans are the same as those charged by a local savings and loan association under similar circumstances. A loan by P to a participant to finance a home purchase would be subject to the relief provided by section 408(b)(1) provided that the conditions of 408(b)(1) are met. A participant loan program which is established to make loans for certain stated purposes (e.g., hardship, college tuition, home purchases, etc.) but which is not otherwise designed to benefit parties in interest (other than plan participants) would not, in itself, cause such program to be ineligible for the relief provided by section 408(b)(1). However, fiduciaries are cautioned that operation of a loan program with limitations may result in loans not being made available to all participants and beneficiaries on a reasonably equivalent basis.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Reasonably equivalent basis.</I> (1) Loans will not be considered to have been made available to participants and beneficiaries on a reasonably equivalent basis unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) Such loans are available to all plan participants and beneficiaries without regard to any individual's race, color, religion, sex, age or national origin; 
</P>
<P>(ii) In making such loans, consideration has been given only to those factors which would be considered in a normal commercial setting by an entity in the business of making similar types of loans. Such factors may include the applicant's creditworthiness and financial need; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) An evaluation of all relevant facts and circumstances indicates that, in actual practice, loans are not unreasonably withheld from any applicant. 
</P>
<P>(2) A participant loan program will not fail the requirement of paragraph (b)(1) of this section or § 2550.408b-1(c) if the program establishes a minimum loan amount of up to $1,000, provided that the loans granted meet the requirements of § 2550.408b-1(f).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of § 2550.408b-1(b)(1):
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1:</HED><PSPACE>T, a trustee of plan P, has exclusive discretion over the management and disposition of plan assets. T's duties include the administration of a participant loan program which meets the requirements of section 408(b)(1) of the Act. T receives a participant loan at a lower interest rate than the rate made available to other plan participants of similar financial condition or creditworthiness with similar security. The loan by P to T would not be covered by the relief provided by section 408(b)(1) because loans under P's program are not available to all plan participants on a reasonably equivalent basis.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2:</HED><PSPACE>Same facts as in example 1, except that T is a member of a committee of trustees responsible for approving participant loans. T pressures the committee to refuse loans to other qualified participants in order to assure that the assets allocated to the participant loan program would be available for a loan by P to T. The loan by P to T would not be covered by the relief provided by section 408(b)(1) since participant loans have not been made available to all participants and beneficiaries on a reasonably equivalent basis.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3:</HED><PSPACE>T is the trustee of plan P, which covers the employees of E. A, B and C are employees of E, participants in P, and friends of T. The documents governing P provide that T, in his discretion, may establish a participant loan program meeting certain specified criteria. T institutes such a program and tells A, B and C of his decision. Before T is able to notify P's other participants and beneficiaries of the loan program, A, B, and C file loan applications which, if approved, will use up substantially all of the funds set aside for the loan program. Approval of these applications by T would represent facts and circumstances showing that loans under P's program are not available to all participants and beneficiaries on a reasonably equivalent basis.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Highly compensated employees.</I> (1) Loans will not be considered to be made available to highly compensated employees, officers or shareholders in an amount greater than the amount made available to other employees if, upon consideration of all relevant facts and circumstances, the program does not operate to exclude large numbers of plan participants from receiving loans under the program. 
</P>
<P>(2) A participant loan program will not fail to meet the requirement in paragraph (c)(1), of this section, merely because the plan documents specifically governing such loans set forth either (i) a maximum dollar limitation, or (ii) a maximum percentage of vested accrued benefit which no loan may exceed. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the second alternative in paragraph (c)(2) of this section (maximum percentage of vested accrued benefit) is chosen, a loan program will not fail to meet this requirement solely because maximum loan amounts will vary directly with the size of the participant's accrued benefit. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of § 2550.408b-1(c).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1:</HED><PSPACE>The documents governing plan P provide for the establishment of a participant loan program in which the amount of any loan under the program (when added to the outstanding balances of any other loans under the program to the same participant) does not exceed the lesser of (i) $50,000, or (ii) one-half of the present value of that participant's vested accrued benefit under the plan (but not less than $10,000). P's participant loan program does not fail to meet the requirement in section 408(b)(1)(B) of the Act, and would be covered by the relief provided by section 408(b)(1) if the other conditions of that section are met.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2:</HED><PSPACE>The documents governing plan T provide for the establishment of a participant loan program in which the minimum loan amount would be $25,000. The documents also require that the only security acceptable under the program would be the participant's vested accrued benefit. A, the plan fiduciary administering the loan program, finds that because of the restrictions in the plan documents only 20 percent of the plan participants, all of whom earn in excess of $75,000 a year, would meet the threshold qualifications for a loan. Most of these participants are high-level supervisors or corporate officers. Based on these facts, it appears that loans under the program would be made available to highly compensated employees in an amount greater than the amount made available to other employees. As a result, the loan program would fail to meet the requirement in section 408(b)(1)(B) of the Act and would not be covered by the relief provided in section 408(b)(1).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(d) <I>Specific plan provisions.</I> For the purpose of section 408(b)(1) and this regulation, the Department will consider that participant loans granted or renewed at any time prior to the last day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 1989, are made in accordance with specific provisions regarding such loans set forth in the plan if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The plan provisions regarding such loans contain (at a minimum) an explicit authorization for the plan fiduciary responsible for investing plan assets to establish a participant loan program; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For participant loans granted or renewed on or after the last day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 1989, the participant loan program which is contained in the plan or in a written document forming part of the plan includes, but need not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The identity of the person or positions authorized to administer the participant loan program; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A procedure for applying for loans; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The basis on which loans will be approved or denied; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Limitations (if any) on the types and amount of loans offered; 
</P>
<P>(v) The procedure under the program for determining a reasonable rate of interest; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The types of collateral which may secure a participant loan; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) The events constituting default and the steps that will be taken to preserve plan assets in the event of such default.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1:</HED><PSPACE>Plan P authorizes the trustee to establish a participant loan program in accordance with section 408(b)(1) of the Act. Pursuant to this explicit authority, the trustee establishes a written program which contains all of the information required by § 2550.408b-1(d)(2). Loans made pursuant to this authorization and the written loan program will not fail under section 408(b)(1)(C) of the Act merely because the specific provisions regarding such loans are contained in a separate document forming part of the plan. The specific provisions describing the loan program, whether contained in the plan or in a written document forming part of a plan, do affect the rights and obligations of the participants and beneficiaries under the plan and, therefore, must in accordance with section 102(a)(1) of the Act, be disclosed in the plan's summary plan description.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(e) <I>Reasonable rate of interest.</I> A loan will be considered to bear a reasonable rate of interest if such loan provides the plan with a return commensurate with the interest rates charged by persons in the business of lending money for loans which would be made under similar circumstances.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1:</HED><PSPACE>Plan P makes a participant loan to A at the fixed interest rate of 8% for 5 years. The trustees, prior to making the loan, contacted two local banks to determine under what terms the banks would make a similar loan taking into account A's creditworthiness and the collateral offered. One bank would charge a variable rate of 10% adjusted monthly for a similar loan. The other bank would charge a fixed rate of 12% under similar circumstances. Under these facts, the loan to A would not bear a reasonable rate of interest because the loan did not provide P with a return commensurate with interest rates charged by persons in the business of lending money for loans which would be made under similar circumstances. As a result, the loan would fail to meet the requirements of section 408(b)(1)(D) and would not be covered by the relief provided by section 408(b)(1) of the Act.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2:</HED><PSPACE>Pursuant to the provisions of plan P's participant loan program, T, the trustee of P, approves a loan to M, a participant and party in interest with respect to P. At the time of execution, the loan meets all of the requirements of section 408(b)(1) of the Act. The loan agreement provides that at the end of two years M must pay the remaining balance in full or the parties may renew for an additional two year period. At the end of the initial two year period, the parties agree to renew the loan for an additional two years. At the time of renewal, however, A fails to adjust the interest rate charged on the loan in order to reflect current economic conditions. As a result, the interest rate on the renewal fails to provide a “reasonable rate of interest” as required by section 408(b)(1)(D) of the Act. Under such circumstances, the loan would not be exempt under section 408(b)(1) of the Act from the time of renewal.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3:</HED><PSPACE>The documents governing plan P's participant loan program provide that loans must bear an interest rate no higher than the maximum interest rate permitted under State X's usury law. Pursuant to the loan program, P makes a participant loan to A, a plan participant, at a time when the interest rates charged by financial institutions in the community (not subject to the usury limit) for similar loans are higher than the usury limit. Under these circumstances, the loan would not bear a reasonable rate of interest because the loan does not provide P with a return commensurate with the interest rates charged by persons in the business of lending money under similar circumstances. In addition, participant loans that are artificially limited to the maximum usury ceiling then prevailing call into question the status of such loans under sections 403(c) and 404(a) where higher yielding comparable investment opportunities are available to the plan.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Adequate security.</I> (1) A loan will be considered to be adequately secured if the security posted for such loan is something in addition to and supporting a promise to pay, which is so pledged to the plan that it may be sold, foreclosed upon, or otherwise disposed of upon default of repayment of the loan, the value and liquidity of which security is such that it may reasonably be anticipated that loss of principal or interest will not result from the loan. The adequacy of such security will be determined in light of the type and amount of security which would be required in the case of an otherwise identical transaction in a normal commercial setting between unrelated parties on arm's-length terms. A participant's vested accrued benefit under a plan may be used as security for a participant loan to the extent of the plan's ability to satisfy the participant's outstanding obligation in the event of default. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph,
</P>
<P>(i) No more than 50% of the present value of a participant's vested accrued benefit may be considered by a plan as security for the outstanding balance of all plan loans made to that participant;
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan will be in compliance with paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section if, with respect to any participant, it meets the provisions of paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section immediately after the origination of each participant loan secured in whole or in part by that participant's vested accrued benefit; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any loan secured in whole or in part by a portion of a participant's vested accrued benefit must also meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective for all participant loans granted or renewed after October 18, 1989, except with respect to paragraph (d)(2) of this section relating to specific plan provisions. Paragraph (d)(2) of this section is effective for participant loans granted or renewed on or after the last day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 1989.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0076) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 30528, July 20, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408b-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408b-2   General statutory exemption for services or office space.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Section 408(b)(2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) exempts from the prohibitions of section 406(a) of the Act payment by a plan to a party in interest, including a fiduciary, for office space or any service (or a combination of services) if: 
</P>
<P>(1) Such office space or service is necessary for the establishment or operation of the plan;
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<P>(2) Such office space or service is furnished under a contract or arrangement which is reasonable; and
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<P>(3) No more than reasonable compensation is paid for such office space or service.
</P>
<FP>However, section 408(b)(2) does not contain an exemption from acts described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries dealing with the assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account), section 406(b)(2) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries in their individual or in any other capacity acting in any transaction involving the plan on behalf of a party (or representing a party) whose interests are adverse to the interests of the plan or the interests of its participants or beneficiaries) or section 406(b)(3) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the assets of the plan). Such acts are separate transactions not described in section 408(b)(2). See § 2250.408b-2 (e) and (f) for guidance as to whether transactions relating to the furnishing of office space or services by fiduciaries to plans involve acts described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act. Section 408(b)(2) of the Act does not contain an exemption from other provisions of the Act, such as section 404, or other provisions of law which may impose requirements or restrictions relating to the transactions which are exempt under section 408(b)(2). See, for example, section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. The provisions of section 408(b)(2) of the Act are further limited by section 408(d) of the Act (relating to transactions with owner-employees and related persons).
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Necessary service.</I> A service is necessary for the establishment or operation of a plan within the meaning of section 408(b)(2) of the Act and § 2550.408b-2(a)(1) if the service is appropriate and helpful to the plan obtaining the service in carrying out the purposes for which the plan is established or maintained. A person providing such a service to a plan (or a person who is a party in interest solely by reason of a relationship to such a service provider described in section 3(14)(F), (G), (H), or (I) of the Act) may furnish goods which are necessary for the establishment or operation of the plan in the course of, and incidental to, the furnishing of such service to the plan.
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<P>(c) <I>Reasonable contract or arrangement</I>—(1) <I>Pension plan disclosure</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> No contract or arrangement for services between a covered plan and a covered service provider, nor any extension or renewal, is reasonable within the meaning of section 408(b)(2) of the Act and paragraph (a)(2) of this section unless the requirements of this paragraph (c)(1) are satisfied. The requirements of this paragraph (c)(1) are independent of fiduciary obligations under section 404 of the Act.
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<P>(ii) <I>Covered plan.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), a “covered plan” is an “employee pension benefit plan” or a “pension plan” within the meaning of section 3(2)(A) (and not described in section 4(b)) of the Act, except that the term “covered plan” shall not include a “simplified employee pension” described in section 408(k) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code); a “simple retirement account” described in section 408(p) of the Code; an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code; an individual retirement annuity described in section 408(b) of the Code; or annuity contracts and custodial accounts described in section 403(b) of the Code issued to a current or former employee before January 1, 2009, for which the employer ceased to have any obligation to make contributions (including employee salary reduction contributions), and in fact ceased making contributions to the contract or account for periods before January 1, 2009, and for which all of the rights and benefits under the contract or account are legally enforceable against the insurer or custodian by the individual owner of the contract or account without any involvement by the employer, and for which such individual owner is fully vested in the contract or account.
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<P>(iii) <I>Covered service provider.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), a “covered service provider” is a service provider that enters into a contract or arrangement with the covered plan and reasonably expects $1,000 or more in compensation, direct or indirect, to be received in connection with providing one or more of the services described in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(A), (B), or (C) of this section pursuant to the contract or arrangement, regardless of whether such services will be performed, or such compensation received, by the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor.
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<P>(A) <I>Services as a fiduciary or registered investment adviser.</I> (<I>1</I>) Services provided directly to the covered plan as a fiduciary (unless otherwise specified, a “fiduciary” in this paragraph (c)(1) is a fiduciary within the meaning of section 3(21) of the Act);
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Services provided as a fiduciary to an investment contract, product, or entity that holds plan assets (as determined pursuant to sections 3(42) and 401 of the Act and 29 CFR 2510.3-101) and in which the covered plan has a direct equity investment (a direct equity investment does not include investments made by the investment contract, product, or entity in which the covered plan invests); or
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<P>(<I>3</I>) Services provided directly to the covered plan as an investment adviser registered under either the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 or any State law.
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<P>(B) <I>Certain recordkeeping or brokerage services.</I> Recordkeeping services or brokerage services provided to a covered plan that is an individual account plan, as defined in section 3(34) of the Act, and that permits participants or beneficiaries to direct the investment of their accounts, if one or more designated investment alternatives will be made available (e.g., through a platform or similar mechanism) in connection with such recordkeeping services or brokerage services.
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<P>(C) <I>Other services for indirect compensation.</I> Accounting, auditing, actuarial, appraisal, banking, consulting (<I>i.e.,</I> consulting related to the development or implementation of investment policies or objectives, or the selection or monitoring of service providers or plan investments), custodial, insurance, investment advisory (for plan or participants), legal, recordkeeping, securities or other investment brokerage, third party administration, or valuation services provided to the covered plan, for which the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor reasonably expects to receive indirect compensation (as defined in paragraph (c)(1)(viii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section or compensation described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section).
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<P>(D) <I>Limitations.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(A), (B), or (C) of this section, no person or entity is a “covered service provider” solely by providing services—
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<P>(<I>1</I>) As an affiliate or a subcontractor that is performing one or more of the services described in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(A), (B), or (C) of this section under the contract or arrangement with the covered plan; or
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<P>(<I>2</I>) To an investment contract, product, or entity in which the covered plan invests, regardless of whether or not the investment contract, product, or entity holds assets of the covered plan, other than services as a fiduciary described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
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<P>(iv) <I>Initial disclosure requirements.</I> The covered service provider must disclose the following information to a responsible plan fiduciary, in writing—
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<P>(A) <I>Services.</I> A description of the services to be provided to the covered plan pursuant to the contract or arrangement (but not including non-fiduciary services described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>) of this section).
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<P>(B) <I>Status.</I> If applicable, a statement that the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor will provide, or reasonably expects to provide, services pursuant to the contract or arrangement directly to the covered plan (or to an investment contract, product or entity that holds plan assets and in which the covered plan has a direct equity investment) as a fiduciary (within the meaning of section 3(21) of the Act); and, if applicable, a statement that the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor will provide, or reasonably expects to provide, services pursuant to the contract or arrangement directly to the covered plan as an investment adviser registered under either the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 or any State law.
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<P>(C) <I>Compensation</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Direct compensation.</I> A description of all direct compensation (as defined in paragraph (c)(1)(viii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section), either in the aggregate or by service, that the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor reasonably expects to receive in connection with the services described pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(A) of this section.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Indirect compensation.</I> A description of all indirect compensation (as defined in paragraph (c)(1)(viii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section) that the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor reasonably expects to receive in connection with the services described pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(A) of this section; including identification of the services for which the indirect compensation will be received, identification of the payer of the indirect compensation, and a description of the arrangement between the payer and the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor, as applicable, pursuant to which such indirect compensation is paid.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Compensation paid among related parties.</I> A description of any compensation that will be paid among the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor, in connection with the services described pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(A) of this section if it is set on a transaction basis (e.g., commissions, soft dollars, finder's fees or other similar incentive compensation based on business placed or retained) or is charged directly against the covered plan's investment and reflected in the net value of the investment (e.g., Rule 12b-1 fees); including identification of the services for which such compensation will be paid and identification of the payers and recipients of such compensation (including the status of a payer or recipient as an affiliate or a subcontractor). Compensation must be disclosed pursuant to this paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) regardless of whether such compensation also is disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(C)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>), (c)(1)(iv)(E), or (c)(1)(iv)(F) of this section. This paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) shall not apply to compensation received by an employee from his or her employer on account of work performed by the employee.
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<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Compensation for termination of contract or arrangement.</I> A description of any compensation that the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor reasonably expects to receive in connection with termination of the contract or arrangement, and how any prepaid amounts will be calculated and refunded upon such termination.
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<P>(D) <I>Recordkeeping services.</I> Without regard to the disclosure of compensation pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(C), (c)(1)(iv)(E), or (c)(1)(iv)(F) of this section, if recordkeeping services will be provided to the covered plan—
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<P>(<I>1</I>) A description of all direct and indirect compensation that the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor reasonably expects to receive in connection with such recordkeeping services; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) If the covered service provider reasonably expects recordkeeping services to be provided, in whole or in part, without explicit compensation for such recordkeeping services, or when compensation for recordkeeping services is offset or rebated based on other compensation received by the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor, a reasonable and good faith estimate of the cost to the covered plan of such recordkeeping services, including an explanation of the methodology and assumptions used to prepare the estimate and a detailed explanation of the recordkeeping services that will be provided to the covered plan. The estimate shall take into account, as applicable, the rates that the covered service provider, an affiliate, or a subcontractor would charge to, or be paid by, third parties, or the prevailing market rates charged, for similar recordkeeping services for a similar plan with a similar number of covered participants and beneficiaries.
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<P>(E) <I>Investment disclosure—fiduciary services.</I> In the case of a covered service provider described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the following additional information with respect to each investment contract, product, or entity that holds plan assets and in which the covered plan has a direct equity investment, and for which fiduciary services will be provided pursuant to the contract or arrangement with the covered plan, unless such information is disclosed to the responsible plan fiduciary by a covered service provider providing recordkeeping services or brokerage services as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(B) of this section—
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<P>(<I>1</I>) A description of any compensation that will be charged directly against an investment, such as commissions, sales loads, sales charges, deferred sales charges, redemption fees, surrender charges, exchange fees, account fees, and purchase fees; and that is not included in the annual operating expenses of the investment contract, product, or entity;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) A description of the annual operating expenses (e.g., expense ratio) if the return is not fixed and any ongoing expenses in addition to annual operating expenses (e.g., wrap fees, mortality and expense fees), or, for an investment contract, product, or entity that is a designated investment alternative, the total annual operating expenses expressed as a percentage and calculated in accordance with 29 CFR 2550.404a-5(h)(5); and
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<P>(<I>3</I>) For an investment contract, product, or entity that is a designated investment alternative, any other information or data about the designated investment alternative that is within the control of, or reasonably available to, the covered service provider and that is required for the covered plan administrator to comply with the disclosure obligations described in 29 CFR 2550.404a-5(d)(1).
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<P>(F) <I>Investment disclosure—recordkeeping and brokerage services.</I> (<I>1</I>) In the case of a covered service provider described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, the additional information described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(E)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>) of this section with respect to each designated investment alternative for which recordkeeping services or brokerage services as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(B) of this section will be provided pursuant to the contract or arrangement with the covered plan.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) A covered service provider may comply with this paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(F) by providing current disclosure materials of the issuer of the designated investment alternative, or information replicated from such materials, that include the information described in such paragraph, provided that:
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<P>(<I>i</I>) The issuer is not an affiliate;
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) The issuer is a registered investment company, an insurance company qualified to do business in any State, an issuer of a publicly traded security, or a financial institution supervised by a State or federal agency; and
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<P>(<I>iii</I>) The covered service provider acts in good faith and does not know that the materials are incomplete or inaccurate, and furnishes the responsible plan fiduciary with a statement that the covered service provider is making no representations as to the completeness or accuracy of such materials.
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<P>(G) <I>Manner of receipt.</I> A description of the manner in which the compensation described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(C) through (F) of this section, as applicable, will be received, such as whether the covered plan will be billed or the compensation will be deducted directly from the covered plan's account(s) or investments.
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<P>(H) <I>Guide to initial disclosures.</I> [Reserved]
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<P>(v) <I>Timing of initial disclosure requirements; changes.</I> (A) A covered service provider must disclose the information required by paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section to the responsible plan fiduciary reasonably in advance of the date the contract or arrangement is entered into, and extended or renewed, except that—
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<P>(<I>1</I>) When an investment contract, product, or entity is determined not to hold plan assets upon the covered plan's direct equity investment, but subsequently is determined to hold plan assets while the covered plan's investment continues, the information required by paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section must be disclosed as soon as practicable, but not later than 30 days from the date on which the covered service provider knows that such investment contract, product, or entity holds plan assets; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The information described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(F) of this section relating to any investment alternative that is not designated at the time the contract or arrangement is entered into must be disclosed as soon as practicable, but not later than the date the investment alternative is designated by the covered plan.
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<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) A covered service provider must disclose a change to the information required by paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(A) through (D), and (G) of this section as soon as practicable, but not later than 60 days from the date on which the covered service provider is informed of such change, unless such disclosure is precluded due to extraordinary circumstances beyond the covered service provider's control, in which case the information must be disclosed as soon as practicable.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) A covered service provider must, at least annually, disclose any changes to the information required by paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(E) and (F) of this section.
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<P>(vi) <I>Reporting and disclosure information; timing.</I> (A) Upon the written request of the responsible plan fiduciary or covered plan administrator, the covered service provider must furnish any other information relating to the compensation received in connection with the contract or arrangement that is required for the covered plan to comply with the reporting and disclosure requirements of Title I of the Act and the regulations, forms and schedules issued thereunder.
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<P>(B) The covered service provider must disclose the information required by paragraph (c)(1)(vi)(A) of this section reasonably in advance of the date upon which such responsible plan fiduciary or covered plan administrator states that it must comply with the applicable reporting or disclosure requirement, unless such disclosure is precluded due to extraordinary circumstances beyond the covered service provider's control, in which case the information must be disclosed as soon as practicable.
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<P>(vii) <I>Disclosure errors.</I> No contract or arrangement will fail to be reasonable under this paragraph (c)(1) solely because the covered service provider, acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, makes an error or omission in disclosing the information required pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section (or a change to such information disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(v)(B) of this section) or paragraph (c)(1)(vi) of this section, provided that the covered service provider discloses the correct information to the responsible plan fiduciary as soon as practicable, but not later than 30 days from the date on which the covered service provider knows of such error or omission.
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<P>(viii) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
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<P>(A) <I>Affiliate.</I> A person's or entity's “affiliate” directly or indirectly (through one or more intermediaries) controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with such person or entity; or is an officer, director, or employee of, or partner in, such person or entity. Unless otherwise specified, an “affiliate” in this paragraph (c)(1) refers to an affiliate of the covered service provider.
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<P>(B) <I>Compensation.</I> Compensation is anything of monetary value (for example, money, gifts, awards, and trips), but does not include non-monetary compensation valued at $250 or less, in the aggregate, during the term of the contract or arrangement.
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<P>(<I>1</I>) “Direct” compensation is compensation received directly from the covered plan.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) “Indirect” compensation is compensation received from any source other than the covered plan, the plan sponsor, the covered service provider, or an affiliate. Compensation received from a subcontractor is indirect compensation, unless it is received in connection with services performed under the subcontractor's contract or arrangement described in paragraph (c)(1)(viii)(F) of this section.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) A description of compensation or cost may be expressed as a monetary amount, formula, percentage of the covered plan's assets, or a per capita charge for each participant or beneficiary or, if the compensation or cost cannot reasonably be expressed in such terms, by any other reasonable method. The description may include a reasonable and good faith estimate if the covered service provider cannot otherwise readily describe compensation or cost and the covered service provider explains the methodology and assumptions used to prepare such estimate. Any description, including any estimate of recordkeeping cost under paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(D), must contain sufficient information to permit evaluation of the reasonableness of the compensation or cost.
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<P>(C) <I>Designated investment alternative.</I> A “designated investment alternative” is any investment alternative designated by the covered plan into which participants and beneficiaries may direct the investment of assets held in, or contributed to, their individual accounts. The term “designated investment alternative” shall not include brokerage windows, self-directed brokerage accounts, or similar plan arrangements that enable participants and beneficiaries to select investments beyond those designated by the covered plan.
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<P>(D) <I>Recordkeeping services.</I> “Recordkeeping services” include services related to plan administration and monitoring of plan and participant and beneficiary transactions (e.g., enrollment, payroll deductions and contributions, offering designated investment alternatives and other covered plan investments, loans, withdrawals and distributions); and the maintenance of covered plan and participant and beneficiary accounts, records, and statements.
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<P>(E) <I>Responsible plan fiduciary.</I> A “responsible plan fiduciary” is a fiduciary with authority to cause the covered plan to enter into, or extend or renew, the contract or arrangement.
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<P>(F) <I>Subcontractor.</I> A “subcontractor” is any person or entity (or an affiliate of such person or entity) that is not an affiliate of the covered service provider and that, pursuant to a contract or arrangement with the covered service provider or an affiliate, reasonably expects to receive $1,000 or more in compensation for performing one or more services described pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) through (C) of this section provided for by the contract or arrangement with the covered plan.
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<P>(ix) <I>Exemption for responsible plan fiduciary.</I> Pursuant to section 408(a) of the Act, the restrictions of section 406(a)(1)(C) and (D) of the Act shall not apply to a responsible plan fiduciary, notwithstanding any failure by a covered service provider to disclose information required by paragraph (c)(1)(iv) or (vi) of this section, if the following conditions are met:
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<P>(A) The responsible plan fiduciary did not know that the covered service provider failed or would fail to make required disclosures and reasonably believed that the covered service provider disclosed the information required by paragraph (c)(1)(iv) or (vi) of this section;
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<P>(B) The responsible plan fiduciary, upon discovering that the covered service provider failed to disclose the required information, requests in writing that the covered service provider furnish such information;
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<P>(C) If the covered service provider fails to comply with such written request within 90 days of the request, then the responsible plan fiduciary notifies the Department of Labor of the covered service provider's failure, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(E) of this section;
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<P>(D) The notice shall contain the following information—
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<P>(<I>1</I>) The name of the covered plan;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The plan number used for the covered plan's Annual Report;
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<P>(<I>3</I>) The plan sponsor's name, address, and EIN;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The name, address, and telephone number of the responsible plan fiduciary;
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<P>(<I>5</I>) The name, address, phone number, and, if known, EIN of the covered service provider;
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<P>(<I>6</I>) A description of the services provided to the covered plan;
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<P>(<I>7</I>) A description of the information that the covered service provider failed to disclose;
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<P>(<I>8</I>) The date on which such information was requested in writing from the covered service provider; and
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<P>(<I>9</I>) A statement as to whether the covered service provider continues to provide services to the plan;
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<P>(E) The notice shall be filed with the Department not later than 30 days following the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The covered service provider's refusal to furnish the information requested by the written request described in paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(B) of this section; or
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<P>(<I>2</I>) 90 days after the written request referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(B) of this section is made;
</P>
<P>(F) The notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(C) of this section shall be furnished to the U.S. Department of Labor electronically in accordance with instructions published by the Department; or may be sent to the following address: U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, Office of Enforcement, P.O. Box 75296, Washington, DC 20013; and
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<P>(G) If the covered service provider fails to comply with the written request referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(C) of this section within 90 days of such request, the responsible plan fiduciary shall determine whether to terminate or continue the contract or arrangement consistent with its duty of prudence under section 404 of the Act. If the requested information relates to future services and is not disclosed promptly after the end of the 90-day period, then the responsible plan fiduciary shall terminate the contract or arrangement as expeditiously as possible, consistent with such duty of prudence.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Preemption of State law.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to supersede any provision of State law that governs disclosures by parties that provide the services described in this section, except to the extent that such law prevents the application of a requirement of this section.
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<P>(xi) <I>Internal Revenue Code.</I> Section 4975(d)(2) of the Code contains provisions parallel to section 408(b)(2) of the Act. Effective December 31, 1978, section 102 of the Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 214 (2000 ed.), transferred the authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to promulgate regulations of the type published herein to the Secretary of Labor. All references herein to section 408(b)(2) of the Act and the regulations thereunder should be read to include reference to the parallel provisions of section 4975(d)(2) of the Code and regulations thereunder at 26 CFR 54.4975-6.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Effective date.</I> Paragraph (c) of this section shall be effective on July 1, 2012. Paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall apply to contracts or arrangements between covered plans and covered service providers as of the effective date, without regard to whether the contract or arrangement was entered into prior to such date; for contracts or arrangements entered into prior to the effective date, the information required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section must be furnished no later than the effective date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Welfare plan disclosure.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Termination of contract or arrangement.</I> No contract or arrangement is reasonable within the meaning of section 408(b)(2) of the Act and paragraph (a)(2) of this section if it does not permit termination by the plan without penalty to the plan on reasonably short notice under the circumstances to prevent the plan from becoming locked into an arrangement that has become disadvantageous. A long-term lease which may be terminated prior to its expiration (without penalty to the plan) on reasonably short notice under the circumstances is not generally an unreasonable arrangement merely because of its long term. A provision in a contract or other arrangement which reasonably compensates the service provider or lessor for loss upon early termination of the contract, arrangement, or lease is not a penalty. For example, a minimal fee in a service contract which is charged to allow recoupment of reasonable start-up costs is not a penalty. Similarly, a provision in a lease for a termination fee that covers reasonably foreseeable expenses related to the vacancy and reletting of the office space upon early termination of the lease is not a penalty. Such a provision does not reasonably compensate for loss if it provides for payment in excess of actual loss or if it fails to require mitigation of damages.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reasonable compensation.</I> Section 408(b)(2) of the Act and § 2550.408b-2(a)(3) permit a plan to pay a party in interest reasonable compensation for the provision of office space or services described in section 408(b)(2). Section 2550.408c-2 of these regulations contains provisions relating to what constitutes reasonable compensation for the provision of services.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transactions with fiduciaries</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the furnishing of office space or a service involves an act described in section 406(b) of the Act (relating to acts involving conflicts of interest by fiduciaries), such an act constitutes a separate transaction which is not exempt under section 408(b)(2) of the Act. The prohibitions of section 406(b) supplement the other prohibitions of section 406(a) of the Act by imposing on parties in interest who are fiduciaries a duty of undivided loyalty to the plans for which they act. These prohibitions are imposed upon fiduciaries to deter them from exercising the authority, control, or responsibility which makes such persons fiduciaries when they have interests which may conflict with the interests of the plans for which they act. In such cases, the fiduciaries have interests in the transactions which may affect the exercise of their best judgment as fiduciaries. Thus, a fiduciary may not use the authority, control, or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause a plan to pay an additional fee to such fiduciary (or to a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary) to provide a service. Nor may a fiduciary use such authority, control, or responsibility to cause a plan to enter into a transaction involving plan assets whereby such fiduciary (or a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary) will receive consideration from a third party in connection with such transaction. A person in which a fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary includes, for example, a person who is a party in interest by reason of a relationship to such fiduciary described in section 3(14)(E), (F), (G), (H), or (I). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transactions not described in section 406(b)(1).</I> A fiduciary does not engage in an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act if the fiduciary does not use any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause a plan to pay additional fees for a service furnished by such fiduciary or to pay a fee for a service furnished by a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary. This may occur, for example, when one fiduciary is retained on behalf of a plan by a second fiduciary to provide a service for an additional fee. However, because the authority, control or responsibility which makes a person a fiduciary may be exercised “in effect” as well as in form, mere approval of the transaction by a second fiduciary does not mean that the first fiduciary has not used any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause the plan to pay the first fiduciary an additional fee for a service. See paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Services without compensation.</I> If a fiduciary provides services to a plan without the receipt of compensation or other consideration (other than reimbursement of direct expenses properly and actually incurred in the performance of such services within the meaning of § 2550.408c-2(b)(3)), the provision of such services does not, in and of itself, constitute an act described in section 406(b) of the Act. The allowance of a deduction to an employer under section 162 or 212 of the Code for the expense incurred in furnishing office space or services to a plan established or maintained by such employer does not constitute compensation or other consideration.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples.</I> The provisions of § 2550.408b-2(e) may be illustrated by the following examples.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>E, an employer whose employees are covered by plan P, is a fiduciary of P. I is a professional investment adviser in which E has no interest which may affect the exercise of E's best judgment as a fiduciary. E causes P to retain I to provide certain kinds of investment advisory services of a type which causes I to be a fiduciary of P under section 3(21)(A)(ii) of the Act. thereafter, I proposes to perform for additional fees portfolio evaluation services in addition to the services currently provided. The provision of such services is arranged by I and approved on behalf of the plan by E. I has not engaged in an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act, because I did not use any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes I a fiduciary (the provision of investment advisory services) to cause the plan to pay I additional fees for the provision of the portfolio evaluation services. E has not engaged in an act which is described in section 406(b)(1). E, as the fiduciary who has the responsibility to be prudent in his selection and retention of I and the other investment advisers of the plan, has an interest in the purchase by the plan of portfolio evaluation services. However, such an interest is not an interest which may affect the exercise of E's best judgment as a fiduciary.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>D, a trustee of plan P with discretion over the management and disposition of plan assets, relies on the advice of C, a consultant to P, as to the investment of plan assets, thereby making C a fiduciary of the plan. On January 1, 1978, C recommends to D that the plan purchase an insurance policy from U, an insurance company which is not a party in interest with respect to P. C thoroughly explains the reasons for the recommendation and makes a full disclosure concerning the fact that C will receive a commission from U upon the purchase of the policy of P. D considers the recommendation and approves the purchase of the policy by P. C receives a commission. Under such circumstances, C has engaged in an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act (as well as sections 406(b)(2) and (3) of the Act) because C is in fact exercising the authority, control or responsibility which makes C a fiduciary to cause the plan to purchase the policy. However, the transaction is exempt from the prohibited transaction provisions of section 406 of the Act, if the requirements of Prohibited Transaction Exemption 77-9 are met.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>Assume the same facts as in Example (2) except that the nature of C's relationship with the plan is not such that C is a fiduciary of P. The purchase of the insurance policy does not involve an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act (or sections 406(b)(2) or (3) of the Act) because such sections only apply to acts by fiduciaries.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>E, an employer whose employees are covered by plan P, is a fiduciary with respect to P. A, who is not a party in interest with respect to P, persuades E that the plan needs the services of a professional investment adviser and that A should be hired to provide the investment advice. Accordingly, E causes P to hire A to provide investment advice of the type which makes A a fiduciary under § 2510.3-21(c)(1)(ii)(B). Prior to the expiration of A's first contract with P, A persuades E to cause P to renew A's contract with P to provide the same services for additional fees in view of the increased costs in providing such services. During the period of A's second contract, A provides additional investment advice services for which no additional charge is made. Prior to the expiration of A's second contract, A persuades E to cause P to renew his contract for additional fees in view of the additional services A is providing. A has not engaged in an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act, because A has not used any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes A a fiduciary (the provision of investment advice) to cause the plan to pay additional fees for A's services.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>F, a trustee of plan P with discretion over the management and disposition of plan assets, retains C to provide administrative services to P of the type which makes C a fiduciary under section 3(21)(A)(iii). Thereafter, C retains F to provide for additional fees actuarial and various kinds of administrative services in addition to the services F is currently providing to P. Both F and C have engaged in an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act. F, regardless of any intent which he may have had at the time he retained C, has engaged in such an act because F has, in effect, exercised the authority, control or responsibility which makes F a fiduciary to cause the plan to pay F additional fees for the services. C, whose continued employment by P depends on F, has also engaged in such an act, because C has an interest in the transaction which might affect the exercise of C's best judgment as a fiduciary. As a result, C has dealt with plan assets in his own interest under section 406(b)(1).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>F, a fiduciary of plan P with discretionary authority respecting the management of P, retains S, the son of F, to provide for a fee various kinds of administrative services necessary for the operation of the plan. F has engaged in an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act because S is a person in whom F has an interest which may affect the exercise of F's best judgment as a fiduciary. Such act is not exempt under section 408(b)(2) of the Act irrespective of whether the provision of the services by S is exempt.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>T, one of the trustees of plan P, is president of bank B. The bank proposes to provide administrative services to P for a fee. T physically absents himself from all consideration of B's proposal and does not otherwise exercise any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes T a fiduciary to cause the plan to retain B. The other trustees decide to retain B. T has not engaged in an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act. Further, the other trustees have not engaged in an act described in section 406(b)(1) merely because T is on the board of trustees of P. This fact alone would not make them have an interest in the transaction which might affect the exercise of their best judgment as fiduciaries.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 32390, June 24, 1977, as amended at 75 FR 41635, July 16, 2010; 77 FR 5655, Feb. 3, 2012; 77 FR 41680, July 16, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408b-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408b-3   Loans to Employee Stock Ownership Plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> When used in this section, the terms listed below have the following meanings:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>ESOP.</I> The term <I>ESOP</I> refers to an employee stock ownership plan that meets the requirements of section 407(d)(6) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) and 29 CFR 2550.407d-6. It is not synonymous with “stock bonus plan.” A stock bonus plan must, however, be an ESOP to engage in an exempt loan. The qualification of an ESOP under section 401 (a) of the Internal Revenue Code (the Code) and 26 CFR 54.4975-11 will not be adversely affected merely because it engages in a non-exempt loan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loan.</I> The term <I>loan</I> refers to a loan made to an ESOP by a party in interest or a loan to an ESOP which is guaranteed by a party in interest. It includes a direct loan of cash, a purchase-money transaction, and an assumption of the obligation of an ESOP. “Guarantee” includes an unsecured guarantee and the use of assets of a party in interest as collateral for a loan, even though the use of assets may not be a guarantee under applicable state law. An amendment of a loan in order to qualify as an exempt loan is not a refinancing of the loan or the making of another loan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exempt loan.</I> The term <I>exempt loan</I> refers to a loan that satisfies the provisions of this section. A “non-exempt loan” is one that fails to satisfy such provisions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Publicly traded.</I> The term <I>publicly traded</I> refers to a security that is listed on a national securities exchange registered under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) or that is quoted on a system sponsored by a national securities association registered under section 15A(b) of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Qualifying employer security.</I> The term <I>qualifying employer security</I> reters to a security described in 29 CFR 2550.407d-5.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory exemption</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> Section 408(b)(3) of the Act provides an exemption from the prohibited transaction provisions of sections 406(a) and 406(b)(1) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries dealing with the assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account) and 406(b)(2) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries in their individual or in any other capacity acting in any transaction involving the plan on behalf of a party (or representing a party) whose interests are adverse to the interests of the plan or the interests of its participants or beneficiaries). Section 408(b)(3) does not provide an exemption from the prohibitions of section 406(b)(3) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special scrutiny of transaction.</I> The exemption under section 408(b)(3) includes within its scope certain transaction in which the potential for self-dealing by fiduciaries exists and in which the interests of fiduciaries may conflict with the interests of participants. To guard against these potential abuses, the Department of Labor will subject these transactions to special scrutiny to ensure that they are primarily for the benefit of participants and their beneficiaries. Although the transactions need not be arranged and approved by an independent fiduciary, fiduciaries are cautioned to scrupulously exercise their discretion in approving them. For example, fiduciaries should be prepared to demonstrate compliance with the net effect test and the arm's-length standard under paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section. Also, fiduciaries should determine that the transaction is truly arranged primarily in the interest of participants and their beneficiaries rather than, for example, in the interest of certain selling shareholders.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Primary benefit requirements</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An exempt loan must be primarily for the benefit of the ESOP participants and their beneficiaries. All the surrounding facts and circumstances, including those described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, will be considered in determining whether such loan satisfies this requirement. However, no loan will satisfy such requirement unless it satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Net effect on plan assets.</I> At the time that a loan is made, the interest rate for the loan and the price of securities to be acquired with the loan proceeds should not be such that plan assets might be drained off.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Arm's-length standard.</I> The terms of a loan, whether or not between independent parties, must, at the time the loan is made, be at least as favorable to the ESOP as the terms of a comparable loan resulting from arm's-length negotiations between independent parties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of loan proceeds.</I> The proceeds of an exempt loan must be used, within a reasonable time after their receipt, by the borrowing ESOP only for any or all of the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To acquire qualifying employer securities.
</P>
<P>(2) To repay such loan.
</P>
<P>(3) To repay a prior exempt loan. A new loan, the proceeds of which are so used, must satisfy the provisions of this section.
</P>
<FP>Except as provided in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section or as otherwise required by applicable law, no security acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan may be subject to a put, call, or other option, or buy-sell or similar arrangement while held by and when distributed from a plan, whether or not the plan is then ESOP.
</FP>
<P>(e) <I>Liability and collateral of ESOP for loan.</I> An exempt loan must be without recourse against the ESOP. Furthermore, the only assets of the ESOP that may be given as collateral on an exempt loan are qualifying employer securities of two classes: Those acquired with the proceeds of the exempt loan and those that were used as collateral on a prior exempt loan repaid with the proceeds of the current exempt loan. No person entitled to payment under the exempt loan shall have any right to assets of the ESOP other than:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateral given for the loan,
</P>
<P>(2) Contributions (other than contributions of employer securities) that are made under an ESOP to meet its obligations under the loan, and
</P>
<P>(3) Earnings attributable to such collateral and the investment of such contributions.
</P>
<FP>The payments made with respect to an exempt loan by the ESOP during a plan year must not exceed an amount equal to the sum of such contributions and earnings received during or prior to the year less such payments in prior years. Such contributions and earnings must be accounted for separately in the books of account of the ESOP until the loan is repaid.
</FP>
<P>(f) <I>Default.</I> In the event of default upon an exempt loan, the value of plan assets transferred in satisfaction of the loan must not exceed the amount of default. If the lender is a party in interest, a loan must provide for a transfer of plan assets upon default only upon and to the extent of the failure of the plan to meet the payment schedule of the loan. For purposes of this paragraph, the making of a guarantee does not make a person a lender.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reasonable rate of interest.</I> The interest rate of a loan must not be in excess of a reasonable rate of interest. All relevant factors will be considered in determining a reasonable rate of interest, including the amount and duration of the loan, the security and guarantee (if any) involved, the credit standing of the ESOP and the guarantor (if any), and the interest rate prevailing for comparable loans. When these factors are considered, a variable interest rate may be reasonable.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Release from encumbrance</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> In general, an exempt loan must provide for the release from encumbrance of plan assets used as collateral for the loan under this paragraph. For each plan year during the duration of the loan, the number of securities released must equal the number of encumbered securities held immediately before release for the current plan year multiplied by a fraction. The numerator of the fraction is the amount of principal and interest paid for the year. The denominator of the fraction is the sum of the numerator plus the principal and interest to be paid for all future years. See § 2550.408b-3(h)(4). The number of future years under the loan must be definitely ascertainable and must be determined without taking into account any possible extensions or renewal periods. If the interest rate under the loan is variable, the interest to be paid in future years must be computed by using the interest rate applicable as of the end of the plan year. If collateral includes more than one class of securities, the number of securities of each class to be released for a plan year must be determined by applying the same fraction to each class.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule.</I> A loan will not fail to be exempt merely because the number of securities to be released from encumbrance is determined solely with reference to principal payments. However, if release is determined with reference to principal payments only, the following three additional rules apply. The first rule is that the loan must provide for annual payments of principal and interest at a cumulative rate that is not less rapid at any time than level annual payments of such amounts for 10 years. The second rule is that interest included in any payment is disregarded only to the extent that it would be determined to be interest under standard loan amortization tables. The third rule is that subdivision (2) is not applicable from the time that, by reason of a renewal, extension, or refinancing, the sum of the expired duration of the exempt loan, the renewal period, the extension period, and the duration of a new exempt loan exceeds 10 years.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caution against plan disqualification.</I> Under an exempt loan, the number of securities released from encumbrance may vary from year to year. The release of securities depends upon certain employer contributions and earnings under the ESOP. Under 26 CFR 54.4975-11(d)(2) actual allocations to participants' accounts are based upon assets withdrawn from the suspense account. Nevertheless, for purposes of applying the limitations under section 415 of the Code to these allocations, under 26 CFR 54.4975-11(a)(8)(ii) contributions used by the ESOP to pay the loan are treated as annual additions to participants' accounts. Therefore, particular caution must be exercised to avoid exceeding the maximum annual additions under section 415 of the Code. At the same time, release from encumbrance in annually varying numbers may reflect a failure on the part of the employer to make substantial and recurring contributions to the ESOP which will lead to loss of qualification under section 401(a) of the Code. The Internal Revenue Service will observe closely the operation of ESOPs that release encumbered securities in varying annual amounts, particularly those that provide for the deferral of loan payments or for balloon payments. See 26 CFR 54.4975-7(b)(8)(iii).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Illustration.</I> The general rule under paragraph (h)(1) of this section operates as illustrated in the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>Corporation X establishes an ESOP that borrows $750,000 from a bank. X guarantees the loan which is for 15 years at 5% interest and is payable in level annual amounts of $72,256.72. Total payments on the loan are $1,083,850.80. The ESOP uses the entire proceeds of the loan to acquire 15,000 shares of X stock which is used as collateral for the loan. The number of securities to be released for the first year is 1,000 shares, <I>i.e.</I>, 15,000 shares × $72,256.72/$1,083,850.80 = 15,000 shares × 
<FR>1/15</FR>. The number of securities to be released for the second year is 1,000 shares, <I>i.e.</I>, 14,000 shares × $72,256.72/$1,011,594.08 = 14,000 shares × 
<FR>1/14</FR>. If all loan payments are made as originally scheduled, the number of securities released in each succeeding year of the loan will also be 1,000.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(i) <I>Right of first refusal.</I> Qualifying employer securities acquired with proceeds of an exempt loan may, but need not, be subject to a right of first refusal. However, any such right must meet the requirements of this paragraph. Securities subject to such right must be stock or an equity security, or a debt security convertible into stock or an equity security. Also, they must not be publicly traded at the time the right may be exercised. The right of first refusal must be in favor of the employer, the ESOP, or both in any order of priority. The selling price and other terms under the right must not be less favorable to the seller than the greater of the value of the security determined under 26 CFR 54.4975-11(d)(5), or the purchase price and other terms offered by a buyer, other than the employer or the ESOP, making a good faith offer to purchase the security. The right of first refusal must lapse no later than 14 days after the security holder gives written notice to the holder of the right that an offer by a third party to purchase the security has been received.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Put option.</I> A qualifying employer security acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan by an ESOP after September 30, 1976, must be subject to a put option if it is not publicly traded when distributed or if it is subject to a trading limitation when distributed. For purposes of this paragraph, a “trading limitation” or a security is a restriction under any Federal or State securities law or any regulation thereunder, or an agreement (not prohibited by this section) affecting the security which would make the security not as freely tradeable as one not subject to such restriction. The put option must be exercisable only by a participant, by the participant's donees, or by a person (including an estate or its distributee) to whom the security passes by reason of a participant's death. (Under this paragraph “participant” means a participant and the beneficiaries of the participant under the ESOP.) The put option must permit a participant to put the security to the employer. Under no circumstances may the put option bind the ESOP. However, it may grant the ESOP an option to assume the rights and obligations of the employer at the time that the put option is exercised. If it is known at the time a loan is made that Federal or state law will be violated by the employer's honoring such put option, the put option must permit the security to be put, in a manner consistent with such law, to a third party (e.g., an affiliate of the employer or a shareholder other than the ESOP) that has substantial net worth at the time the loan is made and whose net worth is reasonably expected to remain substantial.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Duration of put option</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A put option must be exercisable at least during a 15-month period which begins the date the security subject to the put option is distributed by the ESOP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule.</I> In the case of a security that is publicly traded without restriction when distributed but ceases to be so traded within 15 months after distribution, the employer must notify each security holder in writing on or before the tenth day after the date the security ceases to be so traded that for the remainder of the 15-month period the security is subject to a put option. The number of days between the tenth day and the date on which notice is actually given, if later than the tenth day, must be added to the duration of the put option. The notice must inform distributees of the terms of the put options that they are to hold. The terms must satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (j) through (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Other put option provisions</I>—(1) <I>Manner of exercise.</I> A put option is exercised by the holder notifying the employer in writing that the put option is being exercised.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time excluded from duration of put option.</I> The period during which a put option is exercisable does not include any time when a distributee is unable to exercise it because the party bound by the put option is prohibited from honoring it by applicable Federal or State law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Price.</I> The price at which a put option must be exercisable is the value of the security, determined in accordance with paragraph (d)(5) of 26 CFR 54.4975-11.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Payment terms.</I> The provisions for payment under a put option must be reasonable. The deferral of payment is reasonable if adequate security and a reasonable interest rate are provided for any credit extended and if the cumulative payments at any time are no less than the aggregate of reasonable periodic payments as of such time. Periodic payments are reasonable if annual installments, beginning with 30 days after the date the put option is exercised, are substantially equal. Generally, the payment period may not end more than 5 years after the date the put option is exercised. However, it may be extended to a date no later than the earlier of 10 years from the date the put option is exercised or the date the proceeds of the loan used by the ESOP to acquire the security subject to such put option are entirely repaid.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Payment restrictions.</I> Payment under a put option may be restricted by the terms of a loan, including one used to acquire a security subject to a put option, made before November 1, 1977. Otherwise, payment under a put option must not be restricted by the provisions of a loan or any other arrangement, including the terms of the employer's articles of incorporation, unless so required by applicable state law.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Other terms of loan.</I> An exempt loan must be for a specific term. Such loan may not be payable at the demand of any person, except in the case of default.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Status of plan as ESOP.</I> To be exempt, a loan must be made to a plan that is an ESOP at the time of such loan. However, a loan to a plan formally designated as an ESOP at the time of the loan that fails to be an ESOP because it does not comply with section 401(a) of the Code or 26 CFR 54.4975-11 will be exempt as of the time of such loan if the plan is amended retroactively under section 401(b) of the Code or 26 CFR 54.4975-11(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Special rules for certain loans</I>—(1) <I>Loans made before January 1, 1976.</I> A loan made before January 1, 1976, or made afterwards under a binding agreement in effect on January 1, 1976 (or under renewals permitted by the terms of such an agreement on that date) is exempt for the entire period of such loan if it otherwise satisfies the provisions of this section for such period, even though it does not satisfy the following provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The last sentence of paragraph (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraphs (e), (f), and (h)(1) and (2); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Paragraphs (i) through (m), inclusive.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans made after December 31, 1975, but before November 1, 1977.</I> A loan made after December 31, 1975, but before November 1, 1977, or made afterwards under a binding agreement in effect on November 1, 1977 (or under renewals permitted by the terms of such an agreement on that date) is exempt for the entire period of such loan if it otherwise satisfies the provisions of this section for such period even though it does not satisfy the following provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Paragraph (f);
</P>
<P>(ii) The three provisions of paragraph (h)(2); and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Paragraph (i).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Release rule.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (o)(1) and (2) of this section, if the proceeds of a loan are used to acquire securities after November 1, 1977, the loan must comply by such date with the provisions of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Default rule.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (o)(1) and (2) of this section, a loan by a party in interest other than a guarantor must satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section. A loan will satisfy these requirements if it is retroactively amended before November 1, 1977, to satisfy these requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Put option rule.</I> With respect to a security distributed before November 1, 1977, the put option provisions of paragraphs (j), (k), and (l) of this section will be deemed satisfied as of the date the security is distributed if by December 31, 1977, the security is subject to a put option satisfying such provisions. For purposes of satisfying such provisions, the security will be deemed distributed on the date the put option is issued. However, the put option provisions need not be satisfied with respect to a security that is not owned on November 1, 1977, by a person in whose hands a put option must be exercisable.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1210-0046) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 44385, Sept. 2, 1977; 42 FR 45907, Sept. 13, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 18295, Apr. 30, 1984] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408b-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408b-4   Statutory exemption for investments in deposits of banks or similar financial institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Section 408(b)(4) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) exempts from the prohibitions of section 406 of the Act the investment of all or a part of a plan's assets in deposits bearing a reasonable rate of interest in a bank or similar financial institution supervised by the United States or a State, even though such bank or similar financial insitution is a fiduciary or other party in interest with respect to the plan, if the conditions of either § 2550.408b-4(b)(1) or § 2550.408b-4(b)(2) are met. Section 408(b)(4) provides an exemption from sections 406(b)(1) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries dealing with the assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account) and 406(b)(2) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries in their individual or in any other capacity acting in any transaction involving the plan on behalf of a party (or representing a party) whose interests are adverse to the interests of the plan or the interests of its participants or beneficiaries), as well as section 406(a)(1), because section 408(b)(4) contemplates a bank or similar financial institution causing a plan for which it acts as a fiduciary to invest plan assets in its own deposits if the requirements of section 408(b)(4) are met. However, it does not provide an exemption from section 406(b)(3) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the assets of the plan). The receipt of such consideration is a separate transaction not described in the statutory exemption. Section 408(b)(4) does not contain an exemption from other provisions of the Act, such as section 404, or other provisions of law which may impose requirements or restrictions relating to the transactions which are exempt under section 408(b)(4) of the Act. See, for example, section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (Code). The provisions of section 408(b)(4) of the Act are further limited by section 408(d) of the Act (relating to transactions with owner-employees and related persons).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Plan covering own employees.</I> Such investment may be made if the plan is one which covers only the employees of the bank or similar financial institution, the employees of any of its affiliates, or the employees of both.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other plans.</I> Such investment may be made if the investment is expressly authorized by a provision of the plan or trust instrument or if the investment is expressly authorized (or made) by a fiduciary of the plan (other than the bank or similar financial institution or any of its affiliates) who has authority to make such investments, or to instruct the trustee or other fiduciary with respect to investments, and who has no interest in the transaction which may affect the exercise of such authorizing fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary so as to cause such authorization to consititute an act described in section 406(b) of the Act. Any authorization to make investments contained in a plan or trust instrument will satisfy the requirement of express authorization for investments made prior to November 1, 1977. Effective November 1, 1977, in the case of a bank or similar financial institution that invests plan assets in deposits in itself or its affiliates under an authorization contained in a plan or trust instrument, such authorization must name such bank or similar financial institution and must state that such bank or similar financial institution may make investments in deposits which bear a reasonable rate of interest in itself (or in an affiliate).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> B, a bank, is the trustee of plan P's assets. The trust instruments give the trustees the right to invest plan assets in its discretion. B invests in the certificates of deposit of bank C, which is a fiduciary of the plan by virtue of performing certain custodial and administrative services. The authorization is sufficient for the plan to make such investment under section 408(b)(4). Further, such authorization would suffice to allow B to make investments in deposits in itself prior to November 1, 1977. However, subsequent to October 31, 1977, B may not invest in deposits in itself, unless the plan or trust instrument specifically authorizes it to invest in deposits of B.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) The term <I>bank or similar financial institution</I> includes a bank (as defined in section 581 of the Code), a domestic building and loan association (as defined in section 7701(a)(19) of the Code), and a credit union (as defined in section 101(6) of the Federal Credit Union Act).
</P>
<P>(2) A person is an affiliate of a bank or similar financial institution if such person and such bank or similar financial institution would be treated as members of the same controlled group of corporations or as members of two or more trades or businesses under common control within the meaning of section 414 (b) or (c) of the Code and the regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>deposits</I> includes any account, temporary or otherwise, upon which a reasonable rate of interest is paid, including a certificate of deposit issued by a bank or similar financial institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 32392, June 24, 1977; 42 FR 36823, July 18, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408b-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408b-6   Statutory exemption for ancillary services by a bank or similar financial institution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Section 408(b)(6) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) exempts from the prohibitions of section 406 of the Act the provision of certain ancillary services by a bank or similar financial institution (as defined in § 2550.408b-4(c)(1) supervised by the United States or a State to a plan for which it acts as a fiduciary if the conditions of § 2550.408b-6(b) are met. Such ancillary services include services which do not meet the requirements of section 408(b)(2) of the Act because the provision of such services involves an act described in section 406(b)(1) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries dealing with the assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account) by the fiduciary bank or similar financial institution or an act described in section 406(b)(2) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries in their individual or in any other capacity acting in any transaction involving the plan on behalf of a party (or representing a party) whose interests are adverse to the interests of the plan or the interests of its participants or beneficiaries). Section 408(b)(6) provides an exemption from sections 406(b)(1) and (2) because section 408(b)(6) contemplates the provision of such ancillary services without the approval of a second fiduciary (as described in § 2550.408b-2(e)(2)) if the conditions of § 2550.408b-6(b) are met. Thus, for example, plan assets held by a fiduciary bank which are reasonably expected to be needed to satisfy current plan expenses may be placed by the bank in a non-interest-bearing checking account in the bank if the conditions of § 2550.408b-6(b) are met, notwithstanding the provisions of section 408(b)(4) of the Act (relating to investments in bank deposits). However, section 408(b)(6) does not provide an exemption for an act described in section 406(b)(3) of the Act (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the assets of the plan). The receipt of such consideration is a separate transaction not described in section 408(b)(6). Section 408(b)(6) does not contain an exemption from other provisions of the Act, such as section 404, or other provisions of law which may impose requirements or restrictions relating to the transactions which are exempt under section 408(b)(6) of the Act. See, for example, section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. The provisions of section 408(b)(6) of the Act are further limited by section 408(d) of the Act (relating to transactions with owner-employees and related persons).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions.</I> Such service must be provided—
</P>
<P>(1) At not more than reasonable compensation;
</P>
<P>(2) Under adequate internal safeguards which assure that the provision of such service is consistent with sound banking and financial practice, as determined by Federal or State supervisory authority; and
</P>
<P>(3) Only to the extent that such service is subject to specific guidelines issued by the bank or similar financial institution which meet the requirements of § 2550.408b-6(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 32392, June 24, 1977; 42 FR 36823, July 18, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408b-19" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408b-19   Statutory exemption for cross-trading of securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Section 408(b)(19) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) exempts from the prohibitions of section 406(a)(1)(A) and 406(b)(2) of the Act any cross-trade of securities if certain conditions are satisfied. Among other conditions, the exemption requires that the investment manager adopt, and effect cross-trades in accordance with, written cross-trading policies and procedures that are fair and equitable to all accounts participating in the cross-trading program, and that include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the investment manager's pricing policies and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The investment manager's policies and procedures for allocating cross-trades in an objective manner among accounts participating in the cross-trading program.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 4975(d)(22) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code) contains parallel provisions to section 408(b)(19) of the Act. Effective December 31, 1978, section 102 of Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 214 (2000 ed.), transferred the authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to promulgate regulations of the type published herein to the Secretary of Labor. Therefore, all references herein to section 408(b)(19) of the Act should be read to include reference to the parallel provisions of section 4975(d)(22) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 408(b)(19)(D) of the Act requires that a plan fiduciary for each plan participating in the cross-trades receive in advance of any cross-trades disclosure regarding the conditions under which the cross-trades may take place, including the written policies and procedures described in section 408(b)(19)(H) of the Act. This disclosure must be in a document that is separate from any other agreement or disclosure involving the asset management relationship. For purposes of section 408(b)(19)(D) of the Act, the policies and procedures furnished to the authorizing fiduciary must conform with the requirements of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(4) The standards set forth in this section apply solely for purposes of determining whether an investment manager's written policies and procedures satisfy the content requirements of section 408(b)(19)(H) of the Act. Accordingly, such standards do not determine whether the investment manager satisfies the other requirements for relief under section 408(b)(19) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> <I>In general.</I> This paragraph specifies the content of the written policies and procedures required to be adopted by an investment manager and disclosed to the plan fiduciary prior to authorizing cross-trading in order for transactions to qualify for relief under section 408(b)(19) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Style and format.</I> The content of the policies and procedures required by this paragraph must be clear and concise and written in a manner calculated to be understood by the plan fiduciary authorizing cross-trading. Although no specific format is required for the investment manager's written policies and procedures, the information contained in the policies and procedures must be sufficiently detailed to facilitate a periodic review by the compliance officer of the cross-trades and a determination by such compliance officer that the cross-trades comply with the investment manager's written cross-trading policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content</I> (i). An investment manager's policies and procedures must be fair and equitable to all accounts participating in its cross-trading program and reasonably designed to ensure compliance with the requirements of section 408(b)(19)(H) of the Act. Such policies and procedures must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of policy which describes the criteria that will be applied by the investment manager in determining that execution of a securities transaction as a cross-trade will be beneficial to both parties to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of how the investment manager will determine that cross-trades are effected at the independent “current market price” of the security (within the meaning of section 270.17a-7(b) of Title 17, Code of Federal Regulations and SEC no-action and interpretative letters thereunder) as required by section 408(b)(19)(B) of the Act, including the identity of sources used to establish such price;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the procedures for ensuring compliance with the $100,000,000 minimum asset size requirement of section 408(b)(19). A plan or master trust will satisfy the minimum asset size requirement as to a transaction if it satisfies the requirement upon its initial participation in the cross-trading program and on an annual basis thereafter;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that any investment manager participating in a cross-trading program will have conflicting loyalties and responsibilities to the parties involved in any cross-trade transaction and a description of how the investment manager will mitigate such conflicts;
</P>
<P>(E) A requirement that the investment manager allocate cross-trades among accounts in an objective and equitable manner and a description of the allocation method(s) available to and used by the investment manager for assuring an objective allocation among accounts participating in the cross-trading program. If more than one allocation methodology may be used by the investment manager, a description of what circumstances will dictate the use of a particular methodology;
</P>
<P>(F) Identification of the compliance officer responsible for periodically reviewing the investment manager's compliance with section 408(b)(19)(H) of the Act and a statement of the compliance officer's qualifications for this position;
</P>
<P>(G) A statement that the cross-trading statutory exemption under section 408(b)(19) of the Act requires satisfaction of several objective conditions in addition to the requirements that the investment manager adopt and effect cross-trades in accordance with written cross-trading policies and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(H) A statement which specifically describes the scope of the annual review conducted by the compliance officer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nothing herein is intended to preclude an investment manager from including such other policies and procedures not required by this regulation as the investment manager may determine appropriate to comply with the requirements of section 408(b)(19).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>“account”</I> includes any single customer or pooled fund or account.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>“compliance officer”</I> means an individual designated by the investment manager who is responsible for periodically reviewing the cross-trades made for the plan to ensure compliance with the investment manager's written cross-trading policies and procedures and the requirements of section 408(b)(19)(H) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>“plan fiduciary”</I> means a person described in section 3(21)(A) of the Act with respect to a plan (other than the investment manager engaging in the cross-trades or an affiliate) who has the authority to authorize a plan's participation in an investment manager's cross-trading program.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>“investment manager”</I> means a person described in section 3(38) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>“plan”</I> means any employee benefit plan as described in section 3(3) of the Act to which Title I of the Act applies or any plan defined in section 4975(e)(1) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(6) The term <I>“cross-trade”</I> means the purchase and sale of a security between a plan and any other account managed by the same investment manager.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 58458, Oct. 7, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408c-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408c-2   Compensation for services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Section 408(b)(2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) refers to the payment of reasonable compensation by a plan to a party in interest for services rendered to the plan. Section 408(c)(2) of the Act and §§ 2550.408c-2(b)(1) through 2550.408c-2(b)(4) clarify what constitutes reasonable compensation for such services.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>General rule.</I> Generally, whether compensation is “reasonable” under sections 408 (b)(2) and (c)(2) of the Act depends on the particular facts and circumstances of each case.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments to certain fiduciaries.</I> Under sections 408(b)(2) and 408(c)(2) of the Act, the term “reasonable compensation” does not include any compensation to a fiduciary who is already receiving full-time pay from an employer or association of employers (any of whose employees are participants in the plan) or from an employee organization (any of whose members are participants in the plan), except for the reimbursement of direct expenses properly and actually incurred and not otherwise reimbursed. The restrictions of this paragraph (b)(2) do not apply to a party in interest who is not a fiduciary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain expenses not direct expenses.</I> An expense is not a direct expense to the extent it would have been sustained had the service not been provided or if it represents an allocable portion of overhead costs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expense advances.</I> Under sections 408(b)(2) and 408(c)(2) of the Act, the term “reasonable compensation,” as applied to a fiduciary or an employee of a plan, includes an advance to such a fiduciary or employee by the plan to cover direct expenses to be properly and actually incurred by such person in the performance of such person's duties with the plan if:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of such advance is reasonable with respect to the amount of the direct expense which is likely to be properly and actually incurred in the immediate future (such as during the next month); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The fiduciary or employee accounts to the plan at the end of the period covered by the advance for the expenses properly and actually incurred.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Excessive compensation.</I> Under sections 408(b)(2) and 408(c)(2) of the Act, any compensation which would be considered excessive under 26 CFR 1.162-7 (Income Tax Regulations relating to compensation for personal services which consitutes an ordinary and necessary trade or business expense) will not be “reasonable compensation.” Depending upon the facts and circumstances of the particular situation, compensation which is not excessive under 26 CFR 1.162-7 may, nevertheless, not be “reasonable compensation” within the meaning of sections 408(b)(2) and 408 (c)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 32393, June 24, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408e" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408e   Statutory exemption for acquisition or sale of qualifying employer securities and for acquisition, sale, or lease of qualifying employer real property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 408(e) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) exempts from the prohibitions of section 406(a) and 406(b)(1) and (2) of the Act any acquisition or sale by a plan of qualifying employer securities (as defined in section 407(d)(5) of the Act), or any acquisition, sale or lease by a plan of qualifying employer real property (as defined in section 407(d)(4) of the Act) if certain conditions are met. The conditions are that:
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition, sale or lease must be for adequate consideration (which is defined in paragraph (d) of this section); 
</P>
<P>(2) No commission may be charged directly or indirectly to the plan with respect to the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an acquisition or lease of qualifying employer real property, or an acquisition of qualifying employer securities, by a plan other than an eligible individual account plan (as defined in section 407(d)(3) of the Act), the acquisition or lease must comply with the requirements of section 407(a) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acquisition.</I> For purposes of section 408(e) and this section, an acquisition by a plan of qualifying employer securities or qualifying employer real property shall include, but not be limited to, an acquisition by purchase, by the exchange of plan assets, by the exercise of warrants or rights, by the conversion of a security, by default of a loan where the qualifying employer security or qualifying employer real property was security for the loan, or in connection with the contribution of such securities or real property to the plan. However, an acquisition of a security shall not be deemed to have occurred if a plan acquires the security as a result of a stock dividend or stock split. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sale.</I> For purposes of section 408(e) and this section, a sale of qualifying employer real property or qualifying employer securities shall include any disposition for value. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adequate consideration.</I> For purposes of section 408(e) and this section, adequate consideration means: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a marketable obligation, a price not less favorable to the plan than the price determined under section 407(e)(1) of the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(2) In all other cases, a price not less favorable to the plan than the price determined under section 3(18) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commission.</I> For purposes of section 408(e) and this section, the term “commission” includes any fee, commission or similar charge paid in connection with a transaction, except that the term “commission” does not include a charge incurred for the purpose of enabling the appropriate plan fiduciaries to evaluate the desirability of entering into a transaction to which this section would apply, such as an appraisal or investment advisory fee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 51197, Aug. 1, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408g-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408g-1   Investment advice—participants and beneficiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) This section provides relief from the prohibitions of section 406 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA or the Act), and section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the Code), for certain transactions in connection with the provision of investment advice to participants and beneficiaries. This section, at paragraph (b), implements the statutory exemption set forth at sections 408(b)(14) and 408(g)(1) of ERISA and sections 4975(d)(17) and 4975(f)(8) of the Code. The requirements and conditions set forth in this section apply solely for the relief described in paragraph (b) of this section and, accordingly, no inferences should be drawn with respect to requirements applicable to the provision of investment advice not addressed by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing contained in ERISA section 408(g)(1), Code section 4975(f)(8), or this regulation imposes an obligation on a plan fiduciary or any other party to offer, provide or otherwise make available any investment advice to a participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing contained in ERISA section 408(g)(1), Code section 4975(f)(8), or this regulation invalidates or otherwise affects prior regulations, exemptions, interpretive or other guidance issued by the Department of Labor pertaining to the provision of investment advice and the circumstances under which such advice may or may not constitute a prohibited transaction under section 406 of ERISA or section 4975 of the Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory exemption</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Sections 408(b)(14) and 408(g)(1) of ERISA provide an exemption from the prohibitions of section 406 of ERISA for transactions described in section 408(b)(14) of ERISA in connection with the provision of investment advice to a participant or a beneficiary if the investment advice is provided by a fiduciary adviser under an “eligible investment advice arrangement.” Sections 4975(d)(17) and (f)(8) of the Code contain parallel provisions to ERISA sections 408(b)(14) and (g)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible investment advice.</I> For purposes of section 408(g)(1) of ERISA and section 4975(f)(8) of the Code, an “eligible investment advice arrangement” means an arrangement that meets either the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section or paragraph (b)(4) of this section, or both.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Arrangements that use fee leveling.</I> For purposes of this section, an arrangement is an eligible investment advice arrangement if—
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Any investment advice is based on generally accepted investment theories that take into account the historic risks and returns of different asset classes over defined periods of time, although nothing herein shall preclude any investment advice from being based on generally accepted investment theories that take into account additional considerations;
</P>
<P>(B) Any investment advice takes into account investment management and other fees and expenses attendant to the recommended investments;
</P>
<P>(C) Any investment advice takes into account, to the extent furnished by a plan, participant or beneficiary, information relating to age, time horizons (e.g., life expectancy, retirement age), risk tolerance, current investments in designated investment options, other assets or sources of income, and investment preferences of the participant or beneficiary. A fiduciary adviser shall request such information, but nothing in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(C) shall require that any investment advice take into account information requested, but not furnished by a participant or beneficiary, nor preclude requesting and taking into account additional information that a plan or participant or beneficiary may provide;
</P>
<P>(D) No fiduciary adviser (including any employee, agent, or registered representative) that provides investment advice receives from any party (including an affiliate of the fiduciary adviser), directly or indirectly, any fee or other compensation (including commissions, salary, bonuses, awards, promotions, or other things of value) that varies depending on the basis of a participant's or beneficiary's selection of a particular investment option; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirements of paragraphs (b)(5), (6), (7), (8) and (9) and paragraph (d) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Arrangements that use computer models.</I> For purposes of this section, an arrangement is an eligible investment advice arrangement if the only investment advice provided under the arrangement is advice that is generated by a computer model described in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section under an investment advice program and with respect to which the requirements of paragraphs (b)(5), (6), (7), (8) and (9) and paragraph (d) are met.
</P>
<P>(i) A computer model shall be designed and operated to—
</P>
<P>(A) Apply generally accepted investment theories that take into account the historic risks and returns of different asset classes over defined periods of time, although nothing herein shall preclude a computer model from applying generally accepted investment theories that take into account additional considerations;
</P>
<P>(B) Take into account investment management and other fees and expenses attendant to the recommended investments;
</P>
<P>(C) Appropriately weight the factors used in estimating future returns of investment options;
</P>
<P>(D) Request from a participant or beneficiary and, to the extent furnished, utilize information relating to age, time horizons (e.g., life expectancy, retirement age), risk tolerance, current investments in designated investment options, other assets or sources of income, and investment preferences; provided, however, that nothing herein shall preclude a computer model from requesting and taking into account additional information that a plan or a participant or beneficiary may provide;
</P>
<P>(E) Utilize appropriate objective criteria to provide asset allocation portfolios comprised of investment options available under the plan;
</P>
<P>(F) Avoid investment recommendations that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Inappropriately favor investment options offered by the fiduciary adviser or a person with a material affiliation or material contractual relationship with the fiduciary adviser over other investment options, if any, available under the plan; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Inappropriately favor investment options that may generate greater income for the fiduciary adviser or a person with a material affiliation or material contractual relationship with the fiduciary adviser; and
</P>
<P>(G)(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(i)(G)(<I>2</I>) of this section, take into account all designated investment options, within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, available under the plan without giving inappropriate weight to any investment option.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A computer model shall not be treated as failing to meet the requirements of this paragraph merely because it does not make recommendations relating to the acquisition, holding or sale of an investment option that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Constitutes an annuity option with respect to which a participant or beneficiary may allocate assets toward the purchase of a stream of retirement income payments guaranteed by an insurance company, provided that, contemporaneous with the provision of investment advice generated by the computer model, the participant or beneficiary is also furnished a general description of such options and how they operate; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The participant or beneficiary requests to be excluded from consideration in such recommendations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to utilization of the computer model, the fiduciary adviser shall obtain a written certification, meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(iv) of this section, from an eligible investment expert, within the meaning of paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section, that the computer model meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section. If, following certification, a computer model is modified in a manner that may affect its ability to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i), the fiduciary adviser shall, prior to utilization of the modified model, obtain a new certification from an eligible investment expert that the computer model, as modified, meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(iii) The term “eligible investment expert” means a person that, through employees or otherwise, has the appropriate technical training or experience and proficiency to analyze, determine and certify, in a manner consistent with paragraph (b)(4)(iv) of this section, whether a computer model meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section; except that the term “eligible investment expert” does not include any person that: Has any material affiliation or material contractual relationship with the fiduciary adviser, with a person with a material affiliation or material contractual relationship with the fiduciary adviser, or with any employee, agent, or registered representative of the foregoing; or develops a computer model utilized by the fiduciary adviser to satisfy this paragraph (b)(4).
</P>
<P>(iv) A certification by an eligible investment expert shall—
</P>
<P>(A) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(B) Contain—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An identification of the methodology or methodologies applied in determining whether the computer model meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An explanation of how the applied methodology or methodologies demonstrated that the computer model met the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A description of any limitations that were imposed by any person on the eligible investment expert's selection or application of methodologies for determining whether the computer model meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A representation that the methodology or methodologies were applied by a person or persons with the educational background, technical training or experience necessary to analyze and determine whether the computer model meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i); and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A statement certifying that the eligible investment expert has determined that the computer model meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Be signed by the eligible investment expert.
</P>
<P>(v) The selection of an eligible investment expert as required by this section is a fiduciary act governed by section 404(a)(1) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Arrangement must be authorized by a plan fiduciary.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, the arrangement pursuant to which investment advice is provided to participants and beneficiaries pursuant to this section must be expressly authorized by a plan fiduciary (or, in the case of an Individual Retirement Account (IRA), the IRA beneficiary) other than: The person offering the arrangement; any person providing designated investment options under the plan; or any affiliate of either. Provided, however, that for purposes of the preceding, in the case of an IRA, an IRA beneficiary will not be treated as an affiliate of a person solely by reason of being an employee of such person.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an arrangement pursuant to which investment advice is provided to participants and beneficiaries of a plan sponsored by the person offering the arrangement or a plan sponsored by an affiliate of such person, the authorization described in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section may be provided by the plan sponsor of such plan, provided that the person or affiliate offers the same arrangement to participants and beneficiaries of unaffiliated plans in the ordinary course of its business.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of the authorization described in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, a plan sponsor shall not be treated as a person providing a designated investment option under the plan merely because one of the designated investment options of the plan is an option that permits investment in securities of the plan sponsor or an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Annual audit.</I> (i) The fiduciary adviser shall, at least annually, engage an independent auditor, who has appropriate technical training or experience and proficiency, and so represents in writing to the fiduciary adviser, to:
</P>
<P>(A) Conduct an audit of the investment advice arrangements for compliance with the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Within 60 days following completion of the audit, issue a written report to the fiduciary adviser and, except with respect to an arrangement with an IRA, to each fiduciary who authorized the use of the investment advice arrangement, in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section, that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Identifies the fiduciary adviser,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Indicates the type of arrangement (<I>i.e.,</I> fee leveling, computer models, or both),
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the arrangement uses computer models, or both computer models and fee leveling, indicates the date of the most recent computer model certification, and identifies the eligible investment expert that provided the certification, and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Sets forth the specific findings of the auditor regarding compliance of the arrangement with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to an arrangement with an IRA, the fiduciary adviser:
</P>
<P>(A) Within 30 days following receipt of the report from the auditor, as described in paragraph (b)(6)(i)(B) of this section, shall furnish a copy of the report to the IRA beneficiary or make such report available on its Web site, provided that such beneficiaries are provided information, with the information required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(7) of this section, concerning the purpose of the report, and how and where to locate the report applicable to their account; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the event that the report of the auditor identifies noncompliance with the requirements of this section, within 30 days following receipt of the report from the auditor, shall send a copy of the report to the Department of Labor at the following address: Investment Advice Exemption Notification, U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, Room N-1513, 200 Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20210, or submit a copy electronically to <I>InvAdvNotification@dol.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(6), an auditor is considered independent if it does not have a material affiliation or material contractual relationship with the person offering the investment advice arrangement to the plan or with any designated investment options under the plan, and does not have any role in the development of the investment advice arrangement, or certification of the computer model utilized under the arrangement.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(6), the auditor shall review sufficient relevant information to formulate an opinion as to whether the investment advice arrangements, and the advice provided pursuant thereto, offered by the fiduciary adviser during the audit period were in compliance with this section. Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude an auditor from using information obtained by sampling, as reasonably determined appropriate by the auditor, investment advice arrangements, and the advice pursuant thereto, during the audit period.
</P>
<P>(v) The selection of an auditor for purposes of this paragraph (b)(6) is a fiduciary act governed by section 404(a)(1) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Disclosure to participants.</I> (i) The fiduciary adviser must provide, without charge, to a participant or a beneficiary before the initial provision of investment advice with regard to any security or other property offered as an investment option, a written notification of:
</P>
<P>(A) The role of any party that has a material affiliation or material contractual relationship with the fiduciary adviser in the development of the investment advice program, and in the selection of investment options available under the plan;
</P>
<P>(B) The past performance and historical rates of return of the designated investment options available under the plan, to the extent that such information is not otherwise provided;
</P>
<P>(C) All fees or other compensation that the fiduciary adviser or any affiliate thereof is to receive (including compensation provided by any third party) in connection with—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The provision of the advice;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The sale, acquisition, or holding of any security or other property pursuant to such advice; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any rollover or other distribution of plan assets or the investment of distributed assets in any security or other property pursuant to such advice;
</P>
<P>(D) Any material affiliation or material contractual relationship of the fiduciary adviser or affiliates thereof in the security or other property;
</P>
<P>(E) The manner, and under what circumstances, any participant or beneficiary information provided under the arrangement will be used or disclosed;
</P>
<P>(F) The types of services provided by the fiduciary adviser in connection with the provision of investment advice by the fiduciary adviser;
</P>
<P>(G) The adviser is acting as a fiduciary of the plan in connection with the provision of the advice; and
</P>
<P>(H) That a recipient of the advice may separately arrange for the provision of advice by another adviser that could have no material affiliation with and receive no fees or other compensation in connection with the security or other property.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The notification required under paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section must be written in a clear and conspicuous manner and in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and must be sufficiently accurate and comprehensive to reasonably apprise such participants and beneficiaries of the information required to be provided in the notification.
</P>
<P>(B) The appendix to this section contains a model disclosure form that may be used to provide notification of the information described in paragraph (b)(7)(i)(C) of this section. Use of the model form is not mandatory. However, use of an appropriately completed model disclosure form will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section with respect to such information.
</P>
<P>(iii) The notification required under paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section may, in accordance with 29 CFR 2520.104b-1, be provided in written or electronic form.
</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to the information required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section, the fiduciary adviser shall, at all times during the provision of advisory services to the participant or beneficiary pursuant to the arrangement—
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain accurate, up-to-date information in a form that is consistent with paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section,
</P>
<P>(B) Provide, without charge, accurate, up-to-date information to the recipient of the advice no less frequently than annually,
</P>
<P>(C) Provide, without charge, accurate information to the recipient of the advice upon request of the recipient, and
</P>
<P>(D) Provide, without charge, to the recipient of the advice any material change to the information described in paragraph (b)(7)(i) at a time reasonably contemporaneous to the change in information.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Disclosure to authorizing fiduciary.</I> The fiduciary adviser shall, in connection with any authorization described in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, provide the authorizing fiduciary with a written notice informing the fiduciary that:
</P>
<P>(i) The fiduciary adviser intends to comply with the conditions of the statutory exemption for investment advice under section 408(b)(14) and (g) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act and this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fiduciary adviser's arrangement will be audited annually by an independent auditor for compliance with the requirements of the statutory exemption and related regulations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The auditor will furnish the authorizing fiduciary a copy of that auditor's findings within 60 days of its completion of the audit.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Other conditions.</I> The requirements of this paragraph are met if—
</P>
<P>(i) The fiduciary adviser provides appropriate disclosure, in connection with the sale, acquisition, or holding of the security or other property, in accordance with all applicable securities laws,
</P>
<P>(ii) Any sale, acquisition, or holding of a security or other property occurs solely at the direction of the recipient of the advice,
</P>
<P>(iii) The compensation received by the fiduciary adviser and affiliates thereof in connection with the sale, acquisition, or holding of the security or other property is reasonable, and
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms of the sale, acquisition, or holding of the security or other property are at least as favorable to the plan as an arm's length transaction would be.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term “<I>designated investment option</I>” means any investment option designated by the plan into which participants and beneficiaries may direct the investment of assets held in, or contributed to, their individual accounts. The term “<I>designated investment option</I>” shall not include “brokerage windows,” “self-directed brokerage accounts,” or similar plan arrangements that enable participants and beneficiaries to select investments beyond those designated by the plan. The term “<I>designated investment option</I>” has the same meaning as the term “<I>designated investment alternative</I>” as defined in 29 CFR 2550.404a-5(h).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The term “<I>fiduciary adviser</I>” means, with respect to a plan, a person who is a fiduciary of the plan by reason of the provision of investment advice referred to in section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA by the person to the participant or beneficiary of the plan and who is—
</P>
<P>(A) Registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or under the laws of the State in which the fiduciary maintains its principal office and place of business,
</P>
<P>(B) A bank or similar financial institution referred to in section 408(b)(4) of ERISA or a savings association (as defined in section 3(b)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(1)), but only if the advice is provided through a trust department of the bank or similar financial institution or savings association which is subject to periodic examination and review by Federal or State banking authorities,
</P>
<P>(C) An insurance company qualified to do business under the laws of a State,
</P>
<P>(D) A person registered as a broker or dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>),
</P>
<P>(E) An affiliate of a person described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(A) through (D), or
</P>
<P>(F) An employee, agent, or registered representative of a person described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(A) through (E) of this section who satisfies the requirements of applicable insurance, banking, and securities laws relating to the provision of advice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided under 29 CFR 2550.408g-2, a fiduciary adviser includes any person who develops the computer model, or markets the computer model or investment advice program, utilized in satisfaction of paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A “<I>registered representative</I>” of another entity means a person described in section 3(a)(18) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(18)) (substituting the entity for the broker or dealer referred to in such section) or a person described in section 202(a)(17) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)(17)) (substituting the entity for the investment adviser referred to in such section).
</P>
<P>(4) “<I>Individual Retirement Account</I>” or “<I>IRA</I>” means—
</P>
<P>(i) An individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual retirement annuity described in section 408(b) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(iii) An Archer MSA described in section 220(d) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(iv) A health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(v) A Coverdell education savings account described in section 530 of the Code;
</P>
<P>(vi) A trust, plan, account, or annuity which, at any time, has been determined by the Secretary of the Treasury to be described in any of paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) A “simplified employee pension” described in section 408(k) of the Code; or
</P>
<P>(viii) A “simple retirement account” described in section 408(p) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(5) An “<I>affiliate</I>” of another person means—
</P>
<P>(i) Any person directly or indirectly owning, controlling, or holding with power to vote, 5 percent or more of the outstanding voting securities of such other person;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person 5 percent or more of whose outstanding voting securities are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or held with power to vote, by such other person;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with, such other person; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any officer, director, partner, copartner, or employee of such other person.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) A person with a “<I>material affiliation</I>” with another person means—
</P>
<P>(A) Any affiliate of the other person;
</P>
<P>(B) Any person directly or indirectly owning, controlling, or holding, 5 percent or more of the interests of such other person; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any person 5 percent or more of whose interests are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or held, by such other person.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section, “<I>interest</I>” means with respect to an entity—
</P>
<P>(A) The combined voting power of all classes of stock entitled to vote or the total value of the shares of all classes of stock of the entity if the entity is a corporation;
</P>
<P>(B) The capital interest or the profits interest of the entity if the entity is a partnership; or
</P>
<P>(C) The beneficial interest of the entity if the entity is a trust or unincorporated enterprise.
</P>
<P>(7) Persons have a “<I>material contractual relationship</I>” if payments made by one person to the other person pursuant to contracts or agreements between the persons exceed 10 percent of the gross revenue, on an annual basis, of such other person.
</P>
<P>(8) “<I>Control</I>” means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of records.</I> The fiduciary adviser must maintain, for a period of not less than 6 years after the provision of investment advice under this section any records necessary for determining whether the applicable requirements of this section have been met. A transaction prohibited under section 406 of ERISA shall not be considered to have occurred solely because the records are lost or destroyed prior to the end of the 6-year period due to circumstances beyond the control of the fiduciary adviser.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Noncompliance.</I> (1) The relief from the prohibited transaction provisions of section 406 of ERISA and the sanctions resulting from the application of section 4975 of the Code described in paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply to any transaction described in such paragraphs in connection with the provision of investment advice to an individual participant or beneficiary with respect to which the applicable conditions of this section have not been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a pattern or practice of noncompliance with any of the applicable conditions of this section, the relief described in paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply to any transaction in connection with the provision of investment advice provided by the fiduciary adviser during the period over which the pattern or practice extended.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective date and applicability date.</I> This section shall be effective December 27, 2011. This section shall apply to transactions described in paragraph (b) of this section occurring on or after December 27, 2011.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix to § 2550.408g-1
</HD1>
<HD1>Fiduciary Adviser Disclosure
</HD1>
<P>This document contains important information about [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] and how it is compensated for the investment advice provided to you. You should carefully consider this information in your evaluation of that advice.
</P>
<P>[<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] has been selected to provide investment advisory services for the [<I>enter name of</I> Plan]. [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] will be providing these services as a fiduciary under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA). [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser], therefore, must act prudently and with only your interest in mind when providing you recommendations on how to invest your retirement assets.
</P>
<HD1>Compensation of the Fiduciary Adviser and Related Parties
</HD1>
<P>[<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] (is/is not) compensated by the plan for the advice it provides. <I>(if compensated by the plan, explain what and how compensation is charged (e.g., asset-based fee, flat fee, per advice)). (If applicable,</I> [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] is not compensated on the basis of the investment(s) selected by you.)
</P>
<P>Affiliates of [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] (<I>if applicable enter,</I> and other parties with whom [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] is related or has a material financial relationship) also will be providing services for which they will be compensated. These services include: [<I>enter description of services, e.g., investment management, transfer agent, custodial, and shareholder services for some/all the investment funds available under the plan.</I>]
</P>
<P>When [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] recommends that you invest your assets in an investment fund of its own or one of its affiliates and you follow that advice, [<I>enter name</I> of Fiduciary Adviser] or that affiliate will receive compensation from the investment fund based on the amount you invest. The amounts that will be paid by you will vary depending on the particular fund in which you invest your assets and may range from __% to __%. Specific information concerning the fees and other charges of each investment fund is available from [<I>enter source, such as: your plan administrator, investment fund provider (possibly with Internet Web site address)</I>]. This information should be reviewed carefully before you make an investment decision.
</P>
<P>(<I>if applicable enter,</I> [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] or affiliates of [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] also receive compensation from non-affiliated investment funds as a result of investments you make as a result of recommendations of [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser]. The amount of this compensation also may vary depending on the particular fund in which you invest. This compensation may range from __% to __%. Specific information concerning the fees and other charges of each investment fund is available from [<I>enter source, such as: your plan administrator, investment fund provider (possibly with Internet Web site address)</I>]. This information should be reviewed carefully before you make an investment decision.
</P>
<P>(<I>if applicable enter,</I> In addition to the above, [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] or affiliates of [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] also receive other fees or compensation, such as commissions, in connection with the sale, acquisition or holding of investments selected by you as a result of recommendations of [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser]. These amounts are: [<I>enter description of all other fees or compensation to be received in connection with sale, acquisition or holding of investments</I>]. This information should be reviewed carefully before you make an investment decision.
</P>
<P>(<I>if applicable enter,</I> When [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] recommends that you take a rollover or other distribution of assets from the plan, or recommends how those assets should subsequently be invested, [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] or affiliates of [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] will receive additional fees or compensation. These amounts are: [<I>enter description of all other fees or compensation to be received in connection with any rollover or other distribution of plan assets or the investment of distributed assets</I>]. This information should be reviewed carefully before you make a decision to take a distribution.
</P>
<HD1>Consider Impact of Compensation on Advice
</HD1>
<P>The fees and other compensation that [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] and its affiliates receive on account of assets in [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] (<I>enter if applicable,</I> and non-[<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser]) investment funds are a significant source of revenue for the [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] and its affiliates. You should carefully consider the impact of any such fees and compensation in your evaluation of the investment advice that [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] provides to you. In this regard, you may arrange for the provision of advice by another adviser that may have no material affiliation with or receive no compensation in connection with the investment funds or products offered under the plan. This type of advice is/is not available through your plan.
</P>
<HD1>Investment Returns
</HD1>
<P>While understanding investment-related fees and expenses is important in making informed investment decisions, it is also important to consider additional information about your investment options, such as performance, investment strategies and risks. Specific information related to the past performance and historical rates of return of the investment options available under the plan (has/has not) been provided to you by [<I>enter source, such as: your plan administrator, investment fund provider</I>]. (<I>if applicable enter,</I> If not provided to you, the information is attached to this document.)
</P>
<P>For options with returns that vary over time, past performance does not guarantee how your investment in the option will perform in the future; your investment in these options could lose money.
</P>
<HD1>Parties Participating in Development of Advice Program or Selection of Investment Options
</HD1>
<P><I>Name, and describe role of, affiliates or other parties with whom the fiduciary adviser has a material affiliation or contractual relationship that participated in the development of the investment advice program (if this is an arrangement that uses computer models) or the selection of investment options available under the plan.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Use of Personal Information
</HD1>
<HD2>Include a brief explanation of the following—What personal information will be collected; How the information will be used; Parties with whom information will be shared; How the information will be protected; and When and how notice of the Fiduciary Adviser's privacy statement will be available to participants and beneficiaries.
</HD2>
<P>Should you have any questions about [<I>enter name of</I> Fiduciary Adviser] or the information contained in this document, you may contact [<I>enter name of contact person for fiduciary adviser, telephone number, address</I>].</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 66162, Oct. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.408g-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.408g-2   Investment advice—fiduciary election.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 408(g)(11)(A) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act, as amended (ERISA), provides that a person who develops a computer model or who markets a computer model or investment advice program used in an “eligible investment advice arrangement” shall be treated as a fiduciary of a plan by reason of the provision of investment advice referred to in ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) to the plan participant or beneficiary, and shall be treated as a “fiduciary adviser” for purposes of ERISA sections 408(b)(14) and 408(g), except that the Secretary of Labor may prescribe rules under which only one fiduciary adviser may elect to be treated as a fiduciary with respect to the plan. Section 4975(f)(8)(J)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended (the Code), contains a parallel provision to ERISA section 408(g)(11)(A) that applies for purposes of Code sections 4975(d)(17) and 4975(f)(8). This section sets forth requirements that must be satisfied in order for one such fiduciary adviser to elect to be treated as a fiduciary with respect to a plan under an eligible investment advice arrangement.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If an election meets the requirements in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, then the person identified in the election shall be the sole fiduciary adviser treated as a fiduciary by reason of developing or marketing the computer model, or marketing the investment advice program, used in an eligible investment advice arrangement.
</P>
<P>(2) An election satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b) with respect to an eligible investment advice arrangement if the election is in writing and such writing—
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the investment advice arrangement, and the person offering the arrangement, with respect to which the election is to be effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identifies a person who—
</P>
<P>(A) Is described in any of 29 CFR 2550.408g-1(c)(2)(i)(A) through (E),
</P>
<P>(B) Develops the computer model, or markets the computer model or investment advice program, utilized in satisfaction of 29 CFR 2550.408g-1(b)(4) with respect to the arrangement, and
</P>
<P>(C) Acknowledges that it elects to be treated as the only fiduciary, and fiduciary adviser, by reason of developing such computer model, or marketing such computer model or investment advice program;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is signed by the person identified in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is furnished to the person who authorized the arrangement, in accordance with 29 CFR 2550.408g-1(b)(5); and
</P>
<P>(v) Is maintained in accordance with 29 CFR 2550.408g-1(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 66167, Oct. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2550.412-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2550.412-1   Temporary bonding requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pending the issuance of permanent regulations with respect to the bonding provisions under section 412 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act), any plan official, as defined in section 412(a) of the Act, shall be deemed to be in compliance with the bonding requirements of the Act if he or she is bonded under a bond which would have been in compliance with section 13 of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act, as amended (the WPPDA), and with the basic bonding requirements of subparts A through E of part 2580, title 29 CFR, and with the prohibition against bonding by parties interested in the plan contained in subpart G of part 2580 of such title, or would be exempt from such bonding requirements because bonding would not be required under the exemption provisions contained in subpart F of part 2580 of such title. Part 2580 of this title incorporates material previously designated as subparts A through E of part 464, subpart B of part 465 and part 485 of this title of the CFR. The requirements which are set forth in the temporary regulations hereby adopted shall be applicable to all employee benefit plans covered by the Act, including those plans which were not covered by the WPPDA. Thus, for example, the regulations so adopted are applicable to plans containing fewer than 26 participants, although such plans were not covered by the WPPDA. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this temporary regulation, any bond or rider thereto obtained by a plan official which contains a reference to the WPPDA will be construed by the Secretary to refer to the Act: <I>Provided,</I> That the surety company so agrees. 
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of this regulation,
</P>
<P>(1) Any reference to section 13 of the WPPDA or any subsection thereof in the regulations issued under the WPPDA and which are incorporated by reference by this temporary regulation shall be deemed to refer to section 412 of the Act, or the corresponding subsection thereof,
</P>
<P>(2) Where the particular phrases set forth in the Act are not identical to the phrases in the WPPDA and the regulations issued pursuant thereto, the phrases appearing in the Act shall be substituted by operation of law, and
</P>
<P>(3) Where the phrases are identical but the meaning is different, the meaning given such phrases by the Act shall govern. For example, the phrase “administrators, officers, and employees of any employee welfare benefit plan or of any employee pension benefit plan subject to this Act who handle funds or other property of such plan” which appears in section 13 of the WPPDA and the regulations issued thereunder shall be construed to mean, for purposes of this regulation, “plan officials”, which is the term appearing in section 412 of the Act, and the terms “employee welfare benefit plan” and “employee pension benefit plan” shall be given the meaning assigned to them by the Act, and not the meaning set forth in the WPPDA. 
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of this temporary regulation, as set forth in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, shall remain in effect pending the issuance of permanent regulations by the Secretary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 2203, Jan. 10, 1975. Redesignated at 40 FR 20629, May 12, 1975, as amended at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:9.1.2.6.6.0.1.27.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 2550—Model Notice for Section 404a-3
</HEAD>
<HD1>NOTICE OF PLAN TERMINATION
</HD1>
<HD1>[DO NOT USE FOR ABANDONED PLANS]
</HD1>
<FP-1>[<I>Date of notice</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[<I>Name and last known address of plan participant or beneficiary</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Re: [<I>Name of plan</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dear [<I>Name of plan participant or beneficiary</I>]:
</FP-1>
<P>This notice is to inform you that [<I>name of the plan</I>] (the Plan) has been terminated.
</P>
<P>We have determined that you have an interest in the Plan, either as a plan participant or beneficiary. Your account balance in the Plan on [<I>date</I>] is/was [<I>account balance</I>]. We will be distributing this money as permitted under the terms of the Plan and federal regulations. {<I>If applicable, insert the following sentence:</I> The actual amount of your distribution may be more or less than the amount stated in this notice depending on investment gains or losses and the administrative cost of terminating your plan and distributing your benefits.}
</P>
<P>Your distribution options under the Plan are {<I>add a description of the Plan's distribution options</I>}. It is very important that you elect one of these forms of distribution and inform us of your election. The process for informing us of this election is {<I>enter a description of the Plan's election process</I>}.
</P>
<P>If you do not make an election within 30 days from your receipt of this notice, your account balance will be transferred directly to an individual retirement plan (inherited individual retirement plan in the case of a nonspouse beneficiary). {<I>If the name of the provider of the individual retirement plan is known, include the following sentence:</I> The name of the provider of the individual retirement plan is [<I>name, address and phone number of the individual retirement plan provider</I>].} Pursuant to federal law, your money in the individual retirement plan would then be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return and liquidity. {<I>If fee information is known, include the following sentence:</I> Should your money be transferred to the individual retirement plan described, above, [<I>name of the financial institution</I>] will charge your account the following fees for its services: {<I>add a statement of fees, if any, that will be paid from the participant or beneficiary's individual retirement plan</I>}.}
</P>
<P>For more information about the termination, your account balance, or distribution options, please contact [<I>name, address, and telephone number of the plan administrator or other appropriate contact person</I>].
</P>
<P>Sincerely,
</P>
<FP-1>[<I>Name of plan administrator or appropriate designee</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[<I>Name of plan</I>]
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43659, May 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="G" NODE="29:9.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER G—ADMINISTRATION AND ENFORCEMENT UNDER THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT OF 1974 




</HEAD>
<P> 
</P>

<DIV5 N="2560" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2560—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR ADMINISTRATION AND ENFORCEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1132, 1135, and Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012). Section 2560.503-1 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1133. Section 2560.502c-7 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1132(c)(7). Section 2560.502c-4 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1132(c)(4). Section 2560.502c-8 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1132(c)(8).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 2560.502-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.502-1   Requests for enforcement pursuant to section 502(b)(2).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form, content and filing.</I> All requests by participants, beneficiaries, and fiduciaries for the Secretary of Labor to exercise his enforcement authority pursuant to section 502(a)(5), 29 U.S.C. 1132(a)(5), with respect to a violation of, or the enforcement of, parts 2 and 3 of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) shall be in writing and shall contain information sufficient to form a basis for identifying the participant, beneficiary, or fiduciary and the plan involved. All such requests shall be considered filed if they are directed to and received by any office or official of the Department of Labor or referred to and received by any such office or official by any party to whom such writing is directed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consideration.</I> The Secretary of Labor retains discretion to determine whether any enforcement proceeding should be commenced in the case of any request received pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, and he may, but shall not be required to, exercise his authority pursuant to section 502(a)(5) of the Act only if he determines that such violation affects, or such enforcement is necessary to protect claims of participants or beneficiaries to benefits under the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 50175, Oct. 27, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.502c-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.502c-2   Civil penalties under section 502(c)(2).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Pursuant to the authority granted the Secretary under section 502(c)(2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), the administrator (within the meaning of section 3(16)(A)) of an employee benefit plan (within the meaning of section 3(3) and § 2510.3-1, <I>et seq.</I>) for which an annual report is required to be filed under section 101(b)(1) shall be liable for civil penalties assessed by the Secretary under section 502(c)(2) of the Act in each case in which there is a failure or refusal to file the annual report required to be filed under section 101(b)(1). 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a failure or refusal to file the annual report required to be filed under section 101(b)(1) shall mean a failure or refusal to file, in whole or in part, that information described in section 103 and § 2520.103-1, <I>et seq.,</I> on behalf of the plan at the time and in the manner prescribed therefor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount assessed.</I> (1) The amount assessed under section 502(c)(2) of the Act shall be determined by the Department of Labor, taking into consideration the degree and/or willfulness of the failure or refusal to file the annual report. However, the amount assessed under section 502(c)(2) of the Act shall not exceed $1,000 a day 

 (adjusted for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended),

 computed from the date of the administrator's failure or refusal to file the annual report and, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, continuing up to the date on which an annual report satisfactory to the Secretary is filed. 
</P>
<P>(2) If upon receipt of a notice of intent to assess a penalty (as described in paragraph (c) of this section) the administrator files a statement of reasonable cause for the failure to file, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, a penalty shall not be assessed for any day from the date the Department serves the administrator with a copy of such notice until the day after the Department serves notice on the administrator of its determination on reasonable cause and its intention to assess a penalty (as described in paragraph (g) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this paragraph, the date on which the administrator failed or refused to file the annual report shall be the date on which the annual report was due (determined without regard to any extension for filing). An annual report which is rejected under section 104(a)(4) for a failure to provide material information shall be treated as a failure to file an annual report when a revised report satisfactory to the Department is not filed within 45 days of the date of the Department's notice of rejection.
</P>
<FP>A penalty shall not be assessed under section 502(c)(2) for any day earlier than the day after the date of an administrator's failure or refusal to file the annual report if a revised filing satisfactory to the Department is not submitted within 45 days of the date of the notice of rejection by the Department. 
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of intent to assess a penalty.</I> Prior to the assessment of any penalty under section 502(c)(2), the Department shall provide to the administrator of the plan a written notice indicating the Department's intent to assess a penalty under section 502(c)(2), the amount of such penalty, the period to which the penalty applies, and the reason(s) for the penalty. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration or waiver of penalty to be assessed.</I> The Department may determine that all or part of the penalty amount in the notice of intent to assess a penalty shall not be assessed on a showing that the administrator complied with the requirements of section 101(b)(1) of the Act or on a showing by the administrator of mitigating circumstances regarding the degree or willfulness of the noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Showing of reasonable cause.</I> Upon issuance by the Department of a notice of intent to assess a penalty, the administrator shall have thirty (30) days from the date of service of the notice, as described in paragraph (i) of this section, to file a statement of reasonable cause explaining why the penalty, as calculated, should be reduced, or not be assessed, for the reasons set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. Such statement must be made in writing and set forth all the facts alleged as reasonable cause for the reduction or nonassessment of the penalty. The statement must contain a declaration by the administrator that the statement is made under the penalties of perjury. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause.</I> Failure of an administrator to file a statement of reasonable cause within the thirty (30) day period described in paragraph (e) of this section shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the facts alleged in the notice of intent, and such failure shall be deemed an admission of the facts alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(2) of the Act. Such notice shall then become a final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.61(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of the determination on statement of reasonable cause.</I> (1) The Department, following a review of all the facts alleged in support of no assessment or a complete or partial waiver of the penalty, shall notify the administrator, in writing, of its determination to waive the penalty, in whole or in part, and/or assess a penalty. If it is the determination of the Department to assess a penalty, the notice shall indicate the amount of the penalty, not to exceed the amount described in paragraph (c) of this section. This notice is a “pleading” for purposes of § 2570.61(m) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, indicating the Department's intention to assess a penalty, shall become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.61(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative hearing.</I> A notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section will not become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.61(g) of this chapter, if, within thirty (30) days from the date of the service of the notice, the administrator or a representative thereof files a request for a hearing under §§ 2570.60 through 2570.71 of this chapter, and files an answer to the notice. The request for hearing and answer must be filed in accordance with § 2570.62 of this chapter and § 18.4 of this title. The answer opposing the proposed sanction shall be in writing, and supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Service of notices and filing of statements.</I> (1) Service of a notice for purposes of paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section shall be made: 
</P>
<P>(i) By delivering a copy to the administrator or representative thereof; 
</P>
<P>(ii) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of the administrator or representative thereof; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) By mailing a copy to the last known address of the administrator or representative thereof. 
</P>
<P>(2) If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If service is by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee. When service of a notice under paragraph (c) or (g) of this section is by certified mail, five (5) days shall be added to the time allowed by these rules for the filing of a statement, or a request for hearing and answer, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, a statement of reasonable cause shall be considered filed: 
</P>
<P>(i) Upon mailing, if accomplished using United States Postal Service certified mail or Express Mail; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt by the delivery service, if accomplished using a “designated private delivery service” within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. 7502(f); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon transmittal, if transmitted in a manner specified in the notice of intent to assess a penalty as a method of transmittal to be accorded such special treatment; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of any other method of filing, upon receipt by the Department at the address provided in the notice of intent to assess a penalty. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Liability.</I> (1) If more than one person is responsible as administrator for the failure to file the annual report, all such persons shall be jointly and severally liable with respect to such failure. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any person against whom a civil penalty has been assessed under section 502(c)(2) pursuant to a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.61(g), shall be personally liable for the payment of such penalty. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cross-reference.</I> See §§ 2570.60 through 2570.71 of this chapter for procedural rules relating to administrative hearings under section 502(c)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26894, June 26, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 777, Jan. 7, 2002; 68 FR 3734, Jan. 24, 2003; 81 FR 43453, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.502c-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.502c-4   Civil penalties under section 502(c)(4).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Pursuant to the authority granted the Secretary under section 502(c)(4) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), the administrator (within the meaning of section 3(16)(A) of the Act) shall be liable for civil penalties assessed by the Secretary under section 502(c)(4) of the Act, for failure or refusal to furnish:
</P>
<P>(i) Notice of funding-based limits in accordance with section 101(j) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Actuarial, financial or funding information in accordance with section 101(k) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notice of potential withdrawal liability in accordance with section 101(l) of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Notice of rights and obligations under an automatic contribution arrangement in accordance with section 514(e)(3) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a failure or refusal to furnish the items referred to in paragraph (a)(1) above shall mean a failure or refusal to furnish, in whole or in part, the items required under section 101(j), (k), or (l), or section 514(e)(3) of the Act at the relevant times and manners prescribed in such sections.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount assessed.</I> (1) The amount assessed under section 502(c)(4) of the Act for each separate violation shall be determined by the Department of Labor, taking into consideration the degree or willfulness of the failure or refusal to furnish the items referred to in paragraph (a) of this section. However, the amount assessed for each violation under section 502(c)(4) of the Act shall not exceed $1,000 a day (adjusted for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended), computed from the date of the administrator's failure or refusal to furnish the items referred to in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating the amount to be assessed under this section, a failure or refusal to furnish the item with respect to any person entitled to receive such item, shall be treated as a separate violation under section 101(j), (k), or (l), or section 514(e)(3) of the Act, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of intent to assess a penalty.</I> Prior to the assessment of any penalty under section 502(c)(4) of the Act, the Department shall provide to the administrator of the plan a written notice indicating the Department's intent to assess a penalty under section 502(c)(4) of the Act, the amount of such penalty, the number of individuals on which the penalty is based, the period to which the penalty applies, and the reason(s) for the penalty.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration or waiver of penalty to be assessed.</I> The Department may determine that all or part of the penalty amount in the notice of intent to assess a penalty shall not be assessed on a showing that the administrator complied with the requirements of section 101(j), (k), or (l), or section 514(e)(3) of the Act, as applicable, or on a showing by such person of mitigating circumstances regarding the degree or willfulness of the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Showing of reasonable cause.</I> Upon issuance by the Department of a notice of intent to assess a penalty, the administrator shall have thirty (30) days from the date of service of the notice, as described in paragraph (i) of this section, to file a statement of reasonable cause explaining why the penalty, as calculated, should be reduced, or not be assessed, for the reasons set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. Such statement must be made in writing and set forth all the facts alleged as reasonable cause for the reduction or nonassessment of the penalty. The statement must contain a declaration by the administrator that the statement is made under the penalties of perjury.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause.</I> Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause within the thirty (30) day period described in paragraph (e) of this section shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the facts alleged in the notice of intent, and such failure shall be deemed an admission of the facts alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(4) of the Act. Such notice shall then become a final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of determination on statement of reasonable cause.</I> (1) The Department, following a review of all of the facts in a statement of reasonable cause alleged in support of nonassessment or a complete or partial waiver of the penalty, shall notify the administrator, in writing, of its determination on the statement of reasonable cause and its determination whether to waive the penalty in whole or in part, and/or assess a penalty. If it is the determination of the Department to assess a penalty, the notice shall indicate the amount of the penalty assessment, not to exceed the amount described in paragraph (c) of this section. This notice is a “pleading” for purposes of § 2570.131(m) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, indicating the Department's determination to assess a penalty, shall become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative hearing.</I> A notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section will not become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this chapter, if, within thirty (30) days from the date of the service of the notice, the administrator or a representative thereof files a request for a hearing under §§ 2570.130 through 2570.141 of this chapter, and files an answer to the notice. The request for hearing and answer must be filed in accordance with § 2570.132 of this chapter and § 18.4 of this title. The answer opposing the proposed sanction shall be in writing, and supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Service of notices and filing of statements.</I> (1) Service of a notice for purposes of paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section shall be made:
</P>
<P>(i) By delivering a copy to the administrator or representative thereof;
</P>
<P>(ii) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of the administrator or representative thereof; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By mailing a copy to the last known address of the administrator or representative thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If service is by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee. When service of a notice under paragraph (c) or (g) of this section is by certified mail, five days shall be added to the time allowed by these rules for the filing of a statement or a request for hearing and answer, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, a statement of reasonable cause shall be considered filed:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon mailing, if accomplished using United States Postal Service certified mail or express mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt by the delivery service, if accomplished using a “designated private delivery service” within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. 7502(f);
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon transmittal, if transmitted in a manner specified in the notice of intent to assess a penalty as a method of transmittal to be accorded such special treatment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of any other method of filing, upon receipt by the Department at the address provided in the notice of intent to assess a penalty.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Liability.</I> (1) If more than one person is responsible as administrator for the failure to furnish the items required under section 101(j), (k), or (l), or section 514(e)(3) of the Act, as applicable, all such persons shall be jointly and severally liable for such failure. For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, the term “administrator” shall include plan sponsor (within the meaning of section 3(16)(B) of the Act).
</P>
<P>(2) Any person, or persons under paragraph (j)(1) of this section, against whom a civil penalty has been assessed under section 502(c)(4) of the Act, pursuant to a final order within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this chapter shall be personally liable for the payment of such penalty.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cross-references.</I> (1) The procedural rules in §§ 2570.130 through 2570.141 of this chapter apply to administrative hearings under section 502(c)(4) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) When applying procedural rules in §§ 2570.130 through 2570.140:
</P>
<P>(i) Wherever the term “502(c)(7)” appears, such term shall mean “502(c)(4)”;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reference to § 2560.502c-7(g) in 2570.131(c) shall be construed as reference to § 2560.502c-4(g) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reference to § 2560.502c-7(e) in § 2570.131(g) shall be construed as reference to § 2560.502c-4(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iv) Reference to § 2560.502c-7(g) in § 2570.131(m) shall be construed as reference to § 2560.502c-4(g); and
</P>
<P>(v) Reference to §§ 2560.502c-7(g) and 2560.502c-7(h) in § 2570.134 shall be construed as reference to §§ 2560.502c-4(g) and 2560.502c-4(h), respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 20, Jan. 2, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 43453, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.502c-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.502c-5   Civil penalties under section 502(c)(5).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Pursuant to the authority granted the Secretary under section 502(c)(5) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), the administrator of a multiple employer welfare arrangement (MEWA) (within the meaning of section 3(40)(A) of the Act) that is not a group health plan, and that provides benefits consisting of medical care (within the meaning of section 733(a)(2)), for which a report is required to be filed under section 101(g) of the Act and 29 CFR 2520.101-2, shall be liable for civil penalties assessed by the Secretary under section 502(c)(5) of the Act for each failure or refusal to file a completed report required to be filed under section 101(g) and 29 CFR 2520.101-2. The term “administrator” is defined in 29 CFR 2520.101-2(b). 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a failure or refusal to file the report required to be filed under section 101(g) shall mean a failure or refusal to file, in whole or in part, that information described in section 101(g) and 29 CFR 2520.101-2, on behalf of the MEWA, at the time and in the manner prescribed therefor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount assessed.</I> (1) The amount assessed under section 502(c)(5) shall be determined by the Department of Labor, taking into consideration the degree and/or willfulness of the failure to file the report. However, the amount assessed under section 502(c)(5) or the Act shall not exceed $1,000 a day (adjusted for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended), computed from the date of the administrator's failure or refusal to file the report and, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, continuing up to the date on which a report meeting the requirements of section 101(g) of the Act and 29 CFR 2520.101-2, as determined by the Secretary, is filed.
</P>
<P>(2) If, upon receipt of a notice of intent to assess a penalty (as described in paragraph (c) of this section), the administrator files a statement of reasonable cause for the failure to file, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, a penalty shall not be assessed for any day from the date the Department serves the administrator with a copy of such notice until the day after the Department serves notice on the administrator of its determination on reasonable cause and its intention to assess a penalty (as described in paragraph (g) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this paragraph, the date on which the administrator failed or refused to file the report shall be the date on which the report was due (determined without regard to any extension of time for filing). A report which is rejected under 29 CFR 2520.101-2 shall be treated as a failure to file a report when a revised report meeting the requirements of this section is not filed within 45 days of the date of the Department's notice of rejection. If a revised report meeting the requirements of this section, as determined by the Secretary, is not submitted within 45 days of the date of the notice of rejection by the Department, a penalty shall be assessed under section 502(c)(5) beginning on the day after the date of the administrator's failure or refusal to file the report. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of intent to assess a penalty.</I> Prior to the assessment of any penalty under section 502(c)(5), the Department shall provide to the administrator of the MEWA a written notice indicating the Department's intent to assess a penalty under section 502(c)(5), the amount of such penalty, the period to which the penalty applies, and a statement of the facts and the reason(s) for the penalty. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration or waiver of penalty to be assessed.</I> The Department may determine that all or part of the penalty amount in the notice of intent to assess a penalty shall not be assessed on a showing that the administrator complied with the requirements of section 101(g) of the Act or on a showing by the administrator of mitigating circumstances regarding the degree or willfulness of the noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Showing of reasonable cause.</I> Upon issuance by the Department of a notice of intent to assess a penalty, the administrator shall have thirty (30) days from the date of service of the notice, as described in paragraph (i) of this section, to file a statement of reasonable cause explaining why the penalty, as calculated, should be reduced, or not be assessed, for the reasons set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. Such statement must be made in writing and set forth all the facts alleged as reasonable cause for the reduction or nonassessment of the penalty. The statement must contain a declaration by the administrator that the statement is made under the penalties of perjury. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause.</I> Failure of an administrator to file a statement of reasonable cause within the thirty (30) day period described in paragraph (e) of this section shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the facts alleged in the notice of intent, and such failure shall be deemed an admission of the facts alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(5) of the Act. Such notice shall then become a final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of 29 CFR 2570.91(g), forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of the determination on statement of reasonable cause.</I> (1) The Department, following a review of all the facts alleged in support of no assessment or a complete or partial waiver of the penalty, shall notify the administrator, in writing, of its determination to waive the penalty, in whole or in part, and/or assess a penalty. If it is the determination of the Department to assess a penalty, the notice shall indicate the amount of the penalty, not to exceed the amount described in paragraph (c) of this section, and a brief statement of the reasons for assessing the penalty. This notice is a “pleading” for purposes of 29 CFR 2570.91(m). 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, indicating the Department's intention to assess a penalty, shall become a final order, within the meaning of 29 CFR 2570.91(g), forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative hearing.</I> A notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section will not become a final order, within the meaning of 29 CFR 2570.91(g), if, within thirty (30) days from the date of the service of the notice, the administrator or a representative thereof files a request for a hearing under 29 CFR 2570.90 through 2570.101, and files an answer to the notice. The request for hearing and answer must be filed in accordance with 29 CFR 2570.92 and 18.4. The answer opposing the proposed sanction shall be in writing, and supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Service of notices and filing of statements.</I> (1) Service of a notice for purposes of paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section shall be made: 
</P>
<P>(i) By delivering a copy to the administrator or representative thereof; 
</P>
<P>(ii) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of the administrator or representative thereof; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) By mailing a copy to the last known address of the administrator or representative thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If service is by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee. When service of a notice under paragraph (c) or (g) of this section is by certified mail, five (5) days shall be added to the time allowed by these rules for the filing of a statement, or a request for hearing and answer, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, a statement of reasonable cause shall be considered filed: 
</P>
<P>(i) Upon mailing, if accomplished using United States Postal Service certified mail or Express Mail; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt by the delivery service, if accomplished using a “designated private delivery service” within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. 7502(f); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon transmittal, if transmitted in a manner specified in the notice of intent to assess a penalty as a method of transmittal to be accorded such special treatment; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of any other method of filing, upon receipt by the Department at the address provided in the notice of intent to assess a penalty. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Liability</I>. (1) If more than one person is responsible as administrator for the failure to file the report, all such persons shall be jointly and severally liable with respect to such failure. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any person against whom a civil penalty has been assessed under section 502(c)(5) pursuant to a final order, within the meaning of 29 CFR 2570.91(g), shall be personally liable for the payment of such penalty. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cross-reference. See</I> 29 CFR 2570.90 through 2570.101 for procedural rules relating to administrative hearings under section 502(c)(5) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 17505, Apr. 9, 2003, as amended at 81 FR 43453, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.502c-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.502c-6   Civil penalties under section 502(c)(6).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Pursuant to the authority granted the Secretary under section 502(c)(6) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), the administrator (within the meaning of section 3(16)(A) of the Act) of an employee benefit plan (within the meaning of section 3(3) of the Act and § 2510.3-1 of this chapter) shall be liable for civil penalties assessed by the Secretary under section 502(c)(6) of the Act in each case in which there is a failure or refusal to furnish to the Secretary documents requested under section 104(a)(6) of the Act and § 2520.104a-8 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a failure or refusal to furnish documents shall mean a failure or refusal to furnish, in whole or in part, the documents requested under section 104(a)(6) of the Act and § 2520.104a-8 of this chapter at the time and in the manner prescribed in the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount assessed.</I> (1) The amount assessed under section 502(c)(6) of the Act shall be determined by the Department of Labor, taking into consideration the degree and/or willfulness of the failure or refusal to furnish any document or documents requested by the Department under section 104(a)(6) of the Act. However, the amount assessed under section 502(c)(6) of the Act shall not exceed $100 a day or $1,000 per request (such amounts to be adjusted for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended), computed from the date of the administrator's failure or refusal to furnish any document or documents requested by the Department.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating the amount to be assessed under this section, the date of a failure or refusal to furnish documents shall not be earlier than the thirtieth day after service of the request under section 104(a)(6) of ERISA and § 2520.104a-8 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of intent to assess a penalty.</I> Prior to the assessment of any penalty under section 502(c)(6) of the Act, the Department shall provide to the administrator of the plan a written notice that indicates the Department's intent to assess a penalty under section 502(c)(6) of the Act, the amount of the penalty, the period to which the penalty applies, and the reason(s) for the penalty.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration or waiver of penalty to be assessed.</I> The Department may determine that all or part of the penalty amount in the notice of intent to assess a penalty shall not be assessed on a showing that the administrator complied with the requirements of section 104(a)(6) of the Act or on a showing by the administrator of mitigating circumstances regarding the degree or willfulness of the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Showing of reasonable cause.</I> Upon issuance by the Department of a notice of intent to assess a penalty, the administrator shall have thirty (30) days from the date of service of the notice, as described in paragraph (i) of this section, to file a statement of reasonable cause explaining why the penalty, as calculated, should be reduced or not be assessed, for the reasons set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. Such statement must be made in writing and set forth all the facts alleged as reasonable cause for the reduction or nonassessment of the penalty. The statement must contain a declaration by the administrator that the statement is made under the penalties of perjury.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause.</I> Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause within the 30 day period described in paragraph (e) of this section shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the facts alleged in the notice of intent, and such failure shall be deemed an admission of the facts alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(6) of the Act. Such notice shall then become a final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.111(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of determination on statement of reasonable cause.</I> (1) The Department, following a review of all of the facts alleged in support of no assessment or a complete or partial waiver of the penalty, shall notify the administrator, in writing, of its determination not to assess or to waive the penalty, in whole or in part, and/or assess a penalty. If it is the determination of the Department to assess a penalty, the notice shall indicate the amount of the penalty, not to exceed the amount described in paragraph (c) of this section. This notice is a “pleading” for purposes of § 2570.111(m) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, indicating the Department's intention to assess a penalty, shall become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.111(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative hearing.</I> A notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section will not become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.91(g) of this chapter, if, within thirty (30) days from the date of the service of the notice, the administrator or a representative thereof files a request for a hearing under §§ 2570.110 through 2570.121 of this chapter, and files an answer to the notice. The request for hearing and answer must be filed in accordance with § 2570.112 of this chapter and § 18.4 of this title. The answer opposing the proposed sanction shall be in writing, and supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Service of notices and filing of statements.</I> (1) Service of a notice for purposes of paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section shall be made:
</P>
<P>(i) By delivering a copy to the administrator or representative thereof;
</P>
<P>(ii) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of the administrator or representative thereof; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By mailing a copy to the last known address of the administrator or representative thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If service is by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee. When service of a notice under paragraph (c) or (g) of this section is by certified mail, five (5) days shall be added to the time allowed by these rules for the filing of a statement, or a request for hearing and answer, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, a statement of reasonable cause shall be considered filed:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon mailing, if accomplished using United States Postal Service certified mail or Express Mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt by the delivery service, if accomplished using a “designated private delivery service” within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. 7502(f);
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon transmittal, if transmitted in a manner specified in the notice of intent to assess a penalty as a method of transmittal to be accorded such special treatment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of any other method of filing, upon receipt by the Department at the address provided in the notice of intent to assess a penalty.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Liability.</I> (1) If more than one person is responsible as administrator for the failure to furnish the document or documents requested under section 104(a)(6) of the Act and its implementing regulations (§ 2520.104a-8 of this chapter), all such persons shall be jointly and severally liable with respect to such failure.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person, or persons under paragraph (j)(1) of this section, against whom a civil penalty has been assessed under section 502(c)(6) of the Act pursuant to a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.111(g) of this chapter, shall be personally liable for the payment of such penalty.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cross-reference.</I> See §§ 2570.110 through 2570.121 of this chapter for procedural rules relating to administrative hearings under section 502(c)(6) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 785, Jan. 7, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 3735, Jan. 24, 2003; 81 FR 43453, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.502c-7" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.502c-7   Civil penalties under section 502(c)(7).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Pursuant to the authority granted the Secretary under section 502(c)(7) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), the administrator (within the meaning of section 3(16)(A) of the Act) of an individual account plan (within the meaning of section 101(i)(8) of the Act and § 2520.101-3(d)(2) of this chapter), who fails or refuses to provide notice of a blackout period to affected participants and beneficiaries in accordance with section 101(i) of the Act and § 2520.101-3 of this chapter, or the administrator (within the meaning of section 3(16)(A) of the Act) of an applicable individual account plan (within the meaning of section 101(m) of the Act), who fails or refuses to provide notice of diversification rights to applicable individuals in accordance with section 101(m) of the Act, shall be liable for civil penalties assessed by the Secretary under section 502(c)(7) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a failure or refusal to provide a notice of blackout period shall mean a failure or refusal, in whole or in part, to provide notice of a blackout period to an affected plan participant or beneficiary at the time and in the manner prescribed by section 101(i) of the Act and § 2520.101-3 of this chapter, and a failure or refusal to provide a notice of diversification rights shall mean a failure or refusal, in whole or in part, to provide notice of diversification rights to an applicable individual at the time and in the manner prescribed by section 101(m) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount assessed.</I> (1) The amount assessed under section 502(c)(7) of the Act for each separate violation shall be determined by the Department of Labor, taking into consideration the degree and/or willfulness of the failure or refusal to provide a notice of blackout period or notice of diversification rights. However, the amount assessed for each violation under section 502(c)(7) of the Act shall not exceed $100 a day (adjusted for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended), computed from, in the case of a notice of blackout period under section 101(i) of the Act, the date of the administrator's failure or refusal to provide a notice of blackout period up to and including the date that is the final day of the blackout period for which the notice was required, or in the case of a notice of diversification rights under section 101(m) of the Act, computed from the date that is 30 days before the first date on which rights are exercisable under section 204(j) of the Act up to the date such a notice is furnished.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating the amount to be assessed under this section, a failure or refusal to provide a notice of blackout period or a notice of diversification rights with respect to any single participant or beneficiary shall be treated as a separate violation under section 101(i) of the Act and § 2520.101-3 of this chapter or section 101(m) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of intent to assess a penalty.</I> Prior to the assessment of any penalty under section 502(c)(7) of the Act, the Department shall provide to the administrator of the plan a written notice indicating the Department's intent to assess a penalty under section 502(c)(7) of the Act, the amount of such penalty, the number of participants and beneficiaries on which the penalty is based, the period to which the penalty applies, and the reason(s) for the penalty.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration or waiver of penalty to be assessed.</I> The Department may determine that all or part of the penalty amount in the notice of intent to assess a penalty shall not be assessed on a showing that the administrator complied with the applicable requirements of section 101(i) or section 101(m) of the Act or on a showing by the administrator of mitigating circumstances regarding the degree or willfulness of the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Showing of reasonable cause.</I> Upon issuance by the Department of a notice of intent to assess a penalty, the administrator shall have thirty (30) days from the date of service of the notice, as described in paragraph (i) of this section, to file a statement of reasonable cause explaining why the penalty, as calculated, should be reduced, or not be assessed, for the reasons set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. Such statement must be made in writing and set forth all the facts alleged as reasonable cause for the reduction or nonassessment of the penalty. The statement must contain a declaration by the administrator that the statement is made under the penalties of perjury.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause.</I> Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause within the 30 day period described in paragraph (e) of this section shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the facts alleged in the notice of intent, and such failure shall be deemed an admission of the facts alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(7) of the Act. Such notice shall then become a final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of determination on statement of reasonable cause.</I> (1) The Department, following a review of all of the facts in a statement of reasonable cause alleged in support of no assessment or a complete or partial waiver of the penalty, shall notify the administrator, in writing, of its determination on the statement of reasonable cause and its determination whether to waive the penalty in whole or in part, and/or assess a penalty. If it is the determination of the Department to assess a penalty, the notice shall indicate the amount of the penalty assessment, not to exceed the amount described in paragraph (c) of this section. This notice is a “pleading” for purposes of § 2570.131(m) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, indicating the Department's determination to assess a penalty, shall become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative hearing.</I> A notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section will not become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this chapter, if, within thirty (30) days from the date of the service of the notice, the administrator or a representative thereof files a request for a hearing under §§ 2570.130 through 2570.141 of this chapter, and files an answer to the notice. The request for hearing and answer must be filed in accordance with § 2570.132 of this chapter and § 18.4 of this title. The answer opposing the proposed sanction shall be in writing, and supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Service of notices and filing of statements.</I> (1) Service of a notice for purposes of paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section shall be made:
</P>
<P>(i) By delivering a copy to the administrator or representative thereof;
</P>
<P>(ii) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of the administrator or representative thereof; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By mailing a copy to the last known address of the administrator or representative thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If service is by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee. When service of a notice under paragraph (c) or (g) of this section is by certified mail, five (5) days shall be added to the time allowed by these rules for the filing of a statement or a request for hearing and answer, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, a statement of reasonable cause shall be considered filed:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon mailing, if accomplished using United States Postal Service certified mail or Express Mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt by the delivery service, if accomplished using a “designated private delivery service” within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. 7502(f);
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon transmittal, if transmitted in a manner specified in the notice of intent to assess a penalty as a method of transmittal to be accorded such special treatment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of any other method of filing, upon receipt by the Department at the address provided in the notice of intent to assess a penalty.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Liability.</I> (1) If more than one person is responsible as administrator for the failure to provide a notice of blackout period under section 101(i) of the Act and its implementing regulations (§ 2520.101-3 of this chapter), or the failure to provide a notice of diversification rights under section 101(m) of the Act, all such persons shall be jointly and severally liable for such failure.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person, or persons under paragraph (j)(1) of this section, against whom a civil penalty has been assessed under section 502(c)(7) of the Act, pursuant to a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this chapter, shall be personally liable for the payment of such penalty.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cross-reference.</I> See §§ 2570.130 through 2570.141 of this chapter for procedural rules relating to administrative hearings under section 502(c)(7) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 3736, Jan. 24, 2003, as amended at 72 FR 44972, Aug. 10, 2007; 81 FR 43453, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.502c-8" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.502c-8   Civil penalties under section 502(c)(8).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Pursuant to the authority granted the Secretary under section 502(c)(8) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), the plan sponsor (within the meaning of section 3(16)(B)(iii) of the Act) shall be liable for civil penalties assessed by the Secretary under section 502(c)(8) of the Act, for:
</P>
<P>(i) Each violation by such sponsor of the requirement under section 305 of the Act to adopt by the deadline established in that section a funding improvement plan or rehabilitation plan with respect to a multiemployer plan which is in endangered or critical status; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a plan in endangered status which is not in seriously endangered status, a failure by the plan to meet the applicable benchmarks under section 305 by the end of the funding improvement period with respect to the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, violations or failures referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall mean a failure or refusal, in whole or in part, to adopt a funding improvement or rehabilitation plan, or to meet the applicable benchmarks, at the relevant times and manners prescribed in section 305 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount assessed.</I> The amount assessed under section 502(c)(8) of the Act for each separate violation shall be determined by the Department of Labor, taking into consideration the degree or willfulness of the failure or refusal to comply with the specific requirements referred to in paragraph (a) of this section. However, the amount assessed for each violation under section 502(c)(8) of the Act shall not exceed $1,100 a day (adjusted for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended), computed from the date of the plan sponsor's failure or refusal to comply with the specific requirements referred to in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of intent to assess a penalty.</I> Prior to the assessment of any penalty under section 502(c)(8) of the Act, the Department shall provide to the plan sponsor of the plan a written notice indicating the Department's intent to assess a penalty under section 502(c)(8) of the Act, the amount of such penalty, the period to which the penalty applies, and the reason(s) for the penalty.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration or waiver of penalty to be assessed.</I> The Department may determine that all or part of the penalty amount in the notice of intent to assess a penalty shall not be assessed on a showing that the plan sponsor complied with the requirements of section 305 of the Act, or on a showing by the plan sponsor of mitigating circumstances regarding the degree or willfulness of the noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Showing of reasonable cause.</I> Upon issuance by the Department of a notice of intent to assess a penalty, the plan sponsor shall have thirty (30) days from the date of service of the notice, as described in paragraph (i) of this section, to file a statement of reasonable cause explaining why the penalty, as calculated, should be reduced, or not be assessed, for the reasons set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. Such statement must be made in writing and set forth all the facts alleged as reasonable cause for the reduction or nonassessment of the penalty. The statement must contain a declaration by the plan sponsor that the statement is made under the penalties of perjury.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause.</I> Failure to file a statement of reasonable cause within the thirty (30) day period described in paragraph (e) of this section shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the facts alleged in the notice of intent, and such failure shall be deemed an admission of the facts alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(8) of the Act. Such notice shall then become a final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.161(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of determination on statement of reasonable cause.</I> (1) The Department, following a review of all of the facts in a statement of reasonable cause alleged in support of nonassessment or a complete or partial waiver of the penalty, shall notify the plan sponsor, in writing, of its determination on the statement of reasonable cause and its determination whether to waive the penalty in whole or in part, and/or assess a penalty. If it is the determination of the Department to assess a penalty, the notice shall indicate the amount of the penalty assessment, not to exceed the amount described in paragraph (c) of this section. This notice is a “pleading” for purposes of § 2570.161(m) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, indicating the Department's determination to assess a penalty, shall become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.161(g) of this chapter, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative hearing.</I> A notice issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section will not become a final order, within the meaning of § 2570.161(g) of this chapter, if, within thirty (30) days from the date of the service of the notice, the plan sponsor or a representative thereof files a request for a hearing under §§ 2570.160 through 2570.171 of this chapter, and files an answer to the notice. The request for hearing and answer must be filed in accordance with § 2570.162 of this chapter and § 18.4 of this title. The answer opposing the proposed sanction shall be in writing, and supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Service of notices and filing of statements.</I> (1) Service of a notice for purposes of paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section shall be made:
</P>
<P>(i) By delivering a copy to the plan sponsor or representative thereof;
</P>
<P>(ii) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of the plan sponsor or representative thereof; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By mailing a copy to the last known address of the plan sponsor or representative thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If service is by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee. When service of a notice under paragraph (c) or (g) of this section is by certified mail, five days shall be added to the time allowed by these rules for the filing of a statement or a request for hearing and answer, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, a statement of reasonable cause shall be considered filed:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon mailing, if accomplished using United States Postal Service certified mail or express mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon receipt by the delivery service, if accomplished using a “designated private delivery service” within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. 7502(f);
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon transmittal, if transmitted in a manner specified in the notice of intent to assess a penalty as a method of transmittal to be accorded such special treatment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of any other method of filing, upon receipt by the Department at the address provided in the notice of intent to assess a penalty.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Liability.</I> (1) If more than one person is responsible as plan sponsor for violations referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, all such persons shall be jointly and severally liable for such violations.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person, or persons under paragraph (j)(1) of this section, against whom a civil penalty has been assessed under section 502(c)(8) of the Act, pursuant to a final order within the meaning of § 2570.161(g) of this chapter, shall be personally liable for the payment of such penalty.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cross-reference.</I> See §§ 2570.160 through 2570.171 of this chapter for procedural rules relating to administrative hearings under section 502(c)(8) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 8800, Feb. 26, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 43454, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.502i-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.502i-1   Civil penalties under section 502(i).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Section 502(i) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act) permits the Secretary of Labor to assess a civil penalty against a party in interest who engages in a prohibited transaction with respect to an employee benefit plan other than a plan described in section 4975(e)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code (the Code). The initial penalty under section 502(i) is five percent of the total “amount involved” in the prohibited transaction (unless a lesser amount is otherwise agreed to by the parties). However, if the prohibited transaction is not corrected during the “correction period,” the civil penalty shall be 100 percent of the “amount involved” (unless a lesser amount is otherwise agreed to by the parties). Paragraph (b) of this section defines the term “amount involved,” paragraph (c) defines the term “correction,” and paragraph (d) defines the term “correction period.” Paragraph (e) illustrates the computation of the civil penalty under section 502(i). Paragraph (f) is a cross reference to the Department's procedural rules for section 502(i) proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount involved.</I> Section 502(i) of ERISA states that the term “amount involved” in that section shall be defined as it is defined under section 4975(f)(4) of the Code. As provided in 26 CFR 141.4975.13, 26 CFR 53.4941(e)-1(b) is controlling with respect to the interpretation of the term “amount involved” under section 4975 of the Code. Accordingly, the Department of Labor will apply the principles set out at 26 CFR 53.4941(e)-1(b) in determining the “amount involved” in a transaction subject to the civil penalty provided by section 502(i) of the Act and this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Correction.</I> Section 502(i) of ERISA states that the term “correction” shall be defined in a manner that is consistent with the definition of that term under section 4975(f)(5) of the Code. As provided in 26 CFR 141.4975-13, 26 CFR 53.4941(e)-1(c) is controlling with respect to the interpretation of the term “correction” for purposes of section 4975 of the Code. Accordingly, the Department of Labor will apply the principles set out in 26 CFR 53.4941(e)-(1)(c) in interpreting the term “correction” under section 502(i) of the Act and this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Correction period.</I> (1) In general, the “correction period” begins on the date the prohibited transaction occurs and ends 90 days after a final agency order with respect to such transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a party in interest seeks judicial review within 90 days of a final agency order in an ERISA section 502(i) proceeding, the correction period will end 90 days after the entry of a final order in the judicial action. 
</P>
<P>(3) The following examples illustrate the operation of this paragraph:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(i) A party in interest receives notice of the Department's intent to impose the section 502(i) penalty and does not invoke the ERISA section 502(i) prohibited transaction penalty proceedings described in § 2570.1 of this chapter within 30 days of such notice. As provided in § 2570.5 of this chapter, the notice of the intent to impose a penalty becomes a final order after 30 days. Thus, the “correction period” ends 90 days after the expiration of the 30 day period.
</P>
<P>(ii) A party in interest contests a proposed section 502(i) penalty, but does not appeal an adverse decision of the administrative law judge in the proceeding. As provided in § 2570.10(a) of this chapter, the decision of the administrative law judge becomes a final order of the Department unless the decision is appealed within 20 days after the date of such order. Thus, the correction period ends 90 days after the expiration of such 20 day period. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary of Labor issues to a party in interest a decision upholding an administrative law judge's adverse decision. As provided in § 2570.12(b) of this chapter, the decision of the Secretary becomes a final order of the Department immediately. Thus, the correction period will end 90 days after the issuance of the Secretary's order unless the party in interest judicially contests the order within that 90 day period. If the party in interest so contests the order, the correction period will end 90 days after the entry of a final order in the judicial action.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Computation of the section 502(i) penalty.</I> (1) In general, the civil penalty under section 502(i) is determined by applying the applicable percentage (five percent or one hundred percent) to the aggregate amount involved in the transaction. However, a continuing prohibited transaction, such as a lease or a loan, is treated as giving rise to a separate event subject to the sanction for each year (as measured from the anniversary date of the transaction) in which the transaction occurs. 
</P>
<P>(2) The following examples illustrate the computation of the section 502(i) penalty:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(i) An employee benefit plan purchases property from a party in interest at a price of $10,000. The fair market value of the property is $5,000. The “amount involved” in that transaction, as determined under 26 CFR 53.4941(e)-1(b), is $10,000 (the greater of the amount paid by the plan or the fair market value of the property). The initial five percent penalty under section 502(i) is $500 (five percent of $10,000). 
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee benefit plan executes a four year lease with a party in interest at an annual rental of $10,000 (which is the fair rental value of the property). The amount involved in each year of that transaction, as determined under 26 CFR 53.4941(e)-1(b), is $10,000. The amount of the initial sanction under ERISA section 502(i) would be a total of $5,000: $2,000 ($10,000 × 5% × 4 with respect to the rentals paid in the first year of the lease); $1,500 ($10,000 × 5% × 3 with respect to the second year); $1,000 ($10,000 × 5% × 2 with respect to the third year); $500 ($10,000 × 5% × 1 with respect to the fourth year).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Cross reference.</I> See §§ 2570.1-2570.12 of this chapter for procedural rules relating to section 502(i) penalty proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 37476, Sept. 26, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.503-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.503-1   Claims procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> In accordance with the authority of sections 503 and 505 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act), 29 U.S.C. 1133, 1135, this section sets forth minimum requirements for employee benefit plan procedures pertaining to claims for benefits by participants and beneficiaries (hereinafter referred to as claimants). Except as otherwise specifically provided in this section, these requirements apply to every employee benefit plan described in section 4(a) and not exempted under section 4(b) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obligation to establish and maintain reasonable claims procedures.</I> Every employee benefit plan shall establish and maintain reasonable procedures governing the filing of benefit claims, notification of benefit determinations, and appeal of adverse benefit determinations (hereinafter collectively referred to as claims procedures). The claims procedures for a plan will be deemed to be reasonable only if— 
</P>
<P>(1) The claims procedures comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), and (j) of this section, as appropriate, except to the extent that the claims procedures are deemed to comply with some or all of such provisions pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of all claims procedures (including, in the case of a group health plan within the meaning of paragraph (m)(6) of this section, any procedures for obtaining prior approval as a prerequisite for obtaining a benefit, such as preauthorization procedures or utilization review procedures) and the applicable time frames is included as part of a summary plan description meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 2520.102-3; 
</P>
<P>(3) The claims procedures do not contain any provision, and are not administered in a way, that unduly inhibits or hampers the initiation or processing of claims for benefits. For example, a provision or practice that requires payment of a fee or costs as a condition to making a claim or to appealing an adverse benefit determination would be considered to unduly inhibit the initiation and processing of claims for benefits. Also, the denial of a claim for failure to obtain a prior approval under circumstances that would make obtaining such prior approval impossible or where application of the prior approval process could seriously jeopardize the life or health of the claimant (e.g., in the case of a group health plan, the claimant is unconscious and in need of immediate care at the time medical treatment is required) would constitute a practice that unduly inhibits the initiation and processing of a claim; 
</P>
<P>(4) The claims procedures do not preclude an authorized representative of a claimant from acting on behalf of such claimant in pursuing a benefit claim or appeal of an adverse benefit determination. Nevertheless, a plan may establish reasonable procedures for determining whether an individual has been authorized to act on behalf of a claimant, provided that, in the case of a claim involving urgent care, within the meaning of paragraph (m)(1) of this section, a health care professional, within the meaning of paragraph (m)(7) of this section, with knowledge of a claimant's medical condition shall be permitted to act as the authorized representative of the claimant; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The claims procedures contain administrative processes and safeguards designed to ensure and to verify that benefit claim determinations are made in accordance with governing plan documents and that, where appropriate, the plan provisions have been applied consistently with respect to similarly situated claimants. 
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of a plan established and maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement (other than a plan subject to the provisions of section 302(c)(5) of the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947 concerning joint representation on the board of trustees)— 
</P>
<P>(i) Such plan will be deemed to comply with the provisions of paragraphs (c) through (j) of this section if the collective bargaining agreement pursuant to which the plan is established or maintained sets forth or incorporates by specific reference— 
</P>
<P>(A) Provisions concerning the filing of benefit claims and the initial disposition of benefit claims, and
</P>
<P>(B) A grievance and arbitration procedure to which adverse benefit determinations are subject. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Such plan will be deemed to comply with the provisions of paragraphs (h), (i), and (j) of this section (but will not be deemed to comply with paragraphs (c) through (g) of this section) if the collective bargaining agreement pursuant to which the plan is established or maintained sets forth or incorporates by specific reference a grievance and arbitration procedure to which adverse benefit determinations are subject (but not provisions concerning the filing and initial disposition of benefit claims). 
</P>
<P>(7) In the case of a plan providing disability benefits, the plan must ensure that all claims and appeals for disability benefits are adjudicated in a manner designed to ensure the independence and impartiality of the persons involved in making the decision. Accordingly, decisions regarding hiring, compensation, termination, promotion, or other similar matters with respect to any individual (such as a claims adjudicator or medical or vocational expert) must not be made based upon the likelihood that the individual will support the denial of benefits.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Group health plans.</I> The claims procedures of a group health plan will be deemed to be reasonable only if, in addition to complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section— 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The claims procedures provide that, in the case of a failure by a claimant or an authorized representative of a claimant to follow the plan's procedures for filing a pre-service claim, within the meaning of paragraph (m)(2) of this section, the claimant or representative shall be notified of the failure and the proper procedures to be followed in filing a claim for benefits. This notification shall be provided to the claimant or authorized representative, as appropriate, as soon as possible, but not later than 5 days (24 hours in the case of a failure to file a claim involving urgent care) following the failure. Notification may be oral, unless written notification is requested by the claimant or authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall apply only in the case of a failure that— 
</P>
<P>(A) Is a communication by a claimant or an authorized representative of a claimant that is received by a person or organizational unit customarily responsible for handling benefit matters; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Is a communication that names a specific claimant; a specific medical condition or symptom; and a specific treatment, service, or product for which approval is requested. 
</P>
<P>(2) The claims procedures do not contain any provision, and are not administered in a way, that requires a claimant to file more than two appeals of an adverse benefit determination prior to bringing a civil action under section 502(a) of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that a plan offers voluntary levels of appeal (except to the extent that the plan is required to do so by State law), including voluntary arbitration or any other form of dispute resolution, in addition to those permitted by paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the claims procedures provide that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The plan waives any right to assert that a claimant has failed to exhaust administrative remedies because the claimant did not elect to submit a benefit dispute to any such voluntary level of appeal provided by the plan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan agrees that any statute of limitations or other defense based on timeliness is tolled during the time that any such voluntary appeal is pending; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The claims procedures provide that a claimant may elect to submit a benefit dispute to such voluntary level of appeal only after exhaustion of the appeals permitted by paragraph (c)(2) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The plan provides to any claimant, upon request, sufficient information relating to the voluntary level of appeal to enable the claimant to make an informed judgment about whether to submit a benefit dispute to the voluntary level of appeal, including a statement that the decision of a claimant as to whether or not to submit a benefit dispute to the voluntary level of appeal will have no effect on the claimant's rights to any other benefits under the plan and information about the applicable rules, the claimant's right to representation, the process for selecting the decisionmaker, and the circumstances, if any, that may affect the impartiality of the decisionmaker, such as any financial or personal interests in the result or any past or present relationship with any party to the review process; and 
</P>
<P>(v) No fees or costs are imposed on the claimant as part of the voluntary level of appeal. 
</P>
<P>(4) The claims procedures do not contain any provision for the mandatory arbitration of adverse benefit determinations, except to the extent that the plan or procedures provide that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The arbitration is conducted as one of the two appeals described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section and in accordance with the requirements applicable to such appeals; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The claimant is not precluded from challenging the decision under section 502(a) of the Act or other applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plans providing disability benefits.</I> The claims procedures of a plan that provides disability benefits will be deemed to be reasonable only if the claims procedures comply, with respect to claims for disability benefits, with the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claim for benefits.</I> For purposes of this section, a claim for benefits is a request for a plan benefit or benefits made by a claimant in accordance with a plan's reasonable procedure for filing benefit claims. In the case of a group health plan, a claim for benefits includes any pre-service claims within the meaning of paragraph (m)(2) of this section and any post-service claims within the meaning of paragraph (m)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Timing of notification of benefit determination</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section, if a claim is wholly or partially denied, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, of the plan's adverse benefit determination within a reasonable period of time, but not later than 90 days after receipt of the claim by the plan, unless the plan administrator determines that special circumstances require an extension of time for processing the claim. If the plan administrator determines that an extension of time for processing is required, written notice of the extension shall be furnished to the claimant prior to the termination of the initial 90-day period. In no event shall such extension exceed a period of 90 days from the end of such initial period. The extension notice shall indicate the special circumstances requiring an extension of time and the date by which the plan expects to render the benefit determination. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Group health plans.</I> In the case of a group health plan, the plan administrator shall notify a claimant of the plan's benefit determination in accordance with paragraph (f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(ii), or (f)(2)(iii) of this section, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Urgent care claims.</I> In the case of a claim involving urgent care, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant of the plan's benefit determination (whether adverse or not) as soon as possible, taking into account the medical exigencies, but not later than 72 hours after receipt of the claim by the plan, unless the claimant fails to provide sufficient information to determine whether, or to what extent, benefits are covered or payable under the plan. In the case of such a failure, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant as soon as possible, but not later than 24 hours after receipt of the claim by the plan, of the specific information necessary to complete the claim. The claimant shall be afforded a reasonable amount of time, taking into account the circumstances, but not less than 48 hours, to provide the specified information. Notification of any adverse benefit determination pursuant to this paragraph (f)(2)(i) shall be made in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. The plan administrator shall notify the claimant of the plan's benefit determination as soon as possible, but in no case later than 48 hours after the earlier of— 
</P>
<P>(A) The plan's receipt of the specified information, or 
</P>
<P>(B) The end of the period afforded the claimant to provide the specified additional information. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Concurrent care decisions.</I> If a group health plan has approved an ongoing course of treatment to be provided over a period of time or number of treatments— 
</P>
<P>(A) Any reduction or termination by the plan of such course of treatment (other than by plan amendment or termination) before the end of such period of time or number of treatments shall constitute an adverse benefit determination. The plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, of the adverse benefit determination at a time sufficiently in advance of the reduction or termination to allow the claimant to appeal and obtain a determination on review of that adverse benefit determination before the benefit is reduced or terminated. 
</P>
<P>(B) Any request by a claimant to extend the course of treatment beyond the period of time or number of treatments that is a claim involving urgent care shall be decided as soon as possible, taking into account the medical exigencies, and the plan administrator shall notify the claimant of the benefit determination, whether adverse or not, within 24 hours after receipt of the claim by the plan, provided that any such claim is made to the plan at least 24 hours prior to the expiration of the prescribed period of time or number of treatments. Notification of any adverse benefit determination concerning a request to extend the course of treatment, whether involving urgent care or not, shall be made in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, and appeal shall be governed by paragraph (i)(2)(i), (i)(2)(ii), or (i)(2)(iii), as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other claims.</I> In the case of a claim not described in paragraphs (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant of the plan's benefit determination in accordance with either paragraph (f)(2)(iii)(A) or (f)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Pre-service claims.</I> In the case of a pre-service claim, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant of the plan's benefit determination (whether adverse or not) within a reasonable period of time appropriate to the medical circumstances, but not later than 15 days after receipt of the claim by the plan. This period may be extended one time by the plan for up to 15 days, provided that the plan administrator both determines that such an extension is necessary due to matters beyond the control of the plan and notifies the claimant, prior to the expiration of the initial 15-day period, of the circumstances requiring the extension of time and the date by which the plan expects to render a decision. If such an extension is necessary due to a failure of the claimant to submit the information necessary to decide the claim, the notice of extension shall specifically describe the required information, and the claimant shall be afforded at least 45 days from receipt of the notice within which to provide the specified information. Notification of any adverse benefit determination pursuant to this paragraph (f)(2)(iii)(A) shall be made in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Post-service claims.</I> In the case of a post-service claim, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, of the plan's adverse benefit determination within a reasonable period of time, but not later than 30 days after receipt of the claim. This period may be extended one time by the plan for up to 15 days, provided that the plan administrator both determines that such an extension is necessary due to matters beyond the control of the plan and notifies the claimant, prior to the expiration of the initial 30-day period, of the circumstances requiring the extension of time and the date by which the plan expects to render a decision. If such an extension is necessary due to a failure of the claimant to submit the information necessary to decide the claim, the notice of extension shall specifically describe the required information, and the claimant shall be afforded at least 45 days from receipt of the notice within which to provide the specified information. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disability claims.</I> In the case of a claim for disability benefits, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, of the plan's adverse benefit determination within a reasonable period of time, but not later than 45 days after receipt of the claim by the plan. This period may be extended by the plan for up to 30 days, provided that the plan administrator both determines that such an extension is necessary due to matters beyond the control of the plan and notifies the claimant, prior to the expiration of the initial 45-day period, of the circumstances requiring the extension of time and the date by which the plan expects to render a decision. If, prior to the end of the first 30-day extension period, the administrator determines that, due to matters beyond the control of the plan, a decision cannot be rendered within that extension period, the period for making the determination may be extended for up to an additional 30 days, provided that the plan administrator notifies the claimant, prior to the expiration of the first 30-day extension period, of the circumstances requiring the extension and the date as of which the plan expects to render a decision. In the case of any extension under this paragraph (f)(3), the notice of extension shall specifically explain the standards on which entitlement to a benefit is based, the unresolved issues that prevent a decision on the claim, and the additional information needed to resolve those issues, and the claimant shall be afforded at least 45 days within which to provide the specified information. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Calculating time periods.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, the period of time within which a benefit determination is required to be made shall begin at the time a claim is filed in accordance with the reasonable procedures of a plan, without regard to whether all the information necessary to make a benefit determination accompanies the filing. In the event that a period of time is extended as permitted pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) or (f)(3) of this section due to a claimant's failure to submit information necessary to decide a claim, the period for making the benefit determination shall be tolled from the date on which the notification of the extension is sent to the claimant until the date on which the claimant responds to the request for additional information. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Manner and content of notification of benefit determination.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the plan administrator shall provide a claimant with written or electronic notification of any adverse benefit determination. Any electronic notification shall comply with the standards imposed by 29 CFR 2520.104b-1(c)(1)(i), (iii), and (iv), or with the standards imposed by 29 CFR 2520.104b-31 (for pension benefit plans). The notification shall set forth, in a manner calculated to be understood by the claimant— 
</P>
<P>(i) The specific reason or reasons for the adverse determination; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Reference to the specific plan provisions on which the determination is based; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any additional material or information necessary for the claimant to perfect the claim and an explanation of why such material or information is necessary; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the plan's review procedures and the time limits applicable to such procedures, including a statement of the claimant's right to bring a civil action under section 502(a) of the Act following an adverse benefit determination on review; 
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of an adverse benefit determination by a group health plan—
</P>
<P>(A) If an internal rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion was relied upon in making the adverse determination, either the specific rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion; or a statement that such a rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion was relied upon in making the adverse determination and that a copy of such rule, guideline, protocol, or other criterion will be provided free of charge to the claimant upon request; or 
</P>
<P>(B) If the adverse benefit determination is based on a medical necessity or experimental treatment or similar exclusion or limit, either an explanation of the scientific or clinical judgment for the determination, applying the terms of the plan to the claimant's medical circumstances, or a statement that such explanation will be provided free of charge upon request. 
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of an adverse benefit determination by a group health plan concerning a claim involving urgent care, a description of the expedited review process applicable to such claims. 
</P>
<P>(vii) In the case of an adverse benefit determination with respect to disability benefits—
</P>
<P>(A) A discussion of the decision, including an explanation of the basis for disagreeing with or not following:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The views presented by the claimant to the plan of health care professionals treating the claimant and vocational professionals who evaluated the claimant;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The views of medical or vocational experts whose advice was obtained on behalf of the plan in connection with a claimant's adverse benefit determination, without regard to whether the advice was relied upon in making the benefit determination; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A disability determination regarding the claimant presented by the claimant to the plan made by the Social Security Administration;
</P>
<P>(B) If the adverse benefit determination is based on a medical necessity or experimental treatment or similar exclusion or limit, either an explanation of the scientific or clinical judgment for the determination, applying the terms of the plan to the claimant's medical circumstances, or a statement that such explanation will be provided free of charge upon request;
</P>
<P>(C) Either the specific internal rules, guidelines, protocols, standards or other similar criteria of the plan relied upon in making the adverse determination or, alternatively, a statement that such rules, guidelines, protocols, standards or other similar criteria of the plan do not exist; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the claimant is entitled to receive, upon request and free of charge, reasonable access to, and copies of, all documents, records, and other information relevant to the claimant's claim for benefits. Whether a document, record, or other information is relevant to a claim for benefits shall be determined by reference to paragraph (m)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) In the case of an adverse benefit determination with respect to disability benefits, the notification shall be provided in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner (as described in paragraph (o) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an adverse benefit determination by a group health plan concerning a claim involving urgent care, the information described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section may be provided to the claimant orally within the time frame prescribed in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, provided that a written or electronic notification in accordance with paragraph (g)(1) of this section is furnished to the claimant not later than 3 days after the oral notification. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Appeal of adverse benefit determinations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Every employee benefit plan shall establish and maintain a procedure by which a claimant shall have a reasonable opportunity to appeal an adverse benefit determination to an appropriate named fiduciary of the plan, and under which there will be a full and fair review of the claim and the adverse benefit determination. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Full and fair review.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (h)(3) and (h)(4) of this section, the claims procedures of a plan will not be deemed to provide a claimant with a reasonable opportunity for a full and fair review of a claim and adverse benefit determination unless the claims procedures— 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide claimants at least 60 days following receipt of a notification of an adverse benefit determination within which to appeal the determination; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide claimants the opportunity to submit written comments, documents, records, and other information relating to the claim for benefits; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide that a claimant shall be provided, upon request and free of charge, reasonable access to, and copies of, all documents, records, and other information relevant to the claimant's claim for benefits. Whether a document, record, or other information is relevant to a claim for benefits shall be determined by reference to paragraph (m)(8) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide for a review that takes into account all comments, documents, records, and other information submitted by the claimant relating to the claim, without regard to whether such information was submitted or considered in the initial benefit determination. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Group health plans.</I> The claims procedures of a group health plan will not be deemed to provide a claimant with a reasonable opportunity for a full and fair review of a claim and adverse benefit determination unless, in addition to complying with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section, the claims procedures— 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide claimants at least 180 days following receipt of a notification of an adverse benefit determination within which to appeal the determination; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide for a review that does not afford deference to the initial adverse benefit determination and that is conducted by an appropriate named fiduciary of the plan who is neither the individual who made the adverse benefit determination that is the subject of the appeal, nor the subordinate of such individual; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide that, in deciding an appeal of any adverse benefit determination that is based in whole or in part on a medical judgment, including determinations with regard to whether a particular treatment, drug, or other item is experimental, investigational, or not medically necessary or appropriate, the appropriate named fiduciary shall consult with a health care professional who has appropriate training and experience in the field of medicine involved in the medical judgment; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide for the identification of medical or vocational experts whose advice was obtained on behalf of the plan in connection with a claimant's adverse benefit determination, without regard to whether the advice was relied upon in making the benefit determination; 
</P>
<P>(v) Provide that the health care professional engaged for purposes of a consultation under paragraph (h)(3)(iii) of this section shall be an individual who is neither an individual who was consulted in connection with the adverse benefit determination that is the subject of the appeal, nor the subordinate of any such individual; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide, in the case of a claim involving urgent care, for an expedited review process pursuant to which— 
</P>
<P>(A) A request for an expedited appeal of an adverse benefit determination may be submitted orally or in writing by the claimant; and 
</P>
<P>(B) All necessary information, including the plan's benefit determination on review, shall be transmitted between the plan and the claimant by telephone, facsimile, or other available similarly expeditious method. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Plans providing disability benefits.</I> The claims procedures of a plan providing disability benefits will not, with respect to claims for such benefits, be deemed to provide a claimant with a reasonable opportunity for a full and fair review of a claim and adverse benefit determination unless, in addition to complying with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(ii) through (iv) and (h)(3)(i) through (v) of this section, the claims procedures—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide that before the plan can issue an adverse benefit determination on review on a disability benefit claim, the plan administrator shall provide the claimant, free of charge, with any new or additional evidence considered, relied upon, or generated by the plan, insurer, or other person making the benefit determination (or at the direction of the plan, insurer or such other person) in connection with the claim; such evidence must be provided as soon as possible and sufficiently in advance of the date on which the notice of adverse benefit determination on review is required to be provided under paragraph (i) of this section to give the claimant a reasonable opportunity to respond prior to that date; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide that, before the plan can issue an adverse benefit determination on review on a disability benefit claim based on a new or additional rationale, the plan administrator shall provide the claimant, free of charge, with the rationale; the rationale must be provided as soon as possible and sufficiently in advance of the date on which the notice of adverse benefit determination on review is required to be provided under paragraph (i) of this section to give the claimant a reasonable opportunity to respond prior to that date.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Timing of notification of benefit determination on review</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (i)(1)(ii), (i)(2), and (i)(3) of this section, the plan administrator shall notify a claimant in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section of the plan's benefit determination on review within a reasonable period of time, but not later than 60 days after receipt of the claimant's request for review by the plan, unless the plan administrator determines that special circumstances (such as the need to hold a hearing, if the plan's procedures provide for a hearing) require an extension of time for processing the claim. If the plan administrator determines that an extension of time for processing is required, written notice of the extension shall be furnished to the claimant prior to the termination of the initial 60-day period. In no event shall such extension exceed a period of 60 days from the end of the initial period. The extension notice shall indicate the special circumstances requiring an extension of time and the date by which the plan expects to render the determination on review. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a plan with a committee or board of trustees designated as the appropriate named fiduciary that holds regularly scheduled meetings at least quarterly, paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section shall not apply, and, except as provided in paragraphs (i)(2) and (i)(3) of this section, the appropriate named fiduciary shall instead make a benefit determination no later than the date of the meeting of the committee or board that immediately follows the plan's receipt of a request for review, unless the request for review is filed within 30 days preceding the date of such meeting. In such case, a benefit determination may be made by no later than the date of the second meeting following the plan's receipt of the request for review. If special circumstances (such as the need to hold a hearing, if the plan's procedures provide for a hearing) require a further extension of time for processing, a benefit determination shall be rendered not later than the third meeting of the committee or board following the plan's receipt of the request for review. If such an extension of time for review is required because of special circumstances, the plan administrator shall provide the claimant with written notice of the extension, describing the special circumstances and the date as of which the benefit determination will be made, prior to the commencement of the extension. The plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, of the benefit determination as soon as possible, but not later than 5 days after the benefit determination is made. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Group health plans.</I> In the case of a group health plan, the plan administrator shall notify a claimant of the plan's benefit determination on review in accordance with paragraphs (i)(2)(i) through (iii), as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Urgent care claims.</I> In the case of a claim involving urgent care, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, of the plan's benefit determination on review as soon as possible, taking into account the medical exigencies, but not later than 72 hours after receipt of the claimant's request for review of an adverse benefit determination by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Pre-service claims.</I> In the case of a pre-service claim, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, of the plan's benefit determination on review within a reasonable period of time appropriate to the medical circumstances. In the case of a group health plan that provides for one appeal of an adverse benefit determination, such notification shall be provided not later than 30 days after receipt by the plan of the claimant's request for review of an adverse benefit determination. In the case of a group health plan that provides for two appeals of an adverse determination, such notification shall be provided, with respect to any one of such two appeals, not later than 15 days after receipt by the plan of the claimant's request for review of the adverse determination. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Post-service claims.</I> (A) In the case of a post-service claim, except as provided in paragraph (i)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, of the plan's benefit determination on review within a reasonable period of time. In the case of a group health plan that provides for one appeal of an adverse benefit determination, such notification shall be provided not later than 60 days after receipt by the plan of the claimant's request for review of an adverse benefit determination. In the case of a group health plan that provides for two appeals of an adverse determination, such notification shall be provided, with respect to any one of such two appeals, not later than 30 days after receipt by the plan of the claimant's request for review of the adverse determination. 
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a multiemployer plan with a committee or board of trustees designated as the appropriate named fiduciary that holds regularly scheduled meetings at least quarterly, paragraph (i)(2)(iii)(A) of this section shall not apply, and the appropriate named fiduciary shall instead make a benefit determination no later than the date of the meeting of the committee or board that immediately follows the plan's receipt of a request for review, unless the request for review is filed within 30 days preceding the date of such meeting. In such case, a benefit determination may be made by no later than the date of the second meeting following the plan's receipt of the request for review. If special circumstances (such as the need to hold a hearing, if the plan's procedures provide for a hearing) require a further extension of time for processing, a benefit determination shall be rendered not later than the third meeting of the committee or board following the plan's receipt of the request for review. If such an extension of time for review is required because of special circumstances, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant in writing of the extension, describing the special circumstances and the date as of which the benefit determination will be made, prior to the commencement of the extension. The plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, of the benefit determination as soon as possible, but not later than 5 days after the benefit determination is made. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disability claims.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(3)(ii) of this section, claims involving disability benefits (whether the plan provides for one or two appeals) shall be governed by paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section, except that a period of 45 days shall apply instead of 60 days for purposes of that paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a multiemployer plan with a committee or board of trustees designated as the appropriate named fiduciary that holds regularly scheduled meetings at least quarterly, paragraph (i)(3)(i) of this section shall not apply, and the appropriate named fiduciary shall instead make a benefit determination no later than the date of the meeting of the committee or board that immediately follows the plan's receipt of a request for review, unless the request for review is filed within 30 days preceding the date of such meeting. In such case, a benefit determination may be made by no later than the date of the second meeting following the plan's receipt of the request for review. If special circumstances (such as the need to hold a hearing, if the plan's procedures provide for a hearing) require a further extension of time for processing, a benefit determination shall be rendered not later than the third meeting of the committee or board following the plan's receipt of the request for review. If such an extension of time for review is required because of special circumstances, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant in writing of the extension, describing the special circumstances and the date as of which the benefit determination will be made, prior to the commencement of the extension. The plan administrator shall notify the claimant, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, of the benefit determination as soon as possible, but not later than 5 days after the benefit determination is made. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Calculating time periods.</I> For purposes of paragraph (i) of this section, the period of time within which a benefit determination on review is required to be made shall begin at the time an appeal is filed in accordance with the reasonable procedures of a plan, without regard to whether all the information necessary to make a benefit determination on review accompanies the filing. In the event that a period of time is extended as permitted pursuant to paragraph (i)(1), (i)(2)(iii)(B), or (i)(3) of this section due to a claimant's failure to submit information necessary to decide a claim, the period for making the benefit determination on review shall be tolled from the date on which the notification of the extension is sent to the claimant until the date on which the claimant responds to the request for additional information. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Furnishing documents.</I> In the case of an adverse benefit determination on review, the plan administrator shall provide such access to, and copies of, documents, records, and other information described in paragraphs (j)(3), (j)(4), and (j)(5) of this section as is appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Manner and content of notification of benefit determination on review.</I> The plan administrator shall provide a claimant with written or electronic notification of a plan's benefit determination on review. Any electronic notification shall comply with the standards imposed by 29 CFR 2520.104b-1(c)(1)(i), (iii), and (iv), or with the standards imposed by 29 CFR 2520.104b-31 (for pension benefit plans). In the case of an adverse benefit determination, the notification shall set forth, in a manner calculated to be understood by the claimant— 
</P>
<P>(1) The specific reason or reasons for the adverse determination; 
</P>
<P>(2) Reference to the specific plan provisions on which the benefit determination is based; 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the claimant is entitled to receive, upon request and free of charge, reasonable access to, and copies of, all documents, records, and other information relevant to the claimant's claim for benefits. Whether a document, record, or other information is relevant to a claim for benefits shall be determined by reference to paragraph (m)(8) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(4)(i) A statement describing any voluntary appeal procedures offered by the plan and the claimant's right to obtain the information about such procedures described in paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section, and a statement of the claimant's right to bring an action under section 502(a) of the Act; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a plan providing disability benefits, in addition to the information described in paragraph (j)(4)(i) of this section, the statement of the claimant's right to bring an action under section 502(a) of the Act shall also describe any applicable contractual limitations period that applies to the claimant's right to bring such an action, including the calendar date on which the contractual limitations period expires for the claim.
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a group health plan—
</P>
<P>(i) If an internal rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion was relied upon in making the adverse determination, either the specific rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion; or a statement that such rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion was relied upon in making the adverse determination and that a copy of the rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion will be provided free of charge to the claimant upon request; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the adverse benefit determination is based on a medical necessity or experimental treatment or similar exclusion or limit, either an explanation of the scientific or clinical judgment for the determination, applying the terms of the plan to the claimant's medical circumstances, or a statement that such explanation will be provided free of charge upon request; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The following statement: “You and your plan may have other voluntary alternative dispute resolution options, such as mediation. One way to find out what may be available is to contact your local U.S. Department of Labor Office and your State insurance regulatory agency.” 
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of an adverse benefit decision with respect to disability benefits—
</P>
<P>(i) A discussion of the decision, including an explanation of the basis for disagreeing with or not following:
</P>
<P>(A) The views presented by the claimant to the plan of health care professionals treating the claimant and vocational professionals who evaluated the claimant;
</P>
<P>(B) The views of medical or vocational experts whose advice was obtained on behalf of the plan in connection with a claimant's adverse benefit determination, without regard to whether the advice was relied upon in making the benefit determination; and
</P>
<P>(C) A disability determination regarding the claimant presented by the claimant to the plan made by the Social Security Administration;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the adverse benefit determination is based on a medical necessity or experimental treatment or similar exclusion or limit, either an explanation of the scientific or clinical judgment for the determination, applying the terms of the plan to the claimant's medical circumstances, or a statement that such explanation will be provided free of change upon request; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Either the specific internal rules, guidelines, protocols, standards or other similar criteria of the plan relied upon in making the adverse determination or, alternatively, a statement that such rules, guidelines, protocols, standards or other similar criteria of the plan do not exist.
</P>
<P>(7) In the case of an adverse benefit determination on review with respect to a claim for disability benefits, the notification shall be provided in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner (as described in paragraph (o) of this section).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Preemption of State law.</I> (1) Nothing in this section shall be construed to supersede any provision of State law that regulates insurance, except to the extent that such law prevents the application of a requirement of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) For purposes of paragraph (k)(1) of this section, a State law regulating insurance shall not be considered to prevent the application of a requirement of this section merely because such State law establishes a review procedure to evaluate and resolve disputes involving adverse benefit determinations under group health plans so long as the review procedure is conducted by a person or entity other than the insurer, the plan, plan fiduciaries, the employer, or any employee or agent of any of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The State law procedures described in paragraph (k)(2)(i) of this section are not part of the full and fair review required by section 503 of the Act. Claimants therefore need not exhaust such State law procedures prior to bringing suit under section 502(a) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Failure to establish and follow reasonable claims procedures</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (l)(2) of this section, in the case of the failure of a plan to establish or follow claims procedures consistent with the requirements of this section, a claimant shall be deemed to have exhausted the administrative remedies available under the plan and shall be entitled to pursue any available remedies under section 502(a) of the Act on the basis that the plan has failed to provide a reasonable claims procedure that would yield a decision on the merits of the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plans providing disability benefits.</I> (i) In the case of a claim for disability benefits, if the plan fails to strictly adhere to all the requirements of this section with respect to a claim, the claimant is deemed to have exhausted the administrative remedies available under the plan, except as provided in paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section. Accordingly, the claimant is entitled to pursue any available remedies under section 502(a) of the Act on the basis that the plan has failed to provide a reasonable claims procedure that would yield a decision on the merits of the claim. If a claimant chooses to pursue remedies under section 502(a) of the Act under such circumstances, the claim or appeal is deemed denied on review without the exercise of discretion by an appropriate fiduciary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (l)(2)(i) of this section, the administrative remedies available under a plan with respect to claims for disability benefits will not be deemed exhausted based on <I>de minimis</I> violations that do not cause, and are not likely to cause, prejudice or harm to the claimant so long as the plan demonstrates that the violation was for good cause or due to matters beyond the control of the plan and that the violation occurred in the context of an ongoing, good faith exchange of information between the plan and the claimant. This exception is not available if the violation is part of a pattern or practice of violations by the plan. The claimant may request a written explanation of the violation from the plan, and the plan must provide such explanation within 10 days, including a specific description of its bases, if any, for asserting that the violation should not cause the administrative remedies available under the plan to be deemed exhausted. If a court rejects the claimant's request for immediate review under paragraph (l)(2)(i) of this section on the basis that the plan met the standards for the exception under this paragraph (l)(2)(ii), the claim shall be considered as re-filed on appeal upon the plan's receipt of the decision of the court. Within a reasonable time after the receipt of the decision, the plan shall provide the claimant with notice of the resubmission.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Definitions.</I> The following terms shall have the meaning ascribed to such terms in this paragraph (m) whenever such term is used in this section: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A “claim involving urgent care” is any claim for medical care or treatment with respect to which the application of the time periods for making non-urgent care determinations— 
</P>
<P>(A) Could seriously jeopardize the life or health of the claimant or the ability of the claimant to regain maximum function, or, 
</P>
<P>(B) In the opinion of a physician with knowledge of the claimant's medical condition, would subject the claimant to severe pain that cannot be adequately managed without the care or treatment that is the subject of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (m)(1)(iii) of this section, whether a claim is a “claim involving urgent care” within the meaning of paragraph (m)(1)(i)(A) of this section is to be determined by an individual acting on behalf of the plan applying the judgment of a prudent layperson who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any claim that a physician with knowledge of the claimant's medical condition determines is a “claim involving urgent care” within the meaning of paragraph (m)(1)(i) of this section shall be treated as a “claim involving urgent care” for purposes of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term “pre-service claim” means any claim for a benefit under a group health plan with respect to which the terms of the plan condition receipt of the benefit, in whole or in part, on approval of the benefit in advance of obtaining medical care. 
</P>
<P>(3) The term “post-service claim” means any claim for a benefit under a group health plan that is not a pre-service claim within the meaning of paragraph (m)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) The term “adverse benefit determination” means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the following: A denial, reduction, or termination of, or a failure to provide or make payment (in whole or in part) for, a benefit, including any such denial, reduction, termination, or failure to provide or make payment that is based on a determination of a participant's or beneficiary's eligibility to participate in a plan, and including, with respect to group health plans, a denial, reduction, or termination of, or a failure to provide or make payment (in whole or in part) for, a benefit resulting from the application of any utilization review, as well as a failure to cover an item or service for which benefits are otherwise provided because it is determined to be experimental or investigational or not medically necessary or appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a plan providing disability benefits, the term “adverse benefit determination” also means any rescission of disability coverage with respect to a participant or beneficiary (whether or not, in connection with the rescission, there is an adverse effect on any particular benefit at that time). For this purpose, the term “rescission” means a cancellation or discontinuance of coverage that has retroactive effect, except to the extent it is attributable to a failure to timely pay required premiums or contributions towards the cost of coverage.
</P>
<P>(5) The term “notice” or “notification” means the delivery or furnishing of information to an individual in a manner that satisfies the standards of 29 CFR 2520.104b-1(b) as appropriate with respect to material required to be furnished or made available to an individual. 
</P>
<P>(6) The term “group health plan” means an employee welfare benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Act to the extent that such plan provides “medical care” within the meaning of section 733(a) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(7) The term “health care professional” means a physician or other health care professional licensed, accredited, or certified to perform specified health services consistent with State law. 
</P>
<P>(8) A document, record, or other information shall be considered “relevant” to a claimant's claim if such document, record, or other information 
</P>
<P>(i) Was relied upon in making the benefit determination; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Was submitted, considered, or generated in the course of making the benefit determination, without regard to whether such document, record, or other information was relied upon in making the benefit determination; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrates compliance with the administrative processes and safeguards required pursuant to paragraph (b)(5) of this section in making the benefit determination; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a group health plan or a plan providing disability benefits, constitutes a statement of policy or guidance with respect to the plan concerning the denied treatment option or benefit for the claimant's diagnosis, without regard to whether such advice or statement was relied upon in making the benefit determination. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Apprenticeship plans.</I> This section does not apply to employee benefit plans that solely provide apprenticeship training benefits.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Standards for culturally and linguistically appropriate notices.</I> A plan is considered to provide relevant notices in a “culturally and linguistically appropriate manner” if the plan meets all the requirements of paragraph (o)(1) of this section with respect to the applicable non-English languages described in paragraph (o)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requirements.</I> (i) The plan must provide oral language services (such as a telephone customer assistance hotline) that include answering questions in any applicable non-English language and providing assistance with filing claims and appeals in any applicable non-English language;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan must provide, upon request, a notice in any applicable non-English language; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan must include in the English versions of all notices, a statement prominently displayed in any applicable non-English language clearly indicating how to access the language services provided by the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicable non-English language.</I> With respect to an address in any United States county to which a notice is sent, a non-English language is an applicable non-English language if ten percent or more of the population residing in the county is literate only in the same non-English language, as determined in guidance published by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Applicability dates and temporarily applicable provisions.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (p)(2), (p)(3) and (p)(4) of this section, this section shall apply to claims filed under a plan on or after January 1, 2002.
</P>
<P>(2) This section shall apply to claims filed under a group health plan on or after the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after July 1, 2002, but in no event later than January 1, 2003.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraphs (b)(7), (g)(1)(vii) and (viii), (j)(4)(ii), (j)(6) and (7), (l)(2), (m)(4)(ii), and (o) of this section shall apply to claims for disability benefits filed under a plan after April 1, 2018, in addition to the other paragraphs in this rule applicable to such claims.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to claims for disability benefits filed under a plan from January 18, 2017 through April 1, 2018, this paragraph (p)(4) shall apply instead of paragraphs (g)(1)(vii), (g)(1)(viii), (h)(4), (j)(6) and (j)(7).
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a notification of benefit determination and a notification of benefit determination on review by a plan providing disability benefits, the notification shall set forth, in a manner calculated to be understood by the claimant—
</P>
<P>(A) If an internal rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion was relied upon in making the adverse determination, either the specific rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion; or a statement that such a rule, guideline, protocol, or other similar criterion was relied upon in making the adverse determination and that a copy of such rule, guideline, protocol, or other criterion will be provided free of charge to the claimant upon request; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the adverse benefit determination is based on a medical necessity or experimental treatment or similar exclusion or limit, either an explanation of the scientific or clinical judgment for the determination, applying the terms of the plan to the claimant's medical circumstances, or a statement that such explanation will be provided free of charge upon request.
</P>
<P>(ii) The claims procedures of a plan providing disability benefits will not, with respect to claims for such benefits, be deemed to provide a claimant with a reasonable opportunity for a full and fair review of a claim and adverse benefit determination unless the claims procedures comply with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(ii) through (iv) and (h)(3)(i) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 70265, Nov. 21, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 35887, July 9, 2001; 81 FR 92341, Dec. 19, 2016; 82 FR 56566, Nov. 29, 2017; 85 FR 31924, May 27, 2020; 85 FR 39831, July 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.521-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.521-1   Cease and desist and seizure orders under section 521.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 521(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1151(a), authorizes the Secretary of Labor to issue an ex parte cease and desist order if it appears to the Secretary that the alleged conduct of a multiple employer welfare arrangement (MEWA) under section 3(40) of ERISA is fraudulent, or creates an immediate danger to the public safety or welfare, or is causing or can be reasonably expected to cause significant, imminent, and irreparable public injury. Section 521(e) of ERISA authorizes the Secretary to issue a summary seizure order if it appears that a MEWA is in a financially hazardous condition. An order may apply to a MEWA or to persons having custody or control of assets of the subject MEWA, any authority over management of the subject MEWA, or any role in the transaction of the subject MEWA's business. This section sets forth standards and procedures for the Secretary to issue ex parte cease and desist and summary seizure orders and for administrative review of the issuance of such cease and desist orders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> When used in this section, the following terms shall have the meanings ascribed in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Multiple employer welfare arrangement</I> (MEWA) is an arrangement as defined in section 3(40) of ERISA that either is an employee welfare benefit plan subject to Title I of ERISA or offers benefits in connection with one or more employee welfare benefit plans subject to Title I of ERISA. For purposes of section 521 of ERISA, a MEWA does not include a health insurance issuer (including a health maintenance organization) that is licensed to offer or provide health insurance coverage to the public and employers at large in each State in which it offers or provides health insurance coverage, and that, in each such State, is subject to comprehensive licensure, solvency, and examination requirements that the State customarily requires for issuing health insurance policies to the public and employers at large. The term health insurance issuer does not include group health plans. For purposes of this section, the term “health insurance coverage” has the same meaning as in ERISA section 733(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The conduct of a MEWA is fraudulent:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) When the MEWA or any person acting as an agent or employee of the MEWA commits an act or omission knowingly and with an intent to deceive or defraud plan participants, plan beneficiaries, employers or employee organizations, or other members of the public, the Secretary, or a State regarding:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial condition of the MEWA (including the MEWA's solvency and the management of plan assets);
</P>
<P>(B) The benefits provided by or in connection with the MEWA;
</P>
<P>(C) The management, control, or administration of the MEWA;
</P>
<P>(D) The existing or lawful regulatory status of the MEWA under Federal or State law; or,
</P>
<P>(E) Any other material fact, as determined by the Secretary, relating to the MEWA or its operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fraudulent conduct includes any false statement regarding any of paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (b)(2)(i)(E) of this section that is made with knowledge of its falsity or that is made with reckless indifference to the statement's truth or falsity, and the knowing concealment of material information regarding any of paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (b)(2)(i)(E) of this section. Examples of fraudulent conduct include, but are not limited to, misrepresenting the terms of the benefits offered by or in connection with the MEWA or the financial condition of the MEWA or engaging in deceptive acts or omissions in connection with marketing or sales or fees charged to employers or employee organizations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>The conduct of a MEWA creates an immediate danger to the public safety or welfare</I> if the conduct of a MEWA or any person acting as an agent or employee of the MEWA impairs, or threatens to impair, a MEWA's ability to pay claims or otherwise unreasonably increases the risk of nonpayment of benefits. Intent to create an immediate danger is not required for this criterion. Examples of such conduct include, but are not limited to, a systematic failure to properly process or pay benefit claims, including failure to establish and maintain a claims procedure that complies with the Secretary's claims procedure regulations (29 CFR 2560.503-1 and 29 CFR 2590.715-2719), failure to establish or maintain a recordkeeping system that tracks the claims made, paid, or processed or the MEWA's financial condition, a substantial failure to meet applicable disclosure, reporting, and other filing requirements, including the annual reporting and registration requirements under sections 101(g) and 104 of ERISA, failure to establish and implement a policy or method to determine that the MEWA is actuarially sound with appropriate reserves and adequate underwriting, failure to comply with a cease and desist order issued by a government agency or court, and failure to hold plan assets in trust.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>The conduct of a MEWA is causing or can be reasonably expected to cause significant, imminent, and irreparable public injury:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) If the conduct of a MEWA, or of a person acting as an agent or employee of the MEWA, is having, or is reasonably expected to have, a significant and imminent negative effect on one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) An employee welfare benefit plan that is, or offers benefits in connection with, a MEWA;
</P>
<P>(B) The sponsor of such plan or the employer or employee organization that makes payments for benefits provided by or in connection with a MEWA; or
</P>
<P>(C) Plan participants and plan beneficiaries; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If it is not reasonable to expect that such effect will be fully repaired or rectified.
</P>
<P>Intent to cause injury is not required for this criterion. Examples of such conduct include, but are not limited to, conversion or concealment of property of the MEWA; improper disposal, transfer, or removal of funds or other property of the MEWA, including unreasonable compensation or payments to MEWA operators and service providers (e.g. brokers, marketers, and third party administrators); employment by the MEWA of a person prohibited from such employment pursuant to section 411 of ERISA, and embezzlement from the MEWA. For purposes of section 521 of ERISA, compensation that would be excessive under 26 CFR 1.162-7 will be considered unreasonable compensation or payments for purposes of this regulation. Depending upon the facts and circumstances, compensation may be unreasonable under this regulation even it is not excessive under 26 CFR 1.162-7.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>A MEWA is in a financially hazardous condition if:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary has probable cause to believe that a MEWA:
</P>
<P>(A) Is, or is in imminent danger of becoming, unable to pay benefit claims as they come due, or
</P>
<P>(B) Has sustained, or is in imminent danger of sustaining, a significant loss of assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A person responsible for management, control, or administration of the MEWA's assets is the subject of a cease and desist order issued by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(6) A <I>person,</I> for purposes of this section, is an individual, partnership, corporation, employee welfare benefit plan, association, or other entity or organization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Temporary cease and desist order.</I> (1)(i) The Secretary may issue a temporary cease and desist order when the Secretary finds there is reasonable cause to believe that the conduct of a MEWA, or any person acting as an agent or employee of the MEWA, is -
</P>
<P>(A) Fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(B) Creates an immediate danger to the public safety or welfare; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is causing or can be reasonably expected to cause significant, imminent, and irreparable public injury.
</P>
<P>(ii) A single act or omission may be the basis for a temporary cease and desist order.
</P>
<P>(2) A temporary cease and desist order, as the Secretary determines is necessary and appropriate to stop the conduct on which the order is based, and to protect the interests of plan participants, plan beneficiaries, employers or employee organizations, or other members of the public, may—
</P>
<P>(i) Prohibit specific conduct or prohibit the transaction of any business of the MEWA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibit any person from taking specified actions, or exercising authority or control, concerning funds or property of a MEWA or of any employee benefit plan, regardless of whether such funds or property have been commingled with other funds or property; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) Bar any person either directly or indirectly, from providing management, administrative, or other services to any MEWA or to an employee benefit plan or trust.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary may require documentation from the subject of the order verifying compliance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of order on other remedies.</I> The issuance of a temporary or final cease and desist order shall not foreclose the Secretary from seeking additional remedies under ERISA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administrative hearing.</I> (1) A temporary cease and desist order shall become a final order as to any MEWA or other person named in the order 30 days after such person receives notice of the order unless, within this period, such person requests a hearing in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(2) A person requesting a hearing must file a written request and an answer to the order showing cause why the order should be modified or set aside. The request and the answer must be filed in accordance with 29 CFR part 2571 and § 18.4 of this title.
</P>
<P>(3) A hearing shall be held expeditiously following the receipt of the request for a hearing by the Office of the Administrative Law Judges, unless the parties mutually consent, in writing, to a later date.
</P>
<P>(4) The decision of the administrative law judge shall be issued expeditiously after the conclusion of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) The Secretary must offer evidence supporting the findings made in issuing the order that there is reasonable cause to believe that the MEWA (or a person acting as an employee or agent of the MEWA) engaged in conduct specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The person requesting the hearing has the burden to show that the order should be modified or set aside. To meet this burden such person must show by a preponderance of the evidence that the MEWA (or a person acting as an employee or agent of the MEWA) did not engage in conduct specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or must show that the requirements imposed by the order, are, in whole or part, arbitrary and capricious.
</P>
<P>(7) Any temporary cease and desist order for which a hearing has been requested shall remain in effect and enforceable, pending completion of the administrative proceedings, unless stayed by the Secretary, an administrative law judge, or by a court.
</P>
<P>(8) The Secretary may require that the hearing and all evidence be treated as confidential.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Summary seizure order.</I> (1) Subject to paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section, the Secretary may issue a summary seizure order when the Secretary finds there is probable cause to believe that a MEWA is in a financially hazardous condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, the Secretary, before issuing a summary seizure order to remove assets and records from the control and management of the MEWA or any persons having custody or control of such assets or records, shall obtain judicial authorization from a federal court in the form of a warrant or other appropriate form of authorization and may at that time pursue other actions such as those set forth in paragraph (f)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Secretary reasonably believes that any delay in issuing the order is likely to result in the removal, dissipation, or concealment of plan assets or records, the Secretary may issue and serve a summary seizure order before seeking court authorization. Promptly following service of the order, the Secretary shall seek authorization from a federal court and may at that time pursue other actions such as those set forth in paragraph (f)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) A summary seizure order may authorize the Secretary to take possession or control of all or part of the books, records, accounts, and property of the MEWA (including the premises in which the MEWA transacts its business) to protect the benefits of plan participants, plan beneficiaries, employers or employee organizations, or other members of the public, and to safeguard the assets of employee welfare benefit plans. The order may also direct any person having control and custody of the assets that are the subject of the order not to allow any transfer or disposition of such assets except upon the written direction of the Secretary, or of a receiver or independent fiduciary appointed by a court.
</P>
<P>(5) In connection with or following the execution of a summary seizure order, the Secretary may—
</P>
<P>(i) Secure court appointment of a receiver or independent fiduciary to perform any necessary functions of the MEWA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtain court authorization for the Secretary, the receiver or independent fiduciary to take any other action to seize, secure, maintain, or preserve the availability of the MEWA's assets; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtain such other appropriate relief available under ERISA to protect the interest of employee welfare benefit plan participants, plan beneficiaries, employers or employee organizations or other members of the public. Other appropriate equitable relief may include the liquidation and winding up of the MEWA's affairs and, where applicable, the affairs of any person sponsoring the MEWA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effective date of orders.</I> Cease and desist and summary seizure orders are effective immediately upon issuance by the Secretary and shall remain effective, except to the extent and until any provision is modified or the order is set aside by the Secretary, an administrative law judge, or a court.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Service of orders.</I> (1) As soon as practicable after the issuance of a temporary or final cease and desist order and no later than five business days after issuance of a summary seizure order, the Secretary shall serve the order either:
</P>
<P>(i) By delivering a copy to the person who is the subject of the order. If the person is a partnership, service may be made to any partner. If the person is a corporation, association, or other entity or organization, service may be made to any officer of such entity or any person designated for service of process under State law or the applicable plan document. If the person is an employee welfare benefit plan, service may be made to a trustee or administrator. A person's attorney may accept service on behalf of such person;
</P>
<P>(ii) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of such person or attorney; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By mailing a copy to the last known address of such person or attorney.
</P>
<P>(2) If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If service is done by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee.
</P>
<P>(3) Service of a temporary or final cease and desist order and of a summary seizure order shall include a statement of the Secretary's findings giving rise to the order, and, where applicable, a copy of any warrant or other authorization by a court.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13805, Mar. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.521-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.521-2   Disclosure of order and proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding § 2560.521-1(e)(8), the Secretary shall make available to the public final cease and desist and summary seizure orders or modifications and terminations of such final orders.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as prohibited by applicable law, and at his or her discretion, the Secretary may disclose the issuance of a temporary cease and desist order or summary seizure order and information and evidence of any proceedings and hearings related to an order, to any Federal, State, or foreign authorities responsible for enforcing laws that apply to MEWAs and parties associated with, or providing services to, MEWAs.
</P>
<P>(c) The sharing of such documents, material, or other information and evidence under this section does not constitute a waiver of any applicable privilege or claim of confidentiality.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13805, Mar. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.521-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.521-3   Effect on other enforcement authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary's authority under section 521 shall not be construed to limit the Secretary's ability to exercise his or her enforcement or investigatory authority under any other provision of title I of ERISA. 29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I> The Secretary may, in his or her sole discretion, initiate court proceedings without using the procedures in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13805, Mar. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2560.521-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.7.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2560.521-4   Cross-reference.</HEAD>
<P>See 29 CFR 2571.1 through 2571.13 for procedural rules relating to administrative hearings under section 521 of ERISA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13805, Mar. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2570" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2570—PROCEDURAL REGULATIONS UNDER THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 8477; 29 U.S.C. 1002(40), 1021, 1108, 1132, and 1135; sec. 102, Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App at 672 (2006); Secretary of Labor's Order 3-2010, 75 FR 55354 (September 10, 2010)
</PSPACE><P>Subpart I is also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1132(c)(8).
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 37476, Sept. 26, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Procedures for the Assessment of Civil Sanctions Under ERISA Section 502(i)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.1   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this part are applicable to “prohibited transaction penalty proceedings” (as defined in § 2570.2(o) of this part) under section 502(i) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. The rules of procedure for administrative hearings published by the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges at part 18 of this title will apply to matters arising under ERISA section 502(i) except as modified by this section. These proceedings shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible, and the parties shall make every effort to avoid delay at each stage of the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.2" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For prohibited transaction penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of the definitions in § 18.2 of this title: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a judicial-type proceeding leading to the formulation of a final order; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer</I> is defined for these proceedings as set forth in § 18.5(d)(2) of this title; 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of proceeding</I> is the filing of an answer by the respondent; 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent agreement</I> means any written document containing a specified proposed remedy or other relief acceptable to the Department and consenting parties; 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Final order</I> means the final decision or action of the Department of Labor concerning the assessment of a civil sanction under ERISA section 502(i) against a particular party. Such final order may result from a decision of an administrative law judge or the Secretary, or the failure of a party to invoke the procedures for hearings or appeals under this title. Such a final order shall constitute final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704; 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing</I> means that part of a proceeding which involves the submission of evidence, either by oral presentation or written submission, to the administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice</I> means any document, however designated, issued by the Department of Labor which initiates an adjudicatory proceeding under ERISA section 502(i); 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Order</I> means the whole or any part of a final procedural or substantive disposition of a matter under ERISA section 502(i); 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Party</I> includes a person or agency named or admitted as a party to a proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, exchange or other entity or organization; 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Petition</I> means a written request, made by a person or party, for some affirmative action; 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Pleading</I> means the notice, the answer to the notice, any supplement or amendment thereto, and any reply that may be permitted to any answer, supplement or amendment; 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Prohibited transaction penalty proceeding</I> means a proceeding relating to the assessment of the civil penalty provided for in section 502(i) of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Respondent</I> means the party against whom the Department is seeking to assess a civil sanction under ERISA section 502(i); 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor and includes, pursuant to any delegation of authority by the Secretary, any assistant secretary (including the Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security), administrator, commissioner, appellate body, board, or other official; 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Solicitor</I> means the Solicitor of Labor or his or her delegate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.3" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.3   Service: Copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>For prohibited transaction penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.3 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Copies of all documents shall be served on all parties of record. All documents should clearly designate the docket number, if any, and short title of all matters. All documents shall be delivered or mailed to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges, 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or to the OALJ regional Office to which the proceedings may have been transferred for hearing. Each document filed shall be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By parties.</I> All motions, petitions, pleadings, briefs or other documents shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges with a copy including any attachments to all other parties of record. When a party is represented by an attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney. Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery or by mailing a copy to the last known address. The Department shall be served by delivery to the Associate Solicitor, Plan Benefits Security Division, ERISA Section 502(i) Proceeding, P.O. Box 1914, Washington, DC 20013. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and date of service. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</I> Service of orders, decisions and all other documents, except notices, shall be made by regular mail to the last known address. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service of notices.</I> (1) Service of notices shall be made either: 
</P>
<P>(i) By delivering a copy to the individual, any partner, any officer of a corporation, or any attorney of record; 
</P>
<P>(ii) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of such individual, partner, officer or attorney; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) By mailing a copy to the last known address of such individual, partner, officer or attorney. 
</P>
<P>(2) If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If done by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form of pleadings.</I> (1) Every pleading shall contain information indicating the name of the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) as the agency under which the proceeding is instituted, the title of the proceeding, the docket number (if any) assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges and a designation of the type of pleading or paper (e.g., notice, motion to dismiss, etc.). The pleading or paper shall be signed and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or person representing the party. Although there are no formal specifications for documents, they should be typewritten when possible on standard size 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper. 
</P>
<P>(2) Illegible documents, whether handwritten, typewritten, photocopied, or otherwise, will not be accepted. Papers may be reproduced by any duplicating process provided all copies are clear and legible. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 37476, Sept. 26, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 7191, Feb. 11, 2000; 68 FR 17508, Apr. 9, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.4" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.4   Parties.</HEAD>
<P>For prohibited transaction penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.10 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>party</I> wherever used in these rules shall include any natural person, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, firm, partnership, trustee, receiver, agency, public or private organization, or government agency. A party against whom a civil sanction is sought shall be designated as “respondent.” The Department shall be designated as the “complainant.” 
</P>
<P>(b) Other persons or organizations shall be permitted to participate as parties only if the administrative law judge finds that the final decision could directly and adversely affect them or the class they represent, that they may contribute materially to the disposition of the proceedings and their interest is not adequately represented by existing parties, and that in the discretion of the administrative law judge the participation of such persons or organizations would be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) A person or organization not named as a respondent wishing to participate as a party under this section shall submit a petition to the administrative law judge within fifteen (15) days after the person or organization has knowledge of or should have known about the proceeding. The petition shall be filed with the administrative law judge and served on each person or organization who has been made a party at the time of filing. Such petition shall concisely state: 
</P>
<P>(1) Petitioner's interest in the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(2) How his or her participation as a party will contribute materially to the disposition of the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(3) Who will appear for petitioner; 
</P>
<P>(4) The issues on which petitioner wishes to participate; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(d) Objections to the petition may be filed by a party within fifteen (15) days of the filing of the petition. If objections to the petition are filed, the administrative law judge shall then determine whether petitioners have the requisite interest to be a party in the proceedings, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. Where petitions to participate as parties are made by individuals or groups with common interests, the administrative law judge may request all such petititioners to designate a single representative, or he or she may recognize one or more of such petitioners. The administrative law judge shall give each such petitioner as well as the parties, written notice of the decision on his or her petition. For each petition granted, the administrative law judge shall provide a brief statement of the basis of the decision. If the petition is denied, he or she shall briefly state the grounds for denial and shall then treat the petition as a request for participation as amicus curiae. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.5" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.5   Consequences of default.</HEAD>
<P>For prohibited transaction penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.5(b) of this title. Failure of the respondent to file an answer within the 30 day time period provided in § 18.5 of this title shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of his right to appear and contest the allegations of the notice, and such failure shall be deemed to be an admission of the facts as alleged in the notice for purposes of the prohibited transaction penalty proceeding. Such notice shall then become the final order of the Secretary, except that the administrative law judge may set aside a default entered under this provision where there is proof of defective notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.6" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.6   Consent order or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>For prohibited transaction penalty proceedings, the following shall apply in lieu of § 18.9 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding, but at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties jointly may move to defer the hearing for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of a settlement or an agreement containing findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such deferment and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the administrative law judge, after consideration of such factors as the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties and the probability of reaching an agreement which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the order and decision entered into in accordance with the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(5) That the order and decision of the administrative law judge shall be final agency action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, but, in any case, at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties or their authorized representative or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement containing consent findings and an order to the administrative law judge; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the administrative law judge that the parties have reached a full settlement and have agreed to dismissal of the action subject to compliance with the terms of the settlement; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the administrative law judge that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event a settlement agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the administrative law judge shall issue a decision incorporating such findings and agreement within thirty (30) days of his receipt of such document. The decision of the administrative law judge shall incorporate all of the findings, terms, and conditions of the settlement agreement and consent order of the parties. Such decision shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement without consent of all parties.</I> In cases in which some, but not all, of the parties to a proceeding submit a consent agreement to the administrative law judge, the following procedure shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If all of the parties have not consented to the proposed settlement submitted to the administrative law judge, then such non-consenting parties must receive notice, and a copy, of the proposed settlement at the time it is submitted to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-consenting party shall have fifteen (15) days to file any objections to the proposed settlement with the administrative law judge and all other parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If any party submits an objection to the proposed settlement, the administrative law judge shall decide within thirty (30) days after receipt of such objections whether he shall sign or reject the proposed settlement. Where the record lacks substantial evidence upon which to base a decision or there is a genuine issue of material fact, then the administrative law judge may establish procedures for the purpose of receiving additional evidence upon which a decision on the contested issues may reasonably be based;
</P>
<P>(4) If there are no objections to the proposed settlement, or if the administrative law judge decides to sign the proposed settlement after reviewing any such objections, the administrative law judge shall incorporate the consent agreement into a decision meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.7" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.7   Scope of discovery.</HEAD>
<P>For prohibited transaction penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.14 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) A party may file a motion to conduct discovery with the administrative law judge. The motion for discovery shall be granted by the administrative law judge only upon a showing of good cause. In order to establish “good cause” for the purposes of this section, a party must show that the discovery requested relates to a genuine issue as to a material fact that is relevant to the proceeding. The order of the administrative law judge shall expressly limit the scope and terms of discovery to that for which “good cause” has been shown, as provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may obtain discovery of documents and tangible things otherwise discoverable under paragraph (a) of this section and prepared in anticipation of or for the hearing by or for another party's representative (including his or her attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or agent) only upon a showing that the party seeking discovery has substantial need of the materials or information in the preparation of his or her case and that he or she is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials or information by other means. In ordering discovery of such materials when the required showing has been made, the administrative law judge shall protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of an attorney or other representative of a party concerning the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.8" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.8   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>For prohibited transaction penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.41 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>No genuine issue of material fact.</I> (1) Where no genuine issue of a material fact is found to have been raised, the administrative law judge may issue a decision which, in the absence of an appeal pursuant to §§ 2570.10-2570.12 of this part, shall become a final order.
</P>
<P>(2) A decision made under this paragraph shall include a statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons therefor, on all issues presented; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any terms and conditions of the rule or order.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any decision under this paragraph shall be served on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings on issue of fact.</I> Where a genuine question of material fact is raised, the administrative law judge shall, and in any other case may, set the case for an evidentiary hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.9" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.9   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>For prohibited transaction penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.57 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within twenty (20) days of the filing of the transcript of the testimony or such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge, subject to the judge's discretion, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and brief shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the administrative law judge.</I> Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of the proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within thirty (30) days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the administrative law judge shall make his or her decision. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law with reasons therefor upon each material issue of fact of law presented on the record. The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based upon the whole record. In a contested case in which the Department and the Respondent have presented their positions to the administrative law judge pursuant to the procedures for prohibited transaction penalty proceedings as set forth in this part, the penalty (if any) which may be included in the decision of the administrative law judge shall be limited to the sanction expressly provided for in section 502(i) of ERISA. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. The decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 unless an appeal is made pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 2570.10 through 2570.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.10" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.10   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may review a decision of an administrative law judge. Such a review may occur only when a party files a notice of appeal from a decision of an administrative law judge within twenty (20) days of the issuance of such decision. In all other cases, the decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of appeal to the Secretary shall state with specificity the issue(s) in the decision of the administrative law judge on which the party is seeking review. Such notice of appeal must be served on all parties of record.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Secretary shall request the Chief Administrative Law Judge to submit to him a copy of the entire record before the administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.11" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.11   Scope of review.</HEAD>
<P>The review of the Secretary shall not be a <I>de novo</I> proceeding but rather a review of the record established before the administrative law judge. There shall be no opportunity for oral argument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.12" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.12   Procedures for review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Secretary shall establish a briefing schedule which shall be served on all parties of record. Upon motion of one or more of the parties, the Secretary may, in his discretion, permit the submission of reply briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall issue a decision as promptly as possible after receipt of the briefs of the parties. The Secretary may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or in part, the decision on appeal and shall issue a statement of reasons and bases for the action(s) taken. Such decision by the Secretary shall be final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures Governing the Filing and Processing of Prohibited Transaction Exemption Applications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 4691, Jan. 24, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2570.30" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.30   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules of procedure set forth in this subpart apply to applications for prohibited transaction exemptions issued by the Department under the authority of:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 408(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA);
</P>
<P>(2) Section 4975(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code); or
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>See H.R. Rep. No. 1280, 93d Cong., 2d Sess. 310 (1974), and also section 102 of Presidential Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978 (3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 332, reprinted in 5 U.S.C. app. at 672 (2006), and in 92 Stat. 3790 (1978)), effective December 31, 1978, which generally transferred the authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to issue administrative exemptions under section 4975(c)(2) of the Code to the Department.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) The Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986 (FERSA) (5 U.S.C. 8477(c)(3)).
</P>
<P>(b) Under the rules of procedure in this subpart, the Department may conditionally or unconditionally exempt any fiduciary or transaction, or class of fiduciaries or transactions, from all or part of the restrictions imposed by ERISA section 406 and the corresponding restrictions of the Code and FERSA. While administrative exemptions granted under the rules in this subpart are ordinarily prospective in nature, it is possible that an applicant may obtain retroactive relief for past prohibited transactions if, among other things, the Department determines that appropriate safeguards were in place at the time the exemption transaction was consummated, and no plan participants or beneficiaries were harmed by the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) The rules in this subpart govern the filing and processing of applications for both individual and class exemptions that the Department may propose and grant pursuant to the authorities cited in paragraph (a) of this section. The Department may also propose and grant exemptions on its own motion, in which case the procedures relating to publication of notices, hearings, evaluation, and public inspection of the administrative record, and modification or revocation of previously granted exemptions will apply.
</P>
<P>(d) The issuance of an administrative exemption by the Department under the procedural rules in this subpart does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified person with respect to a plan from the obligation to comply with certain other provisions of ERISA, the Code, or FERSA, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which the exemption does not apply, and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of ERISA, if applicable, which require, among other things, fiduciaries to discharge their duties respecting the plan solely in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries of the plan and in a prudent fashion; nor does it affect the requirements of Code section 401(a), including that the plan must operate for the exclusive benefit of the employees of the employer maintaining the plan and their beneficiaries, or the rules with respect to other Code provisions, including that an administrative exemption with respect to a contribution to a pension plan does not affect the deductibility of the contribution under Code section 404.
</P>
<P>(e) The Department will not propose or issue exemptions upon oral request alone, nor will the Department grant exemptions orally. An applicant for an administrative exemption may request and receive oral feedback from Department employees in preparing an exemption application, which will not be binding on the Department in its processing of an exemption application or in its examination or audit of a plan.
</P>
<P>(f) The Department will generally treat any exemption application that is filed solely under ERISA section 408(a) or solely under Code section 4975(c)(2) as an exemption request filed under both ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2) if it relates to a plan that is subject to both ERISA and the Code and the exemption transaction would be prohibited by both ERISA and the corresponding Code provisions.
</P>
<P>(g) The Department issues an administrative exemption at its sole discretion based on the statutory criteria set forth in ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2). The existence of previously issued administrative exemptions is not determinative of whether the Department will propose future exemptions for applications with the same or similar facts, or whether a proposed exemption will contain the same conditions as a previously issued administrative exemption. Previously issued administrative exemptions, however, may inform the Department's determination of whether to propose future exemptions based on the unique facts and circumstances of each application.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.31" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.31   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of the procedures in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) An <I>affiliate of a person</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any person directly or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the person. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(1), the term “control” means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) Any officer, director, partner, employee, or relative (as defined in ERISA section 3(15)) of any such person; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any corporation, partnership, trust, or unincorporated enterprise of which such person is an officer, director, partner, or five percent or more owner.
</P>
<P>(b) A <I>class exemption</I> is an administrative exemption, granted under ERISA section 408(a), Code section 4975(c)(2), and/or 5 U.S.C. 8477(c)(3), which applies to any transaction and party in interest within the class of transactions and parties in interest specified in the exemption when the conditions of the exemption are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Labor and includes the Secretary of Labor or their delegate exercising authority with respect to prohibited transaction exemptions to which this subpart applies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption transaction</I> means the transaction or transactions for which an exemption is requested.
</P>
<P>(e) An <I>individual exemption</I> is an administrative exemption, granted under ERISA section 408(a), Code section 4975(c)(2), and/or 5 U.S.C. 8477(c)(3), which applies only to the specific parties in interest and exemption transactions named or otherwise defined in the exemption.
</P>
<P>(f) A <I>party in interest</I> means a person described in ERISA section 3(14) or 5 U.S.C. 8477(a)(4) and includes a disqualified person, as defined in Code section 4975(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Pooled fund</I> means an account or fund for the collective investment of the assets of two or more unrelated plans, including (but not limited to) a pooled separate account maintained by an insurance company and a common or collective trust fund maintained by a bank or similar financial institution.
</P>
<P>(h) A <I>qualified appraisal report</I> is any appraisal report that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is prepared by a qualified independent appraiser; and
</P>
<P>(2) Satisfies all the requirements set forth in § 2570.34(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(i) A <I>qualified independent appraiser</I> is any individual or entity with appropriate training, experience, and facilities to provide a qualified appraisal report regarding the particular asset or property appraised in the report, that is independent of and unrelated to any party in interest engaging in the exemption transaction (and their affiliates). In general, the Department determines an appraiser's independence based on all relevant facts and circumstances, such as the extent to which the plan's counterparty in the transaction participated in or influenced the selection of the appraiser. In making the independence determination, the Department will consider the amount of the appraiser's revenues and projected revenues for the current Federal income tax year (including amounts received for preparing the appraisal report) that will be derived from parties in interest (and their affiliates) relative to the appraiser's revenues from all sources for the appraiser's prior Federal income tax year. The Department generally will not conclude that an appraiser's independence is compromised solely based on the revenues it receives from the parties in interest (and their affiliates) that engaged in the exemption transaction, to the extent that the appraiser neither receives nor is projected to receive more than two (2) percent of its revenues within the current Federal income tax year from the parties in interest (and their affiliates). Although larger percentages merit more stringent scrutiny, an appraiser may be considered independent based upon other facts and circumstances provided that the appraiser neither receives nor is projected to receive more than five (5) percent of its revenues within the current Federal income tax year from parties in interest (and their affiliates) participating in the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(j) A <I>qualified independent fiduciary</I> is any individual or entity with appropriate training, experience, and facilities to act on behalf of the plan regarding the exemption transaction in accordance with the fiduciary duties and responsibilities prescribed by ERISA, that is independent of and unrelated to any party in interest engaging in the exemption transaction (and its affiliates). In general, the Department will make the determination of whether a fiduciary is independent based on all relevant facts and circumstances, such as the extent to which the plan's counterparty in the transaction participated in or influenced the selection of the fiduciary. In making this determination, the Department will also take into account, among other things, the amount of both the fiduciary's revenues and projected revenues for the current Federal income tax year (including amounts received for preparing fiduciary reports) that will be derived from parties in interest engaging in the exemption transaction (and their affiliates) relative to the fiduciary's revenues from all sources for the prior Federal income tax year. The Department generally will not conclude that a fiduciary's independence is compromised solely based on the revenues it receives from parties in interest (and their affiliates) that engaged in the exemption transaction, to the extent that the fiduciary neither receives nor is projected to receive more than two (2) percent of its revenues within the current Federal income tax year from the parties in interest (and their affiliates). Although larger percentages merit more stringent scrutiny, a fiduciary may be considered independent based upon other facts and circumstances provided that the fiduciary neither receives nor is projected to receive more than five (5) percent of its revenues within the current Federal income tax year from the parties in interest (and their affiliates) that engaged in the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(k) A <I>pre-submission applicant</I> is a party that contacts the Department, either orally or in writing, to inquire whether a party with a particular fact pattern would need to submit an exemption application and, if so, what conditions and relief would be applicable. A party that contacts the Department to inquire broadly, without reference to a specific fact pattern, about prohibited transaction exemptions is not a pre-submission applicant.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.32" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.32   Persons who may apply for exemptions and the administrative record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following persons may apply for exemptions:
</P>
<P>(1) Any party in interest to a plan who is or may be a party to the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) Any plan which is a party to the exemption transaction; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an application for an exemption covering a class of parties in interest or a class of transactions, in addition to any person described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, an association or organization representing parties in interest who may be parties to the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) An application by or for a person described in paragraph (a) of this section may be submitted by the applicant or by an authorized representative. An application submitted by an authorized representative of the applicant must include proof of authority in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) A power of attorney; or
</P>
<P>(2) A written certification from the applicant that the representative is authorized to file the application.
</P>
<P>(c) If the authorized representative of an applicant submits an exemption application to the Department together with proof of authority to file the application as required by paragraph (b) of this section, the Department will direct all correspondence and inquiries concerning the application to the representative unless requested to do otherwise by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The administrative record is open for public inspection, pursuant to § 2570.51(a), from the date an applicant submits an application to the Office of Exemption Determinations.
</P>
<P>(2) The administrative record includes, but is not limited to, the initial exemption application and any modifications or supplements thereto; all correspondence with the applicant after the applicant submits the exemption application; and any information provided by the applicant in connection with the exemption application, whether provided orally or in writing (as well as any comments and testimony received by the Department in connection with an application).
</P>
<P>(3) Although the administrative record is open and available to the public only after an applicant submits an exemption application, the record includes any material documents or supporting information that was submitted to the Department in connection with the subject transaction of the application, whether orally or in writing, before formal submission of the application. The administrative record does not include records of communications with the Department which were either not with respect to the subject transaction of the application or not followed by the submission of an exemption application related to those communications.
</P>
<P>(4) If documents are required to be provided in writing, by either the applicant or the Department, the documents may be provided either by mail or electronically, unless otherwise indicated by the Department at its sole discretion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.33" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.33   Applications the Department will not ordinarily consider.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department ordinarily will not consider an application that fails to include all the information required by §§ 2570.34 and 2570.35 (or fails to include current information) or otherwise fails to conform to the requirements in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for an individual exemption relating to a specific exemption transaction or transactions ordinarily will not be considered if the Department has under consideration a class exemption relating to the same type of transaction or transactions. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, the Department may consider such an application if the issuance of the final class exemption is not imminent, and the Department determines that time constraints necessitate consideration of the exemption transaction on an individual basis.
</P>
<P>(c) If a party, excluding a Federal, state, or other governmental entity, designates any information submitted in connection with its exemption application as confidential, the Department will not process the application unless and until the applicant withdraws its claim of confidentiality. By submitting an exemption application, an applicant consents to public disclosure of the entire administrative record pursuant to § 2570.51.
</P>
<P>(d) The Department will not engage a pre-submission applicant or its representative, whether through written correspondence or a conference, if the pre-submission applicant does not:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify and fully describe the exemption transaction; and
</P>
<P>(2) Set forth the prohibited transactions that the applicant believes are applicable.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.34" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.34   Information to be included in every exemption application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applications for exemptions must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name(s), address(es), phone number(s), and email address(es) of the applicant(s);
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description of the exemption transaction, including the identification of all the parties in interest involved, a description of any larger integrated transaction of which the exemption transaction is a part, and a chronology of the events leading up to the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) The identity, address, phone number, and email address of any representatives for the affected plan(s) and parties in interest and what individuals or entities they represent;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of:
</P>
<P>(i) The reason(s) for engaging in the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material benefit that may be received by a party in interest (or its affiliates) as a result of the exemption transaction (including the avoidance of any materially adverse outcome by a party in interest (or its affiliates) as a result of engaging in the exemption transaction); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The costs and benefits of the exemption transaction to the affected plan(s), participants, and beneficiaries, including quantification of those costs and benefits to the extent possible;
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the alternatives to the exemption transaction that did not involve a prohibited transaction that were considered or evaluated by the applicant before submitting its exemption application and the reason(s) why those alternatives were not pursued;
</P>
<P>(6) The prohibited transaction provisions from which exemptive relief is requested and the reason(s) why the exemption transaction would violate each such provision;
</P>
<P>(7) A description of each conflict of interest or potential instance of self-dealing that would be permitted if the exemption is granted;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the exemption transaction is or has been the subject of an investigation or enforcement action by the Department, the Internal Revenue Service, or any other regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(9) The hardship or economic loss, if any, which would result to the person or persons on behalf of whom the exemption is sought, to affected plans, and to their participants and beneficiaries from denial of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(10) With respect to the exemption transaction's definition of affiliate, if applicable, either a statement that the definition of affiliate set forth in § 2570.31(a) is applicable or a statement setting forth why a different affiliate definition should be applied.
</P>
<P>(b) All applications for exemption must also contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement explaining why the requested exemption would meet the requirements of ERISA section 408(a) by being—
</P>
<P>(i) Administratively feasible for the Department;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the interests of affected plans and their participants and beneficiaries; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of affected plans.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that either:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The exemption transaction will be in the best interest of the plan and its participants and beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(B) That all compensation received, directly or indirectly, by a party in interest (and its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction does not exceed reasonable compensation within the meaning of ERISA section 408(b)(2) and Code section 4975(d)(2); and
</P>
<P>(C) That all statements to the Department, the plan, or, if applicable, the qualified independent fiduciary or qualified independent appraiser about the exemption transaction and other relevant matters are not materially misleading at the time the statements are made; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Explains why the exemption standards in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (C) of this section are not applicable to the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), an exemption transaction is in the best interest of a plan if the plan fiduciary causing the plan to enter into the exemption transaction determines, with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing, that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters would, in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims, enter into the exemption transaction based on the circumstances and needs of the plan. Such fiduciary shall not place the financial or other interests of itself, a party in interest, or any affiliate ahead of the interests of the plan or subordinate the plan's interests to itself, or any other party or affiliate.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to the notification of interested persons required by § 2570.43:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the interested persons to whom the applicant intends to provide notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) The manner in which the applicant will provide such notice; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An estimate of the time the applicant will need to furnish notice to all interested persons following publication of a notice of the proposed exemption in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(4) If any party to the exemption transaction has requested either an advisory opinion from the Department or any similar opinion or guidance from another Federal, state, or regulatory body with respect to any issue relating to the exemption transaction—
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the opinion, letter, or similar document concluding the Department's or other entity's action on the request; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Department or other entity has not yet concluded its action on the request:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the request or the date on which it was submitted and, solely with respect to an advisory opinion request to the Department, the Department's correspondence control number as indicated in the acknowledgment letter; and
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation of the effect the issuance of an advisory opinion by the Department or similar opinion or guidance from another Federal, state, or regulatory body would have upon the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) If the application is to be signed by anyone other than the party in interest seeking exemptive relief on their own behalf, a statement which—
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the individual signing the application and their position or title; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Briefly explains the basis of their familiarity with the matters discussed in the application.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) A declaration in the following form:
</P>
<P>I certify that I am familiar with the matters discussed in this application and, to the best of my knowledge and belief, the representations made in this application are true and correct.
</P>
<P>(ii) This certification must be dated and signed by:
</P>
<P>(A) The applicant, in its individual capacity, in the case of an individual party in interest seeking exemptive relief on their own behalf;
</P>
<P>(B) A corporate officer or partner if the applicant is a corporation or partnership;
</P>
<P>(C) A designated officer or official if the applicant is an association, organization, or other unincorporated enterprise; or
</P>
<P>(D) The plan fiduciary that has the authority, responsibility, and control with respect to the exemption transaction if the applicant is a plan.
</P>
<P>(7) If an applicant communicated with the Department either orally or in writing before submitting an exemption application for the exemption transaction, a statement setting forth the date(s) and with whom the applicant communicated before submitting the application.
</P>
<P>(c) Statements and documents from a qualified independent appraiser, auditor, or accountant, such as appraisal reports, analyses of market conditions, audits, or financial documents submitted to support an application for exemption must be accompanied by a statement of consent from such appraiser, auditor, or accountant acknowledging that the statement is being submitted to the Department as part of an exemption application. The statements by the qualified independent appraiser, auditor, or accountant must also contain the following written information:
</P>
<P>(1) A signed and dated certification stating that, to the best of the qualified independent appraiser's, auditor's, or accountant's knowledge and belief, the representations made in such statement are true and correct;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the qualified independent appraiser's, auditor's, or accountant's engagement letter and, if applicable, contract with the plan describing the specific duties the appraiser, auditor, or accountant shall undertake. The letter or contract may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include any provision that provides for the direct or indirect indemnification or reimbursement of the independent appraiser, auditor, or accountant by the plan or another party for any failure to adhere to its contractual obligations or to Federal and state laws applicable to the appraiser's, auditor's, or accountant's work. However, the letter or contract may include a provision providing for reimbursement of legal expenses with respect to claims for any failure to adhere to the appraiser's, auditor's, or accountant's contractual obligations or to Federal and state laws applicable to the appraiser's, auditor's, or accountant's work, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The plan determines that the reimbursement is prudent following a good faith determination that the appraiser, auditor, or accountant likely did not fail to adhere to the independent fiduciary's contractual obligations or to Federal and state laws applicable to the appraiser's, auditor's, or accountant's work and will be able to repay the plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) The letter or contract requires the appraiser, auditor, or accountant to repay all of the reimbursements, in a timely fashion, in the event the appraiser, auditor, or accountant enters into a settlement agreement regarding any asserted failure to adhere to its contractual obligations, or to state or Federal laws, or has been found liable for breach of contract or violation of any Federal or state laws applicable to the appraiser's, auditor's, or accountant's work; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Waive any rights, claims, or remedies of the plan or its participants and beneficiaries under ERISA, the Code, or other Federal and state laws against the independent appraiser, auditor, or accountant with respect to the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of the qualified independent appraiser's, auditor's, or accountant's qualifications to serve in such capacity;
</P>
<P>(4) A detailed description of any relationship that the qualified independent appraiser, auditor, or accountant has had or may have with the plan or any party in interest involved in the exemption transaction or its affiliates that may influence the appraiser, auditor, or accountant, including a description of any past engagements with the appraiser, auditor, or accountant;
</P>
<P>(5) A written appraisal report prepared by the qualified independent appraiser, which determines, to the best of the qualified independent appraiser's ability and in accordance with professional appraisal standards, the fair market value of the subject asset(s), without bias towards the plan's counterparty in the transaction or other interested parties:
</P>
<P>(i) The report must describe the method(s) used in determining the fair market value of the subject asset(s) and an explanation of why such method best reflects the fair market value of the asset(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) The report must consider any special benefit that a party in interest involved in the exemption transaction may derive from control of the asset(s), such as from owning an adjacent parcel of real property or gaining voting control over a company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The report must be current and not more than one year old from the date of the exemption transaction, and a written update must be prepared by the qualified independent appraiser affirming the accuracy of the appraisal as of the date of the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(6) If the subject of the appraisal report is real property, the qualified independent appraiser shall submit a written representation that they are a member of a professional organization of appraisers that can sanction its members for misconduct;
</P>
<P>(7) If the subject of the appraisal report is an asset other than real property, the qualified independent appraiser shall submit a written representation describing the appraiser's prior experience in valuing assets of the same type; and
</P>
<P>(8) The qualified independent appraiser shall submit a written representation disclosing the percentage of its current revenue that is derived from any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction; in general, such percentage shall be computed with respect to the two separate disclosures by comparing, in fractional form:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the appraiser's projected revenues from the current Federal income tax year (including amounts received from preparing the appraisal report) that will be derived from any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction (expressed as a numerator); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The appraiser's revenues from all sources for the prior Federal income tax year (expressed as a denominator).
</P>
<P>(d) For those exemption transactions requiring the retention of a qualified independent appraiser, the applicant must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A representation that the independent fiduciary prudently selected the appraiser after diligent review of the appraiser's technical training and proficiency with respect to the type of valuation at issue, the appraiser's independence from the plan's counterparties in the exemption transaction, and the absence of any material conflicts of interest with respect to the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) A representation that the appraiser is independent within the meaning of § 2571.31(i); and
</P>
<P>(3) A representation that the independent appraiser has appropriate technical training and proficiency with respect to the specific details of the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) For those exemption transactions requiring the retention of a qualified independent fiduciary to represent the interests of the plan, the applicant must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A representation that an appropriate fiduciary, without material conflicts of interest, prudently selected the independent fiduciary after diligent review of the independent fiduciary's technical training and proficiency with respect to ERISA, the Code, and the specific details of the exemption transaction, as well as the sufficiency of the independent fiduciary's fiduciary liability insurance;
</P>
<P>(2) A representation that the fiduciary retained to act as the independent fiduciary is independent within the meaning of § 2570.31(j);
</P>
<P>(3) A representation that the independent fiduciary has appropriate technical training and proficiency with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) ERISA and the Code; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific details of the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(f) For exemption transactions requiring the retention of a qualified independent fiduciary to represent the interests of the plan, a statement must be submitted by such independent fiduciary that contains the following written information:
</P>
<P>(1) A signed and dated certification that, to the best of the qualified independent fiduciary's knowledge and belief, all the representations made in such statement are true and correct;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the qualified independent fiduciary's engagement letter and, if applicable, contract with the plan describing the fiduciary's specific duties. The letter or contract may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Contain any provisions that violate ERISA section 410;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include any provision that provides for the direct or indirect indemnification or reimbursement of the independent fiduciary by the plan or other party for any failure to adhere to its contractual obligations or to state or Federal laws applicable to the independent fiduciary's work, except that the letter or contract may include a provision providing for reimbursement of legal expenses with respect to claims for any failure to adhere to the independent fiduciary's contractual obligations or to Federal and state laws applicable to the independent fiduciary's work, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The plan determines that the provision is prudent following a good faith determination that the independent fiduciary likely did not fail to adhere to the independent fiduciary's contractual obligations or to Federal and state laws applicable to the independent fiduciary's work and will be able to repay the plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) The letter or contract requires the independent fiduciary to repay all of the reimbursements, in a timely fashion, if the independent fiduciary enters into a settlement agreement regarding any asserted failure to adhere to its contractual obligations, or to state or Federal law, or has been found liable for breach of contract or violation of any Federal or state laws applicable to the independent fiduciary's work; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Waive any rights, claims, or remedies of the plan under ERISA, state, or Federal law against the independent fiduciary with respect to the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A description of any fiduciary liability insurance policy maintained by the independent fiduciary that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of coverage available to indemnify the plan for damages resulting from a breach by the independent fiduciary of either ERISA, the Code, or any other Federal or state law or its contract or engagement letter; and
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the insurance policy contains an exclusion for actions brought by the Secretary or any other Federal, state, or regulatory body; the plan; or plan participants or beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the bases for the conclusion that the fiduciary is a qualified independent fiduciary, which also must include a summary of that person's or entity's qualifications to serve in such capacity and a description of any prior experience by that person or entity or other demonstrated characteristics of the fiduciary (such as special areas of expertise) that render that person or entity suitable to perform its duties as a qualified independent fiduciary on behalf of the plan with respect to the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(5) A detailed description of any relationship that the qualified independent fiduciary has had or may have with the plan and any party in interest involved in the exemption transaction (or its affiliates);
</P>
<P>(6) An acknowledgement by the qualified independent fiduciary that it understands its duties and responsibilities under ERISA; is acting as a fiduciary of the plan with respect to the exemption transaction; has no material conflicts of interest with respect to the exemption transaction; and is not acting as an agent or representative of the plan sponsor;
</P>
<P>(7) The qualified independent fiduciary's opinion on whether the exemption transaction would be in the interests of the plan and its participants and beneficiaries, protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of the plan, and in compliance with the standards set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (C) of this section, if applicable, along with a statement of the reasons on which the opinion is based;
</P>
<P>(8) If the exemption transaction is continuing in nature, a declaration by the qualified independent fiduciary that it is authorized to take all appropriate actions to safeguard the interests of the plan, and will, during the pendency of the exemption transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor the exemption transaction on behalf of the plan and its participants and beneficiaries on a continuing basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that the exemption transaction remains in the interests of the plan and its participants and beneficiaries and, if not, take any appropriate actions available under the particular circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Enforce compliance with all conditions and obligations imposed on any party dealing with the plan with respect to the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(9) The qualified independent fiduciary shall submit a written representation disclosing the percentage of its current revenue that is derived from any party in interest involved in the exemption transaction (or its affiliates) with respect to both the prior Federal income tax year and current Federal income tax year; in general, such percentage shall be computed with respect to the two disclosures by comparing in fractional form:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the independent fiduciary's projected revenues from the current Federal income tax year that will be derived from parties in interest involved in the exemption transaction and their affiliates (expressed as a numerator); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The independent fiduciary's revenues from all sources (excluding fixed, non-discretionary retirement income) for the prior Federal income tax year (expressed as a denominator);
</P>
<P>(10) A statement that the independent fiduciary has no conflicts of interest with respect to the exemption transaction that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary;
</P>
<P>(11) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that, within the last five years, the independent fiduciary has not been under investigation or examination by, and has not engaged in litigation, or a continuing controversy with the Department, the Internal Revenue Service, the Justice Department, the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, or any other Federal or state entity involving:
</P>
<P>(A) Compliance with provisions of ERISA or FERSA;
</P>
<P>(B) Its representation of or position or employment with any employee benefit plan, including investigations or controversies involving ERISA or the Code, or any other Federal or state law;
</P>
<P>(C) Conduct of the business of a broker, dealer, investment adviser, bank, insurance company, or fiduciary;
</P>
<P>(D) Income tax evasion; or
</P>
<P>(E) Any felony or conspiracy involving the larceny, theft, robbery, extortion, forgery, counterfeiting, fraudulent concealment, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of funds or securities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement describing the applicable investigation, examination, litigation, or controversy; and
</P>
<P>(12)(i)(A) Either a statement that, within the last 13 years, the independent fiduciary has not been:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Convicted or released from imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of any felony involving abuse or misuse of such person's position or employment with an employee benefit plan or a labor organization; any felony arising out of the conduct of the business of a broker, dealer, investment adviser, bank, insurance company, or fiduciary; income tax evasion; any felony involving the larceny, theft, robbery, extortion, forgery, counterfeiting, fraudulent concealment, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of funds or securities; conspiracy or attempt to commit any such crimes or a crime of which any of the foregoing crimes is an element; or any crime identified in ERISA section 411, regardless of whether the conviction occurred in a U.S. or foreign jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Convicted by a foreign court of competent jurisdiction or released from imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of any crime that is substantially equivalent to an offense described in paragraph (f)(12)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) A statement describing a conviction or release from imprisonment described in paragraph (f)(12)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (f), a person shall be deemed to have been “convicted” from the date of the judgment of the trial court (or the date of the judgment of any court in a foreign jurisdiction that is the equivalent of a U.S. Federal or state trial court), regardless of whether that judgment remains under appeal, and regardless of whether the foreign jurisdiction considers a trial court judgment final while under appeal.
</P>
<P>(g) Statements, as applicable, from other third-party experts, including but not limited to economists or market specialists, submitted on behalf of the plan to support an exemption application must be accompanied by a statement of consent from such expert acknowledging that the statement prepared on behalf of the plan is being submitted to the Department as part of an exemption application. Such statements must also contain the following written information:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the expert's engagement letter and, if applicable, contract with the plan describing the specific duties the expert will undertake;
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of the expert's qualifications to serve in such capacity; and
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed description of any relationship that the expert has had or may have with any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction that may influence the actions of the expert.
</P>
<P>(h) An application for exemption may also include a draft of the requested exemption which describes the exemption transaction and parties in interest for which exemptive relief is sought and the specific conditions under which the exemption would apply.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.35" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.35   Information to be included in applications for individual exemptions only.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, every application for an individual exemption must include, in addition to the information specified in § 2570.34, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, email address, telephone number, and type of plan or plans to which the requested exemption applies;
</P>
<P>(2) The Employer Identification Number (EIN) and the plan number (PN) used by such plan or plans in all reporting and disclosure required by the Department (individuals should not submit Social Security numbers);
</P>
<P>(3) Whether any plan or trust affected by the requested exemption is currently under investigation for violation of, or has ever been found by the Department, the Internal Revenue Service, or by a court to have violated, the exclusive benefit rule of Code section 401(a), Code section 4975(c)(1), ERISA sections 406 or 407(a), or 5 U.S.C. 8477(c)(3), including a description of the circumstances surrounding such violation;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether any relief under ERISA section 408(a), Code section 4975(c)(2), or 5 U.S.C. 8477(c)(3) has been requested by, or provided to, the applicant or any parties in interest (or their affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction and, if so, the exemption application number or the prohibited transaction exemption number;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the applicant or any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction is currently, or has been within the last five years, a defendant in any lawsuits or criminal actions concerning its conduct as a fiduciary or party in interest with respect to any plan (other than lawsuits with respect to a routine claim for benefits), and a description of the circumstances of the lawsuits or criminal actions;
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Whether the applicant (including any person described in § 2570.34(b)(6)(ii)) or any of the parties in interest involved in the exemption transaction has, within the last 13 years, been:
</P>
<P>(A) Convicted or released from imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of any felony involving abuse or misuse of such person's position or employment with an employee benefit plan or a labor organization; any felony arising out of the conduct of the business of a broker, dealer, investment adviser, bank, insurance company, or fiduciary; income tax evasion; any felony involving the larceny, theft, robbery, extortion, forgery, counterfeiting, fraudulent concealment, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of funds or securities; conspiracy or attempt to commit any such crimes or a crime of which any of the foregoing crimes is an element; or any crime identified in ERISA section 411, regardless of whether the conviction occurred in a U.S. or foreign jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(B) Convicted by a foreign court of competent jurisdiction or released from imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of any crime, however denominated by the laws of the relevant foreign government, that is substantially equivalent to an offense described in paragraph (a)(6)(i)(A) of this section and a description of the circumstances of any such conviction in paragraph (a)(6)(i)(A) or this paragraph (a)(6)(i)(B); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (a), a person shall be deemed to have been “convicted” from the date of the judgment of the trial court (or the date of the judgment of any court in a foreign jurisdiction that is the equivalent of a U.S. Federal or state trial court), regardless of whether that judgment remains under appeal and regardless of whether the foreign jurisdiction considers a trial court judgment final while under appeal;
</P>
<P>(7) Whether, within the last five years, any plan affected by the exemption transaction, the applicant, or any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction, has been under investigation or examination by, or has been engaged in litigation or a continuing controversy with, the Department, the Internal Revenue Service, the Justice Department, the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, or any other regulatory body involving compliance with provisions of ERISA, FERSA, the Code, or any other Federal or state law involving:
</P>
<P>(i) Compliance with provisions of ERISA or FERSA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Representation of or position or employment with any employee benefit plan, including investigations or controversies involving ERISA or the Code, or any other Federal or state law;
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct of the business of a broker, dealer, investment adviser, bank, insurance company, or fiduciary;
</P>
<P>(iv) Income tax evasion; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any felony or conspiracy involving the larceny, theft, robbery, extortion, forgery, counterfeiting, fraudulent concealment, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of funds or securities. If so, the applicant must provide a brief statement describing the investigation, examination, litigation, or controversy. The Department reserves the right to require the production of additional information or documentation concerning any of the matters in this paragraph (a)(7). In this regard, a denial of the exemption application may result from an applicant's failure to provide additional information requested by the Department;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether any plan affected by the requested exemption has experienced a reportable event under ERISA section 4043, and, if so, a description of the circumstances of any such reportable event;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether a notice of intent to terminate has been filed under ERISA section 4041 with respect to any plan affected by the requested exemption, and, if so, a description of the circumstances for the issuance of the notice;
</P>
<P>(10) Names, addresses, phone numbers, and email addresses of all parties in interest (or their affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(11) The estimated number of participants and beneficiaries in each plan affected by the requested exemption as of the date of the application;
</P>
<P>(12) The percentage of the fair market value of the total assets of each affected plan that is involved in the exemption transaction. If the exemption transaction includes the acquisition of an asset by the plan, the fair market value of the asset to be acquired must be included in both the numerator and denominator of the fraction;
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the exemption transaction has been consummated or will be consummated only if the exemption is granted;
</P>
<P>(14) If the exemption transaction has already been consummated:
</P>
<P>(i) The circumstances which resulted in plan fiduciaries causing the plan(s) to engage in the exemption transaction before obtaining an exemption from the Department;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the exemption transaction has been terminated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the exemption transaction has been corrected as defined in Code section 4975(f)(5);
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether Form 5330, Return of Excise Taxes Related to Employee Benefit Plans, has been filed with the Internal Revenue Service with respect to the exemption transaction; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whether any excise taxes due under Code section 4975(a) and (b), or any civil penalties due under ERISA section 502(i) or (l) by reason of the exemption transaction have been paid. If so, the applicant should submit documentation (<I>e.g.,</I> a canceled check) demonstrating that the excise taxes or civil penalties were paid;
</P>
<P>(15) The name of every person who has authority or investment discretion over any plan assets involved in the exemption transaction and the relationship of each such person to the parties in interest involved in the exemption transaction and the affiliates of such parties in interest;
</P>
<P>(16) Whether the assets of the affected plan(s) are invested, directly or indirectly, in:
</P>
<P>(i) loans to any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Property leased to any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Securities issued by any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction, and, if such investments exist, a statement for each of these three types of investments which indicates:
</P>
<P>(A) The type of investment to which the statement pertains;
</P>
<P>(B) The aggregate fair market value of all investments of this type as reflected in the plan's most recent annual report;
</P>
<P>(C) The approximate percentage of the fair market value of the plan's total assets as shown in such annual report that is represented by all investments of this type; and
</P>
<P>(D) The statutory or administrative exemption covering these investments, if any;
</P>
<P>(17) The approximate aggregate fair market value of the total assets of each affected plan;
</P>
<P>(18) The person(s) or entity who will bear the costs of:
</P>
<P>(i) The exemption application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any commissions, fees, or costs associated with the exemption transaction, and any related transaction; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Notifying interested persons;
</P>
<P>(19) Whether an independent fiduciary is or will be involved in the exemption transaction and, if so, the names of the persons who will bear the cost of the fee payable to such fiduciary; and
</P>
<P>(20) Any prior transaction between:
</P>
<P>(i) The plan or plan sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any party in interest (or its affiliates) involved in the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application for an individual exemption must also include:
</P>
<P>(1) True copies of all contracts, deeds, agreements, and instruments, as well as relevant portions of plan documents, trust agreements, and any other documents bearing on the exemption transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) A discussion of the facts relevant to the exemption transaction that are reflected in the documents listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and an analysis of their bearing on the requested exemption;
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the most recent financial statements of each plan affected by the requested exemption; and
</P>
<P>(4) A net worth statement with respect to any party that is providing a personal guarantee with respect to the exemption transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) Special rules for applications for individual exemption involving pooled funds are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The information required by paragraphs (a)(8) through (12) of this section is not required to be furnished in an application for individual exemption involving one or more pooled funds.
</P>
<P>(2) The information required by paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) and (13) through (19) of this section and by paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section must be furnished in reference to the pooled fund, rather than to the plans participating therein. (For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2), the information required by paragraph (a)(16) of this section relates solely to other pooled fund transactions with, and investments in, parties in interest involved in the exemption transaction which are also sponsors of plans which invest in the pooled fund.)
</P>
<P>(3) The following information must also be furnished—
</P>
<P>(i) The estimated number of plans that are participating (or will participate) in the pooled fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The minimum and maximum limits imposed by the pooled fund (if any) on the portion of the total assets of each plan that may be invested in the pooled fund.
</P>
<P>(4) Additional requirements for applications for individual exemptions involving pooled funds in which certain plans participate are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) This paragraph (c)(4) applies to any application for an individual exemption involving one or more pooled funds in which any plan participating therein—
</P>
<P>(A) Invests an amount which exceeds 20 percent of the total assets of the pooled fund; or
</P>
<P>(B) Covers employees of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The party sponsoring or maintaining the pooled fund, or any affiliate of such party; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any fiduciary with investment discretion over the pooled fund's assets, or any affiliate of such fiduciary.
</P>
<P>(ii) The exemption application must include, with respect to each plan described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, the information required by paragraphs (a)(1) through (3), (5) through (7), (10), (12) through (16), (18), and (19) of this section. The information required by this paragraph (c)(4)(ii) must be furnished in reference to the plan's investment in the pooled fund (<I>e.g.,</I> the names, addresses, phone numbers, and email addresses of all fiduciaries responsible for the plan's investment in the pooled fund (paragraph (a)(10) of this section), the percentage of the assets of the plan invested in the pooled fund (paragraph (a)(12) of this section), whether the plan's investment in the pooled fund has been consummated or will be consummated only if the exemption is granted (paragraph (a)(13) of this section, etc.)).
</P>
<P>(iii) The information required by this paragraph (c)(4) is in addition to the information required by paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section relating to information furnished by reference to the pooled fund.
</P>
<P>(5) The special rule and the additional requirements described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section do not apply to an individual exemption request solely for the investment by a plan in a pooled fund. Such an application must provide the information required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Generally, the Department will consider exemption requests for retroactive relief only when:
</P>
<P>(i) The safeguards necessary for the grant of a prospective exemption were in place at the time the parties entered into the exemption transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan and its participants and beneficiaries have not been harmed by the exemption transaction. An applicant for a retroactive exemption must demonstrate that the responsible plan fiduciaries acted in good faith by taking all appropriate steps necessary to protect the plan from abuse, loss, and risk at the time of the exemption transaction. An applicant should further explain and describe whether the exemption transaction could have been performed without engaging in a prohibited exemption transaction, and whether the goals of the transaction could have been achieved through an alternative transaction that served the aims of the plan equally well.
</P>
<P>(2) Among the factors that the Department will consider in making a finding that an applicant acted in good faith include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The involvement of an independent fiduciary before an exemption transaction occurs who acts on behalf of the plan and is qualified to negotiate, approve, and monitor the exemption transaction; provided, however, the Department may consider, at its sole discretion, an independent fiduciary's appointment and retrospective review after completion of the exemption transaction due to exigent circumstances;
</P>
<P>(ii) The existence of a contemporaneous appraisal by a qualified independent appraiser or reference to an objective third party source, such as a stock or bond index;
</P>
<P>(iii) The existence of a bidding process or evidence of comparable fair market transactions with unrelated third parties;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the applicant has submitted an accurate and complete exemption application that contains documentation of all necessary and relevant facts and representations upon which the applicant relied. In this regard, the Department will accord appropriate weight to facts and representations which are prepared and certified by a source independent of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(v) That the applicant has submitted evidence that the plan fiduciary did not engage in an act or transaction with respect to which the fiduciary should have known, consistent with its ERISA fiduciary duties and responsibilities, was prohibited under ERISA section 406 and/or Code section 4975. In this regard, the Department will accord appropriate weight to the submission of a contemporaneous, reasoned legal opinion of counsel, upon which the plan fiduciary relied in good faith before engaging in the act or transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi) That the applicant has submitted a statement of the circumstances which prompted the submission of the application for exemption and the steps taken by the applicant about the exemption transaction upon discovery of the violation;
</P>
<P>(vii) That the applicant has submitted a statement, prepared and certified by an independent person familiar with the types of transactions for which relief is requested, demonstrating that the terms and conditions of the exemption transaction (including, in the case of an investment, the return in fact realized by the plan) were at least as favorable to the plan as that obtainable in a similar transaction with an unrelated party; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Such other undertakings and assurances with respect to the plan and its participants that may be offered by the applicant which are relevant to the criteria under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) The Department, as a general matter, will not consider requests for retroactive exemptions if transactions or conduct with respect to which an exemption is requested resulted in a loss to the plan, as determined pursuant to the facts existing at the time of the exemption application. In addition, the Department will not consider requests for exemptions if the transactions are inconsistent with the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of ERISA sections 403 or 404 or the exclusive benefit requirements of Code section 401(a).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.36" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.36   Where to file an application.</HEAD>
<P>The Department's prohibited transaction exemption program is administered by the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA). Any exemption application governed by this subpart may be emailed to the Department at <I>e-OED@dol.gov.</I> The applicant is not required to submit a paper copy if an electronic copy is submitted. An applicant may submit a paper copy of the application by mailing it via first-class mail to: Employee Benefits Security Administration, Office of Exemption Determinations, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Suite 400 Washington, DC 20210 or via private carrier service to Employee Benefit Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Office of Exemption Determinations, 122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-2109. The mail or private carrier service addresses, however, are subject to change, and the applicant should confirm the address with the Office of Exemption Determinations before submitting a paper copy of an application.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.37" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.37   Duty to amend and supplement exemption applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the Department's consideration of an exemption application and following any grant by the Department of an exemption request, an applicant must promptly notify the Department in writing if they discover that any material fact or representation contained in the application or in any documents or testimony provided in support of the application was inaccurate at the time it was provided to the Department in support of the application. If any material fact or representation changes during this period, or if anything occurs that may affect the continuing accuracy of any such fact or representation, the applicant must promptly notify the Department in writing of the change. In addition, an applicant must promptly notify the Department in writing if it learns that a material fact or representation has been omitted from the exemption application.
</P>
<P>(b) If, at any time during the pendency of an exemption application, the applicant or any other party in interest who would participate in the exemption transaction becomes the subject of an investigation or enforcement action by the Department, the Internal Revenue Service, the Justice Department, the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, or any other Federal or state governmental entity involving:
</P>
<P>(1) Compliance with provisions of ERISA or FERSA;
</P>
<P>(2) Representation of or position or employment with any employee benefit plan, including investigations or controversies involving ERISA or the Code, or any other Federal or state law;
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct of the business of a broker, dealer, investment adviser, bank, insurance company, or fiduciary;
</P>
<P>(4) Income tax evasion; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any felony or conspiracy involving the larceny, theft, robbery, extortion, forgery, counterfeiting, fraudulent concealment, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of funds or securities, the applicant must promptly notify the Department.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department may require an applicant to provide any documentation it considers necessary to verify any statements contained in the application or in supporting materials or documents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.38" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.38   Tentative denial letters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after reviewing an exemption file, the Department tentatively concludes that it will not propose or grant the exemption, it will notify the applicant in writing. At the same time the Department provides the notification, the Department will also provide a brief statement of the reasons for its tentative denial.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED>
<P>As referenced in § 2570.33(a)(1), the Department will not hold a conference with, or issue a tentative denial letter to, an applicant who does not submit a complete application, or an applicant who does not provide current information.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) An applicant will have 20 days from the date of a tentative denial letter, unless the Department extends the time period at its sole discretion, to request a conference under § 2570.40 and/or to notify the Department of its intent to submit additional information under § 2570.39. If the Department does not receive a request for a conference or a notification of intent to submit additional information within that time, it will issue a final denial letter pursuant to § 2570.41.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.39" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.39   Opportunities to submit additional information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may notify the Department of its intent to submit additional information supporting an exemption application by telephone, by letter sent to the address furnished in the applicant's tentative denial letter, or electronically to the email address provided in the applicant's tentative denial letter. At the same time, the applicant should indicate generally the type of information that will be submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) The additional information an applicant intends to provide in support of the application must be in writing and received by the Department within 40 days from the date the Department issues the tentative denial letter unless the Department extends the time period at its sole discretion. All such information must be accompanied by a certification that all information provided to the Department is true and correct, and the certification must be dated and signed by a person qualified under § 2570.34(b)(6) to sign such a declaration. The information may be submitted either electronically or by mail to the address specified in the letter.
</P>
<P>(c) If, for reasons beyond its control, an applicant is unable to submit all the additional information they intend to provide in support of their application within the period described in paragraph (b) of this section, they may request an extension of time to furnish the information. Such requests must be made before the expiration of the time period described in paragraph (b), and the request will be granted, in the Department's sole discretion, only in unusual circumstances and for a limited period as determined by the Department. The request may be made by telephone, mail, or electronically.
</P>
<P>(d) The Department will issue, without further notice, either by mail or electronically, a final denial letter denying the requested exemption pursuant to § 2570.41 if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Department has not received the additional information that the applicant stated their intention to submit within the period described in paragraph (b) of this section, or within any additional period granted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant did not request a conference pursuant to § 2570.38(b).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.40" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.40   Conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any conference between the Department and an applicant pertaining to a requested exemption will be held in Washington, DC, except that a telephone or electronic conference will be held at the applicant's request.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant is entitled to only one conference with respect to any exemption application. The Department may hold additional conferences at its sole discretion if it determines additional conference(s) are appropriate. An applicant will not be entitled to a conference, however, if the Department has held a hearing on the exemption under either § 2570.46 or § 2570.47.
</P>
<P>(c) Insofar as possible, conferences will be scheduled as joint conferences with all applicants present if:
</P>
<P>(1) More than one applicant has requested an exemption with respect to the same or similar types of transactions;
</P>
<P>(2) The Department is considering the applications together as a request for a class exemption;
</P>
<P>(3) The Department contemplates not granting the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(4) More than one applicant has requested a conference.
</P>
<P>(d) In instances where the applicant has requested a conference pursuant to § 2570.38(b) and also has submitted additional information pursuant to § 2570.39, the Department will schedule a conference under this section for a date and time that occurs within 20 days after the date on which the Department has provided either oral or written notification to the applicant that, after reviewing the additional information, it still is not prepared to propose the requested exemption or a later date determined at the Department's sole discretion. If, for reasons beyond its control, the applicant cannot attend a conference within the time limit described in this paragraph (d), the applicant may request an extension of time for the scheduling of a conference, provided that such request is made before the expiration of the time limit. The Department, at its sole discretion, will only grant such an extension in unusual circumstances and for a brief period.
</P>
<P>(e) In instances where the applicant has requested a conference pursuant to § 2570.38(b) but has not expressed an intent to submit additional information in support of the exemption application as provided in § 2570.39, the Department will schedule a conference under this section for a date and time that occurs within 40 days after the date of the issuance of the tentative denial letter described in § 2570.38(a) or a later date determined at the sole discretion of the Department. If, for reasons beyond its control, the applicant cannot attend a conference within the time limit described in this paragraph (e), the applicant may request an extension of time for the scheduling of a conference, provided that such request is made before the expiration of the time limit. The Department, at its sole discretion, will only grant such an extension in unusual circumstances and for a brief period.
</P>
<P>(f) In instances where the applicant has requested a conference pursuant to § 2570.38(b), notified the Department of its intent to submit additional information pursuant to § 2570.39, and failed to furnish such information within 40 days after the date of issuance of the tentative denial letter, the Department will schedule a conference under this section for a date and time that occurs within 60 days after the date of the issuance of the tentative denial letter described in § 2570.38(a) or a later date as determined at the sole discretion of the Department. If, for reasons beyond its control, the applicant cannot attend a conference within the time limit described in this paragraph (f), the applicant may request an extension of time to schedule a conference, provided that such request is made before the expiration of the time limit. The Department, at its sole discretion, will only grant such an extension in unusual circumstances and for a brief period.
</P>
<P>(g) If the applicant fails to either timely schedule or appear for a conference agreed to by the Department pursuant to this section, the applicant will be deemed to have waived its right to a conference.
</P>
<P>(h) Within 20 days after the date of any conference held under this section, or a later date determined at the sole discretion of the Department, the applicant may submit to the Department (electronically or in paper form) any additional written data, arguments, or legal authorities discussed at the conference but not previously or adequately presented in writing. If, for reasons beyond its control, the applicant is unable to submit the additional information within this time limit, the applicant may request an extension of time to furnish the information, provided that such request is made before the expiration of the time limit described in this paragraph (h). The Department, at its sole discretion, will only grant such an extension in unusual circumstances and for a brief period.
</P>
<P>(i) The Department, at its sole discretion, may hold a conference with any party, including the qualified independent fiduciary or the qualified independent appraiser, regarding any matter related to an exemption request without the presence of the applicant or other parties involved in the exemption transaction, or their representatives. Any such conferences may occur in addition to the conference with the applicant described in paragraph (b) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.41" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.41   Final denial letters.</HEAD>
<P>The Department will issue a final denial letter denying a requested exemption, either by mail or electronically, if:
</P>
<P>(a) Before issuing a tentative denial letter under § 2570.38 or conducting a hearing on the exemption under either § 2570.46 or § 2570.47, the Department determines at its sole discretion that:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant has failed to submit information requested by the Department in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>(2) The information provided by the applicant does not meet the requirements of §§ 2570.34 and 2570.35; or
</P>
<P>(3) A conference was held between the Department and the applicant before the Department issued a tentative denial letter during which the Department and the applicant addressed the reasons for denial that otherwise would have been set forth in a tentative denial letter pursuant to § 2570.38;
</P>
<P>(b) The conditions for issuing a final denial letter specified in § 2570.38(b) or § 2570.39(d) are satisfied;
</P>
<P>(c) After issuing a tentative denial letter under § 2570.38 and considering the entire record in the case, including all written information submitted pursuant to §§ 2570.39 and 2570.40, the Department decides not to propose an exemption or to withdraw an exemption it already proposed;
</P>
<P>(d) After proposing an exemption and conducting a hearing on the exemption under either § 2570.46 or § 2570.47 and after considering the entire record in the case, including the record of the hearing and any public comments, the Department decides to withdraw the proposed exemption; or
</P>
<P>(e) The applicant either:
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for the Department to withdraw the exemption application; or
</P>
<P>(2) Communicates to the Department that it is not interested in continuing the application process.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.42" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.42   Notice of proposed exemption.</HEAD>
<P>If the Department tentatively decides that an administrative exemption is warranted, it will publish a notice of a proposed exemption in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In addition to providing notice of the pendency of the exemption before the Department, the notice will:
</P>
<P>(a) Explain the exemption transaction and summarize the information and reasons in support of proposing the exemption;
</P>
<P>(b) Describe the scope of relief and any conditions of the proposed exemption;
</P>
<P>(c) Inform interested persons of their right to submit comments to the Department (either electronically or in writing) relating to the proposed exemption and establish a deadline for receipt of such comments; and
</P>
<P>(d) If the proposed exemption includes relief from the prohibitions of ERISA section 406(b), Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F), or FERSA section 8477(c)(2), inform interested persons who are materially affected by the grant of the exemption of their right to request a hearing under § 2570.46 and establish a deadline for hearing requests to be submitted.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.43" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.43   Notification of interested persons by applicant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a notice of proposed exemption is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 2570.42, the applicant must notify interested persons of the pendency of the exemption in the manner and within the time period specified in the application. If the Department determines that this notification would be inadequate, the applicant must obtain the Department's consent as to the manner and time period of providing the notice to interested persons. Any such notification must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the notice of proposed exemption as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>; and
</P>
<P>(2) A supplemental statement in the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>You are hereby notified that the United States Department of Labor is considering granting an exemption from the prohibited transaction restrictions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986. The exemption under consideration is summarized in the enclosed [Summary of Proposed Exemption and described in greater detail in the accompanying] 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Notice of Proposed Exemption. As a person who may be affected by this exemption, you have the right to comment on the proposed exemption by [date].
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> [If you may be materially affected by the grant of the exemption, you also have the right to request a hearing on the exemption by [date].] 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> To be added in instances where the Department requires the applicant to furnish a Summary of Proposed Exemption to interested persons as described in paragraph (d) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The applicant will write in this space the date of the last day of the time period specified in the notice of proposed exemption.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> To be added in the case of an exemption that provides relief from ERISA section 406(b) or corresponding sections of the Code or FERSA.</P></FTNT>
<P>All comments and/or requests for a hearing should be addressed to the Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, Room N-5461,
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210, ATTENTION: Application No.__.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> Comments and hearing requests may also be transmitted to the Department electronically at <I>e-OED@dol.gov</I> or at <I>https://www.regulations.gov</I> (follow instructions for submission), and should prominently reference the application number listed above. Individuals submitting comments or requests for a hearing on this matter are advised not to disclose sensitive personal data, such as social security numbers or information that they consider confidential or otherwise protected.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The applicant will fill in the room number of the Office of Exemptions Determinations. As of January 24, 2024, the room number of the Office of Exemption Determinations is N-5461.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> The applicant will fill in the exemption application number, which is stated in the notice of proposed exemption, as well as in all correspondence from the Department to the applicant regarding the application.</P></FTNT>
<P>The Department will make no final decision on the proposed exemption until it reviews the comments received in response to the enclosed notice. If the Department decides to hold a hearing on the exemption request before making its final decision, you will be notified of the time and place of the hearing.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The method used by an applicant to furnish notice to interested persons must be reasonably calculated to ensure that interested persons actually receive the notice. In all cases, personal delivery and delivery by first-class mail will be considered reasonable methods of furnishing notice. If the applicant elects to furnish notice electronically, they must provide satisfactory proof that the entire class of interested persons will be able to receive the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) After furnishing the notification described in paragraph (a) of this section, an applicant must provide the Department with a written statement confirming that notice was furnished in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section. This statement must be accompanied by a certification that the information provided in the statement and signed by a person qualified under § 2570.34(b)(6) to sign such a declaration is true and correct. No exemption will be granted until the applicant furnishes such a certification to the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the provision of notification required by paragraph (a) of this section, the Department, in its sole discretion, may also require an applicant to furnish interested persons with a brief summary of the proposed exemption (Summary of Proposed Exemption), written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average recipient, which objectively describes:
</P>
<P>(1) The exemption transaction and the parties in interest thereto;
</P>
<P>(2) Why the exemption transaction would violate the prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA, the Code, and/or FERSA from which relief is sought;
</P>
<P>(3) The reasons why the plan seeks to engage in the exemption transaction; and
</P>
<P>(4) The conditions and safeguards proposed to protect the plan and its participants and beneficiaries from potential abuse or unnecessary risk of loss in the event the Department grants the exemption.
</P>
<P>(e) Applicants who are required to provide interested persons with the Summary of Proposed Exemption described in paragraph (d) of this section shall furnish the Department with a copy of such summary for review and approval before its distribution to interested persons. Such applicants shall also provide confirmation to the Department that the Summary of Proposed Exemption was furnished to interested persons as part of the written statement and declaration required of exemption applicants by paragraph (c) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.44" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.44   Withdrawal of exemption applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may withdraw an application for an exemption at any time by oral or written (including electronic) notice to the Department. A withdrawn application generally shall not prejudice any subsequent applications for the same exemption transaction submitted by an applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receiving an applicant's notice of withdrawal regarding an application for an individual exemption, the Department will issue a final denial letter in accordance with § 2570.41(e) and will terminate all proceedings relating to the application. If a notice of proposed exemption has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the Department will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> withdrawing the proposed exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receiving an applicant's notice of withdrawal regarding an application for a class exemption or an individual exemption that is being considered with other applications as a request for a class exemption, the Department will inform any other applicants for the exemption of the withdrawal. The Department will continue to process other applications for the same exemption. If all applicants for a particular class exemption withdraw their applications, the Department may either terminate all proceedings relating to the exemption or propose the exemption on its own motion.
</P>
<P>(d) If, following the withdrawal of an exemption application, an applicant decides to reapply for the same exemption, they may contact the Department in writing (including electronically) to request the Department to reinstate the application. The applicant should refer to the application number assigned to the original application. If, at the time the original application was withdrawn, any additional information required to be submitted to the Department under § 2570.39 was outstanding, that information must accompany the request for reinstatement of the application. The applicant must also update all previously furnished information to the Department in connection with a withdrawn application.
</P>
<P>(e) Any request for reinstatement of a withdrawn application submitted in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section will be granted by the Department, and the Department will take whatever steps remained to process the application when the applicant withdrew the application.
</P>
<P>(f) Following the withdrawal of an exemption application, the administrative record will remain subject to public inspection and copy pursuant to § 2570.51.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.45" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.45   Requests for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department will entertain one request for reconsideration of an exemption application that the Department has denied pursuant to § 2570.41 if the applicant either:
</P>
<P>(1) Presents significant new facts or arguments in support of the application, which, for good reason, could not have been submitted for the Department's consideration during its initial review of the exemption application; or
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant received a final denial letter pursuant to § 2570.41(a) before the Department issued a tentative denial letter under § 2570.38 or conducted a hearing on the exemption under either § 2570.46 or § 2570.47.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant must submit a request for reconsideration of a previously denied application within 180 days after the issuance of the final denial letter and include with the request a copy of the Department's final denial letter and a statement setting forth the new information and/or arguments that provide the basis for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(c) A request for reconsideration must also be accompanied by a certification that the new information provided to the Department is true and correct, which is signed by a person qualified under § 2570.34(b)(6) to sign the certification.
</P>
<P>(d) If, after reviewing a request for reconsideration, the Department decides that the facts and arguments presented do not warrant reversal of its original decision to deny the exemption, it will send a letter to the applicant reaffirming that decision.
</P>
<P>(e) If, after reviewing a request for reconsideration, the Department decides to reconsider its final denial letter based on the new facts and arguments submitted by the applicant, it will notify the applicant of its intent to reconsider the application in light of the new information presented. The Department will then take whatever steps remained to be completed to process the exemption application when it issued its final denial letter.
</P>
<P>(f) If, at any point during its subsequent processing of the application, the Department decides again that the exemption is unwarranted, it will issue a letter to the applicant affirming its final denial.
</P>
<P>(g) The Department does not consider a request for reinstatement of an exemption application pursuant to § 2570.44(d) as a request for reconsideration governed by this section.
</P>
<P>(h) If an applicant whose application was finally denied pursuant to § 2570.41(a)(1) or (2) cures the application by providing all required and requested information upon submission for reconsideration, the Department will reconsider the application under paragraph (e) of this section. If, upon reconsideration, the Department concludes that an exemption is not warranted, the Department will either hold a conference with the applicant under § 2570.40 or issue a tentative denial pursuant to the procedures in § 2570.38.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.46" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.46   Hearings in opposition to exemptions from restrictions on fiduciary self-dealing and conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who may be materially affected by an exemption which the Department proposes to grant from the restrictions of ERISA section 406(b), Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F), or FERSA section 8477(c)(2) may request a hearing before the Department within the time period specified in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the proposed exemption. Any such request must state:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, telephone number, and email address of the person making the request;
</P>
<P>(2) The nature of the person's interest in the exemption and how the person would be materially affected by the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the issues to be addressed and a general description of the evidence to be presented at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department will grant a request for a hearing made in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section if a hearing is necessary to fully explore material factual issues with respect to the proposed exemption identified by the person requesting the hearing. The Department will publish a notice of such hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Department may decline to hold a hearing if:
</P>
<P>(1) The request for the hearing is not timely, or otherwise fails to include the information required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The only issues identified for exploration at the hearing are matters of law; or
</P>
<P>(3) The factual issues identified can be fully explored through the submission of evidence in written (including electronic) form.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for an exemption must notify interested persons if the Department schedules a hearing on the exemption. Such notification must be provided in the form, time, and manner prescribed by the Department. Ordinarily, however, adequate notification can be given by providing to interested persons a copy of the notice of hearing published by the Department in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 10 days after its publication, using any of the methods approved in § 2570.43(b).
</P>
<P>(d) After furnishing the notice required by paragraph (c) of this section, an applicant must submit a statement confirming that notice was given in the form, manner, and time prescribed. This statement must be accompanied by a certification that the information provided in the statement is true and correct, which is signed by a person qualified under § 2570.34(b)(6) to sign a certification.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.47" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.47   Other hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In its sole discretion, the Department may schedule a hearing on its own motion if it determines that issues relevant to the exemption can be most fully or expeditiously explored at a hearing. The Department shall publish a notice of such hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant for an exemption must notify interested persons of any hearing on an exemption scheduled by the Department in the manner described in § 2570.46(c). In addition, the applicant must submit a certification subscribed as true and correct like that required in § 2570.46(d).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.48" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.48   Decision to grant exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department may not grant an exemption under ERISA section 408(a), Code section 4975(c)(2), or 5 U.S.C. 8477(c)(3)(C) unless, following evaluation of the facts and representations comprising the administrative record of the proposed exemption (including any comments received in response to a notice of proposed exemption and the record of any hearing held in connection with the proposed exemption), it finds that the exemption meets the statutory requirements by being:
</P>
<P>(1) Administratively feasible for the Department;
</P>
<P>(2) In the interests of the plan (or the Thrift Savings Fund in the case of FERSA) and of its participants and beneficiaries; and
</P>
<P>(3) Protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of such plan (or the Thrift Savings Fund in the case of FERSA).
</P>
<P>(b) In each instance where the Department determines to grant an exemption, it shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> which summarizes the transaction or transactions for which exemptive relief has been granted and specifies the conditions under which such exemptive relief is available.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.49" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.49   Limits on the effect of exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An exemption does not take effect with respect to the exemption transaction unless the material facts and representations contained in the application and in any materials and documents submitted in support of the application were true and complete at the time of the submission of such material.
</P>
<P>(b) An exemption is effective only for the period of time specified and only under the conditions set forth in the exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) Only the specific parties to whom an exemption grants relief may rely on the exemption. If the notice granting an exemption does not limit exemptive relief to specific parties, all parties to the exemption transaction may rely on the exemption.
</P>
<P>(d) For exemption transactions that are continuing in nature, an exemption ceases to be effective if, during the continuation of the exemption transaction, there are material changes to the original facts and representations underlying such exemption or if one or more of the exemption's conditions cease to be met.
</P>
<P>(e) The determination as to whether, under the totality of the facts and circumstances, a particular statement contained in (or omitted from) an exemption application constitutes a material fact or representation is made by the Department in its sole discretion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.50" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.50   Revocation or modification of exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after an exemption takes effect, material changes in facts, circumstances, or representations occur, including whether a qualified independent fiduciary resigns, is terminated, or is convicted of a crime, the Department, at its sole discretion, may take steps to revoke or modify the exemption. If the qualified independent fiduciary resigns, is terminated, or is convicted of a crime, the applicant must notify the Department within 30 days of the resignation, termination, or conviction, and the Department reserves the right to request the applicant to provide the Department with any of the information required pursuant to § 2570.34(e) and (f) pursuant to a time determined by the Department at its sole discretion.
</P>
<P>(b) Before revoking or modifying an exemption, the Department will publish a notice of its proposed action in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and provide interested persons with an opportunity to comment on the proposed revocation or modification. Before the Department publishes such notice, it will notify the applicant of the Department's proposed action and the reasons therefore. After the publication of the notice, the applicant will have the opportunity to comment on the proposed revocation or modification.
</P>
<P>(c) The revocation or modification of an exemption will have prospective effect only.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.51" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.51   Public inspection and copies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) From the date the administrative record of each exemption is established pursuant to § 2570.32(d), the administrative record of each exemption will be open for public inspection and copying at the EBSA Public Disclosure Room, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request, the staff of the Public Disclosure Room will furnish photocopies of an administrative record, or any specified portion of that record, for a specified charge per page; or, at the discretion of the Department, provide the administrative record electronically for a specified charge.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.52" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.52   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart is effective with respect to all exemptions filed with or initiated by the Department under ERISA section 408(a), Code section 4975(c)(2), and/or 5 U.S.C. 8477(c)(3) at any time on or after April 8, 2024. Applications for exemptions under ERISA section 408(a), Code section 4975(c)(2), and/or 5 U.S.C. 8477(c)(3) filed on or after December 27, 2011, but before April 8, 2024, are governed by 29 CFR part 2570 (revised effective December 27, 2011).








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for the Assessment of Civil Penalties Under ERISA Section 502(c)(2)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 26897, June 26, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2570.60" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.60   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this subpart are applicable to “502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings” (as defined in § 2570.61(n) of this subpart) under section 502(c)(2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. The rules of procedure for administrative hearings published by the Department's Office of Law Judges at part 18 of this title will apply to matters arising under ERISA section 502(c)(2) except as modified by this section. These proceedings shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible, and the parties shall make every effort to avoid delay at each stage of the proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.61" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.61   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of the definitions in § 18.2 of this title: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a judicial-type proceeding before an administrative law judge leading to the formulation of a final order; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law ludge</I> means an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer</I> means a written statement that is supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to § 2560.502c-2(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of proceeding</I> is the filing of an answer by the respondent; 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent agreement</I> means any written document containing a specified proposed remedy or other relief acceptable to the Department and consenting parties; 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Final Order</I> means the final decision or action of the Department of Labor concerning the assessment of a civil penalty under ERISA section 502(c)(2) against a particular party. Such final order may result from a decision of an administrative law judge or the Secretary, the failure of a party to file a statement of reasonable cause described in § 2560.502c-2(e) within the prescribed time limits, or the failure of a party to invoke the procedures for hearings or appeals under this title within the prescribed time limits. Such a final order shall constitute final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704; 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing</I> means that part of a proceeding which involves the submission of evidence, either by oral presentation or written submission, to the administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order</I> means the whole or any part of a final procedural or substantive disposition of a matter under ERISA section 502(c)(2); 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Party</I> includes a person or agency named or admitted as a party to a proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, exchange or other entity or organization; 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Petition</I> means a written request, made by a person or party, for some affirmative action; 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Pleading</I> means the notice as defined in § 2560.502c-2(g), the answer to the notice, any supplement or amendment thereto, and any reply that may be permitted to any answer, supplement or amendment; 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>502(c)(2) civil penalty proceeding</I> means an adjudicatory proceeding relating to the assessment of a civil penalty provided for in section 502(c)(2) of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Respondent</I> means the party against whom the Department is seeking to assess a civil sanction under ERISA section 502(c)(2); 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor and includes, pursuant to any delegation of authority by the Secretary, any assistant secretary (including the Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security), administrator, commissioner, appellate body, board, or other official; and 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Solicitor</I> means the Solicitor of Labor or his or her delegate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26897, June 26, 1989, as amended at 68 FR 3737, Jan. 24, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.62" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.62   Service: Copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(2) penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.3 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Copies of all documents shall be served on all parties of record. All documents should clearly designate the docket number, if any, and short title of all matters. All documents to be filed shall be delivered or mailed to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges, 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or to the OALJ Regional Office to which the proceeding may have been transferred for hearing. Each document filed shall be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By parties.</I> All motions petitions, pleadings, briefs, or other documents shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges with a copy, including any attachments, to all other parties or record. When a party is represented by an attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney. Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery or by mailing a copy to the last known address. The Department shall be served by delivery to the Associate Solicitor, Plan Benefits Security Division, ERISA section 502(c)(2) Proceeding, P.O. Box 1914, Washington, DC 20013. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and date of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</I> Service of orders, decisions and all other documents shall be made by regular mail to the last known address.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of pleadings.</I> (1) Every pleading shall contain information indicating the name of the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) as the agency under which the proceeding is instituted, the title of the proceeding, the docket number (if any) assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges and a designation of the type of pleading or paper (e.g., notice, motion to dismiss, etc.). The pleading or paper shall be signed and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or person representing the party. Although there are no formal specifications for documents, they should be typewritten when possible on standard size 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper.
</P>
<P>(2) Illegible documents, whether handwritten, typewritten, photocopies, or otherwise, will not be accepted. Papers may be reproduced by any duplicating process provided all copies are clear and legible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26897, June 26, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 54708, Oct. 22, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.63" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.63   Parties, how designated.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.10 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) The term “party” wherever used in these rules shall include any natural person, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, firm, partnership, trustee, receiver, agency, public or private organization, or government agency. A party against whom a civil penalty is sought shall be designated as “respondent.” The Department shall be designated as the “complainant.”
</P>
<P>(b) Other persons or organizations shall be permitted to participate as parties only if the administrative law judge finds that the final decision could directly and adversely affect them or the class they represent, that they may contribute materially to the disposition of the proceedings and their interest is not adequately represented by existing parties, and that in the discretion of the administrative law judge the participation of such persons or organizations would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) A person or organization not named as a respondent wishing to participate as a party under this section shall submit a petition to the administrative law judge within fifteen (15) days after the person or organization has knowledge of or should have known about the proceeding. The petition shall be filed with the administrative law judge and served on each person or organization who has been made a party at the time of filing. Such petition shall concisely state:
</P>
<P>(1) Petitioner's interest in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) How his or her participation as a party will contribute materially to the disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Who will appear for petitioner;
</P>
<P>(4) The issues on which petitioner wishes to participate; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses.
</P>
<P>(d) Objections to the petition may be filed by a party within fifteen (15) days of the filing of the petition. If objections to the petition are filed, the administrative law judge shall then determine whether petitioners have the requisite interest to be a party in the proceedings, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. Where petitions to participate as parties are made by individuals or groups with common interests, the administrative law judge may request all such petitioners to designate a single representative, or he or she may recognize one or more of such petitioners. The administrative law judge shall give each such petitioner as well as the parties, written notice of the decision on his or her petition. For each petition granted, the administrative law judge shall provide a brief statement of the basis of the decision. If the petition is denied, he or she shall briefly state the grounds for denial and shall then treat the petition as a request for participation as amicus curiae.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.64" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.64   Consequences of default.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.5(a) and (b) of this title. Failure of the respondent to file an answer to the notice of determination described in § 2560.502c-2(g) of this chapter within the 30 day period provided by § 2560.502c-2(h) of this chapter shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations of the notice of determination, and such failure shall be deemed to be an admission of the facts as alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(2) of the Act. Such notice shall then become the final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.61(g) of this subpart, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 3737, Jan. 24, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.65" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.65   Consent order or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings, the following shall apply in lieu of § 18.9 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding, but at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties jointly may move to defer the hearing for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of a settlement or an agreement containing findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the administrative law judge, after consideration of such factors as the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties and the probability of reaching an agreement which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the order and decision entered into in accordance with the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(5) That the order and decision of the administrative law judge shall be final agency action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, but, in any case, at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties or their authorized representative or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement containing consent findings and an order to the administrative law judge; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the administrative law judge that the parties have reached a full settlement and have agreed to dismissal of the action subject to compliance with the terms of the settlement; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the administrative law judge that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event a settlement agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefore, the administrative law judge shall issue a decision incorporating such findings and agreement within thirty (30) days of his receipt of such document. The decision of the administrative law judge shall incorporate all of the findings, terms, and conditions of the settlement agreement and consent order of the parties. Such decision shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement without consent of all parties.</I> In cases in which some, but not all, of the parties to a proceeding submit a consent agreement to the administrative law judge, the following procedure shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If all of the parties have not consented to the proposed settlement submitted to the administrative law judge, then such non-consenting parties must receive notice, and a copy, of the proposed settlement at the time it is submitted to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-consenting party shall have fifteen (15) days to file any objections to the proposed settlement with the administrative law judge and all other parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If any party submits an objection to the proposed settlement, the administrative law judge shall decide within thirty (30) days after receipt of such objections whether he shall sign or reject the proposed settlement. Where the record lacks substantial evidence upon which to base a decision or there is a genuine issue of material fact, then the administrative law judge may establish procedures for the purpose of receiving additional evidence upon which a decision on the contested issues may reasonably be based;
</P>
<P>(4) If there are no objections to the proposed settlement, or if the administrative law judge decides to sign the proposed settlement after reviewing any such objections, the administrative law judge shall incorporate the consent agreement into a decision meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.66" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.66   Scope of discovery.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.14 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) A party may file a motion to conduct discovery with the administrative law judge. The motion for discovery shall be granted by the administrative law judge only upon a showing of good cause. In order to establish “good cause” for the purposes of this section, a party must show that the discovery requested relates to a genuine issue as to a material fact that is relevant to the proceeding. The order of the administrative law judge shall expressly limit the scope and terms of discovery to that for which “good cause” has been shown, as provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may obtain discovery of documents and tangible things otherwise discoverable under paragraph (a) of this section and prepared in anticipation of or for the hearing by or for another party's representative (including his or her attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or agent) only upon showing that the party seeking discovery has substantial need of the materials or information in the preparation of his or her case and that he or she is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials or information by other means. In ordering discovery of such materials when the required showing has been made, the administrative law judge shall protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of an attorney or other representatives of a party concerning the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.67" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.67   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.41 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>No genuine issue of material of fact.</I> (1) Where no issue of a material of fact is found to have been raised, the administrative law judge may issue a decision which, in the absence of an appeal pursuant to §§ 2570.69 through 2570.71 of this subpart, shall become a final order.
</P>
<P>(2) A decision made under this paragraph shall include a statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons therefor, on all issues presented; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any terms and conditions of the rule or order.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any decision under this paragraph shall be served on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings on issues of fact.</I> Where a genuine question of material of fact is raised, the administrative law judge shall, and in any other case may, set the case for an evidentiary hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.68" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.68   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.57 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within twenty (20) days of the filing of the transcript of the testimony of such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge, subject to the judge's discretion, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and briefs shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the administative law judge.</I> Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of the proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within thirty (30) days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the administrative law judge shall make his or her decision. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law with reasons therefor upon each material issue of fact or law presented on the record. The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based upon the whole record. In a contested case in which the Department and the Respondent have presented their positions to the administrative law judge pursuant to the procedures for 502(c)(2) civil penalty proceedings as set forth in this subpart, the penalty (if any) which may be included in the decision of the administrative law judge shall be limited to the penalty expressly provided for in section 502(c)(2) of ERISA. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. The decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 unless an appeal is made pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 2570.69 through 2570.71.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.69" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.69   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may review a decision of an administrative law judge. Such a review may occur only when a party files a notice of appeal from a decision of an administrative law judge within twenty (20) days of the issuance of such decision. In all other cases, the decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of appeal to the Secretary shall state with specificity the issue(s) in the decision of the administrative law judge on which the party is seeking review. Such notice of appeal must be served on all parties of record.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Secretary shall request the Chief Administrative Law Judge to submit to him or her a copy of the entire record before the administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.70" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.70   Scope of review.</HEAD>
<P>The review of the Secretary shall not be <I>de novo</I> proceeding but rather a review of the record established before the administrative law judge. There shall be no opportunity for oral argument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.71" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.71   Procedures for review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the notice of appeal, the Secretary shall establish a briefing schedule which shall be served on all parties of record. Upon motion of one or more of the parties, the Secretary may, in his or her discretion, permit the submission of reply briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall issue a decision as promptly as possible after receipt of the briefs of the parties. The Secretary may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or in part, the decision on appeal and shall issue a statement of reasons and bases for the action(s) taken. Such decision by the Secretary shall be final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedure for the Assessment of Civil Penalties Under ERISA Section 502(l)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 25286, June 20, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2570.80" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.80   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this subpart are applicable to “502(l) civil penalty proceedings” (as defined in § 2570.82 of this subpart) under section 502(l) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act). Refer to 29 CFR 2560.502-1 for the definition of the relevant terms of ERISA section 502(l).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.81" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.81   In general.</HEAD>
<P>Section 502(l) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act) requires the Secretary of Labor to assess a civil penalty against a fiduciary who breaches a fiduciary responsibility under, or commits any other violation of, part 4 of title I of ERISA or any other person who knowingly participates in such breach or violation. The penalty under section 502(l) is equal to 20 percent of the “applicable recovery amount” paid pursuant to any settlement agreement with the Secretary or ordered by a court to be paid in a judicial proceeding instituted by the Secretary under section 502 (a)(2) or (a)(5). The Secretary may, in the Secretary's sole discretion, waive or reduce the penalty if the Secretary determines in writing that:
</P>
<P>(a) The fiduciary or other person acted reasonably and in good faith, or
</P>
<P>(b) It is reasonable to expect that the fiduciary or other person will not be able to restore all losses to the plan or any participant or beneficiary of such plan without severe financial hardship unless such waiver or reduction is granted.
</P>
<FP>The penalty imposed on a fiduciary or other person with respect to any transaction shall be reduced by the amount of any penalty or tax imposed on such fiduciary or other person with respect to such transaction under section 502(i) or section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code).


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.82" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.82   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>502(l) civil penalty proceedings</I> means an adjudicatory proceeding relating to the assessment of a civil penalty provided in section 502(l) of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of assessment</I> means any document, however designated, issued by the Secretary which contains a specified assessment, in monetary terms, of a civil penalty under ERISA section 502(l). A “notice of assessment” will contain a brief factual description of the violation for which the assessment is being made, the identity of the person being assessed, and the amount of the assessment and the basis for assessing that particular person that particular penalty amount;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, exchange or other entity or organization;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Petition</I> means a written request, made by a person, for a waiver or reduction of the civil penalty described herein; and
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor and includes, pursuant to any delegation of authority by the Secretary, the Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security, Regional Directors for Employee Benefits Security, or Deputy Regional Directors for Employee Benefits Security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 25286, June 20, 1990, as amended at 68 FR 16400, Apr. 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.83" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.83   Assessment of civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as described in §§ 2570.85 and 2570.86 of this part, subsequent to the payment of the applicable recovery amount pursuant to either a settlement agreement or a court order, the Secretary shall serve on the person liable for making such payment a notice of assessment of civil penalty equal to 20 percent of the applicable recovery amount.
</P>
<P>(b) Service of such notice shall be made either:
</P>
<P>(1) By delivering a copy to the person being assessed; if the person is an individual, to the individual; if the person is a partnership, to any partner; if the person is a corporation, association, exchange, or other entity or organization, to any officer of such entity; if the person is an employee benefit plan, to a trustee of such plan; or to any attorney representing any such person;
</P>
<P>(2) By leaving a copy at the principal office, place of business, or residence of such individual, partner, officer, trustee, or attorney; or
</P>
<P>(3) By mailing a copy to the last known address of such individual, partner, officer, trustee, or attorney.
</P>
<FP>If service is accomplished by certified mail, service is complete upon mailing. If done by regular mail, service is complete upon receipt by the addressee.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.84" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.84   Payment of civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The civil penalty must be paid within 60 days of service of the notice of assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) At any time prior to the expiration of the payment period for the assessed penalty, any person who has committed, or knowingly participated in, a breach or violation, or has been alleged by the Secretary to have so committed or participated, may submit a written request for a conference with the Secretary to discuss the calculation of the assessed penalty. A person will be entitled under this section to one such conference per assessment. If such written request is submitted during the 60 day payment period described in subparagraph (a), such a request will not toll the running of that payment period.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice of assessment will become a final order (within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704) on the first day following the 60 day payment period, subject to any tolling caused by a petition to waive or reduce described in § 2570.85.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.85" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.85   Waiver or reduction of civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the expiration of the payment period for the assessed penalty, any person who has committed, or knowingly participated in, a breach or violation, or has been alleged by the Secretary to have so committed or participated, may petition the Secretary to waive or reduce the penalty under this section on the basis that:
</P>
<P>(1) The person acted reasonably and in good faith in engaging in the breach or violation; or
</P>
<P>(2) The person will not be able to restore all losses to the plan or participant or beneficiary of such plan without severe financial hardship unless such waiver or reduction is granted.
</P>
<P>(b) All petitions for waiver or reduction shall be in writing and contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the petitioner(s);
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description of the breach or violation which is the subject of the penalty;
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed recitation of the facts which support one, or both, of the bases for waiver or reduction described in § 2570.85(a) of this part, accompanied by underlying documentation supporting such factual allegations; 
</P>
<P>(4) A declaration, signed and dated by the petitioner(s), in the following form: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Under penalty of perjury, I declare that, to the best of my knowledge and belief, the representations made in this petition are true and correct.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) If a petition for waiver or reduction is submitted during the 60 day payment period described in § 2570.84(a) of this part, the payment period for the penalty in question will be tolled pending Departmental consideration of the petition. During such consideration, the applicant is entitled to one conference with the Secretary, but the Secretary, in his or her sole discretion, may schedule or hold additional conferences with the petitioner concerning the factual allegations contained in the petition. 
</P>
<P>(d) Based solely on his or her discretion, the Secretary will determine whether to grant such a waiver or reduction. Pursuant to the procedure described in § 2570.83(b), the petitioner will be served with a written determination informing him or her of the Secretary's decision. Such written determination shall briefly state the grounds for the Secretary's decision, and shall be final and non-reviewable. In the case of a determination not to waive, the payment period for the penalty in question, if previously initiated, will resume as of the date of service of the Secretary's written determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.86" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.86   Reduction of penalty by other penalty assessments.</HEAD>
<P>The penalty assessed on a person pursuant to this section with respect to any transaction shall be reduced by the amount of any penalty or tax imposed on such person with respect to such transaction under ERISA section 502(i) and section 4975 of the Code. Prior to a reduction of penalty under this paragraph, the person being assessed must provide proof to the Department of the payment of the penalty or tax and the amount of that payment. Submissions of proof of other penalty or tax assessments will not toll the 60 day payment period, if previously initiated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.87" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.87   Revision of assessment.</HEAD>
<P>If, based on the procedures described in § 2570.84, 2570.85, or 2570.86, the assessed penalty amount is revised, the person being assessed will receive a revised notice of assessment and will be obligated to pay the revised assessed penalty within the relevant 60 day payment period (as determined by the applicable procedure in § 2570.84, 2570.85, or 2570.86), and, if necessary, any excess penalty payment will be refunded as soon as administratively feasible. The revised notice of assessment will revoke any previously issued notice of assessment with regard to the transaction in question and will become a final order (within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704) the later of the first day following the 60 day payment period or the date of its service on the person being assessed, pursuant to the service procedures described in § 2570.83(b). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.88" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.88   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>This section is effective June 20, 1990, and shall apply to assessments under section 502(l) made by the Secretary after June 20, 1990, based on any breach or violation occurring on or after December 19, 1989.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Procedures for the Assessment of Civil Penalties Under ERISA Section 502(c)(5)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 17508, Apr. 9, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2570.90" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.90   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this subpart are applicable to “502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings” (as defined in 2570.91(n)) under section 502(c)(5) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. The rules of procedure for administrative hearings published by the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges in subpart A of 29 CFR part 18 will apply to matters arising under ERISA section 502(c)(5) except as described by this section. These proceedings shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible, and the parties shall make every effort to avoid delay at each stage of the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.91" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.91   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of the definitions in § 18.2 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a judicial-type proceeding before an administrative law judge leading to the formulation of a final order;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer</I> means a written statement that is supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to 29 CFR 2560.502c-5(g);
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of proceeding</I> is the filing of an answer by the respondent;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent agreement</I> means any written document containing a specified proposed remedy or other relief acceptable to the Department and consenting parties;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended;
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Final order</I> means the final decision or action of the Department of Labor concerning the assessment of a civil penalty under ERISA section 502(c)(5) against a particular party. Such final order may result from a decision of an administrative law judge or the Secretary, the failure of a party to file a statement of reasonable cause described in 29 CFR 2560.502c-5(e) within the prescribed time limits, or the failure of a party to invoke the procedures for hearings or appeals under this title within the prescribed time limits. Such a final order shall constitute final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704;
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing</I> means that part of a proceeding which involves the submission of evidence, either by oral presentation or written submission, to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order</I> means the whole or any part of a final procedural or substantive disposition of a matter under ERISA section 502(c)(5);
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Party</I> includes a person or agency named or admitted as a party to a proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, exchange, or other entity or organization;
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Petition</I> means a written request, made by a person or party, for some affirmative action;
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Pleading</I> means the notice as defined in 29 CFR 2560.502c-5(g), the answer to the notice, any supplement or amendment thereto, and any reply that may be permitted to any answer, supplement or amendment; 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>502(c)(5) civil penalty proceeding</I> means an adjudicatory proceeding relating to the assessment of a civil penalty provided for in section 502(c)(5) of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Respondent</I> means the party against whom the Department is seeking to assess a civil sanction under ERISA section 502(c)(5); 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor and includes, pursuant to any delegation of authority by the Secretary, any assistant secretary (including the Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security), administrator, commissioner, appellate body, board, or other official of the Department of Labor; and 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Solicitor</I> means the Solicitor of Labor or his or her delegate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.92" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.92   Service: Copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(5) penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of 29 CFR 18.3. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Copies of all documents shall be served on all parties of record. All documents should clearly designate the docket number, if any, and short title of all matters. All documents to be filed shall be delivered or mailed to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges (OALJ), 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or to the OALJ Regional Office to which the proceeding may have been transferred for hearing. Each document filed shall be clear and legible. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By parties.</I> All motions, petitions, pleadings, briefs, or other documents shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges with a copy, including any attachments, to all other parties of record. When a party is represented by an attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney. Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery or by mailing a copy to the last known address. The Department shall be served by delivery to the Associate Solicitor, Plan Benefits Security Division, ERISA Section 502(c)(5) Proceeding, P.O. Box 1914, Washington, DC 20013. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and date of service. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</I> Service of orders, decisions and all other documents shall be made by regular mail to the last known address. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of pleadings</I>—(1) Every pleading shall contain information indicating the name of the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) as the agency under which the proceeding is instituted, the title of the proceeding, the docket number (if any) assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges and a designation of the type of pleading or paper (e.g., notice, motion to dismiss, etc.). The pleading or paper shall be signed and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or person representing the party. Although there are no formal specifications for documents, they should be typewritten when possible on standard size 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper. 
</P>
<P>(2) Illegible documents, whether handwritten, typewritten, photocopies, or otherwise, will not be accepted. Papers may be reproduced by any duplicating process provided all copies are clear and legible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.93" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.93   Parties, how designated.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of 29 CFR 18.10. 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>party</I> wherever used in this subpart shall include any natural person, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, firm, partnership, trustee, receiver, agency, public or private organization, or government agency. A party against whom a civil penalty is sought shall be designated as “respondent.” The Department shall be designated as the “complainant.” 
</P>
<P>(b) Other persons or organizations shall be permitted to participate as parties only if the administrative law judge finds that the final decision could directly and adversely affect them or the class they represent, that they may contribute materially to the disposition of the proceedings and their interest is not adequately represented by existing parties, and that in the discretion of the administrative law judge the participation of such persons or organizations would be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) A person or organization not named as a respondent wishing to participate as a party under this section shall submit a petition to the administrative law judge within fifteen (15) days after the person or organization has knowledge of or should have known about the proceeding. The petition shall be filed with the administrative law judge and served on each person or organization who has been made a party at the time of filing. Such petition shall concisely state:
</P>
<P>(1) Petitioner's interest in the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(2) How his or her participation as a party will contribute materially to the disposition of the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(3) Who will appear for petitioner; 
</P>
<P>(4) The issues on which petitioner wishes to participate; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(d) Objections to the petition may be filed by a party within fifteen (15) days of the filing of the petition. If objections to the petition are filed, the administrative law judge shall then determine whether petitioners have the requisite interest to be a party in the proceedings, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. Where petitions to participate as parties are made by individuals or groups with common interests, the administrative law judge may request all such petitioners to designate a single representative, or he or she may recognize one or more of such petitioners. The administrative law judge shall give each such petitioner as well as the parties, written notice of the decision on his or her petition. For each petition granted, the administrative law judge shall provide a brief statement of the basis of the decision. If the petition is denied, he or she shall briefly state the grounds for denial and shall then treat the petition as a request for participation as amicus curiae. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.94" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.94   Consequences of default.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of 29 CFR 18.5(a) and (b). Failure of the respondent to file an answer to the notice of determination described in 29 CFR 2560.502c-5(g) within the 30 day period provided by 29 CFR 2560.502c-5(h) shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations of the notice of determination, and such failure shall be deemed to be an admission of the facts as alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(5) of the Act. Such notice shall then become a final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.91(g), forty-five (45) days from the date of the service of the notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.95" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.95   Consent order or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings, the following shall apply in lieu of 29 CFR 18.9. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding, but at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties jointly may move to defer the hearing for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of a settlement or an agreement containing findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such deferment and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the administrative law judge, after consideration of such factors as the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties and the probability of reaching an agreement which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice and the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the order and decision entered into in accordance with the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(5) That the order and decision of the administrative law judge shall be final agency action. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, but, in any case, at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties or their authorized representative or their counsel may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement containing consent findings and an order to the administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the administrative law judge that the parties have reached a full settlement and have agreed to dismissal of the action subject to compliance with the terms of the settlement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the administrative law judge that agreement cannot be reached. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event that a settlement agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the administrative law judge shall issue a decision incorporating such findings and agreement within thirty (30) days of receipt of such document. The decision of the administrative law judge shall incorporate all of the findings, terms, and conditions of the settlement agreement and consent order of the parties. Such decision shall become a final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement without consent of all parties.</I> In cases in which some, but not all, of the parties to a proceeding submit a consent agreement to the administrative law judge, the following procedure shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) If all of the parties have not consented to the proposed settlement submitted to the administrative law judge, then such non-consenting parties must receive notice, and a copy, of the proposed settlement at the time it is submitted to the administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-consenting party shall have fifteen (15) days to file any objections to the proposed settlement with the administrative law judge and all other parties; 
</P>
<P>(3) If any party submits an objection to the proposed settlement, the administrative law judge shall decide within thirty (30) days after receipt of such objections whether to sign or reject the proposed settlement. Where the record lacks substantial evidence upon which to base a decision or there is a genuine issue of material fact, then the administrative law judge may establish procedures for the purpose of receiving additional evidence upon which a decision on the contested issues may reasonably be based; 
</P>
<P>(4) If there are no objections to the proposed settlement, or if the administrative law judge decides to sign the proposed settlement after reviewing any such objections, the administrative law judge shall incorporate the consent agreement into a decision meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.96" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.96   Scope of discovery.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of 29 CFR 18.14. 
</P>
<P>(a) A party may file a motion to conduct discovery with the administrative law judge. The motion for discovery shall be granted by the administrative law judge only upon a showing of good cause. In order to establish “good cause” for the purposes of this section, a party must show that the discovery requested relates to a genuine issue as to a material fact that is relevant to the proceeding. The order of the administrative law judge shall expressly limit the scope and terms of discovery to that for which “good cause” has been shown, as provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may obtain discovery of documents and tangible things otherwise discoverable under paragraph (a) of this section and prepared in anticipation of or for the hearing by or for another party's representative (including his or her attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or agent) only upon showing that the party seeking discovery has substantial need of the materials or information in the preparation of his or her case and that he or she is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials or information by other means. In ordering discovery of such materials when the required showing has been made, the administrative law judge shall protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of an attorney or other representative of a party concerning the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.97" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.97   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of 29 CFR 18.41. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>No genuine issue of material fact.</I> (1) Where no issue of material fact is found to have been raised, the administrative law judge may issue a decision which, in the absence of an appeal pursuant to §§ 2570.99 through 2570.101, shall become a final order. 
</P>
<P>(2) A decision made under this paragraph shall include a statement of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons therefore, on all issues presented; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any terms and conditions of the rule or order. 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any decision under this paragraph shall be served on each party. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings on issues of fact.</I> Where a genuine question of material fact is raised, the administrative law judge shall, and in any other case may, set the case for an evidentiary hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.98" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.98   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of 29 CFR 18.57.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within twenty (20) days of the filing of the transcript of the testimony or such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge, subject to the judge's discretion, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and an order together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and briefs shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the administrative law judge.</I> Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of the proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within thirty (30) days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the administrative law judge shall make his or her decision. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law with reasons therefor upon each material issue of fact or law presented on the record. The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based upon the whole record. In a contested case in which the Department and the Respondent have presented their positions to the administrative law judge pursuant to the procedures for 502(c)(5) civil penalty proceedings as set forth in this subpart, the penalty (if any) which may be included in the decision of the administrative law judge shall be limited to the penalty expressly provided for in section 502(c)(5) of ERISA. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. The decision of the administrative law judge shall become a final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 unless an appeal is made pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 2570.99 through 2570.101.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.99" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.99   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may review a decision of an administrative law judge. Such a review may occur only when a party files a notice of appeal from a decision of an administrative law judge within twenty (20) days of the issuance of such decision. In all other cases, the decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of appeal to the Secretary shall state with specificity the issue(s) in the decision of the administrative law judge on which the party is seeking review. Such notice of appeal must be served on all parties of record. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Secretary shall request the Chief Administrative Law Judge to submit to him or her a copy of the entire record before the administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.100" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.100   Scope of review.</HEAD>
<P>The review of the Secretary shall not be a <I>de novo</I> proceeding but rather a review of the record established before the administrative law judge. There shall be no opportunity for oral argument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.101" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.101   Procedures for review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the notice of appeal, the Secretary shall establish a briefing schedule which shall be served on all parties of record. Upon motion of one or more of the parties, the Secretary may, in his or her discretion, permit the submission of reply briefs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall issue a decision as promptly as possible after receipt of the briefs of the parties. The Secretary may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or in part, the decision on appeal and shall issue a statement of reasons and bases for the action(s) taken. Such decision by the Secretary shall be final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Procedures for the Assessment of Civil Penalties Under ERISA Section 502(c)(6)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 786, Jan. 7, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2570.110" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.110   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this subpart are applicable to “502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings” (as defined in § 2570.111(n) of this subpart) under section 502(c)(6) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. The rules of procedure for administrative hearings published by the Department's Office of Law Judges at Part 18 of this title will apply to matters arising under ERISA section 502(c)(6) except as modified by this section. These proceedings shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible, and the parties shall make every effort to avoid delay at each stage of the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.111" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.111   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For section 502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of the definitions in § 18.2 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a judicial-type proceeding before an administrative law judge leading to the formulation of a final order;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer</I> means a written statement that is supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to § 2560.502c-6(g) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of proceeding</I> is the filing of an answer by the respondent;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent agreement</I> means any written document containing a specified proposed remedy or other relief acceptable to the Department and consenting parties;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended;
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Final order</I> means the final decision or action of the Department of Labor concerning the assessment of a civil penalty under ERISA section 502(c)(6) against a particular party. Such final order may result from a decision of an administrative law judge or the Secretary, the failure of a party to file a statement of matters reasonably beyond the control of the plan administrator described in § 2560.502c-6(e) of this chapter within the prescribed time limits, or the failure of a party to invoke the procedures for hearings or appeals under this title within the prescribed time limits. Such a final order shall constitute final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704;
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing</I> means that part of a proceeding which involves the submission of evidence, either by oral presentation or written submission, to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order</I> means the whole or any part of a final procedural or substantive disposition of a matter under ERISA section 502(c)(6);
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Party</I> includes a person or agency named or admitted as a party to a proceeding;
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, exchange or other entity or organization;
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Petition</I> means a written request, made by a person or party, for some affirmative action;
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Pleading</I> means the notice as defined in § 2560.502c-6(g) of this chapter, the answer to the notice, any supplement or amendment thereto, and any reply that may be permitted to any answer, supplement or amendment;
</P>
<P>(n) <I>502(c)(6) civil penalty proceeding</I> means an adjudicatory proceeding relating to the assessment of a civil penalty provided for in section 502(c)(6) of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Respondent</I> means the party against whom the Department is seeking to assess a civil sanction under ERISA section 502(c)(6);
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor and includes, pursuant to any delegation of authority by the Secretary, any assistant secretary (including the Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security), administrator, commissioner, appellate body, board, or other official; and
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Solicitor</I> means the Solicitor of Labor or his or her delegate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.112" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.112   Service: Copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(6) penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.3 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Copies of all documents shall be served on all parties of record. All documents should clearly designate the docket number, if any, and short title of all matters. All documents to be filed shall be delivered or mailed to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges, 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or to the OALJ Regional Office to which the proceeding may have been transferred for hearing. Each document filed shall be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By parties.</I> All motions, petitions, pleadings, briefs, or other documents shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges with a copy, including any attachments, to all other parties of record. When a party is represented by an attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney. Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery or by mailing a copy to the last known address. The Department shall be served by delivery to the Associate Solicitor, Plan Benefits Security Division, ERISA section 502(c)(6) Proceeding, P.O. Box 1914, Washington, DC 20013. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and date of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</I> Service of orders, decisions and all other documents shall be made by regular mail to the last known address.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of pleadings.</I> (1) Every pleading shall contain information indicating the name of the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) as the agency under which the proceeding is instituted, the title of the proceeding, the docket number (if any) assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges and a designation of the type of pleading or paper (e.g., notice, motion to dismiss, etc.). The pleading or paper shall be signed and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or person representing the party. Although there are no formal specifications for documents, they should be typewritten when possible on standard size 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper.
</P>
<P>(2) Illegible documents, whether handwritten, typewritten, photocopied, or otherwise, will not be accepted. Papers may be reproduced by any duplicating process provided all copies are clear and legible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.113" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.113   Parties, how designated.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.10 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) The term “party” wherever used in this subpart shall include any natural person, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, firm, partnership, trustee, receiver, agency, public or private organization, or government agency. A party against whom a civil penalty is sought shall be designated as “respondent”. The Department shall be designated as the “complainant”.
</P>
<P>(b) Other persons or organizations shall be permitted to participate as parties only if the administrative law judge finds that the final decision could directly and adversely affect them or the class they represent, that they may contribute materially to the disposition of the proceedings and their interest is not adequately represented by existing parties, and that in the discretion of the administrative law judge the participation of such persons or organizations would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) A person or organization not named as a respondent wishing to participate as a party under this section shall submit a petition to the administrative law judge within fifteen (15) days after the person or organization has knowledge of or should have known about the proceeding. The petition shall be filed with the administrative law judge and served on each person or organization who has been made a party at the time of filing. Such petition shall concisely state:
</P>
<P>(1) Petitioner's interest in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) How his or her participation as a party will contribute materially to the disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Who will appear for petitioner;
</P>
<P>(4) The issues on which petitioner wishes to participate; and
</P>
<P>(5) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses.
</P>
<P>(d) Objections to the petition may be filed by a party within fifteen (15) days of the filing of the petition. If objections to the petition are filed, the administrative law judge shall then determine whether petitioner has the requisite interest to be a party in the proceedings, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. Where petitions to participate as parties are made by individuals or groups with common interests, the administrative law judge may request all such petitioners to designate a single representative, or he or she may recognize one or more of such petitioners. The administrative law judge shall give each such petitioner, as well as the parties, written notice of the decision on his or her petition. For each petition granted, the administrative law judge shall provide a brief statement of the basis of the decision. If the petition is denied, he or she shall briefly state the grounds for denial and shall then treat the petition as a request for participation as amicus curiae.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.114" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.114   Consequences of default.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.5(a) and (b) of this title. Failure of the respondent to file an answer to the notice of determination described in § 2560.502c-6(g) of this chapter within the 30 day period provided by § 2560.502c-6(h) of this chapter shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations of the notice of determination, and such failure shall be deemed to be an admission of the facts as alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(6) of the Act. Such notice shall then become the final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.111(g) of this subpart, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 3738, Jan. 24, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.115" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.115   Consent order or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings, the following shall apply in lieu of § 18.9 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding, but at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties jointly may move to defer the hearing for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of a settlement or an agreement containing findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such a deferral and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the administrative law judge, after consideration of such factors as the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of reaching an agreement which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the order and decision entered into in accordance with the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(5) That the order and decision of the administrative law judge shall be final agency action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, but, in any case, at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties or their authorized representative or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement containing consent findings and an order to the administrative law judge; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the administrative law judge that the parties have reached a full settlement and have agreed to dismissal of the action subject to compliance with the terms of the settlement; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the administrative law judge that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event a settlement agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the administrative law judge shall issue a decision incorporating such findings and agreement within 30 days of his receipt of such document. The decision of the administrative law judge shall incorporate all of the findings, terms, and conditions of the settlement agreement and consent order of the parties. Such decision shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement without consent of all parties.</I> In cases in which some, but not all, of the parties to a proceeding submit a consent agreement to the administrative law judge, the following procedure shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If all of the parties have not consented to the proposed settlement submitted to the administrative law judge, then such non-consenting parties must receive notice, and a copy, of the proposed settlement at the time it is submitted to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-consenting party shall have fifteen (15) days to file any objections to the proposed settlement with the administrative law judge and all other parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If any party submits an objection to the proposed settlement, the administrative law judge shall decide within 30 days after receipt of such objections whether he shall sign or reject the proposed settlement. Where the record lacks substantial evidence upon which to base a decision or there is a genuine issue of material fact, then the administrative law judge may establish procedures for the purpose of receiving additional evidence upon which a decision on the contested issues may reasonably be based;
</P>
<P>(4) If there are no objections to the proposed settlement, or if the administrative law judge decides to sign the proposed settlement after reviewing any such objections, the administrative law judge shall incorporate the consent agreement into a decision meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.116" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.116   Scope of discovery.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.14 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) A party may file a motion to conduct discovery with the administrative law judge. The motion for discovery shall be granted by the administrative law judge only upon a showing of good cause. In order to establish “good cause” for the purposes of this section, a party must show that the discovery requested relates to a genuine issue as to a material fact that is relevant to the proceeding. The order of the administrative law judge shall expressly limit the scope and terms of discovery to that for which “good cause” has been shown, as provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may obtain discovery of documents and tangible things otherwise discoverable under paragraph (a) of this section and prepared in anticipation of or for the hearing by or for another party's representative (including his or her attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or agent) only upon showing that the party seeking discovery has substantial need of the materials or information in the preparation of his or her case and that he or she is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials or information by other means. In ordering discovery of such materials when the required showing has been made, the administrative law judge shall protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of an attorney or other representatives of a party concerning the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.117" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.117   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.41 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>No genuine issue of material fact.</I> (1) Where no issue of a material fact is found to have been raised, the administrative law judge may issue a decision which, in the absence of an appeal pursuant to §§ 2570.119 through 2570.121 of this subpart, shall become a final order.
</P>
<P>(2) A decision made under this paragraph (a) shall include a statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons therefor, on all issues presented; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any terms and conditions of the rule or order.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any decision under this paragraph shall be served on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings on issues of fact.</I> Where a genuine question of a material fact is raised, the administrative law judge shall, and in any other case may, set the case for an evidentiary hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.118" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.118   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.57 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within twenty (20) days of the filing of the transcript of the testimony, or such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge, subject to the judge's discretion, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and briefs shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the administrative law judge.</I> Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of the proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within 30 days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the administrative law judge shall make his or her decision. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law with reasons therefor upon each material issue of fact or law presented on the record. The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based upon the whole record. In a contested case in which the Department and the Respondent have presented their positions to the administrative law judge pursuant to the procedures for 502(c)(6) civil penalty proceedings as set forth in this subpart, the penalty (if any) which may be included in the decision of the administrative law judge shall be limited to the penalty expressly provided for in section 502(c)(6) of ERISA. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. The decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 unless an appeal is made pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 2570.119 through 2570.121.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.119" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.119   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may review a decision of an administrative law judge. Such a review may occur only when a party files a notice of appeal from a decision of an administrative law judge within twenty (20) days of the issuance of such decision. In all other cases, the decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of appeal to the Secretary shall state with specificity the issue(s) in the decision of the administrative law judge on which the party is seeking review. Such notice of appeal must be served on all parties of record.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Secretary shall request the Chief Administrative Law Judge to submit to him or her a copy of the entire record before the administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.120" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.120   Scope of review.</HEAD>
<P>The review of the Secretary shall not be a <I>de novo</I> proceeding but rather a review of the record established before the administrative law judge. There shall be no opportunity for oral argument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.121" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.121   Procedures for review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the notice of appeal, the Secretary shall establish a briefing schedule which shall be served on all parties of record. Upon motion of one or more of the parties, the Secretary may, in his or her discretion, permit the submission of reply briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall issue a decision as promptly as possible after receipt of the briefs of the parties. The Secretary may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or in part, the decision on appeal and shall issue a statement of reasons and bases for the action(s) taken. Such decision by the Secretary shall be final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Procedures for the Assessment of Civil Penalties Under ERISA Section 502(c)(7)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 3738, Jan. 24, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2570.130" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.130   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this subpart are applicable to “502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings” (as defined in § 2570.131(n) of this subpart) under section 502(c)(7) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act). The rules of procedure for administrative hearings published by the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges at Part 18 of this title will apply to matters arising under ERISA section 502(c)(7) except as modified by this subpart. These proceedings shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible, and the parties shall make every effort to avoid delay at each stage of the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.131" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.131   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of the definitions in § 18.2 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a judicial-type proceeding before an administrative law judge leading to the formulation of a final order; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer</I> means a written statement that is supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to § 2560.502c-7(g) of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of proceeding</I> is the filing of an answer by the respondent; 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent agreement</I> means any written document containing a specified proposed remedy or other relief acceptable to the Department and consenting parties; 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Final order</I> means the final decision or action of the Department of Labor concerning the assessment of a civil penalty under ERISA section 502(c)(7) against a particular party. Such final order may result from a decision of an administrative law judge or the Secretary, the failure of a party to file a statement of reasonable cause described in § 2560.502c-7(e) of this chapter within the prescribed time limits, or the failure of a party to invoke the procedures for hearings or appeals under this title within the prescribed time limits. Such a final order shall constitute final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704; 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing</I> means that part of a proceeding which involves the submission of evidence, by either oral presentation or written submission, to the administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order</I> means the whole or any part of a final procedural or substantive disposition of a matter under ERISA section 502(c)(7); 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Party</I> includes a person or agency named or admitted as a party to a proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, exchange or other entity or organization; 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Petition</I> means a written request, made by a person or party, for some affirmative action; 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Pleading</I> means the notice as defined in § 2560.502c-7(g) of this chapter, the answer to the notice, any supplement or amendment thereto, and any reply that may be permitted to any answer, supplement or amendment; 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>502(c)(7) civil penalty proceeding</I> means an adjudicatory proceeding relating to the assessment of a civil penalty provided for in section 502(c)(7) of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Respondent</I> means the party against whom the Department is seeking to assess a civil sanction under ERISA section 502(c)(7); 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor and includes, pursuant to any delegation of authority by the Secretary, any assistant secretary (including the Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security), administrator, commissioner, appellate body, board, or other official; and 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Solicitor</I> means the Solicitor of Labor or his or her delegate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.132" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.132   Service: Copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(7) penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.3 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Copies of all documents shall be served on all parties of record. All documents should clearly designate the docket number, if any, and short title of all matters. All documents to be filed shall be delivered or mailed to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges, 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or to the OALJ Regional Office to which the proceeding may have been transferred for hearing. Each document filed shall be clear and legible. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By parties.</I> All motions, petitions, pleadings, briefs, or other documents shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges with a copy, including any attachments, to all other parties of record. When a party is represented by an attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney. Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery or by mailing a copy to the last known address. The Department shall be served by delivery to the Associate Solicitor, Plan Benefits Security Division, ERISA section 502(c)(7) Proceeding, P.O. Box 1914, Washington, DC 20013. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and date of service. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</I> Service of orders, decisions and all other documents shall be made by regular mail to the last known address. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of pleadings.</I> (1) Every pleading shall contain information indicating the name of the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) as the agency under which the proceeding is instituted, the title of the proceeding, the docket number (if any) assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges and a designation of the type of pleading or paper (e.g., notice, motion to dismiss, etc.). The pleading or paper shall be signed and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or person representing the party. Although there are no formal specifications for documents, they should be typewritten when possible on standard size 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper. 
</P>
<P>(2) Illegible documents, whether handwritten, typewritten, photocopied, or otherwise, will not be accepted. Papers may be reproduced by any duplicating process provided all copies are clear and legible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.133" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.133   Parties, how designated.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.10 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) The term “party” wherever used in this subpart shall include any natural person, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, firm, partnership, trustee, receiver, agency, public or private organization, or government agency. A party against whom a civil penalty is sought shall be designated as “respondent.” The Department shall be designated as the “complainant.” 
</P>
<P>(b) Other persons or organizations shall be permitted to participate as parties only if the administrative law judge finds that the final decision could directly and adversely affect them or the class they represent, that they may contribute materially to the disposition of the proceedings and their interest is not adequately represented by existing parties, and that in the discretion of the administrative law judge the participation of such persons or organizations would be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) A person or organization not named as a respondent wishing to participate as a party under this section shall submit a petition to the administrative law judge within fifteen (15) days after the person or organization has knowledge of or should have known about the proceeding. The petition shall be filed with the administrative law judge and served on each person who or organization that has been made a party at the time of filing. Such petition shall concisely state: 
</P>
<P>(1) Petitioner's interest in the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(2) How his or her participation as a party will contribute materially to the disposition of the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(3) Who will appear for petitioner; 
</P>
<P>(4) The issues on which petitioner wishes to participate; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(d) Objections to the petition may be filed by a party within fifteen (15) days of the filing of the petition. If objections to the petition are filed, the administrative law judge shall then determine whether petitioner has the requisite interest to be a party in the proceedings, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. Where petitions to participate as parties are made by individuals or groups with common interests, the administrative law judge may request all such petitioners to designate a single representative, or he or she may recognize one or more of such petitioners. The administrative law judge shall give each such petitioner, as well as the parties, written notice of the decision on his or her petition. For each petition granted, the administrative law judge shall provide a brief statement of the basis of the decision. If the petition is denied, he or she shall briefly state the grounds for denial and shall then treat the petition as a request for participation as <I>amicus curiae.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.134" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.134   Consequences of default.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.5(a) and (b) of this title. Failure of the respondent to file an answer to the notice of determination described in § 2560.502c-7(g) of this chapter within the 30 day period provided by § 2560.502c-7(h) of this chapter shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations of the notice of determination, and such failure shall be deemed to be an admission of the facts as alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(7) of the Act. Such notice shall then become the final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.131(g) of this subpart, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.135" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.135   Consent order or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings, the following shall apply in lieu of § 18.9 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding, but at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties jointly may move to defer the hearing for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of a settlement or an agreement containing findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such a deferral and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the administrative law judge, after consideration of such factors as the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of reaching an agreement which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice and the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the order and decision entered into in accordance with the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(5) That the order and decision of the administrative law judge shall be final agency action. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, but, in any case, at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties or their authorized representative or their counsel may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement containing consent findings and an order to the administrative law judge; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the administrative law judge that the parties have reached a full settlement and have agreed to dismissal of the action subject to compliance with the terms of the settlement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the administrative law judge that agreement cannot be reached. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event a settlement agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the administrative law judge shall issue a decision incorporating such findings and agreement within 30 days of his receipt of such document. The decision of the administrative law judge shall incorporate all of the findings, terms, and conditions of the settlement agreement and consent order of the parties. Such decision shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement without consent of all parties.</I> In cases in which some, but not all, of the parties to a proceeding submit a consent agreement to the administrative law judge, the following procedure shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) If all of the parties have not consented to the proposed settlement submitted to the administrative law judge, then such non-consenting parties must receive notice, and a copy, of the proposed settlement at the time it is submitted to the administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-consenting party shall have fifteen (15) days to file any objections to the proposed settlement with the administrative law judge and all other parties; 
</P>
<P>(3) If any party submits an objection to the proposed settlement, the administrative law judge shall decide within 30 days after receipt of such objections whether he shall sign or reject the proposed settlement. Where the record lacks substantial evidence upon which to base a decision or there is a genuine issue of material fact, then the administrative law judge may establish procedures for the purpose of receiving additional evidence upon which a decision on the contested issues may reasonably be based; 
</P>
<P>(4) If there are no objections to the proposed settlement, or if the administrative law judge decides to sign the proposed settlement after reviewing any such objections, the administrative law judge shall incorporate the consent agreement into a decision meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.136" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.136   Scope of discovery.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.14 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) A party may file a motion to conduct discovery with the administrative law judge. The motion for discovery shall be granted by the administrative law judge only upon a showing of good cause. In order to establish “good cause” for the purposes of this section, a party must show that the discovery requested relates to a genuine issue as to a material fact that is relevant to the proceeding. The order of the administrative law judge shall expressly limit the scope and terms of discovery to that for which “good cause” has been shown, as provided in this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) A party may obtain discovery of documents and tangible things otherwise discoverable under paragraph (a) of this section and prepared in anticipation of or for the hearing by or for another party's representative (including his or her attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or agent) only upon showing that the party seeking discovery has substantial need of the materials or information in the preparation of his or her case and that he or she is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials or information by other means. In ordering discovery of such materials when the required showing has been made, the administrative law judge shall protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of an attorney or other representatives of a party concerning the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.137" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.137   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.41 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>No genuine issue of material fact.</I> (1) Where no issue of a material fact is found to have been raised, the administrative law judge may issue a decision which, in the absence of an appeal pursuant to §§ 2570.139 through 2570.141 of this subpart, shall become a final order. 
</P>
<P>(2) A decision made under paragraph (a) of this section shall include a statement of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons therefor, on all issues presented; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any terms and conditions of the rule or order. 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any decision under this paragraph shall be served on each party. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings on issues of fact.</I> Where a genuine question of a material fact is raised, the administrative law judge shall, and in any other case may, set the case for an evidentiary hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.138" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.138   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.57 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within twenty (20) days of the filing of the transcript of the testimony, or such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge, subject to the judge's discretion, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and briefs shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the administrative law judge.</I> Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of the proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within thirty (30) days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the administrative law judge shall make his or her decision. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law with reasons therefor upon each material issue of fact or law presented on the record. The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based upon the whole record. In a contested case in which the Department and the Respondent have presented their positions to the administrative law judge pursuant to the procedures for 502(c)(7) civil penalty proceedings as set forth in this subpart, the penalty (if any) which may be included in the decision of the administrative law judge shall be limited to the penalty expressly provided for in section 502(c)(7) of ERISA. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. The decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 unless an appeal is made pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 2570.139 through 2570.141 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.139" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.139   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may review a decision of an administrative law judge. Such a review may occur only when a party files a notice of appeal from a decision of an administrative law judge within twenty (20) days of the issuance of such decision. In all other cases, the decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704. 
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of appeal to the Secretary shall state with specificity the issue(s) in the decision of the administrative law judge on which the party is seeking review. Such notice of appeal must be served on all parties of record. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Secretary shall request the Chief Administrative Law Judge to submit to him or her a copy of the entire record before the administrative law judge. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.140" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.140   Scope of review.</HEAD>
<P>The review of the Secretary shall not be a de novo proceeding but rather a review of the record established before the administrative law judge. There shall be no opportunity for oral argument. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.141" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.141   Procedures for review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the notice of appeal, the Secretary shall establish a briefing schedule which shall be served on all parties of record. Upon motion of one or more of the parties, the Secretary may, in his or her discretion, permit the submission of reply briefs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall issue a decision as promptly as possible after receipt of the briefs of the parties. The Secretary may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or in part, the decision on appeal and shall issue a statement of reasons and bases for the action(s) taken. Such decision by the Secretary shall be final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Procedures for Issuance of Findings Under ERISA Sec. 3(40)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 17489, Apr. 9, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2570.150" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.150   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this subpart H apply to “section 3(40) Finding Proceedings” (as defined in § 2570.152(g)), under section 3(40) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act). Refer to 29 CFR 2510.3-40 for the definition of relevant terms of section 3(40) of ERISA, 29 U.S.C. 1002(40). To the extent that the regulations in this subpart differ from the regulations in subpart A of 29 CFR part 18, the regulations in this subpart apply to matters arising under section 3(40) of ERISA rather than the rules of procedure for administrative hearings published by the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges in subpart A of 29 CFR part 18. These proceedings shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible, and the parties shall make every effort to avoid delay at each stage of the proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.151" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.151   In general.</HEAD>
<P>If there is an attempt to assert state jurisdiction or the application of state law, either by the issuance of a state administrative or court subpoena to, or the initiation of administrative or judicial proceedings against, a plan or other arrangement that alleges it is covered by title I of ERISA, 29 U.S.C. 1003, the plan or other arrangement may petition the Secretary to make a finding under section 3(40)(A)(i) of ERISA that it is a plan established or maintained under or pursuant to an agreement or agreements that the Secretary finds to be collective bargaining agreements for purposes of section 3(40) of ERISA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.152" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.152   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For section 3(40) Finding Proceedings, this section shall apply instead of the definitions in 29 CFR 18.2.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, <I>et seq.,</I> 29 U.S.C. 1001, <I>et seq.,</I> as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Order</I> means the whole or part of a final procedural or substantive disposition by the administrative law judge of a matter under section 3(40) of ERISA. No order will be appealable to the Secretary except as provided in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petition</I> means a written request under the procedures in this subpart for a finding by the Secretary under section 3(40) of ERISA that a plan is established or maintained under or pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Petitioner</I> means the plan or arrangement filing a petition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Respondent</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A state government instrumentality charged with enforcing the law that is alleged to apply or which has been identified as asserting jurisdiction over a plan or other arrangement, including any agency, commission, board, or committee charged with investigating and enforcing state insurance laws, including parties joined under § 2570.153;
</P>
<P>(2) The person or entity asserting that state law or state jurisdiction applies to the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary of Labor; and
</P>
<P>(4) A state not named in the petition that has intervened under § 2570.153(b).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor, and includes, pursuant to any delegation or sub-delegation of authority, the Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security or other employee of the Employee Benefits Security Administration.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Section 3(40) Finding Proceeding</I> means a proceeding before the Office of Administrative Law Judges (OALJ) relating to whether the Secretary finds an entity to be a plan to be established or maintained under or pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements within the meaning of section 3(40) of ERISA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.153" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.153   Parties.</HEAD>
<P>For section 3(40) Finding Proceedings, this section shall apply instead of 29 CFR 18.10.
</P>
<P>(a) The term “party” with respect to a Section 3(40) Finding Proceeding means the petitioner and the respondents.
</P>
<P>(b) States not named in the petition may participate as parties in a Section 3(40) Finding Proceeding by notifying the OALJ and the other parties in writing prior to the date for filing a response to the petition. After the date for service of responses to the petition, a state not named in the petition may intervene as a party only with the consent of all parties or as otherwise ordered by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary of Labor shall be named as a “respondent” to all actions.
</P>
<P>(d) The failure of any party to comply with any order of the ALJ may, at the discretion of the ALJ, result in the denial of the opportunity to present evidence in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.154" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.154   Filing and contents of petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person seeking a finding under section 3(40) of ERISA must file a written petition by delivering or mailing it to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges (OALJ), 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or by making a filing by any electronic means permitted under procedures established by the OALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) The petition shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the name and address of the entity for which the petition is filed;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the names and addresses of the plan administrator and plan sponsor(s) of the plan or other arrangement for which the finding is sought;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the state or states whose law or jurisdiction the petitioner claims has been asserted over the petitioner, and provide the addresses and names of responsible officials;
</P>
<P>(4) Include affidavits or other written evidence showing that:
</P>
<P>(i) State jurisdiction has been asserted over or legal process commenced against the petitioner pursuant to state law;
</P>
<P>(ii) The petitioner is an employee welfare benefit plan as defined at section 3(1) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1002(1)) and 29 CFR 2510.3-1 and is covered by title I of ERISA (<I>see</I> 29 U.S.C. 1003);
</P>
<P>(iii) The petitioner is established or maintained for the purpose of offering or providing benefits described in section 3(1) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1002(1)) to employees of two or more employers (including one or more self-employed individuals) or their beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(iv) The petitioner satisfies the criteria in 29 CFR 2510.3-40(b); and
</P>
<P>(v) Service has been made as provided in § 2570.155.
</P>
<P>(5) The affidavits shall set forth such facts as would be admissible in evidence in a proceeding under 29 CFR part 18 and shall show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated therein. The affidavit or other written evidence must set forth specific facts showing the factors required under paragraph (b)(4) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.155" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.155   Service.</HEAD>
<P>For section 3(40) proceedings, this section shall apply instead of 29 CFR 18.3.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Copies of all documents shall be served on all parties of record. All documents should clearly designate the docket number, if any, and short title of all matters. All documents to be filed shall be delivered or mailed to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges (OALJ), 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or to the OALJ Regional Office to which the proceeding may have been transferred for hearing. Each document filed shall be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By parties.</I> All motions, petitions, pleadings, briefs, or other documents shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges with a copy, including any attachments, to all other parties of record. When a party is represented by an attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney. Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery or by mailing by first class, prepaid U.S. mail, a copy to the last known address. The Secretary shall be served by delivery to the Associate Solicitor, Plan Benefits Security Division, ERISA Section 3(40) Proceeding, PO Box 1914, Washington, DC 20013. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and date of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</I> Service of orders, decisions and all other documents shall be made to all parties of record by regular mail to their last known address.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of pleadings</I> (1) Every pleading shall contain information indicating the name of the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) as the agency under which the proceeding is instituted, the title of the proceeding, the docket number (if any) assigned by the OALJ and a designation of the type of pleading or paper (e.g., notice, motion to dismiss, etc.). The pleading or paper shall be signed and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or person representing the party. Although there are no formal specifications for documents, they should be typewritten when possible on standard size 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper.
</P>
<P>(2) Illegible documents, whether handwritten, typewritten, photocopies, or otherwise, will not be accepted. Papers may be reproduced by any duplicating process provided all copies are clear and legible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.156" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.156   Expedited proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>For section 3(40) Finding Proceedings, this section shall apply instead of 29 CFR 18.42.
</P>
<P>(a) At any time after commencement of a proceeding, any party may move to advance the scheduling of a proceeding, including the time for conducting discovery.
</P>
<P>(b) Except when such proceedings are directed by the Chief Administrative Law Judge or the administrative law judge assigned, any party filing a motion under this section shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Make the motion in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the circumstances justifying advancement;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the irreparable harm that would result if the motion is not granted; and
</P>
<P>(4) Incorporate in the motion affidavits to support any representations of fact.
</P>
<P>(c) Service of a motion under this section shall be accomplished by personal delivery, or by facsimile, followed by first class, prepaid, U.S. mail. Service is complete upon personal delivery or mailing.
</P>
<P>(d) Except when such proceedings are required, or unless otherwise directed by the Chief Administrative Law Judge or the administrative law judge assigned, all parties to the proceeding in which the motion is filed shall have ten (10) days from the date of service of the motion to file an opposition in response to the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) Following the timely receipt by the administrative law judge of statements in response to the motion, the administrative law judge may advance pleading schedules, discovery schedules, prehearing conferences, and the hearing, as deemed appropriate; provided, however, that a hearing on the merits shall not be scheduled with less than five (5) working days notice to the parties, unless all parties consent to an earlier hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) When an expedited hearing is held, the decision of the administrative law judge shall be issued within twenty (20) days after receipt of the transcript of any oral hearing or within twenty (20) days after the filing of all documentary evidence if no oral hearing is conducted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.157" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.157   Allocation of burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of a final decision under § 2570.158 (Decision of the Administrative Law Judge) or § 2570.159 (Review by the Secretary), the petitioner shall have the burden of proof as to whether it meets 29 CFR 2510.3-40.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.158" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.158   Decision of the Administrative Law Judge.</HEAD>
<P>For section 3(40) finding proceedings, this section shall apply instead of 29 CFR 18.57.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order.</I> Within twenty (20) days of filing the transcript of the testimony, or such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge, subject to the judge's discretion under 29 CFR 18.55, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order together with the supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and brief shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision based on oral argument in lieu of briefs.</I> In any case in which the administrative law judge believes that written briefs or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law may not be necessary, the administrative law judge shall notify the parties at the opening of the hearing or as soon thereafter as is practicable that he or she may wish to hear oral argument in lieu of briefs. The administrative law judge shall issue his or her decision at the close of oral argument, or within 30 days thereafter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision of the administrative law judge.</I> Within 30 days, or as soon as possible thereafter, after the time allowed for the filing of the proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within thirty (30) days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the administrative law judge shall make his or her decision. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, with reasons therefore, upon each material issue of fact or law presented on the record. The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based upon the whole record. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. Such decision shall be in accordance with the regulations found at 29 CFR 2510.3-40 and shall be limited to whether the petitioner, based on the facts presented at the time of the proceeding, is a plan established or maintained under or pursuant to collective bargaining for the purposes of section 3(40) of ERISA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.159" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.8.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.159   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request for review by the Secretary of an appealable decision of the administrative law judge may be made by any party. Such a request must be filed within 20 days of the issuance of the final decision or the final decision of the administrative law judge will become the final agency order for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) A request for review by the Secretary shall state with specificity the issue(s) in the administrative law judge's final decision upon which review is sought. The request shall be served on all parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) The review by the Secretary shall not be a de novo proceeding but rather a review of the record established by the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the submission of supplemental briefs by the parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary shall issue a decision as promptly as possible, affirming, modifying, or setting aside, in whole or in part, the decision under review, and shall set forth a brief statement of reasons therefor. Such decision by the Secretary shall be the final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Procedures for the Assessment of Civil Penalties Under ERISA Section 502(c)(8)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 8801, Feb. 26, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2570.160" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.160   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this subpart are applicable to “502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings” (as defined in § 2570.161(n) of this subpart) under section 502(c)(8) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act). The rules of procedure for administrative hearings published by the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges at Part 18 of this title will apply to matters arising under ERISA section 502(c)(8) except as modified by this subpart. These proceedings shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible, and the parties shall make every effort to avoid delay at each stage of the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.161" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.161   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of the definitions in § 18.2 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a judicial-type proceeding before an administrative law judge leading to the formulation of a final order;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer</I> means a written statement that is supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the notice of determination issued pursuant to § 2560.502c-8(g) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of proceeding</I> is the filing of an answer by the respondent;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent agreement</I> means any written document containing a specified proposed remedy or other relief acceptable to the Department and consenting parties;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended;
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Final order</I> means the final decision or action of the Department of Labor concerning the assessment of a civil penalty under ERISA section 502(c)(8) against a particular party. Such final order may result from a decision of an administrative law judge or the Secretary, the failure of a party to file a statement of reasonable cause described in § 2560.502c-8(e) of this chapter within the prescribed time limits, or the failure of a party to invoke the procedures for hearings or appeals under this title within the prescribed time limits. Such a final order shall constitute final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704;
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing</I> means that part of a proceeding which involves the submission of evidence, by either oral presentation or written submission, to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order</I> means the whole or any part of a final procedural or substantive disposition of a matter under ERISA section 502(c)(8);
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Party</I> includes a person or agency named or admitted as a party to a proceeding;
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, exchange or other entity or organization;
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Petition</I> means a written request, made by a person or party, for some affirmative action;
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Pleading</I> means the notice as defined in § 2560.502c-8(g) of this chapter, the answer to the notice, any supplement or amendment thereto, and any reply that may be permitted to any answer, supplement or amendment;
</P>
<P>(n) <I>502(c)(8) civil penalty proceeding</I> means an adjudicatory proceeding relating to the assessment of a civil penalty provided for in section 502(c)(8) of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Respondent</I> means the party against whom the Department is seeking to assess a civil sanction under ERISA section 502(c)(8);
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor and includes, pursuant to any delegation of authority by the Secretary, any assistant secretary (including the Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security), administrator, commissioner, appellate body, board, or other official; and
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Solicitor</I> means the Solicitor of Labor or his or her delegate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.162" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.162   Service: Copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(8) penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.3 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Copies of all documents shall be served on all parties of record. All documents should clearly designate the docket number, if any, and short title of all matters. All documents to be filed shall be delivered or mailed to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges, 800 K Street, NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or to the OALJ Regional Office to which the proceeding may have been transferred for hearing. Each document filed shall be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By parties.</I> All motions, petitions, pleadings, briefs, or other documents shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges with a copy, including any attachments, to all other parties of record. When a party is represented by an attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney. Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery or by mailing a copy to the last known address. The Department shall be served by delivery to the Associate Solicitor, Plan Benefits Security Division, ERISA section 502(c)(8) Proceeding, P.O. Box 1914, Washington, DC 20013. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner and date of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</I> Service of orders, decisions and all other documents shall be made by regular mail to the last known address.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of pleadings.</I> (1) Every pleading shall contain information indicating the name of the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) as the agency under which the proceeding is instituted, the title of the proceeding, the docket number (if any) assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges and a designation of the type of pleading or paper (e.g., notice, motion to dismiss, <I>etc.</I>). The pleading or paper shall be signed and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or person representing the party. Although there are no formal specifications for documents, they should be typewritten when possible on standard size 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11-inch paper.
</P>
<P>(2) Illegible documents, whether handwritten, typewritten, photocopied, or otherwise, will not be accepted. Papers may be reproduced by any duplicating process provided all copies are clear and legible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.163" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.163   Parties, how designated.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.10 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) The term “party” wherever used in this subpart shall include any natural person, corporation, employee benefit plan, association, firm, partnership, trustee, receiver, agency, public or private organization, or government agency. A party against whom a civil penalty is sought shall be designated as “respondent.” The Department shall be designated as the “complainant.”
</P>
<P>(b) Other persons or organizations shall be permitted to participate as parties only if the administrative law judge finds that the final decision could directly and adversely affect them or the class they represent, that they may contribute materially to the disposition of the proceedings and their interest is not adequately represented by existing parties, and that in the discretion of the administrative law judge the participation of such persons or organizations would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) A person or organization not named as a respondent wishing to participate as a party under this section shall submit a petition to the administrative law judge within fifteen (15) days after the person or organization has knowledge of or should have known about the proceeding. The petition shall be filed with the administrative law judge and served on each person who or organization that has been made a party at the time of filing. Such petition shall concisely state:
</P>
<P>(1) Petitioner's interest in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) How his or her participation as a party will contribute materially to the disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Who will appear for petitioner;
</P>
<P>(4) The issues on which petitioner wishes to participate; and
</P>
<P>(5) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses.
</P>
<P>(d) Objections to the petition may be filed by a party within fifteen (15) days of the filing of the petition. If objections to the petition are filed, the administrative law judge shall then determine whether petitioner has the requisite interest to be a party in the proceedings, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. Where petitions to participate as parties are made by individuals or groups with common interests, the administrative law judge may request all such petitioners to designate a single representative, or he or she may recognize one or more of such petitioners. The administrative law judge shall give each such petitioner, as well as the parties, written notice of the decision on his or her petition. For each petition granted, the administrative law judge shall provide a brief statement of the basis of the decision. If the petition is denied, he or she shall briefly state the grounds for denial and shall then treat the petition as a request for participation as <I>amicus curiae.</I> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.164" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.164   Consequences of default.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.5(a) and (b) of this title. Failure of the respondent to file an answer to the notice of determination described in § 2560.502c-8(g) of this chapter within the 30 day period provided by § 2560.502c-8(h) of this chapter shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations of the notice of determination, and such failure shall be deemed to be an admission of the facts as alleged in the notice for purposes of any proceeding involving the assessment of a civil penalty under section 502(c)(8) of the Act. Such notice shall then become the final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of § 2570.161(g) of this subpart, forty-five (45) days from the date of service of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.165" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.165   Consent order or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings, the following shall apply in lieu of § 18.9 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At any time after the commencement of a proceeding, but at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties jointly may move to defer the hearing for a reasonable time to permit negotiation of a settlement or an agreement containing findings and an order disposing of the whole or any part of the proceeding. The allowance of such a deferral and the duration thereof shall be in the discretion of the administrative law judge, after consideration of such factors as the nature of the proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties, and the probability of reaching an agreement which will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of a proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which any order may be based shall consist solely of the notice and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the order and decision entered into in accordance with the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(5) That the order and decision of the administrative law judge shall be final agency action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, but, in any case, at least five (5) days prior to the date set for hearing, the parties or their authorized representative or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement containing consent findings and an order to the administrative law judge; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the administrative law judge that the parties have reached a full settlement and have agreed to dismissal of the action subject to compliance with the terms of the settlement; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the administrative law judge that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> In the event a settlement agreement containing consent findings and an order is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the administrative law judge shall issue a decision incorporating such findings and agreement within 30 days of his receipt of such document. The decision of the administrative law judge shall incorporate all of the findings, terms, and conditions of the settlement agreement and consent order of the parties. Such decision shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement without consent of all parties.</I> In cases in which some, but not all, of the parties to a proceeding submit a consent agreement to the administrative law judge, the following procedure shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If all of the parties have not consented to the proposed settlement submitted to the administrative law judge, then such non-consenting parties must receive notice, and a copy, of the proposed settlement at the time it is submitted to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-consenting party shall have fifteen (15) days to file any objections to the proposed settlement with the administrative law judge and all other parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If any party submits an objection to the proposed settlement, the administrative law judge shall decide within 30 days after receipt of such objections whether he shall sign or reject the proposed settlement. Where the record lacks substantial evidence upon which to base a decision or there is a genuine issue of material fact, then the administrative law judge may establish procedures for the purpose of receiving additional evidence upon which a decision on the contested issues may reasonably be based;
</P>
<P>(4) If there are no objections to the proposed settlement, or if the administrative law judge decides to sign the proposed settlement after reviewing any such objections, the administrative law judge shall incorporate the consent agreement into a decision meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.166" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.166   Scope of discovery.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.14 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) A party may file a motion to conduct discovery with the administrative law judge. The motion for discovery shall be granted by the administrative law judge only upon a showing of good cause. In order to establish “good cause” for the purposes of this section, a party must show that the discovery requested relates to a genuine issue as to a material fact that is relevant to the proceeding. The order of the administrative law judge shall expressly limit the scope and terms of discovery to that for which “good cause” has been shown, as provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may obtain discovery of documents and tangible things otherwise discoverable under paragraph (a) of this section and prepared in anticipation of or for the hearing by or for another party's representative (including his or her attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or agent) only upon showing that the party seeking discovery has substantial need of the materials or information in the preparation of his or her case and that he or she is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials or information by other means. In ordering discovery of such materials when the required showing has been made, the administrative law judge shall protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of an attorney or other representatives of a party concerning the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.167" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.167   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.41 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>No genuine issue of material fact.</I> (1) Where no issue of a material fact is found to have been raised, the administrative law judge may issue a decision which, in the absence of an appeal pursuant to §§ 2570.169 through 2570.171 of this subpart, shall become a final order.
</P>
<P>(2) A decision made under paragraph (a) of this section shall include a statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons therefor, on all issues presented; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any terms and conditions of the rule or order.
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any decision under this paragraph shall be served on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearings on issues of fact.</I> Where a genuine question of a material fact is raised, the administrative law judge shall, and in any other case may, set the case for an evidentiary hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.168" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.168   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>For 502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.57 of this title.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within twenty (20) days of the filing of the transcript of the testimony, or such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge, subject to the judge's discretion, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and briefs shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the administrative law judge.</I> Within a reasonable time after the time allowed for the filing of the proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order, or within thirty (30) days after receipt of an agreement containing consent findings and order disposing of the disputed matter in whole, the administrative law judge shall make his or her decision. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law with reasons therefor upon each material issue of fact or law presented on the record. The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based upon the whole record. In a contested case in which the Department and the Respondent have presented their positions to the administrative law judge pursuant to the procedures for 502(c)(8) civil penalty proceedings as set forth in this subpart, the penalty (if any) which may be included in the decision of the administrative law judge shall be limited to the penalty expressly provided for in section 502(c)(8) of ERISA. It shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. The decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 unless an appeal is made pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 2570.169 through 2570.171 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.169" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.169   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may review a decision of an administrative law judge. Such a review may occur only when a party files a notice of appeal from a decision of an administrative law judge within twenty (20) days of the issuance of such decision. In all other cases, the decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of appeal to the Secretary shall state with specificity the issue(s) in the decision of the administrative law judge on which the party is seeking review. Such notice of appeal must be served on all parties of record.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Secretary shall request the Chief Administrative Law Judge to submit to him or her a copy of the entire record before the administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.170" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.170   Scope of review.</HEAD>
<P>The review of the Secretary shall not be a de novo proceeding but rather a review of the record established before the administrative law judge. There shall be no opportunity for oral argument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2570.171" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.8.9.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2570.171   Procedures for review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the notice of appeal, the Secretary shall establish a briefing schedule which shall be served on all parties of record. Upon motion of one or more of the parties, the Secretary may, in his or her discretion, permit the submission of reply briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall issue a decision as promptly as possible after receipt of the briefs of the parties. The Secretary may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or in part, the decision on appeal and shall issue a statement of reasons and bases for the action(s) taken. Such decision by the Secretary shall be final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2571" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2571—PROCEDURAL REGULATIONS FOR ADMINISTRATION AND ENFORCEMENT UNDER THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1002(40), 1132, 1135; and 1151, Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (January 9, 2012).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 13808, Mar. 1, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Procedures for Administrative Hearings on the Issuance of Cease and Desist Orders Under ERISA Section 521—Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.1   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice set forth in this part apply to ex parte cease and desist order proceedings under section 521 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA). The rules of procedure for administrative hearings published by the Department's Office of Administrative Law Judges at part 18 of this title will apply to matters arising under ERISA section 521 except as modified by this section. These proceedings shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible, and the parties and the Office of the Administrative Law Judges shall make every effort to avoid delay at each stage of the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.2" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For section 521 proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of the definitions in § 18.2 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a judicial-type proceeding before an administrative law judge leading to an order;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer</I> means a written statement that is supported by reference to specific circumstances or facts surrounding the temporary order issued pursuant to 29 CFR 2560.521-1(c);
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of proceeding</I> is the filing of an answer by the respondent;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent agreement</I> means a proposed written agreement and order containing a specified proposed remedy or other relief acceptable to the Secretary and consenting parties;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Final order</I> means a cease and desist order that is a final order of the Secretary of Labor under ERISA section 521. Such final order may result from a decision of an administrative law judge or of the Secretary on review of a decision of an administrative law judge, or from the failure of a party to invoke the procedures for a hearing under 29 CFR 2560.521-1 within the prescribed time limit. A final order shall constitute a final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704;
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hearing</I> means that part of a section 521 proceeding which involves the submission of evidence, either by oral presentation or written submission, to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Order</I> means the whole or any part of a final procedural or substantive disposition of a section 521 proceeding;
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Party</I> includes a person or agency named or admitted as a party to a section 521 proceeding;
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, partnership, corporation, employee welfare benefit plan, association, or other entity or organization;
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Petition</I> means a written request, made by a person or party, for some affirmative action;
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Respondent</I> means the party against whom the Secretary is seeking to impose a cease and desist order under ERISA section 521;
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or his or her delegate;
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Section 521 proceeding</I> means an adjudicatory proceeding relating to the issuance of a temporary order under 29 CFR 2560.521-1 and section 521 of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Solicitor</I> means the Solicitor of Labor or his or her delegate; and
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Temporary order</I> means the temporary cease and desist order issued by the Secretary under 29 CFR 2560.521-1(c) and section 521 of ERISA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.3" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.3   Service: copies of documents and pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>For section 521 proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.3 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Copies of all documents shall be served on all parties of record. All documents should clearly designate the docket number, if any, and short title of all matters. All documents to be filed shall be delivered or mailed to the Chief Docket Clerk, Office of Administrative Law Judges, 800 K Street NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-8002, or to the OALJ Regional Office to which the section 521 proceeding may have been transferred for hearing. Each document filed shall be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By parties.</I> All motions, petitions, pleadings, briefs, or other documents shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges with a copy, including any attachments, to all other parties of record. When a party is represented by an attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney. Service of any document upon any party may be made by personal delivery or by mailing a copy to the last known address. The Secretary shall be served by delivery to the Associate Solicitor, Plan Benefits Security Division, ERISA Section 521 Proceeding, P.O. Box 1914, Washington, DC 20013 and any attorney named for service of process as set forth in the temporary order. The person serving the document shall certify to the manner of date and service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Office of Administrative Law Judges.</I> Service of orders, decisions, and all other documents shall be made in such manner as the Office of Administrative Law Judges determines to the last known address.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of pleadings.</I> (1) Every pleading or other paper filed in a section 521 proceeding shall designate the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) as the agency under which the proceeding is instituted, the title of the proceeding, the docket number (if any) assigned by the Office of Administrative Law Judges and a designation of the type of pleading or paper (e.g., notice, motion to dismiss, etc.). The pleading or paper shall be signed and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or person representing the party. Although there are no formal specifications for documents, they should be printed when possible on standard size 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper.
</P>
<P>(2) Illegible documents, whether handwritten, printed, photocopies, or otherwise, will not be accepted. Papers may be reproduced by any duplicating process provided all copies are clear and legible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.4" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.4   Parties.</HEAD>
<P>For section 521 proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.10 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) The term “party” wherever used in these rules shall include any person that is a subject of the temporary order and is challenging the temporary order under these section 521 proceedings, and the Secretary. A party challenging a temporary order shall be designated as the “respondent.” The Secretary shall be designated as the “complainant.”
</P>
<P>(b) Other persons shall be permitted to participate as parties only if the administrative law judge finds that the final decision could directly and adversely affect them or the class they represent, that they may contribute materially to the disposition of the section 521 proceeding and their interest is not adequately represented by the existing parties, and that in the discretion of the administrative law judge the participation of such persons would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) A person not named in a temporary order, but wishing to participate as a respondent under this section shall submit a petition to the administrative law judge within fifteen (15) days after the person has knowledge of, or should have known about, the section 521 proceeding. The petition shall be filed with the administrative law judge and served on each person who has been made a party at the time of filing. Such petition shall concisely state:
</P>
<P>(1) Petitioner's interest in the section 521 proceeding (including how the section 521 proceedings will directly and adversely affect them or the class they represent and why their interest is not adequately represented by the existing parties);
</P>
<P>(2) How his or her participation as a party will contribute materially to the disposition of the section 521 proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Who will appear for the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(4) The issues on which petitioner wishes to participate; and
</P>
<P>(5) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses.
</P>
<P>(d) Objections to the petition may be filed by a party within fifteen (15) days of the filing of the petition. If objections to the petition are filed, the administrative law judge shall then determine whether petitioners have the requisite interest to be a party in the section 521 proceeding, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. Where persons with common interest file petitions to participate as parties in a section 521 proceeding, the administrative law judge may request all such petitioners to designate a single representative, or the administrative law judge may designate one or more of the petitioners to represent the others. The administrative law judge shall give each such petitioner, as well as the parties, written notice of the decision on his or her petition. For each petition granted, the administrative law judge shall provide a brief statement of the basis of the decision. If the petition is denied, he or she shall briefly state the grounds for denial and may consider whether to treat the petition as a request for participation as amicus curiae.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.5" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.5   Consequences of default.</HEAD>
<P>For section 521 proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.5(b) of this title. Failure of the respondent to file an answer to the temporary order within the 30-day period provided by 29 CFR 2560.521-1(e) shall constitute a waiver of the respondent's right to appear and contest the temporary order. Such failure shall also be deemed to be an admission of the facts as alleged in the temporary order for purposes of any proceeding involving the order issued under section 521 of ERISA. The temporary order shall then become the final order of the Secretary, within the meaning of 29 CFR 2571.2(f), 30 days from the date of the service of the temporary order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.6" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.6   Consent order or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>For section 521 proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.9 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> At any time after the commencement of a section 521 proceeding, the parties jointly may move to defer the hearing for a reasonable time in order to negotiate a settlement or an agreement containing findings and a consent order disposing of the whole or any part of the section 521 proceeding. The administrative law judge shall have discretion to allow or deny such a postponement and to determine its duration. In exercising this discretion, the administrative law judge shall consider the nature of the section 521 proceeding, the requirements of the public interest, the representations of the parties and the probability of reaching an agreement that will result in a just disposition of the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Any agreement containing consent findings and an order disposing of the section 521 proceeding or any part thereof shall also provide:
</P>
<P>(1) That the consent order shall have the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) That the entire record on which the consent order is based shall consist solely of the notice and the agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A waiver of any further procedural steps before the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the consent order and decision entered into in accordance with the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(5) That the consent order and decision of the administrative law judge shall be final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission.</I> On or before the expiration of the time granted for negotiations, the parties or their authorized representatives or their counsel may:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the proposed agreement containing consent findings and an order to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the administrative law judge that the parties have reached a full settlement and have agreed to dismissal of the action subject to compliance with the terms of the settlement; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the administrative law judge that agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> If a settlement agreement containing consent findings and an order, agreed to by all the parties to a section 521 proceeding, is submitted within the time allowed therefor, the administrative law judge shall incorporate all of the findings, terms, and conditions of the settlement agreement and consent order of the parties. Such decision shall become a final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement without consent of all respondents.</I> In cases in which some, but not all, of the respondents to a section 521 proceeding submit an agreement and consent order to the administrative law judge, the following procedure shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If all of the respondents have not consented to the proposed settlement submitted to the administrative law judge, then such non-consenting parties must receive notice and a copy of the proposed settlement at the time it is submitted to the administrative law judge;
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-consenting respondent shall have fifteen (15) days to file any objections to the proposed settlement with the administrative law judge and all other parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If any respondent submits an objection to the proposed settlement, the administrative law judge shall decide within thirty (30) days after receipt of such objections whether to sign or reject the proposed settlement. Where the record lacks substantial evidence upon which to base a decision or there is a genuine issue of material fact, then the administrative law judge may establish procedures for the purpose of receiving additional evidence upon which a decision on the contested issue may be reasonably based;
</P>
<P>(4) If there are no objections to the proposed settlement, or if the administrative law judge decides to sign the proposed settlement after reviewing any such objections, the administrative law judge shall incorporate the consent agreement into a decision meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) If the consent agreement is incorporated into a decision meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, the administrative law judge shall continue the section 521 proceeding with respect to any non-consenting respondents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.7" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.7   Scope of discovery.</HEAD>
<P>For section 521 proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.14 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) A party may file a motion to conduct discovery with the administrative law judge. The administrative law judge may grant a motion for discovery only upon a showing of good cause. In order to establish “good cause” for the purposes of this section, the moving party must show that the requested discovery relates to a genuine issue as to a fact that is material to the section 521 proceeding. The order of the administrative law judge shall expressly limit the scope and terms of the discovery to that for which “good cause” has been shown, as provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) Any evidentiary privileges apply as they would apply in a civil proceeding in federal district court. For example, legal advice provided by an attorney to a client is generally protected from disclosure. Mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of a party's attorney or other representative developed in anticipation of litigation are also generally protected from disclosure. The administrative law judge may not, however, protect from discovery or use, relevant communications between an attorney and a plan administrator or other plan fiduciary, or work product, that fall under the fiduciary exception to the attorney-client or work product privileges. The fiduciary exception to these privileges exists when an attorney advises the plan administrator or other plan fiduciary on matters concerning plan administration or other fiduciary activities. Consequently, the administrative law judge may not protect such communications from discovery or from use by the Secretary in the proceedings. The administrative law judge also may also not protect attorney work product prepared to assist the fiduciary in its fiduciary capacity from discovery or from use by the Secretary in the proceedings. The fiduciary exception does not apply, however, to the extent that communications were made or documents were prepared exclusively to aid the fiduciary personally or for non-fiduciary matters (e.g. settlor acts), provided that the plan did not pay for the legal services. The Secretary need not make a special showing, such as good cause, merely to obtain information or documents covered by the fiduciary exception. Other relevant exceptions to the attorney-client or work product privileges shall also apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.8" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.8   Summary decision.</HEAD>
<P>For section 521 proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.41 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>No genuine issue of material fact.</I> Where the administrative law judge finds that no issue of a material fact has been raised, he or she may issue a decision which, in the absence of an appeal, pursuant to §§ 2571.10 through 2571.12, shall become a final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(b) A decision made under this section, shall include a statement of:
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons thereof, on all issues presented; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any terms and conditions of the ruling.
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of any decision under this section shall be served on each party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.9" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.9   Decision of the administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>For section 521 proceedings, this section shall apply in lieu of § 18.57 of this title:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings of fact, conclusions, and order.</I> Within twenty (20) days of the filing of the transcript of the testimony, or such additional time as the administrative law judge may allow, each party may file with the administrative law judge, subject to the judge's discretion, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order together with a supporting brief expressing the reasons for such proposals. Such proposals and briefs shall be served on all parties, and shall refer to all portions of the record and to all authorities relied upon in support of each proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the administrative law judge.</I> The administrative law judge shall make his or her decision expeditiously after the conclusion of the section 521 proceeding. The decision of the administrative law judge shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law with reasons therefore upon each material issue of fact or law presented on the record. The decision of the administrative law judge shall be based upon the whole record and shall be supported by reliable and probative evidence. The decision of the administrative law judge shall become final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 unless an appeal is made pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 2571.10 through 2571.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.10" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.10   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may review the decision of an administrative law judge. Such review may occur only when a party files a notice of appeal from a decision of an administrative law judge within twenty (20) days of the issuance of such a decision. In all other cases, the decision of the administrative law judge shall become the final agency action within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of appeal to the Secretary shall state with specificity the issue(s) in the decision of the administrative law judge on which the party is seeking review. Such notice of appeal must be served on all parties of record.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of an appeal, the Secretary shall request the Chief Administrative Law Judge to submit to the Secretary a copy of the entire record before the administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.11" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.11   Scope of review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The review of the Secretary shall be based on the record established before the administrative law judge. There shall be no opportunity for oral argument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.12" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.12   Procedures for review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a notice of appeal, the Secretary shall establish a briefing schedule which shall be served on all parties of record. Upon motion of one or more of the parties, the Secretary may, in her discretion, permit the submission of reply briefs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall issue a decision as promptly as possible after receipt of the briefs of the parties. The Secretary may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or in part, the decision on appeal and shall issue a statement of reasons and bases for the action(s) taken. Such decision by the Secretary shall be the final agency action with the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2571.13" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2571.13   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation is effective with respect to all cease and desist orders issued by the Secretary under section 521 of ERISA at any time after April 1, 2013.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2575" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2575—ADJUSTMENT OF CIVIL PENALTIES UNDER ERISA TITLE I
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1135; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2003, 68 FR 5374 (Feb. 3, 2003).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 42246, Aug. 3, 1999, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Adjustment of Civil Penalties Under ERISA Title I</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 101-410, 104 Stat. 890 (28 U.S.C. 2461 note), as amended by section 31001(s) of Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321-373, and section 701 of Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584; 29 U.S.C 1059(b), 1132(c), 1135 and 1185d; and Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (January 9, 2012).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 40699, July 29, 1997, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 64 FR 42246, Aug. 3, 1999.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2575.1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2575.1   In general.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the requirements of the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, Pub. L. 104-410, 104 Stat. 890, as amended by the section 31001(s) of the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Pub. L. 104-34, 110 Stat. 1321-373, and section 701 of the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584, (collectively the Inflation Adjustment Act), the applicable civil monetary penalties of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA), under the jurisdiction of the U.S. Department of Labor (Department) and listed in 29 CFR 2575.2 are adjusted as set forth in this subpart, effective as of the relevant dates specified in § 2575.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 43454, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2575.2" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.10.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2575.2   Catch-up adjustments to civil monetary penalties.</HEAD>
<P>The civil monetary penalties set forth in paragraphs (a) through (m) of this section are adjusted for inflation as required by section 4(b)(1) of the Inflation Adjustment Act and 29 CFR 2575.1 as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The civil monetary penalty of $10 for each employee established by section 209(b) of ERISA, is adjusted to $11 for violations occurring after July 29, 1997, for which a penalty is assessed before August 1, 2016 and to $28 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(b) The civil monetary penalty of up to $1,000 established by Section 502(c)(2) of ERISA is adjusted to $1,100 for violations occurring after July 29, 1997, for which a penalty is assessed before August 1, 2016, and to $2,063 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(c) The civil monetary penalty of up to $1,000 established by section 502(c)(4) of ERISA is adjusted to $1,632 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(d) The civil monetary penalty of up to $1,000 established by Section 502(c)(5) of ERISA is adjusted to $1,100 for violations occurring after March 24, 2003, for which a penalty is assessed before August 1, 2016, and to $1,502 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(e) The civil monetary penalty of up to $100 not to exceed $1,000 per request, established by section 502(c)(6) of ERISA, is adjusted to $110 not to exceed $1,100 per request for violations occurring after March 24, 2003, for which a penalty is assessed before August 1, 2016, and to $147 not to exceed $1,472 per request for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(f) The civil monetary penalty of up to $100 established by section 502(c)(7) of ERISA is adjusted to $131 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(g) The civil monetary penalty of up to $1,100 established by section 502(c)(8) of ERISA is adjusted to $1,296 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(h) The civil monetary penalty of up to $100 established by section 502(c)(9)(A) of ERISA is adjusted to $110 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(i) The civil monetary penalty of up to $100 established by section 502(c)(9)(B) of ERISA is adjusted to $110 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(j) The civil monetary penalties established by section 502(c)(10) of ERISA are adjusted in accordance with paragraphs (j)(1) through (4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The $100 civil monetary penalty of section 502(c)(10)(B)(i) of ERISA is adjusted to $110 to for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3;
</P>
<P>(2) The $2,500 minimum civil monetary penalty of section 502(c)(10)(C)(i) of ERISA for de minimis uncorrected violations is adjusted to $2,745 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3;
</P>
<P>(3) The $15,000 minimum civil monetary penalty of section 502(c)(10)(C)(ii) of ERISA for uncorrected violations that are not de minimis is adjusted to $16,473 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3; and
</P>
<P>(4) The $500,000 maximum civil monetary penalty for unintentional failures set in Section 502 (c)(10)(D)(iii)(II) of ERISA is adjusted to $549,095, for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(k) The civil monetary penalty of up to $100 established by section 502(c)(12) of ERISA remains at $100 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(l) The maximum civil monetary penalty of $10,000 established by section 502(m) of ERISA is adjusted to $15,909 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<P>(m) The civil monetary penalty of not more than $1,000, established by Public Health Services Act section 2715(f) and incorporated into ERISA by section 715 of ERISA, is adjusted to $1,087 for penalties assessed after August 1, 2016, and before the effective date of the next adjustment for inflation made by the Secretary in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act and § 2575.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 43454, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2575.3" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.10.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2575.3   Subsequent adjustments to civil monetary penalties.</HEAD>
<P>No later than January 15, starting in 2017, and each subsequent year, the Secretary shall adjust for inflation, as required by the Inflation Adjustment Act, the civil monetary penalties described in § 2575.2 for violations occurring on or after November 2, 2015, and any future civil monetary penalties enforceable by the Secretary under title I of ERISA. The Secretary shall publish such annual adjustments in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notwithstanding section 553 of the Administrative Procedure Act. Future penalties or adjustments to the amount of the penalty that are enacted by statute or regulation (other than an adjustment for inflation under the Inflation Adjustment Act) will not be adjusted for inflation in the first year those penalty levels take effect. Annual inflation adjustments shall apply to penalties assessed after the date notice of the annual inflation adjustment is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 5383, Jan. 18, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2575.502c-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.10.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2575.502c-1   Adjusted civil penalty under section 502(c)(1).</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the requirements of the 1990 Act, as amended, the maximum amount of the civil monetary penalty established by section 502(c)(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA), is hereby increased from $100 a day to $110 a day. This adjusted penalty applies only to violations occurring after July 29, 1997.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2575.502c-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.10.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2575.502c-3   Adjusted civil penalty under section 502(c)(3).</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the requirements of the 1990 Act, as amended, the maximum amount of the civil monetary penalty established by section 502(c)(3) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA), is hereby increased from $100 a day to $110 a day. This adjusted penalty applies only to violations occurring after July 29, 1997.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts B-D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2578" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2578—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR ABANDONED PLANS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1135; 1104(a); 1103(d)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 20837, Apr. 21, 2006, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2578.1" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2578.1   Termination of abandoned individual account plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The purpose of this part is to establish standards for the termination and winding up of an individual account plan (as defined in section 3(34) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act)) with respect to the situations described in (a)(1) or (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) A qualified termination administrator has determined there is no responsible plan sponsor or plan administrator within the meaning of section 3(16)(B) and (A) of the Act, respectively, to perform such acts.
</P>
<P>(2) An order for relief under chapter 7 of title 11 of the United States Code (the United States Bankruptcy Code) has been entered with respect to the plan sponsor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Finding of abandonment.</I> (1) A qualified termination administrator (as defined in paragraph (g) of this section) may find an individual account plan to be abandoned when:
</P>
<P>(i) Either: (A) No contributions to, or distributions from, the plan have been made for a period of at least 12 consecutive months immediately preceding the date on which the determination is being made; or
</P>
<P>(B) Other facts and circumstances (such as communications from participants and beneficiaries regarding distributions) known to the qualified termination administrator suggest that the plan is or may become abandoned by the plan sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Following reasonable efforts to locate or communicate with the plan sponsor, the qualified termination administrator determines that the plan sponsor:
</P>
<P>(A) No longer exists;
</P>
<P>(B) Cannot be located; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is unable to maintain the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a qualified termination administrator may not find a plan to be abandoned if, at any time before the plan is deemed terminated pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the qualified termination administrator receives an objection from the plan sponsor regarding the finding of abandonment and proposed termination.
</P>
<P>(3) A qualified termination administrator shall, for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, be deemed to have made a reasonable effort to locate or communicate with the plan sponsor if the qualified termination administrator sends to the last known address of the plan sponsor, and, in the case of a plan sponsor that is a corporation, to the address of the person designated as the corporation's agent for service of legal process, by a method of delivery requiring acknowledgement of receipt, the notice described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If receipt of the notice described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section is not acknowledged pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the qualified termination administrator shall be deemed to have made a reasonable effort to locate or communicate with the plan sponsor if the qualified termination administrator contacts known service providers (other than itself) of the plan and requests the current address of the plan sponsor from such service providers and, if such information is provided, the qualified termination administrator sends to each such address, by a method of delivery requiring acknowledgement of receipt, the notice described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The notice referred to in paragraph (b)(3) of this section shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the qualified termination administrator;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The account number or other identifying information relating to the plan;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the plan may be terminated and benefits distributed pursuant to 29 CFR 2578.1 if the plan sponsor fails to contact the qualified termination administrator within 30 days;
</P>
<P>(v) The name, address, and telephone number of the person, office, or department that the plan sponsor must contact regarding the plan;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that if the plan is terminated pursuant to 29 CFR 2578.1, notice of such termination will be furnished to the U.S. Department of Labor's Employee Benefits Security Administration;
</P>
<P>(vii) The following statement: “The U.S. Department of Labor requires that you be informed that, as a fiduciary or plan administrator or both, you may be personally liable for costs, civil penalties, excise taxes, etc. as a result of your acts or omissions with respect to this plan. The termination of this plan will not relieve you of your liability for any such costs, penalties, taxes, etc.”; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement that the plan sponsor may contact the U.S. Department of Labor for more information about the federal law governing the termination and winding-up process for abandoned plans and the telephone number of the appropriate Employee Benefits Security Administration contact person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deemed termination.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if a qualified termination administrator finds (pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section) that an individual account plan has been abandoned, or if a plan is considered abandoned due to the entry of an order for relief under chapter 7 of the United States Bankruptcy Code (pursuant to paragraph (j)(2) of this section), the plan shall be deemed to be terminated on the ninetieth (90th) day following the date of the letter from the Employee Benefits Security Administration acknowledging receipt of the notice described in paragraph (c)(3) or (j)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If, prior to the end of the 90-day period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Department notifies the qualified termination administrator that it—
</P>
<P>(i) Objects to the termination of the plan, the plan shall not be deemed terminated under paragraph (c)(1) of this section until the qualified termination administrator is notified that the Department has withdrawn its objection; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Waives the 90-day period described in paragraph (c)(1), the plan shall be deemed terminated upon the qualified termination administrator's receipt of such notification.
</P>
<P>(3) Following a qualified termination administrator's finding, pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, that an individual account plan has been abandoned, the qualified termination administrator shall furnish to the U.S. Department of Labor in accordance with instructions published by the Department in the Abandoned Plans section of the Employee Benefits Security Administration's website a notice of plan abandonment and intent to serve as qualified termination administrator that is signed and dated by the qualified termination administrator and that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Qualified termination administrator information.</I> (A) The name, EIN, address, and telephone number of the person electing to be the qualified termination administrator, including the address, email address, and telephone number of the person signing the notice (or other contact person, if different from the person signing the notice);
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the person (identified in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section) is a qualified termination administrator within the meaning of paragraph (g) of this section and elects to terminate and wind up the plan (identified in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section) in accordance with the provisions of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Plan information.</I> (A) The name, address, telephone number, account number, EIN of the plan sponsor (if known), and plan number used on the Form 5500 Annual Return/Report filed for the plan with respect to which the person is electing to serve as the qualified termination administrator;
</P>
<P>(B) The name and last known address and telephone number of the plan sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(C) The estimated number of participants and beneficiaries with accounts in the plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Findings.</I> A statement that the person electing to be the qualified termination administrator finds that the plan (identified in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section) is abandoned pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. This statement shall include an explanation of the basis for such a finding, specifically referring to the provisions in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a description of the specific steps (set forth in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section) taken to locate or communicate with the known plan sponsor, and a statement that no objection has been received from the plan sponsor;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Plan asset information.</I> (A) The estimated value of the plan's assets held by the person electing to be the qualified termination administrator;
</P>
<P>(B) The length of time plan assets have been held by the person electing to be the qualified termination administrator, if such period of time is less than 12 months;
</P>
<P>(C) An identification of any assets with respect to which there is no readily ascertainable fair market value, as well as information, if any, concerning the value of such assets; and
</P>
<P>(D) An identification of delinquent contributions described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Service provider information.</I> (A) The name, address, and telephone number of known service providers (<I>e.g.,</I> record keeper, accountant, lawyer, other asset custodian(s)) to the plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) An identification of any services considered necessary to carry out the qualified termination administrator's authority and responsibility under this section, the name of the service provider(s) that is expected to provide such services, and an itemized estimate of expenses attendant thereto expected to be paid out of plan assets by the qualified termination administrator; and
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Perjury statement.</I> A statement that the information being provided in the notice is true and complete based on the knowledge of the person electing to be the qualified termination administrator, and that the information is being provided by the qualified termination administrator under penalty of perjury.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Winding up the affairs of the plan.</I> (1) In any case where an individual account plan is deemed to be terminated pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the qualified termination administrator shall take steps as may be necessary or appropriate to wind up the affairs of the plan and distribute benefits to the plan's participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, except as provided pursuant to paragraph (j)(7) of this section (relating to Chapter 7 ERISA Plans), the qualified termination administrator shall:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Update plan records.</I> (A) Undertake reasonable and diligent efforts to locate and update plan records necessary to determine the benefits payable under the terms of the plan to each participant and beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(i)(A) of this section, a qualified termination administrator shall not have failed to make reasonable and diligent efforts to update plan records because the administrator determines in good faith that updating the records is either impossible or involves significant cost to the plan in relation to the total assets of the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculate benefits.</I> Use reasonable care in calculating the benefits payable to each participant or beneficiary based on plan records described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section. A qualified termination administrator shall not have failed to use reasonable care in calculating benefits payable solely because the qualified termination administrator—
</P>
<P>(A) Treats as forfeited an account balance that, taking into account estimated forfeitures and other assets allocable to the account, is less than the estimated share of plan expenses allocable to that account, and reallocates that account balance to defray plan expenses or to other plan accounts in accordance with paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Allocates expenses and unallocated assets in accordance with the plan document, or, if the plan document is not available, is ambiguous, or if compliance with the plan is unfeasible,
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Allocates unallocated assets (including forfeitures and assets in a suspense account) to participant accounts on a per capita basis (allocated equally to all accounts); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Allocates expenses on a pro rata basis (proportionately in the ratio that each individual account balance bears to the total of all individual account balances) or on a per capita basis (allocated equally to all accounts).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Report delinquent contributions.</I> (A) Notify the Department of any known contributions (either employer or employee) owed to the plan in conjunction with the filing of the notification required in paragraphs (c)(3) or (d)(2)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (j)(7)(i) of this section, nothing in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(A) of this section or any other provision of the Act shall be construed to impose an obligation on the qualified termination administrator to collect delinquent contributions on behalf of the plan, provided that the qualified termination administrator satisfies the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Engage service providers.</I> Engage, on behalf of the plan, such service providers as are necessary for the qualified termination administrator to wind up the affairs of the plan and distribute benefits to the plan's participants and beneficiaries in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Pay reasonable expenses.</I> (A) Pay, from plan assets, the reasonable expenses of carrying out the qualified termination administrator's authority and responsibility under this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Expenses of plan administration shall be considered reasonable solely for purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(v)(A) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such expenses are for services necessary to wind up the affairs of the plan and distribute benefits to the plan's participants and beneficiaries,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such expenses: 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Are consistent with industry rates for such or similar services, based on the experience of the qualified termination administrator; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Are not in excess of rates ordinarily charged by the qualified termination administrator (or affiliate) for the same or similar services provided to customers that are not plans terminated pursuant to this section, if the qualified termination administrator (or affiliate) provides the same or similar services to such other customers, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The payment of such expenses would not constitute a prohibited transaction under the Act or is exempted from such prohibited transaction provisions pursuant to section 408(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Notify participants.</I> (A) Furnish to each participant or beneficiary of the plan a notice written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and containing the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name of the plan;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A statement that the plan has been determined to be abandoned by the plan sponsor, or in the case of a Chapter 7 ERISA Plan (described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section) a statement that the plan sponsor is in liquidation under chapter 7 of the United States Bankruptcy Code, and, therefore, has been terminated pursuant to regulations issued by the U.S. Department of Labor;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) A statement of the participant's or beneficiary's account balance and the date on which it was calculated by the qualified termination administrator, and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The following statement: “The actual amount of your distribution may be more or less than the amount stated in this letter depending on investment gains or losses and the administrative cost of terminating your plan and distributing your benefits.”;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A description of the distribution options available under the plan and a request that the participant or beneficiary elect a form of distribution and inform the qualified termination administrator (or designee) of that election;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A statement explaining that, if a participant or beneficiary fails to make an election within 30 days from receipt of the notice, the qualified termination administrator will distribute the account balance of the participant or beneficiary directly:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) To an individual retirement plan (<I>i.e.,</I> individual retirement account or annuity),
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) To an inherited individual retirement plan described in § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(ii) of this chapter (in the case of a distribution on behalf of a distributee other than a participant or spouse),
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In any case where the amount to be distributed meets the conditions in § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(iii) or (iv) of this chapter, to an interest-bearing federally insured bank account, the unclaimed property fund of the State of the last known address of the participant or beneficiary, or an individual retirement plan (described in § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this chapter) or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) To an annuity provider in any case where the qualified termination administrator determines that the survivor annuity requirements in sections 401(a)(11) and 417 of the Internal Revenue Code (or section 205 of ERISA) prevent a distribution under paragraph (d)(2)(vii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) In the case of a distribution to an individual retirement plan (described in § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this chapter) a statement explaining that the account balance will be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return and liquidity;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) A statement of the fees, if any, that will be paid from the participant's or beneficiary's individual retirement plan (described in § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this chapter) or other account (described in § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(iii)(A) of this chapter), if such information is known at the time of the furnishing of this notice;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The name, address and phone number of the provider of the individual retirement plan (described in § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this chapter), qualified survivor annuity, or other account (described in § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(iii)(A) of this chapter), if such information is known at the time of the furnishing of this notice; and
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) The name, address, and telephone number of the qualified termination administrator and, if different, the name, address and phone number of a contact person (or entity) for additional information concerning the termination and distribution of benefits under this section.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(vi)(A) of this section, a notice shall be furnished to each participant or beneficiary in accordance with the requirements of § 2520.104b-1(b)(1) of this chapter to the last known address of the participant or beneficiary; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In the case of a notice that is returned to the qualified termination administrator as undeliverable, the qualified termination administrator shall, consistent with the duties of a fiduciary under section 404(a)(1) of the Act, take steps to locate and provide notice to the participant or beneficiary prior to making a distribution pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(vii) of this section. If, after such steps, the qualified termination administrator is unsuccessful in locating and furnishing notice to a participant or beneficiary, the participant or beneficiary shall be deemed to have been furnished the notice and to have failed to make an election within the 30-day period described in paragraph (d)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Distribute benefits.</I> (A) Distribute benefits in accordance with the form of distribution elected by each participant or beneficiary with spousal consent, if required.
</P>
<P>(B) If the participant or beneficiary fails to make an election within 30 days from the date the notice described in paragraph (d)(2)(vi) of this section is furnished, distribute benefits—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In accordance with § 2550.404a-3 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a qualified termination administrator determines that the survivor annuity requirements in sections 401(a)(11) and 417 of the Internal Revenue Code (or section 205 of ERISA) prevent a distribution under paragraph (d)(2)(vii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, in any manner reasonably determined to achieve compliance with those requirements.
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of distributions pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(vii)(B) of this section, the qualified termination administrator may designate itself (or an affiliate) as the transferee of such proceeds, and invest such proceeds in a product in which it (or an affiliate) has an interest, only if such designation and investment is exempted from the prohibited transaction provisions under the Act pursuant to section 408(a) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Special Terminal Report for Abandoned Plans.</I> File the Special Terminal Report for Abandoned Plans in accordance with § 2520.103-13 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Final Notice.</I> No later than two months after the end of the month in which the qualified termination administrator satisfies the requirements in paragraph (d)(2)(i) through (vii) of this section, furnish to the U.S. Department of Labor in accordance with instructions published by the Department in the Abandoned Plans section of the Employee Benefits Security Administration's website, a notice, signed and dated by the qualified termination administrator, containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name, EIN, address, email address, and telephone number of the qualified termination administrator, including the address, email address, and telephone number of the person signing the notice (or other contact person, if different from the person signing the notice), and if applicable with respect to a Chapter 7 ERISA Plan (as described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section), the name, address (including email address), and telephone number of the bankruptcy trustee if the bankruptcy trustee is not the qualified termination administrator;
</P>
<P>(B) The name, account number, EIN, and plan number used on the Form 5500 Annual Return/Report filed for the plan with respect to which the person served as the qualified termination administrator;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the plan has been terminated and all the plan's assets have been distributed to the plan's participants and beneficiaries on the basis of the best available information;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that plan expenses were paid out of plan assets by the qualified termination administrator in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(v) or (j)(7)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) If fees and expenses paid by the plan exceed by 20 percent or more the estimate required by paragraph (c)(3)(v)(B) or (j)(6)(vi)(B) of this section, a statement that actual fees and expenses exceeded estimated fees and expenses and the reasons for such additional costs;
</P>
<P>(F) An identification of delinquent contributions described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, or if applicable with respect to a Chapter 7 ERISA Plan (as described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section), an identification of delinquent contributions and evidence of other fiduciary breaches described in paragraph (j)(7)(ii) of this section (if not already reported under paragraphs (c)(3) or (j)(6) of this section);
</P>
<P>(G) For each distribution in accordance with § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(v) of this chapter (relating to distributions on behalf of deceased participants and beneficiaries), a summary of the pertinent findings as required by § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(v)(<I>C</I>) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(H) A statement that the information being provided in the notice is true and complete based on the knowledge of the qualified termination administrator, and that the information is being provided by the qualified termination administrator under penalty of perjury.
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of the plan shall, for purposes of title I of ERISA, be deemed amended to the extent necessary to allow the qualified termination administrator to wind up the plan in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limited liability.</I> (1)(i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, to the extent that the activities enumerated in paragraphs (d)(2) and (j)(7) of this section involve the exercise of discretionary authority or control that would make the qualified termination administrator a fiduciary within the meaning of section 3(21) of the Act, the qualified termination administrator shall be deemed to satisfy its responsibilities under section 404(a) of the Act with respect to such activities, provided that the qualified termination administrator complies with the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) and (j)(7) of this section as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualified termination administrator shall be responsible for the selection and monitoring of any service provider (other than monitoring a provider selected pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(vii)(B) of this section) determined by the qualified termination administrator to be necessary to the winding up of the affairs of the plan, as well as ensuring the reasonableness of the compensation paid for such services. If a qualified termination administrator selects and monitors a service provider in accordance with the requirements of section 404(a)(1) of the Act, the qualified termination administrator shall not be liable for the acts or omissions of the service provider with respect to which the qualified termination administrator does not have knowledge.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of a distribution pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(vii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, a qualified termination administrator shall be responsible for the selection of an annuity provider in accordance with section 404 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing herein shall be construed to impose an obligation on the qualified termination administrator to conduct an inquiry or review to determine whether or what breaches of fiduciary responsibility may have occurred with respect to a plan prior to becoming the qualified termination administrator for such plan.
</P>
<P>(3) If assets of an abandoned plan are held by a person other than the qualified termination administrator, such person shall not be treated as in violation of section 404(a) of the Act solely on the basis that the person cooperated with and followed the directions of the qualified termination administrator in carrying out its responsibilities under this section with respect to such plan, provided that, in advance of any transfer or disposition of any assets at the direction of the qualified termination administrator, such person confirms with the Department of Labor that the person representing to be the qualified termination administrator with respect to the plan is the qualified termination administrator recognized by the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(4) If the qualified termination administrator is an eligible designee described in § 2578.1(j)(4) of this chapter, designated by a bankruptcy trustee described in § 2578.1(j)(3) of this chapter, both the bankruptcy trustee and the eligible designee shall be treated as the qualified termination administrator for purposes of paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (e)(2) and (f) of this section. Nothing in this paragraph (e)(4) shall serve to relieve the bankruptcy trustee from its obligations under or limit its liability for a failure to comply with paragraph (j)(5).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continued liability.</I> Nothing in this section shall serve to relieve or limit the liability of any person other than the qualified termination administrator due to a violation of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Qualified termination administrator.</I> A termination administrator is qualified under this section only if:
</P>
<P>(1) It is eligible to serve as a trustee or issuer of an individual retirement plan, within the meaning of section 7701(a)(37) of the Internal Revenue Code, and
</P>
<P>(2) It holds assets of the plan that is found abandoned pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Affiliate.</I> (1) The term affiliate means any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with, the person; or any officer, director, partner or employee of the person.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, the term control means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Model notices.</I> Appendices to this part contain model notices that are intended to assist qualified termination administrators in discharging the notification requirements under this section. Their use is not mandatory. However, the use of appropriately completed model notices will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(5), (c)(3), (d)(2)(vi), (d)(2)(ix), and (j)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Special rules for Chapter 7 ERISA Plans</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This paragraph (j) contains special rules for individual account plans of sponsors in liquidation under chapter 7 of the United States Bankruptcy Code (Chapter 7 ERISA Plans). These special rules modify, augment, or supersede otherwise applicable provisions in paragraphs (a) through (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deemed abandonment.</I> If the sponsor of an individual account plan is in liquidation under chapter 7 of the United States Bankruptcy Code, the requirements of paragraph (b) do not apply, and the Chapter 7 ERISA Plan shall be considered abandoned upon the entry of an order for relief, except that the plan shall cease to be considered abandoned if at any time before the plan is deemed terminated pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the plan sponsor's chapter 7 liquidation proceeding is dismissed or converted to a proceeding under a different chapter of the United States Bankruptcy Code.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualified termination administrator.</I> For a plan deemed abandoned under paragraph (j)(2) of this section, the definition of “qualified termination administrator” in paragraph (g) of this section does not apply and only the bankruptcy trustee in the case, or an eligible designee (as defined in paragraph (j)(4) of this section), may be the qualified termination administrator.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligible designee.</I> The term “eligible designee” means—
</P>
<P>(i) any person or entity who accepts in writing a designation by the bankruptcy trustee and who meets the requirements in paragraph (g) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) an “ independent bankruptcy trustee practitioner.” An independent bankruptcy trustee practitioner is a person other than the bankruptcy trustee of the plan sponsor's case, who has served within the previous five years as a bankruptcy trustee in a case under chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Code, who accepts in writing a designation by the bankruptcy trustee and who acknowledges in writing to the bankruptcy trustee that they are a fiduciary with respect to the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rules and conditions with respect to designating an eligible designee.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The term “de minimis” in paragraph (j)(7)(i) of this section means:
</P>
<P>(A) Any amount that is equal to or less than $2,000; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any amount greater than $2,000 if the property from which to collect delinquent contributions is a realizable value that is equal to or less than $2,000 net of all enforceable liens and applicable exemptions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to designating an eligible designee, a bankruptcy trustee must make reasonable and diligent efforts to determine whether the plan is owed any contributions (employer and employee) and the amount thereof. If the amount of contributions owed to the plan is more than a de minimis amount (as defined under paragraph (j)(5) of this section), the bankruptcy trustee shall designate an eligible designee (as defined in paragraph (j)(4) of this section) to be the qualified termination administrator for all purposes under this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The bankruptcy trustee shall at the time of the designation notify the eligible designee of its findings on the amount of delinquent contributions (employer and employee).
</P>
<P>(iv) The bankruptcy trustee shall provide an eligible designee with reasonable access to any records under the control of the bankruptcy trustee that the eligible designee reasonably determines are necessary to enable the eligible designee to carry out its responsibilities under paragraph (j)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The bankruptcy trustee shall be responsible for the selection and monitoring of the eligible designee in accordance with section 404(a)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notice of intent to serve as qualified termination administrator.</I> In lieu of the content requirements in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the qualified termination administrator shall furnish to the U.S. Department of Labor a notice of intent to serve as qualified termination administrator that is signed and dated by the qualified termination administrator and that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Qualified termination administrator information.</I> The name, address (including email address), and telephone number of the bankruptcy trustee and, if applicable, the name, EIN, address (including email address), and telephone number of any eligible designee acting as the qualified termination administrator;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Plan information.</I> (A) The name, address, telephone number, account number, EIN of the plan sponsor (if known), and plan number used on the Form 5500 Annual Return/Report filed for the plan with respect to which the person is serving as the qualified termination administrator,
</P>
<P>(B) The name and last known address and telephone number of the plan sponsor, and
</P>
<P>(C) The estimated number of participants and beneficiaries with accounts in the plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Chapter 7 information.</I> A statement that, pursuant to paragraph (j)(2) of this section, the plan is considered to be abandoned due to an entry of an order for relief under chapter 7 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code, and a copy of the order or document entered in the case reflecting the bankruptcy trustee's appointment or authority to administer the plan sponsor's case;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Fiduciary breaches.</I> Any information the qualified termination administrator believes may be evidence of other fiduciary breaches described in paragraph (j)(7)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Plan asset information.</I> (A) The estimated value of the plan's assets as of the date of the entry of an order for relief,
</P>
<P>(B) The name, EIN, address (including email address) and telephone number of the entity that is holding these assets, and the length of time plan assets have been held by such entity, if the period of time is less than 12 months,
</P>
<P>(C) An identification of any assets with respect to which there is no readily ascertainable fair market value, as well as information, if any, concerning the value of such assets, and
</P>
<P>(D) An identification of delinquent contributions described in paragraph (j)(7)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Service provider information.</I> (A) The name, address, and telephone number of known service providers (<I>e.g.,</I> record keeper, accountant, lawyer, other asset custodian(s)) to the plan, and
</P>
<P>(B) An identification of any services considered necessary to carry out the qualified termination administrator's authority and responsibility under this section, the name of the service provider(s) that is expected to provide such services, and an itemized estimate of expenses attendant thereto expected to be paid out of plan assets by the qualified termination administrator; and
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Perjury statement.</I> A statement that the information being provided in the notice is true and complete based on the knowledge of the person electing to be the qualified termination administrator, and that the information is being provided by the qualified termination administrator under penalty of perjury.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Winding up the affairs of the plan.</I> The qualified termination administrator shall comply with paragraph (d) of this section except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Delinquent contributions.</I> Except for qualified termination administrators of plans that are owed no more than a de minimis amount of contributions (employer and employee), the qualified termination administrator of a plan described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section shall, consistent with the duties of a fiduciary under section 404(a)(1) of the Act, take reasonable steps to collect delinquent contributions on behalf of the plan, taking into account the value of the plan assets involved, the likelihood of a successful recovery, and the expenses expected to be incurred in connection with collection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Report fiduciary breaches.</I> The qualified termination administrator must report delinquent contributions (employer and employee) owed to the plan, and any activity that the qualified termination administrator believes may be evidence of other fiduciary breaches that involve plan assets by a prior plan fiduciary. This information must be reported to the Employee Benefits Security Administration in conjunction with the filing of the notification required in paragraph (j)(6) (notice of intent to serve as qualified termination administrator) or (d)(2)(ix) (final notice) of this section. If, after the eligible designee completes the winding up of the plan, the bankruptcy trustee, in administering the debtor's estate, discovers additional information not already reported in the notification required in paragraphs (j)(6) or (d)(2)(ix) of this section that it believes may be evidence of fiduciary breaches that involve plan assets by a prior plan fiduciary, the bankruptcy trustee shall report such activity to the Employee Benefits Security Administration in a time and manner specified in instructions developed by the Office of Enforcement, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Distributions.</I> Paragraph (d)(2)(vii)(C) of this section (relating to the ability of a qualified termination administrator to designate itself as the transferee of distribution proceeds in accordance with § 2550.404a-3) is not applicable in the case of a qualified termination administrator that is the bankruptcy trustee or an eligible designee defined under paragraph (j)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Pay reasonable expenses.</I> (A) If the qualified termination administrator is the bankruptcy trustee in the case, or an eligible designee as defined in paragraph (j)(4)(ii) of this section, then in lieu of the requirements in paragraph (d)(2)(v)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, such expenses are consistent with industry rates for such or similar services ordinarily charged by qualified termination administrators defined in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (j)(7)(iv)(A) of this section, in lieu of the requirements in paragraph (d)(2)(v)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, expenses incurred to comply with paragraph (j)(7)(i) of this section (pertaining to collecting delinquent contributions) are consistent with industry rates for such or similar services ordinarily approved by bankruptcy courts for persons representing or assisting a bankruptcy trustee in performing collection duties in chapter 7 matters.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Rule of accountability.</I> The bankruptcy trustee or eligible designee shall not, for themselves or the other, through waiver or otherwise, seek a release from liability under ERISA, or assert a defense of derived judicial immunity (or similar defense) in any action brought against the bankruptcy trustee or eligible designee arising out of its conduct under this regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43659, May 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.11.2.1.1.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 2578—Model Notice of Intent To Terminate Abandoned Plan
</HEAD>
<HD1>NOTICE OF INTENT TO TERMINATE PLAN
</HD1>
<FP-1>[<I>Date of notice</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[<I>Name of plan sponsor</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[<I>Last known address of plan sponsor</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Re: [<I>Name of plan and account number or other identifying information</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dear [<I>Name of plan sponsor</I>]:
</FP-1>
<P>This letter is a notice of intent to terminate the above referenced plan and distribute benefits in accordance with the U.S. Department of Labor's Abandoned Plan Program. We will initiate the termination process under the Abandoned Plan Program unless you contact us within 30 days of your receipt of this notice. See 29 CFR 2578.1.
</P>
<P>Our basis for taking this action is that our records reflect that there have been no contributions to, or distributions from, the plan within the past 12 months. {<I>If the basis for sending this notice is under 29 CFR 2578.1(b)(1)(i)(B), complete and include the sentence below rather than the sentence above.</I>} Our basis for taking this action is {<I>provide a description of the facts and circumstances indicating plan abandonment</I>}.
</P>
<P>We are sending this notice to you because our records show that you are the sponsor of the subject plan. The U.S. Department of Labor requires that you be informed that, as a fiduciary or plan administrator or both, you may be personally liable for all costs, civil penalties, excise taxes, etc. as a result of your acts or omissions with respect to this plan. The termination of this plan by us will not relieve you of your liability for any such costs, penalties, taxes, etc. Federal law also requires us to notify the U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, of the termination. For information about the federal law governing the termination of abandoned plans, you may contact the U.S. Department of Labor at 1.866.444.EBSA (3272) or <I>https://www.dol.gov/agencies/ebsa/about-ebsa/ask-a-question/ask-ebsa.</I>
</P>
<P>Please contact [<I>name, address, and telephone number of the person, office, or department that the sponsor must contact regarding the plan</I>] within 30 days in order to prevent this action.
</P>
<FP-1>Sincerely,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[<I>Name and address of qualified termination administrator or appropriate designee</I>]
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43665, May 17, 2024]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.11.2.1.1.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 2578—Model Notice of Plan Abandonment and Intent To Serve as Qualified Termination Administrator (for Plans Found Abandoned Pursuant to 29 CFR 2578.1(b))

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er17my24.020.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17my24.021.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17my24.022.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43665, May 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.11.2.1.1.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 2578—Model Notice of Intent To Serve as Qualified Termination Administrator (for Plans Deemed Abandoned Pursuant to 29 CFR 2578.1(j)(2))

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er17my24.023.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17my24.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17my24.025.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43665, May 17, 2024]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.11.2.1.1.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 2578—Model Notice of Plan Termination
</HEAD>
<HD1>NOTICE OF PLAN TERMINATION
</HD1>
<FP-1>[<I>Date of notice</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[<I>Name and last known address of plan participant or beneficiary</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Re: [<I>Name of plan</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dear [<I>Name of plan participant or beneficiary</I>]:
</FP-1>
<P>{<I>Insert as applicable</I> [We are] <I>or</I> [I am]} writing to inform you that the [<I>name of plan</I>] (Plan) has been terminated pursuant to regulations issued by the U.S. Department of Labor. The Plan was terminated because it was abandoned by [<I>name of the plan sponsor</I>]. {<I>For plans deemed abandoned pursuant to 29 CFR 2578.1(j)(2), replace the immediately preceding sentence with:</I> The Plan was terminated because [name of the plan sponsor] is in chapter 7 bankruptcy and the business is shutting down.}
</P>
<P>We have determined that you have an interest in the Plan, either as a plan participant or beneficiary. Your account balance on [<I>date</I>] is/was [<I>account balance</I>]. We will be distributing this money as permitted under the terms of the Plan and federal regulations. The actual amount of your distribution may be more or less than the amount stated in this letter depending on investment gains or losses and the administrative cost of terminating the Plan and distributing your benefits.
</P>
<P>Your distribution options under the Plan are {<I>add a description of the Retirement Plan's distribution options</I>}. It is very important that you elect one of these forms of distribution and inform us of your election. The process for informing us of this election is {<I>enter a description of the election process established by the qualified termination administrator</I>}.
</P>
<FP-1>{<I>Select the next paragraph from options 1 through 4, as appropriate.</I>}
</FP-1>
<FP-1>{<I>Option 1: If this notice is for a participant or beneficiary, complete and include the following paragraph in cases in which the account balance will be distributed in accordance with the conditions of § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(i) or (ii).</I>}
</FP-1>
<P>If you do not make an election within 30 days from your receipt of this notice, your account balance will be transferred directly to an individual retirement plan (inherited individual retirement plan in the case of a nonspouse beneficiary) maintained by {<I>insert the name, address, and phone number of the provider if known, otherwise insert the following language</I> [a bank or insurance company or other similar financial institution]}. Pursuant to federal law, money transferred to an individual retirement plan will be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return and liquidity. {<I>If fee information is known, include the following sentence:</I> Should your money be transferred into an individual retirement plan, [<I>name of the financial institution</I>] charges the following fees for its services: {<I>add a statement of fees, if any, that will be paid from the participant or beneficiary's individual retirement plan</I>}.}
</P>
<FP-1>{<I>Option 2: If this notice is for a participant or beneficiary whose account balance will be distributed in accordance with the conditions of § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)(iii)), complete and include the following paragraph.</I>}
</FP-1>
<P>If you do not make an election within 30 days from your receipt of this notice, and your account balance is $1,000 or less, federal law permits us to transfer your balance to {<I>insert whichever is applicable:</I> “an interest-bearing federally insured bank account;” “an unclaimed property fund of the State of your last known address;” <I>or</I> “an individual retirement plan (inherited individual retirement plan in the case of a nonspouse beneficiary).”} {<I>If the transfer will be to an individual retirement plan, insert the following sentence:</I> Pursuant to federal law, your money would then be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return and liquidity.} {<I>If known, include the name, address, and telephone number of the financial institution or State fund into which the individual's account balance will be transferred or deposited. If the individual's account balance is to be transferred to a financial institution and fee information is known, include the following sentence:</I> Should your money be transferred into {<I>insert whichever is applicable:</I> “an individual retirement plan” or “bank account,” [<I>name of the financial institution</I>] charges the following fees for its services: {<I>add a statement of fees, if any, that will be paid from the individual's account</I>}.}
</P>
<FP-1>{<I>Option 3: If this notice is for a participant or beneficiary whose account balance meets the conditions of § 2550.404a-3(d)(1)((iv), complete and include the following paragraph.</I>}
</FP-1>
<P>If you do not make an election within 30 days from your receipt of this notice, and your account balance is $1,000 or less, federal law permits us to transfer your balance to an individual retirement plan (inherited individual retirement plan in the case of a nonspouse beneficiary). Pursuant to federal law, your money, if transferred to an individual retirement plan would then be invested in an investment product designed to preserve principal and provide a reasonable rate of return and liquidity. However, if after exercising reasonable and good faith efforts, we cannot find an individual retirement plan provider who will accept your balance, we will transfer the balance to an interest-bearing federally insured bank account or to the unclaimed property fund of the State of your last known address. {<I>If the bankruptcy trustee or eligible designee knows where it will send the participant's or beneficiary's money, modify the preceding sentence accordingly and include the name, address, and telephone number of the financial institution or State fund into which the individual's account balance will be transferred or deposited. If the individual's account balance is to be transferred to a financial institution and fee information is known, include the following sentence:</I> Should your money be transferred into {<I>insert whichever is applicable:</I> “an individual retirement plan” or “a bank account,”}, [<I>name of the financial institution</I>] charges the following fees for its services: {<I>add a statement of fees, if any, that will be paid from the individual's account</I>}.}
</P>
<FP-1>{<I>Option 4: If this notice is for a participant or participant's spouse who will be distributed an annuity under § 2578.1(d)(vii)(B)(2) to meet the survivor annuity requirements in sections 401(a)(11) and 417 of the Internal Revenue Code (or section 205 of ERISA), complete and include the following paragraph.</I>}
</FP-1>
<P>If you do not make an election within 30 days from your receipt of this notice, your account balance will be distributed in the form of a qualified joint and survivor annuity or qualified preretirement annuity as required by the Internal Revenue Code. {<I>If the name of the annuity provider is known, include the following sentence:</I> The name of the annuity provider is [<I>name, address and phone number of the provider</I>].}
</P>
<P>For more information about the termination, your account balance, or distribution options, please contact [<I>name, address, and telephone number of the qualified termination administrator and, if different, the name, address, and telephone number of the appropriate contact person</I>].
</P>
<FP-1>Sincerely,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[<I>Name of qualified termination administrator or appropriate designee</I>]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[<I>Name of plan</I>]
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43665, May 17, 2024]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="29:9.1.2.7.11.2.1.1.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 2578—Model Abandoned Plans Final Notice

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er17my24.026.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17my24.027.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 43665, May 17, 2024]





</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="H [RESERVED]   " NODE="29:9.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER H [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="I" NODE="29:9.1.2.9" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER I—TEMPORARY BONDING RULES UNDER THE EMPLOYEE RETIREMENT INCOME SECURITY ACT OF 1974


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2580" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2580—TEMPORARY BONDING RULES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 505, Pub. L. 93-406, 88 Stat. 894 (29 U.S.C. 1135); sec. 412(e), Pub. L. 93-406, 88 Stat. 889 (29 U.S.C. 1112).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14403, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Criteria for Determining Who Must Be Bonded</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-1   Statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(a) of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act of 1958, as amended, states, in part, that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Every administrator, officer and employee of any employee welfare benefit plan or of any employee pension benefit plan subject to this Act who handles funds or other property of such plan shall be bonded as herein provided; except that, where such plan is one under which the only assets from which benefits are paid are the general assets of a union or of an employer, the administrator, officers and employees of such plan shall be exempt from the bonding requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>* * * Such bond shall provide protection to the plan against loss by reason of acts of fraud or dishonesty on the part of such administrator, officer, or employee, directly or through connivance with others.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-2   Plans exempt from the coverage of section 13.</HEAD>
<P>Only completely unfunded plans in which the plan benefits derive solely from the general assets of a union 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or employer, and in which plan assets are not segregated in any way from the general assets of a union or employer and remain solely within the general assets until the time of distribution of benefits, shall be exempt from the bonding provisions. As such, the language “where such plan is one under which the only assets from which benefits are paid are the general assets of a union or of an employer” shall not be deemed to exempt a plan from the coverage of section 13 if the plan is one in which:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For purposes of the exemption discussed in § 2580.412-2, the term “union” shall include “* * * any organization of any kind or any agency or employee representation committee, association, group, or plan, in which employees participate and which exists for the purpose in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning an employee welfare or pension benefit plan, or other matters incidental to employment relationships * * *” (29 U.S.C. 302(a)(3)).</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) Any benefits thereunder are provided or underwritten by an insurance carrier or service or other organization, or 
</P>
<P>(b) There is a trust or other separate entity to which contributions are made or out of which benefits are paid, or 
</P>
<P>(c) Contributions to the plan are made by the employees, either through withholding or otherwise, or from any source other than the employer or union involved, or 
</P>
<P>(d) There is a separately maintained bank account or separately maintained books and records for the plan or other evidence of the existence of a segregrated or separately maintained or administered fund out of which plan benefits are to be provided. 
</P>
<FP>As a general rule, the presence of special ledger accounts or accounting entries for plan funds as an integral part of the general books and records of an employer or union shall not, in and of itself, be deemed sufficient evidence of segregation of plan funds to take a plan out of the exempt category, but shall be considered along with the other factors and criteria discussed above in determining whether the exemption applies. Again, it should be noted, however, that the fact that a plan is not exempt from the coverage of section 13 does not necessarily mean that its administrators, officers or employees are required to be bonded. As stated previously, this will depend in each case on whether or not they “handle” funds or other property of the plan within the meaning of section 13 and under the standards set forth in § 2580.412-6. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.1.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-3   Plan administrators, officers and employees for purposes of section 13.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrator.</I> (1) For purposes of the bonding provisions, the term “administrator” is defined in the same manner as under section 5 of the Act and refers to: 
</P>
<P>(i) The person or persons designated by the terms of the plan or the collective bargaining agreement with responsibility for the ultimate control, disposition, or management of the money received or contributed; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the absence of such designation, the person or persons actually responsible for the control, disposition, or management of the money received or contributed, irrespective of whether such control, disposition, or management is exercised directly or through an agent or trustee designated by such person or persons. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where by virtue of this definition, or regulations, interpretations or opinions issued with respect thereto, the term embodies natural persons such as members of the board of trustees of a trust, the bonding requirements shall apply to such persons. 
</P>
<P>(3) However, when by virtue of this definition or regulations, interpretations, or opinions issued with respect thereto, the administrator in a given case in an entity such as a partnership, corporation, mutual company, joint stock company, trust, unincorporated organization, union or employees' beneficiary association, the term shall be deemed to apply, in meeting the bonding requirements, only to those natural persons who: 
</P>
<P>(i) Are vested under the authority of the entity-administrator with the responsibility for carrying out functions constituting control, disposition or management of the money received or contributed within the definition of administrator, or who, acting on behalf of or under the actual or apparent authority of the entity-administrator, actually perform such functions, and who 
</P>
<P>(ii) “Handle” funds or other property of the plan within the meaning of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Officers.</I> For purposes of the bonding provisions, the term “officer” shall include any person designated by the terms of a plan or collective bargaining agreement as an officer, any person performing or authorized to perform executive functions of the plan or any member of a board of trustees or similar governing body of a plan. The term shall include such persons regardless of whether they are representatives of or selected by an employer, employees or an employee organization. In its most frequent application the term will emcompass those natural persons appointed or elected as officers of the plan or as members of boards or committees performing executive or supervisory functions for the plan, but who do not fall within the definition of administrator. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees.</I> For purposes of the bonding provisions the term “employee” shall, to the extent a person performs functions not falling within the definition of officer or administrator, include any employee who performs work for or directly related to a covered plan, regardless of whether technically he is employed, directly or indirectly, by or for a plan, a plan administrator, a trust, or by an employee organization or employer within the meaning of section 3(3) or 3(4) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other persons covered.</I> For purposes of the bonding provisions, the terms “administrator, officer, or employee” shall include any persons performing functions for the plan normally performed by administrators, officers, or employees of a plan. As such, the terms shall include persons indirectly employed, or otherwise delegated, to perform such work for the plan, such as pension consultants and planners, and attorneys who perform “handling” functions within the meaning of § 2580.412-6. On the other hand, the terms would not include those brokers or independent contractors who have contracted for the performance of functions which are not ordinarily carried out by the administrators, officers, or employees of a plan, such as securities, brokers who purchase and sell securities or armored motor vehicle companies. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 14403, Dec. 27, 1963, as amended at 34 FR 5158, Mar. 13, 1969. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.1.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-4   “Funds or other property” of a plan.</HEAD>
<P>The affirmative requirement for bonding persons falling within the definition of administrator, officer or employee is applicable only if they handle “funds or other property” of the plan concerned. The term “funds or other property” is intended to encompass all property which is used or may be used as a source for the payment of benefits to plan participants. It does not include permanent assets used in the operation of the plan such as land and buildings, furniture and fixtures or office and delivery equipment used in the operation of the plan. It does include all items in the nature of quick assets, such as cash, checks and other negotiable instruments, government obligations and marketable securities. It also includes all other property or items convertible into cash or having a cash value and held or acquired for the ultimate purpose of distribution to plan participants or beneficiaries. In the case of a plan which has investments, this would include all the investments of the plan even though not in the nature of quick assets, such as land and buildings, mortgages, and securities in closely held corporations. However, in a given case, the question of whether a person was “handling” such “funds or other property” so as to require bonding would depend on whether his relationship to this property was such that there was a risk that he, alone or in connivance with others, could cause a loss of such “funds or other property” through fraud or dishonesty. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.1.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-5   Determining when “funds or other property” belong to a plan.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to any contribution to a plan from any source, including employers, employees or employee organizations, the point at which any given item or amount becomes “funds or other property” of a plan for purposes of the bonding provisions shall be determined as described in this section. 
</P>
<P>(a) Where the plan administrator is a board of trustees, person or body other than the employer or employee organization establishing the plan, a contribution to the plan from any source shall become “funds or other property” of the plan at the time it is received by the plan administrator. Employee contributions collected by an employer and later turned over to the plan administrator would not become “funds or other property” of the plan until receipt by the plan administrator. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the employer or employee organization establishing the plan is itself the plan administrator: 
</P>
<P>(1) Contributions from employees or other persons who are plan participants would normally become “funds or other property” of the plan at the time they are received by the employer or employee organization, except however that contributions made by withholding from employees' salaries shall not be considered “funds or other property” of the plan for purposes of the bonding provisions so long as they are retained in and not segregated in any way from the general assets of the withholding employer or employee organization. 
</P>
<P>(2) Contributions made to a plan by such employer or employee organization and contributions made by withholdings from employees' salaries would normally become “funds or other property” of the plan if and when they are taken out of the general assets of the employer or employee organization and placed in a special bank account or investment account; or identified on a separate set of books and records; or paid over to a corporate trustee or used to purchase benefits from an insurance carrier or service or other organization; or otherwise segregated, paid out or used for plan purposes, whichever shall occur first. Thus, if a plan is operated by a corporate trustee and no segregation from general assets is made of monies to be turned over to the corporate trustee prior to the actual transmittal of such monies, the contribution represented in the transmission becomes “funds or other property” of the plan at the time of receipt by the corporate trustee. On the other hand, if a special fund is first established from which monies are paid over to the corporate trustee, a given item would become “funds or other property” of the plan at the time it is placed in the special fund. Similarly, if plan benefits are provided through the medium of an insurance carrier or service or other organization and no segregation from general assets of monies used to purchase such benefits is made prior to turning such monies over to the organization contracting to provide benefits, plan funds or other property come into being at the time of receipt of payment for such benefits by the insurance carrier or service or other organization. In such a case, the “funds or other property” of the plan would be represented by the insurance contract or other obligations to pay benefits and would not be normally subject to “handling”. Bonding would not be required for any person with respect to the purchase of such benefits directly from general assets nor with respect to the bare existence of the contract obligation to pay benefits. However, if the particular, arrangement were such that monies derived from, or by virtue of, the contract did subsequently flow back to the plan, bonding may be required if such monies returning to the plan are handled by plan administrators, officers or employees. (Further discussion on bonding of insured plans is contained in § 2580.412-6(b)(7)). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.1.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-6   Determining when “funds or other property” are “handled” so as to require bonding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General scope of term.</I> (1) A plan administrator, officer, or employee shall be deemed to be “handling” funds or other property of a plan, so as to require bonding under section 13, whenever his duties or activities with respect to given funds or other property are such that there is a risk that such funds or other property could be lost in the event of fraud or dishonesty on the part of such person, acting either alone or in collusion with others. While ordinarily, those plan administrators, officers and employees who “handle” within the meaning of section 13 will be those persons with duties related to the receipt, safekeeping and disbursement of funds, the scope of the term “handles” and the prohibitions of paragraph (b) of section 13 shall be deemed to encompass any relationship of an administrator, officer or employee with respect to funds or other property which can give rise to a risk of loss through fraud or dishonesty. This shall include relationships such as those which involve access to funds or other property or decisionmaking powers with respect to funds or property which can give rise to such risk of loss. 
</P>
<P>(2) Section 13 contains no exemptions based on the amount or value of funds or other property “handled”, nor is the determination of the existence of risk of loss based on the amount involved. However, regardless of the amount involved, a given duty or relationship to funds or other property shall not be considered “handling”, and bonding is not required, where it occurs under conditions and circumstances in which the risk that a loss will occur through fraud or dishonesty is negligible. This may be the case where the risk of mishandling is precluded by the nature of the funds or other property (e.g., checks, securities or title papers which can not be negotiated by the persons performing duties with respect to them). It may also be the case where significant risk of mishandling in the performance of duties of an essentially clerical character is precluded by fiscal controls. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General criteria for determining “handling”.</I> Subject to the application of the basic standard of risk of loss to each situation, general criteria for determining whether there is “handling” so as to require bonding are: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical contact.</I> Physical contact with cash, checks or similar property generally constitutes “handling”. However, persons who from time to time perform counting, packaging, tabulating, messenger or similar duties of an essentially clerical character involving physical contact with funds or other property would not be “handling” when they perform these duties under conditions and circumstances where risk of loss is negligible because of factors such as close supervision and control or the nature of the property. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Power to exercise physical contact or control.</I> Whether or not physical contact actually takes place, the power to secure physical possession of cash, checks or similar property through factors such as access to a safe deposit box or similar depository, access to cash or negotiable assets, powers of custody or safekeeping, power to withdraw funds from a bank or other account generally constitutes “handling”, regardless of whether the person in question has specific duties in these matters and regardless of whether the power or access is authorized. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Power to transfer to oneself or a third party or to negotiate for value.</I> With respect to property such as mortgages, title to land and buildings, or securities, while physical contact or the possibility of physical contact may not, of itself, give rise to risk of loss so as to constitute “handling”, a person shall be regarded as “handling” such items where he, through actual or apparent authority, can cause those items to be transferred to himself or to a third party or to be negotiated for value. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disbursement.</I> Persons who actually disburse funds or other property, such as officers or trustees authorized to sign checks or other negotiable instruments, or persons who make cash disbursements, shall be considered to be “handling” such funds or property. Whether other persons who may influence, authorize or direct disbursements or the signing or endorsing of checks or similar instruments will be considered to be “handling” funds or other property shall be determined by reference to the particular duties or responsibilities of such persons as applied to the basic criteria of risk of loss. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Signing or endorsing checks or other negotiable instruments.</I> In connection with disbursements or otherwise, any persons with the power to sign or endorse checks or similar instruments or otherwise render them transferable, whether individually or as co-signers with one or more persons, shall each be considered to be “handling” such funds or other property. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Supervisory or decision making responsibility.</I> To the extent a person's supervisory or decision making responsibility involves factors in relationship to funds discussed in paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of this section, such persons shall be considered to be “handling” in the same manner as any person to whom the criteria of those paragraphs apply. To the extent that only general responsibility for the conduct of the business affairs of the plan is involved, including such functions as approval of contracts, authorization of disbursements, auditing of accounts, investment decisions, determination of benefit claims and similar responsibilities, such persons shall be considered to be “handling” whenever the facts of the particular case raise the possibility that funds or other property of the plan are likely to be lost in the event of their fraud or dishonesty. The mere fact of general supervision would not necessarily, in and of itself, mean that such persons are “handling.” Factors to be accorded weight are the system of fiscal controls, the closeness and continuity of supervision, who is in fact charged with, or actually exercising final responsibility for determining whether specific disbursements, investments, contracts, or benefit claims are bona fide, regular and made in accordance with the applicable trust instrument or other plan documents. 
</P>
<P>(i) For example, persons having supervisory or decisionmaking responsibility would be “handling” to the extent they: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Act in the capacity of plan “administrator” and have ultimate responsibility for the plan within the meaning of the definition of “administrator” (except to the extent that it can be shown that such persons could not, in fact, cause a loss to the plan to occur through fraud or dishonesty); 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Exercise close supervision over corporate trustees or other parties charged with dealing with plan funds or other property; exercise such close control over investment policy that they, in effect, determine all specific investments; 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Conduct, in effect, a continuing daily audit of the persons who “handle” funds; 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Regularly review and have veto power over the actions of a disbursing officer whose duties are essentially ministerial. 
</P>
<P>(ii) On the other hand, persons having supervisory or decisionmaking responsibility would not be “handling” to the extent: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) They merely conduct a periodic or sporadic audit of the persons who “handle” funds; 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Their duties with respect to investment policy are essentially advisory; 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) They make a broad general allocation of funds or general authorization of disbursements intended to permit expenditures by a disbursing officer who has final responsibility for determining the propriety of any specific expenditure and making the actual disbursement; 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) A bank or corporate trustee has all the day to day functions of administering the plan; 
</P>
<P>(<I>e</I>) They are in the nature of a Board of Directors of a corporation or similar authority acting for the corporation rather than for the plan and do not perform specific functions with respect to the operations of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Insured plan arrangements.</I> In many cases, plan contributions made by employers or employee organizations or by withholding from employee's salaries are not segregated from the general assets of the employer or employee organization until payment for purchase of benefits from an insurance carrier or service or other organization. No bonding is required with respect to the payment of premiums or other payments made to purchase such benefits directly from general assets, nor with respect to the bare existence of the contract obligation to pay benefits. Such arrangements would not normally be subject to bonding except to the extent that monies returned by way of benefit payments, cash surrender, dividends, credits or otherwise, and which by the terms of the plan belonged to the plan (rather than to the employer, employee organization, insurance carrier or service or other organization) were subject to “handling” by plan administrators, officers or employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Scope and Form of the Bond</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-7" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-7   Statutory provision—scope of the bond.</HEAD>
<P>The statute requires that the bond shall provide protection to the plan against loss by reason of acts of fraud or dishonesty on the part of a plan administrator, officer, or employee, directly or through connivance with others. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-8" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.2.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-8   The nature of the duties or activities to which the bonding requirement relates.</HEAD>
<P>The bond required under section 13 is limited to protection for those duties and activities from which loss can arise through fraud or dishonesty. It is not required to provide the same scope of coverage that is required in faithful discharge of duties bonds under the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 or in the faithful performance bonds of public officials. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-9" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.2.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-9   Meaning of fraud or dishonesty.</HEAD>
<P>The term “fraud or dishonesty” shall be deemed to encompass all those risks of loss that might arise through dishonest or fraudulent acts in handling of funds as delineated in § 2580.412-6. As such, the bond must provide recovery for loss occasioned by such acts even though no personal gain accrues to the person committing the act and the act is not subject to punishment as a crime or misdemeanor, provided that within the law of the state in which the act is committed, a court would afford recovery under a bond providing protection against fraud or dishonesty. As usually applied under state laws, the term “fraud or dishonesty” encompasses such matters as larceny, theft, embezzlement, forgery, misappropriation, wrongful abstraction, wrongful conversion, willful misapplication or any other fraudulent or dishonest acts. For the purposes of section 13, other fraudulent or dishonest acts shall also be deemed to include acts where losses result through any act or arrangement prohibited by title 18, section 1954 of the U.S. Code. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-10" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.2.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-10   Individual or schedule or blanket form of bonds.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13 provides that “any bond shall be in a form or of a type approved by the Secretary, including individual bonds or schedule or blanket forms of bonds which cover a group or class”. Any form of bond which may be described as individual, schedule or blanket in form or any combination of such forms of bonds shall be acceptable to meet the requirements of section 13, provided that in each case, the form of the bond, in its particular clauses and application, is not inconsistent with meeting the substantive requirements of the statute for the persons and plan involved and with meeting the specific requirements of the regulations in this part. Basic types of bonds in general usage are: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Individual bond.</I> Covers a named individual in a stated penalty. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Name schedule bond.</I> Covers a number of named individuals in the respective amounts set opposite their names. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Position schedule bond.</I> Covers each of the occupants of positions listed in the schedule in the respective amounts set opposite such positions. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Blanket bonds.</I> Cover all the insured's officers and employees with no schedule or list of those covered being necessary and with all new officers and employees bonded automatically, in a blanket penalty which takes two forms—an aggregate penalty bond and a multiple penalty bond which are described below: 
</P>
<P>(1) The aggregate penalty blanket bond such as the Commercial Blanket Bond; the amount of the bond is available for dishonesty losses caused by persons covered thereunder or losses in which such person is concerned or implicated. Payment of loss on account of any such person does not reduce the amount of coverage available for losses other than those caused by such person or in which he was concerned or implicated. 
</P>
<P>(2) The multiple penalty bond such as the Blanket Position Bond giving separate coverage on each person for a uniform amount—the net effect being the same as though a separate bond were issued on each person covered thereunder and all of such bonds being for a uniform amount. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For the purpose of section 13, blanket bonds which are either aggregate penalty or multiple penalty in form shall be permissible if they otherwise meet the requirements of the Act and the regulations in this part.</P></NOTE>
<FP>Bonding, to the extent required, of persons indirectly employed, or otherwise delegated, to perform functions for the plan which are normally performed by “administrators, officers, or employees” as described in § 2580.412-3(d) may be accomplished either by including them under individual or schedule bonds or other forms of bonds meeting the requirements of the Act, or naming them in what is known under general trade usage as an “Agents Rider” attached to a Blanket Bond. 


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Amount of the Bond</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-11" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-11   Statutory provision.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13 requires that the amount of the bond be fixed at the beginning of each calendar, policy or other fiscal year, as the case may be, which constitutes the reporting year of the plan for purposes of the reporting provisions of the Act. The amount of the bond shall be not less than 10 per centum of the amount of funds handled, except that any such bond shall be in at least the amount of $1,000 and no such bond shall be required in an amount in excess of $500,000: <I>Provided,</I> That the Secretary, after due notice and opportunity for hearing to all interested parties, and after consideration of the record, may prescribe an amount in excess of $500,000, which in no event shall exceed 10 per centum of the funds handled. For purposes of fixing the amount of such bond, the amount of funds handled shall be determined by the funds handled by the person, group, or class to be covered by such bond and by their predecessor or predecessors, if any, during the preceding reporting year, or if the plan has no preceding reporting year, the amount of funds to be handled during the current reporting year by such person, group, or class, estimated as provided in the regulations in this part. With respect to persons required to be bonded, section 13 shall be deemed to require the bond to insure from the first dollar of loss up to the requisite bond amount and not to permit the use of deductible or similar features whereby a portion of the risk within such requisite bond amount is assumed by the insured. Any request for variance from these requirements shall be made pursuant to the provisions of section 13(e) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-12" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-12   Relationship of determining the amount of the bond to “handling”.</HEAD>
<P>A determination of whether persons falling within the definition of administrator, officer or employee are required to be bonded depends on whether they “handle” funds or other property. Determining the amount of the bond is an aspect of the same process in that it requires a determination of what funds or other property are being handled or what amounts of funds or other property are subject to risk of loss with respect to the duties or powers of an administrator, officer or employee of a covered plan. Once this calculation is made, the required amount for which that person must be covered by a bond, either by himself or as a part of a group or class being bonded under a blanket or schedule bond, is not less than 10 percent of the amount “handled” or $1,000, whichever is the greater amount, except that no such bond shall be required in an amount greater than $500,000 by virtue of these regulations. (See § 2580.412-17.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-13" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-13   The meaning of “funds” in determining the amount of the bond.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of the bond depends on the amount of “funds” “handled”, and shall be sufficient to provide bonding protection against risk of loss through fraud or dishonesty for all plan funds, including other property similar to funds or in the nature of funds. As such, the term “funds” shall be deemed to include and be equivalent to “funds and other property” of the plan as described in § 2580.412-4. With respect to any item of “funds or other property” which does not have a cash or readily ascertainable market value, the value of such property may be estimated on such basis as will reasonably reflect the loss the plan might suffer if it were mishandled. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-14" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.3.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-14   Determining the amount of funds “handled” during the preceding reporting year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amount of funds “handled” by each person falling within the definition of administrator, officer, or employee (or his predecessors) during the preceding reporting year shall be the total of funds subject to risk of loss, within the meaning of the definition of “handling” (see § 2580.412-6), through acts of fraud or dishonesty, directly or in connivance with others, by such person or his predecessors during the preceding reporting year. The relationship of the determination of the amount of funds “handled” to the determination of who is “handling” can best be illustrated by a situation that commonly arises with respect to executive personnel of a plan, where a bank or corporate trustee has the responsibility for the receipt, safekeeping, physical handling and investment of a plan's assets and the basic function of the executive personnel is to authorize payments to beneficiaries and payments for services to the corporate trustee, the actuary and the employees of the plan itself. Normally, in any given year, only a small portion of the plan's total assets is disbursed, and the question arises as to whether an administrator or executive personnel are “handling” only the amounts actually disbursed each year or whether they are “handling” the total amounts of the assets. The answer to this question depends on the same basic criterion that governs all questions of “handling”, namely, the possibility of loss. If the authorized duties of the persons in question are strictly limited to disbursements of benefits and payments for services, and the fiscal controls and practical realities of the situation are such that these persons cannot gain access to funds which they are not legitimately allowed to disburse, the amount on which the bond is based may be limited to the amount actually disbursed in the reporting year. This would depend, in part, on the extent to which the bank or corporate trustee which has physical possession of the funds also has final responsibility for questioning and limiting disbursements from the plan, and on whether this responsibility is embodied in the original plan instruments. On the other hand, where insufficient fiscal controls exist so that the persons involved have free access to, or can obtain control of, the total amount of the fund, the bond shall reflect this fact and the amount “handled” shall be based on the total amount of the fund. This would generally occur with respect to persons such as the “administrator”, regardless of what functions are performed by a bank or corporate trustee, since the “administrator” by definition retains ultimate power to revoke any arrangement with a bank or corporate trustee. In such case, the “administrator” would have the power to commit the total amount of funds involved to his control, unless the plan itself or other specific agreement (1) prevents the “administrator” from so doing or (2) requires that revocation cannot be had unless a new agreement providing for similar controls and limitations on the “handling” of funds is simultaneously entered into. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the circumstances of “handling” are such that the total amount of a given account or fund is subject to “handling”, the amount “handled” shall include the total of all such funds on hand at the beginning of the reporting year, plus any items received during the year for any reason, such as contributions or income, or items received as a result of sales, investments, reinvestment, interest or otherwise. It would not, however, be necessary to count the same item twice in arriving at the total funds “handled” by a given person during a reporting year. For example, a given person may have various duties or powers involving receipt, safekeeping or disbursement of funds which would place him in contact with the same funds at several times during the same year. Different duties, however, would not make it necessary to count the same item twice in arriving at the total “handled” by him. Similarly, where a person has several different positions with respect to a plan, it would not be necessary to count the same funds each time that they are “handled” by him in these different positions, so long as the amount of the bond is sufficient to meet the 10 percent requirement with respect to the total funds “handled” by him subject to risk or loss through fraud or dishonesty, whether acting alone or in collusion with others. In general, once an item properly within the category of “funds,” has been counted as “handled” by a given person, it need not be counted again even though it should subsequently be “handled” by the same person during the same year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-15" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.3.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-15   Procedures to be used for estimating the amount of funds to be “handled” during the current reporting year in those cases where there is no preceding reporting year.</HEAD>
<P>If for any reason a plan does not have a complete preceding reporting year, the amount “handled” by persons required to be covered by a bond shall be estimated at the beginning of the calendar, policy or other fiscal year, as the case may be, which would constitute either the operating year or the reporting year of the plan, whichever shall occur first, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of a plan having a previous experience year, even though it has no preceding reporting year, the estimate of the amount to be “handled” for any person required to be covered shall be based on the experience in the previous year by applying the same standards and criteria as in a plan which has a preceding reporting year. Similarly, where a plan is recently established, but has had, at the time a bond is obtained, sufficient experience to reasonably estimate a complete year's experience for persons required to be bonded, the amount of funds to be “handled” shall be projected to the complete year on the basis of the period in which the plan has had experience, unless, to the knowledge of the plan administrator, the given period of experience is so seasonal or unrepresentative of the complete year's experience as not to provide a reasonable basis for projecting the estimate for the complete year. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where a plan does not have any prior experience sufficient to allow it to estimate the amount “handled” in the manner outlined in paragraph (a) of this section, the amount to be “handled” by the administrators, officers and employees of the plan during the current reporting year shall be that amount initially required to fund or set up the plan, plus the amount of contributions required to be made under the plan formula from any source during the current reporting year. In most cases, the amount of contributions will be calculated by multiplying the total yearly contribution per participant (required by the plan formula from either employers, employees, employer organizations or any other source) by the number of participants in the plan at the beginning of such reporting year. In cases where the per capita contribution cannot readily be determined, such as in the case of certain insured plans covered by the Act, the amount of contributions shall be estimated on the amount of insurance premiums which are actuarially estimated as necessary to support the plan, or on such other actuarially estimated basis as may be applicable. In the case of a newly formed profit-sharing plan covered by the Act, if the employer establishing the plan has a previous year of experience, the amount of contributions required by the plan formula shall be estimated on the basis of the profits of the previous year. The amount of the bond shall then be fixed at 10 percent of this calculation, but not more than $500,000. A bond for such amount shall be obtained in any form the plan desires on all persons who are administrators, officers, or employees of the plan and who “handle” funds or other property of the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-16" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.3.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-16   Amount of bond required in given types of bonds or where more than one plan is insured in the same bond.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As indicated in § 2580.412-10, the Act permits the use of blanket, schedule and individual forms of bonds so long as the amount of the bond penalty is sufficient to meet the requirements of the Act for any person who is an administrator, officer or employee of a plan handling funds or other property of the plan. Such person must be bonded for 10 percent of the amount he handles, and the amount of the bond must be sufficient to indemnify the plan for any losses in which such person is involved up to that amount. 
</P>
<P>(b) When individual or schedule bonds are written, the bond amount for each person must represent not less than 10 percent of the funds “handled” by the named individual or by the person in the position. When a blanket bond is written, the amount of the bond shall be at least 10 percent of the highest amount handled by any administrator, officer or employee to be covered under the bond. It should also be noted that if an individual or group or class covered under a blanket bond “handle” a large amount of funds or other property, while the remaining bondable persons “handle” only a smaller amount, it is permissible to obtain a blanket bond in an amount sufficient to meet the 10 percent requirements for all except the individual, group or class “handling” the larger amounts, with respect to whom excess indemnity shall be secured in an amount sufficient to meet the 10 percent requirement. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Act does not prohibit more than one plan from being named as insured under the same bond. However, any such bond must allow for recovery by each plan in an amount at least equal to that which would be required if bonded separately. This requirement has application where a person or persons sought to be bonded pursuant to the requirements of section 13 have “handling” functions in more than one plan covered under the bond. Where such is the case, the amount of the bond must be sufficient to cover any such persons having functions in more than one plan for at least 10 percent of the total amount “handled” by them in all the plans covered under the bond. For example, X is the administrator of two welfare plans run by the same employer and he “handled” $100,000 in the preceding reporting year for Plan A and $500,000 in the preceding reporting year for Plan B. If both plans are covered under the same bond, the amount of the bond with respect to X shall be at least $60,000 or ten percent of the total “handled” by X for both plans covered under the bond in which X has powers and duties of “handling” since Plan B is required to carry bond in at least the amount of $50,000 and Plan A, $10,000. 
</P>
<P>(d) Additionally, in order to meet the requirement that each plan be protected, it shall be necessary that arrangement be made either by the terms of the bond or rider to the bond or by separate agreement among the parties concerned, that payment of a loss sustained by one of such insureds shall not work to the detriment of any other plan covered under the bond with respect to the amount for which that plan is required to be covered. For example, if Plan A suffered a loss of $30,000 as described above and such loss was recompensed in its entirety by the surety company, it would receive $20,000 more than the $10,000 protection required under section 13, and only $30,000 would be available for recovery with respect to further losses caused by X. In a subsequently discovered defalcation of $40,000 by X from Plan B, it would be necessary that the bond, rider, or separate agreement provide that such amount of recovery paid to Plan A in excess of the $10,000 for which it is required to be covered, be made available by such insured to, or held for the use of, Plan B in such amount as Plan B would receive if bonded separately. Thus, in the instant case, Plan B would be able to recover the full $40,000 of its loss. Where the funds or other property of several plans are commingled (if permitted by law) with each other or with other funds, such arrangement shall allow recovery to be attributed proportionately to the amount for which each plan is required to be protected. Thus, in the instant case, if funds or other property were commingled, and X caused a loss of these funds through fraud or dishonesty, one-sixth of the loss would be attributable to Plan A and five-sixths of the loss attributable to Plan B. 
</P>
<P>(e) The maximum amount of any bond with respect to any person in any one plan in $500,000, but bonds covering more than one plan may be required to be over $500,000 in order to meet the requirements of the Act, since persons covered by such a bond may have “handling” functions in more than one plan. The $500,000 limitations for such persons applies only with respect to each separate plan in which they have such functions. The minimum bond coverage for any administrator, officer, or employee “handling” funds or other property of a plan is $1,000 as respects each plan in which he has “handling” functions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-17" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.3.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-17   Bonds over $500,000.</HEAD>
<P>The Labor-Management Services Administrator, after due notice and opportunity for hearing to all interested parties, and after consideration of the record, may prescribe an amount in excess of $500,000, which in no event shall exceed 10 per centum of the funds “handled.” Any requirement for bonding in excess of $500,000 shall be according to such other regulations as may be prescribed. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—General Bond Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-18" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-18   Naming of insureds.</HEAD>
<P>Since section 13 is intended to protect funds or other property of all plans involved, bonds under this section shall allow for enforcement or recovery by those persons usually authorized to act for such plans in such matters. In most cases, the naming of the plan or plans as insured will provide for such recovery. Where it is not clear that such recovery will be provided, however, a rider shall be attached to the bond or separate agreement made among the parties concerned to make certain that any reimbursement collected under the bond will be for the benefit and use of the plan suffering a loss. Such rider or agreement shall always be required as respects any bond (a) where the employer or employee organization is first named joint insured with one or more plans, or (b) two or more plans are named joint insureds under a single bond with the first named acting for all insureds for the purpose of orderly servicing of the bond. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-19" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-19   Term of the bond, discovery period, other bond clauses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Term of the bond.</I> The amount of any required bond must in each instance be based on the amount of funds “handled” and must be fixed or estimated at the beginning of the plan's reporting year, that is, as soon after the date when such year begins as the necessary information from the preceding reporting year can practicably be ascertained. This does not mean, however, that a new bond must be obtained each year. There is nothing in the Act that prohibits a bond for a term longer than one year, with whatever advantages such a bond might offer by way of a lower premium. However, at the beginning of each reporting year the bond shall be in at least the requisite amount. If, for any reason, the bond is below the required level at that time, the existing bond shall either be increased to the proper amount, or a supplemental bond shall be obtained. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discovery period.</I> A discovery period of no less than one year after the termination or cancellation of the bond is required. Any standard form written on a “discovery” basis, <I>i.e.</I>, providing that a loss must be discovered within the bond period as a prerequisite to recovery of such loss, however, will not be required to have a discovery period if it contains a provision giving the insured the right to purchase a discovery period of one year in the event of termination or cancellation and the insured has already given the surety notice that it desires such discovery period. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other bond clauses.</I> A bond shall not be adequate to meet the requirements of section 13, if, with respect to bonding coverage required under section 13, it contains a clause, or is otherwise, in contravention of the law of the State in which it is executed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-20" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-20   Use of existing bonds, separate bonds and additional bonding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Additional bonding.</I> Section 13 neither prevents additional bonding beyond that required by its terms, nor prescribes the form in which additional coverage may be taken. Thus, so long as a particular bond meets the requirements of the regulations in this part as to the persons required to be bonded and provides coverage for such persons in at least the minimum required amount, additional coverage as to persons or amount may be taken in any form, either on the same or separate bond. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of existing bonds.</I> Insofar as a bond currently in use is adequate to meet the requirements of the Act and the regulations in this part or may be made adequate to meet these requirements through rider, modification or separate agreement between the parties, no further bonding is required. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of separate bonds.</I> The choice of whether persons required to be bonded should be bonded separately or under the same bond, whether given plans should be bonded separately or under the same bond, whether existing bonds should be used or separate bonds for Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act bonding should be obtained, or whether the bond is underwritten by a single surety company or more than one surety company, either separately or on a cosurety basis, is left to the judgment of the parties concerned, so long as the bonding program adopted meets the requirements of the Act and the regulations in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Qualified Agents, Brokers and Surety Companies for the Placing of Bonds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-21" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.5.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-21   Corporate sureties holding grants of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of section 13 require that any surety company with which a bond is placed pursuant to that section must be a corporate surety which holds a grant of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury under the Act of July 30, 1947 (6 U.S.C. 6-13), as an acceptable surety on Federal bonds. The Act provides, among other things, that in order for a surety company to be eligible for such grant of authority, it must be incorporated under the laws of the United States or of any State and the Secretary of the Treasury shall be satisfied of certain facts relating to its authority and capitalization. Such grants of authority are evidenced by Certificates of Authority which are issued by the Secretary of the Treasury and which expire on the April 30 following the date of their issuance. A list of the companies holding such Certificates of Authority is published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> usually in May or June. Changes in the list, occurring between May 1 and April 30, either by addition to or removal from the list of companies, are also published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> following each such change. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where a surety becomes insolvent and is placed in receivership, or if for any other reason the Secretary of the Treasury determines that its financial condition is not satisfactory to him and he revokes the authority of such company to act as an acceptable surety under the Act of July 30, 1947, the “administrator” of the insured plan shall, upon knowledge of such facts, be responsible for securing a new bond with an acceptable surety. 
</P>
<P>(c) In obtaining or renewing a bond, the plan administrator shall assure that the surety is one which satisfies the requirements of this section. If the bond is for a term of more than one year, the plan administrator, at the beginning of each reporting year, shall assure that the surety continues to satisfy the requirements of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-22" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.5.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-22   Interests held in agents, brokers and surety companies.</HEAD>
<P>Section 13(c) prohibits the placing of bonds, required to be obtained pursuant to section 13, with any surety or other company, or through any agent or broker in whose business operations a plan or any party in interest in a plan has significant control or financial interest, direct or indirect. An interpretation of this section has been issued (§ 2580.412-36 of this chapter). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Exemptions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14410, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="6" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Bonds Placed With Certain Reinsuring Companies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-23" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-23   Exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An exemption from the bonding requirements of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act is granted by this section whereby bonding arrangements (which otherwise comply with the requirements of section 13 of the Act and the regulations issued thereunder) with companies authorized by the Secretary of the Treasury as acceptable reinsurers on Federal bonds will satisfy the bonding requirements of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-24" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-24   Conditions of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This exemption obtains only with respect to the requirement of section 13(a) of the Act that all bonds required thereunder shall have as surety thereon, a corporate surety company, which is an acceptable surety on Federal bonds under authority granted by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to the Act of July 30, 1947 (6 U.S.C. 6-13). 
</P>
<P>(b) The exemption is granted upon the condition that if for any reason the authority of any such company to act as an acceptable reinsuring company is terminated, the administrator of a plan insured with such company, shall, upon knowledge of such fact, be responsible for securing a new bond with a company acceptable under the Act and the exemptions issued thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(c) In obtaining or renewing a bond, the plan administrator shall ascertain that the surety is one which satisfies the requirements of the Act and the exemptions thereunder. If the bond is for a term of more than one year, the plan administrator, at the beginning of each reporting year, shall ascertain that the surety continues to do so. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="7" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Bonds Placed With Underwriters at Lloyds, London</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-25" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.7.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-25   Exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An exemption from the bonding requirements of subsection 13(a) of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act is granted by this section whereby arrangements (which otherwise comply with the requirements of section 13 of the Act and the regulations issued thereunder), with the Underwriters at Lloyds, London will satisfy the bonding requirements of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-26" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.7.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-26   Conditions of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This exemption obtains only with respect to the requirements of section 13(a) of the Act that all bonds required thereunder shall have as surety thereon, a corporate surety company, which is an acceptable surety on Federal bonds under authority granted by the Secretary of the Treasury, pursuant to the Act of July 30, 1947 (6 U.S.C. 6-13). 
</P>
<P>(b) This exemption is granted on the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Underwriters at Lloyds, London shall continue to be licensed in a state of the United States to enter into bonding arrangements of the type required by the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) Underwriters at Lloyds, London, shall file with the Office of Pension and Welfare Benefit Programs two (2) copies of each annual statement required to be made to the Commissioner of Insurance of those states in which Underwriters at Lloyds, London are licensed. Copies of annual statements shall be filed with the Office of Pension and Welfare Benefit Programs within the same period required by the respective states. 
</P>
<P>(3) All bonding arrangements entered into by Underwriters at Lloyds, London under section 13 of the Act shall contain a “Service of Suit Clause” in substantial conformity with that set forth in the petition for exemption. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Banking Institutions Subject to Federal Regulation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-27" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-27   Exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An exemption from the bonding requirements of subsections 13 (a) and (b) of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act is granted whereby banking institutions and trust companies specified in § 2580.412-28 are not required to comply with subsections 13 (a) and (b) of the Act, with respect to welfare and pension benefit plans covered by the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 5158, Mar. 13, 1969. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-28" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-28   Conditions of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>This exemption applies only to those banking institutions and trust companies subject to regulation and examination by the Comptroller of the Currency or the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="9" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Savings and Loan Associations Subject to Federal Regulation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-29" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-29   Exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An exemption from the bonding requirements of subsections 13 (a) and (b) of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act is granted whereby savings and loan associations (including building and loan associations, cooperative banks and homestead associations) specified in § 2580.412-30 are not required to comply with subsections 13 (a) and (b) of the Act, with respect to welfare and pension benefit plans covered by the Act for the benefit of their own employees, where such a savings and loan association is the administrator of such plans. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 6840, May 4, 1967. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-30" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-30   Conditions of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>This exemption applies only to those savings and loan associations (including building and loan associations, cooperative banks and homestead associations) subject to regulation and examination by the Federal Home Loan Bank Board. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 6840, May 4, 1967. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Insurance Carriers, Service and Other Similar Organizations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-31" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.10.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-31   Exemption.</HEAD>
<P>An exemption from the bonding requirements of subsection 13 (a) and (b) of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act is granted whereby any insurance carrier or service or other similar organization specified in § 2580.412-32 is not required to comply with subsections 13 (a) and (b) of the Act with respect to any welfare or pension benefit plan covered by the Act which is established or maintained for the benefit of persons other than the employees of such insurance carrier or service or other similar organization. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 5158, Mar. 13, 1969. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-32" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.6.10.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-32   Conditions of exemption.</HEAD>
<P>This exemption applies only to those insurance carriers, service or other similar organizations providing or underwriting welfare or pension plan benefits in accordance with State law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 5158, Mar. 13, 1969. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Prohibition Against Bonding by Parties Interested in the Plan</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 14412, Dec. 27, 1963, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 50 FR 26706, June 28, 1985. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-33" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-33   Introductory statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part discusses the meaning and scope of section 13(c) of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act of 1958 (76 Stat. 39, 29 U.S.C. 308d(c)) (hereinafter referred to as the Act). This provision makes it unlawful “for any person to procure any bond [required by the Act] from any surety or other company or through any agent or broker in whose business operations such plan or any party in interest in such plan has any significant control or financial interest, direct or indirect.” Because the prohibition contained in this provision is broadly stated, it becomes a matter of importance to determine more specifically the types of arrangements intended to be prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of section 13 of the Act, including 13(c) are subject to the general investigatory authority of the Director, Office of Labor-Management and Welfare-Pension Reports, embodied in section 9 of the Act. The correctness of an interpretation of these provisions can be determined finally and authoritatively only by the courts. It is necessary, however, for the Labor-Management Services Administrator to reach informed conclusions as to the meaning of the law to enable him to carry out his statutory duties of administration and enforcement. The interpretations of the Labor-Management Services Administrator contained in this part, which are issued upon the advice of the Solicitor of Labor, indicate the construction of the law which will guide the Labor-Management Services Administrator in performing his duties unless and until he is directed otherwise by authoritative ruling of the courts or unless and until he subsequently decides that his prior interpretation is incorrect. Under section 12 of the Act, the interpretations contained in this part, if relied upon in good faith, will constitute a defense in any action or proceeding based on any Act or omission in alleged violation of section 13(c) of the Act. The omission, however to discuss a particular problem in this part, or in interpretations supplementing it, should not be taken to indicate the adoption of any position by the Labor-Management Services Administrator with respect to such problem or to constitute an administrative interpretation or practice. Interpretations of the Labor-Management Services Administrator with respect to 13(c) are set forth in this part to provide those affected by the provisions of the Act with “a practical guide * * * as to how the office representing the public interest in its enforcement will seek to apply it” (<I>Skidmore</I> v. <I>Swift &amp; Co.,</I> 323 U.S. 134, 138). 
</P>
<P>(c) To the extent that prior opinions and interpretations relating to 13(c) are inconsistent with the principles stated in this part, they are hereby rescinded and withdrawn. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-34" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-34   General.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of section 13(c), as shown by its legislative history, is similar to a closely related provision contained in section 502(a) of the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 (73 Stat. 536; 29 U.S.C. 502(a)). The fundamental purpose of Congress under 13(c) is to insure against potential abuses arising from significant financial or other influential interests affecting the objectivity of the plan or parties in interest in the plan and agents, brokers, or surety or other companies, in securing and providing the bond specified in section 13(a). As will be explained more fully below, this prohibition, however, was not intended to preclude the placing of bonds through or with certain parties in interest in plans which provide a variety of services to the plan, one of which is a bonding service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-35" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-35   Disqualification of agents, brokers and sureties.</HEAD>
<P>Since 13(c) is to be construed as disqualifying any agent, broker, surety or other company from having a bond placed through or with it, if the plan or any party in interest in the plan has a significant financial interest or control in such agent, broker, surety or other company, a question of fact will necessarily arise in many cases as to whether the financial interest or control held is sufficiently significant to disqualify the agent, broker or surety. Although no rule of guidance can be established to govern each and every case in which this question arises, in general, the essential test is whether the existing financial interest or control held is incompatible with an unbiased exercise of judgment in regard to procuring the bond or bonding the plan's personnel. In regard to the foregoing, it is also to be pointed out that lack of knowledge or consent on the part of persons responsible for procuring bonds with respect to the existence of a significant financial interest or control rendering the bonding arrangement unlawful will not be deemed a mitigating factor where such persons have failed to make a reasonable examination into the pertinent circumstances affecting the procuring of the bond. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2580.412-36" NODE="29:9.1.2.9.12.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2580.412-36   Application of 13(c) to “party in interest”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under 13(c), an agent, broker or surety or other company is disqualified from having a bond placed through or with it if a “party in interest” in the plan has any significant control or financial interest in such agent, broker, surety or other company. Section 3(13) of the Act defines the term “party in interest” to mean “any administrator, officer, trustee, custodian, counsel, or employee of any employee welfare benefit plan or a person providing benefit plan services to any such plan, or an employer any of whose employees are covered by such a plan or officer or employee or agent of such employer, or an officer or agent or employee of an employee organization having members covered by such plan.” 
</P>
<P>(b) A basic question presented is whether the effect of 13(c) is to prohibit persons from placing a bond through or with any “party in interest” in the plan. The language used in 13(c) appears to indicate that in this connection the intent of Congress was to eliminate those instances where the existing financial interest or control held by the “party in interest” in the agent, broker, surety or other company is incompatible with an unbiased exercise of judgment in regard to procuring the bond or bonding the plan's personnel. Accordingly, not all parties in interest are disqualified from procuring or providing bonds for the plan. Thus where a “party in interest” or its affiliate provides multiple benefit plan services to plans, persons are not prohibited from availing themselves of the bonding services provided by the “party in interest” or its affiliate merely because the plan has already availed itself, or will avail itself, of other services provided by the “party in interest.” In this case, it is inherent in the nature of the “party in interest” or its affiliate as an individual or organization providing multiple benefit plan services, one of which is a bonding service, that the existing financial interest or control held is not, in and of itself, incompatible with an unbiased exercise of judgment in regard to procuring the bond or bonding the plan's personnel. In short, there is no distinction between this type of relationship and the ordinary arm's length business relationship which may be established between a plan-customer and an agent, broker or surety company, a relationship which Congress could not have intended to disturb. On the other hand, where a “party in interest” in the plan or an affiliate does not provide a bonding service as part of its general business operations, 13(c) would prohibit any person from procuring the bond through or with any agent, broker, surety or other company, with respect to which the “party in interest” has any significant control or financial interest, direct or indirect. In this case, the failure of the “party in interest” or its affiliate to provide a bonding service as part of its general business operations raises the posibility of less than an arm's length business relationship between the plan and the agent, broker, surety or other company since the objectivity of either the plan or the agent, broker or surety may be influenced by the “party in interest”. 
</P>
<P>(c) The application of the principles discussed in this section is illustrated by the following examples: 
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>B, a broker, renders actuarial and consultant service to plan P. B has also procured a group life insurance policy for plan P. B may also place a bond for P with surety company S, provided that neither B nor P has any significant control or financial interest, direct or indirect, in S and provided that neither P nor any other “party in interest” in P, e.g., an officer of the plan, has any significant control or financial interest, direct or indirect, in B or S.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>I, a life insurance company, has provided a group life insurance policy for plan P. I is affiliated with S, a surety company, and has a significant financial interest or control in S. P is not prohibited from obtaining a bond from S since I's affiliation with S does not ordinarily, in and of itself, affect the objectivity of P in procuring the bond or the objectivity of S in bonding P's personnel. However, if any other “party in interest” as defined in section 3(13) of the Act, such as the employer whose employees are covered by P, should have a significant financial interest or control in S, S could not write the bond for P, since the employer's interest affects the objectivity of P and S.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="J" NODE="29:9.1.2.10" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER J—FIDUCIARY RESPONSIBILITY UNDER THE FEDERAL EMPLOYEES' RETIREMENT SYSTEM ACT OF 1986


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2582" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2582—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR FIDUCIARY RESPONSIBILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 8478 and 8478 note; Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2003, 68 FR 5374 (Feb. 3, 2003).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Temporary Bonding Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2582.8478-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.13.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2582.8478-1   Temporary bonding requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pending the issuance of permanent regulations under section 8478 of the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986 (FERSA), any fiduciary with respect to the Thrift Savings Fund (Fund) established under FERSA or any person who handles funds or other property of the Fund, shall be deemed to be in compliance with the bonding requirements of section 8478 of FERSA if he or she is bonded in compliance with the temporary bonding regulations under section 412 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) set forth in part 2580 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of ERISA temporary bonding rules.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Any reference to section 13 of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act, as amended (WPPDA), or any section thereof in the ERISA temporary bonding regulations shall be deemed to refer to section 8478 of FERSA or the corresponding subsection thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) Where the particular phrases set forth in FERSA are not identical to the phrases in the WPPDA, ERISA or the ERISA temporary bonding regulations, the phrases appearing in FERSA shall be substituted by operation of law; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Where the phrases are identical but the meaning is different, the meaning given such phrases by FERSA shall govern. For example, the phrase “every administrator, officer and employee of any employee welfare benefit plan or of any employee pension benefit plan subject to this Act who handles funds or other property of such plan” which appears in the WPPDA and in the ERISA temporary bonding regulations shall be construed to mean, for purposes of this section, “each fiduciary and each person who handles funds or property of the Thrift Savings Fund,” which is the term appearing in section 8478 of FERSA; the terms “employee benefit plan” and “plan” which appear in the ERISA temporary bonding regulations shall be construed to mean, for purposes of this section, “Thrift Savings Fund”; and the term “reporting year of the plan” which appears in the ERISA temporary bonding regulations shall be construed to mean, for purposes of this section, “fiscal year of the Thrift Savings Fund.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effectiveness.</I> This section is effective until the earlier of the date of issuance by the Secretary of Labor of permanent regulations under section 8478 of FERSA or December 31, 1989.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 35866, Sept. 23, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2582.8478-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.13.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2582.8478-2   Amount of the bond.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of section 8478(b)(1) of the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986 (FERSA), the amount of a bond for each person, group or class to be bonded shall not be less than 10 percent of the amount of funds handled by such person, group or class with respect to any fiscal year of the Fund. In no case shall such bond be less than $1,000 nor more than $500,000. However, the Secretary of Labor reserves the authority under section 8478(b)(1) of FERSA to prescribe an amount in excess of $500,000, after due notice and opportunity for hearing to all interested parties, and other consideration of the record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effectiveness.</I> This section shall remain in effect until it is amended or withdrawn in accordance with section 8478(b)(1) of FERSA, but in no event shall this section remain in effect beyond December 31, 1989.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 35866, Sept. 23, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 53609, Dec. 29, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Permanent Bonding Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2582.8478-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.13.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2582.8478-3   Permanent bonding requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any fiduciary with respect to the Thrift Savings Fund (Fund) established under the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986 (FERSA) or any person who handles funds or other property of the Fund shall be deemed to be in compliance with the bonding requirements of section 8478 of FERSA if he or she is bonded in compliance with the temporary bonding regulations under section 412 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) set forth in part 2580 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of ERISA temporary bonding rules.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Any reference to section 13 of the Welfare and Pension Plans Disclosure Act, as amended (WPPDA), or any section thereof in the ERISA temporary bonding regulations shall be deemed to refer to section 8478 of FERSA or the corresponding subsection thereof; 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the particular phrases set forth in FERSA are not identical to the phrases in the WPPDA, ERISA or the ERISA temporary bonding regulations, the phrases appearing in FERSA shall be substituted by operation of law; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Where the phrases are identical but the meaning is different, the meaning given such phrases by FERSA shall govern. For example, the phrase “every administrator, officer and employee of any employee welfare benefit plan or of any employee pension benefit plan subject to this Act who handles funds or other property of such plan” which appears in the WPPDA and in the ERISA temporary bonding regulations shall be construed to mean, for purposes of this section “each fiduciary and each person who handles funds or other property of the Thrift Savings Fund,” which is the term appearing in section 8478 of FERSA; the terms “employee benefit plan” and “plan” which appear in the ERISA temporary bonding regulations shall be construed to mean, for purposes of this section, “Thrift Savings Fund”; and the term “reporting year of the plan” which appears in the ERISA temporary bonding regulations shall be construed to mean, for purposes of this section, “fiscal year of the Thrift Savings Fund.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective January 1, 1990.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53609, Dec. 29, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2582.8478-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.13.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2582.8478-4   Permanent amount of the bond.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the authority of section 8478(b)(1) of the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986 (FERSA), the amount of a bond for each person, group or class to be bonded shall not be less than 10 percent of the amount of funds handled by such person, group or class with respect to any fiscal year of the Fund. In no case shall such bond be less than $1,000 nor more than $500,000. However, the Secretary of Labor reserves the authority under section 8478(b)(1) of FERSA to prescribe an amount in excess of $500,000, after due notice and opportunity for hearing to all interested parties, and other consideration of the record. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date.</I> This section shall become effective January 1, 1990, and remain in effect until it is amended or withdrawn in accordance with section 8478(b)(1) of FERSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53609, Dec. 29, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2584" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2584—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR THE ALLOCATION OF FIDUCIARY RESPONSIBILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 8477(e)(1)(E) and Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2003, 68 FR 5374 (Feb. 3, 2003).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 52687, Dec. 29, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2584.8477(e)-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.14.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2584.8477(e)-1   General.</HEAD>
<P>5 U.S.C. 8477(e)(1)(E) provides that any fiduciary with respect to the Thrift Savings Fund of the Federal Employees Retirement System who allocates a fiduciary responsibility to another person pursuant to procedures prescribed by the Secretary of Labor shall not be liable for an act or omission of such person except in specified circumstances. This part sets forth the procedures which have been prescribed by the Secretary of Labor for the allocation of fiduciary responsibilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2584.8477(e)-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.14.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2584.8477(e)-2   Allocation of fiduciary duties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The fiduciary duties of the Board as set forth at 5 U.S.C. 8472 may not be allocated to any person other than a member or members of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Executive Director may allocate authority and responsibility for the investment and management of the Fixed Income Investment Fund to a qualified professional asset manager(s). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Executive Director may allocate authority and responsibility for the investment and management of the Government Securities Investment Fund, the Common Stock Index Investment Fund, the International Stock Index Investment Fund and the Small Capitalization Stock Index Investment Fund to an investment manager(s).
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, no allocation may be made which would constitute: 
</P>
<P>(1) A violation of an express policy of the Board; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An invalid delegation according to the Act or any other law. 
</P>
<P>(e) Except as provided in this part, no person who has or may acquire fiduciary responsibility in connection with the Thrift Savings Fund may allocate such responsibility to another person. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 52687, Dec. 29, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 34394, May 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2584.8477(e)-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.14.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2584.8477(e)-3   Procedures for allocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any allocation made by the Board must— 
</P>
<P>(1) Be authorized by the concurring vote of a majority of the total membership of the Board; 
</P>
<P>(2) Be made in writing, signed by the Chairman of the Board and acknowledged in writing by the receiving Board member or members; 
</P>
<P>(3) Set forth the duties and responsibilities allocated, either in the body of the document or by reference to another document existing at the time of the allocation; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Be communicated in an appropriate written form to the Executive Director, the participants and the beneficiaries of the Thrift Savings Fund. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any allocation made by the Executive Director must— 
</P>
<P>(1) Be made in writing, signed by the Executive Director and acknowledged in writing by the receiving fiduciary; 
</P>
<P>(2) Set forth the duties and responsibilities allocated, either in the body of the document or by reference to another document existing at the time of the allocation; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Be communicated in an appropriate written form to the participants and beneficiaries of the Thrift Savings Fund. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2584.8477(e)-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.14.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2584.8477(e)-4   Revocation and termination of allocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any allocation made pursuant to this part must be revocable at will by the allocating fiduciary, subject only to notice which is reasonable under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) Any revocation by the allocating fiduciary or termination of an allocation by the fiduciary to whom duties have been allocated must set forth in writing the duties and responsibilities as to which the revocation or termination is effective, either in the body of the document or by reference to another document existing at the time of the revocation or termination.
</P>
<P>(c) Any revocation of an allocation must—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an allocation which was made by the Board, be authorized by the concurring vote of a majority of the total membership of the Board and be signed by the Chairman of the Board, or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an allocation which was made by the Executive Director, be signed by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(d) Any termination of an allocation, to be effective, must—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an allocation which was made by the Board, be signed by the terminating fiduciary and acknowledged in writing by the Chairman of the Board, or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an allocation which was made by the Executive Director, be signed by the terminating fiduciary and acknowledged in writing by the Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(e) Any revocation or termination of an allocation must be communicated by the Executive Director in an appropriate written form to the participants and beneficiaries of the Thrift Savings Fund in a manner which identifies the person(s) assuming the responsibilities which were the subject of the revocation or termination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2584.8477(e)-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.14.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2584.8477(e)-5   Effect of allocation.</HEAD>
<P>Where fiduciary responsibility has been allocated to another person or persons pursuant to the procedures contained in this part, the allocating fiduciary shall not be liable for any act or omission of such person or persons unless:
</P>
<P>(a) The allocating fiduciary has violated 5 U.S.C. 8477(b) with respect to—
</P>
<P>(1) The allocation or the continuation of the allocation,
</P>
<P>(2) The implementation of these procedures, or
</P>
<P>(3) The duty to monitor the performance of such person or persons in a reasonable manner during the life of the allocation, or
</P>
<P>(b) The allocating fiduciary would otherwise be liable in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 8477(e)(1)(D).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2584.8477(e)-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.14.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2584.8477(e)-6   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986, 5 U.S.C. 8401 <I>et seq.</I> (Supp. III 1997); 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board</I> means the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board established pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8472;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Common Stock Index Investment Fund</I> means the fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(C);
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Executive Director</I> means the executive director of the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board as appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8474;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fiduciary duty</I> and <I>fiduciary responsibility</I> mean any duty or responsibility which involves the exercise of discretionary authority or discretionary control over—
</P>
<P>(1) The management or disposition of the assets of the Thrift Savings Fund, or
</P>
<P>(2) The administration of the Thrift Savings Fund;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fixed Income Investment Fund</I> means the fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(B);
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Government Securities Investment Fund</I> means the fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(A);
</P>
<P>(h) <I>International Stock Index Investment Fund</I> means the fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(E); 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Investment manager</I> means any fiduciary who—
</P>
<P>(1) Has the power to manage, acquire or dispose of any asset of the plan,
</P>
<P>(2) Is: 
</P>
<P>(i) Registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1),
</P>
<P>(ii) Not registered as an investment adviser under such Act by reason of paragraph (1) of section 203A(a) of such Act (15 U.S.C. 80b-3a) but is registered as an investment adviser under the laws of the state (referred to in such paragraph (1)) in which it maintains its principal office and place of business, and, at the time the fiduciary last filed the registration form most recently filed by the fiduciary with such state in order to maintain the fiduciary's registration under the laws of such state, also filed a copy of such form with the Secretary of Labor,
</P>
<P>(iii) A bank, as defined in that Act, or
</P>
<P>(iv) An insurance company qualified to perform services described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section under the laws of more than one state, and
</P>
<P>(3) Has acknowledged in writing that he or she is a fiduciary with respect to the Thrift Savings Fund;
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Qualified professional asset manager</I> has the meaning which is prescribed at 5 U.S.C. 8438(a)(7);
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Small Capitalization Stock Index Investment Fund</I> means the fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(D);
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Thrift Savings Fund</I> means the fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8437.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 52687, Dec. 29, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 34394, May 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2584.8477(e)-7" NODE="29:9.1.2.10.14.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2584.8477(e)-7   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>This section is effective December 29, 1988, and liability for any transaction which occurs on or after this date will be governed by this section only. In accordance with section 114(a) of Pub. L. 99-556, the interim regulations promulgated by the Board appearing at title 5, CFR, chapter VI, §§ 1660.1 through 1660.5 will no longer be effective as of December 29, 1988. Liability for transactions which occur before the effective date of this regulation, however, will continue to be governed by allocations made both during the statutorily defined effective period of the previously cited interim regulations and pursuant to the requirements of those regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="K" NODE="29:9.1.2.11" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER K—ADMINISTRATION AND ENFORCEMENT UNDER THE FEDERAL EMPLOYEES' RETIREMENT SYSTEM ACT OF 1986 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2589" NODE="29:9.1.2.11.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2589—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR ADMINISTRATION AND ENFORCEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 8477(e)(1)(B) and (f); Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2003, 68 FR 5374 (Feb. 3, 2003).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 32636, Aug. 9, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2589.1" NODE="29:9.1.2.11.15.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2589.1   Civil penalties under section 8477(e)(1)(B) of FERSA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 8477(e)(1)(B) of FERSA, 5 U.S.C. 8477(e)(1)(B), permits the Secretary of Labor to assess a civil penalty against a party in interest who engages in a prohibited transaction with respect to the Thrift Savings Fund. The initial penalty under section 8477(e)(1)(B) is five percent of the “amount involved” in each such transaction for each year or part thereof during which the prohibited transaction continues. However, if the prohibited transaction is not corrected during the “correction period,” the civil penalty may be in an amount not more than 100% of the “amount involved.” The Department of Labor will apply the definitions set out in § 2560.502i-1(b) through (e) of this chapter of title 29 (civil penalties under section 502(i) of ERISA) in determining the “amount involved,” “correction,” “correction period,” and for computation of the section 8477(e)(1)(B) penalty. 
</P>
<P>(b) The rules of practice set forth in §§ 2570.1-2570.12 of part 2570, subpart A of subchapter G of this chapter of title 29 (procedures for the assessment of civil sanctions under ERISA section 502(i)) are applicable to prohibited transaction penalty proceedings under FERSA section 8477(e)(1)(B).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="L" NODE="29:9.1.2.12" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER L—GROUP HEALTH PLANS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2590" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2590—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR GROUP HEALTH PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1027, 1059, 1135, 1161-1168, 1169, 1181-1183, 1181 note, 1185, 1185a-n, 1191, 1191a, 1191b, and 1191c; sec. 101(g), Pub. L. 104-191, 110 Stat. 1936; sec. 401(b), Pub. L. 105-200, 112 Stat. 645 (42 U.S.C. 651 note); sec. 512(d), Pub. L. 110-343, 122 Stat. 3881; sec. 1001, 1201, and 1562(e), Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 119, as amended by Pub. L. 111-152, 124 Stat. 1029; Division M, Pub. L. 113-235, 128 Stat. 2130; Pub. L. 116-260, 134 Stat. 1182; Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 16941, Apr. 8, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Continuation Coverage, Qualified Medical Child Support Orders, Coverage for Adopted Children</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.606-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.606-1   General notice of continuation coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pursuant to section 606(a)(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), the administrator of a group health plan subject to the continuation coverage requirements of part 6 of title I of the Act shall provide, in accordance with this section, written notice to each covered employee and spouse of the covered employee (if any) of the right to continuation coverage provided under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of notice.</I> (1) The notice required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be furnished to each employee and each employee's spouse, not later than the earlier of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The date that is 90 days after the date on which such individual's coverage under the plan commences, or, if later, the date that is 90 days after the date on which the plan first becomes subject to the continuation coverage requirements; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The first date on which the administrator is required, pursuant to § 2590.606-4(b), to furnish the covered employee, spouse, or dependent child of such employee notice of a qualified beneficiary's right to elect continuation coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) A notice that is furnished in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall, for purposes of section 606(a)(1) of the Act, be deemed to be provided at the time of commencement of coverage under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(3) In any case in which an administrator is required to furnish a notice to a covered employee or spouse pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the furnishing of a notice to such individual in accordance with § 2590.606-4(b) shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan under which continuation coverage is available, and the name, address and telephone number of a party or parties from whom additional information about the plan and continuation coverage can be obtained; 
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the continuation coverage under the plan, including identification of the classes of individuals who may become qualified beneficiaries, the types of qualifying events that may give rise to the right to continuation coverage, the obligation of the employer to notify the plan administrator of the occurrence of certain qualifying events, the maximum period for which continuation coverage may be available, when and under what circumstances continuation coverage may be extended beyond the applicable maximum period, and the plan's requirements applicable to the payment of premiums for continuation coverage; 
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of the plan's requirements regarding the responsibility of a qualified beneficiary to notify the administrator of a qualifying event that is a divorce, legal separation, or a child's ceasing to be a dependent under the terms of the plan, and a description of the plan's procedures for providing such notice; 
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the plan's requirements regarding the responsibility of qualified beneficiaries who are receiving continuation coverage to provide notice to the administrator of a determination by the Social Security Administration, under title II or XVI of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 401 <I>et seq.</I> or 1381 <I>et seq.</I>), that a qualified beneficiary is disabled, and a description of the plan's procedures for providing such notice; 
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation of the importance of keeping the administrator informed of the current addresses of all participants or beneficiaries under the plan who are or may become qualified beneficiaries; and 
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that the notice does not fully describe continuation coverage or other rights under the plan and that more complete information regarding such rights is available from the plan administrator and in the plan's SPD. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Single notice rule.</I> A plan administrator may satisfy the requirement to provide notice in accordance with this section to a covered employee and the covered employee's spouse by furnishing a single notice addressed to both the covered employee and the covered employee's spouse, if, on the basis of the most recent information available to the plan, the covered employee's spouse resides at the same location as the covered employee, and the spouse's coverage under the plan commences on or after the date on which the covered employee's coverage commences, but not later than the date on which the notice required by this section is required to be provided to the covered employee. Nothing in this section shall be construed to create a requirement to provide a separate notice to dependent children who share a residence with a covered employee or a covered employee's spouse to whom notice is provided in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice in summary plan description.</I> A plan administrator may satisfy the requirement to provide notice in accordance with this section by including the information described in paragraphs (c)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section in a summary plan description meeting the requirements of § 2520.102-3 of this chapter furnished in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Delivery of notice.</I> The notice required by this section shall be furnished in a manner consistent with the requirements of § 2520.104b-1 of this chapter, including paragraph (c) of that section relating to the use of electronic media. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Model notice.</I> The appendix to this section contains a model notice that is intended to assist administrators in discharging the notice obligations of this section. Use of the model notice is not mandatory. The model notice reflects the requirements of this section as they would apply to single-employer group health plans and must be modified if used to provide notice with respect to other types of group health plans, such as multiemployer plans or plans established and maintained by employee organizations for their members. In order to use the model notice, administrators must appropriately add relevant information where indicated in the model notice, select among alternative language, and supplement the model notice to reflect applicable plan provisions. Items of information that are not applicable to a particular plan may be deleted. Use of the model notice, appropriately modified and supplemented, will be deemed to satisfy the notice content requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability.</I> This section shall apply to any notice obligation described in this section that arises on or after the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after November 26, 2004.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26my04.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er26my04.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er26my04.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er26my04.007.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 30097, May 26, 2004; 69 FR 34921, June 23, 2004]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.606-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.606-2   Notice requirement for employers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pursuant to section 606(a)(2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), except as otherwise provided herein, the employer of a covered employee under a group health plan subject to the continuation coverage requirements of part 6 of title I of the Act shall provide, in accordance with this section, notice to the administrator of the plan of the occurrence of a qualifying event that is the covered employee's death, termination of employment (other than by reason of gross misconduct), reduction in hours of employment, Medicare entitlement, or a proceeding in a case under title 11, United States Code, with respect to the employer from whose employment the covered employee retired at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The notice required by this section shall be furnished to the administrator of the plan— 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a plan that provides, with respect to a qualifying event, pursuant to section 607(5) of the Act, that continuation coverage and the applicable period for providing notice under section 606(a)(2) of the Act shall commence on the date of loss of coverage, not later than 30 days after the date on which a qualified beneficiary loses coverage under the plan due to the qualifying event; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a multiemployer plan that provides, pursuant to section 606(a)(2) of the Act, for a longer period of time within which employers may provide notice of a qualifying event, not later than the end of the period provided pursuant to the plan's terms for such notice; and 
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases, not later than 30 days after the date on which the qualifying event occurred. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice required by this section shall include sufficient information to enable the administrator to determine the plan, the covered employee, the qualifying event, and the date of the qualifying event. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiemployer plan special rules.</I> This section shall not apply to any employer that maintains a multiemployer plan, with respect to qualifying events affecting coverage under such plan, if the plan provides, pursuant to section 606(b) of the Act, that the administrator shall determine whether such a qualifying event has occurred. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability.</I> This section shall apply to any notice obligation described in this section that arises on or after the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after November 26, 2004. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 30097, May 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.606-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.606-3   Notice requirements for covered employees and qualified beneficiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In accordance with the authority of sections 505 and 606(a)(3) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), this section sets forth requirements for group health plans subject to the continuation coverage requirements of part 6 of title I of the Act with respect to the responsibility of covered employees and qualified beneficiaries to provide the following notices to administrators: 
</P>
<P>(1) Notice of the occurrence of a qualifying event that is a divorce or legal separation of a covered employee from his or her spouse; 
</P>
<P>(2) Notice of the occurrence of a qualifying event that is a beneficiary's ceasing to be covered under a plan as a dependent child of a participant; 
</P>
<P>(3) Notice of the occurrence of a second qualifying event after a qualified beneficiary has become entitled to continuation coverage with a maximum duration of 18 (or 29) months; 
</P>
<P>(4) Notice that a qualified beneficiary entitled to receive continuation coverage with a maximum duration of 18 months has been determined by the Social Security Administration, under title II or XVI of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 401 <I>et seq.</I> or 1381 <I>et seq.</I>) (SSA), to be disabled at any time during the first 60 days of continuation coverage; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Notice that a qualified beneficiary, with respect to whom a notice described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section has been provided, has subsequently been determined by the Social Security Administration, under title II or XVI of the SSA to no longer be disabled. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reasonable procedures.</I> (1) A plan subject to the continuation coverage requirements shall establish reasonable procedures for the furnishing of the notices described in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a plan's notice procedures shall be deemed reasonable only if such procedures: 
</P>
<P>(i) Are described in the plan's summary plan description required by § 2520.102-3 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the individual or entity designated to receive such notices; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the means by which notice may be given; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe the information concerning the qualifying event or determination of disability that the plan deems necessary in order to provide continuation coverage rights consistent with the requirements of the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) A plan's procedures will not fail to be reasonable, pursuant to this section, solely because the procedures require a covered employee or qualified beneficiary to utilize a specific form to provide notice to the administrator, provided that any such form is easily available, without cost, to covered employees and qualified beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a plan has not established reasonable procedures for providing a notice required by this section, such notice shall be deemed to have been provided when a written or oral communication identifying a specific event is made in a manner reasonably calculated to bring the information to the attention of any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a single-employer plan, the person or organizational unit that customarily handles employee benefits matters of the employer; 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a plan to which more than one unaffiliated employer contributes, or which is established or maintained by an employee organization, either the joint board, association, committee, or other similar group (or any member of any such group) administering the plan, or the person or organizational unit to which claims for benefits under the plan customarily are referred; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a plan the benefits of which are provided or administered by an insurance company, insurance service, or other similar organization subject to regulation under the insurance laws of one or more States, the person or organizational unit that customarily handles claims for benefits under the plan or any officer of the insurance company, insurance service, or other similar organization. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Periods of time for providing notice.</I> A plan may establish a reasonable period of time for furnishing any of the notices described in paragraph (a) of this section, provided that any time limit imposed by the plan with respect to a particular notice may not be shorter than the time limit described in this paragraph (c) with respect to that notice. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Time limits for notices of qualifying events.</I> The period of time for furnishing a notice described in paragraph (a)(1), (2), or (3) of this section may not end before the date that is 60 days after the latest of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the relevant qualifying event occurs; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the qualified beneficiary loses (or would lose) coverage under the plan as a result of the qualifying event; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The date on which the qualified beneficiary is informed, through the furnishing of the plan's summary plan description or the notice described in § 2590.606-1, of both the responsibility to provide the notice and the plan's procedures for providing such notice to the administrator. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time limits for notice of disability determination.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the period of time for furnishing the notice described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section may not end before the date that is 60 days after the latest of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the disability determination by the Social Security Administration; 
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which a qualifying event occurs; 
</P>
<P>(C) The date on which the qualified beneficiary loses (or would lose) coverage under the plan as a result of the qualifying event; or 
</P>
<P>(D) The date on which the qualified beneficiary is informed, through the furnishing of the summary plan description or the notice described in § 2590.606-1, of both the responsibility to provide the notice and the plan's procedures for providing such notice to the administrator. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a plan may require the notice described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section to be furnished before the end of the first 18 months of continuation coverage. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time limits for notice of change in disability status.</I> The period of time for furnishing the notice described in paragraph (a)(5) of this section may not end before the date that is 30 days after the later of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the final determination by the Social Security Administration, under title II or XVI of the SSA, that the qualified beneficiary is no longer disabled; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the qualified beneficiary is informed, through the furnishing of the plan's summary plan description or the notice described in § 2590.606-1, of both the responsibility to provide the notice and the plan's procedures for providing such notice to the administrator.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Required contents of notice.</I> (1) A plan may establish reasonable requirements for the content of any notice described in this section, provided that a plan may not deem a notice to have been provided untimely if such notice, although not containing all of the information required by the plan, is provided within the time limit established under the plan in conformity with paragraph (c) of this section, and the administrator is able to determine from such notice the plan, the covered employee and qualified beneficiary(ies), the qualifying event or disability, and the date on which the qualifying event (if any) occurred. 
</P>
<P>(2) An administrator may require a notice that does not contain all of the information required by the plan to be supplemented with the additional information necessary to meet the plan's reasonable content requirements for such notice in order for the notice to be deemed to have been provided in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Who may provide notice.</I> With respect to each of the notice requirements of this section, any individual who is either the covered employee, a qualified beneficiary with respect to the qualifying event, or any representative acting on behalf of the covered employee or qualified beneficiary may provide the notice, and the provision of notice by one individual shall satisfy any responsibility to provide notice on behalf of all related qualified beneficiaries with respect to the qualifying event. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan provisions.</I> To the extent that a plan provides a covered employee or qualified beneficiary a period of time longer than that specified in this section to provide notice to the administrator, the terms of the plan shall govern the time frame for such notice. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional rights to continuation coverage.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to preclude a plan from providing, in accordance with its terms, continuation coverage to a qualified beneficiary although a notice requirement of this section was not satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability.</I> This section shall apply to any notice obligation described in this section that arises on or after the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after November 26, 2004. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 30097, May 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.606-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.606-4   Notice requirements for plan administrators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pursuant to section 606(a)(4) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (the Act), the administrator of a group health plan subject to the continuation coverage requirements of Part 6 of title I of the Act shall provide, in accordance with this section, notice to each qualified beneficiary of the qualified beneficiary's rights to continuation coverage under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of right to elect continuation coverage.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) or (3) of this section, upon receipt of a notice of qualifying event furnished in accordance with § 2590.606-2 or § 2590.606-3, the administrator shall furnish to each qualified beneficiary, not later than 14 days after receipt of the notice of qualifying event, a notice meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a plan with respect to which an employer of a covered employee is also the administrator of the plan, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, if the employer is otherwise required to furnish a notice of a qualifying event to an administrator pursuant to § 2590.606-2, the administrator shall furnish to each qualified beneficiary a notice meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section not later than 44 days after: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a plan that provides, with respect to the qualifying event, that continuation coverage and the applicable period for providing notice under section 606(a)(2) of the Act shall commence with the date of loss of coverage, the date on which a qualified beneficiary loses coverage under the plan due to the qualifying event; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In all other cases, the date on which the qualifying event occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a plan that is a multiemployer plan, a notice meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section shall be furnished not later than the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) The end of the time period provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The end of the time period provided in the terms of the plan for such purpose.
</P>
<P>(4) The notice required by this paragraph (b) shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the plan under which continuation coverage is available; and the name, address and telephone number of the party responsible under the plan for the administration of continuation coverage benefits; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the qualifying event; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification, by status or name, of the qualified beneficiaries who are recognized by the plan as being entitled to elect continuation coverage with respect to the qualifying event, and the date on which coverage under the plan will terminate (or has terminated) unless continuation coverage is elected; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that each individual who is a qualified beneficiary with respect to the qualifying event has an independent right to elect continuation coverage, that a covered employee or a qualified beneficiary who is the spouse of the covered employee (or was the spouse of the covered employee on the day before the qualifying event occurred) may elect continuation coverage on behalf of all other qualified beneficiaries with respect to the qualifying event, and that a parent or legal guardian may elect continuation coverage on behalf of a minor child; 
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of the plan's procedures for electing continuation coverage, including an explanation of the time period during which the election must be made, and the date by which the election must be made; 
</P>
<P>(vi) An explanation of the consequences of failing to elect or waiving continuation coverage, including an explanation that a qualified beneficiary's decision whether to elect continuation coverage will affect the future rights of qualified beneficiaries to portability of group health coverage, guaranteed access to individual health coverage, and special enrollment under part 7 of title I of the Act, with a reference to where a qualified beneficiary may obtain additional information about such rights; and a description of the plan's procedures for revoking a waiver of the right to continuation coverage before the date by which the election must be made; 
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the continuation coverage that will be made available under the plan, if elected, including the date on which such coverage will commence, either by providing a description of the coverage or by reference to the plan's summary plan description; 
</P>
<P>(viii) An explanation of the maximum period for which continuation coverage will be available under the plan, if elected; an explanation of the continuation coverage termination date; and an explanation of any events that might cause continuation coverage to be terminated earlier than the end of the maximum period; 
</P>
<P>(ix) A description of the circumstances (if any) under which the maximum period of continuation coverage may be extended due either to the occurrence of a second qualifying event or a determination by the Social Security Administration, under title II or XVI of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 401 <I>et seq.</I> or 1381 <I>et seq.</I>) (SSA), that the qualified beneficiary is disabled, and the length of any such extension; 
</P>
<P>(x) In the case of a notice that offers continuation coverage with a maximum duration of less than 36 months, a description of the plan's requirements regarding the responsibility of qualified beneficiaries to provide notice of a second qualifying event and notice of a disability determination under the SSA, along with a description of the plan's procedures for providing such notices, including the times within which such notices must be provided and the consequences of failing to provide such notices. The notice shall also explain the responsibility of qualified beneficiaries to provide notice that a disabled qualified beneficiary has subsequently been determined to no longer be disabled; 
</P>
<P>(xi) A description of the amount, if any, that each qualified beneficiary will be required to pay for continuation coverage; 
</P>
<P>(xii) A description of the due dates for payments, the qualified beneficiaries' right to pay on a monthly basis, the grace periods for payment, the address to which payments should be sent, and the consequences of delayed payment and non-payment; 
</P>
<P>(xiii) An explanation of the importance of keeping the administrator informed of the current addresses of all participants or beneficiaries under the plan who are or may become qualified beneficiaries; and 
</P>
<P>(xiv) A statement that the notice does not fully describe continuation coverage or other rights under the plan, and that more complete information regarding such rights is available in the plan's summary plan description or from the plan administrator.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of unavailability of continuation coverage.</I> (1) In the event that an administrator receives a notice furnished in accordance with § 2590.606-3 relating to a qualifying event, second qualifying event, or determination of disability by the Social Security Administration regarding a covered employee, qualified beneficiary, or other individual and determines that the individual is not entitled to continuation coverage under part 6 of title I of the Act, the administrator shall provide to such individual an explanation as to why the individual is not entitled to continuation coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice required by this paragraph (c) shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and shall be furnished by the administrator in accordance with the time frame set out in paragraph (b) of this section that would apply if the administrator received a notice of qualifying event and determined that the individual was entitled to continuation coverage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of termination of continuation coverage.</I> (1) The administrator of a plan that is providing continuation coverage to one or more qualified beneficiaries with respect to a qualifying event shall provide, in accordance with this paragraph (d), notice to each such qualified beneficiary of any termination of continuation coverage that takes effect earlier than the end of the maximum period of continuation coverage applicable to such qualifying event.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice required by this paragraph (d) shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The reason that continuation coverage has terminated earlier than the end of the maximum period of continuation coverage applicable to such qualifying event; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of termination of continuation coverage; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rights the qualified beneficiary may have under the plan or under applicable law to elect an alternative group or individual coverage, such as a conversion right.
</P>
<P>(3) The notice required by this paragraph (d) shall be furnished by the administrator as soon as practicable following the administrator's determination that continuation coverage shall terminate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special notice rules.</I> The notices required by paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be furnished to each qualified beneficiary or individual, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) An administrator may provide notice to a covered employee and the covered employee's spouse by furnishing a single notice addressed to both the covered employee and the covered employee's spouse, if, on the basis of the most recent information available to the plan, the covered employee's spouse resides at the same location as the covered employee; and 
</P>
<P>(2) An administrator may provide notice to each qualified beneficiary who is the dependent child of a covered employee by furnishing a single notice to the covered employee or the covered employee's spouse, if, on the basis of the most recent information available to the plan, the dependent child resides at the same location as the individual to whom such notice is provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Delivery of notice.</I> The notices required by this section shall be furnished in any manner consistent with the requirements of § 2520.104b-1 of this chapter, including paragraph (c) of that section relating to the use of electronic media.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Model notice.</I> The appendix to this section contains a model notice that is intended to assist administrators in discharging the notice obligations of paragraph (b) of this section. Use of the model notice is not mandatory. The model notice reflects the requirements of this section as they would apply to single-employer group health plans and must be modified if used to provide notice with respect to other types of group health plans, such as multiemployer plans or plans established and maintained by employee organizations for their members. In order to use the model notice, administrators must appropriately add relevant information where indicated in the model notice, select among alternative language and supplement the model notice to reflect applicable plan provisions. Items of information that are not applicable to a particular plan may be deleted. Use of the model notice, appropriately modified and supplemented, will be deemed to satisfy the notice content requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability.</I> This section shall apply to any notice obligation described in this section that arises on or after the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after November 26, 2004.
</P>
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<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 30097, May 26, 2004; 69 FR 34921, June 23, 2004]







</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.609-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.609-1   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.609-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.609-2   National Medical Support Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section promulgates the National Medical Support Notice (the Notice), as mandated by section 401(b) of the Child Support Performance and Incentive Act of 1998 (Pub. L. 105-200). If the Notice is appropriately completed and satisfies paragraphs (3) and (4) of section 609(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), the Notice is deemed to be a qualified medical child support order (QMCSO) pursuant to ERISA section 609(a)(5)(C). Section 609(a) of ERISA delineates the rights and obligations of the alternate recipient (child), the participant, and the group health plan under a QMCSO. A copy of the Notice is available on the Internet at <I>http://www.dol.gov/ebsa.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a plan administrator shall find that a Notice is appropriately completed if it contains the name of an Issuing Agency, the name and mailing address (if any) of an employee who is a participant under the plan, the name and mailing address of one or more alternate recipient(s) (child(ren) of the participant) (or the name and address of a substituted official or agency which has been substituted for the mailing address of the alternate recipient(s)), and identifies an underlying child support order. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Under section 609(a)(3)(A) of ERISA, in order to be qualified, a medical child support order must clearly specify the name and the last known mailing address (if any) of the participant and the name and mailing address of each alternate recipient covered by the order, except that, to the extent provided in the order, the name and mailing address of an official of a State or a political subdivision thereof may be substituted for the mailing address of any such alternate recipient. Section 609(a)(3)(B) of ERISA requires a reasonable description of the type of coverage to be provided to each such alternate recipient, or the manner in which such type of coverage is to be determined. Section 609(a)(3)(C) of ERISA requires that the order specify the period to which such order applies.
</P>
<P>(2) The Notice satisfies ERISA section 609(a)(3)(A) by including the necessary identifying information described in § 2590.609-2(b).
</P>
<P>(3) The Notice satisfies ERISA section 609(a)(3)(B) by having the Issuing Agency identify either the specific type of coverage or all available group health coverage. If an employer receives a Notice that does not designate either specific type(s) of coverage or all available coverage, the employer and plan administrator should assume that all are designated. The Notice further satisfies ERISA section 609(a)(3)(B) by instructing the plan administrator that if a group health plan has multiple options and the participant is not enrolled, the Issuing Agency will make a selection after the Notice is qualified, and, if the Issuing Agency does not respond within 20 days, the child will be enrolled under the plan's default option (if any).
</P>
<P>(4) Section 609(a)(3)(C) of ERISA is satisfied because the Notice specifies that the period of coverage may only end for the alternate recipient(s) when similarly situated dependents are no longer eligible for coverage under the terms of the plan, or upon the occurrence of certain specified events. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Under ERISA section 609(a)(4), a qualified medical child support order may not require a plan to provide any type or form of benefit, or any option, not otherwise provided under the plan, except to the extent necessary to meet the requirements of a law relating to medical child support described in section 1908 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396g-1. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Notice satisfies the conditions of ERISA section 609(a)(4) because it requires the plan to provide to an alternate recipient only those benefits that the plan provides to any dependent of a participant who is enrolled in the plan, and any other benefits that are necessary to meet the requirements of a State law described in such section 1908. 
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of this section, an “Issuing Agency” is a State agency that administers the child support enforcement program under Part D of Title IV of the Social Security Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 82142, Dec. 27, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Health Coverage Portability, Nondiscrimination, and Renewability</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 16941, Apr. 8, 1997, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 65 FR 82142, Dec. 27, 2000.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2590.701-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.701-1   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory basis.</I> This Subpart B implements Part 7 of Subtitle B of Title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (hereinafter ERISA or the Act).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage may provide greater rights to participants and beneficiaries than those set forth in this Subpart B. This Subpart B sets forth minimum requirements for group health plans and group health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage concerning certain consumer protections of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), including special enrollment periods and the prohibition against discrimination based on a health factor, as amended by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Affordable Care Act). Other consumer protection provisions, including other protections provided by the Affordable Care Act and the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act, are set forth in Subpart C of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78763, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 51683, Oct. 7, 2009; 79 FR 10308, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.701-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.701-2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise provided, the definitions in this section govern in applying the provisions of §§ 2590.701 through 2590.734.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliation period</I> means a period of time that must expire before health insurance coverage provided by an HMO becomes effective, and during which the HMO is not required to provide benefits.
</P>
<P><I>COBRA</I> definitions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>COBRA</I> means Title X of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, as amended.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>COBRA continuation coverage</I> means coverage, under a group health plan, that satisfies an applicable COBRA continuation provision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>COBRA continuation provision</I> means sections 601-608 of the Act, section 4980B of the Internal Revenue Code (other than paragraph (f)(1) of such section 4980B insofar as it relates to pediatric vaccines), or Title XXII of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exhaustion of COBRA continuation coverage</I> means that an individual's COBRA continuation coverage ceases for any reason other than either failure of the individual to pay premiums on a timely basis, or for cause (such as making a fraudulent claim or an intentional misrepresentation of a material fact in connection with the plan). An individual is considered to have exhausted COBRA continuation coverage if such coverage ceases—
</P>
<P>(i) Due to the failure of the employer or other responsible entity to remit premiums on a timely basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the individual no longer resides, lives, or works in the service area of an HMO or similar program (whether or not within the choice of the individual) and there is no other COBRA continuation coverage available to the individual; or
</P>
<P>(iii) When the individual incurs a claim that would meet or exceed a lifetime limit on all benefits and there is no other COBRA continuation coverage available to the individual.
</P>
<P><I>Condition</I> means a <I>medical condition.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Creditable coverage</I> means <I>creditable coverage</I> within the meaning of § 2590.701-4(a).
</P>
<P><I>Dependent</I> means any individual who is or may become eligible for coverage under the terms of a group health plan because of a relationship to a participant.
</P>
<P><I>Enroll</I> means to become covered for benefits under a group health plan (that is, when coverage becomes effective), without regard to when the individual may have completed or filed any forms that are required in order to become covered under the plan. For this purpose, an individual who has health coverage under a group health plan is enrolled in the plan regardless of whether the individual elects coverage, the individual is a dependent who becomes covered as a result of an election by a participant, or the individual becomes covered without an election.
</P>
<P><I>Enrollment date</I> means the first day of coverage or, if there is a waiting period, the first day of the waiting period. If an individual receiving benefits under a group health plan changes benefit packages, or if the plan changes group health insurance issuers, the individual's enrollment date does not change.
</P>
<P><I>Excepted benefits</I> means the benefits described as excepted in § 2590.732(c).
</P>
<P><I>First day of coverage</I> means, in the case of an individual covered for benefits under a group health plan, the first day of coverage under the plan and, in the case of an individual covered by health insurance coverage in the individual market, the first day of coverage under the policy or contract.
</P>
<P><I>Genetic information</I> has the meaning given the term in § 2590.702-1(a)(3) of this Part.
</P>
<P><I>Group health insurance coverage</I> means health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan. Individual health insurance coverage reimbursed by the arrangements described in 29 CFR 2510.3-1(l) is not offered in connection with a group health plan, and is not group health insurance coverage, provided all the conditions in 29 CFR 2510.3-1(l) are satisfied.
</P>
<P><I>Group health plan</I> or <I>plan</I> means a <I>group health plan</I> within the meaning of § 2590.732(a).
</P>
<P><I>Group market</I> means the market for health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan. (However, certain very small plans may be treated as being in the individual market, rather than the group market; see the definition of <I>individual market</I> in this section.)
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance coverage</I> means benefits consisting of medical care (provided directly, through insurance or reimbursement, or otherwise) under any hospital or medical service policy or certificate, hospital or medical service plan contract, or HMO contract offered by a health insurance issuer. Health insurance coverage includes group health insurance coverage, individual health insurance coverage, and short-term, limited-duration insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance issuer</I> or <I>issuer</I> means an insurance company, insurance service, or insurance organization (including an HMO) that is required to be licensed to engage in the business of insurance in a State and that is subject to State law that regulates insurance (within the meaning of section 514(b)(2) of the Act). Such term does not include a group health plan.
</P>
<P><I>Health maintenance organization</I> or <I>HMO</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) A federally qualified health maintenance organization (as defined in section 1301(a) of the PHS Act);
</P>
<P>(2) An organization recognized under State law as a health maintenance organization; or
</P>
<P>(3) A similar organization regulated under State law for solvency in the same manner and to the same extent as such a health maintenance organization.
</P>
<P><I>Individual health insurance coverage</I> means health insurance coverage offered to individuals in the individual market, but does not include short-term, limited-duration insurance. Individual health insurance coverage can include dependent coverage.
</P>
<P><I>Individual market</I> means the market for health insurance coverage offered to individuals other than in connection with a group health plan. Unless a State elects otherwise in accordance with section 2791(e)(1)(B)(ii) of the PHS Act, such term also includes coverage offered in connection with a group health plan that has fewer than two participants who are current employees on the first day of the plan year.
</P>
<P><I>Internal Revenue Code</I> means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (Title 26, United States Code).
</P>
<P><I>Issuer</I> means a <I>health insurance issuer.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Late enrollee</I> means an individual whose enrollment in a plan is a late enrollment.
</P>
<P><I>Late enrollment</I> means enrollment of an individual under a group health plan other than on the earliest date on which coverage can become effective for the individual under the terms of the plan; or through special enrollment. (For rules relating to special enrollment, see § 2590.701-6.) If an individual ceases to be eligible for coverage under a plan, and then subsequently becomes eligible for coverage under the plan, only the individual's most recent period of eligibility is taken into account in determining whether the individual is a late enrollee under the plan with respect to the most recent period of coverage. Similar rules apply if an individual again becomes eligible for coverage following a suspension of coverage that applied generally under the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Medical care</I> means amounts paid for—
</P>
<P>(1) The diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or amounts paid for the purpose of affecting any structure or function of the body;
</P>
<P>(2) Transportation primarily for and essential to medical care referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(3) Insurance covering medical care referred to in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Medical condition</I> or <I>condition</I> means any condition, whether physical or mental, including, but not limited to, any condition resulting from illness, injury (whether or not the injury is accidental), pregnancy, or congenital malformation. However, genetic information is not a condition.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means <I>participant</I> within the meaning of section 3(7) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Placement, or being placed, for adoption</I> means the assumption and retention of a legal obligation for total or partial support of a child by a person with whom the child has been placed in anticipation of the child's adoption. The child's placement for adoption with such person ends upon the termination of such legal obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Plan year</I> means the year that is designated as the plan year in the plan document of a group health plan, except that if the plan document does not designate a plan year or if there is no plan document, the plan year is—
</P>
<P>(1) The deductible or limit year used under the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) If the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on a yearly basis, then the plan year is the policy year;
</P>
<P>(3) If the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on a yearly basis, and either the plan is not insured or the insurance policy is not renewed on an annual basis, then the plan year is the employer's taxable year; or
</P>
<P>(4) In any other case, the plan year is the calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Preexisting condition exclusion</I> means a limitation or exclusion of benefits (including a denial of coverage) based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage (or if coverage is denied, the date of the denial) under a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage (or other coverage provided to Federally eligible individuals pursuant to 45 CFR part 148), whether or not any medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received before that day. A preexisting condition exclusion includes any limitation or exclusion of benefits (including a denial of coverage) applicable to an individual as a result of information relating to an individual's health status before the individual's effective date of coverage (or if coverage is denied, the date of the denial) under a group health plan, or group or individual health insurance coverage (or other coverage provided to Federally eligible individuals pursuant to 45 CFR part 148), such as a condition identified as a result of a pre-enrollment questionnaire or physical examination given to the individual, or review of medical records relating to the pre-enrollment period.
</P>
<P><I>Public health plan</I> means <I>public health plan</I> within the meaning of § 2590.701-4(a)(1)(ix).
</P>
<P><I>Public Health Service Act (PHS Act)</I> means the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 201, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> means health insurance coverage provided pursuant to a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance with an issuer that meets the conditions of paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> means health insurance coverage provided pursuant to a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance with an issuer that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has an expiration date specified in the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance that is no more than 3 months after the original effective date of the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, and taking into account any renewals or extensions, has a duration no longer than 4 months in total. For purposes of this paragraph (1)(i), a renewal or extension includes the term of a new short-term, limited-duration insurance policy, certificate, or contract of insurance issued by the same issuer, or if the issuer is a member of a controlled group, any other issuer that is a member of such controlled group, to the same policyholder within the 12-month period beginning on the original effective date of the initial policy, certificate, or contract of insurance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Displays prominently on the first page (in either paper or electronic form, including on a website) of the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, and in any marketing, application, and enrollment materials (including reenrollment materials) provided to individuals at or before the time an individual has the opportunity to enroll (or reenroll) in the coverage, in at least 14-point font, the language in the following notice:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03ap24.062.gif"/>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, the term “controlled group” means any group treated as a single employer under section 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
</P>
<P>(3) If any provision of this definition is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any entity or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, along with other provisions not found invalid or unenforceable, including as applied to entities not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of the definition and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Significant break in coverage</I> means a <I>significant break in coverage</I> within the meaning of § 2590.701-4(b)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>Special enrollment</I> means enrollment in a group health plan or group health insurance coverage under the rights described in § 2590.701-6.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means each of the several States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>State health benefits risk pool</I> means a <I>State health benefits risk pool</I> within the meaning of § 2590.701-4(a)(1)(vii).
</P>
<P><I>Travel insurance</I> means insurance coverage for personal risks incident to planned travel, which may include, but is not limited to, interruption or cancellation of trip or event, loss of baggage or personal effects, damages to accommodations or rental vehicles, and sickness, accident, disability, or death occurring during travel, provided that the health benefits are not offered on a stand-alone basis and are incidental to other coverage. For this purpose, the term travel insurance does not include major medical plans that provide comprehensive medical protection for travelers with trips lasting 6 months or longer, including, for example, those working overseas as an expatriate or military personnel being deployed.
</P>
<P><I>Waiting period</I> means <I>waiting period</I> within the meaning of § 2590.715-2708(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78763, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 51683, Oct. 7, 2009; 75 FR 37229, June 28, 2010; 79 FR 10308, Feb. 24, 2014; 80 FR 72256, Nov. 18, 2015; 81 FR 75325, Oct. 31, 2016; 83 FR 38242, Aug. 3, 2018; 84 FR 29001, June 20, 2019; 89 FR 23413, Apr. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.701-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.701-3   Limitations on preexisting condition exclusion period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preexisting condition exclusion defined.</I> (1) A <I>preexisting condition exclusion</I> means a <I>preexisting condition exclusion</I> within the meaning of § 2590.701-2.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(1) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits solely through an insurance policy offered by Issuer <I>S.</I> At the expiration of the policy, the plan switches coverage to a policy offered by Issuer <I>T.</I> Issuer <I>T</I>'s policy excludes benefits for any prosthesis if the body part was lost before the effective date of coverage under the policy.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the exclusion of benefits for any prosthesis if the body part was lost before the effective date of coverage is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to exclude benefits for a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage under the policy. The exclusion of benefits, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for cosmetic surgery in cases of accidental injury, but only if the injury occurred while the individual was covered under the plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan provision excluding cosmetic surgery benefits for individuals injured before enrolling in the plan is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to exclude benefits relating to a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for the treatment of diabetes, generally not subject to any requirement to obtain an approval for a treatment plan. However, if an individual was diagnosed with diabetes before the effective date of coverage under the plan, diabetes coverage is subject to a requirement to obtain approval of a treatment plan in advance.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the requirement to obtain advance approval of a treatment plan is a preexisting condition exclusion because it limits benefits for a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for three infertility treatments. The plan counts against the three-treatment limit benefits provided under prior health coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> counting benefits for a specific condition provided under prior health coverage against a treatment limit for that condition is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to limit benefits for a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> When an individual's coverage begins under a group health plan, the individual generally becomes eligible for all benefits. However, benefits for pregnancy are not available until the individual has been covered under the plan for 12 months.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the requirement to be covered under the plan for 12 months to be eligible for pregnancy benefits is a subterfuge for a preexisting condition exclusion because it is designed to exclude benefits for a condition (pregnancy) that arose before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for medically necessary items and services, generally including treatment of heart conditions. However, the plan does not cover those same items and services when used for treatment of congenital heart conditions.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the exclusion of coverage for treatment of congenital heart conditions is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to exclude benefits relating to a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides coverage for medically necessary items and services. However, the plan excludes coverage for the treatment of cleft palate.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> the exclusion of coverage for treatment of cleft palate is not a preexisting condition exclusion because the exclusion applies regardless of when the condition arose relative to the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is not prohibited. (But see 45 CFR 147.150, which may require coverage of cleft palate as an essential health benefit for health insurance coverage in the individual or small group market, depending on the essential health benefits benchmark plan as defined in 45 CFR 156.20).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for treatment of cleft palate, but only if the individual being treated has been continuously covered under the plan from the date of birth.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> the exclusion of coverage for treatment of cleft palate for individuals who have not been covered under the plan from the date of birth operates to exclude benefits in relation to a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>General rules. See</I> § 2590.715-2704 for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78763, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 75 FR 37229, June 28, 2010; 79 FR 10308, Feb. 24, 2014; 80 FR 72256, Nov. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.701-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.701-4   Rules relating to creditable coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Creditable coverage.</I> For purposes of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the term <I>creditable coverage</I> means coverage of an individual under any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A group health plan as defined in § 2590.732(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) Health insurance coverage as defined in § 2590.701-2 (whether or not the entity offering the coverage is subject to Part 7 of Subtitle B of Title I of the Act, and without regard to whether the coverage is offered in the group market, the individual market, or otherwise).
</P>
<P>(iii) Part A or B of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare).
</P>
<P>(iv) Title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid), other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under section 1928 of the Social Security Act (the program for distribution of pediatric vaccines).
</P>
<P>(v) Title 10 U.S.C. Chapter 55 (medical and dental care for members and certain former members of the uniformed services, and for their dependents; for purposes of Title 10 U.S.C. Chapter 55, <I>uniformed services</I> means the armed forces and the Commissioned Corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration and of the Public Health Service).
</P>
<P>(vi) A medical care program of the Indian Health Service or of a tribal organization.
</P>
<P>(vii) A State health benefits risk pool. For purposes of this section, a <I>State health benefits risk pool</I> means—
</P>
<P>(A) An organization qualifying under section 501(c)(26) of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(B) A qualified high risk pool described in section 2744(c)(2) of the PHS Act; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other arrangement sponsored by a State, the membership composition of which is specified by the State and which is established and maintained primarily to provide health coverage for individuals who are residents of such State and who, by reason of the existence or history of a medical condition—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Are unable to acquire medical care coverage for such condition through insurance or from an HMO, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Are able to acquire such coverage only at a rate which is substantially in excess of the rate for such coverage through the membership organization.
</P>
<P>(viii) A health plan offered under Title 5 U.S.C. Chapter 89 (the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program).
</P>
<P>(ix) A public health plan. For purposes of this section, a <I>public health plan</I> means any plan established or maintained by a State, the U.S. government, a foreign country, or any political subdivision of a State, the U.S. government, or a foreign country that provides health coverage to individuals who are enrolled in the plan.
</P>
<P>(x) A health benefit plan under section 5(e) of the Peace Corps Act (22 U.S.C. 2504(e)).
</P>
<P>(xi) Title XXI of the Social Security Act (State Children's Health Insurance Program).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excluded coverage.</I> Creditable coverage does not include coverage of solely excepted benefits (described in § 2590.732).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Counting creditable coverage rules superseded by prohibition on preexisting condition exclusion. See</I> § 2590.715-2704 for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78763, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 79 FR 10309, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.701-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.701-5   Evidence of creditable coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The rules for providing certificates of creditable coverage and demonstrating creditable coverage have been superseded by the prohibition on preexisting condition exclusions. <I>See</I> § 2590.715-2704 for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section apply beginning December 31, 2014.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10309, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.701-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.701-6   Special enrollment periods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special enrollment for certain individuals who lose coverage</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, is required to permit current employees and dependents (as defined in § 2590.701-2) who are described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section to enroll for coverage under the terms of the plan if the conditions in paragraph (a)(3) of this section are satisfied. The special enrollment rights under this paragraph (a) apply without regard to the dates on which an individual would otherwise be able to enroll under the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Individuals eligible for special enrollment</I>—(i) <I>When employee loses coverage.</I> A current employee and any dependents (including the employee's spouse) each are eligible for special enrollment in any benefit package under the plan (subject to plan eligibility rules conditioning dependent enrollment on enrollment of the employee) if—
</P>
<P>(A) The employee and the dependents are otherwise eligible to enroll in the benefit package;
</P>
<P>(B) When coverage under the plan was previously offered, the employee had coverage under any group health plan or health insurance coverage; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employee satisfies the conditions of paragraph (a)(3)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section and, if applicable, paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>When dependent loses coverage</I>. (A) A dependent of a current employee (including the employee's spouse) and the employee each are eligible for special enrollment in any benefit package under the plan (subject to plan eligibility rules conditioning dependent enrollment on enrollment of the employee) if—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The dependent and the employee are otherwise eligible to enroll in the benefit package;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When coverage under the plan was previously offered, the dependent had coverage under any group health plan or health insurance coverage; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The dependent satisfies the conditions of paragraph (a)(3)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section and, if applicable, paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) However, the plan or issuer is not required to enroll any other dependent unless that dependent satisfies the criteria of this paragraph (a)(2)(ii), or the employee satisfies the criteria of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> works for Employer <I>X. A</I>, <I>A</I>'s spouse, and <I>A</I>'s dependent children are eligible but not enrolled for coverage under <I>X</I>'s group health plan. <I>A</I>'s spouse works for Employer <I>Y</I> and at the time coverage was offered under <I>X</I>'s plan, <I>A</I> was enrolled in coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan. Then, <I>A</I> loses eligibility for coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> because <I>A</I> satisfies the conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, <I>A</I>, <I>A</I>'s spouse, and <I>A</I>'s dependent children are eligible for special enrollment under <I>X</I>'s plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse are eligible but not enrolled for coverage under Group Health Plan <I>P</I> maintained by <I>A</I>'s employer. When <I>A</I> was first presented with an opportunity to enroll <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse, they did not have other coverage. Later, <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse enroll in Group Health Plan <I>Q</I> maintained by the employer of <I>A</I>'s spouse. During a subsequent open enrollment period in <I>P</I>, <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse did not enroll because of their coverage under <I>Q.</I> They then lose eligibility for coverage under <I>Q.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, because <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse were covered under <I>Q</I> when they did not enroll in <I>P</I> during open enrollment, they satisfy the conditions for special enrollment under paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. Consequently, <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse are eligible for special enrollment under <I>P.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B</I> works for Employer <I>X.</I> <I>B</I> and <I>B</I>'s spouse are eligible but not enrolled for coverage under <I>X</I>'s group health plan. <I>B</I>'s spouse works for Employer <I>Y</I> and at the time coverage was offered under <I>X</I>'s plan, <I>B</I>'s spouse was enrolled in self-only coverage under <I>Y</I>'s group health plan. Then, <I>B</I>'s spouse loses eligibility for coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, because <I>B</I>'s spouse satisfies the conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, both <I>B</I> and <I>B</I>'s spouse are eligible for special enrollment under <I>X</I>'s plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> works for Employer <I>X.</I> <I>X</I> maintains a group health plan with two benefit packages—an HMO option and an indemnity option. Self-only and family coverage are available under both options. <I>A</I> enrolls for self-only coverage in the HMO option. <I>A</I>'s spouse works for Employer <I>Y</I> and was enrolled for self-only coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan at the time coverage was offered under <I>X</I>'s plan. Then, <I>A</I>'s spouse loses coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan. <I>A</I> requests special enrollment for <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse under the plan's indemnity option.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> because <I>A</I>'s spouse satisfies the conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, both <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse can enroll in either benefit package under <I>X</I>'s plan. Therefore, if <I>A</I> requests enrollment in accordance with the requirements of this section, the plan must allow <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse to enroll in the indemnity option.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions for special enrollment</I>—(i) <I>Loss of eligibility for coverage.</I> In the case of an employee or dependent who has coverage that is not COBRA continuation coverage, the conditions of this paragraph (a)(3)(i) are satisfied at the time the coverage is terminated as a result of loss of eligibility (regardless of whether the individual is eligible for or elects COBRA continuation coverage). Loss of eligibility under this paragraph (a)(3)(i) does not include a loss due to the failure of the employee or dependent to pay premiums on a timely basis or termination of coverage for cause (such as making a fraudulent claim or an intentional misrepresentation of a material fact in connection with the plan). Loss of eligibility for coverage under this paragraph (a)(3)(i) includes (but is not limited to)—
</P>
<P>(A) Loss of eligibility for coverage as a result of legal separation, divorce, cessation of dependent status (such as attaining the maximum age to be eligible as a dependent child under the plan), death of an employee, termination of employment, reduction in the number of hours of employment, and any loss of eligibility for coverage after a period that is measured by reference to any of the foregoing;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of coverage offered through an HMO, or other arrangement, in the individual market that does not provide benefits to individuals who no longer reside, live, or work in a service area, loss of coverage because an individual no longer resides, lives, or works in the service area (whether or not within the choice of the individual);
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of coverage offered through an HMO, or other arrangement, in the group market that does not provide benefits to individuals who no longer reside, live, or work in a service area, loss of coverage because an individual no longer resides, lives, or works in the service area (whether or not within the choice of the individual), and no other benefit package is available to the individual; and
</P>
<P>(D) A situation in which a plan no longer offers any benefits to the class of similarly situated individuals (as described in § 2590.702(d)) that includes the individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Termination of employer contributions.</I> In the case of an employee or dependent who has coverage that is not COBRA continuation coverage, the conditions of this paragraph (a)(3)(ii) are satisfied at the time employer contributions towards the employee's or dependent's coverage terminate. Employer contributions include contributions by any current or former employer that was contributing to coverage for the employee or dependent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exhaustion of COBRA continuation coverage.</I> In the case of an employee or dependent who has coverage that is COBRA continuation coverage, the conditions of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii) are satisfied at the time the COBRA continuation coverage is exhausted. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii), an individual who satisfies the conditions for special enrollment of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, does not enroll, and instead elects and exhausts COBRA continuation coverage satisfies the conditions of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii). (<I>Exhaustion of COBRA continuation coverage</I> is defined in § 2590.701-2.)
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Written statement.</I> A plan may require an employee declining coverage (for the employee or any dependent of the employee) to state in writing whether the coverage is being declined due to other health coverage only if, at or before the time the employee declines coverage, the employee is provided with notice of the requirement to provide the statement (and the consequences of the employee's failure to provide the statement). If a plan requires such a statement, and an employee does not provide it, the plan is not required to provide special enrollment to the employee or any dependent of the employee under this paragraph (a)(3). A plan must treat an employee as having satisfied the plan requirement permitted under this paragraph (a)(3)(iv) if the employee provides a written statement that coverage was being declined because the employee or dependent had other coverage; a plan cannot require anything more for the employee to satisfy the plan's requirement to provide a written statement. (For example, the plan cannot require that the statement be notarized.)
</P>
<P>(v) The rules of this paragraph (a)(3) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>D</I> enrolls in a group health plan maintained by Employer <I>Y.</I> At the time <I>D</I> enrolls, <I>Y</I> pays 70 percent of the cost of employee coverage and <I>D</I> pays the rest. <I>Y</I> announces that beginning January 1, <I>Y</I> will no longer make employer contributions towards the coverage. Employees may maintain coverage, however, if they pay the total cost of the coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> employer contributions towards <I>D</I>'s coverage ceased on January 1 and the conditions of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section are satisfied on this date (regardless of whether <I>D</I> elects to pay the total cost and continue coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage through two options—Option 1 and Option 2. Employees can enroll in either option only within 30 days of hire or on January 1 of each year. Employee <I>A</I> is eligible for both options and enrolls in Option 1. Effective July 1 the plan terminates coverage under Option 1 and the plan does not create an immediate open enrollment opportunity into Option 2.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2, A</I> has experienced a loss of eligibility for coverage that satisfies paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, and has satisfied the other conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. Therefore, if <I>A</I> satisfies the other conditions of this paragraph (a), the plan must permit <I>A</I> to enroll in Option 2 as a special enrollee. (<I>A</I> may also be eligible to enroll in another group health plan, such as a plan maintained by the employer of <I>A</I>'s spouse, as a special enrollee.) The outcome would be the same if Option 1 was terminated by an issuer and the plan made no other coverage available to <I>A.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>C</I> is covered under a group health plan maintained by Employer <I>X.</I> While covered under <I>X</I>'s plan, <I>C</I> was eligible for but did not enroll in a plan maintained by Employer <I>Z</I>, the employer of <I>C</I>'s spouse. <I>C</I> terminates employment with <I>X</I> and loses eligibility for coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan. <I>C</I> has a special enrollment right to enroll in <I>Z</I>'s plan, but <I>C</I> instead elects COBRA continuation coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan. <I>C</I> exhausts COBRA continuation coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan and requests special enrollment in <I>Z</I>'s plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3, C</I> has satisfied the conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, and has satisfied the other conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. The special enrollment right that <I>C</I> had into <I>Z</I>'s plan immediately after the loss of eligibility for coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan was an offer of coverage under <I>Z</I>'s plan. When <I>C</I> later exhausts COBRA coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan, <I>C</I> has a second special enrollment right in <I>Z</I>'s plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Applying for special enrollment and effective date of coverage.</I> (i) A plan or issuer must allow an employee a period of at least 30 days after an event described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section to request enrollment (for the employee or the employee's dependent).
</P>
<P>(ii) Coverage must begin no later than the first day of the first calendar month beginning after the date the plan or issuer receives the request for special enrollment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special enrollment with respect to certain dependent beneficiaries</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, that makes coverage available with respect to dependents is required to permit individuals described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section to be enrolled for coverage in a benefit package under the terms of the plan. Paragraph (b)(3) of this section describes the required special enrollment period and the date by which coverage must begin. The special enrollment rights under this paragraph (b) apply without regard to the dates on which an individual would otherwise be able to enroll under the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Individuals eligible for special enrollment.</I> An individual is described in this paragraph (b)(2) if the individual is otherwise eligible for coverage in a benefit package under the plan and if the individual is described in paragraph (b)(2)(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), or (vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Current employee only.</I> A current employee is described in this paragraph (b)(2)(i) if a person becomes a dependent of the individual through marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Spouse of a participant only.</I> An individual is described in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) if either—
</P>
<P>(A) The individual becomes the spouse of a participant; or
</P>
<P>(B) The individual is a spouse of a participant and a child becomes a dependent of the participant through birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Current employee and spouse.</I> A current employee and an individual who is or becomes a spouse of such an employee, are described in this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) if either—
</P>
<P>(A) The employee and the spouse become married; or
</P>
<P>(B) The employee and spouse are married and a child becomes a dependent of the employee through birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Dependent of a participant only.</I> An individual is described in this paragraph (b)(2)(iv) if the individual is a dependent (as defined in § 2590.701-2) of a participant and the individual has become a dependent of the participant through marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Current employee and a new dependent.</I> A current employee and an individual who is a dependent of the employee, are described in this paragraph (b)(2)(v) if the individual becomes a dependent of the employee through marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Current employee, spouse, and a new dependent.</I> A current employee, the employee's spouse, and the employee's dependent are described in this paragraph (b)(2)(vi) if the dependent becomes a dependent of the employee through marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applying for special enrollment and effective date of coverage</I>—(i) <I>Request.</I> A plan or issuer must allow an individual a period of at least 30 days after the date of the marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption (or, if dependent coverage is not generally made available at the time of the marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption, a period of at least 30 days after the date the plan makes dependent coverage generally available) to request enrollment (for the individual or the individual's dependent).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasonable procedures for special enrollment.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Date coverage must begin</I>—(A) <I>Marriage.</I> In the case of marriage, coverage must begin no later than the first day of the first calendar month beginning after the date the plan or issuer receives the request for special enrollment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.</I> Coverage must begin in the case of a dependent's birth on the date of birth and in the case of a dependent's adoption or placement for adoption no later than the date of such adoption or placement for adoption (or, if dependent coverage is not made generally available at the time of the birth, adoption, or placement for adoption, the date the plan makes dependent coverage available).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer maintains a group health plan that offers all employees employee-only coverage, employee-plus-spouse coverage, or family coverage. Under the terms of the plan, any employee may elect to enroll when first hired (with coverage beginning on the date of hire) or during an annual open enrollment period held each December (with coverage beginning the following January 1). Employee <I>A</I> is hired on September 3. <I>A</I> is married to <I>B</I>, and they have no children. On March 15 in the following year a child <I>C</I> is born to <I>A</I> and <I>B.</I> Before that date, <I>A</I> and <I>B</I> have not been enrolled in the plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the conditions for special enrollment of an employee with a spouse and new dependent under paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section are satisfied. If <I>A</I> satisfies the conditions of paragraph (b)(3) of this section for requesting enrollment timely, the plan will satisfy this paragraph (b) if it allows <I>A</I> to enroll either with employee-only coverage, with employee-plus-spouse coverage (for <I>A</I> and <I>B</I>), or with family coverage (for <I>A, B,</I> and <I>C</I>). The plan must allow whatever coverage is chosen to begin on March 15, the date of <I>C</I>'s birth.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>D</I> works for Employer X. <I>X</I> maintains a group health plan with two benefit packages—an HMO option and an indemnity option. Self-only and family coverage are available under both options. <I>D</I> enrolls for self-only coverage in the HMO option. Then, a child, E, is placed for adoption with <I>D.</I> Within 30 days of the placement of <I>E</I> for adoption, <I>D</I> requests enrollment for <I>D</I> and <I>E</I> under the plan's indemnity option.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2, D</I> and <I>E</I> satisfy the conditions for special enrollment under paragraphs (b)(2)(v) and (b)(3) of this section. Therefore, the plan must allow <I>D</I> and <I>E</I> to enroll in the indemnity coverage, effective as of the date of the placement for adoption.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of special enrollment.</I> At or before the time an employee is initially offered the opportunity to enroll in a group health plan, the plan must furnish the employee with a notice of special enrollment that complies with the requirements of this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Description of special enrollment rights.</I> The notice of special enrollment must include a description of special enrollment rights. The following model language may be used to satisfy this requirement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>If you are declining enrollment for yourself or your dependents (including your spouse) because of other health insurance or group health plan coverage, you may be able to enroll yourself and your dependents in this plan if you or your dependents lose eligibility for that other coverage (or if the employer stops contributing towards your or your dependents' other coverage). However, you must request enrollment within [insert “30 days” or any longer period that applies under the plan] after your or your dependents' other coverage ends (or after the employer stops contributing toward the other coverage).
</P>
<P>In addition, if you have a new dependent as a result of marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption, you may be able to enroll yourself and your dependents. However, you must request enrollment within [insert “30 days” or any longer period that applies under the plan] after the marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>To request special enrollment or obtain more information, contact [insert the name, title, telephone number, and any additional contact information of the appropriate plan representative].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Additional information that may be required.</I> The notice of special enrollment must also include, if applicable, the notice described in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section (the notice required to be furnished to an individual declining coverage if the plan requires the reason for declining coverage to be in writing).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Treatment of special enrollees.</I> (1) If an individual requests enrollment while the individual is entitled to special enrollment under either paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the individual is a special enrollee, even if the request for enrollment coincides with a late enrollment opportunity under the plan. Therefore, the individual cannot be treated as a late enrollee.
</P>
<P>(2) Special enrollees must be offered all the benefit packages available to similarly situated individuals who enroll when first eligible. For this purpose, any difference in benefits or cost-sharing requirements for different individuals constitutes a different benefit package. In addition, a special enrollee cannot be required to pay more for coverage than a similarly situated individual who enrolls in the same coverage when first eligible.
</P>
<P>(3) The rules of this section are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employer <I>Y</I> maintains a group health plan that has an enrollment period for late enrollees every November 1 through November 30 with coverage effective the following January 1. On October 18, Individual <I>B</I> loses coverage under another group health plan and satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2), (3), and (4) of this section. <I>B</I> submits a completed application for coverage on November 2.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example, B</I> is a special enrollee. Therefore, even though <I>B</I>'s request for enrollment coincides with an open enrollment period, <I>B</I>'s coverage is required to be made effective no later than December 1 (rather than the plan's January 1 effective date for late enrollees).</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78763, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 79 FR 10309, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.701-7" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.701-7   HMO affiliation period as an alternative to a preexisting condition exclusion.</HEAD>
<P>The rules for HMO affiliation periods have been superseded by the prohibition on preexisting condition exclusions. <I>See</I> § 2590.715-2704 for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10309, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.701-8" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.701-8   Interaction With the Family and Medical Leave Act. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.702" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.702   Prohibiting discrimination against participants and beneficiaries based on a health factor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Health factors.</I> (1) The term <I>health factor</I> means, in relation to an individual, any of the following health status-related factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Health status;
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical condition (including both physical and mental illnesses), as defined in § 2590.701-2;
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims experience;
</P>
<P>(iv) Receipt of health care;
</P>
<P>(v) Medical history;
</P>
<P>(vi) Genetic information, as defined in § 2590.702-1(a)(3) of this Part.
</P>
<P>(vii) Evidence of insurability; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Disability.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence of insurability includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Conditions arising out of acts of domestic violence; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Participation in activities such as motorcycling, snowmobiling, all-terrain vehicle riding, horseback riding, skiing, and other similar activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The decision whether health coverage is elected for an individual (including the time chosen to enroll, such as under special enrollment or late enrollment) is not, itself, within the scope of any health factor. (However, under § 2590.701-6, a plan or issuer must treat special enrollees the same as similarly situated individuals who are enrolled when first eligible.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited discrimination in rules for eligibility</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, may not establish any rule for eligibility (including continued eligibility) of any individual to enroll for benefits under the terms of the plan or group health insurance coverage that discriminates based on any health factor that relates to that individual or a dependent of that individual. This rule is subject to the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section (explaining how this rule applies to benefits), paragraph (d) of this section (containing rules for establishing groups of similarly situated individuals), paragraph (e) of this section (relating to nonconfinement, actively-at-work, and other service requirements), paragraph (f) of this section (relating to wellness programs), and paragraph (g) of this section (permitting favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, rules for eligibility include, but are not limited to, rules relating to—
</P>
<P>(A) Enrollment;
</P>
<P>(B) The effective date of coverage;
</P>
<P>(C) Waiting (or affiliation) periods;
</P>
<P>(D) Late and special enrollment;
</P>
<P>(E) Eligibility for benefit packages (including rules for individuals to change their selection among benefit packages);
</P>
<P>(F) Benefits (including rules relating to covered benefits, benefit restrictions, and cost-sharing mechanisms such as coinsurance, copayments, and deductibles), as described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Continued eligibility; and
</P>
<P>(H) Terminating coverage (including disenrollment) of any individual under the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The rules of this paragraph (b)(1) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that is available to all employees who enroll within the first 30 days of their employment. However, employees who do not enroll within the first 30 days cannot enroll later unless they pass a physical examination.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the requirement to pass a physical examination in order to enroll in the plan is a rule for eligibility that discriminates based on one or more health factors and thus violates this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under an employer's group health plan, employees who enroll during the first 30 days of employment (and during special enrollment periods) may choose between two benefit packages: an indemnity option and an HMO option. However, employees who enroll during late enrollment are permitted to enroll only in the HMO option and only if they provide evidence of good health.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the requirement to provide evidence of good health in order to be eligible for late enrollment in the HMO option is a rule for eligibility that discriminates based on one or more health factors and thus violates this paragraph (b)(1). However, if the plan did not require evidence of good health but limited late enrollees to the HMO option, the plan's rules for eligibility would not discriminate based on any health factor, and thus would not violate this paragraph (b)(1), because the time an individual chooses to enroll is not, itself, within the scope of any health factor.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under an employer's group health plan, all employees generally may enroll within the first 30 days of employment. However, individuals who participate in certain recreational activities, including motorcycling, are excluded from coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, excluding from the plan individuals who participate in recreational activities, such as motorcycling, is a rule for eligibility that discriminates based on one more health factors and thus violates this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan applies for a group health policy offered by an issuer. As part of the application, the issuer receives health information about individuals to be covered under the plan. Individual <I>A</I> is an employee of the employer maintaining the plan. <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents have a history of high health claims. Based on the information about <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents, the issuer excludes <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents from the group policy it offers to the employer.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4</I>, the issuer's exclusion of <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents from coverage is a rule for eligibility that discriminates based on one or more health factors, and thus violates this paragraph (b)(1). (If the employer is a small employer under 45 CFR 144.103 (generally, an employer with 50 or fewer employees), the issuer also may violate 45 CFR 146.150, which requires issuers to offer all the policies they sell in the small group market on a guaranteed available basis to all small employers and to accept every eligible individual in every small employer group.) If the plan provides coverage through this policy and does not provide equivalent coverage for <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents through other means, the plan will also violate this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>Application to benefits</I>—(i) <I>General rule</I>. (A) Under this section, a group health plan or group health insurance issuer is not required to provide coverage for any particular benefit to any group of similarly situated individuals.
</P>
<P>(B) However, benefits provided under a plan must be uniformly available to all similarly situated individuals (as described in paragraph (d) of this section). Likewise, any restriction on a benefit or benefits must apply uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and must not be directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries (determined based on all the relevant facts and circumstances). Thus, for example, a plan may limit or exclude benefits in relation to a specific disease or condition, limit or exclude benefits for certain types of treatments or drugs, or limit or exclude benefits based on a determination of whether the benefits are experimental or not medically necessary, but only if the benefit limitation or exclusion applies uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries. In addition, a plan or issuer may require the satisfaction of a deductible, copayment, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing requirement in order to obtain a benefit if the limit or cost-sharing requirement applies uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries. In the case of a cost-sharing requirement, see also paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, which permits variances in the application of a cost-sharing mechanism made available under a wellness program. (Whether any plan provision or practice with respect to benefits complies with this paragraph (b)(2)(i) does not affect whether the provision or practice is permitted under ERISA, the Affordable Care Act (including the requirements related to essential health benefits), the Americans with Disabilities Act, or any other law, whether State or Federal.)
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(i), a plan amendment applicable to all individuals in one or more groups of similarly situated individuals under the plan and made effective no earlier than the first day of the first plan year after the amendment is adopted is not considered to be directed at any individual participants or beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(D) The rules of this paragraph (b)(2)(i) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan applies a $10,000 annual limit on a specific covered benefit that is not an essential health benefit to each participant or beneficiary covered under the plan. The limit is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the limit does not violate this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because coverage of the specific, non-essential health benefit up to $10,000 is available uniformly to each participant and beneficiary under the plan and because the limit is applied uniformly to all participants and beneficiaries and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan has a $500 deductible on all benefits for participants covered under the plan. Participant <I>B</I> files a claim for the treatment of AIDS. At the next corporate board meeting of the plan sponsor, the claim is discussed. Shortly thereafter, the plan is modified to impose a $2,000 deductible on benefits for the treatment of AIDS, effective before the beginning of the next plan year.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> The facts of this <I>Example 2</I> strongly suggest that the plan modification is directed at <I>B</I> based on <I>B</I>'s claim. Absent outweighing evidence to the contrary, the plan violates this paragraph (b)(2)(i).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan applies for a group health policy offered by an issuer. Individual <I>C</I> is covered under the plan and has an adverse health condition. As part of the application, the issuer receives health information about the individuals to be covered, including information about <I>C</I>'s adverse health condition. The policy form offered by the issuer generally provides benefits for the adverse health condition that <I>C</I> has, but in this case the issuer offers the plan a policy modified by a rider that excludes benefits for <I>C</I> for that condition. The exclusionary rider is made effective the first day of the next plan year.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, the issuer violates this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because benefits for <I>C</I>'s condition are available to other individuals in the group of similarly situated individuals that includes <I>C</I> but are not available to <I>C.</I> Thus, the benefits are not uniformly available to all similarly situated individuals. Even though the exclusionary rider is made effective the first day of the next plan year, because the rider does not apply to all similarly situated individuals, the issuer violates this paragraph (b)(2)(i).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan has a $2,000 lifetime limit for the treatment of temporomandibular joint syndrome (TMJ). The limit is applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the limit does not violate this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because $2,000 of benefits for the treatment of TMJ are available uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and a plan may limit benefits covered in relation to a specific disease or condition if the limit applies uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries. (However, applying a lifetime limit on TMJ may violate § 2590.715-2711, if TMJ coverage is an essential health benefit, depending on the essential health benefits benchmark plan as defined in 45 CFR 156.20. This example does not address whether the plan provision is permissible under any other applicable law, including PHS Act section 2711 or the Americans with Disabilities Act.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan applies a $2 million lifetime limit on all benefits. However, the $2 million lifetime limit is reduced to $10,000 for any participant or beneficiary covered under the plan who has a congenital heart defect.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the lower lifetime limit for participants and beneficiaries with a congenital heart defect violates this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because benefits under the plan are not uniformly available to all similarly situated individuals and the plan's lifetime limit on benefits does not apply uniformly to all similarly situated individuals. Additionally, this plan provision is prohibited under § 2590.715-2711 because it imposes a lifetime limit on essential health benefits.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan limits benefits for prescription drugs to those listed on a drug formulary. The limit is applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6</I>, the exclusion from coverage of drugs not listed on the drug formulary does not violate this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because benefits for prescription drugs listed on the formulary are uniformly available to all similarly situated individuals and because the exclusion of drugs not listed on the formulary applies uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, doctor visits are generally subject to a $250 annual deductible and 20 percent coinsurance requirement. However, prenatal doctor visits are not subject to any deductible or coinsurance requirement. These rules are applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and are not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7</I>, imposing different deductible and coinsurance requirements for prenatal doctor visits and other visits does not violate this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because a plan may establish different deductibles or coinsurance requirements for different services if the deductible or coinsurance requirement is applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception for wellness programs.</I> A group health plan or group health insurance issuer may vary benefits, including cost-sharing mechanisms (such as a deductible, copayment, or coinsurance), based on whether an individual has met the standards of a wellness program that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Specific rule relating to source-of-injury exclusions.</I> (A) If a group health plan or group health insurance coverage generally provides benefits for a type of injury, the plan or issuer may not deny benefits otherwise provided for treatment of the injury if the injury results from an act of domestic violence or a medical condition (including both physical and mental health conditions). This rule applies in the case of an injury resulting from a medical condition even if the condition is not diagnosed before the injury.
</P>
<P>(B) The rules of this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides medical/surgical benefits, including benefits for hospital stays, that are medically necessary. However, the plan excludes benefits for self-inflicted injuries or injuries sustained in connection with attempted suicide. Because of depression, Individual <I>D</I> attempts suicide. As a result, <I>D</I> sustains injuries and is hospitalized for treatment of the injuries. Under the exclusion, the plan denies <I>D</I> benefits for treatment of the injuries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the suicide attempt is the result of a medical condition (depression). Accordingly, the denial of benefits for the treatments of <I>D</I>'s injuries violates the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) because the plan provision excludes benefits for treatment of an injury resulting from a medical condition.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits for head injuries generally. The plan also has a general exclusion for any injury sustained while participating in any of a number of recreational activities, including bungee jumping. However, this exclusion does not apply to any injury that results from a medical condition (nor from domestic violence). Participant <I>E</I> sustains a head injury while bungee jumping. The injury did not result from a medical condition (nor from domestic violence). Accordingly, the plan denies benefits for <I>E</I>'s head injury.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan provision that denies benefits based on the source of an injury does not restrict benefits based on an act of domestic violence or any medical condition. Therefore, the provision is permissible under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) and does not violate this section. (However, if the plan did not allow <I>E</I> to enroll in the plan (or applied different rules for eligibility to <I>E</I>) because <I>E</I> frequently participates in bungee jumping, the plan would violate paragraph (b)(1) of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited discrimination in premiums or contributions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, may not require an individual, as a condition of enrollment or continued enrollment under the plan or group health insurance coverage, to pay a premium or contribution that is greater than the premium or contribution for a similarly situated individual (described in paragraph (d) of this section) enrolled in the plan or group health insurance coverage based on any health factor that relates to the individual or a dependent of the individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) Discounts, rebates, payments in kind, and any other premium differential mechanisms are taken into account in determining an individual's premium or contribution rate. (For rules relating to cost-sharing mechanisms, see paragraph (b)(2) of this section (addressing benefits).)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules relating to premium rates</I>—(i) <I>Group rating based on health factors not restricted under this section.</I> Nothing in this section restricts the aggregate amount that an employer may be charged for coverage under a group health plan. But <I>see</I> § 2590.702-1(b) of this Part, which prohibits adjustments in group premium or contribution rates based on genetic information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>List billing based on a health factor prohibited.</I> However, a group health insurance issuer, or a group health plan, may not quote or charge an employer (or an individual) a different premium for an individual in a group of similarly situated individuals based on a health factor. (But see paragraph (g) of this section permitting favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors.)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan and purchases coverage from a health insurance issuer. In order to determine the premium rate for the upcoming plan year, the issuer reviews the claims experience of individuals covered under the plan. The issuer finds that Individual <I>F</I> had significantly higher claims experience than similarly situated individuals in the plan. The issuer quotes the plan a higher per-participant rate because of <I>F'</I>s claims experience.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the issuer does not violate the provisions of this paragraph (c)(2) because the issuer blends the rate so that the employer is not quoted a higher rate for <I>F</I> than for a similarly situated individual based on <I>F'</I>s claims experience. (However, if the issuer used genetic information in computing the group rate, it would violate § 2590.702-1(b) of this Part.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for wellness programs.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, a plan or issuer may vary the amount of premium or contribution it requires similarly situated individuals to pay based on whether an individual has met the standards of a wellness program that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Similarly situated individuals.</I> The requirements of this section apply only within a group of individuals who are treated as similarly situated individuals. A plan or issuer may treat participants as a group of similarly situated individuals separate from beneficiaries. In addition, participants may be treated as two or more distinct groups of similarly situated individuals and beneficiaries may be treated as two or more distinct groups of similarly situated individuals in accordance with the rules of this paragraph (d). Moreover, if individuals have a choice of two or more benefit packages, individuals choosing one benefit package may be treated as one or more groups of similarly situated individuals distinct from individuals choosing another benefit package.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Participants.</I> Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a plan or issuer may treat participants as two or more distinct groups of similarly situated individuals if the distinction between or among the groups of participants is based on a bona fide employment-based classification consistent with the employer's usual business practice. Whether an employment-based classification is bona fide is determined on the basis of all the relevant facts and circumstances. Relevant facts and circumstances include whether the employer uses the classification for purposes independent of qualification for health coverage (for example, determining eligibility for other employee benefits or determining other terms of employment). Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, examples of classifications that, based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, may be bona fide include full-time versus part-time status, different geographic location, membership in a collective bargaining unit, date of hire, length of service, current employee versus former employee status, and different occupations. However, a classification based on any health factor is not a bona fide employment-based classification, unless the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section are satisfied (permitting favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beneficiaries.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a plan or issuer may treat beneficiaries as two or more distinct groups of similarly situated individuals if the distinction between or among the groups of beneficiaries is based on any of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(A) A bona fide employment-based classification of the participant through whom the beneficiary is receiving coverage;
</P>
<P>(B) Relationship to the participant (for example, as a spouse or as a dependent child);
</P>
<P>(C) Marital status;
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to children of a participant, age or student status; or
</P>
<P>(E) Any other factor if the factor is not a health factor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section does not prevent more favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discrimination directed at individuals.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, if the creation or modification of an employment or coverage classification is directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries, the classification is not permitted under this paragraph (d), unless it is permitted under paragraph (g) of this section (permitting favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors). Thus, if an employer modified an employment-based classification to single out, based on a health factor, individual participants and beneficiaries and deny them health coverage, the new classification would not be permitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (d) are illustrated by the following examples: 
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan for full-time employees only. Under the plan (consistent with the employer's usual business practice), employees who normally work at least 30 hours per week are considered to be working full-time. Other employees are considered to be working part-time. There is no evidence to suggest that the classification is directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> treating the full-time and part-time employees as two separate groups of similarly situated individuals is permitted under this paragraph (d) because the classification is bona fide and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage is made available to employees, their spouses, and their children. However, coverage is made available to a child only if the child is under age 26 (or under age 29 if the child is continuously enrolled full-time in an institution of higher learning (full-time students)). There is no evidence to suggest that these classifications are directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 2, treating spouses and children differently by imposing an age limitation on children, but not on spouses, is permitted under this paragraph (d). Specifically, the distinction between spouses and children is permitted under paragraph (d)(2) of this section and is not prohibited under paragraph (d)(3) of this section because it is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries. It is also permissible to treat children who are under age 26 (or full-time students under age 29) as a group of similarly situated individuals separate from those who are age 26 or older (or age 29 or older if they are not full-time students) because the classification is permitted under paragraph (d)(2) of this section and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A university sponsors a group health plan that provides one health benefit package to faculty and another health benefit package to other staff. Faculty and staff are treated differently with respect to other employee benefits such as retirement benefits and leaves of absence. There is no evidence to suggest that the distinction is directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the classification is permitted under this paragraph (d) because there is a distinction based on a bona fide employment-based classification consistent with the employer's usual business practice and the distinction is not directed at individual participants and beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that is available to all current employees. Former employees may also be eligible, but only if they complete a specified number of years of service, are enrolled under the plan at the time of termination of employment, and are continuously enrolled from that date. There is no evidence to suggest that these distinctions are directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> imposing additional eligibility requirements on former employees is permitted because a classification that distinguishes between current and former employees is a bona fide employment-based classification that is permitted under this paragraph (d), provided that it is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries. In addition, it is permissible to distinguish between former employees who satisfy the service requirement and those who do not, provided that the distinction is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries. (However, former employees who do not satisfy the eligibility criteria may, nonetheless, be eligible for continued coverage pursuant to a COBRA continuation provision or similar State law.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides the same benefit package to all seven employees of the employer. Six of the seven employees have the same job title and responsibilities, but Employee <I>G</I> has a different job title and different responsibilities. After <I>G</I> files an expensive claim for benefits under the plan, coverage under the plan is modified so that employees with <I>G'</I>s job title receive a different benefit package that includes a higher deductible than in the benefit package made available to the other six employees.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> Under the facts of this <I>Example 5,</I> changing the coverage classification for <I>G</I> based on the existing employment classification for <I>G</I> is not permitted under this paragraph (d) because the creation of the new coverage classification for <I>G</I> is directed at <I>G</I> based on one or more health factors.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(e) <I>Nonconfinement and actively-at-work provisions</I>—(1) <I>Nonconfinement provisions</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Under the rules of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a plan or issuer may not establish a rule for eligibility (as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section) or set any individual's premium or contribution rate based on whether an individual is confined to a hospital or other health care institution. In addition, under the rules of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a plan or issuer may not establish a rule for eligibility or set any individual's premium or contribution rate based on an individual's ability to engage in normal life activities, except to the extent permitted under paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) and (3) of this section (permitting plans and issuers, under certain circumstances, to distinguish among employees based on the performance of services).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (e)(1) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage for employees and their dependents generally becomes effective on the first day of employment. However, coverage for a dependent who is confined to a hospital or other health care institution does not become effective until the confinement ends.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan violates this paragraph (e)(1) because the plan delays the effective date of coverage for dependents based on confinement to a hospital or other health care institution.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> In previous years, a group health plan has provided coverage through a group health insurance policy offered by Issuer <I>M.</I> However, for the current year, the plan provides coverage through a group health insurance policy offered by Issuer <I>N.</I> Under Issuer <I>N</I>'s policy, items and services provided in connection with the confinement of a dependent to a hospital or other health care institution are not covered if the confinement is covered under an extension of benefits clause from a previous health insurance issuer.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> Issuer <I>N</I> violates this paragraph (e)(1) because the group health insurance coverage restricts benefits (a rule for eligibility under paragraph (b)(1)) based on whether a dependent is confined to a hospital or other health care institution that is covered under an extension of benefits clause from a previous issuer. State law cannot change the obligation of Issuer <I>N</I> under this section. However, under State law Issuer <I>M</I> may also be responsible for providing benefits to such a dependent. In a case in which Issuer <I>N</I> has an obligation under this section to provide benefits and Issuer <I>M</I> has an obligation under State law to provide benefits, any State laws designed to prevent more than 100% reimbursement, such as State coordination-of-benefits laws, continue to apply.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>Actively-at-work and continuous service provisions</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> (A) Under the rules of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and subject to the exception for the first day of work described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, a plan or issuer may not establish a rule for eligibility (as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section) or set any individual's premium or contribution rate based on whether an individual is actively at work (including whether an individual is continuously employed), unless absence from work due to any health factor (such as being absent from work on sick leave) is treated, for purposes of the plan or health insurance coverage, as being actively at work.
</P>
<P>(B) The rules of this paragraph (e)(2)(i) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, an employee generally becomes eligible to enroll 30 days after the first day of employment. However, if the employee is not actively at work on the first day after the end of the 30-day period, then eligibility for enrollment is delayed until the first day the employee is actively at work. 
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan violates this paragraph (e)(2) (and thus also violates paragraph (b) of this section). However, the plan would not violate paragraph (e)(2) or (b) of this section if, under the plan, an absence due to any health factor is considered being actively at work.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage for an employee becomes effective after 90 days of continuous service; that is, if an employee is absent from work (for any reason) before completing 90 days of service, the beginning of the 90-day period is measured from the day the employee returns to work (without any credit for service before the absence).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 2, the plan violates this paragraph (e)(2) (and thus also paragraph (b) of this section) because the 90-day continuous service requirement is a rule for eligibility based on whether an individual is actively at work. However, the plan would not violate this paragraph (e)(2) or paragraph (b) of this section if, under the plan, an absence due to any health factor is not considered an absence for purposes of measuring 90 days of continuous service. (In addition, any eligibility provision that is time-based must comply with the requirements of PHS Act section 2708 and its implementing regulations.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception for the first day of work.</I> (A) Notwithstanding the general rule in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, a plan or issuer may establish a rule for eligibility that requires an individual to begin work for the employer sponsoring the plan (or, in the case of a multiemployer plan, to begin a job in covered employment) before coverage becomes effective, provided that such a rule for eligibility applies regardless of the reason for the absence.
</P>
<P>(B) The rules of this paragraph (e)(2)(ii) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under the eligibility provision of a group health plan, coverage for new employees becomes effective on the first day that the employee reports to work. Individual <I>H</I> is scheduled to begin work on August 3. However, <I>H</I> is unable to begin work on that day because of illness. <I>H</I> begins working on August 4, and <I>H</I>'s coverage is effective on August 4.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan provision does not violate this section. However, if coverage for individuals who do not report to work on the first day they were scheduled to work for a reason unrelated to a health factor (such as vacation or bereavement) becomes effective on the first day they were scheduled to work, then the plan would violate this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage for new employees becomes effective on the first day of the month following the employee's first day of work, regardless of whether the employee is actively at work on the first day of the month. Individual <I>J</I> is scheduled to begin work on March 24. However, <I>J</I> is unable to begin work on March 24 because of illness. <I>J</I> begins working on April 7 and <I>J</I>'s coverage is effective May 1.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan provision does not violate this section. However, as in <I>Example 1,</I> if coverage for individuals absent from work for reasons unrelated to a health factor became effective despite their absence, then the plan would violate this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship to plan provisions defining similarly situated individuals.</I> (i) Notwithstanding the rules of paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, a plan or issuer may establish rules for eligibility or set any individual's premium or contribution rate in accordance with the rules relating to similarly situated individuals in paragraph (d) of this section. Accordingly, a plan or issuer may distinguish in rules for eligibility under the plan between full-time and part-time employees, between permanent and temporary or seasonal employees, between current and former employees, and between employees currently performing services and employees no longer performing services for the employer, subject to paragraph (d) of this section. However, other Federal or State laws (including the COBRA continuation provisions and the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993) may require an employee or the employee's dependents to be offered coverage and set limits on the premium or contribution rate even though the employee is not performing services.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (e)(3) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, employees are eligible for coverage if they perform services for the employer for 30 or more hours per week or if they are on paid leave (such as vacation, sick, or bereavement leave). Employees on unpaid leave are treated as a separate group of similarly situated individuals in accordance with the rules of paragraph (d) of this section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan provisions do not violate this section. However, if the plan treated individuals performing services for the employer for 30 or more hours per week, individuals on vacation leave, and individuals on bereavement leave as a group of similarly situated individuals separate from individuals on sick leave, the plan would violate this paragraph (e) (and thus also would violate paragraph (b) of this section) because groups of similarly situated individuals cannot be established based on a health factor (including the taking of sick leave) under paragraph (d) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> To be eligible for coverage under a bona fide collectively bargained group health plan in the current calendar quarter, the plan requires an individual to have worked 250 hours in covered employment during the three-month period that ends one month before the beginning of the current calendar quarter. The distinction between employees working at least 250 hours and those working less than 250 hours in the earlier three-month period is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan provision does not violate this section because, under the rules for similarly situated individuals allowing full-time employees to be treated differently than part-time employees, employees who work at least 250 hours in a three-month period can be treated differently than employees who fail to work 250 hours in that period. The result would be the same if the plan permitted individuals to apply excess hours from previous periods to satisfy the requirement for the current quarter.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage of an employee is terminated when the individual's employment is terminated, in accordance with the rules of paragraph (d) of this section. Employee <I>B</I> has been covered under the plan. <I>B</I> experiences a disabling illness that prevents <I>B</I> from working. <I>B</I> takes a leave of absence under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993. At the end of such leave, <I>B</I> terminates employment and consequently loses coverage under the plan. (This termination of coverage is without regard to whatever rights the employee (or members of the employee's family) may have for COBRA continuation coverage.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the plan provision terminating <I>B</I>'s coverage upon <I>B</I>'s termination of employment does not violate this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage of an employee is terminated when the employee ceases to perform services for the employer sponsoring the plan, in accordance with the rules of paragraph (d) of this section. Employee <I>C</I> is laid off for three months. When the layoff begins, <I>C</I>'s coverage under the plan is terminated. (This termination of coverage is without regard to whatever rights the employee (or members of the employee's family) may have for COBRA continuation coverage.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the plan provision terminating <I>C</I>'s coverage upon the cessation of <I>C</I>'s performance of services does not violate this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Nondiscriminatory wellness programs—in general.</I> A wellness program is a program of health promotion or disease prevention. Paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (c)(3) of this section provide exceptions to the general prohibitions against discrimination based on a health factor for plan provisions that vary benefits (including cost-sharing mechanisms) or the premium or contribution for similarly situated individuals in connection with a wellness program that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in this paragraph (f)(1) govern in applying the provisions of this paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reward.</I> Except where expressly provided otherwise, references in this section to an individual obtaining a reward include both obtaining a reward (such as a discount or rebate of a premium or contribution, a waiver of all or part of a cost-sharing mechanism, an additional benefit, or any financial or other incentive) and avoiding a penalty (such as the absence of a premium surcharge or other financial or nonfinancial disincentive). References in this section to a plan providing a reward include both providing a reward (such as a discount or rebate of a premium or contribution, a waiver of all or part of a cost-sharing mechanism, an additional benefit, or any financial or other incentive) and imposing a penalty (such as a surcharge or other financial or nonfinancial disincentive).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Participatory wellness programs.</I> If none of the conditions for obtaining a reward under a wellness program is based on an individual satisfying a standard that is related to a health factor (or if a wellness program does not provide a reward), the wellness program is a participatory wellness program. Examples of participatory wellness programs are:
</P>
<P>(A) A program that reimburses employees for all or part of the cost for membership in a fitness center.
</P>
<P>(B) A diagnostic testing program that provides a reward for participation in that program and does not base any part of the reward on outcomes.
</P>
<P>(C) A program that encourages preventive care through the waiver of the copayment or deductible requirement under a group health plan for the costs of, for example, prenatal care or well-baby visits. (Note that, with respect to non-grandfathered plans, § 2590.715-2713 of this part requires benefits for certain preventive health services without the imposition of cost sharing.)
</P>
<P>(D) A program that reimburses employees for the costs of participating, or that otherwise provides a reward for participating, in a smoking cessation program without regard to whether the employee quits smoking.
</P>
<P>(E) A program that provides a reward to employees for attending a monthly, no-cost health education seminar.
</P>
<P>(F) A program that provides a reward to employees who complete a health risk assessment regarding current health status, without any further action (educational or otherwise) required by the employee with regard to the health issues identified as part of the assessment. (<I>See also</I> § 2590.702-1 for rules prohibiting collection of genetic information.)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Health-contingent wellness programs.</I> A health-contingent wellness program is a program that requires an individual to satisfy a standard related to a health factor to obtain a reward (or requires an individual to undertake more than a similarly situated individual based on a health factor in order to obtain the same reward). A health-contingent wellness program may be an activity-only wellness program or an outcome-based wellness program.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Activity-only wellness programs.</I> An activity-only wellness program is a type of health-contingent wellness program that requires an individual to perform or complete an activity related to a health factor in order to obtain a reward but does not require the individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome. Examples include walking, diet, or exercise programs, which some individuals may be unable to participate in or complete (or have difficulty participating in or completing) due to a health factor, such as severe asthma, pregnancy, or a recent surgery. <I>See</I> paragraph (f)(3) of this section for requirements applicable to activity-only wellness programs.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Outcome-based wellness programs.</I> An outcome-based wellness program is a type of health-contingent wellness program that requires an individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome (such as not smoking or attaining certain results on biometric screenings) in order to obtain a reward. To comply with the rules of this paragraph (f), an outcome-based wellness program typically has two tiers. That is, for individuals who do not attain or maintain the specific health outcome, compliance with an educational program or an activity may be offered as an alternative to achieve the same reward. This alternative pathway, however, does not mean that the overall program, which has an outcome-based component, is not an outcome-based wellness program. That is, if a measurement, test, or screening is used as part of an initial standard and individuals who meet the standard are granted the reward, the program is considered an outcome-based wellness program. For example, if a wellness program tests individuals for specified medical conditions or risk factors (including biometric screening such as testing for high cholesterol, high blood pressure, abnormal body mass index, or high glucose level) and provides a reward to individuals identified as within a normal or healthy range for these medical conditions or risk factors, while requiring individuals who are identified as outside the normal or healthy range (or at risk) to take additional steps (such as meeting with a health coach, taking a health or fitness course, adhering to a health improvement action plan, complying with a walking or exercise program, or complying with a health care provider's plan of care) to obtain the same reward, the program is an outcome-based wellness program. <I>See</I> paragraph (f)(4) of this section for requirements applicable to outcome-based wellness programs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirement for participatory wellness programs.</I> A participatory wellness program, as described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, does not violate the provisions of this section only if participation in the program is made available to all similarly situated individuals, regardless of health status.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for activity-only wellness programs.</I> A health-contingent wellness program that is an activity-only wellness program, as described in paragraph (f)(1)(iv) of this section, does not violate the provisions of this section only if all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Frequency of opportunity to qualify.</I> The program must give individuals eligible for the program the opportunity to qualify for the reward under the program at least once per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Size of reward.</I> The reward for the activity-only wellness program, together with the reward for other health-contingent wellness programs with respect to the plan, must not exceed the applicable percentage (as defined in paragraph (f)(5) of this section) of the total cost of employee-only coverage under the plan. However, if, in addition to employees, any class of dependents (such as spouses, or spouses and dependent children) may participate in the wellness program, the reward must not exceed the applicable percentage of the total cost of the coverage in which an employee and any dependents are enrolled. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(3)(ii), the cost of coverage is determined based on the total amount of employer and employee contributions towards the cost of coverage for the benefit package under which the employee is (or the employee and any dependents are) receiving coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasonable design.</I> The program must be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. A program satisfies this standard if it has a reasonable chance of improving the health of, or preventing disease in, participating individuals, and it is not overly burdensome, is not a subterfuge for discriminating based on a health factor, and is not highly suspect in the method chosen to promote health or prevent disease. This determination is based on all the relevant facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Uniform availability and reasonable alternative standards.</I> The full reward under the activity-only wellness program must be available to all similarly situated individuals.
</P>
<P>(A) Under this paragraph (f)(3)(iv), a reward under an activity-only wellness program is not available to all similarly situated individuals for a period unless the program meets both of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The program allows a reasonable alternative standard (or waiver of the otherwise applicable standard) for obtaining the reward for any individual for whom, for that period, it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to satisfy the otherwise applicable standard; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The program allows a reasonable alternative standard (or waiver of the otherwise applicable standard) for obtaining the reward for any individual for whom, for that period, it is medically inadvisable to attempt to satisfy the otherwise applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(B) While plans and issuers are not required to determine a particular reasonable alternative standard in advance of an individual's request for one, if an individual is described in either paragraph (f)(3)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this section, a reasonable alternative standard must be furnished by the plan or issuer upon the individual's request or the condition for obtaining the reward must be waived.
</P>
<P>(C) All the facts and circumstances are taken into account in determining whether a plan or issuer has furnished a reasonable alternative standard, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the reasonable alternative standard is completion of an educational program, the plan or issuer must make the educational program available or assist the employee in finding such a program (instead of requiring an individual to find such a program unassisted), and may not require an individual to pay for the cost of the program.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The time commitment required must be reasonable (for example, requiring attendance nightly at a one-hour class would be unreasonable).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the reasonable alternative standard is a diet program, the plan or issuer is not required to pay for the cost of food but must pay any membership or participation fee.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If an individual's personal physician states that a plan standard (including, if applicable, the recommendations of the plan's medical professional) is not medically appropriate for that individual, the plan or issuer must provide a reasonable alternative standard that accommodates the recommendations of the individual's personal physician with regard to medical appropriateness. Plans and issuers may impose standard cost sharing under the plan or coverage for medical items and services furnished pursuant to the physician's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent that a reasonable alternative standard under an activity-only wellness program is, itself, an activity-only wellness program, it must comply with the requirements of this paragraph (f)(3) in the same manner as if it were an initial program standard. (Thus, for example, if a plan or issuer provides a walking program as a reasonable alternative standard to a running program, individuals for whom it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to complete the walking program (or for whom it is medically inadvisable to attempt to complete the walking program) must be provided a reasonable alternative standard to the walking program.) To the extent that a reasonable alternative standard under an activity-only wellness program is, itself, an outcome-based wellness program, it must comply with the requirements of paragraph (f)(4) of this section, including paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(D).
</P>
<P>(E) If reasonable under the circumstances, a plan or issuer may seek verification, such as a statement from an individual's personal physician, that a health factor makes it unreasonably difficult for the individual to satisfy, or medically inadvisable for the individual to attempt to satisfy, the otherwise applicable standard of an activity-only wellness program. Plans and issuers may seek verification with respect to requests for a reasonable alternative standard for which it is reasonable to determine that medical judgment is required to evaluate the validity of the request.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice of availability of reasonable alternative standard.</I> The plan or issuer must disclose in all plan materials describing the terms of an activity-only wellness program the availability of a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (and, if applicable, the possibility of waiver of the otherwise applicable standard), including contact information for obtaining a reasonable alternative standard and a statement that recommendations of an individual's personal physician will be accommodated. If plan materials merely mention that such a program is available, without describing its terms, this disclosure is not required. Sample language is provided in paragraph (f)(6) of this section, as well as in certain examples of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Example.</I> The provisions of this paragraph (f)(3) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides a reward to individuals who participate in a reasonable specified walking program. If it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition for an individual to participate (or if it is medically inadvisable for an individual to attempt to participate), the plan will waive the walking program requirement and provide the reward. All materials describing the terms of the walking program disclose the availability of the waiver.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3)(iii) of this section because the walking program is reasonably designed to promote health and prevent disease. The program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3)(iv) of this section because the reward under the program is available to all similarly situated individuals. It accommodates individuals for whom it is unreasonably difficult to participate in the walking program due to a medical condition (or for whom it would be medically inadvisable to attempt to participate) by providing them with the reward even if they do not participate in the walking program (that is, by waiving the condition). The plan also complies with the disclosure requirement of paragraph (f)(3)(v) of this section. Thus, the plan satisfies paragraphs (f)(3)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Requirements for outcome-based wellness programs.</I> A health-contingent wellness program that is an outcome-based wellness program, as described in paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section, does not violate the provisions of this section only if all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Frequency of opportunity to qualify.</I> The program must give individuals eligible for the program the opportunity to qualify for the reward under the program at least once per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Size of reward.</I> The reward for the outcome-based wellness program, together with the reward for other health-contingent wellness programs with respect to the plan, must not exceed the applicable percentage (as defined in paragraph (f)(5) of this section) of the total cost of employee-only coverage under the plan. However, if, in addition to employees, any class of dependents (such as spouses, or spouses and dependent children) may participate in the wellness program, the reward must not exceed the applicable percentage of the total cost of the coverage in which an employee and any dependents are enrolled. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(4)(ii), the cost of coverage is determined based on the total amount of employer and employee contributions towards the cost of coverage for the benefit package under which the employee is (or the employee and any dependents are) receiving coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasonable design.</I> The program must be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. A program satisfies this standard if it has a reasonable chance of improving the health of, or preventing disease in, participating individuals, and it is not overly burdensome, is not a subterfuge for discriminating based on a health factor, and is not highly suspect in the method chosen to promote health or prevent disease. This determination is based on all the relevant facts and circumstances. To ensure that an outcome-based wellness program is reasonably designed to improve health and does not act as a subterfuge for underwriting or reducing benefits based on a health factor, a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward must be provided to any individual who does not meet the initial standard based on a measurement, test, or screening that is related to a health factor, as explained in paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Uniform availability and reasonable alternative standards.</I> The full reward under the outcome-based wellness program must be available to all similarly situated individuals.
</P>
<P>(A) Under this paragraph (f)(4)(iv), a reward under an outcome-based wellness program is not available to all similarly situated individuals for a period unless the program allows a reasonable alternative standard (or waiver of the otherwise applicable standard) for obtaining the reward for any individual who does not meet the initial standard based on the measurement, test, or screening, as described in this paragraph (f)(4)(iv).
</P>
<P>(B) While plans and issuers are not required to determine a particular reasonable alternative standard in advance of an individual's request for one, if an individual is described in paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(A) of this section, a reasonable alternative standard must be furnished by the plan or issuer upon the individual's request or the condition for obtaining the reward must be waived.
</P>
<P>(C) All the facts and circumstances are taken into account in determining whether a plan or issuer has furnished a reasonable alternative standard, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the reasonable alternative standard is completion of an educational program, the plan or issuer must make the educational program available or assist the employee in finding such a program (instead of requiring an individual to find such a program unassisted), and may not require an individual to pay for the cost of the program.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The time commitment required must be reasonable (for example, requiring attendance nightly at a one-hour class would be unreasonable).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the reasonable alternative standard is a diet program, the plan or issuer is not required to pay for the cost of food but must pay any membership or participation fee.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If an individual's personal physician states that a plan standard (including, if applicable, the recommendations of the plan's medical professional) is not medically appropriate for that individual, the plan or issuer must provide a reasonable alternative standard that accommodates the recommendations of the individual's personal physician with regard to medical appropriateness. Plans and issuers may impose standard cost sharing under the plan or coverage for medical items and services furnished pursuant to the physician's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent that a reasonable alternative standard under an outcome-based wellness program is, itself, an activity-only wellness program, it must comply with the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section in the same manner as if it were an initial program standard. To the extent that a reasonable alternative standard under an outcome-based wellness program is, itself, another outcome-based wellness program, it must comply with the requirements of this paragraph (f)(4), subject to the following special provisions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The reasonable alternative standard cannot be a requirement to meet a different level of the same standard without additional time to comply that takes into account the individual's circumstances. For example, if the initial standard is to achieve a BMI less than 30, the reasonable alternative standard cannot be to achieve a BMI less than 31 on that same date. However, if the initial standard is to achieve a BMI less than 30, a reasonable alternative standard for the individual could be to reduce the individual's BMI by a small amount or small percentage, over a realistic period of time, such as within a year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An individual must be given the opportunity to comply with the recommendations of the individual's personal physician as a second reasonable alternative standard to meeting the reasonable alternative standard defined by the plan or issuer, but only if the physician joins in the request. The individual can make a request to involve a personal physician's recommendations at any time and the personal physician can adjust the physician's recommendations at any time, consistent with medical appropriateness.
</P>
<P>(E) It is not reasonable to seek verification, such as a statement from an individual's personal physician, under an outcome-based wellness program that a health factor makes it unreasonably difficult for the individual to satisfy, or medically inadvisable for the individual to attempt to satisfy, the otherwise applicable standard as a condition of providing a reasonable alternative to the initial standard. However, if a plan or issuer provides an alternative standard to the otherwise applicable measurement, test, or screening that involves an activity that is related to a health factor, then the rules of paragraph (f)(3) of this section for activity-only wellness programs apply to that component of the wellness program and the plan or issuer may, if reasonable under the circumstances, seek verification that it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition for an individual to perform or complete the activity (or it is medically inadvisable to attempt to perform or complete the activity). (For example, if an outcome-based wellness program requires participants to maintain a certain healthy weight and provides a diet and exercise program for individuals who do not meet the targeted weight, a plan or issuer may seek verification, as described in paragraph (f)(3)(iv)(D) of this section, if reasonable under the circumstances, that a second reasonable alternative standard is needed for certain individuals because, for those individuals, it would be unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to comply, or medically inadvisable to attempt to comply, with the diet and exercise program, due to a medical condition.)
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice of availability of reasonable alternative standard.</I> The plan or issuer must disclose in all plan materials describing the terms of an outcome-based wellness program, and in any disclosure that an individual did not satisfy an initial outcome-based standard, the availability of a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (and, if applicable, the possibility of waiver of the otherwise applicable standard), including contact information for obtaining a reasonable alternative standard and a statement that recommendations of an individual's personal physician will be accommodated. If plan materials merely mention that such a program is available, without describing its terms, this disclosure is not required. Sample language is provided in paragraph (f)(6) of this section, as well as in certain examples of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Examples.</I> The provisions of this paragraph (f)(4) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1—Cholesterol screening with reasonable alternative standard to work with personal physician.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers a reward to participants who achieve a count under 200 on a total cholesterol test. If a participant does not achieve the targeted cholesterol count, the plan allows the participant to develop an alternative cholesterol action plan in conjunction with the participant's personal physician that may include recommendations for medication and additional screening. The plan allows the physician to modify the standards, as medically necessary, over the year. (For example, if a participant develops asthma or depression, requires surgery and convalescence, or some other medical condition or consideration makes completion of the original action plan inadvisable or unreasonably difficult, the physician may modify the original action plan.) All plan materials describing the terms of the program include the following statement: “Your health plan wants to help you take charge of your health. Rewards are available to all employees who participate in our Cholesterol Awareness Wellness Program. If your total cholesterol count is under 200, you will receive the reward. If not, you will still have an opportunity to qualify for the reward. We will work with you and your doctor to find a Health Smart program that is right for you.” In addition, when any individual participant receives notification that his or her cholesterol count is 200 or higher, the notification includes the following statement: “Your plan offers a Health Smart program under which we will work with you and your doctor to try to lower your cholesterol. If you complete this program, you will qualify for a reward. Please contact us at [contact information] to get started.”
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the program is an outcome-based wellness program because the initial standard requires an individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome (a certain cholesterol level) to obtain a reward. The program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section because the cholesterol program is reasonably designed to promote health and prevent disease. The program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section because it makes available to all participants who do not meet the cholesterol standard a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward. Lastly, the plan also discloses in all materials describing the terms of the program and in any disclosure that an individual did not satisfy the initial outcome-based standard the availability of a reasonable alternative standard (including contact information and the individual's ability to involve his or her personal physician), as required by paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section. Thus, the program satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (f)(4)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2—Cholesterol screening with plan alternative and no opportunity for personal physician involvement.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except that the wellness program's physician or nurse practitioner (rather than the individual's personal physician) determines the alternative cholesterol action plan. The plan does not provide an opportunity for a participant's personal physician to modify the action plan if it is not medically appropriate for that individual.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the wellness program does not satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section because the program does not accommodate the recommendations of the participant's personal physician with regard to medical appropriateness, as required under paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section. Thus, the program is not reasonably designed under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section and is not available to all similarly situated individuals under paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section. The notice also does not provide all the content required under paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3—Cholesterol screening with plan alternative that can be modified by personal physician.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 2,</I> except that if a participant's personal physician disagrees with any part of the action plan, the personal physician may modify the action plan at any time, and the plan discloses this to participants.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the wellness program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section because the participant's personal physician may modify the action plan determined by the wellness program's physician or nurse practitioner at any time if the physician states that the recommendations are not medically appropriate, as required under paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section. Thus, the program is reasonably designed under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section and is available to all similarly situated individuals under paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section. The notice, which includes a statement that recommendations of an individual's personal physician will be accommodated, also complies with paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4—BMI screening with walking program alternative.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan will provide a reward to participants who have a body mass index (BMI) that is 26 or lower, determined shortly before the beginning of the year. Any participant who does not meet the target BMI is given the same discount if the participant complies with an exercise program that consists of walking 150 minutes a week. Any participant for whom it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to comply with this walking program (and any participant for whom it is medically inadvisable to attempt to comply with the walking program) during the year is given the same discount if the participant satisfies an alternative standard that is reasonable taking into consideration the participant's medical situation, is not unreasonably burdensome or impractical to comply with, and is otherwise reasonably designed based on all the relevant facts and circumstances. All plan materials describing the terms of the wellness program include the following statement: “Fitness is Easy! Start Walking! Your health plan cares about your health. If you are considered overweight because you have a BMI of over 26, our Start Walking program will help you lose weight and feel better. We will help you enroll. (**If your doctor says that walking isn't right for you, that's okay too. We will work with you (and, if you wish, your own doctor) to develop a wellness program that is.)” Participant <I>E</I> is unable to achieve a BMI that is 26 or lower within the plan's timeframe and receives notification that complies with paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section. Nevertheless, it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition for <I>E</I> to comply with the walking program. <I>E</I> proposes a program based on the recommendations of <I>E'</I>s physician. The plan agrees to make the same discount available to <I>E</I> that is available to other participants in the BMI program or the alternative walking program, but only if <I>E</I> actually follows the physician's recommendations.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the program is an outcome-based wellness program because the initial standard requires an individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome (a certain BMI level) to obtain a reward. The program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section because it is reasonably designed to promote health and prevent disease. The program also satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section because it makes available to all individuals who do not satisfy the BMI standard a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (in this case, a walking program that is not unreasonably burdensome or impractical for individuals to comply with and that is otherwise reasonably designed based on all the relevant facts and circumstances). In addition, the walking program is, itself, an activity-only standard and the plan complies with the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section (including the requirement of paragraph (f)(3)(iv) that, if there are individuals for whom it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to comply, or for whom it is medically inadvisable to attempt to comply, with the walking program, the plan provide a reasonable alternative to those individuals). Moreover, the plan satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section because it discloses, in all materials describing the terms of the program and in any disclosure that an individual did not satisfy the initial outcome-based standard, the availability of a reasonable alternative standard (including contact information and the individual's option to involve his or her personal physician) to qualify for the reward or the possibility of waiver of the otherwise applicable standard. Thus, the program satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (f)(4)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5—BMI screening with alternatives available to either lower BMI or meet personal physician's recommendations.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4</I> except that, with respect to any participant who does not meet the target BMI, instead of a walking program, the participant is expected to reduce BMI by one point. At any point during the year upon request, any individual can obtain a second reasonable alternative standard, which is compliance with the recommendations of the participant's personal physician regarding weight, diet, and exercise as set forth in a treatment plan that the physician recommends or to which the physician agrees. The participant's personal physician is permitted to change or adjust the treatment plan at any time and the option of following the participant's personal physician's recommendations is clearly disclosed.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (the alternative BMI standard requiring a one-point reduction) does not make the program unreasonable under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) or (iv) of this section because the program complies with paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(C)(<I>4</I>) of this section by allowing a second reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (compliance with the recommendations of the participant's personal physician, which can be changed or adjusted at any time). Accordingly, the program continues to satisfy the applicable requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6—Tobacco use surcharge with smoking cessation program alternative.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> In conjunction with an annual open enrollment period, a group health plan provides a premium differential based on tobacco use, determined using a health risk assessment. The following statement is included in all plan materials describing the tobacco premium differential: “Stop smoking today! We can help! If you are a smoker, we offer a smoking cessation program. If you complete the program, you can avoid this surcharge.” The plan accommodates participants who smoke by facilitating their enrollment in a smoking cessation program that requires participation at a time and place that are not unreasonably burdensome or impractical for participants, and that is otherwise reasonably designed based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, and discloses contact information and the individual's option to involve his or her personal physician. The plan pays for the cost of participation in the smoking cessation program. Any participant can avoid the surcharge for the plan year by participating in the program, regardless of whether the participant stops smoking, but the plan can require a participant who wants to avoid the surcharge in a subsequent year to complete the smoking cessation program again.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the premium differential satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (f)(4)(iii), (iv), and (v). The program is an outcome-based wellness program because the initial standard for obtaining a reward is dependent on the results of a health risk assessment (a measurement, test, or screening). The program is reasonably designed under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) because the plan provides a reasonable alternative standard (as required under paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section) to qualify for the reward to all tobacco users (a smoking cessation program). The plan discloses, in all materials describing the terms of the program, the availability of the reasonable alternative standard (including contact information and the individual's option to involve his or her personal physician). Thus, the program satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (f)(4)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7—Tobacco use surcharge with alternative program requiring actual cessation.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 6,</I> except the plan does not provide participant <I>F</I> with the reward in subsequent years unless <I>F</I> actually stops smoking after participating in the tobacco cessation program.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> the program is not reasonably designed under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section and does not provide a reasonable alternative standard as required under paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section. The plan cannot cease to provide a reasonable alternative standard merely because the participant did not stop smoking after participating in a smoking cessation program. The plan must continue to offer a reasonable alternative standard whether it is the same or different (such as a new recommendation from <I>F'</I>s personal physician or a new nicotine replacement therapy).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8—Tobacco use surcharge with smoking cessation program alternative that is not reasonable.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 6,</I> except the plan does not facilitate participant <I>F'</I>s enrollment in a smoking cessation program. Instead the plan advises <I>F</I> to find a program, pay for it, and provide a certificate of completion to the plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> the requirement for <I>F</I> to find and pay for <I>F'</I>s own smoking cessation program means that the alternative program is not reasonable. Accordingly, the plan has not offered a reasonable alternative standard that complies with paragraphs (f)(4)(iii) and (iv) of this section and the program fails to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(5) <I>Applicable percentage.</I> (i) For purposes of this paragraph (f), the applicable percentage is 30 percent, except that the applicable percentage is increased by an additional 20 percentage points (to 50 percent) to the extent that the additional percentage is in connection with a program designed to prevent or reduce tobacco use.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (f)(5) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan. The annual premium for employee-only coverage is $6,000 (of which the employer pays $4,500 per year and the employee pays $1,500 per year). The plan offers employees a health-contingent wellness program with several components, focused on exercise, blood sugar, weight, cholesterol, and blood pressure. The reward for compliance is an annual premium rebate of $600.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the reward for the wellness program, $600, does not exceed the applicable percentage of 30 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage, $1,800. ($6,000 × 30% = $1,800.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except the wellness program is exclusively a tobacco prevention program. Employees who have used tobacco in the last 12 months and who are not enrolled in the plan's tobacco cessation program are charged a $1,000 premium surcharge (in addition to their employee contribution towards the coverage). (Those who participate in the plan's tobacco cessation program are not assessed the $1,000 surcharge.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the reward for the wellness program (absence of a $1,000 surcharge), does not exceed the applicable percentage of 50 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage, $3,000. ($6,000 × 50% = $3,000.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except that, in addition to the $600 reward for compliance with the health-contingent wellness program, the plan also imposes an additional $2,000 tobacco premium surcharge on employees who have used tobacco in the last 12 months and who are not enrolled in the plan's tobacco cessation program. (Those who participate in the plan's tobacco cessation program are not assessed the $2,000 surcharge.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the total of all rewards (including absence of a surcharge for participating in the tobacco program) is $2,600 ($600 + $2,000 = $2,600), which does not exceed the applicable percentage of 50 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage ($3,000); and, tested separately, the $600 reward for the wellness program unrelated to tobacco use does not exceed the applicable percentage of 30 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage ($1,800).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan. The total annual premium for employee-only coverage (including both employer and employee contributions towards the coverage) is $5,000. The plan provides a $250 reward to employees who complete a health risk assessment, without regard to the health issues identified as part of the assessment. The plan also offers a Healthy Heart program, which is a health-contingent wellness program, with an opportunity to earn a $1,500 reward.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> even though the total reward for all wellness programs under the plan is $1,750 ($250 + $1,500 = $1,750, which exceeds the applicable percentage of 30 percent of the cost of the annual premium for employee-only coverage ($5,000 × 30% = $1,500)), only the reward offered for compliance with the health-contingent wellness program ($1,500) is taken into account in determining whether the rules of this paragraph (f)(5) are met. (The $250 reward is offered in connection with a participatory wellness program and therefore is not taken into account.) Accordingly, the health-contingent wellness program offers a reward that does not exceed the applicable percentage of 30 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(6) <I>Sample language.</I> The following language, or substantially similar language, can be used to satisfy the notice requirement of paragraphs (f)(3)(v) or (f)(4)(v) of this section: “Your health plan is committed to helping you achieve your best health. Rewards for participating in a wellness program are available to all employees. If you think you might be unable to meet a standard for a reward under this wellness program, you might qualify for an opportunity to earn the same reward by different means. Contact us at [insert contact information] and we will work with you (and, if you wish, with your doctor) to find a wellness program with the same reward that is right for you in light of your health status.”
</P>
<P>(g) <I>More favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors permitted</I>—(1) <I>In rules for eligibility.</I> (i) Nothing in this section prevents a group health plan or group health insurance issuer from establishing more favorable rules for eligibility (described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) for individuals with an adverse health factor, such as disability, than for individuals without the adverse health factor. Moreover, nothing in this section prevents a plan or issuer from charging a higher premium or contribution with respect to individuals with an adverse health factor if they would not be eligible for the coverage were it not for the adverse health factor. (However, other laws, including State insurance laws, may set or limit premium rates; these laws are not affected by this section.)
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (g)(1) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that generally is available to employees, spouses of employees, and dependent children until age 26. However, dependent children who are disabled are eligible for coverage beyond age 26.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 1, the plan provision allowing coverage for disabled dependent children beyond age 26 satisfies this paragraph (g)(1) (and thus does not violate this section).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan, which is generally available to employees (and members of the employee's family) until the last day of the month in which the employee ceases to perform services for the employer. The plan generally charges employees $50 per month for employee-only coverage and $125 per month for family coverage. However, an employee who ceases to perform services for the employer by reason of disability may remain covered under the plan until the last day of the month that is 12 months after the month in which the employee ceased to perform services for the employer. During this extended period of coverage, the plan charges the employee $100 per month for employee-only coverage and $250 per month for family coverage. (This extended period of coverage is without regard to whatever rights the employee (or members of the employee's family) may have for COBRA continuation coverage.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan provision allowing extended coverage for disabled employees and their families satisfies this paragraph (g)(1) (and thus does not violate this section). In addition, the plan is permitted, under this paragraph (g)(1), to charge the disabled employees a higher premium during the extended period of coverage.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> To comply with the requirements of a COBRA continuation provision, a group health plan generally makes COBRA continuation coverage available for a maximum period of 18 months in connection with a termination of employment but makes the coverage available for a maximum period of 29 months to certain disabled individuals and certain members of the disabled individual's family. Although the plan generally requires payment of 102 percent of the applicable premium for the first 18 months of COBRA continuation coverage, the plan requires payment of 150 percent of the applicable premium for the disabled individual's COBRA continuation coverage during the disability extension if the disabled individual would not be entitled to COBRA continuation coverage but for the disability. 
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the plan provision allowing extended COBRA continuation coverage for disabled individuals satisfies this paragraph (g)(1) (and thus does not violate this section). In addition, the plan is permitted, under this paragraph (g)(1), to charge the disabled individuals a higher premium for the extended coverage if the individuals would not be eligible for COBRA continuation coverage were it not for the disability. (Similarly, if the plan provided an extended period of coverage for disabled individuals pursuant to State law or plan provision rather than pursuant to a COBRA continuation coverage provision, the plan could likewise charge the disabled individuals a higher premium for the extended coverage.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>In premiums or contributions.</I> (i) Nothing in this section prevents a group health plan or group health insurance issuer from charging individuals a premium or contribution that is less than the premium (or contribution) for similarly situated individuals if the lower charge is based on an adverse health factor, such as disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (g)(2) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, employees are generally required to pay $50 per month for employee-only coverage and $125 per month for family coverage under the plan. However, employees who are disabled receive coverage (whether employee-only or family coverage) under the plan free of charge.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the plan provision waiving premium payment for disabled employees is permitted under this paragraph (g)(2) (and thus does not violate this section).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(h) <I>No effect on other laws.</I> Compliance with this section is not determinative of compliance with any other provision of the Act (including the COBRA continuation provisions) or any other State or Federal law, such as the Americans with Disabilities Act. Therefore, although the rules of this section would not prohibit a plan or issuer from treating one group of similarly situated individuals differently from another (such as providing different benefit packages to current and former employees), other Federal or State laws may require that two separate groups of similarly situated individuals be treated the same for certain purposes (such as making the same benefit package available to COBRA qualified beneficiaries as is made available to active employees). In addition, although this section generally does not impose new disclosure obligations on plans and issuers, this section does not affect any other laws, including those that require accurate disclosures and prohibit intentional misrepresentation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicability dates.</I> This section applies for plan years beginning on or after July 1, 2007.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 75038, Dec. 13, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 51683, Oct. 7, 2009; 78 FR 33181, June 3, 2013; 79 FR 10309, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.702-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.702-1   Additional requirements prohibiting discrimination based on genetic information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise provided, the definitions in this paragraph (a) govern in applying the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Collect</I> means, with respect to information, to request, require, or purchase such information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Family member</I> means, with respect to an individual—
</P>
<P>(i) A dependent (as defined for purposes of § 2590.701-2 of this Part) of the individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other person who is a first-degree, second-degree, third-degree, or fourth-degree relative of the individual or of a dependent of the individual. Relatives by affinity (such as by marriage or adoption) are treated the same as relatives by consanguinity (that is, relatives who share a common biological ancestor). In determining the degree of the relationship, relatives by less than full consanguinity (such as half-siblings, who share only one parent) are treated the same as relatives by full consanguinity (such as siblings who share both parents).
</P>
<P>(A) First-degree relatives include parents, spouses, siblings, and children.
</P>
<P>(B) Second-degree relatives include grandparents, grandchildren, aunts, uncles, nephews, and nieces.
</P>
<P>(C) Third-degree relatives include great-grandparents, great-grandchildren, great aunts, great uncles, and first cousins.
</P>
<P>(D) Fourth-degree relatives include great-great grandparents, great-great grandchildren, and children of first cousins.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Genetic information</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (a)(3)(iii) of this section, with respect to an individual, information about—
</P>
<P>(A) The individual's genetic tests (as defined in paragraph (a)(5) of this section);
</P>
<P>(B) The genetic tests of family members of the individual;
</P>
<P>(C) The manifestation (as defined in paragraph (a)(6) of this section) of a disease or disorder in family members of the individual; or
</P>
<P>(D) Any request for, or receipt of, genetic services (as defined in paragraph (a)(4) of this section), or participation in clinical research which includes genetic services, by the individual or any family member of the individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term <I>genetic information</I> does not include information about the sex or age of any individual.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term <I>genetic information</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to a pregnant woman (or a family member of the pregnant woman), genetic information of any fetus carried by the pregnant woman; and
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an individual (or a family member of the individual) who is utilizing an assisted reproductive technology, genetic information of any embryo legally held by the individual or family member.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Genetic services</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) A genetic test, as defined in paragraph (a)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Genetic counseling (including obtaining, interpreting, or assessing genetic information); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Genetic education.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) <I>Genetic test</I> means an analysis of human DNA, RNA, chromosomes, proteins, or metabolites, if the analysis detects genotypes, mutations, or chromosomal changes. However, a genetic test does not include an analysis of proteins or metabolites that is directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition. Accordingly, a test to determine whether an individual has a BRCA1 or BRCA2 variant is a genetic test. Similarly, a test to determine whether an individual has a genetic variant associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer is a genetic test. However, an HIV test, complete blood count, cholesterol test, liver function test, or test for the presence of alcohol or drugs is not a genetic test.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (a)(5) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> is a newborn covered under a group health plan. <I>A</I> undergoes a phenylketonuria (PKU) screening, which measures the concentration of a metabolite, phenylalanine, in <I>A'</I>s blood. In PKU, a mutation occurs in the phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene which contains instructions for making the enzyme needed to break down the amino acid phenylalanine. Individuals with the mutation, who have a deficiency in the enzyme to break down phenylalanine, have high concentrations of phenylalanine.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the PKU screening is a genetic test with respect to <I>A</I> because the screening is an analysis of metabolites that detects a genetic mutation.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(6)(i) <I>Manifestation</I> or <I>manifested</I> means, with respect to a disease, disorder, or pathological condition, that an individual has been or could reasonably be diagnosed with the disease, disorder, or pathological condition by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved. For purposes of this section, a disease, disorder, or pathological condition is not manifested if a diagnosis is based principally on genetic information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (a)(6) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> has a family medical history of diabetes. <I>A</I> begins to experience excessive sweating, thirst, and fatigue. <I>A'</I>s physician examines <I>A</I> and orders blood glucose testing (which is not a genetic test). Based on the physician's examination, <I>A'</I>s symptoms, and test results that show elevated levels of blood glucose, <I>A'</I>s physician diagnoses <I>A</I> as having adult onset diabetes mellitus (Type 2 diabetes).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1, A</I> has been diagnosed by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved. The diagnosis is not based principally on genetic information. Thus, Type 2 diabetes is manifested with respect to <I>A.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B</I> has several family members with colon cancer. One of them underwent genetic testing which detected a mutation in the MSH2 gene associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC). <I>B'</I>s physician, a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved, recommends that <I>B</I> undergo a targeted genetic test to look for the specific mutation found in <I>B'</I>s relative to determine if <I>B</I> has an elevated risk for cancer. The genetic test with respect to <I>B</I> showed that <I>B</I> also carries the mutation and is at increased risk to develop colorectal and other cancers associated with HNPCC. <I>B</I> has a colonoscopy which indicates no signs of disease, and <I>B</I> has no symptoms.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> because <I>B</I> has no signs or symptoms of colorectal cancer, <I>B</I> has not been and could not reasonably be diagnosed with HNPCC. Thus, HNPCC is not manifested with respect to <I>B.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 2,</I> except that <I>B'</I>s colonoscopy and subsequent tests indicate the presence of HNPCC. Based on the colonoscopy and subsequent test results, <I>B'</I>s physician makes a diagnosis of HNPCC.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> HNPCC is manifested with respect to <I>B</I> because a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved has made a diagnosis that is not based principally on genetic information.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>C</I> has a family member that has been diagnosed with Huntington's Disease. A genetic test indicates that <I>C</I> has the Huntington's Disease gene variant. At age 42, <I>C</I> begins suffering from occasional moodiness and disorientation, symptoms which are associated with Huntington's Disease. <I>C</I> is examined by a neurologist (a physician with appropriate training and expertise for diagnosing Huntington's Disease). The examination includes a clinical neurological exam. The results of the examination do not support a diagnosis of Huntington's Disease.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4, C</I> is not and could not reasonably be diagnosed with Huntington's Disease by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise. Therefore, Huntington's Disease is not manifested with respect to <I>C.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4,</I> except that <I>C</I> exhibits additional neurological and behavioral symptoms, and the results of the examination support a diagnosis of Huntington's Disease with respect to <I>C.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5, C</I> could reasonably be diagnosed with Huntington's Disease by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise. Therefore, Huntington's Disease is manifested with respect to <I>C.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(7) <I>Underwriting purposes</I> has the meaning given in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No group-based discrimination based on genetic information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this section, a group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, must not adjust premium or contribution amounts for the plan, or any group of similarly situated individuals under the plan, on the basis of genetic information. For this purpose, “similarly situated individuals” are those described in § 2590.702(d) of this Part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section (or in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section) limits the ability of a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan to increase the premium for a group health plan or a group of similarly situated individuals under the plan based on the manifestation of a disease or disorder of an individual who is enrolled in the plan. In such a case, however, the manifestation of a disease or disorder in one individual cannot also be used as genetic information about other group members to further increase the premium for a group health plan or a group of similarly situated individuals under the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage through a health insurance issuer. In order to determine the premium rate for the upcoming plan year, the issuer reviews the claims experience of individuals covered under the plan and other health status information of the individuals, including genetic information. The issuer finds that three individuals covered under the plan had unusually high claims experience. In addition, the issuer finds that the genetic information of two other individuals indicates the individuals have a higher probability of developing certain illnesses although the illnesses are not manifested at this time. The issuer quotes the plan a higher per-participant rate because of both the genetic information and the higher claims experience.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the issuer violates the provisions of this paragraph (b) because the issuer adjusts the premium based on genetic information. However, if the adjustment related solely to claims experience, the adjustment would not violate the requirements of this section (nor would it violate the requirements of paragraph (c) of § 2590.702 of this Part, which prohibits discrimination in individual premiums or contributions based on a health factor but permits increases in the group rate based on a health factor).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage through a health insurance issuer. In order to determine the premium rate for the upcoming plan year, the issuer reviews the claims experience of individuals covered under the plan and other health status information of the individuals, including genetic information. The issuer finds that Employee <I>A</I> has made claims for treatment of polycystic kidney disease. <I>A</I> also has two dependent children covered under the plan. The issuer quotes the plan a higher per-participant rate because of both <I>A'</I>s claims experience and the family medical history of <I>A'</I>s children (that is, the fact that <I>A</I> has the disease).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the issuer violates the provisions of this paragraph (b) because, by taking the likelihood that <I>A'</I>s children may develop polycystic kidney disease into account in computing the rate for the plan, the issuer adjusts the premium based on genetic information relating to a condition that has not been manifested in <I>A'</I>s children. However, it is permissible for the issuer to increase the premium based on <I>A'</I>s claims experience.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on requesting or requiring genetic testing</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), a group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, must not request or require an individual or a family member of the individual to undergo a genetic test.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Health care professional may recommend a genetic test.</I> Nothing in paragraph (c)(1) of this section limits the authority of a health care professional who is providing health care services to an individual to request that the individual undergo a genetic test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> goes to a physician for a routine physical examination. The physician reviews <I>A'</I>s family medical history and <I>A</I> informs the physician that <I>A'</I>s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington's Disease. The physician advises <I>A</I> that Huntington's Disease is hereditary and recommends that <I>A</I> undergo a genetic test.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the physician is a health care professional who is providing health care services to <I>A.</I> Therefore, the physician's recommendation that <I>A</I> undergo the genetic test does not violate this paragraph (c).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B</I> is covered by a health maintenance organization (HMO). <I>B</I> is a child being treated for leukemia. <I>B'</I>s physician, who is employed by the HMO, is considering a treatment plan that includes six-mercaptopurine, a drug for treating leukemia in most children. However, the drug could be fatal if taken by a small percentage of children with a particular gene variant. <I>B'</I>s physician recommends that <I>B</I> undergo a genetic test to detect this variant before proceeding with this course of treatment.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> even though the physician is employed by the HMO, the physician is nonetheless a health care professional who is providing health care services to <I>B.</I> Therefore, the physician's recommendation that <I>B</I> undergo the genetic test does not violate this paragraph (c).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Determination regarding payment</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> As provided in this paragraph (c)(4), nothing in paragraph (c)(1) of this section precludes a plan or issuer from obtaining and using the results of a genetic test in making a determination regarding payment. For this purpose, “payment” has the meaning given such term in 45 CFR 164.501 of the privacy regulations issued under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Thus, if a plan or issuer conditions payment for an item or service based on its medical appropriateness and the medical appropriateness of the item or service depends on the genetic makeup of a patient, then the plan or issuer is permitted to condition payment for the item or service on the outcome of a genetic test. The plan or issuer may also refuse payment if the patient does not undergo the genetic test.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitation.</I> A plan or issuer is permitted to request only the minimum amount of information necessary to make a determination regarding payment. The minimum amount of information necessary is determined in accordance with the minimum necessary standard in 45 CFR 164.502(b) of the privacy regulations issued under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> <I>See</I> paragraph (e) of this section for examples illustrating the rules of this paragraph (c)(4), as well as other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Research exception.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a plan or issuer may request, but not require, that a participant or beneficiary undergo a genetic test if all of the conditions of this paragraph (c)(5) are met:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Research in accordance with Federal regulations and applicable State or local law or regulations.</I> The plan or issuer makes the request pursuant to research, as defined in 45 CFR 46.102(d), that complies with 45 CFR Part 46 or equivalent Federal regulations, and any applicable State or local law or regulations for the protection of human subjects in research.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Written request for participation in research.</I> The plan or issuer makes the request in writing, and the request clearly indicates to each participant or beneficiary (or, in the case of a minor child, to the legal guardian of the beneficiary) that—
</P>
<P>(A) Compliance with the request is voluntary; and
</P>
<P>(B) Noncompliance will have no effect on eligibility for benefits (as described in § 2590.702(b)(1) of this Part) or premium or contribution amounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Prohibition on underwriting.</I> No genetic information collected or acquired under this paragraph (c)(5) can be used for underwriting purposes (as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Notice to Federal agencies.</I> The plan or issuer completes a copy of the “Notice of Research Exception under the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act” authorized by the Secretary and provides the notice to the address specified in the instructions thereto.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibitions on collection of genetic information</I>—(1) <I>For underwriting purposes</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, must not collect (as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) genetic information for underwriting purposes. <I>See</I> paragraph (e) of this section for examples illustrating the rules of this paragraph (d)(1), as well as other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Underwriting purposes defined.</I> Subject to paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section, <I>underwriting purposes</I> means, with respect to any group health plan, or health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan—
</P>
<P>(A) Rules for, or determination of, eligibility (including enrollment and continued eligibility) for benefits under the plan or coverage as described in § 2590.702(b)(1)(ii) of this Part (including changes in deductibles or other cost-sharing mechanisms in return for activities such as completing a health risk assessment or participating in a wellness program);
</P>
<P>(B) The computation of premium or contribution amounts under the plan or coverage (including discounts, rebates, payments in kind, or other premium differential mechanisms in return for activities such as completing a health risk assessment or participating in a wellness program);
</P>
<P>(C) The application of any preexisting condition exclusion under the plan or coverage; and
</P>
<P>(D) Other activities related to the creation, renewal, or replacement of a contract of health insurance or health benefits.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Medical appropriateness.</I> If an individual seeks a benefit under a group health plan or health insurance coverage, the plan or coverage may limit or exclude the benefit based on whether the benefit is medically appropriate, and the determination of whether the benefit is medically appropriate is not within the meaning of underwriting purposes. Accordingly, if an individual seeks a benefit under the plan and the plan or issuer conditions the benefit based on its medical appropriateness and the medical appropriateness of the benefit depends on genetic information of the individual, then the plan or issuer is permitted to condition the benefit on the genetic information. A plan or issuer is permitted to request only the minimum amount of genetic information necessary to determine medical appropriateness. The plan or issuer may deny the benefit if the patient does not provide the genetic information required to determine medical appropriateness. If an individual is not seeking a benefit, the medical appropriateness exception of this paragraph (d)(1)(iii) to the definition of underwriting purposes does not apply. <I>See</I> paragraph (e) of this section for examples illustrating the medical appropriateness provisions of this paragraph (d)(1)(iii), as well as other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior to or in connection with enrollment</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, must not collect genetic information with respect to any individual prior to that individual's effective date of coverage under that plan or coverage, nor in connection with the rules for eligibility (as defined in § 2590.702(b)(1)(ii) of this Part) that apply to that individual. Whether or not an individual's information is collected prior to that individual's effective date of coverage is determined at the time of collection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Incidental collection exception</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, obtains genetic information incidental to the collection of other information concerning any individual, the collection is not a violation of this paragraph (d)(2), as long as the collection is not for underwriting purposes in violation of paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitation.</I> The incidental collection exception of this paragraph (d)(2)(ii) does not apply in connection with any collection where it is reasonable to anticipate that health information will be received, unless the collection explicitly states that genetic information should not be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (d) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides a premium reduction to enrollees who complete a health risk assessment. The health risk assessment is requested to be completed after enrollment. Whether or not it is completed or what responses are given on it has no effect on an individual's enrollment status, or on the enrollment status of members of the individual's family. The health risk assessment includes questions about the individual's family medical history.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the health risk assessment includes a request for genetic information (that is, the individual's family medical history). Because completing the health risk assessment results in a premium reduction, the request for genetic information is for underwriting purposes. Consequently, the request violates the prohibition on the collection of genetic information in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> The same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except there is no premium reduction or any other reward for completing the health risk assessment.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the request is not for underwriting purposes, nor is it prior to or in connection with enrollment. Therefore, it does not violate the prohibition on the collection of genetic information in this paragraph (d).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requests that enrollees complete a health risk assessment prior to enrollment, and includes questions about the individual's family medical history. There is no reward or penalty for completing the health risk assessment.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> because the health risk assessment includes a request for genetic information (that is, the individual's family medical history), and requests the information prior to enrollment, the request violates the prohibition on the collection of genetic information in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Moreover, because it is a request for genetic information, it is not an incidental collection under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in <I>Example 1,</I> except there is no premium reduction or any other reward given for completion of the health risk assessment. However, certain people completing the health risk assessment may become eligible for additional benefits under the plan by being enrolled in a disease management program based on their answers to questions about family medical history. Other people may become eligible for the disease management program based solely on their answers to questions about their individual medical history.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the request for information about an individual's family medical history could result in the individual being eligible for benefits for which the individual would not otherwise be eligible. Therefore, the questions about family medical history on the health risk assessment are a request for genetic information for underwriting purposes and are prohibited under this paragraph (d). Although the plan conditions eligibility for the disease management program based on determinations of medical appropriateness, the exception for determinations of medical appropriateness does not apply because the individual is not seeking benefits.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requests enrollees to complete two distinct health risk assessments (HRAs) after and unrelated to enrollment. The first HRA instructs the individual to answer only for the individual and not for the individual's family. The first HRA does not ask about any genetic tests the individual has undergone or any genetic services the individual has received. The plan offers a reward for completing the first HRA. The second HRA asks about family medical history and the results of genetic tests the individual has undergone. The plan offers no reward for completing the second HRA and the instructions make clear that completion of the second HRA is wholly voluntary and will not affect the reward given for completion of the first HRA.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> no genetic information is collected in connection with the first HRA, which offers a reward, and no benefits or other rewards are conditioned on the request for genetic information in the second HRA. Consequently, the request for genetic information in the second HRA is not for underwriting purposes, and the two HRAs do not violate the prohibition on the collection of genetic information in this paragraph (d).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan waives its annual deductible for enrollees who complete an HRA. The HRA is requested to be completed after enrollment. Whether or not the HRA is completed or what responses are given on it has no effect on an individual's enrollment status, or on the enrollment status of members of the individual's family. The HRA does not include any direct questions about the individual's genetic information (including family medical history). However, the last question reads, “Is there anything else relevant to your health that you would like us to know or discuss with you?”
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the plan's request for medical information does not explicitly state that genetic information should not be provided. Therefore, any genetic information collected in response to the question is not within the incidental collection exception and is prohibited under this paragraph (d).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 6,</I> except that the last question goes on to state, “In answering this question, you should not include any genetic information. That is, please do not include any family medical history or any information related to genetic testing, genetic services, genetic counseling, or genetic diseases for which you believe you may be at risk.”
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> the plan's request for medical information explicitly states that genetic information should not be provided. Therefore, any genetic information collected in response to the question is within the incidental collection exception. However, the plan may not use any genetic information it obtains incidentally for underwriting purposes.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Issuer <I>M</I> acquires Issuer <I>N. M</I> requests <I>N'</I>s records, stating that <I>N</I> should not provide genetic information and should review the records to excise any genetic information. <I>N</I> assembles the data requested by <I>M</I> and, although <I>N</I> reviews it to delete genetic information, the data from a specific region included some individuals' family medical history. Consequently, <I>M</I> receives genetic information about some of <I>N'</I>s covered individuals.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8, M'</I>s request for health information explicitly stated that genetic information should not be provided. Therefore, the collection of genetic information was within the incidental collection exception. However, <I>M</I> may not use the genetic information it obtained incidentally for underwriting purposes.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(e) <I>Examples regarding determinations of medical appropriateness.</I> The application of the rules of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section to plan or issuer determinations of medical appropriateness is illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A'</I>s group health plan covers genetic testing for celiac disease for individuals who have family members with this condition. After <I>A'</I>s son is diagnosed with celiac disease, <I>A</I> undergoes a genetic test and promptly submits a claim for the test to <I>A'</I>s issuer for reimbursement. The issuer asks <I>A</I> to provide the results of the genetic test before the claim is paid.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> under the rules of paragraph (c)(4) of this section the issuer is permitted to request only the minimum amount of information necessary to make a decision regarding payment. Because the results of the test are not necessary for the issuer to make a decision regarding the payment of <I>A'</I>s claim, the issuer's request for the results of the genetic test violates paragraph (c) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B'</I>s group health plan covers a yearly mammogram for participants and beneficiaries starting at age 40, or at age 30 for those with increased risk for breast cancer, including individuals with BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations. <I>B</I> is 33 years old and has the BRCA2 mutation. <I>B</I> undergoes a mammogram and promptly submits a claim to <I>B'</I>s plan for reimbursement. Following an established policy, the plan asks <I>B</I> for evidence of increased risk of breast cancer, such as the results of a genetic test or a family history of breast cancer, before the claim for the mammogram is paid. This policy is applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individuals based on any genetic information.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan does not violate paragraphs (c) or (d) of this section. Under paragraph (c), the plan is permitted to request and use the results of a genetic test to make a determination regarding payment, provided the plan requests only the minimum amount of information necessary. Because the medical appropriateness of the mammogram depends on the genetic makeup of the patient, the minimum amount of information necessary includes the results of the genetic test. Similarly, the plan does not violate paragraph (d) of this section because the plan is permitted to request genetic information in making a determination regarding the medical appropriateness of a claim if the genetic information is necessary to make the determination (and if the genetic information is not used for underwriting purposes).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>C</I> was previously diagnosed with and treated for breast cancer, which is currently in remission. In accordance with the recommendation of <I>C'</I>s physician, <I>C</I> has been taking a regular dose of tamoxifen to help prevent a recurrence. <I>C'</I>s group health plan adopts a new policy requiring patients taking tamoxifen to undergo a genetic test to ensure that tamoxifen is medically appropriate for their genetic makeup. In accordance with, at the time, the latest scientific research, tamoxifen is not helpful in up to 7 percent of breast cancer patients, those with certain variations of the gene for making the CYP<E T="52">2</E>D6 enzyme. If a patient has a gene variant making tamoxifen not medically appropriate, the plan does not pay for the tamoxifen prescription.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the plan does not violate paragraph (c) of this section if it conditions future payments for the tamoxifen prescription on <I>C'</I>s undergoing a genetic test to determine what genetic markers <I>C</I> has for making the CYP<E T="52">2</E>D6 enzyme. Nor does the plan violate paragraph (c) of this section if the plan refuses future payment if the results of the genetic test indicate that tamoxifen is not medically appropriate for <I>C.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers a diabetes disease management program to all similarly situated individuals for whom it is medically appropriate based on whether the individuals have or are at risk for diabetes. The program provides enhanced benefits related only to diabetes for individuals who qualify for the program. The plan sends out a notice to all participants that describes the diabetes disease management program and explains the terms for eligibility. Individuals interested in enrolling in the program are advised to contact the plan to demonstrate that they have diabetes or that they are at risk for diabetes. For individuals who do not currently have diabetes, genetic information may be used to demonstrate that an individual is at risk.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the plan may condition benefits under the disease management program upon a showing by an individual that the individual is at risk for diabetes, even if such showing may involve genetic information, provided that the plan requests genetic information only when necessary to make a determination regarding whether the disease management program is medically appropriate for the individual and only requests the minimum amount of information necessary to make that determination.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4,</I> except that the plan includes a questionnaire that asks about the occurrence of diabetes in members of the individual's family as part of the notice describing the disease management program.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the plan violates the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section because the requests for genetic information are not limited to those situations in which it is necessary to make a determination regarding whether the disease management program is medically appropriate for the individuals.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4,</I> except the disease management program provides an enhanced benefit in the form of a lower annual deductible to individuals under the program; the lower deductible applies with respect to all medical expenses incurred by the individual. Thus, whether or not a claim relates to diabetes, the individual is provided with a lower deductible based on the individual providing the plan with genetic information.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> because the enhanced benefits include benefits not related to the determination of medical appropriateness, making available the enhanced benefits is within the meaning of underwriting purposes. Accordingly, the plan may not request or require genetic information (including family history information) in determining eligibility for enhanced benefits under the program because such a request would be for underwriting purposes and would violate paragraph (d)(1) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies for plan years beginning on or after December 7, 2009.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 51683, Oct. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.702-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.702-2   Special rule allowing integration of Health Reimbursement Arrangements (HRAs) and other account-based group health plans with individual health insurance coverage and Medicare and prohibiting discrimination in HRAs and other account-based group health plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to health reimbursement arrangements (HRAs) and other account-based group health plans, as defined in § 2590.715-2711(d)(6)(i) of this part. For ease of reference, the term “HRA” is used in this section to include other account-based group health plans. For related regulations, see 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(3)(i) and (c)(5), 29 CFR 2510.3-1(l), and 45 CFR 155.420.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This section provides the conditions that an HRA must satisfy in order to be integrated with individual health insurance coverage for purposes of Public Health Service Act (PHS Act) sections 2711 and 2713 and § 2590.715-2711(d)(4) of this part (referred to as an individual coverage HRA). This section also allows an individual coverage HRA to be integrated with Medicare for purposes of PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713 and § 2590.715-2711(d)(4), subject to the conditions provided in this section (see paragraph (e) of this section). Some of the conditions set forth in this section specifically relate to compliance with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713 and some relate to the effect of having or being offered an individual coverage HRA on eligibility for the premium tax credit under section 36B of the Code. In addition, this section provides conditions that an individual coverage HRA must satisfy in order to comply with the nondiscrimination provisions in ERISA section 702 and PHS Act section 2705 (which is incorporated in ERISA section 715) and that are consistent with the provisions of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, Public Law 111-148 (124 Stat. 119 (2010)), and the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010, Public Law 111-152 (124 Stat. 1029 (2010)), each as amended, that are designed to create a competitive individual market. These conditions are intended to prevent an HRA plan sponsor from intentionally or unintentionally, directly or indirectly, steering any participants or dependents with adverse health factors away from its traditional group health plan, if any, and toward individual health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General rule.</I> An HRA will be considered to be integrated with individual health insurance coverage for purposes of PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713 and § 2590.715-2711(d)(4) of this part and will not be considered to discriminate in violation of ERISA section 702 and PHS Act section 2705 solely because it is integrated with individual health insurance coverage, provided that the conditions of this paragraph (c) are satisfied. See paragraph (e) of this section for how these conditions apply to an individual coverage HRA integrated with Medicare. For purposes of this section, medical care expenses means medical care expenses as defined in § 2590.715-2711(d)(6)(ii) of this part and Exchange means Exchange as defined in 45 CFR 155.20.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enrollment in individual health insurance coverage</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The HRA must require that the participant and any dependent(s) are enrolled in individual health insurance coverage that is subject to and complies with the requirements in PHS Act sections 2711 (and § 2590.715-2711(a)(2) of this part) and PHS Act section 2713 (and § 2590.715-2713(a)(1) of this part), for each month that the individual(s) are covered by the HRA. For purposes of this paragraph (c), all individual health insurance coverage, except for individual health insurance coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits, is treated as being subject to and complying with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713. References to individual health insurance coverage in this paragraph (c) do not include individual health insurance coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Forfeiture.</I> The HRA must provide that if any individual covered by the HRA ceases to be covered by individual health insurance coverage, the HRA will not reimburse medical care expenses that are incurred by that individual after the individual health insurance coverage ceases. In addition, if the participant and all dependents covered by the participant's HRA cease to be covered by individual health insurance coverage, the participant must forfeit the HRA. In either case, the HRA must reimburse medical care expenses incurred by the individual prior to the cessation of individual health insurance coverage to the extent the medical care expenses are otherwise covered by the HRA, but the HRA may limit the period to submit medical care expenses for reimbursement to a reasonable specified time period. If a participant or dependent loses coverage under the HRA for a reason other than cessation of individual health insurance coverage, COBRA and other continuation coverage requirements may apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Grace periods and retroactive termination of individual health insurance coverage.</I> In the event an individual is initially enrolled in individual health insurance coverage and subsequently timely fails to pay premiums for the coverage, with the result that the individual is in a grace period, the individual is considered to be enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for purposes of this paragraph (c)(1) and the individual coverage HRA must reimburse medical care expenses incurred by the individual during that time period to the extent the medical care expenses are otherwise covered by the HRA. If the individual fails to pay the applicable premium(s) by the end of the grace period and the coverage is cancelled or terminated, including retroactively, or if the individual health insurance coverage is cancelled or terminated retroactively for some other reason (for example, a rescission), an individual coverage HRA must require that a participant notify the HRA that coverage has been cancelled or terminated and the date on which the cancellation or termination is effective. After the individual coverage HRA has received the notice of cancellation or termination, the HRA may not reimburse medical care expenses incurred on and after the date the individual health insurance coverage was cancelled or terminated, which is considered to be the date of termination of coverage under the HRA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No traditional group health plan may be offered to same participants.</I> To the extent a plan sponsor offers any class of employees (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section) an individual coverage HRA, the plan sponsor may not also offer a traditional group health plan to the same class of employees, except as provided in paragraph (d)(5) of this section. For purposes of this section, a traditional group health plan is any group health plan other than either an account-based group health plan or a group health plan that consists solely of excepted benefits. Therefore, a plan sponsor may not offer a choice between an individual coverage HRA or a traditional group health plan to any participant or dependent.
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<P>(3) <I>Same terms requirement</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a plan sponsor offers an individual coverage HRA to a class of employees described in paragraph (d) of this section, the HRA must be offered on the same terms to all participants within the class, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) through (vi) and (d)(5) of this section.
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<P>(ii) <I>Carryover amounts, salary reduction arrangements, and transfer amounts.</I> Amounts that are not used to reimburse medical care expenses for any plan year that are made available to participants in later plan years are disregarded for purposes of determining whether an HRA is offered on the same terms, provided that the method for determining whether participants have access to unused amounts in future years, and the methodology and formula for determining the amounts of unused funds which they may access in future years, is the same for all participants in a class of employees. In addition, the ability to pay the portion of the premium for individual health insurance coverage that is not covered by the HRA, if any, by using a salary reduction arrangement under section 125 of the Code is considered to be a term of the HRA for purposes of this paragraph (c)(3). Therefore, an HRA is not provided on the same terms unless the salary reduction arrangement, if made available to any participant in a class of employees, is made available on the same terms to all participants (other than former employees, as defined in paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section) in the class of employees. Further, to the extent that a participant in an individual coverage HRA was previously covered by another HRA and the current individual coverage HRA makes available amounts that were not used to reimburse medical care expenses under the prior HRA (transferred amounts), the transferred amounts are disregarded for purposes of determining whether the HRA is offered on the same terms, provided that if the HRA makes available transferred amounts, it does so on the same terms for all participants in the class of employees.
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<P>(iii) <I>Permitted variation.</I> An HRA does not fail to be provided on the same terms solely because the maximum dollar amount made available to participants in a class of employees to reimburse medical care expenses for any plan year increases in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A) or (B) of this section.
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<P>(A) <I>Variation due to number of dependents.</I> An HRA does not fail to be provided on the same terms to participants in a class of employees solely because the maximum dollar amount made available to those participants to reimburse medical care expenses for any plan year increases as the number of the participant's dependents who are covered under the HRA increases, so long as the same maximum dollar amount attributable to the increase in family size is made available to all participants in that class of employees with the same number of dependents covered by the HRA.
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<P>(B) <I>Variation due to age.</I> An HRA does not fail to be provided on the same terms to participants in a class of employees solely because the maximum dollar amount made available under the terms of the HRA to those participants to reimburse medical care expenses for any plan year increases as the age of the participant increases, so long as the requirements in paragraphs (c)(3)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section are satisfied. For the purpose of this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B), the plan sponsor may determine the age of the participant using any reasonable method for a plan year, so long as the plan sponsor determines each participant's age for the purpose of this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B) using the same method for all participants in the class of employees for the plan year and the method is determined prior to the plan year.
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<P>(<I>1</I>) The same maximum dollar amount attributable to the increase in age is made available to all participants who are the same age.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The maximum dollar amount made available to the oldest participant(s) is not more than three times the maximum dollar amount made available to the youngest participant(s).
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<P>(iv) <I>Former employees.</I> An HRA does not fail to be treated as provided on the same terms if the plan sponsor offers the HRA to some, but not all, former employees within a class of employees. However, if a plan sponsor offers the HRA to one or more former employees within a class of employees, the HRA must be offered to the former employee(s) on the same terms as to all other employees within the class, except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section. For purposes of this section, a former employee is an employee who is no longer performing services for the employer.
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<P>(v) <I>New employees or new dependents.</I> For a participant whose coverage under the HRA becomes effective later than the first day of the plan year, the HRA does not fail to be treated as being provided on the same terms to the participant if the maximum dollar amount made available to the participant either is the same as the maximum dollar amount made available to participants in the participant's class of employees whose coverage became effective as of the first day of the plan year, or is pro-rated consistent with the portion of the plan year in which the participant is covered by the HRA. Similarly, if the HRA provides for variation in the maximum amount made available to participants in a class of employees based on the number of a participant's dependents covered by the HRA, and the number of a participant's dependents covered by the HRA changes during a plan year (either increasing or decreasing), the HRA does not fail to be treated as being provided on the same terms to the participant if the maximum dollar amount made available to the participant either is the same as the maximum dollar amount made available to participants in the participant's class of employees who had the same number of dependents covered by the HRA on the first day of the plan year or is pro-rated for the remainder of the plan year after the change in the number of the participant's dependents covered by the HRA consistent with the portion of the plan year in which that number of dependents are covered by the HRA. The method the HRA uses to determine amounts made available for participants whose coverage under the HRA is effective later than the first day of the plan year or who have changes in the number of dependents covered by the HRA during a plan year must be the same for all participants in the class of employees and the method must be determined prior to the beginning of the plan year.
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<P>(vi) <I>HSA-compatible HRAs.</I> An HRA does not fail to be treated as provided on the same terms if the plan sponsor offers participants in a class of employees a choice between an HSA-compatible individual coverage HRA and an individual coverage HRA that is not HSA compatible, provided both types of HRAs are offered to all participants in the class of employees on the same terms. For the purpose of this paragraph (c)(3)(vi), an HSA-compatible individual coverage HRA is an individual coverage HRA that is limited in accordance with applicable guidance under section 223 of the Code such that an individual covered by such an HRA is not disqualified from being an eligible individual under section 223 of the Code.
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<P>(vii) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of this paragraph (c)(3), without taking into account the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section. In each example, the HRA is an individual coverage HRA that has a calendar year plan year and may reimburse any medical care expenses, including premiums for individual health insurance coverage (except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(E) of this section (<I>Example 5</I>)). Further, in each example, assume the HRA is offered on the same terms, except as otherwise specified in the example and that no participants or dependents are Medicare beneficiaries.
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<P>(A) <I>Example 1: Carryover amounts permitted</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020 and again for 2021, Plan Sponsor A offers all employees $7,000 each in an HRA, and the HRA provides that amounts that are unused at the end of a plan year may be carried over to the next plan year, with no restrictions on the use of the carryover amounts compared to the use of newly available amounts. At the end of 2020, some employees have used all of the funds in their HRAs, while other employees have balances remaining that range from $500 to $1,750 that are carried over to 2021 for those employees.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(A) (<I>Example 1</I>) for 2020 because Plan Sponsor A offers all employees the same amount, $7,000, in an HRA for that year. The same terms requirement is also satisfied for 2021 because Plan Sponsor A again offers all employees the same amount for that year, and the carryover amounts that some employees have are disregarded in applying the same terms requirement because the amount of the carryover for each employee (that employee's balance) and each employee's access to the carryover amounts is based on the same terms.
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<P>(B) <I>Example 2: Employees hired after the first day of the plan year</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor B offers all employees employed on January 1, 2020, $7,000 each in an HRA for the plan year. Employees hired after January 1, 2020, are eligible to enroll in the HRA with an effective date of the first day of the month following their date of hire, as long as they have enrolled in individual health insurance coverage effective on or before that date, and the amount offered to these employees is pro-rated based on the number of months remaining in the plan year, including the month which includes their coverage effective date.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(B) (<I>Example 2</I>) for 2020 because Plan Sponsor B offers all employees employed on the first day of the plan year the same amount, $7,000, in an HRA for that plan year and all employees hired after January 1, 2020, a pro-rata amount based on the portion of the plan year during which they are enrolled in the HRA.
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<P>(C) <I>Example 3: HRA amounts offered vary based on number of dependents</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor C offers its employees the following amounts in an HRA: $1,500, if the employee is the only individual covered by the HRA; $3,500, if the employee and one dependent are covered by the HRA; and $5,000, if the employee and more than one dependent are covered by the HRA.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(C) (<I>Example 3</I>) because paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A) of this section allows the maximum dollar amount made available in an HRA to increase as the number of the participant's dependents covered by the HRA increases and Plan Sponsor C makes the same amount available to each employee with the same number of dependents covered by the HRA.
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<P>(D) <I>Example 4: HRA amounts offered vary based on increases in employees' ages</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor D offers its employees the following amounts in an HRA: $1,000 each for employees age 25 to 35; $2,000 each for employees age 36 to 45; $2,500 each for employees age 46 to 55; and $4,000 each for employees over age 55.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is not satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D) (<I>Example 4</I>) because the terms of the HRA provide the oldest participants (those over age 55) with more than three times the amount made available to the youngest participants (those ages 25 to 35), in violation of paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
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<P>(E) <I>Example 5: Application of same terms requirement to premium only HRA</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor E offers its employees an HRA that reimburses only premiums for individual health insurance coverage, up to $10,000 for the year. Employee A enrolls in individual health insurance coverage with a $5,000 premium for the year and is reimbursed $5,000 from the HRA. Employee B enrolls in individual health insurance coverage with an $8,000 premium for the year and is reimbursed $8,000 from the HRA.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(E) (<I>Example 5</I>) because Plan Sponsor E offers the HRA on the same terms to all employees, notwithstanding that some employees receive a greater amount of reimbursement than others based on the cost of the individual health insurance coverage selected by the employee.
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<P>(4) <I>Opt out.</I> Under the terms of the HRA, a participant who is otherwise eligible for coverage must be permitted to opt out of and waive future reimbursements on behalf of the participant and all dependents eligible for the HRA from the HRA once, and only once, with respect to each plan year. The HRA may establish timeframes for enrollment in (and opting out of) the HRA but, in general, the opportunity to opt out must be provided in advance of the first day of the plan year. For participants who become eligible to participate in the HRA on a date other than the first day of the plan year (or who become eligible fewer than 90 days prior to the plan year or for whom the notice under paragraph (c)(6) of this section is required to be provided as set forth in paragraph (c)(6)(i)(C) of this section), or for a dependent who newly becomes eligible during the plan year, this opportunity must be provided during the applicable HRA enrollment period(s) established by the HRA for these individuals. Further, under the terms of the HRA, upon termination of employment, for a participant who is covered by the HRA, either the remaining amounts in the HRA must be forfeited or the participant must be permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA on behalf of the participant and all dependents covered by the HRA.
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<P>(5) <I>Reasonable procedures for coverage substantiation</I>—(i) <I>Substantiation of individual health insurance coverage for the plan year.</I> The HRA must implement, and comply with, reasonable procedures to substantiate that participants and each dependent covered by the HRA are, or will be, enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for the plan year (or for the portion of the plan year the individual is covered by the HRA, if applicable). The HRA may establish the date by which this substantiation must be provided, but, in general, the date may be no later than the first day of the plan year. However, for a participant who is not eligible to participate in the HRA on the first day of the plan year (or who becomes eligible fewer than 90 days prior to the plan year or for whom the notice under paragraph (c)(6) of this section is required to be provided as set forth in paragraph (c)(6)(i)(C) of this section), the HRA may establish the date by which this substantiation must be provided, but that date may be no later than the date the HRA coverage begins. Similarly, for a participant who adds a new dependent during the plan year, the HRA may establish the date by which this substantiation must be provided, but the date may be no later than the date the HRA coverage for the new dependent begins; however, to the extent the dependent's coverage under the HRA is effective retroactively, the HRA may establish a reasonable time by which this substantiation is required, but must require it be provided before the HRA will reimburse any medical care expense for the newly added dependent. The reasonable procedures an HRA may use to implement the substantiation requirement set forth in this paragraph (c)(5)(i) may include a requirement that a participant substantiate enrollment by providing either:
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<P>(A) A document from a third party (for example, the issuer or an Exchange) showing that the participant and any dependents covered by the HRA are, or will be, enrolled in individual health insurance coverage (for example, an insurance card or an explanation of benefits document pertaining to the relevant time period or documentation from the Exchange showing that the individual has completed the application and plan selection); or
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<P>(B) An attestation by the participant stating that the participant and dependent(s) covered by the HRA are, or will be, enrolled in individual health insurance coverage, the date coverage began or will begin, and the name of the provider of the coverage.
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<P>(ii) <I>Coverage substantiation with each request for reimbursement of medical care expenses.</I> Following the initial substantiation of coverage, with each new request for reimbursement of an incurred medical care expense for the same plan year, the HRA may not reimburse a participant for any medical care expenses unless, prior to each reimbursement, the participant substantiates that the individual on whose behalf medical care expenses are requested to be reimbursed continues to be enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for the month during which the medical care expenses were incurred. The HRA must implement, and comply with, reasonable procedures to satisfy this requirement. This substantiation may be in the form of a written attestation by the participant, which may be part of the form used to request reimbursement, or a document from a third party (for example, a health insurance issuer) showing that the participant or the dependent, if applicable, are or were enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for the applicable month.
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<P>(iii) <I>Reliance on substantiation.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(5), an HRA may rely on the participant's documentation or attestation unless the HRA, its plan sponsor, or any other entity acting in an official capacity on behalf of the HRA has actual knowledge that any individual covered by the HRA is not, or will not be, enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for the plan year (or applicable portion of the plan year) or the month, as applicable.
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<P>(6) <I>Notice requirement</I>—(i) <I>Timing.</I> The HRA must provide a written notice to each participant:
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<P>(A) At least 90 calendar days before the beginning of each plan year for any participant who is not described in either paragraph (c)(6)(i)(B) or (C) of this section;
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<P>(B) No later than the date on which the HRA may first take effect for the participant, for any participant who is not eligible to participate at the beginning of the plan year (or is not eligible to participate at the time the notice is provided at least 90 calendar days before the beginning of the plan year pursuant to paragraph (c)(6)(i)(A) of this section); or
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<P>(C) No later than the date on which the HRA may first take effect for the participant, for any participant who is employed by an employer that is first established less than 120 days before the beginning of the first plan year of the HRA; this paragraph (c)(6)(i)(C) applies only with respect to the first plan year of the HRA.
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<P>(ii) <I>Content.</I> The notice must include all the information described in this paragraph (c)(6)(ii) (and may include any additional information that does not conflict with that information). To the extent that the Departments of the Treasury, Labor and Health and Human Services provide model notice language for certain elements of this required notice, HRAs are permitted, but not required, to use the model language.
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<P>(A) A description of the terms of the HRA, including the maximum dollar amount available for each participant (including the self-only HRA amount available for the plan year (or the maximum dollar amount available for the plan year if the HRA provides for reimbursements up to a single dollar amount regardless of whether a participant has self-only or other than self-only coverage)), any rules regarding the proration of the maximum dollar amount applicable to any participant (or dependent, if applicable) who is not eligible to participate in the HRA for the entire plan year, whether (and which of) the participant's dependents are eligible for the HRA, a statement that there are different kinds of HRAs (including a qualified small employer health reimbursement arrangement) and the HRA being offered is an individual coverage HRA, a statement that the HRA requires the participant and any covered dependents to be enrolled in individual health insurance coverage (or Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C, if applicable), a statement that the coverage in which the participant and any covered dependents must be enrolled cannot be short-term, limited-duration insurance or consist solely of excepted benefits, a statement that individual health insurance coverage in which the participant and any covered dependents are enrolled is not subject to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act if the conditions under § 2510.3-1(l) of this chapter are satisfied, the date as of which coverage under the HRA may first become effective (both for participants whose coverage will become effective on the first day of the plan year and for participants whose HRA coverage may become effective at a later date), the dates on which the HRA plan year begins and ends, and the dates on which the amounts newly made available under the HRA will be made available.
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<P>(B) A statement of the right of the participant to opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA, as set forth under paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
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<P>(C) A description of the potential availability of the premium tax credit if the participant opts out of and waives future reimbursements from the HRA and the HRA is not affordable for one or more months under 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(5), a statement that even if the participant opts out of and waives future reimbursements from an HRA, the offer will prohibit the participant (and, potentially, the participant's dependents) from receiving a premium tax credit for the participant's coverage (or the dependent's coverage, if applicable) on an Exchange for any month that the HRA is affordable under 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(5), a statement describing how the participant may find assistance with determining affordability, a statement that, if the participant is a former employee, the offer of the HRA does not render the participant (or the participant's dependents, if applicable) ineligible for the premium tax credit regardless of whether it is affordable under 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(5), and a statement that if the participant or dependent is enrolled in Medicare, he or she is ineligible for the premium tax credit without regard to the offer or acceptance of the HRA;
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<P>(D) A statement that if the participant accepts the HRA, the participant may not claim a premium tax credit for the participant's Exchange coverage for any month the HRA may be used to reimburse medical care expenses of the participant, and a premium tax credit may not be claimed for the Exchange coverage of the participant's dependents for any month the HRA may be used to reimburse medical care expenses of the dependents.
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<P>(E) A statement that the participant must inform any Exchange to which the participant applies for advance payments of the premium tax credit of the availability of the HRA; the self-only HRA amount available for the HRA plan year (or the maximum dollar amount available for the plan year if the HRA provides for reimbursements up to a single dollar amount regardless of whether a participant has self-only or other than self-only coverage) as set forth in the written notice in accordance with paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(A) of this section; whether the HRA is also available to the participant's dependents and if so, which ones; the date as of which coverage under the HRA may first become effective; the date on which the plan year begins and the date on which it ends; and whether the participant is a current employee or former employee.
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<P>(F) A statement that the participant should retain the written notice because it may be needed to determine whether the participant is allowed a premium tax credit on the participant's individual income tax return.
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<P>(G) A statement that the HRA may not reimburse any medical care expense unless the substantiation requirement set forth in paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section is satisfied and a statement that the participant must also provide the substantiation required by paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.
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<P>(H) A statement that if the individual health insurance coverage (or coverage under Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C) of a participant or dependent ceases, the HRA will not reimburse any medical care expenses that are incurred by the participant or dependent, as applicable, after the coverage ceases, and a statement that the participant must inform the HRA if the participant's or dependent's individual health insurance coverage (or coverage under Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C) is cancelled or terminated retroactively and the date on which the cancellation or termination is effective.
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<P>(I) The contact information (including a phone number) for an individual or a group of individuals who participants may contact in order to receive additional information regarding the HRA. The plan sponsor may determine which individual or group of individuals is best suited to be the specified contact.
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<P>(J) A statement of availability of a special enrollment period to enroll in or change individual health insurance coverage, through or outside of an Exchange, for the participant and any dependents who newly gain access to the HRA and are not already covered by the HRA.
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<P>(d) <I>Classes of employees</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This paragraph (d) sets forth the rules for determining classes of employees. Paragraph (d)(2) of this section sets forth the specific classes of employees; paragraph (d)(3) of this section sets forth a minimum class size requirement that applies in certain circumstances; paragraph (d)(4) of this section sets forth rules regarding the definition of “full-time employees,” “part-time employees,” and “seasonal employees”; paragraph (d)(5) of this section sets forth a special rule for new hires; and paragraph (d)(6) of this section addresses student premium reduction arrangements. For purposes of this section, including determining classes under this paragraph (d), the employer is the common law employer and is determined without regard to the rules under sections 414(b), (c), (m), and (o) of the Code that would treat the common law employer as a single employer with certain other entities.
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<P>(2) <I>List of classes.</I> Participants may be treated as belonging to a class of employees based on whether they are, or are not, included in the classes described in this paragraph (d)(2). If the individual coverage HRA is offered to former employees, former employees are considered to be in the same class in which they were included immediately before separation from service. Before each plan year, a plan sponsor must determine for the plan year which classes of employees it intends to treat separately and the definition of the relevant class(es) it will apply, to the extent these regulations permit a choice. After the classes and the definitions of the classes are established for a plan year, a plan sponsor may not make changes to the classes of employees or the definitions of those relevant classes with respect to that plan year.
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<P>(i) Full-time employees, defined at the election of the plan sponsor to mean either full-time employees under section 4980H of the Code (and 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(21)) or employees who are not part-time employees (as described in 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(C));
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<P>(ii) Part-time employees, defined at the election of the plan sponsor to mean either employees who are not full-time employees under section 4980H of the Code (and under 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(21) (which defines full-time employee)) or employees who are part-time employees as described in 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(C);
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<P>(iii) Employees who are paid on a salary basis;
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<P>(iv) Non-salaried employees (such as, for example, hourly employees);
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<P>(v) Employees whose primary site of employment is in the same rating area as defined in 45 CFR 147.102(b);
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<P>(vi) Seasonal employees, defined at the election of the plan sponsor to mean seasonal employees as described in either 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(38) or 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(C);
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<P>(vii) Employees included in a unit of employees covered by a particular collective bargaining agreement (or an appropriate related participation agreement) in which the plan sponsor participates (as described in 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(D));
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<P>(viii) Employees who have not satisfied a waiting period for coverage (if the waiting period complies with § 2590.715-2708 of this part);
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<P>(ix) Non-resident aliens with no U.S.-based income (as described in 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(E));
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<P>(x) Employees who, under all the facts and circumstances, are employees of an entity that hired the employees for temporary placement at an entity that is not the common law employer of the employees and that is not treated as a single employer with the entity that hired the employees for temporary placement under section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) of the Code; or
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<P>(xi) A group of participants described as a combination of two or more of the classes of employees set forth in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (x) of this section.
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<P>(3) <I>Minimum class size requirement</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a class of employees is subject to the minimum class size requirement as set forth in this paragraph (d)(3), the class must consist of at least a minimum number of employees (as described in paragraphs (d)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section), otherwise, the plan sponsor may not treat that class as a separate class of employees. Paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section sets forth the circumstances in which the minimum class size requirement applies to a class of employees, paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section sets forth the rules for determining the applicable class size minimum, and paragraph (d)(3)(iv) of this section sets forth the rules for a plan sponsor to determine if it satisfies the minimum class size requirement with respect to a class of employees.
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<P>(ii) <I>Circumstances in which minimum class size requirement applies.</I> (A) The minimum class size requirement applies only if a plan sponsor offers a traditional group health plan to one or more classes of employees and offers an individual coverage HRA to one or more other classes of employees.
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<P>(B) The minimum class size requirement does not apply to a class of employees offered a traditional group health plan or a class of employees offered no coverage.
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<P>(C) The minimum class size requirement applies to a class of employees offered an individual coverage HRA if the class is full-time employees, part-time employees, salaried employees, non-salaried employees, or employees whose primary site of employment is in the same rating area (described in paragraph (d)(2)(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section, respectively, and referred to collectively as the applicable classes or individually as an applicable class), except that:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) In the case of the class of employees whose primary site of employment is in the same rating area (as described in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section), the minimum class size requirement does not apply if the geographic area defining the class is a State or a combination of two or more entire States; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) In the case of the classes of employees that are full-time employees and part-time employees (as described in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, respectively), the minimum class size requirement applies only to those classes (and the classes are only applicable classes) if the employees in one such class are offered a traditional group health plan while the employees in the other such class are offered an individual coverage HRA. In such a case, the minimum class size requirement applies only to the class offered an individual coverage HRA.
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<P>(D) A class of employees offered an individual coverage HRA is also subject to the minimum class size requirement if the class is a class of employees created by combining at least one of the applicable classes (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(C) of this section) with any other class, except that the minimum class size requirement shall not apply to a class that is the result of a combination of one of the applicable classes and a class of employees who have not satisfied a waiting period (as described in paragraph (d)(2)(viii) of this section).
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<P>(iii) <I>Determination of the applicable class size minimum</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> The minimum number of employees that must be in a class of employees that is subject to the minimum class size requirement (the applicable class size minimum) is determined prior to the beginning of the plan year for each plan year of the individual coverage HRA and is:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) 10, for an employer with fewer than 100 employees;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) A number, rounded down to a whole number, equal to 10 percent of the total number of employees, for an employer with 100 to 200 employees; and
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<P>(<I>3</I>) 20, for an employer with more than 200 employees.
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<P>(B) <I>Determining employer size.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3), the number of employees of an employer is determined in advance of the plan year of the HRA based on the number of employees that the employer reasonably expects to employ on the first day of the plan year.
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<P>(iv) <I>Determining if a class satisfies the applicable class size minimum.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3), whether a class of employees satisfies the applicable class size minimum for a plan year of the individual coverage HRA is based on the number of employees in the class offered the individual coverage HRA as of the first day of the plan year. Therefore, this determination is not based on the number of employees that actually enroll in the individual coverage HRA, and this determination is not affected by changes in the number of employees in the class during the plan year.
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<P>(4) <I>Consistency requirement.</I> For any plan year, a plan sponsor may define “full-time employee,” “part-time employee,” and “seasonal employee” in accordance with the relevant provisions of sections 105(h) or 4980H of the Code, as set forth in paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (ii), and (vi) of this section, if:
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<P>(i) To the extent applicable under the HRA for the plan year, each of the three classes of employees are defined in accordance with section 105(h) of the Code or each of the three classes of employees are defined in accordance with section 4980H of the Code for the plan year; and
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<P>(ii) The HRA plan document sets forth the applicable definitions prior to the beginning of the plan year to which the definitions will apply.
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<P>(5) <I>Special rule for new hires</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, a plan sponsor that offers a traditional group health plan to a class of employees may prospectively offer the employees in that class of employees who are hired on or after a certain future date (the new hire date) an individual coverage HRA (with this group of employees referred to as the new hire subclass), while continuing to offer employees in that class of employees who are hired before the new hire date a traditional group health plan (with the rule set forth in this sentence referred to as the special rule for new hires). For the new hire subclass, the individual coverage HRA must be offered on the same terms to all participants within the subclass, in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section. In accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a plan sponsor may not offer a choice between an individual coverage HRA or a traditional group health plan to any employee in the new hire subclass or to any employee in the class who is not a member of the new hire subclass.
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<P>(ii) <I>New hire date.</I> A plan sponsor may set the new hire date for a class of employees prospectively as any date on or after January 1, 2020. A plan sponsor may set different new hire dates prospectively for separate classes of employees.
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<P>(iii) <I>Discontinuation of use of special rule for new hires and multiple applications of the special rule for new hires.</I> A plan sponsor may discontinue use of the special rule for new hires at any time for any class of employees. In that case, the new hire subclass is no longer treated as a separate subclass of employees. In the event a plan sponsor applies the special rule for new hires to a class of employees and later discontinues use of the rule to the class of employees, the plan sponsor may later apply the rule if the application of the rule would be permitted under the rules for initial application of the special rule for new hires. If a plan sponsor, in accordance with the requirements for the special rule for new hires, applies the rule to a class of employees subsequent to any prior application and discontinuance of the rule to that class, the new hire date must be prospective.
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<P>(iv) <I>Application of the minimum class size requirement under the special rule for new hires.</I> The minimum class size requirement set forth in paragraph (d)(3) of this section does not apply to the new hire subclass. However, if a plan sponsor subdivides the new hire subclass subsequent to creating the new hire subclass, the minimum class size requirement set forth in paragraph (d)(3) of this section applies to any class of employees created by subdividing the new hire subclass, if the minimum class size requirement otherwise applies.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Student employees offered student premium reduction arrangements.</I> For purposes of this section, if an institution of higher education (as defined in the Higher Education Act of 1965) offers a student employee a student premium reduction arrangement, the employee is not considered to be part of the class of employees to which the employee would otherwise belong. For the purpose of this paragraph (d)(6) and paragraph (f)(1) of this section, a student premium reduction arrangement is defined as any program offered by an institution of higher education under which the cost of insured or self-insured student health coverage is reduced for certain students through a credit, offset, reimbursement, stipend or similar arrangement. A student employee offered a student premium reduction arrangement is also not counted for purposes of determining the applicable class size minimum under paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section. If a student employee is not offered a student premium reduction arrangement (including if the student employee is offered an individual coverage HRA instead), the student employee is considered to be part of the class of employees to which the employee otherwise belongs and is counted for purposes of determining the applicable class size minimum under paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Integration of Individual Coverage HRAs with Medicare</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> An individual coverage HRA will be considered to be integrated with Medicare (and deemed to comply with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713 and § 2590.715-2711(d)(4) of this part), provided that the conditions of paragraph (c) of this section are satisfied, subject to paragraph (e)(2) of this section. Nothing in this section requires that a participant and his or her dependents all have the same type of coverage; therefore, an individual coverage HRA may be integrated with Medicare for some individuals and with individual health insurance coverage for others, including, for example, a participant enrolled in Medicare Part A and B or Part C and his or her dependents enrolled in individual health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application of conditions in paragraph (c) of this section</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, in applying the conditions of paragraph (c) of this section with respect to integration with Medicare, a reference to “individual health insurance coverage” is deemed to refer to coverage under Medicare Part A and B or Part C. References in this section to integration of an HRA with Medicare refer to integration of an individual coverage HRA with Medicare Part A and B or Part C.
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<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> For purposes of the statement regarding ERISA under the notice content element under paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(A) of this section and the statement regarding the availability of a special enrollment period under the notice content element under paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(J) of this section, the term individual health insurance coverage means only individual health insurance coverage and does not also mean coverage under Medicare Part A and B or Part C.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Examples regarding classes and the minimum class size requirement.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, taking into account the provisions of paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) and (d)(6) of this section. In each example, the HRA is an individual coverage HRA that may reimburse any medical care expenses, including premiums for individual health insurance coverage and it is assumed that no participants or dependents are Medicare beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1: Collectively bargained employees offered traditional group health plan; non-collectively bargained employees offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor A offers its employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement a traditional group health plan (as required by the collective bargaining agreement) and all other employees (non-collectively bargained employees) each an HRA on the same terms.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(i) (<I>Example 1</I>) because collectively bargained and non-collectively bargained employees may be treated as different classes of employees, one of which may be offered a traditional group health plan and the other of which may be offered an individual coverage HRA, and Plan Sponsor A offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants who are non-collectively bargained employees. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(i) (<I>Example 1</I>) even though Plan Sponsor A offers one class a traditional group health plan and one class the HRA because collectively bargained and non-collectively bargained employees are not applicable classes that are subject to the minimum class size requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2: Collectively bargained employees in one unit offered traditional group health plan and in another unit offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor B offers its employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement with Local 100 a traditional group health plan (as required by the collective bargaining agreement), and its employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement with Local 200 each an HRA on the same terms (as required by the collective bargaining agreement).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(ii) (<I>Example 2</I>) because the employees covered by the collective bargaining agreements with the two separate bargaining units (Local 100 and Local 200) may be treated as two different classes of employees and Plan Sponsor B offers an HRA on the same terms to the participants covered by the agreement with Local 200. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(ii) (<I>Example 2</I>) even though Plan Sponsor B offers the Local 100 employees a traditional group health plan and the Local 200 employees an HRA because collectively bargained employees are not applicable classes that are subject to the minimum class size requirement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3: Employees in a waiting period offered no coverage; other employees offered an HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor C offers its employees who have completed a waiting period that complies with the requirements for waiting periods in § 2590.715-2708 of this part each an HRA on the same terms and does not offer coverage to its employees who have not completed the waiting period.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(iii) (<I>Example 3</I>) because employees who have completed a waiting period and employees who have not completed a waiting period may be treated as different classes and Plan Sponsor C offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants who have completed the waiting period. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(iii) (<I>Example 3</I>) because Plan Sponsor C does not offer at least one class of employees a traditional group health plan and because the class of employees who have not completed a waiting period and the class of employees who have completed a waiting period are not applicable classes that are subject to the minimum class size requirement.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4: Employees in a waiting period offered an HRA; other employees offered a traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor D offers its employees who have completed a waiting period that complies with the requirements for waiting periods in § 2590.715-2708 of this part a traditional group health plan and offers its employees who have not completed the waiting period each an HRA on the same terms.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(iv) (<I>Example 4</I>) because employees who have completed a waiting period and employees who have not completed a waiting period may be treated as different classes and Plan Sponsor D offers an HRA on the same terms to all participants who have not completed the waiting period. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(iv) (<I>Example 4</I>) even though Plan Sponsor D offers employees who have completed a waiting period a traditional group health plan and employees who have not completed a waiting period an HRA because the class of employees who have not completed a waiting period is not an applicable class that is subject to the minimum class size requirement (nor is the class made up of employees who have completed the waiting period).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Example 5: Staffing firm employees temporarily placed with customers offered an HRA; other employees offered a traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor E is a staffing firm that places certain of its employees on temporary assignments with customers that are not the common law employers of Plan Sponsor E's employees or treated as a single employer with Plan Sponsor E under section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) of the Code (unrelated entities); other employees work in Plan Sponsor E's office managing the staffing business (non-temporary employees). For 2020, Plan Sponsor E offers its employees who are on temporary assignments with customers each an HRA on the same terms. All other employees are offered a traditional group health plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(v) (<I>Example 5</I>) because the employees who are hired for temporary placement at an unrelated entity and non-temporary employees of Plan Sponsor E may be treated as different classes of employees and Plan Sponsor E offers an HRA on the same terms to all participants temporarily placed with customers. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(v) (<I>Example 5</I>) even though Plan Sponsor E offers one class a traditional group health plan and one class the HRA because the class of employees hired for temporary placement is not an applicable class that is subject to the minimum class size requirement (nor is the class made up of non-temporary employees).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Example 6: Staffing firm employees temporarily placed with customers in rating area 1 offered an HRA; other employees offered a traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section (<I>Example 5</I>), except that Plan Sponsor E has work sites in rating area 1 and rating area 2, and it offers its 10 employees on temporary assignments with a work site in rating area 1 an HRA on the same terms. Plan Sponsor E has 200 other employees in rating areas 1 and 2, including its non-temporary employees in rating areas 1 and 2 and its employees on temporary assignments with a work site in rating area 2, all of whom are offered a traditional group health plan.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(vi) (<I>Example 6</I>) because, even though the employees who are temporarily placed with customers generally may be treated as employees of a different class, because Plan Sponsor E is also using a rating area to identify the class offered the HRA (which is an applicable class for the minimum class size requirement) and is offering one class the HRA and another class the traditional group health plan, the minimum class size requirement applies to the class offered the HRA, and the class offered the HRA fails to satisfy the minimum class size requirement. Because Plan Sponsor E employs 210 employees, the applicable class size minimum is 20, and the HRA is offered to only 10 employees.
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<P>(vii) <I>Example 7: Employees in State 1 offered traditional group health plan; employees in State 2 offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor F employs 45 employees whose work site is in State 1 and 7 employees whose primary site of employment is in State 2. For 2020, Plan Sponsor F offers its 45 employees in State 1 a traditional group health plan, and each of its 7 employees in State 2 an HRA on the same terms.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(vii) (<I>Example 7</I>) because Plan Sponsor F offers the HRA on the same terms to all employees with a work site in State 2 and that class is a permissible class under paragraph (d) of this section. This is because employees whose work sites are in different rating areas may be considered different classes and a plan sponsor may create a class of employees by combining classes of employees, including by combining employees whose work site is in one rating area with employees whose work site is in a different rating area, or by combining all employees whose work site is in a state. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(vii) (<I>Example 7</I>) because the minimum class size requirement does not apply if the geographic area defining a class of employees is a state or a combination of two or more entire states.
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<P>(viii) <I>Example 8: Full-time seasonal employees offered HRA; all other full-time employees offered traditional group health plan; part-time employees offered no coverage</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor G employs 6 full-time seasonal employees, 75 full-time employees who are not seasonal employees, and 5 part-time employees. For 2020, Plan Sponsor G offers each of its 6 full-time seasonal employees an HRA on the same terms, its 75 full-time employees who are not seasonal employees a traditional group health plan, and offers no coverage to its 5 part-time employees.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(viii) (<I>Example 8</I>) because full-time seasonal employees and full-time employees who are not seasonal employees may be considered different classes and Plan Sponsor G offers the HRA on the same terms to all full-time seasonal employees. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to the class offered the HRA in this paragraph (f)(1)(viii) (<I>Example 8</I>) because part-time employees are not offered coverage and full-time employees are not an applicable class subject to the minimum class size requirement if part-time employees are not offered coverage.
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<P>(ix) <I>Example 9: Full-time employees in rating area 1 offered traditional group health plan; full-time employees in rating area 2 offered HRA; part-time employees offered no coverage</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor H employs 17 full-time employees and 10 part-time employees whose work site is in rating area 1 and 552 full-time employees whose work site is in rating area 2. For 2020, Plan Sponsor H offers its 17 full-time employees in rating area 1 a traditional group health plan and each of its 552 full-time employees in rating area 2 an HRA on the same terms. Plan Sponsor H offers no coverage to its 10 part-time employees in rating area 1. Plan Sponsor H reasonably expects to employ 569 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(ix) (<I>Example 9</I>) because employees whose work sites are in different rating areas may be considered different classes and Plan Sponsor H offers the HRA on the same terms to all full-time employees in rating area 2. The minimum class size requirement applies to the class offered the HRA in this paragraph (f)(1)(ix) (<I>Example 9</I>) because the minimum class size requirement applies to a class based on a geographic area unless the geographic area is a state or a combination of two or more entire states. However, the minimum class size requirement applies only to the class offered the HRA, and Plan Sponsor H offers the HRA to the 552 full-time employees in rating area 2 on the first day of the plan year, satisfying the minimum class size requirement (because the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor H is 20).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Example 10: Employees in rating area 1 offered HRA; employees in rating area 2 offered traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(1)(ix) of this section (<I>Example 9</I>) except that Plan Sponsor H offers its 17 full-time employees in rating area 1 the HRA and offers its 552 full-time employees in rating area 2 the traditional group health plan.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(x) (<I>Example 10</I>) because, even though employees whose work sites are in different rating areas generally may be considered different classes and Plan Sponsor H offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants in rating area 1, the HRA fails to satisfy the minimum class size requirement. Specifically, the minimum class size requirement applies to this paragraph (f)(1)(x) (<I>Example 10</I>) because the minimum class size requirement applies to a class based on a geographic area unless the geographic area is a state or a combination of two or more entire states. Further, the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor H is 20 employees, and the HRA is only offered to the 17 full-time employees in rating area 1 on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Example 11: Employees in State 1 and rating area 1 of State 2 offered HRA; employees in all other rating areas of State 2 offered traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor I offers an HRA on the same terms to a total of 200 employees it employs with work sites in State 1 and in rating area 1 of State 2. Plan Sponsor I offers a traditional group health plan to its 150 employees with work sites in other rating areas in State 2. Plan Sponsor I reasonably expects to employ 350 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xi) (<I>Example 11</I>). Plan Sponsor I may treat all of the employees with a work site in State 1 and rating area 1 of State 2 as a class of employees because employees whose work sites are in different rating areas may be considered different classes and a plan sponsor may create a class of employees by combining classes of employees, including by combining employees whose work site is in one rating area with a class of employees whose work site is in a different rating area. The minimum class size requirement applies to the class of employees offered the HRA (made up of employees in State 1 and in rating area 1 of State 2) because the minimum class size requirement applies to a class based on a geographic area unless the geographic area is a state or a combination of two or more entire states. In this case, the class is made up of a state plus a rating area which is not the entire state. However, this class satisfies the minimum class size requirement because the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor I is 20, and Plan Sponsor I offered the HRA to 200 employees on the first day of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Example 12: Salaried employees offered a traditional group health plan; hourly employees offered an HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor J has 163 salaried employees and 14 hourly employees. For 2020, Plan Sponsor J offers its 163 salaried employees a traditional group health plan and each of its 14 hourly employees an HRA on the same terms. Plan Sponsor J reasonably expects to employ 177 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xii) (<I>Example 12</I>) because, even though salaried and hourly employees generally may be considered different classes and Plan Sponsor J offers the HRA on the same terms to all hourly employees, the HRA fails to satisfy the minimum class size requirement. Specifically, the minimum class size requirement applies in this paragraph (f)(1)(xii) (<I>Example 12)</I> because employees who are paid on a salaried basis and employees who are not paid on a salaried basis are applicable classes subject to the minimum class size requirement. Because Plan Sponsor J reasonably expects to employ between 100 and 200 employees on the first day of the plan year, the applicable class size minimum is 10 percent, rounded down to a whole number. Ten percent of 177 total employees, rounded down to a whole number is 17, and the HRA is offered to only 14 hourly employees.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Example 13: Part-time employees and full-time employees offered different HRAs; no traditional group health plan offered</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor K has 50 full-time employees and 7 part-time employees. For 2020, Plan Sponsor K offers its 50 full-time employees $2,000 each in an HRA otherwise provided on the same terms and each of its 7 part-time employees $500 in an HRA otherwise provided on the same terms. Plan Sponsor K reasonably expects to employ 57 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xiii) (<I>Example 13</I>) because full-time employees and part-time employees may be treated as different classes and Plan Sponsor K offers an HRA on the same terms to all the participants in each class. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to either the full-time class or the part-time class because (although in certain circumstances the minimum class size requirement applies to a class of full-time employees and a class of part-time employees) Plan Sponsor K does not offer any class of employees a traditional group health plan, and the minimum class size requirement applies only when, among other things, at least one class of employees is offered a traditional group health plan while another class is offered an HRA.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Example 14: No employees offered an HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same facts as in paragraph (f)(1)(xiii) of this section (<I>Example 13</I>), except that Plan Sponsor K offers its full-time employees a traditional group health plan and does not offer any group health plan (either a traditional group health plan or an HRA) to its part-time employees.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The regulations set forth under this section do not apply to Plan Sponsor K because Plan Sponsor K does not offer an individual coverage HRA to any employee.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Example 15: Full-time employees offered traditional group health plan; part-time employees offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(1)(xiii) of this section (<I>Example 13</I>), except that Plan Sponsor K offers its full-time employees a traditional group health plan and offers each of its part-time employees $500 in an HRA and otherwise on the same terms.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xv) (<I>Example 15</I>) because, even though the full-time employees and the part-time employees generally may be treated as different classes, in this paragraph (f)(1)(xv) (<I>Example 15</I>), the minimum class size requirement applies to the part-time employees, and it is not satisfied. Specifically, the minimum class size requirement applies to the part-time employees because that requirement applies to an applicable class offered an HRA when one class is offered a traditional group health plan while another class is offered an HRA, and to the part-time and full-time employee classes when one of those classes is offered a traditional group health plan while the other is offered an HRA. Because Plan Sponsor K reasonably expects to employ fewer than 100 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year, the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor K is 10 employees, but Plan Sponsor K offered the HRA only to its 7 part-time employees.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Example 16: Satisfying minimum class size requirement based on employees offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor L employs 78 full-time employees and 12 part-time employees. For 2020, Plan Sponsor L offers its 78 full-time employees a traditional group health plan and each of its 12 part-times employees an HRA on the same terms. Only 6 part-time employees enroll in the HRA. Plan Sponsor L reasonably expects to employ fewer than 100 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xvi) (<I>Example 16</I>) because full-time employees and part-time employees may be treated as different classes, Plan Sponsor L offers an HRA on the same terms to all the participants in the part-time class, and the minimum class size requirement is satisfied. Specifically, whether a class of employees satisfies the applicable class size minimum is determined as of the first day of the plan year based on the number of employees in a class that is offered an HRA, not on the number of employees who enroll in the HRA. The applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor L is 10 employees, and Plan Sponsor L offered the HRA to its 12 part-time employees.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Example 17: Student employees offered student premium reduction arrangements and same terms requirement</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor M is an institution of higher education that offers each of its part-time employees an HRA on the same terms, except that it offers its part-time employees who are student employees a student premium reduction arrangement, and the student premium reduction arrangement provides different amounts to different part-time student employees.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xvii) (<I>Example 17</I>) because Plan Sponsor M offers the HRA on the same terms to its part-time employees who are not students and because the part-time student employees offered a student premium reduction arrangement (and their varying HRAs) are not taken into account as part-time employees for purposes of determining whether a class of employees is offered an HRA on the same terms.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Example 18: Student employees offered student premium reduction arrangements and minimum class size requirement</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor N is an institution of higher education with 25 hourly employees. Plan Sponsor N offers 15 of its hourly employees, who are student employees, a student premium reduction arrangement and it wants to offer its other 10 hourly employees an HRA for 2022. Plan Sponsor N offers its salaried employees a traditional group health plan. Plan Sponsor N reasonably expects to have 250 employees on the first day of the 2022 HRA plan year, 15 of which will have offers of student premium reduction arrangements.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xviii) (<I>Example 18</I>). The minimum class size requirement will apply to the class of hourly employees to which Plan Sponsor N wants to offer the HRA because Plan Sponsor N offers a class of employees a traditional group health plan and another class the HRA, and the minimum class size requirement generally applies to a class of hourly employees offered an HRA. Plan Sponsor N's applicable class size minimum is 20 because Plan Sponsor N reasonably expects to employ 235 employees on the first day of the plan year (250 employees minus 15 employees receiving a student premium reduction arrangement). Plan Sponsor N may not offer the HRA to its hourly employees because the 10 employees offered the HRA as of the first day of the plan year does not satisfy the applicable class size minimum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples regarding special rule for new hires.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, taking into account the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section, in particular the special rule for new hires under paragraph (d)(5) of this section. In each example, the HRA is an individual coverage HRA that has a calendar year plan year and may reimburse any medical care expenses, including premiums for individual health insurance coverage. The examples also assume that no participants or dependents are Medicare beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1: Application of special rule for new hires to all employees</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2021, Plan Sponsor A offers all employees a traditional group health plan. For 2022, Plan Sponsor A offers all employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, an HRA on the same terms and continues to offer the traditional group health plan to employees hired before that date. On the first day of the 2022 plan year, Plan Sponsor A has 2 new hires who are offered the HRA.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(i) (<I>Example 1</I>) because, under the special rule for new hires in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the employees newly hired on and after January 1, 2022, may be treated as a new hire subclass, Plan Sponsor A offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants in the new hire subclass, and the minimum class size requirement does not apply to the new hire subclass.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2: Application of special rule for new hires to full-time employees</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2021, Plan Sponsor B offers a traditional group health plan to its full-time employees and does not offer any coverage to its part-time employees. For 2022, Plan Sponsor B offers full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, an HRA on the same terms, continues to offer its full-time employees hired before that date a traditional group health plan, and continues to offer no coverage to its part-time employees. On the first day of the 2022 plan year, Plan Sponsor B has 2 new hire, full-time employees who are offered the HRA.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(ii) (<I>Example 2</I>) because, under the special rule for new hires in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the full-time employees newly hired on and after January 1, 2022, may be treated as a new hire subclass and Plan Sponsor B offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants in the new hire subclass. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to the new hire subclass.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3: Special rule for new hires impermissibly applied retroactively</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2025, Plan Sponsor C offers a traditional group health plan to its full-time employees. For 2026, Plan Sponsor C wants to offer an HRA to its full-time employees hired on and after January 1, 2023, while continuing to offer a traditional group health plan to its full-time employees hired before January 1, 2023.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The special rule for new hires under paragraph (d)(5) of this section does not apply in this paragraph (f)(2)(iii) (<I>Example 3</I>) because the rule must be applied prospectively. That is, Plan Sponsor C may not, in 2026, choose to apply the special rule for new hires retroactive to 2023. If Plan Sponsor C were to offer an HRA in this way, it would fail to satisfy the conditions under paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section because the new hire subclass would not be treated as a subclass for purposes of applying those rules and, therefore, all full-time employees would be treated as one class to which either a traditional group health plan or an HRA could be offered, but not both.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4: Permissible second application of the special rule for new hires to the same class of employees</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2021, Plan Sponsor D offers all of its full-time employees a traditional group health plan. For 2022, Plan Sponsor D applies the special rule for new hires and offers an HRA on the same terms to all employees hired on and after January 1, 2022, and continues to offer a traditional group health plan to full-time employees hired before that date. For 2025, Plan Sponsor D discontinues use of the special rule for new hires, and again offers all full-time employees a traditional group health plan. In 2030, Plan Sponsor D decides to apply the special rule for new hires to the full-time employee class again, offering an HRA to all full-time employees hired on and after January 1, 2030, on the same terms, while continuing to offer employees hired before that date a traditional group health plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> Plan Sponsor D has permissibly applied the special rule for new hires and is in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Example 5: Impermissible second application of the special rule for new hires to the same class of employees</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section (<I>Example 4</I>), except that for 2025, Plan Sponsor D discontinues use of the special rule for new hires by offering all full-time employees an HRA on the same terms. Further, for 2030, Plan Sponsor D wants to continue to offer an HRA on the same terms to all full-time employees hired before January 1, 2030, and to offer all full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2030, an HRA in a different amount.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> Plan Sponsor D may not apply the special rule for new hires for 2030 to the class of full-time employees being offered an HRA because the special rule for new hires may only be applied to a class that is being offered a traditional group health plan.
</P>
<P>(vi)<I> Example 6: New full-time employees offered different HRAs in different rating areas</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor E has work sites in rating area 1, rating area 2, and rating area 3. For 2021, Plan Sponsor E offers its full-time employees a traditional group health plan. For 2022, Plan Sponsor E offers its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, in rating area 1 an HRA of $3,000, its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, in rating area 2 an HRA of $5,000, and its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, in rating area 3 an HRA of $7,000. Within each class offered an HRA, Plan Sponsor E offers the HRA on the same terms. Plan Sponsor E offers its full-time employees hired prior to January 1, 2022, in each of those classes a traditional group health plan. On the first day of the 2022 plan year, there is one new hire, full-time employee in rating area 1, three new hire, full-time employees in rating area 2, and 10 new hire-full-time employees in rating area 3.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(vi) (<I>Example 6</I>) because, under the special rule for new hires in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the full-time employees in each of the three rating areas newly hired on and after January 1, 2022, may be treated as three new hire subclasses and Plan Sponsor E offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants in the new hire subclasses. Further, the minimum class size requirement does not apply to the new hire subclasses.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Example 7: New full-time employee class subdivided based on rating area</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor F offers its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, an HRA on the same terms and it continues to offer its full-time employees hired before that date a traditional group health plan. Plan Sponsor F offers no coverage to its part-time employees. For the 2025 plan year, Plan Sponsor F wants to subdivide the full-time new hire subclass so that those whose work site is in rating area 1 will be offered the traditional group health plan and those whose work site is in rating area 2 will continue to receive the HRA. Plan Sponsor F reasonably expects to employ 219 employees on January 1, 2025. As of January 1, 2025, Plan Sponsor F has 15 full-time employees whose work site in in rating area 2 and who were hired between January 1, 2022, and January 1, 2025.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(vii) (<I>Example 7</I>) because the new hire subclass has been subdivided in a manner that is subject to the minimum class size requirement, and the class offered the HRA fails to satisfy the minimum class size requirement. Specifically, once the new hire subclass is subdivided the general rules for applying the minimum class size requirement apply to the employees offered the HRA in the new hire subclass. In this case, because the subdivision of the new hire full-time subclass is based on rating areas; a class based on rating areas is an applicable class subject to the minimum class size requirement; and the employees in one rating area are to be offered the HRA, while the employees in the other rating area are offered the traditional group health plan, the minimum class size requirement would apply on and after the date of the subdivision. Further, the minimum class size requirement would not be satisfied, because the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor F would be 20, and only 15 employees in rating area 2 would be offered the HRA.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Example 8: New full-time employee class subdivided based on state</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(2)(vii) of this section (<I>Example 7</I>), except that for the 2025 plan year, Plan Sponsor F intends to subdivide the new hire, full-time class so that those in State 1 will be offered the traditional group health plan and those in State 2 will each be offered an HRA on the same terms.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(viii) (<I>Example 8</I>) because even though the new hire subclass has been subdivided, it has been subdivided in a manner that is not subject to the minimum class size requirement as the subdivision is based on the entire state.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Example 9: New full-time employees and part-time employees offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> In 2021, Plan Sponsor G offers its full-time employees a traditional group health plan and does not offer coverage to its part-time employees. For the 2022 plan year, Plan Sponsor G offers its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, and all of its part-time employees, including those hired before January 1, 2022, and those hired on and after January 1, 2022, an HRA on the same terms, and it continues to offer its full-time employees hired before January 1, 2022, a traditional group health plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The minimum class size requirement applies to the part-time employees offered the HRA in 2022 because the class is being offered an HRA; the special rule for new hires does not apply (because this class was not previously offered a traditional group health plan) and so it is not a new hire subclass exempt from the minimum class size requirement; another class of employees (that is, full-time hired before January 1, 2022) are being offered a traditional group health plan; and the part-time employee class is generally an applicable classes that is subject to the minimum class size requirement. However, because the full-time, new hire subclass is based on the special rule for new hires, the minimum class size requirement does not apply to full-time new hires offered an HRA in 2022.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 29001, June 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.703" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.2.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.703   Guaranteed renewability in multiemployer plans and multiple employer welfare arrangements. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Other Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 16941, Apr. 8, 1997, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 65 FR 62142, Dec. 27, 2000.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2590.711" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.711   Standards relating to benefits for mothers and newborns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hospital length of stay</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, that provides benefits for a hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or her newborn may not restrict benefits for the stay to less than—
</P>
<P>(i) 48 hours following a vaginal delivery; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 96 hours following a delivery by cesarean section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When stay begins</I>—(i) <I>Delivery in a hospital.</I> If delivery occurs in a hospital, the hospital length of stay for the mother or newborn child begins at the time of delivery (or in the case of multiple births, at the time of the last delivery).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Delivery outside a hospital.</I> If delivery occurs outside a hospital, the hospital length of stay begins at the time the mother or newborn is admitted as a hospital inpatient in connection with childbirth. The determination of whether an admission is in connection with childbirth is a medical decision to be made by the attending provider.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth and is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A pregnant woman covered under a group health plan goes into labor and is admitted to the hospital at 10 p.m. on June 11. She gives birth by vaginal delivery at 6 a.m. on June 12.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the 48-hour period described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section ends at 6 a.m. on June 14.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A woman covered under a group health plan gives birth at home by vaginal delivery. After the delivery, the woman begins bleeding excessively in connection with the childbirth and is admitted to the hospital for treatment of the excessive bleeding at 7 p.m. on October 1.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the 48-hour period described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section ends at 7 p.m. on October 3.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A woman covered under a group health plan gives birth by vaginal delivery at home. The child later develops pneumonia and is admitted to the hospital. The attending provider determines that the admission is not in connection with childbirth.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, the hospital length-of-stay requirements of this section do not apply to the child's admission to the hospital because the admission is not in connection with childbirth.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Authorization not required</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A plan or issuer is prohibited from requiring that a physician or other health care provider obtain authorization from the plan or issuer for prescribing the hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (See also paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(3) of this section for rules and examples regarding other authorization and certain notice requirements.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example.</I> The rule of this paragraph (a)(4) is illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> In the case of a delivery by cesarean section, a group health plan subject to the requirements of this section automatically provides benefits for any hospital length of stay of up to 72 hours. For any longer stay, the plan requires an attending provider to complete a certificate of medical necessity. The plan then makes a determination, based on the certificate of medical necessity, whether a longer stay is medically necessary.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, the requirement that an attending provider complete a certificate of medical necessity to obtain authorization for the period between 72 hours and 96 hours following a delivery by cesarean section is prohibited by this paragraph (a)(4).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Discharge of mother.</I> If a decision to discharge a mother earlier than the period specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made by an attending provider, in consultation with the mother, the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply for any period after the discharge.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Discharge of newborn.</I> If a decision to discharge a newborn child earlier than the period specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made by an attending provider, in consultation with the mother (or the newborn's authorized representative), the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply for any period after the discharge.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Attending provider defined.</I> For purposes of this section, attending provider means an individual who is licensed under applicable state law to provide maternity or pediatric care and who is directly responsible for providing maternity or pediatric care to a mother or newborn child. Therefore, a plan, hospital, managed care organization, or other issuer is not an attending provider.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(5) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A pregnant woman covered under a group health plan subject to the requirements of this section goes into labor and is admitted to a hospital. She gives birth by cesarean section. On the third day after the delivery, the attending provider for the mother consults with the mother, and the attending provider for the newborn consults with the mother regarding the newborn. The attending providers authorize the early discharge of both the mother and the newborn. Both are discharged approximately 72 hours after the delivery. The plan pays for the 72-hour hospital stays.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, the requirements of this paragraph (a) have been satisfied with respect to the mother and the newborn. If either is readmitted, the hospital stay for the readmission is not subject to this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions</I>—(1) <I>With respect to mothers</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not—
</P>
<P>(A) Deny a mother or her newborn child eligibility or continued eligibility to enroll or renew coverage under the terms of the plan solely to avoid the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Provide payments (including payments-in-kind) or rebates to a mother to encourage her to accept less than the minimum protections available under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(1) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery. If a mother and newborn covered under the plan are discharged within 24 hours after the delivery, the plan will waive the copayment and deductible.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, because waiver of the copayment and deductible is in the nature of a rebate that the mother would not receive if she and her newborn remained in the hospital, it is prohibited by this paragraph (b)(1). (In addition, the plan violates paragraph (b)(2) of this section because, in effect, no copayment or deductible is required for the first portion of the stay and a double copayment and a deductible are required for the second portion of the stay.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery. In the event that a mother and her newborn are discharged earlier than 48 hours and the discharges occur after consultation with the mother in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the plan provides for a follow-up visit by a nurse within 48 hours after the discharges to provide certain services that the mother and her newborn would otherwise receive in the hospital.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, because the follow-up visit does not provide any services beyond what the mother and her newborn would receive in the hospital, coverage for the follow-up visit is not prohibited by this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>With respect to benefit restrictions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not restrict the benefits for any portion of a hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a) of this section in a manner that is less favorable than the benefits provided for any preceding portion of the stay.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(2) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan subject to the requirements of this section provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth. In the case of a delivery by cesarean section, the plan automatically pays for the first 48 hours. With respect to each succeeding 24-hour period, the participant or beneficiary must call the plan to obtain precertification from a utilization reviewer, who determines if an additional 24-hour period is medically necessary. If this approval is not obtained, the plan will not provide benefits for any succeeding 24-hour period.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, the requirement to obtain precertification for the two 24-hour periods immediately following the initial 48-hour stay is prohibited by this paragraph (b)(2) because benefits for the latter part of the stay are restricted in a manner that is less favorable than benefits for a preceding portion of the stay. (However, this section does not prohibit a plan from requiring precertification for any period after the first 96 hours.) In addition, the requirement to obtain precertification from the plan based on medical necessity for a hospital length of stay within the 96-hour period would also violate paragraph (a) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>With respect to attending providers.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not directly or indirectly—
</P>
<P>(i) Penalize (for example, take disciplinary action against or retaliate against), or otherwise reduce or limit the compensation of, an attending provider because the provider furnished care to a participant or beneficiary in accordance with this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide monetary or other incentives to an attending provider to induce the provider to furnish care to a participant or beneficiary in a manner inconsistent with this section, including providing any incentive that could induce an attending provider to discharge a mother or newborn earlier than 48 hours (or 96 hours) after delivery.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction.</I> With respect to this section, the following rules of construction apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Hospital stays not mandatory.</I> This section does not require a mother to—
</P>
<P>(i) Give birth in a hospital; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Stay in the hospital for a fixed period of time following the birth of her child.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hospital stay benefits not mandated.</I> This section does not apply to any group health plan, or any group health insurance coverage, that does not provide benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or her newborn child.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost-sharing rules</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> This section does not prevent a group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage from imposing deductibles, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing in relation to benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or a newborn under the plan or coverage, except that the coinsurance or other cost-sharing for any portion of the hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a) of this section may not be greater than that for any preceding portion of the stay.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(3) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay in connection with vaginal deliveries. The plan covers 80 percent of the cost of the stay for the first 24-hour period and 50 percent of the cost of the stay for the second 24-hour period. Thus, the coinsurance paid by the patient increases from 20 percent to 50 percent after 24 hours.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(3) because coinsurance for the second 24-hour period of the 48-hour stay is greater than that for the preceding portion of the stay. (In addition, the plan also violates the similar rule in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally covers 70 percent of the cost of a hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth. However, the plan will cover 80 percent of the cost of the stay if the participant or beneficiary notifies the plan of the pregnancy in advance of admission and uses whatever hospital the plan may designate.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(3) because the level of benefits provided (70 percent or 80 percent) is consistent throughout the 48-hour (or 96-hour) hospital length of stay required under paragraph (a) of this section. (In addition, the plan does not violate the rules in paragraph (a)(4) or (b)(2) of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Compensation of attending provider.</I> This section does not prevent a group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage from negotiating with an attending provider the level and type of compensation for care furnished in accordance with this section (including paragraph (b) of this section).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice requirement.</I> See 29 CFR 2520.102-3(u) (relating to the disclosure requirement under section 711(d) of the Act).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability in certain states</I>—(1) <I>Health insurance coverage.</I> The requirements of section 711 of the Act and this section do not apply with respect to health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan if there is a state law regulating the coverage that meets any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The state law requires the coverage to provide for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery and at least a 96-hour hospital length of stay following a delivery by cesarean section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The state law requires the coverage to provide for maternity and pediatric care in accordance with guidelines that relate to care following childbirth established by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, the American Academy of Pediatrics, or any other established professional medical association.
</P>
<P>(iii) The state law requires, in connection with the coverage for maternity care, that the hospital length of stay for such care is left to the decision of (or is required to be made by) the attending provider in consultation with the mother. State laws that require the decision to be made by the attending provider with the consent of the mother satisfy the criterion of this paragraph (e)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Group health plans</I>—(i) <I>Fully-insured plans.</I> For a group health plan that provides benefits solely through health insurance coverage, if the state law regulating the health insurance coverage meets any of the criteria in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, then the requirements of section 711 of the Act and this section do not apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Self-insured plans.</I> For a group health plan that provides all benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth other than through health insurance coverage, the requirements of section 711 of the Act and this section apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Partially-insured plans.</I> For a group health plan that provides some benefits through health insurance coverage, if the state law regulating the health insurance coverage meets any of the criteria in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, then the requirements of section 711 of the Act and this section apply only to the extent the plan provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth other than through health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relation to section 731(a) of the Act.</I> The preemption provisions contained in section 731(a)(1) of the Act and Sec. 2590.731(a) do not supersede a state law described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (e) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan buys group health insurance coverage in a state that requires that the coverage provide for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery and at least a 96-hour hospital length of stay following a delivery by cesarean section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the coverage is subject to state law, and the requirements of section 711 of the Act and this section do not apply.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A self-insured group health plan covers hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth in a state that requires health insurance coverage to provide for maternity and pediatric care in accordance with guidelines that relate to care following childbirth established by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and the American Academy of Pediatrics.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> even though the state law satisfies the criterion of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, because the plan provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth other than through health insurance coverage, the plan is subject to the requirements of section 711 of the Act and this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies to group health plans, and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2009.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 62422, Oct. 20, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.712" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.712   Parity in mental health and substance use disorder benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and meaning of terms</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> This section and § 2590.712-1 set forth rules to ensure parity in aggregate lifetime and annual dollar limits, financial requirements, and quantitative and nonquantitative treatment limitations between mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, as required under ERISA section 712. A fundamental purpose of ERISA section 712, this section, and § 2590.712-1 is to ensure that participants and beneficiaries in a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with a group health plan) that offers mental health or substance use disorder benefits are not subject to more restrictive aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits, financial requirements, or treatment limitations with respect to those benefits than the predominant dollar limits, financial requirements, or treatment limitations that are applied to substantially all medical/surgical benefits covered by the plan or coverage in the same classification, as further provided in this section and § 2590.712-1. Accordingly, in complying with the provisions of ERISA section 712, this section, and § 2590.712-1, plans and issuers must not design or apply financial requirements and treatment limitations that impose a greater burden on access (that is, are more restrictive) to mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the plan or coverage than they impose on access to medical/surgical benefits in the same classification of benefits. The provisions of ERISA section 712, this section, and § 2590.712-1 should be interpreted in a manner that is consistent with the purpose described in this paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Meaning of terms.</I> For purposes of this section and § 2590.712-1, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following terms have the meanings indicated:
</P>
<P><I>Aggregate lifetime dollar limit</I> means a dollar limitation on the total amount of specified benefits that may be paid under a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such a plan) for any coverage unit.
</P>
<P><I>Annual dollar limit</I> means a dollar limitation on the total amount of specified benefits that may be paid in a 12-month period under a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such a plan) for any coverage unit.
</P>
<P><I>Coverage unit</I> means coverage unit as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Cumulative financial requirements</I> are financial requirements that determine whether or to what extent benefits are provided based on accumulated amounts and include deductibles and out-of-pocket maximums. (However, cumulative financial requirements do not include aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits because these two terms are excluded from the meaning of financial requirements.)
</P>
<P><I>Cumulative quantitative treatment limitations</I> are treatment limitations that determine whether or to what extent benefits are provided based on accumulated amounts, such as annual or lifetime day or visit limits.
</P>
<P><I>DSM</I> means the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. For the purpose of this definition, the most current version of the DSM as of November 22, 2024, is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision published in March 2022. A subsequent version of the DSM published after November 22, 2024, will be considered the most current version beginning on the first day of the plan year that is one year after the date the subsequent version is published.
</P>
<P><I>Evidentiary standards</I> are any evidence, sources, or standards that a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with such a plan) considered or relied upon in designing or applying a factor with respect to a nonquantitative treatment limitation, including specific benchmarks or thresholds. Evidentiary standards may be empirical, statistical, or clinical in nature, and include: sources acquired or originating from an objective third party, such as recognized medical literature, professional standards and protocols (which may include comparative effectiveness studies and clinical trials), published research studies, payment rates for items and services (such as publicly available databases of the “usual, customary and reasonable” rates paid for items and services), and clinical treatment guidelines; internal plan or issuer data, such as claims or utilization data or criteria for assuring a sufficient mix and number of network providers; and benchmarks or thresholds, such as measures of excessive utilization, cost levels, time or distance standards, or network participation percentage thresholds.
</P>
<P><I>Factors</I> are all information, including processes and strategies (but not evidentiary standards), that a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with such a plan) considered or relied upon to design a nonquantitative treatment limitation, or to determine whether or how the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies to benefits under the plan or coverage. Examples of factors include, but are not limited to: provider discretion in determining a diagnosis or type or length of treatment; clinical efficacy of any proposed treatment or service; licensing and accreditation of providers; claim types with a high percentage of fraud; quality measures; treatment outcomes; severity or chronicity of condition; variability in the cost of an episode of treatment; high cost growth; variability in cost and quality; elasticity of demand; and geographic location.
</P>
<P><I>Financial requirements</I> include deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, or out-of-pocket maximums. Financial requirements do not include aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits.
</P>
<P><I>ICD</I> means the World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases adopted by the Department of Health and Human Services through 45 CFR 162.1002. For the purpose of this definition, the most current version of the ICD as of November 22, 2024, is the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification adopted for the period beginning on October 1, 2015. Any subsequent version of the ICD adopted through 45 CFR 162.1002 after November 22, 2024, will be considered the most current version beginning on the first day of the plan year that is one year after the date the subsequent version is adopted.
</P>
<P><I>Medical/surgical benefits</I> means benefits with respect to items or services for medical conditions or surgical procedures, as defined under the terms of the group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with such a plan) and in accordance with applicable Federal and State law, but does not include mental health benefits or substance use disorder benefits. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, any condition or procedure defined by the plan or coverage as being or as not being a medical condition or surgical procedure must be defined consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice (for example, the most current version of the ICD). To the extent generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice do not address whether a condition or procedure is a medical condition or surgical procedure, plans and issuers may define the condition or procedure in accordance with applicable Federal and State law.
</P>
<P><I>Mental health benefits</I> means benefits with respect to items or services for mental health conditions, as defined under the terms of the group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with such a plan) and in accordance with applicable Federal and State law, but does not include medical/surgical benefits or substance use disorder benefits. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, any condition defined by the plan or coverage as being or as not being a mental health condition must be defined consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice. For the purpose of this definition, to be consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice, the definition must include all conditions covered under the plan or coverage, except for substance use disorders, that fall under any of the diagnostic categories listed in the mental, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental disorders chapter (or equivalent chapter) of the most current version of the ICD or that are listed in the most current version of the DSM. To the extent generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice do not address whether a condition is a mental health condition, plans and issuers may define the condition in accordance with applicable Federal and State law.
</P>
<P><I>Processes</I> are actions, steps, or procedures that a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with such a plan) uses to apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation, including actions, steps, or procedures established by the plan or issuer as requirements in order for a participant or beneficiary to access benefits, including through actions by a participant's or beneficiary's authorized representative or a provider or facility. Examples of processes include, but are not limited to: procedures to submit information to authorize coverage for an item or service prior to receiving the benefit or while treatment is ongoing (including requirements for peer or expert clinical review of that information); provider referral requirements that are used to determine when and how a participant or beneficiary may access certain services; and the development and approval of a treatment plan used in a concurrent review process to determine whether a specific request should be granted or denied. Processes also include the specific procedures used by staff or other representatives of a plan or issuer (or the service provider of a plan or issuer) to administer the application of nonquantitative treatment limitations, such as how a panel of staff members applies the nonquantitative treatment limitation (including the qualifications of staff involved, number of staff members allocated, and time allocated), consultations with panels of experts in applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation, and the degree of reviewer discretion in adhering to criteria hierarchy when applying a nonquantitative treatment limitation.
</P>
<P><I>Strategies</I> are practices, methods, or internal metrics that a plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with such a plan) considers, reviews, or uses to design a nonquantitative treatment limitation. Examples of strategies include, but are not limited to: the development of the clinical rationale used in approving or denying benefits; the method of determining whether and how to deviate from generally accepted standards of care in concurrent reviews; the selection of information deemed reasonably necessary to make medical necessity determinations; reliance on treatment guidelines or guidelines provided by third-party organizations in the design of a nonquantitative treatment limitation; and rationales used in selecting and adopting certain threshold amounts to apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation, professional standards and protocols to determine utilization management standards, and fee schedules used to determine provider reimbursement rates, used as part of a nonquantitative treatment limitation. Strategies also include the method of creating and determining the composition of the staff or other representatives of a plan or issuer (or the service provider of a plan or issuer) that deliberates, or otherwise makes decisions, on the design of nonquantitative treatment limitations, including the plan's or issuer's methods for making decisions related to the qualifications of staff involved, number of staff members allocated, and time allocated; breadth of sources and evidence considered; consultations with panels of experts in designing the nonquantitative treatment limitation; and the composition of the panels used to design a nonquantitative treatment limitation.
</P>
<P><I>Substance use disorder benefits</I> means benefits with respect to items or services for substance use disorders, as defined under the terms of the group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with such a plan) and in accordance with applicable Federal and State law, but does not include medical/surgical benefits or mental health benefits. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, any disorder defined by the plan or coverage as being or as not being a substance use disorder must be defined consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice. For the purpose of this definition, to be consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice, the definition must include all disorders covered under the plan or coverage that fall under any of the diagnostic categories listed as a mental or behavioral disorder due to psychoactive substance use (or equivalent category) in the mental, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental disorders chapter (or equivalent chapter) of the most current version of the ICD or that are listed as a Substance-Related and Addictive Disorder (or equivalent category) in the most current version of the DSM. To the extent generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice do not address whether a disorder is a substance use disorder, plans and issuers may define the disorder in accordance with applicable Federal and State law.
</P>
<P><I>Treatment limitations</I> include limits on benefits based on the frequency of treatment, number of visits, days of coverage, days in a waiting period, or other similar limits on the scope or duration of treatment. Treatment limitations include both quantitative treatment limitations, which are expressed numerically (such as 50 outpatient visits per year), and nonquantitative treatment limitations (such as standards related to network composition), which otherwise limit the scope or duration of benefits for treatment under a plan or coverage. (See paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section for an illustrative, non-exhaustive list of nonquantitative treatment limitations.) A complete exclusion of all benefits for a particular condition or disorder, however, is not a treatment limitation for purposes of this definition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Parity requirements with respect to aggregate lifetime and annual dollar limits.</I> This paragraph (b) details the application of the parity requirements with respect to aggregate lifetime and annual dollar limits. This paragraph (b) does not address the provisions of PHS Act section 2711, as incorporated in ERISA section 715 and Code section 9815, which prohibit imposing lifetime and annual limits on the dollar value of essential health benefits. For more information, see 29 CFR 2590.715-2711.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>General parity requirement.</I> A group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with a group health plan) that provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits must comply with paragraph (b)(2), (b)(3), or (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> The rule in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section does not apply if a plan (or health insurance coverage) satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) or (g) of this section (relating to exemptions for small employers and for increased cost).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan with no limit or limits on less than one-third of all medical/surgical benefits.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) does not include an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit on any medical/surgical benefits or includes an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit that applies to less than one-third of all medical/surgical benefits, it may not impose an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit, respectively, on mental health or substance use disorder benefits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Plan with a limit on at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) includes an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit on at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits, it must either—
</P>
<P>(i) Apply the aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit both to the medical/surgical benefits to which the limit would otherwise apply and to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in a manner that does not distinguish between the medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not include an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit on mental health or substance use disorder benefits that is less than the aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit, respectively, on medical/surgical benefits. (For cumulative limits other than aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits, see paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section prohibiting separately accumulating cumulative financial requirements or cumulative quantitative treatment limitations.)
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Determining one-third and two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b), the determination of whether the portion of medical/surgical benefits subject to an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit represents one-third or two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits is based on the dollar amount of all plan payments for medical/surgical benefits expected to be paid under the plan for the plan year (or for the portion of the plan year after a change in plan benefits that affects the applicability of the aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits). Any reasonable method may be used to determine whether the dollar amount expected to be paid under the plan will constitute one-third or two-thirds of the dollar amount of all plan payments for medical/surgical benefits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Plan not described in paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan (or health insurance coverage) that is not described in paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section with respect to aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits on medical/surgical benefits, must either—
</P>
<P>(A) Impose no aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit, as appropriate, on mental health or substance use disorder benefits; or
</P>
<P>(B) Impose an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit on mental health or substance use disorder benefits that is no less than an average limit calculated for medical/surgical benefits in the following manner. The average limit is calculated by taking into account the weighted average of the aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits, as appropriate, that are applicable to the categories of medical/surgical benefits. Limits based on delivery systems, such as inpatient/outpatient treatment or normal treatment of common, low-cost conditions (such as treatment of normal births), do not constitute categories for purposes of this paragraph (b)(5)(i)(B). In addition, for purposes of determining weighted averages, any benefits that are not within a category that is subject to a separately-designated dollar limit under the plan are taken into account as a single separate category by using an estimate of the upper limit on the dollar amount that a plan may reasonably be expected to incur with respect to such benefits, taking into account any other applicable restrictions under the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Weighting.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(5), the weighting applicable to any category of medical/surgical benefits is determined in the manner set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section for determining one-third or two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parity requirements with respect to financial requirements and treatment limitations</I>—(1) <I>Clarification of terms</I>—(i) <I>Classification of benefits.</I> When reference is made in this paragraph (c) to a classification of benefits, the term “classification” means a classification as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Type of financial requirement or treatment limitation.</I> When reference is made in this paragraph (c) to a type of financial requirement or treatment limitation, the reference to type means its nature. Different types of financial requirements include deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximums. Different types of quantitative treatment limitations include annual, episode, and lifetime day and visit limits. See paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section for an illustrative, non-exhaustive list of nonquantitative treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Level of a type of financial requirement or treatment limitation.</I> When reference is made in this paragraph (c) to a level of a type of financial requirement or treatment limitation, level refers to the magnitude of the type of financial requirement or treatment limitation. For example, different levels of coinsurance include 20 percent and 30 percent; different levels of a copayment include $15 and $20; different levels of a deductible include $250 and $500; and different levels of an episode limit include 21 inpatient days per episode and 30 inpatient days per episode.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Coverage unit.</I> When reference is made in this paragraph (c) to a coverage unit, coverage unit refers to the way in which a plan (or health insurance coverage) groups individuals for purposes of determining benefits, or premiums or contributions. For example, different coverage units include self-only, family, and employee-plus-spouse.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General parity requirement</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> A group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with a group health plan) that provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits may not apply any financial requirement or treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or treatment limitation of that type applied to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification. Whether a financial requirement or treatment limitation is a predominant financial requirement or treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in a classification is determined separately for each type of financial requirement or treatment limitation. A plan or issuer may not impose any financial requirement or treatment limitation that is applicable only with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and not to any medical/surgical benefits in the same benefit classification. The application of the rules of this paragraph (c)(2) to financial requirements and quantitative treatment limitations is addressed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; the application of the rules of this paragraph (c)(2) to nonquantitative treatment limitations is addressed in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Classifications of benefits used for applying rules</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) provides any benefits for a mental health condition or substance use disorder in any classification of benefits described in this paragraph (c)(2)(ii), it must provide meaningful benefits for that mental health condition or substance use disorder in every classification in which medical/surgical benefits are provided. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A), whether the benefits provided are meaningful benefits is determined in comparison to the benefits provided for medical conditions and surgical procedures in the classification and requires, at a minimum, coverage of benefits for that condition or disorder in each classification in which the plan (or coverage) provides benefits for one or more medical conditions or surgical procedures. A plan (or coverage) does not provide meaningful benefits under this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) unless it provides benefits for a core treatment for that condition or disorder in each classification in which the plan (or coverage) provides benefits for a core treatment for one or more medical conditions or surgical procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A), a core treatment for a condition or disorder is a standard treatment or course of treatment, therapy, service, or intervention indicated by generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice. If there is no core treatment for a covered mental health condition or substance use disorder with respect to a classification, the plan (or coverage) is not required to provide benefits for a core treatment for such condition or disorder in that classification (but must provide benefits for such condition or disorder in every classification in which medical/surgical benefits are provided). In determining the classification in which a particular benefit belongs, a plan (or health insurance issuer) must apply the same standards to medical/surgical benefits and to mental health or substance use disorder benefits. To the extent that a plan (or health insurance coverage) provides benefits in a classification and imposes any separate financial requirement or treatment limitation (or separate level of a financial requirement or treatment limitation) for benefits in the classification, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply separately with respect to that classification for all financial requirements or treatment limitations (illustrated in examples in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C) of this section). The following classifications of benefits are the only classifications used in applying the rules of this paragraph (c), in addition to the permissible sub-classifications described in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Inpatient, in-network.</I> Benefits furnished on an inpatient basis and within a network of providers established or recognized under a plan or health insurance coverage. See special rules for plans with multiple network tiers in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Inpatient, out-of-network.</I> Benefits furnished on an inpatient basis and outside any network of providers established or recognized under a plan or health insurance coverage. This classification includes inpatient benefits under a plan (or health insurance coverage) that has no network of providers.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Outpatient, in-network.</I> Benefits furnished on an outpatient basis and within a network of providers established or recognized under a plan or health insurance coverage. See special rules for office visits and plans with multiple network tiers in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Outpatient, out-of-network.</I> Benefits furnished on an outpatient basis and outside any network of providers established or recognized under a plan or health insurance coverage. This classification includes outpatient benefits under a plan (or health insurance coverage) that has no network of providers. See special rules for office visits in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Emergency care.</I> Benefits for emergency care.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Prescription drugs.</I> Benefits for prescription drugs. See special rules for multi-tiered prescription drug benefits in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Application to out-of-network providers.</I> See paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, under which a plan (or health insurance coverage) that provides mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification of benefits must provide mental health or substance use disorder benefits in every classification in which medical/surgical benefits are provided, including out-of-network classifications.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section and provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits. With regard to the examples in this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C), references to any particular core treatment are included for illustrative purposes only. Plans and issuers must consult generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice to determine the applicable core treatment, therapy, service, or intervention for any covered condition or disorder.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers inpatient and outpatient benefits and does not contract with a network of providers. The plan imposes a $500 deductible on all benefits. For inpatient medical/surgical benefits, the plan imposes a coinsurance requirement. For outpatient medical/surgical benefits, the plan imposes copayments. The plan imposes no other financial requirements or treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) (<I>Example 1</I>), because the plan has no network of providers, all benefits provided are out-of-network. Because inpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits are subject to separate financial requirements from outpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply separately with respect to any financial requirements and treatment limitations, including the deductible, in each classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan imposes a $500 deductible on all benefits. The plan has no network of providers. The plan generally imposes a 20 percent coinsurance requirement with respect to all benefits, without distinguishing among inpatient, outpatient, emergency care, or prescription drug benefits. The plan imposes no other financial requirements or treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>) (<I>Example 2</I>), because the plan does not impose separate financial requirements (or treatment limitations) based on classification, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply with respect to the deductible and the coinsurance across all benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Example 3</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section (<I>Example 2</I>), except the plan exempts emergency care benefits from the 20 percent coinsurance requirement. The plan imposes no other financial requirements or treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>3</I>) (<I>Example 3</I>), because the plan imposes separate financial requirements based on classifications, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply with respect to the deductible and the coinsurance separately for benefits in the emergency care classification and all other benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Example 4</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section (<I>Example 2</I>), except the plan also imposes a preauthorization requirement for all inpatient treatment in order for benefits to be paid. No such requirement applies to outpatient treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>4</I>) (<I>Example 4</I>), because the plan has no network of providers, all benefits provided are out-of-network. Because the plan imposes a separate treatment limitation based on classifications, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply with respect to the deductible and coinsurance separately for inpatient, out-of-network benefits and all other benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Example 5</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan covers treatment for autism spectrum disorder (ASD), a mental health condition, and covers outpatient, out-of-network developmental screenings for ASD but excludes all other benefits for outpatient treatment for ASD, including applied behavior analysis (ABA) therapy, when provided on an out-of-network basis. The plan generally covers the full range of outpatient treatments (including core treatments) and treatment settings for medical conditions and surgical procedures when provided on an out-of-network basis. Under the generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice consulted by the plan, developmental screenings alone do not constitute a core treatment for ASD.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>5</I>) (<I>Example 5</I>), the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). Although the plan covers benefits for ASD in the outpatient, out-of-network classification, it only covers developmental screenings, so it does not cover a core treatment for ASD in the classification. Because the plan generally covers the full range of medical/surgical benefits, including a core treatment for one or more medical conditions or surgical procedures in the classification, it fails to provide meaningful benefits for treatment of ASD in the classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Example 6</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>5</I>) of this section (<I>Example 5</I>), except that the plan is an HMO that does not cover the full range of medical/surgical benefits, including a core treatment for any medical conditions or surgical procedures in the outpatient, out-of-network classification (except as required under ERISA sections 716 and 717), but covers benefits for medical conditions and surgical procedures in the inpatient, in-network; outpatient, in-network; emergency care; and prescription drug classifications.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>6</I>) (<I>Example 6</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). Because the plan does not provide meaningful benefits, including for a core treatment for any medical condition or surgical procedure in the outpatient, out-of-network classification (except as required under ERISA sections 716 and 717), the plan is not required to provide meaningful benefits for any mental health conditions or substance use disorders in that classification. Nevertheless, the plan must provide meaningful benefits for each mental health condition and substance use disorder for which the plan provides benefits in every classification in which meaningful medical/surgical benefits are provided as required under paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section. This example does not address whether the plan has complied with other applicable requirements of this section in excluding coverage of ABA therapy in the outpatient, out-of-network classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Example 7</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan provides extensive benefits, including for core treatments for many medical conditions and surgical procedures in the outpatient, in-network classification, including nutrition counseling for diabetes and obesity. The plan also generally covers diagnosis and treatment for eating disorders, which are mental health conditions, including coverage for nutrition counseling to treat eating disorders in the outpatient, in-network classification. Nutrition counseling is a core treatment for eating disorders, in accordance with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice consulted by the plan.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>7</I>) (<I>Example 7</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). The coverage of diagnosis and treatment for eating disorders, including nutrition counseling, in the outpatient, in-network classification results in the plan providing meaningful benefits for the treatment of eating disorders in the classification, as determined in comparison to the benefits provided for medical conditions or surgical procedures in the classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Example 8</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan provides extensive benefits for the core treatments for many medical conditions and surgical procedures in the outpatient, in-network and prescription drug classifications. The plan provides coverage for diagnosis and treatment for opioid use disorder, a substance use disorder, in the outpatient, in-network classification, by covering counseling and behavioral therapies and, in the prescription drug classification, by covering medications to treat opioid use disorder (MOUD). Counseling and behavioral therapies and MOUD, in combination, are one of the core treatments for opioid use disorder, in accordance with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice consulted by the plan.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>8</I>) (<I>Example 8</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). The coverage of counseling and behavioral therapies and MOUD, in combination, in the outpatient, in-network classification and prescription drug classification, respectively, results in the plan providing meaningful benefits for the treatment of opioid use disorder in the outpatient, in-network and prescription drug classifications.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial requirements and quantitative treatment limitations</I>—(i) <I>Determining “substantially all” and “predominant”</I>—(A) <I>Substantially all.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), a type of financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation is considered to apply to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in a classification of benefits if it applies to at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits in that classification. (For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A), benefits expressed as subject to a zero level of a type of financial requirement are treated as benefits not subject to that type of financial requirement, and benefits expressed as subject to a quantitative treatment limitation that is unlimited are treated as benefits not subject to that type of quantitative treatment limitation.) If a type of financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation does not apply to at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits in a classification, then that type cannot be applied to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in that classification.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Predominant.</I> (<I>1</I>) If a type of financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation applies to at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits in a classification as determined under paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section, the level of the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation that is considered the predominant level of that type in a classification of benefits is the level that applies to more than one-half of medical/surgical benefits in that classification subject to the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If, with respect to a type of financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation that applies to at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits in a classification, there is no single level that applies to more than one-half of medical/surgical benefits in the classification subject to the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation, the plan (or health insurance issuer) may combine levels until the combination of levels applies to more than one-half of medical/surgical benefits subject to the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation in the classification. The least restrictive level within the combination is considered the predominant level of that type in the classification. (For this purpose, a plan may combine the most restrictive levels first, with each less restrictive level added to the combination until the combination applies to more than one-half of the benefits subject to the financial requirement or treatment limitation.)
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Portion based on plan payments.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), the determination of the portion of medical/surgical benefits in a classification of benefits subject to a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation (or subject to any level of a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation) is based on the dollar amount of all plan payments for medical/surgical benefits in the classification expected to be paid under the plan for the plan year (or for the portion of the plan year after a change in plan benefits that affects the applicability of the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Clarifications for certain threshold requirements.</I> For any deductible, the dollar amount of plan payments includes all plan payments with respect to claims that would be subject to the deductible if it had not been satisfied. For any out-of-pocket maximum, the dollar amount of plan payments includes all plan payments associated with out-of-pocket payments that are taken into account towards the out-of-pocket maximum as well as all plan payments associated with out-of-pocket payments that would have been made towards the out-of-pocket maximum if it had not been satisfied. The rules of this paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) apply for any other thresholds at which the rate of plan payment changes. (See also PHS Act section 2707 and Affordable Care Act section 1302(c), which establish annual limitations on out-of-pocket maximums for all non-grandfathered health plans.)
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Determining the dollar amount of plan payments.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) of this section, any reasonable method may be used to determine the dollar amount expected to be paid under a plan for medical/surgical benefits subject to a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation (or subject to any level of a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to different coverage units.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) applies different levels of a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation to different coverage units in a classification of medical/surgical benefits, the predominant level that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the classification is determined separately for each coverage unit.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special rules.</I> Unless specifically permitted under this paragraph (c)(3)(iii), sub-classifications are not permitted when applying the rules of paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Multi-tiered prescription drug benefits.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) applies different levels of financial requirements to different tiers of prescription drug benefits based on reasonable factors determined in accordance with the rules in paragraph (c)(4) of this section (relating to requirements for nonquantitative treatment limitations) and without regard to whether a drug is generally prescribed with respect to medical/surgical benefits or with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits, the plan (or health insurance coverage) satisfies the parity requirements of this paragraph (c) with respect to prescription drug benefits. Reasonable factors include cost, efficacy, generic versus brand name, and mail order versus pharmacy pick-up.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Multiple network tiers.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) provides benefits through multiple tiers of in-network providers (such as an in-network tier of preferred providers with more generous cost-sharing to participants than a separate in-network tier of participating providers), the plan may divide its benefits furnished on an in-network basis into sub-classifications that reflect network tiers, if the tiering is based on reasonable factors determined in accordance with the rules in paragraph (c)(4) of this section (such as quality, performance, and market standards) and without regard to whether a provider provides services with respect to medical/surgical benefits or mental health or substance use disorder benefits. After the sub-classifications are established, the plan or issuer may not impose any financial requirement or treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any sub-classification that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the sub-classification using the methodology set forth in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Sub-classifications permitted for office visits, separate from other outpatient services.</I> For purposes of applying the financial requirement and treatment limitation rules of this paragraph (c), a plan or issuer may divide its benefits furnished on an outpatient basis into the two sub-classifications described in this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(C). After the sub-classifications are established, the plan or issuer may not impose any financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any sub-classification that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the sub-classification using the methodology set forth in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section. Sub-classifications other than these special rules, such as separate sub-classifications for generalists and specialists, are not permitted. The two sub-classifications permitted under this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(C) are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Office visits (such as physician visits), and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All other outpatient items and services (such as outpatient surgery, facility charges for day treatment centers, laboratory charges, or other medical items).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section and provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> (<I>i</I>) For inpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits, a group health plan imposes five levels of coinsurance. Using a reasonable method, the plan projects its payments for the upcoming year as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(A)(<E T="03">1</E>)(<E T="03">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coinsurance rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Projected payments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$200x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$450x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$150x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000x.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent of total plan costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15%
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent subject to coinsurance level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.5% (100x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">56.25% (450x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.5% (100x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18.75% (150x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The plan projects plan costs of $800x to be subject to coinsurance ($100x + $450x + $100x + $150x = $800x). Thus, 80 percent ($800x/$1,000x) of the benefits are projected to be subject to coinsurance, and 56.25 percent of the benefits subject to coinsurance are projected to be subject to the 15 percent coinsurance level.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(A) (<I>Example 1</I>), the two-thirds threshold of the substantially all standard is met for coinsurance because 80 percent of all inpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits are subject to coinsurance. Moreover, the 15 percent coinsurance is the predominant level because it is applicable to more than one-half of inpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits subject to the coinsurance requirement. The plan may not impose any level of coinsurance with respect to inpatient, out-of-network mental health or substance use disorder benefits that is more restrictive than the 15 percent level of coinsurance.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> (<I>i</I>) For outpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits, a plan imposes five different copayment levels. Using a reasonable method, the plan projects payments for the upcoming year as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(B)(<E T="03">1</E>)(<E T="03">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copayment amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Projected payments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$200x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$200x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$200x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$300x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000x.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent of total plan costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10%
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent subject to copayments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% (200x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% (200x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">37.5% (300x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.5% (100x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The plan projects plan costs of $800x to be subject to copayments ($200x + $200x + $300x + $100x = $800x). Thus, 80 percent ($800x/$1,000x) of the benefits are projected to be subject to a copayment.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(B) (<I>Example 2</I>), the two-thirds threshold of the substantially all standard is met for copayments because 80 percent of all outpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits are subject to a copayment. Moreover, there is no single level that applies to more than one-half of medical/surgical benefits in the classification subject to a copayment (for the $10 copayment, 25%; for the $15 copayment, 25%; for the $20 copayment, 37.5%; and for the $50 copayment, 12.5%). The plan can combine any levels of copayment, including the highest levels, to determine the predominant level that can be applied to mental health or substance use disorder benefits. If the plan combines the highest levels of copayment, the combined projected payments for the two highest copayment levels, the $50 copayment and the $20 copayment, are not more than one-half of the outpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits subject to a copayment because they are exactly one-half ($300x + $100x = $400x; $400x/$800x = 50%). The combined projected payments for the three highest copayment levels—the $50 copayment, the $20 copayment, and the $15 copayment—are more than one-half of the outpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits subject to the copayments ($100x + $300x + $200x = $600x; $600x/$800x = 75%). Thus, the plan may not impose any copayment on outpatient, in-network mental health or substance use disorder benefits that is more restrictive than the least restrictive copayment in the combination, the $15 copayment.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Example 3</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan imposes a $250 deductible on all medical/surgical benefits for self-only coverage and a $500 deductible on all medical/surgical benefits for family coverage. The plan has no network of providers. For all medical/surgical benefits, the plan imposes a coinsurance requirement. The plan imposes no other financial requirements or treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(C) (<I>Example 3</I>), because the plan has no network of providers, all benefits are provided out-of-network. Because self-only and family coverage are subject to different deductibles, whether the deductible applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits is determined separately for self-only medical/surgical benefits and family medical/surgical benefits. Because the coinsurance is applied without regard to coverage units, the predominant coinsurance that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits is determined without regard to coverage units.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Example 4</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan applies the following financial requirements for prescription drug benefits. The requirements are applied without regard to whether a drug is generally prescribed with respect to medical/surgical benefits or with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits. Moreover, the process for certifying a particular drug as “generic”, “preferred brand name”, “non-preferred brand name”, or “specialty” complies with the rules of paragraph (c)(4) of this section (relating to requirements for nonquantitative treatment limitations).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(<E T="01">D</E>)(<E T="03">1</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier 3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier 4
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tier description</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Generic drugs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preferred brand name drugs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-preferred brand name drugs (which may have Tier 1 or Tier 2 alternatives)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialty drugs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent paid by plan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50%.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(D) (<I>Example 4</I>), the financial requirements that apply to prescription drug benefits are applied without regard to whether a drug is generally prescribed with respect to medical/surgical benefits or with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits; the process for certifying drugs in different tiers complies with paragraph (c)(4) of this section; and the bases for establishing different levels or types of financial requirements are reasonable. The financial requirements applied to prescription drug benefits do not violate the parity requirements of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Example 5</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan has two -tiers of network of providers: a preferred provider tier and a participating provider tier. Providers are placed in either the preferred tier or participating tier based on reasonable factors determined in accordance with the rules in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, such as accreditation, quality and performance measures (including customer feedback), and relative reimbursement rates. Furthermore, provider tier placement is determined without regard to whether a provider specializes in the treatment of mental health conditions or substance use disorders, or medical/surgical conditions. The plan divides the in-network classifications into two sub-classifications (in-network/preferred and in-network/participating). The plan does not impose any financial requirement or treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits in either of these sub-classifications that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in each sub-classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(E) (<I>Example 5</I>), the division of in-network benefits into sub-classifications that reflect the preferred and participating provider tiers does not violate the parity requirements of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Example 6</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> With respect to outpatient, in-network benefits, a plan imposes a $25 copayment for office visits and a 20 percent coinsurance requirement for outpatient surgery. The plan divides the outpatient, in-network classification into two sub-classifications (in-network office visits and all other outpatient, in-network items and services).The plan or issuer does not impose any financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits in either of these sub-classifications that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in each sub-classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(F) (<I>Example 6</I>), the division of outpatient, in-network benefits into sub-classifications for office visits and all other outpatient, in-network items and services does not violate the parity requirements of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Example 7</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section (<I>Example 6</I>), but for purposes of determining parity, the plan divides the outpatient, in-network classification into outpatient, in-network generalists and outpatient, in-network specialists.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(G) (<I>Example 7</I>), the division of outpatient, in-network benefits into any sub-classifications other than office visits and all other outpatient items and services violates the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>No separate cumulative financial requirements or cumulative quantitative treatment limitations.</I> (A) A group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan) may not apply any cumulative financial requirement or cumulative quantitative treatment limitation for mental health or substance use disorder benefits in a classification that accumulates separately from any established for medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
</P>
<P>(B) The rules of this paragraph (c)(3)(v) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan imposes a combined annual $500 deductible on all medical/surgical, mental health, and substance use disorder benefits.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the combined annual deductible complies with the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(v).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A plan imposes an annual $250 deductible on all medical/surgical benefits and a separate annual $250 deductible on all mental health and substance use disorder benefits.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the separate annual deductible on mental health and substance use disorder benefits violates the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(v).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A plan imposes an annual $300 deductible on all medical/surgical benefits and a separate annual $100 deductible on all mental health or substance use disorder benefits.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the separate annual deductible on mental health and substance use disorder benefits violates the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(v).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A plan generally imposes a combined annual $500 deductible on all benefits (both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits) except prescription drugs. Certain benefits, such as preventive care, are provided without regard to the deductible. The imposition of other types of financial requirements or treatment limitations varies with each classification. Using reasonable methods, the plan projects its payments for medical/surgical benefits in each classification for the upcoming year as follows:
</PSPACE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Classification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Benefits
<br/>subject to
<br/>deductible
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total benefits
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
<br/>subject to
<br/>deductible
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inpatient, in-network</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,800x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inpatient, out-of-network</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outpatient, in-network</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outpatient, out-of-network</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,880x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emergency care</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV><PSPACE>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the two-thirds threshold of the substantially all standard is met with respect to each classification except emergency care because in each of those other classifications at least two-thirds of medical/surgical benefits are subject to the $500 deductible. Moreover, the $500 deductible is the predominant level in each of those other classifications because it is the only level. However, emergency care mental health and substance use disorder benefits cannot be subject to the $500 deductible because it does not apply to substantially all emergency care medical/surgical benefits.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Nonquantitative treatment limitations.</I> Consistent with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with a group health plan) may not impose any nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification that is more restrictive, as written or in operation, than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4), a nonquantitative treatment limitation is more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification if the plan or issuer fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(i) or (iii) of this section. In such a case, the plan (or health insurance coverage) will be considered to violate ERISA section 712(a)(3)(A)(ii), and the nonquantitative treatment limitation may not be imposed by the plan (or health insurance coverage) with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the classification.
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<P>(i) <I>Requirements related to design and application of a nonquantitative treatment limitation</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A plan (or health insurance coverage) may not impose a nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification unless, under the terms of the plan (or health insurance coverage), as written and in operation, any processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the classification are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits in the classification.
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<P>(B) <I>Prohibition on discriminatory factors and evidentiary standards.</I> For purposes of determining comparability and stringency under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section, a plan (or health insurance coverage) may not rely upon discriminatory factors or evidentiary standards to design a nonquantitative treatment limitation to be imposed on mental health or substance use disorder benefits. A factor or evidentiary standard is discriminatory if the information, evidence, sources, or standards on which the factor or evidentiary standard are based are biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits.
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Information, evidence, sources, or standards are considered to be biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits if, based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, the information, evidence, sources, or standards systematically disfavor access or are specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>), relevant facts and circumstances may include, but are not limited to, the reliability of the source of the information, evidence, sources, or standards, including any underlying data; the independence of the information, evidence, sources, and standards relied upon; the analyses and methodologies employed to select the information and the consistency of their application; and any known safeguards deployed to prevent reliance on skewed data or metrics. Information, evidence, sources, or standards are not considered biased or not objective for this purpose if the plan or issuer has taken the steps necessary to correct, cure, or supplement any information, evidence, sources, or standards that would have been biased or not objective in the absence of such steps.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B), historical plan data or other historical information from a time when the plan or coverage was not subject to ERISA section 712 or was not in compliance with ERISA section 712 are considered to be biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, if the historical plan data or other historical information systematically disfavor access or are specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, and the plan or issuer has not taken the steps necessary to correct, cure, or supplement the data or information.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B), generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards and carefully circumscribed measures reasonably and appropriately designed to detect or prevent and prove fraud and abuse that minimize the negative impact on access to appropriate mental health and substance use disorder benefits are not information, evidence, sources, or standards that are biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. However, plans and issuers must comply with the other requirements in this paragraph (c)(4), as applicable, with respect to such standards or measures that are used as the basis for a factor or evidentiary standard used to design or apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation.
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<P>(ii) <I>Illustrative, non-exhaustive list of nonquantitative treatment limitations.</I> Nonquantitative treatment limitations include—
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<P>(A) Medical management standards (such as prior authorization) limiting or excluding benefits based on medical necessity or medical appropriateness, or based on whether the treatment is experimental or investigative;
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<P>(B) Formulary design for prescription drugs;
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<P>(C) For plans with multiple network tiers (such as preferred providers and participating providers), network tier design;
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<P>(D) Standards related to network composition, including but not limited to, standards for provider and facility admission to participate in a network or for continued network participation, including methods for determining reimbursement rates, credentialing standards, and procedures for ensuring the network includes an adequate number of each category of provider and facility to provide services under the plan or coverage;
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<P>(E) Plan or issuer methods for determining out-of-network rates, such as allowed amounts; usual, customary, and reasonable charges; or application of other external benchmarks for out-of-network rates;
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<P>(F) Refusal to pay for higher-cost therapies until it can be shown that a lower-cost therapy is not effective (also known as fail-first policies or step therapy protocols);
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<P>(G) Exclusions based on failure to complete a course of treatment; and
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<P>(H) Restrictions based on geographic location, facility type, provider specialty, and other criteria that limit the scope or duration of benefits for services provided under the plan or coverage.
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<P>(iii) <I>Required use of outcomes data</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> To ensure that a nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in a classification, in operation, is no more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation applied to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the classification, a plan or issuer must collect and evaluate relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits and carefully consider the impact as part of the plan's or issuer's evaluation. As part of its evaluation, the plan or issuer may not disregard relevant outcomes data that it knows or reasonably should know suggest that a nonquantitative treatment limitation is associated with material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, may specify in guidance the type, form, and manner of collection and evaluation for the data required under this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A).
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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Relevant data generally.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A), relevant data could include, as appropriate, but are not limited to, the number and percentage of claims denials and any other data relevant to the nonquantitative treatment limitation required by State law or private accreditation standards.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Relevant data for nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition.</I> In addition to the relevant data set forth in paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, relevant data for nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition could include, as appropriate, but are not limited to, in-network and out-of-network utilization rates (including data related to provider claim submissions), network adequacy metrics (including time and distance data, and data on providers accepting new patients), and provider reimbursement rates (for comparable services and as benchmarked to a reference standard).
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Unavailability of data.</I> (<I>i</I>) If a plan or issuer newly imposes a nonquantitative treatment limitation for which relevant data is initially temporarily unavailable and the plan or issuer therefore cannot comply with this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A), the plan or issuer must include in its comparative analysis, as required under § 2590.712-1(c)(5)(i)(C), a detailed explanation of the lack of relevant data, the basis for the plan's or issuer's conclusion that there is a lack of relevant data, and when and how the data will become available and be collected and analyzed. Such a plan or issuer also must comply with this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) as soon as practicable once relevant data becomes available.
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) If a plan or issuer imposes a nonquantitative treatment limitation for which no data exist that can reasonably assess any relevant impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, the plan or issuer must include in its comparative analysis, as required under § 2590.712-1(c)(5)(i)(D), a reasoned justification as to the basis for the conclusion that there are no data that can reasonably assess the nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact, why the nature of the nonquantitative treatment limitation prevents the plan or issuer from reasonably measuring its impact, an explanation of what data was considered and rejected, and documentation of any additional safeguards or protocols used to ensure the nonquantitative treatment limitation complies with this section. If a plan or issuer becomes aware of data that can reasonably assess any relevant impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation, the plan or issuer must comply with this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) as soon as practicable.
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<P>(<I>iii</I>) Consistent with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) and (<I>ii</I>) of this section shall only apply in very limited circumstances and, where applicable, shall be construed narrowly.
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<P>(B) <I>Material differences.</I> To the extent the relevant data evaluated under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits in a classification, such differences will be considered a strong indicator that the plan or issuer violates this paragraph (c)(4).
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Where the relevant data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits in a classification, the plan or issuer must take reasonable action, as necessary, to address the material differences to ensure compliance, in operation, with this paragraph (c)(4) and must document the actions that have been or are being taken by the plan or issuer to address material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits, as compared to medical/surgical benefits, as required by § 2590.712-1(c)(5)(iv).
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<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B), relevant data are considered to suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits if, based on all relevant facts and circumstances, and taking into account the considerations outlined in this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>), the difference in the data suggests that the nonquantitative treatment limitation is likely to have a negative impact on access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits.
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<P>(<I>i</I>) Relevant facts and circumstances, for purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>), may include, but are not limited to, the terms of the nonquantitative treatment limitation at issue, the quality or limitations of the data, causal explanations and analyses, evidence as to the recurring or non-recurring nature of the results, and the magnitude of any disparities.
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) Differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits attributable to generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards or carefully circumscribed measures reasonably and appropriately designed to detect or prevent and prove fraud and abuse that minimize the negative impact on access to appropriate mental health and substance use disorder benefits, which are used as the basis for a factor or evidentiary standard used to design or apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation, are not considered to be material for purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B). To the extent a plan or issuer attributes any differences in access to the application of such standards or measures, the plan or issuer must explain the bases for that conclusion in the documentation prepared under § 2590.712-1(c)(5)(iv)(A).
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<P>(C) <I>Nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition.</I> For purposes of applying paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section with respect to nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition, a plan or issuer must collect and evaluate relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the aggregate impact of all such nonquantitative treatment limitations on access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits. Examples of possible actions that a plan or issuer could take to comply with the requirement under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section to take reasonable action, as necessary, to address any material differences in access with respect to nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition, to ensure compliance with this paragraph (c)(4), include, but are not limited to:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Strengthening efforts to recruit and encourage a broad range of available mental health and substance use disorder providers and facilities to join the plan's or issuer's network of providers, including taking actions to increase compensation or other inducements, streamline credentialing processes, or contact providers reimbursed for items and services provided on an out-of-network basis to offer participation in the network;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Expanding the availability of telehealth arrangements to mitigate any overall mental health and substance use disorder provider shortages in a geographic area;
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<P>(<I>3</I>) Providing additional outreach and assistance to participants and beneficiaries enrolled in the plan or coverage to assist them in finding available in-network mental health and substance use disorder providers and facilities; and
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<P>(<I>4</I>) Ensuring that provider directories are accurate and reliable.
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<P>(iv) <I>Prohibition on separate nonquantitative treatment limitations applicable only to mental health or substance use disorder benefits.</I> Consistent with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with such a plan) may not apply any nonquantitative treatment limitation that is applicable only with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and does not apply with respect to any medical/surgical benefits in the same benefit classification.
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<P>(v) <I>Effect of final determination of noncompliance under § 2590.712-1.</I> (A) If a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) receives a final determination from the Secretary that the plan or issuer is not in compliance with the requirements of ERISA section 712(a)(8) or § 2590.712-1 with respect to a nonquantitative treatment limitation, the nonquantitative treatment limitation violates this paragraph (c)(4) and the Secretary may direct the plan or issuer not to impose the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the relevant classification, unless and until the plan or issuer demonstrates to the Secretary compliance with the requirements of this section or takes appropriate action to remedy the violation.
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<P>(B) A determination by the Secretary of whether to require cessation of a nonquantitative treatment limitation under this paragraph (c)(4)(v) will be based on an evaluation of the relevant facts and circumstances involved in the specific final determination and the nature of the underlying nonquantitative treatment limitation and will take into account the interest of plan participants and beneficiaries and feedback from the plan or issuer.
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<P>(vi) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(4) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section and provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits.
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<P>(A) <I>Example 1 (not comparable and more stringent factors for reimbursement rate methodology, in operation)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan's reimbursement rate methodology for outpatient, in-network providers is based on a variety of factors. As written, for mental health, substance use disorder, and medical/surgical benefits, all reimbursement rates for physicians and non-physician practitioners for the same Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code are based on a combination of factors, such as the nature of the service, duration of the service, intensity and specialization of training, provider licensure and type, number of providers qualified to provide the service in a given geographic area, and market need (demand). In operation, the plan utilizes an additional strategy to further reduce reimbursement rates for mental health and substance use disorder non-physician providers from those paid to mental health and substance use disorder physicians by the same percentage for every CPT code, but does not apply the same reductions for non-physician medical/surgical providers.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(A) (<I>Example 1</I>), the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). Because the plan reimburses non-physician providers of mental health and substance use disorder services by reducing their reimbursement rate from the rate for physician providers of mental health and substance use disorder services by the same percentage for every CPT code but does not apply the same reductions to non-physician providers of medical/surgical services from the rate for physician providers of medical/surgical services, in operation, the factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network classification are not comparable to, and are applied more stringently than, the factors used in designing and applying the limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits in the same classification. As a result, the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network classification is more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
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<P>(B) <I>Example 2 (strategy for exclusion for experimental or investigative treatment more stringently applied to ABA therapy in operation)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan, as written, generally excludes coverage for all treatments that are experimental or investigative for both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network classification. As a result, the plan generally excludes, as experimental, a treatment or procedure when no professionally recognized treatment guidelines include the treatment or procedure as a clinically appropriate standard of care for the condition or disorder and fewer than two randomized controlled trials are available to support the treatment's use with respect to the given condition or disorder. The plan provides benefits for the treatment of ASD, which is a mental health condition, but, in operation, the plan excludes coverage for ABA therapy to treat children with ASD, deeming it experimental. More than one professionally recognized treatment guideline defines clinically appropriate standards of care for ASD and more than two randomized controlled trials are available to support the use of ABA therapy as one intervention to treat certain children with ASD.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(B) (<I>Example 2</I>), the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). As written, the plan excludes coverage of experimental treatment of medical conditions and surgical procedures, mental health conditions, and substance use disorders when no professionally recognized treatment guidelines define clinically appropriate standards of care for the condition or disorder as including the treatment or procedure at issue, and fewer than two randomized controlled trials are available to support the treatment's use with respect to the given condition or procedure. However, in operation, the plan deviates from this strategy with respect to ABA therapy because more than one professionally recognized treatment guideline defines clinically appropriate standards of care for ASD as including ABA therapy to treat certain children with ASD and more than two randomized controlled trials are available to support the use of ABA therapy to treat certain children with ASD. Therefore, in operation, the strategy used to design the nonquantitative treatment limitation for benefits for the treatment of ASD, which is a mental health condition, in the outpatient, in-network classification is not comparable to, and is applied more stringently than, the strategy used to design the nonquantitative treatment limitation for medical/surgical benefits in the same classification. As a result, the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network classification is more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
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<P>(C) <I>Example 3 (step therapy protocol with exception for severe or irreversible consequences, discriminatory factor)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan's written terms include a step therapy protocol that requires participants and beneficiaries who are prescribed certain drugs to try and fail a generic or preferred brand name drug before the plan will cover the drug originally prescribed by a participant's or beneficiary's attending provider. The plan provides an exception to this protocol that was developed solely based on a methodology developed by an external third-party organization. The third-party organization's methodology, which is not based on a generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standard, identifies instances in which a delay in treatment with a drug prescribed for a medical condition or surgical procedure could result in either severe or irreversible consequences. However, with respect to a drug prescribed for a mental health condition or a substance use disorder, the third-party organization's methodology only identifies instances in which a delay in treatment could result in both severe <I>and</I> irreversible consequences, and the plan does not take any steps to correct, cure, or supplement the methodology.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(C) (<I>Example 3</I>), the plan violates the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B) of this section. The source upon which the factor used to apply the step therapy protocol is based is biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits because it addresses instances in which a delay in treatment with a drug prescribed for a medical condition or surgical procedure could result in either severe or irreversible consequences, but only addresses instances in which a delay in treatment with a drug prescribed for a mental health condition or substance use disorder could result in both severe and irreversible consequences, and the plan fails to take the steps necessary to correct, cure, or supplement the methodology so that it is not biased and is objective. Based on the relevant facts and circumstances, this source systematically disfavors access or is specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. Therefore, the factor used to apply the step therapy protocol is discriminatory for purposes of determining comparability and stringency under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section, and may not be relied upon by the plan.
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<P>(D) <I>Example 4 (use of historical plan data and plan steps to correct, cure, or supplement)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan's methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates relies only on historical plan data on total plan spending for each specialty, divided between mental health and substance use disorder providers and medical/surgical providers, from a time when the plan was not subject to ERISA section 712. The plan has used these historical plan data for many years to establish base reimbursement rates in all provider specialties for which it provides medical/surgical, mental health, and substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification. In evaluating the use of these historical plan data in the design of the methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates, the plan determined, based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, that the historical plan data systematically disfavor access or are specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. To ensure this information about historical reimbursement rates is not biased and is objective, the plan supplements its methodology to develop the base reimbursement rates for mental health and substance use disorder providers in accordance with additional information, evidence, sources, and standards that reflect the increased demand for mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification and to attract sufficient mental health and substance use disorder providers to the network, so that the relevant facts and circumstances indicate the supplemented information, evidence, sources, or standards do not systematically disfavor access and are not specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(D) (<I>Example 4</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B) of this section with respect to the plan's methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates in the inpatient, in-network classification. The relevant facts and circumstances indicate that the plan's use of only historical plan data to design its methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates in the inpatient, in-network classification would otherwise be considered to be biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, since the historical data systematically disfavor access or are specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. However, the plan took the steps necessary to supplement the information, evidence, sources, and standards to reasonably reflect the increased demand for mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification, and adjust the methodology to increase reimbursement rates for those benefits, thereby ensuring that the information, evidence, sources, and standards relied upon by the plan for this purpose are not biased and are objective. Therefore, the factors and evidentiary standards used to design the plan's methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates in the inpatient, in-network classification are not discriminatory.
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<P>(E) <I>Example 5 (generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards and more stringent prior authorization requirement in operation)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> The provisions of a plan state that it relies on, and does not deviate from, generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards to inform the factor used to design prior authorization requirements for both medical/surgical and mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the prescription drug classification. The generally recognized independent professional medical standard for treatment of opioid use disorder that the plan utilizes—in this case, the American Society of Addiction Medicine national practice guidelines—does not support prior authorization every 30 days for buprenorphine/naloxone. However, in operation, the plan requires prior authorization for buprenorphine/naloxone combination for treatment of opioid use disorder, every 30 days, which is inconsistent with the generally recognized independent professional medical standard on which the factor used to design the limitation is based. The plan's factor used to design prior authorization requirements for medical/surgical benefits in the prescription drug classification relies on, and does not deviate from, generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(E) (<I>Example 5</I>), the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). The American Society of Addiction Medicine national practice guidelines on which the factor used to design prior authorization requirements for substance use disorder benefits is based are generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards that are not considered to be biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health and substance use disorder benefits under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) of this section. However, the plan must comply with other requirements in this paragraph (c)(4), as applicable, with respect to such standards or measures that are used as the basis for a factor or evidentiary standard used to design or apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation. In operation, the plan's factor used to design and apply prior authorization requirements with respect to substance use disorder benefits is not comparable to, and is applied more stringently than, the same factor used to design and apply prior authorization requirements for medical/surgical benefits, because the factor relies on, and does not deviate from, generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards for medical/surgical benefits, but deviates from the relevant guidelines for substance use disorder benefits. As a result, the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to substance use disorder benefits in the prescription drug classification is more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
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<P>(F) <I>Example 6 (plan claims no data exist to reasonably assess impact of nonquantitative treatment limitation on access; medical necessity criteria)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan approves or denies claims for mental health and substance use disorder benefits and for medical/surgical benefits in the inpatient, in-network and outpatient, in-network classifications based on medical necessity criteria. The plan states in its comparative analysis that no data exist that can reasonably assess any relevant impact of the medical necessity criteria nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to the plan's medical necessity criteria nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact on relevant outcomes related to access to medical/surgical benefits in the relevant classifications, without further explanation.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(F) (<I>Example 6</I>), the plan violates this paragraph (c)(4). The plan does not comply with paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section because the plan did not include in its comparative analysis, as required under § 2590.712-1(c)(5)(i)(D), a reasoned justification as to the basis for its conclusion that there are no data that can reasonably assess the nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact, an explanation of why the nature of the nonquantitative treatment limitation prevents the plan from reasonably measuring its impact, an explanation of what data was considered and rejected, and documentation of any additional safeguards or protocols used to ensure the nonquantitative treatment limitation complies with this paragraph (c)(4). Data that could reasonably assess the medical necessity criteria nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact might include, for example, the number and percentage of claims denials, or the number and percentage of claims that were approved for a lower level of care than the level requested on the initial claim. Therefore, because the plan has not collected and evaluated relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in the relevant classifications, the plan violates the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section, and violates the requirements under § 2590.712-1(c)(5)(i)(D) because it did not include sufficient information in its comparative analysis with respect to the lack of relevant data.
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<P>(G) <I>Example 7 (concurrent review data collection; no material difference in access)—(1) Facts.</I> A plan follows a written process to apply a concurrent review nonquantitative treatment limitation to all medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits within the inpatient, in-network classification. Under this process, a first-level review is conducted in every instance in which concurrent review applies and an authorization request is approved by the first-level reviewer only if the clinical information submitted by the facility meets the plan's criteria for a continued stay. If the first-level reviewer is unable to approve the authorization request because the clinical information submitted by the facility does not meet the plan's criteria for a continued stay, it is sent to a second-level reviewer who will either approve or deny the request. The plan collects relevant data, including the number of referrals to second-level review, and the number of denials of claims for medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits subject to concurrent review as compared to the total number of claims subject to concurrent review, in the inpatient, in-network classification. The plan also collects and evaluates the number of denied claims for medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits that are overturned on appeal in the inpatient, in-network classification. The plan evaluates the relevant data and determines that, based on the relevant facts and circumstances, the data do not suggest that the concurrent review nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits in the classification Upon requesting the plan's comparative analysis for the concurrent review nonquantitative treatment limitation and reviewing the relevant data, the Secretary does not request additional data and agrees that the data do not suggest material differences in access.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(G) (<I>Example 7</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section. The plan collected and evaluated relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits and considered the impact as part of its evaluation. Because the relevant data evaluated do not suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification, under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B) of this section, there is no strong indicator that the plan violates this paragraph (c)(4).
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<P>(H) <I>Example 8 (material difference in access for prior authorization requirement with reasonable action)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan requires prior authorization that a treatment is medically necessary for all inpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits and for all inpatient, in-network mental health and substance use disorder benefits. The plan collects and evaluates relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the prior authorization requirement on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification. The plan's written process for prior authorization states that the plan approves inpatient, in-network benefits for medical conditions and surgical procedures and mental health and substance use disorder benefits for periods of 1, 3, and 7 days, after which a treatment plan must be submitted by the patient's attending provider and approved by the plan. Approvals for mental health and substance use disorder benefits are most commonly given only for 1 day, after which a treatment plan must be submitted by the patient's attending provider and approved by the plan. The relevant data show that approvals for 7 days are most common for medical conditions and surgical procedures under this plan. Based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, the difference in the relevant data suggests that the nonquantitative treatment limitation is likely to have a negative impact on access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. Therefore, the data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access. To address these material differences in access, the plan consults more recent medical guidelines to update the factors that inform its medical necessity nonquantitative treatment limitations. Based on this review, the plan modifies the limitation so that inpatient, in-network prior authorization requests for mental health or substance use disorder benefits are approved for similar periods to what is approved for medical/surgical benefits. The plan includes documentation of this action as part of its comparative analysis.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(H) (<I>Example 8</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section. While relevant data for the plan's prior authorization requirements suggested that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to inpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B) of this section, the plan has taken reasonable action, as necessary, to ensure compliance, in operation, with this paragraph (c)(4) by updating the factors that inform its prior authorization nonquantitative treatment limitation for inpatient, in-network mental health and substance use disorder benefits so that these benefits are approved for similar periods to what is approved for medical/surgical benefits. The plan also documents its action taken to address material differences in access to inpatient, in-network benefits as required by paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
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<P>(I) <I>Example 9 (differences attributable to generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan develops a medical management requirement for all inpatient, out-of-network benefits for both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits to ensure treatment is medically necessary. The factors and evidentiary standards used to design and apply the medical management requirement rely on independent professional medical or clinical standards that are generally recognized by health care providers and facilities in relevant clinical specialties. The processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the medical management requirement to mental health and substance use disorder benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the requirement with respect to medical/surgical benefits. The plan collects and evaluates relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the medical management nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, and considers the impact as part of the plan's evaluation, as required by paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section. Within the inpatient, out-of-network classification, the application of the medical management requirement results in a higher percentage of denials for mental health and substance use disorder claims than medical/surgical claims, because the benefits were found to be medically necessary for a lower percentage of mental health and substance use disorder claims. The plan correctly determines that these differences in access are attributable to the generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards used as the basis for the factors and evidentiary standards used to design or apply the limitation and adequately explains the bases for that conclusion as part of its comparative analysis.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(I) (<I>Example 9</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). Generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards of care are not considered to be information, evidence, sources, or standards that are biased and not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, and the plan otherwise complies with the requirements in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. Additionally, the plan does not violate paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section because it has collected and evaluated relevant data, the differences in access are attributable to the generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards that are used as the basis for the factors and evidentiary standards used to design or apply the medical management nonquantitative treatment limitation, and the plan explains the bases for this conclusion in its comparative analysis. As a result, the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, out-of-network classification is no more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
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<P>(J) <I>Example 10 (material differences in access for standards for provider admission to a network with reasonable action)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan applies nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition in the inpatient, in-network and outpatient, in-network classifications. The plan's networks are constructed by separate service providers for medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits. The processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition for mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network and inpatient, in-network classifications are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitations with respect to medical/surgical benefits in the classifications, as required under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. In order to ensure, in operation, that the nonquantitative treatment limitations are no more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitations applied to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the classification, the plan collects and evaluates relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the aggregate impact of all the nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared with access to medical/surgical benefits and considers the impact as part of the plan's evaluation. The plan considers relevant data that is known, or reasonably should be known, including metrics relating to the time and distance from plan participants and beneficiaries to network providers in rural and urban regions; the number of network providers accepting new patients; the proportions of mental health and substance use disorder and medical/surgical providers and facilities that provide services in rural and urban regions who are in the plan's network; provider reimbursement rates (for comparable services and benchmarked to a reference standard, as appropriate); and in-network and out-of-network utilization rates (including data related to the dollar value and number of provider claims submissions). The plan determines that the relevant data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitations in the aggregate contribute to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits compared to medical/surgical benefits in the classifications because, based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, the differences in the data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition are likely to have a negative impact on access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. The plan takes reasonable actions, as necessary, to address the material differences in access, to ensure compliance, in operation, with this paragraph (c)(4), by strengthening its efforts to recruit and encourage a broad range of available providers and facilities to join the plan's network of providers, including by taking actions to increase compensation and other inducements, streamline credentialing processes, contact providers reimbursed for items and services provided on an out-of-network basis to offer participation in the network, and develop a process to monitor the effects of such efforts; expanding the availability of telehealth arrangements to mitigate overall provider shortages in certain geographic areas; providing additional outreach and assistance to participants and beneficiaries enrolled in the plan to assist them in finding available in-network providers and facilities; and ensuring that the plan's provider directories are accurate and reliable. The plan documents the efforts that it has taken to address the material differences in access that the data revealed, and the plan includes the documentation as part of its comparative analysis submission.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(J) (<I>Example 10</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). The plan's nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition comply with the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. Additionally, the plan collects and evaluates relevant data, as required under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, in a manner reasonably designed to assess the aggregate impact of all such nonquantitative treatment limitations on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, as required under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(C) of this section. While the data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitations contribute to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, the plan has taken reasonable action, as necessary, to ensure compliance with this paragraph (c)(4). The plan also documents the actions that have been and are being taken by the plan to address material differences as required by § 2590.712-1(c)(5)(iv). As a result, the network composition nonquantitative treatment limitations with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network and outpatient, in-network classifications are no more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitations that apply to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classifications.
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<P>(K) <I>Example 11 (separate EAP exhaustion treatment limitation applicable only to mental health or substance use disorder benefits)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> An employer maintains both a major medical plan and an employee assistance program (EAP). The EAP provides, among other benefits, a limited number of mental health or substance use disorder counseling sessions, which, together with other benefits provided by the EAP, are not significant benefits in the nature of medical care. Participants are eligible for mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the major medical plan only after exhausting the counseling sessions provided by the EAP. No similar exhaustion requirement applies with respect to medical/surgical benefits provided under the major medical plan.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(K) (<I>Example 11</I>), the requirement that limits eligibility for mental health and substance use disorder benefits under the major medical plan until EAP benefits are exhausted is a nonquantitative treatment limitation subject to the parity requirements of this paragraph (c)(4). Because the limitation does not apply to medical/surgical benefits, it is a separate nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable only to mental health and substance use disorder benefits that violates paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section. Additionally, this EAP would not qualify as excepted benefits under § 2590.732(c)(3)(vi)(B)(<I>1</I>) because participants in the major medical plan are required to use and exhaust benefits under the EAP (making the EAP a gatekeeper) before an individual is eligible for benefits under the plan.
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<P>(L) <I>Example 12 (separate exclusion for treatment in a residential facility applicable only to mental health and substance use disorder benefits)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan generally covers inpatient, in-network and inpatient, out-of-network treatment without any limitations on setting, including skilled nursing facilities and rehabilitation hospitals, provided other medical necessity standards are satisfied. The plan has an exclusion for treatment at residential facilities, which the plan defines as an inpatient benefit for mental health and substance use disorder benefits. This exclusion was not generated through any broader nonquantitative treatment limitation (such as medical necessity or other clinical guideline).
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(L) (<I>Example 12</I>), the plan violates the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section. The exclusion of treatment at residential facilities is a separate nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable only to mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network and inpatient, out-of-network classifications because the plan does not apply a comparable exclusion with respect to any medical/surgical benefits in the same benefit classification.
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<P>(M) <I>Example 13 (impermissible nonquantitative treatment limitation imposed following a final determination of noncompliance and direction by the Secretary)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Following an initial request by the Secretary for a plan's comparative analysis of the plan's exclusion of mental health and substance use disorder benefits for failure to complete a course of treatment in the inpatient, in-network classification under § 2590.712-1(d), the plan submits a comparative analysis for the nonquantitative treatment limitation. After review of the comparative analysis, as well as additional information submitted by the plan after the Secretary determines that the plan has not submitted sufficient information to be responsive to the request, the Secretary makes an initial determination that the comparative analysis fails to demonstrate that the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification are comparable to, and applied no more stringently than, those used in designing and applying the limitation to medical/surgical benefits in the classification. Under § 2590.712-1(d)(3), the plan submits a corrective action plan and additional comparative analyses within 45 calendar days after the initial determination. However, the corrective action plan does not alter or eliminate the exclusion or alter the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the exclusion. Moreover, the additional comparative analysis still does not include sufficient information. The Secretary then determines that the additional comparative analyses do not demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (c)(4). Accordingly, the plan receives a final determination of noncompliance with ERISA section 712(a)(8) and § 2590.712-1 from the Secretary, which concludes that the plan did not demonstrate compliance through the comparative analysis process. After considering the relevant facts and circumstances, and considering the interests of plan participants and beneficiaries, as well as feedback from the plan, the Secretary directs the plan not to impose the nonquantitative treatment limitation by a certain date, unless and until the plan demonstrates compliance to the Secretary or takes appropriate action to remedy the violation. The plan makes no changes to its plan terms by that date and continues to impose the exclusion of benefits for failure to complete a course of treatment in the inpatient, in-network classification.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(M) (<I>Example 13</I>), by continuing to impose the exclusion of mental health and substance use disorder benefits for failure to complete a course of treatment in the inpatient, in-network classification after the Secretary directs the plan not to impose this nonquantitative treatment limitation, the plan violates the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(v) of this section.
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<P>(5) <I>Exemptions.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c) do not apply if a group health plan (or health insurance coverage) satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) or (g) of this section (relating to exemptions for small employers and for increased cost).
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<P>(d) <I>Availability of plan information</I>—(1) <I>Criteria for medical necessity determinations.</I> The criteria for medical necessity determinations made under a group health plan with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan with respect to such benefits) must be made available by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to any current or potential participant, beneficiary, or contracting provider upon request.
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<P>(2) <I>Reason for any denial.</I> The reason for any denial under a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such plan) of reimbursement or payment for services with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the case of any participant or beneficiary must be made available by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to the participant or beneficiary in a form and manner consistent with the requirements of § 2560.503-1 of this chapter for group health plans.
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<P>(3) <I>Provisions of other law.</I> Compliance with the disclosure requirements in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section is not determinative of compliance with any other provision of applicable Federal or State law. In particular, in addition to those disclosure requirements, provisions of other applicable law require disclosure of information relevant to medical/surgical, mental health, and substance use disorder benefits. For example, ERISA section 104 and § 2520.104b-1 of this chapter provide that, for plans subject to ERISA, instruments under which the plan is established or operated must generally be furnished to plan participants within 30 days of request. Instruments under which the plan is established or operated include documents with information on medical necessity criteria for both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits; the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used to apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the plan; and the comparative analyses and other applicable information required by § 2590.712-1. In addition, § 2560.503-1 of this chapter and § 2590.715-2719 set forth rules regarding claims and appeals, including the right of claimants (or their authorized representative) who have received an adverse benefit determination (or a final internal adverse benefit determination) to be provided, upon request and free of charge, reasonable access to and copies of all documents, records, and other information relevant to the claimant's claim for benefits. This includes documents with information on medical necessity criteria for both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits, as well as the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used to apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the plan and the comparative analyses and other applicable information required by § 2590.712-1.
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<P>(e) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>Group health plans.</I> The requirements of this section apply to a group health plan offering medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits. If, under an arrangement or arrangements to provide medical care benefits by an employer or employee organization (including for this purpose a joint board of trustees of a multiemployer trust affiliated with one or more multiemployer plans), any participant (or beneficiary) can simultaneously receive coverage for medical/surgical benefits and coverage for mental health or substance use disorder benefits, then the requirements of this section (including the exemption provisions in paragraph (g) of this section) apply separately with respect to each combination of medical/surgical benefits and of mental health or substance use disorder benefits that any participant (or beneficiary) can simultaneously receive from that employer's or employee organization's arrangement or arrangements to provide medical care benefits, and all such combinations are considered for purposes of this section to be a single group health plan.
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<P>(2) <I>Health insurance issuers.</I> The requirements of this section apply to a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage for mental health or substance use disorder benefits in connection with a group health plan subject to paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
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<P>(3) <I>Scope.</I> This section does not—
</P>
<P>(i) Require a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) to provide any mental health benefits or substance use disorder benefits, and the provision of benefits by a plan (or health insurance coverage) for one or more mental health conditions or substance use disorders does not require the plan or health insurance coverage under this section to provide benefits for any other mental health condition or substance use disorder;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) that provides coverage for mental health or substance use disorder benefits only to the extent required under PHS Act section 2713 to provide additional mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification in accordance with this section; or
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<P>(iii) Affect the terms and conditions relating to the amount, duration, or scope of mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the plan (or health insurance coverage) except as specifically provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
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<P>(4) <I>Coordination with EHB requirements.</I> Nothing in paragraph (f) or (g) of this section or § 2590.712-1(g) changes the requirements of 45 CFR 147.150 and 156.115 providing that a health insurance issuer offering non-grandfathered health insurance coverage in the individual or small group market that is required to provide mental health and substance use disorder services, including behavioral health treatment services, as part of essential health benefits required under 45 CFR 156.110(a)(5) and 156.115(a), must comply with the requirements under section 2726 of the Public Health Service Act and its implementing regulations at 45 CFR 146.136 and 146.137 to satisfy the requirement to provide coverage for mental health and substance use disorder services, including behavioral health treatment, as part of essential health benefits.
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<P>(f) <I>Small employer exemption</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) for a plan year of a small employer. For purposes of this paragraph (f), the term <I>small employer</I> means, in connection with a group health plan with respect to a calendar year and a plan year, an employer who employed an average of at least two (or one in the case of an employer residing in a State that permits small groups to include a single individual) but not more than 50 employees on business days during the preceding calendar year. See section 732(a) of ERISA and § 2590.732(b), which provide that this section (and certain other sections) does not apply to any group health plan (and health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) for any plan year if, on the first day of the plan year, the plan has fewer than two participants who are current employees.
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<P>(2) <I>Rules in determining employer size.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f)(1) of this section—
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<P>(i) All persons treated as a single employer under subsections (b), (c), (m), and (o) of section 414 of the Code are treated as one employer;
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<P>(ii) If an employer was not in existence throughout the preceding calendar year, whether it is a small employer is determined based on the average number of employees the employer reasonably expects to employ on business days during the current calendar year; and
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<P>(iii) Any reference to an employer for purposes of the small employer exemption includes a reference to a predecessor of the employer.
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<P>(g) <I>Increased cost exemption</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the application of this section to a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such plans) results in an increase for the plan year involved of the actual total cost of coverage with respect to medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits as determined and certified under paragraph (g)(3) of this section by an amount that exceeds the applicable percentage described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section of the actual total plan costs, the provisions of this section shall not apply to such plan (or coverage) during the following plan year, and such exemption shall apply to the plan (or coverage) for one plan year. An employer or issuer may elect to continue to provide mental health and substance use disorder benefits in compliance with this section with respect to the plan or coverage involved regardless of any increase in total costs.
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<P>(2) <I>Applicable percentage.</I> With respect to a plan or coverage, the applicable percentage described in this paragraph (g) is—
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<P>(i) 2 percent in the case of the first plan year in which this section is applied to the plan or coverage; and
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<P>(ii) 1 percent in the case of each subsequent plan year.
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<P>(3) <I>Determinations by actuaries</I>—(i) Determinations as to increases in actual costs under a plan or coverage that are attributable to implementation of the requirements of this section shall be made and certified by a qualified and licensed actuary who is a member in good standing of the American Academy of Actuaries. All such determinations must be based on the formula specified in paragraph (g)(4) of this section and shall be in a written report prepared by the actuary.
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<P>(ii) The written report described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section shall be maintained by the group health plan or health insurance issuer, along with all supporting documentation relied upon by the actuary, for a period of six years following the notification made under paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
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<P>(4) <I>Formula.</I> The formula to be used to make the determination under paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section is expressed mathematically as follows:
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<FP-2>[(E<E T="52">1</E> − E<E T="52">0</E>)/T<E T="52">0</E>] −D &gt;<I>k</I>
</FP-2>
<P>(i) E<E T="52">1</E> is the actual total cost of coverage with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits for the base period, including claims paid by the plan or issuer with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and administrative costs (amortized over time) attributable to providing these benefits consistent with the requirements of this section.
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<P>(ii) E<E T="52">0</E> is the actual total cost of coverage with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits for the length of time immediately before the base period (and that is equal in length to the base period), including claims paid by the plan or issuer with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and administrative costs (amortized over time) attributable to providing these benefits.
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<P>(iii) T<E T="52">0</E> is the actual total cost of coverage with respect to all benefits during the base period.
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<P>(iv) k is the applicable percentage of increased cost specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section that will be expressed as a fraction for purposes of this formula.
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<P>(v) D is the average change in spending that is calculated by applying the formula (<I>E</I><E T="52">1</E> − <I>E</I><E T="52">0</E>)/<I>T</I><E T="52">0</E> to mental health and substance use disorder spending in each of the five prior years and then calculating the average change in spending.
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<P>(5) <I>Six month determination.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer seeks an exemption under this paragraph (g), determinations under paragraph (g)(3) of this section shall be made after such plan or coverage has complied with this section for at least the first 6 months of the plan year involved.
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<P>(6) <I>Notification.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer that, based on the certification described under paragraph (g)(3) of this section, qualifies for an exemption under this paragraph (g), and elects to implement the exemption, must notify participants and beneficiaries covered under the plan, the Secretary, and the appropriate State agencies of such election.
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<P>(i) <I>Participants and beneficiaries</I>—(A) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice to participants and beneficiaries must include the following information:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement that the plan or issuer is exempt from the requirements of this section and a description of the basis for the exemption.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The name and telephone number of the individual to contact for further information.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) The plan or issuer name and plan number (PN).
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<P>(<I>4</I>) The plan administrator's name, address, and telephone number.
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<P>(<I>5</I>) For single-employer plans, the plan sponsor's name, address, and telephone number (if different from paragraph (g)(6)(i)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section) and the plan sponsor's employer identification number (EIN).
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<P>(<I>6</I>) The effective date of such exemption.
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<P>(<I>7</I>) A statement regarding the ability of participants and beneficiaries to contact the plan administrator or health insurance issuer to see how benefits may be affected as a result of the plan's or issuer's election of the exemption.
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<P>(<I>8</I>) A statement regarding the availability, upon request and free of charge, of a summary of the information on which the exemption is based (as required under paragraph (g)(6)(i)(D) of this section).
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<P>(B) <I>Use of summary of material reductions in covered services or benefits.</I> A plan or issuer may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (g)(6)(i)(A) of this section by providing participants and beneficiaries (in accordance with paragraph (g)(6)(i)(C) of this section) with a summary of material reductions in covered services or benefits consistent with § 2520.104b-3(d) of this chapter that also includes the information specified in paragraph (g)(6)(i)(A) of this section. However, in all cases, the exemption is not effective until 30 days after notice has been sent.
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<P>(C) <I>Delivery.</I> The notice described in this paragraph (g)(6)(i) is required to be provided to all participants and beneficiaries. The notice may be furnished by any method of delivery that satisfies the requirements of section 104(b)(1) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1024(b)(1)) and its implementing regulations (for example, first-class mail). If the notice is provided to the participant and any beneficiaries at the participant's last known address, then the requirements of this paragraph (g)(6)(i) are satisfied with respect to the participant and all beneficiaries residing at that address. If a beneficiary's last known address is different from the participant's last known address, a separate notice is required to be provided to the beneficiary at the beneficiary's last known address.
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<P>(D) <I>Availability of documentation.</I> The plan or issuer must make available to participants and beneficiaries (or their representatives), on request and at no charge, a summary of the information on which the exemption was based. (For purposes of this paragraph (g), an individual who is not a participant or beneficiary and who presents a notice described in paragraph (g)(6)(i) of this section is considered to be a representative. A representative may request the summary of information by providing the plan a copy of the notice provided to the participant under paragraph (g)(6)(i) of this section with any personally identifiable information redacted.) The summary of information must include the incurred expenditures, the base period, the dollar amount of claims incurred during the base period that would have been denied under the terms of the plan or coverage absent amendments required to comply with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the administrative costs related to those claims, and other administrative costs attributable to complying with the requirements of this section. In no event should the summary of information include any personally identifiable information.
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<P>(ii) <I>Federal agencies</I>—(A) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice to the Secretary must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A description of the number of covered lives under the plan (or coverage) involved at the time of the notification, and as applicable, at the time of any prior election of the cost exemption under this paragraph (g) by such plan (or coverage);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For both the plan year upon which a cost exemption is sought and the year prior, a description of the actual total costs of coverage with respect to medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For both the plan year upon which a cost exemption is sought and the year prior, the actual total costs of coverage with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits under the plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Reporting.</I> A group health plan, and any health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan, must provide notice to the Department of Labor. This requirement is satisfied if the plan sends a copy, to the address designated by the Secretary in generally applicable guidance, of the notice described in paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(A) of this section identifying the benefit package to which the exemption applies.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Confidentiality.</I> A notification to the Secretary under this paragraph (g)(6) shall be confidential. The Secretary shall make available, upon request and not more than on an annual basis, an anonymous itemization of each notification that includes—
</P>
<P>(A) A breakdown of States by the size and type of employers submitting such notification; and
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of the data received under paragraph (g)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Audits.</I> The Secretary may audit the books and records of a group health plan or a health insurance issuer relating to an exemption, including any actuarial reports, during the 6 year period following notification of such exemption under paragraph (g)(6) of this section. A State agency receiving a notification under paragraph (g)(6) of this section may also conduct such an audit with respect to an exemption covered by such notification.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Sale of nonparity health insurance coverage.</I> A health insurance issuer may not sell a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance that fails to comply with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, except to a plan for a year for which the plan is exempt from the requirements of this section because the plan meets the requirements of paragraph (f) or (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) This section applies to group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage on the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2025, except that the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(A), (c)(4)(i)(B), and (c)(4)(iii) of this section apply on the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(ii) Until the applicability date in paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with 29 CFR 2590.712, revised as of July 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special effective date for certain collectively-bargained plans.</I> For a group health plan maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements ratified before October 3, 2008, the requirements of this section do not apply to the plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan) for plan years beginning before the date on which the last of the collective bargaining agreements terminates (determined without regard to any extension agreed to after October 3, 2008).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Severability.</I> If any provision of this section is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 68276, Nov. 13, 2013, as amended at 89 FR 77719, Sept. 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.712-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.712-1   Nonquantitative treatment limitation comparative analysis requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Meaning of terms.</I> Unless otherwise stated in this section, the terms of this section have the meanings indicated in § 2590.712(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> In the case of a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) that provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits and that imposes any nonquantitative treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits, the plan or issuer must perform and document a comparative analysis of the design and application of each nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable to mental health or substance use disorder benefits. Each comparative analysis must comply with the content requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and be made available to the Secretary, upon request, in the manner required by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comparative analysis content requirements.</I> With respect to each nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable to mental health or substance use disorder benefits under a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan), the comparative analysis performed by the plan or issuer must include, at minimum, the elements specified in this paragraph (c). In addition to the comparative analysis for each nonquantitative treatment limitation, each plan or issuer must prepare and make available to the Secretary, upon request, a written list of all nonquantitative treatment limitations imposed under the plan or coverage, which must be provided to the named fiduciaries of the plan who are required to include a certification as part of each comparative analysis, as required under paragraph (c)(6)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Description of the nonquantitative treatment limitation.</I> The comparative analysis must include, with respect to the nonquantitative treatment limitation that is the subject of the comparative analysis:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the nonquantitative treatment limitation, including the specific terms of the plan or coverage or other relevant terms regarding the nonquantitative treatment limitation, the policies or guidelines (internal or external) in which the nonquantitative treatment limitation appears or is described, and the applicable sections of any other relevant documents, such as provider contracts, that describe the nonquantitative treatment limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of all mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits to which the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies, including a list of which benefits are considered mental health or substance use disorder benefits and which benefits are considered medical/surgical benefits; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of which benefits are included in each classification set forth in § 2590.712(c)(2)(ii)(A).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification and definition of the factors and evidentiary standards used to design or apply the nonquantitative treatment limitation.</I> The comparative analysis must include, with respect to every factor considered or relied upon to design the nonquantitative treatment limitation or apply the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of every factor considered or relied upon, as well as the evidentiary standards considered or relied upon to design or apply each factor and the sources from which each evidentiary standard was derived, in determining which mental health or substance use disorder benefits and which medical/surgical benefits are subject to the nonquantitative treatment limitation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A definition of each factor, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the factor;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of each evidentiary standard used to design or apply each factor (and the source of each evidentiary standard) identified under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of any steps the plan or issuer has taken to correct, cure, or supplement any information, evidence, sources, or standards that would otherwise have been considered biased or not objective under § 2590.712(c)(4)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) in the absence of such steps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Description of how factors are used in the design and application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation.</I> The comparative analysis must include a description of how each factor identified and defined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section is used in the design or application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in a classification, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed explanation of how each factor identified and defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is used to determine which mental health or substance use disorder benefits and which medical/surgical benefits are subject to the nonquantitative treatment limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation of the evidentiary standards or other information or sources (if any) considered or relied upon in designing or applying the factors or relied upon in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation, including in the determination of whether and how mental health or substance use disorder benefits or medical/surgical benefits are subject to the nonquantitative treatment limitation;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the application of the factor depends on specific decisions made in the administration of benefits, the nature of the decisions, the timing of the decisions, and the professional designations and qualifications of each decision maker;
</P>
<P>(iv) If more than one factor is identified and defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, an explanation of:
</P>
<P>(A) How all of the factors relate to each other;
</P>
<P>(B) The order in which all the factors are applied, including when they are applied;
</P>
<P>(C) Whether and how any factors are given more weight than others; and
</P>
<P>(D) The reasons for the ordering or weighting of the factors; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any deviations or variations from a factor, its applicability, or its definition (including the evidentiary standards used to define the factor and the information or sources from which each evidentiary standard was derived), such as how the factor is used differently to apply the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, and a description of how the plan or issuer establishes such deviations or variations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Demonstration of comparability and stringency as written.</I> The comparative analysis must evaluate whether, in any classification, under the terms of the plan (or health insurance coverage) as written, any processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits. The comparative analysis must include, with respect to the nonquantitative treatment limitation and the factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation of each factor identified and defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section that was applied to determine whether the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in a classification, including, as relevant:
</P>
<P>(A) Quantitative data, calculations, or other analyses showing whether, in each classification in which the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies, mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits met or did not meet any applicable threshold identified in the relevant evidentiary standard to determine that the nonquantitative treatment limitation would or would not apply; and
</P>
<P>(B) Records maintained by the plan or issuer documenting the consideration and application of all factors and evidentiary standards, as well as the results of their application;
</P>
<P>(ii) In each classification in which the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies to mental health or substance use disorder benefits, a comparison of how the nonquantitative treatment limitation, as written, is designed and applied to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and to medical/surgical benefits, including the specific provisions of any forms, checklists, procedure manuals, or other documentation used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation or that address the application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation demonstrating how the factors are comparably applied, as written, to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in each classification, to determine which benefits are subject to the nonquantitative treatment limitation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of the reasons for any deviations or variations in the application of a factor used to apply the nonquantitative treatment limitation, or the application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation, to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, and how the plan or issuer establishes such deviations or variations, including:
</P>
<P>(A) In the definition of the factors, the evidentiary standards used to define the factors, and the sources from which the evidentiary standards were derived;
</P>
<P>(B) In the design of the factors or evidentiary standards; or
</P>
<P>(C) In the application or design of the nonquantitative treatment limitation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Demonstration of comparability and stringency in operation.</I> The comparative analysis must evaluate whether, in any classification, in operation, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits. The comparative analysis must include, with respect to the nonquantitative treatment limitation and the factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation:
</P>
<P>(i) A comprehensive explanation of how the plan or issuer evaluates whether, in operation, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in a classification are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits, including:
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation of any methodology and underlying data used to demonstrate the application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation, in operation;
</P>
<P>(B) The sample period, inputs used in any calculations, definitions of terms used, and any criteria used to select the mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits to which the nonquantitative treatment limitation is applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to a nonquantitative treatment limitation for which relevant data is temporarily unavailable as described in § 2590.712(c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>), a detailed explanation of the lack of relevant data, the basis for the plan's or issuer's conclusion that there is a lack of relevant data, and when and how the data will become available and be collected and analyzed; and
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to a nonquantitative treatment limitation for which no data exist that can reasonably assess any relevant impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits as described in § 2590.712(c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>), a reasoned justification as to the basis for the conclusion that there are no data that can reasonably assess the nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact, an explanation of why the nature of the nonquantitative treatment limitation prevents the plan or issuer from reasonably measuring its impact, an explanation of what data was considered and rejected, and documentation of any additional safeguards or protocols used to ensure that the nonquantitative treatment limitation complies with § 2590.712(c)(4);
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the relevant data collected and evaluated, as required under § 2590.712(c)(4)(iii)(A);
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation of the outcomes that resulted from the application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The evaluation of relevant data as required under § 2590.712(c)(4)(iii)(A); and
</P>
<P>(B) A reasoned justification and analysis that explains why the plan or issuer concluded that any differences in the relevant data do or do not suggest the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, in accordance with § 2590.712(c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>);
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed explanation of any material differences in access demonstrated by the outcomes evaluated under paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A reasoned explanation of any material differences in access that are not attributable to differences in the comparability or relative stringency of the nonquantitative treatment limitation as applied to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits (including any considerations beyond a plan's or issuer's control that contribute to the existence of material differences) and a detailed explanation of the bases for concluding that material differences are not attributable to differences in the comparability or relative stringency of the nonquantitative treatment limitation; and
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits are attributable to generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards or carefully circumscribed measures reasonably and appropriately designed to detect or prevent and prove fraud and abuse that minimize the negative impact on access to appropriate mental health and substance use disorder benefits, and such standards or measures are used as the basis for a factor or evidentiary standard used to design or apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation, documentation explaining how any such differences are attributable to those standards or measures, as required in § 2590.712(c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>); and
</P>
<P>(v) A discussion of the actions that have been or are being taken by the plan or issuer to address any material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, including the actions the plan or issuer has taken or is taking under § 2590.712(c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) to address material differences to comply, in operation, with § 2590.712(c)(4), including, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A reasoned explanation of any material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits that persist despite reasonable actions that have been or are being taken; and
</P>
<P>(B) For a plan or issuer designing and applying one or more nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition, a discussion of the actions that have been or are being taken to address material differences in access to in-network mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to in-network medical/surgical benefits, including those listed in § 2590.712(c)(4)(iii)(C).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Findings and conclusions.</I> The comparative analysis must address the findings and conclusions as to the comparability of the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits within each classification, and the relative stringency of their application, both as written and in operation, and include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any findings or conclusions indicating that the plan or coverage is or is not (or might or might not be) in compliance with the requirements of § 2590.712(c)(4), including any additional actions the plan or issuer has taken or intends to take to address any potential areas of concern or noncompliance;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasoned and detailed discussion of the findings and conclusions described in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Citations to any additional specific information not otherwise included in the comparative analysis that supports the findings and conclusions described in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section not otherwise discussed in the comparative analysis;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date the analysis is completed and the title and credentials of all relevant persons who participated in the performance and documentation of the comparative analysis;
</P>
<P>(v) If the comparative analysis relies upon an evaluation by a reviewer or consultant considered by the plan or issuer to be an expert, an assessment of each expert's qualifications and the extent to which the plan or issuer ultimately relied upon each expert's evaluation in performing and documenting the comparative analysis of the design and application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable to both mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A certification by one or more named fiduciaries that they have engaged in a prudent process to select one or more qualified service providers to perform and document a comparative analysis in connection with the imposition of any nonquantitative treatment limitations that apply to mental health and substance use disorder benefits under the plan in accordance with applicable law and regulations, and have satisfied their duty to monitor those service providers as required under part 4 of ERISA with respect to the performance and documentation of such comparative analysis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements related to submission of comparative analyses to the Secretary upon request</I>—(1) <I>Initial request by the Secretary for comparative analysis.</I> A group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) must make the comparative analysis required by paragraph (b) of this section available and submit it to the Secretary within 10 business days of receipt of a request from the Secretary (or an additional period of time specified by the Secretary).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional information required after a comparative analysis is deemed to be insufficient.</I> In instances in which the Secretary determines that the plan or issuer has not submitted sufficient information under paragraph (d)(1) of this section for the Secretary to determine whether the comparative analysis required in paragraph (b) of this section complies with paragraph (c) of this section or whether the plan or issuer complies with § 2590.712(c)(4), the Secretary will specify to the plan or issuer the additional information the plan or issuer must submit to the Secretary to be responsive to the request under paragraph (d)(1). Any such information must be provided to the Secretary by the plan or issuer within 10 business days after the Secretary specifies the additional information to be submitted (or an additional period of time specified by the Secretary).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial determination of noncompliance, required action, and corrective action plan.</I> In instances in which the Secretary reviewed the comparative analysis submitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section and any additional information submitted under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, and made an initial determination that the plan or issuer is not in compliance with the requirements of § 2590.712(c)(4) or this section, the plan or issuer must respond to the initial determination by the Secretary and specify the actions the plan or issuer will take to bring the plan or coverage into compliance, and provide to the Secretary additional comparative analyses meeting the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section that demonstrate compliance with § 2590.712(c)(4), not later than 45 calendar days after the Secretary's initial determination that the plan or issuer is not in compliance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requirement to notify participants and beneficiaries of final determination of noncompliance</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If the Secretary makes a final determination of noncompliance, the plan or issuer must notify all participants and beneficiaries enrolled in the plan or coverage that the plan or issuer has been determined to not be in compliance with the requirements of § 2590.712(c)(4) or this section with respect to such plan or coverage. Such notice must be provided within 7 business days of receipt of the final determination of noncompliance, and the plan or issuer must provide a copy of the notice to the Secretary, any service provider involved in the claims process, and any fiduciary responsible for deciding benefit claims within the same timeframe.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice to participants and beneficiaries required in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and must include, in plain language, the following information in a standalone notice:
</P>
<P>(A) The following statement prominently displayed on the first page, in no less than 14-point font: “Attention! The Department of Labor has determined that [insert the name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] is not in compliance with the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act.”;
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of changes the plan or issuer has made as part of its corrective action plan specified to the Secretary following the initial determination of noncompliance, including an explanation of any opportunity for a participant or beneficiary to have a claim for benefits submitted or reprocessed;
</P>
<P>(C) A summary of the Secretary's final determination that the plan or issuer is not in compliance with § 2590.712(c)(4) or this section, including any provisions or practices identified as being in violation of § 2590.712(c)(4) or this section, additional corrective actions identified by the Secretary in the final determination notice, and information on how participants and beneficiaries can obtain from the plan or issuer a copy of the final determination of noncompliance;
</P>
<P>(D) Any additional actions the plan or issuer is taking to come into compliance with § 2590.712(c)(4) or this section, when the plan or issuer will take such actions, and a clear and accurate statement explaining whether the Secretary has concurred with those actions; and
</P>
<P>(E) Contact information for questions and complaints, and a statement explaining how participants and beneficiaries can obtain more information about the notice, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan's or issuer's phone number and an email or web portal address; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Employee Benefits Security Administration's phone number and email or web portal address.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Manner of notice.</I> The plan or issuer must make the notice required under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section available in paper form, or electronically (such as by email or an internet posting) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The format is readily accessible;
</P>
<P>(B) The notice is provided in paper form free of charge upon request; and
</P>
<P>(C) In a case in which the electronic form is an internet posting, the plan or issuer timely notifies the participant or beneficiary in paper form (such as a postcard) or email, that the documents are available on the internet, provides the internet address, includes the statement required in paragraph (d)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, and notifies the participant or beneficiary that the documents are available in paper form upon request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for a copy of a comparative analysis.</I> In addition to making a comparative analysis available upon request to the Secretary, a plan or issuer must make available a copy of the comparative analysis required by paragraph (b) of this section when requested by:
</P>
<P>(1) Any applicable State authority;
</P>
<P>(2) A participant or beneficiary (including a provider or other person acting as a participant's or beneficiary's authorized representative) who has received an adverse benefit determination related to mental health or substance use disorder benefits; and
</P>
<P>(3) Participants and beneficiaries, who may request the comparative analysis at any time under ERISA section 104.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this section or § 2590.712 shall be construed to prevent the Secretary from acting within the scope of existing authorities to address violations of § 2590.712 or this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section apply to group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage described in § 2590.712(e), to the extent the plan or issuer is not exempt under § 2590.712(f) or (g), on the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2025, except the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(C), (c)(5)(i)(C) and (D), and (c)(5)(ii) through (v) of this section apply on the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Severability.</I> If any provision of this section is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 77731, Sept. 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-1251" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-1251   Preservation of right to maintain existing coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of grandfathered health plan coverage</I>—(1) <I>In general</I>—(i) <I>Grandfathered health plan coverage</I> means coverage provided by a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer, in which an individual was enrolled on March 23, 2010 (for as long as it maintains that status under the rules of this section). A group health plan or group health insurance coverage does not cease to be grandfathered health plan coverage merely because one or more (or even all) individuals enrolled on March 23, 2010 cease to be covered, provided that the plan or group health insurance coverage has continuously covered someone since March 23, 2010 (not necessarily the same person, but at all times at least one person). In addition, subject to the limitation set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, a group health plan (and any health insurance coverage offered in connection with the group health plan) does not cease to be a grandfathered health plan merely because the plan (or its sponsor) enters into a new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance after March 23, 2010 (for example, a plan enters into a contract with a new issuer or a new policy is issued with an existing issuer). For purposes of this section, a plan or health insurance coverage that provides grandfathered health plan coverage is referred to as a grandfathered health plan. The rules of this section apply separately to each benefit package made available under a group health plan or health insurance coverage. Accordingly, if any benefit package relinquishes grandfather status, it will not affect the grandfather status of the other benefit packages.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Changes in group health insurance coverage.</I> Subject to paragraphs (f) and (g)(2) of this section, if a group health plan (including a group health plan that was self-insured on March 23, 2010) or its sponsor enters into a new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance after March 23, 2010 that is effective before November 15, 2010, then the plan ceases to be a grandfathered health plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure of grandfather status.</I> (i) To maintain status as a grandfathered health plan, a plan or health insurance coverage must include a statement that the plan or coverage believes it is a grandfathered health plan within the meaning of section 1251 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, and must provide contact information for questions and complaints, in any summary of benefits provided under the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following model language can be used to satisfy this disclosure requirement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This [group health plan or health insurance issuer] believes this [plan or coverage] is a “grandfathered health plan” under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (the Affordable Care Act). As permitted by the Affordable Care Act, a grandfathered health plan can preserve certain basic health coverage that was already in effect when that law was enacted. Being a grandfathered health plan means that your [plan or policy] may not include certain consumer protections of the Affordable Care Act that apply to other plans, for example, the requirement for the provision of preventive health services without any cost sharing. However, grandfathered health plans must comply with certain other consumer protections in the Affordable Care Act, for example, the elimination of lifetime dollar limits on benefits.
</P>
<P>Questions regarding which protections apply and which protections do not apply to a grandfathered health plan and what might cause a plan to change from grandfathered health plan status can be directed to the plan administrator at [insert contact information]. [For ERISA plans, insert: You may also contact the Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor at 1-866-444-3272 or <I>www.dol.gov/ebsa/healthreform</I>. This Web site has a table summarizing which protections do and do not apply to grandfathered health plans.] [For individual market policies and nonfederal governmental plans, insert: You may also contact the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services at <I>www.healthcare.gov</I>.]</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Documentation of plan or policy terms on March 23, 2010.</I> To maintain status as a grandfathered health plan, a group health plan, or group health insurance coverage, must, for as long as the plan or health insurance coverage takes the position that it is a grandfathered health plan—
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain records documenting the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage in connection with the coverage in effect on March 23, 2010, and any other documents necessary to verify, explain, or clarify its status as a grandfathered health plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) Make such records available for examination upon request.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Change in group health insurance coverage.</I> To maintain status as a grandfathered health plan, a group health plan that enters into a new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance must provide to the new health insurance issuer (and the new health insurance issuer must require) documentation of plan terms (including benefits, cost sharing, employer contributions, and annual dollar limits) under the prior health coverage sufficient to determine whether a change causing a cessation of grandfathered health plan status under paragraph (g)(1) of this section has occurred.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Family members enrolling after March 23, 2010.</I> With respect to an individual who is enrolled in a group health plan or health insurance coverage on March 23, 2010, grandfathered health plan coverage includes coverage of family members of the individual who enroll after March 23, 2010 in the grandfathered health plan coverage of the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allowance for new employees to join current plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a group health plan (including health insurance coverage provided in connection with the group health plan) that provided coverage on March 23, 2010 and has retained its status as a grandfathered health plan (consistent with the rules of this section, including paragraph (g) of this section) is grandfathered health plan coverage for new employees (whether newly hired or newly enrolled) and their families enrolling in the plan after March 23, 2010. Further, the addition of a new contributing employer or new group of employees of an existing contributing employer to a grandfathered multiemployer health plan will not affect the plan's grandfather status.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Anti-abuse rules</I>—(i) <I>Mergers and acquisitions.</I> If the principal purpose of a merger, acquisition, or similar business restructuring is to cover new individuals under a grandfathered health plan, the plan ceases to be a grandfathered health plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Change in plan eligibility.</I> A group health plan or health insurance coverage (including a benefit package under a group health plan) ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if—
</P>
<P>(A) Employees are transferred into the plan or health insurance coverage (the transferee plan) from a plan or health insurance coverage under which the employees were covered on March 23, 2010 (the transferor plan);
</P>
<P>(B) Comparing the terms of the transferee plan with those of the transferor plan (as in effect on March 23, 2010) and treating the transferee plan as if it were an amendment of the transferor plan would cause a loss of grandfather status under the provisions of paragraph (g)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) There was no bona fide employment-based reason to transfer the employees into the transferee plan. For this purpose, changing the terms or cost of coverage is not a bona fide employment-based reason.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Illustrative list of bona fide employment-based reasons.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C), bona fide employment-based reasons include—
</P>
<P>(A) When a benefit package is being eliminated because the issuer is exiting the market;
</P>
<P>(B) When a benefit package is being eliminated because the issuer no longer offers the product to the employer;
</P>
<P>(C) When low or declining participation by plan participants in the benefit package makes it impractical for the plan sponsor to continue to offer the benefit package;
</P>
<P>(D) When a benefit package is eliminated from a multiemployer plan as agreed upon as part of the collective bargaining process; or
</P>
<P>(E) When a benefit package is eliminated for any reason and multiple benefit packages covering a significant portion of other employees remain available to the employees being transferred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers two benefit packages on March 23, 2010, Options <I>F</I> and <I>G</I>. During a subsequent open enrollment period, some of the employees enrolled in Option <I>F</I> on March 23, 2010 switch to Option <I>G</I>.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the group health coverage provided under Option <I>G</I> remains a grandfathered health plan under the rules of paragraph (b)(1) of this section because employees previously enrolled in Option <I>F</I> are allowed to enroll in Option <I>G</I> as new employees.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts</I>. A group health plan offers two benefit packages on March 23, 2010, Options <I>H</I> and <I>I</I>. On March 23, 2010, Option <I>H</I> provides coverage only for employees in one manufacturing plant. Subsequently, the plant is closed, and some employees in the closed plant are moved to another plant. The employer eliminates Option <I>H</I> and the employees that are moved are transferred to Option <I>I</I>. If instead of transferring employees from Option <I>H</I> to Option <I>I,</I> Option <I>H</I> was amended to match the terms of Option <I>I,</I> then Option <I>H</I> would cease to be a grandfathered health plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan has a bona fide employment-based reason to transfer employees from Option <I>H</I> to Option <I>I</I>. Therefore, Option <I>I</I> does not cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>General grandfathering rule.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, subtitles A and C of title I of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (and the amendments made by those subtitles, and the incorporation of those amendments into ERISA section 715 and Internal Revenue Code section 9815) do not apply to grandfathered health plan coverage. Accordingly, the provisions of PHS Act sections 2701, 2702, 2703, 2705, 2706, 2707, 2709 (relating to coverage for individuals participating in approved clinical trials, as added by section 10103 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act), 2713, 2715A, 2716, 2717, 2719, and 2719A, as added or amended by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, do not apply to grandfathered health plans. (In addition, <I>see</I> 45 CFR 147.140(c), which provides that the provisions of PHS Act section 2704, and PHS Act section 2711 insofar as it relates to annual dollar limits, do not apply to grandfathered health plans that are individual health insurance coverage.)
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent not inconsistent with the rules applicable to a grandfathered health plan, a grandfathered health plan must comply with the requirements of the PHS Act, ERISA, and the Internal Revenue Code applicable prior to the changes enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Provisions applicable to all grandfathered health plans.</I> The provisions of PHS Act section 2711 insofar as it relates to lifetime dollar limits, and the provisions of PHS Act sections 2712, 2714, 2715, and 2718, apply to grandfathered health plans for plan years beginning on or after September 23, 2010. The provisions of PHS Act section 2708 apply to grandfathered health plans for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability of PHS Act sections 2704, 2711, and 2714 to grandfathered group health plans and group health insurance coverage.</I> (1) The provisions of PHS Act section 2704 as it applies with respect to enrollees who are under 19 years of age, and the provisions of PHS Act section 2711 insofar as it relates to annual dollar limits, apply to grandfathered health plans that are group health plans (including group health insurance coverage) for plan years beginning on or after September 23, 2010. The provisions of PHS Act section 2704 apply generally to grandfathered health plans that are group health plans (including group health insurance coverage) for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2014, the provisions of PHS Act section 2714 apply in the case of an adult child with respect to a grandfathered health plan that is a group health plan only if the adult child is not eligible to enroll in an eligible employer-sponsored health plan (as defined in section 5000A(f)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code) other than a grandfathered health plan of a parent. For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014, the provisions of PHS Act section 2714 apply with respect to a grandfathered health plan that is a group health plan without regard to whether an adult child is eligible to enroll in any other coverage.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect on collectively bargained plans</I>—<I>In general.</I> In the case of health insurance coverage maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements between employee representatives and one or more employers that was ratified before March 23, 2010, the coverage is grandfathered health plan coverage at least until the date on which the last of the collective bargaining agreements relating to the coverage that was in effect on March 23, 2010 terminates. Any coverage amendment made pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement relating to the coverage that amends the coverage solely to conform to any requirement added by subtitles A and C of title I of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (and the amendments made by those subtitles, and the incorporation of those amendments into ERISA section 715 and Internal Revenue Code section 9815) is not treated as a termination of the collective bargaining agreement. After the date on which the last of the collective bargaining agreements relating to the coverage that was in effect on March 23, 2010 terminates, the determination of whether health insurance coverage maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement is grandfathered health plan coverage is made under the rules of this section other than this paragraph (f) (comparing the terms of the health insurance coverage after the date the last collective bargaining agreement terminates with the terms of the health insurance coverage that were in effect on March 23, 2010).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maintenance of grandfather status</I>—(1) <I>Changes causing cessation of grandfather status.</I> Subject to paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, the rules of this paragraph (g)(1) describe situations in which a group health plan or health insurance coverage ceases to be a grandfathered health plan. A plan or coverage will cease to be a grandfathered health plan when an amendment to plan terms that results in a change described in this paragraph (g)(1) becomes effective, regardless of when the amendment was adopted. Once grandfather status is lost, it cannot be regained.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Elimination of benefits.</I> The elimination of all or substantially all benefits to diagnose or treat a particular condition causes a group health plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan. For this purpose, the elimination of benefits for any necessary element to diagnose or treat a condition is considered the elimination of all or substantially all benefits to diagnose or treat a particular condition. Whether or not a plan or coverage has eliminated substantially all benefits to diagnose or treat a particular condition must be determined based on all the facts and circumstances, taking into account the items and services provided for a particular condition under the plan on March 23, 2010, as compared to the benefits offered at the time the plan or coverage makes the benefit change effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Increase in percentage cost-sharing requirement.</I> Any increase, measured from March 23, 2010, in a percentage cost-sharing requirement (such as an individual's coinsurance requirement) causes a group health plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Increase in a fixed-amount cost-sharing requirement other than a copayment.</I> Any increase in a fixed-amount cost-sharing requirement other than a copayment (for example, deductible or out-of-pocket limit), determined as of the effective date of the increase, causes a group health plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan, if the total percentage increase in the cost-sharing requirement measured from March 23, 2010 exceeds the maximum percentage increase (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Increase in a fixed-amount copayment.</I> Any increase in a fixed-amount copayment, determined as of the effective date of the increase, and determined for each copayment level if a plan has different copayment levels for different categories of services, causes a group health plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan, if the total increase in the copayment measured from March 23, 2010 exceeds the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) An amount equal to $5 increased by medical inflation, as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section (that is, $5 times medical inflation, plus $5); or
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum percentage increase (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(ii) of this section), determined by expressing the total increase in the copayment as a percentage.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Decrease in contribution rate by employers and employee organizations</I>—(A) <I>Contribution rate based on cost of coverage.</I> A group health plan or group health insurance coverage ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the employer or employee organization decreases its contribution rate based on cost of coverage (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(iii)(A) of this section) towards the cost of any tier of coverage for any class of similarly situated individuals (as described in § 2590.702(d)) by more than 5 percentage points below the contribution rate for the coverage period that includes March 23, 2010.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Contribution rate based on a formula.</I> A group health plan or group health insurance coverage ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the employer or employee organization decreases its contribution rate based on a formula (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(iii)(B) of this section) towards the cost of any tier of coverage for any class of similarly situated individuals (as described in § 2590.702(d)) by more than 5 percent below the contribution rate for the coverage period that includes March 23, 2010.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Changes in annual limits</I>—(A) <I>Addition of an annual limit.</I> A group health plan, or group health insurance coverage, that, on March 23, 2010, did not impose an overall annual or lifetime limit on the dollar value of all benefits ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the plan or health insurance coverage imposes an overall annual limit on the dollar value of benefits. (But see § 2590.715-2711, which prohibits all annual dollar limits on essential health benefits for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Decrease in limit for a plan or coverage with only a lifetime limit.</I> A group health plan, or group health insurance coverage, that, on March 23, 2010, imposed an overall lifetime limit on the dollar value of all benefits but no overall annual limit on the dollar value of all benefits ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the plan or health insurance coverage adopts an overall annual limit at a dollar value that is lower than the dollar value of the lifetime limit on March 23, 2010. (But see § 2590.715-2711, which prohibits all annual dollar limits on essential health benefits for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Decrease in limit for a plan or coverage with an annual limit.</I> A group health plan, or group health insurance coverage, that, on March 23, 2010, imposed an overall annual limit on the dollar value of all benefits ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the plan or health insurance coverage decreases the dollar value of the annual limit (regardless of whether the plan or health insurance coverage also imposed an overall lifetime limit on March 23, 2010 on the dollar value of all benefits). (But see § 2590.715-2711, which prohibits all annual dollar limits on essential health benefits for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transitional rules</I>—(i) <I>Changes made prior to March 23, 2010.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer makes the following changes to the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage, the changes are considered part of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage on March 23, 2010 even though they were not effective at that time and such changes do not cause a plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan:
</P>
<P>(A) Changes effective after March 23, 2010 pursuant to a legally binding contract entered into on or before March 23, 2010;
</P>
<P>(B) Changes effective after March 23, 2010 pursuant to a filing on or before March 23, 2010 with a State insurance department; or
</P>
<P>(C) Changes effective after March 23, 2010 pursuant to written amendments to a plan that were adopted on or before March 23, 2010.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Changes made after March 23, 2010 and adopted prior to issuance of regulations.</I> If, after March 23, 2010, a group health plan or health insurance issuer makes changes to the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage and the changes are adopted prior to June 14, 2010, the changes will not cause the plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan if the changes are revoked or modified effective as of the first day of the first plan year (in the individual market, policy year) beginning on or after September 23, 2010, and the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage on that date, as modified, would not cause the plan or coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan under the rules of this section, including paragraph (g)(1) of this section. For this purpose, changes will be considered to have been adopted prior to June 14, 2010 if:
</P>
<P>(A) The changes are effective before that date;
</P>
<P>(B) The changes are effective on or after that date pursuant to a legally binding contract entered into before that date;
</P>
<P>(C) The changes are effective on or after that date pursuant to a filing before that date with a State insurance department; or
</P>
<P>(D) The changes are effective on or after that date pursuant to written amendments to a plan that were adopted before that date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule for certain grandfathered high deductible health plans.</I> With respect to a grandfathered group health plan or group health insurance coverage that is a high deductible health plan within the meaning of section 223(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, increases to fixed-amount cost-sharing requirements made effective on or after June 15, 2021 that otherwise would cause a loss of grandfather status will not cause the plan or coverage to relinquish its grandfather status, but only to the extent such increases are necessary to maintain its status as a high deductible health plan under section 223(c)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definitions</I>—(i) <I>Medical inflation defined.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), the term <I>medical inflation</I> means the increase since March 2010 in the overall medical care component of the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) (unadjusted) published by the Department of Labor using the 1982-1984 base of 100. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(4)(i), the increase in the overall medical care component is computed by subtracting 387.142 (the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) published by the Department of Labor for March 2010, using the 1982-1984 base of 100) from the index amount for any month in the 12 months before the new change is to take effect and then dividing that amount by 387.142.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum percentage increase defined.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), the term <I>maximum percentage increase</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to increases for a group health plan and group health insurance coverage made effective on or after March 23, 2010, and before June 15, 2021, medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section), expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points; and
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to increases for a group health plan and group health insurance coverage made effective on or after June 15, 2021, the greater of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section), expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The portion of the premium adjustment percentage, as defined in 45 CFR 156.130(e), that reflects the relative change between 2013 and the calendar year prior to the effective date of the increase (that is, the premium adjustment percentage minus 1), expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Contribution rate defined.</I> For purposes of paragraph (g)(1)(v) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Contribution rate based on cost of coverage.</I> The term <I>contribution rate based on cost of coverage</I> means the amount of contributions made by an employer or employee organization compared to the total cost of coverage, expressed as a percentage. The total cost of coverage is determined in the same manner as the applicable premium is calculated under the COBRA continuation provisions of section 604 of ERISA, section 4980B(f)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code, and section 2204 of the PHS Act. In the case of a self-insured plan, contributions by an employer or employee organization are equal to the total cost of coverage minus the employee contributions towards the total cost of coverage.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Contribution rate based on a formula</I>. The term <I>contribution rate based on a formula</I> means, for plans that, on March 23, 2010, made contributions based on a formula (such as hours worked or tons of coal mined), the formula.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (g) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a grandfathered health plan has a coinsurance requirement of 20% for inpatient surgery. The plan is subsequently amended to increase the coinsurance requirement to 25%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the increase in the coinsurance requirement from 20% to 25% causes the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Before March 23, 2010, the terms of a group health plan provide benefits for a particular mental health condition, the treatment for which is a combination of counseling and prescription drugs. Subsequently, the plan eliminates benefits for counseling.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan ceases to be a grandfathered health plan because counseling is an element that is necessary to treat the condition. Thus the plan is considered to have eliminated substantially all benefits for the treatment of the condition.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a grandfathered group health plan has a copayment requirement of $30 per office visit for specialists. The plan is subsequently amended to increase the copayment requirement to $40, effective before June 15, 2021. Within the 12-month period before the $40 copayment takes effect, the greatest value of the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) is 475.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the increase in the copayment from $30 to $40, expressed as a percentage, is 33.33% (40−30 = 10; 10 ÷ 30 = 0.3333; 0.3333 = 33.33%). Medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section) from March 2010 is 0.2269 (475−387.142 = 87.858; 87.858 ÷ 387.142 = 0.2269). The maximum percentage increase permitted is 37.69% (0.2269 = 22.69%; 22.69% + 15% = 37.69%). Because 33.33% does not exceed 37.69%, the change in the copayment requirement at that time does not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 3</I> of this paragraph (g)(5), except the grandfathered group health plan subsequently increases the $40 copayment requirement to $45 for a later plan year, effective before June 15, 2021. Within the 12-month period before the $45 copayment takes effect, the greatest value of the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) is 485.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the increase in the copayment from $30 (the copayment that was in effect on March 23, 2010) to $45, expressed as a percentage, is 50% (45−30 = 15; 15 ÷ 30 = 0.5; 0.5 = 50%). Medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section) from March 2010 is 0.2527 (485−387.142 = 97.858; 97.858 ÷ 387.142 = 0.2527). The increase that would cause a plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan under paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this section is the greater of the maximum percentage increase of 40.27% (0.2527 = 25.27%; 25.27% + 15% = 40.27%), or $6.26 (5 × 0.2527 = $1.26; $1.26 + $5 = $6.26). Because 50% exceeds 40.27% and $15 exceeds $6.26, the change in the copayment requirement at that time causes the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4</I> of this paragraph (g)(5), except the grandfathered group health plan increases the copayment requirement to $45, effective <I>after</I> June 15, 2021. The greatest value of the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) in the preceding 12-month period is still 485. In the calendar year that includes the effective date of the increase, the applicable portion of the premium adjustment percentage is 36%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the grandfathered health plan may increase the copayment by the greater of: Medical inflation, expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points; or the applicable portion of the premium adjustment percentage for the calendar year that includes the effective date of the increase, plus 15 percentage points. The latter amount is greater because it results in a 51% maximum percentage increase (36% + 15% = 51%) and, as demonstrated in <I>Example 4</I> of this paragraph (g)(5), determining the maximum percentage increase using medical inflation yields a result of 40.27%. The increase in the copayment, expressed as a percentage, is 50% (45−30 = 15; 15 ÷ 30 = 0.5; 0.5 = 50%). Because the 50% increase in the copayment is less than the 51% maximum percentage increase, the change in the copayment requirement at that time does not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a grandfathered group health plan has a copayment of $10 per office visit for primary care providers. The plan is subsequently amended to increase the copayment requirement to $15, effective before June 15, 2021. Within the 12-month period before the $15 copayment takes effect, the greatest value of the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) is 415.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the increase in the copayment, expressed as a percentage, is 50% (15−10 = 5; 5 ÷ 10 = 0.5; 0.5 = 50%). Medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section) from March 2010 is 0.0720 (415.0−387.142 = 27.858; 27.858 ÷ 387.142 = 0.0720). The increase that would cause a group plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan under paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this section is the greater of the maximum percentage increase of 22.20% (0.0720 = 7.20%; 7.20% + 15% = 22.20%), or $5.36 ($5 × 0.0720 = $0.36; $0.36 + $5 = $5.36). The $5 increase in copayment in this <I>Example 6</I> would not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan pursuant to paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this section, which would permit an increase in the copayment of up to $5.36.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 6</I> of this paragraph (g)(5), except on March 23, 2010, the grandfathered health plan has no copayment ($0) for office visits for primary care providers. The plan is subsequently, amended to increase the copayment requirement to $5, effective before June 15, 2021.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section) from March 2010 is 0.0720 (415.0−387.142 = 27.858; 27.858 ÷ 387.142 = 0.0720). The increase that would cause a plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan under paragraph (g)(1)(iv)(A) of this section is $5.36 ($5 × 0.0720 = $0.36; $0.36 + $5 = $5.36). The $5 increase in copayment in this <I>Example 7</I> is less than the amount calculated pursuant to paragraph (g)(1)(iv)(A) of this section of $5.36. Thus, the $5 increase in copayment does not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a self-insured group health plan provides two tiers of coverage—self-only and family. The employer contributes 80% of the total cost of coverage for self-only and 60% of the total cost of coverage for family. Subsequently, the employer reduces the contribution to 50% for family coverage, but keeps the same contribution rate for self-only coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> the decrease of 10 percentage points for family coverage in the contribution rate based on cost of coverage causes the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan. The fact that the contribution rate for self-only coverage remains the same does not change the result.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 9.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a self-insured grandfathered health plan has a COBRA premium for the 2010 plan year of $5,000 for self-only coverage and $12,000 for family coverage. The required employee contribution for the coverage is $1,000 for self-only coverage and $4,000 for family coverage. Thus, the contribution rate based on cost of coverage for 2010 is 80% ((5,000−1,000)/5,000) for self-only coverage and 67% ((12,000−4,000)/12,000) for family coverage. For a subsequent plan year, the COBRA premium is $6,000 for self-only coverage and $15,000 for family coverage. The employee contributions for that plan year are $1,200 for self-only coverage and $5,000 for family coverage. Thus, the contribution rate based on cost of coverage is 80% ((6,000−1,200)/6,000) for self-only coverage and 67% ((15,000−5,000)/15,000) for family coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 9,</I> because there is no change in the contribution rate based on cost of coverage, the plan retains its status as a grandfathered health plan. The result would be the same if all or part of the employee contribution was made pre-tax through a cafeteria plan under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 10.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan not maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement offers three benefit packages on March 23, 2010. Option <I>F</I> is a self-insured option. Options <I>G</I> and <I>H</I> are insured options. Beginning July 1, 2013, the plan increases coinsurance under Option <I>H</I> from 10% to 15%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 10,</I> the coverage under Option <I>H</I> is not grandfathered health plan coverage as of July 1, 2013, consistent with the rule in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section. Whether the coverage under Options <I>F</I> and <I>G</I> is grandfathered health plan coverage is determined separately under the rules of this paragraph (g).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 11.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan that is a grandfathered health plan and also a high deductible health plan within the meaning of section 223(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code had a $2,400 deductible for family coverage on March 23, 2010. The plan is subsequently amended after June 15, 2021 to increase the deductible limit by the amount that is necessary to comply with the requirements for a plan to qualify as a high deductible health plan under section 223(c)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, but that exceeds the maximum percentage increase.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 11,</I> the increase in the deductible at that time does not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan because the increase was necessary for the plan to continue to satisfy the definition of a high deductible health plan under section 223(c)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code.</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72256, Nov. 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 81118, Dec. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2704" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2704   Prohibition of preexisting condition exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No preexisting condition exclusions.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not impose any preexisting condition exclusion (as defined in § 2590.701-2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraph (a) of this section are illustrated by the following examples (for additional examples illustrating the definition of a preexisting condition exclusion, <I>see</I> § 2590.701-3(a)(2)):
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts</I>. A group health plan provides benefits solely through an insurance policy offered by Issuer <I>P</I>. At the expiration of the policy, the plan switches coverage to a policy offered by Issuer <I>N. N</I>'s policy excludes benefits for oral surgery required as a result of a traumatic injury if the injury occurred before the effective date of coverage under the policy.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the exclusion of benefits for oral surgery required as a result of a traumatic injury if the injury occurred before the effective date of coverage is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to exclude benefits for a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage under the policy. Therefore, such an exclusion is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts</I>. Individual <I>C</I> applies for individual health insurance coverage with Issuer <I>M. M</I> denies <I>C</I>'s application for coverage because a pre-enrollment physical revealed that <I>C</I> has type 2 diabetes.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion. See Example 2</I> in 45 CFR 147.108(a)(2) for a conclusion that <I>M</I>'s denial of <I>C</I>'s application for coverage is a preexisting condition exclusion because a denial of an application for coverage based on the fact that a condition was present before the date of denial is an exclusion of benefits based on a preexisting condition. Therefore, such an exclusion is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017. Until the applicability date for this regulation, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with the corresponding sections of 29 CFR part 2590, contained in the 29 CFR, parts 1927 to end, edition revised as of July 1, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72261, Nov. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2705" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2705   Prohibiting discrimination against participants and beneficiaries based on a health factor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must comply with the requirements of § 2590.702 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section is applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 33186, June 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2708" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2708   Prohibition on waiting periods that exceed 90 days.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must not apply any waiting period that exceeds 90 days, in accordance with the rules of this section. If, under the terms of a plan, an individual can elect coverage that would begin on a date that is not later than the end of the 90-day waiting period, this paragraph (a) is considered satisfied. Accordingly, in that case, a plan or issuer will not be considered to have violated this paragraph (a) solely because individuals take, or are permitted to take, additional time (beyond the end of the 90-day waiting period) to elect coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiting period defined.</I> For purposes of this part, a waiting period is the period that must pass before coverage for an individual who is otherwise eligible to enroll under the terms of a group health plan can become effective. If an individual enrolls as a late enrollee (as defined under § 2590.701-2) or special enrollee (as described in § 2590.701-6), any period before such late or special enrollment is not a waiting period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to a plan's eligibility criteria</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section, being otherwise eligible to enroll under the terms of a group health plan means having met the plan's substantive eligibility conditions (such as, for example, being in an eligible job classification, achieving job-related licensure requirements specified in the plan's terms, or satisfying a reasonable and bona fide employment-based orientation period). Moreover, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section, nothing in this section requires a plan sponsor to offer coverage to any particular individual or class of individuals (including, for example, part-time employees). Instead, this section prohibits requiring otherwise eligible individuals to wait more than 90 days before coverage is effective. <I>See also</I> section 4980H of the Code and its implementing regulations for an applicable large employer's shared responsibility to provide health coverage to full-time employees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility conditions based solely on the lapse of time.</I> Eligibility conditions that are based solely on the lapse of a time period are permissible for no more than 90 days.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other conditions for eligibility.</I> Other conditions for eligibility under the terms of a group health plan are generally permissible under PHS Act section 2708, unless the condition is designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation, determined in accordance with the rules of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application to variable-hour employees in cases in which a specified number of hours of service per period is a plan eligibility condition.</I> If a group health plan conditions eligibility on an employee regularly having a specified number of hours of service per period (or working full-time), and it cannot be determined that a newly-hired employee is reasonably expected to regularly work that number of hours per period (or work full-time), the plan may take a reasonable period of time, not to exceed 12 months and beginning on any date between the employee's start date and the first day of the first calendar month following the employee's start date, to determine whether the employee meets the plan's eligibility condition. Except in cases in which a waiting period that exceeds 90 days is imposed in addition to a measurement period, the time period for determining whether such an employee meets the plan's eligibility condition will not be considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation if coverage is made effective no later than 13 months from the employee's start date plus, if the employee's start date is not the first day of a calendar month, the time remaining until the first day of the next calendar month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cumulative service requirements.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer conditions eligibility on an employee's having completed a number of cumulative hours of service, the eligibility condition is not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation if the cumulative hours-of-service requirement does not exceed 1,200 hours.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitation on orientation periods.</I> To ensure that an orientation period is not used as a subterfuge for the passage of time, or designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation, an orientation period is permitted only if it does not exceed one month. For this purpose, one month is determined by adding one calendar month and subtracting one calendar day, measured from an employee's start date in a position that is otherwise eligible for coverage. For example, if an employee's start date in an otherwise eligible position is May 3, the last permitted day of the orientation period is June 2. Similarly, if an employee's start date in an otherwise eligible position is October 1, the last permitted day of the orientation period is October 31. If there is not a corresponding date in the next calendar month upon adding a calendar month, the last permitted day of the orientation period is the last day of the next calendar month. For example, if the employee's start date is January 30, the last permitted day of the orientation period is February 28 (or February 29 in a leap year). Similarly, if the employee's start date is August 31, the last permitted day of the orientation period is September 30.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application to rehires.</I> A plan or issuer may treat an employee whose employment has terminated and who then is rehired as newly eligible upon rehire and, therefore, required to meet the plan's eligibility criteria and waiting period anew, if reasonable under the circumstances (for example, the termination and rehire cannot be a subterfuge to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counting days.</I> Under this section, all calendar days are counted beginning on the enrollment date (as defined in § 2590.701-2), including weekends and holidays. A plan or issuer that imposes a 90-day waiting period may, for administrative convenience, choose to permit coverage to become effective earlier than the 91st day if the 91st day is a weekend or holiday.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides that full-time employees are eligible for coverage under the plan. Employee <I>A</I> begins employment as a full-time employee on January 19.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> any waiting period for <I>A</I> would begin on January 19 and may not exceed 90 days. Coverage under the plan must become effective no later than April 19 (assuming February lasts 28 days).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides that only employees with job title <I>M</I> are eligible for coverage under the plan. Employee <I>B</I> begins employment with job title <I>L</I> on January 30.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2, B</I> is not eligible for coverage under the plan, and the period while <I>B</I> is working with job title <I>L</I> and therefore not in an eligible class of employees, is not part of a waiting period under this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in <I>Example 2,</I> except that <I>B</I> transfers to a new position with job title <I>M</I> on April 11.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3, B</I> becomes eligible for coverage on April 11, but for the waiting period. Any waiting period for <I>B</I> begins on April 11 and may not exceed 90 days; therefore, coverage under the plan must become effective no later than July 10.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides that only employees who have completed specified training and achieved specified certifications are eligible for coverage under the plan. Employee <I>C</I> is hired on May 3 and meets the plan's eligibility criteria on September 22.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4, C</I> becomes eligible for coverage on September 22, but for the waiting period. Any waiting period for <I>C</I> would begin on September 22 and may not exceed 90 days; therefore, coverage under the plan must become effective no later than December 21.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides that employees are eligible for coverage after one year of service.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the plan's eligibility condition is based solely on the lapse of time and, therefore, is impermissible under paragraph (c)(2) of this section because it exceeds 90 days.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employer <I>V'</I>s group health plan provides for coverage to begin on the first day of the first payroll period on or after the date an employee is hired and completes the applicable enrollment forms. Enrollment forms are distributed on an employee's start date and may be completed within 90 days. Employee <I>D</I> is hired and starts on October 31, which is the first day of a pay period. <I>D</I> completes the enrollment forms and submits them on the 90th day after <I>D'</I>s start date, which is January 28. Coverage is made effective 7 days later, February 4, which is the first day of the next pay period.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> under the terms of <I>V'</I>s plan, coverage may become effective as early as October 31, depending on when <I>D</I> completes the applicable enrollment forms. Under the terms of the plan, when coverage becomes effective depends solely on the length of time taken by <I>D</I> to complete the enrollment materials. Therefore, under the terms of the plan, <I>D</I> may elect coverage that would begin on a date that does not exceed the 90-day waiting period limitation, and the plan complies with this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under Employer <I>W'</I>s group health plan, only employees who are full-time (defined under the plan as regularly averaging 30 hours of service per week) are eligible for coverage. Employee <I>E</I> begins employment for Employer <I>W</I> on November 26 of Year 1. <I>E'</I>s hours are reasonably expected to vary, with an opportunity to work between 20 and 45 hours per week, depending on shift availability and <I>E'</I>s availability. Therefore, it cannot be determined at <I>E'</I>s start date that <I>E</I> is reasonably expected to work full-time. Under the terms of the plan, variable-hour employees, such as <I>E,</I> are eligible to enroll in the plan if they are determined to be a full-time employee after a measurement period of 12 months that begins on the employee's start date. Coverage is made effective no later than the first day of the first calendar month after the applicable enrollment forms are received. <I>E'</I>s 12-month measurement period ends November 25 of Year 2. <I>E</I> is determined to be a full-time employee and is notified of <I>E'</I>s plan eligibility. If <I>E</I> then elects coverage, <I>E'</I>s first day of coverage will be January 1 of Year 3.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> the measurement period is permissible because it is not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation. The plan may use a reasonable period of time to determine whether a variable-hour employee is a full-time employee, provided that (a) the period of time is no longer than 12 months; (b) the period of time begins on a date between the employee's start date and the first day of the next calendar month (inclusive); (c) coverage is made effective no later than 13 months from <I>E'</I>s start date plus, if the employee's start date is not the first day of a calendar month, the time remaining until the first day of the next calendar month; and (d) in addition to the measurement period, no more than 90 days elapse prior to the employee's eligibility for coverage.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employee <I>F</I> begins working 25 hours per week for Employer <I>X</I> on January 6 and is considered a part-time employee for purposes of <I>X'</I>s group health plan. <I>X</I> sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage to part-time employees after they have completed a cumulative 1,200 hours of service. <I>F</I> satisfies the plan's cumulative hours of service condition on December 15.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> the cumulative hours of service condition with respect to part-time employees is not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation. Accordingly, coverage for <I>F</I> under the plan must begin no later than the 91st day after <I>F</I> completes 1,200 hours. (If the plan's cumulative hours-of-service requirement was more than 1,200 hours, the requirement would be considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 9.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A multiemployer plan operating pursuant to an arms-length collective bargaining agreement has an eligibility provision that allows employees to become eligible for coverage by working a specified number of hours of covered employment for multiple contributing employers. The plan aggregates hours in a calendar quarter and then, if enough hours are earned, coverage begins the first day of the next calendar quarter. The plan also permits coverage to extend for the next full calendar quarter, regardless of whether an employee's employment has terminated.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 9,</I> these eligibility provisions are designed to accommodate a unique operating structure, and, therefore, are not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation, and the plan complies with this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 10.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employee <I>G</I> retires at age 55 after 30 years of employment with Employer <I>Y</I> with no expectation of providing further services to Employer <I>Y.</I> Three months later, <I>Y</I> recruits <I>G</I> to return to work as an employee providing advice and transition assistance for <I>G'</I>s replacement under a one-year employment contract. <I>Y'</I>s plan imposes a 90-day waiting period from an employee's start date before coverage becomes effective.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 10, Y'</I>s plan may treat <I>G</I> as newly eligible for coverage under the plan upon rehire and therefore may impose the 90-day waiting period with respect to <I>G</I> for coverage offered in connection with <I>G'</I>s rehire.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 11.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employee <I>H</I> begins working full time for Employer <I>Z</I> on October 16. <I>Z</I> sponsors a group health plan, under which full time employees are eligible for coverage after they have successfully completed a bona fide one-month orientation period. <I>H</I> completes the orientation period on November 15.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 11,</I> the orientation period is not considered a subterfuge for the passage of time and is not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation. Accordingly, plan coverage for <I>H</I> must begin no later than February 14, which is the 91st day after <I>H</I> completes the orientation period. (If the orientation period was longer than one month, it would be considered to be a subterfuge for the passage of time and designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation. Accordingly it would violate the rules of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(g) <I>Special rule for health insurance issuers.</I> To the extent coverage under a group health plan is insured by a health insurance issuer, the issuer is permitted to rely on the eligibility information reported to it by the employer (or other plan sponsor) and will not be considered to violate the requirements of this section with respect to its administration of any waiting period, if both of the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer requires the plan sponsor to make a representation regarding the terms of any eligibility conditions or waiting periods imposed by the plan sponsor before an individual is eligible to become covered under the terms of the plan (and requires the plan sponsor to update this representation with any changes), and
</P>
<P>(2) The issuer has no specific knowledge of the imposition of a waiting period that would exceed the permitted 90-day period.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>No effect on other laws.</I> Compliance with this section is not determinative of compliance with any other provision of State or Federal law (including ERISA, the Code, or other provisions of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act). <I>See e.g.,</I> § 2590.702, which prohibits discrimination in eligibility for coverage based on a health factor and Code section 4980H, which generally requires applicable large employers to offer coverage to full-time employees and their dependents or make an assessable payment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015. <I>See</I> § 2590.715-1251 providing that the prohibition on waiting periods exceeding 90 days applies to all group health plans and group health insurance issuers, including grandfathered health plans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10311, Feb. 24, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 35947, June 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2711" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2711   No lifetime or annual limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition</I>—(1) <I>Lifetime limits.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not establish any lifetime limit on the dollar amount of essential health benefits for any individual, whether provided in-network or out-of-network.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual limits</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (b) of this section, a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not establish any annual limit on the dollar amount of essential health benefits for any individual, whether provided in-network or out-of-network.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception for health flexible spending arrangements.</I> A health flexible spending arrangement (as defined in section 106(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code) offered through a cafeteria plan pursuant to section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code is not subject to the requirement in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Construction</I>—(1) <I>Permissible limits on specific covered benefits.</I> The rules of this section do not prevent a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, from placing annual or lifetime dollar limits with respect to any individual on specific covered benefits that are not essential health benefits to the extent that such limits are otherwise permitted under applicable Federal or State law. (The scope of essential health benefits is addressed in paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Condition-based exclusions.</I> The rules of this section do not prevent a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, from excluding all benefits for a condition. However, if any benefits are provided for a condition, then the requirements of this section apply. Other requirements of Federal or State law may require coverage of certain benefits.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of essential health benefits.</I> The term “essential health benefits” means essential health benefits under section 1302(b) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act and applicable regulations. For the purpose of this section, a group health plan or a health insurance issuer that is not required to provide essential health benefits under section 1302(b) must define “essential health benefits” in a manner that is consistent with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2020, one of the EHB-benchmark plans applicable in a State under 45 CFR 156.110, and including coverage of any additional required benefits that are considered essential health benefits consistent with 45 CFR 155.170(a)(2), or one of the three Federal Employees Health Benefits Program (FEHBP) plan options as defined by 45 CFR 156.100(a)(3), supplemented as necessary, to satisfy the standards in 45 CFR 156.110; or
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020, an EHB-benchmark plan selected by a State in accordance with the available options and requirements for EHB-benchmark plan selection at 45 CFR 156.111, including an EHB-benchmark plan in a State that takes no action to change its EHB-benchmark plan and thus retains the EHB-benchmark plan applicable in that State for the prior year in accordance with 45 CFR 156.111(d)(1), and including coverage of any additional required benefits that are considered essential health benefits consistent with 45 CFR 155.170(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Health reimbursement arrangements (HRAs) and other account-based group health plans</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If an HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan or individual health insurance coverage and the other group health plan or individual health insurance coverage, as applicable, separately is subject to and satisfies the requirements in PHS Act section 2711 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the fact that the benefits under the HRA or other account-based group health plan are limited does not cause the HRA or other account-based group health plan to fail to satisfy the requirements of PHS Act section 2711 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Similarly, if an HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan or individual health insurance coverage and the other group health plan or individual health insurance coverage, as applicable, separately is subject to and satisfies the requirements in PHS Act section 2713 and § 2590.715-2713(a)(1) of this part, the fact that the benefits under the HRA or other account-based group health plan are limited does not cause the HRA or other account-based group health plan to fail to satisfy the requirements of PHS Act section 2713 and § 2590.715-2713(a)(1) of this part. For the purpose of this paragraph (d), all individual health insurance coverage, except for coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits, is treated as being subject to and complying with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for an HRA or other account-based group health plan to be integrated with another group health plan.</I> An HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan for purposes of PHS Act section 2711 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section if it satisfies the requirements under one of the integration methods set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section. For purposes of the integration methods under which an HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan, integration does not require that the HRA or other account-based group health plan and the other group health plan with which it is integrated share the same plan sponsor, the same plan document or governing instruments, or file a single Form 5500, if applicable. An HRA or other account-based group health plan integrated with another group health plan for purposes of PHS Act section 2711 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section may not be used to purchase individual health insurance coverage unless that coverage consists solely of excepted benefits, as defined in 45 CFR 148.220.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Method for integration with a group health plan: Minimum value not required.</I> An HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan for purposes of this paragraph (d) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The plan sponsor offers a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan) to the employee that does not consist solely of excepted benefits;
</P>
<P>(B) The employee receiving the HRA or other account-based group health plan is actually enrolled in a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan) that does not consist solely of excepted benefits, regardless of whether the plan is offered by the same plan sponsor (referred to as non-HRA group coverage);
</P>
<P>(C) The HRA or other account-based group health plan is available only to employees who are enrolled in non-HRA group coverage, regardless of whether the non-HRA group coverage is offered by the plan sponsor of the HRA or other account-based group health plan (for example, the HRA may be offered only to employees who do not enroll in an employer's group health plan but are enrolled in other non-HRA group coverage, such as a group health plan maintained by the employer of the employee's spouse);
</P>
<P>(D) The benefits under the HRA or other account-based group health plan are limited to reimbursement of one or more of the following—co-payments, co-insurance, deductibles, and premiums under the non-HRA group coverage, as well as medical care expenses that do not constitute essential health benefits as defined in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Under the terms of the HRA or other account-based group health plan, an employee (or former employee) is permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA or other account-based group health plan at least annually and, upon termination of employment, either the remaining amounts in the HRA or other account-based group health plan are forfeited or the employee is permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA or other account-based group health plan (see paragraph (d)(3) of this section for additional rules regarding forfeiture and waiver).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Method for integration with another group health plan: Minimum value required.</I> An HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan for purposes of this paragraph (d) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The plan sponsor offers a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan) to the employee that provides minimum value pursuant to Code section 36B(c)(2)(C)(ii) (and its implementing regulations and applicable guidance);
</P>
<P>(B) The employee receiving the HRA or other account-based group health plan is actually enrolled in a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan) that provides minimum value pursuant to Code section 36B(c)(2)(C)(ii) (and applicable guidance), regardless of whether the plan is offered by the plan sponsor of the HRA or other account-based group health plan (referred to as non-HRA MV group coverage);
</P>
<P>(C) The HRA or other account-based group health plan is available only to employees who are actually enrolled in non-HRA MV group coverage, regardless of whether the non-HRA MV group coverage is offered by the plan sponsor of the HRA or other account-based group health plan (for example, the HRA may be offered only to employees who do not enroll in an employer's group health plan but are enrolled in other non-HRA MV group coverage, such as a group health plan maintained by an employer of the employee's spouse); and
</P>
<P>(D) Under the terms of the HRA or other account-based group health plan, an employee (or former employee) is permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA or other account-based group health plan at least annually, and, upon termination of employment, either the remaining amounts in the HRA or other account-based group health plan are forfeited or the employee is permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA or other account-based group health plan (see paragraph (d)(3) of this section for additional rules regarding forfeiture and waiver).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Forfeiture.</I> For purposes of integration under paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(E) and (d)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, forfeiture or waiver occurs even if the forfeited or waived amounts may be reinstated upon a fixed date, a participant's death, or the earlier of the two events (the reinstatement event). For the purpose of this paragraph (d)(3), coverage under an HRA or other account-based group health plan is considered forfeited or waived prior to a reinstatement event only if the participant's election to forfeit or waive is irrevocable, meaning that, beginning on the effective date of the election and through the date of the reinstatement event, the participant and the participant's beneficiaries have no access to amounts credited to the HRA or other account-based group health plan. This means that upon and after reinstatement, the reinstated amounts under the HRA or other account-based group health plan may not be used to reimburse or pay medical care expenses incurred during the period after forfeiture and prior to reinstatement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requirements for an HRA or other account-based group health plan to be integrated with individual health insurance coverage or Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C.</I> An HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with individual health insurance coverage or Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C (and treated as complying with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713) if the HRA or other account-based group health plan satisfies the requirements of § 2590.702-2(c) of this part (as modified by § 2590.702-2(e), for HRAs or other account-based group health plans integrated with Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Integration with Medicare Part B and D.</I> For employers that are not required to offer their non-HRA group health plan coverage to employees who are Medicare beneficiaries, an HRA or other account-based group health plan that may be used to reimburse premiums under Medicare Part B or D may be integrated with Medicare (and deemed to comply with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713) if the following requirements are satisfied with respect to employees who would be eligible for the employer's non-HRA group health plan but for their eligibility for Medicare (and the integration rules under paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section continue to apply to employees who are not eligible for Medicare):
</P>
<P>(i) The plan sponsor offers a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan and that does not consist solely of excepted benefits) to employees who are not eligible for Medicare;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee receiving the HRA or other account-based group health plan is actually enrolled in Medicare Part B or D;
</P>
<P>(iii) The HRA or other account-based group health plan is available only to employees who are enrolled in Medicare Part B or D; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The HRA or other account-based group health plan complies with paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(E) and (d)(2)(ii)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Account-based group health plan.</I> An account-based group health plan is an employer-provided group health plan that provides reimbursements of medical care expenses with the reimbursement subject to a maximum fixed dollar amount for a period. An HRA is a type of account-based group health plan. An account-based group health plan does not include a qualified small employer health reimbursement arrangement, as defined in Code section 9831(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Medical care expenses.</I> Medical care expenses means expenses for medical care as defined under Code section 213(d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020. Until the applicability date for this section, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with the corresponding sections of this part, contained in the 29 CFR parts 1927 to end edition, revised as of July 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72261, Nov. 18, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 75325, Oct. 31, 2016; 84 FR 29011, June 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2712" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2712   Rules regarding rescissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition on rescissions.</I> (1) A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must not rescind coverage under the plan, or under the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, with respect to an individual (including a group to which the individual belongs or family coverage in which the individual is included) once the individual is covered under the plan or coverage, unless the individual (or a person seeking coverage on behalf of the individual) performs an act, practice, or omission that constitutes fraud, or makes an intentional misrepresentation of material fact, as prohibited by the terms of the plan or coverage. A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must provide at least 30 days advance written notice to each participant who would be affected before coverage may be rescinded under this paragraph (a)(1), regardless of whether the coverage is insured or self-insured, or whether the rescission applies to an entire group or only to an individual within the group. (The rules of this paragraph (a)(1) apply regardless of any contestability period that may otherwise apply.)
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a rescission is a cancellation or discontinuance of coverage that has retroactive effect. For example, a cancellation that treats a policy as void from the time of the individual's or group's enrollment is a rescission. As another example, a cancellation that voids benefits paid up to a year before the cancellation is also a rescission for this purpose. A cancellation or discontinuance of coverage is not a rescission if—
</P>
<P>(i) The cancellation or discontinuance of coverage has only a prospective effect;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cancellation or discontinuance of coverage is effective retroactively to the extent it is attributable to a failure to timely pay required premiums or contributions (including COBRA premiums) towards the cost of coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) The cancellation or discontinuance of coverage is initiated by the individual (or by the individual's authorized representative) and the sponsor, employer, plan, or issuer does not, directly or indirectly, take action to influence the individual's decision to cancel or discontinue coverage retroactively or otherwise take any adverse action or retaliate against, interfere with, coerce, intimidate, or threaten the individual; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The cancellation or discontinuance of coverage is initiated by the Exchange pursuant to 45 CFR 155.430 (other than under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)).
</P>
<P>(3) The rules of this paragraph (a) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> seeks enrollment in an insured group health plan. The plan terms permit rescission of coverage with respect to an individual if the individual engages in fraud or makes an intentional misrepresentation of a material fact. The plan requires <I>A</I> to complete a questionnaire regarding <I>A'</I>s prior medical history, which affects setting the group rate by the health insurance issuer. The questionnaire complies with the other requirements of this part. The questionnaire includes the following question: “Is there anything else relevant to your health that we should know?” <I>A</I> inadvertently fails to list that <I>A</I> visited a psychologist on two occasions, six years previously. <I>A</I> is later diagnosed with breast cancer and seeks benefits under the plan. On or around the same time, the issuer receives information about <I>A'</I>s visits to the psychologist, which was not disclosed in the questionnaire.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan cannot rescind <I>A'</I>s coverage because <I>A'</I>s failure to disclose the visits to the psychologist was inadvertent. Therefore, it was not fraudulent or an intentional misrepresentation of material fact.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage for employees who work at least 30 hours per week. Individual <I>B</I> has coverage under the plan as a full-time employee. The employer reassigns <I>B</I> to a part-time position. Under the terms of the plan, <I>B</I> is no longer eligible for coverage. The plan mistakenly continues to provide health coverage, collecting premiums from <I>B</I> and paying claims submitted by <I>B.</I> After a routine audit, the plan discovers that <I>B</I> no longer works at least 30 hours per week. The plan rescinds <I>B'</I>s coverage effective as of the date that <I>B</I> changed from a full-time employee to a part-time employee.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan cannot rescind <I>B'</I>s coverage because there was no fraud or an intentional misrepresentation of material fact. The plan may cancel coverage for <I>B</I> prospectively, subject to other applicable Federal and State laws.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance with other requirements.</I> Other requirements of Federal or State law may apply in connection with a rescission of coverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017. Until the applicability date for this regulation, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with the corresponding sections of 29 CFR part 2590, contained in the 29 CFR, parts 1927 to end, edition revised as of July 1, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72263, Nov. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2713" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2713   Coverage of preventive health services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Services</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Beginning at the time described in paragraph (b) of this section and subject to § 2590.715-2713A, a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must provide coverage for and must not impose any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or a deductible) for—
</P>
<P>(i) Evidence-based items or services that have in effect a rating of A or B in the current recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force with respect to the individual involved (except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section);
</P>
<P>(ii) Immunizations for routine use in children, adolescents, and adults that have in effect a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention with respect to the individual involved (for this purpose, a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is considered in effect after it has been adopted by the Director of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and a recommendation is considered to be for routine use if it is listed on the Immunization Schedules of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention);
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to infants, children, and adolescents, evidence-informed preventive care and screenings provided for in comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration;
</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to women, such additional preventive care and screenings not described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section as provided for in comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration for purposes of section 2713(a)(4) of the Public Health Service Act, subject to 45 CFR 147.131, 147.132, and 147.133; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any qualifying coronavirus preventive service, which means an item, service, or immunization that is intended to prevent or mitigate coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) and that is, with respect to the individual involved—
</P>
<P>(A) An evidence-based item or service that has in effect a rating of A or B in the current recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force; or
</P>
<P>(B) An immunization that has in effect a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (regardless of whether the immunization is recommended for routine use). For purposes of this paragraph (a)(1)(v)(B), a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is considered in effect after it has been adopted by the Director of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Office visits.</I> (i) If an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is billed separately (or is tracked as individual encounter data separately) from an office visit, then a plan or issuer may impose cost-sharing requirements with respect to the office visit.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is not billed separately (or is not tracked as individual encounter data separately) from an office visit and the primary purpose of the office visit is the delivery of such an item or service, then a plan or issuer may not impose cost-sharing requirements with respect to the office visit.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is not billed separately (or is not tracked as individual encounter data separately) from an office visit and the primary purpose of the office visit is not the delivery of such an item or service, then a plan or issuer may impose cost-sharing requirements with respect to the office visit.
</P>
<P>(iv) The rules of this paragraph (a)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An individual covered by a group health plan visits an in-network health care provider. While visiting the provider, the individual is screened for cholesterol abnormalities, which has in effect a rating of A or B in the current recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force with respect to the individual. The provider bills the plan for an office visit and for the laboratory work of the cholesterol screening test.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan may not impose any cost-sharing requirements with respect to the separately-billed laboratory work of the cholesterol screening test. Because the office visit is billed separately from the cholesterol screening test, the plan may impose cost-sharing requirements for the office visit.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1.</I> As the result of the screening, the individual is diagnosed with hyperlipidemia and is prescribed a course of treatment that is not included in the recommendations under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> because the treatment is not included in the recommendations under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the plan is not prohibited from imposing cost-sharing requirements with respect to the treatment.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An individual covered by a group health plan visits an in-network health care provider to discuss recurring abdominal pain. During the visit, the individual has a blood pressure screening, which has in effect a rating of A or B in the current recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force with respect to the individual. The provider bills the plan for an office visit.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the blood pressure screening is provided as part of an office visit for which the primary purpose was not to deliver items or services described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Therefore, the plan may impose a cost-sharing requirement for the office visit charge.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A child covered by a group health plan visits an in-network pediatrician to receive an annual physical exam described as part of the comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration. During the office visit, the child receives additional items and services that are not described in the comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration, nor otherwise described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The provider bills the plan for an office visit.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the service was not billed as a separate charge and was billed as part of an office visit. Moreover, the primary purpose for the visit was to deliver items and services described as part of the comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration. Therefore, the plan may not impose a cost-sharing requirement with respect to the office visit.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Out-of-network providers.</I> (i) Subject to paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section, nothing in this section requires a plan or issuer that has a network of providers to provide benefits for items or services described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are delivered by an out-of-network provider, or precludes a plan or issuer that has a network of providers from imposing cost-sharing requirements for items or services described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are delivered by an out-of-network provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a plan or issuer does not have in its network a provider who can provide an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the plan or issuer must cover the item or service when performed by an out-of-network provider, and may not impose cost sharing with respect to the item or service.
</P>
<P>(iii) A plan or issuer must provide coverage for and must not impose any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or a deductible) for any qualifying coronavirus preventive service described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section, regardless of whether such service is delivered by an in-network or out-of-network provider. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii), with respect to a qualifying coronavirus preventive service and a provider with whom the plan or issuer does not have a negotiated rate for such service (such as an out-of-network provider), the plan or issuer must reimburse the provider for such service in an amount that is reasonable, as determined in comparison to prevailing market rates for such service.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reasonable medical management.</I> Nothing prevents a plan or issuer from using reasonable medical management techniques to determine the frequency, method, treatment, or setting for an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the extent not specified in the relevant recommendation or guideline. To the extent not specified in a recommendation or guideline, a plan or issuer may rely on the relevant clinical evidence base and established reasonable medical management techniques to determine the frequency, method, treatment, or setting for coverage of a recommended preventive health service.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Services not described.</I> Nothing in this section prohibits a plan or issuer from providing coverage for items and services in addition to those recommended by the United States Preventive Services Task Force or the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, or provided for by guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration, or from denying coverage for items and services that are not recommended by that task force or that advisory committee, or under those guidelines. A plan or issuer may impose cost-sharing requirements for a treatment not described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, even if the treatment results from an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A plan or issuer must provide coverage pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section for plan years that begin on or after September 23, 2010, or, if later, for plan years that begin on or after the date that is one year after the date the recommendation or guideline is issued, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes in recommendations or guidelines.</I> (i) A plan or issuer that is required to provide coverage for any items and services specified in any recommendation or guideline described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section on the first day of a plan year, or as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, must provide coverage through the last day of the plan or policy year, even if the recommendation or guideline changes or is no longer described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, during the applicable plan or policy year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, to the extent a recommendation or guideline described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section that was in effect on the first day of a plan year, or as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, is downgraded to a “D” rating, or any item or service associated with any recommendation or guideline specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is subject to a safety recall or is otherwise determined to pose a significant safety concern by a Federal agency authorized to regulate the item or service during a plan or policy year, there is no requirement under this section to cover these items and services through the last day of the applicable plan or policy year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rapid coverage of preventive services for coronavirus.</I> In the case of a qualifying coronavirus preventive service described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section, a plan or issuer must provide coverage for such item, service, or immunization in accordance with this section by the date that is 15 business days after the date on which a recommendation specified in paragraph (a)(1)(v)(A) or (B) of this section is made relating to such item, service, or immunization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recommendations not current.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and for purposes of any other provision of law, recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force regarding breast cancer screening, mammography, and prevention issued in or around November 2009 are not considered to be current.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after September 23, 2010. <I>See</I> § 2590.715-1251 of this part for determining the application of this section to grandfathered health plans (providing that these rules regarding coverage of preventive health services do not apply to grandfathered health plans).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sunset date.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (a)(1)(v), (a)(3)(iii), and (b)(3) of this section will not apply with respect to a qualifying coronavirus preventive service furnished on or after the expiration of the public health emergency determined on January 31, 2020, to exist nationwide as of January 27, 2020, by the Secretary of Health and Human Services pursuant to section 319 of the Public Health Service Act, as a result of COVID-19, including any subsequent renewals of that determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 41757, July 19, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 46625, Aug. 3, 2011; 78 FR 39894, July 2, 2013; 80 FR 41345, July 14, 2015; 82 FR 47831, 47861, Oct. 13, 2017; 85 FR 71195, Nov. 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2713A" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2713A   Accommodations in connection with coverage of preventive health services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible organizations for optional accommodation.</I> An eligible organization is an organization that meets the criteria of paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The organization is an objecting entity described in 45 CFR 147.132(a)(1)(i) or (ii), or 45 CFR 147.133(a)(1)(i) or (ii);
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding its exempt status under 45 CFR 147.132(a) or 147.133(a), the organization voluntarily seeks to be considered an eligible organization to invoke the optional accommodation under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) The organization self-certifies in the form and manner specified by the Secretary or provides notice to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services as described in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section. To qualify as an eligible organization, the organization must make such self-certification or notice available for examination upon request by the first day of the first plan year to which the accommodation in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section applies. The self-certification or notice must be executed by a person authorized to make the certification or provide the notice on behalf of the organization, and must be maintained in a manner consistent with the record retention requirements under section 107 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(5) An eligible organization may revoke its use of the accommodation process, and its issuer or third party administrator must provide participants and beneficiaries written notice of such revocation, as specified herein.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Transitional rule.</I> If contraceptive coverage is being offered on the date on which these final rules go into effect, by an issuer or third party administrator through the accommodation process, an eligible organization may give 60-days notice pursuant to PHS Act section 2715(d)(4) and § 2590.715-2715(b), if applicable, to revoke its use of the accommodation process (to allow for the provision of notice to plan participants in cases where contraceptive benefits will no longer be provided). Alternatively, such eligible organization may revoke its use of the accommodation process effective on the first day of the first plan year that begins on or after 30 days after the date of the revocation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General rule.</I> In plan years that begin after the date on which these final rules go into effect, if contraceptive coverage is being offered by an issuer or third party administrator through the accommodation process, an eligible organization's revocation of use of the accommodation process will be effective no sooner than the first day of the first plan year that begins on or after 30 days after the date of the revocation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional accommodation—self-insured group health plans.</I> (1) A group health plan established or maintained by an eligible organization that provides benefits on a self-insured basis may voluntarily elect an optional accommodation under which its third party administrator(s) will provide or arrange payments for all or a subset of contraceptive services for one or more plan years. To invoke the optional accommodation process:
</P>
<P>(i) The eligible organization or its plan must contract with one or more third party administrators.
</P>
<P>(ii) The eligible organization must provide either a copy of the self-certification to each third party administrator or a notice to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services that it is an eligible organization and of its objection as described in 45 CFR 147.132 or 147.133 to coverage of all or a subset of contraceptive services.
</P>
<P>(A) When a copy of the self-certification is provided directly to a third party administrator, such self-certification must include notice that obligations of the third party administrator are set forth in § 2510.3-16 of this chapter and this section.
</P>
<P>(B) When a notice is provided to the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the notice must include the name of the eligible organization; a statement that it objects as described in 45 CFR 147.132 or 147.133 to coverage of some or all contraceptive services (including an identification of the subset of contraceptive services to which coverage the eligible organization objects, if applicable), but that it would like to elect the optional accommodation process; the plan name and type (that is, whether it is a student health insurance plan within the meaning of 45 CFR 147.145(a) or a church plan within the meaning of section 3(33) of ERISA); and the name and contact information for any of the plan's third party administrators. If there is a change in any of the information required to be included in the notice, the eligible organization must provide updated information to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services for the optional accommodation process to remain in effect. The Department of Labor (working with the Department of Health and Human Services), will send a separate notification to each of the plan's third party administrators informing the third party administrator that the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services has received a notice under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and describing the obligations of the third party administrator under § 2510.3-16 of this chapter and this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a third party administrator receives a copy of the self-certification from an eligible organization or a notification from the Department of Labor, as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, and is willing to enter into or remain in a contractual relationship with the eligible organization or its plan to provide administrative services for the plan, then the third party administrator will provide or arrange payments for contraceptive services, using one of the following methods—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide payments for the contraceptive services for plan participants and beneficiaries without imposing any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or a deductible), premium, fee, or other charge, or any portion thereof, directly or indirectly, on the eligible organization, the group health plan, or plan participants or beneficiaries; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Arrange for an issuer or other entity to provide payments for contraceptive services for plan participants and beneficiaries without imposing any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or a deductible), premium, fee, or other charge, or any portion thereof, directly or indirectly, on the eligible organization, the group health plan, or plan participants or beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(3) If a third party administrator provides or arranges payments for contraceptive services in accordance with either paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section, the costs of providing or arranging such payments may be reimbursed through an adjustment to the Federally facilitated Exchange user fee for a participating issuer pursuant to 45 CFR 156.50(d).
</P>
<P>(4) A third party administrator may not require any documentation other than a copy of the self-certification from the eligible organization or notification from the Department of Labor described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Where an otherwise eligible organization does not contract with a third party administrator and it files a self-certification or notice under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the obligations under paragraph (b)(2) of this section do not apply, and the otherwise eligible organization is under no requirement to provide coverage or payments for contraceptive services to which it objects. The plan administrator for that otherwise eligible organization may, if it and the otherwise eligible organization choose, arrange for payments for contraceptive services from an issuer or other entity in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, and such issuer or other entity may receive reimbursements in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional accommodation—insured group health plans</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A group health plan established or maintained by an eligible organization that provides benefits through one or more group health insurance issuers may voluntarily elect an optional accommodation under which its health insurance issuer(s) will provide payments for all or a subset of contraceptive services for one or more plan years. To invoke the optional accommodation process:
</P>
<P>(i) The eligible organization or its plan must contract with one or more health insurance issuers.
</P>
<P>(ii) The eligible organization must provide either a copy of the self-certification to each issuer providing coverage in connection with the plan or a notice to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services that it is an eligible organization and of its objection as described in 45 CFR 147.132 or 147.133 to coverage for all or a subset of contraceptive services.
</P>
<P>(A) When a self-certification is provided directly to an issuer, the issuer has sole responsibility for providing such coverage in accordance with § 2590.715-2713.
</P>
<P>(B) When a notice is provided to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services, the notice must include the name of the eligible organization; a statement that it objects as described in 45 CFR 147.132 or 147.133 to coverage of some or all contraceptive services (including an identification of the subset of contraceptive services to which coverage the eligible organization objects, if applicable) but that it would like to elect the optional accommodation process; the plan name and type (that is, whether it is a student health insurance plan within the meaning of 45 CFR 147.145(a) or a church plan within the meaning of section 3(33) of ERISA); and the name and contact information for any of the plan's health insurance issuers. If there is a change in any of the information required to be included in the notice, the eligible organization must provide updated information to the Secretary of Department Health and Human Services for the optional accommodation process to remain in effect. The Department of Health and Human Services will send a separate notification to each of the plan's health insurance issuers informing the issuer that the Secretary of Health and Human Services has received a notice under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section and describing the obligations of the issuer under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If an issuer receives a copy of the self-certification from an eligible organization or the notification from the Department of Health and Human Services as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section and does not have its own objection as described in 45 CFR 147.132 or 147.133 to providing the contraceptive services to which the eligible organization objects, then the issuer will provide payments for contraceptive services as follows—
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer must expressly exclude contraceptive coverage from the group health insurance coverage provided in connection with the group health plan and provide separate payments for any contraceptive services required to be covered under § 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv) for plan participants and beneficiaries for so long as they remain enrolled in the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to payments for contraceptive services, the issuer may not impose any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or a deductible), or impose any premium, fee, or other charge, or any portion thereof, directly or indirectly, on the eligible organization, the group health plan, or plan participants or beneficiaries. The issuer must segregate premium revenue collected from the eligible organization from the monies used to provide payments for contraceptive services. The issuer must provide payments for contraceptive services in a manner that is consistent with the requirements under sections 2706, 2709, 2711, 2713, 2719, and 2719A of the PHS Act, as incorporated into section 715 of ERISA. If the group health plan of the eligible organization provides coverage for some but not all of any contraceptive services required to be covered under § 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv), the issuer is required to provide payments only for those contraceptive services for which the group health plan does not provide coverage. However, the issuer may provide payments for all contraceptive services, at the issuer's option.
</P>
<P>(3) A health insurance issuer may not require any documentation other than a copy of the self-certification from the eligible organization or the notification from the Department of Health and Human Services described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of availability of separate payments for contraceptive services—self-insured and insured group health plans.</I> For each plan year to which the optional accommodation in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section is to apply, a third party administrator required to provide or arrange payments for contraceptive services pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, and an issuer required to provide payments for contraceptive services pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, must provide to plan participants and beneficiaries written notice of the availability of separate payments for contraceptive services contemporaneous with (to the extent possible), but separate from, any application materials distributed in connection with enrollment (or re-enrollment) in group health coverage that is effective beginning on the first day of each applicable plan year. The notice must specify that the eligible organization does not administer or fund contraceptive benefits, but that the third party administrator or issuer, as applicable, provides or arranges separate payments for contraceptive services, and must provide contact information for questions and complaints. The following model language, or substantially similar language, may be used to satisfy the notice requirement of this paragraph (d): “Your employer has certified that your group health plan qualifies for an accommodation with respect to the Federal requirement to cover all Food and Drug Administration-approved contraceptive services for women, as prescribed by a health care provider, without cost sharing. This means that your employer will not contract, arrange, pay, or refer for contraceptive coverage. Instead, [name of third party administrator/health insurance issuer] will provide or arrange separate payments for contraceptive services that you use, without cost sharing and at no other cost, for so long as you are enrolled in your group health plan. Your employer will not administer or fund these payments. If you have any questions about this notice, contact [contact information for third party administrator/health insurance issuer].”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reliance—insured group health plans.</I> (1) If an issuer relies reasonably and in good faith on a representation by the eligible organization as to its eligibility for the accommodation in paragraph (c) of this section, and the representation is later determined to be incorrect, the issuer is considered to comply with any applicable requirement under § 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv) to provide contraceptive coverage if the issuer complies with the obligations under this section applicable to such issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) A group health plan is considered to comply with any applicable requirement under § 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv) to provide contraceptive coverage if the plan complies with its obligations under paragraph (c) of this section, without regard to whether the issuer complies with the obligations under this section applicable to such issuer.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Definition.</I> For the purposes of this section, reference to “contraceptive” services, benefits, or coverage includes contraceptive or sterilization items, procedures, or services, or related patient education or counseling, to the extent specified for purposes of § 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Severability.</I> Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 47831, Oct. 13, 2017, as amended at 82 FR 47861, Oct. 13, 2017; 83 FR 57589, Nov. 15, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2714" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2714   Eligibility of children until at least age 26.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, that makes available dependent coverage of children must make such coverage available for children until attainment of 26 years of age.
</P>
<P>(2) The rule of this paragraph (a) is illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> For the plan year beginning January 1, 2011, a group health plan provides health coverage for employees, employees' spouses, and employees' children until the child turns 26. On the birthday of a child of an employee, July 17, 2011, the child turns 26. The last day the plan covers the child is July 16, 2011.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the plan satisfies the requirement of this paragraph (a) with respect to the child.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on plan definition of dependent</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> With respect to a child who has not attained age 26, a plan or issuer may not define dependent for purposes of eligibility for dependent coverage of children other than in terms of a relationship between a child and the participant. Thus, for example, a plan or issuer may not deny or restrict dependent coverage for a child who has not attained age 26 based on the presence or absence of the child's financial dependency (upon the participant or any other person); residency with the participant or with any other person; whether the child lives, works, or resides in an HMO's service area or other network service area; marital status; student status; employment; eligibility for other coverage; or any combination of those factors. (Other requirements of Federal or State law, including section 609 of ERISA or section 1908 of the Social Security Act, may require coverage of certain children.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Construction.</I> A plan or issuer will not fail to satisfy the requirements of this section if the plan or issuer limits dependent child coverage to children under age 26 who are described in section 152(f)(1) of the Code. For an individual not described in Code section 152(f)(1), such as a grandchild or niece, a plan may impose additional conditions on eligibility for dependent child health coverage, such as a condition that the individual be a dependent for income tax purposes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage of grandchildren not required.</I> Nothing in this section requires a plan or issuer to make coverage available for the child of a child receiving dependent coverage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Uniformity irrespective of age.</I> The terms of the plan or health insurance coverage providing dependent coverage of children cannot vary based on age (except for children who are age 26 or older).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraph (d) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers a choice of self-only or family health coverage. Dependent coverage is provided under family health coverage for children of participants who have not attained age 26. The plan imposes an additional premium surcharge for children who are older than age 18.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan violates the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section because the plan varies the terms for dependent coverage of children based on age.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers a choice among the following tiers of health coverage: Self-only, self-plus-one, self-plus-two, and self-plus-three-or-more. The cost of coverage increases based on the number of covered individuals. The plan provides dependent coverage of children who have not attained age 26.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan does not violate the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section that the terms of dependent coverage for children not vary based on age. Although the cost of coverage increases for tiers with more covered individuals, the increase applies without regard to the age of any child.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers two benefit packages—an HMO option and an indemnity option. Dependent coverage is provided for children of participants who have not attained age 26. The plan limits children who are older than age 18 to the HMO option.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the plan violates the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section because the plan, by limiting children who are older than age 18 to the HMO option, varies the terms for dependent coverage of children based on age.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan sponsored by a large employer normally charges a copayment for physician visits that do not constitute preventive services. The plan charges this copayment to individuals age 19 and over, including employees, spouses, and dependent children, but waives it for those under age 19.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the plan does not violate the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section that the terms of dependent coverage for children not vary based on age. While the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section generally prohibits distinctions based upon age in dependent coverage of children, it does not prohibit distinctions based upon age that apply to all coverage under the plan, including coverage for employees and spouses as well as dependent children. In this <I>Example 4,</I> the copayments charged to dependent children are the same as those charged to employees and spouses. Accordingly, the arrangement described in this <I>Example 4</I> (including waiver, for individuals under age 19, of the generally applicable copayment) does not violate the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017. Until the applicability date for this regulation, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with the corresponding sections of 29 CFR part 2590, contained in the 29 CFR, parts 1927 to end, edition revised as of July 1, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72263, Nov. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2715" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2715   Summary of benefits and coverage and uniform glossary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Summary of benefits and coverage</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan (and its administrator as defined in section 3(16)(A) of ERISA)), and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, is required to provide a written summary of benefits and coverage (SBC) for each benefit package without charge to entities and individuals described in this paragraph (a)(1) in accordance with the rules of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SBC provided by a group health insurance issuer to a group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Upon application.</I> A health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must provide the SBC to a group health plan (or its sponsor) upon application for health coverage, as soon as practicable following receipt of the application, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the application. If an SBC was provided before application pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i)(D) of this section (relating to SBCs upon request), this paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A) is deemed satisfied, provided there is no change to the information required to be in the SBC. However, if there has been a change in the information required, a new SBC that includes the changed information must be provided upon application pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>By first day of coverage (if there are changes).</I> If there is any change in the information required to be in the SBC that was provided upon application and before the first day of coverage, the issuer must update and provide a current SBC to the plan (or its sponsor) no later than the first day of coverage.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Upon renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment.</I> If the issuer renews or reissues a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance for a succeeding policy year, or automatically re-enrolls the policyholder or its participants and beneficiaries in coverage, the issuer must provide a new SBC as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If written application is required (in either paper or electronic form) for renewal or reissuance, the SBC must be provided no later than the date the written application materials are distributed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment is automatic, the SBC must be provided no later than 30 days prior to the first day of the new plan or policy year; however, with respect to an insured plan, if the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance has not been issued or renewed before such 30-day period, the SBC must be provided as soon as practicable but in no event later than seven business days after issuance of the new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, or the receipt of written confirmation of intent to renew, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Upon request.</I> If a group health plan (or its sponsor) requests an SBC or summary information about a health insurance product from a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, an SBC must be provided as soon as practicable, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>SBC provided by a group health insurance issuer and a group health plan to participants and beneficiaries</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan (including its administrator, as defined under section 3(16) of ERISA), and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must provide an SBC to a participant or beneficiary (as defined under sections 3(7) and 3(8) of ERISA), and consistent with the rules of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, with respect to each benefit package offered by the plan or issuer for which the participant or beneficiary is eligible.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Upon application.</I> The SBC must be provided as part of any written application materials that are distributed by the plan or issuer for enrollment. If the plan or issuer does not distribute written application materials for enrollment, the SBC must be provided no later than the first date on which the participant is eligible to enroll in coverage for the participant or any beneficiaries. If an SBC was provided before application pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(F) of this section (relating to SBCs upon request), this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) is deemed satisfied, provided there is no change to the information required to be in the SBC. However, if there has been a change in the information that is required to be in the SBC, a new SBC that includes the changed information must be provided upon application pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>By first day of coverage (if there are changes).</I> (<I>1</I>) If there is any change to the information required to be in the SBC that was provided upon application and before the first day of coverage, the plan or issuer must update and provide a current SBC to a participant or beneficiary no later than the first day of coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the plan sponsor is negotiating coverage terms after an application has been filed and the information required to be in the SBC changes, the plan or issuer is not required to provide an updated SBC (unless an updated SBC is requested) until the first day of coverage.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Special enrollees.</I> The plan or issuer must provide the SBC to special enrollees (as described in § 2590.701-6) no later than the date by which a summary plan description is required to be provided under the timeframe set forth in ERISA section 104(b)(1)(A) and its implementing regulations, which is 90 days from enrollment.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Upon renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment.</I> If the plan or issuer requires participants or beneficiaries to renew in order to maintain coverage (for example, for a succeeding plan year), or automatically re-enrolls participants and beneficiaries in coverage, the plan or issuer must provide a new SBC, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If written application is required for renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment (in either paper or electronic form), the SBC must be provided no later than the date on which the written application materials are distributed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment is automatic, the SBC must be provided no later than 30 days prior to the first day of the new plan or policy year; however, with respect to an insured plan, if the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance has not been issued or renewed before such 30-day period, the SBC must be provided as soon as practicable but in no event later than seven business days after issuance of the new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, or the receipt of written confirmation of intent to renew, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Upon request.</I> A plan or issuer must provide the SBC to participants or beneficiaries upon request for an SBC or summary information about the health coverage, as soon as practicable, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special rules to prevent unnecessary duplication with respect to group health coverage.</I> (A) An entity required to provide an SBC under this paragraph (a)(1) with respect to an individual satisfies that requirement if another party provides the SBC, but only to the extent that the SBC is timely and complete in accordance with the other rules of this section. Therefore, for example, in the case of a group health plan funded through an insurance policy, the plan satisfies the requirement to provide an SBC with respect to an individual if the issuer provides a timely and complete SBC to the individual. An entity required to provide an SBC under this paragraph (a)(1) with respect to an individual that contracts with another party to provide such SBC is considered to satisfy the requirement to provide such SBC if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The entity monitors performance under the contract;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the entity has knowledge that the SBC is not being provided in a manner that satisfies the requirements of this section and the entity has all information necessary to correct the noncompliance, the entity corrects the noncompliance as soon as practicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the entity has knowledge the SBC is not being provided in a manner that satisfies the requirements of this section and the entity does not have all information necessary to correct the noncompliance, the entity communicates with participants and beneficiaries who are affected by the noncompliance regarding the noncompliance, and begins taking significant steps as soon as practicable to avoid future violations.
</P>
<P>(B) If a single SBC is provided to a participant and any beneficiaries at the participant's last known address, then the requirement to provide the SBC to the participant and any beneficiaries is generally satisfied. However, if a beneficiary's last known address is different than the participant's last known address, a separate SBC is required to be provided to the beneficiary at the beneficiary's last known address.
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to a group health plan that offers multiple benefit packages, the plan or issuer is required to provide a new SBC automatically to participants and beneficiaries upon renewal or reenrollment only with respect to the benefit package in which a participant or beneficiary is enrolled (or will be automatically re-enrolled under the plan); SBCs are not required to be provided automatically upon renewal or reenrollment with respect to benefit packages in which the participant or beneficiary is not enrolled (or will not automatically be enrolled). However, if a participant or beneficiary requests an SBC with respect to another benefit package (or more than one other benefit package) for which the participant or beneficiary is eligible, the SBC (or SBCs, in the case of a request for SBCs relating to more than one benefit package) must be provided upon request as soon as practicable, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(D) Subject to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, a plan administrator of a group health plan that uses two or more insurance products provided by separate health insurance issuers with respect to a single group health plan may synthesize the information into a single SBC or provide multiple partial SBCs provided that all the SBC include the content in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the SBC must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Uniform definitions of standard insurance terms and medical terms so that consumers may compare health coverage and understand the terms of (or exceptions to) their coverage, in accordance with guidance as specified by the Secretary;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the coverage, including cost sharing, for each category of benefits identified by the Secretary in guidance;
</P>
<P>(C) The exceptions, reductions, and limitations of the coverage;
</P>
<P>(D) The cost-sharing provisions of the coverage, including deductible, coinsurance, and copayment obligations;
</P>
<P>(E) The renewability and continuation of coverage provisions;
</P>
<P>(F) Coverage examples, in accordance with the rules of paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) With respect to coverage beginning on or after January 1, 2014, a statement about whether the plan or coverage provides minimum essential coverage as defined under section 5000A(f) and whether the plan's or coverage's share of the total allowed costs of benefits provided under the plan or coverage meets applicable requirements;
</P>
<P>(H) A statement that the SBC is only a summary and that the plan document, policy, certificate, or contract of insurance should be consulted to determine the governing contractual provisions of the coverage;
</P>
<P>(I) Contact information for questions;
</P>
<P>(J) For issuers, an Internet web address where a copy of the actual individual coverage policy or group certificate of coverage can be reviewed and obtained;
</P>
<P>(K) For plans and issuers that maintain one or more networks of providers, an Internet address (or similar contact information) for obtaining a list of network providers;
</P>
<P>(L) For plans and issuers that use a formulary in providing prescription drug coverage, an Internet address (or similar contact information) for obtaining information on prescription drug coverage; and
</P>
<P>(M) An Internet address for obtaining the uniform glossary, as described in paragraph (c) of this section, as well as a contact phone number to obtain a paper copy of the uniform glossary, and a disclosure that paper copies are available.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Coverage examples.</I> The SBC must include coverage examples specified by the Secretary in guidance that illustrate benefits provided under the plan or coverage for common benefits scenarios (including pregnancy and serious or chronic medical conditions) in accordance with this paragraph (a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Number of examples.</I> The Secretary may identify up to six coverage examples that may be required in an SBC.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benefits scenarios.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(ii), a benefits scenario is a hypothetical situation, consisting of a sample treatment plan for a specified medical condition during a specific period of time, based on recognized clinical practice guidelines as defined by the National Guideline Clearinghouse, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality. The Secretary will specify, in guidance, the assumptions, including the relevant items and services and reimbursement information, for each claim in the benefits scenario.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Illustration of benefit provided.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(ii), to illustrate benefits provided under the plan or coverage for a particular benefits scenario, a plan or issuer simulates claims processing in accordance with guidance issued by the Secretary to generate an estimate of what an individual might expect to pay under the plan, policy, or benefit package. The illustration of benefits provided will take into account any cost sharing, excluded benefits, and other limitations on coverage, as specified by the Secretary in guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Coverage provided outside the United States.</I> In lieu of summarizing coverage for items and services provided outside the United States, a plan or issuer may provide an Internet address (or similar contact information) for obtaining information about benefits and coverage provided outside the United States. In any case, the plan or issuer must provide an SBC in accordance with this section that accurately summarizes benefits and coverage available under the plan or coverage within the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appearance.</I> (i) A group health plan and a health insurance issuer must provide an SBC in the form, and in accordance with the instructions for completing the SBC, that are specified by the Secretary in guidance. The SBC must be presented in a uniform format, use terminology understandable by the average plan enrollee, not exceed four double-sided pages in length, and not include print smaller than 12-point font.
</P>
<P>(ii) A group health plan that utilizes two or more benefit packages (such as major medical coverage and a health flexible spending arrangement) may synthesize the information into a single SBC, or provide multiple SBCs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form.</I> (i) An SBC provided by an issuer offering group health insurance coverage to a plan (or its sponsor), may be provided in paper form. Alternatively, the SBC may be provided electronically (such as by email or an Internet posting) if the following three conditions are satisfied—
</P>
<P>(A) The format is readily accessible by the plan (or its sponsor);
</P>
<P>(B) The SBC is provided in paper form free of charge upon request; and
</P>
<P>(C) If the electronic form is an Internet posting, the issuer timely advises the plan (or its sponsor) in paper form or email that the documents are available on the Internet and provides the Internet address.
</P>
<P>(ii) An SBC provided by a group health plan or health insurance issuer to a participant or beneficiary may be provided in paper form. Alternatively, the SBC may be provided electronically (such as by email or an Internet posting) if the requirements of this paragraph (a)(4)(ii) are met.
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to participants and beneficiaries covered under the plan or coverage, the SBC may be provided electronically as described in this paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A). However, in all cases, the plan or issuer must provide the SBC in paper form if paper form is requested.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In accordance with the Department of Labor's disclosure regulations at 29 CFR 2520.104b-1;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In connection with online enrollment or online renewal of coverage under the plan; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In response to an online request made by a participant or beneficiary for the SBC.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to participants and beneficiaries who are eligible but not enrolled for coverage, the SBC may be provided electronically if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The format is readily accessible;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The SBC is provided in paper form free of charge upon request; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In a case in which the electronic form is an Internet posting, the plan or issuer timely notifies the individual in paper form (such as a postcard) or email that the documents are available on the Internet, provides the Internet address, and notifies the individual that the documents are available in paper form upon request.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Language.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must provide the SBC in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(5), a plan or issuer is considered to provide the SBC in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner if the thresholds and standards of § 2590.715-2719(e) are met as applied to the SBC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of modification.</I> If a group health plan, or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, makes any material modification (as defined under section 102 of ERISA) in any of the terms of the plan or coverage that would affect the content of the SBC, that is not reflected in the most recently provided SBC, and that occurs other than in connection with a renewal or reissuance of coverage, the plan or issuer must provide notice of the modification to enrollees not later than 60 days prior to the date on which the modification will become effective. The notice of modification must be provided in a form that is consistent with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uniform glossary</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must make available to participants and beneficiaries the uniform glossary described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section in accordance with the appearance and form and manner requirements of paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Health-coverage-related terms and medical terms.</I> The uniform glossary must provide uniform definitions, specified by the Secretary in guidance, of the following health-coverage-related terms and medical terms:
</P>
<P>(i) Allowed amount, appeal, balance billing, co-insurance, complications of pregnancy, co-payment, deductible, durable medical equipment, emergency medical condition, emergency medical transportation, emergency room care, emergency services, excluded services, grievance, habilitation services, health insurance, home health care, hospice services, hospitalization, hospital outpatient care, in-network co-insurance, in-network co-payment, medically necessary, network, non-preferred provider, out-of-network co-insurance, out-of-network co-payment, out-of-pocket limit, physician services, plan, preauthorization, preferred provider, premium, prescription drug coverage, prescription drugs, primary care physician, primary care provider, provider, reconstructive surgery, rehabilitation services, skilled nursing care, specialist, usual customary and reasonable (UCR), and urgent care; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such other terms as the Secretary determines are important to define so that individuals and employers may compare and understand the terms of coverage and medical benefits (including any exceptions to those benefits), as specified in guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appearance.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer, must provide the uniform glossary with the appearance specified by the Secretary in guidance to ensure the uniform glossary is presented in a uniform format and uses terminology understandable by the average plan enrollee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form and manner.</I> A plan or issuer must make the uniform glossary described in this paragraph (c) available upon request, in either paper or electronic form (as requested), within seven business days after receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preemption.</I> See § 2590.731. State laws that conflict with this section (including a state law that requires a health insurance issuer to provide an SBC that supplies less information than required under paragraph (a) of this section) are preempted.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to provide.</I> A group health plan that willfully fails to provide information under this section to a participant or beneficiary is subject to a fine of not more than $1,000 (adjusted for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended) for each such failure. A failure with respect to each participant or beneficiary constitutes a separate offense for purposes of this paragraph (e). The Department will enforce this section using a process and procedure consistent with § 2560.502c-2 of this chapter and 29 CFR part 2570, subpart C.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability to Medicare Advantage benefits.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to a group health plan benefit package that provides Medicare Advantage benefits pursuant to or 42 U.S.C. Chapter 7, Subchapter XVIII, Part C.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> (1) This section is applicable to group health plans and group health insurance issuers in accordance with this paragraph (g). (See § 2590.715-1251(d), providing that this section applies to grandfathered health plans.)
</P>
<P>(i) For disclosures with respect to participants and beneficiaries who enroll or re-enroll through an open enrollment period (including re-enrollees and late enrollees), this section applies beginning on the first day of the first open enrollment period that begins on or after September 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For disclosures with respect to participants and beneficiaries who enroll in coverage other than through an open enrollment period (including individuals who are newly eligible for coverage and special enrollees), this section applies beginning on the first day of the first plan year that begins on or after September 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(2) For disclosures with respect to plans, this section is applicable to health insurance issuers beginning September 1, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 34307, June 16, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 43455, July 1, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2715A1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2715A1   Transparency in coverage—definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth definitions for the price transparency requirements for group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage established in this section and §§ 2590.715-2715A2 and 2590.715-2715A3.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and §§ 2590.715-2715A2 and 2590.715-2715A3, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Accumulated amounts</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of financial responsibility a participant or beneficiary has incurred at the time a request for cost-sharing information is made, with respect to a deductible or out-of-pocket limit. If an individual is enrolled in other than self-only coverage, these accumulated amounts shall include the financial responsibility a participant or beneficiary has incurred toward meeting his or her individual deductible or out-of-pocket limit, as well as the amount of financial responsibility that all the individuals enrolled under the plan or coverage have incurred, in aggregate, toward meeting the other than self-only deductible or out-of-pocket limit, as applicable. Accumulated amounts include any expense that counts toward a deductible or out-of-pocket limit (such as a copayment or coinsurance), but exclude any expense that does not count toward a deductible or out-of-pocket limit (such as any premium payment, out-of-pocket expense for out-of-network services, or amount for items or services not covered under the group health plan or health insurance coverage); and
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent a group health plan or health insurance issuer imposes a cumulative treatment limitation on a particular covered item or service (such as a limit on the number of items, days, units, visits, or hours covered in a defined time period) independent of individual medical necessity determinations, the amount that has accrued toward the limit on the item or service (such as the number of items, days, units, visits, or hours the participant or beneficiary, has used within that time period).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Billed charge</I> means the total charges for an item or service billed to a group health plan or health insurance issuer by a provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Billing code</I> means the code used by a group health plan or health insurance issuer or provider to identify health care items or services for purposes of billing, adjudicating, and paying claims for a covered item or service, including the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code, Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) code, Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) code, National Drug Code (NDC), or other common payer identifier.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Bundled payment arrangement</I> means a payment model under which a provider is paid a single payment for all covered items and services provided to a participant or beneficiary for a specific treatment or procedure.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Copayment assistance</I> means the financial assistance a participant or beneficiary receives from a prescription drug or medical supply manufacturer towards the purchase of a covered item or service.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Cost-sharing liability</I> means the amount a participant or beneficiary is responsible for paying for a covered item or service under the terms of the group health plan or health insurance coverage. Cost-sharing liability generally includes deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments, but does not include premiums, balance billing amounts by out-of-network providers, or the cost of items or services that are not covered under a group health plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Cost-sharing information</I> means information related to any expenditure required by or on behalf of a participant or beneficiary with respect to health care benefits that are relevant to a determination of the participant's or beneficiary's cost-sharing liability for a particular covered item or service.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Covered items or services</I> means those items or services, including prescription drugs, the costs for which are payable, in whole or in part, under the terms of a group health plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Derived amount</I> means the price that a group health plan or health insurance issuer assigns to an item or service for the purpose of internal accounting, reconciliation with providers, or submitting data in accordance with the requirements of 45 CFR 153.710(c).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Historical net price</I> means the retrospective average amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer paid for a prescription drug, inclusive of any reasonably allocated rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, and any additional price concessions received by the plan or issuer with respect to the prescription drug. The allocation shall be determined by dollar value for non-product specific and product-specific rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, and other price concessions to the extent that the total amount of any such price concession is known to the group health plan or health insurance issuer at the time of publication of the historical net price in a machine-readable file in accordance with § 2590.715-2715A3. However, to the extent that the total amount of any non-product specific and product-specific rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, or other price concessions is not known to the group health plan or health insurance issuer at the time of file publication, then the plan or issuer shall allocate such rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, and other price concessions by using a good faith, reasonable estimate of the average price concessions based on the rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, and other price concessions received over a time period prior to the current reporting period and of equal duration to the current reporting period, as determined under § 2590.715-2715A3(b)(1)(iii)(D)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>In-network provider</I> means any provider of any item or service with which a group health plan or health insurance issuer, or a third party for the plan or issuer, has a contract setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant item or service is provided to a participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Items or services</I> means all encounters, procedures, medical tests, supplies, prescription drugs, durable medical equipment, and fees (including facility fees), provided or assessed in connection with the provision of health care.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Machine-readable file</I> means a digital representation of data or information in a file that can be imported or read by a computer system for further processing without human intervention, while ensuring no semantic meaning is lost.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>National Drug Code</I> means the unique 10- or 11-digit 3-segment number assigned by the Food and Drug Administration, which provides a universal product identifier for drugs in the United States.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Negotiated rate</I> means the amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer has contractually agreed to pay an in-network provider, including an in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser, for covered items and services, whether directly or indirectly, including through a third-party administrator or pharmacy benefit manager.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Out-of-network allowed amount</I> means the maximum amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer will pay for a covered item or service furnished by an out-of-network provider.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Out-of-network provider</I> means a provider of any item or service that does not have a contract under a participant's or beneficiary's group health plan or health insurance coverage to provide items or services.
</P>
<P>(xviii) <I>Out-of-pocket limit</I> means the maximum amount that a participant or beneficiary is required to pay during a coverage period for his or her share of the costs of covered items and services under his or her group health plan or health insurance coverage, including for self-only and other than self-only coverage, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(xix) <I>Plain language</I> means written and presented in a manner calculated to be understood by the average participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Prerequisite</I> means concurrent review, prior authorization, and step-therapy or fail-first protocols related to covered items and services that must be satisfied before a group health plan or health insurance issuer will cover the item or service. The term prerequisite does not include medical necessity determinations generally or other forms of medical management techniques.
</P>
<P>(xxi) <I>Underlying fee schedule rate</I> means the rate for a covered item or service from a particular in-network provider, or providers that a group health plan or health insurance issuer uses to determine a participant's or beneficiary's cost-sharing liability for the item or service, when that rate is different from the negotiated rate or derived amount.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72300, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2715A2" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2715A2   Transparency in coverage—required disclosures to participants and beneficiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section establishes price transparency requirements for group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage for the timely disclosure of information about costs related to covered items and services under a group plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the definitions in § 2590.715-2715A1 apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required disclosures to participants and beneficiaries.</I> At the request of a participant or beneficiary who is enrolled in a group health plan, the plan must provide to the participant or beneficiary the information required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, in accordance with the method and format requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Required cost-sharing information.</I> The information required under this paragraph (b)(1) is the following cost-sharing information, which is accurate at the time the request is made, with respect to a participant's or beneficiary's cost-sharing liability for covered items and services:
</P>
<P>(i) An estimate of the participant's or beneficiary's cost-sharing liability for a requested covered item or service furnished by a provider or providers that is calculated based on the information described in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) If the request for cost-sharing information relates to items and services that are provided within a bundled payment arrangement, and the bundled payment arrangement includes items or services that have a separate cost-sharing liability, the group health plan or health insurance issuer must provide estimates of the cost-sharing liability for the requested covered item or service, as well as an estimate of the cost-sharing liability for each of the items and services in the bundled payment arrangement that have separate cost-sharing liabilities. While group health plans and health insurance issuers are not required to provide estimates of cost-sharing liability for a bundled payment arrangement where the cost-sharing is imposed separately for each item and service included in the bundled payment arrangement, nothing prohibits plans or issuers from providing estimates for multiple items and services in situations where such estimates could be relevant to participants or beneficiaries, as long as the plan or issuer also discloses information about the relevant items or services individually, as required in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) For requested items and services that are recommended preventive services under section 2713 of the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act), if the group health plan or health insurance issuer cannot determine whether the request is for preventive or non-preventive purposes, the plan or issuer must display the cost-sharing liability that applies for non-preventive purposes. As an alternative, a group health plan or health insurance issuer may allow a participant or beneficiary to request cost-sharing information for the specific preventive or non-preventive item or service by including terms such as “preventive”, “non-preventive” or “diagnostic” as a means to request the most accurate cost-sharing information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Accumulated amounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) In-network rate, comprised of the following elements, as applicable to the group health plan's or health insurance issuer's payment model:
</P>
<P>(A) Negotiated rate, reflected as a dollar amount, for an in-network provider or providers for the requested covered item or service; this rate must be disclosed even if it is not the rate the plan or issuer uses to calculate cost-sharing liability; and
</P>
<P>(B) Underlying fee schedule rate, reflected as a dollar amount, for the requested covered item or service, to the extent that it is different from the negotiated rate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Out-of-network allowed amount or any other rate that provides a more accurate estimate of an amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer will pay for the requested covered item or service, reflected as a dollar amount, if the request for cost-sharing information is for a covered item or service furnished by an out-of-network provider; provided, however, that in circumstances in which a plan or issuer reimburses an out-of-network provider a percentage of the billed charge for a covered item or service, the out-of-network allowed amount will be that percentage.
</P>
<P>(v) If a participant or beneficiary requests information for an item or service subject to a bundled payment arrangement, a list of the items and services included in the bundled payment arrangement for which cost-sharing information is being disclosed.
</P>
<P>(vi) If applicable, notification that coverage of a specific item or service is subject to a prerequisite.
</P>
<P>(vii) A notice that includes the following information in plain language:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that out-of-network providers may bill participants or beneficiaries for the difference between a provider's billed charges and the sum of the amount collected from the group health plan or health insurance issuer and from the participant or beneficiary in the form of a copayment or coinsurance amount (the difference referred to as balance billing), and that the cost-sharing information provided pursuant to this paragraph (b)(1) does not account for these potential additional amounts. This statement is only required if balance billing is permitted under state law;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the actual charges for a participant's or beneficiary's covered item or service may be different from an estimate of cost-sharing liability provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, depending on the actual items or services the participant or beneficiary receives at the point of care;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the estimate of cost-sharing liability for a covered item or service is not a guarantee that benefits will be provided for that item or service;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement disclosing whether the plan counts copayment assistance and other third-party payments in the calculation of the participant's or beneficiary's deductible and out-of-pocket maximum;
</P>
<P>(E) For items and services that are recommended preventive services under section 2713 of the PHS Act, a statement that an in-network item or service may not be subject to cost-sharing if it is billed as a preventive service if the group health plan or health insurance issuer cannot determine whether the request is for a preventive or non-preventive item or service; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any additional information, including other disclaimers, that the group health plan or health insurance issuer determines is appropriate, provided the additional information does not conflict with the information required to be provided by this paragraph (b)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required methods and formats for disclosing information to participants and beneficiaries.</I> The methods and formats for the disclosure required under this paragraph (b) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Internet-based self-service tool.</I> Information provided under this paragraph (b) must be made available in plain language, without subscription or other fee, through a self-service tool on an internet website that provides real-time responses based on cost-sharing information that is accurate at the time of the request. Group health plans and health insurance issuers must ensure that the self-service tool allows users to:
</P>
<P>(A) Search for cost-sharing information for a covered item or service provided by a specific in-network provider or by all in-network providers by inputting:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A billing code (such as CPT code 87804) or a descriptive term (such as “rapid flu test”), at the option of the user;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name of the in-network provider, if the user seeks cost-sharing information with respect to a specific in-network provider; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Other factors utilized by the plan or issuer that are relevant for determining the applicable cost-sharing information (such as location of service, facility name, or dosage).
</P>
<P>(B) Search for an out-of-network allowed amount, percentage of billed charges, or other rate that provides a reasonably accurate estimate of the amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer will pay for a covered item or service provided by out-of-network providers by inputting:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A billing code or descriptive term, at the option of the user; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Other factors utilized by the plan or issuer that are relevant for determining the applicable out-of-network allowed amount or other rate (such as the location in which the covered item or service will be sought or provided).
</P>
<P>(C) Refine and reorder search results based on geographic proximity of in-network providers, and the amount of the participant's or beneficiary's estimated cost-sharing liability for the covered item or service, to the extent the search for cost-sharing information for covered items or services returns multiple results.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Paper method.</I> Information provided under this paragraph (b) must be made available in plain language, without a fee, in paper form at the request of the participant or beneficiary. In responding to such a request, the group health plan or health insurance issuer may limit the number of providers with respect to which cost-sharing information for covered items and services is provided to no fewer than 20 providers per request. The group health plan or health insurance issuer is required to:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclose the applicable provider-per-request limit to the participant or beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide the cost-sharing information in paper form pursuant to the individual's request, in accordance with the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Mail the cost-sharing information in paper form no later than 2 business days after an individual's request is received.
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent participants or beneficiaries request disclosure other than by paper (for example, by phone or email), plans and issuers may provide the disclosure through another means, provided the participant or beneficiary agrees that disclosure through such means is sufficient to satisfy the request and the request is fulfilled at least as rapidly as required for the paper method.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule to prevent unnecessary duplication</I>—(i) <I>Special rule for insured group health plans.</I> To the extent coverage under a group health plan consists of group health insurance coverage, the plan satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b) if the plan requires the health insurance issuer offering the coverage to provide the information required by this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section pursuant to a written agreement. Accordingly, if a health insurance issuer and a plan sponsor enter into a written agreement under which the issuer agrees to provide the information required under this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section, and the issuer fails to do so, then the issuer, but not the plan, violates the transparency disclosure requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other contractual arrangements.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer may satisfy the requirements under this paragraph (b) by entering into a written agreement under which another party (such as a pharmacy benefit manager or other third-party) provides the information required by this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, if a group health plan or health insurance issuer chooses to enter into such an agreement and the party with which it contracts fails to provide the information in compliance with this paragraph (b), the plan or issuer violates the transparency disclosure requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2023 with respect to the 500 items and services to be posted on a publicly available website, and with respect to all covered items and services, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) As provided under § 2590.715-1251, this section does not apply to grandfathered health plans. This section also does not apply to health reimbursement arrangements or other account-based group health plans as defined in § 2590.715-2711(d)(6) or short term limited duration insurance as defined in § 2590.701-2.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section alters or otherwise affects a group health plan's or health insurance issuer's duty to comply with requirements under other applicable state or Federal laws, including those governing the accessibility, privacy, or security of information required to be disclosed under this section, or those governing the ability of properly authorized representatives to access participant or beneficiary information held by plans and issuers.
</P>
<P>(4) A group health plan or health insurance issuer will not fail to comply with this section solely because it, acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, makes an error or omission in a disclosure required under paragraph (b) of this section, provided that the plan or issuer corrects the information as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(5) A group health plan or health insurance issuer will not fail to comply with this section solely because, despite acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, its internet website is temporarily inaccessible, provided that the plan or issuer makes the information available as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(6) To the extent compliance with this section requires a group health plan or health insurance issuer to obtain information from any other entity, the plan or issuer will not fail to comply with this section because it relied in good faith on information from the other entity, unless the plan or issuer knows, or reasonably should have known, that the information is incomplete or inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Severability.</I> Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72300, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2715A3" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2715A3   Transparency in coverage—requirements for public disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section establishes price transparency requirements for group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage for the timely disclosure of information about costs related to covered items and services under a group plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the definitions in § 2590.715-2715A1 apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for public disclosure of in-network provider rates for covered items and services, out-of-network allowed amounts and billed charges for covered items and services, and negotiated rates and historical net prices for covered prescription drugs.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must make available on an internet website the information required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section in three machine-readable files, in accordance with the method and format requirements described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and that are updated as required under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Required information.</I> Machine-readable files required under this paragraph (b) that are made available to the public by a group health plan or health insurance issuer must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An in-network rate machine-readable file that includes the required information under this paragraph (b)(1)(i) for all covered items and services, except for prescription drugs that are subject to a fee-for-service reimbursement arrangement, which must be reported in the prescription drug machine-readable file pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. The in-network rate machine-readable file must include:
</P>
<P>(A) For each coverage option offered by a group health plan or health insurance issuer, the name and the 14-digit Health Insurance Oversight System (HIOS) identifier, or, if the 14-digit HIOS identifier is not available, the 5-digit HIOS identifier, or if no HIOS identifier is available, the Employer Identification Number (EIN);
</P>
<P>(B) A billing code, which in the case of prescription drugs must be an NDC, and a plain language description for each billing code for each covered item or service under each coverage option offered by a plan or issuer; and
</P>
<P>(C) All applicable rates, which may include one or more of the following: Negotiated rates, underlying fee schedule rates, or derived amounts. If a group health plan or health insurance issuer does not use negotiated rates for provider reimbursement, then the plan or issuer should disclose derived amounts to the extent these amounts are already calculated in the normal course of business. If the group health plan or health insurance issuer uses underlying fee schedule rates for calculating cost sharing, then the plan or issuer should include the underlying fee schedule rates in addition to the negotiated rate or derived amount. Applicable rates, including for both individual items and services and items and services in a bundled payment arrangement, must be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reflected as dollar amounts, with respect to each covered item or service that is furnished by an in-network provider. If the negotiated rate is subject to change based upon participant or beneficiary-specific characteristics, these dollar amounts should be reflected as the base negotiated rate applicable to the item or service prior to adjustments for participant or beneficiary-specific characteristics;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Associated with the National Provider Identifier (NPI), Tax Identification Number (TIN), and Place of Service Code for each in-network provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Associated with the last date of the contract term or expiration date for each provider-specific applicable rate that applies to each covered item or service; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Indicated with a notation where a reimbursement arrangement other than a standard fee-for-service model (such as capitation or a bundled payment arrangement) applies.
</P>
<P>(ii) An out-of-network allowed amount machine-readable file, including:
</P>
<P>(A) For each coverage option offered by a group health plan or health insurance issuer, the name and the 14-digit HIOS identifier, or, if the 14-digit HIOS identifier is not available, the 5-digit HIOS identifier, or, if no HIOS identifier is available, the EIN;
</P>
<P>(B) A billing code, which in the case of prescription drugs must be an NDC, and a plain language description for each billing code for each covered item or service under each coverage option offered by a plan or issuer; and
</P>
<P>(C) Unique out-of-network allowed amounts and billed charges with respect to covered items or services furnished by out-of-network providers during the 90-day time period that begins 180 days prior to the publication date of the machine-readable file (except that a group health plan or health insurance issuer must omit such data in relation to a particular item or service and provider when compliance with this paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) would require the plan or issuer to report payment of out-of-network allowed amounts in connection with fewer than 20 different claims for payments under a single plan or coverage). Consistent with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, nothing in this paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) requires the disclosure of information that would violate any applicable health information privacy law. Each unique out-of-network allowed amount must be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reflected as a dollar amount, with respect to each covered item or service that is furnished by an out-of-network provider; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Associated with the NPI, TIN, and Place of Service Code for each out-of-network provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) A prescription drug machine-readable file, including:
</P>
<P>(A) For each coverage option offered by a group health plan or health insurance issuer, the name and the 14-digit HIOS identifier, or, if the 14-digit HIOS identifier is not available, the 5-digit HIOS identifier, or, if no HIOS identifier is available, the EIN;
</P>
<P>(B) The NDC, and the proprietary and nonproprietary name assigned to the NDC by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), for each covered item or service under each coverage option offered by a plan or issuer that is a prescription drug;
</P>
<P>(C) The negotiated rates which must be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reflected as a dollar amount, with respect to each NDC that is furnished by an in-network provider, including an in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Associated with the NPI, TIN, and Place of Service Code for each in-network provider, including each in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Associated with the last date of the contract term for each provider-specific negotiated rate that applies to each NDC; and
</P>
<P>(D) Historical net prices that are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reflected as a dollar amount, with respect to each NDC that is furnished by an in-network provider, including an in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Associated with the NPI, TIN, and Place of Service Code for each in-network provider, including each in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Associated with the 90-day time period that begins 180 days prior to the publication date of the machine-readable file for each provider-specific historical net price that applies to each NDC (except that a group health plan or health insurance issuer must omit such data in relation to a particular NDC and provider when compliance with this paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(D) would require the plan or issuer to report payment of historical net prices calculated using fewer than 20 different claims for payment). Consistent with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, nothing in this paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(D) requires the disclosure of information that would violate any applicable health information privacy law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required method and format for disclosing information to the public.</I> The machine-readable files described in this paragraph (b) must be available in a form and manner as specified in guidance issued by the Department of the Treasury, the Department of Labor, and the Department of Health and Human Services. The machine-readable files must be publicly available and accessible to any person free of charge and without conditions, such as establishment of a user account, password, or other credentials, or submission of personally identifiable information to access the file.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must update the machine-readable files and information required by this paragraph (b) monthly. The group health plan or health insurance issuer must clearly indicate the date that the files were most recently updated.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special rules to prevent unnecessary duplication</I>—(i) <I>Special rule for insured group health plans.</I> To the extent coverage under a group health plan consists of group health insurance coverage, the plan satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b) if the plan requires the health insurance issuer offering the coverage to provide the information pursuant to a written agreement. Accordingly, if a health insurance issuer and a group health plan sponsor enter into a written agreement under which the issuer agrees to provide the information required under this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section, and the issuer fails to do so, then the issuer, but not the plan, violates the transparency disclosure requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other contractual arrangements.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer may satisfy the requirements under this paragraph (b) by entering into a written agreement under which another party (such as a third-party administrator or health care claims clearinghouse) will provide the information required by this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, if a group health plan or health insurance issuer chooses to enter into such an agreement and the party with which it contracts fails to provide the information in compliance with this paragraph (b), the plan or issuer violates the transparency disclosure requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Aggregation permitted for out-of-network allowed amounts.</I> Nothing in this section prohibits a group health plan or health insurance issuer from satisfying the disclosure requirement described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section by disclosing out-of-network allowed amounts made available by, or otherwise obtained from, an issuer, a service provider, or other party with which the plan or issuer has entered into a written agreement to provide the information, provided the minimum claim threshold described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) of this section is independently met for each item or service and for each plan or coverage included in an aggregated Allowed Amount File. Under such circumstances, health insurance issuers, service providers, or other parties with which the group health plan or issuer has contracted may aggregate out-of-network allowed amounts for more than one plan or insurance policy or contract. Additionally, nothing in this section prevents the Allowed Amount File from being hosted on a third-party website or prevents a plan administrator or issuer from contracting with a third party to post the file. However, if a plan or issuer chooses not to also host the file separately on its own website, it must provide a link on its own public website to the location where the file is made publicly available.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(2) As provided under § 2590.715-1251, this section does not apply to grandfathered health plans. This section also does not apply to health reimbursement arrangements or other account-based group health plans as defined in § 2590.715-2711(d)(6) or short term limited duration insurance as defined in § 2590.701-2.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section alters or otherwise affects a group health plan's or health insurance issuer's duty to comply with requirements under other applicable state or Federal laws, including those governing the accessibility, privacy, or security of information required to be disclosed under this section, or those governing the ability of properly authorized representatives to access participant, or beneficiary information held by plans and issuers.
</P>
<P>(4) A group health plan or health insurance issuer will not fail to comply with this section solely because it, acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, makes an error or omission in a disclosure required under paragraph (b) of this section, provided that the plan or issuer corrects the information as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(5) A group health plan or health insurance issuer will not fail to comply with this section solely because, despite acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, its internet website is temporarily inaccessible, provided that the plan or issuer makes the information available as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(6) To the extent compliance with this section requires a group health plan or health insurance issuer to obtain information from any other entity, the plan or issuer will not fail to comply with this section because it relied in good faith on information from the other entity, unless the plan or issuer knows, or reasonably should have known, that the information is incomplete or inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Severability.</I> Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72300, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2719" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2719   Internal claims and appeals and external review processes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> This section sets forth requirements with respect to internal claims and appeals and external review processes for group health plans and health insurance issuers. Paragraph (b) of this section provides requirements for internal claims and appeals processes. Paragraph (c) of this section sets forth rules governing the applicability of State external review processes. Paragraph (d) of this section sets forth a Federal external review process for plans and issuers not subject to an applicable State external review process. Paragraph (e) of this section prescribes requirements for ensuring that notices required to be provided under this section are provided in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner. Paragraph (f) of this section describes the authority of the Secretary to deem certain external review processes in existence on March 23, 2010 as in compliance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to grandfathered health plans and health insurance coverage.</I> The provisions of this section generally do not apply to coverage offered by health insurance issuers and group health plans that are grandfathered health plans, as defined under § 2590.715-1251. However, the external review process requirements under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, and related notice requirements under paragraph (e) of this section, apply to grandfathered health plans or coverage with respect to adverse benefit determinations involving items and services within the scope of the requirements for out-of-network emergency services, nonemergency services performed by nonparticipating providers at participating facilities, and air ambulance services furnished by nonparticipating providers of air ambulance services under ERISA sections 716 and 717 and §§ 2590.716-4 through 2590.716-5 and 2590.717-1.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adverse benefit determination.</I> An <I>adverse benefit determination</I> means an adverse benefit determination as defined in 29 CFR 2560.503-1, as well as any rescission of coverage, as described in § 2590.715-2712(a)(2) (whether or not, in connection with the rescission, there is an adverse effect on any particular benefit at that time).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appeal (or internal appeal).</I> An <I>appeal</I> or <I>internal appeal</I> means review by a plan or issuer of an adverse benefit determination, as required in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Claimant. Claimant</I> means an individual who makes a claim under this section. For purposes of this section, references to claimant include a claimant's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>External review. External review</I> means a review of an adverse benefit determination (including a final internal adverse benefit determination) conducted pursuant to an applicable State external review process described in paragraph (c) of this section or the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Final internal adverse benefit determination.</I> A <I>final internal adverse benefit determination</I> means an adverse benefit determination that has been upheld by a plan or issuer at the completion of the internal appeals process applicable under paragraph (b) of this section (or an adverse benefit determination with respect to which the internal appeals process has been exhausted under the deemed exhaustion rules of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F) of this section).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Final external review decision.</I> A <I>final external review decision</I> means a determination by an independent review organization at the conclusion of an external review.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Independent review organization (or IRO).</I> An <I>independent review organization</I> (or <I>IRO</I>) means an entity that conducts independent external reviews of adverse benefit determinations and final internal adverse benefit determinations pursuant to paragraph (c) or (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>NAIC Uniform Model Act.</I> The <I>NAIC Uniform Model Act</I> means the Uniform Health Carrier External Review Model Act promulgated by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners in place on July 23, 2010.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Internal claims and appeals process</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must implement an effective internal claims and appeals process, as described in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for group health plans and group health insurance issuers.</I> A group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must comply with all the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2). In the case of health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan, if either the plan or the issuer complies with the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b)(2), then the obligation to comply with this paragraph (b)(2) is satisfied for both the plan and the issuer with respect to the health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Minimum internal claims and appeals standards.</I> A group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must comply with all the requirements applicable to group health plans under 29 CFR 2560.503-1, except to the extent those requirements are modified by paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section. Accordingly, under this paragraph (b), with respect to health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan, the group health insurance issuer is subject to the requirements in 29 CFR 2560.503-1 to the same extent as the group health plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional standards.</I> In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the internal claims and appeals processes of a group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must meet the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Clarification of meaning of adverse benefit determination.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), an “adverse benefit determination” includes an adverse benefit determination as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. Accordingly, in complying with 29 CFR 2560.503-1, as well as the other provisions of this paragraph (b)(2), a plan or issuer must treat a rescission of coverage (whether or not the rescission has an adverse effect on any particular benefit at that time) as an adverse benefit determination. (Rescissions of coverage are subject to the requirements of § 2590.715-2712.)
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Expedited notification of benefit determinations involving urgent care.</I> The requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(f)(2)(i) (which generally provide, among other things, in the case of urgent care claims for notification of the plan's benefit determination (whether adverse or not) as soon as possible, taking into account the medical exigencies, but not later than 72 hours after the receipt of the claim) continue to apply to the plan and issuer. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B), a claim involving urgent care has the meaning given in 29 CFR 2560.503-1(m)(1), as determined by the attending provider, and the plan or issuer shall defer to such determination of the attending provider.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Full and fair review.</I> A plan and issuer must allow a claimant to review the claim file and to present evidence and testimony as part of the internal claims and appeals process. Specifically, in addition to complying with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(h)(2)—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan or issuer must provide the claimant, free of charge, with any new or additional evidence considered, relied upon, or generated by the plan or issuer (or at the direction of the plan or issuer) in connection with the claim; such evidence must be provided as soon as possible and sufficiently in advance of the date on which the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is required to be provided under 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i) to give the claimant a reasonable opportunity to respond prior to that date; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Before the plan or issuer can issue a final internal adverse benefit determination based on a new or additional rationale, the claimant must be provided, free of charge, with the rationale; the rationale must be provided as soon as possible and sufficiently in advance of the date on which the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is required to be provided under 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i) to give the claimant a reasonable opportunity to respond prior to that date. Notwithstanding the rules of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i), if the new or additional evidence is received so late that it would be impossible to provide it to the claimant in time for the claimant to have a reasonable opportunity to respond, the period for providing a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is tolled until such time as the claimant has a reasonable opportunity to respond. After the claimant responds, or has a reasonable opportunity to respond but fails to do so, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant of the plan's benefit determination as soon as a plan acting in a reasonable and prompt fashion can provide the notice, taking into account the medical exigencies.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Avoiding conflicts of interest.</I> In addition to the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(b) and (h) regarding full and fair review, the plan and issuer must ensure that all claims and appeals are adjudicated in a manner designed to ensure the independence and impartiality of the persons involved in making the decision. Accordingly, decisions regarding hiring, compensation, termination, promotion, or other similar matters with respect to any individual (such as a claims adjudicator or medical expert) must not be made based upon the likelihood that the individual will support the denial of benefits.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Notice.</I> A plan and issuer must provide notice to individuals, in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner (as described in paragraph (e) of this section) that complies with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(g) and (j). The plan and issuer must also comply with the additional requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(E).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan and issuer must ensure that any notice of adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination includes information sufficient to identify the claim involved (including the date of service, the health care provider, the claim amount (if applicable), and a statement describing the availability, upon request, of the diagnosis code and its corresponding meaning, and the treatment code and its corresponding meaning).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The plan and issuer must provide to participants and beneficiaries, as soon as practicable, upon request, the diagnosis code and its corresponding meaning, and the treatment code and its corresponding meaning, associated with any adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. The plan or issuer must not consider a request for such diagnosis and treatment information, in itself, to be a request for an internal appeal under this paragraph (b) or an external review under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The plan and issuer must ensure that the reason or reasons for the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination includes the denial code and its corresponding meaning, as well as a description of the plan's or issuer's standard, if any, that was used in denying the claim. In the case of a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination, this description must include a discussion of the decision.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The plan and issuer must provide a description of available internal appeals and external review processes, including information regarding how to initiate an appeal.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The plan and issuer must disclose the availability of, and contact information for, any applicable office of health insurance consumer assistance or ombudsman established under PHS Act section 2793 to assist individuals with the internal claims and appeals and external review processes.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Deemed exhaustion of internal claims and appeals processes.</I> (<I>1</I>) In the case of a plan or issuer that fails to strictly adhere to all the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2) with respect to a claim, the claimant is deemed to have exhausted the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b), except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F)(<I>2</I>) of this section. Accordingly the claimant may initiate an external review under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable. The claimant is also entitled to pursue any available remedies under section 502(a) of ERISA or under State law, as applicable, on the basis that the plan or issuer has failed to provide a reasonable internal claims and appeals process that would yield a decision on the merits of the claim. If a claimant chooses to pursue remedies under section 502(a) of ERISA under such circumstances, the claim or appeal is deemed denied on review without the exercise of discretion by an appropriate fiduciary.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b) will not be deemed exhausted based on <I>de minimis</I> violations that do not cause, and are not likely to cause, prejudice or harm to the claimant so long as the plan or issuer demonstrates that the violation was for good cause or due to matters beyond the control of the plan or issuer and that the violation occurred in the context of an ongoing, good faith exchange of information between the plan and the claimant. This exception is not available if the violation is part of a pattern or practice of violations by the plan or issuer. The claimant may request a written explanation of the violation from the plan or issuer, and the plan or issuer must provide such explanation within 10 days, including a specific description of its bases, if any, for asserting that the violation should not cause the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b) to be deemed exhausted. If an external reviewer or a court rejects the claimant's request for immediate review under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section on the basis that the plan met the standards for the exception under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F)(<I>2</I>), the claimant has the right to resubmit and pursue the internal appeal of the claim. In such a case, within a reasonable time after the external reviewer or court rejects the claim for immediate review (not to exceed 10 days), the plan shall provide the claimant with notice of the opportunity to resubmit and pursue the internal appeal of the claim. Time periods for re-filing the claim shall begin to run upon claimant's receipt of such notice.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Requirement to provide continued coverage pending the outcome of an appeal.</I> A plan and issuer subject to the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2) are required to provide continued coverage pending the outcome of an appeal. For this purpose, the plan and issuer must comply with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(f)(2)(ii), which generally provides that benefits for an ongoing course of treatment cannot be reduced or terminated without providing advance notice and an opportunity for advance review.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State standards for external review</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) If a State external review process that applies to and is binding on a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage includes at a minimum the consumer protections in the NAIC Uniform Model Act, then the issuer must comply with the applicable State external review process and is not required to comply with the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section. In such a case, to the extent that benefits under a group health plan are provided through health insurance coverage, the group health plan is not required to comply with either this paragraph (c) or the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent that a group health plan provides benefits other than through health insurance coverage (that is, the plan is self-insured) and is subject to a State external review process that applies to and is binding on the plan (for example, is not preempted by ERISA) and the State external review process includes at a minimum the consumer protections in the NAIC Uniform Model Act, then the plan must comply with the applicable State external review process and is not required to comply with the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section. Where a self-insured plan is not subject to an applicable State external review process, but the State has chosen to expand access to its process for plans that are not subject to the applicable State laws, the plan may choose to comply with either the applicable State external review process or the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a plan or issuer is not required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) or (c)(1)(ii) of this section to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (c), then the plan or issuer must comply with the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section, except to the extent, in the case of a plan, the plan is not required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section to comply with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum standards for State external review processes.</I> An applicable State external review process must meet all the minimum consumer protections in this paragraph (c)(2). The Department of Health and Human Services will determine whether State external review processes meet these requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) The State process must provide for the external review of adverse benefit determinations (including final internal adverse benefit determinations) by issuers (or, if applicable, plans) that are based on the issuer's (or plan's) requirements for medical necessity, appropriateness, health care setting, level of care, or effectiveness of a covered benefit, as well as a consideration of whether a plan or issuer is complying with the surprise billing and cost-sharing protections under ERISA sections 716 and 717 and §§ 2590.716-4 through 2590.716-5 and 2590.717-1.
</P>
<P>(ii) The State process must require issuers (or, if applicable, plans) to provide effective written notice to claimants of their rights in connection with an external review for an adverse benefit determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) To the extent the State process requires exhaustion of an internal claims and appeals process, exhaustion must be unnecessary where the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) has waived the requirement; the issuer (or the plan) is considered to have exhausted the internal claims and appeals process under applicable law (including by failing to comply with any of the requirements for the internal appeal process, as outlined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), or the claimant has applied for expedited external review at the same time as applying for an expedited internal appeal.
</P>
<P>(iv) The State process provides that the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) against which a request for external review is filed must pay the cost of the IRO for conducting the external review. Notwithstanding this requirement, a State external review process that expressly authorizes, as of November 18, 2015, a nominal filing fee may continue to permit such fees. For this purpose, to be considered nominal, a filing fee must not exceed $25; it must be refunded to the claimant if the adverse benefit determination (or final internal adverse benefit determination) is reversed through external review; it must be waived if payment of the fee would impose an undue financial hardship; and the annual limit on filing fees for any claimant within a single plan year must not exceed $75.
</P>
<P>(v) The State process may not impose a restriction on the minimum dollar amount of a claim for it to be eligible for external review. Thus, the process may not impose, for example, a $500 minimum claims threshold.
</P>
<P>(vi) The State process must allow at least four months after the receipt of a notice of an adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination for a request for an external review to be filed.
</P>
<P>(vii) The State process must provide that IROs will be assigned on a random basis or another method of assignment that assures the independence and impartiality of the assignment process (such as rotational assignment) by a State or independent entity, and in no event selected by the issuer, plan, or the individual.
</P>
<P>(viii) The State process must provide for maintenance of a list of approved IROs qualified to conduct the external review based on the nature of the health care service that is the subject of the review. The State process must provide for approval only of IROs that are accredited by a nationally recognized private accrediting organization.
</P>
<P>(ix) The State process must provide that any approved IRO has no conflicts of interest that will influence its independence. Thus, the IRO may not own or control, or be owned or controlled by a health insurance issuer, a group health plan, the sponsor of a group health plan, a trade association of plans or issuers, or a trade association of health care providers. The State process must further provide that the IRO and the clinical reviewer assigned to conduct an external review may not have a material professional, familial, or financial conflict of interest with the issuer or plan that is the subject of the external review; the claimant (and any related parties to the claimant) whose treatment is the subject of the external review; any officer, director, or management employee of the issuer; the plan administrator, plan fiduciaries, or plan employees; the health care provider, the health care provider's group, or practice association recommending the treatment that is subject to the external review; the facility at which the recommended treatment would be provided; or the developer or manufacturer of the principal drug, device, procedure, or other therapy being recommended.
</P>
<P>(x) The State process allows the claimant at least five business days to submit to the IRO in writing additional information that the IRO must consider when conducting the external review, and it requires that the claimant is notified of the right to do so. The process must also require that any additional information submitted by the claimant to the IRO must be forwarded to the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) within one business day of receipt by the IRO.
</P>
<P>(xi) The State process must provide that the decision is binding on the plan or issuer, as well as the claimant except to the extent the other remedies are available under State or Federal law, and except that the requirement that the decision be binding shall not preclude the plan or issuer from making payment on the claim or otherwise providing benefits at any time, including after a final external review decision that denies the claim or otherwise fails to require such payment or benefits. For this purpose, the plan or issuer must provide benefits (including by making payment on the claim) pursuant to the final external review decision without delay, regardless of whether the plan or issuer intends to seek judicial review of the external review decision and unless or until there is a judicial decision otherwise.
</P>
<P>(xii) The State process must require, for standard external review, that the IRO provide written notice to the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) and the claimant of its decision to uphold or reverse the adverse benefit determination (or final internal adverse benefit determination) within no more than 45 days after the receipt of the request for external review by the IRO.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The State process must provide for an expedited external review if the adverse benefit determination (or final internal adverse benefit determination) concerns an admission, availability of care, continued stay, or health care service for which the claimant received emergency services, but has not been discharged from a facility; or involves a medical condition for which the standard external review time frame would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the claimant or jeopardize the claimant's ability to regain maximum function. As expeditiously as possible but within no more than 72 hours after the receipt of the request for expedited external review by the IRO, the IRO must make its decision to uphold or reverse the adverse benefit determination (or final internal adverse benefit determination) and notify the claimant and the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) of the determination. If the notice is not in writing, the IRO must provide written confirmation of the decision within 48 hours after the date of the notice of the decision.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The State process must require that issuers (or, if applicable, plans) include a description of the external review process in or attached to the summary plan description, policy, certificate, membership booklet, outline of coverage, or other evidence of coverage it provides to participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees, substantially similar to what is set forth in section 17 of the NAIC Uniform Model Act.
</P>
<P>(xv) The State process must require that IROs maintain written records and make them available upon request to the State, substantially similar to what is set forth in section 15 of the NAIC Uniform Model Act.
</P>
<P>(xvi) The State process follows procedures for external review of adverse benefit determinations (or final internal adverse benefit determinations) involving experimental or investigational treatment, substantially similar to what is set forth in section 10 of the NAIC Uniform Model Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transition period for external review processes.</I> (i) Through December 31, 2017, an applicable State external review process applicable to a health insurance issuer or group health plan is considered to meet the requirements of PHS Act section 2719(b). Accordingly, through December 31, 2017, an applicable State external review process will be considered binding on the issuer or plan (in lieu of the requirements of the Federal external review process). If there is no applicable State external review process, the issuer or plan is required to comply with the requirements of the Federal external review process in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An applicable State external review process must apply for final internal adverse benefit determinations (or, in the case of simultaneous internal appeal and external review, adverse benefit determinations) provided on or after January 1, 2018. The Federal external review process will apply to such internal adverse benefit determinations unless the Department of Health and Human Services determines that a State law meets all the minimum standards of paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Through December 31, 2017, a State external review process applicable to a health insurance issuer or group health plan may be considered to meet the minimum standards of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if it meets the temporary standards established by the Secretary in guidance for a process similar to the NAIC Uniform Model Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal external review process.</I> A plan or issuer not subject to an applicable State external review process under paragraph (c) of this section must provide an effective Federal external review process in accordance with this paragraph (d) (except to the extent, in the case of a plan, the plan is described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section as not having to comply with this paragraph (d)). In the case of health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan, if either the plan or the issuer complies with the Federal external review process of this paragraph (d), then the obligation to comply with this paragraph (d) is satisfied for both the plan and the issuer with respect to the health insurance coverage. A Multi State Plan or MSP, as defined by 45 CFR 800.20, must provide an effective Federal external review process in accordance with this paragraph (d). In such circumstances, the requirement to provide external review under this paragraph (d) is satisfied when a Multi State Plan or MSP complies with standards established by the Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Scope</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The Federal external review process established pursuant to this paragraph (d) applies to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) An adverse benefit determination (including a final internal adverse benefit determination) by a plan or issuer that involves medical judgment (including, but not limited to, those based on the plan's or issuer's requirements for medical necessity, appropriateness, health care setting, level of care, or effectiveness of a covered benefit; its determination that a treatment is experimental or investigational; its determination whether a participant or beneficiary is entitled to a reasonable alternative standard for a reward under a wellness program; its determination whether a plan or issuer is complying with the nonquantitative treatment limitation provisions of ERISA section 712 and § 2590.712, which generally require, among other things, parity in the application of medical management techniques), as determined by the external reviewer. (A denial, reduction, termination, or a failure to provide payment for a benefit based on a determination that a participant or beneficiary fails to meet the requirements for eligibility under the terms of a group health plan or health insurance coverage is not eligible for the Federal external review process under this paragraph (d));
</P>
<P>(B) An adverse benefit determination that involves consideration of whether a plan or issuer is complying with the surprise billing and cost-sharing protections set forth in ERISA sections 716 and 717 and §§ 2590.716-4 through 2590.716-5 and 2590.717-1; and
</P>
<P>(C) A rescission of coverage (whether or not the rescission has any effect on any particular benefit at that time).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for 30 physical therapy visits generally. After the 30th visit, coverage is provided only if the service is preauthorized pursuant to an approved treatment plan that takes into account medical necessity using the plan's definition of the term. Individual <I>A</I> seeks coverage for a 31st physical therapy visit. <I>A'</I>s health care provider submits a treatment plan for approval, but it is not approved by the plan, so coverage for the 31st visit is not preauthorized. With respect to the 31st visit, <I>A</I> receives a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination stating that the maximum visit limit is exceeded.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan's denial of benefits is based on medical necessity and involves medical judgment. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. Moreover, the plan's notification of final internal adverse benefit determination is inadequate under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>3</I>) of this section because it fails to make clear that the plan will pay for more than 30 visits if the service is preauthorized pursuant to an approved treatment plan that takes into account medical necessity using the plan's definition of the term. Accordingly, the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination should refer to the plan provision governing the 31st visit and should describe the plan's standard for medical necessity, as well as how the treatment fails to meet the plan's standard.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan does not provide coverage for services provided out of network, unless the service cannot effectively be provided in network. Individual <I>B</I> seeks coverage for a specialized medical procedure from an out-of-network provider because <I>B</I> believes that the procedure cannot be effectively provided in network. <I>B</I> receives a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination stating that the claim is denied because the provider is out-of-network.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan's denial of benefits is based on whether a service can effectively be provided in network and, therefore, involves medical judgment. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. Moreover, the plan's notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is inadequate under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>3</I>) of this section because the plan does provide benefits for services on an out-of-network basis if the services cannot effectively be provided in network. Accordingly, the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is required to refer to the exception to the out-of-network exclusion and should describe the plan's standards for determining effectiveness of services, as well as how services available to the claimant within the plan's network meet the plan's standard for effectiveness of services.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides benefits for services in an emergency department of a hospital or independent freestanding emergency department. Individual <I>C</I> receives pre-stabilization emergency treatment in an out-of-network emergency department of a hospital. The group health plan determines that protections for emergency services under § 2590.716-4 do not apply because the treatment did not involve “emergency services” within the meaning of § 2590.716-4(c)(2)(i). <I>C</I> receives an adverse benefit determination and the plan imposes cost-sharing requirements that are greater than the requirements that would apply if the same services were provided in an in-network emergency department.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the plan's determination that treatment received by <I>C</I> did not include emergency services involves medical judgment and consideration of whether the plan complied with § 2590.716-4. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides benefits for anesthesiology services. Individual <I>D</I> undergoes a surgery at an in-network health care facility and during the course of the surgery, receives anesthesiology services from an out-of-network provider. The plan decides the claim for these services without regard to the protections related to items and services furnished by out-of-network providers at in-network facilities under § 2590.716-5. As a result, <I>D</I> receives an adverse benefit determination for the services and is subject to cost-sharing liability that is greater than it would be if cost sharing had been calculated in a manner consistent with the requirements of § 2590.716-5.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> whether the plan was required to decide the claim in a manner consistent with the requirements of § 2590.716-5 involves considering whether the plan complied with § 2590.716-5, as well as medical judgment, because it requires consideration of the health care setting and level of care. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides benefits for services in an emergency department of a hospital or independent freestanding emergency department. Individual <I>E</I> receives emergency services in an out-of-network emergency department of a hospital, including certain post-stabilization services. The plan processes the claim for the post-stabilization services as not being for emergency services under § 2590.716-4(c)(2)(ii) based on representations made by the treating provider that <I>E</I> was in a condition to receive notice from the provider about cost-sharing and surprise billing protections for these services and subsequently gave informed consent to waive those protections. <I>E</I> receives an adverse benefit determination and is subject to cost-sharing requirements that are greater than the cost-sharing requirements that would apply if the services were processed in a manner consistent with § 2590.716-4.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> whether <I>E</I> was in a condition to receive notice about the availability of cost-sharing and surprise billing protections and give informed consent to waive those protections involves medical judgment and consideration of whether the plan complied with the requirements under § 2590.716-4(c)(2)(ii). Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>F</I> gives birth to a baby at an in-network hospital. The baby is born prematurely and receives certain neonatology services from a nonparticipating provider during the same visit as the birth. <I>F</I> was given notice about cost-sharing and surprise billing protections for these services, and subsequently gave informed consent to waive those protections. The claim for the neonatology services is coded as a claim for routine post-natal services and the plan decides the claim without regard to the requirements under § 2590.716-5(a) and the fact that those protections may not be waived for neonatology services under § 2590.716-5(b).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> medical judgment is necessary to determine whether the correct code was used and compliance with § 2590.716-5(a) and (b) must also be considered. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. The Departments also note that, to the extent the nonparticipating provider balance bills Individual <I>F</I> for the outstanding amounts not paid by the plan for the neonatology services, such provider would be in violation of PHS Act section 2799B-2 and its implementing regulations at 45 CFR 149.420(a).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides benefits to cover knee replacement surgery. Individual <I>G</I> receives a knee replacement surgery at an in-network facility and, after receiving proper notice about the availability of cost-sharing and surprise billing protections, provides informed consent to waive those protections. However, during the surgery, certain anesthesiology services are provided by an out-of-network nurse anesthetist. The claim for these anesthesiology services is decided by the plan without regard to the requirements under § 2590.716-5(a) or to the fact that those protections may not be waived for ancillary services such as anesthesiology services provided by an out-of-network provider at an in-network facility under § 2590.716-5(b). <I>G</I> receives an adverse benefit determination and is subject to cost-sharing requirements that are greater than the cost-sharing requirements that would apply if the services were provided in a manner consistent with § 2590.716-5(a) and (b).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> consideration of whether the plan complied with the requirements in § 2590.716-5(a) and (b) is necessary to determine whether cost-sharing requirements were applied appropriately. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>External review process standards.</I> The Federal external review process established pursuant to this paragraph (d) is considered similar to the process set forth in the NAIC Uniform Model Act and, therefore satisfies the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)) if such process provides the following.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Request for external review.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must allow a claimant to file a request for an external review with the plan or issuer if the request is filed within four months after the date of receipt of a notice of an adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. If there is no corresponding date four months after the date of receipt of such a notice, then the request must be filed by the first day of the fifth month following the receipt of the notice. For example, if the date of receipt of the notice is October 30, because there is no February 30, the request must be filed by March 1. If the last filing date would fall on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the last filing date is extended to the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preliminary review</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> Within five business days following the date of receipt of the external review request, the group health plan or health insurance issuer must complete a preliminary review of the request to determine whether:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The claimant is or was covered under the plan or coverage at the time the health care item or service was requested or, in the case of a retrospective review, was covered under the plan or coverage at the time the health care item or service was provided;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The adverse benefit determination or the final adverse benefit determination does not relate to the claimant's failure to meet the requirements for eligibility under the terms of the group health plan or health insurance coverage (e.g., worker classification or similar determination);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The claimant has exhausted the plan's or issuer's internal appeal process unless the claimant is not required to exhaust the internal appeals process under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The claimant has provided all the information and forms required to process an external review.
</P>
<P>(B) Within one business day after completion of the preliminary review, the plan or issuer must issue a notification in writing to the claimant. If the request is complete but not eligible for external review, such notification must include the reasons for its ineligibility and current contact information, including the phone number, for the Employee Benefits Security Administration. If the request is not complete, such notification must describe the information or materials needed to make the request complete, and the plan or issuer must allow a claimant to perfect the request for external review within the four-month filing period or within the 48 hour period following the receipt of the notification, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Referral to Independent Review Organization</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> The group health plan or health insurance issuer must assign an IRO that is accredited by URAC or by similar nationally-recognized accrediting organization to conduct the external review. The IRO referral process must provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan or issuer must ensure that the IRO process is not biased and ensures independence;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The plan or issuer must contract with at least three (3) IROs for assignments under the plan or coverage and rotate claims assignments among them (or incorporate other independent, unbiased methods for selection of IROs, such as random selection); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The IRO may not be eligible for any financial incentives based on the likelihood that the IRO will support the denial of benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The IRO process may not impose any costs, including filing fees, on the claimant requesting the external review.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>IRO contracts.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must include the following standards in the contract between the plan or issuer and the IRO:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The assigned IRO will utilize legal experts where appropriate to make coverage determinations under the plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The assigned IRO will timely notify a claimant in writing whether the request is eligible for external review. This notice will include a statement that the claimant may submit in writing to the assigned IRO, within ten business days following the date of receipt of the notice, additional information. This additional information must be considered by the IRO when conducting the external review. The IRO is not required to, but may, accept and consider additional information submitted after ten business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Within five business days after the date of assignment of the IRO, the plan or issuer must provide to the assigned IRO the documents and any information considered in making the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. Failure by the plan or issuer to timely provide the documents and information must not delay the conduct of the external review. If the plan or issuer fails to timely provide the documents and information, the assigned IRO may terminate the external review and make a decision to reverse the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. Within one business day after making the decision, the IRO must notify the claimant and the plan.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Upon receipt of any information submitted by the claimant, the assigned IRO must within one business day forward the information to the plan or issuer. Upon receipt of any such information, the plan or issuer may reconsider its adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination that is the subject of the external review. Reconsideration by the plan or issuer must not delay the external review. The external review may be terminated as a result of the reconsideration only if the plan decides, upon completion of its reconsideration, to reverse its adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination and provide coverage or payment. Within one business day after making such a decision, the plan must provide written notice of its decision to the claimant and the assigned IRO. The assigned IRO must terminate the external review upon receipt of the notice from the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The IRO will review all of the information and documents timely received. In reaching a decision, the assigned IRO will review the claim de novo and not be bound by any decisions or conclusions reached during the plan's or issuer's internal claims and appeals process applicable under paragraph (b). In addition to the documents and information provided, the assigned IRO, to the extent the information or documents are available and the IRO considers them appropriate, will consider the following in reaching a decision:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The claimant's medical records;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The attending health care professional's recommendation;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Reports from appropriate health care professionals and other documents submitted by the plan or issuer, claimant, or the claimant's treating provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The terms of the claimant's plan or coverage to ensure that the IRO's decision is not contrary to the terms of the plan or coverage, unless the terms are inconsistent with applicable law;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Appropriate practice guidelines, which must include applicable evidence-based standards and may include any other practice guidelines developed by the Federal government, national or professional medical societies, boards, and associations;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Any applicable clinical review criteria developed and used by the plan or issuer, unless the criteria are inconsistent with the terms of the plan or coverage or with applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) To the extent the final IRO decision maker is different from the IRO's clinical reviewer, the opinion of such clinical reviewer, after considering information described in this notice, to the extent the information or documents are available and the clinical reviewer or reviewers consider such information or documents appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The assigned IRO must provide written notice of the final external review decision within 45 days after the IRO receives the request for the external review. The IRO must deliver the notice of the final external review decision to the claimant and the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The assigned IRO's written notice of the final external review decision must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A general description of the reason for the request for external review, including information sufficient to identify the claim (including the date or dates of service, the health care provider, the claim amount (if applicable), and a statement describing the availability, upon request, of the diagnosis code and its corresponding meaning, the treatment code and its corresponding meaning, and the reason for the plan's or issuer's denial);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The date the IRO received the assignment to conduct the external review and the date of the IRO decision;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) References to the evidence or documentation, including the specific coverage provisions and evidence-based standards, considered in reaching its decision;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A discussion of the principal reason or reasons for its decision, including the rationale for its decision and any evidence-based standards that were relied on in making its decision;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) A statement that the IRO's determination is binding except to the extent that other remedies may be available under State or Federal law to either the group health plan or health insurance issuer or to the claimant, or to the extent the health plan or health insurance issuer voluntarily makes payment on the claim or otherwise provides benefits at any time, including after a final external review decision that denies the claim or otherwise fails to require such payment or benefits;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) A statement that judicial review may be available to the claimant; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Current contact information, including phone number, for any applicable office of health insurance consumer assistance or ombudsman established under PHS Act section 2793.
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) After a final external review decision, the IRO must maintain records of all claims and notices associated with the external review process for six years. An IRO must make such records available for examination by the claimant, plan, issuer, or State or Federal oversight agency upon request, except where such disclosure would violate State or Federal privacy laws.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) <I>Reversal of plan's or issuer's decision.</I> Upon receipt of a notice of a final external review decision reversing the adverse benefit determination or final adverse benefit determination, the plan or issuer immediately must provide coverage or payment (including immediately authorizing care or immediately paying benefits) for the claim.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited external review.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must comply with the following standards with respect to an expedited external review:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Request for external review.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must allow a claimant to make a request for an expedited external review with the plan or issuer at the time the claimant receives:
</P>
<P>(A) An adverse benefit determination if the adverse benefit determination involves a medical condition of the claimant for which the timeframe for completion of an expedited internal appeal under paragraph (b) of this section would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the claimant or would jeopardize the claimant's ability to regain maximum function and the claimant has filed a request for an expedited internal appeal; or
</P>
<P>(B) A final internal adverse benefit determination, if the claimant has a medical condition where the timeframe for completion of a standard external review would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the claimant or would jeopardize the claimant's ability to regain maximum function, or if the final internal adverse benefit determination concerns an admission, availability of care, continued stay, or health care item or service for which the claimant received emergency services, but has not been discharged from the facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preliminary review.</I> Immediately upon receipt of the request for expedited external review, the plan or issuer must determine whether the request meets the reviewability requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section for standard external review. The plan or issuer must immediately send a notice that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) for standard review to the claimant of its eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Referral to independent review organization.</I> (A) Upon a determination that a request is eligible for expedited external review following the preliminary review, the plan or issuer will assign an IRO pursuant to the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section for standard review. The plan or issuer must provide or transmit all necessary documents and information considered in making the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination to the assigned IRO electronically or by telephone or facsimile or any other available expeditious method.
</P>
<P>(B) The assigned IRO, to the extent the information or documents are available and the IRO considers them appropriate, must consider the information or documents described above under the procedures for standard review. In reaching a decision, the assigned IRO must review the claim de novo and is not bound by any decisions or conclusions reached during the plan's or issuer's internal claims and appeals process.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Notice of final external review decision.</I> The plan's or issuer's contract with the assigned IRO must require the IRO to provide notice of the final external review decision, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, as expeditiously as the claimant's medical condition or circumstances require, but in no event more than 72 hours after the IRO receives the request for an expedited external review. If the notice is not in writing, within 48 hours after the date of providing that notice, the assigned IRO must provide written confirmation of the decision to the claimant and the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative, Federally-administered external review process.</I> Insured coverage not subject to an applicable State external review process under paragraph (c) of this section may elect to use either the Federal external review process, as set forth under paragraph (d) of this section or the Federally-administered external review process, as set forth by HHS in guidance. In such circumstances, the requirement to provide external review under this paragraph (d) is satisfied.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form and manner of notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this section, a group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage are considered to provide relevant notices in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner if the plan or issuer meets all the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section with respect to the applicable non-English languages described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> (i) The plan or issuer must provide oral language services (such as a telephone customer assistance hotline) that includes answering questions in any applicable non-English language and providing assistance with filing claims and appeals (including external review) in any applicable non-English language;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan or issuer must provide, upon request, a notice in any applicable non-English language; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan or issuer must include in the English versions of all notices, a statement prominently displayed in any applicable non-English language clearly indicating how to access the language services provided by the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicable non-English language.</I> With respect to an address in any United States county to which a notice is sent, a non-English language is an applicable non-English language if ten percent or more of the population residing in the county is literate only in the same non-English language, as determined in guidance published by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secretarial authority.</I> The Secretary may determine that the external review process of a group health plan or health insurance issuer, in operation as of March 23, 2010, is considered in compliance with the applicable process established under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section if it substantially meets the requirements of paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section generally are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017. The external review scope provision at paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section is applicable for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022. The external review provisions described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section are applicable to grandfathered health plans, with respect to the types of claims specified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72264, Nov. 18, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 56110, Oct. 7, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.715-2719A" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.3.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.715-2719A   Patient protections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Choice of health care professional</I>—(1) <I>Designation of primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, requires or provides for designation by a participant or beneficiary of a participating primary care provider, then the plan or issuer must permit each participant or beneficiary to designate any participating primary care provider who is available to accept the participant or beneficiary. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is to be construed to prohibit the application of reasonable and appropriate geographic limitations with respect to the selection of primary care providers, in accordance with the terms of the plan or coverage, the underlying provider contracts, and applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(1) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires individuals covered under the plan to designate a primary care provider. The plan permits each individual to designate any primary care provider participating in the plan's network who is available to accept the individual as the individual's primary care provider. If an individual has not designated a primary care provider, the plan designates one until one has been designated by the individual. The plan provides a notice that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section regarding the ability to designate a primary care provider.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the plan has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>Designation of pediatrician as primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, requires or provides for the designation of a participating primary care provider for a child by a participant or beneficiary, the plan or issuer must permit the participant or beneficiary to designate a physician (allopathic or osteopathic) who specializes in pediatrics (including pediatric subspecialties, based on the scope of that provider's license under applicable State law) as the child's primary care provider if the provider participates in the network of the plan or issuer and is available to accept the child. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a pediatrician as the child's primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is to be construed to waive any exclusions of coverage under the terms and conditions of the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to coverage of pediatric care.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan's HMO designates for each participant a physician who specializes in internal medicine to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and any beneficiaries. Participant <I>A</I> requests that Pediatrician <I>B</I> be designated as the primary care provider for <I>A'</I>s child. <I>B</I> is a participating provider in the HMO's network and is available to accept the child.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the HMO must permit <I>A'</I>s designation of <I>B</I> as the primary care provider for <I>A'</I>s child in order to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except that <I>A</I> takes <I>A'</I>s child to <I>B</I> for treatment of the child's severe shellfish allergies. <I>B</I> wishes to refer <I>A'</I>s child to an allergist for treatment. The HMO, however, does not provide coverage for treatment of food allergies, nor does it have an allergist participating in its network, and it therefore refuses to authorize the referral.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the HMO has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2) because the exclusion of treatment for food allergies is in accordance with the terms of <I>A'</I>s coverage.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Patient access to obstetrical and gynecological care</I>—(i) <I>General rights</I>—(A) <I>Direct access.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section may not require authorization or referral by the plan, issuer, or any person (including a primary care provider) in the case of a female participant or beneficiary who seeks coverage for obstetrical or gynecological care provided by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant that the plan may not require authorization or referral for obstetrical or gynecological care by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. The plan or issuer may require such a professional to agree to otherwise adhere to the plan's or issuer's policies and procedures, including procedures regarding referrals and obtaining prior authorization and providing services pursuant to a treatment plan (if any) approved by the plan or issuer. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology is any individual (including a person other than a physician) who is authorized under applicable State law to provide obstetrical or gynecological care.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Obstetrical and gynecological care.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section must treat the provision of obstetrical and gynecological care, and the ordering of related obstetrical and gynecological items and services, pursuant to the direct access described under paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section, by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology as the authorization of the primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application of paragraph.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, is described in this paragraph (a)(3) if the plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Provides coverage for obstetrical or gynecological care; and
</P>
<P>(B) Requires the designation by a participant or beneficiary of a participating primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section is to be construed to—
</P>
<P>(A) Waive any exclusions of coverage under the terms and conditions of the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to coverage of obstetrical or gynecological care; or
</P>
<P>(B) Preclude the group health plan or health insurance issuer involved from requiring that the obstetrical or gynecological provider notify the primary care health care professional or the plan or issuer of treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(3) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires each participant to designate a physician to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and the participant's family. Participant <I>A,</I> a female, requests a gynecological exam with Physician <I>B,</I> an in-network physician specializing in gynecological care. The group health plan requires prior authorization from <I>A'</I>s designated primary care provider for the gynecological exam.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the group health plan has violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because the plan requires prior authorization from <I>A'</I>s primary care provider prior to obtaining gynecological services.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> except that <I>A</I> seeks gynecological services from <I>C,</I> an out-of-network provider.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the group health plan has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) by requiring prior authorization because <I>C</I> is not a participating health care provider.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> except that the group health plan only requires <I>B</I> to inform <I>A'</I>s designated primary care physician of treatment decisions.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the group health plan has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because <I>A</I> has direct access to <I>B</I> without prior authorization. The fact that the group health plan requires notification of treatment decisions to the designated primary care physician does not violate this paragraph (a)(3).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires each participant to designate a physician to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and the participant's family. The group health plan requires prior authorization before providing benefits for uterine fibroid embolization.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the plan requirement for prior authorization before providing benefits for uterine fibroid embolization does not violate the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because, though the prior authorization requirement applies to obstetrical services, it does not restrict access to any providers specializing in obstetrics or gynecology.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of right to designate a primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer requires the designation by a participant or beneficiary of a primary care provider, the plan or issuer must provide a notice informing each participant of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a primary care provider and of the rights—
</P>
<P>(A) Under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, that any participating primary care provider who is available to accept the participant or beneficiary can be designated;
</P>
<P>(B) Under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, with respect to a child, that any participating physician who specializes in pediatrics can be designated as the primary care provider; and
</P>
<P>(C) Under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, that the plan may not require authorization or referral for obstetrical or gynecological care by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> The notice described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section must be included whenever the plan or issuer provides a participant with a summary plan description or other similar description of benefits under the plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Model language.</I> The following model language can be used to satisfy the notice requirement described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For plans and issuers that require or allow for the designation of primary care providers by participants or beneficiaries, insert:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>[Name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] generally [requires/allows] the designation of a primary care provider. You have the right to designate any primary care provider who participates in our network and who is available to accept you or your family members. [If the plan or health insurance coverage designates a primary care provider automatically, insert: Until you make this designation, [name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] designates one for you.] For information on how to select a primary care provider, and for a list of the participating primary care providers, contact the [plan administrator or issuer] at [insert contact information].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) For plans and issuers that require or allow for the designation of a primary care provider for a child, add:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For children, you may designate a pediatrician as the primary care provider.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) For plans and issuers that provide coverage for obstetric or gynecological care and require the designation by a participant or beneficiary of a primary care provider, add:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>You do not need prior authorization from [name of group health plan or issuer] or from any other person (including a primary care provider) in order to obtain access to obstetrical or gynecological care from a health care professional in our network who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. The health care professional, however, may be required to comply with certain procedures, including obtaining prior authorization for certain services, following a pre-approved treatment plan, or procedures for making referrals. For a list of participating health care professionals who specialize in obstetrics or gynecology, contact the [plan administrator or issuer] at [insert contact information].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage of emergency services</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, provides any benefits with respect to services in an emergency department of a hospital, the plan or issuer must cover emergency services (as defined in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section) consistent with the rules of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General rules.</I> A plan or issuer subject to the requirements of this paragraph (b) must provide coverage for emergency services in the following manner—
</P>
<P>(i) Without the need for any prior authorization determination, even if the emergency services are provided on an out-of-network basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Without regard to whether the health care provider furnishing the emergency services is a participating network provider with respect to the services;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the emergency services are provided out of network, without imposing any administrative requirement or limitation on coverage that is more restrictive than the requirements or limitations that apply to emergency services received from in-network providers;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the emergency services are provided out of network, by complying with the cost-sharing requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Without regard to any other term or condition of the coverage, other than—
</P>
<P>(A) The exclusion of or coordination of benefits;
</P>
<P>(B) An affiliation or waiting period permitted under part 7 of ERISA, part A of title XXVII of the PHS Act, or chapter 100 of the Internal Revenue Code; or
</P>
<P>(C) Applicable cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost-sharing requirements</I>—(i) <I>Copayments and coinsurance.</I> Any cost-sharing requirement expressed as a copayment amount or coinsurance rate imposed with respect to a participant or beneficiary for out-of-network emergency services cannot exceed the cost-sharing requirement imposed with respect to a participant or beneficiary if the services were provided in-network. However, a participant or beneficiary may be required to pay, in addition to the in-network cost sharing, the excess of the amount the out-of-network provider charges over the amount the plan or issuer is required to pay under this paragraph (b)(3)(i). A group health plan or health insurance issuer complies with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3) if it provides benefits with respect to an emergency service in an amount at least equal to the greatest of the three amounts specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(A), (B), and (C) of this section (which are adjusted for in-network cost-sharing requirements).
</P>
<P>(A) The amount negotiated with in-network providers for the emergency service furnished, excluding any in-network copayment or coinsurance imposed with respect to the participant or beneficiary. If there is more than one amount negotiated with in-network providers for the emergency service, the amount described under this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) is the median of these amounts, excluding any in-network copayment or coinsurance imposed with respect to the participant or beneficiary. In determining the median described in the preceding sentence, the amount negotiated with each in-network provider is treated as a separate amount (even if the same amount is paid to more than one provider). If there is no per-service amount negotiated with in-network providers (such as under a capitation or other similar payment arrangement), the amount under this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) is disregarded.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount for the emergency service calculated using the same method the plan generally uses to determine payments for out-of-network services (such as the usual, customary, and reasonable amount), excluding any in-network copayment or coinsurance imposed with respect to the participant or beneficiary. The amount in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) is determined without reduction for out-of-network cost sharing that generally applies under the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to out-of-network services. Thus, for example, if a plan generally pays 70 percent of the usual, customary, and reasonable amount for out-of-network services, the amount in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) for an emergency service is the total (that is, 100 percent) of the usual, customary, and reasonable amount for the service, not reduced by the 30 percent coinsurance that would generally apply to out-of-network services (but reduced by the in-network copayment or coinsurance that the individual would be responsible for if the emergency service had been provided in-network).
</P>
<P>(C) The amount that would be paid under Medicare (part A or part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395 <I>et seq.</I>) for the emergency service, excluding any in-network copayment or coinsurance imposed with respect to the participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other cost sharing.</I> Any cost-sharing requirement other than a copayment or coinsurance requirement (such as a deductible or out-of-pocket maximum) may be imposed with respect to emergency services provided out of network if the cost-sharing requirement generally applies to out-of-network benefits. A deductible may be imposed with respect to out-of-network emergency services only as part of a deductible that generally applies to out-of-network benefits. If an out-of-pocket maximum generally applies to out-of-network benefits, that out-of-pocket maximum must apply to out-of-network emergency services.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special rules regarding out-of-network minimum payment standards.</I> (A) The minimum payment standards set forth under paragraph (b)(3) of this section do not apply in cases where State law prohibits a participant or beneficiary from being required to pay, in addition to the in-network cost sharing, the excess of the amount the out-of-network provider charges over the amount the plan or issuer provides in benefits, or where a group health plan or health insurance issuer is contractually responsible for such amounts. Nonetheless, in such cases, a plan or issuer may not impose any copayment or coinsurance requirement for out-of-network emergency services that is higher than the copayment or coinsurance requirement that would apply if the services were provided in network.
</P>
<P>(B) A group health plan and health insurance issuer must provide a participant or beneficiary adequate and prominent notice of their lack of financial responsibility with respect to the amounts described under this paragraph (b)(3)(iii), to prevent inadvertent payment by the participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(3) are illustrated by the following examples. In all of these examples, the group health plan covers benefits with respect to emergency services.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan imposes a 25% coinsurance responsibility on individuals who are furnished emergency services, whether provided in network or out of network. If a covered individual notifies the plan within two business days after the day an individual receives treatment in an emergency department, the plan reduces the coinsurance rate to 15%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the requirement to notify the plan in order to receive a reduction in the coinsurance rate does not violate the requirement that the plan cover emergency services without the need for any prior authorization determination. This is the result even if the plan required that it be notified before or at the time of receiving services at the emergency department in order to receive a reduction in the coinsurance rate.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan imposes a $60 copayment on emergency services without preauthorization, whether provided in network or out of network. If emergency services are preauthorized, the plan waives the copayment, even if it later determines the medical condition was not an emergency medical condition.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> by requiring an individual to pay more for emergency services if the individual does not obtain prior authorization, the plan violates the requirement that the plan cover emergency services without the need for any prior authorization determination. (By contrast, if, to have the copayment waived, the plan merely required that it be notified rather than a prior authorization, then the plan would not violate the requirement that the plan cover emergency services without the need for any prior authorization determination.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan covers individuals who receive emergency services with respect to an emergency medical condition from an out-of-network provider. The plan has agreements with in-network providers with respect to a certain emergency service. Each provider has agreed to provide the service for a certain amount. Among all the providers for the service: One has agreed to accept $85, two have agreed to accept $100, two have agreed to accept $110, three have agreed to accept $120, and one has agreed to accept $150. Under the agreement, the plan agrees to pay the providers 80% of the agreed amount, with the individual receiving the service responsible for the remaining 20%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the values taken into account in determining the median are $85, $100, $100, $110, $110, $120, $120, $120, and $150. Therefore, the median amount among those agreed to for the emergency service is $110, and the amount under paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section is 80% of $110 ($88).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 3.</I> Subsequently, the plan adds another provider to its network, who has agreed to accept $150 for the emergency service.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the median amount among those agreed to for the emergency service is $115. (Because there is no one middle amount, the median is the average of the two middle amounts, $110 and $120.) Accordingly, the amount under paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section is 80% of $115 ($92).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4.</I> An individual covered by the plan receives the emergency service from an out-of-network provider, who charges $125 for the service. With respect to services provided by out-of-network providers generally, the plan reimburses covered individuals 50% of the reasonable amount charged by the provider for medical services. For this purpose, the reasonable amount for any service is based on information on charges by all providers collected by a third party, on a zip code by zip code basis, with the plan treating charges at a specified percentile as reasonable. For the emergency service received by the individual, the reasonable amount calculated using this method is $116. The amount that would be paid under Medicare for the emergency service, excluding any copayment or coinsurance for the service, is $80.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the plan is responsible for paying $92.80, 80% of $116. The median amount among those agreed to for the emergency service is $115 and the amount the plan would pay is $92 (80% of $115); the amount calculated using the same method the plan uses to determine payments for out-of-network services—$116—excluding the in-network 20% coinsurance, is $92.80; and the Medicare payment is $80. Thus, the greatest amount is $92.80. The individual is responsible for the remaining $32.20 charged by the out-of-network provider.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 5.</I> The group health plan generally imposes a $250 deductible for in-network health care. With respect to all health care provided by out-of-network providers, the plan imposes a $500 deductible. (Covered in-network claims are credited against the deductible.) The individual has incurred and submitted $260 of covered claims prior to receiving the emergency service out of network.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the plan is not responsible for paying anything with respect to the emergency service furnished by the out-of-network provider because the covered individual has not satisfied the higher deductible that applies generally to all health care provided out of network. However, the amount the individual is required to pay is credited against the deductible.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in this paragraph (b)(4) govern in applying the provisions of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency medical condition.</I> The term <I>emergency medical condition</I> means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe pain) so that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in a condition described in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of section 1867(e)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd(e)(1)(A)). (In that provision of the Social Security Act, clause (i) refers to placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious jeopardy; clause (ii) refers to serious impairment to bodily functions; and clause (iii) refers to serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Emergency services.</I> The term <I>emergency services</I> means, with respect to an emergency medical condition—
</P>
<P>(A) A medical screening examination (as required under section 1867 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395dd) that is within the capability of the emergency department of a hospital, including ancillary services routinely available to the emergency department to evaluate such emergency medical condition, and
</P>
<P>(B) Such further medical examination and treatment, to the extent they are within the capabilities of the staff and facilities available at the hospital, as are required under section 1867 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd) to stabilize the patient.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Stabilize.</I> The term <I>to stabilize,</I> with respect to an emergency medical condition (as defined in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section) has the meaning given in section 1867(e)(3) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd(e)(3)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years beginning before January 1, 2022. <I>See also</I> §§ 2590.716-4 through 2590.716-7, 2590.717-1, and 2590.722 of this part for rules applicable with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72270, Nov. 18, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 36959, July 13, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Surprise Billing and Transparency Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 36959, July 13, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-1   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> Sections 2590.716-1 through 2590.725-4 implement sections 716-725 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes standards for group health plans, and health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage with respect to surprise medical bills, transparency in health care coverage, and additional patient protections. This part also establishes an independent dispute resolution process, and standards for certifying independent dispute resolution entities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36959, July 13, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 56111, Oct. 7, 2021; 86 FR 66699, Nov. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) The requirements in §§ 2590.716-4 through 2590.716-7, 2590.717-1, 2590.722, and 2590.725-1 through 2590.725-4 apply to group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage (including grandfathered health plans as defined in § 2590.715-1251), except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements in §§ 2590.716-8 and 2590.717-2 apply to certified IDR entities and group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage (including grandfathered health plans as defined in § 2590.715-1251) except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements in §§ 2590.716-4 through 2590.716-8, 2590.717-1, 2590.717-2, 2590.722, and 2590.725-1 through 2590.725-4 do not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Excepted benefits as described in § 2590.732.
</P>
<P>(2) Short-term, limited-duration insurance as defined in § 2590.701-2.
</P>
<P>(3) Health reimbursement arrangements or other account-based group health plans as described in § 2590.715-2711(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36959, July 13, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 66699, Nov. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260604" REFID="49">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 34059, June 4, 2026.</XREF>
<P>The definitions in this part apply to §§ 2590.716 through 2590.722, unless otherwise specified. In addition, for purposes of §§ 2590.716 through 2590.722, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Air ambulance service</I> means medical transport by a rotary wing air ambulance, as defined in 42 CFR 414.605, or fixed wing air ambulance, as defined in 42 CFR 414.605, for patients.


</P>
<P><I>Cost sharing</I> means the amount a participant or beneficiary is responsible for paying for a covered item or service under the terms of the group health plan or health insurance coverage. Cost sharing generally includes copayments, coinsurance, and amounts paid towards deductibles, but does not include amounts paid towards premiums, balance billing by out-of-network providers, or the cost of items or services that are not covered under a group health plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency department of a hospital</I> includes a hospital outpatient department that provides emergency services.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency medical condition</I> has the meaning given the term in § 2590.716-4(c)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Emergency services</I> has the meaning given the term in § 2590.716-4(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Health care facility,</I> with respect to a group health plan or group health insurance coverage, in the context of non-emergency services, is each of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A hospital (as defined in section 1861(e) of the Social Security Act);
</P>
<P>(2) A hospital outpatient department;
</P>
<P>(3) A critical access hospital (as defined in section 1861(mm)(1) of the Social Security Act); and
</P>
<P>(4) An ambulatory surgical center described in section 1833(i)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P><I>Independent freestanding emergency department</I> means a health care facility (not limited to those described in the definition of health care facility with respect to non-emergency services) that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is geographically separate and distinct and licensed separately from a hospital under applicable State law; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provides any emergency services as described in § 2590.716-4(c)(2)(i).
</P>
<P><I>Nonparticipating emergency facility</I> means an emergency department of a hospital, or an independent freestanding emergency department (or a hospital, with respect to services that pursuant to § 2590.716-4(c)(2)(ii) are included as emergency services), that does not have a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or group health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, with respect to the furnishing of an item or service under the plan or coverage, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Nonparticipating provider</I> means any physician or other health care provider who does not have a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or group health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, with respect to the furnishing of an item or service under the plan or coverage, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of denial of payment</I> means, with respect to an item or service for which benefits subject to the protections of §§ 2590.716-4, 2590.716-5, and 2590.717-1 are provided or covered, a written notice from the plan or issuer to the health care provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, as applicable, that payment for such item or service will not be made by the plan or coverage and which explains the reason for denial. The term notice of denial of payment does not include a notice of benefit denial due to an adverse benefit determination as defined in § 2560.503-1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Out-of-network rate</I> means, with respect to an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider, nonparticipating emergency facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services—
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to paragraph (3) of this definition, in a State that has in effect a specified State law, the amount determined in accordance with such law;
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (3) of this definition, in a State that does not have in effect a specified State law—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to paragraph (2)(ii) of this definition, if the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility and the plan or issuer agree on an amount of payment (including if the amount agreed upon is the initial payment sent by the plan or issuer under 26 CFR 54.9816-4T(b)(3)(iv)(A), 54.9816-5T(c)(3), or 54.9817-1T(b)(4)(i); § 2590.716-4(b)(3)(iv)(A), § 2590.716-5(c)(3), or § 2590.717-1(b)(4)(i); or 45 CFR 149.110(b)(3)(iv)(A), 149.120(c)(3), or 149.130(b)(4)(i), as applicable, or is agreed on through negotiations with respect to such item or service), such agreed on amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility and the plan or issuer enter into the independent dispute resolution (IDR) process under section 9816(c) or 9817(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, section 716(c) or 717(b) of ERISA, or section 2799A-1(c) or 2799A-2(b) of the PHS Act, as applicable, and do not agree before the date on which a certified IDR entity makes a determination with respect to such item or service under such subsection, the amount of such determination; or
</P>
<P>(3) In a State that has an All-Payer Model Agreement under section 1115A of the Social Security Act that applies with respect to the plan or issuer; the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility; and the item or service, the amount that the State approves under the All-Payer Model Agreement for the item or service.
</P>
<P><I>Participating emergency facility</I> means any emergency department of a hospital, or an independent freestanding emergency department (or a hospital, with respect to services that pursuant to § 2590.716-4(c)(2)(ii) are included as emergency services), that has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant item or service is provided to a participant or beneficiary under the plan or coverage, respectively. A single case agreement between an emergency facility and a plan or issuer that is used to address unique situations in which a participant or beneficiary requires services that typically occur out-of-network constitutes a contractual relationship for purposes of this definition, and is limited to the parties to the agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Participating health care facility</I> means any health care facility described in this section that has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant item or service is provided to a participant or beneficiary under the plan or coverage, respectively. A single case agreement between a health care facility and a plan or issuer that is used to address unique situations in which a participant or beneficiary requires services that typically occur out-of-network constitutes a contractual relationship for purposes of this definition, and is limited to the parties to the agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Participating provider</I> means any physician or other health care provider who has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant item or service is provided to a participant or beneficiary under the plan or coverage, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or health care provider</I> means a physician or other health care provider who is acting within the scope of practice of that provider's license or certification under applicable State law, but does not include a provider of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P><I>Provider of air ambulance services</I> means an entity that is licensed under applicable State and Federal law to provide air ambulance services.
</P>
<P><I>Same or similar item or service</I> has the meaning given the term in § 2590.716-6(a)(13).
</P>
<P><I>Service code</I> has the meaning given the term in § 2590.716-6(a)(14).
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying payment amount</I> has the meaning given the term in § 2590.716-6(a)(16).
</P>
<P><I>Recognized amount</I> means, with respect to an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility—
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to paragraph (3) of this definition, in a State that has in effect a specified State law, the amount determined in accordance with such law.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (3) of this definition, in a State that does not have in effect a specified State law, the lesser of—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount that is the qualifying payment amount (as determined in accordance with § 2590.716-6); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount billed by the provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(3) In a State that has an All-Payer Model Agreement under section 1115A of the Social Security Act that applies with respect to the plan or issuer; the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility; and the item or service, the amount that the State approves under the All-Payer Model Agreement for the item or service.
</P>
<P><I>Specified State law</I> means a State law that provides for a method for determining the total amount payable under a group health plan or group health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer to the extent such State law applies for an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility (including where it applies because the State has allowed a plan that is not otherwise subject to applicable State law an opportunity to opt in, subject to section 514 of ERISA). A group health plan that opts into such a specified State law must do so for all items and services to which the specified State law applies and in a manner determined by the applicable State authority, and must prominently display in its plan materials describing the coverage of out-of-network services a statement that the plan has opted into the specified State law, identify the relevant State (or States), and include a general description of the items and services provided by nonparticipating facilities and providers that are covered by the specified State law.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means each of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Treating provider</I> is a physician or health care provider who has evaluated the individual.
</P>
<P><I>Visit,</I> with respect to items and services furnished to an individual at a health care facility, includes, in addition to items and services furnished by a provider at the facility, equipment and devices, telemedicine services, imaging services, laboratory services, and preoperative and postoperative services, regardless of whether the provider furnishing such items or services is at the facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-4   Preventing surprise medical bills for emergency services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, provides or covers any benefits with respect to services in an emergency department of a hospital or with respect to emergency services in an independent freestanding emergency department, the plan or issuer must cover emergency services, as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and this coverage must be provided in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage requirements.</I> A plan or issuer described in paragraph (a) of this section must provide coverage for emergency services in the following manner—
</P>
<P>(1) Without the need for any prior authorization determination, even if the services are provided on an out-of-network basis.
</P>
<P>(2) Without regard to whether the health care provider furnishing the emergency services is a participating provider or a participating emergency facility, as applicable, with respect to the services.
</P>
<P>(3) If the emergency services are provided by a nonparticipating provider or a nonparticipating emergency facility—
</P>
<P>(i) Without imposing any administrative requirement or limitation on coverage that is more restrictive than the requirements or limitations that apply to emergency services received from participating providers and participating emergency facilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without imposing cost-sharing requirements that are greater than the requirements that would apply if the services were provided by a participating provider or a participating emergency facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) By calculating the cost-sharing requirement as if the total amount that would have been charged for the services by such participating provider or participating emergency facility were equal to the recognized amount for such services.
</P>
<P>(iv) The plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Not later than 30 calendar days after the bill for the services is transmitted by the provider or facility (or, in cases where the recognized amount is determined by a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified by the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement), determines whether the services are covered under the plan or coverage and, if the services are covered, sends to the provider or facility, as applicable, an initial payment or a notice of denial of payment. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(A), the 30-calendar-day period begins on the date the plan or issuer receives the information necessary to decide a claim for payment for the services.
</P>
<P>(B) Pays a total plan or coverage payment directly to the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating facility that is equal to the amount by which the out-of-network rate for the services exceeds the cost-sharing amount for the services (as determined in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section), less any initial payment amount made under paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(A) of this section. The total plan or coverage payment must be made in accordance with the timing requirement described in section 716(c)(6) of ERISA, or in cases where the out-of-network rate is determined under a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified by the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement.
</P>
<P>(v) By counting any cost-sharing payments made by the participant or beneficiary with respect to the emergency services toward any in-network deductible or in-network out-of-pocket maximums (including the annual limitation on cost sharing under section 2707(b) of the PHS Act) (as applicable) applied under the plan or coverage (and the in-network deductible and in-network out-of-pocket maximums must be applied) in the same manner as if the cost-sharing payments were made with respect to emergency services furnished by a participating provider or a participating emergency facility.
</P>
<P>(4) Without limiting what constitutes an emergency medical condition (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) solely on the basis of diagnosis codes.
</P>
<P>(5) Without regard to any other term or condition of the coverage, other than—
</P>
<P>(i) The exclusion or coordination of benefits (to the extent not inconsistent with benefits for an emergency medical condition, as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) An affiliation or waiting period (each as defined in § 2590.701-2).
</P>
<P>(iii) Applicable cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> In this section—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Emergency medical condition</I> means a medical condition, including a mental health condition or substance use disorder, manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe pain) such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in a condition described in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of section 1867(e)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd(e)(1)(A)). (In that provision of the Social Security Act, clause (i) refers to placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious jeopardy; clause (ii) refers to serious impairment to bodily functions; and clause (iii) refers to serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency services</I> means, with respect to an emergency medical condition—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In general.</I> (A) An appropriate medical screening examination (as required under section 1867 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd) or as would be required under such section if such section applied to an independent freestanding emergency department) that is within the capability of the emergency department of a hospital or of an independent freestanding emergency department, as applicable, including ancillary services routinely available to the emergency department to evaluate such emergency medical condition; and
</P>
<P>(B) Within the capabilities of the staff and facilities available at the hospital or the independent freestanding emergency department, as applicable, such further medical examination and treatment as are required under section 1867 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd), or as would be required under such section if such section applied to an independent freestanding emergency department, to stabilize the patient (regardless of the department of the hospital in which such further examination or treatment is furnished).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inclusion of additional services.</I> (A) Subject to paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, items and services—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For which benefits are provided or covered under the plan or coverage; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That are furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility (regardless of the department of the hospital in which such items or services are furnished) after the participant or beneficiary is stabilized and as part of outpatient observation or an inpatient or outpatient stay with respect to the visit in which the services described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section are furnished.
</P>
<P>(B) Items and services described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section are not included as emergency services if all of the conditions in 45 CFR 149.410(b) are met.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>To stabilize,</I> with respect to an emergency medical condition, has the meaning given such term in section 1867(e)(3) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd(e)(3)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-5" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-5   Preventing surprise medical bills for non-emergency services performed by nonparticipating providers at certain participating facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, provides or covers any benefits with respect to items and services described in paragraph (b) of this section, the plan or issuer must cover the items and services when furnished by a nonparticipating provider in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Items and services described.</I> The items and services described in this paragraph (b) are items and services (other than emergency services) furnished to a participant or beneficiary by a nonparticipating provider with respect to a visit at a participating health care facility, unless the provider has satisfied the notice and consent criteria of 45 CFR 149.420(c) through (i) with respect to such items and services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage requirements.</I> In the case of items and services described in paragraph (b) of this section, the plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(1) Must not impose a cost-sharing requirement for the items and services that is greater than the cost-sharing requirement that would apply if the items or services had been furnished by a participating provider.
</P>
<P>(2) Must calculate the cost-sharing requirements as if the total amount that would have been charged for the items and services by such participating provider were equal to the recognized amount for the items and services.
</P>
<P>(3) Not later than 30 calendar days after the bill for the items or services is transmitted by the provider (or in cases where the recognized amount is determined by a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified under the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement), must determine whether the items and services are covered under the plan or coverage and, if the items and services are covered, send to the provider an initial payment or a notice of denial of payment. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), the 30-calendar-day period begins on the date the plan or issuer receives the information necessary to decide a claim for payment for the items or services.
</P>
<P>(4) Must pay a total plan or coverage payment directly to the nonparticipating provider that is equal to the amount by which the out-of-network rate for the items and services involved exceeds the cost-sharing amount for the items and services (as determined in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section), less any initial payment amount made under paragraph (c)(3) of this section. The total plan or coverage payment must be made in accordance with the timing requirement described in section 716(c)(6) of ERISA, or in cases where the out-of-network rate is determined under a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified by the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) Must count any cost-sharing payments made by the participant or beneficiary toward any in-network deductible and in-network out-of-pocket maximums (including the annual limitation on cost sharing under section 2707(b) of the PHS Act) (as applicable) applied under the plan or coverage (and the in-network deductible and out-of-pocket maximums must be applied) in the same manner as if such cost-sharing payments were made with respect to items and services furnished by a participating provider.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-6" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-6   Methodology for calculating qualifying payment amount.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260604" REFID="50">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 34059, June 4, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Contracted rate</I> means the total amount (including cost sharing) that a group health plan or health insurance issuer has contractually agreed to pay a participating provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services for covered items and services, whether directly or indirectly, including through a third-party administrator or pharmacy benefit manager. Solely for purposes of this definition, a single case agreement, letter of agreement, or other similar arrangement between a provider, facility, or air ambulance provider and a plan or issuer, used to supplement the network of the plan or coverage for a specific participant or beneficiary in unique circumstances, does not constitute a contract.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Derived amount</I> has the meaning given the term in § 2590.715-2715A1.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligible database</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) A State all-payer claims database; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any third-party database which—
</P>
<P>(A) Is not affiliated with, or owned or controlled by, any health insurance issuer, or a health care provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services (or any member of the same controlled group as, or under common control with, such an entity). For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(A), the term controlled group means a group of two or more persons that is treated as a single employer under sections 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended;
</P>
<P>(B) Has sufficient information reflecting in-network amounts paid by group health plans or health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage to providers, facilities, or providers of air ambulance services for relevant items and services furnished in the applicable geographic region; and
</P>
<P>(C) Has the ability to distinguish amounts paid to participating providers and facilities by commercial payers, such as group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage, from all other claims data, such as amounts billed by nonparticipating providers or facilities and amounts paid by public payers, including the Medicare program under title XVIII of the Social Security Act, the Medicaid program under title XIX of the Social Security Act (or a demonstration project under title XI of the Social Security Act), or the Children's Health Insurance Program under title XXI of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Facility of the same or similar facility type</I> means, with respect to emergency services, either—
</P>
<P>(i) An emergency department of a hospital; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An independent freestanding emergency department.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>First coverage year</I> means, with respect to an item or service for which coverage is not offered in 2019 under a group health plan or group health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, the first year after 2019 for which coverage for such item or service is offered under that plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>First sufficient information year</I> means, with respect to a group health plan or group health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an item or service for which the plan or coverage does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section in 2019, the first year after 2022 for which the plan or issuer has sufficient information to calculate the median of such contracted rates in the year immediately preceding that first year after 2022; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a newly covered item or service, the first year after the first coverage year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage for which the plan or issuer has sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section in the year immediately preceding that first year.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Geographic region</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) For items and services other than air ambulance services—
</P>
<P>(A) Subject to paragraphs (a)(7)(i)(B) and (C) of this section, one region for each metropolitan statistical area, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in a State, and one region consisting of all other portions of the State.
</P>
<P>(B) If a plan or issuer does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section for an item or service provided in a geographic region described in paragraph (a)(7)(i)(A) of this section, one region consisting of all metropolitan statistical areas, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in the State, and one region consisting of all other portions of the State.
</P>
<P>(C) If a plan or issuer does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section for an item or service provided in a geographic region described in paragraph (a)(7)(i)(B) of this section, one region consisting of all metropolitan statistical areas, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in each Census division and one region consisting of all other portions of the Census division, as described by the U.S. Census Bureau.
</P>
<P>(ii) For air ambulance services—
</P>
<P>(A) Subject to paragraph (a)(7)(ii)(B) of this section, one region consisting of all metropolitan statistical areas, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in the State, and one region consisting of all other portions of the State, determined based on the point of pick-up (as defined in 42 CFR 414.605).
</P>
<P>(B) If a plan or issuer does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section for an air ambulance service provided in a geographic region described in paragraph (a)(7)(ii)(A) of this section, one region consisting of all metropolitan statistical areas, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in each Census division and one region consisting of all other portions of the Census division, as described by the U.S. Census Bureau, determined based on the point of pick-up (as defined in 42 CFR 414.605).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Insurance market</I> is, irrespective of the State, one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual market (other than short-term, limited-duration insurance or individual health insurance coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits).
</P>
<P>(ii) The large group market (other than coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits).
</P>
<P>(iii) The small group market (other than coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits).
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a self-insured group health plan, all self-insured group health plans (other than account-based plans, as defined in § 2590.715-2711(d)(6)(i), and plans that consist solely of excepted benefits) of the same plan sponsor, or at the option of the plan sponsor, all self-insured group health plans administered by the same entity (including a third-party administrator contracted by the plan), to the extent otherwise permitted by law, that is responsible for calculating the qualifying payment amount on behalf of the plan.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Modifiers</I> mean codes applied to the service code that provide a more specific description of the furnished item or service and that may adjust the payment rate or affect the processing or payment of the code billed.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Newly covered item or service</I> means an item or service for which coverage was not offered in 2019 under a group health plan or group health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, but that is offered under the plan or coverage in a year after 2019.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>New service code</I> means a service code that was created or substantially revised in a year after 2019.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Provider in the same or similar specialty</I> means the practice specialty of a provider, as identified by the plan or issuer consistent with the plan's or issuer's usual business practice, except that, with respect to air ambulance services, all providers of air ambulance services are considered to be a single provider specialty.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Same or similar item or service</I> means a health care item or service billed under the same service code, or a comparable code under a different procedural code system.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Service code</I> means the code that describes an item or service using the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code, Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS), or Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) codes.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Sufficient information</I> means, for purposes of determining whether a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage has sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan or issuer has at least three contracted rates on January 31, 2019, to calculate the median of the contracted rates in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For an item or service furnished during a year after 2022 that is used to determine the first sufficient information year—
</P>
<P>(A) The plan or issuer has at least three contracted rates on January 31 of the year immediately preceding that year to calculate the median of the contracted rates in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The contracted rates under paragraph (a)(15)(ii)(A) of this section account (or are reasonably expected to account) for at least 25 percent of the total number of claims paid for that item or service for that year with respect to all plans of the sponsor (or the administering entity as provided in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section, if applicable) or all coverage offered by the issuer that are offered in the same insurance market.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Qualifying payment amount</I> means, with respect to a sponsor of a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, the amount calculated using the methodology described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Underlying fee schedule rate</I> means the rate for a covered item or service from a particular participating provider, providers, or facility that a group health plan or health insurance issuer uses to determine a participant's or beneficiary's cost-sharing liability for the item or service, when that rate is different from the contracted rate.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Downcode</I> means the alteration by a plan or issuer of a service code to another service code, or the alteration, addition, or removal by a plan or issuer of a modifier, if the changed code or modifier is associated with a lower qualifying payment amount than the service code or modifier billed by the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methodology for calculation of median contracted rate</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The median contracted rate for an item or service is calculated by arranging in order from least to greatest the contracted rates of all group health plans of the plan sponsor (or the administering entity as provided in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section, if applicable) or all group health insurance coverage offered by the issuer in the same insurance market for the same or similar item or service that is provided by a provider in the same or similar specialty or facility of the same or similar facility type and provided in the geographic region in which the item or service is furnished and selecting the middle number. If there are an even number of contracted rates, the median contracted rate is the average of the middle two contracted rates. In determining the median contracted rate, the amount negotiated under each contract is treated as a separate amount. If a plan or issuer has a contract with a provider group or facility, the rate negotiated with that provider group or facility under the contract is treated as a single contracted rate if the same amount applies with respect to all providers of such provider group or facility under the single contract. However, if a plan or issuer has a contract with multiple providers, with separate negotiated rates with each particular provider, each unique contracted rate with an individual provider constitutes a single contracted rate. Further, if a plan or issuer has separate contracts with individual providers, the contracted rate under each such contract constitutes a single contracted rate (even if the same amount is paid to multiple providers under separate contracts).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation rules.</I> In calculating the median contracted rate, a plan or issuer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate the median contracted rate with respect to all plans of such sponsor (or the administering entity as provided in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section, if applicable) or all coverage offered by such issuer that are offered in the same insurance market;
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculate the median contracted rate using the full contracted rate applicable to the service code, except that the plan or issuer must—
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate separate median contracted rates for CPT code modifiers “26” (professional component) and “TC” (technical component);
</P>
<P>(B) For anesthesia services, calculate a median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor for each service code;
</P>
<P>(C) For air ambulance services, calculate a median contracted rate for the air mileage service codes (A0435 and A0436); and
</P>
<P>(D) Where contracted rates otherwise vary based on applying a modifier code, calculate a separate median contracted rate for each such service code-modifier combination;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of payments made by a plan or issuer that are not on a fee-for-service basis (such as bundled or capitation payments), calculate a median contracted rate for each item or service using the underlying fee schedule rates for the relevant items or services. If the plan or issuer does not have an underlying fee schedule rate for the item or service, it must use the derived amount to calculate the median contracted rate; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Exclude risk sharing, bonus, penalty, or other incentive-based or retrospective payments or payment adjustments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provider specialties; facility types.</I> (i) If a plan or issuer has contracted rates that vary based on provider specialty for a service code, the median contracted rate is calculated separately for each provider specialty, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a plan or issuer has contracted rates for emergency services that vary based on facility type for a service code, the median contracted rate is calculated separately for each facility of the same or similar facility type.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methodology for calculation of the qualifying payment amount</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) For an item or service (other than items or services described in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) through (vii) of this section) furnished during 2022, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the median contracted rate (as determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section) for the same or similar item or service under such plans or coverage, respectively, on January 31, 2019, by the combined percentage increase as published by the Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service to reflect the percentage increase in the CPI-U over 2019, such percentage increase over 2020, and such percentage increase over 2021.
</P>
<P>(A) The combined percentage increase for 2019, 2020, and 2021 will be published in guidance by the Internal Revenue Service. The Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service will calculate the percentage increase using the CPI-U published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1)(i), the CPI-U for each calendar year is the average of the CPI-U as of the close of the 12-month period ending on August 31 of the calendar year, rounded to 10 decimal places.
</P>
<P>(C) The combined percentage increase for 2019, 2020, and 2021 will be calculated as:
</P>
<FP-2>(CPI-U 2019/CPI-U 2018) × (CPI-U 2020/CPI-U 2019) × (CPI-U 2021/CPI-U 2020)
</FP-2>
<P>(ii) For an item or service (other than items or services described in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) through (vii) of this section) furnished during 2023 or a subsequent year, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the qualifying payment amount determined under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, for such an item or service furnished in the immediately preceding year, by the percentage increase as published by the Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service.
</P>
<P>(A) The percentage increase for any year after 2022 will be published in guidance by the Internal Revenue Service. The Department of the Treasury and Internal Revenue Service will calculate the percentage increase using the CPI-U published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1)(ii), the CPI-U for each calendar year is the average of the CPI-U as of the close of the 12-month period ending on August 31 of the calendar year, rounded to 10 decimal places.
</P>
<P>(C) The combined percentage increase for any year will be calculated as CPI-U present year/CPI-U prior year.
</P>
<P>(iii) For anesthesia services furnished during 2022, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first increasing the median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor (as determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section) for the same or similar item or service under such plans or coverage, respectively, on January 31, 2019, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (referred to in this section as the indexed median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor). The plan or issuer must then multiply the indexed median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor by the sum of the base unit, time unit, and physical status modifier units of the participant or beneficiary to whom anesthesia services are furnished to determine the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(A) The base units for an anesthesia service code are the base units for that service code specified in the most recent edition (as of the date of service) of the American Society of Anesthesiologists Relative Value Guide.
</P>
<P>(B) The time unit is measured in 15-minute increments or a fraction thereof.
</P>
<P>(C) The physical status modifier on a claim is a standard modifier describing the physical status of the patient and is used to distinguish between various levels of complexity of the anesthesia services provided, and is expressed as a unit with a value between zero (0) and three (3).
</P>
<P>(D) The anesthesia conversion factor is expressed in dollars per unit and is a contracted rate negotiated with the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(iv) For anesthesia services furnished during 2023 or a subsequent year, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first increasing the indexed median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor, determined under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section for such services furnished in the immediately preceding year, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The plan or issuer must then multiply that amount by the sum of the base unit, time unit, and physical status modifier units for the participant or beneficiary to whom anesthesia services are furnished to determine the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(v) For air ambulance services billed using the air mileage service codes (A0435 and A0436) that are furnished during 2022, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount for services billed using the air mileage service codes by first increasing the median contracted rate (as determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section), in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (referred to in this section as the indexed median air mileage rate). The plan or issuer must then multiply the indexed median air mileage rate by the number of loaded miles provided to the participant or beneficiary to determine the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(A) The air mileage rate is expressed in dollars per loaded mile flown, is expressed in statute miles (not nautical miles), and is a contracted rate negotiated with the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(B) The number of loaded miles is the number of miles a patient is transported in the air ambulance vehicle.
</P>
<P>(C) The qualifying payment amount for other service codes associated with air ambulance services is calculated in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) For air ambulance services billed using the air mileage service codes (A0435 and A0436) that are furnished during 2023 or a subsequent year, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first increasing the indexed median air mileage rate, determined under paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section for such services furnished in the immediately preceding year, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The plan or issuer must then multiply the indexed median air mileage rate by the number of loaded miles provided to the participant or beneficiary to determine the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(vii) For any other items or services for which a plan or issuer generally determines payment for the same or similar items or services by multiplying a contracted rate by another unit value, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount using a methodology that is similar to the methodology required under paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) through (vi) of this section and reasonably reflects the payment methodology for same or similar items or services.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New plans and coverage.</I> With respect to a sponsor of a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage in a geographic region in which the sponsor or issuer, respectively, did not offer any group health plan or health insurance coverage during 2019—
</P>
<P>(i) For the first year in which the group health plan or group health insurance coverage, respectively, is offered in such region—
</P>
<P>(A) If the plan or issuer has sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section for items and services that are covered by the plan or coverage and furnished during the first year; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the plan or issuer does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section for an item or service provided in a geographic region, the plan or issuer must determine the qualifying payment amount for the item or service in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each subsequent year the group health plan or group health insurance coverage, respectively, is offered in the region, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the qualifying payment amount determined under this paragraph (c)(2) for the items and services furnished in the immediately preceding year, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii), (iv), or (vi) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insufficient information; newly covered items and services.</I> In the case of a plan or issuer that does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section in 2019 (or, in the case of a newly covered item or service, in the first coverage year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage if the plan or issuer does not have sufficient information) for an item or service provided in a geographic region—
</P>
<P>(i) For an item or service furnished during 2022 (or, in the case of a newly covered item or service, during the first coverage year for the item or service with respect to the plan or coverage), the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first identifying the rate that is equal to the median of the in-network allowed amounts for the same or similar item or service provided in the geographic region in the year immediately preceding the year in which the item or service is furnished (or, in the case of a newly covered item or service, the year immediately preceding such first coverage year) determined by the plan or issuer, respectively, through use of any eligible database, and then increasing that rate by the percentage increase in the CPI-U over such preceding year. For purposes of this section, in cases in which an eligible database is used to determine the qualifying payment amount with respect to an item or service furnished during a calendar year, the plan or issuer must use the same database for determining the qualifying payment amount for that item or service furnished through the last day of the calendar year, and if a different database is selected for some items or services, the basis for that selection must be one or more factors not directly related to the rate of those items or services (such as sufficiency of data for those items or services).
</P>
<P>(ii) For an item or service furnished in a subsequent year (before the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage), the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the qualifying payment amount determined under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section or this paragraph (c)(3)(ii), as applicable, for such item or service for the year immediately preceding such subsequent year, by the percentage increase in CPI-U over such preceding year;
</P>
<P>(iii) For an item or service furnished in the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i), (iii), or (v) of this section, as applicable, except that in applying such paragraph to such item or service, the reference to `furnished during 2022' is treated as a reference to furnished during such first sufficient information year, the reference to `in 2019' is treated as a reference to such sufficient information year, and the increase described in such paragraph is not applied; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For an item or service furnished in any year subsequent to the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii), (iv), or (vi) of this section, as applicable, except that in applying such paragraph to such item or service, the reference to `furnished during 2023 or a subsequent year' is treated as a reference to furnished during the year after such first sufficient information year or a subsequent year.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>New service codes.</I> In the case of a plan or issuer that does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section and determine the qualifying payment amount under paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section because the item or service furnished is billed under a new service code—
</P>
<P>(i) For an item or service furnished during 2022 (or, in the case of a newly covered item or service, during the first coverage year for the item or service with respect to the plan or coverage), the plan or issuer must identify a reasonably related service code that existed in the immediately preceding year and—
</P>
<P>(A) If the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services has established a Medicare payment rate for the item or service billed under the new service code, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first calculating the ratio of the rate that Medicare pays for the item or service billed under the new service code compared to the rate that Medicare pays for the item or service billed under the related service code, and then multiplying the ratio by the qualifying payment amount for an item or service billed under the related service code for the year in which the item or service is furnished.
</P>
<P>(B) If the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services has not established a Medicare payment rate for the item or service billed under the new service code, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first calculating the ratio of the rate that the plan or issuer reimburses for the item or service billed under the new service code compared to the rate that the plan or issuer reimburses for the item or service billed under the related service code, and then multiplying the ratio by the qualifying payment amount for an item or service billed under the related service code.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an item or service furnished in a subsequent year (before the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage or before the first year for which an eligible database has sufficient information to a calculate a rate under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section in the immediately preceding year), the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the qualifying payment amount determined under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section or this paragraph (c)(4)(ii), as applicable, for such item or service for the year immediately preceding such subsequent year, by the percentage increase in CPI-U over such preceding year;
</P>
<P>(iii) For an item or service furnished in the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage or the first year for which an eligible database has sufficient information to calculate a rate under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section in the immediately preceding year, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information to be shared about qualifying payment amount.</I> In cases in which the recognized amount with respect to an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider, nonparticipating emergency facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services is the qualifying payment amount, the plan or issuer must provide in writing, in paper or electronic form, to the provider or facility, as applicable—


</P>
<P>(1) With each initial payment or notice of denial of payment under § 2590.716-4, § 2590.716-5, or § 2590.717-1 of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) The qualifying payment amount for each item or service involved;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the qualifying payment amount is based on a downcoded service code or modifier—
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the service code or modifier billed by the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services was downcoded;
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation of why the claim was downcoded, which must include a description of which service codes were altered, if any, and a description of which modifiers were altered, added, or removed, if any; and
</P>
<P>(C) The amount that would have been the qualifying payment amount had the service code or modifier not been downcoded;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement to certify that, based on the determination of the plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) The qualifying payment amount applies for purposes of the recognized amount (or, in the case of air ambulance services, for calculating the participant's or beneficiary's cost sharing); and
</P>
<P>(B) Each qualifying payment amount shared with the provider or facility was determined in compliance with this section;


</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that if the provider or facility, as applicable, wishes to initiate a 30-day open negotiation period for purposes of determining the amount of total payment, the provider or facility may contact the appropriate person or office to initiate open negotiation, and that if the 30-day negotiation period does not result in a determination, generally, the provider or facility may initiate the independent dispute resolution process within 4 days after the end of the open negotiation period; and


</P>
<P>(v) Contact information, including a telephone number and email address, for the appropriate person or office to initiate open negotiations for purposes of determining an amount of payment (including cost sharing) for such item or service.


</P>
<P>(2) In a timely manner upon request of the provider or facility:


</P>
<P>(i) Information about whether the qualifying payment amount for items and services involved included contracted rates that were not on a fee-for-service basis for those specific items and services and whether the qualifying payment amount for those items and services was determined using underlying fee schedule rates or a derived amount;
</P>
<P>(ii) If a plan or issuer uses an eligible database under paragraph (c)(3) of this section to determine the qualifying payment amount, information to identify which database was used; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If a related service code was used to determine the qualifying payment amount for an item or service billed under a new service code under paragraph (c)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section, information to identify the related service code;
</P>
<P>(iv) If applicable, a statement that the plan's or issuer's contracted rates include risk-sharing, bonus, penalty, or other incentive-based or retrospective payments or payment adjustments for the items and services involved (as applicable) that were excluded for purposes of calculating the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain access fees to databases.</I> In the case of a plan or issuer that, pursuant to this section, uses an eligible database to determine the qualifying payment amount for an item or service, the plan or issuer is responsible for any costs associated with accessing such database.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022, except that paragraph (a)(18) of this section regarding the definition of the term “downcode” and paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section regarding additional information that must be provided if the qualifying payment amount is based on a downcoded service code or modifier are applicable with respect to items or services provided or furnished on or after October 25, 2022, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36959, July 13, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52648, Aug. 26, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-6A" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-6A   xxx</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260604" REFID="51">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 34059, June 4, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-7" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-7   Complaints process for surprise medical bills regarding group health plans and group health insurance coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section establishes a process to receive and resolve complaints regarding information that a specific group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage may be failing to meet the requirements under subpart D of this part, which may warrant an investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> In this section—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Complaint</I> means a communication, written or oral, that indicates there has been a potential violation of the requirements under subpart D of this part, whether or not a violation actually occurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Complainant</I> means any individual, or their authorized representative, who files a complaint as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaints process.</I> (1) DOL will consider the date a complaint is filed to be the date upon which DOL receives an oral or written statement that identifies information about the complaint sufficient to identify the parties involved and the action or inaction complained of.
</P>
<P>(2) DOL will notify complainants, by oral or written means, of receipt of the complaint no later than 60 business days after the complaint is received. DOL will include a response acknowledging receipt of the complaint, notifying the complainant of their rights and obligations under the complaints process, and describing the next steps of the complaint resolution process. As part of the response, DOL may request additional information needed to process the complaint. Such additional information may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Explanations of benefits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Processed claims;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information about the health care provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services involved;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information about the group health plan or health insurance issuer covering the individual;
</P>
<P>(v) Information to support a determination regarding whether the service was an emergency service or non-emergency service;
</P>
<P>(vi) The summary plan description, policy, certificate, contract of insurance, membership booklet, outline of coverage, or other evidence of coverage the plan or issuer provides to participants or beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(vii) Documents regarding the facts in the complaint in the possession of, or otherwise attainable by, the complainant; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Any other information DOL may need to make a determination of facts for an investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) DOL will make reasonable efforts consistent with agency practices to notify the complainant of the outcome of the complaint after the submission is processed through appropriate methods as determined by DOL. A complaint is considered processed after DOL has reviewed the complaint and accompanying information and made an outcome determination. Based on the nature of the complaint and the plan or issuer involved, DOL may—
</P>
<P>(i) Refer the complainant to another appropriate Federal or State resolution process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the complainant and make reasonable efforts to refer the complainant to the appropriate State or Federal regulatory authority if DOL receives a complaint where another entity has enforcement jurisdiction over the plan or issuer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Refer the plan or issuer for an investigation for enforcement action; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide the complainant with an explanation of the resolution of the complaint and any corrective action taken.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-8" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-8   Independent dispute resolution process.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260604" REFID="52">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 34059, June 4, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions—</I>(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth requirements with respect to the independent dispute resolution (IDR) process (referred to in this section as the Federal IDR process) under which a nonparticipating provider, nonparticipating emergency facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services (as applicable), and a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage completes a requisite open negotiation period and at least one party submits a notification under paragraph (b) of this section to initiate the Federal IDR process under paragraph (c) of this section, and under which an IDR entity (as certified under paragraph (e) of this section) determines the amount of payment under the plan or coverage for an item or service furnished by the provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise stated, the definitions in § 2590.716-3 of this part apply to this section. Additionally, for purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Batched items and services</I> means multiple qualified IDR items or services that are considered jointly as part of one payment determination by a certified IDR entity for purposes of the Federal IDR process. In order for a qualified IDR item or service to be included in a batched item or service, the qualified IDR item or service must meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Breach</I> means the acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of individually identifiable health information (IIHI) in a manner not permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section that compromises the security or privacy of the IIHI.
</P>
<P>(A) Breach excludes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any unintentional acquisition, access, or use of IIHI by personnel, a contractor, or a subcontractor of a certified IDR entity that is acting under the authority of that certified IDR entity, if the acquisition, access, or use was made in good faith and within the scope of that authority and that does not result in further use or disclosure in a manner not permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any inadvertent disclosure by a person who is authorized to access IIHI at a certified IDR entity to another person authorized to access IIHI at the same certified IDR entity, and the information received as a result of the disclosure is not further used or disclosed in a manner not permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A disclosure of IIHI in which a certified IDR entity has a good faith belief that an unauthorized person to whom the disclosure was made would not reasonably have been able to retain such information.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, access, use, or disclosure of IIHI in a manner not permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section is presumed to be a breach unless the certified IDR entity demonstrates that there is a low probability that the security or privacy of the IIHI has been compromised based on a risk assessment encompassing at least the following factors:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The nature and extent of the IIHI involved, including the types of identifiers and the likelihood of re-identification;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The unauthorized person who used the IIHI or to whom the disclosure was made;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whether the IIHI was actually acquired or viewed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The extent to which the risk to the IIHI has been mitigated.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Certified IDR entity</I> means an entity responsible for conducting determinations under paragraph (c) of this section that meets the certification criteria specified in paragraph (e) of this section and that has been certified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretaries of Health and Human Services and the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Conflict of interest</I> means, with respect to a party to a payment determination, or certified IDR entity, a material relationship, status, or condition of the party, or certified IDR entity that impacts the ability of the certified IDR entity to make an unbiased and impartial payment determination. For purposes of this section, a conflict of interest exists when a certified IDR entity is:
</P>
<P>(A) A group health plan; a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, individual health insurance coverage, or short-term, limited-duration insurance; a carrier offering a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. 8902; or a provider, a facility, or a provider of air ambulance services;
</P>
<P>(B) An affiliate or a subsidiary of a group health plan; a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, individual health insurance coverage, or short-term limited-duration insurance; a carrier offering a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. 8902; or a provider, a facility, or a provider of air ambulance services;
</P>
<P>(C) An affiliate or subsidiary of a professional or trade association representing group health plans; health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage, individual health insurance coverage, or short-term limited duration insurance; carriers offering a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. 8902; or providers, facilities, or providers of air ambulance services.
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<P>(D) A certified IDR entity, that has, or that has any personnel, contractors, or subcontractors assigned to a determination who have, a material familial, financial, or professional relationship with a party to the payment determination being disputed, or with any officer, director, or management employee of the plan, issuer, or carrier offering a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. 8902; the plan administrator, plan fiduciaries, or plan, issuer, or carrier employees; the health care provider, the health care provider's group or practice association; the provider of air ambulance services, the provider of air ambulance services' group or practice association, or the facility that is a party to the dispute.
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<P>(v) <I>Credible information</I> means information that upon critical analysis is worthy of belief and is trustworthy.
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<P>(vi) <I>IDR entity</I> means an entity that may apply or has applied for certification to conduct determinations under paragraph (c) of this section, and that currently is not certified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretaries of Health and Human Services and the Treasury, pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
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<P>(vii) <I>Individually identifiable health information (IIHI)</I> means any information, including demographic data, that relates to the past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition of an individual; the provision of health care to an individual; or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual; and
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<P>(A) That identifies the individual; or
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<P>(B) With respect to which there is a reasonable basis to believe the information can be used to identify the individual.
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<P>(viii) <I>Material familial relationship</I> means any relationship as a spouse, domestic partner, child, parent, sibling, spouse's or domestic partner's parent, spouse's or domestic partner's sibling, spouse's or domestic partner's child, child's parent, child's spouse or domestic partner, or sibling's spouse or domestic partner.
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<P>(ix) <I>Material financial relationship</I> means any financial interest of more than five percent of total annual revenue or total annual income of a certified IDR entity, or an officer, director, or manager thereof, or of a reviewer or reviewing physician employed or engaged by a certified IDR entity to conduct or participate in any review in the Federal IDR process. The terms annual revenue and annual income do not include mediation fees received by mediators who are also arbitrators, provided that the mediator acts in the capacity of a mediator and does not represent a party in the mediation.
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<P>(x) <I>Material professional relationship</I> means any physician-patient relationship, any partnership or employment relationship, any shareholder or similar ownership interest in a professional corporation, partnership, or other similar entity; or any independent contractor arrangement that constitutes a material financial relationship with any expert used by the certified IDR entity or any officer or director of the certified IDR entity.
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<P>(xi) <I>Qualified IDR item or service</I> means an item or service:
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<P>(A) That is an emergency service furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating facility subject to the protections of 26 CFR 54.9816-4T, § 2590.716-4, or 45 CFR 149.110, as applicable, for which the conditions of 45 CFR 149.410(b) are not met, or an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider at a participating health care facility, subject to the requirements of 26 CFR 54.9816-T, § 2590.716-5, or 45 CFR 149.120, as applicable, for which the conditions of 45 CFR 149.420(c) through (i) are not met, or air ambulance services furnished by a nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services subject to the protections of 26 CFR 54.9817-1T, § 2590.717-1, or 45 CFR 149.130, as applicable, and for which the out-of-network rate is not determined by reference to an All-Payer Model Agreement under section 1115A of the Social Security Act or a specified State law as defined in § 2590.716-3;
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<P>(B) With respect to which a provider or facility (as applicable) or group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage submits a notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
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<P>(C) That is not an item or service that is the subject of an open negotiation under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
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<P>(D) That is not an item or service for which a notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section is submitted during the 90-calendar-day period under paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(B) of this section, but that may include such an item or service if the notification is submitted during the subsequent 30-business-day period under paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(C) of this section.
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<P>(xii) <I>Unsecured IIHI</I> means IIHI that is not rendered unusable, unreadable, or indecipherable to unauthorized persons through the use of a technology or methodology specified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services.
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<P>(b) <I>Determination of payment amount through open negotiation and initiation of the Federal IDR process—</I>(1) <I>Determination of payment amount through open negotiation</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> With respect to an item or service that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(xii)(A) of this section, the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services or the group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage may, during the 30-business-day period beginning on the day the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services receives an initial payment or notice of denial of payment regarding the item or service, initiate an open negotiation period for purposes of determining the out-of-network rate for such item or service. To initiate the open negotiation period, a party must send a notice to the other party (open negotiation notice) in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(ii) <I>Open negotiation notice</I>—(A) <I>Content.</I> The open negotiation notice must include information sufficient to identify the item(s) and service(s) (including the date(s) the item(s) or service(s) were furnished, the service code, and initial payment amount, if applicable), an offer of an out-of-network rate, and contact information for the party sending the open negotiation notice.
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<P>(B) <I>Manner.</I> The open negotiation notice must be provided, using the standard form developed by the Secretary, in writing within 30 business days beginning on the day the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services receives an initial payment or a notice of denial of payment from the plan or issuer regarding the item or service. The day on which the open negotiation notice is first sent by a party is the date the 30-business-day open negotiation period begins. This notice may be provided to the other party electronically (such as by email) if the following two conditions are satisfied—
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<P>(<I>1</I>) The party sending the open negotiation notice has a good faith belief that the electronic method is readily accessible by the other party; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The notice is provided in paper form free of charge upon request.
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<P>(2) <I>Initiating the Federal IDR process</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> With respect to an item or service for which the parties do not agree upon an out-of-network rate by the last day of the open negotiation period under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, either party may initiate the Federal IDR process. To initiate the Federal IDR process, a party must submit a written notice of IDR initiation to the other party and to the Secretary, using the standard form developed by the Secretary, during the 4-business-day period beginning on the 31st business day after the start of the open negotiation period.
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<P>(ii) <I>Exception for items and services provided by certain nonparticipating providers and facilities.</I> A party may not initiate the Federal IDR process with respect to an item or service if, with respect to that item or service, the party knows (or reasonably should have known) that the provider or facility provided notice and received consent under 45 CFR 149.410(b) or 149.420(c) through (i).
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<P>(iii) <I>Notice of IDR initiation</I>—(A) <I>Content.</I> The notice of IDR initiation must include:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Information sufficient to identify the qualified IDR items or services under dispute (and whether the qualified IDR items or services are designated as batched items and services as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section), including the date(s) and location the item or service was furnished, the type of item or service (such as whether the qualified IDR item or service is an emergency service as defined in 26 CFR 54.9816-4T(c)(2)(i), § 2590.716-4(c)(2)(i), or 45 CFR 149.110(c)(2)(i), as applicable, an emergency service as defined in 26 CFR 54.9816-4T(c)(2)(ii), § 2590.716-4(c)(2)(ii), or 45 CFR 149.110(c)(2)(ii), as applicable, or a nonemergency service; and whether any service is a professional service or facility-based service), corresponding service codes, place of service code, the amount of cost sharing allowed, and the amount of the initial payment made for the qualified IDR item or service, if applicable;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Names of the parties involved and contact information, including name, email address, phone number, and mailing address;
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<P>(<I>3</I>) State where the qualified IDR item or service was furnished;
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<P>(<I>4</I>) Commencement date of the open negotiation period under paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
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<P>(<I>5</I>) Preferred certified IDR entity;
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<P>(<I>6</I>) An attestation that the items and services under dispute are qualified IDR items or services;
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<P>(<I>7)</I> Qualifying payment amount;
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<P>(<I>8</I>) Information about the qualifying payment amount as described in § 2590.716-6(d); and
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<P>(<I>9</I>) General information describing the Federal IDR process as specified by the Secretary.
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<P>(B) <I>Manner.</I> The initiating party must provide written notice of IDR initiation to the other party. The initiating party may satisfy this requirement by furnishing the notice of IDR initiation to the other party electronically (such as by email) if the following two conditions are satisfied -
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<P>(<I>1</I>) The initiating party has a good faith belief that the electronic method is readily accessible by the other party; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The notice is provided in paper form free of charge upon request.
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<P>(C) <I>Notice to the Secretary.</I> The initiating party must also furnish the notice of IDR initiation to the Secretary by submitting the notice through the Federal IDR portal. The initiation date of the Federal IDR process will be the date of receipt by the Secretary.
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<P>(c) <I>Federal IDR process following initiation</I>—(1) <I>Selection of certified IDR entity</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The plan or issuer or the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services receiving the notice of IDR initiation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may agree or object to the preferred certified IDR entity identified in the notice of IDR initiation. If the party in receipt of the notice of IDR initiation fails to object within 3 business days, the preferred certified IDR entity identified in the notice of IDR initiation will be selected and will be treated as jointly agreed to by the parties, provided that the certified IDR entity does not have a conflict of interest. If the party in receipt of the notice of IDR initiation objects, that party must notify the initiating party of the objection and propose an alternative certified IDR entity. The initiating party must then agree or object to the alternative certified IDR entity; if the initiating party fails to agree or object to the alternative certified IDR entity, the alternative certified IDR entity will be selected and will be treated as jointly agreed to by the parties. In order to select a preferred certified IDR entity, the plan or issuer and the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services must jointly agree on a certified IDR entity not later than 3 business days after the initiation date of the Federal IDR process. If the plan or issuer and the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services fail to agree upon a certified IDR entity within that time, the Secretary shall select a certified IDR entity in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section.
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<P>(ii) <I>Requirements for selected certified IDR entity.</I> The certified IDR entity selected must be an IDR entity certified under paragraph (e) of this section, that:
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<P>(A) Does not have a conflict of interest as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
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<P>(B) Ensures that assignment of personnel to a payment determination and decisions regarding hiring, compensation, termination, promotion, or other similar matters related to personnel assigned to the dispute are not made based upon the likelihood that the assigned personnel will support a particular party to the determination being disputed other than as outlined under paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section; and
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<P>(C) Ensures that any personnel assigned to a payment determination do not have any conflicts of interests as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section regarding any party to the dispute within the 1 year immediately preceding an assignment of dispute determination, similar to the requirements laid out in 18 U.S.C. 207(b).
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<P>(iii) <I>Notice of certified IDR entity selection.</I> Upon the selection of a certified IDR entity, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, the plan or issuer or the provider or emergency facility that submitted the notice of IDR initiation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section must notify the Secretary of the selection as soon as reasonably practicable, but no later than 1 business day after such selection, through the Federal IDR portal. In addition, if the non-initiating party believes that the Federal IDR process is not applicable, the non-initiating party must also provide information regarding the Federal IDR process's inapplicability through the Federal IDR portal by the same date that the notice of certified IDR entity selection must be submitted.
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<P>(A) <I>Content.</I> If the parties have agreed on the selection of a certified IDR entity or the party in receipt of the notice of IDR initiation has not objected to the other party's selection, the notice of the certified IDR entity selection must include the following information:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Name of the certified IDR entity;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The certified IDR entity number; and
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<P>(<I>3</I>) Attestation by both parties, or by the initiating party if the non-initiating party fails to object to the selection of the certified IDR entity, that the selected certified IDR entity meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(B) [Reserved]
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<P>(iv) <I>Failure to select a certified IDR entity.</I> If the plan or issuer and the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services fail to select a certified IDR entity in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, the initiating party must notify the Secretary of the failure no later than 1 business day after the date of such failure (or in other words, 4 business days after initiation of the Federal IDR process) by electronically submitting the notice as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section but indicating that the parties have failed to select a certified IDR entity. In addition, if the non-initiating party believes that the Federal IDR process is not applicable, the non-initiating party must also provide information regarding the Federal IDR process's inapplicability through the Federal IDR portal by the same date that the notice of failure to select must be submitted. Upon notification of the failure of the parties to select a certified IDR entity, the Secretary will select a certified IDR entity that charges a fee within the allowed range of certified IDR entity fees through a random selection method not later than 6 business days after the date of initiation of the Federal IDR process and will notify the plan or issuer and the provider or facility of the selection. If there are insufficient certified IDR entities that charge a fee within the allowed range of certified IDR entity fees available to arbitrate the dispute, the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of Health and Human Services and Secretary of the Treasury, will select a certified IDR entity that has received approval, as described in paragraph (e)(2)(vi)(B) of this section, to charge a fee outside of the allowed range of certified IDR entity fees.
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<P>(v) <I>Review by certified IDR entity.</I> After selection by the parties (including when the initiating party selects a certified IDR entity and the other party does not object), or by the Secretary under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, the certified IDR entity must review the selection and attest that it meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. If the certified IDR entity is unable to attest that it meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) within 3 business days of selection, the parties, upon notification, must select another certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, treating the date of notification of the failure to attest to the requirements of (c)(1)(ii) as the date of initiation of the Federal IDR process for purposes of the time periods in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (iv) of this section. Additionally, the certified IDR entity selected must review the information submitted in the notice of IDR initiation to determine whether the Federal IDR process applies. If the Federal IDR process does not apply, the certified IDR entity must notify the Secretary and the parties within 3 business days of making that determination.
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<P>(2) <I>Authority to continue negotiations</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If the parties to the Federal IDR process agree on an out-of-network rate for a qualified IDR item or service after providing the notice of IDR initiation to the Secretary consistent with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, but before the certified IDR entity has made its payment determination, the amount agreed to by the parties for the qualified IDR item or service will be treated as the out-of-network rate for the qualified IDR item or service. To the extent the amount exceeds the initial payment amount (or initial denial of payment) and any cost sharing paid or required to be paid by the participant or beneficiary, payment must be made directly by the plan or issuer to the nonparticipating provider, facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services, not later than 30 business days after the agreement is reached. In no instance may either party seek additional payment from the participant or beneficiary, including in instances in which the out-of-network rate exceeds the qualifying payment amount. The initiating party must send a notification to the Secretary and to the certified IDR entity (if selected) electronically, through the Federal IDR portal, as soon as possible, but no later than 3 business days after the date of the agreement. The notification must include the out-of-network rate for the qualified IDR item or service and signatures from authorized signatories for both parties.
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<P>(ii) <I>Method of allocation of the certified IDR entity fee.</I> In the case of an agreement described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, the certified IDR entity is required to return half of each parties' certified IDR entity fee, unless directed otherwise by both parties. The administrative fee under paragraph (d)(2) of this section will not be returned to the parties.
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<P>(3) <I>Treatment of batched items and services</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Batched items and services may be submitted and considered jointly as part of one payment determination by a certified IDR entity only if the batched items and services meet the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(i). Batched items and services submitted and considered jointly as part of one payment determination under this paragraph (c)(3)(i) are treated as a batched determination and subject to the fee for batched determinations under this section.
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<P>(A) The qualified IDR items and services are billed by the same provider or group of providers, the same facility, or the same provider of air ambulance services. Items and services are billed by the same provider or group of providers, the same facility, or the same provider of air ambulance services if the items or services are billed with the same National Provider Identifier or Tax Identification Number;
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<P>(B) Payment for the qualified IDR items and services would be made by the same plan or issuer;
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<P>(C) The qualified IDR items and services are the same or similar items and services. The qualified IDR items and services are considered to be the same or similar items or services if each is billed under the same service code, or a comparable code under a different procedural code system, such as Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes with modifiers, if applicable, Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) with modifiers, if applicable, or Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) codes with modifiers, if applicable; and
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<P>(D) All the qualified IDR items and services were furnished within the same 30-business-day period, or the same 90-calendar-day period under paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(B) of this section, as applicable.
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<P>(ii) <I>Treatment of bundled payment arrangements.</I> In the case of qualified IDR items and services billed by a provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services as part of a bundled payment arrangement, or where a plan or issuer makes or denies an initial payment as a bundled payment, the qualified IDR items and services may be submitted as part of one payment determination. Bundled payment arrangements submitted under this paragraph (c)(3)(ii) are subject to the rules for batched determinations and the certified IDR entity fee for single determinations.
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<P>(4) <I>Payment determination for a qualified IDR item or service—</I>(i) <I>Submission of offers.</I> Not later than 10 business days after the selection of the certified IDR entity, the plan or issuer and the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services:
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<P>(A) Must each submit to the certified IDR entity:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) An offer of an out-of-network rate expressed as both a dollar amount and the corresponding percentage of the qualifying payment amount represented by that dollar amount;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Information requested by the certified IDR entity relating to the offer.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) The following additional information, as applicable—
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<P>(<I>i</I>) For providers and facilities, information on the size of the provider's practice or of the facility (if applicable). Specifically, a group of providers must specify whether the providers' practice has fewer than 20 employees, 20 to 50 employees, 51 to 100 employees, 101 to 500 employees, or more than 500 employees. For facilities, the facility must specify whether the facility has 50 or fewer employees, 51 to 100 employees, 101 to 500 employees, or more than 500 employees;
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) For providers and facilities, information on the practice specialty or type, respectively (if applicable);
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<P>(<I>iii</I>) For plans and issuers, information on the coverage area of the plan or issuer, the relevant geographic region for purposes of the qualifying payment amount, whether the coverage is fully-insured or partially or fully self-insured; and
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<P>(<I>iv</I>) The qualifying payment amount for the applicable year for the same or similar item or service as the qualified IDR item or service.
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<P>(B) May each submit to the certified IDR entity any information relating to the offer that was submitted by either party, except that the information may not include information on factors described in paragraph (c)(4)(v) of this section.
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<P>(ii) <I>Payment determination and notification.</I> Not later than 30 business days after the selection of the certified IDR entity, the certified IDR entity must:
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<P>(A) Select as the out-of-network rate for the qualified IDR item or service one of the offers submitted under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, weighing only the considerations specified in paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section (as applied to the information provided by the parties pursuant to paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section). The certified IDR entity must select the offer that the certified IDR entity determines best represents the value of the qualified IDR item or service as the out-of-network rate.
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<P>(B) Notify the plan or issuer and the provider or facility, as applicable, of the selection of the offer under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, and provide the written decision required under (c)(4)(vi) of this section.
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<P>(iii) <I>Considerations in determination.</I> In determining which offer to select:
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<P>(A) The certified IDR entity must consider the qualifying payment amount(s) for the applicable year for the same or similar item or service.
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<P>(B) The certified IDR entity must then consider information submitted by a party that relates to the following circumstances:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) The level of training, experience, and quality and outcomes measurements of the provider or facility that furnished the qualified IDR item or service (such as those endorsed by the consensus-based entity authorized in section 1890 of the Social Security Act).
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The market share held by the provider or facility or that of the plan or issuer in the geographic region in which the qualified IDR item or service was provided.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) The acuity of the participant or beneficiary receiving the qualified IDR item or service, or the complexity of furnishing the qualified IDR item or service to the participant or beneficiary.
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<P>(<I>4</I>) The teaching status, case mix, and scope of services of the facility that furnished the qualified IDR item or service, if applicable.
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<P>(<I>5</I>) Demonstration of good faith efforts (or lack thereof) made by the provider or facility or the plan or issuer to enter into network agreements with each other, and, if applicable, contracted rates between the provider or facility, as applicable, and the plan or issuer, as applicable, during the previous 4 plan years.
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<P>(C) The certified IDR entity must also consider information provided by a party in response to a request by the certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section that relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination and that does not include information on factors described in paragraph (c)(4)(v) of this section.
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<P>(D) The certified IDR entity must also consider additional information submitted by a party that relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination and that does not include information on factors described in paragraph (c)(4)(v) of this section.
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<P>(E) In weighing the considerations described in paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section, the certified IDR entity should evaluate whether the information is credible and relates to the offer submitted by either party for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination. The certified IDR entity should not give weight to information to the extent it is not credible, it does not relate to either party's offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service, or it is already accounted for by the qualifying payment amount under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section or other credible information under paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section.
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<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section are illustrated in the following paragraphs. Each example assumes that the Federal IDR process applies for purposes of determining the out-of-network rate, that both parties have submitted the information parties are required to submit as part of the Federal IDR process, and that the submitted information does not include information on factors described in paragraph (c)(4)(v) of this section:
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<P>(A) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A level 1 trauma center that is a nonparticipating emergency facility and an issuer are parties to a payment determination in the Federal IDR process. The facility submits an offer that is higher than the qualifying payment amount. The facility also submits additional written information showing that the scope of services available at the facility was critical to the delivery of care for the qualified IDR item or service provided, given the particular patient's acuity. This information is determined to be credible by the certified IDR entity. Further, the facility submits additional information showing the contracted rates used to calculate the qualifying payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service were based on a level of service that is typical in cases in which the services are delivered by a facility that is not a level 1 trauma center and that does not have the capability to provide the scope of services provided by a level 1 trauma center. This information is also determined to be credible by the certified IDR entity. The issuer submits an offer equal to the qualifying payment amount. No additional information is submitted by either party. The certified IDR entity determines that all the information submitted by the nonparticipating emergency facility relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(iv)(A) (<I>Example 1</I>), the certified IDR entity must consider the qualifying payment amount. The certified IDR entity then must consider the additional information submitted by the nonparticipating emergency facility, provided the information relates to circumstances described in paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section and relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination. If the certified IDR entity determines that it is appropriate to give weight to the additional credible information submitted by the nonparticipating emergency facility and that the additional credible information submitted by the facility demonstrates that the facility's offer best represents the value of the qualified IDR item or service, the certified IDR entity should select the facility's offer.
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<P>(B) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A nonparticipating provider and an issuer are parties to a payment determination in the Federal IDR process. The provider submits an offer that is higher than the qualifying payment amount. The provider also submits additional written information regarding the level of training and experience the provider possesses. This information is determined to be credible by the certified IDR entity, but the certified IDR entity finds that the information does not demonstrate that the provider's level of training and experience relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination (for example, the information does not show that the provider's level of training and experience was necessary for providing the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination to the particular patient, or that the training or experience made an impact on the care that was provided). The nonparticipating provider does not submit any additional information. The issuer submits an offer equal to the qualifying payment amount, with no additional information.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(iv)(B) (<I>Example 2</I>), the certified IDR entity must consider the qualifying payment amount. The certified IDR entity must then consider the additional information submitted by the nonparticipating provider, provided the information relates to circumstances described in paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section and relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination. In addition, the certified IDR entity should not give weight to information to the extent it is already accounted for by the qualifying payment amount or other credible information under paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section. If the certified IDR entity determines that the additional information submitted by the provider is credible but does not relate to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination, and determines that the issuer's offer best represents the value of the qualified IDR service, in the absence of any other credible information that relates to either party's offer, the certified IDR entity should select the issuer's offer.
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<P>(C) <I>Example 3</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A nonparticipating provider and an issuer are parties to a payment determination in the Federal IDR process involving an emergency department visit for the evaluation and management of a patient. The provider submits an offer that is higher than the qualifying payment amount. The provider also submits additional written information showing that the acuity of the patient's condition and complexity of the qualified IDR service furnished required the taking of a comprehensive history, a comprehensive examination, and medical decision making of high complexity. This information is determined to be credible by the certified IDR entity. The issuer submits an offer equal to the qualifying payment amount for CPT code 99285, which is the CPT code for an emergency department visit for the evaluation and management of a patient requiring a comprehensive history, a comprehensive examination, and medical decision making of high complexity. The issuer also submits additional written information showing that this CPT code accounts for the acuity of the patient's condition. This information is determined to be credible by the certified IDR entity. The certified IDR entity determines that the information provided by the provider and issuer relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination. Neither party submits any additional information.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(iv)(C) (<I>Example 3</I>), the certified IDR entity must consider the qualifying payment amount. The certified IDR entity then must consider the additional information submitted by the parties, but the certified IDR entity should not give weight to information to the extent it is already accounted for by the qualifying payment amount or other credible information under paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section. If the certified IDR entity determines the additional information on the acuity of the patient and complexity of the service is already accounted for in the calculation of the qualifying payment amount, the certified IDR entity should not give weight to the additional information provided by the provider. If the certified IDR entity determines that the issuer's offer best represents the value of the qualified IDR service, the certified IDR entity should select the issuer's offer.
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<P>(D) <I>Example 4</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A nonparticipating emergency facility and an issuer are parties to a payment determination in the Federal IDR process. Although the facility is not participating in the issuer's network during the relevant plan year, it was a participating facility in the issuer's network in the previous 4 plan years. The issuer submits an offer that is higher than the qualifying payment amount and that is equal to the facility's contracted rate (adjusted for inflation) for the previous year with the issuer for the qualified IDR service. The issuer also submits additional written information showing that the contracted rates between the facility and the issuer during the previous 4 plan years were higher than the qualifying payment amount submitted by the issuer, and that these prior contracted rates account for the case mix and scope of services typically furnished at the nonparticipating facility. The certified IDR entity determines this information is credible and that it relates to the offer submitted by the issuer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination. The facility submits an offer that is higher than both the qualifying payment amount and the contracted rate (adjusted for inflation) for the previous year with the issuer for the qualified IDR service. The facility also submits additional written information, with the intent to show that the case mix and scope of services available at the facility were integral to the service provided. The certified IDR entity determines this information is credible and that it relates to the offer submitted by the facility for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination. Neither party submits any additional information.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(iv)(D) (<I>Example 4</I>), the certified IDR entity must consider the qualifying payment amount. The certified IDR entity then must consider the additional information submitted by the parties, but should not give weight to information to the extent it is already accounted for by the qualifying payment amount or other credible information under paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section. If the certified IDR entity determines that the information submitted by the facility regarding the case mix and scope of services available at the facility includes information that is also accounted for in the information the issuer submitted regarding prior contracted rates, then the certified IDR entity should give weight to that information only once. The certified IDR entity also should not give weight to the same information provided by the nonparticipating emergency facility in relation to any other factor. If the certified IDR entity determines that the issuer's offer best represents the value of the qualified IDR service, the certified IDR entity should select the issuer's offer.
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<P>(E) <I>Example 5</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A nonparticipating provider and an issuer are parties to a payment determination in the Federal IDR process regarding a qualified IDR service for which the issuer downcoded the service code that the provider billed. The issuer submits an offer equal to the qualifying payment amount (which was calculated using the downcoded service code). The issuer also submits additional written information that includes the documentation disclosed to the nonparticipating provider under § 2590.716-6(d)(1)(ii) at the time of the initial payment (which describes why the service code was downcoded). The certified IDR entity determines this information is credible and that it relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination. The provider submits an offer equal to the amount that would have been the qualifying payment amount had the service code not been downcoded. The provider also submits additional written information that includes the documentation disclosed to the nonparticipating provider under § 2590.716-6(d)(1)(ii) at the time of the initial payment. Further, the provider submits additional written information that explains why the billed service code was more appropriate than the downcoded service code, as evidence that the provider's offer, which is equal to the amount the qualifying payment amount would have been for the service code that the provider billed, best represents the value of the service furnished, given its complexity. The certified IDR entity determines this information to be credible and that it relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination. Neither party submits any additional information.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(iv)(E) (<I>Example 5</I>), the certified IDR entity must consider the qualifying payment amount, which is based on the downcoded service code. The certified IDR entity then must consider whether to give weight to additional information submitted by the parties. If the certified IDR entity determines that the additional credible information submitted by the provider demonstrates that the nonparticipating provider's offer, which is equal to the qualifying payment amount for the service code that the provider billed, best represents the value of the qualified IDR service, the certified IDR entity should select the nonparticipating provider's offer.
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<P>(v) <I>Prohibition on consideration of certain factors.</I> In determining which offer to select, the certified IDR entity must not consider:
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<P>(A) Usual and customary charges (including payment or reimbursement rates expressed as a proportion of usual and customary charges);
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<P>(B) The amount that would have been billed by the provider or facility with respect to the qualified IDR item or service had the provisions of 45 CFR 149.410 and 149.420 (as applicable) not applied; or
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<P>(C) The payment or reimbursement rate for items and services furnished by the provider or facility payable by a public payor, including under the Medicare program under title XVIII of the Social Security Act; the Medicaid program under title XIX of the Social Security Act; the Children's Health Insurance Program under title XXI of the Social Security Act; the TRICARE program under chapter 55 of title 10, United States Code; chapter 17 of title 38, United States Code; or demonstration projects under section 1115 of the Social Security Act.
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<P>(vi) <I>Written decision.</I> (A) The certified IDR entity must explain its determination in a written decision submitted to the parties and the Secretary, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary;
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<P>(B) The certified IDR entity's written decision must include an explanation of their determination, including what information the certified IDR entity determined demonstrated that the offer selected as the out-of-network rate is the offer that best represents the value of the qualified IDR item or service, including the weight given to the qualifying payment amount and any additional credible information under paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section. If the certified IDR entity relies on information described under paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section in selecting an offer, the written decision must include an explanation of why the certified IDR entity concluded that this information was not already reflected in the qualifying payment amount.
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<P>(vii) <I>Effects of determination</I>—(A) <I>Binding.</I> A determination made by a certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Is binding upon the parties, in the absence of fraud or evidence of intentional misrepresentation of material facts presented to the certified IDR entity regarding the claim; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Is not subject to judicial review, except in a case described in any of paragraphs (1) through (4) of section 10(a) of title 9, United States Code.
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<P>(B) <I>Suspension of certain subsequent IDR requests.</I> In the case of a determination made by a certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, the party that submitted the initial notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may not submit a subsequent notification involving the same other party with respect to a claim for the same or similar item or service that was the subject of the initial notification during the 90-calendar-day period following the determination.
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<P>(C) <I>Subsequent submission of requests permitted.</I> If the end of the open negotiation period specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section occurs during the 90-calendar-day suspension period regarding claims for the same or similar item or service that were the subject of the initial notice of IDR determination as described in paragraph (c)(4)(vi) of this section, either party may initiate the Federal IDR process for those claims by submitting a notification as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section during the 30-business-day period beginning on the day after the last day of the 90-calendar-day suspension period.
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<P>(viii) <I>Recordkeeping requirements.</I> The certified IDR entity must maintain records of all claims and notices associated with the Federal IDR process with respect to any determination for 6 years. The certified IDR entity must make these records available for examination by the plan, issuer, provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, or a State or Federal oversight agency upon request, except to the extent the disclosure would violate either State or Federal privacy law.
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<P>(ix) <I>Payment.</I> If applicable, the amount of the offer selected by the certified IDR entity (less the sum of the initial payment and any cost sharing paid or owed by the participant or beneficiary) must be paid directly to the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services not later than 30 calendar days after the determination by the certified IDR entity. If the offer selected by the certified IDR entity is less than the sum of the initial payment and any cost sharing paid by the participant or beneficiary, the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services will be liable to the plan or issuer for the difference. The provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services must pay the difference directly to the plan or issuer not later than 30 calendar days after the determination by the certified IDR entity.
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<P>(d) <I>Costs of IDR process</I>—(1) <I>Certified IDR entity fee.</I> (i) With respect to the Federal IDR process described in paragraph (c) of this section, the party whose offer submitted to the certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section is not selected is responsible for the payment to the certified IDR entity of the predetermined fee charged by the certified IDR entity.
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<P>(ii) Each party to a determination for which a certified IDR entity is selected under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must pay the predetermined certified IDR entity fee charged by the certified IDR entity to the certified IDR entity at the time the parties submit their offers under (c)(4)(i) of this section. The certified IDR entity fee paid by the prevailing party whose offer is selected by the certified IDR entity will be returned to that party within 30 business days following the date of the certified IDR entity's determination.
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<P>(2) <I>Administrative fee.</I> (i) Each party to a determination for which a certified IDR entity is selected under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must, at the time the certified IDR entity is selected under paragraph (c)(1), pay to the certified IDR entity a non-refundable administrative fee due to the Secretary for participating in the Federal IDR process described in this section.
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<P>(ii) The administrative fee amount will be established through notice and comment rulemaking no more frequently than once per calendar year in a manner such that the total administrative fees paid for a year are estimated to be equal to the amount of expenditures estimated to be made by the Secretaries of the Treasury, Labor, and Health and Human Services for the year in carrying out the Federal IDR process. The administrative fee amount will remain in effect until changed by notice and comment rulemaking. For disputes initiated on or after January 22, 2024, the administrative fee amount is $115 per party per dispute.
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<P>(3) <I>Severability.</I> (i) Any provision of this paragraph (d) or paragraphs (e)(2)(vii) and (viii) of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable as applied to any person or circumstance shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, including as applied to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision of this paragraph (d) or paragraphs (e)(2)(vii) and (viii) is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of this paragraph (d) or paragraphs (e)(2)(vii) and (viii) and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
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<P>(ii) The provisions in this paragraph (d) and paragraphs (e)(2)(vii) and (viii) of this section are intended to be severable from each other.
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<P>(e) <I>Certification of IDR entity</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In order to be selected under paragraph (c)(1) of this section—
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<P>(i) An IDR entity must meet the standards described in this paragraph (e) and be certified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretaries of Health and Human Services and the Treasury, as set forth in this paragraph (e) of this section and guidance promulgated by the Secretary. Once certified, the IDR entity will be provided with a certified IDR entity number.
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<P>(ii) An IDR entity must provide written documentation to the Secretary regarding general company information (such as contact information, Taxpayer Identification Number, and website), as well as the applicable service area in which the IDR entity intends to conduct payment determinations under the Federal IDR process. IDR entities may choose to submit their application for all States, or self-limit to a particular subset of States.
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<P>(iii) An IDR entity that the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, certifies must enter into an agreement as a condition of certification. The agreement shall include specified provisions encompassed by this section, including, but not limited to, the requirements applicable to certified IDR entities when making payment determinations as well as the requirements regarding certification and revocation (such as specifications for wind down activities and reallocation of certified IDR entity fees, where warranted).
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<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> An IDR entity must provide written documentation to the Secretary through the Federal IDR portal that demonstrates that the IDR entity satisfies the following standards to be a certified IDR entity under this paragraph (e):
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<P>(i) Possess (directly or through contracts or other arrangements) sufficient arbitration and claims administration of health care services, managed care, billing and coding, medical and legal expertise to make the payment determinations described in paragraph (c) of this section within the time prescribed in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(ii) Employ (directly or through contracts or other arrangements) a sufficient number of personnel to make the determinations described in paragraph (c) of this section within the time prescribed by (c)(4)(ii) of this section. To satisfy this standard, the written documentation must include a description of the IDR entity's organizational structure and capabilities, including an organizational chart and the credentials, responsibilities, and number of personnel employed to make determinations described in paragraph (c) of this section.
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<P>(iii) Maintain a current accreditation from a nationally recognized and relevant accrediting organization, such as URAC, or ensure that it otherwise possesses the requisite training to conduct payment determinations (for example, providing documentation that personnel employed by the IDR entity have completed arbitration training by the American Arbitration Association, the American Health Law Association, or a similar organization).
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<P>(iv) Have a process to ensure that no conflict of interest, as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, exists between the parties and the personnel the certified IDR entity assigns to a payment determination to avoid violating paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, including policies and procedures for conducting ongoing audits for conflicts of interest, to ensure that should any arise, the certified IDR entity has procedures in place to inform the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services of the conflict of interest and to mitigate the risk by reassigning the dispute to other personnel in the event that any personnel previously assigned have a conflict of interest.
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<P>(v) Have a process to maintain the confidentiality of IIHI obtained in the course of conducting determinations. A certified IDR entity's responsibility to comply with these confidentiality requirements shall survive revocation of the IDR entity's certification for any reason, and IDR entities must comply with the record retention and disposal requirements described in this section. Under this process, once certified, the certified IDR entity must comply with the following requirements:
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<P>(A) <I>Privacy.</I> The certified IDR entity may create, collect, handle, disclose, transmit, access, maintain, store, and/or use IIHI, only to perform:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) The certified IDR entity's required duties described in this section; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Functions related to carrying out additional obligations as may be required under applicable Federal or State laws or regulations.
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<P>(B) <I>Security.</I> (<I>1</I>) The certified IDR entity must ensure the confidentiality of all IIHI it creates, obtains, maintains, stores, and transmits;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) The certified IDR entity must protect against any reasonably anticipated threats or hazards to the security of this information;
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<P>(<I>3</I>) The certified IDR entity must ensure that IIHI is securely destroyed or disposed of in an appropriate and reasonable manner 6 years from either the date of its creation or the first date on which the certified IDR entity had access to it, whichever is earlier;
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<P>(<I>4</I>) The certified IDR entity must implement policies and procedures to prevent, detect, contain, and correct security violations in the event of a breach of IIHI;
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<P>(C) <I>Breach notification.</I> The certified IDR entity must, following the discovery of a breach of unsecured IIHI, notify of the breach the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services; the plan and issuer; the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services; and each individual whose unsecured IIHI has been, or is reasonably believed to have been, subject to the breach, to the extent possible.
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<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Breaches treated as discovered.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C), a breach shall be treated as discovered by a certified IDR entity as of the first day on which the breach is known to the certified IDR entity or, by exercising reasonable diligence, would have been known to the certified IDR entity. A certified IDR entity shall be deemed to have knowledge of a breach if the breach is known, or by exercising reasonable diligence would have been known, to any person, other than the person committing the breach, who is an employee, officer, or other agent of the certified IDR entity;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Timing of notification.</I> A certified IDR entity must provide the notification required by this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C) without unreasonable delay and in no case later than 60 calendar days after discovery of a breach.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Content of notification.</I> The notification required by this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C) must include, to the extent possible:
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<P>(<I>i</I>) The identification of each individual whose unsecured IIHI has been, or is reasonably believed by the certified IDR entity to have been, subject to the breach;
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) A brief description of what happened, including the date of the breach and the date of the discovery of the breach, to the extent known;
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<P>(<I>iii</I>) A description of the types of unsecured IIHI that were involved in the breach (for example whether full name, social security number, date of birth, home address, account number, diagnosis, disability code, or other types of information were involved);
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<P>(<I>iv</I>) A brief description of what the certified IDR entity involved is doing to investigate the breach, to mitigate harm to the affected parties, and to protect against any further breaches; and
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<P>(<I>v</I>) Contact procedures for individuals to ask questions or learn additional information, which must include a toll-free telephone number, email address, website, or postal address.
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<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Method for providing notification.</I> A certified IDR entity must submit the notification required by this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C) in written form (in clear and understandable language) either on paper or electronically through the Federal IDR portal or electronic mail.
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<P>(D) <I>Application to contractor and subcontractors.</I> The certified IDR entity must ensure compliance with this paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section by any contractor or subcontractor with access to IIHI performing any duties related to the Federal IDR process.
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<P>(vi) Meet appropriate indicators of fiscal integrity and stability by demonstrating that the certified IDR entity has a system of safeguards and controls in place to prevent and detect improper financial activities by its employees and agents to assure fiscal integrity and accountability for all certified IDR entity fees and administrative fees received, held, and disbursed and by submitting 3 years of financial statements or, if not available, other information to demonstrate fiscal stability of the IDR entity.
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<P>(vii) Provide, no more frequently than once per calendar year, a fixed fee for single determinations and a separate fixed fee for batched determinations, as well as an additional fixed tiered fee for batched determinations, if applicable, within the upper and lower limits for each, as established by the Secretary in notice and comment rulemaking. The certified IDR entity fee ranges established by the Secretary in rulemaking will remain in effect until changed by notice and comment rulemaking. The certified IDR entity may not charge a fee outside the limits set forth in rulemaking unless the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification receives advance written approval from the Secretary to charge a fixed fee beyond the upper or lower limits by following the process described in paragraph (e)(2)(vii)(A) of this section. A certified IDR entity may also seek advance written approval from the Secretary to update its fees one additional time per calendar year by meeting the requirements described in paragraph (e)(2)(vii)(A). The Secretary will approve a request to charge a fixed fee beyond the upper or lower limits for fees as set forth in rulemaking, or to update the fixed fee during the calendar year if, in their discretion, they determine the information submitted by a certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification demonstrates that the proposed change to the certified IDR entity fee would ensure the financial viability of the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification and would not impose on parties an undue barrier to accessing the Federal IDR process.
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<P>(A) In order for the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification to receive the Secretary's written approval to charge a fixed fee beyond the upper or lower limits for fees as set forth in rulemaking or to update the fixed fee during the calendar year, the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification must submit to the Secretary, in the form and manner specified by the Secretary:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) The fixed fee the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification believes is appropriate for the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification to charge;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) A description of the circumstances that require the alternative fixed fee, or that require a change to the fixed fee during the calendar year, as applicable; and
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<P>(<I>3</I>) A detailed description that reasonably explains how the alternative fixed fee or the change to the fixed fee during the calendar year, as applicable, will be used to mitigate the effects of those circumstances.
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<P>(B) [Reserved]
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<P>(viii) For disputes initiated on or after January 22, 2024, certified IDR entities are permitted to charge a fixed certified IDR entity fee for single determinations within the range of $200 to $840, and a fixed certified IDR entity fee for batched determinations within the range of $268 to $1,173, unless a fee outside such ranges is approved by the Secretary pursuant to paragraph (e)(2)(vii)(A) of this section. As part of the batched determination fee, certified IDR entities are permitted to charge an additional fixed tiered fee within the range of $75 to $250 for every additional 25 line items within a batched dispute, beginning with the 26th line item. The ranges for the certified IDR entity fees for single and batched determinations will remain in effect until changed by notice and comment rulemaking.
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<P>(ix) Have a procedure in place to retain the certified IDR entity fees described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section paid by both parties in a trust or escrow account and to return the certified IDR entity fee paid by the prevailing party of an IDR payment determination, or half of each party's certified IDR entity fee in the case of an agreement described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, within 30 business days following the date of the determination.
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<P>(x) Have a procedure in place to retain the administrative fees described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and to remit the administrative fees to the Secretary in accordance with the timeframe and procedures set forth in guidance published by the Secretary.
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<P>(xi) Discharge its responsibilities in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, including not making any determination with respect to which the certified IDR entity would not be eligible for selection pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
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<P>(xii) Collect the information required to be reported to the Secretary under paragraph (f) of this section and report the information on a timely basis in the form and manner provided in guidance published by the Secretary.
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<P>(3) <I>Conflict-of-interest standards.</I> In addition to the general standards set forth in paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section, an IDR entity must provide written documentation that the IDR entity satisfies the standards to be a certified IDR entity under this paragraph (e)(3).
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<P>(i) The IDR entity must provide an attestation indicating that it does not have a conflict of interest as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
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<P>(ii) The IDR entity must have procedures in place to ensure that personnel assigned to a determination do not have any conflicts of interest regarding any party to the dispute within the 1 year immediately preceding an assignment of dispute determination, similar to the requirements laid out in 18 U.S.C. 207(b). In order to satisfy this requirement, if certified, the IDR entity must ensure that any personnel assigned to a determination do not have any conflicts of interest as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
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<P>(iii) Following certification under this paragraph (e), if a certified IDR entity acquires control of, becomes controlled by, or comes under common control with any entity described in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, the certified IDR entity must notify the Secretary in writing no later than 3 business days after the acquisition or exercise of control and shall be subject to the revocation of certification under paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(4) <I>Period of certification.</I> Subject to paragraphs (e)(5) and (6) of this section, each certification (including a recertification) of a certified IDR entity under the process described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section will be effective for a 5-year period.
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<P>(5) <I>Petition for denial or revocation</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> An individual, provider, facility, provider of air ambulance services, plan, or issuer may petition for a denial of a certification for an IDR entity or a revocation of a certification for a certified IDR entity for failure to meet a requirement of this section using the standard form and manner set forth in guidance to be issued by the Secretary. The petition for denial of a certification must be submitted within the timeframe set forth in guidance issued by the Secretary.
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<P>(ii) <I>Content of petition.</I> The individual, provider, facility, provider of air ambulance services, plan, or issuer seeking denial or revocation of certification must submit a written petition using the standard form issued by the Secretary including the following information:
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<P>(A) The identity of the IDR entity seeking certification or certified IDR entity that is the subject of the petition;
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<P>(B) The reason(s) for the petition;
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<P>(C) Whether the petition seeks denial or revocation of a certification;
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<P>(D) Documentation to support the reasons outlined in the petition; and
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<P>(E) Other information as may be required by the Secretary.
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<P>(iii) <I>Process.</I> (A) The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, will acknowledge receipt of the petition within 10 business days of receipt of the petition.
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<P>(B) If the Secretary finds that the petition adequately shows a failure of the IDR entity seeking certification or the certified IDR entity to follow the requirements of this paragraph (e), the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, will notify the IDR entity seeking certification or the certified IDR entity by providing a de-identified copy of the petition. Following the notification, the IDR entity seeking certification or certified IDR entity will have 10 business days to provide a response. After the time period for providing the response has passed, the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, will review the response (if any), determine whether a denial or revocation of a certification is warranted, and issue a notice of the decision to the IDR entity or certified IDR entity and to the petitioner. This decision will be subject to the appeal requirements of paragraph (e)(6)(v) of this section.
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<P>(C) Effect on certification under petition. Regarding a petition for revocation of a certified IDR entity's certification, if the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, finds that the petition adequately shows a failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (e), following the Secretary's notification of the failure to the certified IDR entity under paragraph (e)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, the certified IDR entity may continue to work on previously assigned determinations but may not accept new determinations until the Secretary issues a notice of the decision to the certified IDR entity finding that a revocation of certification is not warranted.
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<P>(6) <I>Denial of IDR entity certification or revocation of certified IDR entity certification</I>—(i) <I>Denial of IDR entity certification.</I> The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, may deny the certification of an IDR entity under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if, during the process of certification, including as a result of a petition described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, the Secretary determines the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The IDR entity fails to meet the applicable standards set forth under this paragraph (e);
</P>
<P>(B) The IDR entity has committed or participated in fraudulent or abusive activities, including, during the certification process, submitting fraudulent data, or submitting information or data the IDR entity knows to be false to the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury or the Secretary of Health and Human Services;
</P>
<P>(C) The IDR entity has failed to comply with requests for information from the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, or the Secretary of Health and Human Services as part of the certification process;
</P>
<P>(D) In conducting payment determinations, including those outside the Federal IDR process, the IDR entity has failed to meet the standards that applied to those determinations or reviews, including standards of independence and impartiality; or
</P>
<P>(E) The IDR entity is otherwise not fit or qualified to make determinations under the Federal IDR process.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Revocation of certification of a certified IDR entity.</I> The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, may revoke the certification of a certified IDR entity under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if, as a result of an audit, a petition described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, or otherwise, the Secretary determines the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The certified IDR entity has a pattern or practice of noncompliance with any requirements of this paragraph (e);
</P>
<P>(B) The certified IDR entity is operating in a manner that hinders the efficient and effective administration of the Federal IDR process;
</P>
<P>(C) The certified IDR entity no longer meets the applicable standards for certification set forth under this paragraph (e);
</P>
<P>(D) The certified IDR entity has committed or participated in fraudulent or abusive activities, including submission of false or fraudulent data to the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, or the Secretary of Health and Human Services;
</P>
<P>(E) The certified IDR entity lacks the financial viability to provide arbitration under the Federal IDR process;
</P>
<P>(F) The certified IDR entity has failed to comply with requests from the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, or the Secretary of Health and Human Services made as part of an audit, including failing to submit all records of the certified IDR entity that pertain to its activities within the Federal IDR process; or
</P>
<P>(G) The certified IDR entity is otherwise no longer fit or qualified to make determinations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice of denial or revocation.</I> The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, will issue a written notice of denial to the IDR entity or revocation to the certified IDR entity within 10 business days of the Secretary's decision, including the effective date of denial or revocation, the reason(s) for denial or revocation, and the opportunity to request appeal of the denial or revocation.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Request for appeal of denial or revocation.</I> To request an appeal, the IDR entity or certified IDR entity must submit a request for appeal to the Secretary within 30 business days of the date of the notice under paragraph (e)(6)(iii) of this section of denial or revocation and in the manner prescribed by the instructions to the notice. During this time period, the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, will not issue a notice of final denial or revocation and a certified IDR entity may continue to work on previously assigned determinations but may not accept new determinations. If the IDR entity or certified IDR entity does not timely submit a request for appeal of the denial or revocation, the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, will issue a notice of final denial or revocation to the IDR entity or certified IDR entity (if applicable) and the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Denial or final revocation.</I> Upon notice of denial or final revocation, the IDR entity shall not be considered a certified IDR entity and therefore shall not be eligible to accept payment determinations under the Federal IDR process. Moreover, after a notice of final revocation, the IDR entity may not re-apply to be a certified IDR entity until on or after the 181st day after the date of the notice of denial or final revocation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reporting of information relating to the Federal IDR process</I>—(1) <I>Reporting of information.</I> Within 30 business days of the close of each month, for qualified IDR items and services furnished on or after January 1, 2022, each certified IDR entity must, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary, report:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of notices of IDR initiation submitted under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to the certified IDR entity during the immediately preceding month;
</P>
<P>(ii) The size of the provider practices and the size of the facilities submitting notices of IDR initiation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section during the immediately preceding month, as required to be provided to the certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of such notices of IDR initiation with respect to which a determination was made under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of times during the month that the out-of-network rate determined (or agreed to) under this section has exceeded the qualifying payment amount, specified by qualified IDR items and services;
</P>
<P>(v) With respect to each notice of IDR initiation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section for which such a determination was made, the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the qualified IDR items and services included with respect to the notification, including the relevant billing and service codes;
</P>
<P>(B) The relevant geographic region for purposes of the qualifying payment amount for the qualified IDR items and services with respect to which the notification was provided;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the offer submitted under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section by the plan or issuer (as applicable) and by the provider or facility (as applicable) expressed as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the qualifying payment amount;
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the offer selected by the certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(4) of this section was the offer submitted by the plan or issuer (as applicable) or by the provider or facility (as applicable);
</P>
<P>(E) The amount of the selected offer expressed as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the qualifying payment amount;
</P>
<P>(F) The rationale for the certified IDR entity's decision, including the extent to which the decision relied on the criteria in paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) The practice specialty or type of each provider or facility, respectively, involved in furnishing each qualified IDR item or service;
</P>
<P>(H) The identity for each plan or issuer, and provider or facility, with respect to the notification. Specifically, each certified IDR entity must provide each party's name and address, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(I) For each determination, the number of business days elapsed between selection of the certified IDR entity and the determination of the out-of-network rate by the certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(vi) The total amount of certified IDR entity fees paid to the certified IDR entity under paragraph (d)(1) of this section during the month.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Extension of time periods for extenuating circumstances</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The time periods specified in this section (other than the time for payment, if applicable, under paragraph (c)(4)(ix) of this section) may be extended in extenuating circumstances at the Secretary's discretion if:
</P>
<P>(i) An extension is necessary to address delays due to matters beyond the control of the parties or for good cause; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The parties attest that prompt action will be taken to ensure that the determination under this section is made as soon as administratively practicable under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Process to request an extension.</I> The parties may request an extension by submitting a request for extension due to extenuating circumstances through the Federal IDR portal if the extension is necessary to address delays due to matters beyond the control of the parties or for good cause.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022, except that the provisions regarding IDR entity certification at paragraphs (a) and (e) of this section are applicable beginning on October 7, 2021; and paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) through (iv) of this section regarding payment determinations, paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(B) of this section regarding written decisions, and paragraph (f)(1)(v)(F) of this section regarding reporting of information relating to the Federal IDR process are applicable with respect to items or services provided or furnished on or after October 25, 2022, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 56112, Oct. 7, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52649, Aug. 26, 2022; 88 FR 88524, Dec. 21, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.716-9" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.716-9   xxx</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260604" REFID="53">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 34069, June 4, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.717-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.717-1   Preventing surprise medical bills for air ambulance services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage provides or covers any benefits for air ambulance services, the plan or issuer must cover such services from a nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage requirements.</I> A plan or issuer described in paragraph (a) of this section must provide coverage of air ambulance services in the following manner—
</P>
<P>(1) The cost-sharing requirements with respect to the services must be the same requirements that would apply if the services were provided by a participating provider of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(2) The cost-sharing requirement must be calculated as if the total amount that would have been charged for the services by a participating provider of air ambulance services were equal to the lesser of the qualifying payment amount (as determined in accordance with § 2590.716-6) or the billed amount for the services.
</P>
<P>(3) The cost-sharing amounts must be counted towards any in-network deductible and in-network out-of-pocket maximums (including the annual limitation on cost sharing under section 2707(b) of the PHS Act) (as applicable) applied under the plan or coverage (and the in-network deductible and out-of-pocket maximums must be applied) in the same manner as if the cost-sharing payments were made with respect to services furnished by a participating provider of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(4) The plan or issuer must—
</P>
<P>(i) Not later than 30 calendar days after the bill for the services is transmitted by the provider of air ambulance services, determine whether the services are covered under the plan or coverage and, if the services are covered, send to the provider an initial payment or a notice of denial of payment. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4)(i), the 30-calendar-day period begins on the date the plan or issuer receives the information necessary to decide a claim for payment for the services.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pay a total plan or coverage payment directly to the nonparticipating provider furnishing such air ambulance services that is equal to the amount by which the out-of-network rate for the services exceeds the cost-sharing amount for the services (as determined in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section), less any initial payment amount made under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section. The total plan or coverage payment must be made in accordance with the timing requirement described in section 717(b)(6) of ERISA, or in cases where the out-of-network rate is determined under a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified by the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.717-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.717-2   Independent dispute resolution process for air ambulance services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise stated, the definitions in § 2590.716-3 apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of out-of-network rates to be paid by health plans and health insurance issuers; independent dispute resolution process</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, in determining the out-of-network rate to be paid by group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage for out-of-network air ambulance services, plans and issuers must comply with the requirements of § 2590.716-8, except that references in § 2590.716-8 to the additional circumstances in § 2590.716-8(c)(4)(iii)(B) shall be understood to refer to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Considerations for air ambulance services.</I> In determining which offer to select, in addition to considering the applicable qualifying payment amount(s), the certified IDR entity must consider information submitted by a party that relates to the following circumstances:


</P>
<P>(i) The quality and outcomes measurements of the provider that furnished the services.
</P>
<P>(ii) The acuity of the condition of the participant or beneficiary receiving the service, or the complexity of furnishing the service to the participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(iii) The training, experience, and quality of the medical personnel that furnished the air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ambulance vehicle type, including the clinical capability level of the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(v) Population density of the point of pick-up (as defined in 42 CFR 414.605) for the air ambulance (such as urban, suburban, rural, or frontier).
</P>
<P>(vi) Demonstrations of good faith efforts (or lack thereof) made by the nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services or the plan or issuer to enter into network agreements with each other and, if applicable, contracted rates between the provider of air ambulance services and the plan or issuer, as applicable, during the previous 4 plan years.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Weighing considerations.</I> In weighing the considerations described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the certified IDR entity should evaluate whether the information is credible and relates to the offer submitted by either party for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination. The certified IDR entity should not give weight to information to the extent it is not credible, it does not relate to either party's offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service, or it is already accounted for by the qualifying payment amount under § 2590.716-8(c)(4)(iii)(A) or other credible information under § 2590.716-8(c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D), except that the additional circumstances in § 2590.716-8(c)(4)(iii)(B) shall be understood to refer to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.






</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reporting of information relating to the IDR process.</I> In applying the requirements of § 2590.716-8(f), within 30 business days of the close of each month, for services furnished on or after January 1, 2022, the information the certified IDR entity must report, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary, with respect to the Federal IDR process involving air ambulance services is:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of notices of IDR initiation submitted under the Federal IDR process to the certified IDR entity that pertain to air ambulance services during the immediately preceding month;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of such notices of IDR initiation with respect to which a final determination was made under § 2590.716-8(c)(4)(ii) of this part (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section);
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of times the payment amount determined (or agreed to) under this subsection has exceeded the qualifying payment amount, specified by services;
</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to each notice of IDR initiation under § 2590.716-8(b)(2) of this part (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section) for which a determination was made, the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each air ambulance service included in such notification, including the relevant billing and service codes;
</P>
<P>(B) The point of pick-up (as defined in 42 CFR 414.605) for the services included in such notification;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the offers submitted under § 2590.716-8(c)(4)(i) (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section) by the group health plan or health insurance issuer (as applicable) and by the nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services, expressed as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the qualifying payment amount;
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the offer selected by the certified IDR entity under § 2590.716-8(c)(4)(ii) of this part (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section) to be the payment amount applied was the offer submitted by the plan or issuer (as applicable) or by the provider of air ambulance services;
</P>
<P>(E) The amount of the selected offer expressed as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the qualifying payment amount;


</P>
<P>(F) The rationale for the certified IDR entity's decision, including the extent to which the decision relied on the criteria in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and § 2590.716-8(c)(4)(iii)(C) and (D);






</P>
<P>(G) Air ambulance vehicle type, including the clinical capability level of such vehicle (to the extent this information has been provided to the certified IDR entity);
</P>
<P>(H) The identity for each plan or issuer and provider of air ambulance services, with respect to the notification. Specifically, each certified IDR entity must provide each party's name and address, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(I) For each determination, the number of business days elapsed between selection of the certified IDR entity and the selection of the payment amount by the certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(v) The total amount of certified IDR entity fees paid to the certified IDR entity under paragraph § 2590.716-8(d)(1) of this part (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section) during the month for determinations involving air ambulance services.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022, except that paragraphs (b)(1), (2), and (3) and (b)(4)(iv)(F) of this section regarding payment determinations are applicable with respect to services provided or furnished on or after October 25, 2022, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 56121, Oct. 7, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52651, Aug. 26, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.722" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.722   Choice of health care professional.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Choice of health care professional</I>—(1) <I>Designation of primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, requires or provides for designation by a participant or beneficiary of a participating primary care provider, then the plan or issuer must permit each participant or beneficiary to designate any participating primary care provider who is available to accept the participant or beneficiary. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is to be construed to prohibit the application of reasonable and appropriate geographic limitations with respect to the selection of primary care providers, in accordance with the terms of the plan or coverage, the underlying provider contracts, and applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(1) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires individuals covered under the plan to designate a primary care provider. The plan permits each individual to designate any primary care provider participating in the plan's network who is available to accept the individual as the individual's primary care provider. If an individual has not designated a primary care provider, the plan designates one until the individual has made a designation. The plan provides a notice that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section regarding the ability to designate a primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the plan has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Designation of pediatrician as primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, requires or provides for the designation of a participating primary care provider for a child by a participant or beneficiary, the plan or issuer must permit the participant or beneficiary to designate a physician (allopathic or osteopathic) who specializes in pediatrics (including pediatric subspecialties, based on the scope of that provider's license under applicable State law) as the child's primary care provider if the provider participates in the network of the plan or issuer and is available to accept the child. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a pediatrician as the child's primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is to be construed to waive any exclusions of coverage under the terms and conditions of the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to coverage of pediatric care.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan's HMO designates for each participant a physician who specializes in internal medicine to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and any beneficiaries. Participant <I>A</I> requests that Pediatrician <I>B</I> be designated as the primary care provider for <I>A</I>'s child. <I>B</I> is a participating provider in the HMO's network and is available to accept the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the HMO must permit <I>A</I>'s designation of <I>B</I> as the primary care provider for <I>A</I>'s child in order to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> (paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section), except that <I>A</I> takes <I>A</I>'s child to <I>B</I> for treatment of the child's severe shellfish allergies. <I>B</I> wishes to refer <I>A</I>'s child to an allergist for treatment. The HMO, however, does not provide coverage for treatment of food allergies, nor does it have an allergist participating in its network, and it therefore refuses to authorize the referral.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the HMO has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2) because the exclusion of treatment for food allergies is in accordance with the terms of <I>A'</I>s coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Patient access to obstetrical and gynecological care</I>—(i) <I>General rights</I>—(A) <I>Direct access.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, may not require authorization or referral by the plan, issuer, or any person (including a primary care provider) in the case of a female participant or beneficiary who seeks coverage for obstetrical or gynecological care provided by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant that the plan may not require authorization or referral for obstetrical or gynecological care by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. The plan or issuer may require such a professional to agree to otherwise adhere to the plan's or issuer's policies and procedures, including procedures regarding referrals and obtaining prior authorization and providing services pursuant to a treatment plan (if any) approved by the plan or issuer. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology is any individual (including a person other than a physician) who is authorized under applicable State law to provide obstetrical or gynecological care.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Obstetrical and gynecological care.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section must treat the provision of obstetrical and gynecological care, and the ordering of related obstetrical and gynecological items and services, pursuant to the direct access described under paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section, by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology as the authorization of the primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application of paragraph.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, is described in this paragraph (a)(3) if the plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Provides coverage for obstetrical or gynecological care; and
</P>
<P>(B) Requires the designation by a participant or beneficiary of a participating primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section is to be construed to—
</P>
<P>(A) Waive any exclusions of coverage under the terms and conditions of the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to coverage of obstetrical or gynecological care; or
</P>
<P>(B) Preclude the group health plan or health insurance issuer involved from requiring that the obstetrical or gynecological provider notify the primary care health care professional or the plan or issuer of treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(3) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires each participant to designate a physician to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and the participant's family. Participant <I>A,</I> a female, requests a gynecological exam with Physician <I>B,</I> an in-network physician specializing in gynecological care. The group health plan requires prior authorization from <I>A'</I>s designated primary care provider for the gynecological exam.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the group health plan has violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because the plan requires prior authorization from <I>A'</I>s primary care provider prior to obtaining gynecological services.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> (paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section) except that <I>A</I> seeks gynecological services from <I>C,</I> an out-of-network provider.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the group health plan has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) by requiring prior authorization because <I>C</I> is not a participating health care provider.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Example 3</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> (paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section) except that the group health plan only requires <I>B</I> to inform <I>A'</I>s designated primary care physician of treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the group health plan has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because <I>A</I> has direct access to <I>B</I> without prior authorization. The fact that the group health plan requires the designated primary care physician to be notified of treatment decisions does not violate this paragraph (a)(3).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Example 4</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires each participant to designate a physician to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and the participant's family. The group health plan requires prior authorization before providing benefits for uterine fibroid embolization.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the plan requirement for prior authorization before providing benefits for uterine fibroid embolization does not violate the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because, though the prior authorization requirement applies to obstetrical services, it does not restrict access to any providers specializing in obstetrics or gynecology.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of right to designate a primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer requires the designation by a participant or beneficiary of a primary care provider, the plan or issuer must provide a notice informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a primary care provider and of the rights—
</P>
<P>(A) Under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, that any participating primary care provider who is available to accept the participant or beneficiary can be designated;
</P>
<P>(B) Under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, with respect to a child, that any participating physician who specializes in pediatrics can be designated as the primary care provider; and
</P>
<P>(C) Under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, that the plan may not require authorization or referral for obstetrical or gynecological care by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> In the case of a group health plan or group health insurance coverage, the notice described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section must be included whenever the plan or issuer provides a participant with a summary plan description or other similar description of benefits under the plan or health insurance coverage. In the case of individual health insurance coverage, the notice described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section must be included whenever the issuer provides a primary subscriber with a policy, certificate, or contract of health insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Model language.</I> The following model language can be used to satisfy the notice requirement described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For plans and issuers that require or allow for the designation of primary care providers by participants, or beneficiaries, insert:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>[Name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] generally [requires/allows] the designation of a primary care provider. You have the right to designate any primary care provider who participates in our network and who is available to accept you or your family members. [If the plan or health insurance coverage designates a primary care provider automatically, insert: Until you make this designation, [name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] designates one for you.] For information on how to select a primary care provider, and for a list of the participating primary care providers, contact the [plan administrator or issuer] at [insert contact information].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) For plans and issuers that require or allow for the designation of a primary care provider for a child, add:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For children, you may designate a pediatrician as the primary care provider.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) For plans and issuers that provide coverage for obstetric or gynecological care and require the designation by a participant or beneficiary of a primary care provider, add:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>You do not need prior authorization from [name of group health plan or issuer] or from any other person (including a primary care provider) in order to obtain access to obstetrical or gynecological care from a health care professional in our network who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. The health care professional, however, may be required to comply with certain procedures, including obtaining prior authorization for certain services, following a pre-approved treatment plan, or procedures for making referrals. For a list of participating health care professionals who specialize in obstetrics or gynecology, contact the [plan administrator or issuer] at [insert contact information].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.725-1" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.725-1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply in addition to the definitions in § 2590.716-3:
</P>
<P><I>Brand prescription drug</I> means a drug for which an application is approved under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(c)) or under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262), and that is generally marketed under a proprietary, trademark-protected name. The term “brand prescription drug” includes a drug with Emergency Use Authorization issued pursuant to section 564 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360bbb-3), and that is generally marketed under a proprietary, trademark-protected name. The term “brand prescription drug” includes drugs that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration determines to be interchangeable biosimilar products under sections 351(i)(3) and 351(k)(4) of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 262).
</P>
<P><I>Dosage unit</I> means the smallest form in which a pharmaceutical product is administered or dispensed, such as a pill, tablet, capsule, ampule, or measurement of grams or milliliters.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Employees Health Benefits (FEHB) line of business</I> refers to all health benefit plans that are offered to eligible enrollees pursuant to a contract between the Office of Personnel Management and Federal Employees Health Benefits (FEHB) Program carriers. Such plans are Federal governmental plans offered pursuant to 5 U.S.C. chapter 89.
</P>
<P><I>Life-years</I> means the total number of months of coverage for participants and beneficiaries, as applicable, divided by 12.
</P>
<P><I>Market segment</I> means one of the following: The individual market (excluding the student market), the student market, the fully-insured small group market, the fully-insured large group market (excluding the FEHB line of business), self-funded plans offered by small employers, self-funded plans offered by large employers, and the FEHB line of business.
</P>
<P><I>Premium amount</I> means, with respect to fully-insured group health plans, earned premium as that term is defined in 45 CFR 158.130, excluding the adjustments specified in 45 CFR 158.130(b)(5). Premium amount means, with respect to self-funded group health plans and other arrangements that do not rely exclusively or primarily on payments of premiums as defined in 45 CFR 158.130, the premium equivalent amount representing the total cost of providing and maintaining coverage, including claims costs, administrative costs, and stop-loss premiums, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Prescription drug (drug)</I> means a set of pharmaceutical products that have been assigned a National Drug Code (NDC) by the Food and Drug Administration and are grouped by name and ingredient in the manner specified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration</I> means all remuneration received by or on behalf of a plan or issuer, its administrator or service provider, including remuneration received by and on behalf of entities providing pharmacy benefit management services to the plan or issuer, with respect to prescription drugs prescribed to participants or beneficiaries in the plan or coverage, as applicable, regardless of the source of the remuneration (for example, pharmaceutical manufacturer, wholesaler, retail pharmacy, or vendor). Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration also include, for example, discounts, chargebacks or rebates, cash discounts, free goods contingent on a purchase agreement, up-front payments, coupons, goods in kind, free or reduced-price services, grants, or other price concessions or similar benefits. Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration include bona fide service fees. Bona fide service fees mean fees paid by a drug manufacturer to an entity providing pharmacy benefit management services to the plan or issuer that represent fair market value for a bona fide, itemized service actually performed on behalf of the manufacturer that the manufacturer would otherwise perform (or contract for) in the absence of the service arrangement, and that are not passed on in whole or in part to a client or customer of the entity, whether or not the entity takes title to the drug.
</P>
<P><I>Reference year</I> means the calendar year immediately preceding the calendar year in which data submissions under this section are required.
</P>
<P><I>Reporting entity</I> means an entity that submits some or all of the information required under this section with respect to a plan or issuer, and that may be different from the plan or issuer that is subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Student market</I> has the meaning given in 45 CFR 158.103.
</P>
<P><I>Therapeutic class</I> means a group of pharmaceutical products that have similar mechanisms of action or treat the same types of conditions, grouped in the manner specified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, in guidance. The Secretary may require plans and issuers to classify drugs according to a commonly available public or commercial therapeutic classification system, a therapeutic classification system provided by the Secretary of Health and Human Services, or a combination thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Total annual spending</I> means incurred claims, as that term is defined in 45 CFR 158.140, excluding the adjustments specified in 45 CFR 158.140(b)(1)(i), (b)(2)(iv), and (b)(4), and including cost sharing. With respect to prescription drugs, total annual spending is net of prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66699, Nov. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.725-2" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.725-2   Reporting requirements related to prescription drug and health care spending.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must submit an annual report to the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, on prescription drug and health care spending, premiums, and enrollment under the plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing and form of report.</I> The report for the 2020 reference year must be submitted to the Secretary by December 27, 2021. Beginning with the 2021 reference year, the report for each reference year is due by June 1 of the year following the reference year. The report must be submitted in the form and manner prescribed by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transfer of business.</I> Issuers that acquire a line or block of business from another issuer during a reference year are responsible for submitting the information and report required by this section for the acquired business for that reference year, including for the part of the reference year that was prior to the acquisition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reporting entities and special rules to prevent unnecessary duplication</I>—(1) <I>Special rule for insured group health plans.</I> To the extent coverage under a group health plan consists of group health insurance coverage, the plan may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if the plan requires the health insurance issuer offering the coverage to report the information required by this section in compliance with this subpart pursuant to a written agreement. Accordingly, if a health insurance issuer and a group health plan sponsor enter into a written agreement under which the issuer agrees to provide the information required under paragraph (a) of this section in compliance with this section, and the issuer fails to do so, then the issuer, but not the plan, violates the reporting requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to the relevant information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other contractual arrangements.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage may satisfy the requirements under paragraph (a) of this section by entering into a written agreement under which one or more other parties (such as health insurance issuers, pharmacy benefit managers, third-party administrators, or other third parties) report some or all of the information required under paragraph (a) of this section in compliance with this section. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, if a group health plan or health insurance issuer chooses to enter into such an agreement and the party with which it contracts fails to provide the information in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the plan or issuer violates the reporting requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable beginning December 27, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66699, Nov. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.725-3" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.725-3   Aggregate reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must submit, or arrange to be submitted, the information required in § 2590.725-4(b) of this section separately for each State in which group health coverage or group health insurance coverage was provided in connection with the group health plan or by the health insurance issuer. The report must include the experience of all plans and policies in the State during the reference year covered by the report, and must include the experience separately for each market segment as defined in § 2590.725-1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aggregation by reporting entity</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If a reporting entity submits data on behalf of more than one group health plan in a State and market segment, the reporting entity may aggregate the data required in § 2590.725-4(b) of this section for the group health plans for each market segment in the State.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple reporting entities.</I> (i) If multiple reporting entities submit the required data related to one or more plans or issuers in a State and market segment, the data submitted by each of these reporting entities must not be aggregated at a less granular level than the aggregation level used by the reporting entity that submits the data on total annual spending on health care services, as required by § 2590.725-4(b)(4), on behalf of these plans or issuers.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, may specify in guidance alternative or additional aggregation methods for data submitted by multiple reporting entities, to ensure a balance between compliance burdens and a data aggregation level that facilitates the development of the biannual public report required under section 725(b) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Group health insurance coverage with dual contracts.</I> If a group health plan involves health insurance coverage obtained from two affiliated issuers, one providing in-network coverage only and the second providing out-of-network coverage only, the plan's out-of-network experience may be treated as if it were all related to the contract provided by the in-network issuer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregation by State.</I> (1) Experience with respect to each fully-insured policy must be included on the report for the State where the contract was issued, except as specified in paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Experience with respect to each self-funded group health plan must be included on the report for the State where the plan sponsor has its principal place of business.
</P>
<P>(3) For individual market business sold through an association, experience must be attributed to the issue State of the certificate of coverage.
</P>
<P>(4) For health coverage provided to plans through a group trust or multiple employer welfare arrangement, the experience must be included in the report for the State where the employer (if the plan is sponsored at the individual employer level) or the association (if the association qualifies as an employer under ERISA section 3(5)) has its principal place of business or the state where the association is incorporated, in the case of an association with no principal place of business.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable beginning December 27, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66699, Nov. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.725-4" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.4.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.725-4   Required information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information for each plan or coverage.</I> The report required under § 2590.725-2 must include the following information for each plan or coverage, at the plan or coverage level:
</P>
<P>(1) The identifying information for plans, issuers, plan sponsors, and any other reporting entities.
</P>
<P>(2) The beginning and end dates of the plan year that ended on or before the last day of the reference year.
</P>
<P>(3) The number of participants and beneficiaries, as applicable, covered on the last day of the reference year.
</P>
<P>(4) Each State in which the plan or coverage is offered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information for each state and market segment.</I> The report required under § 2590.725-2 must include the following information with respect to plans or coverage for each State and market segment for the reference year, unless otherwise specified:
</P>
<P>(1) The 50 brand prescription drugs most frequently dispensed by pharmacies, and for each such drug, the data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The most frequently dispensed drugs must be determined according to total number of paid claims for prescriptions filled during the reference year for each drug.
</P>
<P>(2) The 50 most costly prescription drugs and for each such drug, the data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The most costly drugs must be determined according to total annual spending on each drug.
</P>
<P>(3) The 50 prescription drugs with the greatest increase in expenditures between the year immediately preceding the reference year and the reference year, and for each such drug: The data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section for the year immediately preceding the reference year, and the data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section for the reference year. The drugs with the greatest increase in expenditures must be determined based on the increase in total annual spending from the year immediately preceding the reference year to the reference year. A drug must be approved for marketing or issued an Emergency Use Authorization by the Food and Drug Administration for the entirety of the year immediately preceding the reference year and for the entirety of the reference year to be included in the data submission as one of the drugs with the greatest increase in expenditures.
</P>
<P>(4) Total annual spending on health care services by the plan or coverage and by participants and beneficiaries, as applicable, broken down by the type of costs, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Hospital costs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Health care provider and clinical service costs, for primary care and specialty care separately;
</P>
<P>(iii) Costs for prescription drugs, separately for drugs covered by the plan's or issuer's pharmacy benefit and drugs covered by the plan's or issuer's hospital or medical benefit; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other medical costs, including wellness services.
</P>
<P>(5) Prescription drug spending and utilization, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Total annual spending by the plan or coverage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Total annual spending by the participants and beneficiaries, as applicable, enrolled in the plan or coverage, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of participants and beneficiaries, as applicable, with a paid prescription drug claim;
</P>
<P>(iv) Total dosage units dispensed; and
</P>
<P>(v) The number of paid claims.
</P>
<P>(6) Premium amounts, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Average monthly premium amount paid by employers and other plan sponsors on behalf of participants and beneficiaries, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Average monthly premium amount paid by participants and beneficiaries, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Total annual premium amount and the total number of life-years.
</P>
<P>(7) Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Total prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration, and the difference between total amounts that the plan or issuer pays the entity providing pharmacy benefit management services to the plan or issuer and total amounts that such entity pays to pharmacies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration, excluding bona fide service fees, broken down by the amounts passed through to the plan or issuer, the amounts passed through to participants and beneficiaries, as applicable, and the amounts retained by the entity providing pharmacy benefit management services to the plan or issuer; and the data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section—
</P>
<P>(A) For each therapeutic class; and
</P>
<P>(B) For each of the 25 prescription drugs with the greatest amount of total prescription drug rebates and other price concessions for the reference year.
</P>
<P>(8) The method used to allocate prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(9) The impact of prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration on premium and cost sharing amounts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable beginning December 27, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66699, Nov. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—General Provisions Related to Subparts B and C</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 16941, Apr. 8, 1997, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 65 FR 82142, Dec. 27, 2000, and further redesignated at 86 FR 36959, July 13, 2021.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2590.731" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.731   Preemption; State flexibility; construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Continued applicability of State law with respect to health insurance issuers.</I> Subject to paragraph (b) of this section and except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, part 7 of subtitle B of Title I of the Act is not to be construed to supersede any provision of State law which establishes, implements, or continues in effect any standard or requirement solely relating to health insurance issuers in connection with group health insurance coverage except to the extent that such standard or requirement prevents the application of a requirement of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continued preemption with respect to group health plans.</I> Nothing in part 7 of subtitle B of Title I of the Act affects or modifies the provisions of section 514 of the Act with respect to group health plans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rules</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the provisions of part 7 of subtitle B of Title I of the Act relating to health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer supersede any provision of State law which establishes, implements, or continues in effect a standard or requirement applicable to imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion specifically governed by section 701 which differs from the standards or requirements specified in such section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Only in relation to health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, the provisions of this part do not supersede any provision of State law to the extent that such provision requires special enrollment periods in addition to those required under section 701(f) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>State law.</I> For purposes of this section the term <I>State law</I> includes all laws, decisions, rules, regulations, or other State action having the effect of law, of any State. <I>A</I> law of the United States applicable only to the District of Columbia is treated as a State law rather than a law of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State.</I> For purposes of this section the term <I>State</I> includes a State (as defined in § 2590.701-2), any political subdivisions of a State, or any agency or instrumentality of either.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78778, Dec. 30, 2004; 70 FR 21147, Apr. 25, 2005; 79 FR 10312, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.732" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.732   Special rules relating to group health plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Group health plan</I>—(1) <I>Defined.</I> A group health plan means an employee welfare benefit plan to the extent that the plan provides medical care (including items and services paid for as medical care) to employees (including both current and former employees) or their dependents (as defined under the terms of the plan) directly or through insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of number of plans.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General exception for certain small group health plans.</I> (1) Subject to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the requirements of this part do not apply to any group health plan (and group health insurance coverage) for any plan year, if on the first day of the plan year, the plan has fewer than two participants who are current employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The following requirements apply without regard to paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 2590.702(b) of this part, as such section applies with respect to genetic information as a health factor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 2590.702(c) of this part, as such section applies with respect to genetic information as a health factor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 2590.702(e) of this part, as such section applies with respect to genetic information as a health factor.
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 2590.702-1(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(v) Section 2590.702-1(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 2590.702-1(d) of this part.
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 2590.702-1(e) of this part.
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 2590.711 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Excepted benefits</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to any group health plan (or any group health insurance coverage) in relation to its provision of the benefits described in paragraph (c)(2), (3), (4), or (5) of this section (or any combination of these benefits).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefits excepted in all circumstances.</I> The following benefits are excepted in all circumstances—
</P>
<P>(i) Coverage only for accident (including accidental death and dismemberment);
</P>
<P>(ii) Disability income coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance;
</P>
<P>(v) Workers' compensation or similar coverage;
</P>
<P>(vi) Automobile medical payment insurance;
</P>
<P>(vii) Credit-only insurance (for example, mortgage insurance); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Coverage for on-site medical clinics.
</P>
<P>(ix) Travel insurance, within the meaning of § 2590.701-2.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited excepted benefits</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Limited-scope dental benefits, limited-scope vision benefits, or long-term care benefits are excepted if they are provided under a separate policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, or are otherwise not an integral part of a group health plan as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section. In addition, benefits provided under a health flexible spending arrangement (health FSA) are excepted benefits if they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section; benefits provided under an employee assistance program are excepted benefits if they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section; benefits provided under limited wraparound coverage are excepted benefits if they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(vii) of this section; and benefits provided under a health reimbursement arrangement or other account-based group health plan, other than a health FSA, are excepted benefits if they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Not an integral part of a group health plan.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), benefits are not an integral part of a group health plan (whether the benefits are provided through the same plan, a separate plan, or as the only plan offered to participants) if either paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) or (B) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(A) Participants may decline coverage. For example, a participant may decline coverage if the participant can opt out of the coverage upon request, whether or not there is a participant contribution required for the coverage.
</P>
<P>(B) Claims for the benefits are administered under a contract separate from claims administration for any other benefits under the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limited scope</I>—(A) <I>Dental benefits.</I> Limited scope dental benefits are benefits substantially all of which are for treatment of the mouth (including any organ or structure within the mouth).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Vision benefits.</I> Limited scope vision benefits are benefits substantially all of which are for treatment of the eye.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Long-term care.</I> Long-term care benefits are benefits that are either—
</P>
<P>(A) Subject to State long-term care insurance laws;
</P>
<P>(B) For qualified long-term care services, as defined in section 7702B(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, or provided under a qualified long-term care insurance contract, as defined in section 7702B(b) of the Internal Revenue Code; or
</P>
<P>(C) Based on cognitive impairment or a loss of functional capacity that is expected to be chronic.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Health flexible spending arrangements.</I> Benefits provided under a health flexible spending arrangement (as defined in section 106(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code) are excepted for a class of participants only if they satisfy the following two requirements—
</P>
<P>(A) Other group health plan coverage, not limited to excepted benefits, is made available for the year to the class of participants by reason of their employment; and
</P>
<P>(B) The arrangement is structured so that the maximum benefit payable to any participant in the class for a year cannot exceed two times the participant's salary reduction election under the arrangement for the year (or, if greater, cannot exceed $500 plus the amount of the participant's salary reduction election). For this purpose, any amount that an employee can elect to receive as taxable income but elects to apply to the health flexible spending arrangement is considered a salary reduction election (regardless of whether the amount is characterized as salary or as a credit under the arrangement).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Employee assistance programs.</I> Benefits provided under employee assistance programs are excepted if they satisfy all of the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(vi).
</P>
<P>(A) The program does not provide significant benefits in the nature of medical care. For this purpose, the amount, scope and duration of covered services are taken into account.
</P>
<P>(B) The benefits under the employee assistance program are not coordinated with benefits under another group health plan, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Participants in the other group health plan must not be required to use and exhaust benefits under the employee assistance program (making the employee assistance program a gatekeeper) before an individual is eligible for benefits under the other group health plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Participant eligibility for benefits under the employee assistance program must not be dependent on participation in another group health plan.
</P>
<P>(C) No employee premiums or contributions are required as a condition of participation in the employee assistance program.
</P>
<P>(D) There is no cost sharing under the employee assistance program.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Limited wraparound coverage.</I> Limited benefits provided through a group health plan that wrap around eligible individual health insurance (or Basic Health Plan coverage described in section 1331 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act); or that wrap around coverage under a Multi-State Plan described in section 1334 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, collectively referred to as “limited wraparound coverage,” are excepted benefits if all of the following conditions are satisfied. For this purpose, eligible individual health insurance is individual health insurance coverage that is not a grandfathered health plan (as described in section 1251 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act and § 2590.715-1251), not a transitional individual health insurance plan (as described in the March 5, 2014 Insurance Standards Bulletin Series—Extension of Transitional Policy through October 1, 2016), and does not consist solely of excepted benefits (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Covers additional benefits.</I> The limited wraparound coverage provides meaningful benefits beyond coverage of cost sharing under either the eligible individual health insurance, Basic Health Program coverage, or Multi-State Plan coverage. The limited wraparound coverage must not provide benefits only under a coordination-of-benefits provision and must not consist of an account-based reimbursement arrangement.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limited in amount.</I> The annual cost of coverage per employee (and any covered dependents, as defined in § 2590.701-2) under the limited wraparound coverage does not exceed the greater of the amount determined under either paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(B)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this section. Making a determination regarding the annual cost of coverage per employee must occur on an aggregate basis relying on sound actuarial principles.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The maximum permitted annual salary reduction contribution toward health flexible spending arrangements, indexed in the manner prescribed under section 125(i)(2) of the Code. For this purpose, the cost of coverage under the limited wraparound includes both employer and employee contributions towards coverage and is determined in the same manner as the applicable premium is calculated under a COBRA continuation provision.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Fifteen percent of the cost of coverage under the primary plan. For this purpose, the cost of coverage under the primary plan and under the limited wraparound coverage includes both employer and employee contributions towards the coverage and each is determined in the same manner as the applicable premium is calculated under a COBRA continuation provision.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> All of the conditions of this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(C) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>No preexisting condition exclusion.</I> The limited wraparound coverage does not impose any preexisting condition exclusion, consistent with the requirements of section 2704 of the PHS Act (incorporated by reference into section 715 of ERISA) and § 2590.715-2704.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>No discrimination based on health status.</I> The limited wraparound coverage does not discriminate against individuals in eligibility, benefits, or premiums based on any health factor of an individual (or any dependent of the individual, as defined in § 2590.701-2), consistent with the requirements of section 702 of ERISA and section 2705 of the PHS Act (incorporated by reference into section 715 of ERISA).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>No discrimination in favor of highly compensated individuals.</I> Neither the limited wraparound coverage, nor any other group health plan coverage offered by the plan sponsor, fails to comply with section 2716 of the PHS Act (incorporated by reference into section 715 of ERISA) or fails to be excludible from income for any individual due to the application of section 105(h) of the Code (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Plan eligibility requirements.</I> Individuals eligible for the wraparound coverage are not enrolled in excepted benefit coverage under paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section (relating to health FSAs). In addition, the conditions set forth in either paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Limited wraparound coverage that wraps around eligible individual insurance for persons who are not full-time employees.</I> Coverage that wraps around eligible individual health insurance (or that wraps around Basic Health Plan coverage) must satisfy all of the conditions of this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For each year for which limited wraparound coverage is offered, the employer that is the sponsor of the plan offering limited wraparound coverage, or the employer participating in a plan offering limited wraparound coverage, offers to its full-time employees coverage that is substantially similar to coverage that the employer would need to offer to its full-time employees in order not to be subject to a potential assessable payment under the employer shared responsibility provisions of section 4980H(a) of the Code, if such provisions were applicable; provides minimum value (as defined in section 36B(c)(2)(C)(ii) of the Code); and is reasonably expected to be affordable (applying the safe harbor rules for determining affordability set forth in 26 CFR 54.4980H-5(e)(2)). If a plan or issuer providing limited wraparound coverage takes reasonable steps to ensure that employers disclose to the plan or issuer necessary information regarding their coverage offered and affordability information, the plan or issuer is permitted to rely on reasonable representations by employers regarding this information, unless the plan or issuer has specific knowledge to the contrary. In the event that the employer that is the sponsor of the plan offering wraparound coverage, or the employer participating in a plan offering wraparound coverage, has no full-time employees for any plan year limited wraparound coverage is offered, the requirement of this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) is considered satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Eligibility for the limited wraparound coverage is limited to employees who are reasonably determined at the time of enrollment to not be full-time employees (and their dependents, as defined in § 2590.701-2), or who are retirees (and their dependents, as defined in § 2590.701-2). For this purpose, full-time employees are employees who are reasonably expected to work at least an average of 30 hours per week.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Other group health plan coverage, not limited to excepted benefits, is offered to the individuals eligible for the limited wraparound coverage. Only individuals eligible for the other group health plan coverage are eligible for the limited wraparound coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limited coverage that wraps around Multi-State Plan coverage.</I> Coverage that wraps around Multi-State Plan coverage must satisfy all of the conditions of this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>2</I>). For this purpose, the term “full-time employee” means a “full-time employee” as defined in 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(21) who is not in a limited non-assessment period for certain employees (as defined in 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(26)). Moreover, if a plan or issuer providing limited wraparound coverage takes reasonable steps to ensure that employers disclose to the plan or issuer necessary information regarding their coverage offered and contribution levels for 2013 or 2014 (as applicable), and for any year in which limited wraparound coverage is offered, the plan or issuer is permitted to rely on reasonable representations by employers regarding this information, unless the plan or issuer has specific knowledge to the contrary. Consistent with the reporting and evaluation criteria of paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(E) of this section, the Office of Personnel Management may verify that plans and issuers have reasonable mechanisms in place to ensure that contributing employers meet these standards.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The limited wraparound coverage is reviewed and approved by the Office of Personnel Management, consistent with the reporting and evaluation criteria of paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(E) of this section, to provide benefits in conjunction with coverage under a Multi-State Plan authorized under section 1334 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. The Office of Personnel Management may revoke approval if it determines that continued approval is inconsistent with the reporting and evaluation criteria of paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The employer offered coverage in the plan year that began in either 2013 or 2014 that is substantially similar to coverage that the employer would need to have offered to its full-time employees in order to not be subject to an assessable payment under the employer shared responsibility provisions of section 4980H(a) of the Code, if such provisions had been applicable. In the event that a plan that offered coverage in 2013 or 2014 has no full-time employees for any plan year limited wraparound coverage is offered, the requirement of this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) is considered satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In the plan year that began in either 2013 or 2014, the employer offered coverage to a substantial portion of full-time employees that provided minimum value (as defined in section 36B(c)(2)(C)(ii) of the Code) and was affordable (applying the safe harbor rules for determining affordability set forth in 26 CFR 54.4980H-5(e)(2)). In the event that the plan that offered coverage in 2013 or 2014 has no full-time employees for any plan year limited wraparound coverage is offered, the requirement of this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>2</I>)(<I>iii</I>) is considered satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) For the duration of the pilot program, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(F) of this section, the employer's annual aggregate contributions for both primary and limited wraparound coverage are substantially the same as the employer's total contributions for coverage offered to full-time employees in 2013 or 2014.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Reporting</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Reporting by group health plans and group health insurance issuers.</I> A self-insured group health plan, or a health insurance issuer, offering or proposing to offer limited wraparound coverage in connection with Multi-State Plan coverage pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>2</I>) of this section reports to the Office of Personnel Management (OPM), in a form and manner specified in guidance, information OPM reasonably requires to determine whether the plan or issuer qualifies to offer such coverage or complies with the applicable requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Reporting by group health plan sponsors.</I> The plan sponsor of a group health plan offering limited wraparound coverage under paragraph (c)(3)(vii) of this section, must report to the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), in a form and manner specified in guidance, information HHS reasonably requires.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Pilot program with sunset.</I> The provisions of paragraph (c)(3)(vii) of this section apply to limited wraparound coverage that is first offered no earlier than January 1, 2016 and no later than December 31, 2018 and that ends no later than on the later of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The date that is three years after the date limited wraparound coverage is first offered; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date on which the last collective bargaining agreement relating to the plan terminates after the date limited wraparound coverage is first offered (determined without regard to any extension agreed to after the date limited wraparound coverage is first offered).
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Health reimbursement arrangements (HRAs) and other account-based group health plans.</I> Benefits provided under an HRA or other account-based group health plan, other than a health FSA, are excepted if they satisfy all of the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(viii). See paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section for the circumstances in which benefits provided under a health FSA are excepted benefits. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(viii), the term “HRA or other account-based group health plan” has the same meaning as “account-based group health plan” set forth in § 2590.715-2711(d)(6)(i) of this part, except that the term does not include health FSAs. For ease of reference, an HRA or other account-based group health plan that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(viii) is referred to as an excepted benefit HRA.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Otherwise not an integral part of the plan.</I> Other group health plan coverage that is not limited to excepted benefits and that is not an HRA or other account-based group health plan must be made available by the same plan sponsor for the plan year to the participant.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benefits are limited in amount</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Limit on annual amounts made available.</I> The amounts newly made available for each plan year under the HRA or other account-based group health plan do not exceed $1,800. In the case of any plan year beginning after December 31, 2020, the dollar amount in the preceding sentence shall be increased by an amount equal to such dollar amount multiplied by the cost-of-living adjustment. The cost of living adjustment is the percentage (if any) by which the C-CPI-U for the preceding calendar year exceeds the C-CPI-U for calendar year 2019. The term “C-CPI-U” means the Chained Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor. The C-CPI-U for any calendar year is the average of the C-CPI-U as of the close of the 12-month period ending on March 31 of such calendar year. The values of the C-CPI-U used for any calendar year shall be the latest values so published as of the date on which the Bureau publishes the initial value of the C-CPI-U for the month of March for the preceding calendar year. Any such increase that is not a multiple of $50 shall be rounded down to the next lowest multiple of $50. The Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service will publish the adjusted amount for plan years beginning in any calendar year no later than June 1 of the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Carryover amounts.</I> If the terms of the HRA or other account-based group health plan allow unused amounts to be made available to participants and dependents in later plan years, such carryover amounts are disregarded for purposes of determining whether benefits are limited in amount.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Multiple HRAs or other account-based group health plans.</I> If the plan sponsor provides more than one HRA or other account-based group health plan to the participant for the same time period, the amounts made available under all such plans are aggregated to determine whether the benefits are limited in amount, except that HRAs or other account-based group health plans that reimburse only excepted benefits are not included in determining whether the benefits are limited in amount.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Prohibition on reimbursement of certain health insurance premiums.</I> The HRA or other account-based group health plan must not reimburse premiums for individual health insurance coverage, group health plan coverage (other than COBRA continuation coverage or other continuation coverage), or Medicare Part A, B, C, or D, except that the HRA or other account-based group health plan may reimburse premiums for such coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits. See also, paragraph (c)(3)(viii)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Uniform availability.</I> The HRA or other account-based group health plan is made available under the same terms to all similarly situated individuals, as defined in § 2590.702(d) of this part, regardless of any health factor (as described in § 2590.702(a)).
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Notice requirement.</I> <I>See</I> sections 2520.102-3(j)(2) and (3) and 2520.104b-2(a) of this chapter regarding the time, manner, and content for summary plan descriptions (including a description of conditions pertaining to eligibility to receive benefits; annual or lifetime caps or other limits on benefits under the plan; and a description or summary of the benefits).
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Special rule.</I> The HRA or other account-based group health plan must not reimburse premiums for short-term, limited-duration insurance (as defined in § 2590.701-2 of this part) if the conditions of this paragraph (c)(3)(viii)(F) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The HRA or other account-based group health plan is offered by a small employer (as defined in PHS Act section 2791(e)(4)).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The other group health plan coverage offered by the employer pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(viii)(A) of this section is either fully-insured or partially-insured.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) makes a finding, in consultation with the Secretaries of Labor and the Treasury, that the reimbursement of premiums for short-term, limited-duration insurance by excepted benefit HRAs has caused significant harm to the small group market in the state that is the principal place of business of the small employer.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The finding by the Secretary of HHS is made after submission of a written recommendation by the applicable state authority of such state, in a form and manner specified by HHS. The written recommendation must include evidence that the reimbursement of premiums for short-term, limited-duration insurance by excepted benefit HRAs established by insured or partially-insured small employers in the state has caused significant harm to the state's small group market, including with respect to premiums.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The restriction shall be imposed or discontinued by publication by the Secretary of HHS of a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall apply only prospectively and with a reasonable time for plan sponsors to comply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Noncoordinated benefits</I>—(i) <I>Excepted benefits that are not coordinated.</I> Coverage for only a specified disease or illness (for example, cancer-only policies) or hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance is excepted only if it meets each of the conditions specified in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section. To be hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance, the insurance must pay a fixed dollar amount per day (or per other period) of hospitalization or illness (for example, $100/day) regardless of the amount of expenses incurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditions.</I> Benefits are described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section only if—
</P>
<P>(A) The benefits are provided under a separate policy, certificate, or contract of insurance;
</P>
<P>(B) There is no coordination between the provision of the benefits and an exclusion of benefits under any group health plan maintained by the same plan sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(C) The benefits are paid with respect to an event without regard to whether benefits are provided with respect to the event under any group health plan maintained by the same plan sponsor.
</P>
<P>(D) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, with respect to hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan or issuer displays prominently on the first page (in either paper or electronic form, including on a website) of any marketing, application, and enrollment materials that are provided to participants at or before the time participants are given the opportunity to enroll in the coverage, in at least 14-point font, the language in the following notice:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03ap24.063.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If participants are required to reenroll (in either paper or electronic form) for purposes of renewal or reissuance of the insurance, the notice described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(D)(<I>1</I>) of this section is prominently displayed in any marketing and reenrollment materials provided at or before the time participants are given the opportunity to reenroll in coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If a plan or issuer provides a notice satisfying the requirements in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section to a participant, the obligation to provide the notice is considered to be satisfied for both the plan and issuer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(4) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage through an insurance policy. The policy provides benefits only for hospital stays at a fixed percentage of hospital expenses up to a maximum of $100 a day.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> even though the benefits under the policy satisfy the conditions in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, because the policy pays a percentage of expenses incurred rather than a fixed dollar amount, the benefits under the policy are not excepted benefits under this paragraph (c)(4). This is the result even if, in practice, the policy pays the maximum of $100 for every day of hospitalization.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(iv) <I>Severability.</I> If any provision of this paragraph (c)(4) is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any entity or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, along with other provisions not found invalid or unenforceable, including as applied to entities not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of this paragraph (c)(4) and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Supplemental benefits.</I> (i) The following benefits are excepted only if they are provided under a separate policy, certificate, or contract of insurance—
</P>
<P>(A) Medicare supplemental health insurance (as defined under section 1882(g)(1) of the Social Security Act; also known as Medigap or MedSupp insurance);
</P>
<P>(B) Coverage supplemental to the coverage provided under Chapter 55, Title 10 of the United States Code (also known as TRICARE supplemental programs); and
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan.</I> To be similar supplemental coverage, the coverage must be specifically designed to fill gaps in the primary coverage. The preceding sentence is satisfied if the coverage is designed to fill gaps in cost sharing in the primary coverage, such as coinsurance or deductibles, or the coverage is designed to provide benefits for items and services not covered by the primary coverage and that are not essential health benefits (as defined under section 1302(b) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act) in the State where the coverage is issued, or the coverage is designed to both fill such gaps in cost sharing under, and cover such benefits not covered by, the primary coverage. Similar supplemental coverage does not include coverage that becomes secondary or supplemental only under a coordination-of-benefits provision.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (c)(5) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage for both active employees and retirees. The coverage for retirees supplements benefits provided by Medicare, but does not meet the requirements for a supplemental policy under section 1882(g)(1) of the Social Security Act.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the coverage provided to retirees does not meet the definition of supplemental excepted benefits under this paragraph (c)(5) because the coverage is not Medicare supplemental insurance as defined under section 1882(g)(1) of the Social Security Act, is not a TRICARE supplemental program, and is not supplemental to coverage provided under a group health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(d) <I>Treatment of partnerships.</I> For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Treatment as a group health plan.</I> Any plan, fund, or program that would not be (but for this paragraph (d)) an employee welfare benefit plan and that is established or maintained by a partnership, to the extent that the plan, fund, or program provides medical care (including items and services paid for as medical care) to present or former partners in the partnership or to their dependents (as defined under the terms of the plan, fund, or program), directly or through insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise, is treated (subject to paragraph (d)(2)) as an employee welfare benefit plan that is a group health plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employment relationship.</I> In the case of a group health plan, the term <I>employer</I> also includes the partnership in relation to any bona fide partner. In addition, the term <I>employee</I> also includes any bona fide partner. Whether or not an individual is a bona fide partner is determined based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, including whether the individual performs services on behalf of the partnership.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Participants of group health plans.</I> In the case of a group health plan, the term participant also includes any individual described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section if the individual is, or may become, eligible to receive a benefit under the plan or the individual's beneficiaries may be eligible to receive any such benefit.
</P>
<P>(i) In connection with a group health plan maintained by a partnership, the individual is a partner in relation to the partnership.
</P>
<P>(ii) In connection with a group health plan maintained by a self-employed individual (under which one or more employees are participants), the individual is the self-employed individual.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determining the average number of employees.</I> [Reserved] 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78778, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 51687, Oct. 7, 2009; 79 FR 10312, Feb. 24, 2014; 79 FR 59136, Oct. 1, 2014; 80 FR 14005, Mar. 18, 2015; 81 FR 75325, Oct. 31, 2016; 84 FR 29013, June 20, 2019; 89 FR 23415, Apr. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.734" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.734   Enforcement. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2590.736" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.16.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2590.736   Applicability dates.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 2590.701-1 through 2590.701-8 and 2590.731 through 2590.736 are applicable for plan years beginning on or after July 1, 2005. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, for short-term, limited-duration insurance sold or issued on or after September 1, 2024, the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in § 2590.701-2 applies for coverage periods beginning on or after September 1, 2024. For short-term, limited-duration insurance sold or issued before September 1, 2024 (including any subsequent renewal or extension consistent with applicable law), the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in 29 CFR 2590.701-2, revised as of July 1, 2023, continues to apply, except that paragraph (1)(ii) of the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in § 2590.701-2 applies for coverage periods beginning on or after September 1, 2024.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 23416, Apr. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2591-2599" NODE="29:9.1.2.12.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2591-2599 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XXVII" NODE="29:9.1.3" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XXVII—FEDERAL MINE SAFETY AND HEALTH REVIEW COMMISSION</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="2700" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2700—PROCEDURAL RULES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>30 U.S.C. 815, 820, and 823.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.1" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.1   Scope; applicability of other rules; construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part sets forth rules applicable to proceedings before the Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission (“the Commission”) and its Administrative Law Judges (“ALJs”). The Commission is an adjudicative agency that provides administrative trial and appellate review of legal disputes arising under the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977, 30 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I> (“the Act”). The Commission is an independent agency, not a part of nor affiliated in any way with the U.S. Department of Labor or its Mine Safety and Health Administration (“MSHA”). The location of the Commission's headquarters is at 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710; and its primary phone number is 202-434-9900. The Commission maintains a website at <I>http://www.fmshrc.gov</I> where these rules, recent and many past decisions of the Commission and its ALJs, and other information regarding the Commission, can be accessed.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the Commission provides otherwise, amendments to these rules are effective 60 days following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and apply to cases initiated after they take effect. They also apply to further proceedings in cases pending on the effective date, except to the extent that application of the amended rules would not be feasible, or would work injustice, in which event the former rules of procedure would continue to apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability of other rules.</I> On any procedural question not regulated by the Act, these Procedural Rules, or the Administrative Procedure Act (particularly 5 U.S.C. 554 and 556), the Commission and its ALJs shall be guided so far as practicable by the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure and the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction.</I> These rules shall be construed to secure the just, speedy and inexpensive determination of all proceedings, and to encourage the participation of miners and their representatives. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5617, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.2" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the definitions contained in section 3 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 802, apply. For ease of reference throughout this part, the “Secretary of Labor” or “Acting Secretary of Labor” shall be referred to as the “Secretary.” Similarly, a Commission Administrative Law Judge shall be referred to as an “ALJ.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5617, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.3" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.3   Who may appear before the Commission as a representative of a party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> When first making an appearance, each representative of a party must file a notice of appearance that indicates on whose behalf the appearance is made and the proceeding name and docket number.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may appear.</I> Persons who may represent a party or subpoenaed witness before an ALJ or the Commission include:
</P>
<P>(1) An attorney who is a member of a bar in good standing of the highest court of a State, Commonwealth, or Territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia where the attorney has been licensed to practice law, who will promptly disclose to the ALJ any action suspending, enjoining, restraining, disbarring, or otherwise currently restricting the attorney in the practice of law in any jurisdiction where the attorney is licensed to practice law;
</P>
<P>(2) A party;
</P>
<P>(3) A representative of miners;
</P>
<P>(4) An owner, partner, officer or employee of a party when the party is a labor organization, an association, a partnership, a corporation, a governmental agency, other business entity, or a political subdivision; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any other person with the permission of the presiding ALJ or the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Entry of appearance.</I> A representative of a party shall enter an appearance in a proceeding under the Act or these procedural rules by signing the first document filed on behalf of the party with the Commission or ALJ in accordance with § 2700.6; filing a written entry of appearance with the Commission or ALJ; or, if the Commission or ALJ permits, by orally entering an appearance in open hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duties.</I> All representatives authorized to appear before the Commission shall be subject to § 2700.80 (Standards of conduct; disciplinary proceedings). A representative must be diligent, prompt, and forthright when dealing with parties, other representatives and the ALJ, and act in a manner that furthers the fair and orderly conduct of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withdrawal of appearance.</I> A representative who desires to withdraw after filing a notice of appearance, or a party desiring to withdraw the appearance of a representative, must file a motion with the Commission or ALJ. The motion must state that a notice of the withdrawal has been provided to all parties. The Commission or ALJ may deny a representative's motion to withdraw when necessary to avoid undue delay or prejudice to the rights of a party. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5617, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.4" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.4   Parties, intervenors, and amici curiae.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Party status.</I> A person, including the Secretary or an operator, who is named as a party or who is permitted to intervene, is a party. In a proceeding instituted by the Secretary under section 105(c)(2) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(2), the complainant on whose behalf the Secretary has filed the complaint is a party and may present additional evidence. A miner, applicant for employment, or representative of a miner who has filed a complaint with the Commission under section 105(c)(3) or 111 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(3) and 821, and an affected miner or the miner's representative who has become a party in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, are parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Intervention</I>—(1) <I>Intervention by affected miners and their representatives.</I> Before a case has been assigned to an ALJ, affected miners or their representatives shall be permitted to intervene upon filing a written notice of intervention with the Commission. If the case has been assigned to an ALJ, the notice of intervention shall be filed with the ALJ. Notices of intervention shall be filed with the Commission or ALJ in accordance with § 2700.5(c). The Commission or the ALJ shall provide forthwith a copy of the notice to all parties. After the start of the hearing, affected miners or their representatives may intervene upon just terms and for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intervention by other persons.</I> (i) Motions by other persons for leave to intervene shall be filed before the start of a hearing on the merits unless the ALJ, for good cause shown, allows a later filing. The motion shall set forth:
</P>
<P>(A) The interest of the movant relating to the property or events that are the subject of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(B) The reasons why such interest is not otherwise adequately represented by the parties already involved in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(C) A showing that intervention will not unduly delay or prejudice the adjudication of the issues.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such intervention is not a matter of right but of the sound discretion of the ALJ. In denying a motion to intervene, the ALJ may alternatively permit the movant to participate in the proceeding as amicus curiae.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure for participation as amicus curiae.</I> Any person may move to participate as amicus curiae in a proceeding before an ALJ. Such participation as amicus curiae shall not be a matter of right but of the sound discretion of the ALJ. A motion for participation as amicus curiae shall set forth the interest of the movant and show that the granting of the motion will not unduly delay or prejudice the adjudication of the issues. If the ALJ permits amicus curiae participation, the ALJ's order shall specify the time within which such amicus curiae memorandum, brief, or other filing must be filed and the time within which a reply may be made. The movant may conditionally attach its memorandum, brief, or other filing to its motion for participation as amicus curiae. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5617, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.5" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.5   General requirements for pleadings and other documents; filing requirements; status or informational requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> A proposal for a penalty under section 110, 30 U.S.C. 820; an answer to a notice of contest of a citation or withdrawal order issued under section 104, 30 U.S.C. 814; an answer to a notice of contest of an order issued under section 107, 30 U.S.C. 817; a complaint issued under section 105(c) or 111, 30 U.S.C. 815(c) and 821; and an application for temporary reinstatement under section 105(c)(2), 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(2), shall allege that the violation or imminent danger took place in or involves a mine that has products which enter commerce or has operations or products that affect commerce. Jurisdictional facts that are alleged are deemed admitted unless specifically denied in a responsive pleading.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How to file.</I> Unless otherwise provided for in the Act, these rules, or by order, filing may be accomplished in person, by U.S. Postal Service, by third-party commercial carrier, or by electronic transmission. Instructions for electronic filing may be accessed on the Commission's website (<I>http://www.fmshrc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> Unless otherwise provided for in the Act, these rules, or by order:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Filing by electronic transmission.</I> A document may be filed by electronic transmission with the Commission and its ALJs. Instructions for electronic filing may be accessed on the Commission's website (<I>http://www.fmshrc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing in person, by U.S. Postal Service, or by third-party commercial carrier</I>—(i) <I>Before an ALJ has been assigned.</I> Before an ALJ has been assigned to a case, all documents shall be filed with the Commission. Documents filed with the Commission shall be addressed to the Docket Office, Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>After an ALJ has been assigned.</I> After an ALJ has been assigned, and before a decision has been issued, documents shall be filed with the ALJ at the address set forth on the notice of the assignment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>After an ALJ has issued a final decision.</I> After the ALJ has issued a final decision, documents shall be filed with the Commission as described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Necessary information.</I> All documents shall be legible and shall clearly identify on the cover page the filing party by name. All documents shall be dated and shall include the assigned docket number, page numbers, and the filing person's address, business telephone number, cellular telephone number if available, and email address if available. Written notice of any change in contact information shall be given promptly to the Commission or the ALJ and all other parties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privacy considerations.</I> Persons submitting information to the Commission shall protect information that tends to identify certain individuals, constitute an unwarranted intrusion of personal privacy, or disclose confidential commercial information as defined by 29 CFR 2702.6(a)(1) in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Social security numbers, financial account numbers, driver's license numbers, or other personal identifying numbers, shall be redacted or excluded;
</P>
<P>(2) Minor children shall be identified only by initials;
</P>
<P>(3) If dates of birth must be included, only the year shall be used;
</P>
<P>(4) Parties shall exercise caution when filing medical records, medical treatment records, medical diagnosis records, employment history, and individual financial information, and shall redact or exclude materials unnecessary to a disposition of the case, provided the party gives notice to other parties and the ALJ of the types of material redacted and the reason for such redactions.
</P>
<P>(5) Parties shall, consistent with 29 CFR 2702.6, exercise caution when providing corporate or commercial information and, with the permission of the ALJ, shall redact or exclude any portion of its filing unnecessary to a disposition of the case or shall designate by appropriate markings any portion that it considers to be confidential.
</P>
<P>(6) The Commission may order, sua sponte or pursuant to a party's motion, that a filing be submitted for in-camera review or placed under seal. The Commission may subsequently unseal the filing or order the person who made the submission to substitute a redacted version in the record. Prior to unsealing a filing, the Commission shall provide the party that submitted the filing a reasonable opportunity to object to the unsealing or to withdraw the filing. If no response is received, the Commission will take appropriate action at its discretion. No placements under seal, redactions or withdrawals shall be permitted during the pendency of a subpoena duces tecum validly issued to the Commission or a valid request pursuant to 29 CFR part 2702 related to the filing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective date of filing.</I> Unless otherwise provided for in the Act, these rules, or by order:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Filing by electronic transmission.</I> When filing is by electronic transmission, filing is effective upon successful receipt by the Commission. The electronic transmission shall be in the manner specified by the Commission's website (<I>http://www.fmshrc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing in person, by U.S. Postal Service, or by third-party commercial carrier.</I> When filing is by U.S. Postal Service, filing is effective upon mailing, except that the filing of a motion for extension of time, any document in an emergency response plan dispute proceeding, a petition for review of a temporary reinstatement order, a motion for summary decision, a petition for discretionary review, and a motion to exceed page limit is effective only upon receipt. <I>See</I> §§ 2700.9(a), 2700.24(d), 2700.45(f), 2700.67(a), 2700.70(a), (f), and 2700.75(f). When filing is in person or by third-party commercial carrier, filing is effective upon successful receipt by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise ordered or stated in this part, only the original of a document shall be filed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Form of filings.</I> All documents, including those filed electronically, shall appear in at least 12-point type on paper 8
<FR>1/2</FR> by 11 inches in size, with margins of at least 1 inch on all four sides. Text and footnotes shall appear in the same size type. Text shall be double spaced. Headings and footnotes may be single spaced. Quotations of 50 words or more may be single spaced and indented left and right. Excessive footnotes are prohibited. The failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (h) or the use of compacted or otherwise compressed printing features may be grounds for rejection of a filing.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Citation to a decision of an ALJ.</I> Each citation to a decision of an ALJ should include “(ALJ)” at the end of the citation.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Status or informational requests.</I> Information concerning filing requirements, the status of cases, or docket information may be accessed through the Commission's website (<I>http://www.fmshrc.gov</I>). In the event such information is unavailable through the Commission's website or the requesting party does not have access to the website, such status or informational requests must be directed to the Docket Office of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710; 202-434-9950.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5618, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.6" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.6   Signing of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Signature.</I> All documents filed with the Commission must be signed by a party or representative of the party.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Documents not filed by electronic transmission.</I> A party or representative of the party shall sign a document by handwritten signature.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documents filed by electronic transmission.</I> (i) A party or representative of the party may sign a document by including the notation “/s/” followed by the typewritten name of the party or representative of the party filing the document.
</P>
<P>(ii) A party or representative of the party may sign a document by including a graphical duplicate of the handwritten signature.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Meaning of signature.</I> A document or signature may not be denied legal effect or enforceability solely because it is in electronic form. When a party or representative of the party signs a document in the manner described in paragraph (a) of this section, that person's signature shall constitute a certification:
</P>
<P>(1) That under the provisions of the law, including these rules and all federal conflict of interest statutes, the person is authorized and qualified to represent the particular party in the matter; and
</P>
<P>(2) That the person has read the document; that based on knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry it is well grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and that it is not interposed for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5619, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.7" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.7   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> A copy of each document filed with the Commission shall be served on all parties. Whenever a party is represented by an attorney or other authorized representative who has entered an appearance on behalf of such party pursuant to § 2700.3, service thereafter shall be made upon the attorney or other authorized representative. In addition, a copy of a notice of contest of a citation or order, a petition for assessment of penalty, a discrimination or interference complaint, a complaint for compensation, and an application for temporary relief shall be served upon the representative of miners, if known.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting.</I> A copy of an order, citation, notice, or decision required under section 109 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 819, to be posted on a mine bulletin board shall, upon receipt, be immediately posted on such bulletin board by the operator.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manner of service.</I> Unless otherwise provided for in the Act, these rules, or by order:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Methods of service.</I> Documents may be served in person, by U.S. Postal Service, by third-party commercial carrier, or by email or other electronic transmission. For documents filed pursuant to §§ 2700.9(a), 2700.24, 2700.45, 2700.70(f), 2700.75(f), and subpart F (applications for temporary relief), the method of service used must be no less expeditious than that used for filing, except that if service by email or other electronic transmission is impossible, the filing party must serve in person, or by third-party commercial carrier, resulting in same-day delivery.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective date of service.</I> When service is by U.S. Postal service, service is effective upon mailing. When service is in person, by third-party commercial carrier, or by email or other electronic transmission, service is effective upon successful receipt by the party intended to be served.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Proof of service.</I> All pleadings and other filed documents shall be accompanied by a certification setting forth the date, method of service, and all contact information used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 77357, Dec. 23, 2013, as amended at 90 FR 5619, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.8" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.8   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise provided for in the Act, these rules, or by order, the due date for a filing or other deadline for party or Commission action (hereinafter “due date”) is determined sequentially as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Except to the extent otherwise provided herein (see, e.g., §§ 2700.24 and 2700.45), when the period of time prescribed for action is less than 11 days, Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays shall be excluded in determining the due date.
</P>
<P>(b) When a party serves a filing by a method of delivery resulting in other than same-day service, the due date for party action in response is extended 5 additional calendar days beyond the date otherwise prescribed, after consideration of paragraph (a) of this section where applicable. (n.b. A proposed penalty assessment is not a filing with the Commission and additional days are not added to the time for responding to a proposed assessment.)
</P>
<P>(c) The day from which the designated period begins to run shall not be included in determining the due date. The last day of the prescribed period for action, after consideration of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section where applicable, shall be included and be the due date, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, federal holiday, or other day on which the Commission's offices are not open or the Commission is open but unable to accept filings, in which event the due date shall be the next day which is not one of the aforementioned days.
</P>
<P>(d) The time of filing with the Commission shall be determined using Washington, DC, local time. For filing by electronic means, the due date ends at midnight Washington, DC, local time. For filing by other means, the due date ends at 5:00 p.m. Washington, DC, local time.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Example 1.</I> A motion is filed with the Commission on Wednesday, July 2, 2025. Under § 2700.10(d), other parties in the proceeding have 8 days in which to respond to the motion. Because the response period is less than 11 days, intervening weekends and holidays, such as Friday, July 4, 2025, are excluded in determining the due date. A response is thus due by Tuesday, July 15, 2025. In addition, those parties not served with the motion on the day it was filed have 5 additional calendar days in which to respond, or until Monday, July 21, 2025.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> An ALJ issues a final decision in a case on Friday, July 11, 2025. Under § 2700.70(a), parties have until August 11, 2025, to file with the Commission a petition for discretionary review of the ALJ's decision. Even though the decision was mailed, 5 additional calendar days are not added, because paragraph (b) of this section only applies to actions in response to parties' filings. However, because August 10, 2025, is a Sunday, the actual due date for the petition is Monday, August 11, 2025.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> Pursuant to § 2700.24(a), the Secretary files a referral of a citation arising out of a dispute over the content of an operator's emergency response plan. Certain subsequent deadlines in such cases are specifically established by reference to calendar days, and thus paragraph (a) of this section would not necessarily apply in determining due dates. For instance, if the referral was filed on Thursday, July 10, 2025, the short and plain statement the operator must file in response within 5 calendar days would be due Tuesday, July 15, 2025, because the intervening weekend days would not be excluded in determining the due date. If the fifth calendar day were to fall on a weekend, holiday, or other day on which the Commission is not open however, the terms of paragraph (c) of this section would apply and the due date would be the next day the Commission is open.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 77358, Dec. 23, 2013, as amended at 90 FR 5619, Jan. 17, 2025; 91 FR 8072, Feb. 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.9" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.9   Extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The time for filing or serving any document may be extended for good cause shown. Filing of a motion requesting an extension of time is effective upon receipt. A motion requesting an extension of time shall be received no later than 3 days prior to the expiration of the time allowed for the filing or serving of the document, and shall comply with § 2700.10. The motion and any statement in opposition shall include proof of service on all parties by a means of delivery no less expeditious than that used for filing the motion, except that if service by email or other electronic transmission is impossible, the filing party must serve in person, or by third-party commercial carrier, resulting in same-day delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) In exigent circumstances, an extension of time may be granted even though the request was filed after the designated time for filing has expired. In such circumstances, the party requesting the extension must show, in writing, the reasons for the party's failure to make the request before the time prescribed for the filing had expired.
</P>
<P>(c) This rule does not apply to petitions for discretionary review filed pursuant to section 113(d)(2)(A)(i) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 823(d)(2)(A)(i), and § 2700.70(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 48713, Sept. 8, 1999, as amended at 71 FR 44207, Aug. 4, 2006; 78 FR 77358, Dec. 23, 2013; 90 FR 5620, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.10" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.10   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an order shall be by motion which, unless made during a hearing or a conference, shall be made in writing and shall set forth the relief or order sought. Proceedings on any motion made at a hearing or during a conference shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>(b) Written motions shall be set forth in a document separate from other filings.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to filing any motion other than a dispositive motion, the moving party shall confer or make reasonable efforts to confer with the other parties and shall state in the motion if any other party opposes or does not oppose the motion.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement in opposition to a written motion may be filed by any party within 8 days after service upon the party. Unless otherwise ordered, oral argument on motions will not be heard. Where circumstances warrant, a motion may be ruled upon prior to the expiration of the time for response; a party adversely affected by the ruling may seek reconsideration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 48713, Sept. 8, 1999; 71 FR 44207, Aug. 4, 2006; 90 FR 5620, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.11" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.11   Withdrawal of filing.</HEAD>
<P>A party may withdraw a filing at any stage of a proceeding with the approval of the ALJ or the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5620, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.12" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.12   Consolidation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission and its ALJs may at any time, upon their own motion or a party's motion, order the consolidation of proceedings that involve similar issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5620, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Contests of Citations and Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.20" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.20   Notice of contest of a citation or order issued under section 104 of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may contest.</I> (1) An operator may contest:
</P>
<P>(i) A citation or an order issued under section 104 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 814;
</P>
<P>(ii) A modification of a citation or an order issued under section 104 of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The reasonableness of the length of time fixed for abatement in a citation or modification thereof issued under section 104 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) A miner or representative of miners may contest:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuance, modification or termination of any order issued under section 104 of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasonableness of the length of time fixed for abatement in a citation or modification thereof issued under section 104 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time to contest.</I> Contests filed by an operator pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be filed with the Secretary at the appropriate Regional Solicitor's Office or at the Solicitor's Office, Mine Safety and Health Division, Washington, DC, within 30 days of receipt by the operator of the contested citation, order, or modification. Contests filed by a miner or representative of miners pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be filed in the same manner within 30 days of receipt by the miner or representative of miners of the contested order, modification, or termination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification by the Secretary.</I> The Secretary, in accordance with section 105(d) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(d), shall immediately advise the Commission of such notice of contest upon its receipt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copy to Commission.</I> The contesting party shall also file a copy of the notice of contest with the Commission at the time the party files with the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contents of notice of contest.</I> (1) A notice of contest shall contain a short and plain statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) The party's position with respect to each issue of law and fact that the party contends is pertinent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The relief requested by the party.
</P>
<P>(2) A legible copy of the contested citation or order shall be attached to the notice of contest. If a legible copy is not available, the notice of contest shall set forth the text of the contested citation or order.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Answer.</I> Within 20 days after service of a notice of contest, the Secretary shall file an answer responding to each allegation of the notice of contest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 90 FR 5620, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.21" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.21   Effect of filing notice of contest of citation or order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The filing of a notice of contest of a citation or order issued under section 104 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 814, does not constitute a challenge to a proposed penalty assessment that may subsequently be issued by the Secretary under section 105(a) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(a), which is based on that citation or order. A challenge to such a proposed penalty assessment must be filed as a separate notice of contest of the proposed penalty assessment. <I>See</I> § 2700.26.
</P>
<P>(b) An operator's failure to file a notice of contest of a citation or order issued under section 104 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 814, shall not preclude the operator from challenging, in a penalty proceeding, the fact of violation or any special findings contained in a citation or order including the assertion in the citation or order that the violation was of a significant and substantial nature or was caused by the operator's unwarrantable failure to comply with the standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 44207, Aug. 4, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.22" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.22   Notice of contest of imminent danger withdrawal orders under section 107 of the Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time to file.</I> A notice of contest of a withdrawal order issued under section 107 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 817, or any modification or termination of the order, shall be filed with the Commission by the contesting party within 30 days of receipt of the order or any modification or termination of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice of contest.</I> (1) A notice of contest shall contain a short and plain statement of:
</P>
<P>(i) The contesting party's position on each issue of law and fact that the contesting party contends is pertinent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The relief requested by the contesting party.
</P>
<P>(2) A legible copy of the contested order shall be attached to the notice of contest. If a legible copy is not available, the notice of contest shall set forth the text of the contested order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer.</I> Within 15 days after service of the notice of contest, the Secretary shall file an answer responding to each allegation of the notice of contest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.23" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.23   Review of a subsequent citation or order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contesting party shall file any subsequent citation or order that modifies or terminates the citation or order under review within 30 days of its receipt. The notice of contest under section 105 or section 107 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815 and 817, unless withdrawn, shall be deemed to challenge any such subsequent citation or order.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who is not a party in a pending proceeding for review of a citation or order may obtain review of a modification or termination of the citation or order by filing a notice of contest under section 105 or section 107 of the Act. The notice of contest shall be filed within 30 days of receipt of the citation or order that modifies or terminates the citation or order being reviewed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.24" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.24   Emergency response plan dispute proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Referral by the Secretary.</I> The Secretary shall immediately refer to the Commission any citation arising from a dispute between the Secretary and an operator with respect to the content of the operator's emergency response plan, or any refusal by the Secretary to approve such a plan. Any referral made pursuant to this paragraph shall be made within two business days of the issuance of any such citation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of referral.</I> A referral shall consist of a notice of plan dispute describing the nature of the dispute; a copy of the citation issued by the Secretary; a short and plain statement of the Secretary's position with respect to any disputed plan provision; and a copy of the disputed provision of the emergency response plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Short and plain statement by the operator.</I> Within five calendar days following the filing of the referral, the operator shall file with the Commission a short and plain statement of its position with respect to the disputed plan provision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing and service of documents.</I> The filing with the Commission of any document in an emergency response plan dispute proceeding, including the referral, is effective upon receipt. A copy of each document filed with the Commission in such a proceeding shall be served on all parties and on any miner or miners' representative who has participated in the emergency response plan review process by a method of service no less expeditious than that used for filing, except that if service by email or other electronic transmission is impossible, the filing party must serve in person, or by third-party commercial carrier, resulting in same-day delivery.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Proceedings before the ALJ</I>—(1) <I>Submission of materials.</I> Within 15 calendar days of the referral, the parties shall submit to the ALJ assigned to the matter all relevant materials regarding the dispute. Such submissions shall include a request for any relief sought and may include proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. Such materials may be supported by affidavits or other verified documents, and shall specify the grounds upon which the party seeks relief. Supporting affidavits shall be made on personal knowledge and shall show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearing.</I> (i) Within 5 calendar days following the filing of the Secretary's referral, any party may request a hearing and shall so advise the Commission's Chief ALJ or designee, and simultaneously notify the other parties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 10 calendar days following the filing of the Secretary's referral, the Commission's Chief ALJ or designee may issue an order scheduling a hearing on the ALJ's own motion, and must immediately so notify the parties.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a hearing is ordered under paragraph (e)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section, the hearing shall be held within 15 calendar days of the filing of the referral. The scope of such a hearing is limited to the disputed plan provision or provisions. If no hearing is held, the ALJ assigned to the matter shall review the materials submitted by the parties pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and shall issue a decision pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disposition</I>—(1) <I>Decision of the ALJ.</I> Within 15 calendar days following receipt by the ALJ of all submissions and testimony made pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, the ALJ shall issue a decision that constitutes the ALJ's final disposition of the proceedings. The decision shall be in writing and shall include all findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons or bases for them, on all the material issues of fact, law or discretion presented by the record, and an order. The parties shall be notified of the ALJ's decision by the most expeditious means reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Stay of plan provision.</I> Notwithstanding § 2700.69(b), an ALJ shall retain jurisdiction over a request for a stay in an emergency response plan dispute proceeding. Within two business days following service of the decision, the operator may file with the ALJ a request to stay the inclusion of the disputed provision in the plan during the pendency of an appeal to the Commission pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. The Secretary shall respond to the operator's motion within two business days following service of the motion. The ALJ shall issue an order granting or denying the relief sought within two business days after the filing of the Secretary's response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review of decision.</I> Any party may seek review of an ALJ's decision, including the ALJ's order granting or denying a stay, by filing with the Commission a petition for discretionary review pursuant to § 2700.70. Neither an operator's request for a stay nor the issuance of an order addressing the stay request affects the time limits for filing a petition for discretionary review of an ALJ's decision with the Commission under this paragraph (g). The Commission shall act upon a petition on an expedited basis. If review is granted, the Commission shall issue a briefing order. Except as otherwise ordered or provided for herein, the provisions of § 2700.75 apply. The Commission will not grant motions for extension of time for filing briefs, except under extraordinary circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 2191, Jan. 18, 2007, as amended at 78 FR 77358, Dec. 23, 2013; 90 FR 5620, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Contests of Proposed Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.25" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.25   Proposed penalty assessment.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, by certified mail, shall notify the operator or any other person against whom a penalty is proposed of the violation alleged, the amount of the proposed penalty assessment, and that such person shall have 30 days to notify the Secretary of the intent to contest the proposed penalty assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5621, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.26" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.26   Notice of contest of proposed penalty assessment.</HEAD>
<P>A person has 30 days after receipt of the proposed penalty assessment within which to notify the Secretary of the contest of the proposed penalty assessment. A person who wishes to contest a proposed penalty assessment must provide such notification regardless of whether the person has previously contested the underlying citation or order pursuant to § 2700.20. The Secretary shall immediately transmit to the Commission any notice of contest of a proposed penalty assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5621, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.27" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.27   Effect of failure to contest proposed penalty assessment.</HEAD>
<P>If, within 30 days from the receipt of the proposed penalty assessment, the operator or other person fails to notify the Secretary of the contest of the proposed penalty, the Secretary's proposed penalty assessment shall be deemed to be a final order of the Commission not subject to review by any court or agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5621, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.28" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.28   Filing of petition for assessment of penalty with the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time to file.</I> Within 45 days of receipt of a timely contest of a proposed penalty assessment, the Secretary shall file with the Commission a petition for assessment of penalty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The petition for assessment of penalty shall:
</P>
<P>(1) List the alleged violations and the proposed penalties. Each violation shall be identified by the number and date of the citation or order and the section of the Act or regulations alleged to be violated. The list shall include no more than 20 citations or orders which are the subject of the petition for assessment of penalty.
</P>
<P>(2) Include a short and plain statement of supporting reasons based on the criteria for penalty assessment set forth in section 110(i) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 820(i).
</P>
<P>(3) State whether the citation or order has been contested pursuant to § 2700.20 and the docket number of any contest proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) Advise the party against whom the petition is filed that an answer to the petition must be filed within 30 days pursuant to § 2700.29 and that the answer must be filed regardless of whether the party has already filed a notice of contest of the citation, order, or proposed penalty assessment involved.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attachments.</I> A legible copy of each citation or order for which a penalty is sought shall be attached to the petition for assessment of penalty. If a legible copy is not available, the petition for assessment of penalty shall set forth the text of the citation or order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 44207, Aug. 4, 2006; 90 FR 5621, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.29" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.29   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>A party against whom a petition for assessment of penalty is filed shall file an answer within 30 days after service of the petition for assessment of penalty. An answer shall include a short and plain statement responding to each allegation of the petition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.30" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.30   Assessment of penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In assessing a penalty the ALJ shall determine the amount of penalty in accordance with the six statutory criteria contained in section 110(i) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 820(i), and incorporate such determination in a written decision. The decision shall contain findings of fact and conclusions of law on each of the statutory criteria and an order requiring that the penalty be paid.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the amount of penalty, neither the ALJ nor the Commission shall be bound by a penalty proposed by the Secretary or by any offer of settlement made by a party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5621, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.31" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.31   Penalty settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A proposed penalty that has been contested before the Commission may be settled only with the approval of the Commission upon motion. A settlement motion must be accompanied by a proposed order approving settlement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of motion</I>—(1) <I>Factual support.</I> A motion to approve a penalty settlement shall include for each violation the amount of the penalty proposed by the Secretary, the amount of the penalty agreed to in settlement, and facts in support of the penalty agreed to by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certification.</I> The party filing a motion must certify that the opposing party has authorized the filing party to represent that the opposing party consents to the granting of the motion and the entry of the proposed order approving settlement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of proposed order.</I> A proposed order approving a penalty settlement shall include for each violation the amount of the penalty proposed by the Secretary, the amount of the penalty agreed to in settlement, and facts in support of the penalty agreed to by the parties. Proposed orders shall not be submitted in PDF format.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing of motion and proposed order prior to filing of petition.</I> If a motion to approve settlement and proposed order is filed with the Commission before the Secretary has filed a petition for assessment of penalty, the filing party must also submit as attachments, electronic copies of the proposed penalty assessment and citations and orders at issue. If such attachments are filed, the Secretary need not file a petition for assessment of penalty.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final order.</I> Any order by the ALJ approving a settlement shall set forth the reasons for approval and shall be supported by the record. Such order shall become the final order of the Commission 40 days after issuance unless the Commission has directed that the order be reviewed. An ALJ may correct clerical errors in an order approving settlement in accordance with the provisions of § 2700.69(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5621, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Complaints for Compensation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.35" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.35   Time to file.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint for compensation under section 111 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 821, shall be filed within 90 days after the beginning of the period during which the complainants are idled or would have been idled by the order that gives rise to the claim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.36" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.36   Contents of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint for compensation shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) A short and plain statement of the facts giving rise to the claim, including the period for which compensation is claimed;
</P>
<P>(b) The total amount of the compensation claimed, if known; and
</P>
<P>(c) A legible copy of any pertinent order of withdrawal or, if a legible copy is not available, the text of the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.37" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.37   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after service of a complaint for compensation, the operator shall file an answer responding to each allegation of the complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Complaints of Discharge, Discrimination or Interference</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.40" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.40   Who may file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Secretary.</I> A discrimination or interference complaint under section 105(c)(2) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(2), shall be filed by the Secretary if, after an investigation conducted pursuant to section 105(c)(2), the Secretary determines that a violation of section 105(c)(1), 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(1), has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Miner, representative of miners, or applicant for employment.</I> A discrimination or interference complaint under section 105(c)(3) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(3), may be filed by the complaining miner, representative of miners, or applicant for employment if the Secretary, after investigation, has determined that the provisions of section 105(c)(1) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(1), have not been violated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5621, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.41" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.41   Time to file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Secretary.</I> A discrimination or interference complaint shall be filed by the Secretary within 30 days after the Secretary's written determination that a violation has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Miner, representative of miners, or applicant for employment.</I> A discrimination or interference complaint may be filed by a complaining miner, representative of miners, or applicant for employment within 30 days after receipt of a written determination by the Secretary that no violation has occurred.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5622, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.42" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.42   Contents of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>A discrimination or interference complaint shall include a short and plain statement of the facts, setting forth the alleged discharge, discrimination or interference, and a statement of the relief requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5622, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.43" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.43   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after service of a discrimination or interference complaint, the respondent shall file an answer responding to each allegation of the complaint.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5622, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.44" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.5.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.44   Petition for assessment of penalty in discrimination or interference cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition for assessment of penalty in Secretary's complaint.</I> A discrimination or interference complaint filed by the Secretary shall propose a civil penalty of a specific amount for the alleged violation of section 105(c) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(c). The petition for assessment of penalty shall include a short and plain statement of supporting reasons based on the criteria for penalty assessment set forth in section 110(i) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 820(i).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petition for assessment of penalty after sustaining of complaint by miner, representative of miners, or applicant for employment.</I> Immediately upon issuance of a decision by an ALJ sustaining a discrimination or interference complaint brought pursuant to section 105(c)(3), 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(3), the ALJ shall notify the Secretary in writing of such determination. The Secretary file with the Commission a petition for assessment of civil penalty within 45 days of receipt of such notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5622, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.45" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.5.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.45   Temporary reinstatement proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of documents.</I> A copy of each document filed with the Commission in a temporary reinstatement proceeding shall be served on all parties, the miner (in cases where the miner is without representation), and also on any representative of the complainant miner so identified in the miner's complaint to the Secretary or identified in subsequent filings, by a method of service as expeditious as that used for filing, except that, if service by email or other electronic transmission is impossible, the filing party must serve in person, or by third-party commercial carrier, resulting in same-day delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of application.</I> An application for temporary reinstatement shall state the Secretary's finding that the miner's discrimination or interference complaint was not frivolously brought and shall be accompanied by an affidavit setting forth the Secretary's reasons supporting this finding. The application also shall include a copy of the miner's complaint to the Secretary and proof of notice to and service on the person against whom relief is sought by the most expeditious method of notice and delivery reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for hearing.</I> Within 10 calendar days following receipt of the Secretary's application for temporary reinstatement, the person against whom relief is sought shall advise the Commission's Chief ALJ or designee, and simultaneously notify the Secretary, the miner (in cases where the miner is without representation), and any miner's representative who is due service under paragraph (a) of this section, whether a hearing on the application is requested. If no hearing is requested, the ALJ assigned to the matter shall immediately review the Secretary's application and, if based on the contents thereof the ALJ determines that the miner's complaint was not frivolously brought, the ALJ shall immediately issue a written order of temporary reinstatement. If a hearing on the application is requested, the hearing shall be held within 10 calendar days following receipt of the request for hearing by the Commission's Chief ALJ or designee, unless compelling reasons are shown in an accompanying request for an extension of time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing.</I> The scope of a hearing on an application for temporary reinstatement is limited to a determination as to whether the miner's complaint was frivolously brought. The burden of proof shall be upon the Secretary to establish that the complaint was not frivolously brought. In support of the application for temporary reinstatement, the Secretary may limit presentation to the testimony of the complainant. The respondent shall have an opportunity to cross-examine any witnesses called by the Secretary and may present testimony and documentary evidence in support of its position that the complaint was frivolously brought.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Order on application.</I> (1) Within 7 calendar days following the close of a hearing on an application for temporary reinstatement, the ALJ shall issue a written order granting or denying the application. However, in extraordinary circumstances, the ALJ's time for issuing an order may be extended as deemed necessary by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) The ALJ's order shall include findings and conclusions supporting the determination as to whether the miner's complaint has been frivolously brought.
</P>
<P>(3) The parties shall be notified of the ALJ's determination by the most expeditious means reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(4) An ALJ's order temporarily reinstating a miner is not a final decision within the meaning of § 2700.69, and except during appellate review of such order by the Commission or courts, the ALJ shall retain jurisdiction over the temporary reinstatement proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review of order.</I> Review by the Commission of an ALJ's written order granting or denying an application for temporary reinstatement may be sought by filing with the Commission a petition, which shall be captioned “Petition for Review of Temporary Reinstatement Order,” with supporting arguments, within 5 business days following receipt of the ALJ's written order. The filing of any such petition is effective upon receipt. The filing of a petition shall not stay the effect of the ALJ's order unless the Commission so directs; a motion for such a stay will be granted only under extraordinary circumstances. Any response shall be filed within 5 business days following service of a petition. Filings under this rule shall include proof of service on all parties by a means of delivery no less expeditious than that used for filing, except that if service by email or other electronic transmission is impossible, the filing party must serve in person, or by third-party commercial carrier, resulting in same-day delivery. The Commission's ruling on a petition shall be made on the basis of the petition and any response (any further briefs will be entertained only at the express direction of the Commission), and shall be rendered within 10 calendar days following receipt of any response or the expiration of the period for filing such response. In extraordinary circumstances, the Commission's time for decision may be extended.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Dissolution of order.</I> If, following an order of temporary reinstatement, the Secretary determines that the provisions of section 105(c)(1), 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(1), have not been violated, the ALJ shall be so notified. An order dissolving the order of reinstatement shall not bar the filing of an action by the miner on the miner's own behalf under section 105(c)(3) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(c)(3), and § 2700.40(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5622, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Applications for Temporary Relief</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.46" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.46   Procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When to file.</I> As provided in section 105(b)(2) of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 815(b)(2), an application for temporary relief from any modification or termination of any order or from any order issued under section 104 of the Act, 30 U.S.C. 814, may be filed at any time before such order becomes final. No temporary relief shall be granted with respect to a citation issued under section 104(a) or (f) of the Act. 30 U.S.C. 814(a) and (f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statements in opposition.</I> Any party opposing the application shall file a statement in opposition within 4 days after receipt of the application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prior hearing required.</I> Temporary relief shall not be granted prior to a hearing on such application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service of documents.</I> A copy of each document filed with the Commission under subpart F of this part must be served on all parties by a means of delivery no less expeditious than that used for filing, except that if service by email or other electronic transmission is impossible, the filing party must serve in person, or by third-party commercial carrier, resulting in same-day delivery.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 78 FR 77359, Dec. 23, 2013; 90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.47" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.47   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for temporary relief shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A showing of substantial likelihood that the findings and decision of the ALJ or the Commission will be favorable to the applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the specific relief requested; and
</P>
<P>(3) A showing that such relief will not adversely affect the health and safety of miners in the affected mine.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for temporary relief may be supported by affidavits or other evidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.50" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.50   Assignment of ALJs.</HEAD>
<P>ALJs shall be assigned cases in rotation as far as practicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.51" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.51   Hearing dates and sites.</HEAD>
<P>All cases will be assigned a hearing date and site by order of the ALJ. In fixing the time and place of the hearing, the ALJ shall give due regard to the convenience and necessity of the parties or their representatives and witnesses, the availability of suitable hearing facilities, and other relevant factors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.52" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.52   Expedition of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motions.</I> In addition to making a written motion pursuant to § 2700.10, a party may request expedition of proceedings by oral motion, with concurrent notice to all parties. Oral motions shall be reduced to writing within 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of hearing.</I> Unless all parties consent to an earlier hearing, an expedited hearing on the merits of the case shall not be held on less than 4 days notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 44208, Aug. 4, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.53" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.53   Prehearing conferences and statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may require the parties to participate in a prehearing conference, either in person or by telephone or other video/audio teleconferencing. Notwithstanding the mandatory recordings of motions on the record in accordance with § 2700.10(a), any in-person or telephonic conference shall be recorded at a party's request or within the ALJ's discretion. The participants at any such conference may consider and take action with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) The formulation and simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) The possibility of obtaining stipulations, admissions of fact and of documents that will avoid unnecessary proof and advance rulings from the ALJ on the admissibility of evidence;
</P>
<P>(3) The exchange of exhibits and the names of witnesses and a synopsis of the testimony expected from each witness;
</P>
<P>(4) The necessity or desirability of amendments to the filings and the joinder of parties;
</P>
<P>(5) The possibility of agreement disposing of any or all of the issues in dispute;
</P>
<P>(6) Such other matters as may aid in the expedition of the hearing or the disposition of the case.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ may also require the parties to submit prehearing statements addressing one or more of the matters set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.54" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.54   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Except in expedited proceedings, written notice of the time, place, and nature of the hearing, the legal authority under which the hearing is to be held, and the matters of fact and law asserted shall be given to all parties at least 20 days before the date set for hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.55" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.55   Powers of ALJs.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to these rules, an ALJ is empowered to:
</P>
<P>(a) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(b) Issue subpoenas authorized by law;
</P>
<P>(c) Rule on offers of proof and receive relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(d) Order depositions to be taken;
</P>
<P>(e) Regulate the course of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(f) Hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(g) Dispose of procedural requests or similar matters;
</P>
<P>(h) Make decisions in the proceedings, provided that the ALJ shall not be assigned to make a recommended decision; and
</P>
<P>(i) Take other action authorized by these rules, by 5 U.S.C. 556, or by the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.56" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.56   Discovery; general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discovery methods.</I> Parties may obtain discovery by one or more of the following methods: Depositions upon oral examination or written questions; written interrogatories; or requests for admissions, for production of documents or objects or for permission to enter upon property for inspecting, copying, photographing, and gathering information. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of discovery.</I> Parties may obtain discovery of any relevant, non-privileged matter that is admissible evidence or appears likely to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation of discovery.</I> Upon motion by a party or by the person from whom discovery is sought or upon the ALJ's own motion, an ALJ may, for good cause shown, limit discovery to prevent undue delay or to protect a party or person from oppression or undue burden or expense. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Initiation of discovery.</I> Discovery may be initiated after an answer to a notice of contest, an answer to a petition for assessment of penalty, or an answer to a complaint under section 105(c) or 111 of the Act has been filed. 30 U.S.C. 815(c) and 821.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Completion of discovery.</I> Discovery shall not unduly delay or otherwise impede disposition of the case, and must be completed at least 20 days prior to the scheduled hearing date. For good cause shown, the ALJ may extend or shorten the time for discovery.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 44208, Aug. 4, 2006; 90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.57" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.57   Depositions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> Any party, without leave of the ALJ, may take the testimony of any person, including a party, by deposition upon oral examination or written interrogatories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Orders for deposition.</I> If the parties are unable to agree, the time, place, and manner of taking depositions shall be governed by order of the <I>ALJ.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.58" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.58   Interrogatories, requests for admissions and requests for production of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interrogatories.</I> Any party, without leave of the ALJ, may serve written interrogatories upon another party. A party served with interrogatories shall answer each interrogatory separately and fully in writing under oath within 25 days of service unless the proponent of the interrogatories agrees to a longer time. The ALJ may order a shorter or longer time period for responding. A party objecting to an interrogatory shall state the basis for the objection in its answer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for admissions.</I> Any party, without leave of the ALJ, may serve on another party a written request for admissions. A party served with a request for admissions shall respond to each request separately and fully in writing within 25 days of service, unless the party making the request agrees to a longer time. The ALJ may order a shorter or longer time period for responding. A party objecting to a request for admissions shall state the basis for the objection in its response. Any matter admitted under this rule is conclusively established for the purpose of the pending proceeding unless the ALJ, on motion, permits withdrawal or amendment of the admission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for production, entry or inspection.</I> Any party, without leave of the ALJ, may serve on another party a written request to produce and permit inspection, copying or photocopying of designated documents or objects, or to permit a party or its agent to enter upon designated property to inspect and gather information. A party served with such a request shall respond in writing within 25 days of service unless the party making the request agrees to a longer time. The ALJ may order a shorter or longer period for responding. A party objecting to a request for production, entry or inspection shall state the basis for the objection in its response. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5623, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.59" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.59   Failure to cooperate in discovery; sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the failure of any person, including a party, to respond to a discovery request or upon an objection to such a request, the party seeking discovery may file a motion with the ALJ requesting an order compelling discovery. If any person, including a party, fails to comply with an order compelling discovery, the ALJ may make such orders with regard to the failure as are just and appropriate, including deeming as established the matters sought to be discovered or dismissing the proceeding in favor of the party seeking discovery. For good cause shown the ALJ may excuse an objecting party from complying with the request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.60" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.60   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Compulsory attendance of witnesses and production of documents.</I> The Commission and its ALJs are authorized to issue subpoenas, on their own motion or on the oral or written application of a party, requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents or physical evidence. A subpoena may be served by any person who is at least 18 years of age. A subpoena may also be served by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, but, in such case, any risk of delivery is on the serving party. A copy of the subpoena bearing a certificate of service shall be filed with the Commission or the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees payable to witnesses.</I> Subpoenaed witnesses shall be paid the same fees and mileage as are paid in the district courts of the United States. The witness fees and mileage shall be paid by the party at whose request the witness appears, or by the Commission if a witness is subpoenaed on the motion of the Commission or an ALJ. This paragraph does not apply to Government employees who are called as witnesses by the Government.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motions to revoke or modify subpoenas.</I> Any person served with a subpoena may move within 5 days of service or at the hearing, whichever is sooner, to revoke or modify the subpoena. The Commission or the ALJ, as appropriate, shall revoke or modify the subpoena if it seeks information outside the proper scope of discovery as set forth in § 2700.56(b); or if it does not describe with sufficient particularity the evidence required to be produced; or if for any other reason it is found to be invalid or unreasonable. The Commission or the ALJ shall set forth a concise statement of the grounds for such ruling.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of transcript.</I> Persons compelled to submit evidence at a public proceeding are entitled to obtain, on payment of prescribed costs, a transcript of that part of the proceeding that sets forth their testimony or refers to their production of evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to comply.</I> Upon the failure of any person to comply with an order to testify or with a subpoena issued by the Commission or the ALJ, the ALJ or the Commission's General Counsel, at the request of the ALJ or at the direction of the Commission, may undertake to initiate proceedings in the appropriate district court of the United States for the enforcement of the subpoena. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.61" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.61   Name of miner informant.</HEAD>
<P>An ALJ shall not, except in extraordinary circumstances, disclose or order a person to disclose to an operator or its agent the name of an informant who is a miner. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.62" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.62   Name of miner witness.</HEAD>
<P>An ALJ shall not, until 2 days before a hearing, disclose or order a person to disclose to an operator or its agent the name of a miner who is expected by the ALJ to testify or whom a party expects to summon or call as a witness. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.63" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.63   Evidence; presentation of case.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Relevant evidence, including hearsay evidence, that is not unduly repetitious or cumulative is admissible. 
</P>
<P>(b) The proponent of an order has the burden of proof. A party shall have the right to present a case or defense by oral or documentary evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.64" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.64   Exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>All exhibits received in evidence in a hearing or submitted for the record in any proceeding before the Commission shall be deemed part of the official record of the proceeding. The withdrawal of original exhibits may be permitted by the Commission or the ALJ, upon request and after notice to the other parties, if true copies are substituted, where practical, for the originals. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.65" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.65   Proposed findings, conclusions and orders.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may require the submission of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and orders, together with supporting briefs. The proposals shall be served upon all parties, and shall contain adequate references to the record and authorities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.66" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.66   Summary disposition of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> When a party fails to comply with an order of an ALJ or these rules, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an order to show cause shall be directed to the party before the entry of any order of default or dismissal. The order shall be provided to the party by the most expeditious means reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to attend hearing.</I> If a party fails to attend a scheduled hearing, the ALJ, where appropriate, may find the party in default or dismiss the proceeding without issuing an order to show cause.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Penalty proceedings.</I> When the ALJ finds a party in default in a civil penalty proceeding, the ALJ shall also enter an order assessing appropriate penalties and directing that such penalties be paid. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.67" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.67   Summary decision of the Judge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of motion for summary decision.</I> At any time after commencement of a proceeding and no later than 25 days before the date fixed for the hearing on the merits, a party may move the ALJ to render summary decision disposing of all or part of the proceeding. Filing of a summary decision motion and an opposition thereto shall be effective upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds.</I> A motion for summary decision shall be granted only if the entire record, including the pleadings, depositions, answers to interrogatories, admissions, and affidavits, shows: 
</P>
<P>(1) That there is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That the moving party is entitled to summary decision as a matter of law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of motion.</I> A motion shall be accompanied by a memorandum of points and authorities specifying the grounds upon which the party seeks summary decision and a statement of material facts specifying each material fact as to which the party contends there is no genuine issue. Each material fact set forth in the statement shall be supported by a reference to accompanying affidavits or other verified documents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of opposition.</I> An opposition to a motion for summary decision shall include a memorandum of points and authorities specifying why the moving party is not entitled to summary decision and may be supported by affidavits or other verified documents. The opposition shall also include a separate concise statement of each genuine issue of material fact necessary to be litigated, supported by a reference to any accompanying affidavits or other verified documents. Material facts identified as not in issue by the moving party shall be deemed admitted for purposes of the motion unless controverted by the statement in opposition. If a party does not respond in opposition, summary decision, if appropriate, shall be entered in favor of the moving party.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Affidavits.</I> Supporting and opposing affidavits shall be made on personal knowledge and shall show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated. Sworn or certified copies of all papers or parts of papers referred to in an affidavit shall be attached to the affidavit or be incorporated by reference if not otherwise a matter of record. The ALJ shall permit affidavits to be supplemented or opposed by depositions, answers to interrogatories, admissions, or further affidavits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Case not fully adjudicated on motion.</I> If a motion for summary decision is denied in whole or in part, the ALJ shall ascertain what material facts are controverted and shall issue an order directing further proceedings as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 44208, Aug. 4, 2006; 90 FR 5625, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.68" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.68   Substitution of the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> Should an ALJ become unavailable to the Commission, the proceedings assigned to that ALJ shall be reassigned to a substitute ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substitution following a hearing.</I> The substitute ALJ may render a decision based upon the existing record, provided the parties are notified of the ALJ's intent and they are given an opportunity to object. An objection to the ALJ rendering a decision based upon the existing record shall be filed within 10 days following receipt of the ALJ's notice, or the objection shall be deemed to be waived. An objection shall be founded upon a showing of a need for the resolution of conflicting material testimony requiring credibility determinations. Upon good cause shown the ALJ may order a further hearing on the merits, which shall be limited, so far as practicable, to the testimony in dispute. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5624, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.69" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.7.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.69   Decision of the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form and content of the ALJ's decision.</I> The ALJ shall make a decision that constitutes a final disposition of the proceedings. The decision shall be in writing and shall include all findings of fact and conclusions of law, and the reasons or bases for them, on all the material issues of fact, law or discretion presented by the record, and an order. If a decision is announced orally from the bench, it shall be reduced to writing after the filing of the transcript. An order by an ALJ approving a settlement proposal is a decision of the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of the ALJ's jurisdiction.</I> Except to the extent otherwise provided herein, the jurisdiction of the ALJ terminates when the ALJ's decision has been issued.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Correction of clerical errors.</I> At any time before the Commission has directed that an ALJ's decision be reviewed, and on the ALJ's own motion or the motion of a party, the ALJ may correct clerical errors in decisions, orders, or other parts of the record. After the Commission has directed that an ALJ's decision be reviewed, the ALJ may correct such errors with the leave of the Commission. If an ALJ's decision has become the final order of the Commission, the ALJ may correct such errors with the leave of the Commission. Neither the filing of a motion to correct a clerical error, nor the issuance of an order or amended decision correcting a clerical error, shall toll the time for filing a petition for discretionary review of the ALJ's decision on the merits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of decision of the ALJ.</I> A decision of an ALJ is not a precedent binding upon the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5625, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Review by the Commission</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.70" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.70   Petitions for discretionary review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure.</I> Any person adversely affected or aggrieved by an ALJ's decision or order may file with the Commission a petition for discretionary review within 30 days after issuance of the decision or order. Filing of a petition for discretionary review is effective upon receipt. Two or more parties may join in the same petition; the Commission may consolidate related petitions. Procedures governing petitions for review of temporary reinstatement orders are found at § 2700.45(f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review discretionary.</I> Review by the Commission shall not be a matter of right but of the sound discretion of the Commission. Review by the Commission shall be granted only by affirmative vote of at least two of the Commissioners present and voting.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Grounds.</I> Petitions for discretionary review shall be filed only upon one or more of the following grounds:
</P>
<P>(1) A finding or conclusion of material fact is not supported by substantial evidence;
</P>
<P>(2) A necessary legal conclusion is erroneous;
</P>
<P>(3) The decision is contrary to law or to the duly promulgated rules or decisions of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(4) A substantial question of law, policy, or discretion is involved; or
</P>
<P>(5) A prejudicial error of procedure was committed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements.</I> Each issue shall be separately numbered and plainly and concisely stated, and shall be supported by detailed citations to the record, when assignments of error are based on the record, and by statutes, regulations, or other principal authorities relied upon. Except by permission of the Commission and for good cause shown, petitions for discretionary review shall not exceed 35 pages. Except for good cause shown, no assignment of error by any party shall rely on any question of fact or law upon which the ALJ had not been afforded an opportunity to pass.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Statement in opposition to petition.</I> A statement in opposition to a petition for discretionary review may be filed, but the opportunity for such filing shall not require the Commission to delay its action on the petition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motion for leave to exceed page limit.</I> A motion requesting leave to exceed the page limit shall be received not less than 3 days prior to the date the petition for discretionary review is due to be filed, shall state the total number of pages proposed, and shall comply with § 2700.10. Filing of a motion requesting an extension of page limit is effective upon receipt. The motion and any statement in opposition shall include proof of service on all parties by a means of delivery no less expeditious than that used for filing the motion, except that if service by email or other electronic transmission is impossible, the filing party must serve in person, or by third-party commercial carrier, resulting in same-day delivery.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Scope of review.</I> If a petition is granted, review shall be limited to the issues raised by the petition, unless the Commission directs review of additional issues pursuant to § 2700.71.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Denial of petition.</I> A petition not granted within 40 days after the issuance of the ALJ's decision is deemed denied. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5625, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.71" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.71   Review by the Commission on its own motion.</HEAD>
<P>At any time within 30 days after the issuance of an ALJ's decision, the Commission may, by the affirmative vote of at least two of the Commissioners present and voting, direct the case for review on its own motion. Review shall be directed only upon the ground that the decision may be contrary to law or Commission policy or that a novel question of policy has been presented. The Commission shall state in such direction for review the specific issue of law, Commission policy, or novel question of policy to be reviewed. Review shall be limited to the issues specified in such direction for review. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5625, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.72" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.72   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.73" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.73   Procedure for intervention.</HEAD>
<P>After the Commission has directed a case for review, a person may move to intervene. A motion to intervene shall be filed within 30 days after the Commission's direction for review unless the Commission, for good cause shown, allows a later filing. Intervention before the Commission shall not be a matter of right but of the sound discretion of the Commission. The movant shall set forth: 
</P>
<P>(a) A legally protectible interest directly relating to the property or events that are the subject of the case on review; 
</P>
<P>(b) A showing that the disposition of the proceeding may impair or impede the movant's ability to protect that interest; 
</P>
<P>(c) The reasons why the movant's interest is not adequately represented by parties already involved in the proceeding; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The reasons why the movant should be excused for failing to file for intervention before the ALJ. A motion for intervention shall also show that the granting of the motion will not unduly delay the proceeding or prejudice any party and shall explain why the movant's participation as an amicus curiae would be inadequate. If the Commission permits intervention, the Commission's order shall specify the time within which the intervenor's brief and any response or reply may be filed. In denying a motion to intervene, the Commission may alternatively permit the movant to participate in the proceeding as amicus curiae. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 90 FR 5626, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.74" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.74   Procedure for participation as amicus curiae.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the Commission has directed a case for review, any person may move to participate as amicus curiae. Such participation before the Commission shall not be a matter of right but of the sound discretion of the Commission. A motion for participation as amicus curiae shall set forth the interest of the movant; indicate which party's position, if any, the movant supports; the reason why an amicus brief is desirable and why the matters asserted are relevant to the disposition of the case; and show that the granting of the motion will not unduly delay the proceeding or prejudice any party. The movant may conditionally attach its brief to its motion for participation as amicus curiae. 
</P>
<P>(b) The brief of an amicus curiae shall be filed within the initial briefing period (<I>see</I> § 2700.75(a)(1)) allotted to the party whose position the amicus curiae supports.
</P>
<P>(c) In the interest of avoiding duplication of argument, however, the Commission may permit the filing of an amicus curiae brief within 20 days after the close of the briefing period set forth in § 2700.75(a)(1), provided that the amicus curiae's motion for participation as an amicus curiae is filed within the initial briefing period (<I>see</I> § 2700.75(a)(1)) allotted to the party whose position the amicus curiae supports. If the Commission grants any such motion, the Commission's order shall specify the time within which a response or reply may be made to the amicus curiae brief.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who does not support a party in the proceeding must file its motion for participation as amicus curiae and brief no later than 20 days after initial briefs are filed (<I>see</I> § 2700.75(a)(1)). A motion for participation as amicus curiae must comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. A brief of amicus curiae must comply with § 2700.75(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 48714, Sept. 8, 1999; 71 FR 44209, Aug. 4, 2006; 71 FR 52211, Sept. 1, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.75" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.75   Briefs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time to file</I>—(1) <I>Opening and response briefs.</I> Within 30 days after the Commission grants a petition for discretionary review, the petitioner shall file an opening brief. The petitioner may notify the Commission and all other parties within the 30-day period that the petition and any supporting memorandum are to constitute the opening brief. Other parties may file response briefs within 30 days after the petitioner's brief is served. If the Commission directs review on its own motion, all parties shall file any opening briefs within 30 days of the direction for review. In such cases, a party may file a response brief within 20 days after service of the opposing party's opening brief. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reply briefs.</I> In cases where the Commission has granted a petition for discretionary review, the petitioner may file a reply brief within 20 days after the service of the response briefs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional briefs.</I> No further briefs shall be filed except by leave of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Length of brief.</I> Except by permission of the Commission and for good cause shown, opening and response briefs shall not exceed 35 pages, and reply briefs shall not exceed 15 pages. A brief of an amicus curiae shall not exceed 25 pages. A brief of an intervenor shall not exceed the page limitation applicable to the party whose position it supports in affirming or reversing the ALJ, or if a different position is taken, such brief shall not exceed 25 pages. Tables of contents or authorities shall not be counted against the length of a brief. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motion for extension of time.</I> A motion for an extension of time to file a brief shall comply with § 2700.9. The Commission may decline to accept a brief that is not timely filed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consequences of petitioner's failure to file brief.</I> If a petitioner fails to timely file a brief or to designate the petition as the opening brief, the direction for review may be vacated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motion for leave to exceed page limit.</I> A motion requesting leave to exceed the page limit for a brief shall be received not less than 3 days prior to the date the brief is due to be filed, shall state the total number of pages proposed, and shall comply with § 2700.10. Filing of a motion requesting an extension of page limit is effective upon receipt. The motion and any statement in opposition shall include proof of service on all parties by a means of delivery no less expeditious than that used for filing the motion, except that if service by email or other electronic transmission is impossible, the filing party must serve in person, or by third-party commercial carrier, resulting in same-day delivery.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise ordered or stated in this part, only the original of a document shall be filed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Table of contents.</I> Each opening and response brief filed with the Commission shall contain a table of contents. Unless otherwise ordered by the Commission, a party is not required to submit a table of contents for a previously filed petition for discretionary review that has been designated as the party's opening brief pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 48714, Sept. 8, 1999; 71 FR 44209, Aug. 4, 2006; 78 FR 77359, Dec. 23, 2013; 79 FR 3105, Jan. 17, 2014; 90 FR 5626, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.76" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.76   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure.</I> Interlocutory review by the Commission shall not be a matter of right but of the sound discretion of the Commission. Procedures governing petitions for review of temporary reinstatement orders are found at § 2700.45(f).
</P>
<P>(1) Review cannot be granted unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The ALJ has certified, upon the ALJ's own motion or the motion of a party, that an interlocutory ruling involves a controlling question of law and that in the ALJ's opinion immediate review will materially advance the final disposition of the proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The ALJ has denied a party's motion for certification of the interlocutory ruling to the Commission, and the party files with the Commission a petition for interlocutory review within 30 days of the ALJ's denial of such motion for certification.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of either paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, the Commission, by a majority vote of the full Commission or a majority vote of a duly constituted panel of the Commission, may grant interlocutory review upon a determination that the ALJ's interlocutory ruling involves a controlling question of law and that immediate review may materially advance the final disposition of the proceeding. Interlocutory review by the Commission shall not operate to suspend the hearing unless otherwise ordered by the Commission. Any grant or denial of interlocutory review shall be by written order of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petitions for interlocutory review.</I> Where the ALJ denies a party's motion for certification of an interlocutory ruling and the party seeks interlocutory review, a petition for interlocutory review shall be in writing and shall not exceed 15 pages. A copy of the ALJ's interlocutory ruling sought to be reviewed and of the ALJ's order denying the petitioner's motion for certification shall be attached to the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Briefs.</I> When the Commission grants interlocutory review, it shall also issue an order which addresses page limits on briefs and the sequence and schedule for filing of initial briefs, and, if permitted by the order, reply briefs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of review.</I> Unless otherwise specified in the Commission's order granting interlocutory review, review shall be confined to the issues raised in the ALJ's certification or to the issues raised in the petition for interlocutory review. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5626, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.77" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.77   Oral argument.</HEAD>
<P>Oral argument may be ordered by the Commission on its own motion or on the motion of a party. A party requesting oral argument shall do so by separate motion no later than the time that it files its opening or response brief. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.78" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.78   Reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for reconsideration must be filed with the Commission within 10 days after the issuance of a decision or order of the Commission. Any response must be filed with the Commission within 10 days of service of the petition. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless the Commission orders otherwise, the filing of a petition for reconsideration shall not stay the effect of a decision or order of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 44209, Aug. 4, 2006; 90 FR 5626, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.79" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.8.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.79   Correction of clerical errors.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may correct clerical errors in its decisions at any time. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.80" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.9.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.80   Standards of conduct; disciplinary proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards of conduct.</I> Representatives appearing before the Commission or before Commission ALJs pursuant to § 2700.3(b) shall conform to the standards of ethical conduct required of practitioners under the American Bar Association's Model Rules of Professional Conduct (“ABA's Model Rules”). The Commission shall apply the ABA's Model rules as far as practicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds.</I> Disciplinary proceedings may be instituted against anyone who is appearing or has appeared before the Commission on grounds that such person has engaged in unethical or unprofessional conduct; has failed to comply with these rules or an order of the Commission or its ALJs; has been disbarred or suspended by a court or administrative agency; or has been disciplined by an ALJ under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Disciplinary proceedings shall be subject to the following procedure:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disciplinary referral.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, an ALJ or other person having knowledge of circumstances that may warrant disciplinary proceedings against a representative who is appearing or has appeared before the Commission shall forward to the Commission for action such information in the form of a written disciplinary referral. Whenever the Commission receives a disciplinary referral, the matter shall be assigned a docket number and a notice will be issued to the individual named in the referral of the initiation of an investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inquiry and preliminary determination by the Commission.</I> The Commission shall conduct an inquiry concerning a disciplinary referral and shall determine whether disciplinary proceedings are warranted. The Commission may require persons to submit affidavits setting forth their knowledge of relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Termination of referral.</I> If the Commission determines that disciplinary proceedings are not warranted, it shall issue an order terminating the referral.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Further disciplinary proceedings.</I> Whenever, as a result of its inquiry, the Commission, by a majority vote of the full Commission or a majority vote of a duly constituted panel of the Commission, determines that the circumstances warrant a hearing, the Commission shall issue an order specifying the disciplinary issues to be resolved through hearing and order the Commission's Chief ALJ to assign the matter to an ALJ, from within or outside of the Commission, other than the referring ALJ, for hearing and decision. The Commission may designate counsel from within or outside of the Commission to prosecute the matter before the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hearing before an ALJ</I>—(i) <I>Assignment.</I> Upon the Commission's order determining that further proceedings are warranted, the Commission's Chief ALJ shall select a Commission ALJ, or select a non-Commission ALJ, and issue an order of assignment for hearing. The order of assignment shall advise the respondent that the respondent may file a statement in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Response.</I> The respondent named in the disciplinary proceeding may file a statement responding to the Commission's decision within 30 days after service of the order of assignment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Evidence and applicability of hearing rules.</I> The parties shall have the opportunity to present evidence and cross-examine witnesses. Subpart G of this part, governing Commission hearings before ALJs shall apply as appropriate to all Commission disciplinary proceedings.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>ALJ's decision.</I> The ALJ's decision shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law and either an order dismissing the proceedings or an appropriate disciplinary order, which may include reprimand, suspension, or prohibition from appearing before the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeal from ALJ's decision.</I> Any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the ALJ's decision is entitled to review by the Commission. A person seeking such review shall file a notice of appeal with the Commission within 30 days after the issuance of the ALJ's decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Misconduct before an ALJ.</I> An ALJ may order the removal of any person, including a representative of a party, who engages in disruptive conduct in the ALJ's presence. If a representative is ordered removed, the ALJ shall allow the party represented by the person a reasonable time to engage another representative. In all instances of removal of a person for disruptive conduct, the ALJ shall place in the record a written statement on the matter. A party aggrieved by an ALJ's order of removal may appeal by requesting interlocutory review pursuant to § 2700.76 or, alternatively, may assign the ALJ's ruling as error in a petition for discretionary review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5626, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.81" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.9.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.81   Recusal and disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recusal.</I> Whenever a Commissioner or an ALJ deems appropriate, the Commissioner or ALJ may choose to be recused from a proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request to withdraw.</I> A party may request a Commissioner or an ALJ to withdraw on grounds of personal bias or other disqualification. A party shall make such a request by promptly filing an affidavit setting forth in detail the matters alleged to constitute personal bias or other grounds for disqualification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure if Commissioner or ALJ does not withdraw.</I> If, upon being requested to withdraw pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the Commissioner or the ALJ does not withdraw from the proceeding, the Commissioner or ALJ shall so rule upon the record, stating the grounds for such ruling. If the ALJ does not withdraw, the ALJ shall proceed with the hearing, or, if the hearing has been completed, the ALJ shall proceed with the issuance of a decision, unless the Commission stays the hearing or further proceedings upon the granting of a petition for interlocutory review of the ALJ's decision not to withdraw. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5627, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.82" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.9.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.82   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Ex parte communication</I> means an oral or written communication not on the public record concerning any matter or proceeding with respect to which reasonable prior notice to all parties has not been given. A status or informational request does not constitute an ex parte communication. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Status or informational request</I> means a request for a status report on any matter or proceeding or a request concerning filing requirements or other docket information. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Merits of a case,</I> which shall be broadly construed by the Commission, includes discussion of the factual or legal issues in a case or resolution of those issues. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited ex parte communication.</I> There shall be no ex parte communication with respect to the merits of a case not concluded, between the Commission, including any member, ALJ, officer, or agent of the Commission who is employed in the decisional process, and any of the parties, intervenors, representatives, amici, or other interested persons.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure in case of violation.</I> (1) In the event a prohibited ex parte communication occurs, the Commission or the ALJ may make such orders or take such action to remedy the effect of the ex parte communication as circumstances require. Upon notice and hearing, the Commission may take disciplinary action against any person who knowingly and willfully makes or causes to be made a prohibited ex parte communication.
</P>
<P>(2) A memorandum setting forth all ex parte communications, whether prohibited or not, shall be placed on the public record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Status or informational requests.</I> Information concerning filing requirements, the status of cases, or docket information may be accessed through the Commission's website (<I>http://www.fmshrc.gov</I>). In the event such information is unavailable through the Commission's website, such status or informational requests must be directed to the Docket Office of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710; 202-434-9950. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12164, Mar. 3, 1993, as amended at 67 FR 60862, Sept. 27, 2002; 77 FR 48430, Aug. 14, 2012; 90 FR 5627, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2700.83" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.9.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2700.83   Authority to sign orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Chair or other designated Commissioner is authorized to sign on behalf of a quorum of the Commission, orders disposing of the following procedural motions: motions for extensions of time, motions for permission to file briefs in excess of page limits, motions to accept late filed briefs, motions to consolidate, motions to expedite proceedings, motions for oral argument, and similar procedural motions. In the absence of a designated Chair or Acting Chair, Commissioners continue to be authorized to sign orders disposing of procedural motions as identified above. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5628, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.1.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2701" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2701—GOVERNMENT IN THE SUNSHINE ACT REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 113, Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977, Pub. L. 95-165 (30 U.S.C. 823).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 2575, Jan. 12, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2701.1" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.2.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2701.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b. The rules in this part are intended to open, to the extent practicable, the meetings of the Commission to public observation while preserving the Commission's ability to fulfill its responsibilities and respect the interests of persons in confidential consideration of sensitive matters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to all meetings of the Commission. A “meeting of the Commission” means a joint deliberation in person or by conference telephone call of at least a majority of either the members of the Commission or of a panel of three or more Commissioners that determines or results in the joint conduct or disposition of official Commission business, but does not include (1) deliberations regarding a decision to open or close a meeting, to withhold information about a meeting, and the circumstances of meetings, such as their time, place, and subject matter, and (2) the individual deliberations of Commission members of matters considered upon circulated documents or other notation procedure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2701.2" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.2.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2701.2   Open meetings policy; closure of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> Commission meetings will generally be open to public observation, including meetings concerning the disposition by the Commission of a formal adjudication. See 5 U.S.C. 522b(c)(10).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Closure.</I> Meetings may be closed, or certain information about a meeting may not be disclosed under the circumstances contemplated by 5 U.S.C. 522b(c)(1)-(10), and under the procedures specified by 5 U.S.C. 552b (d) and (f). Commission employees may attend closed meetings of the commission unless the notice of a closed meeting states otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2701.3" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.2.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2701.3   Announcement of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> The Commission shall publicly announce and submit to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least 7 days before a meeting, the time, place, subject matter of a meeting, whether it is to be open or closed, and the name and phone number of the Commission employee who will respond to requests for information about the meeting. The description of the subject matter of a meeting at which the Commission will consider adjudicatory matters, shall include the names and docket numbers of the cases to be considered. The Commission shall also contact, by phone or mail, the parties to the cases to be considered at the meeting, shall post a copy of a notice of the meeting at the Office of Public Information, shall mail notices to persons who have requested inclusion of their names on a meeting mailing list, and may issue press releases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Shorter notice.</I> If a majority of the members of the Commission or a panel of three or more Commissioners determines by a recorded vote that pressing Commission business requires that a meeting be called in less than 7 days, the announcement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be made at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Changes in time, place, subject matter, and decision whether to open or close after public announcement of meeting.</I> If the time or place of a meeting publicly announced is changed, or an item to be considered at such a meeting is to be deleted, the change or deletion shall be publicly announced without a recorded vote at the earliest practicable time in the manner required by paragraph (a) of this section. The subject matter of a meeting publicly announced shall not be expanded and the decision to open or close such a meeting shall not be changed unless a majority of the members of the Commission or if a panel of three or more Commissioners determines by a recorded vote that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible; the Commission shall publicly announce such a change and the vote of each member upon the change at the earliest practicable time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2701.4" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.2.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2701.4   Request to open or close meeting.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may request that the Commission open a meeting that it has earlier decided to close. Any person whose interest may be directly affected by the opening of a meeting may request that the meeting be closed. Two copies of a request shall be filed in writing with the Executive Director of the Commission at the earliest practicable time, and no later than one hour before the meeting. A request to close shall state the interest of the person that may be adversely affected. The Commission shall take a recorded vote on the request if one member desires that it do so. The Executive Director shall inform the requesting person of whether a vote was taken, and, if so, its outcome. Requests shall be addressed as follows: Sunshine Act Request, Office of the Executive Director, Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 2575, Jan. 12, 1979, as amended at 67 FR 60862, Sept. 27, 2002; 77 FR 48430, Aug. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2701.5" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.2.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2701.5   Petition for review.</HEAD>
<P>Any person may petition the Commission to review any action he alleges to be in violation of this part or 5 U.S.C. 552b that was taken by any employee or member of the Commission. The petition shall be in writing and shall be filed with the Executive Director within 30 days of the alleged violation. The Commission shall consider and rule upon the petition with expedition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2701.6" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.2.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2701.6   Discussion during open meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Deliberations, discussions, comments, statements, or observations made during the course of an open meeting do not constitute actions of the Commission, nor do they necessarily represent the basis for any Commission action. Comments made by a Commissioner or an employee of the Commission may be advanced for purposes of discussion or argument, or as an aside, and may not reflect the views or ultimate position of that Commissioner or employee. Reasons for decisions stated by a Commissioner at an open meeting may be later changed by that Commissioner, as may a Commissioner's vote. For these reasons, persons who choose to act on the basis of discussions at open meetings do so entirely at their own risk and without any assurance that the Commission's final decisions will be reflective of the discussions or initial vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2701.7" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.2.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2701.7   Expedited closing procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> Although it is the general policy of the Commission to open to the public meetings that may be subject to closure, including meetings concerning adjudication of cases, the Commission may find it necessary in the public interest to close meetings. The purpose of this section is to provide an expedited closing procedure under 5 U.S.C. 552b(d)(4). The Commission has determined that, inasmuch as the Commission's responsibilities are almost entirely adjudicatory, a majority of its meetings may properly be closed under 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(10). Although the Commission has to date held few meetings, those that have been held concerned the adjudication of cases and could properly have been closed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> A meeting may be closed if a majority of either the members of the Commission or of a panel of three or more Commissioners votes by recorded vote at the beginning of such a meeting to close it to the public. The record of the vote shall reflect the vote of each voting member and shall be made available to the public. A public announcement of the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting shall be made at the earliest practicable time, except to the extent that such information is exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552b(c). Section 2701.3 does not apply to meetings closed under this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2702" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2702—REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>30 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.;</I> 5 U.S.C. 551, 552, and 552a and 44 U.S.C. 3102 as amended by Pub. L. 104-231, 110 Stat. 3048, Pub. L. 110-175, 121 Stat. 2524, and Pub. L. 114-185, 130 Stat. 538; E.O. 13392, 70 FR 75373, 3 CFR, 2005 Comp., p. 216.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 5397, Feb. 1, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2702.1" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission (Commission), pursuant to the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (the “Mine Act”), 30 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.,</I> is an independent adjudicative agency that provides administrative trial and appellate review of legal disputes arising between the U.S. Department of Labor's Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) and private parties, as well as certain disputes solely between private parties arising under the Mine Act. The purpose of the rules in this part is to establish procedures for implementing the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended by the Electronic Freedom of Information Act Amendments of 1996, Public Law 104-231, 110 Stat. 3048, the OPEN Government Act of 2007, Public Law 110-175, 121 Stat. 2524, and the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016, Public Law 114-185, 130 Stat. 538; to provide guidance for those seeking to obtain information from the Commission; and to make all information subject to disclosure pursuant to this subchapter and FOIA, and not otherwise protected by law, readily available to the public. Additional guidance on obtaining information from the Commission can be found in the document entitled “FOIA Guide,” which is available for viewing and download on the Commission's website at <I>https://www.fmshrc.gov/guides/foia-guide.</I> Hard copies are also available upon written request to the Commission's FOIA Office. The rules in this part apply only to records or information of the Commission or in the Commission's custody. Nothing in this part shall be construed to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA. This part does not affect discovery in adversary proceedings before the Commission. Discovery is governed by the Commission's rules of procedure in 29 CFR part 2700.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.2" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.2   Location of offices.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission maintains its headquarters office at 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710. The locations of other Commission offices may be obtained from the Commission's website (<I>http://www.fmshrc.gov</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.3" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.3   Making a request for information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content of request.</I> All requests for information must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) Include the words “Freedom of Information Act Request” or “FOIA” on the face of the request;
</P>
<P>(3) Include, if concerning a case that has come before the Commission or a Commission Administrative Law Judge, the Commission case docket number or, in the alternative, the related MSHA citation or order number(s);
</P>
<P>(4) Reasonably describe the particular record(s) requested; and
</P>
<P>(5) Specify the preferred form or format in which the requester wishes to receive the response. The Commission shall accommodate requests as to form or format if the record is readily reproducible in the requested form or format. When requesters do not specify the preferred form or format of the response, the Commission shall respond in the form or format in which the record is most accessible to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional content considerations.</I> If the requester desires expedited processing or a waiver or reduction of fees, such requests must be in writing and should be included in the initial request for information filed in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. See §§ 2702.4(b)(3) and 2702.10 for additional requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Personal records.</I> For individuals seeking access to their records, not including Commission files generated in adversary proceedings under the Mine Act, please see the Commission's Privacy Act rules at 29 CFR part 2705.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submitting a request.</I> Requests must be submitted via:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission's FOIA Request form located on the Commission's website at <I>https://www.fmshrc.gov/foia/foia-request-form;</I> or by
</P>
<P>(2) Email, mail, fax, or hand delivery to the Chief FOIA Officer at <I>FOIA@FMSHRC.gov,</I> Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, Attn: Chief FOIA Officer, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710, Fax: 202-434-9944.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.4" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.4   Response to request; processing; determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Response to request.</I> Upon receipt of a request, a determination to grant, deny, or partially grant the request will be made within 20 business days by the Commission's FOIA Office, except in unusual circumstances, as described in paragraph (b) of this section. Generally, the Commission will respond to requests according to their order of receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing time</I>—(1) <I>Simple track.</I> Except in circumstances described in paragraph (b)(2) or (3) of this section, upon receipt of a request, a Commission FOIA officer will reach a determination to grant, deny, or partially grant the request within 20 business days after receipt by the Commission's FOIA Office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Complex track.</I> In unusual circumstances, it may not be possible for the agency to reach a determination within 20 business days. When additional time is needed to respond to the initial request, the Commission shall notify the requester in writing within the 20 business day period, describe the circumstances causing the delay, and indicate the anticipated date for a substantive response that may not exceed 10 additional business days, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Unusual circumstances that may warrant delay include:
</P>
<P>(A) The need to search for and collect the requested records from facilities that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(B) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records that are requested in a single request;
</P>
<P>(C) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or among two or more components of the agency having substantial subject matter interest in the request; and
</P>
<P>(D) The need to consult with the submitter of the records being requested.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a request for which a written notice has extended the time limit by 10 additional business days, if the Commission determines that it cannot make a response determination within that additional 10 business day period, the requester will be notified and provided an opportunity to limit the scope of the request so that it may be processed within the extended time limit, or an opportunity to arrange an alternative time frame for processing the request or a modified request. See § 2702.10 for fee adjustments applicable to processing time delays.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited track.</I> While it is recommended that a request for expedited services be submitted with the initial § 2702.3(a) request, such request may be made at any time. A person may request expedited processing of a § 2702.3(a) request for records in cases where the requester can demonstrate a compelling need for said records. Requesters will be notified of the determination in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section. A demonstration of compelling need by a person making a request for expedited processing shall be made by a statement certified by such person to be true and correct to the best of his or her knowledge and belief. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), a “compelling need” means:
</P>
<P>(i) That a failure to obtain the requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The information is urgently needed by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information in order to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The records are necessary to assist with meeting an impending deadline set by a Commission Judge or the Commission in a pending case to which the requester is a party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregated requests.</I> Whenever it reasonably appears that certain requests by the same requester, or a group of requesters acting in concert, actually constitute a single request that would otherwise satisfy the unusual circumstances specified in this section, and the requests involve clearly related matters, such requests may be aggregated for purposes of this paragraph (c). Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determinations</I>—(1) <I>Full grant of request.</I> Unless a Commission FOIA officer reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by one of the nine statutory exemptions found at 5 U.S.C. 552(b) or determines that disclosure is prohibited by law, all relevant records obtained through reasonable search efforts shall be provided within the relevant time period described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial grant/denial of request.</I> Any reasonably segregable portion(s) of a record shall be provided to the person requesting it after the deletion of any exempt portion(s) of the record. The applicable exemption(s) and the amount of information deleted shall be indicated on the released portion(s) of the record, at the place in the record the deletion is made if technically feasible, unless indicating the extent of the deletion would harm an interest protected by the exemption pursuant to which the deletion is made.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Denial of request.</I> In denying a request for records, the Commission shall state the reason for the denial and the applicable exemption; set forth the name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial of the request; make a reasonable effort to estimate the volume of the records denied; and provide this estimate to the person making the request, unless providing such an estimate would harm an interest protected by the exemption pursuant to which the request is denied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Determination of request to expedite.</I> Notice of the determination whether to grant expedited processing in response to a requester's claim of compelling need shall be provided to the person making the request within 10 days after receipt of the request for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Determination of fee waiver/reduction request.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer or designated employee, upon request, shall determine whether a waiver or reduction of fees is warranted. See § 2702.10 for additional information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> At any time during the processing of a request, requesters may seek dispute resolution assistance from the Commission's FOIA Public Liaison at <I>FOIA-Liaison@fmshrc.gov.</I> In the event of an adverse determination, requesters may file an appeal in accordance with § 2702.5 and/or obtain mediation and dispute resolution services from the Commission's FOIA Public Liaison, as well as from the Office of Government Information Services (“OGIS”) at <I>https://archives.gov/ogis.</I> Additional information regarding dispute resolution can be found on the Commission's website at <I>https://www.fmshrc.gov/content/foia-public-liaison.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.5" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.5   Right to appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> Any requester adversely affected by a final decision of the Commission's FOIA Office may file an appeal of that decision within 90 days of the initial determination. All FOIA appeals must be in writing and shall be made to the Chair of the Commission. Sitting Commissioners will decide appeals within 20 business days after receipt. In the event that a sitting Commissioner is the subject of the disputed FOIA records or has a substantial interest in the disputed records, that Commissioner should be recused from consideration of said FOIA appeal. In the event of a tie vote of those Commissioners, the FOIA Office's initial determination will be deemed approved by the Commission. Appeals must be submitted via email, mail, fax or hand delivery to <I>FOIA-appeals@fmshrc.gov,</I> Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710, Fax: 202-434-9944.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeal of denial or partial denial of information request.</I> The appeal must include a copy of the initial FOIA request, a copy of the determination denying the request in whole or in part, and a detailed statement explaining why the initial determination should be reversed. Any records to be disclosed by the Commission to the requester shall be provided with the letter setting forth the determination as to the appeal or shall be sent as soon as possible thereafter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeal of denial of request to expedite.</I> The appeal must include a copy of the initial request to expedite, a copy of the determination denying the request, and a detailed explanation demonstrating a compelling need as stated in § 2702.4(b)(3). The Commission will provide expeditious consideration of administrative appeals of determinations on whether to provide expedited processing. Once a determination has been made to grant expedited processing, the Commission will process the request as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeal of denial of fee waiver or reduction.</I> The appeal must include a copy of the initial fee waiver/reduction request, a copy of the determination denying the request, and a detailed statement explaining how the request satisfies one or more requirements in § 2702.10(b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denial of appeal.</I> If an appeal is denied, the Commission's notice of denial shall inform the requester of the right to obtain judicial review of the Commission's action under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B)-(G). The requester may appeal the Commission's decision by filing a complaint in the district court of the United States in the district in which the complainant resides, or has its principal place of business, or in which the agency records are situated, or in the District of Columbia.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.6" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.6   Confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Confidential commercial information</I> means commercial or financial information obtained by the agency from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 52(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides confidential commercial information, either directly or indirectly to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> A submitter of confidential commercial information must use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings, at the time of submission, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When notice to submitters is required.</I> (1) The Commission will promptly provide written notice to the submitter of confidential commercial information whenever records containing such information are requested under the FOIA if the Commission determines that it may be required to disclose the records, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The requested information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission has a reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4, but has not yet determined whether the information is protected from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice must either describe the commercial information requested or include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to submitter notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements of this section do not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA, and therefore will not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute other than the FOIA or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous. In such case, the Commission will give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information within a reasonable number of days prior to a date specified for disclosure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> (1) If the submitter objects to disclosure of any of the requested information, a written response to the notice issued under paragraph (c) of this section must be submitted to the Commission within 30 calendar days of the date of the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) The response must include a detailed statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption of the FOIA. In order to rely on Exemption 4 of the FOIA as a basis for nondisclosure, the submitter must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is confidential.
</P>
<P>(3) A submitter who fails to respond within 30 calendar days will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. The Commission is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this part may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis of objections.</I> The Commission will consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose the requested information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> Whenever the Commission decides to disclose information over the objection of a submitter, the Commission will provide the submitter written notice, which shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons why each of the submitter's disclosure objections was not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed or copies of the records as the Commission intends to release them; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which must be a reasonable time after the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of confidential commercial information, the agency must promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requester notification.</I> The Commission will notify the requester whenever it provides the submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure; whenever it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Effect of disclosure.</I> Once a record has been disclosed by the Commission to any requester, that record will no longer be deemed confidential commercial information and protected under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.7" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.7   Materials available.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records.</I> Except for records and information under seal or exempted from disclosure, all records of the Commission or in its custody are available to any person who requests them in accordance with § 2702.3. Records include any information that would be a record subject to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552 when maintained by the Commission in any format, including electronic format. In response to FOIA requests, the Commission will search for records manually or by automated means, except when an automated search would significantly interfere with the operation of the Commission's automated information system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FOIA e-reading room.</I> Materials created on or after November 1, 1996, under this paragraph (b) may be accessed electronically through the Commission's website at <I>https://www.fmshrc.gov/foia/e-reading-room.</I> Materials available include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as orders, made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(2) Those statements of policy and interpretations which have been adopted by the agency and are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, which have been released to any person under this part and which, because of the nature of their subject matter, the Commission has determined have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; and
</P>
<P>(5) A general index of records referred to under this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FOIA in-office review.</I> Materials are also available for inspection and copying at the Commission's headquarters located at 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.8" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.8   Categories of requesters and applicable fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commercial requesters.</I> When documents are requested for commercial use, the requester will be assessed the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Educational or noncommercial scientific institutions requesters.</I> When records are being requested by educational or noncommercial scientific institutions whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research, and not for commercial use, the requester will be assessed only for the cost of duplicating the records sought, but no charge will be made for the first 100 paper pages reproduced.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>News media requesters.</I> When records are being requested by representatives of the “news media,” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(ii) of the FOIA, the requester will be assessed only for the cost of duplicating the records sought, but no charge will be made for the first 100 paper pages reproduced.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other requesters.</I> For any other request not described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, the requester will be assessed the full direct costs of searching for and duplicating the records sought, except that no charge will be made for the first two hours of manual search time and the first 100 paper pages of reproduction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requesters acting in concert.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, whenever it reasonably appears that a requester, or a group of requesters acting in concert, is attempting to break down a single request into a series of requests relating to the same subject matter for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, such requests will be aggregated and fees assessed accordingly.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Clarification of records use.</I> Where the FOIA officer has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which a requester will put the records sought, or where that use is not clear from the request itself, the FOIA officer may seek clarification from the requester before assigning the request to a specific category for fee assessment purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.9" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.9   Fee schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Search fee.</I> The fee for searching for information and records shall be the salary rate (that is, basic pay plus 16%) of the employee making the search. This hourly rate is listed in the Commission's FOIA Guide at <I>https://www.fmshrc.gov/guides/foia-guide.</I> Fees for searches of computerized records shall be the actual cost to the Commission but shall not exceed $300 per hour. This fee includes machine time and that of the operator and clerical personnel. If search charges are likely to exceed $50, the requester shall be notified of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has indicated in advance his or her willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. Fees may be charged even if the documents are not located or if they are located but withheld on the basis of an exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review fee.</I> The review fee shall be charged for the Chief FOIA Officer's initial examination of documents located in response to a request in order to determine if they may be withheld from disclosure, and for the deletion of portions that are exempt from disclosure, but shall not be charged for review by the Chair or the Commissioners. See § 2702.5. The review fee is the salary rate (that is, basic pay plus 16%) of the Chief FOIA Officer or the employee designated to perform the review. This hourly rate is listed in the Commission's FOIA Guide at <I>https://www.fmshrc.gov/guides/foia-guide.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duplicating fee.</I> The copy fee for each page of paper up to 8
<FR>1/2</FR>″ x 14″, including the scanning of pages not routinely stored in electronic format, shall be $.20 per page. When the use of third-party services is required, the fee will be the actual direct cost incurred by the Commission. For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, the Commission shall charge the direct costs of production of the material, including operator time. For other methods of reproduction or duplication, the Commission will charge the actual direct costs of producing the document(s). If duplication charges are likely to exceed $50, the requester shall be notified of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has indicated in advance his or her willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.10" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.10   Waivers and reduction of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Automatic fee waiver.</I> No fees shall be charged to any requester, including commercial use requesters, if the anticipated cost of processing and collecting the fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself. Accordingly, the Commission has determined that fees of less than $20 shall be waived. If the Commission fails to comply with the time limits in § 2702.4(b), including the requirements related to the 10-day extension for unusual circumstances, search fees will not be assessed and, for requesters described in 30 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(ii)(II), duplication fees will not be assessed. See Commission's FOIA Guide for further information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for fee waiver or reduction.</I> A request for fee waiver or reduction shall be made in writing and shall address the criteria outlined in paragraphs (b)(1) through (6) of this section. The request should be submitted with the original request for information filed pursuant to § 2702.3(a). If the request is granted, the documents shall be furnished without any charge, or at a charge reduced below the fees otherwise applicable. A waiver or reduction of fees will be granted only if disclosure of the information is determined to be in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. The following six factors will be employed in determining when such fees shall be waived or reduced:
</P>
<P>(1) The subject of the request: Whether the subject of the requested records concerns “the operations or activities of the Government;”
</P>
<P>(2) The informative value of the information to be disclosed: Whether the disclosure is “likely to contribute” to an understanding of Government operations or activities;
</P>
<P>(3) The contribution to an understanding of the subject by the general public likely to result from disclosure: Whether disclosure of the requested information will contribute to “public understanding;”
</P>
<P>(4) The significance of contribution to public understanding: Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute “significantly” to public understanding of Government operations or activities;
</P>
<P>(5) The existence and magnitude of a commercial interest: Whether the requester has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(6) The primary interest in disclosure: Whether the magnitude of any identified commercial interest of the requester is sufficiently large, in comparison with the public interest in disclosure, that disclosure is “primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer, upon request, shall determine whether a waiver or reduction of fees is warranted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.11" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.11   Payment of fees; advance payments; interest; debt collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of fees.</I> Upon receipt of the invoice or statement detailing the charges incurred for processing, the requester shall make payment within 30 calendar days to the Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission or FMSHRC, Attention: Office of the Executive Director, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance payment.</I> Before work is commenced or continued on a request, advance payment may be required if the charges are likely to exceed $250.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delinquent requesters.</I> Requesters who have previously failed to pay FOIA processing fees associated with a prior request, within the time mandated by paragraph (a) of this section, and are unable to demonstrate that the fee was previously paid, may be required to first pay the unpaid balance plus any applicable interest and then make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the new or pending request is processed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interest charges.</I> Interest charges may be assessed on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the day on which the billing was sent, at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717, and will accrue from the date of billing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Debt collection.</I> The Debt Collection Act of 1982, Public Law 97-365, including disclosure to consumer credit reporting agencies and the use of collection agencies, will be utilized to encourage payment where appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2702.12" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.3.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2702.12   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to title 44 of the United States Code or the General Records Schedule 4.2 of the National Archives and Records Administration, the Commission preserves all correspondence pertaining to requests received under this part, as well as copies of all requested records for 6 years following final agency action or 3 years after final adjudication by the courts, whichever is later. The Commission will not dispose of or destroy records while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2703" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2703—EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7301; 5 CFR 2638.202.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 39872, July 31, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2703.1" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.4.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2703.1   Cross-reference to employee ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Members and employees of the Federal Mine Safety and Review Commission are subject to the executive branch-wide Standards of Ethical Conduct at 5 CFR part 2635; the Commission's regulations at 5 CFR part 8401, which supplement the executive branch-wide standards; and the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2703.2" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.4.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2703.2   Designated agency ethics official and alternate designated agency ethics official.</HEAD>
<P>The Chairman shall appoint an individual to serve as the designated agency ethics official, and an individual to serve in an acting capacity in the absence of the primary designated agency ethics official (alternate designated agency ethics official), to coordinate and manage the Commission's ethics program. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2704" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2704—IMPLEMENTATION OF THE EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT IN COMMISSION PROCEEDINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>(5 U.S.C. 504(c)(1); Pub. L. 99-80, 99 Stat. 183; Pub. L. 104-121, 110 Stat. 862.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 10001, Mar. 9, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.100" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.100   Purpose of these rules.</HEAD>
<P>The Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504, provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings (called “adversary adjudications”) before this Commission. An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over the U.S. Department of Labor, Mine Safety and Health Administration (“MSHA”), unless the Secretary of Labor's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. In addition to the foregoing ground of recovery, a non-prevailing eligible party may receive an award if the demand of the Secretary is substantially in excess of the decision of the Commission and unreasonable, unless the applicant party has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or special circumstances make an award unjust. The rules in this part describe the parties eligible for each type of award. They also explain how to apply for awards, and the procedures and standards that this Commission will use to make the awards. In addition to the rules in this part, the Commission's general rules of procedure, part 2700 of this chapter, apply where appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 44209, Aug. 4, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.101" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms shall have the following meaning when used in these rules:
</P>
<P><I>Adjudication Officer,</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(D), means the Commission's administrative law judge who presided at the underlying adversary adjudication between the applicant and the Secretary of Labor. For the sake of clarity, references hereafter shall be to “administrative law judge”.
</P>
<P><I>The Act</I> means the Equal Access to Justice Act 5 U.S.C. 504;
</P>
<P><I>The Commission</I> means the Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, created as an independent agency under 30 U.S.C. 823;
</P>
<P><I>The Mine Act</I> means the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977, 30 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq</I>;
</P>
<P><I>The Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Labor or his designee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.102" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.102   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Section 2704.105(a) applies to adversary adjudications before the Commission pending or commenced on or after August 5, 1984. Section 2704.105(b) applies to adversary adjudications commenced on or after March 29, 1996.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63175, Nov. 12, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.103" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.103   Proceedings covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act applies to adversary adjudications conducted by this Commission. These are adjudications before the Commission arising under the Mine Act in which the position of the Secretary of Labor is represented by an attorney or other representative who enters an appearance and participates in the proceeding. For this Commission, the types of proceedings generally covered include:
</P>
<P>(1) Contests of citations or orders issued under section 104 or 107 of the Mine Act (30 U.S.C. 814, 817);
</P>
<P>(2) Contests of penalties proposed under section 105 (a) and (b) of the Mine Act (30 U.S.C. 815(a), (b));
</P>
<P>(3) Challenges to claims of discrimination under section 105(c) of the Mine Act (30 U.S.C. 815(c)) where the Secretary of Labor represents the miner.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may also designate a proceeding not listed in paragraph (a) of this section as an adversary adjudication for purposes of the Act by so stating in an order initiating the proceeding or designating the matter for hearing. The Commission's failure to designate a proceeding as an adversary adjudication shall not preclude the filing of an application by a party who believes the proceeding is covered by the Act; whether the proceeding is covered will then be an issue for resolution in proceedings on the application.
</P>
<P>(c) If a proceeding includes both matters covered by the Act and matters specifically excluded from coverage, any award made will include only fees and expenses related to covered issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 1001, Mar. 9, 1982, as amended at 71 FR 54905, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.104" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.104   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under the Act, the applicant must be a party to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award. The term “party” is defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3). The applicant must show that it satisfies the conditions of eligibility set out in this subpart and in subpart B.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of awards under § 2704.105(a) for prevailing parties:
</P>
<P>(1) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered as an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests.
</P>
<P>(3) The types of eligible applicants are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million;
</P>
<P>(ii) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests, and employs not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of awards for non-prevailing parties under § 2704.105(b), eligible applicants are small entities as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601, subject to the annual-receipts and number-of-employees standards as set forth by the Small Business Administration at 13 CFR part 121.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purpose of eligibility, the net worth, number of employees, or annual receipts of an applicant, as applicable, shall be determined as of the date the underlying proceeding was initiated under the Mine Act.
</P>
<P>(e) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 10001, Mar. 9, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 6285, Feb. 9, 1989, 63 FR 63175, Nov. 12, 1998; 71 FR 44210; Aug. 4, 2006; 71 FR 54905, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.105" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.105   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prevailing applicant may receive an award of fees and expenses incurred in connection with a proceeding, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, unless the position of the Secretary was substantially justified. The position of the Secretary includes, in addition to the position taken by the Secretary in the adversary adjudication, the action or failure to act by the Secretary upon which the adversary adjudication is based. The burden of proof that an award should not be made to a prevailing applicant because the Secretary's position was substantially justified is on the Secretary, who may avoid an award by showing that his position was reasonable in law and fact. An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the underlying proceeding or if special circumstances make the award unjust.
</P>
<P>(b) If the demand of the Secretary is substantially in excess of the decision of the Commission and is unreasonable when compared with such decision, under the facts and circumstances of the case, the Commission shall award to an eligible applicant who does not prevail the fees and expenses related to defending against the excessive demand, unless the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith or special circumstances make an award unjust. The burden of proof is on the applicant to establish that the Secretary's demand is substantially in excess of the Commission's decision; the Secretary may avoid an award by establishing that the demand is not unreasonable when compared to that decision. As used in this section, “demand” means the express demand of the Secretary which led to the adversary adjudication, but does not include a recitation by the Secretary of the maximum statutory penalty—
</P>
<P>(1) In the administrative complaint, or
</P>
<P>(2) Elsewhere when accompanied by an express demand for a lesser amount.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63176, Nov. 12, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 44210, Aug. 4, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.106" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.106   Allowable fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of or acting as attorneys, agents and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) No award for the fee of an attorney or agent under this part may exceed $125 per hour, except as provided in § 2704.107. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the Secretary of Labor pays expert witnesses. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or witness as a separate item if the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent or expert witness, the administrative law judge shall consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent or witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily performs services;
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the underlying proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<P>(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case in the underlying proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 10001, Mar. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 63176, Nov. 12, 1998; 71 FR 54905, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.107" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.107   Rulemaking on maximum rates for attorney's fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If warranted by an increase in the cost of living or by special circumstances (such as limited availability of attorneys qualified to handle certain types of proceedings), attorney's fees may be awarded at a rate higher than $125 per hour. Any such increase in the rate for attorney's fees will be made only upon a petition submitted by the applicant, pursuant to § 2704.201, and only if the administrative law judge determines, in his or her discretion, that it is justified. Any such adjustment in fees is subject to Commission review as specified in § 2704.308.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may file with the Commission a petition for rulemaking to increase the maximum rate for attorney fees. The petition should identify the rate the petitioner believes the Commission should establish and the types of proceedings in which the rate should be used. It should also explain fully the reasons why the higher rate is warranted. The Commission will respond to the petition within 60 days after it is filed, by initiating an informal rulemaking proceeding, denying the petition, or taking other appropriate action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 10001, Mar. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 63176, Nov. 12, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.108" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.108   Awards.</HEAD>
<P>If an applicant is entitled to an award under § 2704.105(a) or (b), the award shall be made by the Commission against the Department of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 53176, Nov. 12, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.109" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.109   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission retains authority to take final action on matters pertaining to the Equal Access to Justice Act in actions arising under the Mine Act. The Commission may, however, by order delegate authority to take final action on matters pertaining to the Equal Access to Justice Act in particular cases to other subordinate officials or bodies. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Information Required From Applicants</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 63176, Nov. 12, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2704.201" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.201   Contents of application—in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act shall be made to the Chief Administrative Law Judge of the Commission at 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710. The application shall identify the applicant and the underlying proceeding for which an award is sought.
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought. The application may also include a request that attorney's fees be awarded at a rate higher than $125 per hour because of an increase in the cost of living or other special factors.
</P>
<P>(c) The application may also include any other matters that the applicant wishes the Commission to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
</P>
<P>(d) The application should be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon receipt of an application, the Chief Administrative Law Judge shall immediately assign it for disposition to the administrative law judge who presided over the underlying Mine Act proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63176, Nov. 12, 1998, as amended at 67 FR 60863, Sept. 27, 2002; 77 FR 48430, Aug. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.202" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.202   Contents of application—where the applicant has prevailed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an award under § 2704.105(a) shall show that the applicant has prevailed in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the underlying proceeding and identify the position of the Department of Labor in the proceeding that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application shall also state the number of employees of the applicant and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
</P>
<P>(b) The application also shall include a statement that the applicant's net worth does not exceed $2 million (if an individual) or $7 million (for all other applicants).
</P>
<P>(c) Each applicant must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant when the underlying proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The administrative law judge may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63176, Nov. 12, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 54905, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.203" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.203   Contents of application—where the Secretary's demand is substantially in excess of the judgment finally obtained and unreasonable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an award under § 2704.105(b) shall show that the Secretary's demand is substantially in excess of the decision of the Commission; the application shall further allege that the Secretary's demand is unreasonable when compared with the Commission's decision.
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall show that the applicant is a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601(6), and the application must conform to the standards of the Small Business Administration at 13 CFR 121.201 for mining entities. The application shall include a statement of the applicant's annual receipts or number of employees, as applicable, in conformance with the requirements of 13 CFR 121.104 and 121.106. The application shall describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.204" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.204   Confidential financial information.</HEAD>
<P>Ordinarily, the net-worth and annual-receipts exhibits will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of such exhibits and believes there are legal grounds for withholding the information from disclosure may submit that portion of the exhibit directly to the administrative law judge in a sealed envelope labeled “Confidential Financial Information,” accompanied by a motion to withhold the information from public disclosure. The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why it falls within one or more of the specific exemptions from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1)-(9), why public disclosure of the information would adversely affect the applicant, and why disclosure is not required in the public interest. The material in question shall be served on counsel representing the Secretary of Labor against whom the applicant seeks an award, but need not be served on any other party to the proceeding. If the administrative law judge finds that the information should not be withheld from disclosure, it shall be placed in the public record of the proceeding. Otherwise, any request to inspect or copy the exhibit shall be disposed of in accordance with the established procedures under the Freedom of Information Act (29 CFR part 2702).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.205" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.205   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses, including the cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter, for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the underlying proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The administrative law judge may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.206" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.206   When an application may be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be filed whenever the applicant has prevailed in the underlying proceeding or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of that proceeding. An application may also be filed by a non-prevailing party when a demand by the Secretary is substantially in excess of the decision of the Commission and is unreasonable when compared with such decision. In no case may an application be filed later than 30 days after the Commission's final disposition of the underlying proceeding, or 30 days after issuance of a court judgment that is final and nonappealable in any Commission adjudication that has been appealed pursuant to section 106 of the Mine Act, 30 U.S.C. 816.
</P>
<P>(b) If review or reconsideration is sought or taken of a decision on the merits as to which an applicant has prevailed or has been subjected to a demand from the Secretary substantially in excess of the decision of the Commission and unreasonable when compared to that decision, proceedings for the award of fees shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this part, final disposition before the Commission means the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of the proceeding or any other complete resolution of the proceeding, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, becomes final (pursuant to sections 105(d) and 113(d) of the Mine Act (30 U.S.C. 815(d) and 823(d)) and unappealable, both within the Commission and to the courts (pursuant to section 106(a) of the Mine Act (30 U.S.C. 816(a)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63176, Nov. 12, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 44210, Aug. 4, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Considering Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.301" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.301   Filing and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Any application for an award or other pleading or other document related to an application, including a petition for discretionary review, shall be filed and served on all parties in the same manner as pleadings in the underlying proceeding, except as provided in § 2704.202(b) for confidential financial information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.302" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.302   Answer to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, counsel representing the Secretary of Labor may file an answer to the application. Unless counsel requests an extension of time for filing, files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b), or a proceeding is stayed pursuant to § 206(b), failure to file an answer within the 30-day period may be treated as a consent to the award requested.
</P>
<P>(b) If counsel for the Secretary and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the administrative law judge upon request by counsel for the Secretary and the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the position of the Secretary of Labor. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the underlying proceeding, counsel shall include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 2704.306 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63176, Nov. 12, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 44210, Aug. 4, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.303" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.303   Reply.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 2704.306 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.304" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.304   Comments by other parties.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and counsel for the Secretary of Labor may file comments on an application within 30 days after it is served or on an answer within 15 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the administrative law judge determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.305" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.305   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>In the event that counsel for the Secretary and an applicant agree to settle an EAJA claim after an application has been filed with the Commission, the applicant shall timely notify the Commission of the settlement and request dismissal of the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63177, Nov. 12, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.306" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.306   Further proceedings on the application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The determination of an award will be made on the basis of the record made during the proceeding for which fees and expenses are sought, except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) On request of either the applicant or the Secretary, or on the administrative law judge's own initiative, the judge may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions or, as to issues other than substantial justification (such as the applicant's eligibility or substantiation of fees and expenses), pertinent discovery or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application and shall be conducted as promptly as possible.
</P>
<P>(c) If the proceeding for which fees and expenses are sought was conceded by the Secretary on the merits, withdrawn by the Secretary, or otherwise settled before any of the merits were heard, the applicant and the Secretary may supplement the administrative record with affidavits or other documentary evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) A request that the judge order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought on the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 6286, Feb. 9, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.307" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.307   Decision of administrative law judge.</HEAD>
<P>The administrative law judge shall issue an initial decision on the application within 75 days after completion of proceedings on the application. In all decisions on applications, the administrative law judge shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. As to applications filed pursuant to § 2704.105(a), the administrative law judge shall also include findings on the applicant's status as a prevailing party and whether the position of the Secretary was substantially justified; if at issue, the judge shall also make findings on whether the applicant unduly protracted or delayed the underlying proceeding or whether special circumstances make the award unjust. As to applications filed pursuant to § 2704.105(b), the administrative law judge shall include findings on whether the Secretary made a demand that is substantially in excess of the decision of the Commission and unreasonable when compared with that decision; if at issue, the judge shall also make findings on whether the applicant has committed a willful violation of the law or otherwise acted in bad faith or whether special circumstances make the award unjust. Under either paragraph, the decision shall include, if at issue, detailed findings and conclusions on whether an increase in the cost of living or any other special factor justifies a higher fee than the $125 per hour fee set forth in the statute. The initial decision by the administrative law judge shall become final 40 days after its issuance unless review by the Commission is ordered under § 2704.308 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63177, Nov. 12, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.308" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.308   Commission review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Either the applicant or the Secretary of Labor may seek review by the Commission of the initial decision by the administrative law judge, but review shall be discretionary with the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The party seeking review shall file a petition for discretionary review so as to be received by the Commission at 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710 within 30 days of the issuance of the initial decision by the administrative law judge. Each issue in dispute shall be plainly and concisely stated, with supporting reasons set forth. Except for good cause shown, no issue not raised before the administrative law judge shall be set forth in the petition for discretionary review. Review by the Commission shall be granted only by affirmative vote of two of the Commissioners within 40 days of the issuance of the initial opinion, except that within 30 days after the issuance of the initial decision by the administrative law judge, two or more Commissioners may in their discretion order the case for review without the filing of a petition. The latter procedure shall be reserved for novel questions of law or policy, however.
</P>
<P>(c) If review of the initial decision of the administrative law judge is granted by the Commission, the Commission shall, after allowing opportunity for presentation of views by opposing parties, review the case and issue its own order affirming, modifying or vacating in whole or in part the initial decision or directing other appropriate relief.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 10001, Mar. 9, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 63178, Nov. 12, 1998; 67 FR 60863, Sept. 27, 2002; 77 FR 48430, Aug. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.309" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.309   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Judicial review of final Commission decisions on awards may be sought as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2704.310" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.5.3.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2704.310   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>Payment of awards made under the Equal Access to Justice Act by final orders of the Commission or its administrative law judge shall be in accordance with the applicable rules of the Department of Labor.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2705" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2705—PRIVACY ACT IMPLEMENTATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a; Pub. L. 93-579.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 38542, Oct. 1, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2705.1" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purposes of these regulations are to:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish a procedure by which an individual can determine if the Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, hereafter the “Commission,” maintains a system of records which includes a record pertaining to the individual. This does not include Commission files generated in adversary proceedings under the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act; and
</P>
<P>(b) Establish a procedure by which an individual can gain access to a record pertaining to him or her for the purpose of review, amendment and/or correction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 38542, Oct. 1, 1984, as amended at 71 FR 44210, Aug. 4, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.2" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of these regulations—
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use of disseminate;
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>record</I> means any item, collection or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the Commission, including, but not limited to, his or her employment history, payroll information, and financial transactions and that contains his or her name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as social security number;
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>system of records</I> means a group of any records under control of the Commission from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual; and
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 38542, Oct. 1, 1984, as amended at 71 FR 54905, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.3" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.3   Procedure for requests pertaining to individuals' records in a records system.</HEAD>
<P>An individual shall submit a request to the Executive Director to determine if a system of records named by the individual contains a record pertaining to the individual. If a record pertaining to the individual does exist in the specified system of records and the individual wishes to review that record he or she shall submit a request to the Executive Director of the Commission which states the individual's desire to review his or her record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.4" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.4   Times, places, and requirements for the identification of the individual making a request.</HEAD>
<P>An individual making a request to the Executive Director of the Commission pursuant to § 2705.3 shall present a written request at the Commission Office, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710, on any business day between the hour of 8:30 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. The individual submitting the request should present himself or herself at the Commission's offices with a form of identification which will permit the Commission to verify that the individual is the same individual as contained in the record requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 38542, Oct. 1, 1984, as amended at 67 FR 60863, Sept. 27, 2002; 77 FR 48430, Aug. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.5" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.5   Access to requested information to the individual.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after verification of identity the Commission shall disclose to the individual the information contained in the record which pertains to that individual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.6" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.6   Request for correction or amendment to the record.</HEAD>
<P>The individual shall submit a written request to the Executive Director which states the individual's desire to correct or to amend his or her record and details the specific corrections or amendments sought. This request is to be made in accord with provisions of § 2705.4.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.7" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.7   Agency review of request for correction or amendment of the record.</HEAD>
<P>Within ten working days of the receipt of the request to correct or to amend the record, the Executive Director will acknowledge in writing such receipt and promptly either—
</P>
<P>(a) Make any correction or amendment to that portion of the record which the individual believes is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Inform the individual of the Executive Director's refusal to correct or to amend the record in accordance with the request, and the procedures established by the Commission for the individual to request a review of that refusal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.8" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.8   Appeal of an initial adverse Commission determination on correction or amendment of the record.</HEAD>
<P>An individual who disagrees with the refusal of the Executive Director to correct or to amend his or her record may submit a request for a review of such refusal to the Chairman, Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710. The Chairman will, not later than thirty working days from the date on which the individual requests such review, complete such review and make final determination unless, for good cause shown, the Chairman extends such thirty-day period. If, after his or her review, the Chairman also refuses to correct or to amend the record in accordance with the request, the Individual may file with the Commission a concise statement setting forth the reasons for his or her disagreement with the refusal of the Commission and may seek judicial review of the Chairman's determination under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(A).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 38542, Oct. 1, 1984, as amended at 67 FR 60863, Sept. 27, 2002; 77 FR 48430, Aug. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.9" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.9   Disclosure of record to a person other than the individual to whom the record pertains.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will not disclose a record to any individual other than the individual to whom the record pertains without receiving the prior written consent of the individual to whom the record pertains, unless the disclosure has been listed as a “routine use” in the Commission's notices of its system of records, or falls within one of the special disclosure situations listed in the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a(b)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2705.10" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.6.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2705.10   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>If an individual requests copies of his or her record, he or she will be charged a reasonable fee, excluding the cost of any search for review of the record, in advance of receipt of the pages.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2706" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2706—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE FEDERAL MINE SAFETY AND HEALTH REVIEW COMMISSION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 22893, 22896, June 23, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2706.101" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part effectuates section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.102" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.103" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Handicapped person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>As used in this definition, the phrase: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term “physical or mental impairment” includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in subparagraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P><I>Historic preservation programs</I> means programs conducted by the agency that have preservation of historic properties as a primary purpose. 
</P>
<P><I>Historic properties</I> means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified handicapped person</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to preschool, elementary, or secondary education services provided by the agency, a handicapped person who is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive education services from the agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can acheive the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; 
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other program or activity, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 2706.140. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), and the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs. 
</P>
<P><I>Substantial impairment</I> means a significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2706.104-2706.109" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2706.104-2706.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.110" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.110   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, by August 24, 1987, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written). 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, until three years following the completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspection: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified, and 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.111" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2706.112-2706.129" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2706.112-2706.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.130" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap— 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified handicapped person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified handicapped person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped persons or to any class of handicapped persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangments, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude handicapped persons from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to handicapped persons or the exclusion of a specific class of handicapped persons from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of handicapped persons is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified handicapped persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2706.131-2706.139" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2706.131-2706.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.140" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2706.141-2706.148" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2706.141-2706.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.149" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.149   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 2706.150, no qualified handicapped person shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.150" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.150   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by handicapped persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require the agency to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 2706.150(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historic preservation programs.</I> In meeting the requirements of § 2706.150(a) in historic preservation programs, the agency shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to handicapped persons. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of § 2706.150(a)(2) or (a)(3), alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—
</P>
<P>(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigning persons to guide handicapped persons into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Adopting other innovative methods.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section by October 21, 1986, except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made by August 22, 1989, but in any event as expeditiously as possible. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, by February 23, 1987 a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to handicapped persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.151" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.151   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2706.152-2706.159" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2706.152-2706.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.160" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford a handicapped person an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the handicapped person.
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf person (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and adminstrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 2706.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2706.161-2706.169" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2706.161-2706.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2706.170" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2706.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c) The General Counsel shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints may be sent to General Counsel, Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 520N, Washington, DC 20004-1710
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity. 
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), is not readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing— 
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal. 
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 2706.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency. 
</P>
<P>(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22893, 22896, June 23, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 22893, June 23, 1986; 67 FR 60863, Sept. 27, 2002; 77 FR 48431, Aug. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2706.171-2706.999" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.7.0.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2706.171-2706.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2707-2799" NODE="29:9.1.3.13.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 2707-2799 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XL" NODE="29:9.1.4" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XL—PENSION BENEFIT GUARANTY CORPORATION</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.13" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—GENERAL


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4000" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4000—FILING, ISSUANCE, COMPUTATION OF TIME, AND RECORD RETENTION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1083(k), 1302(b)(3).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 61347, Oct. 28, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Filing Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.1   What are these filing rules about?</HEAD>
<P>Where a particular regulation calls for their application, the rules in this subpart A of part 4000 tell you what filing methods you may use for any submission (including a payment) to us. They do not cover an issuance from you to anyone other than the PBGC, such as a notice to participants. Also, they do not cover filings with us that are not made under our regulations, such as procurement filings, litigation filings, and applications for employment with us. (Subpart B tells you what methods you may use to issue a notice or otherwise provide information to any person other than us. Subpart C tells you how we determine your filing or issuance date. Subpart D tells you how to compute various periods of time. Subpart E tells you how to maintain required records in electronic form.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.2   What definitions do I need to know for these rules?</HEAD>
<P>You need to know two definitions from § 4001.2 of this chapter: PBGC and person. You also need to know the following definitions: 
</P>
<P><I>Filing</I> means any notice, information, or payment that you submit to us under our regulations. 
</P>
<P><I>Issuance</I> means any notice or other information you provide to any person other than us under our regulations. 
</P>
<P><I>We</I> means the PBGC. 
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means the person filing with us. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.3   What methods of filing may I use?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Paper filings.</I> Except for the filings listed in paragraph (b) of this section, you may file any submission with us by hand, mail, or commercial delivery service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic filings.</I> (1) You must file premium declarations under part 4007 of this chapter electronically in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website subject to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) This electronic filing requirement does not apply to premium information to the extent that PBGC grants an exemption for good cause in appropriate circumstances.
</P>
<P>(ii) This electronic filing requirement does not apply to premium payments except to the extent that PBGC so provides in the instructions on PBGC's website.
</P>
<P>(iii) This electronic filing requirement does not apply to information you file to comply with a request we make under § 4007.10(c) of this chapter (dealing with providing record information in connection with a premium compliance review).
</P>
<P>(2) You must submit the information required under part 4010 of this chapter electronically in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website, except as otherwise provided by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(3) You must file notices under part 4043 of this chapter electronically in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov</I>, except as otherwise provided by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(4) When making filings to PBGC under parts 4041A, 4245, 4262, and 4281 of this chapter (except for notices of benefit reductions and notices of restoration of benefits under part 4281), you must submit the information required under these parts electronically in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website, except as otherwise provided by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(5) You must submit the information required under subpart B of part 4041 of this chapter electronically in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website, except as otherwise provided by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(6) You must submit the information required under part 4050 of this chapter electronically in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website, except as otherwise provided by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(7) You must submit the information necessary to request a coverage determination under section 4021 of ERISA electronically in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website, except as otherwise provided by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information on how to file.</I> Current information on how to file is—
</P>
<P>(1) On our website, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov;</I>
</P>
<P>(2) In our various printed forms and instructions packages; and
</P>
<P>(3) Available by contacting our Customer Service Center at 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024-2101; telephone 1-800-400-7242 (for participants), or 1-800-736-2444 (for practitioners). (If you are deaf or hard of hearing or have a speech disability, please dial 7-1-1 to access telecommunications relay services.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 11543, Mar. 9, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 31080, June 1, 2006; 79 FR 13559, Mar. 11, 2014; 80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015; 80 FR 55745, Sept. 17, 2015; 80 FR 57717, Sept. 25, 2015; 86 FR 36620, July 12, 2021; 87 FR 57825, Sept. 22, 2022; 90 FR 39327, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.4   Where do I file my submission?</HEAD>
<P>To find out where to send your submission, visit our Web site at <I>http://www.pbgc.gov,</I> see the instructions to our forms, or call our Customer Service Center (1-800-400-7242 for participants, or 1-800-736-2444 for practitioners; If you are deaf or hard of hearing or have a speech disability, please dial 7-1-1 to access telecommunications relay services.) Because we have different addresses for different types of filings, you should make sure to use the appropriate address for your type of filing. For example, some filings (such as premium payments) must be sent to a specified bank, while other filings (such as the Standard Termination Notice (Form 500)) must be sent to the appropriate department at our offices in Washington, DC. You do not have to address electronic submissions made through our Web site. We are responsible for ensuring that such submissions go to the proper place.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61347, Oct. 28, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 11543, Mar. 9, 2005; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.5   Does the PBGC have discretion to waive these filing requirements?</HEAD>
<P>We retain the discretion to waive any requirement under this part, at any time, if warranted by the facts and circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Issuance Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.11   What are these issuance rules about?</HEAD>
<P>Where a particular regulation calls for their application, the rules in this subpart B of part 4000 tell you what methods you may use to issue a notice or otherwise provide information to any person other than us (e.g., a participant or beneficiary). They do <I>not</I> cover payments to third parties. In some cases, the PBGC regulations tell you to comply with requirements that are found somewhere other than in the PBGC's own regulations (e.g., requirements under the Internal Revenue Code). If so, you must comply with any applicable issuance rules under those other requirements. (Subpart A tells you what filing methods you may use for filings with us. Subpart C tells you how we determine your filing or issuance date. Subpart D tells you how to compute various periods of time. Subpart E tells you how to maintain required records in electronic form.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.12   What definitions do I need to know for these rules?</HEAD>
<P>You need to know two definitions from § 4001.2 of this chapter: PBGC and person. You also need to know the following definitions:
</P>
<P><I>Filing</I> means any notice, information, or payment that you submit to us under our regulations. 
</P>
<P><I>Issuance</I> means any notice or other information you provide to any person other than us under our regulations. 
</P>
<P><I>We</I> means the PBGC. 
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means the person providing the issuance to a third party. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.13   What methods of issuance may I use?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> You may use any method of issuance, provided you use measures reasonably calculated to ensure actual receipt of the material by the intended recipient. Posting is not a permissible method of issuance under the rules of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic safe-harbor method.</I> Section 4000.14 provides a safe-harbor method for meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section when providing an issuance using electronic media. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.14   What is the safe-harbor method for providing an issuance by electronic media?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided by applicable law, rule or regulation, you satisfy the requirements of § 4000.13 if you follow the methods described at paragraph (b) of this section when providing an issuance by electronic media to any person described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance requirements.</I> (1) You must take appropriate and necessary measures reasonably calculated to ensure that the system for furnishing documents—
</P>
<P>(i) Results in actual receipt of transmitted information (e.g., using return-receipt or notice of undelivered electronic mail features, conducting periodic reviews or surveys to confirm receipt of the transmitted information); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Protects confidential information relating to the intended recipient (e.g., incorporating into the system measures designed to preclude unauthorized receipt of or access to such information by anyone other than the intended recipient); 
</P>
<P>(2) You prepare and furnish electronically delivered documents in a manner that is consistent with the style, format and content requirements applicable to the particular document;
</P>
<P>(3) You provide each intended recipient with a notice, in electronic or non-electronic form, at the time a document is furnished electronically, that apprises the intended recipient of— 
</P>
<P>(i) The significance of the document when it is not otherwise reasonably evident as transmitted (e.g., “The attached participant notice contains information on the funding level of your defined benefit pension plan and the benefits guaranteed by the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.”); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The intended recipient's right to request and obtain a paper version of such document; and 
</P>
<P>(4) You give the intended recipient, upon request, a paper version of the electronically furnished documents. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employees with electronic access.</I> This section applies to a participant who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Has the ability to effectively access the document furnished in electronic form at any location where the participant is reasonably expected to perform duties as an employee; and 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to whom access to the employer's electronic information system is an integral part of those duties. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Any person.</I> This section applies to any person who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, has affirmatively consented, in electronic or non-electronic form, to receiving documents through electronic media and has not withdrawn such consent; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of documents to be furnished through the Internet or other electronic communication network, has affirmatively consented or confirmed consent electronically, in a manner that reasonably demonstrates the person's ability to access information in the electronic form that will be used to provide the information that is the subject of the consent, and has provided an address for the receipt of electronically furnished documents; 
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to consenting, is provided, in electronic or non-electronic form, a clear and conspicuous statement indicating: 
</P>
<P>(i) The types of documents to which the consent would apply; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That consent can be withdrawn at any time without charge; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The procedures for withdrawing consent and for updating the participant's, beneficiary's or other person's address for receipt of electronically furnished documents or other information; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The right to request and obtain a paper version of an electronically furnished document, including whether the paper version will be provided free of charge; 
</P>
<P>(v) Any hardware and software requirements for accessing and retaining the documents; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Following consent, if a change in hardware or software requirements needed to access or retain electronic documents creates a material risk that the person will be unable to access or retain electronically furnished documents, 
</P>
<P>(i) Is provided with a statement of the revised hardware or software requirements for access to and retention of electronically furnished documents; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is given the right to withdraw consent without charge and without the imposition of any condition or consequence that was not disclosed at the time of the initial consent; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Again consents, in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) or paragraph (d)(2) of this section, as applicable, to the receipt of documents through electronic media. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.15   Does the PBGC have discretion to waive these issuance requirements?</HEAD>
<P>We retain the discretion to waive any requirement under this part, at any time, if warranted by the facts and circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Determining Filing and Issuance Dates</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.21   What are these rules for determining the filing or issuance date about?</HEAD>
<P>Where the particular regulation calls for their application, the rules in this subpart C of part 4000 tell you how we will determine the date you send us a filing and the date you provide an issuance to someone other than us (such as a participant). These rules do <I>not</I> cover payments to third parties. In addition, they do not cover filings with us that are not made under our regulations, such as procurement filings, litigation filings, and applications for employment with us. In some cases, the PBGC regulations tell you to comply with requirements that are found somewhere other than in the PBGC's own regulations (e.g., requirements under the Internal Revenue Code (Title 26, USC)). In meeting those requirements, you should follow any applicable rules under those requirements for determining the filing and issuance date. (Subpart A tells you what filing methods you may use for filings with us. Subpart B tells you what methods you may use to issue a notice or otherwise provide information to any person other than us. Subpart D tells you how to compute various periods of time. Subpart E tells you how to maintain required records in electronic form.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.22   What definitions do I need to know for these rules?</HEAD>
<P>You need to know two definitions from § 4001.2 of this chapter: PBGC and person. You also need to know the following definitions:
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means a day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. <I>We</I> means the PBGC.
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means the person filing with us or the person providing the issuance to a third party. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.23" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.23   When is my submission or issuance treated as filed or issued?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filed or issued when sent.</I> Generally, we treat your submission as filed, or your issuance as provided, on the date you send it, if you meet certain requirements. The requirements depend upon the method you use to send your submission or issuance (see §§ 4000.24 through 4000.29). (Certain filings are always treated as filed when received, as explained in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.) A submission made through our Web site is considered to have been sent when you perform the last act necessary to indicate that your submission is filed and cannot be further edited or withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filed or issued when received</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If you do not meet the requirements for your submission or issuance to be treated as filed or issued when sent (see §§ 4000.24 through 4000.32), we treat it as filed or issued on the date received in a permitted format at the proper address. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain filings always treated as filed when received.</I> We treat the following submissions as filed on the date we receive your submission, no matter what method you use: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applications for benefits.</I> An application for benefits or related submission (unless the instructions for the applicable forms provide for an earlier date); 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Advance notice of reportable events.</I> Information required under subpart C of part 4043 of this chapter, dealing with advance notice of reportable events; 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Form 200 filings.</I> Information required under subpart D of part 4043 of this chapter, dealing with notice of certain missed minimum funding contributions; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Requests for approval of multiemployer plan amendments.</I> A request for approval of an amendment filed with the PBGC pursuant to part 4220 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determining our receipt date for your filing.</I> If we receive your submission at the correct address by 5 p.m. (our time) on a business day, we treat it as received on that date. If we receive your submission at the correct address after 5 p.m. on a business day, or anytime on a weekend or Federal holiday, we treat it as received on the next business day. For example, if you send your fax or e-mail of a Form 200 filing to us in Washington, DC, on Friday, March 15, from California at 3 p.m. (Pacific standard time), and we receive it immediately at 6 p.m. (our time), we treat it as received on Monday, March 18. A submission made through our Web site is considered to have been received when we receive an electronic signal that you have performed the last act necessary to indicate that your submission is filed and cannot be further edited or withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61347, Oct. 28, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 11543, Mar. 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.24" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.24   What if I mail my submission or issuance using the U.S. Postal Service?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Your filing or issuance date is the date you mail your submission or issuance using the U.S. Postal Service if you meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and you mail it by the last scheduled collection of the day. If you mail it later than that, or if there is no scheduled collection that day, your filing or issuance date is the date of the next scheduled collection. If you do not meet the requirements of paragraph (b), your filing or issuance date is the date of receipt at the proper address. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for “send date.”</I> Your submission or issuance must meet the applicable postal requirements, be properly addressed, and you must use First-Class Mail (or a U.S. Postal Service mail class that is at least the equivalent of First-Class Mail, such as Priority Mail or Express Mail). However, if you are filing an advance notice of reportable event or a Form 200 (notice of certain missed contributions), see § 4000.23(b); these filings are always treated as filed when received. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presumptions.</I> We make the following presumptions— 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>U.S. Postal Service postmark.</I> If you meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and your submission or issuance has a legible U.S. Postal Service postmark, we presume that the postmark date is the filing or issuance date. However, you may prove an earlier date under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Private meter postmark.</I> If you meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and your submission or issuance has a legible postmark made by a private postage meter (but no legible U.S. Postal Service postmark) and arrives at the proper address by the time reasonably expected, we presume that the metered postmark date is your filing or issuance date. However, you may prove an earlier date under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> (1) You mail your issuance using the U.S. Postal Service and meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. You deposit your issuance in a mailbox at 4 p.m. on Friday, March 15 and the next scheduled collection at that mailbox is 5 p.m. that day. Your issuance date is March 15. If on the other hand you deposit it at 6 p.m. and the next collection at that mailbox is not until Monday, March 18, your issuance date is March 18. 
</P>
<P>(2) You mail your submission using the U.S. Postal Service and meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. You deposit your submission in the mailbox at 4 p.m. on Friday, March 15, and the next scheduled collection at that mailbox is 5 p.m. that day. If your submission does not show a March 15 postmark, then you may prove to us that you mailed your submission by the last scheduled collection on March 15. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.25" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.25   What if I use the postal service of a foreign country?</HEAD>
<P>If you send your submission or issuance using the postal service of a foreign country, your filing or issuance date is the date of receipt at the proper address. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.26" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.26   What if I use a commercial delivery service?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Your filing or issuance date is the date you deposit your submission or issuance with the commercial delivery service if you meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and you deposit it by the last scheduled collection of the day for the type of delivery you use (such as two-day delivery or overnight delivery). If you deposit it later than that, or if there is no scheduled collection that day, your filing or issuance date is the date of the next scheduled collection. If you do not meet the requirements of paragraph (b), your filing or issuance date is the date of receipt at the proper address. However, if you are filing an advance notice of reportable event or a Form 200 (notice of certain missed contributions), see § 4000.23(b); these filings are always treated as filed when received. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for “send date.”</I> Your submission or issuance must meet the applicable requirements of the commercial delivery service, be properly addressed, and—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Delivery within two days.</I> It must be reasonable to expect your submission or issuance will arrive at the proper address by 5 p.m. on the second business day after the next scheduled collection; or 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Designated delivery service.</I> You must use a “designated delivery service” under section 7502(f) of the Internal Revenue Code (Title 26, USC). Our Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov,</I> lists those designated delivery services. You should make sure that both the provider and the particular type of delivery (such as two-day delivery) are designated. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Example.</I> You send your submission by commercial delivery service using two-day delivery. In addition, you meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Suppose that the deadline for two-day delivery at the place you make your deposit is 8 p.m. on Friday, March 15. If you deposit your submission by that the deadline, your filing date is March 15. If, instead, you deposit it after the 8 p.m. deadline and the next collection at that site for two-day delivery is on Monday, March 18, your filing date is March 18. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.27" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.27   What if I hand deliver my submission or issuance?</HEAD>
<P>Your filing or issuance date is the date of receipt of your hand-delivered submission or issuance at the proper address. A hand-delivered issuance need not be delivered while the intended recipient is physically present. For example, unless you have reason to believe that the intended recipient will not receive the notice within a reasonable amount of time, a notice is deemed to be received when you place it in the intended recipient's office mailbox. Our Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov,</I> and the instructions to our forms, identify the proper addresses for filings with us. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.28" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.28   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.29" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.29   What if I use electronic delivery?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Your filing or issuance date is the date you electronically transmit your submission or issuance to the proper address if you meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Note that we always treat an advance notice of reportable event and a Form 200 (notice of certain missed contributions) as filed when received. A submission made through our Web site is considered to have been transmitted when you perform the last act necessary to indicate that your submission is filed and cannot be further edited or withdrawn. You do not have to address electronic submissions made through our Web site. We are responsible for ensuring that such submissions go to the proper place.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Filings.</I> For electronic filings, if you fail to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(3) of this section, we may treat your submission as invalid. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Issuances.</I> For electronic issuances, we may treat your issuance as invalid if— 
</P>
<P>(i) You fail to meet the requirements (“using measures reasonably calculated to ensure actual receipt”) of § 4000.13(a), or 
</P>
<P>(ii) You fail to meet the contact information requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> To get the filing date under paragraph (a) of this section, you must meet the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3). To get the issuance date under paragraph (a), you must meet the requirement of paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3). 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Technical requirements for filings.</I> For filings, your electronic submission must comply with any technical requirements for that type of submission (our Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov,</I> identifies the technical requirements for each type of filing). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Technical requirements for issuances.</I> For issuances, you must comply with the safe-harbor method under § 4000.14. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Identify contact person.</I> For an e-mail submission or issuance with an attachment, you must include, in the body of your e-mail, the name and telephone number of the person to contact if we or the intended recipient needs you to resubmit your filing or issuance. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to meet address requirement.</I> If you send your electronic submission or issuance to the wrong address (but you meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section), your filing or issuance date is the date of receipt at the proper address. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61347, Oct. 28, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 11544, Mar. 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.30" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.30   What if I need to resend my filing or issuance for technical reasons?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request to resubmit</I>—(1) <I>Filing.</I> We may ask you to resubmit all or a portion of your filing for technical reasons (for example, because we are unable to open an attachment to your e-mail). In that case, your submission (or portion) is invalid. However, if you comply with the request or otherwise resolve the problem (e.g., by providing advice that allows us to open the attachment to your e-mail) by the date we specify, your filing date for the submission (or portion) that we asked you to resubmit is the date you filed your original submission. If you comply with our request late, your submission (or portion) will be treated as filed on the date of your resubmission. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Issuance.</I> The intended recipient may, for good reason (of a technical nature), ask you to resend all or a portion of your issuance (for example, because of a technical problem in opening an attachment to your e-mail). In that case, your issuance (or portion) is invalid. However, if you comply with the request or otherwise resolve the problem (e.g., by providing advice that the recipient uses to open the attachment to your e-mail), within a reasonable time, your issuance date for the issuance (or portion) that the intended recipient asked you to resend is the date you provided your original issuance. If you comply with the request late, your issuance (or portion) will be treated as provided on the date of your reissuance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reason to believe submission or issuance not received or defective.</I> If you have reason to believe that we have not received your submission (or have received it in a form that is not useable), or that the intended recipient has not received your issuance (or has received it in a form that is not useable), you must promptly resend your submission or issuance to get your original filing or issuance date. However, we may require evidence to support your original filing or issuance date. If you are not prompt, or you do not provide us with any evidence we may require to support your original filing or issuance date, your filing or issuance date is the filing or issuance date of your resubmission or reissuance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.31" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.31   Is my issuance untimely if I miss a few participants or beneficiaries?</HEAD>
<P>The PBGC will not treat your issuance as untimely based on your failure to provide the issuance to a participant or beneficiary in a timely manner if—
</P>
<P>(a) The failure resulted from administrative error; 
</P>
<P>(b) The failure involved only a <I>de minimis</I> percentage of intended recipients; and 
</P>
<P>(c) You resend the issuance to the intended recipient promptly after discovering the error. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.32" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.3.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.32   Does the PBGC have discretion to waive any requirements under this part?</HEAD>
<P>We retain the discretion to waive any requirement under this part, at any time, if warranted by the facts and circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Computation of Time</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.41" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.41   What are these computation-of-time rules about?</HEAD>
<P>The rules in this subpart D of part 4000 tell you how to compute time periods under our regulations (e.g., for filings with us and issuances to third parties) where the particular regulation calls for their application. (There are specific exceptions or modifications to these rules in § 4007.6 of this chapter (premium payments), and § 4062.10 of this chapter (employer liability payments). In some cases, the PBGC regulations tell you to comply with requirements that are found somewhere other than in the PBGC's own regulations (e.g., requirements under the Internal Revenue Code (Title 26, USC)). In meeting those requirements, you should follow any applicable computation-of-time rules under those other requirements. (Subpart A tells you what filing methods you may use for filings with us. Subpart B tells you what methods you may use to issue a notice or otherwise provide information to any person other than us. Subpart C tells you how we determine your filing or issuance date. Subpart E tells you how to maintain required records in electronic form.) 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61347, Oct. 28, 2003, as amended at 82 FR 60817, Dec. 22, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.42" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.42   What definitions do I need to know for these rules?</HEAD>
<P>You need to know two definitions from § 4001.2 of this chapter: PBGC and person. You also need to know the following definitions: 
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means a day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. 
</P>
<P><I>We</I> means the PBGC. 
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means the person responsible, under our regulations, for the filing or issuance to which these rules apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.43" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.43   How do I compute a time period?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If you are computing a time period to which this part applies, whether you are counting forwards or backwards, the day after (or before) the act, event, or default that begins the period is day one, the next day is day two, and so on. Count all days, including weekends and Federal holidays. However, if the last day you count is a weekend or Federal holiday, extend or shorten the period (whichever benefits you in complying with the time requirement) to the next regular business day. The examples in paragraph (d) of this section illustrate these rules. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When date is designated.</I> In some cases, our regulations designate a specific day as the end of a time period, such as “the last day” of a plan year or “the fifteenth day” of a calendar month. In these cases, you simply use the designated day, together with the weekend and holiday rule of paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When counting months.</I> If a time period is measured in months, first identify the date (day, month, and year) of the act, event, or default that begins the period. The corresponding day of the following (or preceding) month is one month later (or earlier), and so on. For example, two months after July 15 is September 15. If the period ends on a weekend or Federal holiday, follow the weekend and holiday rule of paragraph (a) of this section. There are two special rules for determining what the corresponding day is when you start counting on a day that is at or near the end of a calendar month: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Special “last-day” rule.</I> If you start counting on the last day of a calendar month, the corresponding day of any calendar month is the last day of that calendar month. For example, a three-month period measured from November 30 ends (if counting forward) on the last day of February (the 28th or 29th) or (if counting backward) on the last day of August (the 31st). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special February rule.</I> If you start counting on the 29th or 30th of a calendar month, the corresponding day of February is the last day of February. For example, a one-month period measured from January 29 ends on the last day of February (the 28th or 29th). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Counting backwards.</I> Suppose you are required to file an advance notice of reportable event for a transaction that is effective December 31. Under our regulations, the notice is due at least 30 days before the effective date of the event. To determine your deadline, count December 30 as day 1, December 29 as day 2, December 28 as day 3, and so on. Therefore, December 1 is day 30. Assuming that day is not a weekend or holiday, your notice is timely if you file it on or before December 1. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Weekend or holiday rule.</I> Suppose you are filing a notice of intent to terminate. The notice must be issued at least 60 days and no more than 90 days before the proposed termination date. Suppose the 60th day before the proposed termination date is a Saturday. Your notice is timely if you issue it on the following Monday even though that is only 58 days before the proposed termination date. Similarly, if the 90th day before the proposed termination date is Wednesday, July 4 (a Federal holiday), your notice is timely if you issue it on Tuesday, July 3, even though that is 91 days before the proposed termination date. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Counting months.</I> Suppose you are required to issue a Participant Notice two months after December 31. The deadline for the Participant Notice is the last day of February (the 28th or 29th). If the last day of February is a weekend or Federal holiday, your deadline is extended until the next day that is not a weekend or Federal holiday. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Electronic Means of Record Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.51" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.51   What are these record retention rules about?</HEAD>
<P>The rules in this subpart E of part 4000 tell you what methods you may use to meet any record retention requirement under our regulations if you choose to use electronic means. The rules for who must retain the records, how long the records must be maintained, and how records must be made available to us are contained in the specific part where the record retention requirement is found. (Subpart A tells you what filing methods you may use for filings with us and how we determine your filing date. Subpart B tells you what methods you may use to issue a notice or otherwise provide information to any person other than us. Subpart C tells you how we determine your filing or issuance date. Subpart D tells you how to compute various periods of time.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.52" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.52   What definitions do I need to know for these rules?</HEAD>
<P>You need to know two definitions from § 4001.2 of this chapter: PBGC and person. You also need to know the following definitions: 
</P>
<P><I>We</I> means the PBGC. 
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means the person subject to the record retention requirement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.53" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.53   May I use electronic media to satisfy PBGC's record retention requirements?</HEAD>
<P><I>General requirements.</I> You may use electronic media to satisfy the record maintenance and retention requirements of this chapter if: 
</P>
<P>(a) The electronic recordkeeping system has reasonable controls to ensure the integrity, accuracy, authenticity and reliability of the records kept in electronic form; 
</P>
<P>(b) The electronic records are maintained in reasonable order and in a safe and accessible place, and in such manner as they may be readily inspected or examined (for example, the recordkeeping system should be capable of indexing, retaining, preserving, retrieving and reproducing the electronic records); 
</P>
<P>(c) The electronic records are readily convertible into legible and readable paper copy as may be needed to satisfy reporting and disclosure requirements or any other obligation under section 101(f), section 303(k)(4), or Title IV of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(d) The electronic recordkeeping system is not subject, in whole or in part, to any agreement or restriction that would, directly or indirectly, compromise or limit a person's ability to comply with any reporting and disclosure requirement or any other obligation under section 101(f), section 303(k)(4), or Title IV of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(e) Adequate records management practices are established and implemented (for example, following procedures for labeling of electronically maintained or retained records, providing a secure storage environment, creating back-up electronic copies and selecting an off-site storage location, observing a quality assurance program evidenced by regular evaluations of the electronic recordkeeping system including periodic checks of electronically maintained or retained records; and retaining paper copies of records that cannot be clearly, accurately or completely transferred to an electronic recordkeeping system); and 
</P>
<P>(f) All electronic records exhibit a high degree of legibility and readability when displayed on a video display terminal or other method of electronic transmission and when reproduced in paper form. The term “legibility” means the observer must be able to identify all letters and numerals positively and quickly to the exclusion of all other letters or numerals. The term “readability” means that the observer must be able to recognize a group of letters or numerals as words or complete numbers. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61347, Oct. 28, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4000.54" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.1.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4000.54   May I dispose of original paper records if I keep electronic copies?</HEAD>
<P>You may dispose of original paper records any time after they are transferred to an electronic recordkeeping system that complies with the requirements of this subpart, except such original records may not be discarded if the electronic record would not constitute a duplicate or substitute record under the terms of the plan and applicable federal or state law. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1212-0059)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4001" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4001—TERMINOLOGY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1301, 1302(b)(3). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34010, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4001.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.2.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4001.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This part contains definitions of certain terms used in this chapter and the regulations under which the PBGC makes various controlled group determinations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Title IV coverage.</I> Coverage by section 4050 of ERISA is not and does not result in or confer coverage by title IV of ERISA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34010, July 1, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 60817, Dec. 22, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4001.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.2.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4001.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this chapter (unless otherwise indicated or required by the context): 
</P>
<P><I>Affected party</I> means, with respect to a plan— 
</P>
<P>(1) Each participant in the plan; 
</P>
<P>(2) Each beneficiary of a deceased participant; 
</P>
<P>(3) Each alternate payee under an applicable qualified domestic relations order, as defined in section 206(d)(3) of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(4) Each employee organization that currently represents any group of participants; 
</P>
<P>(5) For any group of participants not currently represented by an employee organization, the employee organization, if any, that last represented such group of participants within the 5-year period preceding issuance of the notice of intent to terminate; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The PBGC.
</P>
<FP>If an affected party has designated, in writing, a person to receive a notice on behalf of the affected party, any reference to the affected party (in connection with the notice) shall be construed to refer to such person. 
</FP>
<P><I>Annuity</I> means a series of periodic payments to a participant or surviving beneficiary for a fixed or contingent period.
</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy filing date</I> means, with respect to a plan, the date on which a petition commencing a case under the United States Bankruptcy Code is filed, or the date on which any similar filing is made commencing a case under any similar Federal law or law of a State or political subdivision, with respect to the contributing sponsor of the plan, if such case has not been dismissed as of the termination date of the plan. If a bankruptcy petition is filed under one chapter of the United States Bankruptcy Code, or under one chapter or provision of any such similar law, and the case is converted to a case under a different chapter or provision of such Code or similar law (for example, a Chapter 11 reorganization case is converted to a Chapter 7 liquidation case), the date of the original petition is the bankruptcy filing date. If such a plan has more than one contributing sponsor:
</P>
<P>(1) If all contributing sponsors entered bankruptcy on the same date, that date is the bankruptcy filing date;
</P>
<P>(2) If all contributing sponsors did not enter bankruptcy on the same date (or if not all contributing sponsors are in bankruptcy), PBGC will determine the date that will be treated as the bankruptcy filing date based on the facts and circumstances, which may include such things as the relative sizes of the contributing sponsors, the relative amounts of their minimum required contributions to the plan, the timing of the different bankruptcies, and the expectations of participants.
</P>
<P><I>Basic-type benefit</I> means a benefit that is guaranteed under part 4022 of this chapter or that would be guaranteed if the guarantee limits in §§ 4022.22 through 4022.27 of this chapter did not apply. In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, it also includes a benefit accrued by a participant, or to which a participant otherwise became entitled, on or before the plan's termination date but that is not guaranteed solely because of the provisions of §§ 4022.3(b) or 4022.4(c).
</P>
<P><I>Benefit liabilities</I> means the benefits of participants and their beneficiaries under the plan (within the meaning of section 401(a)(2) of the Code). 
</P>
<P><I>Code</I> means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Complete withdrawal</I> means a complete withdrawal as described in section 4203 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Contributing sponsor</I> means a person who is a contributing sponsor as defined in section 4001(a)(13) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlled group</I> means, in connection with any person, a group consisting of such person and all other persons under common control with such person, determined under § 4001.3 of this part. For purposes of determining the persons liable for contributions under section 412(b)(2) of the Code or section 302(b)(2) of ERISA, or for premiums under section 4007(e)(2) of ERISA, a controlled group also includes any group treated as a single employer under section 414 (m) or (o) of the Code. Any reference to a plan's controlled group means all contributing sponsors of the plan and all members of each contributing sponsor's controlled group.
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> means the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, except where the context demonstrates that a different meaning is intended. 
</P>
<P><I>Defined benefit plan</I> means a plan described in section 3(35) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Disclosure Officer</I> means the official designated as Disclosure Officer in the Office of the General Counsel, PBGC.
</P>
<P><I>Distress termination</I> means the voluntary termination of a single-employer plan in accordance with section 4041(c) of ERISA and part 4041, subpart C, of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Distribution date</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) For benefits provided through the purchase of irrevocable commitments, the date on which the obligation to provide the benefits passes from the plan to the insurer; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For benefits provided other than through the purchase of irrevocable commitments, the date on which the benefits are delivered to the participant or beneficiary (or to another plan or benefit arrangement or other recipient authorized by the participant or beneficiary in accordance with applicable law and regulations) personally or by deposit with a mail or courier service (as evidenced by a postmark or written receipt); or 
</P>
<P><I>Earliest retirement age at valuation date</I> means the later of: a participant's age on his or her birthday nearest to the valuation date, or the participant's attained age as of his or her Earliest PBGC Retirement Date (as determined under § 4022.10 of this chapter).
</P>
<P><I>EIN</I> means the nine-digit employer identification number assigned by the Internal Revenue Service to a person. 
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means all trades or businesses (whether or not incorporated) that are under common control, within the meaning of § 4001.3 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Expected retirement age (XRA)</I> means the age, determined in accordance with §§ 4044.55 through 4044.58 of this chapter, at which a participant is expected to begin receiving benefits when the participant has not elected, before the allocation date, an annuity starting date. This is the age to which a participant's benefit payment is assumed to be deferred for valuation purposes. An XRA is equal to or greater than the participant's earliest retirement age at valuation date but less than his or her normal retirement age.
</P>
<P><I>Fair market value</I> means the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of relevant facts. 
</P>
<P><I>FOIA</I> means the Freedom of Information Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552). 
</P>
<P><I>Funding standard account</I> means an account established and maintained under section 304(b) of ERISA or section 431(b) of the Code. 
</P>
<P><I>Guaranteed benefit</I> means a benefit under a single-employer plan that is guaranteed by the PBGC under section 4022(a) of ERISA and part 4022 of this chapter, or a benefit under a multiemployer plan that is guaranteed by the PBGC under section 4022A of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Insurer</I> means a company authorized to do business as an insurance carrier under the laws of a State or the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P><I>Irrevocable commitment</I> means an obligation by an insurer to pay benefits to a named participant or surviving beneficiary, if the obligation cannot be cancelled under the terms of the insurance contract (except for fraud or mistake) without the consent of the participant or beneficiary and is legally enforceable by the participant or beneficiary. 
</P>
<P><I>IRS</I> means the Internal Revenue Service. 
</P>
<P><I>Majority owner</I> means, with respect to a contributing sponsor of a single-employer plan, an individual who owns, directly or indirectly (taking into account the constructive ownership rules of section 414(b) and (c) of the Code)—
</P>
<P>(1) The entire interest in an unincorporated trade or business;
</P>
<P>(2) 50 percent or more of the capital interest or the profits interest in a partnership; or
</P>
<P>(3) 50 percent or more of either the voting stock of a corporation or the value of all of the stock of a corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Mandatory employee contributions</I> means amounts contributed to the plan by a participant that are required as a condition of employment, as a condition of participation in such plan, or as a condition of obtaining benefits under the plan attributable to employer contributions. </P>
<P><I>Mass withdrawal</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The withdrawal of every employer from the plan, 
</P>
<P>(2) The cessation of the obligation of all employers to contribute under the plan, or 
</P>
<P>(3) The withdrawal of substantially all employers pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw. 
</P>
<P><I>Multiemployer Act</I> means the Multiemployer Pension Plan Amendments Act of 1980. 
</P>
<P><I>Multiemployer plan</I> means a plan that is described in section 4001(a)(3) of ERISA and that is covered by title IV of ERISA. Multiemployer plan also means a plan that elects to be a multiemployer plan under ERISA section 3(37)(G) and Code section 414(f)(6), pursuant to procedures prescribed by PBGC.
</P>
<P><I>Multiple employer plan</I> means a single-employer plan maintained by two or more contributing sponsors that are not members of the same controlled group, under which all plan assets are available to pay benefits to all plan participants and beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P><I>Non-PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination</I> means a plan termination that is not a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbasic-type benefit</I> means any benefit provided by a plan other than a basic-type benefit. 
</P>
<P><I>Nonforfeitable benefit</I> means a benefit described in section 4001(a)(8) of ERISA. Benefits that become nonforfeitable solely as a result of the termination of a plan are considered forfeitable. 
</P>
<P><I>Normal retirement age</I> means the age specified in the plan as the normal retirement age. This age shall not exceed the later of age 65 or the age attained after 5 years of participation in the plan. If no normal retirement age is specified in the plan, it is age 65. 
</P>
<P><I>Notice of intent to terminate</I> means the notice of a proposed termination of a single-employer plan, as required by section 4041(a)(2) of ERISA and § 4041.21 (in a standard termination) or § 4041.41 (in a distress termination) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>PBGC</I> means the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means a person defined in section 3(9) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Plan</I> means a defined benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(35) of ERISA that is covered by title IV of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Plan administrator</I> means an administrator, as defined in section 3(16)(A) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Plan sponsor</I> means, with respect to a multiemployer plan, the person described in section 4001(a)(10) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Plan year</I> means the calendar, policy, or fiscal year on which the records of the plan are kept. 
</P>
<P><I>PN</I> means the three-digit plan number assigned to a plan. 
</P>
<P><I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination</I> means a plan termination to which section 404 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006 applies. Section 404 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006 applies to any plan termination in which the termination date occurs while bankruptcy proceedings are pending with respect to the contributing sponsor of the plan, if the bankruptcy proceedings were initiated on or after September 16, 2006. Bankruptcy proceedings are pending, for this purpose, if a contributing sponsor has filed or has had filed against it a petition seeking liquidation or reorganization in a case under title 11, United States Code, or under any similar Federal law or law of a State or political subdivision, and the case has not been dismissed as of the termination date of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Proposed termination date</I> means the date specified as such by the plan administrator of a single-employer plan in a notice of intent to terminate or, if later, in the standard or distress termination notice, in accordance with section 4041 of ERISA and part 4041 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Rollover amounts</I> means the dollar amount of all or any part of a distribution that is rolled over from a defined contribution plan into a defined benefit plan in accordance with section 401(a)(31) or 402(c) or similar provisions under the Internal Revenue Code. Rollover amounts include salary deferral contributions made by the participant, any additional employer contributions provided for under the defined contribution plan, and earnings on both.
</P>
<P><I>Single-employer plan</I> means any defined benefit plan (as defined in section 3(35) of ERISA) that is not a multiemployer plan (as defined in section 4001(a)(3) of ERISA) and that is covered by title IV of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Standard termination</I> means the voluntary termination, in accordance with section 4041(b) of ERISA and part 4041, subpart B, of this chapter, of a single-employer plan that is able to provide for all of its benefit liabilities when plan assets are distributed. 
</P>
<P><I>Sufficient for benefit liabilities</I> means that there is no amount of unfunded benefit liabilities, as defined in section 4001(a)(18) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Sufficient for guaranteed benefits</I> means that there is no amount of unfunded guaranteed benefits, as defined in section 4001(a)(17) of ERISA. In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, the determination whether a plan is sufficient for guaranteed benefits is made taking into account the limitations in sections 4022(g) and 4044(e) of ERISA (and corresponding provisions of these regulations). The determinations of which benefits are guaranteed and which benefits are in priority category 3 under section 4044(a)(3) of ERISA are made by reference to the bankruptcy filing date, but the present values of those benefits are determined as of the proposed termination date and the date of distribution.
</P>
<P><I>Termination date</I> means the date established pursuant to section 4048(a) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Title IV benefit</I> means the guaranteed benefit plus any additional benefits to which plan assets are allocated pursuant to section 4044 of ERISA and part 4044 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Unreduced retirement age (URA)</I> means the earlier of the normal retirement age specified in the plan or the age at which an unreduced benefit is first payable.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. entity</I> means an entity subject to the personal jurisdiction of the U.S. district courts. 
</P>
<P><I>Ultimate parent</I> means the parent at the highest level in the chain of corporations and/or other organizations constituting a parent-subsidiary controlled group.
</P>
<P><I>Voluntary employee contributions</I> means amounts contributed by an employee to a plan, pursuant to the provisions of the plan, that are not mandatory employee contributions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34010, July 1, 1996]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 4001.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4001.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.2.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4001.3   Trades or businesses under common control; controlled groups.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of title IV of ERISA: 
</P>
<P>(a)(1) The PBGC will determine that trades and businesses (whether or not incorporated) are under common control if they are “two or more trades or businesses under common control”, as defined in regulations prescribed under section 414(c) of the Code. 
</P>
<P>(2) The PBGC will determine that all employees of trades or businesses (whether or not incorporated) which are under common control shall be treated as employed by a single employer, and all such trades and businesses shall be treated as a single employer. 
</P>
<P>(3) An individual who owns the entire interest in an unincorporated trade or business is treated as his own employer, and a partnership is treated as the employer of each partner who is an employee within the meaning of section 401(c)(1) of the Code. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a single-employer plan: 
</P>
<P>(1) In connection with any person, a controlled group consists of that person and all other persons under common control with such person. 
</P>
<P>(2) Persons are under common control if they are members of a “controlled group of corporations”, as defined in regulations prescribed under section 414(b) of the Code, or if they are “two or more trades or businesses under common control”, as defined in regulations prescribed under section 414(c) of the Code. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4002" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4002—BYLAWS OF THE PENSION BENEFIT GUARANTY CORPORATION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1302(f).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 42733, Sept. 12, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4002.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.1   Board of Directors, Chair, and Representatives of Board Members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Composition and responsibilities of the Board of Directors</I>—(1) <I>Board.</I> Section 4002(d)(1) of ERISA establishes the Board membership as the Secretaries of Labor (Chair), the Treasury, and Commerce. A person who, at the time of a meeting of the Board of Directors, is serving in an acting capacity as, or performing the duties of, a Member of the Board of Directors will serve as a Member of the Board of Directors with the same authority and effect as the designated Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chair of the Board.</I> As Chair of the Board, the Secretary of Labor will preside over all Board meetings. As a direct report to the Board under section 4002(d)(4) of ERISA, the Inspector General of the Corporation reports to the Board through the Chair. The Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate also reports to the Board through the Chair.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Board responsibilities.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Board may not delegate any of the following responsibilities—
</P>
<P>(i) Voting on an amendment to these bylaws.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approval of the Annual Report, which includes the Annual Management Report (AMR) (and its components the financial statements, management's discussion and analysis, annual performance report and independent auditor's report), the Chair's message, and other documentation in conformance with guidance issued by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
</P>
<P>(iii) Approval of the Corporation's Investment Policy Statement.
</P>
<P>(iv) Approval of all reports or recommendations to the Congress required by Title IV of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(v) Approval of any policy matter (other than administrative policies) that would have a significant impact on the pension insurance program.
</P>
<P>(vi) Review of reports from the Corporation's Inspector General that the Inspector General deems appropriate to deliver to the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investment Policy Statement review.</I> The Board must review the Corporation's Investment Policy Statement at least every two years and approve the Investment Policy Statement at least every four years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of and responsibilities of Board Representatives and Alternate Representatives</I>—(1) <I>Board Representatives.</I> A Board Representative, as designated under section 4002(d)(3) of ERISA, may act for all purposes under these bylaws, except that an action of a Board Representative on a Board Member's behalf with respect to the powers described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, will be valid only upon ratification in writing by the Board Member. Any Board Representative may refer for Board action any matter under consideration by the Board Representatives.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternate Representatives.</I> A Board Member may designate in writing an official, not below the level of Assistant Secretary, to serve as the Board Member's Alternate Representative at a meeting. An Alternate Representative may act for all purposes at that meeting, except that the Alternate Representative's actions will be valid only upon ratification in writing by either the Board Member or the Board Representative. Any action of the Alternate Representative involving the powers described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section or any matter that has been referred to the Board under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be ratified in writing by the Board Member.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ratification.</I> For purposes of this section, ratification of a Board Representative or Alternative Representative action includes approval of the minutes of the meeting of the Board of Directors by voice vote or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review and approval of regulations.</I> Regulations may be issued by the Director of the Corporation, subject to the following conditions—
</P>
<P>(1) Regulations must first be reviewed for comment by each Board Representative except for routine updates of PBGC valuation factors and actuarial assumptions.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board Representative may, within 21 days of receiving a regulation for review, request that it be referred to the Board Representatives for approval.
</P>
<P>(3) Nonsignificant regulations and significant proposed regulations within the meaning of Executive Order 12866 and subject to review under paragraph (c)(1) of this section may be issued by the Director upon either the expiration of the time specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, or, if the approval option is exercised, upon Board Representative approval.
</P>
<P>(4) Significant final regulations must be approved by the Board Representatives or the Board.
</P>
<P>(5) The Director may submit regulations subject to approval by the Board Representatives or the Board to OMB for concurrent review after they have been pending without comment before the Board Representatives or the Board for more than 60 days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.2   Quorum.</HEAD>
<P>Section 4002(d)(2) of ERISA establishes that a majority of the Board Members will constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. Any act of a majority of the Members present at any meeting at which there is a quorum will be the act of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.3   Meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Meetings of the Board of Directors are called by the Chair in accordance with section 4002(e)(1) of ERISA and on the request of any Board Member. The Chair must provide reasonable notice of any meetings to each Board Member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minutes.</I> The General Counsel of the Corporation serves as Secretary to the Board of Directors pursuant to section 4002(d)(5) of ERISA. The General Counsel must keep Board minutes. As soon as practicable after each meeting, the General Counsel must distribute a draft of the minutes of such meeting to each Member of the Board for approval. The Board of Directors may approve minutes by resolution or by voice vote at a subsequent meeting. Subject to appropriate redactions authorized by section 4002(e)(2)(C) of ERISA, approved minutes will be posted on PBGC's Web site.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.4   Place of meetings; use of conference call communications equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Place of meetings.</I> Meetings of the Board of Directors will be held at the principal office of the Corporation or the Department of Labor unless otherwise determined by the Board of Directors or the Chair.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Teleconference.</I> Any Member may participate in a meeting of the Board of Directors through the use of conference call telephone or similar communications equipment, by means of which all persons participating in the meeting can speak to and hear each other. Any Board Member so participating in a meeting will be deemed present for all purposes. Actions taken by the Board of Directors at meetings conducted through the use of such equipment, including the votes of each Member, must be recorded in the minutes of the meetings of the Board of Directors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.5   Voting without a meeting.</HEAD>
<P>A resolution of the Board of Directors signed by all of the Board Members or all of the Board Representatives will have the same effect as if agreed to at a meeting and must be kept in the Corporate Minutes Book. A resolution for an action taken on any matter for which a Board Member has been disqualified under § 4002.6 may be signed by the Board Representative of the disqualified Board Member to the extent the matter is delegable under these bylaws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.6   Conflict of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board Members and Director.</I> The Board Members and the Director must work with their respective ethics office to identify actual or potential conflicts of interest under 18 U.S.C. 208 or section 4002(j) of ERISA or the appearance of the loss of impartiality under 5 CFR 2635.502.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disqualification.</I> A Board Member and the Director must notify the Board Members of disqualification in any decision or activity based on a conflict of interest under paragraph (a) of this section. To the extent a matter is delegable under these bylaws, the disqualified Board Member's Board Representative, acting independently of that Member, may vote on the matter in the Member's place. The disqualified Board Member may not ratify any action taken on the matter giving rise to his or her disqualification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.7   Director of the Corporation and senior officers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Director of the Corporation.</I> Section 4002(a) and (c) of ERISA establish that the Corporation is administered by a Director. Subject to policies established by the Board, the Director is responsible for the Corporation's management, including its personnel, organization and budget practices, and for carrying out the Corporation's functions under Title IV of ERISA. The Director will timely provide the Board any information necessary to assist the Board in exercising its statutory responsibilities. The Director must submit the Corporation's budget to the Chair of the Board for review and approval before formally submitting the budget to OMB.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Senior officers.</I> The senior officers of the Corporation report directly to the Director. The Director must consult with the Board before eliminating or creating a senior officer position or making an appointment to a senior officer position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.8   Emergency procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An emergency exists if a quorum of the Corporation's Board cannot readily be assembled or act through written contact because of the declaration of a government-wide emergency. These emergency procedures must remain in effect during the emergency and upon the termination of the emergency will cease to be operative unless and until another emergency occurs. The emergency procedures operate in conjunction with the PBGC Continuity of Operations Plan (“COOP Plan”) of the current year, and any government-wide COOP protocols in effect.
</P>
<P>(b) During an emergency, the business of the PBGC must continue to be managed in accordance with its COOP Plan. The functions of the Board of Directors must be carried out by those Members of the Board of Directors in office at the time the emergency arises, or by persons designated by the agencies' COOP plans to act in place of the Board Members, who are available to act during the emergency. If no such persons are available, then the authority of the Board must be transferred to the Board Representatives who are available. If no Board Representatives are available, then the Director of the Corporation must perform essential Board functions.
</P>
<P>(c) During an emergency, meetings of the Board may be called by any available Member of the Board. The notice thereof must specify the time and place of the meeting. To the extent possible, notice must be given in accordance with these bylaws. Notice must be given to those Board Members whom it is feasible to reach at the time of the emergency, and notice may be given at a time less than 24 hours before the meeting if deemed necessary by the person giving notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.9   Seal.</HEAD>
<P>The seal of the Corporation must be in such form as may be approved from time to time by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4002.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.3.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4002.10   Authority and amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 4002 of ERISA and the bylaws establish the authority and responsibilities of the Board, the Board Representatives, and the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) These bylaws may be amended or new bylaws adopted by unanimous vote of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4003" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4003—RULES FOR ADMINISTRATIVE REVIEW OF AGENCY DECISIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part sets forth the rules governing the issuance of all initial determinations by PBGC on cases pending before it involving the matters set forth in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section and the procedures for requesting and obtaining administrative review by PBGC of those determinations. Subpart A contains general provisions. Subpart B sets forth rules governing the issuance of all initial determinations of PBGC on matters covered by this part. Subpart C establishes procedures governing the reconsideration by PBGC of initial determinations relating to the matters set forth in paragraph (d). Subpart D establishes procedures governing administrative appeals from initial determinations relating to the matters set forth in paragraph (e). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to the initial determinations made by PBGC that are listed in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Matters not covered by this part.</I> Nothing in this part limits—
</P>
<P>(1) The authority of PBGC to review, either upon request or on its own initiative, a determination to which this part does not apply when, in its discretion, PBGC determines that it would be appropriate to do so, or 
</P>
<P>(2) The procedure that PBGC may utilize in reviewing any determination to which this part does not apply. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determinations subject to reconsideration.</I> Any person aggrieved by an initial determination of PBGC listed in this paragraph (d) may request reconsideration, subject to the terms of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Determinations with respect to premiums, interest and late payment penalties pursuant to section 4007 of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(2) Determinations with respect to voluntary terminations under section 4041 of ERISA, including any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A determination that a notice requirement or a certification requirement under section 4041 of ERISA has not been met;
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination that the requirements for demonstrating distress under section 4041(c)(2)(B) of ERISA have not been met;
</P>
<P>(iii) A determination with respect to the sufficiency of plan assets for benefit liabilities or for guaranteed benefits; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A determination with respect to a plan terminating under section 4041(b) of ERISA or with respect to the distribution of residual assets under section 4044(d) of ERISA; and
</P>
<P>(3) Determinations with respect to penalties under section 4071 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determinations subject to appeal.</I> Any person aggrieved by an initial determination of PBGC listed in this paragraph (e) may file an appeal, subject to the terms of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Determinations that a plan is or is not covered under section 4021 of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(2) Determinations of a participant's or beneficiary's benefit entitlement and the amount of benefit payable under a covered plan under sections 4022, 4022B, and 4044 of ERISA (other than a determination described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section);
</P>
<P>(3) Determinations that a domestic relations order is or is not a qualified domestic relations order under section 206(d)(3) of ERISA and section 414(p) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(4) Determinations of the amount of money subject to recapture pursuant to section 4045 of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(5) Determinations of the amount of liability under sections 4062(b)(1), 4063, or 4064 of ERISA; and
</P>
<P>(6) Determinations with respect to benefits payable by PBGC under section 4050 of ERISA and part 4050 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 38120, July 3, 2008; 77 FR 22489, Apr. 16, 2012; 82 FR 60818, Dec. 22, 2017; 85 FR 10283, 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Code, contributing sponsor, controlled group, ERISA, multiemployer plan, PBGC, person, plan administrator, and single-employer plan. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Aggrieved person</I> means any participant, beneficiary, plan administrator, contributing sponsor of a single-employer plan or member of such a contributing sponsor's controlled group, plan sponsor of a multiemployer plan, or employer that is adversely affected by an initial determination of PBGC with respect to a pension plan in which such person has an interest. The term “beneficiary” includes an alternate payee (within the meaning of section 206(d)(3)(K) of ERISA) under a qualified domestic relations order (within the meaning of section 206(d)(3)(B) of ERISA). 
</P>
<P><I>Appeals Board</I> means a board consisting of three PBGC officials. The Director will appoint a senior PBGC official to serve as Chairperson and three or more other PBGC officials to serve as regular Appeals Board members. The Chairperson will designate the three officials who will constitute the Appeals Board with respect to a case, provided that a person may not serve on the Appeals Board with respect to a case in which he or she made a decision regarding the merits of the determination being appealed. The Chairperson need not serve on the Appeals Board with respect to all cases. 
</P>
<P><I>Appellant</I> means any person filing an appeal under subpart D of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of any department of PBGC and includes the Director of PBGC, Deputy Directors, and the General Counsel. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 38120, July 3, 2008; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.3   PBGC assistance in obtaining information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A person may request PBGC's assistance in obtaining information if the person lacks information necessary—
</P>
<P>(1) To file a request for review pursuant to subpart C or D of this part, or to decide whether to seek review; or
</P>
<P>(2) To participate in an appeal pursuant to § 4003.57, or to decide whether to participate in an appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information not in PBGC's possession.</I> A person may request PBGC's assistance in obtaining information in the possession of a party other than PBGC. The request must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) State or describe the missing information, the reason why the person needs the information, and the reason why the person needs the assistance of PBGC in obtaining the information; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be submitted to the Appeals Board or the department that is responsible for reviewing the initial determination under this part. If the determination is subject to reconsideration, see § 4003.33 for information on where to submit the request for assistance. If the determination is subject to review by appeal, see § 4003.53 for information on where to submit the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information in the possession of PBGC.</I> A person may request information in the possession of PBGC pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act and part 4901 of this chapter or the Privacy Act and part 4902 of this chapter, as applicable. See parts 4901 and 4902 of this chapter for additional information. Nothing in this paragraph (c) limits or amends the requirements under part 4901 or 4902 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 10283, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.4   Extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>When a document is required under this part to be filed within a prescribed period of time, an extension of time to file will be granted only upon good cause shown and only when the request for an extension is made before the expiration of the time prescribed. The request for an extension must be in writing and state why additional time is needed and the amount of additional time requested. The filing of a request for an extension will stop the running of the prescribed period of time. Requests for extension of the time to submit an appeal should be sent to the Appeals Board; requests for extension of the time to submit a request for reconsideration should be sent to the department that issued the initial determination. When a request for an extension is granted, PBGC will notify the person requesting the extension, in writing, of the amount of additional time granted. When a request for an extension is denied, PBGC will notify the person requesting the extension in writing, and the prescribed period of time will resume running from the date of denial.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 10283, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.5   Non-timely request for review.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC will process a request for review of an initial determination that was not filed within the prescribed period of time for requesting review (see §§ 4003.32 and 4003.52) if—
</P>
<P>(a) The person requesting review demonstrates in his or her request that he or she did not file a timely request for review because he or she neither knew nor, with due diligence, could have known of the initial determination; and 
</P>
<P>(b) The request for review is filed within 30 days after the date the aggrieved person, exercising due diligence at all relevant times, first learned of the initial determination where the requested review is reconsideration, or within 45 days after the date the aggrieved person, exercising due diligence at all relevant times, first learned of the initial determination where the request for review is an appeal. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.6   Representation.</HEAD>
<P>A person may file any document or make any appearance that is required or permitted by this part on his or her own behalf or he or she may designate a representative. When the representative is not an attorney-at-law, a notarized power of attorney, signed by the person making the designation, which authorizes the representation and specifies the scope of representation must be filed with PBGC in accordance with § 4003.9(b) of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.7   Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 4003.22(b), a person aggrieved by an initial determination of PBGC covered by this part, other than an initial determination subject to reconsideration that is issued by a Department Director, has not exhausted his or her administrative remedies until he or she has filed a request for reconsideration under subpart C of this part or an appeal under subpart D of this part, whichever is applicable, and a decision granting or denying the relief requested has been issued. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10283, 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.8   Request for confidential treatment.</HEAD>
<P>If any person filing a document with PBGC believes that some or all of the information contained in the document is exempt from the mandatory public disclosure requirements of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, he or she must specify the information with respect to which confidentiality is claimed and the grounds therefor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.9   Method and date of filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of filing.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Date of filing.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with PBGC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61352, Oct. 28, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.10   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61352, Oct. 28, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Initial Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.21   Form and contents of initial determinations.</HEAD>
<P>All initial determinations to which this subpart applies will be in writing, will state the reason for the determination, and, except when effective on the date of issuance as provided in § 4003.22(b), will contain notice of the right to request review of the initial determination pursuant to subpart C or D of this part, as applicable, and a brief description of the procedures for requesting review. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10283, 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.22   Effective date of determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an initial determination covered by this subpart will not become effective until the prescribed period of time for filing a request for reconsideration under subpart C of this part or an appeal under subpart D of this part, whichever is applicable, has elapsed. The filing of a request for review under subpart C or D of this part will automatically stay the effectiveness of an initial determination until a decision on the request for review has been issued by PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> Except for initial determinations listed in § 4003.1(e)(2), (3), and (6), PBGC may, in its discretion, order that the initial determination in a case is effective on the date it is issued. When PBGC makes such an order, the initial determination will state that it constitutes the final agency action effective on the date of issuance, there is no right to request review under subparts C and D of this part, and any person aggrieved by the initial determination has exhausted all administrative remedies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Reconsideration of Initial Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.31" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.31   Who may request reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>Any person aggrieved by an initial determination of PBGC to which this subpart applies may request reconsideration of the initial determination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.32" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.32   When to request reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 4003.4 and 4003.5, a request for reconsideration must be filed within 30 days after the date of the initial determination of which reconsideration is sought or, when administrative review includes a procedure in part 4903 of this chapter, by the date that is specified in PBGC's notice of the right to request review. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 75 FR 68205, Nov. 5, 2010; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.33" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.33   Where to submit request for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>A request for reconsideration must be submitted to the Director of the department within PBGC that issued the initial determination, except that a request for reconsideration of an initial determination described in § 4003.1(d)(2)(ii) must be submitted to the Director. See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61352, Oct. 28, 2003; 73 FR 38120, July 3, 2008; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.34" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.34   Contents of request for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>A request for reconsideration must—
</P>
<P>(a) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(b) Be clearly designated as a request for reconsideration;
</P>
<P>(c) Specifically explain why PBGC's determination is wrong and the result the requestor is seeking;
</P>
<P>(d) Describe the relevant information the requestor believes is known by PBGC and summarize any other information that is relevant to the request for reconsideration; and
</P>
<P>(e) Include copies of any documentation that supports the requestor's claim or assertions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.35" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.35   Decision on request for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2), decisions on requests for reconsideration will be issued by the same department of PBGC that issued the initial determination, by an official whose level of authority in that department is higher than that of the person who issued the initial determination. 
</P>
<P>(1) When an initial determination is issued by a Director of a department, the Director of a department (or an official designated by the Director of a department) will issue the decision on a request for reconsideration of an initial determination other than one described in § 4003.1(d)(2)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(2) The Director (or an official designated by the Director) will issue the decision on a request for reconsideration of an initial determination described in § 4003.1(d)(2)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(b) The decision on a request for reconsideration shall be in writing, specify the relief granted, if any, state the reason(s) for the decision, and state that the person has exhausted his or her administrative remedies. 
</P>
<P>(c) The decision on a request for reconsideration constitutes the final agency action by PBGC with respect to the initial determination that was the subject of the request for reconsideration and is binding on all persons who participated in the request for reconsideration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 38120, July 3, 2008; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Administrative Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.51" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.51   Who may appeal or participate in appeals.</HEAD>
<P>Any person aggrieved by an initial determination to which this subpart applies may file an appeal. Any person who may be aggrieved by a decision under this subpart granting the relief requested in whole or in part may participate in the appeal in the manner provided in § 4003.57. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.52" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.52   When to file.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 4003.4 and 4003.5, an appeal under this subpart must be filed within 45 days after the date of the initial determination being appealed or, when administrative review includes a procedure in part 4903 of this chapter, by the date that is specified in PBGC's notice of the right to request review. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 75 FR 68205, Nov. 5, 2010; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.53" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.53   Where to file.</HEAD>
<P>An appeal or a request for an extension of time to appeal must be submitted to the Appeals Board. See § 4000.4 of this chapter for additional information on where to file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61352, Oct. 28, 2003; 73 FR 38120, July 3, 2008; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.54" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.54   Contents of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An appeal must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Be clearly designated as an appeal; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specifically explain why PBGC's determination is wrong and the result the appellant is seeking;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the relevant information the appellant believes is known by PBGC, and summarize any other information the appellant believes is relevant. It is important to include copies of any documentation that support the appellant's claim or the appellant's assertions about this information; 
</P>
<P>(5) State whether the appellant desires to appear in person or through a representative before the Appeals Board; and 
</P>
<P>(6) State whether the appellant desires to present witnesses to testify before the Appeals Board, and if so, state why the presence of witnesses will further the decision-making process. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any case where the appellant believes that another person may be aggrieved if PBGC grants the relief sought, the appeal must also include the name(s) and address(es) (if known) of such other person(s). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 38120, July 3, 2008; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.55" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.55   Opportunity to appear and to present witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the discretion of the Appeals Board, any appearance permitted under this subpart may be before a hearing officer designated by the Appeals Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) An opportunity to appear before the Appeals Board (or a hearing officer) and an opportunity to present witnesses will be permitted at the discretion of the Appeals Board. In general, an opportunity to appear will be permitted if the Appeals Board determines that there is a dispute as to a material fact; an opportunity to present witnesses will be permitted when the Appeals Board determines that witnesses will contribute to the resolution of a factual dispute. 
</P>
<P>(c) Appearances permitted under this section will take place at the main offices of PBGC, as listed on PBGC's website, <I>www.pbgc.gov</I>, unless the Appeals Board, in its discretion, designates a different location, either on its own initiative or at the request of the appellant or a third party participating in the appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.56" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.56   Consolidation of appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When consolidation may be required.</I> Whenever multiple appeals are filed that arise out of the same or similar facts and seek the same or similar relief, the Appeals Board may, in its discretion, order the consolidation of all or some of the appeals. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Representation of parties.</I> Whenever the Appeals Board orders the consolidation of appeals, the appellants may designate one (or more) of their number to represent all of them for all purposes relating to their appeals. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision by Appeals Board.</I> The decision of the Appeals Board in a consolidated appeal will be binding on all appellants whose appeals were subject to the consolidation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.57" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.57   Appeals affecting third parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before the Appeals Board issues a decision granting, in whole or in part, the relief requested in an appeal, it will make a reasonable effort to notify third persons who will be aggrieved by the decision of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The pendency of the appeal; 
</P>
<P>(2) The grounds upon which the appeal is based; 
</P>
<P>(3) The grounds upon which the Appeals Board is considering reversing the initial determination; 
</P>
<P>(4) The right to submit written comments on the appeal; 
</P>
<P>(5) The right to request an opportunity to appear in person or through a representative before the Appeals Board and to present witnesses; and 
</P>
<P>(6) That no further opportunity to present information to PBGC with respect to the initial determination under appeal will be provided. 
</P>
<P>(b) Written comments and a request to appear before the Appeals Board must be filed within 45 days after the date of the notice from the Appeals Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) If more than one third party is involved, their participation in the appeal may be consolidated pursuant to the provisions of § 4003.56. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.58" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.58   Powers of the Appeals Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the powers specifically described in this part, the Appeals Board may request the submission of any information or the appearance of any person it considers necessary to resolve a matter before it and to enter any order it considers necessary for or appropriate to the disposition of any matter before it. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Appeals Board may refer certain appeals to another PBGC department or to Appeals Board staff to provide a response to the appellant. The response from another PBGC department or Board staff will be in writing and address the matters raised in the appeal. The response may be in the form of an explanation or corrected benefit determination. In either case, the appellant will have 45 calendar-days from the date of the response to file a written request for review by the Appeals Board. If a written request for review is not filed with the Appeals Board within the 45-calendar-day period the initial determination will become effective pursuant to § 4003.22(a).
</P>
<P>(1) Appeals that may be referred to another PBGC department or to the Board staff include those that—
</P>
<P>(i) Request an explanation of the initial determination being appealed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dispute specific data used in the initial determination, such as date of hire, date of retirement, date of termination of employment, length of service, compensation, marital status and form of benefit elected; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Request an explanation of the limits on benefits payable by PBGC under part 4022, subpart B, such as the maximum guaranteeable benefit and phase-in of the PBGC guarantee.
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation or corrected benefit determination issued under this subsection is not considered a decision of the Appeals Board. If an appellant aggrieved by PBGC's initial determination is issued an explanation or corrected benefit determination under this section, the appellant has not exhausted his or her administrative remedies until the appellant has filed a timely request with the Appeals Board for review and the Appeals Board has issued a decision granting or denying the relief requested. See § 4003.7 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 38120, July 3, 2008; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.59" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.59   Decision by the Appeals Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In reaching its decision, the Appeals Board will consider those portions of the file relating to the initial determination, all material submitted by the appellant and any third parties in connection with the appeal, and any additional information submitted by PBGC staff. 
</P>
<P>(b) The decision of the Appeals Board constitutes the final agency action by PBGC with respect to the initial determination which was the subject of the appeal and is binding on all parties who participated in the appeal and who were notified pursuant to § 4003.57 of their right to participate in the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Appeals Board will be in writing, specify the relief granted, if any, state the bases for the decision, including a brief statement of the facts or legal conclusions supporting the decision, and state that the appellant has exhausted his or her administrative remedies. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.60" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.60   Referral of appeal to the Director.</HEAD>
<P>The Appeals Board may, in its discretion, refer any appeal to the Director of PBGC for decision. In such a case, the Director will have all the powers vested in the Appeals Board by this subpart and the decision of the Director will meet the requirements of and have the effect of a decision issued under § 4003.59 of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34012, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 38120, July 3, 2008; 85 FR 10284, Feb. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4003.61" NODE="29:9.1.4.13.4.4.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4003.61   Action by a single Appeals Board member.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority to act.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, any member of the Appeals Board has the authority to take any action that the Appeals Board could take with respect to a routine appeal as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Routine appeal defined.</I> For purposes of this section, a routine appeal is any appeal that does not raise a significant issue of law or a precedent-setting issue. This would generally include any appeal that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is outside the jurisdiction of the Appeals Board (for example, an appeal challenging the plan's termination date); 
</P>
<P>(2) Is filed by a person other than an aggrieved person or an aggrieved person's authorized representative; 
</P>
<P>(3) Is untimely and presents no grounds for waiver or extension of the time limit for filing the appeal, or only grounds that are clearly without merit; 
</P>
<P>(4) Presents grounds that clearly warrant or clearly do not warrant the relief requested; 
</P>
<P>(5) Presents only factual issues that are not reasonably expected to affect other appeals (for example, the participant's date of birth or date of hire); or 
</P>
<P>(6) Presents only issues that are controlled by settled principles of existing law, including Appeals Board precedent (for example, an issue of plan interpretation that has been resolved by the Appeals Board in a decision on an appeal by another participant in the same plan).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 47695, July 22, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.14" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—PREMIUMS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4006" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4006—PREMIUM RATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1306, 1307. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34016, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4006.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.5.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4006.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part, which applies to all plans covered by title IV of ERISA, provides rules for computing the premiums imposed by sections 4006 and 4007 of ERISA. (See part 4007 of this chapter for rules for the payment of premiums, including due dates and late payment charges.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4006.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.5.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4006.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: benefit liabilities, Code, contributing sponsor, ERISA, fair market value, insurer, irrevocable commitment, mandatory employee contributions, multiemployer plan, notice of intent to terminate, PBGC, plan administrator, plan, plan year, single-employer plan, and termination date. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Continuation plan</I> means a new plan resulting from a consolidation or spinoff that is not <I>de minimis</I> pursuant to the regulations under section 414(<I>l</I>) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>CSEC plan</I> means a plan as defined in section 210(f)(1) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>New plan</I> means a plan with an effective date during the premium payment year and includes a plan resulting from a consolidation or spinoff. A plan that meets this definition is considered to be a new plan even if the plan constitutes a successor plan within the meaning of section 4021(a) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Newly covered plan</I> means a plan that becomes covered by title IV of ERISA during the premium payment year and that existed as an uncovered plan immediately before the first date in the premium payment year on which it was a covered plan.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> has the meaning described in § 4006.6.
</P>
<P><I>Participant count</I> of a plan means the number of participants in the plan on the participant count date of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Participant count date</I> of a plan means the date provided for in § 4006.5(c), (d), or (e) as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Premium funding target</I> has the meaning described in § 4006.4(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Premium payment year</I> means the plan year for which the premium is being paid. 
</P>
<P><I>Short plan year</I> means a plan year of coverage that is shorter than a normal plan year.
</P>
<P><I>Small plan</I> means a plan—
</P>
<P>(1) Whose participant count is not more than 100, or
</P>
<P>(2) Whose funding valuation date for the premium payment year, determined in accordance with ERISA section 303(g)(2), is not the first day of the premium payment year.
</P>
<P><I>UVB valuation date</I> of a plan means the plan's funding valuation date for the UVB valuation year, determined for a plan other than a CSEC plan in accordance with ERISA section 303(g)(2) and for a CSEC plan in accordance with ERISA section 306(c)(8)(B)(i) without regard to section 306(c)(8)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>UVB valuation year</I> of a plan means—
</P>
<P>(1) In general,—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan year preceding the premium payment year, if the plan is a small plan other than a continuation plan, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The premium payment year, in any other case; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a small plan that so opts subject to PBGC premium instructions, the premium payment year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34016, July 1, 1996, as amended at 65 FR 75163, Dec. 1, 2000; 73 FR 15074, Mar. 21, 2008; 79 FR 13559, Mar. 11, 2014; 90 FR 39327, Aug. 15, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4006.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.5.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4006.3   Premium rate.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the provisions of § 4006.5 (dealing with exemptions and special rules) and § 4006.7 (dealing with premiums for certain terminated single-employer plans), the premium paid for basic benefits guaranteed under section 4022(a) or section 4022A(a) of ERISA shall equal the flat-rate premium under paragraph (a) of this section plus, in the case of a single-employer plan, the variable-rate premium under paragraph (b) of this section. Premium rates (and the MAP-21 cap rate referred to in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) are subject to change each year under inflation indexing provisions in section 4006 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Flat-rate premium.</I> The flat-rate premium for a plan is equal to the applicable flat premium rate multiplied by the plan's participant count. The applicable flat premium rate is the amount prescribed for the calendar year in which the premium payment year begins by the applicable provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) Section 4006(a)(3)(A) and (G) of ERISA for a single-employer plan, or
</P>
<P>(2) Section 4006(a)(3)(A) and (J) of ERISA for a multiemployer plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Variable-rate premium</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to the cap provisions in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, the variable-rate premium for a single-employer plan is equal to a specified dollar amount for each $1,000 (or fraction thereof) of the plan's unfunded vested benefits as determined under § 4006.4 for the UVB valuation year. The specified dollar amount is the applicable variable premium rate prescribed by the applicable provisions of ERISA section 4006(a)(8) for the calendar year in which the premium payment year begins.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>MAP-21 cap.</I> The variable-rate premium for a plan is not more than the applicable MAP-21 cap rate multiplied by the plan's participant count. The applicable MAP-21 cap rate is the amount prescribed by the applicable provisions of ERISA section 4006(a)(3)(E)(i)(II), (E)(i)(III), (K), and (L) for the calendar year in which the premium payment year begins.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small-employer cap</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a plan is described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section for the premium payment year, the variable-rate premium is not more than $5 multiplied by the square of the participant count. For example, if the participant count is 20, the variable-rate premium is not more than $2,000 ($5 × 20
<SU>2</SU> = $5 × 400 = $2,000).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Plans eligible for cap.</I> A plan is described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section for the premium payment year if the aggregate number of employees of all employers in the plan's controlled group on the first day of the premium payment year is 25 or fewer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Meaning of “employee.”</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the aggregate number of employees is determined in the same manner as under section 410(b)(1) of the Code, taking into account the provisions of section 414(m) and (n) of the Code, but without regard to section 410(b)(3), (4), and (5) of the Code.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34016, July 1, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 71228, Dec. 17, 2007; 73 FR 15074, Mar. 21, 2008; 79 FR 13559, Mar. 11, 2014; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4006.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.5.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4006.4   Determination of unfunded vested benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in the exemptions and special rules under § 4006.5, the amount of a plan's unfunded vested benefits for the UVB valuation year is the excess (if any) of the plan's premium funding target for the UVB valuation year (determined under paragraph (b) of this section) over the fair market value of the plan's assets for the UVB valuation year (determined under paragraph (c) of this section). Unfunded vested benefits for the UVB valuation year must be determined as of the plan's UVB valuation date , based on the plan provisions and the plan's population as of that date. The determination must be made in a manner consistent with generally accepted actuarial principles and practices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Premium funding target</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A plan's premium funding target is its standard premium funding target under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, except that—
</P>
<P>(i) If the plan is not a CSEC plan and an election to use the alternative premium funding target under § 4006.5(g) is in effect, its premium funding target is its alternative premium funding target under § 4006.5(g), and;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the plan is a CSEC plan, its premium funding target is determined under § 4006.5(h).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard premium funding target.</I> A plan's standard premium funding target under this section is the plan's funding target as determined under ERISA section 303(d) (or 303(i), if applicable) for the UVB valuation year using the same assumptions that are used for funding purposes, except that—
</P>
<P>(i) Only vested benefits are taken into account, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest rates to be used are the segment rates for the month preceding the month in which the UVB valuation year begins that are determined in accordance with ERISA section 4006(a)(3)(E)(iv). These are the rates that would be determined under ERISA section 303(h)(2)(C) if ERISA section 303(h)(2)(D) were applied by using the monthly yields for the month preceding the month in which the UVB valuation year begins on investment grade corporate bonds with varying maturities and in the top 3 quality levels rather than the average of such yields for a 24-month period. For this purpose, the transition rule in ERISA section 303(h)(2)(G) is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>“At-risk” plans; transition rules; loading factor.</I> The transition rules in ERISA section 303(i)(5) apply to the determination of the premium funding target of a plan in at-risk status for funding purposes. If a plan in at-risk status is also described in ERISA section 303(i)(1)(A)(ii) for the UVB valuation year, its premium funding target reflects a loading factor pursuant to ERISA section 303(i)(1)(C) equal to the sum of—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Per-participant portion of loading factor.</I> The amount determined for funding purposes under ERISA section 303(i)(1)(C)(i) for the UVB valuation year, and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Four percent portion of loading factor.</I> Four percent of the premium funding target determined as if the plan were not in at-risk status.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Value of assets.</I> The fair market value of a plan's assets under this section is determined in the same manner as for funding purposes under ERISA section 303(g)(3) and (4), except that averaging as described in ERISA section 303(g)(3)(B) must not be used and prior year contributions are included only to the extent received by the plan by the date the premium is filed. Contribution receipts must be accounted for as described in ERISA section 303(g)(4), using effective interest rates determined under ERISA section 303(h)(2)(A) (not rates that could be determined based on the segment rates described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section).
</P>
<P>(d) “<I>Vested.</I>” For purposes of ERISA section 4006(a)(3)(E), this part, and part 4007 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) A participant's benefit that is otherwise vested does not fail to be vested merely because of the circumstance that the participant is living, in the case of the following death benefits:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualified pre-retirement survivor annuity (as described in ERISA section 205(e)), 
</P>
<P>(ii) A post-retirement survivor annuity that pays some or all of the participant's benefit amount for a fixed or contingent period (such as a joint and survivor annuity or a certain and continuous annuity), and
</P>
<P>(iii) A benefit that returns the participant's accumulated mandatory employee contributions (as described in ERISA section 204(c)(2)(C)).
</P>
<P>(2) A benefit otherwise vested does not fail to be vested merely because of the circumstance that the benefit may be eliminated or reduced by the adoption of a plan amendment or by the occurrence of a condition or event (such as a change in marital status).
</P>
<P>(3) A participant's pre-retirement lump-sum death benefit (other than a benefit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section) is not vested if the participant is living.
</P>
<P>(4) A participant's disability benefit is not vested if the participant is not disabled.
</P>
<P>(e) Illustration of vesting principles. The vesting principles set forth in paragraph (d) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1.</I> Under Plan A, if a participant retires at or after age 55 but before age 62, the participant receives a temporary supplement from retirement until age 62. The supplement is not a QSUPP (qualified social security supplement), as defined in Treasury Reg. § 1.401(a)(4)-12, and is not protected under Code section 411(d)(6). The temporary supplement is considered vested, and its value is included in the premium funding target, for each participant who, on the UVB valuation date, is at least 55 but less than 62, and thus eligible for the supplement. The calculation is unaffected by the fact that the plan could be amended to remove the supplement after the UVB valuation date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> Plan B provides a qualified pre-retirement survivor annuity (QPSA) upon the death of a participant who has five years of service, at no charge to the participant. The QPSA is considered vested, and its value is included in the premium funding target, for each participant who, on the UVB valuation date, has five years of service and is thus eligible for the QPSA. The calculation is unaffected by the fact that the participant is alive on that date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plans to which special funding rules apply.</I> The following statutory provisions are disregarded for purposes of determining unfunded vested benefits (whether the standard premium funding target or the alternative premium funding target is used):
</P>
<P>(1) Section 402(b) of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, Public Law 109-280, dealing with certain frozen plans of commercial passenger airlines and airline caterers.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 303(m) of ERISA and section 430(m) of the Code, dealing with defined benefit pension plans maintained by certain community newspapers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 15074, Mar. 21, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 13560, Mar. 11, 2014; 85 FR 6058, Feb. 4, 2020; 90 FR 39327, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4006.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.5.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4006.5   Exemptions and special rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Variable-rate premium exemptions.</I> A plan described in any of paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section is not required to determine or report its unfunded vested benefits under § 4006.4 and does not owe a variable-rate premium under § 4006.3(b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Plans without vested participants.</I> A plan is described in this paragraph if it does not have any participants with vested benefits as of the UVB valuation date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Section 412(e)(3) plans.</I> A plan is described in this paragraph if the plan is a plan described in section 412(e)(3) of the Code and the regulations thereunder on the UVB valuation date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain plans completing a standard termination.</I> A plan is described in this paragraph if it—
</P>
<P>(i) Makes a final distribution of assets in a standard termination during the premium payment year, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Did not engage in a spinoff during the premium payment year, unless the spinoff is de minimis pursuant to the regulations under section 414(l) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Certain plans in the process of completing a standard termination initiated in a prior year.</I> A plan is described in this paragraph if —
</P>
<P>(i) The plan administrator has issued notices of intent to terminate the plan in a standard termination in accordance with section 4041(a)(2) of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed termination date set forth in the notice of intent to terminate is before the beginning of the premium payment year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan ultimately makes a final distribution of plan assets in conjunction with the plan termination.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certain small new and newly covered plans.</I> A plan is described in this paragraph if—
</P>
<P>(i) It is a small plan other than a continuation plan, and
</P>
<P>(ii) It is a new plan or a newly covered plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting exemption for plans paying capped variable-rate premium.</I> A plan that qualifies for the variable-rate premium cap described in section 4006(a)(3)(I) of ERISA for certain small employers is not required to determine or report its unfunded vested benefits under § 4006.4 if it reports that it qualifies for the cap and pays a variable-rate premium equal to the amount of the cap.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Participant count date; in general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, the participant count date of a plan is the last day of the plan year preceding the premium payment year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Participant count date; new and newly covered plans.</I> The participant count date of a new plan or a newly covered plan is the first day of the premium payment year. For this purpose, a new plan's premium payment year begins on the plan's effective date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Participant count date; certain transactions.</I> (1) The participant count date of a plan described in paragraph (e)(2) or (3) of this section is the first day of the premium payment year.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a transaction where some, but not all, of the assets and liabilities of one plan (the “transferor plan”) are transferred into another plan (the “transferee plan”)—
</P>
<P>(i) The transferor plan if the spinoff is not de minimis and is effective at the beginning of the transferor plan's premium payment year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The transferee plan if the transferor plan meets the criteria in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section and the transfer occurs at the beginning of the transferee plan's premium payment year.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a merger effective at the beginning of the premium payment year, the transferee plan if—
</P>
<P>(i) The merger is not de minimis; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The assets of the transferee plan immediately before the merger are less than the total assets transferred to the transferee plan in the merger.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (e), “de minimis” has the meaning described in regulations under section 414(l) of the Code (for single-employer plans) or in part 4231 of this chapter (for multiemployer plans).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Proration for certain short plan years.</I> The premium for a plan that has a short plan year described in this paragraph (f) is prorated by the number of months in the short plan year (treating a part of a month as a month). The proration applies whether or not the short plan year ends by the premium due date for the short plan year. For purposes of this paragraph (f), there is a short plan year in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>New or newly covered plan.</I> A new plan becomes effective less than one full year before the beginning of its second plan year, or a newly covered plan becomes covered on a date other than the first day of its plan year. (Cessation of coverage before the end of a plan year does not give rise to proration under this section.) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in plan year.</I> A plan amendment changes the plan year, but only if the plan does not merge into or consolidate with another plan or otherwise cease its independent existence either during the short plan year or at the beginning of the full plan year following the short plan year. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Distribution of assets.</I> The plan's assets (other than any residual assets under section 4044(d) of ERISA) are distributed pursuant to the plan's termination, but only if the plan did not engage in a spinoff during the plan year, unless the spinoff is de minimis pursuant to the regulations under section 414(l) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Appointment of trustee.</I> The plan is a single-employer plan, and a plan trustee is appointed pursuant to section 4042 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Alternative premium funding target.</I> A plan's alternative premium funding target is determined in the same way as its standard premium funding target except that the discount rates described in ERISA section 4006(a)(3)(E)(iv) are not used. Instead, the alternative premium funding target is determined using the discount rates that would have been used to determine the funding target for the plan under ERISA section 303 for the purpose of determining the plan's minimum contribution under ERISA section 303 for the UVB valuation year if the segment rate stabilization provisions of ERISA section 303(h)(2)(iv) were disregarded. A plan may elect to compute unfunded vested benefits using the alternative premium funding target instead of the standard premium funding target described in § 4006.4(b)(2), and may revoke such an election, in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph (g). A plan must compute its unfunded vested benefits using the alternative premium funding target instead of the standard premium funding target described in § 4006.4(b)(2) if an election under this paragraph (g) to use the alternative premium funding target is in effect for the premium payment year.
</P>
<P>(1) An election under this paragraph (g) to use the alternative premium funding target for a plan must specify the premium payment year to which it first applies and must be filed by the plan's variable-rate premium due date for that premium payment year. The premium payment year to which the election first applies must begin at least five years after the beginning of the premium payment year to which a revocation of a prior election first applied. The election will be effective—
</P>
<P>(i) For the premium payment year for which made and for all plan years that begin less than five years thereafter, and
</P>
<P>(ii) For all succeeding plan years until the premium payment year to which a revocation of the election first applies.
</P>
<P>(2) A revocation of an election under this paragraph (g) to use the alternative premium funding target for a plan must specify the premium payment year to which it first applies and must be filed by the plan's variable-rate premium due date for that premium payment year. The premium payment year to which the revocation first applies must begin at least five years after the beginning of the premium payment year to which the election first applied.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>CSEC plan premium funding target.</I> The premium funding target of a CSEC plan is its funding liability as determined under section 306(j)(5)(C) of ERISA for the UVB valuation year taking only vested benefits into account.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34016, July 1, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997; 65 FR 75163, Dec. 1, 2000; 71 FR 31081, June 1, 2005; 73 FR 15075, Mar. 21, 2008; 79 FR 13560, Mar. 11, 2014; 85 FR 6058, Feb. 4, 2020; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023; 90 FR 39327, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4006.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.5.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4006.6   Definition of “participant.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> For purposes of this part and part 4007 of this chapter, an individual is considered to be a participant in a plan on any date if the plan has benefit liabilities with respect to the individual on that date. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loss or distribution of benefit.</I> For purposes of this section, an individual is treated as no longer being a participant— 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an individual with no vested accrued benefit, after— 
</P>
<P>(i) The individual incurs a one-year break in service under the terms of the plan,
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual's entire “zero-dollar” vested accrued benefit is deemed distributed under the terms of the plan, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual dies; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a living individual whose accrued benefit is fully or partially vested, or a deceased individual whose accrued benefit was fully or partially vested at the time of death, after— 
</P>
<P>(i) An insurer makes an irrevocable commitment to pay all benefit liabilities with respect to the individual, or
</P>
<P>(ii) All benefit liabilities with respect to the individual are otherwise distributed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples.</I> The operation of this section is illustrated by the following examples: 
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Participation under a calendar-year plan begins upon commencement of employment, and the only benefit provided by the plan is an accrued benefit (expressed as a life annuity beginning at age 65) of $30 per month times full years of service. The plan credits a ratable portion of a full year of service for service of at least 1,000 hours but less than 2,000 hours in a service computation period that begins on the date when the participant commences employment and each anniversary of that date. John and Mary both commence employment on July 1, 2008. On December 31, 2008 (the participant count date for the plan's 2009 premium), John has credit for 988 hours of service and Mary has credit for 1,006 hours of service. For purposes of this section, Mary is considered to have an accrued benefit, and John is considered not to have an accrued benefit. Thus, the plan is considered to have benefit liabilities with respect to Mary, but not John, on December 31, 2008; and Mary, but not John, must be counted as a participant for purposes of computing the plan's 2009 premium.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>The plan also provides that a participant becomes vested five years after commencing employment and defines a one-year break in service as a service computation period in which less than 500 hours of service is performed. On February 1, 2010, John has an accrued benefit of $18 per month beginning at age 65 based on credit for 1,200 hours of service in the service computation period that began July 1, 2008. However, John has credit for only 492 hours of service in the service computation period that began July 1, 2009. On February 1, 2010, John terminates his employment. On December 31, 2010 (the participant count date for the 2011 premium), John has incurred a one-year break in service, and thus is not counted as a participant for purposes of computing the plan's 2011 premium.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>On January 1, 2012, the plan is amended to provide that if a vested participant whose accrued benefit has a present value of $5,000 or less leaves employment, the benefit will be immediately cashed out. On December 30, 2013, Jane, who has a vested benefit with a present value of less than $5,000, leaves employment. Because of reasonable administrative delay in determining the amount of the benefit to be paid, the plan does not pay Jane the value of her benefit until January 9, 2014. Under the provisions of this section, Jane is treated as not having an accrued benefit on December 31, 2013 (the participant count date for the 2014 premium), because Jane's benefit is treated as having been paid on December 30, 2013. Thus, Jane is not counted as a participant for purposes of computing the plan's 2014 premium.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>If the plan amendment had instead provided for cashouts as of the first of the month following termination of employment, and the plan paid Jane the value of her benefit on January 1, 2014, Jane would be treated under the provisions of this section as having an accrued benefit on December 31, 2013, and would thus be counted as a participant for purposes of computing the plan's 2014 premium.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 75163, Dec. 1, 2000, as amended at 73 FR 15076, Mar. 21, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4006.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.5.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4006.7   Premium rate for certain terminated single-employer plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The premium under this section (“termination premium”) applies to a DRA 2005 termination described in § 4007.13 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of the premium under this section that is payable with respect to each applicable 12-month period (as described in § 4007.13 of this chapter) is the number of participants in the plan, determined as of the day before the termination date, multiplied by the termination premium rate. In general, the termination premium rate is $1,250. However, the termination premium rate is $2,500 for an “eligible plan” under section 402(c)(1) of the Pension Protection Act of 2006 (dealing with certain plans of commercial passenger airlines and airline catering services) while an election under section 402(a)(1) of the Pension Protection Act of 2006 (dealing with alternative funding schedules) is in effect for the plan if the plan terminates during the five-year period beginning on the first day of the first applicable plan year (as defined in section 402(c)(2) of that Act) with respect to the plan, unless the Secretary of Labor determines that the plan terminated as a result of extraordinary circumstances such as a terrorist attack or other similar event.
</P>
<P>(c) The premium under this section is in addition to any other premium under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) See § 4007.13 of this chapter for further rules about termination premiums.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 71229, Dec. 17, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 13561, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4007" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4007—PAYMENT OF PREMIUMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1303(a), 1306, 1307. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34020, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4007.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part, which applies to all plans that are covered by title IV of ERISA, provides procedures for paying the premiums imposed by sections 4006 and 4007 of ERISA. (See part 4006 of this chapter for premium rates and computational rules.) 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Code, contributing sponsor, ERISA, IRS, notice of intent to terminate, PBGC, plan, plan administrator, plan year, single-employer plan, and termination date. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this part, the following terms are defined in § 4006.2 of this chapter: continuation plan, new plan, newly covered plan, participant, participant count, premium funding target, premium payment year short plan year, small plan, and UVB valuation date. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34020, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 15076, Mar. 21, 2008; 79 FR 13561, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.3   Filing requirement; method of filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The estimation, determination, declaration, and payment of premiums must be made in accordance with the premium instructions on PBGC's Web site (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>). Subject to the provisions of § 4007.13, the plan administrator of each covered plan is responsible for filing prescribed premium information and payments. Each required premium payment and related information, certified as provided in the premium instructions, must be filed by the applicable due date specified in this part in the manner and format prescribed in the instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic filing.</I> Information must be filed electronically except to the extent that PBGC grants an exemption for good cause in appropriate circumstances. (The requirement to file electronically applies to all estimated and final flat-rate and variable-rate premium filings (including amended filings) but does not apply to information filed to comply with a PBGC request under (4007.10(c) (dealing with providing record information in connection with a premium compliance review).) Unless an exemption applies, filing on paper or in any other manner other than by a prescribed electronic filing method does not satisfy the requirement to file. Failure to file electronically as required is subject to penalty under ERISA section 4071.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 31081, June 1, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 71229, Dec. 17, 2007; 73 FR 15076, Mar. 21, 2008; 79 FR 13561, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.4   Where to file.</HEAD>
<P>See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 31081, June 1, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.5   Date of filing.</HEAD>
<P>The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with the PBGC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61352, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.6   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part. However, for purposes of determining the amount of a late payment interest charge under § 4007.7 or of a late payment penalty charge under § 4007.8, the rule in § 4000.43(a) of this chapter governing periods ending on weekends or Federal holidays does not apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61352, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.7   Late payment interest charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any premium payment due under this part is not paid by the due date prescribed for such payment by this part, an interest charge will accrue on the unpaid amount at the rate imposed under section 6601(a) of the Code for the period from the date payment is due to the date payment is made. Late payment interest charges are compounded daily. 
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to any PBGC bill for a premium underpayment and/or interest thereon, interest will accrue only until the date of the bill if the premium underpayment and interest billed are paid within 30 days after the date of the bill.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34020, July 1, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 71229, Dec. 17, 2007; 73 FR 15076, Mar. 21, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.8   Late payment penalty charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Penalty charge.</I> Subject to the provisions of § 4007.13, if any premium payment due under this part is not paid by the due date under this part, PBGC will assess a late payment penalty charge as determined under this paragraph (a), except to the extent the charge is waived under paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section. The amount determined under this paragraph (a) will be based on the number of months (counting any portion of a month as a whole month) from the due date to the date of payment. The penalty rate is—
</P>
<P>(1) For any amount of unpaid premium that is paid on or before the date PBGC issues the first written notice to any person liable for the premium that there is or may be a premium delinquency (for example, a premium bill, a letter initiating a premium compliance review, a notice of filing error in premium determination, or a letter questioning a failure to make a premium filing), 
<FR>1/2</FR> percent per month, to a maximum penalty charge of 25 percent of the unpaid premium; or
</P>
<P>(2) For any amount of unpaid premium that is paid after that date, 2
<FR>1/2</FR> percent per month, to a maximum penalty charge of 50 percent of the unpaid premium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hardship waiver.</I> The PBGC may grant a waiver based upon a showing of substantial hardship as provided in section 4007(b) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasonable cause waivers.</I> PBGC will waive all or part of a late payment penalty charge if PBGC determines that there is reasonable cause for the late payment. Policy guidelines for applying the “reasonable cause” standard are in §§ 22 through 25 of the appendix to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other waivers.</I> PBGC may waive all or part of a late payment penalty charge in other circumstances without regard to whether there is reasonable cause. Policy guidelines for waivers without reasonable cause are in § 21(b)(1), (b)(3), (b)(4), and (b)(5) of the appendix to this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Grace period.</I> With respect to any PBGC bill for a premium underpayment, the PBGC will waive any late payment penalty charge accruing after the date of the bill, provided the premium underpayment is paid within 30 days after the date of the bill.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Filings not more than 7 days late.</I> PBGC will waive premium payment penalties that arise solely because premium payments are late by not more than seven calendar days, as described in this paragraph (f). In applying this waiver, PBGC will assume that each premium payment with respect to a plan year was made seven calendar days before it was actually made. All other rules will then be applied as usual. If the result of this procedure is that no penalty would arise for that plan year, then any penalty that would apply on the basis of the actual payment date(s) will be waived.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Variable-rate premium penalty relief.</I> PBGC will waive the penalty on any underpayment of the variable-rate premium for the period that ends on the earlier of the date the reconciliation filing is due or the date the reconciliation filing is made if, by the date the variable-rate premium for the premium payment year is due under § 4007.11(a)(1),—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan administrator reports—
</P>
<P>(i) The fair market value of the plan's assets for the premium payment year, and
</P>
<P>(ii) An estimate of the plan's premium funding target for the premium payment year that is certified by an enrolled actuary to be a reasonable estimate that takes into account the most current data available to the enrolled actuary and that has been determined in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and practices; and
</P>
<P>(2) The plan administrator pays at least the amount of variable-rate premium determined from the value of assets and estimated premium funding target so reported.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Demonstrated compliance.</I> PBGC will waive 80 percent of the premium payment penalty assessed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section if the criteria in paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(1) For each plan year within the last five plan years of coverage preceding the plan year for which the penalty rate is being determined,—
</P>
<P>(i) Any required premium filing for the plan has been made; and
</P>
<P>(ii) PBGC has not required payment of a penalty for the plan under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For the plan year for which the penalty rate is being determined, the total amount of premium is paid no later than 30 days after PBGC issues the first written notice as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 66385, Nov. 26, 1999, as amended at 65 FR 75164, Dec. 1, 2000; 71 FR 66869, Nov. 17, 2006; 72 FR 71229, Dec. 17, 2007; 73 FR 15076, Mar. 21, 2008; 79 FR 350, Jan. 3, 2014; 79 FR 13561, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 65545, Sept. 23, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.9   Coverage for guaranteed basic benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The failure to pay the premiums due under this part will not result in a plan's loss of coverage for basic benefits guaranteed under section 4022(a) or 4022A(a) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) The payment of the premiums imposed by this part will not result in coverage for basic benefits guaranteed under section 4022(a) or 4022A(a) of ERISA for plans not covered under title IV of ERISA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34020, July 1, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 71229, Dec. 17, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.10   Recordkeeping; audits; disclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retention of records to support premium payments</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The designated recordkeeper under paragraph (a)(3) of this section must retain, for a period of six years after the premium due date, all plan records that are necessary to establish, support, and validate the amount of any premium required to be paid and any information required to be reported (“premium-related information”) under this part and part 4006 of this chapter and under PBGC's premium filing instructions. Records that must be retained pursuant to this paragraph include, but are not limited to, records that establish the number of plan participants and that support and demonstrate the calculation of unfunded vested benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electronic recordkeeping.</I> A designated recordkeeper may use electronic media for maintenance and retention of records required by this part in accordance with the requirements of subpart E of part 4000 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Designated recordkeepers.</I> (i) With respect to the flat-rate and variable-rate premiums described in § 4006.3 of this chapter, the plan administrator is the designated recordkeeper.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to the premium for certain terminated single-employer plans described in § 4006.7 of this chapter, each person who was a contributing sponsor of such a plan, or was a member of a contributing sponsor's controlled group, as of the day before the plan's termination date is a designated recordkeeper.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Records.</I> (i) Records that must be retained pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section include, but are not limited to, records prepared by the plan administrator, a plan sponsor, an employer required to contribute to the plan with respect to its employees, an enrolled actuary performing services for the plan, or an insurance carrier issuing any contract to pay benefits under the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, “records” include, but are not limited to, plan documents; participant data records; personnel and payroll records; actuarial tables, worksheets, and reports; records of computations, projections, and estimates; benefit statements, disclosures, and applications; financial and tax records; insurance contracts; records of plan procedures and practices; and any other records, whether in written, electronic, or other format, that are relevant to the determination of the amount of any premium required to be paid or any premium-related information required to be reported.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a record to be produced for PBGC inspection and copying exists in more than one format, it must be produced in the format specified by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>PBGC audit</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In order to determine the correctness of any premium paid or premium-related information reported or to determine the amount of any premium required to be paid or any premium-related information required to be reported, PBGC may—
</P>
<P>(i) Audit any premium filing,
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspect and copy any records that are relevant to the determination of the amount of any premium required to be paid and any premium-related information required to be reported, including (without limitation) the records described in paragraph (a) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Require disclosure of any manual or automated system or process used to determine any premium paid or premium-related information reported, and demonstration of its operation in order to permit PBGC to determine the effectiveness of the system or process and the reliability of information produced by the system or process.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deficiencies found on audit.</I> If, upon audit, PBGC determines that a premium due under this part was underpaid, late payment interest and penalty charges will apply as provided for in this part. If, upon audit, PBGC determines that required information was not timely and accurately reported, a penalty may be assessed under ERISA section 4071.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insufficient records.</I> In determining the premium due, if, in the judgment of PBGC, a plan's records fail to establish the participant count or (for a single-employer plan) the plan's unfunded vested benefits for any premium payment year, PBGC may rely on data it obtains from other sources (including the IRS and the Department of Labor) for presumptively establishing the participant count and/or unfunded vested benefits for premium computation purposes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Providing record information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A designated recordkeeper must make the records retained pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section available to PBGC promptly upon request for inspection and photocopying (or, for electronic records, inspection, electronic copying, and printout) at the location where they are kept (or another, mutually agreeable, location). If PBGC requests in writing that records retained pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, or information in such records, be submitted to PBGC, the designated recordkeeper must submit the requested materials to PBGC either electronically or by hand, mail, or commercial delivery service within 45 days of the date of PBGC's request therefor, or by a different time specified in the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a designated recordkeeper may automatically extend the period described in paragraph (c)(1) by submitting a certification to the PBGC prior to the expiration of that time period. The certification shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Specify a date to which the time period described in paragraph (c)(1) is extended that is no more than 90 days from the date of the PBGC's written request for information; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain a statement, certified to by the designated recordkeeper under penalty of perjury (18 U.S.C. § 1001), that, despite reasonable efforts, the additional time is necessary to comply with the PBGC's request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Shortening of time period.</I> The PBGC may in its discretion shorten the time period described in paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section where it determines that the interests of PBGC may be prejudiced by a delay in the receipt of the information (e.g., where collection of unpaid premiums (or any associated interest or penalties) would otherwise be jeopardized). If the PBGC shortens the time period described in paragraph (c)(1), no extension is available under paragraph (c)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Address and timeliness.</I> Information required to be submitted under paragraph (c) of this section shall be submitted to the address specified in the PBGC's request. The timeliness of a submission shall be determined in accordance with §§ 4007.5 and 4007.6.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34020, July 1, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 36663, July 9, 1997; 68 FR 61352, Oct. 28, 2003; 72 FR 71229, Dec. 17, 2007; 73 FR 15077, Mar. 21, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.11   Due dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In general:
</P>
<P>(1) The flat-rate and variable-rate premium filing due date is the fifteenth day of the tenth calendar month that begins on or after the first day of the premium payment year.
</P>
<P>(2) If the variable-rate premium paid by the premium filing due date is estimated as described in § 4007.8(g)(1)(ii), a reconciliation filing and any required variable-rate premium payment must be made by the end of the sixth calendar month that begins on or after the premium filing due date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small plan transition rule.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if a plan had fewer than 100 participants for whom flat-rate premiums were payable for the plan year preceding the last plan year that began before 2014, then the plan's due date for the first plan year beginning after 2013 is the fifteenth day of the fourteenth calendar month that begins on or after the first day of that plan year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plans that change plan years.</I> For a plan that changes its plan year, the flat-rate and variable-rate premium filing due date for the short plan year is as specified in paragraph (a) of this section. For the plan year that follows a short plan year, the due date is the later of —
</P>
<P>(1) The due date specified in paragraph (a) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(2) 30 days after the date on which the amendment changing the plan year was adopted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>New and newly covered plans.</I> For a new plan or newly covered plan, the flat-rate and variable-rate premium filing due date for the first plan year of coverage is the latest of—
</P>
<P>(1) The due date specified in paragraph (a) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(2) 90 days after the date of the plan's adoption, or
</P>
<P>(3) 90 days after the date on which the plan became covered by title IV of ERISA, or
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a small plan that is a continuation plan, 90 days after the plan's UVB valuation date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Terminating plans.</I> For a plan that terminates in a standard termination, the flat-rate and variable-rate premium filing due date for the plan year in which all plan assets are distributed pursuant to the plan's termination is the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(1) The due date specified in paragraph (a) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(2) Forty-five (45) days after the date the post-distribution certification under § 4041.29 of this chapter is filed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Continuing obligation to file.</I> The obligation to make flat-rate and variable-rate premium filings and payments under this part continues through the plan year in which all plan assets are distributed pursuant to a plan's termination or in which a trustee is appointed under section 4042 of ERISA, whichever occurs earlier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 13561, Mar. 11, 2014, as amended at  90 FR 39327, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.12   Liability for single-employer premiums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The designation under this part of the plan administrator as the person required to make flat-rate and variable-rate premium filings and payments under this part for a single-employer plan is a procedural requirement only and does not alter the liability for premium payments imposed by section 4007 of ERISA. Pursuant to section 4007(e) of ERISA, both the plan administrator and the contributing sponsor of a single-employer plan are liable for flat-rate and variable-rate premium payments, and, if the contributing sponsor is a member of a controlled group, each member of the controlled group is jointly and severally liable for the required premiums. Any entity that is liable for required premiums is also liable for any interest and penalties assessed with respect to such premiums. 
</P>
<P>(b) After a plan administrator issues (pursuant to section 4041(a)(2) of ERISA) the first notice of intent to terminate in a distress termination under section 4041(c) of ERISA or PBGC issues a notice of determination under section 4042(a) of ERISA, the obligation to pay the premiums (and any interest or penalties thereon) imposed by ERISA and this part for a single-employer plan shall be an obligation solely of the contributing sponsor and the members of its controlled group, if any.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34020, July 1, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 71229, Dec. 17, 2007; 79 FR 13562, Mar. 11, 2014; 90 FR 39327, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4007.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4007.13   Premiums for certain terminated single-employer plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This section applies where there is a “DRA 2005 termination” of a plan. Subject to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, there is a DRA 2005 termination where a single-employer plan's termination date is after 2005 and either—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan terminates under section 4042 of ERISA, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan terminates under section 4041(c) of ERISA and at least one contributing sponsor or member of a contributing sponsor's controlled group meets the requirements of section 4041(c)(2)(B)(ii) or (iii) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plans terminated during reorganization proceedings.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a DRA 2005 termination of a plan does not occur where as of the plan's termination date—
</P>
<P>(i) A bankruptcy proceeding has been filed by or against any person that was a contributing sponsor of the plan on the day before the plan's termination date or that was on that day a member of any controlled group of which any such contributing sponsor was a member,
</P>
<P>(ii) The proceeding is pending as a reorganization proceeding under chapter 11 of title 11, United States Code (or under any similar law of a State or political subdivision of a State),
</P>
<P>(iii) The person has not been discharged from the proceeding, and
</P>
<P>(iv) The proceeding was filed before October 18, 2005.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule for certain airline-related plans.</I> Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply to an “eligible plan” under section 402(c)(1) of the Pension Protection Act of 2006 (dealing with certain plans of commercial passenger airlines and airline catering services) while an election under section 402(a)(1) of the Pension Protection Act of 2006 (dealing with alternative funding schedules) is in effect for the plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination premium.</I> A premium as described in § 4006.7 of this chapter is payable to PBGC with respect to a DRA 2005 termination each year for three years after the termination (the “termination premium”).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing requirements; method of filing.</I> Notwithstanding § 4007.3, in the case of a DRA 2005 termination of a plan, each person that was a contributing sponsor of the plan on the day before the plan's termination date or that was on that day a member of any controlled group of which any such contributing sponsor was a member is responsible for filing prescribed termination premium information and payments. Any such person may file on behalf of all such persons.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Late payment penalty charges.</I> Notwithstanding § 4007.8(a), if any required termination premium payment is not filed by the due date under paragraph (d) of this section, PBGC may assess a late payment penalty charge based on the facts and circumstances, subject to waiver under § 4007.8(b), (c), (d), or (e). The charge will not exceed the amount of termination premium not timely filed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Due dates.</I> Notwithstanding § 4007.11, the due date for the termination premium is the 30th day of each of three applicable 12-month periods. The three applicable 12-month periods with respect to a DRA 2005 termination of a plan are—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>First applicable 12-month period.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the period of 12 calendar months beginning with the first calendar month following the calendar month in which occurs the plan's termination date, and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsequent applicable 12-month periods.</I> Each of the first two periods of 12 calendar months that immediately follow the first applicable 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain reorganization cases.</I> (1) This paragraph (e) applies with respect to a DRA 2005 termination of a plan if the conditions in both paragraph (e)(2) and paragraph (e)(3) of this section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(2) The condition of this paragraph (e)(2) is that either—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan terminates under section 4042 of ERISA, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan terminates under section 4041(c) of ERISA and at least one contributing sponsor or member of a contributing sponsor's controlled group meets the requirements of section 4041(c)(2)(B)(ii) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(3) The condition of this paragraph (e)(3) is that as of the plan's termination date—
</P>
<P>(i) A bankruptcy proceeding has been filed by or against any person that was a contributing sponsor of the plan on the day before the plan's termination date or that was on that day a member of any controlled group of which any such contributing sponsor was a member,
</P>
<P>(ii) The proceeding is pending as a reorganization proceeding under chapter 11 of title 11, United States Code (or under any similar law of a State or political subdivision of a State), and
</P>
<P>(iii) The person has not been discharged from the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) If this paragraph (e) applies with respect to a DRA 2005 termination of a plan, then except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, the first applicable 12-month period with respect to the plan is the period of 12 calendar months beginning with the first calendar month following the calendar month in which occurs the earliest date when, for every person that was a contributing sponsor of the plan on the day before the plan's termination date, or that was on that day a member of any controlled group of which any such contributing sponsor was a member, either—
</P>
<P>(i) There is not pending any bankruptcy proceeding that was filed by or against such person and that was, as of the plan's termination date, a reorganization proceeding under chapter 11 of title 11, United States Code (or under any similar law of a State or political subdivision of a State), or
</P>
<P>(ii) The person has been discharged in any such proceeding, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The person no longer exists.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan termination date in past when set.</I> If a plan's termination date is in the past when it is established by agreement or court action as described in section 4048 of ERISA, then the first applicable 12-month period for determining the due dates of the termination premium begins with the later of—
</P>
<P>(1) The first calendar month following the calendar month in which the termination date is established by agreement or court action as described in section 4048 of ERISA, or
</P>
<P>(2) The first calendar month specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section or (if paragraph (e) of this section applies) paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Liability for termination premiums.</I> In the case of a DRA 2005 termination of a plan, each person that was a contributing sponsor of the plan on the day before the plan's termination date, or that was on that day a member of any controlled group of which any such contributing sponsor was a member, is jointly and severally liable for termination premiums with respect to the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 71230, Dec. 17, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 13562, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="29:9.1.4.14.6.0.11.14.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 4007—Policy Guidelines on Premium Penalties 
</HEAD>
<FP>Sec.
</FP>
<HD1>General Provisions 
</HD1>
<FP-2>1 What is the purpose of this Appendix? 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2 What defined terms are used in this Appendix? 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3 What is the purpose of a premium penalty? 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4 What information is in this Appendix and how is it organized? 
</FP-2>
<HD1>Premium Penalty Assessment 
</HD1>
<FP-2>[Reserved] 
</FP-2>
<HD1>Waiver Standards 
</HD1>
<FP-2>21 What are the standards for waiving a premium penalty? 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>22 What is “reasonable cause”? 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>23 What kinds of facts does PBGC consider in determining whether there is reasonable cause for a failure to pay a premium? 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>24 What are some situations that might justify a “reasonable cause” waiver? 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>25 What are some situations that might justify a partial “reasonable cause” waiver? 
</FP-2>
<HD1>Procedures 
</HD1>
<FP-2>[Reserved]
</FP-2>
<HD1>General Provisions 
</HD1>
<FP-2><B>1 What is the purpose of this Appendix?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>This appendix sets forth principles and guidelines that we intend to follow in assessing, reviewing, and waiving premium penalties. However, this is only general policy guidance. Our action in each case is guided by the facts and circumstances of the case.
</P>
<FP-2><B>2 What defined terms are used in this Appendix?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>The following terms are defined in part 4001 of this chapter: contributing sponsor, ERISA, PBGC, person, plan, and plan administrator. In addition, in this appendix:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Premium penalty</I> means a penalty under ERISA section 4007 and under this part for failing to pay a premium in full and on time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver</I> means reduction or elimination of a premium penalty that is being or has been assessed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>We</I> means PBGC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>You</I> means, according to the context,—
</P>
<P>(1) A plan administrator, contributing sponsor, or other person, if—
</P>
<P>(i) The person's action or inaction may be the basis for a premium penalty assessment,
</P>
<P>(ii) The person may be required to pay the premium penalty, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The person is requesting review of the premium penalty; or
</P>
<P>(2) An employee or agent of, or advisor to, any of these persons.
</P>
<FP-2><B>3 What is the purpose of a premium penalty?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>The basic purpose of a premium penalty is to encourage you to pay premiums in full and on time and to voluntarily self-correct any failure to do so.
</P>
<FP-2><B>4 What information is in this Appendix and how is it organized?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>This Appendix has four divisions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions.</I> The General Provisions division (§§ 1-4) tells you the purpose and organization of the Appendix, the purpose of a premium penalty, and the definitions of terms used in the Appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Premium penalty assessment.</I> The Premium Penalty Assessment division is reserved.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver standards.</I> The Waiver Standards division (§§ 21-25) explains the principles that PBGC follows in waiving premium penalties.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reasonable cause.</I> We waive premium penalties for reasonable cause, as explained in §§ 22-25.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other waivers.</I> We also waive premium penalties in some other circumstances, such as mistake of law, as explained in § 21.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures.</I> The Procedures division is reserved.
</P>
<HD1>Premium Penalty Assessment
</HD1>
<P>[Reserved] 
</P>
<HD1>Waiver Standards 
</HD1>
<FP-2><B>21 What are the standards for waiving a premium penalty?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>(a) <I>Facts and circumstances.</I> In deciding whether to waive a premium penalty in whole or in part under paragraph (b), we consider the facts and circumstances of each case.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>Provisions of law.</I> We waive all or part of a premium penalty if a statute or regulation requires that we do so. For example, ERISA section 4007(b) and § 4007.8 of this part provide for a waiver in certain circumstances involving business hardship, and § 4007.8 of this part also provides , and for a waiver of a premium penalty that accrues after the date of a bill for a premium underpayment if you pay the premium owed within 30 days after the date of the bill, and for waivers in certain cases where you pay not more than a week late or where you estimate the variable-rate premium and then timely correct any underpayment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasonable cause.</I> We waive a premium penalty if you show reasonable cause for a failure to pay a premium in full and on time. See §§ 22 through 25 for guidelines on “reasonable cause” waivers. If there is reasonable cause for only part of a failure to pay a premium, we waive the premium penalty only for that part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Legal errors.</I> We may waive all or part of a premium penalty if the failure to pay a premium in full and on time that gives rise to the premium penalty results from certain kinds of legal errors.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Erroneous legal interpretation—disclosed.</I> If a failure to pay a premium in full and on time results from your reliance on an erroneous interpretation of the law, we waive a premium penalty that arises from the failure if you promptly and adequately call our attention to the interpretation and the relevant facts, and the erroneous interpretation is not frivolous. If the interpretation affects a filing that you make with us, you should call our attention to the interpretation in writing with the filing. If you rely on the interpretation to justify not making a filing with us, you should call our attention to the interpretation in writing by the time prescribed for the filing not made.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Erroneous legal interpretation—undisclosed.</I> If a failure to pay a premium in full and on time results from your reliance on an erroneous interpretation of the law, and you do not promptly and adequately call our attention to the interpretation and the relevant facts, we may nevertheless waive a premium penalty if the weight of authority supporting the interpretation is substantial in relation to the weight of opposing authority and it is reasonable for you to rely on the interpretation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Recent change in the law.</I> We may waive all or part of a premium penalty if the law changes shortly before the date a premium payment is due and the premium payment that you make by the due date would have been correct under the law as in effect before the change. In determining whether and to what extent to grant a waiver in a case of this kind, we consider such factors as the length of time between the change in the law and the premium due date, the nature and timing of any publicity given to the change in the law, the complexity of the legal issues, and your general familiarity with those issues.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pendency of PBGC procedures.</I> We may waive all or a part of a premium penalty that is attributable to the pendency of PBGC review or other procedures. For example:
</P>
<P>(i) If you request review of a premium penalty, and you make a non-frivolous argument in your request for review that you were not required to pay the premium or that you were, and still are, unable to obtain the information needed to determine the premium, we may waive the portion of the premium penalty that accrues during the review process. If you make such a non-frivolous argument with respect to a portion of the premium, we may apply this principle to that portion.
</P>
<P>(ii) We may waive all or a part of a premium penalty if we believe that the pendency of PBGC procedures for identifying a premium delinquency and notifying you of the delinquency contributed to your failure to correct the delinquency more promptly.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other circumstances.</I> We may waive all or part of a premium penalty in other circumstances if we determine that it is appropriate to do so. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action or inaction of outside parties.</I> In some cases an accountant, actuary, lawyer, pension consultant, or other individual or firm that is not part of your organization may assist you in complying with PBGC requirements. If the outside individual's or firm's action, inaction, or advice causes or contributes to a failure to pay a premium in full and on time, we apply our waiver authority as if the outside individual or firm were part of your organization. In the case of an outside individual who is part of a firm, we generally consider both the individual and the firm to be part of your organization.
</P>
<FP-2><B>22 What is “reasonable cause”?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In general, there is “reasonable cause” for a failure to pay a premium in full and on time to the extent that—
</P>
<P>(1) The failure arises from circumstances beyond your control, and
</P>
<P>(2) You could not avoid the failure by the exercise of ordinary business care and prudence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Overlooking legal requirements.</I> Overlooking legal requirements does not constitute reasonable cause.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action or inaction of outside parties.</I> If an accountant, actuary, lawyer, pension consultant, or other individual or firm that is not part of your organization assists you in complying with PBGC requirements, there is generally no reasonable cause for a failure to pay a premium in full and on time that arises from circumstances within the control of the outside individual or firm, or could be avoided by the exercise of ordinary business care and prudence by the outside individual or firm. The fact that you exercised care and prudence in selecting and monitoring the outside individual or firm is not a basis for a reasonable cause waiver.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Size of organization.</I> If an organization or one or more of its employees is responsible for taking action, the size of the organization may affect what ordinary business care and prudence would require. For example, ordinary business care and prudence would typically require a larger organization to establish more comprehensive backup procedures than a smaller organization for dealing with situations such as computer failure, the loss of important records, and the inability of an individual to carry out assigned responsibilities. Thus, there may be reasonable cause for a small organization's failure to pay a premium in full and on time even though, if the organization were larger, the exercise of ordinary business care and prudence would have avoided the failure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Size of premium underpayment.</I> In general, the larger a premium, the more care and prudence you should use to make sure that you pay it in full and on time. Thus, there may be reasonable cause for a small underpayment even though, under the same circumstances, we would conclude that a larger underpayment could have been avoided by the exercise of ordinary business care and prudence.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Collection and enforcement.</I> In determining whether reasonable cause exists, we do not consider either—
</P>
<P>(i) The likelihood or cost of collecting the premium penalty, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The costs and risks of enforcing the premium penalty by litigation.
</P>
<FP-2><B>23 What kinds of facts does PBGC consider in determining whether there is reasonable cause for a failure to pay a premium?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>In determining the extent to which a failure to pay a premium in full and on time arose from circumstances beyond your control and the extent to which you could have avoided the failure by the exercise of ordinary business care and prudence—and thus the extent to which waiver of a premium penalty for reasonable cause is appropriate—we consider facts such as the following:
</P>
<P>(a) What event or circumstance caused the underpayment and when the event happened or the circumstance arose. The dates you give should clearly correspond with the underpayment upon which the premium penalty is based.
</P>
<P>(b) How that event or circumstance kept you from paying the premium in full and on time. The explanation you give should relate directly to the failure to pay a premium that is the subject of the premium penalty.
</P>
<P>(c) Whether you could have anticipated the event or circumstance.
</P>
<P>(d) How you responded to the event or circumstance, including what steps you took, and how quickly you took them, to pay the premium and how you conducted other business affairs. Knowing how you responded to the event or circumstance may help us determine what degree of business care and prudence you were capable of exercising during that period and thus whether the failure to pay the premium could or could not have been avoided by the exercise of ordinary business care and prudence.
</P>
<FP-2><B>24 What are some situations that might justify a “reasonable cause” waiver?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>The following examples illustrate some of the reasons often given for failures to pay premiums for which we may assess penalties. The situation described in each example may constitute reasonable cause, and each example lists factors we consider in determining whether to grant a premium penalty waiver for reasonable cause in a case of that kind.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>An individual with responsibility for taking action was suddenly and unexpectedly absent or unable to act.</I> We consider such factors as the following: The nature of the event that caused the individual's absence or inability to act, for example, the resignation of the individual or the death or serious illness of the individual or a member of the individual's immediate family; the size of the organization and what kind of backup procedures it had to cope with such events; how close the event was to the deadline that was missed; how abrupt and unanticipated the event was; how the individual's absence or inability to act prevented compliance; how expensive it would have been to comply without the absent individual; whether and how other business operations and obligations were affected; how quickly and prudently a replacement for the absent individual was selected or other arrangements for compliance were made; and how quickly a replacement for the absent individual took appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>A fire or other casualty or natural disaster destroyed relevant records or prevented compliance in some other way.</I> We consider such factors as the following: The nature of the event; how close the event was to the deadline that was missed; how the event caused the failure to pay the premium; whether other efforts were made to get needed information; how expensive it would have been to comply; and how you responded to the event.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>You reasonably relied on erroneous oral or written advice given by a PBGC employee.</I> We consider such factors as the following: Whether there was a clear relationship between your situation and the advice sought; whether you provided the PBGC employee with adequate and accurate information; and whether the surrounding circumstances should have led you to question the correctness of the advice or information provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>You were unable to obtain information, including records and calculations, needed to comply.</I> We consider such factors as the following: What information was needed; why the information was unavailable; when and how you discovered that the information was not available; what attempts you made to get the information or reconstruct it through other means; and how much it would have cost to comply.
</P>
<FP-2><B>25 What are some situations that might justify a partial “reasonable cause” waiver?</B>
</FP-2>
<P>(a) Assume that a fire destroyed the records needed to compute a premium payment. If in the exercise of ordinary business care and prudence it should take you one month to reconstruct the records and pay the premium, but the payment was made two months late, it might be appropriate to waive that part of the premium penalty attributable to the first month the payment was late, but not the part attributable to the second month.
</P>
<P>(b) Assume that a plan administrator underpaid the plan's flat-rate premium because of reasonable reliance on erroneous advice from a PBGC employee, and also underpaid the plan's variable-rate premium because the plan actuary used the wrong interest rate. A PBGC audit revealed both errors. PBGC billed the plan for a premium penalty of $5,000—$1,000 for underpayment of the flat-rate premium and $4,000 for underpayment of the variable-rate premium. The plan administrator requested a waiver of the premium penalty. While the erroneous PBGC advice constituted reasonable cause for underpaying the flat-rate premium, there was no showing of reasonable cause for the error in the variable-rate premium. Therefore, we would waive only the part of the premium penalty based on underpayment of the flat-rate portion of the premium ($1,000).
</P>
<HD1>Procedures
</HD1>
<P>[Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 66869, Nov. 17, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 13562, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.15" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—CERTAIN REPORTING AND DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4010" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4010—ANNUAL FINANCIAL AND ACTUARIAL INFORMATION REPORTING


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1310.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4010.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes the requirements for annual filings with PBGC under ERISA section 4010.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 11029, Mar. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: benefit liabilities, Code, contributing sponsor, controlled group, earliest retirement age at valuation date, ERISA, expected retirement age (XRA), fair market value, IRS, PBGC, person, plan, plan year, unreduced retirement age (URA), ultimate parent, and U.S. entity. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>At-risk status</I> means, with respect to a plan for a plan year, at-risk status as defined in ERISA section 303(i)(4) and Code section 430(i)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Exempt entity</I> means a person that does not have to file information and about which information does not have to be filed, as described in § 4010.4(c). 
</P>
<P><I>Exempt plan</I> means a plan about which actuarial information does not have to be filed, as described in § 4010.8(c). 
</P>
<P><I>Fair market value of the plan's assets</I> means the fair market value of the plan's assets at the end of the plan year ending within the filer's information year (determined without regard to any contributions receivable). 
</P>
<P><I>Filer</I> means a person who is required to file reports, as described in § 4010.4. 
</P>
<P><I>Fiscal year</I> means, with respect to a person, the person's annual accounting period or, if the person has not adopted a closing date, the calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign entity</I> means a member of a controlled group that —
</P>
<P>(1) Is not a contributing sponsor of a plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not organized under the laws of (or, if an individual, is not a domiciliary of) any state (as defined in section 3(10) of ERISA); and
</P>
<P>(3) For the fiscal year that includes the information year, meets one of the following tests—
</P>
<P>(i) Is not required to file any United States Federal income tax form;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no income reportable on any United States Federal income tax form other than passive income not exceeding $1,000; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not own substantial assets in the United States (disregarding stock of a member of the plan's controlled group) and is not required to file any quarterly United States income tax returns for employee withholding.
</P>
<P><I>4010 funding target attainment percentage</I> means, with respect to a plan for a plan year, the percentage as determined under § 4010.4(b) for the plan year.
</P>
<P><I>Funding target</I> means, with respect to a plan for a plan year, the funding target as provided under ERISA section 303(d)(1) and Code section 430(d)(1) determined as of the valuation date for the plan year.
</P>
<P><I>Information year</I> means the information year determined under § 4010.5.
</P>
<P><I>Valuation date</I> means, with respect to a plan for a plan year, the valuation date as determined under ERISA section 303(g)(2) and Code section 430(g)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 11029, Mar. 16, 2009; 81 FR 15439, Mar. 23, 2016; 85 FR 6059, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.3   Filing requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in § 4010.8(c) (relating to exempt plans) and except where one or more waivers under § 4010.11 apply, each filer must submit to PBGC annually, on or before the due date specified in § 4010.10, all information specified in § 4010.6(a) with respect to all members of a controlled group and all plans maintained by members of the filer's controlled group. Under § 4000.3(b) of this chapter, except as otherwise provided by PBGC, the information must be submitted electronically in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Single controlled group submission.</I> Any filer or other person may submit the information specified in § 4010.6(a) on behalf of one or more members of a filer's controlled group.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 11544, Mar. 9, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 11029, Mar. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.4   Filers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Unless a waiver in § 4010.11 of this part applies, a contributing sponsor of a plan and each member of the contributing sponsor's controlled group on the last day of the information year is a filer with respect to an information year (unless exempted under paragraph (c) of this section) if—
</P>
<P>(1) For any plan (including an exempt plan) maintained by the members of the contributing sponsor's controlled group on the last day of the information year, the 4010 funding target attainment percentage for the plan year ending within the information year is less than 80 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) Any member of the controlled group fails to make a required installment or other required payment to a plan and, as a result, the conditions for imposition of a lien described in ERISA section 303(k) or 306(g) and Code section 430(k) or 433(g) have been met during the information year, and the required installment or other required payment is not made within ten days after its due date; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any plan maintained by a member of the controlled group has been granted one or more minimum funding waivers under ERISA section 302(c) and Code section 412(c) totaling in excess of $1 million, and as of the end of the plan year ending within the information year, any portion thereof is still outstanding.
</P>
<P>(b) 4010 <I>Funding target attainment percentage</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The 4010 funding target attainment percentage for a plan for a plan year equals the funding target attainment percentage as provided under ERISA section 303(d)(2) and Code section 430(d)(2) determined without regard to the interest rate stabilization provisions of ERISA section 303(h)(2)(C)(iv) and Code section 430(h)(2)(C)(iv).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assets used to determine 4010 funding target attainment percentage.</I> For purposes of determining the 4010 funding target attainment percentage for a plan for the plan year, the value of plan assets determined under ERISA section 303(g)(3) and Code section 430(g)(3) may (but need not) be substituted for the asset value determined without regard to the interest rate stabilization provisions of ERISA section 303(h)(2)(C)(iv) and Code section 430(h)(2)(C)(iv).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prefunding balance and funding standard carryover balance elections.</I> For purposes of determining the 4010 funding target attainment percentage for a plan for the plan year, prefunding balances and funding standard carryover balances must reflect any elections (or deemed elections) under ERISA section 303(f) and Code section 430(f) that affect the value of such balances as of the beginning of the plan year, regardless of when the elections (or deemed elections) are made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempt entities.</I> A person is an exempt entity for an information year if the conditions of paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(1) The person is not a contributing sponsor of a plan (other than an exempt plan) as of the last day of the information year.
</P>
<P>(2) The person has revenue for its fiscal year ending within the controlled group's information year that is five percent or less of the revenue of the person's controlled group for the fiscal year(s) ending within the information year.
</P>
<P>(3) The person has annual operating income for the fiscal year ending within the controlled group's information year that is no more than the greater of—
</P>
<P>(i) Five percent of the controlled group's annual operating income for the fiscal year(s) ending within the information year, or
</P>
<P>(ii) $5 million.
</P>
<P>(4) The person has net assets at the end of the fiscal year ending within the controlled group's information year that is no more than the greater of—
</P>
<P>(i) Five percent of the controlled group's net assets at the end of the fiscal year(s) ending within the information year, or
</P>
<P>(ii) $5 million.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Minimum funding waiver</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For purposes of § 4010.4(a)(3), a portion of the minimum funding waiver for a plan is considered outstanding unless prior to the plan year ending within the information year the statutory amortization period has ended, or, as of the valuation date for the plan year ending within the information year, the amortization bases are deemed to be reduced to zero pursuant to ERISA section 303(e)(5) and Code section 430(e)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> Company A sponsors Plan X, which received a minimum funding waiver of $700,000 for the plan year ending December 31, 2004, and another waiver of $500,000 for the plan year ending December 31, 2008. Assume that the amortization bases of the waivers are not reduced to zero pursuant to ERISA section 303(e)(5) and Code section 430(e)(5), and the waivers are therefore outstanding for the full five-year statutory amortization period. Also, assume Company A has a calendar information year. For the 2009 information year, Company A must report under ERISA section 4010. However, for the 2010 information year, Company A, assuming no other obligation to report under ERISA section 4010, is not required to report.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain plans to which special funding rules apply.</I> Except for purposes of determining the information to be submitted under § 4010.8(h) (in connection with the actuarial valuation report), the following statutory provisions are disregarded for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 402(b) of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, Public Law 109-280, dealing with certain frozen plans of commercial passenger airlines and airline caterers.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 306 of ERISA and section 433 of the Code, dealing with certain defined benefit pension plans maintained by certain cooperatives and charities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 11030, Mar. 16, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 15439, Mar. 23, 2016; 85 FR 6059, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.5   Information year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determinations based on information year.</I> An information year is used under this part to determine which persons are filers (§ 4010.4), what information a filer must submit (§§ 4010.6-4010.9), whether a plan is an exempt plan (§ 4010.8(c)), and the due date for submitting the information (§ 4010.10(a)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a person's information year is the fiscal year of the person. A filer is not required to change its fiscal year or the plan year of a plan, to report financial information for any accounting period other than an existing fiscal year, or to report actuarial information for any plan year other than an existing plan year. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Controlled group members with different fiscal years.</I> If members of a controlled group (disregarding any exempt entity) report financial information on the basis of different fiscal years, the information year is the calendar year. (If any two members of the controlled group report financial information on the basis of different fiscal years, the determination of whether an entity is an exempt entity is based on a calendar year information year for purposes of this paragraph (c) and § 4010.4(c).)
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the rule in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1.</I> Companies A and B are the only members of the same controlled group, and both are contributing sponsors to nonexempt plans. Company A has a July 1 fiscal year, and Company B has an October 1 fiscal year. The information year is the calendar year. Company A's financial information with respect to its fiscal year ending June 30, 2009, and Company B's financial information with respect to its fiscal year ending September 30, 2009, must be submitted to the PBGC following the end of the 2009 calendar year information year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> The facts are the same as in Example 1 except that Company B is not a contributing sponsor of a plan and would be an exempt entity using the calendar year as the information year. Because Company B is an exempt entity based on a calendar year information year, it is excluded when determining the information year. Thus, the information year is the July 1 fiscal year. Note that Company B is an exempt entity even if it would not be exempt based on the July information year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> The facts are the same as in Example 2 except that Company B would not be an exempt entity using the calendar year information year but would be exempt based on an information year that is the July 1 fiscal year. Since Company B is not exempt based on a calendar year information year, it may not be excluded when determining the information year. Therefore, the information year is the calendar year and Company B is not an exempt entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special rules for certain plan years.</I> If a plan maintained by the members of the contributing sponsor's controlled group has two plan years that end in the information year or has no plan year that ends in the information year, the last plan year ending on or immediately before the end of information year is deemed to be the plan year ending within the information year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996, as amended at 70 FR 11544, Mar. 9, 2005; 74 FR 11031, Mar. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.6   Information to be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Current filers.</I> A filer must submit the information specified in § 4010.7 (identifying information), § 4010.8 (plan actuarial information) and § 4010.9 (financial information) with respect to each member of the filer's controlled group and each plan maintained by any member of the filer's controlled group, and any other information relating to the information specified in §§ 4010.7 through 4010.9, as specified in the instructions on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Previous filers.</I> If a filer for the immediately preceding information year is not required to file for the current information year, the filer must submit information, in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov</I>, demonstrating why a filing is not required for the current information year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information.</I> By written notification, PBGC may require any filer to submit additional actuarial or financial information that is necessary to determine plan assets and liabilities for any period through the end of the filer's information year, or the financial status of a filer for any period through the end of the filer's information year (including information on exempt entities and exempt plans). The information must be submitted within ten days after the date of the written notification or by a different time specified therein.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Previous submissions.</I> If any required information has been previously submitted to PBGC, a filer may incorporate this information into the required submission by referring to the previous submission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996, as amended at 70 FR 11544, Mar. 9, 2005; 74 FR 11031, Mar. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.7   Identifying information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filers.</I> Each filer is required to provide, in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov,</I> the following identifying information with respect to each member of the filer's controlled group (excluding exempt entities)—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Current members; individual member information.</I> For each entity that is a member of the controlled group as of the end of the filer's information year—
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and telephone number of the entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) assigned by the IRS to the entity (or if there is no EIN for the entity, an explanation); and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the entity became a member of the controlled group during the information year, the date the entity became a member of the controlled group.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Current members; legal relationships of members.</I> If, as of the end of the filer's information year, the filer's controlled group consists of—
</P>
<P>(i) Ten or fewer members (excluding exempt entities), the legal relationship of each entity to the plan sponsor (for example, parent, subsidiary).
</P>
<P>(ii) More than ten members (excluding exempt entities), an organizational chart or other diagram showing the members of the filer's controlled group as of the end of the filer's information year and the legal relationships of the members to each other. Exempt entities may, but need not, be included in this organizational chart or diagram.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Former members.</I> For any entity that ceased to be a member of the controlled group during the filer's information year, the date the entity ceased to be a member of the controlled group and the identifying information required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section as of the day before the entity left the controlled group.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plans.</I> Each filer is required to provide, in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov</I>, the following identifying information with respect to each plan (including exempt plans) maintained by any member of the filer's controlled group (including exempt entities)—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Current plans.</I> For a plan that is maintained by the controlled group as of the last day of the filer's information year—
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The EIN and the three-digit Plan Number (PN) assigned by the contributing sponsor to the plan (or if there is no EIN or PN for the plan, an explanation);
</P>
<P>(iii) If the EIN or PN of the plan has changed during the filer's information year, the previous EIN or PN and an explanation;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the plan was not maintained by the controlled group immediately before the filer's information year, the date the plan was first maintained by the controlled group during the information year; 
</P>
<P>(v) If, as of any day during the information year, the plan was frozen (for eligibility or benefit accrual purposes), a description of the date and the nature of the freeze (e.g., service is frozen but pay is not); and 
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of a multiple employer plan, a list of the contributing sponsors as of the end of the plan year ending within the filer's information year, including the name, employer identification number, contact information, fiscal year, and a statement as to whether each contributing sponsor is a publicly-traded company; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Former plans.</I> For a plan that ceased to be maintained by the controlled group during the filer's information year, the date the plan ceased to be so maintained, identification of the controlled group currently maintaining the plan (if applicable), and the identifying information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section as of the day before that date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 11544, Mar. 9, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 11031, Mar. 16, 2009; 85 FR 6059, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.8   Plan actuarial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this part, for each plan (other than an exempt plan) maintained by any member of the filer's controlled group, each filer is required to provide, in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov,</I> the following actuarial information determined (except as specified below) as of the end of plan year ending within the filer's information year—
</P>
<P>(1) The number of—
</P>
<P>(i) Retired participants and beneficiaries receiving payments,
</P>
<P>(ii) Terminated vested participants, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Active participants;
</P>
<P>(2) The fair market value of the plan's assets (excluding any contributions received after year-end);
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of benefit liabilities under the plan, setting forth separately the amount of the liabilities attributable to retired participants and beneficiaries receiving payments, terminated vested participants, and active participants, determined, for this purpose in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the actuarial assumptions used to determine the benefit liabilities in paragraph (a)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(5) The at-risk funding target for the plan year ending within the information year determined under ERISA section 303(i) and Code section 430(i)—
</P>
<P>(i) As if the plan has been in at-risk status for a consecutive period of at least five years, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Without regard to the interest rate stabilization provisions of ERISA section 303(h)(2)(C)(iv) and Code section 430(h)(2)(C)(iv);
</P>
<P>(6) The 4010 funding target attainment percentage (as of the valuation date) for the plan year ending within the information year;
</P>
<P>(7) The adjusted funding target attainment percentage as defined in ERISA section 206(g)(9)(B) and Code section 436(j)(2) for the plan year ending within the information year;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the plan, at any time during the plan year, was subject to any of the limitations described in ERISA section 206(g) and Code section 436, and, if so, which limitations applied, when such limitations applied, and when (if applicable) they were lifted;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether a required installment or other required payment to the plan was not made, and, as a result, a lien described in ERISA section 303(k) or 306(g) and Code section 430(k) or 433(g) was triggered during the information year, and the required installment or other required payment was not made within ten days after its due date;
</P>
<P>(10) Whether any portion of the total minimum funding waiver(s) in excess of $1 million granted with respect to such plan is outstanding;
</P>
<P>(11) A copy of the actuarial valuation report for the plan year ending within the filer's information year that contains or is supplemented by the following information for that plan year—
</P>
<P>(i) The funding target calculated pursuant to ERISA section 303 without regard to subsection 303(i)(1) (and Code section 430 without regard to subsection 430(i)(1)), setting forth separately the value of the liabilities attributable to retirees and beneficiaries receiving payment, terminated vested participants, and active participants (showing vested and nonvested benefits separately);
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the actuarial assumptions and methods used for purposes of ERISA section 303 and Code section 430, including the form of payment and benefit commencement date assumptions for all active and deferred vested participants not yet receiving benefits, information on how lump sums are valued (for plans that provide lump sums other than <I>de minimis</I> lump sums), and any changes in those assumptions and methods since the previous valuation and the justifications for such changes.
</P>
<P>(iii) The effective interest rate (as defined in ERISA section 303(h)(2)(A) and Code section 430(h)(2)(A));
</P>
<P>(iv) The target normal cost calculated pursuant to ERISA section 303 without regard to subsection 303(i)(2) (and Code section 430 without regard to subsection 430(i)(2));
</P>
<P>(v) For the plan year and each of the four preceding plan years, a statement as to whether the plan was in at-risk status for that plan year;
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of a plan that is in at-risk status, the target normal cost and funding target calculated pursuant to ERISA section 303 and Code section 430 as if the plan has been in at-risk status for five consecutive years;
</P>
<P>(vii) The value of the plan's assets (reflecting any averaging method) as of the valuation date and the fair market value of the plan's assets as of the valuation date;
</P>
<P>(viii) The funding standard carryover balance and the prefunding balance (maintained pursuant to ERISA section 303(f)(1) and Code section 430(f)(1)) as of the beginning of the plan year and a summary of any changes in such balances in the past year (e.g., amounts used to offset the minimum funding requirement, amounts reduced in accordance with any elections under ERISA section 303(f)(5) and Code section 430(f)(5), interest credited to such balances, and excess contributions used to increase such balances);
</P>
<P>(ix) A list of amortization bases (shortfall and waiver) under ERISA section 303 and Code section 430, including the year each base was established, the original amount, the installment amount, and the remaining balance at the beginning of the plan year;
</P>
<P>(x) An age/service scatter for active participants including average compensation information for pay-related plans and average account balance information for hybrid plans presented in a format similar to that described in the instructions to Schedule SB of the Form 5500;
</P>
<P>(xi) Expected disbursements (benefit payments and expenses) during the plan year;
</P>
<P>(xii) A summary of the principal eligibility and benefit provisions on which the valuation of the plan was based (and any changes to those provisions since the previous valuation), along with descriptions of any benefits not included in the valuation, any significant events that occurred during the plan year, and the plan's early retirement factors; in the case of a plan that provides lump sums, other than de minimis lump sums, the summary must include information on how annuity benefits are converted to lump sum amounts (e.g., whether early retirement subsidies are reflected); and
</P>
<P>(xiii) Any other similar information as specified in instructions on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov;</I> and
</P>
<P>(12) Certification of the actuarial information by an enrolled actuary, as described in the related filing instructions and permitted under 26 CFR 301.6059-1(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative methods of compliance</I>—(1) <I>At-risk funding target.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a filer is not required to provide the information specified in paragraph (a)(5) of this section for the plan year for which actuarial information is being reported unless PBGC requests in writing that the information be provided, in which case the filer must provide the information within 30 days of such request or such later date as PBGC specifies in the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Actuarial valuation report.</I> If any of the information specified in paragraph (a)(11) of this section is not available by the date specified in § 4010.10(a), a filer may satisfy the requirement to provide such information by—
</P>
<P>(i) Including a statement, with the material that is submitted to PBGC, that the filer will file the unavailable information by the alternative due date specified in § 4010.10(b), and
</P>
<P>(ii) Filing such information (along with a certification by an enrolled actuary under paragraph (a)(12) of this section) with PBGC by that alternative due date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempt plan.</I> The actuarial information specified in this section is not required with respect to a plan if the plan satisfies the conditions in paragraph (c)(1) through (3).
</P>
<P>(1) The plan—
</P>
<P>(i) Has fewer than 500 participants as of the end of the plan year ending within the information year or as of the valuation date for that plan year and has a 4010 funding shortfall (as defined in § 4010.11(a)(1)) for the plan year ending within the information year that is not in excess of $15 million, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has benefit liabilities as of the end of the plan year ending within the filer's information year, (determined in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section) equal to or less than the fair market value of the plan's assets.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan has received, by or within ten days after the due dates, all required installments or other payments required to be made during the information year under ERISA sections 302 and 303 and Code sections 412 and 430.
</P>
<P>(3) The plan has no outstanding minimum funding waivers (as described in § 4010.4(a)(3)) as of the end of the plan year ending within the information year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Value of benefit liabilities.</I> The value of a plan's benefit liabilities at the end of a plan year must be determined using the plan census data described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and the actuarial assumptions and methods described in paragraph (d)(2) or, where applicable, (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Census data</I>—(i) <I>Census data period.</I> Plan census data must be determined (for all plans for any information year) either as of the end of the plan year or as of the beginning of the next plan year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Projected census data.</I> If actual plan census data are not available, a plan may use a projection of plan census data from a date within the plan year. The projection must be consistent with projections used to measure pension obligations of the plan for financial statement purposes and must give a result appropriate for the end of the plan year for these obligations. For example, adjustments to the projection process are required where there has been a significant event (such as a plan amendment or a plant shutdown) that has not been reflected in the projection data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Actuarial assumptions and methods.</I> The value of benefit liabilities must be determined using the rules in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Benefits to be valued.</I> Benefits to be valued include all benefits earned or accrued under the plan as of the end of the plan year ending within the information year and other benefits payable from the plan including, but not limited to, ancillary benefits and retirement supplements, regardless of whether such benefits are protected by the anti-cutback provisions of section 411(d)(6) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Actuarial assumptions.</I> The value of benefit liabilities must be determined using the actuarial assumptions described in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assumptions:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">As prescribed in accordance with
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Interest</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">§ 4044.54.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Form of payment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">§ 4044.51.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Expenses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">§ 4044.52(d).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decrements</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">• Mortality</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">§ 4044.53.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">• Retirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">§§ 4044.55 through 4044.58.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">• Other decrements (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> turnover, disability)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Either Option 1 or Option 2—
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Option 1</E>
<br/>Disregard (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> assume 0% probability of decrements other than mortality or retirement occurring)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Option 2</E>
<br/>Use the same assumptions as used to determine the minimum required contribution under section 303 of ERISA and section 430 of the Code for the plan year ending within the filer's information year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If there is no distinction between termination and retirement assumptions, reflect only rates for ages before the Earliest PBGC Retirement Date (as defined in § 4022.10 of this chapter).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash balance plan account conversions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Section 204(b)(5)(B)(vi) of ERISA and section 411(b)(5)(B)(vi) of the Code (which deal with the interest crediting rate and annuity conversion rates), as if the plan terminated on the last day of the plan year ending within the filer's information year. Expected improvements in mortality experience that apply under the plan for periods after the information year may be disregarded for valuing benefit liabilities for 4010 reporting purposes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> cost-of-living increases, marital status)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Use the same assumptions as used to determine the minimum required contribution under section 303 of ERISA and section 430 of the Code for the plan year ending within the filer's information year.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Future service.</I> Future service expected to be accrued by an active participant in an ongoing plan during future employment (based on the assumptions used to determine benefit liabilities) must be included in determining the earliest and unreduced retirement ages used to determine the expected retirement age and in determining an active participant's entitlement to early retirement subsidies and supplements at the expected retirement age. See the examples in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special actuarial assumptions for exempt plan determination.</I> Solely for purposes of determining whether a plan is an exempt plan for an information year, the value of benefit liabilities may be determined using the same retirement assumptions as used to determine the minimum required contribution under section 303 of ERISA and section 430 of the Code for the plan year ending within that information year without regard to the at-risk assumptions of section 303(i) of ERISA and section 430(i) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples demonstrate how XRA is determined and applied for purposes of determining benefit liabilities under paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Plan X has a normal retirement age of 65, but allows benefits to commence as early as age 55 for participants who complete at least 10 years of service before termination. Early retirement benefits are reduced for participants with fewer than 25 years of service. Employee A is an active participant who is age 40 and has completed 5 years of service. Assume the “medium” XRA look-up table applies, and that for purposes of § 4010.8(d), the filer has decided not to take pre-retirement decrements other than mortality table into account as permitted under § 4010.8(d)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination of XRA.</I> If A continues working, the earliest age A could start receiving benefit is age 55. Therefore, A's earliest retirement age at valuation (ERA) is 55. Because the earliest that A can receive an unreduced benefit is when A completed 25 years of service (at age 60), A's URA is age 60. Under the medium XRA look-up table, A's XRA is 58.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determination of Benefit Liabilities.</I> The benefit liability is the present value of A's benefit accrued as of the measurement date assuming A retires at age 58 and elects to have benefits commence immediately. Since A will not be eligible to receive unreduced benefits at that time, the accrued benefit is reduced in accordance with the plan's early retirement reduction provisions, including any subsidies to which A will be entitled under the assumption that A works until age 58.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> Employee B is also an active participant in plan X and is age 40 with 15 years of service. B will complete 25 years of service at age 50. However, because the plan does not allow for benefit commencement before age 55, B's ERA, URA and thus, XRA are all age 55. The benefit liability is the present value of B's benefit accrued as of the measurement date assuming B retires at age 55 and elects to commence benefits immediately. Since B will be eligible to receive an unreduced benefit at that time, the full unreduced benefit amount is valued.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Assume the same facts as in Example 1, except that for purposes of § 4010.8(d), the filer has decided to take pre-retirement decrements other than mortality into account as permitted under § 4010.8(d)(2)(i). Assume the only pre-retirement decrement other than mortality is turnover. The plan's turnover rates go from age 21 to age 54, and the retirement rates go from age 55 to age 65.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination of XRA.</I> If A terminates employment at or before age 45, A will not be eligible to receive benefits until age 65. Therefore, the portion of Employee A that is assumed to terminate before age 45 has an ERA, URA, and XRA of age 65. The portion of A that remains in service to age 45, after the application of the applicable turnover decrements, and then terminates at or after age 45, but before age 55, will be entitled to receive a reduced benefit as early as 55. Therefore, the portion of A that is assumed to terminate during this period has an ERA of 55, a URA of 65 and an XRA of 60. Since the turnover rates stop at age 55, the portion of A that remains in service to age 55 is assumed to remain in service until the XRA for that portion of A. For that portion of A, the ERA is 55, the URA is 60 and the XRA is 58. (For purposes of § 4010.8(d), the plan's assumed retirement rates are replaced by XRAs.)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determination of benefit liabilities.</I> The benefit liability of A is the sum of the present value of A's full accrued benefit at age 65 for the portion of A that terminates between age 40 and age 45, the present value of A's accrued benefit reduced for commencement at age 60 for the portion of A that terminates between age 45 and age 54, and the present value of A's accrued benefit reduced for commencement at age 58 for the portion of A that remains employed until age 55.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example 4.</I> Assume the same facts as in Example 3, except that Employee B, the sole active participant, is age 40 with 15 years of service. The portion of B that is assumed to terminate before age 50 would be entitled to receive a reduced benefit as early as age 55 or an unreduced benefit at age 65. That portion of B has an ERA of 55, a URA of 65, and an XRA of 60. The benefit liability for that portion of B is the present value of B's benefit accrued as of the measurement date assuming B commences a reduced benefit at age 60. The portion of B that survives to age 50 would be entitled to receive an unreduced benefit as early as age 55. That portion of B has an ERA, URA and XRA of 55. The benefit liability for this portion of B is the present value of B's benefit accrued as of the measurement date assuming B retires and commences unreduced payments at age 55.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Multiple employer plans.</I> If, with respect to a multiple employer plan, the actuarial information required under this section 4010 for the plan year ending within the filer's information year has been filed under part 4010 by another filer, the filer may include this actuarial information by reference. The filer must report the name, EIN and plan number of the multiple employer plan and the name of the other filer that submitted this information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Previous filing for plan year.</I> If the actuarial information for the plan year as required under this § 4010.8 has been submitted by the filer in a previous 4010 submission, the filing may include that actuarial information by reference to the previous submission.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Plans subject to special funding rules.</I> Instead of the requirements of paragraph (a)(11) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a plan year for which a plan is subject to section 402(b) of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, Public Law 109-280, dealing with certain frozen plans of commercial passenger airlines and airline caterers, the plan must meet the requirements in connection with the actuarial valuation report in accordance with instructions on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a plan year for which the application of new funding rules is deferred for a plan under section 104 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, Public Law 109-280, as amended by the Preservation of Access to Care for Medicare Beneficiaries and Pension Relief Act of 2010, Public Law 111-192, dealing with eligible charity plans and plans of certain rural cooperatives, the plan must meet the requirements in paragraph (a)(5) of this section (in connection with the actuarial valuation report) in effect as of December 31, 2007.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a plan year for which a plan is subject to the Cooperative and Small Employer Charity Pension Flexibility Act, Public Law 113-97, dealing with certain defined benefit pension plans maintained by more than one employer, the plan must meet the requirements in connection with the actuarial valuation report in accordance with instructions on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 11031, Mar. 16, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 15439, Mar. 23, 2016; 85 FR 6059, Feb. 4, 2020; 89 FR 48299, June 6, 2024; 90 FR 39327, Aug. 15, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.9   Financial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in this section, each filer is required to provide, in accordance with the instructions on PBGC's website, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov</I>, the following financial information for each member of the filer's controlled group (other than an exempt entity)—
</P>
<P>(1) Audited financial statements for the fiscal year ending within the information year (including balance sheets, income statements, cash flow statements, and notes to the financial statements);
</P>
<P>(2) If audited financial statements are not available by the date specified in § 4010.10(a), unaudited financial statements for the fiscal year ending within the information year; or
</P>
<P>(3) If neither audited nor unaudited financial statements are available by the date specified in § 4010.10(a), copies of federal tax returns for the tax year ending within the information year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consolidated financial statements.</I> If the financial information of a controlled group member is combined with the information of other group members in consolidated financial statements, a filer may provide the following financial information in lieu of the information required in paragraph (a) of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) The audited consolidated financial statements for the controlled group for the filer's information year or, if the audited consolidated financial statements are not available by the date specified in § 4010.10(a), unaudited consolidated financial statements for the fiscal year ending within the information year; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the ultimate parent of the controlled group is a foreign entity, financial information on the U.S. entities (other than an exempt entity) that are members of the controlled group. The information required by this paragraph (b)(2) may be provided in the form of consolidated financial statements if the financial information of each controlled group member that is a U.S. entity is combined with the information of other group members that are U.S. entities. Otherwise, for each U.S. entity that is a controlled group member, provide the financial information required in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subsequent submissions.</I> If unaudited financial statements are submitted as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or (b)(1) of this section, audited financial statements must thereafter be filed within 15 days after they are prepared, if they are prepared. If federal tax returns are submitted as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, audited and unaudited financial statements, if prepared must thereafter be filed within 15 days after they are prepared.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of public information.</I> If any of the financial information required by paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section is publicly available, the filer, in lieu of submitting such information to PBGC, may include a statement with the other information that is submitted to PBGC indicating when such financial information was made available to the public and where PBGC may obtain it (including the exact URL for the web page where the financial information is located). For example, if the controlled group member has filed audited financial statements with the Securities and Exchange Commission, it need not file the financial statements with PBGC but instead can identify the SEC filing and the exact URL for the web page where the filing can be retrieved as part of its submission under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inclusion of information about non-filers and exempt entities.</I> Consolidated financial statements provided pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section may include financial information of persons who are not controlled group members (<I>e.g.,</I> joint ventures) or are exempt entities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996, as amended at 70 FR 11545, Mar. 9, 2005; 74 FR 11034, Mar. 16, 2009; 85 FR 6060, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.10   Due date and filing with the PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Due date.</I> Except as permitted under paragraph (b) of this section, a filer must file the information required under this part with PBGC on or before the 105th day after the close of the filer's information year. The filing deadline is extended to the 106th date after the close of the filer's information year if the 105-day reporting period includes February 29.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative due date.</I> A filer that includes the statement specified in § 4010.8(b)(2)(i) with its submission to PBGC by the date specified in paragraph (a) of this section must submit the actuarial information specified in § 4010.8(b)(2) within 15 days after the deadline for filing the plan's annual report (Form 5500 series) for the plan year ending within the filer's information year (see § 2520.104a-5(a)(2) of this title).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>How and where to file.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this part. See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Date of filing.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Computation of time.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61353, Oct. 28, 2003; 74 FR 11034, Mar. 16, 2009; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.11   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Aggregate funding shortfall not in excess of $15 million waiver.</I> Unless reporting is required by § 4010.4(a)(2) or (3), reporting is waived for a person (that would be a filer if not for the waiver) for an information year if, for the plan year ending within the information year, the aggregate 4010 funding shortfall for all plans (including any exempt plans) maintained by the person's controlled group on the last day of the information year (disregarding plans with no 4010 funding shortfall) does not exceed $15 million, as determined under paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>4010 funding shortfall; in general.</I> A plan's 4010 funding shortfall for a plan year equals the funding shortfall for the plan year as provided under section 303(c)(4) of ERISA and section 430(c)(4) of the Code, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) The funding target used to calculate the 4010 funding shortfall is determined without regard to the interest rate stabilization provisions of section 303(h)(2)(C)(iv) of ERISA and section 430(h)(2)(C)(iv) of the Code and without regard to the at-risk plan provisions in section 303(i) of ERISA and section 430(i) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(ii) The value of plan assets used to calculate the 4010 funding shortfall is determined without regard to the reduction under section 303(f)(4)(B) of ERISA and section 430(f)(4)(B) of the Code (dealing with reduction of assets by the amount of prefunding and funding standard carryover balances).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple employer plans.</I> For purposes of § 4010.8(c) and paragraph (a) of this section, the entire 4010 funding shortfall of any multiple employer plan of which the filer or any member of the filer's controlled group is a contributing sponsor is included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Smaller plans waiver</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Unless reporting is required by § 4010.4(a)(2) or (a)(3), reporting is waived for a person (that would be a filer if not for the waiver) for an information year if, for the plan year ending within the information year, the aggregate number of participants in all plans (including any exempt plans) maintained by the person's controlled group on the last day of the information year is fewer than 500. For this purpose, the number of participants in any plan may be determined either as of the end of the plan year ending within the information year or as of the valuation date for that plan year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple employer plans.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b), the aggregate number of participants in all plans maintained by a person's controlled group includes any participants covered by a multiple employer plan in which the person participates (including participants covered by the multiple employer plan who are not or were not employed by the person).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Missed contributions resulting in a lien or outstanding minimum funding waivers.</I> Reporting is waived for a person (that would be a filer if not for the waiver) for an information year if, for the plan year ending within the information year, reporting would have been required solely under § 4010.4(a)(2) or (3), provided that the missed contributions or applications for minimum funding waivers (as applicable) were reported to PBGC under part 4043 of this chapter by the due date for the 4010 filing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other waiver authority.</I> PBGC may waive the requirement to submit information with respect to one or more filers or plans or may extend the applicable due date or dates specified in § 4010.10. PBGC will exercise this discretion in appropriate cases where it finds convincing evidence supporting a waiver or extension; any waiver or extension may be subject to conditions. A request for a waiver or extension must be filed in writing with PBGC at the address provided in § 4010.10(c) no later than 15 days before the applicable due date specified in § 4010.10, and must state the facts and circumstances on which the request is based.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 15440, Mar. 23, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 6060, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.12   Alternative method of compliance for certain sponsors of multiple employer plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, an eligible contributing sponsor (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) of a multiple employer plan satisfies the requirements of this part for an information year if any contributing sponsor of the multiple employer plan provides a timely filing under this part for an information year that coincides with or overlaps with the eligible contributing sponsor's information year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>PBGC request for additional information.</I> PBGC may request some or all of the information that would otherwise be required under this part from an eligible contributing sponsor that uses the alternative method of compliance in this section. PBGC will make such a request no earlier than the date the information would otherwise have been due. The eligible contributing sponsor must provide the requested information no later than 30 days after PBGC makes the request. The requested information need not be submitted electronically.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible contributing sponsor.</I> For purposes of this section, an eligible contributing sponsor of a multiple employer plan is a contributing sponsor that would not be subject to reporting if the plan were disregarded in applying the gateway tests in § 4010.4(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 11035, Mar. 16, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.13   Confidentiality of information submitted.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with § 4901.21(a) of this chapter and ERISA section 4010(c), any information or documentary material that is not publicly available and is submitted to PBGC pursuant to this part will not be made public, except as may be relevant to any administrative or judicial action or proceeding or for disclosures to either body of Congress or to any duly authorized committee or subcommittee of the Congress. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996. Redesignated and amended at 74 FR 11035, Mar. 16, 2009; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4010.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.15.7.0.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4010.14   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>If all of the information required under this part is not provided within the specified time limit, PBGC may assess a separate penalty under ERISA section 4071 against the filer and each member of the filer's controlled group (other than an exempt entity). PBGC may also pursue other equitable or legal remedies available to it under the law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34022, July 1, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 36994, July 10, 1997. Redesignated and amended at 74 FR 11035, Mar. 16, 2009; 81 FR 29766, May 13, 2016]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.16" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—COVERAGE AND BENEFITS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4022" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4022—BENEFITS PAYABLE IN TERMINATED SINGLE-EMPLOYER PLANS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302, 1322, 1322b, 1341(c)(3)(D), and 1344. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions; Guaranteed Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to prescribe rules governing the calculation and payment of benefits payable in terminated single-employer plans under section 4022 of ERISA. Subpart A, which applies to each plan providing benefits guaranteed under title IV of ERISA, contains definitions applicable to all subparts, and describes benefits that are guaranteed by the PBGC subject to the limitations set forth in subpart B. Subpart C is reserved for rules relating to the calculation and payment of unfunded nonguaranteed benefits under section 4022(c) of ERISA. Subpart D prescribes procedures that minimize the overpayment of benefits by plan administrators after initiating distress terminations of single-employer plans that are not expected to be sufficient for guaranteed benefits. Subpart E sets forth the method of recoupment of benefit payments in excess of the amounts permitted under sections 4022, 4022B, and 4044 of ERISA from participants and beneficiaries in PBGC-trusteed plans, and provides for reimbursement of benefit underpayments. (The provisions of this part have not been amended to take account of changes made in section 4022 of ERISA by sections 766 and 777 of the Retirement Protection Act of 1994.) 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 67728, Dec. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: annuity, bankruptcy filing date, Code, employer, ERISA, guaranteed benefit, majority owner, mandatory employee contributions, nonforfeitable benefit, non-PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, normal retirement age, notice of intent to terminate, PBGC, person, plan, plan administrator, plan year, PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, proposed termination date, statutory hybrid plan, and title IV benefit. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part (unless otherwise required by the context): 
</P>
<P><I>Accumulated mandatory employee contributions</I> means mandatory employee contributions plus interest credited on those contributions under the plan, or, if greater, interest required by section 204(c) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Benefit in pay status</I> means that one or more benefit payments have been made or would have been made except for administrative delay.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit increase</I> means any benefit arising from the adoption of a new plan or an increase in the value of benefits payable arising from an amendment to an existing plan. Such increases include, but are not limited to, a scheduled increase in benefits under a plan or plan amendment, such as a cost-of-living increase, and any change in plan provisions which advances a participant's or beneficiary's entitlement to a benefit, such as liberalized participation requirements or vesting schedules, reductions in the normal or early retirement age under a plan, an unpredictable contingent event benefit, and changes in the form of benefit payments. In the case of a plan under which the amount of benefits depends on the participant's salary and the participant receives a salary increase the resulting increase in benefits to which the participant becomes entitled will not, for the purpose of this part, be treated as a benefit increase. Similarly, in the case of a plan under which the amount of benefits depends on the participant's age or service, and the participant becomes entitled to increased benefits solely because of advancement in age or service, the increased benefits to which the participant becomes entitled will not, for the purpose of this part, be treated as a benefit increase. 
</P>
<P><I>Covered employment</I> means employment with respect to which benefits accrue under a plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Pension benefit</I> means a benefit payable as an annuity, or one or more payments related thereto, to a participant who permanently leaves or has permanently left covered employment, or to a surviving beneficiary, which payments by themselves or in combination with Social Security, Railroad Retirement, or workmen's compensation benefits provide a substantially level income to the recipient. An annuity benefit resulting from a rollover amount is a pension benefit.
</P>
<P><I>Straight life annuity</I> means a series of level periodic payments payable for the life of the recipient, but does not include any combined annuity form, including an annuity payable for a term certain and life.
</P>
<P><I>Unpredictable contingent event (UCE)</I> has the same meaning as unpredictable contingent event in section 206(g)(1)(C) of ERISA and Treas. Reg. § 1.436-1(j)(9) (26 CFR 1.436-1(j)(9)). It includes a plant shutdown (full or partial) or a similar event (such as a full or partial closing of another type of facility, or a layoff or other workforce reduction), or any event other than the attainment of any age, performance of any service, receipt or derivation of any compensation, or occurrence of death or disability.
</P>
<P><I>Unpredictable contingent event benefit (UCEB)</I> has the same meaning as unpredictable contingent event benefit in section 206(g)(1)(C) of ERISA and Treas. Reg. § 1.436-1(j)(9) (26 CFR 1.436-1(j)(9)). Thus, a UCEB is any benefit or benefit increase to the extent that it would not be payable but for the occurrence of a UCE. A benefit or benefit increase that is conditioned upon the occurrence of a UCE does not cease to be a UCEB as a result of the contingent event having occurred or its occurrence having become reasonably predictable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 59096, Nov. 17, 2009; 76 FR 34601, June 14, 2011; 79 FR 25672, May 6, 2014; 79 FR 70094, Nov. 25, 2014; 83 FR 49803, Oct. 3, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.3   Guaranteed benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, the PBGC will guarantee the amount, as of the termination date, of a benefit provided under a plan to the extent that the benefit does not exceed the limitations in ERISA and in subpart B, if—
</P>
<P>(1) The benefit is, on the termination date, a nonforfeitable benefit; 
</P>
<P>(2) The benefit qualifies as a pension benefit as defined in § 4022.2; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The participant is entitled to the benefit under § 4022.4. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination</I>—(1) <I>Substitution of bankruptcy filing date.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” each place that “termination date” appears in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Condition for entitlement satisfied between bankruptcy filing date and termination date.</I> If a participant becomes entitled to a subsidized early retirement or other benefit before the termination date (or on or before the termination date, in the case of a requirement that a participant attain a particular age, earn a particular amount of service, become disabled, or die) but on or after the bankruptcy filing date (or after the bankruptcy filing date, in the case of a requirement that a participant attain a particular age, earn a particular amount of service, become disabled, or die), the subsidy or other benefit is not guaranteed because the participant had not satisfied the conditions for entitlement by the bankruptcy filing date. In such a case, the participant may have been put into pay status with the subsidized early retirement or other benefit by the plan administrator, because the plan was ongoing at the time. Even though the subsidy or other benefit is not guaranteed, the participant may be entitled to another benefit from PBGC (at that time or in the future). If so, PBGC will continue paying the participant a benefit, but in an amount reduced to reflect that the subsidy or other benefit is not guaranteed. PBGC will also allow a similarly situated participant who had not started receiving a subsidized early retirement or other benefit before PBGC became trustee of the plan to begin receiving a benefit (if the participant would have been allowed under the plan to begin receiving benefits and has reached his Earliest PBGC Retirement Date, as defined in § 4022.10), but in an amount that does not include the subsidy or other benefit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Vesting.</I> A plan provides for 5-year “cliff” vesting—<I>i.e.,</I> benefits become 100% vested when the participant completes five years of service; before the five-year mark, benefits are 0% vested. The contributing sponsor of the plan files a bankruptcy petition on November 15, 2006. The plan terminates with a termination date of December 4, 2007, and PBGC becomes statutory trustee of the plan. A participant had four years and six months of service at the bankruptcy filing date and became vested in May 2007. None of the participant's benefit is guaranteed because none of the benefit was nonforfeitable as of the bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Subsidized early retirement benefit.</I> The facts regarding the plan are the same as in Example (i) (paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section), but the plan also provides that a participant may retire from active employment at any age with a fully subsidized (<I>i.e.,</I> not actuarially reduced) early retirement benefit if he has completed 30 years of service. The plan also provides that a participant who is age 60 and has completed 20 years of service may retire from active employment with an early retirement benefit, reduced by three percent for each year by which the participant's age at benefit commencement is less than 65. A participant was age 61 and had 29 years and 6 months of service at the bankruptcy filing date. The participant continued working for another six months, then retired as of June 1, 2007, and immediately began receiving from the plan the fully subsidized “30-and-out” early retirement benefit. PBGC will continue paying the participant a benefit, but PBGC's guarantee does not include the full subsidy for the “30-and-out” benefit, because the participant satisfied the conditions for that benefit after the bankruptcy filing date. The guarantee does include, however, the partial subsidy associated with the “60/20” early retirement benefit, because the participant satisfied the conditions for that benefit before the bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accruals after bankruptcy filing date.</I> The facts regarding the plan are the same as in Example (i) (paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section). A participant has a vested, accrued benefit of $500 per month as of the bankruptcy filing date. At the plan's termination date, the participant has a vested, accrued benefit of $512 per month. His guaranteed benefit is limited to $500 per month—the accrued, nonforfeitable benefit as of the bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996; 61 FR 67943, Dec. 26, 1996; 76 FR 34601, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.4   Entitlement to a benefit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant or his surviving beneficiary is entitled to a benefit if under the provisions of a plan: 
</P>
<P>(1) The benefit was in pay status on the termination date of the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The benefit is payable in an optional life-annuity form of benefit that the participant or beneficiary elected on or before the termination date of the plan or, if later, the date on which PBGC became statutory trustee of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) Except for a benefit described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, before the termination date (or on or before the termination date, in the case of a requirement that a participant attain a particular age, earn a particular amount of service, become disabled, or die) the participant had satisfied the conditions of the plan necessary to establish the right to receive the benefit prior to such date (prior to or on such date, in the case of a requirement that a participant attain a particular age, earn a particular amount of service, become disabled, or die) other than application for the benefit, satisfaction of a waiting period described in the plan, or retirement; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Absent an election by the participant, the benefit would be payable upon retirement. 
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a benefit that returns all or a portion of a participant's accumulated mandatory employee contributions upon death, the participant (or beneficiary) had satisfied the conditions of the plan necessary to establish the right to the benefit other than death or designation of a beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(b) If none of the conditions set forth in paragraph (a) of this section is met, the PBGC will determine whether the participant is entitled to a benefit on the basis of the provisions of the plan and the circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(c) In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” each place that “termination date” appears in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section. In making this substitution for purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the rule in § 4022.3(b)(2) (dealing with the situation where the condition for entitlement was satisfied between the bankruptcy filing date and the termination date) shall apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 16954, Apr. 8, 2002; 76 FR 34602, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.5   Determination of nonforfeitable benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A guaranteed benefit payable to a surviving beneficiary is not considered to be forfeitable solely because the plan provides that the benefit will cease upon the remarriage of such beneficiary or his attaining a specified age. However, the PBGC will observe the provisions of the plan relating to the effect of such remarriage or attainment of such specified age on the surviving beneficiary's eligibility to continue to receive benefit payments. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any other provision in a plan that the right to a benefit in pay status will cease or be suspended upon the occurrence of any specified condition does not automatically make that benefit forfeitable. In each such case the PBGC will determine whether the benefit is forfeitable. 
</P>
<P>(c) A benefit guaranteed under § 4022.6 shall not be considered forfeitable solely because the plan provides that upon recovery of the participant the benefit will cease. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.6   Annuity payable for total disability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an annuity which is payable (or would be payable after a waiting period described in the plan, whether or not the participant is in receipt of other benefits during such waiting period), under the terms of a plan on account of the total and permanent disability of a participant which is expected to last for the life of the participant and which began on or before the termination date is considered to be a pension benefit. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any case in which the PBGC determines that the standards for determining such total and permanent disability under a plan were unreasonable, or were modified in anticipation of termination of the plan, the disability benefits payable to a participant under such standard shall not be guaranteed unless the participant meets the standards of the Social Security Act and the regulations promulgated thereunder for determining total disability. 
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of this section, a participant may be required, upon the request of the PBGC, to submit to an examination or to submit proof of continued total and permanent disability. If the PBGC finds that a participant is no longer so disabled, it may suspend, modify, or discontinue the payment of the disability benefit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 16954, Apr. 8, 2002; 76 FR 34602, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.7   Benefits payable in a lump sum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Alternative benefit.</I> Except as provided in this part, PBGC pays benefits only in annuity form. If a benefit that is guaranteed under this part is payable in a lump sum or substantially so under the terms of the plan, including an option elected under the plan by the participant before plan trusteeship, PBGC will not guarantee the benefit in such form. Instead, PBGC will guarantee the alternative benefit, if any, in the plan which provides for the payment of equal periodic installments for the life of the recipient. If the plan does not provide such an annuity, PBGC will guarantee an actuarially equivalent life annuity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment by PBGC</I>—(1) <I>Payment in lump sum.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In general.</I> If the lump-sum value of a benefit (or of an estimated benefit) payable by PBGC and calculated as of the termination date does not exceed the dollar amount specified in section 203(e)(1) of ERISA in effect as of the termination date and the benefit is not yet in pay status as of the date PBGC becomes trustee, the benefit (or estimated benefit) may be paid in a lump sum.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Annuity option.</I> If PBGC would otherwise make a lump-sum payment in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section and the monthly benefit (or the estimated monthly benefit) is equal to or greater than $25 (at normal retirement age and in the normal form for an unmarried participant), PBGC will provide the option to receive the benefit in the form of an annuity.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Deceased participants after plan termination.</I> If the lump-sum value of a participant's benefit calculated as of the termination date does not exceed the dollar amount specified in section 203(e)(1) of ERISA in effect as of the termination date, and the participant dies after the plan's termination date and before the benefit is in pay status, PBGC will treat the benefit as owed to the participant at the time of death and the rules in subpart F of this part apply.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Payment of de minimis QPSA as lump sum or annuity.</I> If the lump-sum value of a participant's benefit calculated as of the termination date exceeds the dollar amount specified in section 203(e)(1) of ERISA in effect as of the termination date, the lump-sum value of annuity payments under the qualified preretirement survivor annuity (or under an estimated qualified preretirement survivor annuity) does not exceed that amount, and the participant dies after the plan's termination date and before the benefit is in pay status, then the qualified preretirement survivor annuity (or the estimated qualified preretirement survivor annuity) may be paid in a lump sum, or as an annuity, if available, and if elected by the surviving spouse.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Payments to estates.</I> PBGC will pay any annuity payments payable to an estate in a lump sum without regard to the threshold in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. PBGC will discount the annuity payments using the Federal mid-term rate (as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to section 1274(d)(1)(C)(ii) of the Code) applicable for the month the participant died based on monthly compounding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Return of employee contributions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, PBGC will pay as a lump sum instead of as an annuity, the value of the portion of an individual's basic-type benefit derived from accumulated mandatory employee contributions, if payment in a lump sum is consistent with the plan's provisions and if the individual elects such payment either before or at the time the individual starts receiving annuity payments from PBGC for the remainder of the individual's benefit. For purposes of this part, the portion of an individual's basic-type benefit derived from accumulated mandatory employee contributions is determined under § 4044.12 of this chapter (priority category 2 benefits), and the value of that portion is computed under the applicable rules contained in part 4044, subpart B of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benefits in pay status.</I> If an individual is in pay status with an annuity as of the date the plan becomes trusteed, and if the individual did not elect to withdraw any accumulated mandatory employee contributions, PBGC will not allow the individual to withdraw any portion of the benefit derived from accumulated mandatory employee contributions as a lump sum.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Death benefits</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a benefit that would otherwise be guaranteed under the provisions of this subpart, except for the fact that it is payable solely in a lump sum (or substantially so) upon the death of a participant, shall be paid by the PBGC as an annuity that has the same value as the lump sum. The PBGC will in each case determine the amount and duration of the annuity based on all the facts and circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> Except in the case of accumulated mandatory employee contributions resulting from rollover amounts (as determined under § 4044.12(c)(4)(i) of this chapter), upon the death of a participant the PBGC may pay in a lump sum (or a series of installments) that portion of the participant's accumulated mandatory employee contributions that is payable under the plan in a lump sum (or a series of installments) upon the participant's death.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of lump sum amount.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Benefits disregarded.</I> In determining whether the lump-sum value of a benefit does not exceed the dollar amount specified in section 203(e)(1) of ERISA, the PBGC may disregard the value of any benefits the plan or the PBGC previously paid in lump-sum form or the plan paid by purchasing an annuity contract, the value of any benefits returned under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and the value of any benefits the PBGC has not yet determined under section 4022(c) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Actuarial assumptions.</I> PBGC will calculate the lump sum value of a benefit by valuing the monthly annuity benefits payable in the form determined under § 4044.51(a) of this chapter and commencing at the time determined under § 4044.51(b) of this chapter. The actuarial assumptions used will be those described in § 4044.52 of this chapter, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loading for expenses.</I> There will be no adjustment to reflect the loading for expenses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Mortality assumption.</I> The “applicable mortality table” specified in section 205(g)(3)(B)(i) of ERISA and section 417(e)(3)(B) of the Code for the year containing the termination date will apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Interest rate assumption.</I> The “applicable interest rate” specified in section 205(g)(3)(B)(ii) of ERISA and section 417(e)(3)(C) of the Code for the month containing the termination date will apply.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Date for determining lump sum value.</I> The date as of which a lump sum value is calculated is the termination date, except that in the case of a subsequent insufficiency it is the date described in section 4062(b)(1)(B) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Private-sector lump sum rates.</I> PBGC provides lump sum interest rates for private-sector payments in appendix C to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 38306, July 16, 1998; 65 FR 14752, 14755, Mar. 17, 2000; 67 FR 16954, Apr. 8, 2002; 79 FR 70094, Nov. 25, 2014; 85 FR 55591, Sept. 9, 2020; 88 FR 44051, July 11, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.8   Form of payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in § 4022.7 (relating to the payment of lump sums), the PBGC will pay benefits— 
</P>
<P>(1) In the automatic PBGC form described in paragraph (b) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If an optional PBGC form described in paragraph (c) of this section is elected, in that optional form. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automatic PBGC form</I>—(1) <I>Participants</I>—(i) <I>Married participants.</I> The automatic PBGC form with respect to a participant who is married at the time the benefit enters pay status is the form a married participant would be entitled to receive from the plan in the absence of an election. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unmarried participants.</I> The automatic PBGC form with respect to a participant who is unmarried at the time the benefit enters pay status is the form an unmarried person would be entitled to receive from the plan in the absence of an election. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beneficiaries</I>—(i) <I>QPSA beneficiaries.</I> The automatic PBGC form with respect to the spouse of a married participant in a plan with a termination date on or after August 23, 1984, who dies before his or her benefit enters pay status is the qualified preretirement survivor annuity such a spouse would be entitled to receive from the plan in the absence of an election. The PBGC will not charge the participant or beneficiary for this survivor benefit coverage for the time period beginning on the plan's termination date (regardless of whether the plan would have charged). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Alternate payees.</I> The automatic PBGC form with respect to an alternate payee with a separate interest under a qualified domestic relations order is the form an unmarried participant would be entitled to receive from the plan in the absence of an election. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional PBGC forms</I>—(1) <I>Participant and beneficiary elections.</I> A participant may elect any optional form described in paragraphs (c)(4) or (c)(5) of this section. A beneficiary described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section (a QPSA beneficiary or an alternate payee) may elect any optional form described in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (c)(4)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permitted designees.</I> A participant or beneficiary, whether married or unmarried, who elects an optional form with a survivor feature (e.g., a 5-year certain-and-continuous annuity or, in the case of a participant, a joint-and-50%-survivor annuity) may designate either a spouse or a non-spouse beneficiary to receive survivor benefits. An optional joint-life form must be payable to a natural person or (with the consent of the PBGC) to a trust for the benefit of one or more natural persons. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Spousal consent.</I> In the case of a participant who is married at the time the benefit enters pay status, the election of an optional form or the designation of a non-spouse beneficiary is valid only if the participant's spouse consents. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permitted optional single-life forms.</I> The PBGC may offer benefits in the following single-life forms: 
</P>
<P>(i) A straight-life annuity; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A 5-year certain-and-continuous annuity; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A 10-year certain-and-continuous annuity; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A 15-year certain-and-continuous annuity; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The form an unmarried person would be entitled to receive from the plan in the absence of an election. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Permitted optional joint-life forms.</I> The PBGC may offer benefits in the following joint-life forms: 
</P>
<P>(i) A joint-and-50%-survivor annuity; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A joint-and-50%-survivor-“pop-up” annuity (<I>i.e.,</I> where the participant's benefit “pops up” to the unreduced level if the beneficiary dies first); 
</P>
<P>(iii) A joint-and-75%-survivor annuity; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) A joint-and-100%-survivor annuity. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Determination of benefit amount; starting benefit.</I> To determine the amount of the benefit in an optional PBGC form—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Single-life forms.</I> In the case of an optional PBGC form under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the PBGC will first determine the amount of the benefit in the form the plan would pay to an unmarried participant in the absence of an election. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Joint-life forms.</I> In the case of an optional PBGC form under paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the PBGC will first determine the amount of the benefit in the form the plan would pay to a married participant in the absence of an election. For this purpose, the PBGC will treat a participant who designates a non-spouse beneficiary as being married to a person who is the same age as that non-spouse beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Determination of benefit amount; conversion factors.</I> The PBGC will convert the benefit amount determined under paragraph (c)(6) of this section to the optional form elected, using PBGC factors based on—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mortality.</I> Unisex mortality rates that are a fixed blend of 50 percent of the male mortality rates and 50 percent of the female mortality rates from the 1983 Group Annuity Mortality Table as prescribed in Rev. Rul. 95-6, 1995-1 C.B. 80 (Internal Revenue Service Cumulative Bulletins are available from the Superintendent of Documents, Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interest.</I> An interest rate of six percent. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Determination of benefit amount; limitation.</I> The PBGC will limit the benefit amount determined under paragraph (c)(7) of this section to the amount of the benefit it would pay in the form of a straight life annuity under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Incidental benefits.</I> The PBGC will not pay an optional PBGC form with a death benefit (e.g., a joint-and-50%-survivor annuity) unless the death benefit would be an “incidental death benefit” under 26 CFR 1.401-1(b)(1)(i). If the death benefit would not be an “incidental death benefit,” the PBGC may instead offer a modified version of the optional form under which the death benefit would be an “incidental death benefit.” 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Change in benefit form.</I> Subject to benefit changes that PBGC may prescribe under § 4022.9(d), once payment of a benefit starts, the benefit form cannot be changed, regardless of whether the participant or beneficiary was put into pay status by the plan before the date PBGC becomes trustee of the plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>PBGC discretion.</I> The PBGC may make other optional annuity forms available subject to the rules in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rollover amounts.</I> The annuity benefit resulting from rollover amounts (as determined under § 4044.12(c)(4) of this chapter) is combined with any other benefit under the plan and paid in the same form and at the same time as the other benefit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 16954, Apr. 8, 2002, as amended at 79 FR 70095, Nov. 25, 2014; 88 FR 44052, July 11, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.9   Time of payment; benefit applications and corrections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time of payment.</I> A participant may start receiving an annuity benefit from the PBGC (subject to the PBGC's rules for starting benefit payments) on his or her Earliest PBGC Retirement Date as determined under § 4022.10 of this subchapter or, if later, the plan's termination date. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elections and consents.</I> The PBGC may prescribe the time and manner for benefit elections to be made and spousal consents to be provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Benefit applications.</I> The PBGC is not required to accept any application for benefits not made in accordance with its forms and instructions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Benefit corrections.</I> PBGC may prescribe the time and manner for corrections of errors that affect benefit form and benefit starting dates and for changes in benefit form to mitigate the consequences of a Presidentially declared disaster.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing with the PBGC</I>—(1) <I>Method and date of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. Benefit applications and related submissions are treated as filed on the date received by the PBGC unless the instructions for the applicable form provide for an earlier date. Subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter provides rules for determining when the PBGC receives a submission. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Computation of time.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period for filing under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 16955, Apr. 8, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 61353, Oct. 28, 2003; 88 FR 44052, July 11, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.10   Earliest PBGC Retirement Date.</HEAD>
<P>The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for a participant is the earliest date on which the participant could retire under plan provisions for purposes of section 4044(a)(3)(B) of ERISA. The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date is determined in accordance with this § 4022.10. For purposes of this § 4022.10, “age” means the participant's age as of his or her last birthday (unless otherwise required by the context). 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Immediate annuity at or after age 55.</I> If the earliest date on which a participant could separate from service with the right to receive an immediate annuity is on or after the date the participant reaches age 55, the Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for the participant is the earliest date on which the participant could separate from service with the right to receive an immediate annuity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Immediate annuity before age 55.</I> If the earliest date on which a participant could separate from service with the right to receive an immediate annuity is before the date the participant reaches age 55, the Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for the participant is the date the participant reaches age 55 (except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Facts and circumstances.</I> If a participant could separate from service with the right to receive an immediate annuity before the date the participant reaches age 55, the PBGC will make a determination, under the facts and circumstances, as to whether the participant could retire under plan provisions for purposes of section 4044(a)(3)(B) of ERISA on an earlier date. If the PBGC determines, under the facts and circumstances, that the participant could retire under plan provisions for those purposes on an earlier date, that earlier date is the Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for the participant. In making this determination, the PBGC will take into account plan provisions (e.g., the general structure of the provisions, the extent to which the benefit is subsidized, and whether eligibility for the benefit is based on a substantial service or age-and-service requirement), the age at which employees customarily retire (under the particular plan or in the particular company or industry, as appropriate), and all other relevant considerations. Neither a plan's reference to a separation from service at a particular age as a “retirement” nor the ability of a participant to receive an immediate annuity at a particular age necessarily makes the date the participant reaches that age the Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for the participant. The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date determined by the PBGC under this paragraph (c) will never be earlier than the earliest date the participant could separate from service with the right to receive an immediate annuity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the operation of the rules in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Normal retirement age.</I> A plan's normal retirement age is age 65. The plan does not offer a consensual lump sum or an immediate annuity upon separation before normal retirement age. The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for a participant who, as of the plan's termination date, is age 50 is the date the participant reaches age 65. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Early retirement age.</I> A plan's normal retirement age is age 65. The plan specifies an early retirement age of 60 with 10 years of service. The plan does not offer a consensual lump sum or an immediate annuity upon separation before early retirement age. The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for a participant who, as of the plan's termination date, is age 55 and has completed 10 years of service is the date the participant reaches age 60. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Separation at any age.</I> A plan's normal retirement age is age 65. The plan specifies an early retirement age of 60 but offers an immediate annuity upon separation regardless of age. The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for a participant who, as of the plan's termination date, is age 35 is the date the participant reaches age 55, unless the PBGC determines under the facts and circumstances that the participant could “retire” for purposes of ERISA section 4044(a)(3)(B) on an earlier date, in which case the participant's Earliest PBGC Retirement Date would be that earlier date. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Age 50 retirement common.</I> A plan's normal retirement age is age 60. The plan specifies an early retirement age of 50 but offers an immediate annuity upon separation regardless of age. The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for a participant who, as of the plan's termination date, is age 35 is the date the participant reaches age 55, unless the PBGC determines under the facts and circumstances that the participant could retire for purposes of ERISA section 4044(a)(3)(B) on an earlier date, in which case the Earliest PBGC Retirement Date would be that earlier date. For example, if it were common for participants to retire at age 50, the PBGC could determine that the participant's Earliest PBGC Retirement Date would be the date the participant reached age 50. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>“30-and-out” benefit.</I> A plan's normal retirement age is age 65. The plan offers an immediate annuity upon separation regardless of age and a fully-subsidized annuity upon separation with 30 years of service. The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for a participant who, as of the plan's termination date, is age 48 and has completed 30 years of service is the date the participant reaches age 55, unless the PBGC determines under the facts and circumstances that the participant could retire for purposes of ERISA section 4044(a)(3)(B) on an earlier date, in which case the participant's Earliest PBGC Retirement Date would be that earlier date. In this example, the PBGC generally would determine under the facts and circumstances that the participant's Earliest PBGC Retirement Date is the date the participant completed 30 years of service. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Typical airline pilots' plan.</I> An airline pilots' plan has a normal retirement age of 60. The plan specifies an early retirement age of 50 (with 5 years of service). The Earliest PBGC Retirement Date for a participant who, as of the plan's termination date, is age 48 and has completed five years of service would be the date the participant reaches age 55, unless the PBGC determines under the facts and circumstances that the participant could retire for purposes of ERISA section 4044(a)(3)(B) on an earlier date, in which case the participant's Earliest PBGC Retirement Date would be that earlier date. In this example, the PBGC generally would determine under the facts and circumstances that the participant's Earliest PBGC Retirement Date is the date the participant reaches age 50. If the plan instead had provided for early retirement before age 50, the PBGC would consider all the facts and circumstances (including the plan's normal retirement age and the age at which employees customarily retire in the airline industry) in determining whether to treat the date the participant reaches the plan's early retirement age as the participant's Earliest PBGC Retirement Date. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special rule for “window” provisions.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section, the PBGC will treat a participant as being able, under plan provisions, to separate from service with the right to receive an immediate annuity on a date before the plan's termination date only if— 
</P>
<P>(1) Eligibility for that immediate annuity continues through the earlier of— 
</P>
<P>(i) The plan's termination date; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the participant actually separates from service with the right to receive an immediate annuity; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The participant satisfies the conditions for eligibility for that immediate annuity on or before the plan's termination date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 16955, Apr. 8, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.11   Guarantee of benefits relating to uniformed service.</HEAD>
<P>This section applies to a benefit of a participant who becomes reemployed after service in the uniformed services that is covered by the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 (USERRA).
</P>
<P>(a) A benefit described in paragraph (b) of this section that would satisfy the requirements of § 4022.3(a) and (c) (together with any benefit earned for the period preceding military service) except for the fact that the participant was not reemployed on or before the termination date will be deemed to satisfy those requirements if PBGC determines, based upon a demonstration by the participant or otherwise, that he or she became reemployed after the termination date and entitled to the benefit under USERRA.
</P>
<P>(b) A benefit described in this paragraph (b) is a benefit attributable to a period of service commencing before the termination date and ending on the termination date during which the participant was serving in the uniformed services as defined in 38 U.S.C. 4303(13) (or was in a subsequent reemployment eligibility period) and to which the participant is entitled under USERRA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Example:</I> A plan's vesting requirement is 5 years of service with the employer. A participant has completed 4 years of service when he leaves employment for uniformed service. The plan terminates while the participant is in military service. As of the termination date, the participant would have had 5 years of service and 5 years of benefit accruals if he had remained continuously employed. Upon reemployment after the termination date but within the time limits set by USERRA, the participant would have had 6 years of service under the plan for vesting and benefit accrual purposes, if the plan had not terminated. PBGC would treat the participant as having a vested, nonforfeitable plan benefit with 5 years of vesting service and benefit accruals as of the termination date.
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” each place that “termination date” appears in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 59096, Nov. 17, 2009]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Limitations on Guaranteed Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.21   Limitations; in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Subject to paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the PBGC will not guarantee that part of an installment payment that exceeds the dollar amount payable as a straight life annuity commencing at normal retirement age, or thereafter, to which a participant would have been entitled under the provisions of the plan in effect on the termination date, on the basis of his credited service to such date. If the plan does not provide a straight life annuity either as its normal form of retirement benefit or as an option to the normal form, the PBGC will for purposes of this paragraph convert the plan's normal form benefit to a straight life annuity of equal actuarial value as determined by the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(2) The limitation of paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(i) A survivor's benefit payable as an annuity on account of the death of a participant that occurred on or before the plan's termination date and before the participant retired; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A disability pension described in § 4022.6 of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A benefit payable in non-level installments that in combination with Social Security, Railroad Retirement, or workman's compensation benefits yields a substantially level income if the projected income from the plan benefit over the expected life of the recipient does not exceed the value of the straight life annuity described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The PBGC will not guarantee the payment of that part of any benefit that exceeds the limitations in section 4022(b) of ERISA and this subpart B. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the PBGC does not guarantee a benefit payable in a lump sum (or substantially so) upon the death of a participant or his surviving beneficiary unless that benefit is substantially derived from a reduction in the pension benefit payable to the participant or surviving beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraphs (a) and (c)(1) of this section do not apply to that portion of accumulated mandatory employee contributions payable under a plan upon the death of a participant, and such a benefit is a pension benefit for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The PBGC will not guarantee a joint-life annuity benefit payable to other than—
</P>
<P>(1) Natural persons; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A trust or estate for the benefit of one or more natural persons.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination</I>—(1) <I>Substitution of bankruptcy filing date.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” each place that “termination date” appears in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Straight-life annuity.</I> A plan provides for normal retirement at age 65. If a participant terminates employment at or after age 55 with 25 years of service, the plan will pay an unreduced early retirement benefit, plus a temporary supplement of $400 per month until the participant reaches age 62. When the plan's contributing sponsor files a bankruptcy petition in 2008, a participant who is still working has a vested, accrued benefit of $1,500 per month (as a straight-life annuity) and has satisfied the age and service requirements for the unreduced early retirement benefit. The participant retires eight months later, when his vested, accrued benefit is $1,530 per month (as a straight-life annuity). He elects to receive his benefit as a straight-life annuity, and begins receiving a total benefit of $1,930: His $1,530 accrued benefit plus the $400 temporary supplement. The plan terminates six months later, during the sponsor's bankruptcy. No Title IV limitations apply to the participant's benefit, other than the limitation in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. PBGC will guarantee $1,500, the amount of the participant's accrued benefit (as a straight-life annuity) as of the bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Joint-and-survivor annuity.</I> The facts are the same as Example (i) (paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section), except that the participant elects to receive his benefit as a 50% joint-and-survivor annuity. Before plan termination, the participant was receiving a total benefit of $1,777: His $1,530 accrued benefit, reduced by 10% for the survivor benefit, plus the $400 temporary supplement. From the termination date until the participant reaches age 62, PBGC will guarantee $1,500: The $1,500 accrued benefit (as a straight-life annuity) as of the bankruptcy filing date, reduced to $1,350 to reflect the 10% reduction for the survivor benefit, plus $150 of the temporary supplement that, in combination with the $1,350, does not exceed the $1,500 accrued-at-normal limit. When the participant reaches age 62, his guaranteed benefit is reduced to $1,350, because under plan provisions the temporary supplement ceases at that time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 16956, Apr. 8, 2002; 76 FR 34602, June 14, 2011; 88 FR 44052, July 11, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.22   Maximum guaranteeable benefit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to section 4022B of ERISA and part 4022B of this chapter, and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, benefits payable with respect to a participant under a plan shall be guaranteed only to the extent that such benefits do not exceed the actuarial value of a benefit in the form of a life annuity payable in monthly installments, commencing at age 65, equal to the lesser of—
</P>
<P>(1) One-twelfth of the participant's average annual gross income from his employer during either his highest-paid five consecutive calendar years in which he was an active participant under the plan, or if he was not an active participant throughout the entire such period, the lesser number of calendar years within that period in which he was an active participant under the plan; or
</P>
<P>(2) $750 multiplied by the fraction x/$13,200 where “x” is the Social Security contribution and benefit base determined under section 230 of the Social Security Act in effect at the termination date of the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination—
</P>
<P>(1) The five-year period described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall not include any calendar years that end after the bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<P>(2) “Bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date of the plan” in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Example: A contributing sponsor files a bankruptcy petition in 2007. The sponsor's plan terminates in a distress termination with a termination date in 2008. PBGC will compute participants' maximum guaranteeable benefits based on the amount determined under paragraph (a)(2) for 2007 ($4,125.00 as a straight-life annuity starting at age 65).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Gross income.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) Gross income means “earned income” as defined in section 911(d)(2) of the Code, determined without regard to any community property laws.
</P>
<P>(2) If the plan is one to which more than one employer contributes, and during any calendar year the participant received gross income from more than one such contributing employer, then the amounts so received shall be aggregated in determining the participant's gross income for the calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rollover amounts.</I> Any portion of a benefit derived from mandatory employee contributions resulting from rollover amounts (as determined under § 4044.12(c)(4)(i) of this chapter) is disregarded in applying the provisions of §§ 4022.22 and 4022.23. However, any portion of a benefit derived from employer contributions resulting from rollover amounts (as determined under § 4044.12(c)(4)(ii) of this chapter) is combined with any other benefit under the plan for purposes of determining the maximum guaranteeable benefit under §§ 4022.22 and 4022.23. For example, assume that a participant has an $80,000 total annual plan benefit at age 65, of which $15,000 is derived from mandatory employee contributions resulting from rollover amounts and $5,000 is derived from employer contributions resulting from rollover amounts. The $15,000 benefit derived from employee contributions resulting from rollover amounts would be excluded in the determination of the participant's maximum guaranteeable amount. The participant's remaining $65,000 benefit (including the $5,000 benefit derived from employer contributions resulting from rollover amounts) would be subject to the maximum guaranteeable benefit limitation. Assuming the plan terminated in 2014, the participant's maximum guaranteeable benefit of approximately $59,000 for a straight life annuity at age 65 would effectively be increased by the $15,000 benefit derived from employee contributions resulting from rollover amounts, resulting in total guaranteeable benefits of approximately $74,000. (The maximum guaranteeable benefit limitation would apply to the participant's benefit derived from employer contributions; as a result, $6,000 of the participant's benefit derived from employer contributions would not be guaranteeable by PBGC.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 34602, June 14, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 70095, Nov. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.23" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.23   Computation of maximum guaranteeable benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Where a benefit is payable in any manner other than as a monthly benefit payable for life commencing at age 65, the maximum guaranteeable monthly amount of such benefit shall be computed by applying the applicable factor or factors set forth in paragraphs (c)-(e) of this section to the monthly amount computed under § 4022.22. In the case of a step-down life annuity, the maximum guaranteeable monthly amount of such benefit shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of adjustment factors to monthly amount computed under § 4022.22.</I> (1) Each percentage increase or decrease computed under paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section shall be added to or subtracted from a base of 1.00, and the resulting amounts shall be multiplied. 
</P>
<P>(2) The monthly amount computed under § 4022.22 shall be multiplied by the product computed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section in order to determine the participant's and/or beneficiary's maximum benefit guaranteeable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annuitant's age factor.</I> If a participant or the beneficiary of a deceased participant is entitled to and chooses to receive his benefit at an age younger than 65, the monthly amount computed under § 4022.22 shall be reduced by the following amounts for each month up to the number of whole months below age 65 that corresponds to the later of the participant's age at the termination date or his age at the time he begins to receive the benefit: For each of the 60 months immediately preceding the 65th birthday, the reduction shall be 
<FR>7/12</FR> of 1%; For each of the 60 months immediately preceding the 60th birthday, the reduction shall be 
<FR>4/12</FR> of 1%; For each of the 120 months immediately preceding the 55th birthday, the reduction shall be 
<FR>2/12</FR> of 1%; and For each succeeding 120 months period, the monthly percentage reduction shall be 
<FR>1/2</FR> of that used for the preceding 120 month period. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Factor for benefit payable in a form other than as a life annuity.</I> When a benefit is in a form other than a life annuity payable in monthly installments, the monthly amount computed under § 4022.22 shall be adjusted by the appropriate factors on a case-by-case basis by PBGC. This paragraph sets forth the adjustment factors to be used for several common benefit forms payable in monthly installments. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Period certain and continuous annuity.</I> A period certain and continuous annuity means an annuity which is payable in periodic installments for the participant's life, but for not less than a specified period of time whether or not the participant dies during that period. The monthly amount of a period certain and continuous annuity computed under § 4022.22 shall be reduced by the following amounts for each month of the period certain subsequent to the termination date: 
</P>
<P>For each month up to 60 months deduct 
<FR>1/24</FR> of 1%; 
</P>
<P>For each month beyond 60 months deduct 
<FR>1/12</FR> of 1%. 
</P>
<P>(i) A cash refund annuity means an annuity under which if the participant dies prior to the time when he has received pension payments equal to a fixed sum specified in the plan, then the balance is paid as a lump-sum death benefit. A cash refund annuity shall be treated as a benefit payable for a period certain and continuous. The period of certainty shall be computed by dividing the amount of the lump-sum refund by the monthly amount to which the participant is entitled under the terms of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An installment refund annuity means an annuity under which if the participant dies prior to the time he has received pension payments equal to a fixed sum specified in the plan, then the balance is paid as a death benefit in periodic installments equal in amount to the participant's periodic benefit. An installment refund annuity shall be treated as a benefit payable for a period certain and continuous. The period of certainty shall be computed by dividing the amount of the remaining refund by the monthly amount to which the participant is entitled under the terms of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Joint and survivor annuity (contingent basis).</I> A joint and survivor annuity (contingent basis) means an annuity which is payable in periodic installments to a participant for his life and upon his death is payable to his beneficiary for the beneficiary's life in the same or in a reduced amount. The monthly amount of a joint and survivor annuity (contingent basis) computed under § 4022.22 shall be reduced by an amount equal to 10% plus 
<FR>2/10</FR> of 1% for each percentage point in excess of 50% of the participant's benefit that will continue to be paid to the beneficiary. If the benefit payable to the beneficiary is less than 50 percent of the participant's benefit, PBGC shall provide the adjustment factors to be used. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint and survivor annuity (joint basis).</I> A joint and survivor annuity (joint basis) means an annuity which is payable in periodic installments to a participant and upon his death or the death of his beneficiary is payable to the survivor for the survivor's life in the same or in a reduced amount. The monthly amount of a joint and survivor annuity (joint basis) computed under § 4022.22 shall be reduced by an amount equal to 
<FR>4/10</FR> of 1% for each percentage point in excess of 50% of the participant's original benefit that will continue to be paid to the survivor. If the benefit payable to the survivor is less than 50 percent of the participant's original benefit, PBGC shall provide the adjustment factors to be used. 
</P>
<P>(e) When a benefit is payable in a form described in paragraph (d)(2) or (3) of this section, and the beneficiary's age is different from the participant's age, by 15 years or less, the monthly amount computed under § 4022.22 shall be adjusted by the following amounts: If the beneficiary is younger than the participant, deduct 1% for each year of the age difference; If the beneficiary is older than the participant, add 
<FR>1/2</FR> of 1% for each year of the age difference. In computing the difference in ages, years over 65 years of age shall not be counted. If the difference in age between the beneficiary and the participant is greater than 15 years, PBGC shall provide the adjustment factors to be used. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Step-down life annuity.</I> A step-down life annuity means an annuity payable in a certain amount for the life of the participant plus a temporary additional amount payable until the participant attains an age specified in the plan. 
</P>
<P>(1) The temporary additional amount payable under a step-down life annuity shall be converted to a life annuity payable in monthly installments by multiplying the appropriate factor based on the participant's age and the number of remaining years of the temporary additional benefit by the amount of the temporary additional benefit. The factors to be used are set forth in the table below. The amount of the monthly benefit so calculated shall be added to the level amount of the monthly benefit payable for life to determine the level-life annuity that is equivalent to the step-down life annuity. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Factors for Converting Temporary Additional Benefit Under Step-Down Life Annuity
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Age of participant 
<sup>1</sup> at the later of the date the temporary additional benefit commences or the date of plan termination 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="10" scope="col">Number of years temporary additional benefit is payable under the plan as of the date of plan termination 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">7 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">9 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">10 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.060</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.268</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.315</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.355</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.395</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.273</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.321</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.362</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.403</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.444</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.485
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.062</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.176</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.278</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.327</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.369</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.411</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.453</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.495
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.283</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.376</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.419</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.462</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.505
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.064</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.236</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.288</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.383</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.427</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.471</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.515
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.293</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.345</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.390</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.525
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.066</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.188</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.298</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.351</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.397</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.443</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.489</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.535
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.067</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.248</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.303</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.357</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.404</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.451</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.498</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.545
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.068</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.308</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.363</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.411</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.459</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.507</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.555
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.069</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.256</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.313</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.369</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.418</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.467</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.516</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.565
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.070</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.318</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.375</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.575
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.206</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.268</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.328</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.387</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.439</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.491</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.543</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.074</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.276</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.338</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.399</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.453</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.507</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.076</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.218</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.284</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.348</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.411</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.467</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.078</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.292</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.358</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.423</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.080</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.157</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.368</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.082</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.236</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.308</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.084</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.086</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.088</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At last birthday.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> If the benefit is payable for less than 1 yr, the appropriate factor is obtained by multiplying the factor for 1 yr by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of months the benefit is payable, and the denominator of which is 12. If the benefit is payable for 1 or more whole years, plus an additional number of months less than 12, the appropriate factor is obtained by linear interpolation between the factor for the number of whole years the benefit is payable and the factor for the next year.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) If a participant is entitled to and chooses to receive a step-down life annuity at an age younger than 65, the monthly amount computed under § 4022.22 shall be adjusted by applying the factors set forth in paragraph (c) of this section in the manner described in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the level-life monthly benefit calculated pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section exceeds the monthly amount calculated pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section, then the monthly maximum benefit guaranteeable shall be a step-down life annuity under which the monthly amount of the temporary additional benefit and the amount of the monthly benefit payable for life, respectively, shall bear the same ratio to the monthly amount of the temporary additional benefit and the monthly benefit payable for life provided under the plan, respectively, as the monthly benefit calculated pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section bears to the monthly benefit calculated pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> (1) In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, except as provided in the next sentence, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” and “date of plan termination” each place that “termination date” or “date of plan termination” appears in paragraphs (c), (d), and (f) of this section. In any case in which an event (such as the death of a participant or beneficiary who was alive on the bankruptcy filing date) that affects who is receiving or will receive a benefit from PBGC has occurred on or before the termination date, PBGC will determine the factors in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) based on the form of benefit that was being paid (or was payable) and the person who was receiving or was entitled to receive the benefit from PBGC as of the termination date. (The case of Participant C in the example below illustrates this exception.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> The contributing sponsor of a plan files a bankruptcy petition in July 2007, and the sponsor's plan terminates in a PBGC-initiated termination with a termination date in July 2008. At the bankruptcy filing date:
</P>
<P>(A) Participant A was age 64 and receiving a benefit from the plan in the form of a 10-year certain-and-continuous annuity, with 4 years remaining in the certain period.
</P>
<P>(B) Participant B was age 60 and 6 months and was still working. She began receiving a benefit from the plan in the form of a 50% joint-and-survivor annuity when she turned 61 in January 2008. Her spouse was the same age as she.
</P>
<P>(C) Participant C was age 60 and was receiving a $3,000/month benefit from the plan in the form of a 50% joint-and-survivor annuity, with his spouse, age 58, as his beneficiary. Participant C he died in February 2008 and in March 2008 his spouse began receiving a 50% survivor annuity of $1,500/month.
</P>
<P>(D) Participant D was age 59 and was still working; he began receiving a straight-life annuity from the PBGC in July 2010 when he was 62 years old.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conclusions.</I> In accordance with § 4022.22(b)(2), PBGC computes the maximum guaranteeable monthly benefit for Participants A, B, and D and for the spouse of Participant C based on the $4,125.00 amount determined under § 4022.22(a)(2) for 2007. (The gross-income-based limitation in § 4022.22(a)(1) does not apply to any of these participants.)
</P>
<P>(A) Participant A's maximum guaranteeable monthly benefit is $3,759.53 [$4,125.00 × .93 (7% reduction for a benefit starting at age 64) × .98 (2% reduction for a certain-and-continuous annuity with 4 years remaining in the certain period)].
</P>
<P>(B) Participant B's maximum guaranteeable monthly benefit is $2,673.00 [$4,125.00 × .72 (28% reduction for a benefit starting at age 61) × .90 (10% reduction due to the 50% joint-and-survivor feature)].
</P>
<P>(C) Participant C's spouse's maximum guaranteeable monthly benefit is $2,351.25 [$4,125.00 × .57 (43% reduction for a benefit starting at age 58; no reduction for the form of benefit because the spouse's survivor benefit is a straight-life annuity)]. Because that amount exceeds the spouse's $1,500 monthly survivor benefit, the spouse's benefit is not reduced by the maximum guaranteeable benefit limitation.
</P>
<P>(D) Participant D's maximum guaranteeable monthly benefit is $3,258.75 [$4,125.00 × .79 (21% reduction for a benefit starting at age 62)].
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996; 61 FR 36626, July 12, 1996; 76 FR 34603, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.24" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.24   Benefit increases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all benefit increases, as defined in § 4022.2, that have been in effect for less than five years preceding the termination date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General rule.</I> Benefit increases described in paragraph (a) of this section are guaranteeable only to the extent provided in § 4022.25.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Computation of guaranteeable benefit increases.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section pertaining to multiple benefit increases, the amount of a guaranteeable benefit increase shall be the amount, if any, by which the monthly benefit calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section (the monthly benefit provided under the terms of the plan as of the termination date, as limited by § 4022.22) exceeds the monthly benefit calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(4) of this section (the monthly benefit which would have been payable on the termination date if the benefit provided subsequent to the increase were equivalent, as of the date of the increase, to the benefit provided prior to the increase).
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the amount of the monthly benefit payable on the termination date (or, in the case of a deferred benefit, the monthly benefit which will become payable thereafter) under the terms of the plan subsequent to the increase, using service credited to the participant as of the termination date, that is guaranteeable pursuant to § 4022.22;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine, as of the date of the benefit increase, in accordance with the provisions of § 4022.23, the factors which would be used to calculate the monthly maximum benefit guaranteeable (i) under the terms of the plan prior to the increase and (ii) under the terms of the plan subsequent to the increase. However, when the benefit referred to in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section is a joint and survivor benefit deferred as of the termination date and there is no beneficiary on that date, the factors computed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section shall be determined as if the benefit were payable only to the participant. Each set of factors determined under this paragraph shall be stated in the manner set forth in § 4022.23(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(3) Multiply the monthly benefit which would have been payable (or, in the case of a deferred benefit, would have become payable) under the terms of the plan prior to the increase based on service credited to the participant as of the termination date by a fraction, the numerator of which is the product of the factors computed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section and the denominator of which is the product of the factors computed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Calculate the amount of the monthly benefit which would be payable on the termination date if the monthly benefit computed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section had been payable commencing on the date of the benefit increase (or, in the case of a deferred benefit, would have become payable thereafter). In the case of a benefit which does not become payable until subsequent to the termination date, the amount of the monthly benefit determined pursuant to this paragraph is the same as the amount of the monthly benefit calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple benefit increases.</I> (1) Where there has been more than one benefit increase described in paragraph (a) of this section, the amounts of guaranteeable benefit increases shall be calculated beginning with the earliest increase, and each such amount (except for the amount resulting from the final benefit increase) shall be multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the product of the factors, stated in the manner set forth in § 4022.23(b)(1), used to calculate the monthly maximum guaranteeable benefit under § 4022.22 and the denominator of which is the product of the factors used in the calculation under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Each benefit increase shall be treated separately for the purposes of § 4022.25, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d) of that section, and for the purposes of § 4022.26, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) Except as provided in § 4022.27(c), for the purposes of §§ 4022.22 through 4022.28, a benefit increase is deemed to be in effect commencing on the later of its adoption date or its effective date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, except as provided in the next sentence, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” each place that “termination date” appears in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section. In any case in which an event (such as the death of a participant or beneficiary who was alive on the bankruptcy filing date) that affects who is receiving or will receive a benefit from PBGC has occurred on or before the termination date, PBGC will compute the benefit based on the form of benefit that was being paid (or was payable) and the person who was receiving or was entitled to receive the benefit from PBGC as of the termination date, consistent with § 4022.23(g).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rollover amounts.</I> Any portion of a benefit derived from mandatory employee contributions resulting from rollover amounts (as determined under § 4044.12 (c)(4)(i) of this chapter) is disregarded in applying the provisions of §§ 4022.24 through 4022.26. However, any portion of a benefit derived from employer contributions resulting from rollover amounts (as determined under § 4044.12(c)(4)(ii) of this chapter) is combined with any other benefit under the plan in applying the provisions of §§ 4022.24 through 4022.26. In such case, the benefit increase is deemed to be in effect on the date the rollover amounts are received by the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996; 61 FR 36626, July 12, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 67728, Dec. 30, 1997; 76 FR 34603, June 14, 2011; 79 FR 25672, May 6, 2014; 79 FR 70095, Nov. 25, 2014; 83 FR 49803, Oct. 3, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.25" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.25   Five-year phase-in of benefit guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to the guarantee of benefit increases which have been in effect for less than five years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Phase-in formula.</I> The amount of a benefit increase computed pursuant to § 4022.24 shall be guaranteed to the extent provided in the following formula: the number of years the benefit increase has been in effect, not to exceed five, multiplied by the greater of (1) 20 percent of the amount computed pursuant to § 4022.24; or (2) $20 per month.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Computation of years.</I> In computing the number of years a benefit increase has been in effect, each complete 12-month period ending on or before the termination date during which such benefit increase was in effect constitutes one year. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple benefit increases.</I> In applying the formula contained in paragraph (b) of this section, multiple benefit increases within any 12-month period ending on or before the termination date and calculated from that date are aggregated and treated as one benefit increase. 
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, a benefit increase described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be guaranteed only if PBGC determines that the plan was terminated for a reasonable business purpose and not for the purpose of obtaining the payment of benefits by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” each place that “termination date” appears in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. Example: A plan amendment that was adopted and effective in February 2007 increased a participant's benefit by $300 per month (as computed under § 4022.24). The contributing sponsor of the plan filed a bankruptcy petition in March 2009 and the plan has a termination date in April 2010. PBGC's guarantee of the participant's benefit increase is limited to $120 ($300 × 40%), because the increase was made more than 2 years but less than 3 years before the bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 16956, Apr. 8, 2002; 76 FR 34603, June 14, 2011; 83 FR 49804, Oct. 3, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.26" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.26   Benefit guarantee for participants who are majority owners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to the guarantee of all benefits described in subpart A of this part (subject to the limitations in § 4022.21) with respect to participants who are majority owners at the termination date or who were majority owners at any time within the five-year period preceding that date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Formula.</I> Benefits provided by a plan are guaranteed to the extent provided in the following formula: The amount of the participant's benefit that PBGC would otherwise guarantee under section 4022 of ERISA and this part if the participant were not a majority owner, multiplied by a fraction not to exceed one, the numerator of which is the number of full years from the later of the effective date or the adoption date of the plan to the termination date, and the denominator of which is 10.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 49804, Oct. 3, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.27" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.27   Phase-in of guarantee of unpredictable contingent event benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to a benefit increase, as defined in § 4022.2, that is an unpredictable contingent event benefit (UCEB) and that is payable with respect to an unpredictable contingent event (UCE) that occurs after July 26, 2005.
</P>
<P>(1) Examples of benefit increases within the scope of this section include unreduced early retirement benefits or other early retirement subsidies, or other benefits to the extent that such benefits would not be payable but for the occurrence of one or more UCEs.
</P>
<P>(2) Examples of UCEs within the scope of this section include full and partial closings of plants or other facilities, and permanent workforce reductions, such as permanent layoffs. Permanent layoffs include layoffs during which an idled employee continues to earn credited service (creep-type layoff) for a period of time at the end of which the layoff is deemed to be permanent. Permanent layoffs also include layoffs that become permanent upon the occurrence of an additional event such as a declaration by the employer that the participant's return to work is unlikely or a failure by the employer to offer the employee suitable work in a specified area.
</P>
<P>(3) The examples in this section are not an exclusive list of UCEs or UCEBs and are not intended to narrow the statutory definitions, as further delineated in Treasury Regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facts and circumstances.</I> If PBGC determines that a benefit is a shutdown benefit or other type of UCEB, the benefit will be treated as a UCEB for purposes of this subpart. PBGC will make such determinations based on the facts and circumstances, consistent with these regulations; how a benefit is characterized by the employer or other parties may be relevant but is not determinative.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date phase-in begins.</I> (1) The date the phase-in of PBGC's guarantee of a UCEB begins is determined in accordance with subpart B of this part. For purposes of this subpart, a UCEB is deemed to be in effect as of the latest of—
</P>
<P>(i) The adoption date of the plan provision that provides for the UCEB,
</P>
<P>(ii) The effective date of the UCEB, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The date the UCE occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) The date the phase-in of PBGC's guarantee of a UCEB begins is not affected by any delay that may occur in placing participants in pay status due to removal of a restriction under section 436(b) of the Code. See the example in paragraph (e)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Date UCE occurs.</I> For purposes of this section, PBGC will determine the date the UCE occurs based on plan provisions and other facts and circumstances, including the nature and level of activity at a facility that is closing and the permanence of the event. PBGC will also consider, to the extent relevant, statements or determinations by the employer, the plan administrator, a union, an arbitrator under a collective bargaining agreement, or a court, but will not treat such statements or determinations as controlling.
</P>
<P>(1) The date a UCE occurs is determined on a participant-by-participant basis, or on a different basis, such as a facility-wide or company-wide basis, depending upon plan provisions and the facts and circumstances. For example, a benefit triggered by a permanent layoff of a participant would be determined with respect to each participant, and thus layoffs that occur on different dates would generally be distinct UCEs. In contrast, a benefit payable only upon a complete plant shutdown would apply facility-wide, and generally the shutdown date would be the date of the UCE for all participants who work at that plant. Similarly, a benefit payable only upon the complete shutdown of the employer's entire operations would apply plan-wide, and thus the shutdown date of company operations generally would be the date of the UCE for all participants.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, if a benefit is contingent upon more than one UCE, PBGC will apply the rule under Treas. Reg. § 1.436-1(b)(3)(ii) (26 CFR 1.436-1(b)(3)(ii)) (i.e., the date the UCE occurs is the date of the latest UCE).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the operation of the rules in this section. Except as provided in Example 8, no benefit limitation under Code section 436 applies in any of these examples. Unless otherwise stated, the termination is not a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE><I>Date of UCE.</I> (i) <I>Facts:</I> On January 1, 2006, a Company adopts a plan that provides an unreduced early retirement benefit for participants with specified age and service whose continuous service is broken by a permanent plant closing or permanent layoff that occurs on or after January 1, 2007. On January 1, 2013, the Company informally and without announcement decides to close Facility A within a two-year period. On January 1, 2014, the Company's Board of Directors passes a resolution directing the Company's officers to close Facility A on or before September 1, 2014. On June 1, 2014, the Company issues a notice pursuant to the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification (WARN) Act, 29 U.S.C. 2101, <I>et seq.,</I> that Facility A will close, and all employees will be permanently laid off, on or about August 1, 2014. The Company and the Union representing the employees enter into collective bargaining concerning the closing of Facility A and on July 1, 2014, they jointly agree and announce that Facility A will close and employees who work there will be permanently laid off as of November 1, 2014. However, due to unanticipated business conditions, Facility A continues to operate until December 31, 2014, when operations cease and all employees are permanently laid off. The plan terminates as of December 1, 2015.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion:</I> PBGC would determine that the UCE is the facility closing and permanent layoff that occurred on December 31, 2014. Because the date that the UCE occurred (December 31, 2014) is later than both the date the plan provision that established the UCEB was adopted (January 1, 2006) and the date the UCEB became effective (January 1, 2007), December 31, 2014, would be the date the phase-in period under ERISA section 4022 begins. In light of the plan termination date of December 1, 2015, the guarantee of the UCEBs of participants laid off on December 31, 2014, would be 0 percent phased in.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE><I>Sequential layoffs.</I> (i) <I>Facts:</I> The same facts as Example 1, with these exceptions: Not all employees are laid off on December 31, 2014. The Company and Union agree to and subsequently implement a shutdown in which employees are permanently laid off in stages—one third of the employees are laid off on October 31, 2014, another third are laid off on November 30, 2014, and the remaining one-third are laid off on December 31, 2014.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion:</I> Because the plan provides that a UCEB is payable in the event of either a permanent layoff or a plant shutdown, PBGC would determine that phase-in begins on the date of the UCE applicable to each of the three groups of employees. Because the first two groups of employees were permanently laid off before the plant closed, October 31, 2014, and November 30, 2014, are the dates that the phase-in period under ERISA section 4022 begins for those groups. Because the third group was permanently laid off on December 31, 2014, the same date the plant closed, the phase-in period would begin on that date for that group. Based on the plan termination date of December 1, 2015, participants laid off on October 31, 2014, and November 30, 2014, would have 20 percent of the UCEBs (or $20 per month, if greater) guaranteed under the phase-in rule. The guarantee of the UCEBs of participants laid off on December 31, 2014, would be 0 percent phased in.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE><I>Skeleton shutdown crews.</I> (i) <I>Facts:</I> The same facts as Example 1, with these exceptions: The plan provides for an unreduced early retirement benefit for age/service-qualified participants only in the event of a break in continuous service due to a permanent and complete plant closing. A minimal skeleton crew remains to perform primarily security and basic maintenance functions until March 31, 2015, when skeleton crew members are permanently laid off and the facility is sold to an unrelated investment group that does not assume the plan or resume business operations at the facility. The plan has no specific provision or past practice governing benefits of skeleton shutdown crews. The plan terminates as of January 1, 2015.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion:</I> Because the continued employment of the skeleton crew does not effectively continue operations of the facility, PBGC would determine that there is a permanent and complete plant closing (for purposes of the plan's plant closing provision) as of December 31, 2014, which is the date the phase-in period under ERISA section 4022 begins with respect to employees who incurred a break in continuous service at that time. The UCEB of those participants would be a nonforfeitable benefit as of the plan termination date, but PBGC's guarantee of the UCEB would be 0 percent phased in. In the case of the skeleton crew members, such participants would not be eligible for the UCEB because they did not incur a break in continuous service until after the plan termination date. (If the plan had a provision that there is no shutdown until all employees, including any skeleton crew are terminated, or if the plan were reasonably interpreted to so provide in light of past practice, PBGC would determine that the date that the UCE occurred was after the plan termination date. Thus the UCEB would not be a nonforfeitable benefit as of the plan termination date and therefore would not be guaranteeable.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE><I>Creep-type layoff benefit/bankruptcy of contributing sponsor.</I> (i) <I>Facts:</I> A plan provides that participants who are at least age 55 and whose age plus years of continuous service equal at least 80 are entitled to an unreduced early retirement benefit if their continuous service is broken due to a permanent layoff. The plan further provides that a participant's continuous service is broken due to a permanent layoff when the participant is terminated due to the permanent shutdown of a facility, or the participant has been on layoff status for two years. These provisions were adopted and effective in 1990. Participant A is 56 years old and has 25 years of continuous service when he is laid off in a reduction-in-force on May 15, 2014. He is not recalled to employment, and on May 15, 2016, under the terms of the plan, his continuous service is broken due to the layoff. He goes into pay status on June 1, 2016, with an unreduced early retirement benefit. The contributing sponsor of Participant A's plan files a bankruptcy petition under Chapter 11 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code on September 1, 2017, and the plan terminates during the bankruptcy proceedings with a termination date of October 1, 2018. Under section 4022(g) of ERISA, because the plan terminated while the contributing sponsor was in bankruptcy, the five-year phase-in period ended on the bankruptcy filing date.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion:</I> PBGC would determine that the guarantee of the UCEB is phased in beginning on May 15, 2016, the date of the later of the two UCEs necessary to make this benefit payable (i.e., the first UCE is the initial layoff and the second UCE is the expiration of the two-year period without rehire). Since that date is more than one year (but less than two years) before the September 1, 2017, bankruptcy filing date, 20 percent of Participant A's UCEB (or $20 per month, if greater) would be guaranteed under the phase-in rule.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE><I>Creep-type layoff benefit with provision for declaration that return to work unlikely.</I> (i) <I>Facts:</I> A plan provides that participants who are at least age 60 and have at least 20 years of continuous service are entitled to an unreduced early retirement benefit if their continuous service is broken by a permanent layoff. The plan further provides that a participant's continuous service is broken by a permanent layoff if the participant is laid off and the employer declares that the participant's return to work is unlikely. Participants may earn up to 2 years of credited service while on layoff. The plan was adopted and effective in 1990. On March 1, 2014, Participant B, who is age 60 and has 20 years of service, is laid off. On June 15, 2014, the employer declares that Participant B's return to work is unlikely. Participant B retires and goes into pay status as of July 1, 2014. The employer files for bankruptcy on September 1, 2016, and the plan terminates during the bankruptcy.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion:</I> PBGC would determine that the phase-in period of the guarantee of the UCEB would begin on June 15, 2014—the later of the two UCEs necessary to make the benefit payable (i.e., the first UCE is the initial layoff and the second UCE is the employer's declaration that it is unlikely that Participant B will return to work). The phase-in period would end on September 1, 2016, the date of the bankruptcy filing. Thus 40 percent of Participant B's UCEB (or $40 per month, if greater) would be guaranteed under the phase-in rule.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE><I>Shutdown benefit with special post-employment eligibility provision.</I> (i) <I>Facts:</I> A plan provides that, in the event of a permanent shutdown of a plant, a participant age 60 or older who terminates employment due to the shutdown and who has at least 20 years of service is entitled to an unreduced early retirement benefit. The plan also provides that a participant with at least 20 years of service who terminates employment due to a plant shutdown at a time when the participant is under age 60 also will be entitled to an unreduced early retirement benefit, provided the participant's commencement of benefits is on or after attainment of age 60 and the time required to attain age 60 does not exceed the participant's years of service with the plan sponsor. The plan imposes no other conditions on receipt of the benefit. Plan provisions were adopted and effective in 1990. On January 1, 2014, Participant C's plant is permanently shut down. At the time of the shutdown, Participant C had 20 years of service and was age 58. On June 1, 2015, Participant C reaches age 60 and retires. The plan terminates as of September 1, 2015.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion:</I> PBGC would determine that the guarantee of the shutdown benefit is phased in from January 1, 2014, which is the date of the only UCE (the permanent shutdown of the plant) necessary to make the benefit payable. Thus 20 percent of Participant C's UCEB (or $20 per month, if greater) would be guaranteed under the phase-in rule.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE><I>Phase-in of retroactive UCEB.</I> (i) <I>Facts:</I> As the result of a settlement in a class-action lawsuit, a plan provision is adopted on September 1, 2014, to provide that age/service-qualified participants are entitled to an unreduced early retirement benefit if permanently laid off due to a plant shutdown occurring on or after January 1, 2014. Benefits under the provision are payable prospectively only, beginning March 1, 2015. Participant A, who was age/service-qualified, was permanently laid off due to a plant shutdown occurring on January 1, 2014, and therefore he is scheduled to be placed in pay status as of March 1, 2015. The unreduced early retirement benefit is paid to Participant A beginning on March 1, 2015. The plan terminates as of February 1, 2017.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion:</I> PBGC would determine that the guarantee of the UCEB is phased in beginning on March 1, 2015. This is the date the benefit was effective (since it was the first date on which the new benefit was payable), and it is later than the adoption date of the plan provision (September 1, 2014) and the date of the UCE (January 1, 2014). Thus 20 percent of Participant A's UCEB (or $20 per month, if greater) would be guaranteed under the phase-in rule.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE><I>Removal of IRC section 436 restriction.</I> (i)(A) <I>Facts:</I> A plan provision was adopted on September 1, 1989, to provide that age/service-qualified participants are entitled to an unreduced early retirement benefit if permanently laid off due to a plant shutdown occurring after January 1, 1990. Participant A, who was age/service-qualified, was permanently laid off due to a plant shutdown occurring on April 15, 2014. The plan is a calendar year plan.
</PSPACE><P>(B) Under the rules of Code section 436 (ERISA section 206(g)) and Treasury regulations thereunder, a plan cannot provide a UCEB payable with respect to an unpredictable contingent event, if the event occurs during a plan year in which the plan's adjusted funding target attainment percentage is less than 60%. On March 17, 2014, the plan's enrolled actuary issued a certification stating that the plan's adjusted funding target attainment percentage for 2014 is 58%. Therefore, the plan restricts payment of the unreduced early retirement benefit payable with respect to the shutdown on April 15, 2014.
</P><P>(C) On August 15, 2014, the plan sponsor makes an additional contribution to the plan that is designated as a contribution under Code section 436(b)(2) to eliminate the restriction on payment of the shutdown benefits. On September 15, 2014, the plan's enrolled actuary issues a certification stating that, due to the additional section 436(b)(2) contribution, the plan's adjusted funding target attainment percentage for 2014 is 60%. On October 1, 2014, Participant A is placed in pay status for the unreduced early retirement benefit and, as required under Code section 436 and Treasury regulations thereunder, is in addition paid retroactively the unreduced benefit for the period May 1, 2014 (the date the unreduced early retirements would have become payable) through September 1, 2014. The plan terminates as of September 1, 2016.
</P><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion:</I> PBGC would determine that the guarantee of the UCEB is phased in beginning on April 15, 2014, the date the UCE occurred. Because April 15, 2014, is later than both the date the UCEB was adopted (September 1, 1989) and the date the UCEB became effective (January 1, 1990), it would be the date the phase-in period under ERISA section 4022 begins. Commencement of the phase-in period is not affected by the delay in providing the unreduced early retirement benefit to Participant A due to the operation of the rules of Code section 436 and the Treasury regulations thereunder. Thus 40 percent of Participant A's UCEB (or $40 per month, if greater) would be guaranteed under the phase-in rule.</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 25672, May 6, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.28" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.28   Effect of tax disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, benefits accrued under a plan after the date on which the Secretary of the Treasury or his delegate issues a notice that any trust which is part of the plan no longer meets the requirements of section 401(a) of the Code or that the plan no longer meets the requirements of section 404(a) of the Code or after the date of adoption of a plan amendment that causes the issuance of such a notice shall not be guaranteed under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The restriction on the guarantee of benefits set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of the Treasury or his delegate issues a notice stating that the original notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section was erroneous;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of the Treasury or his delegate finds that, subsequent to the issuance of the notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, appropriate action has been taken with respect to the trust or plan to cause it to meet the requirements of sections 401(a) or 404(a)(2) of the Code, respectively, and issues a subsequent notice stating that the trust or plan meets such requirements; or
</P>
<P>(3) The plan amendment is revoked retroactively to its original effective date.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Section 4022(c) Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.51" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.51   Determination of section 4022(c) benefits in a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount of unfunded nonguaranteed benefits.</I> For purposes of this section, and subject to paragraph (b) of this section, a plan's amount of unfunded nonguaranteed benefits means the plan's outstanding amount of benefit liabilities, as defined in section 4001(a)(19) of ERISA, determined as of the plan's termination date. A plan's amount of unfunded nonguaranteed benefits is multiplied by the applicable recovery ratio to determine the aggregate amount to be allocated with respect to participants of the plan under section 4022(c)(1) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits included in unfunded nonguaranteed benefits.</I> For purposes of computing benefits under section 4022(c) of ERISA in a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, unfunded nonguaranteed benefits are benefits under a plan as of the plan's termination date that are neither guaranteed by PBGC (taking into account section 4022(g) of ERISA) nor funded by the plan's assets (taking into account section 4044(e) of ERISA).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of recovery ratio.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, the recovery ratio under section 4022(c)(3) of ERISA is determined as follows. The numerator is based on PBGC's recoveries under section 4062, 4063, or 4064, valued as of the plan's (or plans') termination date (or dates). The denominator of the recovery ratio is based on the amount of unfunded benefit liabilities, as defined in section 4001(a)(18) of ERISA, as of the plan's (or plans') termination date (or dates).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 34603, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Benefit Reductions in Terminating Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.61" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.61   Limitations on benefit payments by plan administrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> When § 4041.42 of this chapter requires a plan administrator to reduce benefits, the plan administrator shall limit benefit payments in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accrued benefit at normal retirement.</I> Except to the extent permitted by paragraph (d) of this section, a plan administrator may not pay that portion of a monthly benefit payable with respect to any participant that exceeds the participant's accrued benefit payable at normal retirement age under the plan. For the purpose of applying this limitation, post-retirement benefit increases, such as cost-of-living adjustments, are not considered to increase a participant's benefit beyond his or her accrued benefit payable at normal retirement age. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maximum guaranteeable benefit.</I> Except to the extent permitted by paragraph (d) of this section, a plan administrator may not pay that portion of a monthly benefit payable with respect to any participant, as limited by paragraph (b) of this section, that exceeds the maximum guaranteeable benefit under section 4022(b)(3)(B) of ERISA and § 4022.22(a)(2) of this part, adjusted for age and benefit form, for the year of the proposed termination date. In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, the maximum guaranteeable benefit is determined as of the bankruptcy filing date, in accordance with §§ 4022.22(b) and 4022.23(g).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Estimated benefit payments.</I> A plan administrator shall pay the monthly benefit payable with respect to each participant as determined under § 4022.62 or § 4022.63, whichever produces the higher benefit. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>PBGC authority to modify procedures.</I> In order to avoid abuse of the plan termination insurance system, inequitable treatment of participants and beneficiaries, or the imposition of unreasonable burdens on terminating plans, the PBGC may authorize or direct the use of alternative procedures for determining benefit reductions. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples.</I> This section is illustrated by the following examples. (For examples addressing issues specific to a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, see §§ 4022.21(e), 4022.22(b), and 4022.23(g).)
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1. Facts.</HED><PSPACE>On October 10, 1992, a plan administrator files with the PBGC a notice of intent to terminate in a distress termination that includes December 31, 1992, as the proposed termination date. A participant who is in pay status on December 31, 1992, has been receiving his accrued benefit of $2,500 per month under the plan. The benefit is in the form of a joint and survivor annuity (contingent basis) that will pay 50 percent of the participant's benefit amount (<I>i.e.</I>, $1,250 per month) to his surviving spouse following the death of the participant. On December 31, 1992, the participant is age 66, and his wife is age 56. 
</PSPACE><P><I>Benefit reductions.</I> Paragraph (b) of this section requires the plan administrator to cease paying benefits in excess of the accrued benefit payable at normal retirement age. Because the participant is receiving only his accrued benefit, no reduction is required under paragraph (b). 
</P><P>Paragraph (c) of this section requires the plan administrator to cease paying benefits in excess of the maximum guaranteeable benefit, adjusted for age and benefit form in accordance with the provisions of subpart B. The maximum guaranteeable benefit for plans terminating in 1992, the year of the proposed termination date, is $2,352.27 per month, payable in the form of a single life annuity at age 65. Because the participant is older than age 65, no adjustment is required under § 4022.23(c) based on the annuitant's age factor. The benefit form is a joint and survivor annuity (contingent basis), as defined in § 4022.23(d)(2). The required benefit reduction for this benefit form under § 4022.23(d) is 10 percent. The corresponding adjustment factor is 0.90 (1.00-0.10). The benefit reduction factor to adjust for the age difference between the participant and the beneficiary is computed under § 4022.23(e). In computing the difference in ages, years over 65 years of age are not taken into account. Therefore, the age difference is 9 years (65-56). The required percentage reduction when the beneficiary is 9 years younger than the participant is 9 percent. The corresponding adjustment factor is 0.91 (1.00-0.09). 
</P><P>The maximum guaranteeable benefit adjusted for age and benefit form is $1,926.51 ($2,352.27 × 0.90 × 0.91) per month. Therefore, the plan administrator must reduce the participant's benefit payment from $2,500 to $1,926.51. If the participant dies after December 31, 1992, the plan administrator will pay his spouse $963.26 (0.50 × $1,926.51) per month.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2. Facts.</HED><PSPACE>The benefit of a participant who retired under a plan at age 60 is a reduced single life annuity of $400 per month plus a temporary supplement of $400 per month payable until age 62 (<I>i.e.,</I> a step-down benefit). The participant's accrued benefit under the plan is $450 per month, payable from the plan's normal retirement age. On the proposed termination date, June 30, 1992, the participant is 61 years old. 
</PSPACE><P>The maximum guaranteeable benefit adjusted for age under § 4022.23(c) of this chapter is $1,693.63 ($2,352.27 × 0.72) per month. Since the benefit is payable as a single life annuity, no adjustment is required under § 4022.23(d) for benefit form. 
</P><P><I>Benefit reductions.</I> The plan benefit of $800 per month payable until age 62 exceeds the participant's accrued benefit at normal requirement age of $450 per month. Paragraph (b) of this section requires that, except to the extent permitted by paragraph (d), the plan benefit must be reduced to $450 per month. Since the levelized benefit of $404.10 ((0.082 × 50) + $400) per month, determined under § 4022.23(f), is less than the adjusted maximum guaranteeable benefit of $1,693.63 per month, no further reduction in the $450 per month benefit payment is required under paragraph (c) of this section. The plan administrator next would determine the amount of the participant's estimated benefit under paragraph (d).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3. Facts.</HED><PSPACE>A retired participant is receiving a reduced early retirement benefit of $1,100 per month plus a temporary supplement of $700 per month payable until age 62. The benefit is in the form of a single life annuity. On the proposed termination date, November 30, 1992, the participant is 56 years old. 
</PSPACE><P>The participant's accrued benefit at normal retirement age under the plan is $1,200 per month. The maximum guaranteeable benefit adjusted for age is $1,152.61 ($2,352.27 × 0.49) per month. A form adjustment is not required. 
</P><P><I>Benefit reductions.</I> The plan benefit of $1,800 per month payable from age 56 to age 62 exceeds the participant's accrued benefit at normal retirement age of $1,200 per month. Therefore, under paragraph (b) of this section, the plan administrator must reduce the temporary supplement to $100 per month. 
</P><P>For the purpose of determining whether the reduced benefit, <I>i.e.,</I> a level-life annuity of $1,100 per month and a temporary annuity supplement of $100 per month to age 62, exceeds the maximum guaranteeable benefit adjusted for age, the temporary annuity supplement of $100 per month is converted to a level-life annuity equivalent in accordance with § 4022.23(f) of this chapter. The level-life annuity equivalent is $38.70 ($100 × 0.387). This, added to the life annuity of $1,100 per month, equals $1,138.70. Since the maximum guaranteeable benefit of $1,152.61 per month exceeds $1,138.70 per month, no further reduction is required under paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P><P>The plan administrator next would determine the participant's estimated benefit under paragraph (d). Assume that the estimated benefit under paragraph (d) is $780 per month until age 62 and $715 per month thereafter. The plan administrator would pay the participant $780 per month, reduced to $715 per month at age 62, subject to the final benefit determination made under title IV.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4. Facts.</HED><PSPACE>A retired participant is receiving a reduced early retirement benefit of $2,650 per month plus a temporary supplement of $800 per month payable until age 62. The benefit is in the form of a joint and survivor annuity (contingent basis) that will pay 50 percent of the participant's benefit amount to his surviving spouse following the death of the participant. On the proposed termination date, December 20, 1992, the participant and his spouse are each 56 years old. 
</PSPACE><P>The participant's accrued benefit at normal retirement age under the plan is $3,000 per month. The maximum guaranteeable benefit adjusted for age and the joint and survivor annuity (contingent basis) annuity form is $1,037.35 per month. An adjustment for age difference is not required because the participant and his spouse are the same age. 
</P><P><I>Benefit reductions.</I> The plan benefit of $3,450 per month payable from age 56 to age 62 exceeds the participant's accrued benefit at normal retirement age, which is $3,000 per month. Therefore, under paragraph (b) of this section, the plan administrator must reduce the participant's benefit so that it does not exceed $3,000 per month. 
</P><P>The level-life equivalent of the participant's reduced benefit, determined using the § 4022.23(f) adjustment factor, is $2,785.45 (($350 × 0.387) + $2,650) per month. Since this benefit exceeds the participant's maximum guaranteeable benefit of $1,037.35 per month, the plan administrator must reduce the participant's benefit payment so that it does not exceed the maximum guaranteeable benefit. 
</P><P>The ratio of (i) the participant's maximum guaranteeable benefit to (ii) the level-life equivalent of the participant's reduced benefit (computed under the “accrued for normal retirement age” limitation) is used in converting the level-life maximum guaranteeable benefit to the step-down benefit form. The level-life equivalent of the reduced benefit computed under the “accrued for normal retirement age” limitation is 37.24 percent ($1,037.35/$2,785.45). Thus, the plan administrator must reduce the participant's level-life benefit of $2,650 per month to $986.86 ($2,650 × 0.3724) and must further reduce the reduced temporary benefit of $350 per month to $130.34 ($350 × 0.3724). Under paragraph (c) of this section, therefore, the participant's maximum guaranteeable benefit is $1,117.20 ($986.86 + $130.34) per month to age 62 and $986.86 per month thereafter, subject to any adjustment under paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P><P>Assume that the estimated benefit under paragraph (d) is $1,005.48 per month to age 62 and $888.17 per month thereafter. The plan administrator would reduce the participant's benefit from $3,450 per month to $1,005.48 per month and pay this amount until age 62, at which time the benefit payment would be reduced to $888.17 per month, subject to the final benefit determination made under title IV.</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997; 76 FR 34604, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.62" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.62   Estimated guaranteed benefit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The estimated guaranteed benefit payable with respect to each participant who is not a majority owner is computed under paragraph (c) of this section. The estimated guaranteed benefit payable with respect to each participant who is a majority owner is computed under paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules for determining benefits.</I> For the purposes of determining entitlement to a benefit and the amount of the estimated benefit under this section, the following rules apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Non-PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a non-PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination:
</P>
<P>(i) For benefits payable with respect to a participant who is in pay status on or before the proposed termination date, the plan administrator shall use the participant's age and benefit payable under the plan as of the proposed termination date.
</P>
<P>(ii) For benefits payable with respect to a participant who enters pay status after the proposed termination date, the plan administrator shall use the participant's age as of the benefit commencement date and his service and compensation as of the proposed termination date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination:
</P>
<P>(i) For benefits payable with respect to a participant who is in pay status on or before the bankruptcy filing date, the plan administrator shall use the participant's age and benefit payable under the plan as of the bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<P>(ii) For benefits payable with respect to a participant who enters pay status after the bankruptcy filing date, the plan administrator shall use the participant's age as of the benefit commencement date and his service and compensation as of the bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Participants with new benefits or benefit improvements.</I> For the purpose of determining the estimated guaranteed benefit under paragraph (c) of this section, only new benefits and benefit improvements that affect the benefit of the participant or beneficiary for whom the determination is made are taken into account. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limitations on estimated guaranteed benefits.</I> For the purpose of determining the estimated guaranteed benefit under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, the benefit determined under paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section is subject to the limitations set forth in § 4022.61 (b) and (c). 
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in this paragraph (b) overrides the provisions of subparts A and B of part 4022 with respect to the requirements necessary for a benefit to be guaranteed by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Estimated guaranteed benefit payable with respect to a participant who is not a majority owner.</I> For benefits payable with respect to a participant who is not a majority owner, the estimated guaranteed benefit is determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, if no portion of the benefit is subject to the phase-in of plan termination insurance guarantees set forth in section 4022(b)(1) of ERISA. In any other case, the estimated guaranteed benefit is determined under paragraph (c)(2). “Benefit subject to phase-in” means a benefit that is subject to the phase-in of plan termination insurance guarantees set forth in section 4022(b)(1) of ERISA, determined without regard to section 4022(b)(7) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Participants with no benefits subject to phase-in.</I> In the case of a participant or beneficiary with no benefit improvement (as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)) or new benefit (as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(i)) in the five years preceding the proposed termination date, the estimated guaranteed benefit is the benefit to which he or she is entitled under the rules in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Participants with benefits subject to phase-in.</I> In the case of a participant or beneficiary with a benefit improvement or new benefit in the five years preceding the proposed termination date, the estimated guaranteed benefit is the benefit to which he or she is entitled under the rules in paragraph (b) of this section, multiplied by the multiplier determined according to paragraphs (i), (ii), and (iii), but not less than the benefit to which he or she would have been entitled if the benefit improvement or new benefit had not been adopted. 
</P>
<P>(i) From column (a) of Table I, select the line that applies according to the number of full years before the proposed termination date since the plan was last amended to provide for a new benefit (or the number of full years since the plan was established, if it has never been amended to provide for a new benefit). “New benefit” means a change in the terms of the plan that results in (a) a participant's or a beneficiary's eligibility for a benefit that was not previously available or to which he or she was not entitled (excluding a benefit that is actuarially equivalent to the normal retirement benefit to which the participant was previously entitled) or (b) an increase of more than twenty percent in the benefit to which a participant is entitled upon entering pay status before his or her normal retirement age under the plan. “New benefits” result from liberalized participation or vesting requirements, reductions in the age or service requirements for receiving unreduced benefits, additions of actuarially subsidized benefits, and increases in actuarial subsidies. “New benefits” also result from increases that become payable by reason of the occurrence of an unpredictable contingent event (provided the event occurred after July 26, 2005), to the extent the increase would not be payable but for the occurrence of the event; in the case of such new benefits, the date of the occurrence of the unpredictable contingent event is treated as the amendment date for purposes of Table I. The establishment of a plan creates a new benefit as of the effective date of the plan. A change in the amount of a benefit is not deemed to be a “new benefit” if it results solely from a benefit improvement. “New benefit” and “benefit improvement” are mutually exclusive terms. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If there was no benefit improvement under the plan during the one-year period ending on the proposed termination date, use the multiplier set forth in column (b) of Table I on the line selected from column (a). “Benefit improvement” means a change in the terms of the plan that results in (a) an increase in the benefit to which a participant is entitled at his or her normal retirement age under the plan or (b) an increase in the benefit to which a participant or beneficiary in pay status is entitled. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If there was any benefit improvement during the one-year period ending on the proposed termination date, use the multiplier set forth in column (c) of Table I on the line selected from column (a). 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I—Applicable Multiplier If—
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Full years since last new benefit
<br/>(a)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No benefit improvement during last year
<br/>(b)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Benefit improvement during last year
<br/>(c)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Five or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Four</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fewer than two</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.30
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> The foregoing method of estimating guaranteed benefits is based upon the PBGC's experience with a wide range of plans and may not provide accurate estimates in certain circumstances. In accordance with § 4022.61(e), a plan administrator may use a different method of estimation if he or she demonstrates to the PBGC that his proposed method will be more equitable to participants and beneficiaries. The PBGC may require the use of a different method in certain cases.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Estimated guaranteed benefit payable with respect to a majority owner.</I> For benefits payable with respect to each participant who is a majority owner, the estimated guaranteed benefit is the benefit to which he or she would be entitled under paragraph (c) of this section but for his or her status as a majority owner, multiplied by a fraction, not to exceed one, the numerator of which is the number of full years from the later of the effective date or the adoption date of the plan to the proposed termination date and the denominator of which is 10.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “proposed termination date” each place that “proposed termination date” appears in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples.</I> This section is illustrated by the following examples. (For an example addressing issues specific to a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, see § 4022.25(f).)
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A participant who is not a majority owner retired on December 31, 2011, at age 60 and began receiving a benefit of $600 per month. On January 1, 2009, the plan had been amended to allow participants to retire with unreduced benefits at age 60. Previously, a participant who retired before age 65 was subject to a reduction of 
<FR>1/15</FR> for each year by which his or her actual retirement age preceded age 65. On January 1, 2012, the plan's benefit formula was amended to increase benefits for participants who retired before January 1, 2012. As a result, the participant's benefit was increased to $750 per month. There have been no other pertinent amendments. The proposed termination date is December 15, 2012.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Estimated guaranteed benefit.</I> (A) No reduction is required under § 4022.61(b) or (c) because the participant's benefit does not exceed either the participant's accrued benefit at normal retirement age or the maximum guaranteeable benefit. (Post-retirement benefit increases are not considered as increasing accrued benefits payable at normal retirement age.)
</P>
<P>(B) The amendment as of January 1, 2009, resulted in a “new benefit” because the reduction in the age at which the participant could receive unreduced benefits increased the participant's benefit entitlement at actual retirement age by 
<SU>5</SU>/<E T="52">15</E>, which is more than the 20-percent increase threshold under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. The amendment of January 1, 2012, which increased the participant's benefit to $750 per month, is a “benefit improvement” because it is an increase in the amount of benefit for persons in pay status. (No percentage test applies in determining whether an increase in a pay status benefit is a benefit improvement.)
</P>
<P>(C) The multiplier for computing the amount of the estimated guaranteed benefit is taken from the third row of Table I of this section (because the last new benefit had been in effect for three full years as of the proposed termination date) and column (c) (because there was a benefit improvement within the one-year period preceding the proposed termination date). This multiplier is 0.55. Therefore, the amount of the participant's estimated guaranteed benefit is $412.50 (0.55 × $750) per month.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A participant who is not a majority owner terminated employment on December 31, 2010. On January 1, 2012, she reached age 65 and began receiving a benefit of $250 per month. She had completed three years of service at her termination of employment and was fully vested in her accrued benefit. The plan's vesting schedule had been amended on July 1, 2008. Under the schedule in effect before the amendment, a participant with five years of service was 100 percent vested. There have been no other pertinent amendments. The proposed termination date is December 31, 2012.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Estimated guaranteed benefit.</I> No reduction is required under § 4022.61(b) or (c) because the participant's benefit does not exceed either her accrued benefit at normal retirement age or the maximum guaranteeable benefit. The plan's change of vesting schedule created a new benefit for the participant. Because the amendment was in effect for four full years before the proposed termination date, the second row of Table I of this section is used to determine the applicable multiplier for estimating the amount of the participant's guaranteed benefit. Because the participant did not receive any benefit improvement during the 12-month period ending on the proposed termination date, column (b) of the table is used. Therefore, the multiplier is 0.80, and the amount of the participant's estimated guaranteed benefit is $200 (0.80 × $250) per month.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A participant who is a majority owner retired before the proposed termination date of April 30, 2012. The plan was in effect for seven full years as of the proposed termination date. On the proposed termination date he was entitled to receive a benefit of $2,000 per month. No reduction of this benefit is required under § 4022.61(b) or (c).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Estimated guaranteed benefit.</I> Paragraph (d) of this section is used to compute the amount of the estimated guaranteed benefit of majority owners. Consequently, the amount of this participant's estimated guaranteed benefit is $1,400 ($2,000 × 
<FR>7/10</FR>) per month.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example 4</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A participant who is a majority owner retired before the proposed termination date of April 30, 2012. The plan was in effect for 12 full years as of the proposed termination date. On the proposed termination date he was entitled to receive a benefit of $2,000 per month. No reduction of this benefit is required under § 4022.61(b) or (c).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Estimated guaranteed benefit.</I> Paragraph (d) of this section is used to compute the amount of the estimated guaranteed benefit of majority owners. Since the plan was in effect for more than 10 years as of the proposed termination date, the amount of this participant's estimated guaranteed benefit is $2,000 per month.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996; 61 FR 36626, July 12, 1996; 76 FR 34604, June 14, 2011; 79 FR 25674, May 6, 2014; 83 FR 49804, Oct. 3, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.63" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.63   Estimated asset-funded benefit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If the conditions specified in paragraph (b) exist, the plan administrator shall determine each participant's estimated asset-funded benefit. The estimated asset-funded benefit payable with respect to each participant who is not a majority owner is computed under paragraph (c) of this section. The estimated asset-funded benefit payable with respect to each participant who is a majority owner is computed under paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions for use of this section.</I> The conditions set forth in this paragraph must be satisfied in order to make use of the procedures set forth in this section. If the specified conditions exist, estimated asset-funded benefits must be determined in accordance with these procedures (or in accordance with alternative procedures authorized by PBGC under § 4022.61(f)) for each participant and beneficiary whose benefit under the plan exceeds the limitations contained in § 4022.61(b) or (c) or who is a majority owner or the beneficiary of a majority owner. If the specified conditions do not exist, title IV benefits may be estimated by the plan administrator in accordance with procedures authorized by PBGC, but no such estimate is required. The conditions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) An actuarial valuation of the plan has been performed for a plan year beginning not more than eighteen months before the proposed termination date. If the interest rate used to value plan liabilities in this valuation exceeded the applicable valuation interest rates and factors under § 4044.54 of this chapter in effect on the proposed termination date, the value of benefits in pay status and the value of vested benefits not in pay status on the valuation date must be converted to PBGC's valuation rates and factors.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan has been in effect for at least five full years before the proposed termination date, and the most recent actuarial valuation demonstrates that the value of plan assets, reduced by employee contributions remaining in the plan and interest credited thereon under the terms of the plan, exceeds the present value, adjusted as required under paragraph (b)(1), of all plan benefits in pay status on the valuation date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “proposed termination date” in the first sentence of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Estimated asset-funded benefit payable with respect to a participant who is not a majority owner.</I> For benefits payable with respect to a participant who is not a majority owner, the estimated asset-funded benefit is the estimated priority category 3 benefit computed under this paragraph. Priority category 3 benefits are payable with respect to participants who were, or could have been, in pay status three full years prior to the proposed termination date. The estimated priority category 3 benefit is computed by multiplying the benefit payable with respect to the participant under § 4022.62 (b)(1) and (b)(2) by a fraction, not to exceed one—
</P>
<P>(i) The numerator of which is the benefit that would be payable with respect to the participant at normal retirement age under the provisions of the plan in effect on the date five full years before the proposed termination date, based on the participant's age, service, and compensation as of the earlier of the participant's benefit commencement date or the proposed termination date, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The denominator of which is the benefit that would be payable with respect to the participant at normal retirement age under the provisions of the plan in effect on the proposed termination date, based on the participant's age, service, and compensation as of the earlier of the participant's benefit commencement date or the proposed termination date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “proposed termination date” each place that “proposed termination date” appears in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Estimated asset-funded benefit payable with respect to a majority owner.</I> For benefits payable with respect to a participant who is a majority owner, the estimated asset-funded benefit is the higher of the benefit computed under paragraph (c) of this section or the benefit computed under this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(1) The plan administrator shall first calculate the estimated guaranteed benefit payable with respect to the majority owner as if he or she were not a majority owner, using the method set forth in § 4022.62(c). 
</P>
<P>(2) The benefit computed under paragraph (d)(1) shall be multiplied by the priority category 4 funding ratio. The category 4 funding ratio is the ratio of x to y, not to exceed one, where—
</P>
<P>(i) In a plan with priority category 3 benefits, x equals plan assets minus employee contributions remaining in the plan on the valuation date, with interest credited thereon under the terms of the plan, and the present value of benefits in pay status, and y equals the present value of all vested benefits not in pay status minus such employee contributions and interest; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In a plan with no priority category 3 benefits, x equals plan assets minus employee contributions remaining in the plan on the valuation date, with interest credited thereon under the terms of the plan, and y equals the present value of all vested benefits minus such employee contributions and interest. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples.</I> This section is illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> (A) A participant who is not a majority owner was eligible to retire 3.5 years before the proposed termination date. The participant retired two years before the proposed termination date with 20 years of service. Her final five years' average salary was $45,000, and she was entitled to an unreduced early retirement benefit of $1,500 per month payable as a single life annuity. This retirement benefit does not exceed the limitation in § 4022.61(b) or (c).
</P>
<P>(B) On the participant's benefit commencement date, the plan provided for a normal retirement benefit of 2 percent of the final five years' salary times the number of years of service. Five years before the proposed termination date, the percentage was 1.5 percent. The amendments improving benefits were put into effect 3.5 years before the proposed termination date. There were no other amendments during the five-year period.
</P>
<P>(C) The participant's estimated guaranteed benefit computed under § 4022.62(c) is $1,500 per month times 0.90 (the factor from column (b) of Table I in § 4022.62(c)(2)), or $1,350 per month. It is assumed that the plan meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, and the plan administrator is therefore required to estimate the asset-funded benefit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Estimated asset-funded benefit.</I> (A) For a participant who is not a majority owner, the amount of the estimated asset-funded benefit is the estimated priority category 3 benefit computed under paragraph (c) of this section. This amount is computed by multiplying the participant's benefit under the plan as of the later of the proposed termination date or the benefit commencement date by the ratio of the normal retirement benefit under the provisions of the plan in effect five years before the proposed termination date and the normal retirement benefit under the plan provisions in effect on the proposed termination date.
</P>
<P>(B) Thus, the numerator of the ratio is the benefit that would be payable to the participant under the normal retirement provisions of the plan five years before the proposed termination date, based on her age, service, and compensation on her benefit commencement date. The denominator of the ratio is the benefit that would be payable to the participant under the normal retirement provisions of the plan in effect on the proposed termination date, based on her age, service, and compensation as of the earlier of her benefit commencement date or the proposed termination date. Since the only different factor in the numerator and denominator is the salary percentage, the amount of the estimated asset-funded benefit is $1,125 (0.015/0.020 × $1,500) per month. This amount is less than the estimated guaranteed benefit of $1,350 per month. Therefore, in accordance with § 4022.61(d), the benefit payable to the participant is $1,350 per month.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, the methodology would be the same, but “bankruptcy filing date” would be substituted for “proposed termination date” each place that “proposed termination date” appears in the example, and the numbers would change accordingly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2</I>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> (A) A participant who is a majority owner retired on the proposed termination date of October 31, 2012. The original plan had been in effect for seven full years as of the proposed termination date. Under the provisions of the plan in effect five years before the proposed termination date, the participant is entitled to a single life annuity of $500 per month. The plan was amended to increase benefits three full years before the proposed termination date. Under these plan amendments, the participant is entitled to a single life annuity of $1,000 per month.
</P>
<P>(B) The participant's estimated guaranteed benefit computed under § 4022.62(d) is $455 per month ($1,000 × 0.65 × 
<FR>7/10</FR>).
</P>
<P>(C) It is assumed that all of the conditions in paragraph (b) of this section have been met. Plan assets equal $2 million. The present value of all benefits in pay status is $1.5 million based on applicable PBGC interest rates. There are no employee contributions and the present value of all vested benefits that are not in pay status is $0.75 million based on applicable PBGC interest rates.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Estimated asset-funded benefit.</I> (A) Paragraph (d) of this section provides that the amount of the estimated asset-funded benefit payable with respect to a participant who is a majority owner is the higher of the estimated priority category 3 benefit computed under paragraph (c) of this section or the estimated priority category 4 benefit computed under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Under paragraph (c) of this section, the participant's estimated priority category 3 benefit is $500 ($1,000 × $500/$1,000) per month.
</P>
<P>(C) Under paragraph (d) of this section, the participant's estimated priority category 4 benefit is the estimated guaranteed benefit computed under § 4022.62(c) (<I>i.e.,</I> as if the participant were not a majority owner) multiplied by the priority category 4 funding ratio. Since the plan has priority category 3 benefits, the ratio is determined under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section. The numerator of the ratio is plan assets minus the present value of benefits in pay status. The denominator of the ratio is the present value of all vested benefits that are not in pay status. The participant's estimated guaranteed benefit under § 4022.62(c) is $1,000 per month times 0.65 (the factor from column (b) of Table I in § 4022.62(c)(2)), or $650 per month. Multiplying $650 by the category 4 funding ratio of 
<FR>2/3</FR> (($2 million−$1.5 million)/$0.75 million) produces an estimated category 4 benefit of $433.33 per month.
</P>
<P>(D) Because the estimated category 4 benefit so computed is less than the estimated category 3 benefit so computed, the estimated category 3 benefit is the estimated asset-funded benefit. Because the estimated category 3 benefit so computed is greater than the estimated guaranteed benefit of $455 per month, in accordance with § 4022.61(d), the benefit payable to the participant is the estimated priority category 3 benefit of $500 per month.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996; 61 FR 36626, July 12, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34604, June 14, 2011; 83 FR 49805, Oct. 3, 2018; 89 FR 48299, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—PBGC Recoupment and Reimbursement of Benefit Overpayments and Underpayments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.81" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.81   General rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recoupment of benefit overpayments.</I> If at any time the PBGC determines that net benefits paid with respect to any participant in a PBGC-trusteed plan exceed the total amount to which the participant (and any beneficiary) is entitled up to that time under title IV of ERISA, and the participant (or beneficiary) is, as of the termination date, entitled to receive future benefit payments, the PBGC will recoup the net overpayment in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and § 4022.82. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the PBGC may, in its discretion, recover overpayments by methods other than recouping in accordance with the rules in this subpart. The PBGC will not normally do so unless net benefits paid after the termination date exceed those to which a participant (and any beneficiary) is entitled under the terms of the plan before any reductions under subpart D.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reimbursement of benefit underpayments.</I> If at any time the PBGC determines that net benefits paid with respect to a participant in a PBGC-trusteed plan are less than the amount to which the participant (and any beneficiary) is entitled up to that time under title IV of ERISA, the PBGC will reimburse the participant or beneficiary for the net underpayment in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and § 4022.83.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amount to be recouped or reimbursed.</I> In order to determine the amount to be recouped from, or reimbursed to, a participant (or beneficiary), the PBGC will calculate a monthly account balance for each month ending after the termination date. The PBGC will start with a balance of zero as of the end of the calendar month ending immediately prior to the termination date and determine the account balance as of the end of each month thereafter as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Debit for overpayments.</I> The PBGC will subtract from the account balance the amount of overpayments made in that month. Only overpayments made on or after the latest of the proposed termination date, the termination date, or, if no notice of intent to terminate was issued, the date on which proceedings to terminate the plan are instituted pursuant to section 4042 of ERISA will be included.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit for underpayments.</I> The PBGC will add to the account balance the amount of underpayments made in that month. Only underpayments made on or after the termination date will be included.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section regarding the overpayments and underpayments that will be included in the account balance apply regardless of whether the termination is a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit for interest on net underpayments.</I> If at the end of a month there is a positive account balance (a net underpayment), the PBGC will add to the account balance interest thereon for that month using—
</P>
<P>(i) For months after May 1998, the applicable federal mid-term rate (as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to section 1274(d)(1)(C)(ii) of the Code) for that month (or, where the rate for a month is not available at the time the PBGC calculates the amount to be recouped or reimbursed, the most recent month for which the rate is available) based on monthly compounding; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For May 1998 and earlier months, the immediate annuity rate established for lump sum valuations as set forth in Table II of appendix B of part 4044 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>No interest on net overpayments.</I> If at the end of a month, there is a negative account balance (a net overpayment), there will be no interest adjustment for that month.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Death of participant</I>—(1) <I>Benefit overpayments.</I> If the PBGC determines that, at the time of a participant's death, there was a net overpayment to the participant— 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Future annuity payments.</I> If the participant was entitled to future annuity payments as of the plan's termination date, the PBGC will (except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section) recoup the overpayment from the person (if any) who is receiving survivor benefits under the annuity. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No future annuity payments.</I> If the participant was not entitled to future annuity benefits as of the plan's termination date, the PBGC may seek repayment of the overpayment from the participant's estate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit underpayments.</I> If the PBGC determines that, at the time of a participant's death, there was a net underpayment to the participant— 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Future annuity payments.</I> If the benefit is in the form of a joint-and-survivor or other annuity under which payments may continue after the participant's death, the PBGC will pay the underpayment to the person who is receiving survivor benefits; for this purpose, if the person receiving survivor benefits is an alternate payee under a qualified domestic relations order, the PBGC will treat the benefit as if payments do not continue after the participant's death (see paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No future annuity payments.</I> If the benefit is not in the form of a joint-and-survivor or other annuity (e.g., a certain-and-continuous annuity) under which payments may continue after the participant's death or although the benefit is in such a form payments do not continue after the participant's death (<I>i.e.,</I> in the case of a joint-and-survivor annuity, the person designated to receive survivor benefits predeceased the participant or, in the case of another annuity under which payments may continue after the participant's death the participant died with no payments owed for future periods), the PBGC will pay the underpayment to the person determined under the rules in §§ 4022.91 through 4022.95.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 29354, May 29, 1998, as amended at 67 FR 16956, Apr. 8, 2002; 76 FR 34604, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.82" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.82   Method of recoupment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Future benefit reduction.</I> The PBGC will recoup net overpayments of benefits by reducing the amount of each future benefit payment to which the participant or any beneficiary is entitled by the fraction determined under paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, except that benefit reduction will cease when the amount (without interest) of the net overpayment is recouped. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, the PBGC may accept repayment ahead of the recoupment schedule.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Computation.</I> The PBGC will determine the fractional multiplier by dividing the amount of the net overpayment by the present value of the benefit payable with respect to the participant under title IV of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a non-PPA bankruptcy termination, the PBGC will determine the present value of the benefit to which a participant or beneficiary is entitled under title IV of ERISA as of the termination date, using the PBGC interest rates and factors in effect on that date.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, PBGC will determine the amount of benefit payable with respect to the participant under title IV of ERISA taking into account the limitations in sections 4022(g) and 4044(e) (and corresponding provisions of these regulations), and will determine the present value of that amount as of the termination date, using PBGC interest rates and factors in effect on the termination date.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Facts and circumstances.</I> The PBGC may, however, utilize a different date of determination if warranted by the facts and circumstances of a particular case.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitation on benefit reduction.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the PBGC will reduce benefits with respect to a participant or beneficiary by no more than the greater of—
</P>
<P>(i) Ten percent per month; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of benefit per month in excess of the maximum guaranteeable benefit payable under section 4022(b)(3)(B) of ERISA, determined without adjustment for age and benefit form.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>PBGC notice to participant or beneficiary.</I> Before effecting a benefit reduction pursuant to this paragraph, the PBGC will notify the participant or beneficiary in writing of the amount of the net overpayment and of the amount of the reduced benefit computed under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Waiver of de minimis amounts.</I> The PBGC may, in its discretion, decide not to recoup net overpayments that it determines to be <I>de minimis.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Final installment.</I> The PBGC will cease recoupment one month early if the amount remaining to be recouped in the final month is less than the amount of the monthly reduction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full repayment through recoupment.</I> Recoupment under this section constitutes full repayment of the net overpayment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 29354, May 29, 1998, as amended at 76 FR 34604, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.83" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.83   PBGC reimbursement of benefit underpayments.</HEAD>
<P>When the PBGC determines that there has been a net benefit underpayment made with respect to a participant, it shall pay the participant or beneficiary the amount of the net underpayment, determined in accordance with § 4022.81(c), in a single payment. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34028, July 1, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 29355, May 29, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Certain Payments Owed Upon Death</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 16957, Apr. 8, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4022.91" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.91   When do these rules apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Types of benefits.</I> Provided the conditions in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section are satisfied, these rules (§§ 4022.91 through 4022.95) apply to any benefits we may owe you (including benefits we owe you because your plan owed them) at the time of your death, such as a payment of a lump-sum benefit that we calculated as of your plan's termination date but have not yet paid you or a back payment to reimburse you for monthly underpayments. We may owe you benefits at the time of your death if— 
</P>
<P>(1) You are a participant in a terminated plan; 
</P>
<P>(2) You are a beneficiary (including an alternate payee) of a participant; or 
</P>
<P>(3) You are a designee or other payee (e.g., a participant's next of kin) under these rules, as explained in § 4022.93. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payments do not continue after death.</I> These rules apply only if payments do not continue after your death. (If payments continue after your death, we will make up any underpayment to you at the time of your death under the rule in § 4022.81(d)(2)(i) by paying it to the person who is entitled to receive those continuing payments.) Payments do not continue after your death if— 
</P>
<P>(1) Your benefit is not in the form of a joint-and-survivor or other annuity under which payments may continue after your death (e.g., a certain-and-continuous annuity); 
</P>
<P>(2) Your benefit is in the form of a joint-and-survivor annuity and the person designated to receive survivor benefits died before you; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Your benefit is in the form of another type of annuity under which payments may continue after your death (e.g., a certain-and-continuous annuity) but you die with no payments owed for future periods. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time of death.</I> These rules apply only if you die— 
</P>
<P>(1) On or after the date we take over your plan (as trustee); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Before the date we take over your plan, to the extent that, by that date, the plan administrator has not paid all benefits owed to you at the time of your death. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of plan or will.</I> These rules apply even if there is a contrary provision in a plan or will. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.92" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.92   What definitions do I need to know for these rules?</HEAD>
<P>You need to know three definitions from § 4001.2 of this chapter (PBGC, person, and plan) and the following definitions: 
</P>
<P>“We” means the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>“You” means the person to whom we may owe benefits at the time of death. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.93" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.6.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.93   Who will get benefits PBGC may owe me at the time of my death?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, we will pay any benefits we owe you at the time of your death to the person(s) surviving you in the following order—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Designee with the PBGC.</I> The person(s) you designated with us to get any benefits we may owe you at the time of your death. See § 4022.94 for information on designating with us. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spouse.</I> Your spouse. We will consider a person to whom you are married to be your spouse even if you and that person are separated, unless a decree of divorce or annulment has been entered in a court. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Children.</I> Your children and descendants of your deceased children. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adopted children.</I> In determining who is a child or descendant, an adopted child is treated the same way as a natural child. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Child dies before parent.</I> If one of your children dies before you, any of your grandchildren through that deceased child will equally divide that deceased child's share; if one of your grandchildren through that deceased child dies before that deceased child, any of your great-grandchildren through that deceased grandchild will equally divide that deceased grandchild's share; and so on. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Parents.</I> Your parents. A parent includes an adoptive parent. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Estate.</I> Your estate, provided your estate is open. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Next of kin.</I> Your next of kin in accordance with applicable state law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pre-trusteeship deaths.</I> If you die before the date we take over your plan and, by that date, the plan administrator has not paid all benefits owed to you at the time of your death, we will pay any benefits we owe you at the time of your death to the person(s) designated by or under the plan to get those benefits (provided the designation clearly applies to those benefits). If there is no such designation, we will pay those benefits to your spouse, children, parents, estate, or next of kin under the rules in paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deaths shortly after trusteeship.</I> If you die within 180 days after the date we take over your plan and you have not designated anyone with the PBGC under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, we will pay any benefits we owe you at the time of your death to the person(s) designated by or under the plan to get those benefits (provided the designation clearly applies to those benefits) before paying those benefits to your spouse, children, parents, estate, or next of kin under the rules in paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Lump-sum payments to surviving spouses.</I> For a deceased participant whose benefit under § 4022.7(b) has a lump-sum value not exceeding the dollar amount specified in section 203(e)(1) of ERISA, payment will be made to the surviving spouse (if any) if such spouse would otherwise be entitled to receive a qualified preretirement survivor annuity under section 205(a)(2) of ERISA, and the surviving spouse will receive highest priority under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 16957, Apr. 8, 2002, as amended at 88 FR 44052, July 11, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.94" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.6.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.94   What are the PBGC's rules on designating a person to get benefits the PBGC may owe me at the time of my death?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When you may designate.</I> At any time on or after the date we take over your plan, you may designate with us who will get any benefits we owe you at the time of your death. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Change of designee.</I> If you want to change the person(s) you designate with us, you must submit another designation to us. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>If your designee dies before you</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the person(s) you designate with us dies before you or at the same time as you, we will treat you as not having designated anyone with us (unless you named an alternate designee who survives you). Therefore, you should keep your designation with us current. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Simultaneous deaths.</I> If you and a person you designated die as a result of the same event, we will treat you and that person as having died at the same time, provided you and that person die within 30 days of each other. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.95" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.6.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.95   Examples.</HEAD>
<P>The following examples show how the rules in §§ 4022.91 through 4022.94 apply. For examples on how these rules apply in the case of a certain-and-continuous annuity, see § 4022.104. 
</P>
<P>At the time of his death, Charlie was receiving payments under a joint-and-survivor annuity. Charlie designated Ellen to receive survivor benefits under his joint-and-survivor annuity. We underpaid Charlie for periods before his death. At the time of his death, we owed Charlie a back payment to reimburse him for those underpayments. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Example 1: where surviving beneficiary is alive at participant's death.</I> Ellen survived Charlie. As explained in § 4022.91(b), because Ellen is entitled to survivor benefits under the joint-and-survivor annuity, we would pay Ellen the back payment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Example 2: where surviving beneficiary predeceases participant.</I> Ellen died before Charlie. As explained in §§ 4022.91(b) and 4022.93, because benefits do not continue after Charlie's death under the joint-and-survivor annuity, we would pay the back payment to the person(s) Charlie designated to receive any payments we might owe him at the time of his death. If Charlie did not designate anyone to receive those payments or his designee died before him, we would pay the back payment to the person(s) surviving Charlie in the following order: spouse, children, parents, estate and next of kin.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Certain-and-Continuous and Similar Annuity Payments Owed for Future Periods After Death</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 16958, Apr. 8, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4022.101" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.101   When do these rules apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> These rules (§§ 4022.101 through 4022.104) apply only if you die— 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Required payments for future periods.</I> Without having received all required payments for future periods under a form of annuity promising that, regardless of a participant's death, there will be annuity payments for a certain period of time (e.g., a certain-and-continuous annuity) or until a certain amount is paid (e.g., a cash-refund annuity or installment-refund annuity); 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No surviving beneficiary.</I> Without a surviving beneficiary designated to receive the payments described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time of death.</I> (i) On or after the date we take over your plan (as trustee); or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Before the date we take over your plan, to the extent that, by that date, the plan administrator has not paid any required payments for future periods. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of plan or will.</I> These rules apply even if there is a contrary provision in a plan or will. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payments owed at time of death.</I> See §§ 4022.91 through 4022.95 for rules that apply to benefits we may owe you at the time of your death, such as a correction for monthly underpayments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.102" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.102   What definitions do I need to know for these rules?</HEAD>
<P>You need to know three definitions from § 4001.2 of this chapter (PBGC, person, and plan) and the following definitions: 
</P>
<P>“We” means the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>“You” means the person who might die— 
</P>
<P>(1) Without having received all required payments for future periods under a form of annuity promising that, regardless of a participant's death, there will be annuity payments for a certain period of time (e.g., a certain-and-continuous annuity) or until a certain amount is paid (e.g., a cash-refund annuity or installment-refund annuity); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Without a surviving beneficiary designated to receive the payments described in paragraph (1) of this definition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.103" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.103   Who will get benefits if I die when payments for future periods under a certain-and-continuous or similar annuity are owed upon my death?</HEAD>
<P>If you die at a time when payments are owed for future periods under a form of annuity promising that, regardless of a participant's death, there will be annuity payments for a certain period of time (e.g., a certain-and-continuous annuity) or until a certain amount is paid (e.g., a cash-refund annuity or installment-refund annuity), and there is no surviving beneficiary designated to receive such payments, we will pay the remaining payments to the person determined under the rules in § 4022.93.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4022.104" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022.104   Examples.</HEAD>
<P>The following examples show how the rules in §§ 4022.101 through 4022.103 and 4022.91 through 4022.94 apply in the case of a certain-and-continuous annuity. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(a) <I>C&amp;C annuity with no underpayment.</I> At the time of his death, Charlie was receiving payments (in the correct amount) under a 5-year certain-and-continuous annuity. Charlie designated Ellen to receive any payments we might owe for periods after his death (but did not designate an alternate beneficiary to receive those payments in case Ellen died before him). Charlie died with three years of payments remaining. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1: where surviving beneficiary predeceases participant.</I> Ellen died before Charlie. As explained in §§ 4022.103 and 4022.93, we would pay the remaining three years of payments to the person(s) surviving Charlie in the following order: spouse, children, parents, estate and next of kin. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2: where surviving beneficiary dies during certain period.</I> Ellen survived Charlie and lived another year. We pay Ellen one year of payments. As explained in §§ 4022.103 and 4022.93, we would pay the remaining two years of payments to the person Ellen designated to receive any payments we might owe for periods after Ellen's death. If Ellen did not designate anyone to receive those payments or her designee died before her, we would pay the remaining year of payments to the person(s) surviving Ellen in the following order: spouse, children, parents, estate, next of kin. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>C&amp;C annuity with underpayment.</I> At the time of his death, Charlie was receiving payments under a 5-year certain-and-continuous annuity. Charlie designated Ellen to receive any payments we might owe for periods after his death. We underpaid Charlie for periods before his death. At the time of his death, we owed Charlie a back payment to reimburse him for those underpayments. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 3: where participant dies during certain period.</I> Charlie died with three years of payments remaining. Ellen survived Charlie and lived at least another three years. We pay Ellen the remaining three years of payments. As explained in § 4022.91(b), because Ellen is entitled to survivor benefits under the certain-and-continuous annuity, we would pay Ellen the back payment for the underpayments to Charlie (and for any underpayments to Ellen). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 4: where participant and surviving beneficiary die during certain period.</I> Charlie died with three years of payments remaining. Ellen survived Charlie and lived another year. We paid Ellen one year of payments. Ellen designated Jean to receive any payments we might owe for periods after Ellen's death. Jean survived Ellen and lives at least another two years. We pay Jean the remaining two years of payments. As explained in § 4022.91(b), because Jean is entitled to survivor benefits under the certain-and-continuous annuity, we would pay Jean the back payment for the underpayments to Charlie (and for any underpayments to Ellen). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 5: where participant dies after certain period.</I> Charlie died after receiving seven years of payments. As explained in §§ 4022.91(b) and 4022.93, because benefits do not continue after Charlie's death under the certain-and-continuous annuity, we would pay the back payment to the person(s) Charlie designated to receive any payments we might owe him at the time of his death in case he died after the end of certain period. If Charlie did not designate anyone to receive those payments or his designee died before him, we would pay the back payment to the person(s) surviving Charlie in the following order: spouse, children, parents, estate and next of kin.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.7.11.5.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes A and B to Part 4022 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.8.7.11.5.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 4022—Lump Sum Interest Rates for Private-Sector Payments
</HEAD>
<P>[In using this table:
</P>
<P>(1) To determine the applicable rate set for any given month (month x), use the applicable 12-year rate for the second preceding month (month x−2) to find the corresponding rate set. The applicable 12-year rate for the second preceding month is the 12-year rate from the corporate bond yield curve described in section 430(h)(2)(D)(ii) of the Code determined without regard to 24-month averaging for the second month preceding the month of the desired applicable rate set.
</P>
<P>(2) For benefits for which the participant or beneficiary is entitled to be in pay status on the valuation date, the immediate annuity rate shall apply.
</P>
<P>(3) For benefits for which the deferral period is y years (where y is an integer and 0 &lt; y ≤ 7), interest rate i<E T="52">1</E> shall apply from the valuation date for a period of y years; thereafter the immediate annuity rate shall apply.
</P>
<P>(4) For benefits for which the deferral period is y years (where y is an integer and 7 &lt; y ≤ 15), interest rate i<E T="52">2</E> shall apply from the valuation date for a period of y−7 years; interest rate i<E T="52">1</E> shall apply for the following 7 years; thereafter the immediate annuity rate shall apply.
</P>
<P>(5) For benefits for which the deferral period is y years (where y is an integer and y &gt; 15), interest rate i<E T="52">3</E> shall apply from the valuation date for a period of y−15 years; interest rate i<E T="52">2</E> shall apply for the following 8 years; interest rate i<E T="52">1</E> shall apply for the following 7 years; thereafter the immediate annuity rate shall apply.]
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">For Plans With a Valuation Date On or After January 1, 2021
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Applicable 12-year rate for month x−2
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Applicable rate set for month x
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Immediate
<br/>annuity rate
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Deferred annuity rates
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">i<E T="0732">1</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">i<E T="0732">2</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">i<E T="0732">3</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 3.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.18 to 3.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.41 to 3.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.64 to 3.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.88 to 4.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.11 to 4.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.35 to 4.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.58 to 4.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.82 to 5.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.05 to 5.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.29 to 5.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.52 to 5.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.76 to 5.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.99 to 6.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.23 to 6.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.47 to 6.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.70 to 6.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.94 to 7.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.17 to 7.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.41 to 7.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.65 to 7.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.88 to 8.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.12 to 8.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.36 to 8.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.59 to 8.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.83 to 9.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9.07 to 9.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9.31 to 9.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9.54 to 9.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9.79 to 10.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Above 10.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 55591, Sept. 9, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4022B" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4022B—AGGREGATE LIMITS ON GUARANTEED BENEFITS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1322B.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 4022B.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.16.9.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4022B.1   Aggregate payments limitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Benefits with respect to two or more plans.</I> If a person (or persons) is entitled to benefits payable with respect to one participant in two or more plans, the aggregate benefits payable by PBGC from its funds is limited by § 4022.22 of this chapter (without regard to § 4022.22(a)). The PBGC will determine the limitation as of the date of the last plan termination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits with respect to two or more participants.</I> The PBGC will not aggregate the benefits payable with respect to one participant with the benefits payable with respect to any other participant (e.g., if an individual is entitled to benefits both as a participant and as the spouse of a deceased participant).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 16959, Apr. 8, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="E" NODE="29:9.1.4.17" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E—PLAN TERMINATIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4041" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4041—TERMINATION OF SINGLE-EMPLOYER PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1341, 1344, 1350.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the rules and procedures for terminating a single-employer plan in a standard or distress termination under section 4041 of ERISA, the exclusive means of voluntarily terminating a plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: affected party, annuity, benefit liabilities, Code, contributing sponsor, controlled group, distress termination, distribution date, EIN, employer, ERISA, guaranteed benefit, insurer, irrevocable commitment, IRS, mandatory employee contributions, normal retirement age, notice of intent to terminate, PBGC, person, plan administrator, plan year, PN, single-employer plan, standard termination, termination date, and title IV benefit. In addition, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Distress termination notice</I> means the notice filed with the PBGC pursuant to § 4041.45.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution notice</I> means the notice issued to the plan administrator by the PBGC pursuant to § 4041.47(c) upon the PBGC's determination that the plan has sufficient assets to pay at least guaranteed benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Majority owner</I> means, with respect to a contributing sponsor of a single-employer plan, an individual who owns, directly or indirectly, 50 percent or more (taking into account the constructive ownership rules of section 414(b) and (c) of the Code) of—
</P>
<P>(1) An unincorporated trade or business;
</P>
<P>(2) The capital interest or the profits interest in a partnership; or
</P>
<P>(3) Either the voting stock of a corporation or the value of all of the stock of a corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of noncompliance</I> means a notice issued to a plan administrator by the PBGC pursuant to § 4041.31 advising the plan administrator that the requirements for a standard termination have not been satisfied and that the plan is an ongoing plan.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of plan benefits</I> means the notice to each participant and beneficiary required by § 4041.24.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual who is currently in employment covered by the plan and who is earning or retaining credited service under the plan, including any individual who is considered covered under the plan for purposes of meeting the minimum participation requirements but who, because of offset or similar provisions, does not have any accrued benefits;
</P>
<P>(2) Any nonvested individual who is not currently in employment covered by the plan but who is earning or retaining credited service under the plan; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any individual who is retired or separated from employment covered by the plan and who is receiving benefits under the plan or is entitled to begin receiving benefits under the plan in the future, excluding any such individual to whom an insurer has made an irrevocable commitment to pay all the benefits to which the individual is entitled under the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Plan benefits</I> means benefit liabilities determined as of the termination date (taking into account the rules in § 4041.8(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Proposed termination date</I> means the date specified as such by the plan administrator in the notice of intent to terminate or, if later, in the standard or distress termination notice.
</P>
<P><I>Residual assets</I> means the plan assets remaining after all plan benefits and other liabilities (e.g., PBGC premiums) of the plan have been satisfied (taking into account the rules in § 4041.8(b)).
</P>
<P><I>Standard termination notice</I> means the notice filed with the PBGC pursuant to § 4041.25.
</P>
<P><I>State guaranty association</I> means an association of insurers created by a State, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to pay benefits and to continue coverage, within statutory limits, under life and health insurance policies and annuity contracts when an insurer fails.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.3   Computation of time; filing and issuance rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Computation of time.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part. A proposed termination date may be any day, including a weekend or Federal holiday. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing with the PBGC</I>—(1) <I>Method and date of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuance to third parties.</I> The following rules apply to affected parties (other than the PBGC). For purposes of this paragraph (c), a person entitled to notice under the spin-off/termination transaction rules of § 4041.23(c) or § 4041.24(f) is treated as an affected party. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Method and date of issuance.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance under this part. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that an issuance under this part was provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Omission of affected parties.</I> The failure to issue any notice to an affected party (other than any employee organization) within the specified time period will not cause the notice to be untimely if—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>After-discovered affected parties.</I> The plan administrator could not reasonably have been expected to know of the affected party, and issues the notice promptly after discovering the affected party; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unlocated participants.</I> The plan administrator could not locate the affected party after making reasonable efforts, and issues the notice promptly in the event the affected party is located.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deceased participants.</I> In the case of a deceased participant, the plan administrator need not issue a notice to the participant's estate if the estate is not entitled to a distribution.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form of notices to affected parties.</I> All notices to affected parties must be readable and written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant. The plan administrator may provide additional information with a notice only if the information is not misleading.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Foreign languages.</I> The plan administrator of a plan that (as of the proposed termination date) covers the numbers or percentages in § 2520.104b-10(e) of this title of participants literate only in the same non-English language must, for any notice to affected parties—
</P>
<P>(i) Include a prominent legend in that common non-English language advising them how to obtain assistance in understanding the notice; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the notice in that common non-English language to those affected parties literate only in that language.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 61353, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.4   Disaster relief.</HEAD>
<P>When the President of the United States declares that, under the Disaster Relief Act (42 U.S.C. 5121, 5122(2), 5141(b)), a major disaster exists, the Executive Director of the PBGC (or his or her designee) may, by issuing one or more notices of disaster relief, extend by up to 180 days any due date under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.5   Record retention and availability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retention requirement</I>—(1) <I>Persons subject to requirement; records to be retained.</I> Each contributing sponsor and the plan administrator of a plan terminating in a standard termination, or in a distress termination that closes out in accordance with § 4041.50, must maintain all records necessary to demonstrate compliance with section 4041 of ERISA and this part. If a contributing sponsor or the plan administrator maintains information in accordance with this section, the other(s) need not maintain that information. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retention period.</I> The records described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be preserved for six years after the date when the post-distribution certification under this part is filed with the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electronic recordkeeping.</I> The contributing sponsor or plan administrator may use electronic media for maintenance and retention of records required by this part in accordance with the requirements of subpart E of part 4000 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of records.</I> The contributing sponsor or plan administrator must make all records needed to determine compliance with section 4041 of ERISA and this part available to the PBGC upon request for inspection and photocopying (or, for electronic records, inspection, electronic copying, and printout) at the location where they are kept (or another, mutually agreeable, location) and must submit such records to the PBGC within 30 days after the date of a written request by the PBGC or by a later date specified therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61353, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.6   Effect of failure to provide required information.</HEAD>
<P>If a plan administrator fails to provide any information required under this part within the specified time limit, the PBGC may assess a penalty under section 4071 of ERISA. The PBGC may also pursue any other equitable or legal remedies available to it under the law, including, if appropriate, the issuance of a notice of noncompliance under § 4041.31.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 81 FR 29766, May 13, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.7   Challenges to plan termination under collective bargaining agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspension upon formal challenge to termination</I>—(1) <I>Notice of formal challenge.</I> (i) If the PBGC is advised, before its review period under § 4041.26(a) ends, or before issuance of a notice of inability to determine sufficiency or a distribution notice under § 4041.47(b) or (c), that a formal challenge to the termination has been initiated as described in paragraph (c) of this section, the PBGC will suspend the termination proceeding and so advise the plan administrator in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the PBGC is advised of a challenge described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section after the time specified therein, the PBGC may suspend the termination proceeding and will so advise the plan administrator in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard terminations.</I> During any period of suspension in a standard termination—
</P>
<P>(i) The running of all time periods specified in ERISA or this part relevant to the termination will be suspended; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan administrator must comply with the prohibitions in § 4041.22.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Distress terminations.</I> During any period of suspension in a distress termination—
</P>
<P>(i) The issuance by the PBGC of any notice of inability to determine sufficiency or distribution notice will be stayed or, if any such notice was previously issued, its effectiveness will be stayed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan administrator must comply with the prohibitions in § 4041.42; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan administrator must file a distress termination notice with the PBGC pursuant to § 4041.45.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Existing collective bargaining agreement.</I> For purposes of this section, an existing collective bargaining agreement means a collective bargaining agreement that has not been made inoperative by a judicial ruling and, by its terms, either has not expired or is extended beyond its stated expiration date because neither of the collective bargaining parties took the required action to terminate it. When a collective bargaining agreement no longer meets these conditions, it ceases to be an “existing collective bargaining agreement,” whether or not any or all of its terms may continue to apply by operation of law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal challenge to termination.</I> A formal challenge to a plan termination asserting that the termination would violate the terms and conditions of an existing collective bargaining agreement is initiated when—
</P>
<P>(1) Any procedure specified in the collective bargaining agreement for resolving disputes under the agreement commences; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any action before an arbitrator, administrative agency or board, or court under applicable labor-management relations law commences.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resolution of challenge.</I> Immediately upon the final resolution of the challenge, the plan administrator must notify the PBGC in writing of the outcome of the challenge, provide the PBGC with a copy of any award or order, and, if the validity of the proposed termination has been upheld, advise the PBGC whether the proposed termination is to proceed. The final resolution ends the suspension period under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Challenge sustained.</I> If the final resolution is that the proposed termination violates an existing collective bargaining agreement, the PBGC will dismiss the termination proceeding, all actions taken to effect the plan termination will be null and void, and the plan will be an ongoing plan. In this event, in a distress termination, § 4041.42(d) will apply as of the date of the dismissal by the PBGC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination sustained.</I> If the final resolution is that the proposed termination does not violate an existing collective bargaining agreement and the plan administrator has notified the PBGC that the termination is to proceed, the PBGC will reactivate the termination proceeding by sending a written notice thereof to the plan administrator, and—
</P>
<P>(i) The termination proceeding will continue from the point where it was suspended;
</P>
<P>(ii) All actions taken to effect the termination before the suspension will be effective;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any time periods that were suspended will resume running from the date of the PBGC's notice of the reactivation of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any time periods that had fewer than 15 days remaining will be extended to the 15th day after the date of the PBGC's notice, or such later date as the PBGC may specify; and
</P>
<P>(v) In a distress termination, the PBGC will proceed to issue a notice of inability to determine sufficiency or a distribution notice (or reactivate any such notice stayed under paragraph (a)(3) of this section), either with or without first requesting updated information from the plan administrator pursuant to § 4041.45(c).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final resolution of challenge.</I> A formal challenge to a proposed termination is finally resolved when—
</P>
<P>(1) The parties involved in the challenge enter into a settlement that resolves the challenge;
</P>
<P>(2) A final award, administrative decision, or court order is issued that is not subject to review or appeal; or
</P>
<P>(3) A final award, administrative decision, or court order is issued that is not appealed, or review or enforcement of which is not sought, within the time for filing an appeal or requesting review or enforcement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Involuntary termination by the PBGC.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the PBGC retains the authority in any case to initiate a plan termination in accordance with the provisions of section 4042 of ERISA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.8   Post-termination amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Plan benefits.</I> A participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits are determined under the plan's provisions in effect on the plan's termination date. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, an amendment that is adopted after the plan's termination date is taken into account with respect to a participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits to the extent the amendment—
</P>
<P>(1) Does not decrease the value of the participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits under the plan's provisions in effect on the termination date; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not eliminate or restrict any form of benefit available to the participant or beneficiary on the plan's termination date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Residual assets.</I> In a plan in which participants or beneficiaries will receive some or all of the plan's residual assets based on an allocation formula, the amount of the plan's residual assets and each participant's or beneficiary's share thereof is determined under the plan's provisions in effect on the plan's termination date. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, an amendment adopted after the plan's termination date is taken into account with respect to a participant's or beneficiary's allocation of residual assets to the extent the amendment does not decrease the value of the participant's or beneficiary's allocation of residual assets under the plan's provisions in effect on the termination date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permitted decreases.</I> For purposes of this section, an amendment shall not be treated as decreasing the value of a participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits or allocation of residual assets to the extent—
</P>
<P>(1) The decrease is necessary to meet a qualification requirement under section 401 of the Code;
</P>
<P>(2) The participant's or beneficiary's allocation of residual assets is paid in the form of an increase in the participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits; or
</P>
<P>(3) The decrease is offset by assets that would otherwise revert to the contributing sponsor or by additional contributions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distress terminations.</I> In the case of a distress termination, a participant's or beneficiary's benefit liabilities are determined as of the termination date in the same manner as plan benefits under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standard Termination Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.21   Requirements for a standard termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice and distribution requirements.</I> A standard termination is valid if the plan administrator—
</P>
<P>(1) Issues a notice of intent to terminate to all affected parties (other than the PBGC) in accordance with § 4041.23;
</P>
<P>(2) Issues notices of plan benefits to all affected parties entitled to plan benefits in accordance with § 4041.24;
</P>
<P>(3) Files a standard termination notice with the PBGC in accordance with § 4041.25;
</P>
<P>(4) Distributes the plan's assets in satisfaction of plan benefits in accordance with § 4041.28(a) and (c); and
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a spin-off/termination transaction (as defined in § 4041.23(c)), issues the notices required by § 4041.23(c), § 4041.24(f), and § 4041.27(a)(2) in accordance with such sections.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan sufficiency</I>—(1) <I>Commitment to make plan sufficient.</I> A contributing sponsor of a plan or any other member of the plan's controlled group may make a commitment to contribute any additional sums necessary to enable the plan to satisfy plan benefits in accordance with § 4041.28. A commitment will be valid only if—
</P>
<P>(i) It is made to the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is in writing, signed by the contributing sponsor or controlled group member(s); and
</P>
<P>(iii) In any case in which the person making the commitment is the subject of a bankruptcy liquidation or reorganization proceeding, as described in § 4041.41(c)(1) or (c)(2), the commitment is approved by the court before which the liquidation or reorganization proceeding is pending or a person not in bankruptcy unconditionally guarantees to meet the commitment at or before the time distribution of assets is required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative treatment of majority owner's benefit.</I> A majority owner may elect to forgo receipt of his or her plan benefits to the extent necessary to enable the plan to satisfy all other plan benefits in accordance with § 4041.28. Any such alternative treatment of the majority owner's plan benefits is valid only if—
</P>
<P>(i) The majority owner's election is in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) In any case in which the plan would require the spouse of the majority owner to consent to distribution of the majority owner's receipt of his or her plan benefits in a form other than a qualified joint and survivor annuity, the spouse consents in writing to the election;
</P>
<P>(iii) The majority owner makes the election and the spouse consents during the time period beginning with the date of issuance of the first notice of intent to terminate and ending with the date of the last distribution;
</P>
<P>(iv) Neither the majority owner's election nor the spouse's consent is inconsistent with a qualified domestic relations order (as defined in section 206(d)(3) of ERISA); and
</P>
<P>(v) In any case in which the majority owner has an option to acquire any outstanding interest in an organization, such interest will be considered as owned by such person only if the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The person has a 5 percent or more direct ownership interest; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such person has been a member of the board of directors or officer of the plan sponsor, or a fiduciary of the plan for each of the 3 years immediately preceding the date of the plan termination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 90 FR 39327, Aug. 15, 2025; 90 FR 46348, Sept. 26, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.22   Administration of plan during pendency of termination process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A plan administrator may distribute plan assets in connection with the termination of the plan only in accordance with the provisions of this part. From the first day the plan administrator issues a notice of intent to terminate to the last day of the PBGC's review period under § 4041.26(a), the plan administrator must continue to carry out the normal operations of the plan. During that time period, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the plan administrator may not—
</P>
<P>(1) Purchase irrevocable commitments to provide any plan benefits; or
</P>
<P>(2) Pay benefits attributable to employer contributions, other than death benefits, in any form other than an annuity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> The plan administrator may pay benefits attributable to employer contributions either through the purchase of irrevocable commitments or in a form other than an annuity if—
</P>
<P>(1) The participant has separated from active employment or is otherwise permitted under the Code to receive the distribution;
</P>
<P>(2) The distribution is consistent with prior plan practice; and
</P>
<P>(3) The distribution is not reasonably expected to jeopardize the plan's sufficiency for plan benefits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.23" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.23   Notice of intent to terminate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> At least 60 days and no more than 90 days before the proposed termination date, the plan administrator must issue a notice of intent to terminate to each person (other than the PBGC) that is an affected party as of the proposed termination date. In the case of a beneficiary of a deceased participant or an alternate payee, the plan administrator must issue a notice of intent to terminate promptly to any person that becomes an affected party after the proposed termination date and on or before the distribution date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Early issuance of NOIT.</I> The PBGC may consider a notice of intent to terminate to be timely under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the notice was early by a <I>de minimis</I> number of days and the PBGC finds that the early issuance was the result of administrative error.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The PBGC's standard termination forms and instructions package includes a model notice of intent to terminate. The notice of intent to terminate must include—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identifying information.</I> The name and PN of the plan, the name and EIN of each contributing sponsor, and the name, address, and telephone number of the person who may be contacted by an affected party with questions concerning the plan's termination;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intent to terminate plan.</I> A statement that the plan administrator intends to terminate the plan in a standard termination as of a specified proposed termination date and will notify the affected party if the proposed termination date is changed to a later date or if the termination does not occur;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sufficiency requirement.</I> A statement that, in order to terminate in a standard termination, plan assets must be sufficient to provide all plan benefits under the plan;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cessation of accruals.</I> A statement (as applicable) that—
</P>
<P>(i) Benefit accruals will cease as of the termination date, but will continue if the plan does not terminate;
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan amendment has been adopted under which benefit accruals will cease, in accordance with section 204(h) of ERISA, as of the proposed termination date or a specified date before the proposed termination date, whether or not the plan is terminated; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Benefit accruals ceased, in accordance with section 204(h) of ERISA, as of a specified date before the notice of intent to terminate was issued;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Annuity information.</I> If required under § 4041.27, the annuity information described therein;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Benefit information.</I> A statement that each affected party entitled to plan benefits will receive a written notification regarding his or her plan benefits;
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Summary plan description.</I> A statement as to how an affected party entitled to receive the latest updated summary plan description under section 104(b) of ERISA can obtain it.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Continuation of monthly benefits.</I> For persons who are, as of the proposed termination date, in pay status, a statement (as applicable)—
</P>
<P>(i) That their monthly (or other periodic) benefit amounts will not be affected by the plan's termination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Explaining how their monthly (or other periodic) benefit amounts will be affected under plan provisions); and
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Extinguishment of guarantee.</I> A statement that after plan assets have been distributed in full satisfaction of all plan benefits under the plan with respect to a participant or a beneficiary of a deceased participant, either by the purchase of irrevocable commitments (annuity contracts) or by an alternative form of distribution provided for under the plan, the PBGC no longer guarantees that participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Spin-off/termination transactions.</I> In the case of a transaction in which a single defined benefit plan is split into two or more plans and there is a reversion of residual assets to an employer upon the termination of one or more but fewer than all of the resulting plans (a “spin-off/termination transaction”), the plan administrator must, within the time period specified in paragraph (a) of this section, provide a notice describing the transaction to all participants, beneficiaries of deceased participants, and alternate payees in the original plan who are, as of the proposed termination date, covered by an ongoing plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.24" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.24   Notices of plan benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> The plan administrator must, no later than the time the plan administrator files the standard termination notice with the PBGC, issue a notice of plan benefits to each person (other than the PBGC and any employee organization) who is an affected party as of the proposed termination date. In the case of a beneficiary of a deceased participant or an alternate payee, the plan administrator must issue a notice of plan benefits promptly to any person that becomes an affected party after the proposed termination date and on or before the distribution date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The plan administrator must include in each notice of plan benefits—
</P>
<P>(1) The name and PN of the plan, the name and EIN of each contributing sponsor, and the name, address, and telephone number of an individual who may be contacted to answer questions concerning plan benefits;
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed termination date given in the notice of intent to terminate and any extended proposed termination date under § 4041.25(b);
</P>
<P>(3) If the amount of plan benefits set forth in the notice is an estimate, a statement that the amount is an estimate and that plan benefits paid may be greater than or less than the estimate;
</P>
<P>(4) Except in the case of an affected party in pay status for more than one year as of the proposed termination date—
</P>
<P>(i) The personal data (if available) needed to calculate the affected party's plan benefits, along with a statement requesting that the affected party promptly correct any information he or she believes to be incorrect; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If any of the personal data needed to calculate the affected party's plan benefits is not available, the best available data, along with a statement informing the affected party of the data not available and affording him or her the opportunity to provide it; and
</P>
<P>(5) The information in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Benefits of persons in pay status.</I> For an affected party in pay status as of the proposed termination date, the plan administrator must include in the notice of plan benefits—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount and form of the participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits payable as of the proposed termination date;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount and form of plan benefits, if any, payable to a beneficiary upon the participant's death and the name of the beneficiary; and
</P>
<P>(3) The amount and date of any increase or decrease in the benefit scheduled to occur (or that has already occurred) after the proposed termination date and an explanation of the increase or decrease, including, where applicable, a reference to the pertinent plan provision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Benefits of persons with valid elections or de minimis benefits.</I> For an affected party who, as of the proposed termination date, has validly elected a form and starting date with respect to plan benefits not yet in pay status, or with respect to whom the plan administrator has determined that a nonconsensual lump sum distribution will be made, the plan administrator must include in the notice of plan benefits—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount and form of the person's plan benefits payable as of the projected benefit starting date, and what that date is;
</P>
<P>(2) The information in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) If the plan benefits will be paid in any form other than a lump sum and the age at which, or form in which, the plan benefits will be paid differs from the normal retirement benefit—
</P>
<P>(i) The age or form stated in the plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The age or form adjustment factors; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the plan benefits will be paid in a lump sum—
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of when a lump sum may be paid without the consent of the participant or the participant's spouse;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the mortality table used to convert to the lump sum benefit (e.g., the mortality table published by the IRS in Revenue Ruling 95-6, 1995-1 C.B. 80) and a reference to the pertinent plan provisions;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the interest rate to be used to convert to the lump sum benefit (e.g., the 30-year Treasury rate for the third month before the month in which the lump sum is distributed), a reference to the pertinent plan provision, and (if known) the applicable interest rate;
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of how interest rates are used to calculate lump sums;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the use of a higher interest rate results in a smaller lump sum amount; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that the applicable interest rate may change before the distribution date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Benefits of all other persons not in pay status.</I> For any other affected party not described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section (or described therein only with respect to a portion of the affected party's plan benefits), the plan administrator must include in the notice of plan benefits—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount and form of the person's plan benefits payable at normal retirement age in any one form permitted under the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Any alternative benefit forms, including those payable to a beneficiary upon the person's death either before or after benefits commence;
</P>
<P>(3) If the person is or may become entitled to a benefit that would be payable before normal retirement age, the amount and form of benefit that would be payable at the earliest benefit commencement date (or, if more than one such form is payable at the earliest benefit commencement date, any one of those forms) and whether the benefit commencing on such date would be subject to future reduction; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the plan benefits may be paid in a lump sum, the information in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Spin-off/termination transactions.</I> In the case of a spin-off/termination transaction (as defined in § 4041.23(c)), the plan administrator must, no later than the time the plan administrator files the standard termination notice for any terminating plan, provide all participants, beneficiaries of deceased participants, and alternate payees in the original plan who are (as of the proposed termination date) covered by an ongoing plan with a notice of plan benefits containing the information in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.25" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.25   Standard termination notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> The plan administrator must file with PBGC a standard termination notice, consisting of PBGC Form 500, completed in accordance with the instructions thereto, on or before the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(1) One hundred-eighty (180) days after the proposed termination date; or
</P>
<P>(2) Sixty (60) days before making any distribution governed by section 4041(b) of ERISA and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Change of proposed termination date.</I> The plan administrator may, in the standard termination notice, select a proposed termination date that is later than the date specified in the notice of intent to terminate, provided it is not later than 90 days after the earliest date on which a notice of intent to terminate was issued to any affected party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for IRS determination letter.</I> To qualify for the distribution deadline in § 4041.28(a)(1)(ii), the plan administrator must submit to the IRS a valid request for a determination of the plan's qualification status upon termination (“determination letter”) by the time the standard termination notice is filed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.26" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.26   PBGC review of standard termination notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review period</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The PBGC will notify the plan administrator in writing of the date on which it received a complete standard termination notice at the address provided in the PBGC's standard termination forms and instructions package. If the PBGC does not issue a notice of noncompliance under § 4041.31 during its 60-day review period following such date, the plan administrator must proceed to close out the plan in accordance with § 4041.28.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension of review period.</I> The PBGC and the plan administrator may, before the expiration of the PBGC review period in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, agree in writing to extend that period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>If standard termination notice is incomplete</I>—(1) <I>For purposes of timely filing.</I> If the standard termination notice is incomplete, the PBGC may, based on the nature and extent of the omission, provide the plan administrator an opportunity to complete the notice. In such a case, the standard termination notice will be deemed to have been complete as of the date when originally filed for purposes of § 4041.25(a), provided the plan administrator provides the missing information by the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) The 180th day after the proposed termination date; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The 30th day after the date of the PBGC notice that the filing was incomplete.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For purposes of PBGC review period.</I> If the standard termination notice is completed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the PBGC will determine whether the notice will be deemed to have been complete as of the date when originally filed for purposes of determining when the PBGC's review period begins under § 4041.26(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information</I>—(1) <I>Deadline for providing additional information.</I> The PBGC may in any case require the submission of additional information relevant to the termination proceeding. Any such additional information becomes part of the standard termination notice and must be submitted within 30 days after the date of a written request by the PBGC, or within a different time period specified therein. The PBGC may in its discretion shorten the time period where it determines that the interests of the PBGC or participants may be prejudiced by a delay in receipt of the information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect on termination proceeding.</I> A request for additional information will suspend the running of the PBGC's 60-day review period. The review period will begin running again on the day the required information is received and continue for the greater of—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of days remaining in the review period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Five regular business days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.27" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.27   Notice of annuity information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The plan administrator must provide notices in accordance with this section to each affected party entitled to plan benefits other than an affected party whose plan benefits will be distributed in the form of a nonconsensual lump sum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spin-off/termination transactions.</I> The plan administrator must provide the information in paragraph (d) of this section to a person entitled to notice under §§ 4041.23(c) or 4041.24(f), at the same time and in the same manner as required for an affected party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of notice.</I> The plan administrator must include, as part of the notice of intent to terminate—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identity of insurers.</I> The name and address of the insurer or insurers from whom (if known), or (if not) from among whom, the plan administrator intends to purchase irrevocable commitments (annuity contracts);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in identity of insurers.</I> A statement that if the plan administrator later decides to select a different insurer, affected parties will receive a supplemental notice no later than 45 days before the distribution date; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State guaranty association coverage information.</I> A statement informing the affected party—
</P>
<P>(i) That once the plan distributes a benefit in the form of an annuity purchased from an insurance company, the insurance company takes over the responsibility for paying that benefit;
</P>
<P>(ii) That all states, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico have established “guaranty associations” to protect policy holders in the event of an insurance company's financial failure;
</P>
<P>(iii) That a guaranty association is responsible for all, part, or none of the annuity if the insurance company cannot pay;
</P>
<P>(iv) That each guaranty association has dollar limits on the extent of its guaranty coverage, along with a general description of the applicable dollar coverage limits;
</P>
<P>(v) That in most cases the policy holder is covered by the guaranty association for the state where he or she lives at the time the insurance company fails to pay; and
</P>
<P>(vi) How to obtain the addresses and telephone numbers of guaranty association offices from the PBGC (as described in the applicable forms and instructions package).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where insurer(s) not known</I>—(1) <I>Extension of deadline for notice.</I> If the identity-of-insurer information in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not known at the time the plan administrator is required to provide it to an affected party as part of a notice of intent to terminate, the plan administrator must instead provide it in a supplemental notice under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative NOIT information.</I> A plan administrator that qualifies for the extension in paragraph (c)(1) of this section with respect to a notice of intent to terminate must include therein (in lieu of the information in paragraph (b) of this section) a statement that—
</P>
<P>(i) Irrevocable commitments (annuity contracts) may be purchased from an insurer to provide some or all of the benefits under the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The insurer or insurers have not yet been identified; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Affected parties will be notified at a later date (but no later than 45 days before the distribution date) of the name and address of the insurer or insurers from whom (if known), or (if not) from among whom, the plan administrator intends to purchase irrevocable commitments (annuity contracts).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supplemental notice.</I> The plan administrator must provide a supplemental notice to an affected party in accordance with this paragraph (d) if the plan administrator did not previously notify the affected party of the identity of insurer(s) or, after having previously notified the affected party of the identity of insurer(s), decides to select a different insurer. A failure to provide a required supplemental notice to an affected party will be deemed to be a failure to comply with the notice of intent to terminate requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Deadline for supplemental notice.</I> The deadline for issuing the supplemental notice is 45 days before the affected party's distribution date (or, in the case of an employee organization, 45 days before the earliest distribution date for any affected party that it represents).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of supplemental notice.</I> The supplemental notice must include—
</P>
<P>(i) The identity-of-insurer information in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information regarding change of identity of insurer(s) in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Unless the state guaranty association coverage information in paragraph (b)(3) of this section was previously provided to the affected party, such information and the extinguishment-of-guarantee information in § 4041.23(b)(9).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.28" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.28   Closeout of plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Distribution deadline</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Unless a notice of noncompliance is issued under § 4041.31(a), the plan administrator must complete the distribution of plan assets in satisfaction of plan benefits (through priority category 6 under section 4044 of ERISA and part 4044 of this chapter) by the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) 180 days after the expiration of the PBGC's 60-day (or extended) review period under § 4041.26(a); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the plan administrator meets the requirements of § 4041.25(c), 120 days after receipt of a favorable determination from the IRS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Revocation of notice of noncompliance.</I> If the PBGC revokes a notice of noncompliance issued under § 4041.31(a), the distribution deadline is extended until the 180th day after the date of the revocation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Missing participants and beneficiaries.</I> The distribution deadline is considered met with respect to a missing distributee to whom subpart A of part 4050 of this chapter applies if the benefit transfer amount for the missing distributee is considered timely transferred to PBGC under subpart A of part 4050 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assets insufficient to satisfy plan benefits.</I> If, at the time of any distribution, the plan administrator determines that plan assets are not sufficient to satisfy all plan benefits (with assets determined net of other liabilities, including PBGC premiums), the plan administrator may not make any further distribution of assets to effect the plan's termination and must promptly notify the PBGC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of distribution</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The plan administrator must, in accordance with all applicable requirements under the Code and ERISA, distribute plan assets in satisfaction of all plan benefits by purchase of an irrevocable commitment from an insurer or in another permitted form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lump sum calculations.</I> In the absence of evidence establishing that another date is the “annuity starting date” under the Code, the distribution date is the “annuity starting date” for purposes of—
</P>
<P>(i) Calculating the present value of plan benefits that may be provided in a form other than by purchase of an irrevocable commitment from an insurer (e.g., in selecting the interest rate(s) to be used to value a lump sum distribution); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining whether plan benefits will be paid in such other form.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Selection of insurer.</I> In the case of plan benefits that will be provided by purchase of an irrevocable commitment from an insurer, the plan administrator must select the insurer in accordance with the fiduciary standards of Title I of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Participating annuity contracts.</I> In the case of a plan in which any residual assets will be distributed to participants, a participating annuity contract may be purchased to satisfy the requirement that annuities be provided by the purchase of irrevocable commitments only if the portion of the price of the contract that is attributable to the participation feature—
</P>
<P>(i) Is not taken into account in determining the amount of residual assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not paid from residual assets allocable to participants.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Missing participants.</I> The plan administrator must distribute plan benefits to missing participants in accordance with subpart A of part 4050 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Provision of annuity contract.</I> If plan benefits are provided through the purchase of irrevocable commitments—
</P>
<P>(1) Either the plan administrator or the insurer must, within 30 days after it is available, provide each participant and beneficiary with a copy of the annuity contract or certificate showing the insurer's name and address and clearly reflecting the insurer's obligation to provide the participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits; and
</P>
<P>(2) If such a contract or certificate is not provided to the participant or beneficiary by the date on which the post-distribution certification is required to be filed in order to avoid the assessment of penalties under § 4041.29(b), the plan administrator must, no later than that date, provide the participant and beneficiary with a notice that includes—
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the obligation for providing the participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits has transferred to the insurer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and address of the insurer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name, address, and telephone number of the person designated by the insurer to answer questions concerning the annuity; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the participant or beneficiary will receive from the plan administrator or insurer a copy of the annuity contract or a certificate showing the insurer's name and address and clearly reflecting the insurer's obligation to provide the participant's or beneficiary's plan benefits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 82 FR 60818, Dec. 22, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.29" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.29   Post-distribution certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirement.</I> The plan administrator must either—
</P>
<P>(1) Within 30 days after the last distribution date for any affected party, file with PBGC a post-distribution certification (PBGC Form 501), completed in accordance with the instructions thereto; or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Within 30 days after the last distribution date for any affected party, certify to PBGC, in the manner prescribed in the instructions to PBGC Form 501, that the plan assets have been distributed as required, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 60 days after the last distribution date for any affected party, file a post-distribution certification (PBGC Form 501), completed in accordance with the instructions thereto.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Penalty considerations.</I> If a standard termination notice is filed in accordance with § 4041.25(a)(1), PBGC may assess a penalty for a late filing under paragraph (a) of this section only if the required information is filed more than 90 days after the distribution deadline (including extensions) under § 4041.28(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 6060, Feb. 4, 2020, as amended at 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.30" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.30   Requests for deadline extensions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The PBGC may in its discretion extend a deadline for taking action under this subpart to a later date. The PBGC will grant such an extension where it finds compelling reasons why it is not administratively feasible for the plan administrator (or other persons acting on behalf of the plan administrator) to take the action until the later date and the delay is brief. The PBGC will consider—
</P>
<P>(1) The length of the delay; and
</P>
<P>(2) Whether ordinary business care and prudence in attempting to meet the deadline is exercised.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time of extension request.</I> Any request for an extension under paragraph (a) of this section that is filed later than the 15th day before the applicable deadline must include a justification for not filing the request earlier.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IRS determination letter requests.</I> Any request for an extension under paragraph (a) of this section of the deadline in § 4041.25(c) for submitting a determination letter request to the IRS (in order to qualify for the distribution deadline in § 4041.28(a)(1)(ii)) will be deemed to be granted unless the PBGC notifies the plan administrator otherwise within 60 days after receipt of the request (or, if later, by the end of the PBGC's review period under § 4041.26(a)). The PBGC will notify the plan administrator in writing of the date on which it receives such request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Statutory deadlines not extendable.</I> The PBGC will not—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pre-distribution deadlines.</I> (i) Extend the 60-day time limit under § 4041.23(a) for issuing the notice of intent to terminate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Waive the requirement in § 4041.24(a) that the notice of plan benefits be issued by the time the plan administrator files the standard termination notice with the PBGC; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-distribution deadlines.</I> Extend a filing deadline under § 4041.29(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 85 FR 6061, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.31" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.31   Notice of noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Failure to meet pre-distribution requirements</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) and (c) of this section, the PBGC will issue a notice of noncompliance within the 60-day (or extended) time period prescribed by § 4041.26(a) whenever it determines that—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan administrator failed to issue the notice of intent to terminate to all affected parties (other than the PBGC) in accordance with § 4041.23;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan administrator failed to issue notices of plan benefits to all affected parties entitled to plan benefits in accordance with § 4041.24;
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan administrator failed to file the standard termination notice in accordance with § 4041.25;
</P>
<P>(iv) As of the distribution date proposed in the standard termination notice, plan assets will not be sufficient to satisfy all plan benefits under the plan; or
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of a spin-off/termination transaction (as described in § 4041.23(c)), the plan administrator failed to issue any notice required by § 4041.23(c), § 4041.24(f), or § 4041.27(a)(2) in accordance with such section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interests of participants.</I> The PBGC may decide not to issue a notice of noncompliance based on a failure to meet a requirement under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iii) or (a)(1)(v) of this section if it determines that issuance of the notice would be inconsistent with the interests of participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Continuing authority.</I> The PBGC may issue a notice of noncompliance or suspend the termination proceeding based on a failure to meet a requirement under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(v) of this section after expiration of the 60-day (or extended) time period prescribed by § 4041.26(a) (including upon audit) if the PBGC determines such action is necessary to carry out the purposes of Title IV.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to meet distribution requirements</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the PBGC determines, as part of an audit or otherwise, that the plan administrator has not satisfied any distribution requirement of § 4041.28(a) or (c), it may issue a notice of noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Criteria.</I> In deciding whether to issue a notice of noncompliance under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the PBGC may consider—
</P>
<P>(i) The nature and extent of the failure to satisfy a requirement of § 4041.28(a) or (c);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any corrective action taken by the plan administrator; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The interests of participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Late distributions.</I> The PBGC will not issue a notice of noncompliance for failure to distribute timely based on any facts disclosed in the post-distribution certification if 60 or more days have passed from the PBGC's receipt of the post-distribution certification. The 60-day period may be extended by agreement between the plan administrator and the PBGC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Correction of errors.</I> The PBGC will not issue a notice of noncompliance based solely on the plan administrator's inclusion of erroneous information (or omission of correct information) in a notice required to be provided to any person under this part if—
</P>
<P>(1) The PBGC determines that the plan administrator acted in good faith in connection with the error;
</P>
<P>(2) The plan administrator corrects the error no later than—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an error in the notice of plan benefits under § 4041.24, the latest date an election notice may be provided to the person; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In any other case, as soon as practicable after the plan administrator knows or should know of the error, or by any later date specified by the PBGC; and
</P>
<P>(3) The PBGC determines that the delay in providing the correct information will not substantially harm any person.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A plan administrator may request reconsideration of a notice of noncompliance in accordance with the rules prescribed in part 4003, subpart C.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consequences of notice of noncompliance</I>—(1) <I>Effect on termination.</I> A notice of noncompliance ends the standard termination proceeding, nullifies all actions taken to terminate the plan, and renders the plan an ongoing plan. A notice of noncompliance is effective upon the expiration of the period within which the plan administrator may request reconsideration under paragraph (d) of this section or, if reconsideration is requested, a decision by the PBGC upholding the notice. However, once a notice is issued, the running of all time periods specified in ERISA or this part relevant to the termination will be suspended, and the plan administrator may take no further action to terminate the plan (except by initiation of a new termination) unless and until the notice is revoked. A plan administrator that still desires to terminate a plan must initiate the termination process again, starting with the issuance of a new notice of intent to terminate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect on plan administration.</I> If the PBGC issues a notice of noncompliance, the prohibitions in § 4041.22(a)(1) and (a)(2) will cease to apply—
</P>
<P>(i) Upon expiration of the period during which reconsideration may be requested or, if earlier, at the time the plan administrator decides not to request reconsideration; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If reconsideration is requested, upon PBGC issuance of a decision on reconsideration upholding the notice of noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Revocation of notice of noncompliance.</I> If a notice of noncompliance is revoked, unless the PBGC provides otherwise, any time period suspended by the issuance of the notice will resume running from the date of the revocation. In no case will the review period under § 4041.26(a) end less than 60 days from the date the PBGC received the standard termination notice.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>If no notice of noncompliance is issued.</I> A standard termination is deemed to be valid if—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan administrator files a standard termination notice under § 4041.25 and the PBGC does not issue a notice of noncompliance pursuant to § 4041.31(a); and
</P>
<P>(2) The plan administrator files a post-distribution certification under § 4041.29 and the PBGC does not issue a notice of noncompliance pursuant to § 4041.31(b).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice to affected parties.</I> Upon a decision by the PBGC on reconsideration affirming the issuance of a notice of noncompliance or, if earlier, upon the plan administrator's decision not to request reconsideration, the plan administrator must notify the affected parties (other than the PBGC), and any persons who were provided notice under § 4041.23(c), in writing that the plan is not going to terminate or, if applicable, that the termination was invalid but that a new notice of intent to terminate is being issued.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Distress Termination Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.41" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.41   Requirements for a distress termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Distress requirements.</I> A plan may be terminated in a distress termination only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan administrator issues a notice of intent to terminate to each affected party in accordance with § 4041.43 at least 60 days and (except with PBGC approval) not more than 90 days before the proposed termination date;
</P>
<P>(2) The plan administrator files a distress termination notice with the PBGC in accordance with § 4041.45 no later than 120 days after the proposed termination date; and
</P>
<P>(3) The PBGC determines that each contributing sponsor and each member of its controlled group satisfy one of the distress criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to satisfy requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, if the plan administrator does not satisfy all of the requirements for a distress termination, any action taken to effect the plan termination is null and void, and the plan is an ongoing plan. A plan administrator who still desires to terminate the plan must initiate the termination process again, starting with the issuance of a new notice of intent to terminate.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The PBGC may, upon its own motion, waive any requirement with respect to notices to be filed with the PBGC under paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section if the PBGC believes that it will be less costly or administratively burdensome to the PBGC to do so. The PBGC will not entertain requests for waivers under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the PBGC retains the authority in any case to initiate a plan termination in accordance with the provisions of section 4042 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distress criteria.</I> In a distress termination, each contributing sponsor and each member of its controlled group must satisfy at least one (but not necessarily the same one) of the following criteria in order for a distress termination to occur:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Liquidation.</I> This criterion is met if, as of the proposed termination date—
</P>
<P>(i) A person has filed or had filed against it a petition seeking liquidation in a case under title 11, United States Code, or under a similar federal law or law of a State or political subdivision of a State, or a case described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section has been converted to such a case; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The case has not been dismissed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reorganization.</I> This criterion is met if—
</P>
<P>(i) As of the proposed termination date, a person has filed or had filed against it a petition seeking reorganization in a case under title 11, United States Code, or under a similar law of a state or a political subdivision of a state, or a case described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section has been converted to such a case;
</P>
<P>(ii) As of the proposed termination date, the case has not been dismissed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The person notifies the PBGC of any request to the bankruptcy court (or other appropriate court in a case under such similar law of a state or a political subdivision of a state) for approval of the plan termination by concurrently filing with the PBGC a copy of the motion requesting court approval, including any documents submitted in support of the request; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The bankruptcy court or other appropriate court determines that, unless the plan is terminated, such person will be unable to pay all its debts pursuant to a plan of reorganization and will be unable to continue in business outside the reorganization process and approves the plan termination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inability to continue in business.</I> This criterion is met if a person demonstrates to the satisfaction of the PBGC that, unless a distress termination occurs, the person will be unable to pay its debts when due and to continue in business.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unreasonably burdensome pension costs.</I> This criterion is met if a person demonstrates to the satisfaction of the PBGC that the person's costs of providing pension coverage have become unreasonably burdensome solely as a result of declining covered employment under all single-employer plans for which that person is a contributing sponsor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-duplicative efforts.</I> (1) If a person requests approval of the plan termination by a court, as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the PBGC—
</P>
<P>(i) Will normally enter an appearance to request that the court make specific findings as to whether the contributing sponsor or controlled group member meets the distress test in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, or state that it is unable to make such findings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will provide the court with any information it has that may be germane to the court's ruling;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will, if the person has requested, or later requests, a determination by the PBGC under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, defer action on the request until the court makes its determination; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Will be bound by a final and non-appealable order of the court.
</P>
<P>(2) If a person requests a determination by the PBGC under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the PBGC determines that the distress criterion is not met, and the person thereafter requests approval of the plan termination by a court, as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the PBGC will advise the court of its determination and make its administrative record available to the court.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-recognition of certain actions.</I> If the PBGC finds that a person undertook any action or failed to act for the principal purpose of satisfying any of the distress criteria contained in paragraph (c) of this section, rather than for a reasonable business purpose, the PBGC will disregard such act or failure to act in determining whether the person has satisfied any of those criteria.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requests for deadline extensions.</I> The PBGC may extend any deadline under this subpart in accordance with the rules described in section § 4041.30, except that the PBGC will not extend—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pre-distribution deadlines.</I> The 60-day time limit under § 4041.43(a) for issuing the notice of intent to terminate; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-distribution deadlines.</I> The deadline under § 4041.50 for filing the post-distribution certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.42" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.42   Administration of plan during termination process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except to the extent specifically prohibited by this section, during the pendency of termination proceedings the plan administrator must continue to carry out the normal operations of the plan, such as putting participants into pay status, collecting contributions due the plan, and investing plan assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions after issuing notice of intent to terminate.</I> The plan administrator may not make loans to plan participants beginning on the first day he or she issues a notice of intent to terminate, and from that date until a distribution is permitted pursuant to § 4041.50, the plan administrator may not—
</P>
<P>(1) Distribute plan assets pursuant to, or (except as required by this part) take any other actions to implement, the termination of the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Pay benefits attributable to employer contributions, other than death benefits, in any form other than as an annuity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Purchase irrevocable commitments to provide benefits from an insurer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on benefit payments on or after proposed termination date.</I> Beginning on the proposed termination date, the plan administrator must reduce benefits to the level determined under part 4022, subpart D, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to qualify for distress termination.</I> In any case where the PBGC determines, pursuant to § 4041.44(c) or § 4041.46(c)(1), that the requirements for a distress termination are not satisfied—
</P>
<P>(1) The prohibitions in paragraph (b) of this section, other than those in paragraph (b)(1), will cease to apply—
</P>
<P>(i) Upon expiration of the period during which reconsideration may be requested under §§ 4041.44(e) and 4041.46(e) or, if earlier, at the time the plan administrator decides not to request reconsideration; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If reconsideration is requested, upon PBGC issuance of its decision on reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) Any benefits that were not paid pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section will be due and payable as of the effective date of the PBGC's determination, together with interest from the date (or dates) on which the unpaid amounts were originally due until the date on which they are paid in full at the rate or rates prescribed under § 4022.81(c)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of subsequent insufficiency.</I> If the plan administrator makes a finding of subsequent insufficiency for guaranteed benefits pursuant to § 4041.49(b), or the PBGC notifies the plan administrator that it has made a finding of subsequent insufficiency for guaranteed benefits pursuant to § 4041.40(d), the prohibitions in paragraph (b) of this section will apply in accordance with § 4041.49(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 29355, May 29, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.43" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.43   Notice of intent to terminate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) At least 60 days and (except with PBGC approval) no more than 90 days before the proposed termination date, the plan administrator must issue a written notice of intent to terminate to each person who is an affected party as of the proposed termination date.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan administrator must issue the notice of intent to terminate to all affected parties other than the PBGC at or before the time he or she files the notice with the PBGC.
</P>
<P>(3) The notice to affected parties other than the PBGC must contain all of the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The notice to the PBGC must be filed on PBGC Form 600, Distress Termination, Notice of Intent to Terminate, completed in accordance with the instructions thereto.
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a beneficiary of a deceased participant or an alternate payee, the plan administrator must issue a notice of intent to terminate promptly to any person that becomes an affected party after the proposed termination date and on or before the date a trustee is appointed for the plan pursuant to section 4042(c) of ERISA (or, in the case of a plan that distributes assets pursuant to § 4041.50, the distribution date).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice to affected parties other than the PBGC.</I> The plan administrator must include in the notice of intent to terminate to each affected party other than the PBGC all of the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan and of the contributing sponsor;
</P>
<P>(2) The EIN of the contributing sponsor and the PN; if there is no EIN or PN, the notice must so state;
</P>
<P>(3) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who may be contacted by an affected party with questions concerning the plan's termination;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the plan administrator expects to terminate the plan in a distress termination on a specified proposed termination date;
</P>
<P>(5) The cessation of accruals information in § 4041.23(b)(4);
</P>
<P>(6) A statement as to how an affected party entitled to receive the latest updated summary plan description under section 104(b) of ERISA can obtain it;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement of whether plan assets are sufficient to pay all guaranteed benefits or all benefit liabilities;
</P>
<P>(8) A brief description of what benefits are guaranteed by the PBGC (e.g., if only a portion of the benefits are guaranteed because of the phase-in rule, this should be explained), and a statement that participants and beneficiaries also may receive a portion of the benefits to which each is entitled under the terms of the plan in excess of guaranteed benefits; and
</P>
<P>(9) A statement, if applicable, that benefits may be subject to reduction because of the limitations on the amounts guaranteed by the PBGC or because plan assets are insufficient to pay for full benefits (pursuant to part 4022, subparts B and D, of this chapter) and that payments in excess of the amount guaranteed by the PBGC may be recouped by the PBGC (pursuant to part 4022, subpart E, of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Spin-off/termination transactions.</I> In the case of a spin-off/termination transaction (as described in § 4041.23(c)), the plan administrator must provide all participants and beneficiaries in the original plan who are also participants or beneficiaries in the ongoing plan (as of the proposed termination date) with a notice describing the transaction no later than the date on which the plan administrator completes the issuance of notices of intent to terminate under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.44" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.44   PBGC review of notice of intent to terminate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> When a notice of intent to terminate is filed with it, the PBGC—
</P>
<P>(1) Will determine whether the notice was issued in compliance with § 4041.43; and
</P>
<P>(2) Will advise the plan administrator of its determination, in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, no later than the proposed termination date specified in the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tentative finding of compliance.</I> If the PBGC determines that the issuance of the notice of intent to terminate appears to be in compliance with § 4041.43, it will notify the plan administrator in writing that—
</P>
<P>(1) The PBGC has made a tentative determination of compliance;
</P>
<P>(2) The distress termination proceeding may continue; and
</P>
<P>(3) After reviewing the distress termination notice filed pursuant to § 4041.45, the PBGC will make final, or reverse, this tentative determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Finding of noncompliance.</I> If the PBGC determines that the issuance of the notice of intent to terminate was not in compliance with § 4041.43 (except for requirements that the PBGC elects to waive under § 4041.41(b)(2)(i) with respect to the notice filed with the PBGC), the PBGC will notify the plan administrator in writing—
</P>
<P>(1) That the PBGC has determined that the notice of intent to terminate was not properly issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) That the proposed distress termination is null and void and the plan is an ongoing plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information on need to institute section 4042 proceedings.</I> The PBGC may require the plan administrator to submit, within 20 days after the plan administrator's receipt of the PBGC's written request (or such other period as may be specified in such written request), any information that the PBGC determines it needs in order to decide whether to institute termination or trusteeship proceedings pursuant to section 4042 of ERISA, whenever—
</P>
<P>(1) A notice of intent to terminate indicates that benefits currently in pay status (or that should be in pay status) are not being paid or that this is likely to occur within the 180-day period following the issuance of the notice of intent to terminate;
</P>
<P>(2) The PBGC issues a determination under paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) The PBGC has any reason to believe that it may be necessary or appropriate to institute proceedings under section 4042 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reconsideration of finding of noncompliance.</I> A plan administrator may request reconsideration of the PBGC's determination of noncompliance under paragraph (c) of this section in accordance with the rules prescribed in part 4003, subpart C, of this chapter. Any request for reconsideration automatically stays the effectiveness of the determination until the PBGC issues its decision on reconsideration, but does not stay the time period within which information must be submitted to the PBGC in response to a request under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice to affected parties.</I> Upon a decision by the PBGC affirming a finding of noncompliance or upon the expiration of the period within which the plan administrator may request reconsideration of a finding of noncompliance (or, if earlier, upon the plan administrator's decision not to request reconsideration), the plan administrator must notify the affected parties (and any persons who were provided notice under § 4041.43(e)) in writing that the plan is not going to terminate or, if applicable, that the termination is invalid but that a new notice of intent to terminate is being issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.45" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.45   Distress termination notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The plan administrator must file with the PBGC a PBGC Form 601, Distress Termination Notice, Single-Employer Plan Termination, with Schedule EA-D, Distress Termination Enrolled Actuary Certification, that has been completed in accordance with the instructions thereto, on or before the 120th day after the proposed termination date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Participant and benefit information</I>—(1) <I>Plan insufficient for guaranteed benefits.</I> Unless the enrolled actuary certifies, in the Schedule EA-D filed in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, that the plan is sufficient either for guaranteed benefits or for benefit liabilities, the plan administrator must file with the PBGC the participant and benefit information described in PBGC Form 601 and the instructions thereto by the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) 120 days after the proposed termination date, or
</P>
<P>(ii) 30 days after receipt of the PBGC's determination, pursuant to § 4041.46(b), that the requirements for a distress termination have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan sufficient for guaranteed benefits or benefit liabilities.</I> If the enrolled actuary certifies that the plan is sufficient either for guaranteed benefits or for benefit liabilities, the plan administrator need not submit the participant and benefit information described in PBGC Form 601 and the instructions thereto unless requested to do so pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effect of failure to provide information.</I> The PBGC may void the distress termination if the plan administrator fails to provide complete participant and benefit information in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information.</I> The PBGC may in any case require the submission of any additional information that it needs to make the determinations that it is required to make under this part or to pay benefits pursuant to section 4061 or 4022(c) of ERISA. The plan administrator must submit any information requested under this paragraph within 30 days after receiving the PBGC's written request (or such other period as may be specified in such written request).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.46" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.46   PBGC determination of compliance with requirements for distress termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Based on the information contained and submitted with the PBGC Form 600 and the PBGC Form 601, with Schedule EA-D, and on any information submitted by an affected party or otherwise obtained by the PBGC, the PBGC will determine whether the requirements for a distress termination set forth in § 4041.41(c) have been met and will notify the plan administrator in writing of its determination, in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying termination.</I> If the PBGC determines that all of the requirements of § 4041.41(c) have been satisfied, it will so advise the plan administrator and will also advise the plan administrator of whether participant and benefit information must be submitted in accordance with § 4041.45(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-qualifying termination.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if the PBGC determines that any of the requirements of § 4041.41 have not been met, it will notify the plan administrator of its determination, the basis therefor, and the effect thereof (as provided in § 4041.41(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) If the only basis for the PBGC's determination described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is that the distress termination notice is incomplete, the PBGC will advise the plan administrator of the missing item(s) of information and that the information must be filed with the PBGC no later than the 120th day after the proposed termination date or the 30th day after the date of the PBGC's notice of its determination, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration of determination of non-qualification.</I> A plan administrator may request reconsideration of the PBGC's determination under paragraph (c)(1) of this section in accordance with the rules prescribed in part 4003, subpart C, of this chapter. The filing of a request for reconsideration automatically stays the effectiveness of the determination until the PBGC issues its decision on reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice to affected parties.</I> Upon a decision by the PBGC affirming a determination of non-qualification or upon the expiration of the period within which the plan administrator may request reconsideration of a determination of non-qualification (or, if earlier, upon the plan administrator's decision not to request reconsideration), the plan administrator must notify the affected parties (and any persons who were provided notice under § 4041.43(e)) in writing that the plan is not going to terminate or, if applicable, that the termination is invalid but that a new notice of intent to terminate is being issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.47" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.47   PBGC determination of plan sufficiency/insufficiency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Upon receipt of participant and benefit information filed pursuant to § 4041.45 (b)(1) or (c), the PBGC will determine the degree to which the plan is sufficient and notify the plan administrator in writing of its determination in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Insufficiency for guaranteed benefits.</I> If the PBGC finds that it is unable to determine that a plan is sufficient for guaranteed benefits, it will issue a “notice of inability to determine sufficiency” notifying the plan administrator of this finding and advising the plan administrator that—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan administrator must continue to administer the plan under the restrictions imposed by § 4041.42; and
</P>
<P>(2) The termination will be completed under section 4042 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sufficiency for guaranteed benefits or benefit liabilities.</I> If the PBGC determines that a plan is sufficient for guaranteed benefits but not for benefit liabilities or is sufficient for benefit liabilities, the PBGC will issue to the plan administrator a distribution notice advising the plan administrator—
</P>
<P>(1) To issue notices of benefit distribution in accordance with § 4041.48;
</P>
<P>(2) To close out the plan in accordance with § 4041.50;
</P>
<P>(3) To file a timely post-distribution certification with the PBGC in accordance with § 4041.50(b); and
</P>
<P>(4) That either the plan administrator or the contributing sponsor must preserve and maintain plan records in accordance with § 4041.5.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative treatment of majority owner's benefit.</I> A majority owner may elect to forgo receipt of all or part of his or her plan benefits in connection with a distress termination. Any such alternative treatment—
</P>
<P>(1) Is valid only if the conditions in § 4041.21(b)(2)(i) through (v) are met (except that, in the case of a plan that does not distribute assets pursuant to § 4041.50, the majority owner may make the election and the spouse may consent any time on or after the date of issuance of the first notice of intent to terminate); and—
</P>
<P>(2) Is subject to the PBGC's approval if the election—
</P>
<P>(i) Is made after the termination date; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Would result in the PBGC determining that the plan is sufficient for guaranteed benefits under paragraph (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.48" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.48   Sufficient plans; notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notices of benefit distribution.</I> When a distribution notice is issued by the PBGC pursuant to § 4041.47, the plan administrator must issue notices of benefit distribution in accordance with the rules regarding notices of plan benefits in § 4041.24, except that—
</P>
<P>(1) The deadline for issuing the notices of benefit distribution is the 60th day after receipt of the distribution notice; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to the information described in § 4041.24 (b) through (e), the term “plan benefits” is replaced with “title IV benefits” and the term “proposed termination date” is replaced with “termination date”.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification to PBGC.</I> No later than 15 days after the date on which the plan administrator completes the issuance of the notices of benefit distribution, the plan administrator must file with the PBGC a certification that the notices were so issued in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of annuity information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Unless all title IV benefits will be distributed in the form of nonconsensual lump sums, the plan administrator must provide a notice of annuity information to each affected party other than—
</P>
<P>(i) An affected party whose title IV benefits will be distributed in the form of a nonconsensual lump sum; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The PBGC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spin-off/termination transactions.</I> The plan administrator must provide the information in paragraph (c)(4) of this section to a person entitled to notice under § 4041.43(c), at the same time and in the same manner as required for an affected party described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Selection of different insurer.</I> A plan administrator that decides to select a different insurer after having previously notified the affected party of the identity of insurer(s) under this paragraph must provide another notice of annuity information.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice must include—
</P>
<P>(i) The identity-of-insurer information in § 4041.27(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) The information regarding change in identity of insurer(s) in § 4041.27(b)(2); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Unless the state guaranty coverage information in § 4041.27(b)(3) was previously provided to the affected party, such information and the extinguishment-of-guaranty information in § 4041.23(b)(9) (replacing the term “plan benefits” with “title IV benefits”).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Deadline for notice.</I> The plan administrator must issue the notice of annuity information to each affected party by the deadline in § 4041.27(d)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for IRS determination letter.</I> To qualify for the distribution deadline in § 4041.28(a)(1)(ii) (as modified and made applicable by § 4041.50(c)), the plan administrator must submit to the IRS a valid request for a determination of the plan's qualification status upon termination (“determination letter”) by the day on which the plan administrator completes the issuance of the notices of benefit distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.49" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.49   Verification of plan sufficiency prior to closeout.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Before distributing plan assets pursuant to a closeout under § 4041.50, the plan administrator must verify whether the plan's assets are still sufficient to provide for benefits at the level determined by the PBGC, <I>i.e.,</I> guaranteed benefits or benefit liabilities. If the plan administrator finds that the plan is no longer able to provide for benefits at the level determined by the PBGC, then paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as appropriate, will apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subsequent insufficiency for guaranteed benefits.</I> When a plan administrator finds that a plan is no longer sufficient for guaranteed benefits, the plan administrator must promptly notify the PBGC in writing of that fact and may take no further action to implement the plan termination, pending the PBGC's determination and notice pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>PBGC concurrence with finding.</I> If the PBGC concurs with the plan administrator's finding, the distribution notice will be void, and the PBGC will—
</P>
<P>(i) Issue the plan administrator a notice of inability to determine sufficiency in accordance with § 4041.47(b); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the plan administrator to submit a new valuation, certified to by an enrolled actuary, of the benefit liabilities and guaranteed benefits under the plan, valued in accordance with §§ 4044.41 through 4044.58 of this chapter as of the date of the plan administrator's notice to the PBGC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>PBGC non-concurrence with finding.</I> If the PBGC does not concur with the plan administrator's finding, it will so notify the plan administrator in writing, and the distribution notice will remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subsequent insufficiency for benefit liabilities.</I> When a plan administrator finds that a plan is sufficient for guaranteed benefits but is no longer sufficient for benefit liabilities, the plan administrator must immediately notify the PBGC in writing of this fact, but must continue with the distribution of assets in accordance with § 4041.50.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finding by PBGC of subsequent insufficiency.</I> In any case in which the PBGC finds on its own initiative that a subsequent insufficiency for guaranteed benefits has occurred, paragraph (b)(1) of this section will apply, except that the guaranteed benefits must be revalued as of the date of the PBGC's finding.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions upon finding of subsequent insufficiency.</I> When the plan administrator makes the finding described in paragraph (b) of this section or receives notice that the PBGC has made the finding described in paragraph (d) of this section, the plan administrator is (except to the extent the PBGC otherwise directs) subject to the prohibitions in § 4041.42.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 60428, Nov. 7, 1997, as amended at 89 FR 48299, June 6, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.50" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.50   Closeout of plan.</HEAD>
<P>If a plan administrator receives a distribution notice from the PBGC pursuant to § 4041.47 and neither the plan administrator nor the PBGC makes the finding described in § 4041.49(b) or (d), the plan administrator must distribute plan assets in accordance with § 4041.28 and file a post-distribution certification in accordance with § 4041.29, except that—
</P>
<P>(a) The term “plan benefits” is replaced with “title IV benefits”;
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of applying the distribution deadline in § 4041.28(a)(1)(i), the phrase “after the expiration of the PBGC's 60-day (or extended) review period under § 4041.26(a)” is replaced with “the day on which the plan administrator completes the issuance of the notices of benefit distribution pursuant to § 4041.48(a)”; and
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of applying the distribution deadline in § 4041.28(a)(1)(ii), the phrase “the requirements of § 4041.25(c)” is replaced with “the requirements of § 4041.48(d)”.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041.51" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.10.3.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041.51   Disclosure of information by plan administrator in distress termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for Information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If a notice of intent to terminate under § 4041.43 is issued with respect to a plan, an affected party may make a request to the plan administrator for information submitted to PBGC under sections 4041(a)(2) and 4041(c)(2) of ERISA and §§ 4041.43 and 4041.45.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> A request under paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be in writing to the plan administrator;
</P>
<P>(ii) State the name of the plan and that the request is for information submitted to PBGC with respect to the application for a distress termination of the plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) State the name of the person making the request for information and such person's relationship to the plan (e.g., plan participant), and that such relationship meets the definition of affected party under § 4001.2 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be signed by the person making the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response by Plan Administrator</I>—(1) <I>Information.</I> The information that a plan administrator must provide in response to a request under paragraph (a) of this section includes PBGC Form 600, and any information submitted to PBGC pursuant to section 4041(c)(2) of ERISA and § 4041.45.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of response.</I> A plan administrator that receives a request under paragraph (a) of this section must provide the information requested not later than the 15th business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deferral of due date.</I> If, at the time the plan administrator receives a request under paragraph (a) of this section, the plan administrator has not filed a PBGC Form 600, the plan administrator must provide the information requested under paragraph (a) not later than the 15th business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after a PBGC Form 600 is filed with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supplemental responses.</I> If, at any time after the later of the receipt of a request under paragraph (a) of this section, or the filing of PBGC Form 600, the plan administrator submits additional information to PBGC with respect to the plan termination under section 4041(c)(2) of ERISA and § 4041.45, the plan administrator must, not later than the 15th business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after each additional submission, provide the additional information to any affected party that has made a request under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Confidential information.</I> (i) In responding to a request under paragraph (a) of this section, the plan administrator shall not provide information that may, directly or indirectly, identify an individual participant or beneficiary of the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan administrator that has received a request under paragraph (a) of this section may seek a court order under which confidential information described in section 552(b) of title 5, United States Code—
</P>
<P>(A) Will be disclosed only to authorized representatives (within the meaning of section 4041(c)(2)(D)(iv) of ERISA) that agree to ensure the confidentiality of such information, and,
</P>
<P>(B) Will not be disclosed to other affected parties.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reasonable fees.</I> Under section 4041(c)(2)(D)(iii)(II) of ERISA, a plan administrator may charge a reasonable fee for any information provided under this section in other than electronic form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 68337, Nov. 18, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4041A" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4041A—TERMINATION OF MULTIEMPLOYER PLANS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1341a, 1431, 1441.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34052, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish rules for notifying the PBGC of the termination of a multiemployer plan and rules for the administration of multiemployer plans that have terminated by mass withdrawal. Subpart B prescribes the contents of and procedures for filing a Notice of Termination for a multiemployer plan. Subpart C prescribes basic duties of plan sponsors of mass-withdrawal-terminated plans. (Other duties are prescribed in part 4281 of this chapter.) Subpart D contains procedures for closing out sufficient plans. This part applies to terminated multiemployer plans covered by title IV of ERISA but, in the case of subparts C and D, only to plans terminated by mass withdrawal under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA (including plans created by partition pursuant to section 4233 of ERISA). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: annuity, ERISA, insurer, IRS, mass withdrawal, multiemployer plan, nonforfeitable benefit, PBGC, plan, and plan year. In addition, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Actuarial valuation</I> means a report submitted to a plan of a valuation of plan assets and liabilities that is performed in accordance with subpart B of part 4281 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Available resources</I> means available resources as described in section 4245(b)(3) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Benefits subject to reduction</I> means those benefits accrued under plan amendments (or plans) adopted after March 26, 1980, or under collective bargaining agreements entered into after March 26, 1980, that are not eligible for PBGC's guarantee under section 4022A(b) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Financial assistance</I> means financial assistance from PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvency benefit level</I> means the greater of the resource benefit level or the benefit level guaranteed by PBGC for each participant and beneficiary in pay status. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvency year</I> means insolvency year as described in section 4245(b)(4) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvent</I> means unable to pay benefits when due during the plan year. </P>
<P><I>Nonguaranteed benefits</I> means those benefits that are eligible for PBGC's guarantee under section 4022A(b) of ERISA, but exceed the guarantee limits under section 4022A(c). 
</P>
<P><I>Resource benefit level</I> means resource benefit level as described in section 4245(b)(2) of ERISA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34052, July 1, 1996; 61 FR 36626, July 12, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 18722, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.3   Method and date of filing; where to file; computation of time; issuances to third parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method and date of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Computation of time.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period for filing or issuance under this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Method and date of issuance.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance under this part. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that an issuance under this part was provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61354, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Notice of Termination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.11   Requirement of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A notice of termination must be filed with PBGC by a multiemployer plan when the plan has terminated as described in section 4041A(a) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who must file.</I> The plan sponsor or a duly authorized representative acting on behalf of the plan sponsor must sign and file the notice. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to file.</I> (1) For a termination pursuant to a plan amendment, the notice must be filed with PBGC within thirty days after the amendment is adopted or effective, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(2) For a termination that results from a mass withdrawal, the notice must be filed with PBGC within thirty days after the last employer withdrew from the plan or thirty days after the first day of the first plan year for which no employer contributions were required under the plan, whichever is earlier. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How and where to file.</I> Filings with PBGC under this subpart must be submitted in accordance with the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter. See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34052, July 1, 1996, as amended at 80 FR 55745, Sept. 17, 2015; 84 FR 18722, May 2, 2019; 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.12   Contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information to be contained in notice.</I> A notice of termination under § 4041A.11 required to be filed with PBGC must contain the information and certification specified in the instructions for the notice of termination on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information.</I> In addition to the information required under paragraph (a) of this section, PBGC may require the submission of any other information that PBGC determines is necessary for review of a notice of termination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18722, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Plan Sponsor Duties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.21   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>The plan sponsor of a multiemployer plan that terminates by mass withdrawal must continue to administer the plan in accordance with applicable statutory provisions, regulations, and plan provisions until a trustee is appointed under section 4042 of ERISA or until plan assets are distributed in accordance with subpart D of this part. In addition, the plan sponsor is responsible for the specific duties described in this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34052, July 1, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 18722, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.22   Payment of benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), the plan sponsor shall pay any benefit attributable to employer contributions, other than a death benefit, only in the form of an annuity. 
</P>
<P>(b) The plan sponsor may pay a benefit in a form other than an annuity if—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan distributes plan assets in accordance with subpart D of this part; 
</P>
<P>(2) The PBGC approves the payment of the benefit in an alternative form pursuant to § 4041A.27; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The value of the entire nonforfeitable benefit does not exceed $1,750. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except to the extent provided in the next sentence, the plan sponsor shall not pay benefits in excess of the amount that is nonforfeitable under the plan as of the date of termination, unless authorized to do so by the PBGC pursuant to § 4041A.27. Subject to the restriction stated in paragraph (d) of this section, however, the plan sponsor may pay a qualified preretirement survivor annuity with respect to a participant who died after the date of termination. 
</P>
<P>(d) The payment of benefits subject to reduction shall be discontinued to the extent provided in § 4281.31 if the plan sponsor determines, in accordance with § 4041A.24, that the plan's assets are insufficient to provide all nonforfeitable benefits. 
</P>
<P>(e) The plan sponsor shall, to the extent provided in § 4281.41, suspend the payment of nonguaranteed benefits if the plan sponsor determines, in accordance with § 4041A.25, that the plan is insolvent. 
</P>
<P>(f) The plan sponsor shall, to the extent required by § 4281.42, make retroactive payments of suspended benefits if it determines under that section that the level of the plan's available resources requires such payments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.23" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.23   Imposition and collection of withdrawal liability.</HEAD>
<P>Until plan assets are distributed in accordance with subpart D of this part, or until the end of the plan year as of which PBGC determines that plan assets (exclusive of claims for withdrawal liability) are sufficient to satisfy all nonforfeitable benefits under the plan, the plan sponsor must determine, give notice of, and collect withdrawal liability (including the liability arising as a result of the mass withdrawal), in accordance with subpart C of part 4219 of this chapter and sections 4201 through 4225 of ERISA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.24" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.24   Plan valuations and monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual valuation requirement.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan must have actuarial valuations performed in accordance with this section and with subpart B of part 4281 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Termination year valuation.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan must have an actuarial valuation performed for the plan for the plan year in which the plan terminates.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-obligation valuations.</I> If the present value of a plan's nonforfeitable benefits exceeds $50 million according to the most recent actuarial valuation under this paragraph (a), the plan sponsor must have an actuarial valuation performed for the plan for each plan year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Low-obligation valuations.</I> If the present value of a plan's nonforfeitable benefits does not exceed $50 million according to the most recent actuarial valuation under this paragraph (a), the plan sponsor may treat that actuarial valuation as the actuarial valuation for each of the four plan years following the plan year for which the actuarial valuation was performed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Timing and filing.</I> Each actuarial valuation under this paragraph (a) must be performed within 150 days after the end of the plan year for which it is performed and must be filed with PBGC within 180 days after the end of that plan year in accordance with the valuation instructions on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exception for plans closing out.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, no actuarial valuation is required for the plan year in which a plan closes out under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan monitoring; benefit reductions</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> This paragraph (b) applies to a plan that is not receiving financial assistance from PBGC for the plan year following the plan year for which an actuarial valuation is performed under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Funding level determination.</I> Upon the plan sponsor's receipt of each actuarial valuation under paragraph (a) of this section, the plan sponsor must determine whether the value of nonforfeitable benefits exceeds the value of plan assets (including withdrawal liability claims). If it does, then the plan sponsor must—
</P>
<P>(i) Amend the plan to reduce benefits subject to reduction (if any) in accordance with the procedures in subpart C of part 4281 of this chapter to the extent necessary to ensure that the plan's assets are sufficient to discharge when due all of the plan's obligations with respect to nonforfeitable benefits or, if that result cannot be achieved, to the maximum extent possible; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If, after implementing the provisions of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the plan's assets are insufficient to discharge when due all of the plan's obligations with respect to nonforfeitable benefits, make determinations of plan solvency in accordance with § 4041A.25.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notices of benefit reduction.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan that is amended to reduce benefits under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section must provide participants and beneficiaries and PBGC notice of the benefit reduction in accordance with § 4281.32 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative method of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> This paragraph (c) applies to a plan that meets both of the following requirements—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan is receiving financial assistance from PBGC for the plan year following the plan year for which an actuarial valuation is required under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The present value of the plan's nonforfeitable benefits does not exceed $50 million according to the most recent actuarial valuation under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative compliance requirements.</I> A plan sponsor is considered to comply with the actuarial valuation and filing requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if both—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan sponsor files with PBGC the information in paragraph (c)(3) of this section within the time required for filing the actuarial valuation under paragraph (a)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If, within 90 days after the plan sponsor makes the filing described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, PBGC requests other information reasonably required to determine the plan's assets and liabilities, the plan sponsor files such other information within 60 days after PBGC's request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information to be provided.</I> The information the plan sponsor must file with PBGC under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The most recent summary plan description of the plan or the date the document was previously filed with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The most recent actuarial valuation of the plan or the date the document was previously filed with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information reasonably necessary for PBGC to prepare an actuarial valuation as specified in the valuation instructions on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18723, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.25" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.25   Periodic determinations of plan solvency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual insolvency determination.</I> A plan that has no benefits subject to reduction and has assets insufficient to discharge when due all of the plan's obligations with respect to nonforfeitable benefits must make periodic determinations of plan solvency in accordance with this paragraph (a). No later than six months before the beginning of the applicable plan year described in this paragraph (a), or as soon as practicable after the plan sponsor determines the applicable plan year, and no later than six months before each plan year thereafter, the plan sponsor must determine in writing whether the plan is expected to be insolvent for such plan year. The applicable plan year is—
</P>
<P>(1) For a plan that had no benefits subject to reduction when it terminated, the plan year the plan terminated; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a plan that eliminated benefits subject to reduction by amendment after termination, the plan year in which the amendment that eliminated all (or all remaining) benefits subject to reduction is effective.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other determination of insolvency.</I> Whether or not a prior determination of plan insolvency has been made under paragraph (a) of this section (or under section 4245 of ERISA), a plan sponsor that has reason to believe, taking into account the plan's recent and anticipated financial experience, that the plan is insolvent in the current plan year or is expected to be insolvent in the next plan year must determine in writing whether the plan is or is expected to be insolvent for that plan year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Benefit suspensions.</I> If the plan sponsor determines that the plan is, or is expected to be, insolvent for a plan year, it must suspend benefits in accordance with § 4281.41. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insolvency notices.</I> If the plan sponsor determines that the plan is insolvent in the current plan year or is expected to be insolvent in the next plan year it must provide notices of insolvency and notices of insolvency benefit level to PBGC and to participants and beneficiaries in accordance with subpart D of part 4281 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34052, July 1, 1996, as amended at 80 FR 55745, Sept. 17, 2015; 84 FR 18723, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.26" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.26   Financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>A plan sponsor that determines a resource benefit level under section 4245(b)(2) of ERISA that is below the level of guaranteed benefits or that determines that the plan will be unable to pay guaranteed benefits for any month during an insolvency year shall apply for financial assistance from the PBGC in accordance with § 4281.47. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.27" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.27   PBGC approval to pay benefits not otherwise permitted.</HEAD>
<P>Upon written application by the plan sponsor, the PBGC may authorize the plan to pay benefits other than nonforfeitable benefits or to pay benefits valued at more than $1,750 in a form other than an annuity. The PBGC will approve such payments if it determines that the plan sponsor has demonstrated that the payments are not adverse to the interests of the plan's participants and beneficiaries generally and do not unreasonably increase the PBGC's risk of loss with respect to the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Closeout of Sufficient Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.41" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.41   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>If a plan's assets, excluding any claim of the plan for unpaid withdrawal liability, are sufficient to satisfy all obligations for nonforfeitable benefits provided under the plan, the plan sponsor may close out the plan in accordance with this subpart by distributing plan assets in full satisfaction of all nonforfeitable benefits under the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.42" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.42   Method of distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The plan sponsor shall distribute plan assets by purchasing from an insurer contracts to provide all benefits required by § 4041A.43 to be provided in annuity form and by paying in a lump sum (or other alternative elected by the participant) all other benefits. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Missing participants and beneficiaries.</I> The plan sponsor must distribute plan benefits of missing distributees in accordance with subpart D of part 4050 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34052, July 1, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 60818, Dec. 22, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.43" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.43   Benefit forms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the sponsor of a plan that is closed out shall provide for the payment of any benefit attributable to employer contributions only in the form of an annuity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The plan sponsor may pay a benefit attributable to employer contributions in a form other than an annuity if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The present value of the participant's entire nonforfeitable benefit, determined using the interest assumption under §§ 4044.41 through 4044.58, does not exceed the dollar amount specified in section 203(e)(1) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(2) The payment is for death benefits provided under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(3) The participant elects an alternative form of distribution under paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative forms of distribution.</I> The plan sponsor may allow participants to elect alternative forms of distribution in accordance with this paragraph. When a form of distribution is offered as an alternative to the normal form, the plan sponsor shall notify each participant, in writing, of the form and estimated amount of the participant's normal form of distribution. The notification shall also describe any risks attendant to the alternative form. Participants' elections of alternative forms shall be in writing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34052, July 1, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 38306, July 16, 1998; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023; 89 FR 48300, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4041A.44" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.11.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4041A.44   Cessation of withdrawal liability.</HEAD>
<P>The obligation of an employer to make payments of initial withdrawal liability and mass withdrawal liability shall cease on the date on which the plan's assets are distributed in full satisfaction of all nonforfeitable benefits provided by the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4042" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4042—SINGLE-EMPLOYER PLAN TERMINATION INITIATED BY PBGC
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1342.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 68338, Nov. 18, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4042.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4042.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth rules and procedures relating to single-employer plan terminations initiated by PBGC under section 4042 of ERISA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4042.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4042.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms used in this part are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: <I>Affected party, ERISA, PBGC,</I> and <I>plan administrator.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4042.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4042.3   Issuance rules.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance under this part. PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that an issuance under this part was provided.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Disclosure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4042.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4042.4   Disclosure of information by plan administrator or plan sponsor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for Information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Beginning on the third business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after PBGC has issued a notice under section 4042 of ERISA that a plan should be terminated, an affected party may make a request to the plan sponsor or the plan administrator (or both) for any information that such plan administrator or plan sponsor has submitted to PBGC in connection with the plan termination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> A request under paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be in writing to the plan administrator or plan sponsor;
</P>
<P>(ii) State the name of the plan and that the request is for information submitted to PBGC in connection with the plan termination;
</P>
<P>(iii) State the name of the person making the request for information and such person's relationship to the plan (e.g., plan participant), and that such relationship meets the definition of affected party under § 4001.2 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be signed by the person making the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response by Plan Administrator or Plan Sponsor</I>—(1) <I>Timing of response.</I> A plan administrator or plan sponsor that receives a request under paragraph (a) of this section must provide the information requested not later than the 15th business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supplemental responses.</I> If, at any time after receipt of a request under paragraph (a), the plan administrator or plan sponsor submits additional information to PBGC in connection with the plan termination, the plan administrator or plan sponsor must provide such additional information to any affected party that has made a request under paragraph (a), not later than the 15th business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after the information is submitted to PBGC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Confidential information.</I> (i) In responding to a request under paragraph (a) of this section, the plan administrator or plan sponsor shall not provide information that may, directly or indirectly, identify an individual participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan administrator or plan sponsor that has received a request under paragraph (a) of this section may seek a court order under which confidential information described in section 552(b) of title 5, United States Code—
</P>
<P>(A) Will be disclosed only to authorized representatives (within the meaning of section 4041(c)(2)(D)(iv) of ERISA) that agree, to ensure the confidentiality of such information, and
</P>
<P>(B) Will not be disclosed to other affected parties.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reasonable fees.</I> Under section 4042(c)(3)(D)(ii) of ERISA, a plan administrator or plan sponsor may charge a reasonable fee for any information provided under this section in other than electronic form.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4042.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.12.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4042.5   Disclosure of administrative record by PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for Administrative Record</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Beginning on the third business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after PBGC has issued a notice under section 4042 of ERISA that a plan should be terminated, an affected party with respect to the plan may make a request to PBGC for the administrative record of PBGC's determination that the plan should be terminated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> A request under paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) State the name of the plan and that the request is for the administrative record with respect to a notice issued by PBGC under section 4042 of ERISA that a plan should be terminated;
</P>
<P>(iii) State the name of the person making the request, the person's relationship to the plan (e.g., plan participant), and that such relationship meets the definition of affected party under § 4001.2 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be signed by the person making the request.
</P>
<P>(3) A request under paragraph (a) of this section must be sent to PBGC's Disclosure Officer at the address provided on PBGC's Web site. To expedite processing, the request should be prominently identified as an “Administrative Record Request.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>PBGC Response to Request for Administrative Record</I>—(1) <I>Notification of plan administrator and plan sponsor.</I> Upon receipt of a request under paragraph (a) of this section, PBGC will promptly notify the plan administrator and plan sponsor that it has received a request for the administrative record, and the date by which PBGC will provide the information to the affected party that made the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confidential information.</I> (i) In responding to a request under paragraph (a) of this section, PBGC will not disclose any portions of the administrative record that are prohibited from disclosure under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan administrator or plan sponsor that has received notification pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section may seek a court order under which those portions of the administrative record that contain confidential information described in section 552(b) of title 5, United States Code—
</P>
<P>(A) Will be disclosed only to authorized representatives (within the meaning of section 4041(c)(2)(D)(iv) of ERISA) that agree to ensure the confidentiality of such information, and
</P>
<P>(B) Will not be disclosed to other affected parties.
</P>
<P>(iii) If, before the 15th business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after PBGC has received a request under paragraph (a), PBGC receives a court order as described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, PBGC will disclose those portions of the administrative record that contain confidential information described in section 552(b) of title 5, United States Code, only as provided in the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing of response.</I> PBGC will send the administrative record to the affected party that made the request not later than the 15th business day (as defined in § 4000.22 of this chapter) after it receives the request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form and manner.</I> PBGC will provide the administrative record using measures (including electronic measures) reasonably calculated to ensure actual receipt of the material by the intended recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4043" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4043—REPORTABLE EVENTS AND CERTAIN OTHER NOTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1083(k), 1302(b)(3), 1343.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes the requirements for notifying PBGC of a reportable event under section 4043 of ERISA or of a failure to make certain required contributions under section 303(k)(4) of ERISA or section 430(k)(4) of the Code. Subpart A contains definitions and general rules. Subpart B contains rules for post-event notice of a reportable event. Subpart C contains rules for advance notice of a reportable event. Subpart D contains rules for notifying PBGC of a failure to make certain required contributions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: benefit liabilities, Code, contributing sponsor, controlled group, ERISA, fair market value, irrevocable commitment, multiemployer plan, PBGC, person, plan, plan administrator, plan year, single-employer plan, ultimate parent, and U.S. entity.
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>De minimis 10-percent segment</I> means, in connection with a plan's controlled group, one or more entities that in the aggregate have for a fiscal year—
</P>
<P>(1) Revenue not exceeding 10 percent of the controlled group's revenue;
</P>
<P>(2) Annual operating income not exceeding the greater of—
</P>
<P>(i) 10 percent of the controlled group's annual operating income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) $5 million; and
</P>
<P>(3) Net tangible assets at the end of the fiscal year(s) not exceeding the greater of—
</P>
<P>(i) 10 percent of the controlled group's net tangible assets at the end of the fiscal year(s); or
</P>
<P>(ii) $5 million.
</P>
<P><I>De minimis 5-percent segment</I> has the same meaning as <I>de minimis</I> 10-percent segment, except that “5 percent” is substituted for “10 percent” each time it appears.
</P>
<P><I>Event year</I> means the plan year in which a reportable event occurs.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign entity</I> means a member of a controlled group that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is not a contributing sponsor of a plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not organized under the laws of (or, if an individual, is not a domiciliary of) any state (as defined in section 3(10) of ERISA); and
</P>
<P>(3) For the fiscal year that includes the date the reportable event occurs, meets one of the following tests—
</P>
<P>(i) Is not required to file any United States federal income tax form;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no income reportable on any United States federal income tax form other than passive income not exceeding $1,000; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not own substantial assets in the United States (disregarding stock of a member of the plan's controlled group) and is not required to file any quarterly United States tax returns for employee withholding.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign parent</I> means a foreign entity that is a direct or indirect parent of a person that is a contributing sponsor of a plan.
</P>
<P><I>Low-default-risk</I> has the meaning described in § 4043.9.
</P>
<P><I>Notice due date</I> means the deadline (including extensions) for filing notice of a reportable event with PBGC.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means a participant as defined in § 4006.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Public company</I> means a person subject to the reporting requirements of section 13 or 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or a subsidiary (as defined for purposes of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934) of a person subject to such reporting requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial owner</I> means a substantial owner as defined in section 4021(d) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Well-funded plan safe harbor</I> has the meaning described in § 4043.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 49806, Oct. 3, 2018; 85 FR 6061, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.3   Requirement of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obligation to file</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Each person that is required to file a notice under this part, or a duly authorized representative, must submit the information required under this part by the time specified in § 4043.20 (for post-event notices), § 4043.61 (for advance notices), or § 4043.81 (for Form 200 filings). Any information filed with PBGC in connection with another matter may be incorporated by reference. If an event is subject to both post-event and advance notice requirements, the notice filed first satisfies both filing requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple plans.</I> If a reportable event occurs for more than one plan, the filing obligation with respect to each plan is independent of the filing obligation with respect to any other plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Optional consolidated filing.</I> A filing of a notice with respect to a reportable event by any person required to file will be deemed to be a filing by all persons required to give PBGC notice of the event under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of reportable event notice.</I> A person required to file a reportable event notice under subpart B or C of this part must file, by the notice date, the form specified by PBGC for that purpose, with the information specified in PBGC's reportable events instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reportable event forms and instructions.</I> PBGC will issue reportable events forms and instructions and make them available on its website (<I>http://www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests for additional information.</I> PBGC may, in any case, require the submission of additional relevant information not specified in its forms and instructions. Any such information must be submitted for subpart B of this part within 30 days, and for subpart C or D of this part within 7 days, after the date of a written request by PBGC, or within a different time period specified therein. PBGC may in its discretion shorten the time period where it determines that the interests of PBGC or participants may be prejudiced by a delay in receipt of the information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of failure to file.</I> If a notice (or any other information required under this part) is not provided within the specified time limit, PBGC may pursue any equitable or legal remedies available to it under the law, including assessing against each person required to provide the notice a separate penalty under section 4071 of ERISA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6061, Feb. 4, 2020; 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.4   Waivers and extensions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Waivers and extensions—in general.</I> PBGC may extend any deadline or waive any other requirement under this part where it finds convincing evidence that the waiver or extension is appropriate under the circumstances. Any waiver or extension may be subject to conditions. A request for a waiver or extension must be filed with PBGC in writing (which may be in electronic form) and must state the facts and circumstances on which the request is based.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers and extensions—specific events.</I> For some reportable events, automatic waivers from reporting and extensions of time are provided in subparts B and C of this part. If an occurrence constitutes two or more reportable events, reporting requirements for each event are determined independently. For example, reporting is automatically waived for an occurrence that constitutes a reportable event under more than one section only if the requirements for an automatic waiver under each section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiemployer plans.</I> The requirements of section 4043 of ERISA are waived with respect to multiemployer plans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Terminating plans.</I> No notice is required from the plan administrator or contributing sponsor of a plan if the notice date is on or after the date on which—
</P>
<P>(1) All of the plan's assets (other than any excess assets) are distributed pursuant to a termination under part 4041 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) A trustee is appointed for the plan under section 4042 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Events not described in this part.</I> Notice of a reportable event described in section 4043(c) of ERISA is waived except to the extent that reporting is required under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.5   How and where to file.</HEAD>
<P>Reportable event notices required under this part must be filed electronically in accordance with the instructions posted on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov</I>. Filing guidance is provided by the instructions and by subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.6   Date of filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Post-event notice filings.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under subpart B of this part was filed with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance notice and Form 200 filings.</I> Information filed under subpart C or D of this part is treated as filed on the date it is received by PBGC. Subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter provides rules for determining when PBGC receives a submission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.7   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.8   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with section 4043(f) of ERISA and § 4901.21(a) of this chapter, any information or documentary material that is not publicly available and is submitted to PBGC pursuant to subpart B or C of this part will not be made public, except as may be relevant to any administrative or judicial action or proceeding or for disclosures to either body of Congress or to any duly authorized committee or subcommittee of the Congress. This provision does not apply to information or material submitted to PBGC pursuant to subpart D of this part, even where the submission serves as an alternative method of compliance with § 4043.25.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.9   Company low-default-risk safe harbor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Low-default-risk.</I> An entity (a “company”) that is a contributing sponsor of a plan or the highest level U.S. parent of a contributing sponsor is “low-default-risk” on the date of an event if that date falls within a safe harbor period of the company as described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe harbor period.</I> A safe harbor period for a company means a period that—
</P>
<P>(1) Begins on a financial information date (as described in paragraph (c) of this section) on which the company satisfies the low-default-risk standard in paragraph (e) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(2) Ends 13 months later or (if earlier) on the company's next financial information date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial information date.</I> A financial information date for a company means—
</P>
<P>(1) A date on which the company files on Form 10-K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC”) audited annual financial statements (including balance sheets, income statements, cash flow statements, and notes to the financial statements) for the company's most recent completed fiscal year preceding the date of such filing;
</P>
<P>(2) The date (the “closing date”) on which the company closes the annual accounting period that results in the production of audited or unaudited annual financial statements for the company's most recent completed fiscal year preceding the closing date, if audited annual financial statements are not required to be filed with the SEC; or
</P>
<P>(3) A date on which the company files with IRS an annual federal income tax return or IRS Form 990 (in either case, a “return”) for the company's most recent completed fiscal year preceding the date of such filing, if at the time the return is filed there are no annual financial statements for the year of the return.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supporting financial information.</I> For purposes of this section, the “supporting financial information” is the annual financial statements or return associated with the establishment of the financial information date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Low-default-risk standard</I>—(1) <I>Adequate capacity.</I> For purposes of this part, except as provided in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, a company meets the low-default-risk standard as of a financial information date (the “qualifying date”) if the company has adequate capacity to meet its obligations in full and on time on the qualifying date as evidenced by satisfying either:
</P>
<P>(i) Both of the criteria described in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any four of the seven criteria described in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Criteria evidencing adequate capacity.</I> The criteria referred to in paragraph (e)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) The probability that the company will default on its financial obligations is not more than four percent over the next five years or not more than 0.4 percent over the next year, in either case determined on the basis of widely available third-party financial information on the company's credit quality.
</P>
<P>(ii) The company's secured debt (disregarding leases and debt incurred to acquire or improve property and secured only by that property) does not exceed 10 percent of the company's total assets.
</P>
<P>(iii) The company has a ratio of retained-earnings-to-total-assets of 0.25 or more.
</P>
<P>(iv) The company has a ratio of total-debt-to-EBITDA (earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization) of 3.0 or less.
</P>
<P>(v) The company has positive net income for the two most recently completed fiscal years preceding the qualifying date.
</P>
<P>(vi) During the two-year period ending on the qualifying date, the company has not experienced an event described in § 4043.34(a)(1) or (2) (dealing with a default on a loan with an outstanding balance of $10 million or more) with respect to any loan with an outstanding balance of $10 million or more to the company regardless of whether reporting was waived under § 4043.34(b).
</P>
<P>(vii) During the two-year period ending on the qualifying date, there has not been any failure to make when due any contribution described in § 4043.25(a)(1) or (2) (dealing with failure to make required minimum funding payments), unless reporting was waived under § 4043.25(c).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Using financial information to evaluate criteria.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section with respect to evaluating the criterion described in paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section, to evaluate whether criteria described in paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) through (v) of this section are met, a company must use the supporting financial information described in paragraph (d) of this section associated with the qualifying date.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to the use of the supporting financial information to evaluate criteria as described in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, to evaluate whether the criterion described in paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section is met, the company must also use the supporting financial information as described in paragraph (d) of this section associated with the financial information date for the fiscal year preceding the fiscal year covered by the supporting financial information associated with the qualifying date.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section, the excess of total revenue over total expenses as reported on the IRS Form 990 is considered to be net income.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception.</I> If a company receives an audit or review report for supporting financial information described in paragraph (d) of this section associated with the qualifying date that expresses a material adverse view or qualification, the company does not satisfy the low-default-risk standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6061, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.10   Well-funded plan safe harbor.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, a plan is in the well-funded plan safe harbor for an event year if no variable-rate premium was required to be paid for the plan under parts 4006 and 4007 of this chapter for the plan year preceding the event year.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Post-Event Notice of Reportable Events</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.20" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.20   Post-event filing obligation.</HEAD>
<P>The plan administrator and each contributing sponsor of a plan for which a reportable event under this subpart has occurred are required to notify PBGC within 30 days after that person knows or has reason to know that the reportable event has occurred, unless a waiver or extension applies. If there is a change in plan administrator or contributing sponsor, the responsibility for any failure to file or defective filing lies with the person who is the plan administrator or contributing sponsor of the plan on the 30th day after the reportable event occurs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.21   Tax disqualification and Title I noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs when the Secretary of the Treasury issues notice that a plan has ceased to be a plan described in section 4021(a)(2) of ERISA, or when the Secretary of Labor determines that a plan is not in compliance with title I of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver.</I> Notice is waived for this event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.22   Amendment decreasing benefits payable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs when an amendment to a plan is adopted under which the retirement benefit payable from employer contributions with respect to any participant may be decreased.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver.</I> Notice is waived for this event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.23" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.23   Active participant reduction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs for a plan:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Single-cause event.</I> (i) On each date in a plan year when, as a result of a new single cause, the ratio of the aggregate number of individuals who ceased to be active participants because of that single-cause, to the number of active participants at the beginning of such plan year, exceeds 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Examples of single-cause events include a reorganization or restructuring, the discontinuance of an operation or business, a natural disaster, a mass layoff, or an early retirement incentive program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Attrition event.</I> At the end of a plan year if the sum of the number of active participants covered by the plan at the end of such plan year, plus the number of individuals who ceased to be active participants during the same plan year that are reported to PBGC under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, is less than 80 percent of the number of active participants at the beginning of such plan year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination rules</I>—(1) <I>Determination dates.</I> The number of active participants at the beginning of a plan year may be determined by using the number of active participants at the end of the previous plan year, and the number of active participants at the end of a plan year may be determined by using the number of active participants at the beginning of the next plan year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Active participant.</I> “Active participant” for purposes of this section means a participant who—
</P>
<P>(i) Is receiving compensation from any member of the plan's controlled group for work performed for any member of the plan's controlled group;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is on paid or unpaid leave granted for a reason other than a layoff;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is laid off from work for a period of time that has lasted less than 30 days; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Is absent from work due to a recurring reduction in employment that occurs at least annually.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Employment relationship.</I> For purposes of determining whether a participant is an active participant, a participant does not cease to be active if the participant leaves employment with one member of a plan's controlled group to become employed by another controlled group member.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reductions due to cessations and withdrawals.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, a reduction in the number of active participants is to be disregarded to the extent that it—
</P>
<P>(1) Is attributable to an event described in sections 4062(e) or 4063(a) of ERISA, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is timely reported to PBGC under section 4062(e) and/or section 4063(a) of ERISA before the due date of the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>Small plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan had 100 or fewer participants for whom flat-rate premiums were payable for the plan year preceding the event year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Low-default-risk.</I> Notice under this section is waived if each contributing sponsor of the plan and the highest level U.S. parent of each contributing sponsor are low-default-risk on the date of the event.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Well-funded plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan is in the well-funded plan safe harbor for the event year.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public company.</I> Notice under this section is waived if any contributing sponsor of the plan before the transaction, or the parent company within a parent-subsidiary controlled group of any such contributing sponsor, is a public company and timely files a SEC Form 8-K disclosing the event under an item of the Form 8-K other than under Item 2.02 (Results of Operations and Financial Condition) or in financial statements under Item 9.01 (Financial Statements and Exhibits).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Statutory events.</I> Notice is waived for an active participant reduction event described in section 4043(c)(3) of ERISA except to the extent required under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extension—attrition event.</I> For an event described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the notice date is extended until the premium due date for the plan year following the event year.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Determining whether a single-cause event occurred (Example 1).</I> A calendar-year plan had 1,000 active participants at the beginning of the current plan year. As the result of a business unit being shut down, 160 participants are permanently laid off on July 30. Before July 30, and as part of the course of regular business operations, some active participants terminated employment, some retired and some new hires became covered by the plan. Because reductions due to attrition are disregarded for purposes of determining whether a single-cause event has occurred, it is not necessary for the sponsor to tabulate an exact active participant count as of July 30. Rather, the relevant percentage for determining whether a single-cause event occurred is determined by dividing the number of active participants laid-off as a result of the business unit shut down to the beginning of year active participant count. Because that ratio is less than 20 percent (<I>i.e.,</I> 160/1,000 = .16, or 16 percent), a single-cause event under paragraph (a)(1) of this section did not occur on July 30. However, if, as a result of the business unit shutdown, additional layoffs occur later in the same year, a single-cause event may subsequently be triggered (See Example 3 in paragraph (f)(3) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determining whether an attrition event occurred in year when a single-cause event occurred (Example 2)</I>. (i) Assume the same facts as in Example 1 in paragraph (f)(1) of this section except that the number of active participants laid off on July 30 was 230 and thus, a single-cause event occurred. Further, assume that the event was timely reported to PBGC (<I>i.e.,</I> on or before August 30). Lastly, assume the active participant count as of year-end is 600.
</P>
<P>(ii) To prevent duplicative reporting (<I>i.e.,</I> to ensure that the participants who triggered a single-cause reporting requirement do not also trigger an attrition event), the 230 participants who triggered that single-cause reporting requirement are not taken into account for purposes of determining whether an attrition event occurred. This is accomplished by increasing the year-end count by 230. Therefore, the applicable percentage for the attrition determination is 83 percent (<I>i.e.,</I> (600 + 230)/1,000 = .83). Because 83 percent is greater than 80 percent, an attrition event has not occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Single-cause event spread out over multiple dates (Example 3).</I> (i) Assume the same facts as in Example 1 in paragraph (f)(1) of this section except that the layoffs resulting from the business unit shut down are spread out over several months. Table 1 to paragraph (f)(3) summarizes the applicable calculations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(3)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Single-cause event spread out over multiple dates
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number laid-off
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aggregate reduction
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applicable percentage
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50/1,000 = 5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100/1,000 = 10 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">210/1,000 = 21 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250/1,000 = 25 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) A single-cause event occurs on September 1 because that is the first time the applicable percentage exceeds 20 percent. This event must be reported by October 1. The November 1 layoff does not trigger a subsequent single-cause event because the layoff is part of the same single-cause event already timely reported to PBGC. However, they will be considered in the determination of whether an attrition event occurs at year-end as explained in paragraph (f)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) As illustrated in Example 2 in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, for purposes of determining whether an attrition event has occurred, the year-end count is increased by the number of participants that triggered a single-cause event. In this case, that number is 210. The fact that an additional 40 active participants were laid off as a result of the business unit shut down after the single-cause event occurred does not affect the calculation because it was not already reported to PBGC. For example, if the year-end active participant count is 560, the number that gets compared to the beginning-of-year active participant count is 770 (<I>i.e.,</I> 560 + 210 = 770). Because 770 is less than 80 percent of 1,000, an attrition event has occurred and must be reported.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple single-cause events in same plan year (Example 4).</I> Assume the same facts as in Example 1 in paragraph (f)(1) of this section except that the July 30 shutdown of the business unit resulted in 205 layoffs on that date. A single-cause event occurred and is timely reported. Later in the same plan year, the company announces an early retirement incentive program and 210 employees participate in the program with the last employees participating in the program retiring on November 15 of the plan year. A new single-cause event has occurred as of November 15 resulting in a reporting obligation of the active participant reduction due to the retirement incentive program (210/1000 = 21 percent).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 6061, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.24" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.24   Termination or partial termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs when the Secretary of the Treasury determines that there has been a termination or partial termination of a plan within the meaning of section 411(d)(3) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver.</I> Notice is waived for this event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.25" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.25   Failure to make required minimum funding payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs when—
</P>
<P>(1) A contribution required under sections 302 and 303 of ERISA or sections 412 and 430 of the Code is not made by the due date for the payment under ERISA section 303(j) or Code section 430(j), or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other contribution required as a condition of a funding waiver is not made when due.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative method of compliance—Form 200 filed.</I> If, with respect to the same failure, a filing is made in accordance with § 4043.81, that filing (while not considered to be submitted to PBGC pursuant to section 4043 of ERISA for purposes of section 4043(f) of ERISA) satisfies the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>Small plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived with respect to a failure to make a required quarterly contribution under section 303(j)(3) of ERISA or section 430(j)(3) of the Code if the plan had 100 or fewer participants for whom flat-rate premiums were payable for the plan year preceding the event year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>30-day grace period.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the missed contribution is made by the 30th day after its due date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Late funding balance election.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the failure to make a timely required contribution is solely because of the plan sponsor's failure to timely make a funding balance election.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.26" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.26   Inability to pay benefits when due.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs when a plan is currently unable or projected to be unable to pay benefits.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Current inability.</I> A plan is currently unable to pay benefits if it fails to provide any participant or beneficiary the full benefits to which the person is entitled under the terms of the plan, at the time the benefit is due and in the form in which it is due. A plan is not treated as being currently unable to pay benefits if its failure to pay is caused solely by—
</P>
<P>(i) A limitation under section 436 of the Code and section 206(g) of ERISA (dealing with funding-based limits on benefits and benefit accruals under single-employer plans),
</P>
<P>(ii) The need to verify a person's eligibility for benefits,
</P>
<P>(iii) The inability to locate a person, or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other administrative delay, to the extent that the delay is for less than the shorter of two months or two full benefit payment periods.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Projected inability.</I> A plan is projected to be unable to pay benefits when, as of the last day of any quarter of a plan year, the plan's “liquid assets” are less than two times the amount of the “disbursements from the plan” for such quarter. “Liquid assets” and “disbursements from the plan” have the same meaning as under section 303(j)(4)(E) of ERISA and section 430(j)(4)(E) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver—plans subject to liquidity shortfall rules.</I> Notice under this section is waived unless the reportable event occurs during a plan year for which the plan is exempt from the liquidity shortfall rules in section 303(j)(4) of ERISA and section 430(j)(4) of the Code because it is described in section 303(g)(2)(B) of ERISA and section 430(g)(2)(B) of the Code.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6062, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.27" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.27   Distribution to a substantial owner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs for a plan when—
</P>
<P>(1) There is a distribution to a substantial owner of a contributing sponsor of the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The total of all distributions made to the substantial owner within the one-year period ending with the date of such distribution exceeds $10,000;
</P>
<P>(3) The distribution is not made by reason of the substantial owner's death;
</P>
<P>(4) Immediately after the distribution, the plan has nonforfeitable benefits (as provided in § 4022.5 of this chapter) that are not funded; and
</P>
<P>(5) Either—
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the values of all distributions to any one substantial owner within the one-year period ending with the date of the distribution is more than one percent of the end-of-year total amount of the plan's assets (as required to be reported on Schedule H or Schedule I to Form 5500) for each of the two plan years immediately preceding the event year, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the values of all distributions to all substantial owners within the one-year period ending with the date of the distribution is more than five percent of the end-of-year total amount of the plan's assets (as required to be reported on Schedule H or Schedule I to Form 5500) for each of the two plan years immediately preceding the event year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination rules</I>—(1) <I>Valuation of distribution.</I> The value of a distribution under this section is the sum of—
</P>
<P>(i) The cash amounts actually received by the substantial owner;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchase price of any irrevocable commitment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The fair market value of any other assets distributed, determined as of the date of distribution to the substantial owner.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Date of substantial owner distribution.</I> The date of distribution to a substantial owner of a cash distribution is the date it is received by the substantial owner. The date of distribution to a substantial owner of an irrevocable commitment is the date on which the obligation to provide benefits passes from the plan to the insurer. The date of any other distribution to a substantial owner is the date when the plan relinquishes control over the assets transferred directly or indirectly to the substantial owner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determination date.</I> The determination of whether a participant is (or has been in the preceding 60 months) a substantial owner is made on the date when there has been a distribution that would be reportable under this section if made to a substantial owner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative method of compliance—annuity.</I> In the case of an annuity for a substantial owner, a filing that satisfies the requirements of this section with respect to any payment under the annuity and that discloses the period, the amount of the payment, and the duration of the annuity satisfies the requirements of this section with respect to all subsequent payments under the annuity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>Low-default-risk.</I> Notice under this section is waived if each contributing sponsor of the plan and the highest level U.S. parent of each contributing sponsor are low-default-risk on the date of the event.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Well-funded plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan is in the well-funded plan safe harbor for the event year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Public company.</I> Notice under this section is waived if any contributing sponsor of the plan before the transaction, or the parent company within a parent-subsidiary controlled group of any such contributing sponsor, is a public company and timely files a SEC Form 8-K disclosing the event under an item of the Form 8-K other than under Item 2.02 (Results of Operations and Financial Condition) or in financial statements under Item 9.01 (Financial Statements and Exhibits).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6062, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.28" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.28   Plan merger, consolidation or transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs when a plan merges, consolidates, or transfers its assets or liabilities under section 208 of ERISA or section 414(<I>l</I>) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver.</I> Notice under this section is waived for this event. However, notice may be required under § 4043.29 (for a controlled group change) or § 4043.32 (for a transfer of benefit liabilities).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.29" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.29   Change in controlled group.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> (1) A reportable event occurs for a plan when there is a transaction that results, or will result, in one or more persons' (including any person who is or was a contributing sponsor) ceasing to be a member of the plan's controlled group (other than by merger involving members of the same controlled group).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the term “transaction” includes, but is not limited to, a legally binding agreement, whether or not written, to transfer ownership, an actual transfer of ownership, and an actual change in ownership that occurs as a matter of law or through the exercise or lapse of pre-existing rights. Whether an agreement is legally binding is to be determined without regard to any conditions in the agreement. A transaction is not reportable if it will result solely in a reorganization involving a mere change in identity, form, or place of organization, however effected.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers.</I> (1) De minimis <I>10-percent segment.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person or persons that will cease to be members of the plan's controlled group represent a <I>de minimis</I> 10-percent segment of the plan's old controlled group for the most recent fiscal year(s) ending on or before the date the reportable event occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign entity.</I> Notice under this section is waived if each person that will cease to be a member of the plan's controlled group is a foreign entity other than a foreign parent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan had 100 or fewer participants for whom flat-rate premiums were payable for the plan year preceding the event year.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Low-default-risk.</I> Notice under this section is waived if each post-event contributing sponsor of the plan and the highest level U.S. parent of each post-event contributing sponsor are low-default-risk on the date of the event.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Well-funded plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan is in the well-funded plan safe harbor for the event year.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Public company.</I> Notice under this section is waived if any contributing sponsor of the plan before the transaction, or the parent company within a parent-subsidiary controlled group of any such contributing sponsor, is a public company and timely files a SEC Form 8-K disclosing the event under an item of the Form 8-K other than under Item 2.02 (Results of Operations and Financial Condition) or in financial statements under Item 9.01 (Financial Statements and Exhibits).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples assume that no waiver applies.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Controlled group breakup.</I> Company A (the contributing sponsor of Plan A), and Company B (the contributing sponsor of Plan B) are in the same controlled group with Parent Company AB. On March 31, Parent Company AB and Company C enter into an agreement to sell the stock of Company B to Company C, a company outside of the controlled group. The transaction will close on August 31 and Company B will continue to maintain Plan B. Both Company A (Plan A's contributing sponsor) and the plan administrator of Plan A are required to report that Company B will leave Plan A's controlled group. Company B (Plan B's contributing sponsor) and the plan administrator of Plan B are required to report that Company A and Parent Company AB are no longer part of Plan B's controlled group. Both reports are due on April 30, 30 days after they entered into the agreement to sell Company B.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in contributing sponsor.</I> Plan Q is maintained by Company Q. Company Q enters into a binding contract to sell a portion of its assets and to transfer employees participating in Plan Q, along with Plan Q, to Company R, which is not a member of Company Q's controlled group. There will be no change in the structure of Company Q's controlled group. On the effective date of the sale, Company R will become the contributing sponsor of Plan Q. A reportable event occurs on the date of the transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> the date the binding contract was executed), because as a result of the transaction, Company Q (and any other member of its controlled group) will cease to be a member of Plan Q's controlled group. If on the notice due date the change in the contributing sponsor has not yet become effective, Company Q has the reporting obligation. If the change in the contributing sponsor has become effective by the notice due date, Company R has the reporting obligation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dissolution of controlled group member.</I> Company A (which maintains Plan A) and Company B are in the same controlled group with Parent Company AB. Pursuant to an asset sale agreement, Company B sells its assets to a company outside of the controlled group. After the sale, Company B will be dissolved and no longer operating. Since Company B will no longer be a member of Plan A's controlled group, a reportable event occurs on the date Company B enters into the asset sale agreement. Note that this event may also be required to be reported as a liquidation event under 29 CFR 4043.30.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Merger of controlled group members.</I> Company A (which maintains Plan A) and Company B are in the same controlled group with Parent Company AB. Parent Company AB decides to merge the operations of Company B into Company A. Although Company B will no longer be a member of Plan A's controlled group, no report is due given Company B is merging with Company A.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6062, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.30" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.30   Liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs for a plan when a member of the plan's controlled group—
</P>
<P>(1) Resolves to cease all revenue-generating business operations, sell substantially all its assets, or otherwise effect or implement its complete liquidation (including liquidation into another controlled group member) by decision of the member's board of directors (or equivalent body such as the managing partners or owners) or other actor with the power to authorize such cessation of operations, sale, or a liquidation, unless the event would be reported under paragraph (a)(2) or (3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Institutes or has instituted against it a proceeding to be dissolved or is dissolved, whichever occurs first; or
</P>
<P>(3) Liquidates in a case under the Bankruptcy Code, or under any similar law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>De minimis 10-percent segment.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person or persons that liquidate under paragraph (a) of this section do not include any contributing sponsor of the plan and represent a de minimis 10-percent segment of the plan's controlled group for the most recent fiscal year(s) ending on or before the date the reportable event occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign entity.</I> Notice under this section is waived if each person that liquidates under paragraph (a) of this section is a foreign entity other than a foreign parent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reporting under insolvency event.</I> Notice under this section is waived if reporting is also required under § 4043.35(a)(3) or (4) and notice has been provided timely to PBGC for the same event under that section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public company extension.</I> If any contributing sponsor of the plan, or the parent company within a parent-subsidiary controlled group of such contributing sponsor, is a public company, the due date for notice under this section is extended until the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date the contributing sponsor or parent company timely files a SEC Form 8-K disclosing the event under an item of the Form 8-K other than under Item 2.02 (Results of Operations and Financial Condition) or in financial statements under Item 9.01 (Financial Statements and Exhibits); or
</P>
<P>(2) The date when a press release with respect to the liquidation described under paragraph (a) of this section is issued in the U.S. in the English language.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Liquidation within a controlled group.</I> Plan A's controlled group consists of Company A (its contributing sponsor), Company B, Company Q (the parent of Company A and Company B). Company B represents the most significant portion of cash flow for the controlled group. Company B experiences an unforeseen event that negatively impacts operations and results in an increase in debt. The controlled group liquidates Company B by ceasing all operations, settling its debts, and merging any remaining assets into Company Q. (For purposes of this example, it does not matter under which of paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section reporting is triggered). The transaction is to be treated as a tax-free liquidation for tax purposes. Both Company A (Plan A's contributing sponsor) and the plan administrator of Plan A are required to report that Company B will liquidate within the controlled group.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cessation of operations.</I> Plan A is sponsored by Company A. The owners of Company A decide to cease all revenue-generating operations. Certain administrative employees will wind down the business and continue to be employed until the wind down is complete, which could take several months. Company A is required to report a liquidation reportable event 30 days after the decision is made to cease all revenue-generating operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sale of assets.</I> Plan A is sponsored by Company A. In a meeting of the Board of Directors of Company A, the Board resolves to sell all the assets of Company A to Company B. Under the asset sale agreement with Company B, Company B will not assume Plan A; Company A expects to undertake a standard termination of Plan A. Company A is required to report a liquidation event 30 days after the Board resolved to sell the assets of Company A.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 6063, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.31" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.31   Extraordinary dividend or stock redemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs for a plan when any member of the plan's controlled group declares a dividend or redeems its own stock and the amount or net value of the distribution, when combined with other such distributions during the same fiscal year of the person, exceeds the person's net income before after-tax gain or loss on any sale of assets, as determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, for the prior fiscal year. A distribution by a person to a member of its controlled group is disregarded.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination rules.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the net value of a non-cash distribution is the fair market value of assets transferred by the person making the distribution, reduced by the fair market value of any liabilities assumed or consideration given by the recipient in connection with the distribution. Net value determinations should be based on readily available fair market value(s) or independent appraisal(s) performed within one year before the distribution is made. To the extent that fair market values are not readily available and no such appraisals exist, the fair market value of an asset transferred in connection with a distribution or a liability assumed by a recipient of a distribution is deemed to be equal to 200 percent of the book value of the asset or liability on the books of the person making the distribution. Stock redeemed is deemed to have no value.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>De minimis 10-percent segment.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person making the distribution is a <I>de minimis</I> 10-percent segment of the plan's controlled group for the most recent fiscal year(s) ending on or before the date the reportable event occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign entity.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person making the distribution is a foreign entity other than a foreign parent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan had 100 or fewer participants for whom flat-rate premiums were payable for the plan year preceding the event year.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Low-default-risk.</I> Notice under this section is waived if each contributing sponsor of the plan and the highest level U.S. parent of each contributing sponsor are low-default-risk on the date of the event.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Well-funded plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan is in the well-funded plan safe harbor for the event year.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Public company.</I> Notice under this section is waived if any contributing sponsor of the plan before the transaction, or the parent company within a parent-subsidiary controlled group of any such contributing sponsor, is a public company and timely files a SEC Form 8-K disclosing the event under an item of the Form 8-K other than under Item 2.02 (Results of Operations and Financial Condition) or in financial statements under Item 9.01 (Financial Statements and Exhibits).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6064, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.32" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.32   Transfer of benefit liabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs for a plan when—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan makes a transfer of benefit liabilities to a person, or to a plan or plans maintained by a person or persons, that are not members of the transferor plan's controlled group; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of benefit liabilities transferred, in conjunction with other benefit liabilities transferred during the 12-month period ending on the date of the transfer, is 3 percent or more of the plan's total benefit liabilities. Both the benefit liabilities transferred and the plan's total benefit liabilities are to be valued as of any one date in the plan year in which the transfer occurs, using actuarial assumptions that comply with section 414(<I>l</I>) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination rules</I>—(1) <I>Date of transfer.</I> The date of transfer is to be determined on the basis of the facts and circumstances of the particular situation. For transfers subject to the requirements of section 414(<I>l</I>) of the Code, the date determined in accordance with 26 CFR 1.414(<I>l</I>)-1(b)(11) will be considered the date of transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Distributions of lump sums and annuities.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the payment of a lump sum, or purchase of an irrevocable commitment to provide an annuity, in satisfaction of benefit liabilities is not a transfer of benefit liabilities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>Small plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan had 100 or fewer participants for whom flat-rate premiums were payable for the plan year preceding the event year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Low-default-risk.</I> Notice under this section is waived if each contributing sponsor of the plan and the highest level U.S. parent of each contributing sponsor are low-default-risk on the date of the event.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Well-funded plan.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the plan is in the well-funded plan safe harbor for the event year.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public company.</I> Notice under this section is waived if any contributing sponsor of the plan before the transaction, or the parent company within a parent-subsidiary controlled group of any such contributing sponsor, is a public company and timely files a SEC Form 8-K disclosing the event under an item of the Form 8-K other than under Item 2.02 (Results of Operations and Financial Condition) or in financial statements under Item 9.01 (Financial Statements and Exhibits).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6064, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.33" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.33   Application for minimum funding waiver.</HEAD>
<P>A reportable event for a plan occurs when an application for a minimum funding waiver for the plan is submitted under section 302(c) of ERISA or section 412(c) of the Code.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.34" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.34   Loan default.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs for a plan when, with respect to a loan with an outstanding balance of $10 million or more to a member of the plan's controlled group—
</P>
<P>(1) There is an acceleration of payment or a default under the loan agreement, or
</P>
<P>(2) The lender waives or agrees to an amendment of any covenant in the loan agreement the effect of which is to cure or avoid a breach that would trigger a default.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>De minimis 10-percent segment.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the debtor is not a contributing sponsor of the plan and represents a <I>de minimis</I> 10-percent segment of the plan's controlled group for the most recent fiscal year(s) ending on or before the date the reportable event occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign entity.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the debtor is a foreign entity other than a foreign parent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.35" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.2.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.35   Insolvency or similar settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> A reportable event occurs for a plan when any member of the plan's controlled group—
</P>
<P>(1) Commences or has commenced against it any insolvency proceeding (including, but not limited to, the appointment of a receiver) other than a bankruptcy case under the Bankruptcy Code;
</P>
<P>(2) Commences, or has commenced against it, a proceeding to effect a composition, extension, or settlement with creditors;
</P>
<P>(3) Executes a general assignment for the benefit of creditors; or
</P>
<P>(4) Undertakes to effect any other nonjudicial composition, extension, or settlement with substantially all its creditors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>De minimis 10-percent segment.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person described in paragraph (a) of this section is not a contributing sponsor of the plan and represents a <I>de minimis</I> 10-percent segment of the plan's controlled group for the most recent fiscal year(s) ending on or before the date the reportable event occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign entity.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person described in paragraph (a) of this section is a foreign entity other than a foreign parent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liquidation event.</I> Notice under paragraph (a)(3) or (4) of this section is waived if reporting is also required under § 4043.30 and notice has been provided timely to PBGC for the same event under that section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6064, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Advance Notice of Reportable Events</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.61" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.61   Advance reporting filing obligation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Unless a waiver or extension applies with respect to the plan, each contributing sponsor of a plan is required to notify PBGC no later than 30 days before the effective date of a reportable event described in this subpart C if the contributing sponsor is subject to advance reporting for the reportable event. If there is a change in contributing sponsor, the responsibility for any failure to file or defective filing lies with the person who is the contributing sponsor of the plan on the notice date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Persons subject to advance reporting.</I> A contributing sponsor of a plan is subject to the advance reporting requirement under paragraph (a) of this section for a reportable event if —
</P>
<P>(1) On the notice date, neither the contributing sponsor nor any member of the plan's controlled group to which the event relates is a public company; and
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate unfunded vested benefits, determined in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, are more than $50 million; and
</P>
<P>(3) The aggregate value of plan assets, determined in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, is less than 90 percent of the aggregate premium funding target, determined in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Funding determinations.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, the aggregate unfunded vested benefits, aggregate value of plan assets, and aggregate premium funding target are determined by aggregating the unfunded vested benefits, values of plan assets, and premium funding targets (respectively), as determined in accordance with part 4006 of this chapter for purposes of the variable-rate premium for the plan year preceding the effective date of the event, of plans maintained (on the notice date) by the contributing sponsor and any members of the contributing sponsor's controlled group, disregarding plans with no unfunded vested benefits (as so determined).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Shortening of 30-day period.</I> Pursuant to § 4043.3(d), PBGC may, upon review of an advance notice, shorten the notice period to allow for an earlier effective date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.62" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.62   Change in controlled group.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> Advance notice is required for a change in a plan's controlled group, as described in § 4043.29(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>Small and mid-size plans.</I> Notice under this section is waived with respect to a change of contributing sponsor if the transferred plan has fewer than 500 participants.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>De minimis 5-percent segment.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person or persons that will cease to be members of the plan's controlled group represent a <I>de minimis</I> 5-percent segment of the plan's old controlled group for the most recent fiscal year(s) ending on or before the effective date of the reportable event.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.63" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.63   Liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> Advance notice is required for a liquidation of a member of a plan's controlled group, as described in § 4043.30.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver—de minimis 5-percent segment and ongoing plans.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person that liquidates is a <I>de minimis</I> 5-percent segment of the plan's controlled group for the most recent fiscal year(s) ending on or before the effective date of the reportable event, and each plan that was maintained by the liquidating member is maintained by another member of the plan's controlled group.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.64" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.64   Extraordinary dividend or stock redemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> Advance notice is required for a distribution by a member of a plan's controlled group, as described in § 4043.31(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver—de minimis 5-percent segment.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the person making the distribution is a <I>de minimis</I> 5-percent segment of the plan's controlled group for the most recent fiscal year(s) ending on or before the effective date of the reportable event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.65" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.65   Transfer of benefit liabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> Advance notice is required for a transfer of benefit liabilities, as described in § 4043.32(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>Complete plan transfer.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the transfer is a transfer of all of the transferor plan's benefit liabilities and assets to one other plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transfer of less than 3 percent of assets.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the value of the assets being transferred—
</P>
<P>(i) Equals the present value of the accrued benefits (whether or not vested) being transferred, using actuarial assumptions that comply with section 414(<I>l</I>) of the Code; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In conjunction with other assets transferred during the same plan year, is less than 3 percent of the assets of the transferor plan as of at least one day in that year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Section 414(l) safe harbor.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the benefit liabilities of 500 or fewer participants are transferred and the transfer complies with section 414(<I>l</I>) of the Code using the actuarial assumptions prescribed for valuing benefits in trusteed plans under §§ 4044.51 through 4044.58 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fully funded plans.</I> Notice under this section is waived if the transfer complies with section 414(<I>l</I>) of the Code using reasonable actuarial assumptions and, after the transfer, the transferor and transferee plans are fully funded as determined in accordance with §§ 4044.51 through 4044.58 of this chapter and § 4010.8(d)(1)(ii) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 89 FR 48300, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.66" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.66   Application for minimum funding waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> Advance notice is required for an application for a minimum funding waiver, as described in § 4043.33.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension.</I> The notice date is extended until 10 days after the reportable event has occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.67" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.67   Loan default.</HEAD>
<P>Advance notice is required for an acceleration of payment, a default, a waiver, or an agreement to an amendment with respect to a loan agreement described in § 4043.34(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.68" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.68   Insolvency or similar settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable event.</I> Advance notice is required for an insolvency or similar settlement, as described in § 4043.35.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension.</I> For a case or proceeding under § 4043.35(a)(1) or (2) that is not commenced by a member of the plan's controlled group, the notice date is extended to 10 days after the commencement of the case or proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Notice of Failure To Make Required Contributions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4043.81" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.13.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4043.81   PBGC Form 200, notice of failure to make required contributions; supplementary information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> To comply with the notification requirement in section 303(k)(4) of ERISA and section 430(k)(4) of the Code, a contributing sponsor of a single-employer plan that is covered under section 4021 of ERISA and (if that contributing sponsor is a member of a parent-subsidiary controlled group) the ultimate parent must complete and submit in accordance with this section a properly certified Form 200 that includes all required documentation and other information, as described in the related filing instructions. Notice is required whenever the unpaid balance of a contribution payment required under sections 302 and 303 of ERISA and sections 412 and 430 of the Code (including interest), when added to the aggregate unpaid balance of all preceding such payments for which payment was not made when due (including interest), exceeds $1 million.
</P>
<P>(1) Form 200 must be filed with PBGC no later than 10 days after the due date for any required payment for which payment was not made when due.
</P>
<P>(2) If a contributing sponsor or the ultimate parent completes and submits Form 200 in accordance with this section, PBGC will consider the notification requirement in section 303(k)(4) of ERISA and section 430(k)(4) of the Code to be satisfied by all members of a controlled group of which the person who has filed Form 200 is a member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supplementary information.</I> If, upon review of a Form 200, PBGC concludes that it needs additional information in order to make decisions regarding enforcement of a lien imposed by section 303(k) of ERISA and section 430(k) of the Code, PBGC may require any member of the contributing sponsor's controlled group to supplement the Form 200 in accordance with § 4043.3(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 55002, Sept. 11, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6064, Feb. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4044" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4044—ALLOCATION OF ASSETS IN SINGLE-EMPLOYER PLANS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1301(a), 1302(b)(3), 1341, 1344, 1362.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Certain provisions of part 4044 have been superseded by legislative changes. For example, there are references to provisions formerly codified in 29 CFR part 2617, subpart C (and to the Notice of Sufficiency provided for thereunder) that no longer exist because of changes in the PBGC's plan termination regulations in response to the Single-Employer Pension Plan Amendments Act of 1986 and the Pension Protection Act of 1987. The PBGC intends to amend part 4044 at a later date to conform it to current statutory provisions.</P></NOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Allocation of Assets</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.18.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements section 4044 of ERISA, which contains rules for allocating a plan's assets when the plan terminates. These rules have been in effect since September 2, 1974, the date of enactment of ERISA. This part applies to any single-employer plan covered by title IV of ERISA that submits a notice of intent to terminate, or for which PBGC commences an action to terminate the plan under section 4042 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Subpart A.</I> Sections 4044.1 through 4044.4 set forth general rules for applying §§ 4044.10 through 4044.17. Sections 4044.10 through 4044.17 interpret the rules and describe procedures for allocating plan assets to priority categories 1 through 6. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subpart B.</I> The purpose of subpart B is to establish the method of determining the value of benefits and assets under terminating single-employer pension plans covered by title IV of ERISA. This valuation is needed for both plans trusteed under title IV and plans which are not trusteed. For the former, the valuation is needed to allocate plan assets in accordance with subpart A of this part and to determine the amount of any plan asset insufficiency. For the latter, the valuation is needed to allocate assets in accordance with subpart A and to distribute the assets in accordance with subpart B of part 4041 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(1) Section 4044.41 sets forth the general provisions of subpart B and applies to all terminating single-employer plans. Sections 4044.51 through 4044.58 prescribe the benefit valuation rules for plans that are placed into trusteeship by PBGC, including (in §§ 4044.55 through 4044.58) the rules and procedures a plan administrator shall follow to determine the expected retirement age (XRA) for a plan participant entitled to early retirement benefits for whom the annuity starting date is not known as of the valuation date. This applies to all trusteed plans which have such early retirement benefits. The plan administrator shall determine an XRA under § 4044.55, § 4044.56 or § 4044.57, as appropriate, for each active participant or participant with a deferred vested benefit who is entitled to an early retirement benefit and who as of the valuation date has not selected an annuity starting date. 
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 4044.71 through 4044.75 prescribe the benefit valuation rules for calculating the value of a benefit to be paid a participant or beneficiary under a terminating pension plan that is distributing assets where the plan has not been placed into trusteeship by PBGC. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34605, June 14, 2011; 89 FR 48300, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.18.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: annuity, bankruptcy filing date, basic-type benefit, Code, distribution date, earliest retirement age at valuation date, ERISA, expected retirement age (XRA), fair market value, guaranteed benefit, insurer, IRS, irrevocable commitment, majority owner, mandatory employee contributions, nonbasic-type benefit, nonforfeitable benefit, non-PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, normal retirement age, notice of intent to terminate, PBGC, person, plan, plan administrator, single-employer plan, termination date, unreduced retirement age (URA), and voluntary employee contributions. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Deferred annuity</I> means an annuity under which the specified date or age at which payments are to begin occurs after the valuation date. 
</P>
<P><I>Early retirement benefit</I> means an annuity benefit payable under the terms of the plan, under which the participant is entitled to begin receiving payments before his or her normal retirement age and which is not payable on account of the disability of the participant. It may be reduced according to the terms of the plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Non-trusteed plan</I> means a single-employer plan which is able to close out by purchasing annuities in the private sector 
</P>
<P><I>Priority category</I> means one of the categories contained in sections 4044 (a)(1) through (a)(6) of ERISA that establish the order in which plan assets are to be allocated. 
</P>
<P><I>Trusteed plan</I> means a single-employer plan which has been placed into trusteeship by PBGC. 
</P>
<P><I>Valuation date</I> means (1) for non-trusteed plans, the date of distribution and (2) for trusteed plans, the termination date. 
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of subpart B of this part (unless otherwise required by the context): 
</P>
<P><I>Age</I> means the participant's age at his or her nearest birthday and is determined by rounding the individual's exact age to the nearest whole year. Half years are rounded to the next highest year. This is also known as the “insurance age.” 
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of §§ 4044.55 through 4044.58: 
</P>
<P><I>Monthly benefit</I> means the guaranteed benefit payable by PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of §§ 4044.71 through 4044.75: 
</P>
<P><I>Lump sum payable in lieu of an annuity</I> means a benefit that is payable in a single installment and is derived from an annuity payable under the plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Other lump sum benefit</I> means a benefit in priority category 5 or 6, determined under subpart A of this part, that is payable in a single installment (or substantially so) under the terms of the plan, and that is not derived from an annuity payable under the plan. The benefit may be a severance pay benefit, a death benefit or other single installment benefit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 16959, Apr. 8, 2002; 74 FR 11035, Mar. 16, 2009; 76 FR 34605, June 14, 2011; 83 FR 49806, Oct. 3, 2018; 89 FR 48300, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.18.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.3   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Asset allocation.</I> Upon the termination of a single-employer plan, the plan administrator shall allocate the plan assets available to pay for benefits under the plan in the manner prescribed by this subpart. Plan assets available to pay for benefits include all plan assets (valued according to § 4044.41(b)) remaining after the subtraction of all liabilities, other than liabilities for future benefit payments, paid or payable from plan assets under the provisions of the plan. Liabilities include expenses, fees and other administrative costs, and benefit payments due before the allocation date. Except as provided in § 4044.4(b), an irrevocable commitment by an insurer to pay a benefit, which commitment is in effect on the date of the asset allocation, is not considered a plan asset, and a benefit payable under such a commitment is excluded from the allocation process. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocation date.</I> For plans that close out under § 4041.28 or § 4041.50, assets shall be allocated as of the date plan assets are to be distributed. For other plans, assets shall be allocated as of the termination date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34605, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.18.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.4   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A plan administrator violates ERISA if plan assets are allocated or distributed upon plan termination in a manner other than that prescribed in section 4044 of ERISA and this subpart, except as may be required to prevent disqualification of the plan under the Code and regulations thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distributions in anticipation of termination.</I> A distribution, transfer, or allocation of assets to a participant or to an insurance company for the benefit of a participant, made in anticipation of plan termination, is considered to be an allocation of plan assets upon termination, and is covered by paragraph (a) of this section. In determining whether a distribution, transfer, or allocation of assets has been made in anticipation of plan termination PBGC will consider all of the facts and circumstances including—
</P>
<P>(1) Any change in funding or operation procedures; 
</P>
<P>(2) Past practice with regard to employee requests for forms of distribution; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the distribution is consistent with plan provisions; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether an annuity contract that provides for a cutback based on the guarantee limits in subpart B of part 4022 of this chapter could have been purchased from an insurance company. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Allocation of Assets to Benefit Categories</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.10   Manner of allocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The plan administrator shall allocate plan assets available to pay for benefits under the plan using the rules and procedures set forth in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section, or any other procedure that results in each participant (or beneficiary) receiving the same benefits he or she would receive if the procedures in paragraphs (b) through (f) were followed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assigning benefits.</I> The basic-type and nonbasic-type benefits payable with respect to each participant in a terminated plan shall be assigned to one or more priority categories in accordance with §§ 4044.11 through 4044.16. Benefits derived from voluntary employee contributions, which are assigned only to priority category 1, are treated, under section 204(c)(4) of ERISA and section 411(d)(5) of the Code, as benefits under a separate plan. The amount of a benefit payable with respect to each participant shall be determined as of the termination date, but, in a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination, subject to the limitations in sections 4022(g) and 4044(e) of ERISA (and corresponding provisions of these regulations). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Valuing benefits.</I> The value of a participant's benefit or benefits assigned to each priority category shall be determined, as of the allocation date, in accordance with the provisions of subpart B of this part. The value of each participant's basic-type benefit or benefits in a priority category shall be reduced by the value of the participant's benefit of the same type that is assigned to a higher priority category. Except as provided in the next two sentences, the same procedure shall be followed for nonbasic-type benefits. The value of a participant's nonbasic-type benefits in priority categories 3, 5, and 6 shall not be reduced by the value of the participant's nonbasic-type benefit assigned to priority category 2. Benefits in priority category 1 shall neither be included in nor subtracted from lower priority categories. In no event shall a benefit assigned to a priority category be valued at less than zero. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Allocating assets to priority categories.</I> Plan assets available to pay for benefits under the plan shall be allocated to each priority category in succession, beginning with priority category 1. If the plan has sufficient assets to pay for all benefits in a priority category, the remaining assets shall then be allocated to the next lower priority category. This process shall be repeated until all benefits in priority categories 1 through 6 have been provided or until all available plan assets have been allocated. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Allocating assets within priority categories.</I> Except for priority categories 4 and 5, if the plan assets available for allocation to any priority category are insufficient to pay for all benefits in that priority category, those assets shall be distributed among the participants according to the ratio that the value of each participant's benefit or benefits in that priority category bears to the total value of all benefits in that priority category. If the plan assets available for allocation to priority category 4 are insufficient to pay for all benefits in that category, the assets shall be allocated, first, to the value of all participants' nonforfeitable benefits that would be assigned to priority category 4 other than those impacted by the majority-owner limitation under § 4022.26 of this chapter. If assets available for allocation to priority category 4 are sufficient to fully satisfy the value of those other benefits, the remaining assets shall then be allocated to the value of the benefits that would be guaranteed but for the majority-owner limitation. These remaining assets shall be distributed among the majority owners according to the ratio that the value of each majority owner's benefit that would be guaranteed but for the majority-owner limitation bears to the total value of all benefits that would be guaranteed but for the majority-owner limitation. If the plan assets available for allocation to priority category 5 are insufficient to pay for all benefits in that category, the assets shall be allocated, first, to the value of each participant's nonforfeitable benefits that would be assigned to priority category 5 under § 4044.15 after reduction for the value of benefits assigned to higher priority categories, based only on the provisions of the plan in effect at the beginning of the five-year period immediately preceding the termination date. If assets available for allocation to priority category 5 are sufficient to fully satisfy the value of those benefits, assets shall then be allocated to the value of the benefit increase under the oldest amendment during the five-year period immediately preceding the termination date, reduced by the value of benefits assigned to higher priority categories (including higher subcategories in priority category 5). This allocation procedure shall be repeated for each succeeding plan amendment within the five-year period until all plan assets available for allocation have been exhausted. If an amendment decreased benefits, amounts previously allocated with respect to each participant in excess of the value of the reduced benefit shall be reduced accordingly. In the subcategory in which assets are exhausted, the assets shall be distributed among the participants according to the ratio that the value of each participant's benefit or benefits in that subcategory bears to the total value of all benefits in that subcategory.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applying assets to basic-type or nonbasic-type benefits within priority categories.</I> The assets allocated to a participant's benefit or benefits within each priority category shall first be applied to pay for the participant's basic-type benefit or benefits assigned to that priority category. Any assets allocated on behalf of that participant remaining after satisfying the participant's basic-type benefit or benefits in that priority category shall then be applied to pay for the participant's nonbasic-type benefit or benefits assigned to that priority category. If the assets allocable to a participant's basic-type benefit or benefits in all priority categories are insufficient to pay for all of the participant's guaranteed benefits, the assets allocated to that participant's benefit in priority category 4 shall be applied, first, to the guaranteed portion of the participant's benefit in priority category 4. The remaining assets allocated to that participant's benefit in priority category 4, if any, shall be applied to the nonguaranteed portion of the participant's benefit. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Allocation to established subclasses.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, the assets of a plan that has established subclasses within any priority category may be allocated to the plan's subclasses in accordance with the rules set forth in § 4044.17. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34605, June 14, 2011; 83 FR 49806, Oct. 3, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.11   Priority category 1 benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The benefits in priority category 1 are participants' accrued benefits derived from voluntary employee contributions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assigning benefits.</I> Absent an election described in the next sentence, the benefit assigned to priority category 1 with respect to each participant is the balance of the separate account maintained for the participant's voluntary contributions. If a participant has elected to receive an annuity in lieu of his or her account balance, the benefit assigned to priority category 1 with respect to that participant is the present value of that annuity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.12   Priority category 2 benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The benefits in priority category 2 are participants' accrued benefits derived from mandatory employee contributions, whether to be paid as an annuity benefit with a pre-retirement death benefit that returns mandatory employee contributions or, if a participant so elects under the terms of the plan and subpart A of part 4022 of this chapter, as a lump sum benefit. Benefits are primarily basic-type benefits although nonbasic-type benefits may also be included as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Basic-type benefits.</I> The basic-type benefit in priority category 2 with respect to each participant is the sum of the values of the annuity benefit and the pre-retirement death benefit determined under the provisions of paragraph (c)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonbasic-type benefits.</I> If a participant elects to receive a lump sum benefit and if the value of the lump sum benefit exceeds the value of the basic-type benefit in priority category 2 determined with respect to the participant, the excess is a nonbasic-type benefit. There is no nonbasic-type benefit in priority category 2 for a participant who does not elect to receive a lump sum benefit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conversion of mandatory employee contributions to an annuity benefit.</I> Subject to the limitation set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a participant's accumulated mandatory employee contributions shall be converted to an annuity form of benefit payable at the normal retirement age or, if the plan provides for early retirement, at the expected retirement age. The conversion shall be made using the interest rates and factors specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The form of the annuity benefit (e.g., straight life annuity, joint and survivor annuity, cash refund annuity, etc.) is the form that the participant or beneficiary is entitled to on the termination date. If the participant does not have a nonforfeitable right to a benefit, other than the return of his or her mandatory contributions in a lump sum, the annuity form of benefit is the form the participant would be entitled to if the participant had a nonforfeitable right to an annuity benefit under the plan on the termination date. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Accumulated mandatory employee contributions.</I> Subject to any addition for the cost of ancillary benefits plus interest, as provided in the following sentence, the amount of the accumulated mandatory employee contributions for each participant is the participant's total nonforfeitable mandatory employee contributions remaining in the plan on the termination date plus interest, if any, under the plan provisions. Mandatory employee contributions, if any, used after the effective date of the minimum vesting standards in section 203 of ERISA and section 411 of the Code for costs or to provide ancillary benefits such as life insurance or health insurance, plus interest under the plan provisions, shall be added to the contributions that remain in the plan to determine the accumulated mandatory employee contributions. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interest rates and conversion factors.</I> The interest rates and conversion factors used in the administration of the plan shall be used to convert a participant's accumulated mandatory contributions to the annuity form of benefit. In the absence of plan rules and factors, the interest rates and conversion factors established by the IRS for allocation of accrued benefits between employer and employee contributions under the provisions of section 204(c) of ERISA and section 411(c) of the Code shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Minimum accrued benefit.</I> The annuity benefit derived from mandatory employee contributions may not be less than the minimum accrued benefit under the provisions of section 204(c) of ERISA and section 411(c) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rollover amounts.</I> In the case of a benefit resulting from rollover amounts, notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the interest rates and conversion factors in paragraph (c)(4) of this section are used to determine the portion of the accrued benefit derived from the employee's contributions and, if any, the portion of the accrued benefit derived from employer contributions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assigning benefits.</I> If a participant or beneficiary elects to receive a lump sum benefit, his or her benefit shall be determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Otherwise, the benefits with respect to a participant shall be determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity benefit and pre-retirement death benefit.</I> The annuity benefit and the pre-retirement death benefit assigned to priority category 2 with respect to a participant are determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The annuity benefit is the benefit computed under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for adjustments necessary to meet the minimum lump sum requirements as hereafter provided, the pre-retirement death benefit is the benefit under the plan that returns all or a portion of the participant's mandatory employee contributions upon the death of the participant before retirement. A benefit that became payable in a single installment (or substantially so) because the participant died before the termination date is a liability of the plan within the meaning of § 4044.3(a) and should not be assigned to priority category 2. A benefit payable upon a participant's death that is included in the annuity form of the benefit derived from mandatory employee contributions (e.g., the survivor's portion of a joint and survivor annuity or the cash refund portion of a cash refund annuity) is assigned to priority category 2 as part of the annuity benefit under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section and is not assigned as a death benefit. The pre-retirement death benefit may not be less than the minimum lump sum required upon withdrawal of mandatory employee contributions by the IRS under section 204(c) of ERISA and section 411(c) of the Code. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lump sum benefit.</I> Except for adjustments necessary to meet the minimum lump sum requirements as hereafter provided, if a participant elects to receive a lump sum benefit under the provisions of the plan, the amount of the benefit that is assigned to priority category 2 with respect to the participant is—
</P>
<P>(i) The combined value of the annuity benefit and the pre-retirement death benefit determined according to paragraph (c)(1) (which constitutes the basic-type benefit) plus 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount, if any, of the participant's accumulated mandatory employee contributions that exceeds the combined value of the annuity benefit and the pre-retirement death benefit (which constitutes the nonbasic-type benefit), but not more than 
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of the participant's accumulated mandatory contributions. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, accumulated mandatory contributions means the contributions with interest, if any, payable under plan provisions to the participant or beneficiary on termination of the plan or, in the absence of such provisions, the amount that is payable if the participant withdrew his or her contributions on the termination date. The lump sum benefit may not be less than the minimum lump required by the IRS under section 204(c) of ERISA and section 411(c) of the Code upon withdrawal of mandatory employee contributions. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special rules for benefit resulting from rollover amounts</I>—(i) <I>Mandatory employee contributions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, in the case of a benefit resulting from rollover amounts, the accrued benefit derived from mandatory employee contributions is determined using the interest rates and conversion factors under section 411(c)(2)(B) and (C) of the Code for purposes of computing an employee's accrued benefit derived from the employee's contributions. The annuity benefit and the pre-retirement death benefit, as determined on this basis, is the benefit resulting from rollover amounts in priority category 2.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Employer contributions.</I> Any portion of a participant's accrued benefit resulting from rollover amounts that is in excess of the accrued benefit derived from mandatory employee contributions determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section (<I>i.e.,</I> the accrued benefit derived from employer contributions) is a guaranteeable benefit in priority category 3, priority category 4, or priority category 5, as applicable under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 70095, Nov. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.13   Priority category 3 benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The benefits in priority category 3 are those annuity benefits that were in pay status before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date, and those annuity benefits that could have been in pay status (then or as of the next payment date under the plan's rules for starting benefit payments) for participants who, before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date, had reached their Earliest PBGC Retirement Date (as determined under § 4022.10 of this chapter) based on plan provisions in effect on the day before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date. For example, in a plan with a termination date of September 1, 2012, the benefits in priority category 3 are those annuity benefits that were in pay status on or before September 1, 2009, and those annuity benefits that could have been in pay status for participants who, on or before September 1, 2009, had reached their Earliest PBGC Retirement Date based on plan provisions in effect on September 1, 2009. Benefit increases, as defined in § 4022.2, that were in effect throughout the 5-year period ending on the termination date, including automatic benefit increases during that period to the extent provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, shall be included in determining the priority category 3 benefit. For example, in a plan with a termination date of September 1, 2012, a benefit increase that was in effect throughout the 5-year period from September 2, 2007, to September 1, 2012, is included in priority category 3. Benefits are primarily basic-type benefits, although nonbasic-type benefits will be included if any portion of a participant's priority category 3 benefit is not guaranteeable under the provisions of subpart A of part 4022 and § 4022.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assigning benefits.</I> The annuity benefit that is assigned to priority category 3 with respect to each participant is the lowest annuity that was paid or payable under the rules in paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligibility of participants and beneficiaries.</I> A participant or beneficiary is eligible for a priority category 3 benefit if either of the following applies: 
</P>
<P>(i) The participant's (or beneficiary's) benefit was in pay status before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date, the participant was eligible for an annuity benefit that could have been in pay status and had reached his or her Earliest PBGC Retirement Date (as determined in § 4022.10 of this chapter, based on plan provisions in effect on the day before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date). Whether a participant was eligible to receive an annuity before the beginning of the 3-year period shall be determined using the plan provisions in effect on the day before the beginning of the 3-year period. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If a participant described in either of the preceding two paragraphs died during the 3-year period ending on the date of the plan termination and his or her beneficiary is entitled to an annuity, the beneficiary is eligible for a priority category 3 benefit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan provisions governing determination of benefit.</I> In determining the amount of the priority category 3 annuity with respect to a participant, the plan administrator shall use the participant's age, service, actual or expected retirement age, and other relevant facts as of the following dates: 
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3), for a participant or beneficiary whose benefit was in pay status before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date, the priority category 3 benefit shall be determined according to plan provisions in effect on the date the benefit commenced. The form of annuity elected by a retiree is considered the normal form of annuity for that participant. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3), for a participant who was eligible to receive an annuity before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date but whose benefit was not in pay status, the priority category 3 benefit and the normal form of annuity shall be determined according to plan provisions in effect on the day before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date as if the benefit had commenced at that time. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>General benefit limitations.</I> The general benefit limitation is determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) If a participant's benefit was in pay status before the beginning of the 3-year period, the benefit assigned to priority category 3 with respect to that participant is limited to the lesser of the lowest annuity benefit in pay status during the 3-year period ending on the termination date and the lowest annuity benefit payable under the plan provisions at any time during the 5-year period ending on the termination date. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless a benefit was in pay status before the beginning of the 3-year period ending on the termination date, the benefit assigned to priority category 3 with respect to a participant is limited to the lowest annuity benefit payable under the plan provisions, including any reduction for early retirement, at any time during the 5-year period ending on the termination date. If the annuity form of benefit under a formula that appears to produce the lowest benefit differs from the normal annuity form for the participant under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the benefits shall be compared after the differing form is converted to the normal annuity form, using plan factors. In the absence of plan factors, the factors in subpart B of part 4022 of this chapter shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph, if a terminating plan has been in effect less than five years on the termination date, computed in accordance with paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the lowest annuity benefit under the plan during the 5-year period ending on the termination date is zero. If the plan is a successor to a previously established defined benefit plan within the meaning of section 4021(a) of ERISA, the time it has been in effect will include the time the predecessor plan was in effect. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Determination of beneficiary's benefit.</I> If a beneficiary is eligible for a priority category 3 benefit because of the death of a participant during the 3-year period ending on the termination date, the benefit assigned to priority category 3 for the beneficiary shall be determined as if the participant had died the day before the 3-year period began. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Automatic benefit increases.</I> If plan provisions adopted and effective on or before the first day of the 5-year period ending on the termination date provided for automatic increases in the benefit formula for both active participants and those in pay status or for participants in pay status only, the lowest annuity benefit payable during the 5-year period ending on the termination date determined under paragraph (b)(3) of this section includes the automatic increases scheduled during the fourth and fifth years preceding termination, subject to the restriction that benefit increases for active participants in excess of the increases for retirees shall not be taken into account. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Computation of time periods.</I> For purposes of this section, a plan or amendment is “in effect” on the later of the date on which it is adopted or the date it becomes effective. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination.</I> In a PPA 2006 bankruptcy termination:
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of this paragraph (c), “applicable pre-termination period” means the period—
</P>
<P>(i) Beginning on the first day of the 5-year period ending on the bankruptcy filing date; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Ending on the termination date. For example, if the bankruptcy filing date is January 15, 2008, and the termination date is March 22, 2009, the applicable pre-termination period is the period beginning on January 16, 2003, and ending on March 22, 2009.
</P>
<P>(2) “Applicable pre-termination period” is substituted for “5-year period ending on the termination date” each place that “5-year period ending on the termination date” appears in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, “bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination date” and “date of the plan termination” each place that “termination date” and “date of the plan termination” appear in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. In paragraph (b)(5) of this section, “the bankruptcy filing date” is substituted for “termination” in the phrase “during the fourth and fifth years preceding termination.”
</P>
<P>(4) Example: A plan provides for normal retirement at age 65 and has only one early retirement benefit: a subsidized early retirement benefit for participants who terminate employment on or after age 60 with 20 years of service. These plan provisions have been unchanged since 1990. The contributing sponsor of the plan files a bankruptcy petition in June 2008, and the plan terminates during the bankruptcy with a termination date in September 2010. A participant retired in July 2007, at which time he was age 60 and had 20 years of service, and began receiving the subsidized early retirement benefit. The participant has no benefit in priority category 3, because he was not eligible to retire three or more years before the June 2008 bankruptcy filing date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 67729, Dec. 30, 1997; 67 FR 16959, Apr. 8, 2002; 67 FR 38003, May 31, 2002; 76 FR 34605, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.14   Priority category 4 benefits.</HEAD>
<P>The benefits assigned to priority category 4 with respect to each participant are the participant's guaranteed benefits, except as provided in the next sentence. The benefit assigned to priority category 4 with respect to a participant is not limited by the aggregate benefits limitations set forth in § 4022B.1 of this chapter for individuals who are participants in more than one plan or by the guarantee limitation applicable to majority owners set forth in § 4022.26. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34606, June 14, 2011; 83 FR 49806, Oct. 3, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.15   Priority category 5 benefits.</HEAD>
<P>The benefits assigned to priority category 5 with respect to each participant are all of the participant's nonforfeitable benefits under the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.16   Priority category 6 benefits.</HEAD>
<P>The benefits assigned to priority category 6 with respect to each participant are all of the participant's benefits under the plan, whether forfeitable or nonforfeitable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.17" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.19.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.17   Subclasses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A plan may establish one or more subclasses within any priority category, other than priority categories 1 and 2, which subclasses will govern the allocation of assets within that priority category. The subclasses may be based only on a participant's longer service, older age, or disability, or any combination thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, whenever the allocation within a priority category on the basis of the subclasses established by the plan increases or decreases the cumulative amount of assets that otherwise would be allocated to guaranteed benefits, the assets so shifted shall be reallocated to other participants' benefits within the priority category in accordance with the subclasses. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for subclasses in effect on September 2, 1974.</I> A plan administrator may allocate assets to subclasses within any priority category, other than priority categories 1 and 2, without regard to the limitation in paragraph (b) of this section if, on September 2, 1974, the plan provided for allocation of plan assets upon termination of the plan based on a participant's longer service, older age, or disability, or any combination thereof, and—
</P>
<P>(1) Such provisions are still in effect; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The plan, if subsequently amended to modify or remove those subclasses, is re-amended to re-establish the same subclasses on or before July 28, 1981. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discrimination under Code.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, allocation of assets to subclasses established under this section is permitted only to the extent that the allocation does not result in discrimination prohibited under the Code and regulations thereunder. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Allocation of Residual Assets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.30" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.1.20.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.30   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Valuation of Benefits and Assets</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.41" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.21.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.41   General valuation rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Valuation of benefits</I>—(1) <I>Trusteed plans.</I> The plan administrator of a plan that has been or will be placed into trusteeship by the PBGC shall value plan benefits in accordance with §§ 4044.51 through 4044.58. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-trusteed plans.</I> The plan administrator of a non-trusteed plan shall value plan benefits in accordance with §§ 4044.71 through 4044.75. If a plan is unable to satisfy all benefits assigned to priority categories 1 through 4 on the distribution date, the PBGC will place it into trusteeship and the plan administrator shall re-value the benefits in accordance with §§ 4044.51 through 4044.58.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Valuation of assets.</I> Plan assets generally will be valued at their fair market value as defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter. As appropriate, plan assets will be valued at their fair value in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America (U.S. GAAP).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34606, June 14, 2011; 88 FR 44052, July 11, 2023; 89 FR 48300, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Trusteed Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.51" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.51   Benefits to be valued.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of benefit.</I> The plan administrator shall determine the form of each benefit to be valued in accordance with the following rules: 
</P>
<P>(1) If a benefit is in pay status as of the valuation date, the plan administrator shall value the form of the benefit being paid. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a benefit is not in pay status as of the valuation date but a valid election with respect to the form of benefit has been made on or before the valuation date, the plan administrator shall value the form of benefit so elected. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a benefit is not in pay status as of the valuation date and no valid election with respect to the form of benefit has been made on or before the valuation date, the plan administrator shall value the form of benefit that, under the terms of the plan, is payable in the absence of a valid election. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of benefit.</I> The plan administrator shall value benefits whose starting date is subject to election using the assumption specified in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Where election made.</I> If a valid election of the starting date of a benefit has been made on or before the valuation date, the plan administrator shall assume that the starting date of the benefit is the starting date so elected. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Where no election made.</I> If no valid election of the starting date of a benefit has been made on or before the valuation date, the plan administrator shall assume that the starting date of the benefit is the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) The expected retirement age, as determined under §§ 4044.55 through 4044.58, of the participant with respect to whom the benefit is payable, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The valuation date. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 89 FR 48300, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.52" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.52   Valuation of benefits.</HEAD>
<P>The plan administrator shall value all benefits as of the valuation date by—
</P>
<P>(a) Using the mortality assumptions prescribed by § 4044.53 and the interest assumptions prescribed by § 4044.54;
</P>
<P>(b) Using interpolation methods, where necessary, at least as accurate as linear interpolation;
</P>
<P>(c) Using valuation formulas that accord with generally accepted actuarial principles and practices; and
</P>
<P>(d) Adding an expense loading charge determined in accordance with this paragraph (d) to the total value of benefits.
</P>
<P>(1) Expense loading charge. The expense loading charge equals the sum of—
</P>
<P>(i) Four hundred dollars ($400) multiplied by the applicable inflation multiplier determined in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section and rounded to the nearest dollar, multiplied by the lesser of the participant count and 100, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Two hundred-fifty dollars ($250) multiplied by the applicable inflation multiplier determined in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section and rounded to the nearest dollar, multiplied by the excess, if any, of the participant count over 100.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicable inflation multiplier.</I> Except as provided in the next sentence, the applicable inflation multiplier equals the value of the CPI-U for September of the year preceding the year containing the valuation date divided by 296.808 (the value of the CPI-U for September of 2022), but not less than 1. However, for a valuation date on any day in January except the 31st, the applicable inflation multiplier is determined as if the valuation date were December 31 of the year preceding the year containing the valuation date. The term “CPI-U” means the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, not seasonally adjusted as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 14753, Mar. 17, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 72207, Dec. 2, 2005; 89 FR 48300, June 6, 2024; 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.53" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.53   Mortality assumptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Subject to paragraph (b) of this section (regarding certain death benefits), the plan administrator shall use the mortality factors prescribed in paragraphs (c), (d), (e), (f), and (g) of this section to value benefits under § 4044.52.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain death benefits.</I> If an annuity for one person is in pay status on the valuation date, and if the payment of a death benefit after the valuation date to another person, who need not be identifiable on the valuation date, depends in whole or in part on the death of the pay status annuitant, then the plan administrator shall value the death benefit using—
</P>
<P>(1) The mortality rates that are applicable to the annuity in pay status under this section to represent the mortality of the pay status annuitant; and
</P>
<P>(2) The mortality rates under paragraph (c) of this section to represent the mortality of the death beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Healthy lives</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the individual is not disabled under paragraph (f) of this section, the plan administrator must value the benefit using generational mortality tables described in this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Construction of generational mortality tables.</I> The generational mortality tables in this paragraph (c) are constructed from the base mortality tables described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section and the mortality improvement rates described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Base mortality tables.</I> The base mortality tables are set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section. The base year for those tables is 2012.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Mortality improvement rates.</I> The mortality improvement rates are the Scale MP-2021 Rates described in the Mortality Improvement Scale MP-2021 Report.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> The Mortality Improvement Scale MP-2021 Report, October 2021 is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at PBGC and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact PBGC at: Disclosure Division, Office of the General Counsel, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation; 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024; 202-326-4040. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the Society of Actuaries at: Society of Actuaries, 475 N. Martingale Rd., Suite 600, Schaumburg, IL 60173; (847) 706-3500; <I>https://www.soa.org/resources/experience-studies/2021/mortality-improvement-scale-mp-2021.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application of mortality improvement rates</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Under the generational mortality tables described in this paragraph (c), the probability of an individual's death at a particular age in the future is determined as the individual's base mortality rate that applies at that age (that is, the applicable mortality rate from the tables set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section for that age, gender, and status as an annuitant or a non-annuitant) multiplied by the cumulative mortality improvement factor for the individual's gender and for that age for the period from 2012 through the calendar year in which the individual is projected to reach the particular age. Paragraph (c)(3) of this section provides an example that illustrates how the base mortality tables in paragraph (c)(5) of this section and the Scale MP-2021 mortality improvement rates are combined to determine projected mortality rates.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cumulative mortality improvement factor.</I> The cumulative mortality improvement factor for an age and gender for a period is the product of the annual mortality improvement factors for that age and gender for each year within that period.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Annual mortality improvement factor.</I> The annual mortality improvement factor for an age and gender for a year is 1 minus the mortality improvement rate that applies for that age and gender for that year. If that annual mortality improvement rate is greater than 1 (corresponding to a negative mortality improvement rate), then the projected mortality rate for that age and gender for that year is greater than the projected mortality rate for the same age and gender for the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example of calculation using scale MP-2021 rates</I>—(i) <I>Calculation of mortality rate.</I> The mortality rate that is applied to male annuitants who are age 67 in 2024 is equal to the product of the mortality rate for 2012 that applied to male annuitants who were age 67 in 2012 (0.01288) and the cumulative mortality improvement factor for age 67 males from 2012 to 2024. The cumulative mortality improvement factor for age 67 males for the period from 2012 to 2024 is 0.9867, and the mortality rate for 2024 for male annuitants who are age 67 in that year would be 0.01271, as shown in the following table.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)—Example Mortality Rate Calculation
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Calendar year
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Scale MP-2021
<br/>mortality
<br/>improvement
<br/>rate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual mortality
<br/>improvement
<br/>factor
<br/>(1-mortality
<br/>improvement
<br/>rate)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cumulative
<br/>mortality
<br/>improvement
<br/>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mortality rate
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01288
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0052</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9948</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9948
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0027</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9973</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9921
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9912
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.0003)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9915
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.0010)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9925
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.0016)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.0016)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9957
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.0010)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9967
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9967
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9985</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9952
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0033</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9967</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9919
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0052</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9948</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9867</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01271</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Probability of survival for an individual.</I> After the projected mortality rates are derived for each age for each year, the rates are used to calculate the present value of a benefit stream that depends on the probability of survival year-by-year. For example, using the Scale MP-2021 rates, for purposes of calculating the present value of future payments in a benefit stream payable for a male annuitant who is age 67 in 2024, the probability of survival for the annuitant is based on the mortality rate for a male annuitant who is age 67 in 2024 (0.01271), and the projected mortality rate for a male annuitant who will be age 68 in 2025 (0.01369), age 69 in 2026 (0.01478), and so on.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Use of the tables</I>—(i) <I>Separate tables for annuitants and non-annuitants.</I> Separate mortality tables are provided for use for annuitants and non-annuitants. The non-annuitant mortality tables are applied to determine the probability of survival for a non-annuitant for the period before the non-annuitant is projected to commence receiving benefits. The annuitant mortality tables are applied to determine the present value of benefits for each annuitant. In addition, the annuitant mortality tables are applied for each non-annuitant with respect to each assumed commencement of benefits for the period beginning with that assumed commencement. For purposes of this section, an annuitant means a plan participant who has commenced receiving benefits, and a non-annuitant means a plan participant who has not yet commenced receiving benefits (for example, an active employee or a terminated vested participant). A participant whose benefit has partially commenced is treated as an annuitant for the portion of the benefit that has commenced and treated as a non-annuitant for the balance of the benefit. In addition, for a beneficiary of a participant, the annuitant mortality tables apply for the period beginning with each assumed commencement of benefits for the participant. If the participant has died (or to the extent the participant is assumed to die before commencing benefits), the annuitant mortality tables apply with respect to the beneficiary for the period beginning with each assumed commencement of benefits for the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of calculation using separate non-annuitant and annuitant tables.</I> For a 45-year-old active participant who is projected to commence receiving an annuity at age 55, benefit liabilities are determined using the non-annuitant mortality tables for the period before the participant attains age 55 and using the annuitant mortality tables for the period ages 55 and above. Similarly, for a 45-year-old terminated vested participant who is projected to commence an annuity at age 65, benefit liabilities are determined using the non-annuitant mortality tables for the period before the participant attains age 65 and using the annuitant mortality tables for ages 65 and above.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Base mortality tables.</I> The following are the base mortality tables. The base year for these tables is 2012.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(5)—Healthy Lives Base Mortality Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Males
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Females
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-annuitant
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annuitant
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-annuitant
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annuitant
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00544</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00544
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00038</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00038
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00030</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00030</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00040</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00040</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00046</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00046</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00053</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00053</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00058</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00058</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00025
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00059</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00059</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00026
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00028
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00031</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00031
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00034
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00068</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00068</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00036</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00036
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00071</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00071</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00040</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00074</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00074</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00043
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00077</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00082</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00047</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00049
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00081</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00099</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00051</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00086</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00078
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00091</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00158</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00060</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00101
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00097</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00071</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00165
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00310</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00077</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00206
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00378</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00083</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00252
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00454</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00090</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00304
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00539</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00098</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00362
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00544</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00426
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00565</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00495
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00588</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00616</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00512
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00647</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00517
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00686</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00522
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00728</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00528
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00308</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00770</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00561
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00338</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00811</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00206</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00601
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00369</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00848</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00643
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00403</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00882</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00690
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00441</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00918</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00264</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00743
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00481</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00287</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00796
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00312</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00859
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00573</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01087</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00928
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00636</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00706</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01288</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00427</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01089
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00784</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01418</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01192
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00870</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01564</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01309
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00967</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01729</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00606</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01444
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01073</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01914</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00681</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01597
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00765</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01770
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01323</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02354</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00860</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01967
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01469</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02613</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00966</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02192
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01632</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02905</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01085</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02445
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01812</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01219</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02727
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03604</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03042
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01539</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03391
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04504</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01729</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03775
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02754</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05046</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01943</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02989</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05657</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04663
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03460</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06343</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02516</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05178
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03089</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05754
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07977</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03853</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06401
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06285</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04808</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07698</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10032</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05955</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07954
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09346</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11248</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07293</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08879
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11229</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08822</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09936
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13348</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14088</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10542</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11124
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15703</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15703</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12453</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12453
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17401</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17401</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13818</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13818
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20936</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20936</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16737</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16737
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22742</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22742</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18274</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18274
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24569</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24569</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19863</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19863
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.26415</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.26415</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21509</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21509
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23214</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24983</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24983
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32077</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32077</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.26814</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.26814
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28698</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28698
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35910</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35910</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30619</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30619
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37794</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37794</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32549</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32549
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39633</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39633</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34472</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34472
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41415</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41415</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.36375</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.36375
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38243
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44771</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44771</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40065
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41828</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41828
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.47800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.47800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43522</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43522
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45139
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46673</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46673
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49477</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49477
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Social Security disabled lives.</I> If the individual is Social Security disabled under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the plan administrator will value the benefit using the following table.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)—Social Security Disabled Lives Mortality Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Male
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Female
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.012544</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.004759
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.007102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.006541
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005859</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008035
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008369
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008926</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009224
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008533</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008144
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008158</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008616
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008970</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008127
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008433</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008318
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008696</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008851
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009362</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.008694
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009780</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009477
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.010049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009664
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.011093</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009417
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.011075</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.009985
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.010931</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.010524
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.011890</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.010648
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.012529</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.011252
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.012418</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.011450
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.013234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.011448
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.013832</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.012135
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.014457</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.012579
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015830</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.012619
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.016153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.013578
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.016859</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.014243
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.017464</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.014520
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.018302</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.014773
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.019127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015630
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.020380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.016131
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.021607</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.016874
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.023407</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.017547
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.023956</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.018198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.025631</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.019281
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.026384</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.019413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.027277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.020343
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.028582</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.020488
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.030164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.021316
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.031262</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.021960
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.031728</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.021969
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.033067</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.022897
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.034230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.023556
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.035474</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.024159
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.036790</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.024958
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.037772</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.025905
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.039297</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.027414
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.039954</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.028394
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.041069</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.029795
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.042280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.030776
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.039144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.028230
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.043862</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.031667
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.046182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.033318
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.048624</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.034728
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.052077</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.037341
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.055284</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.039491
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.058951</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.042134
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.062301</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.044962
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.067099</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.047548
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.071469</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.051148
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075068</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.055271
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.080425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.059382
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.085531</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.063489
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.091585</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.068675
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.098383</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.074929
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.104788</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.080536
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.113110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.088455
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.122062</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.094573
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.131697</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.103589
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.140430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.111345
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.151890</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.122160
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.165777</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.130844
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.176875</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.142631
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.188397</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.156112
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.206651</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.166591
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.223252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.182064
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.235073</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.197059
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.249318</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.205768
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.267740</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.225325
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.277033</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.240441
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.284003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.260724
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.298740</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.281817
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.313086</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.293156
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.328740</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.308400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.345177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.324436
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.362436</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.341307
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.380558</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.359055
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.399586</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.377726
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.419565</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.397368
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.440543</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.418031
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.462571</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.439768
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.485699</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.462636
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.509984</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.486693
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.535483</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.512001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.562257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.538626
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.590370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.566634
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">111+</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.000000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.000000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Non-Social Security disabled lives.</I> If the individual is non-Social Security disabled under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the plan administrator will value the benefit using generational mortality tables described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Definitions of disability</I>—(1) <I>Social Security disabled.</I> A participant is Social Security disabled if, on the valuation date, the participant is less than age 65 and has a benefit in pay status that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is being received as a disability benefit under a plan provision requiring either receipt of or eligibility for Social Security disability benefits, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Was converted under the plan's terms from a disability benefit under a plan provision requiring either receipt of or eligibility for Social Security disability benefits to an early or normal retirement benefit for any reason other than a change in the participant's health status.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-Social Security disabled.</I> A participant is non-Social Security disabled if, on the valuation date, the participant is less than age 65, is not Social Security disabled, and has a benefit in pay status that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is being received as a disability benefit under the plan, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Was converted under the plan's terms from a disability benefit to an early or normal retirement benefit for any reason other than a change in the participant's health status.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contingent annuitant mortality during deferral period.</I> If a participant's joint and survivor benefit is valued as a deferred annuity, the mortality of the contingent annuitant during the deferral period will be disregarded.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Missing participants mortality.</I> The following mortality table is used to value benefits using “<I>PBGC missing participants assumptions”</I> under part 4050, subparts A, C, and D of this chapter.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)—Missing Participants Unisex Mortality Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Age
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Benefit determination
<br/>dates in 2024
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Benefit determination
<br/>dates in 2025
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Benefit determination
<br/>dates in 2026
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00204</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00202
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00006
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00004
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00006
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00008
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00014
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00015
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00016
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00017
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00019
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00022
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00025</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00024
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00026
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00027</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00027
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00030</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00030</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00030
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00032</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00031</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00031
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00033
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00036</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00036</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00035
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00038</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00038</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00037
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00040</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00040</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00039
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00042</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00041
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00044</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00044</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00043
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00046</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00045</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00044
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00047</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00046
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00048
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00052</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00051</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00054</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00053</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00052
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00058</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00057</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00056
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00060</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00059
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00065</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00064</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00064
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00070</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00069</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00068
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00076</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00076</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00075
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00085</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00084</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00083
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00095</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00094</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00092
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00103
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00117
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00139
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00172
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00235</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00232
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00276</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00273</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00269
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00321</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00317</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00313
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00365</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00360
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00441</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00434</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00428
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00514</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00507</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00577</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00562
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00658</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00641
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00748</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00738</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00729
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00834</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00823</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00813
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00928</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00916</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00904
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01008
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01127
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01294</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01278</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01262
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01452</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01417
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01631</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01611</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01592
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01837</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01815</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01794
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02073</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02025
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02345</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02317</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02291
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02656</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02626</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02596
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02979</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02945
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03417</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03382</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03345
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03899</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03862</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03823
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04395</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04356</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04315
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04959</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04916</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04872
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05595</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05549</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05502
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06317</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06267</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06217
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07083</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07029
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07947
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09044</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08982
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10286</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10154
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11526</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11457
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13036</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12962</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12889
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14463</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14387
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16090</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15933
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17679</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17601</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17522
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19284</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19206</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19127
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20898</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20822</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20745
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22545</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22467
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24386</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24311</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24234
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.26196</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.26123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.26048
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28059</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27986</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27912
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29887</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29814
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31891</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31817</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31746
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33825</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33748</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33676
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35757</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35673</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37583</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37502
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39521</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39436</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39354
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41327</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41166
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43080</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.42999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.42921
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44743</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46271</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46204
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.47628</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.47568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.47508
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48468</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48417</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48366
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49268</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49184
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49666</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49634</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49602
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49795</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49773</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49751
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49928</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49915</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49903
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49953</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49945
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49978</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49973</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49968
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49990
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 72207, Dec. 2, 2005, as amended at 89 FR 48300, June 6, 2024; 89 FR 104041, Dec. 20, 2024; 90 FR 59973, Dec. 23, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.54" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.54   Interest assumptions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260630" REFID="24">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 39464, June 30, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The plan administrator must use the interest rates prescribed in this section to value benefits under § 4044.52.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interest rate.</I> The interest rate used to discount an expected benefit payment is the interest rate from the applicable 4044 yield curve determined under paragraph (c) of this section for the maturity point that corresponds to the period of time from the valuation date to the date the benefit is expected to be paid unless that period of time exceeds 30 years. In that case, the interest rate used is the interest rate that corresponds to the maturity point at year 30.0. To address the timing of benefit payments during a year, reasonable approximations may be used to value benefit payments that are expected to be made during a plan year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>4044 yield curve.</I> A 4044 yield curve consists of interest rates (as percentages) that correspond to mid-year and whole-year maturity points for 30.0 years. The applicable 4044 yield curve is the applicable blended market yield curve determined under paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section adjusted in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section by the applicable spreads determined under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Blended market yield curves.</I> A blended market yield curve consists of interest rates (as percentages), determined as of the last day of a month, that correspond to mid-year and whole-year maturity points for 30.0 years.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable blended market yield curve.</I> The applicable blended market yield curve is the blended market yield curve as of the valuation date if the valuation date is the last day of a month, otherwise it is the blended market yield curve as of the last day of the month before the month containing the valuation date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of blended market yield curve.</I> The blended market yield curve is determined by combining the Department of the Treasury's TNC Treasury Yield Curve Spot Rates, End of Month yield curve (TNC Yield Curve) with the Department of the Treasury's HQM Corporate Bond Yield Curve Spot Rates, End of Month yield curve (HQM Bond Yield Curve) in accordance with this paragraph (d)(2). To determine the blended market yield curve as of the last day of a month—
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain the rate for each maturity point from 0.5 to 30.0 from the TNC Yield Curve for the end of the month published by the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtain the rate for each maturity point from 0.5 to 30.0 from the HQM Bond Yield Curve for the end of the month published by the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine the interest rate for each maturity point from 0.5 to 30.0 on the blended market yield curve by multiplying the rate determined in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section by one-third, multiplying the rate determined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section at the year by two-thirds, and adding the products.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Spreads</I>—(1) <I>Applicable spreads.</I> The applicable spreads for a blended market yield curve are the spreads set forth in table 1 to this paragraph (e) for the calendar quarter containing the date of the blended market yield curve.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Using spreads to adjust a blended market yield curve.</I> The 4044 yield curve described in paragraph (c) of this section is determined by adjusting the blended market yield curve. This adjustment is made by adding the interest rate for each maturity point on the blended market yield curve to the spread corresponding to that maturity point from the applicable spreads.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate how to determine the applicable blended market yield curve and applicable spreads for a given valuation date:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1—August 31, 2024, valuation date.</I> Because the valuation date is the last day of a month, the applicable blended market yield curve determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section is the blended market yield curve as of that date. Because August 31, 2024, is in the third calendar quarter of 2024, the applicable spreads are the third quarter 2024 spreads, available on <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2—November 15, 2024, valuation date.</I> Because the valuation date is not the last day of a month, the applicable blended market yield curve determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section is the blended market yield curve as of the last day of the month before the month containing the valuation date, October 31, 2024. Because October 31, 2024, is in the fourth calendar quarter of 2024, the applicable spreads are the fourth quarter 2024 spreads, available on <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)—Spreads
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maturity point
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Third quarter 2025 spreads
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fourth quarter 2025 spreads
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">First quarter 2026 spreads
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Second quarter
<br/>2026 spreads
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 48305, June 6, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 54347, July 1, 2024; 89 FR 76731, Sept. 19, 2024; 89 FR 104425, Dec. 23, 2024; 90 FR 14578, Apr. 3, 2025; 90 FR 28900, July 2, 2025; 90 FR 45919, Sept. 24, 2025; 91 FR 2300, Jan. 20, 2026; 91 FR 16839, Apr. 3, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Expected Retirement Age</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.55" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.55   XRA when a participant must retire to receive a benefit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in § 4044.57, the plan administrator shall determine the XRA under this section when plan provisions or established plan practice require a participant to retire from his or her job to begin receiving an early retirement benefit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data needed.</I> The plan administrator shall determine for each participant who is entitled to an early retirement benefit—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the participant's monthly benefit payable at unreduced retirement age in the normal form payable under the terms of the plan or in the form validly elected by the participant before the termination date; 
</P>
<P>(2) The calendar year in which the participant reaches unreduced retirement age (“URA”); 
</P>
<P>(3) The participant's URA; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The participant's earliest retirement age at the valuation date. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> (1) The plan administrator shall determine whether a participant is in the high, medium, or low retirement rate category using the applicable Selection of Retirement Rate Category Table in § 4044.58, based on the participant's benefit determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the year in which the participant reaches URA. 
</P>
<P>(2) Based on the retirement rate category determined under paragraph (c)(1), the plan administrator shall determine the XRA from Table II-A, II-B or II-C, as appropriate, by using the participant's URA and earliest retirement age at valuation date. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 89 FR 48306, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.56" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.56   XRA when a participant need not retire to receive a benefit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in § 4044.57, the plan administrator shall determine the XRA under this section when plan provisions or established plan practice do not require a participant to retire from his or her job to begin receiving his or her early retirement benefit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data needed.</I> The plan administrator shall determine for each participant—
</P>
<P>(1) The participant's URA; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The participant's earliest retirement age at valuation date. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Participants in this case are always assigned to the high retirement rate category and therefore the plan administrator shall use table II-C (Expected Retirement Ages for Individuals in the High Category) in § 4044.58 to determine the XRA. The plan administrator shall determine the XRA from table II-C by using the participant's URA and earliest retirement age at termination date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 89 FR 48306, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.57" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.57   Special rule for facility closing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The plan administrator shall determine the XRA under this section, rather than § 4044.55 or § 4044.56, when both the conditions set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section exist. 
</P>
<P>(1) The facility at which the participant is or was employed permanently closed within one year before the valuation date, or is in the process of being permanently closed on the valuation date. 
</P>
<P>(2) The participant left employment at the facility less than one year before the valuation date or was still employed at the facility on the valuation date. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>XRA.</I> The XRA is equal to the earliest retirement age at valuation date. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.58" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.58   Tables used to determine expected retirement age.</HEAD>
<P>The following tables are used for determining expected retirement age under §§ 4044.55 through 4044.57.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 4044.58—Table I-26—Selection of Retirement Rate Category
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[For valuation dates in 2026 
<sup>1</sup>]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">If participant reaches URA in year—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Participant's retirement rate category is—
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Low 
<sup>2</sup> if monthly benefit at URA is less than—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Medium 
<sup>3</sup> if monthly benefit at URA is—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">High 
<sup>4</sup> if monthly benefit at URA is greater than—
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">From—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">To—
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2027</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">849</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">849</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,587</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,587
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">869</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">869</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,670
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2029</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">888</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">888</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2030</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">908</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">908</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2031</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">928</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">928</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,917</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,917
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2032</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">948</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">948</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2033</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">969</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">969</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,092</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,092
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,182
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2035</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,274</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,274
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2036 or later</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,368</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,368
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Applicable tables for valuation dates before 2026 are available on PBGC's website (<E T="03">www.pbgc.gov</E>).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Table II-A.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Table II-B.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Table II-C.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 4044.58—Table II-A—Expected Retirement Ages for Individuals in the Low Category
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Participant's earliest retirement age at valuation date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="11" scope="col">Unreduced retirement age
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">60
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">61
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">62
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">63
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">64
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">66
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">67
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">68
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">69
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">70
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 4044.58—Table II-B—Expected Retirement Ages for Individuals in the Medium Category
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Participant's earliest retirement age at valuation date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="11" scope="col">Unreduced retirement age
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">60
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">61
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">62
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">63
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">64
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">66
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">67
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">68
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">69
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">70
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 4044.58—Table II-C—Expected Retirement Ages for Individuals in the High Category
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Participant's earliest retirement age at valuation date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="11" scope="col">Unreduced retirement age
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">60
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">61
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">62
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">63
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">64
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">66
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">67
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">68
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">69
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">70
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 48306, June 6, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 104043, Dec. 20, 2024; 90 FR 59975, Dec. 23, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Non-Trusteed Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.71" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.71   Valuation of annuity benefits.</HEAD>
<P>The value of a benefit which is to be paid as an annuity is the cost of purchasing the annuity on the date of distribution from an insurer. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34606, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.72" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.24.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.72   Form of annuity to be valued.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When both the participant and beneficiary are alive on the date of distribution, the form of annuity to be valued is—
</P>
<P>(1) For a participant or beneficiary already receiving a monthly benefit, that form which is being received, or 
</P>
<P>(2) For a participant or beneficiary not receiving a monthly benefit, the normal annuity form payable under the plan or the optional form for which the participant has made a valid election. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the participant dies after the date of plan termination but before the date of distribution, the form of annuity to be valued is determined under paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) For a participant who was entitled to a deferred annuity—
</P>
<P>(i) If the form was a single or joint life annuity, no benefit shall be valued; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the participant had made a valid election of a lump sum benefit before he or she died, the form to be valued is the lump sum. 
</P>
<P>(2) For a participant who was eligible for immediate retirement, and for a participant who was in pay status at the date of termination—
</P>
<P>(i) If the form was a single life annuity, no benefit shall be valued; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the form was an annuity for a period certain and life thereafter, the form to be valued is an annuity for the certain period; 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the form was a joint and survivor annuity, the form to be valued is a single life annuity payable to the beneficiary, unless the beneficiary has also died, in which case no benefit shall be valued; 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the form was an annuity for a period certain and joint and survivor thereafter, the form to be valued is an annuity for the certain period and the life of the beneficiary thereafter, unless the beneficiary has also died, in which case the form to be valued is an annuity for the certain period; 
</P>
<P>(v) If the form was a cash refund annuity, the form to be valued is the remaining lump sum death benefit; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) If the participant had elected a lump sum benefit before he or she died, the form to be valued is the lump sum. 
</P>
<P>(c) When the participant is still living and the named beneficiary or spouse dies after the date of termination but before the date of distribution, the form of annuity to be valued is determined under paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) For a participant entitled to a deferred annuity—
</P>
<P>(i) If the form was a joint and survivor annuity, the form to be valued is a single life annuity payable to the participant; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the form was an annuity for a period certain and joint and survivor thereafter, the form to be valued is an annuity for the certain period and the life of the participant thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(2) For a participant eligible for immediate retirement and for a participant in pay status at the date of termination—
</P>
<P>(i) If the form was a joint and survivor annuity, the form to be valued is a single life annuity payable to the participant; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the form was an annuity for a period certain and joint survivor thereafter annuity, the form to be valued is an annuity for the certain period and for the life of the participant thereafter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34606, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.73" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.24.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.73   Lump sums and other alternative forms of distribution in lieu of annuities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Valuation.</I> (1) The value of the lump sum or other alternative form of distribution is the present value of the normal form of benefit provided by the plan payable at normal retirement age, determined as of the date of distribution using reasonable actuarial assumptions as to interest and mortality. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the participant dies before the date of distribution, but had elected a lump sum benefit, the present value shall be determined as if the participant were alive on the date of distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Actuarial assumptions.</I> The plan administrator shall specify the actuarial assumptions used to determine the value calculated under paragraph (a) of this section when the plan administrator submits the benefit valuation data to the PBGC. The same actuarial assumptions shall be used for all such calculations. The PBGC reserves the right to review the actuarial assumptions used and to re-value the benefits determined by the plan administrator if the actuarial assumptions are found to be unreasonable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34606, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.74" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.24.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.74   Withdrawal of employee contributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a participant has not started to receive monthly benefit payments on the date of distribution, the value of the lump sum which returns mandatory employee contributions is equal to the total amount of contributions made by the participant, plus interest that is payable to the participant under the terms of the plan, plus interest on that total amount from the date of termination to the date of distribution. The rate of interest credited on employee contributions up to the date of termination shall be the greater of the interest rate provided under the terms of the plan or the interest rate required under section 204(c) of ERISA or section 411(c) of the IRC. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a participant has started to receive monthly benefit payments on the date of distribution, part of which are attributable to his or her contributions, the value of the lump sum which returns employee contributions is equal to the excess of the amount described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section over the amount computed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of accumulated mandatory employee contributions remaining in the plan as of the date of termination plus interest from the date of termination to the date of distribution. 
</P>
<P>(2) The excess of benefit payments made from the plan between date of plan termination and the date of distribution, over the amount of payments that would have been made if the employee contributions had been paid as a lump sum on the date of plan termination, with interest accumulated on the excess from the date of payment to the date of distribution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interest assumptions.</I> The interest rate used under this section to credit interest between the date of termination to the date of distribution shall be a reasonable rate and shall be the same for both paragraphs (a) and (b). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4044.75" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.24.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4044.75   Other lump sum benefits.</HEAD>
<P>The value of a lump sum benefit which is not covered under § 4044.73 or § 4044.74 is equal to—
</P>
<P>(a) The value under the irrevocable commitment, if an insurer provides the benefit; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The present value of the benefit as of the date of distribution, determined using reasonable actuarial assumptions, if the benefit is to be distributed other than by the purchase of the benefit from an insurer. The PBGC reserves the right to review the actuarial assumptions as to reasonableness and re-value the benefit if the actuarial assumptions are unreasonable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996, as amended at 76 FR 34606, June 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.25.15.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 4044 [Reserved]



</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.14.2.25.15.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 4044—Interest Rates Used To Value Benefits
</HEAD>
<FP>[This table sets forth, for each indicated calendar month, the interest rates (denoted by i<E T="52">1</E>, i<E T="52">2</E>, . . ., and referred to generally as i<E T="52">t</E>) assumed to be in effect between specified anniversaries of a valuation date that occurs within that calendar month; those anniversaries are specified in the columns adjacent to the rates. The last listed rate is assumed to be in effect after the last listed anniversary date.]

</FP>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">For valuation dates occurring in the month— 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">The values of i<E T="52">t</E> are: 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">i<E T="52">t</E> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">for t= 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">i<E T="52">t</E> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">for t= 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">i<E T="52">t</E> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">for t=
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 1993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 1993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0690</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0690</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0730</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0730</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0730</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0690</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0680</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0575</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0610</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0610</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 1997</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0690</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0740</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.070</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0710</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0660</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0660</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0610</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0610</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0625</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0425</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0510</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0510</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0470</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0440</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0460</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0470</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0420</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0410</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0410</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0390</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0420</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2004</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0410</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0380</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0390</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0340</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0560</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0590</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0570</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0488</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0455</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0513</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0522</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0489</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0466</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0520</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0487</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0514</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0481</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0533</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0549</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0516</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0553</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0520</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0551</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0518</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0546</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0513</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0537</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0504</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0542</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0449</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0457</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0554</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0461</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0564</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0471</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0581</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0488</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0475</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0595</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0502</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0605</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0512</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0624</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0531</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0618</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0525</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0709</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0616</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 2008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0792</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0699</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January 2009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0602</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0548</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February 2009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0602</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0548</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 2009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0602</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0548</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0502</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0531</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0504</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0530</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0501</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January—March 2010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0489</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0463</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0463</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0451</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0493</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0466</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0448</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0451</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0407</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0393</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0396</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0432</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0422</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0434</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0409</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0374</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0370</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0311</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0336</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0295</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0366</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October—December 2012</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0307</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0267</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0301</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0343</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0331</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0335</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April—June 2014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0347</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0364</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0343</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0366</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0310</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0312</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0271</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0278</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0298</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0282</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0295</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0286</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0285</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0267</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0215</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0274</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0263</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0259</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0264</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0284</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0276</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0309</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0284</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0307</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0305</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0292</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0307</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0157</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0168</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2022</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0294</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2022
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0390</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0365</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0486</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0470</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0538</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0509</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July-September 2023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0524</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0458</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October-December 2023</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0506</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0437</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January-March 2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0545</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0522</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April-June 2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0550</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0483</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July 2024, other than July 31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0511</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0483</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34059, July 1, 1996]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting part 4044, appendix B, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4047" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4047—RESTORATION OF TERMINATING AND TERMINATED PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1347. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34073, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4047.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.15.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4047.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Section 4047 of ERISA gives the PBGC broad authority to take any necessary actions in furtherance of a plan restoration order issued pursuant to section 4047. This part (along with Treasury regulation 26 CFR 1.412(c)(1)-3) describes certain legal obligations that arise incidental to a plan restoration under section 4047. This part also establishes procedures with respect to these obligations that are intended to facilitate the orderly transition of a restored plan from terminated (or terminating) status to ongoing status, and to help ensure that the restored plan will continue to be ongoing consistent with the best interests of the plan's participants and beneficiaries and the single-employer insurance program. This part applies to terminated and terminating single-employer plans (except for plans terminated and terminating under ERISA section 4041(b)) with respect to which the PBGC has issued or is issuing a plan restoration order pursuant to ERISA section 4047. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4047.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.15.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4047.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: controlled group, ERISA, IRS, PBGC, plan, plan administrator, plan year, and single-employer plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4047.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.15.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4047.3   Funding of restored plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Whenever the PBGC issues or has issued a plan restoration order under ERISA section 4047, it shall issue to the plan sponsor a restoration payment schedule order in accordance with the rules of this section. PBGC, through its Executive Director, shall also issue a certification to its Board of Directors and the IRS, as described in paragraph (c) of this section. If more than one plan is or has been restored, the PBGC shall issue a separate restoration payment schedule order and separate certification with respect to each restored plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restoration payment schedule order.</I> A restoration payment schedule order shall set forth a schedule of payments sufficient to amortize the initial restoration amortization base described in paragraph (b) of 26 CFR 1.412(c)(1)-3 over a period extending no more than 30 years after the initial post-restoration valuation date, as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of 26 CFR 1.412(c)(1)-3. The restoration payment schedule shall be consistent with the requirements of 26 CFR 1.412(c)(1)-3 and may require payments at intervals of less than one year, as determined by the PBGC. The PBGC may, in its discretion, amend the restoration payment schedule at any time, consistent with the requirements of 26 CFR 1.412(c)(1)-3. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification.</I> The Executive Director's certification to the Board of Directors and the IRS pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall state that the PBGC has reviewed the funding of the plan, the financial condition of the plan sponsor and its controlled group members, the payments required under the restoration payment schedule (taking into account the availability of deferrals as permitted under paragraph (c)(4) of 26 CFR 1.412(c)(1)-3) and any other factor that the PBGC deems relevant, and, based on that review, determines that it is in the best interests of the plan's participants and beneficiaries and the single-employer insurance program that the restored plan not be reterminated. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Periodic PBGC review.</I> As long as a restoration payment schedule order issued under this section is in effect, the PBGC shall review annually the funding status of the plan with respect to which the order applies. As part of this review, the PBGC, through its Executive Director, shall issue a certification in the form described in paragraph (c) of this section. As a result of its funding review, PBGC may amend the restoration payment schedule, consistent with the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of 26 CFR 1.412(c)(1)-3. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4047.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.15.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4047.4   Payment of premiums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Upon restoration of a plan pursuant to ERISA section 4047, the obligation to pay PBGC premiums pursuant to ERISA section 4007 is reinstated as of the date on which the plan was trusteed under section 4042 of ERISA. Except as otherwise specifically provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the amount of the outstanding premiums owed shall be computed and paid by the plan administrator in accordance with part 4006 of this chapter (Premium Rates) and the forms and instructions issued pursuant thereto, as in effect for the plan years for which premiums are owed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of premiums owed.</I> Whenever the PBGC issues or has issued a plan restoration order, it shall send a written notice to the plan administrator of the restored plan advising the plan administrator of the plan year(s) for which premiums are owed. PBGC will include with the notice the necessary premium payment forms and instructions. The notice shall prescribe the payment due dates for the outstanding premiums. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods for determining variable rate portion of the premium.</I> In general, the variable rate portion of the outstanding premiums shall be determined in accordance with the premium regulation and forms, as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, except that for any plan year following a plan year for which Form 5500, Schedule B was not filed because the plan was terminated, the alternative calculation method may not be used. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34073, July 1, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 13562, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4047.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.15.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4047.5   Repayment of PBGC payments of guaranteed benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Upon restoration of a plan pursuant to ERISA section 4047, amounts paid by the PBGC from its single-employer insurance fund (the fund established pursuant to ERISA section 4005(a)) to pay guaranteed benefits and related expenses under the plan while it was terminated are a debt of the restored plan. The terms and conditions for payment of this debt shall be determined by the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repayment terms.</I> The PBGC shall prescribe reasonable terms and conditions for payment of the debt described in paragraph (a) of this section, including the number, amount and commencement date of the payments. In establishing the terms, PBGC will consider the cash needs of the plan, the timing and amount of contributions owed to the plan, the liquidity of plan assets, the interests of the single-employer insurance program, and any other factors PBGC deems relevant. PBGC may, in its discretion, revise any of the payment terms and conditions, upon written notice to the plan administrator in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to plan administrator.</I> Whenever the PBGC issues or has issued a plan restoration order, it shall send a written notice to the plan administrator of the restored plan advising the plan administrator of the amount owed the PBGC pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. The notice shall also include the terms and conditions for payment of this debt, as established under paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4050" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4050—MISSING PARTICIPANTS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1350.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 60818, Dec. 22, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Single-Employer Plans Covered by Title IV</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.101" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.101   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This subpart describes PBGC's missing participants program for single-employer defined benefit retirement plans covered by title IV of ERISA. The missing participants program is a program to hold retirement benefits for missing participants and beneficiaries in terminated retirement plans and to help them find and receive the benefits being held for them. For a plan to which this subpart applies, this subpart describes what the plan must do upon plan termination if it has missing participants or beneficiaries who are entitled to distributions. This subpart applies to a plan only if it is a single-employer defined benefit plan that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is described in section 4021(a) of ERISA and not in any paragraph of section 4021(b) of ERISA and
</P>
<P>(2) Terminates in a standard termination or in a distress termination described in section 4041(c)(3)(B)(i) or (ii) of ERISA (“sufficient distress termination”).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plans that terminate but do not close out.</I> This subpart does not apply to a plan that terminates but does not close out, such as a plan that terminates in a distress termination described in section 4041(c)(3)(B)(iii) of ERISA (“insufficient distress termination”).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual account plans.</I> This subpart does not apply to an individual account plan under section 3(34) of ERISA, even if it is described in the same plan document as a plan to which this subpart applies. This subpart also does not apply to a plan to the extent that it is treated as an individual account plan under section 3(35)(B) of ERISA. For example, this subpart does not apply to employee contributions (or interest or earnings thereon) held as an individual account. (Subpart B deals with individual account plans.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.102" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Annuity, Code, ERISA, insurer, irrevocable commitment, PBGC, person, and plan administrator. In addition, for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Accrual cessation date</I> for a participant under a subpart A plan means the date the participant stopped accruing benefits under the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Accumulated single sum</I> means, with respect to a missing distributee, the distributee's benefit transfer amount accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the benefit determination date to the date when PBGC makes or commences payment to or with respect to the distributee.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit determination date</I> with respect to a subpart A plan means the single date selected by the plan administrator for valuing benefits under § 4050.103(d); this date must be during the period beginning on the first day a distribution is made pursuant to close-out of the plan to a distributee who is not a missing distributee and ending on the last day such a distribution is made.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit transfer amount</I> for a missing distributee of a subpart A plan means the amount determined by the plan administrator under § 4050.103(d) in the close-out of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Close-out</I> or <I>close out</I> with respect to a subpart A plan means the process of the final distribution or transfer of assets pursuant to the termination of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>De minimis</I> means, with respect to the value of a benefit (or other amount), that the value does not exceed the amount specified under section 203(e)(1) of ERISA and section 411(a)(11)(A) of the Code (without regard to plan provisions).
</P>
<P><I>Distributee</I> means, with respect to a subpart A plan, a participant or beneficiary entitled to a distribution under the plan pursuant to the close-out of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Missing,</I> with respect to a distributee under a subpart A plan, means that any one or more of the following three conditions exists upon close-out of the plan.
</P>
<P>(1) The plan administrator does not know with reasonable certainty the location of the distributee.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the terms of the plan, the distributee's benefit is to be paid in a lump sum without the distributee's consent, and the distributee has not responded to a notice about the distribution of the lump sum.
</P>
<P>(3) Under the terms of the plan and any election made by the distributee, the distributee's benefit is to be paid in a lump sum, but the distributee does not accept the lump sum. For this purpose, a lump sum paid by check is not accepted if the check remains uncashed after—
</P>
<P>(i) A “cash-by” date prescribed (on the check or in an accompanying notice) that is at least 45 days after the issuance of the check, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If no such “cash-by” date is so prescribed, the check's stale date.
</P>
<P><I>Missing participants forms and instructions</I> means the forms and instructions provided by PBGC for use in connection with the missing participants program.
</P>
<P><I>Missing participants interest rate</I> means, for each month, the applicable federal mid-term rate (as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to section 1274(d)(1)(C)(ii) of the Code) for that month, compounded monthly.
</P>
<P><I>Normal retirement date</I> for a participant under a subpart A plan means the normal retirement date of the participant under the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Pay-status</I> or <I>pay status</I> means one of the following (according to context):
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a benefit, that payment of the benefit has actually started before the benefit determination date; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a distributee, that payment of the distributee's benefit has actually started before the benefit determination date.
</P>
<P><I>PBGC missing participants assumptions</I> means the actuarial assumptions prescribed in §§ 4044.51 through 4044.58 of this chapter with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The present value is determined as of the benefit determination date instead of the plan termination date.
</P>
<P>(2) The mortality assumption is the mortality table in § 4044.53(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) No adjustment is made for loading expenses under § 4044.52(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The interest assumption is the assumption for valuing benefits under § 4044.54 of this chapter applicable to valuations occurring on December 31 of the calendar year preceding the calendar year in which the benefit determination date occurs. However, for benefit determination dates July 31 through December 31 of 2024, the interest assumption is the assumption for valuing benefits under § 4044.54 of this chapter applicable to valuations occurring on July 31, 2024.
</P>
<P>(5) The assumed payment form of a benefit not in pay status is a straight life annuity.
</P>
<P>(6) Pre-retirement death benefits are disregarded.
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding the expected retirement age (XRA) assumptions in §§ 4044.55 through 4044.58 of this chapter—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a participant who is not in pay status and whose normal retirement date is on or after the benefit determination date, benefits are assumed to commence at the XRA, determined using the high retirement rate category under table II-C (Expected Retirement Ages for Individuals in the High Category) in § 4044.58 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a participant who is not in pay status and whose normal retirement date is before the benefit determination date, benefits are assumed to commence on the participant's normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later);
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a participant who is in pay status, benefits are assumed to commence on the date on which benefits actually commenced; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a beneficiary, benefits are assumed to commence on the benefit determination date or, if later, the earliest date the beneficiary can begin to receive benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Plan lump sum assumptions</I> means, with respect to a subpart A plan, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the plan specifies actuarial assumptions and methods to be used to calculate a lump sum distribution, such actuarial assumptions and methods, or
</P>
<P>(2) Otherwise, the actuarial assumptions specified under section 205(g)(3) of ERISA and section 417(e)(3) of the Code, determined as of the benefit determination date, including use of the missing participants interest rate to calculate the present value as of the benefit determination date of a payment or payments missed in the past.
</P>
<P><I>QDRO</I> means a qualified domestic relations order as defined in section 206(d)(3) of ERISA and section 414(p) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified survivor</I> of a participant or beneficiary under a subpart A plan means, for any benefit with respect to the participant or beneficiary,—
</P>
<P>(1) A person who survives the participant or beneficiary and is entitled under applicable provisions of a QDRO to receive the benefit;
</P>
<P>(2) A person that is identified by the plan in a submission to PBGC by the plan as being entitled under applicable plan provisions (including elections, designations, and waivers consistent with such provisions) to receive the benefit; or
</P>
<P>(3) If no such person is so entitled, a survivor of the participant or beneficiary who is the participant's or beneficiary's living—
</P>
<P>(i) Spouse, or if none,
</P>
<P>(ii) Child, or if none,
</P>
<P>(iii) Parent, or if none,
</P>
<P>(iv) Sibling.
</P>
<P><I>Subpart A plan</I> or <I>plan</I> means a plan to which this subpart A applies, as described in § 4050.101.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 60818, Dec. 22, 2017, as amended at 89 FR 48308, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.103" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.103   Duties of plan administrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Providing for benefits.</I> For each distributee who is missing upon close-out of a subpart A plan, the plan administrator must provide for the distributee's plan benefits either—
</P>
<P>(1) By purchasing an irrevocable commitment from an insurer, or
</P>
<P>(2) By—
</P>
<P>(i) Determining the distributee's benefit transfer amount under paragraph (d) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Transferring to PBGC as described in this subpart A an amount equal to the distributee's benefit transfer amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diligent search.</I> For each distributee whose location the plan administrator does not know with reasonable certainty upon close-out of a subpart A plan, the plan administrator must have conducted a diligent search as described in § 4050.104.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing with PBGC.</I> For each distributee who is missing upon close-out of a subpart A plan, the plan administrator must file with PBGC as described in § 4050.105.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Benefit transfer amount.</I> The benefit transfer amount for a missing distributee is the amount determined by the plan administrator as of the benefit determination date using whichever one of the following three methods applies:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>De minimis.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is de minimis, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is equal to that single sum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-de minimis; single sum payment cannot be elected.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is not de minimis, and a single sum payment cannot be elected, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is the present value of the distributee's accrued benefit determined using PBGC missing participants assumptions, plus
</P>
<P>(i) For a missing distributee not in pay status whose normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) precedes the benefit determination date, the aggregate value of payments of the straight life annuity that would have been payable beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the benefit determination date, assuming that the distributee survived to the benefit determination date, as determined by the plan administrator; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a missing distributee in pay status, the aggregate value of payments of the pay status annuity due but not made, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from each payment due date to the benefit determination date, assuming that the distributee survived to the benefit determination date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-de minimis; single sum payment can be elected.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is not de minimis, and a single sum payment can be elected, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is the greater of the amounts determined using the methodology in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.104" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.104   Diligent search.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Search requirement.</I> The plan administrator of a subpart A plan must, within the time frame described in paragraph (d) of this section, have diligently searched for each distributee of the plan whose location the plan administrator does not know with reasonable certainty upon close-out, using one of the following two methods:
</P>
<P>(1) For any distributee, regardless of the size of the distributee's benefit, the commercial locator service method described in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a distributee whose normal retirement benefit is not more than $50 per month, the records search method described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commercial locator service method</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Using the commercial locator service method means paying a commercial locator service to search for information to locate a distributee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Meaning of “commercial locator service.”</I> For purposes of this section, a commercial locator service is a business that holds itself out as a finder of lost persons for compensation using information from a database maintained by a consumer reporting agency (as defined in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records search method</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Using the records search method means searching for information to locate a distributee by doing all of the following to the extent reasonably feasible and affordable:
</P>
<P>(i) Searching the records of the plan for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Searching the records of the plan's contributing sponsor that is the most recent employer of the distributee for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Searching the records of each retirement or welfare plan of the plan's contributing sponsor in which the distributee was a participant for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(iv) Contacting each beneficiary of the distributee identified from the records referred to in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(v) Using an internet search method for which no fee is charged, such as a search engine, a network database, a public record database (such as those for licenses, mortgages, and real estate taxes) or a “social media” website.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limits on method.</I> For purposes of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) Searching is not feasible to the extent that, as a practical matter, it is thwarted by legal or practical lack of access to records, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Searching is not affordable to the extent that the cost of searching (including the value of labor) is more than a reasonable fraction of the benefit of the distributee being searched for. In no event would searching need to be pursued beyond the point where the cost equals the value of the benefit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time frame.</I> A search for a distributee under this section must have been made within nine months before a filing is made under § 4050.105 identifying the distributee as a missing distributee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.105" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.1.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.105   Filing with PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What to file.</I> The plan administrator of a subpart A plan must file with PBGC the information specified in the missing participants forms and instructions and, for a missing distributee referred to in § 4050.103(a)(2), payment of—
</P>
<P>(1) The benefit transfer amount for the missing distributee;
</P>
<P>(2) If the benefit transfer amount is paid more than 90 days after the benefit determination date, interest on the benefit transfer amount computed at the missing participants interest rate for the period beginning on the 90th day after the benefit determination date and ending on the date the benefit transfer amount is paid to PBGC; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any fee provided for in the missing participants forms and instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to file.</I> The plan administrator must file the information and payments referred to in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the missing participants forms and instructions. Payment of a benefit transfer amount will, if considered timely made for purposes of this paragraph (b), be considered timely made for purposes of part 4041 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place, method and date of filing; time periods.</I> (1) For rules about where to file, see § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For rules about permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this subpart, see subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) For rules about the date that a submission under this subpart was filed with PBGC, see subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) For rules about any time period for filing under this subpart, see subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supplemental information.</I> Within 30 days after a written request by PBGC (or such other time as may be specified in the request), the plan administrator of a subpart A plan required to file under paragraph (a) of this section must file with PBGC supplemental information for any proper purpose under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reliance.</I> As administrator of the missing participants program, PBGC will rely on determinations made and information reported by plan administrators in connection with the program. This reliance does not affect PBGC's authority as administrator of the title IV insurance program to audit or make inquiries of subpart A plans, including about the amount to which a missing distributee may be entitled.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.106" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.1.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.106   Missing participant benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Benefit transfer amount not paid.</I> If a subpart A plan files with PBGC information about an irrevocable commitment provided by the subpart A plan for a missing distributee, PBGC will provide information about the irrevocable commitment to the distributee or another claimant that may be entitled to payment pursuant to the irrevocable commitment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit transfer amount paid.</I> If a subpart A plan pays PBGC a benefit transfer amount for a missing distributee, PBGC will pay benefits with respect to the missing distributee in accordance with this section, subject to the provisions of a QDRO.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits for missing distributees who are participants.</I> Paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (k) of this section describe the benefits that PBGC will pay to a non-pay status missing participant of a subpart A plan who claims a benefit under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>De minimis benefit.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant a lump sum equal to the accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-de minimis benefit of unmarried participant.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of an unmarried participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is not de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant either the annuity described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, beginning not before age 55, and (if applicable) the make-up amount described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or, if the participant could have elected a lump sum under the subpart A plan, and the participant so elects under the missing participants program, the lump sum described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (d)(1) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Straight life annuity.</I> A straight life annuity in the amount that the subpart A plan would have paid the participant, starting at the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), as reported to PBGC by the subpart A plan (including any early retirement subsidies), or through linear interpolation for participants who start payments between integral ages; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other form of annuity.</I> At the participant's election, any form of annuity available to the participant under § 4022.8 of this chapter, in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the straight life annuity in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amount.</I> If PBGC begins to pay the annuity under paragraph (d)(1) of this section after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), the make-up amount described in this paragraph (d)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the annuity that would have been payable to the participant (in the elected form) beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC begins to pay the annuity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (d)(3) is equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-de minimis benefit of married participant.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a married participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is not de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant either the annuity described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, beginning not before age 55, and (if applicable) the make-up amount described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section; or, if the participant could have elected a lump sum under the subpart A plan, and the participant so elects under the missing participants program with the consent of the participant's spouse, the lump sum described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (e)(1) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Joint and survivor annuity.</I> A joint and 50 percent survivor annuity in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the straight life annuity under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other form of annuity.</I> At the participant's election, with the consent of the participant's spouse, any form of annuity available to the participant under § 4022.8 of this chapter, in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amount.</I> If PBGC begins to pay the annuity under paragraph (e)(1) of this section after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), the make-up amount described in this paragraph (e)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the annuity that would have been payable to the participant beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC begins to pay the annuity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (e)(3) is equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Benefits with respect to deceased missing distributees who were participants.</I> Paragraphs (g), (h), (i), (j), and (k) of this section describe the benefits that PBGC will pay with respect to a non-pay status missing participant of a subpart A plan who dies without receiving a benefit under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>De minimis benefit.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a participant described in paragraph (f) of this section is de minimis, PBGC will pay to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant a lump sum equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; unmarried participant.</I> In the case of an unmarried participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis,—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Death before normal retirement date.</I> If the participant dies before the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), PBGC will pay no benefits with respect to the participant; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Death after normal retirement date.</I> If the participant dies on or after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), PBGC will pay to the participant's qualified survivor(s) an amount equal to the aggregate value of payments of the straight life annuity described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; married participant with living spouse.</I> In the case of a married participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis and whose spouse survives the participant and claims a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will pay the spouse, beginning not before the participant would have reached age 55, the annuity (if any) described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section and the make-up amounts (if applicable) described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, except that PBGC will pay the spouse, as a lump sum, the small benefit described in paragraph (i)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (i)(1) is the survivor portion of a joint and 50 percent survivor annuity that is actuarially equivalent as of the assumed starting date (determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter) to the straight life annuity in the amount that the subpart A plan would have paid the participant with an assumed starting date of—
</P>
<P>(i) The date when the participant would have reached age 55, if the participant died before that date, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The participant's date of death, if the participant died between age 55 and the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), or
</P>
<P>(iii) The normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), if the participant died after that date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amounts.</I> The make-up amounts described in this paragraph (i)(2) are the amounts described in paragraphs (i)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Payments from participant's death or 55th birthday to commencement of survivor annuity.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (i)(2)(i) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the survivor portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the spouse beginning on the later of the participant's date of death or the date when the participant would have reached age 55, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Payments from normal retirement date to participant's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (i)(2)(ii) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments (if any) of the joint portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death thereafter, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small benefit.</I> If the sum of the actuarial present value of the annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section plus the make-up amounts described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section is de minimis, then the lump sum that PBGC will pay the spouse under this paragraph (i)(3) is an amount equal to that sum. For this purpose, the actuarial present value of the annuity is determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter as of the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; married participant with deceased spouse.</I> In the case of a married participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis and whose spouse survives the participant but dies without receiving a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will pay to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant's spouse the make-up amount described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section and to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant the make-up amount described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Payments from participant's death or 55th birthday to spouse's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (j)(1) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the survivor portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the spouse from the later of the participant's date of death or the date when the participant would have reached age 55 to the spouse's date of death, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse's qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments from normal retirement date to participant's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (j)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the joint portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death thereafter, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the participant's qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Benefits under contributory plans.</I> If a subpart A plan reports to PBGC that a portion of a missing participant's benefit transfer amount represents accumulated contributions as described in section 204(c)(2)(C) of ERISA and section 411(c)(2)(C) of the Code, PBGC will pay with respect to the missing participant at least the amount of accumulated contributions as reported by the subpart A plan, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the benefit determination date to the date when PBGC makes payment.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Date for determining marital status.</I> For purposes of this section, whether a participant is married, and if so the identity of the spouse, is determined as of the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date the participant receives or begins to receive a benefit, or
</P>
<P>(2) The date the participant dies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.107" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.1.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.107   PBGC discretion.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC may in appropriate circumstances extend deadlines, excuse noncompliance, and grant waivers with regard to any provision of this subpart to promote the purposes of the missing participants program and title IV of ERISA. Like circumstances will be treated in like manner under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Defined Contribution Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.201" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.201   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This subpart describes PBGC's missing participants program for single-employer and multiemployer defined contribution retirement plans. The missing participants program is a program to hold retirement benefits for missing participants and beneficiaries in terminated retirement plans and to help them find and receive the benefits being held for them. For a plan to which this subpart applies, this subpart describes what the plan must do upon plan termination if it elects to use the missing participants program for missing participants and beneficiaries who are entitled to distributions. This subpart applies to a plan only if it is a plan—
</P>
<P>(1) That—
</P>
<P>(i) Is a defined contribution (individual account) plan described in section 3(34) of ERISA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is treated as a defined contribution (individual account) plan under section (3)(35) of ERISA (to the extent so treated);
</P>
<P>(2) That is described in section 4021(a) of ERISA and not in any paragraph of section 4021(b) of ERISA other than paragraph (1), (5), (12), or (13), including a plan described in section 403(b) of the Code under which benefits are provided through custodial accounts described in section 403(b)(7) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(3) That, if it is a transferring plan, pays all benefit transfer amounts to PBGC in money, consistent with plan provisions and applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(4) That terminates and closes out.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Defined contribution plans that are part of defined benefit plans.</I> This subpart does not fail to apply to a plan merely because the plan is described in the same plan document as a defined benefit plan (to which this subpart does not apply). For example, this subpart may apply to employee contributions (or interest or earnings thereon) held as an individual account under a defined benefit plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Defined contribution plans that are abandoned plans.</I> This subpart does not fail to apply to a plan merely because the plan is an abandoned plan, as defined in 29 CFR 2578.1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.202" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Annuity, Code, ERISA, PBGC, and person. In addition, for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Accumulated single sum</I> means, with respect to a missing distributee, the distributee's benefit transfer amount accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date when the subpart B plan pays PBGC the benefit transfer amount for the missing distributee to the date when PBGC makes or commences payment to or with respect to the distributee.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit conversion assumptions</I> means, with respect to an annuity, the applicable mortality table and applicable interest rate under section 205(g)(3) of ERISA and section 417(e)(3) of the Code for January of the calendar year in which PBGC begins paying the annuity.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit transfer amount</I> for a missing distributee in a transferring plan means the amount available for distribution to the distributee in connection with the close-out of the subpart B plan.
</P>
<P><I>Close-out</I> or <I>close out</I> with respect to a subpart B plan means the process of the final distribution or transfer of assets pursuant to the termination of the subpart B plan.
</P>
<P><I>De minimis</I> means, with respect to the value of a benefit (or other amount), that the value does not exceed the amount specified under section 203(e)(1) of ERISA and section 411(a)(11)(A) of the Code (without regard to plan provisions).
</P>
<P><I>Distributee</I> means, with respect to a subpart B plan, a participant or beneficiary entitled to a distribution under the plan pursuant to the close-out of the plan, except that a person is not a distributee if the subpart B plan transfers assets to another pension plan (within the meaning of section 3(2) of ERISA) to pay the person's benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Missing,</I> with respect to a distributee under a subpart B plan, means that any one or more of the following three conditions exists upon close-out of the plan.
</P>
<P>(1) The plan does not know with reasonable certainty the location of the distributee.
</P>
<P>(2) The distributee has not elected a form of distribution in response to a notice about the distribution.
</P>
<P>(3) Under the terms of the plan and any election made by the distributee, the distributee's benefit is to be paid in a lump sum, but the distributee does not accept the lump sum. For this purpose, a lump sum paid by check is not accepted if the check remains uncashed after—
</P>
<P>(i) A “cash-by” date prescribed (on the check or in an accompanying notice) that is at least 45 days after the issuance of the check, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If no such “cash-by” date is so prescribed, the check's stale date.
</P>
<P><I>Missing participants forms and instructions</I> means the forms and instructions provided by PBGC for use in connection with the missing participants program.
</P>
<P><I>Missing participants interest rate</I> means, for each month, the applicable federal mid-term rate (as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to section 1274(d)(1)(C)(ii) of the Code) for that month, compounded monthly.
</P>
<P><I>Notifying plan</I> means a subpart B plan that elects notifying plan status in accordance with § 4050.203.
</P>
<P><I>QDRO</I> means a qualified domestic relations order as defined in section 206(d)(3) of ERISA and section 414(p) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified survivor</I> of a participant or beneficiary under a subpart B plan means, for any benefit with respect to the participant or beneficiary,—
</P>
<P>(1) A person who survives the participant or beneficiary and is entitled under applicable provisions of a QDRO to receive the benefit;
</P>
<P>(2) A person that is identified by the plan in a submission to PBGC by the plan as being entitled under applicable plan provisions (including elections, designations, and waivers consistent with such provisions) to receive the benefit; or
</P>
<P>(3) If no such person is so entitled, a survivor of the participant or beneficiary who is the participant's or beneficiary's living—
</P>
<P>(i) Spouse, or if none,
</P>
<P>(ii) Child, or if none,
</P>
<P>(iii) Parent, or if none,
</P>
<P>(iv) Sibling.
</P>
<P><I>Subpart B plan</I> or <I>plan</I> means a plan to which this subpart B applies, as described in § 4050.201.
</P>
<P><I>Transferring plan</I> means a subpart B plan that elects transferring plan status in accordance with § 4050.203.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.203" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.203   Options and duties of plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Options.</I> A subpart B plan that is closing out upon plan termination may (but need not) elect, by filing under § 4050.205, that the subpart B plan—
</P>
<P>(1) Will be a “transferring plan,” that is, will pay a benefit transfer amount to PBGC for each distributee who is missing upon close-out of the plan and will be bound by the provisions of this subpart B to the extent that they apply to transferring plans, or
</P>
<P>(2) Will be a “notifying plan,” that is, will notify PBGC of the disposition of the benefits of each distributee identified in the filing who is missing upon close-out of the plan and will, with respect to those distributees, be bound by the provisions of this subpart B to the extent that they apply to notifying plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diligent search</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, for each distributee whose location the plan does not know with reasonable certainty upon close-out of a subpart B plan, the plan must have conducted a diligent search as described in § 4050.204.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notifying plans.</I> For a notifying plan, the requirement of paragraph (b)(1) of this section applies only to distributees identified in the filing with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing with PBGC</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, for each distributee who is missing upon close-out of a subpart B plan, the plan must file with PBGC as described in § 4050.205.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notifying plans.</I> For a notifying plan, the requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section applies only to distributees identified in the filing with PBGC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.204" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.204   Diligent search.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Search requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a subpart B plan must, within the time frame described in paragraph (b) of this section, have diligently searched for each distributee of the plan whose location the plan does not know with reasonable certainty upon close-out in accordance with regulations and other applicable guidance issued by the Secretary of Labor under section 404 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notifying plans.</I> For a notifying plan, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1) of this section applies only to distributees identified in the filing with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time frame.</I> A search for a missing distributee must be made within nine months before a filing is made under § 4050.205 identifying the distributee as a missing distributee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.205" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.205   Filing with PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What to file.</I> A subpart B plan must file with PBGC the information specified in the missing participants forms and instructions, and if the plan is a transferring plan, payment of—
</P>
<P>(1) The benefit transfer amount for the missing distributee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any fee provided for in the missing participants forms and instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to file.</I> The plan must file the information and payments referred to in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the missing participants forms and instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place, method and date of filing; time periods.</I> (1) For rules about where to file, see § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For rules about permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this subpart, see subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) For rules about the date that a submission under this subpart was filed with PBGC, see subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) For rules about any time period for filing under this subpart, see subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supplemental information.</I> Within 30 days after a written request by PBGC (or such other time as may be specified in the request), the plan administrator of a subpart B plan required to file under paragraph (a) of this section must file with PBGC supplemental information for any proper purpose under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reliance.</I> As administrator of the missing participants program, PBGC will rely on determinations made and information reported by plans in connection with the program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.206" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.206   Missing participant benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Notifying plan.</I> If a notifying plan files with PBGC information about a disposition of benefits made by the subpart B plan for a missing distributee, PBGC will provide information about the disposition of benefits to the distributee or another claimant that may be entitled to the benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transferring plan.</I> If a transferring plan pays PBGC a benefit transfer amount for a missing distributee, PBGC will pay benefits with respect to the missing distributee in accordance with this section, subject to the provisions of a QDRO.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits for missing distributees who are participants.</I> Paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section describe the benefits that PBGC will pay to a missing participant of a subpart B plan who claims a benefit under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>De minimis benefit.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant a lump sum equal to the accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-de minimis benefit of unmarried participant.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of an unmarried participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is not de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant either the annuity described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, beginning not before age 55; or, if the participant so elects, the lump sum described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (d)(1) is, at the participant's election, any form of annuity available to the participant under § 4022.8 of this chapter, in an amount that is actuarially equivalent, under the benefit conversion assumptions, to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (d)(2) is the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-de minimis benefit of married participant.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a married participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is not de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant either the annuity described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, beginning not before age 55; or, if the participant so elects with the consent of the participant's spouse, the lump sum described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (e)(1) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Joint and survivor annuity.</I> A joint and 50 percent survivor annuity in an amount that is actuarially equivalent, under the benefit conversion assumptions, to the participant's accumulated single sum; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other form of annuity.</I> At the participant's election, with the consent of the participant's spouse, any form of annuity available to the participant under § 4022.8 of this chapter, in an amount that is actuarially equivalent, under the benefit conversion assumptions, to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (e)(2) is the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Benefits with respect to deceased missing distributees who were participants.</I> Paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section describe the benefits that PBGC will pay with respect to a missing participant of a subpart B plan who dies without receiving a benefit under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>De minimis benefit.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a participant described in paragraph (f) of this section is de minimis, and the participant's qualified survivor claims a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will pay the claimant a lump sum equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; non-spousal qualified survivor.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a married or unmarried participant described in paragraph (f) of this section is not de minimis, and the participant's qualified survivor is not the participant's surviving spouse and claims a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will pay the claimant a lump sum equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; surviving spouse is qualified survivor.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a married participant described in paragraph (f) of this section is not de minimis, and the participant's qualified survivor is the participant's surviving spouse and claims a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will, at the spouse's election, either pay the spouse, beginning not before the participant would have reached age 55, the annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section; or pay the spouse the lump sum described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (i)(1) is a straight life annuity for the life of the spouse in an amount that is actuarially equivalent, under the benefit conversion assumptions, to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (i)(2) is a lump sum equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Date for determining marital status.</I> For purposes of this section, whether a participant is married, and if so the identity of the spouse, is determined as of the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date the participant receives or begins to receive a benefit, or
</P>
<P>(2) The date the participant dies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.207" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.207   PBGC discretion.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC may in appropriate circumstances extend deadlines, excuse noncompliance, and grant waivers with regard to any provision of this subpart to promote the purposes of the missing participants program and title IV of ERISA. Like circumstances will be treated in like manner under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Certain Defined Benefit Plans Not Covered by Title IV</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.301" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.301   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This subpart describes PBGC's missing participants program for small professional service defined benefit retirement plans not covered by title IV of ERISA. The missing participants program is a program to hold retirement benefits for missing participants and beneficiaries in terminated retirement plans and to help them find and receive the benefits being held for them. For a plan to which this subpart applies, this subpart describes what the plan must do upon plan termination if it elects to use the missing participants program for missing participants and beneficiaries who are entitled to distributions. This subpart applies to a plan only if it is a single-employer defined benefit plan that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is described in section 4021(a) of ERISA and not in any paragraph of section 4021(b) of ERISA other than paragraph (13), and
</P>
<P>(2) Terminates and closes out with sufficient assets to satisfy all liabilities with respect to employees and their beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individual account plans.</I> This subpart does not apply to an individual account plan under section 3(34) of ERISA, even if it is described in the same plan document as a plan to which this subpart applies. This subpart also does not apply to a plan to the extent that it is treated as an individual account plan under section 3(35)(B) of ERISA. For example, this subpart does not apply to employee contributions (or interest or earnings thereon) held as an individual account. (Subpart B deals with individual account plans.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.302" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.302   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Annuity, Code, ERISA, PBGC, person, and plan administrator. In addition, for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Accrual cessation date</I> for a participant under a subpart C plan means the date the participant stopped accruing benefits under the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Accumulated single sum</I> means, with respect to a missing distributee, the distributee's benefit transfer amount accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the benefit determination date to the date when PBGC makes or commences payment to or with respect to the distributee.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit determination date</I> with respect to a subpart C plan means the single date selected by the plan administrator for valuing benefits under § 4050.303(d); this date must be during the period beginning on the first day a distribution is made pursuant to close-out of the plan to a distributee who is not a missing distributee and ending on the last day such a distribution is made.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit transfer amount</I> for a missing distributee in a transferring plan means the amount determined by the plan administrator under § 4050.303(d) in the close-out of the subpart C plan.
</P>
<P><I>Close-out</I> or <I>close out</I> with respect to a subpart C plan means the process of the final distribution or transfer of assets pursuant to the termination of the subpart C plan.
</P>
<P><I>De minimis</I> means, with respect to the value of a benefit (or other amount), that the value does not exceed the amount specified under section 203(e)(1) of ERISA and section 411(a)(11)(A) of the Code (without regard to plan provisions).
</P>
<P><I>Distributee</I> means, with respect to a subpart C plan, a participant or beneficiary entitled to a distribution under the subpart C plan pursuant to the close-out of the subpart C plan, except that a person is not a distributee if the subpart C plan transfers assets to another pension plan (within the meaning of section 3(2) of ERISA) to pay the person's benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Missing,</I> with respect to a distributee under a subpart C plan, means that any one or more of the following three conditions exists upon close-out of the plan.
</P>
<P>(1) The plan administrator does not know with reasonable certainty the location of the distributee.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the terms of the plan, the distributee's benefit is to be paid in a lump sum without the distributee's consent, and the distributee has not responded to a notice about the distribution of the lump sum.
</P>
<P>(3) Under the terms of the plan and any election made by the distributee, the distributee's benefit is to be paid in a lump sum, but the distributee does not accept the lump sum. For this purpose, a lump sum paid by check is not accepted if the check remains uncashed after—
</P>
<P>(i) A “cash-by” date prescribed (on the check or in an accompanying notice) that is at least 45 days after the issuance of the check, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If no such “cash-by” date is so prescribed, the check's stale date.
</P>
<P><I>Missing participants forms and instructions</I> means the forms and instructions provided by PBGC for use in connection with the missing participants program.
</P>
<P><I>Missing participants interest rate</I> means, for each month, the applicable federal mid-term rate (as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to section 1274(d)(1)(C)(ii) of the Code) for that month, compounded monthly.
</P>
<P><I>Normal retirement date</I> for a participant under a subpart C plan means the normal retirement date of the participant under the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Notifying plan</I> means a subpart C plan for which the plan administrator elects notifying plan status in accordance with § 4050.303.
</P>
<P><I>Pay-status</I> or <I>pay status</I> means one of the following (according to context):
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a benefit, that payment of the benefit has actually started before the benefit determination date; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a distributee, that payment of the distributee's benefit has actually started before the benefit determination date.
</P>
<P><I>PBGC missing participants assumptions</I> means the actuarial assumptions prescribed in §§ 4044.51 through 4044.58 of this chapter with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The present value is determined as of the benefit determination date instead of the plan termination date.
</P>
<P>(2) The mortality assumption is the mortality table in § 4044.53(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) No adjustment is made for loading expenses under § 4044.52(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The interest assumption is the assumption for valuing benefits under § 4044.54 of this chapter applicable to valuations occurring on December 31 of the calendar year preceding the calendar year in which the benefit determination date occurs. However, for benefit determination dates July 31 through December 31 of 2024, the interest assumption is the assumption for valuing benefits under § 4044.54 of this chapter applicable to valuations occurring on July 31, 2024.
</P>
<P>(5) The assumed payment form of a benefit not in pay status is a straight life annuity.
</P>
<P>(6) Pre-retirement death benefits are disregarded.
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding the expected retirement age (XRA) assumptions in §§ 4044.55 through 4044.58 of this chapter—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a participant who is not in pay status and whose normal retirement date is on or after the benefit determination date, benefits are assumed to commence at the XRA, determined using the high retirement rate category under table II-C (Expected Retirement Ages for Individuals in the High Category) in § 4044.58 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a participant who is not in pay status and whose normal retirement date is before the benefit determination date, benefits are assumed to commence on the participant's normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later);
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a participant who is in pay status, benefits are assumed to commence on the date on which benefits actually commenced; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a beneficiary, benefits are assumed to commence on the benefit determination date or, if later, the earliest date the beneficiary can begin to receive benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Plan lump sum assumptions</I> means, with respect to a subpart C plan, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the plan specifies actuarial assumptions and methods to be used to calculate a lump sum distribution, such actuarial assumptions and methods, or
</P>
<P>(2) Otherwise, the actuarial assumptions specified under section 205(g)(3) of ERISA and section 417(e)(3) of the Code, determined as of the benefit determination date, including use of the missing participants interest rate to calculate the present value as of the benefit determination date of a payment or payments missed in the past.
</P>
<P><I>QDRO</I> means a qualified domestic relations order as defined in section 206(d)(3) of ERISA and section 414(p) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified survivor</I> of a participant or beneficiary under a subpart C plan means, for any benefit with respect to the participant or beneficiary—
</P>
<P>(1) A person who survives the participant or beneficiary and is entitled under applicable provisions of a QDRO to receive the benefit;
</P>
<P>(2) A person that is identified by the plan in a submission to PBGC by the plan as being entitled under applicable plan provisions (including elections, designations, and waivers consistent with such provisions) to receive the benefit; or
</P>
<P>(3) If no such person is so entitled, a survivor of the participant or beneficiary who is the participant's or beneficiary's living—
</P>
<P>(i) Spouse, or if none,
</P>
<P>(ii) Child, or if none,
</P>
<P>(iii) Parent, or if none,
</P>
<P>(iv) Sibling.
</P>
<P><I>Subpart C plan</I> or <I>plan</I> means a plan to which this subpart C applies, as described in § 4050.301.
</P>
<P><I>Transferring plan</I> means a subpart C plan for which the plan administrator elects transferring plan status in accordance with § 4050.303.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 60818, Dec. 22, 2017, as amended at 89 FR 48309, June 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.303" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.303   Options and duties of plan administrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Options.</I> The plan administrator of a subpart C plan that is closing out upon plan termination may (but need not), by filing under § 4050.305, elect that the subpart C plan—
</P>
<P>(1) Will be a “transferring plan,” that is, will pay a benefit transfer amount to PBGC for each distributee who is missing upon close-out of the subpart C plan and will be bound by the provisions of this subpart C to the extent that they apply to transferring plans, or
</P>
<P>(2) Will be a “notifying plan,” that is, will notify PBGC of the disposition of the benefits of each distributee identified in the filing who is missing upon close-out of the plan and will, with respect to those distributees, be bound by the provisions of this subpart C to the extent that they apply to notifying plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diligent search</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, for each distributee whose location the plan administrator does not know with reasonable certainty upon close-out of a subpart C plan, the plan administrator must have conducted a diligent search as described in § 4050.304.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notifying plans.</I> For a notifying plan, the requirement of paragraph (b)(1) of this section applies only to distributees identified in the filing with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing with PBGC</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, for each distributee who is missing upon close-out of a subpart C plan, the plan administrator must file with PBGC as described in § 4050.305.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notifying plans.</I> For a notifying plan, the requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section applies only to distributees identified in the filing with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Benefit transfer amount.</I> The benefit transfer amount for a missing distributee is the amount determined by the plan administrator as of the benefit determination date using whichever one of the following three methods applies:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>De minimis.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is de minimis, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is equal to that single sum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-de minimis; single sum payment cannot be elected.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is not de minimis, and a single sum payment cannot be elected, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is the present value of the distributee's accrued benefit determined using PBGC missing participants assumptions, plus
</P>
<P>(i) For a missing distributee not in pay status whose normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) precedes the benefit determination date, the aggregate value of payments of the straight life annuity that would have been payable beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the benefit determination date, assuming that the distributee survived to the benefit determination date, as determined by the plan administrator; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a missing distributee in pay status, the aggregate value of payments of the pay status annuity due but not made, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from each payment due date to the benefit determination date, assuming that the distributee survived to the benefit determination date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-de minimis; single sum payment can be elected.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is not de minimis, and a single sum payment can be elected, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is the greater of the amounts determined using the methodology in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.304" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.3.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.304   Diligent search.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Search requirement.</I> For each distributee of a subpart C plan who is described in § 4050.303(b), the plan administrator must, within the time frame described in paragraph (d) of this section, have diligently searched for each distributee of the plan whose location the plan administrator does not know with reasonable certainty upon close out, using one of the following two methods:
</P>
<P>(1) For any distributee, regardless of the size of the distributee's benefit, the commercial locator service method described in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a distributee whose normal retirement benefit is not more than $50 per month, the records search method described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commercial locator service method</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Using the commercial locator service method means paying a commercial locator service to search for information to locate a distributee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Meaning of “commercial locator service.”</I> For purposes of this section, a commercial locator service is a business that holds itself out as a finder of lost persons for compensation using information from a database maintained by a consumer reporting agency (as defined in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records search method</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Using the records search method means searching for information to locate a distributee by doing all of the following to the extent reasonably feasible and affordable:
</P>
<P>(i) Searching the records of the plan for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Searching the records of the plan's contributing sponsor that is the most recent employer of the distributee for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Searching the records of each retirement or welfare plan of the plan's contributing sponsor in which the distributee was a participant for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(iv) Contacting each beneficiary of the distributee identified from the records referred to in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(v) Using an internet search method for which no fee is charged, such as a search engine, a network database, a public record database (such as those for licenses, mortgages, and real estate taxes) or a “social media” website.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limits on method.</I> For purposes of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) Searching is not feasible to the extent that, as a practical matter, it is thwarted by legal or practical lack of access to records, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Searching is not affordable to the extent that the cost of searching (including the value of labor) is more than a reasonable fraction of the benefit of the distributee being searched for. In no event would searching need to be pursued beyond the point where the cost equals the value of the benefit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time frame.</I> A search for a distributee under this section must have been made within nine months before a filing is made under § 4050.305 identifying the distributee as a missing distributee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.305" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.3.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.305   Filing with PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What to file.</I> The plan administrator of a subpart C plan must file with PBGC the information specified in the missing participants forms and instructions, and if the plan is a transferring plan, payment of—
</P>
<P>(1) The benefit transfer amount for the missing distributee;
</P>
<P>(2) If the benefit transfer amount is paid more than 90 days after the benefit determination date, interest on the benefit transfer amount computed at the missing participants interest rate for the period beginning on the 90th day after the benefit determination date and ending on the date the benefit transfer amount is paid to PBGC; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any fee provided for in the missing participants forms and instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to file.</I> The plan administrator must file the information and payments referred to in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the missing participants forms and instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place, method and date of filing; time periods.</I> (1) For rules about where to file, see § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For rules about permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this subpart, see subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) For rules about the date that a submission under this subpart was filed with PBGC, see subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) For rules about any time period for filing under this subpart, see subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supplemental information.</I> Within 30 days after a written request by PBGC (or such other time as may be specified in the request), the plan administrator of a subpart C plan required to file under paragraph (a) of this section must file with PBGC supplemental information for any proper purpose under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reliance.</I> As administrator of the missing participants program, PBGC will rely on determinations made and information reported by plan administrators in connection with the program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.306" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.3.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.306   Missing participant benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Notifying plan.</I> If a notifying plan files with PBGC information about a disposition of benefits made by the subpart C plan for a missing distributee, PBGC will provide information about the disposition of benefits to the distributee or another claimant that may be entitled to the benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transferring plan.</I> If a transferring plan pays PBGC a benefit transfer amount for a missing distributee, PBGC will pay benefits with respect to the missing distributee in accordance with this section, subject to the provisions of a QDRO.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits for missing distributees who are participants.</I> Paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (k) of this section describe the benefits that PBGC will pay to a non-pay status missing participant of a subpart C plan who claims a benefit under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>De minimis benefit.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant a lump sum equal to the accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-de minimis benefit of unmarried participant.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of an unmarried participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is not de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant either the annuity described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, beginning not before age 55, and (if applicable) the make-up amount described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or, if the participant could have elected a lump sum under the subpart C plan, and the participant so elects under the missing participants program, the lump sum described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (d)(1) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Straight life annuity.</I> A straight life annuity in the amount that the subpart C plan would have paid the participant, starting at the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), as reported to PBGC by the subpart C plan (including any early retirement subsidies), or through linear interpolation for participants who start payments between integral ages; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other form of annuity.</I> At the participant's election, any form of annuity available to the participant under § 4022.8 of this chapter, in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the straight life annuity in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amount.</I> If PBGC begins to pay the annuity under paragraph (d)(1) of this section after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), the make-up amount described in this paragraph (d)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the annuity that would have been payable to the participant (in the elected form) beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC begins to pay the annuity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (d)(3) is equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-de minimis benefit of married participant.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a married participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is not de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant either the annuity described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, beginning not before age 55, and (if applicable) the make-up amount described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section; or, if the participant could have elected a lump sum under the subpart C plan, and the participant so elects under the missing participants program with the consent of the participant's spouse, the lump sum described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (e)(1) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Joint and survivor annuity.</I> A joint and 50 percent survivor annuity in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the straight life annuity under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other form of annuity.</I> At the participant's election, with the consent of the participant's spouse, any form of annuity available to the participant under § 4022.8 of this chapter, in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amount.</I> If PBGC begins to pay the annuity under paragraph (e)(1) of this section after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), the make-up amount described in this paragraph (e)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the annuity that would have been payable to the participant beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC begins to pay the annuity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (e)(3) is equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Benefits with respect to deceased missing distributees who were participants.</I> Paragraphs (g), (h), (i), (j), and (k) of this section describe the benefits that PBGC will pay with respect to a non-pay status missing participant of a subpart C plan who dies without receiving a benefit under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>De minimis benefit.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a participant described in paragraph (f) of this section is de minimis, PBGC will pay to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant a lump sum equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; unmarried participant.</I> In the case of an unmarried participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis,—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Death before normal retirement date.</I> If the participant dies before the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), PBGC will pay no benefits with respect to the participant; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Death after normal retirement date.</I> If the participant dies on or after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), PBGC will pay to the participant's qualified survivor(s) an amount equal to the aggregate value of payments of the straight life annuity described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; married participant with living spouse.</I> In the case of a married participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis and whose spouse survives the participant and claims a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will pay the spouse, beginning not before the participant would have reached age 55, the annuity (if any) described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section and the make-up amounts (if applicable) described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, except that PBGC will pay the spouse, as a lump sum, the small benefit described in paragraph (i)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (i)(1) is the survivor portion of a joint and 50 percent survivor annuity that is actuarially equivalent as of the assumed starting date (determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter) to the straight life annuity in the amount that the subpart C plan would have paid the participant with an assumed starting date of—
</P>
<P>(i) The date when the participant would have reached age 55, if the participant died before that date, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The participant's date of death, if the participant died between age 55 and the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), or
</P>
<P>(iii) The normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), if the participant died after that date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amounts.</I> The make-up amounts described in this paragraph (i)(2) are the amounts described in paragraphs (i)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Payments from participant's death or 55th birthday to commencement of survivor annuity.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (i)(2)(i) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the survivor portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the spouse beginning on the later of the participant's date of death or the date when the participant would have reached age 55, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Payments from normal retirement date to participant's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (i)(2)(ii) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments (if any) of the joint portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death thereafter, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small benefit.</I> If the sum of the actuarial present value of the annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section plus the make-up amounts described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section is de minimis, then the lump sum that PBGC will pay the spouse under this paragraph (i)(3) is an amount equal to that sum. For this purpose, the actuarial present value of the annuity is determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter as of the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; married participant with deceased spouse.</I> In the case of a married participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis and whose spouse survives the participant but dies without receiving a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will pay to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant's spouse the make-up amount described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section and to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant the make-up amount described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Payments from participant's death or 55th birthday to spouse's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (j)(1) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the survivor portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the spouse from the later of the participant's date of death or the date when the participant would have reached age 55 to the spouse's date of death, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse's qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments from normal retirement date to participant's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (j)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the joint portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death thereafter, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the participant's qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Benefits under contributory plans.</I> If a subpart C plan reports to PBGC that a portion of a missing participant's benefit transfer amount represents accumulated contributions as described in section 204(c)(2)(C) of ERISA and section 411(c)(2)(C) of the Code, PBGC will pay with respect to the missing participant, at least the amount of accumulated contributions as reported by the subpart C plan, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the benefit determination date to the date when PBGC makes payment.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Date for determining marital status.</I> For purposes of this section, whether a participant is married, and if so the identity of the spouse, is determined as of the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date the participant receives or begins to receive a benefit, or
</P>
<P>(2) The date the participant dies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.307" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.3.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.307   PBGC discretion.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC may in appropriate circumstances extend deadlines, excuse noncompliance, and grant waivers with regard to any provision of this subpart to promote the purposes of the missing participants program and title IV of ERISA. Like circumstances will be treated in like manner under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Multiemployer Plans Covered by Title IV</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.401" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.4.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.401   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This subpart describes PBGC's missing participants program for multiemployer defined benefit retirement plans covered by title IV of ERISA. The missing participants program is a program to hold retirement benefits for missing participants and beneficiaries in retirement plans that are closing out and to help them find and receive the benefits being held for them. For a plan to which this subpart applies, this subpart describes what the plan must do upon plan termination if it has missing participants or beneficiaries who are entitled to distributions. This subpart applies to a plan only if it is a multiemployer defined benefit plan that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is described in section 4021(a) of ERISA and not in any paragraph of section 4021(b) of ERISA, and
</P>
<P>(2) Completes the process of closing out under subpart D of PBGC's regulation on Termination of Multiemployer Plans (29 CFR part 4041A).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plans that terminate but do not close out.</I> This subpart does not apply to plans that terminate but do not close out.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual account plans.</I> This subpart does not apply to an individual account plan under section 3(34) of ERISA, even if it is described in the same plan document as a plan to which this subpart applies. This subpart also does not apply to a plan to the extent that it is treated as an individual account plan under section 3(35)(B) of ERISA. For example, this subpart does not apply to employee contributions (or interest or earnings thereon) held as an individual account. (Subpart B deals with individual account plans.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.402" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.4.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.402   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Annuity, Code, ERISA, insurer, PBGC, person, and plan sponsor. In addition, for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Accrual cessation date</I> for a participant under a subpart D plan means the date the participant stopped accruing benefits under the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Accumulated single sum</I> means, with respect to a missing distributee, the distributee's benefit transfer amount accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the benefit determination date to the date when PBGC makes or commences payment to or with respect to the distributee.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit determination date</I> with respect to a subpart D plan means the single date selected by the plan sponsor for valuing benefits under § 4050.103(d); this date must be during the period beginning on the first day a distribution is made pursuant to close-out of the plan to a distributee who is not a missing distributee and ending on the last day such a distribution is made.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit transfer amount</I> for a missing distributee of a subpart D plan means the amount determined by the plan sponsor under § 4050.403(d) in the close-out of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Close-out</I> or <I>close out</I> with respect to a subpart D plan means the process of the final distribution or transfer of assets in satisfaction of plan benefits.
</P>
<P><I>De minimis</I> means, with respect to the value of a benefit (or other amount), that the value does not exceed the amount specified under section 203(e)(1) of ERISA and section 411(a)(11)(A) of the Code (without regard to plan provisions).
</P>
<P><I>Distributee</I> means, with respect to a subpart D plan, a participant or beneficiary entitled to a distribution under the subpart D plan pursuant to the close-out of the subpart D plan.
</P>
<P><I>Missing,</I> with respect to a distributee under a subpart D plan, means that any one or more of the following three conditions exists upon close-out of the plan.
</P>
<P>(1) The plan sponsor does not know with reasonable certainty the location of the distributee.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the terms of the plan, the distributee's benefit is to be paid in a lump sum without the distributee's consent, and the distributee has not responded to a notice about the distribution of the lump sum.
</P>
<P>(3) Under the terms of the plan and any election made by the distributee, the distributee's benefit is to be paid in a lump sum, but the distributee does not accept the lump sum. For this purpose, a lump sum paid by check is not accepted if the check remains uncashed after—
</P>
<P>(i) A “cash-by” date prescribed (on the check or in an accompanying notice) that is at least 45 days after the issuance of the check, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If no such “cash-by” date is so prescribed, the check's stale date.
</P>
<P><I>Missing participants forms and instructions</I> means the forms and instructions provided by PBGC for use in connection with the missing participants program.
</P>
<P><I>Missing participants interest rate</I> means, for each month, the applicable federal mid-term rate (as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to section 1274(d)(1)(C)(ii) of the Code) for that month, compounded monthly.
</P>
<P><I>Normal retirement date</I> for a participant under a subpart D plan means the normal retirement date of the participant under the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Pay-status</I> or <I>pay status</I> means one of the following (according to context):
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a benefit, that payment of the benefit has actually started before the benefit determination date; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a distributee, that payment of the distributee's benefit has actually started before the benefit determination date.
</P>
<P><I>PBGC missing participants assumptions</I> means the actuarial assumptions prescribed in §§ 4044.51 through 4044.58 of this chapter with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The present value is determined as of the benefit determination date instead of the plan termination date.
</P>
<P>(2) The mortality assumption is the mortality table in § 4044.53(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) No adjustment is made for loading expenses under § 4044.52(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The interest assumption is the assumption for valuing benefits under § 4044.54 of this chapter applicable to valuations occurring on December 31 of the calendar year preceding the calendar year in which the benefit determination date occurs. However, for benefit determination dates July 31 through December 31 of 2024, the interest assumption is the assumption for valuing benefits under § 4044.54 of this chapter applicable to valuations occurring on July 31, 2024.
</P>
<P>(5) The assumed payment form of a benefit not in pay status is a straight life annuity.
</P>
<P>(6) Pre-retirement death benefits are disregarded.
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding the expected retirement age (XRA) assumptions in §§ 4044.55 through 4044.58 of this chapter—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a participant who is not in pay status and whose normal retirement date is on or after the benefit determination date, benefits are assumed to commence at the XRA, determined using the high retirement rate category under table II-C (Expected Retirement Ages for Individuals in the High Category) in § 4044.58 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a participant who is not in pay status and whose normal retirement date is before the benefit determination date, benefits are assumed to commence on the participant's normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later);
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a participant who is in pay status, benefits are assumed to commence on the date on which benefits actually commenced; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a beneficiary, benefits are assumed to commence on the benefit determination date or, if later, the earliest date the beneficiary can begin to receive benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Plan lump sum assumptions</I> means, with respect to a subpart D plan, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the plan specifies actuarial assumptions and methods to be used to calculate a lump sum distribution, such actuarial assumptions and methods, or
</P>
<P>(2) Otherwise, the actuarial assumptions specified under section 205(g)(3) of ERISA and section 417(e)(3) of the Code, determined as of the benefit determination date, including use of the missing participants interest rate to calculate the present value as of the benefit determination date of a payment or payments missed in the past.
</P>
<P><I>QDRO</I> means a qualified domestic relations order as defined in section 206(d)(3) of ERISA and section 414(p) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified survivor</I> of a participant or beneficiary under a subpart D plan means, for any benefit with respect to the participant or beneficiary,—
</P>
<P>(1) A person who survives the participant or beneficiary and is entitled under applicable provisions of a QDRO to receive the benefit;
</P>
<P>(2) A person that is identified by the plan in a submission to PBGC by the plan as being entitled under applicable plan provisions (including elections, designations, and waivers consistent with such provisions) to receive the benefit; or
</P>
<P>(3) If no such person is so entitled, a survivor of the participant or beneficiary who is the participant's or beneficiary's living—
</P>
<P>(i) Spouse, or if none,
</P>
<P>(ii) Child, or if none,
</P>
<P>(iii) Parent, or if none,
</P>
<P>(iv) Sibling.
</P>
<P><I>Subpart D plan</I> or <I>plan</I> means a plan to which this subpart D applies, as described in § 4050.401.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 60818, Dec. 22, 2017, as amended at 89 FR 48309, June 6, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.403" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.4.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.403   Duties of plan sponsor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Providing for benefits.</I> For each distributee who is missing upon close-out of a subpart D plan, the plan sponsor must provide for the distributee's plan benefits either—
</P>
<P>(1) By purchase of an annuity contract from an insurer; or
</P>
<P>(2) By—
</P>
<P>(i) Determining the distributee's benefit transfer amount under paragraph (e) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Transferring to PBGC as described in this subpart D an amount equal to the distributee's benefit transfer amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diligent search.</I> For each distributee whose location the plan sponsor does not know with reasonable certainty upon close-out of a subpart D plan, the plan sponsor must have conducted a diligent search as described in § 4050.404.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing with PBGC.</I> For each distributee who is missing upon close-out of a subpart D plan, the plan sponsor must file with PBGC as described in § 4050.405.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Benefit transfer amount.</I> The benefit transfer amount for a missing distributee is the amount determined by the plan sponsor as of the benefit determination date using whichever one of the following three methods applies:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>De minimis.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is de minimis, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is equal to that single sum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-de minimis; single sum payment cannot be elected.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is not de minimis, and a single sum payment cannot be elected, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is the present value of the distributee's accrued benefit determined using PBGC missing participants assumptions, plus
</P>
<P>(i) For a missing distributee not in pay status whose normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) precedes the benefit determination date, the aggregate value of payments of the straight life annuity that would have been payable beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the benefit determination date, assuming that the distributee survived to the benefit determination date, as determined by the plan sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a missing distributee in pay status, the aggregate value of payments of the pay status annuity due but not made, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from each payment due date to the benefit determination date, assuming that the distributee survived to the benefit determination date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-de minimis; single sum payment can be elected.</I> If the single sum actuarial equivalent of the distributee's benefits (including any payments missed in the past) determined using plan lump sum assumptions is not de minimis, and a single sum payment can be elected, then the missing distributee's benefit transfer amount is the greater of the amounts determined using the methodology in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.404" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.4.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.404   Diligent search.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Search requirement.</I> The plan sponsor of a subpart D plan must, within the time frame described in paragraph (d) of this section, have diligently searched for each distributee of the plan whose location the plan sponsor does not know with reasonable certainty upon close-out, using one of the following two methods:
</P>
<P>(1) For any distributee, regardless of the size of the distributee's benefit, the commercial locator service method described in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a distributee whose normal retirement benefit is not more than $50 per month, the records search method described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commercial locator service method</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Using the commercial locator service method means paying a commercial locator service to search for information to locate a distributee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Meaning of “commercial locator service.”</I> For purposes of this section, a commercial locator service is a business that holds itself out as a finder of lost persons for compensation using information from a database maintained by a consumer reporting agency (as defined in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records search method</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Using the records search method means searching for information to locate a distributee by doing all of the following to the extent reasonably feasible and affordable:
</P>
<P>(i) Searching the records of the plan for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Searching the records of the contributing sponsor that is the most recent employer of the distributee for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Searching the records of each retirement or welfare plan of the contributing sponsor in which the distributee was a participant for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(iv) Contacting each beneficiary of the distributee identified from the records referred to in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section for information to locate the distributee.
</P>
<P>(v) Using an internet search method for which no fee is charged, such as a search engine, a network database, a public record database (such as those for licenses, mortgages, and real estate taxes) or a “social media” website.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limits on method.</I> For purposes of this section,—
</P>
<P>(i) Searching is not feasible to the extent that, as a practical matter, it is thwarted by legal or practical lack of access to records, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Searching is not affordable to the extent that the cost of searching (including the value of labor) is more than a reasonable fraction of the benefit of the distributee being searched for. In no event would searching need to be pursued beyond the point where the cost equals the value of the benefit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time frame.</I> A search for a distributee under this section must have been made within nine months before a filing is made under § 4050.405 identifying the distributee as a missing distributee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.405" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.4.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.405   Filing with PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What to file.</I> The plan sponsor of a subpart D plan must file with PBGC the information specified in the missing participants forms and instructions and, for a missing distributee referred to in § 4050.403(a)(2), payment of—
</P>
<P>(1) The benefit transfer amount for the missing distributee;
</P>
<P>(2) If the benefit transfer amount is paid more than 90 days after the benefit determination date, interest on the benefit transfer amount computed at the missing participants interest rate for the period beginning on the 90th day after the benefit determination date and ending on the date the benefit transfer amount is paid to PBGC; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any fee provided for in the missing participants forms and instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to file.</I> The plan sponsor must file the information and payments referred to in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the missing participants forms and instructions. Payment of a benefit transfer amount will, if considered timely made for purposes of this paragraph (b), be considered timely made for purposes of part 4041A of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Place, method and date of filing; time periods.</I> (1) For rules about where to file, see § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For rules about permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this subpart, see subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) For rules about the date that a submission under this subpart was filed with PBGC, see subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) For rules about any time period for filing under this subpart, see subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supplemental information.</I> Within 30 days after a written request by PBGC (or such other time as may be specified in the request), the plan sponsor of a subpart D plan required to file under paragraph (a) of this section must file with PBGC supplemental information for any proper purpose under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reliance.</I> As administrator of the missing participants program, PBGC will rely on determinations made and information reported by plan sponsors in connection with the program. This reliance does not affect PBGC's authority as administrator of the title IV insurance program to audit or make inquiries of subpart D plans, including about the amount to which a missing distributee may be entitled.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.406" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.4.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.406   Missing participant benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Benefit transfer amount not paid.</I> If a subpart D plan files with PBGC information about an annuity contract purchased by the subpart D plan from an insurer for a missing distributee, PBGC will provide information about the annuity contract to the distributee or another claimant that may be entitled to payment pursuant to the contract.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit transfer amount paid.</I> If a subpart D plan pays PBGC a benefit transfer amount for a missing distributee, PBGC will pay benefits with respect to the missing distributee in accordance with this section, subject to the provisions of a QDRO.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits for missing distributees who are participants.</I> Paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (k) of this section describe the benefits that PBGC will pay to a non-pay status missing participant of a subpart D plan who claims a benefit under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>De minimis benefit.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant a lump sum equal to the accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-de minimis benefit of unmarried participant.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of an unmarried participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is not de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant either the annuity described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, beginning not before age 55, and (if applicable) the make-up amount described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or, if the participant could have elected a lump sum under the subpart D plan, and the participant so elects under the missing participants program, the lump sum described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (d)(1) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Straight life annuity.</I> A straight life annuity in the amount that the subpart D plan would have paid the participant, starting at the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), as reported to PBGC by the subpart D plan (including any early retirement subsidies), or through linear interpolation for participants who start payments between integral ages; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other form of annuity.</I> At the participant's election, any form of annuity available to the participant under § 4022.8 of this chapter, in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the straight life annuity in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amount.</I> If PBGC begins to pay the annuity under paragraph (d)(1) of this section after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), the make-up amount described in this paragraph (d)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the annuity that would have been payable to the participant (in the elected form) beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC begins to pay the annuity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (d)(3) is equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-de minimis benefit of married participant.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a married participant described in paragraph (b) of this section is not de minimis, PBGC will pay the participant either the annuity described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, beginning not before age 55, and (if applicable) the make-up amount described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section; or, if the participant could have elected a lump sum under the subpart D plan, and the participant so elects under the missing participants program with the consent of the participant's spouse, the lump sum described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (e)(1) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Joint and survivor annuity.</I> A joint and 50 percent survivor annuity in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the straight life annuity under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other form of annuity.</I> At the participant's election, with the consent of the participant's spouse, any form of annuity available to the participant under § 4022.8 of this chapter, in an amount that is actuarially equivalent to the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section as of the date that PBGC payments start (or, if earlier, the later of the participant's normal retirement date or accrual cessation date), determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amount.</I> If PBGC begins to pay the annuity under paragraph (e)(1) of this section after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), the make-up amount described in this paragraph (e)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the annuity that would have been payable to the participant beginning on the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC begins to pay the annuity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lump sum.</I> The lump sum described in this paragraph (e)(3) is equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Benefits with respect to deceased missing distributees who were participants.</I> Paragraphs (g), (h), (i), (j), and (k) of this section describe the benefits that PBGC will pay with respect to a non-pay status missing participant of a subpart D plan who dies without receiving a benefit under the missing participants program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>De minimis benefit.</I> If the benefit transfer amount of a participant described in paragraph (f) of this section is de minimis, PBGC will pay to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant a lump sum equal to the participant's accumulated single sum.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; unmarried participant.</I> In the case of an unmarried participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Death before normal retirement date.</I> If the participant dies before the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), PBGC will pay no benefits with respect to the participant; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Death after normal retirement date.</I> If the participant dies on or after the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), PBGC will pay to the participant's qualified survivor(s) an amount equal to the aggregate value of payments of the straight life annuity described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; married participant with living spouse.</I> In the case of a married participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis and whose spouse survives the participant and claims a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will pay the spouse, beginning not before the participant would have reached age 55, the annuity (if any) described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section and the make-up amounts (if applicable) described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, except that PBGC will pay the spouse, as a lump sum, the small benefit described in paragraph (i)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annuity.</I> The annuity described in this paragraph (i)(1) is the survivor portion of a joint and 50 percent survivor annuity that is actuarially equivalent as of the assumed starting date (determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter) to the straight life annuity in the amount that the subpart D plan would have paid the participant with an assumed starting date of—
</P>
<P>(i) The date when the participant would have reached age 55, if the participant died before that date, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The participant's date of death, if the participant died between age 55 and the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), or
</P>
<P>(iii) The normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later), if the participant died after that date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Make-up amounts.</I> The make-up amounts described in this paragraph (i)(2) are the amounts described in paragraphs (i)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Payments from participant's death or 55th birthday to commencement of survivor annuity.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (i)(2)(i) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the survivor portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the spouse beginning on the later of the participant's date of death or the date when the participant would have reached age 55, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Payments from normal retirement date to participant's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (i)(2)(ii) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments (if any) of the joint portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death thereafter, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small benefit.</I> If the sum of the actuarial present value of the annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section plus the make-up amounts described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section is de minimis, then the lump sum that PBGC will pay the spouse under this paragraph (i)(3) is an amount equal to that sum. For this purpose, the actuarial present value of the annuity is determined using the actuarial assumptions in § 4022.8(c)(7) of this chapter as of the date when PBGC pays the spouse.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Non-de minimis benefit; married participant with deceased spouse.</I> In the case of a married participant described in paragraph (f) of this section whose benefit transfer amount is not de minimis and whose spouse survives the participant but dies without receiving a benefit under the missing participants program, PBGC will pay to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant's spouse the make-up amount described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section and to the qualified survivor(s) of the participant the make-up amount described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Payments from participant's death or 55th birthday to spouse's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (j)(1) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the survivor portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the spouse from the later of the participant's date of death or the date when the participant would have reached age 55 to the spouse's date of death, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the spouse's qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments from normal retirement date to participant's death.</I> The make-up amount described in this paragraph (j)(2) is a lump sum equal to the aggregate value of payments of the joint portion of the joint and 50 percent survivor annuity described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section that would have been payable to the participant from the normal retirement date (or accrual cessation date if later) to the participant's date of death thereafter, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the date each payment would have been made to the date when PBGC pays the participant's qualified survivor(s).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Benefits under contributory plans.</I> If a subpart D plan reports to PBGC that a portion of a missing participant's benefit transfer amount represents accumulated contributions as described in section 204(c)(2)(C) of ERISA and section 411(c)(2)(C) of the Code, PBGC will pay with respect to the missing participant, at least the amount of accumulated contributions as reported by the subpart D plan, accumulated at the missing participants interest rate from the benefit determination date to the date when PBGC makes payment.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Date for determining marital status.</I> For purposes of this section, whether a participant is married, and if so the identity of the spouse, is determined as of the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date the participant receives or begins to receive a benefit, or
</P>
<P>(2) The date the participant dies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4050.407" NODE="29:9.1.4.17.16.4.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4050.407   PBGC discretion.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC may in appropriate circumstances extend deadlines, excuse noncompliance, and grant waivers with regard to any provision of this subpart to promote the purposes of the missing participants program and title IV of ERISA. Like circumstances will be treated in like manner under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="F" NODE="29:9.1.4.18" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER F—LIABILITY


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4061" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4061—AMOUNTS PAYABLE BY THE PENSION BENEFIT GUARANTY CORPORATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34079, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4061.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.17.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4061.1   Cross-references.</HEAD>
<P>See part 4022 of this chapter regarding benefits payable under terminated single-employer plans and § 4281.47 of this chapter regarding financial assistance to pay benefits under insolvent multiemployer plans. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4062" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4062—LIABILITY FOR TERMINATION OF SINGLE-EMPLOYER PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1362-1364, 1367, 1368. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34079, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4062.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set forth rules for determination and payment of the liability incurred, under section 4062(b) of ERISA, upon termination of any single-employer plan and, to the extent appropriate, determination of the liability incurred with respect to multiple employer plans under sections 4063 and 4064 of ERISA. This part also sets forth rules for determining the amount of liability incurred under section 4063 of ERISA pursuant to the occurrence of a cessation of operations as described by section 4062(e) of ERISA. The provisions of this part regarding the amount of liability to the PBGC that is incurred upon termination of a single-employer plan apply with respect to a plan for which a notice of intent to terminate under section 4041(c) of ERISA is issued or proceedings to terminate under section 4042 of ERISA are instituted after December 17, 1987. Those provisions also apply, to the extent described in paragraph (a) of this section, to the amount of liability for withdrawal from a multiple employer plan after that date. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34079, July 1, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 34822, June 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: benefit liabilities, Code, contributing sponsor, controlled group, ERISA, fair market value, guaranteed benefit, multiple employer plan, notice of intent to terminate, PBGC, person, plan, plan administrator, proposed termination date, single-employer plan, and termination date. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part, the term <I>collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination</I> means the sum of the individual net worths of all persons that have individual net worths which are greater than zero and that (as of the termination date) are contributing sponsors of the terminated plan or members of their controlled groups, as determined in accordance with section 4062(d)(1) of ERISA and § 4062.4 of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.3   Amount and payment of section 4062(b) liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount of liability</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the amount of section 4062(b) liability is the total amount (as of the termination date) of the unfunded benefit liabilities (within the meaning of section 4001(a)(18) of ERISA) to all participants and beneficiaries under the plan, together with interest calculated from the termination date in accordance with § 4062.7. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule in case of subsequent finding of inability to pay guaranteed benefits.</I> In any distress termination proceeding under section 4041(c) of ERISA and part 4041 of this chapter in which (as described in section 4041(c)(3)(C)(ii) of ERISA), after a determination that the plan is sufficient for benefit liabilities or for guaranteed benefits, the plan administrator finds that the plan is or will be insufficient for guaranteed benefits and the PBGC concurs with that finding, or the PBGC makes such a finding on its own initiative, actuarial present values shall be determined as of the date of the notice to, or the finding by, the PBGC of insufficiency for guaranteed benefits. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of liability.</I> Section 4062(b) liability is due and payable as of the termination date, in cash or securities acceptable to the PBGC, except that, as provided in § 4062.9(c), the PBGC shall prescribe commercially reasonable terms for payment of so much of such liability as exceeds 30 percent of the collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination. The PBGC may make alternative arrangements, as provided in § 4062.9(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34079, July 1, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 34822, June 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.4   Determinations of net worth and collective net worth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> When a contributing sponsor, or member(s) of a contributing sponsor's controlled group, notifies and submits information to the PBGC in accordance with § 4062.6, the PBGC shall determine the net worth, as of the net worth record date, of that contributing sponsor and any members of its controlled group based on the factors set forth in paragraph (c) of this section and shall include the value of any assets that it determines, pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, have been improperly transferred. In making such determinations, the PBGC will consider information submitted pursuant to § 4062.6. The PBGC shall then determine the collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Partnerships and sole proprietorships.</I> In the case of a person that is a partnership or a sole proprietorship, net worth does not include the personal assets and liabilities of the partners or sole proprietor, except for the assets included pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. As used in this paragraph, “personal assets” are those assets which do not produce income for the business being valued or are not used in the business. 


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factors for determining net worth.</I> A person's net worth is to be determined on the basis of the factors set forth below in this section, to the extent relevant; different factors may be considered with respect to different portions of the person's operations. Generally, fair market value, as defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter, is to be used. As appropriate, fair value in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America (U.S. GAAP) is to be used.






</P>
<P>(1) A bona fide sale of, agreement to sell, or offer to purchase or sell the business of the person made on or about the net worth record date. 
</P>
<P>(2) A bona fide sale of, agreement to sell, or offer to purchase or sell stock or a partnership interest in the person, made on or about the net worth record date. 
</P>
<P>(3) If stock in the person is publicly traded, the price of such stock on or about the net worth record date. 
</P>
<P>(4) The price/earnings ratios and prices of stocks of similar trades or businesses on or about the net worth record date. 
</P>
<P>(5) The person's economic outlook, as reflected by its earnings and dividend projections, current financial condition, and business history. 
</P>
<P>(6) The economic outlook for the person's industry and the market it serves. 
</P>
<P>(7) The appraised value, including the liquidating value, of the person's tangible and intangible assets. 
</P>
<P>(8) The value of the equity assumed in a plan of reorganization of a person in a case under title 11, United States Code, or any similar law of a state or political subdivision thereof. 
</P>
<P>(9) Any other factor relevant in determining the person's net worth. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Improper transfers.</I> A person's net worth shall include the value of any assets transferred by the person which the PBGC determines were improperly transferred for the purpose, as inferred from all the facts and circumstances, and with the effect of avoiding liability under this part. Assets “improperly transferred” include but are not limited to assets sold, leased or otherwise transferred for less than adequate consideration and assets distributed as gifts, capital distributions and stock redemptions inconsistent with past practices of the employer. The word <I>transfer</I> includes but is not limited to sales, assignments, pledges, leases, gifts and dividends. 




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34079, July 1, 1996, as amended at 88 FR 44052, July 11, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.5   Net worth record date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Unless the PBGC establishes an earlier net worth record date pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the net worth record date, for all purposes under this part, is the plan's termination date. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment of an earlier net worth record date.</I> At any time during a termination proceeding, the PBGC, in order to prevent undue loss to or abuse of the plan termination insurance system, may establish as the net worth record date an earlier date during the 120-day period ending with the termination date. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification.</I> Whenever the PBGC establishes an earlier net worth record date, it shall immediately give liable person(s) written notification of that fact. The written notice may also include a request for additional information, as provided in § 4062.6(a)(3). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.6   Net worth notification and information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A contributing sponsor or member of the contributing sponsor's controlled group that believes section 4062(b) liability exceeds 30 percent of the collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination shall—
</P>
<P>(i) So notify the PBGC by the 90th day after the notice of intent to terminate is filed with the PBGC or, if no notice of intent to terminate is filed with the PBGC and the PBGC institutes proceedings under section 4042 of ERISA, within 30 days after the establishment of the plan's termination date in such proceedings; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit to the PBGC the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to the contributing sponsor and each member of the contributing sponsor's controlled group (if any)— 
</P>
<P>(A) By the 120th day after the proposed termination date, or 
</P>
<P>(B) If no notice of intent to terminate is filed with the PBGC and the PBGC institutes proceedings under section 4042 of ERISA, within 120 days after the establishment of the plan's termination date in such proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a contributing sponsor or a member of its controlled group complies with the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the PBGC will consider the requirements to be satisfied by all members of that controlled group. 
</P>
<P>(3) The PBGC may require any person subject to liability—
</P>
<P>(i) To submit the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section within a shorter period whenever the PBGC believes that its ability to obtain information or payment of liability is in jeopardy, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) To submit additional information within 30 days, or a different specified time, after the PBGC's written notification that it needs such information to make net worth determinations. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a provision of paragraph (b) of this section or a PBGC notice specifies information previously submitted to the PBGC, a person may respond by identifying the previous submission in which the response was provided. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Net worth information.</I> The following information specifications apply, individually, with respect to each person subject to liability: 
</P>
<P>(1) An estimate, made in accordance with § 4062.4, of the person's net worth on the net worth record date and a statement, with supporting evidence, of the basis for the estimate. 
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the person's audited (or if not available, unaudited) financial statements for the 5 full fiscal years plus any partial fiscal year preceding the net worth record date. The statements must include balance sheets, income statements, and statements of changes in financial position and must be accompanied by the annual reports, if available. 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of all sales and copies of all offers or agreements to buy or sell at least 25 percent of the person's assets or at least 5 percent of the person's stock or partnership interest, made on or about the net worth record date. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the person's current financial condition and business history. 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of the person's business plans, including projected earnings and, if available, dividend projections. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any appraisal of the person's fixed and intangible assets made on or about the net worth record date. 
</P>
<P>(7) A copy of any plan of reorganization, whether or not confirmed, with respect to a case under title 11, United States Code, or any similar law of a state or political subdivision thereof, involving the person and occurring within 5 calendar years prior to or any time after the net worth record date. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incomplete submission.</I> If a contributing sponsor and/or members of the contributing sponsor's controlled group do not submit all of the information required pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section (other than the estimate described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) with respect to each person subject to liability, the PBGC may base determinations of net worth and the collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination on any such information that such person(s) did submit, as well as any other pertinent information that the PBGC may have. In general, the PBGC will view information as of a date further removed from the net worth record date as having less probative value than information as of a date nearer to the net worth record date. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.7   Calculating interest on liability and refunds of overpayments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interest.</I> Whether or not the PBGC has granted deferred payment terms pursuant to § 4062.9, the amount of liability under this part includes interest, from the termination date, on any unpaid portion of the liability. Such interest accrues at the rate set forth in paragraph (c) of this section until the liability is paid in full and is compounded daily. When liability under this part is paid in more than one payment, the PBGC will apply each payment to the satisfaction of accrued interest and then to the reduction of principal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Refunds.</I> If a contributing sponsor or member(s) of a contributing sponsor's controlled group pays the PBGC an amount that exceeds the full amount of liability under this part, the PBGC shall refund the excess amount, with interest at the rate set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. Interest on an overpayment accrues from the later of the date of the overpayment or 10 days prior to the termination date until the date of the refund and is compounded daily. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interest rate.</I> The interest rate on liability under this part and refunds thereof is the annual rate prescribed in section 6601(a) of the Code, and will change whenever the interest rate under section 6601(a) of the Code changes. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34079, July 1, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 34822, June 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.8   Liability pursuant to section 4062(e).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liability amount.</I> If, pursuant to section 4062(e) of ERISA, an employer ceases operations at a facility in any location and, as a result of such cessation of operations, more than 20% of the total number of the employer's employees who are participants under a plan established and maintained by the employer are separated from employment, the PBGC will determine the amount of liability under section 4063(b) of ERISA to be the amount described in section 4062 of ERISA for the entire plan, as if the plan had been terminated by the PBGC immediately after the date of the cessation of operations, multiplied by a fraction—
</P>
<P>(1) The numerator of which is the number of the employer's employees who are participants under the plan and are separated from employment as a result of the cessation of operations; and
</P>
<P>(2) The denominator of which is the total number of the employer's current employees, as determined immediately before the cessation of operations, who are participants under the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Example.</I> Company X sponsors a pension plan with 50,000 participants of which 20,000 are current employees and 30,000 are retirees or deferred vested participants. On a PBGC termination basis, the plan is underfunded by $80 million. Company X ceases operations at a facility resulting in the separation from employment of 5,000 employees, all of whom are participants in the pension plan. A section 4062(e) event has occurred, and the PBGC will determine the amount of employer liability under section 4063(b) of ERISA. The numerator described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is 5,000 and the denominator described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section is 20,000. Therefore, the amount of liability under section 4063(b) of ERISA pursuant to section 4062(e) is $20 million (5,000/20,000 × $80 million).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 34822, June 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.9   Arrangements for satisfying liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The PBGC will defer payment, or agree to other arrangements for the satisfaction, of any portion of liability to the PBGC only when—
</P>
<P>(1) As provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the PBGC determines that such action is necessary to avoid the imposition of a severe hardship and that there is a reasonable possibility that the terms so prescribed will be met and the entire liability paid; or 
</P>
<P>(2) As provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the PBGC determines that section 4062(b) liability exceeds 30 percent of the collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Upon request.</I> If the PBGC determines that such action is necessary to avoid the imposition of a severe hardship on persons that are or may become liable under section 4062, 4063, or 4064 of ERISA and that there is a reasonable possibility that persons so liable will be able to meet the terms prescribed and pay the entire liability, the PBGC, in its discretion and when so requested in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, may grant deferred payment or other terms for the satisfaction of such liability. 
</P>
<P>(1) In determining what, if any, terms to grant, the PBGC shall examine the following factors: 
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the liability to the net worth of the person making the request and (if different) to the collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The overall financial condition of persons that are or may become liable, including, with respect to each such person—
</P>
<P>(A) The amounts and terms of existing debts; 
</P>
<P>(B) The amount and availability of liquid assets; 
</P>
<P>(C) Current and past cash flow; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Projected cash flow, including a projection of the impact on operations that would be caused by the immediate full payment of the liability. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The availability of credit from private sector sources to the person making the request and to other liable persons. 
</P>
<P>(2) A contributing sponsor or member of a contributing sponsor's controlled group may request deferred payment or other terms for the satisfaction of any portion of the liability under section 4062, 4063, or 4064 of ERISA at any time by filing a written request. The request must include the information specified in § 4062.6(b), except that—
</P>
<P>(i) If the request is filed one year or more after the net worth record date, references to “the net worth record date” in § 4062.6(b) shall be replaced by “the most recent annual anniversary of the net worth record date”; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information that already has been submitted to the PBGC need not be submitted again. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liability exceeding 30 percent of collective net worth.</I> If the PBGC determines that section 4062(b) liability exceeds 30 percent of the collective net worth of persons subject to the liability, the PBGC will, after making a reasonable effort to reach agreement with such persons, prescribe commercially reasonable terms for payment of so much of the liability as exceeds 30 percent of the collective net worth of such persons. The terms prescribed by the PBGC for payment of that portion of the liability (including interest) will provide for deferral of 50 percent of any amount otherwise payable for any year if a person subject to such liability demonstrates to the satisfaction of the PBGC that no person subject to such liability has any individual pre-tax profits (within the meaning of section 4062(d)(2) of ERISA) for such person's last full fiscal year ending during that year. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interest.</I> Interest on unpaid liability is calculated in accordance with § 4062.7(a). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Security during period of deferred payment.</I> As a condition to the granting of deferred payment terms, PBGC may, in its discretion, require that the liable person(s) provide PBGC with such security for its obligations as the PBGC deems adequate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34079, July 1, 1996. Redesignated at 71 FR 34822, June 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.10   Method and date of filing; where to file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. Payment of liability must be clearly designated as such and include the name of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing date.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61354, Oct. 28, 2003. Redesignated at 71 FR 34822, June 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4062.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.18.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4062.11   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part. However, for purposes of determining the amount of an interest charge under § 4062.7, the rule in § 4000.43(a) of this chapter governing periods ending on weekends or Federal holidays does not apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61354, Oct. 28, 2003. Redesignated at 71 FR 34822, June 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4063" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4063—WITHDRAWAL LIABILITY; PLANS UNDER MULTIPLE CONTROLLED GROUPS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34082, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4063.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.19.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4063.1   Cross-references.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 4062 of this chapter sets forth rules for determination and payment of the liability incurred, under section 4062(b) of ERISA, upon termination of any single-employer plan and, to the extent appropriate, determination of the liability incurred with respect to multiple employer plans under sections 4063 and 4064 of ERISA. Part 4062 also sets forth rules for determining the amount of liability incurred under section 4063 of ERISA pursuant to the occurrence of a cessation of operations as described by section 4062(e) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) Part 4068 of this chapter includes rules regarding the PBGC's lien under section 4068 of ERISA with respect to liability arising under section 4062, 4063, or 4064.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34082, July 1, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 34822, June 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4064" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4064—LIABILITY ON TERMINATION OF SINGLE-EMPLOYER PLANS UNDER MULTIPLE CONTROLLED GROUPS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34082, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4064.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.18.20.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4064.1   Cross-references.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 4062, subpart A, of this chapter sets forth rules for determination and payment of the liability incurred under section 4062(b) of ERISA, upon termination of any single-employer plan and, to the extent appropriate, determination of the liability incurred with respect to multiple employer plans under sections 4063 and 4064 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) Part 4068 of this chapter includes rules regarding the PBGC's lien under section 4068 of ERISA with respect to liability arising under section 4062, 4063, or 4064. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="G" NODE="29:9.1.4.19" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER G—ANNUAL REPORTING REQUIREMENTS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4065" NODE="29:9.1.4.19.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4065—ANNUAL REPORT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1365.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34082, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4065.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.19.21.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4065.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to specify the form and content of the Annual Report required by section 4065 of ERISA. This part applies to all plans covered by title IV of ERISA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4065.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.19.21.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4065.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: ERISA, IRS, PBGC, and plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4065.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.19.21.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4065.3   Filing requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirement to report the occurrence of a reportable event under section 4043 of ERISA in the Annual Report is waived.
</P>
<P>(b) Plan administrators shall file the Annual Report on IRS/DOL/PBGC Form 5500, 5500-C, 5500-K or 5500-R, as appropriate, in accordance with the instructions therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34082, July 1, 1996, as amended at 61 FR 63998, Dec. 2, 1996; 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="H" NODE="29:9.1.4.20" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER H—ENFORCEMENT PROVISIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4067" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4067—RECOVERY OF LIABILITY FOR PLAN TERMINATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302, 1367.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34082, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4067.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.22.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4067.1   Cross-reference.</HEAD>
<P>Section 4062.8 of this chapter contains rules on deferred payment and other arrangements for satisfaction of liability to the PBGC after termination of single-employer plans. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4068" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4068—LIEN FOR LIABILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1362-1364, 1367-1368. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34083, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4068.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.23.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4068.1   Purpose; cross-references.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains rules regarding the PBGC's lien under section 4068 of ERISA with respect to liability arising under section 4062, 4063, or 4064 of ERISA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4068.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.23.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4068.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: ERISA, PBGC, person, plan, and termination date. 
</P>
<P><I>Collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination</I> has the meaning in § 4062.2. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4068.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.23.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4068.3   Notification of and demand for liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of liability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, when the PBGC has determined the amount of the liability under part 4062 and whether or not the liability has already been paid, the PBGC shall notify liable person(s) in writing of the amount of the liability. If the full liability has not yet been paid, the notification will include a request for payment of the full liability and will indicate that, as provided in § 4062.8, the PBGC will prescribe commercially reasonable terms for payment of so much of the liability as it determines exceeds 30 percent of the collective net worth of persons subject to liability in connection with a plan termination. In all cases, the notification will include a statement of the right to appeal the assessment of liability pursuant to part 4003. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Demand for liability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, if person(s) liable to the PBGC fail to pay the full liability and no appeal is filed or an appeal is filed and the decision on appeal finds liability, the PBGC will issue a demand letter for the liability—
</P>
<P>(1) If no appeal is filed, upon the expiration of time to file an appeal under part 4003; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If an appeal is filed, upon issuance of a decision on the appeal finding that there is liability under this part.
</P>
<FP>The demand letter will indicate that, as provided in § 4062.8, the PBGC will prescribe commercially reasonable terms for payment of so much of the liability as it determines exceeds 30 percent of the collective net worth of such persons. 
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the PBGC may, in any case in which it believes that its ability to assert or obtain payment of liability is in jeopardy, issue a demand letter for the liability under this part immediately upon determining the liability, without first issuing a notification of liability pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. When the PBGC issues a demand letter under this paragraph, there is no right to an appeal pursuant to part 4003 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4068.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.23.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4068.4   Lien.</HEAD>
<P>If any person liable to the PBGC under section 4062, 4063, or 4064 of ERISA fails or refuses to pay the full amount of such liability within the time specified in the demand letter issued under § 4068.3, the PBGC shall have a lien in the amount of the liability, including interest, arising as of the plan's termination date, upon all property and rights to property, whether real or personal, belonging to that person, except that such lien may not be in an amount in excess of 30 percent of the collective net worth of all persons described in section 4062(a) of ERISA and part 4062 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4071" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4071—PENALTIES FOR FAILURE TO PROVIDE CERTAIN NOTICES OR OTHER MATERIAL INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>28 U.S.C. 2461 note, as amended by sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 599-601; 29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1371.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 36994, July 10, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4071.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.24.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4071.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part specifies the maximum daily amount of penalties that may be assessed by the PBGC under ERISA section 4071 for certain failures to provide notices or other material information, as such amount has been adjusted to account for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4071.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.24.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4071.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: ERISA and PBGC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4071.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.20.24.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4071.3   Penalty amount.</HEAD>
<P>The maximum daily amount of the penalty under section 4071 of ERISA shall be $2,739.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 36994, July 10, 1997, as amended at 81 FR 29766, May 13, 2016; 82 FR 8814, Jan. 31, 2017; 83 FR 1556, Jan. 12, 2018; 83 FR 67074, Dec. 28, 2018; 85 FR 2305, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2542, Jan. 13, 2021; 87 FR 2341, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 1992, Jan. 12, 2023; 89 FR 2133, Jan. 12, 2024; 90 FR 1374, Jan. 8, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="I" NODE="29:9.1.4.21" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER I—WITHDRAWAL LIABILITY FOR MULTIEMPLOYER PLANS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4203" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4203—EXTENSION OF SPECIAL WITHDRAWAL LIABILITY RULES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34083, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4203.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.25.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4203.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to prescribe procedures whereby a multiemployer plan may, pursuant to sections 4203(f) and 4208(e)(3) of ERISA, request the PBGC to approve a plan amendment which establishes special complete or partial withdrawal liability rules. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to a multiemployer pension plan covered by title IV of ERISA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4203.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.25.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4203.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: complete withdrawal, employer, ERISA, multiemployer plan, PBGC, person, plan, plan sponsor, and plan year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4203.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.25.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4203.3   Plan adoption of special withdrawal rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A plan may, subject to the approval of the PBGC, establish by plan amendment special complete or partial withdrawal liability rules. A complete withdrawal liability rule adopted pursuant to this part shall be similar to the rules for the construction and entertainment industries described in section 4203 (b) and (c) of ERISA. A partial withdrawal liability rule adopted pursuant to this part shall be consistent with the complete withdrawal rule adopted by the plan. A plan amendment adopted under this part may not be put into effect until it is approved by the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary provisions of the plan amendment.</I> A plan amendment adopted pursuant to this part may—
</P>
<P>(1) Cover an entire industry or industries, or be limited to a segment of an industry; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Apply to cessations of the obligation to contribute that occurred prior to the adoption of the amendment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4203.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.25.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4203.4   Requests for PBGC approval of plan amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of request</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A plan shall apply to the PBGC for approval of a plan amendment which establishes special complete or partial withdrawal liability rules. The request for approval shall be filed after the amendment is adopted. PBGC approval shall also be required for any subsequent modification of the plan amendment, other than a repeal of the amendment which results in employers being subject to the general statutory rules on withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may request.</I> The plan sponsor, or a duly authorized representative acting on behalf of the plan sponsor, shall sign and submit the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information.</I> Each request shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the plan for which the plan amendment is being submitted, and the telephone number of the plan sponsor or its authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the executed amendment, including the proposed effective date. 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement certifying that notice of the adoption of the amendment and the request for approval filed under this part has been given to all employers who have an obligation to contribute under the plan and to all employee organizations representing employees covered under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement indicating how the withdrawal rules in the plan amendment would operate in the event of a sale of assets by a contributing employer or the cessation of the obligation to contribute or the cessation of covered operations by all employers. 
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of the plan's most recent actuarial valuation. 
</P>
<P>(6) For each of the previous five plan years, information on the number of plan participants by category (active, retired and separate vested) and a complete financial statement. This requirement may be satisfied by the submission for each of those years of Form 5500, including schedule B, or similar reports required under prior law. 
</P>
<P>(7) A detailed description of the industry to which the plan amendment will apply, including information sufficient to demonstrate the effect of withdrawals on the plan's contribution base, and information establishing industry characteristics which would indicate that withdrawals in the industry do not typically have an adverse effect on the plan's contribution base. Such industry characteristics include the mobility of employees, the intermittent nature of employment, the project-by-project nature of the work, extreme fluctuations in the level of an employer's covered work under the plan, the existence of a consistent pattern of entry and withdrawal by employers, and the local nature of the work performed. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supplemental information.</I> In addition to the information described in paragraph (d) of this section, a plan may submit any other information it believes is pertinent to its request. The PBGC may require the plan sponsor to submit any other information the PBGC determines it needs to review a request under this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34083, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61354, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4203.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.25.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4203.5   PBGC action on requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The PBGC shall approve a plan amendment providing for the application of special complete or partial withdrawal liability rules upon a determination by the PBGC that the plan amendment—
</P>
<P>(1) Will apply only to an industry that has characteristics that would make use of the special withdrawal rules appropriate; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Will not pose a significant risk to the insurance system. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of pendency of request.</I> As soon as practicable after receiving a request for approval of a plan amendment containing all the information required under § 4203.4, the PBGC shall publish a notice of the pendency of the request in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall contain a summary of the request and invite interested persons to submit written comments to the PBGC concerning the request. The notice will normally provide for a comment period of 45 days. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>PBGC decision on request.</I> After the close of the comment period, PBGC shall issue its decision in writing on the request for approval of a plan amendment. Notice of the decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 



 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4204" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4204—VARIANCES FOR SALE OF ASSETS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1384(c). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34084, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4204.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4204.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> Under section 4204 of ERISA, an employer that ceases covered operations under a multiemployer plan, or ceases to have an obligation to contribute for such operations, because of a bona fide, arm's-length sale of assets to an unrelated purchaser does not incur withdrawal liability if certain conditions are met. One condition is that the sale contract provide that the seller will be secondarily liable if the purchaser withdraws from the plan within five years and does not pay its withdrawal liability. Another condition is that the purchaser furnish a bond or place funds in escrow, for a period of five plan years, in a prescribed amount. Section 4204 also authorizes the PBGC to provide for variances or exemptions from these requirements. Subpart B of this part provides variances and exemptions from the requirements for certain sales of assets. Subpart C of this part establishes procedures under which a purchaser or seller may, when the conditions set forth in subpart B are not satisfied or when the parties decline to provide certain financial information to the plan, request the PBGC to grant individual or class variances or exemptions from the requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> In general, this part applies to any sale of assets described in section 4204(a)(1) of ERISA. However, this part does not apply to a sale of assets involving operations for which the seller is obligated to contribute to a plan described in section 404(c) of the Code, or a continuation of such a plan, unless the plan is amended to provide that section 4204 applies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4204.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4204.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Code, employer, ERISA, IRS, multiemployer plan, PBGC, person, plan, plan administrator, plan sponsor, and plan year. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Date of determination</I> means the date on which a seller ceases covered operations or ceases to have an obligation to contribute for such operations as a result of a sale of assets within the meaning of section 4204(a) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Net income after taxes</I> means revenue minus expenses after taxes (excluding extraordinary and non-recurring income or expenses), as presented in an audited financial statement or, in the absence of such statement, in an unaudited financial statement, each prepared in conformance with generally accepted accounting principles. 
</P>
<P><I>Net tangible assets</I> means tangible assets (assets other than licenses, patents copyrights, trade names, trademarks, goodwill, experimental or organizational expenses, unamortized debt discounts and expenses and all other assets which, under generally accepted accounting principles, are deemed intangible) less liabilities (other than pension liabilities). Encumbered assets shall be excluded from net tangible assets only to the extent of the amount of the encumbrance. 
</P>
<P><I>Purchaser</I> means a purchaser described in section 4204(a)(1) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Seller</I> means a seller described in section 4204(a)(1) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Unfunded vested benefits</I> means, as described in section 4213(c) of ERISA, the amount by which the value of nonforfeitable benefits under the plan exceeds the value of the assets of the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34084, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1270, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Variance of the Statutory Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4204.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4204.11   Variance of the bond/escrow and sale-contract requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A purchaser's bond or escrow under section 4204(a)(1)(B) of ERISA and the sale-contract provision under section 4204(a)(1)(C) are not required if the parties to the sale inform the plan in writing of their intention that the sale be covered by section 4204 of ERISA and demonstrate to the satisfaction of the plan that at least one of the criteria contained in § 4204.12 or § 4204.13(a) is satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests after posting of bond or establishment of escrow.</I> A request for a variance may be submitted at any time. If, after a purchaser has posted a bond or placed money in escrow pursuant to section 4204(a)(1)(B) of ERISA, the purchaser demonstrates to the satisfaction of the plan that the criterion in either § 4204.13 (a)(1) or (a)(2) is satisfied, then the bond shall be cancelled or the amount in escrow shall be refunded. For purposes of considering a request after the bond or escrow is in place, the words “the year preceding the date of the variance request” shall be substituted for “the date of determination” for the first mention of that term in both § 4204.13 (a)(1) and (a)(2). In addition, in determining the purchaser's average net income after taxes under § 4204.13(a)(1), for any year included in the average for which the net income figure does not reflect the interest expense incurred with respect to the sale, the purchaser's net income shall be reduced by the amount of interest paid with respect to the sale in the fiscal year following the date of determination. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information required.</I> A request for a variance shall contain financial or other information that is sufficient to establish that one of the criteria in § 4204.12 or § 4204.13(a) is satisfied. A request on the basis of either § 4204.13 (a)(1) or (a)(2) shall also include a copy of the purchaser's audited (if available) or (if not) unaudited financial statements for the specified time period. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limited exemption during pendency of request.</I> Provided that all of the information required to be submitted is submitted before the first day of the first plan year beginning after the sale, a plan may not, pending its decision on the variance, require a purchaser to post a bond or place an amount in escrow pursuant to section 4204(a)(1)(B). In the event a bond or escrow is not in place pursuant to the preceding sentence, and the plan determines that the request does not qualify for a variance, the purchaser shall comply with section 4204(a)(1)(B) within 30 days after the date on which it receives notice of the plan's decision. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Method and date of issuance.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance under this subpart. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that an issuance under this subpart was provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34084, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61355, Oct. 28, 2003; 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4204.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4204.12   <E T="7462">De minimis</E> transactions.</HEAD>
<P>The criterion under this section is that the amount of the bond or escrow does not exceed the lesser of $250,000 or two percent of the average total annual contributions made by all employers to the plan, for the purposes of section 304(b)(3)(A) of ERISA and section 431(b)(3)(A) of the Code, for the three most recent plan years ending before the date of determination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34084, July 1, 1996, as amended at 80 FR 55009, Sept. 11, 2015; 86 FR 1270, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4204.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4204.13   Net income and net tangible assets tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The criteria under this section are that either—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Net income test.</I> The purchaser's average net income after taxes for its three most recent fiscal years ending before the date of determination (as defined in § 4204.12), reduced by any interest expense incurred with respect to the sale which is payable in the fiscal year following the date of determination, equals or exceeds 150 percent of the amount of the bond or escrow required under ERISA section 4204(a)(1)(B); or 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Net tangible assets test.</I> The purchaser's net tangible assets at the end of the fiscal year preceding the date of determination (as defined in § 4204.12), equal or exceed—
</P>
<P>(i) If the purchaser was not obligated to contribute to the plan before the sale, the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to the seller under section 4211 (with respect to the purchased operations), as of the date of determination, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the purchaser was obligated to contribute to the plan before the sale, the sum of the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to the purchaser and to the seller under ERISA section 4211 (with respect to the purchased operations), each as of the date of determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rule when more than one plan is covered by request.</I> For the purposes of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2), if the transaction involves the assumption by the purchaser of the seller's obligation to contribute to more than one multiemployer plan, then the total amount of the bond or escrow or of the unfunded vested benefits, as applicable, for all of the plans with respect to which the purchaser has not posted a bond or escrow shall be used to determine whether the applicable test is met. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-applicability of tests in event of purchaser's insolvency.</I> A purchaser will not qualify for a variance under this subpart pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section if, as of the earlier of the date of the plan's decision on the variance request or the first day of the first plan year beginning after the date of determination, the purchaser is the subject of a petition under title 11, United States Code, or of a proceeding under similar provisions of state insolvency laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Individual and Class Variances or Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4204.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4204.21   Requests to PBGC for variances and exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of request</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If a transaction covered by this part does not satisfy the conditions set forth in subpart B of this part, or if the parties decline to provide to the plan privileged or confidential financial information within the meaning of section 552(b)(4) of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), the purchaser or seller may request from the PBGC an exemption or variance from the requirements of section 4204(a)(1)(B) and (C) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may request.</I> A purchaser or a seller may file a request for a variance or exemption. The request may be submitted by one or more duly authorized representatives acting on behalf of the party or parties. When a contributing employer withdraws from a plan as a result of related sales of assets involving several purchasers, or withdraws from more than one plan as a result of a single sale, the application may request a class variance or exemption for all the transactions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information.</I> Each request shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the plan or plans for which the variance or exemption is being requested, and the telephone number of the plan administrator of each plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) For each plan described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) assigned by the IRS to the plan sponsor and the three-digit Plan Identification Number (PN) assigned by the plan sponsor to the plan, and, if different, also the EIN and PN last filed with the PBGC. If an EIN or PN has not been assigned, that should be indicated. 
</P>
<P>(3) The name, address and telephone number of the seller and of its duly authorized representative, if any. 
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address and telephone number of the purchaser and of its duly authorized representative, if any. 
</P>
<P>(5) A full description of each transaction for which the request is being made, including effective date. 
</P>
<P>(6) A statement explaining why the requested variance or exemption would not significantly increase the risk of financial loss to the plan, including evidence, financial or otherwise, that supports that conclusion. 
</P>
<P>(7) When the request for a variance or exemption is filed by the seller alone, a statement signed by the purchaser indicating its intention that section 4204 of ERISA apply to the sale of assets. 
</P>
<P>(8) A statement indicating the amount of the purchaser's bond or escrow required under section 4204(a)(1)(B) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(9) The estimated amount of withdrawal liability that the seller would otherwise incur as a result of the sale if section 4204 did not apply to the sale. 
</P>
<P>(10) A certification that a complete copy of the request has been sent to each plan described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and each collective bargaining representative of the seller's employees by certified mail, return receipt requested. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional information.</I> In addition to the information described in paragraph (d) of this section, the PBGC may require the purchaser, the seller, or the plan to submit any other information the PBGC determines it needs to review the request. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of information.</I> Any party submitting information pursuant to this section may include a statement of whether any of the information is of a nature that its disclosure may not be required under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552. The statement should specify the information that may not be subject to disclosure and the grounds therefor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34084, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61355, Oct. 28, 2003; 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4204.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.26.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4204.22   PBGC action on requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The PBGC shall approve a request for a variance or exemption if PBGC determines that approval of the request is warranted, in that it—
</P>
<P>(1) Would more effectively or equitably carry out the purposes of title IV of ERISA; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Would not significantly increase the risk of financial loss to the plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of pendency of request.</I> As soon as practicable after receiving a variance or exemption request containing all the information specified in § 4204.21, the PBGC shall publish a notice of the pendency of the request in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall provide that any interested person may, within the period of time specified therein, submit written comments to the PBGC concerning the request. The notice will usually provide for a comment period of 45 days. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>PBGC decision on request.</I> The PBGC shall issue a decision on a variance or exemption request as soon as practicable after the close of the comment period described in paragraph (b) of this section. PBGC's decision shall be in writing, and if the PBGC disapproves the request, the decision shall state the reasons therefor. Notice of the decision shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4206" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4206—ADJUSTMENT OF LIABILITY FOR A WITHDRAWAL SUBSEQUENT TO A PARTIAL WITHDRAWAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3) and 1386(b). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34086, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4206.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to prescribe rules, pursuant to section 4206(b) of ERISA, for adjusting the partial or complete withdrawal liability of an employer that previously partially withdrew from the same multiemployer plan. Section 4206(b)(1) provides that when an employer that has partially withdrawn from a plan subsequently incurs liability for another partial or a complete withdrawal from that plan, the employer's liability for the subsequent withdrawal is to be reduced by the amount of its liability for the prior partial withdrawal (less any waiver or reduction of that prior liability). Section 4206(b)(2) requires the PBGC to prescribe regulations adjusting the amount of this credit to ensure that the liability for the subsequent withdrawal properly reflects the employer's share of liability with respect to the plan. The purpose of the credit is to protect a withdrawing employer from being charged twice for the same unfunded vested benefits of the plan. The reduction in the credit protects the other employers in the plan from becoming responsible for unfunded vested benefits properly allocable to the withdrawing employer. In the interests of simplicity, the rules in this part provide for, generally, a one-step calculation of the adjusted credit under section 4206(b)(2) against the subsequent liability, rather than for separate calculations first of the credit under section 4206(b)(1) and then of the reduction in the credit under paragraph (b)(2) of that section. In cases where the withdrawal liability for the prior partial withdrawal was reduced by an abatement or other reduction of that liability, the adjusted credit is further reduced in accordance with § 4206.8 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to multiemployer plans covered under title IV of ERISA, and to employers that have partially withdrawn from such plans after September 25, 1980 and subsequently completely or partially withdraw from the same plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Code, employer, ERISA, multiemployer plan, PBGC, plan, and plan year. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Complete withdrawal</I> means a complete withdrawal as described in section 4203 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Partial withdrawal</I> means a partial withdrawal as described in section 4205 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Unfunded vested benefits</I> means, as described in section 4213(c) of ERISA, the amount by which the value of nonforfeitable benefits under the plan exceeds the value of the assets of the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34086, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1270, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.3   Credit against liability for a subsequent withdrawal.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever an employer that was assessed withdrawal liability for a partial withdrawal from a plan partially or completely withdraws from that plan in a subsequent plan year, it shall receive a credit against the new withdrawal liability in an amount greater than or equal to zero, determined in accordance with this part. If the credit determined under §§ 4206.4 through 4206.9 is less than zero, the amount of the credit shall equal zero. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.4   Amount of credit in plans using the presumptive method.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In a plan that uses the presumptive allocation method described in section 4211(b) of ERISA, the credit shall equal the sum of the unamortized old liabilities determined under paragraph (b) of this section, multiplied by the fractions described or determined under paragraph (c) of this section. When an employer's prior partial withdrawal liability has been reduced or waived, this credit shall be adjusted in accordance with § 4206.8. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unamortized old liabilities.</I> The amounts determined under this paragraph are the employer's proportional shares, if any, of the unamortized amounts as of the end of the plan year preceding the withdrawal for which the credit is being calculated, of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The plan's unfunded vested benefits as of the end of the last plan year ending before September 26, 1980; 
</P>
<P>(2) The annual changes in the plan's unfunded vested benefits for plan years ending after September 25, 1980, and before the year of the prior partial withdrawal; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The reallocated unfunded vested benefits (if any), as determined under section 4211(b)(4) of ERISA, for plan years ending before the year of the prior partial withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer's allocable share of old liabilities.</I> The sum of the amounts determined under paragraph (b) are multiplied by the two fractions described in this paragraph in order to determine the amount of the old liabilities that was previously assessed against the employer. 
</P>
<P>(1) The first fraction is the fraction determined under section 4206(a)(2) of ERISA for the prior partial withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(2) The second fraction is a fraction, the numerator of which is the amount of the liability assessed against the employer for the prior partial withdrawal, and the denominator of which is the product of—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to the employer as if it had completely withdrawn as of the date of the prior partial withdrawal (determined without regard to any adjustments), multiplied by— 
</P>
<P>(ii) The fraction determined under section 4206(a)(2) of ERISA for the prior partial withdrawal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.5   Amount of credit in plans using the modified presumptive method.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In a plan that uses the modified presumptive method described in section 4211(c)(2) of ERISA, the credit shall equal the sum of the unamortized old liabilities determined under paragraph (b) of this section, multiplied by the fractions described or determined under paragraph (c) of this section. When an employer's prior partial withdrawal liability has been reduced or waived, this credit shall be adjusted in accordance with § 4206.8. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unamortized old liabilities.</I> The amounts described in this paragraph shall be determined as of the end of the plan year preceding the withdrawal for which the credit is being calculated, and are the employer's proportional shares, if any, of—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan's unfunded vested benefits as of the end of the last plan year ending before September 26, 1980, reduced as if those obligations were being fully amortized in level annual installments over 15 years beginning with the first plan year ending on or after such date; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate post-1980 change amount determined under section 4211(c)(2)(C) of ERISA as if the employer had completely withdrawn in the year of the prior partial withdrawal, reduced as if those obligations were being fully amortized in level annual installments over the 5-year period beginning with the plan year in which the prior partial withdrawal occurred. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer's allocable share of old liabilities.</I> The sum of the amounts determined under paragraph (b) are multiplied by the two fractions described in this paragraph in order to determine the amount of old liabilities that was previously assessed against the employer. 
</P>
<P>(1) The first fraction is the fraction determined under section 4206(a)(2) of ERISA for the prior partial withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(2) The second fraction is a fraction, the numerator of which is the amount of the liability assessed against the employer for the prior partial withdrawal, and the denominator of which is the product of—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to the employer as if it had completely withdrawn as of the date of the prior partial withdrawal (determined without regard to any adjustments), multiplied by—
</P>
<P>(ii) The fraction determined under section 4206(a)(2) of ERISA for the prior partial withdrawal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.6   Amount of credit in plans using the rolling-5 method.</HEAD>
<P>In a plan that uses the rolling-5 allocation method described in section 4211(c)(3) of ERISA, the credit shall equal the amount of the liability assessed for the prior partial withdrawal, reduced as if that amount was being fully amortized in level annual installments over the 5-year period beginning with the plan year in which the prior partial withdrawal occurred. When an employer's prior partial withdrawal liability has been reduced or waived, this credit shall be adjusted in accordance with § 4206.8. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.7   Amount of credit in plans using the direct attribution method.</HEAD>
<P>In a plan that uses the direct attribution allocation method described in section 4211(c)(4) of ERISA, the credit shall equal the amount of the liability assessed for the prior partial withdrawal, reduced as if that amount was being fully amortized in level annual installments beginning with the plan year in which the prior partial withdrawal occurred, over the greater of 10 years or the amortization period for the resulting base when the combined charge base and the combined credit base are offset under section 431(b)(5) of the Code. When an employer's prior partial withdrawal liability has been reduced or waived, this credit shall be adjusted in accordance with § 4206.8. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34086, July 1, 1996, as amended at 80 FR 55009, Sept. 11, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.8   Reduction of credit for abatement or other reduction of prior partial withdrawal liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If an employer's withdrawal liability for a prior partial withdrawal has been reduced or waived, the credit determined pursuant to §§ 4206.4 through 4206.7 shall be adjusted in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation.</I> The adjusted credit is calculated by multiplying the credit determined under the preceding sections of this part by a fraction—
</P>
<P>(1) The numerator of which is the excess of the total partial withdrawal liability of the employer for all partial withdrawals in prior years (excluding those partial withdrawals for which the credit is zero) over the present value of each abatement or other reduction of that prior withdrawal liability calculated as of the date on which that prior partial withdrawal liability was determined; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The denominator of which is the total partial withdrawal liability of the employer for all partial withdrawals in prior years (excluding those partial withdrawals for which the credit is zero). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.9   Amount of credit in plans using alternative allocation methods.</HEAD>
<P>A plan that has adopted an alternative method of allocating unfunded vested benefits pursuant to section 4211(c)(5) of ERISA and part 4211 of this chapter shall adopt, by plan amendment, a method of calculating the credit provided by § 4206.3 that is consistent with the rules in §§ 4206.4 through 4206.8 for plans using the statutory allocation method most similar to the plan's alternative allocation method. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4206.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.27.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4206.10   Special rule for 70-percent decline partial withdrawals.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of applying the rules in §§ 4206.4 through 4206.9 in any case in which either the prior or subsequent partial withdrawal resulted from a 70-percent contribution decline (or a 35-percent decline in the case of certain retail food industry plans), the first year of the 3-year testing period shall be deemed to be the plan year in which the partial withdrawal occurred. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4207" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4207—REDUCTION OR WAIVER OF COMPLETE WITHDRAWAL LIABILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1387. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34088, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4207.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to prescribe rules, pursuant to section 4207(a) of ERISA, for reducing or waiving the withdrawal liability of certain employers that have completely withdrawn from a multiemployer plan and subsequently resume covered operations under the plan. This part prescribes rules pursuant to which the plan must waive the employer's obligation to make future liability payments with respect to its complete withdrawal and must calculate the amount of the employer's liability for a partial or complete withdrawal from the plan after its reentry into the plan. This part also provides procedures, pursuant to section 4207(b) of ERISA, for plan sponsors of multiemployer plans to apply to PBGC for approval of plan amendments that provide for the reduction or waiver of complete withdrawal liability under conditions other than those specified in section 4207(a) of ERISA and this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to multiemployer plans covered under title IV of ERISA, and to employers that have completely withdrawn from such plans after September 25, 1980, and that have not, as of the date of their reentry into the plan, fully satisfied their obligation to pay withdrawal liability arising from the complete withdrawal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: employer, ERISA, IRS, Multiemployer Act, multiemployer plan, nonforfeitable benefit, PBGC, plan, and plan year. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Complete withdrawal</I> means a complete withdrawal as described in section 4203 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Eligible employer</I> means the employer, as defined in section 4001(b) of ERISA, as it existed on the date of its initial partial or complete withdrawal, as applicable. An eligible employer shall continue to be an eligible employer notwithstanding the occurrence of any of the following events: 
</P>
<P>(1) A restoration involving a mere change in identity, form or place of organization, however effected; 
</P>
<P>(2) A reorganization involving a liquidation into a parent corporation; 
</P>
<P>(3) A merger, consolidation or division solely between (or among) trades or businesses (whether or not incorporated) of the employer; or 
</P>
<P>(4) An acquisition by or of, or a merger or combination with another trade or business. 
</P>
<P><I>Partial withdrawal</I> means a partial withdrawal as described in section 4205 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Period of withdrawal</I> means the plan year in which the employer completely withdrew from the plan, the plan year in which the employer reentered the plan and all intervening plan years. 
</P>
<P><I>Unfunded vested benefits</I> means, as described in section 4213(c) of ERISA, the amount by which the value of nonforfeitable benefits under the plan exceeds the value of the assets of the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34088, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1270, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.3   Abatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Whenever an eligible employer that has completely withdrawn from a multiemployer plan reenters the plan, it may apply to the plan for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability. Applications shall be filed by the date of the first scheduled withdrawal liability payment falling due after the employer resumes covered operations or, if later, the fifteenth calendar day after the employer resumes covered operations. Applications shall identify the eligible employer, the withdrawn employer, if different, the date of withdrawal, and the date of resumption of covered operations. Upon receiving an application for abatement, the plan sponsor shall determine, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, whether the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability under § 4207.5, § 4207.9, or a plan amendment which has been approved by PBGC pursuant to § 4207.10. If the plan sponsor determines that the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability, the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section shall apply. If the plan sponsor determines that the employer does not satisfy the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability, the provisions of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of abatement.</I> As soon as practicable after an eligible employer that completely withdrew from a multiemployer plan applies for abatement, the plan sponsor shall determine whether the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability under this part and shall notify the employer in writing of its determination and of the consequences of its determination, as described in paragraphs (c) or (d) and (e) of this section, as appropriate. If a bond or escrow has been provided to the plan under § 4207.4, the plan sponsor shall send a copy of the notice to the bonding or escrow agent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effects of abatement.</I> If the plan sponsor determines that the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability under this part, then— 
</P>
<P>(1) The employer shall have no obligation to make future withdrawal liability payments to the plan with respect to its complete withdrawal; 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer's liability for a subsequent withdrawal shall be determined in accordance with § 4207.7 or § 4207.8, as applicable; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any bonds furnished under § 4207.4 shall be cancelled and any amounts held in escrow under § 4207.4 shall be refunded to the employer; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any withdrawal liability payments due after the reentry and made by the employer to the plan shall be refunded by the plan without interest. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of non-abatement.</I> If the plan sponsor determines that the employer does not satisfy the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability under this part, then— 
</P>
<P>(1) The bond or escrow furnished under § 4207.4 shall be paid to the plan within 30 days after the date of the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall pay to the plan within 30 days after the date of the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section, the amount of its withdrawal liability payment or payments, with respect to which the bond or escrow was furnished, in excess of the bond or escrow; 
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall resume making its withdrawal liability payments as they are due to the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The employer shall be treated as a new employer for purposes of any future application of the withdrawal liability rules in sections 4201-4225 of title IV of ERISA with respect to its participation in the plan after its reentry into the plan, except that in plans using the “direct attribution” method (section 4211(c)(4) of ERISA), the nonforfeitable benefits attributable to service with the employer shall include nonforfeitable benefits attributable to service prior to reentry that were not nonforfeitable at that time. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Collection of payments due and review of non-abatement determination.</I> The rules in part 4219, subpart C, of this chapter (relating to overdue, defaulted, and overpaid withdrawal liability) shall apply with respect to all payments required to be made under paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) of this section. For this purpose, a payment required to be made under paragraph (d)(2) shall be treated as a withdrawal liability payment due on the 30th day after the date of the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Review of non-abatement determination.</I> A plan sponsor's determination that the employer does not satisfy the requirements for abatement under this part shall be subject to plan review under section 4219(b)(2) of ERISA and to arbitration under section 4221 of ERISA, within the times prescribed by those sections. For this purpose, the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section shall be treated as a demand under section 4219(b)(1) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of abatement.</I> If the plan sponsor or an arbitrator determines that the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability under this part, the plan sponsor shall immediately refund the following payments (plus interest, except as indicated below, determined in accordance with § 4219.31(d) of this chapter as if the payments were overpayments of withdrawal liability) to the employer in a lump sum: 
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the employer's withdrawal liability payment or payments, without interest, due after its reentry and made by the employer. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bond or escrow paid to the plan under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of the employer's withdrawal liability payment or payments in excess of the bond or escrow, paid to the plan under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any withdrawal liability payment made by the employer to the plan pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section after the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.4   Withdrawal liability payments during pendency of abatement determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An eligible employer that completely withdraws from a multiemployer plan and subsequently reenters the plan may, in lieu of making withdrawal liability payments due after its reentry, provide a bond to, or establish an escrow account for, the plan that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section or any plan rules adopted under paragraph (d) of this section, pending a determination by the plan sponsor under § 4207.3(b) of whether the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability. An employer that applies for abatement and neither provides a bond/escrow nor pays its withdrawal liability payments remains eligible for abatement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bond/escrow.</I> The bond or escrow allowed by this section shall be in an amount equal to 70 percent of the withdrawal liability payments that would otherwise be due. The bond or escrow relating to each payment shall be furnished before the due date of that payment. A single bond or escrow may be provided for more than one payment due during the pendency of the plan sponsor's determination. The bond or escrow agreement shall provide that if the plan sponsor determines that the employer does not satisfy the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability under this part, the bond or escrow shall be paid to the plan upon notice from the plan sponsor to the bonding or escrow agent. A bond provided under this paragraph shall be issued by a corporate surety company that is an acceptable surety for purposes of section 412 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of bond/escrow.</I> Concurrently with posting a bond or establishing an escrow account under paragraph (b) of this section, the employer shall notify the plan sponsor. The notice shall include a statement of the amount of the bond or escrow, the scheduled payment or payments with respect to which the bond or escrow is being furnished, and the name and address of the bonding or escrow agent. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plan amendments concerning bond/escrow.</I> A plan may, by amendment, adopt rules decreasing the amount specified in paragraph (b) of a bond or escrow allowed under this section. A plan amendment adopted under this paragraph may be applied only to the extent that it is consistent with the purposes of ERISA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.5   Requirements for abatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in § 4207.9 (d) and (e) (pertaining to acquisitions, mergers and other combinations), an eligible employer that completely withdraws from a multiemployer plan and subsequently reenters the plan shall have its liability for that withdrawal abated in accordance with § 4207.3(c) if the employer resumes covered operations under the plan, and the number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer has an obligation to contribute under the plan for the measurement period (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) after it resumes covered operations exceeds 30 percent of the number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute under the plan for the base year (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Measurement period.</I> If the employer resumes covered operations under the plan at least six full months prior to the end of a plan year and would satisfy the test in paragraph (a) based on its contribution base units for that plan year, then the measurement period shall be the period from the date it resumes covered operations until the end of that plan year. If the employer would not satisfy this test, or if the employer resumes covered operations under the plan less than six full months prior to the end of the plan year, the measurement period shall be the first twelve months after it resumes covered operations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Base year.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the employer's number of contribution base units for the base year is the average number of contribution base units for the two plan years in which its contribution base units were the highest, within the five plan years immediately preceding the year of its complete withdrawal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.6   Partial withdrawals after reentry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> For purposes of determining whether there is a partial withdrawal of an eligible employer whose liability is abated under this part upon the employer's reentry into the plan or at any time thereafter, the plan sponsor shall apply the rules in section 4205 of ERISA, as modified by the rules in this section, and section 108 of the Multiemployer Act. A partial withdrawal of an employer whose liability is abated under this part may occur under these rules upon the employer's reentry into the plan. However, a plan sponsor may not demand payment of withdrawal liability for a partial withdrawal occurring upon the employer's reentry before the plan sponsor has determined that the employer's liability for its complete withdrawal is abated under this part and has so notified the employer in accordance with § 4207.3(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Partial withdrawal—70-percent contribution decline.</I> The plan sponsor shall determine whether there is a partial withdrawal described in section 4205(a)(1) of ERISA (relating to a 70-percent contribution decline) in accordance with the rules in section 4205 of ERISA and section 108 of the Multiemployer Act, as modified by the rules in this paragraph, and shall determine the amount of an employer's liability for that partial withdrawal in accordance with the rules in § 4207.8(b). 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definition of “3-year testing period.</I>” For purposes of section 4205(b)(1) of ERISA, the term “3-year testing period” means the period consisting of the plan year for which the determination is made and the two immediately preceding plan years, excluding any plan year during the period of withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contribution base units for high base year.</I> For purposes of section 4205(b)(1) of ERISA and except as provided in section 108(d)(3) of the Multiemployer Act, in determining the number of contribution base units for the high base year, if the five plan years immediately preceding the beginning of the 3-year testing period include a plan year during the period of withdrawal, the number of contribution base units for each such year of withdrawal shall be deemed to be the greater of— 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer's contribution base units for that plan year; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The average of the employer's contribution base units for the three plan years preceding the plan year in which the employer completely withdrew from the plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partial withdrawal—partial cessation of contribution obligation.</I> The plan sponsor shall determine whether there is a partial withdrawal described in section 4205(a)(2) of ERISA (relating to a partial cessation of the employer's contribution obligation) in accordance with the rules in section 4205 of ERISA, as modified by the rules in this paragraph, and section 108 of the Multiemployer Act. In making this determination, the sponsor shall exclude all plan years during the period of withdrawal. A partial withdrawal under this paragraph can occur no earlier than the plan year of reentry. If the sponsor determines that there was a partial withdrawal, it shall determine the amount of an employer's liability for that partial withdrawal in accordance with the rules in § 4207.8(c). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.7   Liability for subsequent complete withdrawals and related adjustments for allocating unfunded vested benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> When an eligible employer that has had its liability for a complete withdrawal abated under this part completely withdraws from the plan, the employer's liability for that subsequent withdrawal shall be determined in accordance with the rules in sections 4201-4225 of title IV, as modified by the rules in this section, and section 108 of the Multiemployer Act. In the case of a combination described in § 4207.9(d), the modifications described in this section shall be applied only with respect to that portion of the eligible employer that had previously withdrawn from the plan. In the case of a combination described in § 4207.9(e), the modifications shall be applied separately with respect to each previously withdrawn employer that comprises the eligible employer. In addition, when a plan has abated the liability of a reentered employer, if the plan uses either the “presumptive” or the “direct attribution” method (section 4211(b) or (c)(4), respectively) for allocating unfunded vested benefits, the plan shall modify those allocation methods as described in this section in allocating unfunded vested benefits to any employer that withdraws from the plan after the reentry. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocation of unfunded vested benefits for subsequent withdrawal in plans using “presumptive” method.</I> In a plan using the “presumptive” allocation method under section 4211(b) of ERISA, the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to a reentered employer for a subsequent withdrawal shall equal the sum of—
</P>
<P>(1) The unamortized amount of the employer's allocable shares of the amounts described in section 4211(b)(1), for the plan years preceding the initial withdrawal, determined as if the employer had not previously withdrawn; 
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the unamortized annual credits attributable to the year of the initial withdrawal and each succeeding year ending prior to reentry; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The unamortized amount of the employer's allocable shares of the amounts described in section 4211(b)(1)(A) and (C) for plan years ending after its reentry. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2), the annual credit for a plan year is the amount by which the employer's withdrawal liability payments for the year exceed the greater of the employer's imputed contributions or actual contributions for the year. The employer's imputed contributions for a year shall equal the average annual required contributions of the employer for the three plan years preceding the initial withdrawal. The amount of the credit for a plan year is reduced by 5 percent of the original amount for each succeeding plan year ending prior to the year of the subsequent withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Allocation of unfunded vested benefits for subsequent withdrawal in plans using “modified presumptive” or “rolling-5” method.</I> In a plan using either the “modified presumptive” allocation method under section 4211(c)(2) of ERISA or the “rolling-5” method under section 4211(c)(3), the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to a reentered employer for a subsequent withdrawal shall equal the sum of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount determined under section 4211 (c)(2) or (c)(3) of ERISA, as appropriate, as if the date of reentry were the employer's initial date of participation in the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The outstanding balance, as of the date of reentry, of the unfunded vested benefits allocated to the employer for its previous withdrawal (as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section) reduced as if that amount were being fully amortized in level annual installments, at the plan's funding rate as of the date of reentry, over the period described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii), beginning with the first plan year after reentry. 
</P>
<P>(i) The outstanding balance of the unfunded vested benefits allocated to an employer for its previous withdrawal is the excess of the amount determined under section 4211 (c)(2) or (c)(3) of ERISA as of the end of the plan year in which the employer initially withdrew, accumulated with interest at the plan's funding rate for that year, from that year to the date of reentry, over the withdrawal liability payments made by the employer, accumulated with interest from the date of payment to the date of reentry at the plan's funding rate for the year of entry. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The period referred to in paragraph (c)(2) for plans using the modified presumptive method is the greater of five years, or the number of full plan years remaining on the amortization schedule under section 4211(c)(2)(B)(i) of ERISA. For plans using the rolling-5 method, the period is five years. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustments applicable to all employers in plans using “presumptive” method.</I> In a plan using the “presumptive” allocation method under section 4211(b) of ERISA, when the plan has abated the withdrawal liability of a reentered employer pursuant to this part, the following adjustments to the allocation method shall be made in computing the unfunded vested benefits allocable to any employer that withdraws from the plan in a plan year beginning after the reentry: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the unamortized amounts of the annual credits of a reentered employer shall be treated as a reallocated amount under section 4211(b)(4) of ERISA in the plan year in which the employer reenters. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that the 5-year period used to compute the denominator of the fraction described in section 4211 (b)(2)(E) and (b)(4)(D) of ERISA includes a year during the period of withdrawal of a reentered employer, the contributions for a year during the period of withdrawal shall be adjusted to include any actual or imputed contributions of the employer, as determined under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustments applicable to all employers in plans using “direct attribution” method.</I> In a plan using the “direct attribution” method under section 4211(c)(4) of ERISA, when the plan has abated the withdrawal liability of a reentered employer pursuant to this part, the following adjustments to the allocation method shall be made in computing the unfunded vested benefits allocable to any employer that withdraws from the plan in a plan year beginning after the reentry: 
</P>
<P>(1) The nonforfeitable benefits attributable to service with a reentered employer prior to its initial withdrawal shall be treated as benefits that are attributable to service with that employer. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 4211(c)(4)(D)(ii) and (iii) of ERISA, withdrawal liability payments made by a reentered employer shall be treated as contributions made by the reentered employer. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plans using alternative allocation methods under section 4211(c)(5).</I> A plan that has adopted an alternative method of allocating unfunded vested benefits pursuant to section 4211(c)(5) of ERISA and part 4211 of this chapter shall adopt by plan amendment a method of determining a reentered employer's allocable share of the plan's unfunded vested benefits upon its subsequent withdrawal. The method shall treat the reentered employer and other withdrawing employers in a manner consistent with the treatment under the paragraph(s) of this section applicable to plans using the statutory allocation method most similar to the plan's alternative allocation method. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Adjustments to amount of annual withdrawal liability payments for subsequent withdrawal.</I> For purposes of section 4219(c)(1)(C)(i)(I) and (ii)(I) of ERISA, in determining the amount of the annual withdrawal liability payments for a subsequent complete withdrawal, if the period of ten consecutive plan years ending before the plan year in which the withdrawal occurs includes a plan year during the period of withdrawal, the employer's number of contribution base units, used in section 4219(c)(1)(C)(i)(I), or the required employer contributions, used in section 4219(c)(1)(C)(ii)(I), for each such plan year during the period of withdrawal shall be deemed to be the greater of—
</P>
<P>(1) The employer's contribution base units or the required employer contributions, as applicable, for that year; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The average of the employer's contribution base units or of the required employer contributions, as applicable, for those plan years not during the period of withdrawal, within the ten consecutive plan years ending before the plan year in which the employer's subsequent complete withdrawal occurred. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.8   Liability for subsequent partial withdrawals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> When an eligible employer that has had its liability for a complete withdrawal abated under this part partially withdraws from the plan, the employer's liability for that subsequent partial withdrawal shall be determined in accordance with the rules in sections 4201-4225 of ERISA, as modified by the rules in § 4207.7 (b) through (g) of this part and the rules in this section, and section 108 of the Multiemployer Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liability for a 70-percent contribution decline.</I> The amount of an employer's liability under section 4206(a) (relating to the calculation of liability for a partial withdrawal), section 4208 (relating to the reduction of liability for a partial withdrawal) and section 4219(c)(1) (relating to the schedule of partial withdrawal liability payments) of ERISA, for a subsequent partial withdrawal described in section 4205(a)(1) of ERISA (relating to a 70-percent contribution decline) shall be modified in accordance with the rules in this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definition of “3-year testing period.</I>” For purposes of sections 4206(a) and 4219(c)(1) of ERISA, and paragraphs (b)(2)-(b)(4) of this section, the term “3-year testing period” means the period consisting of the plan year for which the determination is made and the two immediately preceding plan years, excluding any plan year during the period of withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination date of section 4211 allocable share.</I> For purposes of section 4206(a)(1)(B) of ERISA, the amount determined under section 4211 shall be determined as if the employer had withdrawn from the plan in a complete withdrawal on the last day of the first plan year in the 3-year testing period or the last day of the plan year in which the employer reentered the plan, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of fractional share of section 4211 amount.</I> For purposes of sections 4206(a)(2)(B)(ii) and 4219(c)(1)(E)(ii) of ERISA, if the five plan years immediately preceding the beginning of the 3-year testing period include a plan year during the period of withdrawal, then, in determining the denominator of the fraction described in section 4206(a)(2), the employer's contribution base units for each such year of withdrawal shall be deemed to be the greater of— 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer's contribution base units for that plan year; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The average of the employer's contribution base units for the three plan years preceding the plan year in which the employer completely withdrew from the plan. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contribution base units for high base year.</I> If the five plan years immediately preceding the beginning of the 3-year testing period include a plan year during the period of withdrawal, then for purposes of section 4208 (a) and (b)(1) of ERISA, the number of contribution base units for the high base year shall be the number of contribution base units determined under paragraph (b)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liability for partial cessation of contribution obligation.</I> The amount of an employer's liability under section 4206(a) (relating to the calculation of liability for a partial withdrawal) and section 4219(c)(1) (relating to the amount of the annual partial withdrawal liability payments) of ERISA, for a subsequent partial withdrawal described in section 4205(a)(2) of ERISA (relating to a partial cessation of the contribution obligation) shall be modified in accordance with the rules in this paragraph. For purposes of sections 4206(a)(2)(B)(i) and 4219(c)(1)(E)(ii) of ERISA, if the five plan years immediately preceding the plan year in which the partial withdrawal occurs include a plan year during the period of withdrawal, the denominator of the fraction described in section 4206(a)(2) shall be determined in accordance with the rule set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.9   Special rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employer that has withdrawn and reentered the plan before the effective date of this part.</I> This part shall apply, in accordance with the rules in this paragraph, with respect to an eligible employer that completely withdraws from a multiemployer plan after September 25, 1980, and is performing covered work under the plan on the effective date of this part. Upon the application of an employer described in the preceding sentence, the plan sponsor of a multiemployer plan shall determine whether the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its complete withdrawal liability under this part. Pending the plan sponsor's determination, the employer may provide the plan with a bond or escrow that satisfies the requirements of § 4207.4, in lieu of making its withdrawal liability payments due after its application for an abatement determination. The plan sponsor shall notify the employer in writing of its determination and the consequences of its determination as described in § 4207.3 (c) or (d) and (e), as applicable. If the plan sponsor determines that the employer qualifies for abatement, only withdrawal liability payments made prior to the employer's reentry shall be retained by the plan; payments made by the employer after its reentry shall be refunded to the employer, with interest on those made prior to the application for abatement, in accordance with § 4207.3(e)(2). If a bond or escrow has been provided to the plan in accordance with § 4207.4, the plan sponsor shall send a copy of the notice to the bonding or escrow agent. Sections 4207.6 through 4207.8 shall apply with respect to the employer's subsequent complete withdrawal occurring on or after the effective date of this part, or partial withdrawal occurring either before or after that date. This paragraph shall not negate reasonable actions taken by plans prior to the effective date of this part under plan rules implementing section 4207(a) of ERISA that were validly adopted pursuant to section 405 of the Multiemployer Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employer with multiple complete withdrawals that has reentered the plan before effective date of this part.</I> If an employer described in paragraph (a) of this section has completely withdrawn from a multiemployer plan on two or more occasions before the effective date of this part, the rules in paragraph (a) of this section shall be applied as modified by this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(1) The plan sponsor shall determine whether the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement under § 4207.5 based on the most recent complete withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement, the employer's liability with respect to all previous complete withdrawals shall be abated. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the liability is abated, §§ 4207.6 and 4207.7 shall be applied as if the employer's earliest complete withdrawal were its initial complete withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer with multiple complete withdrawals that has not reentered the plan as of the effective date of this part.</I> If an eligible employer has completely withdrawn from a multiemployer plan on two or more occasions between September 26, 1980, and the effective date of this part and is not performing covered work under the plan on the effective date of this regulation, the rules in this part shall apply, subject to the modifications specified in paragraphs (b)(1)-(b)(3) of this section, upon the employer's reentry into the plan. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Combination of withdrawn employer with contributing employer.</I> If a withdrawn employer merges or otherwise combines with an employer that has an obligation to contribute to the plan from which the first employer withdrew, the combined entity is the eligible employer, and the rules of § 4207.5 shall be applied—
</P>
<P>(1) By subtracting from the measurement period contribution base units the contribution base units for which the non-withdrawn portion of the employer was obligated to contribute in the last plan year ending prior to the combination; 
</P>
<P>(2) By determining the base year contribution base units solely by reference to the contribution base units of the withdrawn portion of the employer; and 
</P>
<P>(3) By using the date of the combination, rather than the date of resumption of covered operations, to begin the measurement period. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Combination of two or more withdrawn employers.</I> If two or more withdrawn employers merge or otherwise combine, the combined entity is the eligible employer, and the rules of § 4207.5 shall be applied by combining the number of contribution base units with respect to which each portion of the employer had an obligation to contribute under the plan for its base year. However, the combined number of contribution base units shall not include contribution base units of a withdrawn portion of the employer that had fully paid its withdrawal liability as of the date of the resumption of covered operations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.10   Plan rules for abatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Subject to the approval of the PBGC, a plan may, by amendment, adopt rules for the reduction or waiver of complete withdrawal liability under conditions other than those specified in §§ 4207.5 and 4207.9 (c) and (d), provided that such conditions relate to events occurring or factors existing subsequent to a complete withdrawal year. The request for PBGC approval shall be filed after the amendment is adopted. A plan amendment under this section may not be put into effect until it is approved by the PBGC. However, an amendment that is approved by the PBGC may apply retroactively to the date of the adoption of the amendment. PBGC approval shall also be required for any subsequent modification of the amendment, other than repeal of the amendment. Sections 4207.6, 4207.7, and 4207.8 shall apply to all subsequent partial withdrawals after a reduction or waiver of complete withdrawal liability under a plan amendment approved by the PBGC pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may request.</I> The plan sponsor, or a duly authorized representative acting on behalf of the plan sponsor, shall sign and submit the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information.</I> Each request shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the plan for which the plan amendment is being submitted and the telephone number of the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(2) The nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the three-digit Plan Identification Number (PN) assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor, and, if different, the EIN and PN last filed with the PBGC. If no EIN or PN has been assigned, that should be indicated. 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the executed amendment, including—
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the amendment was adopted; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed effective date; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The full text of the rules on the reduction or waiver of complete withdrawal liability. 
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the most recent actuarial valuation report of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement certifying that notice of the adoption of the amendment and of the request for approval filed under this section has been given to all employers that have an obligation to contribute under the plan and to all employee organizations representing employees covered under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supplemental information.</I> In addition to the information described in paragraph (d) of this section, a plan may submit any other information that it believes it pertinent to its request. The PBGC may require the plan sponsor to submit any other information that the PBGC determines it needs to review a request under this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Criteria for PBGC approval.</I> The PBGC shall approve a plan amendment authorized by paragraph (a) of this section if it determines that the rules therein are consistent with the purposes of ERISA. An abatement rule is not consistent with the purposes of ERISA if—
</P>
<P>(1) Implementation of the rule would be adverse to the interest of plan participants and beneficiaries; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The rule would increase the PBGC's risk of loss with respect to the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34088, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61355, Oct. 28, 2003; 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4207.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.28.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4207.11   Method of filing; method and date of issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of issuance.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date of issuance.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that an issuance under this part was provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61355, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4208" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4208—REDUCTION OR WAIVER OF PARTIAL WITHDRAWAL LIABILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1388(c) and (e).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34093, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4208.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to establish rules for reducing or waiving the liability of certain employers that have partially withdrawn from a multiemployer pension plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to multiemployer pension plans covered under title IV of ERISA and to employers that have partially withdrawn from such plans after September 25, 1980, and that have not, as of the date on which they satisfy the conditions for reducing or eliminating their partial withdrawal liability, fully satisfied their obligation to pay that partial withdrawal liability. This rule shall not negate reasonable actions taken by plans prior to the effective date of this part under plan rules implementing section 4208 of ERISA that were validly adopted pursuant to section 405 of the Multiemployer Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: employer, ERISA, IRS, Multiemployer Act, multiemployer plan, PBGC, plan, and plan year. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Complete withdrawal</I> means a complete withdrawal as described in section 4203 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Eligible employer</I> means the employer, as defined in section 4001(b) of ERISA, as it existed on the date of its initial partial or complete withdrawal, as applicable. An eligible employer shall continue to be an eligible employer notwithstanding the occurrence of any of the following events: 
</P>
<P>(1) A restoration involving a mere change in identity, form or place of organization, however effected; 
</P>
<P>(2) A reorganization involving a liquidation into a parent corporation; 
</P>
<P>(3) A merger, consolidation or division solely between (or among) trades or businesses (whether or not incorporated) of the employer; or 
</P>
<P>(4) An acquisition by or of, or a merger or combination with another trade or business. 
</P>
<P><I>Partial withdrawal</I> means a partial withdrawal as described in section 4205 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Partial withdrawal year</I> means the third year of the 3-year testing period in the case of a partial withdrawal caused by a 70-percent contribution decline, or the year of the partial cessation in the case of a partial withdrawal caused by a partial cessation of the employer's contribution obligation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.3   Abatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Whenever an eligible employer that has partially withdrawn from a multiemployer plan satisfies the requirements in § 4208.4 for the reduction or waiver of its partial withdrawal liability, it may apply to the plan for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability. Applications shall identify the eligible employer, the withdrawn employer (if different), the date of withdrawal, and the basis for reduction or waiver of its withdrawal liability. Upon receiving a complete application for abatement, the plan sponsor shall determine, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, whether the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability under § 4208.4. If the plan sponsor determines that the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability, the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section shall apply. If the plan sponsor determines that the employer does not satisfy the requirements for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability, the provisions of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of abatement.</I> Within 60 days after an eligible employer that partially withdrew from a multiemployer plan applies for abatement in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the plan sponsor shall determine whether the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability under § 4208.4 and shall notify the employer in writing of its determination and of the consequences of its determination, as described in paragraphs (c) or (d) and (e) of this section, as appropriate. If a bond or escrow has been provided to the plan under § 4208.5 of this part, the plan sponsor shall send a copy of the notice to the bonding or escrow agent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effects of abatement.</I> If the plan sponsor determines that the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability under § 4208.4, then—
</P>
<P>(1) The employer's partial withdrawal liability shall be eliminated or its annual partial withdrawal liability payments shall be reduced in accordance with § 4208.6, as applicable; 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer's liability for a subsequent withdrawal shall be determined in accordance with § 4208.7; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any bonds furnished under § 4208.5 shall be canceled and any amounts held in escrow under § 4208.5 shall be refunded to the employer; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any withdrawal liability payments originally due and paid after the end of the plan year in which the conditions for abatement were satisfied, in excess of the amount due under this part after that date shall be credited to the remaining withdrawal liability payments, if any, owed by the employer, beginning with the first payment due after the revised payment schedule is issued pursuant to this paragraph. If the credited amount is greater than the outstanding amount of the employer's partial withdrawal liability, the amount remaining after satisfaction of the liability shall be refunded to the employer. Interest on the credited amount at the rate prescribed in part 4219, subpart C, of this chapter (relating to overdue, defaulted, and overpaid withdrawal liability) shall be added if the plan sponsor does not issue a revised payment schedule reflecting the credit or make the required refund within 60 days after receipt by the plan sponsor of a complete abatement application. Interest shall accrue from the 61st day. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of non-abatement.</I> If the plan sponsor determines that the employer does not satisfy the requirements for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability under § 4208.4, then the employer shall take or cause to be taken the actions set forth in paragraphs (d)(1)-(d)(3) of this section. The rules in part 4219, subpart C, shall apply with respect to all payments required to be made under paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3). For this purpose, a payment required under paragraph (d)(2) shall be treated as a withdrawal liability payment due on the 30th day after the date of the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) Any bond or escrow furnished under § 4208.5 shall be paid to the plan within 30 days after the date of the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer shall pay to the plan within 30 days after the date of the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section, the amount of its withdrawal liability payment or payments, with respect to which the bond or escrow was furnished, in excess of the bond or escrow. 
</P>
<P>(3) The employer shall resume or continue making its partial withdrawal liability payments as they are due to the plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review of non-abatement determination.</I> A plan sponsor's determinations that the employer does not satisfy the requirements for abatement under § 4208.4 and of the amount of reduction determined under § 4208.6 shall be subject to plan review under section 4219(b)(2) of ERISA and to arbitration under section 4221 of ERISA and part 4221 of this chapter, within the times prescribed by those provisions. For this purpose, the plan sponsor's notice under paragraph (b) of this section shall be treated as a demand under section 4219(b)(1) of ERISA. If the plan sponsor upon review or an arbitrator determines that the employer satisfies the requirements for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability under § 4208.4, the plan sponsor shall immediately refund the amounts described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section if the liability is waived, or credit and refund the amounts described in paragraph (e)(2) if the annual payment is reduced. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Refund for waived liability.</I> If the employer's partial withdrawal liability is waived, the plan sponsor shall refund to the employer the payments made pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1)-(d)(3) of this section (plus interest determined in accordance with § 4219.31(d) of this chapter as if the payments were overpayments of withdrawal liability). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit for reduced annual payment.</I> If the employer's annual partial withdrawal liability payment is reduced, the plan sponsor shall credit the payments made pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1)-(d)(3) of this section (plus interest determined in accordance with § 4219.31(d) of this chapter as if the payments were overpayments of withdrawal liability) to future withdrawal liability payments owed by the employer, beginning with the first payment that is due after the determination, and refund any credit (including interest) remaining after satisfaction of the outstanding amount of the employer's partial withdrawal liability. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.4   Conditions for abatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Waiver of liability for a 70-percent contribution decline.</I> An employer that has incurred a partial withdrawal under section 4205(a)(1) of ERISA shall have no obligation to make payments with respect to that partial withdrawal (other than delinquent payments) for plan years beginning after the second consecutive plan year in which the conditions of either paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) are satisfied for each of the two years: 
</P>
<P>(1) The number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer has an obligation to contribute under the plan for each year is not less than 90 percent of the total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute to the plan for the high base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(2) The conditions of this paragraph are satisfied if—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer has an obligation to contribute for each year exceeds 30 percent of the total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute to the plan for the high base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total number of contribution base units with respect to which all employers under the plan have obligations to contribute in each of the two years is not less than 90 percent of the total number of contribution base units for which all employers had obligations to contribute in the partial withdrawal year. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver of liability for a partial cessation of the employer's contribution obligation.</I> Except as provided in § 4208.8, an employer that has incurred partial withdrawal liability under section 4205(a)(2) of ERISA shall have no obligation to make payments with respect to that partial withdrawal (other than delinquent payments) for plan years beginning after the second consecutive plan year in which the employer satisfies the conditions under either paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Partial restoration of withdrawn work.</I> The employer satisfies the conditions under this paragraph if, for each of two consecutive plan years—
</P>
<P>(i) The employer makes contributions for the same facility or under the same collective bargaining agreement that gave rise to the partial withdrawal; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer's contribution base units for that facility or under that agreement exceed 30 percent of the contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute for that facility or under that agreement for the high base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section); and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer has an obligation to contribute to the plan equals at least 90 percent of the total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute under the plan for the high base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Substantial restoration of withdrawn work.</I> The employer satisfies the conditions under this paragraph if, for each of two consecutive plan years—
</P>
<P>(i) The employer makes contributions for the same facility or under the same collective bargaining agreement that gave rise to the partial withdrawal;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer's contribution base units for that facility or under that agreement are not less than 90 percent of the contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute for that facility or under that agreement for the high base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer has an obligation to contribute to the plan equals or exceeds the sum of—
</P>
<P>(A) The number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute in the year prior to the partial withdrawal year, determined without regard to the contribution base units for the facility or under the agreement that gave rise to the partial withdrawal; and
</P>
<P>(B) 90 percent of the contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute for that facility or under that agreement in either the year prior to the partial withdrawal year or the high base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section), whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reduction in annual partial withdrawal liability payment</I>—(1) <I>Partial withdrawals under section 4205(a)(1).</I> An employer shall be entitled to a reduction of its annual partial withdrawal liability payment for a plan year if the number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute during the plan year exceeds the greater of—
</P>
<P>(i) 110 percent (or such lower number as the plan may, by amendment, adopt) of the number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute in the partial withdrawal year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute to the plan for the plan year following the partial withdrawal year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial withdrawals under section 4205(a)(2).</I> An employer that resumes the obligation to contribute with respect to a facility or collective bargaining agreement that gave rise to a partial withdrawal, but does not qualify to have that liability waived under paragraph (b) of this section, shall have its annual partial withdrawal liability payment reduced for any plan year in which the total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer has an obligation to contribute equals or exceeds the sum of—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of contribution base units for the reentered facility or agreement during that year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute to the plan for the year following the partial withdrawal year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>High base year.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b)(1)(iii) of this section, the high base year contributions are the average of the total contribution base units for the two plan years for which the employer's total contribution base units were highest within the five plan years immediately preceding the beginning of the 3-year testing period defined in section 4205(b)(1)(B)(i) of ERISA, with respect to paragraph (a) of this section, or the partial withdrawal year, with respect to paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. For purposes of paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2) of this section, the high base year contributions are the average number of contribution base units for the facility or under the agreement for the two plan years for which the employer's contribution base units for that facility or under that agreement were highest within the five plan years immediately preceding the partial withdrawal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.5   Withdrawal liability payments during pendency of abatement determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bond/Escrow.</I> An employer that has satisfied the requirements of § 4208.4(a)(1) without regard to “90 percent of” or § 4208.4(b) for one year with respect to all partial withdrawals it incurred in a plan year may, in lieu of making scheduled withdrawal liability payments in the second year for those withdrawals, provide a bond to, or establish an escrow account for, the plan that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section or any plan rules adopted under paragraph (d) of this section, pending a determination by the plan sponsor of whether the employer satisfies the requirements of § 4208.4 (a)(1) or (b) for the second consecutive plan year. An employer that applies for abatement and neither provides a bond/escrow nor makes its withdrawal liability payments remains eligible for abatement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of bond/escrow.</I> The bond or escrow allowed by this section shall be in an amount equal to 50 percent of the withdrawal liability payments that would otherwise be due. The bond or escrow relating to each payment shall be furnished before the due date of that payment. A single bond or escrow may be provided for more than one payment due during the pendency of the plan sponsor's determination. The bond or escrow agreement shall provide that if the plan sponsor determines that the employer does not satisfy the requirements for abatement of its partial withdrawal liability under § 4208.4 (a)(1) or (b), the bond or escrow shall be paid to the plan upon notice from the plan sponsor to the bonding or escrow agent. A bond provided under this paragraph shall be issued by a corporate surety company that is an acceptable surety for purposes of section 412 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of bond/escrow.</I> Concurrently with posting a bond or establishing an escrow account under this section, the employer shall notify the plan sponsor. The notice shall include a statement of the amount of the bond or escrow, the scheduled payment or payments with respect to which the bond or escrow is being furnished, and the name and address of the bonding or escrow agent. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plan amendments concerning bond/escrow.</I> A plan may, by amendment, adopt rules decreasing the amount of the bond or escrow specified in paragraph (b) of this section. A plan amendment adopted under this paragraph may be applied only to the extent that it is consistent with the purposes of ERISA. An amendment satisfies this requirement only if it does not create an unreasonable risk of loss to the plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Plan sponsor determination.</I> Within 60 days after the end of the plan year in which the bond/escrow is furnished, the plan sponsor shall determine whether the employer satisfied the requirements of § 4208.4 (a)(1) or (b) for the second consecutive plan year. The plan sponsor shall notify the employer and the bonding or escrow agent in writing of its determination and of the consequences of its determination, as described in § 4208.3 (c) or (d) and (e), as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.6   Computation of reduced annual partial withdrawal liability payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount of reduced payment.</I> An employer that satisfies the requirements of § 4208.4 (c)(1) or (c)(2) shall have its annual partial withdrawal liability payment for that plan year reduced in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, respectively. 
</P>
<P>(1) The reduced annual payment amount for an employer that satisfies § 4208.4(c)(1) shall be determined by substituting the number of contribution base units in the plan year in which the requirements are satisfied for the number of contribution base units in the year following the partial withdrawal year in the numerator of the fraction described in section 4206(a)(2)(A) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(2) The reduced annual payment for an employer that satisfies § 4208.4(c)(2) shall be determined by adding the contribution base units for which the employer is obligated to contribute with respect to the reentered facility or agreement in the year in which the requirements are satisfied to the numerator of the fraction described in section 4206(a)(2)(A) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit for reduction.</I> The plan sponsor shall credit the account of an employer that satisfies the requirements of § 4208.4(c)(1) or (c)(2) with the amount of annual withdrawal liability that it paid in excess of the amount described in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, as appropriate. The credit shall be applied, a revised payment schedule issued, refund made and interest added, all in accordance with § 4208.3(c)(4). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.7   Adjustment of withdrawal liability for subsequent withdrawals.</HEAD>
<P>The liability of an employer for a partial or complete withdrawal from a plan subsequent to a partial withdrawal from that plan in a prior plan year shall be reduced in accordance with part 4206 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.8   Multiple partial withdrawals in one plan year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> If an employer partially withdraws from the same multiemployer plan on two or more occasions during the same plan year, the rules of § 4208.4 shall be applied as modified by this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Partial withdrawals under section 4205 (a)(1) and (a)(2) in the same plan year.</I> If an employer partially withdraws from the same multiemployer plan as a result of a 70-percent contribution decline and a partial cessation of the employer's contribution obligation in the same plan year, the employer shall not be eligible for abatement under § 4208.4 (b) or (c)(2) or under paragraph (c) of this section. The employer may qualify for abatement under § 4208.4(a) and (c)(1) and under any rules adopted by the plan pursuant to § 4208.9. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple partial cessations of the employer's contribution obligation.</I> If an employer permanently ceases to have an obligation to contribute for more than one facility, under more than one collective bargaining agreement, or for one or more facilities and under one or more collective bargaining agreements, resulting in multiple partial withdrawals under section 4205(b)(2)(A) in the same plan year, the abatement rules in § 4208.4(b) shall be applied as modified by this paragraph. If an employer resumes work at all such facilities and under all such collective bargaining agreements, the determination of whether the employer qualifies for elimination of its liability under § 4208.4(b) shall be made by substituting the test set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for that prescribed by § 4208.4 (b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2)(ii), as applicable. If the employer resumes work at or under fewer than all the facilities or collective bargaining agreements described in this paragraph, the employer cannot qualify for elimination of its liability under § 4208.4(b). However, the employer may qualify for a reduction in its partial withdrawal liability pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Resumption of work at all facilities and under all bargaining agreements.</I> The test under this paragraph is satisfied if for each of the two consecutive plan years referred to in § 4208.4(b), the employer's total contribution base units for the facilities and under the collective bargaining agreements with respect to which the employer incurred the multiple partial withdrawals exceed 30 percent of the total number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute for those facilities and under those agreements for the base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Resumption at fewer than all facilities or under fewer than all bargaining agreements.</I> If the employer satisfies the conditions in § 4208.4 (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(iii) and paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, or the conditions in § 4208.4 (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(iii) and paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, as applicable, the employer's withdrawal liability shall be partially waived as set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to a resumption of work under § 4208.4(b)(1), the condition under this paragraph is satisfied if, for the two consecutive plan years referred to in § 4208.4(b)(1), the employer's contribution base units for any reentered facility or agreement exceed 30 percent of the number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute for that facility or under that agreement for the base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a resumption of work under § 4208.4(b)(2), the condition under this paragraph is satisfied if, for the two consecutive plan years referred to in § 4208.4(b)(2), the employer's contribution base units for any reentered facility or agreement exceed 90 percent of the number of contribution base units with respect to which the employer had an obligation to contribute for that facility or under that agreement for the base year (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(iii) The employer's reduced withdrawal liability and, if any, the reduced annual payments of the liability shall be determined by adding the average number of contribution base units that the employer is required to contribute for those two consecutive years for that facility(ies) or agreement(s) to the numerator of the fraction described in section 4206(a)(2)(A) of ERISA. The amount of any remaining partial withdrawal liability shall be paid over the schedule originally established starting with the first payment due after the revised payment schedule is issued under § 4208.3(c)(4). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Base year.</I> For purposes of this section, the base year contribution base units for a reentered facility(ies) or under a reentered agreement(s) are the average number of contribution base units for the facility(ies) or under the agreement(s) for the two plan years for which the employer's contribution base units for that facility(ies) or under that agreement(s) were highest within the five plan years immediately preceding the partial withdrawal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.9   Plan adoption of additional abatement conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A plan may by amendment, subject to the approval of the PBGC, adopt rules for the reduction or waiver of partial withdrawal liability under conditions other than those specified in § 4208.4, provided that such conditions relate to events occurring or factors existing subsequent to a partial withdrawal year. The request for PBGC approval shall be filed after the amendment is adopted. PBGC approval shall also be required for any subsequent modification of the amendment, other than repeal of the amendment. A plan amendment under this section may not be put into effect until it is approved by the PBGC. An amendment that is approved by the PBGC may apply retroactively. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may request.</I> The plan sponsor, or a duly authorized representative acting on behalf of the plan sponsor, shall sign and submit the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information.</I> Each request shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the plan for which the plan amendment is being submitted and the telephone number of the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(2) The nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the three-digit Plan Identification Number (PIN) assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor, and, if different, also the EIN-PIN last filed with the PBGC. If an EIN-PIN has not been assigned, that should be indicated. 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the executed amendment, including—
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the amendment was adopted; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed effective date; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The full text of the rules on the reduction or waiver of partial withdrawal liability; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The full text of the rules adjusting the reduction in the employer's liability for a subsequent partial or complete withdrawal, as required by section 4206(b)(1) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the most recent actuarial valuation report of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement certifying that notice of the adoption of the amendment and of the request for approval filed under this section has been given to all employers that have an obligation to contribute under the plan and to all employee organizations representing employees covered under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supplemental information.</I> In addition to the information described in paragraph (d) of this section, a plan may submit any other information that it believes is pertinent to its request. The PBGC may require the plan sponsor to submit any other information that the PBGC determines that it needs to review a request under this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Criteria for PBGC approval.</I> The PBGC shall approve a plan amendment authorized by paragraph (a) of this section if it determines that the rules therein are consistent with the purposes of ERISA. An abatement amendment is not consistent with the purposes of ERISA unless the PBGC determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) The amendment is not adverse to the interests of plan participants and beneficiaries in the aggregate; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The amendment would not significantly increase the PBGC's risk of loss with respect to the plan.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control no. 1212-0039) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34093, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61355, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4208.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.29.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4208.10   Method of filing; method and date of issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of issuance.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date of issuance.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that an issuance under this part was provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61355, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4211" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4211—ALLOCATING UNFUNDED VESTED BENEFITS TO WITHDRAWING EMPLOYERS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3); 1391(c)(1), (c)(2)(D), (c)(5)(A), (c)(5)(B), (c)(5)(D), and (f). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 4211 of ERISA provides four methods for allocating unfunded vested benefits to employers that withdraw from a multiemployer plan: the presumptive method (section 4211(b)); the modified presumptive method (section 4211(c)(2)); the rolling-5 method (section 4211(c)(3)); and the direct attribution method (section 4211(c)(4)). With the minor exceptions covered in § 4211.3, a plan determines the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to a withdrawing employer in accordance with the presumptive method, unless the plan is amended to adopt an alternative allocative method. Generally, the PBGC must approve the adoption of an alternative allocation method. On September 25, 1984, 49 FR 37686, the PBGC granted a class approval of all plan amendments adopting one of the statutory alternative allocation methods. Subpart C sets forth the criteria and procedures for PBGC approval of nonstatutory alternative allocation methods. Section 4211(c)(5) of ERISA also permits certain modifications to the statutory allocation methods that PBGC may prescribe in a regulation. Subpart B of this part contains the permissible modifications to the statutory methods that plan sponsors may adopt without PBGC approval. Plans may adopt other modifications subject to PBGC approval under subpart C. Finally, under section 4211(f) of ERISA, the PBGC is required to prescribe rules governing the application of the statutory allocation methods or modified methods by plans following merger of multiemployer plans. Subpart D sets forth alternative allocative methods to be used by merged plans. In addition, such plans may adopt any of the allocation methods or modifications described under subparts B and C in accordance with the rules under subparts B and C. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to all multiemployer plans covered by title IV of ERISA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1271, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Code, employer, IRS, multiemployer plan, nonforfeitable benefit, PBGC, plan, and plan year. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Initial plan year</I> means a merged plan's first complete plan year that begins after the effective date of the merged plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Initial plan year unfunded vested benefits</I> means the unfunded vested benefits as of the close of the initial plan year, less the value as of the end of the initial plan year of all outstanding claims for withdrawal liability that can reasonably be expected to be collected from employers that had withdrawn as of the end of the initial plan year. 
</P>
<P><I>Merged plan</I> means a plan that is the result of the merger of two or more multiemployer plans. 
</P>
<P><I>Merger</I> means the combining of two or more multiemployer plans into one multiemployer plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Prior plan</I> means the plan in which an employer participated immediately before that plan became a part of the merged plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Unfunded vested benefits</I> means, as described in section 4213(c) of ERISA, the amount by which the value of nonforfeitable benefits under the plan exceeds the value of the assets of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Withdrawing employer</I> means the employer for which withdrawal liability is being calculated under section 4201 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Withdrawn employer</I> means an employer that, in a plan year before the withdrawing employer withdraws, has discontinued contributions to the plan or covered operations under the plan and whose obligation to contribute has not been assumed by a successor employer within the meaning of section 4204 of ERISA. A temporary suspension of contributions, including a suspension described in section 4218(2) of ERISA, is not considered a discontinuance of contributions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 79635, Dec. 30, 2008; 86 FR 1271, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.3   Special rules for construction industry and Code section 404(c) plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Construction plans.</I> A plan that primarily covers employees in the building and construction industry must use the presumptive method for allocating unfunded vested benefits, except as provided in §§ 4211.11(b) and 4211.21(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Code section 404(c) plans.</I> A plan described in section 404(c) of the Code or a continuation of such a plan must use the rolling-5 method for allocating unfunded vested benefits unless the plan sponsor, by amendment, adopts an alternative method or modification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1271, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.4   Contributions for purposes of the numerator and denominator of the allocation fractions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, each of the allocation fractions used in the presumptive, modified presumptive and rolling-5 methods is based on contributions that certain employers have made to the plan for a 5-year period.
</P>
<P>(1) The numerator of the allocation fraction, with respect to a withdrawing employer, is based on the “sum of the contributions required to be made” or the “total amount required to be contributed” by the employer for the specified period.
</P>
<P>(2) The denominator of the allocation fraction is based on contributions that certain employers have made to the plan for a specified period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disregarding surcharges and contribution increases.</I> For each of the allocation fractions used in the presumptive, modified presumptive and rolling-5 methods in determining the allocation of unfunded vested benefits to an employer, a plan in endangered or critical status must disregard:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Surcharge.</I> Any surcharge under section 305(e)(7) of ERISA and section 432(e)(7) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contribution increase.</I> Any increase in the contribution rate or other increase in contribution requirements that goes into effect during plan years beginning after December 31, 2014, so that a plan may meet the requirements of a funding improvement plan under section 305(c) of ERISA and section 432(c) of the Code or a rehabilitation plan under section 305(e) of ERISA and 432(e) of the Code, except to the extent that one of the following exceptions applies pursuant to section 305(g)(3) or (4) of ERISA and section 432(g)(3) or (4) of the Code:
</P>
<P>(i) The increases in contribution requirements are due to increased levels of work, employment, or periods for which compensation is provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) The additional contributions are used to provide an increase in benefits, including an increase in future benefit accruals, permitted by section 305(d)(1)(B) or (f)(1)(B) of ERISA and section 432(d)(1)(B) or (f)(1)(B) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(iii) The withdrawal occurs on or after the expiration date of the employer's collective bargaining agreement in effect in the plan year the plan is no longer in endangered or critical status, or, if earlier, the date as of which the employer renegotiates a contribution rate effective after the plan year the plan is no longer in endangered or critical status.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simplified methods.</I> See §§ 4211.14 and 4211.15 for simplified methods of meeting the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1271, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.1.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.6   Disregarding benefit reductions and benefit suspensions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A plan must disregard the following nonforfeitable benefit reductions and benefit suspensions in determining a plan's nonforfeitable benefits for purposes of determining an employer's withdrawal liability under section 4201 of ERISA:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Adjustable benefit.</I> A reduction to adjustable benefits under section 305(e)(8) of ERISA and section 432(e)(8) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lump sum.</I> A benefit reduction arising from a restriction on lump sums or other benefits under section 305(f) of ERISA and section 432(f) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Benefit suspension.</I> A benefit suspension under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA and section 432(e)(9) of the Code, but only for withdrawals not more than 10 years after the end of the plan year in which the benefit suspension takes effect.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Simplified methods.</I> See § 4211.16 for simplified methods for meeting the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1271, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Changes Not Subject to PBGC Approval</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.11   Plan sponsor adoption of modifications and simplified methods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A plan sponsor, other than the sponsor of a plan that primarily covers employees in the building and construction industry, may adopt by amendment, without the approval of PBGC, any of the statutory allocation methods and any of the modifications and simplified methods set forth in §§ 4211.12 through 4211.16.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Building and construction industry plans.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan that primarily covers employees in the building and construction industry may adopt by amendment, without the approval of PBGC, any of the modifications to the presumptive rule and simplified methods set forth in § 4211.12 and §§ 4211.14 through 4211.16.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1271, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.12   Modifications to the presumptive, modified presumptive, and rolling-5 methods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disregarding certain contribution increases.</I> A plan amended to use the modifications in this section must apply the rules to disregard surcharges and contribution increases under § 4211.4. A plan sponsor may amend a plan to incorporate the simplified methods in §§ 4211.14 and 4211.15 to fulfill the requirements of § 4211.4 with the modifications in this section if done consistently from year to year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Changing the period for counting contributions.</I> A plan sponsor may amend a plan to modify the denominators in the presumptive, modified presumptive and rolling-5 methods in accordance with one of the alternatives described in this paragraph (b). Any amendment adopted under this paragraph (b) must be applied consistently to all plan years. Contributions counted for 1 plan year may not be counted for any other plan year. If a contribution is counted as part of the “total amount contributed” for any plan year used to determine a denominator, that contribution may not also be counted as a contribution owed with respect to an earlier year used to determine the same denominator, regardless of when the plan collected that contribution.
</P>
<P>(1) A plan sponsor may amend a plan to provide that “the sum of all contributions made” or “total amount contributed” for a plan year means the amount of contributions that the plan actually received during the plan year, without regard to whether the contributions are treated as made for that plan year under section 304(b)(3)(A) of ERISA and section 431(b)(3)(A) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(2) A plan sponsor may amend a plan to provide that “the sum of all contributions made” or “total amount contributed” for a plan year means the amount of contributions actually received during the plan year, increased by the amount of contributions received during a specified period of time after the close of the plan year not to exceed the period described in section 304(c)(8) of ERISA and section 431(c)(8) of the Code and regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(3) A plan sponsor may amend a plan to provide that “the sum of all contributions made” or “total amount contributed” for a plan year means the amount of contributions actually received during the plan year, increased by the amount of contributions accrued during the plan year and received during a specified period of time after the close of the plan year not to exceed the period described in section 304(c)(8) of ERISA and section 431(c)(8) of the Code and regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Excluding contributions of significant withdrawn employers.</I> Contributions of certain withdrawn employers are excluded from the denominator in each of the fractions used to determine a withdrawing employer's share of unfunded vested benefits under the presumptive, modified presumptive and rolling-5 methods. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, contributions of all employers that permanently cease to have an obligation to contribute to the plan or permanently cease covered operations before the end of the period of plan years used to determine the fractions for allocating unfunded vested benefits under each of those methods (and contributions of all employers that withdrew before September 26, 1980) are excluded from the denominators of the fractions.
</P>
<P>(1) The plan sponsor of a plan using the presumptive, modified presumptive or rolling-5 method may amend the plan to provide that only the contributions of significant withdrawn employers are excluded from the denominators of the fractions used in those methods.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (c), “significant withdrawn employer” means—
</P>
<P>(i) An employer to which the plan has sent a notice of withdrawal liability under section 4219 of ERISA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A withdrawn employer that in any plan year used to determine the denominator of a fraction contributed at least $250,000 or, if less, 1 percent of all contributions made by employers for that year.
</P>
<P>(3) If a group of employers withdraw in a concerted withdrawal, the plan sponsor must treat the group as a single employer in determining whether the members are significant withdrawn employers under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. A “concerted withdrawal” means a cessation of contributions to the plan during a single plan year—
</P>
<P>(i) By an employer association;
</P>
<P>(ii) By all or substantially all of the employers covered by a single collective bargaining agreement; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By all or substantially all of the employers covered by agreements with a single labor organization.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>“Fresh start” rules under presumptive method.</I> (1) The plan sponsor of a plan using the presumptive method (including a plan that primarily covers employees in the building and construction industry) may amend the plan to provide that—
</P>
<P>(i) A designated plan year ending after September 26, 1980, will substitute for the plan year ending before September 26, 1980, in applying section 4211(b)(1)(B), section 4211(b)(2)(B)(ii)(I), section 4211(b)(2)(D), section 4211(b)(3), and section 4211(b)(3)(B) of ERISA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Plan years ending after the end of the designated plan year in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section will substitute for plan years ending after September 25, 1980, in applying section 4211(b)(1)(A), section 4211(b)(2)(A), and section 4211(b)(2)(B)(ii)(II) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(2) A plan amendment made pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section must provide that the plan's unfunded vested benefits for plan years ending after the designated plan year are reduced by the value of all outstanding claims for withdrawal liability that can reasonably be expected to be collected from employers that had withdrawn from the plan as of the end of the designated plan year.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a plan that primarily covers employees in the building and construction industry, the plan year designated by a plan amendment pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be a plan year for which the plan has no unfunded vested benefits determined in accordance with section 4211 of ERISA without regard to § 4211.6.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>“Fresh start” rules under modified presumptive method.</I> (1) The plan sponsor of a plan using the modified presumptive method may amend the plan to provide—
</P>
<P>(i) A designated plan year ending after September 26, 1980, will substitute for the plan year ending before September 26, 1980, in applying section 4211(c)(2)(B)(i) and section 4211(c)(2)(B)(ii)(I) and (II) of ERISA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Plan years ending after the end of the designated plan year will substitute for plan years ending after September 25, 1980, in applying section 4211(c)(2)(B)(ii)(II) and section 4211(c)(2)(C)(i)(II) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(2) A plan amendment made pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section must provide that the plan's unfunded vested benefits for plan years ending after the designated plan year are reduced by the value of all outstanding claims for withdrawal liability that can reasonably be expected to be collected from employers that had withdrawn from the plan as of the end of the designated plan year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1272, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.13   Modifications to the direct attribution method.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Error in direct attribution method.</I> The unfunded vested benefits allocated to a withdrawing employer under the direct attribution method are the sum of the employer's attributable liability, determined under section 4211(c)(4)(A)(i) and (B) of ERISA, and the employer's share of the plan's unattributable liability, determined under section 4211(c)(4)(E) and allocated to the employer under section 4211(c)(4)(F). Plan sponsors should allocate unattributable liabilities on the basis of the employer's share of the attributable liabilities. However, section 4211(c)(4)(F) of ERISA, which describes the allocation of unattributable liabilities, contains a typographical error. Therefore, plans adopting the direct attribution method must modify the phrase “as the amount determined under subparagraph (C) for the employer bears to the sum of the amounts determined under subparagraph (C) for all employers under the plan” in section 4211(c)(4)(F) by substituting “subparagraph (B)” for “subparagraph (C)” in both places it appears. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocating unattributable liability based on contributions in period before withdrawal.</I> A plan that is amended to adopt the direct attribution method may provide that instead of allocating the unattributable liability in accordance with section 4211(c)(4)(F) of ERISA, the employer's share of the plan's unattributable liability is determined by multiplying the plan's unattributable liability determined under section 4211(c)(4)(E) by a fraction— 
</P>
<P>(1) The numerator of which is the total amount of contributions required to be made by the withdrawing employer over a period of consecutive plan years (not fewer than five) ending before the withdrawal; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The denominator of which is the total amount contributed under the plan by all employers for the same period of years used in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, decreased by any amount contributed by an employer that withdrew from the plan during those plan years. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1273, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.14   Simplified methods for disregarding certain contributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A plan sponsor may amend a plan without PBGC approval to adopt any of the simplified methods in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section to fulfill the requirements of section 305(g)(3) of ERISA and section 432(g)(3) of the Code and § 4211.4(b)(2) in determining an allocation fraction. Examples illustrating calculations using the simplified methods in this section are provided in the appendix to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Simplified method for the numerator—after 2014 plan year.</I> A plan sponsor may amend a plan to provide that the withdrawing employer's required contributions for each plan year (a “target year”) after the date that is the later of the last day of the first plan year that ends on or after December 31, 2014 and the last day of the plan year the employer first contributes to the plan (the “employer freeze date”) is the product of—
</P>
<P>(1) The employer's contribution rate in effect on the employer freeze date, plus any contribution increase in § 4211.4(b)(2)(ii) that is effective after the employer freeze date but not later than the last day of the target year; times
</P>
<P>(2) The employer's contribution base units for the target year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simplified method for the denominator—after 2014 plan year.</I> A plan sponsor may amend a plan to provide that the denominator for the allocation fraction for each plan year after the employer freeze date is calculated using the same principles as paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Simplified method for the denominator—proxy group averaging.</I> (1) A plan sponsor may amend a plan to provide that, for purposes of determining the denominator of the unfunded vested benefits allocation fraction, employer contributions for a plan year beginning after the plan freeze date described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section are calculated, in accordance with this paragraph (d), based on an average of representative contribution rates that exclude contribution increases that are required to be disregarded in determining withdrawal liability. The method described in this paragraph (d) is effective only for plan years to which the amendment applies.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (d) —
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plan freeze date</I> means the last day of the first plan year that ends on or after December 31, 2014.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Base year</I> means the first plan year beginning after the plan freeze date.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Contribution history</I> for a plan year means the history of total contribution rates, and contribution rates that are not required to be disregarded in determining withdrawal liability, from the plan freeze date up to the end of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Included employer</I> with respect to a plan for a plan year means an employer that is a contributing employer of the plan on at least 1 day of the plan year and whose contributions for the plan year are to be taken into account under the plan in determining the denominator of the unfunded vested benefits allocation fraction under section 4211 of ERISA. If the contribution histories of different categories of employees of an employer are not substantially the same, the employer may be treated as two or more employers that have more uniform contribution histories.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Rate history group</I> is defined in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Proxy group</I> is defined in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Adjusted</I> as applied to contributions for an employer, a rate history group, or a plan is defined in paragraphs (d)(5), (6), and (7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A rate history group of a plan for a plan year is a group of included employers satisfying all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Each included employer of the plan is in one and only one rate history group.
</P>
<P>(ii) The employers in the rate history group have substantially the same contribution history (or the same percentage increases in contributions from year to year), but there need not be more than ten rate history groups.
</P>
<P>(iii) There is consistency in the composition of rate history groups from year to year.
</P>
<P>(4) The proxy group of a plan for a plan year is a group of included employers satisfying all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) On at least 1 day of the plan year, the employers in the proxy group represent at least 10 percent of active plan participants.
</P>
<P>(ii) There is at least one employer in the proxy group from each rate history group of the plan for the plan year that represents, on at least 1 day of the plan year, at least 5 percent of active plan participants.
</P>
<P>(iii) There is consistency in the composition of the proxy group from year to year.
</P>
<P>(5) The adjusted contributions of an employer under a plan for a plan year are —
</P>
<P>(i) The employer's contribution base units for the plan year; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(ii) The employer's contribution rate per contribution base unit at the end of the plan year, reduced by the sum of the employer's contribution rate increases since the plan freeze date that are required to be disregarded in determining withdrawal liability.
</P>
<P>(6) The adjusted contributions of a rate history group that is represented in the proxy group of a plan for a plan year are the total contributions for the plan year attributable to employers in the rate history group, multiplied by the adjustment factor for the rate history group. The adjustment factor for the rate history group is the quotient, for all employers in the rate history group that are also in the proxy group, of —
</P>
<P>(i) Total adjusted contributions for the plan year; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) Total contributions for the plan year.
</P>
<P>(7) The adjusted contributions of a plan for a plan year are the plan's total contributions for the plan year by all employers, multiplied by the adjustment factor for the plan. For this purpose, “the plan's total contributions for the plan year” means the total unadjusted plan contributions for the plan year that would otherwise be included in the denominator of the allocation fraction in the absence of section 305(g)(1) of ERISA, including any employer contributions owed with respect to earlier periods that were collected in that plan year, and excluding any amounts contributed in that plan year by an employer that withdrew from the plan during that plan year. The adjustment factor for the plan is the quotient, for all rate history groups that are represented in the proxy group, of —
</P>
<P>(i) Total adjusted contributions for the plan year; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) Total contributions for the plan year.
</P>
<P>(8) Under this method, in determining the denominator of a plan's unfunded vested benefits allocation fraction, the contributions taken into account with respect to any plan year (beginning with the base year) are the plan's adjusted contributions for the plan year.
</P>
<P>(9) Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions of this paragraph (d), if total contributions for a year for a rate history group or for a plan are not timely and reasonably available for calculating adjusted contributions for that year, each relevant contribution rate for the year may be multiplied by the projected contribution base units for the year corresponding to that rate and the sum, for all rates, may be used in place of total contributions for that year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective and applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective on February 8, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies to employer withdrawals from multiemployer plans that occur in plan years beginning on or after February 8, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1273, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.15   Simplified methods for determining expiration date of a collective bargaining agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A plan sponsor may amend a plan without PBGC approval to adopt any of the simplified methods in this section to fulfill the requirements of section 305(g)(4) of ERISA and 432(g)(4) of the Code and § 4211.4(b)(2)(iii) for a withdrawal that occurs on or after the plan's reversion date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reversion date.</I> The reversion date is either—
</P>
<P>(1) The expiration date of the first collective bargaining agreement requiring plan contributions that expires after the plan is no longer in endangered or critical status, or
</P>
<P>(2) The date that is the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) The end of the first plan year following the plan year in which the plan is no longer in endangered or critical status; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The end of the plan year that includes the expiration date of the first collective bargaining agreement requiring plan contributions that expires after the plan is no longer in endangered or critical status.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the expiration date of a collective bargaining agreement that by its terms remains in force until terminated by the parties thereto is considered to be the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(i) The termination date agreed to by the parties thereto; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The first day of the third plan year following the plan year in which the plan is no longer in endangered or critical status.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Example.</I> The simplified method in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is illustrated by the following example.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Facts.</I> A plan certifies that it is not in endangered or critical status for the plan year beginning January 1, 2021. The plan operates under several collective bargaining agreements. The plan sponsor adopts a rule providing that all contribution increases will be included in the numerator and denominator of the allocation fractions for withdrawals occurring after October 31, 2022, the expiration date of the first collective bargaining agreement requiring plan contributions that expires after January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation fraction.</I> A contributing employer withdraws from the plan in November 2022, after the date designated by the plan sponsor for the inclusion of all contribution rate increases in the allocation fraction. The allocation fraction used by the plan sponsor to determine the employer's share of the plan's unfunded vested benefits includes all of the employer's required contributions in the numerator and total contributions made by all employers in the denominator, including any amounts related to contribution increases previously disregarded.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective and applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective on February 8, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies to employer withdrawals from multiemployer plans that occur in plan years beginning on or after February 8, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1274, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.16   Simplified methods for disregarding benefit reductions and benefit suspensions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A plan sponsor may amend a plan without PBGC approval to adopt the simplified methods in this section to fulfill the requirements of section 305(g)(1) of ERISA and section 432(g)(1) of the Code and § 4211.6 to disregard benefit reductions and benefit suspensions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic rule.</I> The withdrawal liability of a withdrawing employer is the sum of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, and then adjusted by paragraphs (A)-(D) of section 4201(b)(1) of ERISA. The amount determined under paragraph (b)(1) may not be less than zero.
</P>
<P>(1) The amount that would be the employer's allocable amount of unfunded vested benefits determined in accordance with section 4211 of ERISA under the method in use by the plan without regard to § 4211.6 (but taking into account § 4211.4); and
</P>
<P>(2) The employer's proportional share of the value of each of the benefit reductions and benefit suspensions required to be disregarded under § 4211.6 determined in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Benefit suspension.</I> This paragraph (c) applies to a benefit suspension under § 4211.6(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> The employer's proportional share of the present value of a benefit suspension as of the end of the plan year before the employer's withdrawal is determined by applying paragraph (c)(2) or (3) of this section to the present value of the suspended benefits, as authorized by the Department of the Treasury in accordance with section 305(e)(9) of ERISA, calculated either as of the date of the benefit suspension or as of the end of the plan year coincident with or following the date of the benefit suspension (the “authorized value”).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Static value method.</I> A plan may provide that the present value of the suspended benefits as of the end of the plan year in which the benefit suspension takes effect and for each of the succeeding 9 plan years is the authorized value in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. An employer's proportional share of the present value of a benefit suspension to which this paragraph (c) applies using the static value method is determined by multiplying the present value of the suspended benefits by a fraction—
</P>
<P>(i) The numerator is the sum of all contributions required to be made by the withdrawing employer for the 5 consecutive plan years ending before the plan year in which the benefit suspension takes effect; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The denominator is the total of all employers' contributions for the 5 consecutive plan years ending before the plan year in which the suspension takes effect, increased by any employer contributions owed with respect to earlier periods which were collected in those plan years, and decreased by any amount contributed by an employer that withdrew from the plan during those plan years. If a plan uses an allocation method other than the presumptive method in section 4211(b) of ERISA or similar method, the denominator after the first year is decreased by the contributions of any employers that withdrew from the plan and were unable to satisfy their withdrawal liability claims in any year before the employer's withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining the numerator and the denominator in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the rules under § 4211.4 (and permissible modifications under § 4211.12 and simplified methods under §§ 4211.14 and 4211.15) apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjusted value method.</I> A plan may provide that the present value of the suspended benefits as of the end of the plan year in which the benefit suspension takes effect is the authorized value in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and that the present value as of the end of each of the succeeding nine plan years (the “revaluation date”) is the present value, as of a revaluation date, of the benefits not expected to be paid after the revaluation date due to the benefit suspension. An employer's proportional share of the present value of a benefit suspension to which this paragraph (c) applies using the adjusted value method is determined by multiplying the present value of the suspended benefits by a fraction—
</P>
<P>(i) The numerator is the sum of all contributions required to be made by the withdrawing employer for the 5 consecutive plan years ending before the employer's withdrawal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The denominator is the total of all employers' contributions for the 5 consecutive plan years ending before the employer's withdrawal, increased by any employer contributions owed with respect to earlier periods which were collected in those plan years, and decreased by any amount contributed by an employer that withdrew from the plan during those plan years.
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining the numerator and the denominator in this paragraph (c)(3), the rules under § 4211.4 (and permissible modifications under § 4211.12 and simplified methods under §§ 4211.14 and 4211.15) apply.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a benefit suspension in § 4211.6(a)(3) is a temporary suspension of the plan's payment obligations as authorized by the Department of the Treasury, the present value of the suspended benefits in this paragraph (c)(3) includes only the value of the suspended benefits through the ending period of the benefit suspension.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Benefit reductions.</I> This paragraph (d) applies to benefits reduced under § 4211.6(a)(1) or (2).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Value of a benefit reduction.</I> The value of a benefit reduction is—
</P>
<P>(i) The unamortized balance, as of the end of the plan year before the withdrawal, of;
</P>
<P>(ii) The value of the benefit reduction as of the end of the plan year in which the reduction took effect; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Determined using the same assumptions as for unfunded vested benefits and amortization in level annual installments over a period of 15 years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employer's proportional share of a benefit reduction.</I> An employer's proportional share of the value of a benefit reduction to which this paragraph (d) applies is determined by multiplying the value of the benefit reduction by a fraction—
</P>
<P>(i) The numerator is the sum of all contributions required to be made by the withdrawing employer for the 5 consecutive plan years ending before the employer's withdrawal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The denominator is the total of all employers' contributions for the 5 consecutive plan years ending before the employer's withdrawal, increased by any employer contributions owed with respect to earlier periods which were collected in those plan years, and decreased by any amount contributed by an employer that withdrew from the plan during those plan years.
</P>
<P>(iii) The 5 consecutive plan years ending before the plan year in which the adjustable benefit reduction takes effect may be used in determining the numerator and the denominator in this paragraph (d). If such 5-year period is used, in determining the denominator, if a plan uses an allocation method other than the presumptive method in section 4211(b) of ERISA or similar method, the denominator after the first year is decreased by the contributions of any employers that withdrew from the plan and were unable to satisfy their withdrawal liability claims in any year before the employer's withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(iv) In determining the numerator and the denominator in this paragraph (d), the rules under § 4211.4 (and permissible modifications under § 4211.12 and simplified methods under §§ 4211.14 and 4211.15) apply.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Example.</I> The simplified framework using the static value method under § 4211.16(c)(2) for disregarding a benefit suspension is illustrated by the following example.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Facts.</I> Assume that a calendar year multiemployer plan receives final authorization by the Secretary of the Treasury for a benefit suspension, effective January 1, 2018. The present value, as of that date, of the benefit suspension is $30 million. Employer A, a contributing employer, withdraws during the 2022 plan year. Employer A's proportional share of contributions for the 5 plan years ending in 2017 (the year before the benefit suspension takes effect) is 10 percent. Employer A's proportional share of contributions for the 5 plan years ending before Employer A's withdrawal in 2022 is 11 percent. The plan uses the rolling-5 method for allocating unfunded vested benefits to withdrawn employers under section 4211 of ERISA. The plan sponsor has adopted by amendment the static value simplified method for disregarding benefit suspensions in determining unfunded vested benefits. Accordingly, there is a one-time valuation of the initial value of the suspended benefits with respect to employer withdrawals occurring during the 2019 through 2028 plan years, the first 10 years of the benefit suspension.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unfunded vested benefits allocable to Employer A.</I> To determine the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to Employer A, the plan's actuary first determines the amount of Employer A's withdrawal liability as of the end of 2021 assuming the benefit suspensions remain in effect. Under the rolling-5 method, if the plan's unfunded vested benefits as determined in the plan's 2021 plan year valuation were $170 million (not including the present value of the suspended benefits), the share of these unfunded vested benefits allocable to Employer A is equal to $170 million multiplied by Employer A's allocation fraction of 11 percent, or $18.7 million. The plan's actuary then adds to this amount Employer A's proportional 10 percent share of the $30 million initial value of the suspended benefits, or $3 million. Employer A's share of the plan's unfunded vested benefits for withdrawal liability purposes is $21.7 million ($18.7 million + $3 million).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustment of allocation fraction.</I> If another significant contributing employer—Employer B—had withdrawn in 2019 and was unable to satisfy its withdrawal liability claim, the allocation fraction applicable to the value of the suspended benefits is adjusted. The contributions in the denominator for the last 5 plan years ending in 2017 is reduced by the contributions that were made by Employer B, thereby increasing Employer A's allocable share of the $30 million value of the suspended benefits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective and applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective on February 8, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies to employer withdrawals from multiemployer plans that occur in plan years beginning on or after February 8, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1274, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Changes Subject to PBGC Approval</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.21   Changes subject to PBGC approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Subject to the approval of the PBGC pursuant to this subpart, a plan, other than a plan that primarily covers employees in the building and construction industry, may adopt, by amendment, any allocation method or modification to an allocation method that is not permitted under subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Building and construction industry plans.</I> Subject to the approval of the PBGC pursuant to this subpart, a plan that primarily covers employees in the building and construction industry may adopt, by amendment, any allocation method or modification to an allocation method that is not permitted under section 4211 of ERISA if the method or modification is applicable only to its employers that are not construction industry employers within the meaning of section 4203(b)(1)(A) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substantial overallocation not allowed.</I> No plan may adopt an allocation method or modification to an allocation method that results in a systematic and substantial overallocation of the plan's unfunded vested benefits. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of method prior to approval.</I> A plan may implement an alternative allocation method or modification to an allocation method that requires PBGC approval before that approval is given. However, the plan sponsor shall assess liability in accordance with this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Demand for payment.</I> Until the PBGC approves the allocation method or modification, a plan may not demand withdrawal liability under section 4219 of ERISA in an amount that exceeds the lesser of the amount calculated under the amendment or the amount calculated under the allocation method that the plan would be required to use if the PBGC did not approve the amendment. The plan must inform each withdrawing employer of both amounts and explain that the higher amount may become payable depending on the PBGC's decision on the amendment. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjustment of liability.</I> When necessary because of the PBGC decision on the amendment, the plan shall adjust the amount demanded from each employer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section and the employer's withdrawal liability payment schedule. The length of the payment schedule shall be increased, as necessary. The plan shall notify each affected employer of the adjusted liability and payment schedule and shall collect the adjusted amount in accordance with the adjusted schedule. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1275, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.22   Requests for PBGC approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of request</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A plan shall submit a request for approval of an alternative allocation method or modification to an allocation method to the PBGC in accordance with the requirements of this section as soon as practicable after the adoption of the amendment. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who shall submit.</I> The plan sponsor, or a duly authorized representative acting on behalf of the plan sponsor, shall sign the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to submit.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content.</I> Each request shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address and telephone number of the plan sponsor, and of the duly authorized representative, if any, of the plan sponsor. 
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) The nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) that the Internal Revenue Service assigned to the plan sponsor and the three-digit Plan Identification Number (PIN) that the plan sponsor assigned to the plan, and, if different, also the EIN-PIN that the plan last filed with the PBGC. If the plan has no EIN-PIN, the request shall so indicate. 
</P>
<P>(4) The date the amendment was adopted. 
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of the amendment, setting forth the full text of the alternative allocation method or modification. 
</P>
<P>(6) The allocation method that the plan currently uses and a copy of the plan amendment (if any) that adopted the method. 
</P>
<P>(7) A statement certifying that notice of the adoption of the amendment has been given to all employers that have an obligation to contribute under the plan and to all employee organizations that represent employees covered by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional information.</I> In addition to the information listed in paragraph (d) of this section, the PBGC may require the plan sponsor to submit any other information that the PBGC determines is necessary for the review of an alternative allocation method or modification to an allocation method.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61355, Oct. 28, 2003; 90 FR 39328, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.23" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.23   Approval of alternative method.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The PBGC shall approve an alternative allocation method or modification to an allocation method if the PBGC determines that adoption of the method or modification would not significantly increase the risk of loss to plan participants and beneficiaries or to the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> An alternative allocation method or modification to an allocation method satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if it meets the following three conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The method or modification allocates a plan's unfunded vested benefits, both for the adoption year and for the five subsequent plan years, to the same extent as any of the statutory allocation methods, or any modification to a statutory allocation method permitted under subpart B. 
</P>
<P>(2) The method or modification allocates unfunded vested benefits to each employer on the basis of either the employer's share of contributions to the plan or the unfunded vested benefits attributable to each employer. The method or modification may take into account differences in contribution rates paid by different employers and differences in benefits of different employers' employees. 
</P>
<P>(3) The method or modification fully reallocates among employers that have not withdrawn from the plan all unfunded vested benefits that the plan sponsor has determined cannot be collected from withdrawn employers, or that are not assessed against withdrawn employers because of section 4209, 4219(c)(1)(B) or 4225 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>PBGC action on request.</I> The PBGC's decision on a request for approval shall be in writing. If the PBGC disapproves the request, the decision shall state the reasons for the disapproval and shall include a statement that the plan sponsor may request review of the decision” in paragraph (c). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 90 FR 39329, Aug. 15, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.24" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.3.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.24   Special rule for certain alternative methods previously approved.</HEAD>
<P>A plan may not apply to any employer withdrawing on or after November 25, 1987, an allocation method approved by the PBGC before that date that allocates to the employer the greater of the amounts of unfunded vested benefits determined under two different allocation rules. Until a plan that has been using such a method is amended to adopt a valid allocation method, its allocation method shall be deemed to be the statutory allocation method that would apply if it had never been amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Allocation Methods for Merged Multiemployer Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.31" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.31   Allocation of unfunded vested benefits following the merger of plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, when two or more multiemployer plans merge, the merged plan shall adopt one of the statutory allocation methods, in accordance with subpart B of this part, or one of the allocation methods prescribed in §§ 4211.32 through 4211.35, and the method adopted shall apply to all employer withdrawals occurring after the initial plan year. Alternatively, a merged plan may adopt its own allocation method in accordance with subpart C of this part. If a merged plan fails to adopt an allocation method pursuant to this subpart or subpart B or C, it shall use the presumptive allocation method prescribed in § 4211.32. In addition, a merged plan may adopt any of the modifications prescribed in § 4211.36 or in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Construction plans.</I> Except as provided in the next sentence, a merged plan that primarily covers employees in the building and construction industry shall use the presumptive allocation method prescribed in § 4211.32. However, the plan may, with respect to employers that are not construction industry employers within the meaning of section 4203(b)(1)(A) of ERISA, adopt, by amendment, one of the alternative methods prescribed in §§ 4211.33 through 4211.35 or any other allocation method. Any such amendment shall be adopted in accordance with subpart C of this part. A construction plan may, without the PBGC's approval, adopt by amendment any of the modifications set forth in § 4211.36 or any of the modifications to the statutory presumptive method set forth in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Section 404(c) plans.</I> A merged plan that is a continuation of a plan described in section 404(c) of the Code shall use the rolling-5 allocation method prescribed in § 4211.34, unless the plan, by amendment, adopts an alternative method. The plan may adopt one of the statutory allocation methods or one of the allocation methods set forth in §§ 4211.32 through 4211.35 without PBGC approval; adoption of any other allocation method is subject to PBGC approval under subpart B of this plan. The plan may, without the PBGC's approval, adopt by amendment any of the modifications set forth in § 4211.36 or in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Withdrawals before the end of the initial plan year.</I> For employer withdrawals after the effective date of a merger and prior to the end of the initial plan year, the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to a withdrawing employer shall be determined in accordance with § 4211.37. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1275, Jan. 8, 2021; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.32" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.32   Presumptive method for withdrawals after the initial plan year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Under this section, the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to an employer that withdraws from a merged plan after the initial plan year is the sum (but not less than zero) of—
</P>
<P>(1) The employer's proportional share, if any, of the unamortized amount of the plan's initial plan year unfunded vested benefits, as determined under paragraph (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer's proportional share of the unamortized amount of the change in the plan's unfunded vested benefits for plan years ending after the initial plan year, as determined under paragraph (c) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The employer's proportional share of the unamortized amounts of the reallocated unfunded vested benefits (if any) as determined under paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Share of initial plan year unfunded vested benefits.</I> An employer's proportional share, if any, of the unamortized amount of the plan's initial plan year unfunded vested benefits is the sum of the employer's share of its prior plan's liabilities (determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section) and the employer's share of the adjusted initial plan year unfunded vested benefits (determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section), with such sum reduced by five percent of the original amount for each plan year subsequent to the initial year. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Share of prior plan liabilities.</I> An employer's share of its prior plan's liabilities is the amount of unfunded vested benefits that would have been allocable to the employer if it had withdrawn on the first day of the initial plan year, determined as if each plan had remained a separate plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Share of adjusted initial plan year unfunded vested benefits.</I> An employer's share of the adjusted initial plan year unfunded vested benefits equals the plan's initial plan year unfunded vested benefits, less the amount that would be determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for each employer that had not withdrawn as of the end of the initial plan year, multiplied by a fraction—
</P>
<P>(i) The numerator of which is the amount determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The denominator of which is the sum of the amounts that would be determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for each employer that had not withdrawn as of the end of the initial plan year. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Share of annual changes.</I> An employer's proportional share of the unamortized amount of the change in the plan's unfunded vested for the plan years ending after the end of the initial plan year is the sum of the employer's proportional shares (determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section) of the unamortized amount of the change in unfunded vested benefits (determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for each plan year in which the employer has an obligation to contribute under the plan ending after the initial plan year and before the plan year in which the employer withdraws. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Change in plan's unfunded vested benefits.</I> The change in a plan's unfunded vested benefits for a plan year is the amount by which the unfunded vested benefits at the end of a plan year, less the value as of the end of such year of all outstanding claims for withdrawal liability that can reasonably be expected to be collected from employers that had withdrawn as of the end of the initial plan year, exceed the sum of the unamortized amount of the initial plan year unfunded vested benefits (determined under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section) and the unamortized amounts of the change in unfunded vested benefits for each plan year ending after the initial plan year and preceding the plan year for which the change is determined (determined under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Unamortized amount of initial plan year unfunded vested benefits.</I> The unamortized amount of the initial plan year unfunded vested benefits is the amount of those benefits reduced by five percent of the original amount for each succeeding plan year. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unamortized amount of the change.</I> The unamortized amount of the change in a plan's unfunded vested benefits with respect to a plan year is the change in unfunded vested benefits for the plan year, reduced by five percent of such change for each succeeding plan year. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employer's proportional share.</I> An employer's proportional share of the amount determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is computed by multiplying that amount by a fraction— 
</P>
<P>(i) The numerator of which is the total amount required to be contributed under the plan (or under the employer's prior plan) by the employer for the plan year in which the change arose and the four preceding full plan years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The denominator of which is the total amount contributed under the plan (or under employer's prior plan) for the plan year in which the change arose and the four preceding full plan years by all employers that had an obligation to contribute under the plan for the plan year in which such change arose, reduced by any amount contributed by an employer that withdrew from the plan in the year in which the change arose.
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining the numerator and the denominator in this paragraph (c), the rules under § 4211.4 (and permissible simplified methods under §§ 4211.14 and 4211.15) apply.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Share of reallocated amounts.</I> An employer's proportional share of the unamortized amounts of the reallocated unfunded vested benefits, if any, is the sum of the employer's proportional shares (determined under paragraph (d)(2) of this section) of the unamortized amount of the reallocated unfunded vested benefits (determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section) for each plan year ending before the plan year in which the employer withdrew from the plan.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unamortized amount of reallocated unfunded vested benefits.</I> The unamortized amount of the reallocated unfunded vested benefits with respect to a plan year is the sum of the amounts described in paragraphs (d)(1)(i), (d)(1)(ii), and (d)(1)(iii) of this section for the plan year, reduced by five percent of such sum for each succeeding plan year.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Uncollectible amounts.</I> Amounts included as reallocable under this paragraph are those that the plan sponsor determines in that plan year to be uncollectible for reasons arising out of cases or proceedings under title 11, United States Code, or similar proceedings, with respect to an employer that withdrew after the close of the initial plan year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Relief amounts.</I> Amounts included as reallocable under this paragraph are those that the plan sponsor determines in that plan year will not be assessed as a result of the operation of section 4209, 4219(c)(1)(B), or 4225 of ERISA with respect to an employer that withdrew after the close of the initial plan year.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other amounts.</I> Amounts included as reallocable under this paragraph are those that the plan sponsor determines in that plan year to be uncollectible or unassessable for other reasons under standards not inconsistent with regulations prescribed by the PBGC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employer's proportional share.</I> An employer's proportional share of the amount of the reallocated unfunded vested benefits with respect to a plan year is computed by multiplying the unamortized amount of the reallocated unfunded vested benefits (as of the end of the year preceding the plan year in which the employer withdraws) by the allocation fraction described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section for the same plan year. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1275, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.33" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.33   Modified presumptive method for withdrawals after the initial plan year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Under this section, the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to an employer that withdraws from a merged plan after the initial plan year is the sum of the employer's proportional share, if any, of the unamortized amount of the plan's initial plan year unfunded vested benefits (determined under paragraph (b) of this section) and the employer's proportional share of the unamortized amount of the unfunded vested benefits arising after the initial plan year (determined under paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Share of initial plan year unfunded vested benefits.</I> An employer's proportional share, if any, of the unamortized amount of the plan's initial plan year unfunded vested benefits is the sum of the employer's share of its prior plan's liabilities, as determined under § 4211.32(b)(1), and the employer's share of the adjusted initial plan year unfunded vested benefits, as determined under § 4211.32(b)(2), with such sum reduced as if it were being fully amortized in level annual installments over fifteen years beginning with the first plan year after the initial plan year. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Share of unfunded vested benefits arising after the initial plan year.</I> An employer's proportional share of the amount of the plan's unfunded vested benefits arising after the initial plan year is the employer's proportional share (determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section) of the plan's unfunded vested benefits as of the end of the plan year preceding the plan year in which the employer withdraws, reduced by the amount of the plan's unfunded vested benefits as of the close of the initial plan year (determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount of unfunded vested benefits.</I> The plan's unfunded vested benefits as of the end of the plan year preceding the plan year in which the employer withdraws shall be reduced by the sum of—
</P>
<P>(i) The value as of that date of all outstanding claims for withdrawal liability that can reasonably be expected to be collected, with respect to employers that withdrew before that plan year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the amounts that would be allocable under paragraph (b) of this section to all employers that have an obligation to contribute in the plan year preceding the plan year in which the employer withdraws and that also had an obligation to contribute in the first plan year ending after the initial plan year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employer's proportional share.</I> An employer's proportional share of the amount determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is computed by multiplying that amount by a fraction—
</P>
<P>(i) The numerator of which is the total amount required to be contributed under the plan (or under the employer's prior plan) by the employer for the last five full plan years ending before the date on which the employer withdraws; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The denominator of which is the total amount contributed under the plan (or under each employer's prior plan) by all employers for the last five full plan years ending before the date on which the employer withdraws, increased by the amount of any employer contributions owed with respect to earlier periods that were collected in those plan years, and decreased by any amount contributed by an employer that withdrew from the plan (or prior plan) during those plan years. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining the numerator and the denominator in this paragraph (c), the rules under § 4211.4 (and permissible simplified methods under §§ 4211.14 and 4211.15) apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1276, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.34" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.34   Rolling-5 method for withdrawals after the initial plan year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Under this section, the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to an employer that withdraws from a merged plan after the initial plan year is the sum of the employer's proportional share, if any, of the unamortized amount of the plan's initial plan year unfunded vested benefits (determined under paragraph (b) of this section) and the employer's proportional share of the unamortized amount of the unfunded vested benefits arising after the initial plan year (determined under paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Share of initial plan year unfunded vested benefits.</I> An employer's proportional share, if any, of the unamortized amount of the plan's initial plan year unfunded vested benefits is the sum of the employer's share of its prior plan's liabilities, as determined under § 4211.32(b)(1), and the employer's share of the adjusted initial plan year unfunded vested benefits, as determined under § 4211.32(b)(2), with such sum reduced as if it were being fully amortized in level annual installments over five years beginning with the first plan year after the initial plan year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Share of unfunded vested benefits arising after the initial plan year.</I> An employer's proportional share of the amount of the plan's unfunded vested benefits arising after the initial plan year is the employer's proportional share determined under § 4211.33(c). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.35" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.35   Direct attribution method for withdrawals after the initial plan year.</HEAD>
<P>The allocation method under this section is the allocation method described in section 4211(c)(4) of ERISA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.36" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.36   Modifications to the determination of initial liabilities, the amortization of initial liabilities, and the allocation fraction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A plan using any of the allocation methods described in §§ 4211.32 through 4211.34 may, by plan amendment and without PBGC approval, adopt any of the modifications described in this section. In determining the numerators and the denominators in paragraph (d) of this section, the rules under § 4211.4 (and permissible simplified methods under §§ 4211.14 and 4211.15) apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restarting initial liabilities.</I> A plan may be amended to allocate the initial plan year unfunded vested benefits under § 4211.32(b), § 4211.33(b), or § 4211.34(b) without separately allocating to employers the liabilities attributable to their participation under their prior plans. An amendment under this paragraph must include an allocation fraction under paragraph (d) of this section for determining the employer's proportional share of the total unfunded benefits as of the close of the initial plan year. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amortizing initial liabilities.</I> A plan may by amendment modify the amortization of initial liabilities in either of the following ways: 
</P>
<P>(1) If two or more plans that use the presumptive allocation method of section 4211(b) of ERISA merge, the merged plan may adjust the amortization of initial liabilities under § 4211.32(b) to amortize those unfunded vested benefits over the remaining length of the prior plans' amortization schedules. 
</P>
<P>(2) A plan that has adopted the allocation method under § 4211.33 or § 4211.34 may adjust the amortization of initial liabilities under § 4211.33(b) or § 4211.34(b) to amortize those unfunded vested benefits in level annual installments over any period of at least five and not more than fifteen years. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Changing the allocation fraction.</I> A plan may by amendment replace the allocation fraction under § 4211.32(b), § 4211.33(b), or § 4211.34(b) with any of the following contribution-based fractions—
</P>
<P>(1) A fraction, the numerator of which is the total amount required to be contributed under the merged and prior plans by the withdrawing employer in the 60-month period ending on the last day of the initial plan year, and the denominator of which is the sum for that period of the contributions made by all employers that had not withdrawn as of the end of the initial plan year; 
</P>
<P>(2) A fraction, the numerator of which is the total amount required to be contributed by the withdrawing employer for the initial plan year and the four preceding full plan years of its prior plan, and the denominator of which is the sum of all contributions made over that period by employers that had not withdrawn as of the end of the initial plan year; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A fraction, the numerator of which is the total amount required to be contributed to the plan by the withdrawing employer since the effective date of the merger, and the denominator of which is the sum of all contributions made over that period by employers that had not withdrawn as of the end of the initial plan year. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34097, July 1, 1996, as amended at 86 FR 1276, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4211.37" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4211.37   Allocating unfunded vested benefits for withdrawals before the end of the initial plan year.</HEAD>
<P>If an employer withdraws after the effective date of a merger and before the end of the initial plan year, the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to the employer shall be determined as if each plan had remained a separate plan. In making this determination, the plan sponsor shall use the allocation method of the withdrawing employer's prior plan and shall compute the employer's allocable share of the plan's unfunded vested benefits as if the day before the effective date of the merger were the end of the last plan year prior to the withdrawal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.30.4.25.8.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 4211—Examples
</HEAD>
<P>The examples in this appendix illustrate simplified methods for disregarding certain contribution increases in the allocation fraction provided in § 4211.14 of this part.
</P>
<P>Example 1. Determining the Numerator of the Allocation Fraction Using the Employer's Plan Year 2014 Contribution Rate (§ 4211.14(b)).
</P>
<P>Assume Plan X is a calendar year multiemployer plan in critical status which did not have a benefit increase after plan year 2014. In accordance with section 305(g)(3)(B) of ERISA, the annual 5 percent contribution rate increases applicable to Employer A and other employers in Plan X after the 2014 plan year were deemed to be required to enable the plan to meet the requirement of its rehabilitation plan and must be disregarded. Employer A, a contributing employer, withdraws from Plan X in 2021. Using the rolling-5 method, Plan X has unfunded vested benefits of $200 million as of the end of the 2020 plan year. To determine Employer A's allocable share of these unfunded vested benefits, Employer A's hourly required contribution rate and contribution base units for the 2014 plan year and each of the 5 plan years between 2016 and 2020 are identified as shown in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2014 PY
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2016 PY
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2017 PY
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2018 PY
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2019 PY
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2020 PY
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5-year total
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Employer A's Contribution Rate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$5.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">n/a
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Contribution Base Units</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,300,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Contributions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$4.41M</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$4.86M</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$5.10M</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$6.03M</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$6.33M</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$6.64M</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$28.96M</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The plan sponsor makes a determination pursuant to section 305(g)(3) of ERISA that the annual 5 percent contribution rate increases applicable to Employer A and other employers in Plan X after the 2014 plan year were required to enable the plan to meet the requirement of its rehabilitation plan and should be disregarded; benefits were not increased after plan year 2014.
</P>
<P>Applying the simplified method, contribution rate increases that went into effect during plan years beginning after December 31, 2014 would be disregarded: The $5.51 contribution rate in effect at the end of plan year 2014 would be held steady in computing Employer A's required contributions for the plan years included in the numerator of the allocation fraction. Based on 4.3 million contribution base units, this results in total required contributions of $23.7 million over 5 years. Absent section 305(g)(3) of ERISA, the sum of the contributions required to be made by Employer A would have been determined by multiplying Employer A's contribution rate in effect for each plan year by the contribution base units in that plan year, producing total required contributions of $28.96 million over 5 years.
</P>
<P>Example 2. Determining the Denominator of the Allocation Fraction Using the Proxy Group Method (§ 4211.14(d)).
</P>
<P>Assume a plan covers ten employers. For 2017, three small employers were in rate history group X, representing less than 5 percent of active plan participants; employers A and B and two other employers were in rate history group Y; and employer C and two other employers were in rate history group Z. For 2018, there were changes in contribution rates for some of B's employees, and as a result, employer B is being treated as two employers, B1 and B2. B1 remained in rate history group Y because, while B1 has a significantly lower contribution rate than A, the contributions of both are subject to the same percentage increase each year. B2 was added to rate history group X. X continues to represent less than 5 percent of active plan participants, and the plan continues to ignore it in forming the proxy group. The plan forms a 2018 proxy group of three employers—A and B1 from rate history group Y and C from rate history group Z—that together represent more than 10 percent of active plan participants.
</P>
<P>Contributions for 2018 are $1,000,000: $20,000 for rate history group X, $740,000 for rate history group Y, and $240,000 for rate history group Z, with A and B1 accounting for $150,000 and C accounting for $45,000 of the total contribution amounts.
</P>
<P>Contribution rates for 2018 for A, B1, and C (excluding rate increases required to be disregarded for withdrawal liability purposes) and contribution base units for the three employers are: For A, 87 cents and 100,000 CBUs; for B1, 43 cents and 50,000 CBUs; and for C, 70 cents and 60,000 CBUs, as shown in rows (1) and (2) of the table below. Thus, the three employers' adjusted contributions are $87,000, $21,500, and $42,000 respectively, as shown in row (3).
</P>
<P>Moving from the employer level to the rate history group level, the adjusted contributions for employers in the proxy group that are in the same rate history group are added together (row (4)). Those totals are then divided by total actual contributions for the proxy group employers in each rate history group (row (6)) to derive an adjustment factor for each rate history group (row (7)) that is applied to the actual contributions of all employers in the rate history group (row (8)) to get the adjusted contributions for each rate history group represented in the proxy group (row (9)).
</P>
<P>Moving from the rate history group level to the plan level, the same process is repeated. Adjusted employer contributions for the rate history group are summed (row (10)) and divided by the total contributions for all rate history groups represented in the proxy group (row (11)) to get an adjustment factor for the plan (row (12)). Contributions for rate history group X are excluded from row (11) because no employer in rate history group X is in the proxy group. The adjustment factor for the plan is then applied to total plan contributions (row (13)) to get adjusted plan contributions (row (14)). Contributions for rate history group X are included in row (13) because—although X was ignored in determining the adjustment factor for the plan — the adjustment factor applies to all plan contributions (other than those by employers excluded from the plan's allocation fraction denominator). The plan will use the adjusted plan contributions in row (14) as the total contributions for 2018 in determining the denominator of any allocation fraction that includes contributions for 2018.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Row number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Regulatory
<br/>reference in § 4211.14(d)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Description of action
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Rate history group
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Y
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Z
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Employer A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Employer B1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Employer C
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2018 contribution rate excluding disregarded increases</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0.87 per CBU</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0.43 per CBU</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0.70 per CBU
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2018 CBUs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adjusted employer contributions (1)x(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$87,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$21,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$42,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of adjusted contributions for proxy employers by rate history group</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$108,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$42,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unadjusted contributions for proxy employers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$25,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$45,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of unadjusted contributions for proxy employers by rate history group</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$125,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$45,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adjustment factor by rate history group (4)/(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">0.868</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.933
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total actual contributions by rate history group</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$740,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$240,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adjusted contributions by rate history group (7)x(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$642,320</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$223,920
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of adjusted contributions for rate history groups represented in proxy group</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">$866,240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total actual contributions for rate history groups represented in proxy group</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">$980,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adjustment factor for plan (10)/(11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">0.884
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total plan contributions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">$1,000,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adjusted plan contributions (for allocation fraction denominators) (12)x(13)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3">$884,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1276, Jan. 8, 2021]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4219" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4219—NOTICE, COLLECTION, AND REDETERMINATION OF WITHDRAWAL LIABILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3) and 1399(c)(6). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34102, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Subpart A.</I> Subpart A of this part describes the purpose and scope of the provisions in this part and defined terms used in this part. Section 4219(c) of ERISA requires a withdrawn employer to make annual withdrawal liability payments at a set rate over the number of years necessary to amortize its withdrawal liability, generally limited to a period of 20 years. This subpart provides rules for disregarding certain contribution increases in determining the highest contribution rate under section 4219(c) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subpart B</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> When a multiemployer plan terminates by the withdrawal of every employer from the plan, or when substantially all employers withdraw from a multiemployer plan pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw from the plan, section 4219(c)(1)(D)(i) of ERISA requires that the liability of such withdrawing employers be determined (or redetermined) without regard to the 20-year limitation on annual payments established in section 4219(c)(1)(B) of ERISA. In addition, section 4219(c)(1)(D)(ii) requires that, upon the occurrence of a withdrawal described above, the total unfunded vested benefits of the plan be fully allocated among such withdrawing employers in a manner that is not inconsistent with PBGC regulations. Section 4209(c) of ERISA provides that the <I>de minimis</I> reduction established in sections 4209 (a) and (b) of ERISA does not apply to an employer that withdraws in a plan year in which substantially all employers withdraw from the plan, or to an employer that withdraws pursuant to an agreement to withdraw during a period of one or more plan years during which substantially all employers withdraw pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw. The purpose of subpart B of this part is to prescribe rules, pursuant to sections 4219(c)(1)(D) and 4209(c) of ERISA, for redetermining an employer's withdrawal liability and fully allocating the unfunded vested benefits of a multiemployer plan in either of two mass-withdrawal situations: the termination of a plan by the withdrawal of every employer and the withdrawal of substantially all employers pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw. Subpart B also prescribes rules for redetermining the liability of an employer without regard to section 4209 (a) or (b) when the employer withdraws in a plan year in which substantially all employers withdraw, regardless of the occurrence of a mass withdrawal. (See part 4281 regarding the valuation of unfunded vested benefits to be fully allocated under subpart B, and parts 4041A and 4281 regarding the powers and duties of the plan sponsor of a plan terminated by mass withdrawal.) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> Subpart B applies to multiemployer plans covered by title IV of ERISA, with respect to which there is a termination by the withdrawal of every employer (including a plan created by a partition pursuant to section 4233 of ERISA) or a withdrawal of substantially all employers in the plan pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw from the plan, and to employers that withdraw from such multiemployer plans. The obligations of a plan sponsor of a mass-withdrawal-terminated plan under subpart B cease to apply when the plan assets are distributed in full satisfaction of all nonforfeitable benefits under the plan. Subpart B also applies, to the extent appropriate, to multiemployer plans with respect to which there is a withdrawal of substantially all employers in a single plan year and to employers that withdraw from such plans in that plan year. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subpart C.</I> Subpart C establishes the interest rate to be charged on overdue, defaulted and overpaid withdrawal liability under section 4219(c)(6) of ERISA, and authorizes multiemployer plans to adopt alternative rules concerning assessment of interest and related matters. Subpart C applies to multiemployer plans covered under title IV of ERISA, and to employers that have withdrawn from such plans on or after September 26, 1980, except employers with respect to which section 4221(f) or section 4221(g) of ERISA applies (provided that such employers are in compliance with the provisions of those sections, as applicable).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34102, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 79636, Dec. 30, 2008; 86 FR 1277, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: employer, ERISA, IRS, mass withdrawal, multiemployer plan, nonforfeitable benefit, PBGC, plan, and plan year. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Initial withdrawal liability</I> means the amount of withdrawal liability determined in accordance with sections 4201 through 4225 of title IV without regard to the occurrence of a mass withdrawal. 
</P>
<P><I>Mass withdrawal liability</I> means the sum of an employer's liability for <I>de minimis</I> amounts, liability for 20-year-limitation amounts, and reallocation liability. 
</P>
<P><I>Mass withdrawal valuation date</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a termination by mass withdrawal, the last day of the plan year in which the plan terminates; or 
</P>
<P>(2) in the case of a withdrawal of substantially all employers pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw, the last day of the plan year as of which substantially all employers have withdrawn. 
</P>
<P><I>Reallocation liability</I> means the amount of unfunded vested benefits allocated to an employer in the event of a mass withdrawal. 
</P>
<P><I>Reallocation record date</I> means a date selected by the plan sponsor, which is not earlier than the date of the plan's actuarial report for the year of the mass withdrawal and not later than one year after the mass withdrawal valuation date. 
</P>
<P><I>Redetermination liability</I> means the sum of an employer's liability for <I>de minimis</I> amounts and the employer's liability for 20-year-limitation amounts. 
</P>
<P><I>Unfunded vested benefits</I> means the amount by which the present value of a plan's nonforfeitable benefits exceeds the value of plan assets (including claims of the plan for unpaid initial withdrawal liability and redetermination liability), determined in accordance with section 4281 of ERISA and part 4281, subpart B. 
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of subpart B— 
</P>
<P><I>Withdrawal</I> means a complete withdrawal as defined in section 4203 of ERISA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34102, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 79636, Dec. 30, 2008; 86 FR 1277, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.3   Disregarding certain contributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> For purposes of determining the highest contribution rate under section 4219(c) of ERISA, a plan must disregard:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Surcharge.</I> Any surcharge under section 305(e)(7) of ERISA and section 432(e)(7) of the Code the obligation for which accrues on or after December 31, 2014.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contribution increase.</I> Any increase in the contribution rate or other increase in contribution requirements that goes into effect during a plan year beginning after December 31, 2014, so that a plan may meet the requirements of a funding improvement plan under section 305(c) of ERISA and section 432(c) of the Code or a rehabilitation plan under section 305(e) of ERISA and section 432(e) of the Code, except to the extent that one of the following exceptions applies pursuant to section 305(g)(3) of ERISA and section 432(g)(3) of the Code:
</P>
<P>(i) The increases in contribution requirements are due to increased levels of work, employment, or periods for which compensation is provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) The additional contributions are used to provide an increase in benefits, including an increase in future benefit accruals, permitted by section 305(d)(1)(B) or (f)(1)(B) of ERISA and section 432(d)(1)(B) or (f)(1)(B) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Simplified method for a plan that is no longer in endangered or critical status.</I> A plan sponsor may amend a plan without PBGC approval to use the simplified method in this paragraph (b) for purposes of determining the highest contribution rate for a plan that is no longer in endangered or critical status. The highest contribution rate is the greater of—
</P>
<P>(1) The employer's contribution rate as of the date that is the later of the last day of the first plan year that ends on or after December 31, 2014 and the last day of the plan year the employer first contributes to the plan (the “employer freeze date”) plus any contribution increases after the employer freeze date, and before the employer's withdrawal date that are determined in accordance with the rules under § 4219.3(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) The highest contribution rate for any plan year after the plan year that includes the expiration date of the first collective bargaining agreement of the withdrawing employer requiring plan contributions that expires after the plan is no longer in endangered or critical status, or, if earlier, the date as of which the withdrawing employer renegotiated a contribution rate effective after the plan year the plan is no longer in endangered or critical status.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Example:</I> The simplified method in paragraph (b) of this section is illustrated by the following example.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Facts.</I> A contributing employer withdraws in plan year 2028, after the 2027 expiration date of the first collective bargaining agreement requiring plan contributions that expires after the plan is no longer in critical status in plan year 2026. The plan sponsor determines that under the expiring collective bargaining agreement the employer's $4.50 hourly contribution rate in plan year 2014 was required to increase each year to $7.00 per hour in plan year 2025, to enable the plan to meet its rehabilitation plan. The plan sponsor determines that, over this period, a cumulative increase of $0.85 per hour was used to fund benefit increases, as provided by plan amendment. Under a new collective bargaining agreement effective in 2027, the employer's hourly contribution rate is reduced to $5.00.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Highest contribution rate.</I> The plan sponsor determines that the employer's highest contribution rate for purposes of section 4219(c) of ERISA is $5.35, because it is the greater of the highest rate in effect after the plan is no longer in critical status ($5.00) and the employer's contribution rate in plan year 2014 ($4.50) plus any increases between 2015 and 2025 ($0.85) that were required to be taken into account under section 305(g)(3) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective and applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> This section is effective on February 8, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies to employer withdrawals from multiemployer plans that occur in plan years beginning on or after February 8, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 1277, Jan. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Redetermination of Withdrawal Liability Upon Mass Withdrawal</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.11   Withdrawal liability upon mass withdrawal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial withdrawal liability.</I> The plan sponsor of a multiemployer plan that experiences a mass withdrawal shall determine initial withdrawal liability pursuant to section 4201 of ERISA of every employer that has completely or partially withdrawn from the plan and for whom the liability has not previously been determined and, in accordance with section 4202 of ERISA, notify each employer of the amount of the initial withdrawal liability and collect the amount of the initial withdrawal liability from each employer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mass withdrawal liability.</I> The plan sponsor of a multiemployer plan that experiences a mass withdrawal shall also—
</P>
<P>(1) Notify withdrawing employers, in accordance with § 4219.16(a), that a mass withdrawal has occurred; 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 150 days after the mass withdrawal valuation date, determine the liability of withdrawn employers for <I>de minimis</I> amounts and for 20-year-limitation amounts in accordance with §§ 4219.13 and 4219.14; 
</P>
<P>(3) Within one year after the reallocation record date, determine the reallocation liability of withdrawn employers in accordance with § 4219.15; 
</P>
<P>(4) Notify each withdrawing employer of the amount of mass withdrawal liability determined pursuant to this subpart and the schedule for payment of such liability, and demand payment of and collect that liability, in accordance with § 4219.16; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Notify the PBGC of the occurrence of a mass withdrawal and certify, in accordance with § 4219.17, that determinations of mass withdrawal liability have been completed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extensions of time.</I> The plan sponsor of a multiemployer plan that experiences a mass withdrawal may apply to the PBGC for an extension of the deadlines contained in paragraph (b) of this section. The PBGC shall approve such a request only if it finds that failure to grant the extension will create an unreasonable risk of loss to plan participants or the PBGC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.12   Employers liable upon mass withdrawal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liability for de minimis amounts.</I> An employer shall be liable for <I>de minimis</I> amounts to the extent provided in section 4219(c)(1)(D) of ERISA if the employer's initial withdrawal liability was reduced pursuant to section 4209 (a) or (b) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liability for 20-year-limitation amounts.</I> An employer shall be liable for 20-year-limitation amounts to the extent provided in section 4219(c)(1)(D) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liability for reallocation liability.</I> An employer shall be liable for reallocation liability if the employer withdrew pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw from a multiemployer plan from which substantially all employers withdrew pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw, or if the employer withdrew after the beginning of the second full plan year preceding the termination date from a plan that terminated by the withdrawal of every employer, and, as of the reallocation record date— 
</P>
<P>(1) The employer has not been completely liquidated or dissolved; 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is not the subject of a case or proceeding under title 11, United States Code, or any case or proceeding under similar provisions of state insolvency laws, except that a plan sponsor may determine that such an employer is liable for reallocation liability if the plan sponsor determines that the employer is reasonably expected to be able to pay its initial withdrawal liability and its redetermination liability in full and on time to the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The plan sponsor has not determined that the employer's initial withdrawal liability or its redetermination liability is limited by section 4225 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General exclusion.</I> In the event that a plan experiences successive mass withdrawals, an employer that has been determined to be liable under this subpart for any component of mass withdrawal liability shall not be liable as a result of the same withdrawal for that component of mass withdrawal liability with respect to a subsequent mass withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Free-look rule.</I> An employer that is not liable for initial withdrawal liability pursuant to a plan amendment adopting section 4210(a) of ERISA shall not be liable for <I>de minimis</I> amounts or for 20-year-limitation amounts, but shall be liable for reallocation liability in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment of initial withdrawal liability.</I> An employer's payment of its total initial withdrawal liability, whether by prepayment or otherwise, for a withdrawal which is later determined to be part of a mass withdrawal shall not exclude the employer from or otherwise limit the employer's mass withdrawal liability under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Agreement presumed.</I> Withdrawal by an employer during a period of three consecutive plan years within which substantially all employers withdraw from a plan shall be presumed to be a withdrawal pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw unless the employer proves otherwise by a preponderance of the evidence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.13   Amount of liability for <E T="7462">de minimis</E> amounts.</HEAD>
<P>An employer that is liable for <I>de minimis</I> amounts shall be liable to the plan for the amount by which the employer's allocable share of unfunded vested benefits for the purpose of determining its initial withdrawal liability was reduced pursuant to section 4209 (a) or (b) of ERISA. Any liability for <I>de minimis</I> amounts determined under this section shall be limited by section 4225 of ERISA to the extent that section would have been limiting had the employer's initial withdrawal liability been determined without regard to the <I>de minimis</I> reduction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.14   Amount of liability for 20-year-limitation amounts.</HEAD>
<P>An employer that is liable for 20-year-limitation amounts shall be liable to the plan for an amount equal to the present value of all initial withdrawal liability payments for which the employer was not liable pursuant to section 4219(c)(1)(B) of ERISA. The present value of such payments shall be determined as of the end of the plan year preceding the plan year in which the employer withdrew, using the assumptions that were used to determine the employer's payment schedule for initial withdrawal liability pursuant to section 4219(c)(1)(A)(ii) of ERISA. Any liability for 20-year-limitation amounts determined under this section shall be limited by section 4225 of ERISA to the extent that section would have been limiting had the employer's initial withdrawal liability been determined without regard to the 20-year limitation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.15   Determination of reallocation liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In accordance with the rules in this section, the plan sponsor shall determine the amount of unfunded vested benefits to be reallocated and shall fully allocate those unfunded vested benefits among all employers liable for reallocation liability. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of unfunded vested benefits to be reallocated.</I> For purposes of this section, the amount of a plan's unfunded vested benefits to be reallocated shall be the amount of the plan's unfunded vested benefits, determined as of the mass withdrawal valuation date, adjusted to exclude from plan assets the value of the plan's claims for unpaid initial withdrawal liability and unpaid redetermination liability that are deemed to be uncollectible under § 4219.12(c)(1) or (c)(2). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amount of reallocation liability.</I> An employer's reallocation liability shall be equal to the sum of the employer's initial allocable share of the plan's unfunded vested benefits, as determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, plus any unassessable amounts allocated to the employer under paragraph (c)(2), limited by section 4225 of ERISA to the extent that section would have been limiting had the employer's reallocation liability been included in the employer's initial withdrawal liability. If a plan is determined to have no unfunded vested benefits to be reallocated, the reallocation liability of each liable employer shall be zero. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial allocable share.</I> Except as otherwise provided in rules adopted by the plan pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, and in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, an employer's initial allocable share shall be equal to the product of the plan's unfunded vested benefits to be reallocated, multiplied by a fraction—
</P>
<P>(i) The numerator of which is the yearly average of the employer's contribution base units during the three plan years preceding the employer's withdrawal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The denominator of which is the sum of the yearly averages calculated under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for each employer liable for reallocation liability. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation of unassessable amounts.</I> If after computing each employer's initial allocable share of unfunded vested benefits, the plan sponsor knows that any portion of an employer's initial allocable share is unassessable as withdrawal liability because of the limitations in section 4225 of ERISA, the plan sponsor shall allocate any such unassessable amounts among all other liable employers. This allocation shall be done by prorating the unassessable amounts on the basis of each such employer's initial allocable share. No employer shall be liable for unfunded vested benefits allocated under paragraph (c)(1) or this paragraph to another employer that are determined to be unassessable or uncollectible subsequent to the plan sponsor's demand for payment of reallocation liability. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contribution base unit.</I> For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a contribution base unit means a unit with respect to which an employer has an obligation to contribute, such as an hour worked or shift worked or a unit of production, under the applicable collective bargaining agreement (or other agreement pursuant to which the employer contributes) or with respect to which the employer would have an obligation to contribute if the contribution requirement with respect to the plan were greater than zero. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plan rules.</I> Plans may adopt rules for calculating an employer's initial allocable share of the plan's unfunded vested benefits in a manner other than that prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provided that those rules allocate the plan's unfunded vested benefits to substantially the same extent the prescribed rules would. Plan rules adopted under this paragraph shall operate and be applied uniformly with respect to each employer. If such rules would increase the reallocation liability of any employer, they may be effective with respect to that employer earlier than three full plan years after their adoption only if the employer consents to the application of the rules to itself. The plan sponsor shall give a written notice to each contributing employer and each employee organization that represents employees covered by the plan of the adoption of plan rules under this paragraph. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34102, July 1, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 79636, Dec. 30, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.16   Imposition of liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of mass withdrawal.</I> Within 30 days after the mass withdrawal valuation date, the plan sponsor shall give written notice of the occurrence of a mass withdrawal to each employer that the plan sponsor reasonably expects may be a liable employer under § 4219.12. The notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) The mass withdrawal valuation date; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the consequences of a mass withdrawal under this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that each employer obligated to make initial withdrawal liability payments shall continue to make those payments in accordance with its schedule. Failure of the plan sponsor to notify an employer of a mass withdrawal as required by this paragraph shall not cancel the employer's mass withdrawal liability or waive the plan's claim for such liability. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of redetermination liability.</I> Within 30 days after the date as of which the plan sponsor is required under § 4219.11(b)(2) to have determined the redetermination liability of employers, the plan sponsor shall issue a notice of redetermination liability in writing to each employer liable under § 4219.12 for <I>de minimis</I> amounts or 20-year-limitation amounts, or both. The notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the employer's liability, if any, for <I>de minimis</I> amounts determined pursuant to § 4219.13; 
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of the employer's liability, if any, for 20-year-limitation amounts determined pursuant to § 4219.14; 
</P>
<P>(3) The schedule for payment of the liability determined under paragraph (f) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(4) A demand for payment of the liability in accordance with the schedule; and 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of when the plan sponsor expects to issue notices of reallocation liability to liable employers. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of reallocation liability.</I> Within 30 days after the date as of which the plan sponsor is required under § 4219.11(b)(3) to have determined the reallocation liability of employers, the plan sponsor shall issue a notice of reallocation liability in writing to each employer liable for reallocation liability. The notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the employer's reallocation liability determined pursuant to § 4219.15; 
</P>
<P>(2) The schedule for payment of the liability determined under paragraph (f) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A demand for payment of the liability in accordance with the schedule. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to employers not liable.</I> The plan sponsor shall notify in writing any employer that receives a notice of mass withdrawal under paragraph (a) of this section and subsequently is determined not to be liable for mass withdrawal liability or any component thereof. The notice shall specify the liability from which the employer is excluded and shall be provided to the employer not later than the date by which liable employers are to be provided notices of reallocation liability pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. If the employer is not liable for mass withdrawal liability, the notice shall also include a statement, if applicable, that the employer is obligated to continue to make initial withdrawal liability payments in accordance with its existing schedule for payment of such liability. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Combined notices.</I> A plan sponsor may combine a notice of redetermination liability with the notice of and demand for payment of initial withdrawal liability. If a mass withdrawal and a withdrawal described in § 4219.18 occur concurrently, a plan sponsor may combine—
</P>
<P>(1) A notice of mass withdrawal with a notice of withdrawal issued pursuant to § 4219.18(d); and 
</P>
<P>(2) A notice of redetermination liability with a notice of liability issued pursuant to § 4219.18(e). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment schedules.</I> The plan sponsor shall establish payment schedules for payment of an employer's mass withdrawal liability in accordance with the rules in section 4219(c) of ERISA, as modified by this paragraph. For an employer that owes initial withdrawal liability as of the mass withdrawal valuation date, the plan sponsor shall establish new payment schedules for each element of mass withdrawal liability by amending the initial withdrawal liability payment schedule in accordance with the paragraph (f)(1) of this section. For all other employers, the payment schedules shall be established in accordance with paragraph (f)(2). 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Employers owing initial withdrawal liability as of mass withdrawal valuation date.</I> For an employer that owes initial withdrawal liability as of the mass withdrawal valuation date, the plan sponsor shall amend the existing schedule of payments in order to amortize the new amounts of liability being assessed, <I>i.e.,</I> redetermination liability and reallocation liability. With respect to redetermination liability, the plan sponsor shall add that liability to the total initial withdrawal liability and determine a new payment schedule, in accordance with section 4219(c)(1) of ERISA, using the interest assumptions that were used to determine the original payment schedule. For reallocation liability, the plan sponsor shall add that liability to the present value, as of the date following the mass withdrawal valuation date, of the unpaid portion of the amended payment schedule described in the preceding sentence and determine a new payment schedule of level annual payments, calculated as if the first payment were made on the day following the mass withdrawal valuation date using the interest assumptions used for determining the amount of unfunded vested benefits to be reallocated. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other employers.</I> For an employer that had no initial withdrawal liability, or had fully paid its liability prior to the mass withdrawal valuation date, the plan sponsor shall determine the payment schedule for redetermination liability, in accordance with section 4219(c)(1) of ERISA, in the same manner and using the same interest assumptions as were used or would have been used in determining the payment schedule for the employer's initial withdrawal liability. With respect to reallocation liability, the plan sponsor shall follow the rules prescribed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review of mass withdrawal liability determinations.</I> Determinations of mass withdrawal liability made pursuant to this subpart shall be subject to plan review under section 4219(b)(2) of ERISA and to arbitration under section 4221 of ERISA within the times prescribed by those sections. Matters that relate solely to the amount of, and schedule of payments for, an employer's initial withdrawal liability are not matters relating to the employer's liability under this subpart and are not subject to review pursuant to this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Cessation of withdrawal liability obligations.</I> If the plan sponsor of a terminated plan distributes plan assets in full satisfaction of all nonforfeitable benefits under the plan, the plan sponsor's obligation to impose and collect liability, and each employer's obligation to pay liability, in accordance with this subpart ceases on the date of such distribution. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Determination that a mass withdrawal has not occurred.</I> If a plan sponsor determines, after imposing mass withdrawal liability pursuant to this subpart, that a mass withdrawal has not occurred, the plan sponsor shall refund to employers all payments of mass withdrawal liability with interest, except that a plan sponsor shall not refund payments of liability for <I>de minimis</I> amounts to an employer that remains liable for such amounts under § 4219.18. Interest shall be credited at the interest rate prescribed in subpart C and shall accrue from the date the payment was received by the plan until the date of the refund. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.17" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.17   Filings with PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirements</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The plan sponsor shall file with PBGC a notice that a mass withdrawal has occurred and separate certifications that determinations of redetermination liability and reallocation liability have been made and notices provided to employers in accordance with this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Computation of time.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this subpart for filing with the PBGC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who shall file.</I> The plan sponsor or a duly authorized representative acting on behalf of the plan sponsor shall sign and file the notice and the certifications. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to file.</I> A notice of mass withdrawal for a plan from which substantially all employers withdraw pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw shall be filed with the PBGC no later than 30 days after the mass withdrawal valuation date. A notice of mass withdrawal termination shall be filed within the time prescribed for the filing of that notice in part 4041A, subparts A and B, of this chapter. Certifications of liability determinations shall be filed with the PBGC no later than 30 days after the date on which the plan sponsor is required to have provided employers with notices pursuant to § 4219.16. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this subpart was filed with the PBGC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contents of notice of mass withdrawal.</I> If a plan terminates by the withdrawal of every employer, a notice of termination filed in accordance with part 4041A, subparts A and B, of this chapter shall satisfy the requirements for a notice of mass withdrawal under this subpart. If substantially all employers withdraw from a plan pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw, the notice of mass withdrawal shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address and telephone number of the plan sponsor and of the duly authorized representative, if any, of the plan sponsor. 
</P>
<P>(3) The nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) assigned by the IRS to the plan sponsor and the three-digit Plan Identification Number (PIN) assigned by the plan sponsor to the plan, and, if different, the EIN or PIN last filed with the PBGC. If no EIN or PIN has been assigned, the notice shall so indicate. 
</P>
<P>(4) The mass withdrawal valuation date. 
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the facts on which the plan sponsor has based its determination that a mass withdrawal has occurred, including the number of contributing employers withdrawn and the number remaining in the plan, and a description of the effect of the mass withdrawal on the plan's contribution base. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contents of certifications.</I> Each certification shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address and telephone number of the plan sponsor and of the duly authorized representative, if any, of the plan sponsor. 
</P>
<P>(3) The nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) assigned by the IRS to the plan sponsor and the three-digit Plan Identification Number (PIN) last assigned by the plan sponsor to the plan, and, if different, the EIN or PIN filed with the PBGC. If no EIN or PIN has been assigned, the notice shall so indicate. 
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of the liability determination to which the certification relates. 
</P>
<P>(5) A certification, signed by the plan sponsor or a duly authorized representative, that the determinations have been made and the notices given in accordance with this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(6) For reallocation liability certifications— 
</P>
<P>(i) A certification, signed by the plan's actuary, that the determination of unfunded vested benefits has been done in accordance with part 4281, subpart B; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of plan rules, if any, adopted pursuant to § 4219.15(d). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Additional information.</I> In addition to the information described in paragraph (g) of this section, the PBGC may require the plan sponsor to submit any other information the PBGC determines it needs in order to monitor compliance with this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34102, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61355, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.18" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.18   Withdrawal in a plan year in which substantially all employers withdraw.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An employer that withdraws in a plan year in which substantially all employers withdraw from the plan shall be liable to the plan for <I>de minimis</I> amounts if the employer's initial withdrawal liability was reduced pursuant to section 4209(a) or (b) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of liability.</I> An employer's liability for <I>de minimis</I> amounts under this section shall be determined pursuant to § 4219.13. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plan sponsor's obligations.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan that experiences a withdrawal described in paragraph (a) shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine and collect initial withdrawal liability of every employer that has completely or partially withdrawn, in accordance with sections 4201 and 4202 of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(2) Notify each employer that is or may be liable under this section, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) Within 90 days after the end of the plan year in which the withdrawal occurred, determine, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, the liability of each withdrawing employer that is liable under this section; 
</P>
<P>(4) Notify each liable employer, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, of the amount of its liability under this section, demand payment of and collect that liability; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Certify to the PBGC that determinations of liability have been completed, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of withdrawal.</I> Within 30 days after the end of a plan year in which a plan experiences a withdrawal described in paragraph (a), the plan sponsor shall notify in writing each employer that is or may be liable under this section. The notice shall specify the plan year in which substantially all employers have withdrawn, describe the consequences of such withdrawal under this section, and state that an employer obligated to make initial withdrawal liability payments shall continue to make those payments in accordance with its schedule. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of liability.</I> Within 30 days after the determination of liability, the plan sponsor shall issue a notice of liability in writing to each liable employer. The notice shall include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the employer's liability for <I>de minimis</I> amounts; 
</P>
<P>(2) A schedule for payment of the liability, determined under § 4219.16(f); and 
</P>
<P>(3) A demand for payment of the liability in accordance with the schedule. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review of liability determinations.</I> Determinations of liability made pursuant to this section shall be subject to plan review under section 4219(b)(2) of ERISA and to arbitration under section 4221 of ERISA, subject to the limitations contained in § 4219.16(g). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice to the PBGC.</I> No later than 30 days after the notices of liability under this section are required to be provided to liable employers, the plan sponsor shall file with the PBGC a notice. The notice shall include the items described in § 4219.17 (g)(1) through (g)(3), as well as the information listed below. In addition, the PBGC may require the plan sponsor to submit any further information that the PBGC determines it needs in order to monitor compliance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The plan year in which the withdrawal occurred. 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the effect of the withdrawal, including the number of contributing employers that withdrew in the plan year in which substantially all employers withdrew, the number of employers remaining in the plan, and a description of the effect of the withdrawal on the plan's contribution base. 
</P>
<P>(3) A certification, signed by the plan sponsor or duly authorized representative, that determinations have been made and notices given in accordance with this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.19" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.2.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.19   Method and date of issuance; computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>The PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance under this subpart. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that an issuance under this subpart was provided. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period for issuances to third parties under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61356, Oct. 28, 2003]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Overdue, Defaulted, and Overpaid Withdrawal Liability</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.31" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.31   Overdue and defaulted withdrawal liability; overpayment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overdue withdrawal liability payment.</I> Except as otherwise provided in rules adopted by the plan in accordance with § 4219.33, a withdrawal liability payment is overdue if it is not paid on the date set forth in the schedule of payments established by the plan sponsor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Default.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1), “default” means— 
</P>
<P>(i) The failure of an employer to pay any overdue withdrawal liability payment within 60 days after the employer receives written notification from the plan sponsor that the payment is overdue; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other event described in rules adopted by the plan which indicates a substantial likelihood that an employer will be unable to pay its withdrawal liability. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of a default, a plan sponsor may require immediate payment of all or a portion of the outstanding amount of an employer's withdrawal liability, plus interest. In the event that the plan sponsor accelerates only a portion of the outstanding amount of an employer's withdrawal liability, the plan sponsor shall establish a new schedule of payments for the remaining amount of the employer's withdrawal liability. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plan review or arbitration of liability determination.</I> The following rules shall apply with respect to the obligation to make withdrawal liability payments during the period for plan review and arbitration and with respect to the failure to make such payments: 
</P>
<P>(1) A default as a result of failure to make any payments shall not occur until the 61st day after the last of—
</P>
<P>(i) Expiration of the period described in section 4219(b)(2)(A) of ERISA; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employer requests review under section 4219(b)(2)(A) of ERISA of the plan's withdrawal liability determination or the schedule of payments established by the plan, expiration of the period described in section 4221(a)(1) of ERISA for initiation of arbitration; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) If arbitration is timely initiated either by the plan, the employer or both, issuance of the arbitrator's decision. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any amounts due before the expiration of the period described in paragraph (c)(1) shall be paid in accordance with the schedule established by the plan sponsor. If a payment is not made when due under the schedule, the payment is overdue and interest shall accrue in accordance with the rules and at the same rate set forth in § 4219.32. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Overpayments.</I> If the plan sponsor or an arbitrator determines that payments made in accordance with the schedule of payments established by the plan sponsor have resulted in an overpayment of withdrawal liability, the plan sponsor shall refund the overpayment, with interest, in a lump sum. The plan sponsor shall credit interest on the overpayment from the date of the overpayment to the date on which the overpayment is refunded to the employer at the same rate as the rate for overdue withdrawal liability payments, as established under § 4219.32 or by the plan pursuant to § 4219.33. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.32" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.32   Interest on overdue, defaulted and overpaid withdrawal liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interest assessed.</I> The plan sponsor of a multiemployer plan— 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall assess interest on overdue withdrawal liability payments from the due date, as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, until the date paid, as defined in paragraph (e); and 
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of a default, may assess interest on any accelerated portion of the outstanding withdrawal liability from the due date, as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, until the date paid, as defined in paragraph (e). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interest rate.</I> Except as otherwise provided in rules adopted by the plan pursuant to § 4219.33, interest under this section shall be charged or credited for each calendar quarter at an annual rate equal to the average quoted prime rate on short-term commercial loans for the fifteenth day (or next business day if the fifteenth day is not a business day) of the month preceding the beginning of each calendar quarter, as reported by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in Statistical Release H.15 (“Selected Interest Rates”). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of interest.</I> The interest rate under paragraph (b) of this section is the nominal rate for any calendar quarter or portion thereof. The amount of interest due the plan for overdue or defaulted withdrawal liability, or due the employer for overpayment, is equal to the overdue, defaulted, or overpaid amount multiplied by: 
</P>
<P>(1) For each full calendar quarter in the period from the due date (or date of overpayment) to the date paid (or date of refund), one-fourth of the annual rate in effect for that quarter; 
</P>
<P>(2) For each full calendar month in a partial quarter in that period, one-twelfth of the annual rate in effect for that quarter; and 
</P>
<P>(3) For each day in a partial month in that period, one-three-hundred-sixtieth of the annual rate in effect for that month. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Due date.</I> Except as otherwise provided in rules adopted by the plan, the due date from which interest accrues shall be, for an overdue withdrawal liability payment and for an amount of withdrawal liability in default, the date of the missed payment that gave rise to the delinquency or the default. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date paid.</I> Any payment of withdrawal liability shall be deemed to have been paid on the date on which it is received. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4219.33" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.31.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4219.33   Plan rules concerning overdue and defaulted withdrawal liability.</HEAD>
<P>Plans may adopt rules relating to overdue and defaulted withdrawal liability, provided that those rules are consistent with ERISA. These rules may include, but are not limited to, rules for determining the rate of interest to be charged on overdue, defaulted and overpaid withdrawal liability (provided that the rate reflects prevailing market rates for comparable obligations); rules providing reasonable grace periods during which late payments may be made without interest; additional definitions of default which indicate a substantial likelihood that an employer will be unable to pay its withdrawal liability; and rules pertaining to acceleration of the outstanding balance on default. Plan rules adopted under this section shall be reasonable. Plan rules shall operate and be applied uniformly with respect to each employer, except that the rules may take into account the creditworthiness of an employer. Rules which take into account the creditworthiness of an employer shall state with particularity the categories of creditworthiness the plan will use, the specific differences in treatment accorded employers in different categories, and the standards and procedures for assigning an employer to a category. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4220" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4220—PROCEDURES FOR PBGC APPROVAL OF PLAN AMENDMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1400. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34108, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4220.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.32.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4220.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part establishes procedures under which a plan sponsor shall request the PBGC to approve a plan amendment under section 4220 of ERISA. This part applies to all multiemployer plans covered by title IV of ERISA that adopt amendments pursuant to the authorization of sections 4201-4219 of ERISA (except for amendments adopted pursuant to section 4211(c)(5)). (The covered amendments are set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.) The subsequent modification of a plan amendment adopted by authorization of those sections is also covered by this part. This part does not, however, cover a plan amendment that merely repeals a previously adopted amendment, returning the plan to the statutorily prescribed rule. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered amendments.</I> Amendments made pursuant to the following sections of ERISA are covered by this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) Section 4203 (b)(1)(B)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(2) Section 4203(c)(4). 
</P>
<P>(3) Section 4205(c)(1). 
</P>
<P>(4) Section 4205(d). 
</P>
<P>(5) Section 4209(b). 
</P>
<P>(6) Section 4210(b)(2). 
</P>
<P>(7) Section 4211(c)(1). 
</P>
<P>(8) Section 4211(c)(4)(D). 
</P>
<P>(9) Section 4211(d)(1). 
</P>
<P>(10) Section 4211(d)(2). 
</P>
<P>(11) Section 4219(c)(1)(C)(ii)(I). 
</P>
<P>(12) Section 4219(c)(1)(C)(iii). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception.</I> Submission of a request for approval under this part is not required for a plan amendment for which the PBGC has published a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> granting class approval. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4220.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.32.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4220.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: employer, ERISA, IRS, multiemployer plan, PBGC, plan, and plan sponsor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4220.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.32.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4220.3   Requests for PBGC approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of request</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A request for approval of an amendment filed with the PBGC in accordance with this section shall constitute notice to the PBGC for purposes of the 90-day period specified in section 4220 of ERISA. A request is treated as filed on the date on which a request containing all information required by paragraph (d) of this section is received by the PBGC. Subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter provides rules for determining when the PBGC receives a submission. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may request.</I> The plan sponsor, or a duly authorized representative acting on behalf of a plan sponsor, shall sign and submit the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information.</I> Each request filed shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan for which the amendment is being submitted, and the name, address and the telephone number of the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(2) The nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) assigned by the IRS to the plan sponsor and the three-digit Plan Identification Number (PIN) assigned by the plan sponsor to the plan, and, if different, the EIN or PIN last filed with PBGC. If no EIN or PIN has been assigned, that fact must be indicated. 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the amendment as adopted, including its proposed effective date. 
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the most recent actuarial valuation of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement containing a certification that notice of the adoption of the amendment has been given to all employers who have an obligation to contribute under the plan and to all employee organizations representing employees covered by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any other information that the plan sponsor believes to be pertinent to its request. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supplemental information.</I> The PBGC may require a plan sponsor to submit any other information that the PBGC determines to be necessary to review a request under this part. The PBGC may suspend the running of the 90-day period pursuant to § 4220.4(c), pending the submission of the supplemental information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Computation of time.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34108, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61356, Oct. 28, 2003; 90 FR 39329, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4220.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.32.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4220.4   PBGC action on requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Upon receipt of a complete request, the PBGC shall notify the plan sponsor in writing of the date of commencement of the 90-day period specified in section 4220 of ERISA. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the PBGC shall approve or disapprove a plan amendment submitted to it under this part within 90 days after receipt of a complete request for approval. If the PBGC fails to act within the 90-day period, or within that period notifies the plan sponsor that it will not disapprove the amendment, the amendment may be made effective without the approval of the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision on request.</I> The PBGC's decision on a request for approval shall be in writing. If the PBGC disapproves the plan amendment, the decision shall state the reasons for the disapproval. An approval by the PBGC constitutes its finding only with respect to the issue of risk as set forth in section 4220(c) of ERISA, and not with respect to whether the amendment is otherwise properly adopted in accordance with the terms of ERISA and the plan in question. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Suspension of the 90-day period.</I> The PBGC may suspend the running of the 90-day period referred to in paragraph (a) of this section if it determines that additional information is required under § 4220.3(e). When it does so, PBGC's request for additional information will advise the plan sponsor that the running of 90-day period has been suspended. The 90-day period will resume running on the date on which the additional information is received by the PBGC, and the PBGC will notify the plan sponsor of that date upon receipt of the information. 


</P>
<P> 
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4221" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4221—ARBITRATION OF DISPUTES IN MULTIEMPLOYER PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1401. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34109, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4221.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to establish procedures for the arbitration, pursuant to section 4221 of ERISA, of withdrawal liability disputes arising under sections 4201 through 4219 and 4225 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to arbitration proceedings initiated pursuant to section 4221 of ERISA and this part on or after September 26, 1985. On and after the effective date, any plan rules governing arbitration procedures (other than a plan rule adopting a PBGC-approved arbitration procedure in accordance with § 4221.14) are effective only to the extent that they are consistent with this part and adopted by the arbitrator in a particular proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: ERISA, IRS, multiemployer plan, PBGC, plan, and plan sponsor. 
</P>
<P>In addition, for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Arbitrator</I> means an individual or panel of individuals selected according to this part to decide a dispute concerning withdrawal liability. 
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means an individual, partnership, corporation or other entity against which a plan sponsor has made a demand for payment of withdrawal liability pursuant to section 4219(b)(1) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> or <I>parties</I> means the employer and the plan sponsor involved in a withdrawal liability dispute. 
</P>
<P><I>Withdrawal liability dispute</I> means a dispute described in § 4221.1(a) of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.3   Initiation of arbitration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time limits—in general.</I> Arbitration of a withdrawal liability dispute may be initiated within the time limits described in section 4221(a)(1) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver or extension of time limits.</I> Arbitration shall be initiated in accordance with this section, notwithstanding any inconsistent provision of any agreement entered into by the parties before the date on which the employer received notice of the plan's assessment of withdrawal liability. The parties may, however, agree at any time to waive or extend the time limits for initiating arbitration. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Establishment of timeliness of initiation.</I> A party that unilaterally initiates arbitration is responsible for establishing that the notice of initiation of arbitration was timely received by the other party. If arbitration is initiated by agreement of the parties, the date on which the agreement to arbitrate was executed establishes whether the arbitration was timely initiated. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents of agreement or notice.</I> If the employer initiates arbitration, it shall include in the notice of initiation a statement that it disputes the plan sponsor's determination of its withdrawal liability and is initiating arbitration. A copy of the demand for withdrawal liability and any request for reconsideration, and the response thereto, shall be attached to the notice. If a party other than an employer initiates arbitration, it shall include in the notice a statement that it is initiating arbitration and a brief description of the questions on which arbitration is sought. If arbitration is initiated by agreement, the agreement shall include a brief description of the questions submitted to arbitration. In no case is compliance with formal rules of pleading required. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of deficient agreement or notice.</I> If a party fails to object promptly in writing to deficiencies in an initiation agreement or a notice of initiation of arbitration, it waives its right to object. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.4   Appointment of the arbitrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appointment of and acceptance by arbitrator.</I> The parties shall select the arbitrator within 45 days after the arbitration is initiated, or within such other period as is mutually agreed after the initiation of arbitration, and shall mail to the designated arbitrator a notice of his or her appointment. The notice of appointment shall include a copy of the notice or agreement initiating arbitration, a statement that the arbitration is to be conducted in accordance with this part, and a request for a written acceptance by the arbitrator. The arbitrator's appointment becomes effective upon his or her written acceptance, stating his or her availability to serve and making any disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section. If the arbitrator does not accept in writing within 15 days after the notice of appointment is mailed or delivered to him or her, he or she is deemed to have declined to act, and the parties shall select a new arbitrator in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure by arbitrator and disqualification.</I> Upon accepting the appointment, the arbitrator shall disclose to the parties any circumstances likely to affect his or her impartiality, including any bias or any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration and any past or present relationship with the parties or their counsel. If any party determines that the arbitrator should be disqualified because of the information disclosed, that party shall notify all other parties and the arbitrator no later than 10 days after the arbitrator makes the disclosure required by this paragraph (but in no event later than the commencement of the hearing under § 4221.6). The arbitrator shall then withdraw, and the parties shall select another arbitrator in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Challenge and withdrawal.</I> After the arbitrator has been selected, a party may request that he or she withdraw from the proceedings at any point before a final award is rendered on the ground that he or she is unable to render an award impartially. The request for withdrawal shall be served on all other parties and the arbitrator by hand or by certified or registered mail (or by any other method that includes verification or acknowledgment of receipt and meets (if applicable) the requirements of § 4000.14 of this chapter) and shall include a statement of the circumstances that, in the requesting party's view, affect the arbitrator's impartiality and a statement that the requesting party has brought these circumstances to the attention of the arbitrator and the other parties at the earliest practicable point in the proceedings. If the arbitrator determines that the circumstances adduced are likely to affect his or her impartiality and have been presented in a timely fashion, he or she shall withdraw from the proceedings and notify the parties of the reasons for his or her withdrawal. The parties shall then select a new arbitrator in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filling vacancies.</I> If the designated arbitrator declines his or her appointment or, after accepting his or her appointment, is disqualified, resigns, dies, withdraws, or is unable to perform his or her duties at any time before a final award is rendered, the parties shall select another arbitrator to fill the vacancy. The selection shall be made, in accordance with the procedure used in the initial selection, within 20 days after the parties receive notice of the vacancy. The matter shall then be reheard by the newly chosen arbitrator, who may, in his or her discretion, rely on all or any portion of the record already established.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to select arbitrator.</I> If the parties fail to select an arbitrator within the time prescribed by this section, either party or both may seek the designation and appointment of an arbitrator in a United States district court pursuant to the provisions of title 9 of the United States Code. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34109, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61356, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.5   Powers and duties of the arbitrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Arbitration hearing.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, the arbitrator shall conduct the arbitration hearing under § 4221.6 in the same manner, and shall possess the same powers, as an arbitrator conducting a proceeding under title 9 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Application of the law.</I> In reaching his or her decision, the arbitrator shall follow applicable law, as embodied in statutes, regulations, court decisions, interpretations of the agencies charged with the enforcement of ERISA, and other pertinent authorities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prehearing discovery.</I> The arbitrator may allow any party to conduct prehearing discovery by interrogatories, depositions, requests for the production of documents, or other means, upon a showing that the discovery sought is likely to lead to the production of relevant evidence and will not be disproportionately burdensome to the other parties. The arbitrator may impose appropriate sanctions if he or she determines that a party has failed to respond to discovery in good faith or has conducted discovery proceedings in bad faith or for the purpose of harassment. The arbitrator may, at the request of any party or on his or her own motion, require parties to give advance notice of expert or other witnesses that they intend to introduce.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Admissibility of evidence.</I> The arbitrator determines the relevance and materiality of the evidence offered during the course of the hearing and is the judge of the admissibility of evidence offered. Conformity to legal rules of evidence is not necessary. To the extent reasonably practicable, all evidence shall be taken in the presence of the arbitrator and the parties. The arbitrator may, however, consider affidavits, transcripts of depositions, and similar documents.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Production of documents or other evidence.</I> The arbitrator may subpoena witnesses or documents upon his or her own initiative or upon request by any party after determining that the evidence is likely to be relevant to the dispute.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conference.</I> If it appears that a prehearing conference will expedite the proceedings, the arbitrator may, at any time before the commencement of the arbitration hearing under § 4221.6, direct the parties to appear at a conference to consider settlement of the case, clarification of issues and stipulation of facts not in dispute, admission of documents to avoid unnecessary proof, limitations on the number of expert or other witnesses, and any other matters that could expedite the disposition of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proceeding without hearing.</I> The arbitrator may render an award without a hearing if the parties agree and file with the arbitrator such evidence as the arbitrator deems necessary to enable him or her to render an award under § 4221.8. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.6   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time and place of hearing established.</I> Unless the parties agree to proceed without a hearing as provided in § 4221.5(c), the parties and the arbitrator shall, no later than 15 days after the written acceptance by the arbitrator is mailed to the parties, establish a date and place for the hearing. If agreement is not reached within the 15-day period, the arbitrator shall, within 10 additional days, choose a location and set a hearing date. The date set for the hearing may be no later than 50 days after the mailing date of the arbitrator's written acceptance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> After the time and place for the hearing have been established, the arbitrator shall serve a written notice of the hearing on the parties by hand, by certified or registered mail, or by any other method that includes verification or acknowledgment of receipt and meets (if applicable) the requirements of § 4000.14 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appearances.</I> The parties may appear in person or by counsel or other representatives. Any party that, after being duly notified and without good cause shown, fails to appear in person or by representative at a hearing or conference, or fails to file documents in a timely manner, is deemed to have waived all rights with respect thereto and is subject to whatever orders or determinations the arbitrator may make. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record and transcript of hearing.</I> Upon the request of either party, the arbitrator shall arrange for a record of the arbitration hearing to be made by stenographic means or by tape recording. The cost of making the record and the costs of transcription and copying are costs of the arbitration proceedings payable as provided in § 4221.10(b) except that, if only one party requests that a transcript of the record be made, that party shall pay the cost of the transcript.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Order of hearing.</I> The arbitrator shall conduct the hearing in accordance with the following rules:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Opening.</I> The arbitrator shall open the hearing and place in the record the notice of initiation of arbitration or the initiation agreement. The arbitrator may ask for statements clarifying the issues involved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presentation of claim and response.</I> The arbitrator shall establish the procedure for presentation of claim and response in such a manner as to afford full and equal opportunity to all parties for the presentation of their cases.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Witnesses.</I> All witnesses shall testify under oath or affirmation and are subject to cross-examination by opposing parties. If testimony of an expert witness is offered by a party without prior notice to the other party, the arbitrator shall grant the other party a reasonable time to prepare for cross-examination and to produce expert witnesses on its own behalf. The arbitrator may on his or her own initiative call expert witnesses on any issue raised in the arbitration. The cost of any expert called by the arbitrator is a cost of the proceedings payable as provided in § 4221.10(b).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuance of hearing.</I> The arbitrator may, for good cause shown, grant a continuance for a reasonable period. When granting a continuance, the arbitrator shall set a date for resumption of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Filing of briefs.</I> Each party may file a written statement of facts and argument supporting the party's position. The parties' briefs are due no later than 30 days after the close of the hearing. Within 15 days thereafter, each party may file a reply brief concerning matters contained in the opposing brief. The arbitrator may establish a briefing schedule and may reduce or extend these time limits. Each party shall deliver copies of all of its briefs to the arbitrator and to all opposing parties. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34109, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61356, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.7   Reopening of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for reopening.</I> At any time before a final award is rendered, the proceedings may be reopened, on the motion of the arbitrator or at the request of any party, for the purpose of taking further evidence or rehearing or rearguing any matter, if the arbitrator determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) The reopening is likely to result in new information that will have a material effect on the outcome of the arbitration;
</P>
<P>(2) Good cause exists for the failure of the party that requested reopening to present such information at the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(3) The delay caused by the reopening will not be unfairly injurious to any party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comments on and notice of reopening.</I> The arbitrator shall allow all affected parties the opportunity to comment on any motion or request to reopen the proceedings. If he or she determines that the proceedings should be reopened, he or she shall give all parties written notice of the reasons for reopening and of the schedule of the reopened proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.8   Award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> The arbitrator shall render a written award that—
</P>
<P>(1) States the basis for the award, including such findings of fact and conclusions of law (which need not be explicitly designated as such) as are necessary to resolve the dispute;
</P>
<P>(2) Adjusts (or provides a method for adjusting) the amount or schedule of payments to be made after the award to reflect overpayments or underpayments made before the award was rendered or requires the plan sponsor to refund overpayments in accordance with § 4219.31(d); and
</P>
<P>(3) Provides for an allocation of costs in accordance with § 4221.10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time of award.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the arbitrator shall render the award no later than 30 days after the proceedings close. The award is rendered when filed or served on the parties as provided in § 4221.13. The award is final when the period for seeking modification or reconsideration in accordance with § 4221.9(a) has expired or the arbitrator has rendered a revised award in accordance with § 4221.9(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reopened proceedings.</I> If the proceedings are reopened in accordance with § 4221.7 after the close of the hearing, the arbitrator shall render the award no later than 30 days after the date on which the reopened proceedings are closed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Absence of hearing.</I> If the parties have chosen to proceed without a hearing, the arbitrator shall render the award no later than 30 days after the date on which final statements and proofs are filed with him or her.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreement for extension of time.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b), (c), and (d), the parties may agree to an extension of time for the arbitrator's award in light of the particular facts and circumstances of their dispute. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Close of proceedings.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the proceedings are closed on the date on which the last brief or reply brief is due or, if no briefs are to be filed, on the date on which the hearing or rehearing closes. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Publication of award.</I> After a final award has been rendered, the plan sponsor shall make copies available upon request to the PBGC and to all companies that contribute to the plan. The plan sponsor may impose reasonable charges for copying and postage. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.9   Reconsideration of award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motion for reconsideration and objections.</I> A party may seek modification or reconsideration of the arbitrator's award by filing a written motion with the arbitrator and all opposing parties within 20 days after the award is rendered. Opposing parties may file objections to modification or reconsideration within 10 days after the motion is filed. The filing of a written motion for modification or reconsideration suspends the 30-day period under section 4221(b)(2) of ERISA for requesting court review of the award. The 30-day statutory period again begins to run when the arbitrator denies the motion pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section or renders a revised award. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for modification or reconsideration.</I> The arbitrator may grant a motion for modification or reconsideration of the award only if— 
</P>
<P>(1) There is a numerical error or a mistake in the description of any person, thing, or property referred to in the award; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The arbitrator has rendered an award upon a matter not submitted to the arbitrator and the matter affects the merits of the decision; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The award is imperfect in a matter of form not affecting the merits of the dispute. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision of arbitrator.</I> The arbitrator shall grant or deny the motion for modification or reconsideration, and may render an opinion to support his or her decision within 20 days after the motion is filed with the arbitrator, or within 30 days after the motion is filed if an objection is also filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.10   Costs.</HEAD>
<P>The costs of arbitration under this part shall be borne by the parties as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Witnesses.</I> Each party to the dispute shall bear the costs of its own witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other costs of arbitration.</I> Except as provided in § 4221.6(d) with respect to a transcript of the hearing, the parties shall bear the other costs of the arbitration proceedings equally unless the arbitrator determines otherwise. The parties may, however, agree to a different allocation of costs if their agreement is entered into after the employer has received notice of the plan's assessment of withdrawal liability. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attorneys' fees.</I> The arbitrator may require a party that initiates or contests an arbitration in bad faith or engages in dilatory, harassing, or other improper conduct during the course of the arbitration to pay reasonable attorneys' fees of other parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.11   Waiver of rules.</HEAD>
<P>Any party that fails to object in writing in a timely manner to any deviation from any provision of this part is deemed to have waived the right to interpose that objection thereafter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.12   Calculation of periods of time.</HEAD>
<P>The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61356, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.13   Filing and issuance rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method and date of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method and date of issuance.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance under this part. The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that an issuance under this part was provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61356, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4221.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.21.33.0.25.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4221.14   PBGC-approved arbitration procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of PBGC-approved arbitration procedures.</I> In lieu of the procedures prescribed by this part, an arbitration may be conducted in accordance with an alternative arbitration procedure approved by the PBGC in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. A plan may by plan amendment require the use of a PBGC-approved procedure for all arbitrations of withdrawal liability disputes, or the parties may agree to the use of a PBGC-approved procedure in a particular case. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of alternative procedures.</I> If an arbitration is conducted in accordance with a PBGC-approved arbitration procedure, the alternative procedure shall govern all aspects of the arbitration, with the following exceptions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The time limits for the initiation of arbitration may not differ from those provided for by § 4221.3. 
</P>
<P>(2) The arbitrator shall be selected after the initiation of the arbitration. 
</P>
<P>(3) The arbitrator shall give the parties opportunity for prehearing discovery substantially equivalent to that provided by § 4221.5(a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(4) The award shall be made available to the public to at least the extent provided by § 4221.8(g). 
</P>
<P>(5) The costs of arbitration shall be allocated in accordance with § 4221.10. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure for approval of alternative procedures.</I> The PBGC may approve arbitration procedures on its own initiative by publishing an appropriate notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The sponsor of an arbitration procedure may request PBGC approval of its procedures by submitting an application to the PBGC. The application shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the procedures for which approval is sought; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the history, structure and membership of the organization that sponsors the procedures; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A discussion of the reasons why, in the sponsoring organization's opinion, the procedures satisfy the criteria for approval set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Criteria for approval of alternative procedures.</I> The PBGC shall approve an application if it determines that the proposed procedures will be substantially fair to all parties involved in the arbitration of a withdrawal liability dispute and that the sponsoring organization is neutral and able to carry out its role under the procedures. The PBGC may request comments on the application by publishing an appropriate notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Notice of the PBGC's decision on the application shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Unless the notice of approval specifies otherwise, approval will remain effective until revoked by the PBGC through a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34109, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61356, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="J" NODE="29:9.1.4.22" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER J—INSOLVENCY, TERMINATION, AND OTHER RULES APPLICABLE TO MULTIEMPLOYER PLANS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4231" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4231—MERGERS AND TRANSFERS BETWEEN MULTIEMPLOYER PLANS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3)
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 46653, Sept. 14, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to prescribe notice requirements under section 4231 of ERISA for mergers and transfers of assets or liabilities among multiemployer pension plans. This part also interprets the other requirements of section 4231 of ERISA and prescribes special rules for de minimis mergers and transfers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to mergers and transfers among multiemployer plans where all of the plans immediately before and immediately after the transaction are multiemployer plans covered by title IV of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional requirements.</I> Subpart B of this part sets forth the additional requirements for and procedures specific to a request for a facilitated merger.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: <I>annuity, Code, EIN, ERISA, fair market value, guaranteed benefit, IRS, multiemployer plan, normal retirement age, PBGC, plan, plan sponsor, plan year,</I> and <I>PN.</I> In addition, the following terms are defined for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Actuarial valuation</I> means a valuation of assets and liabilities performed by an enrolled actuary using the actuarial assumptions used for purposes of determining the charges and credits to the funding standard account under section 304 of ERISA and section 431 of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Advocate</I> means the Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate under section 4004 of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Critical and declining status</I> has the same meaning as the term has under section 305(b)(6) of ERISA and section 432(b)(6) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Critical status</I> has the same meaning as the term has under section 305(b)(2) of ERISA and section 432(b)(2) of the Code, and includes “critical and declining status” as defined in section 305(b)(6) of ERISA and section 432(b)(6) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>De minimis merger</I> is defined in § 4231.7(b).
</P>
<P><I>De minimis transfer</I> is defined in § 4231.7(c).
</P>
<P><I>Effective date</I> means, with respect to a merger or transfer, the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date on which one plan assumes liability for benefits accrued under another plan involved in the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which one plan transfers assets to another plan involved in the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Facilitated merger</I> means a merger of two or more multiemployer plans facilitated by PBGC under section 4231(e) of ERISA, including a merger that is facilitated with financial assistance under section 4231(e)(2) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Fair market value of assets</I> has the same meaning as the term has for minimum funding purposes under section 304 of ERISA and section 431 of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Financial assistance</I> means periodic or lump sum financial assistance payments from PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Financial assistance merger</I> means a merger facilitated by PBGC for which PBGC provides financial assistance (within the meaning of section 4261 of ERISA) under section 4231(e)(2) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Insolvent</I> has the same meaning as insolvent under section 4245(b) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Merged plan</I> means a plan that is the result of the merger of two or more multiemployer plans.
</P>
<P><I>Merger</I> means the combining of two or more plans into a single plan. For example, a consolidation of two plans into a new plan is a merger.
</P>
<P><I>Significantly affected plan</I> means a plan that—
</P>
<P>(1) Transfers assets that equal or exceed 15 percent of its assets before the transfer,
</P>
<P>(2) Receives a transfer of unfunded accrued benefits that equal or exceed 15 percent of its assets before the transfer,
</P>
<P>(3) Is created by a spinoff from another plan, or
</P>
<P>(4) Engages in a merger or transfer (other than a de minimis merger or transfer) either—
</P>
<P>(i) After such plan has terminated by mass withdrawal under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA, or
</P>
<P>(ii) With another plan that has so terminated.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer</I> and <I>transfer of assets or liabilities</I> mean a diminution of assets or liabilities with respect to one plan and the acquisition of these assets or the assumption of these liabilities by another plan or plans (including a plan that did not exist prior to the transfer). However, the shifting of assets or liabilities pursuant to a written reciprocity agreement between two multiemployer plans in which one plan assumes liabilities of another plan is not a transfer of assets or liabilities. In addition, the shifting of assets between several funding media used for a single plan (such as between trusts, between annuity contracts, or between trusts and annuity contracts) is not a transfer of assets or liabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Unfunded accrued benefits</I> means the excess of the present value of a plan's accrued benefits over the plan's fair market value of assets, determined on the basis of the actuarial valuation required under § 4231.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.3   Requirements for mergers and transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> A plan sponsor may not cause a multiemployer plan to merge with one or more multiemployer plans or transfer assets or liabilities to or from another multiemployer plan unless the merger or transfer satisfies all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) No participant's or beneficiary's accrued benefit is lower immediately after the effective date of the merger or transfer than the benefit immediately before that date (except as provided under § 4231.4(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) Actuarial valuations of the plans that existed before the merger or transfer have been performed in accordance with § 4231.5.
</P>
<P>(3) For each plan that exists after the transaction, an enrolled actuary—
</P>
<P>(i) Determines that the plan meets the applicable plan solvency requirement set forth in § 4231.6; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Otherwise demonstrates that benefits under the plan are not reasonably expected to be subject to suspension under section 4245 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(4) The plan sponsor notifies PBGC of the merger or transfer in accordance with §§ 4231.8 and 4231.9.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance determination.</I> If a plan sponsor requests a determination that a merger or transfer that may otherwise be prohibited by section 406(a) or (b)(2) of ERISA satisfies the requirements of section 4231 of ERISA, the plan sponsor must submit the information described in § 4231.10 in addition to the information required by § 4231.9. PBGC may request additional information if necessary to determine whether a merger or transfer complies with the requirements of section 4231 and subpart A of this part. Plan sponsors are not required to request a compliance determination. Under section 4231(c) of ERISA, if PBGC determines that the merger or transfer complies with section 4231 of ERISA and subpart A of this part, the merger or transfer will not constitute a violation of the prohibited transaction provisions of section 406(a) and (b)(2) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certified change in bargaining representative.</I> Transfers of assets and liabilities pursuant to a change of collective bargaining representative certified under the Labor-Management Relations Act of 1947 or the Railway Labor Act, as amended, are governed by section 4235 of ERISA. Plan sponsors involved in such transfers are not required to comply with subpart A of this part. However, under section 4235(f)(1) of ERISA, the plan sponsors of the plans involved in the transfer may agree to a transfer that complies with sections 4231 and 4234 of ERISA. Plan sponsors that elect to comply with sections 4231 and 4234 of ERISA must comply with the rules in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Informal consultation.</I> A plan sponsor may contact PBGC on an informal basis to discuss a potential merger or transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.4   Preservation of accrued benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Section 4231(b)(2) of ERISA and § 4231.3(a)(1) require that no participant's or beneficiary's accrued benefit may be lower immediately after the effective date of the merger or transfer than the benefit immediately before the merger or transfer. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a plan that assumes an obligation to pay benefits for a group of participants satisfies this requirement only if the plan contains a provision preserving all accrued benefits. The determination of what is an accrued benefit must be made in accordance with section 411 of the Code and the regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver.</I> PBGC may waive the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, § 4231.3(a)(1), and section 4231(b)(2) of ERISA to the extent the accrued benefit is suspended under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA contemporaneously with the merger or transfer. If waived, the plan provision described under paragraph (a) of this section may exclude accrued benefits only to the extent those benefits are suspended under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA contemporaneously with the merger or transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.5   Valuation requirement.</HEAD>
<P>The actuarial valuation requirement under section 4231(b)(4) of ERISA and § 4231.3(a)(2) is satisfied if an actuarial valuation has been performed for the plan based on the plan's assets and liabilities as of a date not earlier than the first day of the last plan year ending before the proposed effective date of the transaction. If the actuarial valuation required under this section is not complete when the notice of merger or transfer is filed, the plan sponsor may provide the most recent actuarial valuation for the plan with the notice, and the actuarial valuation required under this section when complete. For a significantly affected plan involved in a transfer (other than a plan that is a significantly affected plan only because the transfer involves a plan that has terminated by mass withdrawal under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA), the valuation must separately identify assets, contributions, and liabilities being transferred and must be based on the actuarial assumptions and methods that are expected to be used for the plan for the first plan year beginning after the transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.6   Plan solvency tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For a plan that is not a significantly affected plan, the plan solvency requirement of section 4231(b)(3) of ERISA and § 4231.3(a)(3)(i) is satisfied if—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan's expected fair market value of assets immediately after the merger or transfer equals or exceeds five times the benefit payments for the last plan year ending before the proposed effective date of the merger or transfer; or
</P>
<P>(2) In each of the first five plan years beginning on or after the proposed effective date of the merger or transfer, the plan's expected fair market value of assets as of the beginning of the plan year plus expected contributions and investment earnings equal or exceed expected expenses and benefit payments for the plan year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significantly affected plans.</I> The plan solvency requirement of section 4231(b)(3) of ERISA and § 4231.3(a)(3)(i) is satisfied for a significantly affected plan if all of the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) Expected contributions equal or exceed the estimated amount necessary to satisfy the minimum funding requirement of section 431 of the Code for the five plan years beginning on or after the proposed effective date of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan's expected fair market value of assets immediately after the transaction equals or exceeds the total amount of expected benefit payments for the first five plan years beginning on or after the proposed effective date of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) Expected contributions for the first plan year beginning on or after the proposed effective date of the transaction equal or exceed expected benefit payments for that plan year.
</P>
<P>(4) Expected contributions for the amortization period equal or exceed the unfunded accrued benefits plus expected normal costs for the period. The enrolled actuary may select as the amortization period either—
</P>
<P>(i) The first 25 plan years beginning on or after the proposed effective date of the transaction, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The amortization period for the resulting base when the combined charge base and the combined credit base are offset under section 431(b)(5) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rules for determinations.</I> In determining whether a transaction satisfies the plan solvency requirements set forth in this section, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Expected contributions after a merger or transfer must be determined by assuming that contributions for each plan year will equal contributions for the last full plan year ending before the date on which the notice of merger or transfer is filed with PBGC. If expected contributions include withdrawal liability payments, such payments must be shown separately. If the withdrawal liability payments are not the assessed amounts, or are not in accordance with the schedule of payments, or include future assessments, include the basis for such differences, with supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and methods. In addition, contributions must be adjusted to reflect—
</P>
<P>(i) The merger or transfer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any change in the rate of employer contributions that has been negotiated (whether or not in effect); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any trend of changing contribution base units over the preceding five plan years or other period of time that can be demonstrated to be more appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) Expected normal costs must be determined under the funding method and assumptions expected to be used by the plan actuary for purposes of determining the minimum funding requirement under section 431 of the Code. If an aggregate funding method is used for the plan, normal costs must be determined under the entry age normal method.
</P>
<P>(3) Expected benefit payments must be determined by assuming that current benefits remain in effect and that all scheduled increases in benefits occur.
</P>
<P>(4) The plan's expected fair market value of assets immediately after the merger or transfer must be based on the most recent data available immediately before the date on which the notice is filed.
</P>
<P>(5) Expected investment earnings must be determined using the same interest assumption to be used for determining the minimum funding requirement under section 431 of the Code.
</P>
<P>(6) Expected expenses must be determined using expenses in the last plan year ending before the notice is filed, adjusted to reflect any anticipated changes.
</P>
<P>(7) Expected plan assets for a plan year must be determined by adjusting the most current data on the plan's fair market value of assets to reflect expected contributions, investment earnings, benefit payments and expenses for each plan year between the date of the most current data and the beginning of the plan year for which expected assets are being determined.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.7   De minimis mergers and transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special plan solvency rule.</I> The determination of whether a de minimis merger or transfer satisfies the plan solvency requirement in § 4231.6(a) may be made without regard to any other de minimis mergers or transfers that have occurred since the most recent actuarial valuation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>De minimis merger defined.</I> A merger is de minimis if the present value of accrued benefits (whether or not vested) of one plan is less than 3 percent of the other plan's fair market value of assets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>De minimis transfer defined.</I> A transfer of assets or liabilities is de minimis if—
</P>
<P>(1) The fair market value of assets transferred, if any, is less than 3 percent of the fair market value of assets of all of the transferor plan's assets;
</P>
<P>(2) The present value of the accrued benefits transferred (whether or not vested) is less than 3 percent of the fair market value of assets of all of the transferee plan's assets; and
</P>
<P>(3) The transferee plan is not a plan that has terminated under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Value of assets and benefits.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the value of plan assets and accrued benefits may be determined as of any date prior to the proposed effective date of the transaction, but not earlier than the date of the most recent actuarial valuation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Aggregation required.</I> In determining whether a merger or transfer is de minimis, the assets and accrued benefits transferred in previous de minimis mergers and transfers within the same plan year must be aggregated as described in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section. For the purposes of those paragraphs, the value of plan assets may be determined as of the date during the plan year on which the total value of the plan's assets is the highest.
</P>
<P>(1) A merger is not de minimis if the total present value of accrued benefits merged into a plan, when aggregated with all prior de minimis mergers of and transfers to that plan effective within the same plan year, equals or exceeds 3 percent of the value of the plan's assets.
</P>
<P>(2) A transfer is not de minimis if, when aggregated with all previous de minimis mergers and transfers effective within the same plan year—
</P>
<P>(i) The value of all assets transferred from a plan equals or exceeds 3 percent of the value of the plan's assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The present value of all accrued benefits transferred to a plan equals or exceeds 3 percent of the plan's assets.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.8   Filing requirements; timing and method of filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When to file.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, a notice of a proposed merger or transfer, and, if applicable, a request for a compliance determination or facilitated merger (which may be filed separately or combined), must be filed not less than the following number of days before the proposed effective date of the transaction—
</P>
<P>(1) 270 days in the case of a facilitated merger under § 4231.12;
</P>
<P>(2) 120 days in the case of a merger (other than a facilitated merger) for which a compliance determination under § 4231.10 is requested, or a transfer; or
</P>
<P>(3) 45 days in the case of a merger for which a compliance determination under § 4231.10 is not requested.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of filing.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Computation of time.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period for filing under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Who must file.</I> The plan sponsors of all plans involved in a merger or transfer, or the duly authorized representative(s) acting on behalf of the plan sponsors, must jointly file the notice required by subpart A of this part, and, if applicable, a request for a facilitated merger under § 4231.12.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Date of filing.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date a submission under this part was filed with PBGC. For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the notice, and, if applicable, a request for a compliance determination or facilitated merger, is not considered filed until all of the information required under this part has been submitted.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Waiver of timing of notice.</I> PBGC may waive the timing requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and section 4231(b)(1) of ERISA if—
</P>
<P>(1) A plan sponsor demonstrates to the satisfaction of PBGC that failure to complete the merger or transfer in less than the applicable notice period set forth in paragraph (a) of this section will cause harm to participants or beneficiaries of the plans involved in the transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) PBGC determines that the transaction complies with the requirements of section 4231 of ERISA; or
</P>
<P>(3) PBGC completes its review of the transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.9   Notice of merger or transfer.</HEAD>
<P>Each notice of proposed merger or transfer required under section 4231(b)(1) of ERISA and this subpart must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) For each plan involved in the merger or transfer—
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address and telephone number of the plan sponsor and of the plan sponsor's duly authorized representative, if any; and
</P>
<P>(3) The plan sponsor's EIN and the plan's PN and, if different, the EIN or PN last filed with PBGC. If no EIN or PN has been assigned, the notice must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(b) Whether the transaction being reported is a merger or transfer, whether it involves any plan that has terminated under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA, whether any significantly affected plan is involved in the transaction (and, if so, identifying each such plan), and whether it is a de minimis transaction as defined in § 4231.7 (and, if so, including an enrolled actuary's certification to that effect).
</P>
<P>(c) The proposed effective date of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided under § 4231.4(b), a copy of each plan provision stating that no participant's or beneficiary's accrued benefit will be lower immediately after the effective date of the merger or transfer than the benefit immediately before that date.
</P>
<P>(e) For each plan that exists after the transaction, one of the following statements, certified by an enrolled actuary:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the plan satisfies the applicable plan solvency test set forth in § 4231.6, indicating which is the applicable test, and including the supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and methods.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis on which the actuary has determined under § 4231.3(a)(3)(ii) that benefits under the plan are not reasonably expected to be subject to suspension under section 4245 of ERISA, including the supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and methods.
</P>
<P>(f) For each plan that exists before a transaction (unless the transaction is de minimis and does not involve either a request for financial assistance, or any plan that has terminated under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA), a copy of the most recent actuarial valuation report that satisfies the requirements of § 4231.5.
</P>
<P>(g) For each significantly affected plan that exists after the transaction, the following information used in making the plan solvency determination under § 4231.6(b):
</P>
<P>(1) The present value of the accrued benefits and plan's fair market value of assets under the valuation required by § 4231.5, allocable to the plan after the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) The fair market value of assets in the plan after the transaction (determined in accordance with § 4231.6(c)(4)).
</P>
<P>(3) The expected benefit payments for the plan for the first plan year beginning on or after the proposed effective date of the transaction (determined in accordance with § 4231.6(c)(3)).
</P>
<P>(4) The contribution rates in effect for the plan for the first plan year beginning on or after the proposed effective date of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) The expected contributions for the plan for the first plan year beginning on or after the proposed effective date of the transaction (determined in accordance with § 4231.6(c)(1)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.10   Request for compliance determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The plan sponsor(s) of one or more plans involved in a merger or transfer, or the duly authorized representative(s) acting on behalf of the plan sponsor(s), may file a request for a determination that the transaction complies with the requirements of section 4231 of ERISA. If the plan sponsor(s) requests a compliance determination, the request must be filed with the notice of merger or transfer under § 4231.3(a)(4), and must contain the information described in paragraph (c) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Single request permitted for all de minimis transactions.</I> A plan sponsor may submit a single request for a compliance determination covering all de minimis mergers or transfers that occur between one plan valuation and the next. However, the plan sponsor must still notify PBGC of each de minimis merger or transfer separately, in accordance with §§ 4231.8 and 4231.9. The single request for a compliance determination may be filed concurrently with any one of the notices of a de minimis merger or transfer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request for a compliance determination concerning a merger or transfer that is not de minimis must contain—
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the merger or transfer agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each significantly affected plan, other than a plan that is a significantly affected plan only because the merger or transfer involves a plan that has terminated by mass withdrawal under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA, copies of all actuarial valuations performed within the 5 years preceding the date of filing the notice required under § 4231.3(a)(4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.1.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.11   Actuarial calculations and assumptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Most recent valuation.</I> All calculations required by this part must be based on the most recent actuarial valuation as of the date of filing the notice, updated to show any material changes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assumptions.</I> All calculations required by this part must be performed by an enrolled actuary based on methods and assumptions each of which is reasonable (taking into account the experience of the plan and reasonable expectations), and which, in combination, offer the actuary's best estimate of anticipated experience under the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Updated calculations.</I> PBGC may require updated calculations and representations based on the actual effective date of a merger or transfer if that date is more than one year after the notice is filed, based on revised actuarial assumptions, or based on other good cause.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Additional Rules for Facilitated Mergers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.12   Request for facilitated merger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The plan sponsors of the plans involved in a proposed merger may request that PBGC facilitate the merger. Facilitation may include training, technical assistance, mediation, communication with stakeholders, and support with related requests to other government agencies. Facilitation may also include financial assistance to the merged plan. PBGC has discretion under section 4231(e) of ERISA to take such actions as it deems appropriate to facilitate the merger of two or more multiemployer plans if it determines, after consultation with the Advocate, that the proposed merger is in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries of at least one of the plans, and is not reasonably expected to be adverse to the overall interests of the participants and beneficiaries of any of the plans involved in the proposed merger. For a facilitated merger, including a financial assistance merger, the requirements of section 4231(b) of ERISA and subpart A of this part must be satisfied in addition to the requirements of section 4231(e) of ERISA and this subpart. The procedures set forth in this subpart represent the exclusive means by which PBGC will approve a request for a facilitated merger under section 4231(e) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial assistance.</I> Subject to the requirements in section 4231(e) of ERISA and this subpart, in the case of a request for a financial assistance merger, PBGC may in its discretion provide financial assistance (within the meaning of section 4261 of ERISA). Such financial assistance will be with respect to the guaranteed benefits payable under the critical and declining status plan(s) involved in the facilitated merger.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information requirements.</I> (1) A request for a facilitated merger, including a request for a financial assistance merger, must be filed with the notice of merger under § 4231.3(a)(4), and must contain the information described in § 4231.10, and a detailed narrative description with supporting documentation demonstrating that the proposed merger is in the interests of participants and beneficiaries of at least one of the plans, and is not reasonably expected to be adverse to the overall interests of the participants and beneficiaries of any of the plans. If a financial assistance merger is requested, the narrative description and supporting documentation may consider the effect of financial assistance in making these demonstrations.
</P>
<P>(2) If a financial assistance merger is requested, the request must contain the information required in §§ 4231.13 through 4231.16 in addition to the information required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) PBGC may require the plan sponsors to submit additional information to determine whether the requirements of section 4231(e) of ERISA are met or to enable it to facilitate the merger.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duty to amend and supplement.</I> During any time in which a request for a facilitated merger, including a request for a financial assistance merger, is pending final action by PBGC, the plan sponsors must promptly notify PBGC in writing of any material fact or representation contained in or relating to the request, or in any supporting documents, that is no longer accurate or was omitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.13   Plan information for financial assistance merger.</HEAD>
<P>A request for a financial assistance merger must include the following information for each plan involved in the merger:
</P>
<P>(a) The most recent trust agreement, including all amendments adopted since the last restatement.
</P>
<P>(b) The most recent plan document, including all amendments adopted since the last restatement.
</P>
<P>(c) The most recent summary plan description (SPD), and all summaries of material modification issued since the most recent SPD.
</P>
<P>(d) If applicable, the most recent rehabilitation plan (or funding improvement plan), including all subsequent amendments and updates, and the percentage of total contributions received under each schedule of the rehabilitation plan (or funding improvement plan) for the most recent plan year available.
</P>
<P>(e) A copy of the plan's most recent IRS determination letter.
</P>
<P>(f) A copy of the plan's most recent Form 5500 (Annual Report Form) and all schedules and attachments (including the audited financial statement).
</P>
<P>(g) A current listing of employers who have an obligation to contribute to the plan, and the approximate number of participants for whom each employer is currently making contributions.
</P>
<P>(h) A schedule of withdrawal liability payments collected in each of the most recent five plan years.
</P>
<P>(i) If applicable, a copy of the plan sponsor's application for suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9)(G) of ERISA (including all attachments and exhibits).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.14   Description of financial assistance merger.</HEAD>
<P>A request for a financial assistance merger must include the following information about the proposed financial assistance merger:
</P>
<P>(a) A detailed description of the proposed financial assistance merger, including any larger integrated transaction of which the merger is a part (including, but not limited to, an application for suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9)(G) of ERISA).
</P>
<P>(b) A narrative description of the events that led to the plan sponsors' decision to submit a request for a financial assistance merger.
</P>
<P>(c) A narrative description of significant risks and assumptions relating to the proposed financial assistance merger and the projections provided in support of the request.
</P>
<P>(d) A detailed description of the estimated total amount of financial assistance the plan sponsors request for each year, including the supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and a description of the methodology used to determine the estimated amounts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.15   Actuarial and financial information for financial assistance merger.</HEAD>
<P>A request for a financial assistance merger must include the following actuarial and financial information for the plans involved in the merger:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the actuarial valuation performed for each of the two plan years before the most recent actuarial valuation filed in accordance with § 4231.9(f).
</P>
<P>(b) If applicable, a copy of the plan actuary's most recent annual actuarial certification under section 305(b)(3) of ERISA, including a detailed description of the assumptions used in the certification, and the basis under which they were determined. The description must include information about the assumptions used for the projection of future contributions, withdrawal liability payments, and investment returns, and any other assumption that may have a material effect on projections.
</P>
<P>(c) A detailed statement certified by an enrolled actuary that the merger is necessary for one or more of the plans involved to avoid or postpone insolvency, including the basis for the conclusion, supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and a description of the methodology. This statement must demonstrate for each critical and declining status plan involved in the merger that the date the plan projects to become insolvent (without reflecting the merger) is earlier than the date the merged plan projects to become insolvent (the merged plan may reflect the proposed financial assistance). Include as an exhibit annual cash flow projections for each critical and declining status plan involved in the merger through the date the plan projects to become insolvent (using an open group valuation and without reflecting the merger). Annual cash flow projections must reflect the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Fair market value of assets as of the beginning of the year.
</P>
<P>(2) Contributions and withdrawal liability payments.
</P>
<P>(3) Benefit payments organized by participant type (<I>e.g.,</I> active, retiree, terminated vested).
</P>
<P>(4) Administrative expenses.
</P>
<P>(5) Fair market value of assets as of the end of the year.
</P>
<P>(d) For each critical and declining status plan involved in the merger, a long-term projection (at least 50 to 90 years) of benefit disbursements by participant type (<I>e.g.,</I> active, retiree, terminated vested) (without reflecting the merger) reflecting reduced benefit disbursements at the PBGC-guarantee level (which may be estimated) beginning with the proposed effective date of the merger (using a closed group valuation and no accruals after the proposed effective date of the merger). Include the supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and, if applicable, a description of estimates used for this projection.
</P>
<P>(e) A detailed statement certified by an enrolled actuary that financial assistance is necessary for the merged plan to become or remain solvent, including the basis for the conclusion, supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and a description of the methodology. Include as an exhibit annual cash flow projections for the merged plan with the proposed financial assistance (based on the actuarial assumptions and methods that will be used under the merged plan). Annual cash flow projections must reflect the information listed in paragraphs (c)(1) through (5) of this section. In addition, include as an exhibit a statement certified by an enrolled actuary of whether the merged plan would be in critical status for purposes of paragraph (e)(1) or (2) of this section, including the basis for the conclusion.
</P>
<P>(1) If the merged plan would be in critical status immediately following the merger without the proposed financial assistance (as reasonably determined by the enrolled actuary or as set forth in this paragraph), the enrolled actuary's certified statement must demonstrate that the merged plan will avoid insolvency under section 305(e)(9)(D)(iv) of ERISA and the regulations thereunder (excluding stochastic projections) with the proposed financial assistance. The enrolled actuary may determine whether the merged plan would be in critical status based on the combined data and projections underlying the status certifications of each of the plans for the plan year immediately preceding the merger, including any selected updates in the data based on the experience of the plans in the immediately preceding plan year (reasonable adjustments are permitted but not required).
</P>
<P>(2) If the merged plan would not be in critical status immediately following the merger without the proposed financial assistance (as reasonably determined by the enrolled actuary or as set forth in paragraph (e)(1) of this section), the enrolled actuary's certified statement must demonstrate that the merged plan is not projected to become insolvent during the 20 plan years beginning after the proposed effective date of the merger with the proposed financial assistance (using the methodologies set forth under section 305(b)(3)(B)(iv) of ERISA and the regulations thereunder). If such a demonstration is possible without the proposed financial assistance, or if the amount of financial assistance requested exceeds the amount needed to satisfy this demonstration, the enrolled actuary's certified statement must demonstrate that financial assistance is necessary to mitigate the adverse effects of the merger on the merged plan's ability to remain solvent. The demonstration that financial assistance is necessary to mitigate the adverse effects of the merger on the merged plan's ability to remain solvent may be based on stress testing over a long-term period (and may reflect reasonable future adverse experience), using a reasonable method in accordance with generally accepted actuarial standards.
</P>
<P>(f) If applicable, a copy of the plan actuary's certification under section 305(e)(9)(C)(i) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(g) The rules in § 4231.6(c) apply to the solvency projections described in paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section, unless section 305(e)(9)(D)(iv) of ERISA and the regulations thereunder apply and specify otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.16   Participant census data for financial assistance merger.</HEAD>
<P>A request for a financial assistance merger must include a copy of the census data used for the projections described in § 4231.15(c) through (e), including:
</P>
<P>(a) Participant type (retiree, beneficiary, disabled, terminated vested, active, alternate payee).
</P>
<P>(b) Gender.
</P>
<P>(c) Date of birth.
</P>
<P>(d) Credited service for guarantee calculation (<I>i.e.,</I> number of years of participation).
</P>
<P>(e) Vested accrued monthly benefit.
</P>
<P>(f) Monthly benefit guaranteed by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(g) Benefit commencement date (for participants in pay status and others for which the reported benefit will not be payable at normal retirement age).
</P>
<P>(h) For each participant in pay status—
</P>
<P>(1) Form of payment, and
</P>
<P>(2) Data relevant to the form of payment, including:
</P>
<P>(i) For a joint-and-survivor benefit, the beneficiary's benefit amount and the beneficiary's date of birth;
</P>
<P>(ii) For a Social Security level income benefit, the date of any change in the benefit amount, and the benefit amount after such change;
</P>
<P>(iii) For a 5-year certain or 10-year certain benefit (or similar benefit), the relevant defined period; or
</P>
<P>(iv) For a form of payment not otherwise described in this section, the data necessary for the valuation of the form of payment.
</P>
<P>(i) If an actuarial increase for postponed retirement applies, or if the form of annuity is a Social Security level income benefit, the monthly vested benefit payable at normal retirement age in normal form of annuity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.17" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.17   PBGC action on a request for facilitated merger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> PBGC may approve or deny a request for a facilitated merger, including a request for a financial assistance merger, at its discretion if the requirements of section 4231 of ERISA are satisfied. PBGC will notify the plan sponsor(s) in writing of its decision on a request. If PBGC denies the request, PBGC's written decision will state the reason(s) for the denial. If PBGC approves a request for a financial assistance merger, PBGC will provide a financial assistance agreement detailing the total amount and terms of the financial assistance as soon as practicable after notifying the plan sponsor(s) in writing of its approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final agency action.</I> PBGC's decision to approve or deny a request for a facilitated merger, including a request for a financial assistance merger, is a final agency action for purposes of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4231.18" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.34.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4231.18   Jurisdiction over financial assistance merger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> PBGC will retain jurisdiction over the merged plan resulting from a financial assistance merger to carry out the purposes, terms, and conditions of the financial assistance merger, the financial assistance agreement, sections 4231 and 4261 of ERISA, and the regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial assistance agreement.</I> PBGC may, upon providing notice to the plan sponsor, make changes to the financial assistance agreement in response to changed circumstances consistent with sections 4231 and 4261 of ERISA and the regulations thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4233" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4233—PARTITIONS OF ELIGIBLE MULTIEMPLOYER PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1413.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4233.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to prescribe rules governing applications for partition under section 4233 of ERISA, and related notice requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: ERISA, IRS, multiemployer plan, PBGC, plan, and plan sponsor. In addition, the following terms are defined for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Advocate</I> means the Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate under section 4004 of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Application for partition</I> means a plan sponsor's application for partition under section 4233 of ERISA and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Application for a suspension of benefits</I> means a plan sponsor's application for a suspension of benefits to the Secretary of the Treasury (Treasury) under section 305(e)(9)(G) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Completed application</I> means an application for partition for which PBGC has made a determination under § 4233.10 that the application contains all required information and satisfies the requirements described in §§ 4233.4 through 4233.9.
</P>
<P><I>Effective date of partition</I> means the date upon which a partition is effective and which is set forth in a partition order.
</P>
<P><I>Financial assistance</I> means financial assistance from PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Insolvent</I> has the same meaning as insolvent under section 4245(b) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Interested party</I> means, with respect to a plan—
</P>
<P>(1) Each participant in the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Each beneficiary of a deceased participant;
</P>
<P>(3) Each alternate payee under an applicable qualified domestic relations order, as defined in section 206(d)(3) of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(4) Each employer that has an obligation to contribute under the plan; and
</P>
<P>(5) Each employee organization that currently has a collective bargaining agreement pursuant to which the plan is maintained.
</P>
<P><I>Original plan</I> means an eligible multiemployer plan under 4233(b) of ERISA that is partitioned upon the issuance of a partition order under section 4233(c) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Partition order</I> means a formal PBGC order of partition under section 4233 of ERISA and § 4233.14.
</P>
<P><I>Proposed partition</I> means a proposed partition as structured and described by the plan sponsor in an application for partition.
</P>
<P><I>Remain solvent</I> has the same meaning as “avoid insolvency” in section 305(e)(9)(D)(iv) of ERISA and the regulations thereunder, with respect to the determinations made by PBGC under sections 4233(b)(3) and 4233(c) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Residual benefit</I> means, with respect to a participant or beneficiary whose benefit was partially transferred to a successor plan pursuant to a partition order, the portion of the benefit payable under the original plan, the amount of which is equal to the difference between the benefit defined in section 4233(e)(1)(A) of ERISA, and the successor plan benefit. The residual benefit as of the effective date of the partition is not subject to a separate guarantee under section 4022A of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Successor plan</I> means the plan created by a partition order under section 4233(c) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Successor plan benefit</I> means, with respect to a participant or beneficiary whose benefit was wholly or partially transferred from an original plan to a successor plan, the portion of the accrued nonforfeitable monthly benefit which would be guaranteed under section 4022A as of the effective date of the partition, calculated under the terms of the original plan without reflecting any changes relating to a benefit suspension under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA. The payment of a successor plan benefit is subject to the limitations and conditions contained in sections 4022A(a)-(f) of ERISA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.3   Application filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of filing.</I> PBGC applies the rules in part 4000, subpart A of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this part, and the rules in part 4000, subpart D of this chapter to determine the computation of time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may file.</I> An application for partition under section 4233 of ERISA must be submitted by the plan sponsor. The application must be signed and dated by an authorized trustee who is a current member of the board of trustees, and must include the following statement under penalties of perjury: “Under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America, I declare that I have examined this application, including accompanying documents, and, to the best of my knowledge and belief, the application contains all the relevant facts relating to the application; all statements of fact contained in the application are true, correct, and not misleading because of omission of any material fact; and all accompanying documents are what they purport to be.” A stamped signature or faxed signature is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file. See</I> § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 90 FR 39329, Aug. 15, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.4   Information to be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An application for partition must include the information specified in § 4233.5 (plan information), § 4233.6 (partition information), § 4233.7 (actuarial and financial information), § 4233.8 (participant census data), and § 4233.9 (financial assistance information). If any of the information is not included, the application may not be considered complete.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information.</I> (1) PBGC may require a plan sponsor to submit additional information necessary to make a determination on an application under this part and any information PBGC may need to calculate or verify the amount of financial assistance necessary for a partition. Any additional information must be submitted by the date specified in PBGC's request.
</P>
<P>(2) PBGC may suspend the running of the 270-day review period (described in § 4233.10) pending the submission of any additional information requested by PBGC, or upon the issuance of a conditional determination under § 4233.12(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duty to amend and supplement application.</I> During any time in which an application is pending final action by PBGC, the plan sponsor must promptly notify PBGC in writing of any material fact or representation contained in or relating to the application, or in any supporting documents, that is no longer accurate, or any material fact or representation omitted from the application or supporting documents, that the plan sponsor discovers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 79694, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.5   Plan information.</HEAD>
<P>An application for partition must include the following information with respect to the plan:
</P>
<P>(a) The name of the plan, Employer Identification Number (EIN), and three-digit Plan Number (PN).
</P>
<P>(b) The name, address, and telephone number of the plan sponsor and the plan sponsor's duly authorized representative, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) The most recent trust agreement, including all amendments adopted since the last restatement.
</P>
<P>(d) The most recent plan document, including all amendments adopted since the last restatement.
</P>
<P>(e) The most recent summary plan description (SPD), and all summaries of material modification (SMM) issued since the effective date of the most recent SPD.
</P>
<P>(f) The most recent rehabilitation plan (or funding improvement plan, if applicable), including all subsequent amendments and updates, and the percentage of total contributions received under each schedule of the rehabilitation plan for the most recent plan year available.
</P>
<P>(g) A copy of the plan's most recent IRS determination letter.
</P>
<P>(h) A copy of the plan's most recent Form 5500 (Annual Report Form) and all schedules and attachments (including the audited financial statement).
</P>
<P>(i) A current listing of employers who have an obligation to contribute to the plan, and the approximate number of participants for whom each employer is currently making contributions.
</P>
<P>(j) A schedule of withdrawal liability payments collected in each of the most recent five plan years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.6   Partition information.</HEAD>
<P>An application for partition must include the following information with respect to the proposed partition:
</P>
<P>(a) A detailed description of the proposed partition, including the proposed structure, proposed effective date, and any larger integrated transaction of which the proposed partition is a part (including, but not limited to, an application for suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9)(G), or a merger under section 4231 of ERISA). With respect to coordinated applications for partition and suspension of benefits, proposed effective dates for both transactions must satisfy the requirements of section 305(e)(9)(D)(v) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) A narrative description of the events that led to the plan sponsor's decision to submit an application for partition (and, if applicable, application for suspension of benefits).
</P>
<P>(c) A narrative description of significant risks and assumptions relating to the proposed partition and the projections provided in support of the application.
</P>
<P>(d) If applicable, a copy of the plan sponsor's application for suspension of benefits (including all attachments and exhibits). If the plan sponsor intends to apply for a suspension of benefits with Treasury, but has not yet submitted an application to Treasury, a draft of the application may be filed, which must be supplemented by filing a copy of the completed application within the timeframe established in § 4233.10(d).
</P>
<P>(e) A detailed description of all measures the plan sponsor has taken (or is taking) to avoid insolvency, and any measures the plan sponsor considered taking but did not take, including the factor(s) the plan sponsor considered in making these determinations. Include all relevant documentation relating to the plan sponsor's determination that it has taken (or is taking) measures to avoid insolvency.
</P>
<P>(f) A detailed description of the estimated benefit amounts the plan sponsor has determined are necessary to be partitioned for the plan to remain solvent, including the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The estimated number of participants and beneficiaries whose benefits (or any portion thereof) would be transferred, including the number of retirees receiving payments (if any), terminated vested participants (if any), and active participants (if any).
</P>
<P>(2) Supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and a description of the methodology used to determine the estimated benefit amounts.
</P>
<P>(3) If applicable, a description of any classifications or specific group(s) of participants and beneficiaries whose benefits (or any portion thereof) the plan sponsor proposes to transfer, and the plan sponsor's rationale or basis for selecting those classifications or groups.
</P>
<P>(g) A copy of the draft notice of application for partition described in § 4233.11.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 79694, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.7   Actuarial and financial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> An application for partition must include the following plan actuarial and financial information:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the plan's most recent actuarial report and copies of the actuarial reports for the two preceding plan years.
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the plan actuary's most recent certification of critical and declining status, including a detailed description of the assumptions used in the certification, the basis for the projection of future contributions, withdrawal liability payments, investment return assumptions, and any other assumption that may have a material effect on projections.
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed statement of the basis for the conclusion that the plan will not remain solvent without a partition and, if applicable, suspension of benefits, including supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and a description of the methodology. Include as an exhibit annual cash flow projections for the plan without partition (or suspension, if applicable) through the projected date of insolvency. Annual cash flow projections must reflect the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Market value of assets as of the beginning of the year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contributions and withdrawal liability payments.
</P>
<P>(iii) Benefit payments organized by participant status (e.g., active, retiree, terminated vested, beneficiary).
</P>
<P>(iv) Administrative expenses.
</P>
<P>(v) Market value of assets at year end.
</P>
<P>(4) A long-term projection reflecting reduced benefit disbursements at the PBGC-guarantee level after insolvency, and a statement of the present value of all future financial assistance without a partition (using the interest and mortality assumptions applicable to the valuation of plans terminated by mass withdrawal as specified in § 4281.13 of this chapter and other reasonable actuarial assumptions, including retirement age, form of benefit payment, and administrative expenses, certified by an enrolled actuary).
</P>
<P>(5) A detailed statement of the basis for the conclusion that the original plan will remain solvent if the application for partition, and, if applicable, the application for suspension of benefits, is granted, including supporting data, calculations, assumptions, and a description of the methodology, which must be consistent with section 305(e)(9)(D)(iv) and the regulations thereunder (including any adjustment to the cash flows in the initial year to incorporate recent actual fund activity required to be included under that section). Annual cash flow projections for the original plan with partition (and suspension, if applicable) must be included as an exhibit and must reflect the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Market value of assets as of the beginning of the year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Contributions and withdrawal liability payments.
</P>
<P>(iii) Benefit payments organized by participant status (e.g., active, retiree, terminated vested, beneficiary).
</P>
<P>(iv) Administrative expenses.
</P>
<P>(v) Market value of assets at year end.
</P>
<P>(6) If applicable, a copy of the plan actuary's certification under section 305(e)(9)(C)(i) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(7) The plan's projected insolvency date with benefit suspension alone (if applicable), including supporting data.
</P>
<P>(8) A long-term projection reflecting benefit disbursements from the successor plan (organized by participant status (e.g., active, retiree, terminated vested, beneficiary)), and a statement of the present value of all future financial assistance to be paid as a result of a partition (using the interest and mortality assumptions applicable to the valuation of plans terminated by mass withdrawal as specified in § 4281.13 of this chapter and other reasonable actuarial assumptions, including retirement age, form of benefit payment, and administrative expenses, certified by an enrolled actuary).
</P>
<P>(9) A long-term projection of pre-partition benefit disbursements from the original plan reflecting reduced benefit disbursements at the PBGC-guarantee level beginning on the proposed effective date of the partition (using a closed group valuation and no accruals after the proposed effective date of partition, and organized separately by participant status groupings (e.g., active, retiree, terminated vested, beneficiary)).
</P>
<P>(10) A long-erm projection of pre-partition benefit disbursements from the original plan reflecting the maximum benefit suspensions permissible under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA beginning on the proposed effective date of the partition (using an open group valuation and organized separately by participant status groupings (e.g., active, retiree, terminated vested, beneficiary)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional projections.</I> PBGC may ask the plan for additional projections based on assumptions that it specifies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Actuarial calculations and assumptions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> All calculations required by this part must be performed by an enrolled actuary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assumptions.</I> All calculations required by this part must be consistent with calculations used for purposes of an application for suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA, and based on methods and assumptions each of which is reasonable (taking into account the experience of the plan and reasonable expectations), and which, in combination, offer the actuary's best estimate of anticipated experience under the plan. Any change(s) in assumptions from the most recent actuarial valuation, and critical and declining status certification, must be disclosed and must be accompanied by a statement explaining the reason(s) for any change(s) in assumptions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Updates.</I> PBGC may, in its discretion, require updated calculations and representations based on the actual effective date of a partition, revised actuarial assumptions, or for other good cause.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 79694, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.8   Participant census data.</HEAD>
<P>An application for partition must include a copy of the census data used for the projections described in § 4233.7(a)(3) and (5), including:
</P>
<P>(a) Participant type (retiree, beneficiary, disabled, terminated vested, active, alternate payee).
</P>
<P>(b) Date of birth.
</P>
<P>(c) Gender.
</P>
<P>(d) Credited service for guarantee calculation (<I>i.e.,</I> number of years of participation).
</P>
<P>(e) Vested accrued monthly benefit before benefit suspension under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(f) Vested accrued monthly benefit after benefit suspension under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(g) Monthly benefit guaranteed by PBGC (determined under the terms of the original plan without respect to benefit suspensions).
</P>
<P>(h) Benefit commencement date (for participants in pay status and others for which the reported benefit is not payable at Normal Retirement Date).
</P>
<P>(i) For each participant in pay status—
</P>
<P>(1) Form of payment, and
</P>
<P>(2) Data relevant to the form of payment, including:
</P>
<P>(i) For a joint and survivor benefit, the beneficiary's benefit amount (before and after suspension) and the beneficiary's date of birth;
</P>
<P>(ii) For a Social Security level income benefit, the date of any change in the benefit amount, and the benefit amount after such change;
</P>
<P>(iii) For a 5-year certain or 10-year certain benefit (or similar benefit), the relevant defined period.
</P>
<P>(iv) For a form of payment not otherwise described in this section, the data necessary for the valuation of the form of payment, including the benefit amount before and after suspension.
</P>
<P>(j) If an actuarial increase for postponed retirement applies or if the form of annuity is a Social Security level income option, the monthly vested benefit payable at normal retirement age in normal form of annuity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 79694, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.9   Financial assistance information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> An application for partition must include the estimated amount of annual financial assistance requested from PBGC for the first year the plan receives financial assistance if partition is approved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information.</I> PBGC may ask the plan for additional information in accordance with § 4233.4(b)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.10   Initial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination on completed application.</I> PBGC will make a determination on an application not later than 270 days after the date such application is deemed completed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Incomplete application.</I> If the application is incomplete, PBGC will issue a written notice to the plan sponsor describing the information missing from the application no later than 14 calendar days after the submission of such application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complete application.</I> Upon making a determination that an application is complete (<I>i.e.,</I> the application includes all the information specified in §§ 4233.5 through 4233.9), PBGC will issue a written notice to the plan sponsor no later than 14 calendar days after the submission of such application. The date of the written notice will mark the beginning of PBGC's 270-day review period under section 4233(a)(1) of ERISA, and the plan sponsor's 30-day notice period under 4233(a)(2) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for coordinated applications for partition and benefit suspension.</I> For a plan requiring both partition and benefit suspensions to remain solvent, PBGC's initial determination that a partition application is complete will be conditioned on the plan sponsor's filing of an application for benefit suspensions with Treasury within 30 days after receiving written notice from PBGC under paragraph (c) of this section. Such a plan is permitted, but not required, to issue a combined notice under § 4233.13(b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Informal consultation.</I> Nothing in this subsection precludes a plan sponsor from contacting PBGC on an informal basis to discuss a potential partition application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 79694, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.11   Notice of application for partition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When to file.</I> Not later than 30 days after receipt of the written notice described in § 4233.10(c) that an application for partition is complete, the plan sponsor must provide notice of such application to each interested party and PBGC, in accordance with the rules in part 4000, subpart B of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of notice.</I> The notice must be readable and written in a matter calculated to be understood by the average plan participant. The Model Notices in appendix A to this part (when properly completed) are examples of notices meeting the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information required.</I> A notice of completed application for partition must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identifying information.</I> The name of the plan, the name, address, and phone number of the plan sponsor, the Employer Identification Number (EIN), and three-digit Plan Number (PN).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relevant partition application dates.</I> A brief statement that the plan sponsor has submitted an application for partition to PBGC, the date of the completed application under § 4233.10(c), and a statement that PBGC must issue its decision not later than 270 days after the date on which PBGC notified the plan sponsor that the application was complete.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application for suspension of benefits.</I> If applicable, a statement of whether the plan sponsor has submitted an application for suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9)(G) of ERISA, and, if so, information on how to obtain a copy of the application and notice required by section 305(e)(9)(F) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Description of statutory partition provisions.</I> A brief description of the requirements under section 4233 of ERISA, and other related statutory requirements, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The interrelationship between the partition rules under section 4233 of ERISA and suspensions of benefits under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(ii) The multiemployer guarantee under section 4022A of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(iii) The eligibility requirements for a partition under section 4233(b) of ERISA, including the Advocate consultation requirement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Impact of partition on interested parties.</I> A brief description of how the proposed partition may impact affected participants, beneficiaries, and alternate payees including:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement describing the benefit payment obligations of the original plan and the successor plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement explaining that the Board of Trustees of the original plan will also administer the successor plan, but the successor plan will be funded solely by PBGC financial assistance payments.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Partition application contents summary.</I> A brief summary of the content of the plan sponsor's application for partition, including the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The plan's critical and declining status and projected insolvency date.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the plan sponsor has taken (or is taking) all reasonable measures to avoid insolvency, including the maximum benefit suspensions under section 305(e)(9), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) If known, a brief statement on the proposed total estimated amount and percentage of liabilities to be partitioned.
</P>
<P>(iv) If known, a brief statement summarizing the proposed class or classes of participants whose benefits would be partially or wholly transferred if the application for partition is granted, including a summary of the factors considered by the plan sponsor in preparing its application.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Contact information for plan sponsor.</I> The name, address, and telephone number of the plan sponsor or other person designated by the plan sponsor to answer inquiries concerning the application for partition.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Contact information for PBGC.</I> Multiemployer Program Division, PBGC, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024-2101, <I>Multiemployerprogram@pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Contact information for Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate.</I> PBGC Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024-2101, <I>Advocate@pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Model notice.</I> The appendix to this section contains two model notices—one for plan sponsors that submit coordinated applications for partition with PBGC and for benefit suspensions with Treasury, and one for plans sponsors who apply for partition only. The model notices are intended to assist plan sponsors in discharging their notice obligations under section 4233(a)(2) of ERISA and this part. Use of the model notices is not mandatory, but will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of section 4233(a)(2) of ERISA and this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign languages.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan that covers the numbers or percentages in § 2520.104b-10(e) of this title of participants literate only in the same non-English language must, for any notice to interested parties—
</P>
<P>(1) Include a prominent legend in that common non-English language advising them how to obtain assistance in understanding the notice; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the notice in that common non-English language to those interested parties literate only in that language.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 87 FR 57825, Sept. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.12   PBGC action on application for partition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review period.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, PBGC will approve or deny an application for partition submitted to it under this part within 270 days after the date PBGC issued a notice to the plan sponsor of the completed application under § 4233.10(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination on application.</I> PBGC may approve or deny an application at its discretion. PBGC will notify the plan sponsor in writing of PBGC's decision on an application. If PBGC denies the application, PBGC's written decision will state the reason(s) for the denial. If PBGC approves the application, PBGC will issue a partition order under section 4233(c) of ERISA and § 4233.14.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditional determination on application.</I> At the request of a plan sponsor, PBGC may, in its discretion, issue an approval of an application conditioned on Treasury issuing a final authorization to suspend under section 305(e)(9)(H)(vi) of ERISA and any other terms and conditions set forth in the conditional approval. The conditional approval will include a written statement of preliminary findings, conclusions, and conditions. The conditional approval is not a final agency action. The proposed partition will only become effective upon satisfaction of the required conditions, and the issuance of an order of partition under section 4233(c) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final agency action.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, PBGC's decision on an application for partition under this section is a final agency action for purposes of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 79695, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.13   Coordinated application process for partition and benefit suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interagency coordination.</I> For a plan sponsor that has requested a conditional approval of a partition pursuant to § 4233.12(c), PBGC may render either a conditional approval or a final denial of the application on an expedited basis, provided that the plan sponsor has submitted a completed application to PBGC as prescribed by § 4233.10. PBGC will consult with Treasury and the Department of Labor in the course of reviewing an application for partition.
</P>
<P>(1) If PBGC denies the application for partition, it will notify the plan sponsor in writing of PBGC's decision in accordance with § 4233.12(b), and will notify Treasury to allow it to take appropriate action on the benefit suspension application.
</P>
<P>(2) If PBGC grants a conditional approval of partition, it will notify the plan sponsor in writing of PBGC's decision in accordance with § 4233.12(c), and will provide Treasury with a copy of PBGC's decision along with PBGC's record of the decision.
</P>
<P>(3) If Treasury does not issue the final authorization to suspend, PBGC's conditional approval under § 4233.12(c) will be null and void.
</P>
<P>(4) If Treasury issues a final authorization to suspend, PBGC will issue a final partition order under § 4233.14 and section 4233(c) of ERISA. The effective date of a final partition order must satisfy the requirements of section 305(e)(9)(D)(v) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combined notice.</I> A plan sponsor submitting an application for benefit suspensions under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA with Treasury, and a partition under section 4233 of ERISA with PBGC, may combine the PBGC model notice for coordinated applications provided at Appendix A with the Treasury model notice in Appendix A of Rev. Proc. 2015-34 in satisfaction of the notice requirement of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 79695, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.14   Partition order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions.</I> The partition order will describe the liabilities to be transferred to the successor plan under section 4233(c) of ERISA, and the manner in which financial assistance will be provided by PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA. The partition order will also set forth PBGC's findings and conclusions on an application for partition, the effective date of partition, the obligations and responsibilities of the plan sponsor to the original plan and successor plan, and such other information as PBGC may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Terms and conditions.</I> The partition order will set forth the terms and conditions of the partition and will incorporate by reference the applicable requirements under sections 4233(d) and 4233(e) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(1) The plan sponsors of the original plan and the successor plan must amend the original plan and successor plan, respectively, to reflect the benefits payable to participants and beneficiaries as a result of the partition order.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan sponsors of the original plan and successor plan must maintain a written record of the respective plans' compliance with the terms of the partition order, section 4233 of ERISA, and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.15   Nature and operation of successor plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nature of plan.</I> The plan created by the partition order is a successor plan to which section 4022A applies, and an insolvent plan under section 4245 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Treatment of plan.</I> The successor plan will be treated as a terminated multiemployer plan to which section 4041A(d) of ERISA applies because there are no contributing employers with an obligation to contribute within the meaning of section 4212 of ERISA as of the effective date of the partition. The treatment of the successor plan as a terminated plan under this paragraph will not be taken into account for purposes of determining the withdrawal liability of contributing employers to the original plan under sections 4201 and 4233(d)(3) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administration of plan.</I> The plan sponsor of the original plan and the administrator of such plan will be the plan sponsor and the administrator, respectively, of the successor plan. PBGC will retain the right to remove and replace the plan sponsor of the successor plan pursuant to section 4042(b)(2) of ERISA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.16   Coordination of benefits under original plan and successor plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Successor plan benefits.</I> Subject to the limitations contained in section 4022A of ERISA, the only benefit amounts payable under a successor plan are successor plan benefits as defined in § 4233.2.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guarantee of successor plan benefit.</I> When a participant's or beneficiary's benefit is partially or wholly transferred to a successor plan, the PBGC guarantee applicable to such benefit becomes payable under the successor plan. The benefit remaining in the original plan as of the effective date of the partition, if any, is not subject to a new guarantee, and any increase in the PBGC guarantee amount payable under the original plan will arise solely, if at all, due to an increase in the accrued benefit under a plan amendment following the effective date of the partition, or an additional accrual attributable to service after the effective date of the partition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>PBGC financial assistance.</I> Subject to the conditions contained in section 4261 of ERISA, PBGC will provide financial assistance to the successor plan in an amount sufficient to enable the successor plan to pay only the PBGC-guaranteed amount transferred to the successor plan pursuant to the partition order, and reasonable and necessary administrative expenses if approved by PBGC. The receipt of benefits payable under a successor plan receiving financial assistance from PBGC will be treated as the receipt of guaranteed benefits under section 4022A.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment of monthly benefits.</I> The plan sponsors of an original plan and a successor plan may, but are not required to, pay monthly benefits payable under the original plan and successor plan, respectively, in a single monthly payment pursuant to a written cost-sharing or expense allocation agreement between the plans.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4233.17" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4233.17   Continuing jurisdiction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) PBGC will continue to have jurisdiction over the original plan and the successor plan to carry out the purposes, terms, and conditions of the partition order, section 4233 of ERISA, and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) PBGC may, upon providing notice to the plan sponsor, make changes to the partition order in response to changed circumstances consistent with section 4233 of ERISA and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.35.0.25.18.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 4233—Model Notices
</HEAD>
<HD1>NOTICE OF APPLICATION FOR PARTITION FOR [INSERT PLAN NAME]
</HD1>
<HD2>[For plans filing an application for partition only]
</HD2>
<FP>[Insert Date]
</FP>
<P>This notice is to inform you that, on [<I>insert Date</I>], [<I>insert Plan Sponsor's Name</I>] (“Board of Trustees”) filed a complete application with the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (“PBGC”) requesting approval for a partition of the [<I>insert Pension Fund name, Employer Identification Number, and three-digit Plan Number</I>] (the “Plan”).
</P>
<HD2>What is partition?
</HD2>
<P>A multiemployer plan that is in critical and declining status may apply to PBGC for an order that separates (<I>i.e.,</I> partitions) and transfers the PBGC-guaranteed portion of certain participants' and beneficiaries' benefits to a newly-created successor plan. The total amount transferred from the original plan to the successor plan is the minimum amount needed to keep the original plan solvent. While the Board of Trustees will administer the successor plan, PBGC will provide financial assistance to the successor plan to pay the transferred benefits.
</P>
<P>PBGC guarantees benefits up to a legal limit. However, if the PBGC-guaranteed amount payable by the successor plan is less than the benefit payable under the original plan, Federal law requires the original plan to pay the difference. Therefore, partition will <I>not</I> change the total amount payable to any participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<HD2>What are the rules for partition?
</HD2>
<P>Federal law permits, but does not require, PBGC to approve an application for partition. PBGC generally will make a decision on the application for partition within 270 days. A plan is eligible for partition if certain requirements are met, including:
</P>
<P>1. The pension plan is in critical and declining status. A plan is in critical and declining status if it is in critical status (which generally means the plan's funded percentage is less than 65%) and is projected to run out of money within 15 years (or 20 years if there are twice as many inactive as active participants, or if the plan's funded percentage is less than 80%).
</P>
<P>2. PBGC determines, after consulting with the PBGC Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate, that the Board of Trustees has taken (or is taking) all reasonable measures to avoid insolvency. Reasonable measures may include contribution increases or reductions in the rate of benefit accruals.
</P>
<P>3. PBGC determines that: (1) Providing financial assistance in a partition will be significantly less than providing financial assistance in the event the plan becomes insolvent; and (2) partition is necessary for the plan to remain solvent.
</P>
<P>4. PBGC certifies to Congress that its ability to meet existing financial assistance obligations to other multiemployer plans (including plans that are insolvent or projected to become insolvent within 10 years) will not be impaired by the partition.
</P>
<P>5. The cost of the partition is paid exclusively from PBGC's multiemployer insurance fund.
</P>
<HD2>Why is partition needed?
</HD2>
<P>The Plan is in critical and declining status, is [<I>insert funded percentage</I>] funded, and is projected to become insolvent by [<I>insert expected insolvency date</I>]. The Board of Trustees asserts that it has taken reasonable measures to avoid insolvency, but has determined that these measures are insufficient and that the proposed partition is necessary for the Plan to avoid insolvency.
</P>
<P>[<I>Insert brief statement of the amount of liabilities the Board of Trustees proposes to partition and indicate whether it is the minimum amount needed for the Plan to remain solvent.</I>] [<I>If applicable, insert brief statement summarizing the proposed classes of participants and beneficiaries whose benefits will be partially or wholly transferred if the application is granted, and a summary of the factors considered.</I>] If instead the Plan is allowed to become insolvent, the benefits of <I>all</I> participants and beneficiaries whose benefits exceed the PBGC-guaranteed amount would be reduced to the PBGC-guaranteed amount.
</P>
<HD2>What is PBGC's multiemployer plan guarantee?
</HD2>
<P>Federal law sets the maximum that PBGC may guarantee. For multiemployer plan benefits, PBGC guarantees a monthly benefit payment equal to 100 percent of the first $11 of the Plan's monthly benefit accrual rate, plus 75 percent of the next $33 of the accrual rate, times each year of credited service. The PBGC's maximum guarantee, therefore, is $35.75 per month times a participant's years of credited service.
</P>
<P>PBGC guarantees vested pension benefits payable at normal retirement age, early retirement benefits, and certain survivor benefits, if the participant met the eligibility requirements for a benefit before plan termination or insolvency. A benefit or benefit increase that has been in effect for less than 60 months is not eligible for PBGC's guarantee. PBGC also does not guarantee benefits above the normal retirement benefit, disability benefits not in pay status, or non-pension benefits, such as health insurance, life insurance, death benefits, vacation pay, or severance pay.
</P>
<HD2>How will I know when PBGC has made a decision on the application for partition?
</HD2>
<P>If PBGC approves the Board of Trustees' application for partition, PBGC will issue a notice to affected participants and beneficiaries whose benefits will be transferred to the successor plan no later than 14 days after it issues the order of partition. You may also visit <I>www.pbgc.gov/MPRA</I> for a list of applications for partition received by PBGC and the status of those applications.
</P>
<HD2>Your Rights To Receive Information About Your Plan and its Benefits
</HD2>
<P>Your plan's Summary Plan Description (“SPD”) will include information on the procedures for claiming benefits, which will apply to both the original and successor plans until the Plan provides you a new SPD. You also have the legal right to request documents from the original plan to help you understand the partition and your rights such as:
</P>
<P>• The plan document, trust agreement, and other documents governing the Plan (e.g., collective bargaining agreements);
</P>
<P>• The latest SPD and summaries of material modification;
</P>
<P>• The Plan's Form 5500 annual reports, including audited financial statements, filed with the U.S. Department of Labor during the last six years;
</P>
<P>• The Plan's annual funding notices for the last six years;
</P>
<P>• Actuarial reports (including reports submitted in support of the application for partition) furnished to the Plan within the last six years;
</P>
<P>• The Plan's current rehabilitation plan, including contribution schedules; and
</P>
<P>• Any quarterly, semi-annual or annual financial reports prepared for the Plan by an investment manager, fiduciary or other advisor and furnished to the Plan within the last six years.
</P>
<P>If your benefits are transferred to the successor plan, you will be furnished a successor plan SPD within 120 days of the partition; and the plan document, trust agreement, and other documents governing the successor plan will be available for review following the partition.
</P>
<P>The plan administrator must respond to your request for these documents within 30 days, and may charge you the cost per page for the least expensive means of reproducing documents, but cannot charge more than 25 cents per page. The Plan's Form 5500 annual reports are also available free of charge at <I>http://www.dol.gov/ebsa/5500main.html.</I> Some of the documents also may be available for examination, without charge, at the plan administrator's office, your worksite, or union hall.
</P>
<HD2>Plan Contact Information
</HD2>
<P>For more information about this Notice, you may contact:
</P>
<FP-1>[Insert Name of Plan Administrator, address, email address, and phone number]
</FP-1>
<HD2>PBGC Contact Information
</HD2>
<FP-1>Multiemployer Program Division, PBGC, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024-2101
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Email: <I>Multiemployerprogram@pbgc.gov</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phone: (202) 229-6047
</FP-1>
<HD2>PBGC Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate Contact Information
</HD2>
<FP-1>Constance Donovan, PBGC, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024-2101</FP-1>
<FP-1>Email: <I>Advocate@pbgc.gov</I>.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phone: (202) 229-4448
</FP-1>
<HD1>NOTICE OF APPLICATION FOR PARTITION FOR [INSERT PLAN NAME]
</HD1>
<HD2>[For plans filing coordinated applications for partition and suspension of benefits]
</HD2>
<FP>[Insert Date]
</FP>
<P>This notice is to inform you that, on [<I>insert Date</I>], [<I>insert Plan Sponsor's Name</I>] (“Board of Trustees”) filed a complete application with the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (“PBGC”) requesting approval for a partition of the [<I>insert Pension Fund name, Employer Identification Number, and three-digit Plan Number</I>] (the “Plan”). [<I>Insert statement that the plan sponsor has submitted an application for suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9)(G) of ERISA, and identify how to obtain a copy of the application and notice required by section 305(e)(9)(F) of ERISA.</I>]
</P>
<HD2>What is partition?
</HD2>
<P>A multiemployer plan that is in critical and declining status may apply to PBGC for an order that separates (<I>i.e.,</I> partitions) and transfers the PBGC-guaranteed portion of certain participants' and beneficiaries' benefits to a newly-created successor plan. The total amount transferred from the original plan to the successor plan is the minimum amount needed to keep the original plan solvent. While the Board of Trustees will administer the successor plan, PBGC will provide financial assistance to the successor plan to pay the transferred benefits.
</P>
<P>PBGC guarantees benefits up to a legal limit. However, if the PBGC-guaranteed amount payable by the successor plan is less than the benefit payable under the original plan after taking into account benefit reductions or any plan amendments after the effective date of the partition, Federal law requires the original plan to pay the difference. Therefore, partition will <I>not</I> further change the total amount payable to any participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<HD2>What are the rules for partition?
</HD2>
<P>Federal law permits, but does not require, PBGC to approve an application for partition. PBGC generally will make a decision on the application for partition within 270 days. A plan is eligible for partition if certain requirements are met, including:
</P>
<P>1. The pension plan is in critical and declining status. A plan is in critical and declining status if it is in critical status (which generally means the plan's funded percentage is less than 65%) and is projected to run out of money within 15 years (or 20 years if there are at least twice as many inactive as active participants, or if the plan's funded percentage is less than 80%).
</P>
<P>2. PBGC determines, after consulting with the PBGC Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate, that the Board of Trustees has taken (or is taking) all reasonable measures to avoid insolvency, including reducing benefits to the maximum allowed under the law.
</P>
<P>3. PBGC determines that: (1) Providing financial assistance in a partition will be significantly less than providing financial assistance in the event the plan becomes insolvent; and (2) partition is necessary for the plan to remain solvent.
</P>
<P>4. PBGC certifies to Congress that its ability to meet existing financial assistance obligations to other multiemployer plans (including plans that are insolvent or projected to become insolvent within 10 years) will not be impaired by the partition.
</P>
<P>5. The cost of the partition is paid exclusively from PBGC's multiemployer insurance fund.
</P>
<HD2>Why are partition and benefit reductions needed?
</HD2>
<P>The Plan is in critical and declining status, is [<I>insert funded percentage</I>] funded, and is projected to become insolvent by [<I>insert expected insolvency date</I>]. The Board of Trustees has taken reasonable measures to avoid insolvency, but has determined that these measures are insufficient and that the proposed partition and reduction of benefits combined are necessary for the Plan to avoid insolvency.
</P>
<P>[<I>Insert brief statement of the amount of liabilities the Board of Trustees proposes to partition and indicate whether it is the minimum amount needed for the Plan to remain solvent.</I>] [<I>If applicable, insert brief statement summarizing the proposed classes of participants and beneficiaries whose benefits will be partially or wholly transferred if the application is granted, and a summary of the factors considered.</I>] If instead the Plan is allowed to become insolvent, the benefits of <I>all</I> participants and beneficiaries whose benefits exceed the PBGC-guaranteed amount would be reduced to the PBGC-guaranteed amount.
</P>
<HD2>What is PBGC's multiemployer plan guarantee?
</HD2>
<P>Federal law sets the maximum that PBGC may guarantee. For multiemployer plan benefits, PBGC guarantees a monthly benefit payment equal to 100 percent of the first $11 of the Plan's monthly benefit accrual rate, plus 75 percent of the next $33 of the accrual rate, times each year of credited service. PBGC's maximum guarantee, therefore, is $35.75 per month times a participant's years of credited service.
</P>
<P>PBGC guarantees vested pension benefits payable at normal retirement age, early retirement benefits, and certain survivor benefits, if the participant met the eligibility requirements for a benefit before plan termination or insolvency. A benefit or benefit increase that has been in effect for less than 60 months is not eligible for PBGC's guarantee. PBGC also does not guarantee benefits above the normal retirement benefit, disability benefits not in pay status, or non-pension benefits, such as health insurance, life insurance, death benefits, vacation pay, or severance pay.
</P>
<HD2>How will I know when PBGC has made a decision on the application for partition?
</HD2>
<P>If PBGC approves the Board of Trustees' application for partition, PBGC will issue a notice to affected participants and beneficiaries whose benefits will be transferred to the successor plan no later than 14 days after it issues the order of partition. You may also visit <I>www.pbgc.gov/MPRA</I> for a list of applications for partition received by PBGC and the status of those applications.
</P>
<HD2>How do I obtain information on the application for approval to reduce benefits?
</HD2>
<P>The application for approval of the proposed reduction of benefits will be publicly available within 30 days after the Treasury Department receives the application. <I>See www.treasury.gov</I> for a copy of the application, instructions on how to send comments on the application, and how to contact the Treasury Department for further information and assistance.
</P>
<HD2>Your Rights To Receive Information About Your Plan and its Benefits
</HD2>
<P>Your Plan's Summary Plan Description (“SPD”) will include information on the procedures for claiming benefits, which will apply to both the original and successor plans until the Plan provides you a new SPD. You also have the legal right to request documents from the original plan to help you understand the partition and your rights such as:
</P>
<P>• The plan document, trust agreement, and other documents governing the Plan (e.g., collective bargaining agreements);
</P>
<P>• The latest SPD and summaries of material modification;
</P>
<P>• The Plan's Form 5500 annual reports, including audited financial statements, filed with the U.S. Department of Labor during the last six years;
</P>
<P>• The Plan's annual funding notices for the last six years;
</P>
<P>• Actuarial reports (including reports submitted in support of the application for partition) furnished to the Plan within the last six years;
</P>
<P>• The Plan's current rehabilitation plan, including contribution schedules; and
</P>
<P>• Any quarterly, semi-annual or annual financial reports prepared for the Plan by an investment manager, fiduciary or other advisor and furnished to the Plan within the last six years.
</P>
<P>If your benefits are transferred to the successor plan, you will be furnished a successor plan SPD within 120 days of the partition; and the plan document, trust agreement, and other documents governing the successor plan will be available for review following the partition.
</P>
<P>The plan administrator must respond to your request for these documents within 30 days, and may charge you the cost per page for the least expensive means of reproducing documents, but cannot charge more than 25 cents per page. The Plan's Form 5500 annual reports are also available free of charge at <I>http://www.dol.gov/ebsa/5500main.html.</I> Some of the documents also may be available for examination, without charge, at the plan administrator's office, your worksite, or union hall.
</P>
<HD2>Plan Contact Information
</HD2>
<P>For more information about this Notice, you may contact:
</P>
<FP-1>[Insert Name of Plan Administrator, address, email address, and phone number]
</FP-1>
<HD2>PBGC Contact Information
</HD2>
<FP-1>Multiemployer Program Division, PBGC, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024-2101</FP-1>
<FP-1>Email: <I>Multiemployerprogram@pbgc.gov</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phone: (202) 229-6047
</FP-1>
<HD2>PBGC Participant and Plan Sponsor Advocate Contact Information
</HD2>
<FP-1>Constance Donovan, PBGC, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024-2101</FP-1>
<FP-1>Email: <I>Advocate@pbgc.gov</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phone: (202) 229-4448
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 35229, June 19, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 6064, Feb. 4, 2020; 87 FR 57825, Sept. 22, 2022]










</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4245" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4245—DUTIES OF PLAN SPONSOR OF AN INSOLVENT PLAN


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1341a, 1431, 1426(e).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34115, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4245.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4245.1   Purpose, scope, and filing and issuance rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This part prescribes insolvency notice requirements and financial assistance requirements pertaining to critical status plans. Plan sponsors of plans that have terminated by mass withdrawal under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA are required to file and issue similar insolvency notices under part 4281 of this chapter and withdrawal liability and actuarial valuation information under part 4041A of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing and issuance rules</I>—(1) <I>Method of filing.</I> Filing with PBGC under this part must be made by a method permitted under the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of issuance.</I> The issuance of the required notices to interested parties under this part must be made by one of the following methods—
</P>
<P>(i) A method permitted under the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) For interested parties other than participants and beneficiaries in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year for which the notice is given, and other than alternate payees, the plan sponsor may post the notice at participants' work sites or publish the notice in a union newsletter or in a newspaper of general circulation in the area or areas where participants reside. Except with respect to an alternate payee, notice to a participant is deemed notice to that participant's beneficiary or beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Filing and issuance dates.</I> The date that a filing is sent and the date that an issuance is provided are determined under the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Where to file.</I> Filings with PBGC under this part must be made as described in § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Computation of time.</I> The time period for filing or issuance under this part must be computed under the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18724, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4245.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4245.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Employer, ERISA, IRS, multiemployer plan, nonforfeitable benefit, PBGC, person, plan, and plan year. In addition, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Actuarial valuation</I> means a report submitted to a plan of a valuation of plan assets and liabilities that is performed in accordance with subpart B of part 4281 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Available resources</I> means available resources as described in section 4245(b)(3) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Benefits subject to reduction</I> means those benefits accrued under plan amendments (or plans) adopted after March 26, 1980, or under collective bargaining agreements entered into after March 26, 1980, that are not eligible for PBGC's guarantee under section 4022A(b) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Financial assistance</I> means financial assistance from PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvency benefit level</I> means the greater of the resource benefit level or the benefit level guaranteed by PBGC for each participant and beneficiary in pay status. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvency year</I> means insolvency year as described in section 4245(b)(4) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvent</I> means unable to pay benefits when due during the plan year. 
</P>
<P><I>Interested parties</I> means, with respect to a plan—
</P>
<P>(1) Employers required to contribute to the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Employee organizations that, for collective bargaining purposes, represent plan participants employed by such employers; and
</P>
<P>(3) Plan participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonably expected to enter pay status</I> means, with respect to plan participants and beneficiaries, persons (other than those in pay status) who, according to plan records, are disabled, have applied for benefits, or have reached or will reach during the applicable period the normal retirement age under the plan, and any others whom it is reasonable for the plan sponsor to expect to enter pay status during the applicable period. 
</P>
<P><I>Resource benefit level</I> means resource benefit level as described in section 4245(b)(2) of ERISA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34115, July 1, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 18724, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4245.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4245.3   Notice of insolvency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement of notice.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan that determines that the plan is insolvent in the current plan year or is expected to be insolvent in the next plan year must file with PBGC a notice of insolvency containing the information described in § 4245.4(a) and must issue to interested parties a notice of insolvency containing the information described in § 4245.4(b). Once notices of insolvency with respect to a plan have been provided as required, no notices of insolvency need be provided with respect to the plan for any subsequent plan year. A notice of insolvency may be combined with a notice of insolvency benefit level under § 4245.5 for the same plan year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to provide notice.</I> The plan sponsor must provide the notices of insolvency under paragraph (a) of this section at the time described in § 4281.43(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18724, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4245.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4245.4   Contents of notice of insolvency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to PBGC.</I> A notice of insolvency under § 4245.3 required to be filed with PBGC must contain the information and certification specified in the notice of insolvency instructions on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notices to interested parties.</I> A notice of insolvency under § 4245.3 required to be given to interested parties must contain all of the following information—
</P>
<P>(1) The information set forth in § 4281.44(b)(1) through (4) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated total amount of annual benefit payments under the plan (determined without regard to the insolvency) for the insolvency year.
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated amount of the plan's available resources for the insolvency year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18724, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4245.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4245.5   Notice of insolvency benefit level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement of notice.</I> The plan sponsor of an insolvent plan must file with PBGC and issue to interested parties notices of insolvency benefit level containing the information described in § 4245.6 in each of the following circumstances—
</P>
<P>(1) For the initial insolvency year, provide the notices of insolvency benefit level to PBGC and to interested parties.
</P>
<P>(2) For any insolvency year following the initial insolvency year—
</P>
<P>(i) If there is a change in the insolvency benefit level that affects plan payees generally, provide the notices of insolvency benefit level to PBGC and to plan payees (which, for purposes of this section, means participants and beneficiaries in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year).
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a change in the insolvency benefit level that affects only one plan payee or a class of plan payees but not plan payees generally (treating commencement of a person's benefits for this purpose as a change in the insolvency benefit level for that person), provide the notices of insolvency benefit level to PBGC and to each affected plan payee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combined notices.</I> The plan sponsor may combine a notice of insolvency benefit level and a notice of insolvency under § 4245.3 for the same plan year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to provide notice.</I> The plan sponsor must provide the required notices under this section at the time described in § 4281.45(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18724, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4245.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4245.6   Contents of notice of insolvency benefit level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to PBGC.</I> A notice of insolvency benefit level under § 4245.5(a) required to be filed with PBGC must contain the information and certification specified in the notice of insolvency benefit level instructions on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notices to interested parties other than participants and beneficiaries in or entering pay status.</I> A notice of insolvency benefit level under § 4245.5(a) required to be delivered to interested parties, other than to participants and beneficiaries in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year, must include all of the following information—
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan year for which the notice is issued.
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated amount of annual benefit payments under the plan (determined without regard to the insolvency) for the insolvency year.
</P>
<P>(4) The estimated amount of the plan's available resources for the insolvency year.
</P>
<P>(5) The amount of financial assistance, if any, requested from PBGC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notices to participants and beneficiaries in or entering pay status.</I> A notice of insolvency benefit level under § 4245.5(a) required to be delivered to participants and beneficiaries in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year for which the notice is given must include the information set forth in § 4281.46(b)(1) through (7) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18725, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4245.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4245.7   Successor plan.</HEAD>
<P>The plan sponsor of a successor plan created by a partition order under § 4233.14 of this chapter must issue to participants and beneficiaries any notice required under the partition order and is not required to file or issue notices under § 4245.3 or § 4245.5.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18725, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4245.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.36.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4245.8   Financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for financial assistance.</I> If the plan sponsor of a plan determines that the plan's resource benefit level for an insolvency year is below the level of benefits guaranteed by PBGC or that the plan will be unable to pay guaranteed benefits when due for any month during the year, the plan sponsor must apply to PBGC for financial assistance pursuant to section 4261 of ERISA and in accordance with § 4281.47 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Actuarial valuations.</I> The plan sponsor of an insolvent plan or a terminated plan that is expected to become insolvent under section 4245 of ERISA must have performed and file with PBGC actuarial valuations in accordance with § 4041A.24 of this chapter, except that if a plan is not terminated, the termination year valuation under § 4041A.24(a)(1) of this chapter must be performed for the plan for the plan year in which the plan becomes insolvent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18725, May 2, 2019, as amended at 90 FR 39329, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4261" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4261—FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO MULTIEMPLOYER PLANS
</HEAD>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34118, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4261.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.37.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4261.1   Cross-reference.</HEAD>
<P>See § 4281.47 for procedures for applying to the PBGC for financial assistance under section 4261 of ERISA. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4262" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4262—SPECIAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE BY PBGC
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1432.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 41006, July 8, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4262.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to prescribe rules governing applications for special financial assistance under section 4262 of ERISA and related requirements.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: <I>Code, controlled group, ERISA, fair market value, IRS, multiemployer plan, PBGC, plan,</I> and <I>plan sponsor.</I> In addition, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Form 5500</I> means the Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan required to be filed for employee benefit plans under sections 104 and 4065 of ERISA and sections 6058(a) and 6059(b) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Merged plan</I> means merged plan as defined in § 4231.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Merger</I> means merger as defined in § 4231.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>SFA coverage period</I> means the period beginning on the plan's SFA measurement date and ending on the last day of the last plan year ending in 2051.
</P>
<P><I>SFA measurement date</I> for a plan other than a plan described in § 4262.4(g) means the last day of the third calendar month immediately preceding the date the plan's initial application for special financial assistance was filed.
</P>
<P><I>Special financial assistance</I> or <I>SFA</I> means special financial assistance from PBGC under section 4262 of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer and transfer of assets or liabilities</I> means transfer and transfer of assets or liabilities as defined in § 4231.2 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.3   Eligibility for special financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to all the provisions of this section, a multiemployer plan is eligible for special financial assistance in any of the following cases:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Critical and declining status plans.</I> The plan is in critical and declining status within the meaning of section 305(b)(6) of ERISA for the specified year; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plans with a suspension of benefits.</I> A suspension of benefits has been approved with respect to the plan under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA as of March 11, 2021; or
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Critical status plans.</I> The plan:
</P>
<P>(i) Is certified to be in critical status within the meaning of section 305(b)(2) of ERISA for a specified year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage calculated under paragraph (c)(2) of this section was less than 40 percent; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The ratio of the total number of active participants at the end of the plan year required to be entered on the Form 5500 that was required to be filed for a specified year to the sum of inactive participants (retired or separated participants receiving benefits, other retired or separated participants entitled to future benefits, and deceased participants whose beneficiaries are receiving or are entitled to receive benefits) required to be entered on such Form 5500 was less than 2 to 3; or, the ratio of the total number of active participants at the beginning of the plan year required to be entered on Form 5500 Schedule MB that was required to be filed for a specified year to the sum of inactive participants (retired participants and beneficiaries receiving payment and terminated vested participants) required to be entered on such Form 5500 Schedule MB was less than 2 to 3.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Insolvent plans.</I> The plan became insolvent for purposes of section 418E of the Code after December 16, 2014, and has remained insolvent and has not terminated under section 4041A of ERISA as of March 11, 2021.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specified year.</I> For purposes of this section, the term <I>specified year</I> means a plan year specified by the plan sponsor beginning in 2020, 2021, or 2022. The specified years for paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section need not be the same.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional rules for critical status plans</I>—(1) <I>Elected status.</I> Election of critical status under section 305(b)(4) of ERISA does not satisfy the requirement for the certification of critical status by the plan's actuary under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Percentage.</I> The percentage calculated as—
</P>
<P>(i) The current value of net assets as of the first day of the plan year that was required to be entered on the Form 5500 Schedule MB that was required to be filed for a specified year; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The current value of withdrawal liability due to be received by the plan on an accrual basis, reflecting a reasonable allowance for amounts considered uncollectible, as of the first day of the plan year for the specified year in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section (if not already included in the current value of net assets in paragraph (c)(2)(i)); divided by
</P>
<P>(iii) The current liability attributable to all benefits as of the first day of the plan year required to be entered on the Form 5500 Schedule MB specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Actuarial assumptions.</I> Determinations of eligibility under paragraph (a)(1) or (3) of this section must be made in accordance with the provisions in this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certifications completed before January 1, 2021.</I> For certifications of plan status completed before January 1, 2021, PBGC will accept assumptions incorporated in the determination of whether a plan is in critical status or critical and declining status as described in section 305(b) of ERISA unless such assumptions are clearly erroneous.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certifications completed after December 31, 2020.</I> For certifications of plan status completed after December 31, 2020, the determination of whether a plan is in critical status or critical and declining status for purposes of eligibility for special financial assistance must be made using the assumptions that the plan used in its most recently completed certification of plan status before January 1, 2021, unless such assumptions (excluding the plan's interest rate assumption) are unreasonable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Changes in assumptions.</I> If a plan determines that use of the assumptions under paragraph (d)(2) of this section is unreasonable, the plan's application may include a proposed change in the assumptions (excluding the plan's interest rate assumption), as described in § 4262.5.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.4   Amount of special financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Plans other than MPRA plans.</I> Subject to paragraph (f) of this section and to the adjustment for the date of payment as described in § 4262.12, the amount of special financial assistance for a plan that is not a MPRA plan is the lowest whole dollar amount (not less than $0) for which, as of the last day of each plan year during the SFA coverage period, projected SFA assets and projected non-SFA assets are both greater than or equal to zero.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>MPRA plans.</I> Subject to paragraph (f) of this section and to the adjustment for the date of payment as described in § 4262.12, the amount of special financial assistance for a MPRA plan is the greatest of the amount determined under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the amount determined under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, and the amount determined under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The amount determined under this paragraph (a)(2)(i) is the lowest whole dollar amount (not less than $0) for which, as of the last day of each plan year during the SFA coverage period, projected SFA assets and projected non-SFA assets are both greater than or equal to zero, and, as of the last day of the SFA coverage period, the sum of projected SFA assets and projected non-SFA assets is greater than the amount of such sum as of the last day of the immediately preceding plan year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount determined under this paragraph (a)(2)(ii) is the present value of benefits paid and expected to be paid by the plan during the SFA coverage period attributable to the reinstatement of benefits under § 4262.15(a)(1), payment of previously suspended benefits under § 4262.15(a)(2), and any restoration of benefits under 26 CFR 1.432(e)(9)-1(e)(3), calculated using the SFA interest rate under paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>MPRA plan definition.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>MPRA plan</I> means a plan that is eligible for special financial assistance under § 4262.3(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Projected SFA assets.</I> The amount of projected SFA assets for a plan is determined by projecting special financial assistance forward annually until the projected SFA assets are exhausted, using the following annual cash flows:
</P>
<P>(1) Benefits paid and expected to be paid by the plan during the SFA coverage period, including any reinstatement of benefits attributable to the elimination of reductions in a participant's or beneficiary's benefit due to a suspension of benefits under sections 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA as required under § 4262.15(a)(1), payment of previously suspended benefits under § 4262.15(a)(2), and any restoration of benefits under 26 CFR 1.432(e)(9)-1(e)(3), assuming such reinstated benefits are paid beginning as of the SFA measurement date and excluding any benefit increases resulting from contribution increases agreed to on or after July 9, 2021, as demonstrated by the execution of a document described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative expenses paid and expected to be paid by the plan during the SFA coverage period, excluding the amount owed to PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA (which is added to the amount of special financial assistance in § 4262.12 determined as of the date special financial assistance is paid); and
</P>
<P>(3) Investment returns expected to be earned by amounts attributable to special financial assistance calculated using the SFA interest rate described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, excluding investment returns for the plan year in which the sum of annual projected benefit payments and administrative expenses for the year exceeds the beginning-of-year projected SFA assets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Projected non-SFA assets.</I> The amount of projected non-SFA assets for a plan is determined by projecting the fair market value of plan assets on the SFA measurement date forward annually, using the following annual cash flows:
</P>
<P>(1) Benefits paid and expected to be paid by the plan during the SFA coverage period after the projected SFA assets described in paragraph (b) of this section are fully exhausted, including any reinstatement of benefits attributable to the elimination of reductions in a participant's or beneficiary's benefit due to a suspension of benefits under sections 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA as required under § 4262.15(a)(1), payment of previously suspended benefits under § 4262.15(a)(2), and any restoration of benefits under 26 CFR 1.432(e)(9)-1(e)(3), assuming such reinstated benefits are paid beginning as of the SFA measurement date and excluding any benefit increases resulting from contribution increases agreed to on or after July 9, 2021, as demonstrated by the execution of a document described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative expenses paid and expected to be paid by the plan during the SFA coverage period after the projected SFA assets described in paragraph (b) of this section are fully exhausted, excluding the amount owed to PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA (which is added to the amount of special financial assistance in § 4262.12 determined as of the date special financial assistance is paid);
</P>
<P>(3) Employer contributions paid and expected to be paid to the plan during the SFA coverage period, excluding contribution rate increases agreed to on or after July 9, 2021, as demonstrated by the execution of a document increasing a plan's contribution rate. The document referred to in this paragraph (c)(3) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) A collective bargaining agreement not rejected by the plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A document reallocating contribution rates;
</P>
<P>(4) Withdrawal liability payments made and expected to be made to the plan during the SFA coverage period taking into account a reasonable allowance for amounts considered uncollectible;
</P>
<P>(5) Other payments made and expected to be made to the plan (excluding the amount of financial assistance under section 4261 of ERISA and special financial assistance to be received by the plan) during the SFA coverage period; and
</P>
<P>(6) Investment returns expected to be earned by assets not attributable to special financial assistance calculated using the non-SFA interest rate described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deterministic basis.</I> The projections in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section must be performed on a deterministic basis using assumptions as described in paragraph (e) of this section. For a plan other than a plan described in § 4262.4(g), the projections must be based on the participant census data used to prepare the plan's actuarial valuation report, either—
</P>
<P>(1) For the plan year in which occurs the plan's SFA measurement date; or
</P>
<P>(2) If there is no such report for that plan year, for the preceding plan year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Actuarial assumptions.</I> The amount of special financial assistance must be determined in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and practices and the provisions in this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(1) The non-SFA interest rate is the lesser of the rate in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The interest rate in this paragraph (e)(1)(i) is the interest rate used for funding standard account purposes as projected in the plan's most recently completed certification of plan status before January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest rate in this paragraph (e)(1)(ii) is the interest rate that is 200 basis points higher than the rate specified in section 303(h)(2)(C)(iii) of ERISA (disregarding modifications made under section 303(h)(2)(C)(iv)) for the month in which such rate is the lowest among the 4 calendar months ending with the month in which the plan's initial application for special financial assistance is filed, taking into account only rates that have been issued by the IRS as of the day that is the day before the date the plan's initial application is filed.
</P>
<P>(2) The SFA interest rate is the lesser of the rate in paragraph (e)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The interest rate in this paragraph (e)(2)(i) is the interest rate in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest rate in this paragraph (e)(2)(ii) is the interest rate that is 67 basis points higher than the average of the rates specified in section 303(h)(2)(C)(i), (ii), and (iii) of ERISA (disregarding modifications made under section 303(h)(2)(C)(iv)) for the month in which such average is the lowest among the 4 calendar months ending with the month in which the plan's initial application for special financial assistance is filed, taking into account only rates that have been issued by the IRS as of the day that is the day before the date the plan's initial application is filed.
</P>
<P>(3) The actuarial assumptions (other than the interest rate assumptions under paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section) are those used for the plan's most recently completed certification of plan status before January 1, 2021, unless such assumptions are unreasonable.
</P>
<P>(4) If a plan determines that use of the actuarial assumptions under paragraph (e)(3) of this section is unreasonable, the plan's application may include a proposed change in the assumptions (excluding the interest rate assumptions under paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section), as described in § 4262.5.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Certain events</I>—(1) <I>General rules.</I> (i) The special financial assistance of a plan that experiences one or more of the events described in paragraph (f)(2), (3), or (4) of this section during the period beginning on July 9, 2021, and ending on the SFA measurement date is limited to the amount of special financial assistance that would have applied to the plan on the SFA measurement date if the events had not occurred, as determined in a reasonable manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) The special financial assistance of a plan that experiences a merger event during the period described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section is limited to the sum of the amounts of special financial assistance that would have applied to the plans involved in the merger on the SFA measurement date if the merger had not occurred, as determined in a reasonable manner. If any of the plans involved in the merger also experiences one or more of the events described in paragraph (f)(2), (3), or (4) of this section during the period described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, the amount of special financial assistance for that plan on the SFA measurement date, determined as if the merger had not occurred, must be determined in accordance with paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transfers.</I> The event described in this paragraph (f)(2) is a transfer of assets or liabilities (including a spinoff).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Benefit increases.</I> The event described in this paragraph (f)(3) is the execution of a plan amendment increasing accrued or projected benefits under a plan, other than a restoration of suspended benefits that satisfies the requirements of 26 CFR 1.432(e)(9)-1(e)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contribution reductions.</I> The event described in this paragraph (f)(4) is the execution of a document reducing a plan's contribution rate (including any reduction in benefit accruals adopted simultaneously or arising from a pre-existing linkage between benefit accruals and contributions), but only if the plan does not demonstrate (in accordance with the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I>) that the risk of loss to participants and beneficiaries is reduced (disregarding special financial assistance) by execution of the document. The document referred to in this paragraph (f)(4) is either—
</P>
<P>(i) A collective bargaining agreement not rejected by the plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A document reallocating contribution rates.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effect of pre-event ineligibility.</I> In determining the amount of special financial assistance that would have applied to a plan if an event described in this paragraph (f) had not occurred, if the plan would have been ineligible for special financial assistance under § 4262.3 in the absence of the event, then the amount of special financial assistance is deemed to be $0 (zero).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> Plan A applies for special financial assistance. If the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section did not apply, Plan A would be entitled to special financial assistance in the amount of $20X. Before the SFA measurement date, but on or after July 9, 2021, Plan A transferred a portion of its assets and liabilities to Plan B. If the transfer had not occurred, Plan A would, as of the SFA measurement date, be entitled to special financial assistance in the amount of $40X. Although an event described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section occurred with respect to Plan A, Plan A's special financial assistance is unaffected by the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section and is $20X. Plan B also applies for special financial assistance. If the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section did not apply, Plan B would be entitled to special financial assistance in the amount of $30X. If the transfer from Plan A had not occurred, Plan B would, as of the SFA measurement date, be ineligible for special financial assistance. As a result of the event described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section reduces Plan B's special financial assistance from $30X to $0.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> Plan C applies for special financial assistance. If the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section did not apply, Plan C would be entitled to special financial assistance in the amount of $40X. Before the SFA measurement date, but on or after July 9, 2021, Plans A and B were merged into existing Plan C. If the mergers had not occurred, Plan A would not be eligible for special financial assistance, and Plan B and Plan C would be entitled, respectively, to $10X and $5X of special financial assistance as of the SFA measurement date. As a result of the merger event described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section reduces Plan C's special financial assistance from $40X to $15X.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> Plan A applies for special financial assistance. If the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section did not apply, Plan A would be entitled to special financial assistance in the amount of $10X. Before the SFA measurement date, but on or after July 9, 2021, projected benefits under Plan A were increased. If the increase had not occurred, Plan A would, as of the SFA measurement date, be ineligible for special financial assistance. As a result of the event described in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, applying the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section and in accordance with paragraph (f)(5) of this section, Plan A is treated as being entitled to special financial assistance of $0.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> Plan A applies for special financial assistance. If the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section did not apply, Plan A would be entitled to special financial assistance in the amount of $10X. Before the SFA measurement date, but on or after July 9, 2021, Plan A's contribution rate was reduced. Plan A's benefit formula states that the monthly benefit accrual for a participant for a plan year is 2.0 percent of the contributions paid on behalf of the participant for that plan year. Since there is a pre-existing linkage between benefit accruals and contributions, the event described in paragraph (f)(4) of this section includes both the reduction in benefit accruals and the reduction in the contribution rate. If the contribution rate reduction and the reduction in benefit accruals had not occurred, Plan A would, as of the SFA measurement date, be entitled to special financial assistance of $8X. Plan A does not provide a demonstration that the risk of loss to participants and beneficiaries is reduced (disregarding special financial assistance) due to the reduction in contribution rate and the reduction in benefit accruals. As a result of the events described in paragraph (f)(4) of this section, the limitation in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section reduces Plan A's special financial assistance from $10X to $8X.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Filers under the interim provisions of this part.</I> If a plan's application for special financial assistance under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022 was filed before that date, the plan may choose to proceed in accordance with paragraph (g)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section (whichever applies).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Approved application.</I> If the plan's application for special financial assistance was approved as of August 8, 2022, the plan may—
</P>
<P>(i) Supplement the plan's application as described in paragraphs (g)(6) and (8) of this section after special financial assistance is paid to or for the plan under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not supplement the plan's application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pending application.</I> If the plan's application for special financial assistance was not approved, withdrawn, or denied, and was pending, as of August 8, 2022, the plan may—
</P>
<P>(i) Withdraw the plan's application in accordance with § 4262.11(d) and file a revised application as described in paragraph (g)(5) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not withdraw the plan's application and have the application reviewed under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022 as described in paragraph (g)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Withdrawn application.</I> If the plan's application for special financial assistance was not pending as of August 8, 2022, because the application was withdrawn, the plan may file a revised application as described in paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Denied application.</I> If the plan's application for special financial assistance was not pending as of August 8, 2022, because the application was denied, the plan may file a revised application as described in paragraph (g)(5) of this section. Any revised application must address the reasons cited by PBGC for the denial.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Revised application.</I> Any revised application for special financial assistance filed by a plan under this paragraph (g) is processed in the same way as an initial application, and must demonstrate eligibility and the amount of the plan's special financial assistance determined under the provisions of this part as in effect on August 8, 2022, subject to adjustment as described in § 4262.12(a), and use the following base data:
</P>
<P>(i) The plan's SFA measurement date determined as the last day of the calendar quarter immediately preceding the date the plan's initial application for special financial assistance was filed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan's participant census data determined under this part as in effect before August 8, 2022; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan's non-SFA interest rate and SFA interest rate as determined under paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) S<I>upplemented application.</I> Any supplemented application filed by a plan under this paragraph (g) must be filed in accordance with paragraph (g)(8) of this section and must be limited to the changes and information specified in the supplemented special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov,</I> about the determination of the amount of special financial assistance under this part as of August 8, 2022 (including the interest rates in paragraph (e) of this section), and the filer must agree to be bound by the provisions of this part governing such a determination, in which case, special financial assistance is subject to adjustment as described in § 4262.12(c).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>No supplement or withdrawal.</I> If special financial assistance has not been paid to or for the plan under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022, and the plan has not filed a supplemented application as described in paragraphs (g)(6) and (8) of this section, or withdrawn the plan's application in accordance with § 4262.11(d), the application will be reviewed under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022. The amount of special financial assistance for the plan will be determined under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022 and be subject to adjustment as described in § 4262.12(b).
</P>
<P>(i) A plan that receives special financial assistance as described under this paragraph (g)(7) may subsequently file a supplemented application in accordance with paragraphs (g)(6) and (8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the plan's application is denied, the plan may file a revised application as described in paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Supplemented application special rules.</I> (i) Except as provided in this paragraph (g)(8), the rules in §§ 4262.10 and 4262.11(a) and (b) and (f) and (g) for a revised application apply to a supplemented application.
</P>
<P>(ii) A supplemented application must not change the plan's SFA measurement date, fair market value of assets, or participant census data, or include a proposed change in assumptions, except to propose a change to the plan's employer contribution assumption to exclude contribution rate increases agreed to on or after July 9, 2021, as permitted under paragraph (c)(3) of this section (in which case, the plan must exclude any benefit increases resulting from such contribution increases as required under paragraphs (b)(1) and (c)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iii) A supplemented application may be withdrawn and resubmitted at any time before PBGC denies or approves the supplemented application. Any withdrawal of a plan's supplemented application must be by written notice to PBGC submitted by any person authorized to submit an application for the plan and in accordance with the supplemented special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) If PBGC denies a plan's supplemented application, any new supplemented application filed by the plan must address the reasons cited by PBGC for the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.5   PBGC review of plan assumptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) As set forth in § 4262.3(d)(1), PBGC will accept the assumptions used by a plan to determine eligibility for special financial assistance under § 4262.3(d)(1) unless PBGC determines that such assumptions are clearly erroneous.
</P>
<P>(2) PBGC will accept the assumptions used by a plan to determine eligibility for special financial assistance under § 4262.3(d)(2) or to determine the amount of special financial assistance under § 4262.4(e)(3) unless PBGC determines that an assumption is unreasonable.
</P>
<P>(3) PBGC will accept a plan's changes in assumptions under paragraph (c) of this section except to the extent that PBGC determines that an assumption is individually unreasonable, or the proposed changed assumptions are unreasonable in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reasonableness of assumptions.</I> (1) Each of the actuarial assumptions and methods used for the actuarial projections (excluding the interest rate assumptions under § 4262.4(e)(1) and (2)) must be reasonable in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and practices, taking into account the experience of the plan and reasonable expectations. The actuary's selection of assumptions about future covered employment and contribution levels (including contribution base units and contribution rates) may be based on information provided by the plan sponsor, which must act in good faith in providing the information.
</P>
<P>(2) If a plan has a change in assumptions under paragraph (c) of this section, each of the actuarial assumptions and methods (other than the interest rate assumptions under § 4262.4(e)(1) and (2)) must be reasonable and the combination of those actuarial assumptions and methods (excluding the interest rate assumptions under § 4262.4(e)(1) and (2)) must also be reasonable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Changes in assumptions.</I> If a plan determines that use of an assumption described in § 4262.3(d)(2) or § 4262.4(e)(3) is unreasonable, the plan's application may include a proposed change in the assumptions (excluding the plan's interest rate assumptions under § 4262.4(e)(1) and (2)).
</P>
<P>(1) The application for special financial assistance must—
</P>
<P>(i) Describe why the original assumption is no longer reasonable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Propose to use a different assumption (the changed assumption); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate that the changed assumption is reasonable.
</P>
<P>(2) PBGC will provide guidelines for changed assumptions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.6   Information to be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> An application for special financial assistance must include the information specified in this section and §§ 4262.7 (plan information) and 4262.8 (actuarial and financial information); a copy of the executed plan amendment required under paragraph (e)(1) of this section; a copy of the proposed plan amendment required under paragraph (e)(2) of this section; and a completed checklist and other information as described in the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I> If any of the information required for an application for special financial assistance under this part is not accurately completed or not filed with the application, PBGC may require the plan sponsor to file additional information described under paragraph (d) of this section or PBGC may consider the application incomplete. If the correction of an error or omission requires a change to the amount of special financial assistance requested, the application will be considered incomplete.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required trustee signature.</I> An application for special financial assistance must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be signed and dated by an authorized trustee, who is a current member of the board of trustees and who is authorized to sign on behalf of the board of trustees, or by another authorized representative of the plan sponsor, with such signature accompanied by the printed name and title of the signer; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include the following statements signed by an authorized trustee who is a current member of the board of trustees, with such signature accompanied by the printed name and title of the signer: “Under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America, I declare that I am an authorized trustee who is a current member of the board of trustees of the [<I>insert plan name</I>] and that I have examined this application, including accompanying documents, and, to the best of my knowledge and belief, the application contains all the relevant facts relating to the application; all statements of fact contained in the application are true, correct, and not misleading because of omission of any material fact; and all accompanying documents are what they purport to be.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Actuarial calculations.</I> All calculations that are required in an application for special financial assistance under this part must include a certification by the plan's enrolled actuary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Clarifying and additional information.</I> PBGC may require a plan sponsor to file additional information, including information to clarify or verify information provided in the plan's application. The plan sponsor must promptly file any such information with PBGC upon request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Duty to amend plan and notify PBGC.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan applying for special financial assistance must—
</P>
<P>(1) Amend the plan to include the following special financial assistance provision effective through the end of the last plan year ending in 2051: “Beginning with the SFA measurement date selected by the plan in the plan's application for special financial assistance, notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this or any other governing document, the plan shall be administered in accordance with the restrictions and conditions specified in section 4262 of ERISA and 29 CFR part 4262. This amendment is contingent upon approval by PBGC of the plan's application for special financial assistance.”
</P>
<P>(2) If the plan suspended benefits under section 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA, amend the plan to include provisions substantially similar to the following to, in accordance with guidance issued by the Secretary of the Treasury under section 432(k) of the Code, {I} reinstate benefits, as required by § 4262.15(a)(1), and {II} make payments of previously suspended benefits, as required by § 4262.15(a)(2): “Effective as of the first month in which special financial assistance is paid to the plan, the plan shall reinstate all benefits that were suspended under section 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA. The plan shall pay each participant and beneficiary that is in pay status as of the date special financial assistance is paid to the plan the aggregate amount of the participant's or beneficiary's benefits that were not paid because of the suspension, with no actuarial adjustment or interest. Such payment shall be made [<I>choose whichever applies:</I> `in a lump sum no later than 3 months after the date the special financial assistance is paid to the plan, irrespective of whether the participant or beneficiary dies after the date special financial assistance is paid' <I>or</I> `in equal monthly installments over a period of 5 years, commencing no later than 3 months after the date the special financial assistance is paid to the plan, with all installments to be paid irrespective of whether the participant or beneficiary survives to the end of the 5-year period'].”
</P>
<P>(3) During any time in which an application is pending approval by PBGC, the plan sponsor must promptly notify PBGC in writing as soon as the plan sponsor becomes aware that any material fact or representation contained in or relating to the application, or in any supporting documents, is no longer accurate, or that any material fact or representation was omitted from the application or supporting documents.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of information.</I> Unless confidential under the Privacy Act, all information that is filed with PBGC for an application for special financial assistance under this part may be made publicly available, at PBGC's sole discretion, on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I> or otherwise publicly disclosed. Except to the extent required by the Privacy Act, PBGC provides no assurance of confidentiality in any information or documentation included in an application for special financial assistance.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.7   Plan information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic information.</I> An application for special financial assistance must include all of the following information with respect to the plan and amount of special financial assistance requested:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of the plan, Employer Identification Number (EIN), and three-digit Plan Number (PN).
</P>
<P>(2) Name of the individual filing the application and role of the individual with respect to the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) Name, address, email, and telephone number of the plan sponsor and the plan sponsor's authorized representatives, if any.
</P>
<P>(4) The total amount of special financial assistance requested under § 4262.4(a)(1) or (2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility.</I> An application must identify the eligibility requirements in § 4262.3 that the plan satisfies to be eligible for special financial assistance. An application for a plan that is eligible under section 4262(b)(1)(C) of ERISA must include a demonstration to support that the plan meets the eligibility requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Priority group identification.</I> An application must identify any priority group under § 4262.10(d)(2) that the plan is in. An application must include a demonstration to support the plan's inclusion in a priority group, unless the plan is insolvent under section 4245(a) of ERISA, has implemented a suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA as of March 11, 2021, is in critical and declining status (as defined in section 305(b)(6) of ERISA) and had 350,000 or more participants, or is listed on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I> as a plan in priority group 6, as defined under § 4262.10(d)(2)(vi).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plans with a suspension of benefits.</I> If a plan previously suspended benefits under section 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA, its application must include a description of how the plan will reinstate the benefits that were previously suspended and a proposed schedule showing aggregate amount and timing of payments (in accordance with § 4262.15) to participants and beneficiaries under the plan. The proposed schedule should be prepared assuming the effective date for reinstatement is the SFA measurement date and that payments for previously suspended benefits described in § 4262.15(a)(2) are paid or commence on the SFA measurement date. If the plan restored benefits under 26 CFR 1.432(e)(9)-1(e)(3) before the SFA measurement date, the proposed schedule should reflect the amount and timing of payments of restored benefits and the effect of the restoration on the benefits remaining to be reinstated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Plan documentation.</I> An application must include all of the following plan documentation:
</P>
<P>(1) Most recent plan document or restatement of the plan document and all subsequent amendments adopted (if any), including a copy of the executed plan amendment required under § 4262.6(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) If the plan suspended benefits under section 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA, a copy of the proposed plan amendment(s) required under § 4262.6(e)(2) and a certification by the plan sponsor that the plan amendment(s) will be timely adopted. Such certification must be signed either by all members of the plan's board of trustees or by one or more trustees duly authorized to sign the certification on behalf of the entire board and to commit the board to timely adopting the amendment after the plan's application for special financial assistance is approved, with each signature accompanied by the printed name and title of the signer.
</P>
<P>(3) Most recent trust agreement or restatement of the trust agreement and all subsequent adopted amendments (if any).
</P>
<P>(4) Most recent IRS determination letter.
</P>
<P>(5) Actuarial valuation reports completed for the 2018 plan year and each subsequent actuarial valuation report completed before the date the plan's initial application for special financial assistance is filed.
</P>
<P>(6) Most recent rehabilitation plan (or funding improvement plan, if applicable), including all subsequent amendments and updates, and the percentage of total contributions received under each schedule of the rehabilitation plan for the most recent plan year available. If the most recent rehabilitation plan does not include historical documentation of rehabilitation plan changes (if any) that occurred in calendar year 2020 and later, these details must be provided in a clearly identified supplemental document.
</P>
<P>(7) Most recent Form 5500 and all schedules and attachments (including the audited financial statement).
</P>
<P>(8) Plan actuary's certification of plan status required under section 305(b)(3) of ERISA completed for the 2018 plan year and each subsequent annual certification of plan status completed before the date the plan's initial application was filed, with documentation supporting each certification, which must include the projections and information required in the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) Most recent statement for each of the plan's cash and investment accounts.
</P>
<P>(10) Most recent plan financial statement (audited, or unaudited if audited is not available).
</P>
<P>(11) Bank account and other information necessary for electronic payment of funds.
</P>
<P>(12) All written policies and procedures governing withdrawal liability determination, assessment, collection, settlement, and payment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.8   Actuarial and financial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> An application for special financial assistance must include all of the following actuarial and financial information:
</P>
<P>(1) For each plan year from the 2018 plan year until the most recent plan year for which the Form 5500 is required to be filed by the date the plan's initial application for special financial assistance is filed, the projection of expected benefit payments as required to be attached to the Form 5500 Schedule MB if the response to the question at line 8b(1) of the Form 5500 Schedule MB is “Yes”.
</P>
<P>(2) For a plan that has 10,000 or more participants required to be entered on line 6f of the plan's most recently filed Form 5500 (as of the date the plan's initial application for special financial assistance is filed), a listing of the 15 largest contributing employers and the contribution amounts for each such contributing employer for the most recently completed plan year (before the date the plan's initial application for special financial assistance is filed).
</P>
<P>(3) Historical plan financial information for the 2010 plan year through the plan year immediately preceding the date the plan's initial application was filed that separately identifies: Total contributions; total contribution base units; average contribution rates; number of active participants at the beginning of each plan year; and other sources of non-investment income, including, if applicable, withdrawal liability payments collected, contributions from reciprocity agreements, and other sources of contributions or income not already identified.
</P>
<P>(4) Information used to determine the amount of the requested special financial assistance, including all of the following information—
</P>
<P>(i) Non-SFA interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(1), including supporting details on how it was determined, and SFA interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(2), including supporting details on how it was determined.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fair market value of plan assets determined as of the SFA measurement date; a certification from the plan sponsor with respect to the accuracy of this amount, including information that substantiates the asset value and any projections to the SFA measurement date (including details and supporting rationale); and a reconciliation of the fair market value of plan assets from the date of the most recent audited plan financial statement to the SFA measurement date showing contributions, withdrawal liability payments, benefit payments, administrative expenses, and investment income.
</P>
<P>(iii) For the calculation method used to determine the requested amount of special financial assistance, the plan year in which the sum of annual projected benefit payments and administrative expenses for the year exceeds the beginning-of-year projected SFA assets.
</P>
<P>(5) The amount of special financial assistance calculated under § 4262.4(a)(1) and information used to determine such amount, based on a deterministic projection, including all of the following information—
</P>
<P>(i) Special financial assistance calculated under § 4262.4(a)(1) determined as a lump sum as of the SFA measurement date.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each plan year in the SFA coverage period: The projected amount of contributions, projected withdrawal liability payments reflecting a reasonable allowance for amounts considered uncollectible, and other payments expected to be made to the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each plan year in the SFA coverage period: Payments described in § 4262.4(b)(1) attributable to the reinstatement of benefits under § 4262.15 that were previously suspended through the SFA measurement date.
</P>
<P>(iv) For each plan year in the SFA coverage period: Benefit payments described in § 4262.4(b)(1) (including any benefits restored under 26 CFR 1.432(e)(9)-1(e)(3) and excluding the previously suspended benefits described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section), separately for current retirees and beneficiaries in pay status, current terminated participants not yet in pay status, current active participants, and new entrants; and total benefit payments paid and expected to be paid from projected SFA assets separately from total benefit payments paid and expected to be paid from non-SFA assets after the projected SFA assets are fully exhausted.
</P>
<P>(v) For each plan year in the SFA coverage period: Administrative expenses paid and expected to be paid (excluding the amount owed PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA), separately for PBGC premiums and all other administrative expenses; and total administrative expenses paid and expected to be paid from projected SFA assets separately from total administrative expenses paid and expected to be paid from non-SFA assets after the projected SFA assets are fully exhausted.
</P>
<P>(vi) For each plan year in the SFA coverage period: The projected total participant count at the beginning of the year.
</P>
<P>(vii) For each plan year in the SFA coverage period: The projected investment income earned by assets not attributable to special financial assistance based on the interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(1) and the projected fair market value of non-SFA assets at the end of each plan year.
</P>
<P>(viii) For each plan year in the SFA coverage period: The projected investment income earned by amounts attributable to special financial assistance based on the interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(2) (excluding investment returns for the plan year in which the sum of the annual projected benefit payments and administrative expenses for the year exceeds the beginning-of-year projected SFA assets) and the projected fair market value of SFA assets at the end of each plan year.
</P>
<P>(6) For MPRA plans, the amount of special financial assistance calculated under § 4262.4(a)(2)(i) and information used to determine such amount, based on a deterministic projection, including all of the following information—
</P>
<P>(i) Special financial assistance calculated under § 4262.4(a)(2)(i) determined as a lump sum as of the SFA measurement date.
</P>
<P>(ii) All items identified in paragraphs (a)(5)(ii) through (viii) of this section that support the amount described in paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) For MPRA plans, if the amount calculated under § 4262.4(a)(2)(ii) is the greatest amount calculated under § 4262.4(a)(2), the amount of special financial assistance calculated under § 4262.4(a)(2)(ii) and information used to determine the amount under § 4262.4(a)(2)(ii), based on a deterministic projection, including all of the following information—
</P>
<P>(i) Special financial assistance calculated under§ 4262.4(a)(2)(ii) determined as a lump sum as of the SFA measurement date.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each plan year in the SFA coverage period: Benefit payments described in § 4262.4(b)(1) (excluding the previously suspended benefits described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section), separately for current retirees and beneficiaries in pay status, current terminated participants not yet in pay status, current active participants, and new entrants; and total benefit payments paid or expected to be paid. For each participant group except new entrants: benefit payments after reinstatement (excluding the previously suspended benefits described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section), the reduced benefit payments under the approved benefit suspension, and the difference due to the reinstatement of benefits.
</P>
<P>(iii) The present value, as of the SFA measurement date using the SFA interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(2), of the amounts described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The present value, as of the SFA measurement date using the SFA interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(2), of the difference in benefit amounts due to the reinstatement of benefits, as described in paragraph (a)(7)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) Projected contributions and withdrawal liability payments, reflecting a reasonable allowance for amounts considered uncollectible, used to calculate the requested special financial assistance amount in § 4262.4, including total contributions, contribution base units, average contribution rate(s), reciprocal contributions (if applicable), additional contributions from the rehabilitation plan, and any other contributions, and number of active participants at the beginning of each plan year. For withdrawal liability, separate projections for withdrawn employers and for future assumed withdrawals.
</P>
<P>(9) A description of the development of the assumed future contributions (including assumed contribution rates) and future withdrawal liability payments described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) For a plan that has 350,000 or more participants reported on line 6f of its most recently filed Form 5500 (as of the date the plan's initial application for special financial assistance is filed), the participant census data utilized by the plan actuary in developing the cash flow projections included in the application.
</P>
<P>(11) Documentation of a death audit to identify deceased participants that was completed no earlier than 1 year before the plan's SFA measurement date, including identification of the service provider conducting the audit and a copy of the results of the audit provided to the plan administrator by the service provider.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information required for changed assumptions in initial and revised applications.</I> An application for a plan that proposes to change any assumption used in the plan's most recently completed certification of plan status before January 1, 2021, must include all of the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A table identifying which assumptions used in demonstrating the plan's eligibility for special financial assistance or in calculating the amount of special financial assistance differ from those assumptions used in the plan's most recently completed certification of plan status before January 1, 2021, and detailed narrative explanations (with supporting rationale and information) as described in the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I> as to why any assumption used in the certification is no longer reasonable and why the changed assumption is reasonable.
</P>
<P>(2) Deterministic cash flow projection (“Baseline”) in accordance with the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I> that shows the amount of special financial assistance that would be determined if all underlying assumptions used in the projection were the same as those used in the actuarial certification of plan status last completed before January 1, 2021 (excluding the plan's non-SFA and SFA interest rates, which must be the same as the interest rates required under § 4262.4(e)(1) and (2)). For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), certain changes in assumptions as described in the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I> should be reflected in the Baseline projection.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov,</I> a reconciliation of the change in the requested special financial assistance due to each changed assumption from the Baseline to the requested special financial assistance amount in § 4262.4, showing, for each assumption change from the Baseline, a deterministic projection calculated in the same manner as the requested amount in § 4262.4.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information required for certain events.</I> An application for a plan with respect to which an event described in § 4262.4(f) occurs on or after July 9, 2021, must include the applicable information related to the event specified in special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information required for changed assumptions in supplemented applications.</I> Any supplemented application filed for a plan described in § 4262.4(g) must include the information specified in the supplemented special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.9   Application for a plan with a partition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This section applies to a plan partitioned under section 4233 of ERISA that is eligible for special financial assistance under § 4262.3(a)(2). A partitioned plan is in priority group 2 for purposes of § 4262.10(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing requirements.</I> A plan sponsor of a partitioned plan filing an application for special financial assistance must—
</P>
<P>(1) File one application for the original plan and the successor plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Include in the application—
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the plan was partitioned under section 4233 of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the plan document and other executed amendments required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The information required in §§ 4262.6 through 4262.8.
</P>
<P>(3) If a plan sponsor has already filed with PBGC any of the required information described in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, the plan sponsor is not required to file that information with its application for special financial assistance. For any such information not filed with the application, the plan sponsor must note on the checklist described under § 4262.6(a) when the information was filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rescission of partition order.</I> Effective when special financial assistance is paid under § 4262.12, and in a manner consistent with the application procedure determined under paragraph (b) of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) PBGC will rescind the partition order; and
</P>
<P>(2) The plan sponsor must amend the plan to remove any provisions or amendments that were required to be adopted under the partition order.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.10   Processing applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Any application for special financial assistance for an eligible multiemployer plan must be filed by the plan sponsor in accordance with the provisions of this part and the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of filing.</I> An application filed with PBGC under this part must be made electronically in accordance with the rules in part 4000 of this chapter. The time period for filing an application under this part must be computed under the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> (1) An application filed with PBGC under this part must be filed as described in § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 432(k)(1)(D) of the Code requires an application in a priority group under paragraph (d)(2) of this section to be submitted to the Secretary of the Treasury. If the requirement in the preceding sentence applies to an application, PBGC will transmit the application to the Department of the Treasury on behalf of the plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When to file.</I> Any initial application for special financial assistance must be filed by December 31, 2025, and any revised application or supplemented application must be filed by December 31, 2026. Any application other than a plan's initial application or a supplemented application is a revised application regardless of whether it differs from the initial application or supplemented application.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Processing system.</I> To accommodate expeditious processing of many special financial assistance applications in a limited time period:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of applications accepted for filing will be limited in such manner that, in PBGC's estimation, each application can be processed within 120 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) Plans specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section will be given priority to file an application before plans not specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Plans not specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section may not file an application before March 11, 2023.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notices on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I> will apprise potential filers of the current priority group(s) for which applications are being accepted and whether PBGC is accepting applications for filing as well as other information about priority groups and filing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Priority groups.</I> Until not later than March 11, 2023, the plan sponsor of an eligible multiemployer plan will be given priority to file an application if the plan is in one of the priority groups in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (vii) of this section, listed in order of higher priority group to lower priority group. A plan may not file an application earlier than the beginning date specified for the plan's priority group. When applications for plans in a priority group are accepted for filing, PBGC will continue to accept applications for plans in a higher priority group, subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Priority group 1.</I> A plan is in priority group 1 if the plan is insolvent or is projected to become insolvent under section 4245 of ERISA by March 11, 2022. A plan in priority group 1 may file an application beginning on July 9, 2021.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Priority group 2.</I> A plan is in priority group 2 if the plan has implemented a suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA as of March 11, 2021; or the plan is expected to be insolvent under section 4245 of ERISA within 1 year of the date the plan's application was filed. A plan in priority group 2 may file an application beginning on January 1, 2022, or such earlier date specified on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Priority group 3.</I> A plan is in priority group 3 if the plan is in critical and declining status (as defined in section 305(b)(6) of ERISA) and has 350,000 or more participants. A plan in priority group 3 may file an application beginning on April 1, 2022, or such earlier date specified on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Priority group 4.</I> A plan is in priority group 4 if the plan is projected to become insolvent under section 4245 of ERISA by March 11, 2023. A plan in priority group 4 may file an application beginning on July 1, 2022, or such earlier date specified on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Priority group 5.</I> A plan is in priority group 5 if the plan is projected to become insolvent under section 4245 of ERISA by March 11, 2026. The date a plan in priority group 5 may file an application will be specified on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I> at least 21 days in advance of such date, and such date will be no later than February 11, 2023.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Priority group 6.</I> A plan is in priority group 6 if the plan is projected by PBGC to have a present value of financial assistance payments under section 4261 of ERISA that exceeds $1,000,000,000 if special financial assistance is not ordered. PBGC will list the plans in priority group 6 on its website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I> The date a plan in priority group 6 may file an application will be specified on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov</I> at least 21 days in advance of such date, and such date will be no later than February 11, 2023.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Additional priority groups.</I> PBGC may add additional priority groups based on other circumstances similar to those described for the groups listed in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section. If added, additional priority groups and the date PBGC will begin accepting applications for such additional priority groups will be posted in guidance on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing date.</I> An application will be considered filed on the date it is submitted to PBGC if it is signed in accordance with § 4262.6(b) and meets the applicable requirements in paragraph (d) of this section, including that it can be accommodated in accordance with the processing system described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section or the emergency filing process described in paragraph (f) of this section. Otherwise, the application will not be considered filed and PBGC will notify the applicant that the application was not properly filed, and that the application must be filed in accordance with the processing system and instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I> References in this part to a plan's initial application are to the plan's first application that is considered filed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Emergency filing.</I> Beginning when PBGC accepts applications in priority group 2 described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, and notwithstanding the processing system described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an application may be accepted for filing if—
</P>
<P>(1) It is an application for a plan that either—
</P>
<P>(i) Is insolvent or expected to be insolvent under section 4245 of ERISA within 1 year of the date the plan's application was filed; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has suspended benefits under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA as of March 11, 2021; and
</P>
<P>(2) The filer notifies PBGC before submitting the application that the application qualifies as an emergency filing under this paragraph (f) in accordance with instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lock-in applications.</I> (1) A lock-in application described in this paragraph (g), clearly and prominently identified as such, may be filed for a plan as its initial application (thus establishing the plan's base data as provided under § 4262.11(c)).
</P>
<P>(2) A lock-in application must—
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, be filed after March 11, 2023, and on or before December 31, 2025; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Be filed by a plan described in paragraphs (d)(2)(v) through (vii) of this section in accordance with the processing system described in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) and (iii) and (d)(2) of this section at a time when PBGC is not accepting applications for filing under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The lock-in application must—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide the information in § 4262.7(a)(1) through (3) and in the instructions for lock-in applications on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Be signed in accordance with § 4262.6(b); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be filed in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section and the instructions for lock-in applications on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) A lock-in application for a plan that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (g) is considered filed as the plan's initial application and denied for incompleteness under § 4262.11(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Informal consultation.</I> Nothing in this section prohibits a plan sponsor from contacting PBGC informally to discuss a potential application for special financial assistance.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.11   PBGC action on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Within 120 days after the date an initial, revised, or supplemented application for special financial assistance is properly and timely filed, PBGC will—
</P>
<P>(1) Approve the application and notify the plan sponsor of the payment of special financial assistance in accordance with § 4262.12; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deny the application because—
</P>
<P>(i) The application is incomplete, and notify the plan sponsor of the missing information; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An assumption is unreasonable, a proposed change in assumption is individually unreasonable, or the proposed changed assumptions are unreasonable in the aggregate, and notify the plan sponsor of the reasons for the determination; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan is not an eligible multiemployer plan, and notify the plan sponsor of the reasons the plan fails to be eligible for special financial assistance; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fail to act on the application, in which case the application is deemed approved, and notify the plan sponsor of the payment of special financial assistance in accordance with § 4262.12.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Incomplete application.</I> PBGC will consider an application incomplete under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section unless the application accurately includes the information required to be filed under this part and the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov,</I> including any additional information that PBGC requires under § 4262.6(d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application base data.</I> For an eligible plan other than a plan described in § 4262.4(g)—
</P>
<P>(1) A plan's base data are—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan's SFA measurement date as defined under § 4262.2;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan's participant census data as required to be used under § 4262.4(d); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan's non-SFA interest rate and SFA interest rate as determined under § 4262.4(e)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(2) A plan's base data are fixed by the date the eligible plan's initial application for special financial assistance is filed and must be used for any revised application for the plan. If the plan was not eligible for special financial assistance on such date, the plan's base data will be fixed by the date the plan files a revised application and demonstrates eligibility for special financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Withdrawn applications.</I> (1) A plan's application for special financial assistance may be withdrawn at any time before PBGC denies or approves the application.
</P>
<P>(2) Any withdrawal of a plan's application must be by written notice to PBGC submitted by any person authorized to submit an application for the plan and in accordance with the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) An application submitted for a plan after the withdrawal of an application is a revised application.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denied applications.</I> If PBGC denies a plan's application, an application submitted for a plan after the denial is a revised application. Any revised application must address the reasons cited by PBGC for the denial.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Revised applications.</I> A plan's revised application is processed in the same way as an initial application and must comply with the requirements in this part for an initial application except that it must use the base data required in paragraph (c) of this section for the initial application.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Final agency action.</I> PBGC's decision on an application for special financial assistance under this section is a final agency action under § 4003.22(b) of this chapter for purposes of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.12   Payment of special financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount of special financial assistance under this part.</I> The amount of special financial assistance to be paid by PBGC to or for a plan for which either an initial or a revised application for special financial assistance is filed on or after August 8, 2022, will be the total of—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount required as demonstrated by the plan sponsor on the application for such special financial assistance, determined under § 4262.4 as of the SFA measurement date; plus
</P>
<P>(2) Interest on the amount in paragraph (a)(1) of this section from the SFA measurement date to the SFA payment date at a rate equal to the interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(2); plus
</P>
<P>(3) The amount owed to PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA determined as of the SFA payment date; minus
</P>
<P>(4) Financial assistance payments under section 4261 of ERISA received by the plan between the SFA measurement date and the SFA payment date, with interest on each such financial assistance payment from the date thereof to the SFA payment date calculated at a rate equal to the interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of special financial assistance under the interim provisions of this part.</I> The amount of special financial assistance to be paid by PBGC to or for a plan for which neither an initial nor a revised application for special financial assistance is filed on or after August 8, 2022 and there has not been any previous payment of special financial assistance, and where a plan's application has not been supplemented, will be the total of—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount required as demonstrated by the plan sponsor on the application for such special financial assistance, determined under § 4262.4 (under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022) as of the SFA measurement date; plus
</P>
<P>(2) Interest on the amount in paragraph (b)(1) of this section from the SFA measurement date to the SFA payment date at a rate equal to the interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(1); plus
</P>
<P>(3) The amount owed to PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA determined as of the SFA payment date; minus
</P>
<P>(4) Financial assistance payments under section 4261 of ERISA received by the plan between the SFA measurement date and the SFA payment date, with interest on each such financial assistance payment from the date thereof to the SFA payment date calculated at a rate equal to the interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amount of additional special financial assistance under supplemented application.</I> The amount of additional special financial assistance to be paid by PBGC to or for a plan where the plan has received a prior payment of special financial assistance under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022 will be the total of—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount required as demonstrated by the plan sponsor on the application for such special financial assistance (including any supplemented application filed after the prior payment of special financial assistance), determined under § 4262.4 as of the SFA measurement date; minus
</P>
<P>(2) The amount required as demonstrated by the plan sponsor on the application for such special financial assistance, determined under § 4262.4 (under the terms of this part as in effect before August 8, 2022) as of the SFA measurement date; plus
</P>
<P>(3) Interest on the excess of the amount in paragraph (c)(1) of this section over the amount in paragraph (c)(2) of this section from the SFA measurement date to the payment date of the additional special financial assistance at a rate equal to the interest rate required under § 4262.4(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment instructions.</I> The plan must include in its application payment instructions in accordance with the special financial assistance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I> PBGC may request additional information from the plan related to PBGC's payment of special financial assistance. Payment will be considered made by PBGC when, in accordance with the payment instructions in the application, PBGC no longer has ownership of the amount being paid. Any adjustment for delay will be borne by PBGC only to the extent that it arises while PBGC has ownership of the funds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Repayment of traditional financial assistance.</I> If a plan described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section has an obligation to repay financial assistance under section 4261 of ERISA, PBGC will—
</P>
<P>(1) Issue a written demand for repayment of financial assistance when the application is approved; and
</P>
<P>(2) Deduct the amount of financial assistance, including interest, that the plan owes PBGC from the special financial assistance before payment to the plan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Date of payment of special financial assistance.</I> (1) Special financial assistance issued by PBGC will be paid as soon as practicable upon approval of the plan's special financial assistance application but not later than the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days after a plan's special financial assistance application is approved by PBGC or deemed approved under § 4262.11(a)(3); or
</P>
<P>(ii) September 30, 2030.
</P>
<P>(2) References in this section to the SFA payment date are to the date PBGC sends payment of special financial assistance, not the bank settlement date.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Manner of payment.</I> The payment of special financial assistance to a plan will be made by PBGC in a lump sum or substantially so and is not a loan subject to repayment obligations. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, the following payment obligations apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Special financial assistance is subject to recalculation or adjustment to correct a clerical or arithmetic error. PBGC will, and plans must, make payments as needed to reflect any such recalculation or adjustment in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(2) If PBGC determines that a payment for special financial assistance to a plan exceeded the amount to which the plan was entitled, any excess payment constitutes a debt to the Federal Government. If not paid within 90 calendar days after demand, PBGC may reduce the debt by any action permitted by Federal statute. Except where otherwise provided by statutes or regulations, PBGC will charge interest and other amounts permitted on an overdue debt in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR parts 900 through 999). The date from which interest is computed is not extended by litigation or the filing of any form of appeal.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.13   Restrictions on special financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A plan that receives special financial assistance must be administered in accordance with the restrictions in this section and in § 4262.14.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions and use of SFA.</I> Special financial assistance received, and any earnings thereon—
</P>
<P>(1) May be used by the plan only to make benefit payments and pay administrative expenses;
</P>
<P>(2) Must be segregated from other plan assets as described in § 4262.14(a);
</P>
<P>(3) May be used before other plan assets are used to make benefit payments and pay administrative expenses; and
</P>
<P>(4) Must be invested in investment grade bonds or other investments as permitted by PBGC in § 4262.14.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.14   Permissible investments of special financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A plan that receives special financial assistance must segregate special financial assistance assets and earnings thereon (“amounts attributable to special financial assistance”) in an account that is separate from the plan's non-special financial assistance assets and that is invested consistent with the investment requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Permissible investments for amounts attributable to special financial assistance are—
</P>
<P>(1) Investments in return-seeking assets as described under paragraph (c) of this section, not to exceed 33 percent of amounts attributable to special financial assistance measured using fair market value as of—
</P>
<P>(i) Each day the plan purchases return-seeking assets, other than through the automatic re-purchase of capital gains and reinvestment of dividends; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At least one day during every rolling period of 12 consecutive months beginning from the date the plan receives special financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) Investments in investment grade fixed income securities and cash as described in paragraph (d) of this section for all other amounts attributable to special financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, <I>investments in return-seeking assets</I> are investments in—
</P>
<P>(1) Common stock that is denominated in U.S. dollars and registered under section 12(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(2) Shares held in a permissible fund vehicle described in paragraph (g) of this section that abides by an investment policy that restricts investment predominantly to equity securities registered under section 12(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, U.S. Treasury securities with less than one year to maturity date, cash and cash equivalents described in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, and money market funds described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A debt security that has been resold in an offering pursuant to 17 CFR 230.144A (Rule 144A under the Securities Act of 1933), is investment grade as described under paragraph (f) of this section, and has not been issued by a foreign issuer as defined under 17 CFR 240.3b-4(b).
</P>
<P>(4) A debt instrument, as described under paragraph (d) of this section, that is no longer investment grade if it was investment grade as described under paragraph (f) of this section when purchased by the plan for the portion of special financial assistance invested in investment grade fixed income securities.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, <I>investments in investment grade fixed income securities and cash</I> are investments in—
</P>
<P>(1) A bond or other debt security that pays a fixed amount or fixed rate of interest, is denominated in U.S. dollars, sold in an offering registered under the Securities Act of 1933, and is investment grade as described under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Shares held in a permissible fund vehicle described under paragraph (g) of this section that abides by an investment policy that restricts investment predominantly to securities described in this paragraph (d) that are denominated in U.S. dollars and are investment grade as defined under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Securities issued, guaranteed or sponsored by the U.S. Government or its designated agencies as required to be entered as government securities on the Form 5500 Schedule H.
</P>
<P>(4) Municipal securities defined in section 3(a)(29) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that are investment grade as defined under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Noninterest-bearing cash and interest-bearing cash equivalents as required to be entered on the Form 5500 Schedule H.
</P>
<P>(6) Money market funds regulated pursuant to 17 CFR 270.2a-7 (Rule 2a-7 under the Investment Company Act of 1940).
</P>
<P>(e) Fixed income securities described under paragraph (d) of this section must be considered investment grade (as described under paragraph (f) of this section) by a fiduciary, within the meaning of section 3(21) of ERISA, who is or seeks the advice of an experienced investor (such as an Investment Adviser registered under section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investment grade</I> means securities for which the issuer (or obligor) has at least adequate capacity to meet the financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the asset or exposure. For purposes of this paragraph (f), <I>adequate capacity to meet financial commitments</I> means that the risk of default by the issuer (or obligor) is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest on the security is expected.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Permissible fund vehicle</I> means an investment company or collective trust, that is—
</P>
<P>(1) An open-end investment company registered on Form N-1A under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940; or
</P>
<P>(2) A unit investment trust (as defined in section 4(2) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 and registered under section 8 of such Act) the shares of which are listed and traded on a national securities exchange, and that has been formed and operates under an exemptive order granted by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission; or
</P>
<P>(3) A collective trust fund that is maintained by a bank or trust company and that has been formed and operates pursuant to an exemption under section 3(c)(11) of the Investment Company Act of 1940.
</P>
<P>(h) Permissible investments must not be supplemented by, and permissible fund vehicles cannot include, derivatives or otherwise be leveraged in a way that could increase the risk of the permissible investment beyond the risk associated with the market value of the un-leveraged permissible investment. Any notional derivative exposure, other than exposure gained through a permissible fund vehicle described under paragraph (g) of this section, must be supported by liquid assets that are cash or cash equivalents denominated in U.S. dollars.
</P>
<P>(i) This section is applicable to a plan that applies or has applied for special financial assistance under this part. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, for a plan that received special financial assistance under this part in effect before August 8, 2022, this section will not apply unless and until the plan files a supplemented application under this part. Before the date that the plan files a supplemented application under this part, the rules under this section in effect before August 8, 2022 apply.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.15   Reinstatement of benefits previously suspended.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with guidance issued by the Secretary of the Treasury under section 432(k) of the Code, a plan with benefits that were suspended under section 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA must:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinstate any benefits that were suspended for participants and beneficiaries effective as of the first month in which the special financial assistance is paid to the plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Make payments equal to the amounts of benefits previously suspended to any participants or beneficiaries who are in pay status as of the date that the special financial assistance is paid.
</P>
<P>(b) A plan must make the payments in paragraph (a)(2) of this section either in:
</P>
<P>(1) A single lump sum no later than 3 months after the date that the special financial assistance is paid to the plan; or
</P>
<P>(2) Equal monthly installments over a period of 5 years, with the first installment paid no later than 3 months after the date that the special financial assistance is paid to the plan, with no installment payment adjusted for interest.
</P>
<P>(c) The plan sponsor of a plan with benefits that were suspended under section 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA must issue a notice of reinstatement to participants and beneficiaries whose benefits were previously suspended and then reinstated in accordance with section 4262(k) of ERISA and section 432(k) of the Code. The requirements for the notice are in notice of reinstatement instructions available on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.16   Conditions for special financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A plan that receives special financial assistance must be administered in accordance with the conditions in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefit increases.</I> This paragraph (b) applies to benefits and benefit increases described in section 4022A(b)(1) of ERISA without regard to the time the benefit or benefit increase has been in effect. This paragraph (b) does not apply to the reinstatement of benefits that were suspended under section 305(e)(9) or 4245(a) of ERISA (as provided under § 4262.15) or a restoration of benefits under 26 CFR 1.432(e)(9)-1(e)(3).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retrospective.</I> A benefit or benefit increase must not be adopted during the SFA coverage period if it is in whole or in part attributable to service accrued or other events occurring before the adoption date of the amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prospective.</I> A benefit or benefit increase must not be adopted during the SFA coverage period unless—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan actuary certifies that employer contribution increases projected to be sufficient to pay for the benefit increase have been adopted or agreed to; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Those increased contributions were not included in the determination of the special financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request for exception.</I> No earlier than 10 years after the end of the plan year in which the plan receives payment of special financial assistance under § 4262.12, the plan sponsor may request approval from PBGC for an exception from the conditions under paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section by demonstrating to the satisfaction of PBGC that, taking into account the value of the proposed benefit or benefit increase, the plan will avoid insolvency. A request for PBGC approval of a proposed benefit or benefit increase must be submitted by the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative and must contain all of the following identifying, actuarial, and financial information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, email, and telephone number of the plan sponsor and the plan sponsor's authorized representatives, if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) The nine-digit employer identification number (EIN) assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the three-digit plan identification number (PN) assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor, and, if different, the EIN and PN last filed with PBGC. If an EIN or PN has not been assigned, that should be indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) A certification by the enrolled actuary that the plan or any of its component parts received special financial assistance and the most recent value of special financial assistance assets.
</P>
<P>(iv) The EIN assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the PN assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor of the plan that applied for special financial assistance, if not the same as the EIN and PN in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) A copy of the proposed benefit or benefit increase amendment.
</P>
<P>(vi) Most recent plan document or restatement of the plan document and all subsequent amendments adopted (if any).
</P>
<P>(vii) A copy of the most recent actuarial valuation performed for the plan before the date of the plan's submission of a request for approval under this paragraph (b)(3), and the actuarial valuation performed for each of the 2 plan years immediately preceding the most recent actuarial valuation.
</P>
<P>(viii) A copy of the plan actuary's most recent certification under section 305(b)(3) of ERISA, including a detailed description of the assumptions used in the certification, and the basis under which they were determined. The description must include information about the assumptions used for the projection of future contributions, withdrawal liability payments, and investment returns, and any other assumption that may have a material effect on projections.
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement certified by an enrolled actuary of the effect of the proposed benefit or benefit increase on the plan's existing benefit formula and benefit amount, and a demonstration that the expected contributions equal or exceed the estimated amount necessary, taking into account the proposed benefit or benefit increase, to satisfy the minimum funding requirement of section 431 of the Code.
</P>
<P>(x) A detailed statement certified by an enrolled actuary that the plan is projected to avoid insolvency, taking into account the value of the proposed benefit or benefit increase. The statement must include the basis for the conclusion, supporting data, calculations, assumptions, a description of the methodology, the basis for assumptions used, and the present value of the proposed benefit or benefit increase. The statement must also specify the amount of the change in the minimum required contribution under section 431 of the Code attributable to the proposed benefit or benefit increase for the first full plan year in which it is in effect, including the change in normal cost, the change in actuarial accrued liability and the annual amortization amount associated with the change in actuarial accrued liability.
</P>
<P>(xi) The statement in paragraph (b)(3)(x) of this section must include an exhibit showing the annual cash flow projection for the plan for 30 years beginning on or after the proposed adoption date of the amendment. The cash flow projection should use an open group valuation. Annual cash flow projections must reflect the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Fair market value of assets as of the beginning of the year, splitting the assets by special financial assistance and non-special financial assistance amounts.
</P>
<P>(B) Contributions and withdrawal liability payments made and expected to be made to the plan taking into account a reasonable allowance for amounts considered uncollectible.
</P>
<P>(C) Plan level benefit payments organized by participant type (<I>e.g.,</I> active, retiree, terminated vested) for the projection period.
</P>
<P>(D) Administrative expenses for the projection period.
</P>
<P>(E) Assumed investment return separately for special financial assistance and non-special financial assistance amounts.
</P>
<P>(F) Fair market value of assets as of the end of the year.
</P>
<P>(xii) The present value of accrued benefits.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Any additional information PBGC determines it needs to review a request for approval of a proposed amendment, including any adjustments to assumptions required by PBGC in its review of whether the plan is projected to avoid insolvency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Allocation of plan assets.</I> During the SFA coverage period, plan assets, including special financial assistance, must be invested in investment grade fixed income as described in § 4262.14(d) sufficient to pay for at least 1 year (or until the date the plan is projected to become insolvent, if earlier) of projected benefit payments and administrative expenses, taking into account the limitations on derivatives and leverage in § 4262.14(h).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contribution decreases.</I> (1) During the SFA coverage period, the contributions to a plan that receives special financial assistance required for each contribution base unit must not be less than, and the definition of the contribution base units used must not be different from, those set forth in collective bargaining agreements or plan documents (including contribution increases to the end of the collective bargaining agreements) in effect on March 11, 2021, unless the plan sponsor determines that the change lessens the risk of loss to plan participants and beneficiaries and, if the contribution reduction affects over $10 million of annual contributions and over 10 percent of all employer contributions, PBGC also determines that the change lessens the risk of loss to plan participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for PBGC approval of a proposed contribution change that affects over $10 million of annual contributions and over 10 percent of all employer contributions must be submitted by the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative and must contain all of the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, email, and telephone number of the plan sponsor and the plan sponsor's authorized representatives, if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) The nine-digit employer identification number (EIN) assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the three-digit plan identification number (PN) assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor, and, if different, the EIN and PN last filed with PBGC. If an EIN or PN has not been assigned, that should be indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) Name, address, email, and telephone number of the contributing employer for which the proposed contribution change is being submitted, and the employer's authorized representatives, if any.
</P>
<P>(iv) Names and addresses of each controlled group member of the contributing employer identified in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, along with a chart depicting the structure of the controlled group by entity and its ownership with ownership percentage.
</P>
<P>(v) Audited financial statements (income statement, balance sheet, cashflow statement, and notes) for the contributing employer and the controlled group including the contributing employer, if available, for the most recent 4 years, or, if audited financial statements were not prepared, unaudited financial statements, a statement explaining why audited statements are not available, and tax returns with all schedules for the most recent 4 years available. The financial statement submissions must:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify the cash contributions to the multiemployer plan for which the contributing employer is seeking contribution relief;
</P>
<P>(B) Identify all outstanding indebtedness, including the name of the lender, the amount of the outstanding loan, scheduled repayments interest rate, collateral, significant covenants, and whether the loan is in default;
</P>
<P>(C) Identify and explain any material changes in financial position since the date of the last financial statement;
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent that the contributing employer has undergone or is in the process of undergoing a partial liquidation, estimate the sales, gross profit, and operating profit that would have been reported for each of the 3 years covered by the financial statement for only that portion of the business that is currently expected to continue; and
</P>
<P>(E) State the estimated liquidation values for any assets related to discontinued operations or operations that are not expected to continue, along with the sources for the estimates.
</P>
<P>(vi) Projected financial statements (income statement, balance sheet, cash flow statement) for the current year and the following 4 years as well as the key assumptions underlying those projections and a justification for the reasonableness for each of those key assumptions. The projections must include:
</P>
<P>(A) All business or operating plans prepared by or for management, including all explanatory text and schedules;
</P>
<P>(B) All financial submissions, if any, made within the prior 3 years to a financial institution, government agency, or investment banker in support of possible outside financing or sale of the business;
</P>
<P>(C) All recent financial analyses done by an outside party with a certification by the employer's chief executive officer that the information on which each analysis is based is accurate and complete; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(vii) Description of events leading to the current financial distress.
</P>
<P>(viii) Description of financial and operational restructuring actions taken to address financial distress, including cost cutting measures, employee count or compensation reductions, creditor concessions obtained, and any other restructuring efforts undertaken; also, indicate whether any new profit-sharing or other retirement plan has been or will be established or if benefits under any such existing plan will be increased.
</P>
<P>(ix) Any additional information PBGC determines it needs to review a request for approval of a proposed contribution change.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Allocating contributions and other practices</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> During the SFA coverage period, a decrease in the proportion of income or an increase in the proportion of expenses allocated to a plan that receives special financial assistance pursuant to a written or oral agreement or practice (other than a written agreement in existence on March 11, 2021, to the extent not subsequently amended or modified) under which the income or expenses are divided or to be divided between a plan that receives special financial assistance and one or more other employee benefit plans is prohibited. The prohibition in the preceding sentence does not apply to a good faith allocation of:
</P>
<P>(i) Contributions pursuant to a reciprocity agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Costs of securing shared space, goods, or services, where such allocation does not constitute a prohibited transaction under ERISA or is exempt from such prohibited transaction provisions pursuant to section 408(b)(2) or 408(c)(2) of ERISA, or pursuant to a specific prohibited transaction exemption issued by the Department of Labor under section 408(a) of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(iii) The actual cost of services provided to the plan by an unrelated third party; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Contributions where the contributions to a plan that receives special financial assistance required for each base unit are not reduced, except as otherwise permitted by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request for exception.</I> No earlier than 5 years after the end of the plan year in which the plan receives payment of special financial assistance under § 4262.12, the plan sponsor may request approval from PBGC for an exception from the conditions under paragraph (e) of this section by demonstrating to the satisfaction of PBGC that, taking into account the value of any proposed reallocation of contributions, the plan will avoid insolvency, that the reallocation is needed due to a significant increase in health benefit costs due to a change in Federal law which goes into effect after March 11, 2021, that the reallocation is no more than a 10 percent reduction in the amount of the contribution rate negotiated on or before March 11, 2021, that is allocable to the pension plan, and that the reallocation relating to any change in Federal law is for no more than 5 years. A continuation of the reallocation of contributions relating to any change in Federal law after the initial reallocation beyond 5 years must satisfy the requirement for a contribution decrease under paragraph (d) of this section. A subsequent change in Federal law causing a significant increase in health benefit costs is a separate event for purposes of applying this exception, except that a plan may reallocate contributions under this exception from the conditions under paragraph (e) of this section for no more than 10 years cumulatively for all reallocation requests during the SFA coverage period. A request for PBGC approval of a proposed reallocation of contributions must be submitted by the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative and must contain all of the following identifying, actuarial, and financial information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, email, and telephone number of the plan sponsor and the plan sponsor's authorized representatives, if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) The nine-digit employer identification number (EIN) assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the three-digit plan identification number (PN) assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor, and, if different, the EIN and PN last filed with PBGC. If an EIN or PN has not been assigned, that should be indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) A certification by the enrolled actuary that the plan or any of its component parts received special financial assistance and the most recent value of special financial assistance assets.
</P>
<P>(iv) The EIN assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the PN assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor of the plan that applied for special financial assistance, if not the same as the EIN and PN in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) A copy of the proposed reallocation of contributions amendment.
</P>
<P>(vi) Most recent plan document or restatement of the plan document and all subsequent amendments adopted (if any).
</P>
<P>(vii) A copy of the most recent actuarial valuation performed for the plan before the date of the plan's submission of a request for approval under this paragraph (e)(2), and the actuarial valuation performed for each of the 2 plan years immediately preceding the most recent actuarial valuation.
</P>
<P>(viii) A copy of the plan actuary's most recent certification under section 305(b)(3) of ERISA, including a detailed description of the assumptions used in the certification, and the basis under which they were determined. The description must include information about the assumptions used for the projection of future contributions, withdrawal liability payments, and investment returns, and any other assumption that may have a material effect on projections.
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement certified by an enrolled actuary of the effect of the proposed reallocation of contributions on the plan's existing contributions, and a demonstration that the expected contributions equal or exceed the estimated amount necessary, taking into account the proposed reallocation of contributions, to satisfy the minimum funding requirement of section 431 of the Code.
</P>
<P>(x) A detailed statement certified by an enrolled actuary that the plan is projected to avoid insolvency, taking into account the value of the proposed reallocation of contributions. The statement must include the basis for the conclusion, supporting data, calculations, assumptions, a description of the methodology, the basis for assumptions used, and the present value of the proposed reallocation of contributions.
</P>
<P>(xi) The statement in paragraph (e)(2)(x) of this section must include an exhibit showing the annual cash flow projection for the plan for 30 years beginning on or after the proposed adoption date of the amendment. The cash flow projection should use an open group valuation. Annual cash flow projections must reflect the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Fair market value of assets as of the beginning of the year, splitting the assets by special financial assistance and non-special financial assistance amounts.
</P>
<P>(B) Contributions and withdrawal liability payments expected to be made to the plan taking into account a reasonable allowance for amounts considered uncollectible.
</P>
<P>(C) Plan level benefit payments organized by participant type (<I>e.g.,</I> active, retiree, terminated vested) for the projection period.
</P>
<P>(D) Administrative expenses for the projection period.
</P>
<P>(E) Assumed investment return separately for special financial assistance and non-special financial assistance amounts.
</P>
<P>(F) Fair market value of assets as of the end of the year.
</P>
<P>(xii) The present value of accrued benefits.
</P>
<P>(xiii) A demonstration that the reallocation is needed due to a significant increase in health benefit costs due to a change in Federal law, that the reallocation is no more than a 10 percent reduction in the amount of the contribution rate negotiated on or before March 11, 2021, going to the pension plan, and that the reallocation is for no more than 5 years for a reallocation request relating to any single change in Federal law and no more than 10 years cumulatively for all reallocation requests during the plan's SFA coverage period.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Any additional information PBGC determines it needs to review a request for approval of a proposed amendment, including any adjustments to assumptions required by PBGC in its review of whether the plan is projected to avoid insolvency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transfer or merger.</I> During the SFA coverage period, a plan must not engage in a transfer of assets or liabilities (including a spinoff) or merger except with PBGC's approval. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 29 CFR part 4231, the plans involved in the transaction must request approval from PBGC.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In general.</I> PBGC will approve a proposed transfer of assets or liabilities (including a spinoff) or merger if PBGC determines that the transaction complies with section 4231(a)-(d) of ERISA and that the transaction, or the larger transaction of which the transfer or merger is a part, does not unreasonably increase PBGC's risk of loss with respect to any plan involved in the transaction, and is not reasonably expected to be adverse to the overall interests of the participants and beneficiaries of any of the plans involved in the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request for approval.</I> A request for approval of a proposed transfer of assets or liabilities (including a spinoff) or merger must be submitted by the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative and must contain the information that must be submitted with a notice of merger or transfer and a request for a compliance determination under subpart A of part 4231 of this chapter and all of the following information for each of the plans involved in the transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) A certification by the enrolled actuary that the plan or any of its component parts received special financial assistance and the most recent value of special financial assistance assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the actuarial valuation performed for each of the 2 plan years before the most recent actuarial valuation filed in accordance with § 4231.9(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the plan actuary's most recent certification under section 305(b)(3) of ERISA, including a detailed description of the assumptions used in the certification, and the basis under which they were determined. The description must include information about the assumptions used for the projection of future contributions, withdrawal liability payments, and investment returns, and any other assumption that may have a material effect on projections.
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed narrative description demonstrating that the transaction does not unreasonably increase PBGC's risk of loss with respect to any plan involved in the transaction. The narrative must be supported by a detailed determination certified by the enrolled actuary of the present value of financial assistance under section 4261 of ERISA which is calculated using the guaranteed benefits and administrative expenses presented in the cash flow projections under paragraph (f)(2)(v) of this section, discounted using interest rates published under section 4044 of ERISA. The certification must include supporting data, calculations, assumptions, a description of the methodology, the basis for assumptions used, and the projected date of insolvency.
</P>
<P>(v) The statement in paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section must include an exhibit showing the annual cash flow projections for each plan before and after the transaction, through the year that each plan pays its last dollar of benefit (but not to exceed 100 years). The cash flow projection should use an open group valuation until the plan reaches insolvency. Annual cash flow projections must reflect the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) Fair market value of assets as of the beginning of the year, splitting the assets by special financial assistance and non-special financial assistance amounts.
</P>
<P>(B) Contributions and withdrawal liability payments taking into account a reasonable allowance for amounts considered uncollectible.
</P>
<P>(C) Plan level benefit payments organized by participant type (<I>e.g.,</I> active, retiree, terminated vested) for the projection period.
</P>
<P>(D) Guaranteed benefits payable post insolvency by participant type (<I>e.g.,</I> active, retiree, terminated vested).
</P>
<P>(E) Administrative expenses for the projection period.
</P>
<P>(F) Assumed investment return separately for special financial assistance and non-special financial assistance amounts.
</P>
<P>(G) Fair market value of assets as of the end of the year.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the plan requests that PBGC approve that a waiver of the conditions in paragraph (b)(1) of this section (retrospective benefits), paragraph (d) of this section (contribution decreases), and the condition in paragraph (e) of this section relating to allocating contributions and other income applies to the merged plan, a demonstration that the requirements for a waiver in paragraph (f)(4) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(vii) A detailed narrative description with supporting documentation demonstrating that the transaction is not reasonably expected to be adverse to the overall interests of the participants and beneficiaries of any of the plans involved in the transaction. The narrative description and supporting documentation must consider the projected month and year of plan insolvency for each of the plans before and after the transaction.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any additional information PBGC determines it needs to review a request for approval of a proposed transfer of assets or liabilities (including a spinoff) or merger.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application of conditions with respect to an approved transfer or merger.</I> If PBGC approves a transfer of assets and liabilities (that is not a merger) from a plan that receives special financial assistance to another plan (the transferee plan) under this paragraph (f), the restrictions and conditions that apply to the plan that receives special financial assistance will also apply to the transferee plan as determined by PBGC as a condition of the approval. If PBGC approves a merger under this paragraph (f), the restrictions and conditions that apply to a plan that receives special financial assistance will apply after the merger as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The restrictions in §§ 4262.13(b) and 4262.14 and the conditions in this paragraph (f) (transfer or merger), paragraph (h) of this section (withdrawal liability settlement), paragraph (i) of this section (annual compliance statement), and paragraph (j) of this section (audit) apply to the merged plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) The conditions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section (prospective benefit increase), paragraph (c) of this section (allocation of plan assets), and paragraph (e) of this section relating to allocating expenses do not apply to the merged plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the absence of a waiver described in paragraph (f)(4) of this section, the condition in paragraph (b)(1) of this section (retrospective benefit increase) continues to apply to participants in the plan that received special financial assistance before the merger, the condition in paragraph (d) of this section (contribution decreases) continues to apply to employers who had an obligation to contribute to the plan that received special financial assistance before the merger, and the condition in paragraph (e) of this section relating to allocating contributions and other income continues to apply to contributions or income relative to the plan that received special financial assistance before the date of the merger.
</P>
<P>(iv) For the condition described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section (withdrawal liability interest assumption), the merged plan must use the interest assumptions under § 4044.54 of this chapter to determine the unfunded vested benefits that arose under the plan that received special financial assistance before the date of the merger for purposes of allocating unfunded vested benefits under subpart D of part 4211 of this chapter and determining withdrawal liability for employers that participated in that plan.
</P>
<P>(v) For the condition described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section (withdrawal liability amount of special financial assistance required to be phased in), the merged plan must apply the special financial assistance phase-in condition to determine the unfunded vested benefits that arose under the plan that received special financial assistance before the date of the merger for purposes of allocating unfunded vested benefits under subpart D of part 4211 of this chapter and determining withdrawal liability for employers that participated in that plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Waiver of conditions with respect to an approved merger.</I> A plan may request a waiver of the condition in paragraph (b)(1) of this section (retrospective benefit increase), paragraph (d) of this section (contribution decreases), and the condition in paragraph (e) of this section relating to allocating contributions and other income for the merged plan in the plan's request for PBGC's approval of a merger pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section. If any of the plans involved in the merger engage in multiple transactions in any 1-year period, the transactions will be considered in the aggregate. The plan's application must demonstrate the following requirements for a waiver—
</P>
<P>(i) The total current value of assets of the plans that received special financial assistance before the merger must be 25 percent or less of the total current value of assets of the merged plan, calculated using the current value of assets most recently required before the merger to be entered by the plans on the Form 5500 Schedule MB.
</P>
<P>(ii) The total current liability of the plans that received special financial assistance before the merger must be 25 percent or less of the total current liability of the merged plan, calculated using the current liability most recently required before the merger to be entered by the plans on the Form 5500 Schedule MB.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the most recent certification of plan status for any plan that did not receive special financial assistance before the merger, the plan actuary must have certified that the plan is not in endangered or critical status (including critical and declining status) and is not projected to be in critical status within 5 years from the date of the plan's request for approval, and the plan must not be described in section 432(b)(5) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Withdrawal liability determination</I>—(1) <I>Interest assumptions.</I> A plan must use the interest assumptions under § 4044.54 of this chapter in determining the unfunded vested benefits of the plan under section 4213(c) of ERISA (for the purpose of determining withdrawal liability), and in determining the amortization schedule under section 4219(c)(1)(A) of ERISA, beginning with the first plan year in which the plan receives payment of special financial assistance under § 4262.12 and until the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) The end of the tenth plan year after the first plan year in which the plan receives payment of special financial assistance under § 4262.12; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The end of the plan year described in paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this section (if the special financial assistance most recently paid to the plan as of the end of that plan year is calculated under this part as in effect before August 8, 2022); otherwise the end of the plan year described in paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan year described in this paragraph (g)(1)(iii) is the plan year by which the plan is projected to exhaust any SFA assets as determined under the methodology of § 4262.4(b), applying the interest rate under § 4262.4(e)(2) to the special financial assistance as determined as of the SFA measurement date as determined under this part as in effect before August 8, 2022. However, if the first plan year in which the plan receives payment of special financial assistance is after the plan year that includes the plan's SFA measurement date, the plan year by which the plan is projected to exhaust any SFA assets is deferred by the number of years by which the first plan year in which the plan receives payment is after the plan year that includes the plan's SFA measurement date.
</P>
<P>(iv) The end of the plan year by which, according to the plan's projection, the plan is projected to exhaust any SFA assets, as determined under § 4262.4(b). However, if the first plan year in which the plan receives payment of special financial assistance is after the plan year that includes the plan's SFA measurement date, the plan year by which the plan is projected to exhaust any SFA assets is deferred by the number of years by which the first plan year in which the plan receives payment of special financial assistance is after the plan year that includes the plan's SFA measurement date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Phase-in of SFA</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> In determining unfunded vested benefits under section 4213(c) of ERISA (for the purpose of determining withdrawal liability), the procedures in this paragraph (g)(2) must be followed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Phase-in period.</I> The procedures in this paragraph (g)(2) apply to the determination of unfunded vested benefits as of the end of any determination year that is not earlier than the payment year or later than the exhaustion year.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determination year.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g)(2), the determination year is the plan year as of the end of which unfunded vested benefits are being valued.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Payment year.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g)(2), the payment year is the first plan year in which the plan receives special financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Determination of exhaustion year.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g)(2), if the special financial assistance most recently paid to the plan as of the last day of the determination year is calculated under this part as amended effective August 8, 2022, then the exhaustion year is the plan year described in paragraph (g)(2)(vi) of this section; otherwise, the exhaustion year is the plan year described in paragraph (g)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Exhaustion year.</I> The plan year described in this paragraph (g)(2)(vi) is the plan year by which, according to the plan's projection, the plan is projected to exhaust any SFA assets, as determined under § 4262.4(b). However, if the first plan year in which the plan receives payment of SFA is after the plan year that includes the plan's SFA measurement date, the exhaustion year is deferred by the number of years by which the payment year is after the plan year that includes the plan's SFA measurement date.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Exhaustion year before any SFA paid under this part.</I> The plan year described in this paragraph (g)(2)(vii) is the plan year by which the plan is projected to exhaust any SFA assets, determined under the methodology of § 4262.4(b), applying the interest rate under § 4262.4(e)(2) to the special financial assistance as determined as of the SFA measurement date as determined under this part as in effect before August 8, 2022. However, if the first plan year in which the plan receives payment of SFA is after the plan year that includes the plan's SFA measurement date, the exhaustion year is deferred by the number of years by which the payment year is after the plan year that includes the plan's SFA measurement date.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>SFA assets excluded.</I> The value of the plan assets taken into account as of the end of each determination year is the value of the assets that would otherwise be taken into account in the absence of this provision reduced by the amount described in paragraph (g)(2)(ix) of this section. The value of plan assets determined under this paragraph (g)(2)(viii) may not be less than zero.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Calculation of SFA assets excluded</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> Except for plans required to pay make-up payments described in § 4262.15(b), the amount described in this paragraph (g)(2)(ix)(A) is, as of the end of the determination year—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The total amount of special financial assistance paid to the plan under § 4262.12 (as determined under § 4262.12(a) or (b), or under § 4262.12(b) and (c) for plans paid under a supplemented application, as applicable), minus the amount paid to PBGC under § 4262.12(e), as of the end of the determination year;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of years determined under paragraph (g)(2)(x) of this section as of the end of the determination year and the denominator of which is the number of years determined under paragraph (g)(2)(xi) of this section as of the end of the determination year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Plans required to pay make-up payments.</I> For plans required to pay make-up payments described in § 4262.15(b), the amount described in this paragraph (g)(2)(ix)(B) is, as of the end of the determination year—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The total amount of special financial assistance paid to the plan under § 4262.12 (as determined under § 4262.12(a) or (b), or under § 4262.12(b) and (c) for plans paid under a supplemented application, as applicable), minus the amount paid to PBGC under § 4262.12(e), and minus the amount of make-up payments paid by the plan to participants and beneficiaries under § 4262.15(b) whether the payments are made from SFA assets or non-SFA assets, as of the end of the determination year;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of years determined under paragraph (g)(2)(x) of this section as of the end of the determination year and the denominator of which is the number of years determined under paragraph (g)(2)(xi) of this section as of the end of the determination year.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Numerator.</I> The number of years determined under this paragraph (g)(2)(x) is the number of plan years in the period beginning with the determination year and ending with the exhaustion year.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Denominator.</I> The number of years determined under this paragraph (g)(2)(xi) is the number of plan years in the period beginning with the payment year and ending with the exhaustion year.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Plan year.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g)(2), any reference to a plan year means a complete plan year.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>No receivable.</I> Special financial assistance assets must be excluded from the determination of unfunded vested benefits until the date that special financial assistance is paid to the plan under § 4262.12, and no receivable shall be set up as of any earlier date in anticipation of the plan receiving such payment.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Reporting.</I> For any withdrawal liability assessed during the phase-in period, the amount described under paragraph (g)(2)(ix) of this section must be reported in the plan's annual statement of compliance (as required under paragraph (i) of this section) for the plan year in which the liability is assessed.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Applicability.</I> This paragraph (g)(2) applies to a plan in determining withdrawal liability for withdrawals occurring after the plan year in which the plan receives payment of special financial assistance under this part. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, for a plan that received special financial assistance under this part in effect before August 8, 2022, this paragraph (g)(2) will not apply unless the plan files a supplemented application under this part. If the plan files a supplemented application, this paragraph (g)(2) applies to the plan in determining withdrawal liability for withdrawals occurring on or after the date the plan files the supplemented application.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1.</I> Plan A, a calendar-year plan, filed an application for special financial assistance under this part with an SFA measurement date in plan year 2023 and received a special financial assistance payment of $1,000,000 in 2024. In the plan's application, Plan A is projected to exhaust its special financial assistance assets during plan year 2028. Accordingly, the payment year is 2024 and the exhaustion year is 2029 (the projected SFA exhaustion year in the application plus 1 year for the difference between the plan year that includes the SFA measurement date and the payment year). Employer P withdraws from Plan A in 2028. For Employer P: {1} the determination year is 2027; {2} the numerator of the phase-in fraction is 3 (2027 to 2029); {3} the denominator of the phase-in fraction is 6 (2024 to 2029); and {4} the phased in amount is $500,000 ($1,000,000 × 
<FR>3/6</FR>). If total assets (assuming no phased recognition of SFA) are $100,000,000, unfunded vested benefits are based on assets of $99,500,000.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Example 2.</I> Plan B, a calendar-year plan, filed an application for special financial assistance under the terms of the interim provisions of this part with an SFA measurement date in plan year 2022 and received a special financial assistance payment of $1,000,000 in 2022. According to the methodology under paragraph (g)(2) of this section and the information submitted in the plan's application under the interim provisions of this part, Plan B is projected to exhaust its special financial assistance assets during plan year 2028. However, Plan B files a supplemented application under this part in 2023 and receives an additional special financial assistance payment of $100,000 in 2024. In Plan B's supplemented application, the plan is projected to exhaust its special financial assistance assets during plan year 2030. Employer R withdraws from Plan B in 2024, which is after Plan B filed a supplemented application. For Employer R: {1} the payment year is 2022; {2} the determination year is 2023; {3} the exhaustion year is 2028; {4} the numerator of the phase-in fraction is 6 (2023 to 2028); {5} the denominator of the phase-in fraction is 7 (2022 to 2028); and {6} the phased in amount is $857,143 ($1,000,000 × 
<FR>6/7</FR>). If total assets (assuming no phased recognition of SFA) are $100,000,000, unfunded vested benefits are based on assets of $99,142,857. Employer S withdraws from Plan B in 2028. For Employer S: {1} the payment year is 2022; {2} the determination year is 2027; {3} the exhaustion year is 2030; {4} the numerator of the phase-in fraction is 4 (2027 to 2030); {5} the denominator of the phase-in fraction is 9 (2022 to 2030); and {6} the phased in amount is $488,889 ($1,100,000 × 
<FR>4/9</FR>). If total assets (assuming no phased recognition of SFA) are $100,000,000, unfunded vested benefits are based on assets of $99,511,111. If, instead of withdrawing in 2024, Employer R withdrew from Plan B in 2023 before Plan B filed its supplemented application, the phase-in condition would not apply and unfunded vested benefits would be based on total assets of $100,000,000.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Example 3.</I> Plan C, a calendar-year plan, filed an application for special financial assistance under this part with an SFA measurement date in plan year 2024 and received a special financial assistance payment of $1,000,000 in 2025. According to the plan's application, Plan C is projected to exhaust its SFA assets during plan year 2024. Accordingly, the payment year is 2025 and the exhaustion year is 2025 (the projected SFA exhaustion year in the application plus 1 year for the difference between the plan year that includes the SFA measurement date and the payment year). Employer T withdraws from Plan C in 2026. For Employer T: {1} the determination year is 2025; {2} the numerator of the phase-in fraction is 1 (2025 to 2025); {3} the denominator of the phase-in fraction is 1 (2025 to 2025); and {4} the phased in amount is $1,000,000 ($1,000,000 × 
<FR>1/1</FR>). If total assets (assuming no phased recognition of SFA) are $100,000,000, unfunded vested benefits are based on assets of $99,000,000.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Example 4.</I> In plan year 2022, Plan D received an SFA payment amount of $50,000,000 (not including the amount paid to PBGC for repayment of traditional financial assistance) and a supplemented SFA payment amount of $30,000,000. A total of $20,000,000 in lump-sum make-up payments were paid by Plan D in plan year 2022. An employer withdraws in 2023. At the end of the determination year (2022), the amount of SFA required to be excluded from assets equals $60,000,000 ($50,000,000 + $30,000,000—$20,000,000). If, instead, the make-up payments were paid by Plan D in plan year 2023, the amount of SFA required to be excluded from assets at the end of the determination year (2022) would equal $80,000,000. Under this scenario, Plan D's unfunded vested benefit liability would be the same at the end of the determination year because the additional $20,000,000 of SFA required to be excluded from assets offsets the $20,000,000 in SFA that the plan still holds for make-up payments but has not yet distributed as of the end of the determination year. Similarly, if the employer withdraws in 2024, the make-up payments were paid in 2023, and the phase-in fraction was 9/10th for 2023, the amount of SFA excluded from the assets at the end of the determination year (2023) would be $54,000,000 (9/10th × $60,000,000), where the $60,000,000 is calculated as the total $80,000,000 in SFA paid to the plan minus the $20,000,000 in make-up payments that were disbursed prior to the end of the determination year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request for exception.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan eligible for special financial assistance may request approval from PBGC for an exception from the conditions under paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section by demonstrating to the satisfaction of PBGC that the exception lessens the risk of loss to plan participants and beneficiaries and does not increase expected employer withdrawals. The plan sponsor must also demonstrate to the satisfaction of PBGC that the exception does not increase the amount of the plan's special financial assistance or unreasonably increase PBGC's risk of loss. A request for PBGC approval of an exception must be submitted by the plan sponsor, or its duly authorized representative, either before an initial application or before a revised application for special financial assistance is filed by the plan, and must contain all of the following identifying, actuarial, and financial information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, email, and telephone number of the plan sponsor and the plan sponsor's authorized representatives, if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) The nine-digit employer identification number (EIN) assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the three-digit plan identification number (PN) assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor, and, if different, the EIN and PN last filed with PBGC. If an EIN or PN has not been assigned, that should be indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) Most recent plan document or restatement of the plan document and all subsequent amendments adopted (if any) and most recent Declaration of Trust.
</P>
<P>(iv) Administrative manuals and other documents governing the plan's assessment or administration of withdrawal liability.
</P>
<P>(v) A copy of the most recent actuarial valuation performed for the plan before the date of the plan's submission of a request for approval under this paragraph (g)(3), and the actuarial valuation performed for each of the 2 plan years immediately preceding the most recent actuarial valuation.
</P>
<P>(vi) A copy of the plan actuary's most recent certification under section 305(b)(3) of ERISA, including a detailed description of the assumptions used in the certification, and the basis under which they were determined. The description must include information about the assumptions used for the projection of future contributions, withdrawal liability payments, and investment returns, and any other assumption that may have a material effect on projections.
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement of whether the plan sponsor is requesting an exception from the condition under paragraph (g)(1) or (2) of this section or both and a demonstration of how the proposed exception lessens the risk of loss to plan participants and beneficiaries and does not increase expected employer withdrawals. The statement must also include a demonstration that the exception does not increase the amount of the plan's special financial assistance or unreasonably increase PBGC's risk of loss.
</P>
<P>(viii) A list of employers contributing greater than 5 percent of plan contributions in a plan year.
</P>
<P>(ix) A certification by the plan's actuary that the amount of special financial assistance that will be requested in the plan's application for special financial assistance will be determined assuming the exception will be approved.
</P>
<P>(x) A detailed statement certified by an enrolled actuary of the effect of the proposed exception, and a demonstration for 30 years that the estimated withdrawal liability payments and contributions with the proposed exception exceed the estimated withdrawal liability payments and contributions without the proposed exception. The demonstration must show an aggregate of all withdrawal liability payments and an aggregate of all contributions for each year in the 30-year period and include representative examples of employer withdrawal liability payments and contributions. An individual employer's withdrawal liability assessment reflecting the proposed exception must be no less than what would be assessed without the proposed exception.
</P>
<P>(xi) Any additional information PBGC determines it needs to review a request for approval of a proposed exception.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Withdrawal liability settlement.</I> (1) During the SFA coverage period, a plan must obtain PBGC approval for a proposed settlement of withdrawal liability if the amount of the liability settled is greater than $50 million calculated as the lesser of—
</P>
<P>(i) The allocation of unfunded vested benefits to the employer under section 4211 of ERISA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The present value of withdrawal liability payments assessed for the employer discounted using the interest assumptions under § 4044.54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) PBGC will approve a proposed settlement of withdrawal liability if it determines—
</P>
<P>(i) Implementation of the settlement is in the best interests of participants and beneficiaries; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The settlement does not create an unreasonable risk of loss to PBGC.
</P>
<P>(3) A request for approval of a proposed settlement of withdrawal liability must be submitted by the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative and must contain all of the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name, address, email, and telephone number of the plan sponsor and the plan sponsor's authorized representatives, if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) The nine-digit employer identification number (EIN) assigned to the plan sponsor by the IRS and the three-digit plan number (PN) assigned to the plan by the plan sponsor, and, if different, the EIN and PN last filed with PBGC. If an EIN or PN has not been assigned, that should be indicated.
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the proposed settlement agreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the facts leading up to the proposed settlement, including—
</P>
<P>(A) The date the employer withdrew from the plan;
</P>
<P>(B) The calculation of the withdrawal liability amount, including payment dates and amounts listed in the schedule for liability payments provided to the withdrawn employer in accordance with section 4219(b)(1)(A) of ERISA;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount(s) and date(s) of withdrawal liability payments made; and
</P>
<P>(D) How the proposed settlement amount was determined (discount rate used, financial condition of the employer, and other factors, as applicable).
</P>
<P>(v) Most recent 3 years of audited financial statements and a 5-year cash flow projection for the employer with which the plan proposes to settle.
</P>
<P>(vi) A copy of the most recent actuarial valuation report of the plan.
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement certifying the trustees have determined that the proposed settlement is in the best interest of the plan and the plan's participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any additional information PBGC determines it needs to review a request for approval of a proposed withdrawal liability settlement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reporting.</I> In accordance with the statement of compliance instructions on PBGC's website at <I>www.pbgc.gov,</I> a plan sponsor must file with PBGC for each plan year, beginning with the plan year in which the plan received payment of special financial assistance and through the last plan year ending in 2051, a statement of compliance with the terms and conditions of the special financial assistance under this part and section 4262 of ERISA as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, a plan's statement of compliance for each plan year must be filed no later than 90 days after the end of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(2) If six months or fewer remain in the plan year after the month that includes the date the plan first received payment of special financial assistance, the first statement of compliance must cover the period from the date the plan received payment of special financial assistance through the last day of the plan year following the plan year in which the plan received payment of special financial assistance, and must be filed no later than 90 days after the end of such plan year.
</P>
<P>(3) Each statement of compliance must be signed and dated by a trustee who is a current member of the board of trustees and authorized to sign on behalf of the board of trustees, or by another authorized representative of the plan sponsor.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Audit.</I> As authorized under section 4003 of ERISA, PBGC may conduct periodic audits of a plan that receives special financial assistance to review compliance with the terms and conditions of the special financial assistance under this part and section 4262 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Filing rules.</I> The filing rules in this paragraph (k) apply to a request for PBGC approval under paragraph (b), (d), (f), or (h) of this section and a statement of compliance under paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Method of filing.</I> A filing described under paragraph (b), (d), (f), (h), or (i) of this section must be made electronically in accordance with the rules in part 4000 of this chapter. The time period for filing a request or statement of compliance must be computed under the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Where to file.</I> A filing described under paragraph (b), (d), (f), (h), or (i) of this section must be submitted as described in § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 41006, July 8, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 4905, Jan. 26, 2023; 88 FR 76664, Nov. 7, 2023; 89 FR 48309, June 6, 2024; 90 FR 39329, Aug. 15, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4262.17" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.38.0.25.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4262.17   Other provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Special financial assistance is not capped by the guarantee under section 4022A of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) A plan that receives special financial assistance must continue to pay premiums due under section 4007 of ERISA for participants and beneficiaries in the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) A plan that receives special financial assistance is deemed to be in critical status within the meaning of section 305(b)(2) of ERISA until the last day of the last plan year ending in 2051.
</P>
<P>(d) A plan that receives special financial assistance and subsequently becomes insolvent under section 4245 of ERISA will be subject to the rules and guarantee for insolvent plans in effect when the plan becomes insolvent.
</P>
<P>(e) A plan that receives special financial assistance is not eligible to apply for a suspension of benefits under section 305(e)(9) of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(f) A plan that receives special financial assistance and meets the eligibility requirements for partition of the plan under section 4233(b) of ERISA may apply for partition.
</P>
<P>(g) If any provision in this part is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision will be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding will be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision will be severable from this part.










</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4281" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4281—DUTIES OF PLAN SPONSOR FOLLOWING MASS WITHDRAWAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1341(a), 1399(c)(1)(D), 1431, and 1441.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34118, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> When a multiemployer plan terminates by mass withdrawal under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA, the plan's assets and benefits must be valued annually under section 4281(b) of ERISA, and plan benefits may have to be reduced or suspended to the extent provided in section 4281 (c) or (d). This part implements the provisions of section 4281 and provides rules for applying for financial assistance from the PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA. The plan valuation rules in this part also apply to the determination of reallocation liability under section 4219(c)(1)(D) of ERISA and subpart B of part 4219 of this chapter for multiemployer plans that undergo mass withdrawal (with or without termination). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to multiemployer plans covered by title IV of ERISA that have terminated by mass withdrawal under section 4041A(a)(2) of ERISA (including plans created by partition pursuant to section 4233 of ERISA). Subpart B of this part also applies to covered multiemployer plans that have undergone mass withdrawal without terminating. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subpart B.</I> Subpart B establishes rules for determining the value of multiemployer plan benefits and assets, including outstanding claims for withdrawal liability, for plans required to perform annual valuations under section 4281(b) of ERISA or allocate unfunded vested benefits under section 4219(c)(1)(D) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subpart C.</I> Subpart C sets forth procedures under which the plan sponsor of a terminated plan shall amend the plan to reduce benefits subject to reduction in accordance with section 4281(c) of ERISA and § 4041A.24(b) of this chapter. Subpart C applies to a plan for which the annual valuation required by § 4041A.24(a) indicates that the value of nonforfeitable benefits under the plan exceeds the value of the plan's assets (including claims for withdrawal liability) if, at the end of the plan year for which that valuation was done, the plan provided any benefits subject to reduction. Benefit reductions required to be made under subpart C shall not apply to accrued benefits under plans or plan amendments adopted on or before March 26, 1980, or under collective bargaining agreements entered into on or before March 26, 1980. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpart D.</I> Subpart D sets forth the procedures under which the plan sponsor of an insolvent plan must suspend benefit payments and issue insolvency notices in accordance with section 4281(d) of ERISA and § 4041A.25 (c) and (d) of this chapter. Subpart D applies to a plan that has been amended under section 4281(c) of ERISA and subpart C of this part to eliminate all benefits subject to reduction and to a plan that provided no benefits subject to reduction as of the date on which the plan terminated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: annuity, employer, ERISA, fair market value, IRS, insurer, irrevocable commitment, mass withdrawal, multiemployer plan, nonforfeitable benefit, normal retirement age, PBGC, person, plan, plan administrator, and plan year. In addition, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Actuarial valuation</I> means a report submitted to a plan of a valuation of plan assets and liabilities that is performed in accordance with subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Available resources</I> means available resources as described in section 4245(b)(3) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Benefits subject to reduction</I> means those benefits accrued under plan amendments (or plans) adopted after March 26, 1980, or under collective bargaining agreements entered into after March 26, 1980, that are not eligible for PBGC's guarantee under section 4022A(b) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Financial assistance</I> means financial assistance from PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvency benefit level</I> means the greater of the resource benefit level or the benefit level guaranteed by PBGC for each participant and beneficiary in pay status. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvency year</I> means insolvency year as described in section 4245(b)(4) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Insolvent</I> means unable to pay benefits when due during the plan year. 
</P>
<P><I>Pro rata</I> means that the required benefit reduction or payment must be allocated among affected participants in the same proportion that each such participant's nonforfeitable benefits under the plan bear to all nonforfeitable benefits of those participants under the plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Reasonably expected to enter pay status</I> means, with respect to plan participants and beneficiaries, persons (other than those in pay status) who, according to plan records, are disabled, have applied for benefits, or have reached or will reach during the applicable period the normal retirement age under the plan, and any others whom it is reasonable for the plan sponsor to expect to enter pay status during the applicable period. 
</P>
<P><I>Resource benefit level</I> means resource benefit level as described in section 4245(b)(2) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P><I>Valuation date</I> means the last day of the plan year in which the plan terminates and the last day of each plan year thereafter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34118, July 1, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 18725, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.3   Filing and issuance rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of filing.</I> Filing with PBGC under this part must be made by a method permitted under the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of issuance.</I> The notices under this part must be issued to participants and beneficiaries by the methods provided in § 4281.32(c) for notices of benefit reductions, § 4281.43(c) for notices of insolvency, and § 4281.45(d) for notices of insolvency benefit level.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing and issuance dates.</I> The date that a filing is sent and the date that an issuance is provided are determined under the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where to file.</I> Filings with PBGC under this part must be made as described in § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Computation of time.</I> The time period for filing or issuance under this part must be computed under the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18725, May 2, 2019]



 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Valuation of Plan Benefits and Plan Assets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.11   Valuation dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual actuarial valuation of mass-withdrawal-terminated plans.</I> The valuation dates for the annual actuarial valuation required under section 4281(b) of ERISA are the last day of the plan year in which the plan terminates and the last day of each plan year thereafter for which an actuarial valuation is required to be performed under § 4041A.24 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Valuations related to mass withdrawal reallocation liability.</I> The valuation date for determining the value of unfunded vested benefits (for purposes of allocation) under section 4219(c)(1)(D) of ERISA is— 
</P>
<P>(1) If the plan terminates by mass withdrawal, the last day of the plan year in which the plan terminates; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If substantially all the employers withdraw from the plan pursuant to an agreement or arrangement to withdraw from the plan, the last day of the plan year as of which substantially all employers have withdrawn from the plan pursuant to the agreement or arrangement. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34118, July 1, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 18725, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.12   Benefits to be valued.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of benefit.</I> The plan sponsor shall determine the form of each benefit to be valued, without regard to the form of benefit valued in any prior year, in accordance with the following rules: 
</P>
<P>(1) If a benefit is in pay status as of the valuation date, the plan sponsor shall value the form of benefit being paid. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a benefit is not in pay status as of the valuation date but a valid election with respect to the form of benefit has been made on or before the valuation date, the plan sponsor shall value the form of benefit so elected. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a benefit is not in pay status as of the valuation date and no valid election with respect to the form of benefit has been made on or before the valuation date, the plan sponsor shall value the form of benefit that, under the terms of the plan or applicable law, is payable in the absence of a valid election. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of benefit.</I> The plan sponsor shall value benefits whose starting date is subject to election—
</P>
<P>(1) By assuming that the starting date of each benefit is the earliest date, not preceding the valuation date, that could be elected; or 
</P>
<P>(2) By using any other assumption that the plan sponsor demonstrates to the satisfaction of the PBGC is more reasonable under the circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.13   Benefit valuation methods—in general.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 4281.16 (regarding plans that are closing out), the plan sponsor must value benefits as of the valuation date by—
</P>
<P>(a) Using the interest assumptions under § 4044.54 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) Using the mortality assumptions under § 4044.53 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(c) Using interpolation methods, where necessary, at least as accurate as linear interpolation; 
</P>
<P>(d) Applying valuation formulas that accord with generally accepted actuarial principles and practices; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Adjusting the values to reflect the loading for expenses in accordance with § 4044.52(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34118, July 1, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 38307, July 16, 1998; 84 FR 18726, May 2, 2019; 89 FR 48309, June 6, 2024; 90 FR 39329, Aug. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4281.14-4281.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4281.14-4281.15   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.16   Benefit valuation methods—plans closing out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> For purposes of the annual valuation required by section 4281(b) of ERISA, the plan sponsor shall value the plan's benefits in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section if,— 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Plans closed out before valuation.</I> Before the time when the valuation is performed, the plan has satisfied in full all liabilities for payment of nonforfeitable benefits, in a manner consistent with the terms of the plan and applicable law, by the purchase of one or more nonparticipating irrevocable commitments from one or more insurers, with respect to all benefits payable as annuities, and by the payment of single-sum cash distributions, with respect to benefits not payable as annuities; or 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plans to be closed out after valuation.</I> As of the time when the valuation is performed, the plan sponsor reasonably expects that the plan will close out before the next annual valuation date and the plan sponsor has a currently exercisable bid or bids to provide the irrevocable commitment(s) described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the total cost of the irrevocable commitment(s) under the bid, plus the total amount of the single-sum cash distributions described in paragraph (a)(1), does not exceed the value of the plan's assets, exclusive of outstanding claims for withdrawal liability, as determined under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Valuation rule.</I> The present value of nonforfeitable benefits under this section is the total amount of single-sum cash distributions made or to be made plus the cost of the irrevocable commitment(s) purchased or to be purchased in order to satisfy in full all liabilities of the plan for nonforfeitable benefits. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.17" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.17   Asset valuation methods—in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The plan sponsor shall value plan assets as of the valuation date, using the valuation methods prescribed by this section and § 4281.18 (regarding outstanding claims for withdrawal liability), and deducting administrative liabilities in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assets other than withdrawal liability claims.</I> The plan sponsor shall value any plan asset (other than an outstanding claim for withdrawal liability) by such method or methods as the plan sponsor reasonably believes most accurately determine fair market value. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustment for administrative liabilities.</I> In determining the total value of plan assets, the plan sponsor shall subtract all plan liabilities, other than liabilities to pay benefits. For this purpose, any obligation to repay financial assistance received from the PBGC under section 4261 of ERISA is a plan liability other than a liability to pay benefits. The obligation to repay financial assistance shall be valued by determining the value of the scheduled payments in the same manner as prescribed in § 4281.18(a) for valuing claims for withdrawal liability. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.18" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.18   Outstanding claims for withdrawal liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Value of claim.</I> The plan sponsor shall value an outstanding claim for withdrawal liability owed by an employer described in paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the schedule of withdrawal liability payments provides for one or more series of equal payments, the plan sponsor shall value each series of payments as an annuity certain in accordance with the provisions of § 4281.13. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the schedule of withdrawal liability payments provides for one or more payments that are not part of a series of equal payments as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the plan sponsor shall value each such unequal payment as a lump-sum payment in accordance with the provisions of § 4281.13. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employers neither liquidated nor in insolvency proceedings.</I> The plan sponsor shall value an outstanding claim for withdrawal liability under paragraph (a) of this section if, as of the valuation date—
</P>
<P>(1) The employer has not been completely liquidated or dissolved; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The employer is not the subject of any case or proceeding under title 11, United States Code, or any case or proceeding under similar provisions of state insolvency laws; except that the claim for withdrawal liability of an employer that is the subject of a proceeding described in this paragraph (b)(2) shall be valued under paragraph (a) of this section if the plan sponsor determines that the employer is reasonably expected to be able to pay its withdrawal liability in full and on time. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims against other employers.</I> The plan sponsor shall value at zero any outstanding claim for withdrawal liability owed by an employer that does not meet the conditions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Benefit Reductions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.31" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.31   Plan amendment.</HEAD>
<P>The plan sponsor of a plan described in § 4281.31 shall amend the plan to eliminate those benefits subject to reduction in excess of the value of benefits that can be provided by plan assets. Such reductions shall be effected by a pro rata reduction of all benefits subject to reduction or by elimination or pro rata reduction of any category of benefit. Benefit reductions required by this section shall apply only prospectively. An amendment required under this section shall take effect no later than six months after the end of the plan year for which it is determined that the value of nonforfeitable benefits exceeds the value of the plan's assets. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.32" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.32   Notices of benefit reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement of notices.</I> A plan sponsor of a multiemployer plan under which a plan amendment reducing benefits is adopted pursuant to section 4281(c) of ERISA shall so notify the PBGC and plan participants and beneficiaries whose benefits are reduced by the amendment. The notices shall be delivered in the manner and within the time prescribed, and shall contain the information described, in this section. The notice required in this section shall be filed in lieu of the notice described in section 4244A(b)(2) of ERISA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When delivered.</I> The plan sponsor shall mail or otherwise deliver the notices of benefit reduction no later than the earlier of— 
</P>
<P>(1) 45 days after the amendment reducing benefits is adopted; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The date of the first reduced benefit payment. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of issuance to participants and beneficiaries.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of issuance of the notice of benefit reduction to participants and beneficiaries. In addition to the methods permitted under subpart B of part 4000, the plan sponsor may notify participants and beneficiaries, other than participants and beneficiaries who are in pay status when the notice is required to be delivered or who are reasonably expected to enter pay status before the end of the plan year after the plan year in which the amendment is adopted, by posting the notice at participants' work sites or publishing the notice in a union newsletter or in a newspaper of general circulation in the area or areas where participants reside. Notice to a participant shall be deemed notice to that participant's beneficiary or beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents of notice to the PBGC.</I> A notice of benefit reduction required to be filed with the PBGC pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the plan sponsor and of the plan sponsor's duly authorized representative, if any. 
</P>
<P>(3) The nine-digit Employer Identification Number (EIN) assigned by the IRS to the plan sponsor and the three-digit Plan Number (PN) assigned by the plan sponsor to the plan, and, if different, the EIN or PN last filed with the PBGC. If no EIN or PN has been assigned, the notice shall so state. 
</P>
<P>(4) The case number assigned by the PBGC to the filing of the plan's notice of termination pursuant to part 4041A, subpart B, of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that a plan amendment reducing benefits has been adopted, listing the date of adoption and the effective date of the amendment. 
</P>
<P>(6) A certification, signed by the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative, that notice of the benefit reductions has been given to all participants and beneficiaries whose benefits are reduced by the plan amendment, in accordance with the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contents of notice to participants and beneficiaries.</I> A notice of benefit reductions required under paragraph (a) of this section to be given to plan participants and beneficiaries whose benefits are reduced by the amendment shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that a plan amendment reducing benefits has been adopted, listing the date of adoption and the effective date of the amendment. 
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of the amendment, including a description of the effect of the amendment on the benefits to which it applies. 
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address, and telephone number of the plan administrator or other person designated by the plan sponsor to answer inquiries concerning benefits. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34118, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61457, Oct. 28, 2003; 84 FR 18726, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.33" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.33   Restoration of benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan that has been amended to reduce benefits under this subpart shall amend the plan to restore those benefits before adopting any amendment increasing benefits under the plan. A plan is not required to make retroactive benefit payments with respect to any benefit that was reduced and subsequently restored in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to the PBGC.</I> The plan sponsor shall notify the PBGC in writing of any restoration under this section. The notice shall include the information specified in § 4281.32 (d)(1) through (d)(4); a statement that a plan amendment restoring benefits has been adopted, the date of adoption, and the effective date of the amendment; and a certification, signed by the plan sponsor or its duly authorized representative, that the amendment has been adopted in accordance with this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Benefit Suspensions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.41" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.4.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.41   Benefit suspensions.</HEAD>
<P>If the plan sponsor determines that the plan is or is expected to be insolvent for a plan year, the plan sponsor shall suspend benefits to the extent necessary to reduce the benefits to the greater of the resource benefit level or the level of guaranteed benefits. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.42" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.4.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.42   Retroactive payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Erroneous resource benefit level.</I> If, by the end of a year in which benefits were suspended under § 4281.41, the plan sponsor determines in writing that the plan's available resources in that year could have supported benefit payments above the resource benefit level determined for that year, the plan sponsor may distribute the excess resources to each affected participant and beneficiary who received benefit payments that year on a pro rata basis. The amount distributed to each participant under this paragraph may not exceed the amount that, when added to benefit payments already made, brings the total benefit for the plan year up to the total benefit provided under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits paid below resource benefit level.</I> If, by the end of a plan year in which benefits were suspended under § 4281.41, any benefit has not been paid at the resource benefit level, amounts up to the resource benefit level that were unpaid shall be distributed to each affected participant and beneficiary on a pro rata basis to the extent possible, taking into account the plan's total available resources in that year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.43" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.4.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.43   Notice of insolvency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement of notice.</I> The plan sponsor of a plan that determines that the plan is insolvent in the current plan year or is expected to be insolvent in the next plan year must file with PBGC a notice of insolvency containing the information described in § 4281.44(a) and issue to plan participants and beneficiaries a notice of insolvency containing the information described in § 4281.44(b). Once notices of insolvency with respect to a plan have been provided as required, no notice of insolvency need be provided with respect to the plan for any subsequent year. A notice of insolvency may be combined with a notice of insolvency benefit level under § 4281.45 for the same plan year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When to provide notice.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the plan sponsor must file or issue the notices of insolvency under paragraph (a) of this section by the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety (90) days before the beginning of the insolvency year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Thirty (30) days after the date the insolvency determination is made.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan sponsor may deliver the notices of insolvency under paragraph (a) of this section to participants and beneficiaries in pay status concurrently with the first benefit payment made after the date the insolvency determination is made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of issuance to participants and beneficiaries.</I> The issuance of the notice of insolvency to participants and beneficiaries must be made by one of the following methods—
</P>
<P>(1) A method permitted under the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For participants and beneficiaries, other than those in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year for which the notice is given, and other than alternate payees, the plan sponsor may post the notice at participants' work sites or publish the notice in a union newsletter or in a newspaper of general circulation in the area or areas where participants reside. Except with respect to an alternate payee, notice to a participant is deemed notice to that participant's beneficiary or beneficiaries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18726, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.44" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.4.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.44   Contents of notice of insolvency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to PBGC.</I> A notice of insolvency required under § 4281.43(a) to be filed with PBGC must contain the information and certification specified in the notice of insolvency instructions on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to participants and beneficiaries.</I> A notice of insolvency required under § 4281.43(a) to be issued to plan participants and beneficiaries must contain all of the following information—
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the plan year for which the plan sponsor has determined that the plan is or is expected to be insolvent.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that benefits above the amount that can be paid from available resources or the level guaranteed by PBGC, whichever is greater, will be suspended during the insolvency year, with a brief explanation of which benefits are guaranteed by PBGC under section 4022A of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address, and telephone number of the plan administrator or other person designated by the plan sponsor to answer inquiries concerning benefits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18726, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.45" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.4.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.45   Notice of insolvency benefit level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement of notice.</I> The plan sponsor of an insolvent plan must file with PBGC a notice of insolvency benefit level containing the information described in § 4281.46(a) and issue to plan payees (which, for purposes of this section, means participants and beneficiaries in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year) a notice of insolvency benefit level containing the information described in § 4281.46(b) in each of the following circumstances—
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for the initial insolvency year and for any insolvency year following the initial insolvency year, if there is a change in insolvency benefit level that affects plan payees generally, provide the notices of insolvency benefit level to PBGC and to plan payees.
</P>
<P>(2) For any insolvency year following the initial insolvency year, if there is a change in the insolvency benefit level that affects only one plan payee or a class of plan payees but not plan payees generally (treating commencement of a person's benefits for this purpose as a change in the insolvency benefit level for that person), provide the notices of insolvency benefit level to PBGC and to each affected plan payee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combined notices.</I> The plan sponsor may combine a notice of insolvency benefit level under this section and a notice of insolvency under § 4281.43 for the same plan year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to provide notice.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the plan sponsor must provide the notices under this section by the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety (90) days before the beginning of the insolvency year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Thirty (30) days after the date the insolvency determination is made.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan sponsor may deliver the notices required under this section to participants and beneficiaries in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year for which the notice is given concurrently with the first benefit payment made after the date the insolvency determination is made.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Method of issuance to participants and beneficiaries.</I> The issuance of the notice of insolvency benefit level to participants and beneficiaries in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year for which the notice is given must be made by a method permitted under the rules in subpart B of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18726, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.46" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.4.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.46   Contents of notice of insolvency benefit level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to PBGC.</I> A notice of insolvency benefit level required by § 4281.45(a) to be filed with PBGC must contain the information and certification specified in the notice of insolvency benefit level instructions on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to participants and beneficiaries in or entering pay status.</I> A notice of insolvency benefit level required by § 4281.45(a) to be delivered to plan participants and beneficiaries in pay status or reasonably expected to enter pay status during the insolvency year must contain all of the following information—
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The insolvency year for which the notice is being sent.
</P>
<P>(3) The monthly benefit that the participant or beneficiary may expect to receive during the insolvency year.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that in subsequent plan years, depending on the plan's available resources, this benefit level may be increased or decreased but not below the level guaranteed by PBGC, and that the participant or beneficiary will be notified in advance of the new benefit level if it is less than the participant's full nonforfeitable benefit under the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) The amount of the participant's or beneficiary's monthly nonforfeitable benefit under the plan.
</P>
<P>(6) The amount of the participant's or beneficiary's monthly benefit that is guaranteed by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(7) The name, address, and telephone number of the plan administrator or other person designated by the plan sponsor to answer inquiries concerning benefits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 18726, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4281.47" NODE="29:9.1.4.22.39.4.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4281.47   Application for financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If the plan sponsor of a plan determines that the plan's resource benefit level for an insolvency year is below the level of benefits guaranteed by PBGC or that the plan will be unable to pay guaranteed benefits when due for any month during the year, the plan sponsor must apply to PBGC for financial assistance pursuant to section 4261 of ERISA. The application must be filed within the time specified under paragraph (b) of this section and must contain the information under paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When, how, and where to apply</I>—(1) <I>Initial application.</I> Except as provided in the next sentence, a plan sponsor must apply for financial assistance no later than 90 days before the first day of the month for which the plan sponsor has determined the resource benefit level will be below the level of guaranteed benefits. If a plan sponsor cannot practicably apply for financial assistance by the date in the preceding sentence, the application must be made as soon as practicable after the plan sponsor has made the determination in the preceding sentence.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Recurring application.</I> A plan sponsor must apply for financial assistance as soon as practicable after the plan sponsor determines that the plan will be unable to pay guaranteed benefits when due for a month.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>How and where to apply.</I> Application to PBGC for financial assistance must be made in accordance with the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter. See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to apply.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of application</I>—(1) <I>Initial application.</I> A plan sponsor applying for financial assistance because the plan's resource benefit level is below the level of guaranteed benefits must file an application that includes the information specified in the instructions for an application for initial financial assistance on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Recurring application.</I> A plan sponsor applying for financial assistance because the plan is unable to pay guaranteed benefits for any month must file an application that includes the information specified in the instructions for an application for recurring financial assistance on PBGC's website (<I>www.pbgc.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional information.</I> PBGC may request any additional information that it needs to calculate or verify the amount of financial assistance necessary as part of the conditions of granting financial assistance pursuant to section 4261 of ERISA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34118, July 1, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 18727, May 2, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="K" NODE="29:9.1.4.23" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER K—MULTIEMPLOYER ENFORCEMENT PROVISIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4302" NODE="29:9.1.4.23.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4302—PENALTIES FOR FAILURE TO PROVIDE CERTAIN MULTIEMPLOYER PLAN NOTICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>28 U.S.C. 2461 note, as amended by sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 599-601; 29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 1452.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 36995, July 10, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4302.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.23.40.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4302.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part specifies the maximum daily amount of penalties for which a person may be liable to the PBGC under ERISA section 4302 for certain failures to provide multiemployer plan notices, as such amount has been adjusted to account for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4302.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.23.40.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4302.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: ERISA, multiemployer plan, and PBGC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4302.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.23.40.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4302.3   Penalty amount.</HEAD>
<P>The maximum daily amount of the penalty under section 4302 of ERISA shall be $365.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 36995, July 10, 1997, as amended at 81 FR 29767, May 13, 2016; 82 FR 8814, Jan. 31, 2017; 83 FR 1556, Jan. 12, 2018; 83 FR 67074, Dec. 28, 2018; 85 FR 2305, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 2542, Jan. 13, 2021; 87 FR 2341, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 1992, Jan. 12, 2023; 89 FR 2133, Jan. 12, 2024; 90 FR 1374, Jan. 8, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="L" NODE="29:9.1.4.24" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER L—INTERNAL AND ADMINISTRATIVE RULES AND PROCEDURES




</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="4901" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4901—DISCLOSURE AND PUBLIC INSPECTION OF PENSION BENEFIT GUARANTY CORPORATION RECORDS




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552, 29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), E.O. 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains PBGC's general rules implementing the Freedom of Information Act. This part sets forth generally the categories of records accessible to the public, types of records subject to prohibitions or restrictions on disclosure, and procedures whereby members of the public may access and inspect PBGC records.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43994, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to terminology in part 4001 of this chapter, as used in this part—
</P>
<P><I>Agency, person, rule, rulemaking, order,</I> and <I>adjudication</I> have the meanings attributed to these terms by the definitions in 5 U.S.C. 551, except where the context demonstrates that a different meaning is intended, and except that for purposes of the Freedom of Information Act the term agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 551 includes any executive department, military department, Government corporation, Government controlled corporation, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government (including the Executive Office of the President) or any independent regulatory agency. 
</P>
<P><I>FOIA</I> means the Freedom of Information Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552). 
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> has the meaning attributed to it by section 552(f)(2) of FOIA.
</P>
<P><I>Working day</I> means any weekday excepting Federal holidays. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 27081, June 8, 2009; 87 FR 43994, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.3   Electronic reading room.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC will maintain an electronic reading room on its website, <I>www.pbgc.gov,</I> where persons may inspect in an electronic format all records made available for such purposes under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 26991, June 13, 2017; as amended at 87 FR 43994, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.4   Information maintained in electronic reading room.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC will make available for public inspection in an electronic format without formal request—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Information published in the</I> <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> <E T="04">Federal Register</E> documents published by PBGC, and <E T="04">Federal Register</E> indexes; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information in PBGC publications.</I> Informational material, such as press releases, pamphlets, and other material ordinarily made available to the public without cost as part of a public information program; 


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rulemaking proceedings.</I> All papers and documents made a part of the official record in administrative proceedings conducted by PBGC in connection with the issuance, amendment, or revocation of rules and regulations or determinations having general applicability or legal effect with respect to members of the public or a class thereof;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other agency proceedings, policies, staff manuals and instructions, and records.</I> Except to the extent that deletion of identifying details is required to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy (in which case PBGC will explain in writing the justification for the deletion)—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Adjudication proceedings.</I> Final opinions, orders, and (except to the extent that an exemption provided by FOIA must be asserted in the public interest to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy or violation of law or to ensure the proper discharge of the functions of PBGC) other papers and documents made a part of the official record in adjudication proceedings conducted by PBGC;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Policy statements and interpretations.</I> Statements of policy and interpretations affecting a member of the public which have been adopted by PBGC and which have not been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Staff manuals and instructions.</I> Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff issued by PBGC that affect any member of the public;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Frequently requested records.</I> Records that have been released under section 552(a)(3) of FOIA and have been the subject of three or more disclosure requests; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other records.</I> Records that have been released under section 552(a)(3) of FOIA and that PBGC determines, because of the nature of the records' subject matter, have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent disclosure requests for substantially the same records; and
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Indexes to certain records.</I> Current indexes (updated at least quarterly) identifying materials described in section 552(a)(2) of FOIA and paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 26991, June 13, 2017; 87 FR 43994, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.1.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.5   Disclosure of other information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Upon the request of any person submitted in accordance with subpart B of this part, the Disclosure Officer will make any document (or portion thereof) from the records of PBGC in the custody of any official of PBGC available for inspection unless PBGC reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption under the provisions of section 552(b) of FOIA and subpart C of this part or disclosure is otherwise prohibited by law. The procedures in subpart B of this part must be used for records that are not made available in PBGC's electronic reading room under § 4901.4 and may be used for records that are available in the electronic reading room. Records are not records of PBGC and are not required to be furnished under FOIA, if they could only be produced by manipulation of existing information (such as computer analyses of existing data), thus creating information not previously in existence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary disclosure.</I> Unless prohibited from disclosure by § 4901.21(a), the Disclosure Officer may make any document (or portion thereof) from the records of PBGC available for inspection if the Disclosure Officer determines that disclosure furthers the public interest and does not impede the discharge of any of the functions of PBGC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43995, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.1.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.6   Filing rules; computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Place, method, and date of filing.</I> (1) For rules about where to file a submission under this part with PBGC, see § 4000.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For rules about permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this part, see § 4000.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) For rules about the date that a submission under this part was filed with PBGC, see subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation of time.</I> For rules about any time period under this part, see subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43995, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedure for Formal Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.11   Submission of requests for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A request to inspect any record subject to this subpart must be submitted in writing to the Disclosure Officer, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, by mail, in-person delivery, or electronic telecommunication in accordance with the FOIA instructions on PBGC's website, <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I> To facilitate processing, “FOIA request” should appear prominently on the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistance with requests.</I> A person who intends to submit or has submitted a request to inspect any record subject to this subpart may at any time seek assistance from a FOIA Public Liaison listed on PBGC's website, <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I> PBGC's FOIA Public Liaisons are responsible for assisting in reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43995, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.12   Description of information requested.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Each disclosure request should reasonably describe the record or records sought in sufficient detail to permit identification and location with a reasonable amount of effort. So far as practicable, the request should specify the subject matter of the record, the place where and date or approximate date when made, the person or office that made it, and any other pertinent identifying details. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deficient descriptions.</I> (1) If the description is insufficient to enable a professional employee familiar with the subject area of the disclosure request to locate the record with a reasonable amount of effort, the Disclosure Officer will notify the requester and, to the extent possible, indicate the additional information required. PBGC will make every reasonable effort to assist a requester in the identification and location of the record or records sought. PBGC will not withhold records merely because of difficulty in finding them.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester who is attempting to modify or reformulate a disclosure request may discuss the request with a FOIA Public Liaison, who is available to assist the requester in reasonably describing the records sought. If the requester fails to reasonably describe the records sought, PBGC's response to the request may be delayed or denied.
</P>
<P>(3) Any amended disclosure request must meet the requirements for a request under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for categories of records.</I> Disclosure requests calling for all records falling within a reasonably specific category will be regarded as reasonably described within the meaning of this section and section 552(a)(3) of FOIA if PBGC is reasonably able to determine which records come within the request and to search for and collect them without unduly interfering with PBGC operations. If PBGC operations would be unduly disrupted, the Disclosure Officer will promptly notify the requester and provide an opportunity to confer in an attempt to reduce the request to manageable proportions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 87 FR 43995, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.13   Receipt by agency of request.</HEAD>
<P>The Disclosure Officer will note the date and time of receipt on each disclosure request for access to records. A disclosure request is deemed received and the period within which PBGC acts on the request, as set forth in § 4901.14, begins on the next working day following receipt, except that a disclosure request is deemed received only if and when PBGC receives all of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A sufficient description under § 4901.12;
</P>
<P>(b) Payment or assurance of payment if required under § 4901.33(b); and
</P>
<P>(c) The requester's consent to pay substantial search, review, and/or duplication charges under subpart D of this part if PBGC determines that such charges may be substantial and so notifies the requester. Consent must be in the form of a statement that charges under subpart D of this part will be acceptable either in any amount or up to a specified amount. To avoid possible delay, a requester may include such a statement in an initial disclosure request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43995, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.14   Action on request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time for action.</I> Promptly and in any event within 20 working days after receipt of a disclosure request (subject to extension under § 4901.16), the Disclosure Officer will take action with respect to each requested item (or portion of an item) under either paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section. Following receipt, PBGC may ask the requester for information once and toll the 20-day period until PBGC receives such information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request granted.</I> If the Disclosure Officer determines that the disclosure request will be granted, PBGC will so advise the requester and will promptly make the records available to the requester. PBGC will accommodate any specification of the preferred form or format for the sought record as stated in the request, if the record is readily reproducible in the preferred form or format.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request denied.</I> If the Disclosure Officer determines that the disclosure request will be denied, PBGC will so advise the requester in writing with a brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including, if applicable, a reference to the specific exemption(s) authorizing the denial and an explanation of how each such exemption applies to the matter withheld.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records not located.</I> If the Disclosure Officer determines that, despite a reasonably calculated search to uncover all relevant documents, the requested records could not be located, PBGC will issue a “no-records” response, and so advise the requester in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Information for requester.</I> Written responses issued under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section will include the name and title of the person(s) responsible for the denial, outline the appeal procedure available, and notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from a PBGC FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43995, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.15   Appeals from denial of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submittal of appeals.</I> A requester may appeal any adverse determination by the Disclosure Officer of a request under FOIA, including a denial of a request for access to records, expedited action, or fee waiver. The requester may file a written appeal within 90 days from the date of the denial or, in the case of a partial denial, 90 days from the date the requester receives the disclosed material. The appeal must include the grounds for appeal and any supporting statements or arguments. The requester must address the appeal to the General Counsel, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, and must submit the appeal by mail, in-person delivery, or electronic telecommunication in accordance with the FOIA instructions on PBGC's website, <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I> To facilitate processing, the words “FOIA appeal” should appear prominently on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Receipt and consideration of appeal.</I> The General Counsel will note the date and time of receipt on each appeal and notify the requester thereof. Within 20 working days after receipt of an appeal (subject to extension under § 4901.16), the General Counsel will issue a decision on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(1) The General Counsel will determine de novo whether the denial of disclosure was in accordance with FOIA and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise ordered by the court, the General Counsel may act on an appeal notwithstanding the pendency of an action for judicial relief in the same matter and, if no appeal has been filed, may treat the pending action as the filing of an appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision on appeal.</I> As to each item (or portion of an item) whose nondisclosure is appealed, the General Counsel will either—
</P>
<P>(1) Grant the appeal and so advise the requester in writing, in which case the records with respect to which the appeal is granted will promptly be made available to the requester; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deny the appeal and so advise the requester in writing with a brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including a reference to the specific exemption(s) authorizing the denial, an explanation of how each such exemption applies to the matter withheld, and notice of the provisions for judicial review in section 552(a)(4) of FOIA. The General Counsel's decision will be the final action of PBGC with respect to the request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records of appeals.</I> Copies of both grants and denials of appeals will be collected in one file available in PBGC's electronic reading room under § 4901.4(d)(1) and indexed under § 4901.4(e). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61358, Oct. 28, 2003; 82 FR 26992, June 13, 2017; 87 FR 43996, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.16   Extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>In unusual circumstances (as described in section 552(a)(6)(B) of FOIA), the time to respond to a disclosure request under § 4901.14(a) or an appeal under § 4901.15(b) may be extended as reasonably necessary to process the request or appeal. The Disclosure Officer will notify the requester in writing within the original time period of the unusual circumstances and the date when a response is expected to be sent. When the extension for a disclosure request exceeds 10 working days, the notice will provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the disclosure request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. This notice will also alert the requester of the availability of a PBGC FOIA Public Liaison for assistance and the Office of Government Information Services for dispute resolution services. The maximum extension for responding to an appeal is 10 working days minus the amount of any extension on the request to which the appeal relates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43996, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.17" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.17   Expedited action on requests and appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Upon a request submitted in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, PBGC will expedite a disclosure request under § 4901.11 or an appeal under § 4901.15 if PBGC determines that the requester has demonstrated one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The disclosure request or appeal involves circumstances in which the lack of expedited action could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual or the loss of an individual's substantial due process rights.
</P>
<P>(2) The requester is primarily engaged in disseminating information and the disclosure request or appeal is urgently needed to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing and method of request.</I> A request for PBGC to expedite a disclosure request or an appeal may be made at any time and must be made by mail, in-person delivery, or electronic telecommunication in accordance with the FOIA instructions on PBGC's website, <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action on request.</I> (1) PBGC will notify the requester within 10 calendar days of receipt of a request for expedited action whether PBGC will expedite a disclosure request or an appeal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request granted.</I> If PBGC determines that the request for expedited action will be granted, PBGC will take action on the disclosure request or the appeal as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request denied.</I> If PBGC determines that the request for expedited action will be denied, PBGC will so advise the requester in writing with a brief statement of the reasons for the denial. The writing will also include the name and title or position of the person(s) responsible for the denial, outline the appeal procedure available, and notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from a PBGC FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services. PBGC will act on any appeal of that decision expeditiously.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43996, July 25, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.18" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.2.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.18   Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>If the Disclosure Officer fails to make a determination to grant or deny access to requested records, or the General Counsel does not make a decision on appeal from a denial of access to PBGC records, within the time prescribed (including any extension) for making such determination or decision, the requester's administrative remedies will be deemed exhausted and the requester may apply for judicial relief under FOIA. However, since a court may allow PBGC additional time to act as provided in FOIA, processing of the disclosure request or appeal will continue and PBGC will so advise the requester.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43997, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Restrictions on Disclosure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.21   Restrictions in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records not disclosable.</I> PBGC will not disclose records to the extent prohibited by section 552(b)(1) or (3) of FOIA, sections 4010 and 4043 of ERISA, or other statutes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records disclosure of which may be refused.</I> Unless prohibited from disclosure by paragraph (a) of this section, PBGC need not but may, as provided in § 4901.5(b), disclose records exempted from FOIA, which include as of August 24, 2022 records under:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 552(b)(2) of FOIA, dealing in general with internal agency personnel rules and practices;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 552(b)(4) of FOIA, dealing in general with trade secrets and commercial and financial information;
</P>
<P>(3) Section 552(b)(5) of FOIA, dealing in general with inter-agency and intra-agency memoranda and letters;
</P>
<P>(4) Section 552(b)(6) of FOIA, dealing in general with personnel, medical, and similar files;
</P>
<P>(5) Section 552(b)(7) of FOIA, dealing in general with records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes;
</P>
<P>(6) Section 552(b)(8) of FOIA, dealing in general with reports on financial institutions; or
</P>
<P>(7) Section 552(b)(9) of FOIA, dealing in general with information about wells.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43997, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.22   Partial disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>If an otherwise disclosable record contains some material that is protected from disclosure, the record will not for that reason be withheld from disclosure if deletion of the protected material is feasible. This principle will be applied in particular to identifying details the disclosure of which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 87 FR 43997, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.23" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.23   Record of concern to agency other than PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>When reviewing a record in response to a disclosure request, PBGC will determine whether another agency is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under FOIA. As to any such record, PBGC will proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Consultation with another agency.</I> When the record contains information of interest to another agency, PBGC will make a release determination only if its interest in the record is the primary interest and only after PBGC consults with that agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referral to another agency.</I> (1) When an agency other than PBGC has primary interest in the record, then PBGC will refer the responsibility for responding to the disclosure request regarding that record to that agency.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever PBGC refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a disclosure request to another agency, PBGC will document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name(s) of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 43997, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.24" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.3.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.24   Special rules for trade secrets and confidential commercial or financial information submitted to PBGC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> To the extent permitted by law, this section applies to a request for disclosure of a record that contains information that has been designated by the submitter in good faith in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section or a record that PBGC has reason to believe contains such information, unless one of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) Access to the information is denied.
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been published or officially made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by law other than FOIA.
</P>
<P>(4) The designation under paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous, except that in such a case PBGC will notify the submitter in writing of a determination to disclose the information within a reasonable time before the disclosure date (which shall be specified in the notice).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation by submitter.</I> To designate information as being subject to this section, the submitter must, at the time of submission or by a reasonable time thereafter, assert that information being submitted is confidential business information and designate, with appropriate markings, the portion(s) of the submission to which the assertion applies. Any designation under this paragraph (b) will expire 10 years after the date of submission unless a longer designation period is requested and reasonable justification is provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to submitter of disclosure request.</I> When disclosure of information subject to this section may be made, the Disclosure Officer or (where disclosure may be made in response to an appeal) the General Counsel will promptly notify the submitter, describing (or providing a copy of) the information that may be disclosed, and afford the submitter a reasonable period of time to object in writing to the requested disclosure. (The notification to the submitter may be oral or written; if oral, it will be confirmed in writing.) When a submitter is notified under this paragraph (c), the requester will be notified that the submitter is being afforded an opportunity to object to disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objection of submitter.</I> A submitter's statement objecting to disclosure must specify all grounds relied upon for opposing disclosure of any portion(s) of the information under section 552(b) of FOIA and, with respect to the exemption in section 552(b)(4), demonstrate why the information is a trade secret or is commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. Facts asserted must be certified or otherwise supported. (Information provided pursuant to this paragraph may itself be subject to disclosure under FOIA.) Any timely objection of a submitter under this paragraph (d) will be carefully considered in determining whether to grant a disclosure request or appeal. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification to submitter of decision to disclose.</I> If the Disclosure Officer or (where disclosure is in response to an appeal) the General Counsel decides to disclose information subject to this section despite the submitter's objections, the Disclosure Officer (or General Counsel) will give the submitter written notice, explaining briefly why the information is to be disclosed despite those objections, describing the information to be disclosed, and specifying the date when the information will be disclosed to the requester. The notification will, to the extent permitted by law, be provided a reasonable number of days before the disclosure date so specified, and a copy will be provided to the requester.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notification to submitter of action to compel disclosure.</I> The Disclosure Officer or the General Counsel will promptly notify the submitter if a requester brings suit seeking to compel disclosure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 87 FR 43997, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.31" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.4.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.31   Charges for services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to the provisions of section 552 of FOIA, as amended, PBGC will assess charges to cover the direct costs of searching for, reviewing, and/or duplicating records requested under FOIA, except where the charges are limited or waived under paragraph (b) or (d) of this section, according to the fee schedule in § 4901.32. No charge will be assessed if the costs of routine collection and processing of the fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no charge for searching (or in the case of a requester described under section 552(a)(4)(A)(ii)(II) of FOIA, for duplication) will be assessed if PBGC has failed to comply with any time limit under section 552(a)(6) of FOIA.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures which PBGC actually incurs in searching for and duplicating (and in the case of commercial requesters, reviewing) documents to respond to a disclosure request under FOIA and this part. Not included in direct costs are overhead expenses such as costs of space, and heating or lighting the facility in which the records are stored.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Search</I> means all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a disclosure request under FOIA and this part, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of materials within a document, if required. Searches may be done manually or by computer using existing programming. Search is distinguishable from “review” which is defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review</I> means the process of examining documents located in response to a disclosure request under FOIA and this part to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted or required to be withheld. It also includes processing any documents for disclosure, <I>e.g.,</I> doing all that is necessary to redact them and otherwise prepare them for release. Review does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Duplication</I> means the process of making a copy of a document necessary to respond to a disclosure request under FOIA and this part, in a form that is reasonably usable by the requester. Copies can take the form of paper copy, audio-visual materials, or electronic records, among others.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Categories of requesters.</I> For purposes of assessing fees, requesters who seek access to records under FOIA and this part are divided into three categories: commercial use requesters, non-commercial scientific or educational institutions or news media requesters, and all other requesters. PBGC will determine the category of a requester and charge fees according to the following rules.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use requesters.</I> (i) When records are requested for commercial use, PBGC will assess charges, as provided in this subpart, for the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought. Fees for search and review may be charged even if the record searched for is not found or if, after it is found, it is determined that the request to inspect it may be denied under section 552(b) of FOIA and this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A “commercial use” request is a request that asks for information for a use or a purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. PBGC's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis dependent upon on the requester's intended use of the information. PBGC will notify requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-commercial scientific or educational institutions, or news media requesters.</I> (i) When records are requested by a non-commercial scientific or educational institution or a news media requester, PBGC will assess charges, as provided in this subpart, for the full direct cost of duplication only, excluding charges for the first 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(ii) A non-commercial scientific institution is an institution that is not operated for a “commercial use” as that term is defined in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(iii) An educational institution is any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. PBGC may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research and PBGC will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) A representative of the news media is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term news means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large, and publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, including news organizations that disseminate solely on the internet. These examples are not intended to be all-inclusive. A “freelance” journalist who demonstrates a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity will be considered as a representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(B) To be eligible for inclusion in this category, the request must not be made for a commercial use. A request for records supporting the news dissemination function of the requester who is a representative of the news media will not be considered to be a request that is for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>All other requesters.</I> When records are requested by requesters who do not fit into any of the categories in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section, PBGC will assess charges, as provided in this subpart, for the full direct cost of searching for and duplicating the records sought, with the exceptions that there will be no charge for the first 100 pages of duplication and the first 2 hours of search time. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, there will be no charge for search time in the event of requests under the Privacy Act of 1974 from subjects of records filed in PBGC's systems of records for the disclosure of records about themselves. Search fees, where applicable, may be charged even if the record sought is not found.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregation of requests.</I> If PBGC reasonably believes that a requester or group of requesters is attempting to break a request down into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, PBGC will aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. In no case will PBGC aggregate multiple requests on unrelated subjects from one requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver or reduction of charges.</I> Circumstances under which any fee listed in § 4901.32 may be waived or reduced are set forth in § 4901.34.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unusual or exceptional circumstances.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, if PBGC fails to comply with a time limit under section 552(a)(6) of FOIA, PBGC may nevertheless assess a charge for search and review services (or in the case of a requester described under section 552(a)(4)(A)(ii)(II), for duplication) if one of the following circumstances applies:
</P>
<P>(1) PBGC has determined that unusual circumstances (as defined in section 552(a)(6)(B) of FOIA) apply, PBGC needs more than 10 additional days to process the disclosure request, and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) PBGC has provided timely written notice of this determination to the requester; and
</P>
<P>(ii) PBGC has discussed with the requester, or made three or more good-faith attempts to do so, via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) PBGC has determined that unusual circumstances (as defined in section 552(a)(6)(B) of FOIA) apply, PBGC has provided timely written notice to the requester of the unusual circumstances extending the time limit by 10 additional days, and PBGC processes the disclosure request within that time.
</P>
<P>(3) A court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist (as defined in section 552(a)(6)(C) of FOIA) and has issued an order excusing PBGC's failure to comply with the time limit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 26992, June 13, 2017; 87 FR 43997, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.32" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.4.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.32   Fee schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Charges for searching and review of records.</I> Charges applicable under this subpart to the search for and review of records will be made according to the following fee schedule:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Search time and review time.</I> For ordinary search services and review services, PBGC charges $54.00 per hour. PBGC charges fees in quarter hour increments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retrieving records stored by NARA.</I> For disclosure requests that require the retrieval of records stored at a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), PBGC charges additional costs in accordance with the Transactional Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charges for duplication of records.</I> Charges applicable under this subpart for obtaining requested copies of records made available for inspection will be made according to the following fee schedule and subject to the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standard copying fee.</I> $0.15 for each page of record copies furnished.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Voluminous material.</I> If the volume of page copy desired by the requester is such that the reproduction charge at the standard page rate would be in excess of $50, the person desiring reproduction may request a special rate quotation from PBGC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Indexes.</I> Pursuant to section 552(a)(2) of FOIA copies of indexes or supplements thereto which are maintained as therein provided but which have not been published will be provided on request at a cost not to exceed the direct cost of duplication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other charges.</I> The scheduled fees, set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, for furnishing records made available for inspection and duplication represent the direct costs of furnishing the copies at the place of duplication. Upon request, single copies of the records will be mailed, postage prepaid, free of charge. Actual costs of transmitting records by special methods such as registered, certified, or special delivery mail or messenger, and of special handling or packaging, if required, will be charged in addition to the scheduled fees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 87 FR 43999, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.33" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.4.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.33   Payment of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Medium of payment.</I> Payment of the applicable fees as provided in this section must be made by check, money order, or other PBGC permitted method, and in accordance with the FOIA instructions on PBGC's website, <I>www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance payment or assurance of payment.</I> Payment or assurance of payment before work is begun or continued on a disclosure request may be required as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Where PBGC estimates or determines that charges allowable under the rules in this subpart, are likely to exceed $250, PBGC may require advance payment of the entire fee or assurance of payment, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Where the requester has a history of prompt payment of fees under this part, PBGC will notify the requester of the likely cost and obtain satisfactory assurance of full payment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the requester has no history of payment for requests made pursuant to FOIA and this part, PBGC may require the requester to make an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged in a timely fashion (<I>i.e.,</I> within 30 days of the date of the billing), PBGC may require the requester to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest as provided in paragraph (c) of this section (or demonstrate that he has, in fact, paid the fee) and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Late payment interest charges.</I> PBGC may assess late payment interest charges on any amounts unpaid by the 31st day after the date a bill is sent to a requester. Interest will be assessed at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date the bill is sent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61358, Oct. 28, 2003; 87 FR 43999, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4901.34" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.41.4.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4901.34   Waiver or reduction of charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Disclosure Officer may waive or reduce fees otherwise applicable under this subpart when disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. A fee waiver or reduction request must set forth full and complete information upon which the request is based.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Disclosure Officer determines that the request for fee waiver or reduction will be denied, the requester will be so advised in writing with a brief statement of the reasons for the denial. The writing will include the name and title or position of the person(s) responsible for the denial, outline the appeal procedure available, and notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from a PBGC FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34123, July 1, 1996, as amended at 87 FR 43999, July 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4902" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4902—DISCLOSURE AND AMENDMENT OF RECORDS PERTAINING TO INDIVIDUALS UNDER THE PRIVACY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a, 29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34128, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4902.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.1   Purpose and Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures.</I> Sections 4902.3 through 4902.7 establish procedures under which—
</P>
<P>(1) An individual may—
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether PBGC maintains any system of records that contains a record pertaining to the individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtain access to the individual's record upon request;
</P>
<P>(iii) Make a request to amend the individual's record; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Appeal a denial of a request to amend the individual's record; and
</P>
<P>(2) PBGC will make an initial determination of a request to amend an individual's record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees.</I> Section 4902.8 prescribes the fees for making copies of an individual's record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privacy Act provisions.</I> Section 4902.9 summarizes the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) provisions for which PBGC claims an exemption for certain systems of records.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions.</I> Sections 4902.10 through 4902.13 set forth those systems of records that are exempted from certain disclosure and other provisions of the Privacy Act, and the reasons for the exemptions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 27081, June 8, 2009, as amended at 84 FR 32619, July 9, 2019; 89 FR 96532, Dec. 5, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to terminology in part 4001 of this chapter, as used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by an agency, including, but not limited to, his or her education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history and that contains his or her name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or a photograph. 
</P>
<P><I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of any agency from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. 
</P>
<P><I>Working day</I> means any weekday excepting Federal holidays.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34128, July 1, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 27081, June 8, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.3   Procedures for determining existence of and requesting access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any individual may submit a request to the Disclosure Officer, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, for the purpose of learning whether a system of records maintained by the PBGC contains any record pertaining to the requestor or obtaining access to such a record. Such a request may be sent to the Disclosure Officer or made in person between the hours of 9 a.m. and 4 p.m. on any working day. Current information on how to make a request, including the Disclosure Officer's mailing address and location, can be obtained on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) Each request submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall include the name of the system of records to which the request pertains and the requester's full name, home address and date of birth, and shall prominently state the words, “Privacy Act Request.” If this information is insufficient to enable the PBGC to identify the record in question, or to determine the identity of the requester (to ensure the privacy of the subject of the record), the disclosure officer shall request such further identifying data as the disclosure officer deems necessary to locate the record or to determine the identity of the requester. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the request is only for notification of the existence of a record and such notification is required under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), the requester shall be required to provide verification of his or her identity to the PBGC as set forth in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(1) If the request is made by mail, the requester shall submit a notarized statement establishing his or her identity. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the request is made in person, the requester shall show identification satisfactory to the disclosure officer, such as a driver's license, employee identification, annuitant identification or Medicare card. 
</P>
<P>(d) The disclosure officer shall respond to the request in writing within 10 working days after receipt of the request or of such additional information as may be required under paragraph (b) of this section. If a request for access to a record is granted, the response shall state when the record will be made available. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34128, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61358, Oct. 28, 2003; 74 FR 27081, June 8, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.4   Disclosure of record to an individual.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the disclosure officer grants a request for access to records under § 4902.3, such records shall be made available when the requester is advised of the determination or as promptly thereafter as possible. At the requester's option, the record will be made available for the requester's inspection and copying at the PBGC, between the hours of 9 a.m. and 4 p.m. on any working day, or a copy of the record will be mailed to the requester. Current information on where the records may be inspected and copied can be obtained on PBGC's Web site, <I>http://www.pbgc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) If the requester desires to be accompanied by another individual during the inspection and/or copying of the record, the requester shall, either when the record is made available or at any earlier time, submit to the disclosure officer a signed statement identifying such other individual and authorizing such other individual to be present during the inspection and/or copying of the record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34128, July 1, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 27082, June 8, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.5   Procedures for requesting amendment of a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any individual about whom the PBGC maintains a record contained in a system of records may request that the record be amended. Such a request shall be submitted in the same manner described in § 4902.3(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) Each request submitted under paragraph (a) of this section shall include the information described in § 4902.3(b) and a statement specifying the changes to be made in the record and the justification therefor. The disclosure officer may request further identifying data as described in § 4902.3(b). 
</P>
<P>(c) An individual who desires assistance in the preparation of a request for amendment of a record shall submit such request for assistance in writing to the Deputy General Counsel, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation. The Deputy General Counsel shall respond to such request as promptly as possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34128, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61358, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.6   Action on request for amendment of a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 20 working days after receipt by the PBGC of a request for amendment of a record under § 4902.5, unless for good cause shown the Director of the PBGC extends such 20-day period, the disclosure officer shall notify the requester in writing whether and to what extent the request shall be granted. To the extent that the request is granted, the disclosure officer shall cause the requested amendment to be made promptly. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a request for amendment of a record is denied in whole or in part, the denial shall include a statement of the reasons therefor, the procedures for appealing such denial, and a notice that the requester has a right to assistance in preparing an appeal of the denial. 
</P>
<P>(c) An individual who desires assistance in preparing an appeal of a denial under this section shall submit a request to the Deputy General Counsel, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation. The Deputy General Counsel shall respond to the request as promptly as possible, but in no event more than 30 days after receipt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34128, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61359, Oct. 28, 2003; 74 FR 27082, June 8, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.7   Appeal of a denial of a request for amendment of a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An appeal from a denial of a request for amendment of a record under § 4902.6 shall be submitted, within 45 days of receipt of the denial, to the General Counsel, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, unless the record subject to such request is one maintained by the Office of the General Counsel, in which event the appeal shall be submitted to the Director or Director's designee, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation. The appeal shall state in detail the basis on which it is made and shall clearly state “Privacy Act Request” on the first page. In addition, the submission shall clearly state “Privacy Act Request” on the envelope (for mail, hand delivery, or commercial delivery), in the subject line (for e-mail), or on the cover sheet (for fax).
</P>
<P>(b) Within 30 working days after the receipt of the appeal, unless for good cause shown the Director of the PBGC extends such 30-day period, the General Counsel or, where appropriate, the Director or Director's designee, shall issue a decision in writing granting or denying the appeal in whole or in part. To the extent that the appeal is granted, the General Counsel or, where appropriate, the Director or Director's designee, shall cause the requested amendment to be made promptly. To the extent that the appeal is denied, the decision shall include the reasons for the denial and a notice of the requester's right to submit a brief statement setting forth reasons for disputing the denial of appeal, to seek judicial review of the denial pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(A), and to obtain further information concerning the provisions for judicial review under that section. 
</P>
<P>(c) An individual whose appeal has been denied in whole or in part may submit a brief summary statement setting forth reasons for disputing such denial. Such statement shall be submitted within 30 days of receipt of the denial of the appeal to the Disclosure Officer. Any such statement shall be made available by the PBGC to anyone to whom the record is subsequently furnished and may also be accompanied, at the discretion of the PBGC, by a brief statement summarizing the PBGC's reasons for refusing to amend the record. The PBGC shall also provide copies of the individual's statement of dispute to all prior recipients of the record with respect to whom an accounting of the disclosure of the record was maintained pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(1). 
</P>
<P>(d) To request further information concerning the provisions for judicial review, an individual shall submit such request in writing to the Deputy General Counsel, who shall respond to such request as promptly as possible. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34128, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61359, Oct. 28, 2003; 74 FR 27082, June 8, 2009; 74 FR 30212, June 25, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.8   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>When an individual requests a copy of his or her record under § 4902.4, charges for the copying shall be made according to the following fee schedule: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Standard copying fee.</I> There shall be a charge of $0.15 per page of record copies furnished. Where the copying fee is less than $1.50, it shall not be assessed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voluminous material.</I> If the volume of page copy desired by the requester is such that the reproduction charge at the standard page rate would be in excess of $50, the individual desiring reproduction may request a special rate quotation from the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manual copying by requester.</I> No charge will be made for manual copying by the requester of any document made available for inspection under § 4902.4. The PBGC shall provide facilities for such copying without charge between the hours of 9 a.m. and 4 p.m. on any working day. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.9   Privacy Act provisions for which PBGC claims an exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Subsections 552a(j) and (k) of title 5, U.S.C., authorize PBGC to exempt systems of records meeting certain criteria from various other subsections of section 552a. This section contains a summary of the Privacy Act provisions for which PBGC claims an exemption for the systems of records discussed in this part pursuant to, and to the extent permitted by, subsections 552a(j) and (k):
</P>
<P>(a) Subsection (c)(3) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to make available to the individual named in the records an accounting of each disclosure of records.
</P>
<P>(b) Subsection (c)(4) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to inform any person or other agency to which a record has been disclosed of any correction or notation of dispute the agency has made to the record in accordance with subsection (d) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Subsections (d)(1) through (4) of 5 U.S.C. 552a require an agency to permit an individual to gain access to records about the individual, to request amendment of such records, to request a review of an agency decision not to amend such records, and to provide a statement of disagreement about a disputed record to be filed and disclosed with the disputed record.
</P>
<P>(d) Subsection (e)(1) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to maintain in its records only such information about an individual that is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose required by statute or executive order of the President.
</P>
<P>(e) Subsection (e)(2) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to collect information to the greatest extent practicable directly from the subject individual when the information may result in adverse determinations about an individual's rights, benefits, and privileges under federal programs.
</P>
<P>(f) Subsection (e)(3) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to inform each person whom it asks to supply information of the authority under which the information is sought, whether disclosure is mandatory or voluntary, the principal purpose(s) for which the information will be used, the routine uses that may be made of the information, and the effects of not providing the information.
</P>
<P>(g) Subsection (e)(4)(G) and (H) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of its procedures whereby an individual can be notified upon request whether the system of records contains information about the individual, how to gain access to any record about the individual contained in the system, and how to contest its content.
</P>
<P>(h) Subsection (e)(5) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to maintain its records with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as is reasonably necessary to ensure fairness to the individual in making any determination about the individual.
</P>
<P>(i) Subsection (e)(8) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to make reasonable efforts to serve notice on an individual when any record on such individual is made available to any person under compulsory legal process when such process becomes a matter of public record.
</P>
<P>(j) Subsection (f) of 5 U.S.C. 552a requires an agency to establish procedures whereby an individual can be notified upon request if any system of records named by the individual contains a record pertaining to the individual, obtain access to the record, and request amendment.
</P>
<P>(k) Subsection (g) of 5 U.S.C. 552a provides for civil remedies if an agency fails to comply with the access and amendment provisions of subsections (d)(1) and (d)(3), and with other provisions of the Privacy Act, or any rule promulgated thereunder, in such a way as to have an adverse effect on an individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 27082, June 8, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.10   Specific exemption: Personnel Security Investigation Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), PBGC hereby exempts the system of records entitled “PBGC-12, Personnel Security Investigation Records” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f), to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to PBGC under an express promise of confidentiality or, before September 27, 1975, under an implied promise of confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reasons for exemption.</I> The reasons for asserting this exemption are to insure the gaining of information essential to determining suitability and fitness for PBGC employment or for work for PBGC as a contractor or as an employee of a contractor, access to information, and security clearances, to insure that full and candid disclosures are obtained in making such determinations, to prevent subjects of such determinations from thwarting the completion of such determinations, and to avoid revealing the identities of persons who furnish information to PBGC in confidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 27082, June 8, 2009, as amended at 89 FR 96532, Dec. 5, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.11   Specific exemptions: Office of Inspector General Investigative File System.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criminal Law Enforcement</I>—(1) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), PBGC hereby exempts the system of records entitled “PBGC-17, Office of Inspector General Investigative File System” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (c)(4), (d)(1) through (4), (e)(1) through (3), (e)(4)(G) and (H), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g) because the system contains information pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasons for exemption.</I> The reasons for asserting this exemption are:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure to the individual named in the record pursuant to subsections (c)(3), (c)(4), or (d)(1) through (4) could seriously impede or compromise the investigation by alerting the target(s), subjecting a potential witness or witnesses to intimidation or improper influence, and leading to destruction of evidence.
</P>
<P>(ii) Application of subsection (e)(1) is impractical because the relevance of specific information might be established only after considerable analysis and as the investigation progresses. Effective law enforcement requires the Office of Inspector General to keep information that may not be relevant to a specific Office of Inspector General investigation, but which may provide leads for appropriate law enforcement and to establish patterns of activity that might relate to the jurisdiction of the Office of Inspector General and/or other agencies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Application of subsection (e)(2) would be counterproductive to performance of a criminal investigation because it would alert the individual to the existence of an investigation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Application of subsection (e)(3) could discourage the free flow of information in a criminal law enforcement inquiry.
</P>
<P>(v) The requirements of subsections (e)(4)(G) and (H), and (f) do not apply because this system is exempt from the provisions of subsection (d). Nevertheless, PBGC has published notice of its notification, access, and contest procedures because access is appropriate in some cases.
</P>
<P>(vi) Although the Office of Inspector General endeavors to maintain accurate records, application of subsection (e)(5) is impractical because maintaining only those records that are accurate, relevant, timely, and complete and that assure fairness in determination is contrary to established investigative techniques. Information that may initially appear inaccurate, irrelevant, untimely, or incomplete may, when collated and analyzed with other available information, become more pertinent as an investigation progresses.
</P>
<P>(vii) Application of subsection (e)(8) could prematurely reveal an ongoing criminal investigation to the subject of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(viii) The provisions of subsection (g) do not apply to this system if an exemption otherwise applies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other Law Enforcement</I>—(1) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), PBGC hereby exempts the system of records entitled “PBGC-17, Office of Inspector General Investigative File System” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1) through (4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) and (H), and (f) for the same reasons as stated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, that is, because the system contains investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of subsection 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasons for exemption.</I> The reasons for asserting this exemption are because the disclosure and other requirements of the Privacy Act could substantially compromise the efficacy and integrity of the Office of Inspector General operations. Disclosure could invade the privacy of other individuals and disclose their identity when they were expressly promised confidentiality. Disclosure could interfere with the integrity of information which would otherwise be subject to privileges (see, e.g., 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(5)), and which could interfere with other important law enforcement concerns (see, e.g., 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal Civilian or Contract Employment</I>—(1) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), PBGC hereby exempts the system of records entitled “PBGC-17, Office of Inspector General Investigative File System” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1) through (4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) and (H), and (f) because the system contains investigatory material compiled for the purpose of determining eligibility or qualifications for federal civilian or contract employment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reason for exemption.</I> The reason for asserting this exemption is to protect from disclosure the identity of a confidential source when an express promise of confidentiality has been given to obtain information from sources who would otherwise be unwilling to provide necessary information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 27082, June 8, 2009, as amended at 89 FR 96532, Dec. 5, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.12   Specific exemptions: Insider Threat and Data Loss Prevention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), PBGC hereby exempts the system of records entitled “PBGC-26, PBGC Insider Threat and Data Loss Prevention” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I) and (f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reasons for exemption.</I> The reasons for asserting the exemption in this section are because the disclosure and other requirements of the Privacy Act could substantially compromise the efficacy and integrity of PBGC's ability to investigate insider threat activities and the improper exfiltration of personally identifiable information. Disclosure could invade the privacy of other individuals and disclose their identity when they were expressly promised confidentiality. Disclosure could interfere with the integrity of information which would otherwise be subject to privileges, see, <I>e.g.,</I> 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(5), and which could interfere with other important law enforcement concerns, see, <I>e.g.,</I> 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 32619, July 9, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 63447, Oct. 8, 2020; 89 FR 96532, Dec. 5, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.13   Specific exemptions: Legal case management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), PBGC hereby exempts the system of records entitled “PBGC-19, Office of Negotiations and Restructuring/Office of General Counsel Case Management System” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reasons for exemption.</I> The reasons for asserting this exemption are because the disclosure and other requirements of the Privacy Act could substantially compromise the efficacy and integrity of PBGC's ability to investigate administrative, civil, or criminal legal matters. Disclosure could invade the privacy of individuals and disclose their identity when they were expressly promised confidentiality. Disclosure could interfere with the integrity of information which would otherwise be subject to legal privileges, see, <I>e.g.,</I> 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(5), and which could interfere with other important law enforcement concerns, see, <I>e.g.,</I> 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 96532, Dec. 5, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4902.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.42.0.25.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4902.14   Filing rules; computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing rules</I>—(1) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file a submission under this part with the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Date of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation of time.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period for filing under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61359, Oct. 28, 2003. Redesignated at 74 FR 27082, June 8, 2009; further redesignated at 84 FR 32619, July 9, 2019; and further redesignated at 89 FR 96532, Dec. 5, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4903" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4903—DEBT COLLECTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5514; 29 U.S.C. 1302(b); 31 U.S.C. 3701-3719, 3720A; 5 CFR part 550, subpart K; 31 CFR part 285; 31 CFR parts 900-904.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 68205, Nov. 5, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.1   What definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in § 4001.2 of this chapter: Code, PBGC, and Person. In addition, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset or offset</I> means withholding funds payable by the United States (including funds payable by the United States on behalf of a state government) to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt owed by the person. The term “administrative offset” can include, but is not limited to, the offset of Federal salary, vendor, retirement, and Social Security benefit payments. The terms “centralized administrative offset” and “centralized offset” refer to the process by which the Treasury Department's Financial Management Service offsets Federal payments through the Treasury Offset Program.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative wage garnishment</I> means the process by which a Federal agency orders a non-Federal employer to withhold amounts from a debtor's wages to satisfy a debt, as authorized by 31 U.S.C. 3720D, 31 CFR 285.11, and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Agency or Federal agency</I> means an executive department or agency; a military department; the United States Postal Service; the Postal Regulatory Commission; any nonappropriated fund instrumentality described in 5 U.S.C. 2105(c); the United States Senate; the United States House of Representatives; any court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the judicial or legislative branches of the Government; or a Government corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means any Federal agency that is owed a debt.
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> means any amount of money, funds or property that has been determined by an appropriate official of the Federal Government to be owed to the United States government, including government-owned corporations, by a person. As used in this part, the term “debt” can include a debt owed to PBGC, but does not include debts arising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means a person who owes a debt to the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent debt</I> means a debt that has not been paid by the date specified in the agency's initial written demand for payment or applicable agreement or instrument (including a post-delinquency payment agreement) unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> has the same meaning as that term is defined in 5 CFR 550.1103.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> or <I>Federal employee</I> means a current employee of PBGC or other Federal agency, including a current member of the uniformed services, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Commissioned Corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commissioned Corps of the Public Health Service, the National Guard, and the reserve forces of the uniformed services.
</P>
<P><I>FCCS</I> means the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 31 CFR parts 900-904.
</P>
<P><I>Financial Management Service (FMS)</I> means the Treasury Department bureau that is responsible for the centralized collection of delinquent debts through the offset of Federal payments and other means.
</P>
<P><I>Payment agency</I> or <I>Federal payment agency</I> means any Federal agency that transmits payment requests in the form of certified payment vouchers, or other similar forms, to a disbursing official for disbursement. The payment agency may be the agency that employs the debtor. In some cases, PBGC may be both the creditor agency and payment agency.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means a type of administrative offset to collect a debt under Section 5514 of Title 5 of the United States Code and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee with or without his or her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Tax debt</I> means a debt arising under the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Tax refund offset</I> means the reduction by the IRS of a tax overpayment payable to a taxpayer by the amount of past-due, legally enforceable debt owed by that taxpayer to a Federal agency pursuant to Treasury regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.2   What do these regulations cover?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This part provides procedures for the collection of debts owed to PBGC, other than those subject to recoupment (29 CFR 4022, subpart E). This part also provides procedures for collection of other debts owed to the United States when a request for offset of a payment, for which PBGC is the payment agency, is received by PBGC from another agency (for example, when a PBGC employee owes a student loan debt to the United States Department of Education).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This part applies to PBGC when collecting a debt owed to PBGC; to persons who owe debts to PBGC; to persons controlled by or controlling persons who owe debts to a Federal agency, and to Federal agencies requesting offset of a payment issued by PBGC as a payment agency (including salary payments to PBGC employees).
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply to debts owed to PBGC being collected through recoupment under subpart E of part 4022 of this chapter. Benefits paid by PBGC generally will not be offset, subject to limited exceptions (e.g., in certain fiduciary breach situations).
</P>
<P>(3) This part does not apply to tax debts, to any debt based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws, nor to any debt for which there is an indication of fraud or misrepresentation, as described in § 900.3 of the FCCS, unless the debt is returned by the Department of Justice to PBGC for handling.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this part precludes the use of other statutory or regulatory authority to collect or dispose of any debt. <I>See,</I> for example, 5 U.S.C. 5705, Advancements and Deductions, which authorizes PBGC to recover travel advances by offset of up to 100 percent of a Federal employee's accrued pay. <I>See, also,</I> 5 U.S.C. 4108, governing the collection of training expenses.
</P>
<P>(5) To the extent that provisions of laws, other regulations, and PBGC enforcement policies differ from the provisions of this part, those provisions of law, other regulations, and PBGC enforcement policies apply to the remission or mitigation of fines, penalties, and forfeitures, and to debts arising under ERISA, rather than the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional policies and procedures.</I> PBGC may, but is not required to, promulgate additional policies and procedures consistent with this part, the FCCS, and other applicable law, policies, and procedures.
</P>
<P>(1) PBGC does not intend this regulation to prohibit PBGC from demanding the return of specific property or the payment of its value.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of PBGC to comply with any provision in this regulation will not serve as a defense to the existence of the debt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duplication not required.</I> Nothing in this part requires PBGC to duplicate notices or administrative proceedings required by contract, this part, or other laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of multiple collection remedies allowed.</I> PBGC and other Federal agencies may simultaneously use multiple collection remedies to collect a debt, except as prohibited by law. This part is intended to promote aggressive debt collection, using for each debt all available and appropriate collection remedies. To provide PBGC with flexibility in determining which remedies will be most efficient in collecting the particular debt, these remedies are not listed in any prescribed order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.3   Do these regulations adopt the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS)?</HEAD>
<P>This part adopts and incorporates all provisions of FCCS. This part also supplements the FCCS by prescribing procedures consistent with FCCS, as necessary and appropriate for PBGC operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.4   What rules apply for purposes of filing with PBGC, determining dates of filings, and computation of time?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How and where to file.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with PBGC under this part. <I>See</I> § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Date of filing.</I> PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with PBGC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Computation of time.</I> PBGC applies the rules of subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures To Collect Debts Owed to PBGC</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.5   What notice will PBGC send to a debtor when collecting a debt owed to PBGC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirements.</I> PBGC will collect debts owed to PBGC. PBGC will promptly send at least one written notice to a debtor informing the debtor of the consequences of failing to pay or otherwise resolve a debt owed to PBGC. The notice(s) will be sent to the debtor at the most current address of the debtor in PBGC's records. Generally, before starting the collection actions described in §§ 4903.6 and 4903.10 through 4903.18 of this part, PBGC will send no more than two written notices to the debtor. The notice will explain why the debt is owed to PBGC, the amount of the debt, how a debtor may pay the debt or make alternate repayment arrangements, how a debtor may review non-privileged documents related to the debt, how a debtor may dispute the debt, the collection remedies available to PBGC if the debtor refuses or otherwise fails to pay the debt, and other consequences to the debtor if the debt is not paid. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the written notice(s) will explain to the debtor:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and amount of the debt, and the facts giving rise to the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) How interest, penalties, and administrative costs are added to the debt, the date by which payment must be made to avoid such charges, and that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with 31 CFR 901.9 (see § 4903.6 of this part);
</P>
<P>(3) The date by which payment should be made to avoid the enforced collection actions described in paragraph (a)(6) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) PBGC's willingness to discuss alternative payment arrangements and how the debtor may enter into a written agreement to repay the debt under terms acceptable to PBGC (<I>see</I> § 4903.7 of this part);
</P>
<P>(5) The name, address, and telephone number of a contact person or office within PBGC;
</P>
<P>(6) PBGC's intention to enforce collection by taking one or more of the following actions if the debtor fails to pay or otherwise resolve the debt:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Offset.</I> Offset the debtor's receipt of Federal payments, including income tax refunds, salary, certain benefit payments (such as Social Security), Federal retirement (<I>i.e.,</I> CSRS or FERS), vendor, travel reimbursements and advances, and other Federal payments (<I>see</I> §§ 4903.11 through 4903.13 of this part);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Private collection agency.</I> Refer the debt to a private collection agency (<I>see</I> § 4903.16 of this part);
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Credit bureau reporting.</I> Report the debt to a credit bureau (<I>see</I> § 4903.15 of this part);
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Administrative wage garnishment.</I> Garnish the debtor's wages through administrative wage garnishment (<I>see</I> § 4903.14 of this part);
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Litigation.</I> Whether PBGC will initiate litigation under 29 U.S.C. 1302 to collect the debt or refer the debt to the Department of Justice to initiate litigation to collect the debt (<I>see</I> § 4903.17 of this part);
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Treasury Department's Financial Management Service.</I> Refer the debt to the Financial Management Service for collection (<I>see</I> § 4903.10 of this part);
</P>
<P>(7) That debts over 180 days delinquent must be referred to the Financial Management Service for the collection actions described in paragraph (a)(6) of this section (<I>see</I> § 4903.10 of this part);
</P>
<P>(8) How the debtor may inspect and copy non-privileged records related to the debt;
</P>
<P>(9) How the debtor may request a review of PBGC's determination that the debtor owes a debt to PBGC and present evidence that the debt is not delinquent or legally enforceable (<I>see</I> §§ 4903.11(c) and 4903.12(c) of this part);
</P>
<P>(10) How a debtor who is an individual may request a hearing if PBGC intends to garnish the debtor's private sector (<I>i.e.,</I> non-Federal) wages (see § 4903.14(a) of this part), including:
</P>
<P>(i) The method and time period for requesting a hearing;
</P>
<P>(ii) That a request for a hearing, timely filed on or before the 15th business day following the date of the mailing of the notice, will stay the commencement of administrative wage garnishment, but not other collection procedures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and address of the office to which the request for a hearing should be sent.
</P>
<P>(11) How a debtor who is an individual and a Federal employee subject to Federal salary offset may request a hearing (<I>see</I> § 4903.13(e) of this part), including:
</P>
<P>(i) The method and time period for requesting a hearing;
</P>
<P>(ii) That a request for a hearing, timely filed on or before the 15th day following receipt of the notice, will stay the commencement of salary offset, but not other collection procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and address of the office to which the request for a hearing should be sent;
</P>
<P>(iv) That PBGC will refer the debt to the debtor's employing agency or to the Financial Management Service to implement salary offset, unless the employee files a timely request for a hearing;
</P>
<P>(v) That a final decision on the hearing, if requested, will be issued at the earliest practicable date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the request for a hearing, unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(vi) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the Federal employee to penalties under the False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3729-3731) or other applicable statutory authority, and criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002, or other applicable statutory authority;
</P>
<P>(vii) That unless prohibited by contract or statute, amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee; and
</P>
<P>(viii) That proceedings with respect to such debt are governed by 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3716.
</P>
<P>(12) How the debtor may request a waiver of the debt, if applicable. <I>See,</I> for example, §§ 4903.6 and 4903.13(f) of this part.
</P>
<P>(13) How the debtor's spouse may claim his or her share of a joint income tax refund by filing Form 8379 with the Internal Revenue Service (<I>see http://www.irs.gov</I>);
</P>
<P>(14) How the debtor may exercise other rights and remedies, if any, available to the debtor under statutory or regulatory authority under which the debt arose.
</P>
<P>(15) That certain debtors and, if applicable, persons controlled by or controlling such debtors, may be ineligible for Federal Government loans, guaranties and insurance, grants, cooperative agreements or other Federal funds (<I>see</I> 28 U.S.C. 3201(e); 31 U.S.C. 3720B, 31 CFR 285.13, and § 4903.18(a) of this part); and
</P>
<P>(16) That the debtor should advise PBGC of a bankruptcy proceeding of the debtor or another person liable for the debt being collected.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions to notice requirements.</I> PBGC may omit from a notice to a debtor one or more of the provisions contained in paragraphs (a)(6) through (a)(16) of this section if PBGC, in consultation with its legal counsel, determines that any provision is not legally required given the collection remedies to be applied to a particular debt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Respond to debtors; comply with FCCS.</I> PBGC should respond promptly to communications from debtors and comply with other FCCS provisions applicable to the administrative collection of debts. <I>See</I> 31 CFR part 901.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.6   How will PBGC add interest, penalty charges, and administrative costs to a debt owed to PBGC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment and notice.</I> PBGC will assess interest, penalties and administrative costs on PBGC debts in accordance with the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3717, 31 CFR 901.9 and other applicable requirements. Administrative costs, including the costs of processing and handling a delinquent debt, will be determined by PBGC. PBGC will explain in the notice to the debtor how interest, penalties, costs, and other charges are assessed, unless the requirements are included in a contract or other legally binding agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver of interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</I> Unless otherwise required by law, regulation, or contract, PBGC will not charge interest if the amount due on the debt is paid within 30 days of the date from which the interest accrues. <I>See</I> 31 U.S.C. 3717(d). To the extent permitted by law, PBGC may waive interest, penalties, and administrative costs, or any portion thereof, in appropriate circumstances consistent with the FCCS.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accrual during suspension of debt collection.</I> In most cases, interest, penalties and administrative costs will continue to accrue during any period when collection has been suspended for any reason (for example, when the debtor has requested a hearing). PBGC may suspend accrual of any or all of these charges in appropriate circumstances consistent with the FCCS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.7" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.7   When will PBGC allow a debtor to pay a debt owed to PBGC in installments instead of a lump sum?</HEAD>
<P>If a debtor is financially unable to pay the debt in a lump sum, PBGC may accept payment of a debt in regular installments, in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR 901.8.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.8" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.8   When will PBGC compromise a debt owed to PBGC?</HEAD>
<P>If PBGC cannot collect the full amount of a debt owed to PBGC, PBGC may compromise the debt in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR part 902.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.9" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.9   When will PBGC suspend or terminate debt collection on a debt owed to PBGC?</HEAD>
<P>If, after pursuing all appropriate means of collection, PBGC determines that a debt owed to PBGC is uncollectible, PBGC may suspend or terminate debt collection activity in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR part 903. Termination of debt collection activity by PBGC does not discharge the indebtedness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.10" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.10   When will PBGC transfer a debt owed to PBGC to the Treasury Department's Financial Management Service for collection?</HEAD>
<P>(a) PBGC will transfer a debt owed to PBGC that is more than 180 days delinquent to the Financial Management Service for debt collection services, a process known as “cross-servicing.” <I>See</I> 31 U.S.C. 3711(g) and 31 CFR 285.12. PBGC may transfer debts owed to PBGC that are delinquent 180 days or less to the Financial Management Service in accordance with the procedures described in 31 CFR 285.12. The Financial Management Service takes appropriate action to collect or compromise the transferred PBGC debt, or to suspend or terminate collection action thereon, in accordance with the statutory and regulatory requirements and authorities applicable to the debt owed to PBGC and the collection action to be taken. See 31 CFR 285.12(b) and 285.12(c)(2). Appropriate action can include, but is not limited to, contact with the debtor, referral of the debt owed to PBGC to the Treasury Offset Program, private collection agencies, or the Department of Justice; reporting of the debt to credit bureaus, and/or administrative wage garnishment.
</P>
<P>(b) At least 60 days prior to transferring a debt owed to PBGC to the Financial Management Service, PBGC will send notice to the debtor as required by § 4903.5 of this part. PBGC will certify to the Financial Management Service that the debt is valid, delinquent, legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection. In addition, PBGC will certify its compliance with all applicable due process and other requirements as described in this part and other Federal laws. See 31 CFR 285.12(i) regarding the certification requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) As part of its debt collection process, the Financial Management Service uses the Treasury Offset Program to collect debts owed to PBGC by administrative and tax refund offset. <I>See</I> 31 CFR 285.12(g). Under the Treasury Offset Program, before a Federal payment is disbursed, the Financial Management Service compares the name and taxpayer identification number (TIN) of the payee with the names and TINs of debtors that have been submitted by Federal agencies and states to the Treasury Offset Program database. If there is a match, the Financial Management Service (or, in some cases, another Federal disbursing agency) offsets all or a portion of the Federal payment, disburses any remaining payment to the payee, and pays the offset amount to the creditor agency. Federal payments eligible for offset include, but are not limited to, income tax refunds, salary, travel advances and reimbursements, retirement and vendor payments, and Social Security and other benefit payments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.11" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.11   How will PBGC use administrative offset (offset of non-tax Federal payments) to collect a debt owed to PBGC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Centralized administrative offset through the Treasury Offset Program.</I> (1) In most cases, the Financial Management Service uses the Treasury Offset Program to collect debts owed to PBGC by the offset of Federal payments. <I>See</I> § 4903.10(c) of this part. If not already transferred to the Financial Management Service under § 4903.10 of this part, PBGC will refer debt over 180 days delinquent to the Treasury Offset Program for collection by centralized administrative offset. <I>See</I> 31 U.S.C. 3716(c)(6); 31 CFR part 285, subpart A; and 31 CFR 901.3(b). PBGC may refer to the Treasury Offset Program for offset any debt owed to PBGC that has been delinquent for 180 days or less.
</P>
<P>(2) At least 60 days prior to referring a debt owed to PBGC to the Treasury Offset Program, in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, PBGC will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 4903.5 of this part. PBGC will certify to the Financial Management Service, that the debt is valid, delinquent, and legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection by offset. In addition, PBGC will certify its compliance with the requirements in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-centralized administrative offset for debts owed to PBGC.</I> (1) When centralized administrative offset through the Treasury Offset Program is not available or appropriate, PBGC may collect past-due, legally enforceable debts owed to PBGC through non-centralized administrative offset. See 31 CFR 901.3(c). In these cases, PBGC may offset a payment internally or make an offset request directly to a Federal payment agency.
</P>
<P>(2) At least 30 days prior to offsetting a payment internally or requesting a Federal payment agency to offset a payment, PBGC will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 4903.5 of this part. When referring a debt owed to PBGC for offset under this paragraph (b), PBGC will certify that the debt is valid, delinquent, and legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection by offset. In addition, PBGC will certify its compliance with these regulations concerning administrative offset. <I>See</I> 31 CFR 901.3(c)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administrative review.</I> The notice described in § 4903.5 of this part will explain to the debtor how to request an administrative review of PBGC's determination that the debtor owes a debt to PBGC and how to present evidence that the debt is not delinquent or legally enforceable. In addition to challenging the existence and amount of the debt owed to PBGC, the debtor may seek a review of the terms of repayment. In most cases, PBGC will provide administrative review based upon the written record, including documentation provided by the debtor. PBGC may provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the debtor requests reconsideration of the debt owed to PBGC, and PBGC determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence. Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing. PBGC will carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing. PBGC may suspend collection through administrative offset and/or other collection actions pending the resolution of a debtor's dispute.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for expedited offset.</I> Under the circumstances described in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4)(iii), PBGC may offset against a payment to be made to the debtor prior to sending a notice to the debtor, as described in § 4903.5 of this part, or completing the procedures described in paragraph (b)(2) and (c) of this section. PBGC will give the debtor notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practicable and promptly refund any money ultimately found not to have been owed to the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.12" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.12   How will PBGC use tax refund offset to collect a debt owed to PBGC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Tax refund offset.</I> In most cases, the Financial Management Service uses the Treasury Offset Program to collect debts owed to PBGC by the offset of tax refunds and other Federal payments. <I>See</I> § 4903.10(c) of this part. If not already transferred to the Financial Management Service under § 4903.10 of this part, PBGC will refer to the Treasury Offset Program any past-due, legally enforceable debt for collection by tax refund offset. <I>See</I> 26 U.S.C. 6402(d), 31 U.S.C. 3720A and 31 CFR 285.2.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> At least 60 days prior to referring a debt owed to the Treasury Offset Program, PBGC will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 4903.5 of this part. PBGC will certify to the Financial Management Service's Treasury Offset Program that the debt is past due and legally enforceable in the amount submitted, and that the PBGC has made reasonable efforts to obtain payment of the debt as described in 31 CFR 285.2(d). In addition, PBGC will certify its compliance with all applicable due process and other requirements described in this part and other Federal laws. <I>See</I> 31 U.S.C. 3720A(b) and 31 CFR 285.2.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administrative review.</I> The notice described in § 4903.5 of this part will provide the debtor with at least 60 days prior to the initiation of tax refund offset to request an administrative review as described in § 4903.11(c) of this part. PBGC may suspend collection through tax refund offset and/or other collection actions pending the resolution of the debtor's dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.13" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.13   How will PBGC offset a Federal employee's salary to collect a debt owed to PBGC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Federal salary offset.</I> (1) Salary offset is used to collect debts owed to the United States or PBGC by Federal employees. If a Federal employee owes PBGC a debt, PBGC may offset the employee's Federal salary to collect the debt in the manner described in this section. For information on how a Federal agency other than PBGC may collect debt from the salary of a PBGC employee, see §§ 4903.21 and 4903.22, subpart C, of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this part requires PBGC to collect a debt in accordance with the provisions of this section if Federal law allows other means to collect. <I>See,</I> for example, 5 U.S.C. 5705 (travel advances not used for allowable travel expenses are recoverable from the employee or his estate by setoff against accrued pay and other means) and 5 U.S.C. 4108 (recovery of training expenses).
</P>
<P>(3) PBGC may use the administrative wage garnishment procedure described in § 4903.14 of this part to collect from an individual's non-Federal wages a debt owed to PBGC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Centralized salary offset through the Treasury Offset Program.</I> As described in § 4903.10(a) of this part, PBGC will refer debts owed to PBGC to the Financial Management Service for collection by administrative offset, including salary offset, through the Treasury Offset Program. When possible, PBGC will attempt salary offset through the Treasury Offset Program before applying the procedures in paragraph (c) of this section. <I>See</I> 5 CFR 550.1108 and 550.1109.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-centralized salary offset for debts owed to PBGC.</I> When centralized salary offset through the Treasury Offset Program is not available or appropriate, PBGC may collect delinquent debts owed to PBGC through non-centralized salary offset. <I>See</I> 5 CFR 550.1109. In these cases, PBGC may offset a payment internally or make a request directly to a Federal payment agency to offset a salary payment to collect a delinquent debt owed to PBGC by a Federal employee. Thirty (30) days prior to offsetting internally or requesting a Federal agency to offset a salary payment, PBGC will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 4903.5 of this part. When referring a debt owed to PBGC for offset, PBGC will certify to the payment agency that the debt is valid, delinquent and legally enforceable in the amount stated, and there are no legal bars to collection by salary offset. In addition, PBGC will certify that all due process and other prerequisites to salary offset have been met. See 5 U.S.C. 5514, 31 U.S.C. 3716(a), and this section for a description of the due process and other prerequisites for salary offset.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When prior notice not required.</I> PBGC is not required to provide prior notice to an employee when the following adjustments are made by PBGC to a PBGC employee's pay:
</P>
<P>(1) Any adjustment to pay arising out of any employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over 4 pay periods or less;
</P>
<P>(2) A routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is made to correct an overpayment of pay attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the 4 pay periods preceding the adjustment, and, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practicable, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and the point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practicable, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administrative review</I>—(1) <I>Request for administrative review.</I> A Federal employee who has received a notice that his or her debt will be collected by means of salary offset may request administrative review concerning the existence or amount of the debt owed to PBGC. The Federal employee also may request administrative review concerning the amount proposed to be deducted from the employee's pay each pay period. The employee must send any request for administrative review in writing to the office designated in the notice described in § 4903.5. <I>See</I> § 4903.5(a)(11). The request must be received by the designated office on or before the 15th day following the employee's receipt of the notice. The employee must sign the request and specify whether an oral hearing is requested. If an oral hearing is requested, the employee must explain why the matter cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence alone. All travel expenses incurred by the Federal employee in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the employee. <I>See</I> 31 CFR 901.3(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to submit timely request for administrative review.</I> If the employee fails to submit a request for administrative review within the time period described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, salary offset may be initiated. However, PBGC may accept a late request for administrative review if the employee can show that the late request was the result of circumstances beyond the employee's control or because of a failure to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reviewing official.</I> PBGC must obtain the services of a reviewing official who is not under the supervision or control of the Director of the PBGC. PBGC may enter into interagency support agreements with other agencies to provide reviewing officials.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of administrative review.</I> After the employee requests administrative review, the designated reviewing official will inform the employee of the form of the review to be provided. For oral hearings, the notice will set forth the date, time and location of the hearing. For determinations based on review of written records, the notice will notify the employee of the date by which he or she should submit written arguments to the designated reviewing official. The reviewing official will give the employee reasonable time to submit documentation in support of the employee's position. The reviewing official will schedule a new hearing date if requested by both parties. The reviewing official will give both parties reasonable notice of the time and place of a rescheduled hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Oral hearing.</I> The reviewing official will conduct an oral hearing if the official determines that the matter cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone. The hearing need not take the form of an evidentiary hearing, but may be conducted in a manner determined by the reviewing official, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Informal conferences (in person or electronically) with the reviewing official, in which the employee and agency representative will be given a reasonable opportunity to present evidence, witnesses and argument;
</P>
<P>(ii) Informal meetings with an interview of the employee by the reviewing official; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Formal written submissions, with an opportunity for oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Determination based on review of written record.</I> If the reviewing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, the official will make the determination based upon a review of the available written record, including any documentation submitted by the employee in support of his or her position. <I>See</I> 31 CFR 901.3(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Failure to appear or submit documentary evidence.</I> In the absence of good cause shown (for example, excused illness), if the employee fails to appear at an oral hearing or fails to submit documentary evidence as required for administrative review, the employee will have waived the right to administrative review, and salary offset may be initiated. Further, the employee will have been deemed to admit the existence and amount of the debt owed to PBGC as described in the notice of intent to offset. If PBGC's representative fails to appear at an oral hearing, the reviewing official will proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and make his or her determination based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentary evidence submitted by both parties.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Burden of proof.</I> PBGC will have the initial burden to prove the existence and amount of the debt owed to PBGC. Thereafter, if the employee disputes the existence or amount of the debt, the employee must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that no such debt exists or that the amount of the debt is incorrect. In addition, the employee may present evidence that the proposed terms of the repayment schedule are unlawful, would cause a financial hardship to the employee, or that collection of the debt may not be pursued due to operation of law.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Record.</I> The reviewing official will maintain a summary record of any hearing provided by this part. Witnesses will testify under oath or affirmation in oral hearings. See 31 CFR 901.3(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Date of decision.</I> The reviewing official will issue a written opinion stating the official's decision, based upon documentary evidence and information developed during the administrative review, as soon as practicable after the review, but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for review was received by PBGC. If the employee (or the parties jointly) requests a delay in the proceedings, the deadline for the decision may be postponed by the number of days by which the review was postponed. When a decision is not timely rendered, PBGC will waive interest and penalties applied to the debt owed to PBGC for the period beginning with the date the decision is due and ending on the date the decision is issued.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Content of decision.</I> The written decision will include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the facts presented to support the origin, nature, and amount of the debt owed to PBGC;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reviewing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The terms of any repayment schedules, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Final agency action.</I> The reviewing official's decision will be final.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiver not precluded.</I> Nothing in this part precludes an employee from requesting waiver of an overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 32 U.S.C. 716, or other statutory authority. PBGC may grant such waivers when it would be against equity and good conscience or not in the United States' best interest to collect such debts, in accordance with those authorities, 5 CFR 550.1102(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Salary offset process</I>—(1) <I>Determination of disposable pay.</I> PBGC will implement salary offset when requested to do so by PBGC, as described in paragraph (c) of this section, or another agency, as described in § 4903.21 of this part. If the debtor is not employed by PBGC, the agency employing the debtor will determine the amount of the employee's disposable pay and will implement salary offset upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When salary offset begins.</I> Deductions will begin within three official pay periods following receipt of the creditor agency's request for offset or after a decision has been issued following a request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amount of salary offset.</I> The amount to be offset from each salary payment will be up to 15 percent of a debtor's disposable pay, subject to the requirements of 15 U.S.C. 1673, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the disposable pay, such debt generally will be collected in a lump sum payment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Installment deductions will be made over a period of no greater than the anticipated period of employment. An installment deduction will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount, or the creditor agency has determined that smaller deductions are appropriate based on the employee's ability to pay.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Final salary payment.</I> After the employee has separated either voluntarily or involuntarily from the payment agency, the payment agency may make a lump sum deduction exceeding 15 percent of disposable pay from any final salary or other payments pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 in order to satisfy a debt owed to PBGC.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Payment agency's responsibilities.</I> (1) As required by 5 CFR 550.1109, if the employee separates from the payment agency from which PBGC has requested salary offset, the payment agency must certify the total amount of its collection and notify PBGC and the employee of the amounts collected. If the payment agency knows that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement Fund and Disability Fund, the Federal Employee Retirement System, or other similar payments, it must provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt to PBGC, the amount of the debt, and that PBGC has complied with the provisions of this section. PBGC must submit a properly certified claim to the agency responsible for making such payments before the collection can be made.
</P>
<P>(2) If the employee is already separated from employment and all payments due from his or her former payment agency have been made, PBGC may request that money due and payable to the employee from the Civil Service Retirement Fund and Disability Fund, the Federal Employee Retirement System, or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the debt. Generally, PBGC will collect such monies through the Treasury Offset Program as described in § 4903.10(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) When an employee transfers to another agency, PBGC should resume collection with the employee's new payment agency in order to continue salary offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.14" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.14   How will PBGC use administrative wage garnishment to collect a debt owed to PBGC from a debtor's wages?</HEAD>
<P>(a) PBGC is authorized to collect debts owed to PBGC from an individual debtor's wages by means of administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11. This part adopts and incorporates all of the provisions of 31 CFR 285.11 concerning administrative wage garnishment, including the hearing procedures described in 31 CFR 285.11(f). PBGC may use administrative wage garnishment to collect a delinquent debt unless the debtor is making timely payments under an agreement to pay the debt in installments (<I>see</I> § 4903.7 of this part). Thirty (30) days prior to initiating an administrative wage garnishment, PBGC will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 4903.5 of this part, including the requirements of § 4903.5(a)(10) of this part. For debts referred to the Financial Management Service under § 4903.10 of this part, PBGC may authorize the Financial Management Service to send a notice informing the debtor that administrative wage garnishment will be initiated and how the debtor may request a hearing as described in § 4903.5(a)(10) of this part. If a debtor makes a timely request for a hearing, administrative wage garnishment will not begin until a hearing is held and a decision is sent to the debtor. PBGC will determine whether the matter requires an oral hearing or if a determination based upon review of the written record is sufficient. PBGC will provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when it determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved by a review of the documentary evidence. <I>See</I> 31 CFR 285.11(f)(1)-(4). Even if a debtor's hearing request is not timely, PBGC may suspend collection by administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR 285.11(f)(5). All travel expenses incurred by the debtor in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the debtor.
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not apply to Federal salary offset, the process by which PBGC collects debts owed to PBGC from the salaries of Federal employees (<I>see</I> § 4903.13 of this part).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.15" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.15   How will PBGC report debts owed to PBGC to credit bureaus?</HEAD>
<P>PBGC will report delinquent debts owed to PBGC to credit bureaus in accordance with the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3711(e), 31 CFR 901.4, and the Office of Management and Budget Circular A-129, “Policies for Federal Credit Programs and Non-tax Receivables.” At least 60 days prior to reporting a delinquent debt to a consumer reporting agency, PBGC will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 4903.5 of this part. PBGC may authorize the Financial Management Service to report to credit bureaus those delinquent debts owed to the PBGC that have been transferred to the Financial Management Service under § 4903.10 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.16" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.16   How will PBGC refer debts owed to PBGC to private collection agencies?</HEAD>
<P>PBGC will transfer delinquent debts owed to PBGC to the Financial Management Service to obtain debt collection services provided by private collection agencies. See § 4903.10 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.17" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.17   When will PBGC refer debts owed to PBGC to the Department of Justice?</HEAD>
<P>PBGC may initiate litigation pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 1302 with delinquent debts on which aggressive collection activity has been taken in accordance with this part and that should not be compromised, and on which collection activity should not be suspended or terminated. Alternatively, PBGC may refer debts owed to PBGC having a principal balance over $100,000, or such higher amount as authorized by the Attorney General, to the Department of Justice for approval of any compromise of a debt or suspension or termination of collection activity. See §§ 4903.8 and 4903.9 of this part; 31 CFR 902.1, 903.1, and part 904. PBGC may authorize the Financial Management Service to refer to the Department of Justice for litigation those delinquent debts that have been transferred to the Financial Management Service under § 4903.10 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.18" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.18   Will a debtor who owes a debt to PBGC or another Federal agency, and persons controlled by or controlling such debtors, be ineligible for Federal loan assistance, grants, cooperative agreements, or other sources of Federal funds?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Delinquent debtors are ineligible for and barred from obtaining Federal loans or loan insurance or guaranties. As required by 31 U.S.C. 3720B and 31 CFR 901.6, PBGC will not extend financial assistance in the form of a loan, loan guarantee, or loan insurance to any person delinquent on a debt owed to a Federal agency. PBGC may issue standards under which it may determine that persons controlled by or controlling such delinquent debtors are similarly ineligible in accordance with 31 CFR 285.13(c)(2). This prohibition does not apply to disaster loans. PBGC may extend credit after the delinquency has been resolved. <I>See</I> 31 CFR 285.13.
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not apply to loans provided to multi-employer pension plans pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 1431, 29 CFR 4261.1 and 4281.47.
</P>
<P>(c) A debtor who has a judgment lien against the debtor's property for a debt to the United States is not eligible to receive grants, loans or funds directly or indirectly from the United States until the judgment is paid in full or otherwise satisfied. This prohibition does not apply to funds to which the debtor is entitled as beneficiary. PBGC may promulgate regulations to allow for waivers of this ineligibility. <I>See</I> 28 U.S.C. 3201(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.19" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.19   How does a debtor request a special review based on a change in circumstances such as catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Material change in circumstances.</I> A debtor who owes a debt to PBGC may, at any time, request a special review by PBGC of the amount of any offset, administrative wage garnishment, or voluntary payment, based on materially changed circumstances beyond the control of the debtor such as, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inability to pay.</I> For purposes of this section, in determining whether an involuntary or voluntary payment would prevent the debtor from meeting essential subsistence expenses (e.g., costs incurred for food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care), the debtor must submit a detailed statement and supporting documents for the debtor, his or her spouse, and dependents, indicating:
</P>
<P>(1) Income from all sources;
</P>
<P>(2) Assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Liabilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Number of dependents;
</P>
<P>(5) Expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;
</P>
<P>(6) Medical expenses;
</P>
<P>(7) Exceptional expenses, if any; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional materials and information that PBGC may request relating to ability or inability to pay the amount(s) currently required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative payment arrangement.</I> If the debtor requests a special review under this section, the debtor must submit an alternative proposed payment schedule and a statement to PBGC, with supporting documents, showing why the current offset, garnishment or repayment schedule imposes an extreme financial hardship on the debtor. PBGC will evaluate the statement and documentation and determine whether the current offset, garnishment, or repayment schedule imposes extreme financial hardship on the debtor. PBGC will notify the debtor in writing of such determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset, garnishment, or payment schedule. If the special review results in a revised offset, garnishment, or repayment schedule, PBGC will notify the appropriate Federal agency or other persons about the new terms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.20" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.2.25.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.20   Will PBGC issue a refund if money is erroneously collected on a debt?</HEAD>
<P>PBGC will promptly refund to a debtor any amount collected on a debt owed to PBGC when the debt is waived or otherwise found not to be owed to the United States, or as otherwise required by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Offset of PBGC Payments To Collect Debts Owed to Other Federal Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.21" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.21   How do other Federal agencies use the offset process to collect debts from payments issued by PBGC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Offset of PBGC payments to collect debts owed to other Federal agencies.</I> (1) In most cases, Federal agencies submit debts to the Treasury Offset Program to collect delinquent debts from payments issued by PBGC and other Federal agencies, a process known as “centralized offset.” When centralized offset is not available or appropriate, any Federal agency may ask PBGC (when acting as a “payment agency”) to collect a debt owed to such agency by offsetting funds payable to a debtor by PBGC, including salary payments issued to PBGC employees. This section and § 4903.21 of this subpart C apply when a Federal agency asks PBGC to offset a payment issued by PBGC to a person who owes a debt to the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart C does not apply to debts owed to PBGC. <I>See</I> §§ 4903.11 through 4903.13 of this part for offset procedures applicable to debts owed to PBGC.
</P>
<P>(3) This subpart C does not apply to the collection of non-PBGC debts through tax refund offset. See 31 CFR 285.2 for tax refund offset procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) Benefits paid by PBGC generally will not be offset, subject to limited exceptions (e.g., in certain fiduciary breach situations).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative offset (including salary offset); certification.</I> PBGC will initiate a requested offset only upon receipt of written certification from the creditor agency that the debtor owes the past-due, legally enforceable debt in the amount stated, and that the creditor agency has fully complied with all applicable due process and other requirements contained in 31 U.S.C. 3716, 5 U.S.C. 5514, and the creditor agency's regulations, as applicable. Offsets will continue until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved to the satisfaction of the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where a creditor agency makes requests for offset.</I> Requests for offset under this section must be sent to PBGC, ATTN: Chief Financial Officer, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20024-2101.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Incomplete certification.</I> PBGC will return an incomplete debt certification to the creditor agency with notice that the creditor agency must comply with paragraph (b) of this section before action will be taken to collect a debt from a payment issued by PBGC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review.</I> PBGC is not authorized to review the merits of the creditor agency's determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>When PBGC will not comply with offset request.</I> PBGC will comply with the offset request of another agency unless PBGC determines, in consultation with that agency, that the offset would not be in the best interests of the United States, or would otherwise be contrary to law.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Multiple debts.</I> When two or more creditor agencies are seeking offsets from payments made to the same person, or when two or more debts are owed to a single creditor agency, PBGC may determine the order in which the debts will be collected or whether one or more debts should be collected by offset simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Priority of debts owed to PBGC.</I> For purposes of this section, debts owed to PBGC generally take precedence over debts owed to other agencies. PBGC may determine whether to pay debts owed to other agencies before paying a debt owed to PBGC. PBGC will determine the order in which the debts will be collected based on the best interests of the United States.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 68205, Nov. 5, 2010, as amended at 87 FR 57825, Sept. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4903.22" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.43.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4903.22   What does PBGC do upon receipt of a request to offset the salary of a PBGC employee to collect a debt owed by the employee to another Federal agency?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to a PBGC employee.</I> When PBGC receives proper certification of a debt owed by one of its employees, PBGC will send a written notice to the employee indicating that a certified debt claim has been received from the creditor agency, the amount of the debt claimed to be owed by the creditor agency, the date deductions from salary will begin, and the amount of such deductions. PBGC will begin deductions from the employee's pay at the next officially established pay interval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of deductions from a PBGC employee's salary.</I> The amount deducted under § 4903.21(b) of this part will be the lesser of the amount of the debt certified by the creditor agency or an amount up to 15 percent of the debtor's disposable pay so long as that amount does not exceed limitations imposed by 15 U.S.C. 1673. Deductions will continue until PBGC knows that the debt is paid in full or until otherwise instructed by the creditor agency. Alternatively, the amount offset may be an amount agreed upon, in writing, by the debtor and the creditor agency. <I>See</I> § 4903.13(g) (salary offset process).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When the debtor is no longer employed by PBGC</I>—(1) <I>Offset of final and subsequent payments.</I> If a PBGC employee retires or resigns or if his or her employment ends before collection of the debt is complete, PBGC will continue to offset, under 31 U.S.C. 3716, up to 100 percent of an employee's subsequent payments until the debt is paid or otherwise resolved. Such payments include a debtor's final salary payment, lump-sum leave payment, and other payments payable to the debtor by PBGC. <I>See</I> 31 U.S.C. 3716 and 5 CFR 550.1104(l) and 550.1104(m).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice to the creditor agency.</I> If the employee is separated from PBGC before the debt is paid in full, PBGC will certify to the creditor agency the total amount of its collection. If PBGC knows that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, Federal Employee Retirement System, or other similar payments, PBGC will provide written notice to the agency making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that the provisions of 5 CFR 550.1109 have been fully complied with. The creditor agency is responsible for submitting a certified claim to the agency responsible for making such payments before collection may begin. Generally, creditor agencies will collect such monies through the Treasury Offset Program as described in § 4903.10(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice to the debtor.</I> PBGC will provide to the debtor a copy of any notices sent to the creditor agency under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When the debtor transfers to another Federal agency</I>—(1) <I>Notice to the creditor agency.</I> If the debtor transfers to another Federal agency before the debt is paid in full, PBGC will notify the creditor agency and will certify the total amount of its collection on the debt. PBGC will provide a copy of the certification to the creditor agency. The creditor agency is responsible for submitting a certified claim to the debtor's new employing agency before collection may begin.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice to the debtor.</I> PBGC will provide to the debtor a copy of any notices and certifications sent to the creditor agency under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for hearing official.</I> PBGC will provide a hearing official upon the creditor agency's request with respect to a PBGC employee. <I>See</I> 5 CFR 550.1107(a).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4905" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4905—APPEARANCES IN CERTAIN PROCEEDINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b); E.O. 11222, 30 FR 6469; 5 CFR 735.104.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34133, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4905.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.44.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4905.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part sets forth the rules and procedures to be followed when a PBGC employee or former employee is requested or served with compulsory process to appear as a witness or produce documents in a proceeding in which the PBGC is not a party, if such appearance arises out of, or is related to, his or her employment with the PBGC. It provides a centralized decisionmaking mechanism for responding to such requests and compulsory process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies when, in a judicial, administrative, legislative, or other proceeding, a PBGC employee or former employee is requested or served with compulsory process to provide testimony concerning information acquired in the course of performing official duties or because of official status and/or to produce material acquired in the course of performing official duties or contained in PBGC files.
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Proceedings in which the PBGC is a party;
</P>
<P>(ii) Congressional requests or subpoenas for testimony or documents; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Appearances by PBGC employees in proceedings that do not arise out of, or relate to, their employment with PBGC (e.g., outside activities that are engaged in consistent with applicable standards of ethical conduct).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4905.2" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.44.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4905.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Appearance</I> means testimony or production of documents or other material, including an affidavit, deposition, interrogatory, declaration, or other required written submission. 
</P>
<P><I>Compulsory process</I> means any subpoena, order, or other demand of a court or other authority (e.g., an administrative agency or a state or local legislative body) for the appearance of a PBGC employee or former employee.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any officer or employee of the PBGC, including a special government employee. 
</P>
<P><I>Proceeding</I> means any proceeding before any federal, state, or local court; federal, state, or local agency; state or local legislature; or other authority responsible for administering regulatory requirements or adjudicating disputes or controversies, including arbitration, mediation, and other similar proceedings. 
</P>
<P><I>Special government employee</I> means an employee of the PBGC who is retained, designated, appointed or employed to perform, with or without compensation, for not to exceed one hundred and thirty days during any three hundred and sixty-five consecutive days, temporary duties either on a full-time or intermittent basis (18 U.S.C. 202). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4905.3" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.44.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4905.3   General.</HEAD>
<P>No PBGC employee or former employee may appear in any proceeding to which this part applies to testify and/or produce documents or other material unless authorized under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4905.4" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.44.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4905.4   Appearances by PBGC employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a PBGC employee or former employee is requested or served with compulsory process to appear in a proceeding to which this part applies, he or she will promptly notify the General Counsel. 
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel or his or her designee will authorize an appearance by a PBGC employee or former employee if, and to the extent, he or she determines that such appearance is in the interest of the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(1) In determining whether an appearance is in the interest of the PBGC, the General Counsel or his or her designee will consider relevant factors, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) What, if any, objective of the PBGC (and, where relevant, any federal agency, if the United States is a party) would be promoted by the appearance; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the appearance would unnecessarily interfere with the employee's official duties; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the appearance would result in the appearance of improperly favoring one litigant over another; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the appearance is appropriate under applicable substantive and procedural rules. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the General Counsel or his or her designee concludes that compulsory process is essentially a request for PBGC record information, it will be treated as a request under the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, in accordance with part 4901 of this chapter, except to the extent that the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, and part 4902 of this chapter govern disclosure of a record maintained on an individual. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, in response to compulsory process in a proceeding to which this part applies, the General Counsel or his or her designee has not authorized an appearance by the return date, the employee or former employee shall appear at the stated time and place (unless advised by the General Counsel or his or her designee that process either was not validly issued or served or has been withdrawn), accompanied by a PBGC attorney, produce a copy of this part of the regulations, and respectfully decline to provide any testimony or produce any documents or other material. When the demand is under consideration, the employee shall respectfully request that the court or other authority stay the demand pending the employee's receipt of instructions from the General Counsel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4905.5" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.44.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4905.5   Requests for authenticated copies of PBGC records.</HEAD>
<P>The PBGC will grant requests for authenticated copies of PBGC records, for purposes of admissibility under 28 U.S.C. 1733 and Rule 44 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, for records that are to be disclosed pursuant to this part or part 4901 of this chapter. Appropriate fees will be charged for providing authenticated copies of PBGC records, in accordance with part 4901, subpart D, of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4905.6" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.44.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4905.6   Penalty.</HEAD>
<P>A PBGC employee who testifies or produces documents or other material in violation of a provision of this part of the regulations shall be subject to disciplinary action. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4906" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4906 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4907" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4907—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE PENSION BENEFIT GUARANTY CORPORATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794, 1302(b)(3). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 34134, July 1, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4907.101" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part effectuates section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.102" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.103" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices. 
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination. 
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property. 
</P>
<P><I>Handicapped person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P>As used in this definition, the phrase: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term “physical or mental impairment” includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in subparagraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P><I>Historic preservation programs</I> means programs conducted by the agency that have preservation of historic properties as a primary purpose. 
</P>
<P><I>Historic properties</I> means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified handicapped person</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to preschool, elementary, or secondary education services provided by the agency, a handicapped person who is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive education services from the agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; 
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other program or activity, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Qualified handicapped person is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 4907.140. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), and the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs. 
</P>
<P><I>Substantial impairment</I> means a significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4907.104-4907.109" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4907.104-4907.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.110" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.110   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, by August 24, 1987, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written). 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, until three years following the completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspection: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified, and 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.111" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4907.112-4907.129" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4907.112-4907.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.130" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap— 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified handicapped person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified handicapped person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped persons or to any class of handicapped persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service. 
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities. 
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude handicapped persons from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap. 
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to handicapped persons or the exclusion of a specific class of handicapped persons from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to a different class of handicapped persons is not prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified handicapped persons. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4907.131-4907.139" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4907.131-4907.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.140" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally-conducted programs or activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4907.141-4907.148" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4907.141-4907.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.149" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.149   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 4907.150, no qualified handicapped person shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.150" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.150   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by handicapped persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require the agency to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 4907.150(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historic preservation programs.</I> In meeting the requirements of § 4907.150(a) in historic preservation programs, the agency shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to handicapped persons. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of § 4907.150 (a)(2) or (a)(3), alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—
</P>
<P>(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigning persons to guide handicapped persons into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Adopting other innovative methods. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section by October 21, 1986, except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made by August 22, 1989, but in any event as expeditiously as possible. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, by February 23, 1987 a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to handicapped persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.151" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.151   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4907.152-4907.159" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4907.152-4907.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.160" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public. 
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford a handicapped person an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the handicapped person. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf person (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility. 
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 4907.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4907.161-4907.169" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4907.161-4907.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4907.170" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4907.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Equal Opportunity Manager shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Where to file.</I> See § 4000.4 of this chapter for information on where to file complaints under this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart A of part 4000 of this chapter to determine permissible methods of filing with the PBGC under this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Date of filing.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart C of part 4000 of this chapter to determine the date that a submission under this part was filed with the PBGC. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Computation of time.</I> The PBGC applies the rules in subpart D of part 4000 of this chapter to compute any time period under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity. 
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), is not readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing— 
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal. 
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 4907.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency. 
</P>
<P>(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 34134, July 1, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 61359, Oct. 28, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4907.171-4907.999" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.46.0.25.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4907.171-4907.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4908" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4908 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4909" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.48" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4909—OMB CONTROL NUMBERS FOR PBGC INFORMATION COLLECTION REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 1302(b)(3), 5 CFR part 1320.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 39329, Aug. 15, 2025; 90 FR 40973, Aug. 22, 2025, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4909.1" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.48.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4909.1   Information Collection Control Numbers.</HEAD>
<P>PBGC regulations that contain information collections requirements without corresponding written or electronic forms, questionnaires, or instructions are displayed in table 1 to this section. They are displayed along with their respective control numbers as assigned by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 4909.1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Regulation(s) and information collection title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB


<br/>control No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4062, Liability for Termination of Single-Employer Plans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0017
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4204, Variances for Sale of Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4231, Mergers and Transfer Between Multiemployer Plans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0022
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4203, Extension of Special Withdrawal Liability Rules</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4220, Procedures for PBGC Approval of Plan Amendments</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0031
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4219, Notice, Collection, and Redetermination of Withdrawal Liability</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0034
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4211, Allocating Unfunded Vested Benefits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0035
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4208, Reduction or Waiver of Partial Withdrawal Liability</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0039
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4207, Reduction or Waiver of Complete Withdrawal Liability</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0044
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4003, Administrative Appeals (Employers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4003, Filings for Reconsiderations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0063
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parts 4041 and 4042, Disclosure of Information in Distress and PBGC-Initiated Termination Information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0065
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Part 4233, Partitions of Eligible Multiemployer Plans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1212-0068</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4910-4999" NODE="29:9.1.4.24.49" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 4910-4999 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV2>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
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